2, P < 0.05).","Practice variation in the primary care treatment of depression may be considerable in the Netherlands, due to relatively small and unregulated practices. We adapted the collaborative care model for the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) to accommodate existing practice variation and tested whether this had added value over Care as Usual (CAU). A cluster randomized controlled trial was conducted to compare an adapted target driven collaborative care model with Care as Usual (CAU). Randomization was at the level of 18 (sub)urban primary care centers. The care manager and GP were supported by a web-based tracking and decision aid system that advised targeted treatment actions to achieve rapid response and if possible remission, and that warned the consultant psychiatrist if such treatment advice was not followed up. Eligible patients had a score of 10 or higher on the PHQ9, and met diagnostic criteria for major depression at the subsequent MINI Neuropsychiatric interview. A total of 93 patients were identified by screening. They received either collaborative care (CC) or CAU. Another 56 patients received collaborative care after identification by the GP. The outcome measures were response to treatment (50% or greater reduction of the PHQ9-total score from baseline) at three, six, nine and twelve months, and remission (a score of 0-4 on the PHQ9 at follow-up). Treatment response and remission in CAU were low. Collaborative care was more effective on achieving treatment response than CAU at three months for the total group of patients who received collaborative care [OR 5.2 ((1.41-16.09), NNT 2] and at nine months [OR 5.6 ((1.40-22.58)), NNT 3]. The effect was not statistically significant at 6 and 12 months.","yes. This is the first study to estimate the prevalence of clinically diagnosed AS in primary and secondary care simultaneously, indicating that only one-third of patients are managed in rheumatology. This has important ramifications for health care planning and indicates a large 'silent' proportion of patients who may have serious pathology and would benefit from additional assessment in a specialist clinic.","To compare the utilization of health care resources and patterns of chronic disease care by patients of medical residents and patients of their attending physicians. This study involved a longitudinal cohort of 14,554 patients seen over a 1-year period by 149 residents and 36 attendings located in an urban academic medical center. Data were acquired prospectively through a practice management system used to order tests, write prescriptions, and code ambulatory visits. We assessed resource utilization by measuring the total direct costs of care over a 1-year period, including ambulatory and inpatient costs, and the numbers and types of resources used. Residents' patients were similar to attendings' patients in age and gender, but residents' patients were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare and to have a higher burden of comorbidity. Total annual ambulatory care costs were almost 60% higher for residents' patients than for attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, and 30% higher in analyses adjusted for differences in case mix (adjusted mean 888 dollars vs 750 dollars; P=.0001). The primary cost drivers on the outpatient side were consultations and radiological procedures. Total inpatient costs were almost twice as high for residents' patients compared to attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, but virtually identical in analyses adjusted for case mix differences (adjusted mean of 849 dollars vs 860 dollars). Admission rates were almost double for residents' patients. Total adjusted costs for residents' patients were slightly, but not significantly, higher than for attendings' patients (adjusted mean 1,651 dollars vs 1,540 dollars; P>.05). Residents' and attendings' patients generally did not differ in the patterns of care for diabetes, asthma/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, ischemic heart disease, and depression, except that residents' patients with asthma/COPD, ischemic heart disease, and diabetes were admitted more frequently than attendings' patients.","Improving Access to Psychological Therapies (IAPT) is a new programme designed to reduce disease burden to the individual and economic burden to the society of common mental health problems (CMHP). This is the first study to look at the impact of IAPT on health service utilisation and sickness absence using routine data. The authors used pseudonymised secure and privately linked (SAPREL) routinely collected primary, secondary care and clinic computer data from two pilot localities. The authors explored antidepressant prescribing, accident and emergency and outpatients attendances, inpatient stays, bed days, and sick certification. The authors compared the registered population with those with CMHP. The authors then made a 6 months before and after comparison of people referred to IAPT with age-sex and practice-matched controls. People with CMHP used more health resources than those without CMHP: more prescriptions of antidepressants 5.25 (95% CI 5.38 to 5.13), inpatient episodes 4.89 (95% CI 5.0 to 4.79), occupied bed days 1.25 (95% CI 0.95 to 1.55), outpatient 1.5 (95% CI 1.40 to 1.63) and emergency department attendances 0.34 (95% CI 0.31 to 0.37), and medical certificates 0.29 (95% CI 0.26 to 0.32). Comparison of service utilisation 6 months before and after referral to IAPT was associated with reduced use of emergency department attendances (mean difference: 0.12 (95% CI 0.06 to 0.19, p<0.001)). However, the number of prescriptions of antidepressants increased mean difference -0.15 (95% CI 0.02-0.29, p=0.028).","To estimate the relative importance to patients of continuity of care compared with other aspects of a primary care consultation. We carried out a discrete choice experiment in Leicestershire and London on a stratified random sample of 646 community dwelling adults taken from general practitioner (GP) registers, plus 20 interviews with Punjabi, Urdu and Gujarati speakers. The attributes examined were: the type of professional consulted, relational continuity, informational continuity and access. Individuals' values changed according to their reason for making a primary care consultation. If consulting for minor familiar symptoms, individuals would be prepared to trade off one extra day's wait to see a GP rather than a nurse, 0.9 days for relational continuity, and 1.6 days for informational continuity. If consulting for a new condition they were uncertain about, they would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 2.4 days for relational continuity and 3.9 days for informational continuity. For a routine check-up, an individual would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 4.2 days for relational continuity and 7.8 days for informational continuity.","Based on this natural experiment we were not able to document statistically significant differences in total costs between treatment sites that had guidelines recommending pharmacogenetic testing, relative to sites without such guidelines, over a period of one year. However, guidelines of pharmacogenetic testing and possibly also therapeutic drug monitoring seem to lead to reductions in costs for primary care services. In the case of the former, reductions do, however, seem to be outweighed by increases in costs for psychiatric and non-psychiatric inpatient stays. In conclusion, no statistically significant differences in total direct costs across sites with different treatment strategies were found.","Managed care, increased disease severity, and more complex treatment options may be reasons for the recent enthusiasm for \"hospitalists\"--physicians who specialize in the care of inpatients. It is not clear, however, whether hospitalism is a new model for caring for inpatients or merely a new description for previously existing practice patterns. The proportion of physician visits occurring in the hospital before the introduction of the term hospitalists. Five specialties were examined: family/general practice, general internal medicine, cardiology, gastroenterology, and pulmonology. 1994 Medicare Part B claims data for beneficiaries 65 years of age and older who received all of their care in Washington State. For the average family/general practitioner, 10% of all Medicare visits occurred in the hospital. Corresponding figures for the other specialties were 20% for general internists, 36% for cardiologists, 38% for gastroenterologists, and 45% for pulmonologists. A substantial number of physicians devoted most of their Medicare effort to inpatient care (i.e., hospital visits>50% of total visits). If this definition were used as a proxy for hospitalism, 4% of family/general practitioners, 10% of general internists, 20% of gastroenterologists, 29% of cardiologists, and 37% of pulmonologists would have been considered hospitalists in Washington State during 1994. On the other hand, 35% of family/general practitioners, 18% of general internists, 7% of both gastroenterologists and pulmonologists, and 4% of cardiologists did not bill Medicare for any inpatient visits and could reasonably be categorized as \"officists.\"","The degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was variable. Agreement was very poor for variables like inflammatory back pain, which are crucial for the diagnosis of Spa. Training programs for primary care physicians are important in order for them to correctly identify early Spa patients.","yes. Almost all primary care referrals included the required details as per recent HIQA guidelines. The further inclusion of optional information relating to patient social or functional status, which are of particular relevance to the older population may help patient management.","Resident work hour restrictions and changes in reimbursement may lead to an adverse effect on the continuity of care of a patient after discharge. This study analyzes whether adding a nurse practitioner (NP) to a busy inpatient surgery service would improve patient care after discharge. In 2007, a NP joined a team of 3 surgery attendings. She coordinated the discharge plan and communicated with patients after discharge. We reviewed the records of patients 1 year before (N = 415) and 1 year after (N = 411) the NP joined the team. The discharge courses of the patients were reviewed, and an unnecessary emergency room (ER) visit was defined as an ER visit that did not result in an inpatient admission. The 2 groups were statistically similar with regard to age, race, acuity of the operation, duration of hospital stay, and hospital readmissions. Telephone communication between nurses and discharged patients was 846 calls before the NP and 1,319 calls after the NP, representing an increase of 64% (P < .0001). Visiting nurse, physical therapy, or occupational therapy services were rendered to only 25% of patients before the NP compared to 39% after (P < .0001). There were more unnecessary ER visits before the NP (103/415; 25%) compared to after (54/411; 13%) (P = .001).","yes. Surgical conditions are the most common reason for admissions at three primary referral hospitals in rural Mozambique. These data suggest that surgical care is a major component of health care delivered at primary referral hospitals in Mozambique and likely other sub-Saharan African countries.","Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.","This study found that liaison psychiatrists were able to fulfil a useful role in an OH department. Most of the cases seen within the department would not be classed as serious mental illness and therefore it is unlikely that community mental health teams would become involved in their routine care. Specialist mental health support from an 'in house' service is likely to be of considerable benefit from both occupational and medical perspectives.","yes. This program resulted in shortened stays and more primary care use. There was no increase in infant urgent primary care utilization. Early discharge programs that incorporate and reimburse for enhanced ambulatory services may be safe for infants; these findings should not be extrapolated to mandatory reduced LOS initiatives without enhancement of care.","Timing of referral to subspecialists may be a major determinant for access to adequate treatment. Kidney transplantation is the preferred modality of renal replacement therapy (RRT) in children. In adults, delayed referral from general physicians to nephrologists reduced access to kidney transplantation. This study investigated the association between timing of referral and the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation in children. In this retrospective study, all patients in a tertiary paediatric nephrology centre were grouped according to first paediatric nephrologist visit (< or = 3 months prior to RRT was defined as 'late referral (LR)') and modality of first RRT. Descriptive, correlation and contingency statistics, Pearson's chi(2) test and logistic regression techniques were used for analysis. The median duration of nephrologists pre-RRT care of 111 children (50 girls and 61 boys; aged 8.0 years at first referral) was 1.5 (range 0-17.5) years. Thirty-two of 84 children who had their first visit >3 months prior to RRT were pre-emptively transplanted (38%), but only three of the 27 children with LR (11%; OR 4.9; 95% CI 1.37 to 17.7). Using a threshold of 12 months, the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation was still significantly influenced by timing of referral (OR 2.5; 95% CI 1.06 to 5.91).","yes. Patients, GPs and consultants have positive views on the value of referrals from primary care to medical specialists. Patients were most positive if the physician had initiated the referral, which supports the gate keeper role of the GP.","This study shows the importance of evaluating any changes in care delivery. The direct referral policy has reduced the time it takes for women to be seen in the colposcopy department following an abnormal smear.","We aimed to classify patients with heart failure (HF) by the style of primary care they receive. We used the claim data ( Système National d'Information Inter-Régime de l'Assurance Maladie) of patients living in a French region. We evaluated three concepts. First, baseline clinical status with age and Charlson index. Second, primary care practice style with mean delay between consultations, quantity of nursing care, and variability of diuretic dose. Third, clinical outcomes with death during follow-up, readmission for HF, and rate of unforeseen consultations. The baseline clinical status and the clinical outcomes were included to give an insight in the reasons for, and performance of, primary care practice style. Patients were classified using a hierarchical ascending classification based on principal components. A total of 2,751 patients were included in this study and were followed for a median of 22 months. The mean age was 78 y (SD: 12); 484 (18%) died, and 818 (30%) were readmitted for HF. We found three different significant groups characterized by their need for care and the intensity of practice style: group 1 (N = 734) was \"low need-low intensity\"; group 2 (N = 1,060) was \"high need-low intensity\"; and group 3 (N = 957) was \"high need-high intensity\". Their readmission rates were 17%, 41% and 28%, respectively.","To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.","Home hospital is advocated in many western countries in spite of limited evidence of its economic advantage over usual hospital care. Heart failure and community-acquired pneumonia are two medical conditions which are frequently targeted by home hospital programs. While recent trials were devoted to comparisons of safety and costs, the acceptance of home hospital for patients with these conditions remains poorly described. To document the medical eligibility and final transfer decision to home hospital for patients hospitalized with a primary diagnosis of heart failure or community-acquired pneumonia. Longitudinal study of patients admitted to the medical ward of acute care hospitals, up to the final decision concerning their transfer. Medical departments of one university hospital and two regional teaching Swiss hospitals. All patients admitted over a 9 month period to the three settings with a primary diagnosis of heart failure (n= 301) or pneumonia (n=441). Presence of permanent exclusion criteria on admission; final decision of (in)eligibility based on medical criteria; final decision regarding the transfer, taking into account the opinions of the family physician, the patient and informal caregivers. While 27.9% of heart failure and 37.6% of pneumonia patients were considered to be eligible from a medical point of view, the program acceptance by family physicians, patients and informal caregivers was low and a transfer to home hospital was ultimately chosen for just 3.8% of heart failure and 9.6% of pneumonia patients. There were no major differences between the three settings.","This secondary quantitative analysis provides evidence for an association between difficulty in accessing in-hours care and use of out-of-hours primary care services. The findings can motivate the development of interventions to improve in-hour access.","Care by Design™ (CBD) (Canada), a model of coordinated team-based primary care, was implemented in long-term care facilities (LTCFs) in Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada, to improve access to and continuity of primary care and to reduce high rates of transfers to emergency departments (EDs). This was an observational time series before and after the implementation of CBD (Canada). Participants are LTCF residents with 911 Emergency Health Services calls from 10 LTCFs, representing 1424 beds. Data were abstracted from LTCF charts and Emergency Health Services databases. The primary outcome was ambulance transports from LTCFs to EDs. Secondary outcomes included access (primary care physician notes in charts) and continuity (physician numbers and contacts). After implementation of CBD (Canada), transports from LTCFs to EDs were reduced by 36%, from 68 to 44 per month (P = .01). Relational and informational continuity of care improved with resident charts with ≥10 physician notes, increasing 38% before CBD to 55% after CBD (P = .003), and the median number of chart notes increased from 7 to 10 (P = .0026). Physicians contacted before 911 calls and onsite assessment increased from 38% to 54% (P = .01) and 3.7% to 9.2% (P = .03), respectively, before CBD to after CBD.","To evaluate the degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists when evaluating the referral criteria in patients with suspected early spondyloarthropathy (Spa). Patients with suspected early Spa (according to predefined clinical referral criteria) were sent by primary care physicians to early Spa units (where a rheumatologist evaluated the same criteria and confirmed the diagnosis) through an on-line platform. We assessed the agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria among patients with definitive Spa using the kappa index (k). Eight hundred and two patients were analysed, 8.31% of whom were incorrectly referred to the rheumatologist. The degree of agreement regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was poor for inflammatory back pain (k=0,16; 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0,09-0,23), radiographic sacroiliitis (k=0,31; 95% CI 0,211-0,428), back or joint pain (k=0,21; 95% CI 0,14-0,29); mild for asymmetric arthritis (k=0,51; 95% CI 0,43-0,59), positive HLA B27 (k=0,59; 95% CI 0,52-0,67) and family history (k=0,50; 95% CI 0,415-0,604); and it was good or very good for anterior uveitis (k=0,81; 95% CI 0,68-0,93), inflammatory bowel disease (k=0,87; 95% CI 0,79-0,96) and psoriasis (k=0,73; 95% CI 0,65-0,81),.","For the first time in German-speaking countries, this study provides evidence for the effectiveness of acute day hospital treatment as compared to conventional inpatient treatment. If detailed eligibility criteria for patients are used as defined here, approximately 30 % of the general psychiatric patients in need of acute hospital-based treatment may be cared for in this special mode of day hospital service provision.","This study examined whether depressed patients treated exclusively in primary care report less need for care and less acceptability of treatment options than those depressed patients treated in the specialty mental health setting after up to 6 months of treatment. Cross-sectional study. Forty-five community primary care practices. A total of 881 persons with major depression who had received mental health services in the previous 6 months and who enrolled in 3 of the 4 Quality Improvement for Depression Collaboration Studies. Patients were categorized into 1 of 2 groups: 1) having received mental health services exclusively from a primary care provider (45%), or 2) having received any services from a mental health specialist (55%) in the previous 6 months. Compared with patients who received care from mental health specialists, patients who received mental health services exclusively from primary care providers had 2.7-fold the odds (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.6 to 4.4) of reporting that no treatment was definitely acceptable and had 2.4-fold the odds (95% CI, 1.5 to 3.9) of reporting that evidence-based treatment options (antidepressant medication) were definitely not acceptable. These results were adjusted for demographic, social/behavioral, depression severity, and economic factors using multiple logistic regression analysis.","Previous U.S. studies suggest that the incremental (\"marginal\") use of the aggressive approach to care for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in patients differing only in their distance to hospitals offering aggressive care may be associated with small mortality benefits. We hypothesized that the marginal benefits should be larger in Canada, as the country is operating on a lower margin because the approach to care is more conservative overall. This retrospective study used administrative data of hospital admissions and health services for all patients admitted for a first AMI in Quebec in 1988 (n = 8,674). We used differential distances to hospitals offering aggressive care as instrumental variables when measuring mortality up to four years after AMI. Of the 4,422 subjects who were>or = 65 years old, 11 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days after admission. In a previous study that applied similar methodology to the 1987 U.S. Medicare population, 23 percent of subjects received catheterization within 90 days. As in the U.S. study, we found that subjects living closer to hospitals offering aggressive care were more likely to receive aggressive care than subjects living further away (26 percent versus 19 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days; 95 percent CI: 5 percent to 9 percent). Unlike the U.S. study, we found no differences in mortality across the \"close\" versus \"far\" differential distance groups (unadjusted differences at one year: 1 percent; 95 percent CI: -1 percent to 3 percent). This absence of association held in elderly (>or = 65 years) and younger age groups. Adjusted results also showed no differences between subjects receiving aggressive versus conservative care (at one year: 4 percent; 95 percent CI: -11 percent to 20 percent).","A significant number of children require brief hospitalisation for relatively minor illness, but unnecessary delays caused by administrative aspects of hospital admission and relatively infrequent inpatient review by medical staff often lengthen the period of admission. Significant cost savings are possible with the use of a short stay facility, and a large number of patients are suitable for this form of care.","yes. People with CMHP use more healthcare resources. Referral to the IAPT programme is associated with a subsequent reduction in emergency department attendances, sickness certification and improved adherence to drug treatment.","Optimizing human resources at trauma facilities may increase quality of care. The purpose of this study was to assess whether staffing changes within a Level I trauma center improved mortality and shortened length of stay (LOS) for trauma patients. Mortality, hospital LOS, and intensive care unit LOS were evaluated during three time periods: trauma service coverage by in-house general surgery residents and attendings (\"group 1\"), the creation of a core trauma panel with in-house trauma surgeons (\"group 2\"), and the addition of physician assistants (PAs) to the core trauma panel (\"group 3\"). Logistic regression and chi tests were used to compare mortalities, and multiple linear regression, t-tests, and median tests were used to compare LOS. There were 15,297 adult patients with trauma included in the analysis. After adjustment for transfers-in, mechanism of injury, injury severity score, age, and head injury, the presence of in-house trauma surgeons (group 2) decreased the following compared with group 1: overall mortality (3.12% vs. 3.82%, p = 0.05), mortality in the severely injured (11.41% vs. 14.83%, p = 0.02), and median intensive care unit LOS (3.03 days vs. 3.40 days, p = 0.006). The introduction of PAs to the core trauma panel (group 3 vs. group 2) decreased overall mortality (2.80% vs. 3.76%, p = 0.05), and reduced mean and median hospital LOS (4.32 days vs. 4.69 days, p = 0.05; and 3.74 days vs. 3.88 days, p = 0.02, respectively).","A simple message that challenges consumers to think about whether the ED is truly more convenient and that provides a simple mechanism for finding out whether a trip to the ED is necessary (primary care practice contact) holds promise as a mechanism to reduce ED use for those who have ready access to primary care.","The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.","The IHC experience demonstrates that mental health services can be effectively integrated into everyday practice in a primary care setting. Clinical and financial burden can be decreased for the health care team, patients, and family.","Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).","Reporting unmet health care needs or no family physician have more of an impact on the use of alternative therapies than wait lists do. The evidence is not clear as to whether alternative care is sometimes used as a substitute to conventional care rather than a complement.","The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).","To investigate the quality of information in referrals for patients aged under 16 years referred for dental extraction under general anaesthesia (GA), to ascertain the knowledge and expectations of the parents of these patients, and to determine whether the number of teeth extracted in secondary care coincides with that of the referring dentist. Retrospective study of referrals of all patients aged under 16 years referred to community dental clinics in Berkshire, Buckinghamshire, Northamptonshire and Oxfordshire over a 26-day period. The majority (62.2%) of the 251 referrals examined were for extractions under GA. Of these, 125 were by letter and 117 using a pro forma. Significantly more pro formas (33) than letters (8) contained a full medical history (P<0.001). A treatment plan was included in significantly more pro formas (76) than letters (49) (P<0.01). Few referrals contained a note about the discussion of alternatives to a GA procedure and only 37% (58/156) of parents reported that the referring general dental practitioner had discussed alternative treatments with them. A total of 551 primary teeth were indicated for removal but 846 teeth were eventually removed.","To evaluate agreement between independent clinician raters using a triage protocol to prioritize referrals for occupational therapy and physiotherapy within a community rehabilitation program. The priority category allocated to consecutive referrals by one of six clinicians in the referral office was compared with a second rating made by an independent occupational therapist, blinded to the initial priority rating. A centralized referral office staffed by allied health and nursing professionals designed as a single point of access for sub acute and ambulatory services within a large metropolitan health network. 214 referrals for adults requiring community based occupational therapy or physiotherapy rehabilitation for orthopaedic, neurological or other conditions (such as falls or cardio-respiratory conditions). Agreement (weighted kappa = κ(w)) between the two ratings. Overall agreement was moderate (κ(w) = 0.60), but disagreement occurred in 30% of cases. Professional discipline of the raters did not affect agreement. Agreement varied between diagnostic subgroups, with significantly lower agreement for referrals for rehabilitation following elective orthopaedic surgery (κ(w) = 0.25) than the other categories combined. Differences in agreement were observed between the four triage categories, with the lowest observed agreement in the most urgent category.","To identify the impact of in-reach services providing specialist nursing care on outcomes for older people presenting to the emergency department from residential aged care. Retrospective cohort study compared clinical outcomes of 2278 presentations from 2009 with 2051 presentations from 2011 before and after the implementation of in-reach services. Median emergency department length of stay decreased by 24 minutes (7.0 vs 6.6 hours, P < 0.001) and admission rates decreased by 23% (68 vs 45%, P < 0.001). The proportion of people with repeat emergency department visits within six months decreased by 12% (27 vs 15%). The proportion of admitted patients who were discharged with an end of life palliative care plan increased by 13% (8 vs 21%, P = 0.007).","Multidisciplinary stroke care was successfully implemented in a resource-constrained secondary-level hospital in South Africa and despite the limitations of the study, the significant reduction in inpatient mortality and increase in referral for inpatient rehabilitation would suggest an improvement in stroke care. Resource utilization in terms of length of hospital stay increased by a mean of 2 days but the number of CT brain scans performed and referral to a tertiary hospital did not increase significantly.","Diabetic patients with inadequate glycemic control ought to have their management intensified. Failure to do so can be termed \"clinical inertia.\" Because data suggest that specialist care results in better control than primary care, we evaluated whether specialists demonstrated less clinical inertia than primary care physicians. Using administrative data, we studied all non-insulin-requiring diabetic patients in eastern Ontario aged 65 or older who had A1c results>8% between September 1999 and August 2000. Drug intensification was measured by comparing glucose-lowering drug regimens in 4-month blocks before and after the elevated A1c test and was defined as 1) the addition of a new oral drug, 2) a dose increase of an existing oral drug, or 3) the initiation of insulin. Propensity score-based matching was used to control for confounding between groups. There were 591 patients with specialist care and 1,911 with exclusively primary care. In the matched cohorts, 45.1% of patients with specialist care versus 37.4% with primary care had drug intensification (P = 0.009). Most of this difference was attributed to specialists' more frequent initiation of insulin in response to elevated A1c.","To assess how well primary care clinicians select patients needing early referral to a dentist based on an oral cavity examination. Prospective comparison of the screening oral cavity examinations performed by primary care clinicians with that performed by a dentist. General medicine clinic and dental clinic of a Veterans Affairs Medical Center. A sample of 86 consecutive patients attending regularly scheduled appointments in a primary care medical clinic. Each patient was examined independently by two primary care clinicians and then one dentist. History and physical findings, clinical impression, and plan based on the oral cavity examination were recorded. The reference standard was the examination by a dentist blinded to the patient's history. The prevalences of lesions suspicious for premalignancy, periodontal disease, calculus, and caries were 23%, 37%, 54%, and 18%, respectively. When the primary care clinicians noticed a lesion suspicious for premalignancy, the likelihood that such a lesion was present increased significantly (LR+ = 2.7 to 6.6). However, a normal examination by the primary care clinicians did not significantly lower the likelihood of a premalignant lesion (LR- = 0.7 to 0.8). The primary care clinicians were more efficient at evaluating dental and gingival conditions (LR+ = 2.7 to 5.8, LR- = 0.2 to 0.7).","Referrals of patients from primary care to medical specialist care are an important activity in any health care system. German data show that the number of referrals by GPs have increased since 2004, but detailed insight into the experiences of patients, GPs and consultants regarding referrals is very limited. This study aimed at describing the experiences of consultants, GPs and patients with referrals from primary care to medical specialist care. An additional objective was to examine the impact of purpose regarding the referral and of the referrer on the experiences of GPs and patients. Referrals of 26 general practitioners (GPs) from 25 practices in Marbach, a rural region in the south of Germany were studied. All adult patients referred after consulting these GPs in a period of five weeks were eligible for the study. GPs, consultants and patients completed short structured forms to document factual characteristics of each referral and their experiences with the referral. GPs and patients completed forms before and after the referral was made, while the consultants completed forms after the patient had consulted them. Overall, consultants were very positive about appropriateness of the referral (91%). They were somewhat more critical regarding the information provided on the patients' medical history (61%) and prescriptions (48%). In 258 referrals (63%) GPs perceived clear diagnostic benefits, while in 202 referrals (49%) they perceived clear treatment benefits. GPs' experiences were more positive if the GP's purpose was to reduce diagnostic uncertainty (beta = 0.318, p < 0.001) or if the purpose was to exclude serious illness (beta = 0.143, p < 0.010). Other purposes of the referral had no impact on their experiences. Patients' expectations regarding the referrals mostly referred to diagnosis, including increased diagnostic certainty (80%), detailed information about the illness (66%) and exclusion of serious illness (62%). They were overall satisfied with the referral (83%). Their experiences with the referral were more positive if the initiative for the referral came from the physician (beta = 0.365, p < 0.000).","Using the indicator diseases of pneumonia in children and malaria in adults, this study concluded that this network did not meet design expectations as the central level referral hospital cared for a similar case-mix of patients as the district level, but at six times the cost. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals could be improved by developing or strengthening intermediate level facilities, by changing mechanisms of access to specialist facilities and by training health professionals in community settings.","yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.","Medical motives dominate the decision to refer patients to general hospitals, but access to a GP hospital, in cases where nursing needs and long distances to the general hospital are supplementary considerations, reduces the proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals.","Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.","To explore the rate of referrals of long-term care (LTC) residents to emergency departments (EDs) and to determine the appropriateness of the referrals. Retrospective analysis of 2 administrative data sets, paramedic records and hospital records, for the year 2000. Catchment area of Hamilton, Ont. Nineteen LTC facilities and 3 EDs of Hamilton Health Sciences. Number and appropriateness of referrals were the main outcomes measured; we also examined the timing of and reasons for referrals, arrival status of patients, admissions to hospital, referrals to specialists, and treatments. Unit of analysis was the referral. As no evidence-based guidelines exist for appropriateness of referral, we defined appropriateness as a balance of issues with blinded physician judgment calls on anonymous random subsamples of patients admitted to hospital and those not admitted to determine appropriateness of referrals. Descriptive statistics were used, as well as chi and t tests. Out of 2473 licensed LTC beds, 606 residents were referred to 1 of 3 EDs of the Hamilton Health Sciences hospitals, giving a referral rate of 24.5%. The average age of these LTC residents was 81.6 years, and 63.2% were women. Peak referral months were late winter; peak days were Tuesday and Friday. Time of arrival to the EDs was reported in 6-hour segments, with just over half (51.2%) of residents arriving during the day and one-third in the evening. Respiratory and cardiovascular problems comprised 48.6% of referrals. At arrival 67.3% of cases were deemed urgent or emergent. Wait times ranged from 0 to 60 hours, with 25% of residents seen within 1 hour, 44% within 2 hours, and 50% within 4 hours. Two-thirds (66.7%) of residents were admitted to hospital and of these 62% stayed 1 week.","To evaluate the effect of a risk factor checklist and training video for general practitioners in reducing inter-practice variation and improving the appropriateness of referrals (assessed by their positive predictive value or PPV) of patients with suspected otitis media with effusion (OME or 'glue ear') to secondary care. Fifty general practices (177 practitioners) from the NHS Trent region and the West of Scotland were cluster-randomised either to a control group (n = 12) or to one of three intervention groups (training video (n = 16), checklist (n = 11), or both (n = 11)). Data on all paediatric ear, nose and throat (ENT) referrals and diagnostic results at ENT clinics were collected for a one-year period pre- and post-intervention. Referral rates for OME and for closely related conditions were calculated for children aged 0-15 years, based on each practice's list size. PPV was defined as the proportion of referrals resulting in bilateral hearing loss>or = 20 dB at the ENT outpatient department. There was a significant improvement in the PPV, adjusted for patients' waiting time between general practitioner (GP) referral and being seen at the ENT department. The improvement in PPV pre- and post-intervention was 15% (95% confidence interval, CI: -12.1% to 41.7%) for the practices receiving both interventions, compared with a degradation of 20% pre- and post-intervention (95% CI: -32.9% to -6.4%) for practices receiving only one intervention and a degradation of 34% for those receiving no intervention.","The Affordable Care Act places primary care at the cornerstone of health maintenance. It is believed that increasing access to primary health care providers will limit emergency department (ED) use. This study examines woman's health-related ED visits by patients enrolled in an obstetric/gynecologic (OB/GYN) clinic. A database was created combining patient information from a hospital-affiliated OB/GYN clinic and the electronic medical records from the ED of the affiliated hospital. This database was used to evaluate woman's health-related ED use by patients registered in this OB/GYN clinic compared with patients not affiliated with the clinic. Over an 23-month period, there were 41,791 ED visits made by 21,223 individual women >12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.","One major goal of the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is to improve continuity of care between patients and providers and reduce the utilization of non-primary care services like the emergency department (ED). To characterize continuity under the Veterans Health Administration's PCMH model--the Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT), at one large Veterans Affair's (VA's) primary care clinic, determine the characteristics associated with high levels of continuity, and assess the association between continuity and ED visits. Retrospective, observational cohort study of patients at the West Haven VA (WHVA) Primary Care Clinic from March 2011 to February 2012. The 13,495 patients with established care at the Clinic, having at least one visit, one year before March 2011. Our exposure variable was continuity of care--a patient seeing their assigned primary care provider (PCP) at each clinic visit. The outcome of interest was having an ED visit. The patients encompassed 42,969 total clinic visits, and 3185 (24%) of them had 15,458 ED visits. In a multivariable logistic regression analysis, patients with continuity of care--at least one visit with their assigned PCP--had lower ED utilization compared to individuals without continuity (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] 0.54; 95% CI: 0.41, 0.71), controlling for frequency of primary care visits, comorbidities, insurance, distance from the ED, and having a trainee PCP assigned. Likewise, the adjusted rate of ED visits was 544/1000 person-year (PY) for patients with continuity vs. 784/1000 PY for patients without continuity (p = 0.001). Compared to patients with low continuity (<33% of visits), individuals with medium (33-50%) and high (>50%) continuity were less likely to utilize the ED.","The results support the view that patients choose appropriately between attending a Minor Injury Unit or an Accident and Emergency department. However, there was evidence that the availability of an intermediate tier of health care for minor injuries appears likely to result in increased overall workload. This small-scale study leaves unanswered questions in terms of clinical outcomes and the quality of care provided by different facilities.","Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.","To establish whether a system of differential shared care between general practitioners and specialists is compatible with patients receiving the level of care they require. We sought to trace 200 shared care patients whose care had been kept at the general practitioner level after initial referral and compared them with a group of patients who had been re-referred to the Royal Prince Alfred Hospital Diabetes Centre for specialist review. There were no significant differences in glycaemic, blood pressure and lipid levels of returned and non-returned patients at initial assessment. However, non-returned patients were less likely to have a history of macrovascular disease or risk factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR) 0.4; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.2-0.6). Their referral letter was also more likely to emphasize their type and/or duration of diabetes (adjusted OR 4.6; 95% CI 2.5-8.4). Nearly half (47.1%) of the non-returned group changed their doctor in the years following their initial specialist review, increasing their likelihood of not being re-referred five-fold (adjusted OR 5.0; 95% CI 2.9-8.8). At initial assessment, non-returned patients were given less treatment recommendations (adjusted OR 0.5; 95% CI 0.3-0.7). Doctors registered with the Diabetes Shared Care Programme referred more patients than their non-shared care counterparts. However, a higher proportion of these doctors (52.5% vs. 21.3%; chi(2) = 16.5, 1 d.f., P = 0.00005) were selective in whom they re-referred.","In this preliminary investigation, we found that referral rates for diagnostic tests and specialist clinics increased independently for board-certified specialists (compared with GPs), for those with higher burnout levels and when objective workload increases. These findings support the conceptualization of referrals rates as objectively measured negative outcomes of burnout. Further replications with other objective outcomes, additional HMOs and bigger samples are warranted.","yes. Many parents who expect outpatient treatment prefer to take their child to a primary care pediatrician during evening hours, but present to the ED because of lack of primary care access.","To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.","Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.","Teleconferenced consultations for routine outpatient referrals with joint participation of general practitioner were feasible. These may have an important potential benefit for improving communication between primary and secondary care.","Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.","Many patients initially attend GP services for STIs, and primary care is therefore already an important setting with potential for STI control. However, delay in treatment through attendance at primary care, and barriers in access to primary care, need to be addressed in the planning of future services.","Anecdotal evidence has suggested inefficiency in the pyramidal health care referral system established in Zimbabwe in 1980, as part of its primary health care (PHC) model.AIM: To assess the functioning of the pyramidal referral system in two rural districts surrounding Harare, Zimbabwe, with regard to two common indicator conditions: pneumonia in children and malaria in adults. For a three-month period, all complete inpatient records with discharge diagnoses of pneumonia or malaria from three hospitals representing different levels of care were analyzed (n = 227). Data were collected on demographic and patient care variables. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals was determined by an assessment of the severity of illness and 'intensiveness' of care required. Data were analyzed for differences among the three hospitals and between the two indicator conditions. Per night inpatient bed costs for each hospital were also calculated. For pneumonia in children, 56.8% of patients admitted at the secondary level, 53.8% of patients at the tertiary level and 57.8% of patients at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For malaria in adults, 74.0% of patients seen at the secondary level, 81.5% of patients at the tertiary level and 54.3% at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For pneumonia, were no differences in severity between the three hospitals whereas for malaria significant case-mix differences among the hospitals were found. Most patients attending the highest level referral facility were inappropriate admissions who could have been treated at a lower level of care. The majority of patients at all the hospitals studied had used that hospital as their first or second point of contact with the health services. There were large variations in the inpatient per night bed costs between the three hospitals.","To assess the impact of an enhanced primary care service for residential aged care facilities (RACF) on the transfer of patients from RACF to a hospital emergency department (ED). A before-after study of an enhanced primary care service provided by experienced ED-based nurses under the governance of general practitioners. The intervention was analysed comparatively using standardised normal deviates and seasonal autoregressive integrated moving average models, complemented by qualitative assessment. There was a statistically significant reduction (17%, P < 0.001) in the number of transfers during the intervention period. This finding held when adjusting for the seasonality of ED referrals over a 4-year period. The intervention was highly valued by clinicians in RACF and ED.","Transfer of patients does not overtly reduce health care costs, but overall LOS and time to first outpatient consultation are substantially longer in patients transferred to secondary hospitals than in patients discharged directly. Readmission rate is high during the month after surgery, but with no difference between groups.","yes. Increased time from first primary care to first otolaryngology evaluation is associated with increased outpatient health care costs. Earlier otolaryngology examination may reduce health care expenditures in the evaluation and management of patients with laryngeal/voice disorders.","Late referral to specialist nephrological care is associated with increased morbidity, mortality, and cost. Consequently, nephrologists' associations recommend early referral. The recommendations' effectiveness remains questionable: 22-51% of referrals need renal replacement therapy (RRT) within 3-4 months. This may be due to these recommendations addressing the specialist, rather than the primary care providers (PCP). The potential of specialist intervention aiming at slowing progression of chronic renal failure was introduced individually to some 250 local PCPs, and referral strategies were discussed. To overcome the PCPs' most often expressed fears, every referred patient was asked to report back to his PCP immediately after the initial specialist examination, and new medications were prescribed directly, and thus allotted to the nephrologist's budget. In retrospective analysis, the stage of renal disease in patients referred within three months before the introductory round (group A, n = 18), was compared to referrals two years later (group B, n = 50). Relative number of patients remained stable (28%) for mild/ moderate chronic kidney disease (MMCKD), while there was a noticeable shift from patients referred severe chronic kidney disease (SCKD) (group A: 44%, group B: 20%) to patients referred in moderate chronic kidney disease (MCKD) (group A: 28%, group B: 52%).","Patients with drug use disorders are heavy users of emergency department (ED) and inpatient hospital care. This study examines whether formal mechanisms to link addiction treatment patients to primary medical care, either directly on site or by off-site referral-when compared with an absence of said mechanisms-might reduce these patients' use of ED and hospital services after substance abuse treatment. We used longitudinal data from 6 methadone maintenance programs with 232 patients, 24 outpatient nonmethadone programs with 1202 patients, and 14 long-term residential programs with 679 patients in the National Treatment Improvement Evaluation Study. Multivariate logistic models controlling for health status and medical service utilization before treatment examined whether provision of medical services on- or off-site during treatment linkage led to reduced use of ED and hospital services in the year after treatment compared with no such provision. On-site delivery of primary care reduced subsequent ED and hospital use among patients in methadone maintenance and long-term residential compared with the nonlinkage condition but not in outpatient nonmethadone programs. Off-site referral for medical care reduced subsequent ED visits but not hospitalizations in long-term residential programs.","yes. Referral by a primary care provider to a PED was significantly and independently associated with greater severity of illness and resource utilization. Referral status should be considered in algorithms used to triage cases for evaluation in the PED.","As the cost of acute care in hospitals increases, there is an increasing need to find alternative means of providing acute care. Hospital in the home (HITH) has developed in response to this challenge. Current evidence is conflicting as to whether HITH provides cost savings compared with in-hospital care (IHC). The heterogeneous nature of HITH and the clinical complexity of patients is the greatest obstacle to making valid comparisons between the two modes of care. To compare costs and outcomes of HITH to IHC in hospitals in Victoria, Australia. Hospital morbidity data and medical records from Victoria, Australia. A costing study of 924 randomly selected episodes of HITH care, individually matched to 924 comparable IHC episodes. Unadjusted total episode costs (TEC) and averaged daily costs for HITH and IHC were calculated. Mortality and length of stay (LOS) were compared for HITH and IHC episodes. Simple linear and multiple regression were used to analyse costing data, while logistic regression was used to compare in-hospital mortality and LOS in HITH versus IHC episodes. The 1848 episodes of care in the sample represented a heterogeneous range of acute conditions in 31 Victoria hospitals. HITH consisted of two distinct subgroups: pure-HITH (total episode substitution) and mixed-HITH (partial episode substitution). The cost of episodes of acute care containing a HITH component were overall 9% less expensive than IHC (P = 0.04), while pure-HITH was 38% cheaper than matched IHC (P < 0.001). The variable HITH, along with LOS and chemotherapy, explained the 60% variation in TEC. The mean cost of pure-HITH episodes was 22% lower compared to mixed-HITH (P = 0.004). The in-hospital mortality rate in HITH (3.8%) and IHC (5.2%) was not significantly different. Pure-HITH was associated with shorter LOS, while mixed HITH was strongly associated with longer LOS.","Alternative structures such as primary care units near the ED seem to be an appropriate response to meet the growing demand of no urgent patients. The success of providing this reorientation, however, could be determined by the working hours of the structures and the practice of certain technical skills.","Referral of patients with AMI for primary angioplasty is used only in a minority of hospitals. The referred patients represent a selected, more ill subgroup, resulting in a higher hospital morbidity compared to patients treated on-site. Continuous efforts should be undertaken to decrease the time delay from admission at the initial hospital to the beginning of revascularization.","Access to primary care could reduce use of more costly health care by uninsured individuals through prevention and early treatment. We analyzed data from a program providing free primary care to test this hypothesis. We compared emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations among uninsured, low-income adults who received immediate versus delayed access to a program providing free primary care, including labs, X-rays, and specialty consultation. We used surveys to identify ER visits and hospitalizations during the 12 months preceding and following program enrollment or wait list entry. Hospitalizations decreased from the year before entry to the year following entry in participants with immediate and delayed (6.0% vs 8.8% decrease) access. ER use also decreased in both groups (11.2% vs 15.4%).","Adults with chronic disease are the most frequent users of the primary healthcare system. In Manitoba, patients are allowed to seek ambulatory (outpatient) care from the provider of their choosing (primary care physician or specialist), with referrals to specialists preferred but not always required. Some patients receive their routine care from specialists. We conducted this study to determine the patterns by which adults with chronic disease access ambulatory care as a prelude to exploring the impact these patterns may have on the quality of care received. Physician claims for all visits between 2007/8-2009/10 were extracted from the Data Repository at the Manitoba Centre for Health Policy. Patients included in the analysis made at least four ambulatory visits to a primary care physician or specialist within the study period, and met the definition criteria for at least one of six chronic diseases: diabetes mellitus; congestive heart failure; mood disorders; ischemic heart disease; total respiratory morbidity; and/or hypertension. Patients were \"assigned\" to the physician they visited most regularly. Physician visit patterns were assessed by dividing visits into nine visit types based on the type of physician patients visited (assigned primary care physician, other primary care physician, or specialist) and whether or not they received a referral. 347,606 patients with 7,662,411 physician visits were included in the analysis. Most visits were to the patients' assigned primary care physician. About 50% of the visits to specialists were by referral from the assigned primary care physician. However, 26-29% of all visits to a primary care physician were not to the assigned primary care physician, and non-assigned physicians were more likely to refer patients to specialists than assigned primary care physicians.","Ninety-one per cent of primary care trusts were using some form of referral management in 2009, although evidence for its effectiveness is limited.AIM: To assess the impact of three referral-management centres (RMCs) and two internal peer-review approaches to referral management on hospital outpatient attendance rates. A retrospective time-series analysis of 376 000 outpatient attendances over 3 years from 85 practices divided into five groups, with 714 000 registered patients in one English primary care trust. The age-standardised GP-referred first outpatient monthly attendance rate was calculated for each group from April 2009 to March 2012. This was divided by the equivalent monthly England rate, to derive a rate ratio. Linear regression tested for association between the introduction of referral management and change in the outpatient attendance rate and rate ratio. Annual group budgets for referral management were obtained. Referral management was not associated with a reduction in the outpatient attendance rate in any group. There was a statistically significant increase in attendance rate in one group (a RMC), which had an increase of 1.05 attendances per 1000 persons per month (95% confidence interval = 0.46 to 1.64; attendance rate ratio increase of 0.07) after adjustment for autocorrelation. Mean annual budgets ranged from £0.55 to £6.23 per registered patient in 2011/2012. RMCs were more expensive (mean annual budget £5.18 per registered patient) than internal peer-review approaches (mean annual budget £0.97 per registered patient).","The aim of the present study was to establish if physiotherapy self-referral (SR) is viable, cost effective and beneficial to musculoskeletal outpatients in a primary care setting. In an urban National Health Service (NHS) primary care physiotherapy service, waiting times, attendance rates and treatment ratios (thus, episode-of-care costs) were deemed unsustainable. The introduction of 'Any Qualified Provider' is imminent and will drive NHS physiotherapy services to compete directly with private counterparts. Current literature, healthcare policy and the Chartered Society of Physiotherapy strongly advocate SR to promote value for money and improve the patient experience. A repeated measure prospective cohort study introduced an SR pathway parallel to existing general practice (GP) referrals and compared costs, attendance and data relating to the patient experience across groups. SR referral groups were found to have a higher proportion of female patients presenting with acute conditions. Cost minimization analysis indicated an average 32.3% reduction in episode-of-care cost with an SR-initiated intervention. An estimated cost minimization of between £84,387.80 and £124,472.06 was calculated if SR were to be expanded service-wide. SR referral reduced waiting times and improved patient satisfaction relating to waiting times and communication compared with traditional pathways.","The lack of evidence for a reduction in clinical threshold for referral within the primary care sample suggests that general practitioners' referral rates are similar regardless of whether practice-based clinical psychology services are available. This has implications for primary-care-led commissioning of mental health services.","yes. More than two-thirds of \"medical\" visits in rural areas were for acts that nurses could easily do. The easy access to a junior doctor did not promote preventive medicine. Replacement of junior doctors with properly trained nurses cooperating with GPs responsible for greater regions would be more cost-effective than junior doctors improving health in rural areas. Legislation should change, mainly with regard to repeat prescriptions, in order to reduce house visits.","We aimed to explore the relative impact of medical and other situational motives on GP's decisions to refer patients to specialist care in a general hospital, and to assess whether having access to a GP hospital influences the decisions. We carried out a prospective study of consecutive doctor-patient contacts during one week. The effects of main motives, medical, social/nursing, general hospital advice, distance from the nearest general hospital and access to GP hospitals on referral decisions were explored by logistic regression. The motives for different referral decisions were also explored through frequency analyses. The study was set in general practices in the county of Finnmark in North Norway, which included 40 GPs from rural practices with access to a GP hospital and eight GPs working closer to a general hospital without access to GP hospital. We studied 2496 doctor-patient contacts, which resulted in 411 patients being considered for any kind of referral, of which 205 were referred to the general hospital. Medical needs were recorded as the only referral motive of major importance in about half of the cases considered for referral, while additional motives were recorded in the other half. The rationale for admissions to general hospitals and GP hospitals (in-patient care) was compatible in terms of the relative importance of the medical arguments. The GP hospital option was mainly chosen because of the long distance from the general hospital, nursing needs and the preferences of the patient and the family, and resulted in a lower proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals from GPs with access to a GP hospital.","To examine access to primary care in new and traditional models using 2 dimensions of the concept of patient-centred access. An international survey examining the quality and costs of primary health care (the QUALICOPC study) was conducted in 2013 in Canada. This study adopted a descriptive cross-sectional survey method using data from practices across Canada. Each participating practice filled out the Family Physician Survey and the Practice Survey, and patients in each participating practice were asked to complete the Patient Experiences Survey. All 10 Canadian provinces. A total of 759 practices and 7172 patients. Independent t tests were conducted to examine differences between new and traditional models of care in terms of availability and accommodation, and affordability of care. Of the 759 practices, 407 were identified as having new models of care and 352 were identified as traditional. New models of care were distinct with respect to payment structure, opening hours, and having an interdisciplinary work force. Most participating practices were from large cities or suburban areas. There were few differences between new and traditional models of care regarding accessibility and accommodation in primary care. Patients under new models of care reported easier access to other physicians in the same practice, while patients from traditional models reported seeing their regular family physicians more frequently. There was no difference between the new and traditional models of care with regard to affordability of primary care. Patients attending clinics with new models of care reported that their physicians were more involved with them as a whole person than patients attending clinics based on traditional models did.","The rates of annual visits for adult Medicaid enrollees to the emergency department (ED) are increasing. Many programs throughout the country are focused on engaging patients in the use of their primary care providers (PCP) rather than the ED for low acuity conditions. It is unclear, however, the proportion of patients who are willing to use primary care services rather than the ED if they are given the choice. Cross-sectional study of adult Medicaid enrollees (18 y and older) presenting to a large, urban, academic ED from June to August 2012 with a low acuity condition was performed. We excluded patients who did not have a PCP or active Medicaid insurance. Our primary goal was to determine the proportion of patients who prefer to use the ED, rather than their PCP clinic, if an appointment was immediately available. Our second goal was to understand why patients would prefer ED over PCP care. A total of 150 patients agreed to complete the survey, and 95 (63.3%) met our inclusion criteria. Forty-three patients (45.3%) stated preferring to use their PCPs rather than the ED if an appointment was available at that time. Thirteen (48.1%) cited that the ED had more technology or specialty care services available when compared with their PCP's clinic, 8 (15.4%) were in significant pain, and 6 (11.5%) felt the care they received in the ED was better than what they would receive in their PCP clinic.","Redirect demand pathology severity level IV-V of the hospital emergency room (ED) to the Primary Health Care (AP) reference, increase in technical consultation and assess the effectiveness of the proposed Accessibility Plan (PA). Improving the quality of care offered, lowering the cost to achieve it. Quality research study conducted in January-2010 data collected throughout 2009, and compare them versus those obtained in 2008. Population allocated to the ABS Sagrada Familia (23,265 users). Beneficiaries in HUS AP and population due to specialized care, population scheduled diagnostic and therapeutic procedures (radiology, laboratory echo-doppler, cryosurgery ...), total annual visits, attendance, repetition,... Increased 86.5% of emergency radiographs in AP (avoiding lead to ED), 7.4% fewer referrals to the emergency; implantation circuit urgent analytical (laboratory of HUS not collapsed) 13.6% fewer referrals to vascular surgery (the Eco-Doppler), 5.92% less analytical (thank Cardio-Check), 297 fewer referrals to dermatology (for cryotherapy), 9.65% less refe- rrals to psychiatry (through group workshops mental health), decreased frequency (1.4%) and recurrence (2.3%) over 2007, 23.9% of referrals to ED pathology avoided level IV-V served in AP; save ∈ 57,335 on 2007.","To assess whether adoption of the patient-centered medical home (PCMH) reduces emergency department (ED) utilization among patients with and without chronic illness. Data from approximately 460,000 Independence Blue Cross patients enrolled in 280 primary care practices, all converting to PCMH status between 2008 and 2012. We estimate the effect of a practice becoming PCMH-certified on ED visits and costs using a difference-in-differences approach which exploits variation in the timing of PCMH certification, employing either practice or patient fixed effects. We analyzed patients with and without chronic illness across six chronic illness categories. Among chronically ill patients, transition to PCMH status was associated with 5-8 percent reductions in ED utilization. This finding was robust to a number of specifications, including analyzing avoidable and weekend ED visits alone. The largest reductions in ED visits are concentrated among chronic patients with diabetes and hypertension.","The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.","To determine the levels of intra- and inter-grade variability of the vetting of general practice (GP) letters as well as the intra-rater reliability of letter prioritization. Prospective assessment of letter vetting and questionnaire survey. Three otolaryngology secondary referral centres in Bristol and Bath, UK. Twelve consultants, nine registrars, four staff and associate specialists (SAS) and 16 senior house officers (SHOs) in otolaryngology. Fifty GP letters (not including 'fast-track' referrals) addressed to one of the ENT departments were chosen sequentially. These were anonymized, photocopied and included in the questionnaire to all participating staff. Participants were asked to vet the letters as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' according to supplied waiting time criteria. The same letters were sent out again six weeks later. There was no significant difference between grades for the mean number of letters vetted into each category. Intra-grade variability was high; the number of letters vetted urgent varied from one out of 50 to 15 out of 50 for the consultants. The intra-rater reliability was high.","The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).","yes. The findings indicate that regular and proactive 'maintenance' primary care, as distinct from 'reactive' care, is beneficial to older CRD patients by reducing their risks of hospitalisation and death.","Our aim was to evaluate the efficacy of the consulting of internal medicine (CIM) in primary care (PC) on the resolution of medical processes. Prospective case-control study of a population of 87,016 inhabitants during a 1-year period. Patients (2,167) jointly attended by family physicians (FP) and consulting internists (CI) who go weekly to the primary care center (PCC) to attend patients who otherwise would have been referred to specialized consultation (SC). As the control group 1,470 patients were randomly and simultaneously chosen among the total of 14.687 first medical referrals during the period of the study. We observed a significant reduction in: referrals to SC (22%; CI 95%, 18-26%); mean time for SC (23.6 days; CI 95%, 17.3-29.9 days); mean number of tests per patient ordered by FP (0.53; CI 95%, 0.31-0.75) or by CIM (1.22; CI 95%, 1.02-1.40); mean time for patient information on those tests ordered by CIM (21.2 days; CI 95%, 8.5-33.9 days); mean time for the resolution of processes (39.4 days; CI 95%, 35.5-43.3 days); crossed SC rate (23.7%; CI 95%, 20.3-27.1%); and specialized follow-up visits (28.8%; CI 95%, 24.5-33.1%) (p < 0.005 in all cases). The resolution rate of processes (15%; CI 95%, 11-19%) and the discharge rate (41.6%; CI 95%, 35.5-47.7%) were significantly higher for the CIM (p < 0.01 in both cases). The referral rate to SC showed a negative correlation (r = 0.81; p < 0.01) with the management quality, and it related to type of training, age and years of medical practice of the general practitioner (GP). The satisfaction of patients and GPs with the CIM was very high.","Primary angioplasty for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can only be performed in a limited number of centers. Therefore, some patients will be referred for this procedure. We analyzed the data of the prospective observational MITRA trial, which took place at 54 hospitals in southwest Germany, to describe current practices and outcomes in referred patients compared to patients treated on-site. Out of 491 patients treated with primary angioplasty, 63 (12.8%) were referred. Out of 46 hospitals without facilities to perform primary angioplasty, 29 (63%) never referred patients. Referred patients were less often male (60.3% versus 75.9%; p = 0.013), suffered more often from anterior wall infarction (62.9% versus 45.8%; p = 0.014), and more often had absolute contraindications against thrombolysis (11.1% versus 2.8%; p = 0.006). In-hospital time to treatment was 80 minutes in patients treated on-site compared to 190 minutes in referred patients (p = 0.001). There was a non-significant difference of in-hospital mortality between the two groups (11.1% for referred versus 7.5% on-site; p = 0.319). Referred patients had a higher hospital morbidity as expressed by a higher proportion of post-infarction angina (28.6% versus 4.2%; p = 0.001), a more frequent need for urgent revascularization (43.8% versus 16.4%; p = 0.001) and a higher proportion of advanced heart failure (11.1% versus 4.4%; p = 0.062).","Hospitalized persons with MCC including serious mental illness enrolled in a medical home were more likely to receive timely outpatient follow-up with a primary care provider but not with a mental health specialist. These findings suggest that the medical home model may be more adept at linking patients to providers in primary care rather than to specialty mental health providers.","To evaluate the cost effectiveness to primary care trusts (PCT) in commissioning general practitioner (GP) referrals in-hours to emergency care practitioners (ECP). A retrospective case note review for patients referred by GPs in-hours to ECP over a 4-month period to ascertain any added value over a GP visit. In a 4-month period 105 patients were referred. In most cases (90.5%) the ECP was utilised as a substitute for a GP rather than providing any additional skills. Defining an avoided attendance as the ECP undertaking an intervention outside a GP skill set this equated to a 9.5% avoided attendance rate compared with the ECP service standard rate of 60%. This has implications both in terms of financial benefit and ongoing ECP service sustainability.","To assess the potential for substituting alternative forms of care for admission to an acute hospital in particular groups of patients. A screening tool, the intensity-severity-discharge review system with adult criteria (ISD-A), developed for hospital utilisation review in the USA, was used in a cohort of hospital admissions to identify a group of patients who could potentially have been treated outside the acute hospital. These patients were further assessed by a panel of general practitioners (GPs) to determine the most appropriate alternative form of care. A cost analysis was performed on the results obtained. General medicine and geriatric specialties in one acute hospital in the south western region. Patients comprised a sample of 701 admitted to general medical and geriatric specialties. The screening tool identified 19.7% of admissions for whom there was potential for treatment outside the acute hospital. Assessment by the GP panel reduced this potential to between 9.8% and 15.0% of emergency admissions. The alternatives most frequently identified as \"most appropriate\" were the community hospital/GP bed and the urgent outpatient assessment (within either 24 or 48 hours). Potential resource savings based on the average cost were relatively small. This potential seemed to be greater for the alternative of the urgent outpatient assessment.","Improved processes of referral from Primary Care are an important part of a strategy to reduce the population burden of cardiovascular disease. A unique service of rapid access clinics, where primary care practitioners can refer patients to a daily secondary care cardiology service without appointment has been established at Charing Cross Hospital in West London. Previous data have shown the effectiveness of this service in diagnosing and risk stratifying patients with suspected cardiac disease. We evaluated Primary Care and Patient views on this service. A patient survey of a cohort of 1223 patients recruited to a follow up study of individuals seen over 1 year in the service and qualitative in-depth interviews of a randomised sample of 10 out of 82 referring Primary Care Practitioners was performed. Less than 2% of patients had a negative experience of the service. Most patients did not have to revisit the Primary Care Practitioner for the same symptom. Primary Care Practitioners were overwhelmingly positive about the ease of access. They viewed positively the ability to obtain prompt diagnosis or reassurance. The heart failure service was used least but this was the most challenging condition to diagnose. There were concerns about nurse specialist based services and restriction to 'first presentations'. Communication about the service could be improved.","In-house referral is acceptable to patients and provides a straightforward method of addressing uncertainty over the need for referral from primary to secondary care.","Methods are needed to ensure that those patients referred from primary to secondary care are those most likely to benefit. In-house referral is the referral of a patient by a general practitioner to another general practitioner within the same practice for a second opinion on the need for secondary care referral. To describe whether in-house referral is practical and acceptable to patients, and the health outcomes for patients. Practices were randomized into an intervention or a control group. In intervention practices, patients with certain conditions who were about to be referred to secondary care were referred in-house. If the second clinician agreed referral was appropriate the patient was referred on to secondary care. In control practices patients were referred in the usual fashion. Patient satisfaction and health status was measured at the time of referral, 6 months and one year. Eight intervention and seven control practices took part. For the 177 patients referred in-house, 109 (61%) were judged to need referral on to secondary care. For patient satisfaction, the only difference between the groups studied was that at 12 months patients who had been referred in-house reported themselves as being more satisfied than those referred directly to hospital. For health status, the only difference found was that at the time of referral, patients who had been referred in-house and judged to need hospital referral reported themselves as being less able on the 'Physical function' subscale of the SF-36 than patients who were referred in-house and judged to not need hospital referral."],"string":"[\n \"Current health care management has resulted in a change in referral patterns. The present study was undertaken to define the efficacy and value of pediatric echocardiography performed and interpreted in adult laboratories. We reviewed the findings in 100 consecutive pediatric patients 1 month to 18 years of age referred for possible heart disease and evaluated previously by echocardiography performed in an adult laboratory. Technical adequacy and interpretation of the echocardiogram at the outside facility was correlated with our final diagnosis. Of the studies, 32 (32%) were performed in hospital laboratories, and 68 (68%) in physician offices. A total of 52 (52%) of the 100 patients arrived with an outside diagnosis in agreement with our final diagnosis. Technical difficulties were reported in 14 (14%) studies by the original laboratory; we felt that 32 (32%) studies were inadequate. Interpretation or communication between the outside echocardiography laboratory, primary care physicians, and patients' family was erroneous in 32 (32%) cases. Repeat echocardiography was necessary in 38 (38%) patients (6 because of planned surgery). If initial referral had been to our own institution, 25 to 30 patients would not have undergone echocardiography.\",\n \"Diversion of patients with minor conditions to alternative services; referral of COPD patients to follow-up respiratory services and patients with neurosis to community mental health services would reduce emergency utilisation. Improving access to and resourcing of alternative non-hospital services should be investigated to reduce emergency overcrowding.\",\n \"To test an intervention designed to improve primary care use and decrease emergency department (ED) utilization for uninsured patients using the ED. Using a randomized design, an intensive case-management intervention was tested with patients identified at a Level 1 urban trauma center from April 2002 through July 2002. Following assessment in the ED, six-month follow-up data were gathered from four primary care sites (two Federally Qualified Health Centers, two hospital outpatient clinics) and two area hospitals. Eligible participants were uninsured, were at least 18 years of age, and did not have a regular primary care provider. Of 281 patients approached, 273 (97.2%) agreed to participate. After 42 patients were eliminated following enrollment due to ineligibility, there were 121 intervention and 109 comparison subjects. Health Promotion Advocates (HPAs) in the ED gathered information from all study participants. On intervention shifts, HPAs assisted patients in choosing a primary care provider and faxed all information to a case worker at the selected site. Case managers attempted to contact patients and schedule appointments. On comparison shifts, patients received care as usual. Primary care contact in 60 days and subsequent ED visits in six months post-ED assessment were the main outcome measures. Intervention subjects were more likely to have a primary care contact (51.2% vs. 13.8%, p < 0.0001). There was no statistically significant difference between groups in either number of inpatient admissions or postintervention ED visits, although postintervention ED visits for the intervention group were less expensive.\",\n \"Adopting ecAVGs as an alternative to TCVCs in patients requiring immediate access for haemodialysis may provide better individual patient care and deliver cost savings to the hospital.\",\n \"Patients are hospitalized for disparate conditions and procedures. Patient experiences with care may depend on hospitalization type (HT). Determine whether the contributions of patient experience composite measures to overall hospital ratings on the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems Survey vary by HT. In cross-sectional observational data, we defined 24 HTs using major diagnostic category and service line (medical, surgical, or obstetrical). To assess the importance of each composite for each HT, we calculated the simultaneous partial correlations of 7 composite scores with an overall hospital rating, controlling for patient demographics. Nineteen thousand seven hundred twenty English- or Spanish-speaking adults with nonpsychiatric primary diagnoses discharged home 12/02-1/03 after an overnight inpatient stay in any of 132 general acute care hospitals in 3 states. Patient-reported doctor communication, nurse communication, staff responsiveness, physical environment, new medicines explained, pain control, and postdischarge information; overall 0 to 10 rating of care. Nurse communication was most important overall, with a 0.34 average partial correlation (range: 0.17-0.49; P < 0.05 and among the 3 most important composites for all HTs). Discharge information was least important (0.05 average partial correlation; P < 0.05 for 10 of 24 HTs). Interactions demonstrated significant (P < 0.05) variation in partial correlations by HT for 5 of 7 composites (all but responsiveness and environment), with nurse communication, doctor communication, and pain control showing the most variation (F > 2, P < 0.05).\",\n \"Practice variation in the primary care treatment of depression may be considerable in the Netherlands, due to relatively small and unregulated practices. We adapted the collaborative care model for the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) to accommodate existing practice variation and tested whether this had added value over Care as Usual (CAU). A cluster randomized controlled trial was conducted to compare an adapted target driven collaborative care model with Care as Usual (CAU). Randomization was at the level of 18 (sub)urban primary care centers. The care manager and GP were supported by a web-based tracking and decision aid system that advised targeted treatment actions to achieve rapid response and if possible remission, and that warned the consultant psychiatrist if such treatment advice was not followed up. Eligible patients had a score of 10 or higher on the PHQ9, and met diagnostic criteria for major depression at the subsequent MINI Neuropsychiatric interview. A total of 93 patients were identified by screening. They received either collaborative care (CC) or CAU. Another 56 patients received collaborative care after identification by the GP. The outcome measures were response to treatment (50% or greater reduction of the PHQ9-total score from baseline) at three, six, nine and twelve months, and remission (a score of 0-4 on the PHQ9 at follow-up). Treatment response and remission in CAU were low. Collaborative care was more effective on achieving treatment response than CAU at three months for the total group of patients who received collaborative care [OR 5.2 ((1.41-16.09), NNT 2] and at nine months [OR 5.6 ((1.40-22.58)), NNT 3]. The effect was not statistically significant at 6 and 12 months.\",\n \"yes. This is the first study to estimate the prevalence of clinically diagnosed AS in primary and secondary care simultaneously, indicating that only one-third of patients are managed in rheumatology. This has important ramifications for health care planning and indicates a large 'silent' proportion of patients who may have serious pathology and would benefit from additional assessment in a specialist clinic.\",\n \"To compare the utilization of health care resources and patterns of chronic disease care by patients of medical residents and patients of their attending physicians. This study involved a longitudinal cohort of 14,554 patients seen over a 1-year period by 149 residents and 36 attendings located in an urban academic medical center. Data were acquired prospectively through a practice management system used to order tests, write prescriptions, and code ambulatory visits. We assessed resource utilization by measuring the total direct costs of care over a 1-year period, including ambulatory and inpatient costs, and the numbers and types of resources used. Residents' patients were similar to attendings' patients in age and gender, but residents' patients were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare and to have a higher burden of comorbidity. Total annual ambulatory care costs were almost 60% higher for residents' patients than for attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, and 30% higher in analyses adjusted for differences in case mix (adjusted mean 888 dollars vs 750 dollars; P=.0001). The primary cost drivers on the outpatient side were consultations and radiological procedures. Total inpatient costs were almost twice as high for residents' patients compared to attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, but virtually identical in analyses adjusted for case mix differences (adjusted mean of 849 dollars vs 860 dollars). Admission rates were almost double for residents' patients. Total adjusted costs for residents' patients were slightly, but not significantly, higher than for attendings' patients (adjusted mean 1,651 dollars vs 1,540 dollars; P>.05). Residents' and attendings' patients generally did not differ in the patterns of care for diabetes, asthma/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, ischemic heart disease, and depression, except that residents' patients with asthma/COPD, ischemic heart disease, and diabetes were admitted more frequently than attendings' patients.\",\n \"Improving Access to Psychological Therapies (IAPT) is a new programme designed to reduce disease burden to the individual and economic burden to the society of common mental health problems (CMHP). This is the first study to look at the impact of IAPT on health service utilisation and sickness absence using routine data. The authors used pseudonymised secure and privately linked (SAPREL) routinely collected primary, secondary care and clinic computer data from two pilot localities. The authors explored antidepressant prescribing, accident and emergency and outpatients attendances, inpatient stays, bed days, and sick certification. The authors compared the registered population with those with CMHP. The authors then made a 6 months before and after comparison of people referred to IAPT with age-sex and practice-matched controls. People with CMHP used more health resources than those without CMHP: more prescriptions of antidepressants 5.25 (95% CI 5.38 to 5.13), inpatient episodes 4.89 (95% CI 5.0 to 4.79), occupied bed days 1.25 (95% CI 0.95 to 1.55), outpatient 1.5 (95% CI 1.40 to 1.63) and emergency department attendances 0.34 (95% CI 0.31 to 0.37), and medical certificates 0.29 (95% CI 0.26 to 0.32). Comparison of service utilisation 6 months before and after referral to IAPT was associated with reduced use of emergency department attendances (mean difference: 0.12 (95% CI 0.06 to 0.19, p<0.001)). However, the number of prescriptions of antidepressants increased mean difference -0.15 (95% CI 0.02-0.29, p=0.028).\",\n \"To estimate the relative importance to patients of continuity of care compared with other aspects of a primary care consultation. We carried out a discrete choice experiment in Leicestershire and London on a stratified random sample of 646 community dwelling adults taken from general practitioner (GP) registers, plus 20 interviews with Punjabi, Urdu and Gujarati speakers. The attributes examined were: the type of professional consulted, relational continuity, informational continuity and access. Individuals' values changed according to their reason for making a primary care consultation. If consulting for minor familiar symptoms, individuals would be prepared to trade off one extra day's wait to see a GP rather than a nurse, 0.9 days for relational continuity, and 1.6 days for informational continuity. If consulting for a new condition they were uncertain about, they would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 2.4 days for relational continuity and 3.9 days for informational continuity. For a routine check-up, an individual would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 4.2 days for relational continuity and 7.8 days for informational continuity.\",\n \"Based on this natural experiment we were not able to document statistically significant differences in total costs between treatment sites that had guidelines recommending pharmacogenetic testing, relative to sites without such guidelines, over a period of one year. However, guidelines of pharmacogenetic testing and possibly also therapeutic drug monitoring seem to lead to reductions in costs for primary care services. In the case of the former, reductions do, however, seem to be outweighed by increases in costs for psychiatric and non-psychiatric inpatient stays. In conclusion, no statistically significant differences in total direct costs across sites with different treatment strategies were found.\",\n \"Managed care, increased disease severity, and more complex treatment options may be reasons for the recent enthusiasm for \\\"hospitalists\\\"--physicians who specialize in the care of inpatients. It is not clear, however, whether hospitalism is a new model for caring for inpatients or merely a new description for previously existing practice patterns. The proportion of physician visits occurring in the hospital before the introduction of the term hospitalists. Five specialties were examined: family/general practice, general internal medicine, cardiology, gastroenterology, and pulmonology. 1994 Medicare Part B claims data for beneficiaries 65 years of age and older who received all of their care in Washington State. For the average family/general practitioner, 10% of all Medicare visits occurred in the hospital. Corresponding figures for the other specialties were 20% for general internists, 36% for cardiologists, 38% for gastroenterologists, and 45% for pulmonologists. A substantial number of physicians devoted most of their Medicare effort to inpatient care (i.e., hospital visits>50% of total visits). If this definition were used as a proxy for hospitalism, 4% of family/general practitioners, 10% of general internists, 20% of gastroenterologists, 29% of cardiologists, and 37% of pulmonologists would have been considered hospitalists in Washington State during 1994. On the other hand, 35% of family/general practitioners, 18% of general internists, 7% of both gastroenterologists and pulmonologists, and 4% of cardiologists did not bill Medicare for any inpatient visits and could reasonably be categorized as \\\"officists.\\\"\",\n \"The degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was variable. Agreement was very poor for variables like inflammatory back pain, which are crucial for the diagnosis of Spa. Training programs for primary care physicians are important in order for them to correctly identify early Spa patients.\",\n \"yes. Almost all primary care referrals included the required details as per recent HIQA guidelines. The further inclusion of optional information relating to patient social or functional status, which are of particular relevance to the older population may help patient management.\",\n \"Resident work hour restrictions and changes in reimbursement may lead to an adverse effect on the continuity of care of a patient after discharge. This study analyzes whether adding a nurse practitioner (NP) to a busy inpatient surgery service would improve patient care after discharge. In 2007, a NP joined a team of 3 surgery attendings. She coordinated the discharge plan and communicated with patients after discharge. We reviewed the records of patients 1 year before (N = 415) and 1 year after (N = 411) the NP joined the team. The discharge courses of the patients were reviewed, and an unnecessary emergency room (ER) visit was defined as an ER visit that did not result in an inpatient admission. The 2 groups were statistically similar with regard to age, race, acuity of the operation, duration of hospital stay, and hospital readmissions. Telephone communication between nurses and discharged patients was 846 calls before the NP and 1,319 calls after the NP, representing an increase of 64% (P < .0001). Visiting nurse, physical therapy, or occupational therapy services were rendered to only 25% of patients before the NP compared to 39% after (P < .0001). There were more unnecessary ER visits before the NP (103/415; 25%) compared to after (54/411; 13%) (P = .001).\",\n \"yes. Surgical conditions are the most common reason for admissions at three primary referral hospitals in rural Mozambique. These data suggest that surgical care is a major component of health care delivered at primary referral hospitals in Mozambique and likely other sub-Saharan African countries.\",\n \"Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.\",\n \"This study found that liaison psychiatrists were able to fulfil a useful role in an OH department. Most of the cases seen within the department would not be classed as serious mental illness and therefore it is unlikely that community mental health teams would become involved in their routine care. Specialist mental health support from an 'in house' service is likely to be of considerable benefit from both occupational and medical perspectives.\",\n \"yes. This program resulted in shortened stays and more primary care use. There was no increase in infant urgent primary care utilization. Early discharge programs that incorporate and reimburse for enhanced ambulatory services may be safe for infants; these findings should not be extrapolated to mandatory reduced LOS initiatives without enhancement of care.\",\n \"Timing of referral to subspecialists may be a major determinant for access to adequate treatment. Kidney transplantation is the preferred modality of renal replacement therapy (RRT) in children. In adults, delayed referral from general physicians to nephrologists reduced access to kidney transplantation. This study investigated the association between timing of referral and the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation in children. In this retrospective study, all patients in a tertiary paediatric nephrology centre were grouped according to first paediatric nephrologist visit (< or = 3 months prior to RRT was defined as 'late referral (LR)') and modality of first RRT. Descriptive, correlation and contingency statistics, Pearson's chi(2) test and logistic regression techniques were used for analysis. The median duration of nephrologists pre-RRT care of 111 children (50 girls and 61 boys; aged 8.0 years at first referral) was 1.5 (range 0-17.5) years. Thirty-two of 84 children who had their first visit >3 months prior to RRT were pre-emptively transplanted (38%), but only three of the 27 children with LR (11%; OR 4.9; 95% CI 1.37 to 17.7). Using a threshold of 12 months, the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation was still significantly influenced by timing of referral (OR 2.5; 95% CI 1.06 to 5.91).\",\n \"yes. Patients, GPs and consultants have positive views on the value of referrals from primary care to medical specialists. Patients were most positive if the physician had initiated the referral, which supports the gate keeper role of the GP.\",\n \"This study shows the importance of evaluating any changes in care delivery. The direct referral policy has reduced the time it takes for women to be seen in the colposcopy department following an abnormal smear.\",\n \"We aimed to classify patients with heart failure (HF) by the style of primary care they receive. We used the claim data ( Système National d'Information Inter-Régime de l'Assurance Maladie) of patients living in a French region. We evaluated three concepts. First, baseline clinical status with age and Charlson index. Second, primary care practice style with mean delay between consultations, quantity of nursing care, and variability of diuretic dose. Third, clinical outcomes with death during follow-up, readmission for HF, and rate of unforeseen consultations. The baseline clinical status and the clinical outcomes were included to give an insight in the reasons for, and performance of, primary care practice style. Patients were classified using a hierarchical ascending classification based on principal components. A total of 2,751 patients were included in this study and were followed for a median of 22 months. The mean age was 78 y (SD: 12); 484 (18%) died, and 818 (30%) were readmitted for HF. We found three different significant groups characterized by their need for care and the intensity of practice style: group 1 (N = 734) was \\\"low need-low intensity\\\"; group 2 (N = 1,060) was \\\"high need-low intensity\\\"; and group 3 (N = 957) was \\\"high need-high intensity\\\". Their readmission rates were 17%, 41% and 28%, respectively.\",\n \"To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.\",\n \"Home hospital is advocated in many western countries in spite of limited evidence of its economic advantage over usual hospital care. Heart failure and community-acquired pneumonia are two medical conditions which are frequently targeted by home hospital programs. While recent trials were devoted to comparisons of safety and costs, the acceptance of home hospital for patients with these conditions remains poorly described. To document the medical eligibility and final transfer decision to home hospital for patients hospitalized with a primary diagnosis of heart failure or community-acquired pneumonia. Longitudinal study of patients admitted to the medical ward of acute care hospitals, up to the final decision concerning their transfer. Medical departments of one university hospital and two regional teaching Swiss hospitals. All patients admitted over a 9 month period to the three settings with a primary diagnosis of heart failure (n= 301) or pneumonia (n=441). Presence of permanent exclusion criteria on admission; final decision of (in)eligibility based on medical criteria; final decision regarding the transfer, taking into account the opinions of the family physician, the patient and informal caregivers. While 27.9% of heart failure and 37.6% of pneumonia patients were considered to be eligible from a medical point of view, the program acceptance by family physicians, patients and informal caregivers was low and a transfer to home hospital was ultimately chosen for just 3.8% of heart failure and 9.6% of pneumonia patients. There were no major differences between the three settings.\",\n \"This secondary quantitative analysis provides evidence for an association between difficulty in accessing in-hours care and use of out-of-hours primary care services. The findings can motivate the development of interventions to improve in-hour access.\",\n \"Care by Design™ (CBD) (Canada), a model of coordinated team-based primary care, was implemented in long-term care facilities (LTCFs) in Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada, to improve access to and continuity of primary care and to reduce high rates of transfers to emergency departments (EDs). This was an observational time series before and after the implementation of CBD (Canada). Participants are LTCF residents with 911 Emergency Health Services calls from 10 LTCFs, representing 1424 beds. Data were abstracted from LTCF charts and Emergency Health Services databases. The primary outcome was ambulance transports from LTCFs to EDs. Secondary outcomes included access (primary care physician notes in charts) and continuity (physician numbers and contacts). After implementation of CBD (Canada), transports from LTCFs to EDs were reduced by 36%, from 68 to 44 per month (P = .01). Relational and informational continuity of care improved with resident charts with ≥10 physician notes, increasing 38% before CBD to 55% after CBD (P = .003), and the median number of chart notes increased from 7 to 10 (P = .0026). Physicians contacted before 911 calls and onsite assessment increased from 38% to 54% (P = .01) and 3.7% to 9.2% (P = .03), respectively, before CBD to after CBD.\",\n \"To evaluate the degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists when evaluating the referral criteria in patients with suspected early spondyloarthropathy (Spa). Patients with suspected early Spa (according to predefined clinical referral criteria) were sent by primary care physicians to early Spa units (where a rheumatologist evaluated the same criteria and confirmed the diagnosis) through an on-line platform. We assessed the agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria among patients with definitive Spa using the kappa index (k). Eight hundred and two patients were analysed, 8.31% of whom were incorrectly referred to the rheumatologist. The degree of agreement regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was poor for inflammatory back pain (k=0,16; 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0,09-0,23), radiographic sacroiliitis (k=0,31; 95% CI 0,211-0,428), back or joint pain (k=0,21; 95% CI 0,14-0,29); mild for asymmetric arthritis (k=0,51; 95% CI 0,43-0,59), positive HLA B27 (k=0,59; 95% CI 0,52-0,67) and family history (k=0,50; 95% CI 0,415-0,604); and it was good or very good for anterior uveitis (k=0,81; 95% CI 0,68-0,93), inflammatory bowel disease (k=0,87; 95% CI 0,79-0,96) and psoriasis (k=0,73; 95% CI 0,65-0,81),.\",\n \"For the first time in German-speaking countries, this study provides evidence for the effectiveness of acute day hospital treatment as compared to conventional inpatient treatment. If detailed eligibility criteria for patients are used as defined here, approximately 30 % of the general psychiatric patients in need of acute hospital-based treatment may be cared for in this special mode of day hospital service provision.\",\n \"This study examined whether depressed patients treated exclusively in primary care report less need for care and less acceptability of treatment options than those depressed patients treated in the specialty mental health setting after up to 6 months of treatment. Cross-sectional study. Forty-five community primary care practices. A total of 881 persons with major depression who had received mental health services in the previous 6 months and who enrolled in 3 of the 4 Quality Improvement for Depression Collaboration Studies. Patients were categorized into 1 of 2 groups: 1) having received mental health services exclusively from a primary care provider (45%), or 2) having received any services from a mental health specialist (55%) in the previous 6 months. Compared with patients who received care from mental health specialists, patients who received mental health services exclusively from primary care providers had 2.7-fold the odds (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.6 to 4.4) of reporting that no treatment was definitely acceptable and had 2.4-fold the odds (95% CI, 1.5 to 3.9) of reporting that evidence-based treatment options (antidepressant medication) were definitely not acceptable. These results were adjusted for demographic, social/behavioral, depression severity, and economic factors using multiple logistic regression analysis.\",\n \"Previous U.S. studies suggest that the incremental (\\\"marginal\\\") use of the aggressive approach to care for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in patients differing only in their distance to hospitals offering aggressive care may be associated with small mortality benefits. We hypothesized that the marginal benefits should be larger in Canada, as the country is operating on a lower margin because the approach to care is more conservative overall. This retrospective study used administrative data of hospital admissions and health services for all patients admitted for a first AMI in Quebec in 1988 (n = 8,674). We used differential distances to hospitals offering aggressive care as instrumental variables when measuring mortality up to four years after AMI. Of the 4,422 subjects who were>or = 65 years old, 11 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days after admission. In a previous study that applied similar methodology to the 1987 U.S. Medicare population, 23 percent of subjects received catheterization within 90 days. As in the U.S. study, we found that subjects living closer to hospitals offering aggressive care were more likely to receive aggressive care than subjects living further away (26 percent versus 19 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days; 95 percent CI: 5 percent to 9 percent). Unlike the U.S. study, we found no differences in mortality across the \\\"close\\\" versus \\\"far\\\" differential distance groups (unadjusted differences at one year: 1 percent; 95 percent CI: -1 percent to 3 percent). This absence of association held in elderly (>or = 65 years) and younger age groups. Adjusted results also showed no differences between subjects receiving aggressive versus conservative care (at one year: 4 percent; 95 percent CI: -11 percent to 20 percent).\",\n \"A significant number of children require brief hospitalisation for relatively minor illness, but unnecessary delays caused by administrative aspects of hospital admission and relatively infrequent inpatient review by medical staff often lengthen the period of admission. Significant cost savings are possible with the use of a short stay facility, and a large number of patients are suitable for this form of care.\",\n \"yes. People with CMHP use more healthcare resources. Referral to the IAPT programme is associated with a subsequent reduction in emergency department attendances, sickness certification and improved adherence to drug treatment.\",\n \"Optimizing human resources at trauma facilities may increase quality of care. The purpose of this study was to assess whether staffing changes within a Level I trauma center improved mortality and shortened length of stay (LOS) for trauma patients. Mortality, hospital LOS, and intensive care unit LOS were evaluated during three time periods: trauma service coverage by in-house general surgery residents and attendings (\\\"group 1\\\"), the creation of a core trauma panel with in-house trauma surgeons (\\\"group 2\\\"), and the addition of physician assistants (PAs) to the core trauma panel (\\\"group 3\\\"). Logistic regression and chi tests were used to compare mortalities, and multiple linear regression, t-tests, and median tests were used to compare LOS. There were 15,297 adult patients with trauma included in the analysis. After adjustment for transfers-in, mechanism of injury, injury severity score, age, and head injury, the presence of in-house trauma surgeons (group 2) decreased the following compared with group 1: overall mortality (3.12% vs. 3.82%, p = 0.05), mortality in the severely injured (11.41% vs. 14.83%, p = 0.02), and median intensive care unit LOS (3.03 days vs. 3.40 days, p = 0.006). The introduction of PAs to the core trauma panel (group 3 vs. group 2) decreased overall mortality (2.80% vs. 3.76%, p = 0.05), and reduced mean and median hospital LOS (4.32 days vs. 4.69 days, p = 0.05; and 3.74 days vs. 3.88 days, p = 0.02, respectively).\",\n \"A simple message that challenges consumers to think about whether the ED is truly more convenient and that provides a simple mechanism for finding out whether a trip to the ED is necessary (primary care practice contact) holds promise as a mechanism to reduce ED use for those who have ready access to primary care.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.\",\n \"The IHC experience demonstrates that mental health services can be effectively integrated into everyday practice in a primary care setting. Clinical and financial burden can be decreased for the health care team, patients, and family.\",\n \"Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).\",\n \"Reporting unmet health care needs or no family physician have more of an impact on the use of alternative therapies than wait lists do. The evidence is not clear as to whether alternative care is sometimes used as a substitute to conventional care rather than a complement.\",\n \"The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).\",\n \"To investigate the quality of information in referrals for patients aged under 16 years referred for dental extraction under general anaesthesia (GA), to ascertain the knowledge and expectations of the parents of these patients, and to determine whether the number of teeth extracted in secondary care coincides with that of the referring dentist. Retrospective study of referrals of all patients aged under 16 years referred to community dental clinics in Berkshire, Buckinghamshire, Northamptonshire and Oxfordshire over a 26-day period. The majority (62.2%) of the 251 referrals examined were for extractions under GA. Of these, 125 were by letter and 117 using a pro forma. Significantly more pro formas (33) than letters (8) contained a full medical history (P<0.001). A treatment plan was included in significantly more pro formas (76) than letters (49) (P<0.01). Few referrals contained a note about the discussion of alternatives to a GA procedure and only 37% (58/156) of parents reported that the referring general dental practitioner had discussed alternative treatments with them. A total of 551 primary teeth were indicated for removal but 846 teeth were eventually removed.\",\n \"To evaluate agreement between independent clinician raters using a triage protocol to prioritize referrals for occupational therapy and physiotherapy within a community rehabilitation program. The priority category allocated to consecutive referrals by one of six clinicians in the referral office was compared with a second rating made by an independent occupational therapist, blinded to the initial priority rating. A centralized referral office staffed by allied health and nursing professionals designed as a single point of access for sub acute and ambulatory services within a large metropolitan health network. 214 referrals for adults requiring community based occupational therapy or physiotherapy rehabilitation for orthopaedic, neurological or other conditions (such as falls or cardio-respiratory conditions). Agreement (weighted kappa = κ(w)) between the two ratings. Overall agreement was moderate (κ(w) = 0.60), but disagreement occurred in 30% of cases. Professional discipline of the raters did not affect agreement. Agreement varied between diagnostic subgroups, with significantly lower agreement for referrals for rehabilitation following elective orthopaedic surgery (κ(w) = 0.25) than the other categories combined. Differences in agreement were observed between the four triage categories, with the lowest observed agreement in the most urgent category.\",\n \"To identify the impact of in-reach services providing specialist nursing care on outcomes for older people presenting to the emergency department from residential aged care. Retrospective cohort study compared clinical outcomes of 2278 presentations from 2009 with 2051 presentations from 2011 before and after the implementation of in-reach services. Median emergency department length of stay decreased by 24 minutes (7.0 vs 6.6 hours, P < 0.001) and admission rates decreased by 23% (68 vs 45%, P < 0.001). The proportion of people with repeat emergency department visits within six months decreased by 12% (27 vs 15%). The proportion of admitted patients who were discharged with an end of life palliative care plan increased by 13% (8 vs 21%, P = 0.007).\",\n \"Multidisciplinary stroke care was successfully implemented in a resource-constrained secondary-level hospital in South Africa and despite the limitations of the study, the significant reduction in inpatient mortality and increase in referral for inpatient rehabilitation would suggest an improvement in stroke care. Resource utilization in terms of length of hospital stay increased by a mean of 2 days but the number of CT brain scans performed and referral to a tertiary hospital did not increase significantly.\",\n \"Diabetic patients with inadequate glycemic control ought to have their management intensified. Failure to do so can be termed \\\"clinical inertia.\\\" Because data suggest that specialist care results in better control than primary care, we evaluated whether specialists demonstrated less clinical inertia than primary care physicians. Using administrative data, we studied all non-insulin-requiring diabetic patients in eastern Ontario aged 65 or older who had A1c results>8% between September 1999 and August 2000. Drug intensification was measured by comparing glucose-lowering drug regimens in 4-month blocks before and after the elevated A1c test and was defined as 1) the addition of a new oral drug, 2) a dose increase of an existing oral drug, or 3) the initiation of insulin. Propensity score-based matching was used to control for confounding between groups. There were 591 patients with specialist care and 1,911 with exclusively primary care. In the matched cohorts, 45.1% of patients with specialist care versus 37.4% with primary care had drug intensification (P = 0.009). Most of this difference was attributed to specialists' more frequent initiation of insulin in response to elevated A1c.\",\n \"To assess how well primary care clinicians select patients needing early referral to a dentist based on an oral cavity examination. Prospective comparison of the screening oral cavity examinations performed by primary care clinicians with that performed by a dentist. General medicine clinic and dental clinic of a Veterans Affairs Medical Center. A sample of 86 consecutive patients attending regularly scheduled appointments in a primary care medical clinic. Each patient was examined independently by two primary care clinicians and then one dentist. History and physical findings, clinical impression, and plan based on the oral cavity examination were recorded. The reference standard was the examination by a dentist blinded to the patient's history. The prevalences of lesions suspicious for premalignancy, periodontal disease, calculus, and caries were 23%, 37%, 54%, and 18%, respectively. When the primary care clinicians noticed a lesion suspicious for premalignancy, the likelihood that such a lesion was present increased significantly (LR+ = 2.7 to 6.6). However, a normal examination by the primary care clinicians did not significantly lower the likelihood of a premalignant lesion (LR- = 0.7 to 0.8). The primary care clinicians were more efficient at evaluating dental and gingival conditions (LR+ = 2.7 to 5.8, LR- = 0.2 to 0.7).\",\n \"Referrals of patients from primary care to medical specialist care are an important activity in any health care system. German data show that the number of referrals by GPs have increased since 2004, but detailed insight into the experiences of patients, GPs and consultants regarding referrals is very limited. This study aimed at describing the experiences of consultants, GPs and patients with referrals from primary care to medical specialist care. An additional objective was to examine the impact of purpose regarding the referral and of the referrer on the experiences of GPs and patients. Referrals of 26 general practitioners (GPs) from 25 practices in Marbach, a rural region in the south of Germany were studied. All adult patients referred after consulting these GPs in a period of five weeks were eligible for the study. GPs, consultants and patients completed short structured forms to document factual characteristics of each referral and their experiences with the referral. GPs and patients completed forms before and after the referral was made, while the consultants completed forms after the patient had consulted them. Overall, consultants were very positive about appropriateness of the referral (91%). They were somewhat more critical regarding the information provided on the patients' medical history (61%) and prescriptions (48%). In 258 referrals (63%) GPs perceived clear diagnostic benefits, while in 202 referrals (49%) they perceived clear treatment benefits. GPs' experiences were more positive if the GP's purpose was to reduce diagnostic uncertainty (beta = 0.318, p < 0.001) or if the purpose was to exclude serious illness (beta = 0.143, p < 0.010). Other purposes of the referral had no impact on their experiences. Patients' expectations regarding the referrals mostly referred to diagnosis, including increased diagnostic certainty (80%), detailed information about the illness (66%) and exclusion of serious illness (62%). They were overall satisfied with the referral (83%). Their experiences with the referral were more positive if the initiative for the referral came from the physician (beta = 0.365, p < 0.000).\",\n \"Using the indicator diseases of pneumonia in children and malaria in adults, this study concluded that this network did not meet design expectations as the central level referral hospital cared for a similar case-mix of patients as the district level, but at six times the cost. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals could be improved by developing or strengthening intermediate level facilities, by changing mechanisms of access to specialist facilities and by training health professionals in community settings.\",\n \"yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.\",\n \"Medical motives dominate the decision to refer patients to general hospitals, but access to a GP hospital, in cases where nursing needs and long distances to the general hospital are supplementary considerations, reduces the proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals.\",\n \"Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.\",\n \"To explore the rate of referrals of long-term care (LTC) residents to emergency departments (EDs) and to determine the appropriateness of the referrals. Retrospective analysis of 2 administrative data sets, paramedic records and hospital records, for the year 2000. Catchment area of Hamilton, Ont. Nineteen LTC facilities and 3 EDs of Hamilton Health Sciences. Number and appropriateness of referrals were the main outcomes measured; we also examined the timing of and reasons for referrals, arrival status of patients, admissions to hospital, referrals to specialists, and treatments. Unit of analysis was the referral. As no evidence-based guidelines exist for appropriateness of referral, we defined appropriateness as a balance of issues with blinded physician judgment calls on anonymous random subsamples of patients admitted to hospital and those not admitted to determine appropriateness of referrals. Descriptive statistics were used, as well as chi and t tests. Out of 2473 licensed LTC beds, 606 residents were referred to 1 of 3 EDs of the Hamilton Health Sciences hospitals, giving a referral rate of 24.5%. The average age of these LTC residents was 81.6 years, and 63.2% were women. Peak referral months were late winter; peak days were Tuesday and Friday. Time of arrival to the EDs was reported in 6-hour segments, with just over half (51.2%) of residents arriving during the day and one-third in the evening. Respiratory and cardiovascular problems comprised 48.6% of referrals. At arrival 67.3% of cases were deemed urgent or emergent. Wait times ranged from 0 to 60 hours, with 25% of residents seen within 1 hour, 44% within 2 hours, and 50% within 4 hours. Two-thirds (66.7%) of residents were admitted to hospital and of these 62% stayed 1 week.\",\n \"To evaluate the effect of a risk factor checklist and training video for general practitioners in reducing inter-practice variation and improving the appropriateness of referrals (assessed by their positive predictive value or PPV) of patients with suspected otitis media with effusion (OME or 'glue ear') to secondary care. Fifty general practices (177 practitioners) from the NHS Trent region and the West of Scotland were cluster-randomised either to a control group (n = 12) or to one of three intervention groups (training video (n = 16), checklist (n = 11), or both (n = 11)). Data on all paediatric ear, nose and throat (ENT) referrals and diagnostic results at ENT clinics were collected for a one-year period pre- and post-intervention. Referral rates for OME and for closely related conditions were calculated for children aged 0-15 years, based on each practice's list size. PPV was defined as the proportion of referrals resulting in bilateral hearing loss>or = 20 dB at the ENT outpatient department. There was a significant improvement in the PPV, adjusted for patients' waiting time between general practitioner (GP) referral and being seen at the ENT department. The improvement in PPV pre- and post-intervention was 15% (95% confidence interval, CI: -12.1% to 41.7%) for the practices receiving both interventions, compared with a degradation of 20% pre- and post-intervention (95% CI: -32.9% to -6.4%) for practices receiving only one intervention and a degradation of 34% for those receiving no intervention.\",\n \"The Affordable Care Act places primary care at the cornerstone of health maintenance. It is believed that increasing access to primary health care providers will limit emergency department (ED) use. This study examines woman's health-related ED visits by patients enrolled in an obstetric/gynecologic (OB/GYN) clinic. A database was created combining patient information from a hospital-affiliated OB/GYN clinic and the electronic medical records from the ED of the affiliated hospital. This database was used to evaluate woman's health-related ED use by patients registered in this OB/GYN clinic compared with patients not affiliated with the clinic. Over an 23-month period, there were 41,791 ED visits made by 21,223 individual women >12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.\",\n \"One major goal of the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is to improve continuity of care between patients and providers and reduce the utilization of non-primary care services like the emergency department (ED). To characterize continuity under the Veterans Health Administration's PCMH model--the Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT), at one large Veterans Affair's (VA's) primary care clinic, determine the characteristics associated with high levels of continuity, and assess the association between continuity and ED visits. Retrospective, observational cohort study of patients at the West Haven VA (WHVA) Primary Care Clinic from March 2011 to February 2012. The 13,495 patients with established care at the Clinic, having at least one visit, one year before March 2011. Our exposure variable was continuity of care--a patient seeing their assigned primary care provider (PCP) at each clinic visit. The outcome of interest was having an ED visit. The patients encompassed 42,969 total clinic visits, and 3185 (24%) of them had 15,458 ED visits. In a multivariable logistic regression analysis, patients with continuity of care--at least one visit with their assigned PCP--had lower ED utilization compared to individuals without continuity (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] 0.54; 95% CI: 0.41, 0.71), controlling for frequency of primary care visits, comorbidities, insurance, distance from the ED, and having a trainee PCP assigned. Likewise, the adjusted rate of ED visits was 544/1000 person-year (PY) for patients with continuity vs. 784/1000 PY for patients without continuity (p = 0.001). Compared to patients with low continuity (<33% of visits), individuals with medium (33-50%) and high (>50%) continuity were less likely to utilize the ED.\",\n \"The results support the view that patients choose appropriately between attending a Minor Injury Unit or an Accident and Emergency department. However, there was evidence that the availability of an intermediate tier of health care for minor injuries appears likely to result in increased overall workload. This small-scale study leaves unanswered questions in terms of clinical outcomes and the quality of care provided by different facilities.\",\n \"Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.\",\n \"To establish whether a system of differential shared care between general practitioners and specialists is compatible with patients receiving the level of care they require. We sought to trace 200 shared care patients whose care had been kept at the general practitioner level after initial referral and compared them with a group of patients who had been re-referred to the Royal Prince Alfred Hospital Diabetes Centre for specialist review. There were no significant differences in glycaemic, blood pressure and lipid levels of returned and non-returned patients at initial assessment. However, non-returned patients were less likely to have a history of macrovascular disease or risk factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR) 0.4; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.2-0.6). Their referral letter was also more likely to emphasize their type and/or duration of diabetes (adjusted OR 4.6; 95% CI 2.5-8.4). Nearly half (47.1%) of the non-returned group changed their doctor in the years following their initial specialist review, increasing their likelihood of not being re-referred five-fold (adjusted OR 5.0; 95% CI 2.9-8.8). At initial assessment, non-returned patients were given less treatment recommendations (adjusted OR 0.5; 95% CI 0.3-0.7). Doctors registered with the Diabetes Shared Care Programme referred more patients than their non-shared care counterparts. However, a higher proportion of these doctors (52.5% vs. 21.3%; chi(2) = 16.5, 1 d.f., P = 0.00005) were selective in whom they re-referred.\",\n \"In this preliminary investigation, we found that referral rates for diagnostic tests and specialist clinics increased independently for board-certified specialists (compared with GPs), for those with higher burnout levels and when objective workload increases. These findings support the conceptualization of referrals rates as objectively measured negative outcomes of burnout. Further replications with other objective outcomes, additional HMOs and bigger samples are warranted.\",\n \"yes. Many parents who expect outpatient treatment prefer to take their child to a primary care pediatrician during evening hours, but present to the ED because of lack of primary care access.\",\n \"To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.\",\n \"Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.\",\n \"Teleconferenced consultations for routine outpatient referrals with joint participation of general practitioner were feasible. These may have an important potential benefit for improving communication between primary and secondary care.\",\n \"Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.\",\n \"Many patients initially attend GP services for STIs, and primary care is therefore already an important setting with potential for STI control. However, delay in treatment through attendance at primary care, and barriers in access to primary care, need to be addressed in the planning of future services.\",\n \"Anecdotal evidence has suggested inefficiency in the pyramidal health care referral system established in Zimbabwe in 1980, as part of its primary health care (PHC) model.AIM: To assess the functioning of the pyramidal referral system in two rural districts surrounding Harare, Zimbabwe, with regard to two common indicator conditions: pneumonia in children and malaria in adults. For a three-month period, all complete inpatient records with discharge diagnoses of pneumonia or malaria from three hospitals representing different levels of care were analyzed (n = 227). Data were collected on demographic and patient care variables. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals was determined by an assessment of the severity of illness and 'intensiveness' of care required. Data were analyzed for differences among the three hospitals and between the two indicator conditions. Per night inpatient bed costs for each hospital were also calculated. For pneumonia in children, 56.8% of patients admitted at the secondary level, 53.8% of patients at the tertiary level and 57.8% of patients at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For malaria in adults, 74.0% of patients seen at the secondary level, 81.5% of patients at the tertiary level and 54.3% at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For pneumonia, were no differences in severity between the three hospitals whereas for malaria significant case-mix differences among the hospitals were found. Most patients attending the highest level referral facility were inappropriate admissions who could have been treated at a lower level of care. The majority of patients at all the hospitals studied had used that hospital as their first or second point of contact with the health services. There were large variations in the inpatient per night bed costs between the three hospitals.\",\n \"To assess the impact of an enhanced primary care service for residential aged care facilities (RACF) on the transfer of patients from RACF to a hospital emergency department (ED). A before-after study of an enhanced primary care service provided by experienced ED-based nurses under the governance of general practitioners. The intervention was analysed comparatively using standardised normal deviates and seasonal autoregressive integrated moving average models, complemented by qualitative assessment. There was a statistically significant reduction (17%, P < 0.001) in the number of transfers during the intervention period. This finding held when adjusting for the seasonality of ED referrals over a 4-year period. The intervention was highly valued by clinicians in RACF and ED.\",\n \"Transfer of patients does not overtly reduce health care costs, but overall LOS and time to first outpatient consultation are substantially longer in patients transferred to secondary hospitals than in patients discharged directly. Readmission rate is high during the month after surgery, but with no difference between groups.\",\n \"yes. Increased time from first primary care to first otolaryngology evaluation is associated with increased outpatient health care costs. Earlier otolaryngology examination may reduce health care expenditures in the evaluation and management of patients with laryngeal/voice disorders.\",\n \"Late referral to specialist nephrological care is associated with increased morbidity, mortality, and cost. Consequently, nephrologists' associations recommend early referral. The recommendations' effectiveness remains questionable: 22-51% of referrals need renal replacement therapy (RRT) within 3-4 months. This may be due to these recommendations addressing the specialist, rather than the primary care providers (PCP). The potential of specialist intervention aiming at slowing progression of chronic renal failure was introduced individually to some 250 local PCPs, and referral strategies were discussed. To overcome the PCPs' most often expressed fears, every referred patient was asked to report back to his PCP immediately after the initial specialist examination, and new medications were prescribed directly, and thus allotted to the nephrologist's budget. In retrospective analysis, the stage of renal disease in patients referred within three months before the introductory round (group A, n = 18), was compared to referrals two years later (group B, n = 50). Relative number of patients remained stable (28%) for mild/ moderate chronic kidney disease (MMCKD), while there was a noticeable shift from patients referred severe chronic kidney disease (SCKD) (group A: 44%, group B: 20%) to patients referred in moderate chronic kidney disease (MCKD) (group A: 28%, group B: 52%).\",\n \"Patients with drug use disorders are heavy users of emergency department (ED) and inpatient hospital care. This study examines whether formal mechanisms to link addiction treatment patients to primary medical care, either directly on site or by off-site referral-when compared with an absence of said mechanisms-might reduce these patients' use of ED and hospital services after substance abuse treatment. We used longitudinal data from 6 methadone maintenance programs with 232 patients, 24 outpatient nonmethadone programs with 1202 patients, and 14 long-term residential programs with 679 patients in the National Treatment Improvement Evaluation Study. Multivariate logistic models controlling for health status and medical service utilization before treatment examined whether provision of medical services on- or off-site during treatment linkage led to reduced use of ED and hospital services in the year after treatment compared with no such provision. On-site delivery of primary care reduced subsequent ED and hospital use among patients in methadone maintenance and long-term residential compared with the nonlinkage condition but not in outpatient nonmethadone programs. Off-site referral for medical care reduced subsequent ED visits but not hospitalizations in long-term residential programs.\",\n \"yes. Referral by a primary care provider to a PED was significantly and independently associated with greater severity of illness and resource utilization. Referral status should be considered in algorithms used to triage cases for evaluation in the PED.\",\n \"As the cost of acute care in hospitals increases, there is an increasing need to find alternative means of providing acute care. Hospital in the home (HITH) has developed in response to this challenge. Current evidence is conflicting as to whether HITH provides cost savings compared with in-hospital care (IHC). The heterogeneous nature of HITH and the clinical complexity of patients is the greatest obstacle to making valid comparisons between the two modes of care. To compare costs and outcomes of HITH to IHC in hospitals in Victoria, Australia. Hospital morbidity data and medical records from Victoria, Australia. A costing study of 924 randomly selected episodes of HITH care, individually matched to 924 comparable IHC episodes. Unadjusted total episode costs (TEC) and averaged daily costs for HITH and IHC were calculated. Mortality and length of stay (LOS) were compared for HITH and IHC episodes. Simple linear and multiple regression were used to analyse costing data, while logistic regression was used to compare in-hospital mortality and LOS in HITH versus IHC episodes. The 1848 episodes of care in the sample represented a heterogeneous range of acute conditions in 31 Victoria hospitals. HITH consisted of two distinct subgroups: pure-HITH (total episode substitution) and mixed-HITH (partial episode substitution). The cost of episodes of acute care containing a HITH component were overall 9% less expensive than IHC (P = 0.04), while pure-HITH was 38% cheaper than matched IHC (P < 0.001). The variable HITH, along with LOS and chemotherapy, explained the 60% variation in TEC. The mean cost of pure-HITH episodes was 22% lower compared to mixed-HITH (P = 0.004). The in-hospital mortality rate in HITH (3.8%) and IHC (5.2%) was not significantly different. Pure-HITH was associated with shorter LOS, while mixed HITH was strongly associated with longer LOS.\",\n \"Alternative structures such as primary care units near the ED seem to be an appropriate response to meet the growing demand of no urgent patients. The success of providing this reorientation, however, could be determined by the working hours of the structures and the practice of certain technical skills.\",\n \"Referral of patients with AMI for primary angioplasty is used only in a minority of hospitals. The referred patients represent a selected, more ill subgroup, resulting in a higher hospital morbidity compared to patients treated on-site. Continuous efforts should be undertaken to decrease the time delay from admission at the initial hospital to the beginning of revascularization.\",\n \"Access to primary care could reduce use of more costly health care by uninsured individuals through prevention and early treatment. We analyzed data from a program providing free primary care to test this hypothesis. We compared emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations among uninsured, low-income adults who received immediate versus delayed access to a program providing free primary care, including labs, X-rays, and specialty consultation. We used surveys to identify ER visits and hospitalizations during the 12 months preceding and following program enrollment or wait list entry. Hospitalizations decreased from the year before entry to the year following entry in participants with immediate and delayed (6.0% vs 8.8% decrease) access. ER use also decreased in both groups (11.2% vs 15.4%).\",\n \"Adults with chronic disease are the most frequent users of the primary healthcare system. In Manitoba, patients are allowed to seek ambulatory (outpatient) care from the provider of their choosing (primary care physician or specialist), with referrals to specialists preferred but not always required. Some patients receive their routine care from specialists. We conducted this study to determine the patterns by which adults with chronic disease access ambulatory care as a prelude to exploring the impact these patterns may have on the quality of care received. Physician claims for all visits between 2007/8-2009/10 were extracted from the Data Repository at the Manitoba Centre for Health Policy. Patients included in the analysis made at least four ambulatory visits to a primary care physician or specialist within the study period, and met the definition criteria for at least one of six chronic diseases: diabetes mellitus; congestive heart failure; mood disorders; ischemic heart disease; total respiratory morbidity; and/or hypertension. Patients were \\\"assigned\\\" to the physician they visited most regularly. Physician visit patterns were assessed by dividing visits into nine visit types based on the type of physician patients visited (assigned primary care physician, other primary care physician, or specialist) and whether or not they received a referral. 347,606 patients with 7,662,411 physician visits were included in the analysis. Most visits were to the patients' assigned primary care physician. About 50% of the visits to specialists were by referral from the assigned primary care physician. However, 26-29% of all visits to a primary care physician were not to the assigned primary care physician, and non-assigned physicians were more likely to refer patients to specialists than assigned primary care physicians.\",\n \"Ninety-one per cent of primary care trusts were using some form of referral management in 2009, although evidence for its effectiveness is limited.AIM: To assess the impact of three referral-management centres (RMCs) and two internal peer-review approaches to referral management on hospital outpatient attendance rates. A retrospective time-series analysis of 376 000 outpatient attendances over 3 years from 85 practices divided into five groups, with 714 000 registered patients in one English primary care trust. The age-standardised GP-referred first outpatient monthly attendance rate was calculated for each group from April 2009 to March 2012. This was divided by the equivalent monthly England rate, to derive a rate ratio. Linear regression tested for association between the introduction of referral management and change in the outpatient attendance rate and rate ratio. Annual group budgets for referral management were obtained. Referral management was not associated with a reduction in the outpatient attendance rate in any group. There was a statistically significant increase in attendance rate in one group (a RMC), which had an increase of 1.05 attendances per 1000 persons per month (95% confidence interval = 0.46 to 1.64; attendance rate ratio increase of 0.07) after adjustment for autocorrelation. Mean annual budgets ranged from £0.55 to £6.23 per registered patient in 2011/2012. RMCs were more expensive (mean annual budget £5.18 per registered patient) than internal peer-review approaches (mean annual budget £0.97 per registered patient).\",\n \"The aim of the present study was to establish if physiotherapy self-referral (SR) is viable, cost effective and beneficial to musculoskeletal outpatients in a primary care setting. In an urban National Health Service (NHS) primary care physiotherapy service, waiting times, attendance rates and treatment ratios (thus, episode-of-care costs) were deemed unsustainable. The introduction of 'Any Qualified Provider' is imminent and will drive NHS physiotherapy services to compete directly with private counterparts. Current literature, healthcare policy and the Chartered Society of Physiotherapy strongly advocate SR to promote value for money and improve the patient experience. A repeated measure prospective cohort study introduced an SR pathway parallel to existing general practice (GP) referrals and compared costs, attendance and data relating to the patient experience across groups. SR referral groups were found to have a higher proportion of female patients presenting with acute conditions. Cost minimization analysis indicated an average 32.3% reduction in episode-of-care cost with an SR-initiated intervention. An estimated cost minimization of between £84,387.80 and £124,472.06 was calculated if SR were to be expanded service-wide. SR referral reduced waiting times and improved patient satisfaction relating to waiting times and communication compared with traditional pathways.\",\n \"The lack of evidence for a reduction in clinical threshold for referral within the primary care sample suggests that general practitioners' referral rates are similar regardless of whether practice-based clinical psychology services are available. This has implications for primary-care-led commissioning of mental health services.\",\n \"yes. More than two-thirds of \\\"medical\\\" visits in rural areas were for acts that nurses could easily do. The easy access to a junior doctor did not promote preventive medicine. Replacement of junior doctors with properly trained nurses cooperating with GPs responsible for greater regions would be more cost-effective than junior doctors improving health in rural areas. Legislation should change, mainly with regard to repeat prescriptions, in order to reduce house visits.\",\n \"We aimed to explore the relative impact of medical and other situational motives on GP's decisions to refer patients to specialist care in a general hospital, and to assess whether having access to a GP hospital influences the decisions. We carried out a prospective study of consecutive doctor-patient contacts during one week. The effects of main motives, medical, social/nursing, general hospital advice, distance from the nearest general hospital and access to GP hospitals on referral decisions were explored by logistic regression. The motives for different referral decisions were also explored through frequency analyses. The study was set in general practices in the county of Finnmark in North Norway, which included 40 GPs from rural practices with access to a GP hospital and eight GPs working closer to a general hospital without access to GP hospital. We studied 2496 doctor-patient contacts, which resulted in 411 patients being considered for any kind of referral, of which 205 were referred to the general hospital. Medical needs were recorded as the only referral motive of major importance in about half of the cases considered for referral, while additional motives were recorded in the other half. The rationale for admissions to general hospitals and GP hospitals (in-patient care) was compatible in terms of the relative importance of the medical arguments. The GP hospital option was mainly chosen because of the long distance from the general hospital, nursing needs and the preferences of the patient and the family, and resulted in a lower proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals from GPs with access to a GP hospital.\",\n \"To examine access to primary care in new and traditional models using 2 dimensions of the concept of patient-centred access. An international survey examining the quality and costs of primary health care (the QUALICOPC study) was conducted in 2013 in Canada. This study adopted a descriptive cross-sectional survey method using data from practices across Canada. Each participating practice filled out the Family Physician Survey and the Practice Survey, and patients in each participating practice were asked to complete the Patient Experiences Survey. All 10 Canadian provinces. A total of 759 practices and 7172 patients. Independent t tests were conducted to examine differences between new and traditional models of care in terms of availability and accommodation, and affordability of care. Of the 759 practices, 407 were identified as having new models of care and 352 were identified as traditional. New models of care were distinct with respect to payment structure, opening hours, and having an interdisciplinary work force. Most participating practices were from large cities or suburban areas. There were few differences between new and traditional models of care regarding accessibility and accommodation in primary care. Patients under new models of care reported easier access to other physicians in the same practice, while patients from traditional models reported seeing their regular family physicians more frequently. There was no difference between the new and traditional models of care with regard to affordability of primary care. Patients attending clinics with new models of care reported that their physicians were more involved with them as a whole person than patients attending clinics based on traditional models did.\",\n \"The rates of annual visits for adult Medicaid enrollees to the emergency department (ED) are increasing. Many programs throughout the country are focused on engaging patients in the use of their primary care providers (PCP) rather than the ED for low acuity conditions. It is unclear, however, the proportion of patients who are willing to use primary care services rather than the ED if they are given the choice. Cross-sectional study of adult Medicaid enrollees (18 y and older) presenting to a large, urban, academic ED from June to August 2012 with a low acuity condition was performed. We excluded patients who did not have a PCP or active Medicaid insurance. Our primary goal was to determine the proportion of patients who prefer to use the ED, rather than their PCP clinic, if an appointment was immediately available. Our second goal was to understand why patients would prefer ED over PCP care. A total of 150 patients agreed to complete the survey, and 95 (63.3%) met our inclusion criteria. Forty-three patients (45.3%) stated preferring to use their PCPs rather than the ED if an appointment was available at that time. Thirteen (48.1%) cited that the ED had more technology or specialty care services available when compared with their PCP's clinic, 8 (15.4%) were in significant pain, and 6 (11.5%) felt the care they received in the ED was better than what they would receive in their PCP clinic.\",\n \"Redirect demand pathology severity level IV-V of the hospital emergency room (ED) to the Primary Health Care (AP) reference, increase in technical consultation and assess the effectiveness of the proposed Accessibility Plan (PA). Improving the quality of care offered, lowering the cost to achieve it. Quality research study conducted in January-2010 data collected throughout 2009, and compare them versus those obtained in 2008. Population allocated to the ABS Sagrada Familia (23,265 users). Beneficiaries in HUS AP and population due to specialized care, population scheduled diagnostic and therapeutic procedures (radiology, laboratory echo-doppler, cryosurgery ...), total annual visits, attendance, repetition,... Increased 86.5% of emergency radiographs in AP (avoiding lead to ED), 7.4% fewer referrals to the emergency; implantation circuit urgent analytical (laboratory of HUS not collapsed) 13.6% fewer referrals to vascular surgery (the Eco-Doppler), 5.92% less analytical (thank Cardio-Check), 297 fewer referrals to dermatology (for cryotherapy), 9.65% less refe- rrals to psychiatry (through group workshops mental health), decreased frequency (1.4%) and recurrence (2.3%) over 2007, 23.9% of referrals to ED pathology avoided level IV-V served in AP; save ∈ 57,335 on 2007.\",\n \"To assess whether adoption of the patient-centered medical home (PCMH) reduces emergency department (ED) utilization among patients with and without chronic illness. Data from approximately 460,000 Independence Blue Cross patients enrolled in 280 primary care practices, all converting to PCMH status between 2008 and 2012. We estimate the effect of a practice becoming PCMH-certified on ED visits and costs using a difference-in-differences approach which exploits variation in the timing of PCMH certification, employing either practice or patient fixed effects. We analyzed patients with and without chronic illness across six chronic illness categories. Among chronically ill patients, transition to PCMH status was associated with 5-8 percent reductions in ED utilization. This finding was robust to a number of specifications, including analyzing avoidable and weekend ED visits alone. The largest reductions in ED visits are concentrated among chronic patients with diabetes and hypertension.\",\n \"The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.\",\n \"To determine the levels of intra- and inter-grade variability of the vetting of general practice (GP) letters as well as the intra-rater reliability of letter prioritization. Prospective assessment of letter vetting and questionnaire survey. Three otolaryngology secondary referral centres in Bristol and Bath, UK. Twelve consultants, nine registrars, four staff and associate specialists (SAS) and 16 senior house officers (SHOs) in otolaryngology. Fifty GP letters (not including 'fast-track' referrals) addressed to one of the ENT departments were chosen sequentially. These were anonymized, photocopied and included in the questionnaire to all participating staff. Participants were asked to vet the letters as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' according to supplied waiting time criteria. The same letters were sent out again six weeks later. There was no significant difference between grades for the mean number of letters vetted into each category. Intra-grade variability was high; the number of letters vetted urgent varied from one out of 50 to 15 out of 50 for the consultants. The intra-rater reliability was high.\",\n \"The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).\",\n \"yes. The findings indicate that regular and proactive 'maintenance' primary care, as distinct from 'reactive' care, is beneficial to older CRD patients by reducing their risks of hospitalisation and death.\",\n \"Our aim was to evaluate the efficacy of the consulting of internal medicine (CIM) in primary care (PC) on the resolution of medical processes. Prospective case-control study of a population of 87,016 inhabitants during a 1-year period. Patients (2,167) jointly attended by family physicians (FP) and consulting internists (CI) who go weekly to the primary care center (PCC) to attend patients who otherwise would have been referred to specialized consultation (SC). As the control group 1,470 patients were randomly and simultaneously chosen among the total of 14.687 first medical referrals during the period of the study. We observed a significant reduction in: referrals to SC (22%; CI 95%, 18-26%); mean time for SC (23.6 days; CI 95%, 17.3-29.9 days); mean number of tests per patient ordered by FP (0.53; CI 95%, 0.31-0.75) or by CIM (1.22; CI 95%, 1.02-1.40); mean time for patient information on those tests ordered by CIM (21.2 days; CI 95%, 8.5-33.9 days); mean time for the resolution of processes (39.4 days; CI 95%, 35.5-43.3 days); crossed SC rate (23.7%; CI 95%, 20.3-27.1%); and specialized follow-up visits (28.8%; CI 95%, 24.5-33.1%) (p < 0.005 in all cases). The resolution rate of processes (15%; CI 95%, 11-19%) and the discharge rate (41.6%; CI 95%, 35.5-47.7%) were significantly higher for the CIM (p < 0.01 in both cases). The referral rate to SC showed a negative correlation (r = 0.81; p < 0.01) with the management quality, and it related to type of training, age and years of medical practice of the general practitioner (GP). The satisfaction of patients and GPs with the CIM was very high.\",\n \"Primary angioplasty for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can only be performed in a limited number of centers. Therefore, some patients will be referred for this procedure. We analyzed the data of the prospective observational MITRA trial, which took place at 54 hospitals in southwest Germany, to describe current practices and outcomes in referred patients compared to patients treated on-site. Out of 491 patients treated with primary angioplasty, 63 (12.8%) were referred. Out of 46 hospitals without facilities to perform primary angioplasty, 29 (63%) never referred patients. Referred patients were less often male (60.3% versus 75.9%; p = 0.013), suffered more often from anterior wall infarction (62.9% versus 45.8%; p = 0.014), and more often had absolute contraindications against thrombolysis (11.1% versus 2.8%; p = 0.006). In-hospital time to treatment was 80 minutes in patients treated on-site compared to 190 minutes in referred patients (p = 0.001). There was a non-significant difference of in-hospital mortality between the two groups (11.1% for referred versus 7.5% on-site; p = 0.319). Referred patients had a higher hospital morbidity as expressed by a higher proportion of post-infarction angina (28.6% versus 4.2%; p = 0.001), a more frequent need for urgent revascularization (43.8% versus 16.4%; p = 0.001) and a higher proportion of advanced heart failure (11.1% versus 4.4%; p = 0.062).\",\n \"Hospitalized persons with MCC including serious mental illness enrolled in a medical home were more likely to receive timely outpatient follow-up with a primary care provider but not with a mental health specialist. These findings suggest that the medical home model may be more adept at linking patients to providers in primary care rather than to specialty mental health providers.\",\n \"To evaluate the cost effectiveness to primary care trusts (PCT) in commissioning general practitioner (GP) referrals in-hours to emergency care practitioners (ECP). A retrospective case note review for patients referred by GPs in-hours to ECP over a 4-month period to ascertain any added value over a GP visit. In a 4-month period 105 patients were referred. In most cases (90.5%) the ECP was utilised as a substitute for a GP rather than providing any additional skills. Defining an avoided attendance as the ECP undertaking an intervention outside a GP skill set this equated to a 9.5% avoided attendance rate compared with the ECP service standard rate of 60%. This has implications both in terms of financial benefit and ongoing ECP service sustainability.\",\n \"To assess the potential for substituting alternative forms of care for admission to an acute hospital in particular groups of patients. A screening tool, the intensity-severity-discharge review system with adult criteria (ISD-A), developed for hospital utilisation review in the USA, was used in a cohort of hospital admissions to identify a group of patients who could potentially have been treated outside the acute hospital. These patients were further assessed by a panel of general practitioners (GPs) to determine the most appropriate alternative form of care. A cost analysis was performed on the results obtained. General medicine and geriatric specialties in one acute hospital in the south western region. Patients comprised a sample of 701 admitted to general medical and geriatric specialties. The screening tool identified 19.7% of admissions for whom there was potential for treatment outside the acute hospital. Assessment by the GP panel reduced this potential to between 9.8% and 15.0% of emergency admissions. The alternatives most frequently identified as \\\"most appropriate\\\" were the community hospital/GP bed and the urgent outpatient assessment (within either 24 or 48 hours). Potential resource savings based on the average cost were relatively small. This potential seemed to be greater for the alternative of the urgent outpatient assessment.\",\n \"Improved processes of referral from Primary Care are an important part of a strategy to reduce the population burden of cardiovascular disease. A unique service of rapid access clinics, where primary care practitioners can refer patients to a daily secondary care cardiology service without appointment has been established at Charing Cross Hospital in West London. Previous data have shown the effectiveness of this service in diagnosing and risk stratifying patients with suspected cardiac disease. We evaluated Primary Care and Patient views on this service. A patient survey of a cohort of 1223 patients recruited to a follow up study of individuals seen over 1 year in the service and qualitative in-depth interviews of a randomised sample of 10 out of 82 referring Primary Care Practitioners was performed. Less than 2% of patients had a negative experience of the service. Most patients did not have to revisit the Primary Care Practitioner for the same symptom. Primary Care Practitioners were overwhelmingly positive about the ease of access. They viewed positively the ability to obtain prompt diagnosis or reassurance. The heart failure service was used least but this was the most challenging condition to diagnose. There were concerns about nurse specialist based services and restriction to 'first presentations'. Communication about the service could be improved.\",\n \"In-house referral is acceptable to patients and provides a straightforward method of addressing uncertainty over the need for referral from primary to secondary care.\",\n \"Methods are needed to ensure that those patients referred from primary to secondary care are those most likely to benefit. In-house referral is the referral of a patient by a general practitioner to another general practitioner within the same practice for a second opinion on the need for secondary care referral. To describe whether in-house referral is practical and acceptable to patients, and the health outcomes for patients. Practices were randomized into an intervention or a control group. In intervention practices, patients with certain conditions who were about to be referred to secondary care were referred in-house. If the second clinician agreed referral was appropriate the patient was referred on to secondary care. In control practices patients were referred in the usual fashion. Patient satisfaction and health status was measured at the time of referral, 6 months and one year. Eight intervention and seven control practices took part. For the 177 patients referred in-house, 109 (61%) were judged to need referral on to secondary care. For patient satisfaction, the only difference between the groups studied was that at 12 months patients who had been referred in-house reported themselves as being more satisfied than those referred directly to hospital. For health status, the only difference found was that at the time of referral, patients who had been referred in-house and judged to need hospital referral reported themselves as being less able on the 'Physical function' subscale of the SF-36 than patients who were referred in-house and judged to not need hospital referral.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":590,"string":"590"}}},{"rowIdx":273160,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Do better quality consultations result in better health?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.","For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations."],"string":"[\n \"In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.\",\n \"For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["The 22 primary care clinics studied appear to be recommending and providing needed preventive services to visiting patients at the same rate regardless of income or insurance status. The reasons for differences in prevention status by SES are complex but the low proportion of all patients receiving recommendations for needed services suggests the need to take advantage of all visits for updating prevention needs.","Implementation of quality improvement interventions that have modest accommodations for minority patients can improve quality of care for whites and underserved minorities alike, while minorities may be especially likely to benefit clinically. Further research needs to clarify whether employment benefits are limited to whites and if so, whether this represents a difference in opportunities. Quality improvement programs appear to improve quality of care without increasing disparities, and may offer an approach to reduce health disparities.","Patients seeking care from nonobese physicians indicated greater confidence in general health counseling and treatment of illness than patients seeing obese physicians. It is not known if this can be translated into increased success in obesity prevention and treatment.","Direct, person-to-person contact between the geriatric consultant and the family doctor has a beneficial effect on the implementation of geriatric recommendations. This should be considered by healthcare policy makers when planning geriatric services in the community.","Quality of physician counseling (as measured using the 5As counseling framework and patient-centeredness scales) was associated with motivation to lose weight and intentions to change behavior. Future studies should determine whether higher quality obesity counseling leads to improved behavioral and weight outcomes.","yes. The total number of patient encounters in a clinical session did not dramatically change. Language preference was not a hurdle. Teamwork among patients, providers, staff and community members was a key to success. Group visits improved the amount of prevention counselling and helped patients with limited health literacy achieve their prevention goals.","We sought to determine whether tailored educational interventions call improve the quality of care, as measured by the provision of preventive care services recommended by the US Preventive Services Task Force, as well as lead to better patient satisfaction. We performed a randomized controlled study among 41 primary care physicians who cared for 1,810 randomly selected patients aged 65 to 75 years old at Kaiser Permanente Woodland Hills, a group-model health maintenance organization in southern California. All physicians received ongoing education. Physicians randomly assigned to the comprehensive intervention group also received peer-comparison feedback and academic detailing. Baseline and postintervention (2 to 2.5 years later) surveys examining the provision of preventive care and patient satisfaction were performed and medical records were reviewed. Based on the results of patient surveys, there were significant improvements over time in the provision of preventive care in both the education and the comprehensive intervention groups for influenza immunization (79% versus 89%, P<0.01, and 80% versus 91%, P<0.01), pneumococcal immunization (42% versus 73%, P<0.01 and 34% versus 73%, P<0.01), and tetanus immunization (64% versus 72%, P<0.01, and 59% versus 79%, P<0.01). Mammography (90% versus 80%, P<0.01) and clinical breast examination (85% versus 79%, P<0.05) scores worsened in the education only group but not in the comprehensive intervention group. However, there were few differences in rates of preventive services between the groups at the end of the study, and the improvements in preventive care were not confirmed by medical record review. Patient satisfaction scores improved significantly in the comprehensive intervention group (by 0.06 points on a 1 to 5 scale, P = 0.02) but not in the education only group (by 0.02 points, P = 0.42); however, the improvement was not significantly greater in the comprehensive intervention group (P = 0.20).","There are marked socioeconomic differences in consultation ratios for these common conditions which may not be matched by operation ratios. For discordant comparisons, people in the most deprived quartiles were generally least likely to receive surgery despite being most likely to consult a general practitioner with symptoms. If validated, these findings have important implications for general practice and service providers.","yes. Results support the hypothesis that greater professional empathy will result in greater agreement about decisions made in consultations.","yes. We demonstrate that adherence of physicians to treatment guidelines is a strong predictor of fewer CV hospitalizations in actual practice. There is a need to develop further quality improvement programmes in this condition.","no. The addition of a multiple modifiable lifestyle Internet intervention in primary or secondary care is not superior to usual care with respect to prevention and treatment of cardiovascular risk factors. However, an Internet delivered program does have the potential of being successful in reducing the number of doctor's visits and may therefore be cost-effective when applied in large scale.","no. Healthy lifestyles lead to an increase in the utilization of preventive health services. However, there is not much significantly reducing the number of outpatient visits in people with health behaviors. Specifically, people with regular exercise habits and who take their blood pressure measurement regularly have an increased number of outpatient visits. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to inculcate in the general public the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle.","yes. A focus on the challenge level of consultations, an individualized, integrated approach and the introduction of a new final consultation skills examination may be the way forward.","As judged by the expert panels, the investigated department of internal medicine was effective in improving the QoL of 81% of the admitted patients. Whilst most of the patients achieved small gains, a minority had gains in QoL corresponding to the treatment of life-threatening diseases.","The doctor as a person and his working style is most important in achieving good consultations in general practice. Length of consultation is less influential.","A GP run osteopathy clinic provided additional physical and psychological benefit. GP consultation might be improved by adopting some features from the osteopathic consultation.","yes. Satisfaction with GP communication is associated with a higher QoL in their older patients. Diagnosis and disclosure of memory problems is associated with better QoL in people with dementia. Clinicians should not be deterred from discussing a memory diagnosis and plans for the future with patients.","yes. Patients who visit their GP for regular control both have a better overall perception of the healthcare sector and are more likely to think that their treatment is well organised. Patients with COPD have a less positive score than patients with ACS and diabetes.","To determine whether clinical decision support (CDS) is associated with improved quality indicators and whether disabling CDS negatively affects these. Using the 2006-2009 National Ambulatory and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys, we performed logistic regression to analyze adult primary care visits for the association between the use of CDS (problem lists, preventive care reminders, lab results, lab range notifications, and drug-drug interaction warnings) and quality measures (blood pressure control, cancer screening, health education, influenza vaccination, and visits related to adverse drug events). There were an estimated 900 million outpatient primary care visits to clinics with EHRs from 2006-2009; 97% involved CDS, 77% were missing at least 1 CDS, and 15% had at least 1 CDS disabled. The presence of CDS was associated with improved blood pressure control (86% vs 82%; OR 1.3; 95% CI, 1.1-1.5) and more visits not related to adverse drug events (99.9% vs 99.8%; OR 3.0; 95% CI, 1.3-7.3); these associations were also present when comparing practices with CDS against practices that had disabled CDS. Electronic problem lists were associated with increased odds of having a visit with controlled blood pressure (86% vs 80%; OR 1.4; 95% CI, 1.3-1.6). Lab result notification was associated with increased odds of ordering cancer screening (15% vs 10%; OR 1.5; 95% CI, 1.03-2.2).","yes. A simple protocol of letters and a telephone call to patients who are due for colonoscopy examinations significantly improved adherence to endoscopic follow-up recommendations. This work provides justification for the creation of reminder systems to improve patient adherence to medical recommendations.","yes. Counseling and early contact improve EBF practice. We believe these two practices would favor better adherence to EBF in other populations.","yes. Early follow-up after an ED visit is associated with better outcomes, particularly if conducted with a familiar physician.","To explore the degree of agreement between patient and health care professional's perceptions of consultations. Immediately after 141 dietitian/nurse specialist consultations, patients and professional's completed the Health Care Climate questionnaire (HCC), Medical Interview Satisfaction Scale (MISS) and the Treatment Self-Regulation Questionnaire (TSRQ) In addition, both parties were asked about any key points or issues discussed in the consultation; any decisions that were made about their diabetes treatment today; any goals that were set as a result of today's consultation. Patient and professional's scores on the HCC and MISS were not correlated (r=0.3 and 0.16). Patient and professionals disagreed on the issues discussed 19.6% of the time, on the decisions made 20.7% of the time and goals set 44.3% of the time. More autonomy support in the consultation was associated with greater autonomous motivation for self-care (r=0.31; P<0.001) more controlled motivation was associated with less agreement on issues discussed and goals set (r=-0.20; r= -0.24; P<0.05).","To relate specifically defined 'good consultations' (GC) to length of consultation, continuity, patients' age and sex, and different doctors. A questionnaire about consultation length, communication and problem character, given to doctors and patients immediately after consultations. The number of GCs for different doctors in relation to time, continuity, and patients' age and sex were calculated. 581 consultations were registered with six male general practitioners working at three different health centres in Umeå, a university town in northern Sweden. A significant difference in the number of GCs was only found between the doctors (p<0.01). Length of consultation, patients' age and sex, and continuity and no impact on the GC frequency.","yes. Well structured vaccination consultations help to raise vaccination rates. Thus, pharmacies should consider offering and implementing this preventive measure so as to lower the rates of preventable disease and to save costs.","Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.","Despite evidence that smoking cessation is beneficial even after the diagnosis of BC, physicians are not counseling their patients sufficiently. With the implementation of quality improvement programs, we expect smoking cessation counseling for patients with BC will improve.","To explore perceptions of clinical consultations and how they relate to questionnaire-based patient feedback. Telephone interviews with 35 junior doctors and 40 general practice patients who had used the Doctors' Interpersonal Skills Questionnaire (DISQ). Doctors and patients had similar views of 'good consultations' as relying on doctors' listening and explaining skills. Preferences for a consultation style focused on an outcome or on the doctor-patient relationship may be independent of informational and/or affective consultation content. Respondents felt the important consultation elements were similar in different contexts, and so DISQ feedback would be useful in different settings. Benefits of feedback were identified in the form of patient empowerment and doctors' learning. Risks were identified in the inappropriate use of feedback, both inadvertent and deliberate.","Evidence of the beneficial effects of longer consultations in general practice is limited. To evaluate the effect of increasing consultation length on patient enablement in general practice in an area of extreme socioeconomic deprivation. Longitudinal study using a 'before and after' design. Keppoch Medical Centre in Glasgow, which serves the most deprived practice area in Scotland. Participants were 300 adult patients at baseline, before the introduction of longer consultations, and 324 at follow-up, more than 1 year after the introduction of longer consultations. The intervention studied was more time in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction, perceptions of the GPs' empathy, GP stress, and patient enablement were collected by face-to-face interview. Additional qualitative data were obtained by individual interviews with the GPs, relating to their perceptions of the impact of the longer consultations. Response rates of 70% were obtained. Overall, 53% of consultations were complex. GP stress was higher in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction and perception of the GPs' empathy were consistently high. Average consultation length in complex consultations was increased by 2.5 minutes by the intervention. GP stress in consultations was decreased after the introduction of longer consultations, and patient enablement was increased. GPs' views endorsed these findings, with more anticipatory and coordinated care being possible in the longer consultations.","This paper questions the assumption that GPs are best placed to commission health services in a way that meets quality standards and leads to equitable outcomes. There is little evidence to suggest that GPs will succeed where others have failed and a risk that, without top-down performance management, service improvement will be patchy, leading to greater, not reduced, inequity.","yes. Basic education of nonophthalmologists in ophthalmic diagnostic and treatment concepts, through relatively brief educational interventions, was associated with a decrease in total consultation requests and more appropriate consultations in this pilot study at a single institution.","no. General practice consultations are often more important for patients than generally supposed. Understanding is the most basic concept.","yes. Two thirds of children receive good or excellent basic preventive care, as determined with this composite, and no disparities according to race/ethnicity, income, or health insurance status of families (which are often found to be associated with health care access) were found. This equitable distribution of high-quality care suggests a high level of clinician professionalism. Duration of visits may be a key factor to improve quality of care. Because of its association with other services, processes, and outcomes of care, the BPS scale may serve as a useful construct for monitoring quality and stimulating efforts to improve national pediatric preventive care.","Our findings show that the CQI program in maternal and perinatal health services was positively associated with US. These results reinforce the need for cordiality during prenatal care contacts with providers, and the need to provide appropriate information to the user, in order to help increase acceptability of and adhesion to health care recommendations among pregnant women.","Relative to usual care, quality improvement interventions improved 57-month outcomes (probable depression, unmet need, or both) for primary care patients with depressive disorder and subthreshold depression and lowered use of mental health visits for those with subthreshold depression. The results highlight the feasibility and utility of including patients with subthreshold depression in such programs.","Higher quality of cancer screening experience was significantly associated with likelihood of having routine breast and cervical cancer screening. Further studies should explore factors that affect quality of the screening experience, including facility characteristics and interactions with medical staff.","Audiotaping follow-up consultations is an inexpensive procedure that is appreciated by the majority of patients. Randomised controlled trials of their impact are warranted.","yes. An improvement in the communication process contributes to a decrease in the levels of anxiety, and consequently to enhancement of the well-being of these patients.","Despite little extent or depth to HRQoL discussion, HRQoL issues were raised in the majority of inflammatory skin disease consultations. The consultations usually met the patients' expectations and most patients were satisfied.","A community-based, health trainer-led approach may add value by offering an acceptable alternative to health checks delivered in primary care settings. The service appeared to be particularly successful in engaging men and younger age groups. However, there exists the potential for intervention-generated inequalities.","yes. Better nutritional status was associated with increased HRQOL scores. Early diagnosis through newborn screening and improved nutrition provides an opportunity to enhance quality of life and body image perception.","yes. The finding that limited health literacy correlated with shorter visits may suggest that patients who may stand to benefit the most from detailed health education and counseling received less.","yes. Early palliative care specialist consultation is associated with better quality of supportive care in three advanced cancers, predominantly driven by improvements in information and care planning. This study supports the effectiveness of early palliative care consultation in three common advanced cancers within the Veterans Affairs Health System and provides a greater understanding of what care processes palliative care teams influence.","The aim of this study is to improve our understanding of the ways in which a medical consultation style relates to satisfaction and adherence. Participants completed questionnaires about preferred and perceived consultation styles; psychological variables such as satisfaction, anxiety and depression; and questions about taking medication. Questionnaires were completed prior to the consultation, immediately after, three months later and one year later. Doctors also completed a scale on completion of the consultation. The decisions in question related to women seeking advice about Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and decisions about pain management. Patients expressed preferences for information about the treatment options and for active involvement in the decision process. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having received information about the treatment options was a particularly consistent predictor of satisfaction. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having been prepared for the side effects of HRT was a consistent predictor of anxiety.","yes. We applied QI methodology to identify potential improvements in the quality of anesthesia care we deliver to our patients. By designing a number of key drivers and interventions specifically focused on laryngospasm, we decreased the incidence of unanticipated calls for help due to laryngospasm by 50% and maintained this improvement to clinical care across a 12-month period.","yes. Providing physicians with the results of the Diagnostic Interview Schedule and counseling directives resulted in short-term improvement in their rates of counseling patients with a history of dependent or nondependent but harmful drinking. Further research is necessary to determine long-term gains in rates of physician counseling and improvements in the course of these patients.","yes. Consistency with the SCS was found in about half of the patients for each of the three aspects of care. Health care can be further optimized by encouraging GP s to use X-rays more appropriately and to make more use of lifestyle advice, dietary therapy and follow-up appointments.","The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.","Emergency providers identified many benefits to palliative care consultation. Solving logistical problems and developing clear indications for consultation might help increase the use of such services.","yes. A second opinion from an expert pathologist on problem-prone melanocytic lesions improves patient care, in our series in 27% of cases.","The purpose of this cluster-randomised controlled trial was to evaluate the efficacy of quality circles (QCs) working either with general data-based feedback or with an open benchmark within the field of asthma care and drug-drug interactions. Twelve QCs, involving 96 general practitioners from 85 practices, were randomised. Six QCs worked with traditional anonymous feedback and six with an open benchmark. Two QC meetings supported with feedback reports were held covering the topics \"drug-drug interactions\" and \"asthma\"; in both cases discussions were guided by a trained moderator. Outcome measures included health-related quality of life and patient satisfaction with treatment, asthma severity and number of potentially inappropriate drug combinations as well as the general practitioners' satisfaction in relation to the performance of the QC. A significant improvement in the treatment of asthma was observed in both trial arms. However, there was only a slight improvement regarding inappropriate drug combinations. There were no relevant differences between the group with open benchmark (B-QC) and traditional quality circles (T-QC). The physicians' satisfaction with the QC performance was significantly higher in the T-QCs.","Palliative consultations improve outcomes of care, and earlier consultations may confer additional benefit.","yes. The provision of more frequent healthcare centre face-to-face consultations, including general practitioner consultations, is associated with an increased burden of acute medical evacuations and remote telephone consultation services in this remote setting.","To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.","The style and content of consultations may be considered as separate dimensions, an approach that may help doctors adapt their communication appropriately to different consultations. Patient feedback focused on communication skills is appropriate, but there are potential risks.","yes. Timely hospitalist-PCP communication was inconsistent at the beginning of the study. This low-resource quality improvement collaborative was able to achieve rapid improvement and resulted in improved perceptions of quality improvement knowledge among participants.","yes. Active expert peer-to-peer consultation with prescribing oncologists can promote adherence to guidelines and potentially lead to significant cost reductions without significant risk of neutropenic fever, with or without hospitalization, for patients with cancer.","To examine whether a collaborative to improve pediatric asthma care positively influenced processes and outcomes of that care. Medical record abstractions and patient/parent interviews were used to make pre- and postintervention comparisons of patients at 9 sites that participated in the evaluation of a Breakthrough Series (BTS) collaborative for asthma care with patients at 4 matched control sites. Thirteen primary care clinics. Three hundred eighty-five asthmatic children who received care at an intervention clinic and 126 who received care at a control clinic (response rate = 76%). Three 2-day educational sessions for quality improvement teams from participating sites followed by 3 \"action\" periods over the course of a year. The overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention group but remained unchanged in the control group (change in process score +13% vs 0%; P<.0001). Patients in the intervention group were more likely than patients in the control group to monitor their peak flows (70% vs 43%; P<.0001) and to have a written action plan (41% vs 22%; P = .001). Patients in the intervention group had better general health-related quality of life (scale score 80 vs 77; P = .05) and asthma-specific quality of life related to treatment problems (scale score 89 vs 85; P<.05).","yes. The shortness of the consultation length is due to a supply-side effect, implicating dissatisfaction for patients with mental health problems. This may not be generalizable to other patients. Findings are in favour of a specific intervention aimed at giving poor people equal access to GPs' time.","To investigate whether increased contact with the patient's general practitioner (GP) soon after cancer treatment can increase patient quality of life (QoL) and satisfaction with follow-up. A randomised controlled study with 91 patients from one Norwegian municipality. The intervention group got a 30-min invited consultation with the patient's GP and an invitation to further GP follow-up. Quality of life and patient satisfaction with diagnosis, treatment and overall care were measured with validated instruments. Relatives' satisfaction with care increased over 6 months in the intervention group (P = 0.018), but otherwise, there was no difference between the intervention and control groups concerning QoL, satisfaction with care or number of consultations. Patient satisfaction with care showed a tendency to increase when treatment intent was curative. Some functional QoL measures and satisfaction tended to increase during the first 6 months after treatment. Free text comments suggested that some patients appreciated the contact with their GP.","This study shows that fewer patients are receiving exercise counseling to help lower blood pressure and improve health outcomes. However, patients seem to follow the advice when given. Given the magnitude of poorly controlled hypertension, these findings should alert healthcare providers to find innovative means of physical activity recommendation to improve health outcomes.","Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.","This consultation program cannot be considered an outright success since only half of all patients with a hip fracture actually received a consultation. However, osteoporosis consultation, when provided, facilitated the recognition of secondary causes and the generic treatment of osteoporosis, and inpatients started on treatment generally continued the medication after discharge. The results of this study strongly support the need for a mechanism of automatic osteoporosis consultation for inpatients with a fragility fracture and suggest that, if consultation is reliably obtained, this approach can be effective in improving patient care.","The lack of quality-oriented organizational climates is partly responsible for deficiencies in patient-centered care and poor quality more broadly. To improve their quality-oriented climates, several organizations have joined quality improvement collaboratives. The effectiveness of this approach is unknown. To evaluate the impact of collaborative membership on organizational climate for quality and service quality. Twenty-one clinics, 4 of which participated in a collaborative sponsored by the Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement. Pre-post design. Preassessments occurred 2 months before the collaborative began in January 2009. Postassessments of service quality and climate occurred about 6 months and 1 year, respectively, after the collaborative ended in January 2010. We surveyed clinic employees (eg, physicians, nurses, receptionists, etc.) about the organizational climate and patients about service quality. Prioritization of quality care, high-quality staff relationships, and open communication as indicators of quality-oriented climate and timeliness of care, staff helpfulness, doctor-patient communication, rating of doctor, and willingness to recommend doctor's office as indicators of service quality. There was no significant effect of collaborative membership on quality-oriented climate and mixed effects on service quality. Doctors' ratings improved significantly more in intervention clinics than in control clinics, staff helpfulness improved less, and timeliness of care declined more. Ratings of doctor-patient communication and willingness to recommend doctor were not significantly different between intervention and comparison clinics.","Although improvements have occurred in the access to and utilisation of healthcare services, consultation by patients of bone setters seems to be a sociocultural and educational issue rather than a problem of lack of medical insurance.","The intervention was associated with improved process-of-care measures that have been linked with better outcomes. Patients benefited through increased satisfaction with communication. Follow-up of patients who participated in the intervention may have been too brief to be able to detect significant improvement in health-related outcomes.","yes. Shifting to a consultation-liaison relationship should increase rates of referral of patients with serious mental illness, including those who can most benefit from the skills of CMHTs. Increasing the provision of primary care-based psychology might improve practice use of mental health services, reducing avoidable outpatient psychiatric referrals.","yes. Protocol-supported consultations may lead to a modest increase in information regarding two risk factors for LTSA in GPs' electronic records and to more referrals to OPs.","yes. This study indicates that intervention by a board-certified allergist significantly improves many areas of health-related quality of life. Further studies comparing health care outcomes and costs of treating chronic rhinitis by primary care physicians to early intervention by allergy specialists are warranted.","yes. An EDOU model that used mandatory cardiology consultation resulted in decreased provocative testing, particularly among low-risk chest pain patients. Future research should explore the cost-effectiveness of this model.","Patients with headache who initiated the referral to a neurologist themselves were less satisfied with the specialist consultation. Selecting referrals containing proper medical information may improve satisfaction in severe headache patients treated in a neurological practice.","Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.","This evaluation shows a clear improvement in self-rated mental and general health, mastery and control in the group completing the study agreement. The intervention seems to be effective for young adults with minor mental health problems, but due to the skewed gender-distribution it is unclear if the method is appropriate for men. After the proposed internal quality improvements, this short-term counselling could enhance mental and general health among young people.","Patient satisfaction surveys are increasingly used to measure consulting quality and outcome, but little is known of how good doctors are at judging their patients' satisfaction with their consultations. To determine if patient satisfaction and enablement following a consultation are correlated with both inexperienced and experienced doctors' predictions of patient satisfaction and doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation. Cross-sectional questionnaire-based observational study. Scottish general practices. Using a post-consultation questionnaire we compared doctors' estimates of patient satisfaction with the consultation; doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation; scores on the Patient Enablement Instrument (PEI) and the Consultation Satisfaction Questionnaire (CSQ). Twenty-nine doctors and 1848 patients took part. Each doctor recorded an average of 63.7 (SD: 32.1) consultations. Patient measures of satisfaction and enablement were only weakly correlated with doctor predictions of patient satisfaction (rs=0.07 for PEI and 0.13 for CSQ; both P<0.01) or doctor satisfaction (rs=0.10 for PEI and 0.12 for CSQ; both P<0.01) with the consultation. They were, however, moderately well correlated (rs=0.50 P<0.01) with one another.","The intervention improved some important aspects of processes of care that have previously been linked to better outcomes. Patients who received care at intervention clinics also reported higher general and asthma-specific quality of life.","yes. In long stay patients, having fewer inpatient consultations was the strongest predictor of patient satisfaction with physician communication. This suggests that examination of patient-level data in clinically relevant subgroups may be a useful way to identify targets for quality improvement.","yes. There is significant disagreement between patients and professionals perceptions and recollection of the content of consultations. Professional's communications skills need to be developed to ensure these discrepancies are minimized. Skills to provide greater autonomy support in the consultation would help to enhance this process and improve outcomes.","Joint consultation seems to be a good strategy in influencing the referral behaviour of GPs in the area of rheumatology. The decrease in referral is substantial and can subsequently lead to a reduction of waiting lists.","yes. Renovating the interior of a primary care office was associated with improved patient satisfaction, including satisfaction in domains otherwise unchanged. Physician skills and patient satisfaction sometimes depend on surrounding factors that may bias the ability of patients to assess the quality of medical care. These biases should be taken into account when quality assessment instruments are designed for patients.","Negative perceptions of general practice by teenagers may have less of an influence on actual consultation behaviour than previously believed. However, there are some aspects of care that merit further attention if teenagers are to feel able to consult their GP more easily.","The explicit address of illness representations or action plans during consultations results in more attention to patient concerns and lifestyle issues and an overall improvement in patient-GP communication in terms of affective atmosphere and patient involvement.","yes. In order to allocate consulting resources more effectively, appropriate concepts need to be developed and promoted. If the present results could be verified by a study with a larger sample, the practical use for resource optimisation in breastfeeding consultations would be very beneficial.","yes. These findings demonstrate that providing diagnostic information regarding PNES is insufficient by itself to meaningfully affect patient outcome. Structured feedback and psychiatric consultation appeared adequate to significantly reduce PNES frequency and improve aspects of quality of life, while the addition of a weekly phone contact also led to improved mood.","The results have significant implications for quality improvement in the NHS. The finding that some NHS providers consistently perform better than others suggests that there are system-wide determinants of patient experience and the potential for learning from innovators. However, there is room for improvement overall. Given the large samples of these surveys, the messages could also have relevance for healthcare systems elsewhere.","Doctors can increase satisfaction and moderately improve functional outcomes in the period immediately after the consultation when back pain is worst, by using very simple interventions: either by endorsing a self-management booklet or by giving advice to take exercise. Previous studies suggest that simple advice and the same written information provide reinforcement. This study supports evidence that it may not be helpful to provide a detailed information booklet and advice together, where the amounts or formats of information differ.","yes. Accompaniment to medical visits is associated with better HF self-care maintenance and management, and this effect may be mediated through satisfaction with provider communication.","This study reveals misunderstandings between patients and GPs on the content of the consultation, especially for health-promotion outcomes. Taking patients' social characteristics into account, notably age and educational level, could improve mutual understanding between patients and GPs, and therefore, the quality of care.","The fact that there is little unexplained variation in GP consultation lengths that might be attributable to variations in quality (i.e. GP-related) throws doubt on the proposition that length of consultation can be used as a marker for quality of consultation in general practice.","Deciding on 'best quality' is subjective. While literature and guidelines provide clear parameters for many measures, others are difficult to judge. Overall, there was little difference between these two groups. This study has found little evidence to support the claim that computerisation of general practice in Australia has improved the quality of care provided to patients.","yes. Interventions before consultations designed to help patients address their information needs within consultations produce limited benefits to patients. Further research could explore whether the quality of questions is increased, whether anxiety before consultations is reduced, the effects on other outcomes and the impact of training and the timing of interventions. More studies need to consider the timing of interventions and possibly the type of training provided to clinicians.","yes. Child care health consultation programs can improve the written health and safety policies and may improve practices in child care centers.","yes. The reasons underpinning each individual decision to consult were complex. The control that GPs were perceived to have over the pattern of consulting, for example concerning prescribing, review visits, and in addressing further help-seeking behaviour, may provide more possibilities for developing intervention strategies than targeting frequent attenders themselves. An understanding of the processes behind the consulting behaviour of frequent attenders may lead to more functional consultations and better clinical care as a result.","The consultant system was more efficient in resolving problems and responding to general practitioners than the traditional system. General practitioners were more confident in self-management of hypothyroidism and diabetes. A very large decrease in the number of patient referrals was observed after implementation of the consultant system.","When measured objectively, specialist consultation appears to have a small, but statistically significant, positive impact on the level of patient anxiety. Patient satisfaction correlated well with the patient anxiety levels.","yes. Introduction of guidelines for time to consultation, may improve response times, leading to improved quality of service for inpatient consultation services.","In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.","yes. These consultations often change expected management. Where decision making in the consultation is of higher quality, patients were more likely to change to a less invasive option.","For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations."],"string":"[\n \"The 22 primary care clinics studied appear to be recommending and providing needed preventive services to visiting patients at the same rate regardless of income or insurance status. The reasons for differences in prevention status by SES are complex but the low proportion of all patients receiving recommendations for needed services suggests the need to take advantage of all visits for updating prevention needs.\",\n \"Implementation of quality improvement interventions that have modest accommodations for minority patients can improve quality of care for whites and underserved minorities alike, while minorities may be especially likely to benefit clinically. Further research needs to clarify whether employment benefits are limited to whites and if so, whether this represents a difference in opportunities. Quality improvement programs appear to improve quality of care without increasing disparities, and may offer an approach to reduce health disparities.\",\n \"Patients seeking care from nonobese physicians indicated greater confidence in general health counseling and treatment of illness than patients seeing obese physicians. It is not known if this can be translated into increased success in obesity prevention and treatment.\",\n \"Direct, person-to-person contact between the geriatric consultant and the family doctor has a beneficial effect on the implementation of geriatric recommendations. This should be considered by healthcare policy makers when planning geriatric services in the community.\",\n \"Quality of physician counseling (as measured using the 5As counseling framework and patient-centeredness scales) was associated with motivation to lose weight and intentions to change behavior. Future studies should determine whether higher quality obesity counseling leads to improved behavioral and weight outcomes.\",\n \"yes. The total number of patient encounters in a clinical session did not dramatically change. Language preference was not a hurdle. Teamwork among patients, providers, staff and community members was a key to success. Group visits improved the amount of prevention counselling and helped patients with limited health literacy achieve their prevention goals.\",\n \"We sought to determine whether tailored educational interventions call improve the quality of care, as measured by the provision of preventive care services recommended by the US Preventive Services Task Force, as well as lead to better patient satisfaction. We performed a randomized controlled study among 41 primary care physicians who cared for 1,810 randomly selected patients aged 65 to 75 years old at Kaiser Permanente Woodland Hills, a group-model health maintenance organization in southern California. All physicians received ongoing education. Physicians randomly assigned to the comprehensive intervention group also received peer-comparison feedback and academic detailing. Baseline and postintervention (2 to 2.5 years later) surveys examining the provision of preventive care and patient satisfaction were performed and medical records were reviewed. Based on the results of patient surveys, there were significant improvements over time in the provision of preventive care in both the education and the comprehensive intervention groups for influenza immunization (79% versus 89%, P<0.01, and 80% versus 91%, P<0.01), pneumococcal immunization (42% versus 73%, P<0.01 and 34% versus 73%, P<0.01), and tetanus immunization (64% versus 72%, P<0.01, and 59% versus 79%, P<0.01). Mammography (90% versus 80%, P<0.01) and clinical breast examination (85% versus 79%, P<0.05) scores worsened in the education only group but not in the comprehensive intervention group. However, there were few differences in rates of preventive services between the groups at the end of the study, and the improvements in preventive care were not confirmed by medical record review. Patient satisfaction scores improved significantly in the comprehensive intervention group (by 0.06 points on a 1 to 5 scale, P = 0.02) but not in the education only group (by 0.02 points, P = 0.42); however, the improvement was not significantly greater in the comprehensive intervention group (P = 0.20).\",\n \"There are marked socioeconomic differences in consultation ratios for these common conditions which may not be matched by operation ratios. For discordant comparisons, people in the most deprived quartiles were generally least likely to receive surgery despite being most likely to consult a general practitioner with symptoms. If validated, these findings have important implications for general practice and service providers.\",\n \"yes. Results support the hypothesis that greater professional empathy will result in greater agreement about decisions made in consultations.\",\n \"yes. We demonstrate that adherence of physicians to treatment guidelines is a strong predictor of fewer CV hospitalizations in actual practice. There is a need to develop further quality improvement programmes in this condition.\",\n \"no. The addition of a multiple modifiable lifestyle Internet intervention in primary or secondary care is not superior to usual care with respect to prevention and treatment of cardiovascular risk factors. However, an Internet delivered program does have the potential of being successful in reducing the number of doctor's visits and may therefore be cost-effective when applied in large scale.\",\n \"no. Healthy lifestyles lead to an increase in the utilization of preventive health services. However, there is not much significantly reducing the number of outpatient visits in people with health behaviors. Specifically, people with regular exercise habits and who take their blood pressure measurement regularly have an increased number of outpatient visits. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to inculcate in the general public the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle.\",\n \"yes. A focus on the challenge level of consultations, an individualized, integrated approach and the introduction of a new final consultation skills examination may be the way forward.\",\n \"As judged by the expert panels, the investigated department of internal medicine was effective in improving the QoL of 81% of the admitted patients. Whilst most of the patients achieved small gains, a minority had gains in QoL corresponding to the treatment of life-threatening diseases.\",\n \"The doctor as a person and his working style is most important in achieving good consultations in general practice. Length of consultation is less influential.\",\n \"A GP run osteopathy clinic provided additional physical and psychological benefit. GP consultation might be improved by adopting some features from the osteopathic consultation.\",\n \"yes. Satisfaction with GP communication is associated with a higher QoL in their older patients. Diagnosis and disclosure of memory problems is associated with better QoL in people with dementia. Clinicians should not be deterred from discussing a memory diagnosis and plans for the future with patients.\",\n \"yes. Patients who visit their GP for regular control both have a better overall perception of the healthcare sector and are more likely to think that their treatment is well organised. Patients with COPD have a less positive score than patients with ACS and diabetes.\",\n \"To determine whether clinical decision support (CDS) is associated with improved quality indicators and whether disabling CDS negatively affects these. Using the 2006-2009 National Ambulatory and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys, we performed logistic regression to analyze adult primary care visits for the association between the use of CDS (problem lists, preventive care reminders, lab results, lab range notifications, and drug-drug interaction warnings) and quality measures (blood pressure control, cancer screening, health education, influenza vaccination, and visits related to adverse drug events). There were an estimated 900 million outpatient primary care visits to clinics with EHRs from 2006-2009; 97% involved CDS, 77% were missing at least 1 CDS, and 15% had at least 1 CDS disabled. The presence of CDS was associated with improved blood pressure control (86% vs 82%; OR 1.3; 95% CI, 1.1-1.5) and more visits not related to adverse drug events (99.9% vs 99.8%; OR 3.0; 95% CI, 1.3-7.3); these associations were also present when comparing practices with CDS against practices that had disabled CDS. Electronic problem lists were associated with increased odds of having a visit with controlled blood pressure (86% vs 80%; OR 1.4; 95% CI, 1.3-1.6). Lab result notification was associated with increased odds of ordering cancer screening (15% vs 10%; OR 1.5; 95% CI, 1.03-2.2).\",\n \"yes. A simple protocol of letters and a telephone call to patients who are due for colonoscopy examinations significantly improved adherence to endoscopic follow-up recommendations. This work provides justification for the creation of reminder systems to improve patient adherence to medical recommendations.\",\n \"yes. Counseling and early contact improve EBF practice. We believe these two practices would favor better adherence to EBF in other populations.\",\n \"yes. Early follow-up after an ED visit is associated with better outcomes, particularly if conducted with a familiar physician.\",\n \"To explore the degree of agreement between patient and health care professional's perceptions of consultations. Immediately after 141 dietitian/nurse specialist consultations, patients and professional's completed the Health Care Climate questionnaire (HCC), Medical Interview Satisfaction Scale (MISS) and the Treatment Self-Regulation Questionnaire (TSRQ) In addition, both parties were asked about any key points or issues discussed in the consultation; any decisions that were made about their diabetes treatment today; any goals that were set as a result of today's consultation. Patient and professional's scores on the HCC and MISS were not correlated (r=0.3 and 0.16). Patient and professionals disagreed on the issues discussed 19.6% of the time, on the decisions made 20.7% of the time and goals set 44.3% of the time. More autonomy support in the consultation was associated with greater autonomous motivation for self-care (r=0.31; P<0.001) more controlled motivation was associated with less agreement on issues discussed and goals set (r=-0.20; r= -0.24; P<0.05).\",\n \"To relate specifically defined 'good consultations' (GC) to length of consultation, continuity, patients' age and sex, and different doctors. A questionnaire about consultation length, communication and problem character, given to doctors and patients immediately after consultations. The number of GCs for different doctors in relation to time, continuity, and patients' age and sex were calculated. 581 consultations were registered with six male general practitioners working at three different health centres in Umeå, a university town in northern Sweden. A significant difference in the number of GCs was only found between the doctors (p<0.01). Length of consultation, patients' age and sex, and continuity and no impact on the GC frequency.\",\n \"yes. Well structured vaccination consultations help to raise vaccination rates. Thus, pharmacies should consider offering and implementing this preventive measure so as to lower the rates of preventable disease and to save costs.\",\n \"Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.\",\n \"Despite evidence that smoking cessation is beneficial even after the diagnosis of BC, physicians are not counseling their patients sufficiently. With the implementation of quality improvement programs, we expect smoking cessation counseling for patients with BC will improve.\",\n \"To explore perceptions of clinical consultations and how they relate to questionnaire-based patient feedback. Telephone interviews with 35 junior doctors and 40 general practice patients who had used the Doctors' Interpersonal Skills Questionnaire (DISQ). Doctors and patients had similar views of 'good consultations' as relying on doctors' listening and explaining skills. Preferences for a consultation style focused on an outcome or on the doctor-patient relationship may be independent of informational and/or affective consultation content. Respondents felt the important consultation elements were similar in different contexts, and so DISQ feedback would be useful in different settings. Benefits of feedback were identified in the form of patient empowerment and doctors' learning. Risks were identified in the inappropriate use of feedback, both inadvertent and deliberate.\",\n \"Evidence of the beneficial effects of longer consultations in general practice is limited. To evaluate the effect of increasing consultation length on patient enablement in general practice in an area of extreme socioeconomic deprivation. Longitudinal study using a 'before and after' design. Keppoch Medical Centre in Glasgow, which serves the most deprived practice area in Scotland. Participants were 300 adult patients at baseline, before the introduction of longer consultations, and 324 at follow-up, more than 1 year after the introduction of longer consultations. The intervention studied was more time in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction, perceptions of the GPs' empathy, GP stress, and patient enablement were collected by face-to-face interview. Additional qualitative data were obtained by individual interviews with the GPs, relating to their perceptions of the impact of the longer consultations. Response rates of 70% were obtained. Overall, 53% of consultations were complex. GP stress was higher in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction and perception of the GPs' empathy were consistently high. Average consultation length in complex consultations was increased by 2.5 minutes by the intervention. GP stress in consultations was decreased after the introduction of longer consultations, and patient enablement was increased. GPs' views endorsed these findings, with more anticipatory and coordinated care being possible in the longer consultations.\",\n \"This paper questions the assumption that GPs are best placed to commission health services in a way that meets quality standards and leads to equitable outcomes. There is little evidence to suggest that GPs will succeed where others have failed and a risk that, without top-down performance management, service improvement will be patchy, leading to greater, not reduced, inequity.\",\n \"yes. Basic education of nonophthalmologists in ophthalmic diagnostic and treatment concepts, through relatively brief educational interventions, was associated with a decrease in total consultation requests and more appropriate consultations in this pilot study at a single institution.\",\n \"no. General practice consultations are often more important for patients than generally supposed. Understanding is the most basic concept.\",\n \"yes. Two thirds of children receive good or excellent basic preventive care, as determined with this composite, and no disparities according to race/ethnicity, income, or health insurance status of families (which are often found to be associated with health care access) were found. This equitable distribution of high-quality care suggests a high level of clinician professionalism. Duration of visits may be a key factor to improve quality of care. Because of its association with other services, processes, and outcomes of care, the BPS scale may serve as a useful construct for monitoring quality and stimulating efforts to improve national pediatric preventive care.\",\n \"Our findings show that the CQI program in maternal and perinatal health services was positively associated with US. These results reinforce the need for cordiality during prenatal care contacts with providers, and the need to provide appropriate information to the user, in order to help increase acceptability of and adhesion to health care recommendations among pregnant women.\",\n \"Relative to usual care, quality improvement interventions improved 57-month outcomes (probable depression, unmet need, or both) for primary care patients with depressive disorder and subthreshold depression and lowered use of mental health visits for those with subthreshold depression. The results highlight the feasibility and utility of including patients with subthreshold depression in such programs.\",\n \"Higher quality of cancer screening experience was significantly associated with likelihood of having routine breast and cervical cancer screening. Further studies should explore factors that affect quality of the screening experience, including facility characteristics and interactions with medical staff.\",\n \"Audiotaping follow-up consultations is an inexpensive procedure that is appreciated by the majority of patients. Randomised controlled trials of their impact are warranted.\",\n \"yes. An improvement in the communication process contributes to a decrease in the levels of anxiety, and consequently to enhancement of the well-being of these patients.\",\n \"Despite little extent or depth to HRQoL discussion, HRQoL issues were raised in the majority of inflammatory skin disease consultations. The consultations usually met the patients' expectations and most patients were satisfied.\",\n \"A community-based, health trainer-led approach may add value by offering an acceptable alternative to health checks delivered in primary care settings. The service appeared to be particularly successful in engaging men and younger age groups. However, there exists the potential for intervention-generated inequalities.\",\n \"yes. Better nutritional status was associated with increased HRQOL scores. Early diagnosis through newborn screening and improved nutrition provides an opportunity to enhance quality of life and body image perception.\",\n \"yes. The finding that limited health literacy correlated with shorter visits may suggest that patients who may stand to benefit the most from detailed health education and counseling received less.\",\n \"yes. Early palliative care specialist consultation is associated with better quality of supportive care in three advanced cancers, predominantly driven by improvements in information and care planning. This study supports the effectiveness of early palliative care consultation in three common advanced cancers within the Veterans Affairs Health System and provides a greater understanding of what care processes palliative care teams influence.\",\n \"The aim of this study is to improve our understanding of the ways in which a medical consultation style relates to satisfaction and adherence. Participants completed questionnaires about preferred and perceived consultation styles; psychological variables such as satisfaction, anxiety and depression; and questions about taking medication. Questionnaires were completed prior to the consultation, immediately after, three months later and one year later. Doctors also completed a scale on completion of the consultation. The decisions in question related to women seeking advice about Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and decisions about pain management. Patients expressed preferences for information about the treatment options and for active involvement in the decision process. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having received information about the treatment options was a particularly consistent predictor of satisfaction. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having been prepared for the side effects of HRT was a consistent predictor of anxiety.\",\n \"yes. We applied QI methodology to identify potential improvements in the quality of anesthesia care we deliver to our patients. By designing a number of key drivers and interventions specifically focused on laryngospasm, we decreased the incidence of unanticipated calls for help due to laryngospasm by 50% and maintained this improvement to clinical care across a 12-month period.\",\n \"yes. Providing physicians with the results of the Diagnostic Interview Schedule and counseling directives resulted in short-term improvement in their rates of counseling patients with a history of dependent or nondependent but harmful drinking. Further research is necessary to determine long-term gains in rates of physician counseling and improvements in the course of these patients.\",\n \"yes. Consistency with the SCS was found in about half of the patients for each of the three aspects of care. Health care can be further optimized by encouraging GP s to use X-rays more appropriately and to make more use of lifestyle advice, dietary therapy and follow-up appointments.\",\n \"The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.\",\n \"Emergency providers identified many benefits to palliative care consultation. Solving logistical problems and developing clear indications for consultation might help increase the use of such services.\",\n \"yes. A second opinion from an expert pathologist on problem-prone melanocytic lesions improves patient care, in our series in 27% of cases.\",\n \"The purpose of this cluster-randomised controlled trial was to evaluate the efficacy of quality circles (QCs) working either with general data-based feedback or with an open benchmark within the field of asthma care and drug-drug interactions. Twelve QCs, involving 96 general practitioners from 85 practices, were randomised. Six QCs worked with traditional anonymous feedback and six with an open benchmark. Two QC meetings supported with feedback reports were held covering the topics \\\"drug-drug interactions\\\" and \\\"asthma\\\"; in both cases discussions were guided by a trained moderator. Outcome measures included health-related quality of life and patient satisfaction with treatment, asthma severity and number of potentially inappropriate drug combinations as well as the general practitioners' satisfaction in relation to the performance of the QC. A significant improvement in the treatment of asthma was observed in both trial arms. However, there was only a slight improvement regarding inappropriate drug combinations. There were no relevant differences between the group with open benchmark (B-QC) and traditional quality circles (T-QC). The physicians' satisfaction with the QC performance was significantly higher in the T-QCs.\",\n \"Palliative consultations improve outcomes of care, and earlier consultations may confer additional benefit.\",\n \"yes. The provision of more frequent healthcare centre face-to-face consultations, including general practitioner consultations, is associated with an increased burden of acute medical evacuations and remote telephone consultation services in this remote setting.\",\n \"To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.\",\n \"The style and content of consultations may be considered as separate dimensions, an approach that may help doctors adapt their communication appropriately to different consultations. Patient feedback focused on communication skills is appropriate, but there are potential risks.\",\n \"yes. Timely hospitalist-PCP communication was inconsistent at the beginning of the study. This low-resource quality improvement collaborative was able to achieve rapid improvement and resulted in improved perceptions of quality improvement knowledge among participants.\",\n \"yes. Active expert peer-to-peer consultation with prescribing oncologists can promote adherence to guidelines and potentially lead to significant cost reductions without significant risk of neutropenic fever, with or without hospitalization, for patients with cancer.\",\n \"To examine whether a collaborative to improve pediatric asthma care positively influenced processes and outcomes of that care. Medical record abstractions and patient/parent interviews were used to make pre- and postintervention comparisons of patients at 9 sites that participated in the evaluation of a Breakthrough Series (BTS) collaborative for asthma care with patients at 4 matched control sites. Thirteen primary care clinics. Three hundred eighty-five asthmatic children who received care at an intervention clinic and 126 who received care at a control clinic (response rate = 76%). Three 2-day educational sessions for quality improvement teams from participating sites followed by 3 \\\"action\\\" periods over the course of a year. The overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention group but remained unchanged in the control group (change in process score +13% vs 0%; P<.0001). Patients in the intervention group were more likely than patients in the control group to monitor their peak flows (70% vs 43%; P<.0001) and to have a written action plan (41% vs 22%; P = .001). Patients in the intervention group had better general health-related quality of life (scale score 80 vs 77; P = .05) and asthma-specific quality of life related to treatment problems (scale score 89 vs 85; P<.05).\",\n \"yes. The shortness of the consultation length is due to a supply-side effect, implicating dissatisfaction for patients with mental health problems. This may not be generalizable to other patients. Findings are in favour of a specific intervention aimed at giving poor people equal access to GPs' time.\",\n \"To investigate whether increased contact with the patient's general practitioner (GP) soon after cancer treatment can increase patient quality of life (QoL) and satisfaction with follow-up. A randomised controlled study with 91 patients from one Norwegian municipality. The intervention group got a 30-min invited consultation with the patient's GP and an invitation to further GP follow-up. Quality of life and patient satisfaction with diagnosis, treatment and overall care were measured with validated instruments. Relatives' satisfaction with care increased over 6 months in the intervention group (P = 0.018), but otherwise, there was no difference between the intervention and control groups concerning QoL, satisfaction with care or number of consultations. Patient satisfaction with care showed a tendency to increase when treatment intent was curative. Some functional QoL measures and satisfaction tended to increase during the first 6 months after treatment. Free text comments suggested that some patients appreciated the contact with their GP.\",\n \"This study shows that fewer patients are receiving exercise counseling to help lower blood pressure and improve health outcomes. However, patients seem to follow the advice when given. Given the magnitude of poorly controlled hypertension, these findings should alert healthcare providers to find innovative means of physical activity recommendation to improve health outcomes.\",\n \"Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.\",\n \"This consultation program cannot be considered an outright success since only half of all patients with a hip fracture actually received a consultation. However, osteoporosis consultation, when provided, facilitated the recognition of secondary causes and the generic treatment of osteoporosis, and inpatients started on treatment generally continued the medication after discharge. The results of this study strongly support the need for a mechanism of automatic osteoporosis consultation for inpatients with a fragility fracture and suggest that, if consultation is reliably obtained, this approach can be effective in improving patient care.\",\n \"The lack of quality-oriented organizational climates is partly responsible for deficiencies in patient-centered care and poor quality more broadly. To improve their quality-oriented climates, several organizations have joined quality improvement collaboratives. The effectiveness of this approach is unknown. To evaluate the impact of collaborative membership on organizational climate for quality and service quality. Twenty-one clinics, 4 of which participated in a collaborative sponsored by the Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement. Pre-post design. Preassessments occurred 2 months before the collaborative began in January 2009. Postassessments of service quality and climate occurred about 6 months and 1 year, respectively, after the collaborative ended in January 2010. We surveyed clinic employees (eg, physicians, nurses, receptionists, etc.) about the organizational climate and patients about service quality. Prioritization of quality care, high-quality staff relationships, and open communication as indicators of quality-oriented climate and timeliness of care, staff helpfulness, doctor-patient communication, rating of doctor, and willingness to recommend doctor's office as indicators of service quality. There was no significant effect of collaborative membership on quality-oriented climate and mixed effects on service quality. Doctors' ratings improved significantly more in intervention clinics than in control clinics, staff helpfulness improved less, and timeliness of care declined more. Ratings of doctor-patient communication and willingness to recommend doctor were not significantly different between intervention and comparison clinics.\",\n \"Although improvements have occurred in the access to and utilisation of healthcare services, consultation by patients of bone setters seems to be a sociocultural and educational issue rather than a problem of lack of medical insurance.\",\n \"The intervention was associated with improved process-of-care measures that have been linked with better outcomes. Patients benefited through increased satisfaction with communication. Follow-up of patients who participated in the intervention may have been too brief to be able to detect significant improvement in health-related outcomes.\",\n \"yes. Shifting to a consultation-liaison relationship should increase rates of referral of patients with serious mental illness, including those who can most benefit from the skills of CMHTs. Increasing the provision of primary care-based psychology might improve practice use of mental health services, reducing avoidable outpatient psychiatric referrals.\",\n \"yes. Protocol-supported consultations may lead to a modest increase in information regarding two risk factors for LTSA in GPs' electronic records and to more referrals to OPs.\",\n \"yes. This study indicates that intervention by a board-certified allergist significantly improves many areas of health-related quality of life. Further studies comparing health care outcomes and costs of treating chronic rhinitis by primary care physicians to early intervention by allergy specialists are warranted.\",\n \"yes. An EDOU model that used mandatory cardiology consultation resulted in decreased provocative testing, particularly among low-risk chest pain patients. Future research should explore the cost-effectiveness of this model.\",\n \"Patients with headache who initiated the referral to a neurologist themselves were less satisfied with the specialist consultation. Selecting referrals containing proper medical information may improve satisfaction in severe headache patients treated in a neurological practice.\",\n \"Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.\",\n \"This evaluation shows a clear improvement in self-rated mental and general health, mastery and control in the group completing the study agreement. The intervention seems to be effective for young adults with minor mental health problems, but due to the skewed gender-distribution it is unclear if the method is appropriate for men. After the proposed internal quality improvements, this short-term counselling could enhance mental and general health among young people.\",\n \"Patient satisfaction surveys are increasingly used to measure consulting quality and outcome, but little is known of how good doctors are at judging their patients' satisfaction with their consultations. To determine if patient satisfaction and enablement following a consultation are correlated with both inexperienced and experienced doctors' predictions of patient satisfaction and doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation. Cross-sectional questionnaire-based observational study. Scottish general practices. Using a post-consultation questionnaire we compared doctors' estimates of patient satisfaction with the consultation; doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation; scores on the Patient Enablement Instrument (PEI) and the Consultation Satisfaction Questionnaire (CSQ). Twenty-nine doctors and 1848 patients took part. Each doctor recorded an average of 63.7 (SD: 32.1) consultations. Patient measures of satisfaction and enablement were only weakly correlated with doctor predictions of patient satisfaction (rs=0.07 for PEI and 0.13 for CSQ; both P<0.01) or doctor satisfaction (rs=0.10 for PEI and 0.12 for CSQ; both P<0.01) with the consultation. They were, however, moderately well correlated (rs=0.50 P<0.01) with one another.\",\n \"The intervention improved some important aspects of processes of care that have previously been linked to better outcomes. Patients who received care at intervention clinics also reported higher general and asthma-specific quality of life.\",\n \"yes. In long stay patients, having fewer inpatient consultations was the strongest predictor of patient satisfaction with physician communication. This suggests that examination of patient-level data in clinically relevant subgroups may be a useful way to identify targets for quality improvement.\",\n \"yes. There is significant disagreement between patients and professionals perceptions and recollection of the content of consultations. Professional's communications skills need to be developed to ensure these discrepancies are minimized. Skills to provide greater autonomy support in the consultation would help to enhance this process and improve outcomes.\",\n \"Joint consultation seems to be a good strategy in influencing the referral behaviour of GPs in the area of rheumatology. The decrease in referral is substantial and can subsequently lead to a reduction of waiting lists.\",\n \"yes. Renovating the interior of a primary care office was associated with improved patient satisfaction, including satisfaction in domains otherwise unchanged. Physician skills and patient satisfaction sometimes depend on surrounding factors that may bias the ability of patients to assess the quality of medical care. These biases should be taken into account when quality assessment instruments are designed for patients.\",\n \"Negative perceptions of general practice by teenagers may have less of an influence on actual consultation behaviour than previously believed. However, there are some aspects of care that merit further attention if teenagers are to feel able to consult their GP more easily.\",\n \"The explicit address of illness representations or action plans during consultations results in more attention to patient concerns and lifestyle issues and an overall improvement in patient-GP communication in terms of affective atmosphere and patient involvement.\",\n \"yes. In order to allocate consulting resources more effectively, appropriate concepts need to be developed and promoted. If the present results could be verified by a study with a larger sample, the practical use for resource optimisation in breastfeeding consultations would be very beneficial.\",\n \"yes. These findings demonstrate that providing diagnostic information regarding PNES is insufficient by itself to meaningfully affect patient outcome. Structured feedback and psychiatric consultation appeared adequate to significantly reduce PNES frequency and improve aspects of quality of life, while the addition of a weekly phone contact also led to improved mood.\",\n \"The results have significant implications for quality improvement in the NHS. The finding that some NHS providers consistently perform better than others suggests that there are system-wide determinants of patient experience and the potential for learning from innovators. However, there is room for improvement overall. Given the large samples of these surveys, the messages could also have relevance for healthcare systems elsewhere.\",\n \"Doctors can increase satisfaction and moderately improve functional outcomes in the period immediately after the consultation when back pain is worst, by using very simple interventions: either by endorsing a self-management booklet or by giving advice to take exercise. Previous studies suggest that simple advice and the same written information provide reinforcement. This study supports evidence that it may not be helpful to provide a detailed information booklet and advice together, where the amounts or formats of information differ.\",\n \"yes. Accompaniment to medical visits is associated with better HF self-care maintenance and management, and this effect may be mediated through satisfaction with provider communication.\",\n \"This study reveals misunderstandings between patients and GPs on the content of the consultation, especially for health-promotion outcomes. Taking patients' social characteristics into account, notably age and educational level, could improve mutual understanding between patients and GPs, and therefore, the quality of care.\",\n \"The fact that there is little unexplained variation in GP consultation lengths that might be attributable to variations in quality (i.e. GP-related) throws doubt on the proposition that length of consultation can be used as a marker for quality of consultation in general practice.\",\n \"Deciding on 'best quality' is subjective. While literature and guidelines provide clear parameters for many measures, others are difficult to judge. Overall, there was little difference between these two groups. This study has found little evidence to support the claim that computerisation of general practice in Australia has improved the quality of care provided to patients.\",\n \"yes. Interventions before consultations designed to help patients address their information needs within consultations produce limited benefits to patients. Further research could explore whether the quality of questions is increased, whether anxiety before consultations is reduced, the effects on other outcomes and the impact of training and the timing of interventions. More studies need to consider the timing of interventions and possibly the type of training provided to clinicians.\",\n \"yes. Child care health consultation programs can improve the written health and safety policies and may improve practices in child care centers.\",\n \"yes. The reasons underpinning each individual decision to consult were complex. The control that GPs were perceived to have over the pattern of consulting, for example concerning prescribing, review visits, and in addressing further help-seeking behaviour, may provide more possibilities for developing intervention strategies than targeting frequent attenders themselves. An understanding of the processes behind the consulting behaviour of frequent attenders may lead to more functional consultations and better clinical care as a result.\",\n \"The consultant system was more efficient in resolving problems and responding to general practitioners than the traditional system. General practitioners were more confident in self-management of hypothyroidism and diabetes. A very large decrease in the number of patient referrals was observed after implementation of the consultant system.\",\n \"When measured objectively, specialist consultation appears to have a small, but statistically significant, positive impact on the level of patient anxiety. Patient satisfaction correlated well with the patient anxiety levels.\",\n \"yes. Introduction of guidelines for time to consultation, may improve response times, leading to improved quality of service for inpatient consultation services.\",\n \"In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.\",\n \"yes. These consultations often change expected management. Where decision making in the consultation is of higher quality, patients were more likely to change to a less invasive option.\",\n \"For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":829,"string":"829"}}},{"rowIdx":273161,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Development of a computer clinical instruction program. Is the game worth the candle?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.","Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists."],"string":"[\n \"Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.\",\n \"Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. This study suggests that a simulation-based mock code program may significantly benefit pediatric patient CPA outcomes-applied clinical outcomes-not simply learner perceived value, increased confidence, or simulation-based outcomes. The use of mock codes as an integral part of residency programs could provide residents with the resuscitation training they require to become proficient in their practice. Future programs that incorporate transport scenarios, ambulatory care, and other outpatient settings could further benefit pediatric patients in prehospital contexts.","yes. A computer-based learning module allows patients to assimilate information and actively participate in choosing type of breast reconstruction. Use of this educational modality represents a simple and effective way to improve the shared decision-making process.","Compared with controls in this pilot study, an additional simulation exercise improved immediate performance on a short written test of cardiovascular physiology. Enhanced performance was again seen at 1 year, raising the possibility that the extra teaching session produced accelerated and sustained learning compared with the routine teaching method. Given the preliminary nature of this investigation, further study is required to distinguish transient from lasting effects of simulation versus alternative teaching approaches in the basic medical sciences.","yes. The teaching of a structured method of communication improved the communication during telephone referral in a simulated clinical setting. This research has implications for how healthcare professionals are taught to communicate with each other.","Assessing in undergraduate medical education the educational effectiveness of a short computer-based session, integrating a lecturer's video with a standardized structure, for evidence based medicine (EBM) teaching, compared to a lecture-based teaching session of similar structure and duration. A concealed, randomized controlled trial of computer based session versus lecture of equal duration (40 minutes) and identical content in EBM and systematic reviews. The study was based at the Medical School, University of Birmingham, UK involving one hundred and seventynine year one medical students. The main outcome measures were change from pre to post-intervention score measured using a validated questionnaire assessing knowledge (primary outcome) and attitudes (secondary outcome). Participants' improvement in knowledge in the computer based group was equivalent to the lecture based group (gain in score: 0.8 [S.D = 3.2] versus 1.3 [S.D = 2.4]; p = 0.24). Attitudinal gains were similar in both groups.","The results suggest that educating patients can result in a higher knowledge levels by using a computer than by using a doctor. Satisfaction seems equal after both methods of education.","yes. The computerized training program Cogmed RM was an effective intervention tool for improving memory and reducing core learning deficits in adolescents born at ELBW.","Proper diagnosis of cardiac disorders is a core competency of internists. Yet numerous studies have documented that the cardiac examination (CE) skills of physicians have declined compared with those of previous generations of physicians, attributed variously to inadequate exposure to cardiac patients and lack of skilled bedside teaching. With growing concerns about ensuring patient safety and quality of care, public and professional organizations are calling for a renewed emphasis on the teaching and evaluation of clinical skills in residency training. The objective of the study was to determine whether Web training improves CE competency, whether residents retain what they learn, and whether a Web-based curriculum plus clinical training is better than clinical training alone. Journal of Hospital Medicine 2008;3:124-133. (c) 2008 Society of Hospital Medicine. This was a controlled intervention study. The intervention group (34 internal and family medicine interns) participated in self-directed use of a Web-based tutorial and three 1-hour teaching sessions taught by a hospitalist. Twenty-five interns from the prior year served as controls. We assessed overall CE competency and 4 subcategories of CE competency: knowledge, audio skills, visual skills, and audio-visual integration. The over mean score of the intervention group significantly improved, from 54 to 66 (P = .002). This improvement was retained (63.5, P = .05). When compared with end-of-year controls, the intervention group had significantly higher end-of-year CE scores (57 vs. 63.5, P = .05), knowledge (P = .04), and audio skills (P = .01). At the end of the academic year, all improvements were retained (P 35/40. Competency was achieved after an average of 32.5 ± 10 supervised studies in the control group compared with only 13.6 ± 8.5 in the interventional group (p < 0.0001). At M6, a significant between-group difference in number of supervised TEE was observed (17 [14-28] in the control group vs. 30.5 [21.5-39.5] in the interventional group, p = 0.001). The score was significantly higher in the interventional group at M1 (32.5 [29.25-35.5] vs. 24.75 [20-30.25]; p = 0.0001), M3 (37 [33.5-38.5] vs. 32 [30.37-34.5]; p = 0.0004), but not at M6 (37.5 [33-39] vs. 36 [33.5-37.5] p = 0.24).","To assess whether a multimedia program can affect counseling behavior related to one of the strongest risk factors for violence later in life, persistent early childhood aggression. The design was a controlled trial with unobtrusive measurement in a clinic setting. A researcher, pretending to be the mother of a 2 ½ year old boy, called 19 pediatric residents during clinic hours and requested advice on how to manage her child's persistently hurtful behavior. The intervention was a 40-min lecture focusing on a multimedia program, Play Nicely, which teaches accepted strategies for managing aggression in young children ages 1-7 years. Residents' responses were blindly assessed to determine the treatment effect of the intervention. Compared with the control group (C), residents in the intervention (I) group were more likely to recommend setting the rule (I: 100% vs. C: 31%, p = .01), redirecting (I: 83% vs. C: 8%, p = .003), promoting empathy (I: 50% vs. C: 0%, p = .02), and more likely to discourage the use of physical punishment (I: 83% vs. C: 31%). These are the primary strategies encouraged by the intervention. The magnitude of the effect size was very large for each of these three strategies, ranging from d = 1.1 to 2.3.","A previous study evaluated repeated, serial administrations of computer-based simulations. The data demonstrated an increase in scores across rotations during the academic year, but no difference between scores in successive years. The initial study only indirectly assessed the effect of information sharing on measured performance. To directly assess the effect of information transfer, 8 computer-based case simulations were administered over 2 consecutive years to 220 third-year students at the conclusion of 12 surgical clerkship rotations (6 per year). During the second year of administration information regarding content area, in the form of the case stem or introductory lead-in material, was provided to each rotation of students prior to the examination based on a sequential algorithm. The data demonstrate no increase in overall mean score for the examination over the 2 years. Scores were significantly different for 2 of the 8 cases, increasing in the one and decreasing in the other.","The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.","Evidence-based information, delivered by peers, and associated with the opportunity to practice new skills appear to be the components of continuing medical education (CME) that translate into improved clinical care.","yes. Several theories support these clinical teaching workshops. (1) Outcomes research in continuing medical education suggests the need for ongoing reinforcement, which we do structurally through the three-session model. (2) We use a classical microteaching approach to develop insight and self-awareness. Each videotaped encounter is reviewed, stopped at key points, and discussed by the entire group. These discussions commonly open up after the workshop leaders ask questions such as, \"What were you thinking there?\" or \"What were you trying to do?\" or \"What would you ask next?\" (3) We emphasize the importance of knowing-in-action and the related reflection that guides action in practice. (4) The quality of the workshops is enhanced using standardized students, whom we carefully train and use repeatedly. At least two students have worked with us from their first years through their final clinical years. We are currently examining the program's impact through videotape review.","This study explores the relationship between instructional strategies and effective health education curricula. A content analysis of 10 health education curricula was conducted to determine if they include common instructional strategies for actively engaging students in acquisition of health skills. To be included, the curricula had to (1) be research-based and proven via empirical testing to positively influence the health behaviors and (2) address 1 of Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's 6 priority health risk behaviors. Content analysis revealed 5 active learning strategies incorporated to involve students in acquiring health skills. Role play, group cooperation, and small group discussion were found in all 10 curricula. To a lesser extent, interactive technology and team games were also included.","yes. We suggest that our virtual reality program enables anticipatory PC and response mechanisms and might serve as a successful therapeutic alternative in situations in which conventional therapy is not readily available.","The goal of this study was to determine if clinical simulation improved resident confidence in performing critical care skills, neonatal resuscitation, and colonoscopy. Residents participated in clinical simulations utilizing high-fidelity medical simulators in a realistic environment. We compared resident responses on pre- and post-experience surveys. Residents reported satisfaction with quality of demonstrations and opportunity for hands-on learning and practice. Residents felt more confident in their ability to apply these skills independently and in the applied context.","no. The focus and design of clinical education programming on preparation for crisis management during the care of critically ill patients benefit from the incorporation of trainee perceptions of preparedness and the efficacy of educational formats. Trainee feedback in these areas can be harnessed as a continuous quality improvement tool and as a metric of success in meeting professional training goals.","Active computerized advice elaborated by the clinical pharmacologist on the basis of TDM results and of patient's pathophysiological data and co-medications may be cost-effective for personalizing linezolid treatment.","An instrumental strategy may be a stage in student's consultation learning progression that interferes with communication training. A question is raised: is training of a patient-centred approach throughout the clinical curriculum needed for optimal development of consultation skills? Further research is needed to test this hypothesis.","With the development of portable, affordable ultrasound machines with good image quality, many physicians have adopted focused cardiac ultrasound (FoCUS). To facilitate acquisition of these skills, we developed a simulator-based, self-taught curriculum for FoCUS that provides immediate feedback for rapid performance improvement. Twenty-two first-year residents participated in the study. The curriculum consisted of instructive modules teaching image acquisition and interpretation of standard echocardiography views and common cardiac pathology, 7 practice cases in which participants scanned a mannequin using a mock transducer, acquired specified views with feedback provided by visual guidance technology, and interpreted these images. Trainees were tested pretraining and posttraining on different cases, without visual guidance assistance or feedback. Previously validated metrics were used to assess psychomotor skill in terms of the angle error in degrees between the planes of the optimal view, defined anatomically, and of the acquired view, as well as cognitive skill in image interpretation. The average error in image acquisition decreased from a median of 81 degrees at the pretest to 28 degrees after training (P < 0.0001). Cognitive skill improved by 29% (21%, P < 0.0001). There was a significant correlation between cognitive and psychomotor skill (r = 0.64, P < 0.001).","Short, brain-training games administered on an iPad can be used as psychometric tests to detect subtle cognitive impairments in patients with cirrhosis without overt encephalopathy that could not be detected by the NCT-A or the ICT.","Successful implementation of practice change requires educational tools that engage and motivate clinicians. To examine clinician usage and preference for different educational tools when a multifaceted strategy was used for implementation of new recommendations for managing newborns at risk of sepsis. Seminars, web-based tutorial, handouts, pocket cards and web-based management algorithm were used to educate health professionals. Ninety-two clinicians attended seminars and completed feedback questionnaires that included three questions assessing knowledge of the recommendations. After 3 months, an electronic survey containing the same questions was sent to 41 key stakeholders (staff neonatologists, trainee physicians, nurse practitioners and respiratory therapists) who provided patient care during the implementation period. Compliance with recommendations was assessed by chart audit. Seminar content was helpful to 97% of participants and 88% were comfortable using the recommendations. Response rate for the 3-month survey was 80%. The most frequently used and useful tools were pocket cards (76%) and seminars (76%); 79% continued to use the card. Only one respondent used the web tutorial and four used the algorithm. There was no significant difference in percent correct responses to the questions between the two timepoints (p > 0.05). Compliance with the recommendations was 83%.","It is possible to measure feedback skills in a clinical setting. Although traditional outcome measures show a significant effect, demonstrating change in teaching behaviors used in practice will require larger scale studies than typically undertaken currently.","The reduction in time to defibrillate ventricular fibrillation and to pace symptomatic bradycardia among the intervention group subjects suggests that the online computer-based ACLS simulator is an effective adjunctive ACLS instructional tool.","These results suggest that it may be possible to train people in BLS and AED skills using a micro-simulation web-based interactive program but without any practice on a manikin. This seems to be particularly the case for the use of an AED, where performance achieved a uniformly high standard.","Individuals at clinical high risk (CHR) for psychosis demonstrate cognitive impairments that predict later psychotic transition and real-world functioning. Cognitive training has shown benefits in schizophrenia, but has not yet been adequately tested in the CHR population. In this double-blind randomized controlled trial, CHR individuals (N = 83) were given laptop computers and trained at home on 40 hours of auditory processing-based exercises designed to target verbal learning and memory operations, or on computer games (CG). Participants were assessed with neurocognitive tests based on the Measurement and Treatment Research to Improve Cognition in Schizophrenia initiative (MATRICS) battery and rated on symptoms and functioning. Groups were compared before and after training using a mixed-effects model with restricted maximum likelihood estimation, given the high study attrition rate (42%). Participants in the targeted cognitive training group showed a significant improvement in Verbal Memory compared to CG participants (effect size = 0.61). Positive and Total symptoms improved in both groups over time.","Computer-based cognitive and language rehabilitation, using proper and dedicated software, may be a valuable tool in improving either communication or cognitive skills in patient affected by aphasia, even in the chronic state.","yes. E-learning using the Computer Enhanced Visual Learning platform significantly improved preparedness, confidence, and comfort with percutaneous closed reduction and pinning of a pediatric supracondylar humeral fracture. We believe that adapting such methods into residency training programs will improve efficiency in surgical training.","Computer-based lectures are not inferior to classroom lectures and may represent a worthwhile substitution in subjects without prior ultrasound education. Our data suggest that didactic ultrasound training through classroom lectures is more effective than computer-based lectures in individuals with prior training.","To create a bingo game that would increase student interaction with course material and provide students with options for demonstrating learning and earning extra credit. A bingo game was created in which each of the 25 squares contained an activity (eg, video, crossword puzzle, poem, quiz) that encouraged interaction with course material and appealed to multiple learning styles. Students who achieved bingo earned a 5-point (5%) grade bonus. All students enrolled in the Introduction to Clinical Pharmacy Skills course participated in the bingo game. The majority of students (74.6% in the fall and 81.9% in the spring) achieved bingo. Students who achieved bingo had an average course grade 7 points (fall semester) and 10 points (spring semester) higher than the average course grade from the prior 6 semesters.","yes. A simulation-based mastery learning program increased residents' skills in simulated central venous catheter insertion and decreased complications related to central venous catheter insertions in actual patient care.","A well-structured education program has reduced both inter- and intraobserver prostate contouring variations. The impact was greater on MRI than on CT. With the ongoing incorporation of new technologies into routine practice, education programs for target contouring should be incorporated as part of the continuing medical education of radiation oncologists.","The evaluation indicates the potential merits of e-practice development, particularly for nurses who feel geographically and professionally isolated or disenchanted with available continuing professional development opportunities. Participation in the virtual college appeared to enrich practice and foster a culture of change.","Carotid artery stenting (CAS) is an advanced endovascular intervention with a steep learning curve. Virtual reality (VR) simulation has been proposed as a means to train and objectively assess technical performance. To objectively assess psychomotor skills acquisition of experienced interventionalists attending a two-day CAS course, using a VR simulator. Both cognitive and technical skills of 11 interventionalists were trained in a two-day course using didactic sessions, case reviews, supervised VR simulation and live-cases. Pre- and post-course skills were assessed through performance on the same CAS procedure using metrics derived from the simulator. Significant differences were noted between pre- and post-course performance for procedure (36 vs. 20min., p=0.005), X-ray (20 vs. 11min., p=0.016) and delivery-retrieval time of the embolic protection device (12 vs. 9min., p=0.007). Advancement of the guiding catheter without a leading wire occurred to a greater extent pre- versus post-course (199 vs. 152mm., p=0.050) as did spasm of the internal carotid artery (4 vs. 2, p=0.049).","Gaming technology can provide an exercise program that has similar cardiovascular demands to traditional pulmonary rehabilitation programs for patients with COPD. Further research is necessary to address feasibility and long-term adherence.","An educational program based on real-time feedback to resident physicians regarding documentation improved diagnostic capture and SOI scores, but not case mix index or billing at our public, safety net, teaching hospital. Even with enhanced education of resident physicians regarding documentation, other interventions are needed to further improve diagnostic capture.","The aim of this study was to examine the usefulness of DVD simulations in a clinical teaching context, their impact on student learning, and their potential as a supplemental learning option for clinical placements/fieldwork education rotations that might assist in reducing the burden on the health care system. Eleven clinical DVD simulations were developed by Monash University academic staff from four academic departments: nursing, occupational therapy, paramedics, and physiotherapy. Undergraduate students (n = 394) from these health science groups viewed the DVD simulations. Student perceptions and attitudes about the clinical relevance of the DVD simulations were assessed on a 7-point Likert-type scale standardized questionnaire (7 indicating the highest satisfaction score). Qualitative data were also collected from three focus groups that involved 24 students, assessing if and how the DVD simulations influenced the clinical fieldwork education placement learning experiences of the students. Overall, students' responses to the questionnaire indicated that they were satisfied with the DVD simulations with relation to attention (mean 4.25, SD 0.95), learning potential (mean 5.25, SD 1.16), clinical relevance to practice (mean 4.36, SD 0.60), and information-processing quality (mean 5.45, SD 0.23). Qualitative data supported the notions of interdisciplinary teamwork, clinical placements, clinical placement education, and DVD quality evaluation and feedback.","yes. Taken together, these data indicate that clinical skill training with a variety of simulations could substantially promote the clinical performance of medical students and optimize the resources used for medical education, although a precise analysis of each specialization is needed in the future.","For an effective acquisition and the practical application of rapidly increasing amounts of information, computer-based learning has already been introduced in medical education. However, there have been few studies that compare this innovative method to traditional learning methods in studying advanced cardiac life support (ACLS). Senior medical students were randomized to computer simulation and a textbook study. Each group studied ACLS for 150 minutes. Tests were done one week before, immediately after, and one week after the study period. Testing consisted of 20 questions. All questions were formulated in such a way that there was a single best answer. Each student also completed a questionnaire designed to assess computer skills as well as satisfaction with and benefit from the study materials. Test scores improved after both textbook study and computer simulation study in both groups but the improvement in scores was significantly higher for the textbook group only immediately after the study. There was no significant difference between groups in their computer skill and satisfaction with the study materials. The textbook group reported greater benefit from study materials than did the computer simulation group.","Computer-based patient education is an effective (therapeutic) tool. More and more studies prove that it can be an effective additive for face-to-face education, but it is still unclear if it is possible to educate patients by only using a computer. Our objective was to compare knowledge levels and satisfaction scores after computer-based patient education versus doctor-based patient education. We started a randomised and stratified trial in a large plastic surgery clinic in the Netherlands. One hundred thirteen patients with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), scheduled for operation were included. One group received CTS education by a doctor using a checklist (group A). The other group received the same CTS education by specially designed interactive computer program (group B). After 2 weeks, knowledge levels and satisfaction scores were tested by using a questionnaire. One hundred thirteen patients were included, 96 patients finished the questionnaire. With respect to knowledge levels the doctor group (A) scored 20.2 points (max 40 points), and the computer group (B) scored 23.5 points. After correction the difference was 2.8 points (p=0.001). The total satisfaction score in group A was 7.6 and in group B 7.5; a difference of -0.16 (p=0.585).","yes. In a simulated environment, a computerised protocol for TGC resulted in significant insulin dosing error reduction, saved time and improved nurse satisfaction.","Simulation-based learning is a common educational tool in health care training and frequently involves instructional designs based on Experiential Learning Theory (ELT). However, little research explores the effectiveness and efficiency of different instructional design methodologies appropriate for simulations. The aim of this study was to compare 2 instructional design models, ELT and Guided Experiential Learning (GEL), to determine which is more effective for training the central venous catheterization procedure. Using a quasi-experimental randomized block design, nurse anesthetists completed training under 1 of the 2 instructional design models. Performance was assessed using a checklist of central venous catheterization performance, pass rates, and critical action errors. Participants in the GEL condition performed significantly better than those in the ELT condition on the overall checklist score after controlling for individual practice time (F[1, 29] = 4.021, P = .027, Cohen's d = .71), had higher pass rates (P = .006, Cohen's d = 1.15), and had lower rates of failure due to critical action errors (P = .038, Cohen's d = .81).","Using current criteria, we doubt that the time and effort spent training novice PGY1 Surgical Residents on the basic LapSim training programs is justified, as such training to competence lacks predictive validity in most domains of the GOALS program. We are investigating 2 other approaches: more difficult training exercises using the LapSim system and an entirely different approach using haptic technology (ProMis; Haptica Ltd., Ireland), which uses real instruments, with training on realistic 3-dimensional models with real rather than simulated cutting, sewing, and dissection. Although experienced video gamers achieve competency faster than nongamers on LapSim programs, that skill set does not translate into improved clinical performance.","To estimate the role of computer-CPED in the Netherlands to the year 2008. Computer-assisted learning is currently employed in many modern undergraduate dental curricula. It could also play an important role in providing continuing professional education in dentistry (CPED) to general dental practitioners. Computer-CPED offers teacher-independent and individualized interaction by distance learning. A simulation study was conducted. Entry data were either derived from publications or were estimated. The results indicate that the demand for CPED will exceed the supply by 2002.","As computerized therapy is developed to address barriers to dissemination, future trials should examine the effectiveness of cCBT for anxiety for patients with more complex clinical presentations.","yes. The educational intervention program significantly improved the knowledge and confidence of the participants in managing pediatric critical illnesses. The CISD program provides an inexpensive, practical, and time effective method of facilitating knowledge acquisition and retention. Despite the distinctively different approach, this study has shown the effectiveness of the participant being an observer to enhance pediatric resuscitation skills.","The training program was effective in improving team members' communication skills and their self-efficacy to communicate in the context of an encounter with a simulated patient. Future study should assess the effect of this training program on communication with actual patients and their satisfaction. Moreover a cost-benefit analysis is needed, before implementing such an intensive training program on a broader scale.","yes. A computer software for myocardial volume and infarct size determination cut the evaluation time by more than 50% compared with manual assessment, with maintained clinical accuracy.","computer-aided learning (CAL) is increasingly used to deliver teaching, but few studies have evaluated its impact on learning within geriatric medicine. We developed and implemented CAL packages on falls and continence, and evaluated their effect on student performance in two medical schools. traditional ward based and didactic teaching was replaced by blended learning (CAL package combined with traditional teaching methods). Examination scores were compared for cohorts of medical students receiving traditional learning and those receiving blended learning. Control questions were included to provide data on cohort differences. in both medical schools, there was a trend towards improved scores following blended learning, with a smaller number of students achieving low scores (P < 0.01). Feedback from students about the CAL packages was positive.","An interactive, case-based, on-line DV education program that teaches problem-solving skills improves physician confidence and beliefs in managing DV patients as effectively as an intensive classroom-based approach. Such programs may be of benefit to those seeking to improve their personal skills or their health care delivery system's response to DV.","Students' motivation to participate is one of the main challenges in formative assessment. The utility framework identifies potential points of intervention for improving the acceptance of formative assessment [Van Der Vleuten C. 1996. The assessment of professional competence: Developments, research and practical implications. Adv Health Sci Educ 1(1):41-67]. At the Medical Faculty of the University of Cologne, the paper-based version of the Berlin Progress Test has been transformed into computer-based version providing immediate feedback.AIM: To investigate whether the introduction of computer-based assessment (CBA) enhances the acceptance of formative assessment relative to paper-based assessment (PBA). In a retrospective cohort study (PBA: N = 2597, CBA: N = 2712), students' overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment was surveyed, their comments were analyzed, and we analyzed their test behavior and categorized students into \"serious\" or \"non-serious\" test takers. In the preclinical phase of medical education, no differences were found in overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment (p > 0.05). In the clinical phase, differences in favor of CBA were found in overall acceptance (p < 0.05), the proportion of positive comments (p < 0.001), and the proportion of serious participants (p < 0.001).","yes. We show that CEVL e-learning is an effective tool, which requires a minimal time investment, for teaching GUMS scoring. We believe that e-learning is a good platform to promote uniform clinical practices in outcomes research and for resident training.","yes. The health challenges of the 21 century require that we rapidly train the clinical workforce in clinical informatics. In addition to buying hardware and software, our health systems need to sponsor this training. Two percent of every Health IT budget should be targeted for clinician education.","A 7x90-minute interactive tutorial in PC for 5Y medical students is feasible and improves both self-efficacy and knowledge of core PC issues. Whether the effects of the course are long-lasting is the objective for further research.","yes. These results suggest that clinical background and understanding of the clinical value of a training program lead to faster acquisition and improvement of laparoscopic skills as performed on the laparoscopy simulator. Thus, medical students or other personnel not involved in practical surgery may be unsuitable as candidates for assessing the value of a VR training program.","The effects of a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) tutorial program on learning clinical reasoning skills were compared in undergraduate dietetics students. A drill-and-practice program to control for time on task, and tutorial program, and a simulation program, as the test vehicle, were developed. The tutorial and simulation programs presented data on a patient with cardiovascular disease. Subjects were tested in 30 undergraduate dietetics programs. Participants were 413 undergraduate diet therapy students enrolled in a coordinated program in dietetics (CPD) or a didactic program in dietetics (DPD). After completion of lectures on cardiovascular disease, subjects were given the drill-and-practice program plus a simulation test (group 1), the tutorial plus a simulation test (group 2), or the simulation test only (group 3). Scores on the simulation test were compared. Variables included type of CAI, dietetics program, year in school, computer experience, and experience using a medical chart. Mastery of objectives related to lower- and higher-level clinical reasoning skills introduced in the tutorial program was computed. One-way analysis of variance and Student-Newman Keuls tests were conducted to determine any differences among the three groups. Reliability was determined using the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20. The reliability coefficient of the stimulation test was 0.93. Group 2 higher on the simulation test than group 1 or group 3. As a group, the CPD students scored higher than the DPD students. When CPD and DPD students were divided into the three experimental groups, there was no significant difference between the CPD and DPD student simulation scores. Group 2 mastered all objectives for lower-level reasoning skills and the higher-level decision-making objective better than groups 1 and 3.","The present study compares the value of additional use of computer simulated heart sounds, to conventional bedside auscultation training, on the cardiac auscultation skills of 3rd year medical students at Oslo University Medical School. In addition to their usual curriculum courses, groups of seven students each were randomized to receive four hours of additional auscultation training either employing a computer simulator system or adding on more conventional bedside training. Cardiac auscultation skills were afterwards tested using live patients. Each student gave a written description of the auscultation findings in four selected patients, and was rewarded from 0-10 points for each patient. Differences between the two study groups were evaluated using student's t-test. At the auscultation test no significant difference in mean score was found between the students who had used additional computer based sound simulation compared to additional bedside training.","Nursing students reported that the simulations were educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations as an alternative and potential replacement to elements of nursing clinical placements should be investigated further.","yes. A cardiac auscultation curriculum consisting of deliberate practice with a computer-based tutorial and a cardiac patient simulator resulted in improved assessment of simulated heart sounds and more accurate examination of actual patients.","Students viewed the simulations as being educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations to replace or supplement components of clinical fieldwork education should be investigated further.","For the production of computer-based learning environments, a wide range of software solutions can be used which differ not only in their functionality but also vary in cost and ease to program. The aim of our study was to evaluate the overall efficiency and student's perception of two case-based e-learning programs that were produced with either an easy-to-use or a complex software. Eighty-five dental students were randomly assigned to one of two experimental groups. One group studied with a laborious, high-interactive e-learning program (complex-software group). The second group studied within a low-interactive learning environment (easy-software group) that was easy to be programmed. Both programs identically referred to a case report on localised aggressive periodontitis. Learning outcome was tested by a pre- and post-test. Furthermore, questionnaires on workload, motivation, perceived usefulness and perceived learning outcome were used. Learners in the easy-software group showed better results in the post-test F(1, 82) = 4.173, P<0.044). Even easy-to-use software tools have the potential to be beneficial in dental education. Students were showing a high acceptance and ability in using both e-learning environments.","To explore whether a simulated critical care encounter can accelerate basic science learning among preclinical medical students. Using a high-fidelity patient simulator, we \"brought to life\" a paper case of a myocardial infarction among a convenience sample of first-year medical students (n=22 [intervention]). Students discussed the case as part of a routine tutorial session, and then managed the case in the simulator laboratory. Using an identical six-item test of cardiac physiology, students were evaluated immediately after the simulator session and at 1 year (n=15). Performance was compared with controls (case discussion but no simulator session) at both baseline (n=37) and 1 year (n=48). Performance among simulator-exposed students was significantly enhanced on immediate testing (mean score 4.0 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .005). Gains among the simulator cohort were maintained at 1 year (mean score 4.1 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .045). Multivariable analysis confirmed that the intervention was a significant determinant of performance across time (P = .001).","yes. Computer-based learning has a potentially significant role in the development of a training syllabus for CE and in CE accreditation.","yes. Our results suggest that computerised teaching methods have significant potential to assist in learning for both Chinese and foreign medical undergraduates.","Computers and other forms of information technology are increasingly used in medical education. We undertook a study to evaluate the place of the computer in the assessment of clinical skills of junior medical students. The history taking and physical examination skills of 136 third-year students were assessed in a series of structured and observed clinical stations and compared to their performance in similar computer-based problems. Students scored equally on the computer-based tasks and in the observed stations, but the weaker students who failed one or another component of the examination were more likely to pass at a clinical station and fail the computer task.","yes. On the basis of our findings we feel computer based teaching and learning is as effective as typical lecture based teaching sessions for educating postgraduates in EBM and systematic reviews.","The results confirm earlier studies in suggesting that the use of computer aided decision support improves diagnostic and decision making performance when dealing with patients suffering from acute abdominal pain. That use of the computer for teaching gave results at least as good as with its use for direct feedback may be highly relevant for those who are apprehensive about the real time use of diagnostic computers in a clinical setting.","E-learning is playing an increasing role in medical education, supporting a problem-based and practical oriented education without putting patients at risk and compensating for the decrease in instructor-centered teaching. Not much research has been done concerning learning effects and reaction on behalf of the students. We created computer-based cases for four important diagnoses in urology using the authoring system CASUS®. Fourth-year medical school students were randomized into two groups: (1) the CASUS® group, using the online cases for preparation, and (2) the book group, using a textbook. A multiple-choice test referring to the prepared topic had to be completed at the beginning of each lecture and the results were analyzed. Evaluation of the students concerning the acceptance of the program was done at the end of the semester. Members of the CASUS® group scored significantly higher with an average of 20% better test results than students using textbooks for preparation. Evaluation regarding the program showed a highly positive rating. Limitations include the small study population and the possibly biased test performance of the students.","yes. The GEL model of instructional design is significantly more effective than ELT for simulation-based learning of the central venous catheterization procedure, yielding large differences in effect size.","yes. (1) In a beta test of web-based scenarios that teach and assess clinical decision-making, resident scores improved by 25% from PGY 1 to PGY5 in a stepwise and statistically significant manner, suggesting that such exercises could serve as milestones for competency assessment. Additional studies are needed to acquire evidence for other forms of validity. (2) Repetition of cases after feedback led to highly significant increases in performance, suggesting that requiring repeated training to reach defined levels of competence is practical.","yes. A Web-based interactive educational program with minimal hospitalist involvement led to significant improvement in CE competence and was better than clinical training alone.","yes. In this study, the learner-control instructional multimedia program was found to be as effective as the program-control version when teaching principles of the orthodontic appliances to undergraduate students. Future work should focus on how to improve the value of computer-assisted learning (CAL), and comparative evaluations are still needed of how different CAL approaches compare with or complement one another.","yes. A novel, simulator-based curriculum that provides immediate feedback was effective in teaching both psychomotor and cognitive skills in FoCUS without need for direct expert oversight of the learner. The curriculum's components provide a useful tool that can be applied to improve, assess, and monitor physician skill in FoCUS.","yes. The cardiac auscultation skills of a group of volunteer family physicians showed low initial scores that improved significantly after self-study with a CD-ROM instructional program. The program was a valuable self-instructional aid, and physicians used it as a resource in clinical practice. However, only 50% of the initial group completed the self-study and returned for final assessment. Providing more support and assistance in the initial phase, especially with computer use, may enable completion of similar computerized self-study programs.","A software program was written which would allow students to study the anatomy and physiology of the liver and biliary tree in three different styles. Identical content was produced, matched for each style (problem-based, didactic and free text response) and students randomly allocated to one of four groups (three computer and one control). Students were tested before and after access to the program. Ninety second-year students completed the study. Those students who had access to the material in the problem-based and free text response styles did no better in the post-study test than the controls, whilst the group who had studied the didactically presented computer material performed significantly better than the other three groups. All three computer groups accessed the material on a similar number of occasions, but the group who had access to the free text entry program spent significantly less time on computer study.","The integration of information technology into nursing education requires a dramatic change in thinking. The 'learning curve' is steep for both student and educator and there are many issues that need to be considered. This research does not aim to provide solutions to the issues highlighted but rather offers recommendations for enhancing the teaching and learning experience.","It is feasible to design a software program to provide a standardized plotting format for ABPM, a basic analysis of data for day-to-day clinical work, or elaborate analyses for research, and an interpretative report to assist diagnosis and to provide an educational process for doctors and nurses not familiar with the technique.","yes. A computer tutorial program enhanced clinical reasoning skills in undergraduate dietetics students. This type of program could be used to supplement many topics taught in diet therapy and provide DPD students with experimental learning before their clinical intern practicums.","Computerized patient cases facilitate practice-oriented teaching and result in an interesting and engaging learning model with improved learning outcomes.","Computerised learning clearly offers exciting potential for improving student learning, either as an aid to or as a replacement for traditional formats, or for the development of innovative approaches. However, rigorous evaluation of the utility of computer-aided learning (CAL) in enhancing student learning can be difficult. Many studies have compared CAL to more traditional learning formats, but there is little evidence to show which style of CAL leads to the best learning outcomes.AIM: This study aimed to test the hypothesis that a CAL tutorial, in which the learner actively interacts with the computer, will result in superior learning (ability to apply and retain knowledge) to that obtained in more passive CAL formats. Third year medical undergraduates at Adelaide University, South Australia were randomly assigned to 4 groups. Following a pretest, only students in the \"didactic\", \"problem-based\" and \"free text\" groups had 2 weeks of free access to a neuroradiology CAL tutorial in their assigned format. Tutorial access was denied to all students 2 weeks before post-testing. Learning was quantified by comparing the post- to pretest scores for each of the 4 groups. After active interaction with the computer material, students in the free text group demonstrated a statistically significant improvement in their ability to apply and retain knowledge compared to the control group, but no advantage compared to the didactic group.","Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.","yes. The very positive response to the e-program and improved test scores demonstrated the effectiveness of our e-course as a learning aid. Interactive modules in step with clinical practice provided learning that is not achieved by traditional teaching methods alone. To what extent staff savings are possible is part of a further study.","yes. Game-based e-learning is more effective than a script-based approach for the training of urinalysis in regard to cognitive learning outcome and has a high positive motivational impact on learning. Game-based e-learning can be used as an effective teaching method for self-instruction.","We have developed both a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) multimedia program and a textbook on arterial blood gas interpretation with the same content as formal didactic instruction. A prospective, randomized study was designed to compare the outcomes of self-learning using the software and using the textbook. 80 third-year medical students were randomly allocated to two groups: the CAI (n=40) and text group (n=40). A 30-item, type-K examination was administered as the pre-test. After the pre-test, the volunteers in the CAI group studied the software program, whereas those in the text group spent their time reading the textbook covering the same material. The post-test was held immediately at the end of a full day of study, and 3 weeks later, the final test was performed without prior notice. A P value of<0.05 was considered to be a statistically significant difference. Students in the text group seemed to fulfil their assignments and improved their scores post-test better than those in the CAI group. After 3 weeks, the final test scores of both groups demonstrated a significant decrease, but showed an insignificant difference between the two groups.","This study has shown that computer-based clinical simulations can be constructed to supplement conventional assessment processes in clinical medicine and may have a role in increasing their reliability.","When compared with more traditional instructional methods, Game-based e-learning (GbEl) promises a higher motivation of learners by presenting contents in an interactive, rule-based and competitive way. Most recent systematic reviews and meta-analysis of studies on Game-based learning and GbEl in the medical professions have shown limited effects of these instructional methods. To compare the effectiveness on the learning outcome of a Game-based e-learning (GbEl) instruction with a conventional script-based instruction in the teaching of phase contrast microscopy urinalysis under routine training conditions of undergraduate medical students. A randomized controlled trial was conducted with 145 medical students in their third year of training in the Department of Urology at the University Medical Center Freiburg, Germany. 82 subjects where allocated for training with an educational adventure-game (GbEl group) and 69 subjects for conventional training with a written script-based approach (script group). Learning outcome was measured with a 34 item single choice test. Students' attitudes were collected by a questionnaire regarding fun with the training, motivation to continue the training and self-assessment of acquired knowledge. The students in the GbEl group achieved significantly better results in the cognitive knowledge test than the students in the script group: the mean score was 28.6 for the GbEl group and 26.0 for the script group of a total of 34.0 points with a Cohen's d effect size of 0.71 (ITT analysis). Attitudes towards the recent learning experience were significantly more positive with GbEl. Students reported to have more fun while learning with the game when compared to the script-based approach.","Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists."],"string":"[\n \"yes. This study suggests that a simulation-based mock code program may significantly benefit pediatric patient CPA outcomes-applied clinical outcomes-not simply learner perceived value, increased confidence, or simulation-based outcomes. The use of mock codes as an integral part of residency programs could provide residents with the resuscitation training they require to become proficient in their practice. Future programs that incorporate transport scenarios, ambulatory care, and other outpatient settings could further benefit pediatric patients in prehospital contexts.\",\n \"yes. A computer-based learning module allows patients to assimilate information and actively participate in choosing type of breast reconstruction. Use of this educational modality represents a simple and effective way to improve the shared decision-making process.\",\n \"Compared with controls in this pilot study, an additional simulation exercise improved immediate performance on a short written test of cardiovascular physiology. Enhanced performance was again seen at 1 year, raising the possibility that the extra teaching session produced accelerated and sustained learning compared with the routine teaching method. Given the preliminary nature of this investigation, further study is required to distinguish transient from lasting effects of simulation versus alternative teaching approaches in the basic medical sciences.\",\n \"yes. The teaching of a structured method of communication improved the communication during telephone referral in a simulated clinical setting. This research has implications for how healthcare professionals are taught to communicate with each other.\",\n \"Assessing in undergraduate medical education the educational effectiveness of a short computer-based session, integrating a lecturer's video with a standardized structure, for evidence based medicine (EBM) teaching, compared to a lecture-based teaching session of similar structure and duration. A concealed, randomized controlled trial of computer based session versus lecture of equal duration (40 minutes) and identical content in EBM and systematic reviews. The study was based at the Medical School, University of Birmingham, UK involving one hundred and seventynine year one medical students. The main outcome measures were change from pre to post-intervention score measured using a validated questionnaire assessing knowledge (primary outcome) and attitudes (secondary outcome). Participants' improvement in knowledge in the computer based group was equivalent to the lecture based group (gain in score: 0.8 [S.D = 3.2] versus 1.3 [S.D = 2.4]; p = 0.24). Attitudinal gains were similar in both groups.\",\n \"The results suggest that educating patients can result in a higher knowledge levels by using a computer than by using a doctor. Satisfaction seems equal after both methods of education.\",\n \"yes. The computerized training program Cogmed RM was an effective intervention tool for improving memory and reducing core learning deficits in adolescents born at ELBW.\",\n \"Proper diagnosis of cardiac disorders is a core competency of internists. Yet numerous studies have documented that the cardiac examination (CE) skills of physicians have declined compared with those of previous generations of physicians, attributed variously to inadequate exposure to cardiac patients and lack of skilled bedside teaching. With growing concerns about ensuring patient safety and quality of care, public and professional organizations are calling for a renewed emphasis on the teaching and evaluation of clinical skills in residency training. The objective of the study was to determine whether Web training improves CE competency, whether residents retain what they learn, and whether a Web-based curriculum plus clinical training is better than clinical training alone. Journal of Hospital Medicine 2008;3:124-133. (c) 2008 Society of Hospital Medicine. This was a controlled intervention study. The intervention group (34 internal and family medicine interns) participated in self-directed use of a Web-based tutorial and three 1-hour teaching sessions taught by a hospitalist. Twenty-five interns from the prior year served as controls. We assessed overall CE competency and 4 subcategories of CE competency: knowledge, audio skills, visual skills, and audio-visual integration. The over mean score of the intervention group significantly improved, from 54 to 66 (P = .002). This improvement was retained (63.5, P = .05). When compared with end-of-year controls, the intervention group had significantly higher end-of-year CE scores (57 vs. 63.5, P = .05), knowledge (P = .04), and audio skills (P = .01). At the end of the academic year, all improvements were retained (P 35/40. Competency was achieved after an average of 32.5 ± 10 supervised studies in the control group compared with only 13.6 ± 8.5 in the interventional group (p < 0.0001). At M6, a significant between-group difference in number of supervised TEE was observed (17 [14-28] in the control group vs. 30.5 [21.5-39.5] in the interventional group, p = 0.001). The score was significantly higher in the interventional group at M1 (32.5 [29.25-35.5] vs. 24.75 [20-30.25]; p = 0.0001), M3 (37 [33.5-38.5] vs. 32 [30.37-34.5]; p = 0.0004), but not at M6 (37.5 [33-39] vs. 36 [33.5-37.5] p = 0.24).\",\n \"To assess whether a multimedia program can affect counseling behavior related to one of the strongest risk factors for violence later in life, persistent early childhood aggression. The design was a controlled trial with unobtrusive measurement in a clinic setting. A researcher, pretending to be the mother of a 2 ½ year old boy, called 19 pediatric residents during clinic hours and requested advice on how to manage her child's persistently hurtful behavior. The intervention was a 40-min lecture focusing on a multimedia program, Play Nicely, which teaches accepted strategies for managing aggression in young children ages 1-7 years. Residents' responses were blindly assessed to determine the treatment effect of the intervention. Compared with the control group (C), residents in the intervention (I) group were more likely to recommend setting the rule (I: 100% vs. C: 31%, p = .01), redirecting (I: 83% vs. C: 8%, p = .003), promoting empathy (I: 50% vs. C: 0%, p = .02), and more likely to discourage the use of physical punishment (I: 83% vs. C: 31%). These are the primary strategies encouraged by the intervention. The magnitude of the effect size was very large for each of these three strategies, ranging from d = 1.1 to 2.3.\",\n \"A previous study evaluated repeated, serial administrations of computer-based simulations. The data demonstrated an increase in scores across rotations during the academic year, but no difference between scores in successive years. The initial study only indirectly assessed the effect of information sharing on measured performance. To directly assess the effect of information transfer, 8 computer-based case simulations were administered over 2 consecutive years to 220 third-year students at the conclusion of 12 surgical clerkship rotations (6 per year). During the second year of administration information regarding content area, in the form of the case stem or introductory lead-in material, was provided to each rotation of students prior to the examination based on a sequential algorithm. The data demonstrate no increase in overall mean score for the examination over the 2 years. Scores were significantly different for 2 of the 8 cases, increasing in the one and decreasing in the other.\",\n \"The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.\",\n \"Evidence-based information, delivered by peers, and associated with the opportunity to practice new skills appear to be the components of continuing medical education (CME) that translate into improved clinical care.\",\n \"yes. Several theories support these clinical teaching workshops. (1) Outcomes research in continuing medical education suggests the need for ongoing reinforcement, which we do structurally through the three-session model. (2) We use a classical microteaching approach to develop insight and self-awareness. Each videotaped encounter is reviewed, stopped at key points, and discussed by the entire group. These discussions commonly open up after the workshop leaders ask questions such as, \\\"What were you thinking there?\\\" or \\\"What were you trying to do?\\\" or \\\"What would you ask next?\\\" (3) We emphasize the importance of knowing-in-action and the related reflection that guides action in practice. (4) The quality of the workshops is enhanced using standardized students, whom we carefully train and use repeatedly. At least two students have worked with us from their first years through their final clinical years. We are currently examining the program's impact through videotape review.\",\n \"This study explores the relationship between instructional strategies and effective health education curricula. A content analysis of 10 health education curricula was conducted to determine if they include common instructional strategies for actively engaging students in acquisition of health skills. To be included, the curricula had to (1) be research-based and proven via empirical testing to positively influence the health behaviors and (2) address 1 of Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's 6 priority health risk behaviors. Content analysis revealed 5 active learning strategies incorporated to involve students in acquiring health skills. Role play, group cooperation, and small group discussion were found in all 10 curricula. To a lesser extent, interactive technology and team games were also included.\",\n \"yes. We suggest that our virtual reality program enables anticipatory PC and response mechanisms and might serve as a successful therapeutic alternative in situations in which conventional therapy is not readily available.\",\n \"The goal of this study was to determine if clinical simulation improved resident confidence in performing critical care skills, neonatal resuscitation, and colonoscopy. Residents participated in clinical simulations utilizing high-fidelity medical simulators in a realistic environment. We compared resident responses on pre- and post-experience surveys. Residents reported satisfaction with quality of demonstrations and opportunity for hands-on learning and practice. Residents felt more confident in their ability to apply these skills independently and in the applied context.\",\n \"no. The focus and design of clinical education programming on preparation for crisis management during the care of critically ill patients benefit from the incorporation of trainee perceptions of preparedness and the efficacy of educational formats. Trainee feedback in these areas can be harnessed as a continuous quality improvement tool and as a metric of success in meeting professional training goals.\",\n \"Active computerized advice elaborated by the clinical pharmacologist on the basis of TDM results and of patient's pathophysiological data and co-medications may be cost-effective for personalizing linezolid treatment.\",\n \"An instrumental strategy may be a stage in student's consultation learning progression that interferes with communication training. A question is raised: is training of a patient-centred approach throughout the clinical curriculum needed for optimal development of consultation skills? Further research is needed to test this hypothesis.\",\n \"With the development of portable, affordable ultrasound machines with good image quality, many physicians have adopted focused cardiac ultrasound (FoCUS). To facilitate acquisition of these skills, we developed a simulator-based, self-taught curriculum for FoCUS that provides immediate feedback for rapid performance improvement. Twenty-two first-year residents participated in the study. The curriculum consisted of instructive modules teaching image acquisition and interpretation of standard echocardiography views and common cardiac pathology, 7 practice cases in which participants scanned a mannequin using a mock transducer, acquired specified views with feedback provided by visual guidance technology, and interpreted these images. Trainees were tested pretraining and posttraining on different cases, without visual guidance assistance or feedback. Previously validated metrics were used to assess psychomotor skill in terms of the angle error in degrees between the planes of the optimal view, defined anatomically, and of the acquired view, as well as cognitive skill in image interpretation. The average error in image acquisition decreased from a median of 81 degrees at the pretest to 28 degrees after training (P < 0.0001). Cognitive skill improved by 29% (21%, P < 0.0001). There was a significant correlation between cognitive and psychomotor skill (r = 0.64, P < 0.001).\",\n \"Short, brain-training games administered on an iPad can be used as psychometric tests to detect subtle cognitive impairments in patients with cirrhosis without overt encephalopathy that could not be detected by the NCT-A or the ICT.\",\n \"Successful implementation of practice change requires educational tools that engage and motivate clinicians. To examine clinician usage and preference for different educational tools when a multifaceted strategy was used for implementation of new recommendations for managing newborns at risk of sepsis. Seminars, web-based tutorial, handouts, pocket cards and web-based management algorithm were used to educate health professionals. Ninety-two clinicians attended seminars and completed feedback questionnaires that included three questions assessing knowledge of the recommendations. After 3 months, an electronic survey containing the same questions was sent to 41 key stakeholders (staff neonatologists, trainee physicians, nurse practitioners and respiratory therapists) who provided patient care during the implementation period. Compliance with recommendations was assessed by chart audit. Seminar content was helpful to 97% of participants and 88% were comfortable using the recommendations. Response rate for the 3-month survey was 80%. The most frequently used and useful tools were pocket cards (76%) and seminars (76%); 79% continued to use the card. Only one respondent used the web tutorial and four used the algorithm. There was no significant difference in percent correct responses to the questions between the two timepoints (p > 0.05). Compliance with the recommendations was 83%.\",\n \"It is possible to measure feedback skills in a clinical setting. Although traditional outcome measures show a significant effect, demonstrating change in teaching behaviors used in practice will require larger scale studies than typically undertaken currently.\",\n \"The reduction in time to defibrillate ventricular fibrillation and to pace symptomatic bradycardia among the intervention group subjects suggests that the online computer-based ACLS simulator is an effective adjunctive ACLS instructional tool.\",\n \"These results suggest that it may be possible to train people in BLS and AED skills using a micro-simulation web-based interactive program but without any practice on a manikin. This seems to be particularly the case for the use of an AED, where performance achieved a uniformly high standard.\",\n \"Individuals at clinical high risk (CHR) for psychosis demonstrate cognitive impairments that predict later psychotic transition and real-world functioning. Cognitive training has shown benefits in schizophrenia, but has not yet been adequately tested in the CHR population. In this double-blind randomized controlled trial, CHR individuals (N = 83) were given laptop computers and trained at home on 40 hours of auditory processing-based exercises designed to target verbal learning and memory operations, or on computer games (CG). Participants were assessed with neurocognitive tests based on the Measurement and Treatment Research to Improve Cognition in Schizophrenia initiative (MATRICS) battery and rated on symptoms and functioning. Groups were compared before and after training using a mixed-effects model with restricted maximum likelihood estimation, given the high study attrition rate (42%). Participants in the targeted cognitive training group showed a significant improvement in Verbal Memory compared to CG participants (effect size = 0.61). Positive and Total symptoms improved in both groups over time.\",\n \"Computer-based cognitive and language rehabilitation, using proper and dedicated software, may be a valuable tool in improving either communication or cognitive skills in patient affected by aphasia, even in the chronic state.\",\n \"yes. E-learning using the Computer Enhanced Visual Learning platform significantly improved preparedness, confidence, and comfort with percutaneous closed reduction and pinning of a pediatric supracondylar humeral fracture. We believe that adapting such methods into residency training programs will improve efficiency in surgical training.\",\n \"Computer-based lectures are not inferior to classroom lectures and may represent a worthwhile substitution in subjects without prior ultrasound education. Our data suggest that didactic ultrasound training through classroom lectures is more effective than computer-based lectures in individuals with prior training.\",\n \"To create a bingo game that would increase student interaction with course material and provide students with options for demonstrating learning and earning extra credit. A bingo game was created in which each of the 25 squares contained an activity (eg, video, crossword puzzle, poem, quiz) that encouraged interaction with course material and appealed to multiple learning styles. Students who achieved bingo earned a 5-point (5%) grade bonus. All students enrolled in the Introduction to Clinical Pharmacy Skills course participated in the bingo game. The majority of students (74.6% in the fall and 81.9% in the spring) achieved bingo. Students who achieved bingo had an average course grade 7 points (fall semester) and 10 points (spring semester) higher than the average course grade from the prior 6 semesters.\",\n \"yes. A simulation-based mastery learning program increased residents' skills in simulated central venous catheter insertion and decreased complications related to central venous catheter insertions in actual patient care.\",\n \"A well-structured education program has reduced both inter- and intraobserver prostate contouring variations. The impact was greater on MRI than on CT. With the ongoing incorporation of new technologies into routine practice, education programs for target contouring should be incorporated as part of the continuing medical education of radiation oncologists.\",\n \"The evaluation indicates the potential merits of e-practice development, particularly for nurses who feel geographically and professionally isolated or disenchanted with available continuing professional development opportunities. Participation in the virtual college appeared to enrich practice and foster a culture of change.\",\n \"Carotid artery stenting (CAS) is an advanced endovascular intervention with a steep learning curve. Virtual reality (VR) simulation has been proposed as a means to train and objectively assess technical performance. To objectively assess psychomotor skills acquisition of experienced interventionalists attending a two-day CAS course, using a VR simulator. Both cognitive and technical skills of 11 interventionalists were trained in a two-day course using didactic sessions, case reviews, supervised VR simulation and live-cases. Pre- and post-course skills were assessed through performance on the same CAS procedure using metrics derived from the simulator. Significant differences were noted between pre- and post-course performance for procedure (36 vs. 20min., p=0.005), X-ray (20 vs. 11min., p=0.016) and delivery-retrieval time of the embolic protection device (12 vs. 9min., p=0.007). Advancement of the guiding catheter without a leading wire occurred to a greater extent pre- versus post-course (199 vs. 152mm., p=0.050) as did spasm of the internal carotid artery (4 vs. 2, p=0.049).\",\n \"Gaming technology can provide an exercise program that has similar cardiovascular demands to traditional pulmonary rehabilitation programs for patients with COPD. Further research is necessary to address feasibility and long-term adherence.\",\n \"An educational program based on real-time feedback to resident physicians regarding documentation improved diagnostic capture and SOI scores, but not case mix index or billing at our public, safety net, teaching hospital. Even with enhanced education of resident physicians regarding documentation, other interventions are needed to further improve diagnostic capture.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to examine the usefulness of DVD simulations in a clinical teaching context, their impact on student learning, and their potential as a supplemental learning option for clinical placements/fieldwork education rotations that might assist in reducing the burden on the health care system. Eleven clinical DVD simulations were developed by Monash University academic staff from four academic departments: nursing, occupational therapy, paramedics, and physiotherapy. Undergraduate students (n = 394) from these health science groups viewed the DVD simulations. Student perceptions and attitudes about the clinical relevance of the DVD simulations were assessed on a 7-point Likert-type scale standardized questionnaire (7 indicating the highest satisfaction score). Qualitative data were also collected from three focus groups that involved 24 students, assessing if and how the DVD simulations influenced the clinical fieldwork education placement learning experiences of the students. Overall, students' responses to the questionnaire indicated that they were satisfied with the DVD simulations with relation to attention (mean 4.25, SD 0.95), learning potential (mean 5.25, SD 1.16), clinical relevance to practice (mean 4.36, SD 0.60), and information-processing quality (mean 5.45, SD 0.23). Qualitative data supported the notions of interdisciplinary teamwork, clinical placements, clinical placement education, and DVD quality evaluation and feedback.\",\n \"yes. Taken together, these data indicate that clinical skill training with a variety of simulations could substantially promote the clinical performance of medical students and optimize the resources used for medical education, although a precise analysis of each specialization is needed in the future.\",\n \"For an effective acquisition and the practical application of rapidly increasing amounts of information, computer-based learning has already been introduced in medical education. However, there have been few studies that compare this innovative method to traditional learning methods in studying advanced cardiac life support (ACLS). Senior medical students were randomized to computer simulation and a textbook study. Each group studied ACLS for 150 minutes. Tests were done one week before, immediately after, and one week after the study period. Testing consisted of 20 questions. All questions were formulated in such a way that there was a single best answer. Each student also completed a questionnaire designed to assess computer skills as well as satisfaction with and benefit from the study materials. Test scores improved after both textbook study and computer simulation study in both groups but the improvement in scores was significantly higher for the textbook group only immediately after the study. There was no significant difference between groups in their computer skill and satisfaction with the study materials. The textbook group reported greater benefit from study materials than did the computer simulation group.\",\n \"Computer-based patient education is an effective (therapeutic) tool. More and more studies prove that it can be an effective additive for face-to-face education, but it is still unclear if it is possible to educate patients by only using a computer. Our objective was to compare knowledge levels and satisfaction scores after computer-based patient education versus doctor-based patient education. We started a randomised and stratified trial in a large plastic surgery clinic in the Netherlands. One hundred thirteen patients with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), scheduled for operation were included. One group received CTS education by a doctor using a checklist (group A). The other group received the same CTS education by specially designed interactive computer program (group B). After 2 weeks, knowledge levels and satisfaction scores were tested by using a questionnaire. One hundred thirteen patients were included, 96 patients finished the questionnaire. With respect to knowledge levels the doctor group (A) scored 20.2 points (max 40 points), and the computer group (B) scored 23.5 points. After correction the difference was 2.8 points (p=0.001). The total satisfaction score in group A was 7.6 and in group B 7.5; a difference of -0.16 (p=0.585).\",\n \"yes. In a simulated environment, a computerised protocol for TGC resulted in significant insulin dosing error reduction, saved time and improved nurse satisfaction.\",\n \"Simulation-based learning is a common educational tool in health care training and frequently involves instructional designs based on Experiential Learning Theory (ELT). However, little research explores the effectiveness and efficiency of different instructional design methodologies appropriate for simulations. The aim of this study was to compare 2 instructional design models, ELT and Guided Experiential Learning (GEL), to determine which is more effective for training the central venous catheterization procedure. Using a quasi-experimental randomized block design, nurse anesthetists completed training under 1 of the 2 instructional design models. Performance was assessed using a checklist of central venous catheterization performance, pass rates, and critical action errors. Participants in the GEL condition performed significantly better than those in the ELT condition on the overall checklist score after controlling for individual practice time (F[1, 29] = 4.021, P = .027, Cohen's d = .71), had higher pass rates (P = .006, Cohen's d = 1.15), and had lower rates of failure due to critical action errors (P = .038, Cohen's d = .81).\",\n \"Using current criteria, we doubt that the time and effort spent training novice PGY1 Surgical Residents on the basic LapSim training programs is justified, as such training to competence lacks predictive validity in most domains of the GOALS program. We are investigating 2 other approaches: more difficult training exercises using the LapSim system and an entirely different approach using haptic technology (ProMis; Haptica Ltd., Ireland), which uses real instruments, with training on realistic 3-dimensional models with real rather than simulated cutting, sewing, and dissection. Although experienced video gamers achieve competency faster than nongamers on LapSim programs, that skill set does not translate into improved clinical performance.\",\n \"To estimate the role of computer-CPED in the Netherlands to the year 2008. Computer-assisted learning is currently employed in many modern undergraduate dental curricula. It could also play an important role in providing continuing professional education in dentistry (CPED) to general dental practitioners. Computer-CPED offers teacher-independent and individualized interaction by distance learning. A simulation study was conducted. Entry data were either derived from publications or were estimated. The results indicate that the demand for CPED will exceed the supply by 2002.\",\n \"As computerized therapy is developed to address barriers to dissemination, future trials should examine the effectiveness of cCBT for anxiety for patients with more complex clinical presentations.\",\n \"yes. The educational intervention program significantly improved the knowledge and confidence of the participants in managing pediatric critical illnesses. The CISD program provides an inexpensive, practical, and time effective method of facilitating knowledge acquisition and retention. Despite the distinctively different approach, this study has shown the effectiveness of the participant being an observer to enhance pediatric resuscitation skills.\",\n \"The training program was effective in improving team members' communication skills and their self-efficacy to communicate in the context of an encounter with a simulated patient. Future study should assess the effect of this training program on communication with actual patients and their satisfaction. Moreover a cost-benefit analysis is needed, before implementing such an intensive training program on a broader scale.\",\n \"yes. A computer software for myocardial volume and infarct size determination cut the evaluation time by more than 50% compared with manual assessment, with maintained clinical accuracy.\",\n \"computer-aided learning (CAL) is increasingly used to deliver teaching, but few studies have evaluated its impact on learning within geriatric medicine. We developed and implemented CAL packages on falls and continence, and evaluated their effect on student performance in two medical schools. traditional ward based and didactic teaching was replaced by blended learning (CAL package combined with traditional teaching methods). Examination scores were compared for cohorts of medical students receiving traditional learning and those receiving blended learning. Control questions were included to provide data on cohort differences. in both medical schools, there was a trend towards improved scores following blended learning, with a smaller number of students achieving low scores (P < 0.01). Feedback from students about the CAL packages was positive.\",\n \"An interactive, case-based, on-line DV education program that teaches problem-solving skills improves physician confidence and beliefs in managing DV patients as effectively as an intensive classroom-based approach. Such programs may be of benefit to those seeking to improve their personal skills or their health care delivery system's response to DV.\",\n \"Students' motivation to participate is one of the main challenges in formative assessment. The utility framework identifies potential points of intervention for improving the acceptance of formative assessment [Van Der Vleuten C. 1996. The assessment of professional competence: Developments, research and practical implications. Adv Health Sci Educ 1(1):41-67]. At the Medical Faculty of the University of Cologne, the paper-based version of the Berlin Progress Test has been transformed into computer-based version providing immediate feedback.AIM: To investigate whether the introduction of computer-based assessment (CBA) enhances the acceptance of formative assessment relative to paper-based assessment (PBA). In a retrospective cohort study (PBA: N = 2597, CBA: N = 2712), students' overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment was surveyed, their comments were analyzed, and we analyzed their test behavior and categorized students into \\\"serious\\\" or \\\"non-serious\\\" test takers. In the preclinical phase of medical education, no differences were found in overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment (p > 0.05). In the clinical phase, differences in favor of CBA were found in overall acceptance (p < 0.05), the proportion of positive comments (p < 0.001), and the proportion of serious participants (p < 0.001).\",\n \"yes. We show that CEVL e-learning is an effective tool, which requires a minimal time investment, for teaching GUMS scoring. We believe that e-learning is a good platform to promote uniform clinical practices in outcomes research and for resident training.\",\n \"yes. The health challenges of the 21 century require that we rapidly train the clinical workforce in clinical informatics. In addition to buying hardware and software, our health systems need to sponsor this training. Two percent of every Health IT budget should be targeted for clinician education.\",\n \"A 7x90-minute interactive tutorial in PC for 5Y medical students is feasible and improves both self-efficacy and knowledge of core PC issues. Whether the effects of the course are long-lasting is the objective for further research.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that clinical background and understanding of the clinical value of a training program lead to faster acquisition and improvement of laparoscopic skills as performed on the laparoscopy simulator. Thus, medical students or other personnel not involved in practical surgery may be unsuitable as candidates for assessing the value of a VR training program.\",\n \"The effects of a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) tutorial program on learning clinical reasoning skills were compared in undergraduate dietetics students. A drill-and-practice program to control for time on task, and tutorial program, and a simulation program, as the test vehicle, were developed. The tutorial and simulation programs presented data on a patient with cardiovascular disease. Subjects were tested in 30 undergraduate dietetics programs. Participants were 413 undergraduate diet therapy students enrolled in a coordinated program in dietetics (CPD) or a didactic program in dietetics (DPD). After completion of lectures on cardiovascular disease, subjects were given the drill-and-practice program plus a simulation test (group 1), the tutorial plus a simulation test (group 2), or the simulation test only (group 3). Scores on the simulation test were compared. Variables included type of CAI, dietetics program, year in school, computer experience, and experience using a medical chart. Mastery of objectives related to lower- and higher-level clinical reasoning skills introduced in the tutorial program was computed. One-way analysis of variance and Student-Newman Keuls tests were conducted to determine any differences among the three groups. Reliability was determined using the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20. The reliability coefficient of the stimulation test was 0.93. Group 2 higher on the simulation test than group 1 or group 3. As a group, the CPD students scored higher than the DPD students. When CPD and DPD students were divided into the three experimental groups, there was no significant difference between the CPD and DPD student simulation scores. Group 2 mastered all objectives for lower-level reasoning skills and the higher-level decision-making objective better than groups 1 and 3.\",\n \"The present study compares the value of additional use of computer simulated heart sounds, to conventional bedside auscultation training, on the cardiac auscultation skills of 3rd year medical students at Oslo University Medical School. In addition to their usual curriculum courses, groups of seven students each were randomized to receive four hours of additional auscultation training either employing a computer simulator system or adding on more conventional bedside training. Cardiac auscultation skills were afterwards tested using live patients. Each student gave a written description of the auscultation findings in four selected patients, and was rewarded from 0-10 points for each patient. Differences between the two study groups were evaluated using student's t-test. At the auscultation test no significant difference in mean score was found between the students who had used additional computer based sound simulation compared to additional bedside training.\",\n \"Nursing students reported that the simulations were educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations as an alternative and potential replacement to elements of nursing clinical placements should be investigated further.\",\n \"yes. A cardiac auscultation curriculum consisting of deliberate practice with a computer-based tutorial and a cardiac patient simulator resulted in improved assessment of simulated heart sounds and more accurate examination of actual patients.\",\n \"Students viewed the simulations as being educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations to replace or supplement components of clinical fieldwork education should be investigated further.\",\n \"For the production of computer-based learning environments, a wide range of software solutions can be used which differ not only in their functionality but also vary in cost and ease to program. The aim of our study was to evaluate the overall efficiency and student's perception of two case-based e-learning programs that were produced with either an easy-to-use or a complex software. Eighty-five dental students were randomly assigned to one of two experimental groups. One group studied with a laborious, high-interactive e-learning program (complex-software group). The second group studied within a low-interactive learning environment (easy-software group) that was easy to be programmed. Both programs identically referred to a case report on localised aggressive periodontitis. Learning outcome was tested by a pre- and post-test. Furthermore, questionnaires on workload, motivation, perceived usefulness and perceived learning outcome were used. Learners in the easy-software group showed better results in the post-test F(1, 82) = 4.173, P<0.044). Even easy-to-use software tools have the potential to be beneficial in dental education. Students were showing a high acceptance and ability in using both e-learning environments.\",\n \"To explore whether a simulated critical care encounter can accelerate basic science learning among preclinical medical students. Using a high-fidelity patient simulator, we \\\"brought to life\\\" a paper case of a myocardial infarction among a convenience sample of first-year medical students (n=22 [intervention]). Students discussed the case as part of a routine tutorial session, and then managed the case in the simulator laboratory. Using an identical six-item test of cardiac physiology, students were evaluated immediately after the simulator session and at 1 year (n=15). Performance was compared with controls (case discussion but no simulator session) at both baseline (n=37) and 1 year (n=48). Performance among simulator-exposed students was significantly enhanced on immediate testing (mean score 4.0 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .005). Gains among the simulator cohort were maintained at 1 year (mean score 4.1 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .045). Multivariable analysis confirmed that the intervention was a significant determinant of performance across time (P = .001).\",\n \"yes. Computer-based learning has a potentially significant role in the development of a training syllabus for CE and in CE accreditation.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest that computerised teaching methods have significant potential to assist in learning for both Chinese and foreign medical undergraduates.\",\n \"Computers and other forms of information technology are increasingly used in medical education. We undertook a study to evaluate the place of the computer in the assessment of clinical skills of junior medical students. The history taking and physical examination skills of 136 third-year students were assessed in a series of structured and observed clinical stations and compared to their performance in similar computer-based problems. Students scored equally on the computer-based tasks and in the observed stations, but the weaker students who failed one or another component of the examination were more likely to pass at a clinical station and fail the computer task.\",\n \"yes. On the basis of our findings we feel computer based teaching and learning is as effective as typical lecture based teaching sessions for educating postgraduates in EBM and systematic reviews.\",\n \"The results confirm earlier studies in suggesting that the use of computer aided decision support improves diagnostic and decision making performance when dealing with patients suffering from acute abdominal pain. That use of the computer for teaching gave results at least as good as with its use for direct feedback may be highly relevant for those who are apprehensive about the real time use of diagnostic computers in a clinical setting.\",\n \"E-learning is playing an increasing role in medical education, supporting a problem-based and practical oriented education without putting patients at risk and compensating for the decrease in instructor-centered teaching. Not much research has been done concerning learning effects and reaction on behalf of the students. We created computer-based cases for four important diagnoses in urology using the authoring system CASUS®. Fourth-year medical school students were randomized into two groups: (1) the CASUS® group, using the online cases for preparation, and (2) the book group, using a textbook. A multiple-choice test referring to the prepared topic had to be completed at the beginning of each lecture and the results were analyzed. Evaluation of the students concerning the acceptance of the program was done at the end of the semester. Members of the CASUS® group scored significantly higher with an average of 20% better test results than students using textbooks for preparation. Evaluation regarding the program showed a highly positive rating. Limitations include the small study population and the possibly biased test performance of the students.\",\n \"yes. The GEL model of instructional design is significantly more effective than ELT for simulation-based learning of the central venous catheterization procedure, yielding large differences in effect size.\",\n \"yes. (1) In a beta test of web-based scenarios that teach and assess clinical decision-making, resident scores improved by 25% from PGY 1 to PGY5 in a stepwise and statistically significant manner, suggesting that such exercises could serve as milestones for competency assessment. Additional studies are needed to acquire evidence for other forms of validity. (2) Repetition of cases after feedback led to highly significant increases in performance, suggesting that requiring repeated training to reach defined levels of competence is practical.\",\n \"yes. A Web-based interactive educational program with minimal hospitalist involvement led to significant improvement in CE competence and was better than clinical training alone.\",\n \"yes. In this study, the learner-control instructional multimedia program was found to be as effective as the program-control version when teaching principles of the orthodontic appliances to undergraduate students. Future work should focus on how to improve the value of computer-assisted learning (CAL), and comparative evaluations are still needed of how different CAL approaches compare with or complement one another.\",\n \"yes. A novel, simulator-based curriculum that provides immediate feedback was effective in teaching both psychomotor and cognitive skills in FoCUS without need for direct expert oversight of the learner. The curriculum's components provide a useful tool that can be applied to improve, assess, and monitor physician skill in FoCUS.\",\n \"yes. The cardiac auscultation skills of a group of volunteer family physicians showed low initial scores that improved significantly after self-study with a CD-ROM instructional program. The program was a valuable self-instructional aid, and physicians used it as a resource in clinical practice. However, only 50% of the initial group completed the self-study and returned for final assessment. Providing more support and assistance in the initial phase, especially with computer use, may enable completion of similar computerized self-study programs.\",\n \"A software program was written which would allow students to study the anatomy and physiology of the liver and biliary tree in three different styles. Identical content was produced, matched for each style (problem-based, didactic and free text response) and students randomly allocated to one of four groups (three computer and one control). Students were tested before and after access to the program. Ninety second-year students completed the study. Those students who had access to the material in the problem-based and free text response styles did no better in the post-study test than the controls, whilst the group who had studied the didactically presented computer material performed significantly better than the other three groups. All three computer groups accessed the material on a similar number of occasions, but the group who had access to the free text entry program spent significantly less time on computer study.\",\n \"The integration of information technology into nursing education requires a dramatic change in thinking. The 'learning curve' is steep for both student and educator and there are many issues that need to be considered. This research does not aim to provide solutions to the issues highlighted but rather offers recommendations for enhancing the teaching and learning experience.\",\n \"It is feasible to design a software program to provide a standardized plotting format for ABPM, a basic analysis of data for day-to-day clinical work, or elaborate analyses for research, and an interpretative report to assist diagnosis and to provide an educational process for doctors and nurses not familiar with the technique.\",\n \"yes. A computer tutorial program enhanced clinical reasoning skills in undergraduate dietetics students. This type of program could be used to supplement many topics taught in diet therapy and provide DPD students with experimental learning before their clinical intern practicums.\",\n \"Computerized patient cases facilitate practice-oriented teaching and result in an interesting and engaging learning model with improved learning outcomes.\",\n \"Computerised learning clearly offers exciting potential for improving student learning, either as an aid to or as a replacement for traditional formats, or for the development of innovative approaches. However, rigorous evaluation of the utility of computer-aided learning (CAL) in enhancing student learning can be difficult. Many studies have compared CAL to more traditional learning formats, but there is little evidence to show which style of CAL leads to the best learning outcomes.AIM: This study aimed to test the hypothesis that a CAL tutorial, in which the learner actively interacts with the computer, will result in superior learning (ability to apply and retain knowledge) to that obtained in more passive CAL formats. Third year medical undergraduates at Adelaide University, South Australia were randomly assigned to 4 groups. Following a pretest, only students in the \\\"didactic\\\", \\\"problem-based\\\" and \\\"free text\\\" groups had 2 weeks of free access to a neuroradiology CAL tutorial in their assigned format. Tutorial access was denied to all students 2 weeks before post-testing. Learning was quantified by comparing the post- to pretest scores for each of the 4 groups. After active interaction with the computer material, students in the free text group demonstrated a statistically significant improvement in their ability to apply and retain knowledge compared to the control group, but no advantage compared to the didactic group.\",\n \"Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.\",\n \"yes. The very positive response to the e-program and improved test scores demonstrated the effectiveness of our e-course as a learning aid. Interactive modules in step with clinical practice provided learning that is not achieved by traditional teaching methods alone. To what extent staff savings are possible is part of a further study.\",\n \"yes. Game-based e-learning is more effective than a script-based approach for the training of urinalysis in regard to cognitive learning outcome and has a high positive motivational impact on learning. Game-based e-learning can be used as an effective teaching method for self-instruction.\",\n \"We have developed both a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) multimedia program and a textbook on arterial blood gas interpretation with the same content as formal didactic instruction. A prospective, randomized study was designed to compare the outcomes of self-learning using the software and using the textbook. 80 third-year medical students were randomly allocated to two groups: the CAI (n=40) and text group (n=40). A 30-item, type-K examination was administered as the pre-test. After the pre-test, the volunteers in the CAI group studied the software program, whereas those in the text group spent their time reading the textbook covering the same material. The post-test was held immediately at the end of a full day of study, and 3 weeks later, the final test was performed without prior notice. A P value of<0.05 was considered to be a statistically significant difference. Students in the text group seemed to fulfil their assignments and improved their scores post-test better than those in the CAI group. After 3 weeks, the final test scores of both groups demonstrated a significant decrease, but showed an insignificant difference between the two groups.\",\n \"This study has shown that computer-based clinical simulations can be constructed to supplement conventional assessment processes in clinical medicine and may have a role in increasing their reliability.\",\n \"When compared with more traditional instructional methods, Game-based e-learning (GbEl) promises a higher motivation of learners by presenting contents in an interactive, rule-based and competitive way. Most recent systematic reviews and meta-analysis of studies on Game-based learning and GbEl in the medical professions have shown limited effects of these instructional methods. To compare the effectiveness on the learning outcome of a Game-based e-learning (GbEl) instruction with a conventional script-based instruction in the teaching of phase contrast microscopy urinalysis under routine training conditions of undergraduate medical students. A randomized controlled trial was conducted with 145 medical students in their third year of training in the Department of Urology at the University Medical Center Freiburg, Germany. 82 subjects where allocated for training with an educational adventure-game (GbEl group) and 69 subjects for conventional training with a written script-based approach (script group). Learning outcome was measured with a 34 item single choice test. Students' attitudes were collected by a questionnaire regarding fun with the training, motivation to continue the training and self-assessment of acquired knowledge. The students in the GbEl group achieved significantly better results in the cognitive knowledge test than the students in the script group: the mean score was 28.6 for the GbEl group and 26.0 for the script group of a total of 34.0 points with a Cohen's d effect size of 0.71 (ITT analysis). Attitudes towards the recent learning experience were significantly more positive with GbEl. Students reported to have more fun while learning with the game when compared to the script-based approach.\",\n \"Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":253,"string":"253"}}},{"rowIdx":273162,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Can sonographic signs predict long-term results of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy.","This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance."],"string":"[\n \"To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy.\",\n \"This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["We investigated the association between the magnetic resonance cholangiography (MRC) results and surgical difficulties and bile duct injuries during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). MRC was performed on 695 consecutive patients before LC. We divided the patients into two groups (visible cystic duct group and \"no signal\" cystic duct on MRC group) and compared them with regard to the length of the operation, conversion rate to open cholecystectomy (OC) and rate of bile duct injury. The \"no signal\" cystic duct on MRC group had a longer operation and higher rate of conversion to OC compared with the visible cystic duct group. However, there was no statistically significant difference in the occurrence rate of bile duct injury between the two groups.","We sought to determine whether a reduced gallbladder ejection fraction, (GBEF) ascertained by cholecystokinin-cholescintigraphy (CCK-CS), predicts symptomatic improvement after cholecystectomy. Medical records of patients who had had CCK-CS as well as negative results of gallbladder ultrasonography were reviewed, and patients were contacted by telephone to determine whether they had benefited from cholecystectomy. There were 35 patients (33 female, 2 male) who had a decreased GBEF. Cholecystectomy was done in 30, of whom 20 (67%) had resolution of pain, 8 (27%) had partial improvement, and 2 (7%) had no change. The 5 who declined cholecystectomy included none (0%) who were pain free, 2 (40%) who had partial improvement, and 3 (60%) who had no change. The clinical outcome of the two groups was significantly different. There were 14 patients (10 female, 4 male) with a normal GBEF. The 2 patients who had cholecystectomy were asymptomatic. Of the 12 patients who did not have cholecystectomy, 9 (75%) were asymptomatic, 1 (8%) had some improvement, and 2 (17%) had no change.","Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the accepted treatment for symptomatic cholelithiasis. This study examines the effect LC has on quality of life (QOL) and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms and determines whether patients with symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) gain the same benefit as those without. A total of 158 patients who underwent LC for symptomatic gallstones were recruited to this prospective observational study. IBS Manning scores were calculated and QOL was measured using the Gastrointestinal Quality of Life Index (GIQLI) preoperatively, at 6 weeks, 3 months, and 2 years postoperatively. Linear regression analysis was used to identify preoperative symptoms that predict outcome. One hundred twelve patients had sufficient data sets for inclusion. Patient's GIQLI scores were calculated for the four time points in the study. The mean preoperative score was 88.8 ± 1.3 (61.7% of 144, the highest score possible) and improved 6 weeks after surgery to 105.5 ± 1.3 (p < 0.001). This improvement was maintained at 3 months, but at 2 years analysis showed regression toward the baseline of 7.6 ± 2.3 (p = 0.003) points. There was a negative correlation of -5.2 ± 1.29 (p < 0.001) points between each Manning symptom and QOL scores. The largest effect was seen in patients describing loose bowel movement with the onset of pain. Patients with this symptom had a -17.3 ± 4.6 (p < 0.001) lower global QOL score.","This study was designed to assess the satisfaction or otherwise of a proportion of the U.K. population who have undergone standard four-port laparoscopic cholecystectomy within the past 18 months. The results should indicate whether there is potential demand for a new, improved approach to surgery. Patients who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy between October 2008 and October 2009 in two geographically separated general hospitals were identified from hospital databases. Notes were reviewed to confirm the technique and lack of conversion to an open procedure. Those who had immediate complications were excluded. A telephone questionnaire was conducted to answer questions related to long-term cosmetic and general satisfaction of the current procedure. Of the patients surveyed, 93% were happy or extremely happy with the current procedure, 48% experienced some wound-related issues (pain, infection), and 65% of those were at the umbilicus (a possible reflection of location and retrieval site for gallbladder). Cosmesis was rated less important than hospital cleanliness and experience of the surgeon.","yes. An elevated ALT strongly supports a diagnosis of gallstones in AP. Abdominal ultrasound effectively confirms this diagnosis; however, a negative ultrasound in the presence of a raised ALT does not exclude gallstones. In some patients consideration could be given to proceeding to laparoscopic cholecystectomy based on ALT alone.","To determine the accuracy of routine gallbladder ultrasound in the detection of crystals in bile. Preoperative ultrasonography was performed in 40 patients undergoing elective cholecystectomy. Bile was aspirated at operation and examined microscopically for the presence and quantity of crystals. Six patients had echogenic bile, five of whom had large numbers of crystals at microscopy, and one only a few crystals. Thirty-four patients had hypoechoic bile, nine had large numbers of crystals and 25 of these had few or no crystals at microscopy. For those patients with echogenic bile (hyper- or isoechoic) the sensitivity for detection of large numbers of crystals was 5/14 (35.7%) with a specificity of 25/26 (96%). However, if the bile was hypoechoic the sensitivity was 9/14 (65%).","The purpose of our study was to determine, first, if gallbladder wall striations in patients with sonographic findings suspicious for acute cholecystitis are associated with gangrenous changes and certain histologic features; and, second, if WBC count or other sonographic findings are associated with gangrenous cholecystitis. Sixty-eight patients who underwent cholecystectomies within 48 hours of sonography comprised the study group. Sonograms and reports were reviewed for wall thickness, striations, Murphy sign, pericholecystic fluid, wall irregularity, intraluminal membranes, and luminal short-axis diameter. Medical records were reviewed for WBC count and pathology reports for the diagnosis. Histologic specimens were reviewed for pathologic changes. Statistical analyses tested for associations between nongangrenous and gangrenous cholecystitis and sonographic findings and for associations between wall striations and histologic features. Ten patients had gangrenous cholecystitis and 57, nongangrenous cholecystitis. One had cholesterolosis. Thirty patients had wall striations: 60% had gangrenous and 42% nongangrenous cholecystitis. There was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.32). There was no association between any histologic feature and wall striations (p ≥ 0.19). A Murphy sign was reported in 70% of patients with gangrenous cholecystitis and in 82% with nongangrenous cholecystitis; there was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.39). Wall thickness and WBC count were greater in patients with gangrenous cholecystitis than in those with nongangrenous cholecystitis (p ≤ 0.04).","There is minimal data on the outcome of early laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) for acute gallbladder disease when performed by trainees. This study assesses the outcomes of a policy of same admission LC incorporated into a surgical training programme in a major teaching hospital. 447 index LCs performed over a 3-year period were reviewed retrospectively. The indications, operating surgeon, operating time, use of IOC, conversion rates, reasons for conversion and post-operative stay were analysed. Multivariate analysis of reasons for conversion was performed. 150 LCs were performed by consultants and 297 by registrars; 67 were performed by year 1-3 specialist registrars (SpR) and 230 by year 4-6 SpRs. The indications were biliary colic (n=7), acute cholecystitis (n=180), chronic cholecystitis (n=260), carcinoma (n=1). No difference was found in demographics, operating time (105 min Vs 115 min), use of IOC (34% Vs 29%; P=0.2) and post-operative stay (2 days Vs 1 day) between consultants and registrars. The conversion rates were higher for consultants compared to registrars (29 (19%) Vs 28 (9%), P=0.004). The overall conversion rate was 11%. There were no bile duct injuries. Predictors for conversion were CRP>50 at admission and acute cholecystitis.","Endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) is indicated in patients with confirmed bile duct stones at endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The role of ES in patients with suspected bile duct stones but a normal cholangiogram, in the prevention of recurrent biliary symptoms, when cholecystectomy is not planned, is unclear.AIM: To determine if prophylactic ES prevents further biliary problems in such patients. Patients were identified with gallbladder stones presenting with jaundice, abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) or dilated bile ducts on ultrasound, in whom cholecystectomy was not planned and who had a normal cholangiogram at ERCP. Patients were followed-up to determine the frequency of recurrent biliary problems or repeat investigations. Forty-one patients were included, of whom 20 had an ES. The frequency of pre-ERCP features did not differ between the two groups. Median follow-up was 32 months (range 15-66). Post-ERCP recurrent abdominal pain (5 vs 3; p=0.39), jaundice (3 vs 1; p=0.28), pancreatitis (0 vs 1; p=0.32), and repeat ultrasound (2 vs 1; p=0.52), ERCP (1 vs 1; p=0.97) or cholecystectomy (2 vs 3, p=0.82) did not differ between the two groups.","We investigated routinely the bile ducts by magnetic resonance cholangiopancreaticography (MRCP) prior to cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to analyze the rate of clinically inapparent common bile duct (CBD) stones, the predictive value of elevated liver enzymes for CBD stones, and the influence of the radiological results on the perioperative management. In this prospective study, 465 patients were cholecystectomized within 18 months, mainly laparoscopically. Preoperative MRCP was performed in 454 patients. With MRCP screening, clinically silent CBD stones were found in 4%. Elevated liver enzymes have only a poor predictive value for the presence of CBD stones (positive predictive value, 21%; negative predictive value, 96%). Compared to the recent literature, the postoperative morbidity in this study was low (0 bile duct injury, 0.4% residual gallstones).","When performing cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we often encounter problems, such as adhesions, nutritional insufficiency, and bowel reconstruction. The purpose of this study was to identify the factors related to surgical outcome of these associated procedures, with emphasis on the use of a laparoscopic approach. We retrospectively analyzed data from 58 patients who had a history of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy. Differences between subgroups with respect to operation time, length of postoperative hospital stay, and complications were analyzed. To identify the factors related with outcomes of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we performed multivariable analysis with the following variables: common bile duct (CBD) exploration, laparoscopic surgery, gender, acute cholecystitis, history of stomach cancer, age, body mass index, period of surgery, and interval between cholecystectomy and gastrectomy. We found one case (2.9%) of open conversion. The CBD exploration was the most significant independent factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR), 45.15; 95% confidence interval (CI), 4.53-450.55) related to longer operation time. Acute cholecystitis also was a significant independent factor (adjusted OR, 14.66; 95% CI, 1.46-147.4). The laparoscopic approach was not related to operation time but was related to a shorter hospital stay (adjusted OR, 0.057; 95% CI, 0.004-0.74). Acute cholecystitis was independently related to the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 27.68; 95% CI, 1.15-666.24); however, CBD exploration and laparoscopic surgery were not. A lower BMI also was an independent predictor of the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 0.41; 95% CI, 0.2-0.87).","Iatrogenic bile duct injury is a serious complication of cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to assess predictors of bile duct injury using a national database. The Nationwide Inpatient Sample (2010-2012) was queried for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. We used a) diagnoses for bile duct injury and b) bile duct injury repair procedure codes as a surrogate marker for bile duct injuries. A total of 1,015 patients had bile duct injury. The mean age was 58.2 ± 19.7 years, 53.5 % were males, and median Charlson co-morbidity score was 2 [2, 3]. Multivariate analysis revealed morbid obesity [2.8 (2.1-4.3); p = 0.03] and age >65 [1.5 (1.05-2.1); p = 0.01] as the independent predictors for bile duct injury in patients undergoing cholecystectomy.","The purpose of this study was to evaluate the natural history of patients undergoing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP) with known asymptomatic cholelithiasis in whom prophylactic cholecystectomy was not performed at the time of surgery. The records of 144 consecutive patients from a single year experience in RYGBP surgery at the University of California, Davis Medical Center were reviewed. Patients undergoing RYGBP were routinely screened for cholelithiasis by ultrasound. Patients who did not have cholecystectomy were managed with ursodiol for 6 months postoperatively. 13 males (9.0%) and 131 females (91%) underwent RYGBP. The mean age was 43 years (SD 8.55), and mean BMI was 46 kg/m2 (SD 6.5). The comorbidities of our patient population included diabetes (14%), hypertension (48%), gastroesophageal reflux disease (50%), dyslipidemia (35%), obstructive sleep apnea (31%), and musculoskeletal complaints (69%). 22 patients were diagnosed with cholelithiasis by ultrasonography preoperatively. 9 of these patients (41%) were symptomatic and underwent concurrent cholecystectomy and RYGBP. The remaining 13 patients (59%) had asymptomatic cholelithiasis preoperatively but did not undergo cholecystectomy at the time of surgery. Only one of these asymptomatic patients eventually developed symptoms necessitating cholecystectomy at up to 1 year follow-up.","Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a safe modality of treatment for acute cholecystitis. Factors associated with increased conversion rate are thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasonography and delay in surgery for more than 48 hours from the onset of symptoms.","In standard laparoscopic cholecystectomy the umbilical incision frequently requires secondary enlargement, especially if a large stone mass is involved. Therefore, the cosmetic result after laparoscopic cholecystectomy depends on more than only the technique used for access and the surgical technique for cholecystectomy should be chosen individually for each patient according to the stone mass.","Laparoscopic common bile duct exploration (LCBDE) is more expensive and time consuming than its conventional counterpart. Therefore, it should only be performed when there is near certainty that stones are present. The purpose of this study was to identify patients who should be spared LCBDE despite an abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram. Of 700 consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomies performed between 1989 and 1994 by a single surgeon (R.J.F.), 41 had abnormal intraoperative cholangiograms (6%). All 41 patients were treated by either immediate CBDE (19) (conventional or laparoscopic) or had postoperative follow-up cholangiograms (22). The patients were retrospectively assigned to one of three groups. Group I patients had a single \"soft\" indicator of choledocholithiasis. Group II patients had one or more of the following: (1) a highly suspicious abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram, (2) two or more \"soft\" indicators of choledocholithiasis, or (3) preoperative clinical findings such as elevated liver function studies or positive preoperative radiological studies. Group III patients had proven choledocholithiasis. In group I, there were 11 patients, none of whom underwent immediate CBDE. Eight of the 11 (73%) had normal follow-up cholangiograms due to either spontaneous stone passage or a false-positive intraoperative cholangiogram. There were 27 patients in group II; 19 underwent immediate CBDE with 100% stone recovery. The remaining 8 had delayed treatment and in five stones were recovered, while three had normal postoperative cholangiograms suggesting spontaneous stone passage. In group III, all three had negative follow-up cholangiograms despite proven choledocholithiasis. Spontaneous stone passage in this group seemed highly likely.","We aimed to compare laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) and simultaneous laparoscopic transcystic common bile duct exploration (LTCBDE) using an ultrathin choledochoscope with LC followed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERC) and endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) when indicated. We retrospectively reviewed the records of patients seen between 2004 and 2014 and treated with LC+LTCBDE or LC for gallstones and suspected choledocholithiasis. Postoperative complications and surgical outcomes were compared using t-test, Mann-Whitney U test, or chi-square test. 115 patients underwent successful LC+LTCBDE and 112 LC; follow-up data was available for 103 and 106 patients, respectively. Seventeen patients (16.5%) in the LC+LTCBDE group and 10 (28.6%) in the LC+ERC+ES group developed complications (P = 0.114). The LC+LTCBDE group had a significantly higher rate of satisfactory biliary function outcomes than the LC+ERC+ES group (98.1% vs. 85.7%, respectively) (P = 0.017).","Acute cholecystitis is a common diagnosis and surgery is the standard of care for young and fit patients. However, due to high risk of postoperative morbidity and mortality, surgical management of critically ill patients remains a controversy. It is not clear, whether the increased risk of perioperative complications associated with the management of critically ill patients with acute cholecystitis is secondary to reduced physiologic reserve per se or to the severity of gallbladder inflammation. A retrospective analysis of prospectively collected data of patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis in a university hospital over a three-year-period was performed. The ASA scores at the time of presentation were used to categorize patients into two groups. The study group consisted of critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group was made up of fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were compared with regard to perioperative data, postoperative outcome and extent of gallbladder inflammation on histopathology. Two hundred and seventeen cases of acute cholecystitis with complete charts were available for analysis. The study group included 67 critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group included 150 fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were comparable with regard to perioperative data. Histopathology confirmed severe cholecystitis in a significant number of cases in the study group compared to the control group (37 % vs. 18 %, p = 0.03). Significantly higher rates of morbidity and mortality were recorded in the study group (p < 0.05). Equally, significantly more patients from the study group were managed in the ICU (40 % vs. 8 %, p = 0.001).","To evaluate the effect of cholecystectomy in patients with gallstones on preoperative abdominal symptoms. A systematic search was made of the Medline database in combination with reference checking. Articles were excluded if patients aged<18 years, symptom relief rates could not be calculated, if follow-up after cholecystectomy was less than 1 month, or when the included patients were at extraordinary risk for a complicated outcome. Potential differences in relief rates due to patient selection, retrospective versus prospective design, duration of follow-up, or intervention were analyzed using logistic regression. The pooled relief rate for \"biliary pain\" was high 92% (95% confidence interval 86 to 96%). Symptom relief rates were consistently higher in studies that included acute cholecystectomies. For upper abdominal pain--without restrictions for intensity or duration--pooled relief rates ranged from 72% (66 to 77%) after elective cholecystectomy, to 86% (83 to 91%) after acute cholecystectomy. The relief rate of food intolerance was higher in studies with a follow-up2 yr before) episodes of biliary pain, and 61 were asymptomatic (GSa). At baseline, GSr showed a greater %E and a smaller RV than both GSo and GSa (p<0.001). After follow-up, biliary pain developed more frequently in GSr (33.3%) than in GSo (16%) and GSa (15%) (p= 0.04). The search for predictive factors of biliary pain development (by univariate and multivariate analyses) revealed a high %E, a small RV, and a history of biliary pain as risk factors.","yes. Negative preoperative ultrasonography with specific lymph node evaluation predicts a low risk of needing early reoperation. Positive preoperative ultrasonography may be a marker for more aggressive disease and the best predictor of the need for additional surgery in the future.","The incidence of recurrence of cancer in the abdominal wall was increased, but the medium-term prognosis was not worsened by laparoscopy. It does not appear necessary to exclude patients with cholecystitis or gallbladder wall hypertrophy from undergoing laparoscopic procedures on the grounds that they might have gallbladder cancer.","To evaluate long-term effects of cholecystectomy on typical gallstone symptoms and associated digestive syndrome. Clinical prospective study on selected patients. First Surgical Clinic--Catania University. 143 gallstone patients, divided in highly symptomatic Group 1 (79) and mild symptomatic Group 2 (64), who underwent cholecystectomy during period 1991/92. 125/143 patients compiled a set questionnaire to detect any subjective postoperative disorders and to evaluate whether they were similar to preoperative symptoms or were new ones. 125/143 patients completed the 12-month follow-up programme, which revealed a 30% (38/125) with postcholecystectomy symptoms and 13.4% (17) with a postcholecystectomy syndrome. Moreover, 10% (13) of the patients reported the same digestive symptoms as before treatment. Statistical analysis confirmed that cholecystectomy was efficacious in curing gallstone related symptoms and digestive disorders in both Groups with a general improvement in clinical picture (p>0.01). No significant statistical difference in the incidence of postcholecystectomy dyspeptic symptoms was found between the 2 Groups.","yes. Preoperative CGA may predict postoperative complications and prolonged postoperative hospital stay of elderly patients who undergo elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Larger-scale studies independently assessing this association are warranted.","The purpose of the present study was to determine the clinical characteristics of subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis compared with those with gallbladder polyps only. Between August 1999 and December 2005, 176 subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis (study group) by transabdominal ultrasonography performed during a medical check-up at our institution were recruited and compared with a control group of 185 subjects who had gallbladder polyps only. No significant difference in the mean interval change (delta) of polyp size during the follow-up period between the study and control groups (0.85 +/- 1.39 mm vs 0.84 +/- 1.58 mm, respectively, P = 0.927) was noted. A significantly higher proportion (9/176 [5.1%]) of examinees in the study group had attacks of acute cholecystitis compared with the control group (1/185 [0.5%], P<0.01). By multivariate logistic regression analysis, gallbladder wall thickening on initial ultrasonography (odds ratio, 13.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.1-178.0; P = 0.046) and the interval increase in the size of the gallbladder polyps (odds ratio, 14.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.7-126.9; P = 0.014) were independent risk factors for cholecystectomy. No gallbladder cancer occurred during the follow-up period.","Laparoscopic cholecystectomies can be performed at night in high-volume acute care hospitals. We hypothesized that nonelective nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomies are associated with increased postoperative complications. We conducted a single-center retrospective review of consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients between October 2010 and May 2011 at a safety-net hospital in Houston, Texas. Data were collected on demographics, operative time, time of incision, length of stay, 30-day postoperative complications (ie, bile leak/biloma, common bile duct injury, retained stone, superficial surgical site infection, organ space abscess, and bleeding) and death. Statistical analyses were performed using STATA software (version 12; Stata Corp). During 8 months, 356 patients had nonelective laparoscopic cholecystectomies. A majority were female (n = 289 [81.1%]) and Hispanic (n = 299 [84%]). There were 108 (30%) nighttime operations. There were 29 complications in 18 patients; there were fewer daytime than nighttime patients who had at least 1 complication (4.0% vs 7.4%; p = 0.18). On multivariate analysis, age (odds ratio = 1.06 per year; 95% CI, 1.02-1.10; p = 0.002), case duration (odds ratio = 1.02 per minute; 95% CI, 1.01-1.02; p = 0.001), and nighttime surgery (odds ratio = 3.33; 95% CI, 1.14-9.74; p = 0.001) were associated with an increased risk of 30-day surgical complications. Length of stay was significantly longer for daytime than nighttime patients (median 3 vs 2 days; p<0.001).","Major bile duct injury (MBDI) remains frequent after laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) reaching 0.3 to 0.6 % and is associated with a significant mortality rate. The aim of this study was to retrospectively analyze the factors likely to influence the long-term results of surgical repair for MBDI occurring after LC. Medical records of patients referred to our referral center from January 1992 to January 2010 for management of bile duct injury following LC were retrospectively analyzed, and patients with MBDI were identified. Clinicopathological factors likely to influence long-term results after surgical repair were assessed by univariate and multivariable analysis. During the study period, 38 patients were treated for MBDI. These 38 patients underwent Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) or HJ revision in 25 (66 %) and 13 (34 %) cases, respectively. The median follow-up period was 93 (26-204) months. A Clavien-Dindo post-operative morbidity class >3 occurred in 10 (26 %) cases and was independently associated with a surgical repair performed during a sepsis period (OR = 102.5; IC 95 % [7.12; 11,352], p < 0.007). Long-term results showed that biliary strictures occurred in 5 (13 %) cases and were associated with sepsis (p < 0.006), liver cirrhosis (p < 0.002) and post-operative complications (p < 0.012). Multivariate analysis revealed that only liver cirrhosis remained predictive of stricture (OR = 26.4, 95 % CI [2; 1,018], p < 0.026).","Ultrasonography is able to accurately show gallbladder stones; the appearance of multiple small and variably sized gallbladder stones represent a risk factor for synchronous asymptomatic common bile duct stones.","In a population-based study, we examined recurrence rates of acute pancreatitis (AP) after cholecystectomy performed to prevent recurrences of AP. We abstracted data from medical records of all Olmsted county residents who underwent cholecystectomy at Mayo Clinic for the management of presumed gallstone or idiopathic AP between 1990 and 2005 (n = 239). Based on (i) significantly elevated liver enzymes (≥threefold increase of alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase) on day 1 and (ii) the presence of gallstones/sludge in the gall bladder, we categorized patients into 4 groups: A (i + ii), B (i but not ii), C (ii but not i), and D (neither i nor ii). Recurrence rates of AP after cholecystectomy were determined in all groups. The median follow-up after cholecystectomy was 99 months (range, 8-220). AP recurred in 13 of 142 patients (9%) in group A, 1 of 17 patients (6%) in group B, 13 of 57 patients (23%) in group C, and 14 of 23 patients (61%) in group D (P < .0001 D vs. all other groups and P = .001 C vs. groups A and B). No difference was seen in recurrence rates in groups A vs. B (P = 1.0). Recurrences were more frequent in patients with normal liver enzymes (A + B vs. C + D; P = .000003) and in patients without sonographic evidence of gallstones/sludge (A + C vs. B + D; P = .0008).","Patient and hospital demographics do affect the outcomes of patients undergoing inpatient cholecystectomy. Although male gender, African American race, Medicare-insured status, and large, urban hospitals are associated with less favorable cholecystectomy outcomes, only increased age predicts increased morbidity, whereas female gender, laparoscopy, and cholangiogram are protective. Increased age, complications, and emergency surgery predict mortality, with laparoscopy and intraoperative cholangiogram having protective effects.","Preoperative ultrasonography (US) prior to laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (LRYGBP) aimed to find possible gallstones. The aim of this study was to evaluate the reliability of the US in evaluating the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. One hundred LRYGBP and LSG were performed in our new bariatric surgery unit by two surgeons. All patients underwent preoperative US to evaluate the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. A consultant radiologist reviewed the US findings, which were then compared to the intraoperative findings. The mean preoperative body mass index was 49. All patients had co-morbidities. The intraoperative evaluation showed an enlarged left lobe of the liver in 23 patients, whereas the US found enlargement only in eight patients, but revealed eight false positives. In the intraoperative evaluation, fatty liver was observed in five patients, only four of whom were shown in the US, but US revealed 77 false positives. In evaluating the size of the left lobe, US had 35% sensitivity, 90% specificity, 65% false negative rate (FNR) and 10% false positive rate (FPR). In evaluating the consistency, US had 80% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 20% FNR and 82% FPR.","Extraction of a gallbladder through an endoscopic overtube during natural orifice translumenal endoscopic surgery (NOTES) transgastric cholecystectomy avoids potential injury to the esophagus. This study examined the rate of successful gallbladder specimen extraction through an overtube and hypothesized that preoperative ultrasound findings could predict successful specimen passage. Gallbladder specimens from patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy were measured, and an attempt was made to pull the specimens through a commercially available overtube with an inner diameter of 16.7-mm. A radiologist blinded to the outcomes reviewed the available preoperative ultrasound measurements from these patients. Ultrasound dimensions including gallbladder length, width, and depth; wall thickness; common bile duct diameter; and size of the largest gallstone (LGS) were recorded. Multiple logistic regression analysis was performed to determine whether ultrasound findings and patient characteristics (age, body mass index [BMI], and sex) could predict the ability of a specimen to pass through the overtube. Of 57 patients, 44 (77%) who had preoperative ultrasounds available for electronic review were included in the final analysis. Gallstones were present in 35 (79%) of these 44 patients. Intraoperative gallbladder perforation occurred in 18 (41%) of the 44 patients, and 16 (36%) of the 44 gallbladders could be extracted through the overtube. Measurement of LGS was possible for 23 patients, and indeterminate gallstone size (IGS) was determined for 12 patients. The rate for passage of perforated versus intact gallbladders was similar (40% vs. 23%; p = 0.054). The LGS (odds ratio [OR], 1.17; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.02-1.33; p = 0.021) and IGS (OR, 22.97; 95% CI, 1.99-265.63; p = 0.025) predicted failed passage on multivariate logistic regression analysis. The passage rate was 80% for LGS smaller than 10 mm or no stones present, 18% for LGS 10 mm or larger, and 8% for IGS (p < 0.001).","Laparoscopy is thought to worsen the prognosis of gallbladder cancer (GBC) discovered unexpectedly at laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). However, laproscopy has never been shown to have an influence on patient survival in clinical series. We Performed a two-center retrospective analysis of 28 patients with GBC (11 previously known, 17 unexpectedly discovered by LC) to determine whether laparoscopy and complications related to LC had any influence on the prognosis of GBC. Resectability for cure after LC, survival, and recurrence related to both the procedure itself and complications associated with LC were analyzed. Of the 17 patients with unexpected GBC, 16 were considered resectable for cure at the time of LC. Advanced disease was detected in eight patients by re staging (n = 5) or exploration (n = 3). Seven patients (43.8%) underwent reoperation for cure. Mean survival of patients with unexpected GBC was 26.5 months. Mean survival was shorter when complications (bile spillage, injury of common bile duct, or tumor violation) occurred during LC (10.2 vs 33 months, p = 0.016). If bile spillage was the only complication at LC, there was also a trend to shorter survival (12 vs 33 months, p = 0.061).","We formulated a clinical pathway (CP) for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC), which included the following preoperative evaluation: history and physical (H&P), right upper quadrant ultrasound (US), and liver function tests (LFTs). We hypothesized that routine LFTs did not alter management beyond that dictated by H&P and US, and could be excluded from the CP. The study involved 387 consecutive patients undergoing elective LC. Abnormalities in the preoperative evaluation were compared with the finding of choledocholithiasis or other unexpected outcomes. In 187 (48%) patients, abnormalities were found by H&P (n = 7), US (n = 13), and LFTs (n = 177). Seven patients (2%) had documented choledocholithiasis; two had abnormal H & P; three had abnormal US; and four had abnormal LFTs. No patient with choledocholithiasis had abnormal LFTs but normal H&P and US.","This is the evaluation of the feasibility and results of routine laparoscopic intraoperative cholangiography. A multicentric prospective study in 315 consecutive patients undergoing elective or urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The success rate was 94%. Mean duration of intraoperative cholangiography was 12 min. Sixteen of 18 failures were related to a narrow cystic duct. One cystic duct avulsion (ligated under laparoscopy) and 2 false positive cholangiograms (1 transcystic exploration, 1 conversion) were noted. Intraoperative cholangiography revealed aberrant bile ducts possibly at risk to injury from dissection in four patients (1.3 per cent). Intraoperative cholangiography disclosed unsuspected stones in 10 patients (4%). Forty-five patients had a preoperative suspicion of choledocholithiasis: choledocholithiasis were found at intraoperative cholangiography in 3 of 13 patients who had preoperative endoscopic sphincterotomy for stone extraction, in 1 of 11 patients with normal preoperative endoscopic cholangiography, and in 11 of 21 patients undergoing surgery alone (57%).","Obesity has historically been a positive predictor of surgical morbidity, especially in the morbidly obese. The purpose of our study was to compare outcomes of obese patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). We reviewed 1382 consecutive patients retrospectively who underwent LC for various pathologies from January 2008 to August 2011. Patients were stratified based on the World Health Organization definitions of obesity: nonobese (body mass index [BMI] < 30 kg/m(2)), obesity class I (BMI 30-34.9 kg/m(2)), obesity class II (BMI 35-39.9 kg/m(2)), and obesity class III (BMI ≥ 40 kg/m(2)). The primary end points were conversion rates and surgical morbidity. The secondary end point was length of stay. There were significantly more females in the obesity II and III groups (P = 0.0002). American Society of Anesthesiologists scores were significantly higher in the obesity I, II, and III groups compared with the nonobese (P < 0.05; P < 0.01; and P < 0.0001, respectively). Independent predictors of conversion on multivariate analysis (MVA) included age (P = 0.01), acute cholecystitis (P = 0.03), operative time (P < 0.0001), blood loss (P < 0.0001), and fellowship-trained surgeons (P < 0.0001). Independent predictors of intraoperative complications on MVA included age (P = 0.009), white patients (P = 0.009), previous surgery (P = 0.001), operative time (P < 0.0001), and blood loss (P = 0.01). Independent predictors of postoperative complications on MVA included American Society of Anesthesiologists score (P < 0.0001), acute cholecystitis (P < 0.0001), and a postoperative complication (P < 0.0001). BMI was not a predictor of conversions or surgical morbidity. Length of stay was not significantly different between the four groups.","This study investigated whether failure to identify common bile duct stones at laparoscopic cholecystectomy results in significant postoperative complications related to retained stones. We performed a retrospective analysis of the case notes of 377 consecutive patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy without routine operative cholangiography under a single surgeon in a district general hospital between 1995 and 1999. Highly selective preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was employed to identify and manage suspected bile duct stones in pancreatitis, jaundice, persistently elevated liver function tests, or a dilated common bile duct. Eighteen (4.8%) of 377 patients presented postoperatively with symptoms/signs suggesting biliary pathology. Two (0.5%) were confirmed to have retained duct stones/debris (ultrasound/ERCP); both recovered with conservative treatment. Only 1 patient of 274 (0.4%) without preoperative ERCP subsequently presented with a symptomatic retained stone, the other having been stented preoperatively.","yes. When AP is associated with significantly elevated liver enzymes on day 1, recurrence rates after cholecystectomy are low (9%). However, postcholecystectomy recurrence rates of AP are high in those without such laboratory abnormalities (34%), especially in those without gall bladder stones/sludge (61%) on abdominal ultrasonography. Our results raise doubts about the efficacy of cholecystectomy to prevent recurrent AP in patients with the absence of either a significant elevation of liver tests on day 1 of AP or gallstones and/or sludge in the gall bladder on initial ultrasound examination.","Detection of gall-bladder polyp on ultrasound examination is an indication for cholecystectomy, in particular when the polyp diameter exceeds 10 mm. In each case of a polyp, cholecystolithiasis should also be taken into account and the presence (or absence) of indications for cholecystectomy should be discussed with the patient.","We tested the hypothesis that the treatment of patients with acute cholecystitis (AC) would be improved under the care of laparoscopic specialists. The records of patients undergoing cholecystectomy for AC from 1 January 1996 to 31 December 1998 were reviewed retrospectively. Of 170 patients, 48 were cared for by three laparoscopic specialists (LS group), whereas 122 were treated by nine general surgeons who perform only laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) (GS group). The rates of successful LC, complications, and length of hospital stay were compared. Multivariate analysis was used to control for baseline differences. The patients in the GS group were older (median age, 63 vs 53 years; p = 0.01). In all, 31 LS patients (65%), as compared with 44 GS patients (36%), had successful laparoscopic treatment (p = 0.001). The operating time was the same (median, 70 min). The proportion of patients with postoperative complications was similar in the two groups (37% in the GS vs 31% in the LS group; p = 0.6). The median postoperative hospital stay (3 vs 5 days; p<0.01) was shorter in the LS group. On logistic regression analysis, significant predictors of a successful laparoscopic operation included LS group (p<0.01) and age (p = 0). Predictors of prolonged length of hospital stay were age (p<0.01) and comorbidity score (p<0.01), with LS group status not a significant factor (p = 0.21).","To determine the cause of a marked rise in cholecystectomy at a regional children's hospital. Retrospective review of 185 patients undergoing cholecystectomy since 1984. The years 1984 to 1990 (group I) and 1991 to 1996 (group II) were compared. Cholecystectomy for gallbladder disease increased from 4.4/year (group I) to 16.3/ year (group II). Abdominal ultrasound examinations increased during this time. The ratio of children diagnosed with gallstones and then undergoing cholecystectomy also increased (P = 0.005). In group 11, 43% of children had no apparent etiology for gallstones, and more children developed complications of gallstones and evidence of choledocholithiasis.","yes. Additional surgical procedure was identified as a strong risk factor for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Furthermore, operation time >60 min, age >55 years, conversion to open procedure, cystic stump insufficiency, postoperative hematoma, gallbladder perforation, gallbladder empyema, or surgical revision were identified as specific risk factors for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy.","This prospective study of the use of EUS to prevent unnecessary endoscopic retrograde cholangiography in patients with suspected choledocholithiasis has two aims: to evaluate the effectiveness, based on patient outcome, and the potential clinical and economic benefits of EUS. A prospective series of 485 patients (202 men, 283 women; mean age 66.2 years, range 20-94 years) suspected to have choledocholithiasis based on clinical, biochemical, and cross-sectional imaging (US or CT) data underwent EUS. Positive EUS findings were confirmed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiography with sphincterotomy and/or by surgery; negative findings were confirmed by clinical follow-up. An EUS result was considered a true negative if the patient was confirmed symptom-free with normal tests on follow-up of at least 6 months. The costs of EUS (procedure, days of hospitalization, any morbidity) were compared with the estimated costs of the endoscopic retrograde cholangiography avoided in patients with true-negative EUS findings. EUS findings were verified in 463 patients: EUS diagnosed choledocholithiasis in 239 (51.6%) and the absence of stones in 220 patients. In 4 patients (0.8%), EUS was incomplete. By sphincterotomy (209 patients), surgical bile duct exploration (39), percutaneous cholangiography (1 case in which EUS demonstrated a bile duct tumor), and follow-up (214), EUS diagnoses were confirmed as follows: 237 true-positive, 216 true-negative, 2 false-positive, 4 false-negative, 4 incomplete (sensitivity 98%, specificity 99%, positive predictive value 99%, negative predictive value 98%, accuracy 97%). In 214 (46%) patients, more invasive investigations of the bile duct were avoided. The mean cost for patients managed by the EUS-based strategy was ' 374.50 (-284.72), which was significantly less than the theoretical mean cost of ' 443.80 (p<0.001) for patients undergoing endoscopic retrograde cholangiography.","yes. This study suggests that simple linear measures taken on a CT scan, such as sagittal abdominal diameter, sagittal internal diameter and abdominal perimeter, may predict longer operative time in laparoscopic left colonic resections more accurately than BMI.","Symptomatic gallstone disease is considered an indication for cholecystectomy. A considerable proportion of patients may experience persistent symptoms after surgery. The purpose of the present study was to find out the rate of symptom persistence after elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) performed for symptomatic uncomplicated gallstone disease and, in particular, to clarify whether the recurrence rate differs according to the severity of preoperative symptoms. During a 10-year period (1992-2001), 1,101 patients underwent elective LC at Turku City Hospital for Surgery. A questionnaire concerning the intensity of preoperative symptoms, persistence of symptoms postoperatively, and overall satisfaction with the outcome of the procedure was sent to patients. A total of 677 patients [mean age (range) 59 (21-94) years; 554 (83.1%) females] with uncomplicated gallstone disease returned the completed form. Overall, 380 (57%) patients reported attacks of intense upper abdominal pain, and 287 (43%) reported episodic mild abdominal symptoms as the prevailing preoperative symptom. Two hundred and forty-eight (37%) patients continued to have abdominal symptoms after the operation. Among those with predominantly mild abdominal symptoms preoperatively, 119 (41%) reported the persistence of symptoms after the operation, while in the group with mainly severe upper abdominal pain attacks, 129 (33%) patients had recurrences (p = 0.052).","Several reports claim that there is a risk that laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) might worsen the prognosis of unsuspected gallbladder cancer. Several factors rather than LC could influence prognosis. A retrospective clinicopathologic study was performed on 20 patients, 9 patients (3 men and 6 women, aged from 36 to 75 years [mean age, 62.3 years]) undergoing LC and 11 patients (2 men and 9 women, aged from 53 to 91 years [mean age, 65.3 years]) undergoing open cholecystectomy (OC), with postoperatively diagnosed gallbladder cancer. The correlation was evaluated between cumulative survival rates and the following 7 prognostic factors: age, sex, histopathological grade, pathologic stage, occurrence of bile spillage, type of cholecystectomy (LC or OC), and additional surgical treatments. Seven patients (87%) after LC and 9 patients (82%) after OC had cancer recurrence: the difference is of no statistical significance (P =.9). There were no recurrences of cancer in the abdominal wall after either LC or OC. Survival rate was statistically correlated to tumor stage (P =.007) and to the occurrence of bile spillage (P =.002). Survival rate did not change according to whether the operation was carried out using LC or OC (P =.60).","Surgical site infections (SSI) are associated with increased costs and length of hospital stay, readmission rates, and mortality. The aim of this study was to identify risk factors for SSI in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Analysis of 35,432 laparoscopic cholecystectomies of a prospective multicenter database was performed. Risk factors for SSI were identified among demographic data, preoperative patients' history, and operative data using multivariate analysis. SSIs after laparoscopic cholecystectomy were seen in 0.8 % (n = 291) of the patients. Multivariate analysis identified the following parameters as risk factors for SSI: additional surgical procedure (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95 % confidence interval [CI] 2.2-7.5), age over 55 years (OR 2.4 [1.8-3.2]), conversion to open procedure (OR 2.6 [1.9-3.6]), postoperative hematoma (OR 1.9 [1.2-3.1]), duration of operation >60 min (OR 2.5 [1.7-3.6], cystic stump insufficiency (OR 12.5 [4.2-37.2]), gallbladder perforation (OR 6.2 [2.4-16.1]), gallbladder empyema (OR 1.7 [1.1-2.7]), and surgical revision (OR 15.7 [10.4-23.7]. SSIs were associated with a significantly prolonged hospital stay (p < 0.001), higher postoperative mortality (p < 0.001), and increased rate of surgical revision (p < 0.001).","Ultrasonography alone has a high rate of false-negative studies for acute cholecystitis. However, a higher rate of accurate diagnosis can be achieved using a triad of positive Murphy sign, elevated neutrophil count and an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or cholecystitis.","Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) in acute cholecystitis is associated with a relatively high rate of conversion to an open procedure as well as a high rate of complications. The aim of this study was to analyze prospectively whether the need to convert and the probability of complications is predictable. A total of 215 patients undergoing LC for acute cholecystitis were studied prospectively by analyzing the data accumulated in the process of investigation and treatment. Factors associated with conversion and complications were assessed to determine their predictive power. Conversion was indicated in 44 patients (20.5%), and complications occurred in 36 patients (17%). Male gender and age>60 years were associated with conversion, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. The same factors, together with a disease duration of>96 h, a nonpalpable gallbladder, a white blood count (WBC) of>18,000/cc(3), and advanced cholecystitis, predicted conversion with a sensitivity of 74%, a specificity of 86%, a positive predictive value of approximately 40%, and a negative predictive value of 96%. However, these data became available only when LC was underway. Male gender and a temperature of>38 degrees C were associated with complications, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. Progression along the stages of admission and therapy did not add predictive factors or improve the predictive characteristics. Male gender, abdominal scar, bilirubin>1 mg%, advanced cholecystitis, and conversion to open cholecystectomy were associated with infectious complications. Their sensitivity and positive predictive value remained 0 despite progression along the stages of admission and therapy.","Laparoscopic treatment for gallbladder cancer (GBC) has long been contraindicated, but few studies have demonstrated the oncologic outcomes of this treatment. The purpose of this study was to evaluate long-term survival after intended laparoscopic surgery for early-stage GBC based on our 10 years of experience. Between May 2004 and April 2014, eighty-three patients suspected of having early-stage GBC with no evidence of liver invasion were enrolled in the prospective protocol for laparoscopic surgery. Data for 45 of these patients with pathologically proven GBC were analyzed to determine the safety and oncologic outcomes of a laparoscopic approach to GBC. Twenty-six patients whose postoperative follow-up exceeded 5 years were investigated to determine the 5-year actual survival outcomes. Extended cholecystectomy, including laparoscopic lymphadenectomy, was performed in 32 patients and simple cholecystectomy in 13 patients. The T stages based on final pathologic results were Tis (n = 2), T1a (n = 10), T1b (n = 8), and T2 (n = 25). After a median follow-up of 60 months after surgery, recurrence was detected in 4 patients as distant metastases. There was no local recurrence around the gallbladder bed or lymphadenectomy. Disease-specific 5-year survival rate of the 45 patients was 94.2%. Disease-specific actual survival rate of 26 patients whose postoperative follow-up period exceeded 5 years was 92.3% at 5 years.","Acute cholecystitis is one of the most common diseases requiring emergency surgery. Ultrasonography is an accurate test for cholelithiasis but has a high false-negative rate for acute cholecystitis. The Murphy sign and laboratory tests performed independently are also not particularly accurate. This study was designed to review the accuracy of ultrasonography for diagnosing acute cholecystitis in a regional hospital. We studied all emergency cholecystectomies performed over a 1-year period. All imaging studies were reviewed by a single radiologist, and all pathology was reviewed by a single pathologist. The reviewers were blinded to each other's results. A total of 107 patients required an emergency cholecystectomy in the study period; 83 of them underwent ultrasonography. Interradiologist agreement was 92% for ultrasonography. For cholelithiasis, ultrasonography had 100% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 81% positive predictive value (PPV) and 100% negative predictive value (NPV). For acute cholecystitis, it had 54% sensitivity, 81% specificity, 85% PPV and 47% NPV. All patients had chronic cholecystitis and 67% had acute cholecystitis on histology. When combined with positive Murphy sign and elevated neutrophil count, an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or acute cholecystitis yielded a sensitivity of 74%, specificity of 62%, PPV of 80% and NPV of 53% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis.","Our objective was to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of abdominal symptoms in gallstones in studies using ultrasonography or oral cholecystography as the reference standard and to assess the extent to which variability in diagnostic accuracy is explained by patient selection and other characteristics of study design. A Medline search (1966-1998) was conducted in combination with reference checking for further relevant publications. Two independent assessors selected controlled studies that included patients>or =18 years of age. Articles were excluded if sensitivity and specificity could not be extracted or the included patients were at extraordinary risk for gallstones. Seven abdominal symptoms were evaluated. Modification of the diagnostic accuracy by clinical setting, extent of the disease, blinding, age, and sex was analysed by using logistic regression. A total of 24 publications were included. The symptoms 'biliary colic', 'radiating pain', and 'analgesics used' were consistently related to gallstones. The setting of the study had a significant effect on the diagnostic accuracy of these symptoms. The unadjusted, pooled diagnostic odds ratios, however, were low (2.6 (95% confidence interval, 2.4-2.9), 2.8 (2.2-3.7), and 2 (1.6-2.5), respectively). The diagnostic odds ratio of biliary colic increased with the extent of gallstone disease (13.3 (4.2-42).","As many patients with gallstone disease do not benefit from cholecystectomy, preoperative recognition of such high-risk patients is important. The aim of the study is to identify predictors of persisting symptoms at 6 months after cholecystectomy for patients with different preoperative symptomatology. Participants in this prospective study were consecutive patients (n = 172), age 18-65 years, with symptomatic cholelithiasis, undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Predictors were identified using uni- and multivariate regression analyses. At 6 months postcholecystectomy, patients with only preoperative biliary symptoms were most often free of symptoms (62.5%). Patients with only dyspeptic symptoms most often reported persistence of preexisting symptoms (63.2%). Preoperative non-specific symptoms predicted the report of postoperative biliary and/or dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5-6.1). Persistence of preexisting pattern of symptoms was predicted by the use of psychotropic medication (OR = 5.3) and dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5). Postoperative biliary symptoms were predicted by High Trait Anxiety (HTA) (OR = 10.6).","Age, case duration, and nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy were predictive of increased 30-day surgical complications at a high-volume safety-net hospital. The small but increased risk of complications with nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy must be balanced against improved efficiency at a high-volume, resource-poor hospital.","Criteria have been suggested to help decide if an intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) should be performed during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). They are a clinical history of passing a common bile duct (CBD) stone, elevated serum amylase, elevated liver function tests, or ultrasound findings suggesting a CBD stone. What is the sensitivity and specificity of the above criteria when the presence or absence of CBD stones is already known by IOC? What is the probability that these criteria will predict a CBD stone or be normal if a stone is absent, ie, the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV)? We reviewed 420 cases of elective LC done between May 1990 and December 1992. In our teaching hospital, IOC is routine and acted as the reference standard for the presence of CBD stones. All 420 films were reviewed as well as the results of any preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) (30 were done). The following preoperative indicators of CBD stones were recorded: any clinical history of CBD stones; an elevated amylase, SGOT, alkaline phosphatase, or bilirubin level; and ultrasound findings. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV were calculated. CBD stones were found in 12% of these elective LC cases. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV, respectively, for each preoperative indicator were: a history suggestive of CBD stones (36%, 94%, 45%, and 91%), serum biochemistries as a group (43%, 86%, 30% and 91%), and ultrasound findings of CBD stones (22%, 92%, 28% and 89%). We compared any elevation versus>2x from the normal range of the serum indicators and did not improve their accuracy. Combination of the indicators increased sensitivity and NPV but lowered specificity and PPV. The best predictor of CBD stones was the history (45%) and this was in a hospital with a CBD stone prevalence rate of 12%.","Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the preferred treatment for gallstone disease, even in many complicated cases. Perhaps the only downside to LC is a two- to threefold increase in common bile duct (CBD) injuries compared with open cholecystectomy (OC). Intraoperative cholangiography may prevent inj uries, but its routine use remains controversial. Our institution adopted a policy of selective intraoperative cholangiography in 1993. When intraoperative laparoscopic ultrasonography (IOUS) emerged as a viable diagnostic adjunct, it was hypothesized that the routine use of IOUS would facilitate dissection, detect occult choledocholithiasis, and prevent bile duct injuries during LC. The experience with LC at our university-affiliated teaching hospital was reviewed. Over a 4 1/2-year period (June 1, 1995, to January 31, 2000), two surgeons used IOUS routinely during LC (ultrasonography [US] group, n = 248); three other surgeons did not (non-US group, n = 594). We compared patient data and outcomes between the two groups. Continuous, data are expressed as mean +/- SEM. During the study period, 842 LCs were attempted. Patient age (37+/-1 years) and gender (85% female) did not differ between the groups. In the US group, more patients had acute cholecystitis (p < 0.05). More LCs were performed per year by non-US surgeons than US surgeons (45 versus 37). Despite this, all bile duct complications occurred in non-US cases (2.5% overall): five CBD injuries (0.8%), six bile leaks (1%), and four retained CBD stones (0.7%). In the subgroup of patients with acute cholecystitis, there were fewer conversions to OC in US compared with non-US cases (24% versus 36%, p = 0.09).","yes. Laparoscopic ultrasonography and intraoperative cholangiography are complementary, as the combination of both methods maximizes the intraoperative detection of choledocholithiasis.","Previous studies evaluating predictive factors for conversion from laparoscopic to open cholecystectomy have drawn conflicting conclusions. We evaluated objective preoperative variables to create an accurate, accessible risk score to predict conversion. A retrospective review was performed of laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients at an urban tertiary care center. Seventy characteristics were subjected to bivariate and multivariate logistic regression analysis to identify parameters that independently predict conversion to open cholecystectomy. A model was created based on this analysis. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed on 1377 patients for benign gallbladder disease over a 71-month period. There were 112 (8.1%) conversions to open cholecystectomy. The correlation between the preoperative clinical diagnosis and pathologic diagnosis for acute and chronic cholecystitis was 48.6% and 94.6%, respectively. Multivariate analysis identified male gender, elevated white blood cell count, low serum albumin, ultrasound finding of pericholecystic fluid, diabetes mellitus, and elevated total bilirubin as independent predictors of conversion. These 6 factors were also associated with the pathologic diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. A model to calculate the risk for conversion was created with an area under the receiver operator curve of 0.83. The risk for conversion also can be estimated based on the number of factors identified present and ranged from 2% when 1 factor was present to 89% with 6 factors.","Percutaneous cholecystostomy (PC) is an effective treatment for cholecystitis in high-risk surgical patients. However, there is no definitive agreement on the need for additional cholecystectomy in these patients. All patients who were admitted to Cheju Halla General Hospital (Jeju, Korea) for acute cholecystitis and who underwent ultrasonography-guided PC between 2007 and 2012 were consecutively enrolled in this study. Among 82 total patients enrolled, 35 underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy after recovery and 47 received the best supportive care (BSC) without additional surgery. The technical and clinical success rates for PC were 100% and 97.5%, respectively. The overall mean survival was 12.8 months. In the BSC group, mean survival was 5.4 months, and in the cholecystectomy group, mean survival was 22.4 months (p<0.01). However, there was no significant difference between these groups in multivariate analysis (relative risk [RR]=1.92; 95% CI, 0.77-4.77; p=0.16). However, advanced age (RR=1.05; 95% CI, 1.02-1.08; p=0.001) and higher class in the American Society of Anesthesiologists' physical status (RR=3.06; 95% CI, 1.37-6.83, p=0.006) were significantly associated with survival in the multivariate analysis. Among the 47 patients in the BSC group, the cholecystostomy tube was removed in 31 patients per protocol. Recurrent cholecystitis was not observed in either group of patients during the follow-up period.","The necessity of carrying out pre- or intra-operative imaging of the biliary tree to rule out a possible anatomical abnormality or the presence of common bile duct (CBD) stones in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is debated. We prospectively assessed the risk of developing symptoms related to bile duct injury or CBD stones after LC in children not receiving peri-operative cholangiography. All patients5 mm) gallbladder stones were present (\"positive\" stones) and a group with multiple large (>5 mm) or single gallbladder stones, considered \"negative.\" The ultrasonographic description was compared with surgical findings; finally, the prevalence of asymptomatic common bile duct stones in the 2 groups was compared. Ultrasonographic classification of gallbladder stones was confirmed at surgery in 285 cases (95%). Asymptomatic common bile duct stones were diagnosed in 9.5% of patients with an ultrasonographic diagnosis of positive gallbladder stones and in only 2.3% of patients with a diagnosis of negative gallbladder stones (P<.05).","Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) has become the choice of treatment for symptomatic gallbladder stones. The goal of this study was to predict the necessity for ERCP before LC using the noninvasive method of liver function testing (LFT) and sonography. Before LC, 115 symptomatic gallbladder stone patients, whose diagnoses were confirmed by sonography, were studied by both LFT and ERCP. Patients who were already found to have either tumors or intrahepatic biliary stones on sonogram were excluded. Patients were classified into normal and dilated biliary tree groups by sonographic findings and normal and abnormal LFT (including bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, gamma glutamyl transferase and amylase) groups. In patients with both normal biliary sonogram and LFT, 97.6% of patients had a negative ERCP study. Biliary tree dilation on sonogram had an 87% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP (40/46). A normal biliary tree on sonogram had a 17.4% incidence of positive ductal pathology on ERCP (12/69). A single abnormal LFT equated to a 68.8% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP.","It remains unclear if sonography accurately describes the severity of gallstone disease. Patients were prospectively enrolled if urgent cholecystectomy was indicated. Two radiologists, blinded to operative findings, evaluated the patients' ultrasound imagings. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed within 48 hours. The operative findings regarding gallbladder wall thickness and inflammation were compared to ultrasound results and histology. Fifty-five patients completed the study. Ultrasound studies exhibited a sensitivity of 60% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis compared to the findings at operation and 52% relative to the histologic findings. Specificity for acute cholecystitis diagnosed on ultrasound examination was 77% compared to findings at operation and 71% relative to histologic findings. The correlation coefficient of the wall thickness at ultrasound and surgery was 0.18: 0.24 for ultrasound and histology and 0.5 for surgery and histology.","Ultrasonography (US) is the mainstay of biliary tract imaging, but few recent studies have tested its ability to diagnose acute cholecystitis (AC). Our objective was to determine how well a US diagnosis of AC correlates with the intraoperative diagnosis. We hypothesize that US underestimates this diagnosis, potentially leading to unexpected findings in the operating room (OR). This retrospective review included all patients admitted to the acute care surgical service of a tertiary hospital in 2011 with suspected biliary pathology who underwent US and subsequent cholecystectomy. We determined the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of US using the intraoperative diagnosis as the gold standard. Further analysis identified which US findings were most predictive of an intraoperative diagnosis of AC. We used a recursive partitioning method with random forests to identify unique combinations of US findings that, together, are most predictive of AC. In total, 254 patients underwent US for biliary symptoms; 152 had AC diagnosed, and 143 (94%) of them underwent emergency surgery (median time to OR 23.03 hr). Ultrasonography predicted intraoperative findings with a sensitivity of 73.2%, specificity of 85.5% and PPV of 93.7%. The NPV (52.0%) was quite low. The US indicators most predictive of AC were a thick wall, a positive sonographic Murphy sign and cholelithiasis. Recursive partitioning demonstrated that a positive sonographic Murphy sign is highly predictive of intraoperative AC.","This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance.","The aim of this study was to determine whether sonographic signs can predict the risk for conversion of laparoscopic (LC) to open cholecystectomy (OC). All 346 patients who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993, and March 1, 1996, were studied retrospectively. Patients who had no sonographic examination during 6 months prior to surgery and patients treated by inexperienced surgeons were excluded from the study. Patient characteristics and sonographic parameters were evaluated by univariate and multivariate analysis, using conversion to OC as a dependent variable. In 23 of 134 patients (17.2%), LC was converted to OC. In the univariate analysis, gallbladder distention (>4.5 cm; relative risk [RR] 3.5; 95% confidence intervals [CI]1.7-5.3), stone impaction (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.1-5.1), thickened gallbladder wall (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.2-5.1), and acute cholecystitis (RR 2.6; 95% CI 1.1-6.7) were able to predict the need for conversion. Logistic regression defined only the sonographic sign of distention of the gallbladder as a predictor of conversion.","To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy."],"string":"[\n \"We investigated the association between the magnetic resonance cholangiography (MRC) results and surgical difficulties and bile duct injuries during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). MRC was performed on 695 consecutive patients before LC. We divided the patients into two groups (visible cystic duct group and \\\"no signal\\\" cystic duct on MRC group) and compared them with regard to the length of the operation, conversion rate to open cholecystectomy (OC) and rate of bile duct injury. The \\\"no signal\\\" cystic duct on MRC group had a longer operation and higher rate of conversion to OC compared with the visible cystic duct group. However, there was no statistically significant difference in the occurrence rate of bile duct injury between the two groups.\",\n \"We sought to determine whether a reduced gallbladder ejection fraction, (GBEF) ascertained by cholecystokinin-cholescintigraphy (CCK-CS), predicts symptomatic improvement after cholecystectomy. Medical records of patients who had had CCK-CS as well as negative results of gallbladder ultrasonography were reviewed, and patients were contacted by telephone to determine whether they had benefited from cholecystectomy. There were 35 patients (33 female, 2 male) who had a decreased GBEF. Cholecystectomy was done in 30, of whom 20 (67%) had resolution of pain, 8 (27%) had partial improvement, and 2 (7%) had no change. The 5 who declined cholecystectomy included none (0%) who were pain free, 2 (40%) who had partial improvement, and 3 (60%) who had no change. The clinical outcome of the two groups was significantly different. There were 14 patients (10 female, 4 male) with a normal GBEF. The 2 patients who had cholecystectomy were asymptomatic. Of the 12 patients who did not have cholecystectomy, 9 (75%) were asymptomatic, 1 (8%) had some improvement, and 2 (17%) had no change.\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the accepted treatment for symptomatic cholelithiasis. This study examines the effect LC has on quality of life (QOL) and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms and determines whether patients with symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) gain the same benefit as those without. A total of 158 patients who underwent LC for symptomatic gallstones were recruited to this prospective observational study. IBS Manning scores were calculated and QOL was measured using the Gastrointestinal Quality of Life Index (GIQLI) preoperatively, at 6 weeks, 3 months, and 2 years postoperatively. Linear regression analysis was used to identify preoperative symptoms that predict outcome. One hundred twelve patients had sufficient data sets for inclusion. Patient's GIQLI scores were calculated for the four time points in the study. The mean preoperative score was 88.8 ± 1.3 (61.7% of 144, the highest score possible) and improved 6 weeks after surgery to 105.5 ± 1.3 (p < 0.001). This improvement was maintained at 3 months, but at 2 years analysis showed regression toward the baseline of 7.6 ± 2.3 (p = 0.003) points. There was a negative correlation of -5.2 ± 1.29 (p < 0.001) points between each Manning symptom and QOL scores. The largest effect was seen in patients describing loose bowel movement with the onset of pain. Patients with this symptom had a -17.3 ± 4.6 (p < 0.001) lower global QOL score.\",\n \"This study was designed to assess the satisfaction or otherwise of a proportion of the U.K. population who have undergone standard four-port laparoscopic cholecystectomy within the past 18 months. The results should indicate whether there is potential demand for a new, improved approach to surgery. Patients who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy between October 2008 and October 2009 in two geographically separated general hospitals were identified from hospital databases. Notes were reviewed to confirm the technique and lack of conversion to an open procedure. Those who had immediate complications were excluded. A telephone questionnaire was conducted to answer questions related to long-term cosmetic and general satisfaction of the current procedure. Of the patients surveyed, 93% were happy or extremely happy with the current procedure, 48% experienced some wound-related issues (pain, infection), and 65% of those were at the umbilicus (a possible reflection of location and retrieval site for gallbladder). Cosmesis was rated less important than hospital cleanliness and experience of the surgeon.\",\n \"yes. An elevated ALT strongly supports a diagnosis of gallstones in AP. Abdominal ultrasound effectively confirms this diagnosis; however, a negative ultrasound in the presence of a raised ALT does not exclude gallstones. In some patients consideration could be given to proceeding to laparoscopic cholecystectomy based on ALT alone.\",\n \"To determine the accuracy of routine gallbladder ultrasound in the detection of crystals in bile. Preoperative ultrasonography was performed in 40 patients undergoing elective cholecystectomy. Bile was aspirated at operation and examined microscopically for the presence and quantity of crystals. Six patients had echogenic bile, five of whom had large numbers of crystals at microscopy, and one only a few crystals. Thirty-four patients had hypoechoic bile, nine had large numbers of crystals and 25 of these had few or no crystals at microscopy. For those patients with echogenic bile (hyper- or isoechoic) the sensitivity for detection of large numbers of crystals was 5/14 (35.7%) with a specificity of 25/26 (96%). However, if the bile was hypoechoic the sensitivity was 9/14 (65%).\",\n \"The purpose of our study was to determine, first, if gallbladder wall striations in patients with sonographic findings suspicious for acute cholecystitis are associated with gangrenous changes and certain histologic features; and, second, if WBC count or other sonographic findings are associated with gangrenous cholecystitis. Sixty-eight patients who underwent cholecystectomies within 48 hours of sonography comprised the study group. Sonograms and reports were reviewed for wall thickness, striations, Murphy sign, pericholecystic fluid, wall irregularity, intraluminal membranes, and luminal short-axis diameter. Medical records were reviewed for WBC count and pathology reports for the diagnosis. Histologic specimens were reviewed for pathologic changes. Statistical analyses tested for associations between nongangrenous and gangrenous cholecystitis and sonographic findings and for associations between wall striations and histologic features. Ten patients had gangrenous cholecystitis and 57, nongangrenous cholecystitis. One had cholesterolosis. Thirty patients had wall striations: 60% had gangrenous and 42% nongangrenous cholecystitis. There was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.32). There was no association between any histologic feature and wall striations (p ≥ 0.19). A Murphy sign was reported in 70% of patients with gangrenous cholecystitis and in 82% with nongangrenous cholecystitis; there was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.39). Wall thickness and WBC count were greater in patients with gangrenous cholecystitis than in those with nongangrenous cholecystitis (p ≤ 0.04).\",\n \"There is minimal data on the outcome of early laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) for acute gallbladder disease when performed by trainees. This study assesses the outcomes of a policy of same admission LC incorporated into a surgical training programme in a major teaching hospital. 447 index LCs performed over a 3-year period were reviewed retrospectively. The indications, operating surgeon, operating time, use of IOC, conversion rates, reasons for conversion and post-operative stay were analysed. Multivariate analysis of reasons for conversion was performed. 150 LCs were performed by consultants and 297 by registrars; 67 were performed by year 1-3 specialist registrars (SpR) and 230 by year 4-6 SpRs. The indications were biliary colic (n=7), acute cholecystitis (n=180), chronic cholecystitis (n=260), carcinoma (n=1). No difference was found in demographics, operating time (105 min Vs 115 min), use of IOC (34% Vs 29%; P=0.2) and post-operative stay (2 days Vs 1 day) between consultants and registrars. The conversion rates were higher for consultants compared to registrars (29 (19%) Vs 28 (9%), P=0.004). The overall conversion rate was 11%. There were no bile duct injuries. Predictors for conversion were CRP>50 at admission and acute cholecystitis.\",\n \"Endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) is indicated in patients with confirmed bile duct stones at endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The role of ES in patients with suspected bile duct stones but a normal cholangiogram, in the prevention of recurrent biliary symptoms, when cholecystectomy is not planned, is unclear.AIM: To determine if prophylactic ES prevents further biliary problems in such patients. Patients were identified with gallbladder stones presenting with jaundice, abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) or dilated bile ducts on ultrasound, in whom cholecystectomy was not planned and who had a normal cholangiogram at ERCP. Patients were followed-up to determine the frequency of recurrent biliary problems or repeat investigations. Forty-one patients were included, of whom 20 had an ES. The frequency of pre-ERCP features did not differ between the two groups. Median follow-up was 32 months (range 15-66). Post-ERCP recurrent abdominal pain (5 vs 3; p=0.39), jaundice (3 vs 1; p=0.28), pancreatitis (0 vs 1; p=0.32), and repeat ultrasound (2 vs 1; p=0.52), ERCP (1 vs 1; p=0.97) or cholecystectomy (2 vs 3, p=0.82) did not differ between the two groups.\",\n \"We investigated routinely the bile ducts by magnetic resonance cholangiopancreaticography (MRCP) prior to cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to analyze the rate of clinically inapparent common bile duct (CBD) stones, the predictive value of elevated liver enzymes for CBD stones, and the influence of the radiological results on the perioperative management. In this prospective study, 465 patients were cholecystectomized within 18 months, mainly laparoscopically. Preoperative MRCP was performed in 454 patients. With MRCP screening, clinically silent CBD stones were found in 4%. Elevated liver enzymes have only a poor predictive value for the presence of CBD stones (positive predictive value, 21%; negative predictive value, 96%). Compared to the recent literature, the postoperative morbidity in this study was low (0 bile duct injury, 0.4% residual gallstones).\",\n \"When performing cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we often encounter problems, such as adhesions, nutritional insufficiency, and bowel reconstruction. The purpose of this study was to identify the factors related to surgical outcome of these associated procedures, with emphasis on the use of a laparoscopic approach. We retrospectively analyzed data from 58 patients who had a history of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy. Differences between subgroups with respect to operation time, length of postoperative hospital stay, and complications were analyzed. To identify the factors related with outcomes of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we performed multivariable analysis with the following variables: common bile duct (CBD) exploration, laparoscopic surgery, gender, acute cholecystitis, history of stomach cancer, age, body mass index, period of surgery, and interval between cholecystectomy and gastrectomy. We found one case (2.9%) of open conversion. The CBD exploration was the most significant independent factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR), 45.15; 95% confidence interval (CI), 4.53-450.55) related to longer operation time. Acute cholecystitis also was a significant independent factor (adjusted OR, 14.66; 95% CI, 1.46-147.4). The laparoscopic approach was not related to operation time but was related to a shorter hospital stay (adjusted OR, 0.057; 95% CI, 0.004-0.74). Acute cholecystitis was independently related to the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 27.68; 95% CI, 1.15-666.24); however, CBD exploration and laparoscopic surgery were not. A lower BMI also was an independent predictor of the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 0.41; 95% CI, 0.2-0.87).\",\n \"Iatrogenic bile duct injury is a serious complication of cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to assess predictors of bile duct injury using a national database. The Nationwide Inpatient Sample (2010-2012) was queried for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. We used a) diagnoses for bile duct injury and b) bile duct injury repair procedure codes as a surrogate marker for bile duct injuries. A total of 1,015 patients had bile duct injury. The mean age was 58.2 ± 19.7 years, 53.5 % were males, and median Charlson co-morbidity score was 2 [2, 3]. Multivariate analysis revealed morbid obesity [2.8 (2.1-4.3); p = 0.03] and age >65 [1.5 (1.05-2.1); p = 0.01] as the independent predictors for bile duct injury in patients undergoing cholecystectomy.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to evaluate the natural history of patients undergoing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP) with known asymptomatic cholelithiasis in whom prophylactic cholecystectomy was not performed at the time of surgery. The records of 144 consecutive patients from a single year experience in RYGBP surgery at the University of California, Davis Medical Center were reviewed. Patients undergoing RYGBP were routinely screened for cholelithiasis by ultrasound. Patients who did not have cholecystectomy were managed with ursodiol for 6 months postoperatively. 13 males (9.0%) and 131 females (91%) underwent RYGBP. The mean age was 43 years (SD 8.55), and mean BMI was 46 kg/m2 (SD 6.5). The comorbidities of our patient population included diabetes (14%), hypertension (48%), gastroesophageal reflux disease (50%), dyslipidemia (35%), obstructive sleep apnea (31%), and musculoskeletal complaints (69%). 22 patients were diagnosed with cholelithiasis by ultrasonography preoperatively. 9 of these patients (41%) were symptomatic and underwent concurrent cholecystectomy and RYGBP. The remaining 13 patients (59%) had asymptomatic cholelithiasis preoperatively but did not undergo cholecystectomy at the time of surgery. Only one of these asymptomatic patients eventually developed symptoms necessitating cholecystectomy at up to 1 year follow-up.\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a safe modality of treatment for acute cholecystitis. Factors associated with increased conversion rate are thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasonography and delay in surgery for more than 48 hours from the onset of symptoms.\",\n \"In standard laparoscopic cholecystectomy the umbilical incision frequently requires secondary enlargement, especially if a large stone mass is involved. Therefore, the cosmetic result after laparoscopic cholecystectomy depends on more than only the technique used for access and the surgical technique for cholecystectomy should be chosen individually for each patient according to the stone mass.\",\n \"Laparoscopic common bile duct exploration (LCBDE) is more expensive and time consuming than its conventional counterpart. Therefore, it should only be performed when there is near certainty that stones are present. The purpose of this study was to identify patients who should be spared LCBDE despite an abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram. Of 700 consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomies performed between 1989 and 1994 by a single surgeon (R.J.F.), 41 had abnormal intraoperative cholangiograms (6%). All 41 patients were treated by either immediate CBDE (19) (conventional or laparoscopic) or had postoperative follow-up cholangiograms (22). The patients were retrospectively assigned to one of three groups. Group I patients had a single \\\"soft\\\" indicator of choledocholithiasis. Group II patients had one or more of the following: (1) a highly suspicious abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram, (2) two or more \\\"soft\\\" indicators of choledocholithiasis, or (3) preoperative clinical findings such as elevated liver function studies or positive preoperative radiological studies. Group III patients had proven choledocholithiasis. In group I, there were 11 patients, none of whom underwent immediate CBDE. Eight of the 11 (73%) had normal follow-up cholangiograms due to either spontaneous stone passage or a false-positive intraoperative cholangiogram. There were 27 patients in group II; 19 underwent immediate CBDE with 100% stone recovery. The remaining 8 had delayed treatment and in five stones were recovered, while three had normal postoperative cholangiograms suggesting spontaneous stone passage. In group III, all three had negative follow-up cholangiograms despite proven choledocholithiasis. Spontaneous stone passage in this group seemed highly likely.\",\n \"We aimed to compare laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) and simultaneous laparoscopic transcystic common bile duct exploration (LTCBDE) using an ultrathin choledochoscope with LC followed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERC) and endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) when indicated. We retrospectively reviewed the records of patients seen between 2004 and 2014 and treated with LC+LTCBDE or LC for gallstones and suspected choledocholithiasis. Postoperative complications and surgical outcomes were compared using t-test, Mann-Whitney U test, or chi-square test. 115 patients underwent successful LC+LTCBDE and 112 LC; follow-up data was available for 103 and 106 patients, respectively. Seventeen patients (16.5%) in the LC+LTCBDE group and 10 (28.6%) in the LC+ERC+ES group developed complications (P = 0.114). The LC+LTCBDE group had a significantly higher rate of satisfactory biliary function outcomes than the LC+ERC+ES group (98.1% vs. 85.7%, respectively) (P = 0.017).\",\n \"Acute cholecystitis is a common diagnosis and surgery is the standard of care for young and fit patients. However, due to high risk of postoperative morbidity and mortality, surgical management of critically ill patients remains a controversy. It is not clear, whether the increased risk of perioperative complications associated with the management of critically ill patients with acute cholecystitis is secondary to reduced physiologic reserve per se or to the severity of gallbladder inflammation. A retrospective analysis of prospectively collected data of patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis in a university hospital over a three-year-period was performed. The ASA scores at the time of presentation were used to categorize patients into two groups. The study group consisted of critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group was made up of fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were compared with regard to perioperative data, postoperative outcome and extent of gallbladder inflammation on histopathology. Two hundred and seventeen cases of acute cholecystitis with complete charts were available for analysis. The study group included 67 critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group included 150 fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were comparable with regard to perioperative data. Histopathology confirmed severe cholecystitis in a significant number of cases in the study group compared to the control group (37 % vs. 18 %, p = 0.03). Significantly higher rates of morbidity and mortality were recorded in the study group (p < 0.05). Equally, significantly more patients from the study group were managed in the ICU (40 % vs. 8 %, p = 0.001).\",\n \"To evaluate the effect of cholecystectomy in patients with gallstones on preoperative abdominal symptoms. A systematic search was made of the Medline database in combination with reference checking. Articles were excluded if patients aged<18 years, symptom relief rates could not be calculated, if follow-up after cholecystectomy was less than 1 month, or when the included patients were at extraordinary risk for a complicated outcome. Potential differences in relief rates due to patient selection, retrospective versus prospective design, duration of follow-up, or intervention were analyzed using logistic regression. The pooled relief rate for \\\"biliary pain\\\" was high 92% (95% confidence interval 86 to 96%). Symptom relief rates were consistently higher in studies that included acute cholecystectomies. For upper abdominal pain--without restrictions for intensity or duration--pooled relief rates ranged from 72% (66 to 77%) after elective cholecystectomy, to 86% (83 to 91%) after acute cholecystectomy. The relief rate of food intolerance was higher in studies with a follow-up2 yr before) episodes of biliary pain, and 61 were asymptomatic (GSa). At baseline, GSr showed a greater %E and a smaller RV than both GSo and GSa (p<0.001). After follow-up, biliary pain developed more frequently in GSr (33.3%) than in GSo (16%) and GSa (15%) (p= 0.04). The search for predictive factors of biliary pain development (by univariate and multivariate analyses) revealed a high %E, a small RV, and a history of biliary pain as risk factors.\",\n \"yes. Negative preoperative ultrasonography with specific lymph node evaluation predicts a low risk of needing early reoperation. Positive preoperative ultrasonography may be a marker for more aggressive disease and the best predictor of the need for additional surgery in the future.\",\n \"The incidence of recurrence of cancer in the abdominal wall was increased, but the medium-term prognosis was not worsened by laparoscopy. It does not appear necessary to exclude patients with cholecystitis or gallbladder wall hypertrophy from undergoing laparoscopic procedures on the grounds that they might have gallbladder cancer.\",\n \"To evaluate long-term effects of cholecystectomy on typical gallstone symptoms and associated digestive syndrome. Clinical prospective study on selected patients. First Surgical Clinic--Catania University. 143 gallstone patients, divided in highly symptomatic Group 1 (79) and mild symptomatic Group 2 (64), who underwent cholecystectomy during period 1991/92. 125/143 patients compiled a set questionnaire to detect any subjective postoperative disorders and to evaluate whether they were similar to preoperative symptoms or were new ones. 125/143 patients completed the 12-month follow-up programme, which revealed a 30% (38/125) with postcholecystectomy symptoms and 13.4% (17) with a postcholecystectomy syndrome. Moreover, 10% (13) of the patients reported the same digestive symptoms as before treatment. Statistical analysis confirmed that cholecystectomy was efficacious in curing gallstone related symptoms and digestive disorders in both Groups with a general improvement in clinical picture (p>0.01). No significant statistical difference in the incidence of postcholecystectomy dyspeptic symptoms was found between the 2 Groups.\",\n \"yes. Preoperative CGA may predict postoperative complications and prolonged postoperative hospital stay of elderly patients who undergo elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Larger-scale studies independently assessing this association are warranted.\",\n \"The purpose of the present study was to determine the clinical characteristics of subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis compared with those with gallbladder polyps only. Between August 1999 and December 2005, 176 subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis (study group) by transabdominal ultrasonography performed during a medical check-up at our institution were recruited and compared with a control group of 185 subjects who had gallbladder polyps only. No significant difference in the mean interval change (delta) of polyp size during the follow-up period between the study and control groups (0.85 +/- 1.39 mm vs 0.84 +/- 1.58 mm, respectively, P = 0.927) was noted. A significantly higher proportion (9/176 [5.1%]) of examinees in the study group had attacks of acute cholecystitis compared with the control group (1/185 [0.5%], P<0.01). By multivariate logistic regression analysis, gallbladder wall thickening on initial ultrasonography (odds ratio, 13.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.1-178.0; P = 0.046) and the interval increase in the size of the gallbladder polyps (odds ratio, 14.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.7-126.9; P = 0.014) were independent risk factors for cholecystectomy. No gallbladder cancer occurred during the follow-up period.\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomies can be performed at night in high-volume acute care hospitals. We hypothesized that nonelective nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomies are associated with increased postoperative complications. We conducted a single-center retrospective review of consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients between October 2010 and May 2011 at a safety-net hospital in Houston, Texas. Data were collected on demographics, operative time, time of incision, length of stay, 30-day postoperative complications (ie, bile leak/biloma, common bile duct injury, retained stone, superficial surgical site infection, organ space abscess, and bleeding) and death. Statistical analyses were performed using STATA software (version 12; Stata Corp). During 8 months, 356 patients had nonelective laparoscopic cholecystectomies. A majority were female (n = 289 [81.1%]) and Hispanic (n = 299 [84%]). There were 108 (30%) nighttime operations. There were 29 complications in 18 patients; there were fewer daytime than nighttime patients who had at least 1 complication (4.0% vs 7.4%; p = 0.18). On multivariate analysis, age (odds ratio = 1.06 per year; 95% CI, 1.02-1.10; p = 0.002), case duration (odds ratio = 1.02 per minute; 95% CI, 1.01-1.02; p = 0.001), and nighttime surgery (odds ratio = 3.33; 95% CI, 1.14-9.74; p = 0.001) were associated with an increased risk of 30-day surgical complications. Length of stay was significantly longer for daytime than nighttime patients (median 3 vs 2 days; p<0.001).\",\n \"Major bile duct injury (MBDI) remains frequent after laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) reaching 0.3 to 0.6 % and is associated with a significant mortality rate. The aim of this study was to retrospectively analyze the factors likely to influence the long-term results of surgical repair for MBDI occurring after LC. Medical records of patients referred to our referral center from January 1992 to January 2010 for management of bile duct injury following LC were retrospectively analyzed, and patients with MBDI were identified. Clinicopathological factors likely to influence long-term results after surgical repair were assessed by univariate and multivariable analysis. During the study period, 38 patients were treated for MBDI. These 38 patients underwent Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) or HJ revision in 25 (66 %) and 13 (34 %) cases, respectively. The median follow-up period was 93 (26-204) months. A Clavien-Dindo post-operative morbidity class >3 occurred in 10 (26 %) cases and was independently associated with a surgical repair performed during a sepsis period (OR = 102.5; IC 95 % [7.12; 11,352], p < 0.007). Long-term results showed that biliary strictures occurred in 5 (13 %) cases and were associated with sepsis (p < 0.006), liver cirrhosis (p < 0.002) and post-operative complications (p < 0.012). Multivariate analysis revealed that only liver cirrhosis remained predictive of stricture (OR = 26.4, 95 % CI [2; 1,018], p < 0.026).\",\n \"Ultrasonography is able to accurately show gallbladder stones; the appearance of multiple small and variably sized gallbladder stones represent a risk factor for synchronous asymptomatic common bile duct stones.\",\n \"In a population-based study, we examined recurrence rates of acute pancreatitis (AP) after cholecystectomy performed to prevent recurrences of AP. We abstracted data from medical records of all Olmsted county residents who underwent cholecystectomy at Mayo Clinic for the management of presumed gallstone or idiopathic AP between 1990 and 2005 (n = 239). Based on (i) significantly elevated liver enzymes (≥threefold increase of alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase) on day 1 and (ii) the presence of gallstones/sludge in the gall bladder, we categorized patients into 4 groups: A (i + ii), B (i but not ii), C (ii but not i), and D (neither i nor ii). Recurrence rates of AP after cholecystectomy were determined in all groups. The median follow-up after cholecystectomy was 99 months (range, 8-220). AP recurred in 13 of 142 patients (9%) in group A, 1 of 17 patients (6%) in group B, 13 of 57 patients (23%) in group C, and 14 of 23 patients (61%) in group D (P < .0001 D vs. all other groups and P = .001 C vs. groups A and B). No difference was seen in recurrence rates in groups A vs. B (P = 1.0). Recurrences were more frequent in patients with normal liver enzymes (A + B vs. C + D; P = .000003) and in patients without sonographic evidence of gallstones/sludge (A + C vs. B + D; P = .0008).\",\n \"Patient and hospital demographics do affect the outcomes of patients undergoing inpatient cholecystectomy. Although male gender, African American race, Medicare-insured status, and large, urban hospitals are associated with less favorable cholecystectomy outcomes, only increased age predicts increased morbidity, whereas female gender, laparoscopy, and cholangiogram are protective. Increased age, complications, and emergency surgery predict mortality, with laparoscopy and intraoperative cholangiogram having protective effects.\",\n \"Preoperative ultrasonography (US) prior to laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (LRYGBP) aimed to find possible gallstones. The aim of this study was to evaluate the reliability of the US in evaluating the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. One hundred LRYGBP and LSG were performed in our new bariatric surgery unit by two surgeons. All patients underwent preoperative US to evaluate the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. A consultant radiologist reviewed the US findings, which were then compared to the intraoperative findings. The mean preoperative body mass index was 49. All patients had co-morbidities. The intraoperative evaluation showed an enlarged left lobe of the liver in 23 patients, whereas the US found enlargement only in eight patients, but revealed eight false positives. In the intraoperative evaluation, fatty liver was observed in five patients, only four of whom were shown in the US, but US revealed 77 false positives. In evaluating the size of the left lobe, US had 35% sensitivity, 90% specificity, 65% false negative rate (FNR) and 10% false positive rate (FPR). In evaluating the consistency, US had 80% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 20% FNR and 82% FPR.\",\n \"Extraction of a gallbladder through an endoscopic overtube during natural orifice translumenal endoscopic surgery (NOTES) transgastric cholecystectomy avoids potential injury to the esophagus. This study examined the rate of successful gallbladder specimen extraction through an overtube and hypothesized that preoperative ultrasound findings could predict successful specimen passage. Gallbladder specimens from patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy were measured, and an attempt was made to pull the specimens through a commercially available overtube with an inner diameter of 16.7-mm. A radiologist blinded to the outcomes reviewed the available preoperative ultrasound measurements from these patients. Ultrasound dimensions including gallbladder length, width, and depth; wall thickness; common bile duct diameter; and size of the largest gallstone (LGS) were recorded. Multiple logistic regression analysis was performed to determine whether ultrasound findings and patient characteristics (age, body mass index [BMI], and sex) could predict the ability of a specimen to pass through the overtube. Of 57 patients, 44 (77%) who had preoperative ultrasounds available for electronic review were included in the final analysis. Gallstones were present in 35 (79%) of these 44 patients. Intraoperative gallbladder perforation occurred in 18 (41%) of the 44 patients, and 16 (36%) of the 44 gallbladders could be extracted through the overtube. Measurement of LGS was possible for 23 patients, and indeterminate gallstone size (IGS) was determined for 12 patients. The rate for passage of perforated versus intact gallbladders was similar (40% vs. 23%; p = 0.054). The LGS (odds ratio [OR], 1.17; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.02-1.33; p = 0.021) and IGS (OR, 22.97; 95% CI, 1.99-265.63; p = 0.025) predicted failed passage on multivariate logistic regression analysis. The passage rate was 80% for LGS smaller than 10 mm or no stones present, 18% for LGS 10 mm or larger, and 8% for IGS (p < 0.001).\",\n \"Laparoscopy is thought to worsen the prognosis of gallbladder cancer (GBC) discovered unexpectedly at laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). However, laproscopy has never been shown to have an influence on patient survival in clinical series. We Performed a two-center retrospective analysis of 28 patients with GBC (11 previously known, 17 unexpectedly discovered by LC) to determine whether laparoscopy and complications related to LC had any influence on the prognosis of GBC. Resectability for cure after LC, survival, and recurrence related to both the procedure itself and complications associated with LC were analyzed. Of the 17 patients with unexpected GBC, 16 were considered resectable for cure at the time of LC. Advanced disease was detected in eight patients by re staging (n = 5) or exploration (n = 3). Seven patients (43.8%) underwent reoperation for cure. Mean survival of patients with unexpected GBC was 26.5 months. Mean survival was shorter when complications (bile spillage, injury of common bile duct, or tumor violation) occurred during LC (10.2 vs 33 months, p = 0.016). If bile spillage was the only complication at LC, there was also a trend to shorter survival (12 vs 33 months, p = 0.061).\",\n \"We formulated a clinical pathway (CP) for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC), which included the following preoperative evaluation: history and physical (H&P), right upper quadrant ultrasound (US), and liver function tests (LFTs). We hypothesized that routine LFTs did not alter management beyond that dictated by H&P and US, and could be excluded from the CP. The study involved 387 consecutive patients undergoing elective LC. Abnormalities in the preoperative evaluation were compared with the finding of choledocholithiasis or other unexpected outcomes. In 187 (48%) patients, abnormalities were found by H&P (n = 7), US (n = 13), and LFTs (n = 177). Seven patients (2%) had documented choledocholithiasis; two had abnormal H & P; three had abnormal US; and four had abnormal LFTs. No patient with choledocholithiasis had abnormal LFTs but normal H&P and US.\",\n \"This is the evaluation of the feasibility and results of routine laparoscopic intraoperative cholangiography. A multicentric prospective study in 315 consecutive patients undergoing elective or urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The success rate was 94%. Mean duration of intraoperative cholangiography was 12 min. Sixteen of 18 failures were related to a narrow cystic duct. One cystic duct avulsion (ligated under laparoscopy) and 2 false positive cholangiograms (1 transcystic exploration, 1 conversion) were noted. Intraoperative cholangiography revealed aberrant bile ducts possibly at risk to injury from dissection in four patients (1.3 per cent). Intraoperative cholangiography disclosed unsuspected stones in 10 patients (4%). Forty-five patients had a preoperative suspicion of choledocholithiasis: choledocholithiasis were found at intraoperative cholangiography in 3 of 13 patients who had preoperative endoscopic sphincterotomy for stone extraction, in 1 of 11 patients with normal preoperative endoscopic cholangiography, and in 11 of 21 patients undergoing surgery alone (57%).\",\n \"Obesity has historically been a positive predictor of surgical morbidity, especially in the morbidly obese. The purpose of our study was to compare outcomes of obese patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). We reviewed 1382 consecutive patients retrospectively who underwent LC for various pathologies from January 2008 to August 2011. Patients were stratified based on the World Health Organization definitions of obesity: nonobese (body mass index [BMI] < 30 kg/m(2)), obesity class I (BMI 30-34.9 kg/m(2)), obesity class II (BMI 35-39.9 kg/m(2)), and obesity class III (BMI ≥ 40 kg/m(2)). The primary end points were conversion rates and surgical morbidity. The secondary end point was length of stay. There were significantly more females in the obesity II and III groups (P = 0.0002). American Society of Anesthesiologists scores were significantly higher in the obesity I, II, and III groups compared with the nonobese (P < 0.05; P < 0.01; and P < 0.0001, respectively). Independent predictors of conversion on multivariate analysis (MVA) included age (P = 0.01), acute cholecystitis (P = 0.03), operative time (P < 0.0001), blood loss (P < 0.0001), and fellowship-trained surgeons (P < 0.0001). Independent predictors of intraoperative complications on MVA included age (P = 0.009), white patients (P = 0.009), previous surgery (P = 0.001), operative time (P < 0.0001), and blood loss (P = 0.01). Independent predictors of postoperative complications on MVA included American Society of Anesthesiologists score (P < 0.0001), acute cholecystitis (P < 0.0001), and a postoperative complication (P < 0.0001). BMI was not a predictor of conversions or surgical morbidity. Length of stay was not significantly different between the four groups.\",\n \"This study investigated whether failure to identify common bile duct stones at laparoscopic cholecystectomy results in significant postoperative complications related to retained stones. We performed a retrospective analysis of the case notes of 377 consecutive patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy without routine operative cholangiography under a single surgeon in a district general hospital between 1995 and 1999. Highly selective preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was employed to identify and manage suspected bile duct stones in pancreatitis, jaundice, persistently elevated liver function tests, or a dilated common bile duct. Eighteen (4.8%) of 377 patients presented postoperatively with symptoms/signs suggesting biliary pathology. Two (0.5%) were confirmed to have retained duct stones/debris (ultrasound/ERCP); both recovered with conservative treatment. Only 1 patient of 274 (0.4%) without preoperative ERCP subsequently presented with a symptomatic retained stone, the other having been stented preoperatively.\",\n \"yes. When AP is associated with significantly elevated liver enzymes on day 1, recurrence rates after cholecystectomy are low (9%). However, postcholecystectomy recurrence rates of AP are high in those without such laboratory abnormalities (34%), especially in those without gall bladder stones/sludge (61%) on abdominal ultrasonography. Our results raise doubts about the efficacy of cholecystectomy to prevent recurrent AP in patients with the absence of either a significant elevation of liver tests on day 1 of AP or gallstones and/or sludge in the gall bladder on initial ultrasound examination.\",\n \"Detection of gall-bladder polyp on ultrasound examination is an indication for cholecystectomy, in particular when the polyp diameter exceeds 10 mm. In each case of a polyp, cholecystolithiasis should also be taken into account and the presence (or absence) of indications for cholecystectomy should be discussed with the patient.\",\n \"We tested the hypothesis that the treatment of patients with acute cholecystitis (AC) would be improved under the care of laparoscopic specialists. The records of patients undergoing cholecystectomy for AC from 1 January 1996 to 31 December 1998 were reviewed retrospectively. Of 170 patients, 48 were cared for by three laparoscopic specialists (LS group), whereas 122 were treated by nine general surgeons who perform only laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) (GS group). The rates of successful LC, complications, and length of hospital stay were compared. Multivariate analysis was used to control for baseline differences. The patients in the GS group were older (median age, 63 vs 53 years; p = 0.01). In all, 31 LS patients (65%), as compared with 44 GS patients (36%), had successful laparoscopic treatment (p = 0.001). The operating time was the same (median, 70 min). The proportion of patients with postoperative complications was similar in the two groups (37% in the GS vs 31% in the LS group; p = 0.6). The median postoperative hospital stay (3 vs 5 days; p<0.01) was shorter in the LS group. On logistic regression analysis, significant predictors of a successful laparoscopic operation included LS group (p<0.01) and age (p = 0). Predictors of prolonged length of hospital stay were age (p<0.01) and comorbidity score (p<0.01), with LS group status not a significant factor (p = 0.21).\",\n \"To determine the cause of a marked rise in cholecystectomy at a regional children's hospital. Retrospective review of 185 patients undergoing cholecystectomy since 1984. The years 1984 to 1990 (group I) and 1991 to 1996 (group II) were compared. Cholecystectomy for gallbladder disease increased from 4.4/year (group I) to 16.3/ year (group II). Abdominal ultrasound examinations increased during this time. The ratio of children diagnosed with gallstones and then undergoing cholecystectomy also increased (P = 0.005). In group 11, 43% of children had no apparent etiology for gallstones, and more children developed complications of gallstones and evidence of choledocholithiasis.\",\n \"yes. Additional surgical procedure was identified as a strong risk factor for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Furthermore, operation time >60 min, age >55 years, conversion to open procedure, cystic stump insufficiency, postoperative hematoma, gallbladder perforation, gallbladder empyema, or surgical revision were identified as specific risk factors for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy.\",\n \"This prospective study of the use of EUS to prevent unnecessary endoscopic retrograde cholangiography in patients with suspected choledocholithiasis has two aims: to evaluate the effectiveness, based on patient outcome, and the potential clinical and economic benefits of EUS. A prospective series of 485 patients (202 men, 283 women; mean age 66.2 years, range 20-94 years) suspected to have choledocholithiasis based on clinical, biochemical, and cross-sectional imaging (US or CT) data underwent EUS. Positive EUS findings were confirmed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiography with sphincterotomy and/or by surgery; negative findings were confirmed by clinical follow-up. An EUS result was considered a true negative if the patient was confirmed symptom-free with normal tests on follow-up of at least 6 months. The costs of EUS (procedure, days of hospitalization, any morbidity) were compared with the estimated costs of the endoscopic retrograde cholangiography avoided in patients with true-negative EUS findings. EUS findings were verified in 463 patients: EUS diagnosed choledocholithiasis in 239 (51.6%) and the absence of stones in 220 patients. In 4 patients (0.8%), EUS was incomplete. By sphincterotomy (209 patients), surgical bile duct exploration (39), percutaneous cholangiography (1 case in which EUS demonstrated a bile duct tumor), and follow-up (214), EUS diagnoses were confirmed as follows: 237 true-positive, 216 true-negative, 2 false-positive, 4 false-negative, 4 incomplete (sensitivity 98%, specificity 99%, positive predictive value 99%, negative predictive value 98%, accuracy 97%). In 214 (46%) patients, more invasive investigations of the bile duct were avoided. The mean cost for patients managed by the EUS-based strategy was ' 374.50 (-284.72), which was significantly less than the theoretical mean cost of ' 443.80 (p<0.001) for patients undergoing endoscopic retrograde cholangiography.\",\n \"yes. This study suggests that simple linear measures taken on a CT scan, such as sagittal abdominal diameter, sagittal internal diameter and abdominal perimeter, may predict longer operative time in laparoscopic left colonic resections more accurately than BMI.\",\n \"Symptomatic gallstone disease is considered an indication for cholecystectomy. A considerable proportion of patients may experience persistent symptoms after surgery. The purpose of the present study was to find out the rate of symptom persistence after elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) performed for symptomatic uncomplicated gallstone disease and, in particular, to clarify whether the recurrence rate differs according to the severity of preoperative symptoms. During a 10-year period (1992-2001), 1,101 patients underwent elective LC at Turku City Hospital for Surgery. A questionnaire concerning the intensity of preoperative symptoms, persistence of symptoms postoperatively, and overall satisfaction with the outcome of the procedure was sent to patients. A total of 677 patients [mean age (range) 59 (21-94) years; 554 (83.1%) females] with uncomplicated gallstone disease returned the completed form. Overall, 380 (57%) patients reported attacks of intense upper abdominal pain, and 287 (43%) reported episodic mild abdominal symptoms as the prevailing preoperative symptom. Two hundred and forty-eight (37%) patients continued to have abdominal symptoms after the operation. Among those with predominantly mild abdominal symptoms preoperatively, 119 (41%) reported the persistence of symptoms after the operation, while in the group with mainly severe upper abdominal pain attacks, 129 (33%) patients had recurrences (p = 0.052).\",\n \"Several reports claim that there is a risk that laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) might worsen the prognosis of unsuspected gallbladder cancer. Several factors rather than LC could influence prognosis. A retrospective clinicopathologic study was performed on 20 patients, 9 patients (3 men and 6 women, aged from 36 to 75 years [mean age, 62.3 years]) undergoing LC and 11 patients (2 men and 9 women, aged from 53 to 91 years [mean age, 65.3 years]) undergoing open cholecystectomy (OC), with postoperatively diagnosed gallbladder cancer. The correlation was evaluated between cumulative survival rates and the following 7 prognostic factors: age, sex, histopathological grade, pathologic stage, occurrence of bile spillage, type of cholecystectomy (LC or OC), and additional surgical treatments. Seven patients (87%) after LC and 9 patients (82%) after OC had cancer recurrence: the difference is of no statistical significance (P =.9). There were no recurrences of cancer in the abdominal wall after either LC or OC. Survival rate was statistically correlated to tumor stage (P =.007) and to the occurrence of bile spillage (P =.002). Survival rate did not change according to whether the operation was carried out using LC or OC (P =.60).\",\n \"Surgical site infections (SSI) are associated with increased costs and length of hospital stay, readmission rates, and mortality. The aim of this study was to identify risk factors for SSI in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Analysis of 35,432 laparoscopic cholecystectomies of a prospective multicenter database was performed. Risk factors for SSI were identified among demographic data, preoperative patients' history, and operative data using multivariate analysis. SSIs after laparoscopic cholecystectomy were seen in 0.8 % (n = 291) of the patients. Multivariate analysis identified the following parameters as risk factors for SSI: additional surgical procedure (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95 % confidence interval [CI] 2.2-7.5), age over 55 years (OR 2.4 [1.8-3.2]), conversion to open procedure (OR 2.6 [1.9-3.6]), postoperative hematoma (OR 1.9 [1.2-3.1]), duration of operation >60 min (OR 2.5 [1.7-3.6], cystic stump insufficiency (OR 12.5 [4.2-37.2]), gallbladder perforation (OR 6.2 [2.4-16.1]), gallbladder empyema (OR 1.7 [1.1-2.7]), and surgical revision (OR 15.7 [10.4-23.7]. SSIs were associated with a significantly prolonged hospital stay (p < 0.001), higher postoperative mortality (p < 0.001), and increased rate of surgical revision (p < 0.001).\",\n \"Ultrasonography alone has a high rate of false-negative studies for acute cholecystitis. However, a higher rate of accurate diagnosis can be achieved using a triad of positive Murphy sign, elevated neutrophil count and an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or cholecystitis.\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) in acute cholecystitis is associated with a relatively high rate of conversion to an open procedure as well as a high rate of complications. The aim of this study was to analyze prospectively whether the need to convert and the probability of complications is predictable. A total of 215 patients undergoing LC for acute cholecystitis were studied prospectively by analyzing the data accumulated in the process of investigation and treatment. Factors associated with conversion and complications were assessed to determine their predictive power. Conversion was indicated in 44 patients (20.5%), and complications occurred in 36 patients (17%). Male gender and age>60 years were associated with conversion, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. The same factors, together with a disease duration of>96 h, a nonpalpable gallbladder, a white blood count (WBC) of>18,000/cc(3), and advanced cholecystitis, predicted conversion with a sensitivity of 74%, a specificity of 86%, a positive predictive value of approximately 40%, and a negative predictive value of 96%. However, these data became available only when LC was underway. Male gender and a temperature of>38 degrees C were associated with complications, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. Progression along the stages of admission and therapy did not add predictive factors or improve the predictive characteristics. Male gender, abdominal scar, bilirubin>1 mg%, advanced cholecystitis, and conversion to open cholecystectomy were associated with infectious complications. Their sensitivity and positive predictive value remained 0 despite progression along the stages of admission and therapy.\",\n \"Laparoscopic treatment for gallbladder cancer (GBC) has long been contraindicated, but few studies have demonstrated the oncologic outcomes of this treatment. The purpose of this study was to evaluate long-term survival after intended laparoscopic surgery for early-stage GBC based on our 10 years of experience. Between May 2004 and April 2014, eighty-three patients suspected of having early-stage GBC with no evidence of liver invasion were enrolled in the prospective protocol for laparoscopic surgery. Data for 45 of these patients with pathologically proven GBC were analyzed to determine the safety and oncologic outcomes of a laparoscopic approach to GBC. Twenty-six patients whose postoperative follow-up exceeded 5 years were investigated to determine the 5-year actual survival outcomes. Extended cholecystectomy, including laparoscopic lymphadenectomy, was performed in 32 patients and simple cholecystectomy in 13 patients. The T stages based on final pathologic results were Tis (n = 2), T1a (n = 10), T1b (n = 8), and T2 (n = 25). After a median follow-up of 60 months after surgery, recurrence was detected in 4 patients as distant metastases. There was no local recurrence around the gallbladder bed or lymphadenectomy. Disease-specific 5-year survival rate of the 45 patients was 94.2%. Disease-specific actual survival rate of 26 patients whose postoperative follow-up period exceeded 5 years was 92.3% at 5 years.\",\n \"Acute cholecystitis is one of the most common diseases requiring emergency surgery. Ultrasonography is an accurate test for cholelithiasis but has a high false-negative rate for acute cholecystitis. The Murphy sign and laboratory tests performed independently are also not particularly accurate. This study was designed to review the accuracy of ultrasonography for diagnosing acute cholecystitis in a regional hospital. We studied all emergency cholecystectomies performed over a 1-year period. All imaging studies were reviewed by a single radiologist, and all pathology was reviewed by a single pathologist. The reviewers were blinded to each other's results. A total of 107 patients required an emergency cholecystectomy in the study period; 83 of them underwent ultrasonography. Interradiologist agreement was 92% for ultrasonography. For cholelithiasis, ultrasonography had 100% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 81% positive predictive value (PPV) and 100% negative predictive value (NPV). For acute cholecystitis, it had 54% sensitivity, 81% specificity, 85% PPV and 47% NPV. All patients had chronic cholecystitis and 67% had acute cholecystitis on histology. When combined with positive Murphy sign and elevated neutrophil count, an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or acute cholecystitis yielded a sensitivity of 74%, specificity of 62%, PPV of 80% and NPV of 53% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis.\",\n \"Our objective was to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of abdominal symptoms in gallstones in studies using ultrasonography or oral cholecystography as the reference standard and to assess the extent to which variability in diagnostic accuracy is explained by patient selection and other characteristics of study design. A Medline search (1966-1998) was conducted in combination with reference checking for further relevant publications. Two independent assessors selected controlled studies that included patients>or =18 years of age. Articles were excluded if sensitivity and specificity could not be extracted or the included patients were at extraordinary risk for gallstones. Seven abdominal symptoms were evaluated. Modification of the diagnostic accuracy by clinical setting, extent of the disease, blinding, age, and sex was analysed by using logistic regression. A total of 24 publications were included. The symptoms 'biliary colic', 'radiating pain', and 'analgesics used' were consistently related to gallstones. The setting of the study had a significant effect on the diagnostic accuracy of these symptoms. The unadjusted, pooled diagnostic odds ratios, however, were low (2.6 (95% confidence interval, 2.4-2.9), 2.8 (2.2-3.7), and 2 (1.6-2.5), respectively). The diagnostic odds ratio of biliary colic increased with the extent of gallstone disease (13.3 (4.2-42).\",\n \"As many patients with gallstone disease do not benefit from cholecystectomy, preoperative recognition of such high-risk patients is important. The aim of the study is to identify predictors of persisting symptoms at 6 months after cholecystectomy for patients with different preoperative symptomatology. Participants in this prospective study were consecutive patients (n = 172), age 18-65 years, with symptomatic cholelithiasis, undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Predictors were identified using uni- and multivariate regression analyses. At 6 months postcholecystectomy, patients with only preoperative biliary symptoms were most often free of symptoms (62.5%). Patients with only dyspeptic symptoms most often reported persistence of preexisting symptoms (63.2%). Preoperative non-specific symptoms predicted the report of postoperative biliary and/or dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5-6.1). Persistence of preexisting pattern of symptoms was predicted by the use of psychotropic medication (OR = 5.3) and dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5). Postoperative biliary symptoms were predicted by High Trait Anxiety (HTA) (OR = 10.6).\",\n \"Age, case duration, and nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy were predictive of increased 30-day surgical complications at a high-volume safety-net hospital. The small but increased risk of complications with nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy must be balanced against improved efficiency at a high-volume, resource-poor hospital.\",\n \"Criteria have been suggested to help decide if an intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) should be performed during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). They are a clinical history of passing a common bile duct (CBD) stone, elevated serum amylase, elevated liver function tests, or ultrasound findings suggesting a CBD stone. What is the sensitivity and specificity of the above criteria when the presence or absence of CBD stones is already known by IOC? What is the probability that these criteria will predict a CBD stone or be normal if a stone is absent, ie, the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV)? We reviewed 420 cases of elective LC done between May 1990 and December 1992. In our teaching hospital, IOC is routine and acted as the reference standard for the presence of CBD stones. All 420 films were reviewed as well as the results of any preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) (30 were done). The following preoperative indicators of CBD stones were recorded: any clinical history of CBD stones; an elevated amylase, SGOT, alkaline phosphatase, or bilirubin level; and ultrasound findings. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV were calculated. CBD stones were found in 12% of these elective LC cases. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV, respectively, for each preoperative indicator were: a history suggestive of CBD stones (36%, 94%, 45%, and 91%), serum biochemistries as a group (43%, 86%, 30% and 91%), and ultrasound findings of CBD stones (22%, 92%, 28% and 89%). We compared any elevation versus>2x from the normal range of the serum indicators and did not improve their accuracy. Combination of the indicators increased sensitivity and NPV but lowered specificity and PPV. The best predictor of CBD stones was the history (45%) and this was in a hospital with a CBD stone prevalence rate of 12%.\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the preferred treatment for gallstone disease, even in many complicated cases. Perhaps the only downside to LC is a two- to threefold increase in common bile duct (CBD) injuries compared with open cholecystectomy (OC). Intraoperative cholangiography may prevent inj uries, but its routine use remains controversial. Our institution adopted a policy of selective intraoperative cholangiography in 1993. When intraoperative laparoscopic ultrasonography (IOUS) emerged as a viable diagnostic adjunct, it was hypothesized that the routine use of IOUS would facilitate dissection, detect occult choledocholithiasis, and prevent bile duct injuries during LC. The experience with LC at our university-affiliated teaching hospital was reviewed. Over a 4 1/2-year period (June 1, 1995, to January 31, 2000), two surgeons used IOUS routinely during LC (ultrasonography [US] group, n = 248); three other surgeons did not (non-US group, n = 594). We compared patient data and outcomes between the two groups. Continuous, data are expressed as mean +/- SEM. During the study period, 842 LCs were attempted. Patient age (37+/-1 years) and gender (85% female) did not differ between the groups. In the US group, more patients had acute cholecystitis (p < 0.05). More LCs were performed per year by non-US surgeons than US surgeons (45 versus 37). Despite this, all bile duct complications occurred in non-US cases (2.5% overall): five CBD injuries (0.8%), six bile leaks (1%), and four retained CBD stones (0.7%). In the subgroup of patients with acute cholecystitis, there were fewer conversions to OC in US compared with non-US cases (24% versus 36%, p = 0.09).\",\n \"yes. Laparoscopic ultrasonography and intraoperative cholangiography are complementary, as the combination of both methods maximizes the intraoperative detection of choledocholithiasis.\",\n \"Previous studies evaluating predictive factors for conversion from laparoscopic to open cholecystectomy have drawn conflicting conclusions. We evaluated objective preoperative variables to create an accurate, accessible risk score to predict conversion. A retrospective review was performed of laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients at an urban tertiary care center. Seventy characteristics were subjected to bivariate and multivariate logistic regression analysis to identify parameters that independently predict conversion to open cholecystectomy. A model was created based on this analysis. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed on 1377 patients for benign gallbladder disease over a 71-month period. There were 112 (8.1%) conversions to open cholecystectomy. The correlation between the preoperative clinical diagnosis and pathologic diagnosis for acute and chronic cholecystitis was 48.6% and 94.6%, respectively. Multivariate analysis identified male gender, elevated white blood cell count, low serum albumin, ultrasound finding of pericholecystic fluid, diabetes mellitus, and elevated total bilirubin as independent predictors of conversion. These 6 factors were also associated with the pathologic diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. A model to calculate the risk for conversion was created with an area under the receiver operator curve of 0.83. The risk for conversion also can be estimated based on the number of factors identified present and ranged from 2% when 1 factor was present to 89% with 6 factors.\",\n \"Percutaneous cholecystostomy (PC) is an effective treatment for cholecystitis in high-risk surgical patients. However, there is no definitive agreement on the need for additional cholecystectomy in these patients. All patients who were admitted to Cheju Halla General Hospital (Jeju, Korea) for acute cholecystitis and who underwent ultrasonography-guided PC between 2007 and 2012 were consecutively enrolled in this study. Among 82 total patients enrolled, 35 underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy after recovery and 47 received the best supportive care (BSC) without additional surgery. The technical and clinical success rates for PC were 100% and 97.5%, respectively. The overall mean survival was 12.8 months. In the BSC group, mean survival was 5.4 months, and in the cholecystectomy group, mean survival was 22.4 months (p<0.01). However, there was no significant difference between these groups in multivariate analysis (relative risk [RR]=1.92; 95% CI, 0.77-4.77; p=0.16). However, advanced age (RR=1.05; 95% CI, 1.02-1.08; p=0.001) and higher class in the American Society of Anesthesiologists' physical status (RR=3.06; 95% CI, 1.37-6.83, p=0.006) were significantly associated with survival in the multivariate analysis. Among the 47 patients in the BSC group, the cholecystostomy tube was removed in 31 patients per protocol. Recurrent cholecystitis was not observed in either group of patients during the follow-up period.\",\n \"The necessity of carrying out pre- or intra-operative imaging of the biliary tree to rule out a possible anatomical abnormality or the presence of common bile duct (CBD) stones in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is debated. We prospectively assessed the risk of developing symptoms related to bile duct injury or CBD stones after LC in children not receiving peri-operative cholangiography. All patients5 mm) gallbladder stones were present (\\\"positive\\\" stones) and a group with multiple large (>5 mm) or single gallbladder stones, considered \\\"negative.\\\" The ultrasonographic description was compared with surgical findings; finally, the prevalence of asymptomatic common bile duct stones in the 2 groups was compared. Ultrasonographic classification of gallbladder stones was confirmed at surgery in 285 cases (95%). Asymptomatic common bile duct stones were diagnosed in 9.5% of patients with an ultrasonographic diagnosis of positive gallbladder stones and in only 2.3% of patients with a diagnosis of negative gallbladder stones (P<.05).\",\n \"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) has become the choice of treatment for symptomatic gallbladder stones. The goal of this study was to predict the necessity for ERCP before LC using the noninvasive method of liver function testing (LFT) and sonography. Before LC, 115 symptomatic gallbladder stone patients, whose diagnoses were confirmed by sonography, were studied by both LFT and ERCP. Patients who were already found to have either tumors or intrahepatic biliary stones on sonogram were excluded. Patients were classified into normal and dilated biliary tree groups by sonographic findings and normal and abnormal LFT (including bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, gamma glutamyl transferase and amylase) groups. In patients with both normal biliary sonogram and LFT, 97.6% of patients had a negative ERCP study. Biliary tree dilation on sonogram had an 87% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP (40/46). A normal biliary tree on sonogram had a 17.4% incidence of positive ductal pathology on ERCP (12/69). A single abnormal LFT equated to a 68.8% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP.\",\n \"It remains unclear if sonography accurately describes the severity of gallstone disease. Patients were prospectively enrolled if urgent cholecystectomy was indicated. Two radiologists, blinded to operative findings, evaluated the patients' ultrasound imagings. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed within 48 hours. The operative findings regarding gallbladder wall thickness and inflammation were compared to ultrasound results and histology. Fifty-five patients completed the study. Ultrasound studies exhibited a sensitivity of 60% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis compared to the findings at operation and 52% relative to the histologic findings. Specificity for acute cholecystitis diagnosed on ultrasound examination was 77% compared to findings at operation and 71% relative to histologic findings. The correlation coefficient of the wall thickness at ultrasound and surgery was 0.18: 0.24 for ultrasound and histology and 0.5 for surgery and histology.\",\n \"Ultrasonography (US) is the mainstay of biliary tract imaging, but few recent studies have tested its ability to diagnose acute cholecystitis (AC). Our objective was to determine how well a US diagnosis of AC correlates with the intraoperative diagnosis. We hypothesize that US underestimates this diagnosis, potentially leading to unexpected findings in the operating room (OR). This retrospective review included all patients admitted to the acute care surgical service of a tertiary hospital in 2011 with suspected biliary pathology who underwent US and subsequent cholecystectomy. We determined the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of US using the intraoperative diagnosis as the gold standard. Further analysis identified which US findings were most predictive of an intraoperative diagnosis of AC. We used a recursive partitioning method with random forests to identify unique combinations of US findings that, together, are most predictive of AC. In total, 254 patients underwent US for biliary symptoms; 152 had AC diagnosed, and 143 (94%) of them underwent emergency surgery (median time to OR 23.03 hr). Ultrasonography predicted intraoperative findings with a sensitivity of 73.2%, specificity of 85.5% and PPV of 93.7%. The NPV (52.0%) was quite low. The US indicators most predictive of AC were a thick wall, a positive sonographic Murphy sign and cholelithiasis. Recursive partitioning demonstrated that a positive sonographic Murphy sign is highly predictive of intraoperative AC.\",\n \"This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to determine whether sonographic signs can predict the risk for conversion of laparoscopic (LC) to open cholecystectomy (OC). All 346 patients who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993, and March 1, 1996, were studied retrospectively. Patients who had no sonographic examination during 6 months prior to surgery and patients treated by inexperienced surgeons were excluded from the study. Patient characteristics and sonographic parameters were evaluated by univariate and multivariate analysis, using conversion to OC as a dependent variable. In 23 of 134 patients (17.2%), LC was converted to OC. In the univariate analysis, gallbladder distention (>4.5 cm; relative risk [RR] 3.5; 95% confidence intervals [CI]1.7-5.3), stone impaction (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.1-5.1), thickened gallbladder wall (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.2-5.1), and acute cholecystitis (RR 2.6; 95% CI 1.1-6.7) were able to predict the need for conversion. Logistic regression defined only the sonographic sign of distention of the gallbladder as a predictor of conversion.\",\n \"To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":417,"string":"417"}}},{"rowIdx":273163,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Jugular phlebectasia in children: is it rare or ignored?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was.","Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results."],"string":"[\n \"Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was.\",\n \"Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Lumbar spondylolysis, a unilateral or bilateral fracture at pars interarticularis, is a common cause of low back pain in children. The initial imaging study in the diagnosis of lumbar spondylolysis has historically been lumbar spine radiographs; however, radiographs can be equivocal or false-negative. Definitive diagnosis can be achieved with computed tomography (CT), but its use has been limited due to the dose of ionizing radiation to the patient. By limiting the z-axis coverage to the relevant anatomy and optimizing the CT protocol, we are able to provide a definitive diagnosis of fractures of the pars interarticularis at comparable or lower radiation dose than commonly performed lumbar spine radiographs. As there is no gold standard for the diagnosis of spondylolysis besides surgery, we compared interobserver agreement and degree of confidence to determine which modality is preferable. Sixty-two patients with low back pain ages 5-18 years were assessed for the presence of spondylolyis. Forty-seven patients were evaluated by radiography and 15 patients were evaluated by limited field-of-view CT. Both radiographic and CT examinations were assessed anonymously in random order for the presence or absence of spondylolyisis by six raters. Agreement was assessed among raters using a Fleiss Kappa statistic for multiple raters. CT provided a significantly higher level of agreement among raters than radiographs (P < 0.001). The overall Kappa for rater agreement with radiographs was 0.24, 0.34 and 0.40 for 2, 3 or 4 views, respectively, and 0.88 with CT.","To determine the incidence of skull fracture (SF) and intracranial injury (ICA) among children younger than 2 years evaluated in a pediatric emergency department for head trauma; whether historical features and/or physical findings are predictive of injury type; and whether clinical criteria could allow a selective approach to radiographic imaging. Retrospective medical record review. Tertiary pediatric emergency department. Case series of 278 children aged younger than 24 months evaluated for head injury. Presence of SF and/or ICA. Diagnoses at discharge included 227 minor head injuries, 39 isolated SF, 9 ICA with SF, and 3 isolated ICA. Children younger than 12 months had the highest incidence of SF/ICA (29%) vs 4% for children aged 13 to 24 months (P<.001). Seven percent of complications from SF/ICA resulted from falls 3 ft (0.9 m) or less [corrected]. Incidence of behavioral change, loss of consciousness, emesis, and seizures did not differ significantly between those with minor head injuries and those with SF/ICA. Scalp abnormalities were more common in children with SF/ICA (P<.001). Sixty-two percent of children with isolated SF and 58% of children with ICA had no history of loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, or behavioral change. Ninety-two percent of children with isolated SF and 75% of children with ICA had normal levels of consciousness and nonfocal neurologic examinations at diagnosis. Among children who fell 3 ft or less (0.9 m) [corrected] and had no loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, behavioral change, or scalp abnormality, none of 31 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0-0.10) children younger than 24 months and none of 20 (95% CI, 0-0.15) children younger than 12 months had SF/ICA.","The long term outcome of infants and children with right atrial isomerism in association with a normal pulmonary venous drainage remains unfavourable. Sepsis and sudden death that may potentially be related to cardiac arrhythmia are major causes of late mortality.","PNET of the kidney appears to be a distinct entity. Although rare, it must be included in the differential diagnosis of renal tumors in children and young adults. Patients usually present with advanced disease and show poor response to combined-modality therapy.","To examine the clinical utility of noncontrast-enhanced computed tomography (NCCT) in pediatric patients with urolithiasis who progressed to surgery. Although NCCT is routine for the evaluation of adult patients with suspected urolithiasis, its routine use in the pediatric population is tempered by concern about radiation exposure. We conducted a retrospective chart review of all pediatric patients who had undergone surgery for urinary stones from 2003 to 2008 at our institution. The imaging modalities used, surgery type, stone composition, 24-hour urinalyses, and relevant predisposing conditions were characterized. A total of 42 pediatric patients (24 males and 18 females) were treated during the 6-year period. The average age was 11.3±5.3 years (range 2.7-25.4), and the most common treatment modalities were shock wave lithotripsy (28%) and ureteroscopy (22%). A discernible risk factor or cause of urolithiasis was absent in 21 patients (47%). A review of imaging studies found 38 with stones visible on ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. A total of 21 patients underwent NCCT, in addition to ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. Of these, only 5 patients required NCCT for the diagnosis or management of their stone.","DEFB in children status post-NF is unusual with an incidence 1.72% of our patients. Our review might be underestimating the incidence as translucent foreign bodies may have been missed. DEFB are surprising due to the fact that most of these children are neurologically impaired and gastrostomy-tube fed. The children's NPO status may also result in these DEFB remaining asymptomatic until being 'incidentally' found on radiographic imaging. Thus, NF may predispose to obstruction when a foreign body (FB) is ingested; but because of the population involved, this remains a fairly unusual entity. However, the presence of a DEFB in this population may necessitate prompt endoscopic retrieval as the likelihood of spontaneous passage is less.","A clinical entity consisting of periodic fever associated with aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis and cervical adenitis termed \"PFAPA syndrome\" in young children (<5 years old) may be unfamiliar to otolaryngologists. We present our 5-year experience of PFAPA syndrome. Case series. Tertiary academic. A 5-year retrospective chart review for children (<5 years old) who have undergone tonsillectomies with and without adenoidectomies was conducted. Medical records from subjects who underwent the procedures for recurrent pharyngitis were reviewed with reference to a history of periodic fever and stomatitis associated with pharyngitis. Tonsillectomy with and without adenoidectomy. The objective measure was a comparison of the number of visits to the primary care physician for pharyngitis associated with fever in a 3-month period before and after the surgical intervention. The subjective measure was a telephone interview evaluating preoperative and postoperative symptoms. Of the 117 patients identified, 22 (19%) underwent surgery for recurrent pharyngitis. Five subjects (average age, 2.5 years) were identified as having PFAPA syndrome. The average number of preoperative PFAPA-related complaints was 11.6 compared with 0.2 for the number of postoperative PFAPA-related complaints (P=.03).","Previous studies have suggested that the sum of Attention, Aggression, and Anxious/Depressed subscales of Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL-PBD; pediatric bipolar disorder phenotype) may be specific to pediatric bipolar disorder (BP). The purpose of this study was to evaluate the usefulness of the CBCL and CBCL-PBD to identify BP in children <12 years old. A sample of children with BP I, II, and not otherwise specified (NOS) (n = 157) ascertained through the Course and Outcome for Bipolar Disorder in Youth (COBY) study were compared with a group of children with major depressive/anxiety disorders (MDD/ANX; n = 101), disruptive behavior disorder (DBD) (n = 127), and healthy control (HC) (n = 128). The CBCL T-scores and area under the curve (AUC) scores were calculated and compared among the above-noted groups. Forty one percent of BP children did not have significantly elevated CBCL-PBD scores (>or=2 standard deviations [SD]). The sensitivity and specificity of CBCL-PBD >or= 2 SD for diagnosis of BP was 57% and 70-77%, respectively, and the accuracy of CBCL-PBD for identifying a BP diagnosis was moderate (AUC = 0.72-0.78).","We describe three neonates who presented around the tenth day of life with multiple bilateral fluctuating cold abscesses situated in the lymph node areas, with secondary fistulation but without associated fever or general symptoms. In all cases, Staphylococcus aureus was found in the abscesses and the umbilicus with similar antibiograms. The evolution was good and the children remained in good health afterwards.","In experienced hands, internal jugular venous catheterization is a safe procedure. However, the incidence of axillary vein or right atrial catheter malposition is 14%, and clinical factors alone will not reliably identify malpositioned catheters. Chest radiographs are necessary to ensure correct internal jugular catheter position.","This study aimed to determine the spectrum of temporal bone computed tomography (CT) abnormalities in children with conductive hearing loss (CHL) with and without microtia. From 1993 to 2008, a total of 3396 pediatric records including CHL were reviewed at our institution and revealed 180 cases of persistent CHL, 46 of whom had diagnostic temporal bone CT examinations. All of these examinations were systematically reviewed by two pediatric neuroradiologists, working in consensus, who had 5 and 18 years, respectively, of dedicated pediatric neuroradiology experience. Of the 46 children, 16 were boys and 30 were girls (age: 0.2-16 years; mean: 5 years). Also, 21 (46%) children had microtia and 25 (54%) children did not, as determined by clinical evaluation. External auditory canal atresia/stenosis (EAC-A/S) was the most common anomaly in both microtia and non-microtia groups. Two or more anomalies were observed in 18/21 children with microtia. The frequency of EAC-A/S was greater in children with microtia versus those without it (86% versus 32%, respectively; P = 0.0003). Syndromic diagnoses were also significantly more frequently made in children with microtia versus those without microtia (76% versus 20%, respectively; P = 0.0001). Temporal bone CT scans were normal in 10 children (22%) with persistent CHL.","The number of complications encountered in children who had central venous access of the subclavian vein or internal jugular central vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy was infrequent, the number of misplaced catheters was minimized with intraoperative fluoroscopy, and all children with pulmonary complications showed clinical signs suggestive of pulmonary complications before postoperative chest x-ray. Therefore, children who have had central venous access of the subclavian and internal jugular vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy do not appear to require a routine chest x-ray after catheter placement unless clinical suspicion of a complication exists.","Pediatric neck infections are frequently treated by Otolaryngologists, Head and Neck surgeons. The relative role of medical versus surgical treatment of pediatric neck infections is debated. The aims of this study are to analyze the management of pediatric neck infections with respect to clinical assessment, radiological assessment and treatment. Medical records from January 1999 to June 2005 were reviewed and analyzed. Two hundred and five children with lateral neck infections were included in the study. The clinical diagnosis correlated with the radiology finding in 73.6% with a sensitivity of 28% and a specificity of 92% for lateral neck abscess recognition. The ultrasound finding correlated with the surgical finding in 65.2% with a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 33%. When an ultrasound scan was used it changed the intended treatment plan in 10.5% of children.","Pyelectasis is a benign condition. Only 2 patients required pharmacological intervention (prophylactic treatment for VUR Grade IV patients). Initially at least, cystography should not be indicated in cases of microalbuminuria and/or normal urine concentrations.","Septic thrombosis of the sigmoid and lateral sinus is a rare complication of acute otitis media, mastoiditis and cholesteatoma. Hence, the aim of this chat review was to analyze the demographics, presenting symptoms, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of otogenic sigmoid sinus thrombosis. Especially the role of low molecular weight heparin in the therapy of septic intracranial sinus thrombosis in children should be illuminated. A retrospective chart review was performed. Six patients were included in this trial. One patient was treated completely conservatively. All other patients underwent surgical treatment consisting of mastoidectomy (n=5), additional thrombectomy (n=3) and ligation of the internal jugular vein (n=2). All patients received intravenous antibiotics and anticoagulants. Unfractionated heparin was administered for three days after surgery followed by an anticoagulant therapy with low-molecular weight heparin for three months. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and the anti-factor-Xa-plasma-levels were monitored during anticoagulation in short term intervals. There were no complications related to the anticoagulant therapy. Recanalization was found in all patients who were treated without thrombectomy or ligation of the internal jugular vein and in the case of complete conservative treatment.","Ultrasound is increasingly used to facilitate right internal jugular vein (RIJV) cannulation in children. In children without cardiac disease, position changes and enhancement maneuvers increase RIJV cross-sectional area (CSA) and further facilitate cannulation. We investigated the effect of these maneuvers on RIJV CSA in children with a bidirectional Glenn (BDG) shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure. The CSA (cm(2)) of the RIJV in 21 children with a BDG shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure was assessed by ultrasonic planimetry (SonoSite). Two positions, supine (S) and 15 degrees Trendelenburg (T); and two enhancements maneuvers, manual liver compression (L) and a simulated Valsalva maneuver (V) were utilized in combination. Eight separate measurements (S, S + L, S + V, S + L + V, T, T + L, T + V, T + L + V) were made in each patient. Data were analyzed using one-way analysis of variance with repeated measures and with Tukey post hoc pairwise comparison analysis. No significant change in the RIJV CSA or % change in CSA from baseline (S) was observed.","Biliary dyskinesia is a common diagnosis that frequently results in cholecystectomy. In adults, most clinicians use a cut off value for the gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF) of <35% to define the disease. This disorder is not well characterized in children. Our aim was to determine the relation between GBEF and gallbladder pathology using a large statewide medical record repository. We obtained records from all patients of 21 years and younger who underwent hepatic iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) testing within the Indiana Network for Patient Care from 2004 to 2013. GBEF results were obtained from radiology reports using data mining techniques. Age, sex, race, and insurance status were obtained for each patient. Any gallbladder pathology obtained subsequent to an HIDA scan was also obtained and parsed for mention of cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis. We performed mixed effects logistic regression analysis to determine the influence of age, sex, race, insurance status, pathologist, and GBEF on the presence of these histologic findings. Two thousand eight hundred forty-one HIDA scans on 2558 patients were found. Of these, 310 patients had a full-text gallbladder pathology report paired with the HIDA scan. GBEF did not correlate with the presence of gallbladder pathology (cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis) when controlling for age, sex, race, insurance status, and pathologist using a mixed effects model.","yes. Transcatheter occlusion of L-R shunts can be performed safely and effectively in children with BPD. Further studies may clarify the role of such therapy in improvement in respiratory physiology over time.","To study the changing pattern in the use of intravenous urogram (IVU) and non-contrast enhanced CT (CTKUB) for evaluation of flank pain at a single centre. All patients who underwent either an IVU or CTKUB at a single, tertiary care center from January 2002 to December 2007 were retrospectively identified from the radiology database. Study samples were-divided into two groups: Pediatric (14 years or less) and Adult (greater than 14 years). For each group, overall trends as well as trends across referral setting and gender were explored by plotting line graphs using SPSS version 15. During the study period a total of 11245 uro-radiological examinations were performed using either IVU (43.7%, n=4915) or CTKUB (56.3%, n=6330). A remarkable majority of procedures (95.5%, n=10741) was performed in adult patients. Overall, the respective proportions of IVU and CTKUB were 87.9% (n=43) and 12.1% (n=61) in the pediatric group whereas 41.6% (n=4472) and 58.4% (n=6269) in adults. Majority in both groups were ambulatory patients (Pediatrics 83.7%, Adults 76.7%). During 2002-20007, the yearly proportion of CTKUB increased from 27% to 80% in adults and from 3% to 27% in children.","Information about portal hypertension (PHT) in children is meagre. We therefore studied the spectrum and outcome of PHT in children (/=5 years of age. Recurrence rate after the Sistrunk procedure was 3.4%.","yes. Using a simple technique, ultrasound identifies the dominant internal jugular vein, thus indicating the safer side before blind catheterization.","Fewer than 40% of primary spontaneous pneumothorax patients are definitively treated with nonoperative management. A prospective study is needed to determine whether primary surgery with blebectomy/mechanical pleurodesis is a more effective treatment strategy.","Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that affects mainly young adults, but can occur also in children and adolescents. The pathogenesis of MS is still not fully understood and chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency (CCSVI) was suggested to be implicated in MS. Although there is no strong evidence to support this hypothesis, a considerable number of MS patients, including adolescents, have undergone endovascular treatment procedures. The aim of this study was the evaluate the prevalence of extracranial venous system anomalies in children and adolescents with multiple sclerosis in comparison to age-matched controls. Twenty-one children with clinically definite diagnosis of MS (mean age 13.8 years), and 19 age-matched controls (mean age 12.5 years) were investigated using 1.5 T scanner with coronal 3D contrast-enhanced coronal venography. The diameters of internal jugular veins (IJV) at both sides of the neck were estimated separately, from the level C1 to Th1. Anomalies of the extracranial venous system were found in 10 MS patients (47.6%) and 13 controls (68.4%). Normal anatomy of extracranial veins was recognized in 11 MS patients (53%) and 6 controls (31%). Comparison of the measurement results for MS patients and the control group revealed that there are no significant statistical differences in cross-section areas for a given level.","There are no widely accepted guidelines for management of pediatric patients who have evidence of solid organ contrast extravasation (\"blush\") on computed tomography (CT) scans following blunt abdominal trauma. We report our experience as a Level 1 pediatric trauma center in managing cases with hepatic and splenic blush. All pediatric blunt abdominal trauma cases resulting in liver or splenic injury were queried from 2008 to 2014. Patients were excluded if a CT was unavailable in the medical record. The presence of contrast blush was based on final reports from attending pediatric radiologists. Correlations between incidence of contrast blush and major outcomes of interest were determined using χ and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests for categorical and continuous variables, respectively, evaluating statistical significance at p<0.05. Of 318 patients with splenic or liver injury after blunt abdominal trauma, we report on 30 patients (9%) with solid organ blush, resulting in 18 cases of hepatic blush and 16 cases of splenic blush (four patients had extravasation from both organs). Blush was not found to correlate significantly with age, gender, or type of injury (liver vs. splenic) but was found to associate with higher grades of solid organ injury (p = 0.002) and higher ISS overall (p<0.001). Patients with contrast blush on imaging were more likely to be admitted to the intensive care unit (90% vs. 41%, p<0.001), receive blood products, (50% vs. 12%, p<0.001), and be considered for an intervention (p<0.001). Eighty percent of patients with an isolated contrast blush of the spleen or liver did not require an operation. Only 17% of patients with blush required definitive treatment, such as embolization (n = 1), packing (n = 1), or splenectomy (n = 3). Blush had no significant correlation with overall survival (p = 0.13).","yes. Averaged cerebral and renal rSO(2) less than 65% as measured by NIRS predicts hyperlactatemia (>3 mmol/L) in acyanotic children after congenital heart surgery. Hence, this noninvasive, continuous monitoring tool may facilitate the identification of global hypoperfusion caused by low cardiac output syndrome in this population.","no. We found no evidence to suggest that MS children and adolescents have more extracranial veins anomalies than healthy patients. Considering the risk of such treatment, endovascular interventions should be discourage.","Mild bleeding disorders (BD) such as von Willebrand disease (VWD) type I are often difficult to diagnose because of inconclusive laboratory results. Our study examines the diagnostic value of repeated testing. Prospective study on 200 children. Extensive laboratory testing was done twice and a standardized history was taken. 165 patients completed the study (median age 5.6 years). Main reason for referral was aPTT prolongation (n = 109). The initial diagnosis was upheld in 74/165 (44.8%) children. Of 18 patients rated normal, 8 had to be reclassified as possible VWD later. Ten patients were diagnosed VWD I. In 36 patients possible VWD was found, 13 of these had normal results at the second visit while in 6 VWD became more likely. The main diagnosis was lupus-anticoagulant (n=79), normalizing in 24. A total of 88 children underwent surgery during the study period.","To establish the frequency of large visible bubbles or collections of bubbles in the jugular vein during radical neck dissection in the supine position. Prospective observation by at least two investigators of random consecutive patients scheduled for radical neck surgery. Operating room suite in a university hospital specializing in head and neck cancer surgery. Twelve consecutive ASA physical status II and III patients undergoing modified radical dissection for cancer. General anesthesia with fentanyl, oxygen (O2) 30% to 40%, nitrous oxide (N2O) 60% to 70%, and isoflurane 0.5% to 1.5%, with mechanical ventilation. Table position horizontal. Modified radical neck dissections performed by attending surgeons. Surgical field (jugular vein) carefully observed by the surgeons and an independent anesthesiologist investigator for the presence of bubbles during the dissection. Easily visible bubbles were observed in the jugular veins of 42% (5 of 12) of the consecutive radical neck dissection patients studied. Some of the collections of bubbles were large (greater than 2.5 cm in diameter). In one case, the appearance and subsequent disappearance of bubbles was followed by a transient drop in arterial blood pressure (BP) and in end-tidal carbon dioxide (PETCO2), which was suggestive of a diagnosis of central venous air embolization.","The purpose of the present study was to evaluate the incidence of epidural air associated with spontaneous pneumomediastinum in children. The subjects consisted of 25 boys and 17 girls with an age range of 3-14 years (mean age: 8.5 years) who underwent chest computed tomography (CT) for evaluation of spontaneous pneumomediastinum. The CT scans and medical records were reviewed retrospectively. Of the 42 patients, four (9.5%) had intraspinal air on CT. The air was interpreted as epidural in every patient. The small number of patients with epidural air meant that there was no significant difference in age, gender, or clinical manifestations between groups with and without epidural air. Subcutaneous emphysema was identified in all four patients with epidural air versus 18 out of 38 patients (47%) without epidural air. The patients with epidural air did not have any neurologic symptoms. Irrespective of the presence or absence of epidural air, every patient had a favorable outcome without any serious complications.","Congenital hydronephrosis and isolated pyelectasis are frequently diagnosed by prenatal ultrasound. About 80% of cases resolve spontaneously in early childhood. Currently there is no agreed on protocol for prenatal followup. Most clinicians use a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm as a threshold for identifying isolated pyelectasis and hydronephrosis at 33 weeks of gestation or anteroposterior diameter greater than 7 mm at 40 weeks of gestation. We sought to determine a fetal renal pelvis diameter cutoff at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation that would be able to predict significant nephron uropathy requiring surgery. Our protocol included 2 prenatal ultrasounds at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation and 3 postnatal ultrasounds at ages 1, 6 and 12 months. Between January 2009 and December 2011 we evaluated 149 prenatal cases (130 males, 19 females) of isolated pyelectasis and 41 cases (28 males, 13 females) of hydronephrosis with a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm at 20 weeks of gestation. For isolated pyelectasis we identified cutoffs of 6 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 84.3% specificity) and 10 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 91.9% specificity). For hydronephrosis we identified cutoffs of 10 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 86.1% specificity) and 12 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 66.7% specificity).","In our review of 503 consecutive children with meningitis, none were noted to have bacterial meningitis manifesting solely as a simple seizure. We suspect that this previously described entity is either extremely rare or nonexistent. Commonly taught decision rules requiring lumbar puncture in children with fever and a seizure appear to be unnecessarily restrictive.","The demographic and technical data of all the pediatric caudal blocks (CBs) performed from August 1986 to September 1989 in our teaching hospital were prospectively collected on a computerized protocol. Except for 22 high-risk ex-premature infants, all CBs were performed under halothane or isoflurane anesthesia, after premedication with atropine. Moreover, they were performed using local anesthetic solutions containing 1:200,000 epinephrine. A total of 1100 CBs were performed in children younger than 7 years; 203 patients weighed 5 kg or less; 260, 5.1-10 kg; 300, 10.1-15 kg; and 337, more than 15.1 kg. The CBs were also analyzed according to the anesthesiologist's experience with CB: 184 were performed by anesthesiologists who had performed fewer than 10 CBs (Group A); 210, 10-20 CBs (Group B), and 704, more than 20 CBs (Group C). We found difficult landmarks in 11.2% of our patients. Moreover, it was significantly more frequent (p = 0.0004) if the patients weighed less than 10 kg, because of poor anatomy or obesity. There were 76 bloody taps (BTs, 6.9%); although there was a statistically insignificant trend toward a lower incidence of BTs in the 5.1-10-kg group, experience seemed to influence the incidence of BTs, as it decreased from 11.4% in Group A to 8.9% and 5.4% in Groups B and C, respectively (p less than 0.05). There were eight systemic reactions (i.e., brisk onset of tachycardia during or shortly after the CB), which were all short-lived and responded quickly to hyperventilation with oxygen. Two occurred despite repositioning the needle after a previous BT, but six occurred with no previous evidence of blood and were thus called \"concealed\" BTs. Moreover, all occurred in children weighing 10 kg or less. There was only one dural tap. Only nine CBs (0.81%) failed to provide effective intraoperative anesthesia, and 93% of the patients left the recovery room without having required narcotic or non-narcotic analgesics.","Displaced paediatric supracondylar humeral fractures pose a significant risk of neurovascular injury and consequently have traditionally been treated as a surgical emergency. Recently, the need for emergency surgery has been questioned. We wished to analyse our experience at a large UK tertiary paediatric trauma centre. A retrospective case note review was performed on patients with Gartland Grades 2 and 3 supracondylar fractures observed in a 2-year period from July 2008 to July 2010. We divided children into those treated before 12 h (early surgery) and after 12 h (delayed surgery). Analysis was undertaken using Fisher's exact test. Of the 137 patients, 115 were included in the study; median time-to-surgery was 15:30 (range 2:45-62:50); thirty-nine children were treated before 12 h and 76 patients after. In the early surgery group, three children (7.7%) developed a superficial pin-site infection, four children (10.3%) required open reduction, five children (12.8%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (5%) required reoperation. In the delayed surgery group, one child (1.3%) had a superficial pin-site infection, four children (5.3%) required open reduction, seven children (9.2%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (2.6%) reoperation. Bivariate analysis of our data using Fisher's exact t test revealed no statistically significant difference between early and delayed surgery groups with regard to infection rates (p = 0.1), iatrogenic nerve injury (p = 0.53) or need for open reduction (p = 0.44).","yes. Venous thromboembolism is rare in young critical care trauma patients, even older adolescents. The absence of published data on both the baseline risk of venous thromboembolism in pediatric critical care patients and the efficacy and safety of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis preclude the ability to make definitive recommendations for the use of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in this setting. Our results, however, suggest that venous thromboembolism prophylaxis may need to be considered only in critically injured adolescents and young adults with a continuing need for central venous access.","yes. Despite slightly lower adverse outcomes, arterial surgery does not appear to confer a significant advantage over nonoperative treatment in pediatric patients with BBA injury. In patients younger than 6 years, both modalities appear to be equality effective.","Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) has long been characterized by the triad of deafness, cataract, and cardiovascular malformations (CVMs). While initial reports identified patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) as the primary CVM in CRS, the exact nature of the CVMs found in CRS has not been well established. We searched the English literature from 1941 through 2008 to identify studies that used cardiac catheterization or echocardiography to evaluate the CVMs in CRS. Of the 121 patients in the 10 studies with catheterization data, 78% had branch pulmonary artery stenosis, and 62% had a PDA. In 49% of cases, both branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA were present, whereas isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis and isolated PDA were found in 29 and 13% of cases, respectively. Of the 12 patients in the 10 studies with echocardiographic data, PDA was more common than branch pulmonary artery stenosis, but this finding is greatly limited by the small numbers of patients and limitations of echocardiography. Although published studies of CVMs in CRS have in general reported PDA as the CVM phenotype most commonly associated with CRS, among CRS cases evaluated by catheterization, branch pulmonary artery stenosis was actually more common than PDA. Moreover, although the combination of branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA was more common than either branch pulmonary artery stenosis or PDA alone, isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis was twice as common as isolated PDA.","Shielding of the gonads is a dose-saving strategy in pediatric radiography and its use is the law in New York and the majority of other states. However, routine use of gonadal shields is controversial because of concerns that important diagnostic information can be obscured. The purpose of this study was to assess the frequency and spatial distribution of key findings on portable neonatal abdominal radiographs. We reviewed the 2,544 portable neonatal intensive care unit anteroposterior abdominal radiographs performed in 2010 at a university medical center, of which 962 were inadequately shielded. These 962 radiographs were reviewed by pairs of pediatric radiologists for the presence of findings in different regions, including bowel abnormalities, pneumatosis, free air, inguinal hernias, osseous abnormalities, and catheter/tube tips. The fewest pertinent findings were present below the level of the sacrosciatic notches (n = 181, 18.8%). Of the 853 abnormalities below the level of the iliac crests in our cohort, six were isolated to these regions, whereas others had concomitant abnormalities more superiorly. Of 35 radiographs with pneumatosis or suspected pneumatosis in the pelvis, 33 had pneumatosis in more superior regions. Suspected free air was never isolated to the pelvis. Osseous abnormalities were only present in the pelvis below the sacrosciatic notch, and 37.5% of lower extremity catheters terminated below the level of the sacrosciatic notches.","Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) for treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax refractory to nonoperative management was first reported in children by Rodgers in 1986 (Ann Surg. 1986; 204:677-680). Small series have shown success with apical blebectomy, mechanical or chemical (talc) pleurodesis, or combination techniques. We report the largest pediatric series of VATS for primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) to date, to assess outcomes and compare techniques. Retrospective review of all children undergoing VATS for PSP between 1999 and 2007 at 2 university-affiliated hospitals by the same group of surgeons. Mann-Whitney U tests and chi(2) used (P<.05 = significant). Thirty-two patients underwent 41 VATS procedures (32 initial-30 unilateral, 2 bilateral; 9 subsequent-7 contralateral, 2 ipsilateral recurrences). Mean age at presentation was 16.5 years (range, 13-20 years). Blebs were identified at the time of VATS in 95% of patients, but in 12.5%, they were on lower lobes. Mean duration of postoperative air leak was 2.7 days, postoperative hospital length of stay was 5.0 days, and postoperative chest tube duration was 5.1 days; 2 patients required Heimlich valves, which were managed at home. Five different surgical techniques were used as follows: blebectomy plus mechanical pleurodesis had the shortest length of stay (4.3 days) and need for chest tube drainage (4.1 days) but had a higher recurrence risk (6% major, 16% minor) than blebectomy plus chemical pleurodesis. The risk of requiring an additional VATS procedure (ipsilateral or contralateral) was 28%. Mean follow-up was 46 months.","In the 0- to 8-year-old age group in whom the incidence of cervical spine injury is rare but frequently involves the upper cervical spine, the transoral odontoid roentgenogram may be of little value in the evaluation of the spine and should not be considered necessary in \"clearing\" the pediatric cervical spine. An alternative evaluation of these patients would include an initial lateral and AP radiograph, followed by computed tomography scan.","The aim of this study was to determine in a pediatric population whether a routine chest x-ray after central venous access is necessary when the central venous catheter is placed with intraoperative fluoroscopy. This was a retrospective review of the charts of all patients at Children's Hospital in Denver, Colorado who underwent subclavian or internal jugular central venous catheter placement from January 1, 1998 through December 31, 2001. Age, sex, primary reason for access, access site, number of venipuncture attempts, type of catheter, intraoperative fluoroscopy results, chest x-ray results, location of the tip of the catheter, and complications were analyzed. There were 1,039 central venous catheters placed in 824 patients, 92.6% in the subclavian vein and 7.4% in the internal jugular vein. There were 604 (58.1%) children who had both fluoroscopy and a postprocedure chest x-ray, there were 308 (29.6%) who had only fluoroscopy, there were 117 (11.3%) who had only a postprocedure chest x-ray, and there were 10 (1.0%) who had neither fluoroscopy nor chest x-ray. On completion of the procedure, there were 12 (1.1%) children with misplaced central venous catheters, only 1 (0.1%) when intraoperative fluoroscopy was used. There were 17 (1.6%) complications; 9 (0.9%) were pulmonary (pneumothorax, hemothorax, or an effusion). All children with pulmonary complications experienced clinical signs and symptoms suggestive of the complication after their central venous catheter insertion but before their postprocedure chest x-ray.","To demonstrate an asymmetry of the internal jugular veins, a finding which will have consequences for catheterization. Prospective study. The medical ICU of a university-affiliated teaching hospital. Eighty critically ill consecutive patients. Measurement of the cross-sectional area of the internal jugular veins. Search for an asymmetry, defined as an area at least twice that of the contralateral vein. An asymmetry was noted in 62.5% of the patients. The dominant vein was the right in only 68 % of these cases. In addition, 23% of the 160 jugular internal veins had an area of 0.4 cm2 or less.","Most of the children with hydronephrosis do not require any surgical intervention. However, in individual cases, irreversible loss of renal function can develop. Predictive criteria have been proven ineffective so far in determining in which children obstruction will lead to renal damage. The aim of our retrospective study was to determine the role of a crossing lower pole vessel (CV) in children undergoing pyeloplasty. Between 1996 and 2003, 137 patients (age between 6 weeks and 16 years) with unilateral ureteropelvic junction obstruction and no associated urological pathologies underwent Anderson-Hynes dismembered pyeloplasty. A total of 112 patients were evaluated with complete data. One of the following criteria was considered to be indication for surgery in children with grade 4 hydronephrosis: differential renal function (DRF)<40%; clinical symptoms such as pyolenephritis and flank pain; during follow-up renographies, a reduction of DRF>10% and washout patterns II or III b according to O'Reilly. We looked at the age during surgery and the kind of presentation. DRF was measured using diuretic renography preoperatively and 1 year postoperatively. A postoperative change in DRF of group A (children without CV, n = 84) was compared to that in group B (children with CV, n = 28). Median age at the time of surgery was 5 months in group A compared to 23 months in group B. Only in 21.4% of the children with CV compared to 60.7% without CV hydronephrosis was diagnosed by ultrasound examination antenatally. We found a preoperative DRF of 42.4% +/- 11.2 SD in group A, and of 38.9% +/- 11.7 SD in group B. The percentage of postoperative improvement was 3.3% in group A and 15.4% in group B.","To assess which clinical features predict an increased likelihood of an abnormal computed tomographic (CT) scan and how frequently CT influences management of bacterial meningitis. Retrospective patient series. University-affiliated hospitals in Dallas, Tex. Three hundred thirty-seven children with bacterial meningitis, of whom 107 (32%) had undergone CT scans. One or more abnormalities were found in 52% of the initial scans. The most frequent indication for CT at our institution was persistent or secondary fever, and in 56% of these children, subdural effusion or empyema was noted. However, findings on CT rarely predicted a need for intervention. In contrast, children with focal seizures or focal neurologic signs were more likely to have brain parenchymal changes. Scans in 19 patients (12%) prompted surgical intervention, most commonly drainage of a subdural collection. The conditions of only nine children (8.4% of those who had undergone CT scans) improved following intervention that was initiated because of findings on CT.","yes. Our series demonstrates that early recognition of this rare syndrome is necessary to adequately treat and prevent upper tract deterioration in these unique individuals. Although the urofacial is difficult to diagnose in infants, cognizance must be maintained in order to prevent severe subsequent sequalae.","Although ultrasound is regarded as the first choice imaging modality for evaluating a pediatric neck mass, neck computed tomography (CT) is necessary for urgent surgical conditions such as deep neck infections. Our aim was to evaluate the diagnostic effectiveness of and proper patient selection for neck CT as a method for the initial evaluation of pediatric neck masses in the emergency department. We analyzed the medical records of 105 pediatric patients who visited the emergency department with neck mass whose initial imaging work-up was a neck CT and who visited the emergency department with a neck mass. The parameters investigated included the patient's age, sex, symptom duration, clinical impression, CT interpretation, final diagnosis, and treatment. The positive predictive value (PPV) for CT was calculated, and the parameters that correlated with an urgent surgical condition post-CT were evaluated. The median age was 6.5 years (1 month to 12 years), and the male-to-female ratio was 2:1. The most common initial impression was acute cervical lymphadenopathy. A comparison of the final diagnosis and CT scan demonstrated that the overall PPV was 96.2%. If the initial impression was a deep neck infection, a salivary gland infection, or tonsillitis, the PPV for CT was 100%. Fever (>38.0°C) and severe tenderness were significant between patients with and without urgent surgical conditions on CT.","Early detection of biliary atresia (BA) has a vital role in prevention of liver cirrhosis in these patients. There are some evidences that triangular cord (TC) sign, i.e., triangular structure located cranial to the portal vein bifurcation on ultrasonographic examination, is suggestive of BA in suspected cases. The aim of this study is to evaluate and compare the sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of TC sign with other methods of diagnosis such as hepatobiliary scan. Fifty-eight infants referred to pediatric gastroenterology ward with diagnosis of infantile cholestasis from March 2004 to March 2008 were evaluated to find the cause of cholestasis. Diagnosis was made by means of history, clinical examination, hepatobiliary scan, and liver biopsy. Ultrasonographic examination was focused on presence of TC sign in patients. If the diagnosis was in favor of BA, patient was sent for direct cholangiography as a gold-standard test for confirmation of the diagnosis. The sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of the tests were compared with golden standard. Among 58 infants with infantile cholestasis, BA was diagnosed and confirmed in 10 infants (17.2%). Hepatobiliary scintigraphy had 80% sensitivity, 72.9% specificity, and 74.1% accuracy. TC sign had 70% sensitivity, 95.8% specificity, and 91.3% accuracy.","The presence of multiple nonspecific findings on abdominal CT scan does not reliably predict BBMI in children. Children also appear to suffer complications from BBMI less frequently than adults, regardless of the time to surgery. Therefore, nonspecific findings alone do not warrant surgical exploration. The decision to operate should instead be based on clinical data that include serial physical examinations.","Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a common disembryogenic defect with well-attested prevalence but dubious etiopathogenetic linkage with cryptogenic stroke and different clinical conditions. Transcranial color-coded Doppler (TCCD) assures high accuracy in diagnosing right-to-left shunt (RLS) and its functional aspects. Aim of the study was to evaluate RLS prevalence and degree in subjects submitted to TCCD for conditions theoretically associated or caused by paradoxical embolism to the brain. PFO assessment, performed in 10 major diagnostic categories and a control group, followed a standardized protocol with a 10 or 20 microbubbles (MB) cutoff to identify any or only large RLS, respectively. Among 2113 patients, a significant larger RLS prevalence was found in stroke (53.3%), TIA (45.7%) and migraine with aura (39.7%) when compared with non-migraineurs controls (25.5%). RLS degree was significantly higher in stroke and TIA patients: The ROC curve from MB load data helped to identify new cutoff values for both normal breathing (42 MB) and Valsalva (139 MB) tests. From logistic regression, a family history for PFO, ASA, and male gender appeared independent predictors of a RLS. By contrast, RLS seemed independent of white matter abnormalities presence on brain neuroimaging or stroke mimics.","The goals of this study were to describe the clinical and anatomic features of infants undergoing Kasai portoenterostomy (KPE) for biliary atresia (BA) and to examine associations between these parameters and outcomes. Infants enrolled in the prospective Childhood Liver Disease Research and Education Network, who underwent KPE were studied. Patients enrolled in a blinded, interventional trial were excluded from survival analysis. Primary endpoints were successful surgical drainage (total bilirubin less than 2 mg/dL within the first 3 months), transplant-free survival (Kaplan-Meier), and time to transplant/death (Cox regression). KPE was performed in 244 infants (54% female; mean age: 65 ± 29 days). Transplant-free survival was 53.7% and 46.7% at 1 and 2 years post-KPE. The risk of transplant/death was significantly lower in the 45.6% of patients who achieved successful bile drainage within 3 months post-KPE (HR: 0.08, P < 0.001). The risk of transplant/death was increased in patients with porta hepatis atresia (Ohi type II and III vs type I; HR: 2.03, P = 0.030), nonpatent common bile duct (Ohi subtype: b, c, and d vs a; HR: 4.31, P = 0.022), BA splenic malformation syndrome (HR: 1.92, P = 0.025), ascites > 20 mL (HR: = 1.90, P = 0.0230), nodular liver appearance compared to firm (HR: = 1.61, P = 0.008), and age at KPE ≥ 75 days (HR: 1.73, P < 0.002). Outcome was not associated with gestational age, gender, race, ethnicity, or extent of porta hepatis dissection.","It is frequently taught that lumbar puncture is a mandatory procedure in many or all children who have fever and a seizure, because the convulsion may represent the sole manifestation of bacterial meningitis. We attempted to determine the incidence of this occult manifestation of meningitis. Retrospective case series. 503 consecutive cases of meningitis in children aged 2 months to 15 years seen at two referral hospitals during a 20-year period. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in patients having associated seizures. Meningitis was associated with seizures in 115 cases (23%), and 105 of these children were either obtunded or comatose at their first visit with a physician after the seizure. The remaining 10 had relatively normal levels of consciousness and either were believed to have viral meningitis (2) or possessed straightforward indications for lumbar puncture: nuchal rigidity (6), prolonged focal seizure (1), or multiple seizures and a petechial rash (1). No cases of occult bacterial meningitis were found.","PHACE syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder involving large facial hemangiomas in association with posterior fossa abnormalities, cerebral arterial anomalies, cardiac defects, and eye abnormalities. A recent consensus statement has delineated criteria necessary for the diagnosis of PHACE syndrome. Extracutaneous manifestations of PHACE syndrome predominately affect the cerebrovascular system. To date, there are no reports of cerebral cavernous malformations (CCMs) in children with PHACE syndrome. We reviewed the charts of children admitted to the Children''s Hospital of Pittsburgh who met criteria for PHACE syndrome, and evaluated neuroimaging for cerebrovascular abnormalities, including the finding of CCMs. Six children met criteria for PHACE syndrome at our institution over a 10-year period. All children were female. All children had cerebrovascular abnormalities sufficient to meet major criteria for diagnosis. Four children (66.7 %) were found incidentally to have CCMs; all lesions measured less than 5 mm at the time of diagnosis and were asymptomatic.","yes. The unique point of this case report is the rarity of such a presentation. Careful planning and knowledge of the occurrence of such conditions can make surgery in these children safe, and all the levels can be treated in a single setting.","Recent reports describing surgical experiences with childhood IE are sparse. We sought to determine patient-specific characteristics and their impact on outcome for children with infective endocarditis (IE) undergoing surgical intervention. We therefore reviewed all cases of culture-proven IE referred for surgical intervention at our institution over the last three decades. Of 15,124 cardiovascular surgical procedures performed between 1978 and 2007 at our institution on children under the age of 18, only 30 (0.2%) were undertaken for a primary diagnosis of IE. All 30 children underwent chart review and retrospective risk-hazard analysis. Median patient age was 9.8 years (range 10 weeks to 17.5 years). Underlying congenital cardiac lesions were present in 22 (77%) and previous intra-cardiac repair in 9 (30%). Septic emboli occurred in 13 (46%), causing permanent strokes in 4 (14%). Streptococcus viridans and Staphylococcus aureus were the predominant organisms. S. viridans was associated with underlying congenital lesions (p<0.01). S. aureus was associated with abscess formation (p<0.03), clinical sepsis (p<0.04), acute deterioration (p<0.01), prolonged hospitalization (p<0.01) and death (p<0.01). Aortic, mitral and tricuspid valves were involved with equal frequency, more than the right ventricular outflow tract. Two valves were involved in 30%. The native valve was preserved at operation in 22 (73% cases). Univariate predictors for valve replacement included increased leaflet thickening (p<0.01) and occurrence of septic embolization (p=0.02), whereas moderate/severe valvular regurgitation was not significant. Five-year freedom from IE-related death and re-intervention was 84% and 80%, respectively. At latest follow-up 96% of patients are NHYA I.","To determine the prevalence of congenital heart defects (CHDs) in patients with mild or severe congenital anorectal malformations (CARMs), and whether all patients with CARM need pediatric cardiology screening. We included 129 patients with CARM born between 2004 and 2013, and referred to University Medical Center Groningen. Recto-perineal and recto-vestibular fistulas were classified as mild CARMs, all others as severe. Significant patent foramen ovale, secundum atrial septal defect, and small ventricular septum defect were classified as minor CHDs, all others as major. Of 129 patients with CARM, 67% had mild CARM, 33% severe CARM, and 17% were additionally diagnosed with CHD. CHDs were distributed equally in patients with mild or severe CARMs. Patients with multiple congenital abnormalities were more frequently diagnosed with CHD (n = 16, 36%) than patients without multiple congenital malformations (n = 5, 9%, P = .001). Patients with CARM diagnosed with CHD using pediatric cardiac echo screening were younger than 3 months of age at diagnosis. Earlier general pediatric examinations missed 7 (50%) children with mild and 4 (50%) with severe CHDs.","Although Chiari I malformation is increasingly recognized in children, little is known about its clinical presentation in this age group. To evaluate the relationship between clinical and MRI features of pediatric Chiari I malformations. We performed a chart review and MRI analysis of 49 children with Chiari I malformation. The degree of tonsillar ectopia was compared with age at onset, presence of syringomyelia, and a neurologic severity score as follows: asymptomatic = 0, symptomatic with normal neurologic examination = 1, and symptomatic with abnormal examination = 2. Age at onset of symptoms ranged from 10 months to 14 years. Fifty-seven percent of patients were asymptomatic. Headache and neck pain were the most frequent complaints. Syringomyelia was detected in 14% of patients and skull base abnormalities in 50%. The magnitude of tonsillar ectopia (5 to 23 mm) correlated with severity score (p = 0.04) but not with other clinical measures.","Cardiac embolism is estimated to be the aetiology of ischemic cerebral-vascular insults (CVI) in 25% of cases. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is a reliable and widely used examination in the diagnosticwork-up of stroke. TEE is superior to transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) in the search of minor sources of cardiac embolism but it is time consuming and has its inherent risks.AIM: The aim of this study was to determine whether in patients younger than 65 years of age with CVI our TEE-findings would alter their management. Only patients in whom nor the medical record, nor TTE, nor Carotid Ultrasonography could establish an aetiology, were included. A 3-year retrospective study was done in patients admitted to the stroke unit of a regional medical centre covering 110,000 inhabitants. The TEE-database was reviewed and all TEE's performed in eligible patients were selected. Minor and major sources of cardiac embolism were listed. The impact of TEE-findings on the management of CVI was evaluated. Fifty-four patients fulfilled the criteria for this study. The mean age was 52 years (range 18 - 65). A major source of cardiac embolism was seen in 6 cases (11.1%). Four patients (7.4%) had infective endocarditis (IE) with vegetations. A small apical thrombosis in a patient with isolated left ventricular non-compaction was noted and in 1 patient dysfunction of a mechanical prosthetic valve was documented. The most frequently encountered minor source of cardiac embolism was a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or small atrial septal defect (ASD) with documented right-to-left shunt during Valsalva manoeuvre (15 patients, 27.8%). Of these 15 patients, an atrial septum aneurysm(ASA) was seen in 7 patients (13%). Our TEE-findings altered the management of CVI substantially in 21 cases (38.9%). The 4 patients with IE and the patient with mechanical valve dysfunction had cardiac surgery. Twelve patients (22.2%) were referred for percutaneous closure of the PFO/ASD. Three patients with PFO/ASD and the patient with IVNC were treated with maintenance therapy of oral anticoagulation.","The optimal treatment of cervicofacial nontuberculous mycobacterium lymphadenitis (CFNTB) in children is yet to be established. There is a general consensus that surgical excision results in a definitive resolution of the disease. The main aim of surgery is to remove affected nodes so that they do not discharge through the skin. Recently there are some investigators who are reporting successful antibiotic treatment and advocating medical therapy as the first line treatment. 16 children consecutively presenting to otolaryngology in a tertiary referral centre over an 8-year period with CFNTB. Inclusion criteria were chronic cervicofacial lymphadenitis with either: (1) a culture positive for atypical mycobacteria (from either a lymph node or fine needle aspirate (FNA) specimen); or (2) acid-fast bacilli identified (from either a lymph node or FNA specimen); or (3) post excision histological findings consistent with mycobacterial infection (i.e. non-caseating granulomas) in the absence of other clinical features suggestive of other granulomatous conditions. Lesions with superficial skin change were treated preferentially with surgery. Children presenting with lymph nodes contained deep to sternocleidmastoid were assessed with FNA cytological and microbiological analysis and MRI or CT, and treated preferentially with antibiotics or watchful waiting. 4 children (2 culture positive, 2 with acid-fast bacilli on needle aspirate) presented with lymphadenopathy deep to sternocleidmastoid and were managed non-surgically. All 4 resolved without cutaneous involvement. 11 children with a clinical presentation of CFNTB underwent complete excision of all involved nodes for superficial lesions (6 were culture positive, and all had granulomatous histology). None recurred. 1 patient presented late with a mature, discharging parotid sinus, which was managed with watchful waiting as the lesion was clinically close to natural resolution.","Pediatric branchial anomalies can present as a cyst, sinus, or fistula. They are developmental failures in the involution of the branchial apparatus during the embryologic period. Management of second branchial anomalies is with surgical excision of the tract and ligation of the terminal attachment to the pharynx. Our results suggest that the recurrence rates are not affected by whether or not an ipsilateral tonsillectomy is performed.","Cranio-cervical arterial dissections are a recognized cause of ischemic stroke in childhood, with an approximate incidence of 0.4 to 20%. AIM. To describe a population of children with cranio-cervical arterial dissections, analyzing clinical presentation, risk factors, angiographic findings, evolution and treatment. A descriptive, retrospective, longitudinal collaborative review (Sant Joan de Deu and Pereira Rossell Children's Hospital), of children one month to 17 years old of age was conducted, during the period of time between 2000 to 2009. Ten cases with arterial dissection were identified, 7 of them were boys and 3 girls. Nine had a traumatism preceding neurological symptoms. Clinical presentation included 5 patients with hemiparesis, 3 with hemicerebelus syndrome, 1 with VI cranial nerve palsy and 1 with intracranial soplus as the only symptom at physical examination. Three of them had seizures, while headache preceding the onset of cerebral ischemic symptoms was founded in 6 of them. Dissection involved anterior circulation in 5 patients and posterior circulation in the other 5. In reference to the localization of arterial compromise 4 patients had intracranial dissections and 6 had extracranial dissections. Anticoagulation therapy was done in 5, antiagregation in 3, and treatment abstention in two. None of them suffered neither complications due to anticoagulation therapy nor dead or recurrent dissections in long term follow up (2 months to 8 years).","To determine the aetiologies and clinical characteristics of infants with fever and a bulging fontanelle. The medical records of all febrile infants with a bulging fontanelle who underwent a lumbar puncture from January 2000 to February 2008 in Assaf Harofeh Medical Center, a university affiliated hospital in central Israel, were identified. 153 patients met the inclusion criteria. The male to female ratio was 100:53; age range was 3-11 months with a mean age of 5.6 (SD 1.8) months and a median age of 5 months. Cerebrospinal fluid pleocytosis was found in 42 cases (27.3%), including one case of bacterial meningitis (0.6%). Other leading diagnoses were aseptic meningitis (26.7%), upper respiratory tract infection (18.3%), viral disease not otherwise specified (15.6%), roseola infantum (8.5%) and acute otitis media (6.5%). Appearance on admission was described as good to excellent in 113 (73.8%) infants, none of whom had bacterial meningitis. 32 had aseptic meningitis and 17 had other bacterial disease (pneumonia, acute otitis media, pyelonephritis, bacteraemia, shigella or salmonella gastroenteritis). All the latter had, upon admission, symptoms, signs, laboratory tests or imaging studies suggesting a bacterial aetiology.","The evaluation of febrile children with petechial rashes evokes controversy. Although many of these children have viral infections, on occasion such patients may be infected with Neisseria meningitidis. To investigate differences in practice trends for the evaluation and management of non-toxic-appearing febrile children with petechial rashes among pediatric specialty groups. We surveyed 833 pediatricians in 4 specialties [community (CGP) and academic (AGP) general pediatrics, emergency medicine (EM) and infectious diseases] regarding 4 hypothetical non-toxic-appearing febrile children ages 1, 2, 5 and 7 years. The patients differed with regard to clinical appearance, distribution of petechiae and complete blood count results. We compared specialty group responses, adjusting for practice setting, population size and years in practice using multiple logistic regression analysis. The survey was completed and returned by 416 (50%) pediatricians. There was substantial variation in the evaluation of the 2 younger febrile children without clear sources for their petechiae. For the 1-year-old the overall blood culture (BCx) rate was 82%, with the EM group (91%) more often requesting BCx than either the CGP (76%) or AGP (73%, P=0.001) groups. The overall hospital admission rate was 31%, with CGP less often requesting admission than infectious disease pediatricians (22% vs. 40%, P=0.007). In the regression analysis the only significant difference between groups was in BCx rate between the EM and AGP groups. For the 2-year-old the overall rate of BCx was 95%, lumbar puncture was 41% and admission was 44%, with no significant differences among groups. For the scenarios involving the 2 older febrile children with sources for their petechiae, the majority of respondents chose neither lumbar puncture nor admission. There was disagreement regarding BCx, both within and between groups, although most of the between group differences did not persist in the regression analysis.","To describe the surgical management of second branchial fistulae that extend to the pharynx, specifically to determine whether tonsillectomy, along with surgical excision of the tract affects the rate of recurrence. Retrospective chart review of pediatric patients (age<18) who underwent surgical excision of second branchial anomalies at a tertiary-care children's hospital between January 1, 2006 and September 1, 2011. Sinus tracts that extended to the pharynx were considered to be fistulae. Seventy-four patients were identified who underwent surgical excision of 85 total second branchial anomalies - 20 cysts (23.5%), 29 sinuses (34.1%), and 36 fistulae (42.4%). The 36 fistulae were removed from 32 patients, 23 males and 9 females, with an average age of 43.3 months. There were 16 right, 11 left, and 5 bilateral lesions. In 14 (43.8%) of the fistulae cases, a tonsillectomy was performed. There was only one recurrence (2.8%), which occurred 41 months postoperatively. No statistically significant difference for recurrence (p=1.0) was found between the group of patients that underwent tonsillectomy and those that did not.","To evaluate whether isolated Horner's syndrome presenting in the first year of life warrants investigation. Retrospective review of 23 children presenting with Horner's syndrome in the first year of life. In 16 patients (70%) no cause was identified. Birth trauma was the most common identifiable cause (four patients). Twenty one children (91%) had urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) measured and 13 patients (57%) underwent either computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging of the chest and neck. These investigations revealed previously undisclosed pathology in only two--one ganglioneuroma of the left pulmonary apex and one cervical neuroblastoma. A further patient was known to have abdominal neuroblastoma before presenting with Horner's syndrome. There were no cases of Horner's syndrome occurring after cardiothoracic surgery. Long term follow up of the patients (mean 9.3 years) has not revealed further pathology.","Despite a high rate of envenomated bites in Southeast Texas, significant morbidity is rare. Children with an envenomation score of 1 or 2 are unlikely to be coagulopathic, suggesting that laboratory investigation should be reserved for patients with higher scores. The indications for the administration of CroFab deserve further prospective study.","Historically, HIDA is the initial diagnostic test in the evaluation of biliary atresia (BA). Non-excreting HIDA scans can yield false-positive results leading to negative laparotomy. Cholestatic infants must be evaluated promptly to exclude biliary atresia (BA) and other treatable hepatic conditions. Intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) is the gold standard for diagnosing BA, but requires surgical intervention. Percutaneous transhepatic cholecysto-cholangiography (PTCC) and liver biopsy are less invasive and have been described in small case series. We hypothesized that PTCC and liver biopsy effectively exclude BA, thus avoiding unnecessary IOC. Retrospective review of cholestatic infants who underwent PTCC, biopsy or cholescintigraphy at a tertiary children's hospital from August 1998 to January 2009. Group differences were evaluated and the receiver operator curve and safety of PTCC determined. One-hundred twenty-eight cholestatic infants were reviewed. Forty-six (36%) underwent PTCC. Forty-one out of 46 (89%) had simultaneous PTCC and liver biopsy. PTCC was completed successfully in 19/23 (83%) children despite a small or absent GB on initial US. Negative laparotomy rate was 1/6 (17%) for simultaneous PTCC/liver biopsy. Complications occurred in 4/46 including bleeding (n=2), fever with elevated transaminases (n=1) and oxygen desaturations (n=1).","yes. PLSVC is a rare congenital vascular abnormality. Besides its association with congenital anomalies, its most relevant clinical implication is the association with disturbances of cardiac rhythm, impulse formation and conduction. The ontogenetic development of the sinus node, the atrioventricular node, and the His bundle might be heavily influenced by the lack of regression of the left cardinal vein. When isolated, the PLSVC is usually not recognized until left superior approach to the heart is required, when it becomes a relevant anatomic finding. In fact, it can complicate the positioning of left-sided pacemaker and cardioverter-defibrillator leads. In patients with poor handling through the coronary sinus, a right approach is recommended after visualization of a right superior vena cava entering the right atrium by echocardiography or contrast venography since its absence or hypoplasia (which is reported in 10% of the cases with PLSVC) may represent a major obstacle and would suggest an epicardial implantation.","yes. Temporal bone venous abnormalities are a common feature in CHARGE syndrome. The pattern of venous abnormality suggests that there is a failure of the sigmoid sinus/jugular bulb to fully develop, resulting in persistence of emissary veins. Recognition of these abnormal venous structures during otologic surgery is critical to avoiding potentially catastrophic bleeding.","Despite lack of consensus criteria, biliary dyskinesia (BD) is an increasingly accepted pediatric diagnosis. We compared patient characteristics, outcomes, and resource utilization (before and after surgery) between children with BD and symptomatic cholecystolithiasis (LITH). Data from the electronic medical record were abstracted for children diagnosed with BD or LITH between December 1, 2002, and November 30, 2012, at Children's Hospital of Pittsburgh. Four hundred and ten patients were identified (BD: 213 patients 197 patients). Patients with BD had significantly lower BMI, longer symptom duration, more dyspeptic symptoms, and were more likely to present with other symptoms. Forty-one patients (13.8%) with BD underwent cholecystectomy despite a normal gallbladder ejection fraction (GB-EF). In 32 of these, sincalide triggered pain compared to 75 of the 155 patients with low GB-EF. After surgery, patients with BD more commonly visited gastroenterology clinics and had more GI-related hospitalizations, while emergency room visits decreased in both groups. Only the nature of biliary disease independently predicted continuing pain after surgery, which in turn was the best predictor for higher resource utilization after cholecystectomy.","To determine whether children with prenatally diagnosed mild pyelectasis have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Case-control study in children with pyelectasis (anteroposterior diameter of the fetal renal pelvis of 5-10 mm). A validated questionnaire was sent to the parents of 208 cases and 416 matched controls. The questionnaire was returned by 146 cases and 250 controls. There was a male predominance in the case group (p = < 0.0001). There was no difference in voiding habits or in prevalence of urinary tract infections (UTI). The prevalence of UTI was high: 11.6% in cases and 10.0% in controls. The only difference was a higher prevalence of constipation in the case group (p = 0.003). Postnatally, 41 children had an ultrasound examination and 16 were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had persisting pyelectasis, 3 had a recurrent UTI and 1 required surgery (a pyeloplasty). Four of the controls were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had recurrent UTI and 1 had urinary incontinence.","This study aimed to investigate the clinical predictors of unfavorable prognosis in patients with venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism. An extensive review of English literature was performed to obtain reports on cerebral air embolism published between January 1982 and July 2014 through PubMed, Journal at Ovid, and Web of Science using the Mesh terms and keywords \"cerebral air embolism\" and \"cerebral gas embolism.\" Reports not fulfilling the diagnosis of cerebral air embolism and iterant articles were excluded. Demographics, clinical manifestations, and imaging findings were recorded. The air distribution on initial brain computed tomography (CT) was recorded as gyriform air (GF), cavernous sinus bubble, venous sinus bubble, and parenchymal and subarachnoid bubble. The enrolled subjects were further divided into favorable and unfavorable outcome groups for analyses. Of the 33 cases enrolled, 31 had documented follow-up outcomes, including 14 with favorable and 17 with unfavorable prognoses. Patients with unfavorable outcome had older onset age (67.5 ± 15.8 versus 46.7 ± 17.0 years, P < .001), higher frequency of GF on brain CT (58.8% versus 0%, P < .01), initial consciousness disturbance (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), and hemiparesis (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), but lower frequency of cardiopulmonary symptoms (5.9% versus 64.3%, P < .01). In patients with central venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism, the retrograde mechanism had a tendency for worse outcomes (43.8% versus 0%, P = .023).","The aim of the study was to investigate the etiology, clinical presentation, and risk factors for poor prognosis of acute acalculous cholecystitis (AAC) in children. Children younger than 18 years diagnosed as having AAC were analyzed retrospectively from 2000 to 2009. The demographic and clinical characteristics, etiology, and outcomes were recorded. AAC was defined as a gallbladder wall thickness of >3.5 mm in sonogram with a duration of symptoms <1 month. The severity of sonographic findings was scored, with 1 point each given for wall thickness >3.5 mm, gallbladder distention, sludge, and pericholecystic fluid. A total of 109 children (boys:girls 1:2, median age 4.9 years) were diagnosed. The most common clinical presentation was fever (88%), followed by hepatomegaly (72%). The rates of elevated alanine aminotransferase and thrombocytopenia were 72% and 65%, respectively. The most common causative etiology was infectious diseases (74%). All of the patients were treated nonoperatively. Sixteen (15%) patients died. Children with mortality had a significantly higher rate of septic shock (P < 0.001), anemia (P = 0.01), thrombocytopenia (P = 0.04), hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.002), the presence of pericholecystic fluid (P = 0.04), and higher sonographic scores (P = 0.04) than those with survival. Multiple logistic regression analysis confirmed that the presence of septic shock (P = 0.004) and hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.014) were independent risk factors that predict mortality.","Ultra sound colored duplex sonography is the preferred method in diagnosing chronic venous disease. Data in children on incidence, indications, and results are lacking. From the total of 9180 duplex investigations performed in our hospital from 2009 to 2012, data on indication and results of the investigation as well as patient characteristics were evaluated retrospectively for the proportion of pediatric patients. Duplex investigations were performed 49 times in 38 children (6-18 years), with an average of 1.3 times (1-6 times) per child. Forty percent showed abnormalities: 17 times deep venous thrombosis was suspected; deep venous thrombosis was objectified in 18%. In the 21 investigations performed for varicosis-related complaints, varicose veins or venous malformations were objectified in 57%. Edema was never a symptom of chronic venous disease.","yes. Severely affected neonates with CDH have significantly smaller right internal jugular veins than other neonates. If the patient needs ECMO and if the internal jugular vein is too small for cannulation, the right brachiocephalic vein can be successfully cannulated from the neck instead.","yes. Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood is now diagnosed less frequently in our institution than in the last two decades. Although the aetiology remains largely unknown, it is possible that changes in causative environmental factors contribute to making TEC a rare disease. Clinicians need to be aware of TEC in order to prevent unnecessary diagnostic and therapeutic measurements.","Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram in the otic capsule at thin-section CT are prevalent among children younger than 3 years in the absence of clinical evidence of otosclerosis or osteogenesis imperfecta and appear in children up to 9 years old.","We report bronchoscopic changes observed in children with recurrent lower airways infections (RLAI) and findings in control children undergoing bronchoscopy for causes other than RLAI. Retrospective case-control cohorts study. The clinical records of children who had fiberoptic bronchoscopy (FB) for a history of RLAI without any known underlying disorder between 2007 and 2013 and of control children who required FB for other causes were reviewed. Clinical features, bronchospic findings and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) results were assessed. Cases were 62 (32 female) children aged 5 years (1-12) and controls 29 children aged 4.5 years (0.5-14). Airway malacia was observed in 32 (52%) vs. 4 (13%) (p = 0.001), profuse respiratory secretions in 34(55%) vs. 6 (20%) (p = 0.007). Endobronchial obstruction: 4 (6.4%) and tracheobronchomegaly were observed only in cases. In cases with profuse respiratory secretions there was a higher prevalence of airways malacia: 64.7% vs. 35.7% (p = 0.04) and of positive BAL cultures: 45.5% vs. 13.3% (p = 0.04). Isolated organisms in cases were non-typable Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae most frequently. Pneumocystiis jirovecii, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus mitis were isolated in controls.","no. In a large teaching hospital system, the overall rate of clinically relevant complications detected on chest radiographs following ultrasound-guided right internal jugular vein catheterization is exceedingly low. Routine chest radiograph after this common procedure is an unnecessary use of resources and may delay resuscitation of critically ill patients.","Children with ureteropelvic junction obstruction and CV received a delayed surgical treatment and showed a greater reduction in differential renal function preoperatively, in contrast to patients without CV. Our data show that CV is a risk factor for deterioration of renal function in children with hydronephrosis and we advocate for an early pyeloplasty in these children, especially if they have a high-grade dilatation and equivocal washout patterns in diuretic renographies. Further prospective studies are necessary in order to understand the natural history of CV and to reveal the importance of the crossing lower pole vessel as a structural anomaly lacking maturation.","yes. A high frequency of ICH due to late VKDB was reported in Egyptian infants aged two to 24 weeks, with poorer outcomes than international studies. A national survey is required to evaluate the timing and protective value of a second booster vitamin K dose to reduce ICH, especially in high-risk patients in this age group.","A pull-back tube esophagogram (PBTE) is widely accepted in the literature as the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. However, PBTE is rarely performed in our institution, as we have been successful in confirming the presence of such fistulae with a contrast material swallow (CS). We hypothesized that PBTE is not the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of the fistula in this condition. We sought to determine what proportion of patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia can be diagnosed promptly by a CS and what the indications are for a PBTE. We retrospectively analyzed the clinical and radiological findings in patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia to determine whether the fistula was diagnosed with a CS or PBTE. We identified 20 children (13 female and 7 male) with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. Their age at diagnosis ranged from 3 days to 168 months with a median of 9 days. The diagnosis was documented by CS in 12, PBTE in 7 and CT in 1. In three of the seven who had the fistula documented by PBTE, a previous CS had shown contrast material in the trachea, but no fistulous tract or aspiration was identified.","Catheterisation of the internal jugular vein (IJV) can be difficult in infants. We aimed to evaluate whether a simple manoeuvre, a slight caudo-lateral traction of the ipsilateral arm (CLTIA), could decrease the head rotation-induced overlap of the IJV to the carotid artery (CA) in infants. Twenty-five infants were included. The patients were placed in the 10° Trendelenburg position with a shoulder roll. On both sides of the neck, ultrasound images were obtained in a transverse orientation before and after the CLTIA at 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation, respectively. On each image, CA overlap was calculated as follows: CA overlap (%) = (overlap distance/CA diameter) × 100. The CLTIA decreased CA overlap (%) in 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation on the right side of the neck [14 (interquartile range, IQR 0-32) to 0 (IQR 0-14), 24 (IQR 0-46) to 0 (IQR 0-33), and 31 (IQR 12-58) to 23 (IQR 0-34); all P < 0.01] and on the left [29 (IQR 7-61) to 19 (IQR 0-44), 40 (IQR 21-65) to 31 (IQR 0-46), and 44 (IQR 29-97) to 33 (IQR 14-69); all P < 0.01], respectively.","no. Children with a mild fetal pyelectasis do not have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Therefore, there seems to be no need for additional investigation after birth.","The Rex shunt should be considered in the treatment of children with idiopathic EHPVT experiencing repeated gastrointestinal bleeding episodes refractory to endoscopic treatment. Nevertheless, the role of this operation for children with post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT is yet to be clearly evaluated.","The practice of administering intravenous contrast to children varies by institution depending on their routine. To assess the necessity of routine contrast administration in brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of pediatric outpatients referred for chronic headache workups. We conducted a retrospective review of consecutive pediatric brain MRI examinations performed during January and February 2014 in 30 pediatric outpatients referred for evaluation of chronic headache. Independent review was performed by two board-certified neuroradiologists. The raters reviewed each MRI first as a non-contrast examination (without seeing the post-contrast images) and then with post-contrast images. No abnormalities were found in six patients. One patient had an indeterminate finding of a tubular cerebellar lesion requiring follow-up. In the remaining patients (n = 23), the findings were subclinical and included: mucosal thickening in the paranasal sinuses in 9 patients, cystic changes of the pineal gland in 8 (size 2-9 mm), small developmental venous anomalies in 6, non-specific FLAIR hyperintensities in 4, opacification of the mastoids in 2, and telangiectasia in 1 patient. The subclinical cases that were missed on pre-contrast images were: one small developmental venous anomaly, one telangiectasia and one small pineal cyst, none of which hold clinical significance. All kappa inter-rater and intra-rater agreement scores resulted in values above 0.75, excellent agreement according to Fleiss guidelines.","A large percentage of children with BD did not meet the adult diagnostic standards. Compared to those with LITH, children with BD have more widespread symptoms and continue to use more clinical resources after surgery. These findings suggest that despite its benign prognosis, BD is increasingly treated like other potentially acute gallbladder diseases, although it has the typical phenotype of FGIDs and should be treated using approaches used in such disorders.","Extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT) is an important cause of portal hypertension in children. Rex shunt has been used successfully to treat these patients. We report our experience in 19 infants and children (5 months to 14 years) with HPVT eligible for a mesenteric-portal surgical shunt with left internal jugular vein autograft. Eight children had idiopathic EHPVT, nine had post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT, one had portal vein agenesis, and one had posttransplant EHPVT. It was possible to perform the Rex shunt in all patients except for 8 of 9 cases in the post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT group. A Warren procedure was performed in 4 of those patients and a proximal splenorenal shunt in 1. Current follow-up ranges from 3 to 26 months. Shunt thrombosis occurred in one patient with portal vein agenesis and associated cardiac anomaly. Portal hypertension has significantly improved after surgery. None of our patients have experienced new bleeding episodes until now.","To evaluate the prevalence of localized hypoattenuating areas in the cochlear otic capsule at temporal-bone thin-section computed tomography (CT) in pediatric patients and correlate the findings with clinical information. Temporal-bone thin-section CT images obtained in 73 patients aged 0-9 years (20 Austrian, 53 Finnish; 36 female and 37 male patients) were evaluated for the presence of localized hypoattenuating foci in the region of the fissula ante fenestram of the otic capsule. Clinical information collected for all patients was also evaluated. The data were analyzed with a logistic regression model. Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram were observed in 23 of 73 patients (32%). Hypoattenuating foci were substantially more prevalent in patients younger than 3 years than in those 3 years or older (odds ratio, 0.14; 95% CI: 0.04, 0.52; P =.001). The prevalence did not differ between sexes or according to clinical diagnosis. Only three of the 23 patients with hypoattenuating foci had clinical findings suggestive of otosclerosis, and none had osteogenesis imperfecta. After adjustment for age and sex, the finding was more prevalent among the Finnish patients (odds ratio, 5.4; 95% CI: 1.19, 24.52; P =.02) than among the Austrian patients.","The JHTS is a relatively rare phenomenon, seen in approximately 2.5% of all children seen at the emergency department with mild brain injury. This study demonstrates a significant relationship between the JHTS and a positive history of migraine in first-degree relatives.","The effect of portal flow deprivation to the liver on bile composition and the biliary system remains undefined in children. This report catalogues the authors' experience with biliary tract problems in children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT). Twenty-nine children with symptomatic idiopathic EHPVT were evaluated for the Rex shunt procedure (mesenterico-left portal bypass) over a 4-year period. The authors retrospectively reviewed all operative reports and pre- and postoperative abdominal ultrasound findings with regard to associated congenital anomalies and abnormal biliary tract findings. Seven of the 29 patients with EHPVT (24%) had associated nonbiliary congenital abnormalities. Twenty-four of 29 (83%) patients had detectable biliary tract pathology by ultrasound examination. Biliary symptoms developed in 3 of the 9 (33%) patients with either stones or sludge (10.3% of all patients). Two patients were treated by cholecystectomy. There was no statistical correlation between biliary tract pathology and the age of presentation, symptoms of portal hypertension, gender, or underlying medical condition.","Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo of Childhood (BPVC) is a common cause of vertigo in children and it is characterized by recurrent attacks of vertigo without warning resolving spontaneously after minutes to hours. It has been considered the equivalent of migraine in childhood. Twenty-seven patients diagnosed with BPVC were recruited between 1991 and 1997 with a follow up of at least 15 years. The incidence of migraine, inner ear disorders and family medical history is analyzed. The average age for the onset of the attacks of BPVC was 3 years and 11 months, and for spontaneous resolution, it was around 5 years and 7 months. The average age for follow up was 18 years. Nine patients developed migraine during adulthood. Nineteen of them had a family history of migraine.","Congenital cartilaginous rests of the neck (wattles) are very rare, probably branchiogenic malformations. To discuss the clinical and histologic features and the therapy of wattles. We report a 4-year-old patient with symmetric exophytic nodules of the neck that had been present since birth. The two lesions, 0.5 3 0.5 cm, were removed. The histopathologic examination confirmed ectopic cartilaginous tissue.","Duplex investigation is not often performed in children. In children with established deep venous thrombosis, a family history with deep venous thrombosis is common. In general, edema was not seen in children with varicose veins and, therefore, does not seem a reliable clinical sign at young age.","Radiologists are taught that pyogenic osteomyelitis in children rarely crosses the growth plate because terminal vessels of nutrient arteries loop at the physis, predisposing the metaphysis to hematogenous infection. However, we note that MRI frequently shows osteomyelitis involving both sides of the physis. The purpose of this article is to document our observation that pyogenic osteomyelitis crosses the growth plate more frequently in the pediatric patient population than is classically taught. All pediatric patients (age, 2-16 years) with clinically suspected osteomyelitis from 2004 to 2009 were reviewed for transphyseal disease on a consensus basis. To reveal the statistical significance, we applied a z test to our results. We quantified rare as 20% or less and used a z test to determine whether 27 of 32 (81%) differed from rare. Of 32 subjects, 81% showed transphyseal infection. In our study, the z test revealed that transphyseal infection occurred significantly more often than what would be considered rare (z = 4.75, p < 0.01).","yes. The finding of a midline neck mass is the most common presentation of TGDCs in toddlers, whereas infection is the most common presenting symptoms in school-aged children. The incidence of preoperative infection was 41% in our series, much higher than previously reported. Independent of presenting age and symptomatology, recurrence of TGDC remains low when the Sistrunk procedure is employed.","Our experience suggests that PFAPA syndrome is an uncommon disease. Most of these children have undergone workup(s) for sepsis performed by their pediatricians because of the associated high fever. The clinical history of this cohort was quite distinctive. This small sample suggests a significant decrease if not cessation of pharyngitis following surgical intervention.","Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results.","Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was."],"string":"[\n \"Lumbar spondylolysis, a unilateral or bilateral fracture at pars interarticularis, is a common cause of low back pain in children. The initial imaging study in the diagnosis of lumbar spondylolysis has historically been lumbar spine radiographs; however, radiographs can be equivocal or false-negative. Definitive diagnosis can be achieved with computed tomography (CT), but its use has been limited due to the dose of ionizing radiation to the patient. By limiting the z-axis coverage to the relevant anatomy and optimizing the CT protocol, we are able to provide a definitive diagnosis of fractures of the pars interarticularis at comparable or lower radiation dose than commonly performed lumbar spine radiographs. As there is no gold standard for the diagnosis of spondylolysis besides surgery, we compared interobserver agreement and degree of confidence to determine which modality is preferable. Sixty-two patients with low back pain ages 5-18 years were assessed for the presence of spondylolyis. Forty-seven patients were evaluated by radiography and 15 patients were evaluated by limited field-of-view CT. Both radiographic and CT examinations were assessed anonymously in random order for the presence or absence of spondylolyisis by six raters. Agreement was assessed among raters using a Fleiss Kappa statistic for multiple raters. CT provided a significantly higher level of agreement among raters than radiographs (P < 0.001). The overall Kappa for rater agreement with radiographs was 0.24, 0.34 and 0.40 for 2, 3 or 4 views, respectively, and 0.88 with CT.\",\n \"To determine the incidence of skull fracture (SF) and intracranial injury (ICA) among children younger than 2 years evaluated in a pediatric emergency department for head trauma; whether historical features and/or physical findings are predictive of injury type; and whether clinical criteria could allow a selective approach to radiographic imaging. Retrospective medical record review. Tertiary pediatric emergency department. Case series of 278 children aged younger than 24 months evaluated for head injury. Presence of SF and/or ICA. Diagnoses at discharge included 227 minor head injuries, 39 isolated SF, 9 ICA with SF, and 3 isolated ICA. Children younger than 12 months had the highest incidence of SF/ICA (29%) vs 4% for children aged 13 to 24 months (P<.001). Seven percent of complications from SF/ICA resulted from falls 3 ft (0.9 m) or less [corrected]. Incidence of behavioral change, loss of consciousness, emesis, and seizures did not differ significantly between those with minor head injuries and those with SF/ICA. Scalp abnormalities were more common in children with SF/ICA (P<.001). Sixty-two percent of children with isolated SF and 58% of children with ICA had no history of loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, or behavioral change. Ninety-two percent of children with isolated SF and 75% of children with ICA had normal levels of consciousness and nonfocal neurologic examinations at diagnosis. Among children who fell 3 ft or less (0.9 m) [corrected] and had no loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, behavioral change, or scalp abnormality, none of 31 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0-0.10) children younger than 24 months and none of 20 (95% CI, 0-0.15) children younger than 12 months had SF/ICA.\",\n \"The long term outcome of infants and children with right atrial isomerism in association with a normal pulmonary venous drainage remains unfavourable. Sepsis and sudden death that may potentially be related to cardiac arrhythmia are major causes of late mortality.\",\n \"PNET of the kidney appears to be a distinct entity. Although rare, it must be included in the differential diagnosis of renal tumors in children and young adults. Patients usually present with advanced disease and show poor response to combined-modality therapy.\",\n \"To examine the clinical utility of noncontrast-enhanced computed tomography (NCCT) in pediatric patients with urolithiasis who progressed to surgery. Although NCCT is routine for the evaluation of adult patients with suspected urolithiasis, its routine use in the pediatric population is tempered by concern about radiation exposure. We conducted a retrospective chart review of all pediatric patients who had undergone surgery for urinary stones from 2003 to 2008 at our institution. The imaging modalities used, surgery type, stone composition, 24-hour urinalyses, and relevant predisposing conditions were characterized. A total of 42 pediatric patients (24 males and 18 females) were treated during the 6-year period. The average age was 11.3±5.3 years (range 2.7-25.4), and the most common treatment modalities were shock wave lithotripsy (28%) and ureteroscopy (22%). A discernible risk factor or cause of urolithiasis was absent in 21 patients (47%). A review of imaging studies found 38 with stones visible on ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. A total of 21 patients underwent NCCT, in addition to ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. Of these, only 5 patients required NCCT for the diagnosis or management of their stone.\",\n \"DEFB in children status post-NF is unusual with an incidence 1.72% of our patients. Our review might be underestimating the incidence as translucent foreign bodies may have been missed. DEFB are surprising due to the fact that most of these children are neurologically impaired and gastrostomy-tube fed. The children's NPO status may also result in these DEFB remaining asymptomatic until being 'incidentally' found on radiographic imaging. Thus, NF may predispose to obstruction when a foreign body (FB) is ingested; but because of the population involved, this remains a fairly unusual entity. However, the presence of a DEFB in this population may necessitate prompt endoscopic retrieval as the likelihood of spontaneous passage is less.\",\n \"A clinical entity consisting of periodic fever associated with aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis and cervical adenitis termed \\\"PFAPA syndrome\\\" in young children (<5 years old) may be unfamiliar to otolaryngologists. We present our 5-year experience of PFAPA syndrome. Case series. Tertiary academic. A 5-year retrospective chart review for children (<5 years old) who have undergone tonsillectomies with and without adenoidectomies was conducted. Medical records from subjects who underwent the procedures for recurrent pharyngitis were reviewed with reference to a history of periodic fever and stomatitis associated with pharyngitis. Tonsillectomy with and without adenoidectomy. The objective measure was a comparison of the number of visits to the primary care physician for pharyngitis associated with fever in a 3-month period before and after the surgical intervention. The subjective measure was a telephone interview evaluating preoperative and postoperative symptoms. Of the 117 patients identified, 22 (19%) underwent surgery for recurrent pharyngitis. Five subjects (average age, 2.5 years) were identified as having PFAPA syndrome. The average number of preoperative PFAPA-related complaints was 11.6 compared with 0.2 for the number of postoperative PFAPA-related complaints (P=.03).\",\n \"Previous studies have suggested that the sum of Attention, Aggression, and Anxious/Depressed subscales of Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL-PBD; pediatric bipolar disorder phenotype) may be specific to pediatric bipolar disorder (BP). The purpose of this study was to evaluate the usefulness of the CBCL and CBCL-PBD to identify BP in children <12 years old. A sample of children with BP I, II, and not otherwise specified (NOS) (n = 157) ascertained through the Course and Outcome for Bipolar Disorder in Youth (COBY) study were compared with a group of children with major depressive/anxiety disorders (MDD/ANX; n = 101), disruptive behavior disorder (DBD) (n = 127), and healthy control (HC) (n = 128). The CBCL T-scores and area under the curve (AUC) scores were calculated and compared among the above-noted groups. Forty one percent of BP children did not have significantly elevated CBCL-PBD scores (>or=2 standard deviations [SD]). The sensitivity and specificity of CBCL-PBD >or= 2 SD for diagnosis of BP was 57% and 70-77%, respectively, and the accuracy of CBCL-PBD for identifying a BP diagnosis was moderate (AUC = 0.72-0.78).\",\n \"We describe three neonates who presented around the tenth day of life with multiple bilateral fluctuating cold abscesses situated in the lymph node areas, with secondary fistulation but without associated fever or general symptoms. In all cases, Staphylococcus aureus was found in the abscesses and the umbilicus with similar antibiograms. The evolution was good and the children remained in good health afterwards.\",\n \"In experienced hands, internal jugular venous catheterization is a safe procedure. However, the incidence of axillary vein or right atrial catheter malposition is 14%, and clinical factors alone will not reliably identify malpositioned catheters. Chest radiographs are necessary to ensure correct internal jugular catheter position.\",\n \"This study aimed to determine the spectrum of temporal bone computed tomography (CT) abnormalities in children with conductive hearing loss (CHL) with and without microtia. From 1993 to 2008, a total of 3396 pediatric records including CHL were reviewed at our institution and revealed 180 cases of persistent CHL, 46 of whom had diagnostic temporal bone CT examinations. All of these examinations were systematically reviewed by two pediatric neuroradiologists, working in consensus, who had 5 and 18 years, respectively, of dedicated pediatric neuroradiology experience. Of the 46 children, 16 were boys and 30 were girls (age: 0.2-16 years; mean: 5 years). Also, 21 (46%) children had microtia and 25 (54%) children did not, as determined by clinical evaluation. External auditory canal atresia/stenosis (EAC-A/S) was the most common anomaly in both microtia and non-microtia groups. Two or more anomalies were observed in 18/21 children with microtia. The frequency of EAC-A/S was greater in children with microtia versus those without it (86% versus 32%, respectively; P = 0.0003). Syndromic diagnoses were also significantly more frequently made in children with microtia versus those without microtia (76% versus 20%, respectively; P = 0.0001). Temporal bone CT scans were normal in 10 children (22%) with persistent CHL.\",\n \"The number of complications encountered in children who had central venous access of the subclavian vein or internal jugular central vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy was infrequent, the number of misplaced catheters was minimized with intraoperative fluoroscopy, and all children with pulmonary complications showed clinical signs suggestive of pulmonary complications before postoperative chest x-ray. Therefore, children who have had central venous access of the subclavian and internal jugular vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy do not appear to require a routine chest x-ray after catheter placement unless clinical suspicion of a complication exists.\",\n \"Pediatric neck infections are frequently treated by Otolaryngologists, Head and Neck surgeons. The relative role of medical versus surgical treatment of pediatric neck infections is debated. The aims of this study are to analyze the management of pediatric neck infections with respect to clinical assessment, radiological assessment and treatment. Medical records from January 1999 to June 2005 were reviewed and analyzed. Two hundred and five children with lateral neck infections were included in the study. The clinical diagnosis correlated with the radiology finding in 73.6% with a sensitivity of 28% and a specificity of 92% for lateral neck abscess recognition. The ultrasound finding correlated with the surgical finding in 65.2% with a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 33%. When an ultrasound scan was used it changed the intended treatment plan in 10.5% of children.\",\n \"Pyelectasis is a benign condition. Only 2 patients required pharmacological intervention (prophylactic treatment for VUR Grade IV patients). Initially at least, cystography should not be indicated in cases of microalbuminuria and/or normal urine concentrations.\",\n \"Septic thrombosis of the sigmoid and lateral sinus is a rare complication of acute otitis media, mastoiditis and cholesteatoma. Hence, the aim of this chat review was to analyze the demographics, presenting symptoms, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of otogenic sigmoid sinus thrombosis. Especially the role of low molecular weight heparin in the therapy of septic intracranial sinus thrombosis in children should be illuminated. A retrospective chart review was performed. Six patients were included in this trial. One patient was treated completely conservatively. All other patients underwent surgical treatment consisting of mastoidectomy (n=5), additional thrombectomy (n=3) and ligation of the internal jugular vein (n=2). All patients received intravenous antibiotics and anticoagulants. Unfractionated heparin was administered for three days after surgery followed by an anticoagulant therapy with low-molecular weight heparin for three months. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and the anti-factor-Xa-plasma-levels were monitored during anticoagulation in short term intervals. There were no complications related to the anticoagulant therapy. Recanalization was found in all patients who were treated without thrombectomy or ligation of the internal jugular vein and in the case of complete conservative treatment.\",\n \"Ultrasound is increasingly used to facilitate right internal jugular vein (RIJV) cannulation in children. In children without cardiac disease, position changes and enhancement maneuvers increase RIJV cross-sectional area (CSA) and further facilitate cannulation. We investigated the effect of these maneuvers on RIJV CSA in children with a bidirectional Glenn (BDG) shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure. The CSA (cm(2)) of the RIJV in 21 children with a BDG shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure was assessed by ultrasonic planimetry (SonoSite). Two positions, supine (S) and 15 degrees Trendelenburg (T); and two enhancements maneuvers, manual liver compression (L) and a simulated Valsalva maneuver (V) were utilized in combination. Eight separate measurements (S, S + L, S + V, S + L + V, T, T + L, T + V, T + L + V) were made in each patient. Data were analyzed using one-way analysis of variance with repeated measures and with Tukey post hoc pairwise comparison analysis. No significant change in the RIJV CSA or % change in CSA from baseline (S) was observed.\",\n \"Biliary dyskinesia is a common diagnosis that frequently results in cholecystectomy. In adults, most clinicians use a cut off value for the gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF) of <35% to define the disease. This disorder is not well characterized in children. Our aim was to determine the relation between GBEF and gallbladder pathology using a large statewide medical record repository. We obtained records from all patients of 21 years and younger who underwent hepatic iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) testing within the Indiana Network for Patient Care from 2004 to 2013. GBEF results were obtained from radiology reports using data mining techniques. Age, sex, race, and insurance status were obtained for each patient. Any gallbladder pathology obtained subsequent to an HIDA scan was also obtained and parsed for mention of cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis. We performed mixed effects logistic regression analysis to determine the influence of age, sex, race, insurance status, pathologist, and GBEF on the presence of these histologic findings. Two thousand eight hundred forty-one HIDA scans on 2558 patients were found. Of these, 310 patients had a full-text gallbladder pathology report paired with the HIDA scan. GBEF did not correlate with the presence of gallbladder pathology (cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis) when controlling for age, sex, race, insurance status, and pathologist using a mixed effects model.\",\n \"yes. Transcatheter occlusion of L-R shunts can be performed safely and effectively in children with BPD. Further studies may clarify the role of such therapy in improvement in respiratory physiology over time.\",\n \"To study the changing pattern in the use of intravenous urogram (IVU) and non-contrast enhanced CT (CTKUB) for evaluation of flank pain at a single centre. All patients who underwent either an IVU or CTKUB at a single, tertiary care center from January 2002 to December 2007 were retrospectively identified from the radiology database. Study samples were-divided into two groups: Pediatric (14 years or less) and Adult (greater than 14 years). For each group, overall trends as well as trends across referral setting and gender were explored by plotting line graphs using SPSS version 15. During the study period a total of 11245 uro-radiological examinations were performed using either IVU (43.7%, n=4915) or CTKUB (56.3%, n=6330). A remarkable majority of procedures (95.5%, n=10741) was performed in adult patients. Overall, the respective proportions of IVU and CTKUB were 87.9% (n=43) and 12.1% (n=61) in the pediatric group whereas 41.6% (n=4472) and 58.4% (n=6269) in adults. Majority in both groups were ambulatory patients (Pediatrics 83.7%, Adults 76.7%). During 2002-20007, the yearly proportion of CTKUB increased from 27% to 80% in adults and from 3% to 27% in children.\",\n \"Information about portal hypertension (PHT) in children is meagre. We therefore studied the spectrum and outcome of PHT in children (/=5 years of age. Recurrence rate after the Sistrunk procedure was 3.4%.\",\n \"yes. Using a simple technique, ultrasound identifies the dominant internal jugular vein, thus indicating the safer side before blind catheterization.\",\n \"Fewer than 40% of primary spontaneous pneumothorax patients are definitively treated with nonoperative management. A prospective study is needed to determine whether primary surgery with blebectomy/mechanical pleurodesis is a more effective treatment strategy.\",\n \"Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that affects mainly young adults, but can occur also in children and adolescents. The pathogenesis of MS is still not fully understood and chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency (CCSVI) was suggested to be implicated in MS. Although there is no strong evidence to support this hypothesis, a considerable number of MS patients, including adolescents, have undergone endovascular treatment procedures. The aim of this study was the evaluate the prevalence of extracranial venous system anomalies in children and adolescents with multiple sclerosis in comparison to age-matched controls. Twenty-one children with clinically definite diagnosis of MS (mean age 13.8 years), and 19 age-matched controls (mean age 12.5 years) were investigated using 1.5 T scanner with coronal 3D contrast-enhanced coronal venography. The diameters of internal jugular veins (IJV) at both sides of the neck were estimated separately, from the level C1 to Th1. Anomalies of the extracranial venous system were found in 10 MS patients (47.6%) and 13 controls (68.4%). Normal anatomy of extracranial veins was recognized in 11 MS patients (53%) and 6 controls (31%). Comparison of the measurement results for MS patients and the control group revealed that there are no significant statistical differences in cross-section areas for a given level.\",\n \"There are no widely accepted guidelines for management of pediatric patients who have evidence of solid organ contrast extravasation (\\\"blush\\\") on computed tomography (CT) scans following blunt abdominal trauma. We report our experience as a Level 1 pediatric trauma center in managing cases with hepatic and splenic blush. All pediatric blunt abdominal trauma cases resulting in liver or splenic injury were queried from 2008 to 2014. Patients were excluded if a CT was unavailable in the medical record. The presence of contrast blush was based on final reports from attending pediatric radiologists. Correlations between incidence of contrast blush and major outcomes of interest were determined using χ and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests for categorical and continuous variables, respectively, evaluating statistical significance at p<0.05. Of 318 patients with splenic or liver injury after blunt abdominal trauma, we report on 30 patients (9%) with solid organ blush, resulting in 18 cases of hepatic blush and 16 cases of splenic blush (four patients had extravasation from both organs). Blush was not found to correlate significantly with age, gender, or type of injury (liver vs. splenic) but was found to associate with higher grades of solid organ injury (p = 0.002) and higher ISS overall (p<0.001). Patients with contrast blush on imaging were more likely to be admitted to the intensive care unit (90% vs. 41%, p<0.001), receive blood products, (50% vs. 12%, p<0.001), and be considered for an intervention (p<0.001). Eighty percent of patients with an isolated contrast blush of the spleen or liver did not require an operation. Only 17% of patients with blush required definitive treatment, such as embolization (n = 1), packing (n = 1), or splenectomy (n = 3). Blush had no significant correlation with overall survival (p = 0.13).\",\n \"yes. Averaged cerebral and renal rSO(2) less than 65% as measured by NIRS predicts hyperlactatemia (>3 mmol/L) in acyanotic children after congenital heart surgery. Hence, this noninvasive, continuous monitoring tool may facilitate the identification of global hypoperfusion caused by low cardiac output syndrome in this population.\",\n \"no. We found no evidence to suggest that MS children and adolescents have more extracranial veins anomalies than healthy patients. Considering the risk of such treatment, endovascular interventions should be discourage.\",\n \"Mild bleeding disorders (BD) such as von Willebrand disease (VWD) type I are often difficult to diagnose because of inconclusive laboratory results. Our study examines the diagnostic value of repeated testing. Prospective study on 200 children. Extensive laboratory testing was done twice and a standardized history was taken. 165 patients completed the study (median age 5.6 years). Main reason for referral was aPTT prolongation (n = 109). The initial diagnosis was upheld in 74/165 (44.8%) children. Of 18 patients rated normal, 8 had to be reclassified as possible VWD later. Ten patients were diagnosed VWD I. In 36 patients possible VWD was found, 13 of these had normal results at the second visit while in 6 VWD became more likely. The main diagnosis was lupus-anticoagulant (n=79), normalizing in 24. A total of 88 children underwent surgery during the study period.\",\n \"To establish the frequency of large visible bubbles or collections of bubbles in the jugular vein during radical neck dissection in the supine position. Prospective observation by at least two investigators of random consecutive patients scheduled for radical neck surgery. Operating room suite in a university hospital specializing in head and neck cancer surgery. Twelve consecutive ASA physical status II and III patients undergoing modified radical dissection for cancer. General anesthesia with fentanyl, oxygen (O2) 30% to 40%, nitrous oxide (N2O) 60% to 70%, and isoflurane 0.5% to 1.5%, with mechanical ventilation. Table position horizontal. Modified radical neck dissections performed by attending surgeons. Surgical field (jugular vein) carefully observed by the surgeons and an independent anesthesiologist investigator for the presence of bubbles during the dissection. Easily visible bubbles were observed in the jugular veins of 42% (5 of 12) of the consecutive radical neck dissection patients studied. Some of the collections of bubbles were large (greater than 2.5 cm in diameter). In one case, the appearance and subsequent disappearance of bubbles was followed by a transient drop in arterial blood pressure (BP) and in end-tidal carbon dioxide (PETCO2), which was suggestive of a diagnosis of central venous air embolization.\",\n \"The purpose of the present study was to evaluate the incidence of epidural air associated with spontaneous pneumomediastinum in children. The subjects consisted of 25 boys and 17 girls with an age range of 3-14 years (mean age: 8.5 years) who underwent chest computed tomography (CT) for evaluation of spontaneous pneumomediastinum. The CT scans and medical records were reviewed retrospectively. Of the 42 patients, four (9.5%) had intraspinal air on CT. The air was interpreted as epidural in every patient. The small number of patients with epidural air meant that there was no significant difference in age, gender, or clinical manifestations between groups with and without epidural air. Subcutaneous emphysema was identified in all four patients with epidural air versus 18 out of 38 patients (47%) without epidural air. The patients with epidural air did not have any neurologic symptoms. Irrespective of the presence or absence of epidural air, every patient had a favorable outcome without any serious complications.\",\n \"Congenital hydronephrosis and isolated pyelectasis are frequently diagnosed by prenatal ultrasound. About 80% of cases resolve spontaneously in early childhood. Currently there is no agreed on protocol for prenatal followup. Most clinicians use a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm as a threshold for identifying isolated pyelectasis and hydronephrosis at 33 weeks of gestation or anteroposterior diameter greater than 7 mm at 40 weeks of gestation. We sought to determine a fetal renal pelvis diameter cutoff at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation that would be able to predict significant nephron uropathy requiring surgery. Our protocol included 2 prenatal ultrasounds at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation and 3 postnatal ultrasounds at ages 1, 6 and 12 months. Between January 2009 and December 2011 we evaluated 149 prenatal cases (130 males, 19 females) of isolated pyelectasis and 41 cases (28 males, 13 females) of hydronephrosis with a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm at 20 weeks of gestation. For isolated pyelectasis we identified cutoffs of 6 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 84.3% specificity) and 10 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 91.9% specificity). For hydronephrosis we identified cutoffs of 10 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 86.1% specificity) and 12 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 66.7% specificity).\",\n \"In our review of 503 consecutive children with meningitis, none were noted to have bacterial meningitis manifesting solely as a simple seizure. We suspect that this previously described entity is either extremely rare or nonexistent. Commonly taught decision rules requiring lumbar puncture in children with fever and a seizure appear to be unnecessarily restrictive.\",\n \"The demographic and technical data of all the pediatric caudal blocks (CBs) performed from August 1986 to September 1989 in our teaching hospital were prospectively collected on a computerized protocol. Except for 22 high-risk ex-premature infants, all CBs were performed under halothane or isoflurane anesthesia, after premedication with atropine. Moreover, they were performed using local anesthetic solutions containing 1:200,000 epinephrine. A total of 1100 CBs were performed in children younger than 7 years; 203 patients weighed 5 kg or less; 260, 5.1-10 kg; 300, 10.1-15 kg; and 337, more than 15.1 kg. The CBs were also analyzed according to the anesthesiologist's experience with CB: 184 were performed by anesthesiologists who had performed fewer than 10 CBs (Group A); 210, 10-20 CBs (Group B), and 704, more than 20 CBs (Group C). We found difficult landmarks in 11.2% of our patients. Moreover, it was significantly more frequent (p = 0.0004) if the patients weighed less than 10 kg, because of poor anatomy or obesity. There were 76 bloody taps (BTs, 6.9%); although there was a statistically insignificant trend toward a lower incidence of BTs in the 5.1-10-kg group, experience seemed to influence the incidence of BTs, as it decreased from 11.4% in Group A to 8.9% and 5.4% in Groups B and C, respectively (p less than 0.05). There were eight systemic reactions (i.e., brisk onset of tachycardia during or shortly after the CB), which were all short-lived and responded quickly to hyperventilation with oxygen. Two occurred despite repositioning the needle after a previous BT, but six occurred with no previous evidence of blood and were thus called \\\"concealed\\\" BTs. Moreover, all occurred in children weighing 10 kg or less. There was only one dural tap. Only nine CBs (0.81%) failed to provide effective intraoperative anesthesia, and 93% of the patients left the recovery room without having required narcotic or non-narcotic analgesics.\",\n \"Displaced paediatric supracondylar humeral fractures pose a significant risk of neurovascular injury and consequently have traditionally been treated as a surgical emergency. Recently, the need for emergency surgery has been questioned. We wished to analyse our experience at a large UK tertiary paediatric trauma centre. A retrospective case note review was performed on patients with Gartland Grades 2 and 3 supracondylar fractures observed in a 2-year period from July 2008 to July 2010. We divided children into those treated before 12 h (early surgery) and after 12 h (delayed surgery). Analysis was undertaken using Fisher's exact test. Of the 137 patients, 115 were included in the study; median time-to-surgery was 15:30 (range 2:45-62:50); thirty-nine children were treated before 12 h and 76 patients after. In the early surgery group, three children (7.7%) developed a superficial pin-site infection, four children (10.3%) required open reduction, five children (12.8%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (5%) required reoperation. In the delayed surgery group, one child (1.3%) had a superficial pin-site infection, four children (5.3%) required open reduction, seven children (9.2%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (2.6%) reoperation. Bivariate analysis of our data using Fisher's exact t test revealed no statistically significant difference between early and delayed surgery groups with regard to infection rates (p = 0.1), iatrogenic nerve injury (p = 0.53) or need for open reduction (p = 0.44).\",\n \"yes. Venous thromboembolism is rare in young critical care trauma patients, even older adolescents. The absence of published data on both the baseline risk of venous thromboembolism in pediatric critical care patients and the efficacy and safety of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis preclude the ability to make definitive recommendations for the use of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in this setting. Our results, however, suggest that venous thromboembolism prophylaxis may need to be considered only in critically injured adolescents and young adults with a continuing need for central venous access.\",\n \"yes. Despite slightly lower adverse outcomes, arterial surgery does not appear to confer a significant advantage over nonoperative treatment in pediatric patients with BBA injury. In patients younger than 6 years, both modalities appear to be equality effective.\",\n \"Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) has long been characterized by the triad of deafness, cataract, and cardiovascular malformations (CVMs). While initial reports identified patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) as the primary CVM in CRS, the exact nature of the CVMs found in CRS has not been well established. We searched the English literature from 1941 through 2008 to identify studies that used cardiac catheterization or echocardiography to evaluate the CVMs in CRS. Of the 121 patients in the 10 studies with catheterization data, 78% had branch pulmonary artery stenosis, and 62% had a PDA. In 49% of cases, both branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA were present, whereas isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis and isolated PDA were found in 29 and 13% of cases, respectively. Of the 12 patients in the 10 studies with echocardiographic data, PDA was more common than branch pulmonary artery stenosis, but this finding is greatly limited by the small numbers of patients and limitations of echocardiography. Although published studies of CVMs in CRS have in general reported PDA as the CVM phenotype most commonly associated with CRS, among CRS cases evaluated by catheterization, branch pulmonary artery stenosis was actually more common than PDA. Moreover, although the combination of branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA was more common than either branch pulmonary artery stenosis or PDA alone, isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis was twice as common as isolated PDA.\",\n \"Shielding of the gonads is a dose-saving strategy in pediatric radiography and its use is the law in New York and the majority of other states. However, routine use of gonadal shields is controversial because of concerns that important diagnostic information can be obscured. The purpose of this study was to assess the frequency and spatial distribution of key findings on portable neonatal abdominal radiographs. We reviewed the 2,544 portable neonatal intensive care unit anteroposterior abdominal radiographs performed in 2010 at a university medical center, of which 962 were inadequately shielded. These 962 radiographs were reviewed by pairs of pediatric radiologists for the presence of findings in different regions, including bowel abnormalities, pneumatosis, free air, inguinal hernias, osseous abnormalities, and catheter/tube tips. The fewest pertinent findings were present below the level of the sacrosciatic notches (n = 181, 18.8%). Of the 853 abnormalities below the level of the iliac crests in our cohort, six were isolated to these regions, whereas others had concomitant abnormalities more superiorly. Of 35 radiographs with pneumatosis or suspected pneumatosis in the pelvis, 33 had pneumatosis in more superior regions. Suspected free air was never isolated to the pelvis. Osseous abnormalities were only present in the pelvis below the sacrosciatic notch, and 37.5% of lower extremity catheters terminated below the level of the sacrosciatic notches.\",\n \"Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) for treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax refractory to nonoperative management was first reported in children by Rodgers in 1986 (Ann Surg. 1986; 204:677-680). Small series have shown success with apical blebectomy, mechanical or chemical (talc) pleurodesis, or combination techniques. We report the largest pediatric series of VATS for primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) to date, to assess outcomes and compare techniques. Retrospective review of all children undergoing VATS for PSP between 1999 and 2007 at 2 university-affiliated hospitals by the same group of surgeons. Mann-Whitney U tests and chi(2) used (P<.05 = significant). Thirty-two patients underwent 41 VATS procedures (32 initial-30 unilateral, 2 bilateral; 9 subsequent-7 contralateral, 2 ipsilateral recurrences). Mean age at presentation was 16.5 years (range, 13-20 years). Blebs were identified at the time of VATS in 95% of patients, but in 12.5%, they were on lower lobes. Mean duration of postoperative air leak was 2.7 days, postoperative hospital length of stay was 5.0 days, and postoperative chest tube duration was 5.1 days; 2 patients required Heimlich valves, which were managed at home. Five different surgical techniques were used as follows: blebectomy plus mechanical pleurodesis had the shortest length of stay (4.3 days) and need for chest tube drainage (4.1 days) but had a higher recurrence risk (6% major, 16% minor) than blebectomy plus chemical pleurodesis. The risk of requiring an additional VATS procedure (ipsilateral or contralateral) was 28%. Mean follow-up was 46 months.\",\n \"In the 0- to 8-year-old age group in whom the incidence of cervical spine injury is rare but frequently involves the upper cervical spine, the transoral odontoid roentgenogram may be of little value in the evaluation of the spine and should not be considered necessary in \\\"clearing\\\" the pediatric cervical spine. An alternative evaluation of these patients would include an initial lateral and AP radiograph, followed by computed tomography scan.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to determine in a pediatric population whether a routine chest x-ray after central venous access is necessary when the central venous catheter is placed with intraoperative fluoroscopy. This was a retrospective review of the charts of all patients at Children's Hospital in Denver, Colorado who underwent subclavian or internal jugular central venous catheter placement from January 1, 1998 through December 31, 2001. Age, sex, primary reason for access, access site, number of venipuncture attempts, type of catheter, intraoperative fluoroscopy results, chest x-ray results, location of the tip of the catheter, and complications were analyzed. There were 1,039 central venous catheters placed in 824 patients, 92.6% in the subclavian vein and 7.4% in the internal jugular vein. There were 604 (58.1%) children who had both fluoroscopy and a postprocedure chest x-ray, there were 308 (29.6%) who had only fluoroscopy, there were 117 (11.3%) who had only a postprocedure chest x-ray, and there were 10 (1.0%) who had neither fluoroscopy nor chest x-ray. On completion of the procedure, there were 12 (1.1%) children with misplaced central venous catheters, only 1 (0.1%) when intraoperative fluoroscopy was used. There were 17 (1.6%) complications; 9 (0.9%) were pulmonary (pneumothorax, hemothorax, or an effusion). All children with pulmonary complications experienced clinical signs and symptoms suggestive of the complication after their central venous catheter insertion but before their postprocedure chest x-ray.\",\n \"To demonstrate an asymmetry of the internal jugular veins, a finding which will have consequences for catheterization. Prospective study. The medical ICU of a university-affiliated teaching hospital. Eighty critically ill consecutive patients. Measurement of the cross-sectional area of the internal jugular veins. Search for an asymmetry, defined as an area at least twice that of the contralateral vein. An asymmetry was noted in 62.5% of the patients. The dominant vein was the right in only 68 % of these cases. In addition, 23% of the 160 jugular internal veins had an area of 0.4 cm2 or less.\",\n \"Most of the children with hydronephrosis do not require any surgical intervention. However, in individual cases, irreversible loss of renal function can develop. Predictive criteria have been proven ineffective so far in determining in which children obstruction will lead to renal damage. The aim of our retrospective study was to determine the role of a crossing lower pole vessel (CV) in children undergoing pyeloplasty. Between 1996 and 2003, 137 patients (age between 6 weeks and 16 years) with unilateral ureteropelvic junction obstruction and no associated urological pathologies underwent Anderson-Hynes dismembered pyeloplasty. A total of 112 patients were evaluated with complete data. One of the following criteria was considered to be indication for surgery in children with grade 4 hydronephrosis: differential renal function (DRF)<40%; clinical symptoms such as pyolenephritis and flank pain; during follow-up renographies, a reduction of DRF>10% and washout patterns II or III b according to O'Reilly. We looked at the age during surgery and the kind of presentation. DRF was measured using diuretic renography preoperatively and 1 year postoperatively. A postoperative change in DRF of group A (children without CV, n = 84) was compared to that in group B (children with CV, n = 28). Median age at the time of surgery was 5 months in group A compared to 23 months in group B. Only in 21.4% of the children with CV compared to 60.7% without CV hydronephrosis was diagnosed by ultrasound examination antenatally. We found a preoperative DRF of 42.4% +/- 11.2 SD in group A, and of 38.9% +/- 11.7 SD in group B. The percentage of postoperative improvement was 3.3% in group A and 15.4% in group B.\",\n \"To assess which clinical features predict an increased likelihood of an abnormal computed tomographic (CT) scan and how frequently CT influences management of bacterial meningitis. Retrospective patient series. University-affiliated hospitals in Dallas, Tex. Three hundred thirty-seven children with bacterial meningitis, of whom 107 (32%) had undergone CT scans. One or more abnormalities were found in 52% of the initial scans. The most frequent indication for CT at our institution was persistent or secondary fever, and in 56% of these children, subdural effusion or empyema was noted. However, findings on CT rarely predicted a need for intervention. In contrast, children with focal seizures or focal neurologic signs were more likely to have brain parenchymal changes. Scans in 19 patients (12%) prompted surgical intervention, most commonly drainage of a subdural collection. The conditions of only nine children (8.4% of those who had undergone CT scans) improved following intervention that was initiated because of findings on CT.\",\n \"yes. Our series demonstrates that early recognition of this rare syndrome is necessary to adequately treat and prevent upper tract deterioration in these unique individuals. Although the urofacial is difficult to diagnose in infants, cognizance must be maintained in order to prevent severe subsequent sequalae.\",\n \"Although ultrasound is regarded as the first choice imaging modality for evaluating a pediatric neck mass, neck computed tomography (CT) is necessary for urgent surgical conditions such as deep neck infections. Our aim was to evaluate the diagnostic effectiveness of and proper patient selection for neck CT as a method for the initial evaluation of pediatric neck masses in the emergency department. We analyzed the medical records of 105 pediatric patients who visited the emergency department with neck mass whose initial imaging work-up was a neck CT and who visited the emergency department with a neck mass. The parameters investigated included the patient's age, sex, symptom duration, clinical impression, CT interpretation, final diagnosis, and treatment. The positive predictive value (PPV) for CT was calculated, and the parameters that correlated with an urgent surgical condition post-CT were evaluated. The median age was 6.5 years (1 month to 12 years), and the male-to-female ratio was 2:1. The most common initial impression was acute cervical lymphadenopathy. A comparison of the final diagnosis and CT scan demonstrated that the overall PPV was 96.2%. If the initial impression was a deep neck infection, a salivary gland infection, or tonsillitis, the PPV for CT was 100%. Fever (>38.0°C) and severe tenderness were significant between patients with and without urgent surgical conditions on CT.\",\n \"Early detection of biliary atresia (BA) has a vital role in prevention of liver cirrhosis in these patients. There are some evidences that triangular cord (TC) sign, i.e., triangular structure located cranial to the portal vein bifurcation on ultrasonographic examination, is suggestive of BA in suspected cases. The aim of this study is to evaluate and compare the sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of TC sign with other methods of diagnosis such as hepatobiliary scan. Fifty-eight infants referred to pediatric gastroenterology ward with diagnosis of infantile cholestasis from March 2004 to March 2008 were evaluated to find the cause of cholestasis. Diagnosis was made by means of history, clinical examination, hepatobiliary scan, and liver biopsy. Ultrasonographic examination was focused on presence of TC sign in patients. If the diagnosis was in favor of BA, patient was sent for direct cholangiography as a gold-standard test for confirmation of the diagnosis. The sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of the tests were compared with golden standard. Among 58 infants with infantile cholestasis, BA was diagnosed and confirmed in 10 infants (17.2%). Hepatobiliary scintigraphy had 80% sensitivity, 72.9% specificity, and 74.1% accuracy. TC sign had 70% sensitivity, 95.8% specificity, and 91.3% accuracy.\",\n \"The presence of multiple nonspecific findings on abdominal CT scan does not reliably predict BBMI in children. Children also appear to suffer complications from BBMI less frequently than adults, regardless of the time to surgery. Therefore, nonspecific findings alone do not warrant surgical exploration. The decision to operate should instead be based on clinical data that include serial physical examinations.\",\n \"Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a common disembryogenic defect with well-attested prevalence but dubious etiopathogenetic linkage with cryptogenic stroke and different clinical conditions. Transcranial color-coded Doppler (TCCD) assures high accuracy in diagnosing right-to-left shunt (RLS) and its functional aspects. Aim of the study was to evaluate RLS prevalence and degree in subjects submitted to TCCD for conditions theoretically associated or caused by paradoxical embolism to the brain. PFO assessment, performed in 10 major diagnostic categories and a control group, followed a standardized protocol with a 10 or 20 microbubbles (MB) cutoff to identify any or only large RLS, respectively. Among 2113 patients, a significant larger RLS prevalence was found in stroke (53.3%), TIA (45.7%) and migraine with aura (39.7%) when compared with non-migraineurs controls (25.5%). RLS degree was significantly higher in stroke and TIA patients: The ROC curve from MB load data helped to identify new cutoff values for both normal breathing (42 MB) and Valsalva (139 MB) tests. From logistic regression, a family history for PFO, ASA, and male gender appeared independent predictors of a RLS. By contrast, RLS seemed independent of white matter abnormalities presence on brain neuroimaging or stroke mimics.\",\n \"The goals of this study were to describe the clinical and anatomic features of infants undergoing Kasai portoenterostomy (KPE) for biliary atresia (BA) and to examine associations between these parameters and outcomes. Infants enrolled in the prospective Childhood Liver Disease Research and Education Network, who underwent KPE were studied. Patients enrolled in a blinded, interventional trial were excluded from survival analysis. Primary endpoints were successful surgical drainage (total bilirubin less than 2 mg/dL within the first 3 months), transplant-free survival (Kaplan-Meier), and time to transplant/death (Cox regression). KPE was performed in 244 infants (54% female; mean age: 65 ± 29 days). Transplant-free survival was 53.7% and 46.7% at 1 and 2 years post-KPE. The risk of transplant/death was significantly lower in the 45.6% of patients who achieved successful bile drainage within 3 months post-KPE (HR: 0.08, P < 0.001). The risk of transplant/death was increased in patients with porta hepatis atresia (Ohi type II and III vs type I; HR: 2.03, P = 0.030), nonpatent common bile duct (Ohi subtype: b, c, and d vs a; HR: 4.31, P = 0.022), BA splenic malformation syndrome (HR: 1.92, P = 0.025), ascites > 20 mL (HR: = 1.90, P = 0.0230), nodular liver appearance compared to firm (HR: = 1.61, P = 0.008), and age at KPE ≥ 75 days (HR: 1.73, P < 0.002). Outcome was not associated with gestational age, gender, race, ethnicity, or extent of porta hepatis dissection.\",\n \"It is frequently taught that lumbar puncture is a mandatory procedure in many or all children who have fever and a seizure, because the convulsion may represent the sole manifestation of bacterial meningitis. We attempted to determine the incidence of this occult manifestation of meningitis. Retrospective case series. 503 consecutive cases of meningitis in children aged 2 months to 15 years seen at two referral hospitals during a 20-year period. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in patients having associated seizures. Meningitis was associated with seizures in 115 cases (23%), and 105 of these children were either obtunded or comatose at their first visit with a physician after the seizure. The remaining 10 had relatively normal levels of consciousness and either were believed to have viral meningitis (2) or possessed straightforward indications for lumbar puncture: nuchal rigidity (6), prolonged focal seizure (1), or multiple seizures and a petechial rash (1). No cases of occult bacterial meningitis were found.\",\n \"PHACE syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder involving large facial hemangiomas in association with posterior fossa abnormalities, cerebral arterial anomalies, cardiac defects, and eye abnormalities. A recent consensus statement has delineated criteria necessary for the diagnosis of PHACE syndrome. Extracutaneous manifestations of PHACE syndrome predominately affect the cerebrovascular system. To date, there are no reports of cerebral cavernous malformations (CCMs) in children with PHACE syndrome. We reviewed the charts of children admitted to the Children''s Hospital of Pittsburgh who met criteria for PHACE syndrome, and evaluated neuroimaging for cerebrovascular abnormalities, including the finding of CCMs. Six children met criteria for PHACE syndrome at our institution over a 10-year period. All children were female. All children had cerebrovascular abnormalities sufficient to meet major criteria for diagnosis. Four children (66.7 %) were found incidentally to have CCMs; all lesions measured less than 5 mm at the time of diagnosis and were asymptomatic.\",\n \"yes. The unique point of this case report is the rarity of such a presentation. Careful planning and knowledge of the occurrence of such conditions can make surgery in these children safe, and all the levels can be treated in a single setting.\",\n \"Recent reports describing surgical experiences with childhood IE are sparse. We sought to determine patient-specific characteristics and their impact on outcome for children with infective endocarditis (IE) undergoing surgical intervention. We therefore reviewed all cases of culture-proven IE referred for surgical intervention at our institution over the last three decades. Of 15,124 cardiovascular surgical procedures performed between 1978 and 2007 at our institution on children under the age of 18, only 30 (0.2%) were undertaken for a primary diagnosis of IE. All 30 children underwent chart review and retrospective risk-hazard analysis. Median patient age was 9.8 years (range 10 weeks to 17.5 years). Underlying congenital cardiac lesions were present in 22 (77%) and previous intra-cardiac repair in 9 (30%). Septic emboli occurred in 13 (46%), causing permanent strokes in 4 (14%). Streptococcus viridans and Staphylococcus aureus were the predominant organisms. S. viridans was associated with underlying congenital lesions (p<0.01). S. aureus was associated with abscess formation (p<0.03), clinical sepsis (p<0.04), acute deterioration (p<0.01), prolonged hospitalization (p<0.01) and death (p<0.01). Aortic, mitral and tricuspid valves were involved with equal frequency, more than the right ventricular outflow tract. Two valves were involved in 30%. The native valve was preserved at operation in 22 (73% cases). Univariate predictors for valve replacement included increased leaflet thickening (p<0.01) and occurrence of septic embolization (p=0.02), whereas moderate/severe valvular regurgitation was not significant. Five-year freedom from IE-related death and re-intervention was 84% and 80%, respectively. At latest follow-up 96% of patients are NHYA I.\",\n \"To determine the prevalence of congenital heart defects (CHDs) in patients with mild or severe congenital anorectal malformations (CARMs), and whether all patients with CARM need pediatric cardiology screening. We included 129 patients with CARM born between 2004 and 2013, and referred to University Medical Center Groningen. Recto-perineal and recto-vestibular fistulas were classified as mild CARMs, all others as severe. Significant patent foramen ovale, secundum atrial septal defect, and small ventricular septum defect were classified as minor CHDs, all others as major. Of 129 patients with CARM, 67% had mild CARM, 33% severe CARM, and 17% were additionally diagnosed with CHD. CHDs were distributed equally in patients with mild or severe CARMs. Patients with multiple congenital abnormalities were more frequently diagnosed with CHD (n = 16, 36%) than patients without multiple congenital malformations (n = 5, 9%, P = .001). Patients with CARM diagnosed with CHD using pediatric cardiac echo screening were younger than 3 months of age at diagnosis. Earlier general pediatric examinations missed 7 (50%) children with mild and 4 (50%) with severe CHDs.\",\n \"Although Chiari I malformation is increasingly recognized in children, little is known about its clinical presentation in this age group. To evaluate the relationship between clinical and MRI features of pediatric Chiari I malformations. We performed a chart review and MRI analysis of 49 children with Chiari I malformation. The degree of tonsillar ectopia was compared with age at onset, presence of syringomyelia, and a neurologic severity score as follows: asymptomatic = 0, symptomatic with normal neurologic examination = 1, and symptomatic with abnormal examination = 2. Age at onset of symptoms ranged from 10 months to 14 years. Fifty-seven percent of patients were asymptomatic. Headache and neck pain were the most frequent complaints. Syringomyelia was detected in 14% of patients and skull base abnormalities in 50%. The magnitude of tonsillar ectopia (5 to 23 mm) correlated with severity score (p = 0.04) but not with other clinical measures.\",\n \"Cardiac embolism is estimated to be the aetiology of ischemic cerebral-vascular insults (CVI) in 25% of cases. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is a reliable and widely used examination in the diagnosticwork-up of stroke. TEE is superior to transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) in the search of minor sources of cardiac embolism but it is time consuming and has its inherent risks.AIM: The aim of this study was to determine whether in patients younger than 65 years of age with CVI our TEE-findings would alter their management. Only patients in whom nor the medical record, nor TTE, nor Carotid Ultrasonography could establish an aetiology, were included. A 3-year retrospective study was done in patients admitted to the stroke unit of a regional medical centre covering 110,000 inhabitants. The TEE-database was reviewed and all TEE's performed in eligible patients were selected. Minor and major sources of cardiac embolism were listed. The impact of TEE-findings on the management of CVI was evaluated. Fifty-four patients fulfilled the criteria for this study. The mean age was 52 years (range 18 - 65). A major source of cardiac embolism was seen in 6 cases (11.1%). Four patients (7.4%) had infective endocarditis (IE) with vegetations. A small apical thrombosis in a patient with isolated left ventricular non-compaction was noted and in 1 patient dysfunction of a mechanical prosthetic valve was documented. The most frequently encountered minor source of cardiac embolism was a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or small atrial septal defect (ASD) with documented right-to-left shunt during Valsalva manoeuvre (15 patients, 27.8%). Of these 15 patients, an atrial septum aneurysm(ASA) was seen in 7 patients (13%). Our TEE-findings altered the management of CVI substantially in 21 cases (38.9%). The 4 patients with IE and the patient with mechanical valve dysfunction had cardiac surgery. Twelve patients (22.2%) were referred for percutaneous closure of the PFO/ASD. Three patients with PFO/ASD and the patient with IVNC were treated with maintenance therapy of oral anticoagulation.\",\n \"The optimal treatment of cervicofacial nontuberculous mycobacterium lymphadenitis (CFNTB) in children is yet to be established. There is a general consensus that surgical excision results in a definitive resolution of the disease. The main aim of surgery is to remove affected nodes so that they do not discharge through the skin. Recently there are some investigators who are reporting successful antibiotic treatment and advocating medical therapy as the first line treatment. 16 children consecutively presenting to otolaryngology in a tertiary referral centre over an 8-year period with CFNTB. Inclusion criteria were chronic cervicofacial lymphadenitis with either: (1) a culture positive for atypical mycobacteria (from either a lymph node or fine needle aspirate (FNA) specimen); or (2) acid-fast bacilli identified (from either a lymph node or FNA specimen); or (3) post excision histological findings consistent with mycobacterial infection (i.e. non-caseating granulomas) in the absence of other clinical features suggestive of other granulomatous conditions. Lesions with superficial skin change were treated preferentially with surgery. Children presenting with lymph nodes contained deep to sternocleidmastoid were assessed with FNA cytological and microbiological analysis and MRI or CT, and treated preferentially with antibiotics or watchful waiting. 4 children (2 culture positive, 2 with acid-fast bacilli on needle aspirate) presented with lymphadenopathy deep to sternocleidmastoid and were managed non-surgically. All 4 resolved without cutaneous involvement. 11 children with a clinical presentation of CFNTB underwent complete excision of all involved nodes for superficial lesions (6 were culture positive, and all had granulomatous histology). None recurred. 1 patient presented late with a mature, discharging parotid sinus, which was managed with watchful waiting as the lesion was clinically close to natural resolution.\",\n \"Pediatric branchial anomalies can present as a cyst, sinus, or fistula. They are developmental failures in the involution of the branchial apparatus during the embryologic period. Management of second branchial anomalies is with surgical excision of the tract and ligation of the terminal attachment to the pharynx. Our results suggest that the recurrence rates are not affected by whether or not an ipsilateral tonsillectomy is performed.\",\n \"Cranio-cervical arterial dissections are a recognized cause of ischemic stroke in childhood, with an approximate incidence of 0.4 to 20%. AIM. To describe a population of children with cranio-cervical arterial dissections, analyzing clinical presentation, risk factors, angiographic findings, evolution and treatment. A descriptive, retrospective, longitudinal collaborative review (Sant Joan de Deu and Pereira Rossell Children's Hospital), of children one month to 17 years old of age was conducted, during the period of time between 2000 to 2009. Ten cases with arterial dissection were identified, 7 of them were boys and 3 girls. Nine had a traumatism preceding neurological symptoms. Clinical presentation included 5 patients with hemiparesis, 3 with hemicerebelus syndrome, 1 with VI cranial nerve palsy and 1 with intracranial soplus as the only symptom at physical examination. Three of them had seizures, while headache preceding the onset of cerebral ischemic symptoms was founded in 6 of them. Dissection involved anterior circulation in 5 patients and posterior circulation in the other 5. In reference to the localization of arterial compromise 4 patients had intracranial dissections and 6 had extracranial dissections. Anticoagulation therapy was done in 5, antiagregation in 3, and treatment abstention in two. None of them suffered neither complications due to anticoagulation therapy nor dead or recurrent dissections in long term follow up (2 months to 8 years).\",\n \"To determine the aetiologies and clinical characteristics of infants with fever and a bulging fontanelle. The medical records of all febrile infants with a bulging fontanelle who underwent a lumbar puncture from January 2000 to February 2008 in Assaf Harofeh Medical Center, a university affiliated hospital in central Israel, were identified. 153 patients met the inclusion criteria. The male to female ratio was 100:53; age range was 3-11 months with a mean age of 5.6 (SD 1.8) months and a median age of 5 months. Cerebrospinal fluid pleocytosis was found in 42 cases (27.3%), including one case of bacterial meningitis (0.6%). Other leading diagnoses were aseptic meningitis (26.7%), upper respiratory tract infection (18.3%), viral disease not otherwise specified (15.6%), roseola infantum (8.5%) and acute otitis media (6.5%). Appearance on admission was described as good to excellent in 113 (73.8%) infants, none of whom had bacterial meningitis. 32 had aseptic meningitis and 17 had other bacterial disease (pneumonia, acute otitis media, pyelonephritis, bacteraemia, shigella or salmonella gastroenteritis). All the latter had, upon admission, symptoms, signs, laboratory tests or imaging studies suggesting a bacterial aetiology.\",\n \"The evaluation of febrile children with petechial rashes evokes controversy. Although many of these children have viral infections, on occasion such patients may be infected with Neisseria meningitidis. To investigate differences in practice trends for the evaluation and management of non-toxic-appearing febrile children with petechial rashes among pediatric specialty groups. We surveyed 833 pediatricians in 4 specialties [community (CGP) and academic (AGP) general pediatrics, emergency medicine (EM) and infectious diseases] regarding 4 hypothetical non-toxic-appearing febrile children ages 1, 2, 5 and 7 years. The patients differed with regard to clinical appearance, distribution of petechiae and complete blood count results. We compared specialty group responses, adjusting for practice setting, population size and years in practice using multiple logistic regression analysis. The survey was completed and returned by 416 (50%) pediatricians. There was substantial variation in the evaluation of the 2 younger febrile children without clear sources for their petechiae. For the 1-year-old the overall blood culture (BCx) rate was 82%, with the EM group (91%) more often requesting BCx than either the CGP (76%) or AGP (73%, P=0.001) groups. The overall hospital admission rate was 31%, with CGP less often requesting admission than infectious disease pediatricians (22% vs. 40%, P=0.007). In the regression analysis the only significant difference between groups was in BCx rate between the EM and AGP groups. For the 2-year-old the overall rate of BCx was 95%, lumbar puncture was 41% and admission was 44%, with no significant differences among groups. For the scenarios involving the 2 older febrile children with sources for their petechiae, the majority of respondents chose neither lumbar puncture nor admission. There was disagreement regarding BCx, both within and between groups, although most of the between group differences did not persist in the regression analysis.\",\n \"To describe the surgical management of second branchial fistulae that extend to the pharynx, specifically to determine whether tonsillectomy, along with surgical excision of the tract affects the rate of recurrence. Retrospective chart review of pediatric patients (age<18) who underwent surgical excision of second branchial anomalies at a tertiary-care children's hospital between January 1, 2006 and September 1, 2011. Sinus tracts that extended to the pharynx were considered to be fistulae. Seventy-four patients were identified who underwent surgical excision of 85 total second branchial anomalies - 20 cysts (23.5%), 29 sinuses (34.1%), and 36 fistulae (42.4%). The 36 fistulae were removed from 32 patients, 23 males and 9 females, with an average age of 43.3 months. There were 16 right, 11 left, and 5 bilateral lesions. In 14 (43.8%) of the fistulae cases, a tonsillectomy was performed. There was only one recurrence (2.8%), which occurred 41 months postoperatively. No statistically significant difference for recurrence (p=1.0) was found between the group of patients that underwent tonsillectomy and those that did not.\",\n \"To evaluate whether isolated Horner's syndrome presenting in the first year of life warrants investigation. Retrospective review of 23 children presenting with Horner's syndrome in the first year of life. In 16 patients (70%) no cause was identified. Birth trauma was the most common identifiable cause (four patients). Twenty one children (91%) had urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) measured and 13 patients (57%) underwent either computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging of the chest and neck. These investigations revealed previously undisclosed pathology in only two--one ganglioneuroma of the left pulmonary apex and one cervical neuroblastoma. A further patient was known to have abdominal neuroblastoma before presenting with Horner's syndrome. There were no cases of Horner's syndrome occurring after cardiothoracic surgery. Long term follow up of the patients (mean 9.3 years) has not revealed further pathology.\",\n \"Despite a high rate of envenomated bites in Southeast Texas, significant morbidity is rare. Children with an envenomation score of 1 or 2 are unlikely to be coagulopathic, suggesting that laboratory investigation should be reserved for patients with higher scores. The indications for the administration of CroFab deserve further prospective study.\",\n \"Historically, HIDA is the initial diagnostic test in the evaluation of biliary atresia (BA). Non-excreting HIDA scans can yield false-positive results leading to negative laparotomy. Cholestatic infants must be evaluated promptly to exclude biliary atresia (BA) and other treatable hepatic conditions. Intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) is the gold standard for diagnosing BA, but requires surgical intervention. Percutaneous transhepatic cholecysto-cholangiography (PTCC) and liver biopsy are less invasive and have been described in small case series. We hypothesized that PTCC and liver biopsy effectively exclude BA, thus avoiding unnecessary IOC. Retrospective review of cholestatic infants who underwent PTCC, biopsy or cholescintigraphy at a tertiary children's hospital from August 1998 to January 2009. Group differences were evaluated and the receiver operator curve and safety of PTCC determined. One-hundred twenty-eight cholestatic infants were reviewed. Forty-six (36%) underwent PTCC. Forty-one out of 46 (89%) had simultaneous PTCC and liver biopsy. PTCC was completed successfully in 19/23 (83%) children despite a small or absent GB on initial US. Negative laparotomy rate was 1/6 (17%) for simultaneous PTCC/liver biopsy. Complications occurred in 4/46 including bleeding (n=2), fever with elevated transaminases (n=1) and oxygen desaturations (n=1).\",\n \"yes. PLSVC is a rare congenital vascular abnormality. Besides its association with congenital anomalies, its most relevant clinical implication is the association with disturbances of cardiac rhythm, impulse formation and conduction. The ontogenetic development of the sinus node, the atrioventricular node, and the His bundle might be heavily influenced by the lack of regression of the left cardinal vein. When isolated, the PLSVC is usually not recognized until left superior approach to the heart is required, when it becomes a relevant anatomic finding. In fact, it can complicate the positioning of left-sided pacemaker and cardioverter-defibrillator leads. In patients with poor handling through the coronary sinus, a right approach is recommended after visualization of a right superior vena cava entering the right atrium by echocardiography or contrast venography since its absence or hypoplasia (which is reported in 10% of the cases with PLSVC) may represent a major obstacle and would suggest an epicardial implantation.\",\n \"yes. Temporal bone venous abnormalities are a common feature in CHARGE syndrome. The pattern of venous abnormality suggests that there is a failure of the sigmoid sinus/jugular bulb to fully develop, resulting in persistence of emissary veins. Recognition of these abnormal venous structures during otologic surgery is critical to avoiding potentially catastrophic bleeding.\",\n \"Despite lack of consensus criteria, biliary dyskinesia (BD) is an increasingly accepted pediatric diagnosis. We compared patient characteristics, outcomes, and resource utilization (before and after surgery) between children with BD and symptomatic cholecystolithiasis (LITH). Data from the electronic medical record were abstracted for children diagnosed with BD or LITH between December 1, 2002, and November 30, 2012, at Children's Hospital of Pittsburgh. Four hundred and ten patients were identified (BD: 213 patients 197 patients). Patients with BD had significantly lower BMI, longer symptom duration, more dyspeptic symptoms, and were more likely to present with other symptoms. Forty-one patients (13.8%) with BD underwent cholecystectomy despite a normal gallbladder ejection fraction (GB-EF). In 32 of these, sincalide triggered pain compared to 75 of the 155 patients with low GB-EF. After surgery, patients with BD more commonly visited gastroenterology clinics and had more GI-related hospitalizations, while emergency room visits decreased in both groups. Only the nature of biliary disease independently predicted continuing pain after surgery, which in turn was the best predictor for higher resource utilization after cholecystectomy.\",\n \"To determine whether children with prenatally diagnosed mild pyelectasis have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Case-control study in children with pyelectasis (anteroposterior diameter of the fetal renal pelvis of 5-10 mm). A validated questionnaire was sent to the parents of 208 cases and 416 matched controls. The questionnaire was returned by 146 cases and 250 controls. There was a male predominance in the case group (p = < 0.0001). There was no difference in voiding habits or in prevalence of urinary tract infections (UTI). The prevalence of UTI was high: 11.6% in cases and 10.0% in controls. The only difference was a higher prevalence of constipation in the case group (p = 0.003). Postnatally, 41 children had an ultrasound examination and 16 were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had persisting pyelectasis, 3 had a recurrent UTI and 1 required surgery (a pyeloplasty). Four of the controls were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had recurrent UTI and 1 had urinary incontinence.\",\n \"This study aimed to investigate the clinical predictors of unfavorable prognosis in patients with venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism. An extensive review of English literature was performed to obtain reports on cerebral air embolism published between January 1982 and July 2014 through PubMed, Journal at Ovid, and Web of Science using the Mesh terms and keywords \\\"cerebral air embolism\\\" and \\\"cerebral gas embolism.\\\" Reports not fulfilling the diagnosis of cerebral air embolism and iterant articles were excluded. Demographics, clinical manifestations, and imaging findings were recorded. The air distribution on initial brain computed tomography (CT) was recorded as gyriform air (GF), cavernous sinus bubble, venous sinus bubble, and parenchymal and subarachnoid bubble. The enrolled subjects were further divided into favorable and unfavorable outcome groups for analyses. Of the 33 cases enrolled, 31 had documented follow-up outcomes, including 14 with favorable and 17 with unfavorable prognoses. Patients with unfavorable outcome had older onset age (67.5 ± 15.8 versus 46.7 ± 17.0 years, P < .001), higher frequency of GF on brain CT (58.8% versus 0%, P < .01), initial consciousness disturbance (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), and hemiparesis (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), but lower frequency of cardiopulmonary symptoms (5.9% versus 64.3%, P < .01). In patients with central venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism, the retrograde mechanism had a tendency for worse outcomes (43.8% versus 0%, P = .023).\",\n \"The aim of the study was to investigate the etiology, clinical presentation, and risk factors for poor prognosis of acute acalculous cholecystitis (AAC) in children. Children younger than 18 years diagnosed as having AAC were analyzed retrospectively from 2000 to 2009. The demographic and clinical characteristics, etiology, and outcomes were recorded. AAC was defined as a gallbladder wall thickness of >3.5 mm in sonogram with a duration of symptoms <1 month. The severity of sonographic findings was scored, with 1 point each given for wall thickness >3.5 mm, gallbladder distention, sludge, and pericholecystic fluid. A total of 109 children (boys:girls 1:2, median age 4.9 years) were diagnosed. The most common clinical presentation was fever (88%), followed by hepatomegaly (72%). The rates of elevated alanine aminotransferase and thrombocytopenia were 72% and 65%, respectively. The most common causative etiology was infectious diseases (74%). All of the patients were treated nonoperatively. Sixteen (15%) patients died. Children with mortality had a significantly higher rate of septic shock (P < 0.001), anemia (P = 0.01), thrombocytopenia (P = 0.04), hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.002), the presence of pericholecystic fluid (P = 0.04), and higher sonographic scores (P = 0.04) than those with survival. Multiple logistic regression analysis confirmed that the presence of septic shock (P = 0.004) and hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.014) were independent risk factors that predict mortality.\",\n \"Ultra sound colored duplex sonography is the preferred method in diagnosing chronic venous disease. Data in children on incidence, indications, and results are lacking. From the total of 9180 duplex investigations performed in our hospital from 2009 to 2012, data on indication and results of the investigation as well as patient characteristics were evaluated retrospectively for the proportion of pediatric patients. Duplex investigations were performed 49 times in 38 children (6-18 years), with an average of 1.3 times (1-6 times) per child. Forty percent showed abnormalities: 17 times deep venous thrombosis was suspected; deep venous thrombosis was objectified in 18%. In the 21 investigations performed for varicosis-related complaints, varicose veins or venous malformations were objectified in 57%. Edema was never a symptom of chronic venous disease.\",\n \"yes. Severely affected neonates with CDH have significantly smaller right internal jugular veins than other neonates. If the patient needs ECMO and if the internal jugular vein is too small for cannulation, the right brachiocephalic vein can be successfully cannulated from the neck instead.\",\n \"yes. Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood is now diagnosed less frequently in our institution than in the last two decades. Although the aetiology remains largely unknown, it is possible that changes in causative environmental factors contribute to making TEC a rare disease. Clinicians need to be aware of TEC in order to prevent unnecessary diagnostic and therapeutic measurements.\",\n \"Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram in the otic capsule at thin-section CT are prevalent among children younger than 3 years in the absence of clinical evidence of otosclerosis or osteogenesis imperfecta and appear in children up to 9 years old.\",\n \"We report bronchoscopic changes observed in children with recurrent lower airways infections (RLAI) and findings in control children undergoing bronchoscopy for causes other than RLAI. Retrospective case-control cohorts study. The clinical records of children who had fiberoptic bronchoscopy (FB) for a history of RLAI without any known underlying disorder between 2007 and 2013 and of control children who required FB for other causes were reviewed. Clinical features, bronchospic findings and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) results were assessed. Cases were 62 (32 female) children aged 5 years (1-12) and controls 29 children aged 4.5 years (0.5-14). Airway malacia was observed in 32 (52%) vs. 4 (13%) (p = 0.001), profuse respiratory secretions in 34(55%) vs. 6 (20%) (p = 0.007). Endobronchial obstruction: 4 (6.4%) and tracheobronchomegaly were observed only in cases. In cases with profuse respiratory secretions there was a higher prevalence of airways malacia: 64.7% vs. 35.7% (p = 0.04) and of positive BAL cultures: 45.5% vs. 13.3% (p = 0.04). Isolated organisms in cases were non-typable Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae most frequently. Pneumocystiis jirovecii, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus mitis were isolated in controls.\",\n \"no. In a large teaching hospital system, the overall rate of clinically relevant complications detected on chest radiographs following ultrasound-guided right internal jugular vein catheterization is exceedingly low. Routine chest radiograph after this common procedure is an unnecessary use of resources and may delay resuscitation of critically ill patients.\",\n \"Children with ureteropelvic junction obstruction and CV received a delayed surgical treatment and showed a greater reduction in differential renal function preoperatively, in contrast to patients without CV. Our data show that CV is a risk factor for deterioration of renal function in children with hydronephrosis and we advocate for an early pyeloplasty in these children, especially if they have a high-grade dilatation and equivocal washout patterns in diuretic renographies. Further prospective studies are necessary in order to understand the natural history of CV and to reveal the importance of the crossing lower pole vessel as a structural anomaly lacking maturation.\",\n \"yes. A high frequency of ICH due to late VKDB was reported in Egyptian infants aged two to 24 weeks, with poorer outcomes than international studies. A national survey is required to evaluate the timing and protective value of a second booster vitamin K dose to reduce ICH, especially in high-risk patients in this age group.\",\n \"A pull-back tube esophagogram (PBTE) is widely accepted in the literature as the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. However, PBTE is rarely performed in our institution, as we have been successful in confirming the presence of such fistulae with a contrast material swallow (CS). We hypothesized that PBTE is not the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of the fistula in this condition. We sought to determine what proportion of patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia can be diagnosed promptly by a CS and what the indications are for a PBTE. We retrospectively analyzed the clinical and radiological findings in patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia to determine whether the fistula was diagnosed with a CS or PBTE. We identified 20 children (13 female and 7 male) with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. Their age at diagnosis ranged from 3 days to 168 months with a median of 9 days. The diagnosis was documented by CS in 12, PBTE in 7 and CT in 1. In three of the seven who had the fistula documented by PBTE, a previous CS had shown contrast material in the trachea, but no fistulous tract or aspiration was identified.\",\n \"Catheterisation of the internal jugular vein (IJV) can be difficult in infants. We aimed to evaluate whether a simple manoeuvre, a slight caudo-lateral traction of the ipsilateral arm (CLTIA), could decrease the head rotation-induced overlap of the IJV to the carotid artery (CA) in infants. Twenty-five infants were included. The patients were placed in the 10° Trendelenburg position with a shoulder roll. On both sides of the neck, ultrasound images were obtained in a transverse orientation before and after the CLTIA at 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation, respectively. On each image, CA overlap was calculated as follows: CA overlap (%) = (overlap distance/CA diameter) × 100. The CLTIA decreased CA overlap (%) in 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation on the right side of the neck [14 (interquartile range, IQR 0-32) to 0 (IQR 0-14), 24 (IQR 0-46) to 0 (IQR 0-33), and 31 (IQR 12-58) to 23 (IQR 0-34); all P < 0.01] and on the left [29 (IQR 7-61) to 19 (IQR 0-44), 40 (IQR 21-65) to 31 (IQR 0-46), and 44 (IQR 29-97) to 33 (IQR 14-69); all P < 0.01], respectively.\",\n \"no. Children with a mild fetal pyelectasis do not have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Therefore, there seems to be no need for additional investigation after birth.\",\n \"The Rex shunt should be considered in the treatment of children with idiopathic EHPVT experiencing repeated gastrointestinal bleeding episodes refractory to endoscopic treatment. Nevertheless, the role of this operation for children with post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT is yet to be clearly evaluated.\",\n \"The practice of administering intravenous contrast to children varies by institution depending on their routine. To assess the necessity of routine contrast administration in brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of pediatric outpatients referred for chronic headache workups. We conducted a retrospective review of consecutive pediatric brain MRI examinations performed during January and February 2014 in 30 pediatric outpatients referred for evaluation of chronic headache. Independent review was performed by two board-certified neuroradiologists. The raters reviewed each MRI first as a non-contrast examination (without seeing the post-contrast images) and then with post-contrast images. No abnormalities were found in six patients. One patient had an indeterminate finding of a tubular cerebellar lesion requiring follow-up. In the remaining patients (n = 23), the findings were subclinical and included: mucosal thickening in the paranasal sinuses in 9 patients, cystic changes of the pineal gland in 8 (size 2-9 mm), small developmental venous anomalies in 6, non-specific FLAIR hyperintensities in 4, opacification of the mastoids in 2, and telangiectasia in 1 patient. The subclinical cases that were missed on pre-contrast images were: one small developmental venous anomaly, one telangiectasia and one small pineal cyst, none of which hold clinical significance. All kappa inter-rater and intra-rater agreement scores resulted in values above 0.75, excellent agreement according to Fleiss guidelines.\",\n \"A large percentage of children with BD did not meet the adult diagnostic standards. Compared to those with LITH, children with BD have more widespread symptoms and continue to use more clinical resources after surgery. These findings suggest that despite its benign prognosis, BD is increasingly treated like other potentially acute gallbladder diseases, although it has the typical phenotype of FGIDs and should be treated using approaches used in such disorders.\",\n \"Extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT) is an important cause of portal hypertension in children. Rex shunt has been used successfully to treat these patients. We report our experience in 19 infants and children (5 months to 14 years) with HPVT eligible for a mesenteric-portal surgical shunt with left internal jugular vein autograft. Eight children had idiopathic EHPVT, nine had post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT, one had portal vein agenesis, and one had posttransplant EHPVT. It was possible to perform the Rex shunt in all patients except for 8 of 9 cases in the post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT group. A Warren procedure was performed in 4 of those patients and a proximal splenorenal shunt in 1. Current follow-up ranges from 3 to 26 months. Shunt thrombosis occurred in one patient with portal vein agenesis and associated cardiac anomaly. Portal hypertension has significantly improved after surgery. None of our patients have experienced new bleeding episodes until now.\",\n \"To evaluate the prevalence of localized hypoattenuating areas in the cochlear otic capsule at temporal-bone thin-section computed tomography (CT) in pediatric patients and correlate the findings with clinical information. Temporal-bone thin-section CT images obtained in 73 patients aged 0-9 years (20 Austrian, 53 Finnish; 36 female and 37 male patients) were evaluated for the presence of localized hypoattenuating foci in the region of the fissula ante fenestram of the otic capsule. Clinical information collected for all patients was also evaluated. The data were analyzed with a logistic regression model. Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram were observed in 23 of 73 patients (32%). Hypoattenuating foci were substantially more prevalent in patients younger than 3 years than in those 3 years or older (odds ratio, 0.14; 95% CI: 0.04, 0.52; P =.001). The prevalence did not differ between sexes or according to clinical diagnosis. Only three of the 23 patients with hypoattenuating foci had clinical findings suggestive of otosclerosis, and none had osteogenesis imperfecta. After adjustment for age and sex, the finding was more prevalent among the Finnish patients (odds ratio, 5.4; 95% CI: 1.19, 24.52; P =.02) than among the Austrian patients.\",\n \"The JHTS is a relatively rare phenomenon, seen in approximately 2.5% of all children seen at the emergency department with mild brain injury. This study demonstrates a significant relationship between the JHTS and a positive history of migraine in first-degree relatives.\",\n \"The effect of portal flow deprivation to the liver on bile composition and the biliary system remains undefined in children. This report catalogues the authors' experience with biliary tract problems in children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT). Twenty-nine children with symptomatic idiopathic EHPVT were evaluated for the Rex shunt procedure (mesenterico-left portal bypass) over a 4-year period. The authors retrospectively reviewed all operative reports and pre- and postoperative abdominal ultrasound findings with regard to associated congenital anomalies and abnormal biliary tract findings. Seven of the 29 patients with EHPVT (24%) had associated nonbiliary congenital abnormalities. Twenty-four of 29 (83%) patients had detectable biliary tract pathology by ultrasound examination. Biliary symptoms developed in 3 of the 9 (33%) patients with either stones or sludge (10.3% of all patients). Two patients were treated by cholecystectomy. There was no statistical correlation between biliary tract pathology and the age of presentation, symptoms of portal hypertension, gender, or underlying medical condition.\",\n \"Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo of Childhood (BPVC) is a common cause of vertigo in children and it is characterized by recurrent attacks of vertigo without warning resolving spontaneously after minutes to hours. It has been considered the equivalent of migraine in childhood. Twenty-seven patients diagnosed with BPVC were recruited between 1991 and 1997 with a follow up of at least 15 years. The incidence of migraine, inner ear disorders and family medical history is analyzed. The average age for the onset of the attacks of BPVC was 3 years and 11 months, and for spontaneous resolution, it was around 5 years and 7 months. The average age for follow up was 18 years. Nine patients developed migraine during adulthood. Nineteen of them had a family history of migraine.\",\n \"Congenital cartilaginous rests of the neck (wattles) are very rare, probably branchiogenic malformations. To discuss the clinical and histologic features and the therapy of wattles. We report a 4-year-old patient with symmetric exophytic nodules of the neck that had been present since birth. The two lesions, 0.5 3 0.5 cm, were removed. The histopathologic examination confirmed ectopic cartilaginous tissue.\",\n \"Duplex investigation is not often performed in children. In children with established deep venous thrombosis, a family history with deep venous thrombosis is common. In general, edema was not seen in children with varicose veins and, therefore, does not seem a reliable clinical sign at young age.\",\n \"Radiologists are taught that pyogenic osteomyelitis in children rarely crosses the growth plate because terminal vessels of nutrient arteries loop at the physis, predisposing the metaphysis to hematogenous infection. However, we note that MRI frequently shows osteomyelitis involving both sides of the physis. The purpose of this article is to document our observation that pyogenic osteomyelitis crosses the growth plate more frequently in the pediatric patient population than is classically taught. All pediatric patients (age, 2-16 years) with clinically suspected osteomyelitis from 2004 to 2009 were reviewed for transphyseal disease on a consensus basis. To reveal the statistical significance, we applied a z test to our results. We quantified rare as 20% or less and used a z test to determine whether 27 of 32 (81%) differed from rare. Of 32 subjects, 81% showed transphyseal infection. In our study, the z test revealed that transphyseal infection occurred significantly more often than what would be considered rare (z = 4.75, p < 0.01).\",\n \"yes. The finding of a midline neck mass is the most common presentation of TGDCs in toddlers, whereas infection is the most common presenting symptoms in school-aged children. The incidence of preoperative infection was 41% in our series, much higher than previously reported. Independent of presenting age and symptomatology, recurrence of TGDC remains low when the Sistrunk procedure is employed.\",\n \"Our experience suggests that PFAPA syndrome is an uncommon disease. Most of these children have undergone workup(s) for sepsis performed by their pediatricians because of the associated high fever. The clinical history of this cohort was quite distinctive. This small sample suggests a significant decrease if not cessation of pharyngitis following surgical intervention.\",\n \"Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results.\",\n \"Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":782,"string":"782"}}},{"rowIdx":273164,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol stimuli: automated processing?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.","These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated."],"string":"[\n \"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.\",\n \"These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["These findings have important implications for understanding how drinkers respond to multimodal signals in their everyday environments and highlight the vulnerability of inhibitory control to alcohol's impairing effects.","These results not only provide support for the hypothesis that alcoholics who are L-carriers have greater alcohol craving and possibly greater propensity for drinking but also propose that there is an important 5-HTT gene-by-environment interaction that alters cue craving response for alcohol.","yes. These data indicate age-related differences between adolescent and adult rats in terms of sensitivity to ethanol's motivational effects. Adolescents exhibited high sensitivity for ethanol's appetitive effects. These animals also showed ethanol-mediated behavioral activation during the SOC phase. The SOC preparation provides a valuable conditioning model for assessing ethanol's motivational effects across ontogeny.","Models of drug addiction emphasize the reciprocal influence of incentive-motivational properties of drug-related cues and poor impulse control resulting in drug use. Recent studies have shown that alcohol-related cues can impair response inhibition. What is unknown is whether these cues also disrupt learning of inhibitory associations. Participants performed a conditioned inhibition (CI) task and were required to learn that a neutral image was a conditioned inhibitor when presented in the context of either an alcohol image intended to draw their attention away from the to-be-trained inhibitor, or a control condition in which the alcohol image was absent. After training, subjects in each condition rated the likelihood that the neutral image would signal the outcome. Eye tracking was used to verify that attention to the neutral image was in fact reduced when the alcohol image was present. Compared with controls those trained in the alcohol image condition reported a greater likelihood that the presence of the inhibitor would be followed by the outcome and thus were less able to acquire CI. Measures of eye tracking verified that attention to the alcohol cue was associated with this maladaptive behavior.","yes. In all ROIs examined, HD exhibited greater BOLD response than CON to alcohol relative to neutral beverage picture cues at baseline, indicating heightened cue reactivity to alcohol cues in heavy drinking adolescents prior to the onset of any alcohol use diagnosis. Across the majority of these brain regions, differences in BOLD response were no longer apparent following a month of abstinence, suggesting a decrease in alcohol cue reactivity among adolescent non-dependent heavy drinkers as a consequence of abstaining from alcohol. These results highlight the malleability of adolescent brain function despite no formal intervention targeting cue reactivity. Increased understanding of the neural underpinnings of cue reactivity could have implications for prevention and intervention strategies in adolescent heavy alcohol users.","yes. The present studies are the first to show a statistically significant effect of ethanol on GABA-activated chloride uptake in both SS and LS mice with a clear difference between the genotypes in threshold. The relative threshold differences between SS and LS microsacs in sensitivity to ethanol indicate that selection for resistance to ethanol-induced LORR in SS mice has shifted the ethanol-GABAA receptor concentration-response curve to the right. The findings add key evidence that supports a cause-effect relationship between sensitivity to ethanol-induced potentiation of GABAA receptor function and genetically determined sensitivity to ethanol's behavioral effects.","To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.","Identification of malleable neurocognitive predictors of relapse among alcohol-dependent individuals is important for the optimization of health care delivery and clinical services. Given that alcohol cue-reactivity can predict relapse, we evaluated cue-elicited high-frequency heart rate variability (HFHRV) and alcohol attentional bias (AB) as potential relapse risk indices. Alcohol-dependent patients in long-term residential treatment who had participated in mindfulness-oriented therapy or an addiction support group completed a spatial cueing task as a measure of alcohol AB and an affect-modulated alcohol cue-reactivity protocol while HFHRV was assessed. Post-treatment HFHRV cue-reactivity and alcohol AB significantly predicted the occurrence and timing of relapse by 6-month follow-up, independent of treatment condition and after controlling for alcohol dependence severity. Alcohol-dependent patients who relapsed exhibited a significantly greater HFHRV reactivity to stress-primed alcohol cues than patients who did not relapse.","The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.","yes. The implication of the present findings is that the control of selective attention, instrumental drug-seeking behaviour and emotional state by drug-paired stimuli is mediated by cognitive knowledge of the predictive contingency between the stimulus and the drug.","Research indicates that alcohol intoxication and increased demands on drivers' attention from distractions (e.g., passengers and cell phones) contribute to poor driving performance and increased rates of traffic accidents and fatalities. The present study examined the separate and combined effects of alcohol and distraction on simulated driving performance at blood alcohol concentrations (BrACs) below the legal driving limit in the USA (i.e., 0.08 %). Fifty healthy adult drivers (36 men and 14 women) were tested in a driving simulator following a 0.65-g/kg dose of alcohol and a placebo. Drivers completed two drive tests: a distracted drive, which included a two-choice detection task, and an undistracted control drive. Multiple indicators of driving performance, such as drive speed, within-lane deviation, steering rate, and lane exceedances were measured. Alcohol and distraction each impaired measures of driving performance. Moreover, the magnitude of alcohol impairment was increased by at least twofold when tested under the distracting versus the undistracted condition.","Alcohol dependence may be associated with dysfunction of mesolimbic circuitry, such that anticipation of nonalcoholic reward fails to activate the ventral striatum, while alcohol-associated cues continue to activate this region. This may lead alcoholics to crave the pharmacological effects of alcohol to a greater extent than other conventional rewards. The present study investigated neural mechanisms underlying these phenomena. 16 detoxified male alcoholics and 16 age-matched healthy volunteers participated in two fMRI paradigms. In the first paradigm, alcohol-associated and affectively neutral pictures were presented, whereas in the second paradigm, a monetary incentive delay task (MID) was performed, in which brain activation during anticipation of monetary gain and loss was examined. For both paradigms, we assessed the association of alcohol craving with neural activation to incentive cues. Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy controls, despite similar performance. However, alcoholics showed increased ventral striatal activation in response to alcohol-associated cues. Reduced activation in the ventral striatum during expectation of monetary reward, and increased activation during presentation of alcohol cues were correlated with alcohol craving in alcoholics, but not healthy controls.","yes. High-dose diazepam reduces prime-induced activation of ALC concepts in problem drinkers. Low-dose diazepam facilitates this process, and cross-priming of motivation for alcohol appears to explain this effect. Neurochemical modulation of the alcohol memory network may contribute to the motivational effects of benzodiazepines in problem drinkers.","The alcohol discriminative stimulus has been extensively studied in animals and demonstrated to be pharmacologically complex. In contrast, however, the alcohol stimulus has been less frequently studied in humans. The aim of the experiments reported here was to characterise pharmacologically an alcohol discriminative stimulus in social drinkers. Volunteers were first trained to discriminate a dose of 0.2 g/kg alcohol from placebo, using an established method. We then investigated the generalisation response and subjective effects following a range of doses of the gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA)(A) benzodiazepine-receptor agonist lorazepam (0, 0.5, 1 and 2 mg, PO). Low doses of lorazepam (0.5 and 1 mg) did not cross-generalise with the alcohol stimulus and produced only minimal subjective effects. However, a dose of 2 mg lorazepam substituted (60.8%) for the stimulus ( P<0.02) and increased subjective ratings of \"lightheaded\" ( P<0.05).","yes. These results indicate that alcohol intake slows down rod and cone-pathway-mediated temporal processing. Further research may elucidate whether this effect may play a role in alcohol-related injury and accidents, which often occur under low-light conditions.","yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.","To apply a new paradigm using transient changes to visual scenes to explore information processing biases relating to \"social\" levels of alcohol and cannabis use. Male and female student volunteers (n = 200) not self-reporting substance-related problems. Quiet testing areas throughout the university campus. A flicker paradigm, for inducing change blindness with lighter and heavier social users of alcohol (experiment 1, n= 100) and social users and non-users of cannabis (experiment 2, n= 100), explored the associations between habitual level of use and the latency to detection of a single substance-related or neutral change made to a scene of grouped substance-related and neutral objects. Alcohol use was measured as the number of units of the heaviest drinking day from the previous week; cannabis use as the number of months of use in previous 12. Change-detection latency comparisons were used to evaluate processing biases. In both experiments, (i) heavier social users detected substance-related changes quicker than lighter and non-users; (ii) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than heavier users; (iii) heavier social users detected substance-related quicker than substance-neutral changes; and (iv) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than substance-related changes.","yes. When alcohol cues are present, there is a reduced ability to learn that such information is irrelevant to an outcome, and this impairs ones' ability to inhibit perseveration of a response. This has implications for persistence of a drinking episode.","Words denoting negative affect (NEG) have been found to prime alcohol-related words (ALC) on semantic priming tasks, and this effect is tied to severity of addiction. Previous research suggested that high doses of benzodiazepines may dampen NEG-ALC priming. The present study tested this possibility and the role of motivation for alcohol in this process. A placebo-controlled, double blind, between-within, counterbalanced design was employed. Two groups of male problem drinkers (n = 6/group) received a high (15-mg) or low (5-mg) dose of diazepam versus placebo on two identical test sessions. A lexical decision task assessed priming. Under placebo, significant NEG-->ALC priming emerged in each group. High-dose diazepam selectively reversed this effect, while low-dose selectively enhanced it. Correlations between NEG-->ALC priming and desire for alcohol provided further support that semantic priming of ALC concepts reflects a motivational process. The bi-directional effects found here parallel the effects of high- versus low-dose benzodiazepines on alcohol self-administration in animals.","Granule cells occupy a strategic position in the transmission of afferent information to the cerebellar cortex. They are also the most abundant type of neurons in the cerebellum. The functions of the cerebellum are thought to be sensitive to acute alcohol intoxication. The effects of acute alcohol intoxication on the in vivo physiology of cerebellar granule cells are, however, not completely known. We studied chloralose-anesthetized cats at ethanol doses relevant to human drinking (0.3-1.2 g/kg). We recorded the electrophysiological responses of granule cell clusters to auditory and visual stimulation, and simultaneously monitored the concentration of ethanol in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). At an intravenous ethanol dose of 0.3 g/kg, CSF ethanol concentration peaked in 10 minutes at 17 mM, equivalent to a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of about 0.08 g/dL. Ethanol quickly and almost completely abolished both auditory and visual responses from granule cells. Complete or near-complete inhibition lasted 15 to 20 minutes; approximately 50% recovery required an additional 15 minutes, and a full recovery yet another 15 minutes. A higher ethanol dose at 1.2 g/kg resulted in a more severe inhibition and required longer time for recovery. The relationship between ethanol dose, CSF ethanol concentration, and granule cell responses was dynamic and nonlinear, critically depending upon the elapsed time.","yes. The results indicate that young adult binge drinkers show a biphasic alcohol response, with heightened sensitivity to stimulant-like alcohol effects and greater tolerance to sedative alcohol effects compared with their light-drinking counterparts.","Alcohol-arousal associations and other implicit cognitions (attentional bias, approach associations) are not positively related to individual differences in the sensitivity to alcohol's activating effects, at least not in the present sample consisting primarily of family history-negative heavy drinkers.","Research has begun to examine how acute cognitive impairment from alcohol could contribute to alcohol abuse. Specifically, alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control could compromise the drinker's ability to stop the self-administration of alcohol, increasing the risk of binge drinking. The present study was designed to test this hypothesis by examining the relation between acute alcohol impairment of inhibitory control and alcohol consumption during a single drinking episode. Twenty-six healthy adults performed a cued go/no-go task that measured inhibitory control. The study tested the degree to which their inhibitory control was impaired by a moderate dose of alcohol (0.65 g/kg) versus a placebo and the extent to which individual differences in this impairment predicted levels of alcohol consumption as assessed by ad lib drinking in the laboratory. In accord with the hypothesis, greater impairment of inhibitory control from alcohol was associated with increased ad lib consumption.","yes. We observed for the first time a generalized emotional decoding impairment in alcoholism, as this impairment is present not only for faces but also for other visual (i.e. body postures) and auditory stimuli. Moreover, we report that this alteration (1) is mainly indexed by an overestimation of anger and (2) cannot be explained by an 'affect labelling' impairment, as the semantic comprehension of written emotional scenarios is preserved. Fundamental and clinical implications are discussed.","yes. Alcohol and cannabis processing biases are found at levels of social use, have the potential to influence future consumption and for this reason merit further research.","Subjective responses to alcohol represent a biologically based, genetically moderated, and clinically informative marker of alcoholism risk; however, the physiology underlying this phenotype remains unclear. This study tested whether subjective responses during alcohol administration predict neural responses to alcohol cues in the scanner and whether these neural responses differ between OPRM1 genotypes. Twenty alcohol-dependent individuals were recruited (10 G-allele carriers; 6 women; Mage = 29.4) for a within-subjects alcohol administration in the laboratory and a functional magnetic resonance imaging session consisting of an alcohol taste cues task. Laboratory assessments of alcohol high, liking, craving, and positive and negative reinforcement during alcohol administration were entered as predictors of neural response to the presentation of alcohol cues versus water cues in the scanner and further tested for OPRM1 genotype moderation (whole-brain cluster-corrected at Z > 1.96, p < .05). Alcohol craving during alcohol administration predicted less neural activity, whereas alcohol reinforcement predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues versus water cues in regions including the precuneus, posterior cingulate gyrus, and lingual gyrus. Alcohol high predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues in regions including the precuneus and anterior cingulate cortex. OPRM1 genotype was found to moderate these relationships. No results were observed for alcohol liking.","yes. These data suggest that mice selectively bred for low alcohol preference are more sensitive to the development of alcohol CTA than mice selectively bred for high alcohol preference. The present findings indicate that common genes mediate both alcohol preference and the aversive effects of alcohol as measured in the CTA paradigm.","A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.","Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication.","Stimuli that are regularly associated with alcohol intake (AI) may acquire incentive salience, while other reinforcers can be devalued. We assessed whether brain activation elicited by (1) alcohol associated, (2) affectively positive, and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli is associated with the subsequent risk of relapse. Twelve detoxified alcoholic subjects (6 women and 6 men) and 12 age-matched and gender-matched healthy control subjects were assessed with functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and a fast single-event paradigm using standardized affective and alcohol-associated pictures. Patients were followed for 6 months and AI was recorded. In alcoholic subjects, compared with healthy control subjects, (1) alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli elicited increased activation in the prefrontal (PFC; BA 6 and 10) and cingulate cortex (BA 23 and 24), precuneus and adjacent parietal cortex; (2) positive versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC; BA 24), PFC (BA 10), ventral striatum and thalamus; and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the PFC (BA 10). Seven alcoholic subjects relapsed. Within the follow-up period of 6 months, the number of subsequent drinking days (DD) and the amount of AI were inversely correlated with brain activation elicited by positive versus neutral stimuli in the thalamus (DD: r=-0.63, p=0.03; AI: r=-0.63, p=0.03) and in the ventral striatum (DD: r=-0.60, p=0.04; AI: r=-0.48, p=0.11).","yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.","Chronic alcoholism leads to impaired visual and auditory processing of emotions, but the cross-modal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli has not yet been explored. Our objectives were to describe the electrophysiological correlates of unimodal (visual and auditory) impairments in emotion processing in people suffering from alcoholism, to determine whether this deficit is general or emotion-specific, and to explore potential deterioration in the specific cross-modal integration processes in alcoholism. We used an emotion-detection task, with recording of event-related potentials (ERPs), in which 15 patients suffering from alcoholism and 15 matched healthy control subjects were asked to detect the emotion (angry, happy or neutral) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. Behavioural performance and ERP data recorded between June 2005 and April 2006 were analyzed. ERPs demonstrated that the deficit in alcoholism originates earlier in the cognitive stream than has previously been described (mainly P300), namely, at the level of specific face (N170) and voice (N2) perceptive processing. Moreover, while patients with alcoholism did not show impaired processing of happy and neutral audio-visual stimuli, they did have a specific impairment in the cross-modal processing of anger. A source location analysis was used to confirm and illustrate the results.","no. Results support the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. Findings are discussed in broad terms of an individual's cognitive capabilities when intoxicated and in terms of risk for later alcoholism.","These results replicated and extended past evidence that cognitive distraction is associated with lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in highly provoked males and provide the first known cognitive data to support the attentional processes posited by the attention-allocation model. Discussion focused on how these data inform intervention programming for alcohol-related aggression.","To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).","yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.","yes. These results indicate that alcohol-seeking behavior driven by a discrete Pavlovian alcohol cue is strongly invigorated by an alcohol context, and suggest that contexts may function as excitatory Pavlovian conditioned stimuli that directly trigger alcohol-seeking behavior.","Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.","The effects of attentional training show limited generalisation to different alcohol cues and methods of measuring cognitive bias. Experimentally increased attentional bias seems to increase subjective craving, but only among participants who are aware of the experimental contingencies that were in place during attentional training.","Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.","yes. The results confirm that both conditioned stress and ethanol cues elicit ethanol-seeking behavior and, more importantly, that these stimuli produce interactive effects resulting in an increased ethanol-seeking response. The findings also indicate that susceptibility to ethanol seeking induced by conditioned stress and alcohol cues depends significantly on the history of prior alcohol exposure.","yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.","To compare alcohol abusers' and non-abusers' distraction for alcohol-related and emotional words, controlling for emotional valence of those words. The experiment compared 20 alcohol abusers and 20 non-abusers in terms of performance on a computerized Stroop colour-naming test using alcohol-related and non-alcohol-related words. Abusers rated the alcohol stimuli greater in emotional valence than the emotional stimuli. Therefore, differences in emotional-valence ratings between the two groups were statistically controlled. Against expectation, both alcohol abusers and non-abusers were more distracted by alcohol stimuli than by positive or negative emotional stimuli.","Although striatal dopamine (DA) is important in alcohol abuse, the nature of DA release during actual alcohol drinking is unclear, since drinking includes self-administration of both conditioned flavor stimuli (CS) of the alcoholic beverage and subsequent intoxication, the unconditioned stimulus (US). Here, we used a novel self-administration analog to distinguish nucleus accumbens (NAcc) DA responses specific to the CS and US. Right-handed male heavy drinkers (n = 26) received three positron emission tomography (PET) scans with the D2/D3 radioligand [(11)C]raclopride (RAC) and performed a pseudo self-administration task that separately administered a flavor CS of either a habitually consumed beer or the appetitive control Gatorade®, concomitant with the US of ethanol intoxication (0.06 g/dL intravenous (IV) administration) or IV saline. Scan conditions were Gatorade flavor + saline (Gat&Sal), Gatorade flavor + ethanol (Gat&Eth), and beer flavor + ethanol (Beer&Eth). Ethanol (US) reduced RAC binding (inferring DA release) in the left (L) NAcc [Gat&Sal > Gat&Eth]. Beer flavor (CS) increased DA in the right (R) NAcc [Gat&Eth > Beer&Eth]. The combination of beer flavor and ethanol (CS + US), [Gat&Sal > Beer&Eth], induced DA release in bilateral NAcc. Self-reported intoxication during scanning correlated with L NAcc DA release. Relative to saline, infusion of ethanol increased alcoholic drink wanting.","Alcohol craving is associated with greater alcohol-related problems and less favorable treatment prognosis. The Obsessive Compulsive Drinking Scale (OCDS) is the most widely used alcohol craving instrument. The OCDS has been validated in adults with alcohol use disorders (AUDs), which typically emerge in early adulthood. This study examines the validity of the OCDS in a nonclinical sample of young adults. Three hundred and nine college students (mean age of 21.8 years, SD = 4.6 years) completed the OCDS, Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT), and measures of alcohol consumption. Subjects were randomly allocated to 2 samples. Construct validity was examined via exploratory factor analysis (n = 155) and confirmatory factor analysis (n = 154). Concurrent validity was assessed using the AUDIT and measures of alcohol consumption. A second, alcohol-dependent sample (mean age 42 years, SD 12 years) from a previously published study (n = 370) was used to assess discriminant validity. A unique young adult OCDS factor structure was validated, consisting of Interference/Control, Frequency of Obsessions, Alcohol Consumption and Resisting Obsessions/Compulsions. The young adult 4-factor structure was significantly associated with the AUDIT and alcohol consumption. The 4 factor OCDS successfully classified nonclinical subjects in 96.9% of cases and the older alcohol-dependent patients in 83.7% of cases. Although the OCDS was able to classify college nonproblem drinkers (AUDIT <13, n = 224) with 83.2% accuracy, it was no better than chance (49.4%) in classifying potential college problem drinkers (AUDIT score ≥13, n = 85).","Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.","yes. In line with our hypothesis we found higher cue-induced activation of the ventral striatum in social compared to heavy drinkers, and higher dorsal striatal activation in heavy drinkers. Increased prefrontal activation may indicate that social drinkers activate cortical control when viewing alcohol cues, which may prevent the development of heavy drinking or alcohol dependence. Our results suggest differentiating treatment research depending on whether alcohol use is hedonic or compulsive.","Relapse is a serious challenge in problem gambling (PG), as it is in substance addiction. Stress and cues are implicated in relapse in both conditions. However, experimental research on motivational effects of stress in PG subjects is scant. This study examined subjective-motivational, cognitive and physiological effects of stress and alcohol cues in subjects with PG, alcohol use disorder (AD), co-occurring PG and AD (CO), and healthy controls (HC). Fifty-two (12/clinical group; 16 HC) physically healthy men received stress in the form of 10-min uncontrollable noise (U-Noise vs. controllable noise; C-Noise) and cues (355 ml non-alcoholic 'placebo' beer; P-Beer vs. soft drink) under Separate or Combined conditions on two test sessions. Visual analogue scales assessed subjective effects. Emotional Stroop and Go/No-Go 'Shift' tasks assessed inhibitory control. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) indexed physiological reactivity. U-Noise and C-Noise increased desire for alcohol in all groups. U-Noise selectively inhibited desire to gamble in PG subjects. Both U-Noise and C-Noise inhibited desire to gamble in CO subjects. Neither manipulation reliably altered cognitive performance. Compared to Neutral words, Alcohol words impaired Stroop color-naming in all groups except PG, which displayed relatively faster color-naming of Alcohol words (facilitation). U-Noise increased SBP relative to C-Noise in AD and HC groups. U-Noise plus P-Beer and U-Noise per se decreased SBP in PG and CO groups, respectively.","Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \"deviant\" tone within a train of \"standard\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).","There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.","The objective of the two experiments reported was to examine the effects of acute alcohol intoxication and of alcohol expectancies on controlled search across the visual field. After receiving an oral dose of 0.5 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 1), an oral dose of 0.7 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 2), or a placebo, participants searched for a target in large arrays of homogeneous distractors that were either highly similar or less similar to the target. Targets were systematically placed at fixation and at visual angles of 2.5 degrees , 5.0 degrees , 7.5 degrees , and 10.0 degrees . Target detection was less accurate in the placebo condition of both experiments than in the no-beverage control group, suggesting that alcohol expectancies had a negative effect on controlled search. The effects of alcohol at the lower dose and of the placebo on visual search were not different (Experiment 1). At the higher dose, the negative effects of target eccentricity on the accuracy of target detection were larger when targets appeared among highly similar distractors, compared with the placebo condition and with a no-beverage control group. Target eccentricity effects on accuracy or speed were not observed at either dose when targets and distractors were dissimilar.","To investigate the effects of stress on alcohol craving and attentional bias for alcohol-related cues in a group of heavy social drinkers. Forty-four heavy social drinkers were exposed to either a laboratory stressor task or a control manipulation before completing a questionnaire measure of alcohol craving and a visual probe task which measured attentional bias for alcohol-related cues. Participants were subdivided into those with high and low levels of coping motives for drinking. Compared to a control manipulation, the laboratory stressor task produced increases in alcohol craving (P < 0.01). The laboratory stressor task also produced a significant attentional bias for alcohol-related cues, but only among participants who had high levels of coping motives (P < 0.05).","Research has consistently demonstrated that alcohol impairs the ability to divide attention across 2 or more stimuli. However, under certain circumstances, the presentation of multiple stimuli can actually facilitate performance. The \"redundant signal effect\" (RSE) refers to the phenomenon by which individuals respond more quickly and accurately when information is presented as redundant, bimodal stimuli (e.g., visually and aurally), rather than as a single stimulus presented to either modality alone. Recent work has shown that reaction time (RT) to redundant signals is hastened under alcohol, ameliorating the slowing effects of the drug. However, no research has examined whether RSE can reduce the impairing effects of alcohol on the ability to inhibit behavior. This study examined whether the impairing effects of alcohol on inhibitory control might be altered by the presentation of redundant inhibitory signals. Inhibitory control was assessed by a go/no-go task which included single and redundant inhibitory signals. Performance was tested following placebo (0.0 g/kg) and alcohol (0.65 g/kg). The effect of redundant activation signals on alcohol impairment of response activation was also measured. The results showed evidence for RSE on the activation of behavior, but not for inhibitory control. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed RT and reduced response inhibition. Redundant signals had a robust speeding effect on RT, even following alcohol. By contrast, redundant signals failed to improve inhibitory control following placebo or alcohol.","This study provided the first direct test of the cognitive underpinnings of the attention-allocation model and attempted to replicate and extend past behavioral findings for this model as an explanation for alcohol-related aggression. A diverse community sample (55% African American) of men (N = 159) between 21 and 35 years of age (M = 25.80) were randomly assigned to 1 of 2 beverage conditions (i.e., alcohol, no-alcohol control) and 1 of 2 distraction conditions (i.e., distraction, no-distraction). Following beverage consumption, participants were provoked via reception of electric shocks and a verbal insult from a fictitious male opponent. Participants' attention allocation to aggression words (i.e., aggression bias) and physical aggression were measured using a dot probe task and a shock-based aggression task, respectively. Intoxicated men whose attention was distracted displayed significantly lower levels of aggression bias and enacted significantly less physical aggression than intoxicated men whose attention was not distracted. However, aggression bias did not account for the lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in the distraction, relative to the no-distraction, condition.","Animal experiments have provided evidence that the striatum and medial prefrontal cortex play a predominant role in the acquisition and maintenance of drug-seeking behavior. Alcohol-associated stimuli that were regularly paired with alcohol intake may become conditioned cues and elicit a motivational response that triggers relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We used functional magnetic resonance imaging and visual alcohol-associated and control cues to assess brain activation in ten abstinent alcoholics and control subjects. Patients were followed for 3 months, and alcohol intake was recorded. Alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli activated the putamen, anterior cingulate and adjacent medial prefrontal cortex in alcoholics compared with healthy controls. Cue-induced activation of these brain areas was pronounced in the five alcoholics who subsequently relapsed during the observation period. A multiple regression analysis showed that, in alcoholics, the amount of subsequent alcohol intake was associated with the intensity of cue-induced brain activation but not the severity of alcohol craving, amount of previous alcohol intake or duration of abstinence before scanning.","Visuospatial ability is a multifactorial process commonly impaired in chronic alcoholism. Identification of which features of visuospatial processing are affected and which are spared in alcoholism, however, has not been clearly determined. We used a global-local paradigm to assess component processes of visuospatial ability and MR diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) to examine whether alcoholism-related microstructural degradation of the corpus callosum contributes to disruption of selective lateralized visuospatial and attention processes. A hierarchical letter paradigm was devised, where large global letters were composed of small local letters. The task required identification of target letters among distractors presented at global, local, both, or neither level. Attention was either selectively directed to global or local levels or divided between levels. Participants were 18 detoxified chronic alcoholics and 22 age-matched healthy controls. DTI provided quantitative assessment of the integrity of corpus callosal white matter microstructure. Alcoholics generally had longer reaction times than controls but obtained similar accuracy scores. Both groups processed local targets faster than global targets and showed interference from targets at the unattended level. Alcoholics exhibited moderate compromise in selectively attending to the global level when the global stimuli were composed of local targets. Such local interference was less with longer abstinence. Callosal microstructural integrity compromise predicted degree of interference from stimulus incongruency in the alcoholic group. This relationship was not observed for lateral or third ventricular volumes, which are measures of nonspecific cortical volume deficits.","yes. These results suggest that attentional alterations in alcohol dependence are centrally due to a specific alteration of executive control. Intervention programs focusing on executive components of attention should be promoted, and these results support the frontal lobe hypothesis.","yes. In this study, brain activation elicited by briefly presented alcohol-associated stimuli was not associated with the prospective risk of relapse. Unexpectedly, alcoholic subjects displayed increased limbic brain activation during the presentation of affectively positive but not negative stimuli, which may reflect a protective factor in detoxified alcoholic subjects.","Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.","yes. This study provides initial evidence that subjective responses to alcohol, namely craving, high, and the reinforcing properties of alcohol, predict neural markers of alcohol cue reactivity. These results support the validity of laboratory and neuroimaging measures of subjective responses to alcohol and offer an integration of these methods in a sample of alcohol-dependent individuals.","yes. Crossmodal processing of complex social stimuli (such as faces and voices) is crucial for interpersonal relations. This first evidence for a crossmodal deficit in alcoholism contribute in explaining the contrast observed between experimental results describing, up to now, mild impairments in emotional facial expression (EFE) recognition in alcoholic subjects (e.g. Oscar-Berman et al.,1990), and the many clinical observations suggesting massive problems.","yes. In sum, in 2 independent samples, we have demonstrated that HD display a consistent and reliable sensitivity to alcohol's subjective effects and impairment of eye-tracking and psychomotor performance, which is not affected by FH status. This acute alcohol response phenotype in heavy, frequent binge drinkers appears to be robust and reproducible.","Heart rate (HR) acceleration during the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve has proven to be a reliable measure of the sensitivity to the activating effects of alcohol. In this study, we investigated the correlation between an ethanol-induced cardiac change and the strength of implicit alcohol-related arousal and approach associations and attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli in heavy drinkers. These 3 types of implicit alcohol-related cognitions have been proposed to reflect the strength of incentive sensitization that is experienced after repeated alcohol use. Forty-eight heavy drinking men performed a modified version of the Implicit Association Test (IAT) to measure their implicit alcohol arousal and approach-avoidance associations. A modified version of the emotional Stroop was used to measure attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli (blocked and unblocked). Next, a high dose of alcohol (1.0 mL/kg body weight 95% USP alcohol) was administered in a short period of time. Resting baseline HR, blood alcohol concentrations, mood, and craving for alcohol were assessed before alcohol administration and for 2 hours post-alcohol consumption. Contrary to our hypothesis, a negative association was found between implicit arousal associations and alcohol-induced HR change. This indicates that strong arousal associations were correlated with a decrease in alcohol-induced HR. Approach associations and attentional bias were not correlated with alcohol-induced HR change, but both were correlated positively with each other.","yes. Adopting personalised stimuli and eye movement monitoring significantly improves the internal reliability of the alcohol-related visual probe task.","yes. We hypothesize a novel mechanism by which alcohol-associated cues promote drug-seeking behavior via activation of dopamine-stimulating alpha-CtxMII-sensitive nAChRs in the VTA. Pharmacological manipulations of selective nAChRs may thus be possible treatment strategies to prevent cue-induced relapse.","Attentional biases and deficits play a central role in the development and maintenance of alcohol dependence, but the underlying attentional processes accounting for these deficits have been very little explored. Importantly, the differential alterations across the 3 attentional networks (alerting, orienting, and executive control) remain unclear in this pathology. Thirty recently detoxified alcohol-dependent individuals and 30 paired controls completed the Attention Network Test, which allow exploring the attentional alterations specifically related to the 3 attentional networks. Alcohol-dependent individuals presented globally delayed reaction times compared to controls. More centrally, they showed a differential deficit across attention networks, with a preserved performance for alerting and orienting networks but impaired executive control (p < 0.001). This deficit was not related to psychopathological comorbidities but was positively correlated with the duration of alcohol-dependence habits, the number of previous detoxification treatments and the mean alcohol consumption before detoxification.","yes. These results demonstrate that alcoholics exhibit a basic prepotent response inhibition deficit, which is enhanced when the response to be suppressed is related to alcohol. We discuss clinical and theoretical implications of these findings.","This study was developed to offer direct support for the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. The model suggests that alcohol consumption limits attentional resources to the most salient environmental cue. Forty men participated in a study designed to test the model using measures of memory and attention during ethanol intoxication. Twenty completed memory tests in the presence of a background distractor and 20 completed the tests without a distractor, in two sessions: once while intoxicated (80 mg/dl BAC) and once while sober. A significant Distraction x Intoxication interaction indicated that ethanol-related differences in recall occurred only in the absence of distraction. Distraction impaired subjects only when they were sober.","In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.","A possible explanation for increased levels of attractiveness of faces when under the influence of alcohol is the reduced ability to perceive bilateral asymmetry. This study tested the degree of preference by alcohol-dosed and non-alcohol-dosed participants for symmetrical faces and their ability to detect facial symmetry, while controlling for other explanations. Volunteers were recruited to a random allocation experiment with three conditions: alcoholic drink (alcohol dosed), non-alcoholic drink (placebo) and diluted orange cordial (control). Data on concentration, personality and demographics were collected. Dependent variables were symmetry preference and detection. Laboratory, University of Roehampton. A total of 101 participants, mainly students (41 alcohol-dosed, 40 placebo, 20 control). Participants provided verbal responses to images of faces which were presented on a computer screen for 5 seconds each; the first task required a preference judgement and the second task consisted of a forced-choice response of whether or not a face was symmetrical. Levels of concentration, weight and level of alcohol dose were measured, and demographics plus additional psychological and health information were collected using a computer-based questionnaire. In contrast to a previous investigation, there was no difference in symmetry preference between conditions (P = 0.846). In agreement with previous findings, participants who had not drunk alcohol were better at detecting whether a face was symmetrical or asymmetrical (P = 0.043). Measures of concentration did not differ between conditions (P = 0.214-0.438). Gender did not affect ability to detect symmetry in placebo or alcohol-dosed participants (P = 0.984, 0.499); however, alcohol-dosed females were shown to demonstrate greater symmetry preference than alcohol-dosed males (P = 0.004).","yes. Acute alcohol intoxication at either a low or high dose and placebo-associated intoxication expectancies have a detrimental effect on controlled visual search in large arrays. Acute alcohol intoxication at a high dosage exaggerates the detrimental effects of target eccentricity and of task difficulty on controlled visual search.","yes. Cue-induced behavioural activation was specific to alcohol cues, reproducible, persistent and could be blocked by naltrexone, and its correlation with human self-report of craving makes it a potentially useful model for studying alcohol craving.","Chronic alcoholism is classically associated with major deficits in the visual and auditory processing of emotions. However, the crossmodal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli, which occurs most frequently in everyday life, has not yet been explored. The aim of this study was to explore crossmodal processing in alcoholism, and specifically the auditory-visual facilitation effect. Twenty patients suffering from alcoholism, and 20 matched healthy controls had to detect the emotion (anger or happiness) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. The stimuli were designed to elicit a facilitation effect (namely, faster reaction times (RTs) for crossmodal condition than for unimodal ones). RTs and performance were recorded. While the control subjects elicited a significant facilitation effect, alcoholic individuals did not present this effect, as no significant differences between RTs according to the modality were shown. This lack of facilitation effect is the marker of an impaired auditory-visual processing.","yes. Global-local feature perception was generally spared in abstinent chronic alcoholics, but impairments were observed when directing attention to global features and when global and local information interfered at stimulus or response levels. Furthermore, the interference-callosal integrity relationship in alcoholics indicates that compromised visuospatial functions include those requiring bilateral integration of information.","yes. These results suggest that, in smokers, ingestion of a moderate dose of alcohol increases the propensity for smoking-related cues to hold attention and makes those cues seem more attractive, which is consistent with alcohol increasing the 'incentive salience' of smoking cues.","yes. After initial visual orienting towards alcohol-related stimuli, light social drinkers as well as longer abstinent alcohol-dependent patients disengage their attention. In patients, this disengagement increased during the first 3 weeks after detoxification indicating assimilation to the attentional bias pattern of light social drinkers.","yes. The results indicate that alcohol words are distracting for drinkers in general, and this may indicate a high level of salience for these kinds of stimuli.","To assess whether alcohol-related biases in selective-attention and action tendency uniquely or concurrently predict the ability to regulate alcohol consumption. Two groups of undergraduate social drinkers (total n = 55) who differed in their ability to regulate their alcohol consumption completed a novel Selective-Attention/Action-Tendency Task (SA/ATT), which assessed separately alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency. University of Western Australia, Australia. Dysregulated drinking was operationalized as a self-reported high level of alcohol consumption on the Alcohol Consumption Questionnaire, and a high desire to reduce consumption on the Brief Readiness to Change Algorithm. Selective attention and action tendency were assessed using the SA/ATT, working memory was assessed using the operation-span task and participant characteristics were assessed using the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) and Stages of Change Readiness and Treatment Eagerness Scale (SOCRATES). Results indicated that (i) there was no significant association between alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency, r = 0.16, P = 0.274, and (ii) biases towards alcohol, in both selective attention, β = 1.01, odds ratio = 2.74, P = 0.022, and action tendency, β = 1.24, odds ratio = 3.45, P = 0.015, predicted independent variance in dysregulated-drinker status.","no. The results support the idea that automatic mental processes may moderate the influence of brief motivational interventions on quantity of alcohol consumed per drinking occasion. The findings suggest that intervention efficacy may be improved by utilizing implicit measures to identify those who may be responsive to brief interventions and by developing intervention elements to address the influence of automatic processes on drinking behavior.","yes. These results suggest that the specific deficit that people with alcoholism demonstrate in processing anger stimuli, widely described in clinical situations but not clearly identified in earlier studies (using unimodal stimuli), is particularly obvious during cross-modal processing, which is more common than unimodal processing in everyday life.","This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.","yes. RESULTS suggest that recruitment of compensatory error detection and inhibitory control resources may be required for successful inhibition in the presence of alcohol cues among more severe drinkers. These preliminary findings support the construct validity of the task and indicate several methodological alterations to the task's design that should be implemented in future studies.","Implicit processes such as attentional bias (AB) and automatic approach/avoidance tendencies (AA) play a role in substance use disorders. Whether these processes can predict a relapse in alcohol-dependent patients is still unclear and must be examined in more detail than has been done previously. We aimed to establish whether AB and AA measured during treatment would predict relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We also investigated whether these implicit processes predicted time to relapse better than a more common binary relapse variable. A total of 50 alcohol-dependent outpatients undergoing treatment completed the study. Patients completed the Addiction Stroop Task, which assesses AB, and the relevant Stimulus-Response Compatibility Task, which measures AA. Time to relapse was assessed 1, 2, and 3 months after the bias assessment. Twenty patients (40%) relapsed during the follow-up period. The average time to relapse was 40 days after the first session. Overall, participants had an AB for alcohol-related stimuli and a tendency to avoid these stimuli. Neither relapse nor time to relapse was predicted by either bias type.","yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).","yes. Biases in selective attention and action tendency appear to be distinct mechanisms that contribute independently to difficulty regulating alcohol consumption. Treatment components that could be combined to target both mechanisms could enhance treatment outcomes for alcohol-use disorders.","In the current study, we investigated whether the internal reliability of the visual probe task measure of attentional bias for substance-related cues could be improved by incorporating eye-tracking methods and personalised stimuli. Sixty social drinkers completed two visual probe tasks: one with a broad range of different alcohol pictures, the other containing only images of the participants' preferred drink. Attentional bias was inferred from manual reaction times to probes replacing the pictures, and from the duration of eye movement fixations towards the pictures (gaze dwell time). Internal reliability was highest for personalised (versus general) alcohol stimuli, and for eye-tracking (versus manual reaction time) measures of attentional bias. The internal reliability of both reaction time (α=.73) and gaze dwell time measures (α=.76) of attentional bias for personalised alcohol stimuli was acceptable. Internal reliability of indices of attentional bias for general alcohol stimuli was inferior, although better for the gaze dwell time (α=.51) compared to the reaction time measure (α=.19). Attentional bias towards personalised stimuli was larger than bias to general stimuli, but only for the reaction time measure. There were no statistically significant associations between measures of attentional bias and alcohol consumption or craving.","In heavy drinkers, training attention towards alcohol cues increases alcohol craving, but it is not clear if effects of 'attentional training' generalise to novel stimuli and measurement procedures. We investigated possible generalisation of attentional training to novel alcohol cues and other methods of measuring cognitive bias. A modified visual probe task was used to train participants to direct their attention either towards ('attend alcohol' group) or away from ('avoid alcohol' group) alcohol cues; attentional bias was not manipulated in a control group (total N = 60). After attentional training, we measured cognitive bias (using visual probe, modified Stroop, flicker-induced change blindness and stimulus-response compatibility tasks), alcohol craving and alcohol consumption. Attentional bias for alcohol cues increased in the 'attend alcohol' group, and this effect generalised to novel stimuli, but not to other cognitive bias tasks. In the 'avoid alcohol' group, attentional bias was reduced for the stimuli that were used during attentional training, but these effects did not generalise to different stimuli or cognitive bias tasks. Alcohol craving increased among participants in the 'attend alcohol' group, but only among participants who were aware of the experimental contingencies during attentional training. There were no group differences in alcohol consumption.","Alcohol increases the motivation to smoke, possibly because it increases the incentive motivational properties of smoking cues. We examined whether alcohol would increase attentional, approach, and evaluative biases for smoking-related cues in a sample of daily cigarette smokers. The study used a visual probe task with eye movement recording to investigate biases in visual orienting to smoking-related cues. A stimulus-response compatibility task was used to assess approach tendencies for smoking-related cues, and an explicit rating task was used to assess the perceived valence of smoking-related cues. Participants completed the tasks in two sessions, once after consumption of 0.4 g/kg alcohol and once after consumption of a non-alcoholic drink. Alcohol increased the maintenance of attention on smoking cues (evident from gaze duration and a reaction time index of attentional bias), the perceived pleasantness of smoking cues, and cigarette craving, relative to the non-alcoholic drink. However, alcohol had no effect on the initial shifting of gaze to smoking cues or on the tendency to approach smoking cues.","Previous studies in alcohol-dependent patients have shown an attentional bias (AB) under related substance cues, which can lead to relapse. This AB can be evaluated by the alcohol Stroop test (AST). The AST is a modified Stroop task in which participants have to name the color of an alcohol-related word or a neutral word. AB is the response-time difference between these two types of words. The goal of the current study was to examine modification of AB during specialized hospitalization for alcohol dependence, with the suppression of a training bias that could be present in within-subject design. Individuals with alcohol-dependence disorders (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition) and admitted for withdrawal in the addiction unit of the University Hospital of Clermont-Ferrand (test group, n = 42) and persons with no alcohol or psychiatric disorder (control group, n = 16), recruited among colleagues and friends of the staff, performed the AST. A subgroup of the test group performed the AST in admission (admission group, n = 19), and another subgroup undertook the test immediately before discharge (discharge group, n = 23). Results showed an AB only for patients seen at admission (F[1,55] = 3.283, P = 0.075). Moreover, we observed that the AB in the admission group (mean = 34 ms, standard deviation [SD] = 70.06) was greater than the AB in the control group (mean = 23 ms, SD = 93.42), itself greater than the AB in the discharge group (mean = -12 ms, SD = 93.55) (t[55] = -1.71; P = 0.09).","Attentional bias for alcohol-related cues is associated with the motivation to drink alcohol, possibly because attentional bias increases craving. We examined whether an experimentally induced attentional bias would influence subjective and behavioural indices of the motivation to drink. Heavy social drinkers (N=40) completed an attentional training procedure, in which half of the participants were trained to direct their attention towards alcohol-related cues ('attend alcohol'), and half of the participants were trained to direct their attention away from alcohol-related cues ('avoid alcohol'). After attentional training, participants rated their urge to drink alcohol, and the amount of beer consumed during a taste test was measured. The attentional training procedure produced significant changes in attentional bias in the predicted direction in both experimental groups. Attentional training produced an increase in the urge to drink alcohol in the attend alcohol group, and the attend alcohol group consumed more beer than the avoid alcohol group during the taste test.","yes. These results suggest that a potentiated attentional bias for alcohol-related cues can increase the motivation to drink alcohol. Theoretical and clinical implications are discussed.","To examine whether alcohol-related attentional bias (AB) can be reduced by training heavy drinkers to attend to soft drinks as an alternative to alcohol. Diminishing AB is important because AB has been suggested to be a significant factor in the development, maintenance and relapse of addictive behaviours. AB was trained in a clinically relevant design, and we studied the generalization of this training. DESIGN, PARTICIPANTS AND INTERVENTION: We assigned randomly 106 heavy drinking male college and university students to the attentional re-training (AR; modified visual-probe task) or control condition (standard visual-probe task). Laboratory at Maastricht University. We measured the effects of AR on the visual-probe task with stimuli that were presented in the AR and with new stimuli, and on an alternative measure of AB, the flicker paradigm. We further measured effects on craving and preference for either an alcohol beverage or a soft drink. After AR, participants had learned to avoid alcohol stimuli and had developed an AB for soft drinks. This effect was restricted to stimuli used in the AR. The flicker task, where AB for alcohol was found in both the AR and control groups, was not affected by the AR. No effect was found on craving and the preference task.","yes. This pilot study showed that cue-induced activation of the anterior cingulate, medial prefrontal cortex and striatum may play a role in the attribution of incentive salience to alcohol-associated stimuli, thus increasing the motivational value and attentional processing of alcohol cues. Functional brain imaging may help to identify a group of alcoholics with an otherwise undetected high risk of relapse.","Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \"Alcohol-Shifting Task\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \"go\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.","The aim of this study was to analyse initial orienting processes as well as maintenance of attention towards alcohol cues in recently detoxified alcoholics and light social drinkers. Furthermore, we investigated the influence of pre-treatment alcohol consumption and abstinence duration onto alcohol-related attentional bias. We used an alcohol-visual-dot-probe-task with two different stimulus onset asynchronies (SOA) to examine processes of initial orienting and maintenance of attention separately (50 and 500 ms SOA). With short SOA, we found a positive attentional bias towards alcohol cues in alcohol-dependent patients and light social drinkers that was positively associated with pre-treatment alcohol consumption in alcoholics. Using a longer SOA, a negative attentional bias was found in light social drinkers and in patients abstinent for more than 2 weeks indicating alcohol stimuli avoidance. In patients, we found a negative correlation between attentional bias and duration of abstinence.","This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.","yes. These results suggest that mesolimbic activation in alcoholics is biased towards processing of alcohol cues. This might explain why alcoholics find it particularly difficult to focus on conventional reward cues and engage in alternative rewarding activities.","These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated."],"string":"[\n \"These findings have important implications for understanding how drinkers respond to multimodal signals in their everyday environments and highlight the vulnerability of inhibitory control to alcohol's impairing effects.\",\n \"These results not only provide support for the hypothesis that alcoholics who are L-carriers have greater alcohol craving and possibly greater propensity for drinking but also propose that there is an important 5-HTT gene-by-environment interaction that alters cue craving response for alcohol.\",\n \"yes. These data indicate age-related differences between adolescent and adult rats in terms of sensitivity to ethanol's motivational effects. Adolescents exhibited high sensitivity for ethanol's appetitive effects. These animals also showed ethanol-mediated behavioral activation during the SOC phase. The SOC preparation provides a valuable conditioning model for assessing ethanol's motivational effects across ontogeny.\",\n \"Models of drug addiction emphasize the reciprocal influence of incentive-motivational properties of drug-related cues and poor impulse control resulting in drug use. Recent studies have shown that alcohol-related cues can impair response inhibition. What is unknown is whether these cues also disrupt learning of inhibitory associations. Participants performed a conditioned inhibition (CI) task and were required to learn that a neutral image was a conditioned inhibitor when presented in the context of either an alcohol image intended to draw their attention away from the to-be-trained inhibitor, or a control condition in which the alcohol image was absent. After training, subjects in each condition rated the likelihood that the neutral image would signal the outcome. Eye tracking was used to verify that attention to the neutral image was in fact reduced when the alcohol image was present. Compared with controls those trained in the alcohol image condition reported a greater likelihood that the presence of the inhibitor would be followed by the outcome and thus were less able to acquire CI. Measures of eye tracking verified that attention to the alcohol cue was associated with this maladaptive behavior.\",\n \"yes. In all ROIs examined, HD exhibited greater BOLD response than CON to alcohol relative to neutral beverage picture cues at baseline, indicating heightened cue reactivity to alcohol cues in heavy drinking adolescents prior to the onset of any alcohol use diagnosis. Across the majority of these brain regions, differences in BOLD response were no longer apparent following a month of abstinence, suggesting a decrease in alcohol cue reactivity among adolescent non-dependent heavy drinkers as a consequence of abstaining from alcohol. These results highlight the malleability of adolescent brain function despite no formal intervention targeting cue reactivity. Increased understanding of the neural underpinnings of cue reactivity could have implications for prevention and intervention strategies in adolescent heavy alcohol users.\",\n \"yes. The present studies are the first to show a statistically significant effect of ethanol on GABA-activated chloride uptake in both SS and LS mice with a clear difference between the genotypes in threshold. The relative threshold differences between SS and LS microsacs in sensitivity to ethanol indicate that selection for resistance to ethanol-induced LORR in SS mice has shifted the ethanol-GABAA receptor concentration-response curve to the right. The findings add key evidence that supports a cause-effect relationship between sensitivity to ethanol-induced potentiation of GABAA receptor function and genetically determined sensitivity to ethanol's behavioral effects.\",\n \"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \\\"go/no go\\\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \\\"go\\\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \\\"no go\\\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \\\"no go\\\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \\\"no go\\\" trials under alcohol.\",\n \"Identification of malleable neurocognitive predictors of relapse among alcohol-dependent individuals is important for the optimization of health care delivery and clinical services. Given that alcohol cue-reactivity can predict relapse, we evaluated cue-elicited high-frequency heart rate variability (HFHRV) and alcohol attentional bias (AB) as potential relapse risk indices. Alcohol-dependent patients in long-term residential treatment who had participated in mindfulness-oriented therapy or an addiction support group completed a spatial cueing task as a measure of alcohol AB and an affect-modulated alcohol cue-reactivity protocol while HFHRV was assessed. Post-treatment HFHRV cue-reactivity and alcohol AB significantly predicted the occurrence and timing of relapse by 6-month follow-up, independent of treatment condition and after controlling for alcohol dependence severity. Alcohol-dependent patients who relapsed exhibited a significantly greater HFHRV reactivity to stress-primed alcohol cues than patients who did not relapse.\",\n \"The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.\",\n \"yes. The implication of the present findings is that the control of selective attention, instrumental drug-seeking behaviour and emotional state by drug-paired stimuli is mediated by cognitive knowledge of the predictive contingency between the stimulus and the drug.\",\n \"Research indicates that alcohol intoxication and increased demands on drivers' attention from distractions (e.g., passengers and cell phones) contribute to poor driving performance and increased rates of traffic accidents and fatalities. The present study examined the separate and combined effects of alcohol and distraction on simulated driving performance at blood alcohol concentrations (BrACs) below the legal driving limit in the USA (i.e., 0.08 %). Fifty healthy adult drivers (36 men and 14 women) were tested in a driving simulator following a 0.65-g/kg dose of alcohol and a placebo. Drivers completed two drive tests: a distracted drive, which included a two-choice detection task, and an undistracted control drive. Multiple indicators of driving performance, such as drive speed, within-lane deviation, steering rate, and lane exceedances were measured. Alcohol and distraction each impaired measures of driving performance. Moreover, the magnitude of alcohol impairment was increased by at least twofold when tested under the distracting versus the undistracted condition.\",\n \"Alcohol dependence may be associated with dysfunction of mesolimbic circuitry, such that anticipation of nonalcoholic reward fails to activate the ventral striatum, while alcohol-associated cues continue to activate this region. This may lead alcoholics to crave the pharmacological effects of alcohol to a greater extent than other conventional rewards. The present study investigated neural mechanisms underlying these phenomena. 16 detoxified male alcoholics and 16 age-matched healthy volunteers participated in two fMRI paradigms. In the first paradigm, alcohol-associated and affectively neutral pictures were presented, whereas in the second paradigm, a monetary incentive delay task (MID) was performed, in which brain activation during anticipation of monetary gain and loss was examined. For both paradigms, we assessed the association of alcohol craving with neural activation to incentive cues. Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy controls, despite similar performance. However, alcoholics showed increased ventral striatal activation in response to alcohol-associated cues. Reduced activation in the ventral striatum during expectation of monetary reward, and increased activation during presentation of alcohol cues were correlated with alcohol craving in alcoholics, but not healthy controls.\",\n \"yes. High-dose diazepam reduces prime-induced activation of ALC concepts in problem drinkers. Low-dose diazepam facilitates this process, and cross-priming of motivation for alcohol appears to explain this effect. Neurochemical modulation of the alcohol memory network may contribute to the motivational effects of benzodiazepines in problem drinkers.\",\n \"The alcohol discriminative stimulus has been extensively studied in animals and demonstrated to be pharmacologically complex. In contrast, however, the alcohol stimulus has been less frequently studied in humans. The aim of the experiments reported here was to characterise pharmacologically an alcohol discriminative stimulus in social drinkers. Volunteers were first trained to discriminate a dose of 0.2 g/kg alcohol from placebo, using an established method. We then investigated the generalisation response and subjective effects following a range of doses of the gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA)(A) benzodiazepine-receptor agonist lorazepam (0, 0.5, 1 and 2 mg, PO). Low doses of lorazepam (0.5 and 1 mg) did not cross-generalise with the alcohol stimulus and produced only minimal subjective effects. However, a dose of 2 mg lorazepam substituted (60.8%) for the stimulus ( P<0.02) and increased subjective ratings of \\\"lightheaded\\\" ( P<0.05).\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that alcohol intake slows down rod and cone-pathway-mediated temporal processing. Further research may elucidate whether this effect may play a role in alcohol-related injury and accidents, which often occur under low-light conditions.\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.\",\n \"To apply a new paradigm using transient changes to visual scenes to explore information processing biases relating to \\\"social\\\" levels of alcohol and cannabis use. Male and female student volunteers (n = 200) not self-reporting substance-related problems. Quiet testing areas throughout the university campus. A flicker paradigm, for inducing change blindness with lighter and heavier social users of alcohol (experiment 1, n= 100) and social users and non-users of cannabis (experiment 2, n= 100), explored the associations between habitual level of use and the latency to detection of a single substance-related or neutral change made to a scene of grouped substance-related and neutral objects. Alcohol use was measured as the number of units of the heaviest drinking day from the previous week; cannabis use as the number of months of use in previous 12. Change-detection latency comparisons were used to evaluate processing biases. In both experiments, (i) heavier social users detected substance-related changes quicker than lighter and non-users; (ii) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than heavier users; (iii) heavier social users detected substance-related quicker than substance-neutral changes; and (iv) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than substance-related changes.\",\n \"yes. When alcohol cues are present, there is a reduced ability to learn that such information is irrelevant to an outcome, and this impairs ones' ability to inhibit perseveration of a response. This has implications for persistence of a drinking episode.\",\n \"Words denoting negative affect (NEG) have been found to prime alcohol-related words (ALC) on semantic priming tasks, and this effect is tied to severity of addiction. Previous research suggested that high doses of benzodiazepines may dampen NEG-ALC priming. The present study tested this possibility and the role of motivation for alcohol in this process. A placebo-controlled, double blind, between-within, counterbalanced design was employed. Two groups of male problem drinkers (n = 6/group) received a high (15-mg) or low (5-mg) dose of diazepam versus placebo on two identical test sessions. A lexical decision task assessed priming. Under placebo, significant NEG-->ALC priming emerged in each group. High-dose diazepam selectively reversed this effect, while low-dose selectively enhanced it. Correlations between NEG-->ALC priming and desire for alcohol provided further support that semantic priming of ALC concepts reflects a motivational process. The bi-directional effects found here parallel the effects of high- versus low-dose benzodiazepines on alcohol self-administration in animals.\",\n \"Granule cells occupy a strategic position in the transmission of afferent information to the cerebellar cortex. They are also the most abundant type of neurons in the cerebellum. The functions of the cerebellum are thought to be sensitive to acute alcohol intoxication. The effects of acute alcohol intoxication on the in vivo physiology of cerebellar granule cells are, however, not completely known. We studied chloralose-anesthetized cats at ethanol doses relevant to human drinking (0.3-1.2 g/kg). We recorded the electrophysiological responses of granule cell clusters to auditory and visual stimulation, and simultaneously monitored the concentration of ethanol in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). At an intravenous ethanol dose of 0.3 g/kg, CSF ethanol concentration peaked in 10 minutes at 17 mM, equivalent to a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of about 0.08 g/dL. Ethanol quickly and almost completely abolished both auditory and visual responses from granule cells. Complete or near-complete inhibition lasted 15 to 20 minutes; approximately 50% recovery required an additional 15 minutes, and a full recovery yet another 15 minutes. A higher ethanol dose at 1.2 g/kg resulted in a more severe inhibition and required longer time for recovery. The relationship between ethanol dose, CSF ethanol concentration, and granule cell responses was dynamic and nonlinear, critically depending upon the elapsed time.\",\n \"yes. The results indicate that young adult binge drinkers show a biphasic alcohol response, with heightened sensitivity to stimulant-like alcohol effects and greater tolerance to sedative alcohol effects compared with their light-drinking counterparts.\",\n \"Alcohol-arousal associations and other implicit cognitions (attentional bias, approach associations) are not positively related to individual differences in the sensitivity to alcohol's activating effects, at least not in the present sample consisting primarily of family history-negative heavy drinkers.\",\n \"Research has begun to examine how acute cognitive impairment from alcohol could contribute to alcohol abuse. Specifically, alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control could compromise the drinker's ability to stop the self-administration of alcohol, increasing the risk of binge drinking. The present study was designed to test this hypothesis by examining the relation between acute alcohol impairment of inhibitory control and alcohol consumption during a single drinking episode. Twenty-six healthy adults performed a cued go/no-go task that measured inhibitory control. The study tested the degree to which their inhibitory control was impaired by a moderate dose of alcohol (0.65 g/kg) versus a placebo and the extent to which individual differences in this impairment predicted levels of alcohol consumption as assessed by ad lib drinking in the laboratory. In accord with the hypothesis, greater impairment of inhibitory control from alcohol was associated with increased ad lib consumption.\",\n \"yes. We observed for the first time a generalized emotional decoding impairment in alcoholism, as this impairment is present not only for faces but also for other visual (i.e. body postures) and auditory stimuli. Moreover, we report that this alteration (1) is mainly indexed by an overestimation of anger and (2) cannot be explained by an 'affect labelling' impairment, as the semantic comprehension of written emotional scenarios is preserved. Fundamental and clinical implications are discussed.\",\n \"yes. Alcohol and cannabis processing biases are found at levels of social use, have the potential to influence future consumption and for this reason merit further research.\",\n \"Subjective responses to alcohol represent a biologically based, genetically moderated, and clinically informative marker of alcoholism risk; however, the physiology underlying this phenotype remains unclear. This study tested whether subjective responses during alcohol administration predict neural responses to alcohol cues in the scanner and whether these neural responses differ between OPRM1 genotypes. Twenty alcohol-dependent individuals were recruited (10 G-allele carriers; 6 women; Mage = 29.4) for a within-subjects alcohol administration in the laboratory and a functional magnetic resonance imaging session consisting of an alcohol taste cues task. Laboratory assessments of alcohol high, liking, craving, and positive and negative reinforcement during alcohol administration were entered as predictors of neural response to the presentation of alcohol cues versus water cues in the scanner and further tested for OPRM1 genotype moderation (whole-brain cluster-corrected at Z > 1.96, p < .05). Alcohol craving during alcohol administration predicted less neural activity, whereas alcohol reinforcement predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues versus water cues in regions including the precuneus, posterior cingulate gyrus, and lingual gyrus. Alcohol high predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues in regions including the precuneus and anterior cingulate cortex. OPRM1 genotype was found to moderate these relationships. No results were observed for alcohol liking.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that mice selectively bred for low alcohol preference are more sensitive to the development of alcohol CTA than mice selectively bred for high alcohol preference. The present findings indicate that common genes mediate both alcohol preference and the aversive effects of alcohol as measured in the CTA paradigm.\",\n \"A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.\",\n \"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \\\"response execution\\\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \\\"no go\\\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication.\",\n \"Stimuli that are regularly associated with alcohol intake (AI) may acquire incentive salience, while other reinforcers can be devalued. We assessed whether brain activation elicited by (1) alcohol associated, (2) affectively positive, and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli is associated with the subsequent risk of relapse. Twelve detoxified alcoholic subjects (6 women and 6 men) and 12 age-matched and gender-matched healthy control subjects were assessed with functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and a fast single-event paradigm using standardized affective and alcohol-associated pictures. Patients were followed for 6 months and AI was recorded. In alcoholic subjects, compared with healthy control subjects, (1) alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli elicited increased activation in the prefrontal (PFC; BA 6 and 10) and cingulate cortex (BA 23 and 24), precuneus and adjacent parietal cortex; (2) positive versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC; BA 24), PFC (BA 10), ventral striatum and thalamus; and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the PFC (BA 10). Seven alcoholic subjects relapsed. Within the follow-up period of 6 months, the number of subsequent drinking days (DD) and the amount of AI were inversely correlated with brain activation elicited by positive versus neutral stimuli in the thalamus (DD: r=-0.63, p=0.03; AI: r=-0.63, p=0.03) and in the ventral striatum (DD: r=-0.60, p=0.04; AI: r=-0.48, p=0.11).\",\n \"yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.\",\n \"Chronic alcoholism leads to impaired visual and auditory processing of emotions, but the cross-modal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli has not yet been explored. Our objectives were to describe the electrophysiological correlates of unimodal (visual and auditory) impairments in emotion processing in people suffering from alcoholism, to determine whether this deficit is general or emotion-specific, and to explore potential deterioration in the specific cross-modal integration processes in alcoholism. We used an emotion-detection task, with recording of event-related potentials (ERPs), in which 15 patients suffering from alcoholism and 15 matched healthy control subjects were asked to detect the emotion (angry, happy or neutral) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. Behavioural performance and ERP data recorded between June 2005 and April 2006 were analyzed. ERPs demonstrated that the deficit in alcoholism originates earlier in the cognitive stream than has previously been described (mainly P300), namely, at the level of specific face (N170) and voice (N2) perceptive processing. Moreover, while patients with alcoholism did not show impaired processing of happy and neutral audio-visual stimuli, they did have a specific impairment in the cross-modal processing of anger. A source location analysis was used to confirm and illustrate the results.\",\n \"no. Results support the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. Findings are discussed in broad terms of an individual's cognitive capabilities when intoxicated and in terms of risk for later alcoholism.\",\n \"These results replicated and extended past evidence that cognitive distraction is associated with lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in highly provoked males and provide the first known cognitive data to support the attentional processes posited by the attention-allocation model. Discussion focused on how these data inform intervention programming for alcohol-related aggression.\",\n \"To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).\",\n \"yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that alcohol-seeking behavior driven by a discrete Pavlovian alcohol cue is strongly invigorated by an alcohol context, and suggest that contexts may function as excitatory Pavlovian conditioned stimuli that directly trigger alcohol-seeking behavior.\",\n \"Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.\",\n \"The effects of attentional training show limited generalisation to different alcohol cues and methods of measuring cognitive bias. Experimentally increased attentional bias seems to increase subjective craving, but only among participants who are aware of the experimental contingencies that were in place during attentional training.\",\n \"Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.\",\n \"yes. The results confirm that both conditioned stress and ethanol cues elicit ethanol-seeking behavior and, more importantly, that these stimuli produce interactive effects resulting in an increased ethanol-seeking response. The findings also indicate that susceptibility to ethanol seeking induced by conditioned stress and alcohol cues depends significantly on the history of prior alcohol exposure.\",\n \"yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.\",\n \"To compare alcohol abusers' and non-abusers' distraction for alcohol-related and emotional words, controlling for emotional valence of those words. The experiment compared 20 alcohol abusers and 20 non-abusers in terms of performance on a computerized Stroop colour-naming test using alcohol-related and non-alcohol-related words. Abusers rated the alcohol stimuli greater in emotional valence than the emotional stimuli. Therefore, differences in emotional-valence ratings between the two groups were statistically controlled. Against expectation, both alcohol abusers and non-abusers were more distracted by alcohol stimuli than by positive or negative emotional stimuli.\",\n \"Although striatal dopamine (DA) is important in alcohol abuse, the nature of DA release during actual alcohol drinking is unclear, since drinking includes self-administration of both conditioned flavor stimuli (CS) of the alcoholic beverage and subsequent intoxication, the unconditioned stimulus (US). Here, we used a novel self-administration analog to distinguish nucleus accumbens (NAcc) DA responses specific to the CS and US. Right-handed male heavy drinkers (n = 26) received three positron emission tomography (PET) scans with the D2/D3 radioligand [(11)C]raclopride (RAC) and performed a pseudo self-administration task that separately administered a flavor CS of either a habitually consumed beer or the appetitive control Gatorade®, concomitant with the US of ethanol intoxication (0.06 g/dL intravenous (IV) administration) or IV saline. Scan conditions were Gatorade flavor + saline (Gat&Sal), Gatorade flavor + ethanol (Gat&Eth), and beer flavor + ethanol (Beer&Eth). Ethanol (US) reduced RAC binding (inferring DA release) in the left (L) NAcc [Gat&Sal > Gat&Eth]. Beer flavor (CS) increased DA in the right (R) NAcc [Gat&Eth > Beer&Eth]. The combination of beer flavor and ethanol (CS + US), [Gat&Sal > Beer&Eth], induced DA release in bilateral NAcc. Self-reported intoxication during scanning correlated with L NAcc DA release. Relative to saline, infusion of ethanol increased alcoholic drink wanting.\",\n \"Alcohol craving is associated with greater alcohol-related problems and less favorable treatment prognosis. The Obsessive Compulsive Drinking Scale (OCDS) is the most widely used alcohol craving instrument. The OCDS has been validated in adults with alcohol use disorders (AUDs), which typically emerge in early adulthood. This study examines the validity of the OCDS in a nonclinical sample of young adults. Three hundred and nine college students (mean age of 21.8 years, SD = 4.6 years) completed the OCDS, Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT), and measures of alcohol consumption. Subjects were randomly allocated to 2 samples. Construct validity was examined via exploratory factor analysis (n = 155) and confirmatory factor analysis (n = 154). Concurrent validity was assessed using the AUDIT and measures of alcohol consumption. A second, alcohol-dependent sample (mean age 42 years, SD 12 years) from a previously published study (n = 370) was used to assess discriminant validity. A unique young adult OCDS factor structure was validated, consisting of Interference/Control, Frequency of Obsessions, Alcohol Consumption and Resisting Obsessions/Compulsions. The young adult 4-factor structure was significantly associated with the AUDIT and alcohol consumption. The 4 factor OCDS successfully classified nonclinical subjects in 96.9% of cases and the older alcohol-dependent patients in 83.7% of cases. Although the OCDS was able to classify college nonproblem drinkers (AUDIT <13, n = 224) with 83.2% accuracy, it was no better than chance (49.4%) in classifying potential college problem drinkers (AUDIT score ≥13, n = 85).\",\n \"Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.\",\n \"yes. In line with our hypothesis we found higher cue-induced activation of the ventral striatum in social compared to heavy drinkers, and higher dorsal striatal activation in heavy drinkers. Increased prefrontal activation may indicate that social drinkers activate cortical control when viewing alcohol cues, which may prevent the development of heavy drinking or alcohol dependence. Our results suggest differentiating treatment research depending on whether alcohol use is hedonic or compulsive.\",\n \"Relapse is a serious challenge in problem gambling (PG), as it is in substance addiction. Stress and cues are implicated in relapse in both conditions. However, experimental research on motivational effects of stress in PG subjects is scant. This study examined subjective-motivational, cognitive and physiological effects of stress and alcohol cues in subjects with PG, alcohol use disorder (AD), co-occurring PG and AD (CO), and healthy controls (HC). Fifty-two (12/clinical group; 16 HC) physically healthy men received stress in the form of 10-min uncontrollable noise (U-Noise vs. controllable noise; C-Noise) and cues (355 ml non-alcoholic 'placebo' beer; P-Beer vs. soft drink) under Separate or Combined conditions on two test sessions. Visual analogue scales assessed subjective effects. Emotional Stroop and Go/No-Go 'Shift' tasks assessed inhibitory control. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) indexed physiological reactivity. U-Noise and C-Noise increased desire for alcohol in all groups. U-Noise selectively inhibited desire to gamble in PG subjects. Both U-Noise and C-Noise inhibited desire to gamble in CO subjects. Neither manipulation reliably altered cognitive performance. Compared to Neutral words, Alcohol words impaired Stroop color-naming in all groups except PG, which displayed relatively faster color-naming of Alcohol words (facilitation). U-Noise increased SBP relative to C-Noise in AD and HC groups. U-Noise plus P-Beer and U-Noise per se decreased SBP in PG and CO groups, respectively.\",\n \"Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \\\"deviant\\\" tone within a train of \\\"standard\\\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).\",\n \"There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.\",\n \"The objective of the two experiments reported was to examine the effects of acute alcohol intoxication and of alcohol expectancies on controlled search across the visual field. After receiving an oral dose of 0.5 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 1), an oral dose of 0.7 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 2), or a placebo, participants searched for a target in large arrays of homogeneous distractors that were either highly similar or less similar to the target. Targets were systematically placed at fixation and at visual angles of 2.5 degrees , 5.0 degrees , 7.5 degrees , and 10.0 degrees . Target detection was less accurate in the placebo condition of both experiments than in the no-beverage control group, suggesting that alcohol expectancies had a negative effect on controlled search. The effects of alcohol at the lower dose and of the placebo on visual search were not different (Experiment 1). At the higher dose, the negative effects of target eccentricity on the accuracy of target detection were larger when targets appeared among highly similar distractors, compared with the placebo condition and with a no-beverage control group. Target eccentricity effects on accuracy or speed were not observed at either dose when targets and distractors were dissimilar.\",\n \"To investigate the effects of stress on alcohol craving and attentional bias for alcohol-related cues in a group of heavy social drinkers. Forty-four heavy social drinkers were exposed to either a laboratory stressor task or a control manipulation before completing a questionnaire measure of alcohol craving and a visual probe task which measured attentional bias for alcohol-related cues. Participants were subdivided into those with high and low levels of coping motives for drinking. Compared to a control manipulation, the laboratory stressor task produced increases in alcohol craving (P < 0.01). The laboratory stressor task also produced a significant attentional bias for alcohol-related cues, but only among participants who had high levels of coping motives (P < 0.05).\",\n \"Research has consistently demonstrated that alcohol impairs the ability to divide attention across 2 or more stimuli. However, under certain circumstances, the presentation of multiple stimuli can actually facilitate performance. The \\\"redundant signal effect\\\" (RSE) refers to the phenomenon by which individuals respond more quickly and accurately when information is presented as redundant, bimodal stimuli (e.g., visually and aurally), rather than as a single stimulus presented to either modality alone. Recent work has shown that reaction time (RT) to redundant signals is hastened under alcohol, ameliorating the slowing effects of the drug. However, no research has examined whether RSE can reduce the impairing effects of alcohol on the ability to inhibit behavior. This study examined whether the impairing effects of alcohol on inhibitory control might be altered by the presentation of redundant inhibitory signals. Inhibitory control was assessed by a go/no-go task which included single and redundant inhibitory signals. Performance was tested following placebo (0.0 g/kg) and alcohol (0.65 g/kg). The effect of redundant activation signals on alcohol impairment of response activation was also measured. The results showed evidence for RSE on the activation of behavior, but not for inhibitory control. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed RT and reduced response inhibition. Redundant signals had a robust speeding effect on RT, even following alcohol. By contrast, redundant signals failed to improve inhibitory control following placebo or alcohol.\",\n \"This study provided the first direct test of the cognitive underpinnings of the attention-allocation model and attempted to replicate and extend past behavioral findings for this model as an explanation for alcohol-related aggression. A diverse community sample (55% African American) of men (N = 159) between 21 and 35 years of age (M = 25.80) were randomly assigned to 1 of 2 beverage conditions (i.e., alcohol, no-alcohol control) and 1 of 2 distraction conditions (i.e., distraction, no-distraction). Following beverage consumption, participants were provoked via reception of electric shocks and a verbal insult from a fictitious male opponent. Participants' attention allocation to aggression words (i.e., aggression bias) and physical aggression were measured using a dot probe task and a shock-based aggression task, respectively. Intoxicated men whose attention was distracted displayed significantly lower levels of aggression bias and enacted significantly less physical aggression than intoxicated men whose attention was not distracted. However, aggression bias did not account for the lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in the distraction, relative to the no-distraction, condition.\",\n \"Animal experiments have provided evidence that the striatum and medial prefrontal cortex play a predominant role in the acquisition and maintenance of drug-seeking behavior. Alcohol-associated stimuli that were regularly paired with alcohol intake may become conditioned cues and elicit a motivational response that triggers relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We used functional magnetic resonance imaging and visual alcohol-associated and control cues to assess brain activation in ten abstinent alcoholics and control subjects. Patients were followed for 3 months, and alcohol intake was recorded. Alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli activated the putamen, anterior cingulate and adjacent medial prefrontal cortex in alcoholics compared with healthy controls. Cue-induced activation of these brain areas was pronounced in the five alcoholics who subsequently relapsed during the observation period. A multiple regression analysis showed that, in alcoholics, the amount of subsequent alcohol intake was associated with the intensity of cue-induced brain activation but not the severity of alcohol craving, amount of previous alcohol intake or duration of abstinence before scanning.\",\n \"Visuospatial ability is a multifactorial process commonly impaired in chronic alcoholism. Identification of which features of visuospatial processing are affected and which are spared in alcoholism, however, has not been clearly determined. We used a global-local paradigm to assess component processes of visuospatial ability and MR diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) to examine whether alcoholism-related microstructural degradation of the corpus callosum contributes to disruption of selective lateralized visuospatial and attention processes. A hierarchical letter paradigm was devised, where large global letters were composed of small local letters. The task required identification of target letters among distractors presented at global, local, both, or neither level. Attention was either selectively directed to global or local levels or divided between levels. Participants were 18 detoxified chronic alcoholics and 22 age-matched healthy controls. DTI provided quantitative assessment of the integrity of corpus callosal white matter microstructure. Alcoholics generally had longer reaction times than controls but obtained similar accuracy scores. Both groups processed local targets faster than global targets and showed interference from targets at the unattended level. Alcoholics exhibited moderate compromise in selectively attending to the global level when the global stimuli were composed of local targets. Such local interference was less with longer abstinence. Callosal microstructural integrity compromise predicted degree of interference from stimulus incongruency in the alcoholic group. This relationship was not observed for lateral or third ventricular volumes, which are measures of nonspecific cortical volume deficits.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that attentional alterations in alcohol dependence are centrally due to a specific alteration of executive control. Intervention programs focusing on executive components of attention should be promoted, and these results support the frontal lobe hypothesis.\",\n \"yes. In this study, brain activation elicited by briefly presented alcohol-associated stimuli was not associated with the prospective risk of relapse. Unexpectedly, alcoholic subjects displayed increased limbic brain activation during the presentation of affectively positive but not negative stimuli, which may reflect a protective factor in detoxified alcoholic subjects.\",\n \"Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.\",\n \"yes. This study provides initial evidence that subjective responses to alcohol, namely craving, high, and the reinforcing properties of alcohol, predict neural markers of alcohol cue reactivity. These results support the validity of laboratory and neuroimaging measures of subjective responses to alcohol and offer an integration of these methods in a sample of alcohol-dependent individuals.\",\n \"yes. Crossmodal processing of complex social stimuli (such as faces and voices) is crucial for interpersonal relations. This first evidence for a crossmodal deficit in alcoholism contribute in explaining the contrast observed between experimental results describing, up to now, mild impairments in emotional facial expression (EFE) recognition in alcoholic subjects (e.g. Oscar-Berman et al.,1990), and the many clinical observations suggesting massive problems.\",\n \"yes. In sum, in 2 independent samples, we have demonstrated that HD display a consistent and reliable sensitivity to alcohol's subjective effects and impairment of eye-tracking and psychomotor performance, which is not affected by FH status. This acute alcohol response phenotype in heavy, frequent binge drinkers appears to be robust and reproducible.\",\n \"Heart rate (HR) acceleration during the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve has proven to be a reliable measure of the sensitivity to the activating effects of alcohol. In this study, we investigated the correlation between an ethanol-induced cardiac change and the strength of implicit alcohol-related arousal and approach associations and attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli in heavy drinkers. These 3 types of implicit alcohol-related cognitions have been proposed to reflect the strength of incentive sensitization that is experienced after repeated alcohol use. Forty-eight heavy drinking men performed a modified version of the Implicit Association Test (IAT) to measure their implicit alcohol arousal and approach-avoidance associations. A modified version of the emotional Stroop was used to measure attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli (blocked and unblocked). Next, a high dose of alcohol (1.0 mL/kg body weight 95% USP alcohol) was administered in a short period of time. Resting baseline HR, blood alcohol concentrations, mood, and craving for alcohol were assessed before alcohol administration and for 2 hours post-alcohol consumption. Contrary to our hypothesis, a negative association was found between implicit arousal associations and alcohol-induced HR change. This indicates that strong arousal associations were correlated with a decrease in alcohol-induced HR. Approach associations and attentional bias were not correlated with alcohol-induced HR change, but both were correlated positively with each other.\",\n \"yes. Adopting personalised stimuli and eye movement monitoring significantly improves the internal reliability of the alcohol-related visual probe task.\",\n \"yes. We hypothesize a novel mechanism by which alcohol-associated cues promote drug-seeking behavior via activation of dopamine-stimulating alpha-CtxMII-sensitive nAChRs in the VTA. Pharmacological manipulations of selective nAChRs may thus be possible treatment strategies to prevent cue-induced relapse.\",\n \"Attentional biases and deficits play a central role in the development and maintenance of alcohol dependence, but the underlying attentional processes accounting for these deficits have been very little explored. Importantly, the differential alterations across the 3 attentional networks (alerting, orienting, and executive control) remain unclear in this pathology. Thirty recently detoxified alcohol-dependent individuals and 30 paired controls completed the Attention Network Test, which allow exploring the attentional alterations specifically related to the 3 attentional networks. Alcohol-dependent individuals presented globally delayed reaction times compared to controls. More centrally, they showed a differential deficit across attention networks, with a preserved performance for alerting and orienting networks but impaired executive control (p < 0.001). This deficit was not related to psychopathological comorbidities but was positively correlated with the duration of alcohol-dependence habits, the number of previous detoxification treatments and the mean alcohol consumption before detoxification.\",\n \"yes. These results demonstrate that alcoholics exhibit a basic prepotent response inhibition deficit, which is enhanced when the response to be suppressed is related to alcohol. We discuss clinical and theoretical implications of these findings.\",\n \"This study was developed to offer direct support for the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. The model suggests that alcohol consumption limits attentional resources to the most salient environmental cue. Forty men participated in a study designed to test the model using measures of memory and attention during ethanol intoxication. Twenty completed memory tests in the presence of a background distractor and 20 completed the tests without a distractor, in two sessions: once while intoxicated (80 mg/dl BAC) and once while sober. A significant Distraction x Intoxication interaction indicated that ethanol-related differences in recall occurred only in the absence of distraction. Distraction impaired subjects only when they were sober.\",\n \"In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.\",\n \"A possible explanation for increased levels of attractiveness of faces when under the influence of alcohol is the reduced ability to perceive bilateral asymmetry. This study tested the degree of preference by alcohol-dosed and non-alcohol-dosed participants for symmetrical faces and their ability to detect facial symmetry, while controlling for other explanations. Volunteers were recruited to a random allocation experiment with three conditions: alcoholic drink (alcohol dosed), non-alcoholic drink (placebo) and diluted orange cordial (control). Data on concentration, personality and demographics were collected. Dependent variables were symmetry preference and detection. Laboratory, University of Roehampton. A total of 101 participants, mainly students (41 alcohol-dosed, 40 placebo, 20 control). Participants provided verbal responses to images of faces which were presented on a computer screen for 5 seconds each; the first task required a preference judgement and the second task consisted of a forced-choice response of whether or not a face was symmetrical. Levels of concentration, weight and level of alcohol dose were measured, and demographics plus additional psychological and health information were collected using a computer-based questionnaire. In contrast to a previous investigation, there was no difference in symmetry preference between conditions (P = 0.846). In agreement with previous findings, participants who had not drunk alcohol were better at detecting whether a face was symmetrical or asymmetrical (P = 0.043). Measures of concentration did not differ between conditions (P = 0.214-0.438). Gender did not affect ability to detect symmetry in placebo or alcohol-dosed participants (P = 0.984, 0.499); however, alcohol-dosed females were shown to demonstrate greater symmetry preference than alcohol-dosed males (P = 0.004).\",\n \"yes. Acute alcohol intoxication at either a low or high dose and placebo-associated intoxication expectancies have a detrimental effect on controlled visual search in large arrays. Acute alcohol intoxication at a high dosage exaggerates the detrimental effects of target eccentricity and of task difficulty on controlled visual search.\",\n \"yes. Cue-induced behavioural activation was specific to alcohol cues, reproducible, persistent and could be blocked by naltrexone, and its correlation with human self-report of craving makes it a potentially useful model for studying alcohol craving.\",\n \"Chronic alcoholism is classically associated with major deficits in the visual and auditory processing of emotions. However, the crossmodal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli, which occurs most frequently in everyday life, has not yet been explored. The aim of this study was to explore crossmodal processing in alcoholism, and specifically the auditory-visual facilitation effect. Twenty patients suffering from alcoholism, and 20 matched healthy controls had to detect the emotion (anger or happiness) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. The stimuli were designed to elicit a facilitation effect (namely, faster reaction times (RTs) for crossmodal condition than for unimodal ones). RTs and performance were recorded. While the control subjects elicited a significant facilitation effect, alcoholic individuals did not present this effect, as no significant differences between RTs according to the modality were shown. This lack of facilitation effect is the marker of an impaired auditory-visual processing.\",\n \"yes. Global-local feature perception was generally spared in abstinent chronic alcoholics, but impairments were observed when directing attention to global features and when global and local information interfered at stimulus or response levels. Furthermore, the interference-callosal integrity relationship in alcoholics indicates that compromised visuospatial functions include those requiring bilateral integration of information.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that, in smokers, ingestion of a moderate dose of alcohol increases the propensity for smoking-related cues to hold attention and makes those cues seem more attractive, which is consistent with alcohol increasing the 'incentive salience' of smoking cues.\",\n \"yes. After initial visual orienting towards alcohol-related stimuli, light social drinkers as well as longer abstinent alcohol-dependent patients disengage their attention. In patients, this disengagement increased during the first 3 weeks after detoxification indicating assimilation to the attentional bias pattern of light social drinkers.\",\n \"yes. The results indicate that alcohol words are distracting for drinkers in general, and this may indicate a high level of salience for these kinds of stimuli.\",\n \"To assess whether alcohol-related biases in selective-attention and action tendency uniquely or concurrently predict the ability to regulate alcohol consumption. Two groups of undergraduate social drinkers (total n = 55) who differed in their ability to regulate their alcohol consumption completed a novel Selective-Attention/Action-Tendency Task (SA/ATT), which assessed separately alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency. University of Western Australia, Australia. Dysregulated drinking was operationalized as a self-reported high level of alcohol consumption on the Alcohol Consumption Questionnaire, and a high desire to reduce consumption on the Brief Readiness to Change Algorithm. Selective attention and action tendency were assessed using the SA/ATT, working memory was assessed using the operation-span task and participant characteristics were assessed using the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) and Stages of Change Readiness and Treatment Eagerness Scale (SOCRATES). Results indicated that (i) there was no significant association between alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency, r = 0.16, P = 0.274, and (ii) biases towards alcohol, in both selective attention, β = 1.01, odds ratio = 2.74, P = 0.022, and action tendency, β = 1.24, odds ratio = 3.45, P = 0.015, predicted independent variance in dysregulated-drinker status.\",\n \"no. The results support the idea that automatic mental processes may moderate the influence of brief motivational interventions on quantity of alcohol consumed per drinking occasion. The findings suggest that intervention efficacy may be improved by utilizing implicit measures to identify those who may be responsive to brief interventions and by developing intervention elements to address the influence of automatic processes on drinking behavior.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that the specific deficit that people with alcoholism demonstrate in processing anger stimuli, widely described in clinical situations but not clearly identified in earlier studies (using unimodal stimuli), is particularly obvious during cross-modal processing, which is more common than unimodal processing in everyday life.\",\n \"This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.\",\n \"yes. RESULTS suggest that recruitment of compensatory error detection and inhibitory control resources may be required for successful inhibition in the presence of alcohol cues among more severe drinkers. These preliminary findings support the construct validity of the task and indicate several methodological alterations to the task's design that should be implemented in future studies.\",\n \"Implicit processes such as attentional bias (AB) and automatic approach/avoidance tendencies (AA) play a role in substance use disorders. Whether these processes can predict a relapse in alcohol-dependent patients is still unclear and must be examined in more detail than has been done previously. We aimed to establish whether AB and AA measured during treatment would predict relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We also investigated whether these implicit processes predicted time to relapse better than a more common binary relapse variable. A total of 50 alcohol-dependent outpatients undergoing treatment completed the study. Patients completed the Addiction Stroop Task, which assesses AB, and the relevant Stimulus-Response Compatibility Task, which measures AA. Time to relapse was assessed 1, 2, and 3 months after the bias assessment. Twenty patients (40%) relapsed during the follow-up period. The average time to relapse was 40 days after the first session. Overall, participants had an AB for alcohol-related stimuli and a tendency to avoid these stimuli. Neither relapse nor time to relapse was predicted by either bias type.\",\n \"yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).\",\n \"yes. Biases in selective attention and action tendency appear to be distinct mechanisms that contribute independently to difficulty regulating alcohol consumption. Treatment components that could be combined to target both mechanisms could enhance treatment outcomes for alcohol-use disorders.\",\n \"In the current study, we investigated whether the internal reliability of the visual probe task measure of attentional bias for substance-related cues could be improved by incorporating eye-tracking methods and personalised stimuli. Sixty social drinkers completed two visual probe tasks: one with a broad range of different alcohol pictures, the other containing only images of the participants' preferred drink. Attentional bias was inferred from manual reaction times to probes replacing the pictures, and from the duration of eye movement fixations towards the pictures (gaze dwell time). Internal reliability was highest for personalised (versus general) alcohol stimuli, and for eye-tracking (versus manual reaction time) measures of attentional bias. The internal reliability of both reaction time (α=.73) and gaze dwell time measures (α=.76) of attentional bias for personalised alcohol stimuli was acceptable. Internal reliability of indices of attentional bias for general alcohol stimuli was inferior, although better for the gaze dwell time (α=.51) compared to the reaction time measure (α=.19). Attentional bias towards personalised stimuli was larger than bias to general stimuli, but only for the reaction time measure. There were no statistically significant associations between measures of attentional bias and alcohol consumption or craving.\",\n \"In heavy drinkers, training attention towards alcohol cues increases alcohol craving, but it is not clear if effects of 'attentional training' generalise to novel stimuli and measurement procedures. We investigated possible generalisation of attentional training to novel alcohol cues and other methods of measuring cognitive bias. A modified visual probe task was used to train participants to direct their attention either towards ('attend alcohol' group) or away from ('avoid alcohol' group) alcohol cues; attentional bias was not manipulated in a control group (total N = 60). After attentional training, we measured cognitive bias (using visual probe, modified Stroop, flicker-induced change blindness and stimulus-response compatibility tasks), alcohol craving and alcohol consumption. Attentional bias for alcohol cues increased in the 'attend alcohol' group, and this effect generalised to novel stimuli, but not to other cognitive bias tasks. In the 'avoid alcohol' group, attentional bias was reduced for the stimuli that were used during attentional training, but these effects did not generalise to different stimuli or cognitive bias tasks. Alcohol craving increased among participants in the 'attend alcohol' group, but only among participants who were aware of the experimental contingencies during attentional training. There were no group differences in alcohol consumption.\",\n \"Alcohol increases the motivation to smoke, possibly because it increases the incentive motivational properties of smoking cues. We examined whether alcohol would increase attentional, approach, and evaluative biases for smoking-related cues in a sample of daily cigarette smokers. The study used a visual probe task with eye movement recording to investigate biases in visual orienting to smoking-related cues. A stimulus-response compatibility task was used to assess approach tendencies for smoking-related cues, and an explicit rating task was used to assess the perceived valence of smoking-related cues. Participants completed the tasks in two sessions, once after consumption of 0.4 g/kg alcohol and once after consumption of a non-alcoholic drink. Alcohol increased the maintenance of attention on smoking cues (evident from gaze duration and a reaction time index of attentional bias), the perceived pleasantness of smoking cues, and cigarette craving, relative to the non-alcoholic drink. However, alcohol had no effect on the initial shifting of gaze to smoking cues or on the tendency to approach smoking cues.\",\n \"Previous studies in alcohol-dependent patients have shown an attentional bias (AB) under related substance cues, which can lead to relapse. This AB can be evaluated by the alcohol Stroop test (AST). The AST is a modified Stroop task in which participants have to name the color of an alcohol-related word or a neutral word. AB is the response-time difference between these two types of words. The goal of the current study was to examine modification of AB during specialized hospitalization for alcohol dependence, with the suppression of a training bias that could be present in within-subject design. Individuals with alcohol-dependence disorders (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition) and admitted for withdrawal in the addiction unit of the University Hospital of Clermont-Ferrand (test group, n = 42) and persons with no alcohol or psychiatric disorder (control group, n = 16), recruited among colleagues and friends of the staff, performed the AST. A subgroup of the test group performed the AST in admission (admission group, n = 19), and another subgroup undertook the test immediately before discharge (discharge group, n = 23). Results showed an AB only for patients seen at admission (F[1,55] = 3.283, P = 0.075). Moreover, we observed that the AB in the admission group (mean = 34 ms, standard deviation [SD] = 70.06) was greater than the AB in the control group (mean = 23 ms, SD = 93.42), itself greater than the AB in the discharge group (mean = -12 ms, SD = 93.55) (t[55] = -1.71; P = 0.09).\",\n \"Attentional bias for alcohol-related cues is associated with the motivation to drink alcohol, possibly because attentional bias increases craving. We examined whether an experimentally induced attentional bias would influence subjective and behavioural indices of the motivation to drink. Heavy social drinkers (N=40) completed an attentional training procedure, in which half of the participants were trained to direct their attention towards alcohol-related cues ('attend alcohol'), and half of the participants were trained to direct their attention away from alcohol-related cues ('avoid alcohol'). After attentional training, participants rated their urge to drink alcohol, and the amount of beer consumed during a taste test was measured. The attentional training procedure produced significant changes in attentional bias in the predicted direction in both experimental groups. Attentional training produced an increase in the urge to drink alcohol in the attend alcohol group, and the attend alcohol group consumed more beer than the avoid alcohol group during the taste test.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that a potentiated attentional bias for alcohol-related cues can increase the motivation to drink alcohol. Theoretical and clinical implications are discussed.\",\n \"To examine whether alcohol-related attentional bias (AB) can be reduced by training heavy drinkers to attend to soft drinks as an alternative to alcohol. Diminishing AB is important because AB has been suggested to be a significant factor in the development, maintenance and relapse of addictive behaviours. AB was trained in a clinically relevant design, and we studied the generalization of this training. DESIGN, PARTICIPANTS AND INTERVENTION: We assigned randomly 106 heavy drinking male college and university students to the attentional re-training (AR; modified visual-probe task) or control condition (standard visual-probe task). Laboratory at Maastricht University. We measured the effects of AR on the visual-probe task with stimuli that were presented in the AR and with new stimuli, and on an alternative measure of AB, the flicker paradigm. We further measured effects on craving and preference for either an alcohol beverage or a soft drink. After AR, participants had learned to avoid alcohol stimuli and had developed an AB for soft drinks. This effect was restricted to stimuli used in the AR. The flicker task, where AB for alcohol was found in both the AR and control groups, was not affected by the AR. No effect was found on craving and the preference task.\",\n \"yes. This pilot study showed that cue-induced activation of the anterior cingulate, medial prefrontal cortex and striatum may play a role in the attribution of incentive salience to alcohol-associated stimuli, thus increasing the motivational value and attentional processing of alcohol cues. Functional brain imaging may help to identify a group of alcoholics with an otherwise undetected high risk of relapse.\",\n \"Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \\\"Alcohol-Shifting Task\\\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \\\"go\\\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to analyse initial orienting processes as well as maintenance of attention towards alcohol cues in recently detoxified alcoholics and light social drinkers. Furthermore, we investigated the influence of pre-treatment alcohol consumption and abstinence duration onto alcohol-related attentional bias. We used an alcohol-visual-dot-probe-task with two different stimulus onset asynchronies (SOA) to examine processes of initial orienting and maintenance of attention separately (50 and 500 ms SOA). With short SOA, we found a positive attentional bias towards alcohol cues in alcohol-dependent patients and light social drinkers that was positively associated with pre-treatment alcohol consumption in alcoholics. Using a longer SOA, a negative attentional bias was found in light social drinkers and in patients abstinent for more than 2 weeks indicating alcohol stimuli avoidance. In patients, we found a negative correlation between attentional bias and duration of abstinence.\",\n \"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that mesolimbic activation in alcoholics is biased towards processing of alcohol cues. This might explain why alcoholics find it particularly difficult to focus on conventional reward cues and engage in alternative rewarding activities.\",\n \"These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":8,"string":"8"}}},{"rowIdx":273165,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Alcohol effects on movement-related potentials: a measure of impulsivity?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.","Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication."],"string":"[\n \"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \\\"go/no go\\\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \\\"go\\\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \\\"no go\\\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \\\"no go\\\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \\\"no go\\\" trials under alcohol.\",\n \"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \\\"response execution\\\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \\\"no go\\\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Binge Drinking (BD) typically involves heavy drinking over a short time, followed by a period of abstinence, and is common among young people, especially university students. Animal studies have demonstrated that this type of alcohol consumption causes brain damage, especially in the nonmature brain. The aim of the present study was to determine how BD affects brain functioning in male and female university students, during the performance of a visual working memory task. Event-related potentials (ERPs) were recorded, with an extensive set of 32 scalp electrodes, in 95 first-year university students (age range 18 to 20 years), comprising 42 binge drinkers (BD) and 53 controls, in a visual \"identical pairs\" continuous performance task. Principal components analysis was used to identify and analyze the N2 (negative waveform with a latency around 200 to 300 ms related to attentional processes) and P3 (positive waveform with a latency around 300 to 600 ms related to working memory processes) components of the ERPs. In the matching condition of the task, the N2 component in central and parietal regions was significantly larger in the BD than in the control group. In the control group, the P3 component was larger in the matching than in the nonmatching condition in the frontal, central, and parietal regions, whereas the BD group did not show any significant differences between conditions in any region.","Impulsivity is a hallmark of problem gambling. However, impulsivity is not a unitary construct and this study investigated the relationship between problem gambling severity and two facets of impulsivity: impulsive action (impaired ability to withhold a motor response) and impulsive choice (abnormal aversion for the delay of reward). The recruitment includes 65 problem gamblers and 35 normal control participants. On the basis of DSM-IV-TR criteria, two groups of gamblers were distinguished: problem gamblers (n = 38) and pathological gamblers (n = 27) with similar durations of gambling practice. Impulsive action was assessed using a response inhibition task (the stop-signal task). Impulsive choice was estimated with the delay-discounting task. Possible confounds (e.g., IQ, mood, ADHD symptoms) were recorded. Both problem and pathological gamblers discounted reward at a higher rate than their controls, but only pathological gamblers showed abnormally low performance on the most demanding condition of the stop-signal task. None of the potential confounds covaried with these results.","yes. The hypothesized model was confirmed on a large sample of young adults and replicated on a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers. Taken together, these findings shed further light on the mechanisms through which an impulsive temperament may convey risk for alcohol misuse.","yes. Chronic ethanol consumption alters the frequency of spontaneous MS/DB neural activity following GABA microiontophoresis compared to premicroiontophoresis levels. These data suggest that the kinetics of GABA A receptors in the MS/DB are altered by chronic ethanol consumption independent of changes in the total amount of inhibition or alterations in GABA A receptor alpha1 and alpha4 subunit peptide expression.","yes. These data suggest that chronic alcohol-induced decreases in Kv4.2 channel function possibly mediated by a downregulation of KChIP3 drive the elevated bAP-associated Ca(2+) transients in distal apical dendrites. Alcohol-induced enhancement of bAPs may affect metaplasticity and signal integration in apical dendrites of hippocampal neurons leading to alterations in hippocampal function.","The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.","yes. The present results are consistent with previous studies demonstrating that acetaldehyde is an active metabolite of ethanol, which can have locomotor stimulant properties when administered in the ventricular system of the brain or into specific brain nuclei. Some brain nuclei rich in catalase (i.e.; SNR and ARH) could be mediating some of the locomotor stimulant effects of ethanol through its conversion to acetaldehyde.","Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \"deviant\" tone within a train of \"standard\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).","yes. Our findings demonstrate that acute and chronic effects of alcohol exposure are reflected in changes in 22-28 and 50-55 kHz FM USV counts and acoustic patterns. These data support the notion that initiation and maintenance of alcohol intake in P rats may be due to a unique, alcohol-responsive emotional phenotype and further suggest that spontaneous 22-28 kHz USVs serve as behavioral markers for excessive drinking vulnerability.","Perceived unfairness is related to impulsivity in patients with alcohol dependence. These results provide insights concerning the psychopathology of alcohol dependence.","In this apparently clinically healthy population of abstinent alcohol-dependent subjects, frontal lobe dysfunction was detectable using the Trail A + B and digit symbol tasks. This was despite above-average WAIS-R IQ scores. Consideration needs to be given to routine incorporation of cognitive testing in alcohol dependence since subtle deficits may not be easily apparent and may impact on treatment outcome.","In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.","Impulsivity is a common feature shared by bipolar disorder (BD) and substance use disorder (SUD). SUD and recurrent mood episodes are considered to be risk factors for poor outcome in BD. However, the association between impulsivity, illness chronicity and SUD in BD remains unexplored. 103 BD patients with and without a lifetime history of SUD (36.82±11.34 years, 40 males) were recruited. Participants completed the SCID interview and were administered measures of impulsivity including the Barratt Impulsivity Scale (BIS) and selected tests of the Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery (CANTAB). Hierarchical regression analyses explored the relationship between illness chronicity, SUD, and impulsivity. Variance in the BIS, number of false alarms on the Rapid Visual Processing task and other impulsivity indicators of the Cambridge Gambling Task (CGT) was not explained by the chosen variables. Only an increased number of commission errors in the negative condition of the Affective Go/No Go task was significantly associated with illness chronicity. Furthermore there was a trend suggesting a relationship between a lifetime history of SUD and increased propensity to risk-taking during the CGT. Potential limitations include medication and patients׳ remission status from SUD.","To understand how and why alcohol intoxication affects visually guided stepping, the eye movements and performance of 6 subjects (aged 22-35 years) were monitored as they progressed along a pathway of 18 irregularly placed stepping stones before and after consumption of an acute oral dose of alcohol. Horizontal eye movements were measured with infrared reflectometry; footfall on or off target was monitored via copper fabric soles stuck to subjects' footwear. Breath alcohol concentration was monitored with an Alco-Sensor III breathalyzer. After alcohol loading, both locomotor and oculomotor deficits were evident. All subjects increased their step cycle duration-with prolonged stance, swing, and double support phases-and occasionally missed footfall targets. A large proportion of saccades made to fixate successive stepping stones were inaccurate and were accompanied by one or more corrective saccades. These problems with looking and stepping to footfall targets tended to occur together and were comparable to those seen previously in cerebellar patients undertaking the same task.","Previous studies suggest older adults may be differentially susceptible to the acute neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol intake. To our knowledge, no studies have addressed acute moderate alcohol effects on the electrophysiological correlates of working memory in younger and older social drinkers. This study characterized alcohol-related effects on frontal theta (FTP) and posterior alpha power (PAP) associated with maintenance of visual information during a working memory task. Older (55 to 70 years of age; n = 51, 29 women) and younger (25 to 35 years of age; n = 70, 39 women) community-dwelling moderate drinkers were recruited for this study. Participants were given either placebo or an active dose targeting breath alcohol concentrations (BrACs) of 0.04 or 0.065 g/dl. Following absorption, participants completed a visual working memory task assessing cue recognition following a 9-s delay. FTP and PAP were determined via Fourier transformation and subjected to 2 (age group) × 3 (dose) × 2 (repeated: working memory task condition) mixed models analysis. In addition to expected age-related reductions in PAP, a significant age group × dose interaction was detected for PAP such that 0.04 g/dl dose level was associated with greater PAP in younger adults but lower PAP in their older counterparts. PAP was lower in older versus younger adults at both active doses. Further mixed models revealed a significant negative association between PAP and working memory efficiency for older adults. No effects of age, dose, or their interaction were noted for FTP.","Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \"Alcohol-Shifting Task\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \"go\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.","Impulsivity is the neurophysiologically based inability to confirm behaviour to its context or consequences. Overimpulsiveness characterizes many mental disorders and poses an important clinical dilemma. Although the relationship between mood disorders and impulsivity has been well studied the relationship between anxiety and impulsivity is controversial and not well explored. Some studies hypothesise that patients with the diagnosis of panic disorders are characterised by higher levels of impulsivity as a trait as compared to healthy individuals. The aim of this study was to assess cognitive correlates in panic disorder as related to impulsivity measures. Within the preliminary studies four patients diagnosed with panic disorder (DSM-IV-TR) were studied. The severity measure was the Panic and Agoraphobia Scale. The experimental group comprised of psychotropic drug naive patients. Impulsiveness was evaluated with the Barrat Impulsiveness Scale - 11th version (BIS-11). To asses cognitive functions we used CANTAB (Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery). BIS-11 scores observed in the group of psychotropic drug naive patients with panic disorder were higher than the adjusted average for the population and correlated with the number of mistakes in CANTAB (Spatial Working Memory Test); rs=0.949; p=0.0513.","yes. Startle response to moderate acoustic stimuli can be a predictive index of vulnerability to developing increased alcohol drinking.","yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.","yes. Overall, these results suggest that impulsivity and PTSD-related alcohol expectancies interact to predict alcohol use severity in a comorbid PTSD and substance dependent sample.","Problem gambling has been proposed to represent a 'behavioural addiction' that may provide key insights into vulnerability mechanisms underlying addiction in brains that are not affected by the damaging effects of drugs. Our aim was to investigate the neurocognitive profile of problem gambling in comparison with alcohol dependence. We reasoned that shared deficits across the two conditions may reflect underlying vulnerability mechanisms, whereas impairments specific to alcohol dependence may reflect cumulative effects of alcohol consumption. Cross-sectional study. Out-patient addiction treatment centres and university behavioural testing facilities. A naturalistic sample of 21 male problem and pathological gamblers, 21 male alcohol-dependent out-patients and 21 healthy male control participants. Neurocognitive battery assessing decision-making, impulsivity and working memory. The problem gamblers and alcohol-dependent groups displayed impairments in risky decision-making and cognitive impulsivity relative to controls. Working memory deficits and slowed deliberation times were specific to the alcohol-dependent group.","Recent work suggests that 2 biologically based traits convey risk for alcohol misuse: reward sensitivity/drive and (rash) impulsiveness. However, the cognitive mechanisms through which these traits convey risk are unclear. This study tested a model predicting that the risk conveyed by reward sensitivity is mediated by a learning bias for the reinforcing outcomes of alcohol consumption (i.e., positive alcohol expectancy). The model also proposed that the risk conveyed by rash impulsiveness (RI) is mediated by drinkers' perceived ability to resist alcohol (i.e., drinking refusal self-efficacy). Study 1 tested the model in a sample of young adults (n = 342). Study 2 tested the model in a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers (n = 121). All participants completed a battery of personality, cognitive, and alcohol use questionnaires and models were tested using structural equation modeling. In both studies, the hypothesized model was found to provide a good fit to the data, and a better fit than alternative models. In both young adults and treatment-seeking individuals, positive alcohol expectancy fully mediated the association between reward sensitivity and hazardous alcohol use. For treatment seekers, drinking refusal self-efficacy fully mediated the association between RI and hazardous drinking. However, there was partial mediation in the young adult sample. Furthermore, neither trait was directly associated with the other cognitive mediator.","The psychomotor stimulant theory of addiction posits that sensitivity to the positively rewarding properties of alcohol puts certain individuals at higher risk for alcohol abuse. A valid and reliable index of overactivation in the reward system has been a heightened baseline heart rate (HR) increase on the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The main goal of this study was to investigate the relationship between this HR response and a questionnaire measuring sensitivity to reward and sensitivity to punishment. Additional goals included looking at (1). the association between a high HR response and various personality traits (hopelessness/introversion, anxiety sensitivity, impulsivity, and sensation-seeking) and (2). the relationship between these personality traits and stimulant use. A total of 18 low- and 19 high-HR responders completed the Sensitivity to Punishment and Sensitivity to Reward Questionnaire (SPSRQ), the Substance Use Risk Profile Scale (SURPS), and a modified version of the Addiction Severity Index. High-HR responders obtained significantly higher scores than low-HR responders on the sensitivity to reward scale of the SPSRQ, as well as increased sensation-seeking scores on the SURPS. High-HR responders were not at significantly higher risk of having used stimulants, but stimulant use was associated with higher impulsivity scores on the SURPS.","Impulsivity, which has been the subject of extensive debate in psychiatric research, is a clinically important concept, especially with respect to Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) and Substance Use Disorders (SUD). The current study aims to examine the presence of two aspects of impulsivity (self-reported impulsivity and delay discounting) in patients with BPD, SUD (alcohol use=AUD or drug use=DUD) and the combination of both disorders (BPD+SUD). Patients were recruited from eight different mental health treatment service facilities. A total of 345 participants were assessed and divided into six groups: (1) healthy controls (non-BPD, non-SUD), (2) patients with BPD (non-SUD), (3) DUD (non-BPD), (4) AUD (non-BPD), (5) BPD+AUD and (6) BPD+DUD. The behavioural measure of impulsivity is more conservative than the results of self-reported impulsivity. Furthermore, ANOVA indicated that BPD and SUD have significant effects on self-reported impulsivity, even when demographic variables, income, other psychiatric symptoms or depression are considered as covariates. On the other hand, the main effects of BPD and SUD are mediated by psychiatric symptoms and depression when delay discounting is considered as a dependent variable.","Repeated studies have shown that high impulsivity, when defined as the tendency to choose small immediate rewards over larger delayed rewards, is more prevalent in drug addicts and alcoholics when compared with nonaddicts. Assessing whether impulsivity precedes and potentially causes addiction disorders is difficult in humans because they all share a history of drug use. In this study, we address this question by testing alcohol-naïve mice from lines showing heritable differences in alcohol intake. Replicated selected lines of outbred high-alcohol preferring (HAP) mice were compared to a low-alcohol preferring (LAP) line as well as the low-drinking progenitor line (HS/Ibg) on an adjusting amount delay discounting (DD) task. The DD task employs 2 levers to present subjects with a choice between a small, immediate and a large, delayed saccharin reward. By adjusting the quantity of the immediate reward up and down based on choice behavior, the task allows an estimate of how the subjective value of the delayed reinforcer decreases as delays increase. Latency to respond was also measured for each trial. Both HAP2 and HAP1 lines of mice were more impulsive than the LAP2 and HS/Ibg lines, respectively. Hyperbolic curve-fitting confirmed steeper discounting in the high-alcohol drinking lines. In addition, the high-alcohol drinking lines demonstrated greater within-session increases in reaction times relative to the low-alcohol drinking lines. No other differences (consumption of saccharin, total trials completed) consistently mapped onto genetic differences in alcohol drinking.","Prenatal alcohol exposure can lead to widespread cognitive impairment and behavioral dysregulation, including deficits in attention and response inhibition. This study characterized the neural substrates underlying the disinhibited behavioral profile of individuals with fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD). Children and adolescents (ages 8-18) with (n=13) and without (n=9) histories of heavy prenatal alcohol exposure underwent functional magnetic resonance imaging while performing a response inhibition (go/no-go) task. Despite similar task performance (mean response latency, performance accuracy, and signal detection), blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) response patterns differed by group. Region-of-interest analyses revealed that during portions of the behavioral task that required response inhibition, alcohol-exposed participants showed greater BOLD response across prefrontal cortical regions (including the left medial and right middle frontal gyri), while they showed less right caudate nucleus activation, compared with control participants.","yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).","The objective of this study was to determine the effects of the N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, memantine (0, 20, 40 mg/d), upon alcohol drinking and craving in heavy drinkers with or without a family history (FH) of alcoholism, and to explore the modulatory influence of the presence of impulsivity on these outcomes. Ninety-two, nontreatment-seeking, heavy drinkers received memantine or placebo for 8 days. On the eighth day, they received a priming dose of alcohol followed by a 3-hour period of alcohol access. Memantine at a dose of 20 mg reduced alcohol craving but did not influence alcohol drinking. No effects of FH were observed. In participants with higher baseline levels of impulsivity, 40 mg of memantine reduced alcohol craving but increased alcohol drinking and alcohol-induced stimulation.","yes. Our results suggest that impulsivity is possibly due to a primary increase in Glu transmission mediated via 5-HT(2A) receptor activation. Thus, mGlu2/3 receptor agonists might have some potential for treating motor impulsivity-related impairments while their cognitive enhancing effects were not confirmed in this study.","yes. These findings are in line with predictions made on the basis of dual-process models. They provide further evidence that individual differences in neural baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may contribute to executive functioning abilities such as inhibitory control. Moreover, individuals with strongly positive implicit alcohol attitudes coupled with a low baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may be at greater risk of developing unhealthy drinking patterns than others. (PsycINFO Database Record","yes. Although several studies showing increased reward-sensitivity in addictive behaviors, the present results indicate that, in frequent alcohol drinkers, electrophysiological responsiveness is particularly activated by unpredicted nonrewards. In general, this may point to the involvement of the reward system in alcohol drinking frequency.","It was shown that impulsivity, as a personality characteristic, is strongly associated with aggressive behaviors, whereby the impact of craving on the relationship between impulsivity and trait aggression in alcohol-dependent inpatients was weak.","yes. These findings suggest that heavy drinkers experience deficits in strategic monitoring processing associated with time-based PM tasks which do not abate after FES. That the same strategy improves their event-based PM suggests that FES may be helpful for individuals with problematic drinking patterns in improving their prospective memory.","yes. The results demonstrate that high impulsivity is associated with a delayed transition to DLS-dopamine-dependent control over cocaine seeking. This suggests that, if impulsivity confers an increased propensity to addiction, it is not simply through a more rapid development of habits but instead through interacting corticostriatal and striato-striatal processes that result ultimately in maladaptive drug-seeking habits.","yes. These findings indicate that ethanol exposure decreases the expression and function of CBP in the developing cerebellum. This effect of ethanol may be responsible for the motor coordination deficits that characterize fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.","yes. Our results suggest that the rapid tolerance to ethanol-induced motor impairment in mice may be modulated by adenosine A1 receptors and dopamine D1 receptors.","Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.","yes. Risk of binge drinking in nondependent individuals is not strongly affected by impulsive personality characteristics or alcohol's ability to induce behavioral disinhibition. However, alcohol did lead to a priming effect and bingers were more tolerant to the sedative and lightheaded effects of alcohol relative to placebo. Risk of binge drinking is associated with the subjective effects of a priming dose of alcohol.","Decomposition of event-related potential (ERP) waveforms using time-frequency representations (TFR's) is becoming increasingly common in electrophysiology. The P300 potential is an important component of the ERP waveform and has been used to study cognition as well as psychiatric disorders such as alcoholism. In this work, we aim to further understand the nature of the event-related oscillation (ERO) components which form the P300 wave and how these components may be used to differentiate alcoholic individuals from controls. The S-transform decomposition method is used to derive TFR's from single trial and trial-averaged ERP data acquired during a visual oddball task. These TFR's are averaged within time and frequency windows to provide ERO measures for further investigation. ERO measures are compared with conventional ERP amplitude measures using correlation analyses. Statistical analyses was performed with MANOVA and stepwise logistic regressions to contrast an age-matched sample of control (N=100) and alcoholic male subjects (N=100). The results indicate that the P300 waveform, elicited using infrequent salient stimuli, is composed of frontal theta and posterior delta activations. The frontal theta activation does not closely correspond to any of the conventional ERP components and is therefore best analyzed using spectral methods. Between group comparisons and group predictions indicate that the delta and theta band ERO's, which underlie the P300, show deficits in the alcoholic group. Additionally, each band contributes unique information to discriminate between the groups.","yes. These data demonstrate a significant influence of FH status on brain activation during the performance of a response inhibition task, perhaps reflecting a neurobiological vulnerability associated with FH status that may include reduced neuronal efficiency and/or recruitment of additional neuronal resources. These findings are important given that the adolescent developmental period is already associated with reduced inhibitory capacity, even prior to the onset of alcohol use.","yes. Alcoholic subtypes identified by cluster analysis seem to be differentially responsive to the effects of fluoxetine treatment on drinking-related outcomes. Serotonergic abnormalities previously identified among a subgroup of alcoholics who are also characterized by impulsivity and severity of alcohol dependence may help to explain the differential medication effect. Based on these findings, it is recommended that, in the absence of a comorbid mood or anxiety disorder, fluoxetine not be used to maintain abstinence or reduce drinking in high-risk/severity alcoholics.","yes. Adolescents are less sensitive than adults to the motor-impairing effects of ethanol, and a similar effect is seen with in vivo electrophysiological recordings of cerebellar Purkinje neurons. While still under investigation, PKCγ expression mirrors the age effect of ethanol and may contribute to the age-dependent differences in the ataxic effects of ethanol.","yes. Higher BIS-11 scores in all domains of impulsivity [i.e., motor, attentional, and lack of planning] corroborated previous findings described in patients with JME. On the other hand, BIS-11 could not demonstrate problem solving and inhibitory control deficits related to impulsive behavior, which were described in patients with TLE. Other behavioral measures may be more sensitive to some aspects of impulsivity in TLE. Our results reinforce the concept that distinct epileptic syndromes require different neuropsychological approaches, especially considering a complex construct such as impulsivity.","yes. The kinematic movement performance measures obtained during a drinking task are more strongly associated with activity capacity than with impairment. The movement smoothness and time, possibly together with compensatory movement of the trunk, are valid measures of activity capacity and can be considered as key variables in the evaluation of upper-extremity function after stroke. This increased knowledge is of great value for better interpretation and application of kinematic data in clinical studies.","A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.","yes. Preliminary results showed that in subjects with GAD only the motor component of impulsivity seems directly related to clinical severity, whereas impulsiveness is predicted by higher levels of 2 temperamental dimensions that are influenced by dopamine and norepinephrine systems and by weakness of character.","Executive function (EF) impairment in alcohol dependence (AD) has been related to the toxic effects of alcohol on frontal lobes. However, this impairment could be partially present before the onset of the disease and might constitute a vulnerability factor. Although a considerable body of research has investigated executive functioning among AD patients, much less attention has been directed toward high-risk individuals. Most studies were carried out among children or adolescents, and very few were conducted in adults. The aim of this study was to examine EF in a group of adult offspring of AD individuals. One hundred and fifty-five nonalcoholic adults with (family history positive [FHP]) or without (family history negative [FHN]) family history of AD were included in the study. All participants were screened for past and current psychiatric diagnoses, and alcohol, tobacco, and other substance use. They were compared on self-rated impulsiveness using the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-11 (BIS-11) and EF using a neuropsychological test battery. Group comparison revealed that FHP participants had significantly higher BIS-11 scores than the FHN participants, while neuropsychological examination revealed lower EF scores for FHP participants. Hierarchical regression analysis revealed that the number of AD family members was a predictor of EF results, whereas impulsiveness was not.","yes. These results are consistent with the idea that young adults who have used stimulants find uncertainty particularly salient, due in part to preexisting differences in impulsivity, and may be subject to more \"action pressure\" when making decisions under uncertainty. This neural and personality profile may constitute a marker for increased risk of stimulant use.","yes. The fact that healthy subjects acutely intoxicated by alcohol show symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction suggests that alcohol acutely and adversely affects the cerebellar contribution to performance of visually guided movements.","We investigated reciprocal prospective relationships between multiple behavioural impulsivity tasks (assessing delay discounting, risk-taking and disinhibition) and alcohol involvement (consumption, drunkenness and problems) among adolescents. We hypothesized that performance on the tasks would predict subsequent alcohol involvement, and that alcohol involvement would lead to increases in behavioural impulsivity over time. Cross-lagged prospective design in which impulsivity and alcohol involvement were assessed five times over 2 years (once every 6 months, on average). Classrooms in secondary schools in North West England. Two hundred and eighty-seven adolescents (51.2% male) who were aged 12 or 13 years at study enrolment. Participants reported their alcohol involvement and completed computerized tasks of disinhibition, delay discounting and risk-taking at each assessment. Cross-sectional and prospective relationships between the variables of interest were investigated using cross-lagged analyses. All behavioural impulsivity tasks predicted a composite index of alcohol involvement 6 months later (all Ps < 0.01), and these prospective relationships were reliable across the majority of time-points. Importantly, we did not observe the converse relationship across time: alcohol involvement did not predict performance on behavioural impulsivity tasks at any subsequent time point.","Impulsivity is a \"tendency to act prematurely without foresight.\" Clinical experience suggests that such impulsive behavior can impact on the fall risk in Parkinson's disease (PD), but this has never been tested. We investigated whether trait impulsivity is related to fall risk in a large cohort of PD patients. We also investigated whether trait impulsivity affects the fall risk differently for patients with more or less postural instability and gait disability (PIGD). 388 patients with PD (H&Y ≤ 3) completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11, higher scores indicating greater impulsivity) to assess trait impulsivity, including three subscales: motor impulsivity (e.g. \"I do things without thinking\"), attentional impulsivity (e.g. \"I concentrate easily\") and non-planning (e.g. \"I plan tasks carefully\"). Falls were registered prospectively for 6 months. Patients classified as non-fallers (0 falls, n = 237) were compared to recurrent PD fallers (>1 fall, n = 78). Total impulsivity scores were higher for recurrent fallers (59.5) compared to non-fallers (56.8; p = .012). This effect was predominantly driven by higher scores on the subscale for attentional impulsivity (p = .003). The difference in attentional impulsivity was independent of gender, disease severity, dopaminergic medication, and cognitive function. Motor and non-planning impulsivity did not differ between recurrent fallers and non-fallers. There was no evidence that impulsivity modulated the association between PIGD and fall risk.","Little is known about the association of binge drinking with impulsivity related to trait- or state-like aspects of behavior. The aim of the present study was therefore to investigate whether binge drinkers show an impairment of inhibitory control in comparison to non-binge drinkers when confronted with alcohol-associated or control stimuli, and whether this is reflected in self-reported impulsivity. A go/no-go task with pictures of alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages as well as control stimuli was administered to binge drinkers and a gender-matched group of non-binge drinkers. All participants also completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11). We found an alcohol-specific impairment of response inhibition for binge drinkers only, while the groups did not differ with regard to overall response inhibition to the experimental stimuli or self-reported impulsiveness (BIS-11). In addition, the number of commission errors in response to alcohol-associated stimuli was the only significant predictor of binge drinking.","yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.","Although there is considerable support for the relationship between impulsivity and alcohol dependence, little is known about the impact of neurocognitive aspects of impulsivity on treatment outcome. The aim of this study was to prospectively investigate the impact of neurocognitive impulsivity at treatment onset on treatment completion. Forty-three alcohol-dependent patients entering inpatient treatment for alcohol dependence completed neurocognitive measures of impulsivity at the beginning of treatment. Assessments included prototypical measures of impulsive action (Go/No-go task [GNG] and Stop Signal Task [SST]) and impulsive choice (Delay Discounting Test [DDT], and Iowa Gambling Task). According to treatment outcomes, patients were divided into a patient group with regular treatment completion (e.g., with planned discharges, and without relapse during treatment) or irregular treatment course (e.g., premature and unplanned termination of treatment, \"dropout,\" and/or relapse). Results show that, relative to patients completing treatment in a regular fashion (regular treatment completers [RTC]; 67%), those with an irregular course of treatment (relapse and/or dropout) (irregular treatment completers [ITC]; 33%) had significantly poorer GNG response inhibition performance (p = 0.011), and showed a trend toward greater delay discounting (DDT; p = 0.052) at treatment onset. Additional logistic regression analyses identified poor GNG response inhibition performance as a significant predictor for an irregular treatment course (GNG: p = 0.021; DDT: p = 0.067), particularly for relapse (GNG: p = 0.023).","The findings of the present study suggest that when young adults have established binge drinking as a common drinking pattern, impairment of inhibition in response to alcoholic stimuli is the only significant predictor of binge drinking, but not general impulsive behavior.","yes. Sensation seeking, urgency and lack of premeditation are related to different motives for drinking and also demonstrate dissociable relationships with the consumption of specific types of alcohol (beer, wine and spirits) and the tendency to engage in risky behaviours associated with alcohol consumption. Screening for high levels of urgency and for severe drinking consequences may be useful predictors of alcohol-related problems in UK University students aged 18 to 25 years.","To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).","Executive function, impulsivity, and intelligence are correlated markers of cognitive resource that predict health-related behaviours. It is unknown whether executive function and impulsivity are unique predictors of these behaviours after accounting for intelligence. Data from 6069 participants from the Avon Longitudinal Study of Parents and Children were analysed to investigate whether components of executive function (selective attention, attentional control, working memory, and response inhibition) and impulsivity (parent-rated) measured between ages 8 and 10, predicted having ever drunk alcohol, having ever smoked, fruit and vegetable consumption, physical activity, and overweight at age 13, after accounting for intelligence at age 8 and childhood socioeconomic characteristics. Higher intelligence predicted having drunk alcohol, not smoking, greater fruit and vegetable consumption, and not being overweight. After accounting for intelligence, impulsivity predicted alcohol use (odds ratio = 1.10; 99% confidence interval = 1.02, 1.19) and smoking (1.22; 1.11, 1.34). Working memory predicted not being overweight (0.90; 0.81, 0.99).","Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.","This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.","yes. Alcohol-naïve outbred mice selected for high-alcohol drinking were more impulsive with saccharin reinforcers than low-alcohol drinkers. These data are consistent with results seen using inbred strain descendents of high-alcohol drinking and low-alcohol drinking rat lines, and suggest that impulsivity is a heritable difference that precedes alcoholism.","Evidence suggests that alcohol-related problems are associated with impulsivity and disinhibited behavior. Less certain is whether disinhibited behavior is due to an impulsive disposition or alcohol's ability to disinhibit some people more than others. There are a range of disinhibited behaviors associated with alcohol, including excessive alcohol consumption, bingeing. The study tested whether nondependent alcohol bingers showed more disinhibition after placebo and/or alcohol relative to nonbingers and whether this was related to enhanced motivation to drink following a priming dose of alcohol. Twenty participants (10 bingers) attended the laboratory twice. Baseline measures included impulsivity, alcohol-related cognitions, alcohol urge, and mood. Participants were preloaded with alcohol (male: 0.6 g/kg, female: 0.5 g/kg) and placebo (counterbalanced). After a 20-minute rest, participants completed 2 impulsivity tasks (Two Choice & Time Estimation) separated by second urge and mood ratings. Bingers did not show greater impulsivity characteristics but were more concerned about their drinking (p = 0.02) and ability to control drinking (p = 0.04). A priming effect was found: alcohol urge increased after alcohol but not placebo (p = 0.006). Bingers reported greater tolerance to the sedative (p = 0.05) and lightheaded (p = 0.04) effects of alcohol, relative to nonbingers. Binge status was not associated with impulsivity task performance, while preload type (alcohol/placebo) supported only marginal associations.","Alcoholism is characterized by impaired decision-making (i.e., choosing intoxication in the face of mounting negative consequences). This impairment may involve a reduced brain response to the negative consequences of behavior, which supports an inclination to engage in risky behaviors. The feedback error-related negativity (F-ERN) is hypothesized to reflect the valence attached to the negative consequences of behavior. Performance on the Balloon Analogue Risk Task (BART) measures risk-taking propensity. We recorded F-ERNs during the BART and during a BART simulation, where individuals observed the rewards and consequences of (someone else's) BART performance. EEGs were recorded on 22 actively drinking, treatment-naïve alcoholics during the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs were measured and their association with psychological and alcohol use measures was examined. F-ERNs over fronto-central electrode sites were observed to balloon pops in the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs during the BART were more than twice the amplitude of F-ERNs during the BART simulation. Smaller F-ERN amplitudes from the BART (but not the BART simulation) were associated with a greater family history density of alcohol problems.","Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.","Research reviews have suggested that cognitive and motor skills are not equally sensitive to a moderate dose of alcohol; they disagree, however, on which type of task is more sensitive to impairment. This issue is addressed in two experiments testing a cognitive and a motor skill task performed by the same person at comparable blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) during a moderate dose of alcohol. A motor skill task (PR) and a rapid information processing (RIP) task requiring no learned motor skill were performed in counterbalanced order, and tests on the pair of tasks occurred at intervals as BAC rose and declined. In the first experiment, two groups of male social drinkers (each n = 10) received either a moderate dose of alcohol (0.62 g/kg) or placebo and performed the tasks with no consequence for performance. The second experiment comprised four groups (each n = 14) to verify and extend the results to a situation in which unimpaired performance under alcohol was rewarded on one or both tasks. In both experiments, impairment on the PR task tended to increase and diminish with rising and declining BACs, whereas impairment on the RIP task showed no such pattern. Reinforcement reduced the degree of impairment displayed on each task, but the different task profiles of impairment were still evident.","It has been suggested that alcohol use is related to sensitivity of the reward system. Although there are several studies using self-reported measures supportive of this notion, objective biological data in humans on this issue are lacking. This study is designed to test whether alcohol drinking frequency is associated with electrophysiological indices of reward processing. In a passive gambling task, stimuli predicted the presence (reward) and absence (nonreward) of rewards resulting in P2 and medial frontal negativity (MFN) indices of reward processing. Forty-seven undergraduate students were asked about their habitual drinking frequency and the P2 and MFN to stimuli predicting reward were measured. Most importantly, the MFN to unpredicted nonrewards at the frontal midline (Fz) location correlated significantly with drinking frequency, with frequent drinkers showing larger MFN amplitudes. The results did not show a significant association between frequency and alcohol drinking and P2.","This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.","Alcoholics and heavy drinkers score higher on measures of impulsivity than nonalcoholics and light drinkers. This may be due to factors that predate drug exposure (e.g. genetics) or to neuroadaptations associated with exposure to alcohol. The aim of this study was to examine the role of genetics by comparing impulsivity in short-term selected lines of mice bred to voluntarily drink either high (STDRHI2) or low (STDRLO2) amounts of 10% ethanol. Independent sets of mice completed 2 experiments designed to measure impulsivity. Using the adjusting amount procedure, we examined preference for smaller, sooner rewards over larger but delayed rewards (delay discounting). This task determines the amount of immediate sucrose equivalent to the discounted value of a 20 microl sucrose reward given following a specific delay (0, 2, 4, 8, or 12 seconds). Using a Go/No-go task, we examined the ability of mice to inhibit nose-poking in response to specific cues. These tasks are commonly used to assess different aspects of impulsive behavior, and provide measures that are not highly correlated. No significant differences were found between STDRHI2 and STDRLO2 mice in delay discounting. In the Go/No-go task, STDRHI2 mice made more responses during the pre-cue period without committing more false alarms, compared with STDRLO2 mice.","yes. Several measures of impulsivity predict escalation in alcohol involvement in young adolescents, but alcohol use does not appear to alter impulsivity.","Impulsivity is a multifaceted construct and constitutes a common risk factor for a range of behaviors associated with poor self-control (e.g., substance use or binge eating). The short form of the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-15) measures impulsive behaviors related to attentional (inability to focus attention or concentrate), motor (acting without thinking), and non-planning (lack of future orientation or forethought) impulsivity. Eating-related measures appear to be particularly related to attentional and motor impulsivity and recent findings suggest that interactive effects between these two facets may play a role in eating- and weight-regulation. One-hundred thirty-three obese individuals presenting for bariatric surgery (77.4% female) completed the BIS-15 and the Yale Food Addiction Scale (YFAS) 2.0, which measures addiction-like eating based on the eleven symptoms of substance use disorder outlined in the fifth version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. Sixty-three participants (47.4%) were classified as being 'food addicted'. Scores on attentional and motor impulsivity interactively predicted 'food addiction' status: higher attentional impulsivity was associated with a higher likelihood of receiving a YFAS 2.0 diagnosis only at high (+1 SD), but not at low (-1 SD) levels of motor impulsivity.","The purpose of this study was to determine if behavioral impulsivity under multiple conditions (baseline, after alcohol consumption or after serotonin depletion) predicted naturalistic alcohol use or treatment outcomes from a moderation-based contingency management intervention. The current data analysis pulls information from three phases of a large study: 1) Phase 1 examined baseline and the effects of alcohol use and serotonin depletion on three types of behavioral impulsivity: response initiation (IMT task), response inhibition (GoStop task), and delay discounting (SKIP task); 2) Phase 2 involved 28 days of naturalistic drinking; and 3) Phase 3 involved 3 months of contingency management. During phases 2 and 3 alcohol use was measured objectively using transdermal alcohol monitors. The results of each individual phase has been previously published showing that at a group level the effects of alcohol consumption on impulsivity were dependent on the component of impulsivity being measured and the dose of alcohol consumed but serotonin depletion had no effect on impulsivity, and that a moderation-based contingency management intervention reduced heavy drinking. The current analysis combining data from those who completed all three phases (","Recent studies demonstrated that alcohol impairs inhibitory control of behavioural responses. We questioned whether alcohol via its disinhibiting effects would also impair the inhibition of an instrumental avoidance response in the presence of a safety signal. Thirty-six moderate social drinkers were randomly allocated to receiving either alcohol (0.8 g/kg) or placebo before performing an instrumental avoidance procedure. White noise of 102 db was used as aversive outcome presented at a variable interval schedule in S+ trials, while no noise was presented in S- trials. An instrumental response (repeated space bar presses to avoid the noise presented at a variable interval) abolished the noise. The Stop Signal task and the affective Go/No-Go task were administered as inhibitory control tasks. Alcohol did not change the avoidance response rate in the presence of S- (safety signal). However, participants under alcohol performed the avoidance response to a lower extent than placebo subjects in S+ trials. Alcohol impaired performance in the Stop Signal task and increased the number of commission errors in the affective Go/No-Go task. Conditioned attentional and emotional responses to the S+ as well as knowledge of stimulus-response outcome contingencies were not affected by alcohol.","Impulsivity is a multifaceted personality construct associated with numerous psychiatric disorders. Recent research has characterized four facets of impulsivity: \"urgency\" (the tendency to act rashly especially in the context of distress or cravings); \"lack of premeditation\" (not envisaging the consequences of actions); \"lack of perseverance\" (not staying focused on a task); and \"sensation seeking\" (engaging in exciting activities). Urgency is particularly associated with clinical populations and problematic disinhibited behavior. We used magnetic resonance spectroscopy to measure concentration of the inhibitory neurotransmitter γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) in two cohorts of 12 and 13 participants. We find that variation in trait urgency in healthy men correlates with GABA concentration in the DLPFC. The result was replicated in an independent cohort. More GABA predicted lower urgency scores, consistent with a role in self-control for GABA-mediated inhibitory mechanisms in DLPFC.","There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.","Intense alcohol consumption is a risk factor for a number of health problems. Dual-process models assume that self-regulatory behavior such as drinking alcohol is guided by both reflective and impulsive processes. Evidence suggests that (a) impulsive processes such as implicit attitudes are more strongly associated with behavior when executive functioning abilities are low, and (b) higher neural baseline activation in the lateral prefrontal cortex (PFC) is associated with better inhibitory control. The present study integrates these 2 strands of research to investigate how individual differences in neural baseline activation in the lateral PFC moderate the association between implicit alcohol attitudes and drinking behavior. Baseline cortical activation was measured with resting electroencephalography (EEG) in 89 moderate drinkers. In a subsequent behavioral testing session they completed measures of implicit alcohol attitudes and self-reported drinking behavior. Implicit alcohol attitudes were related to self-reported alcohol consumption. Most centrally, implicit alcohol attitudes were more strongly associated with drinking behavior in individuals with low as compared with high baseline activation in the right lateral PFC.","yes. The similarity between alcohol effects on premotor reaction time and some parameters of the OSP supports the importance of examining how other environmental and pharmacological factors known to alter premotor reaction time might change components of the OSP and other types of event-related potentials.","Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.","Acute alcohol intoxication has been found to increase perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test, a well known neuropsychological index of prefrontal cortical functioning, in both laboratory and naturalistic settings. The present study examined the relationship between levels of alcohol consumption at campus drinking venues and performance of the Iowa Gambling Task (IGT), another neuropsychological test designed to assess prefrontal cortex dysfunction, after controlling for potential confounding variables including habitual alcohol intake (as a proxy for alcohol tolerance), trait impulsivity, and everyday executive functioning. The 49 participants of both genders aged 18 to 30years were recruited at the relevant venues and showed a broad range of blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) from virtually zero (.002%) to .19%. After controlling for demographic variables, habitual use of alcohol and illicit drugs, and frontal lobe related behavioural traits including impulsivity and disinhibition, BAC negatively predicted gambling money won on the last two trial blocks of the IGT.","Neurocognitive impulsivity impacts upon treatment completion and appears sensitive for the prediction of relapse and dropout in alcohol-dependent patients. Poorer GNG response inhibition and a tendency toward steeper discounting of delayed rewards should be regarded as neurocognitive risk factors, which can be identified early in the course of alcohol dependence treatment.","yes. These results support the hypothesis that less neural activity during response inhibition demands predicts future involvement with problem behaviors such as alcohol and other substance use.","Alcohol is a commonly used social drug and driving under influence is a well-established risk factor for traffic accidents1. To improve road safety, legal limits are set for blood alcohol concentration (BAC) and driving, usually at 0.05% (most European countries) or 0.08% (most US states, Canada and UK). In contrast, for walking there are no legal limits, yet there are numerous accounts of people stumbling and falling after drinking. Alcohol, even at these low concentrations, affects brain function and increases fall risk. An increased fall risk has been associated with impaired obstacle avoidance skills. Low level BACs are likely to affect obstacle avoidance reactions during gait, since the brain areas that are presumably involved in these reactions have been shown to be influenced by alcohol. Therefore we investigated the effect of low to moderate alcohol consumption on such reactions.Thirteen healthy senior individuals (mean(SD) age: 61.5(4.4) years, 9 male) were subjected to an obstacle avoidance task on a treadmill after low alcohol consumption. Fast stepping adjustments were required to successfully avoid suddenly appearing obstacles. Response times and amplitudes of the m. biceps femoris, a prime mover, as well as avoidance failure rates were assessed. After the first alcoholic drink, 12 of the 13 participants already had slower responses. Without exception, all participants' biceps femoris response times were delayed after the final alcoholic drink (avg ± sd:180 ± 20 ms; p < 0.001) compared to when participants were sober (156 ± 16 ms). Biceps femoris response times were significantly delayed from BACs of 0.035% onwards and were strongly associated with increasing levels of BAC (r = 0.6; p < 0.001). These delays had important behavioural consequences. Chances of hitting the obstacle were doubled with increased BACs.","yes. The findings highlight impulsivity as a robust and independent predictor of mortality and suggest the need to consider interactions between personality traits and socio-contextual processes in the prediction of health-related outcomes for individuals with alcohol use disorders.","yes. The results indicate how disagreement over the sensitivity of cognitive and motor skills to a moderate dose of alcohol may occur when impairment is only assessed at some particular BACs. Theoretical and practical implications of the findings are discussed.","The degree to which distinct behavioral components of impulsivity predict alcohol consumption is as yet not well-understood. Further, the possibility that this relation might be more pronounced in groups characterized by heightened impulsivity (i.e., individuals with ADHD) has not been tested. The current study examined the degree to which three specific behavioral components of impulsivity (i.e., poor response inhibition, poor attentional inhibition, and increased risk-taking) were associated with quantity and frequency of alcohol consumption in a group of young adult social drinkers with ADHD (n = 33) and in a comparison control group (n = 21). Participants performed the delayed ocular return task (attentional inhibition), the cued go/no-go task (behavioral inhibition), and the balloon analogue risk task (risk-taking). Both poor behavioral inhibition and greater risk-taking were related to greater quantity of consumption in the entire sample, whereas poor attentional inhibition was related to greater quantity specifically among those with ADHD. By contrast, only risk-taking was associated with frequency of consumption, and this was found specifically in the control group.","Alcohol dependence is often associated with impulsivity, which may be correlated with dysfunction of the brain reward system. We explored whether functional brain activation during anticipation of incentive stimuli is associated with impulsiveness in detoxified alcoholics and healthy control subjects. Nineteen detoxified male alcoholics and 19 age-matched healthy men participated in a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) study using a monetary incentive delay (MID) task, in which visual cues predicted that a rapid response to a subsequent target stimulus would either result in monetary gain, avoidance of monetary loss, or no consequence. Impulsivity was assessed with the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-Version 10 (BIS-10). Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy control subjects. Low activation of the ventral striatum and anterior cingulate during gain anticipation was correlated with high impulsivity only in alcoholics, not in control subjects.","yes. These findings provide important information regarding the potential role of distinct behavioral components of impulsivity in drinking behavior, and highlight unique relevance of attentional impairments to drinking behavior in those with ADHD.","yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.","Previous studies have found individuals with family histories of alcohol use disorders are more impulsive on some but not all laboratory behavioral measures, suggesting deficits on specific forms of impulse control. However, drawing conclusions is tenuous because these different measures have not been administered together in the same group of participants. In the present study, we compared healthy 21-35 year old adults with family histories of alcohol related problems (FHAP+) or without such histories (FHAP-) on behavioral measures of response inhibition, response initiation, and consequence sensitivity impulsivity. FHAP+ (n=36) and FHAP- (n=36) participants were compared on performance on the Immediate Memory Task (IMT, response initiation), GoStop Impulsivity Paradigm (GoStop, response inhibition), Two Choice Impulsivity Paradigm (TCIP, consequence sensitivity) and Single Key Impulsivity Paradigm (SKIP, consequence sensitivity). FHAP+ individuals were more impulsive on the IMT and GoStop but not on the TCIP or SKIP.","yes. Trait impulsivity and habitual alcohol use were also significant predictors. Results are discussed in terms of acute effects of alcohol on brain systems and the behavioural consequences of such effects on decision making.","This study uses a missing stimulus paradigm to investigate cognitive effects associated with moderate blood alcohol levels. Specifically, the rate of rise of the omitted stimulus potential (OSP), which is observed when an expected stimulus is omitted, as well as the peak latency of this potential correlate with cognitive premotor reaction time, and thus might involve similar cognitive processes. An acute dose of alcohol has been found to slow the premotor reaction time to a missing stimulus, but no research has tested alcohol effects on the OSP. A dose of 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a placebo (0 g/kg) was administered in an across-subjects' design in two groups of 15 young men who were tested on a missing stimulus task before and again after alcohol. During a test, active trials required a response to the missing stimulus, and passive trials required no muscle action. Trials were counterbalanced in each group and obtained measures of premotor reaction time, motor reaction time, OSP onset and delay until muscle action, OSP amplitude, rate of rise, and peak latency. The pretreatment and posttreatment change in a measure assessed the alcohol effect. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed premotor reaction time, extended the delay of the OSP before muscle action, and slowed the OSP rate of rise and its peak latency.","This study used a four-factor model of impulsivity to investigate inter-relationships between alcohol consumption, impulsivity, motives for drinking and the tendency to engage in alcohol-related problem behaviours. 400 University students aged 18-25 completed an online survey consisting of the following measures: Urgency, Premeditation, Perseverance and Sensation Seeking Scale (UPPS) to measure impulsivity; Student Alcohol Questionnaire to assess drinking quantity, frequency and rates of problem behaviours; Drinking Motives Questionnaire to assess motives for drinking. The majority of the sample (94.5%) drank alcohol at least monthly. Path analysis revealed direct effects of urgency, sensation seeking and premeditation, as well as the quantity of alcohol consumed, on the tendency to engage in risky behaviours with negative consequences. The effect of urgency was mediated by drinking for coping motives and by a combined effect of drinking for social motives and consumption of wine or spirits. Conversely the effect of sensation seeking was mediated by the quantity of alcohol consumed, irrespective of drink type, and the effect of premeditation was mediated by the consumption of wine and spirits, in combination with enhancement motives.","yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.","Hazardous drinking is associated with both increased impulsivity and automatic approach tendencies elicited by alcohol-related cues. However, impulsivity is a multi-factorial construct, and it is currently unclear if all components of impulsivity are associated with heavy drinking. Furthermore, emerging evidence suggests that the relationships between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol cognitions may be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. The aim of this study was to investigate the independence of measures of impulsivity and their association with hazardous drinking, and to examine if the relationship between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol approach tendencies would be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. Ninety-seven social drinkers (65 female) completed questionnaire measures of trait impulsivity, alcohol consumption and hazardous drinking. Participants also completed computerised measures of automatic alcohol approach tendencies (stimulus-response compatibility (SRC) task), and two behavioural measures of impulsivity (Go/No-go and delay discounting tasks). Principal component analysis revealed that the two measures of behavioural impulsivity were distinct from each other and from self-reported trait impulsivity, although self-reported non-planning impulsivity loaded on to two factors (trait impulsivity and delay discounting). Furthermore, all measures of impulsivity predicted unique variance in hazardous drinking as did automatic alcohol approach tendencies, although the latter relationship was not moderated by impulsivity.","Impulsive behavior is associated with both alcohol use disorders and a family history of alcoholism (FHA). One operational definition of impulsive behavior is the stop-signal task (SST) which measures the time needed to stop a ballistic hand movement. Employ functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to study right frontal responses to stop signals in heavy drinking subjects with and without FHA, and as a function of alcohol exposure. Twenty-two family history-positive (FHP; age = 22.7 years, SD = 1.9) and 18 family history-negative (FHN; age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) subjects performed the SST in fMRI in two randomized visits: once during intravenous infusion of alcohol, clamped at a steady-state breath alcohol (BrAC) concentration of 60 mg/dL, and once during infusion of placebo saline. An independent reference group (n = 13, age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) was used to identify a priori right prefrontal regions activated by successful inhibition (Inh) trials, relative to \"Go\" trials that carried no need for inhibition [Inh > Go]. FHA interacted with alcohol exposure in right prefrontal cortex, where alcohol reduced [Inh > Go] activation in FHN subjects but not in FHP subjects. Within this right frontal cortical region, stop-signal reaction time also correlated negatively with [Inh > Go] activation, suggesting that the [Inh > Go] activity was related to inhibitory behavior.","yes. These results suggest that response initiation and response inhibition impulsivity are increased in individuals with family histories of alcohol related problems despite not having alcohol or drug use disorders themselves. In contrast, increased consequence sensitivity impulsivity may be associated with additional risk factors such as more severe family histories of alcohol use disorders, or it may be increased as a consequence of heavy drug or alcohol use.","yes. This study suggests that reduced ventral striatal recruitment during anticipation of conventional rewards in alcoholics may be related to their increased impulsivity and indicate possibilities for enhanced treatment approaches in alcohol dependence.","To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.","Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication."],"string":"[\n \"Binge Drinking (BD) typically involves heavy drinking over a short time, followed by a period of abstinence, and is common among young people, especially university students. Animal studies have demonstrated that this type of alcohol consumption causes brain damage, especially in the nonmature brain. The aim of the present study was to determine how BD affects brain functioning in male and female university students, during the performance of a visual working memory task. Event-related potentials (ERPs) were recorded, with an extensive set of 32 scalp electrodes, in 95 first-year university students (age range 18 to 20 years), comprising 42 binge drinkers (BD) and 53 controls, in a visual \\\"identical pairs\\\" continuous performance task. Principal components analysis was used to identify and analyze the N2 (negative waveform with a latency around 200 to 300 ms related to attentional processes) and P3 (positive waveform with a latency around 300 to 600 ms related to working memory processes) components of the ERPs. In the matching condition of the task, the N2 component in central and parietal regions was significantly larger in the BD than in the control group. In the control group, the P3 component was larger in the matching than in the nonmatching condition in the frontal, central, and parietal regions, whereas the BD group did not show any significant differences between conditions in any region.\",\n \"Impulsivity is a hallmark of problem gambling. However, impulsivity is not a unitary construct and this study investigated the relationship between problem gambling severity and two facets of impulsivity: impulsive action (impaired ability to withhold a motor response) and impulsive choice (abnormal aversion for the delay of reward). The recruitment includes 65 problem gamblers and 35 normal control participants. On the basis of DSM-IV-TR criteria, two groups of gamblers were distinguished: problem gamblers (n = 38) and pathological gamblers (n = 27) with similar durations of gambling practice. Impulsive action was assessed using a response inhibition task (the stop-signal task). Impulsive choice was estimated with the delay-discounting task. Possible confounds (e.g., IQ, mood, ADHD symptoms) were recorded. Both problem and pathological gamblers discounted reward at a higher rate than their controls, but only pathological gamblers showed abnormally low performance on the most demanding condition of the stop-signal task. None of the potential confounds covaried with these results.\",\n \"yes. The hypothesized model was confirmed on a large sample of young adults and replicated on a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers. Taken together, these findings shed further light on the mechanisms through which an impulsive temperament may convey risk for alcohol misuse.\",\n \"yes. Chronic ethanol consumption alters the frequency of spontaneous MS/DB neural activity following GABA microiontophoresis compared to premicroiontophoresis levels. These data suggest that the kinetics of GABA A receptors in the MS/DB are altered by chronic ethanol consumption independent of changes in the total amount of inhibition or alterations in GABA A receptor alpha1 and alpha4 subunit peptide expression.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that chronic alcohol-induced decreases in Kv4.2 channel function possibly mediated by a downregulation of KChIP3 drive the elevated bAP-associated Ca(2+) transients in distal apical dendrites. Alcohol-induced enhancement of bAPs may affect metaplasticity and signal integration in apical dendrites of hippocampal neurons leading to alterations in hippocampal function.\",\n \"The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.\",\n \"yes. The present results are consistent with previous studies demonstrating that acetaldehyde is an active metabolite of ethanol, which can have locomotor stimulant properties when administered in the ventricular system of the brain or into specific brain nuclei. Some brain nuclei rich in catalase (i.e.; SNR and ARH) could be mediating some of the locomotor stimulant effects of ethanol through its conversion to acetaldehyde.\",\n \"Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \\\"deviant\\\" tone within a train of \\\"standard\\\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).\",\n \"yes. Our findings demonstrate that acute and chronic effects of alcohol exposure are reflected in changes in 22-28 and 50-55 kHz FM USV counts and acoustic patterns. These data support the notion that initiation and maintenance of alcohol intake in P rats may be due to a unique, alcohol-responsive emotional phenotype and further suggest that spontaneous 22-28 kHz USVs serve as behavioral markers for excessive drinking vulnerability.\",\n \"Perceived unfairness is related to impulsivity in patients with alcohol dependence. These results provide insights concerning the psychopathology of alcohol dependence.\",\n \"In this apparently clinically healthy population of abstinent alcohol-dependent subjects, frontal lobe dysfunction was detectable using the Trail A + B and digit symbol tasks. This was despite above-average WAIS-R IQ scores. Consideration needs to be given to routine incorporation of cognitive testing in alcohol dependence since subtle deficits may not be easily apparent and may impact on treatment outcome.\",\n \"In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.\",\n \"Impulsivity is a common feature shared by bipolar disorder (BD) and substance use disorder (SUD). SUD and recurrent mood episodes are considered to be risk factors for poor outcome in BD. However, the association between impulsivity, illness chronicity and SUD in BD remains unexplored. 103 BD patients with and without a lifetime history of SUD (36.82±11.34 years, 40 males) were recruited. Participants completed the SCID interview and were administered measures of impulsivity including the Barratt Impulsivity Scale (BIS) and selected tests of the Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery (CANTAB). Hierarchical regression analyses explored the relationship between illness chronicity, SUD, and impulsivity. Variance in the BIS, number of false alarms on the Rapid Visual Processing task and other impulsivity indicators of the Cambridge Gambling Task (CGT) was not explained by the chosen variables. Only an increased number of commission errors in the negative condition of the Affective Go/No Go task was significantly associated with illness chronicity. Furthermore there was a trend suggesting a relationship between a lifetime history of SUD and increased propensity to risk-taking during the CGT. Potential limitations include medication and patients׳ remission status from SUD.\",\n \"To understand how and why alcohol intoxication affects visually guided stepping, the eye movements and performance of 6 subjects (aged 22-35 years) were monitored as they progressed along a pathway of 18 irregularly placed stepping stones before and after consumption of an acute oral dose of alcohol. Horizontal eye movements were measured with infrared reflectometry; footfall on or off target was monitored via copper fabric soles stuck to subjects' footwear. Breath alcohol concentration was monitored with an Alco-Sensor III breathalyzer. After alcohol loading, both locomotor and oculomotor deficits were evident. All subjects increased their step cycle duration-with prolonged stance, swing, and double support phases-and occasionally missed footfall targets. A large proportion of saccades made to fixate successive stepping stones were inaccurate and were accompanied by one or more corrective saccades. These problems with looking and stepping to footfall targets tended to occur together and were comparable to those seen previously in cerebellar patients undertaking the same task.\",\n \"Previous studies suggest older adults may be differentially susceptible to the acute neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol intake. To our knowledge, no studies have addressed acute moderate alcohol effects on the electrophysiological correlates of working memory in younger and older social drinkers. This study characterized alcohol-related effects on frontal theta (FTP) and posterior alpha power (PAP) associated with maintenance of visual information during a working memory task. Older (55 to 70 years of age; n = 51, 29 women) and younger (25 to 35 years of age; n = 70, 39 women) community-dwelling moderate drinkers were recruited for this study. Participants were given either placebo or an active dose targeting breath alcohol concentrations (BrACs) of 0.04 or 0.065 g/dl. Following absorption, participants completed a visual working memory task assessing cue recognition following a 9-s delay. FTP and PAP were determined via Fourier transformation and subjected to 2 (age group) × 3 (dose) × 2 (repeated: working memory task condition) mixed models analysis. In addition to expected age-related reductions in PAP, a significant age group × dose interaction was detected for PAP such that 0.04 g/dl dose level was associated with greater PAP in younger adults but lower PAP in their older counterparts. PAP was lower in older versus younger adults at both active doses. Further mixed models revealed a significant negative association between PAP and working memory efficiency for older adults. No effects of age, dose, or their interaction were noted for FTP.\",\n \"Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \\\"Alcohol-Shifting Task\\\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \\\"go\\\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.\",\n \"Impulsivity is the neurophysiologically based inability to confirm behaviour to its context or consequences. Overimpulsiveness characterizes many mental disorders and poses an important clinical dilemma. Although the relationship between mood disorders and impulsivity has been well studied the relationship between anxiety and impulsivity is controversial and not well explored. Some studies hypothesise that patients with the diagnosis of panic disorders are characterised by higher levels of impulsivity as a trait as compared to healthy individuals. The aim of this study was to assess cognitive correlates in panic disorder as related to impulsivity measures. Within the preliminary studies four patients diagnosed with panic disorder (DSM-IV-TR) were studied. The severity measure was the Panic and Agoraphobia Scale. The experimental group comprised of psychotropic drug naive patients. Impulsiveness was evaluated with the Barrat Impulsiveness Scale - 11th version (BIS-11). To asses cognitive functions we used CANTAB (Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery). BIS-11 scores observed in the group of psychotropic drug naive patients with panic disorder were higher than the adjusted average for the population and correlated with the number of mistakes in CANTAB (Spatial Working Memory Test); rs=0.949; p=0.0513.\",\n \"yes. Startle response to moderate acoustic stimuli can be a predictive index of vulnerability to developing increased alcohol drinking.\",\n \"yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.\",\n \"yes. Overall, these results suggest that impulsivity and PTSD-related alcohol expectancies interact to predict alcohol use severity in a comorbid PTSD and substance dependent sample.\",\n \"Problem gambling has been proposed to represent a 'behavioural addiction' that may provide key insights into vulnerability mechanisms underlying addiction in brains that are not affected by the damaging effects of drugs. Our aim was to investigate the neurocognitive profile of problem gambling in comparison with alcohol dependence. We reasoned that shared deficits across the two conditions may reflect underlying vulnerability mechanisms, whereas impairments specific to alcohol dependence may reflect cumulative effects of alcohol consumption. Cross-sectional study. Out-patient addiction treatment centres and university behavioural testing facilities. A naturalistic sample of 21 male problem and pathological gamblers, 21 male alcohol-dependent out-patients and 21 healthy male control participants. Neurocognitive battery assessing decision-making, impulsivity and working memory. The problem gamblers and alcohol-dependent groups displayed impairments in risky decision-making and cognitive impulsivity relative to controls. Working memory deficits and slowed deliberation times were specific to the alcohol-dependent group.\",\n \"Recent work suggests that 2 biologically based traits convey risk for alcohol misuse: reward sensitivity/drive and (rash) impulsiveness. However, the cognitive mechanisms through which these traits convey risk are unclear. This study tested a model predicting that the risk conveyed by reward sensitivity is mediated by a learning bias for the reinforcing outcomes of alcohol consumption (i.e., positive alcohol expectancy). The model also proposed that the risk conveyed by rash impulsiveness (RI) is mediated by drinkers' perceived ability to resist alcohol (i.e., drinking refusal self-efficacy). Study 1 tested the model in a sample of young adults (n = 342). Study 2 tested the model in a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers (n = 121). All participants completed a battery of personality, cognitive, and alcohol use questionnaires and models were tested using structural equation modeling. In both studies, the hypothesized model was found to provide a good fit to the data, and a better fit than alternative models. In both young adults and treatment-seeking individuals, positive alcohol expectancy fully mediated the association between reward sensitivity and hazardous alcohol use. For treatment seekers, drinking refusal self-efficacy fully mediated the association between RI and hazardous drinking. However, there was partial mediation in the young adult sample. Furthermore, neither trait was directly associated with the other cognitive mediator.\",\n \"The psychomotor stimulant theory of addiction posits that sensitivity to the positively rewarding properties of alcohol puts certain individuals at higher risk for alcohol abuse. A valid and reliable index of overactivation in the reward system has been a heightened baseline heart rate (HR) increase on the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The main goal of this study was to investigate the relationship between this HR response and a questionnaire measuring sensitivity to reward and sensitivity to punishment. Additional goals included looking at (1). the association between a high HR response and various personality traits (hopelessness/introversion, anxiety sensitivity, impulsivity, and sensation-seeking) and (2). the relationship between these personality traits and stimulant use. A total of 18 low- and 19 high-HR responders completed the Sensitivity to Punishment and Sensitivity to Reward Questionnaire (SPSRQ), the Substance Use Risk Profile Scale (SURPS), and a modified version of the Addiction Severity Index. High-HR responders obtained significantly higher scores than low-HR responders on the sensitivity to reward scale of the SPSRQ, as well as increased sensation-seeking scores on the SURPS. High-HR responders were not at significantly higher risk of having used stimulants, but stimulant use was associated with higher impulsivity scores on the SURPS.\",\n \"Impulsivity, which has been the subject of extensive debate in psychiatric research, is a clinically important concept, especially with respect to Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) and Substance Use Disorders (SUD). The current study aims to examine the presence of two aspects of impulsivity (self-reported impulsivity and delay discounting) in patients with BPD, SUD (alcohol use=AUD or drug use=DUD) and the combination of both disorders (BPD+SUD). Patients were recruited from eight different mental health treatment service facilities. A total of 345 participants were assessed and divided into six groups: (1) healthy controls (non-BPD, non-SUD), (2) patients with BPD (non-SUD), (3) DUD (non-BPD), (4) AUD (non-BPD), (5) BPD+AUD and (6) BPD+DUD. The behavioural measure of impulsivity is more conservative than the results of self-reported impulsivity. Furthermore, ANOVA indicated that BPD and SUD have significant effects on self-reported impulsivity, even when demographic variables, income, other psychiatric symptoms or depression are considered as covariates. On the other hand, the main effects of BPD and SUD are mediated by psychiatric symptoms and depression when delay discounting is considered as a dependent variable.\",\n \"Repeated studies have shown that high impulsivity, when defined as the tendency to choose small immediate rewards over larger delayed rewards, is more prevalent in drug addicts and alcoholics when compared with nonaddicts. Assessing whether impulsivity precedes and potentially causes addiction disorders is difficult in humans because they all share a history of drug use. In this study, we address this question by testing alcohol-naïve mice from lines showing heritable differences in alcohol intake. Replicated selected lines of outbred high-alcohol preferring (HAP) mice were compared to a low-alcohol preferring (LAP) line as well as the low-drinking progenitor line (HS/Ibg) on an adjusting amount delay discounting (DD) task. The DD task employs 2 levers to present subjects with a choice between a small, immediate and a large, delayed saccharin reward. By adjusting the quantity of the immediate reward up and down based on choice behavior, the task allows an estimate of how the subjective value of the delayed reinforcer decreases as delays increase. Latency to respond was also measured for each trial. Both HAP2 and HAP1 lines of mice were more impulsive than the LAP2 and HS/Ibg lines, respectively. Hyperbolic curve-fitting confirmed steeper discounting in the high-alcohol drinking lines. In addition, the high-alcohol drinking lines demonstrated greater within-session increases in reaction times relative to the low-alcohol drinking lines. No other differences (consumption of saccharin, total trials completed) consistently mapped onto genetic differences in alcohol drinking.\",\n \"Prenatal alcohol exposure can lead to widespread cognitive impairment and behavioral dysregulation, including deficits in attention and response inhibition. This study characterized the neural substrates underlying the disinhibited behavioral profile of individuals with fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD). Children and adolescents (ages 8-18) with (n=13) and without (n=9) histories of heavy prenatal alcohol exposure underwent functional magnetic resonance imaging while performing a response inhibition (go/no-go) task. Despite similar task performance (mean response latency, performance accuracy, and signal detection), blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) response patterns differed by group. Region-of-interest analyses revealed that during portions of the behavioral task that required response inhibition, alcohol-exposed participants showed greater BOLD response across prefrontal cortical regions (including the left medial and right middle frontal gyri), while they showed less right caudate nucleus activation, compared with control participants.\",\n \"yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).\",\n \"The objective of this study was to determine the effects of the N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, memantine (0, 20, 40 mg/d), upon alcohol drinking and craving in heavy drinkers with or without a family history (FH) of alcoholism, and to explore the modulatory influence of the presence of impulsivity on these outcomes. Ninety-two, nontreatment-seeking, heavy drinkers received memantine or placebo for 8 days. On the eighth day, they received a priming dose of alcohol followed by a 3-hour period of alcohol access. Memantine at a dose of 20 mg reduced alcohol craving but did not influence alcohol drinking. No effects of FH were observed. In participants with higher baseline levels of impulsivity, 40 mg of memantine reduced alcohol craving but increased alcohol drinking and alcohol-induced stimulation.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest that impulsivity is possibly due to a primary increase in Glu transmission mediated via 5-HT(2A) receptor activation. Thus, mGlu2/3 receptor agonists might have some potential for treating motor impulsivity-related impairments while their cognitive enhancing effects were not confirmed in this study.\",\n \"yes. These findings are in line with predictions made on the basis of dual-process models. They provide further evidence that individual differences in neural baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may contribute to executive functioning abilities such as inhibitory control. Moreover, individuals with strongly positive implicit alcohol attitudes coupled with a low baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may be at greater risk of developing unhealthy drinking patterns than others. (PsycINFO Database Record\",\n \"yes. Although several studies showing increased reward-sensitivity in addictive behaviors, the present results indicate that, in frequent alcohol drinkers, electrophysiological responsiveness is particularly activated by unpredicted nonrewards. In general, this may point to the involvement of the reward system in alcohol drinking frequency.\",\n \"It was shown that impulsivity, as a personality characteristic, is strongly associated with aggressive behaviors, whereby the impact of craving on the relationship between impulsivity and trait aggression in alcohol-dependent inpatients was weak.\",\n \"yes. These findings suggest that heavy drinkers experience deficits in strategic monitoring processing associated with time-based PM tasks which do not abate after FES. That the same strategy improves their event-based PM suggests that FES may be helpful for individuals with problematic drinking patterns in improving their prospective memory.\",\n \"yes. The results demonstrate that high impulsivity is associated with a delayed transition to DLS-dopamine-dependent control over cocaine seeking. This suggests that, if impulsivity confers an increased propensity to addiction, it is not simply through a more rapid development of habits but instead through interacting corticostriatal and striato-striatal processes that result ultimately in maladaptive drug-seeking habits.\",\n \"yes. These findings indicate that ethanol exposure decreases the expression and function of CBP in the developing cerebellum. This effect of ethanol may be responsible for the motor coordination deficits that characterize fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest that the rapid tolerance to ethanol-induced motor impairment in mice may be modulated by adenosine A1 receptors and dopamine D1 receptors.\",\n \"Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.\",\n \"yes. Risk of binge drinking in nondependent individuals is not strongly affected by impulsive personality characteristics or alcohol's ability to induce behavioral disinhibition. However, alcohol did lead to a priming effect and bingers were more tolerant to the sedative and lightheaded effects of alcohol relative to placebo. Risk of binge drinking is associated with the subjective effects of a priming dose of alcohol.\",\n \"Decomposition of event-related potential (ERP) waveforms using time-frequency representations (TFR's) is becoming increasingly common in electrophysiology. The P300 potential is an important component of the ERP waveform and has been used to study cognition as well as psychiatric disorders such as alcoholism. In this work, we aim to further understand the nature of the event-related oscillation (ERO) components which form the P300 wave and how these components may be used to differentiate alcoholic individuals from controls. The S-transform decomposition method is used to derive TFR's from single trial and trial-averaged ERP data acquired during a visual oddball task. These TFR's are averaged within time and frequency windows to provide ERO measures for further investigation. ERO measures are compared with conventional ERP amplitude measures using correlation analyses. Statistical analyses was performed with MANOVA and stepwise logistic regressions to contrast an age-matched sample of control (N=100) and alcoholic male subjects (N=100). The results indicate that the P300 waveform, elicited using infrequent salient stimuli, is composed of frontal theta and posterior delta activations. The frontal theta activation does not closely correspond to any of the conventional ERP components and is therefore best analyzed using spectral methods. Between group comparisons and group predictions indicate that the delta and theta band ERO's, which underlie the P300, show deficits in the alcoholic group. Additionally, each band contributes unique information to discriminate between the groups.\",\n \"yes. These data demonstrate a significant influence of FH status on brain activation during the performance of a response inhibition task, perhaps reflecting a neurobiological vulnerability associated with FH status that may include reduced neuronal efficiency and/or recruitment of additional neuronal resources. These findings are important given that the adolescent developmental period is already associated with reduced inhibitory capacity, even prior to the onset of alcohol use.\",\n \"yes. Alcoholic subtypes identified by cluster analysis seem to be differentially responsive to the effects of fluoxetine treatment on drinking-related outcomes. Serotonergic abnormalities previously identified among a subgroup of alcoholics who are also characterized by impulsivity and severity of alcohol dependence may help to explain the differential medication effect. Based on these findings, it is recommended that, in the absence of a comorbid mood or anxiety disorder, fluoxetine not be used to maintain abstinence or reduce drinking in high-risk/severity alcoholics.\",\n \"yes. Adolescents are less sensitive than adults to the motor-impairing effects of ethanol, and a similar effect is seen with in vivo electrophysiological recordings of cerebellar Purkinje neurons. While still under investigation, PKCγ expression mirrors the age effect of ethanol and may contribute to the age-dependent differences in the ataxic effects of ethanol.\",\n \"yes. Higher BIS-11 scores in all domains of impulsivity [i.e., motor, attentional, and lack of planning] corroborated previous findings described in patients with JME. On the other hand, BIS-11 could not demonstrate problem solving and inhibitory control deficits related to impulsive behavior, which were described in patients with TLE. Other behavioral measures may be more sensitive to some aspects of impulsivity in TLE. Our results reinforce the concept that distinct epileptic syndromes require different neuropsychological approaches, especially considering a complex construct such as impulsivity.\",\n \"yes. The kinematic movement performance measures obtained during a drinking task are more strongly associated with activity capacity than with impairment. The movement smoothness and time, possibly together with compensatory movement of the trunk, are valid measures of activity capacity and can be considered as key variables in the evaluation of upper-extremity function after stroke. This increased knowledge is of great value for better interpretation and application of kinematic data in clinical studies.\",\n \"A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.\",\n \"yes. Preliminary results showed that in subjects with GAD only the motor component of impulsivity seems directly related to clinical severity, whereas impulsiveness is predicted by higher levels of 2 temperamental dimensions that are influenced by dopamine and norepinephrine systems and by weakness of character.\",\n \"Executive function (EF) impairment in alcohol dependence (AD) has been related to the toxic effects of alcohol on frontal lobes. However, this impairment could be partially present before the onset of the disease and might constitute a vulnerability factor. Although a considerable body of research has investigated executive functioning among AD patients, much less attention has been directed toward high-risk individuals. Most studies were carried out among children or adolescents, and very few were conducted in adults. The aim of this study was to examine EF in a group of adult offspring of AD individuals. One hundred and fifty-five nonalcoholic adults with (family history positive [FHP]) or without (family history negative [FHN]) family history of AD were included in the study. All participants were screened for past and current psychiatric diagnoses, and alcohol, tobacco, and other substance use. They were compared on self-rated impulsiveness using the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-11 (BIS-11) and EF using a neuropsychological test battery. Group comparison revealed that FHP participants had significantly higher BIS-11 scores than the FHN participants, while neuropsychological examination revealed lower EF scores for FHP participants. Hierarchical regression analysis revealed that the number of AD family members was a predictor of EF results, whereas impulsiveness was not.\",\n \"yes. These results are consistent with the idea that young adults who have used stimulants find uncertainty particularly salient, due in part to preexisting differences in impulsivity, and may be subject to more \\\"action pressure\\\" when making decisions under uncertainty. This neural and personality profile may constitute a marker for increased risk of stimulant use.\",\n \"yes. The fact that healthy subjects acutely intoxicated by alcohol show symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction suggests that alcohol acutely and adversely affects the cerebellar contribution to performance of visually guided movements.\",\n \"We investigated reciprocal prospective relationships between multiple behavioural impulsivity tasks (assessing delay discounting, risk-taking and disinhibition) and alcohol involvement (consumption, drunkenness and problems) among adolescents. We hypothesized that performance on the tasks would predict subsequent alcohol involvement, and that alcohol involvement would lead to increases in behavioural impulsivity over time. Cross-lagged prospective design in which impulsivity and alcohol involvement were assessed five times over 2 years (once every 6 months, on average). Classrooms in secondary schools in North West England. Two hundred and eighty-seven adolescents (51.2% male) who were aged 12 or 13 years at study enrolment. Participants reported their alcohol involvement and completed computerized tasks of disinhibition, delay discounting and risk-taking at each assessment. Cross-sectional and prospective relationships between the variables of interest were investigated using cross-lagged analyses. All behavioural impulsivity tasks predicted a composite index of alcohol involvement 6 months later (all Ps < 0.01), and these prospective relationships were reliable across the majority of time-points. Importantly, we did not observe the converse relationship across time: alcohol involvement did not predict performance on behavioural impulsivity tasks at any subsequent time point.\",\n \"Impulsivity is a \\\"tendency to act prematurely without foresight.\\\" Clinical experience suggests that such impulsive behavior can impact on the fall risk in Parkinson's disease (PD), but this has never been tested. We investigated whether trait impulsivity is related to fall risk in a large cohort of PD patients. We also investigated whether trait impulsivity affects the fall risk differently for patients with more or less postural instability and gait disability (PIGD). 388 patients with PD (H&Y ≤ 3) completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11, higher scores indicating greater impulsivity) to assess trait impulsivity, including three subscales: motor impulsivity (e.g. \\\"I do things without thinking\\\"), attentional impulsivity (e.g. \\\"I concentrate easily\\\") and non-planning (e.g. \\\"I plan tasks carefully\\\"). Falls were registered prospectively for 6 months. Patients classified as non-fallers (0 falls, n = 237) were compared to recurrent PD fallers (>1 fall, n = 78). Total impulsivity scores were higher for recurrent fallers (59.5) compared to non-fallers (56.8; p = .012). This effect was predominantly driven by higher scores on the subscale for attentional impulsivity (p = .003). The difference in attentional impulsivity was independent of gender, disease severity, dopaminergic medication, and cognitive function. Motor and non-planning impulsivity did not differ between recurrent fallers and non-fallers. There was no evidence that impulsivity modulated the association between PIGD and fall risk.\",\n \"Little is known about the association of binge drinking with impulsivity related to trait- or state-like aspects of behavior. The aim of the present study was therefore to investigate whether binge drinkers show an impairment of inhibitory control in comparison to non-binge drinkers when confronted with alcohol-associated or control stimuli, and whether this is reflected in self-reported impulsivity. A go/no-go task with pictures of alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages as well as control stimuli was administered to binge drinkers and a gender-matched group of non-binge drinkers. All participants also completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11). We found an alcohol-specific impairment of response inhibition for binge drinkers only, while the groups did not differ with regard to overall response inhibition to the experimental stimuli or self-reported impulsiveness (BIS-11). In addition, the number of commission errors in response to alcohol-associated stimuli was the only significant predictor of binge drinking.\",\n \"yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.\",\n \"Although there is considerable support for the relationship between impulsivity and alcohol dependence, little is known about the impact of neurocognitive aspects of impulsivity on treatment outcome. The aim of this study was to prospectively investigate the impact of neurocognitive impulsivity at treatment onset on treatment completion. Forty-three alcohol-dependent patients entering inpatient treatment for alcohol dependence completed neurocognitive measures of impulsivity at the beginning of treatment. Assessments included prototypical measures of impulsive action (Go/No-go task [GNG] and Stop Signal Task [SST]) and impulsive choice (Delay Discounting Test [DDT], and Iowa Gambling Task). According to treatment outcomes, patients were divided into a patient group with regular treatment completion (e.g., with planned discharges, and without relapse during treatment) or irregular treatment course (e.g., premature and unplanned termination of treatment, \\\"dropout,\\\" and/or relapse). Results show that, relative to patients completing treatment in a regular fashion (regular treatment completers [RTC]; 67%), those with an irregular course of treatment (relapse and/or dropout) (irregular treatment completers [ITC]; 33%) had significantly poorer GNG response inhibition performance (p = 0.011), and showed a trend toward greater delay discounting (DDT; p = 0.052) at treatment onset. Additional logistic regression analyses identified poor GNG response inhibition performance as a significant predictor for an irregular treatment course (GNG: p = 0.021; DDT: p = 0.067), particularly for relapse (GNG: p = 0.023).\",\n \"The findings of the present study suggest that when young adults have established binge drinking as a common drinking pattern, impairment of inhibition in response to alcoholic stimuli is the only significant predictor of binge drinking, but not general impulsive behavior.\",\n \"yes. Sensation seeking, urgency and lack of premeditation are related to different motives for drinking and also demonstrate dissociable relationships with the consumption of specific types of alcohol (beer, wine and spirits) and the tendency to engage in risky behaviours associated with alcohol consumption. Screening for high levels of urgency and for severe drinking consequences may be useful predictors of alcohol-related problems in UK University students aged 18 to 25 years.\",\n \"To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).\",\n \"Executive function, impulsivity, and intelligence are correlated markers of cognitive resource that predict health-related behaviours. It is unknown whether executive function and impulsivity are unique predictors of these behaviours after accounting for intelligence. Data from 6069 participants from the Avon Longitudinal Study of Parents and Children were analysed to investigate whether components of executive function (selective attention, attentional control, working memory, and response inhibition) and impulsivity (parent-rated) measured between ages 8 and 10, predicted having ever drunk alcohol, having ever smoked, fruit and vegetable consumption, physical activity, and overweight at age 13, after accounting for intelligence at age 8 and childhood socioeconomic characteristics. Higher intelligence predicted having drunk alcohol, not smoking, greater fruit and vegetable consumption, and not being overweight. After accounting for intelligence, impulsivity predicted alcohol use (odds ratio = 1.10; 99% confidence interval = 1.02, 1.19) and smoking (1.22; 1.11, 1.34). Working memory predicted not being overweight (0.90; 0.81, 0.99).\",\n \"Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.\",\n \"This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.\",\n \"yes. Alcohol-naïve outbred mice selected for high-alcohol drinking were more impulsive with saccharin reinforcers than low-alcohol drinkers. These data are consistent with results seen using inbred strain descendents of high-alcohol drinking and low-alcohol drinking rat lines, and suggest that impulsivity is a heritable difference that precedes alcoholism.\",\n \"Evidence suggests that alcohol-related problems are associated with impulsivity and disinhibited behavior. Less certain is whether disinhibited behavior is due to an impulsive disposition or alcohol's ability to disinhibit some people more than others. There are a range of disinhibited behaviors associated with alcohol, including excessive alcohol consumption, bingeing. The study tested whether nondependent alcohol bingers showed more disinhibition after placebo and/or alcohol relative to nonbingers and whether this was related to enhanced motivation to drink following a priming dose of alcohol. Twenty participants (10 bingers) attended the laboratory twice. Baseline measures included impulsivity, alcohol-related cognitions, alcohol urge, and mood. Participants were preloaded with alcohol (male: 0.6 g/kg, female: 0.5 g/kg) and placebo (counterbalanced). After a 20-minute rest, participants completed 2 impulsivity tasks (Two Choice & Time Estimation) separated by second urge and mood ratings. Bingers did not show greater impulsivity characteristics but were more concerned about their drinking (p = 0.02) and ability to control drinking (p = 0.04). A priming effect was found: alcohol urge increased after alcohol but not placebo (p = 0.006). Bingers reported greater tolerance to the sedative (p = 0.05) and lightheaded (p = 0.04) effects of alcohol, relative to nonbingers. Binge status was not associated with impulsivity task performance, while preload type (alcohol/placebo) supported only marginal associations.\",\n \"Alcoholism is characterized by impaired decision-making (i.e., choosing intoxication in the face of mounting negative consequences). This impairment may involve a reduced brain response to the negative consequences of behavior, which supports an inclination to engage in risky behaviors. The feedback error-related negativity (F-ERN) is hypothesized to reflect the valence attached to the negative consequences of behavior. Performance on the Balloon Analogue Risk Task (BART) measures risk-taking propensity. We recorded F-ERNs during the BART and during a BART simulation, where individuals observed the rewards and consequences of (someone else's) BART performance. EEGs were recorded on 22 actively drinking, treatment-naïve alcoholics during the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs were measured and their association with psychological and alcohol use measures was examined. F-ERNs over fronto-central electrode sites were observed to balloon pops in the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs during the BART were more than twice the amplitude of F-ERNs during the BART simulation. Smaller F-ERN amplitudes from the BART (but not the BART simulation) were associated with a greater family history density of alcohol problems.\",\n \"Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.\",\n \"Research reviews have suggested that cognitive and motor skills are not equally sensitive to a moderate dose of alcohol; they disagree, however, on which type of task is more sensitive to impairment. This issue is addressed in two experiments testing a cognitive and a motor skill task performed by the same person at comparable blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) during a moderate dose of alcohol. A motor skill task (PR) and a rapid information processing (RIP) task requiring no learned motor skill were performed in counterbalanced order, and tests on the pair of tasks occurred at intervals as BAC rose and declined. In the first experiment, two groups of male social drinkers (each n = 10) received either a moderate dose of alcohol (0.62 g/kg) or placebo and performed the tasks with no consequence for performance. The second experiment comprised four groups (each n = 14) to verify and extend the results to a situation in which unimpaired performance under alcohol was rewarded on one or both tasks. In both experiments, impairment on the PR task tended to increase and diminish with rising and declining BACs, whereas impairment on the RIP task showed no such pattern. Reinforcement reduced the degree of impairment displayed on each task, but the different task profiles of impairment were still evident.\",\n \"It has been suggested that alcohol use is related to sensitivity of the reward system. Although there are several studies using self-reported measures supportive of this notion, objective biological data in humans on this issue are lacking. This study is designed to test whether alcohol drinking frequency is associated with electrophysiological indices of reward processing. In a passive gambling task, stimuli predicted the presence (reward) and absence (nonreward) of rewards resulting in P2 and medial frontal negativity (MFN) indices of reward processing. Forty-seven undergraduate students were asked about their habitual drinking frequency and the P2 and MFN to stimuli predicting reward were measured. Most importantly, the MFN to unpredicted nonrewards at the frontal midline (Fz) location correlated significantly with drinking frequency, with frequent drinkers showing larger MFN amplitudes. The results did not show a significant association between frequency and alcohol drinking and P2.\",\n \"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.\",\n \"Alcoholics and heavy drinkers score higher on measures of impulsivity than nonalcoholics and light drinkers. This may be due to factors that predate drug exposure (e.g. genetics) or to neuroadaptations associated with exposure to alcohol. The aim of this study was to examine the role of genetics by comparing impulsivity in short-term selected lines of mice bred to voluntarily drink either high (STDRHI2) or low (STDRLO2) amounts of 10% ethanol. Independent sets of mice completed 2 experiments designed to measure impulsivity. Using the adjusting amount procedure, we examined preference for smaller, sooner rewards over larger but delayed rewards (delay discounting). This task determines the amount of immediate sucrose equivalent to the discounted value of a 20 microl sucrose reward given following a specific delay (0, 2, 4, 8, or 12 seconds). Using a Go/No-go task, we examined the ability of mice to inhibit nose-poking in response to specific cues. These tasks are commonly used to assess different aspects of impulsive behavior, and provide measures that are not highly correlated. No significant differences were found between STDRHI2 and STDRLO2 mice in delay discounting. In the Go/No-go task, STDRHI2 mice made more responses during the pre-cue period without committing more false alarms, compared with STDRLO2 mice.\",\n \"yes. Several measures of impulsivity predict escalation in alcohol involvement in young adolescents, but alcohol use does not appear to alter impulsivity.\",\n \"Impulsivity is a multifaceted construct and constitutes a common risk factor for a range of behaviors associated with poor self-control (e.g., substance use or binge eating). The short form of the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-15) measures impulsive behaviors related to attentional (inability to focus attention or concentrate), motor (acting without thinking), and non-planning (lack of future orientation or forethought) impulsivity. Eating-related measures appear to be particularly related to attentional and motor impulsivity and recent findings suggest that interactive effects between these two facets may play a role in eating- and weight-regulation. One-hundred thirty-three obese individuals presenting for bariatric surgery (77.4% female) completed the BIS-15 and the Yale Food Addiction Scale (YFAS) 2.0, which measures addiction-like eating based on the eleven symptoms of substance use disorder outlined in the fifth version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. Sixty-three participants (47.4%) were classified as being 'food addicted'. Scores on attentional and motor impulsivity interactively predicted 'food addiction' status: higher attentional impulsivity was associated with a higher likelihood of receiving a YFAS 2.0 diagnosis only at high (+1 SD), but not at low (-1 SD) levels of motor impulsivity.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to determine if behavioral impulsivity under multiple conditions (baseline, after alcohol consumption or after serotonin depletion) predicted naturalistic alcohol use or treatment outcomes from a moderation-based contingency management intervention. The current data analysis pulls information from three phases of a large study: 1) Phase 1 examined baseline and the effects of alcohol use and serotonin depletion on three types of behavioral impulsivity: response initiation (IMT task), response inhibition (GoStop task), and delay discounting (SKIP task); 2) Phase 2 involved 28 days of naturalistic drinking; and 3) Phase 3 involved 3 months of contingency management. During phases 2 and 3 alcohol use was measured objectively using transdermal alcohol monitors. The results of each individual phase has been previously published showing that at a group level the effects of alcohol consumption on impulsivity were dependent on the component of impulsivity being measured and the dose of alcohol consumed but serotonin depletion had no effect on impulsivity, and that a moderation-based contingency management intervention reduced heavy drinking. The current analysis combining data from those who completed all three phases (\",\n \"Recent studies demonstrated that alcohol impairs inhibitory control of behavioural responses. We questioned whether alcohol via its disinhibiting effects would also impair the inhibition of an instrumental avoidance response in the presence of a safety signal. Thirty-six moderate social drinkers were randomly allocated to receiving either alcohol (0.8 g/kg) or placebo before performing an instrumental avoidance procedure. White noise of 102 db was used as aversive outcome presented at a variable interval schedule in S+ trials, while no noise was presented in S- trials. An instrumental response (repeated space bar presses to avoid the noise presented at a variable interval) abolished the noise. The Stop Signal task and the affective Go/No-Go task were administered as inhibitory control tasks. Alcohol did not change the avoidance response rate in the presence of S- (safety signal). However, participants under alcohol performed the avoidance response to a lower extent than placebo subjects in S+ trials. Alcohol impaired performance in the Stop Signal task and increased the number of commission errors in the affective Go/No-Go task. Conditioned attentional and emotional responses to the S+ as well as knowledge of stimulus-response outcome contingencies were not affected by alcohol.\",\n \"Impulsivity is a multifaceted personality construct associated with numerous psychiatric disorders. Recent research has characterized four facets of impulsivity: \\\"urgency\\\" (the tendency to act rashly especially in the context of distress or cravings); \\\"lack of premeditation\\\" (not envisaging the consequences of actions); \\\"lack of perseverance\\\" (not staying focused on a task); and \\\"sensation seeking\\\" (engaging in exciting activities). Urgency is particularly associated with clinical populations and problematic disinhibited behavior. We used magnetic resonance spectroscopy to measure concentration of the inhibitory neurotransmitter γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) in two cohorts of 12 and 13 participants. We find that variation in trait urgency in healthy men correlates with GABA concentration in the DLPFC. The result was replicated in an independent cohort. More GABA predicted lower urgency scores, consistent with a role in self-control for GABA-mediated inhibitory mechanisms in DLPFC.\",\n \"There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.\",\n \"Intense alcohol consumption is a risk factor for a number of health problems. Dual-process models assume that self-regulatory behavior such as drinking alcohol is guided by both reflective and impulsive processes. Evidence suggests that (a) impulsive processes such as implicit attitudes are more strongly associated with behavior when executive functioning abilities are low, and (b) higher neural baseline activation in the lateral prefrontal cortex (PFC) is associated with better inhibitory control. The present study integrates these 2 strands of research to investigate how individual differences in neural baseline activation in the lateral PFC moderate the association between implicit alcohol attitudes and drinking behavior. Baseline cortical activation was measured with resting electroencephalography (EEG) in 89 moderate drinkers. In a subsequent behavioral testing session they completed measures of implicit alcohol attitudes and self-reported drinking behavior. Implicit alcohol attitudes were related to self-reported alcohol consumption. Most centrally, implicit alcohol attitudes were more strongly associated with drinking behavior in individuals with low as compared with high baseline activation in the right lateral PFC.\",\n \"yes. The similarity between alcohol effects on premotor reaction time and some parameters of the OSP supports the importance of examining how other environmental and pharmacological factors known to alter premotor reaction time might change components of the OSP and other types of event-related potentials.\",\n \"Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.\",\n \"Acute alcohol intoxication has been found to increase perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test, a well known neuropsychological index of prefrontal cortical functioning, in both laboratory and naturalistic settings. The present study examined the relationship between levels of alcohol consumption at campus drinking venues and performance of the Iowa Gambling Task (IGT), another neuropsychological test designed to assess prefrontal cortex dysfunction, after controlling for potential confounding variables including habitual alcohol intake (as a proxy for alcohol tolerance), trait impulsivity, and everyday executive functioning. The 49 participants of both genders aged 18 to 30years were recruited at the relevant venues and showed a broad range of blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) from virtually zero (.002%) to .19%. After controlling for demographic variables, habitual use of alcohol and illicit drugs, and frontal lobe related behavioural traits including impulsivity and disinhibition, BAC negatively predicted gambling money won on the last two trial blocks of the IGT.\",\n \"Neurocognitive impulsivity impacts upon treatment completion and appears sensitive for the prediction of relapse and dropout in alcohol-dependent patients. Poorer GNG response inhibition and a tendency toward steeper discounting of delayed rewards should be regarded as neurocognitive risk factors, which can be identified early in the course of alcohol dependence treatment.\",\n \"yes. These results support the hypothesis that less neural activity during response inhibition demands predicts future involvement with problem behaviors such as alcohol and other substance use.\",\n \"Alcohol is a commonly used social drug and driving under influence is a well-established risk factor for traffic accidents1. To improve road safety, legal limits are set for blood alcohol concentration (BAC) and driving, usually at 0.05% (most European countries) or 0.08% (most US states, Canada and UK). In contrast, for walking there are no legal limits, yet there are numerous accounts of people stumbling and falling after drinking. Alcohol, even at these low concentrations, affects brain function and increases fall risk. An increased fall risk has been associated with impaired obstacle avoidance skills. Low level BACs are likely to affect obstacle avoidance reactions during gait, since the brain areas that are presumably involved in these reactions have been shown to be influenced by alcohol. Therefore we investigated the effect of low to moderate alcohol consumption on such reactions.Thirteen healthy senior individuals (mean(SD) age: 61.5(4.4) years, 9 male) were subjected to an obstacle avoidance task on a treadmill after low alcohol consumption. Fast stepping adjustments were required to successfully avoid suddenly appearing obstacles. Response times and amplitudes of the m. biceps femoris, a prime mover, as well as avoidance failure rates were assessed. After the first alcoholic drink, 12 of the 13 participants already had slower responses. Without exception, all participants' biceps femoris response times were delayed after the final alcoholic drink (avg ± sd:180 ± 20 ms; p < 0.001) compared to when participants were sober (156 ± 16 ms). Biceps femoris response times were significantly delayed from BACs of 0.035% onwards and were strongly associated with increasing levels of BAC (r = 0.6; p < 0.001). These delays had important behavioural consequences. Chances of hitting the obstacle were doubled with increased BACs.\",\n \"yes. The findings highlight impulsivity as a robust and independent predictor of mortality and suggest the need to consider interactions between personality traits and socio-contextual processes in the prediction of health-related outcomes for individuals with alcohol use disorders.\",\n \"yes. The results indicate how disagreement over the sensitivity of cognitive and motor skills to a moderate dose of alcohol may occur when impairment is only assessed at some particular BACs. Theoretical and practical implications of the findings are discussed.\",\n \"The degree to which distinct behavioral components of impulsivity predict alcohol consumption is as yet not well-understood. Further, the possibility that this relation might be more pronounced in groups characterized by heightened impulsivity (i.e., individuals with ADHD) has not been tested. The current study examined the degree to which three specific behavioral components of impulsivity (i.e., poor response inhibition, poor attentional inhibition, and increased risk-taking) were associated with quantity and frequency of alcohol consumption in a group of young adult social drinkers with ADHD (n = 33) and in a comparison control group (n = 21). Participants performed the delayed ocular return task (attentional inhibition), the cued go/no-go task (behavioral inhibition), and the balloon analogue risk task (risk-taking). Both poor behavioral inhibition and greater risk-taking were related to greater quantity of consumption in the entire sample, whereas poor attentional inhibition was related to greater quantity specifically among those with ADHD. By contrast, only risk-taking was associated with frequency of consumption, and this was found specifically in the control group.\",\n \"Alcohol dependence is often associated with impulsivity, which may be correlated with dysfunction of the brain reward system. We explored whether functional brain activation during anticipation of incentive stimuli is associated with impulsiveness in detoxified alcoholics and healthy control subjects. Nineteen detoxified male alcoholics and 19 age-matched healthy men participated in a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) study using a monetary incentive delay (MID) task, in which visual cues predicted that a rapid response to a subsequent target stimulus would either result in monetary gain, avoidance of monetary loss, or no consequence. Impulsivity was assessed with the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-Version 10 (BIS-10). Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy control subjects. Low activation of the ventral striatum and anterior cingulate during gain anticipation was correlated with high impulsivity only in alcoholics, not in control subjects.\",\n \"yes. These findings provide important information regarding the potential role of distinct behavioral components of impulsivity in drinking behavior, and highlight unique relevance of attentional impairments to drinking behavior in those with ADHD.\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.\",\n \"Previous studies have found individuals with family histories of alcohol use disorders are more impulsive on some but not all laboratory behavioral measures, suggesting deficits on specific forms of impulse control. However, drawing conclusions is tenuous because these different measures have not been administered together in the same group of participants. In the present study, we compared healthy 21-35 year old adults with family histories of alcohol related problems (FHAP+) or without such histories (FHAP-) on behavioral measures of response inhibition, response initiation, and consequence sensitivity impulsivity. FHAP+ (n=36) and FHAP- (n=36) participants were compared on performance on the Immediate Memory Task (IMT, response initiation), GoStop Impulsivity Paradigm (GoStop, response inhibition), Two Choice Impulsivity Paradigm (TCIP, consequence sensitivity) and Single Key Impulsivity Paradigm (SKIP, consequence sensitivity). FHAP+ individuals were more impulsive on the IMT and GoStop but not on the TCIP or SKIP.\",\n \"yes. Trait impulsivity and habitual alcohol use were also significant predictors. Results are discussed in terms of acute effects of alcohol on brain systems and the behavioural consequences of such effects on decision making.\",\n \"This study uses a missing stimulus paradigm to investigate cognitive effects associated with moderate blood alcohol levels. Specifically, the rate of rise of the omitted stimulus potential (OSP), which is observed when an expected stimulus is omitted, as well as the peak latency of this potential correlate with cognitive premotor reaction time, and thus might involve similar cognitive processes. An acute dose of alcohol has been found to slow the premotor reaction time to a missing stimulus, but no research has tested alcohol effects on the OSP. A dose of 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a placebo (0 g/kg) was administered in an across-subjects' design in two groups of 15 young men who were tested on a missing stimulus task before and again after alcohol. During a test, active trials required a response to the missing stimulus, and passive trials required no muscle action. Trials were counterbalanced in each group and obtained measures of premotor reaction time, motor reaction time, OSP onset and delay until muscle action, OSP amplitude, rate of rise, and peak latency. The pretreatment and posttreatment change in a measure assessed the alcohol effect. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed premotor reaction time, extended the delay of the OSP before muscle action, and slowed the OSP rate of rise and its peak latency.\",\n \"This study used a four-factor model of impulsivity to investigate inter-relationships between alcohol consumption, impulsivity, motives for drinking and the tendency to engage in alcohol-related problem behaviours. 400 University students aged 18-25 completed an online survey consisting of the following measures: Urgency, Premeditation, Perseverance and Sensation Seeking Scale (UPPS) to measure impulsivity; Student Alcohol Questionnaire to assess drinking quantity, frequency and rates of problem behaviours; Drinking Motives Questionnaire to assess motives for drinking. The majority of the sample (94.5%) drank alcohol at least monthly. Path analysis revealed direct effects of urgency, sensation seeking and premeditation, as well as the quantity of alcohol consumed, on the tendency to engage in risky behaviours with negative consequences. The effect of urgency was mediated by drinking for coping motives and by a combined effect of drinking for social motives and consumption of wine or spirits. Conversely the effect of sensation seeking was mediated by the quantity of alcohol consumed, irrespective of drink type, and the effect of premeditation was mediated by the consumption of wine and spirits, in combination with enhancement motives.\",\n \"yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.\",\n \"Hazardous drinking is associated with both increased impulsivity and automatic approach tendencies elicited by alcohol-related cues. However, impulsivity is a multi-factorial construct, and it is currently unclear if all components of impulsivity are associated with heavy drinking. Furthermore, emerging evidence suggests that the relationships between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol cognitions may be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. The aim of this study was to investigate the independence of measures of impulsivity and their association with hazardous drinking, and to examine if the relationship between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol approach tendencies would be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. Ninety-seven social drinkers (65 female) completed questionnaire measures of trait impulsivity, alcohol consumption and hazardous drinking. Participants also completed computerised measures of automatic alcohol approach tendencies (stimulus-response compatibility (SRC) task), and two behavioural measures of impulsivity (Go/No-go and delay discounting tasks). Principal component analysis revealed that the two measures of behavioural impulsivity were distinct from each other and from self-reported trait impulsivity, although self-reported non-planning impulsivity loaded on to two factors (trait impulsivity and delay discounting). Furthermore, all measures of impulsivity predicted unique variance in hazardous drinking as did automatic alcohol approach tendencies, although the latter relationship was not moderated by impulsivity.\",\n \"Impulsive behavior is associated with both alcohol use disorders and a family history of alcoholism (FHA). One operational definition of impulsive behavior is the stop-signal task (SST) which measures the time needed to stop a ballistic hand movement. Employ functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to study right frontal responses to stop signals in heavy drinking subjects with and without FHA, and as a function of alcohol exposure. Twenty-two family history-positive (FHP; age = 22.7 years, SD = 1.9) and 18 family history-negative (FHN; age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) subjects performed the SST in fMRI in two randomized visits: once during intravenous infusion of alcohol, clamped at a steady-state breath alcohol (BrAC) concentration of 60 mg/dL, and once during infusion of placebo saline. An independent reference group (n = 13, age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) was used to identify a priori right prefrontal regions activated by successful inhibition (Inh) trials, relative to \\\"Go\\\" trials that carried no need for inhibition [Inh > Go]. FHA interacted with alcohol exposure in right prefrontal cortex, where alcohol reduced [Inh > Go] activation in FHN subjects but not in FHP subjects. Within this right frontal cortical region, stop-signal reaction time also correlated negatively with [Inh > Go] activation, suggesting that the [Inh > Go] activity was related to inhibitory behavior.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that response initiation and response inhibition impulsivity are increased in individuals with family histories of alcohol related problems despite not having alcohol or drug use disorders themselves. In contrast, increased consequence sensitivity impulsivity may be associated with additional risk factors such as more severe family histories of alcohol use disorders, or it may be increased as a consequence of heavy drug or alcohol use.\",\n \"yes. This study suggests that reduced ventral striatal recruitment during anticipation of conventional rewards in alcoholics may be related to their increased impulsivity and indicate possibilities for enhanced treatment approaches in alcohol dependence.\",\n \"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \\\"go/no go\\\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \\\"go\\\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \\\"no go\\\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \\\"no go\\\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \\\"no go\\\" trials under alcohol.\",\n \"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \\\"response execution\\\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \\\"no go\\\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":8,"string":"8"}}},{"rowIdx":273166,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Lower frequency of focal lip sialadenitis (focus score) in smoking patients. Can tobacco diminish the salivary gland involvement as judged by histological examination and anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies in Sjögren's syndrome?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.","This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea"],"string":"[\n \"Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.\",\n \"This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Salivary ultrasonography (US) was evaluated as an alternative imaging modality to sialography for Sjögren's syndrome (SS). Parotid sialography and parotid and submandibular US were performed in 360 patients (188 with SS and 172 non-SS) who were suspected of SS and had fulfilled the American-European criteria (AEC) for SS or had received>or =3 of the objective examinations that were considered minimal requirements for classifying non-SS and had undergone both the imaging examinations. The glands were considered positive for SS if they exhibited peripheral sialoectatic changes on sialography and/or hypoechoic areas, echogenic streaks and/or irregular gland margins on US. The images obtained were independently rated as SS-positive or SS-negative by three radiologists in a blind fashion and the final decision was made by consensus. Interobserver and intermodality agreement was evaluated using kappa values for sialography and parotid and/or submandibular US. Average kappa values for the interobserver agreement were 0.81, 0.80 and 0.82 in sialography, parotid and submandibular US, respectively, indicating very good or good agreement. The kappa value for intermodality agreement between sialography and parotid US was 0.81 and between sialography and submandibular US was 0.76, indicating very good and good agreement, respectively. The diagnostic ability of parotid US was significantly lower than that of sialography (p<0.001, McNemar test). However, the diagnostic ability of submandibular US was comparable to that of sialography (p=0.153).","To investigate whether hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) increase risk of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). We recruited 585 patients with cytological and/or pathologically confirmed PDAC in National Taiwan University Hospital from September 2000 to September 2013, and 1716 age-, sex-, and race-matched controls who received a screening program in a community located in Northern Taiwan. Blood samples were tested for the presence of HCV antibodies (anti-HCV), HBV surface antigen (HBsAg), antibodies against HBsAg (anti-HBs), and hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) in all cases and controls. The odds ratio (OR) of PDAC was estimated by logistic regression analysis with adjustment diabetes mellitus (DM) and smoking. HBsAg was positive in 73 cases (12.5%) and 213 controls (12.4%). Anti-HCV was positive in 22 cases (3.8%) and 45 controls (2.6%). Anti-HBs was positive in 338 cases (57.8%) and 1047 controls (61.0%). The estimated ORs of PDAC in multivariate analysis were as follows: DM, 2.08 (95%CI: 1.56-2.76, P < 0.001), smoking, 1.36 (95%CI: 1.02-1.80, P = 0.035), HBsAg(+)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(-), 0.89 (95%CI: 0.89-1.68, P = 0.219), HBsAg(-)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(+), 1.03 (95%CI: 0.84-1.25, P = 0.802).","yes. There is a strong association between smoking and rheumatoid nodules in early seropositive rheumatoid arthritis.","Sjögren's syndrome (SjS) is a systemic autoimmune disease characterized by decreased salivary and lacrimal gland secretions, resulting in severe dry mouth and dry eyes. Recent studies have suggested that TH17 cells and its signature cytokine IL-17 are involved in the underlying pathogenic mechanisms leading to destructive inflammation and autoimmunity. In the present study, we examined whether IL-27, a natural inhibitor of TH17 activity, could down-regulate or reverse SjS in C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice, a model of primary-SjS. Recombinant serotype 2 adeno-associated viral (AAV2) vectors expressing either IL-27 (rAAV2-IL27) or LacZ (rAAV2-LacZ) were injected into 6 or 14 week-old C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice. Changes in IL-27, IL-17, and IL-10 cytokine levels in peripheral blood were determined by ELISAs, while flow cytometry analyses were used to quantify cytokine-positive splenocytes. Histological assessment of salivary glands, anti-nuclear autoantibody (ANA) staining, and stimulated saliva flow rates were used to profile SjS disease severity. Mice systemically treated with intravenous rAAV2-IL27 injections at either 6 or 14 weeks of age exhibited long-term elevated levels of serum IL-27 with concomitantly reduced levels of IL-17 compared with sera from mice injected with rAAV2-LacZ or saline out to 20 weeks post-inoculation. Most importantly, disease profiles revealed that rAAV2-IL27 treatment had little effect on lymphocytic focus (LF) scores, but resulted in structural changes in LF, lower titers of ANAs with changes in staining patterns, and a less severe clinical disease as determined by saliva flow rates.","In the era of early and widespread use of immunosuppressants and biologics, tobacco exposure is an independent predictor of need for maintenance treatment, specifically biologic therapy. The wider use of biologics and immunosuppressants could account for the existence of no major differences in disease behavior and complications between nonsmokers and current smokers.","yes. Measuring serum levels of anti-SS-B/La and IgA-RF would be useful when monitoring salivary responses in therapeutic trials, especially in patients with minimal salivary function.","To study systemic alterations of cytokine secreting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and their relation to common clinical and immunological manifestations of this disease. PBMC spontaneously secreting tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha), interleukin 1beta (IL1beta), and interleukin 6 (IL6) were assessed by enzyme linked immunospot (ELISPOT) analysis in a cohort of 31 patients with pSS fulfilling the modified European classification criteria. Nineteen healthy volunteers served as controls. ELISPOT results were correlated with glandular and extraglandular manifestations and autoantibody titres-that is, rheumatoid factor (RF) isotypes, anti-Ro/SS-A, anti-La/SS-B as determined by an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique. The number of TNFalpha and IL1beta secreting cells was significantly higher in patients with pSS than in controls. No differences were detected in the number of IL6 secreting PBMC. Patients with recurrent parotid swelling (RPS) had a significantly increased number of IL1beta secreting PBMC. Moreover, the number of IL1beta secreting PBMC correlated with the disease duration (r(s)=0.479; p<0.01) and with the concentration of IgM RF (r(s)=0.63; p<0.01) and IgG RF (r(s)=0.42; p<0.05). Other autoantibodies did not correlate with cytokine secreting PBMC.","Ki67 and p53 protein expressions are the most widely used markers to show the pathologic proliferation and early-stage tumoral alterations in vital tissues. The aim of this study was to compare Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in smokers' and nonsmokers' pericoronal follicles of asymptomatic impacted lower third molars (ILTMs). A cross-sectional study was planned. The study sample was derived from a population of patients who presented for evaluation and operative treatment of asymptomatic ILTMs. The predictor variable was smoking status, defined as smoker or nonsmoker. Outcome variables were Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in ILTM follicles. Other study variables were age, gender, tooth position, cigarette pack-year, epithelial layer staining, and inflammation. Independent-samples t test analyses were conducted with SPSS 10.0 (SPSS, Inc, Chicago, IL), with statistical significance set at a P value equal to .05. The study sample was composed of 70 patients (35 in the smoker group) who contributed 60 follicles. There were statistical differences between the 2 groups for variables Ki67 and p53. Mean expression levels of Ki67 were 3.93 ± 2.17 and 2.48 ± 2.09, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .011). Mean expression levels of p53 were 5.32 ± 1.98 and 3.06 ± 2.34, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .000).","yes. HLA class II markers confer genetic susceptibility to Sjögren's syndrome. The association between HLA and SS is restricted to patients with anti-SSA and/or anti-SSB antibodies; HLA is not associated with SS in patients without these autoantibodies. The absence of a difference in disease severity between groups 2 and 3, as well as the restricted association of HLA-DRB1*03 in group 3, strongly suggest that HLA alleles predispose to autoantibody secretion, without being associated with clinical outcome. HLA class II phenotype might support epitope spreading: HLA-DR15 favors anti-SSA synthesis, whereas HLA-DR3 is associated with both anti-SSA and anti-SSB production.","Chronic infiltration of lymphocytes into the salivary and lacrimal glands of patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) leads to destruction of acinar cells and loss of exocrine function. Protein kinase C-delta (PKCδ) is known to play a critical role in B-cell maintenance. Mice in which the PKCδ gene has been disrupted have a loss of B-cell tolerance, multiple organ lymphocytic infiltration, and altered apoptosis. To determine whether PKCδ contributes to the pathogenesis of SS, we quantified changes in indicators of SS in PKCδ-/- mice as a function of age. Salivary gland histology, function, the presence of autoantibodies, and cytokine expression were examined. Submandibular glands were examined for the presence of lymphocytic infiltrates, and the type of infiltrating lymphocyte and cytokine deposition was evaluated by immunohistochemistry. Serum samples were tested by autoantibody screening, which was graded by its staining pattern and intensity. Salivary gland function was determined by saliva collection at various ages. PKCδ-/- mice have reduced salivary gland function, B220+ B-cell infiltration, anti-nuclear antibody production, and elevated IFN-γ in the salivary glands as compared to PKCδ+/+ littermates.","To define parameters predictive of lymphoma development in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). A multicenter case-control survey was performed to identify predictors of lymphoma. Cases were patients who developed lymphoma after diagnosis of primary SS and were mainly recruited through the Club Rhumatismes et Inflammation network. For each case, 2 controls (matched for disease duration and age) were randomly selected among patients with primary SS and without lymphoma. Cases and controls were compared using univariate analysis and then using multivariate analysis to identify independent predictors of lymphoma. One hundred one patients with primary SS and lymphoma were included. Eighty-seven patients were women (86.1%), and the mean ± SD age at lymphoma diagnosis was 57.4 ± 12.6 years. The most frequent histologic type was B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) in 99 of 101 patients, with marginal-zone lymphoma in 76 of the 99 patients (76.8%) including 58 (58.6%) with lymphoma of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type. Lymphomas were most frequently located in the salivary glands (43 patients). A specific treatment was initiated at diagnosis in 87 patients with B cell NHL, and 61 patients (61.6%) achieved complete sustained remission after the first line of treatment. In the multivariate analysis, salivary gland enlargement, the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), low C4, cryoglobulinemia, lymphopenia, and disease activity according to the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index (excluding the lymphoma domain) were found to be predictors of lymphoma. No previous treatment for primary SS was associated with any effect on lymphoma occurrence.","yes. The present study indicated that cigarette smoke could potentially modulate the expression of crucial molecules of NOD1 signal pathway and hBDs in human oral mucosal epithelium. NOD1 signal pathway could play an important role in the regulatory effects of CSE on hBDs levels in oral mucosal epithelial cells.","This study examines: 1) alveolar bone loss (ABL), a hallmark of periodontitis, in anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA)-positive rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients versus control patients with osteoarthritis (OA); and 2) the association of ABL with RA disease activity and ACPA concentrations, including multiple antigen-specific ACPA. This multicenter case-control study includes 617 patients diagnosed with RA (n = 287) or OA (n = 330). Panoramic radiographs were taken; patients were categorized into low, moderate, or high tertiles based on mean percentage ABL. Serum ACPA was measured using second-generation anticyclic citrullinated peptide enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and a multiplex platform to assess distinct antigen-specific ACPA. A generalized linear mixed model for binary data was used to compare stratified ABL in RA versus OA patients. Associations of moderate and high ABL (versus low) with RA disease activity and severity measures were examined using multivariate regression. Antigen-specific ACPA responses were compared among ABL tertiles using significance analysis of microarrays. ACPA-positive patients with RA had a significantly higher mean percentage of sites with ABL >20% compared with patients with OA (P = 0.03). After multivariate adjustment, greater ABL was significantly associated with higher serum ACPA concentration (P = 0.004), 28-joint Disease Activity Score (P = 0.023), health assessment questionnaire disability (P = 0.05), tender joint count (P = 0.02) and joint space narrowing scores (P = 0.05) among patients with RA. ACPAs targeting citrullinated vimentin and histone were significantly higher in moderate and high ABL groups versus low, regardless of smoking status (q <0.1%).","Congenital heart block occurring in the foetus and neonate may be associated with maternal anti-SS-A/anti-SS-B autoantibodies (anti-SSA/anti-SSB). The adult atrioventricular node is generally thought to be resistant to the damaging effects of anti-SSA/anti-SSB. However, case reports suggest that heart block developing in adult Sjögren's syndrome (SS) patients may be associated with these autoantibodies. Therefore, we investigated the relationship between serum antibodies and heart block in adult SS patients. We abstracted data from clinic patient records. Diagnosis of primary SS was based on American-European classification criteria. Electrocardiograms (EKGs), laboratory immunology parameters, lipid profiles, and focus scores from labial salivary gland biopsies were available for 51 SS patients. Fifteen patients had follow-up EKGs. PR interval200 ms was considered to be first-degree heart block. Five patients showed prolonged PR intervals; the presence of heart block was not related to the presence of anti-SSA antibodies. However, significant differences between patients with prolonged and normal PR intervals were seen for mean focus scores (p<0.0001), anti-cardiolipin immunoglobulin IgG (p = 0.0009), age (p = 0.01), IgG (p = 0.02), anti-SSB antibodies (p = 0.02), and high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels (p = 0.03). These parameters correlated with prolonged PR intervals.","no. No clear association between smoking status and individual autoantibodies was detected in SLE patients, unaffected FDRs, nor healthy controls within this collection. The association of smoking with SLE may therefore manifest its risk through mechanisms outside of autoantibody production, at least for the specificities tested.","To determine the association between risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and alcohol consumption in combination with smoking and HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE). Data from two independent case-control studies of RA, the Swedish EIRA (1204 cases and 871 controls) and the Danish CACORA (444 cases and 533 controls), were used to estimate ORs of developing RA for different amounts of alcohol consumed. Alcohol consumption was significantly more common in controls (p<0.05) and dose-dependently associated with reduced risk of RA (p for trend <0.001) in both studies. Among alcohol consumers, the quarter with the highest consumption had a decreased risk of RA of the order of 40-50% compared with the half with the lowest consumption (EIRA, OR = 0.5 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.6); CACORA, OR = 0.6 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.9)). For the subset of RA that is seropositive for antibodies to citrullinated peptide antigens, alcohol consumption reduced the risk most in smokers carrying HLA-DRB1 SE alleles.","The lymphotoxin-beta receptor (LTbetaR) pathway is important in the development and maintenance of lymphoid structures. Blocking this pathway has proven beneficial in murine models of autoimmune diseases such as diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. The aim of this study was to determine the effects of LTbetaR pathway blockade on Sjögren syndrome (SS)-like salivary gland disease in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice. The course of SS-like disease was followed in NOD mice that were given lymphotoxin-beta receptor-immunoglobulin fusion protein (LTbetaR-Ig) starting at 9 weeks of age. Treatment was given as a single weekly dose for 3, 7, or 10 weeks. Age-matched NOD mice treated with mouse monoclonal IgG1, or not treated at all, were used as controls. The severity of inflammation, cellular composition, and lymphoid neogenesis in the submandibular glands were determined by immunohistochemistry. Mandibular lymph nodes were also studied. Saliva flow rates were measured, and saliva was analyzed by a multiplex cytokine assay. The salivary glands were analyzed for CXCL13, CCL19, and CCL21 gene expression by quantitative polymerase chain reaction. Treatment with LTbetaR-Ig prevented the increase in size and number of focal infiltrates normally observed in this SS-like disease. Compared with the controls, the submandibular glands of LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice had fewer and smaller T- and B-cell zones and fewer high endothelial venules per given salivary gland area. Follicular dendritic cell networks were lost in LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice. CCL19 expression was also dramatically inhibited in the salivary gland infiltrates. Draining lymph nodes showed more gradual changes after LTbetaR-Ig treatment. Saliva flow was partially restored in mice treated with 10 LTbetaR-Ig weekly injections, and the saliva cytokine profile of these mice resembled that of mice in the pre-disease state.","Earlier studies have given conflicting results regarding the effect of exposure to tobacco smoke on atopic sensibilization. A cross-sectional study of present and former smoking habits in relation to atopic disorders from data on 6909 young and middle-aged adults (16-49 years) and their 4472 children (3-15 years) from the Swedish Survey of Living Conditions in 1996-97. The prevalence of allergic asthma and allergic rhino-conjunctivitis decreased, in a dose-response manner (P = 0.03 and P = 0.004, respectively), with increasing exposure to tobacco smoke in the adult study population. This pattern was little changed when potential confounders (sex, age, education, domicile, country of birth) were entered into a multivariate analysis: the adjusted odds ratio (OR) for allergic rhino-conjunctivitis was 0.5 (0.4-0.7) for those who smoked at least 20 cigarettes a day and OR 0.7 (0.6-0.9) for those smoking 10-19 cigarettes, compared with those who reported that they never had smoked Former smokers had a tendency for a slightly lower risk: OR 0.9 (0.8-1.0). In a multivariate analysis, children of mothers who smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day tended to have lower odds for suffering from allergic rhino-conjunctivitis, allergic asthma, atopic eczema and food allergy, compared to children of mothers who had never smoked (ORs 0.6-0.7). Children of fathers who had smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day had a similar tendency (ORs 0.7-0.9).","To study the gene-environment interaction of tobacco exposure and shared epitope on autoantibodies in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and undifferentiated arthritis. From incident cases of arthritis (n = 1305), patients who did not fulfil any classification criteria (undifferentiated arthritis (n = 486)) and those who fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for rheumatoid arthritis (n = 407) were identified. IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-cyclic-citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies, and HLA-DRB1 alleles were determined. In rheumatoid arthritis, an interaction was found between tobacco exposure and shared epitope for the presence of anti-CCP antibodies, as the odds ratio for anti-CCP antibodies in patients having both tobacco exposure (TE) and shared epitope (SE) was higher than the summed odds ratios of patients having only tobacco exposure or shared epitope (odds ratios: TE+/SE-, 1.07; TE-/SE+, 2.49; and TE+/SE+, 5.27-all relative to TE-/SE-). A similar effect was found for RF, but stratification showed that the interaction primarily associated with the anti-CCP antibody response. In patients with undifferentiated arthritis at two weeks, or with persistent undifferentiated arthritis after one year, no interaction between tobacco exposure and shared epitope was observed for the presence of autoantibodies.","Smoking influences oral health in several ways (such as the occurrence of periodontitis, teeth discolouration and oral cancer); therefore, smoking behaviour should be addressed in dental care. Dentists can play a role in primary and secondary prevention of tobacco dependence. They see their patients repeatedly over time. This study investigates whether oral health complaints can be seized as an opportunity to start smoking cessation counselling. A structured patient questionnaire in a sample of 1101 smokers (52.1% women, mean age 40.4 years) in a convenience sample of 87 primary care dental practices. The I-change model was used to describe factors influencing behavioural change. Dependent factors such as intention to quit smoking and related factors (attitude, social support and self-efficacy) were analysed in relation to independent factors such as oral health complaints (gingiva problems, gingiva inflammation, oral cancer and discoloured teeth) using a general linear model (univariate analysis), multinomial logistic regression analysis and multiple linear regression analysis. A total of 56.3% had discoloured teeth, 27% of the smokers had a problem with their gums and 15.7% had gingiva inflammation. We found no direct relation between oral health complaints and the intention to quit smoking. However, teeth discolouration was positively related to attitudes towards smoking cessation [β, Confidential interval (95%); 1.92 (1.45-2.40 for advantages and -0.86(-1.18 to -0.53) for disadvantages] and negatively to self-efficacy regarding quitting [-2.69 (-3.49 to 1.88)].","The aim of this study was to verify the validity of IL-21 local suppression in submandibular glands of preventing the development of Sjögren's syndrome in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice and figure out the mechanism. IL-21 levels in submandibular glands were suppressed by ductal cannulation of IL-21 shRNA lentivirus. Then, saliva flow rates (SFR) and histopathologic changes of submandibular glands were measured to assess the severity of disease development. Real-time PCR, flow cytometry, and immunohistochemistry were used to detect the changes of T helper cells and related cytokines. The reduction in SFRs in NOD mice was significantly alleviated from 9 to 17 weeks of age along with the suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands. Lymphocytic infiltration was also milder than control NOD mice. Moreover, the lower level of IL-21 led to the down-regulation of follicular helper T (Tfh) cells.","The most important risk factor linked to the development of oral leukoplakia (OL) and oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is tobacco use. Tobacco contains carcinogens that influence the DNA repair, cell cycle control and may produce chromosomal aberrations. The loss or acquisition of one or more chromosomes is defined as aneuploidy. Aneuploidy was determined by means of the DNA-content included in cells obtained by exfoliative cytology and Feulgen's staining. The cells were collected from the clinically healthy lateral margin of the tongue of non-smokers without oral lesions, smokers without oral lesions, smokers with OL, and smokers with OSCC, using the CytoBrush(®). Each group was composed of 20 individuals. A Carl Zeiss image analyzer system and the KS300 software were used. Statistical analysis was performed with BioEstat(®) software. The mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei was statistically higher in the smokers (79.65%), smokers with OL (68.4%), and smokers with OSCC (93.65%), as compared to non-smokers (39.3%) (P<0.05). A trend toward an increase in the aneuploidy of the smokers with OSCC group (P=0.02), as compared to the non-smoker group, could be observed. No significant difference could be observed as regards the mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei in relation to duration of tobacco use or the number of the cigarettes smoked.","yes. In vivo transduction of the lacrimal gland with AdTNFRIp55-Ig resulted in transient expression in the gland and the appearance of TNF-inhibitor protein in tears. The presence of soluble TNF-inhibitor protein partially suppressed the appearance of Sjögren's syndrome-like features of reduced tear production and the immunohistopathology associated with induced autoimmune dacryoadenitis but not tear break-up time and ocular surface disease. This may reflect immunoregulation in the lacrimal gland but not in the conjunctiva.","Minor salivary gland specimens were analyzed to investigate dysregulation of the proteasome system in patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and patients with sicca syndrome. Labial biopsy specimens from 17 patients with SS and 11 patients with non-autoimmunesicca syndrome were analyzed by immunohistochemistry for expression of the inducible proteasomal subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i. The infiltrating subsets of lymphocytes were characterized using immunofluorescence stainings against the cell-surface markers CD20 and CD27. Two-dimensional electrophoresis and immunoblotting were used for detection of the proteasomal subunits ss1 and ss1i in peripheral blood monocyte cells. Gene expression of the constitutive subunits ss1, ss2, and ss5 and the corresponding inducible subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i was further investigated at the mRNA level in small lip biopsies using real-time polymerase chain reaction. The expression of ss1i in infiltrating and peripheral immune cells was altered in patients with SS compared to patients with non-autoimmune sicca syndrome and healthy controls. No significant differences were found in ss2i and ss5i expression between the same groups in small lip biopsies. Chisholm-Mason grade and ss1i expression were found to be inversely correlated (Spearman r = -0.461, p = 0.014). The phenotype and distribution of the lymphocytic infiltrate showed no differences between patients with primary and secondary SS regardless of ss1i expression.","Tobacco recently appeared as a major independent factor adversely influencing the natural course of alcoholic chronic pancreatitis. However, the role of tobacco in patients with autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) has never been studied. Type 2 AIP is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, especially ulcerative colitis in which smoking is protective. The aim of our study was to evaluate the influence of smoking on course of AIP. All consecutive patients followed in our centre for AIP according to ICDC were studied. Tobacco consumption was recorded. A relation between smoking and all event related to AIP was searched for. 96 patients with type 1 (73%) or type 2 (27%) AIP were included; 76% of patients were low smokers (never, ex- or smokers<10 p.y.) and 24% were high smokers (≥10 p.y.). The mean follow-up was 60 months [5-188]. AIP relapse was observed in 26% of patients. At the end-point, smokers ≥10 p.y. presented more frequently diabetes (50% vs 27%, p = 0.04) and imaging pancreatic damages (59% vs 34%, p = 0.02) than low smokers. There was also a non significant tendency to observe more frequently exocrine insufficiency and relapse in smokers ≥10 pack-year. No protective effect of smoking was observed in the subgroup of patients with type 2 AIP and ulcerative colitis.","To compare quality of life (QoL), depression, anxiety, and fatigue in prospectively included patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) or with sicca but no diagnosis of Sjögren's syndrome. Patients undergoing a multidisciplinary evaluation at a single university center in Brest, France, for suspected pSS and having sicca symptoms were included prospectively between November 2006 and December 2013. The same standardized investigations were performed in all patients. pSS and sicca not due to pSS diagnoses were based on evaluating physician opinion. Each patient completed three validated questionnaires on QoL (SF-36), fatigue (MFI), depression and anxiety (HADS). Of the 95 included patients, 55 (57.9%) had pSS and 40 (42.1%) had sicca without pSS. Gender distribution, age, disease duration, and sicca symptoms were similar in the two groups. The pSS group had a significantly higher proportion of patients with abnormal objective tests for dryness (Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate). The SF-36, HADS, and MFI scores were similarly altered in the two groups. Anxiety was more common than depression in both groups. The most affected domains were vitality in the SF-36 and general/physical fatigue in the MFI. Extraglandular systemic involvement was not a major determinant of QoL alteration in patients with pSS.","yes. These results may indicate that anti-TNF agents would have therapeutic efficacy for preventing destruction of the acinar structure in the salivary glands of patients with SS.","yes. These data suggest that smokers, and especially current smokers, exhibit significantly reduced BAL SP-D and phospholipids compared to nonsmokers. Our findings may help better explain the mechanism that leads to the rapid progression of disease and increased incidence of infection in smokers.","yes. The results presented here suggest that expression of human beta-defensins hBD-1 and -2, and, thus, the basal levels of innate immune defense reactions in the oral cavity are reduced by smoking.","To investigate the abnormalities of T regulatory cells (Treg) in salivary glands and peripheral blood in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells of the peripheral blood of 52 patients with pSS were measured by flow-cytometric assay. Lower lip salivary gland biopsies were examined by immunohistochemistry, using monoclonal mouse anti-human antibodies [CD25, CD4, CD8, CD68, forkhead transcription factor (Foxp3)] in 30 patients with pSS. Using real-time polymerase chain reaction, Foxp3 messenger RNA expression was assessed in the salivary glands and CD4+ T cells from peripheral blood. Many inflammatory cells, predominantly CD4+ and CD8+ T cells and macrophages, were found in salivary glands of patients with SS, but CD4+CD25+ Treg numbers and Foxp3 expression were markedly reduced in those biopsy samples. Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells and Foxp3 expression in peripheral blood of patients with pSS were significantly lower than in healthy controls. However, the inhibitory function of CD4+CD25+ T cells in pSS was unchanged compared to that of controls. Peripheral CD4+CD25+ high T cell numbers in pSS did not correlate with Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate, or with the presence or absence of anti-SSA/SSB antibodies and immunoglobulin level.","The diagnosis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) rests on a converging set of clinical and laboratory findings. Salivary-gland ultrasonography (SGUS) was recently shown to assist in the diagnosis and therapeutic monitoring of pSS. Our objective here was to measure salivary-gland elasticity using Acoustic Radiation Force Impulse (ARFI) ultrasonography in patients with pSS and to compare the results to those obtained in healthy controls. SGUS with ARFI elastometry was performed in 10 patients with pSS and 15 healthy controls. Ten impulses per gland were used for both submandibular and both parotid glands of each participant. Mean shear wave velocity (SWV) in m/s was compared between the patients and controls using the Mann-Whitney U test. For the parotid glands, mean SWV was significantly higher in the pSS group than in the control group (2.335±0.315 vs 1.785±0.384, respectively; P=0.001). Mean SWV values for the submandibular glands were not significantly different between the patients and controls (1.812±0.308 vs 1.766±0.187, respectively; P=0.892).","Sjögren's syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by progressive lymphocytic infiltration within the salivary and lacrimal glands. This study was undertaken to investigate the effects of innate immunity activation on sialoadenitis in a mouse strain genetically susceptible for development of SS-like disease. Female New Zealand Black X New Zealand White F1 mice were repeatedly treated with toll-like 3 receptor agonist poly(I:C). Submandibular glands were investigated at different time points for sialoadenitis by immunohistochemistry and for gene expression of different chemokines by quantitative PCR. Submandibular gland-infiltrating cells were characterized by flow cytometry. Poly(I:C) treatment significantly upregulated the expression of multiple chemokines within the submandibular glands. The severity and incidence of sialoadenitis was considerably higher in poly(I:C)-treated mice. There was a preponderance of dendritic cells and NK cells in the initial inflammatory cell infiltrates, and these were followed by CD4+ T cells.","To assess the prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in patients with primary Sjögren syndrome (pSS) and to study the association of COPD with cigarette smoking, radiographic features, respiratory symptoms, disease activity, and laboratory inflammatory and serological features in patients with pSS. Fifty-one consecutive patients with pSS (mean age 60 yrs, range 29-82 yrs, 49 women) were assessed by pulmonary function tests (PFT). The PFT results were compared with previously studied population-based controls, standardizing results with regard to sex, age, height, weight, and cigarette smoking. In addition, patients with pSS were assessed by computed tomography of the chest, the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren Syndrome Disease Activity Index and Patient Reported Index, the St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (which evaluates respiratory symptoms), and by laboratory inflammatory and serological tests. Forty-one percent of all patients with pSS and 30% of the never-smoking patients with pSS fulfilled the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease criteria for COPD. Vital capacity (VC), forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), FEV1/VC ratio, and DLCO were significantly decreased while residual volume (RV) and the RV/total lung capacity ratio were significantly increased in patients with pSS. Moderate correlations between PFT results, symptoms, and disease activity were found. However, laboratory inflammatory and serological features were poorly associated with PFT results in patients with pSS.","To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with clinical expression, disease activity and severity in a cohort of Greek patients with early rheumatoid arthritis (RA). From January 1993 until December 2002, 293 patients with early RA were diagnosed and followed up in our rheumatology clinic. All patients fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for RA, had disease duration of less than one year, without prior treatment of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) or steroids. The patients were treated with at least one DMARD, and 287 of them had a last follow up during the year 2004. The demographic, personal, clinical, laboratory, radiological and therapeutic features were compared at entry and at the last follow-up, according to their smoking habits at entry. Among the 293 patients, 6 were lost to follow-up, thus 287 patients were evaluated. There were 200 females (67.7%) and 87 males (30.3%). Eighty-two (28.6%) were current smokers, 21 (7.3%) ex-smokers and 184 (64.1%) non-smokers at presentation. RA smoker patients displayed the disease at a younger age than the non-smokers. Additionally, the smokers presented at disease onset more prominent features of articular involvement as was evaluated by the higher number of total joint count with tenderness and swelling and by the higher disease activity for 28 joint indices score (DAS-28). Smokers also presented a higher Larsen's score and higher frequency of IgM and IgA rheumatoid factors as compared to non-smokers. At the end of the study, the smoker patients presented more active and severe disease as evaluated by the higher total number of tender and swelling joint count, the higher DAS-28, and higher Larsen's score as compared to non-smokers. Furthermore, the smokers more frequently had rheumatoid nodules than the ex-smokers and non-smokers. The association of smoking with disease activity and severity was independent of sex, age, educational level, alcohol consumption, and follow-up duration. Finally, no significant differences were observed concerning the therapeutic procedure among the three groups.","Assess the expression of FasL, Bax, TNFa and IL-6, genes in salivary glands of primary Sjögren patients. Twenty minor salivary glands from patients with primary Sjögren syndrome were studied by in situ hybridization with cDNA fluorescent probes. An equal number of control biopsies were included. Sjögren salivary glands differentially display the inflammatory cytokines and pro-apoptotic mRNAs as follows: mononuclear infiltrating cells exhibited IL-6 and TNFa, whereas the ductal epithelium and acinary cells mainly expressed FasL and Bax. Control biopsies were negative.","To determine whether the impact of tobacco exposure on rheumatoid arthritis (RA) risk is influenced by polymorphisms at the HLA-DRB1 and glutathione S-transferase M1 (GSTM1) loci. Subjects were participants from a case-control study nested within the Iowa Women's Health Study, a population based, prospective cohort study of postmenopausal women. Incident RA cases (n = 115) were identified and medical records reviewed to confirm RA diagnosis. Controls without RA (n = 466) were matched with RA cases by age and ethnic background. HLA-DRB1 typing classified subjects according to the presence of alleles encoding the RA \"shared epitope\" (SE) sequence. GSTM1 was genotyped using a multiplex polymerase chain reaction assay. Conditional logistic regression was used to estimate the odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals. Strong positive associations of smoking (OR = 6.0, p = 0.004), SE positivity (OR = 4.6, p = 0.0006), and GSTM1 null genotype (OR = 3.4, p = 0.007) with risk of RA, and significant gene-environment interactions (smoking by SE interaction p = 0.034; smoking by GSTM1 interaction p = 0.047) were observed. Stratified analyses indicated that exposure to tobacco smoke primarily increased the risk of RA among subjects who lacked genetic risk factors for the disease (that is, SE negative or GSTM1 present).","To compare the clinical presentation of 231 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with 89 patients with aqueous-deficient dry eye (keratoconjunctivitis sicca; KCS), to determine those procedures that best differentiate these groups in the eye care clinic. The records of all patients seen at the University Health Network Sjögren's Syndrome Clinic from October 1992 to July 2006 were reviewed and documented. The diagnosis of pSS was based on the AECC (American European Consensus Criteria) of 2002. KCS control subjects were non-SS patients with symptoms of dry eye and Schirmer scores of or = 4 criteria was required to satisfy the respective classification criteria. The expert clinical opinion of pediatric rheumatologists was considered the gold standard for diagnosis. A total of 24/62 (39%) cases satisfied the AECG criteria; 47/62 (76%) satisfied the proposed pediatric criteria. Inclusion of recurrent parotitis increased the sensitivity of the pediatric clinical criteria. From the cases, 78/133 (59%) satisfied the pediatric oral symptom criteria; only 6/78 (8%) had xerostomia in the absence of recurrent parotitis. There was no reported case of recurrent conjunctivitis in the absence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca. We found 101/130 (78%) cases had at least one positive autoantibody test result [antinuclear antibodies (ANA), rheumatoid factor (RF), SSA, SSB]; 78/123 (63%) had autoantibodies to SSA or SSB.","To assess if smoking status at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent for rheumatoid arthritis (RA) reduces the likelihood of achieving at least a moderate response on the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) response criteria at 3-month assessment. All patients with RA treated with their first anti-TNF-alpha agent at the Department of Rheumatology, Derby Hospital NHS Trust between April 2001 and October 2008 were included in this retrospective case control study. Information about age, gender, disease duration, body mass index, smoking status (current smoker, ex-smoker, and nonsmoker), comorbidities, oral prednisolone use, and 28 joint 4 variables disease activity score (DAS28) at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent was recorded. Details of rheumatoid factor (RF) and past and present disease modifying antirheumatic drugs were recorded. A case control study was carried out to examine possible baseline predictors of treatment effects at the 3-month assessment. Results were available for 395 patients at 3-month assessment. According to the EULAR response criteria 42 patients failed to show at least a moderate response. After adjusting for confounders using multivariate analysis, current smoking at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent reduced the chance of achieving at least a moderate response on the EULAR response criteria when compared with nonsmokers (aOR [95% CI] 0.20 [0.05-0.83], P = 0.03).","Earlier studies have demonstrated that smoking and genetic risk factors interact in providing an increased risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Less is known on how smoking contributes to RA in the context of genetic variability, and what proportion of RA may be caused by smoking. To determine the association between the amount of smoking and risk of RA in the context of different HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE) alleles, and to estimate proportions of RA cases attributed to smoking. Setting and Participants Data from the Swedish Epidemiological Investigation of Rheumatoid Arthritis (EIRA) case-control study encompassing 1204 cases and 871 controls were analysed. Main Outcome Measure Estimated OR to develop RA and excess fraction of cases attributable to smoking according to the amount of smoking and genotype. Smoking was estimated to be responsible for 35% of anticitrullinated protein/peptide antibody (ACPA)-positive cases. For each HLA-DRB1 SE genotype, smoking was dose-dependently associated with an increased risk of ACPA-positive RA (p trend <0.001). In individuals carrying two copies of the HLA-DRB1 SE, 55% of ACPA-positive RA was attributable to smoking.","To determine the accuracy of salivary gland ultrasonography (SGUS) for diagnosing primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and to suggest modifications of the American-European Consensus Group (AECG) classification criteria. We conducted a cross-sectional study in a prospective cohort of patients with suspected primary SS that was established between 2006 and 2011. The echostructure of the bilateral parotid and submandibular glands was graded from 0 to 4, and the gland size was measured; blood flow to the parotid gland was assessed using Doppler waveform analysis. The reference standard was a clinical diagnosis of primary SS as determined by a group of experts blinded to the results of SGUS. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve analysis was performed to compare the diagnostic value of the 0-4-point echostructure grade for each of the 4 major salivary glands, the sum of the grades for the 4 glands, and the highest grade among the 4 glands. Of the 158 patients in the study, 78 had a diagnosis of primary SS according to the experts, including 61 patients (78.2%) who met the AECG criteria. Doppler waveform analysis and gland size measurement showed poor diagnostic performance. The results of ROC curve analysis showed that the highest grade among the 4 glands provided the best diagnostic value. The optimal grade cutoff was 2 (62.8% sensitivity and 95.0% specificity). A weighted score was constructed using scores for the 5 variables selected by logistic regression analysis, as follows: (salivary flow×1.5)+(Schirmer's test×1.5)+(salivary gland biopsy×3)+(SSA/SSB×4.5)+(SGUS×2). According to ROC curve analysis, a score of ≥5 of 12.5 had 85.7% sensitivity and 94.9% specificity, compared with 77.9% sensitivity and 98.7% specificity for the AECG criteria. The addition of SGUS to the AECG criteria increased sensitivity to 87.0% but did not change specificity.","Anti-SSA and -SSB antibodies are clinically important antinuclear antibodies in patients with systemic rheumatic diseases. We evaluated fluorescence characteristics and clinical significance of anti-SSA and -SSB and explored whether identification of these antibodies was necessary in clinical application. Of 4,978 consecutive samples, 259 showed anti-SSA or -SSB reactivity, clinical information of which were analyzed. Compared with SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ group, SSA+SSB+ group showed a lower proportion (0.5%) of negative specimens detected with antinuclear antibody assay and a higher proportion (53.5%) of specimens with high titer. Anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive samples presented various patterns. However, 64.6% of SSA+SSB+ samples presented speckled pattern, significantly higher than SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ samples. A total of 475 specimens containing anti-SSA or -SSB were obtained from 302 individuals. Clinical information was obtained for 259 of them, which were further analyzed. The prevalence of Sjögren syndrome (SS) was significantly higher, and that of other diseases was lower in SSA+SSB+ than in SSA+SSB- group. Of the 259 individuals, 71 anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive patients had blood drawn on 2 or more occasions over the 2-year study period. The number of tests per patient was 2.7 ± 1.1. In 7 of the 71 patients, anti-SSA was observed in some but not all samples, so was anti-SSB in 6.","Antibodies against type 3 muscarinic acetylcholine receptor (M3R) are involved in the pathogenesis of Sjögren's syndrome (SS), but the clinical value of them in SS patients has been controversial. The aims of this study were to: (1) establish an improved enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect IgA antibodies against M3R; (2) evaluate the value of IgA antibodies against the second extracellular loop of M3R205-220 (c2M3RP) in diagnosis of SS. To increase the ELISA sensitivity, c2M3RP was coupled to bovine serum albumin (BSA) by the glutaraldehyde method and a 96-well microplate was treated by ultraviolet rays before coated. Concentrations of anti-c2M3RP, anti-SSA, and anti-SSB were measured in the sera of 240 individuals: 91 patients with primary SS and 149 controls (16 secondary SS, 27 systemic lupus erythematosus, 40 rheumatoid arthritis and 66 healthy controls). Diagnostic properties of anti-c2M3RP were determined by receiver-operating characteristic curve analysis. The prevalence of serum IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies in patients with pSS (46%, 42/91) was significantly higher than that in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (19%, 5/27), in rheumatoid arthritis (15%, 6/40) and in healthy controls (5%, 3/66). However, there was no significant difference between the two SS groups (P = 0.727). The diagnostic performance of IgA anti-M3RP antibodies was similar to anti-SSA assay, but had 22% higher sensitivity than anti-SSB. By analyzing of IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies, combination of anti-SSA and anti-SSB resulted in increased sensitivity, whereas their specificity was not significantly changed.","Smoking contributes to progression of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Because smoking is also a risk factor for incident rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and psoriatic arthritis, our aim was to test whether smoking habits are associated with incident AS. Using data from the HUNT health study of the entire adult population of Nord-Trøndelag, Norway, participants in HUNT2 (1995-1997) and HUNT3 (2006-2008) were identified who reported a diagnosis of AS in HUNT3 but not in HUNT2 (n = 107). Incident AS cases were compared with AS-unaffected individuals (n = 35,278) in a case-control design. Participants with RA were excluded. Present smoking was significantly associated with incident self-reported AS in logistic regression adjusted for potential confounders (OR 1.99, 95% CI 1.28-3.11, p = 0.002). Previous smoking (OR 1.15, 95% CI 0.66-2.02, p = 0.62) or total pack-years at HUNT2 (OR 1.01, 95% CI 0.99-1.04, p = 0.21) were not significant. The association with present smoking remained significant in various sensitivity analyses: including only cases with high probability of true AS diagnosis (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.03-3.19, p = 0.04); including only cases with AS reported more than 3-5 years after HUNT2 (OR 2.34, 95% CI 1.09-5.03, p = 0.029), or including only participants genotyped for HLA-B27 (94 cases and 859 controls) adjusting for genotype (OR 1.79, 95% CI 1.04-2.85, p = 0.033). Hypertension was also significantly associated with incident AS (OR from 1.65 to 2.81).","In this study, we sought to address changes in blood lymphocyte subpopulations and labial salivary gland (LSG) inflammation after belimumab treatment in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and to identify predictors of response to treatment. Sequential blood lymphocyte subsets and LSG biopsies were analysed between week 0 (W0) and W28 in 15 patients with pSS treated with belimumab. Systemic response to treatment was defined as a decrease in the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index score of ≥3 points at W28. After belimumab, we observed a decrease in blood B lymphocytes primarily involving CD27-negative/immunoglobulin D-positive naïve B cells (p=0.008). Lymphocytic sialadenitis (focus score >1) that was present in 12 patients (80.0 %) before belimumab treatment became negative in 5 of them after treatment (p=0.03). The median (interquartile range) LSG B-cell/T-cell ratio decreased from 0.58 (0.5-0.67) to 0.50 (0.5-0.5) (p=0.06). B-cell activating factor (BAFF) staining was detected in 11 (78.6 %) of 14 patients before belimumab treatment compared with 7 (50.0 %) of 14 after belimumab therapy (p=0.10). The median percentage of BAFF-positive cells in foci significantly decreased from 27.5 % (10-40) to 5 % (0-20) (p=0.03). A systemic response was achieved in six patients (40 %). The only predictor of response was the presence of a low number of natural killer (NK) cells, both in blood (8.5 % [7-10] vs 11 % [9-21]; p=0.04) and in LSG (20.6/mm(3) [20.0-21.4] vs 30.0/mm(3) [25.0-100.0], p=0.003). Serum BAFF levels did not influence response to treatment.","The aim of this cross-sectional study was to investigate the relationship between minor salivary gland (MSG) flow rates and oral dryness degrees in patients with xerostomia induced by primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS), IgG4-related sialadenitis (IgG4-RS), radiation therapy-induced dry mouth (RTDM), or Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS). 160 patients with pSS, IgG4-RS, RTDM, or SJS and their age- and sex-matched healthy control subjects were enrolled. The whole saliva flow rates and MSG flow rates were measured in four locations, including the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal mucosae. The degree of oral dryness was assessed in patient groups using the summated xerostomia inventory (SXI). The flow rates of whole saliva and most MSGs in patient groups were significantly lower than the flow rates in healthy control groups (P<0.05). The mean relative percentage of decrease in saliva flow rates was smaller in MSGs than in whole saliva in patient groups (P<0.05), indicating that these disorders have less impact on MSGs. Among the four MSG locations (the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal), buccal glands showed the highest flow rates in patient groups (P<0.05). SXI scores were significantly higher in pSS and RTDM patients than in IgG4-RS and SJS patients (P<0.05). The degree of xerostomia varied among different patient groups (P<0.05) and there was no clear correlation between MSG flow rates and SXI scores (P>0.05).","yes. Tobacco exposure increases the risk factor for anti-CCP antibodies only in shared epitope positive patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The gene-environment interaction between smoking and shared epitope leading to autoantibodies is specific for rheumatoid arthritis and is not observed in undifferentiated arthritis.","To examine whether patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) can be distinguished based on the expression of human T cell lymphotrophic virus type I (HTLV-1) and, if so, whether the subgroups differ in their clinical features and serological measures. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and nested PCR were used to amplify viral DNA from peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in 53 patients with SS, using primers from the HTLV-1 pX, p19, pol, and tax regions. Minor salivary gland biopsy specimens from 33 patients with SS were examined for the presence of HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins immunohistochemically. The sociodemographic, glandular, and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings including autoantibodies, complement, and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. The HTLV-1 tax gene was detected in PBMC samples from 2 of 53 patients (3.8%), whereas the HTLV-1 pX, p19, and pol genes were not expressed. As well, 100% of PBMC samples from 4 family members of patients in whom the tax gene was detected also expressed the tax gene. Immunohistochemical staining for HTLV-1 p19 and tax was seen in 10 out of 33 (30.3%) patients with SS each. Overall, 14 (42.4%) patients expressed HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins, and they had lower rheumatoid factor and C3 levels (p = 0.015 and p = 0.005, respectively) and higher lymphocyte counts (p = 0.016). The prevalence of glandular and extraglandular manifestations did not differ between the HTLV-1-positive and negative patients.","yes. Smoking significantly decreased both biomarkers studied. Compared to girls, boys seem to have enhanced susceptibility for periodontitis as reflected in salivary MMP-8 values.","Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for the development of Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). In a previous study of gene expression in intraorbital fat, adipocyte-related immediate early genes (IEGs) were overexpressed in patients with GO compared to controls. We investigated whether IEGs are upregulated by smoking, and examined other pathways that may be affected by smoking. Gene expression in intraorbital fat was studied in smokers (n=8) and nonsmokers (n=8) with severe active GO, as well as in subcutaneous fat in thyroid-healthy smokers (n=5) and nonsmokers (n=5) using microarray and real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR). With microarray, eight IEGs were upregulated more than 1.5-fold in smokers compared to nonsmokers with GO. Five were chosen for confirmation and were also overexpressed with real-time PCR. Interleukin-1 beta/IL-1B/(2.3-fold) and interleukin-6/IL-6/(2.4-fold) were upregulated both with microarray and with real-time PCR in smokers with GO compared to nonsmokers. Major histocompatibility complex, class II, DR beta 1/HLA-DRB1/was upregulated with microarray (2.1-fold) and with borderline significance with real-time PCR. None of these genes were upregulated in smokers compared to nonsmokers in subcutaneous fat.","Previous findings in labial salivary glands (LSGs) from patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) suggest that increased activity and expression of matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9) and MMP-3 trigger the destruction of acinar structures in these glands. Tissue inhibitors of matrix metalloproteinases (TIMPs) tightly control MMP activity, and TIMP expression is an important modulator of effects attributed to MMPs. This study was undertaken to investigate the correlation between the balance of MMPs/TIMPs in the LSGs of SS patients and the degree of inflammatory infiltration and acinar structure integrity. Three groups of SS patients classified according to focus score and residual tissue were studied. The expression of MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-9, TIMP-1, and TIMP-2 was examined at the messenger RNA and protein levels. The ratio of MMP/TIMP expression (R value) was calculated. Focus score and acinar structure were evaluated by histologic analysis. In SS patients the MMP-3/TIMP-1 ratio was higher than 1 and the MMP-9/TIMP-1 ratio was much higher than 1 whereas the MMP-2/TIMP-2 ratio nearly equaled 1, suggesting elevated proteolytic activity due mainly to MMP-9. R values were independent of the focus score of inflammatory cells, but correlated well with the dramatic changes observed in morphologic integrity of acini, as revealed mainly by the lack of nuclear polarity. Acinar changes were more evident when R values for both MMP-9/TIMP-1 and MMP-3/TIMP-1 were higher.","To review the clinical, radiologic, serologic, histopathologic, immunohistochemical, and molecular genetic features of patients having Sjögren's syndrome (SS) with lacrimal gland enlargement. Retrospective case series review. Fourteen patients histopathologically diagnosed with SS with lacrimal enlargement. Twenty-three age- and gender-matched controls were used for comparison on radiologic analysis. Clinical and serologic data were determined directly or by chart review. Computed tomography images from patients were compared with those from the control group. Histopathologic sections were reviewed and graded using the Chisholm-Mason scale, and quantitative immunohistochemical analysis was applied. Clinically, patients were assessed for age, gender, onset, symptoms and signs, systemic features, treatment, and outcome. Existing histologic specimens were reviewed according to the Chisholm-Mason scale, and then the percentages of plasma cells containing immunoglobulin (Ig) A, IgG, and IgM were determined. Imaging was assessed for lacrimal gland thickness, prolapse, density, and margin contour; extraocular muscle size; orbital tissue displacement; and proptosis. Clinical and histopathological data fulfilled the revised American-European criteria for primary SS in 79% of patients. Compared with other large series of primary SS patients, similarities were found with age, xerophthalmia, parotidomegaly, and articular involvement. Differences included a lower incidence of autoantibodies, xerostomia, and extraglandular features and a higher male-to-female ratio. In almost all patients (93%), the percentage of plasma cells positive for IgA was less than 70%, consistent with SS. Compared with controls, the lacrimal glands were enlarged significantly (P<0.0001) and prolapsed (P<0.001). Involved glands had blurred margins (P<0.007), caused displacement of adjacent tissues (P = 0.03), and were associated with hyperdense fat (P = 0.007). Lymphocytic infiltration of orbital fat was present in all patients for whom fat biopsy results were available. Three patients had monoclonal infiltrates, and 1 patient experienced subsequent extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type, 4 years after presentation.","Sjögren's Syndrome (SS) is considered a multisystemic chronic disorder, which is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands and autoantibodies production.AIM: Several studies have demonstrated increased incidence of Lymphoma in SS patients. Our study tries to determine this relation. Transversal cohort. Patients with Sicca's Syndrome from the Stomathology service, Santa Casa de Misericórdia Hospital, in Sao Paulo, ENT Department, from July 1999 to April 2002. Out of 39 patients, 24 were diagnose as SS. Ages ranged from 19 to 83 years old, with predominance of women (69.7%). Time between the first symptoms and SS diagnosis were variable, ranging within 3.77 years. None of the analyzed patients developed lymphoma.","Our recent studies suggest, that elevated calcium concentration of saliva is characteristic of periodontitis. In this study we analyzed the effect of smoking on salivary calcium and bone density by comparing the level of salivary calcium and the ultrasound scale of bone density of heavy smokers to those of non-smokers. Salivary samples were collected from 603 women (50-62 years) participating in a pre-screen referral program for osteoporosis. Out of this group a total of 577 were accepted for the present study. General health, medications and tobacco smoking were recorded. The group included 487 non-smokers, 37 moderate smokers (1-10 cigarettes per day) and 53 heavy smokers (>10 cigarettes per day). Bone density was measured at the right heel by the quantitative ultrasound technique. Calcium and phosphate concentrations of saliva were measured and expressed as microg/ml of saliva. The ultrasonographic variables of the heel, broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA), speed of sound (SOS) and T-score (a standard deviation unit from mean values of healthy young adults) of heavy smokers were significantly lower than those of women who did not smoke (P = 0.007, 0.014 and 0.011, respectively). Salivary calcium concentration of heavy smokers 70.5 (14.6) microg/ml was higher than that of non-smokers 64.0 (14.1) microg/ml (P = 0.001). There were no significant differences in salivary phosphate level or in the salivary flow rate between heavy smokers and non-smokers.","yes. Our findings clearly demonstrate changes in the levels of IκBα in SS monocytes, suggesting that the attenuated expression of IκBα could contribute to the deregulation of NF-κB pathways in the SS pathogenesis. Decreased expression of IκBα may specifically amplify cytokines production and inflammatory response linked to Sjögren's syndrome.","The aim of the present study was to evaluate serum soluble interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (sIL-1RA) concentration and its relationship with the degree of cigarette smoking in patients with Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). Twenty-two consecutive GO patients (20 women, two men; age range 25-68 years, mean 48 years; 12 smokers, 10 non-smokers) submitted to IV glucocorticoid pulses over a 3-month period. sIL-1RA levels were measured by an immunoenzymatic assay (sensitivity, 4 ng/l; normal range, 50-290 ng/l) before glucocorticoid treatment, after two months of therapy, and 3 months after drug withdrawal. Thirteen patients responded to treatment (59%; five smokers and eight non-smokers), nine were non-responders (41%; seven smokers and two non-smokers). Baseline median sIL-1RA concentration did not differ in smokers and non-smokers (222 and 173 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.69). Likewise, no significant differences were found between the two groups during treatment (537 and 389 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.28); sIL-1RA concentration after treatment was higher in smokers (258 vs. 94 ng/l; P = 0.02). There was no correlation between basal sIL-1RA levels and the degree of cigarette smoking. Likewise, there was no difference in sIL-1RA levels in responders and non-responders, either at baseline (186 vs. 216 ng/l; P = 0.83), during or after treatment.","Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an autoimmune chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the salivary and lacrimal glands. The aim of this study was to explore immunophenotypic features of chronic inflammatory reactions in the minor salivary glands in patients with primary SS (pSS). Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded labial minor salivary gland tissue sections from randomly selected patients with pSS (n = 60) were investigated for the expression of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD by immunohistochemistry. Based on the distribution and staining pattern of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD in lymphoid aggregates, several stages of chronic inflammatory reactions were observed. In 12/60 (20%) patients, lymphoid infiltrates with germinal centre (GC)-like features such as extensive networks of CD21-, CD23- and CD35-positive cells were observed in the minor salivary gland tissue. Smaller networks and /or focal infiltrates with scattered CD21(+), CD23(+) and CD35(+) cells were observed in the remaining 48/60 (80 %) cases. When dividing patients according to the presence (GC+) or the absence (GC-) of GC in the minor salivary glands, the mean focus score was significantly higher in the GC+ patients (P < 0.05). Double staining of the minor salivary glands revealed focal infiltrates with follicular dentritic cell networks and B cells resembling normal GCs in tonsillar tissue.","To determine whether the Sjögren's syndrome B (SSB)-positive/Sjögren's syndrome A (SSA)-negative antibody profile is associated with key phenotypic features of SS. Among registrants in the Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) with possible or established SS, we compared anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profiles against concurrent phenotypic features. We fitted logistic regression models to explore the association between anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profile and each key SS phenotypic feature, controlling for potential confounders. Among 3297 participants, 2061 (63%) had negative anti-SSA/anti-SSB, 1162 (35%) had anti-SSA with or without anti-SSB, and 74 (2%) anti-SSB alone. Key SS phenotypic features were more prevalent and had measures indicative of greater disease activity in those participants with anti-SSA, either alone or with anti-SSB, than in those with anti-SSB alone or negative SSA/SSB serology. These between-group differences were highly significant and not explained by confounding by age, race/ethnicity or gender. Participants with anti-SSB alone were comparable to those with negative SSA/SSB serology in their association with these key phenotypic features. Among SICCA participants classified with SS on the basis of the American-European Consensus Group or American College of Rheumatology criteria, only 2% required the anti-SSB-alone test result to meet these criteria.","Primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) is an autoimmune disease in which the concentration of the acute-phase protein serum C-reactive protein (CRP) is low. We investigated whether levels of another acute-phase protein, serum amyloid A (SAA), are increased in patients with pSS and whether the immunological markers in patients with pSS are associated with variation in SAA levels. Serum SAA concentrations were measured by ELISA in 74 patients with pSS and in 56 control subjects with sicca symptoms. Median SAA levels did not differ significantly between patients with pSS and subjects with sicca symptoms. In patients with pSS SAA concentrations correlated significantly with age, leukocyte count, CRP, interleukin 6, and C4. Unlike CRP, there was a significant inverse correlation between SAA and serum IgG levels and anti-SSA antibody titers, as well as a trend towards an inverse correlation between SAA and antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor titers.","To examine a large well characterized cohort of patients with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) and determine longitudinally the prevalence of clinical and serologic features of Sjogren's syndrome in these patients. Patients were followed longitudinally up to 30 years with systematic clinical and serologic analysis. Sera were analyzed for reactivity with SSA/Ro, SSB/La, and snRNP polypeptide U1-70kD and for anticardiolipin antibodies. Among a well characterized patient population with MCTD, 18/55 (32.7%) had antibodies to SSA/Ro, while 2/55 (3.6%) had antibodies to SSB/La, either initially or during the course of followup. All patients had antibodies to U1-70kD small nuclear ribonucleoprotein antigen. Sicca symptoms were common, occurring in 23/55 (41.8%) patients. Patients with MCTD who were anti-SSA/Ro positive had increased incidence of malar rash (p < 0.03) and photosensitivity (p < 0.001) compared to anti-SSA/Ro negative patients.","To assess the effect of rituximab (anti-CD20 antibody) therapy on the (immuno)histopathology of parotid tissue in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and the correlation of histologic findings with the flow rate and composition of parotid saliva. In a phase II study, an incisional parotid biopsy specimen was obtained from 5 patients with primary SS before and 12 weeks after rituximab treatment (4 infusions of 375 mg/m(2)). The relative amount of parotid parenchyma, lymphocytic infiltrate, and fat, and the presence/quantity of germinal centers and lymphoepithelial duct lesions were evaluated. Immunohistochemical characterization was performed to analyze the B:T cell ratio of the lymphocytic infiltrate (CD20, CD79a, CD3) and cellular proliferation in the acinar parenchyma (by double immunohistologic labeling for cytokeratin 14 and Ki-67). Histologic data were assessed for correlations with the parotid flow rate and saliva composition. Four patients showed an increased salivary flow rate and normalization of the initially increased salivary sodium concentration. Following rituximab treatment, the lymphocytic infiltrate was reduced, with a decreased B:T cell ratio and (partial) disappearance of germinal centers. The amount and extent of lymphoepithelial lesions decreased in 3 patients and was completely absent in 2 patients. The initially increased proliferation of acinar parenchyma in response to inflammation was reduced in all patients.","yes. Local suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands could retard the development of Sjögren's syndrome in NOD mice. IL-21 might contribute to the development of B-cell disorder in Sjögren's syndrome via Tfh cells pathway.","Oral cancer may be preceded by potentially malignant lesions, and smoking is a risk factor. Oral leukoplakia (OL), which is the most common among these lesions, is defined by the World Health Organization as \"a white plaque of questionable risk having excluded known diseases or disorders that carry no increased risk for cancer.\" Thus, OL is a clinical diagnosis used to designate oral white lesions, which are histologically represented by hyperkeratosis associated or not associated with epithelial dysplasia. It is known that c-Jun and pc-Jun have a role in cell proliferation and that p27 is decreased during carcinogenesis; thus, the aim of this study was to investigate whether these proteins are differently expressed in OL in smokers and never-smokers. Seventy-three cases diagnosed as OL were selected and divided into four groups according to the presence or absence of dysplasia and patients' smoking status (smokers: 39 cases, 24 dysplastic; never-smokers: 34 cases, 20 dysplastic). The immunoexpressions of c-Jun, pc-Jun, and p27 were evaluated. A significant correlation between smoking condition and the percentages of c-Jun (P = .0356) and pc-Jun (P = .0216) was found and was more intense in cases that underwent malignant transformation (6/47).","To examine whether smoking is a risk factor for rheumatoid nodules in early rheumatoid arthritis, and if so to determine the quantitative effect of smoking. From a cohort (n = 1589) in a structured programme for follow up of newly diagnosed cases of rheumatoid arthritis (symptoms of swollen joints < or =12 months), 112 individuals with rheumatoid nodules at inclusion were identified. Nodular patients were each compared with two age and sex matched controls without nodules from the same cohort. A detailed self administered tobacco use questionnaire was answered by 210 patients (63%). Seventy patients were current smokers, 71 former smokers, and 69 had never smoked. Current smoking and former smoking were more common in patients with rheumatoid nodules compared with controls (86% v 59%) in both sexes. Positive rheumatoid factor (RF) was found more often among cases with nodules than controls (78% v 64%). Using detailed information from the questionnaires with conditional logistic regression analyses, ever having smoked was associated with an increased risk of the presence of rheumatoid nodules (odds ratio (OR) = 7.3 (95% confidence interval, 2.3 to 23.6); p = 0.001). The risk of having nodules was not obviously dose dependent when smoking duration as well as smoking amount were examined. A stratified analysis showed that only RF positive smokers had an increased risk of rheumatoid nodules. Smoking was associated with rheumatoid nodules among both men (p = 0.006) and women (p = 0.001). Tobacco use other than smoking (n = 31) was not associated with an increased risk of nodules (OR = 0.8 (0.2 to 3.4); p = 0.813).","Eleven patients with ACA-positive and 71 patients ACA-negative SS were examined. All patients had minor salivary gland biopsy; sociodemographic data, glandular and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings, including autoantibodies, complement and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. European League Against Rheumatism SS disease activity index (ESSDAI) and SS disease damage index (SSDDI) were also measured. The prevalence of ACA among SS patients was 13.4%. ACA-positive SS patients had a higher prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly and autoimmune thyroiditis and a lower prevalence of anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies compared to ACA-negative patients. Disease activity was higher in ACA-positive patients than in ACA-negative patients, but the damage index did not differ between the two groups. None of the patients who originally had ACA evolved to having full-blown systemic sclerosis.","Smoking increases the risk for periodontal disease and reduces the healing response. We examined the antimicrobial and clinical effects of scaling and root planing (SRP) with and without minocycline HCl 1 mg microspheres (MM) relative to smoking status in subjects with periodontitis. A total of 127 subjects (46 never smokers, 44 former smokers, and 37 current smokers) with moderate to advanced periodontitis were randomized to receive MM + SRP (N = 62) or SRP alone (N = 65). Subgingival plaque samples collected at baseline and day 30 were examined for the presence of 40 periodontal bacteria by DNA probe analysis. MM + SRP reduced red-complex bacteria (RCB) numbers and proportions to a greater extent than SRP alone, irrespective of smoking status. RCB numbers were not reduced by SRP in current smokers. The difference in the reduction in numbers of RCB by SRP relative to MM + SRP in current smokers was statistically significant (P <0.05). Numbers and proportions of orange complex bacteria (OCB) were reduced in all groups treated with MM + SRP. Proportions of OCB increased in current smokers treated with SRP alone. In current smokers, MM + SRP significantly reduced probing depth (PD), increased clinical attachment level (CAL), and reduced bleeding on probing (BOP) to a greater extent than SRP alone (P <0.05).","yes. Within the limits of this study, it may be suggested that suppression of salivary osteocalcin level by smoking may at least partly explain the deleterious effects of smoking on periodontal status.","Increased levels of B lymphocyte stimulator (BLyS) have been detected in serum from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. To determine the level of BLyS in serum from patients with primary's Sjögren's syndrome (SS), another autoimmune disease in which B cell activation is high. Serum samples from 49 patients with primary SS according to the revised European criteria were assayed for BLyS, quantitative immunoglobulins, and autoantibody levels and compared with samples from 47 healthy control subjects. The median level of BLyS was 5.99 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 3.20-8.93 ng/ml) in SS v 2.49 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 1.96-2.96 ng/ml) in healthy controls (p<0.001). More importantly, among patients with SS, the presence of anti-SSA antibodies was associated with significantly higher levels of BLyS (medians 7.90 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.008) as was the presence of anti-SSB antibodies (medians 7.14 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.02) and of rheumatoid factor (medians 7.70 ng/ml v 3.80 ng/ml; p=0.016). The level of BLyS in three patients with a monoclonal gammopathy was higher than in the other patients (medians 26.53 ng/ml v 5.92 ng/ml; p=0.13). Higher levels of BLyS were associated with higher levels of gammaglobulins and IgG. There was a strong correlation between BLyS and rheumatoid factor level (r=0.71, p<0.0001), anti-SSA IgG level (r=0.32, p=0.02) and anti-SSA IgM level (r=0.39, p=0.006).","yes. Our study reveals that active tobacco smoking is associated with increases in markers of systemic inflammation in patients with CRS. The proinflammatory effect of smoking seems not only to act locally on sinus mucosa as previously described, but may also influence levels of inflammatory biomarkers systemically, suggesting that smoking-induced changes have profound implications for health. Nevertheless, these changes may be potentially reversible; thus smoking cessation in CRS patients is strongly advised, and may have an impact on response of CRS to therapy.","no. Unlike its role in rheumatoid arthritis, smoking does not confer a risk for development of SSc, although it may impact disease severity.","We evaluated the clinical relevance and pathogenic significance of anti-salivary duct autoantibodies (ASDA) in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) by examining (1) their frequency in healthy controls, patients with sicca symptoms, and patients with various autoimmune and infective disorders; (2) their localization by confocal microscopy; and (3) their tissue distribution and cross reactivity with blood group antigens. Indirect immunofluorescence (IF) was performed on commercial cryostat sections of monkey parotid salivary gland. Sections were examined by fluorescence and confocal laser scanning microscopy. Sera giving positive staining on the ducts were tested by IF on a range of monkey tissues and salivary glands from several mammalian species. Blocking experiments were performed with human erythrocytes of different ABO blood groups and AB antigens. We identified 2 distinct ductal staining patterns. The first resembled ASDA described in earlier studies and showed patchy bright staining of the apical (luminal) surfaces of the ducts and staining of apical cytoplasmic vesicles. The other was only observed with anti-mitochondrial antibody positive sera and stained the mitochondrial-rich ductal epithelium in a distinctive punctate pattern. Antibodies staining the apical surface of ducts were detected rarely in patients with antiRo/La autoantibody-positive primary SS (1/76) and RA (1/36) and were found in only 1115 with RA and secondary SS. ASDA were detected in sera from 13/51 (25.5%) of patients referred to our clinic with limited sicca symptoms who were anti-Ro/La antibody-negative and had no typical clinical or laboratory features of classical primary SS. The apical ductal staining pattern was not observed with sera from 63 healthy controls without sicca symptoms or in patients with autoimmune and infective disorders. Twelve of the 13 patients whose sera gave ASDA-like staining were blood group O and one group A. Ductal staining was abolished in all sera after absorption with blood group AB erythrocytes or AB antigen. In 5 patients ductal staining was removed by absorption with B erythrocytes but not with A erythrocytes; in the remainder ductal reactivity was abolished by both A and B erythrocytes.","To identify a screening strategy for dry eye patients with a high likelihood of having Sjogren syndrome (SS) through the evaluation of the association of ocular surface tests with the extraocular signs used for the diagnosis of SS. Multicenter cross-sectional study. The Sjogren's International Clinical Collaborative Alliance (SICCA) registry enrolled 3514 participants with SS or possible SS from 9 international academic sites. Ocular surface evaluation included Schirmer I testing, tear breakup time (TBUT), and staining of the cornea (0-6 points) and conjunctiva (0-6 points). Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify predictive factors for (1) histopathologic changes on labial salivary gland (LSG) biopsies (positive = focus score of ≥1 focus/4 mm The adjusted odds of having a positive LSG biopsy were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.26, 95% CI 1.05-1.51, P = .014) and positive conjunctival staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.46; 95% CI 1.39-1.53, P < .001) or corneal staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.14; 95% CI 1.08-1.21, P < .001). The odds of having a positive serology were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.3; 95% CI 1.09-1.54, P = .004) and conjunctival staining (adjusted OR = 1.51; 95% CI 1.43-1.58, P < .001).","Sjögren's syndrome (SS) may occur in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). We sought to determine whether the presence of SS in a large cohort of patients with SLE defines a subset with distinctive sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. The Johns Hopkins Lupus Cohort was divided into 2 groups, based on the presence or absence of SS, defined by the presence of an objective measure of sicca or an abnormal minor salivary gland biopsy in a patient with sicca symptoms. These groups were compared with regard to sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. Multivariable logistic regression was then performed to adjust the findings for potential sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory confounders. The 259 patients with SS (14% of the cohort), when compared with the 1531 patients without SS, were older at the time of SLE diagnosis and were more commonly women and white. Photosensitivity, oral ulcers, Raynaud's phenomenon, anti-Ro antibodies, and anti-La antibodies had a significant positive association while renal disease, anti-ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibodies, and anti-dsDNA antibodies had a negative association with the presence of SS after adjustment for age (at last cohort visit), gender, ethnicity, and anti-Ro antibodies. The older age at diagnosis of SLE among the patients with SS did not remain a significant finding after adjustment for the age of the patient at last cohort visit.","To evaluate the effects of cigarette smoke (CS)-exposed saliva on cellular and antibody responses in an animal model. The stimulatory and non-stimulatory saliva samples were collected from 10 healthy subjects and were then exposed to CS for 20 or 80 minutes. The CS-exposed saliva samples were administrated intraperitoneally (i.p) to male Balb/c mice. Then the delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) and antibody responses to sheep red blood cell (SRBC) was assessed. Moreover, the total white blood cells (WBC) counts and the blood lymphocytes counts were determined. The mean of DTH responses of animal groups received 20 minutes or 80 minutes CS-exposed saliva samples was significantly lower than that observed in control group. Moreover, The mean titer of anti-SRBC antibody was significantly lower in animal groups who received 80 minutes CS-exposed stimulatory or non-stimulatory saliva as compared to control group (P < 0.04 and P < 0.002, respectively). The mean counts of blood lymphocytes in 80 minutes CS exposed-stimulatory saliva group was also significantly lower as compared to control group (P < 0.05).","There is evidence that interferon is involved in the pathogenesis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). The interferon-inducible IFI16 protein, normally expressed in cell nuclei, may be overexpressed, mislocalized in the cytoplasm and secreted in the extracellular milieu in several autoimmune disorders. This leads to tolerance breaking to this self-protein with consequent development of anti-IFI16 antibodies. The aim of this study was to identify the pathogenic and clinical significance of IFI16 and anti-IFI16 in pSS. IFI16 and anti-IFI16 were assessed in the serum of 67 pSS patients and over 100 healthy donors by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. IFI16 was also evaluated by immunohistochemistry in minor salivary glands of 15 pSS patients and 10 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any clinical, serological or histological features of pSS. pSS patients display higher serum levels of both IFI16 and anti-IFI16 compared to healthy donors. IFI16 concentration was directly correlated with disease duration and focus score and inversely correlated with age at diagnosis. Moreover, IFI16 positivity was associated with concurrent positivity for rheumatoid factor. Interestingly, the direct correlation between IFI16 positivity and focus score was independent of disease duration and age at diagnosis. pSS minor salivary glands display marked expression and cytoplasmic mislocalization of IFI16 by acinar and ductal epithelial cells as well as infiltrating lymphocytes and peri/intralesional endothelium compared to minor salivary glands with normal architecture or nonspecific chronic sialadenitis. Within the mononuclear cell infiltrate, IFI16 expression appears to parallel the distribution of T lymphocytes.","To investigate the relationship between serologic markers and dry eye severity in subjects with primary Sjögren syndrome (SS). This study evaluated 64 patients diagnosed with primary SS according to the 2012 Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) classification criteria. Serum anti-Ro/SSA, anti-La/SSB, rheumatoid factor (RF), and antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels, Ocular Surface Disease Index (OSDI), Schirmer I test values, tear film breakup time, and SICCA ocular staining score (OSS) were determined. The conjunctival staining scores were 3.3 ± 1.9, 3.6 ± 2.0, 3.4 ± 1.9, and 3.5 ± 1.9 in the positive anti-Ro (≥25 EU), positive anti-La (≥25 EU), positive RF (≥20 IU/mL), and positive ANA (≥1:320) group, respectively. Subjects with positive anti-Ro, anti-La, RF, or ANA had significantly higher conjunctival staining scores compared with those with negative levels (P < 0.05). The total OSS in the positive ANA group was 5.5 ± 3.0, which was significantly higher than the total OSS (3.4 ± 2.1) in the negative ANA group (P = 0.005). Serum RF and ANA levels had strong correlations with conjunctival staining scores and the total OSS but not with corneal staining scores (r = 0.53, P < 0.001 and r = 0.382, P = 0.002). Other ocular parameters (OSDI, Schirmer I test values, and tear film breakup time) did not differ by the serologic marker level. Interestingly, the OSDI was positively correlated with the corneal staining score and total OSS (r = 0.646, P < 0.001 and r = 0.476, P < 0.001).","To assess the diagnostic value of parotid gland quantitative assessment using ultrasound (US) as well as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients with Sjogren's syndrome (SS) and to evaluate the possibility of using such modalities as a predictor of the histopathologic score of salivary gland biopsy in this group of patients. Sonographic and MRI studies were performed on the parotid glands of 47 patients diagnosed to have primary SS, 20 healthy control subjects of matched sex and age, and 20 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any evidence of SS. The patients and the control subjects were scored according to the structural changes seen in both radiologic modalities. In addition, sialography and labial gland biopsy were done for all patients as well as the control subjects and scored according to the degree of affection. Parenchymal inhomogenity (PIH) was seen in 93.6% of the patients studied by US, while nodular pattern was seen in 97.8% in the MRI study. The US and MRI results correlated significantly with the histopathologic score of the minor salivary glands (r = 0.82, 0.84, respectively) as well as sialography score (r = 0.69, 0.60, respectively). There was good agreement between US and MRI findings (r = 0.87) in both SS cases and control subjects.","To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with susceptibility to systemic sclerosis (SSc) in a large, well-defined patient population. We conducted a review of 1,379 patients with SSc enrolled in the Scleroderma Family Registry and DNA Repository and/or the Genetics versus Environment in Scleroderma Outcome Study cohort. Smoking history was obtained from chart review or via telephone interview. Patients with SSc were subsequently categorized as never smokers or ever smokers. Patients with SSc for whom smoking data were available were matched 2:1 by age, sex, ethnicity, and state of residence to control subjects, using the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System. The majority of patients were white (74.2%), with Hispanics and blacks representing 11.3% and 9.7%, respectively. Most patients had limited cutaneous involvement (54%). For our comparative analyses, 621 patients were matched with control subjects. There was no significant difference in age, sex, ethnicity, and SSc subtype between matched versus unmatched patients. The majority of patients had never smoked (57%), while 43% of patients were classified as ever smokers. The patients with SSc did not differ from control subjects in terms of their smoking behavior (odds ratio [OR] 1.020, 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0.839-1.240, P=0.842). Anti-topoisomerase I antibody-positive patients were more likely to be never smokers (OR 0.648, 95% CI 0.421-0.998, P=0.049), whereas no such association was observed with anticentromere and anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies.","To study signs of obstructive airway disease (OAD) in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) using the forced oscillation technique (FOT). Thirty-seven female pSS patients (median age 64, range 38-77 years) without previous physician-diagnosed OAD, participating in a longitudinal follow-up study of pulmonary function, and 74 female population-based controls (median age 64, range 47-77 years), also without physician-diagnosed OAD, and matched with regard to age, height, weight, and tobacco consumption, were included in the study. The pSS patients and controls were studied by the FOT, evaluating resistance and reactance of the respiratory system. pSS patients had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz, decreased reactance at 10-35 Hz, and an increased resonant frequency (Fres) in comparison with controls. Resistance was correlated negatively and reactance positively to the vital capacity (VC), the forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), and the diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Compared with controls, pSS patients with (n = 14) and without OAD (n = 21), as determined by spirometry, had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz and decreased reactances at 10-35 Hz. In never-smoking subjects, identical FOT signs were found.","Primary Sjögren's syndrome is an autoimmune disease typified by xerostomia (dry mouth) that, in turn, could lead to increased saliva surface tension (gamma) and increased upper airway collapsibility. Fatigue, of unknown etiology, is also frequently reported by patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Recent preliminary data indicate a high prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea in healthy-weight women with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Concurrent research highlights a significant role of gamma in the maintenance of upper airway patency. The aim of this study was to compare oral mucosal wetness, saliva gamma, and upper airway collapsibility during wake and sleep between women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and matched control subjects. Participants slept in a sound-insulated room with physiologic measurements controlled from an adjacent room. Eleven women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and 8 age- and body mass index-matched control women. Upper airway collapsibility index (minimum choanal-epiglottic pressure expressed as a percentage of delivered choanal pressure) was determined from brief negative-pressure pulses delivered to the upper airway during early inspiration in wakefulness and sleep. Patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome had significantly higher saliva gamma (\"pull-off\" force method) compared with control subjects (67.2 +/- 1.1 mN/m versus 63.2 +/- 1.7 mN/m, P < 0.05). Upper airway collapsibility index significantly increased from wake to sleep (Stage 2 and slow wave sleep) but was not different between groups during wake (primary Sjögren's syndrome versus controls; 36.3% +/- 8.0% vs 46.0 +/- 13.8%), stage 2 sleep (53.1% +/- 11.9% vs 63.4% +/- 7.2%), or slow-wave sleep (60.8% +/- 12.2% vs 60.5% +/- 9.3%).","This study was undertaken to determine whether induction of systemic inflammation accelerates the development of Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in genetically susceptible mice. Female (NZB x NZW)F1 mice were treated with either Freund's incomplete adjuvant (IFA) or phosphate buffered saline (PBS) at monthly intervals. Salivary gland function was monitored by measuring pilocarpine-induced saliva volume. Mice were killed at different time points and examined for sialadenitis and salivary gland-infiltrating cells. Sera were analyzed for autoantibodies to salivary gland antigens, nuclear antigens, and Ro60. While IFA-treated mice had significantly decreased salivary secretion 7 weeks after the initial treatment, salivary secretion did not decrease in PBS-treated controls until 17 weeks. At 7 weeks, the severity of sialadenitis and the number of T and B cells infiltrating the salivary glands did not differ between the 2 groups. However, at this time point IFA-treated mice showed significantly higher frequencies of CD11clow, B220+, Ly6C+, mouse PDCA-1+ dendritic cells (DCs) in the salivary glands. While levels of autoantibodies did not differ between the 2 groups at early time points, by late time points IFA-treated mice had higher levels. The gland dysfunction observed in IFA-treated mice at earlier time points did not correlate with the severity of sialadenitis or levels of autoantibodies. Instead, it was associated with increased frequency of plasmacytoid DCs in the gland.","To clarify the clinicopathological characteristics of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with anti-centromere antibody (ACA). Characteristics of 14 patients of pSS with ACA were evaluated. All patients were anti-SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La antibodies negative (ACA+ group) without sclerodactyly. The prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon (RP), titer of IgG and focus score (FS) in the minor salivary glands (MSGs) were determined. Quantification analysis of Azan Mallory staining was performed to detect collagenous fiber. Forty eight patients in whom ACA was absent were chosen as the conventional (ACA-) pSS group. Prevalence of ACA+ SS patients was 14 out of 129 (10.85%) pSS patients. RP was observed in 61.5% of the patients with ACA. The level of IgG in the ACA+ group was significantly lower than that of the ACA- group (p = 0.018). Statistical difference was also found in the FS of MSGs from the ACA+ group (1.4 +/- 1.0) as compared with the ACA- group (2.3 +/- 1.6) (p = 0.035). In contrast, the amount of fibrous tissue was much higher in the ACA+ group (65052.2 +/- 14520.6 microm(2) versus 26251.3 +/- 14249.8 microm(2)) (p = 1.3 x 10(-12)).","It is relatively difficult in a community setting to perform salivary gland biopsy or reliable diagnostic tests for salivary gland involvement in a patient suspected to suffer from Sjögren's syndrome (SS). To investigate whether anti-Ro/La antibodies are a good substitute for salivary gland biopsy in community patients suspected to suffer from SS. Forty-one patients suspected as having SS due to dry eyes and mouth, articular complaints, and/or serological findings were examined for the presence of anti-Ro/La, and underwent minor salivary gland biopsy. Sixteen patients (39%) were classified as primary SS by the American-European Consensus Group criteria. Twelve subjects had anti-Ro/La antibodies and 11 subjects in this group had positive biopsy findings. Of 29 patients without anti-Ro/La antibodies, only four manifested positive biopsy findings. A significant association was found between the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies and positive salivary gland findings characteristic for SS (p<0.0001, Fisher's exact test).","yes. In our study, pathologic grading with a higher grade (grade IV) and the presence of SSA or a higher titer of ANA were significantly associated with the overexpression of TRAIL, MMP-3, or ICAM-1 in the salivary gland mononuclear cells in patients with SS.","Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an inflammatory autoimmune disease. We investigated important factors associated with the expression of inflammation-related molecules in minor salivary gland (MSG) mononuclear cells in patients with SS. Thirty-four patients with SS with a MSG biopsy grading of either grade III (10 patients) or grade IV (24 patients) were enrolled. The age, sex, autoantibodies, cell infiltration, and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), matrix metalloproteinase-3 (MMP-3), tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL), or CXCR3 expression were also analyzed. Ten of the 34 patients with SS were diagnosed with secondary SS; in these patients, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis was confirmed in 8 and systemic lupus erythematosus in 2. TRAIL and ICAM-1 were overexpressed in patients with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) > 1:160, compared to those with titer < 1:160 (45.1 +/- 4.4 vs 41.2 +/- 3.9, p = 0.021, and 15.2 +/- 5.7 vs 10.8 +/- 3.3, p = 0.018, respectively). Higher erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR; >OR= 20) was associated with higher TRAIL expression and CD20 cell infiltration in contrast to lower ESR (< 20; p < 0.05). ICAM-1, TRAIL, and MMP-3 were expressed more predominantly in anti-SSA-positive than in anti-SSA-negative patients with SS. There was a significant difference in CD20 cell infiltration and MMP-3 expression between primary SS and secondary SS. Biopsy of a grade IV showed a significantly increased expression of TRAIL (44.9 +/- 4.5 vs 40.8 +/- 3.6, p = 0.013) and MMP-3 (62.7 +/- 6.3 vs 54.4 +/- 7.3, p = 0.003) in mononuclear cells as compared to those of grade III.","The role of HTLV-I infection in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) remains unclear. In this study, we clinically compared radiographic imaging with histological cellular infiltration between HTLV-I-seropositive and HTLV-I-sero-negative SS. Sixty primary SS patients were divided into two age-matched groups based on the seropositivity of the anti-HTLV-I antibody. We evaluated the two groups through labial salivary gland biopsy-proven cellular infiltration and sialography-proven radiographic gland destruction. In these 60 pSS patients, the incidence of abnormalities as determined by salivary gland biopsy and sialography was 51.7% (31/60) and 76.7% (46/60), respectively. Although there was no difference in the prevalence of abnormal findings between salivary gland biopsy and sialography in the whole 60 patients, there were significantly fewer abnormalities determined by sialography in HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients in comparison with HTLV-I-seronegative SS patients. Also, these findings were strengthened by the results that none of HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients with focus score 0 had abnormal sialography findings.","yes. Sequential parotid biopsy specimens obtained from patients with primary SS before and after rituximab treatment demonstrated histopathologic evidence of reduced glandular inflammation and redifferentiation of lymphoepithelial duct lesions to regular striated ducts as a putative morphologic correlate of increased parotid flow and normalization of the salivary sodium content. These histopathologic findings in a few patients underline the efficacy of B cell depletion and indicate the potential for glandular restoration in SS.","These findings tend to support the suggestion that a patient suspected to suffer from SS in a community setting may be first tested for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies to confirm the diagnosis. Only those with a negative result for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies need to be referred for salivary gland biopsy.","The international classification criteria for Sjögren's syndrome necessitate the presence of either extractable nuclear antibody or a characteristic focal inflammatory infiltrate in a minor salivary gland. Thus, patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative will need to have a labial salivary gland biopsy, which is an invasive procedure associated with morbidity. The aim of this study was to evaluate the viability of ultrasound imaging of the major salivary glands as a predictor of the histology to explore whether ultrasound can help in stratifying Sjögren's patients and reduce the need for biopsy. The records of 85 patients suspected of having Sjögren's syndrome and who have had biopsy and ultrasound were analysed retrospectively. The histology and the ultrasound were reported by experts independently. The reporting was impartial as the examiners were blinded to the results of the other investigations and to the diagnosis. Out of the 85 patients, 34 had positive ultrasound, 29 of whom also had positive histology. Fifty-one patients had negative ultrasound, of whom 49 were also negative for histological features of Sjögren's syndrome. The results show that the ultrasound had a positive predictive value of 85% and a striking negative predicative value of 96% of the histology results. The overall concordance between the ultrasound and the histology was 91% (Kappa = 0.826).","yes. Quantitative immunohistologic criteria were shown to be much more sensitive and disease specific than the widely accepted grade IV lymphocytic adenitis criterion, which corresponds to a lymphocytic focus score greater than 1, and these criteria should be included in the international diagnostic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome.","The objective of this paper is to examine whether smoking is associated with autoantibody production in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients, unaffected first-degree relatives (FDR) of individuals with SLE--a group at increased risk of developing SLE--or unaffected, unrelated controls. Detailed demographic, environmental, clinical, and therapeutic information was collected by questionnaire on 1242 SLE patients, 981 FDRs, and 946 controls in the Lupus Family Registry and Repository; a blood sample was obtained. All sera were tested for multiple lupus autoantibodies by immunofluorescence and luminex bead-based assays. Generalized estimating equations, adjusting for age, gender, and ethnicity and accounting for correlation within families, were used to assess smoking status with the dichotomous outcome variables of positivity for SLE status, positivity of ANA by immunofluorescence (≥1:120), positivity for ≥1 autoantibody by the luminex assay, and positivity for each of the 11 autoantibodies. Current smoking was associated with being positive for ≥1 autoantibody (excluding ANA) (adjusted OR = 1.53, 95% CI 1.04-2.24) in our subjects with SLE. No association was observed in unaffected FDRs or healthy controls. Former smoking was associated with anti-Ro/SS-A60 in our unaffected FDRs. There was an increased association with anti-nRNP A seropositivity, as well as a decreased association with anti-nRNP 68 positivity, in current smokers in SLE subjects.","The aim of the present study was to evaluate the diagnostic value of quantitative immunohistologic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in labial salivary gland biopsies. Quantitative immunohistologic examination was performed on labial salivary gland biopsy samples from 80 healthy controls, 32 patients with primary SS, 14 patients with secondary SS, 5 with \"probable\" SS, 36 with keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) with a lymphocytic focus score less than 1 on the lip biopsy, and 18 with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) without clinical evidence of SS. This is the first study to show that immunohistologic criteria for SS, based on the percentages of IgA-containing and IgG-containing plasma cells, are able to 1) confirm the diagnosis of SS in labial salivary glands of KCS patients in the absence of grade IV lymphocytic adenitis; and 2) distinguish between a grade IV focal lymphocytic adenitis in the labial salivary glands of SS patients and of RA patients without SS.","Several histological scoring systems, including the focus score, performed in minor salivary glands (MSGs) by hematoxylin-eosin (H&E) staining, have been employed in clinical practice to assess the inflammatory infiltrate and provide the diagnosis of primary Sjo¨gren׳s syndrome (pSS). Aims of this study were to integrate different scoring systems and identify potential differences in the molecular profile of lymphoid cytokines related to germinal center (GC) formation and clinical subsets in pSS. Overall, 104 pSS patients and 40 subjects with sicca non-pSS were retrospectively evaluated. MSG biopsies were evaluated by H&E and immunofluorescence to assess histological pattern, Chisholm and Mason grading system, Tarpley score, a grading for the severity of inflammatory infiltrate, T-/B-cell segregation, and the presence of GC. MSGs from 50 pSS patients and 30 sicca non-pSS patients were processed by real-time PCR to assess LTα, LTβ, BAFF, CXCR4, CXCL12, CXCR5, CXCL13, CCR7, CCL19, and CCL21. GCs presence was associated with anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies, hypergammaglobulinemia, salivary gland swelling, higher Tarpley score and focus score, and extraglandular involvement but, at multivariate analysis, only extraglandular involvement was independently associated to GC. pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those with sicca symptoms. GC(+) pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those GC(-).","To evaluate how determination of antibodies against the Ro52 antigen influences the classification and clinical characterisation of patients with suspected primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). The cohort study included 187 patients who fulfilled at least four of the six 1993 SS classification criteria, including positive autoantibodies (antinuclear antibodies [ANA], rheumatoid factor [RF], anti-Ro/SSA and/or anti-La/SS-B antibodies) as mandatory criterium. Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were tested by qualitative ELISA using a commercial assay. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were detected by a semiquantitative ELISA. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were found in 70/187 (37%) patients. A significant percentage of patients with anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were negative for anti-Ro52 antibodies (22%), while 13 patients (12%) were negative for anti-Ro/SSA antibodies but positive for anti-Ro52 antibodies, meaning that they fulfilled the 2002 SS criteria while avoiding the need for a salivary biopsy. Higher mean titers of anti-Ro52 antibodies were associated with severe scintigraphic involvement, positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement, anaemia, leukopenia and RF. A statistical correlation was found between anti-Ro52 titers and age, gammaglobulin levels, RF titers and serum IgA and IgG. Patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA and anti-Ro52 antibodies had a higher frequency of positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement and positive RF, and higher levels of serum IgG and IgA levels in comparison with patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA but negative anti-Ro52 antibodies.","To identify serologic markers of salivary gland disease activity in 43 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Comparison of salivary gland biopsies (focus scores) and flow rates with serum concentrations of IgA and IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), total serum IgG, serum anti-SS-B/La antibodies, and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Serum anti-SS-B/La antibody levels correlated with focus scores (rs = 0.477, P < 0.0025). Serum IgA-RF concentrations correlated inversely with stimulated parotid gland salivary flow rates (rs = -0.394, P < 0.01).","Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.","This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea"],"string":"[\n \"Salivary ultrasonography (US) was evaluated as an alternative imaging modality to sialography for Sjögren's syndrome (SS). Parotid sialography and parotid and submandibular US were performed in 360 patients (188 with SS and 172 non-SS) who were suspected of SS and had fulfilled the American-European criteria (AEC) for SS or had received>or =3 of the objective examinations that were considered minimal requirements for classifying non-SS and had undergone both the imaging examinations. The glands were considered positive for SS if they exhibited peripheral sialoectatic changes on sialography and/or hypoechoic areas, echogenic streaks and/or irregular gland margins on US. The images obtained were independently rated as SS-positive or SS-negative by three radiologists in a blind fashion and the final decision was made by consensus. Interobserver and intermodality agreement was evaluated using kappa values for sialography and parotid and/or submandibular US. Average kappa values for the interobserver agreement were 0.81, 0.80 and 0.82 in sialography, parotid and submandibular US, respectively, indicating very good or good agreement. The kappa value for intermodality agreement between sialography and parotid US was 0.81 and between sialography and submandibular US was 0.76, indicating very good and good agreement, respectively. The diagnostic ability of parotid US was significantly lower than that of sialography (p<0.001, McNemar test). However, the diagnostic ability of submandibular US was comparable to that of sialography (p=0.153).\",\n \"To investigate whether hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) increase risk of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). We recruited 585 patients with cytological and/or pathologically confirmed PDAC in National Taiwan University Hospital from September 2000 to September 2013, and 1716 age-, sex-, and race-matched controls who received a screening program in a community located in Northern Taiwan. Blood samples were tested for the presence of HCV antibodies (anti-HCV), HBV surface antigen (HBsAg), antibodies against HBsAg (anti-HBs), and hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) in all cases and controls. The odds ratio (OR) of PDAC was estimated by logistic regression analysis with adjustment diabetes mellitus (DM) and smoking. HBsAg was positive in 73 cases (12.5%) and 213 controls (12.4%). Anti-HCV was positive in 22 cases (3.8%) and 45 controls (2.6%). Anti-HBs was positive in 338 cases (57.8%) and 1047 controls (61.0%). The estimated ORs of PDAC in multivariate analysis were as follows: DM, 2.08 (95%CI: 1.56-2.76, P < 0.001), smoking, 1.36 (95%CI: 1.02-1.80, P = 0.035), HBsAg(+)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(-), 0.89 (95%CI: 0.89-1.68, P = 0.219), HBsAg(-)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(+), 1.03 (95%CI: 0.84-1.25, P = 0.802).\",\n \"yes. There is a strong association between smoking and rheumatoid nodules in early seropositive rheumatoid arthritis.\",\n \"Sjögren's syndrome (SjS) is a systemic autoimmune disease characterized by decreased salivary and lacrimal gland secretions, resulting in severe dry mouth and dry eyes. Recent studies have suggested that TH17 cells and its signature cytokine IL-17 are involved in the underlying pathogenic mechanisms leading to destructive inflammation and autoimmunity. In the present study, we examined whether IL-27, a natural inhibitor of TH17 activity, could down-regulate or reverse SjS in C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice, a model of primary-SjS. Recombinant serotype 2 adeno-associated viral (AAV2) vectors expressing either IL-27 (rAAV2-IL27) or LacZ (rAAV2-LacZ) were injected into 6 or 14 week-old C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice. Changes in IL-27, IL-17, and IL-10 cytokine levels in peripheral blood were determined by ELISAs, while flow cytometry analyses were used to quantify cytokine-positive splenocytes. Histological assessment of salivary glands, anti-nuclear autoantibody (ANA) staining, and stimulated saliva flow rates were used to profile SjS disease severity. Mice systemically treated with intravenous rAAV2-IL27 injections at either 6 or 14 weeks of age exhibited long-term elevated levels of serum IL-27 with concomitantly reduced levels of IL-17 compared with sera from mice injected with rAAV2-LacZ or saline out to 20 weeks post-inoculation. Most importantly, disease profiles revealed that rAAV2-IL27 treatment had little effect on lymphocytic focus (LF) scores, but resulted in structural changes in LF, lower titers of ANAs with changes in staining patterns, and a less severe clinical disease as determined by saliva flow rates.\",\n \"In the era of early and widespread use of immunosuppressants and biologics, tobacco exposure is an independent predictor of need for maintenance treatment, specifically biologic therapy. The wider use of biologics and immunosuppressants could account for the existence of no major differences in disease behavior and complications between nonsmokers and current smokers.\",\n \"yes. Measuring serum levels of anti-SS-B/La and IgA-RF would be useful when monitoring salivary responses in therapeutic trials, especially in patients with minimal salivary function.\",\n \"To study systemic alterations of cytokine secreting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and their relation to common clinical and immunological manifestations of this disease. PBMC spontaneously secreting tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha), interleukin 1beta (IL1beta), and interleukin 6 (IL6) were assessed by enzyme linked immunospot (ELISPOT) analysis in a cohort of 31 patients with pSS fulfilling the modified European classification criteria. Nineteen healthy volunteers served as controls. ELISPOT results were correlated with glandular and extraglandular manifestations and autoantibody titres-that is, rheumatoid factor (RF) isotypes, anti-Ro/SS-A, anti-La/SS-B as determined by an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique. The number of TNFalpha and IL1beta secreting cells was significantly higher in patients with pSS than in controls. No differences were detected in the number of IL6 secreting PBMC. Patients with recurrent parotid swelling (RPS) had a significantly increased number of IL1beta secreting PBMC. Moreover, the number of IL1beta secreting PBMC correlated with the disease duration (r(s)=0.479; p<0.01) and with the concentration of IgM RF (r(s)=0.63; p<0.01) and IgG RF (r(s)=0.42; p<0.05). Other autoantibodies did not correlate with cytokine secreting PBMC.\",\n \"Ki67 and p53 protein expressions are the most widely used markers to show the pathologic proliferation and early-stage tumoral alterations in vital tissues. The aim of this study was to compare Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in smokers' and nonsmokers' pericoronal follicles of asymptomatic impacted lower third molars (ILTMs). A cross-sectional study was planned. The study sample was derived from a population of patients who presented for evaluation and operative treatment of asymptomatic ILTMs. The predictor variable was smoking status, defined as smoker or nonsmoker. Outcome variables were Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in ILTM follicles. Other study variables were age, gender, tooth position, cigarette pack-year, epithelial layer staining, and inflammation. Independent-samples t test analyses were conducted with SPSS 10.0 (SPSS, Inc, Chicago, IL), with statistical significance set at a P value equal to .05. The study sample was composed of 70 patients (35 in the smoker group) who contributed 60 follicles. There were statistical differences between the 2 groups for variables Ki67 and p53. Mean expression levels of Ki67 were 3.93 ± 2.17 and 2.48 ± 2.09, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .011). Mean expression levels of p53 were 5.32 ± 1.98 and 3.06 ± 2.34, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .000).\",\n \"yes. HLA class II markers confer genetic susceptibility to Sjögren's syndrome. The association between HLA and SS is restricted to patients with anti-SSA and/or anti-SSB antibodies; HLA is not associated with SS in patients without these autoantibodies. The absence of a difference in disease severity between groups 2 and 3, as well as the restricted association of HLA-DRB1*03 in group 3, strongly suggest that HLA alleles predispose to autoantibody secretion, without being associated with clinical outcome. HLA class II phenotype might support epitope spreading: HLA-DR15 favors anti-SSA synthesis, whereas HLA-DR3 is associated with both anti-SSA and anti-SSB production.\",\n \"Chronic infiltration of lymphocytes into the salivary and lacrimal glands of patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) leads to destruction of acinar cells and loss of exocrine function. Protein kinase C-delta (PKCδ) is known to play a critical role in B-cell maintenance. Mice in which the PKCδ gene has been disrupted have a loss of B-cell tolerance, multiple organ lymphocytic infiltration, and altered apoptosis. To determine whether PKCδ contributes to the pathogenesis of SS, we quantified changes in indicators of SS in PKCδ-/- mice as a function of age. Salivary gland histology, function, the presence of autoantibodies, and cytokine expression were examined. Submandibular glands were examined for the presence of lymphocytic infiltrates, and the type of infiltrating lymphocyte and cytokine deposition was evaluated by immunohistochemistry. Serum samples were tested by autoantibody screening, which was graded by its staining pattern and intensity. Salivary gland function was determined by saliva collection at various ages. PKCδ-/- mice have reduced salivary gland function, B220+ B-cell infiltration, anti-nuclear antibody production, and elevated IFN-γ in the salivary glands as compared to PKCδ+/+ littermates.\",\n \"To define parameters predictive of lymphoma development in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). A multicenter case-control survey was performed to identify predictors of lymphoma. Cases were patients who developed lymphoma after diagnosis of primary SS and were mainly recruited through the Club Rhumatismes et Inflammation network. For each case, 2 controls (matched for disease duration and age) were randomly selected among patients with primary SS and without lymphoma. Cases and controls were compared using univariate analysis and then using multivariate analysis to identify independent predictors of lymphoma. One hundred one patients with primary SS and lymphoma were included. Eighty-seven patients were women (86.1%), and the mean ± SD age at lymphoma diagnosis was 57.4 ± 12.6 years. The most frequent histologic type was B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) in 99 of 101 patients, with marginal-zone lymphoma in 76 of the 99 patients (76.8%) including 58 (58.6%) with lymphoma of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type. Lymphomas were most frequently located in the salivary glands (43 patients). A specific treatment was initiated at diagnosis in 87 patients with B cell NHL, and 61 patients (61.6%) achieved complete sustained remission after the first line of treatment. In the multivariate analysis, salivary gland enlargement, the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), low C4, cryoglobulinemia, lymphopenia, and disease activity according to the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index (excluding the lymphoma domain) were found to be predictors of lymphoma. No previous treatment for primary SS was associated with any effect on lymphoma occurrence.\",\n \"yes. The present study indicated that cigarette smoke could potentially modulate the expression of crucial molecules of NOD1 signal pathway and hBDs in human oral mucosal epithelium. NOD1 signal pathway could play an important role in the regulatory effects of CSE on hBDs levels in oral mucosal epithelial cells.\",\n \"This study examines: 1) alveolar bone loss (ABL), a hallmark of periodontitis, in anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA)-positive rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients versus control patients with osteoarthritis (OA); and 2) the association of ABL with RA disease activity and ACPA concentrations, including multiple antigen-specific ACPA. This multicenter case-control study includes 617 patients diagnosed with RA (n = 287) or OA (n = 330). Panoramic radiographs were taken; patients were categorized into low, moderate, or high tertiles based on mean percentage ABL. Serum ACPA was measured using second-generation anticyclic citrullinated peptide enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and a multiplex platform to assess distinct antigen-specific ACPA. A generalized linear mixed model for binary data was used to compare stratified ABL in RA versus OA patients. Associations of moderate and high ABL (versus low) with RA disease activity and severity measures were examined using multivariate regression. Antigen-specific ACPA responses were compared among ABL tertiles using significance analysis of microarrays. ACPA-positive patients with RA had a significantly higher mean percentage of sites with ABL >20% compared with patients with OA (P = 0.03). After multivariate adjustment, greater ABL was significantly associated with higher serum ACPA concentration (P = 0.004), 28-joint Disease Activity Score (P = 0.023), health assessment questionnaire disability (P = 0.05), tender joint count (P = 0.02) and joint space narrowing scores (P = 0.05) among patients with RA. ACPAs targeting citrullinated vimentin and histone were significantly higher in moderate and high ABL groups versus low, regardless of smoking status (q <0.1%).\",\n \"Congenital heart block occurring in the foetus and neonate may be associated with maternal anti-SS-A/anti-SS-B autoantibodies (anti-SSA/anti-SSB). The adult atrioventricular node is generally thought to be resistant to the damaging effects of anti-SSA/anti-SSB. However, case reports suggest that heart block developing in adult Sjögren's syndrome (SS) patients may be associated with these autoantibodies. Therefore, we investigated the relationship between serum antibodies and heart block in adult SS patients. We abstracted data from clinic patient records. Diagnosis of primary SS was based on American-European classification criteria. Electrocardiograms (EKGs), laboratory immunology parameters, lipid profiles, and focus scores from labial salivary gland biopsies were available for 51 SS patients. Fifteen patients had follow-up EKGs. PR interval200 ms was considered to be first-degree heart block. Five patients showed prolonged PR intervals; the presence of heart block was not related to the presence of anti-SSA antibodies. However, significant differences between patients with prolonged and normal PR intervals were seen for mean focus scores (p<0.0001), anti-cardiolipin immunoglobulin IgG (p = 0.0009), age (p = 0.01), IgG (p = 0.02), anti-SSB antibodies (p = 0.02), and high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels (p = 0.03). These parameters correlated with prolonged PR intervals.\",\n \"no. No clear association between smoking status and individual autoantibodies was detected in SLE patients, unaffected FDRs, nor healthy controls within this collection. The association of smoking with SLE may therefore manifest its risk through mechanisms outside of autoantibody production, at least for the specificities tested.\",\n \"To determine the association between risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and alcohol consumption in combination with smoking and HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE). Data from two independent case-control studies of RA, the Swedish EIRA (1204 cases and 871 controls) and the Danish CACORA (444 cases and 533 controls), were used to estimate ORs of developing RA for different amounts of alcohol consumed. Alcohol consumption was significantly more common in controls (p<0.05) and dose-dependently associated with reduced risk of RA (p for trend <0.001) in both studies. Among alcohol consumers, the quarter with the highest consumption had a decreased risk of RA of the order of 40-50% compared with the half with the lowest consumption (EIRA, OR = 0.5 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.6); CACORA, OR = 0.6 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.9)). For the subset of RA that is seropositive for antibodies to citrullinated peptide antigens, alcohol consumption reduced the risk most in smokers carrying HLA-DRB1 SE alleles.\",\n \"The lymphotoxin-beta receptor (LTbetaR) pathway is important in the development and maintenance of lymphoid structures. Blocking this pathway has proven beneficial in murine models of autoimmune diseases such as diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. The aim of this study was to determine the effects of LTbetaR pathway blockade on Sjögren syndrome (SS)-like salivary gland disease in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice. The course of SS-like disease was followed in NOD mice that were given lymphotoxin-beta receptor-immunoglobulin fusion protein (LTbetaR-Ig) starting at 9 weeks of age. Treatment was given as a single weekly dose for 3, 7, or 10 weeks. Age-matched NOD mice treated with mouse monoclonal IgG1, or not treated at all, were used as controls. The severity of inflammation, cellular composition, and lymphoid neogenesis in the submandibular glands were determined by immunohistochemistry. Mandibular lymph nodes were also studied. Saliva flow rates were measured, and saliva was analyzed by a multiplex cytokine assay. The salivary glands were analyzed for CXCL13, CCL19, and CCL21 gene expression by quantitative polymerase chain reaction. Treatment with LTbetaR-Ig prevented the increase in size and number of focal infiltrates normally observed in this SS-like disease. Compared with the controls, the submandibular glands of LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice had fewer and smaller T- and B-cell zones and fewer high endothelial venules per given salivary gland area. Follicular dendritic cell networks were lost in LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice. CCL19 expression was also dramatically inhibited in the salivary gland infiltrates. Draining lymph nodes showed more gradual changes after LTbetaR-Ig treatment. Saliva flow was partially restored in mice treated with 10 LTbetaR-Ig weekly injections, and the saliva cytokine profile of these mice resembled that of mice in the pre-disease state.\",\n \"Earlier studies have given conflicting results regarding the effect of exposure to tobacco smoke on atopic sensibilization. A cross-sectional study of present and former smoking habits in relation to atopic disorders from data on 6909 young and middle-aged adults (16-49 years) and their 4472 children (3-15 years) from the Swedish Survey of Living Conditions in 1996-97. The prevalence of allergic asthma and allergic rhino-conjunctivitis decreased, in a dose-response manner (P = 0.03 and P = 0.004, respectively), with increasing exposure to tobacco smoke in the adult study population. This pattern was little changed when potential confounders (sex, age, education, domicile, country of birth) were entered into a multivariate analysis: the adjusted odds ratio (OR) for allergic rhino-conjunctivitis was 0.5 (0.4-0.7) for those who smoked at least 20 cigarettes a day and OR 0.7 (0.6-0.9) for those smoking 10-19 cigarettes, compared with those who reported that they never had smoked Former smokers had a tendency for a slightly lower risk: OR 0.9 (0.8-1.0). In a multivariate analysis, children of mothers who smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day tended to have lower odds for suffering from allergic rhino-conjunctivitis, allergic asthma, atopic eczema and food allergy, compared to children of mothers who had never smoked (ORs 0.6-0.7). Children of fathers who had smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day had a similar tendency (ORs 0.7-0.9).\",\n \"To study the gene-environment interaction of tobacco exposure and shared epitope on autoantibodies in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and undifferentiated arthritis. From incident cases of arthritis (n = 1305), patients who did not fulfil any classification criteria (undifferentiated arthritis (n = 486)) and those who fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for rheumatoid arthritis (n = 407) were identified. IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-cyclic-citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies, and HLA-DRB1 alleles were determined. In rheumatoid arthritis, an interaction was found between tobacco exposure and shared epitope for the presence of anti-CCP antibodies, as the odds ratio for anti-CCP antibodies in patients having both tobacco exposure (TE) and shared epitope (SE) was higher than the summed odds ratios of patients having only tobacco exposure or shared epitope (odds ratios: TE+/SE-, 1.07; TE-/SE+, 2.49; and TE+/SE+, 5.27-all relative to TE-/SE-). A similar effect was found for RF, but stratification showed that the interaction primarily associated with the anti-CCP antibody response. In patients with undifferentiated arthritis at two weeks, or with persistent undifferentiated arthritis after one year, no interaction between tobacco exposure and shared epitope was observed for the presence of autoantibodies.\",\n \"Smoking influences oral health in several ways (such as the occurrence of periodontitis, teeth discolouration and oral cancer); therefore, smoking behaviour should be addressed in dental care. Dentists can play a role in primary and secondary prevention of tobacco dependence. They see their patients repeatedly over time. This study investigates whether oral health complaints can be seized as an opportunity to start smoking cessation counselling. A structured patient questionnaire in a sample of 1101 smokers (52.1% women, mean age 40.4 years) in a convenience sample of 87 primary care dental practices. The I-change model was used to describe factors influencing behavioural change. Dependent factors such as intention to quit smoking and related factors (attitude, social support and self-efficacy) were analysed in relation to independent factors such as oral health complaints (gingiva problems, gingiva inflammation, oral cancer and discoloured teeth) using a general linear model (univariate analysis), multinomial logistic regression analysis and multiple linear regression analysis. A total of 56.3% had discoloured teeth, 27% of the smokers had a problem with their gums and 15.7% had gingiva inflammation. We found no direct relation between oral health complaints and the intention to quit smoking. However, teeth discolouration was positively related to attitudes towards smoking cessation [β, Confidential interval (95%); 1.92 (1.45-2.40 for advantages and -0.86(-1.18 to -0.53) for disadvantages] and negatively to self-efficacy regarding quitting [-2.69 (-3.49 to 1.88)].\",\n \"The aim of this study was to verify the validity of IL-21 local suppression in submandibular glands of preventing the development of Sjögren's syndrome in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice and figure out the mechanism. IL-21 levels in submandibular glands were suppressed by ductal cannulation of IL-21 shRNA lentivirus. Then, saliva flow rates (SFR) and histopathologic changes of submandibular glands were measured to assess the severity of disease development. Real-time PCR, flow cytometry, and immunohistochemistry were used to detect the changes of T helper cells and related cytokines. The reduction in SFRs in NOD mice was significantly alleviated from 9 to 17 weeks of age along with the suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands. Lymphocytic infiltration was also milder than control NOD mice. Moreover, the lower level of IL-21 led to the down-regulation of follicular helper T (Tfh) cells.\",\n \"The most important risk factor linked to the development of oral leukoplakia (OL) and oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is tobacco use. Tobacco contains carcinogens that influence the DNA repair, cell cycle control and may produce chromosomal aberrations. The loss or acquisition of one or more chromosomes is defined as aneuploidy. Aneuploidy was determined by means of the DNA-content included in cells obtained by exfoliative cytology and Feulgen's staining. The cells were collected from the clinically healthy lateral margin of the tongue of non-smokers without oral lesions, smokers without oral lesions, smokers with OL, and smokers with OSCC, using the CytoBrush(®). Each group was composed of 20 individuals. A Carl Zeiss image analyzer system and the KS300 software were used. Statistical analysis was performed with BioEstat(®) software. The mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei was statistically higher in the smokers (79.65%), smokers with OL (68.4%), and smokers with OSCC (93.65%), as compared to non-smokers (39.3%) (P<0.05). A trend toward an increase in the aneuploidy of the smokers with OSCC group (P=0.02), as compared to the non-smoker group, could be observed. No significant difference could be observed as regards the mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei in relation to duration of tobacco use or the number of the cigarettes smoked.\",\n \"yes. In vivo transduction of the lacrimal gland with AdTNFRIp55-Ig resulted in transient expression in the gland and the appearance of TNF-inhibitor protein in tears. The presence of soluble TNF-inhibitor protein partially suppressed the appearance of Sjögren's syndrome-like features of reduced tear production and the immunohistopathology associated with induced autoimmune dacryoadenitis but not tear break-up time and ocular surface disease. This may reflect immunoregulation in the lacrimal gland but not in the conjunctiva.\",\n \"Minor salivary gland specimens were analyzed to investigate dysregulation of the proteasome system in patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and patients with sicca syndrome. Labial biopsy specimens from 17 patients with SS and 11 patients with non-autoimmunesicca syndrome were analyzed by immunohistochemistry for expression of the inducible proteasomal subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i. The infiltrating subsets of lymphocytes were characterized using immunofluorescence stainings against the cell-surface markers CD20 and CD27. Two-dimensional electrophoresis and immunoblotting were used for detection of the proteasomal subunits ss1 and ss1i in peripheral blood monocyte cells. Gene expression of the constitutive subunits ss1, ss2, and ss5 and the corresponding inducible subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i was further investigated at the mRNA level in small lip biopsies using real-time polymerase chain reaction. The expression of ss1i in infiltrating and peripheral immune cells was altered in patients with SS compared to patients with non-autoimmune sicca syndrome and healthy controls. No significant differences were found in ss2i and ss5i expression between the same groups in small lip biopsies. Chisholm-Mason grade and ss1i expression were found to be inversely correlated (Spearman r = -0.461, p = 0.014). The phenotype and distribution of the lymphocytic infiltrate showed no differences between patients with primary and secondary SS regardless of ss1i expression.\",\n \"Tobacco recently appeared as a major independent factor adversely influencing the natural course of alcoholic chronic pancreatitis. However, the role of tobacco in patients with autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) has never been studied. Type 2 AIP is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, especially ulcerative colitis in which smoking is protective. The aim of our study was to evaluate the influence of smoking on course of AIP. All consecutive patients followed in our centre for AIP according to ICDC were studied. Tobacco consumption was recorded. A relation between smoking and all event related to AIP was searched for. 96 patients with type 1 (73%) or type 2 (27%) AIP were included; 76% of patients were low smokers (never, ex- or smokers<10 p.y.) and 24% were high smokers (≥10 p.y.). The mean follow-up was 60 months [5-188]. AIP relapse was observed in 26% of patients. At the end-point, smokers ≥10 p.y. presented more frequently diabetes (50% vs 27%, p = 0.04) and imaging pancreatic damages (59% vs 34%, p = 0.02) than low smokers. There was also a non significant tendency to observe more frequently exocrine insufficiency and relapse in smokers ≥10 pack-year. No protective effect of smoking was observed in the subgroup of patients with type 2 AIP and ulcerative colitis.\",\n \"To compare quality of life (QoL), depression, anxiety, and fatigue in prospectively included patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) or with sicca but no diagnosis of Sjögren's syndrome. Patients undergoing a multidisciplinary evaluation at a single university center in Brest, France, for suspected pSS and having sicca symptoms were included prospectively between November 2006 and December 2013. The same standardized investigations were performed in all patients. pSS and sicca not due to pSS diagnoses were based on evaluating physician opinion. Each patient completed three validated questionnaires on QoL (SF-36), fatigue (MFI), depression and anxiety (HADS). Of the 95 included patients, 55 (57.9%) had pSS and 40 (42.1%) had sicca without pSS. Gender distribution, age, disease duration, and sicca symptoms were similar in the two groups. The pSS group had a significantly higher proportion of patients with abnormal objective tests for dryness (Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate). The SF-36, HADS, and MFI scores were similarly altered in the two groups. Anxiety was more common than depression in both groups. The most affected domains were vitality in the SF-36 and general/physical fatigue in the MFI. Extraglandular systemic involvement was not a major determinant of QoL alteration in patients with pSS.\",\n \"yes. These results may indicate that anti-TNF agents would have therapeutic efficacy for preventing destruction of the acinar structure in the salivary glands of patients with SS.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that smokers, and especially current smokers, exhibit significantly reduced BAL SP-D and phospholipids compared to nonsmokers. Our findings may help better explain the mechanism that leads to the rapid progression of disease and increased incidence of infection in smokers.\",\n \"yes. The results presented here suggest that expression of human beta-defensins hBD-1 and -2, and, thus, the basal levels of innate immune defense reactions in the oral cavity are reduced by smoking.\",\n \"To investigate the abnormalities of T regulatory cells (Treg) in salivary glands and peripheral blood in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells of the peripheral blood of 52 patients with pSS were measured by flow-cytometric assay. Lower lip salivary gland biopsies were examined by immunohistochemistry, using monoclonal mouse anti-human antibodies [CD25, CD4, CD8, CD68, forkhead transcription factor (Foxp3)] in 30 patients with pSS. Using real-time polymerase chain reaction, Foxp3 messenger RNA expression was assessed in the salivary glands and CD4+ T cells from peripheral blood. Many inflammatory cells, predominantly CD4+ and CD8+ T cells and macrophages, were found in salivary glands of patients with SS, but CD4+CD25+ Treg numbers and Foxp3 expression were markedly reduced in those biopsy samples. Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells and Foxp3 expression in peripheral blood of patients with pSS were significantly lower than in healthy controls. However, the inhibitory function of CD4+CD25+ T cells in pSS was unchanged compared to that of controls. Peripheral CD4+CD25+ high T cell numbers in pSS did not correlate with Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate, or with the presence or absence of anti-SSA/SSB antibodies and immunoglobulin level.\",\n \"The diagnosis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) rests on a converging set of clinical and laboratory findings. Salivary-gland ultrasonography (SGUS) was recently shown to assist in the diagnosis and therapeutic monitoring of pSS. Our objective here was to measure salivary-gland elasticity using Acoustic Radiation Force Impulse (ARFI) ultrasonography in patients with pSS and to compare the results to those obtained in healthy controls. SGUS with ARFI elastometry was performed in 10 patients with pSS and 15 healthy controls. Ten impulses per gland were used for both submandibular and both parotid glands of each participant. Mean shear wave velocity (SWV) in m/s was compared between the patients and controls using the Mann-Whitney U test. For the parotid glands, mean SWV was significantly higher in the pSS group than in the control group (2.335±0.315 vs 1.785±0.384, respectively; P=0.001). Mean SWV values for the submandibular glands were not significantly different between the patients and controls (1.812±0.308 vs 1.766±0.187, respectively; P=0.892).\",\n \"Sjögren's syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by progressive lymphocytic infiltration within the salivary and lacrimal glands. This study was undertaken to investigate the effects of innate immunity activation on sialoadenitis in a mouse strain genetically susceptible for development of SS-like disease. Female New Zealand Black X New Zealand White F1 mice were repeatedly treated with toll-like 3 receptor agonist poly(I:C). Submandibular glands were investigated at different time points for sialoadenitis by immunohistochemistry and for gene expression of different chemokines by quantitative PCR. Submandibular gland-infiltrating cells were characterized by flow cytometry. Poly(I:C) treatment significantly upregulated the expression of multiple chemokines within the submandibular glands. The severity and incidence of sialoadenitis was considerably higher in poly(I:C)-treated mice. There was a preponderance of dendritic cells and NK cells in the initial inflammatory cell infiltrates, and these were followed by CD4+ T cells.\",\n \"To assess the prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in patients with primary Sjögren syndrome (pSS) and to study the association of COPD with cigarette smoking, radiographic features, respiratory symptoms, disease activity, and laboratory inflammatory and serological features in patients with pSS. Fifty-one consecutive patients with pSS (mean age 60 yrs, range 29-82 yrs, 49 women) were assessed by pulmonary function tests (PFT). The PFT results were compared with previously studied population-based controls, standardizing results with regard to sex, age, height, weight, and cigarette smoking. In addition, patients with pSS were assessed by computed tomography of the chest, the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren Syndrome Disease Activity Index and Patient Reported Index, the St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (which evaluates respiratory symptoms), and by laboratory inflammatory and serological tests. Forty-one percent of all patients with pSS and 30% of the never-smoking patients with pSS fulfilled the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease criteria for COPD. Vital capacity (VC), forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), FEV1/VC ratio, and DLCO were significantly decreased while residual volume (RV) and the RV/total lung capacity ratio were significantly increased in patients with pSS. Moderate correlations between PFT results, symptoms, and disease activity were found. However, laboratory inflammatory and serological features were poorly associated with PFT results in patients with pSS.\",\n \"To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with clinical expression, disease activity and severity in a cohort of Greek patients with early rheumatoid arthritis (RA). From January 1993 until December 2002, 293 patients with early RA were diagnosed and followed up in our rheumatology clinic. All patients fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for RA, had disease duration of less than one year, without prior treatment of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) or steroids. The patients were treated with at least one DMARD, and 287 of them had a last follow up during the year 2004. The demographic, personal, clinical, laboratory, radiological and therapeutic features were compared at entry and at the last follow-up, according to their smoking habits at entry. Among the 293 patients, 6 were lost to follow-up, thus 287 patients were evaluated. There were 200 females (67.7%) and 87 males (30.3%). Eighty-two (28.6%) were current smokers, 21 (7.3%) ex-smokers and 184 (64.1%) non-smokers at presentation. RA smoker patients displayed the disease at a younger age than the non-smokers. Additionally, the smokers presented at disease onset more prominent features of articular involvement as was evaluated by the higher number of total joint count with tenderness and swelling and by the higher disease activity for 28 joint indices score (DAS-28). Smokers also presented a higher Larsen's score and higher frequency of IgM and IgA rheumatoid factors as compared to non-smokers. At the end of the study, the smoker patients presented more active and severe disease as evaluated by the higher total number of tender and swelling joint count, the higher DAS-28, and higher Larsen's score as compared to non-smokers. Furthermore, the smokers more frequently had rheumatoid nodules than the ex-smokers and non-smokers. The association of smoking with disease activity and severity was independent of sex, age, educational level, alcohol consumption, and follow-up duration. Finally, no significant differences were observed concerning the therapeutic procedure among the three groups.\",\n \"Assess the expression of FasL, Bax, TNFa and IL-6, genes in salivary glands of primary Sjögren patients. Twenty minor salivary glands from patients with primary Sjögren syndrome were studied by in situ hybridization with cDNA fluorescent probes. An equal number of control biopsies were included. Sjögren salivary glands differentially display the inflammatory cytokines and pro-apoptotic mRNAs as follows: mononuclear infiltrating cells exhibited IL-6 and TNFa, whereas the ductal epithelium and acinary cells mainly expressed FasL and Bax. Control biopsies were negative.\",\n \"To determine whether the impact of tobacco exposure on rheumatoid arthritis (RA) risk is influenced by polymorphisms at the HLA-DRB1 and glutathione S-transferase M1 (GSTM1) loci. Subjects were participants from a case-control study nested within the Iowa Women's Health Study, a population based, prospective cohort study of postmenopausal women. Incident RA cases (n = 115) were identified and medical records reviewed to confirm RA diagnosis. Controls without RA (n = 466) were matched with RA cases by age and ethnic background. HLA-DRB1 typing classified subjects according to the presence of alleles encoding the RA \\\"shared epitope\\\" (SE) sequence. GSTM1 was genotyped using a multiplex polymerase chain reaction assay. Conditional logistic regression was used to estimate the odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals. Strong positive associations of smoking (OR = 6.0, p = 0.004), SE positivity (OR = 4.6, p = 0.0006), and GSTM1 null genotype (OR = 3.4, p = 0.007) with risk of RA, and significant gene-environment interactions (smoking by SE interaction p = 0.034; smoking by GSTM1 interaction p = 0.047) were observed. Stratified analyses indicated that exposure to tobacco smoke primarily increased the risk of RA among subjects who lacked genetic risk factors for the disease (that is, SE negative or GSTM1 present).\",\n \"To compare the clinical presentation of 231 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with 89 patients with aqueous-deficient dry eye (keratoconjunctivitis sicca; KCS), to determine those procedures that best differentiate these groups in the eye care clinic. The records of all patients seen at the University Health Network Sjögren's Syndrome Clinic from October 1992 to July 2006 were reviewed and documented. The diagnosis of pSS was based on the AECC (American European Consensus Criteria) of 2002. KCS control subjects were non-SS patients with symptoms of dry eye and Schirmer scores of or = 4 criteria was required to satisfy the respective classification criteria. The expert clinical opinion of pediatric rheumatologists was considered the gold standard for diagnosis. A total of 24/62 (39%) cases satisfied the AECG criteria; 47/62 (76%) satisfied the proposed pediatric criteria. Inclusion of recurrent parotitis increased the sensitivity of the pediatric clinical criteria. From the cases, 78/133 (59%) satisfied the pediatric oral symptom criteria; only 6/78 (8%) had xerostomia in the absence of recurrent parotitis. There was no reported case of recurrent conjunctivitis in the absence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca. We found 101/130 (78%) cases had at least one positive autoantibody test result [antinuclear antibodies (ANA), rheumatoid factor (RF), SSA, SSB]; 78/123 (63%) had autoantibodies to SSA or SSB.\",\n \"To assess if smoking status at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent for rheumatoid arthritis (RA) reduces the likelihood of achieving at least a moderate response on the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) response criteria at 3-month assessment. All patients with RA treated with their first anti-TNF-alpha agent at the Department of Rheumatology, Derby Hospital NHS Trust between April 2001 and October 2008 were included in this retrospective case control study. Information about age, gender, disease duration, body mass index, smoking status (current smoker, ex-smoker, and nonsmoker), comorbidities, oral prednisolone use, and 28 joint 4 variables disease activity score (DAS28) at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent was recorded. Details of rheumatoid factor (RF) and past and present disease modifying antirheumatic drugs were recorded. A case control study was carried out to examine possible baseline predictors of treatment effects at the 3-month assessment. Results were available for 395 patients at 3-month assessment. According to the EULAR response criteria 42 patients failed to show at least a moderate response. After adjusting for confounders using multivariate analysis, current smoking at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent reduced the chance of achieving at least a moderate response on the EULAR response criteria when compared with nonsmokers (aOR [95% CI] 0.20 [0.05-0.83], P = 0.03).\",\n \"Earlier studies have demonstrated that smoking and genetic risk factors interact in providing an increased risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Less is known on how smoking contributes to RA in the context of genetic variability, and what proportion of RA may be caused by smoking. To determine the association between the amount of smoking and risk of RA in the context of different HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE) alleles, and to estimate proportions of RA cases attributed to smoking. Setting and Participants Data from the Swedish Epidemiological Investigation of Rheumatoid Arthritis (EIRA) case-control study encompassing 1204 cases and 871 controls were analysed. Main Outcome Measure Estimated OR to develop RA and excess fraction of cases attributable to smoking according to the amount of smoking and genotype. Smoking was estimated to be responsible for 35% of anticitrullinated protein/peptide antibody (ACPA)-positive cases. For each HLA-DRB1 SE genotype, smoking was dose-dependently associated with an increased risk of ACPA-positive RA (p trend <0.001). In individuals carrying two copies of the HLA-DRB1 SE, 55% of ACPA-positive RA was attributable to smoking.\",\n \"To determine the accuracy of salivary gland ultrasonography (SGUS) for diagnosing primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and to suggest modifications of the American-European Consensus Group (AECG) classification criteria. We conducted a cross-sectional study in a prospective cohort of patients with suspected primary SS that was established between 2006 and 2011. The echostructure of the bilateral parotid and submandibular glands was graded from 0 to 4, and the gland size was measured; blood flow to the parotid gland was assessed using Doppler waveform analysis. The reference standard was a clinical diagnosis of primary SS as determined by a group of experts blinded to the results of SGUS. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve analysis was performed to compare the diagnostic value of the 0-4-point echostructure grade for each of the 4 major salivary glands, the sum of the grades for the 4 glands, and the highest grade among the 4 glands. Of the 158 patients in the study, 78 had a diagnosis of primary SS according to the experts, including 61 patients (78.2%) who met the AECG criteria. Doppler waveform analysis and gland size measurement showed poor diagnostic performance. The results of ROC curve analysis showed that the highest grade among the 4 glands provided the best diagnostic value. The optimal grade cutoff was 2 (62.8% sensitivity and 95.0% specificity). A weighted score was constructed using scores for the 5 variables selected by logistic regression analysis, as follows: (salivary flow×1.5)+(Schirmer's test×1.5)+(salivary gland biopsy×3)+(SSA/SSB×4.5)+(SGUS×2). According to ROC curve analysis, a score of ≥5 of 12.5 had 85.7% sensitivity and 94.9% specificity, compared with 77.9% sensitivity and 98.7% specificity for the AECG criteria. The addition of SGUS to the AECG criteria increased sensitivity to 87.0% but did not change specificity.\",\n \"Anti-SSA and -SSB antibodies are clinically important antinuclear antibodies in patients with systemic rheumatic diseases. We evaluated fluorescence characteristics and clinical significance of anti-SSA and -SSB and explored whether identification of these antibodies was necessary in clinical application. Of 4,978 consecutive samples, 259 showed anti-SSA or -SSB reactivity, clinical information of which were analyzed. Compared with SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ group, SSA+SSB+ group showed a lower proportion (0.5%) of negative specimens detected with antinuclear antibody assay and a higher proportion (53.5%) of specimens with high titer. Anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive samples presented various patterns. However, 64.6% of SSA+SSB+ samples presented speckled pattern, significantly higher than SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ samples. A total of 475 specimens containing anti-SSA or -SSB were obtained from 302 individuals. Clinical information was obtained for 259 of them, which were further analyzed. The prevalence of Sjögren syndrome (SS) was significantly higher, and that of other diseases was lower in SSA+SSB+ than in SSA+SSB- group. Of the 259 individuals, 71 anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive patients had blood drawn on 2 or more occasions over the 2-year study period. The number of tests per patient was 2.7 ± 1.1. In 7 of the 71 patients, anti-SSA was observed in some but not all samples, so was anti-SSB in 6.\",\n \"Antibodies against type 3 muscarinic acetylcholine receptor (M3R) are involved in the pathogenesis of Sjögren's syndrome (SS), but the clinical value of them in SS patients has been controversial. The aims of this study were to: (1) establish an improved enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect IgA antibodies against M3R; (2) evaluate the value of IgA antibodies against the second extracellular loop of M3R205-220 (c2M3RP) in diagnosis of SS. To increase the ELISA sensitivity, c2M3RP was coupled to bovine serum albumin (BSA) by the glutaraldehyde method and a 96-well microplate was treated by ultraviolet rays before coated. Concentrations of anti-c2M3RP, anti-SSA, and anti-SSB were measured in the sera of 240 individuals: 91 patients with primary SS and 149 controls (16 secondary SS, 27 systemic lupus erythematosus, 40 rheumatoid arthritis and 66 healthy controls). Diagnostic properties of anti-c2M3RP were determined by receiver-operating characteristic curve analysis. The prevalence of serum IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies in patients with pSS (46%, 42/91) was significantly higher than that in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (19%, 5/27), in rheumatoid arthritis (15%, 6/40) and in healthy controls (5%, 3/66). However, there was no significant difference between the two SS groups (P = 0.727). The diagnostic performance of IgA anti-M3RP antibodies was similar to anti-SSA assay, but had 22% higher sensitivity than anti-SSB. By analyzing of IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies, combination of anti-SSA and anti-SSB resulted in increased sensitivity, whereas their specificity was not significantly changed.\",\n \"Smoking contributes to progression of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Because smoking is also a risk factor for incident rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and psoriatic arthritis, our aim was to test whether smoking habits are associated with incident AS. Using data from the HUNT health study of the entire adult population of Nord-Trøndelag, Norway, participants in HUNT2 (1995-1997) and HUNT3 (2006-2008) were identified who reported a diagnosis of AS in HUNT3 but not in HUNT2 (n = 107). Incident AS cases were compared with AS-unaffected individuals (n = 35,278) in a case-control design. Participants with RA were excluded. Present smoking was significantly associated with incident self-reported AS in logistic regression adjusted for potential confounders (OR 1.99, 95% CI 1.28-3.11, p = 0.002). Previous smoking (OR 1.15, 95% CI 0.66-2.02, p = 0.62) or total pack-years at HUNT2 (OR 1.01, 95% CI 0.99-1.04, p = 0.21) were not significant. The association with present smoking remained significant in various sensitivity analyses: including only cases with high probability of true AS diagnosis (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.03-3.19, p = 0.04); including only cases with AS reported more than 3-5 years after HUNT2 (OR 2.34, 95% CI 1.09-5.03, p = 0.029), or including only participants genotyped for HLA-B27 (94 cases and 859 controls) adjusting for genotype (OR 1.79, 95% CI 1.04-2.85, p = 0.033). Hypertension was also significantly associated with incident AS (OR from 1.65 to 2.81).\",\n \"In this study, we sought to address changes in blood lymphocyte subpopulations and labial salivary gland (LSG) inflammation after belimumab treatment in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and to identify predictors of response to treatment. Sequential blood lymphocyte subsets and LSG biopsies were analysed between week 0 (W0) and W28 in 15 patients with pSS treated with belimumab. Systemic response to treatment was defined as a decrease in the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index score of ≥3 points at W28. After belimumab, we observed a decrease in blood B lymphocytes primarily involving CD27-negative/immunoglobulin D-positive naïve B cells (p=0.008). Lymphocytic sialadenitis (focus score >1) that was present in 12 patients (80.0 %) before belimumab treatment became negative in 5 of them after treatment (p=0.03). The median (interquartile range) LSG B-cell/T-cell ratio decreased from 0.58 (0.5-0.67) to 0.50 (0.5-0.5) (p=0.06). B-cell activating factor (BAFF) staining was detected in 11 (78.6 %) of 14 patients before belimumab treatment compared with 7 (50.0 %) of 14 after belimumab therapy (p=0.10). The median percentage of BAFF-positive cells in foci significantly decreased from 27.5 % (10-40) to 5 % (0-20) (p=0.03). A systemic response was achieved in six patients (40 %). The only predictor of response was the presence of a low number of natural killer (NK) cells, both in blood (8.5 % [7-10] vs 11 % [9-21]; p=0.04) and in LSG (20.6/mm(3) [20.0-21.4] vs 30.0/mm(3) [25.0-100.0], p=0.003). Serum BAFF levels did not influence response to treatment.\",\n \"The aim of this cross-sectional study was to investigate the relationship between minor salivary gland (MSG) flow rates and oral dryness degrees in patients with xerostomia induced by primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS), IgG4-related sialadenitis (IgG4-RS), radiation therapy-induced dry mouth (RTDM), or Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS). 160 patients with pSS, IgG4-RS, RTDM, or SJS and their age- and sex-matched healthy control subjects were enrolled. The whole saliva flow rates and MSG flow rates were measured in four locations, including the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal mucosae. The degree of oral dryness was assessed in patient groups using the summated xerostomia inventory (SXI). The flow rates of whole saliva and most MSGs in patient groups were significantly lower than the flow rates in healthy control groups (P<0.05). The mean relative percentage of decrease in saliva flow rates was smaller in MSGs than in whole saliva in patient groups (P<0.05), indicating that these disorders have less impact on MSGs. Among the four MSG locations (the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal), buccal glands showed the highest flow rates in patient groups (P<0.05). SXI scores were significantly higher in pSS and RTDM patients than in IgG4-RS and SJS patients (P<0.05). The degree of xerostomia varied among different patient groups (P<0.05) and there was no clear correlation between MSG flow rates and SXI scores (P>0.05).\",\n \"yes. Tobacco exposure increases the risk factor for anti-CCP antibodies only in shared epitope positive patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The gene-environment interaction between smoking and shared epitope leading to autoantibodies is specific for rheumatoid arthritis and is not observed in undifferentiated arthritis.\",\n \"To examine whether patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) can be distinguished based on the expression of human T cell lymphotrophic virus type I (HTLV-1) and, if so, whether the subgroups differ in their clinical features and serological measures. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and nested PCR were used to amplify viral DNA from peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in 53 patients with SS, using primers from the HTLV-1 pX, p19, pol, and tax regions. Minor salivary gland biopsy specimens from 33 patients with SS were examined for the presence of HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins immunohistochemically. The sociodemographic, glandular, and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings including autoantibodies, complement, and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. The HTLV-1 tax gene was detected in PBMC samples from 2 of 53 patients (3.8%), whereas the HTLV-1 pX, p19, and pol genes were not expressed. As well, 100% of PBMC samples from 4 family members of patients in whom the tax gene was detected also expressed the tax gene. Immunohistochemical staining for HTLV-1 p19 and tax was seen in 10 out of 33 (30.3%) patients with SS each. Overall, 14 (42.4%) patients expressed HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins, and they had lower rheumatoid factor and C3 levels (p = 0.015 and p = 0.005, respectively) and higher lymphocyte counts (p = 0.016). The prevalence of glandular and extraglandular manifestations did not differ between the HTLV-1-positive and negative patients.\",\n \"yes. Smoking significantly decreased both biomarkers studied. Compared to girls, boys seem to have enhanced susceptibility for periodontitis as reflected in salivary MMP-8 values.\",\n \"Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for the development of Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). In a previous study of gene expression in intraorbital fat, adipocyte-related immediate early genes (IEGs) were overexpressed in patients with GO compared to controls. We investigated whether IEGs are upregulated by smoking, and examined other pathways that may be affected by smoking. Gene expression in intraorbital fat was studied in smokers (n=8) and nonsmokers (n=8) with severe active GO, as well as in subcutaneous fat in thyroid-healthy smokers (n=5) and nonsmokers (n=5) using microarray and real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR). With microarray, eight IEGs were upregulated more than 1.5-fold in smokers compared to nonsmokers with GO. Five were chosen for confirmation and were also overexpressed with real-time PCR. Interleukin-1 beta/IL-1B/(2.3-fold) and interleukin-6/IL-6/(2.4-fold) were upregulated both with microarray and with real-time PCR in smokers with GO compared to nonsmokers. Major histocompatibility complex, class II, DR beta 1/HLA-DRB1/was upregulated with microarray (2.1-fold) and with borderline significance with real-time PCR. None of these genes were upregulated in smokers compared to nonsmokers in subcutaneous fat.\",\n \"Previous findings in labial salivary glands (LSGs) from patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) suggest that increased activity and expression of matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9) and MMP-3 trigger the destruction of acinar structures in these glands. Tissue inhibitors of matrix metalloproteinases (TIMPs) tightly control MMP activity, and TIMP expression is an important modulator of effects attributed to MMPs. This study was undertaken to investigate the correlation between the balance of MMPs/TIMPs in the LSGs of SS patients and the degree of inflammatory infiltration and acinar structure integrity. Three groups of SS patients classified according to focus score and residual tissue were studied. The expression of MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-9, TIMP-1, and TIMP-2 was examined at the messenger RNA and protein levels. The ratio of MMP/TIMP expression (R value) was calculated. Focus score and acinar structure were evaluated by histologic analysis. In SS patients the MMP-3/TIMP-1 ratio was higher than 1 and the MMP-9/TIMP-1 ratio was much higher than 1 whereas the MMP-2/TIMP-2 ratio nearly equaled 1, suggesting elevated proteolytic activity due mainly to MMP-9. R values were independent of the focus score of inflammatory cells, but correlated well with the dramatic changes observed in morphologic integrity of acini, as revealed mainly by the lack of nuclear polarity. Acinar changes were more evident when R values for both MMP-9/TIMP-1 and MMP-3/TIMP-1 were higher.\",\n \"To review the clinical, radiologic, serologic, histopathologic, immunohistochemical, and molecular genetic features of patients having Sjögren's syndrome (SS) with lacrimal gland enlargement. Retrospective case series review. Fourteen patients histopathologically diagnosed with SS with lacrimal enlargement. Twenty-three age- and gender-matched controls were used for comparison on radiologic analysis. Clinical and serologic data were determined directly or by chart review. Computed tomography images from patients were compared with those from the control group. Histopathologic sections were reviewed and graded using the Chisholm-Mason scale, and quantitative immunohistochemical analysis was applied. Clinically, patients were assessed for age, gender, onset, symptoms and signs, systemic features, treatment, and outcome. Existing histologic specimens were reviewed according to the Chisholm-Mason scale, and then the percentages of plasma cells containing immunoglobulin (Ig) A, IgG, and IgM were determined. Imaging was assessed for lacrimal gland thickness, prolapse, density, and margin contour; extraocular muscle size; orbital tissue displacement; and proptosis. Clinical and histopathological data fulfilled the revised American-European criteria for primary SS in 79% of patients. Compared with other large series of primary SS patients, similarities were found with age, xerophthalmia, parotidomegaly, and articular involvement. Differences included a lower incidence of autoantibodies, xerostomia, and extraglandular features and a higher male-to-female ratio. In almost all patients (93%), the percentage of plasma cells positive for IgA was less than 70%, consistent with SS. Compared with controls, the lacrimal glands were enlarged significantly (P<0.0001) and prolapsed (P<0.001). Involved glands had blurred margins (P<0.007), caused displacement of adjacent tissues (P = 0.03), and were associated with hyperdense fat (P = 0.007). Lymphocytic infiltration of orbital fat was present in all patients for whom fat biopsy results were available. Three patients had monoclonal infiltrates, and 1 patient experienced subsequent extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type, 4 years after presentation.\",\n \"Sjögren's Syndrome (SS) is considered a multisystemic chronic disorder, which is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands and autoantibodies production.AIM: Several studies have demonstrated increased incidence of Lymphoma in SS patients. Our study tries to determine this relation. Transversal cohort. Patients with Sicca's Syndrome from the Stomathology service, Santa Casa de Misericórdia Hospital, in Sao Paulo, ENT Department, from July 1999 to April 2002. Out of 39 patients, 24 were diagnose as SS. Ages ranged from 19 to 83 years old, with predominance of women (69.7%). Time between the first symptoms and SS diagnosis were variable, ranging within 3.77 years. None of the analyzed patients developed lymphoma.\",\n \"Our recent studies suggest, that elevated calcium concentration of saliva is characteristic of periodontitis. In this study we analyzed the effect of smoking on salivary calcium and bone density by comparing the level of salivary calcium and the ultrasound scale of bone density of heavy smokers to those of non-smokers. Salivary samples were collected from 603 women (50-62 years) participating in a pre-screen referral program for osteoporosis. Out of this group a total of 577 were accepted for the present study. General health, medications and tobacco smoking were recorded. The group included 487 non-smokers, 37 moderate smokers (1-10 cigarettes per day) and 53 heavy smokers (>10 cigarettes per day). Bone density was measured at the right heel by the quantitative ultrasound technique. Calcium and phosphate concentrations of saliva were measured and expressed as microg/ml of saliva. The ultrasonographic variables of the heel, broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA), speed of sound (SOS) and T-score (a standard deviation unit from mean values of healthy young adults) of heavy smokers were significantly lower than those of women who did not smoke (P = 0.007, 0.014 and 0.011, respectively). Salivary calcium concentration of heavy smokers 70.5 (14.6) microg/ml was higher than that of non-smokers 64.0 (14.1) microg/ml (P = 0.001). There were no significant differences in salivary phosphate level or in the salivary flow rate between heavy smokers and non-smokers.\",\n \"yes. Our findings clearly demonstrate changes in the levels of IκBα in SS monocytes, suggesting that the attenuated expression of IκBα could contribute to the deregulation of NF-κB pathways in the SS pathogenesis. Decreased expression of IκBα may specifically amplify cytokines production and inflammatory response linked to Sjögren's syndrome.\",\n \"The aim of the present study was to evaluate serum soluble interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (sIL-1RA) concentration and its relationship with the degree of cigarette smoking in patients with Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). Twenty-two consecutive GO patients (20 women, two men; age range 25-68 years, mean 48 years; 12 smokers, 10 non-smokers) submitted to IV glucocorticoid pulses over a 3-month period. sIL-1RA levels were measured by an immunoenzymatic assay (sensitivity, 4 ng/l; normal range, 50-290 ng/l) before glucocorticoid treatment, after two months of therapy, and 3 months after drug withdrawal. Thirteen patients responded to treatment (59%; five smokers and eight non-smokers), nine were non-responders (41%; seven smokers and two non-smokers). Baseline median sIL-1RA concentration did not differ in smokers and non-smokers (222 and 173 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.69). Likewise, no significant differences were found between the two groups during treatment (537 and 389 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.28); sIL-1RA concentration after treatment was higher in smokers (258 vs. 94 ng/l; P = 0.02). There was no correlation between basal sIL-1RA levels and the degree of cigarette smoking. Likewise, there was no difference in sIL-1RA levels in responders and non-responders, either at baseline (186 vs. 216 ng/l; P = 0.83), during or after treatment.\",\n \"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an autoimmune chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the salivary and lacrimal glands. The aim of this study was to explore immunophenotypic features of chronic inflammatory reactions in the minor salivary glands in patients with primary SS (pSS). Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded labial minor salivary gland tissue sections from randomly selected patients with pSS (n = 60) were investigated for the expression of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD by immunohistochemistry. Based on the distribution and staining pattern of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD in lymphoid aggregates, several stages of chronic inflammatory reactions were observed. In 12/60 (20%) patients, lymphoid infiltrates with germinal centre (GC)-like features such as extensive networks of CD21-, CD23- and CD35-positive cells were observed in the minor salivary gland tissue. Smaller networks and /or focal infiltrates with scattered CD21(+), CD23(+) and CD35(+) cells were observed in the remaining 48/60 (80 %) cases. When dividing patients according to the presence (GC+) or the absence (GC-) of GC in the minor salivary glands, the mean focus score was significantly higher in the GC+ patients (P < 0.05). Double staining of the minor salivary glands revealed focal infiltrates with follicular dentritic cell networks and B cells resembling normal GCs in tonsillar tissue.\",\n \"To determine whether the Sjögren's syndrome B (SSB)-positive/Sjögren's syndrome A (SSA)-negative antibody profile is associated with key phenotypic features of SS. Among registrants in the Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) with possible or established SS, we compared anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profiles against concurrent phenotypic features. We fitted logistic regression models to explore the association between anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profile and each key SS phenotypic feature, controlling for potential confounders. Among 3297 participants, 2061 (63%) had negative anti-SSA/anti-SSB, 1162 (35%) had anti-SSA with or without anti-SSB, and 74 (2%) anti-SSB alone. Key SS phenotypic features were more prevalent and had measures indicative of greater disease activity in those participants with anti-SSA, either alone or with anti-SSB, than in those with anti-SSB alone or negative SSA/SSB serology. These between-group differences were highly significant and not explained by confounding by age, race/ethnicity or gender. Participants with anti-SSB alone were comparable to those with negative SSA/SSB serology in their association with these key phenotypic features. Among SICCA participants classified with SS on the basis of the American-European Consensus Group or American College of Rheumatology criteria, only 2% required the anti-SSB-alone test result to meet these criteria.\",\n \"Primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) is an autoimmune disease in which the concentration of the acute-phase protein serum C-reactive protein (CRP) is low. We investigated whether levels of another acute-phase protein, serum amyloid A (SAA), are increased in patients with pSS and whether the immunological markers in patients with pSS are associated with variation in SAA levels. Serum SAA concentrations were measured by ELISA in 74 patients with pSS and in 56 control subjects with sicca symptoms. Median SAA levels did not differ significantly between patients with pSS and subjects with sicca symptoms. In patients with pSS SAA concentrations correlated significantly with age, leukocyte count, CRP, interleukin 6, and C4. Unlike CRP, there was a significant inverse correlation between SAA and serum IgG levels and anti-SSA antibody titers, as well as a trend towards an inverse correlation between SAA and antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor titers.\",\n \"To examine a large well characterized cohort of patients with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) and determine longitudinally the prevalence of clinical and serologic features of Sjogren's syndrome in these patients. Patients were followed longitudinally up to 30 years with systematic clinical and serologic analysis. Sera were analyzed for reactivity with SSA/Ro, SSB/La, and snRNP polypeptide U1-70kD and for anticardiolipin antibodies. Among a well characterized patient population with MCTD, 18/55 (32.7%) had antibodies to SSA/Ro, while 2/55 (3.6%) had antibodies to SSB/La, either initially or during the course of followup. All patients had antibodies to U1-70kD small nuclear ribonucleoprotein antigen. Sicca symptoms were common, occurring in 23/55 (41.8%) patients. Patients with MCTD who were anti-SSA/Ro positive had increased incidence of malar rash (p < 0.03) and photosensitivity (p < 0.001) compared to anti-SSA/Ro negative patients.\",\n \"To assess the effect of rituximab (anti-CD20 antibody) therapy on the (immuno)histopathology of parotid tissue in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and the correlation of histologic findings with the flow rate and composition of parotid saliva. In a phase II study, an incisional parotid biopsy specimen was obtained from 5 patients with primary SS before and 12 weeks after rituximab treatment (4 infusions of 375 mg/m(2)). The relative amount of parotid parenchyma, lymphocytic infiltrate, and fat, and the presence/quantity of germinal centers and lymphoepithelial duct lesions were evaluated. Immunohistochemical characterization was performed to analyze the B:T cell ratio of the lymphocytic infiltrate (CD20, CD79a, CD3) and cellular proliferation in the acinar parenchyma (by double immunohistologic labeling for cytokeratin 14 and Ki-67). Histologic data were assessed for correlations with the parotid flow rate and saliva composition. Four patients showed an increased salivary flow rate and normalization of the initially increased salivary sodium concentration. Following rituximab treatment, the lymphocytic infiltrate was reduced, with a decreased B:T cell ratio and (partial) disappearance of germinal centers. The amount and extent of lymphoepithelial lesions decreased in 3 patients and was completely absent in 2 patients. The initially increased proliferation of acinar parenchyma in response to inflammation was reduced in all patients.\",\n \"yes. Local suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands could retard the development of Sjögren's syndrome in NOD mice. IL-21 might contribute to the development of B-cell disorder in Sjögren's syndrome via Tfh cells pathway.\",\n \"Oral cancer may be preceded by potentially malignant lesions, and smoking is a risk factor. Oral leukoplakia (OL), which is the most common among these lesions, is defined by the World Health Organization as \\\"a white plaque of questionable risk having excluded known diseases or disorders that carry no increased risk for cancer.\\\" Thus, OL is a clinical diagnosis used to designate oral white lesions, which are histologically represented by hyperkeratosis associated or not associated with epithelial dysplasia. It is known that c-Jun and pc-Jun have a role in cell proliferation and that p27 is decreased during carcinogenesis; thus, the aim of this study was to investigate whether these proteins are differently expressed in OL in smokers and never-smokers. Seventy-three cases diagnosed as OL were selected and divided into four groups according to the presence or absence of dysplasia and patients' smoking status (smokers: 39 cases, 24 dysplastic; never-smokers: 34 cases, 20 dysplastic). The immunoexpressions of c-Jun, pc-Jun, and p27 were evaluated. A significant correlation between smoking condition and the percentages of c-Jun (P = .0356) and pc-Jun (P = .0216) was found and was more intense in cases that underwent malignant transformation (6/47).\",\n \"To examine whether smoking is a risk factor for rheumatoid nodules in early rheumatoid arthritis, and if so to determine the quantitative effect of smoking. From a cohort (n = 1589) in a structured programme for follow up of newly diagnosed cases of rheumatoid arthritis (symptoms of swollen joints < or =12 months), 112 individuals with rheumatoid nodules at inclusion were identified. Nodular patients were each compared with two age and sex matched controls without nodules from the same cohort. A detailed self administered tobacco use questionnaire was answered by 210 patients (63%). Seventy patients were current smokers, 71 former smokers, and 69 had never smoked. Current smoking and former smoking were more common in patients with rheumatoid nodules compared with controls (86% v 59%) in both sexes. Positive rheumatoid factor (RF) was found more often among cases with nodules than controls (78% v 64%). Using detailed information from the questionnaires with conditional logistic regression analyses, ever having smoked was associated with an increased risk of the presence of rheumatoid nodules (odds ratio (OR) = 7.3 (95% confidence interval, 2.3 to 23.6); p = 0.001). The risk of having nodules was not obviously dose dependent when smoking duration as well as smoking amount were examined. A stratified analysis showed that only RF positive smokers had an increased risk of rheumatoid nodules. Smoking was associated with rheumatoid nodules among both men (p = 0.006) and women (p = 0.001). Tobacco use other than smoking (n = 31) was not associated with an increased risk of nodules (OR = 0.8 (0.2 to 3.4); p = 0.813).\",\n \"Eleven patients with ACA-positive and 71 patients ACA-negative SS were examined. All patients had minor salivary gland biopsy; sociodemographic data, glandular and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings, including autoantibodies, complement and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. European League Against Rheumatism SS disease activity index (ESSDAI) and SS disease damage index (SSDDI) were also measured. The prevalence of ACA among SS patients was 13.4%. ACA-positive SS patients had a higher prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly and autoimmune thyroiditis and a lower prevalence of anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies compared to ACA-negative patients. Disease activity was higher in ACA-positive patients than in ACA-negative patients, but the damage index did not differ between the two groups. None of the patients who originally had ACA evolved to having full-blown systemic sclerosis.\",\n \"Smoking increases the risk for periodontal disease and reduces the healing response. We examined the antimicrobial and clinical effects of scaling and root planing (SRP) with and without minocycline HCl 1 mg microspheres (MM) relative to smoking status in subjects with periodontitis. A total of 127 subjects (46 never smokers, 44 former smokers, and 37 current smokers) with moderate to advanced periodontitis were randomized to receive MM + SRP (N = 62) or SRP alone (N = 65). Subgingival plaque samples collected at baseline and day 30 were examined for the presence of 40 periodontal bacteria by DNA probe analysis. MM + SRP reduced red-complex bacteria (RCB) numbers and proportions to a greater extent than SRP alone, irrespective of smoking status. RCB numbers were not reduced by SRP in current smokers. The difference in the reduction in numbers of RCB by SRP relative to MM + SRP in current smokers was statistically significant (P <0.05). Numbers and proportions of orange complex bacteria (OCB) were reduced in all groups treated with MM + SRP. Proportions of OCB increased in current smokers treated with SRP alone. In current smokers, MM + SRP significantly reduced probing depth (PD), increased clinical attachment level (CAL), and reduced bleeding on probing (BOP) to a greater extent than SRP alone (P <0.05).\",\n \"yes. Within the limits of this study, it may be suggested that suppression of salivary osteocalcin level by smoking may at least partly explain the deleterious effects of smoking on periodontal status.\",\n \"Increased levels of B lymphocyte stimulator (BLyS) have been detected in serum from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. To determine the level of BLyS in serum from patients with primary's Sjögren's syndrome (SS), another autoimmune disease in which B cell activation is high. Serum samples from 49 patients with primary SS according to the revised European criteria were assayed for BLyS, quantitative immunoglobulins, and autoantibody levels and compared with samples from 47 healthy control subjects. The median level of BLyS was 5.99 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 3.20-8.93 ng/ml) in SS v 2.49 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 1.96-2.96 ng/ml) in healthy controls (p<0.001). More importantly, among patients with SS, the presence of anti-SSA antibodies was associated with significantly higher levels of BLyS (medians 7.90 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.008) as was the presence of anti-SSB antibodies (medians 7.14 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.02) and of rheumatoid factor (medians 7.70 ng/ml v 3.80 ng/ml; p=0.016). The level of BLyS in three patients with a monoclonal gammopathy was higher than in the other patients (medians 26.53 ng/ml v 5.92 ng/ml; p=0.13). Higher levels of BLyS were associated with higher levels of gammaglobulins and IgG. There was a strong correlation between BLyS and rheumatoid factor level (r=0.71, p<0.0001), anti-SSA IgG level (r=0.32, p=0.02) and anti-SSA IgM level (r=0.39, p=0.006).\",\n \"yes. Our study reveals that active tobacco smoking is associated with increases in markers of systemic inflammation in patients with CRS. The proinflammatory effect of smoking seems not only to act locally on sinus mucosa as previously described, but may also influence levels of inflammatory biomarkers systemically, suggesting that smoking-induced changes have profound implications for health. Nevertheless, these changes may be potentially reversible; thus smoking cessation in CRS patients is strongly advised, and may have an impact on response of CRS to therapy.\",\n \"no. Unlike its role in rheumatoid arthritis, smoking does not confer a risk for development of SSc, although it may impact disease severity.\",\n \"We evaluated the clinical relevance and pathogenic significance of anti-salivary duct autoantibodies (ASDA) in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) by examining (1) their frequency in healthy controls, patients with sicca symptoms, and patients with various autoimmune and infective disorders; (2) their localization by confocal microscopy; and (3) their tissue distribution and cross reactivity with blood group antigens. Indirect immunofluorescence (IF) was performed on commercial cryostat sections of monkey parotid salivary gland. Sections were examined by fluorescence and confocal laser scanning microscopy. Sera giving positive staining on the ducts were tested by IF on a range of monkey tissues and salivary glands from several mammalian species. Blocking experiments were performed with human erythrocytes of different ABO blood groups and AB antigens. We identified 2 distinct ductal staining patterns. The first resembled ASDA described in earlier studies and showed patchy bright staining of the apical (luminal) surfaces of the ducts and staining of apical cytoplasmic vesicles. The other was only observed with anti-mitochondrial antibody positive sera and stained the mitochondrial-rich ductal epithelium in a distinctive punctate pattern. Antibodies staining the apical surface of ducts were detected rarely in patients with antiRo/La autoantibody-positive primary SS (1/76) and RA (1/36) and were found in only 1115 with RA and secondary SS. ASDA were detected in sera from 13/51 (25.5%) of patients referred to our clinic with limited sicca symptoms who were anti-Ro/La antibody-negative and had no typical clinical or laboratory features of classical primary SS. The apical ductal staining pattern was not observed with sera from 63 healthy controls without sicca symptoms or in patients with autoimmune and infective disorders. Twelve of the 13 patients whose sera gave ASDA-like staining were blood group O and one group A. Ductal staining was abolished in all sera after absorption with blood group AB erythrocytes or AB antigen. In 5 patients ductal staining was removed by absorption with B erythrocytes but not with A erythrocytes; in the remainder ductal reactivity was abolished by both A and B erythrocytes.\",\n \"To identify a screening strategy for dry eye patients with a high likelihood of having Sjogren syndrome (SS) through the evaluation of the association of ocular surface tests with the extraocular signs used for the diagnosis of SS. Multicenter cross-sectional study. The Sjogren's International Clinical Collaborative Alliance (SICCA) registry enrolled 3514 participants with SS or possible SS from 9 international academic sites. Ocular surface evaluation included Schirmer I testing, tear breakup time (TBUT), and staining of the cornea (0-6 points) and conjunctiva (0-6 points). Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify predictive factors for (1) histopathologic changes on labial salivary gland (LSG) biopsies (positive = focus score of ≥1 focus/4 mm The adjusted odds of having a positive LSG biopsy were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.26, 95% CI 1.05-1.51, P = .014) and positive conjunctival staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.46; 95% CI 1.39-1.53, P < .001) or corneal staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.14; 95% CI 1.08-1.21, P < .001). The odds of having a positive serology were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.3; 95% CI 1.09-1.54, P = .004) and conjunctival staining (adjusted OR = 1.51; 95% CI 1.43-1.58, P < .001).\",\n \"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) may occur in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). We sought to determine whether the presence of SS in a large cohort of patients with SLE defines a subset with distinctive sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. The Johns Hopkins Lupus Cohort was divided into 2 groups, based on the presence or absence of SS, defined by the presence of an objective measure of sicca or an abnormal minor salivary gland biopsy in a patient with sicca symptoms. These groups were compared with regard to sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. Multivariable logistic regression was then performed to adjust the findings for potential sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory confounders. The 259 patients with SS (14% of the cohort), when compared with the 1531 patients without SS, were older at the time of SLE diagnosis and were more commonly women and white. Photosensitivity, oral ulcers, Raynaud's phenomenon, anti-Ro antibodies, and anti-La antibodies had a significant positive association while renal disease, anti-ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibodies, and anti-dsDNA antibodies had a negative association with the presence of SS after adjustment for age (at last cohort visit), gender, ethnicity, and anti-Ro antibodies. The older age at diagnosis of SLE among the patients with SS did not remain a significant finding after adjustment for the age of the patient at last cohort visit.\",\n \"To evaluate the effects of cigarette smoke (CS)-exposed saliva on cellular and antibody responses in an animal model. The stimulatory and non-stimulatory saliva samples were collected from 10 healthy subjects and were then exposed to CS for 20 or 80 minutes. The CS-exposed saliva samples were administrated intraperitoneally (i.p) to male Balb/c mice. Then the delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) and antibody responses to sheep red blood cell (SRBC) was assessed. Moreover, the total white blood cells (WBC) counts and the blood lymphocytes counts were determined. The mean of DTH responses of animal groups received 20 minutes or 80 minutes CS-exposed saliva samples was significantly lower than that observed in control group. Moreover, The mean titer of anti-SRBC antibody was significantly lower in animal groups who received 80 minutes CS-exposed stimulatory or non-stimulatory saliva as compared to control group (P < 0.04 and P < 0.002, respectively). The mean counts of blood lymphocytes in 80 minutes CS exposed-stimulatory saliva group was also significantly lower as compared to control group (P < 0.05).\",\n \"There is evidence that interferon is involved in the pathogenesis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). The interferon-inducible IFI16 protein, normally expressed in cell nuclei, may be overexpressed, mislocalized in the cytoplasm and secreted in the extracellular milieu in several autoimmune disorders. This leads to tolerance breaking to this self-protein with consequent development of anti-IFI16 antibodies. The aim of this study was to identify the pathogenic and clinical significance of IFI16 and anti-IFI16 in pSS. IFI16 and anti-IFI16 were assessed in the serum of 67 pSS patients and over 100 healthy donors by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. IFI16 was also evaluated by immunohistochemistry in minor salivary glands of 15 pSS patients and 10 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any clinical, serological or histological features of pSS. pSS patients display higher serum levels of both IFI16 and anti-IFI16 compared to healthy donors. IFI16 concentration was directly correlated with disease duration and focus score and inversely correlated with age at diagnosis. Moreover, IFI16 positivity was associated with concurrent positivity for rheumatoid factor. Interestingly, the direct correlation between IFI16 positivity and focus score was independent of disease duration and age at diagnosis. pSS minor salivary glands display marked expression and cytoplasmic mislocalization of IFI16 by acinar and ductal epithelial cells as well as infiltrating lymphocytes and peri/intralesional endothelium compared to minor salivary glands with normal architecture or nonspecific chronic sialadenitis. Within the mononuclear cell infiltrate, IFI16 expression appears to parallel the distribution of T lymphocytes.\",\n \"To investigate the relationship between serologic markers and dry eye severity in subjects with primary Sjögren syndrome (SS). This study evaluated 64 patients diagnosed with primary SS according to the 2012 Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) classification criteria. Serum anti-Ro/SSA, anti-La/SSB, rheumatoid factor (RF), and antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels, Ocular Surface Disease Index (OSDI), Schirmer I test values, tear film breakup time, and SICCA ocular staining score (OSS) were determined. The conjunctival staining scores were 3.3 ± 1.9, 3.6 ± 2.0, 3.4 ± 1.9, and 3.5 ± 1.9 in the positive anti-Ro (≥25 EU), positive anti-La (≥25 EU), positive RF (≥20 IU/mL), and positive ANA (≥1:320) group, respectively. Subjects with positive anti-Ro, anti-La, RF, or ANA had significantly higher conjunctival staining scores compared with those with negative levels (P < 0.05). The total OSS in the positive ANA group was 5.5 ± 3.0, which was significantly higher than the total OSS (3.4 ± 2.1) in the negative ANA group (P = 0.005). Serum RF and ANA levels had strong correlations with conjunctival staining scores and the total OSS but not with corneal staining scores (r = 0.53, P < 0.001 and r = 0.382, P = 0.002). Other ocular parameters (OSDI, Schirmer I test values, and tear film breakup time) did not differ by the serologic marker level. Interestingly, the OSDI was positively correlated with the corneal staining score and total OSS (r = 0.646, P < 0.001 and r = 0.476, P < 0.001).\",\n \"To assess the diagnostic value of parotid gland quantitative assessment using ultrasound (US) as well as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients with Sjogren's syndrome (SS) and to evaluate the possibility of using such modalities as a predictor of the histopathologic score of salivary gland biopsy in this group of patients. Sonographic and MRI studies were performed on the parotid glands of 47 patients diagnosed to have primary SS, 20 healthy control subjects of matched sex and age, and 20 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any evidence of SS. The patients and the control subjects were scored according to the structural changes seen in both radiologic modalities. In addition, sialography and labial gland biopsy were done for all patients as well as the control subjects and scored according to the degree of affection. Parenchymal inhomogenity (PIH) was seen in 93.6% of the patients studied by US, while nodular pattern was seen in 97.8% in the MRI study. The US and MRI results correlated significantly with the histopathologic score of the minor salivary glands (r = 0.82, 0.84, respectively) as well as sialography score (r = 0.69, 0.60, respectively). There was good agreement between US and MRI findings (r = 0.87) in both SS cases and control subjects.\",\n \"To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with susceptibility to systemic sclerosis (SSc) in a large, well-defined patient population. We conducted a review of 1,379 patients with SSc enrolled in the Scleroderma Family Registry and DNA Repository and/or the Genetics versus Environment in Scleroderma Outcome Study cohort. Smoking history was obtained from chart review or via telephone interview. Patients with SSc were subsequently categorized as never smokers or ever smokers. Patients with SSc for whom smoking data were available were matched 2:1 by age, sex, ethnicity, and state of residence to control subjects, using the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System. The majority of patients were white (74.2%), with Hispanics and blacks representing 11.3% and 9.7%, respectively. Most patients had limited cutaneous involvement (54%). For our comparative analyses, 621 patients were matched with control subjects. There was no significant difference in age, sex, ethnicity, and SSc subtype between matched versus unmatched patients. The majority of patients had never smoked (57%), while 43% of patients were classified as ever smokers. The patients with SSc did not differ from control subjects in terms of their smoking behavior (odds ratio [OR] 1.020, 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0.839-1.240, P=0.842). Anti-topoisomerase I antibody-positive patients were more likely to be never smokers (OR 0.648, 95% CI 0.421-0.998, P=0.049), whereas no such association was observed with anticentromere and anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies.\",\n \"To study signs of obstructive airway disease (OAD) in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) using the forced oscillation technique (FOT). Thirty-seven female pSS patients (median age 64, range 38-77 years) without previous physician-diagnosed OAD, participating in a longitudinal follow-up study of pulmonary function, and 74 female population-based controls (median age 64, range 47-77 years), also without physician-diagnosed OAD, and matched with regard to age, height, weight, and tobacco consumption, were included in the study. The pSS patients and controls were studied by the FOT, evaluating resistance and reactance of the respiratory system. pSS patients had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz, decreased reactance at 10-35 Hz, and an increased resonant frequency (Fres) in comparison with controls. Resistance was correlated negatively and reactance positively to the vital capacity (VC), the forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), and the diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Compared with controls, pSS patients with (n = 14) and without OAD (n = 21), as determined by spirometry, had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz and decreased reactances at 10-35 Hz. In never-smoking subjects, identical FOT signs were found.\",\n \"Primary Sjögren's syndrome is an autoimmune disease typified by xerostomia (dry mouth) that, in turn, could lead to increased saliva surface tension (gamma) and increased upper airway collapsibility. Fatigue, of unknown etiology, is also frequently reported by patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Recent preliminary data indicate a high prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea in healthy-weight women with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Concurrent research highlights a significant role of gamma in the maintenance of upper airway patency. The aim of this study was to compare oral mucosal wetness, saliva gamma, and upper airway collapsibility during wake and sleep between women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and matched control subjects. Participants slept in a sound-insulated room with physiologic measurements controlled from an adjacent room. Eleven women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and 8 age- and body mass index-matched control women. Upper airway collapsibility index (minimum choanal-epiglottic pressure expressed as a percentage of delivered choanal pressure) was determined from brief negative-pressure pulses delivered to the upper airway during early inspiration in wakefulness and sleep. Patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome had significantly higher saliva gamma (\\\"pull-off\\\" force method) compared with control subjects (67.2 +/- 1.1 mN/m versus 63.2 +/- 1.7 mN/m, P < 0.05). Upper airway collapsibility index significantly increased from wake to sleep (Stage 2 and slow wave sleep) but was not different between groups during wake (primary Sjögren's syndrome versus controls; 36.3% +/- 8.0% vs 46.0 +/- 13.8%), stage 2 sleep (53.1% +/- 11.9% vs 63.4% +/- 7.2%), or slow-wave sleep (60.8% +/- 12.2% vs 60.5% +/- 9.3%).\",\n \"This study was undertaken to determine whether induction of systemic inflammation accelerates the development of Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in genetically susceptible mice. Female (NZB x NZW)F1 mice were treated with either Freund's incomplete adjuvant (IFA) or phosphate buffered saline (PBS) at monthly intervals. Salivary gland function was monitored by measuring pilocarpine-induced saliva volume. Mice were killed at different time points and examined for sialadenitis and salivary gland-infiltrating cells. Sera were analyzed for autoantibodies to salivary gland antigens, nuclear antigens, and Ro60. While IFA-treated mice had significantly decreased salivary secretion 7 weeks after the initial treatment, salivary secretion did not decrease in PBS-treated controls until 17 weeks. At 7 weeks, the severity of sialadenitis and the number of T and B cells infiltrating the salivary glands did not differ between the 2 groups. However, at this time point IFA-treated mice showed significantly higher frequencies of CD11clow, B220+, Ly6C+, mouse PDCA-1+ dendritic cells (DCs) in the salivary glands. While levels of autoantibodies did not differ between the 2 groups at early time points, by late time points IFA-treated mice had higher levels. The gland dysfunction observed in IFA-treated mice at earlier time points did not correlate with the severity of sialadenitis or levels of autoantibodies. Instead, it was associated with increased frequency of plasmacytoid DCs in the gland.\",\n \"To clarify the clinicopathological characteristics of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with anti-centromere antibody (ACA). Characteristics of 14 patients of pSS with ACA were evaluated. All patients were anti-SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La antibodies negative (ACA+ group) without sclerodactyly. The prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon (RP), titer of IgG and focus score (FS) in the minor salivary glands (MSGs) were determined. Quantification analysis of Azan Mallory staining was performed to detect collagenous fiber. Forty eight patients in whom ACA was absent were chosen as the conventional (ACA-) pSS group. Prevalence of ACA+ SS patients was 14 out of 129 (10.85%) pSS patients. RP was observed in 61.5% of the patients with ACA. The level of IgG in the ACA+ group was significantly lower than that of the ACA- group (p = 0.018). Statistical difference was also found in the FS of MSGs from the ACA+ group (1.4 +/- 1.0) as compared with the ACA- group (2.3 +/- 1.6) (p = 0.035). In contrast, the amount of fibrous tissue was much higher in the ACA+ group (65052.2 +/- 14520.6 microm(2) versus 26251.3 +/- 14249.8 microm(2)) (p = 1.3 x 10(-12)).\",\n \"It is relatively difficult in a community setting to perform salivary gland biopsy or reliable diagnostic tests for salivary gland involvement in a patient suspected to suffer from Sjögren's syndrome (SS). To investigate whether anti-Ro/La antibodies are a good substitute for salivary gland biopsy in community patients suspected to suffer from SS. Forty-one patients suspected as having SS due to dry eyes and mouth, articular complaints, and/or serological findings were examined for the presence of anti-Ro/La, and underwent minor salivary gland biopsy. Sixteen patients (39%) were classified as primary SS by the American-European Consensus Group criteria. Twelve subjects had anti-Ro/La antibodies and 11 subjects in this group had positive biopsy findings. Of 29 patients without anti-Ro/La antibodies, only four manifested positive biopsy findings. A significant association was found between the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies and positive salivary gland findings characteristic for SS (p<0.0001, Fisher's exact test).\",\n \"yes. In our study, pathologic grading with a higher grade (grade IV) and the presence of SSA or a higher titer of ANA were significantly associated with the overexpression of TRAIL, MMP-3, or ICAM-1 in the salivary gland mononuclear cells in patients with SS.\",\n \"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an inflammatory autoimmune disease. We investigated important factors associated with the expression of inflammation-related molecules in minor salivary gland (MSG) mononuclear cells in patients with SS. Thirty-four patients with SS with a MSG biopsy grading of either grade III (10 patients) or grade IV (24 patients) were enrolled. The age, sex, autoantibodies, cell infiltration, and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), matrix metalloproteinase-3 (MMP-3), tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL), or CXCR3 expression were also analyzed. Ten of the 34 patients with SS were diagnosed with secondary SS; in these patients, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis was confirmed in 8 and systemic lupus erythematosus in 2. TRAIL and ICAM-1 were overexpressed in patients with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) > 1:160, compared to those with titer < 1:160 (45.1 +/- 4.4 vs 41.2 +/- 3.9, p = 0.021, and 15.2 +/- 5.7 vs 10.8 +/- 3.3, p = 0.018, respectively). Higher erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR; >OR= 20) was associated with higher TRAIL expression and CD20 cell infiltration in contrast to lower ESR (< 20; p < 0.05). ICAM-1, TRAIL, and MMP-3 were expressed more predominantly in anti-SSA-positive than in anti-SSA-negative patients with SS. There was a significant difference in CD20 cell infiltration and MMP-3 expression between primary SS and secondary SS. Biopsy of a grade IV showed a significantly increased expression of TRAIL (44.9 +/- 4.5 vs 40.8 +/- 3.6, p = 0.013) and MMP-3 (62.7 +/- 6.3 vs 54.4 +/- 7.3, p = 0.003) in mononuclear cells as compared to those of grade III.\",\n \"The role of HTLV-I infection in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) remains unclear. In this study, we clinically compared radiographic imaging with histological cellular infiltration between HTLV-I-seropositive and HTLV-I-sero-negative SS. Sixty primary SS patients were divided into two age-matched groups based on the seropositivity of the anti-HTLV-I antibody. We evaluated the two groups through labial salivary gland biopsy-proven cellular infiltration and sialography-proven radiographic gland destruction. In these 60 pSS patients, the incidence of abnormalities as determined by salivary gland biopsy and sialography was 51.7% (31/60) and 76.7% (46/60), respectively. Although there was no difference in the prevalence of abnormal findings between salivary gland biopsy and sialography in the whole 60 patients, there were significantly fewer abnormalities determined by sialography in HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients in comparison with HTLV-I-seronegative SS patients. Also, these findings were strengthened by the results that none of HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients with focus score 0 had abnormal sialography findings.\",\n \"yes. Sequential parotid biopsy specimens obtained from patients with primary SS before and after rituximab treatment demonstrated histopathologic evidence of reduced glandular inflammation and redifferentiation of lymphoepithelial duct lesions to regular striated ducts as a putative morphologic correlate of increased parotid flow and normalization of the salivary sodium content. These histopathologic findings in a few patients underline the efficacy of B cell depletion and indicate the potential for glandular restoration in SS.\",\n \"These findings tend to support the suggestion that a patient suspected to suffer from SS in a community setting may be first tested for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies to confirm the diagnosis. Only those with a negative result for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies need to be referred for salivary gland biopsy.\",\n \"The international classification criteria for Sjögren's syndrome necessitate the presence of either extractable nuclear antibody or a characteristic focal inflammatory infiltrate in a minor salivary gland. Thus, patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative will need to have a labial salivary gland biopsy, which is an invasive procedure associated with morbidity. The aim of this study was to evaluate the viability of ultrasound imaging of the major salivary glands as a predictor of the histology to explore whether ultrasound can help in stratifying Sjögren's patients and reduce the need for biopsy. The records of 85 patients suspected of having Sjögren's syndrome and who have had biopsy and ultrasound were analysed retrospectively. The histology and the ultrasound were reported by experts independently. The reporting was impartial as the examiners were blinded to the results of the other investigations and to the diagnosis. Out of the 85 patients, 34 had positive ultrasound, 29 of whom also had positive histology. Fifty-one patients had negative ultrasound, of whom 49 were also negative for histological features of Sjögren's syndrome. The results show that the ultrasound had a positive predictive value of 85% and a striking negative predicative value of 96% of the histology results. The overall concordance between the ultrasound and the histology was 91% (Kappa = 0.826).\",\n \"yes. Quantitative immunohistologic criteria were shown to be much more sensitive and disease specific than the widely accepted grade IV lymphocytic adenitis criterion, which corresponds to a lymphocytic focus score greater than 1, and these criteria should be included in the international diagnostic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome.\",\n \"The objective of this paper is to examine whether smoking is associated with autoantibody production in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients, unaffected first-degree relatives (FDR) of individuals with SLE--a group at increased risk of developing SLE--or unaffected, unrelated controls. Detailed demographic, environmental, clinical, and therapeutic information was collected by questionnaire on 1242 SLE patients, 981 FDRs, and 946 controls in the Lupus Family Registry and Repository; a blood sample was obtained. All sera were tested for multiple lupus autoantibodies by immunofluorescence and luminex bead-based assays. Generalized estimating equations, adjusting for age, gender, and ethnicity and accounting for correlation within families, were used to assess smoking status with the dichotomous outcome variables of positivity for SLE status, positivity of ANA by immunofluorescence (≥1:120), positivity for ≥1 autoantibody by the luminex assay, and positivity for each of the 11 autoantibodies. Current smoking was associated with being positive for ≥1 autoantibody (excluding ANA) (adjusted OR = 1.53, 95% CI 1.04-2.24) in our subjects with SLE. No association was observed in unaffected FDRs or healthy controls. Former smoking was associated with anti-Ro/SS-A60 in our unaffected FDRs. There was an increased association with anti-nRNP A seropositivity, as well as a decreased association with anti-nRNP 68 positivity, in current smokers in SLE subjects.\",\n \"The aim of the present study was to evaluate the diagnostic value of quantitative immunohistologic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in labial salivary gland biopsies. Quantitative immunohistologic examination was performed on labial salivary gland biopsy samples from 80 healthy controls, 32 patients with primary SS, 14 patients with secondary SS, 5 with \\\"probable\\\" SS, 36 with keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) with a lymphocytic focus score less than 1 on the lip biopsy, and 18 with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) without clinical evidence of SS. This is the first study to show that immunohistologic criteria for SS, based on the percentages of IgA-containing and IgG-containing plasma cells, are able to 1) confirm the diagnosis of SS in labial salivary glands of KCS patients in the absence of grade IV lymphocytic adenitis; and 2) distinguish between a grade IV focal lymphocytic adenitis in the labial salivary glands of SS patients and of RA patients without SS.\",\n \"Several histological scoring systems, including the focus score, performed in minor salivary glands (MSGs) by hematoxylin-eosin (H&E) staining, have been employed in clinical practice to assess the inflammatory infiltrate and provide the diagnosis of primary Sjo¨gren׳s syndrome (pSS). Aims of this study were to integrate different scoring systems and identify potential differences in the molecular profile of lymphoid cytokines related to germinal center (GC) formation and clinical subsets in pSS. Overall, 104 pSS patients and 40 subjects with sicca non-pSS were retrospectively evaluated. MSG biopsies were evaluated by H&E and immunofluorescence to assess histological pattern, Chisholm and Mason grading system, Tarpley score, a grading for the severity of inflammatory infiltrate, T-/B-cell segregation, and the presence of GC. MSGs from 50 pSS patients and 30 sicca non-pSS patients were processed by real-time PCR to assess LTα, LTβ, BAFF, CXCR4, CXCL12, CXCR5, CXCL13, CCR7, CCL19, and CCL21. GCs presence was associated with anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies, hypergammaglobulinemia, salivary gland swelling, higher Tarpley score and focus score, and extraglandular involvement but, at multivariate analysis, only extraglandular involvement was independently associated to GC. pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those with sicca symptoms. GC(+) pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those GC(-).\",\n \"To evaluate how determination of antibodies against the Ro52 antigen influences the classification and clinical characterisation of patients with suspected primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). The cohort study included 187 patients who fulfilled at least four of the six 1993 SS classification criteria, including positive autoantibodies (antinuclear antibodies [ANA], rheumatoid factor [RF], anti-Ro/SSA and/or anti-La/SS-B antibodies) as mandatory criterium. Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were tested by qualitative ELISA using a commercial assay. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were detected by a semiquantitative ELISA. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were found in 70/187 (37%) patients. A significant percentage of patients with anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were negative for anti-Ro52 antibodies (22%), while 13 patients (12%) were negative for anti-Ro/SSA antibodies but positive for anti-Ro52 antibodies, meaning that they fulfilled the 2002 SS criteria while avoiding the need for a salivary biopsy. Higher mean titers of anti-Ro52 antibodies were associated with severe scintigraphic involvement, positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement, anaemia, leukopenia and RF. A statistical correlation was found between anti-Ro52 titers and age, gammaglobulin levels, RF titers and serum IgA and IgG. Patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA and anti-Ro52 antibodies had a higher frequency of positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement and positive RF, and higher levels of serum IgG and IgA levels in comparison with patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA but negative anti-Ro52 antibodies.\",\n \"To identify serologic markers of salivary gland disease activity in 43 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Comparison of salivary gland biopsies (focus scores) and flow rates with serum concentrations of IgA and IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), total serum IgG, serum anti-SS-B/La antibodies, and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Serum anti-SS-B/La antibody levels correlated with focus scores (rs = 0.477, P < 0.0025). Serum IgA-RF concentrations correlated inversely with stimulated parotid gland salivary flow rates (rs = -0.394, P < 0.01).\",\n \"Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.\",\n \"This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":128,"string":"128"}}},{"rowIdx":273167,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Is routine procaine spirit application necessary in the care of episiotomy wound?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day.","It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound."],"string":"[\n \"A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day.\",\n \"It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. Preincisional administration of epidural lidocaine and fentanyl was associated with a significantly lower rate of morphine use, lower cumulative morphine consumption, and reduced hyperalgesia compared with a sham epidural condition. These results highlight the importance of including a standard treatment control group to avoid the problems of interpretation that arise when two-group studies of preemptive analgesia (preincisional vs. postsurgery) fail to find the anticipated effects.","The purpose of this study was to determine if anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade alters the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) examination. A prospective, multi-center trial was conducted of women undergoing pelvic surgery. A POP-Q examination performed pre-operatively was compared with an examination performed intra-operatively under neuromuscular blockade. For the latter examination, an Allis clamp was used to apply gentle traction until the point being examined did not undergo further descent. International Continence Society (ICS) stages and individual POP-Q points were compared using a paired sample t test. A sample size of 32 provided 80% power to detect a clinically significant difference between office and operating room measurements (Sample Power, SPSS, 1997). Of 153 women, 76% received general endotracheal anesthesia and 21% laryngeal mask airway. With an increase of 3 cm, the apical compartment was significantly more prolapsed in the operating room (OR; p<0.05); however, a comparison of the mean values demonstrated a larger change in means for all points except total vaginal length. When separated into anterior, apical, and posterior compartments, the ICS stages were systematically different in the OR than in the office for all stages (p<0.0005).","To compare the effectiveness of acetaminophen versus acetaminophen-plus-honey following pediatric tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Prospective, randomized, and placebo controlled clinical trial. Tertiary care facility in Ankara, Turkey. Sixty consecutive tonsillectomy patients randomized to two groups. The acetaminophen group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen and placebo, acetaminophen-plus-honey group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen, and honey. Visual analogue scale (VAS) was applied for subjective assessment of postoperative pains, while the number of painkillers taken daily and awakening at night due to pain were used for objective assessment. The amount of epithelization was used for assessment of tonsillary fossa recovery. The difference between acetaminophen and acetaminophen-plus-honey groups was statistically significant both in terms of VAS and number of painkillers taken within the first 2 postoperative days (p<0.001). Although there was no statistically significant difference between groups regarding the VAS scores on the 3rd postoperative day and after, the number of painkillers taken differed significantly until the 8th postoperative day (p<0.001 for first 7 postoperative days; p=0.003 for 8th day). No significant difference was found between groups regarding the number of awakening at night (p=0.36). Tonsillary fossa epithelization was more rapid in the acetaminophen-plus-honey group (p<0.001).","no. There was no difference in hourly bupivacaine consumption in parturients with prior lumbar discectomy surgery undergoing neuraxial labor analgesia in comparison with controls. Time to placement of the epidural catheter was not different either, but more interspaces were attempted in the discectomy group. Our findings suggest that standard clinical neuraxial analgesic methods are effective in women with discectomy surgery.","Uterus-specific synthetic Prostaglandin analogues (gemeprost, sulproston etc.) have been widely employed for termination of pregnancy in the second trimester. Since paracervical anaesthesia may be useful during this procedure, we investigated in this prospective randomised study its impact on the clinical course of abortion and pain especially in the late first and second stage of labour. 20 women scheduled for elective abortion (fetal reasons) between the 16th and 23rd week of gestation were to be given 1 mg gemeprost vaginally every 6 hours. They were allocated at random: 10 women received only Pethidin intravenously and Butylscopolamine rectally, another 10 women were additionally treated by paracervical anaesthesia (2 x 10 ml 0.5% Bupivacain solution) at a cervical dilatation of 2-3 cm. A median of 3 gemeprost applications were administered in both groups. In the group without paracervical anaesthesia the median induction to abortion interval was 20 hours (range: 8-44 hours), 13 hours (range: 8-36 hours, NS) resulting for the paracervical anaesthesia group. The intervals from the last application of prostaglandin until abortion and from 3 cm cervical dilatation to abortion were slightly, but not significantly shorter in the paracervical anaesthesia group. The requirement of Butylscopolamine was higher in the latter group (p<0.05). The requirement of Pethidin and the intensity of pain (measured by pain scale according to Huskisson) especially in the late first stage of labour were not statistically different between both groups. Side effects of paracervical anaesthesia did not occur.","Prevention of post-spinal hypotension in obstetric patients can be accomplished using intravenous fluid expansion and prophylactic use of sympathomimetic drugs. The affect of combination of colloids and phenylephrine infusion on maternal hemodynamics has not been widely studied and there is no consensus about the dosage required and time of starting its administration. This prospective, randomized, double-blind study enrolled 90 healthy term parturients undergoing elective Cesarean delivery under lumbar subarachnoid block (0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 10 mg with fentanyl 25 μg). Patients in Group A received prophylactic intravenous phenylephrine infusion (60 μg/minute) along with hydroxyl-ethyl-starch cohydration (6% HES 130/0.42;15 ml/kg) immediately after subarachnoid block. In Group B, patients received 6% HES cohydration and intermittent intravenous 50 μg boluses of phenylephrine. The efficacy of these in maintaining maternal SBP at 90-110% of baseline and neonatal well-being was evaluated. In Group B, 75.5% of patients required rescue phenylephrine boluses to maintain SBP while maternal hemodynamics were well maintained in Group A and rescue drug was not needed. Reactive hypertension occurred in one patient (2.2%) and bradycardia in two patients (4.4%) in Group A. Six patients complained of nausea in Group B (13.3%) compared to one in Group A. All the newborns had normal Apgar scores and Umbilical arterial pH > 7.2.","These data suggest that transcervical revision of previous cesarean uterine scar should be performed only in symptomatic patients (persistent suprapubic pain, placental retention, excessive bleeding during labor or delivery) or when risk factors are present (prolonged labor, prolonged expulsive efforts, instrumental extraction).","To assess the effectiveness of postoperatively applied pharmacological prophylaxis and the impact of demographic parameters (age, height, weight), gestational age, parturients' morbidity (hypertension, motion sickness), postoperative fluid resuscitation, applied anaesthetic technique (spinal needle type and diameter, patient's positioning, choice of intervertebral space for puncturing dura, a dose of local anaesthetic) on the incidence of PDPH after spinal anaesthesia for Caesarean section. There were analyzed 182 mothers who delivered by Caesarean section under spinal anaesthesia. Postoperative management included fluid administration 2500 ml daily and i.v. antibiotic prophylaxis (control group, n = 560). The consecutive groups of patients were administered antibiotic and fluids in dose as mentioned above, and additionally oral caffeine 3 x 200 mg (n = 40); caffeine plus magnesium 2 x 1 g daily i.v. (n = 42) or caffeine plus magnesium plus aminophylline 250 mg i.v. once daily (n = 40). Incidence of PDPH was analyzed in all the groups of patients. The incidence of PDPH was lower after usage of thin spinal needles (Spinokan 27G), but statistical significance was p = 0.07. The other analyzed factors did not affect the incidence of PDPH. None of the applied pharmacoprophylactic methods appeared to be efficacious. The volume of administered within 18 hours postoperatively crystalloids was larger in the group of patients with multifactorial pharmacoprophylaxis (p = 0.04), probably due vasodilatation caused by synergistic effect of magnesium and aminophylline; explanation of this phenomenon is arguable, however.","Antenatal use of the Epi-No(®) device is unlikely to be clinically beneficial in the prevention of intrapartum levator ani damage, or anal sphincter and perineal trauma.","Most women will sustain some degree of trauma to the genital tract after vaginal birth. This study aimed to examine the association between maternal position at birth and perineal outcome in women who had a midwife-attended, spontaneous vaginal birth and an uncomplicated pregnancy at term. Data from 3,756 births in a major public tertiary teaching hospital were eligible for analysis. The need for sutures in perineal trauma was evaluated and compared for each major factor studied (maternal age, first vaginal delivery, induction of labor, not occipitoanterior, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head and newborn birthweight>3,500 g). Birth positions were compared against each other. Subgroup analysis determined whether birth positions mattered more or less in each of the major factors studied. The chi-square test was used to compare categorical variables. Most women (65.9%) gave birth in the semi-recumbent position. Of the 1,679 women (44.5%) who required perineal suturing, semi-recumbent position was associated with the need for perineal sutures, whereas all-fours was associated with reduced need for sutures; these associations were more marked in first vaginal births and newborn birth weight over 3,500 g. When regional anesthesia was used, semi-recumbent position was associated with a need for suturing, and lateral position associated with a reduced need for suturing. The four major factors significantly related to perineal trauma included first vaginal birth, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head, and newborn weight more than 3,500 g.","In a previous prospective randomized trial, we showed that local anesthetic infusion using a preperitoneal catheter is an effective postoperative analgesic method following colorectal resections. Over time, we have improved the technique of preperitoneal catheter analgesia. In this prospective cohort study, we report the results of 100 consecutive patients who underwent colorectal resections. Preperitoneal catheter analgesia was performed via a multihole catheter placed in the preperitoneal space using 10 mL 0.5% levobupivacaine every 4 hours following the operation for the first 3 days. Additional analgesics were used whenever necessary. Postoperative pain was assessed with the visual analog scale score. Short-term clinical outcomes, such as need for systemic analgesics, time to first gas and stool discharge, length of hospital stay, and morbidity, particularly surgical site infections, were reported. From May 2009 to May 2010, 100 consecutive patients were recruited in the study. A total of 83 patients were operated on for malignancy, and the tumor was located in the rectum in 52 patients and in the colon in 31 patients. The median pain score was 4 (0-6), 3 (0-9), 2 (0-8), 1 (0-8), 1 (0-6), 0 (0-6), and 0 (0-3) at postoperative hours 0, 1, 4, 12, 24, 48, and 72, respectively. Additional analgesics were required in 34 patients: 21 of them required only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and 13 patients needed opioids additionally. The median amounts of opioid analgesics and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were 1.76±0.78 mg and 6.70±1.18 mg, respectively. However, almost all of the additional analgesics were given in the first 24 hours. Surgical site infections were detected in eight patients.","Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)-based antiseptic solutions can reduce bacterial loads in different clinical settings and are believed to lower risk of infections. We sought to assess the efficacy of a PHMB-based solution in lowering bacterial loads of full-thickness skin grafting wounds and the risk of surgical site infections (SSIs). In this double-blinded clinical trial, 40 patients planned for facial full-thickness skin grafting were randomized 1:1 to receive tie-over dressings soaked with either PHMB-based solution or sterile water. Quantitative and qualitative bacterial analysis was performed on all wounds before surgery, at the end of surgery, and 7 days postoperatively. In addition, all patients were screened for nasal colonization of Staphylococcus aureus. Analysis of wounds showed no statistically significant difference in bacterial reductions between the groups. The SSI rates were significantly higher in the intervention group (8/20) than in the control group (2/20) (P = .028). Higher postoperative bacterial loads were a common finding in SSIs (P = .011). This was more frequent when S aureus was present postoperatively (P = .034), intraoperatively (P = .03), and in patients with intranasal S aureus colonization (P = .007). Assessment of SSIs is largely subjective. In addition, this was a single-center study and the total number of participants was 40.","Prilocaine infiltration alone can be used for analgesic purposes efficiently and safely during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy with minimal morbidity.","Topical amethocaine provides effective pain relief during venepuncture in children, and has been shown to have a local anaesthetic action in the newborn.AIM: To investigate the effect of topical amethocaine on the pain of venepuncture in the newborn. Randomised double blind placebo controlled trial. Forty newborn infants, gestation 27-41 weeks (median 33), age 2-17 days (median 7), undergoing routine venepuncture. A 1.5 g portion of 4% (w/w) amethocaine gel (Ametop; Smith and Nephew, Hull, UK) or placebo was applied to the skin under occlusion for one hour, then wiped away. Venepuncture was performed five minutes later. Facial reaction and cry were recorded on videotape. Pain was assessed using a validated adaptation of the neonatal facial coding system. Five features were scored at one second intervals for five seconds before and after venepuncture. No or minimal pain was defined as a cumulative score of below 10 (out of 25) in the five seconds after needle insertion. Each author scored the tapes independently. There was close agreement on scoring of the tapes. One infant was excluded because of restlessness before the venepuncture. Of 19 amethocaine treated infants, 16 (84%) showed little or no pain compared with six of 20 (30%) in the placebo group (p = 0.001). The median cumulative neonatal facial coding system score over five seconds after needle insertion was 3 compared with 16 in the placebo group (p = 0.001). Of the 19 amethocaine treated infants, 15 (79%) did not cry compared with five of 20 (25%) placebo treated infants (p = 0.001). No local reaction to amethocaine was seen.","To see if a eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics (EMLA) could be used effectively for the release of preputial adhesions as a day case procedure. A total of 36 consecutive symptomatic children had their preputial adhesions separated under local anaesthetic with EMLA. The procedure was successful in 27 children. Of these, 16 remained symptom free at 9 to 12 months follow up although five children had slight recurrence of adhesions. The other 11 children were listed for circumcision at 2 weeks following the procedure because of marked recurrence of adhesions.","yes. In this randomized phase II study, application of a single defocused shock wave treatment to the superficial second-degree burn wound after debridement/topical antiseptic therapy significantly accelerated epithelialization. This finding warrants confirmation in a larger phase III trial (ClinicalTrials.gov identifier: NCT01242423).","yes. Daily application of ciprofloxacin otologic solution at the exit site of PD patients with polyurethane catheters inserted significantly reduces the rate of ESI caused by S. aureus and other organisms, particularly P. aeruginosa.","no. The results of this study suggest that the use of a background infusion with PCEA during labor leads to a greater consumption of anesthetic solution without improving comfort and satisfaction of parturients. Moreover, not using a background infusion does not provide an increased incidence of supplemental boluses (which might cause problems in a busy unit) and allows for a substantial reduction in the cost of analgesia.","To examine the necessity of routine cervical dilatation during elective cesarean delivery (ECD). A retrospective cohort study including all ECD during 2005 was performed, comparing post operative complications between patients with and without cervical dilatation. Out of 666 ECD, 348 underwent routine cervical dilatation. No significant differences were found between the cervical dilatation and the comparison group regarding postpartum febrile morbidity (5.1 and 3.1%, respectively; p = 0.071), hospitalisation duration (4.1 +/- 1.4 and 4.1 +/- 2.0 days; p = 0.95), wound infection (0.9% and 1.25%, p = 0.451) or anemia rate (9.50 +/- 0.73 and 9.54 +/- 0.65, p = 0.91). Nevertheless, among patients following a previous vaginal delivery, cervical dilatation was significantly associated with post-operative fever (OR = 5.8; 95%CI 1.2-38.0; p = 0.021).","To evaluate the medium-term effect of epidural analgesia (EA) on the possible onset of postpartum urinary incontinence (PUI). We performed a single-centre, retrospective case-control study. At 8-week postpartum, we recruited a cohort of women who had term singleton pregnancy and foetus in cephalic presentation, and divided in six groups: (1) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, without EA; (2) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, with EA; (3) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, without EA; (4) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, with EA; (5) emergency caesarean section without previous EA during labour and (6) emergency caesarean section with previous EA during labour. For each woman, we recorded age, Body Mass Index (BMI) and the result of the following questionnaire for urinary incontinence: International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire Short Form (ICIQ-SF), Incontinence Impact Questionnaire-7 (IIQ-7) and Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6). Subsequently, we compared group 1 versus group 2, group 3 versus group 4 and group 5 versus group 6. We did not evidence any significant difference for age, BMI and incontinence scores between groups 1 and 2, 3 and 4, and 5 and 6.","yes. Local anesthetic wound irrigation is often used to treat postoperative surgical pain. Large concentrations of local anesthetics are usually used, and these concentrations may have possible neurotoxic and myotoxic effects. Our results demonstrate antiinflammatory effects of lidocaine and bupivacaine at concentrations smaller than used clinically.","In patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria undergoing hip arthroplasty, the risk of prosthetic joint infection (PJI) and appropriateness of specific antibiotics are unclear.QUESTIONS/ We determined (1) the prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria; and (2) the incidence of PJI in patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria managed with or without specific antibiotics. We conducted a prospective, randomized study of all 471 patients without urinary symptoms receiving a total hip arthroplasty (THA; n = 228; average age 68 years; 122 female) or hemiarthroplasty (HA; n = 243; average age 85 years; 170 female) between April 2009 and November 2010. No patients were catheterized in the perioperative period and all received intravenous cefazolin (allergy, vancomycin) for 48 hours postoperatively. Urinalysis was conducted on all patients; if abnormal, a urine culture was performed. Patients with bacteriuria (>100,000 colonies/mL cultured) were randomly assigned to receive specific antibiotics (Group A) or not (Group B). Minimum followup was 1 month including those six who died or were lost to followup (average, 10.4 months; range, 1-12 months). Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurred in eight of 228 patients undergoing THAs (three of eight with specific antibiotics) and 38 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (23 of 38 with specific antibiotics). Arthroplasty infection after 3 months occurred in one of 228 patients undergoing THAs and 12 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (six of 117 in Group A and six of 126 in Group B); bacteria cultured from the wound were dissimilar to those cultured in urine samples in any case. No patient presented signs of PJI by 1 year after the index surgery.","To evaluate the effects of peritonsillar injection of levobupivacaine with epinephrine in children undergoing adenotonsillectomy, through an intraindividual study. 20 children (age 6-13 years) undergoing elective tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy were enrolled in this prospective, randomized, intraindividual trial. After entubation and just prior to incision, 3 ml of 0.25% levobupivacaine with epinephrine was injected into one peritonsillar region while 0.9% saline was being used for the contralateral side. Amount of intraoperative blood loss, duration of tonsillectomy, postoperative pain, otalgia and hemorrhage were assessed for each side separately. Visual analog scale was used for postoperative pain assessment. Heart rate and mean arterial pressure during and after operation were also observed. The follow-up period after surgery was 10 days. Median visual analog scale values for the levobupivacaine with epinephrine injected side was significantly lower than the saline injected side, during the first postoperative 16h (p<0.05). There were also significant differences between the intraoperative blood losses of the two sides (p<0.05). However; no significant differences were observed with respect to duration of surgery, postoperative otalgia and hemorrhage (p>0.05).","The aim of this study was to evaluate the postoperative morphine-sparing effects and reduction in pain and secondary mechanical hyperalgesia after preincisional or postincisional epidural administration of a local anesthetic and an opioid compared with a sham epidural control. Patients undergoing major gynecologic surgery by laparotomy were randomly assigned to three groups and studied in a double-blinded manner. Group 1 received epidural lidocaine and fentanyl before incision and epidural saline 40 min after incision. Group 2 received epidural saline before incision and epidural lidocaine and fentanyl 40 min after incision. Group 3 received a sham epidural control (with saline injected into a catheter taped to the back) before and 40 min after incision. All patients underwent surgery with general anesthesia. One hundred forty-one patients completed the study (group 1, n = 45; group 2, n = 49; group 3, n = 47). Cumulative patient-controlled analgesia morphine consumption at 48 h was significantly lower (P = 0.04) in group 1 (89.8 +/- 43.3 mg) than group 3 (112.5 +/- 71.5 mg) but not group 2 (95.4 +/- 60.2 mg), although the hourly rate of morphine consumption between 24 and 48 h after surgery was significantly lower (P < 0.0009) in group 1 (1.25 +/- 0.02 mg/h) than group 2 (1.41 +/- 0.02 mg/h). Twenty-four hours after surgery, the visual analog scale pain score on movement was significantly less intense (P = 0.005) in group 1 (4.9 +/- 2.2 cm) than group 3 (6.0 +/- 2.6 cm) but not group 2 (5.3 +/- 2.5 cm), and the von Frey pain threshold near the wound was significantly higher (P = 0.03) in group 1 (6.4 +/- 0.6 log mg) than in group 3 (6.1 +/- 0.8 log mg) but not group 2 (6.2 +/- 0.7 log mg).","To evaluate the analgesic effect and utility of prilocaine infiltration alone for minimal morbidity during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. A total of 114 patients with kidney stones, aged 18 to 69 years, were randomly separated into two groups. The 58 patients in group 1 received intramuscular diclophenac 30 minutes before extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, and the 56 patients in group 2 received prilocaine infiltration into the 30 cm2 area below the 12th rib right before the session. A visual analog scale (0 to 100 mm) was used to evaluate pain. The visual analog scale scores for group 2 were statistically lower at 1, 10, and 20 minutes compared with the scores for group 1 (P = 0.006, P = 0.005, and P = 0.006, respectively). However, no difference was detected at the end of the procedure. The requirement for additional analgesic was less in group 2 (P = 0.007).","This study was conducted to estimate the incidence and clinical predictors of post-thoracotomy shoulder pain and to determine the effectiveness of thoracic epidural block in alleviating this pain. A prospective clinical trial. University teaching hospital. Thirty-two adult patients undergoing elective thoracic surgery consented to participate in the study. All operations were open thoracotomies done by the same team of surgeons and anesthesiologists. A thoracic (T6) epidural catheter was placed before induction of general anesthesia. Each patient received 7 mL of lidocaine 2% epidurally and repeated doses of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% every half hour during the operation. Postoperatively, the occurrence of incision or ipsilateral shoulder pain was observed and treated with a maximal dose of 5 mL of lidocaine 2%. If ineffective, indomethacin suppository (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug [NSAID]) was given. Variables such as patient's age, sex, American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status, type, site and duration of surgery, duration of anesthesia, the resection of main bronchus, and the use of thoracostomy tubes were recorded. Postoperatively, 10 patients (31%) had shoulder pain, 4 patients (12.5%) complained of incision pain, and 2 (6.3%) complained of both incision and shoulder pain. A bolus of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% in the epidural catheter relieved incision pain in all the patients, but was ineffective for shoulder pain. Indomethacin suppository was effective in these patients. No correlation was found between any variable and the occurrence of shoulder pain.","As a broader definition of preemptive analgesia, preventive analgesia aims to prevent the sensitization of central nervous system, hence the development of pathologic pain after tissular injury. To demonstrate benefits from preventive treatment, objective measurement of postoperative pain such as wound hyperalgesia and persistent pain should be evaluated. The current study assessed the role and timing of epidural analgesia in this context. In a randomized, double-blinded trial, 85 patients scheduled to undergo neoplastic colonic resection were included. All the patients received a thoracic epidural catheter, systemic ketamine at a antihyperalgesic dose, and general anesthesia. Continuous infusion of analgesics belonging to the same class was administered by either intravenous or epidural route before incision until 72 h after surgery. Patients were allocated to four groups to receive intraoperative intravenous lidocaine-sufentanil-clonidine or epidural bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine followed postoperatively by either intravenous (lidocaine-morphine-clonidine) or epidural (bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine) patient-controlled analgesia. Postoperative pain scores (visual analog scale), analgesic consumption, wound area of punctuate hyperalgesia, residual pain, and analgesics needed from 2 weeks until 12 months were recorded. Analgesic requirements, visual analog scale scores, and area of hyperalgesia were significantly higher in the intravenous treatment group (intravenous-intravenous), and more patients reported residual pain from 2 weeks until 1 yr (28%). Although postoperative pain measurements did not differ, postoperative epidural treatment (intravenous-epidural) was less effective to prevent residual pain at 1 yr (11%; P = 0.2 with intravenous-intravenous group) than intraoperative one (epidural-epidural and epidural-intravenous groups) (0%; P = 0.01 with intravenous-intravenous group).","yes. vaginal bilateral cervical lips suture can prevent intrauterine balloon prolapse, which may be a useful adjunct to intrauterine balloon tamponade in management of postpartum hemorrhage.","Women experienced slightly more second-degree tears when residents were involved in their deliveries. The increased number of second-degree tears might be because of residents' limited experience in providing intrapartum care. More important, there was no increase in other serious perineal trauma or episiotomy when residents provided supervised intrapartum care. This should reassure women and family practice obstetricians who choose to receive and provide obstetric care in a family practice teaching unit. The increase in rates of epidural use and cesarean sections and the decrease in rates of vacuum-assisted births reflect obstetric trends in Canada over the past decade.","To investigate whether episiotomy is associated with avulsion of the levator ani in its pubic insertion after normal vaginal delivery. This is an observational study at a tertiary obstetric unit recruited 194 primiparous women who had normal vaginal delivery with or without episiotomy. All women underwent translabial 4D ultrasound scanning after delivery. Tomographic ultrasound imaging was used to diagnose levator avulsion. Lesions were recorded as unilateral or bilateral. The investigators were blinded to all clinical data. The influence of other variables associated with delivery such as maternal age, body mass index, gestational age, birth weight, fetal head circumference, and use of epidural anesthesia was recorded and their relation with avulsion was also studied. Avulsion was identified in eleven (10.9%) of the 101 women with episiotomy and in fourteen (15.1%) of the 93 women without. The difference was not statistically significant (P = 0.401). Other variables showed no influence on the prevalence of avulsion.","Does local injection with lidocaine plus epinephrine prior to vaginal reconstructive surgery with synthetic mesh affect exposure rates? A retrospective comparison. To determine if local injection, prior to incision with lidocaine plus epinephrine (L + E) influences the rate of mesh exposure in the early postoperative period following synthetic mesh augmented vaginal reconstructive surgery (MAVR). We performed a chart review over an 18-month period of patients who underwent MAVR. The presence of mesh exposure at the 3-month postoperative visit, demographic data and whether or not L + E was used to hydrodissect was recorded. Statistical analysis was performed to determine whether hydrodissection influenced erosion rates. A total of 143 meshes were placed, hydrodissection with L + E was used in 78 cases and was not in the remaining 65 cases. There were 10 (7.0% 10/143) total erosions at the 3-month postoperative visit, 6 (7.7%; 6/78) in the group that got L + E and 4 (6.2%; 4/65) in the group that did not get local injection. This difference was not significant (p = 0.740, OR 1.54 95% CI 0.41-5.76). There was no difference between the two groups in terms of age, presence of diabetes, concurrent incontinence repair or estimated blood loss.","To determine the carriage rate of enterococcus in the lower genital tract of women having a cesarean delivery and to determine whether a single 2-g intraoperative dose of ampicillin eradicates enterococcus from the lower genital tract. Lower genital tract cultures were taken in 84 women who were in labor or had ruptured membranes and who were about to have an indicated cesarean delivery. The subjects were randomized to receive either a single 2-g dose of ampicillin or a cephalosporin as prophylaxis. Cultures were repeated 24 hours postpartum. Enterococcus was isolated preoperatively in 33 subjects (39.3%) and postoperatively in 36 (42.9%). The enterococcus was eradicated in five of 17 women (29.5%) who received ampicillin.","To evaluate the effects of not forming a bladder flap at lower-segment cesarean delivery. A total of 102 women who underwent cesarean delivery were prospectively randomized to one of two groups. In the study group (n = 53), a cesarean was performed without formation of a bladder flap. In the control group (n = 49), cesarean was performed with formation of a bladder flap before the uterine incision. There were differences of median skin incision-delivery interval (5 versus 7 minutes, P<.001), median total operating time (35 versus 40 minutes, P =.004), and median blood loss (Delta hemoglobin 0.5 versus 1 g/dL, P =.009) in favor of the study group. Postoperative microhematuria was reduced in the study group (21% versus 47%, P<.01). The median need for analgesics was reduced in the study group (75.0 mg diclofenac versus 150.0 mg, P<.001), and there was a lower percentage of patients receiving analgesics 2 or more days after cesarean in the study group (26.4% versus 55.1%, P =.006). There was no difference in bowel function.","To evaluate the efficacy of oral sucrose combined with non-nutritive sucking for reducing pain associated with retinopathy of prematurity screening. This was a randomised controlled study of 64 infants undergoing eye examination for retinopathy of prematurity screening. Topical anaesthetic (Proparacaine; Alcaine(®) drop 0.5%: ALCON CANADA Inc., Mississauga, Canada) was applied 30 sec before the eye examination in all infants. The infants in intervention group (Group 1, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of 24% sucrose with a pacifier. The control group (Group 2, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of sterile water with a pacifier. The groups had similar gestational ages (28.5 ± 2.8 weeks), mean birthweight (1304 ± 466 g) or corrected gestational age (35.4 ± 3.7 weeks) at examination. The intervention group had a significantly lower mean Premature Infant Pain Profile score during examination of the first eye, following insertion of the speculum (Group 1:13.7 ± 2.1 vs. Group 2:16.4 ± 1.8, p = 0.001).","Mediolateral episiotomy is associated with lower rates of significant perineal tears than midline episiotomy. However, the relationship between precise angle of episiotomy from the perineal midline and risk of third-degree tear has not been established. This study quantifies this relationship. Case-control study. National Maternity Hospital, Dublin, Ireland. One hundred primiparous women who had undergone right mediolateral episiotomy 3 months previously. Two groups of primiparous women were compared. Cases had sustained clinically apparent anal sphincter injury during delivery, while controls had not. The angle of episiotomy measured from the midline was marked on a superimposed sheet of transparent plastic film and measured using a protractor. Data were analysed using Student's t test, chi-square test and logistic regression analysis. Angle of mediolateral episiotomy from the perineal midline. Fifty-four cases and 46 controls were assessed. Cases were more likely to have undergone assisted delivery and consequently to have been delivered by an obstetrician than by a midwife. The mean angle of episiotomy measured significantly smaller in cases (30 degrees, 95% CI 28-32 degrees) than in controls (38 degrees, 95% CI 35-41 degrees; P<0.001). Analysis showed a 50% relative reduction in risk of sustaining third-degree tear for every 6 degrees away from the perineal midline that an episiotomy was cut.","Vaginal birth after a prior low transverse caesarean section (VBAC) is advocated as a safe and effective method to reduce the total caesarean section rate. However, the risk of uterine rupture has dampened the enthusiasm of practising clinicians for VBAC. Uterine rupture occurs more frequently in women receiving prostaglandins in preparation for the induction of labour. We hypothesised that similar to the cervix, prostaglandins induces biochemical changes in the uterine scar favouring dissolution, predisposing the uterus to rupture at the scar of the lower segment as opposed to elsewhere. We tested aspects of this hypothesis by investigating the location of uterine rupture associated with prostaglandins and compared it with the sites of rupture in the absence of prostaglandins. Two North American University Hospitals. Twenty-six women with a prior caesarean section, experiencing uterine rupture in active labour. Retrospective review of all pregnancies complicated by uterine rupture at two North American teaching hospitals from 1991 to 2000. Site of the uterine rupture. Thirty-four women experienced rupture after a previous caesarean section with low transverse uterine incision. Ten of the women who ruptured (29%) received prostaglandins for cervical ripening (dinoprostone: n= 8 or misoprostol: n= 2) followed by either spontaneous contractions (n= 3) or oxytocin augmentation during labour (n= 7). In 16 women (47%), oxytocin alone was sufficient for the induction/augmentation of labour. Eight (23%) women ruptured at term before reaching the active phase of labour in the absence of pro-contractile agents or attempted VBAC. There were no differences among the groups in terms of age, body mass index, parity, gestational age, fetal weight or umbilical cord pH measurements. Women treated with prostaglandins experienced rupture at the site of their old scar more frequently than women in the oxytocin-alone group whose rupture tended to occur remote from their old scar (prostaglandins 90%vs oxytocin 44%; OR: 11.6, 95% CI: 1.2-114.3).","EMLA cream (AstraZeneca Inc, Canada) (1:1 eutectic mixture of lidocaine 2.5% and prilocaine 2.5%) has traditionally been used for topical anesthesia of the skin. Recent reports of EMLA's use for anesthesia of the oral mucosa suggest an application in topical anesthesia for bronchoscopy. To evaluate the amount of local anesthetic administered during bronchoscopy; to assess the time required to obtain topical anesthesia; to assess the quality of the topical anesthesia as described by bronchoscopists; and to document any complications. Fifty-seven unpremedicated patients had 4 mL of EMLA cream applied to the posterior third of their tongues on arrival in the bronchoscopy suite. Liquid lidocaine was applied through the bronchoscope for laryngeal anesthesia. The mean time from the application of EMLA cream to insertion of the bronchoscope was 5.10+/-0.48 min. Fifty-six patients (98.2%) required no supplemental anesthesia. Bronchoscopy conditions were described as 'excellent' in 55 cases (96.5%) and 'good' in the remaining two cases (3.5%).","yes. This simple, low-cost umbilical vacuum dressing decreased the wound infection rate after SIPES appendectomy, possibly by absorbing secretions from the base of the wound. It may be equally effective for other indications.","Epidural patient-controlled analgesia (EPCA) with a mixture of low-concentration levobupivacaine (0.0625% or 0.1%) plus fentanyl, with basal infusion, has been extensively used for postoperative analgesia in our allied institutions. To elucidate whether these two EPCA regimens provide satisfactory analgesia, we compared the analgesia efficacy and incidence of drug-related side effects for both EPCA regimens with those of the most widely used postoperative analgesia regimen, intra-venous PCA (IVPCA) with morphine. Data collection was performed through retrospective chart review. A total of 335 patients who underwent colorectal surgery were included. Patients received IVPCA (n = 200), EPCA with 0.0625% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 45), or EPCA with 0.1% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 90). The analgesia efficacy and side effects were compared. Pain scores with 0.0625% and 0.1% EPCA were significantly lower than those with IVPCA. Most patients were satisfied with their postoperative analgesia, and the satisfaction scores of these three groups were comparable. No patients developed respiratory depression or over-sedation. The incidence of nausea and vomiting was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (16.7% and 7.8%, respectively) compared with IVPCA (6.1% and 3.5%, respectively) and 0.0625% EPCA (9.3% and 2.3%, respectively). Moreover, the incidence of sensory and motor blockade was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (13.5% and 5.6%, respectively) than with 0.0625% EPCA (4.7% and 0%, respectively).","There is conflicting data in the literature regarding the risk of obstetric anal sphincter laceration in patients with a prior laceration. This retrospective chart review seeks to examine the risk of recurrence of obstetric anal sphincter lacerations. Patients who sustained anal sphincter laceration at delivery during a 13-year time period from January 1991 to December 2003 were identified from the medical records database at Temple University Hospital. All subsequent deliveries in this group of patients were extracted from the database. Chart review was performed on all subsequent deliveries with specific attention to demographic factors such as age, race, parity, etc., maternal weight, fetal weight, presence of maternal diabetes, and labor characteristics such as induction or augmentation of labor, instrumentation at delivery (vacuum or forceps), use of episiotomy, and degree of perineal laceration. There were 23 451 vaginal deliveries at Temple University Hospital between January 1, 1991 and December 31, 2003. Anal sphincter laceration was noted in 778 subjects. Subsequent deliveries among the group of patients with prior sphincter tears numbered 271. Six (2.4%) patients had recurrence of anal sphincter lacerations, and five of them were third degree lacerations. The rate of recurrent lacerations was not significantly different from the rate of initial lacerations (2.4% vs. 3.3%; odds ratio 0.72, 95% confidence interval 0.33-1.59; p = 0.4). Women who sustained recurrent lacerations were older, more obese (mean weight 92 kg vs. 82 kg), had larger babies (3506 g vs. 3227 g), and were more likely to have episiotomies (66.7% vs. 7%) or instrumental deliveries (33.3 vs. 6.5%).","To estimate whether variations in intrapartum management and complications exist with regard to the time of delivery within the academic year. The delivery records of 7814 patients were separated by both term half year and quarter. Statistical comparisons were made using chi2 tests of association (P<.05) with respect to the academic time of the year and perineal trauma (third- or fourth-degree tear), episiotomy usage, cesarean delivery, postpartum hemorrhage, chorioamnionitis, shoulder dystocia, neonatal intensive care unit admission, 1- or 5-minute Apgar scores less than 7, and low umbilical cord pH. There were 4082 deliveries in the first half and 3732 in the second half of the year from April 1996 through March 1999. The first half-year overall cesarean rate was higher (15.8% versus 14.3%, P<.03). Primary cesarean rates were similar. No other differences were found by term half year. More perineal trauma was noted in the fourth quarter (first 3.3%, second 4.5%, third 3.7%, fourth 5.5%, P<.037). Episiotomy usage was higher in both the first and fourth quarters (13.0%, 11.3%, 10.6%, and 14.8%, P<.002). More cases of chorioamnionitis occurred in the fourth quarter (first 3.4%, second 3.1%, third 2.6%, fourth 4.0%, P<.038, third versus fourth quarter). Chorioamnionitis occurred more frequently in July (July 5.0% versus August-June 3.1%, P<.005). There were no other clinically significant differences. Neonatal outcomes were not affected by academic time of year.","To determine whether perineal massage during the second stage of labor using oil enriched with vitamins, increases the chances of delivering with an intact perineum as compared to perineal massage using pure liquid wax. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study was conducted. Women were assigned to liquid wax (jojoba oil) versus purified formula of almond and olive oil, enriched with vitamin B1, B2, B6, E and fatty acids. The caregivers used the oils during the second stage of labor. A total of 164 women undergoing vaginal delivery were recruited. No significant differences regarding perineal lacerations, number of sutures and length of suturing were noted between the two groups. Likewise, while analyzing separately nulliparous and multiparous women, no significant differences were noted. Controlling for birth weight>4000 g, using the Mantel-Haenszel technique, no association was noted between perineal lacerations and the type of oil used (weighted OR = 0.9, 95% CI 0.3-2.4; p = 0.818).","Post-tonsillectomy pain is believed to be mediated by noxious stimulation of C-fiber afferents located in the peritonsillary space, and local anesthetic infiltration to this area may decrease pain by blocking the sensory pathways and thus preventing the nociceptive impulses. We aimed to compare the effects of different concentrations of preincisional peritonsillar levobupivacaine (0.25% and 0.5%) infiltration on postoperative pain and bleeding in a placebo-controlled design. After obtaining Institutional Ethics Committee approval, 72 ASA I-II patients between 3 and 12 years of age, scheduled to undergo tonsillectomy were enrolled and randomly assigned to one of the three groups using the sealed envelope technique, as Group I (Control group), Group II, and Group III receiving preincisional bilateral peritonsillar infiltration with saline, 0.25% levobupivacaine and 0.5% levobupivacaine, respectively (3 mL to each tonsil). Pain, fever, dysphagia; nausea-vomiting and hemorrhage were evaluated at postoperative 0, 30, and 60 minutes and 2, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Oral paracetamol was administered at a dose of 15 mg/kg when FLACC score was>4. The number of paracetamol administrations within the first 24 hours were recorded. The patients in Groups I, II and III defined pain (FLACC>4) at a rate of 87%, 60.9%, and 54.2% within the postoperative first 24 hours, respectively. The total number of additional analgesic requirements was significantly low in Group II and III when compared with Group I. There was no difference between groups in terms of fever, dysphagia, nausea-vomiting, hemorrhage.","yes. Pain relief was inadequate in patients undergoing postpartum tubal ligation under local anesthesia, even after the administration of IM morphine. Instilling lidocaine into the abdominal cavity, however, effectively decreased intraoperative pain in these patients.","We conducted a randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial to evaluate the effectiveness of intraperitoneal lidocaine, IM morphine, or both drugs together for pain relief in postpartum tubal ligation. Eighty postpartum patients scheduled to have tubal sterilization were randomly divided into four groups to receive IM isotonic sodium chloride solution (1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group P); IM morphine (10 mg in 1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group M); IM injection of isotonic sodium chloride solution and intraperitoneal instillation of 0.5% lidocaine in 80 mL (Group L); and both IM morphine and intraperitoneal lidocaine instillation (Group ML). The minilaparotomy was performed after local infiltration with 15 mL of 1% lidocaine. A numerical rating score was used to rate pain on a 0-10 scale during the surgical procedures. The mean pain scores were 1.2 in Group L and 0.8 in Group ML. These pain scores were significantly lower than those in Groups P and M, which were 5.5 and 6.0, respectively (P < 0.001).","Episiotomy procedures during normal singleton vaginal term deliveries in Catalonia has decreased steadily since 2007. Study results show a stable incidence trend below 1% for severe perineal trauma over the study period.","To analyze the effects of epidural analgesia for labor when dystocia occurs. Retrospective cohort study. Academic health center. 641 low risk, nulliparous women in spontaneous labor. 406 (63%) women received epidurals analgesia and 253 (37%) did not. Sixty women (9.4%) required an abdominal delivery for dystocia. Women receiving epidural analgesia were more likely to be white, receive care from an attending physician, need labor augmentation, and deliver a heavier infant. Multivariate analysis identified five variables predictive of dystocia and abdominal delivery: pitocin augmentation odds ratio (O.R.) = 3.9 (2.0 to 7.6), duration of labor more than 20 hours O.R. = 2.4 (1.3 to 4.4), high epidural dose O.R. = 2.2 (1.2 to 4.1), birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.0 (1.0 to 4.2), and early placement of epidural O.R. = 1. 9 (1.0 to 3.5). Repeating the regression after excluding the 20 women who developed abnormal labor prior to epidural placement (18 of 20 women had protracted dilatation) demonstrated that pitocin augmentation O.R. = 4.0 (1.8 to 4.), high epidural dose O.R. = 3.0 (1.9 to 6.2), duration of labor greater than 20 hours O.R. = 2.7 (1.3 to 5.7), and birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.1 (0. 9 to 4.8) were associated with dystocia.","The objective of this study was to explore the relation between the application of a mixture of lidocaine/prilocaine cream (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics [EMLA]) before intravenous cannula insertion and perceived pain in the pediatric patient. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial. A general inpatient pediatric ward. We examined 26 male and 31 female patients between the ages of 4 and 12 years who required intravenous cannula insertion. Intravenous insertion was performed on 57 patients, with 29 patients in the placebo group (mean age, 8.1 years) and 28 in the EMLA group (mean age, 8.0 years). Application of either EMLA cream or placebo 45 minutes before intravenous cannulation. Pain was scored by the patients using a 0- to 10-cm visual analogue scale combined with a Faces pain scale as well as visual observation by a nurse. Adverse side effects were recorded in a separate table. Data collected and the differences between the placebo and treated groups were tested using a Mann-Whitney U test. Those children in the EMLA group (mean pain score, 1.25) experienced less pain than those in the placebo group (mean, 8.39). There was no statistical significance between age, sex, and race.","To compare cesarean section (CS) using open or closed visceral peritoneum of the bladder flap (BF) in relation to fluid collection in vesico-uterine space (VUS) by ultrasound (US) and clinical outcome. A prospective cohort of repeat CS in 474 in advanced first and second stage of labor was studied. All women underwent a Misgav Ladach CS, in local combined anesthesia. These were divided into two groups by surgical management of the BF at the time of CS: Group I (n = 262), with visceral peritoneum left open and Group II (n = 212), with visceral peritoneum closed. An US check for the fluid collections in the VUS was done in the third post-operative day. The two groups were also clinically compared for: intra-operative estimated blood loss, the need for post-CS pain killers, febrile morbidity and duration of hospital stay. Visceral peritoneum (VP) closure resulted in a significant increase blood collections in the VUS (p<0.05). VP closure resulted in a significantly higher morbidity in all the following parameters. Rate of BFHs, post-operative fever, need for post-operative analgesia, require antibiotic administration and prolonged hospitalisation (p<0.05).","Preoperative oral acetaminophen (30 mg x kg(-1)) was compared with topical 2% lidocaine ear drops for postoperative analgesia following bilateral myringotomy and tube placement (BMT) in children. In a randomized, prospective, double-blind trial, we studied 124 patients, six months to eight years, ASA physical status I or II, undergoing elective BMT under general anesthesia. The patients in Group I received acetaminophen 30 mg x kg(-1) orally in a grape flavoured syrup 30 to 60 min before surgery and 0.9% saline drops (placebo) in each ear upon insertion of tympanostomy tube. Patients in Group II received a placebo (grape flavoured syrup) before surgery and 2% lidocaine, 0.5 mL in each ear when ear tubes were inserted. Postoperative pain assessments were recorded every five minutes in the postanesthesia care unit, and every 15 min in the day care surgical unit (DCSU) using the modified Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario pain scale (mCHEOPS), a ten-point scale. Pain at home was documented by parents using a 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain imaginable) scale. The median (range) mCHEOPS scores in the DCSU at 15 and 30 min were similar, i.e., 5 (4-9) in the acetaminophen group and 4 (4-8) in the lidocaine group. The proportion of patients receiving supplemental analgesics in the 24 hr following surgery was similar in both groups (45% and 42% respectively).","Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at operative vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 2041 consecutive operative vaginal deliveries and compared yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1984 and 1994 the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries fell significantly (93.4% to 35.7%, R2 = 0.85, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a rise in the rate of vaginal lacerations (16.1% to 40.0%, R2 = 0.80, p = 0.0002), a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations (12.2% to 5.4%, R2 = 0.62, p = 0.004), but no significant change in the rate of third-degree lacerations. These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and type of instrument used for delivery. The prevalence of other previously reported risks for perineal morbidity did not change during the study period.","To examine trends in obstetric interventions in women at low risk over approximately 3 years. It was postulated that there would be a general reduction in most intervention rates. Retrospective review of hospital records. Three downtown hospitals of the University of Toronto, in which academic and nonacademic family physicians and obstetricians practised. A total of 2365 women in phase 1 (April 1985 to March 1986) and 1277 in phase 2 (May to September 1988) met the inclusion criteria for grade A (pregnancy at no predictable risk) of the Ontario Antenatal Record at the time of admission to hospital. Rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction, augmentation, epidural anesthesia, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), instrumental delivery, episiotomy and cesarean section. The family physicians and the obstetricians had significant decreases (p<0.01) over time in the rates of episiotomy, especially mediolateral, and low forceps delivery. The rate of epidural anesthesia decreased significantly in the obstetrician group. The rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction and continuous EFM increased in the two physician groups; the increased rate of EFM was significant in the obstetrician group (p<0.01). There was no significant change in the rates of augmentation, midforceps delivery, vacuum extraction or cesarean section. All of the trends were found to hold when the intervention rates were analysed according to the women's parity.","Local anaesthetic infusions into the surgical wound have been shown to reduce postoperative pain and the need for opioids in adults. In children, it was found to be safe and efficacious following sternotomy and orthopaedic surgery. The aim of this study was to evaluate the need for opioids postoperatively in children receiving wound catheters delivering either bupivacaine or saline following one of three defined abdominal or bladder procedures. Prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo controlled study. Thirty-three children, 6 months of age to 13 years of age, undergoing elective surgery for enterostomy closure, open gastrostomy or ureteral reimplantation were randomized to receive bupivacaine or saline wound infusions for 72 h postoperatively. All patients received acetaminophen orally or rectally for every 6 h. Breakthrough pain was treated with morphine bolus doses of 0.05 mg/kg or infusions if more than three morphine doses were required. Pain scores were assessed every 3 h. Outcome measures were morphine dosages, return to full oral intake and length of hospital stay. On the first postoperative day, patients with bupivacaine infusions had significantly less need for morphine (1.3 ± 1.3 SD doses) compared to those receiving saline infusions (3.1+/2.5 SD doses, p < 0.05). No difference was seen during postoperative day two or three. There was no significant difference between the groups regarding time to full oral intake and time to discharge.","This prospective study aims to compare maternal and neonatal effects of spinal and general anesthesia for elective cesarean section. Term parturients receiving routine spinal (Group SA, n=95) or general (Group GA, n=93) anesthesia and standard postoperative analgesia for elective cesarean section were included in this study. Operation time, incision-hysterotomy (TS-H) and hysterotomy-umbilical cord clamping (TH-U) intervals, oxytocine requirement, intraoperative fluids, ephedrine requirement, incidence of hypotension, time to first analgesic requirement (Tanalg), pethidine consumption, adverse events, time to first breastfeeding, oral food intake (TOI), flatulence (TF), defecation (TD), mobilization, and postoperative hospital stay were compared between the groups. Newborn Apgar scores, umbilical venous blood gas analysis, incidence of hypoglycemia, nutritional support, phototherapy and ventilatory support were also analyzed. Spinal anesthesia was associated with longer TS-H and TH-U durations, lower oxytocine requirements, higher incidence of hypotension, increased ephedrine and fluid consumption, and delayed Tanalg. Furthermore, TOI, TF, TD and postoperative hospital stay was shorter in patients given spinal anesthesia when compared with patients given general anesthesia (48h vs. 52 h, respectively; p<0.01). No difference in postoperative analgesic consumption and neonatal outcomes, except 1st min Apgar scores and umbilical blood gas analysis, was detected.","yes. This prospective, randomized, single-blind study demonstrates that a single dose of intraoperative Sensorcaine provides a safe, inexpensive, and efficacious way to significantly shorten the length of postanesthesia care unit stay and significantly decrease postoperative opioid analgesic use in patients undergoing ambulatory reduction mammaplasty.","We questioned whether it is feasible in the current era of cost consciousness to perform standard open pediatric urological procedures on an outpatient basis while maintaining patient safety and satisfaction. We report on 51 consecutive patients 2 months to 13 years old (mean age 4 years 3 months) who underwent a standard open pediatric urological procedure between August 1999 and June 2000. The procedures included ureteral reimplantation in 22 cases (tapered in 2), pyeloplasty in 20, partial nephrectomy in 2, nephrectomy in 2, complete ureterocele reconstruction in 1 and other in 4. The expectation that the procedure would be performed on an outpatient basis was discussed with parents preoperatively. We excluded only cases requiring bowel for reconstruction. A caudal block was administered at the start of the procedure using 0.25% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine at a dose of 1 cc/kg. The wound was infiltrated with 1 cc/kg. 0.25% bupivacaine and 0.5 mg./kg. ketorolac was administered at the end of the procedure. As soon as the child awakened, an age appropriate diet was started and 0.5 to 1 mg./kg. codeine with acetaminophen was given every 4 hours. Of the 51 children 44 (86%) were discharged home the day of surgery. Average postoperative hospitalization was 7 hours. One of the 44 children discharged home required a single catheterization elsewhere. There were no other complications or repeat hospitalizations.","Patient information leaflets (PILs) are an important source of information for patients postoperatively. There are currently no nationally agreed standards by dermatologists for postoperative advice following skin surgery.AIM: To assess the common themes and areas of variation in advice given in PILs after skin surgery across all National Health Service (NHS) hospitals in England and Wales. All acute trusts in England (n = 159) and local health boards in Wales (n = 7) were requested to provide their postoperative dermatological PILs for general sutured wound care or excision biopsy. Eight preselected parameters were assessed: minimum dressing duration, duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, postoperative analgesia, explanation of infection signs, application of petroleum jelly, scarring, whom to contact if there is a problem, and the recommended postoperative time for abstaining from active exercise. PILs were received from 137 different dermatology departments belonging to 127/166 (76.5%) organisations across England and Wales. Of these, 102 PILs gave a specific duration for dressings: 45/102 (44.1%) advised a minimum of 48 h, but 28/102 (27.5%) recommended leaving dressings in place until suture removal. Regarding duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, 117 PILs gave advice, with the most common recommendation being 15 min (30/117, 25.6%), followed closely by 10 min (26/117, 22.2%). Of the 137 PILs received, 125 gave advice regarding postoperative analgesia, with paracetamol alone being the most common recommendation (24/125, 19.2%). For the remaining parameters, 111/137 (81.0%) PILs described ≥ 2 signs of infection, 42/137 (30.7%) recommended the application of petroleum jelly, 65/137 (47.4%) mentioned scarring, 137/137 (100%) highlighted whom to contact if there were postoperative problems and 87/137 (63.5%) PILs gave advice regarding postoperative abstinence from active exercise.","Wound infiltration with local anaesthetic following appendicectomy in children provides no additional benefit over regular simple analgesia. Its routine use represents dogmatic practise which ought to be challenged for this patient group.","We suggest that application of topical lidocaine with adrenaline seems to be a safe and easy medication for local anesthetic use. However, in our study, lidocaine with adrenaline offered no advantage over placebo in the control of post-operative pain and other morbidity related factors following pediatric tonsillectomy. We therefore do not recommend topical application of lidocaine with adrenaline for reducing morbidity in pediatric tonsil surgery.","yes. 0.025% ropivacaine PCEA combined with fentanyl and epinephrine provided effective pain relief after cesarean section with early ambulation and without sensory loss, urinary retention, or increase of side-effects.","Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at spontaneous vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 17,483 consecutive spontaneous vaginal deliveries and compared the yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1976 and 1994 the use of episiotomy fell significantly (86.8% to 10.4%, R2 = 0.92, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a fall in the rate of third- and fourth-degree lacerations (9.0% to 4.2%, R2 = 0.59, p = 0.0001) and a rise in the rate of intact perinea (10.3% to 26.5%, R2 = 0.68, p = 0.0001) and vaginal lacerations (5.4% to 19.3%, R2 = 0.77, p = 0.0001). These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and birth weight, except for the subgroup of nulliparous women with macrosomic infants.","To explore the association between midline episiotomy and the risk of third- and fourth-degree lacerations during operative vaginal delivery with either vacuum extractor or forceps. This retrospective cohort study analyzed all operative vaginal deliveries at a university hospital in 1989 and 1990. Univariate analysis of the relationships between perineal lacerations and obstetric variables was performed. Stratified analysis using the relevant variables was used to calculate relative risk (RR) estimates. Episiotomy, birth weight, and whether the index birth was the first vaginal birth were associated with third- and fourth-degree perineal lacerations. Stratified analysis demonstrated an RR of 2.4 with a 95% confidence interval of 1.7-3.5 for rectal injury with episiotomy, adjusting for parity and birth weight.","At our institution a statistically and clinically significant reduction in the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries was not associated with a change in the rate of third-degree lacerations but was associated with an increase in the rate of vaginal lacerations and a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations.","To analyse the significance of risk factors and the role of episiotomy in preventing obstetric anal sphincter injury at vaginal delivery. This is a retrospective cross-sectional study in the Norfolk and Norwich University Hospital in the UK. All caesarean sections and non-vertex presentations were excluded, which resulted in a study population of 10,314 deliveries. Obstetric anal sphincter injury (OASI) was defined as third or fourth degree tears to the anal sphincter muscles, with or without a tear involving the anal mucosa. First a univariate analysis was done to identify factors that had a significant association with OASI. Factors included parity, age, gestation, labour induction method, duration of second stage, use of epidural analgesia, episiotomy, method of delivery, time and month of delivery, and birth weight. All factors were then combined in a multivariate logistic regression analysis. The multivariate analysis was then repeated including only factors that had a significant association with OASI in the univariate analysis. Adjusted odds ratios with 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated. The frequency of anal sphincter lacerations was 3.2%. There were statistically significant associations between an increased incidence of OASI and parity, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia. Women giving birth without a mediolateral episiotomy were 1.4 times more likely to experience OASI (95% CI 1.021-1.983). Interestingly, the incidence of OASI has risen between 2005 and 2007.","Obstetric perineal wound infection is a complication of perineal trauma during vaginal delivery; however, it is difficult to establish its true incidence as women present for treatment to their GP or the hospital.AIM: To establish the incidence and risk factors of wound infection in postpartum women with sutured tears. A 3-month prospective audit was carried out on all women who sustained sutured tears. Wound infection was defined as the presence of any two of the following markers: perineal pain, wound dehiscence, or purulent vaginal discharge. A total of 341 women were contacted by telephone 21 days post-delivery and asked about markers for perineal wound infection and antibiotic use. In total, 409 women sustained sutured perineal tears, including episiotomies, and first, second, third and fourth degree tears. Of the 341 (83%) women contacted, 39 (11%) had a perineal wound infection based on the criteria of any two infection markers. Sixteen(5%) women had all three markers of wound infection. Prolonged rupture of membranes and instrumental delivery was a significant risk factor for women with two and three markers of wound infection,respectively.","To examine the rate of episiotomy use among nulliparous Yemeni women, and to evaluate its impact on perineal tears. We retrospectively reviewed the delivery record for all nulliparous women with and without episiotomy and singleton spontaneous births at Al-Thawra General Hospital, Sana'a, Yemen between January and December 2008. The womens' charts were retrieved, and the demographic characteristics were obtained. For women with episiotomy, the indication and type of incision were noted. The rate of the procedure and the perineal tears was recorded, and compared between women with and without episiotomy. A total of 2588 nulliparous women had singleton spontaneous births. Out of these, 1944 (75.1%) women had an episiotomy. Most cases (96%) had a mediolateral incision. Seventeen episiotomy cases (0.87%) were complicated by second and third degree perineal tears versus 12 cases (1.7%) with the same type of tear in women without the procedure.","Prior anal sphincter laceration does not result in an increased rate of recurrence. Operative vaginal delivery particularly with episiotomy is a risk factor for both initial and recurrent laceration.","To determine the risk factors for anal sphincter injuries during operative vaginal delivery. A population-based observational study. All 21 254 women delivered with vacuum extraction and 7478 women delivered with forceps, derived from the previously validated Dutch National Obstetric Database from the years 1994 to 1995. Anal sphincter injury was defined as any injury, partial or complete, of the anal sphincters. Risk factors were determined with multivariate logistic regression analysis. Individual obstetric factors, e.g. fetal birthweights, duration of second stage, etc. Anal sphincter injury occurred in 3.0% of vacuum extractions and in 4.7% of forceps deliveries. Primiparity, occipitoposterior position and fetal birthweight were associated with an increased risk for anal sphincter injury in both types of operative vaginal delivery, whereas duration of second stage was associated with an increased risk only in vacuum extractions. Mediolateral episiotomy protected significantly for anal sphincter damage in both vacuum extraction (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.09-0.13) and forceps delivery (OR 0.08, 95% CI 0.07-0.11). The number of mediolateral episiotomies needed to prevent one sphincter injury in vacuum extractions was 12, whereas 5 mediolateral episiotomies could prevent one sphincter injury in forceps deliveries.","To identify the risk factors for obstetric anal sphincter rupture (OASR). Retrospective population-based register study. A total of 514,741 women with singleton pregnancy and vaginal delivery between 1997 and 2007 in Finland. Primiparous (n = 2,315) and multiparous women (n = 534) with OASR were compared with primiparous and multiparous women without OASR by using stepwise logistic regression analysis. The OASR risk. Episiotomy decreased the likelihood of OASR for the primiparous [odds ratio (OR) 0.83, 95% CI (confidence interval) 0.75-0.92], but not the multiparous women (OR 2.01, 95% CI 1.67-2.44). The strongest risk factors for OASR among the primiparous women were forceps delivery (OR 10.20, 95% CI 3.60-28.90), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 4.66, 95% CI 3.86-5.63), vacuum assisted delivery (OR 3.88, 95% CI 3.25-4.63), occiput posterior presentation (OR 3.17, 95% CI 1.64-6.15), and prolonged active second stage of birth (OR 2.06, 95% CI 1.65-2.58). Episiotomy was associated with decreased risks for OASR in vacuum assisted deliveries (OR 0.70, 95% CI 0.57-0.85). Risk factors for OASR among the multiparous women included forceps delivery (OR 10.13, 95% CI 2.46-41.81), prolonged active second stage of the birth (OR 7.18, 95% CI 4.32-11.91), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 5.84, 95% CI 3.40-10.02), and vacuum assisted delivery (OR 4.17, 95% CI 3.17-5.48).","In Spain, the Strategy for Assistance in Normal Childbirth (SANC) promoted a model of care, which respects the physiological birth process and discards unnecessary routine interventions, such as episiotomies. We evaluated the rate of episiotomy use and perineal trauma as indicators of how selective introduction of the SANC initiative has impacted childbirth outcomes in hospitals of Catalonia. Cross-sectional study of all singleton vaginal term deliveries without instrument registered in the Minimum Basic Data Set (MBDS) of Catalonia in 2007, 2010 and 2012. Hospitals were divided into types according to funding (public or private), and four strata were differentiated according to volume of births attended. Episiotomies and perineal injury were considered dependent variables. The relationship between qualitative variables was analysed using the chi-squared test, and Student's t-test was used for quantitative variables. Comparison of proportions was performed on the two hospital groups between 2007 and 2012 using a Z-test. Logistic regression models were used to analyse the relationship between episiotomy or severe perineal damage and maternal age, volume of births and hospital type, obtaining odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI). The majority of normal singleton term deliveries were attended in public hospitals, where maternal age was lower than for women attended in private hospitals. Analysis revealed a statistically significant (P < 0.001) decreasing trend in episiotomy use in Catalonia for both hospital types. Private hospitals appeared to be associated with increased episiotomy rate in 2007 (OR = 1.099, CI: 1,057-1,142), 2010 (OR = 1.528, CI: 1,472-1,587) and 2012 (OR = 1.459, CI: 1,383-1,540), and a lower rate of severe perineal trauma in 2007 (OR = 0.164, CI: 0.095-0.283), 2010 (OR = 0.16, CI: 0.110-0.232) and 2012 (OR = 0.19, CI: 0.107-0.336). Regarding severe perineal injury, when independent variables were adjusted, maternal age ceased to have a significant correlation in 2012 (OR = 0.994, CI: 0.970-1.018).","The objective of the study was to determine whether a decrease in the use of episiotomy was associated with a change in the frequency of brachial plexus injury. All births at Brigham and Women's Hospital from Sept. 1, 1998, through Aug. 31, 2009, were reviewed. The total number of births, mode of delivery, shoulder dystocias, episiotomies with and without shoulder dystocias, and brachial plexus injuries were recorded. A nonparametric test of trend was performed. There were a total of 94,842 births, 953 shoulder dystocias, and 102 brachial plexus injuries. The rate of episiotomy with shoulder dystocia dropped from 40% in 1999 to 4% in 2009 (P = .005) with no change in the rate of brachial plexus injuries per 1000 vaginal births.","To compare the postpartum pelvic floor function of women with sutured second-degree perineal lacerations, unsutured second-degree perineal lacerations, and intact perineums. A prospective cohort of nurse-midwifery patients consented to mapping of genital trauma at birth and an assessment of postpartum pelvic floor outcomes. Women completed validated questionnaires for perineal pain and urinary and anal incontinence at 12 weeks postpartum and underwent physical examination to assess pelvic floor strength and anatomy at 6 weeks postpartum. One hundred seventy-two of 212 (80%) eligible women provided follow-up assessment data at 6 or 12 weeks postpartum. Women with an intact perineum (n=89) used fewer analgesics (P<.002) and had lower pain scores at the time of hospital discharge than women with second-degree lacerations (sutured, n=46; unsutured, n=37; intact, n=89) (P40 kg/m(2)), vacuum/forceps extraction, perineal lacerations that warranted repair during labor and any pelvic surgery were the exclusion criteria. Evaluation of the patients included pelvic organ prolapse quantification scores, presence of stress incontinence, urethral hypermobility, and questionnaires were obtained for overactive bladder and anal incontinence symptoms. These data obtained from patients with the history of mediolateral episiotomy were compared with those of patients with no episiotomy or any other pelvic injury that warranted surgical repair. Groups were identical by means of demographic data, POP-Q findings, signs and symptoms of the pelvic floor. However, in the MLE group, central defects on the anterior vaginal wall were less frequent.","Mediolateral episiotomy is an independent risk factor for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears, even in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries, occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia, and NRFHR. Prophylactic use of episiotomy in these conditions does not seem beneficial if performed to prevent 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears.","These results show that a larger angle of episiotomy is associated with a lower risk of third-degree tear and mediolateral episiotomy incisions should be made at as large an angle as possible to minimise the risk of sphincter disruption.","no. With judicious intraoperative fluid restriction and voluntary voiding before discharge, epidural anesthesia does not increase the incidence of postoperative urinary retention or hesitancy in micturition following ambulatory hemorrhoidectomy.","Parity, age, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia are strongly associated with obstetric anal sphincter injury. Mediolateral episiotomy appears to be protective against OASI but a randomised controlled trial would be needed to confirm this. The rising incidence of OASI after normal vaginal deliveries may be related to adoption of the hands off technique or increased identification of tears.","To compare the relative efficacy of oral sucrose versus EMLA cream for pain relief during venepuncture, 51 full-term newborns (38M, 13F; postnatal age <4 d) in a stable condition were randomly allocated to one of four treatment groups: placebo (2 ml spring water); 2 ml sucrose 24% w/v; 1 g lidocaine-prilocaine 5% cream (EMLA); or EMLA plus sucrose. Water or a single dose of sucrose solution was administered orally 2 min before venepuncture. EMLA cream was applied in the antecubital fossa 45-60 min before venepuncture and covered by a Tegaderm dressing. A pacifier was given before skin puncture, but it was not actively held or replaced during the procedure or observation periods. In total, 55 venepunctures were performed blindly, always for clinical reasons. As indicators of pain, the total crying time was recorded and heart rate, respiratory rate and arterial oxygen saturation were measured blindly at baseline, immediately post-venepuncture, and 2 and 4 min afterwards. The main effects observed were: (i) time spent crying decreased significantly in the sucrose alone (p = 0.001) and EMLA plus sucrose (p = 0.008) groups; (ii) the above treatments attenuated significantly (p < 0.05) the immediate heart rate response to pain; and (iii) the concomitant use of EMLA did not increase further the analgesic efficacy of sucrose.","There is an ongoing debate regarding the routine versus restrictive use of episiotomy The study aim was to investigate if episiotomy during vaginal deliveries can reduce both, the number and severity of genital lacerations. The study included all women who gave vaginal birth at AOU. \"G. Martino\" Messina (n=382) and the Clinic for Ob/Gyn Clinical Center of Serbia, Belgrade (n=4227) during 2011. Lacerations during birth were recorded and divided according to location and severity Women with lacerations were subdivided into two groups: with or without mediolateral episiotomy We assessed potential risk factors for laceration: maternal age, parity use of labor stimulants and epidural analgesia, participation in antenatal classes, fetal presentation, neonatal birth weight, and duration of the second stage of labor. Older women had higher grade perineum or combined lacerations. Children with higher birth weight in occipito-posterior presentation caused higher grade lacerations. Performance of episiotomy was connected with fewer perineum and labial lacerations. There were no differences in laceration grade between patients with and without episiotomy Assessed parameters proved to be good discriminating factors between lacerations sites. According to logistic regression, laceration site was the most important risk factor for laceration grade. Combined lacerations had the highest grade.","Especially in the Nordic countries, increases in obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) have prompted standard use of the Finnish intervention for their prevention. We performed a quality assessment of the introduction of the intervention in a Danish hospital setting. All vaginal deliveries by primiparous women the year before (N = 343) and after (N = 334) the introduction were compared in a retrospective, observational design. Fisher's exact test, Student's t-test, and multiple logistic regression analysis were performed. No significant difference in OASIS (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-1.1) was found. The post-implementation group saw a significant increase in episiotomy (OR: 1.8; 95% CI: 1.1-2.9) and the length of second stage labor (p < 0.05) while intact perineum (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-0.9), use of upright positions for birth (OR: 3.2; 95% CI: 1.8-5.5), and neonatal blood gas levels were significantly reduced (p < 0.05).","Our results suggested that there has been a gradual decline in episiotomy rates over the period 2003-2008, and that synthesis of evidence showing harms from routine episiotomy had limited impact on practice patterns in the case of episiotomy. The experience of episiotomy illustrates the challenge of using comparative effectiveness and evidenced-based medicine to reduce use of unnecessary procedures.","yes. Primiparity and occipitoposterior presentation are strong risk factors for the occurrence of anal sphincter injury during operative vaginal delivery. The highly significant protective effect of mediolateral episiotomies in both types of operative vaginal delivery warrants the conclusions that this type of episiotomy should be used routinely during these interventions to protect the anal sphincters.","Doctors and midwives are unaware of the appropriate angle (60 degrees) at which a mediolateral episiotomy should be incised at to minimise obstetric anal sphincter injury. The correct angle should be emphasised to accoucheurs to minimise the risk of anal sphincter damage. In addition midwives depict episiotomies that are significantly more acute than they describe. Accoucheurs should also perform at least 10 episiotomies under supervision prior to independent practice. Training programmes should be devised and validated to improve visual measurement of the episiotomy incision angle at crowning. Consideration should also be given to the development of novel surgical devices that help the accoucheur to perform a mediolateral episiotomy accurately.","To investigate the efficacy of placing bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan (Ferrosan, Soeborg, Copenhagen, Denmark) in episiotomy beds for relief of postpartum pain. Randomized, controlled study (Canadian Task Force classification I). University medical school. Women with mediolateral episiotomy. Patients were recruited and randomized into 2 groups by using a random number table. Group I (control group) received local lignocaine infiltration 1% up to 20 mL. For group II (Spongostan group), in addition to local lignocaine infiltration, bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan was placed in the episiotomy bed. All patients received routine postpartum perineal care in addition to the regular pain drugs (75 mg of diclofenac every 4 hours if needed). The primary outcome for the study was severity of pain, rated on a 10-cm visual analog scale from 0 to 10. Rating was recorded at 0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours after delivery. In all, 48 women were randomized to group I (local lignocaine alone) and 51 women to group II (local lignocaine plus Spongostan). The Spongostan and control groups were similar with respect to maternal age, parity, gestational age, maternal weight, and neonatal birth weight (p >.05; CI for difference: -2.6/10, 0.1/0.3, 0.3/0.7, 6.9/1.7, and -7/1.9, respectively). Episiotomy length (both vaginal and perineal) and episiotomy depth were higher in Spongostan group than control group (p <.05; 95% CI: -0.9/0, -0.8/-0.1, and -0.6/0, respectively). However, episiotomy reconstruction time of both groups was similar (p >.05; CI: 1.7/6.2). The pain score of Spongostan group was lower than control group and it was statistically significant at all time intervals (0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours) between the Spongostan and control groups (p <.05; CI: 0.6/1.9, 1.1/2.4, 1.0/2.5, 0.9/2.4, 0.3/1.9, and 0.5/1.8, respectively). Postpartum total analgesic requirement (mg/person) again was significantly lower in the Spongostan group than control group (p <.01; CI: 0.1/0.4).","Episiotomy is one of the most commonly performed procedures among women of childbearing age in the United States. In 2005, a major systematic review conducted by Hartmann and colleagues recommended against routine use of episiotomy and was widely covered in the media. We assessed the impact of the Hartman et al. study on episiotomy trend. Based on 100% hospital discharge data from eight states in 2003-2008, we used interrupted time series regression models to estimate the impact of the Hartman et al. review on episiotomy rates. We used mixed-effects regression models to assess whether interhospital variation was reduced over time. After controlling for underlying trend, episiotomy rates dropped by 1.4 percentage points after Hartman et al. publication (p<0.01 for spontaneous delivery; p<0.1 for operative delivery). The publication has smaller effect on government hospitals as compared to private hospitals. Mixed effects models estimated negative correlation between cross-time and cross-hospital variations in episiotomy rates, indicating reduced cross-hospital variation over time.","yes. Episiotomy can significantly reduce the number of genital lacerations, but it does not influence laceration grade. Advanced maternal age, higher parity occipitoposterior presentation and fetal macrosomia can cause lacerations during vaginal birth. Therefore, we suggest analysis of maternal and fetal factors to prevent widespread genital lacerations.","Routine episiotomy has declined since liberal usage has been discouraged. Anal sphincter laceration rates with spontaneous vaginal delivery have decreased, likely reflecting the decreased usage of episiotomy. The decline in operative vaginal delivery corresponds to a sharp increase in cesarean delivery, which may indicate that practitioners are favoring cesarean delivery for difficult births.","To investigate whether episiotomy prevents 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries (vacuum or forceps), persistent occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia (>4,000 g), and non-reassuring fetal heart rate (NRFHR) patterns. A retrospective study comparing 3rd and 4th degree perineal tears during vaginal deliveries with or without episiotomy, in selected critical conditions was performed. Multiple gestations, preterm deliveries (<37 weeks' gestation) and cesarean deliveries were excluded from the analysis. Stratified analysis (using the Mantel-Haenszel technique) was used to obtain the weighted odds ratio (OR), while controlling for these variables. During the study period, there were 168,077 singleton vaginal deliveries. Of those, 188 (0.1%) had 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears. Vaginal deliveries with episiotomy had statistically significant higher rates of 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears than those without episiotomy (0.2 vs. 0.1%; P<0.001). The association between episiotomy and severe perineal tears remained significant even in the critical conditions. Stratified analysis revealed that the adjusted ORs for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in these critical conditions (Macrosomia OR=2.3; instrumental deliveries OR=1.8; NRFHR patterns OR=2.1; occipito-posterior position OR=2.3; and shoulder dystocia OR=2.3) were similar to the crude OR (OR=2.3).","To compare the outcomes of the current practice of liberally or routinely employing episiotomy to prevent perineal tears and pelvic floor relaxation (control group) to a policy of restricting episiotomy use to specific fetal and maternal indications (experimental group). A randomized controlled trial (RCT). Three university hospitals in Montreal. Seven hundred three low-risk women enrolled at 30 to 34 weeks of gestation were randomized late in labor to the designated trial arm, by parity, and followed up to 3 months postpartum. Antepartum and postpartum information on perineal trauma and pain, pelvic floor symptoms (urinary incontinence), and sexual activity was collected through the use of standard questionnaires; pelvic floor function was measured by electromyographic (EMG) perineometry. Restricting episiotomy use in primiparous women was associated with similar sutured perineal trauma to the liberal or routine approach. Multiparous women in the restricted episiotomy group more often gave birth with an intact perineum (31% compared with 19%, odds ratio (OR) = 1.85, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.09 to 3.16). All but one 3rd/4th-degree perineal tear was associated with median episiotomy (46 of 47 in primiparous women and 6 of 6 among multiparous women). No difference between trial groups was found in postpartum perineal pain, antepartum and 3-month postpartum EMG perineometry, and urinary and pelvic floor symptoms.","We found no evidence that liberal or routine use of episiotomy prevents perineal trauma or pelvic floor relaxation. Virtually all severe perineal trauma was associated with median episiotomy. Restriction of episiotomy use among multiparous women resulted in significantly more intact perineums and less perineal suturing.","yes. Episiotomy is still performed routinely in 75.1% of first-time births. This rate is higher than supported by the available evidence.","yes. Placement of bupivacaine-soaked spongostan into the episiotomy bed resulted in decreased postpartum pain and drug requirement. It may be attributed to a higher drug concentration at episiotomy bed and prolonged drug effect.","yes. The results support the restrictive use of episiotomy, since 909 episiotomies appear to be needed to prevent one OASR among primiparous women. Equivalent estimate in vacuum assisted deliveries among primiparous women was 66, favoring routine use of episiotomy in such cases.","It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound.","A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day."],"string":"[\n \"yes. Preincisional administration of epidural lidocaine and fentanyl was associated with a significantly lower rate of morphine use, lower cumulative morphine consumption, and reduced hyperalgesia compared with a sham epidural condition. These results highlight the importance of including a standard treatment control group to avoid the problems of interpretation that arise when two-group studies of preemptive analgesia (preincisional vs. postsurgery) fail to find the anticipated effects.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to determine if anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade alters the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) examination. A prospective, multi-center trial was conducted of women undergoing pelvic surgery. A POP-Q examination performed pre-operatively was compared with an examination performed intra-operatively under neuromuscular blockade. For the latter examination, an Allis clamp was used to apply gentle traction until the point being examined did not undergo further descent. International Continence Society (ICS) stages and individual POP-Q points were compared using a paired sample t test. A sample size of 32 provided 80% power to detect a clinically significant difference between office and operating room measurements (Sample Power, SPSS, 1997). Of 153 women, 76% received general endotracheal anesthesia and 21% laryngeal mask airway. With an increase of 3 cm, the apical compartment was significantly more prolapsed in the operating room (OR; p<0.05); however, a comparison of the mean values demonstrated a larger change in means for all points except total vaginal length. When separated into anterior, apical, and posterior compartments, the ICS stages were systematically different in the OR than in the office for all stages (p<0.0005).\",\n \"To compare the effectiveness of acetaminophen versus acetaminophen-plus-honey following pediatric tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Prospective, randomized, and placebo controlled clinical trial. Tertiary care facility in Ankara, Turkey. Sixty consecutive tonsillectomy patients randomized to two groups. The acetaminophen group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen and placebo, acetaminophen-plus-honey group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen, and honey. Visual analogue scale (VAS) was applied for subjective assessment of postoperative pains, while the number of painkillers taken daily and awakening at night due to pain were used for objective assessment. The amount of epithelization was used for assessment of tonsillary fossa recovery. The difference between acetaminophen and acetaminophen-plus-honey groups was statistically significant both in terms of VAS and number of painkillers taken within the first 2 postoperative days (p<0.001). Although there was no statistically significant difference between groups regarding the VAS scores on the 3rd postoperative day and after, the number of painkillers taken differed significantly until the 8th postoperative day (p<0.001 for first 7 postoperative days; p=0.003 for 8th day). No significant difference was found between groups regarding the number of awakening at night (p=0.36). Tonsillary fossa epithelization was more rapid in the acetaminophen-plus-honey group (p<0.001).\",\n \"no. There was no difference in hourly bupivacaine consumption in parturients with prior lumbar discectomy surgery undergoing neuraxial labor analgesia in comparison with controls. Time to placement of the epidural catheter was not different either, but more interspaces were attempted in the discectomy group. Our findings suggest that standard clinical neuraxial analgesic methods are effective in women with discectomy surgery.\",\n \"Uterus-specific synthetic Prostaglandin analogues (gemeprost, sulproston etc.) have been widely employed for termination of pregnancy in the second trimester. Since paracervical anaesthesia may be useful during this procedure, we investigated in this prospective randomised study its impact on the clinical course of abortion and pain especially in the late first and second stage of labour. 20 women scheduled for elective abortion (fetal reasons) between the 16th and 23rd week of gestation were to be given 1 mg gemeprost vaginally every 6 hours. They were allocated at random: 10 women received only Pethidin intravenously and Butylscopolamine rectally, another 10 women were additionally treated by paracervical anaesthesia (2 x 10 ml 0.5% Bupivacain solution) at a cervical dilatation of 2-3 cm. A median of 3 gemeprost applications were administered in both groups. In the group without paracervical anaesthesia the median induction to abortion interval was 20 hours (range: 8-44 hours), 13 hours (range: 8-36 hours, NS) resulting for the paracervical anaesthesia group. The intervals from the last application of prostaglandin until abortion and from 3 cm cervical dilatation to abortion were slightly, but not significantly shorter in the paracervical anaesthesia group. The requirement of Butylscopolamine was higher in the latter group (p<0.05). The requirement of Pethidin and the intensity of pain (measured by pain scale according to Huskisson) especially in the late first stage of labour were not statistically different between both groups. Side effects of paracervical anaesthesia did not occur.\",\n \"Prevention of post-spinal hypotension in obstetric patients can be accomplished using intravenous fluid expansion and prophylactic use of sympathomimetic drugs. The affect of combination of colloids and phenylephrine infusion on maternal hemodynamics has not been widely studied and there is no consensus about the dosage required and time of starting its administration. This prospective, randomized, double-blind study enrolled 90 healthy term parturients undergoing elective Cesarean delivery under lumbar subarachnoid block (0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 10 mg with fentanyl 25 μg). Patients in Group A received prophylactic intravenous phenylephrine infusion (60 μg/minute) along with hydroxyl-ethyl-starch cohydration (6% HES 130/0.42;15 ml/kg) immediately after subarachnoid block. In Group B, patients received 6% HES cohydration and intermittent intravenous 50 μg boluses of phenylephrine. The efficacy of these in maintaining maternal SBP at 90-110% of baseline and neonatal well-being was evaluated. In Group B, 75.5% of patients required rescue phenylephrine boluses to maintain SBP while maternal hemodynamics were well maintained in Group A and rescue drug was not needed. Reactive hypertension occurred in one patient (2.2%) and bradycardia in two patients (4.4%) in Group A. Six patients complained of nausea in Group B (13.3%) compared to one in Group A. All the newborns had normal Apgar scores and Umbilical arterial pH > 7.2.\",\n \"These data suggest that transcervical revision of previous cesarean uterine scar should be performed only in symptomatic patients (persistent suprapubic pain, placental retention, excessive bleeding during labor or delivery) or when risk factors are present (prolonged labor, prolonged expulsive efforts, instrumental extraction).\",\n \"To assess the effectiveness of postoperatively applied pharmacological prophylaxis and the impact of demographic parameters (age, height, weight), gestational age, parturients' morbidity (hypertension, motion sickness), postoperative fluid resuscitation, applied anaesthetic technique (spinal needle type and diameter, patient's positioning, choice of intervertebral space for puncturing dura, a dose of local anaesthetic) on the incidence of PDPH after spinal anaesthesia for Caesarean section. There were analyzed 182 mothers who delivered by Caesarean section under spinal anaesthesia. Postoperative management included fluid administration 2500 ml daily and i.v. antibiotic prophylaxis (control group, n = 560). The consecutive groups of patients were administered antibiotic and fluids in dose as mentioned above, and additionally oral caffeine 3 x 200 mg (n = 40); caffeine plus magnesium 2 x 1 g daily i.v. (n = 42) or caffeine plus magnesium plus aminophylline 250 mg i.v. once daily (n = 40). Incidence of PDPH was analyzed in all the groups of patients. The incidence of PDPH was lower after usage of thin spinal needles (Spinokan 27G), but statistical significance was p = 0.07. The other analyzed factors did not affect the incidence of PDPH. None of the applied pharmacoprophylactic methods appeared to be efficacious. The volume of administered within 18 hours postoperatively crystalloids was larger in the group of patients with multifactorial pharmacoprophylaxis (p = 0.04), probably due vasodilatation caused by synergistic effect of magnesium and aminophylline; explanation of this phenomenon is arguable, however.\",\n \"Antenatal use of the Epi-No(®) device is unlikely to be clinically beneficial in the prevention of intrapartum levator ani damage, or anal sphincter and perineal trauma.\",\n \"Most women will sustain some degree of trauma to the genital tract after vaginal birth. This study aimed to examine the association between maternal position at birth and perineal outcome in women who had a midwife-attended, spontaneous vaginal birth and an uncomplicated pregnancy at term. Data from 3,756 births in a major public tertiary teaching hospital were eligible for analysis. The need for sutures in perineal trauma was evaluated and compared for each major factor studied (maternal age, first vaginal delivery, induction of labor, not occipitoanterior, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head and newborn birthweight>3,500 g). Birth positions were compared against each other. Subgroup analysis determined whether birth positions mattered more or less in each of the major factors studied. The chi-square test was used to compare categorical variables. Most women (65.9%) gave birth in the semi-recumbent position. Of the 1,679 women (44.5%) who required perineal suturing, semi-recumbent position was associated with the need for perineal sutures, whereas all-fours was associated with reduced need for sutures; these associations were more marked in first vaginal births and newborn birth weight over 3,500 g. When regional anesthesia was used, semi-recumbent position was associated with a need for suturing, and lateral position associated with a reduced need for suturing. The four major factors significantly related to perineal trauma included first vaginal birth, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head, and newborn weight more than 3,500 g.\",\n \"In a previous prospective randomized trial, we showed that local anesthetic infusion using a preperitoneal catheter is an effective postoperative analgesic method following colorectal resections. Over time, we have improved the technique of preperitoneal catheter analgesia. In this prospective cohort study, we report the results of 100 consecutive patients who underwent colorectal resections. Preperitoneal catheter analgesia was performed via a multihole catheter placed in the preperitoneal space using 10 mL 0.5% levobupivacaine every 4 hours following the operation for the first 3 days. Additional analgesics were used whenever necessary. Postoperative pain was assessed with the visual analog scale score. Short-term clinical outcomes, such as need for systemic analgesics, time to first gas and stool discharge, length of hospital stay, and morbidity, particularly surgical site infections, were reported. From May 2009 to May 2010, 100 consecutive patients were recruited in the study. A total of 83 patients were operated on for malignancy, and the tumor was located in the rectum in 52 patients and in the colon in 31 patients. The median pain score was 4 (0-6), 3 (0-9), 2 (0-8), 1 (0-8), 1 (0-6), 0 (0-6), and 0 (0-3) at postoperative hours 0, 1, 4, 12, 24, 48, and 72, respectively. Additional analgesics were required in 34 patients: 21 of them required only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and 13 patients needed opioids additionally. The median amounts of opioid analgesics and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were 1.76±0.78 mg and 6.70±1.18 mg, respectively. However, almost all of the additional analgesics were given in the first 24 hours. Surgical site infections were detected in eight patients.\",\n \"Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)-based antiseptic solutions can reduce bacterial loads in different clinical settings and are believed to lower risk of infections. We sought to assess the efficacy of a PHMB-based solution in lowering bacterial loads of full-thickness skin grafting wounds and the risk of surgical site infections (SSIs). In this double-blinded clinical trial, 40 patients planned for facial full-thickness skin grafting were randomized 1:1 to receive tie-over dressings soaked with either PHMB-based solution or sterile water. Quantitative and qualitative bacterial analysis was performed on all wounds before surgery, at the end of surgery, and 7 days postoperatively. In addition, all patients were screened for nasal colonization of Staphylococcus aureus. Analysis of wounds showed no statistically significant difference in bacterial reductions between the groups. The SSI rates were significantly higher in the intervention group (8/20) than in the control group (2/20) (P = .028). Higher postoperative bacterial loads were a common finding in SSIs (P = .011). This was more frequent when S aureus was present postoperatively (P = .034), intraoperatively (P = .03), and in patients with intranasal S aureus colonization (P = .007). Assessment of SSIs is largely subjective. In addition, this was a single-center study and the total number of participants was 40.\",\n \"Prilocaine infiltration alone can be used for analgesic purposes efficiently and safely during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy with minimal morbidity.\",\n \"Topical amethocaine provides effective pain relief during venepuncture in children, and has been shown to have a local anaesthetic action in the newborn.AIM: To investigate the effect of topical amethocaine on the pain of venepuncture in the newborn. Randomised double blind placebo controlled trial. Forty newborn infants, gestation 27-41 weeks (median 33), age 2-17 days (median 7), undergoing routine venepuncture. A 1.5 g portion of 4% (w/w) amethocaine gel (Ametop; Smith and Nephew, Hull, UK) or placebo was applied to the skin under occlusion for one hour, then wiped away. Venepuncture was performed five minutes later. Facial reaction and cry were recorded on videotape. Pain was assessed using a validated adaptation of the neonatal facial coding system. Five features were scored at one second intervals for five seconds before and after venepuncture. No or minimal pain was defined as a cumulative score of below 10 (out of 25) in the five seconds after needle insertion. Each author scored the tapes independently. There was close agreement on scoring of the tapes. One infant was excluded because of restlessness before the venepuncture. Of 19 amethocaine treated infants, 16 (84%) showed little or no pain compared with six of 20 (30%) in the placebo group (p = 0.001). The median cumulative neonatal facial coding system score over five seconds after needle insertion was 3 compared with 16 in the placebo group (p = 0.001). Of the 19 amethocaine treated infants, 15 (79%) did not cry compared with five of 20 (25%) placebo treated infants (p = 0.001). No local reaction to amethocaine was seen.\",\n \"To see if a eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics (EMLA) could be used effectively for the release of preputial adhesions as a day case procedure. A total of 36 consecutive symptomatic children had their preputial adhesions separated under local anaesthetic with EMLA. The procedure was successful in 27 children. Of these, 16 remained symptom free at 9 to 12 months follow up although five children had slight recurrence of adhesions. The other 11 children were listed for circumcision at 2 weeks following the procedure because of marked recurrence of adhesions.\",\n \"yes. In this randomized phase II study, application of a single defocused shock wave treatment to the superficial second-degree burn wound after debridement/topical antiseptic therapy significantly accelerated epithelialization. This finding warrants confirmation in a larger phase III trial (ClinicalTrials.gov identifier: NCT01242423).\",\n \"yes. Daily application of ciprofloxacin otologic solution at the exit site of PD patients with polyurethane catheters inserted significantly reduces the rate of ESI caused by S. aureus and other organisms, particularly P. aeruginosa.\",\n \"no. The results of this study suggest that the use of a background infusion with PCEA during labor leads to a greater consumption of anesthetic solution without improving comfort and satisfaction of parturients. Moreover, not using a background infusion does not provide an increased incidence of supplemental boluses (which might cause problems in a busy unit) and allows for a substantial reduction in the cost of analgesia.\",\n \"To examine the necessity of routine cervical dilatation during elective cesarean delivery (ECD). A retrospective cohort study including all ECD during 2005 was performed, comparing post operative complications between patients with and without cervical dilatation. Out of 666 ECD, 348 underwent routine cervical dilatation. No significant differences were found between the cervical dilatation and the comparison group regarding postpartum febrile morbidity (5.1 and 3.1%, respectively; p = 0.071), hospitalisation duration (4.1 +/- 1.4 and 4.1 +/- 2.0 days; p = 0.95), wound infection (0.9% and 1.25%, p = 0.451) or anemia rate (9.50 +/- 0.73 and 9.54 +/- 0.65, p = 0.91). Nevertheless, among patients following a previous vaginal delivery, cervical dilatation was significantly associated with post-operative fever (OR = 5.8; 95%CI 1.2-38.0; p = 0.021).\",\n \"To evaluate the medium-term effect of epidural analgesia (EA) on the possible onset of postpartum urinary incontinence (PUI). We performed a single-centre, retrospective case-control study. At 8-week postpartum, we recruited a cohort of women who had term singleton pregnancy and foetus in cephalic presentation, and divided in six groups: (1) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, without EA; (2) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, with EA; (3) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, without EA; (4) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, with EA; (5) emergency caesarean section without previous EA during labour and (6) emergency caesarean section with previous EA during labour. For each woman, we recorded age, Body Mass Index (BMI) and the result of the following questionnaire for urinary incontinence: International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire Short Form (ICIQ-SF), Incontinence Impact Questionnaire-7 (IIQ-7) and Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6). Subsequently, we compared group 1 versus group 2, group 3 versus group 4 and group 5 versus group 6. We did not evidence any significant difference for age, BMI and incontinence scores between groups 1 and 2, 3 and 4, and 5 and 6.\",\n \"yes. Local anesthetic wound irrigation is often used to treat postoperative surgical pain. Large concentrations of local anesthetics are usually used, and these concentrations may have possible neurotoxic and myotoxic effects. Our results demonstrate antiinflammatory effects of lidocaine and bupivacaine at concentrations smaller than used clinically.\",\n \"In patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria undergoing hip arthroplasty, the risk of prosthetic joint infection (PJI) and appropriateness of specific antibiotics are unclear.QUESTIONS/ We determined (1) the prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria; and (2) the incidence of PJI in patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria managed with or without specific antibiotics. We conducted a prospective, randomized study of all 471 patients without urinary symptoms receiving a total hip arthroplasty (THA; n = 228; average age 68 years; 122 female) or hemiarthroplasty (HA; n = 243; average age 85 years; 170 female) between April 2009 and November 2010. No patients were catheterized in the perioperative period and all received intravenous cefazolin (allergy, vancomycin) for 48 hours postoperatively. Urinalysis was conducted on all patients; if abnormal, a urine culture was performed. Patients with bacteriuria (>100,000 colonies/mL cultured) were randomly assigned to receive specific antibiotics (Group A) or not (Group B). Minimum followup was 1 month including those six who died or were lost to followup (average, 10.4 months; range, 1-12 months). Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurred in eight of 228 patients undergoing THAs (three of eight with specific antibiotics) and 38 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (23 of 38 with specific antibiotics). Arthroplasty infection after 3 months occurred in one of 228 patients undergoing THAs and 12 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (six of 117 in Group A and six of 126 in Group B); bacteria cultured from the wound were dissimilar to those cultured in urine samples in any case. No patient presented signs of PJI by 1 year after the index surgery.\",\n \"To evaluate the effects of peritonsillar injection of levobupivacaine with epinephrine in children undergoing adenotonsillectomy, through an intraindividual study. 20 children (age 6-13 years) undergoing elective tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy were enrolled in this prospective, randomized, intraindividual trial. After entubation and just prior to incision, 3 ml of 0.25% levobupivacaine with epinephrine was injected into one peritonsillar region while 0.9% saline was being used for the contralateral side. Amount of intraoperative blood loss, duration of tonsillectomy, postoperative pain, otalgia and hemorrhage were assessed for each side separately. Visual analog scale was used for postoperative pain assessment. Heart rate and mean arterial pressure during and after operation were also observed. The follow-up period after surgery was 10 days. Median visual analog scale values for the levobupivacaine with epinephrine injected side was significantly lower than the saline injected side, during the first postoperative 16h (p<0.05). There were also significant differences between the intraoperative blood losses of the two sides (p<0.05). However; no significant differences were observed with respect to duration of surgery, postoperative otalgia and hemorrhage (p>0.05).\",\n \"The aim of this study was to evaluate the postoperative morphine-sparing effects and reduction in pain and secondary mechanical hyperalgesia after preincisional or postincisional epidural administration of a local anesthetic and an opioid compared with a sham epidural control. Patients undergoing major gynecologic surgery by laparotomy were randomly assigned to three groups and studied in a double-blinded manner. Group 1 received epidural lidocaine and fentanyl before incision and epidural saline 40 min after incision. Group 2 received epidural saline before incision and epidural lidocaine and fentanyl 40 min after incision. Group 3 received a sham epidural control (with saline injected into a catheter taped to the back) before and 40 min after incision. All patients underwent surgery with general anesthesia. One hundred forty-one patients completed the study (group 1, n = 45; group 2, n = 49; group 3, n = 47). Cumulative patient-controlled analgesia morphine consumption at 48 h was significantly lower (P = 0.04) in group 1 (89.8 +/- 43.3 mg) than group 3 (112.5 +/- 71.5 mg) but not group 2 (95.4 +/- 60.2 mg), although the hourly rate of morphine consumption between 24 and 48 h after surgery was significantly lower (P < 0.0009) in group 1 (1.25 +/- 0.02 mg/h) than group 2 (1.41 +/- 0.02 mg/h). Twenty-four hours after surgery, the visual analog scale pain score on movement was significantly less intense (P = 0.005) in group 1 (4.9 +/- 2.2 cm) than group 3 (6.0 +/- 2.6 cm) but not group 2 (5.3 +/- 2.5 cm), and the von Frey pain threshold near the wound was significantly higher (P = 0.03) in group 1 (6.4 +/- 0.6 log mg) than in group 3 (6.1 +/- 0.8 log mg) but not group 2 (6.2 +/- 0.7 log mg).\",\n \"To evaluate the analgesic effect and utility of prilocaine infiltration alone for minimal morbidity during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. A total of 114 patients with kidney stones, aged 18 to 69 years, were randomly separated into two groups. The 58 patients in group 1 received intramuscular diclophenac 30 minutes before extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, and the 56 patients in group 2 received prilocaine infiltration into the 30 cm2 area below the 12th rib right before the session. A visual analog scale (0 to 100 mm) was used to evaluate pain. The visual analog scale scores for group 2 were statistically lower at 1, 10, and 20 minutes compared with the scores for group 1 (P = 0.006, P = 0.005, and P = 0.006, respectively). However, no difference was detected at the end of the procedure. The requirement for additional analgesic was less in group 2 (P = 0.007).\",\n \"This study was conducted to estimate the incidence and clinical predictors of post-thoracotomy shoulder pain and to determine the effectiveness of thoracic epidural block in alleviating this pain. A prospective clinical trial. University teaching hospital. Thirty-two adult patients undergoing elective thoracic surgery consented to participate in the study. All operations were open thoracotomies done by the same team of surgeons and anesthesiologists. A thoracic (T6) epidural catheter was placed before induction of general anesthesia. Each patient received 7 mL of lidocaine 2% epidurally and repeated doses of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% every half hour during the operation. Postoperatively, the occurrence of incision or ipsilateral shoulder pain was observed and treated with a maximal dose of 5 mL of lidocaine 2%. If ineffective, indomethacin suppository (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug [NSAID]) was given. Variables such as patient's age, sex, American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status, type, site and duration of surgery, duration of anesthesia, the resection of main bronchus, and the use of thoracostomy tubes were recorded. Postoperatively, 10 patients (31%) had shoulder pain, 4 patients (12.5%) complained of incision pain, and 2 (6.3%) complained of both incision and shoulder pain. A bolus of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% in the epidural catheter relieved incision pain in all the patients, but was ineffective for shoulder pain. Indomethacin suppository was effective in these patients. No correlation was found between any variable and the occurrence of shoulder pain.\",\n \"As a broader definition of preemptive analgesia, preventive analgesia aims to prevent the sensitization of central nervous system, hence the development of pathologic pain after tissular injury. To demonstrate benefits from preventive treatment, objective measurement of postoperative pain such as wound hyperalgesia and persistent pain should be evaluated. The current study assessed the role and timing of epidural analgesia in this context. In a randomized, double-blinded trial, 85 patients scheduled to undergo neoplastic colonic resection were included. All the patients received a thoracic epidural catheter, systemic ketamine at a antihyperalgesic dose, and general anesthesia. Continuous infusion of analgesics belonging to the same class was administered by either intravenous or epidural route before incision until 72 h after surgery. Patients were allocated to four groups to receive intraoperative intravenous lidocaine-sufentanil-clonidine or epidural bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine followed postoperatively by either intravenous (lidocaine-morphine-clonidine) or epidural (bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine) patient-controlled analgesia. Postoperative pain scores (visual analog scale), analgesic consumption, wound area of punctuate hyperalgesia, residual pain, and analgesics needed from 2 weeks until 12 months were recorded. Analgesic requirements, visual analog scale scores, and area of hyperalgesia were significantly higher in the intravenous treatment group (intravenous-intravenous), and more patients reported residual pain from 2 weeks until 1 yr (28%). Although postoperative pain measurements did not differ, postoperative epidural treatment (intravenous-epidural) was less effective to prevent residual pain at 1 yr (11%; P = 0.2 with intravenous-intravenous group) than intraoperative one (epidural-epidural and epidural-intravenous groups) (0%; P = 0.01 with intravenous-intravenous group).\",\n \"yes. vaginal bilateral cervical lips suture can prevent intrauterine balloon prolapse, which may be a useful adjunct to intrauterine balloon tamponade in management of postpartum hemorrhage.\",\n \"Women experienced slightly more second-degree tears when residents were involved in their deliveries. The increased number of second-degree tears might be because of residents' limited experience in providing intrapartum care. More important, there was no increase in other serious perineal trauma or episiotomy when residents provided supervised intrapartum care. This should reassure women and family practice obstetricians who choose to receive and provide obstetric care in a family practice teaching unit. The increase in rates of epidural use and cesarean sections and the decrease in rates of vacuum-assisted births reflect obstetric trends in Canada over the past decade.\",\n \"To investigate whether episiotomy is associated with avulsion of the levator ani in its pubic insertion after normal vaginal delivery. This is an observational study at a tertiary obstetric unit recruited 194 primiparous women who had normal vaginal delivery with or without episiotomy. All women underwent translabial 4D ultrasound scanning after delivery. Tomographic ultrasound imaging was used to diagnose levator avulsion. Lesions were recorded as unilateral or bilateral. The investigators were blinded to all clinical data. The influence of other variables associated with delivery such as maternal age, body mass index, gestational age, birth weight, fetal head circumference, and use of epidural anesthesia was recorded and their relation with avulsion was also studied. Avulsion was identified in eleven (10.9%) of the 101 women with episiotomy and in fourteen (15.1%) of the 93 women without. The difference was not statistically significant (P = 0.401). Other variables showed no influence on the prevalence of avulsion.\",\n \"Does local injection with lidocaine plus epinephrine prior to vaginal reconstructive surgery with synthetic mesh affect exposure rates? A retrospective comparison. To determine if local injection, prior to incision with lidocaine plus epinephrine (L + E) influences the rate of mesh exposure in the early postoperative period following synthetic mesh augmented vaginal reconstructive surgery (MAVR). We performed a chart review over an 18-month period of patients who underwent MAVR. The presence of mesh exposure at the 3-month postoperative visit, demographic data and whether or not L + E was used to hydrodissect was recorded. Statistical analysis was performed to determine whether hydrodissection influenced erosion rates. A total of 143 meshes were placed, hydrodissection with L + E was used in 78 cases and was not in the remaining 65 cases. There were 10 (7.0% 10/143) total erosions at the 3-month postoperative visit, 6 (7.7%; 6/78) in the group that got L + E and 4 (6.2%; 4/65) in the group that did not get local injection. This difference was not significant (p = 0.740, OR 1.54 95% CI 0.41-5.76). There was no difference between the two groups in terms of age, presence of diabetes, concurrent incontinence repair or estimated blood loss.\",\n \"To determine the carriage rate of enterococcus in the lower genital tract of women having a cesarean delivery and to determine whether a single 2-g intraoperative dose of ampicillin eradicates enterococcus from the lower genital tract. Lower genital tract cultures were taken in 84 women who were in labor or had ruptured membranes and who were about to have an indicated cesarean delivery. The subjects were randomized to receive either a single 2-g dose of ampicillin or a cephalosporin as prophylaxis. Cultures were repeated 24 hours postpartum. Enterococcus was isolated preoperatively in 33 subjects (39.3%) and postoperatively in 36 (42.9%). The enterococcus was eradicated in five of 17 women (29.5%) who received ampicillin.\",\n \"To evaluate the effects of not forming a bladder flap at lower-segment cesarean delivery. A total of 102 women who underwent cesarean delivery were prospectively randomized to one of two groups. In the study group (n = 53), a cesarean was performed without formation of a bladder flap. In the control group (n = 49), cesarean was performed with formation of a bladder flap before the uterine incision. There were differences of median skin incision-delivery interval (5 versus 7 minutes, P<.001), median total operating time (35 versus 40 minutes, P =.004), and median blood loss (Delta hemoglobin 0.5 versus 1 g/dL, P =.009) in favor of the study group. Postoperative microhematuria was reduced in the study group (21% versus 47%, P<.01). The median need for analgesics was reduced in the study group (75.0 mg diclofenac versus 150.0 mg, P<.001), and there was a lower percentage of patients receiving analgesics 2 or more days after cesarean in the study group (26.4% versus 55.1%, P =.006). There was no difference in bowel function.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy of oral sucrose combined with non-nutritive sucking for reducing pain associated with retinopathy of prematurity screening. This was a randomised controlled study of 64 infants undergoing eye examination for retinopathy of prematurity screening. Topical anaesthetic (Proparacaine; Alcaine(®) drop 0.5%: ALCON CANADA Inc., Mississauga, Canada) was applied 30 sec before the eye examination in all infants. The infants in intervention group (Group 1, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of 24% sucrose with a pacifier. The control group (Group 2, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of sterile water with a pacifier. The groups had similar gestational ages (28.5 ± 2.8 weeks), mean birthweight (1304 ± 466 g) or corrected gestational age (35.4 ± 3.7 weeks) at examination. The intervention group had a significantly lower mean Premature Infant Pain Profile score during examination of the first eye, following insertion of the speculum (Group 1:13.7 ± 2.1 vs. Group 2:16.4 ± 1.8, p = 0.001).\",\n \"Mediolateral episiotomy is associated with lower rates of significant perineal tears than midline episiotomy. However, the relationship between precise angle of episiotomy from the perineal midline and risk of third-degree tear has not been established. This study quantifies this relationship. Case-control study. National Maternity Hospital, Dublin, Ireland. One hundred primiparous women who had undergone right mediolateral episiotomy 3 months previously. Two groups of primiparous women were compared. Cases had sustained clinically apparent anal sphincter injury during delivery, while controls had not. The angle of episiotomy measured from the midline was marked on a superimposed sheet of transparent plastic film and measured using a protractor. Data were analysed using Student's t test, chi-square test and logistic regression analysis. Angle of mediolateral episiotomy from the perineal midline. Fifty-four cases and 46 controls were assessed. Cases were more likely to have undergone assisted delivery and consequently to have been delivered by an obstetrician than by a midwife. The mean angle of episiotomy measured significantly smaller in cases (30 degrees, 95% CI 28-32 degrees) than in controls (38 degrees, 95% CI 35-41 degrees; P<0.001). Analysis showed a 50% relative reduction in risk of sustaining third-degree tear for every 6 degrees away from the perineal midline that an episiotomy was cut.\",\n \"Vaginal birth after a prior low transverse caesarean section (VBAC) is advocated as a safe and effective method to reduce the total caesarean section rate. However, the risk of uterine rupture has dampened the enthusiasm of practising clinicians for VBAC. Uterine rupture occurs more frequently in women receiving prostaglandins in preparation for the induction of labour. We hypothesised that similar to the cervix, prostaglandins induces biochemical changes in the uterine scar favouring dissolution, predisposing the uterus to rupture at the scar of the lower segment as opposed to elsewhere. We tested aspects of this hypothesis by investigating the location of uterine rupture associated with prostaglandins and compared it with the sites of rupture in the absence of prostaglandins. Two North American University Hospitals. Twenty-six women with a prior caesarean section, experiencing uterine rupture in active labour. Retrospective review of all pregnancies complicated by uterine rupture at two North American teaching hospitals from 1991 to 2000. Site of the uterine rupture. Thirty-four women experienced rupture after a previous caesarean section with low transverse uterine incision. Ten of the women who ruptured (29%) received prostaglandins for cervical ripening (dinoprostone: n= 8 or misoprostol: n= 2) followed by either spontaneous contractions (n= 3) or oxytocin augmentation during labour (n= 7). In 16 women (47%), oxytocin alone was sufficient for the induction/augmentation of labour. Eight (23%) women ruptured at term before reaching the active phase of labour in the absence of pro-contractile agents or attempted VBAC. There were no differences among the groups in terms of age, body mass index, parity, gestational age, fetal weight or umbilical cord pH measurements. Women treated with prostaglandins experienced rupture at the site of their old scar more frequently than women in the oxytocin-alone group whose rupture tended to occur remote from their old scar (prostaglandins 90%vs oxytocin 44%; OR: 11.6, 95% CI: 1.2-114.3).\",\n \"EMLA cream (AstraZeneca Inc, Canada) (1:1 eutectic mixture of lidocaine 2.5% and prilocaine 2.5%) has traditionally been used for topical anesthesia of the skin. Recent reports of EMLA's use for anesthesia of the oral mucosa suggest an application in topical anesthesia for bronchoscopy. To evaluate the amount of local anesthetic administered during bronchoscopy; to assess the time required to obtain topical anesthesia; to assess the quality of the topical anesthesia as described by bronchoscopists; and to document any complications. Fifty-seven unpremedicated patients had 4 mL of EMLA cream applied to the posterior third of their tongues on arrival in the bronchoscopy suite. Liquid lidocaine was applied through the bronchoscope for laryngeal anesthesia. The mean time from the application of EMLA cream to insertion of the bronchoscope was 5.10+/-0.48 min. Fifty-six patients (98.2%) required no supplemental anesthesia. Bronchoscopy conditions were described as 'excellent' in 55 cases (96.5%) and 'good' in the remaining two cases (3.5%).\",\n \"yes. This simple, low-cost umbilical vacuum dressing decreased the wound infection rate after SIPES appendectomy, possibly by absorbing secretions from the base of the wound. It may be equally effective for other indications.\",\n \"Epidural patient-controlled analgesia (EPCA) with a mixture of low-concentration levobupivacaine (0.0625% or 0.1%) plus fentanyl, with basal infusion, has been extensively used for postoperative analgesia in our allied institutions. To elucidate whether these two EPCA regimens provide satisfactory analgesia, we compared the analgesia efficacy and incidence of drug-related side effects for both EPCA regimens with those of the most widely used postoperative analgesia regimen, intra-venous PCA (IVPCA) with morphine. Data collection was performed through retrospective chart review. A total of 335 patients who underwent colorectal surgery were included. Patients received IVPCA (n = 200), EPCA with 0.0625% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 45), or EPCA with 0.1% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 90). The analgesia efficacy and side effects were compared. Pain scores with 0.0625% and 0.1% EPCA were significantly lower than those with IVPCA. Most patients were satisfied with their postoperative analgesia, and the satisfaction scores of these three groups were comparable. No patients developed respiratory depression or over-sedation. The incidence of nausea and vomiting was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (16.7% and 7.8%, respectively) compared with IVPCA (6.1% and 3.5%, respectively) and 0.0625% EPCA (9.3% and 2.3%, respectively). Moreover, the incidence of sensory and motor blockade was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (13.5% and 5.6%, respectively) than with 0.0625% EPCA (4.7% and 0%, respectively).\",\n \"There is conflicting data in the literature regarding the risk of obstetric anal sphincter laceration in patients with a prior laceration. This retrospective chart review seeks to examine the risk of recurrence of obstetric anal sphincter lacerations. Patients who sustained anal sphincter laceration at delivery during a 13-year time period from January 1991 to December 2003 were identified from the medical records database at Temple University Hospital. All subsequent deliveries in this group of patients were extracted from the database. Chart review was performed on all subsequent deliveries with specific attention to demographic factors such as age, race, parity, etc., maternal weight, fetal weight, presence of maternal diabetes, and labor characteristics such as induction or augmentation of labor, instrumentation at delivery (vacuum or forceps), use of episiotomy, and degree of perineal laceration. There were 23 451 vaginal deliveries at Temple University Hospital between January 1, 1991 and December 31, 2003. Anal sphincter laceration was noted in 778 subjects. Subsequent deliveries among the group of patients with prior sphincter tears numbered 271. Six (2.4%) patients had recurrence of anal sphincter lacerations, and five of them were third degree lacerations. The rate of recurrent lacerations was not significantly different from the rate of initial lacerations (2.4% vs. 3.3%; odds ratio 0.72, 95% confidence interval 0.33-1.59; p = 0.4). Women who sustained recurrent lacerations were older, more obese (mean weight 92 kg vs. 82 kg), had larger babies (3506 g vs. 3227 g), and were more likely to have episiotomies (66.7% vs. 7%) or instrumental deliveries (33.3 vs. 6.5%).\",\n \"To estimate whether variations in intrapartum management and complications exist with regard to the time of delivery within the academic year. The delivery records of 7814 patients were separated by both term half year and quarter. Statistical comparisons were made using chi2 tests of association (P<.05) with respect to the academic time of the year and perineal trauma (third- or fourth-degree tear), episiotomy usage, cesarean delivery, postpartum hemorrhage, chorioamnionitis, shoulder dystocia, neonatal intensive care unit admission, 1- or 5-minute Apgar scores less than 7, and low umbilical cord pH. There were 4082 deliveries in the first half and 3732 in the second half of the year from April 1996 through March 1999. The first half-year overall cesarean rate was higher (15.8% versus 14.3%, P<.03). Primary cesarean rates were similar. No other differences were found by term half year. More perineal trauma was noted in the fourth quarter (first 3.3%, second 4.5%, third 3.7%, fourth 5.5%, P<.037). Episiotomy usage was higher in both the first and fourth quarters (13.0%, 11.3%, 10.6%, and 14.8%, P<.002). More cases of chorioamnionitis occurred in the fourth quarter (first 3.4%, second 3.1%, third 2.6%, fourth 4.0%, P<.038, third versus fourth quarter). Chorioamnionitis occurred more frequently in July (July 5.0% versus August-June 3.1%, P<.005). There were no other clinically significant differences. Neonatal outcomes were not affected by academic time of year.\",\n \"To determine whether perineal massage during the second stage of labor using oil enriched with vitamins, increases the chances of delivering with an intact perineum as compared to perineal massage using pure liquid wax. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study was conducted. Women were assigned to liquid wax (jojoba oil) versus purified formula of almond and olive oil, enriched with vitamin B1, B2, B6, E and fatty acids. The caregivers used the oils during the second stage of labor. A total of 164 women undergoing vaginal delivery were recruited. No significant differences regarding perineal lacerations, number of sutures and length of suturing were noted between the two groups. Likewise, while analyzing separately nulliparous and multiparous women, no significant differences were noted. Controlling for birth weight>4000 g, using the Mantel-Haenszel technique, no association was noted between perineal lacerations and the type of oil used (weighted OR = 0.9, 95% CI 0.3-2.4; p = 0.818).\",\n \"Post-tonsillectomy pain is believed to be mediated by noxious stimulation of C-fiber afferents located in the peritonsillary space, and local anesthetic infiltration to this area may decrease pain by blocking the sensory pathways and thus preventing the nociceptive impulses. We aimed to compare the effects of different concentrations of preincisional peritonsillar levobupivacaine (0.25% and 0.5%) infiltration on postoperative pain and bleeding in a placebo-controlled design. After obtaining Institutional Ethics Committee approval, 72 ASA I-II patients between 3 and 12 years of age, scheduled to undergo tonsillectomy were enrolled and randomly assigned to one of the three groups using the sealed envelope technique, as Group I (Control group), Group II, and Group III receiving preincisional bilateral peritonsillar infiltration with saline, 0.25% levobupivacaine and 0.5% levobupivacaine, respectively (3 mL to each tonsil). Pain, fever, dysphagia; nausea-vomiting and hemorrhage were evaluated at postoperative 0, 30, and 60 minutes and 2, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Oral paracetamol was administered at a dose of 15 mg/kg when FLACC score was>4. The number of paracetamol administrations within the first 24 hours were recorded. The patients in Groups I, II and III defined pain (FLACC>4) at a rate of 87%, 60.9%, and 54.2% within the postoperative first 24 hours, respectively. The total number of additional analgesic requirements was significantly low in Group II and III when compared with Group I. There was no difference between groups in terms of fever, dysphagia, nausea-vomiting, hemorrhage.\",\n \"yes. Pain relief was inadequate in patients undergoing postpartum tubal ligation under local anesthesia, even after the administration of IM morphine. Instilling lidocaine into the abdominal cavity, however, effectively decreased intraoperative pain in these patients.\",\n \"We conducted a randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial to evaluate the effectiveness of intraperitoneal lidocaine, IM morphine, or both drugs together for pain relief in postpartum tubal ligation. Eighty postpartum patients scheduled to have tubal sterilization were randomly divided into four groups to receive IM isotonic sodium chloride solution (1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group P); IM morphine (10 mg in 1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group M); IM injection of isotonic sodium chloride solution and intraperitoneal instillation of 0.5% lidocaine in 80 mL (Group L); and both IM morphine and intraperitoneal lidocaine instillation (Group ML). The minilaparotomy was performed after local infiltration with 15 mL of 1% lidocaine. A numerical rating score was used to rate pain on a 0-10 scale during the surgical procedures. The mean pain scores were 1.2 in Group L and 0.8 in Group ML. These pain scores were significantly lower than those in Groups P and M, which were 5.5 and 6.0, respectively (P < 0.001).\",\n \"Episiotomy procedures during normal singleton vaginal term deliveries in Catalonia has decreased steadily since 2007. Study results show a stable incidence trend below 1% for severe perineal trauma over the study period.\",\n \"To analyze the effects of epidural analgesia for labor when dystocia occurs. Retrospective cohort study. Academic health center. 641 low risk, nulliparous women in spontaneous labor. 406 (63%) women received epidurals analgesia and 253 (37%) did not. Sixty women (9.4%) required an abdominal delivery for dystocia. Women receiving epidural analgesia were more likely to be white, receive care from an attending physician, need labor augmentation, and deliver a heavier infant. Multivariate analysis identified five variables predictive of dystocia and abdominal delivery: pitocin augmentation odds ratio (O.R.) = 3.9 (2.0 to 7.6), duration of labor more than 20 hours O.R. = 2.4 (1.3 to 4.4), high epidural dose O.R. = 2.2 (1.2 to 4.1), birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.0 (1.0 to 4.2), and early placement of epidural O.R. = 1. 9 (1.0 to 3.5). Repeating the regression after excluding the 20 women who developed abnormal labor prior to epidural placement (18 of 20 women had protracted dilatation) demonstrated that pitocin augmentation O.R. = 4.0 (1.8 to 4.), high epidural dose O.R. = 3.0 (1.9 to 6.2), duration of labor greater than 20 hours O.R. = 2.7 (1.3 to 5.7), and birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.1 (0. 9 to 4.8) were associated with dystocia.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to explore the relation between the application of a mixture of lidocaine/prilocaine cream (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics [EMLA]) before intravenous cannula insertion and perceived pain in the pediatric patient. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial. A general inpatient pediatric ward. We examined 26 male and 31 female patients between the ages of 4 and 12 years who required intravenous cannula insertion. Intravenous insertion was performed on 57 patients, with 29 patients in the placebo group (mean age, 8.1 years) and 28 in the EMLA group (mean age, 8.0 years). Application of either EMLA cream or placebo 45 minutes before intravenous cannulation. Pain was scored by the patients using a 0- to 10-cm visual analogue scale combined with a Faces pain scale as well as visual observation by a nurse. Adverse side effects were recorded in a separate table. Data collected and the differences between the placebo and treated groups were tested using a Mann-Whitney U test. Those children in the EMLA group (mean pain score, 1.25) experienced less pain than those in the placebo group (mean, 8.39). There was no statistical significance between age, sex, and race.\",\n \"To compare cesarean section (CS) using open or closed visceral peritoneum of the bladder flap (BF) in relation to fluid collection in vesico-uterine space (VUS) by ultrasound (US) and clinical outcome. A prospective cohort of repeat CS in 474 in advanced first and second stage of labor was studied. All women underwent a Misgav Ladach CS, in local combined anesthesia. These were divided into two groups by surgical management of the BF at the time of CS: Group I (n = 262), with visceral peritoneum left open and Group II (n = 212), with visceral peritoneum closed. An US check for the fluid collections in the VUS was done in the third post-operative day. The two groups were also clinically compared for: intra-operative estimated blood loss, the need for post-CS pain killers, febrile morbidity and duration of hospital stay. Visceral peritoneum (VP) closure resulted in a significant increase blood collections in the VUS (p<0.05). VP closure resulted in a significantly higher morbidity in all the following parameters. Rate of BFHs, post-operative fever, need for post-operative analgesia, require antibiotic administration and prolonged hospitalisation (p<0.05).\",\n \"Preoperative oral acetaminophen (30 mg x kg(-1)) was compared with topical 2% lidocaine ear drops for postoperative analgesia following bilateral myringotomy and tube placement (BMT) in children. In a randomized, prospective, double-blind trial, we studied 124 patients, six months to eight years, ASA physical status I or II, undergoing elective BMT under general anesthesia. The patients in Group I received acetaminophen 30 mg x kg(-1) orally in a grape flavoured syrup 30 to 60 min before surgery and 0.9% saline drops (placebo) in each ear upon insertion of tympanostomy tube. Patients in Group II received a placebo (grape flavoured syrup) before surgery and 2% lidocaine, 0.5 mL in each ear when ear tubes were inserted. Postoperative pain assessments were recorded every five minutes in the postanesthesia care unit, and every 15 min in the day care surgical unit (DCSU) using the modified Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario pain scale (mCHEOPS), a ten-point scale. Pain at home was documented by parents using a 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain imaginable) scale. The median (range) mCHEOPS scores in the DCSU at 15 and 30 min were similar, i.e., 5 (4-9) in the acetaminophen group and 4 (4-8) in the lidocaine group. The proportion of patients receiving supplemental analgesics in the 24 hr following surgery was similar in both groups (45% and 42% respectively).\",\n \"Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at operative vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 2041 consecutive operative vaginal deliveries and compared yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1984 and 1994 the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries fell significantly (93.4% to 35.7%, R2 = 0.85, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a rise in the rate of vaginal lacerations (16.1% to 40.0%, R2 = 0.80, p = 0.0002), a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations (12.2% to 5.4%, R2 = 0.62, p = 0.004), but no significant change in the rate of third-degree lacerations. These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and type of instrument used for delivery. The prevalence of other previously reported risks for perineal morbidity did not change during the study period.\",\n \"To examine trends in obstetric interventions in women at low risk over approximately 3 years. It was postulated that there would be a general reduction in most intervention rates. Retrospective review of hospital records. Three downtown hospitals of the University of Toronto, in which academic and nonacademic family physicians and obstetricians practised. A total of 2365 women in phase 1 (April 1985 to March 1986) and 1277 in phase 2 (May to September 1988) met the inclusion criteria for grade A (pregnancy at no predictable risk) of the Ontario Antenatal Record at the time of admission to hospital. Rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction, augmentation, epidural anesthesia, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), instrumental delivery, episiotomy and cesarean section. The family physicians and the obstetricians had significant decreases (p<0.01) over time in the rates of episiotomy, especially mediolateral, and low forceps delivery. The rate of epidural anesthesia decreased significantly in the obstetrician group. The rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction and continuous EFM increased in the two physician groups; the increased rate of EFM was significant in the obstetrician group (p<0.01). There was no significant change in the rates of augmentation, midforceps delivery, vacuum extraction or cesarean section. All of the trends were found to hold when the intervention rates were analysed according to the women's parity.\",\n \"Local anaesthetic infusions into the surgical wound have been shown to reduce postoperative pain and the need for opioids in adults. In children, it was found to be safe and efficacious following sternotomy and orthopaedic surgery. The aim of this study was to evaluate the need for opioids postoperatively in children receiving wound catheters delivering either bupivacaine or saline following one of three defined abdominal or bladder procedures. Prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo controlled study. Thirty-three children, 6 months of age to 13 years of age, undergoing elective surgery for enterostomy closure, open gastrostomy or ureteral reimplantation were randomized to receive bupivacaine or saline wound infusions for 72 h postoperatively. All patients received acetaminophen orally or rectally for every 6 h. Breakthrough pain was treated with morphine bolus doses of 0.05 mg/kg or infusions if more than three morphine doses were required. Pain scores were assessed every 3 h. Outcome measures were morphine dosages, return to full oral intake and length of hospital stay. On the first postoperative day, patients with bupivacaine infusions had significantly less need for morphine (1.3 ± 1.3 SD doses) compared to those receiving saline infusions (3.1+/2.5 SD doses, p < 0.05). No difference was seen during postoperative day two or three. There was no significant difference between the groups regarding time to full oral intake and time to discharge.\",\n \"This prospective study aims to compare maternal and neonatal effects of spinal and general anesthesia for elective cesarean section. Term parturients receiving routine spinal (Group SA, n=95) or general (Group GA, n=93) anesthesia and standard postoperative analgesia for elective cesarean section were included in this study. Operation time, incision-hysterotomy (TS-H) and hysterotomy-umbilical cord clamping (TH-U) intervals, oxytocine requirement, intraoperative fluids, ephedrine requirement, incidence of hypotension, time to first analgesic requirement (Tanalg), pethidine consumption, adverse events, time to first breastfeeding, oral food intake (TOI), flatulence (TF), defecation (TD), mobilization, and postoperative hospital stay were compared between the groups. Newborn Apgar scores, umbilical venous blood gas analysis, incidence of hypoglycemia, nutritional support, phototherapy and ventilatory support were also analyzed. Spinal anesthesia was associated with longer TS-H and TH-U durations, lower oxytocine requirements, higher incidence of hypotension, increased ephedrine and fluid consumption, and delayed Tanalg. Furthermore, TOI, TF, TD and postoperative hospital stay was shorter in patients given spinal anesthesia when compared with patients given general anesthesia (48h vs. 52 h, respectively; p<0.01). No difference in postoperative analgesic consumption and neonatal outcomes, except 1st min Apgar scores and umbilical blood gas analysis, was detected.\",\n \"yes. This prospective, randomized, single-blind study demonstrates that a single dose of intraoperative Sensorcaine provides a safe, inexpensive, and efficacious way to significantly shorten the length of postanesthesia care unit stay and significantly decrease postoperative opioid analgesic use in patients undergoing ambulatory reduction mammaplasty.\",\n \"We questioned whether it is feasible in the current era of cost consciousness to perform standard open pediatric urological procedures on an outpatient basis while maintaining patient safety and satisfaction. We report on 51 consecutive patients 2 months to 13 years old (mean age 4 years 3 months) who underwent a standard open pediatric urological procedure between August 1999 and June 2000. The procedures included ureteral reimplantation in 22 cases (tapered in 2), pyeloplasty in 20, partial nephrectomy in 2, nephrectomy in 2, complete ureterocele reconstruction in 1 and other in 4. The expectation that the procedure would be performed on an outpatient basis was discussed with parents preoperatively. We excluded only cases requiring bowel for reconstruction. A caudal block was administered at the start of the procedure using 0.25% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine at a dose of 1 cc/kg. The wound was infiltrated with 1 cc/kg. 0.25% bupivacaine and 0.5 mg./kg. ketorolac was administered at the end of the procedure. As soon as the child awakened, an age appropriate diet was started and 0.5 to 1 mg./kg. codeine with acetaminophen was given every 4 hours. Of the 51 children 44 (86%) were discharged home the day of surgery. Average postoperative hospitalization was 7 hours. One of the 44 children discharged home required a single catheterization elsewhere. There were no other complications or repeat hospitalizations.\",\n \"Patient information leaflets (PILs) are an important source of information for patients postoperatively. There are currently no nationally agreed standards by dermatologists for postoperative advice following skin surgery.AIM: To assess the common themes and areas of variation in advice given in PILs after skin surgery across all National Health Service (NHS) hospitals in England and Wales. All acute trusts in England (n = 159) and local health boards in Wales (n = 7) were requested to provide their postoperative dermatological PILs for general sutured wound care or excision biopsy. Eight preselected parameters were assessed: minimum dressing duration, duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, postoperative analgesia, explanation of infection signs, application of petroleum jelly, scarring, whom to contact if there is a problem, and the recommended postoperative time for abstaining from active exercise. PILs were received from 137 different dermatology departments belonging to 127/166 (76.5%) organisations across England and Wales. Of these, 102 PILs gave a specific duration for dressings: 45/102 (44.1%) advised a minimum of 48 h, but 28/102 (27.5%) recommended leaving dressings in place until suture removal. Regarding duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, 117 PILs gave advice, with the most common recommendation being 15 min (30/117, 25.6%), followed closely by 10 min (26/117, 22.2%). Of the 137 PILs received, 125 gave advice regarding postoperative analgesia, with paracetamol alone being the most common recommendation (24/125, 19.2%). For the remaining parameters, 111/137 (81.0%) PILs described ≥ 2 signs of infection, 42/137 (30.7%) recommended the application of petroleum jelly, 65/137 (47.4%) mentioned scarring, 137/137 (100%) highlighted whom to contact if there were postoperative problems and 87/137 (63.5%) PILs gave advice regarding postoperative abstinence from active exercise.\",\n \"Wound infiltration with local anaesthetic following appendicectomy in children provides no additional benefit over regular simple analgesia. Its routine use represents dogmatic practise which ought to be challenged for this patient group.\",\n \"We suggest that application of topical lidocaine with adrenaline seems to be a safe and easy medication for local anesthetic use. However, in our study, lidocaine with adrenaline offered no advantage over placebo in the control of post-operative pain and other morbidity related factors following pediatric tonsillectomy. We therefore do not recommend topical application of lidocaine with adrenaline for reducing morbidity in pediatric tonsil surgery.\",\n \"yes. 0.025% ropivacaine PCEA combined with fentanyl and epinephrine provided effective pain relief after cesarean section with early ambulation and without sensory loss, urinary retention, or increase of side-effects.\",\n \"Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at spontaneous vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 17,483 consecutive spontaneous vaginal deliveries and compared the yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1976 and 1994 the use of episiotomy fell significantly (86.8% to 10.4%, R2 = 0.92, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a fall in the rate of third- and fourth-degree lacerations (9.0% to 4.2%, R2 = 0.59, p = 0.0001) and a rise in the rate of intact perinea (10.3% to 26.5%, R2 = 0.68, p = 0.0001) and vaginal lacerations (5.4% to 19.3%, R2 = 0.77, p = 0.0001). These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and birth weight, except for the subgroup of nulliparous women with macrosomic infants.\",\n \"To explore the association between midline episiotomy and the risk of third- and fourth-degree lacerations during operative vaginal delivery with either vacuum extractor or forceps. This retrospective cohort study analyzed all operative vaginal deliveries at a university hospital in 1989 and 1990. Univariate analysis of the relationships between perineal lacerations and obstetric variables was performed. Stratified analysis using the relevant variables was used to calculate relative risk (RR) estimates. Episiotomy, birth weight, and whether the index birth was the first vaginal birth were associated with third- and fourth-degree perineal lacerations. Stratified analysis demonstrated an RR of 2.4 with a 95% confidence interval of 1.7-3.5 for rectal injury with episiotomy, adjusting for parity and birth weight.\",\n \"At our institution a statistically and clinically significant reduction in the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries was not associated with a change in the rate of third-degree lacerations but was associated with an increase in the rate of vaginal lacerations and a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations.\",\n \"To analyse the significance of risk factors and the role of episiotomy in preventing obstetric anal sphincter injury at vaginal delivery. This is a retrospective cross-sectional study in the Norfolk and Norwich University Hospital in the UK. All caesarean sections and non-vertex presentations were excluded, which resulted in a study population of 10,314 deliveries. Obstetric anal sphincter injury (OASI) was defined as third or fourth degree tears to the anal sphincter muscles, with or without a tear involving the anal mucosa. First a univariate analysis was done to identify factors that had a significant association with OASI. Factors included parity, age, gestation, labour induction method, duration of second stage, use of epidural analgesia, episiotomy, method of delivery, time and month of delivery, and birth weight. All factors were then combined in a multivariate logistic regression analysis. The multivariate analysis was then repeated including only factors that had a significant association with OASI in the univariate analysis. Adjusted odds ratios with 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated. The frequency of anal sphincter lacerations was 3.2%. There were statistically significant associations between an increased incidence of OASI and parity, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia. Women giving birth without a mediolateral episiotomy were 1.4 times more likely to experience OASI (95% CI 1.021-1.983). Interestingly, the incidence of OASI has risen between 2005 and 2007.\",\n \"Obstetric perineal wound infection is a complication of perineal trauma during vaginal delivery; however, it is difficult to establish its true incidence as women present for treatment to their GP or the hospital.AIM: To establish the incidence and risk factors of wound infection in postpartum women with sutured tears. A 3-month prospective audit was carried out on all women who sustained sutured tears. Wound infection was defined as the presence of any two of the following markers: perineal pain, wound dehiscence, or purulent vaginal discharge. A total of 341 women were contacted by telephone 21 days post-delivery and asked about markers for perineal wound infection and antibiotic use. In total, 409 women sustained sutured perineal tears, including episiotomies, and first, second, third and fourth degree tears. Of the 341 (83%) women contacted, 39 (11%) had a perineal wound infection based on the criteria of any two infection markers. Sixteen(5%) women had all three markers of wound infection. Prolonged rupture of membranes and instrumental delivery was a significant risk factor for women with two and three markers of wound infection,respectively.\",\n \"To examine the rate of episiotomy use among nulliparous Yemeni women, and to evaluate its impact on perineal tears. We retrospectively reviewed the delivery record for all nulliparous women with and without episiotomy and singleton spontaneous births at Al-Thawra General Hospital, Sana'a, Yemen between January and December 2008. The womens' charts were retrieved, and the demographic characteristics were obtained. For women with episiotomy, the indication and type of incision were noted. The rate of the procedure and the perineal tears was recorded, and compared between women with and without episiotomy. A total of 2588 nulliparous women had singleton spontaneous births. Out of these, 1944 (75.1%) women had an episiotomy. Most cases (96%) had a mediolateral incision. Seventeen episiotomy cases (0.87%) were complicated by second and third degree perineal tears versus 12 cases (1.7%) with the same type of tear in women without the procedure.\",\n \"Prior anal sphincter laceration does not result in an increased rate of recurrence. Operative vaginal delivery particularly with episiotomy is a risk factor for both initial and recurrent laceration.\",\n \"To determine the risk factors for anal sphincter injuries during operative vaginal delivery. A population-based observational study. All 21 254 women delivered with vacuum extraction and 7478 women delivered with forceps, derived from the previously validated Dutch National Obstetric Database from the years 1994 to 1995. Anal sphincter injury was defined as any injury, partial or complete, of the anal sphincters. Risk factors were determined with multivariate logistic regression analysis. Individual obstetric factors, e.g. fetal birthweights, duration of second stage, etc. Anal sphincter injury occurred in 3.0% of vacuum extractions and in 4.7% of forceps deliveries. Primiparity, occipitoposterior position and fetal birthweight were associated with an increased risk for anal sphincter injury in both types of operative vaginal delivery, whereas duration of second stage was associated with an increased risk only in vacuum extractions. Mediolateral episiotomy protected significantly for anal sphincter damage in both vacuum extraction (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.09-0.13) and forceps delivery (OR 0.08, 95% CI 0.07-0.11). The number of mediolateral episiotomies needed to prevent one sphincter injury in vacuum extractions was 12, whereas 5 mediolateral episiotomies could prevent one sphincter injury in forceps deliveries.\",\n \"To identify the risk factors for obstetric anal sphincter rupture (OASR). Retrospective population-based register study. A total of 514,741 women with singleton pregnancy and vaginal delivery between 1997 and 2007 in Finland. Primiparous (n = 2,315) and multiparous women (n = 534) with OASR were compared with primiparous and multiparous women without OASR by using stepwise logistic regression analysis. The OASR risk. Episiotomy decreased the likelihood of OASR for the primiparous [odds ratio (OR) 0.83, 95% CI (confidence interval) 0.75-0.92], but not the multiparous women (OR 2.01, 95% CI 1.67-2.44). The strongest risk factors for OASR among the primiparous women were forceps delivery (OR 10.20, 95% CI 3.60-28.90), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 4.66, 95% CI 3.86-5.63), vacuum assisted delivery (OR 3.88, 95% CI 3.25-4.63), occiput posterior presentation (OR 3.17, 95% CI 1.64-6.15), and prolonged active second stage of birth (OR 2.06, 95% CI 1.65-2.58). Episiotomy was associated with decreased risks for OASR in vacuum assisted deliveries (OR 0.70, 95% CI 0.57-0.85). Risk factors for OASR among the multiparous women included forceps delivery (OR 10.13, 95% CI 2.46-41.81), prolonged active second stage of the birth (OR 7.18, 95% CI 4.32-11.91), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 5.84, 95% CI 3.40-10.02), and vacuum assisted delivery (OR 4.17, 95% CI 3.17-5.48).\",\n \"In Spain, the Strategy for Assistance in Normal Childbirth (SANC) promoted a model of care, which respects the physiological birth process and discards unnecessary routine interventions, such as episiotomies. We evaluated the rate of episiotomy use and perineal trauma as indicators of how selective introduction of the SANC initiative has impacted childbirth outcomes in hospitals of Catalonia. Cross-sectional study of all singleton vaginal term deliveries without instrument registered in the Minimum Basic Data Set (MBDS) of Catalonia in 2007, 2010 and 2012. Hospitals were divided into types according to funding (public or private), and four strata were differentiated according to volume of births attended. Episiotomies and perineal injury were considered dependent variables. The relationship between qualitative variables was analysed using the chi-squared test, and Student's t-test was used for quantitative variables. Comparison of proportions was performed on the two hospital groups between 2007 and 2012 using a Z-test. Logistic regression models were used to analyse the relationship between episiotomy or severe perineal damage and maternal age, volume of births and hospital type, obtaining odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI). The majority of normal singleton term deliveries were attended in public hospitals, where maternal age was lower than for women attended in private hospitals. Analysis revealed a statistically significant (P < 0.001) decreasing trend in episiotomy use in Catalonia for both hospital types. Private hospitals appeared to be associated with increased episiotomy rate in 2007 (OR = 1.099, CI: 1,057-1,142), 2010 (OR = 1.528, CI: 1,472-1,587) and 2012 (OR = 1.459, CI: 1,383-1,540), and a lower rate of severe perineal trauma in 2007 (OR = 0.164, CI: 0.095-0.283), 2010 (OR = 0.16, CI: 0.110-0.232) and 2012 (OR = 0.19, CI: 0.107-0.336). Regarding severe perineal injury, when independent variables were adjusted, maternal age ceased to have a significant correlation in 2012 (OR = 0.994, CI: 0.970-1.018).\",\n \"The objective of the study was to determine whether a decrease in the use of episiotomy was associated with a change in the frequency of brachial plexus injury. All births at Brigham and Women's Hospital from Sept. 1, 1998, through Aug. 31, 2009, were reviewed. The total number of births, mode of delivery, shoulder dystocias, episiotomies with and without shoulder dystocias, and brachial plexus injuries were recorded. A nonparametric test of trend was performed. There were a total of 94,842 births, 953 shoulder dystocias, and 102 brachial plexus injuries. The rate of episiotomy with shoulder dystocia dropped from 40% in 1999 to 4% in 2009 (P = .005) with no change in the rate of brachial plexus injuries per 1000 vaginal births.\",\n \"To compare the postpartum pelvic floor function of women with sutured second-degree perineal lacerations, unsutured second-degree perineal lacerations, and intact perineums. A prospective cohort of nurse-midwifery patients consented to mapping of genital trauma at birth and an assessment of postpartum pelvic floor outcomes. Women completed validated questionnaires for perineal pain and urinary and anal incontinence at 12 weeks postpartum and underwent physical examination to assess pelvic floor strength and anatomy at 6 weeks postpartum. One hundred seventy-two of 212 (80%) eligible women provided follow-up assessment data at 6 or 12 weeks postpartum. Women with an intact perineum (n=89) used fewer analgesics (P<.002) and had lower pain scores at the time of hospital discharge than women with second-degree lacerations (sutured, n=46; unsutured, n=37; intact, n=89) (P40 kg/m(2)), vacuum/forceps extraction, perineal lacerations that warranted repair during labor and any pelvic surgery were the exclusion criteria. Evaluation of the patients included pelvic organ prolapse quantification scores, presence of stress incontinence, urethral hypermobility, and questionnaires were obtained for overactive bladder and anal incontinence symptoms. These data obtained from patients with the history of mediolateral episiotomy were compared with those of patients with no episiotomy or any other pelvic injury that warranted surgical repair. Groups were identical by means of demographic data, POP-Q findings, signs and symptoms of the pelvic floor. However, in the MLE group, central defects on the anterior vaginal wall were less frequent.\",\n \"Mediolateral episiotomy is an independent risk factor for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears, even in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries, occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia, and NRFHR. Prophylactic use of episiotomy in these conditions does not seem beneficial if performed to prevent 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears.\",\n \"These results show that a larger angle of episiotomy is associated with a lower risk of third-degree tear and mediolateral episiotomy incisions should be made at as large an angle as possible to minimise the risk of sphincter disruption.\",\n \"no. With judicious intraoperative fluid restriction and voluntary voiding before discharge, epidural anesthesia does not increase the incidence of postoperative urinary retention or hesitancy in micturition following ambulatory hemorrhoidectomy.\",\n \"Parity, age, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia are strongly associated with obstetric anal sphincter injury. Mediolateral episiotomy appears to be protective against OASI but a randomised controlled trial would be needed to confirm this. The rising incidence of OASI after normal vaginal deliveries may be related to adoption of the hands off technique or increased identification of tears.\",\n \"To compare the relative efficacy of oral sucrose versus EMLA cream for pain relief during venepuncture, 51 full-term newborns (38M, 13F; postnatal age <4 d) in a stable condition were randomly allocated to one of four treatment groups: placebo (2 ml spring water); 2 ml sucrose 24% w/v; 1 g lidocaine-prilocaine 5% cream (EMLA); or EMLA plus sucrose. Water or a single dose of sucrose solution was administered orally 2 min before venepuncture. EMLA cream was applied in the antecubital fossa 45-60 min before venepuncture and covered by a Tegaderm dressing. A pacifier was given before skin puncture, but it was not actively held or replaced during the procedure or observation periods. In total, 55 venepunctures were performed blindly, always for clinical reasons. As indicators of pain, the total crying time was recorded and heart rate, respiratory rate and arterial oxygen saturation were measured blindly at baseline, immediately post-venepuncture, and 2 and 4 min afterwards. The main effects observed were: (i) time spent crying decreased significantly in the sucrose alone (p = 0.001) and EMLA plus sucrose (p = 0.008) groups; (ii) the above treatments attenuated significantly (p < 0.05) the immediate heart rate response to pain; and (iii) the concomitant use of EMLA did not increase further the analgesic efficacy of sucrose.\",\n \"There is an ongoing debate regarding the routine versus restrictive use of episiotomy The study aim was to investigate if episiotomy during vaginal deliveries can reduce both, the number and severity of genital lacerations. The study included all women who gave vaginal birth at AOU. \\\"G. Martino\\\" Messina (n=382) and the Clinic for Ob/Gyn Clinical Center of Serbia, Belgrade (n=4227) during 2011. Lacerations during birth were recorded and divided according to location and severity Women with lacerations were subdivided into two groups: with or without mediolateral episiotomy We assessed potential risk factors for laceration: maternal age, parity use of labor stimulants and epidural analgesia, participation in antenatal classes, fetal presentation, neonatal birth weight, and duration of the second stage of labor. Older women had higher grade perineum or combined lacerations. Children with higher birth weight in occipito-posterior presentation caused higher grade lacerations. Performance of episiotomy was connected with fewer perineum and labial lacerations. There were no differences in laceration grade between patients with and without episiotomy Assessed parameters proved to be good discriminating factors between lacerations sites. According to logistic regression, laceration site was the most important risk factor for laceration grade. Combined lacerations had the highest grade.\",\n \"Especially in the Nordic countries, increases in obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) have prompted standard use of the Finnish intervention for their prevention. We performed a quality assessment of the introduction of the intervention in a Danish hospital setting. All vaginal deliveries by primiparous women the year before (N = 343) and after (N = 334) the introduction were compared in a retrospective, observational design. Fisher's exact test, Student's t-test, and multiple logistic regression analysis were performed. No significant difference in OASIS (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-1.1) was found. The post-implementation group saw a significant increase in episiotomy (OR: 1.8; 95% CI: 1.1-2.9) and the length of second stage labor (p < 0.05) while intact perineum (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-0.9), use of upright positions for birth (OR: 3.2; 95% CI: 1.8-5.5), and neonatal blood gas levels were significantly reduced (p < 0.05).\",\n \"Our results suggested that there has been a gradual decline in episiotomy rates over the period 2003-2008, and that synthesis of evidence showing harms from routine episiotomy had limited impact on practice patterns in the case of episiotomy. The experience of episiotomy illustrates the challenge of using comparative effectiveness and evidenced-based medicine to reduce use of unnecessary procedures.\",\n \"yes. Primiparity and occipitoposterior presentation are strong risk factors for the occurrence of anal sphincter injury during operative vaginal delivery. The highly significant protective effect of mediolateral episiotomies in both types of operative vaginal delivery warrants the conclusions that this type of episiotomy should be used routinely during these interventions to protect the anal sphincters.\",\n \"Doctors and midwives are unaware of the appropriate angle (60 degrees) at which a mediolateral episiotomy should be incised at to minimise obstetric anal sphincter injury. The correct angle should be emphasised to accoucheurs to minimise the risk of anal sphincter damage. In addition midwives depict episiotomies that are significantly more acute than they describe. Accoucheurs should also perform at least 10 episiotomies under supervision prior to independent practice. Training programmes should be devised and validated to improve visual measurement of the episiotomy incision angle at crowning. Consideration should also be given to the development of novel surgical devices that help the accoucheur to perform a mediolateral episiotomy accurately.\",\n \"To investigate the efficacy of placing bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan (Ferrosan, Soeborg, Copenhagen, Denmark) in episiotomy beds for relief of postpartum pain. Randomized, controlled study (Canadian Task Force classification I). University medical school. Women with mediolateral episiotomy. Patients were recruited and randomized into 2 groups by using a random number table. Group I (control group) received local lignocaine infiltration 1% up to 20 mL. For group II (Spongostan group), in addition to local lignocaine infiltration, bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan was placed in the episiotomy bed. All patients received routine postpartum perineal care in addition to the regular pain drugs (75 mg of diclofenac every 4 hours if needed). The primary outcome for the study was severity of pain, rated on a 10-cm visual analog scale from 0 to 10. Rating was recorded at 0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours after delivery. In all, 48 women were randomized to group I (local lignocaine alone) and 51 women to group II (local lignocaine plus Spongostan). The Spongostan and control groups were similar with respect to maternal age, parity, gestational age, maternal weight, and neonatal birth weight (p >.05; CI for difference: -2.6/10, 0.1/0.3, 0.3/0.7, 6.9/1.7, and -7/1.9, respectively). Episiotomy length (both vaginal and perineal) and episiotomy depth were higher in Spongostan group than control group (p <.05; 95% CI: -0.9/0, -0.8/-0.1, and -0.6/0, respectively). However, episiotomy reconstruction time of both groups was similar (p >.05; CI: 1.7/6.2). The pain score of Spongostan group was lower than control group and it was statistically significant at all time intervals (0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours) between the Spongostan and control groups (p <.05; CI: 0.6/1.9, 1.1/2.4, 1.0/2.5, 0.9/2.4, 0.3/1.9, and 0.5/1.8, respectively). Postpartum total analgesic requirement (mg/person) again was significantly lower in the Spongostan group than control group (p <.01; CI: 0.1/0.4).\",\n \"Episiotomy is one of the most commonly performed procedures among women of childbearing age in the United States. In 2005, a major systematic review conducted by Hartmann and colleagues recommended against routine use of episiotomy and was widely covered in the media. We assessed the impact of the Hartman et al. study on episiotomy trend. Based on 100% hospital discharge data from eight states in 2003-2008, we used interrupted time series regression models to estimate the impact of the Hartman et al. review on episiotomy rates. We used mixed-effects regression models to assess whether interhospital variation was reduced over time. After controlling for underlying trend, episiotomy rates dropped by 1.4 percentage points after Hartman et al. publication (p<0.01 for spontaneous delivery; p<0.1 for operative delivery). The publication has smaller effect on government hospitals as compared to private hospitals. Mixed effects models estimated negative correlation between cross-time and cross-hospital variations in episiotomy rates, indicating reduced cross-hospital variation over time.\",\n \"yes. Episiotomy can significantly reduce the number of genital lacerations, but it does not influence laceration grade. Advanced maternal age, higher parity occipitoposterior presentation and fetal macrosomia can cause lacerations during vaginal birth. Therefore, we suggest analysis of maternal and fetal factors to prevent widespread genital lacerations.\",\n \"Routine episiotomy has declined since liberal usage has been discouraged. Anal sphincter laceration rates with spontaneous vaginal delivery have decreased, likely reflecting the decreased usage of episiotomy. The decline in operative vaginal delivery corresponds to a sharp increase in cesarean delivery, which may indicate that practitioners are favoring cesarean delivery for difficult births.\",\n \"To investigate whether episiotomy prevents 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries (vacuum or forceps), persistent occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia (>4,000 g), and non-reassuring fetal heart rate (NRFHR) patterns. A retrospective study comparing 3rd and 4th degree perineal tears during vaginal deliveries with or without episiotomy, in selected critical conditions was performed. Multiple gestations, preterm deliveries (<37 weeks' gestation) and cesarean deliveries were excluded from the analysis. Stratified analysis (using the Mantel-Haenszel technique) was used to obtain the weighted odds ratio (OR), while controlling for these variables. During the study period, there were 168,077 singleton vaginal deliveries. Of those, 188 (0.1%) had 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears. Vaginal deliveries with episiotomy had statistically significant higher rates of 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears than those without episiotomy (0.2 vs. 0.1%; P<0.001). The association between episiotomy and severe perineal tears remained significant even in the critical conditions. Stratified analysis revealed that the adjusted ORs for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in these critical conditions (Macrosomia OR=2.3; instrumental deliveries OR=1.8; NRFHR patterns OR=2.1; occipito-posterior position OR=2.3; and shoulder dystocia OR=2.3) were similar to the crude OR (OR=2.3).\",\n \"To compare the outcomes of the current practice of liberally or routinely employing episiotomy to prevent perineal tears and pelvic floor relaxation (control group) to a policy of restricting episiotomy use to specific fetal and maternal indications (experimental group). A randomized controlled trial (RCT). Three university hospitals in Montreal. Seven hundred three low-risk women enrolled at 30 to 34 weeks of gestation were randomized late in labor to the designated trial arm, by parity, and followed up to 3 months postpartum. Antepartum and postpartum information on perineal trauma and pain, pelvic floor symptoms (urinary incontinence), and sexual activity was collected through the use of standard questionnaires; pelvic floor function was measured by electromyographic (EMG) perineometry. Restricting episiotomy use in primiparous women was associated with similar sutured perineal trauma to the liberal or routine approach. Multiparous women in the restricted episiotomy group more often gave birth with an intact perineum (31% compared with 19%, odds ratio (OR) = 1.85, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.09 to 3.16). All but one 3rd/4th-degree perineal tear was associated with median episiotomy (46 of 47 in primiparous women and 6 of 6 among multiparous women). No difference between trial groups was found in postpartum perineal pain, antepartum and 3-month postpartum EMG perineometry, and urinary and pelvic floor symptoms.\",\n \"We found no evidence that liberal or routine use of episiotomy prevents perineal trauma or pelvic floor relaxation. Virtually all severe perineal trauma was associated with median episiotomy. Restriction of episiotomy use among multiparous women resulted in significantly more intact perineums and less perineal suturing.\",\n \"yes. Episiotomy is still performed routinely in 75.1% of first-time births. This rate is higher than supported by the available evidence.\",\n \"yes. Placement of bupivacaine-soaked spongostan into the episiotomy bed resulted in decreased postpartum pain and drug requirement. It may be attributed to a higher drug concentration at episiotomy bed and prolonged drug effect.\",\n \"yes. The results support the restrictive use of episiotomy, since 909 episiotomies appear to be needed to prevent one OASR among primiparous women. Equivalent estimate in vacuum assisted deliveries among primiparous women was 66, favoring routine use of episiotomy in such cases.\",\n \"It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound.\",\n \"A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":63,"string":"63"}}},{"rowIdx":273168,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Is it necessary to biopsy the obvious?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["The radiologist and oncologist are often confident that biopsy will confirm their suspicion of recurrent disease, but a biopsy is performed to confirm the histologic diagnosis before beginning or altering therapy. We have examined data to determine how often the biopsied lesion represents recurrent disease from the primary tumor or is an instance of new cancer, and whether recurrent disease can be predicted. We reviewed the medical and imaging records of 253 patients who underwent CT-guided biopsy of an abdominal or pelvic lesion between 1993 and 1996. Sixty-nine of the 253 patients had a previously diagnosed primary tumor and were being examined for possible tumor recurrence or metastasis. The images of these 69 patients were analyzed to determine if the pattern of disease was typical of recurrence or metastasis. In 55 of the 69 patients, the pattern was judged to be typical of metastatic or recurrent disease. Biopsy confirmed this suspicion in all 55 patients. In 14 of the 69 patients, the pattern of spread was judged not to be typical of recurrence or metastasis. These 14 patients were found to have a new primary tumor (n = 4), benign processes (n = 2), and recurrences (n = 8).","Of the patients for whom radiographic findings suggested recurrence, we found no patients in whom a new primary tumor would have been missed if biopsy had been avoided. Data should now be acquired prospectively to determine whether it may be prudent to make treatment decisions on the basis of imaging findings alone, without histologic confirmation."],"string":"[\n \"The radiologist and oncologist are often confident that biopsy will confirm their suspicion of recurrent disease, but a biopsy is performed to confirm the histologic diagnosis before beginning or altering therapy. We have examined data to determine how often the biopsied lesion represents recurrent disease from the primary tumor or is an instance of new cancer, and whether recurrent disease can be predicted. We reviewed the medical and imaging records of 253 patients who underwent CT-guided biopsy of an abdominal or pelvic lesion between 1993 and 1996. Sixty-nine of the 253 patients had a previously diagnosed primary tumor and were being examined for possible tumor recurrence or metastasis. The images of these 69 patients were analyzed to determine if the pattern of disease was typical of recurrence or metastasis. In 55 of the 69 patients, the pattern was judged to be typical of metastatic or recurrent disease. Biopsy confirmed this suspicion in all 55 patients. In 14 of the 69 patients, the pattern of spread was judged not to be typical of recurrence or metastasis. These 14 patients were found to have a new primary tumor (n = 4), benign processes (n = 2), and recurrences (n = 8).\",\n \"Of the patients for whom radiographic findings suggested recurrence, we found no patients in whom a new primary tumor would have been missed if biopsy had been avoided. Data should now be acquired prospectively to determine whether it may be prudent to make treatment decisions on the basis of imaging findings alone, without histologic confirmation.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Our study has shown that a 10-core prostate biopsy protocol significantly improves cancer detection in patients with suspected early cancer. It should therefore be the optimum biopsy protocol for patients with gray-zone PSA value, with or without abnormal DRE.","yes. Our study demonstrates histological diagnosis of GN and its specific subtype predicts patient survival and dialysis incidence. Therefore, kidney biopsy should be an integral part of routine diagnostic assessment in patients with any forms of suspected GN.","no. Pancreatic biopsy does not appear to adversely influence survival time for patients with inoperable pancreatic tumors. Because histologic examination aids clinical management, biopsy should be part of the diagnostic work-up for patients with suspected inoperable pancreatic carcinoma.","Our data suggest tissue biopsy alone offers no clear advantage over joint aspiration. However, the combination of both techniques provides improved sensitivity and accuracy. We recommend the use of tissue biopsy as an adjunct to joint aspiration in the diagnosis of total joint infection.","yes. A previously placed guidewire facilitates insertion of biopsy forceps and endoscopic biliary drainage. The histological diagnosis of cancer is more likely with bile duct cancer than with pancreatic cancer.","yes. Primary biopsy or incomplete cytoreduction reduces survival regardless of the subsequent approach. However, if incomplete cytoreduction has occurred, neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by IDS is preferable to up-front reoperation.","yes. Stereotactic core needle biopsy combines a high accuracy with a low complication rate. Its aggressive application for tissue diagnosis in suspicious nonpalpable mammographic lesions has increased the proportion of early (in situ and T1 or T2) tumors discovered, and increased the total number of breast cancers diagnosed.","no. Presence of vascular invasion does not distinguish pancreatic tuberculosis and malignancy, and, therefore, cytopathological confirmation is mandatory to differentiate between the two.","The guidelines for temporal artery specimens are not being met at our centre. Furthermore, biopsies measuring ≥1 cm are much more common in the small group of positive results. This validates the minimum recommended biopsy length and displays the importance of achieving this standard. We suggest changes to increase the number of biopsies meeting these guidelines, improving the accuracy of this invasive test.","yes. One core only positive prostate biopsy, when accompanied by an elevated serum prostate specific antigen value (greater than 10 ng./ml.), strongly suggests the presence of clinically significant cancer.","Needle biopsy is the preferred method of diagnosis in most cases, but there are valid reasons why all breast cancers will not be diagnosed in this fashion.","Despite the limited number of cases, our study demonstrated the advantage of the new forceps (BIGopsy) in obtaining a valid biopsy of upper urinary tract urothelial tumors. Therefore, we recommend it in evaluating this pathology for optimal treatment.","Our findings suggest that Prostate HistoScanning might be helpful for the selection of patients in whom prostate biopsies are necessary. This imaging technique can be used to direct biopsies in specific regions of the prostate with a higher cancer detection rate.","yes. Retinal or choroidal biopsy is a valuable investigation that often changes clinical management when carried out for specific indications in patients with uveitis of suspected malignant or infectious origin. Although it is likely to remain an investigation of last resort, it should be considered at an earlier stage when there is diagnostic uncertainty if severe visual loss is to be prevented.","no. In paediatric cases when diagnosis is inconclusive, including cases involving possible growth of the swelling, suspicions raised during physical examination, or unusually lengthy recovery after trauma, awareness is important. Imaging diagnostics or even tissue excision with histopathology may be indicated to allow the correct diagnosis to be made.","Our results have shown that a simple and quick tourniquet test could be useful in identifying those men who will experience greater pain during transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy. In the light of these data, additional studies will be planned to evaluate whether experimental pain assessment before the procedure could predict the analgesic potency of pain-relieving treatment during prostate biopsy.","no. Upfront staining of gastric biopsy specimens is not cost-effective since a significant proportion of the gastric biopsy specimens were normal or showed minimal inflammation; in none of these biopsy specimens was the organism found. Special stains should be performed only in selected biopsy specimens that reveal any degree of chronic active gastritis or moderate inactive gastritis.","Diagnostic aids in the evaluation of oral mucosal lesions can serve an important role by identifying lesions that need to be biopsied in spite of a \"benign\" appearance. Exfoliative cytology, as well as vital staining, may aid in this goal. This has implications regarding undergraduate and postdoctoral education.","The sensitivity of colposcopy in the diagnosis of microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix was low. Colposcopy plays an important role in directing the biopsy to the most suspicious area. The definitive diagnosis of microinvasive squamous carcinoma is established only by histologic study.","yes. This case series shows the value of non-invasive in vivo RCM imaging in the differentiation of malignant and benign pigmented lesions. Early diagnosis of small, pigmented BCC allows earlier excision with better prognosis. Future biopsies of benign lesions in cosmetic areas could also be avoided.","yes. Skin biopsy is helpful for etiologic diagnosis of early erythroderma of infancy, particularly in ID and NS, the most severe diseases. Consequently, these results justify an early systematic skin biopsy for a better and earlier management.","Core needle biopsy of breast cancer is equally effective compared with surgical biopsy and can be used in overall treatment planning. However, appropriate site selection for sampling should be guaranteed using ultrasonographic guidance.","If, at the time of ultrasound-guided needle core biopsy of BI-RADS assessment category 4 and 5 breast lesions, the radiologist is>90% confident that the lesion has been adequately sampled, a single pass is usually sufficient for diagnosis.","Fine-needle aspiration cytology was found to be highly specific for malignancy but its sensitivity for malignancy was poor. The results show that although FNAC is relatively inexpensive and minimally invasive, it cannot be relied upon to provide an accurate tissue diagnosis, may fail to identify malignancy and does not prevent patients undergoing surgery for non-neoplastic conditions.","yes. Core needle biopsy is a highly accurate and safe method for the diagnosis of radiologically detected lesions of the breast.","Our results indicate that routine histopathological examination of tonsils removed for benign disease in adults and children is clinically unnecessary. We propose that on an individual basis, the surgeon should decide the need for histological examination depending on preoperative risk factors and peroperative gross examination. Such a strategy will only be medicolegally possible where there are national and scientifically (evidence)based ENT consensus reports or guidelines on this issue.","yes. Our study shows that potentially the ultrasound has a role in stratifying patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative and can help to prioritize the biopsy for those who have sonographic evidence of SS.","yes. The findings indicate that a biopsy taken at procurement will provide information for the most appropriate allocation of a kidney.","yes. In percutaneous biopsy specimens of the abdomen and pelvis, the combination of cytologic examination and telomerase activity yielded an increased sensitivity in predicting malignancy. In addition, assessing telomerase activity can help identify cancer even when cytologic results are indeterminate.","yes. The classical anatomic location is not as important as the scatter of nodal involvement. Every effort should be made to obtain biopsy specimens from as many stations as possible before undertaking extrapleural pneumonectomy for malignant mesothelioma.","Liver biopsies rarely contribute new information that affects the management of patients with PSC. Given the risks of the procedure, liver biopsies for patients with a diagnosis of PSC established by cholangiography may not routinely be necessary.","yes. Evaluation of the histologic grade by EB and of the depth of myometrial invasion by intraoperative biopsy is a good option for deciding the necessity of lymphadenectomy.","yes. • A substantial proportion of men in an active surveillance cohort who undergo prostatectomy ultimately have evidence of an index cancer at the same location as their initial biopsy. • This is more likely to be the case when a repeat biopsy shows evidence of cancer at the same location.","We show that fat necrosis often has a confusing clinical presentation. Imaging by either mammography or ultrasound is often inconclusive and ultrasound-guided core biopsy will confirm the diagnosis sparing patients unnecessary radiological follow-up or surgical excision.","Percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy is useful in the evaluation of palpable breast masses that are small, deep, mobile, vaguely palpable, or multiple. In this study, percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy spared additional diagnostic tissue sampling in 74% women with palpable breast masses.","yes. In this study, all the local recurrences of anal carcinoma were detected by digital and visual examination. Thus, the addition of endoanal ultrasound was costly and unnecessary.","The purpose of this study was to analyze the role of percutaneous core needle biopsy in the diagnosis of musculoskeletal sarcomas. One hundred eighty-five biopsy procedures were performed on 161 musculoskeletal tissue masses suspected of being a sarcoma in 155 patients who underwent subsequent tumor resection. A percutaneous core needle biopsy was performed on all masses either in the clinic or under radiologic guidance. If an adequate diagnosis could not be made on the basis of this biopsy specimen, an open incisional biopsy was performed. One hundred seventy-three core needle biopsy procedures were performed: 90 without radiologic guidance, 55 computed tomography guided, and 28 fluoroscopically guided. Twelve open incisional biopsies were performed. Eighty-three sarcomas, 67 benign mesenchymal tumors, and 11 metastatic epithelial tumors were identified. Analysis of the data reveals that only 7.4% of the masses required open biopsy. In 88.2% of the masses, a single percutaneous biopsy procedure was adequate, and no additional biopsy was necessary. There was a 1.1% rate of complications; none caused a change in the patient's treatment plan. There was a 1.1% rate of major diagnostic errors, none of which ultimately impacted on the patient's outcome. There were no unnecessary amputations. Percutaneous needle biopsy showed a positive predictive value of 100%, a negative predictive value of 82%, a sensitivity of 81.8%, and a specificity of 100%. The accuracy of a single-needle biopsy procedure to identify benign versus malignant lesions, exact grade, and exact pathology was 92.4%, 88.6%, and 72.7%, respectively.","yes. Regional biopsy data are feasible to identify individuals with CD and small-intestinal inflammation. The specificity of CD is high in villous atrophy.","Temporal artery biopsy should be performed in the majority of patients with suspected GCA, and may be obviated only in patients with a pre-TAB ACR score of ≤ 1. In all other cases, when GCA is suspected, ACR criteria should not be a substitute to TAB, as they are not highly specific.","yes. We suggest routine gastric biopsy to detect both the presence of H. pylori and its density inasmuch as quantitative results may predict the usefulness of triple therapy. The higher the H. pylori density, the less effective triple therapy will be at successful eradication of H. pylori.","yes. In men with prostate cancer, standard and saturation transrectal prostate biopsies techniques are equally predictive of candidates for active surveillance.","yes. Stereotactic core breast biopsy is a safe and cost-effective method for determining the nature of suspicious mammographic findings.","To review the diagnostic and prognostic importance of pathologic findings in prostate biopsies. While the primary goal of the biopsy is to diagnose prostatic adenocarcinoma, once carcinoma is detected, information regarding the type, amount, and grade of cancer forms the cornerstone for contemporary management of the patient and for assessment of the potential for local cure and the risk for distant metastasis.","Multiple mucosal biopsies of normal-appearing urothelium are not necessary for all patients with superficial bladder cancer. They are, however, necessary for patients with multiple papillary broad-base tumors and positive urinary cytology.","no. Even centers with a well-defined biopsy strategy show a substantial proportion of non-BPAR episodes. Therefore, complete reporting of both BPAR and non-BPAR is important for the proper interpretation of study results.","A histological inflammatory finding at the initial prostate biopsy was negatively associated with prostate cancer detection in repeat biopsy. This result could be useful to determine the need for repeat prostate biopsy in patients with persistently elevated prostate-specific antigen.","yes. FNA biopsy is not useful in the diagnostic workup of patients with incidentally discovered adrenal masses and rarely alters management in patients with resectable adrenal metastases and primary adrenal malignancies. Furthermore, biopsy in this setting can also be potentially hazardous. Language that suggests biopsy of adrenal masses should be avoided in radiology reports.","yes. Due to their low sensitivity, AF and MB are not suitable techniques for reducing the high numbers of routine biopsies needed for finding additional foci of HGD or cancer. Careful endoscopic observation and stepwise four quadrant biopsy therefore still represent the gold standard for surveillance of Barrett's oesophagus.","Mammography immediately after core biopsy is not necessary for the diagnosis of procedure-related hematoma and is inferior to specimen radiography for verifying that calcifications have been sampled. Postprocedural mammograms also may be suboptimal for the establishment of a new baseline because of the frequent finding of hematoma.","no. Surgical excision is unnecessary when radial scar is found at percutaneous needle biopsy without an associated proliferative lesion. Surgical excision is still indicated when radial scar is associated with atypical ductal hyperplasia or lobular neoplasia.","yes. The only PV parameter, in our opinion, can be significant in choosing the best biopsy scheme to approach in a first setting of biopsies increasing PCa detection rate.","yes. In cases of SJS or LABD that are difficult to distinguish clinically, the authors recommend performing a skin biopsy and direct immunofluorescence early to confirm the diagnosis so that effective treatment can be instituted.","yes. Adding 4 lateral peripheral biopsies to the conventional sextant biopsy (10-core biopsy strategy) technique has increased the cancer detection rate by 25.5% without significant morbidity and without increasing the number of insignificant cancers. 10-core biopsy protocol was superior to all probable 8-core biopsy protocols in our study group. Additional biopsies from suspicious areas detected by transrectal ultrasonography revealed no further benefit if 10-core technique was used. We therefore suggest that 10-core biopsy protocol should be the preferred strategy in early detection of prostate cancer.","US-guided vacuum-assisted biopsy is a reliable technique. Because it provides more tissue than CNB, it can be an alternative to diagnostic surgery after non-diagnostic CNB. Indeed, it allows confirmation of the diagnosis and provides a more specific diagnosis of benign lesions. With regards to malignant and borderline lesions, it avoids the risk of false-negative CNB and overlooking carcinomas.","The common practice of performing percutaneous ultrasound or CT guided biopsy of potentially resectable lesions in the liver is generally neither necessary nor desirable.","Routine cytological examination of bronchial washings does not increase the yield of forceps biopsy specimens. Transbronchial needle aspiration may give an additional positive yield to forceps biopsy. We conclude that a combination of forceps biopsy and brushing is the best strategy in the diagnosis of bronchoscopically visible lung cancer.","yes. As research biopsies are crucial to many components of the drug development process, our study provides evidence for patients' overall willingness to undergo research biopsies for trial purposes. A consent process tailored to the biopsy site may help patients weigh up the associated risks versus benefits.","Biopsy of metastases for reassessment of biological features should be considered in all patients, when safe and easy to carry out, since it is likely to impact treatment choice.","yes. In our cohort, patients with bilaterally positive biopsy cores were significantly more likely to harbor a non-organ-confined tumor than patients with unilaterally positive cores. Due to their high specificity, bilaterally positive biopsies may represent a reasonable exclusion criterion for active surveillance if our results are corroborated in further studies.","The era of targeted therapy with molecular and genomic discoveries has paved the way to a research protocol that requires a biopsy from the patient. The reported complications have never been described before. The purpose of this paper is not to suggest that no biopsy should be performed when a DIPG is suspected. For now, biopsy remains investigational, because no benefit in survival could be drawn so far for any patient. This subject deserves honest discussion with the children and their parents.","yes. Surgical biopsy should remain the gold standard for diagnosis of interstitial lung disease. The mortality is low with proper patient selection. More than two surgical biopsy specimens may not be needed because the concordance rates among pathologic specimens are very high.","On the basis of our data, if clinical diagnosis is BCC, excision and reconstruction may be undertaken without an incisional biopsy. Alternatively, if clinical diagnosis is SCC, it is advisable to consider an incisional biopsy, before definitive surgical treatment.","no. We do not recommend routine duodenal biopsy to screen for coeliac disease because of the high number needed to biopsy as well as high costs.","yes. Our study indicated that precise and detailed intraoperative examination decreases the false-negative rate of SLN biopsy. ITCs in SLNs should not be overlooked, and rapid IHC can be helpful for detecting ITCs intraoperatively.","yes. The combination of forceps biopsy and transpapillary brush cytology is safe and offers superior detection rates compared to both methods alone, and therefore represents a promising approach in evaluation of proximal biliary tract processes.","yes. Extreme apical sampling increases aggressive cancer detection on initial biopsy, especially in patients with standard risk of PCa.","yes. Extraprostatic biopsy identifies extension of carcinoma in a large proportion of patients in whom clinical evaluation by DRE and TRUS indicates organ-confined disease. Extraprostatic biopsy is therefore warranted as routine evaluation before surgery in order to correctly stage prostatic carcinoma and select appropriate therapy.","Nondiagnostic core needle biopsy results in musculoskeletal lesions are not entirely useless. At times, they can be supportive of benign processes and can help avert unnecessary surgical procedures.","yes. Our data suggest that prostate biopsy recutting may increase cancer detection in patients initially found to have HGPIN. Additionally, a significant cost savings is associated with the recutting protocol.","yes. The percutaneous needle biopsy was found to be extremely effective and safe for the diagnosis of musculoskeletal masses. This method allowed 88% of patients with suspected sarcomas to undergo a single-needle biopsy procedure before the initiation of definitive treatment. Patients undergoing percutaneous needle biopsy had lower rates of major diagnostic errors and complications than previously described for open biopsy. Open biopsy offered limited additional information when preceded by a needle biopsy, given that these tumors were difficult to identify even after final resection.","Left scalene node biopsy does not appear to be mandatory in routine pretherapeutic lymph node evaluation of patients with advanced cervical carcinoma and no clinical suspicious nodes. It may be useful to prove disseminated disease in patients with suspicious clinical nodes or hot spots on PET-scan, if fine needle biopsy is unconclusive.","yes. The use of anesthesia in the performance of transrectal biopsies significantly diminishes the perception of pain by patients. This effect, along with the tendency to increase the number of biopsies, will result in short time in a more generalized use of local anesthesia.","Despite extensive morphological evaluation with unenhanced CT and conventional MRI, CT guided biopsy is necessary for most patients referred to surgery for an operable NSCLC and an adrenal mass.","no. Pre-bisection of a single skin biopsy does not significantly increase the risk of a technically inadequate specimen for direct immunofluorescence testing.","yes. In recent years, renal cell carcinoma biopsy has been increasingly used in patients with traditional and expanded indications. Its use is strongly associated with treatment and treatment-related factors.","yes. Nondiagnostic biopsies are common and occur most frequently when there is a moderate or high pretest suspicion for infection. Among all nondiagnostic biopsies, regardless of indication, cancer and infection were diagnosed on follow-up in similar proportions.","yes. This study indicated that there should be a greater willingness among colorectal pathologists to accept the biopsy finding of intramucosal carcinoma as the earlier form of invasive malignancy. Clinicians should alter their treatment algorithms accordingly.","yes. In this study, 43% of biopsies revealed malignancy and we advise that lymph node biopsy requests should be managed on a fast-track pathway, expedited by direct personal request. Following this study, we have implemented a fast-track pathway for such patients.","yes. The multi-quadrant percutaneous biopsy technique increases the ability to identify aggressive pathological features in large renal tumors and decreases nondiagnostic biopsy rates.","A biopsy is recommended when MRI positive lesion corresponding the area of new or increasing mammographic microcalcifications is detected. Patients with stable microcalcifications can continue follow-up mammography, regardless of MRI result.","yes. In cases where non-palpable breast lesions are considered to be suspicious in mammography scans, the vacuum-assisted core biopsy method provides an accurate histopathologic diagnosis thus preventing a significant number of patients undergoing unnecessary surgical procedures.","yes. Liver diseases other than AIH can present with the typical laboratory features of AIH and, without liver biopsy, it is difficult to distinguish AIH than these conditions. Although histological findings have little impact on patients' management and outcomes, for a definitive diagnosis of AIH, liver biopsy is essential and should be performed in all patients in whom it is suitable and not contraindicated.","Imaging-guided biopsy of a solid enhancing renal mass was diagnostic in 52 (90%) of 58 consecutive biopsies. The diagnosis of a benign lesion was made in 27% of diagnostic biopsies. Because of the advances in biopsy and histology techniques, the role of imaging-guided biopsy should be reconsidered.","no. Routine transition zone and seminal vesicle biopsies in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided systematic sextant biopsies are not warranted.","yes. An individualized screening algorithm using other available prebiopsy information in addition to PSA level can result in a considerable reduction of unnecessary biopsies. Very few important PC cases, for which diagnosis at a subsequent screening visit might be too late for treatment with curative intent, would be missed.","yes. Compared with the conventional method, the simplified technique is more efficient and equally efficacious for blastomere biopsy in preimplantation genetic diagnosis.","In experienced hands, intraoperative confirmation of malignancy is effective and will avoid resection in patients with benign disease. However, for many surgeons the chance of missing a small tumour with a false-negative biopsy will be unacceptable and they would prefer to undertake a \"blind\" resection and accept the mortality risk of pancreaticoduodenectomy for benign disease.","yes. Fine needle aspiration biopsy of solid palpable breast lesions should be the diagnostic procedure of choice for those patients classified clinically as probably benign or clinically as highly suspicious for cancer. Cost analysis revealed elimination of an open biopsy in such cases would save $1,100 per patient. For highly suspicious cases, a negative fine needle aspiration should not deter an open surgical biopsy. For patients classified as indeterminate, fine needle aspiration biopsy results are not reliable enough to determine treatment.","Our results suggest that CT-guided biopsy is less useful in the characterization of primary tumors than in metastases. The diagnosis of primary bone lymphomas is especially complicated. Repeating the procedure after inconclusive results probably will not provide additional information, and it is recommendable to perform surgical biopsy in these cases.","yes. Digital rectal examination and the interpretation of prostate biopsy are not accurate clinical tools for defining the location and extent of prostatic carcinoma. Bilateral positive biopsy may be useful as an adjunct to the current clinical staging system.","yes. This study emphasizes the high sensitivity of LSG biopsy in the diagnosis of amyloidosis, even in the absence of oral symptoms.","The results of our study have shown that the absence of tumor on e-MRI scans of patients with a clinical suspicion of PCa does not rule out the probability of clinically significant and high-grade PCa, making prostate biopsy mandatory for these patients as well.","yes. The nature of small hepatic nodules cannot be determined with sonography. Thus, biopsy remains the only technique for obtaining a definitive diagnosis.","These data confirm the need for clinical correlation with the findings obtained at stereotactic biopsy and suggest that stereotactic biopsy may not always be useful or necessary in the management of brain tumor patients. According to our present critical analysis, when a clear presumptive diagnosis of brain tumor can be made, it may be sufficient to base the management of the patient only on clinical and neuroimaging findings.","yes. Core biopsy has a high degree of accuracy in the diagnosis of soft-tissue tumours, particularly malignant lesions, and is not misleading. Core biopsy avoids the complications of open biopsy, and enables planning of one-stage surgery when used in combination with appropriate imaging.","A repeat biopsy after the diagnosis of HGPIN on 12-core prostate biopsy rarely results in cancer detection. In the absence of other factors increasing the suspicion of cancer, immediate repeat biopsy for HGPIN diagnosed on a 12-core biopsy is unnecessary.","Leaving aside differences in diagnostic approach and aggressiveness, two thirds of all lesions were biopsied in order to exclude cancer. The routine use of a more complete diagnostic protocol and/or alternative methods to obtain a histologic diagnosis (e.g. core biopsy) might substantially reduce the need for open surgical biopsy.","no. A single positive prostatic biopsy out of six systematic biopsies is a useful predictive factor of local extension, but, in the individual patient, does not guarantee favourable histopathological characteristics of the tumour, nor a favourable course of the disease."],"string":"[\n \"Our study has shown that a 10-core prostate biopsy protocol significantly improves cancer detection in patients with suspected early cancer. It should therefore be the optimum biopsy protocol for patients with gray-zone PSA value, with or without abnormal DRE.\",\n \"yes. Our study demonstrates histological diagnosis of GN and its specific subtype predicts patient survival and dialysis incidence. Therefore, kidney biopsy should be an integral part of routine diagnostic assessment in patients with any forms of suspected GN.\",\n \"no. Pancreatic biopsy does not appear to adversely influence survival time for patients with inoperable pancreatic tumors. Because histologic examination aids clinical management, biopsy should be part of the diagnostic work-up for patients with suspected inoperable pancreatic carcinoma.\",\n \"Our data suggest tissue biopsy alone offers no clear advantage over joint aspiration. However, the combination of both techniques provides improved sensitivity and accuracy. We recommend the use of tissue biopsy as an adjunct to joint aspiration in the diagnosis of total joint infection.\",\n \"yes. A previously placed guidewire facilitates insertion of biopsy forceps and endoscopic biliary drainage. The histological diagnosis of cancer is more likely with bile duct cancer than with pancreatic cancer.\",\n \"yes. Primary biopsy or incomplete cytoreduction reduces survival regardless of the subsequent approach. However, if incomplete cytoreduction has occurred, neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by IDS is preferable to up-front reoperation.\",\n \"yes. Stereotactic core needle biopsy combines a high accuracy with a low complication rate. Its aggressive application for tissue diagnosis in suspicious nonpalpable mammographic lesions has increased the proportion of early (in situ and T1 or T2) tumors discovered, and increased the total number of breast cancers diagnosed.\",\n \"no. Presence of vascular invasion does not distinguish pancreatic tuberculosis and malignancy, and, therefore, cytopathological confirmation is mandatory to differentiate between the two.\",\n \"The guidelines for temporal artery specimens are not being met at our centre. Furthermore, biopsies measuring ≥1 cm are much more common in the small group of positive results. This validates the minimum recommended biopsy length and displays the importance of achieving this standard. We suggest changes to increase the number of biopsies meeting these guidelines, improving the accuracy of this invasive test.\",\n \"yes. One core only positive prostate biopsy, when accompanied by an elevated serum prostate specific antigen value (greater than 10 ng./ml.), strongly suggests the presence of clinically significant cancer.\",\n \"Needle biopsy is the preferred method of diagnosis in most cases, but there are valid reasons why all breast cancers will not be diagnosed in this fashion.\",\n \"Despite the limited number of cases, our study demonstrated the advantage of the new forceps (BIGopsy) in obtaining a valid biopsy of upper urinary tract urothelial tumors. Therefore, we recommend it in evaluating this pathology for optimal treatment.\",\n \"Our findings suggest that Prostate HistoScanning might be helpful for the selection of patients in whom prostate biopsies are necessary. This imaging technique can be used to direct biopsies in specific regions of the prostate with a higher cancer detection rate.\",\n \"yes. Retinal or choroidal biopsy is a valuable investigation that often changes clinical management when carried out for specific indications in patients with uveitis of suspected malignant or infectious origin. Although it is likely to remain an investigation of last resort, it should be considered at an earlier stage when there is diagnostic uncertainty if severe visual loss is to be prevented.\",\n \"no. In paediatric cases when diagnosis is inconclusive, including cases involving possible growth of the swelling, suspicions raised during physical examination, or unusually lengthy recovery after trauma, awareness is important. Imaging diagnostics or even tissue excision with histopathology may be indicated to allow the correct diagnosis to be made.\",\n \"Our results have shown that a simple and quick tourniquet test could be useful in identifying those men who will experience greater pain during transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy. In the light of these data, additional studies will be planned to evaluate whether experimental pain assessment before the procedure could predict the analgesic potency of pain-relieving treatment during prostate biopsy.\",\n \"no. Upfront staining of gastric biopsy specimens is not cost-effective since a significant proportion of the gastric biopsy specimens were normal or showed minimal inflammation; in none of these biopsy specimens was the organism found. Special stains should be performed only in selected biopsy specimens that reveal any degree of chronic active gastritis or moderate inactive gastritis.\",\n \"Diagnostic aids in the evaluation of oral mucosal lesions can serve an important role by identifying lesions that need to be biopsied in spite of a \\\"benign\\\" appearance. Exfoliative cytology, as well as vital staining, may aid in this goal. This has implications regarding undergraduate and postdoctoral education.\",\n \"The sensitivity of colposcopy in the diagnosis of microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix was low. Colposcopy plays an important role in directing the biopsy to the most suspicious area. The definitive diagnosis of microinvasive squamous carcinoma is established only by histologic study.\",\n \"yes. This case series shows the value of non-invasive in vivo RCM imaging in the differentiation of malignant and benign pigmented lesions. Early diagnosis of small, pigmented BCC allows earlier excision with better prognosis. Future biopsies of benign lesions in cosmetic areas could also be avoided.\",\n \"yes. Skin biopsy is helpful for etiologic diagnosis of early erythroderma of infancy, particularly in ID and NS, the most severe diseases. Consequently, these results justify an early systematic skin biopsy for a better and earlier management.\",\n \"Core needle biopsy of breast cancer is equally effective compared with surgical biopsy and can be used in overall treatment planning. However, appropriate site selection for sampling should be guaranteed using ultrasonographic guidance.\",\n \"If, at the time of ultrasound-guided needle core biopsy of BI-RADS assessment category 4 and 5 breast lesions, the radiologist is>90% confident that the lesion has been adequately sampled, a single pass is usually sufficient for diagnosis.\",\n \"Fine-needle aspiration cytology was found to be highly specific for malignancy but its sensitivity for malignancy was poor. The results show that although FNAC is relatively inexpensive and minimally invasive, it cannot be relied upon to provide an accurate tissue diagnosis, may fail to identify malignancy and does not prevent patients undergoing surgery for non-neoplastic conditions.\",\n \"yes. Core needle biopsy is a highly accurate and safe method for the diagnosis of radiologically detected lesions of the breast.\",\n \"Our results indicate that routine histopathological examination of tonsils removed for benign disease in adults and children is clinically unnecessary. We propose that on an individual basis, the surgeon should decide the need for histological examination depending on preoperative risk factors and peroperative gross examination. Such a strategy will only be medicolegally possible where there are national and scientifically (evidence)based ENT consensus reports or guidelines on this issue.\",\n \"yes. Our study shows that potentially the ultrasound has a role in stratifying patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative and can help to prioritize the biopsy for those who have sonographic evidence of SS.\",\n \"yes. The findings indicate that a biopsy taken at procurement will provide information for the most appropriate allocation of a kidney.\",\n \"yes. In percutaneous biopsy specimens of the abdomen and pelvis, the combination of cytologic examination and telomerase activity yielded an increased sensitivity in predicting malignancy. In addition, assessing telomerase activity can help identify cancer even when cytologic results are indeterminate.\",\n \"yes. The classical anatomic location is not as important as the scatter of nodal involvement. Every effort should be made to obtain biopsy specimens from as many stations as possible before undertaking extrapleural pneumonectomy for malignant mesothelioma.\",\n \"Liver biopsies rarely contribute new information that affects the management of patients with PSC. Given the risks of the procedure, liver biopsies for patients with a diagnosis of PSC established by cholangiography may not routinely be necessary.\",\n \"yes. Evaluation of the histologic grade by EB and of the depth of myometrial invasion by intraoperative biopsy is a good option for deciding the necessity of lymphadenectomy.\",\n \"yes. • A substantial proportion of men in an active surveillance cohort who undergo prostatectomy ultimately have evidence of an index cancer at the same location as their initial biopsy. • This is more likely to be the case when a repeat biopsy shows evidence of cancer at the same location.\",\n \"We show that fat necrosis often has a confusing clinical presentation. Imaging by either mammography or ultrasound is often inconclusive and ultrasound-guided core biopsy will confirm the diagnosis sparing patients unnecessary radiological follow-up or surgical excision.\",\n \"Percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy is useful in the evaluation of palpable breast masses that are small, deep, mobile, vaguely palpable, or multiple. In this study, percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy spared additional diagnostic tissue sampling in 74% women with palpable breast masses.\",\n \"yes. In this study, all the local recurrences of anal carcinoma were detected by digital and visual examination. Thus, the addition of endoanal ultrasound was costly and unnecessary.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to analyze the role of percutaneous core needle biopsy in the diagnosis of musculoskeletal sarcomas. One hundred eighty-five biopsy procedures were performed on 161 musculoskeletal tissue masses suspected of being a sarcoma in 155 patients who underwent subsequent tumor resection. A percutaneous core needle biopsy was performed on all masses either in the clinic or under radiologic guidance. If an adequate diagnosis could not be made on the basis of this biopsy specimen, an open incisional biopsy was performed. One hundred seventy-three core needle biopsy procedures were performed: 90 without radiologic guidance, 55 computed tomography guided, and 28 fluoroscopically guided. Twelve open incisional biopsies were performed. Eighty-three sarcomas, 67 benign mesenchymal tumors, and 11 metastatic epithelial tumors were identified. Analysis of the data reveals that only 7.4% of the masses required open biopsy. In 88.2% of the masses, a single percutaneous biopsy procedure was adequate, and no additional biopsy was necessary. There was a 1.1% rate of complications; none caused a change in the patient's treatment plan. There was a 1.1% rate of major diagnostic errors, none of which ultimately impacted on the patient's outcome. There were no unnecessary amputations. Percutaneous needle biopsy showed a positive predictive value of 100%, a negative predictive value of 82%, a sensitivity of 81.8%, and a specificity of 100%. The accuracy of a single-needle biopsy procedure to identify benign versus malignant lesions, exact grade, and exact pathology was 92.4%, 88.6%, and 72.7%, respectively.\",\n \"yes. Regional biopsy data are feasible to identify individuals with CD and small-intestinal inflammation. The specificity of CD is high in villous atrophy.\",\n \"Temporal artery biopsy should be performed in the majority of patients with suspected GCA, and may be obviated only in patients with a pre-TAB ACR score of ≤ 1. In all other cases, when GCA is suspected, ACR criteria should not be a substitute to TAB, as they are not highly specific.\",\n \"yes. We suggest routine gastric biopsy to detect both the presence of H. pylori and its density inasmuch as quantitative results may predict the usefulness of triple therapy. The higher the H. pylori density, the less effective triple therapy will be at successful eradication of H. pylori.\",\n \"yes. In men with prostate cancer, standard and saturation transrectal prostate biopsies techniques are equally predictive of candidates for active surveillance.\",\n \"yes. Stereotactic core breast biopsy is a safe and cost-effective method for determining the nature of suspicious mammographic findings.\",\n \"To review the diagnostic and prognostic importance of pathologic findings in prostate biopsies. While the primary goal of the biopsy is to diagnose prostatic adenocarcinoma, once carcinoma is detected, information regarding the type, amount, and grade of cancer forms the cornerstone for contemporary management of the patient and for assessment of the potential for local cure and the risk for distant metastasis.\",\n \"Multiple mucosal biopsies of normal-appearing urothelium are not necessary for all patients with superficial bladder cancer. They are, however, necessary for patients with multiple papillary broad-base tumors and positive urinary cytology.\",\n \"no. Even centers with a well-defined biopsy strategy show a substantial proportion of non-BPAR episodes. Therefore, complete reporting of both BPAR and non-BPAR is important for the proper interpretation of study results.\",\n \"A histological inflammatory finding at the initial prostate biopsy was negatively associated with prostate cancer detection in repeat biopsy. This result could be useful to determine the need for repeat prostate biopsy in patients with persistently elevated prostate-specific antigen.\",\n \"yes. FNA biopsy is not useful in the diagnostic workup of patients with incidentally discovered adrenal masses and rarely alters management in patients with resectable adrenal metastases and primary adrenal malignancies. Furthermore, biopsy in this setting can also be potentially hazardous. Language that suggests biopsy of adrenal masses should be avoided in radiology reports.\",\n \"yes. Due to their low sensitivity, AF and MB are not suitable techniques for reducing the high numbers of routine biopsies needed for finding additional foci of HGD or cancer. Careful endoscopic observation and stepwise four quadrant biopsy therefore still represent the gold standard for surveillance of Barrett's oesophagus.\",\n \"Mammography immediately after core biopsy is not necessary for the diagnosis of procedure-related hematoma and is inferior to specimen radiography for verifying that calcifications have been sampled. Postprocedural mammograms also may be suboptimal for the establishment of a new baseline because of the frequent finding of hematoma.\",\n \"no. Surgical excision is unnecessary when radial scar is found at percutaneous needle biopsy without an associated proliferative lesion. Surgical excision is still indicated when radial scar is associated with atypical ductal hyperplasia or lobular neoplasia.\",\n \"yes. The only PV parameter, in our opinion, can be significant in choosing the best biopsy scheme to approach in a first setting of biopsies increasing PCa detection rate.\",\n \"yes. In cases of SJS or LABD that are difficult to distinguish clinically, the authors recommend performing a skin biopsy and direct immunofluorescence early to confirm the diagnosis so that effective treatment can be instituted.\",\n \"yes. Adding 4 lateral peripheral biopsies to the conventional sextant biopsy (10-core biopsy strategy) technique has increased the cancer detection rate by 25.5% without significant morbidity and without increasing the number of insignificant cancers. 10-core biopsy protocol was superior to all probable 8-core biopsy protocols in our study group. Additional biopsies from suspicious areas detected by transrectal ultrasonography revealed no further benefit if 10-core technique was used. We therefore suggest that 10-core biopsy protocol should be the preferred strategy in early detection of prostate cancer.\",\n \"US-guided vacuum-assisted biopsy is a reliable technique. Because it provides more tissue than CNB, it can be an alternative to diagnostic surgery after non-diagnostic CNB. Indeed, it allows confirmation of the diagnosis and provides a more specific diagnosis of benign lesions. With regards to malignant and borderline lesions, it avoids the risk of false-negative CNB and overlooking carcinomas.\",\n \"The common practice of performing percutaneous ultrasound or CT guided biopsy of potentially resectable lesions in the liver is generally neither necessary nor desirable.\",\n \"Routine cytological examination of bronchial washings does not increase the yield of forceps biopsy specimens. Transbronchial needle aspiration may give an additional positive yield to forceps biopsy. We conclude that a combination of forceps biopsy and brushing is the best strategy in the diagnosis of bronchoscopically visible lung cancer.\",\n \"yes. As research biopsies are crucial to many components of the drug development process, our study provides evidence for patients' overall willingness to undergo research biopsies for trial purposes. A consent process tailored to the biopsy site may help patients weigh up the associated risks versus benefits.\",\n \"Biopsy of metastases for reassessment of biological features should be considered in all patients, when safe and easy to carry out, since it is likely to impact treatment choice.\",\n \"yes. In our cohort, patients with bilaterally positive biopsy cores were significantly more likely to harbor a non-organ-confined tumor than patients with unilaterally positive cores. Due to their high specificity, bilaterally positive biopsies may represent a reasonable exclusion criterion for active surveillance if our results are corroborated in further studies.\",\n \"The era of targeted therapy with molecular and genomic discoveries has paved the way to a research protocol that requires a biopsy from the patient. The reported complications have never been described before. The purpose of this paper is not to suggest that no biopsy should be performed when a DIPG is suspected. For now, biopsy remains investigational, because no benefit in survival could be drawn so far for any patient. This subject deserves honest discussion with the children and their parents.\",\n \"yes. Surgical biopsy should remain the gold standard for diagnosis of interstitial lung disease. The mortality is low with proper patient selection. More than two surgical biopsy specimens may not be needed because the concordance rates among pathologic specimens are very high.\",\n \"On the basis of our data, if clinical diagnosis is BCC, excision and reconstruction may be undertaken without an incisional biopsy. Alternatively, if clinical diagnosis is SCC, it is advisable to consider an incisional biopsy, before definitive surgical treatment.\",\n \"no. We do not recommend routine duodenal biopsy to screen for coeliac disease because of the high number needed to biopsy as well as high costs.\",\n \"yes. Our study indicated that precise and detailed intraoperative examination decreases the false-negative rate of SLN biopsy. ITCs in SLNs should not be overlooked, and rapid IHC can be helpful for detecting ITCs intraoperatively.\",\n \"yes. The combination of forceps biopsy and transpapillary brush cytology is safe and offers superior detection rates compared to both methods alone, and therefore represents a promising approach in evaluation of proximal biliary tract processes.\",\n \"yes. Extreme apical sampling increases aggressive cancer detection on initial biopsy, especially in patients with standard risk of PCa.\",\n \"yes. Extraprostatic biopsy identifies extension of carcinoma in a large proportion of patients in whom clinical evaluation by DRE and TRUS indicates organ-confined disease. Extraprostatic biopsy is therefore warranted as routine evaluation before surgery in order to correctly stage prostatic carcinoma and select appropriate therapy.\",\n \"Nondiagnostic core needle biopsy results in musculoskeletal lesions are not entirely useless. At times, they can be supportive of benign processes and can help avert unnecessary surgical procedures.\",\n \"yes. Our data suggest that prostate biopsy recutting may increase cancer detection in patients initially found to have HGPIN. Additionally, a significant cost savings is associated with the recutting protocol.\",\n \"yes. The percutaneous needle biopsy was found to be extremely effective and safe for the diagnosis of musculoskeletal masses. This method allowed 88% of patients with suspected sarcomas to undergo a single-needle biopsy procedure before the initiation of definitive treatment. Patients undergoing percutaneous needle biopsy had lower rates of major diagnostic errors and complications than previously described for open biopsy. Open biopsy offered limited additional information when preceded by a needle biopsy, given that these tumors were difficult to identify even after final resection.\",\n \"Left scalene node biopsy does not appear to be mandatory in routine pretherapeutic lymph node evaluation of patients with advanced cervical carcinoma and no clinical suspicious nodes. It may be useful to prove disseminated disease in patients with suspicious clinical nodes or hot spots on PET-scan, if fine needle biopsy is unconclusive.\",\n \"yes. The use of anesthesia in the performance of transrectal biopsies significantly diminishes the perception of pain by patients. This effect, along with the tendency to increase the number of biopsies, will result in short time in a more generalized use of local anesthesia.\",\n \"Despite extensive morphological evaluation with unenhanced CT and conventional MRI, CT guided biopsy is necessary for most patients referred to surgery for an operable NSCLC and an adrenal mass.\",\n \"no. Pre-bisection of a single skin biopsy does not significantly increase the risk of a technically inadequate specimen for direct immunofluorescence testing.\",\n \"yes. In recent years, renal cell carcinoma biopsy has been increasingly used in patients with traditional and expanded indications. Its use is strongly associated with treatment and treatment-related factors.\",\n \"yes. Nondiagnostic biopsies are common and occur most frequently when there is a moderate or high pretest suspicion for infection. Among all nondiagnostic biopsies, regardless of indication, cancer and infection were diagnosed on follow-up in similar proportions.\",\n \"yes. This study indicated that there should be a greater willingness among colorectal pathologists to accept the biopsy finding of intramucosal carcinoma as the earlier form of invasive malignancy. Clinicians should alter their treatment algorithms accordingly.\",\n \"yes. In this study, 43% of biopsies revealed malignancy and we advise that lymph node biopsy requests should be managed on a fast-track pathway, expedited by direct personal request. Following this study, we have implemented a fast-track pathway for such patients.\",\n \"yes. The multi-quadrant percutaneous biopsy technique increases the ability to identify aggressive pathological features in large renal tumors and decreases nondiagnostic biopsy rates.\",\n \"A biopsy is recommended when MRI positive lesion corresponding the area of new or increasing mammographic microcalcifications is detected. Patients with stable microcalcifications can continue follow-up mammography, regardless of MRI result.\",\n \"yes. In cases where non-palpable breast lesions are considered to be suspicious in mammography scans, the vacuum-assisted core biopsy method provides an accurate histopathologic diagnosis thus preventing a significant number of patients undergoing unnecessary surgical procedures.\",\n \"yes. Liver diseases other than AIH can present with the typical laboratory features of AIH and, without liver biopsy, it is difficult to distinguish AIH than these conditions. Although histological findings have little impact on patients' management and outcomes, for a definitive diagnosis of AIH, liver biopsy is essential and should be performed in all patients in whom it is suitable and not contraindicated.\",\n \"Imaging-guided biopsy of a solid enhancing renal mass was diagnostic in 52 (90%) of 58 consecutive biopsies. The diagnosis of a benign lesion was made in 27% of diagnostic biopsies. Because of the advances in biopsy and histology techniques, the role of imaging-guided biopsy should be reconsidered.\",\n \"no. Routine transition zone and seminal vesicle biopsies in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided systematic sextant biopsies are not warranted.\",\n \"yes. An individualized screening algorithm using other available prebiopsy information in addition to PSA level can result in a considerable reduction of unnecessary biopsies. Very few important PC cases, for which diagnosis at a subsequent screening visit might be too late for treatment with curative intent, would be missed.\",\n \"yes. Compared with the conventional method, the simplified technique is more efficient and equally efficacious for blastomere biopsy in preimplantation genetic diagnosis.\",\n \"In experienced hands, intraoperative confirmation of malignancy is effective and will avoid resection in patients with benign disease. However, for many surgeons the chance of missing a small tumour with a false-negative biopsy will be unacceptable and they would prefer to undertake a \\\"blind\\\" resection and accept the mortality risk of pancreaticoduodenectomy for benign disease.\",\n \"yes. Fine needle aspiration biopsy of solid palpable breast lesions should be the diagnostic procedure of choice for those patients classified clinically as probably benign or clinically as highly suspicious for cancer. Cost analysis revealed elimination of an open biopsy in such cases would save $1,100 per patient. For highly suspicious cases, a negative fine needle aspiration should not deter an open surgical biopsy. For patients classified as indeterminate, fine needle aspiration biopsy results are not reliable enough to determine treatment.\",\n \"Our results suggest that CT-guided biopsy is less useful in the characterization of primary tumors than in metastases. The diagnosis of primary bone lymphomas is especially complicated. Repeating the procedure after inconclusive results probably will not provide additional information, and it is recommendable to perform surgical biopsy in these cases.\",\n \"yes. Digital rectal examination and the interpretation of prostate biopsy are not accurate clinical tools for defining the location and extent of prostatic carcinoma. Bilateral positive biopsy may be useful as an adjunct to the current clinical staging system.\",\n \"yes. This study emphasizes the high sensitivity of LSG biopsy in the diagnosis of amyloidosis, even in the absence of oral symptoms.\",\n \"The results of our study have shown that the absence of tumor on e-MRI scans of patients with a clinical suspicion of PCa does not rule out the probability of clinically significant and high-grade PCa, making prostate biopsy mandatory for these patients as well.\",\n \"yes. The nature of small hepatic nodules cannot be determined with sonography. Thus, biopsy remains the only technique for obtaining a definitive diagnosis.\",\n \"These data confirm the need for clinical correlation with the findings obtained at stereotactic biopsy and suggest that stereotactic biopsy may not always be useful or necessary in the management of brain tumor patients. According to our present critical analysis, when a clear presumptive diagnosis of brain tumor can be made, it may be sufficient to base the management of the patient only on clinical and neuroimaging findings.\",\n \"yes. Core biopsy has a high degree of accuracy in the diagnosis of soft-tissue tumours, particularly malignant lesions, and is not misleading. Core biopsy avoids the complications of open biopsy, and enables planning of one-stage surgery when used in combination with appropriate imaging.\",\n \"A repeat biopsy after the diagnosis of HGPIN on 12-core prostate biopsy rarely results in cancer detection. In the absence of other factors increasing the suspicion of cancer, immediate repeat biopsy for HGPIN diagnosed on a 12-core biopsy is unnecessary.\",\n \"Leaving aside differences in diagnostic approach and aggressiveness, two thirds of all lesions were biopsied in order to exclude cancer. The routine use of a more complete diagnostic protocol and/or alternative methods to obtain a histologic diagnosis (e.g. core biopsy) might substantially reduce the need for open surgical biopsy.\",\n \"no. A single positive prostatic biopsy out of six systematic biopsies is a useful predictive factor of local extension, but, in the individual patient, does not guarantee favourable histopathological characteristics of the tumour, nor a favourable course of the disease.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":217,"string":"217"}}},{"rowIdx":273169,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Improving the recognition and management of depression: is there a role for physician education?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \"patients\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).","The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients."],"string":"[\n \"Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \\\"patients\\\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).\",\n \"The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. A diagnosis of major depression in older medical inpatients is independently associated with poor mental health in their informal caregivers 6 months later.","the gynaecologist must have a role in helping to achieve an early diagnosis of the depression, because the earlier the problem is recognised the greater are the possibilities of therapy and preventing any consequences for the entire family group.","This study examined age group differences in the rates of depression diagnosis and treatment using a national probability sample. Using data from the 2012 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (n=62,723 visits by patients aged 18+ years), we used bivariate and multivariable binary logistic regression analyses to test age group differences in antidepressant medication (ADM) and psychotherapy prescribed/ordered or provided at visits during which depression was diagnosed. Visits by older adults were less likely to result in a depression diagnosis than visits by younger individuals: 2.46% and 1.80% in the 65-74 and 75+ age groups, compared to 4.06%, 4.24% and 4.12% in the 18-29, 30-49 and 50-64 age groups, respectively. Of all visits involving diagnosed depression, 65.88% included prescribing/ordering or providing ADM and 19.01% included psychotherapy ordering or providing, without significant age group difference. Prescribing/ordering or providing ADM occurs frequently during visits to physicians regardless of specialty, while psychotherapy was ordered or provided mostly during visits to psychiatrists.","This study examines how frequently family physicians display printed educational materials about mental health problems in their practices and where these materials should be located for optimal effect. A cross-sectional observational study of pamphlet display practices in 13 family physicians' offices in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada was followed by an intervention which placed selected mental health educational materials in waiting rooms and examining rooms, and monitored the pick up rate from each location by patients. The study found that few mental health pamphlets were displayed by the participating physicians, that when a range of these pamphlets was made available, pamphlets on mood disorders were the most popular, and that significantly more pamphlets were picked up from examining rooms than from waiting rooms.","yes. The prevalence of identified depression in the MEPS-NHC is lower than that previously estimated using formal diagnostic assessment techniques for threshold and subthreshold depressive states combined. Therefore, MDS-identified depression may underestimate the burden of depression. Underrecognition may be particularly acute in black or African-American residents, the oldest old, and the cognitively impaired. Further research on the relationship of MDS-identified depression and depression identified through structured diagnostic interviews in broadly representative samples of nursing home residents is needed to expand the availability of descriptive epidemiological data, to help clarify the results of research making use of MDS data, and to suggest methods for optimizing clinical and administrative data systems.","yes. Depression disease management programs can have a positive return-on-investment from the employer perspective, but only when they are based on best practices. Given the generally low depression treatment quality documented here, treatment quality guarantees are needed before expanding workplace depression screening, outreach, and treatment programs.","The aim of this study was to (1) to explore the validity of the depression diagnosis made by the general practitioner (GP) and factors associated with it, (2) to estimate rates of treatment adequacy for depression and factors associated with it and (3) to study how rates of treatment adequacy vary when using different assessment methods and criteria. Epidemiological survey carried out in 77 primary care centres representative of Catalonia. A total of 3815 patients were assessed. GPs identified 69 out of the 339 individuals who were diagnosed with a major depressive episode according to the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I) (sensitivity 0.22; kappa value: 0.16). The presence of emotional problems as the patients' primary complaint was associated with an increased probability of recognition. Rates of adequacy differed according to criteria: in the cases detected with the SCID-I interview, adequacy was 39.35% when using only patient self-reported data and 54.91% when taking into account data from the clinical chart. Rates of adequacy were higher when assessing adequacy among those considered depressed by the GP.","Older adults with depression and medical comorbidity pose a significant clinical and public health challenge. Evidence was found of a statistically significant intervention effect on mortality for diabetes mellitus in persons with major depression.","The clinical utility of the findings are discussed in terms of the importance of primary-care physicians encouraging their panic disorder patients to receive CBT as well as medications.","Literature has shown that dissemination of guidelines alone is insufficient to ensure that guideline recommendations are incorporated into every day clinical practice. We aimed to investigate the gaps between guideline recommendations and clinical practice in the management of young people with depression by undertaking an audit of medical files in a catchment area public mental health service for 15 to 25 year olds in Melbourne, Australia. The results showed that the assessment and recording of depression severity to ensure appropriate treatment planning was not systematic nor consistent; that the majority of young people (74.5%) were prescribed an antidepressant before an adequate trial of psychotherapy was undertaken and that less than 50% were monitored for depression symptom improvement and antidepressant treatment emergent suicide related behaviours (35% and 30% respectively). Encouragingly 92% of first line prescriptions for those aged 18 years or under who were previously antidepressant-naïve was for fluoxetine as recommended.","yes. Screening and treatment of depression and anxiety is important in improving self-care among HF patients. HF management programs need to include strategies for increasing patients' perceived control over their heart disease.","Physicians must effectively evaluate and treat obesity. To design a needs-driven curriculum intended to improve patient outcomes, physicians were surveyed about their self-perceived knowledge and skills. The objective of this study was to determine the expressed needs of residents and faculty regarding obesity care training across three specialties. The study used a survey given to faculty and residents in General Internal Medicine, Pediatrics, and Psychiatry. Survey questions were generated from comprehensive nutrition curriculum and clinical recommendations, administered online, and then organized around a validated behavioral health framework-the 5As (assess, advise, agree, assist, arrange). Analyses were conducted to evaluate differences in perceived knowledge and skills between specialties and across training levels. From an overall response rate of 65% (65 residents and 250 faculty members), nearly 20% reported inadequate competency in every item with 48% of respondents reporting an inability to adequately counsel patients about common treatment options. Internists reported the lowest competency in arranging referrals and follow-up. Psychiatrists reported the lowest competency in assessment skills.","GP accounts indicated concern about threats to patient care. Contention between using severity questionnaires and delivering individualised patient care is significantly motivated by GP concerns to preserve professional expertise and identity. It is important to learn from GP concerns to help establish how best to optimise the use of severity questionnaires in depression.","To (1) examine the influence of patient and provider attributes on physicians' diagnostic certainty and (2) assess the effect of diagnostic certainty on clinical therapeutic actions. Factorial experiment of 128 generalist physicians using identical clinically authentic videotaped vignettes depicting patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) or depression. For CHD, physicians were least certain for Black patients (p=.003) and for younger female patients (p=.013). For depression, average certainty was higher than for the CHD presentation (74.0 vs. 57.9 on of scale of 0-100, p<.001) and there were no main effects of patient or provider characteristics. Increasing diagnostic certainty was a significant predictor of subsequent clinical actions, and these varied according to physician and patient characteristics across both conditions.","The authors discuss the value of teaching perspective identification among child and adolescent psychiatry faculty for medical student education.","Pediatric health care providers did not recognize most mothers with high levels of self-reported depressive symptoms. Pediatricians may benefit from asking directly about maternal functioning or by using a structured screening tool to identify mothers who are at risk for developing depressive symptoms. In addition, training pediatric providers to identify mothers with depressive symptoms may be beneficial.","To determine whether the chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice and internal medicine physicians differed in the proportion reporting that their primary care physician asked them about depression symptoms. A cross-sectional observational study of chronically or recurrently depressed survey respondents who identified a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. A large not-for-profit group-model health maintenance organization in the northwestern United States, with a population representative of its service area. Health maintenance organization members (n= 1161) with ongoing or recurring depression or dysthymia who responded to a 1993 survey and who identified either a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. Patients' self-report of their primary care physician asking them: (1) whether they had been feeling sad, blue, or depressed; (2) to fill out a questionnaire about their mood or feelings; and (3) whether they had been thinking about death or suicide. Chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice physicians were more likely to report that their physician asked them about depressive symptoms than were patients of internal medicine physicians (34.0% vs 27.3%) (P=.02). This finding persisted in a multivariate analysis.","To create a doctor of pharmacy curricular experience that will decrease students' social barriers to interaction with and treatment of mentally-ill patients. We created a survey instrument to measure 4 aspects of students' conceptions of schizophrenia and clinical depression: (1) understanding of the medical nature of each disease, (2) understanding of patient behavior, (3) belief in the efficacy of treatment, and (4) social distance. We delivered this instrument before and after a neuropsychiatry curriculum including \"peer-level patient presenters\" in addition to the traditional first-year pharmacy curriculum. Social-distance scores significantly decreased in first-year pharmacy students who attended peer-level patient presentations, indicating increased willingness to interact with persons with schizophrenia and clinical depression. In addition, students' understanding of the causes of illness, behavior of patients, and most importantly, efficacy of drug counseling for these diseases increased.","This study compares the views of psychiatry residency training directors about psychiatry and mental health training in the primary care programs in their institutions with those of the primary care residency training directors. A 16-item questionnaire surveying specific areas of training and perceived adequacy of current teaching was distributed to 1,544 U.S. primary care and psychiatry program directors. The response rate was 53%. Among psychiatry training directors, 85% responded that psychiatry training in their primary care programs was minimal to suboptimal, while 68% of family practice training directors responded that their psychiatry training was optimal to extensive. Among psychiatry training directors, 89% were dissatisfied with the psychiatry training in their primary care programs, and only 8% were satisfied. In contrast, almost half of primary care training directors were satisfied. However, within the primary care programs, there was a marked difference between family practice (majority satisfied) and the rest (internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, mostly unsatisfied). All primary care and psychiatry training directors agreed that most basic psychiatric skills and diagnoses were taught in the primary care programs. For all skills and syndromes examined, psychiatry training directors consistently and significantly rated the training to be less adequate than did primary care training directors. There was general agreement that primary care physicians should be able to treat most uncomplicated cases in patients with psychiatric disorders, and some but not other psychiatric conditions.","Type of medical dysfunction, whether illness or impairment, may require different therapeutic and supportive approaches. Enhancement of perceived social support, for those who are impaired, and encouragement of social interactions, for those who are ill, may be important intervention targets for treatment of depressive symptoms in older adult primary care patients.","Research is scarce on how depression is identified and treated among Medicare home healthcare (HHC) patients age 65+ with disability. The Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services (CMS) recently incorporated depression screening into the OASIS-C HHC assessment. Our study objectives were to evaluate and characterize depression care management (DCM) in an HHC agency after CMS increased its depression requirements and to determine if there was an association of DCM with disability (activities of daily living [ADLs]) outcomes. The authors conducted a retrospective chart review of 100 new Medicare HHC admissions patients age 65+ (mean age: 81.7) who screened positive for depression and had disability and multimorbidity. Clinical and administrative records were examined and descriptive analyses used. Multivariate regression analyses investigated the association of six DCM components with ADLs improvement. Depression was recognized in care plans of 60% of patients. Documentation of only one nurse care management activity, antidepressant use, indicated the use of evidence-based standards of depression assessment and DCM. Depression measures were not administered at discharge, recertification, or transfer. Forty percent of patients had a formal depression diagnosis by the referring physician in the chart, and 65% were receiving an antidepressant. Having a depression care plan and depression medication were significantly associated with a large ADLs improvement.","This article examines the relevance of physician impairment to the discipline of academic psychiatry. The author reviews the scientific literature, the proceedings of previous International Conferences on Physician Health, and held discussions with experts in the physician health movement, department chairs, program directors, and residents. Psychiatric illness and impairment in physicians impact academic psychiatry in several ways. Mental illnesses in physicians are being studied by some researchers, but the subject requires more scholarly attention. Training directors are interested in resident well-being and illness and how to reach out to symptomatic residents in a more timely way. Leaders in psychiatry are eager to learn the first steps in identifying colleagues at risk and the route to assessment and care. They are especially concerned about disruptive behavior in the workplace, including harassment and boundary transgressions in doctor-patient and supervisor-supervisee relationships. Academic psychiatrists wish to be more responsive to nonpsychiatrists appealing to them for guidance with impaired members of their departments.","This issue should be taken in to account during physicians' education since doctors should be aware of how their own beliefs and attitudes influence their behaviour and practices, compromising, therefore, the adherence to and the success in obesity treatment. They seem to need more precise guidelines and better tools for screening and management of obesity, more referral options, and improved coordination with other specialities.","The findings demonstrate the need for a greater focus on recognizing depression among carers working in aged care facilities. Protocols should be developed to assist carers to detect, refer, and monitor depression in residents.","yes. Since increased symptoms of depression mediate the impact of disease severity on three domains of fatigue in PD patients, disease management should focus on the treatment of PD and symptoms of depression.","Family doctors need a lot more help, education and support in the management of somatisers, and psychiatrists need to provide it. Any management program for the treatment of somatisers in primary care should include methods to modify general practitioners' attitudes towards these patients.","In the present study, considerable deficits in confidence and knowledge regarding palliative care issues were also observed at the end of PY. Integration of palliative care into the medical school curriculums should be given special attention in terms of a longitudinal training of the PY.","no. In this real-world sample comparable in size to recent RCT intervention arms, patients with depression disorders presented with complex psychiatric needs including comorbid personality disorders, alcohol/substance use and suicide risk. These findings suggest external validity of depression screening and RCTs could serve as a basis for level A guideline recommendations in cardiovascular diseases.","This study shows that among physicians there are deficits in knowledge about childhood OSA and its treatment. More focused educational programs are needed within medical schools and within pediatric residency and post-graduate training programs.","yes. This study identified a high frequency of undiagnosed clinically significant depressive symptoms among ED patients and highlights several new demographic and clinical correlates of such symptoms. Screening for and diagnosis of clinical depression in the ED setting introduces important opportunities for acute care providers and for the health care system as a whole.","Physicians were least certain of their CHD diagnoses for Black patients and for younger women, but patient characteristics alone did not affect physician certainty of depression diagnoses. Physicians responded differentially to diagnostic certainty in terms of their clinical therapeutic actions such as test ordering and writing prescriptions. Physician responses to certainty may be as important as their responses to patient characteristics for understanding variation in clinical decision-making.","yes. Ongoing evaluation of classroom lectures by resident psychiatrists may provide valuable feedback to instructors and impact the quality of medical education. The \"classic\" role of the teacher organization and enthusiasm are the most important components of quality education.","yes. Patients with depression treated exclusively by primary care providers have attitudes and beliefs more averse to care than those seen by mental health specialists. These differences in attitudes and beliefs may contribute to lower quality depression care observed in comparisons of primary care and specialty mental health providers.","The specificity of diagnosis of depression made by GPs in a continuous morbidity registry and the accordance with DSM-IV criteria are high. Using criteria for diagnosis, which is a trend, could be one of the solutions towards a better diagnosis. As far as the sensitivity is concerned, GPs should not be distracted from using criteria for the diagnosis of depression when a large variety of complaints is presented.","Health care professionals should focus on identification, assessment and management of suicidal ideation in the medically ill in patients both with and without MDD.","Belgian GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed on which criteria were important in defining cure from depression but differed in their attitudes about depression. The outcome dimensions that were considered important in defining cure were influenced by physicians' attitudes - this was more pronounced in GPs than in psychiatrists.","There is long-standing concern regarding poor recognition of depression in primary care, especially in older people. Studies that examined the unassisted (clinical) ability of general practitioners (GPs; primary care physicians) to identify depression were divided into those of older adults, younger adults and mixed populations. Data were extracted by 3 reviewers independently and pooled using a Bayesian meta-analysis. We identified 31 valid studies that examined both sensitivity and specificity (or rule-in and rule-out accuracy), involving 52,513 individuals. Twelve studies recruited older individuals, 12 recruited younger adults and 7 recruited both younger and older adults (mixed populations). In the most robust studies the point prevalence of depression in late life was 13.2% (95% CI = 7.9-19.6). GPs were able to correctly identify 47.3% of the late-life depressions and 78.6% of the non-cases (71.0% overall accuracy). In younger adults GPs were able to identify 39.7% of the mid-life depressions and 85.1% of the non-depressed (77.8% overall accuracy). In mixed aged groups GPs we able to correctly identify 46.6% of the depressed individuals and 86.2% of the non-depressed (79.6% overall accuracy). The overall fraction correctly identified was significantly lower in older compared with younger adults. Correcting for differences in prevalence showed a statistically lower rule-in performance for older compared with younger adults. There was no difference in ability to identify non-depressed (healthy) individuals by age.","The results of this study suggest that undergraduate medical students' participation in a modest clinical program can enhance substance abuse education. Through increased training in substance abuse, physicians reported greater confidence in their ability to relate to patients with substance abuse problems.","Previous estimates of depression recognition in primary care are low and inconsistent. This may be due to registration artifacts and limited extraction efforts. This study investigated a) whether GPs' medical records demonstrate an accurate recognition of depression and b) which combinations of indications within the record most accurately reflect a diagnosis of depression. GPs' registrations were compared with a reference standard, the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI), according to DSM-IV criteria. Six definitions of GPs' recognition of depression were tested using diagnostic codes, medication data, referral data and free text in the medical records. The Youden-index was used to select the optimal definition of recognition. Data were derived from the Netherlands Study of Depression and Anxiety. 816 primary care patients from 33 general practitioners were included in the vicinities of Amsterdam and Leiden, The Netherlands. Registration of antidepressant prescriptions was the best single indicator of GPs' recognition of CIDI depression with a recognition rate of 0.43. The best combination of indicators increased the recognition rate to 0.69. All indications except the specific diagnostic codes for 'depressive disorder' and 'depressive feelings' were included in this definition. Potential bias due to the selection of participating GPs might have influenced our recognition rates.","We conclude that it is possible to train selected specialist oncology nurses to manage major depression in patients with cancer in the context of an appropriately constituted multidisciplinary team.","Our aim was to evaluate whether trainees encounter more difficult clinical situations (clinical challenge rate) and more patients with signs of depression in the last year of their training (T(1)) than in the first year (T(0)), and whether depression is recognized by trainees more frequently at T(1) than at T(0). An evaluation was undertaken of videotapes made by a random sample of 48 vocational trainees in general practice. Experienced staff members (GPs) assessed the clinical challenge rate of consultations at the two time points with the reliable and valid Amsterdam Clinical Challenge Scale (ACCS). They also rated the presence of signs of depression in the consultations (yes/no) and whether these were recognized by the trainee (yes/no). Baseline and follow-up measurements (T(0) and (T(1))) were available for 45 trainees, from the original cohort of 48 at T(0), and for 527 consultations. Both at T(0) and at T(1), the mean ACCS score was 2.3 (T(0) SD = 0.95; n = 269) (T(1) SD = 0.92; n = 258). For each trainee, the mean difference in ACCS score between T(0) and T(1) was 0.01 [95% confidence interval (CI) -0.15 to 0.17]. According to staff-assessments, 66 patients had signs of depression (34 at T(0) and 32 at T(1)). Trainees recognized depression in 12 consultations (12/34 = 35%) at T(0) and in 11 consultations (11/32 = 34%) at T(1) (relative risk 1.0; 95% CI 0.4-2.9).","In addition to other possible reasons for older adults' low rates of mental health service use, this study suggests that family physicians' beliefs and treatment intentions could be contributing factors. Changes in medical education aimed at replacing inaccurate beliefs with accurate information regarding older patients might be one way to increase rates of use in this underserved age group, because family physicians play a key role in the mental health care of older adults.","The DAQ measure of ease of identification is not valid when compared to actual clinical practice. The ability of GPs to identify depression may not be an independent variable, but may rather reflect other beliefs, attitudes and skills. This has considerable implications for educational interventions in primary care.","Depression is a common problem in all medically ill populations. Reported prevalence rates of major depression in patients with cancer are up to 50%. Cancer patients attending primary care and medical outpatient clinics with comorbid major depressive disorder frequently do not receive effective treatment. More effective ways of identifying and treating patients with both cancer and depression are therefore urgently required.AIM: The paper reports a study addressing the question of whether oncology nurses can be trained to take on a greater role in the management of major depression in their patients. We developed and piloted an intervention that can be delivered by a specially trained oncology nurse. The intervention is multifaceted and based on a problem-solving model. It requires a widening of the role and expertise of specialist nurses. The challenges this role presents to the nurses are discussed. We suggest that they must have a varied work programme that is not exclusively about managing depression, that they require adequate peer support and are likely to be most effective when working as part of a multidisciplinary psycho-oncology team.","These observations confirm prior findings of a strong association at the population level between major depression and health-care use and role impairment among persons with chronic physical disorders. They also point to the significant impact of co-morbid major depression on health-care seeking, disability and work absence in persons with chronic physical illness, underscoring the need for greater efforts to design and test the impact of detection and treatment programs for such individuals.","This study aimed to document the outcome dimensions that physicians see as important in defining cure from depression. The study also aimed to analyse physicians' attitudes about depression and to find out whether they affect their prescribing practices and/or the outcome dimensions that they view as important in defining cure. A 51-item questionnaire based on six validated scales was used to rate the importance of several depression outcome dimensions. Physicians' attitudes about depression were also assessed using the Depression Attitude Scale. Overall, 369 Belgian physicians (264 general practitioners [GPs]; 105 psychiatrists) participated in the DEsCRIBE™ survey. GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed that functioning and depressive symptomatology were most important in defining cure; anxious and somatic symptomatology was least important. GPs and psychiatrists differed in their attitudes about depression (p<0.001). Logistic regression revealed that the attitudes of GPs - but not psychiatrists - were significantly associated with their rates of antidepressant prescription (p<0.001) and that certain attitudes predicted which outcome dimensions were seen as important in defining cure.","Neither high scores on the CES-D nor unaided physician detection accurately identified patients with major depression who were seen in primary care settings, while the supplementation of physician detection with CES-D scores had a minimal net effect on the accuracy of detection. The data do not support the routine use of the CES-D as a primary care screening instrument for depression, either as a stand-alone measure or as a supplement to physician detection.","The aim of this study was to investigate training in developmental and behavioral pediatrics (DBP) for graduating residents, their competencies in diagnosing and treating child mental health (MH) problems, and whether the amount of DBP training and/or perceived competencies are associated with perceived responsibility for treating 3 MH problems. Data were collected from 636 residents who completed the American Academy of Pediatrics's 2007 Graduating Residents Survey. The survey included questions on training and self-rated competencies in multiple MH skill areas and perceived responsibility for identifying and treating/managing children's MH problems. Weighted multivariable logistic regression analyses examined associations between training, competencies, and perceived responsibility for treating/managing attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), anxiety, and depression. Ninety percent of respondents completed a DBP rotation, with 86% reporting>3 to 4 weeks of training. Duration of DBP rotation was related to training and perceived competencies in MH skill areas, and nearly all residents who reported high competencies were trained in those skill areas. However,<50% reported their competencies as \"very good\" or \"excellent.\" Residents with training and high competency in dosing with medications were most likely to agree that pediatricians should be responsible for treating/managing ADHD, anxiety, and depression.","GPs are aware of mental health problems in most depressed patients, but labeling with specific diagnostic codes is weak. Researchers should consider that diagnostic coding alone is not an accurate measure of the diagnostic ability of depression and strongly underestimates the accuracy of the GP.","We sought to ascertain whether patients' requests for antidepressants affect visit duration or history taking by primary care physicians (PCPs) for patients with depressive symptoms and a coexisting musculoskeletal disorder and to determine whether more thorough history taking is associated with diagnostic accuracy or with provision of minimally acceptable initial care for major depression. This was a randomized trial using standardized patients (SPs). Six roles involved 2 conditions (major depression and adjustment disorder, both with coexisting musculoskeletal conditions) and 3 patient request types (brand-specific, general, or none). We conducted the study in 152 PCP offices in Northern California and Rochester, New York. Physicians were assigned randomly to see 2 SPs with depression/wrist pain or adjustment disorder/back pain. Physician history-taking for depression and the musculoskeletal condition; depression diagnosis in the medical record; antidepressant prescriptions/samples; referral/follow-up recommendations; visit duration; and provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care. General antidepressant requests were associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.80 more questions of 10 (95% confidence interval = 0.31-1.29, P<0.001); brand-specific requests were marginally associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.45, 95% confidence interval = -0.04-0.93, P = 0.07). Antidepressant medication requests were not related to musculo-skeletal question asking (P>0.3) or visit length (P>0.8). Depression history taking was directly associated with the likelihood of a chart diagnosis of depression and the provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care.","yes. Patients with 1 degrees SS appear to be at increased risk from clinical depression. Early recognition and appropriate intervention is therefore essential to reduce the negative impact of depression on the patient's quality of life and outcome of their disease.","Family physicians need education in the value of respite services for their chronically ill older patients and their families. Physicians also need information on the respite services available and strategies for accessing them. Our findings suggest a need for greater attention to regional discrepancies in availability of services.","yes. The USPSTF recommendation to screen adults for depression in primary care settings when staff-assisted depression management programs are available is not supported by evidence from any RCTs that are directly relevant to the recommendation. The USPSTF should re-evaluate this recommendation. Please see related article: http://www.biomedcentral.com/1741-7015/12/14 REGISTRATION: PROSPERO (#CRD42013004276).","Despite recent curricular reforms, an alarming number of current medicine residents report depressive symptoms, increasing cynicism, and decreasing humanism, which were associated with increasing educational debt and a need to moonlight for financial survival. Ongoing curricular reform, legislative relief from early loan repayment, and salary increases may be necessary to address these problems.","Remission rates in primary care studies of depression are at least as high as for those in psychiatric settings. It is a realistic goal for family physicians to target remission of symptoms as an optimal outcome for treatment of depression.","It is tentatively argued that the different sources might correspond to qualitatively different 'depression' constructs, and that health professionals who are concerned with depression in the elderly be aware of the disparity between, and subsequently consider, a variety of recognition sources.","These results suggest that depression may have a clinically significant influence on patients' willingness to share health care decisions with others. Health care providers should be alert to this possibility, particularly when the decision at hand is significant.","no. Close to 50% of the depressed individuals did not seek primary care during a depressive episode, and close to 80% of them would have liked their mental health to be discussed more often by a health professional. Better information on depression and its treatments, and more-systematic screening by primary care personnel would improve the treatment of depressed patients, especially those in the most precarious situations.","Evidence of important psychological issues in some patients with hand pain suggests a need for greater awareness among treating physicians.","To explore the issue of diagnostic specificity for major depression in the primary care setting by examining the relative accuracy of 3 methods to detect major depression in primary care. Comparison of performance characteristics of 3 case-finding methods for depression (ie, the Center for Epidemiologic Studies-Depression scale [CES-D], unaided physician detection, and \"augmented\" physician detection by use of a case-finding instrument), with the standard criterion being the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Third Edition, Revised (DSM-III-R). The offices of 50 family physicians from private and academic practice in southeastern Michigan. Adult patients (N = 1580) who presented for routine care, from which a weighted random sample of 425 patients completed the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R. Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and positive likelihood ratio for each case-finding method. Major depression was present in 13.4% of the sample. Both the CES-D and unaided physician detection methods performed poorly in identifying patients who met DSM-III-R criteria for major depressive disorder. The CES-D had high sensitivity but low specificity at standard and high cut points, resulting, respectively, in low positive predictive values (0.307 and 0.385) and low positive likelihood ratios (2.9 and 4.0). Unaided physician detection showed lower sensitivity, higher specificity, and a slightly higher positive predictive value (0.45) and positive likelihood ratio (4.9). Raising of the CES-D threshold for a positive test did not enhance the detection of depression. Augmented physician detection with CES-D scores resulted in minimal improvement. Although the positive predictive value and positive likelihood ratio increased to 0.50 and 6.1, respectively, using the most stringent case-finding definition (ie, physician identification plus the CES-D score [score>or = 22]), the proportion of depressed patients who were correctly identified decreased to 26.9%.","General practitioners can improve their ability to detect psychological distress in their patients utilizing this self-directed educational approach.","yes. Adherence to depression and anxiety guidelines can be improved, even when the general practitioner makes the diagnosis and records it. Data on actual health care delivery and quality of care provide insight and may be useful in developing quality improvement activities.","The majority of patients accepted antidepressant prescribing by their oncologist; only a minority preferred treatment by a mental health professional. These findings suggest that promoting education of oncologists to assess psychological symptoms and manage anxiety and depression as a routine part of an outpatient visit is beneficial","no. The finding that depression and social factors are more important for patient satisfaction with provided care than disease-related aspects suggests that these factors need to be considered carefully in treatment. This represents a big challenge within an increasingly specialized health care system. The General Practitioner as the regular and first-choice provider of health care seems to be the most appropriate instance who can accomplish this.","yes. Depressed patients with higher ratings of involvement in medical decisions have a higher probability of receiving guideline-concordant care and improving their symptoms over an 18-month period. Interventions to increase patient involvement in decision-making may be an important means of improving care for and outcomes of depression.","Cardiovascular nurses and medicine residents and interns underrecognize depression in patients with AMI in the absence of formal screening. Formal screening for symptoms of depression should be considered part of routine AMI care.","Multiple, practical questionnaires with reasonable performance characteristics are available to help clinicians identify and diagnose patients with major depression. Diagnostic confirmation by mental health care professionals using a clinical interview or by primary care physicians using a semistructured interview can be made with high reliability.","yes. Physicians should pay attention to physical, anxiety, and panic symptoms, because these symptoms are related to remission of depression. Future studies should explore how these symptoms affect the prognosis of depression.","The study shows that subthreshold depression is a clinically relevant issue for GPs but raises the possibility that quality improvement might not be as necessary as past studies showed. Further quantitative research using larger random samples is needed to determine the effectiveness of the strategies used by the GPs, patients' satisfaction with these strategies and the course of these patients' symptoms in primary care.","The feasibility of a two-item screening tool for maternal depression in a pediatric setting was recently reported. We assessed whether the accuracy of pediatrician recognition of maternal depression during the one-month well-child visit could be improved by an educational intervention using the two-item screening tool. We conducted an educational intervention for pediatric residents in a suburban hospital in Tokyo, Japan, with outcome measurement before and after. Resident education included knowledge about postpartum depression and its impact on children, use of the two-item screening tool and available management strategies. Sixteen pediatric residents examined 267 mother-infant dyads during well-child visits. Residents documented the presence or absence of postpartum depressive symptoms on medical records. Depressive symptoms were also determined using the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) survey; residents were not aware of the results. Using the EPDS as a \"gold standard,\" improvement in sensitivity and specificity of resident recognition of maternal depressive symptoms was determined. The overall prevalence of postpartum depressive symptoms based on the EPDS was 15.4%. The sensitivity of resident recognition was 8% and specificity 98% before intervention, and 12% and 96% afterwards, respectively. The difference was not statistically significant. Residents indicated fear of maternal stigmatization and mothers' receptiveness to discussing depressive symptoms, as well as lack of time and skills, as major barriers to the identification of maternal depression.","Strategies to improve mental health care should account for the orientation of primary care physicians to mental health issues.","Clinicians have considerable difficulty accurately identifying distress and mild depression in primary care with only one in three people correctly diagnosed. Clinicians are better able to identify distress than mild depression but success remains limited. However not all such individuals want professional help, and some people who are overlooked get help elsewhere, or improve spontaneously, therefore the implications of these detection problems are not yet clear.","Interventions such as screening and GP education may be ineffective in improving primary mental health care unless accompanied by educational programmes for the general public to increase mental health literacy, de-stigmatise mental illness and increase awareness of general practice as an appropriate and effective source of health care.","This study surveyed Israeli primary care physicians' attitudes and practice regarding postpartum depression (PPD). Participants included 224 pediatricians and family practitioners responding to an online survey (65% response rate). Almost all respondents (98.0%) considered it important that they be able to recognize the signs of PPD. Most (89.8%) noted that if they suspected PPD, they would become somewhat involved: clarifying, keeping attentive, consulting with colleagues, and/or referring the woman to another professional. Six respondents--only family practitioners--stated that they would treat the case themselves (P = .01). Family practitioners were significantly more willing to screen for PPD than were pediatricians (91.2% vs 64.6%; P<.0001). There were no differences between physicians by region or between males and females when comparing all respondents, as well as when comparing within medical specialty (P<.05).","To investigate the effects of exclusively physical presentation of depression on 1). depression management and outcomes under usual care conditions, and 2). the impact of an intervention to improve management and outcomes. Secondary analysis of a depression intervention trial in 12 community-based primary care practices. Two hundred adults beginning a new treatment episode for depression. Presenting complaint and physician depression query at index visit; antidepressant use, completion of adequate antidepressant trial, change in depressive symptoms, and physical and emotional role functioning at 6 months. Sixty-six percent of depressed patients presented exclusively with physical symptoms. Under usual care conditions, psychological presenters were more likely than physical presenters to complete an adequate trial of antidepressant treatment but experienced equivalent improvements in depressive severity and role functioning. In patients presenting exclusively with physical symptoms, the intervention significantly improved physician query (40.8% vs 18.0%; P =.06), receipt of any antidepressant (63.0% vs 20.1%; P =.001), and an adequate antidepressant trial (34.9% vs 5.9%; P =.004), but did not significantly improve depression severity or role functioning. In patients presenting with psychological symptoms, the intervention significantly improved receipt of any antidepressant (79.9% vs 38.0%; P =.01) and an adequate antidepressant trial (46.0% vs 23.8%; P =.004), and also improved depression severity and physical and emotional role functioning.","Depression treatment by General Practitioners (GPs) and patient outcomes improved significantly after a comprehensive 20-h training program of GPs. This study examines whether the effects on patient outcomes are caused by the improvements in the process of care. Seventeen GPs participated in the training program. A pre-test-post-test design was used. A total of 174 patients (85 pre-test, 89 post-test) aged 18-65 met ICD-10 criteria for recent onset major depression. The main indicator of mediation was a drop in training effect size (eta2) on patient outcome after adjustment for individual and combined process of care variables. We evaluated depression-specific (recognition, accurate diagnosis, prescription of antidepressant, adequate antidepressant treatment) and a non-specific process of care variable (communicative skillfulness of the GP) as well as the combination of adequate antidepressant treatment and communicative skillfulness. Patient outcomes were assessed at 3 months and consisted of change in severity of symptomatology, level of daily functioning and activity limitation days from baseline. Depression-specific interventions mediated up to one third of the observed improvement in patient outcome. 'Adequate dosage and duration of an antidepressant' explained 36% of the training effect on patient outcome (eta2 from 0.044 to 0.028). 'Communicative skillfulness of the GP' only was a weak mediator (18% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.036). However, the combination of both, that is adequate antidepressant treatment by a communicative skillful GP, proved to be the strongest mediator of the observed training effect on patient outcomes (59% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.018). The training effects on patient outcomes in this sample were small. Hence, the scope for mediation was limited.","yes. Supported self-management is identified as a promising intervention that could be integrated into primary health care within the context of the Canadian health care system. It constitutes a feasible and practical approach to enhance the role of family physicians in the delivery of services to individuals with milder forms of depression and promotes the active engagement of individuals in their recovery and in prevention of future episodes.","Depression is not routinely investigated in clinical settings. Doctors should be alerted and trained on the monitoring of depression in this age group.","The low knowledge about mental disorders, particularly depression, confirms the importance and the need to increase mental health literacy. Furthermore, professionals must openly discuss illness models with their patients, especially emphasising the differences between illness and crisis.","After education on optimal management of depression, intervention physicians did not differ from their usual care colleagues in depression diagnosis or pharmacotherapy.","yes. For purposes of preventing suicidal behaviour, screening for depression, plus further education on recognition, diagnosis and treatment of mood disorders among the elderly in primary health care setting are needed.","Despite the association of depression care plans with patient disability improvement, inadequate compliance to evidence-based DCM was found. Medicare and HHC agencies must ensure compliance to DCM, including follow-up depression assessment for patients with positive screens.","Whilst we know that patients with medical conditions are often depressed and that such co-morbid depression is often undertreated, we have found that it is undertreated even in patients repeatedly referred to medical specialists. Better assessment and management of depression in such patients could both improve patients' quality of life and reduce the cost of care.","The objective of this study was to investigate medical students' knowledge and attitudes towards depression. Students attending their final year at Zagreb School of Medicine completed a set of standardized questionnaires, including attitudes towards psychiatric medication, attitudes towards depression, and personality inventory. In total, 199 students completed the questionnaire (response rate 77 %). Most medical students were only partially able to correctly identify major symptoms of depression, but did suggest referral to mental health specialists as the most appropriate course of action. They recognized social and biological causes of depression. Degree of correct identification of symptoms of depression correlated positively with non-stigmatizing attitudes towards depression and negatively with stigmatizing attitudes towards depression.","Depression is commonly presented to GPs who feel that the diagnosis often involves the separation of a normal reaction to environment and true illness. For those patients living in socio-economically deprived environments, the problems, and therefore the depression, are seen to be insoluble. This has an important implication for the construction of educational interventions around improving the recognition and treatment of depression in primary care: some doctors may be reluctant to recognize and respond to such patients in depth because of the much wider structural and social factors that we have suggested in this paper. That it is the doctors working with deprived populations who express these views, means that the 'Inverse care law' [Tudor Hart J. The inverse care Law. Lancet 1971; 1(7696): 405-412] operates in the management of depression.","We developed a comprehensive, 20-hour training programme for primary-care physicians, that sought to improve their ability to detect, diagnose and manage depression. We evaluated the effects of physician training on patient outcomes, using a pre-post design. In the pre-training phase of the study, we sampled 1834 consecutive patients of 17 primary-care physicians and evaluated 518 of these patients for the presence of depression. We measured outcomes of all patients with depression at 3 months and 1 year. The outcome measures were: severity of psychopathology; duration of depressive episode; and level of daily functioning. After the 17 physicians completed the training, we drew a new sample from their practices (498 of 1785 consecutive patients were evaluated for depression) and measured outcomes for the depressed patients. We found an effect of the training on short-term outcome, particularly for patients with a recent-onset depression. At 3-month follow-up depressed patients whose physicians had received training had less severe psychopathology and patients with recent-onset depression also showed higher levels of daily functioning than patients of the same physicians prior to the training. The patients with a recent-onset depression that was recognized by trained physicians had shorter depressive episodes, but this was not statistically significant. At 1-year follow-up, all training effects had faded away.","These findings further emphasize the importance of treating depression among older adults, and suggest that both dentists and physicians have a role in recognizing and referring patients for such treatment.","GP communication skills are important to enhance depression-specific interventions in bringing about improvements in patient outcomes and should be addressed in GP training programs for the treatment of depression.","There was no enduring improvement in the treatment of depression for primary care patients. Depression treatment guidelines were achieved contemporaneously, however, for intervention patients enrolled in a multifaceted program of collaborative care during the training period. These results suggest that continuing programs of reorganized service delivery to support the role of a primary care physician (eg, on-site mental health personnel, close monitoring of patient progress and adherence), in addition to physician training, are essential for the success of guideline implementation.","Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \"patients\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).","Students' attitudes toward depression may influence their recognition of symptoms of depression. Incorporation of these findings in development of undergraduate medical curricula may improve students' recognition of depression.","The purpose of this investigation was to assess the relationship of primary care specialty training with self-assessed skill, knowledge, attitudes, and behavior toward depression recognition and management. A baseline self-report questionnaire was administered to 184 internists and 138 family physicians participating in a multisite depression intervention study. There were no marked differences in knowledge of internists and family physicians regarding depression, in attitudes about the effectiveness of specific therapies, or in barriers to providing optimum treatment for depression. However, compared to internists, family physicians rated themselves as more skilled in the management of depression. When considering management of patients with moderate to severe depression, family physicians were more likely to report that they prescribed a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor (relative odds (RO) = 3.51, 95 percent Confidence interval (CI) [2.19, 5.60] and to personally counsel patients (RO = 1.97, 95 percent CI [1.16, 3.38]) more than half the patients, but were less likely to refer to a specialist in mental health (RO = 0.52, 95 percent CI [0.33, 0.82]) than were internists. Additional potentially influential characteristics did not wholly account for the reported differences in practice according to specialty. Physicians of both specialties expressed considerable uncertainty in their knowledge of psychotherapy and in their evaluation of the effectiveness of other strategies for the prevention of recurrence of depression.","yes. Our study demonstrates that a simple and brief educational program can enhance family physicians' knowledge of depression; however, an increase in knowledge alone may not necessarily translate into practice behavior change.","To assess the effect of physician training on management of depression. Primary care physicians were randomly assigned to a depression management intervention that included an educational program. A before-and-after design evaluated physician practices for patients not enrolled in the intervention trial. One hundred nine primary care physicians in 2 health maintenance organizations located in the Midwest and Northwest regions of the United States.PATIENTS/ Computerized pharmacy and visit data from a group of 124,893 patients who received visits or prescriptions from intervention and usual care physicians. Primary care physicians received education on diagnosis and optimal management of depression over a 3-month training period. Methods of education included small group interactive discussions, expert demonstrations, role-play, and academic detailing of pharmacotherapy, criteria for urgent psychiatric referrals, and case reviews with psychiatric consultants. Pharmacy and visit data provided indicators of physician management of depression: rate of newly diagnosed depression, new prescription of antidepressant medication, and duration of pharmacotherapy. One year after the training period, intervention and usual care physicians did not differ significantly in the rate of new depression diagnosis (P =.95) or new prescription of antidepressant medicines (P =.10). Meanwhile, patients of intervention physicians did not differ from patients of usual care physicians in adequacy of pharmacotherapy (P =.53) as measured by 12 weeks of continuous antidepressant treatment.","The authors examine whether physician education has enduring effects on treatment of depression. Depressed primary care patients initiating antidepressant treatment from primary care clinics of a staff-model health maintenance organization were studied. Quasi-experimental and before-and-after comparisons of physician practices, supplemented with patient surveys, were used to compare the process of care and depression outcomes. Intervention consisted of extensive physician education that spanned a 12-month period. This included case-by-case consultations, didactics, academic detailing (eg, clearly stating the educational and behavioral objectives to individual physicians), and role-play of optimal treatment. Main outcome measures were divided into two groups. Quasi-experimental samples included: (1) antidepressant medication selection and (2) adequacy (dosage and duration) of pharmacotherapy. Survey samples included: (3) intensity of follow-up; (4) physician delivered educational messages regarding depression treatment; (5) patient satisfaction; and (6) depression outcomes. No lasting educational effect was observed consistently in any of the outcomes measured.","Training primary-care physicians to recognize, diagnose and manage depression can improve short-term patient outcomes, especially for patients with a recent onset of depression. Patients suffering from a recurrent or chronic depression may need more specific interventions, both for acute treatment and long-term management.","The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients.","Depression is frequently unrecognized and undertreated. Therefore, there is a need to increase the knowledge and skills of primary care physicians regarding management of depression. The aim of this study was to determine if a brief educational intervention can affect family physicians' knowledge of the diagnosis and treatment of depression. Sixty-eight community-based, nonacademic family physicians completed the program, which was delivered using a mixed lecture-seminar format. Knowledge about depression was assessed pre- and post-program. Paired-sample t test and chi-square test were used to compare test scores. Although study physicians demonstrated high baseline knowledge of depression, 75% of them had better scores following the program. The increase in knowledge was statistically significant (p < .0001)."],"string":"[\n \"yes. A diagnosis of major depression in older medical inpatients is independently associated with poor mental health in their informal caregivers 6 months later.\",\n \"the gynaecologist must have a role in helping to achieve an early diagnosis of the depression, because the earlier the problem is recognised the greater are the possibilities of therapy and preventing any consequences for the entire family group.\",\n \"This study examined age group differences in the rates of depression diagnosis and treatment using a national probability sample. Using data from the 2012 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (n=62,723 visits by patients aged 18+ years), we used bivariate and multivariable binary logistic regression analyses to test age group differences in antidepressant medication (ADM) and psychotherapy prescribed/ordered or provided at visits during which depression was diagnosed. Visits by older adults were less likely to result in a depression diagnosis than visits by younger individuals: 2.46% and 1.80% in the 65-74 and 75+ age groups, compared to 4.06%, 4.24% and 4.12% in the 18-29, 30-49 and 50-64 age groups, respectively. Of all visits involving diagnosed depression, 65.88% included prescribing/ordering or providing ADM and 19.01% included psychotherapy ordering or providing, without significant age group difference. Prescribing/ordering or providing ADM occurs frequently during visits to physicians regardless of specialty, while psychotherapy was ordered or provided mostly during visits to psychiatrists.\",\n \"This study examines how frequently family physicians display printed educational materials about mental health problems in their practices and where these materials should be located for optimal effect. A cross-sectional observational study of pamphlet display practices in 13 family physicians' offices in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada was followed by an intervention which placed selected mental health educational materials in waiting rooms and examining rooms, and monitored the pick up rate from each location by patients. The study found that few mental health pamphlets were displayed by the participating physicians, that when a range of these pamphlets was made available, pamphlets on mood disorders were the most popular, and that significantly more pamphlets were picked up from examining rooms than from waiting rooms.\",\n \"yes. The prevalence of identified depression in the MEPS-NHC is lower than that previously estimated using formal diagnostic assessment techniques for threshold and subthreshold depressive states combined. Therefore, MDS-identified depression may underestimate the burden of depression. Underrecognition may be particularly acute in black or African-American residents, the oldest old, and the cognitively impaired. Further research on the relationship of MDS-identified depression and depression identified through structured diagnostic interviews in broadly representative samples of nursing home residents is needed to expand the availability of descriptive epidemiological data, to help clarify the results of research making use of MDS data, and to suggest methods for optimizing clinical and administrative data systems.\",\n \"yes. Depression disease management programs can have a positive return-on-investment from the employer perspective, but only when they are based on best practices. Given the generally low depression treatment quality documented here, treatment quality guarantees are needed before expanding workplace depression screening, outreach, and treatment programs.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to (1) to explore the validity of the depression diagnosis made by the general practitioner (GP) and factors associated with it, (2) to estimate rates of treatment adequacy for depression and factors associated with it and (3) to study how rates of treatment adequacy vary when using different assessment methods and criteria. Epidemiological survey carried out in 77 primary care centres representative of Catalonia. A total of 3815 patients were assessed. GPs identified 69 out of the 339 individuals who were diagnosed with a major depressive episode according to the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I) (sensitivity 0.22; kappa value: 0.16). The presence of emotional problems as the patients' primary complaint was associated with an increased probability of recognition. Rates of adequacy differed according to criteria: in the cases detected with the SCID-I interview, adequacy was 39.35% when using only patient self-reported data and 54.91% when taking into account data from the clinical chart. Rates of adequacy were higher when assessing adequacy among those considered depressed by the GP.\",\n \"Older adults with depression and medical comorbidity pose a significant clinical and public health challenge. Evidence was found of a statistically significant intervention effect on mortality for diabetes mellitus in persons with major depression.\",\n \"The clinical utility of the findings are discussed in terms of the importance of primary-care physicians encouraging their panic disorder patients to receive CBT as well as medications.\",\n \"Literature has shown that dissemination of guidelines alone is insufficient to ensure that guideline recommendations are incorporated into every day clinical practice. We aimed to investigate the gaps between guideline recommendations and clinical practice in the management of young people with depression by undertaking an audit of medical files in a catchment area public mental health service for 15 to 25 year olds in Melbourne, Australia. The results showed that the assessment and recording of depression severity to ensure appropriate treatment planning was not systematic nor consistent; that the majority of young people (74.5%) were prescribed an antidepressant before an adequate trial of psychotherapy was undertaken and that less than 50% were monitored for depression symptom improvement and antidepressant treatment emergent suicide related behaviours (35% and 30% respectively). Encouragingly 92% of first line prescriptions for those aged 18 years or under who were previously antidepressant-naïve was for fluoxetine as recommended.\",\n \"yes. Screening and treatment of depression and anxiety is important in improving self-care among HF patients. HF management programs need to include strategies for increasing patients' perceived control over their heart disease.\",\n \"Physicians must effectively evaluate and treat obesity. To design a needs-driven curriculum intended to improve patient outcomes, physicians were surveyed about their self-perceived knowledge and skills. The objective of this study was to determine the expressed needs of residents and faculty regarding obesity care training across three specialties. The study used a survey given to faculty and residents in General Internal Medicine, Pediatrics, and Psychiatry. Survey questions were generated from comprehensive nutrition curriculum and clinical recommendations, administered online, and then organized around a validated behavioral health framework-the 5As (assess, advise, agree, assist, arrange). Analyses were conducted to evaluate differences in perceived knowledge and skills between specialties and across training levels. From an overall response rate of 65% (65 residents and 250 faculty members), nearly 20% reported inadequate competency in every item with 48% of respondents reporting an inability to adequately counsel patients about common treatment options. Internists reported the lowest competency in arranging referrals and follow-up. Psychiatrists reported the lowest competency in assessment skills.\",\n \"GP accounts indicated concern about threats to patient care. Contention between using severity questionnaires and delivering individualised patient care is significantly motivated by GP concerns to preserve professional expertise and identity. It is important to learn from GP concerns to help establish how best to optimise the use of severity questionnaires in depression.\",\n \"To (1) examine the influence of patient and provider attributes on physicians' diagnostic certainty and (2) assess the effect of diagnostic certainty on clinical therapeutic actions. Factorial experiment of 128 generalist physicians using identical clinically authentic videotaped vignettes depicting patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) or depression. For CHD, physicians were least certain for Black patients (p=.003) and for younger female patients (p=.013). For depression, average certainty was higher than for the CHD presentation (74.0 vs. 57.9 on of scale of 0-100, p<.001) and there were no main effects of patient or provider characteristics. Increasing diagnostic certainty was a significant predictor of subsequent clinical actions, and these varied according to physician and patient characteristics across both conditions.\",\n \"The authors discuss the value of teaching perspective identification among child and adolescent psychiatry faculty for medical student education.\",\n \"Pediatric health care providers did not recognize most mothers with high levels of self-reported depressive symptoms. Pediatricians may benefit from asking directly about maternal functioning or by using a structured screening tool to identify mothers who are at risk for developing depressive symptoms. In addition, training pediatric providers to identify mothers with depressive symptoms may be beneficial.\",\n \"To determine whether the chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice and internal medicine physicians differed in the proportion reporting that their primary care physician asked them about depression symptoms. A cross-sectional observational study of chronically or recurrently depressed survey respondents who identified a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. A large not-for-profit group-model health maintenance organization in the northwestern United States, with a population representative of its service area. Health maintenance organization members (n= 1161) with ongoing or recurring depression or dysthymia who responded to a 1993 survey and who identified either a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. Patients' self-report of their primary care physician asking them: (1) whether they had been feeling sad, blue, or depressed; (2) to fill out a questionnaire about their mood or feelings; and (3) whether they had been thinking about death or suicide. Chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice physicians were more likely to report that their physician asked them about depressive symptoms than were patients of internal medicine physicians (34.0% vs 27.3%) (P=.02). This finding persisted in a multivariate analysis.\",\n \"To create a doctor of pharmacy curricular experience that will decrease students' social barriers to interaction with and treatment of mentally-ill patients. We created a survey instrument to measure 4 aspects of students' conceptions of schizophrenia and clinical depression: (1) understanding of the medical nature of each disease, (2) understanding of patient behavior, (3) belief in the efficacy of treatment, and (4) social distance. We delivered this instrument before and after a neuropsychiatry curriculum including \\\"peer-level patient presenters\\\" in addition to the traditional first-year pharmacy curriculum. Social-distance scores significantly decreased in first-year pharmacy students who attended peer-level patient presentations, indicating increased willingness to interact with persons with schizophrenia and clinical depression. In addition, students' understanding of the causes of illness, behavior of patients, and most importantly, efficacy of drug counseling for these diseases increased.\",\n \"This study compares the views of psychiatry residency training directors about psychiatry and mental health training in the primary care programs in their institutions with those of the primary care residency training directors. A 16-item questionnaire surveying specific areas of training and perceived adequacy of current teaching was distributed to 1,544 U.S. primary care and psychiatry program directors. The response rate was 53%. Among psychiatry training directors, 85% responded that psychiatry training in their primary care programs was minimal to suboptimal, while 68% of family practice training directors responded that their psychiatry training was optimal to extensive. Among psychiatry training directors, 89% were dissatisfied with the psychiatry training in their primary care programs, and only 8% were satisfied. In contrast, almost half of primary care training directors were satisfied. However, within the primary care programs, there was a marked difference between family practice (majority satisfied) and the rest (internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, mostly unsatisfied). All primary care and psychiatry training directors agreed that most basic psychiatric skills and diagnoses were taught in the primary care programs. For all skills and syndromes examined, psychiatry training directors consistently and significantly rated the training to be less adequate than did primary care training directors. There was general agreement that primary care physicians should be able to treat most uncomplicated cases in patients with psychiatric disorders, and some but not other psychiatric conditions.\",\n \"Type of medical dysfunction, whether illness or impairment, may require different therapeutic and supportive approaches. Enhancement of perceived social support, for those who are impaired, and encouragement of social interactions, for those who are ill, may be important intervention targets for treatment of depressive symptoms in older adult primary care patients.\",\n \"Research is scarce on how depression is identified and treated among Medicare home healthcare (HHC) patients age 65+ with disability. The Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services (CMS) recently incorporated depression screening into the OASIS-C HHC assessment. Our study objectives were to evaluate and characterize depression care management (DCM) in an HHC agency after CMS increased its depression requirements and to determine if there was an association of DCM with disability (activities of daily living [ADLs]) outcomes. The authors conducted a retrospective chart review of 100 new Medicare HHC admissions patients age 65+ (mean age: 81.7) who screened positive for depression and had disability and multimorbidity. Clinical and administrative records were examined and descriptive analyses used. Multivariate regression analyses investigated the association of six DCM components with ADLs improvement. Depression was recognized in care plans of 60% of patients. Documentation of only one nurse care management activity, antidepressant use, indicated the use of evidence-based standards of depression assessment and DCM. Depression measures were not administered at discharge, recertification, or transfer. Forty percent of patients had a formal depression diagnosis by the referring physician in the chart, and 65% were receiving an antidepressant. Having a depression care plan and depression medication were significantly associated with a large ADLs improvement.\",\n \"This article examines the relevance of physician impairment to the discipline of academic psychiatry. The author reviews the scientific literature, the proceedings of previous International Conferences on Physician Health, and held discussions with experts in the physician health movement, department chairs, program directors, and residents. Psychiatric illness and impairment in physicians impact academic psychiatry in several ways. Mental illnesses in physicians are being studied by some researchers, but the subject requires more scholarly attention. Training directors are interested in resident well-being and illness and how to reach out to symptomatic residents in a more timely way. Leaders in psychiatry are eager to learn the first steps in identifying colleagues at risk and the route to assessment and care. They are especially concerned about disruptive behavior in the workplace, including harassment and boundary transgressions in doctor-patient and supervisor-supervisee relationships. Academic psychiatrists wish to be more responsive to nonpsychiatrists appealing to them for guidance with impaired members of their departments.\",\n \"This issue should be taken in to account during physicians' education since doctors should be aware of how their own beliefs and attitudes influence their behaviour and practices, compromising, therefore, the adherence to and the success in obesity treatment. They seem to need more precise guidelines and better tools for screening and management of obesity, more referral options, and improved coordination with other specialities.\",\n \"The findings demonstrate the need for a greater focus on recognizing depression among carers working in aged care facilities. Protocols should be developed to assist carers to detect, refer, and monitor depression in residents.\",\n \"yes. Since increased symptoms of depression mediate the impact of disease severity on three domains of fatigue in PD patients, disease management should focus on the treatment of PD and symptoms of depression.\",\n \"Family doctors need a lot more help, education and support in the management of somatisers, and psychiatrists need to provide it. Any management program for the treatment of somatisers in primary care should include methods to modify general practitioners' attitudes towards these patients.\",\n \"In the present study, considerable deficits in confidence and knowledge regarding palliative care issues were also observed at the end of PY. Integration of palliative care into the medical school curriculums should be given special attention in terms of a longitudinal training of the PY.\",\n \"no. In this real-world sample comparable in size to recent RCT intervention arms, patients with depression disorders presented with complex psychiatric needs including comorbid personality disorders, alcohol/substance use and suicide risk. These findings suggest external validity of depression screening and RCTs could serve as a basis for level A guideline recommendations in cardiovascular diseases.\",\n \"This study shows that among physicians there are deficits in knowledge about childhood OSA and its treatment. More focused educational programs are needed within medical schools and within pediatric residency and post-graduate training programs.\",\n \"yes. This study identified a high frequency of undiagnosed clinically significant depressive symptoms among ED patients and highlights several new demographic and clinical correlates of such symptoms. Screening for and diagnosis of clinical depression in the ED setting introduces important opportunities for acute care providers and for the health care system as a whole.\",\n \"Physicians were least certain of their CHD diagnoses for Black patients and for younger women, but patient characteristics alone did not affect physician certainty of depression diagnoses. Physicians responded differentially to diagnostic certainty in terms of their clinical therapeutic actions such as test ordering and writing prescriptions. Physician responses to certainty may be as important as their responses to patient characteristics for understanding variation in clinical decision-making.\",\n \"yes. Ongoing evaluation of classroom lectures by resident psychiatrists may provide valuable feedback to instructors and impact the quality of medical education. The \\\"classic\\\" role of the teacher organization and enthusiasm are the most important components of quality education.\",\n \"yes. Patients with depression treated exclusively by primary care providers have attitudes and beliefs more averse to care than those seen by mental health specialists. These differences in attitudes and beliefs may contribute to lower quality depression care observed in comparisons of primary care and specialty mental health providers.\",\n \"The specificity of diagnosis of depression made by GPs in a continuous morbidity registry and the accordance with DSM-IV criteria are high. Using criteria for diagnosis, which is a trend, could be one of the solutions towards a better diagnosis. As far as the sensitivity is concerned, GPs should not be distracted from using criteria for the diagnosis of depression when a large variety of complaints is presented.\",\n \"Health care professionals should focus on identification, assessment and management of suicidal ideation in the medically ill in patients both with and without MDD.\",\n \"Belgian GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed on which criteria were important in defining cure from depression but differed in their attitudes about depression. The outcome dimensions that were considered important in defining cure were influenced by physicians' attitudes - this was more pronounced in GPs than in psychiatrists.\",\n \"There is long-standing concern regarding poor recognition of depression in primary care, especially in older people. Studies that examined the unassisted (clinical) ability of general practitioners (GPs; primary care physicians) to identify depression were divided into those of older adults, younger adults and mixed populations. Data were extracted by 3 reviewers independently and pooled using a Bayesian meta-analysis. We identified 31 valid studies that examined both sensitivity and specificity (or rule-in and rule-out accuracy), involving 52,513 individuals. Twelve studies recruited older individuals, 12 recruited younger adults and 7 recruited both younger and older adults (mixed populations). In the most robust studies the point prevalence of depression in late life was 13.2% (95% CI = 7.9-19.6). GPs were able to correctly identify 47.3% of the late-life depressions and 78.6% of the non-cases (71.0% overall accuracy). In younger adults GPs were able to identify 39.7% of the mid-life depressions and 85.1% of the non-depressed (77.8% overall accuracy). In mixed aged groups GPs we able to correctly identify 46.6% of the depressed individuals and 86.2% of the non-depressed (79.6% overall accuracy). The overall fraction correctly identified was significantly lower in older compared with younger adults. Correcting for differences in prevalence showed a statistically lower rule-in performance for older compared with younger adults. There was no difference in ability to identify non-depressed (healthy) individuals by age.\",\n \"The results of this study suggest that undergraduate medical students' participation in a modest clinical program can enhance substance abuse education. Through increased training in substance abuse, physicians reported greater confidence in their ability to relate to patients with substance abuse problems.\",\n \"Previous estimates of depression recognition in primary care are low and inconsistent. This may be due to registration artifacts and limited extraction efforts. This study investigated a) whether GPs' medical records demonstrate an accurate recognition of depression and b) which combinations of indications within the record most accurately reflect a diagnosis of depression. GPs' registrations were compared with a reference standard, the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI), according to DSM-IV criteria. Six definitions of GPs' recognition of depression were tested using diagnostic codes, medication data, referral data and free text in the medical records. The Youden-index was used to select the optimal definition of recognition. Data were derived from the Netherlands Study of Depression and Anxiety. 816 primary care patients from 33 general practitioners were included in the vicinities of Amsterdam and Leiden, The Netherlands. Registration of antidepressant prescriptions was the best single indicator of GPs' recognition of CIDI depression with a recognition rate of 0.43. The best combination of indicators increased the recognition rate to 0.69. All indications except the specific diagnostic codes for 'depressive disorder' and 'depressive feelings' were included in this definition. Potential bias due to the selection of participating GPs might have influenced our recognition rates.\",\n \"We conclude that it is possible to train selected specialist oncology nurses to manage major depression in patients with cancer in the context of an appropriately constituted multidisciplinary team.\",\n \"Our aim was to evaluate whether trainees encounter more difficult clinical situations (clinical challenge rate) and more patients with signs of depression in the last year of their training (T(1)) than in the first year (T(0)), and whether depression is recognized by trainees more frequently at T(1) than at T(0). An evaluation was undertaken of videotapes made by a random sample of 48 vocational trainees in general practice. Experienced staff members (GPs) assessed the clinical challenge rate of consultations at the two time points with the reliable and valid Amsterdam Clinical Challenge Scale (ACCS). They also rated the presence of signs of depression in the consultations (yes/no) and whether these were recognized by the trainee (yes/no). Baseline and follow-up measurements (T(0) and (T(1))) were available for 45 trainees, from the original cohort of 48 at T(0), and for 527 consultations. Both at T(0) and at T(1), the mean ACCS score was 2.3 (T(0) SD = 0.95; n = 269) (T(1) SD = 0.92; n = 258). For each trainee, the mean difference in ACCS score between T(0) and T(1) was 0.01 [95% confidence interval (CI) -0.15 to 0.17]. According to staff-assessments, 66 patients had signs of depression (34 at T(0) and 32 at T(1)). Trainees recognized depression in 12 consultations (12/34 = 35%) at T(0) and in 11 consultations (11/32 = 34%) at T(1) (relative risk 1.0; 95% CI 0.4-2.9).\",\n \"In addition to other possible reasons for older adults' low rates of mental health service use, this study suggests that family physicians' beliefs and treatment intentions could be contributing factors. Changes in medical education aimed at replacing inaccurate beliefs with accurate information regarding older patients might be one way to increase rates of use in this underserved age group, because family physicians play a key role in the mental health care of older adults.\",\n \"The DAQ measure of ease of identification is not valid when compared to actual clinical practice. The ability of GPs to identify depression may not be an independent variable, but may rather reflect other beliefs, attitudes and skills. This has considerable implications for educational interventions in primary care.\",\n \"Depression is a common problem in all medically ill populations. Reported prevalence rates of major depression in patients with cancer are up to 50%. Cancer patients attending primary care and medical outpatient clinics with comorbid major depressive disorder frequently do not receive effective treatment. More effective ways of identifying and treating patients with both cancer and depression are therefore urgently required.AIM: The paper reports a study addressing the question of whether oncology nurses can be trained to take on a greater role in the management of major depression in their patients. We developed and piloted an intervention that can be delivered by a specially trained oncology nurse. The intervention is multifaceted and based on a problem-solving model. It requires a widening of the role and expertise of specialist nurses. The challenges this role presents to the nurses are discussed. We suggest that they must have a varied work programme that is not exclusively about managing depression, that they require adequate peer support and are likely to be most effective when working as part of a multidisciplinary psycho-oncology team.\",\n \"These observations confirm prior findings of a strong association at the population level between major depression and health-care use and role impairment among persons with chronic physical disorders. They also point to the significant impact of co-morbid major depression on health-care seeking, disability and work absence in persons with chronic physical illness, underscoring the need for greater efforts to design and test the impact of detection and treatment programs for such individuals.\",\n \"This study aimed to document the outcome dimensions that physicians see as important in defining cure from depression. The study also aimed to analyse physicians' attitudes about depression and to find out whether they affect their prescribing practices and/or the outcome dimensions that they view as important in defining cure. A 51-item questionnaire based on six validated scales was used to rate the importance of several depression outcome dimensions. Physicians' attitudes about depression were also assessed using the Depression Attitude Scale. Overall, 369 Belgian physicians (264 general practitioners [GPs]; 105 psychiatrists) participated in the DEsCRIBE™ survey. GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed that functioning and depressive symptomatology were most important in defining cure; anxious and somatic symptomatology was least important. GPs and psychiatrists differed in their attitudes about depression (p<0.001). Logistic regression revealed that the attitudes of GPs - but not psychiatrists - were significantly associated with their rates of antidepressant prescription (p<0.001) and that certain attitudes predicted which outcome dimensions were seen as important in defining cure.\",\n \"Neither high scores on the CES-D nor unaided physician detection accurately identified patients with major depression who were seen in primary care settings, while the supplementation of physician detection with CES-D scores had a minimal net effect on the accuracy of detection. The data do not support the routine use of the CES-D as a primary care screening instrument for depression, either as a stand-alone measure or as a supplement to physician detection.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to investigate training in developmental and behavioral pediatrics (DBP) for graduating residents, their competencies in diagnosing and treating child mental health (MH) problems, and whether the amount of DBP training and/or perceived competencies are associated with perceived responsibility for treating 3 MH problems. Data were collected from 636 residents who completed the American Academy of Pediatrics's 2007 Graduating Residents Survey. The survey included questions on training and self-rated competencies in multiple MH skill areas and perceived responsibility for identifying and treating/managing children's MH problems. Weighted multivariable logistic regression analyses examined associations between training, competencies, and perceived responsibility for treating/managing attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), anxiety, and depression. Ninety percent of respondents completed a DBP rotation, with 86% reporting>3 to 4 weeks of training. Duration of DBP rotation was related to training and perceived competencies in MH skill areas, and nearly all residents who reported high competencies were trained in those skill areas. However,<50% reported their competencies as \\\"very good\\\" or \\\"excellent.\\\" Residents with training and high competency in dosing with medications were most likely to agree that pediatricians should be responsible for treating/managing ADHD, anxiety, and depression.\",\n \"GPs are aware of mental health problems in most depressed patients, but labeling with specific diagnostic codes is weak. Researchers should consider that diagnostic coding alone is not an accurate measure of the diagnostic ability of depression and strongly underestimates the accuracy of the GP.\",\n \"We sought to ascertain whether patients' requests for antidepressants affect visit duration or history taking by primary care physicians (PCPs) for patients with depressive symptoms and a coexisting musculoskeletal disorder and to determine whether more thorough history taking is associated with diagnostic accuracy or with provision of minimally acceptable initial care for major depression. This was a randomized trial using standardized patients (SPs). Six roles involved 2 conditions (major depression and adjustment disorder, both with coexisting musculoskeletal conditions) and 3 patient request types (brand-specific, general, or none). We conducted the study in 152 PCP offices in Northern California and Rochester, New York. Physicians were assigned randomly to see 2 SPs with depression/wrist pain or adjustment disorder/back pain. Physician history-taking for depression and the musculoskeletal condition; depression diagnosis in the medical record; antidepressant prescriptions/samples; referral/follow-up recommendations; visit duration; and provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care. General antidepressant requests were associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.80 more questions of 10 (95% confidence interval = 0.31-1.29, P<0.001); brand-specific requests were marginally associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.45, 95% confidence interval = -0.04-0.93, P = 0.07). Antidepressant medication requests were not related to musculo-skeletal question asking (P>0.3) or visit length (P>0.8). Depression history taking was directly associated with the likelihood of a chart diagnosis of depression and the provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care.\",\n \"yes. Patients with 1 degrees SS appear to be at increased risk from clinical depression. Early recognition and appropriate intervention is therefore essential to reduce the negative impact of depression on the patient's quality of life and outcome of their disease.\",\n \"Family physicians need education in the value of respite services for their chronically ill older patients and their families. Physicians also need information on the respite services available and strategies for accessing them. Our findings suggest a need for greater attention to regional discrepancies in availability of services.\",\n \"yes. The USPSTF recommendation to screen adults for depression in primary care settings when staff-assisted depression management programs are available is not supported by evidence from any RCTs that are directly relevant to the recommendation. The USPSTF should re-evaluate this recommendation. Please see related article: http://www.biomedcentral.com/1741-7015/12/14 REGISTRATION: PROSPERO (#CRD42013004276).\",\n \"Despite recent curricular reforms, an alarming number of current medicine residents report depressive symptoms, increasing cynicism, and decreasing humanism, which were associated with increasing educational debt and a need to moonlight for financial survival. Ongoing curricular reform, legislative relief from early loan repayment, and salary increases may be necessary to address these problems.\",\n \"Remission rates in primary care studies of depression are at least as high as for those in psychiatric settings. It is a realistic goal for family physicians to target remission of symptoms as an optimal outcome for treatment of depression.\",\n \"It is tentatively argued that the different sources might correspond to qualitatively different 'depression' constructs, and that health professionals who are concerned with depression in the elderly be aware of the disparity between, and subsequently consider, a variety of recognition sources.\",\n \"These results suggest that depression may have a clinically significant influence on patients' willingness to share health care decisions with others. Health care providers should be alert to this possibility, particularly when the decision at hand is significant.\",\n \"no. Close to 50% of the depressed individuals did not seek primary care during a depressive episode, and close to 80% of them would have liked their mental health to be discussed more often by a health professional. Better information on depression and its treatments, and more-systematic screening by primary care personnel would improve the treatment of depressed patients, especially those in the most precarious situations.\",\n \"Evidence of important psychological issues in some patients with hand pain suggests a need for greater awareness among treating physicians.\",\n \"To explore the issue of diagnostic specificity for major depression in the primary care setting by examining the relative accuracy of 3 methods to detect major depression in primary care. Comparison of performance characteristics of 3 case-finding methods for depression (ie, the Center for Epidemiologic Studies-Depression scale [CES-D], unaided physician detection, and \\\"augmented\\\" physician detection by use of a case-finding instrument), with the standard criterion being the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Third Edition, Revised (DSM-III-R). The offices of 50 family physicians from private and academic practice in southeastern Michigan. Adult patients (N = 1580) who presented for routine care, from which a weighted random sample of 425 patients completed the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R. Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and positive likelihood ratio for each case-finding method. Major depression was present in 13.4% of the sample. Both the CES-D and unaided physician detection methods performed poorly in identifying patients who met DSM-III-R criteria for major depressive disorder. The CES-D had high sensitivity but low specificity at standard and high cut points, resulting, respectively, in low positive predictive values (0.307 and 0.385) and low positive likelihood ratios (2.9 and 4.0). Unaided physician detection showed lower sensitivity, higher specificity, and a slightly higher positive predictive value (0.45) and positive likelihood ratio (4.9). Raising of the CES-D threshold for a positive test did not enhance the detection of depression. Augmented physician detection with CES-D scores resulted in minimal improvement. Although the positive predictive value and positive likelihood ratio increased to 0.50 and 6.1, respectively, using the most stringent case-finding definition (ie, physician identification plus the CES-D score [score>or = 22]), the proportion of depressed patients who were correctly identified decreased to 26.9%.\",\n \"General practitioners can improve their ability to detect psychological distress in their patients utilizing this self-directed educational approach.\",\n \"yes. Adherence to depression and anxiety guidelines can be improved, even when the general practitioner makes the diagnosis and records it. Data on actual health care delivery and quality of care provide insight and may be useful in developing quality improvement activities.\",\n \"The majority of patients accepted antidepressant prescribing by their oncologist; only a minority preferred treatment by a mental health professional. These findings suggest that promoting education of oncologists to assess psychological symptoms and manage anxiety and depression as a routine part of an outpatient visit is beneficial\",\n \"no. The finding that depression and social factors are more important for patient satisfaction with provided care than disease-related aspects suggests that these factors need to be considered carefully in treatment. This represents a big challenge within an increasingly specialized health care system. The General Practitioner as the regular and first-choice provider of health care seems to be the most appropriate instance who can accomplish this.\",\n \"yes. Depressed patients with higher ratings of involvement in medical decisions have a higher probability of receiving guideline-concordant care and improving their symptoms over an 18-month period. Interventions to increase patient involvement in decision-making may be an important means of improving care for and outcomes of depression.\",\n \"Cardiovascular nurses and medicine residents and interns underrecognize depression in patients with AMI in the absence of formal screening. Formal screening for symptoms of depression should be considered part of routine AMI care.\",\n \"Multiple, practical questionnaires with reasonable performance characteristics are available to help clinicians identify and diagnose patients with major depression. Diagnostic confirmation by mental health care professionals using a clinical interview or by primary care physicians using a semistructured interview can be made with high reliability.\",\n \"yes. Physicians should pay attention to physical, anxiety, and panic symptoms, because these symptoms are related to remission of depression. Future studies should explore how these symptoms affect the prognosis of depression.\",\n \"The study shows that subthreshold depression is a clinically relevant issue for GPs but raises the possibility that quality improvement might not be as necessary as past studies showed. Further quantitative research using larger random samples is needed to determine the effectiveness of the strategies used by the GPs, patients' satisfaction with these strategies and the course of these patients' symptoms in primary care.\",\n \"The feasibility of a two-item screening tool for maternal depression in a pediatric setting was recently reported. We assessed whether the accuracy of pediatrician recognition of maternal depression during the one-month well-child visit could be improved by an educational intervention using the two-item screening tool. We conducted an educational intervention for pediatric residents in a suburban hospital in Tokyo, Japan, with outcome measurement before and after. Resident education included knowledge about postpartum depression and its impact on children, use of the two-item screening tool and available management strategies. Sixteen pediatric residents examined 267 mother-infant dyads during well-child visits. Residents documented the presence or absence of postpartum depressive symptoms on medical records. Depressive symptoms were also determined using the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) survey; residents were not aware of the results. Using the EPDS as a \\\"gold standard,\\\" improvement in sensitivity and specificity of resident recognition of maternal depressive symptoms was determined. The overall prevalence of postpartum depressive symptoms based on the EPDS was 15.4%. The sensitivity of resident recognition was 8% and specificity 98% before intervention, and 12% and 96% afterwards, respectively. The difference was not statistically significant. Residents indicated fear of maternal stigmatization and mothers' receptiveness to discussing depressive symptoms, as well as lack of time and skills, as major barriers to the identification of maternal depression.\",\n \"Strategies to improve mental health care should account for the orientation of primary care physicians to mental health issues.\",\n \"Clinicians have considerable difficulty accurately identifying distress and mild depression in primary care with only one in three people correctly diagnosed. Clinicians are better able to identify distress than mild depression but success remains limited. However not all such individuals want professional help, and some people who are overlooked get help elsewhere, or improve spontaneously, therefore the implications of these detection problems are not yet clear.\",\n \"Interventions such as screening and GP education may be ineffective in improving primary mental health care unless accompanied by educational programmes for the general public to increase mental health literacy, de-stigmatise mental illness and increase awareness of general practice as an appropriate and effective source of health care.\",\n \"This study surveyed Israeli primary care physicians' attitudes and practice regarding postpartum depression (PPD). Participants included 224 pediatricians and family practitioners responding to an online survey (65% response rate). Almost all respondents (98.0%) considered it important that they be able to recognize the signs of PPD. Most (89.8%) noted that if they suspected PPD, they would become somewhat involved: clarifying, keeping attentive, consulting with colleagues, and/or referring the woman to another professional. Six respondents--only family practitioners--stated that they would treat the case themselves (P = .01). Family practitioners were significantly more willing to screen for PPD than were pediatricians (91.2% vs 64.6%; P<.0001). There were no differences between physicians by region or between males and females when comparing all respondents, as well as when comparing within medical specialty (P<.05).\",\n \"To investigate the effects of exclusively physical presentation of depression on 1). depression management and outcomes under usual care conditions, and 2). the impact of an intervention to improve management and outcomes. Secondary analysis of a depression intervention trial in 12 community-based primary care practices. Two hundred adults beginning a new treatment episode for depression. Presenting complaint and physician depression query at index visit; antidepressant use, completion of adequate antidepressant trial, change in depressive symptoms, and physical and emotional role functioning at 6 months. Sixty-six percent of depressed patients presented exclusively with physical symptoms. Under usual care conditions, psychological presenters were more likely than physical presenters to complete an adequate trial of antidepressant treatment but experienced equivalent improvements in depressive severity and role functioning. In patients presenting exclusively with physical symptoms, the intervention significantly improved physician query (40.8% vs 18.0%; P =.06), receipt of any antidepressant (63.0% vs 20.1%; P =.001), and an adequate antidepressant trial (34.9% vs 5.9%; P =.004), but did not significantly improve depression severity or role functioning. In patients presenting with psychological symptoms, the intervention significantly improved receipt of any antidepressant (79.9% vs 38.0%; P =.01) and an adequate antidepressant trial (46.0% vs 23.8%; P =.004), and also improved depression severity and physical and emotional role functioning.\",\n \"Depression treatment by General Practitioners (GPs) and patient outcomes improved significantly after a comprehensive 20-h training program of GPs. This study examines whether the effects on patient outcomes are caused by the improvements in the process of care. Seventeen GPs participated in the training program. A pre-test-post-test design was used. A total of 174 patients (85 pre-test, 89 post-test) aged 18-65 met ICD-10 criteria for recent onset major depression. The main indicator of mediation was a drop in training effect size (eta2) on patient outcome after adjustment for individual and combined process of care variables. We evaluated depression-specific (recognition, accurate diagnosis, prescription of antidepressant, adequate antidepressant treatment) and a non-specific process of care variable (communicative skillfulness of the GP) as well as the combination of adequate antidepressant treatment and communicative skillfulness. Patient outcomes were assessed at 3 months and consisted of change in severity of symptomatology, level of daily functioning and activity limitation days from baseline. Depression-specific interventions mediated up to one third of the observed improvement in patient outcome. 'Adequate dosage and duration of an antidepressant' explained 36% of the training effect on patient outcome (eta2 from 0.044 to 0.028). 'Communicative skillfulness of the GP' only was a weak mediator (18% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.036). However, the combination of both, that is adequate antidepressant treatment by a communicative skillful GP, proved to be the strongest mediator of the observed training effect on patient outcomes (59% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.018). The training effects on patient outcomes in this sample were small. Hence, the scope for mediation was limited.\",\n \"yes. Supported self-management is identified as a promising intervention that could be integrated into primary health care within the context of the Canadian health care system. It constitutes a feasible and practical approach to enhance the role of family physicians in the delivery of services to individuals with milder forms of depression and promotes the active engagement of individuals in their recovery and in prevention of future episodes.\",\n \"Depression is not routinely investigated in clinical settings. Doctors should be alerted and trained on the monitoring of depression in this age group.\",\n \"The low knowledge about mental disorders, particularly depression, confirms the importance and the need to increase mental health literacy. Furthermore, professionals must openly discuss illness models with their patients, especially emphasising the differences between illness and crisis.\",\n \"After education on optimal management of depression, intervention physicians did not differ from their usual care colleagues in depression diagnosis or pharmacotherapy.\",\n \"yes. For purposes of preventing suicidal behaviour, screening for depression, plus further education on recognition, diagnosis and treatment of mood disorders among the elderly in primary health care setting are needed.\",\n \"Despite the association of depression care plans with patient disability improvement, inadequate compliance to evidence-based DCM was found. Medicare and HHC agencies must ensure compliance to DCM, including follow-up depression assessment for patients with positive screens.\",\n \"Whilst we know that patients with medical conditions are often depressed and that such co-morbid depression is often undertreated, we have found that it is undertreated even in patients repeatedly referred to medical specialists. Better assessment and management of depression in such patients could both improve patients' quality of life and reduce the cost of care.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to investigate medical students' knowledge and attitudes towards depression. Students attending their final year at Zagreb School of Medicine completed a set of standardized questionnaires, including attitudes towards psychiatric medication, attitudes towards depression, and personality inventory. In total, 199 students completed the questionnaire (response rate 77 %). Most medical students were only partially able to correctly identify major symptoms of depression, but did suggest referral to mental health specialists as the most appropriate course of action. They recognized social and biological causes of depression. Degree of correct identification of symptoms of depression correlated positively with non-stigmatizing attitudes towards depression and negatively with stigmatizing attitudes towards depression.\",\n \"Depression is commonly presented to GPs who feel that the diagnosis often involves the separation of a normal reaction to environment and true illness. For those patients living in socio-economically deprived environments, the problems, and therefore the depression, are seen to be insoluble. This has an important implication for the construction of educational interventions around improving the recognition and treatment of depression in primary care: some doctors may be reluctant to recognize and respond to such patients in depth because of the much wider structural and social factors that we have suggested in this paper. That it is the doctors working with deprived populations who express these views, means that the 'Inverse care law' [Tudor Hart J. The inverse care Law. Lancet 1971; 1(7696): 405-412] operates in the management of depression.\",\n \"We developed a comprehensive, 20-hour training programme for primary-care physicians, that sought to improve their ability to detect, diagnose and manage depression. We evaluated the effects of physician training on patient outcomes, using a pre-post design. In the pre-training phase of the study, we sampled 1834 consecutive patients of 17 primary-care physicians and evaluated 518 of these patients for the presence of depression. We measured outcomes of all patients with depression at 3 months and 1 year. The outcome measures were: severity of psychopathology; duration of depressive episode; and level of daily functioning. After the 17 physicians completed the training, we drew a new sample from their practices (498 of 1785 consecutive patients were evaluated for depression) and measured outcomes for the depressed patients. We found an effect of the training on short-term outcome, particularly for patients with a recent-onset depression. At 3-month follow-up depressed patients whose physicians had received training had less severe psychopathology and patients with recent-onset depression also showed higher levels of daily functioning than patients of the same physicians prior to the training. The patients with a recent-onset depression that was recognized by trained physicians had shorter depressive episodes, but this was not statistically significant. At 1-year follow-up, all training effects had faded away.\",\n \"These findings further emphasize the importance of treating depression among older adults, and suggest that both dentists and physicians have a role in recognizing and referring patients for such treatment.\",\n \"GP communication skills are important to enhance depression-specific interventions in bringing about improvements in patient outcomes and should be addressed in GP training programs for the treatment of depression.\",\n \"There was no enduring improvement in the treatment of depression for primary care patients. Depression treatment guidelines were achieved contemporaneously, however, for intervention patients enrolled in a multifaceted program of collaborative care during the training period. These results suggest that continuing programs of reorganized service delivery to support the role of a primary care physician (eg, on-site mental health personnel, close monitoring of patient progress and adherence), in addition to physician training, are essential for the success of guideline implementation.\",\n \"Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \\\"patients\\\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).\",\n \"Students' attitudes toward depression may influence their recognition of symptoms of depression. Incorporation of these findings in development of undergraduate medical curricula may improve students' recognition of depression.\",\n \"The purpose of this investigation was to assess the relationship of primary care specialty training with self-assessed skill, knowledge, attitudes, and behavior toward depression recognition and management. A baseline self-report questionnaire was administered to 184 internists and 138 family physicians participating in a multisite depression intervention study. There were no marked differences in knowledge of internists and family physicians regarding depression, in attitudes about the effectiveness of specific therapies, or in barriers to providing optimum treatment for depression. However, compared to internists, family physicians rated themselves as more skilled in the management of depression. When considering management of patients with moderate to severe depression, family physicians were more likely to report that they prescribed a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor (relative odds (RO) = 3.51, 95 percent Confidence interval (CI) [2.19, 5.60] and to personally counsel patients (RO = 1.97, 95 percent CI [1.16, 3.38]) more than half the patients, but were less likely to refer to a specialist in mental health (RO = 0.52, 95 percent CI [0.33, 0.82]) than were internists. Additional potentially influential characteristics did not wholly account for the reported differences in practice according to specialty. Physicians of both specialties expressed considerable uncertainty in their knowledge of psychotherapy and in their evaluation of the effectiveness of other strategies for the prevention of recurrence of depression.\",\n \"yes. Our study demonstrates that a simple and brief educational program can enhance family physicians' knowledge of depression; however, an increase in knowledge alone may not necessarily translate into practice behavior change.\",\n \"To assess the effect of physician training on management of depression. Primary care physicians were randomly assigned to a depression management intervention that included an educational program. A before-and-after design evaluated physician practices for patients not enrolled in the intervention trial. One hundred nine primary care physicians in 2 health maintenance organizations located in the Midwest and Northwest regions of the United States.PATIENTS/ Computerized pharmacy and visit data from a group of 124,893 patients who received visits or prescriptions from intervention and usual care physicians. Primary care physicians received education on diagnosis and optimal management of depression over a 3-month training period. Methods of education included small group interactive discussions, expert demonstrations, role-play, and academic detailing of pharmacotherapy, criteria for urgent psychiatric referrals, and case reviews with psychiatric consultants. Pharmacy and visit data provided indicators of physician management of depression: rate of newly diagnosed depression, new prescription of antidepressant medication, and duration of pharmacotherapy. One year after the training period, intervention and usual care physicians did not differ significantly in the rate of new depression diagnosis (P =.95) or new prescription of antidepressant medicines (P =.10). Meanwhile, patients of intervention physicians did not differ from patients of usual care physicians in adequacy of pharmacotherapy (P =.53) as measured by 12 weeks of continuous antidepressant treatment.\",\n \"The authors examine whether physician education has enduring effects on treatment of depression. Depressed primary care patients initiating antidepressant treatment from primary care clinics of a staff-model health maintenance organization were studied. Quasi-experimental and before-and-after comparisons of physician practices, supplemented with patient surveys, were used to compare the process of care and depression outcomes. Intervention consisted of extensive physician education that spanned a 12-month period. This included case-by-case consultations, didactics, academic detailing (eg, clearly stating the educational and behavioral objectives to individual physicians), and role-play of optimal treatment. Main outcome measures were divided into two groups. Quasi-experimental samples included: (1) antidepressant medication selection and (2) adequacy (dosage and duration) of pharmacotherapy. Survey samples included: (3) intensity of follow-up; (4) physician delivered educational messages regarding depression treatment; (5) patient satisfaction; and (6) depression outcomes. No lasting educational effect was observed consistently in any of the outcomes measured.\",\n \"Training primary-care physicians to recognize, diagnose and manage depression can improve short-term patient outcomes, especially for patients with a recent onset of depression. Patients suffering from a recurrent or chronic depression may need more specific interventions, both for acute treatment and long-term management.\",\n \"The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients.\",\n \"Depression is frequently unrecognized and undertreated. Therefore, there is a need to increase the knowledge and skills of primary care physicians regarding management of depression. The aim of this study was to determine if a brief educational intervention can affect family physicians' knowledge of the diagnosis and treatment of depression. Sixty-eight community-based, nonacademic family physicians completed the program, which was delivered using a mixed lecture-seminar format. Knowledge about depression was assessed pre- and post-program. Paired-sample t test and chi-square test were used to compare test scores. Although study physicians demonstrated high baseline knowledge of depression, 75% of them had better scores following the program. The increase in knowledge was statistically significant (p < .0001).\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":748,"string":"748"}}},{"rowIdx":273170,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Is acculturation a risk factor for early smoking initiation among Chinese American minors?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.","Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account."],"string":"[\n \"To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.\",\n \"Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. In an Italian population, we confirmed smoking and alcohol as cofactors in the development of CP. This study shows that alcohol intake and smoking habits are 2 of the most important risk factors for the development of CP.","To examine household structure when studying determinants of youth smoking, as the configuration of a family is an important factor in the etiology of adolescent problem behaviors. The study sample (n = 13,001) included respondents aged 12-19 years who were either living in two-parent households, single-parent households, or no-parent households, and with valid response to the smoking status questions from the Canadian Community Health Survey. Multivariate logistic regression was used to test the presence and strength of the association between household structure and the likelihood of smoking while controlling for age, sex, household education, and exposure to secondhand smoking. The odds of youth smoking in the single-parent household was 1.78 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households. Similarly, the odds of youth smoking in no-parent households was 1.47 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households.","The current study examined the influence of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interaction on smoking cessation among Latinos. Logistic regression analysis was used to examine the main effects of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interactions on self-reported 7-day abstinence at 12-week follow-up among 271 Latino smokers seeking cessation counseling. Analyses revealed significant main effects for several acculturation indicators and significant interactions of gender with number of years lived in the United States, proportion of life lived in the United States, and preferred media language (all P values <0.05). Follow-up analyses indicated no significant relationships between abstinence and acculturation indicators among women. Among men, abstinence rates increased with years in the United States, proportion of life in the United States, and preferred media language of English.","yes. Smoking and sexual activity among adolescents are far less common in Hong Kong than in the West and their presence in a Hong Kong adolescent should alert the health practitioner to the possibility of significant psychosocial stress and maladjustment.","At one time, it was expected that if an individual reached young adulthood without smoking, his/her risk for initiation was minimal. However, recent data suggest that smoking initiation among young adults may be increasing. One particularly vulnerable population of young adults for smoking initiation is military recruits. This study examined whether a modified version of the Pierce Susceptibility Questionnaire (PSQ) might be useful for identifying military recruits who are vulnerable for the initiation of tobacco use. Active duty recruits entering the U.S. Air Force over a 1-year period (n=31,107) were assessed upon entry into basic military training (BMT), and a subsample was also assessed at 12 months following training. The modified PSQ predicted initiation of cigarette use for all categories of baseline smokers (never, experimenters, former smokers, and regular users). The likelihood of initiating smoking after BMT was substantially higher among those identified as susceptible than among those identified as not susceptible.","Social capital may act both as a protective and a risk factor for adolescent smoking. Achieving higher levels of family-related social capital might reduce socioeconomic inequalities in adolescent smoking.","Movie smoking exposure is a strong predictor of smoking initiation by adolescents; however, we do not know whether it is a long-term predictor of established smoking. We conducted a prospective study to determine whether movie smoking exposure during early adolescence predicts established smoking in older teens and young adults. We assessed movie smoking exposure and smoking status through a written school-based survey in 1999, when participants were 10 to 14 years of age. We enrolled 73% (n = 2603) of those who had never tried smoking in a follow-up study. In 2006-2007, we conducted telephone interviews with 69% (n = 1791) of the cohort to ascertain current smoking status. The primary outcome was established smoking, defined as having smoked >100 cigarettes. Mean age at follow-up was 18.7 years. Thirteen percent (n = 235) progressed from never smoking to established smoking during the follow-up period. Eighty-nine percent (n = 209) of established smokers smoked during the 30 days before the survey. Even after controlling for a wide range of baseline characteristics, the relative risk for established smoking increased by one third with each successive quartile of movie smoking exposure. Those in the highest quartile for baseline movie smoking exposure were twice as likely to be established smokers at follow-up compared with those in the lowest quartile.","To determine whether exposure to smoking imagery in films predicts smoking onset among never-smoking Mexican adolescents. The analytic sample was comprised of 11- to 14-year-old secondary school students who reported never having tried smoking at baseline, 83% (1,741/2,093) of whom were successfully followed-up after 1 year. Exposure to 42 popular films that contained smoking was assessed at baseline, whereas smoking behavior and risk factors were assessed at baseline and at follow-up. Logistic regression was used to estimate bivariate and adjusted relative risks (ARR) of trying smoking and current smoking at follow-up. At follow-up, 36% reported having tried smoking and 8% reported having smoked in the previous month. Students who were successfully followed-up were exposed to an average of 43.8 minutes of smoking in the films they reported viewing at baseline. ARRs indicated that students in the two highest levels of exposure to film smoking were more than twice as likely to have smoked in the previous 30 days at follow-up [ARR(3v1) = 2.44; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.31-4.55; ARR(4v1) = 2.23; 95% CI, 1.19-4.17]. The ARR of having tried smoking by the time of follow-up reached statistical significance only when comparing the third highest to the lowest exposure group (ARR(3v1) = 1.54; 95% CI, 1.01-2.64). Having a parent or best friend who smoked at baseline were the only other variables that independently predicted both outcomes.","The prevalence figures and educational associations suggest that the socioeconomic gradient changes in earlier stages of the epidemic in immigrant populations than in the Western host populations, particularly in men. This provides indications to suggest that smoking prevention measures in male immigrant groups need to be tailored to lower socioeconomic groups in particular throughout the tobacco epidemic, and to higher socioeconomic groups among women.","Little is known about influences on e-cigarette use among early adolescents. This study examined influences that have been previously found to be associated with gateway drug use in adolescents: demographic (age, gender, ethnicity, free lunch), social contextual influences of parents and peers, and executive function deficits (EF). A cross-sectional survey was administered to 410 7th grade students from two diverse school districts in Southern California (M age;=12.4years, 48.3% female, 34.9% on free lunch (low socioeconomic status), 45.1% White, 25.4% Hispanic/Latino, 14.9% Mixed/bi-racial.) Logistic regression analyses examined influences of demographic, parent e-cigarette ownership and peer use, and EF on lifetime e-cigarette, and gateway drug use (cigarette and/or alcohol use). Lifetime use prevalence was 11.0% for e-cigarettes, 6.8% for cigarettes, and 38.1% for alcohol. Free lunch and age were marginally related to e-cigarette use (p<.10). Parent e-cigarette ownership was associated with use of all substances, while peer use was associated with gateway drug use (p's<.05-.001). EF deficits were associated with use of all substances five times more likely than others to use e-cigarettes and over twice as likely to use gateway drugs.","Ethnic minorities in America will achieve majority by 2042, and due to their younger age distribution, will represent the largest proportion of women at risk for premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Research has not addressed ethnic minority women's vulnerabilities to PMDD. The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between acculturation and PMDD. An analysis of acculturation and PMDD among 3856 English-speaking, pre-menopausal Asian, Latina, and Black women from the National Latino and Asian American Survey and the National Survey of American Life was performed. The lifetime prevalence of PMDD was 3.3%. Nativity status, duration of residence, and age at immigration were significantly associated with PMDD. Foreign-born women (OR=0.38; 95% confidence interval (CI)=0.21-0.68) and immigrants arriving to the US after age six (OR=0.33, 95% CI=0.18, 0.62) were less likely to have PMDD, compared to US-born women, and US-born women/immigrants who arrived before age six, respectively. The likelihood of PMDD increased as the duration of residence in the US lengthened.","The risk of incident smoking in children entering secondary education is independently increased by exposure to other ever smokers in school tutor groups. Incident smoking in adolescents is thus to some extent a communicable disorder, and may be partly preventable by policies that reduce exposure to smoking at school.","The objective of this study was to determine contextual antecedents to smoking among Korean American emerging adult (KAEA) smokers using ecological momentary assessment. Based on extant theory and data documenting the importance of negative affect (NA) and social context, we examined the extent to which being with friends and NA independently and concomitantly were associated with the likelihood of subsequent smoking, over and beyond other known situational correlates of smoking. Twenty-two KAEA daily smokers recorded their smoking events in real time and participated in short surveys implemented on mobile phones for 7 days. Individual, interpersonal, and situational contexts immediately preceding and during smoking events were examined in comparison to nonsmoking events using a within-subject modeling approach. Both NA and being with friends independently were correlated with increased likelihood of smoking. We also found an interaction showing that the effects of NA on smoking were significant only in presence of friends.","yes. Identifying adolescent smokers who smoke their first cigarette of the day within the first 30min of waking prior to a quit attempt may help to classify those individuals as having a greater risk for cessation failure. Thus, TTFC may be a behavioral indicator of nicotine dependence in adolescents.","We examined differences in selected pregnancy-related risk factors, including maternal sociodemographic characteristics, health-related conditions, and periconceptional behavioral factors, among foreign-born versus U.S.-born control mothers across race/ethnic groups. We used data from the National Birth Defects Prevention Study, and calculated odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) of the risk factors, for foreign-born Hispanic, non-Hispanic white, non-Hispanic black, and Asian/Pacific Islander (API) mothers, compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. Across all race/ethnic groups, foreign-born mothers were older and had lower odds of obesity compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. With the exception of foreign-born black mothers, foreign-born mothers from other race/ethnic groups had significantly lower odds of binge drinking during the periconceptional period. Compared to U.S.-born, foreign-born Hispanic mothers had twice the odds of gestational diabetes (OR = 2.23; 95% CI = 1.36-3.66). Certain health behaviors were less prevalent in foreign-born black mothers (e.g., folic acid use; OR = 0.54; 95% CI = 0.31-0.96) and foreign-born API mothers (e.g., cigarette smoking; OR = 0.10; 95% CI = 0.02-0.48).","Current research on the continuum of smoking initiation has largely focused on phases of progressing frequency of smoking. To gain more insight into reasons some adolescents do, and others do not, proceed to advanced levels of smoking behavior, a continuum in which two categories of ex-smoking are proposed is examined. Standardized scores on psychosocial predictors of smoking among adolescent nonsmoking deciders and quitters were compared cross-sectionally with those of the categories of never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers (n = 23,317). Never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers had significantly different characteristics with regard to psychosocial predictors of smoking (P<0.01), with scores of never smokers indicating that they were least at risk of smoking in the future and those of regular smokers indicating that they were most at risk. Scores of nonsmoking deciders showed that they were less at risk than triers and experimenters and more at risk than never smokers. Quitters seemed to have less risky psychosocial characteristics than experimenters and more risky characteristics than nonsmoking deciders.","This study examines the main and interaction effects of known social risk factors for substance use (inadequate parental monitoring and substance using friends) in adolescence and a polygenic score in predicting marijuana and tobacco use in adolescence and young adulthood. Phenotypic and genetic data were derived from a longitudinal study of a cohort of urban, predominately African American youth. Last year substance-use measures were collected annually from 8th grade through age 22. Participant self-reports of substance-using friends and parent monitoring were obtained yearly from Grades 8 to 12. Using longitudinal latent class analysis, the authors identified parallel developmental trajectories of tobacco and marijuana use and parent monitoring and the proportion of substance-using friends. Two trajectories were identified for tobacco and marijuana use, characterized by moderate versus little-to-no use. Additionally, 2 latent profiles were found for the social environment profiles: those characterized by higher parent monitoring and a lower proportion of substance-using friends versus lower parent monitoring and a higher proportion of substance-using friends.","To compare certain preconception health (PCH) behaviors and conditions among US-born (USB) and foreign-born (FB) mothers in Los Angeles County (LAC), regardless of race/ethnicity, and to determine if any identified differences vary among Asian/Pacific Islanders (API's) and Hispanics. Data are from the 2012 Los Angeles Mommy and Baby study (n = 6252). PCH behaviors included tobacco use, multivitamin use, unintended pregnancy, and contraception use. PCH conditions comprised being overweight/obese, diabetes, asthma, hypertension, gum disease, and anemia. The relationship between nativity and each PCH behavior/condition was assessed using multivariable logistic regression models. USB women were more likely than FB women to smoke (AOR 2.12, 95 % CI 1.49-3.00), be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.30-1.90), and have asthma (AOR 2.04, 95 % CI 1.35-3.09) prior to pregnancy. They were less likely than FB women to use contraception before pregnancy (AOR 0.59, 95 % CI 0.49-0.72). USB Hispanics and API's were more likely than their FB counterparts to be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.23-2.01 and AOR 2.37, 95 % CI 1.58-3.56, respectively) and less likely to use contraception (AOR 0.58, 95 % CI 0.45-0.74 and AOR 0.46, 95 % CI 0.30-0.71, respectively). USB Hispanic mothers were more likely than their FB counterparts to smoke (AOR 2.47, 95 % CI 1.46-4.17), not take multivitamins (AOR 1.30, 95 % CI 1.02-1.66), and have asthma (AOR 2.35, 95 % CI 1.32-4.21) before pregnancy.","yes. This was the first study to extend analytical methodology for sensitivity to active smoking to sensitivity to SHSe in youth who had never smoked. Results suggest a desensitization process with age and lower sensitivity to some reactions in preteens from more highly educated households. Preteens who have more aversive experiences with SHSe tend to be less susceptible to smoking than those who experience fewer aversive reactions. Assessment of sensitivity to SHSe is a novel approach to the study of cigarette use etiology and may contribute to better prediction of smoking initiation.","We examined the relationship of smoking cessation in parents to smoking and uptake and cessation by their adolescent children. We analyzed a cross-sectional sample of 4,502 adolescents, ages 15-17 years, who lived in two-parent households that were interviewed as part of the 1992-1993 Tobacco Supplement of the Current Population Survey, which questioned householders 15 years of age and older about their smoking history. Ever smokers reported smoking at least 100 cigarettes in their lifetime. Former smokers were ever smokers who had quit. Multivariate analyses, adjusted for demographic characteristics of adolescents, as well as father's age, education, and family income, found that adolescents whose parents had quit smoking were almost one-third less likely to be ever smokers than those with a parent who still smoked. Furthermore, adolescent ever smokers whose parents quit smoking were twice as likely to quit as those who had a parent who still smoked. Parental quitting is most effective in reducing initiation if it occurs before the child reaches 9 years of age.","yes. In an ethnically diverse sample of US immigrants, acculturation was associated with CMR factors. Culturally tailored public health strategies should be developed in US immigrant populations to reduce CMR.","Non-Western migrant populations living in Western countries are more likely to be physically inactive during leisure time than host populations. It is argued that this difference will disappear as they acculturate to the culture of the host country. We explored whether this is also true for migrants who experience contextual barriers such as having children, living in a less attractive neighbourhood, or having occupational physical activity. Cross-sectional data were obtained from the LASER-study (2003-2004) on health related behaviours in first and second generation Turkish young people living in the Netherlands. For this study we included 485 Turkish participants aged 15-30 years, who participated in a structured interview during a home visit. Acculturation was indicated by level of 'cultural orientation towards the Dutch culture' and 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch' with persons being low oriented towards the Dutch culture and having few social contacts with ethnic Dutch as reference group. The measured barriers were 'having children', 'occupational physical activity' and 'living in a less attractive neighbourhood'. Logistic regression analyses were used to assess the associations between acculturation and physical activity during leisure time, stratified by these contextual barriers. Greater cultural and social integration was associated with increased physical activity during leisure time. Odds ratio's were 1.85 (CI: 1.19-2.85) for 'cultural orientation' and 1.77 (CI: 1.15-2.71) for 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch'. However, these associations were not present or less strong among people who had children, or who were living in a less attractive neighbourhood or who engaged in occupational physical activity.","To establish levels of use of tobacco, alcohol and illegal drugs among 18-20 year old men and women of Asian (Punjabi) and non-Asian origin compared with levels four years earlier and consider the role of religion and culture in abstinent behaviour. Structured self-complete questionnaire used with 94% of pupils with South Asian names recorded by the Greater Glasgow education department in 1991 and a proportionate random sample of pupils in the same years who did not have South Asian names. Followed up in 1996 in an interviewer-led structured questionnaire in their own homes. Greater Glasgow, largest city in the west of Scotland. Eight hundred and twenty-four overwhelmingly British-born 14-15 year olds in 1992, 492 followed up aged 18-20 years in 1996. Self-report measures of ever having tried alcohol, tobacco and drugs and the quantities consumed at age 14-15 and 18-20. Indication of reasons for abstinence from substance use at age 18-20. Asians were much more abstinent from all these substances at both ages (p<0.001), except for smoking at 18-20. However, religiously specific patterns of abstinence were particularly strong for alcohol (Muslim odds ratio 7- to 9-fold lower at 14-15, 16- to 25-fold lower at 18-20) and smoking (Sikh/Hindu odds ratio 10-fold lower than Muslims, 20-fold than Christians at 18-20), though there is a shared Asian tendency for women to observe these patterns more than men at 18-20.","To investigate the association between cigarette use during pregnancy and pregnancy-induced hypertension/preeclampsia/eclampsia (PIH) by maternal race/ethnicity and age. This retrospective cohort study was based on the U.S. 2010 natality data. Our study sample included U.S. women who delivered singleton pregnancies between 20 and 44 weeks of gestation without major fetal anomalies in 2010 (n = 3,113,164). Multivariate logistic regression models were fit to estimate crude and adjusted odds ratios and the corresponding 95% confidence intervals. We observed that the association between maternal smoking and PIH varied by maternal race/ethnicity and age. Compared with non-smokers, reduced odds of PIH among pregnant smokers was only evident for non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic American Indian women aged less than 35 years. Non-Hispanic Asian/Pacific Islander women who smoked during pregnancy had increased odds of PIH regardless of maternal age. Non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic black women 35 years or older who smoked during pregnancy also had increased odds of PIH.","Early substance use (SU) in adolescence is known to be associated with an elevated risk of developing substance use disorders (SUD); it remains unclear though whether early SU is associated with more rapid transitions to SUD. To examine the risk and speed of transition from first SU (alcohol, nicotine, cannabis) to SUD as a function of age of first use. N=3021 community subjects aged 14-24 years at baseline were followed-up prospectively over 10-years. SU and SUD were assessed using the DSM-IV/M-CIDI. (1) The conditional probability of substance-specific SU-SUD transition was the greatest for nicotine (36.0%) and the least for cannabis (18.3% for abuse, 6.2% for dependence) with alcohol in between (25.3% for abuse; 11.2% for dependence). (2) In addition to confirming early SU as a risk factor for SUD we find: (3) higher age of onset of any SU to be associated with faster transitions to SUD, except for cannabis dependence. (4) Transitions from first cannabis use (CU) to cannabis use disorders (CUD) occurred faster than for alcohol and nicotine. (5) Use of other substances co-occurred with risk and speed of transitions to specific SUDs.","Efforts to prevent adolescents from smoking have limited efficacy, with little understanding of why they smoke. We examine many of the factors which may influence a teenager's decision to start smoking. A self-completed questionnaire was distributed among pre-draft teenagers (age 16-18 years) with questions regarding current smoking habits as well as smoking habits of family members. Smokers were asked why they started, and attitudes regarding the dangers of smoking and anti-smoking legislation were examined. A total of 1067 questionnaires were completed (707 males, 360 females). In all, 25.7% were current smokers (26.2% of male and 21.1% of females; p=0.069), with smoking rates highest among those born in Middle Eastern countries and lowest among those born in Ethiopia. Those from single-parent families had a higher smoking rate (relative risk: 1.28), as did those with either parents or siblings who smoked. Parents who were smokers were more likely to tell their children not to smoke, while smoking teenagers were more likely to have been told by their parents not to smoke. Most smokers (58.2%) did not give a specific reason for smoking while 30.3% listed \"peer pressure\", 8.4% \"parents smoking\" and 3.1% \"advertisements\" as the major factor. Smokers were less likely to agree that smoking is harmful and more likely to oppose anti-smoking legislative measures.","To investigate whether concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence characterizes a subgroup that differs from users of one substance only regarding several risk factors for later substance use problems. Participants were from a prospective longitudinal cohort study of 384 children at risk for later psychopathology, with the majority being born with obstetric complications and psychosocial adversities. Assessments of adolescent drug consumption and related intrapersonal characteristics were obtained at age 15. Compared to consumers of alcohol only, 15-year-olds drinking and smoking during the same time period (past 4 weeks) had significantly higher levels of consumption and more excessive use of alcohol, started drinking at an earlier age, had higher scores on the Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence, and more cannabis use. This group could be distinguished from users of alcohol only by higher novelty seeking and more positive alcohol effect expectancies. Compared to consumers of tobacco only, concurrent users reported higher nicotine dependence and more cannabis use. No significant differences were observed regarding frequency and age at initiation of tobacco use, tobacco-related sensitivity, self-efficacy and instrumentality as well as novelty seeking.","Tobacco use is prevalent among adolescents in China in general, however, little is known about tobacco use among students in private schools with an enrollment of 1.5 million. In 2001, cross-sectional survey data from 2725 students in grades seven and eight (1307 sampled from private schools and 1418 sampled from public schools) were included. Smoking measures (risk of susceptibility to smoking, smoking onset, ever smoking, smoking in the past 7 days and past 30 days, established smoking) were compared between private and public school students using chi-square test, logistic regression, and survival analysis. Cigarette smoking was more prevalent among private school students than among public school students (private vs. public: 21.9% vs. 12.3% for susceptibility to smoking, 53.9% vs. 38.2% for ever smoking, 22% vs. 12.0% for 30-day smoking, 15.9% vs. 4.0% for 7-day smoking, 4.5% vs. 1.2% for established smoking). Students in private schools are 3.4 to 3.8 times more likely to smoke than students in public schools after the adjustment of important covariates (gender, grade, peer smoking, parental smoking, and parents' occupation). Risk of smoking onset by age was also greater for private school students than for public school students.","yes. Smoking is a risk factor for developing MetS in Chinese men after adjusting for age, education level, alcohol intake, fasting plasma insulin, HOMA-IR, BMI, and weight change. This could be due to an increased incidence of dyslipidemia. Smoking cessation for >13 years decreased the risk for developing MetS defined by the JCDCG definition.","To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.","Young adults who avoid their emotions may be at risk for starting smoking or not quitting smoking. This study investigated whether a preliminary measure of avoidant coping longitudinally predicts young adults' smoking escalation and cessation. In a sample of the 3,305 participants, originally from Washington State, a preliminary measure of self-reported avoidant coping at age 18 was used to predict both smoking escalation and cessation at ages 20 and 28 with both probability and logistic regression models (10-year retention: 98.5%). Individuals who scored high on avoidant coping at 18 were 2.52 (p = .001) times more likely to acquire smoking by 20. However, there was no evidence that avoidant coping at age 18 predicted smoking escalation at 28 or cessation for 20- and 28-year-olds.","yes. Findings indicate that childhood socioeconomic disadvantage influences adolescent smoking, while downward socioeconomic mobility influences adolescent alcohol use.","Previous cross-sectional research has shown that adolescents' cigarette use is interactively associated with that of their school peers and their 5HTTLPR genotype, such that the cigarette use of persons with more copies of the 5HTTLPR*S' allele is more dependent on school peers' cigarette use behaviors than their counterparts. This analysis seeks to extend this novel finding by examining whether the same conclusion can be reached when substituting neighborhood peers for school peers and examining the timing of the initiation of any and regular smoking in adolescence. This analysis employs an independent sample with longitudinal measures of cigarette use among 6th through 8th graders clustered in 82 neighborhoods, of whom 1098 contributed genetic data. The proportion of respondents who had ever smoked cigarettes by the first wave was calculated for each census block group in the study. 5HTTLPR genotype was assayed using the method of Whisman et al. (2011). The timing of any or regular smoking initiation and over four years were modeled as dependent variables using Cox proportional hazard models. The interaction of neighborhood peer smoking behavior in the first wave and 5HTTLPR genotype statistically significantly predicted any smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 3.532; p-value=0.002) and regular smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 5.686; p-value=0.000), net of controls for sex, race/ethnicity, grade in the first wave of data, and parental educational attainment. These findings reach the same conclusions as previous cross-sectional research.","Although parental smoking is clearly one important influence on children's smoking, it is still unclear what are the many mechanisms by which parents influence their children's smoking. Antismoking actions are one potential mechanism. To determine whether parental antismoking actions including having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence are associated with adolescents' adoption of smoking. A cross-sectional survey. Rural and suburban communities in western Washington State. Population-based cohort of 3555 adolescents and their parents. Daily smoking in 12th grade. Adolescents of parents who report having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence were significantly less likely to smoke than adolescents of parents who did not engage in antismoking actions. This association of antismoking action and reduced smoking was found for children of both smoking and nonsmoking parents.","These findings add to the evidence base that childhood disadvantage is associated with adult smoking behaviours and highlights the importance of the early childhood social environment for the development of these.","yes. The finding of decreased activation to pleasurable food among adolescent light smokers supports the theory that these adolescents are displaying decreased sensitivity to at least one natural reinforcer. This also supports the theory that nicotine may affect the brain early in the trajectory of smoking, thus underscoring the need for early intervention among adolescent smokers.","To describe smoking and quitting history among multiethnic adolescent smokers and examine these as correlates of readiness to quit. Data were analyzed from 121 high school smokers. Sociodemographic characteristics, self-reported smoking history, number and duration of recent quit attempts, attitudes toward smoking/quitting, and readiness to quit were included. Smoking and quitting history variables were associated with adolescents' stage of readiness to quit. A reasonably consistent pattern emerged in which those in the preparation stage were significantly different from the precontemplators and contemplators.","Among sexual minorities, Black and Asian American individuals consistently were at decreased risk of current smoking compared to their White peers. Future research should seek to understand the mechanisms that contribute to decreased smoking status among racial sexual minorities.","The significant declines observed in smoking from adolescence into young adulthood were contrary to expectations, indicating that this behaviour may be less stable than previously thought among adolescent AOD abusers. Smoking involvement over time was greater within the highest alcohol use trajectory, consistent with previous evidence for a positive relationship between these behaviours. However, when compared with the general population smoking rates remained very high regardless of alcohol involvement. Thus, individuals treated for AOD abuse as adolescents remained at elevated risk for tobacco related disease regardless of post-treatment AOD use outcomes.","At age 14-15 abstinence was high in the largely British-born generation of Asians mainly for cultural reasons common to religious groups. Four years later culturally determined abstinence has atrophied, and abstinence reflects the specific influence of ascetic religious traditions, though some cultural influence remains in that women are more affected. Intergenerational changes are similar. The erosion of constraints on smoking presents a threat to health.","yes. These preliminary results suggest that specific behavioral measures of impulsivity may be associated with the ability to initiate and/or maintain abstinence from smoking among adolescent smokers.","E-cigarette and gateway drug use may have common underlying risk factors in early adolescence, including parent and peer modeling of substance use, as well as EF deficits. Future research is needed to examine longitudinal relationships of demographics, parent and peer modeling, and EF deficits to e-cigarette use in larger samples, trajectories of e-cigarette use compared to use of other substances, and the potential of EF skills training programs to prevent e-cigarette use.","With the exception of smoking, our data does not support a link between increased acculturation and higher prevalence of CRFs in Latinos with diabetes. Smoking prevention and cessation programs targeting Latinos and particularly among Cubans are needed.","To investigate the association between smoking and self-rated health (SRH) among adolescents in Hong Kong. Form 1 (U.S. Grade 7) to 5 students (N = 36,225) from 85 randomly selected secondary schools were surveyed using anonymous, self-administered questionnaires to collect information about smoking, SRH, secondhand smoke exposure, drinking, illicit drug use, physical activities, medical services use, health complaints, and sociodemographic characteristics. Logistic regression yielded adjusted odds ratios (AORs) for poor SRH due to smoking in boys and girls. Compared with never-smoking, smoking experimentation, ex-smoking, and current smoking were associated with AORs (95% CI) for poor SRH of 1.22 (1.07-1.40), 1.43 (1.12-1.83), and 1.31 (1.13-1.53), p for trend <.001, in boys and 1.26 (1.10-1.39), 1.42 (1.08-1.85), and 1.75 (1.53-2.00, p for trend <.001, in girls. The AOR of poor SRH for current smoking was higher in girls than boys, p for interaction <.001. Current and experimental smoking but not ex-smoking were significantly associated with poor SRH among healthy students who had no health complaints or recent medical consultations. Increasing cigarette consumption, years of smoking, and smoking urge were also significantly associated with poor SRH.","To investigate the extent to which parental early and late smoking cessation predicts their young adult children's smoking cessation. Parental early smoking cessation status was assessed when children were in 3rd grade, parental late smoking cessation was assessed when children were in 11th grade, and young adult children's smoking cessation was assessed 2 years after high school. Forty Washington State school districts participated in the Hutchinson Smoking Prevention Project. Participants were the 1553 families in which parents were ever regular smokers who had a young adult child smoking at least weekly at 12th grade who also reported their smoking status 2 years later. Questionnaire data were gathered on parents and their young adult children (49% female and 91% Caucasian) in a cohort with a 94% retention rate. Parents who quit early had children with 1.8 (OR = 1.80; 95% CI = 1.22, 2.64) times higher odds of quitting smoking for at least 1 month in young adulthood compared to those whose parents did not quit early. In contrast, there was no association (OR = 0.84; 95% CI = 0.47, 1.51) between parents quitting late and their young adult children's smoking cessation.","The present study examined the role of socioeconomic status and cultural identity in the association between ethnicity and nicotine dependence, in a birth cohort of>1000 methods young people studied to age 30. Data were gathered on ethnicity, cultural identification, nicotine dependence, and socioeconomic factors, as part of a longitudinal study of a New Zealand birth cohort (the Christchurch Health and Development Study). Those reporting Māori identity had rates of nicotine dependence that were significantly higher (p<0.05) than rates for non-Māori. Control for socioeconomic factors reduced the associations between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence to statistical non-significance. In addition, there was no evidence of a statistically significant association between Māori cultural identity and nicotine dependence, nor was there evidence of gender differences in the association between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence, after controlling for socioeconomic factors.","Exposure to movie smoking is a risk factor for smoking onset among Mexican youth, although this risk appears weaker than in countries with stronger tobacco marketing regulations.","The highest prevalence of smoking in the United States is in Kentucky, where smoking typically begins in childhood. The state has many patients who suffer from inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). The primary aim of this study was to assess whether exposure to active and/or passive tobacco smoke in childhood is related to the likelihood of developing IBD. Recruited into this prospective study were a total of 672 participants (253 patients with Crohn's disease [CD], 177 patients with ulcerative colitis [UC], and 242 controls), all of whom were asked to complete the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance Survey modified by the addition of 4 questions on childhood passive smoke exposure. Survey response rate was 84%. CD and UC patients were more likely than controls to begin smoking regularly by ages 10 and 15, respectively, suggesting that becoming a regular smoker at a younger age may be associated with a subsequent diagnosis of IBD. Smoking by age 10 was associated with an earlier age at diagnosis with UC, but not with CD. CD patients were more likely than controls to have prenatal smoke exposure (odds ratio [OR], 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1-2.71) and were more likely to have passive smoke exposure during childhood, with 1 or both parents or other household members being smokers (OR, 2.04; 95% CI, 1.28-3.31).","yes. Class-related, rather than school-related, characteristics were associated with smoking initiation and progression. Changes in microenvironmental factors might be useful in smoking prevention among preadolescents.","In trying to prevent early adolescents from alcohol and tobacco use, it might be of key importance to acknowledge the mutual influence between certain personality profiles and substance use. Specifically, sensation seeking and impulsivity are relevant during early adolescence and awareness of early adolescents' vulnerability for these personality predispositions is warranted.","yes. Our findings support the association of cigarette use in Taiwanese young adults with several individual, family, and peer factors identified in Western studies. Intervention in cigarette use should be multifaceted, by taking its correlates and the concurrent psychopathology, use of substances, and suicidality into consideration.","American Indian (AI) youth have a high risk of smoking initiation. Sensation-seeking, defined as the tendency to seek novel and thrilling experiences, has been associated with smoking initiation in other groups but has never been examined in AI youth. Data were from the Voices of Indian Teens Project (VOICES), a longitudinal study of AI youth from seven high schools in four AI communities in the western United States. Participants completed annual surveys in school over a three-year period. Our sample comprised 764 students who were non-smokers at baseline. Smoking initiation was defined as endorsement of daily smoking after baseline. We used binary logistic regression to evaluate the association of baseline sensation-seeking with odds of daily smoking initiation, stratified by gender. Participants were 353 males and 411 females aged 13 to 21years at baseline. After adjusting for covariates, baseline sensation-seeking correlated with smoking initiation differently in males and females. Sensation-seeking did not predict daily smoking in males. Among females, however, higher sensation-seeking scores at baseline predicted daily smoking in both the unadjusted (odds ratio=1.4; 95% CI=1.1-1.8; p=0.005) and covariate-adjusted (odds ratio=1.3; 95% CI=1.0-1.6; p=0.04) models.","According to a recent national survey, tobacco use is a critical public health issue in China, with more than two-thirds of Chinese males smoking. Findings in Western populations suggest that smoking may cluster with other health-risk behaviors. To explore these relationships in Chinese male adults, we utilized baseline data from the China Seven Cities Study (CSCS). Male adults (n = 12,122) were included. Smoking status was defined as never smokers, ex-smokers, current smokers, and current heavy smokers. Logistic regression was employed to investigate the association of cigarette smoking and patterns of food consumption, physical activity, and alcohol drinking. After controlling for age, socioeconomic status, and city residence, heavy smokers consumed significantly less vegetables, fruits, milk and other dairy products, spent significantly more time watching television, slept and exercised less, and got drunk or engaged in binge drinking more frequently compared to never, ex-, or current smokers (p < 0.05).","Although childhood socioeconomic disadvantage has been linked with adolescent tobacco and alcohol use in cross-sectional research, less is known about the influence of changes in socioeconomic status during childhood. Upward socioeconomic mobility may attenuate the negative influence of earlier socioeconomic disadvantage on health, while downward mobility may counter the health benefits of earlier socioeconomic advantage. This study evaluated the influence of common trajectories of family income during childhood on smoking and alcohol use during adolescence. Data utilized were part of the 15-year longitudinal Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development. A 5-class trajectory model (two stable, one downward, and two upward income trajectories) was developed previously with this sample (N=1356). Logistic regression analyses were conducted to determine whether children of the more disadvantaged income trajectories were more likely to engage in tobacco and alcohol use at age 15 relative to those of the most advantaged trajectory. Family income trajectory was significantly associated with ever-smoking (p=.02) and past-year alcohol use at age 15years (p=.008). Children from the less advantaged trajectories were more likely to have ever-smoked than children of the most advantaged trajectory (all p's<.05). Children of the downwardly mobile trajectory were more likely to have used alcohol within the past year than children of the most advantaged trajectories as well as the most disadvantaged trajectory (all p's<.05).","There are few observational studies of school and class risk factors for smoking behavior in preadolescence. A cohort study of 2,883 children recruited in the fifth grade with follow-up in sixth grade was undertaken. Information on school and class factors was collected from principals and teachers of 91 schools. A decreased risk of smoking uptake was associated with exposure to short antitobacco education prior to the fifth grade (compared to no education). Problematic interpersonal relations in the class were associated with a relative risk of smoking initiation of 1.42 (confidence interval 1.05, 1.93) compared to positive interpersonal relations. This excess risk was not mediated by class smoking prevalence in the fifth grade. School policy and school characteristics were not significantly associated with preadolescents' smoking.","Daily cigarette smoking among US adolescents remains a significant public health problem. Understanding risk is important in order to develop strategies to reduce this type of tobacco use. The primary objective of this research was to examine whether rural residency is an independent risk factor for being a daily smoker among adolescents ages 12 to 18 years. This is a cross-sectional study where univariate, bivariate, and multivariate analyses were performed on a merged 1997-2003 Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System dataset to determine whether rural residence was a significant risk factor for daily cigarette smoking, after adjusting for demographic factors. Using daily smoking as the dependent variable, initial multivariate analyses revealed that adolescents who lived either in suburban (OR=.34, CI=.32, .36) or urban (OR=.33, CI=.31, .35) locales were less likely to become daily smokers than adolescents living in rural locales. Subsequent logistic regression analysis yielded that rural youths who became daily smokers were more likely to: have used smokeless tobacco products in the past 12 months (OR=1.25, CI=1.04,1.51); be female (OR=1.42, CI=1.23, 1.64); be Caucasian (OR=1.53, CI=1.28, 1.84); have first smoked a whole cigarette when they were 12 years of age or younger (OR=2.08, CI=1.82, 2.38); and have smoked at school in the past 30 days (OR=14.52, CI=11.97, 17.60).","yes. Concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence is associated with characteristics that are well known as risk factors for later alcohol use problems and dependence and that should be targeted by prevention programs.","yes. The present findings indicate that parent smoking contributes to the onset of daily smoking in their teenagers even if parents practice good family management, hold norms against teen tobacco use, and do not involve their children in their own tobacco use. Smoking prevention programs should include components focused on parents of adolescents. To reduce risks for daily smoking among adolescents, it is important to encourage parents to stop or reduce their own smoking. In addition, these data indicate that parents can reduce their children's risk of daily smoking initiation by reducing family conflict, by maintaining strong bonds with their children, by setting clear rules, and by closely monitoring their children's behaviors.","There is substantial research linking tobacco and alcohol use to subsequent cannabis use, yet the specificity of this relationship is still under debate. The aim of this study was to examine which substance use model--the gateway hypothesis, the common liability (CL) model and/or the route of administration model--best explains the relationship between early onset of tobacco and alcohol use and subsequent cannabis use initiation. We used data from 2,113 (51% female) Dutch adolescents who participated in three consecutive assessment waves (mean age: 11.09, 13.56, and 16.27 years, respectively) of the TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey study. (Pre)adolescent cannabis, tobacco and alcohol use was assessed using the Youth Self-Report and a TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey developed questionnaire. We found that, during adolescence, early onset of tobacco use does not pose a significantly higher risk of initiating cannabis use than early onset alcohol use. Therefore, we can rule out the route of administration model. Moreover, we found that adolescents who reported early onset comorbid use of both tobacco and alcohol have a higher likelihood to initiate cannabis use than adolescents who have tried either tobacco or alcohol. The gateway hypothesis is not broad enough to explain this finding. Therefore, the CL model best predicts our findings.","yes. Outcome expectancies for affect management emerged as an important risk factor for smoking escalation and the development of nicotine dependence during adolescence. The present findings highlight the potential importance of cognitively-driven expectancies as a risk factor for smoking escalation during this critical developmental period.","The tobacco industry contends that parenting practices, not marketing practices, are critical to youth smoking. Our objective was to examine whether tobacco-industry marketing practices undermine the protective effect of recommended authoritative parenting against adolescent smoking. Receptivity to tobacco advertising and promotions was assessed in 1996 from a representative sample of California adolescent never-smokers aged 12 to 14 years. A follow-up survey of 1641 of these adolescents was conducted in 1999 that included measures of the key components of authoritative parenting: parental responsiveness, monitoring, and limit setting. Smoking initiation in adolescents. Adolescents in families with more-authoritative parents were half as likely to smoke by follow-up as adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents (20% vs 41%, p<0.0001). In families with more-authoritative parents, adolescents who were highly receptive to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions were significantly more likely to smoke (odds ratio=3.52, 95% confidence interval =1.10-11.23), compared to those who were minimally receptive. This effect was not significant in adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents. The overall attributable risk (adjusted for exposure to peer smokers) of smoking from tobacco-industry advertising and promotions was 25%. However, an estimated 40% of adolescent smoking in families with more-authoritative parents was attributable to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions; this was five times the attributable risk seen in families with less-authoritative parents (8%).","E-cigarette use has been linked to onset of cigarette smoking among adolescents, but some commentators have suggested that this simply reflects high-risk adolescents being more likely to use e-cigarettes and to smoke. We tested whether the effect of e-cigarette use for smoking onset differs for youth who are lower versus higher on propensity to smoke. School-based survey with a longitudinal sample of 1136 students (9th-11th graders, mean age 14.7 years) in Hawaii, initially surveyed in 2013 (T1) and followed up 1 year later (T2). We assessed e-cigarette use, propensity to smoke based on 3 psychosocial factors known to predict smoking (rebelliousness, parental support and willingness to smoke), and cigarette smoking status. Analyses based on T1 never-smokers tested the relation of T1 e-cigarette use to T2 smoking status for participants lower versus higher on T1 propensity to smoke. The relation between T1 e-cigarette use and T2 smoking onset was stronger among participants with lower levels of rebelliousness and willingness and higher levels of parental support. A multiple logistic regression analysis with T2 smoking as the criterion tested the cross-product of T1 e-cigarette use and T1 smoking propensity score; the interaction (OR=0.88, p=0.01) indicated a significantly larger effect for smoking onset among lower risk youth.","yes. ADHD, particularly the comorbid subtype, is a significant risk factor for early initiation of cigarette smoking in children and adolescents. Considering the prevalence and early childhood onset of ADHD, these findings highlight the importance of smoking prevention and cessation programs for children and adolescents with ADHD.","Studies of adolescent smoking suggest that the causes of smoking initiation may differ for Blacks and Whites. Correlates of smoking initiation were examined among 1,277 nonsmokers, ages 12-14, who completed questionnaires in their homes. The analyses examined relationships between smoking initiation and 11 explanatory variables using logistic regression with the combined sample and with Black and White samples. Over two years, 24 percent of Whites and 14 percent of Blacks started to smoke. Whites were more likely to start smoking at age 12 and Blacks at age 14. Having a best friend who smoked increased the odds of initiating smoking over twofold for Whites but had no effect on the odds of smoking for Blacks.","yes. Greater acculturation predicted higher abstinence rates, but this relationship was restricted to men. This study is among the first to examine the effects of gender and acculturation on smoking abstinence among Latinos. Findings highlight the need for research focused on mechanisms underlying these relationships.","A previous paper used latent class analysis to assign individuals to 1 of 4 adolescent/young adult smoking trajectory classes and then established an association between maternal smoking before, during, and after pregnancy and these classes. In this paper, we examine one possible pathway for this relationship: that maternal smoking during pregnancy may set off a behavioral trajectory which increases the likelihood of problem behaviors generally, of which smoking is one manifestation. We used the Behavior Problems Index measure from age 8 through age 12 as a potential mediator. We used a path analysis modeling approach within a multinomial logistic regression (using Mplus) to estimate direct and indirect effects (via behavioral problems) between maternal smoking pattern and child trajectory class. We found small but statistically significant indirect effects via behavioral problems from maternal smoking to child smoking trajectory for membership in all 3 smoking classes, relative to the nonsmoking trajectory, indicating partial mediation. Mediated effects were associated with maternal smoking after pregnancy, no statistically significant mediated effects were found for smoking before or during pregnancy.","Smokers who initiate as adults are more likely to quit than those who initiate as adolescents. Black women are more likely than White women to initiate smoking in adulthood and are less likely to quit. There is a paucity of research examining whether the smoking cessation advantage among adult initiators applies to Black women. The study objective is to examine race differences in the effect of developmental stage of smoking initiation on number of years until cessation among Black and White women. Data were extracted from the National Longitudinal Survey of Young Women, a national cohort of women between the ages of 49 and 61 years in 2003. The analytic sample comprised 1,008 White women and 271 Black women with a history of smoking. Survival analysis procedures were utilized to address the study objective. Racial disparities in smoking cessation were most evident among women who initiated smoking as adults. White young adult initiators had a 31% increased hazard of smoking cessation advantage (adjusted hazards ratio [HR]: 1.31, 95% CI: 1.04-1.65) over adolescent initiators, whereas Black young adult initiators had no smoking cessation advantage (adjusted HR: 0.85, CI: 95% 0.55-1.30) over adolescent initiators.","Secondhand smoke (SHS) exposure of children due to parental tobacco use is a particularly prevalent health issue and is associated with adverse health outcomes. Following the US Clinical Practice guidelines, pediatricians in the United States deliver 5A's (ask, advise, assess, assist, and arrange) counseling to smoking parents which has proven to be effective. We examined Chinese pediatricians' adherence to the clinical practice guidelines for smoking cessation (i.e. 5A's counseling practices) with smoking parents, and identified factors associated with these practices. A cross-sectional paper-and-pencil survey of pediatricians was conducted in twelve conveniently selected southern Chinese hospitals. Factors associated with any of the 5A's smoking cessation counseling practices were identified by logistic regression. Of respondents (504/550), only 26 % routinely provided 5A's smoking cessation counseling to smoking parents. More than 80 % of pediatricians didn't receive formal training in smoking cessation and had not read China smoking cessation guidelines; 24 % reported being \"very confident\" in discussing smoking or SHS reduction with parents. Pediatricians who had never smoked (OR: 2.29, CI:1.02-5.12), received training in smoking cessation (OR: 2.50, CI:1.40-4.48), had read China smoking cessation guidelines (OR: 2.17, CI:1.10-4.26), and felt very (OR: 7.12, CI:2.45-20.70) or somewhat (OR: 3.05, CI:1.11-8.37) confident in delivering cessation counseling were more likely to practice 5A's. Pediatricians who reported \"it is hard to find a time to talk with parents\" (OR: 0.32, CI: 0.11-0.92) or \"lack of a standard of care requiring pediatricians to provide smoking cessation or SHS exposure reduction intervention\" (OR: 0.45, CI: 0.21-0.98) as a barrier were less likely to follow the 5A's guidelines.","Annual national cross-sectional surveys (2002-2004 combined) with multi-ethnic sample of 91,219 Year 10 students from New Zealand who answered a questionnaire on personal and parental smoking. Maternal smoking and paternal smoking were associated separately with increased risk of daily adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups except paternal smoking in Asian youth. The relative risk of adolescent daily smoking (adjusted for age and sex) was significantly higher for maternal only smoking compared with paternal only smoking in each ethnic group: Asians 5.50 (95% CI: 3.55-8.52), Europeans 1.38 (1.26-1.52), Pacific Islanders 1.38 (1.10-1.73), and Maori 1.10 (1.00-1.21). The excess maternal effect varied inversely with smoking prevalence. The net effects of maternal and parental smoking are additive among European, Maori, and Pacific Island students, but multiplicative in Asian. Overall, about 40% of adolescent daily smokers could be attributed to parental smoking.","To assess the relationship between household smoking restrictions and smoking patterns among Chinese American adults. This is a cross-sectional analysis based on a National Institutes of Health-funded population-based household and telephone survey of 2537 Chinese American adults. Two communities in New York City. The analyses focused on male current smokers (N = 600). Demographic characteristics, smoking status, household smoking restrictions, cigarettes smoked per day, and past quit attempts were based on self-reported data. Among current smokers, 37% reported living in a home with a complete smoking ban. Smokers with a full household smoking ban smoked fewer cigarettes on weekdays and weekends than smokers with no household smoking ban (p < or = .05) and were 3.4 times (p < .01) more likely to report having at least one quit attempt in the past 12 months. Smokers with knowledge of the dangers of environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) exposure were 2.8 times (p < or = .01) more likely to have at least one quit attempt in the last 12 months compared with those who were unaware of the danger of ETS and more likely to live in a smoke-free household.","yes. Findings suggest significant associations of heavy cigarette smoking with other health-risk behaviors in Chinese male adults, underscoring the need for tobacco control interventions for Chinese males.","Multi-ethnic adolescents may be at increased risk for smoking and may have easier access to cigarettes. Culturally targeted smoking prevention interventions for adolescents should address the unique social challenges faced by multi-ethnic adolescents that may increase their risk for smoking.","Smoking initiation seldom occurs after emerging adulthood, making prevention critical during this phase of the life course. Among emerging adults, Hispanics have an especially high risk for cigarette use. Emerging adulthood scholars suggest role transitions commonly experienced by this age group may lead to substance use including cigarette experimentation and/or progression, contributing to the high smoking rates exhibited by Hispanics. Hispanic emerging adults (aged 18-24) completed surveys indicating which of a comprehensive list of role transitions they had experienced in the past year. Separate logistic regression models explored the association between each individual role transition and smoking in the past 30 days, controlling for age and gender and using a Bonferonni correction. Among the sample of emerging adults (n = 1,390), 41% were male, the average age was 21, and about 21% reported cigarette use in the past 30 days. Losing a job, becoming a family member's caregiver, starting to date someone new, experiencing a breakup, being arrested, and becoming addicted to illicit drugs and/or alcohol were all associated with smoking.","The purpose of the study was to better understand early risk for positive smoking expectancies, which have been shown to be consistent predictors of smoking initiation among youth. Two affect-based risk factors-negative urgency and emotion dysregulation-associated with smoking behaviors among youth, were examined for unique and interactive effects on positive smoking expectancies among substance-naïve youth. Participants were 61 10-14-year-old children with virtually no drug use (less than 5 substance use incidents across the lifetime), who were drawn from the community. Both negative urgency and emotion dysregulation were significantly associated with positive social facilitation smoking expectancies. Further, negative urgency was significantly related to positive social facilitation smoking expectancies at higher levels of emotion dysregulation (b=.09, p=.001).","yes. Acculturation was associated with cessation following a group-based intervention. Culturally specific adaptations to established interventions might improve outcomes for traditional smokers.","yes. A concerning minority of adolescent survivors have clear intentions to smoke, a behavior that adds to their overall health risk. Smoking intentions and experimentation are important precursors to regular smoking. Prevention efforts are needed to interrupt the progression from intentions and experimentation to established smoking and nicotine dependence in this medically vulnerable population.","To report on the prevalence and correlates of smoking and sexual activity in a community sample of Hong Kong Chinese adolescents. Participants (N = 4116) aged 13 to 18 years were surveyed regarding smoking and physical heterosexual activity, relationships with family members, family involvement, social support, school performance and emotional adjustment. Data were analyzed using logistic regression analyses. About 30% of participants reported ever smoking and 3.5% reported sexual intercourse. Current smoking was correlated with age, school performance and quality of relationship with mother. Sexual intercourse was correlated with age, gender, family involvement and social support. Smoking and sexual activity were significantly correlated with each other. Smoking and increasing levels of heterosexual physical contact were negatively correlated with emotional adjustment, even after controlling for common predictors to health-endangering behaviors and emotional adjustment.","African-Americans suffer disproportionately from tobacco-associated morbidity and mortality. Considering the relationship between cultural variables and cessation may be important for reducing disparities. This study aimed to examine acculturation as a predictor of smoking cessation following a standard group intervention. Treatment-seeking smokers (N = 140) participated in a group intervention for cessation plus transdermal nicotine patch therapy and completed the African American Acculturation Scale-Revised at baseline. The primary outcome was self-reported 7-day point prevalence abstinence at the end-of-counseling and 3 and 6 months postintervention. Adjusted logistic regression analyses found that acculturation predicted end-of-counseling and 3-month 7-day point prevalence abstinence; traditional African-Americans (i.e., less acculturated) were less likely to quit smoking. Cultural superstitions, religious beliefs and practices, and interracial attitudes were predictive of smoking cessation.","To examine the association of acculturation with various cardiovascular risk factors (CRFs) among Latinos with diabetes in South Florida. In a cross-sectional analysis of data collected from 300 Latinos with poorly controlled diabetes we measured acculturation using the Marin Short Acculturation Scale. We examined correlations between acculturation and the following 7 CRFs: hemoglobin A1C, low-density lipoprotein, systolic blood pressure, body mass index, smoking status, physical activity, and fruit and vegetable intake. Cubans made up 38% of our population; no other Latino subgroup represented over 17% of the sample. Of the 8 outcomes examined, only smoking was associated with increased acculturation; 12% of Latinos in the 2 lowest acculturation groups were current smokers versus 25% in the highest acculturation group (P=0.02). Furthermore, Cuban Americans from our sample had over double the prevalence of smoking compared with non-Cubans in both the lowest and highest acculturation groups.","US-born Mexican-American women had a slightly increased risk of preterm birth despite having more adequate prenatal care, more education, and higher socioeconomic indicators. This may be due to acculturation factors, such as earlier pregnancy, loss of social support systems, and increased smoking or alcohol use. Reducing this risk depends on recognition among health care workers and policy-makers of the potential influence of acculturation on health in this population.","In the U.S., Latino and Asian American immigrants and ethnic minorities may be at increased risk for alcohol and drug use disorders (AUDs/DUDs). The role of psychosocial and contextual characteristics as potential factors underlying this increased risk is unresolved. Participants include 4649 adults from the National Latino and Asian American Study. Logistic regression was used to determine the relationship between acculturation, acculturative stress, neighborhood characteristics, family characteristics, and discrimination and AUDs/DUDs. Models were stratified by age of immigration and ethnicity and controlled for demographic and mental health characteristics. Overall, 9.6% of Latino and 4.1% of Asian participants met criteria for lifetime AUDs/DUDs. Acculturation, family conflict, and discrimination were positively associated with AUDs/DUDs (odds ratios [ORs] and 95% confidence intervals [95%CIs]: 1.80[1.54-2.09], 1.24[1.12-1.36], and 1.54[1.38-1.73]), while neighborhood safety and family cohesion were protective for AUDs/DUDs (ORs[95%CIs]: 0.75[0.66-0.85] and 0.79[0.69-0.90]). Acculturative stress and neighborhood cohesion were not related to AUDs/DUDs. The relationships between family conflict and family cohesion with AUDs/DUDs were attenuated after accounting for other psychosocial and contextual factors. These relationships were generally consistent across ethnic and age of immigration subgroups.","While the majority of high school students do not become regular smokers after initiating smoking, earlier initiation of smoking is associated with subsequent regular smoking irrespective of sex or race/ethnicity. These findings have potentially important implications for intervention targeting.","Although differing levels of family influences may explain some of the varying racial/ethnic trends in adolescent smoking behavior, clarification of which influences are protective against smoking may aid in the development of future ethnic-specific smoking prevention interventions. We sought to identify and compare the association of family influences on adolescent smoking among Black, Hispanic, and White adolescents in a cross-sectional national sample. Data from 6,426 parent-child dyads from Round 1 of the National Survey of Parents and Youth were analyzed. The association of family influences with ever-smokers and recent smokers was evaluated. Multinomial logistic regression using SUDAAN software was used. While all measures of family influences except for parent-adolescent activities and intention to monitor were significantly protective against recent smoking and ever smoking among Whites, ethnic-specific family influence predictors of smoking were found in Blacks and Hispanics. Higher parental monitoring, higher intention to monitor, and higher connectedness were protective among Hispanics, while higher parental punishment and favorable attitude toward monitoring were protective against smoking among Blacks. For family influences significantly associated with protection against smoking, consistently greater protection was afforded against recent smoking than against ever smoking.","yes. These findings add to accumulating evidence that early emerging dependence symptoms reported at low levels of smoking exposure signal a greater propensity for continued smoking behavior. Screening for these early emerging symptoms among novice adolescent smokers represents an important and unused tool in tobacco control efforts aimed at preventing the development of chronic smoking patterns.","yes. Higher levels of family influences are protective against smoking among all racial/ethnic groups. There are consistencies in family influences on youth smoking; however, there may be specific family influences that should be differentially emphasized within racial/ethnic groups in order to protect against smoking behavior. Our results offer insight for designing strategies for preventing smoking in youth of different racial/ethnic backgrounds.","yes. The stress associated with navigating through changes in critical periods of the life course may lead some emerging adults to smoke. Future research should be directed toward determining what specific mechanisms make these transitional processes risk factors for smoking. These determinations could prove critical if effective prevention programs are to be designed that lead to a decrease in the smoking prevalence among Hispanic emerging adults.","We describe the epidemiology of smoking behaviors in a national young adult sample and identify common and unique demographic, social, and psychological correlates of daily smoking and lifetime and current nicotine dependence by race/ethnicity. Data are from the National Longitudinal Survey of Adolescent Health, wave III. Dependence was measured by the Revised Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence. Logistic regressions were estimated. Hispanic ethnicity, low education, parental and peer smoking, novelty seeking, early age of smoking onset, and pleasurable initial smoking experiences are significantly correlated with daily smoking and lifetime nicotine dependence. Depressive symptoms are uniquely associated with lifetime and current dependence. Few factors are highly associated with current dependence. Initial sensitivity to smoking has a significantly greater impact on daily smoking than on dependence. Correlates of smoking behaviors are mostly common across racial/ethnic groups, although parental and peer smoking are significant for Whites and Hispanics but not for African Americans.","To examine developmental patterns and family influences on the risk of daily smoking initiation from adolescence to young adulthood. A gender-balanced, ethnically diverse urban sample of 808 children aged 10-11 years was surveyed in 1985 and followed prospectively to age 21 in 1996. Discrete-time survival analysis was used to assess the hazard of initiation of daily smoking during this time period, as well as the effects of family factors on the risk of daily smoking initiation. Less parental smoking, more strict family monitoring and rules, and stronger family bonding predicted a significantly lower risk of daily smoking initiation controlling for socio-demographic background. The decline in the impact of family bonding over time was marginally significant; however, none of the interactions between family factors and time were significant, indicating generally consistent family influences on daily smoking from age 10 to 21.","To investigate the associations between generational status, acculturation and substance use among immigrant and non-immigrant secondary school students in New Zealand. A nationally representative sample of secondary school students in New Zealand was selected using a two-stage cluster sample design. Of the 8,999 students in the sample, 23.81% were first-generation immigrants and 20.90% were second-generation immigrants; the remaining 55.29% students are collectively referred to as 'non-immigrant' peers. Logistic regression models adjusted the associations of interest for age, gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status and experience of ethnic discrimination. First and second-generation immigrants showed significantly lower risks of smoking cigarettes compared with their non-immigrant peers. Similar trends were apparent for consuming alcohol and marijuana weekly. The inclusion of some characteristics suggestive of acculturation in multivariable models did not influence the relationship between generational status and smoking cigarettes, but attenuated the apparent protective effect of being a first-generation immigrant with regard to alcohol and marijuana use.","Evidence that age of smoking initiation represents a risk factor for regular smoking in adolescence is complicated by inconsistencies in the operational definition of smoking initiation and simultaneous inclusion of age as an explanatory variable. The aim of this study was to examine the relationship between age, age of smoking initiation and subsequent regular smoking. A secondary analysis was conducted of the U.S. Youth Risk Behavior Survey 2011. A sex stratified multivariable logistic regression analysis was used to model the likelihood of regular smoking with age and age of smoking initiation as explanatory variables and race/ethnicity as a covariate. After controlling for race/ethnicity, age and age of smoking initiation were independently associated with regular smoking in males and females. Independent of age, a one year's decrease in the age of smoking initiation was associated with a 1.27 times increase in odds of regular smoking in females (95% CI: 1.192-1.348); and similar associations for males (OR: 1.28; 95% CI: 1.216-1.341).","These results show that parental smoking is a consistent risk factor for adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups. Prevention strategies targeted at parents may help limit the uptake of smoking by adolescents.","Although ethnic differences in adolescent smoking have been well documented, smoking among multi-ethnic adolescents has received little research attention. This study examined smoking prevalence and tobacco related psychosocial risk factors among multi-ethnic adolescents in California, as compared with white, African American, Asian American, and Hispanic adolescents. This study used a cross sectional design. Data were obtained from the independent evaluation of the California Tobacco Control, Prevention, and Education Program. Students completed a paper-and-pencil survey in their classrooms. Data were collected from a stratified random sample of 5072 eighth grade students (age 13-14 years) in California during the 1996-97 school year. The data were weighted by school enrollment in analyses to make the estimates representative of the population of California students attending public schools. Outcome variables included self reported smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, access to tobacco, and related attitudes, beliefs, and behaviours. Ethnicity was assessed with a self reported, \"check all that apply\" question. Results indicated that multi-ethnic adolescents were at higher risk than single-ethnic adolescents on several variables, including 30 day cigarette smoking prevalence, lifetime smokeless tobacco use, buying cigarettes, receiving cigarette offers, and expected friends' reaction if the respondent smoked. For several other variables (lifetime cigarette smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, and number of friends who smoked), Hispanic adolescents were at higher risk than all other ethnic groups including multi-ethnic adolescents. Although susceptibility to smoking was highest among Hispanics, multi-ethnic adolescents scored significantly higher on susceptibility than the three other single-ethnic groups.","Identifying ethnic differences in the age of smoking onset from nationally representative data can lead to improved targeted prevention programs and policies to combat smoking in ethnic communities. Analyzing data from the Tobacco Use Supplements of the U.S. Census Bureau's Current Population Surveys throughout the 1990s, differences in the age of regular smoking onset among Asians/Pacific Islanders (A/PI), African Americans (AA), Hispanics/Latinos (H/L) and non-Hispanic whites (WH) are reported. Data on people aged 26 to 50 years at the time of the survey interview (n =130,356; mean age=38.4 years; 47.9% male; 1.9% A/PI, 7.8% AA, 5.2% H/L, and 85.1% WH) were examined. Results indicate significant ethnic disparities in when people start smoking, among A/PIs in particular, and AAs and H/Ls to a lesser degree, who initiate regular smoking at later ages than do WHs. The majority of A/PIs and AAs initiated smoking as young adults, with almost half (47.8%) of A/PIs who were ever regular smokers starting between ages 18 and 21, compared with 39.8% of AAs, 37.5% of H/Ls, and 36.7% of WHs.","yes. Smoking was associated with poor SRH among Chinese adolescents, especially girls. This finding is useful for discouraging smoking initiation and motivating quitting in adolescent smokers.","yes. Factors such as acculturation, discrimination, and neighborhood safety, are robustly and largely universally related to AUDs/DUDs among first and later generation Latino and Asian immigrants. Further research is required to understand how and why these factors relate to risk of substance misuse, and to identify ways to apply these factors in prevention and intervention efforts.","These findings indicate significant ethnic disparities in relation to when people start smoking, with the majority of A/PIs and AAs initiating as young adults. The findings suggest that prevention strategies should begin at a young age and continue throughout young adulthood, especially among ethnic minority populations. Further consideration of the different influences on later initiation in ethnic minorities may lead to suggestions to improve current smoking-prevention programs aimed at adolescents and young adults.","To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.","Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account."],"string":"[\n \"yes. In an Italian population, we confirmed smoking and alcohol as cofactors in the development of CP. This study shows that alcohol intake and smoking habits are 2 of the most important risk factors for the development of CP.\",\n \"To examine household structure when studying determinants of youth smoking, as the configuration of a family is an important factor in the etiology of adolescent problem behaviors. The study sample (n = 13,001) included respondents aged 12-19 years who were either living in two-parent households, single-parent households, or no-parent households, and with valid response to the smoking status questions from the Canadian Community Health Survey. Multivariate logistic regression was used to test the presence and strength of the association between household structure and the likelihood of smoking while controlling for age, sex, household education, and exposure to secondhand smoking. The odds of youth smoking in the single-parent household was 1.78 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households. Similarly, the odds of youth smoking in no-parent households was 1.47 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households.\",\n \"The current study examined the influence of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interaction on smoking cessation among Latinos. Logistic regression analysis was used to examine the main effects of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interactions on self-reported 7-day abstinence at 12-week follow-up among 271 Latino smokers seeking cessation counseling. Analyses revealed significant main effects for several acculturation indicators and significant interactions of gender with number of years lived in the United States, proportion of life lived in the United States, and preferred media language (all P values <0.05). Follow-up analyses indicated no significant relationships between abstinence and acculturation indicators among women. Among men, abstinence rates increased with years in the United States, proportion of life in the United States, and preferred media language of English.\",\n \"yes. Smoking and sexual activity among adolescents are far less common in Hong Kong than in the West and their presence in a Hong Kong adolescent should alert the health practitioner to the possibility of significant psychosocial stress and maladjustment.\",\n \"At one time, it was expected that if an individual reached young adulthood without smoking, his/her risk for initiation was minimal. However, recent data suggest that smoking initiation among young adults may be increasing. One particularly vulnerable population of young adults for smoking initiation is military recruits. This study examined whether a modified version of the Pierce Susceptibility Questionnaire (PSQ) might be useful for identifying military recruits who are vulnerable for the initiation of tobacco use. Active duty recruits entering the U.S. Air Force over a 1-year period (n=31,107) were assessed upon entry into basic military training (BMT), and a subsample was also assessed at 12 months following training. The modified PSQ predicted initiation of cigarette use for all categories of baseline smokers (never, experimenters, former smokers, and regular users). The likelihood of initiating smoking after BMT was substantially higher among those identified as susceptible than among those identified as not susceptible.\",\n \"Social capital may act both as a protective and a risk factor for adolescent smoking. Achieving higher levels of family-related social capital might reduce socioeconomic inequalities in adolescent smoking.\",\n \"Movie smoking exposure is a strong predictor of smoking initiation by adolescents; however, we do not know whether it is a long-term predictor of established smoking. We conducted a prospective study to determine whether movie smoking exposure during early adolescence predicts established smoking in older teens and young adults. We assessed movie smoking exposure and smoking status through a written school-based survey in 1999, when participants were 10 to 14 years of age. We enrolled 73% (n = 2603) of those who had never tried smoking in a follow-up study. In 2006-2007, we conducted telephone interviews with 69% (n = 1791) of the cohort to ascertain current smoking status. The primary outcome was established smoking, defined as having smoked >100 cigarettes. Mean age at follow-up was 18.7 years. Thirteen percent (n = 235) progressed from never smoking to established smoking during the follow-up period. Eighty-nine percent (n = 209) of established smokers smoked during the 30 days before the survey. Even after controlling for a wide range of baseline characteristics, the relative risk for established smoking increased by one third with each successive quartile of movie smoking exposure. Those in the highest quartile for baseline movie smoking exposure were twice as likely to be established smokers at follow-up compared with those in the lowest quartile.\",\n \"To determine whether exposure to smoking imagery in films predicts smoking onset among never-smoking Mexican adolescents. The analytic sample was comprised of 11- to 14-year-old secondary school students who reported never having tried smoking at baseline, 83% (1,741/2,093) of whom were successfully followed-up after 1 year. Exposure to 42 popular films that contained smoking was assessed at baseline, whereas smoking behavior and risk factors were assessed at baseline and at follow-up. Logistic regression was used to estimate bivariate and adjusted relative risks (ARR) of trying smoking and current smoking at follow-up. At follow-up, 36% reported having tried smoking and 8% reported having smoked in the previous month. Students who were successfully followed-up were exposed to an average of 43.8 minutes of smoking in the films they reported viewing at baseline. ARRs indicated that students in the two highest levels of exposure to film smoking were more than twice as likely to have smoked in the previous 30 days at follow-up [ARR(3v1) = 2.44; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.31-4.55; ARR(4v1) = 2.23; 95% CI, 1.19-4.17]. The ARR of having tried smoking by the time of follow-up reached statistical significance only when comparing the third highest to the lowest exposure group (ARR(3v1) = 1.54; 95% CI, 1.01-2.64). Having a parent or best friend who smoked at baseline were the only other variables that independently predicted both outcomes.\",\n \"The prevalence figures and educational associations suggest that the socioeconomic gradient changes in earlier stages of the epidemic in immigrant populations than in the Western host populations, particularly in men. This provides indications to suggest that smoking prevention measures in male immigrant groups need to be tailored to lower socioeconomic groups in particular throughout the tobacco epidemic, and to higher socioeconomic groups among women.\",\n \"Little is known about influences on e-cigarette use among early adolescents. This study examined influences that have been previously found to be associated with gateway drug use in adolescents: demographic (age, gender, ethnicity, free lunch), social contextual influences of parents and peers, and executive function deficits (EF). A cross-sectional survey was administered to 410 7th grade students from two diverse school districts in Southern California (M age;=12.4years, 48.3% female, 34.9% on free lunch (low socioeconomic status), 45.1% White, 25.4% Hispanic/Latino, 14.9% Mixed/bi-racial.) Logistic regression analyses examined influences of demographic, parent e-cigarette ownership and peer use, and EF on lifetime e-cigarette, and gateway drug use (cigarette and/or alcohol use). Lifetime use prevalence was 11.0% for e-cigarettes, 6.8% for cigarettes, and 38.1% for alcohol. Free lunch and age were marginally related to e-cigarette use (p<.10). Parent e-cigarette ownership was associated with use of all substances, while peer use was associated with gateway drug use (p's<.05-.001). EF deficits were associated with use of all substances five times more likely than others to use e-cigarettes and over twice as likely to use gateway drugs.\",\n \"Ethnic minorities in America will achieve majority by 2042, and due to their younger age distribution, will represent the largest proportion of women at risk for premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Research has not addressed ethnic minority women's vulnerabilities to PMDD. The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between acculturation and PMDD. An analysis of acculturation and PMDD among 3856 English-speaking, pre-menopausal Asian, Latina, and Black women from the National Latino and Asian American Survey and the National Survey of American Life was performed. The lifetime prevalence of PMDD was 3.3%. Nativity status, duration of residence, and age at immigration were significantly associated with PMDD. Foreign-born women (OR=0.38; 95% confidence interval (CI)=0.21-0.68) and immigrants arriving to the US after age six (OR=0.33, 95% CI=0.18, 0.62) were less likely to have PMDD, compared to US-born women, and US-born women/immigrants who arrived before age six, respectively. The likelihood of PMDD increased as the duration of residence in the US lengthened.\",\n \"The risk of incident smoking in children entering secondary education is independently increased by exposure to other ever smokers in school tutor groups. Incident smoking in adolescents is thus to some extent a communicable disorder, and may be partly preventable by policies that reduce exposure to smoking at school.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to determine contextual antecedents to smoking among Korean American emerging adult (KAEA) smokers using ecological momentary assessment. Based on extant theory and data documenting the importance of negative affect (NA) and social context, we examined the extent to which being with friends and NA independently and concomitantly were associated with the likelihood of subsequent smoking, over and beyond other known situational correlates of smoking. Twenty-two KAEA daily smokers recorded their smoking events in real time and participated in short surveys implemented on mobile phones for 7 days. Individual, interpersonal, and situational contexts immediately preceding and during smoking events were examined in comparison to nonsmoking events using a within-subject modeling approach. Both NA and being with friends independently were correlated with increased likelihood of smoking. We also found an interaction showing that the effects of NA on smoking were significant only in presence of friends.\",\n \"yes. Identifying adolescent smokers who smoke their first cigarette of the day within the first 30min of waking prior to a quit attempt may help to classify those individuals as having a greater risk for cessation failure. Thus, TTFC may be a behavioral indicator of nicotine dependence in adolescents.\",\n \"We examined differences in selected pregnancy-related risk factors, including maternal sociodemographic characteristics, health-related conditions, and periconceptional behavioral factors, among foreign-born versus U.S.-born control mothers across race/ethnic groups. We used data from the National Birth Defects Prevention Study, and calculated odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) of the risk factors, for foreign-born Hispanic, non-Hispanic white, non-Hispanic black, and Asian/Pacific Islander (API) mothers, compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. Across all race/ethnic groups, foreign-born mothers were older and had lower odds of obesity compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. With the exception of foreign-born black mothers, foreign-born mothers from other race/ethnic groups had significantly lower odds of binge drinking during the periconceptional period. Compared to U.S.-born, foreign-born Hispanic mothers had twice the odds of gestational diabetes (OR = 2.23; 95% CI = 1.36-3.66). Certain health behaviors were less prevalent in foreign-born black mothers (e.g., folic acid use; OR = 0.54; 95% CI = 0.31-0.96) and foreign-born API mothers (e.g., cigarette smoking; OR = 0.10; 95% CI = 0.02-0.48).\",\n \"Current research on the continuum of smoking initiation has largely focused on phases of progressing frequency of smoking. To gain more insight into reasons some adolescents do, and others do not, proceed to advanced levels of smoking behavior, a continuum in which two categories of ex-smoking are proposed is examined. Standardized scores on psychosocial predictors of smoking among adolescent nonsmoking deciders and quitters were compared cross-sectionally with those of the categories of never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers (n = 23,317). Never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers had significantly different characteristics with regard to psychosocial predictors of smoking (P<0.01), with scores of never smokers indicating that they were least at risk of smoking in the future and those of regular smokers indicating that they were most at risk. Scores of nonsmoking deciders showed that they were less at risk than triers and experimenters and more at risk than never smokers. Quitters seemed to have less risky psychosocial characteristics than experimenters and more risky characteristics than nonsmoking deciders.\",\n \"This study examines the main and interaction effects of known social risk factors for substance use (inadequate parental monitoring and substance using friends) in adolescence and a polygenic score in predicting marijuana and tobacco use in adolescence and young adulthood. Phenotypic and genetic data were derived from a longitudinal study of a cohort of urban, predominately African American youth. Last year substance-use measures were collected annually from 8th grade through age 22. Participant self-reports of substance-using friends and parent monitoring were obtained yearly from Grades 8 to 12. Using longitudinal latent class analysis, the authors identified parallel developmental trajectories of tobacco and marijuana use and parent monitoring and the proportion of substance-using friends. Two trajectories were identified for tobacco and marijuana use, characterized by moderate versus little-to-no use. Additionally, 2 latent profiles were found for the social environment profiles: those characterized by higher parent monitoring and a lower proportion of substance-using friends versus lower parent monitoring and a higher proportion of substance-using friends.\",\n \"To compare certain preconception health (PCH) behaviors and conditions among US-born (USB) and foreign-born (FB) mothers in Los Angeles County (LAC), regardless of race/ethnicity, and to determine if any identified differences vary among Asian/Pacific Islanders (API's) and Hispanics. Data are from the 2012 Los Angeles Mommy and Baby study (n = 6252). PCH behaviors included tobacco use, multivitamin use, unintended pregnancy, and contraception use. PCH conditions comprised being overweight/obese, diabetes, asthma, hypertension, gum disease, and anemia. The relationship between nativity and each PCH behavior/condition was assessed using multivariable logistic regression models. USB women were more likely than FB women to smoke (AOR 2.12, 95 % CI 1.49-3.00), be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.30-1.90), and have asthma (AOR 2.04, 95 % CI 1.35-3.09) prior to pregnancy. They were less likely than FB women to use contraception before pregnancy (AOR 0.59, 95 % CI 0.49-0.72). USB Hispanics and API's were more likely than their FB counterparts to be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.23-2.01 and AOR 2.37, 95 % CI 1.58-3.56, respectively) and less likely to use contraception (AOR 0.58, 95 % CI 0.45-0.74 and AOR 0.46, 95 % CI 0.30-0.71, respectively). USB Hispanic mothers were more likely than their FB counterparts to smoke (AOR 2.47, 95 % CI 1.46-4.17), not take multivitamins (AOR 1.30, 95 % CI 1.02-1.66), and have asthma (AOR 2.35, 95 % CI 1.32-4.21) before pregnancy.\",\n \"yes. This was the first study to extend analytical methodology for sensitivity to active smoking to sensitivity to SHSe in youth who had never smoked. Results suggest a desensitization process with age and lower sensitivity to some reactions in preteens from more highly educated households. Preteens who have more aversive experiences with SHSe tend to be less susceptible to smoking than those who experience fewer aversive reactions. Assessment of sensitivity to SHSe is a novel approach to the study of cigarette use etiology and may contribute to better prediction of smoking initiation.\",\n \"We examined the relationship of smoking cessation in parents to smoking and uptake and cessation by their adolescent children. We analyzed a cross-sectional sample of 4,502 adolescents, ages 15-17 years, who lived in two-parent households that were interviewed as part of the 1992-1993 Tobacco Supplement of the Current Population Survey, which questioned householders 15 years of age and older about their smoking history. Ever smokers reported smoking at least 100 cigarettes in their lifetime. Former smokers were ever smokers who had quit. Multivariate analyses, adjusted for demographic characteristics of adolescents, as well as father's age, education, and family income, found that adolescents whose parents had quit smoking were almost one-third less likely to be ever smokers than those with a parent who still smoked. Furthermore, adolescent ever smokers whose parents quit smoking were twice as likely to quit as those who had a parent who still smoked. Parental quitting is most effective in reducing initiation if it occurs before the child reaches 9 years of age.\",\n \"yes. In an ethnically diverse sample of US immigrants, acculturation was associated with CMR factors. Culturally tailored public health strategies should be developed in US immigrant populations to reduce CMR.\",\n \"Non-Western migrant populations living in Western countries are more likely to be physically inactive during leisure time than host populations. It is argued that this difference will disappear as they acculturate to the culture of the host country. We explored whether this is also true for migrants who experience contextual barriers such as having children, living in a less attractive neighbourhood, or having occupational physical activity. Cross-sectional data were obtained from the LASER-study (2003-2004) on health related behaviours in first and second generation Turkish young people living in the Netherlands. For this study we included 485 Turkish participants aged 15-30 years, who participated in a structured interview during a home visit. Acculturation was indicated by level of 'cultural orientation towards the Dutch culture' and 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch' with persons being low oriented towards the Dutch culture and having few social contacts with ethnic Dutch as reference group. The measured barriers were 'having children', 'occupational physical activity' and 'living in a less attractive neighbourhood'. Logistic regression analyses were used to assess the associations between acculturation and physical activity during leisure time, stratified by these contextual barriers. Greater cultural and social integration was associated with increased physical activity during leisure time. Odds ratio's were 1.85 (CI: 1.19-2.85) for 'cultural orientation' and 1.77 (CI: 1.15-2.71) for 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch'. However, these associations were not present or less strong among people who had children, or who were living in a less attractive neighbourhood or who engaged in occupational physical activity.\",\n \"To establish levels of use of tobacco, alcohol and illegal drugs among 18-20 year old men and women of Asian (Punjabi) and non-Asian origin compared with levels four years earlier and consider the role of religion and culture in abstinent behaviour. Structured self-complete questionnaire used with 94% of pupils with South Asian names recorded by the Greater Glasgow education department in 1991 and a proportionate random sample of pupils in the same years who did not have South Asian names. Followed up in 1996 in an interviewer-led structured questionnaire in their own homes. Greater Glasgow, largest city in the west of Scotland. Eight hundred and twenty-four overwhelmingly British-born 14-15 year olds in 1992, 492 followed up aged 18-20 years in 1996. Self-report measures of ever having tried alcohol, tobacco and drugs and the quantities consumed at age 14-15 and 18-20. Indication of reasons for abstinence from substance use at age 18-20. Asians were much more abstinent from all these substances at both ages (p<0.001), except for smoking at 18-20. However, religiously specific patterns of abstinence were particularly strong for alcohol (Muslim odds ratio 7- to 9-fold lower at 14-15, 16- to 25-fold lower at 18-20) and smoking (Sikh/Hindu odds ratio 10-fold lower than Muslims, 20-fold than Christians at 18-20), though there is a shared Asian tendency for women to observe these patterns more than men at 18-20.\",\n \"To investigate the association between cigarette use during pregnancy and pregnancy-induced hypertension/preeclampsia/eclampsia (PIH) by maternal race/ethnicity and age. This retrospective cohort study was based on the U.S. 2010 natality data. Our study sample included U.S. women who delivered singleton pregnancies between 20 and 44 weeks of gestation without major fetal anomalies in 2010 (n = 3,113,164). Multivariate logistic regression models were fit to estimate crude and adjusted odds ratios and the corresponding 95% confidence intervals. We observed that the association between maternal smoking and PIH varied by maternal race/ethnicity and age. Compared with non-smokers, reduced odds of PIH among pregnant smokers was only evident for non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic American Indian women aged less than 35 years. Non-Hispanic Asian/Pacific Islander women who smoked during pregnancy had increased odds of PIH regardless of maternal age. Non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic black women 35 years or older who smoked during pregnancy also had increased odds of PIH.\",\n \"Early substance use (SU) in adolescence is known to be associated with an elevated risk of developing substance use disorders (SUD); it remains unclear though whether early SU is associated with more rapid transitions to SUD. To examine the risk and speed of transition from first SU (alcohol, nicotine, cannabis) to SUD as a function of age of first use. N=3021 community subjects aged 14-24 years at baseline were followed-up prospectively over 10-years. SU and SUD were assessed using the DSM-IV/M-CIDI. (1) The conditional probability of substance-specific SU-SUD transition was the greatest for nicotine (36.0%) and the least for cannabis (18.3% for abuse, 6.2% for dependence) with alcohol in between (25.3% for abuse; 11.2% for dependence). (2) In addition to confirming early SU as a risk factor for SUD we find: (3) higher age of onset of any SU to be associated with faster transitions to SUD, except for cannabis dependence. (4) Transitions from first cannabis use (CU) to cannabis use disorders (CUD) occurred faster than for alcohol and nicotine. (5) Use of other substances co-occurred with risk and speed of transitions to specific SUDs.\",\n \"Efforts to prevent adolescents from smoking have limited efficacy, with little understanding of why they smoke. We examine many of the factors which may influence a teenager's decision to start smoking. A self-completed questionnaire was distributed among pre-draft teenagers (age 16-18 years) with questions regarding current smoking habits as well as smoking habits of family members. Smokers were asked why they started, and attitudes regarding the dangers of smoking and anti-smoking legislation were examined. A total of 1067 questionnaires were completed (707 males, 360 females). In all, 25.7% were current smokers (26.2% of male and 21.1% of females; p=0.069), with smoking rates highest among those born in Middle Eastern countries and lowest among those born in Ethiopia. Those from single-parent families had a higher smoking rate (relative risk: 1.28), as did those with either parents or siblings who smoked. Parents who were smokers were more likely to tell their children not to smoke, while smoking teenagers were more likely to have been told by their parents not to smoke. Most smokers (58.2%) did not give a specific reason for smoking while 30.3% listed \\\"peer pressure\\\", 8.4% \\\"parents smoking\\\" and 3.1% \\\"advertisements\\\" as the major factor. Smokers were less likely to agree that smoking is harmful and more likely to oppose anti-smoking legislative measures.\",\n \"To investigate whether concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence characterizes a subgroup that differs from users of one substance only regarding several risk factors for later substance use problems. Participants were from a prospective longitudinal cohort study of 384 children at risk for later psychopathology, with the majority being born with obstetric complications and psychosocial adversities. Assessments of adolescent drug consumption and related intrapersonal characteristics were obtained at age 15. Compared to consumers of alcohol only, 15-year-olds drinking and smoking during the same time period (past 4 weeks) had significantly higher levels of consumption and more excessive use of alcohol, started drinking at an earlier age, had higher scores on the Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence, and more cannabis use. This group could be distinguished from users of alcohol only by higher novelty seeking and more positive alcohol effect expectancies. Compared to consumers of tobacco only, concurrent users reported higher nicotine dependence and more cannabis use. No significant differences were observed regarding frequency and age at initiation of tobacco use, tobacco-related sensitivity, self-efficacy and instrumentality as well as novelty seeking.\",\n \"Tobacco use is prevalent among adolescents in China in general, however, little is known about tobacco use among students in private schools with an enrollment of 1.5 million. In 2001, cross-sectional survey data from 2725 students in grades seven and eight (1307 sampled from private schools and 1418 sampled from public schools) were included. Smoking measures (risk of susceptibility to smoking, smoking onset, ever smoking, smoking in the past 7 days and past 30 days, established smoking) were compared between private and public school students using chi-square test, logistic regression, and survival analysis. Cigarette smoking was more prevalent among private school students than among public school students (private vs. public: 21.9% vs. 12.3% for susceptibility to smoking, 53.9% vs. 38.2% for ever smoking, 22% vs. 12.0% for 30-day smoking, 15.9% vs. 4.0% for 7-day smoking, 4.5% vs. 1.2% for established smoking). Students in private schools are 3.4 to 3.8 times more likely to smoke than students in public schools after the adjustment of important covariates (gender, grade, peer smoking, parental smoking, and parents' occupation). Risk of smoking onset by age was also greater for private school students than for public school students.\",\n \"yes. Smoking is a risk factor for developing MetS in Chinese men after adjusting for age, education level, alcohol intake, fasting plasma insulin, HOMA-IR, BMI, and weight change. This could be due to an increased incidence of dyslipidemia. Smoking cessation for >13 years decreased the risk for developing MetS defined by the JCDCG definition.\",\n \"To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.\",\n \"Young adults who avoid their emotions may be at risk for starting smoking or not quitting smoking. This study investigated whether a preliminary measure of avoidant coping longitudinally predicts young adults' smoking escalation and cessation. In a sample of the 3,305 participants, originally from Washington State, a preliminary measure of self-reported avoidant coping at age 18 was used to predict both smoking escalation and cessation at ages 20 and 28 with both probability and logistic regression models (10-year retention: 98.5%). Individuals who scored high on avoidant coping at 18 were 2.52 (p = .001) times more likely to acquire smoking by 20. However, there was no evidence that avoidant coping at age 18 predicted smoking escalation at 28 or cessation for 20- and 28-year-olds.\",\n \"yes. Findings indicate that childhood socioeconomic disadvantage influences adolescent smoking, while downward socioeconomic mobility influences adolescent alcohol use.\",\n \"Previous cross-sectional research has shown that adolescents' cigarette use is interactively associated with that of their school peers and their 5HTTLPR genotype, such that the cigarette use of persons with more copies of the 5HTTLPR*S' allele is more dependent on school peers' cigarette use behaviors than their counterparts. This analysis seeks to extend this novel finding by examining whether the same conclusion can be reached when substituting neighborhood peers for school peers and examining the timing of the initiation of any and regular smoking in adolescence. This analysis employs an independent sample with longitudinal measures of cigarette use among 6th through 8th graders clustered in 82 neighborhoods, of whom 1098 contributed genetic data. The proportion of respondents who had ever smoked cigarettes by the first wave was calculated for each census block group in the study. 5HTTLPR genotype was assayed using the method of Whisman et al. (2011). The timing of any or regular smoking initiation and over four years were modeled as dependent variables using Cox proportional hazard models. The interaction of neighborhood peer smoking behavior in the first wave and 5HTTLPR genotype statistically significantly predicted any smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 3.532; p-value=0.002) and regular smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 5.686; p-value=0.000), net of controls for sex, race/ethnicity, grade in the first wave of data, and parental educational attainment. These findings reach the same conclusions as previous cross-sectional research.\",\n \"Although parental smoking is clearly one important influence on children's smoking, it is still unclear what are the many mechanisms by which parents influence their children's smoking. Antismoking actions are one potential mechanism. To determine whether parental antismoking actions including having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence are associated with adolescents' adoption of smoking. A cross-sectional survey. Rural and suburban communities in western Washington State. Population-based cohort of 3555 adolescents and their parents. Daily smoking in 12th grade. Adolescents of parents who report having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence were significantly less likely to smoke than adolescents of parents who did not engage in antismoking actions. This association of antismoking action and reduced smoking was found for children of both smoking and nonsmoking parents.\",\n \"These findings add to the evidence base that childhood disadvantage is associated with adult smoking behaviours and highlights the importance of the early childhood social environment for the development of these.\",\n \"yes. The finding of decreased activation to pleasurable food among adolescent light smokers supports the theory that these adolescents are displaying decreased sensitivity to at least one natural reinforcer. This also supports the theory that nicotine may affect the brain early in the trajectory of smoking, thus underscoring the need for early intervention among adolescent smokers.\",\n \"To describe smoking and quitting history among multiethnic adolescent smokers and examine these as correlates of readiness to quit. Data were analyzed from 121 high school smokers. Sociodemographic characteristics, self-reported smoking history, number and duration of recent quit attempts, attitudes toward smoking/quitting, and readiness to quit were included. Smoking and quitting history variables were associated with adolescents' stage of readiness to quit. A reasonably consistent pattern emerged in which those in the preparation stage were significantly different from the precontemplators and contemplators.\",\n \"Among sexual minorities, Black and Asian American individuals consistently were at decreased risk of current smoking compared to their White peers. Future research should seek to understand the mechanisms that contribute to decreased smoking status among racial sexual minorities.\",\n \"The significant declines observed in smoking from adolescence into young adulthood were contrary to expectations, indicating that this behaviour may be less stable than previously thought among adolescent AOD abusers. Smoking involvement over time was greater within the highest alcohol use trajectory, consistent with previous evidence for a positive relationship between these behaviours. However, when compared with the general population smoking rates remained very high regardless of alcohol involvement. Thus, individuals treated for AOD abuse as adolescents remained at elevated risk for tobacco related disease regardless of post-treatment AOD use outcomes.\",\n \"At age 14-15 abstinence was high in the largely British-born generation of Asians mainly for cultural reasons common to religious groups. Four years later culturally determined abstinence has atrophied, and abstinence reflects the specific influence of ascetic religious traditions, though some cultural influence remains in that women are more affected. Intergenerational changes are similar. The erosion of constraints on smoking presents a threat to health.\",\n \"yes. These preliminary results suggest that specific behavioral measures of impulsivity may be associated with the ability to initiate and/or maintain abstinence from smoking among adolescent smokers.\",\n \"E-cigarette and gateway drug use may have common underlying risk factors in early adolescence, including parent and peer modeling of substance use, as well as EF deficits. Future research is needed to examine longitudinal relationships of demographics, parent and peer modeling, and EF deficits to e-cigarette use in larger samples, trajectories of e-cigarette use compared to use of other substances, and the potential of EF skills training programs to prevent e-cigarette use.\",\n \"With the exception of smoking, our data does not support a link between increased acculturation and higher prevalence of CRFs in Latinos with diabetes. Smoking prevention and cessation programs targeting Latinos and particularly among Cubans are needed.\",\n \"To investigate the association between smoking and self-rated health (SRH) among adolescents in Hong Kong. Form 1 (U.S. Grade 7) to 5 students (N = 36,225) from 85 randomly selected secondary schools were surveyed using anonymous, self-administered questionnaires to collect information about smoking, SRH, secondhand smoke exposure, drinking, illicit drug use, physical activities, medical services use, health complaints, and sociodemographic characteristics. Logistic regression yielded adjusted odds ratios (AORs) for poor SRH due to smoking in boys and girls. Compared with never-smoking, smoking experimentation, ex-smoking, and current smoking were associated with AORs (95% CI) for poor SRH of 1.22 (1.07-1.40), 1.43 (1.12-1.83), and 1.31 (1.13-1.53), p for trend <.001, in boys and 1.26 (1.10-1.39), 1.42 (1.08-1.85), and 1.75 (1.53-2.00, p for trend <.001, in girls. The AOR of poor SRH for current smoking was higher in girls than boys, p for interaction <.001. Current and experimental smoking but not ex-smoking were significantly associated with poor SRH among healthy students who had no health complaints or recent medical consultations. Increasing cigarette consumption, years of smoking, and smoking urge were also significantly associated with poor SRH.\",\n \"To investigate the extent to which parental early and late smoking cessation predicts their young adult children's smoking cessation. Parental early smoking cessation status was assessed when children were in 3rd grade, parental late smoking cessation was assessed when children were in 11th grade, and young adult children's smoking cessation was assessed 2 years after high school. Forty Washington State school districts participated in the Hutchinson Smoking Prevention Project. Participants were the 1553 families in which parents were ever regular smokers who had a young adult child smoking at least weekly at 12th grade who also reported their smoking status 2 years later. Questionnaire data were gathered on parents and their young adult children (49% female and 91% Caucasian) in a cohort with a 94% retention rate. Parents who quit early had children with 1.8 (OR = 1.80; 95% CI = 1.22, 2.64) times higher odds of quitting smoking for at least 1 month in young adulthood compared to those whose parents did not quit early. In contrast, there was no association (OR = 0.84; 95% CI = 0.47, 1.51) between parents quitting late and their young adult children's smoking cessation.\",\n \"The present study examined the role of socioeconomic status and cultural identity in the association between ethnicity and nicotine dependence, in a birth cohort of>1000 methods young people studied to age 30. Data were gathered on ethnicity, cultural identification, nicotine dependence, and socioeconomic factors, as part of a longitudinal study of a New Zealand birth cohort (the Christchurch Health and Development Study). Those reporting Māori identity had rates of nicotine dependence that were significantly higher (p<0.05) than rates for non-Māori. Control for socioeconomic factors reduced the associations between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence to statistical non-significance. In addition, there was no evidence of a statistically significant association between Māori cultural identity and nicotine dependence, nor was there evidence of gender differences in the association between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence, after controlling for socioeconomic factors.\",\n \"Exposure to movie smoking is a risk factor for smoking onset among Mexican youth, although this risk appears weaker than in countries with stronger tobacco marketing regulations.\",\n \"The highest prevalence of smoking in the United States is in Kentucky, where smoking typically begins in childhood. The state has many patients who suffer from inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). The primary aim of this study was to assess whether exposure to active and/or passive tobacco smoke in childhood is related to the likelihood of developing IBD. Recruited into this prospective study were a total of 672 participants (253 patients with Crohn's disease [CD], 177 patients with ulcerative colitis [UC], and 242 controls), all of whom were asked to complete the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance Survey modified by the addition of 4 questions on childhood passive smoke exposure. Survey response rate was 84%. CD and UC patients were more likely than controls to begin smoking regularly by ages 10 and 15, respectively, suggesting that becoming a regular smoker at a younger age may be associated with a subsequent diagnosis of IBD. Smoking by age 10 was associated with an earlier age at diagnosis with UC, but not with CD. CD patients were more likely than controls to have prenatal smoke exposure (odds ratio [OR], 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1-2.71) and were more likely to have passive smoke exposure during childhood, with 1 or both parents or other household members being smokers (OR, 2.04; 95% CI, 1.28-3.31).\",\n \"yes. Class-related, rather than school-related, characteristics were associated with smoking initiation and progression. Changes in microenvironmental factors might be useful in smoking prevention among preadolescents.\",\n \"In trying to prevent early adolescents from alcohol and tobacco use, it might be of key importance to acknowledge the mutual influence between certain personality profiles and substance use. Specifically, sensation seeking and impulsivity are relevant during early adolescence and awareness of early adolescents' vulnerability for these personality predispositions is warranted.\",\n \"yes. Our findings support the association of cigarette use in Taiwanese young adults with several individual, family, and peer factors identified in Western studies. Intervention in cigarette use should be multifaceted, by taking its correlates and the concurrent psychopathology, use of substances, and suicidality into consideration.\",\n \"American Indian (AI) youth have a high risk of smoking initiation. Sensation-seeking, defined as the tendency to seek novel and thrilling experiences, has been associated with smoking initiation in other groups but has never been examined in AI youth. Data were from the Voices of Indian Teens Project (VOICES), a longitudinal study of AI youth from seven high schools in four AI communities in the western United States. Participants completed annual surveys in school over a three-year period. Our sample comprised 764 students who were non-smokers at baseline. Smoking initiation was defined as endorsement of daily smoking after baseline. We used binary logistic regression to evaluate the association of baseline sensation-seeking with odds of daily smoking initiation, stratified by gender. Participants were 353 males and 411 females aged 13 to 21years at baseline. After adjusting for covariates, baseline sensation-seeking correlated with smoking initiation differently in males and females. Sensation-seeking did not predict daily smoking in males. Among females, however, higher sensation-seeking scores at baseline predicted daily smoking in both the unadjusted (odds ratio=1.4; 95% CI=1.1-1.8; p=0.005) and covariate-adjusted (odds ratio=1.3; 95% CI=1.0-1.6; p=0.04) models.\",\n \"According to a recent national survey, tobacco use is a critical public health issue in China, with more than two-thirds of Chinese males smoking. Findings in Western populations suggest that smoking may cluster with other health-risk behaviors. To explore these relationships in Chinese male adults, we utilized baseline data from the China Seven Cities Study (CSCS). Male adults (n = 12,122) were included. Smoking status was defined as never smokers, ex-smokers, current smokers, and current heavy smokers. Logistic regression was employed to investigate the association of cigarette smoking and patterns of food consumption, physical activity, and alcohol drinking. After controlling for age, socioeconomic status, and city residence, heavy smokers consumed significantly less vegetables, fruits, milk and other dairy products, spent significantly more time watching television, slept and exercised less, and got drunk or engaged in binge drinking more frequently compared to never, ex-, or current smokers (p < 0.05).\",\n \"Although childhood socioeconomic disadvantage has been linked with adolescent tobacco and alcohol use in cross-sectional research, less is known about the influence of changes in socioeconomic status during childhood. Upward socioeconomic mobility may attenuate the negative influence of earlier socioeconomic disadvantage on health, while downward mobility may counter the health benefits of earlier socioeconomic advantage. This study evaluated the influence of common trajectories of family income during childhood on smoking and alcohol use during adolescence. Data utilized were part of the 15-year longitudinal Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development. A 5-class trajectory model (two stable, one downward, and two upward income trajectories) was developed previously with this sample (N=1356). Logistic regression analyses were conducted to determine whether children of the more disadvantaged income trajectories were more likely to engage in tobacco and alcohol use at age 15 relative to those of the most advantaged trajectory. Family income trajectory was significantly associated with ever-smoking (p=.02) and past-year alcohol use at age 15years (p=.008). Children from the less advantaged trajectories were more likely to have ever-smoked than children of the most advantaged trajectory (all p's<.05). Children of the downwardly mobile trajectory were more likely to have used alcohol within the past year than children of the most advantaged trajectories as well as the most disadvantaged trajectory (all p's<.05).\",\n \"There are few observational studies of school and class risk factors for smoking behavior in preadolescence. A cohort study of 2,883 children recruited in the fifth grade with follow-up in sixth grade was undertaken. Information on school and class factors was collected from principals and teachers of 91 schools. A decreased risk of smoking uptake was associated with exposure to short antitobacco education prior to the fifth grade (compared to no education). Problematic interpersonal relations in the class were associated with a relative risk of smoking initiation of 1.42 (confidence interval 1.05, 1.93) compared to positive interpersonal relations. This excess risk was not mediated by class smoking prevalence in the fifth grade. School policy and school characteristics were not significantly associated with preadolescents' smoking.\",\n \"Daily cigarette smoking among US adolescents remains a significant public health problem. Understanding risk is important in order to develop strategies to reduce this type of tobacco use. The primary objective of this research was to examine whether rural residency is an independent risk factor for being a daily smoker among adolescents ages 12 to 18 years. This is a cross-sectional study where univariate, bivariate, and multivariate analyses were performed on a merged 1997-2003 Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System dataset to determine whether rural residence was a significant risk factor for daily cigarette smoking, after adjusting for demographic factors. Using daily smoking as the dependent variable, initial multivariate analyses revealed that adolescents who lived either in suburban (OR=.34, CI=.32, .36) or urban (OR=.33, CI=.31, .35) locales were less likely to become daily smokers than adolescents living in rural locales. Subsequent logistic regression analysis yielded that rural youths who became daily smokers were more likely to: have used smokeless tobacco products in the past 12 months (OR=1.25, CI=1.04,1.51); be female (OR=1.42, CI=1.23, 1.64); be Caucasian (OR=1.53, CI=1.28, 1.84); have first smoked a whole cigarette when they were 12 years of age or younger (OR=2.08, CI=1.82, 2.38); and have smoked at school in the past 30 days (OR=14.52, CI=11.97, 17.60).\",\n \"yes. Concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence is associated with characteristics that are well known as risk factors for later alcohol use problems and dependence and that should be targeted by prevention programs.\",\n \"yes. The present findings indicate that parent smoking contributes to the onset of daily smoking in their teenagers even if parents practice good family management, hold norms against teen tobacco use, and do not involve their children in their own tobacco use. Smoking prevention programs should include components focused on parents of adolescents. To reduce risks for daily smoking among adolescents, it is important to encourage parents to stop or reduce their own smoking. In addition, these data indicate that parents can reduce their children's risk of daily smoking initiation by reducing family conflict, by maintaining strong bonds with their children, by setting clear rules, and by closely monitoring their children's behaviors.\",\n \"There is substantial research linking tobacco and alcohol use to subsequent cannabis use, yet the specificity of this relationship is still under debate. The aim of this study was to examine which substance use model--the gateway hypothesis, the common liability (CL) model and/or the route of administration model--best explains the relationship between early onset of tobacco and alcohol use and subsequent cannabis use initiation. We used data from 2,113 (51% female) Dutch adolescents who participated in three consecutive assessment waves (mean age: 11.09, 13.56, and 16.27 years, respectively) of the TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey study. (Pre)adolescent cannabis, tobacco and alcohol use was assessed using the Youth Self-Report and a TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey developed questionnaire. We found that, during adolescence, early onset of tobacco use does not pose a significantly higher risk of initiating cannabis use than early onset alcohol use. Therefore, we can rule out the route of administration model. Moreover, we found that adolescents who reported early onset comorbid use of both tobacco and alcohol have a higher likelihood to initiate cannabis use than adolescents who have tried either tobacco or alcohol. The gateway hypothesis is not broad enough to explain this finding. Therefore, the CL model best predicts our findings.\",\n \"yes. Outcome expectancies for affect management emerged as an important risk factor for smoking escalation and the development of nicotine dependence during adolescence. The present findings highlight the potential importance of cognitively-driven expectancies as a risk factor for smoking escalation during this critical developmental period.\",\n \"The tobacco industry contends that parenting practices, not marketing practices, are critical to youth smoking. Our objective was to examine whether tobacco-industry marketing practices undermine the protective effect of recommended authoritative parenting against adolescent smoking. Receptivity to tobacco advertising and promotions was assessed in 1996 from a representative sample of California adolescent never-smokers aged 12 to 14 years. A follow-up survey of 1641 of these adolescents was conducted in 1999 that included measures of the key components of authoritative parenting: parental responsiveness, monitoring, and limit setting. Smoking initiation in adolescents. Adolescents in families with more-authoritative parents were half as likely to smoke by follow-up as adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents (20% vs 41%, p<0.0001). In families with more-authoritative parents, adolescents who were highly receptive to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions were significantly more likely to smoke (odds ratio=3.52, 95% confidence interval =1.10-11.23), compared to those who were minimally receptive. This effect was not significant in adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents. The overall attributable risk (adjusted for exposure to peer smokers) of smoking from tobacco-industry advertising and promotions was 25%. However, an estimated 40% of adolescent smoking in families with more-authoritative parents was attributable to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions; this was five times the attributable risk seen in families with less-authoritative parents (8%).\",\n \"E-cigarette use has been linked to onset of cigarette smoking among adolescents, but some commentators have suggested that this simply reflects high-risk adolescents being more likely to use e-cigarettes and to smoke. We tested whether the effect of e-cigarette use for smoking onset differs for youth who are lower versus higher on propensity to smoke. School-based survey with a longitudinal sample of 1136 students (9th-11th graders, mean age 14.7 years) in Hawaii, initially surveyed in 2013 (T1) and followed up 1 year later (T2). We assessed e-cigarette use, propensity to smoke based on 3 psychosocial factors known to predict smoking (rebelliousness, parental support and willingness to smoke), and cigarette smoking status. Analyses based on T1 never-smokers tested the relation of T1 e-cigarette use to T2 smoking status for participants lower versus higher on T1 propensity to smoke. The relation between T1 e-cigarette use and T2 smoking onset was stronger among participants with lower levels of rebelliousness and willingness and higher levels of parental support. A multiple logistic regression analysis with T2 smoking as the criterion tested the cross-product of T1 e-cigarette use and T1 smoking propensity score; the interaction (OR=0.88, p=0.01) indicated a significantly larger effect for smoking onset among lower risk youth.\",\n \"yes. ADHD, particularly the comorbid subtype, is a significant risk factor for early initiation of cigarette smoking in children and adolescents. Considering the prevalence and early childhood onset of ADHD, these findings highlight the importance of smoking prevention and cessation programs for children and adolescents with ADHD.\",\n \"Studies of adolescent smoking suggest that the causes of smoking initiation may differ for Blacks and Whites. Correlates of smoking initiation were examined among 1,277 nonsmokers, ages 12-14, who completed questionnaires in their homes. The analyses examined relationships between smoking initiation and 11 explanatory variables using logistic regression with the combined sample and with Black and White samples. Over two years, 24 percent of Whites and 14 percent of Blacks started to smoke. Whites were more likely to start smoking at age 12 and Blacks at age 14. Having a best friend who smoked increased the odds of initiating smoking over twofold for Whites but had no effect on the odds of smoking for Blacks.\",\n \"yes. Greater acculturation predicted higher abstinence rates, but this relationship was restricted to men. This study is among the first to examine the effects of gender and acculturation on smoking abstinence among Latinos. Findings highlight the need for research focused on mechanisms underlying these relationships.\",\n \"A previous paper used latent class analysis to assign individuals to 1 of 4 adolescent/young adult smoking trajectory classes and then established an association between maternal smoking before, during, and after pregnancy and these classes. In this paper, we examine one possible pathway for this relationship: that maternal smoking during pregnancy may set off a behavioral trajectory which increases the likelihood of problem behaviors generally, of which smoking is one manifestation. We used the Behavior Problems Index measure from age 8 through age 12 as a potential mediator. We used a path analysis modeling approach within a multinomial logistic regression (using Mplus) to estimate direct and indirect effects (via behavioral problems) between maternal smoking pattern and child trajectory class. We found small but statistically significant indirect effects via behavioral problems from maternal smoking to child smoking trajectory for membership in all 3 smoking classes, relative to the nonsmoking trajectory, indicating partial mediation. Mediated effects were associated with maternal smoking after pregnancy, no statistically significant mediated effects were found for smoking before or during pregnancy.\",\n \"Smokers who initiate as adults are more likely to quit than those who initiate as adolescents. Black women are more likely than White women to initiate smoking in adulthood and are less likely to quit. There is a paucity of research examining whether the smoking cessation advantage among adult initiators applies to Black women. The study objective is to examine race differences in the effect of developmental stage of smoking initiation on number of years until cessation among Black and White women. Data were extracted from the National Longitudinal Survey of Young Women, a national cohort of women between the ages of 49 and 61 years in 2003. The analytic sample comprised 1,008 White women and 271 Black women with a history of smoking. Survival analysis procedures were utilized to address the study objective. Racial disparities in smoking cessation were most evident among women who initiated smoking as adults. White young adult initiators had a 31% increased hazard of smoking cessation advantage (adjusted hazards ratio [HR]: 1.31, 95% CI: 1.04-1.65) over adolescent initiators, whereas Black young adult initiators had no smoking cessation advantage (adjusted HR: 0.85, CI: 95% 0.55-1.30) over adolescent initiators.\",\n \"Secondhand smoke (SHS) exposure of children due to parental tobacco use is a particularly prevalent health issue and is associated with adverse health outcomes. Following the US Clinical Practice guidelines, pediatricians in the United States deliver 5A's (ask, advise, assess, assist, and arrange) counseling to smoking parents which has proven to be effective. We examined Chinese pediatricians' adherence to the clinical practice guidelines for smoking cessation (i.e. 5A's counseling practices) with smoking parents, and identified factors associated with these practices. A cross-sectional paper-and-pencil survey of pediatricians was conducted in twelve conveniently selected southern Chinese hospitals. Factors associated with any of the 5A's smoking cessation counseling practices were identified by logistic regression. Of respondents (504/550), only 26 % routinely provided 5A's smoking cessation counseling to smoking parents. More than 80 % of pediatricians didn't receive formal training in smoking cessation and had not read China smoking cessation guidelines; 24 % reported being \\\"very confident\\\" in discussing smoking or SHS reduction with parents. Pediatricians who had never smoked (OR: 2.29, CI:1.02-5.12), received training in smoking cessation (OR: 2.50, CI:1.40-4.48), had read China smoking cessation guidelines (OR: 2.17, CI:1.10-4.26), and felt very (OR: 7.12, CI:2.45-20.70) or somewhat (OR: 3.05, CI:1.11-8.37) confident in delivering cessation counseling were more likely to practice 5A's. Pediatricians who reported \\\"it is hard to find a time to talk with parents\\\" (OR: 0.32, CI: 0.11-0.92) or \\\"lack of a standard of care requiring pediatricians to provide smoking cessation or SHS exposure reduction intervention\\\" (OR: 0.45, CI: 0.21-0.98) as a barrier were less likely to follow the 5A's guidelines.\",\n \"Annual national cross-sectional surveys (2002-2004 combined) with multi-ethnic sample of 91,219 Year 10 students from New Zealand who answered a questionnaire on personal and parental smoking. Maternal smoking and paternal smoking were associated separately with increased risk of daily adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups except paternal smoking in Asian youth. The relative risk of adolescent daily smoking (adjusted for age and sex) was significantly higher for maternal only smoking compared with paternal only smoking in each ethnic group: Asians 5.50 (95% CI: 3.55-8.52), Europeans 1.38 (1.26-1.52), Pacific Islanders 1.38 (1.10-1.73), and Maori 1.10 (1.00-1.21). The excess maternal effect varied inversely with smoking prevalence. The net effects of maternal and parental smoking are additive among European, Maori, and Pacific Island students, but multiplicative in Asian. Overall, about 40% of adolescent daily smokers could be attributed to parental smoking.\",\n \"To assess the relationship between household smoking restrictions and smoking patterns among Chinese American adults. This is a cross-sectional analysis based on a National Institutes of Health-funded population-based household and telephone survey of 2537 Chinese American adults. Two communities in New York City. The analyses focused on male current smokers (N = 600). Demographic characteristics, smoking status, household smoking restrictions, cigarettes smoked per day, and past quit attempts were based on self-reported data. Among current smokers, 37% reported living in a home with a complete smoking ban. Smokers with a full household smoking ban smoked fewer cigarettes on weekdays and weekends than smokers with no household smoking ban (p < or = .05) and were 3.4 times (p < .01) more likely to report having at least one quit attempt in the past 12 months. Smokers with knowledge of the dangers of environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) exposure were 2.8 times (p < or = .01) more likely to have at least one quit attempt in the last 12 months compared with those who were unaware of the danger of ETS and more likely to live in a smoke-free household.\",\n \"yes. Findings suggest significant associations of heavy cigarette smoking with other health-risk behaviors in Chinese male adults, underscoring the need for tobacco control interventions for Chinese males.\",\n \"Multi-ethnic adolescents may be at increased risk for smoking and may have easier access to cigarettes. Culturally targeted smoking prevention interventions for adolescents should address the unique social challenges faced by multi-ethnic adolescents that may increase their risk for smoking.\",\n \"Smoking initiation seldom occurs after emerging adulthood, making prevention critical during this phase of the life course. Among emerging adults, Hispanics have an especially high risk for cigarette use. Emerging adulthood scholars suggest role transitions commonly experienced by this age group may lead to substance use including cigarette experimentation and/or progression, contributing to the high smoking rates exhibited by Hispanics. Hispanic emerging adults (aged 18-24) completed surveys indicating which of a comprehensive list of role transitions they had experienced in the past year. Separate logistic regression models explored the association between each individual role transition and smoking in the past 30 days, controlling for age and gender and using a Bonferonni correction. Among the sample of emerging adults (n = 1,390), 41% were male, the average age was 21, and about 21% reported cigarette use in the past 30 days. Losing a job, becoming a family member's caregiver, starting to date someone new, experiencing a breakup, being arrested, and becoming addicted to illicit drugs and/or alcohol were all associated with smoking.\",\n \"The purpose of the study was to better understand early risk for positive smoking expectancies, which have been shown to be consistent predictors of smoking initiation among youth. Two affect-based risk factors-negative urgency and emotion dysregulation-associated with smoking behaviors among youth, were examined for unique and interactive effects on positive smoking expectancies among substance-naïve youth. Participants were 61 10-14-year-old children with virtually no drug use (less than 5 substance use incidents across the lifetime), who were drawn from the community. Both negative urgency and emotion dysregulation were significantly associated with positive social facilitation smoking expectancies. Further, negative urgency was significantly related to positive social facilitation smoking expectancies at higher levels of emotion dysregulation (b=.09, p=.001).\",\n \"yes. Acculturation was associated with cessation following a group-based intervention. Culturally specific adaptations to established interventions might improve outcomes for traditional smokers.\",\n \"yes. A concerning minority of adolescent survivors have clear intentions to smoke, a behavior that adds to their overall health risk. Smoking intentions and experimentation are important precursors to regular smoking. Prevention efforts are needed to interrupt the progression from intentions and experimentation to established smoking and nicotine dependence in this medically vulnerable population.\",\n \"To report on the prevalence and correlates of smoking and sexual activity in a community sample of Hong Kong Chinese adolescents. Participants (N = 4116) aged 13 to 18 years were surveyed regarding smoking and physical heterosexual activity, relationships with family members, family involvement, social support, school performance and emotional adjustment. Data were analyzed using logistic regression analyses. About 30% of participants reported ever smoking and 3.5% reported sexual intercourse. Current smoking was correlated with age, school performance and quality of relationship with mother. Sexual intercourse was correlated with age, gender, family involvement and social support. Smoking and sexual activity were significantly correlated with each other. Smoking and increasing levels of heterosexual physical contact were negatively correlated with emotional adjustment, even after controlling for common predictors to health-endangering behaviors and emotional adjustment.\",\n \"African-Americans suffer disproportionately from tobacco-associated morbidity and mortality. Considering the relationship between cultural variables and cessation may be important for reducing disparities. This study aimed to examine acculturation as a predictor of smoking cessation following a standard group intervention. Treatment-seeking smokers (N = 140) participated in a group intervention for cessation plus transdermal nicotine patch therapy and completed the African American Acculturation Scale-Revised at baseline. The primary outcome was self-reported 7-day point prevalence abstinence at the end-of-counseling and 3 and 6 months postintervention. Adjusted logistic regression analyses found that acculturation predicted end-of-counseling and 3-month 7-day point prevalence abstinence; traditional African-Americans (i.e., less acculturated) were less likely to quit smoking. Cultural superstitions, religious beliefs and practices, and interracial attitudes were predictive of smoking cessation.\",\n \"To examine the association of acculturation with various cardiovascular risk factors (CRFs) among Latinos with diabetes in South Florida. In a cross-sectional analysis of data collected from 300 Latinos with poorly controlled diabetes we measured acculturation using the Marin Short Acculturation Scale. We examined correlations between acculturation and the following 7 CRFs: hemoglobin A1C, low-density lipoprotein, systolic blood pressure, body mass index, smoking status, physical activity, and fruit and vegetable intake. Cubans made up 38% of our population; no other Latino subgroup represented over 17% of the sample. Of the 8 outcomes examined, only smoking was associated with increased acculturation; 12% of Latinos in the 2 lowest acculturation groups were current smokers versus 25% in the highest acculturation group (P=0.02). Furthermore, Cuban Americans from our sample had over double the prevalence of smoking compared with non-Cubans in both the lowest and highest acculturation groups.\",\n \"US-born Mexican-American women had a slightly increased risk of preterm birth despite having more adequate prenatal care, more education, and higher socioeconomic indicators. This may be due to acculturation factors, such as earlier pregnancy, loss of social support systems, and increased smoking or alcohol use. Reducing this risk depends on recognition among health care workers and policy-makers of the potential influence of acculturation on health in this population.\",\n \"In the U.S., Latino and Asian American immigrants and ethnic minorities may be at increased risk for alcohol and drug use disorders (AUDs/DUDs). The role of psychosocial and contextual characteristics as potential factors underlying this increased risk is unresolved. Participants include 4649 adults from the National Latino and Asian American Study. Logistic regression was used to determine the relationship between acculturation, acculturative stress, neighborhood characteristics, family characteristics, and discrimination and AUDs/DUDs. Models were stratified by age of immigration and ethnicity and controlled for demographic and mental health characteristics. Overall, 9.6% of Latino and 4.1% of Asian participants met criteria for lifetime AUDs/DUDs. Acculturation, family conflict, and discrimination were positively associated with AUDs/DUDs (odds ratios [ORs] and 95% confidence intervals [95%CIs]: 1.80[1.54-2.09], 1.24[1.12-1.36], and 1.54[1.38-1.73]), while neighborhood safety and family cohesion were protective for AUDs/DUDs (ORs[95%CIs]: 0.75[0.66-0.85] and 0.79[0.69-0.90]). Acculturative stress and neighborhood cohesion were not related to AUDs/DUDs. The relationships between family conflict and family cohesion with AUDs/DUDs were attenuated after accounting for other psychosocial and contextual factors. These relationships were generally consistent across ethnic and age of immigration subgroups.\",\n \"While the majority of high school students do not become regular smokers after initiating smoking, earlier initiation of smoking is associated with subsequent regular smoking irrespective of sex or race/ethnicity. These findings have potentially important implications for intervention targeting.\",\n \"Although differing levels of family influences may explain some of the varying racial/ethnic trends in adolescent smoking behavior, clarification of which influences are protective against smoking may aid in the development of future ethnic-specific smoking prevention interventions. We sought to identify and compare the association of family influences on adolescent smoking among Black, Hispanic, and White adolescents in a cross-sectional national sample. Data from 6,426 parent-child dyads from Round 1 of the National Survey of Parents and Youth were analyzed. The association of family influences with ever-smokers and recent smokers was evaluated. Multinomial logistic regression using SUDAAN software was used. While all measures of family influences except for parent-adolescent activities and intention to monitor were significantly protective against recent smoking and ever smoking among Whites, ethnic-specific family influence predictors of smoking were found in Blacks and Hispanics. Higher parental monitoring, higher intention to monitor, and higher connectedness were protective among Hispanics, while higher parental punishment and favorable attitude toward monitoring were protective against smoking among Blacks. For family influences significantly associated with protection against smoking, consistently greater protection was afforded against recent smoking than against ever smoking.\",\n \"yes. These findings add to accumulating evidence that early emerging dependence symptoms reported at low levels of smoking exposure signal a greater propensity for continued smoking behavior. Screening for these early emerging symptoms among novice adolescent smokers represents an important and unused tool in tobacco control efforts aimed at preventing the development of chronic smoking patterns.\",\n \"yes. Higher levels of family influences are protective against smoking among all racial/ethnic groups. There are consistencies in family influences on youth smoking; however, there may be specific family influences that should be differentially emphasized within racial/ethnic groups in order to protect against smoking behavior. Our results offer insight for designing strategies for preventing smoking in youth of different racial/ethnic backgrounds.\",\n \"yes. The stress associated with navigating through changes in critical periods of the life course may lead some emerging adults to smoke. Future research should be directed toward determining what specific mechanisms make these transitional processes risk factors for smoking. These determinations could prove critical if effective prevention programs are to be designed that lead to a decrease in the smoking prevalence among Hispanic emerging adults.\",\n \"We describe the epidemiology of smoking behaviors in a national young adult sample and identify common and unique demographic, social, and psychological correlates of daily smoking and lifetime and current nicotine dependence by race/ethnicity. Data are from the National Longitudinal Survey of Adolescent Health, wave III. Dependence was measured by the Revised Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence. Logistic regressions were estimated. Hispanic ethnicity, low education, parental and peer smoking, novelty seeking, early age of smoking onset, and pleasurable initial smoking experiences are significantly correlated with daily smoking and lifetime nicotine dependence. Depressive symptoms are uniquely associated with lifetime and current dependence. Few factors are highly associated with current dependence. Initial sensitivity to smoking has a significantly greater impact on daily smoking than on dependence. Correlates of smoking behaviors are mostly common across racial/ethnic groups, although parental and peer smoking are significant for Whites and Hispanics but not for African Americans.\",\n \"To examine developmental patterns and family influences on the risk of daily smoking initiation from adolescence to young adulthood. A gender-balanced, ethnically diverse urban sample of 808 children aged 10-11 years was surveyed in 1985 and followed prospectively to age 21 in 1996. Discrete-time survival analysis was used to assess the hazard of initiation of daily smoking during this time period, as well as the effects of family factors on the risk of daily smoking initiation. Less parental smoking, more strict family monitoring and rules, and stronger family bonding predicted a significantly lower risk of daily smoking initiation controlling for socio-demographic background. The decline in the impact of family bonding over time was marginally significant; however, none of the interactions between family factors and time were significant, indicating generally consistent family influences on daily smoking from age 10 to 21.\",\n \"To investigate the associations between generational status, acculturation and substance use among immigrant and non-immigrant secondary school students in New Zealand. A nationally representative sample of secondary school students in New Zealand was selected using a two-stage cluster sample design. Of the 8,999 students in the sample, 23.81% were first-generation immigrants and 20.90% were second-generation immigrants; the remaining 55.29% students are collectively referred to as 'non-immigrant' peers. Logistic regression models adjusted the associations of interest for age, gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status and experience of ethnic discrimination. First and second-generation immigrants showed significantly lower risks of smoking cigarettes compared with their non-immigrant peers. Similar trends were apparent for consuming alcohol and marijuana weekly. The inclusion of some characteristics suggestive of acculturation in multivariable models did not influence the relationship between generational status and smoking cigarettes, but attenuated the apparent protective effect of being a first-generation immigrant with regard to alcohol and marijuana use.\",\n \"Evidence that age of smoking initiation represents a risk factor for regular smoking in adolescence is complicated by inconsistencies in the operational definition of smoking initiation and simultaneous inclusion of age as an explanatory variable. The aim of this study was to examine the relationship between age, age of smoking initiation and subsequent regular smoking. A secondary analysis was conducted of the U.S. Youth Risk Behavior Survey 2011. A sex stratified multivariable logistic regression analysis was used to model the likelihood of regular smoking with age and age of smoking initiation as explanatory variables and race/ethnicity as a covariate. After controlling for race/ethnicity, age and age of smoking initiation were independently associated with regular smoking in males and females. Independent of age, a one year's decrease in the age of smoking initiation was associated with a 1.27 times increase in odds of regular smoking in females (95% CI: 1.192-1.348); and similar associations for males (OR: 1.28; 95% CI: 1.216-1.341).\",\n \"These results show that parental smoking is a consistent risk factor for adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups. Prevention strategies targeted at parents may help limit the uptake of smoking by adolescents.\",\n \"Although ethnic differences in adolescent smoking have been well documented, smoking among multi-ethnic adolescents has received little research attention. This study examined smoking prevalence and tobacco related psychosocial risk factors among multi-ethnic adolescents in California, as compared with white, African American, Asian American, and Hispanic adolescents. This study used a cross sectional design. Data were obtained from the independent evaluation of the California Tobacco Control, Prevention, and Education Program. Students completed a paper-and-pencil survey in their classrooms. Data were collected from a stratified random sample of 5072 eighth grade students (age 13-14 years) in California during the 1996-97 school year. The data were weighted by school enrollment in analyses to make the estimates representative of the population of California students attending public schools. Outcome variables included self reported smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, access to tobacco, and related attitudes, beliefs, and behaviours. Ethnicity was assessed with a self reported, \\\"check all that apply\\\" question. Results indicated that multi-ethnic adolescents were at higher risk than single-ethnic adolescents on several variables, including 30 day cigarette smoking prevalence, lifetime smokeless tobacco use, buying cigarettes, receiving cigarette offers, and expected friends' reaction if the respondent smoked. For several other variables (lifetime cigarette smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, and number of friends who smoked), Hispanic adolescents were at higher risk than all other ethnic groups including multi-ethnic adolescents. Although susceptibility to smoking was highest among Hispanics, multi-ethnic adolescents scored significantly higher on susceptibility than the three other single-ethnic groups.\",\n \"Identifying ethnic differences in the age of smoking onset from nationally representative data can lead to improved targeted prevention programs and policies to combat smoking in ethnic communities. Analyzing data from the Tobacco Use Supplements of the U.S. Census Bureau's Current Population Surveys throughout the 1990s, differences in the age of regular smoking onset among Asians/Pacific Islanders (A/PI), African Americans (AA), Hispanics/Latinos (H/L) and non-Hispanic whites (WH) are reported. Data on people aged 26 to 50 years at the time of the survey interview (n =130,356; mean age=38.4 years; 47.9% male; 1.9% A/PI, 7.8% AA, 5.2% H/L, and 85.1% WH) were examined. Results indicate significant ethnic disparities in when people start smoking, among A/PIs in particular, and AAs and H/Ls to a lesser degree, who initiate regular smoking at later ages than do WHs. The majority of A/PIs and AAs initiated smoking as young adults, with almost half (47.8%) of A/PIs who were ever regular smokers starting between ages 18 and 21, compared with 39.8% of AAs, 37.5% of H/Ls, and 36.7% of WHs.\",\n \"yes. Smoking was associated with poor SRH among Chinese adolescents, especially girls. This finding is useful for discouraging smoking initiation and motivating quitting in adolescent smokers.\",\n \"yes. Factors such as acculturation, discrimination, and neighborhood safety, are robustly and largely universally related to AUDs/DUDs among first and later generation Latino and Asian immigrants. Further research is required to understand how and why these factors relate to risk of substance misuse, and to identify ways to apply these factors in prevention and intervention efforts.\",\n \"These findings indicate significant ethnic disparities in relation to when people start smoking, with the majority of A/PIs and AAs initiating as young adults. The findings suggest that prevention strategies should begin at a young age and continue throughout young adulthood, especially among ethnic minority populations. Further consideration of the different influences on later initiation in ethnic minorities may lead to suggestions to improve current smoking-prevention programs aimed at adolescents and young adults.\",\n \"To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.\",\n \"Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":139,"string":"139"}}},{"rowIdx":273171,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Decrease in asthma mortality rate in Israel from 1991-1995: is it related to increased use of inhaled corticosteroids?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period.","We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging."],"string":"[\n \"Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period.\",\n \"We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["An increased incidence of pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) under inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy was noticed in previous studies. We performed a prospective study to elucidate the risk factors for the development of pneumonia in this group of patients. A prospective, non-randomized study with patients diagnosed as having COPD from 2007 to 2008 identified in the Far Eastern Memorial Hospital were recruited. We recorded data for all patients, including clinical features and signs, demographic data, lung function status, and medications. Bio-markers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and placenta growth factor (PlGF) were checked at first diagnosis. Every acute exacerbation was also recorded, especially pneumonia events, which were confirmed by chest radiography. Multivariate analysis was performed with stepwise logistic regression for pneumonia risk factors. 274 patients were diagnosed as having COPD during the study period and 29 patients suffered from pneumonia with a prevalence of 10.6%. The rate was significantly higher in patients with ICS therapy (20/125, 16%) compared with those without ICS (9/149, 6%) (p = 0.02). We stratified ICS therapy into medium dose (500-999 ug/day fluticasone equivalent, 71 patients) and high dose (1000 ug/day and higher fluticasone equivalent, 54 patients) group. There was no statistical difference in the incidence of pneumonia between these two group (medium dose: 13/71, 18.3% vs. high dose: 7/54, 12.9%, p = 0.47). Multivariate analysis was performed to identify the risk factors for developing pneumonia and included forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) less than 40% of predicted (odds ratio (OR) 2.2, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.1-6.9), ICS prescription ((OR) 2.4, 95% (CI): 1.3-8.7), the presence of diabetes mellitus (DM) (OR 2.6, 95% CI: 1.2-9.4) and PlGF level over 40 pg/L (OR 4.1, 95% CI: 1.5-9.9).","Asthma guidelines should lead to improved, more rational asthma medication prescribing. The aims of this study were to assess trends in paediatric asthma drug prescribing in the UK and to assess the potential impact of the publication of the British Thoracic Society (BTS) asthma guideline. The estimated community paediatric prescribing figures for asthma medications in the UK were studied using data from the NHS Information Centre for Health and Social Care for the years 2000-2006. The numbers of prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups decreased by 60% from 2000 to 2006. However, this still represents 121,000 prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups in 2006 despite minimal recommendations for their use. The percentage of steroid inhalers prescribed as combination inhalers of a steroid and a long-acting beta agonist increased from 2.6% in 2000 to 20.6% in 2006.","To determine whether children with asthma and on inhaled corticosteroids have more behavioural problems, such as aggressiveness and hyperactivity, as compared with healthy controls and with children under medical care because of other disorders. Questionnaires were given to three groups of children: a group of asthmatic children with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), a group of children attending the ear, nose and throat (ENT) outpatient clinic and the healthy controls. Included were questions about health, medication use, demographical data and about behaviour, including the child behaviour check list (CBCL) and questions about attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Forty asthmatic children on ICS, 50 children visiting the ENT outpatient clinic and 183 healthy controls were studied. The total CBCL and mean ADHD scores of the children on ICS were 28.1 and 9.1, which were both significantly higher than the scores of the healthy controls (20.4 and 7.1), but not when compared with the ENT outpatient group (26.2 and 8.6). Further analysis revealed statistically significant differences between the ICS group and healthy controls in CBCL-axes. There were, however, no differences between the ENT group and the ICS on one side and the healthy controls on the other.","To assess any outcome differences between young men and women who are admitted for asthma. We conducted a retrospective cohort study based on hospitalizations. An inclusion criterion was admission for asthma between January 1, 1998 and July 1, 2001. Exclusion criteria included age>45, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and emphysema. Data were collected on 10 potential confounding variables. Four outcome variables were assessed, including length of stay, intensive care unit (ICU) length of stay, mortality, and respiratory failure. Patients admitted for asthma were significantly more likely to be female (374 females vs. 106 males, p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders comparing month of admission. The women were significantly older, with more Medicaid insured, and more anxiety/depression (p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders for obesity, race, tobacco history, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), hypertension, diabetes, and pneumonia. There was no reported mortality. Using regression analysis, there was no difference between the genders for length of stay (odds ratio [OR] = 1.06, 95% confidence interval [CI]0.97-1.17) and respiratory failure (OR = 1.58, 95% CI 0.53-4.76). Men stayed significantly longer in the ICU (OR = 1.18, 95% CI 1.01-1.38).","To examine the effect of the level of patient copayment on the rate of purchase of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) by patients with obstructive lung disease. Cross-sectional study of records of all prescriptions for ICS dispensed to general and concessional beneficiaries aged 15 years or over in the period January 2003 to December 2006. Data were obtained from the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme, which subsidises medication costs for all Australians. The number of prescriptions for ICS dispensed to government concession card holders compared with the number dispensed to general beneficiaries, expressed as a rate ratio. ICS prescriptions were dispensed to over 1.6 million people during the study period. Concession card holders were dispensed ICS prescriptions at a higher rate than general beneficiaries, both overall (43.7 v 9.1 ICS prescriptions per 100 person-years) and in all population subgroups. After adjusting for age, sex, remoteness category and socioeconomic status, people holding a concession card were dispensed over 2.5 times the number of ICS prescriptions (alone or in combination with a long-acting beta(2)-agonist) compared with general beneficiaries. Similar patterns were seen after adjusting for differences between the two groups in the prevalence of obstructive lung disease.","To analyse coronary heart disease (CHD) mortality and risk factor trends in the West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory between 1998 and 2009. Modelling study using CHD IMPACT model. The West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory. Data on populations, mortality, patient groups and numbers, treatments and cardiovascular risk factor trends were obtained from national and local surveys, routine national and WHO statistics, and critically appraised. Data were then integrated and analysed using a previously validated CHD model. CHD deaths prevented or postponed are the main outcome. CHD death rates fell by 20% in the West Bank, between 1998 and 2009. Smoking prevalence was initially high in men, 51%, but decreased to 42%. Population blood pressure levels and total cholesterol levels also decreased. Conversely, body mass index rose by 1-2 kg/m(2) and diabetes increased by 2-8%. Population modelling suggested that more than two-thirds of the mortality fall was attributable to decreases in major risk factors, mainly total cholesterol, blood pressure and smoking. Approximately one-third of the CHD mortality decreases were attributable to treatments, particularly for secondary prevention and heart failure. However, the contributions from statins, surgery and angioplasty were consistently small.","A core feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the accelerated decline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1). The recent Groningen and Leiden Universities study of Corticosteroids in Obstructive Lung Disease (GLUCOLD) study suggested that particular phenotypes of COPD benefit from fluticasone±salmeterol by reducing the rate of FEV1 decline, yet the underlying mechanisms are unknown. Whole-genome gene expression profiling using the Affymetrix Gene ST array (V.1.0) was performed on 221 bronchial biopsies available from 89 COPD patients at baseline and after 6 and 30 months of fluticasone±salmeterol and placebo treatment in GLUCOLD. Linear mixed effects modelling revealed that the expression of 138 genes decreased, whereas the expression of 140 genes significantly upregulated after both 6 and 30 months of treatment with fluticasone±salmeterol versus placebo. A more pronounced treatment-induced change in the expression of 50 and 55 of these 278 genes was associated with a lower rate of decline in FEV1 and Saint George Respiratory Questionnaire, respectively. Genes decreasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to cell cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, epithelial cell signalling, p53 signalling and T cell signalling. Genes increasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to focal adhesion, gap junction and extracellular matrix deposition. Finally, the fluticasone-induced gene expression changes were enriched among genes that change in the airway epithelium in smokers with versus without COPD in an independent data set.","Concern over the safety of influenza vaccination in individuals with obstructive airways disease has contributed to suboptimal rates of vaccine uptake in this group. We investigated the safety of influenza vaccine in older people with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a cohort from the UK General Practice Research Database (GPRD). A population based cohort study of 12,000 individuals with asthma or COPD from 432 general practices was conducted. Incidence rate ratios (IRR) were calculated for asthma or COPD diagnoses, prescriptions for oral corticosteroids, and acute exacerbations on the day of vaccination and on days 1-2 and 3-14 after vaccination compared with other time periods in the influenza season. The IRRs for asthma or COPD diagnoses and oral corticosteroid prescriptions were increased on the day of vaccination (for example, the IRR for oral corticosteroid prescriptions for subjects with asthma during the 1992-3 influenza season was 8.24 (95% confidence interval 5.54 to 12.26)). However, there was no consistent increase in the IRR of any of the outcomes on days 1-2 or 3-14 after vaccination, and most of these IRRs were close to 1. Rates of exacerbation were low and showed no consistent statistically significant increase during any risk periods.","To determine whether inhaled corticosteroids can be discontinued in the stable phase of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or if this therapy should be continued. Nonrandomized open uncontrolled 5-year trial. Prospective study in general practice. Forty-eight patients with steroid-dependent asthma or COPD who had shown a decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of at least 80 mL per year and at least one exacerbation per year during the first 2 years of bronchodilator treatment. Subjects were treated additionally with inhaled steroids for another 2 years and were finally given the option to stop using steroids. Sixteen patients were willing to stop using beclomethasone and were studied for another year. No recruitment bias took place in this consecutive sample in the fifth year of follow-up. Two of 16 patients developed carcinomas and dropped out. Two years of bronchodilator treatment alone (400 micrograms of salbutamol or 40 micrograms of ipratropium bromide four times daily), followed by 2 years of additional inhaled corticosteroid treatment (400 micrograms of beclomethasone two times daily), and finally 1 year of bronchodilator treatment alone. Decline in lung function (FEV1), change in bronchial hyperresponsiveness, indicated by a provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% fall in FEV1 (PC20), morning peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), diurnal PEFR, week-to-week variation of PEFR, bronchial symptoms, and exacerbations. The course of FEV1 during the year in which beclomethasone was discontinued was not significantly different when compared with the 2-year period of beclomethasone treatment. Neither did the course of PC20, morning PEFR, diurnal PEFR, symptom score, and exacerbation rate change. Only the week-to-week variation of the PEFR increased after discontinuing steroids.","no. Clinically meaningful improvements in the control of asthma and in airway responsiveness achieved during continuous treatment with inhaled corticosteroids do not persist after continuous treatment is discontinued.","Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.","yes. Based on the preponderance of evidence, treatment with inhaled corticosteroids in infants and young children with recurrent wheeze and risk factors of developing asthma appears to allow better control of the illness and improve the pulmonary function.","The prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis and physician-diagnosed asthma has increased in Helsinki during 10 years in adults, especially in women aged<40 years. Concomitantly, the use of asthma medication increased and subjects with physiciandiagnosed asthma were less symptomatic. The increase in the prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma may partly be due to improved diagnostic recognition of asthma in primary care during the Finnish Asthma Programme, but the concurrent rise in allergic rhinoconjunctivitis may reflect a true rise in prevalence.","Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.","yes. Corticosteroids decrease rhinovirus-induced ICAM-1 up-regulation in respiratory epithelial cells and modulate pretranscriptional mechanisms. This effect may be important for the therapeutic control of virus-induced asthma exacerbations.","The guidelines for asthma recommend that the use of anti-inflammatory therapy should be adapted to the severity of the disease. However, few data are available to assess the adequacy of the use of drugs and its influence on the control of asthma in 'real life'. The adequacy of the current use of anti-asthmatic medication according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines was assessed in a random sample of 400 asthmatics identified in the frame of the Italian Study on Asthma in Young Adults. Asthma severity was assessed using the GINA criteria; accordingly, a patient was classified as receiving inadequate treatment if his/her current use of drugs was lower than that suggested by the guidelines for the corresponding severity level. The absence of asthma attacks in the last 3 months was used as an indicator of the disease control. Fifty-five percent of the patients had persistent asthma. Overall, 48% (95% CI 41.2-54.8) of persistent asthmatics were receiving inadequate treatment, and 66% (95% CI 59.5-72.4) had not used their medication daily over the past 3 months. Persistent asthmatics who were inadequately treated had a significantly greater frequency of asthma attacks (geometric mean ratio 3.7; 95% CI 2.1-6.6) than those using an adequate dose of medication. Mild and moderate persistent asthmatics using an adequate medication regimen reported a low number of asthma attacks (median 0). At the multivariate analysis, a good control of the disease was positively associated with an adequate dose of anti-inflammatory medication (OR = 2.2; 95% CI 1.1-4.5) and was negatively associated with a later onset of asthma (OR = 0.96; 95% CI 0.93-0.99) and severe asthma (OR = 0.37; 95% CI 0.17-0.81).","Chronic inflammation of the airways plays a major role in the pathogenesis of asthma. Although C-reactive protein (CRP) is now an established circulating marker for cardiovascular diseases, it remains unclear whether asthma is an independent risk for increased plasma CRP. In Study 1, we evaluated CRP levels in 329 asthmatic patients and 1684 non-asthmatic subjects. Inhaled corticosteroids were regularly used by 308 asthmatics. In Study 2, the effects of inhaled corticosteroids on CRP levels were examined in 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients. In Study 1, plasma CRP levels were associated with body mass index (R=0.349, P<0.0001) and age (R=0.111, P<0.0001) in all study subjects, but were higher in patients with asthma, hypertension, diabetes and/or dyslipidemia than in those without these disorders. Multivariate regression analysis identified body mass index, age and asthma, but not hypertension, diabetes or dyslipidemia, as independently associated with an elevation of CRP levels. In Study 2, treatment of 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients with inhaled corticosteroids for 3 months significantly reduced plasma CRP levels.","Few data exist regarding the natural history of asthma exacerbations over time. To evaluate the frequency and risk factors of asthma exacerbation occurrence over a 5-year period in a large cohort of adult patients with persistent asthma. Health insurance claims from the Truven Health MarketScan database were analyzed for 2543 patients who had full medical and drug claims for years 2006 to 2011, did not have co-occurring chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in the index year (2006), and were treated with high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting β2-agonists for at least 120 days (\"high intensity\" therapy) in the index year. A retrospective analysis was conducted to assess the pattern of severe exacerbations (encounter with health care system and steroid burst) over time and their associations with the other measures of health status. Despite the use of high-intensity asthma therapy, there was only a small decrease in total asthma exacerbations over time, but no significant time trend for asthma hospitalizations. An exacerbation in the prior year increased the risk for exacerbations almost 8-fold, (odds ratio 7.8 [95% CI, 7.1-8.6]). A 50% increase in exacerbation risk (odds ratio 1.5 [95% CI, 1.4-1.6]) was associated with continued high-intensity treatment for the duration of the study. Patients with encounters of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease after the index year were at 60% increased risk of an exacerbation.","Adherence to treatment with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) is a critical determinant of asthma control. The objective of this study was to assess factors that determine adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Fifty-eight children with asthma, aged 5 to 16 years, used ICS with or without a spacer for 3 months. Adherence rates as measured from questionnaires and canisters, asthma symptom scores, and inhalation technique scores were assessed every 30 days. The degree of supervision by caregivers was assessed at day 30. Adherence rates measured using canisters were lower at day 60 than at day 30 (P=0.044) and did not change thereafter (74.4%±17.4% at day 30, 66.5%±18.4% at day 60, and 67.4%±22.2% at day 90). Adherence rates at days 60 and 90 and during the total study period were significantly different when measured by using questionnaires versus canisters (P<0.001, P=0.022, and P=0.001, respectively). In the comparison of adherence rates repeatedly measured at days 30, 60, and 90 and adherence rates during the total study period among the 3 groups, adherence rates in the high-degree supervision group were significantly higher than those in the low-degree supervision group (82.0±16.0 vs. 66.1±14.5, 75.4±14.4 vs. 56.2±18.4, 75.0±18.3 vs. 55.0±19.7 [P=0.027]; 77.9±12.2 vs. 59.1±11.4 [P=0.021]) after adjustment for sex and age.","An active use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma has been associated with less asthma exacerbations and hospital admissions in children aged more than 2 years. The present study aimed to investigate hospital admission rates in young children from two populations in relation to the age-specific use of maintenance medication for asthma. Annual data on children aged less than 24 months treated for asthma, including data on the use of maintenance medication based on the purchases of prescribed medications, and annual numbers of admissions to hospital and proportions of readmissions, were collected from 1995 to 1999 in two provinces of Finland. The inclusion criteria, three or more doctor-diagnosed wheezing episodes, were individually checked by the authors in each case. The mean number of children aged less than 24 months during the years of the study was 5490 in Kuopio and 9914 in Oulu area. In the Kuopio area, during the years of the study, 16.5/1000 children aged less than 24 months were on maintenance medication for asthma, and 90% of them were receiving inhaled corticosteroids. In the Oulu area, the respective figures were 13.5/1000 (P<0.001) and 99%. The average admission rate was 7.9/1000 in the Kuopio area and 8.7/1000 in the Oulu area (P<0.05). The readmissions indicated the higher admission rates in the Oulu (40% of all admissions) than in the Kuopio (28%) area (P<0.01).","Despite the significant progress in the care and outcome of patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the impact of evolving therapies on the incidence and outcome of patients with cardiogenic shock complicating AMI has been questioned. We analyzed trends in the incidence, care and outcome of cardiogenic shock from four national surveys conducted during 1992--1998. Of the 5,351 AMI patients admitted to all coronary care units in Israel, 254 (4.7%) developed cardiogenic shock. The incidence of cardiogenic shock decreased over time (5.8, 5.1, 4.3 and 4.4% for the years 1992, 1994, 1996 and 1998, respectively, p = 0.08). Concomitantly, there was an increase in utilization of coronary angiography, urgent angioplasty and intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation. In addition, there was an increase in hospital use of aspirin, nitrates, ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers. Patients with shock were more likely to die within 7 days compared with AMI patients not having shock (65 vs. 4%; p < 0.001). During the study period, the mortality of patients with shock decreased: at 7 days (72% in 1992 to 60% in 1998; p = 0.09), at 30 days (87 to 70%, respectively; p = 0.01) and at 6 months (89 to 77%, respectively; p = 0.02). Both aspirin and angioplasty were independently associated with improved outcome after adjustment for baseline characteristics and study period.","Statins are hypothesized to have beneficial effects in asthma management through their pleiotropic anti-inflammatory effects. Several studies have examined this relationship, but have yielded conflicting results. This study investigates the effect of statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or emergency department (ED) visits, and whether this relationship varies by concomitant inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) in a large cohort of asthma patients. Subjects with asthma, a recent history of asthma exacerbation, and who were 18 years or older were selected from the population-based Medco Health Solutions administrative database over a 1 year period. Prescription claims for statins and asthma medications, and asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were ascertained over a 12 month follow-up period. Subjects were stratified into two groups based on their ICS use. A total of 3747 ICS users and 2905 non-ICS users were included in this study. Statin users represented 21% of ICS users and 11% of non-users. Among ICS users, statin use was significantly associated with decreased odds of asthma-related ED visits (OR = 0.77, 95% CI 0.64-0.94, p = 0.008), but not with asthma-related hospitalizations (OR = 1.09, 95% CI 0.92-1.30, p = 0.31). No significant associations were found among non-ICS users (for asthma-related ED visits: OR = 0.92, 95% CI 0.57-1.49, p = 0.73; asthma-related hospitalizations: OR = 1.10, 95% CI 0.85-1.41, p = 0.48). The statistical interactions between ICS and statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were not significant.","The aims were to evaluate the profile of newly diagnosed adult asthma cases and the approach adopted to the secondary care management at the launch of the Finnish asthma programme in 1994 and seven years later, in 2001. A retrospective medical record audit was made of non-acutely referred patients with asthma in 1994 (n=165) and in 2001 (n=133). Clinical profile data, numbers of out-patient visits and periods of in-patient care before and after asthma diagnosis were gathered from referral letters and secondary care records. The newly diagnosed asthma patients in 2001 were older, more obese and had more co-morbidities. The main asthma symptoms, such as dyspnoea, wheezing and cough, occurred equally in both years but were more often periodic than daily in 2001. Wheezing during auscultation was significantly less common in 2001. The diagnostic process was associated to a history of asthma in first-degree relatives (OR 5.34, 95% CI 1.12-24.49) in 1994 and a visit to a nurse prior to that to a physician (OR 3.13, 95% CI 1.17-8.37) in 2001. Secondary care visits per new case of asthma (7.3 in 1994 vs. 5.4 in 2001) and days in hospital (3.6 in 1994 vs. 0.95 in 2001) decreased significantly.","Changes in lifestyle or environmental factors are responsible for the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease. Establishing the time at which the increase began may provide a clue as to what factors possibly could have contributed to the increase. Many cross-sectional studies have shown that the prevalence of allergic sensitization decreases with increasing age. This could reflect the natural course of allergic sensitization. Alternatively, this could reflect that the increase in sensitization is caused by a cohort effect, i.e. an increase among subjects born during recent decades. The aim was to investigate age-specific changes in the prevalence of allergic sensitization in a cohort of adults. A total of 599 subjects aged 15 to 69 years participated in a cross-sectional general population study in 1990. In 1998 they were invited to a follow-up, and 64.4% (386/599) were reexamined. Serum samples obtained from the participants in 1990 and 1998 were analysed for specific IgE to six common inhalant allergens with the same assay. The prevalence of allergic sensitization (specific IgE to at least one allergen) increased among subjects who were less than c. 30 years at baseline (1990), i.e. subjects born during the 1960s or later, while the prevalence was unchanged among subjects who were more than c. 30 years at baseline.","Most adult asthmatics are under the care of FDs; however, these appear to under-treat to a considerable degree, especially respecting the use of inhaled corticosteroids. It must be emphasised strongly that Asthma is an inflammatory disease; and FDs must become better informed of the directives of the international consensus on asthma.","The aim of the study was to assess the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on subsequent respiratory symptoms and asthma in infants hospitalized for respiratory syncytial virus infection (RSV). The study included 188 children below 12 mo of age, hospitalized because of RSV infection. During the winter of 1994/95 only selected children (13%) were given inhaled corticosteroids following discharge from the hospital. The following winter (1995/96), almost all children (86%) were given this treatment for 6-8 wk. Outcomes of the two different treatment regimens were compared by questionnaire 19-24 mo after discharge. Children hospitalized and treated during the winter of 1995/96 developed asthma (12% vs. 24%) and other severe symptoms of the respiratory tract less often than infants treated the year before. The frequency of children with less severe symptoms did not differ between the two treatment periods.","yes. Our results suggest that inhaled steroids are better than cromones in preventing admissions for asthma when two provinces with different practices for maintenance medication of steady-state asthma were compared.","Annual data on children aged under 16 y treated for asthma, including consumption of regular medication for asthma, numbers of hospital periods, lengths of hospitalizations and annual proportions of readmissions, were collected using patient-specific medical records from 1995 to 1999. In the Kuopio province, on average, 35.6-36.7/1000 children were on maintenance for asthma, of which 23% were receiving cromones, 51% were taking inhaled steroids and 26% were treated with cromones plus intermittent steroids. In the Oulu province, the respective prevalence was 32.7-34.9/1000, and the respective proportions were 5%, 93% and 2%. Total and first admissions, as well as hospital days were clearly less in the Oulu province. In the children aged>or = 6y, the average annual total admissions were 0.3/1000 (Oulu) vs 1.2/1000 (Kuopio) (p<0.001). Similarly, the first admissions were 0.2/1000 vs 1.0/1000 (p<0.001), proportions of readmissions 6.3% vs 19.3% (p<0.05), and numbers of hospital days 0.7/1000 vs 3.8/1000 (p<0.001). The differences were in the same direction, though less prominent, also among children 2-5 y of age.","Few epidemiological surveys on general population samples estimated changes in prevalence of respiratory symptoms/diseases over a long time interval; our study aims to quantify the temporal changes in the prevalence rates of asthma, allergic rhinitis and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) after 25 years from baseline. A general population sample participated in 3 cross-sectional surveys carried out in Central Italy (Pisa) in 1985-88 (n = 3865), 1991-93 (n = 2841), 2009-11 (n = 1620). 2276 (47%) subjects participated in at least 1 survey, 1723 (35.5%) in at least 2 surveys and 849 (17.5%) in all the 3 surveys. All subjects filled in a standardized questionnaire about health status and risk factors; a sub-sample performed spirometry. Chi-square test was used to compare adjusted prevalence rates of respiratory symptoms/diseases and descriptive characteristics among the surveys. Generalised estimating equations (GEE) were used to analyze the association between respiratory symptoms/diseases and risk factors. There was an increasing trend in prevalence rates of all respiratory symptoms/diseases throughout the surveys: current asthma attacks (1st-3rd survey prevalence: 3.4-7.2%), allergic rhinitis (16.2-37.4%), usual phlegm (8.7-19.5%) and COPD (2.1-6.8%) more than doubled. The GEE model confirmed these increasing trends, indicating higher risk of having respiratory symptoms/diseases in the second and third surveys.","Physician training influences patient care. To compare asthma management and change in the percentage predicted FEV1 among pediatric physician specialties. A retrospective cohort of children 6 years of age or older, seen in a multidisciplinary asthma clinic between 2009 and 2010, and followed to 2012, was completed to examine differences in asthma outcomes by specialty (2 pediatricians, 3 pediatric allergists, 5 pediatric respirologists). Univariate analyses compared investigation, including allergy testing (skin prick or RAST), comorbid conditions, and prescription by specialty. Multivariate regression, which controlled for random effect of the individual physician, examined specialty differences for prescribed inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and changes in percentage predicted FEV1. More than 56% of the patients (309/548) were seen by pediatric respirologists, 26% by pediatric allergists, and 18% by pediatricians. Physician specialty influences investigation requested, comorbid diagnoses, treatment, and improvement in FEV1. Pediatric allergists' patients had more allergy tests, were more likely to be diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and, consequently, were more likely to be prescribed nasal steroids than pediatricians and pediatric respirologists. Pediatricians were less likely to prescribe ICS (odds ratio 0.39 [95% CI, 0.15-0.96]; P < .05) than pediatric allergists, with the greatest difference in ICS prescription among children with a percentage predicted FEV1 ≥ 80%. Improvement in FEV1 among children who received care with pediatric allergists was higher than those seen by pediatricians (13%; P < .001) and pediatric respirologists (8%; P = .005).","The aim of this study was to characterise the deaths of children from asthma in New South Wales (NSW) over the last 10 years and ascertain whether there were modifiable factors that could have prevented the deaths. The hospital medical records, coronial reports, immunisation records and all relevant correspondence from general practitioners, medical specialists and hospitals were reviewed for children who died with asthma in the 10 years (2004-2013). In 10 years, there were 20 deaths (0-7 per year) with a male predominance (70%) occurring in children aged 4-17 years. Sixteen (80%) had persistent asthma and 4 (20%) had intermittent asthma. The majority (55%) had been hospitalised for asthma in the preceding 12 months, 25% in the preceding 6 weeks. The majority (55%) was aged 10-14 years. Ninety percent were atopic. Psychosocial issues were identified in the majority (55%) of families. Forty percent had a child protection history. Seventy-five percent had consulted a general practitioner in the year before their death, 45% had a current written asthma action plan and 50% had not seen a paediatrician ever in relation to their asthma. Of the 16 children at school, the schools were aware of the asthma in 14 (88%) cases, but only half had copies of written asthma plans.","Asthma is the most common chronic disease in children. Previous studies described significant variations in acute asthma management in children. This study was conducted to examine whether asthma management in the pediatric emergency department (ED) was improved through the use of an evidence-based acute asthma care guideline reminder card. The Pediatric Acute Asthma Management Guideline (PAMG) was introduced to the ED of a pediatric tertiary care hospital in Ontario, Canada. Medical charts of 278 retrospective ED visits (January-December 2002) and 154 prospective visits (July 2003-June 2004) were reviewed to assess changes in acute asthma management such as medication treatment, asthma education, and discharge planning. Logistic and linear regressions were used to determine the effect of PAMG on asthma management in the ED. The propensity score method was used to adjust for confounding. During the implementation of PAMG, patients who visited the ED were more likely to receive oral corticosteroids (Adjusted Odds Ratio [AOR] = 2.26, 95% CI: 1.63-3.14, p<0.0001) and oxygen saturation reassessment before ED discharge (AOR = 2.02, 95% CI: 1.45-2.82, p<0.0001). They also received 0.23 (95% CI: 0.03-0.44, p = 0.0283) more doses of bronchodilator in the first hour of ED stay. Improvements in asthma education and discharge planning were noted, but the changes were not statistically significant.","yes. Triage nurse initiation of oral corticosteroid before physician assessment was associated with reduced times to clinical improvement and discharge, and reduced admission rates in children presenting with moderate to severe acute asthma exacerbations.","To study persistence with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and its determinants in asthma-patients. From the PHARMO database, asthma-patients (age < 35 years) with a first dispensing for ICS in 1999-2002 and > or = 2 dispensings in the first year were included. Persistence during the first year was defined as the number of days from start to time of first failure to continue renewal of the initial ICS. Potential determinants of persistence were assessed at ICS-start and 1 year before. The study-cohort included 5563 new users of single ICS and 297 of fixed-combined ICS. Less than 10% of patients using single ICS and 15% of patients using fixed-combined ICS were persistent at 1 year. Similar persistence-rates were observed when stratified for age (children/adolescents: 0-18 years and adults: 19-34 years). Increased persistence with single ICS was observed with the type of ICS (budesonide), prescriber (specialist), prior use of long-acting beta-agonists, previous hospitalization for asthma, metered-dose inhaler, low starting-dose and once-daily dosing regimen at start. Persistence with fixed combined ICS-treatment increased with younger age and was decreased in patients having high starting-dose of ICS and prior use of antibiotics.","The objective of this study was to determine whether a new diagnosis of asthma is associated with a later diagnosis of herpes zoster (HZ) in a nationwide, retrospective, non-age limited, population-based cohort. We used data from the National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan. The asthma group consisted of all 40 069 patients in the database with newly diagnosed asthma and using asthma medications from 2000 through 2005. The nonasthma group comprised 40 069 age- and sex-matched patients without any asthma diagnosis. Cox proportional hazards regression analysis was applied to calculate the hazard ratio of HZ in the patients with asthma relative to those without asthma. During a mean follow-up period of 8.77 years, the risk of HZ was 1.48-fold higher in the asthma group compared with that in the nonasthma group after adjustment for sex, age, comorbidities, inhaled and systemic corticosteroid use, and annual outpatient department visits to dermatologists. Additional stratified analyses revealed that the risk of HZ was significantly higher in patients of both sexes and those aged older than 21 years.","The role of asthma controller medication adherence and the level of asthma control in children is poorly defined. To assess the association between asthma controller medication adherence and asthma control in children using routinely acquired prescribing data. A retrospective observational study of children aged 0-18 years prescribed inhaled corticosteroids only (ICS), leukotriene receptors antagonists (LTRA), or long-acting β2 agonists (LABA) and ICS prescribed as separate or combined inhalers, between 01/09/2001 and 31/08/2006, registered with primary care practices contributing to the Practice Team Information database. The medication possession ratio (MPR) was calculated and associations with asthma control explored. Poor asthma control was defined as the issue of prescriptions for ≥ 1 course of oral corticosteroids (OCS) and/or ≥ 6 short-acting β2 agonists (SABA) canisters annually. A total of 3172 children prescribed asthma controller medication were identified. Of these, 15-39% (depending on controller medication) demonstrated adequate MPR. Adequate MPR was associated with male gender, good socio-economic status, and oral LTRA therapy. Adequate MPR was more likely to be associated with increased use of rescue medication. However logistic regression only identified a significant relationship for ICS only (odds ratio [OR], 1.89; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.35-2.48; p<0.001), LTRA (OR, 2.11; 95% CI, 1.27-3.48; p = 0.004) and LABA/ICS (OR, 2.85; 95% CI, 1.62-5.02; p<0.001).","Although work-exacerbated asthma (WEA) is a prevalent condition likely to have an important societal burden, there are limited data on this condition. The aims of this study were (1) to compare the clinical, functional, and inflammatory characteristics of workers with WEA and occupational asthma (OA) and (2) compare health care use and related costs between workers with WEA and OA, as well as between workers with work-related asthma (WRA; ie, WEA plus OA) and those with non-work-related asthma (NWRA) in a prospective study. We performed a prospective observational study of workers with and without WRA with a 2-year follow-up. The diagnosis of OA and WEA was based on the positivity and negativity of results on specific inhalation challenges, respectively. One hundred fifty-four subjects were enrolled: 53 with WEA, 68 with OA, and 33 control asthmatic subjects (NWRA). WEA was associated with more frequent prescriptions of inhaled corticosteroids (odds ratio [OR], 4.4; 95% CI, 1.4-13.6; P = .009), a noneosinophilic phenotype (OR, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.9; P = .04), a trend toward a lower FEV1 (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.9-1.0; P = .06), and a higher proportion of smokers (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 0.96-9.7; P = .06) than the diagnosis of OA. The health care use of WRA and related costs were 10-fold higher than those of NWRA.","no. These national data do not support the hypothesis that population-based changes in weight are associated with asthma mortality. Other possible explanations for the large decreases in asthma mortality rates include changes in pollution or better delivery of medical care over the same time period.","Racial and ethnic disparities in health and health care have been well documented, but few studies have addressed how disparities may change over time. We sought to determine the change in relative rates over time of corticosteroid metered dose inhaler (MDI) use in minority and nonminority populations with asthma. We used a cross-sectional survey for 5 periods of 2 years' each (1989-1990, 1991-1992, 1993-1994, 1995-1996, 1997-1998) using the National Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys (NAMCS). A total of 3671 visits by adults and children with asthma to U.S. office-based physicians comprised our sample. We sought to measure differences in inhaled corticosteroid use for minority and nonminority adults and children controlling for gender, specialty, U.S. region, and type of insurance. Minority patients with asthma were less than half as likely as nonminority patients to have had a steroid MDI prescribed during 1989-1990. By 1995-1996, minority and nonminority patients with asthma were equally likely to have had a steroid MDI prescribed. Although differences between black and white patients resolved, differences between white and Hispanic patients persisted even after adjusting for insurance. Children initially were less likely than adults with asthma to have steroid MDI prescribed, and this difference persisted. Minority children had the greatest delay in adoption of steroid MDIs.","These findings suggest that subjects with severe asthma, especially women, have an increased mortality from ischaemic heart disease. The results may reflect confounding, mainly smoking and physical inactivity. Other explanations may be side effects of the antiasthmatic drugs or an effect of longstanding airway obstruction.","The frequency of smokers among asthma patients often mirrors the frequency of smokers among healthy individuals. Smoking has been shown to increase the lung function decline in adult asthma patients and change the composition of the bronchial inflammation. To examine the consequences of smoking in a large cohort of young asthma patients. Seven hundred ninety-three asthma patients, aged 14 to 44, were examined using lung function measurements, bronchial provocations, clinical interviews, and questionnaires. Forty-five percent of participants were smokers; smokers had significantly lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)), FEV(1) in percent of predicted value (FEV(1)% pred), and FEV(1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) values compared with nonsmokers, and there was a dose-response relationship between tobacco exposure and these lung function measures. Smoking seemingly affected the FEV(1) growth already in adolescence, and before the age of 45, significantly more smokers than nonsmokers had signs of airflow limitation, with FEV(1)/FVC ratios below 0.70. Smokers had more asthma symptoms despite receiving inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) treatment as frequently as did nonsmokers.","The prevalence of childhood asthma is increasing but few studies have investigated trends in asthma severity. We investigated trends in asthma diagnosis and symptom morbidity between an eight year time period in a paired prevalence study. All children in one single school year aged 8-9 years in the city of Sheffield were given a parent respondent questionnaire in 1991 and 1999 based on questions from the International Survey of Asthma and Allergy in Children (ISAAC). Data were obtained regarding the prevalence of asthma and wheeze and current (12 month) prevalences of wheeze attacks, speech limiting wheeze, nocturnal cough and wheeze, and exertional symptoms. The response rates in 1991 and 1999 were 4580/5321 (85.3%) and 5011/6021 (83.2%), respectively. There were significant increases between the two surveys in the prevalence of asthma ever (19.9% v 29.7%, mean difference 11.9%, 95% confidence interval (CI) 10.16 to 13.57, p<0.001), current asthma (10.3% v 13.0%, mean difference 2.7%, 95% CI 1.44 to 4.03, p<0.001), wheeze ever (30.3% v 35.8%, mean difference 5.7%, 95% CI 3.76 to 7.56, p<0.001), wheeze in the previous 12 months (17.0% v 19.4%, mean difference 2.5, 95% CI 0.95 to 4.07, p<0.01), and reporting of medication use (16.9% v 20%, mean difference 3.0%, 95% CI 1.46 to 4.62, p<0.001). There were also significant increases in reported hayfever and eczema diagnoses.","Recent studies suggest an association between allergic diseases, including asthma, and lower vitamin D level, a well-known risk factor of osteoporosis. However, it is not yet clearly known whether patients with asthma are prone to bone loss. To evaluate whether the occurrence of airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) or asthma is related to significant changes in bone mineral density (BMD). We retrospectively enrolled 7,034 patients who had undergone a health checkup program, including BMD tests and methacholine bronchial challenge tests, at the Seoul National University Hospital, Healthcare System Gangnam Center, from November 1, 2004 to April 30, 2011. Asthma was ascertained by self-reported medical diagnosis by a physician. Patients with a history of systemic corticosteroid medication use were excluded from the study. Among a total of 7,034 patients, 216 (3.1%) had a positive AHR test result, and 217 (3.1%) had a history of asthma. Lumbar spine and femur BMD of patients with AHR were significantly lower than those without AHR (-0.53 ± 1.50 vs -0.03 ± 1.49, -0.47 ± 0.97 vs -0.22 ± 0.99, respectively; P<.001 for both). After being adjusted for age, sex, body mass index, smoking status, postmenopausal state, and previous history of hormone replacement therapy, the proportion of patients with osteopenia or osteoporosis was much higher in the AHR-positive group than in the AHR-negative group (odds ratio, 1.715; 95% confidence interval, 1.252-2.349) and in the ever-asthma group than in the never-asthma group (odds ratio, 1.526; 95% confidence interval, 1.120-2.079).","We investigated the use of asthma medication by children and the association of use as recommended by guidelines with modifiable risk factors: parental attitudes, knowledge of asthma medication and information provided by health care providers. Questionnaire data were obtained from parents of 229 8-year-old children participating in the prevention and incidence of asthma and mite allergy birth cohort who used asthma medication in the past 12 months. They reported on their child's medication use, their own knowledge and attitudes towards the medication and their satisfaction with the information they received from health care providers. Irregular use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) was common: 40% of the parents only gave their child ICS when the child felt breathless and 52% only 'when the child needed it'; 15% of the parents tried to avoid giving medication, and about 25% of the parents sometimes discontinued medication. Parental knowledge of how asthma medication should be given was a major determinant of guideline-recommended use: Of the parents who knew that anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken everyday (53% of all parents), 84% reported that they actually gave their child the medicines everyday as compared with 25% of the parents who did not know this. Guideline-recommended use was also significantly associated with parental satisfaction with the amount of information received from health care providers. These associations were independent of maternal school education.","Data have highlighted the potential bias introduced by withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids at randomization in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease trials examining inhaled corticosteroids. Analyses were conducted to determine whether this was true of inhaled anticholinergic withdrawal in tiotropium trials. A pooled analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group tiotropium trials of at least six months' duration was performed. Trials had similar inclusion and exclusion criteria. Exacerbation definition was standardized. Patients were divided into two groups, ie, D (anticholinergics discontinued at randomization, previously prescribed) and ND (anticholinergics not discontinued, not previously prescribed). Demographics were balanced between the D (n = 5846) and ND (n = 6317) groups, except for higher cumulative smoking (56 pack-years versus 48 pack-years), lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1))/forced vital capacity (43% versus 48%), and lower baseline FEV(1) (35.8% predicted versus 42.4% predicted) in the D group. In both groups, tiotropium reduced the risk for an exacerbation (hazard ratio [HR] = 0.83, P < 0.0001 [D] versus 0.79, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and a hospitalized exacerbation (HR = 0.85, P = 0.0467 versus 0.79, P = 0.0094). Tiotropium reduced the number of exacerbations per patient-year (rate ratio [RR] = 0.82, P < 0.0001 [D] versus RR = 0.80, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and associated hospitalizations per patient-year (RR = 0.88, P = 0.015 [D] versus RR = 0.74, P < 0.0001 [ND]).","To determine the change in prevalence of asthma, eczema and allergic rhinitis in Australian schoolchildren between 1993 and 2002. Questionnaire based survey, using the protocol of the International Study of Asthma and Allergy in Childhood. Metropolitan Melbourne primary schools within a 20 km radius of the GPO in 1993 and 2002. All children in school years 1 and 2 (ages 6 and 7) attending a random sample of 84 schools in 1993 and 63 schools in 2002. Parent-reported symptoms of atopic disease; treatment for asthma; country of birth. There was a 26% reduction in the 12-month period prevalence of reported wheeze, from 27.2% in 1993 to 20.0% in 2002. The magnitude of reduction was similar for boys (27%) and girls (25%). The 12-month period prevalence of reported eczema increased from 11.1% in 1993 to 17.2% in 2002, and rhinitis increased from 9.7% to 12.7%. There were reductions in the proportion of children attending an emergency department for asthma in the previous year (3.6% to 2.3%), the proportion admitted to hospital (1.7% to 1.1%) and the proportion taking asthma medication (18.5% to 13.4%). Of those who reported frequent wheeze, there was an increase in the proportion taking regular inhaled steroids (34.5% to 40.9%).","Since 2000 a decline in the incidence of occupational asthma (OA) has been reported in the UK and Europe. We aimed to describe and account for trends in the incidence of OA in the West Midlands, UK using annual notification data from the SHIELD voluntary surveillance scheme over the period 1991-2011. All notifications to the SHIELD database between January 1991 and December 2011 were identified, along with patients' demographic data, occupations, causative agents and confirmatory tests. Annual notifications were scaled to give an annual count per million workers, giving a measure of incidence, and also standardised against those of bakers' asthma. Non-parametric analyses were undertaken between annual incidence and time (years) for common causative agents using (1) a negative binomial regression univariate model and (2) a logistic regression model calculating annual reporting ORs. A step-change analysis was used to examine time points at which there were marked reductions in incidence. A decrease in annual incidence of OA was observed over the study period (incident rate ratio=0.945; 95% CI 0.933 to 0.957; p<0.0001), an effect that was lost after standardising for bakers' asthma. Decreases in incidence were seen for most common causative agents, with only cleaning product-related OA increasing over 21 years. Marked fall in incidence was seen in 2004 for isocyanates, and in 1995 for latex. Most notifications came from a regional specialist occupational lung disease unit, with notifications from other sites falling from 16 cases/million workers/annum in 1995 to 0 in 2004.","Guidelines for asthma management have been developed both locally and internationally. The aim of this study was to evaluate the adherence of primary care physicians in the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center to these guidelines. The records of 206 asthmatic children who visited the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center, Jeddah, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, during the months of February 1998 through June 1998, were reviewed. The following data was extracted from them; presenting symptoms, number of visits, names of asthma medications, whether doses were documented or not and number of times antitussives were prescribed. The most common presenting complaint was cough followed by wheeze and shortness of breath (mean SD, 14 13.8, 8.8 10.3 and 4.4 5.8). Oral salbutamol was the most frequently prescribed medication. The doses of asthma medications were not documented in 37.3% of cases. Preventive therapy was prescribed to 35.4% of children and emergency steroids were prescribed to 30.6% of children. The mean age of asthmatic children receiving inhaled medications was significantly higher than those other forms of therapy (p<0.00001). Antitussives were prescribed 2,536 times (mean 12.3).","The combination of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and long-acting beta2 agonists (LABA) has been used as a single inhaler both for maintenance and reliever therapy in asthma, the SMART approach. The administration of additional CS with each reliever inhalation in response to symptoms is expected to provide better control of airway inflammation. The aim of this meta-analysis was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the SMART approach versus other approaches in the management of asthma in preventing asthma exacerbations. We searched the MEDLINE and EMBASE databases for studies that have reported exacerbations in the SMART group versus the control group. We calculated the odds ratio (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) to assess the exacerbations in the two groups and pooled the results using a random-effects model. Our search yielded eight studies. The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS-LABA combination significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.65; 95% CI, 0.53-0.80) and severe exacerbation requiring hospitalization/ER treatment (OR 0.69; 95% CI, 058-0.83). The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS also significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.45-0.61) and severe exacerbation requiring medical intervention (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.42-0.65). The occurrence of adverse events was similar in the two groups. There was some evidence of statistical heterogeneity.","The British guideline on the management of asthma produced by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) describes five steps for the management of chronic asthma. Combination therapy of a long acting β2-agonist (LABA) and an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended as first-line therapy at step 3, although the dose of ICS at which to add a LABA is subject to debate. To classify the inhaled therapy prescribed to patients with asthma in NHS Forth Valley according to two interpretations of the BTS/SIGN guideline and to evaluate the use of combination therapy in this population. A retrospective analysis including patients from 46 general practitioner surgeries was conducted. Patients with physician diagnosed asthma were classified according to the BTS/SIGN guideline based on treatment prescribed during 2008. Patient characteristics were evaluated for the overall step classification, and specifically for therapy in step 3. 12,319 patients were included. Guideline interpretation resulted in a shift of 9.2% of patients (receiving medium-dose ICS alone) between steps 2 and 3. The largest proportion of patients (32.3%) was classified at step 4. Age, sex, smoking status, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease co-morbidity, and utilisation of short-acting β2-agonists and oral corticosteroids all correlated with step; however, no differences in these characteristics were evident between low-dose combination therapy and medium-dose ICS alone at step 3.","To investigate the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator as a measure of the quality of asthma prescribing by general practitioners. Ecological cross sectional study linking general practitioner asthma prescribing with hospital admission data and a measure of deprivation. 11 family health services authorities in the West Midlands region and 99 general practices in North Staffordshire. Hospital admission rates for asthma; the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator; and Townsend deprivation scores. No overall significant correlation was found between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios for family health services authorities (Spearman's rs = -0.109, P = 0.750) or general practices (rs = -0.084, P = 0.407). In deprived family health services authority areas and general practices an inverse non-significant correlation existed between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = -0.300, P = 0.624; rs = -0.218, P = 0.136). In contrast, in more affluent areas and general practices a positive non-significant correlation existed between admission rates and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = 0.371, P = 0.468; rs = 0.038, P = 0.792).","no. Corticosteroid use did not decrease SqCC in patients with asthma or COPD. Recent dose increase in corticosteroids was associated with SqCC.","A number of studies have shown that both mortality and hospital admissions due to severe asthma have decreased in recent years in many parts of the world. However, the situation is Spain has not yet been analyzed. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of very severe, near-fatal asthma in recent years in various Spanish hospitals. A retrospective review of hospital records from 6 hospitals in 5 Spanish autonomous communities was conducted for the period 1997 to 2004 to determine the annual number of patients who required orotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation due to an asthma attack. Of the 130 patients included in the study, 81 (62%) were women and 61 (47%) were aged between 51 and 75 years. The number of cases observed for the periods 2001-2002 and 2003-2004 (32 and 18, respectively) was significantly lower than that observed for the 1997-1998 and 1999-2000 periods (40 in both cases; P=.019). A significant increase in the incidence was observed in autumn and winter (n=81 [62%]; P=.018). Seventeen patients (13%) died and 8 (6%) developed serious sequelae.","yes. Rapid withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids results in an exacerbation of asthma that is preceded by an increase in sputum neutrophils and IL-8 concentrations, in contrast to an increase in eosinophils reported in previous studies in which inhaled steroids are slowly tapered.","To report on recent studies on the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on pulmonary function in young children with asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are considered the most effective treatment for persistent asthma in children. Appropriate control of childhood asthma may prevent more serious disease or irreversible obstruction in later years. While some authors have described an improvement with the use of inhaled corticosteroids in young children, others found no clinical or functional benefit. Various studies have shown that inhaled corticosteroids ameliorate clinical outcomes, and recently a study demonstrated improvement in pulmonary function in young children with asthma. The use of different study designs may explain the lack of consistent results and disagreement regarding the efficacy of inhaled corticosteroids in these patients.","The administration of inhaled corticosteroids and worldwide usage of several asthma guidelines have improved asthma mortality. Elderly patients with asthma show high mortality rates, and may have several comorbidities, including overlap with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Among patients showing asthma overlapped with COPD (asthma-COPD overlap syndrome; ACOS), mortality is worse than for asthma alone. Therefore, we investigated comorbidities, malignancies, and causes of death in patients with asthma and ACOS. This was a retrospective study. From January 2000 to March 2012, 650 patients were followed up at Tottori University Hospital. Medical records were reviewed to collect data regarding patient characteristics and comorbidities, and causes of death were recorded for patients who died during the study period. Eighty-seven patients died during the study period. The most frequent cause of death was malignancy. The proportion of malignant disease was 21.7% in all patients, 19.4% in patients with asthma alone, and 32.4% in patients with ACOS. One patient died from an asthma attack during this period.","The prevalence of asthma and allergic rhinitis has increased worldwide during the 1970s and 1980s. This study was aimed at evaluating whether the increasing trend in prevalence persisted during the 1990s in the young adult Italian population. In 1998 to 2000 a screening questionnaire was sent by mail to a general population sample aged 20 to 44 years; nonresponders were contacted again first by mail and then by phone, achieving a final response rate of 78.1% (6876 of 8800). Prevalence estimates, adjusted to correct for nonresponse bias, were compared with those recorded in Italy in 1991 to 1993 during the European Community Respiratory Health Survey, when response rate had been slightly higher (87.6%). Temporal variations in symptom prevalence were analyzed by a logistic regression model, controlling for sex, age, site of residence (urban vs suburban areas), season of response, response rate, and type of contact (mail vs phone). The prevalence of asthma attacks did not vary significantly from 1991 to 1993 (3.6%) to 1998 to 2000 (3.2%) (P =.188). The prevalence of asthma-like symptoms (wheezing, chest tightness, shortness of breath) tended to decrease in the age classes of 32.5 to 45 years, while increasing in the youngest age class (20 to 26 years). A clear-cut increase from 15.4% to 18.3% was observed for the prevalence of allergic rhinitis (P<.001), whereas the proportion of people under antiasthmatic treatment increased in suburban areas but not in urban areas (interaction time-site of residence, P<.001).","The institution of inhaled corticosteroids is generally advocated for effective treatment of patients with asthma. It is yet unknown what is the best time to start inhaled corticosteroid therapy and especially whether delayed introduction is harmful. PHASE 1: In a previous study in patients with asthma and COPD, we found that 2.5 years of treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus inhaled corticosteroid (BA + CS) was more effective in improving the FEV1 and the provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1 (PC20) than treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus anticholinergic (BA + AC) or placebo (BA + PL). PHASE 2: We extended this study with 6 months to investigate whether delayed introduction of inhaled CS therapy (800 micrograms beclomethasone dipropionate) in the groups previously not treated with inhaled CS (BA +/- AC) could also improve FEV1 and PC20 to the same degree. A distinction was made between patients with predominantly asthma (high baseline reversibility, delta FEV1>or = 9% of predicted), and predominantly COPD (low baseline reversibility, delta FEV1<9% of predicted). Improvement of FEV1 percent predicted by inhaled CS was comparable both in the asthmatics between phase 1 (13.8% predicted) and phase 2 (8.5% predicted; p = 0.31) as well as in the patients with COPD (2.5% and 1.5% predicted, respectively). PC20, however, increased significantly more in the asthmatics in phase 1 (1.77 doubling concentration [DC]) than in phase 2 (0.79 DC; p = 0.03). Improvement of PC20 in the patients with COPD was not significantly higher in phase 1 (0.74 DC) than in phase 2 (0.00 DC; p = 0.19).","To test the hypothesis that sustained differences in readmission rate for acute asthma were associated with variations in clinical practice. Data were collected by retrospective review of case notes, using the criteria recommended by the British Thoracic Society. Two city National Health Service (NHS) hospitals that had recorded a sustained difference in readmission rate for acute asthma. A random sample of 50 from each hospital, selected from all 16-44 year old patients discharged in 1992 with acute asthma (ninth revision of the international classification of diseases (ICD-9) 493). Hospital A had a lower readmission rate than hospital B. The sample groups were similar for age, sex, deprivation of area of residence, and severity of episode. Systemic corticosteroids were given early more often (p = 0.02) and oral corticosteroids were prescribed at discharge more often (p = 0.04) in hospital A. When a short course of oral corticosteroids was prescribed the duration stated was longer (p = 0.02) and inhaled corticosteroids were started or the dose increased more often (p = 0.02) in hospital A.","To explore one aspect of the external validity of the randomized controlled trial (RCT), specifically how being selected for inclusion in a trial and having participated has influenced the use and cost of asthma-related health services. Services used by asthmatic users of inhaled corticosteroids (iCSTs) having previously participated in an RCT (TS, n = 46) were compared with individuals who had never participated (NS, n = 51). TS were more likely to use higher (>or = 400 microg) daily doses of iCSTs than NS (OR, 3.3; 95% Cl, 1.1-8.3) but less likely to visit emergency departments (OR, 0.3; 95% Cl, 0.1-0.7). Total asthma-related costs did not differ significantly.","To check whether treatment of asthma patients at our centre coincides with international criteria (GINA 2002). Transversal, descriptive study. Urban primary care team. Asthma patients over 14 years old. Review of clinical histories (CH) and analysis of the last prescription between November 2002 and May 2003. We reviewed 436 CH, of which 395 made up the study group. 71.4% (SD, 66.9-75.8) were women. Average age was 51.4 (SD, 49.2-53.6). Classification of asthma as function of gravity was: intermittent (IA): 30% (25.7-34.3); light persistent (LPA): 24.8% (20.7-28.8); moderate persistent (MPA): 30.7% (26.4-35.1); serious persistent (SPA): 5.05% (3.19-7.54). Unclassified: 9.4% (6.83-12.5). Correct treatment: IA, 69.5% (61.6-77.4); LPA, 22.2% (14.4-30.1); MPA, 46.2% (7.8-54.7); SPA, 72.7% (49.8-89.3). The most common cause of incorrect treatment in all kinds of asthma was the use of international criteria (IC) at inadequate doses: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 73.8% (63.1-82.8); MPA, 38.9% (27.6-51.1); SPA, 33.3% (4.3-77.7). The scant use of B2CD.AD was noticeable: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 85.7% (76.4-92.4); MPA, 86.7% (74.3-92.1); SPA, 66.7% (22.3-95.7). The most commonly used active principles were salbutamol, salmeterol, budesonide, and montelukast. On overall measurement of good treatment, we found that 48.9% (n = 193) of patients had a correct prescription.","yes. Increase in urban population was associated with lower odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma in children and young adults living in a transition society.","The continuing rise in asthma prevalence has been questioned, with recent reports suggesting a plateau. To assess a 10-year trend in the age-adjusted prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma, respiratory and allergic symptoms, and use of asthma medication in the adult population of Helsinki during the Finnish Asthma Programme from 1994 to 2004. Two cross-sectional postal surveys were conducted among random Finnish National Population Registry samples 10 years apart using the same protocol. A total of 6,062 subjects (75.9%) and 2,449 subjects (61.9%) participated in 1996 and 2006, respectively. The prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma increased from 6.5% in 1996 to 10.0% in 2006 (p<0.001). This was evident in both genders aged<60 years, but particularly in women aged<40 years, paralleling an increased use of asthma medication. Concurrently, the prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis increased from 37.2% to 44.4% (p<0.001). The prevalence of physician-diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease remained unchanged (3.7%), while current smoking abated. Subjects with a smoking history had more respiratory symptoms (p<0.001). Among subjects without physician-diagnosed asthma, those reporting allergic rhinoconjunctivitis had a higher prevalence of lower respiratory tract symptoms.","Mortality from asthma increased during the last decades but is now declining in some countries. Little is known about this trend in Brazil. The objective of the study was to determine the trends in asthma mortality in Southern Brazil. We reviewed death certificates of 566 people in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil, between 5 and 39 years of age in whom asthma was reported to be the underlying cause of death during the period of 1981-2003. Population data were available in 5-year age groups. Mortality rates were submitted to linear and quadratic regression procedures. Among children and teenagers (5-19 years), there were 170 asthma deaths, ranging from 4 to 13 deaths each year with rates of 0.154/100,000 to 0.481/100,000. In young adults (20-39 years), 396 asthma deaths occurred, ranging from 9 to 32 each year, with rates from 0.276/100,000 to 1.034/100,000. There was an initial increase in rates, with later stabilization, and then the start of a decline beginning in the late 1990s and the early part of this decade. This trend occurred in both age subgroups examined but was more evident in males.","yes. These findings suggest that inhaled corticosteroid treatment of asthma reduced airway wall vascularity during airway remodelling.","Guidelines recommend regular use of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-containing medications for all patients with persistent asthma and those with moderate to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It is important to identify indicators of inappropriate prescribing. To test the hypothesis that ICS are prescribed for the management of respiratory infections in some patients lacking evidence of chronic airways disease. Medication dispensing data were obtained from the Australian national Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS) for concessional patients dispensed any respiratory medications during 2008. We identified people dispensed only one ICS-containing medication and no other respiratory medications in a year, who were therefore unlikely to have chronic airways disease, and calculated the proportion who were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. In 2008, 43.6% of the 115,763 patients who were dispensed one-off ICS were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. Co-dispensing was seasonal, with a large peak in winter months. The most commonly co-dispensed ICS among adults were moderate/high doses of combination therapy, while lower doses of ICS alone were co-dispensed among children. In this cohort, one-off ICS co-dispensed with oral antibiotics cost the government $2.7 million in 2008.","Asthmatic patients are at higher risk of fracture and bruising due to the systemic side effects of corticosteroid medication. However, the link between asthma and injury leading to these adverse outcomes remains unclear. This study investigated asthma and cause- and type-specific injury at the population level. Using data from the 2001 and 2004 Australian National Health surveys (n = 52,768), the prevalence and risk of experiencing specific causes and types of injury in the past 4 weeks were assessed by logistic and Poisson regression analyses. A history of asthma was associated with a higher prevalence of injury for both adults and children, as well as increased risk of incurring various causes and types of injury, after accounting for the effects of confounding factors.","This study revealed that spirometry was used more often when corticosteroids or sympathomimetics were prescribed. The findings suggest that treatment was based on diagnostic test results rather than on recorded diagnoses. The documented ICD-10 codes may not always reflect the real status of the patients. Thus medical care for asthma and COPD in general practice may be better than initially found on the basis of recorded diagnoses, although further improvement of practice patterns in asthma and COPD is still necessary.","To describe patterns of hospital readmission for asthma in South Australia from 1989 to 1996, in relation to implementation of the National Asthma Campaign. A comparison of hospital admissions in South Australia of patients aged between one year and 49 years for three conditions: asthma (or respiratory failure with asthma as an underlying condition) and two control conditions--diabetes and epilepsy. Individuals were identified by Medicare number and date of birth. Hospital readmission within 28 days and within one year. Overall, by 1996, there was a statistically significant decline in the risk of readmission for asthma within 28 days of 18% and within one year of 17% compared with 1989 readmission rates. There were no reductions in the risk of readmission for diabetes or epilepsy, suggesting that the decline in risk of readmission for asthma was greater than the underlying effects of general changes in hospital casemix.","yes. These findings support a novel mechanism for the ability of inhaled corticosteroids to decrease T cell numbers, possibly by downregulation of the cytokine IL-15.","Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are underutilized among persistent asthmatics. Because of low outpatient follow-up rates after Emergency Department (ED) visits, children are unlikely to be prescribed ICS by their primary care physician after an acute exacerbation. ED physicians have the opportunity to contribute to the delivery of preventive care in the acute care setting. Our objective was to evaluate if quality improvement (QI) methods could improve the rate of ICS initiation at ED discharge. Within the Pediatric ED (PED) at a tertiary children's hospital, QI methods were used to encourage ICS prescribing at the time of ED discharge. Interventions focused on education at both the attending physician and resident level, process improvements designed to streamline prescribing, and directed provider feedback. This involved multiple plan-do-study-act cycles. Medical records of eligible patients were reviewed monthly to determine ICS prescribing rates. The effect of our interventions on prescribing rate was tracked over time using a run chart. Following our interventions, the ICS initiation rate for children seen in and discharged home from the ED with an acute asthma exacerbation increased from a baseline median rate of 11.25% to a median rate of 79% representing a significant, non-random improvement. The ICS initiation rate has been sustained for 8 months over our goal rate of 75%.","The goals of asthma treatment include not only control of symptoms, but also prevention of future adverse outcomes such as exacerbations - which can occur even in mild asthma. This study showed that treatment with low dose inhaled corticosteroids led to significant improvements in lung function, exacerbations, and in pathophysiological predictors of future risk, even though symptoms were minimal at entry. For patients with mild asthma, discussion about treatment needs to consider not only short-term benefit, side effects and cost, but also long-term reduction of risk. This study was completed prior to mandatory registration for clinical trials.","In the year 1990 the European Community Respiratory Health Survey I (ECRHS I) demonstrated that the prevalence of these diseases was lowest in Iceland (www.ecrhs.org). In order to compare the prevalence of respiratory symptoms in Reykjavik over time, a new identical cross-sectional study was performed seventeen years later. Both cohorts, were in the age group 20-44 years and randomly selected from the population in Reykjavik and suburbs. Both answered questionnaires about respiratory symptoms, nasal allergy and use of anti-asthmatic drugs. The second cohort was part of the EuroPrevall study (www.europrevall.org) performed in 2007. Response rate was lower in 2007 (999 or 43.2%) than in 1990 (2.903 or 80.6%).The prevalence of attacks of asthma increased over time from 2.2% to 6.7% (p<0.0001), use of anti-asthmatic drugs increased from 2.4% to 7.2% (p<0.0001) and nasal allergy symptoms from 17.8% to 29.3% (p< 0.0001). There was an increase of all respiratory symptoms except wheezing or whistling, where the prevalence dropped from 18.0% to 14.4% (p<0.01). In the year 2007 women had more often been woken by attacks of coughing (p<0.0001), had more often attacks of asthma (p<0.05) and were more likely to use anti-asthmatic drugs (p<0.05) than men. Attacks of asthma and the use of anti-asthmatic drugs were more common among the younger age group in the year 2007. That was not seen in the year 1990.","Previous cross-sectional studies could establish an association between prevalence of self-reported wheeze and urban-rural environment, but the impact of urbanization on meaningful outcomes of asthma for public health is not established yet. Evaluate the effect of urbanization on asthma burden. A time series study of 5,505 Brazilian municipalities. The unit of analysis was the municipality. Two time frames were evaluated: from 1999 to 2001 and from 2009 to 2011. Trends from the first to the second time frame were evaluated. Governmental databases were the source of information. Multivariate binary logistic regression models were used. In the age range from 5 to 24 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .88). In the age range from 25 to 39 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .82). Municipalities that increased access to physicians and that supplied inhaled corticosteroids free of charge for asthma since year 2003 had increased odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma.","Asthma and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) lead to persistent airway inflammation and are associated with lung cancer. The objective of the study was to assess the relationship between inhaled (ICS) and oral corticosteroid (OCS) use, and risk of lung squamous cell carcinoma (SqCC). This study was a nested case-control study. Patients with newly diagnosed asthma or COPD between 2003 and 2010 were identified from the National Health Insurance Database. Cases were defined as patients diagnosed with SqCC after enrollment. For each case, four control individuals who were randomly matched for sex and age and date diagnosis of asthma or COPD were selected. From the 1,672,455 eligible participants, 793 patients with SqCC were matched with 3,172 controls. The odds ratios (ORs) of SqCC in men who received high and low-dose ICS were 2.18 (95 %CI, 1.56-3.04) and 1.77 (1.22-2.57), respectively. Similarly, the ORs were 1.46 (95 %CI, 1.16-1.84) and 1.55 (95 %CI, 1.22-1.98) for men who were placed on low and high dose OCS. However, there was no significant association between cumulative ICS and/or OCS and risk of SqCC in women. Recent dose increase in corticosteroid was significantly associated with risk of SqCC. Specifically, among men, the ORs for SqCC were 8.08 (95 %CI, 3.22-20.30) for high-dose ICS + OCS, 4.49 (95 % CI, 2.05-9.85) for high-dose ICS, and 3.54 (95 % CI, 2.50-5.01) for high-dose OCS treatments, respectively. The OR for SqCC in women who received high-dose OCS was 6.72 (95 %CI, 2.69-16.81).","To determine the general utility of clinical (Asthma Control Test) and physiologic (forced expiratory volume in the first second of exhalation [FEV(1)]and fractionated exhaled nitric oxide level [FeNO]) parameters for characterizing asthma patients. Two cross-sectional independent studies simultaneously enrolled 100 patients in the US and 109 patients in Spain>or = 18 years of age with a physician-diagnosis of asthma and confirmed by a>or = 12% improvement in FEV(1) after bronchodilators or the presence of airway hyperresponsiveness, a central feature of asthma, as measured by methacholine challenge (PC(20)<10 mg/mL). There was no restriction on asthma severity or treatment. Patients were excluded if they had a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and/or were current cigarette smokers. Statistical analyses were performed to compare ACT, FeNO, and spirometry within and between sites. Population characteristics revealed significant differences in distributions of age, percent-predicted FEV(1) (%FEV(1)), FeNO, inhaled corticosteroid usage, and atopy between the two populations. The Spain site enrolled younger patients with milder asthma, based on higher %FEV(1) values and less frequent treatment with inhaled corticosteroids. At each site, mean FeNO levels decreased as asthma control categories increased, and means were lower in the US. There was a negative correlation between ACT and FeNO that was statistically significant for Spain patients not treated with inhaled corticosteroids.","The results support the notion that the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease is caused by a cohort effect. Thus, changes in lifestyle or environmental factors that occurred around or after 1960 may have contributed to this increase.","Based on results of clinical trials, inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the most-effective controller medications for preventing asthma-related exacerbations, yet few studies in real-life populations have evaluated the comparative effectiveness of ICS. To determine the likelihood of asthma exacerbations among children with asthma after initiation of controller medications: ICS, leukotriene antagonists (LTRA), and ICS-long-acting β-agonist (LABA) combination therapy. This was a retrospective cohort study of subjects who were part of the Population-Based Effectiveness in Asthma and Lung Diseases Network. We conducted Cox regression analyses by adjusting for baseline covariates, adherence by using proportion of days covered, and high-dimensional propensity scores. The main outcome measurements were emergency department visits, hospitalizations, or oral corticosteroid use. Our population included 15,567 health plan subjects and 10,624 TennCare Medicaid subjects with uncontrolled asthma. Overall adherence to controller medications was low, with no more than 50% of the subjects refilling the medication after the initial fill. For subjects with allergic rhinitis, the subjects in TennCare Medicaid treated with LTRAs were less likely to experience ED visits (hazard ratio 0.44 [95% CI, 0.21-0.93]) compared with the subjects treated with ICS. For all other groups, the subjects treated with LTRA or ICS-LABA were just as likely to experience ED visits or hospitalizations, or need oral corticosteroids as the subjects treated with ICS.","During a 15-year period, knowledge transfer by passive diffusion or active guideline dissemination resulted in similar trends of corticosteroid use for the management of pediatric asthma and croup.","yes. CHD mortality fell by 20% between 1998 and 2009 in the West Bank. More than two-third of this fall was due to decreases in major risk factors, particularly total cholesterol and blood pressure. Our results clearly indicate that risk factor reductions in the general population compared save substantially more lives to specific treatments for individual patients. This emphasizes the importance of population-wide primary prevention strategies.","This study aimed to compare knowledge transfer (KT) in the emergency department (ED) management of pediatric asthma and croup by measuring trends in corticosteroid use for both conditions in EDs. A retrospective, cross-sectional study of the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey data between 1995 and 2009 of corticosteroid use at ED visits for asthma or croup was conducted. Odds ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression. Trends over time were compared using an interaction term between disease and year and were adjusted for all other covariates in the model. We included children aged 2 to 18 years with asthma who received albuterol and were triaged emergent/urgent. Children aged between 3 months to 6 years with croup were included. The main outcome measure was the administration of corticosteroids in the ED or as a prescription at the ED visit. The corticosteroid use in asthma visits increased from 44% to 67% and from 32% to 56% for croup. After adjusting for patient and hospital factors, this trend was significant both for asthma (OR, 1.07; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.04-1.10) and croup (OR, 1.07; 95% CI, 1.03-1.12). There was no statistical difference between the 2 trends (P = 0.69). Hospital location in a metropolitan statistical area was associated with increased corticosteroid use in asthma (OR, 1.76; 95% CI, 1.10-2.82). Factors including sex, ethnicity, insurance, or region of the country were not significantly associated with corticosteroid use.","This study investigated if long-term therapy with inhaled corticosteroids could be discontinued in mild asthma when patients are in a clinically stable phase of the disease. Data were derived from a 2-year randomized, controlled, bronchodilator intervention study in family practice. The experimental (stop-steroid) group consisted of 19 asthmatic patients who had used inhaled corticosteroids daily during at least the year preceding this study and who stopped using these drugs because of participation in the bronchodilator intervention study. The control (no-steroid) group consisted of 70 patients with asthma who had not used corticosteroids in the year preceding the study. At the start of the study (8 weeks after stopping steroids), the two groups were completely comparable in all other relevant characteristics. During the 2-year study, patients were treated only with a bronchodilator (salbutamol or ipratropium bromide). Outcome measures were: exacerbations, symptoms, annual decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), annual change in nonspecific bronchial responsiveness (PC20-histamine), and the need for additional corticosteroid therapy because of symptoms of increased airway obstruction. In the stop-steroid group, 12 of 19 patients (63%) dropped out during the study period because of a deterioration of their clinical condition and need for additional (inhaled) corticosteroid treatment. In the no-steroid group, only eight patients dropped out for this reason (11%). In the stop-steroid group, who did not use steroids for at least 1 year, the annual FEV1 decline was much larger than in the comparison subjects (165 vs 40 ml/yr).","The profile of asthma diagnosed in secondary care indicates milder disease with more co-morbidities in 2001 than in 1994.Trends towards assigning a more active role on the part of primary care physicians and more rational use of secondary care resources in the management of asthma were found.","To determine whether ipratropium was associated with premature death in patients with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A longitudinal cohort of 827 patients with COPD and 273 with asthma who were evaluated for compensation by two specialists in pulmonary medicine. By June 1999, 538 of the patients with COPD and 77 of those with asthma had died. Atthe consultation, 77% ofthe COPD patients and 8.1% of the asthmatic patients were treated with inhaled ipratropium. Ipratropium was associated with mortality risk ratio (RR) of 2.0 (95% confidence interval: 1.5-2.6) for COPD and 3.6 (1.8-7.1) for asthma patients. After adjustment for confounding factors [forced expiratory volume 1 s (FEV1), smoking habits, asthma medication, and presence of cor pulmonale] the RR for COPD was 1.6 (1.2-2.1) and for asthma 24 (1.2-5.0).","yes. Active use of maintenance therapy by inhaled corticosteroids was associated with a decreased need of hospital treatment in young children <24 months old with asthma, mainly because of less readmissions.","Hospitalization rates for childhood asthma are three times as high in Boston, Massachusetts, as in Rochester, New York; New Haven, Connecticut, rates are intermediate. We undertook this study to determine how care for children admitted for asthma varies across these communities. We performed a community-wide retrospective chart review. We reviewed a random sample of all asthma hospitalizations, from 1988 to 1990, of children 2 to 12 years old living in these communities (n = 614). Abstracted data included demographics, illness severity, and treatment before admission. Compared with Rochester children, Boston children were less likely to have received maintenance preventive therapy (inhaled corticosteroids or cromolyn [odds ratio (OR), 0.4 (0.2, 0.9)]), acute \"rescue\" therapy (oral corticosteroids [OR, 0.2 (0.1, 0.4)]), or inhaled beta-agonist therapy [OR, 0.5 (0.3, 1.0)]. A larger proportion of admitted asthmatic patients in Boston (34%) were in the least severely ill group-oxygen saturation 95% or above-compared with patients in Rochester (20%).","To test whether general practitioners who completed an audit cycle encompassing a data recording exercise, distance learning programme and personalized feedback changed their management of patients with acute asthma attacks. Practice and patient details from two national correspondence surveys of the management of acute asthma attacks in the United Kingdom in 1991-92 and 1992-93 were compared. Main outcome measures were use of nebulised bronchodilators, systemic steroids during an asthma attack, and increased use of prophylactic therapy after attacks. Ninety-one general practitioners completed an audit cycle and reported data on 782 patients with asthma attacks in 1991-92 and 669 in 1992-93. There were no significant changes in practice resources during this time. Management changed in line with recommended guidelines and audit feedback suggestions leading to more use of nebulised bronchodilators [272 (35%) before, 268 (40%) after, Odds Ratio (OR) 0.80, 95% Confidence Intervals (CI) 0.64-0.99], systemic steroids [563 (72%) before, 506 (76%) after, OR 0.83, CI 0.65-1.06], and 'step-up' in preventative therapy [402 (51%) before, 382 (57%) after, OR 0.79, CI 0.64-0.98].","Pooled trial data have shown that long-acting beta-agonists increase the risk for asthma hospitalizations and deaths by two to fourfold compared with placebo. Until recently, it was unclear whether concomitant inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) could eliminate this risk. This review summarizes the available data on the safety of long-acting beta-agonist use in asthma, with and without concomitant ICSs. The results from an updated meta-analysis are presented, with data through December 2008. In pooled trial data, catastrophic asthma events (defined as asthma-related intubation or death) were increased fourfold for concomitant treatment with long-acting beta-agonists and ICSs compared with corticosteroids alone (odds ratio 3.7; 95% CI 1.4 - 9.6). It is estimated that the addition of long-acting beta-agonists to ICS therapy is associated with an absolute increase of one catastrophic event per 1500 patient-years.","Asthma and COPD are common diseases of the airways which are mainly diagnosed and treated in general practice.AIM: Various studies have reported an increase in the morbidity of asthma and COPD. There are two possible reasons for such an increase. The first is an apparent increase caused by using different criteria in defining asthma/COPD, and by increased awareness of the disease by doctors and patients. The second is a real increase caused by an increase in the prevalence of airway pathology. The aim of this study was to determine the cause of the observed increase in morbidity. In 1977, a sample of 2328 adults from the general population were screened for asthma and COPD. Those screened were then divided into five sub-groups (grades 1-5), according to severity of: (1) respiratory symptoms; and (2) loss in FEV1. The number of patients who were not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening as having asthma or COPD grades 1-5 were also assessed. In 1992, we studied a different sample of 1184 adults of the general population in the same area. We used the same criteria as in 1977 to analyse our results. The number of patients not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening was also studied. The overall prevalence (grades 1-5) of asthma and COPD has increased from +/- 19% in 1977 to +/- 31% in 1992 (range 21-42). The main reason for this is an increase in prevalence of very mild to moderate asthma and COPD (grades 1-3) from 17% in 1977 to 27% in 1992. The prevalence of severe cases (grades 4-5) increased from 2% in 1977 to 4% in 1992. In 1992, around 65% of the patients were not known to the general practitioner as having any grade of asthma or COPD. This was only slightly lower than the 72% in 1977. All patients with a severe disease (grade 5) were known to the general practitioner.","yes. This study provides evidence of an increase in respiratory symptoms and use of anti-asthmatic drugs over a period of 17 years from 1990 among young adult Icelanders.","Despite the increase in the use of inhaled corticosteroids, half of the persistent asthmatics from the general population are using a medication regimen below their severity level. When the use of drugs follows the GINA guideline recommendations, a good control of asthma is also achievable in the daily management of the disease, particularly in the case of mild and moderate asthmatics.","Asthma morbidity and mortality has increased substantially in recent years, but asthma hospitalization rates among many geographic and sociodemographic groups have remained stable. Observations on asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes might provide valuable insight into the functioning of the health care system during this period of health care reform. To analyze changes between 1991 and 1995 in childhood asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes. All 29 329 hospitalizations, including 2028 for asthma, for the 198 893 children (<19 years of age) in Monroe County (Rochester), New York, were studied during this 5-year period. Severity was determined by hospital record review on a 22% random sample. Using the worst oxygen saturation (SaO(2)) during the first 24 hours of hospitalization as the primary index of severity, episodes were categorized as mild (0 to >/=95), moderate (90 to 94), or severe (<90). Hospitalization rates are expressed as hospitalizations per 1000 child-years. The overall asthma hospitalization rate was 2.04 (95% confidence interval, 1.95-2.13). The overall annual asthma hospitalization rate remained relatively stable from 1991 (1.90) to 1995 (2.31), whereas the hospitalization rates for severe asthma rose 270%-from 0.57 to 1.55-during this period. Simultaneously, the hospitalization rates for mild asthma decreased from 0.26 to 0.12. As a proportion of all asthma hospitalizations between 1991 and 1995, severe episodes increased from 31.5% to 60.4%; conversely, mild episodes decreased from 14.1% to 4.7%.","Knowledge of the mortality outcome of asthma is limited to hospital case series follow-up. To provide estimates of the mortality and cause of death in patients with asthma comparison of observed and expected number of deaths in patients with asthma for the observation period 1962-1986 was made. The study group was 262 patients aged 19-81 years with severe asthma. The group was a total sample of patients with a daily treatment of oral steroids more than one year, 1962-1963, from the city of Göteborg. Mortality from all causes was significantly raised among the asthmatics (179 deaths versus 83.5 expected, relative risk (RR) - 2.1, 95% confidence interval (CI) : 1.8-2.5). There was an excess mortality from ischaemic heart disease 58 versus 29.9 deaths (RR = 1.9, 95% CI : 1.4-2.4), especially among women (RR = 2.4, 95% CI : 1.7-2.2). However, there was also an increased mortality from asthma (39 versus 0.4 deaths) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (11 versus 0.5 deaths).","Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended in the management of patients with asthma-chronic obstructive pulmonary disease overlap syndrome (ACOS), but its effectiveness has not been clearly proved. To evaluate whether ICS has effects on outcomes of ACOS. In this observational 12-year retrospective cohort study involving 125 patients with ACOS from Seoul National University Hospital, the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second, the incidence rate of severe exacerbation, and overall mortality in an ICS-treated group were compared with those in a non-ICS-treated group. Of 125 patients with ACOS, 90 and 35 were categorized to the ICS and non-ICS treatment groups, respectively. There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second (9.61 mL/year in ICS treatment group vs 15.68 mL/year in non-ICS treatment group, P = .598). Compared with the non-ICS treatment group, the ICS treatment group did not show a decrease in the risk of severe exacerbation (adjusted incidence rate ratio 1.24, 95% confidence interval 0.44-3.46). Time to death also did not differ between the 2 groups. Even when analyses with propensity score matching were performed, the results were similar.","The increase in prevalence of obesity is a possible risk factor for asthma in developed countries. As the people of Cuba experienced an acute population-based decrease in weight in the 1990s, we tested the hypothesis that national weight loss and subsequent weight gain was associated a reciprocal changes in asthma mortality. Data were obtained on mortality rates from asthma and COPD in Cuba from 1964 to 2014, along with data on prevalence of obesity for this period. Joinpoint analysis was used to identify inflexion points in the data. Although the prevalence of obesity from 1990 to 1995 decreased from 14% to 7%, over the same time period the rate of asthma mortality increased from 4.5 deaths per 100,000 population to 5.4 deaths per 100,000 population. In 2010, the obesity prevalence subsequently increased to 15% in 2010, while the asthma mortality rate dropped to 2.3 deaths per 100,000 population. The optimal model for fit of asthma mortality over time gave an increasing linear association from 1964 to 1995 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1993 to 1997), followed by a decrease in asthma mortality rates from 1995 to 1999 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1997 to 2002).","Few studies have investigated the long-term association between inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and lung function decline in asthma. To evaluate whether prolonged treatment with ICSs is associated with FEV(1) decline in adults with asthma. An international cohort of 667 subjects with asthma (20-44 years old) was identified in the European Community Respiratory Health Survey (1991-1993) and followed up from 1999 to 2002. Spirometry was performed on both occasions. FEV(1) decline was analyzed according to age, sex, height, body mass index, total IgE, time of ICS use, and smoking, while adjusting for potential confounders. As ICS use increased, the decline in FEV(1) was lower (P trend = .025): on average, decline passed from 34 mL/y in nonusers (half of the sample) to 20 mL/y in subjects treated for 48 months or more (18%). When adjusting for all covariates, there was an interaction (P = .02) between ICS use and total IgE: in subjects with high (>100 kU/L) IgE, ICS use for 4 years or more was associated with a lower FEV(1) decline (23 mL/y; 95% CI, 8-38 compared with nonusers). This association was not seen in those with lower IgE.","We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging.","Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period."],"string":"[\n \"An increased incidence of pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) under inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy was noticed in previous studies. We performed a prospective study to elucidate the risk factors for the development of pneumonia in this group of patients. A prospective, non-randomized study with patients diagnosed as having COPD from 2007 to 2008 identified in the Far Eastern Memorial Hospital were recruited. We recorded data for all patients, including clinical features and signs, demographic data, lung function status, and medications. Bio-markers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and placenta growth factor (PlGF) were checked at first diagnosis. Every acute exacerbation was also recorded, especially pneumonia events, which were confirmed by chest radiography. Multivariate analysis was performed with stepwise logistic regression for pneumonia risk factors. 274 patients were diagnosed as having COPD during the study period and 29 patients suffered from pneumonia with a prevalence of 10.6%. The rate was significantly higher in patients with ICS therapy (20/125, 16%) compared with those without ICS (9/149, 6%) (p = 0.02). We stratified ICS therapy into medium dose (500-999 ug/day fluticasone equivalent, 71 patients) and high dose (1000 ug/day and higher fluticasone equivalent, 54 patients) group. There was no statistical difference in the incidence of pneumonia between these two group (medium dose: 13/71, 18.3% vs. high dose: 7/54, 12.9%, p = 0.47). Multivariate analysis was performed to identify the risk factors for developing pneumonia and included forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) less than 40% of predicted (odds ratio (OR) 2.2, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.1-6.9), ICS prescription ((OR) 2.4, 95% (CI): 1.3-8.7), the presence of diabetes mellitus (DM) (OR 2.6, 95% CI: 1.2-9.4) and PlGF level over 40 pg/L (OR 4.1, 95% CI: 1.5-9.9).\",\n \"Asthma guidelines should lead to improved, more rational asthma medication prescribing. The aims of this study were to assess trends in paediatric asthma drug prescribing in the UK and to assess the potential impact of the publication of the British Thoracic Society (BTS) asthma guideline. The estimated community paediatric prescribing figures for asthma medications in the UK were studied using data from the NHS Information Centre for Health and Social Care for the years 2000-2006. The numbers of prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups decreased by 60% from 2000 to 2006. However, this still represents 121,000 prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups in 2006 despite minimal recommendations for their use. The percentage of steroid inhalers prescribed as combination inhalers of a steroid and a long-acting beta agonist increased from 2.6% in 2000 to 20.6% in 2006.\",\n \"To determine whether children with asthma and on inhaled corticosteroids have more behavioural problems, such as aggressiveness and hyperactivity, as compared with healthy controls and with children under medical care because of other disorders. Questionnaires were given to three groups of children: a group of asthmatic children with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), a group of children attending the ear, nose and throat (ENT) outpatient clinic and the healthy controls. Included were questions about health, medication use, demographical data and about behaviour, including the child behaviour check list (CBCL) and questions about attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Forty asthmatic children on ICS, 50 children visiting the ENT outpatient clinic and 183 healthy controls were studied. The total CBCL and mean ADHD scores of the children on ICS were 28.1 and 9.1, which were both significantly higher than the scores of the healthy controls (20.4 and 7.1), but not when compared with the ENT outpatient group (26.2 and 8.6). Further analysis revealed statistically significant differences between the ICS group and healthy controls in CBCL-axes. There were, however, no differences between the ENT group and the ICS on one side and the healthy controls on the other.\",\n \"To assess any outcome differences between young men and women who are admitted for asthma. We conducted a retrospective cohort study based on hospitalizations. An inclusion criterion was admission for asthma between January 1, 1998 and July 1, 2001. Exclusion criteria included age>45, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and emphysema. Data were collected on 10 potential confounding variables. Four outcome variables were assessed, including length of stay, intensive care unit (ICU) length of stay, mortality, and respiratory failure. Patients admitted for asthma were significantly more likely to be female (374 females vs. 106 males, p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders comparing month of admission. The women were significantly older, with more Medicaid insured, and more anxiety/depression (p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders for obesity, race, tobacco history, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), hypertension, diabetes, and pneumonia. There was no reported mortality. Using regression analysis, there was no difference between the genders for length of stay (odds ratio [OR] = 1.06, 95% confidence interval [CI]0.97-1.17) and respiratory failure (OR = 1.58, 95% CI 0.53-4.76). Men stayed significantly longer in the ICU (OR = 1.18, 95% CI 1.01-1.38).\",\n \"To examine the effect of the level of patient copayment on the rate of purchase of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) by patients with obstructive lung disease. Cross-sectional study of records of all prescriptions for ICS dispensed to general and concessional beneficiaries aged 15 years or over in the period January 2003 to December 2006. Data were obtained from the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme, which subsidises medication costs for all Australians. The number of prescriptions for ICS dispensed to government concession card holders compared with the number dispensed to general beneficiaries, expressed as a rate ratio. ICS prescriptions were dispensed to over 1.6 million people during the study period. Concession card holders were dispensed ICS prescriptions at a higher rate than general beneficiaries, both overall (43.7 v 9.1 ICS prescriptions per 100 person-years) and in all population subgroups. After adjusting for age, sex, remoteness category and socioeconomic status, people holding a concession card were dispensed over 2.5 times the number of ICS prescriptions (alone or in combination with a long-acting beta(2)-agonist) compared with general beneficiaries. Similar patterns were seen after adjusting for differences between the two groups in the prevalence of obstructive lung disease.\",\n \"To analyse coronary heart disease (CHD) mortality and risk factor trends in the West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory between 1998 and 2009. Modelling study using CHD IMPACT model. The West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory. Data on populations, mortality, patient groups and numbers, treatments and cardiovascular risk factor trends were obtained from national and local surveys, routine national and WHO statistics, and critically appraised. Data were then integrated and analysed using a previously validated CHD model. CHD deaths prevented or postponed are the main outcome. CHD death rates fell by 20% in the West Bank, between 1998 and 2009. Smoking prevalence was initially high in men, 51%, but decreased to 42%. Population blood pressure levels and total cholesterol levels also decreased. Conversely, body mass index rose by 1-2 kg/m(2) and diabetes increased by 2-8%. Population modelling suggested that more than two-thirds of the mortality fall was attributable to decreases in major risk factors, mainly total cholesterol, blood pressure and smoking. Approximately one-third of the CHD mortality decreases were attributable to treatments, particularly for secondary prevention and heart failure. However, the contributions from statins, surgery and angioplasty were consistently small.\",\n \"A core feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the accelerated decline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1). The recent Groningen and Leiden Universities study of Corticosteroids in Obstructive Lung Disease (GLUCOLD) study suggested that particular phenotypes of COPD benefit from fluticasone±salmeterol by reducing the rate of FEV1 decline, yet the underlying mechanisms are unknown. Whole-genome gene expression profiling using the Affymetrix Gene ST array (V.1.0) was performed on 221 bronchial biopsies available from 89 COPD patients at baseline and after 6 and 30 months of fluticasone±salmeterol and placebo treatment in GLUCOLD. Linear mixed effects modelling revealed that the expression of 138 genes decreased, whereas the expression of 140 genes significantly upregulated after both 6 and 30 months of treatment with fluticasone±salmeterol versus placebo. A more pronounced treatment-induced change in the expression of 50 and 55 of these 278 genes was associated with a lower rate of decline in FEV1 and Saint George Respiratory Questionnaire, respectively. Genes decreasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to cell cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, epithelial cell signalling, p53 signalling and T cell signalling. Genes increasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to focal adhesion, gap junction and extracellular matrix deposition. Finally, the fluticasone-induced gene expression changes were enriched among genes that change in the airway epithelium in smokers with versus without COPD in an independent data set.\",\n \"Concern over the safety of influenza vaccination in individuals with obstructive airways disease has contributed to suboptimal rates of vaccine uptake in this group. We investigated the safety of influenza vaccine in older people with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a cohort from the UK General Practice Research Database (GPRD). A population based cohort study of 12,000 individuals with asthma or COPD from 432 general practices was conducted. Incidence rate ratios (IRR) were calculated for asthma or COPD diagnoses, prescriptions for oral corticosteroids, and acute exacerbations on the day of vaccination and on days 1-2 and 3-14 after vaccination compared with other time periods in the influenza season. The IRRs for asthma or COPD diagnoses and oral corticosteroid prescriptions were increased on the day of vaccination (for example, the IRR for oral corticosteroid prescriptions for subjects with asthma during the 1992-3 influenza season was 8.24 (95% confidence interval 5.54 to 12.26)). However, there was no consistent increase in the IRR of any of the outcomes on days 1-2 or 3-14 after vaccination, and most of these IRRs were close to 1. Rates of exacerbation were low and showed no consistent statistically significant increase during any risk periods.\",\n \"To determine whether inhaled corticosteroids can be discontinued in the stable phase of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or if this therapy should be continued. Nonrandomized open uncontrolled 5-year trial. Prospective study in general practice. Forty-eight patients with steroid-dependent asthma or COPD who had shown a decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of at least 80 mL per year and at least one exacerbation per year during the first 2 years of bronchodilator treatment. Subjects were treated additionally with inhaled steroids for another 2 years and were finally given the option to stop using steroids. Sixteen patients were willing to stop using beclomethasone and were studied for another year. No recruitment bias took place in this consecutive sample in the fifth year of follow-up. Two of 16 patients developed carcinomas and dropped out. Two years of bronchodilator treatment alone (400 micrograms of salbutamol or 40 micrograms of ipratropium bromide four times daily), followed by 2 years of additional inhaled corticosteroid treatment (400 micrograms of beclomethasone two times daily), and finally 1 year of bronchodilator treatment alone. Decline in lung function (FEV1), change in bronchial hyperresponsiveness, indicated by a provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% fall in FEV1 (PC20), morning peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), diurnal PEFR, week-to-week variation of PEFR, bronchial symptoms, and exacerbations. The course of FEV1 during the year in which beclomethasone was discontinued was not significantly different when compared with the 2-year period of beclomethasone treatment. Neither did the course of PC20, morning PEFR, diurnal PEFR, symptom score, and exacerbation rate change. Only the week-to-week variation of the PEFR increased after discontinuing steroids.\",\n \"no. Clinically meaningful improvements in the control of asthma and in airway responsiveness achieved during continuous treatment with inhaled corticosteroids do not persist after continuous treatment is discontinued.\",\n \"Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.\",\n \"yes. Based on the preponderance of evidence, treatment with inhaled corticosteroids in infants and young children with recurrent wheeze and risk factors of developing asthma appears to allow better control of the illness and improve the pulmonary function.\",\n \"The prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis and physician-diagnosed asthma has increased in Helsinki during 10 years in adults, especially in women aged<40 years. Concomitantly, the use of asthma medication increased and subjects with physiciandiagnosed asthma were less symptomatic. The increase in the prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma may partly be due to improved diagnostic recognition of asthma in primary care during the Finnish Asthma Programme, but the concurrent rise in allergic rhinoconjunctivitis may reflect a true rise in prevalence.\",\n \"Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.\",\n \"yes. Corticosteroids decrease rhinovirus-induced ICAM-1 up-regulation in respiratory epithelial cells and modulate pretranscriptional mechanisms. This effect may be important for the therapeutic control of virus-induced asthma exacerbations.\",\n \"The guidelines for asthma recommend that the use of anti-inflammatory therapy should be adapted to the severity of the disease. However, few data are available to assess the adequacy of the use of drugs and its influence on the control of asthma in 'real life'. The adequacy of the current use of anti-asthmatic medication according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines was assessed in a random sample of 400 asthmatics identified in the frame of the Italian Study on Asthma in Young Adults. Asthma severity was assessed using the GINA criteria; accordingly, a patient was classified as receiving inadequate treatment if his/her current use of drugs was lower than that suggested by the guidelines for the corresponding severity level. The absence of asthma attacks in the last 3 months was used as an indicator of the disease control. Fifty-five percent of the patients had persistent asthma. Overall, 48% (95% CI 41.2-54.8) of persistent asthmatics were receiving inadequate treatment, and 66% (95% CI 59.5-72.4) had not used their medication daily over the past 3 months. Persistent asthmatics who were inadequately treated had a significantly greater frequency of asthma attacks (geometric mean ratio 3.7; 95% CI 2.1-6.6) than those using an adequate dose of medication. Mild and moderate persistent asthmatics using an adequate medication regimen reported a low number of asthma attacks (median 0). At the multivariate analysis, a good control of the disease was positively associated with an adequate dose of anti-inflammatory medication (OR = 2.2; 95% CI 1.1-4.5) and was negatively associated with a later onset of asthma (OR = 0.96; 95% CI 0.93-0.99) and severe asthma (OR = 0.37; 95% CI 0.17-0.81).\",\n \"Chronic inflammation of the airways plays a major role in the pathogenesis of asthma. Although C-reactive protein (CRP) is now an established circulating marker for cardiovascular diseases, it remains unclear whether asthma is an independent risk for increased plasma CRP. In Study 1, we evaluated CRP levels in 329 asthmatic patients and 1684 non-asthmatic subjects. Inhaled corticosteroids were regularly used by 308 asthmatics. In Study 2, the effects of inhaled corticosteroids on CRP levels were examined in 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients. In Study 1, plasma CRP levels were associated with body mass index (R=0.349, P<0.0001) and age (R=0.111, P<0.0001) in all study subjects, but were higher in patients with asthma, hypertension, diabetes and/or dyslipidemia than in those without these disorders. Multivariate regression analysis identified body mass index, age and asthma, but not hypertension, diabetes or dyslipidemia, as independently associated with an elevation of CRP levels. In Study 2, treatment of 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients with inhaled corticosteroids for 3 months significantly reduced plasma CRP levels.\",\n \"Few data exist regarding the natural history of asthma exacerbations over time. To evaluate the frequency and risk factors of asthma exacerbation occurrence over a 5-year period in a large cohort of adult patients with persistent asthma. Health insurance claims from the Truven Health MarketScan database were analyzed for 2543 patients who had full medical and drug claims for years 2006 to 2011, did not have co-occurring chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in the index year (2006), and were treated with high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting β2-agonists for at least 120 days (\\\"high intensity\\\" therapy) in the index year. A retrospective analysis was conducted to assess the pattern of severe exacerbations (encounter with health care system and steroid burst) over time and their associations with the other measures of health status. Despite the use of high-intensity asthma therapy, there was only a small decrease in total asthma exacerbations over time, but no significant time trend for asthma hospitalizations. An exacerbation in the prior year increased the risk for exacerbations almost 8-fold, (odds ratio 7.8 [95% CI, 7.1-8.6]). A 50% increase in exacerbation risk (odds ratio 1.5 [95% CI, 1.4-1.6]) was associated with continued high-intensity treatment for the duration of the study. Patients with encounters of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease after the index year were at 60% increased risk of an exacerbation.\",\n \"Adherence to treatment with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) is a critical determinant of asthma control. The objective of this study was to assess factors that determine adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Fifty-eight children with asthma, aged 5 to 16 years, used ICS with or without a spacer for 3 months. Adherence rates as measured from questionnaires and canisters, asthma symptom scores, and inhalation technique scores were assessed every 30 days. The degree of supervision by caregivers was assessed at day 30. Adherence rates measured using canisters were lower at day 60 than at day 30 (P=0.044) and did not change thereafter (74.4%±17.4% at day 30, 66.5%±18.4% at day 60, and 67.4%±22.2% at day 90). Adherence rates at days 60 and 90 and during the total study period were significantly different when measured by using questionnaires versus canisters (P<0.001, P=0.022, and P=0.001, respectively). In the comparison of adherence rates repeatedly measured at days 30, 60, and 90 and adherence rates during the total study period among the 3 groups, adherence rates in the high-degree supervision group were significantly higher than those in the low-degree supervision group (82.0±16.0 vs. 66.1±14.5, 75.4±14.4 vs. 56.2±18.4, 75.0±18.3 vs. 55.0±19.7 [P=0.027]; 77.9±12.2 vs. 59.1±11.4 [P=0.021]) after adjustment for sex and age.\",\n \"An active use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma has been associated with less asthma exacerbations and hospital admissions in children aged more than 2 years. The present study aimed to investigate hospital admission rates in young children from two populations in relation to the age-specific use of maintenance medication for asthma. Annual data on children aged less than 24 months treated for asthma, including data on the use of maintenance medication based on the purchases of prescribed medications, and annual numbers of admissions to hospital and proportions of readmissions, were collected from 1995 to 1999 in two provinces of Finland. The inclusion criteria, three or more doctor-diagnosed wheezing episodes, were individually checked by the authors in each case. The mean number of children aged less than 24 months during the years of the study was 5490 in Kuopio and 9914 in Oulu area. In the Kuopio area, during the years of the study, 16.5/1000 children aged less than 24 months were on maintenance medication for asthma, and 90% of them were receiving inhaled corticosteroids. In the Oulu area, the respective figures were 13.5/1000 (P<0.001) and 99%. The average admission rate was 7.9/1000 in the Kuopio area and 8.7/1000 in the Oulu area (P<0.05). The readmissions indicated the higher admission rates in the Oulu (40% of all admissions) than in the Kuopio (28%) area (P<0.01).\",\n \"Despite the significant progress in the care and outcome of patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the impact of evolving therapies on the incidence and outcome of patients with cardiogenic shock complicating AMI has been questioned. We analyzed trends in the incidence, care and outcome of cardiogenic shock from four national surveys conducted during 1992--1998. Of the 5,351 AMI patients admitted to all coronary care units in Israel, 254 (4.7%) developed cardiogenic shock. The incidence of cardiogenic shock decreased over time (5.8, 5.1, 4.3 and 4.4% for the years 1992, 1994, 1996 and 1998, respectively, p = 0.08). Concomitantly, there was an increase in utilization of coronary angiography, urgent angioplasty and intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation. In addition, there was an increase in hospital use of aspirin, nitrates, ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers. Patients with shock were more likely to die within 7 days compared with AMI patients not having shock (65 vs. 4%; p < 0.001). During the study period, the mortality of patients with shock decreased: at 7 days (72% in 1992 to 60% in 1998; p = 0.09), at 30 days (87 to 70%, respectively; p = 0.01) and at 6 months (89 to 77%, respectively; p = 0.02). Both aspirin and angioplasty were independently associated with improved outcome after adjustment for baseline characteristics and study period.\",\n \"Statins are hypothesized to have beneficial effects in asthma management through their pleiotropic anti-inflammatory effects. Several studies have examined this relationship, but have yielded conflicting results. This study investigates the effect of statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or emergency department (ED) visits, and whether this relationship varies by concomitant inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) in a large cohort of asthma patients. Subjects with asthma, a recent history of asthma exacerbation, and who were 18 years or older were selected from the population-based Medco Health Solutions administrative database over a 1 year period. Prescription claims for statins and asthma medications, and asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were ascertained over a 12 month follow-up period. Subjects were stratified into two groups based on their ICS use. A total of 3747 ICS users and 2905 non-ICS users were included in this study. Statin users represented 21% of ICS users and 11% of non-users. Among ICS users, statin use was significantly associated with decreased odds of asthma-related ED visits (OR = 0.77, 95% CI 0.64-0.94, p = 0.008), but not with asthma-related hospitalizations (OR = 1.09, 95% CI 0.92-1.30, p = 0.31). No significant associations were found among non-ICS users (for asthma-related ED visits: OR = 0.92, 95% CI 0.57-1.49, p = 0.73; asthma-related hospitalizations: OR = 1.10, 95% CI 0.85-1.41, p = 0.48). The statistical interactions between ICS and statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were not significant.\",\n \"The aims were to evaluate the profile of newly diagnosed adult asthma cases and the approach adopted to the secondary care management at the launch of the Finnish asthma programme in 1994 and seven years later, in 2001. A retrospective medical record audit was made of non-acutely referred patients with asthma in 1994 (n=165) and in 2001 (n=133). Clinical profile data, numbers of out-patient visits and periods of in-patient care before and after asthma diagnosis were gathered from referral letters and secondary care records. The newly diagnosed asthma patients in 2001 were older, more obese and had more co-morbidities. The main asthma symptoms, such as dyspnoea, wheezing and cough, occurred equally in both years but were more often periodic than daily in 2001. Wheezing during auscultation was significantly less common in 2001. The diagnostic process was associated to a history of asthma in first-degree relatives (OR 5.34, 95% CI 1.12-24.49) in 1994 and a visit to a nurse prior to that to a physician (OR 3.13, 95% CI 1.17-8.37) in 2001. Secondary care visits per new case of asthma (7.3 in 1994 vs. 5.4 in 2001) and days in hospital (3.6 in 1994 vs. 0.95 in 2001) decreased significantly.\",\n \"Changes in lifestyle or environmental factors are responsible for the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease. Establishing the time at which the increase began may provide a clue as to what factors possibly could have contributed to the increase. Many cross-sectional studies have shown that the prevalence of allergic sensitization decreases with increasing age. This could reflect the natural course of allergic sensitization. Alternatively, this could reflect that the increase in sensitization is caused by a cohort effect, i.e. an increase among subjects born during recent decades. The aim was to investigate age-specific changes in the prevalence of allergic sensitization in a cohort of adults. A total of 599 subjects aged 15 to 69 years participated in a cross-sectional general population study in 1990. In 1998 they were invited to a follow-up, and 64.4% (386/599) were reexamined. Serum samples obtained from the participants in 1990 and 1998 were analysed for specific IgE to six common inhalant allergens with the same assay. The prevalence of allergic sensitization (specific IgE to at least one allergen) increased among subjects who were less than c. 30 years at baseline (1990), i.e. subjects born during the 1960s or later, while the prevalence was unchanged among subjects who were more than c. 30 years at baseline.\",\n \"Most adult asthmatics are under the care of FDs; however, these appear to under-treat to a considerable degree, especially respecting the use of inhaled corticosteroids. It must be emphasised strongly that Asthma is an inflammatory disease; and FDs must become better informed of the directives of the international consensus on asthma.\",\n \"The aim of the study was to assess the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on subsequent respiratory symptoms and asthma in infants hospitalized for respiratory syncytial virus infection (RSV). The study included 188 children below 12 mo of age, hospitalized because of RSV infection. During the winter of 1994/95 only selected children (13%) were given inhaled corticosteroids following discharge from the hospital. The following winter (1995/96), almost all children (86%) were given this treatment for 6-8 wk. Outcomes of the two different treatment regimens were compared by questionnaire 19-24 mo after discharge. Children hospitalized and treated during the winter of 1995/96 developed asthma (12% vs. 24%) and other severe symptoms of the respiratory tract less often than infants treated the year before. The frequency of children with less severe symptoms did not differ between the two treatment periods.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest that inhaled steroids are better than cromones in preventing admissions for asthma when two provinces with different practices for maintenance medication of steady-state asthma were compared.\",\n \"Annual data on children aged under 16 y treated for asthma, including consumption of regular medication for asthma, numbers of hospital periods, lengths of hospitalizations and annual proportions of readmissions, were collected using patient-specific medical records from 1995 to 1999. In the Kuopio province, on average, 35.6-36.7/1000 children were on maintenance for asthma, of which 23% were receiving cromones, 51% were taking inhaled steroids and 26% were treated with cromones plus intermittent steroids. In the Oulu province, the respective prevalence was 32.7-34.9/1000, and the respective proportions were 5%, 93% and 2%. Total and first admissions, as well as hospital days were clearly less in the Oulu province. In the children aged>or = 6y, the average annual total admissions were 0.3/1000 (Oulu) vs 1.2/1000 (Kuopio) (p<0.001). Similarly, the first admissions were 0.2/1000 vs 1.0/1000 (p<0.001), proportions of readmissions 6.3% vs 19.3% (p<0.05), and numbers of hospital days 0.7/1000 vs 3.8/1000 (p<0.001). The differences were in the same direction, though less prominent, also among children 2-5 y of age.\",\n \"Few epidemiological surveys on general population samples estimated changes in prevalence of respiratory symptoms/diseases over a long time interval; our study aims to quantify the temporal changes in the prevalence rates of asthma, allergic rhinitis and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) after 25 years from baseline. A general population sample participated in 3 cross-sectional surveys carried out in Central Italy (Pisa) in 1985-88 (n = 3865), 1991-93 (n = 2841), 2009-11 (n = 1620). 2276 (47%) subjects participated in at least 1 survey, 1723 (35.5%) in at least 2 surveys and 849 (17.5%) in all the 3 surveys. All subjects filled in a standardized questionnaire about health status and risk factors; a sub-sample performed spirometry. Chi-square test was used to compare adjusted prevalence rates of respiratory symptoms/diseases and descriptive characteristics among the surveys. Generalised estimating equations (GEE) were used to analyze the association between respiratory symptoms/diseases and risk factors. There was an increasing trend in prevalence rates of all respiratory symptoms/diseases throughout the surveys: current asthma attacks (1st-3rd survey prevalence: 3.4-7.2%), allergic rhinitis (16.2-37.4%), usual phlegm (8.7-19.5%) and COPD (2.1-6.8%) more than doubled. The GEE model confirmed these increasing trends, indicating higher risk of having respiratory symptoms/diseases in the second and third surveys.\",\n \"Physician training influences patient care. To compare asthma management and change in the percentage predicted FEV1 among pediatric physician specialties. A retrospective cohort of children 6 years of age or older, seen in a multidisciplinary asthma clinic between 2009 and 2010, and followed to 2012, was completed to examine differences in asthma outcomes by specialty (2 pediatricians, 3 pediatric allergists, 5 pediatric respirologists). Univariate analyses compared investigation, including allergy testing (skin prick or RAST), comorbid conditions, and prescription by specialty. Multivariate regression, which controlled for random effect of the individual physician, examined specialty differences for prescribed inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and changes in percentage predicted FEV1. More than 56% of the patients (309/548) were seen by pediatric respirologists, 26% by pediatric allergists, and 18% by pediatricians. Physician specialty influences investigation requested, comorbid diagnoses, treatment, and improvement in FEV1. Pediatric allergists' patients had more allergy tests, were more likely to be diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and, consequently, were more likely to be prescribed nasal steroids than pediatricians and pediatric respirologists. Pediatricians were less likely to prescribe ICS (odds ratio 0.39 [95% CI, 0.15-0.96]; P < .05) than pediatric allergists, with the greatest difference in ICS prescription among children with a percentage predicted FEV1 ≥ 80%. Improvement in FEV1 among children who received care with pediatric allergists was higher than those seen by pediatricians (13%; P < .001) and pediatric respirologists (8%; P = .005).\",\n \"The aim of this study was to characterise the deaths of children from asthma in New South Wales (NSW) over the last 10 years and ascertain whether there were modifiable factors that could have prevented the deaths. The hospital medical records, coronial reports, immunisation records and all relevant correspondence from general practitioners, medical specialists and hospitals were reviewed for children who died with asthma in the 10 years (2004-2013). In 10 years, there were 20 deaths (0-7 per year) with a male predominance (70%) occurring in children aged 4-17 years. Sixteen (80%) had persistent asthma and 4 (20%) had intermittent asthma. The majority (55%) had been hospitalised for asthma in the preceding 12 months, 25% in the preceding 6 weeks. The majority (55%) was aged 10-14 years. Ninety percent were atopic. Psychosocial issues were identified in the majority (55%) of families. Forty percent had a child protection history. Seventy-five percent had consulted a general practitioner in the year before their death, 45% had a current written asthma action plan and 50% had not seen a paediatrician ever in relation to their asthma. Of the 16 children at school, the schools were aware of the asthma in 14 (88%) cases, but only half had copies of written asthma plans.\",\n \"Asthma is the most common chronic disease in children. Previous studies described significant variations in acute asthma management in children. This study was conducted to examine whether asthma management in the pediatric emergency department (ED) was improved through the use of an evidence-based acute asthma care guideline reminder card. The Pediatric Acute Asthma Management Guideline (PAMG) was introduced to the ED of a pediatric tertiary care hospital in Ontario, Canada. Medical charts of 278 retrospective ED visits (January-December 2002) and 154 prospective visits (July 2003-June 2004) were reviewed to assess changes in acute asthma management such as medication treatment, asthma education, and discharge planning. Logistic and linear regressions were used to determine the effect of PAMG on asthma management in the ED. The propensity score method was used to adjust for confounding. During the implementation of PAMG, patients who visited the ED were more likely to receive oral corticosteroids (Adjusted Odds Ratio [AOR] = 2.26, 95% CI: 1.63-3.14, p<0.0001) and oxygen saturation reassessment before ED discharge (AOR = 2.02, 95% CI: 1.45-2.82, p<0.0001). They also received 0.23 (95% CI: 0.03-0.44, p = 0.0283) more doses of bronchodilator in the first hour of ED stay. Improvements in asthma education and discharge planning were noted, but the changes were not statistically significant.\",\n \"yes. Triage nurse initiation of oral corticosteroid before physician assessment was associated with reduced times to clinical improvement and discharge, and reduced admission rates in children presenting with moderate to severe acute asthma exacerbations.\",\n \"To study persistence with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and its determinants in asthma-patients. From the PHARMO database, asthma-patients (age < 35 years) with a first dispensing for ICS in 1999-2002 and > or = 2 dispensings in the first year were included. Persistence during the first year was defined as the number of days from start to time of first failure to continue renewal of the initial ICS. Potential determinants of persistence were assessed at ICS-start and 1 year before. The study-cohort included 5563 new users of single ICS and 297 of fixed-combined ICS. Less than 10% of patients using single ICS and 15% of patients using fixed-combined ICS were persistent at 1 year. Similar persistence-rates were observed when stratified for age (children/adolescents: 0-18 years and adults: 19-34 years). Increased persistence with single ICS was observed with the type of ICS (budesonide), prescriber (specialist), prior use of long-acting beta-agonists, previous hospitalization for asthma, metered-dose inhaler, low starting-dose and once-daily dosing regimen at start. Persistence with fixed combined ICS-treatment increased with younger age and was decreased in patients having high starting-dose of ICS and prior use of antibiotics.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to determine whether a new diagnosis of asthma is associated with a later diagnosis of herpes zoster (HZ) in a nationwide, retrospective, non-age limited, population-based cohort. We used data from the National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan. The asthma group consisted of all 40 069 patients in the database with newly diagnosed asthma and using asthma medications from 2000 through 2005. The nonasthma group comprised 40 069 age- and sex-matched patients without any asthma diagnosis. Cox proportional hazards regression analysis was applied to calculate the hazard ratio of HZ in the patients with asthma relative to those without asthma. During a mean follow-up period of 8.77 years, the risk of HZ was 1.48-fold higher in the asthma group compared with that in the nonasthma group after adjustment for sex, age, comorbidities, inhaled and systemic corticosteroid use, and annual outpatient department visits to dermatologists. Additional stratified analyses revealed that the risk of HZ was significantly higher in patients of both sexes and those aged older than 21 years.\",\n \"The role of asthma controller medication adherence and the level of asthma control in children is poorly defined. To assess the association between asthma controller medication adherence and asthma control in children using routinely acquired prescribing data. A retrospective observational study of children aged 0-18 years prescribed inhaled corticosteroids only (ICS), leukotriene receptors antagonists (LTRA), or long-acting β2 agonists (LABA) and ICS prescribed as separate or combined inhalers, between 01/09/2001 and 31/08/2006, registered with primary care practices contributing to the Practice Team Information database. The medication possession ratio (MPR) was calculated and associations with asthma control explored. Poor asthma control was defined as the issue of prescriptions for ≥ 1 course of oral corticosteroids (OCS) and/or ≥ 6 short-acting β2 agonists (SABA) canisters annually. A total of 3172 children prescribed asthma controller medication were identified. Of these, 15-39% (depending on controller medication) demonstrated adequate MPR. Adequate MPR was associated with male gender, good socio-economic status, and oral LTRA therapy. Adequate MPR was more likely to be associated with increased use of rescue medication. However logistic regression only identified a significant relationship for ICS only (odds ratio [OR], 1.89; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.35-2.48; p<0.001), LTRA (OR, 2.11; 95% CI, 1.27-3.48; p = 0.004) and LABA/ICS (OR, 2.85; 95% CI, 1.62-5.02; p<0.001).\",\n \"Although work-exacerbated asthma (WEA) is a prevalent condition likely to have an important societal burden, there are limited data on this condition. The aims of this study were (1) to compare the clinical, functional, and inflammatory characteristics of workers with WEA and occupational asthma (OA) and (2) compare health care use and related costs between workers with WEA and OA, as well as between workers with work-related asthma (WRA; ie, WEA plus OA) and those with non-work-related asthma (NWRA) in a prospective study. We performed a prospective observational study of workers with and without WRA with a 2-year follow-up. The diagnosis of OA and WEA was based on the positivity and negativity of results on specific inhalation challenges, respectively. One hundred fifty-four subjects were enrolled: 53 with WEA, 68 with OA, and 33 control asthmatic subjects (NWRA). WEA was associated with more frequent prescriptions of inhaled corticosteroids (odds ratio [OR], 4.4; 95% CI, 1.4-13.6; P = .009), a noneosinophilic phenotype (OR, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.9; P = .04), a trend toward a lower FEV1 (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.9-1.0; P = .06), and a higher proportion of smokers (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 0.96-9.7; P = .06) than the diagnosis of OA. The health care use of WRA and related costs were 10-fold higher than those of NWRA.\",\n \"no. These national data do not support the hypothesis that population-based changes in weight are associated with asthma mortality. Other possible explanations for the large decreases in asthma mortality rates include changes in pollution or better delivery of medical care over the same time period.\",\n \"Racial and ethnic disparities in health and health care have been well documented, but few studies have addressed how disparities may change over time. We sought to determine the change in relative rates over time of corticosteroid metered dose inhaler (MDI) use in minority and nonminority populations with asthma. We used a cross-sectional survey for 5 periods of 2 years' each (1989-1990, 1991-1992, 1993-1994, 1995-1996, 1997-1998) using the National Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys (NAMCS). A total of 3671 visits by adults and children with asthma to U.S. office-based physicians comprised our sample. We sought to measure differences in inhaled corticosteroid use for minority and nonminority adults and children controlling for gender, specialty, U.S. region, and type of insurance. Minority patients with asthma were less than half as likely as nonminority patients to have had a steroid MDI prescribed during 1989-1990. By 1995-1996, minority and nonminority patients with asthma were equally likely to have had a steroid MDI prescribed. Although differences between black and white patients resolved, differences between white and Hispanic patients persisted even after adjusting for insurance. Children initially were less likely than adults with asthma to have steroid MDI prescribed, and this difference persisted. Minority children had the greatest delay in adoption of steroid MDIs.\",\n \"These findings suggest that subjects with severe asthma, especially women, have an increased mortality from ischaemic heart disease. The results may reflect confounding, mainly smoking and physical inactivity. Other explanations may be side effects of the antiasthmatic drugs or an effect of longstanding airway obstruction.\",\n \"The frequency of smokers among asthma patients often mirrors the frequency of smokers among healthy individuals. Smoking has been shown to increase the lung function decline in adult asthma patients and change the composition of the bronchial inflammation. To examine the consequences of smoking in a large cohort of young asthma patients. Seven hundred ninety-three asthma patients, aged 14 to 44, were examined using lung function measurements, bronchial provocations, clinical interviews, and questionnaires. Forty-five percent of participants were smokers; smokers had significantly lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)), FEV(1) in percent of predicted value (FEV(1)% pred), and FEV(1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) values compared with nonsmokers, and there was a dose-response relationship between tobacco exposure and these lung function measures. Smoking seemingly affected the FEV(1) growth already in adolescence, and before the age of 45, significantly more smokers than nonsmokers had signs of airflow limitation, with FEV(1)/FVC ratios below 0.70. Smokers had more asthma symptoms despite receiving inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) treatment as frequently as did nonsmokers.\",\n \"The prevalence of childhood asthma is increasing but few studies have investigated trends in asthma severity. We investigated trends in asthma diagnosis and symptom morbidity between an eight year time period in a paired prevalence study. All children in one single school year aged 8-9 years in the city of Sheffield were given a parent respondent questionnaire in 1991 and 1999 based on questions from the International Survey of Asthma and Allergy in Children (ISAAC). Data were obtained regarding the prevalence of asthma and wheeze and current (12 month) prevalences of wheeze attacks, speech limiting wheeze, nocturnal cough and wheeze, and exertional symptoms. The response rates in 1991 and 1999 were 4580/5321 (85.3%) and 5011/6021 (83.2%), respectively. There were significant increases between the two surveys in the prevalence of asthma ever (19.9% v 29.7%, mean difference 11.9%, 95% confidence interval (CI) 10.16 to 13.57, p<0.001), current asthma (10.3% v 13.0%, mean difference 2.7%, 95% CI 1.44 to 4.03, p<0.001), wheeze ever (30.3% v 35.8%, mean difference 5.7%, 95% CI 3.76 to 7.56, p<0.001), wheeze in the previous 12 months (17.0% v 19.4%, mean difference 2.5, 95% CI 0.95 to 4.07, p<0.01), and reporting of medication use (16.9% v 20%, mean difference 3.0%, 95% CI 1.46 to 4.62, p<0.001). There were also significant increases in reported hayfever and eczema diagnoses.\",\n \"Recent studies suggest an association between allergic diseases, including asthma, and lower vitamin D level, a well-known risk factor of osteoporosis. However, it is not yet clearly known whether patients with asthma are prone to bone loss. To evaluate whether the occurrence of airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) or asthma is related to significant changes in bone mineral density (BMD). We retrospectively enrolled 7,034 patients who had undergone a health checkup program, including BMD tests and methacholine bronchial challenge tests, at the Seoul National University Hospital, Healthcare System Gangnam Center, from November 1, 2004 to April 30, 2011. Asthma was ascertained by self-reported medical diagnosis by a physician. Patients with a history of systemic corticosteroid medication use were excluded from the study. Among a total of 7,034 patients, 216 (3.1%) had a positive AHR test result, and 217 (3.1%) had a history of asthma. Lumbar spine and femur BMD of patients with AHR were significantly lower than those without AHR (-0.53 ± 1.50 vs -0.03 ± 1.49, -0.47 ± 0.97 vs -0.22 ± 0.99, respectively; P<.001 for both). After being adjusted for age, sex, body mass index, smoking status, postmenopausal state, and previous history of hormone replacement therapy, the proportion of patients with osteopenia or osteoporosis was much higher in the AHR-positive group than in the AHR-negative group (odds ratio, 1.715; 95% confidence interval, 1.252-2.349) and in the ever-asthma group than in the never-asthma group (odds ratio, 1.526; 95% confidence interval, 1.120-2.079).\",\n \"We investigated the use of asthma medication by children and the association of use as recommended by guidelines with modifiable risk factors: parental attitudes, knowledge of asthma medication and information provided by health care providers. Questionnaire data were obtained from parents of 229 8-year-old children participating in the prevention and incidence of asthma and mite allergy birth cohort who used asthma medication in the past 12 months. They reported on their child's medication use, their own knowledge and attitudes towards the medication and their satisfaction with the information they received from health care providers. Irregular use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) was common: 40% of the parents only gave their child ICS when the child felt breathless and 52% only 'when the child needed it'; 15% of the parents tried to avoid giving medication, and about 25% of the parents sometimes discontinued medication. Parental knowledge of how asthma medication should be given was a major determinant of guideline-recommended use: Of the parents who knew that anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken everyday (53% of all parents), 84% reported that they actually gave their child the medicines everyday as compared with 25% of the parents who did not know this. Guideline-recommended use was also significantly associated with parental satisfaction with the amount of information received from health care providers. These associations were independent of maternal school education.\",\n \"Data have highlighted the potential bias introduced by withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids at randomization in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease trials examining inhaled corticosteroids. Analyses were conducted to determine whether this was true of inhaled anticholinergic withdrawal in tiotropium trials. A pooled analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group tiotropium trials of at least six months' duration was performed. Trials had similar inclusion and exclusion criteria. Exacerbation definition was standardized. Patients were divided into two groups, ie, D (anticholinergics discontinued at randomization, previously prescribed) and ND (anticholinergics not discontinued, not previously prescribed). Demographics were balanced between the D (n = 5846) and ND (n = 6317) groups, except for higher cumulative smoking (56 pack-years versus 48 pack-years), lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1))/forced vital capacity (43% versus 48%), and lower baseline FEV(1) (35.8% predicted versus 42.4% predicted) in the D group. In both groups, tiotropium reduced the risk for an exacerbation (hazard ratio [HR] = 0.83, P < 0.0001 [D] versus 0.79, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and a hospitalized exacerbation (HR = 0.85, P = 0.0467 versus 0.79, P = 0.0094). Tiotropium reduced the number of exacerbations per patient-year (rate ratio [RR] = 0.82, P < 0.0001 [D] versus RR = 0.80, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and associated hospitalizations per patient-year (RR = 0.88, P = 0.015 [D] versus RR = 0.74, P < 0.0001 [ND]).\",\n \"To determine the change in prevalence of asthma, eczema and allergic rhinitis in Australian schoolchildren between 1993 and 2002. Questionnaire based survey, using the protocol of the International Study of Asthma and Allergy in Childhood. Metropolitan Melbourne primary schools within a 20 km radius of the GPO in 1993 and 2002. All children in school years 1 and 2 (ages 6 and 7) attending a random sample of 84 schools in 1993 and 63 schools in 2002. Parent-reported symptoms of atopic disease; treatment for asthma; country of birth. There was a 26% reduction in the 12-month period prevalence of reported wheeze, from 27.2% in 1993 to 20.0% in 2002. The magnitude of reduction was similar for boys (27%) and girls (25%). The 12-month period prevalence of reported eczema increased from 11.1% in 1993 to 17.2% in 2002, and rhinitis increased from 9.7% to 12.7%. There were reductions in the proportion of children attending an emergency department for asthma in the previous year (3.6% to 2.3%), the proportion admitted to hospital (1.7% to 1.1%) and the proportion taking asthma medication (18.5% to 13.4%). Of those who reported frequent wheeze, there was an increase in the proportion taking regular inhaled steroids (34.5% to 40.9%).\",\n \"Since 2000 a decline in the incidence of occupational asthma (OA) has been reported in the UK and Europe. We aimed to describe and account for trends in the incidence of OA in the West Midlands, UK using annual notification data from the SHIELD voluntary surveillance scheme over the period 1991-2011. All notifications to the SHIELD database between January 1991 and December 2011 were identified, along with patients' demographic data, occupations, causative agents and confirmatory tests. Annual notifications were scaled to give an annual count per million workers, giving a measure of incidence, and also standardised against those of bakers' asthma. Non-parametric analyses were undertaken between annual incidence and time (years) for common causative agents using (1) a negative binomial regression univariate model and (2) a logistic regression model calculating annual reporting ORs. A step-change analysis was used to examine time points at which there were marked reductions in incidence. A decrease in annual incidence of OA was observed over the study period (incident rate ratio=0.945; 95% CI 0.933 to 0.957; p<0.0001), an effect that was lost after standardising for bakers' asthma. Decreases in incidence were seen for most common causative agents, with only cleaning product-related OA increasing over 21 years. Marked fall in incidence was seen in 2004 for isocyanates, and in 1995 for latex. Most notifications came from a regional specialist occupational lung disease unit, with notifications from other sites falling from 16 cases/million workers/annum in 1995 to 0 in 2004.\",\n \"Guidelines for asthma management have been developed both locally and internationally. The aim of this study was to evaluate the adherence of primary care physicians in the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center to these guidelines. The records of 206 asthmatic children who visited the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center, Jeddah, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, during the months of February 1998 through June 1998, were reviewed. The following data was extracted from them; presenting symptoms, number of visits, names of asthma medications, whether doses were documented or not and number of times antitussives were prescribed. The most common presenting complaint was cough followed by wheeze and shortness of breath (mean SD, 14 13.8, 8.8 10.3 and 4.4 5.8). Oral salbutamol was the most frequently prescribed medication. The doses of asthma medications were not documented in 37.3% of cases. Preventive therapy was prescribed to 35.4% of children and emergency steroids were prescribed to 30.6% of children. The mean age of asthmatic children receiving inhaled medications was significantly higher than those other forms of therapy (p<0.00001). Antitussives were prescribed 2,536 times (mean 12.3).\",\n \"The combination of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and long-acting beta2 agonists (LABA) has been used as a single inhaler both for maintenance and reliever therapy in asthma, the SMART approach. The administration of additional CS with each reliever inhalation in response to symptoms is expected to provide better control of airway inflammation. The aim of this meta-analysis was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the SMART approach versus other approaches in the management of asthma in preventing asthma exacerbations. We searched the MEDLINE and EMBASE databases for studies that have reported exacerbations in the SMART group versus the control group. We calculated the odds ratio (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) to assess the exacerbations in the two groups and pooled the results using a random-effects model. Our search yielded eight studies. The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS-LABA combination significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.65; 95% CI, 0.53-0.80) and severe exacerbation requiring hospitalization/ER treatment (OR 0.69; 95% CI, 058-0.83). The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS also significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.45-0.61) and severe exacerbation requiring medical intervention (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.42-0.65). The occurrence of adverse events was similar in the two groups. There was some evidence of statistical heterogeneity.\",\n \"The British guideline on the management of asthma produced by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) describes five steps for the management of chronic asthma. Combination therapy of a long acting β2-agonist (LABA) and an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended as first-line therapy at step 3, although the dose of ICS at which to add a LABA is subject to debate. To classify the inhaled therapy prescribed to patients with asthma in NHS Forth Valley according to two interpretations of the BTS/SIGN guideline and to evaluate the use of combination therapy in this population. A retrospective analysis including patients from 46 general practitioner surgeries was conducted. Patients with physician diagnosed asthma were classified according to the BTS/SIGN guideline based on treatment prescribed during 2008. Patient characteristics were evaluated for the overall step classification, and specifically for therapy in step 3. 12,319 patients were included. Guideline interpretation resulted in a shift of 9.2% of patients (receiving medium-dose ICS alone) between steps 2 and 3. The largest proportion of patients (32.3%) was classified at step 4. Age, sex, smoking status, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease co-morbidity, and utilisation of short-acting β2-agonists and oral corticosteroids all correlated with step; however, no differences in these characteristics were evident between low-dose combination therapy and medium-dose ICS alone at step 3.\",\n \"To investigate the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator as a measure of the quality of asthma prescribing by general practitioners. Ecological cross sectional study linking general practitioner asthma prescribing with hospital admission data and a measure of deprivation. 11 family health services authorities in the West Midlands region and 99 general practices in North Staffordshire. Hospital admission rates for asthma; the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator; and Townsend deprivation scores. No overall significant correlation was found between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios for family health services authorities (Spearman's rs = -0.109, P = 0.750) or general practices (rs = -0.084, P = 0.407). In deprived family health services authority areas and general practices an inverse non-significant correlation existed between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = -0.300, P = 0.624; rs = -0.218, P = 0.136). In contrast, in more affluent areas and general practices a positive non-significant correlation existed between admission rates and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = 0.371, P = 0.468; rs = 0.038, P = 0.792).\",\n \"no. Corticosteroid use did not decrease SqCC in patients with asthma or COPD. Recent dose increase in corticosteroids was associated with SqCC.\",\n \"A number of studies have shown that both mortality and hospital admissions due to severe asthma have decreased in recent years in many parts of the world. However, the situation is Spain has not yet been analyzed. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of very severe, near-fatal asthma in recent years in various Spanish hospitals. A retrospective review of hospital records from 6 hospitals in 5 Spanish autonomous communities was conducted for the period 1997 to 2004 to determine the annual number of patients who required orotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation due to an asthma attack. Of the 130 patients included in the study, 81 (62%) were women and 61 (47%) were aged between 51 and 75 years. The number of cases observed for the periods 2001-2002 and 2003-2004 (32 and 18, respectively) was significantly lower than that observed for the 1997-1998 and 1999-2000 periods (40 in both cases; P=.019). A significant increase in the incidence was observed in autumn and winter (n=81 [62%]; P=.018). Seventeen patients (13%) died and 8 (6%) developed serious sequelae.\",\n \"yes. Rapid withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids results in an exacerbation of asthma that is preceded by an increase in sputum neutrophils and IL-8 concentrations, in contrast to an increase in eosinophils reported in previous studies in which inhaled steroids are slowly tapered.\",\n \"To report on recent studies on the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on pulmonary function in young children with asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are considered the most effective treatment for persistent asthma in children. Appropriate control of childhood asthma may prevent more serious disease or irreversible obstruction in later years. While some authors have described an improvement with the use of inhaled corticosteroids in young children, others found no clinical or functional benefit. Various studies have shown that inhaled corticosteroids ameliorate clinical outcomes, and recently a study demonstrated improvement in pulmonary function in young children with asthma. The use of different study designs may explain the lack of consistent results and disagreement regarding the efficacy of inhaled corticosteroids in these patients.\",\n \"The administration of inhaled corticosteroids and worldwide usage of several asthma guidelines have improved asthma mortality. Elderly patients with asthma show high mortality rates, and may have several comorbidities, including overlap with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Among patients showing asthma overlapped with COPD (asthma-COPD overlap syndrome; ACOS), mortality is worse than for asthma alone. Therefore, we investigated comorbidities, malignancies, and causes of death in patients with asthma and ACOS. This was a retrospective study. From January 2000 to March 2012, 650 patients were followed up at Tottori University Hospital. Medical records were reviewed to collect data regarding patient characteristics and comorbidities, and causes of death were recorded for patients who died during the study period. Eighty-seven patients died during the study period. The most frequent cause of death was malignancy. The proportion of malignant disease was 21.7% in all patients, 19.4% in patients with asthma alone, and 32.4% in patients with ACOS. One patient died from an asthma attack during this period.\",\n \"The prevalence of asthma and allergic rhinitis has increased worldwide during the 1970s and 1980s. This study was aimed at evaluating whether the increasing trend in prevalence persisted during the 1990s in the young adult Italian population. In 1998 to 2000 a screening questionnaire was sent by mail to a general population sample aged 20 to 44 years; nonresponders were contacted again first by mail and then by phone, achieving a final response rate of 78.1% (6876 of 8800). Prevalence estimates, adjusted to correct for nonresponse bias, were compared with those recorded in Italy in 1991 to 1993 during the European Community Respiratory Health Survey, when response rate had been slightly higher (87.6%). Temporal variations in symptom prevalence were analyzed by a logistic regression model, controlling for sex, age, site of residence (urban vs suburban areas), season of response, response rate, and type of contact (mail vs phone). The prevalence of asthma attacks did not vary significantly from 1991 to 1993 (3.6%) to 1998 to 2000 (3.2%) (P =.188). The prevalence of asthma-like symptoms (wheezing, chest tightness, shortness of breath) tended to decrease in the age classes of 32.5 to 45 years, while increasing in the youngest age class (20 to 26 years). A clear-cut increase from 15.4% to 18.3% was observed for the prevalence of allergic rhinitis (P<.001), whereas the proportion of people under antiasthmatic treatment increased in suburban areas but not in urban areas (interaction time-site of residence, P<.001).\",\n \"The institution of inhaled corticosteroids is generally advocated for effective treatment of patients with asthma. It is yet unknown what is the best time to start inhaled corticosteroid therapy and especially whether delayed introduction is harmful. PHASE 1: In a previous study in patients with asthma and COPD, we found that 2.5 years of treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus inhaled corticosteroid (BA + CS) was more effective in improving the FEV1 and the provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1 (PC20) than treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus anticholinergic (BA + AC) or placebo (BA + PL). PHASE 2: We extended this study with 6 months to investigate whether delayed introduction of inhaled CS therapy (800 micrograms beclomethasone dipropionate) in the groups previously not treated with inhaled CS (BA +/- AC) could also improve FEV1 and PC20 to the same degree. A distinction was made between patients with predominantly asthma (high baseline reversibility, delta FEV1>or = 9% of predicted), and predominantly COPD (low baseline reversibility, delta FEV1<9% of predicted). Improvement of FEV1 percent predicted by inhaled CS was comparable both in the asthmatics between phase 1 (13.8% predicted) and phase 2 (8.5% predicted; p = 0.31) as well as in the patients with COPD (2.5% and 1.5% predicted, respectively). PC20, however, increased significantly more in the asthmatics in phase 1 (1.77 doubling concentration [DC]) than in phase 2 (0.79 DC; p = 0.03). Improvement of PC20 in the patients with COPD was not significantly higher in phase 1 (0.74 DC) than in phase 2 (0.00 DC; p = 0.19).\",\n \"To test the hypothesis that sustained differences in readmission rate for acute asthma were associated with variations in clinical practice. Data were collected by retrospective review of case notes, using the criteria recommended by the British Thoracic Society. Two city National Health Service (NHS) hospitals that had recorded a sustained difference in readmission rate for acute asthma. A random sample of 50 from each hospital, selected from all 16-44 year old patients discharged in 1992 with acute asthma (ninth revision of the international classification of diseases (ICD-9) 493). Hospital A had a lower readmission rate than hospital B. The sample groups were similar for age, sex, deprivation of area of residence, and severity of episode. Systemic corticosteroids were given early more often (p = 0.02) and oral corticosteroids were prescribed at discharge more often (p = 0.04) in hospital A. When a short course of oral corticosteroids was prescribed the duration stated was longer (p = 0.02) and inhaled corticosteroids were started or the dose increased more often (p = 0.02) in hospital A.\",\n \"To explore one aspect of the external validity of the randomized controlled trial (RCT), specifically how being selected for inclusion in a trial and having participated has influenced the use and cost of asthma-related health services. Services used by asthmatic users of inhaled corticosteroids (iCSTs) having previously participated in an RCT (TS, n = 46) were compared with individuals who had never participated (NS, n = 51). TS were more likely to use higher (>or = 400 microg) daily doses of iCSTs than NS (OR, 3.3; 95% Cl, 1.1-8.3) but less likely to visit emergency departments (OR, 0.3; 95% Cl, 0.1-0.7). Total asthma-related costs did not differ significantly.\",\n \"To check whether treatment of asthma patients at our centre coincides with international criteria (GINA 2002). Transversal, descriptive study. Urban primary care team. Asthma patients over 14 years old. Review of clinical histories (CH) and analysis of the last prescription between November 2002 and May 2003. We reviewed 436 CH, of which 395 made up the study group. 71.4% (SD, 66.9-75.8) were women. Average age was 51.4 (SD, 49.2-53.6). Classification of asthma as function of gravity was: intermittent (IA): 30% (25.7-34.3); light persistent (LPA): 24.8% (20.7-28.8); moderate persistent (MPA): 30.7% (26.4-35.1); serious persistent (SPA): 5.05% (3.19-7.54). Unclassified: 9.4% (6.83-12.5). Correct treatment: IA, 69.5% (61.6-77.4); LPA, 22.2% (14.4-30.1); MPA, 46.2% (7.8-54.7); SPA, 72.7% (49.8-89.3). The most common cause of incorrect treatment in all kinds of asthma was the use of international criteria (IC) at inadequate doses: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 73.8% (63.1-82.8); MPA, 38.9% (27.6-51.1); SPA, 33.3% (4.3-77.7). The scant use of B2CD.AD was noticeable: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 85.7% (76.4-92.4); MPA, 86.7% (74.3-92.1); SPA, 66.7% (22.3-95.7). The most commonly used active principles were salbutamol, salmeterol, budesonide, and montelukast. On overall measurement of good treatment, we found that 48.9% (n = 193) of patients had a correct prescription.\",\n \"yes. Increase in urban population was associated with lower odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma in children and young adults living in a transition society.\",\n \"The continuing rise in asthma prevalence has been questioned, with recent reports suggesting a plateau. To assess a 10-year trend in the age-adjusted prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma, respiratory and allergic symptoms, and use of asthma medication in the adult population of Helsinki during the Finnish Asthma Programme from 1994 to 2004. Two cross-sectional postal surveys were conducted among random Finnish National Population Registry samples 10 years apart using the same protocol. A total of 6,062 subjects (75.9%) and 2,449 subjects (61.9%) participated in 1996 and 2006, respectively. The prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma increased from 6.5% in 1996 to 10.0% in 2006 (p<0.001). This was evident in both genders aged<60 years, but particularly in women aged<40 years, paralleling an increased use of asthma medication. Concurrently, the prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis increased from 37.2% to 44.4% (p<0.001). The prevalence of physician-diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease remained unchanged (3.7%), while current smoking abated. Subjects with a smoking history had more respiratory symptoms (p<0.001). Among subjects without physician-diagnosed asthma, those reporting allergic rhinoconjunctivitis had a higher prevalence of lower respiratory tract symptoms.\",\n \"Mortality from asthma increased during the last decades but is now declining in some countries. Little is known about this trend in Brazil. The objective of the study was to determine the trends in asthma mortality in Southern Brazil. We reviewed death certificates of 566 people in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil, between 5 and 39 years of age in whom asthma was reported to be the underlying cause of death during the period of 1981-2003. Population data were available in 5-year age groups. Mortality rates were submitted to linear and quadratic regression procedures. Among children and teenagers (5-19 years), there were 170 asthma deaths, ranging from 4 to 13 deaths each year with rates of 0.154/100,000 to 0.481/100,000. In young adults (20-39 years), 396 asthma deaths occurred, ranging from 9 to 32 each year, with rates from 0.276/100,000 to 1.034/100,000. There was an initial increase in rates, with later stabilization, and then the start of a decline beginning in the late 1990s and the early part of this decade. This trend occurred in both age subgroups examined but was more evident in males.\",\n \"yes. These findings suggest that inhaled corticosteroid treatment of asthma reduced airway wall vascularity during airway remodelling.\",\n \"Guidelines recommend regular use of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-containing medications for all patients with persistent asthma and those with moderate to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It is important to identify indicators of inappropriate prescribing. To test the hypothesis that ICS are prescribed for the management of respiratory infections in some patients lacking evidence of chronic airways disease. Medication dispensing data were obtained from the Australian national Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS) for concessional patients dispensed any respiratory medications during 2008. We identified people dispensed only one ICS-containing medication and no other respiratory medications in a year, who were therefore unlikely to have chronic airways disease, and calculated the proportion who were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. In 2008, 43.6% of the 115,763 patients who were dispensed one-off ICS were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. Co-dispensing was seasonal, with a large peak in winter months. The most commonly co-dispensed ICS among adults were moderate/high doses of combination therapy, while lower doses of ICS alone were co-dispensed among children. In this cohort, one-off ICS co-dispensed with oral antibiotics cost the government $2.7 million in 2008.\",\n \"Asthmatic patients are at higher risk of fracture and bruising due to the systemic side effects of corticosteroid medication. However, the link between asthma and injury leading to these adverse outcomes remains unclear. This study investigated asthma and cause- and type-specific injury at the population level. Using data from the 2001 and 2004 Australian National Health surveys (n = 52,768), the prevalence and risk of experiencing specific causes and types of injury in the past 4 weeks were assessed by logistic and Poisson regression analyses. A history of asthma was associated with a higher prevalence of injury for both adults and children, as well as increased risk of incurring various causes and types of injury, after accounting for the effects of confounding factors.\",\n \"This study revealed that spirometry was used more often when corticosteroids or sympathomimetics were prescribed. The findings suggest that treatment was based on diagnostic test results rather than on recorded diagnoses. The documented ICD-10 codes may not always reflect the real status of the patients. Thus medical care for asthma and COPD in general practice may be better than initially found on the basis of recorded diagnoses, although further improvement of practice patterns in asthma and COPD is still necessary.\",\n \"To describe patterns of hospital readmission for asthma in South Australia from 1989 to 1996, in relation to implementation of the National Asthma Campaign. A comparison of hospital admissions in South Australia of patients aged between one year and 49 years for three conditions: asthma (or respiratory failure with asthma as an underlying condition) and two control conditions--diabetes and epilepsy. Individuals were identified by Medicare number and date of birth. Hospital readmission within 28 days and within one year. Overall, by 1996, there was a statistically significant decline in the risk of readmission for asthma within 28 days of 18% and within one year of 17% compared with 1989 readmission rates. There were no reductions in the risk of readmission for diabetes or epilepsy, suggesting that the decline in risk of readmission for asthma was greater than the underlying effects of general changes in hospital casemix.\",\n \"yes. These findings support a novel mechanism for the ability of inhaled corticosteroids to decrease T cell numbers, possibly by downregulation of the cytokine IL-15.\",\n \"Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are underutilized among persistent asthmatics. Because of low outpatient follow-up rates after Emergency Department (ED) visits, children are unlikely to be prescribed ICS by their primary care physician after an acute exacerbation. ED physicians have the opportunity to contribute to the delivery of preventive care in the acute care setting. Our objective was to evaluate if quality improvement (QI) methods could improve the rate of ICS initiation at ED discharge. Within the Pediatric ED (PED) at a tertiary children's hospital, QI methods were used to encourage ICS prescribing at the time of ED discharge. Interventions focused on education at both the attending physician and resident level, process improvements designed to streamline prescribing, and directed provider feedback. This involved multiple plan-do-study-act cycles. Medical records of eligible patients were reviewed monthly to determine ICS prescribing rates. The effect of our interventions on prescribing rate was tracked over time using a run chart. Following our interventions, the ICS initiation rate for children seen in and discharged home from the ED with an acute asthma exacerbation increased from a baseline median rate of 11.25% to a median rate of 79% representing a significant, non-random improvement. The ICS initiation rate has been sustained for 8 months over our goal rate of 75%.\",\n \"The goals of asthma treatment include not only control of symptoms, but also prevention of future adverse outcomes such as exacerbations - which can occur even in mild asthma. This study showed that treatment with low dose inhaled corticosteroids led to significant improvements in lung function, exacerbations, and in pathophysiological predictors of future risk, even though symptoms were minimal at entry. For patients with mild asthma, discussion about treatment needs to consider not only short-term benefit, side effects and cost, but also long-term reduction of risk. This study was completed prior to mandatory registration for clinical trials.\",\n \"In the year 1990 the European Community Respiratory Health Survey I (ECRHS I) demonstrated that the prevalence of these diseases was lowest in Iceland (www.ecrhs.org). In order to compare the prevalence of respiratory symptoms in Reykjavik over time, a new identical cross-sectional study was performed seventeen years later. Both cohorts, were in the age group 20-44 years and randomly selected from the population in Reykjavik and suburbs. Both answered questionnaires about respiratory symptoms, nasal allergy and use of anti-asthmatic drugs. The second cohort was part of the EuroPrevall study (www.europrevall.org) performed in 2007. Response rate was lower in 2007 (999 or 43.2%) than in 1990 (2.903 or 80.6%).The prevalence of attacks of asthma increased over time from 2.2% to 6.7% (p<0.0001), use of anti-asthmatic drugs increased from 2.4% to 7.2% (p<0.0001) and nasal allergy symptoms from 17.8% to 29.3% (p< 0.0001). There was an increase of all respiratory symptoms except wheezing or whistling, where the prevalence dropped from 18.0% to 14.4% (p<0.01). In the year 2007 women had more often been woken by attacks of coughing (p<0.0001), had more often attacks of asthma (p<0.05) and were more likely to use anti-asthmatic drugs (p<0.05) than men. Attacks of asthma and the use of anti-asthmatic drugs were more common among the younger age group in the year 2007. That was not seen in the year 1990.\",\n \"Previous cross-sectional studies could establish an association between prevalence of self-reported wheeze and urban-rural environment, but the impact of urbanization on meaningful outcomes of asthma for public health is not established yet. Evaluate the effect of urbanization on asthma burden. A time series study of 5,505 Brazilian municipalities. The unit of analysis was the municipality. Two time frames were evaluated: from 1999 to 2001 and from 2009 to 2011. Trends from the first to the second time frame were evaluated. Governmental databases were the source of information. Multivariate binary logistic regression models were used. In the age range from 5 to 24 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .88). In the age range from 25 to 39 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .82). Municipalities that increased access to physicians and that supplied inhaled corticosteroids free of charge for asthma since year 2003 had increased odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma.\",\n \"Asthma and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) lead to persistent airway inflammation and are associated with lung cancer. The objective of the study was to assess the relationship between inhaled (ICS) and oral corticosteroid (OCS) use, and risk of lung squamous cell carcinoma (SqCC). This study was a nested case-control study. Patients with newly diagnosed asthma or COPD between 2003 and 2010 were identified from the National Health Insurance Database. Cases were defined as patients diagnosed with SqCC after enrollment. For each case, four control individuals who were randomly matched for sex and age and date diagnosis of asthma or COPD were selected. From the 1,672,455 eligible participants, 793 patients with SqCC were matched with 3,172 controls. The odds ratios (ORs) of SqCC in men who received high and low-dose ICS were 2.18 (95 %CI, 1.56-3.04) and 1.77 (1.22-2.57), respectively. Similarly, the ORs were 1.46 (95 %CI, 1.16-1.84) and 1.55 (95 %CI, 1.22-1.98) for men who were placed on low and high dose OCS. However, there was no significant association between cumulative ICS and/or OCS and risk of SqCC in women. Recent dose increase in corticosteroid was significantly associated with risk of SqCC. Specifically, among men, the ORs for SqCC were 8.08 (95 %CI, 3.22-20.30) for high-dose ICS + OCS, 4.49 (95 % CI, 2.05-9.85) for high-dose ICS, and 3.54 (95 % CI, 2.50-5.01) for high-dose OCS treatments, respectively. The OR for SqCC in women who received high-dose OCS was 6.72 (95 %CI, 2.69-16.81).\",\n \"To determine the general utility of clinical (Asthma Control Test) and physiologic (forced expiratory volume in the first second of exhalation [FEV(1)]and fractionated exhaled nitric oxide level [FeNO]) parameters for characterizing asthma patients. Two cross-sectional independent studies simultaneously enrolled 100 patients in the US and 109 patients in Spain>or = 18 years of age with a physician-diagnosis of asthma and confirmed by a>or = 12% improvement in FEV(1) after bronchodilators or the presence of airway hyperresponsiveness, a central feature of asthma, as measured by methacholine challenge (PC(20)<10 mg/mL). There was no restriction on asthma severity or treatment. Patients were excluded if they had a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and/or were current cigarette smokers. Statistical analyses were performed to compare ACT, FeNO, and spirometry within and between sites. Population characteristics revealed significant differences in distributions of age, percent-predicted FEV(1) (%FEV(1)), FeNO, inhaled corticosteroid usage, and atopy between the two populations. The Spain site enrolled younger patients with milder asthma, based on higher %FEV(1) values and less frequent treatment with inhaled corticosteroids. At each site, mean FeNO levels decreased as asthma control categories increased, and means were lower in the US. There was a negative correlation between ACT and FeNO that was statistically significant for Spain patients not treated with inhaled corticosteroids.\",\n \"The results support the notion that the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease is caused by a cohort effect. Thus, changes in lifestyle or environmental factors that occurred around or after 1960 may have contributed to this increase.\",\n \"Based on results of clinical trials, inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the most-effective controller medications for preventing asthma-related exacerbations, yet few studies in real-life populations have evaluated the comparative effectiveness of ICS. To determine the likelihood of asthma exacerbations among children with asthma after initiation of controller medications: ICS, leukotriene antagonists (LTRA), and ICS-long-acting β-agonist (LABA) combination therapy. This was a retrospective cohort study of subjects who were part of the Population-Based Effectiveness in Asthma and Lung Diseases Network. We conducted Cox regression analyses by adjusting for baseline covariates, adherence by using proportion of days covered, and high-dimensional propensity scores. The main outcome measurements were emergency department visits, hospitalizations, or oral corticosteroid use. Our population included 15,567 health plan subjects and 10,624 TennCare Medicaid subjects with uncontrolled asthma. Overall adherence to controller medications was low, with no more than 50% of the subjects refilling the medication after the initial fill. For subjects with allergic rhinitis, the subjects in TennCare Medicaid treated with LTRAs were less likely to experience ED visits (hazard ratio 0.44 [95% CI, 0.21-0.93]) compared with the subjects treated with ICS. For all other groups, the subjects treated with LTRA or ICS-LABA were just as likely to experience ED visits or hospitalizations, or need oral corticosteroids as the subjects treated with ICS.\",\n \"During a 15-year period, knowledge transfer by passive diffusion or active guideline dissemination resulted in similar trends of corticosteroid use for the management of pediatric asthma and croup.\",\n \"yes. CHD mortality fell by 20% between 1998 and 2009 in the West Bank. More than two-third of this fall was due to decreases in major risk factors, particularly total cholesterol and blood pressure. Our results clearly indicate that risk factor reductions in the general population compared save substantially more lives to specific treatments for individual patients. This emphasizes the importance of population-wide primary prevention strategies.\",\n \"This study aimed to compare knowledge transfer (KT) in the emergency department (ED) management of pediatric asthma and croup by measuring trends in corticosteroid use for both conditions in EDs. A retrospective, cross-sectional study of the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey data between 1995 and 2009 of corticosteroid use at ED visits for asthma or croup was conducted. Odds ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression. Trends over time were compared using an interaction term between disease and year and were adjusted for all other covariates in the model. We included children aged 2 to 18 years with asthma who received albuterol and were triaged emergent/urgent. Children aged between 3 months to 6 years with croup were included. The main outcome measure was the administration of corticosteroids in the ED or as a prescription at the ED visit. The corticosteroid use in asthma visits increased from 44% to 67% and from 32% to 56% for croup. After adjusting for patient and hospital factors, this trend was significant both for asthma (OR, 1.07; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.04-1.10) and croup (OR, 1.07; 95% CI, 1.03-1.12). There was no statistical difference between the 2 trends (P = 0.69). Hospital location in a metropolitan statistical area was associated with increased corticosteroid use in asthma (OR, 1.76; 95% CI, 1.10-2.82). Factors including sex, ethnicity, insurance, or region of the country were not significantly associated with corticosteroid use.\",\n \"This study investigated if long-term therapy with inhaled corticosteroids could be discontinued in mild asthma when patients are in a clinically stable phase of the disease. Data were derived from a 2-year randomized, controlled, bronchodilator intervention study in family practice. The experimental (stop-steroid) group consisted of 19 asthmatic patients who had used inhaled corticosteroids daily during at least the year preceding this study and who stopped using these drugs because of participation in the bronchodilator intervention study. The control (no-steroid) group consisted of 70 patients with asthma who had not used corticosteroids in the year preceding the study. At the start of the study (8 weeks after stopping steroids), the two groups were completely comparable in all other relevant characteristics. During the 2-year study, patients were treated only with a bronchodilator (salbutamol or ipratropium bromide). Outcome measures were: exacerbations, symptoms, annual decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), annual change in nonspecific bronchial responsiveness (PC20-histamine), and the need for additional corticosteroid therapy because of symptoms of increased airway obstruction. In the stop-steroid group, 12 of 19 patients (63%) dropped out during the study period because of a deterioration of their clinical condition and need for additional (inhaled) corticosteroid treatment. In the no-steroid group, only eight patients dropped out for this reason (11%). In the stop-steroid group, who did not use steroids for at least 1 year, the annual FEV1 decline was much larger than in the comparison subjects (165 vs 40 ml/yr).\",\n \"The profile of asthma diagnosed in secondary care indicates milder disease with more co-morbidities in 2001 than in 1994.Trends towards assigning a more active role on the part of primary care physicians and more rational use of secondary care resources in the management of asthma were found.\",\n \"To determine whether ipratropium was associated with premature death in patients with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A longitudinal cohort of 827 patients with COPD and 273 with asthma who were evaluated for compensation by two specialists in pulmonary medicine. By June 1999, 538 of the patients with COPD and 77 of those with asthma had died. Atthe consultation, 77% ofthe COPD patients and 8.1% of the asthmatic patients were treated with inhaled ipratropium. Ipratropium was associated with mortality risk ratio (RR) of 2.0 (95% confidence interval: 1.5-2.6) for COPD and 3.6 (1.8-7.1) for asthma patients. After adjustment for confounding factors [forced expiratory volume 1 s (FEV1), smoking habits, asthma medication, and presence of cor pulmonale] the RR for COPD was 1.6 (1.2-2.1) and for asthma 24 (1.2-5.0).\",\n \"yes. Active use of maintenance therapy by inhaled corticosteroids was associated with a decreased need of hospital treatment in young children <24 months old with asthma, mainly because of less readmissions.\",\n \"Hospitalization rates for childhood asthma are three times as high in Boston, Massachusetts, as in Rochester, New York; New Haven, Connecticut, rates are intermediate. We undertook this study to determine how care for children admitted for asthma varies across these communities. We performed a community-wide retrospective chart review. We reviewed a random sample of all asthma hospitalizations, from 1988 to 1990, of children 2 to 12 years old living in these communities (n = 614). Abstracted data included demographics, illness severity, and treatment before admission. Compared with Rochester children, Boston children were less likely to have received maintenance preventive therapy (inhaled corticosteroids or cromolyn [odds ratio (OR), 0.4 (0.2, 0.9)]), acute \\\"rescue\\\" therapy (oral corticosteroids [OR, 0.2 (0.1, 0.4)]), or inhaled beta-agonist therapy [OR, 0.5 (0.3, 1.0)]. A larger proportion of admitted asthmatic patients in Boston (34%) were in the least severely ill group-oxygen saturation 95% or above-compared with patients in Rochester (20%).\",\n \"To test whether general practitioners who completed an audit cycle encompassing a data recording exercise, distance learning programme and personalized feedback changed their management of patients with acute asthma attacks. Practice and patient details from two national correspondence surveys of the management of acute asthma attacks in the United Kingdom in 1991-92 and 1992-93 were compared. Main outcome measures were use of nebulised bronchodilators, systemic steroids during an asthma attack, and increased use of prophylactic therapy after attacks. Ninety-one general practitioners completed an audit cycle and reported data on 782 patients with asthma attacks in 1991-92 and 669 in 1992-93. There were no significant changes in practice resources during this time. Management changed in line with recommended guidelines and audit feedback suggestions leading to more use of nebulised bronchodilators [272 (35%) before, 268 (40%) after, Odds Ratio (OR) 0.80, 95% Confidence Intervals (CI) 0.64-0.99], systemic steroids [563 (72%) before, 506 (76%) after, OR 0.83, CI 0.65-1.06], and 'step-up' in preventative therapy [402 (51%) before, 382 (57%) after, OR 0.79, CI 0.64-0.98].\",\n \"Pooled trial data have shown that long-acting beta-agonists increase the risk for asthma hospitalizations and deaths by two to fourfold compared with placebo. Until recently, it was unclear whether concomitant inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) could eliminate this risk. This review summarizes the available data on the safety of long-acting beta-agonist use in asthma, with and without concomitant ICSs. The results from an updated meta-analysis are presented, with data through December 2008. In pooled trial data, catastrophic asthma events (defined as asthma-related intubation or death) were increased fourfold for concomitant treatment with long-acting beta-agonists and ICSs compared with corticosteroids alone (odds ratio 3.7; 95% CI 1.4 - 9.6). It is estimated that the addition of long-acting beta-agonists to ICS therapy is associated with an absolute increase of one catastrophic event per 1500 patient-years.\",\n \"Asthma and COPD are common diseases of the airways which are mainly diagnosed and treated in general practice.AIM: Various studies have reported an increase in the morbidity of asthma and COPD. There are two possible reasons for such an increase. The first is an apparent increase caused by using different criteria in defining asthma/COPD, and by increased awareness of the disease by doctors and patients. The second is a real increase caused by an increase in the prevalence of airway pathology. The aim of this study was to determine the cause of the observed increase in morbidity. In 1977, a sample of 2328 adults from the general population were screened for asthma and COPD. Those screened were then divided into five sub-groups (grades 1-5), according to severity of: (1) respiratory symptoms; and (2) loss in FEV1. The number of patients who were not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening as having asthma or COPD grades 1-5 were also assessed. In 1992, we studied a different sample of 1184 adults of the general population in the same area. We used the same criteria as in 1977 to analyse our results. The number of patients not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening was also studied. The overall prevalence (grades 1-5) of asthma and COPD has increased from +/- 19% in 1977 to +/- 31% in 1992 (range 21-42). The main reason for this is an increase in prevalence of very mild to moderate asthma and COPD (grades 1-3) from 17% in 1977 to 27% in 1992. The prevalence of severe cases (grades 4-5) increased from 2% in 1977 to 4% in 1992. In 1992, around 65% of the patients were not known to the general practitioner as having any grade of asthma or COPD. This was only slightly lower than the 72% in 1977. All patients with a severe disease (grade 5) were known to the general practitioner.\",\n \"yes. This study provides evidence of an increase in respiratory symptoms and use of anti-asthmatic drugs over a period of 17 years from 1990 among young adult Icelanders.\",\n \"Despite the increase in the use of inhaled corticosteroids, half of the persistent asthmatics from the general population are using a medication regimen below their severity level. When the use of drugs follows the GINA guideline recommendations, a good control of asthma is also achievable in the daily management of the disease, particularly in the case of mild and moderate asthmatics.\",\n \"Asthma morbidity and mortality has increased substantially in recent years, but asthma hospitalization rates among many geographic and sociodemographic groups have remained stable. Observations on asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes might provide valuable insight into the functioning of the health care system during this period of health care reform. To analyze changes between 1991 and 1995 in childhood asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes. All 29 329 hospitalizations, including 2028 for asthma, for the 198 893 children (<19 years of age) in Monroe County (Rochester), New York, were studied during this 5-year period. Severity was determined by hospital record review on a 22% random sample. Using the worst oxygen saturation (SaO(2)) during the first 24 hours of hospitalization as the primary index of severity, episodes were categorized as mild (0 to >/=95), moderate (90 to 94), or severe (<90). Hospitalization rates are expressed as hospitalizations per 1000 child-years. The overall asthma hospitalization rate was 2.04 (95% confidence interval, 1.95-2.13). The overall annual asthma hospitalization rate remained relatively stable from 1991 (1.90) to 1995 (2.31), whereas the hospitalization rates for severe asthma rose 270%-from 0.57 to 1.55-during this period. Simultaneously, the hospitalization rates for mild asthma decreased from 0.26 to 0.12. As a proportion of all asthma hospitalizations between 1991 and 1995, severe episodes increased from 31.5% to 60.4%; conversely, mild episodes decreased from 14.1% to 4.7%.\",\n \"Knowledge of the mortality outcome of asthma is limited to hospital case series follow-up. To provide estimates of the mortality and cause of death in patients with asthma comparison of observed and expected number of deaths in patients with asthma for the observation period 1962-1986 was made. The study group was 262 patients aged 19-81 years with severe asthma. The group was a total sample of patients with a daily treatment of oral steroids more than one year, 1962-1963, from the city of Göteborg. Mortality from all causes was significantly raised among the asthmatics (179 deaths versus 83.5 expected, relative risk (RR) - 2.1, 95% confidence interval (CI) : 1.8-2.5). There was an excess mortality from ischaemic heart disease 58 versus 29.9 deaths (RR = 1.9, 95% CI : 1.4-2.4), especially among women (RR = 2.4, 95% CI : 1.7-2.2). However, there was also an increased mortality from asthma (39 versus 0.4 deaths) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (11 versus 0.5 deaths).\",\n \"Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended in the management of patients with asthma-chronic obstructive pulmonary disease overlap syndrome (ACOS), but its effectiveness has not been clearly proved. To evaluate whether ICS has effects on outcomes of ACOS. In this observational 12-year retrospective cohort study involving 125 patients with ACOS from Seoul National University Hospital, the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second, the incidence rate of severe exacerbation, and overall mortality in an ICS-treated group were compared with those in a non-ICS-treated group. Of 125 patients with ACOS, 90 and 35 were categorized to the ICS and non-ICS treatment groups, respectively. There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second (9.61 mL/year in ICS treatment group vs 15.68 mL/year in non-ICS treatment group, P = .598). Compared with the non-ICS treatment group, the ICS treatment group did not show a decrease in the risk of severe exacerbation (adjusted incidence rate ratio 1.24, 95% confidence interval 0.44-3.46). Time to death also did not differ between the 2 groups. Even when analyses with propensity score matching were performed, the results were similar.\",\n \"The increase in prevalence of obesity is a possible risk factor for asthma in developed countries. As the people of Cuba experienced an acute population-based decrease in weight in the 1990s, we tested the hypothesis that national weight loss and subsequent weight gain was associated a reciprocal changes in asthma mortality. Data were obtained on mortality rates from asthma and COPD in Cuba from 1964 to 2014, along with data on prevalence of obesity for this period. Joinpoint analysis was used to identify inflexion points in the data. Although the prevalence of obesity from 1990 to 1995 decreased from 14% to 7%, over the same time period the rate of asthma mortality increased from 4.5 deaths per 100,000 population to 5.4 deaths per 100,000 population. In 2010, the obesity prevalence subsequently increased to 15% in 2010, while the asthma mortality rate dropped to 2.3 deaths per 100,000 population. The optimal model for fit of asthma mortality over time gave an increasing linear association from 1964 to 1995 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1993 to 1997), followed by a decrease in asthma mortality rates from 1995 to 1999 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1997 to 2002).\",\n \"Few studies have investigated the long-term association between inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and lung function decline in asthma. To evaluate whether prolonged treatment with ICSs is associated with FEV(1) decline in adults with asthma. An international cohort of 667 subjects with asthma (20-44 years old) was identified in the European Community Respiratory Health Survey (1991-1993) and followed up from 1999 to 2002. Spirometry was performed on both occasions. FEV(1) decline was analyzed according to age, sex, height, body mass index, total IgE, time of ICS use, and smoking, while adjusting for potential confounders. As ICS use increased, the decline in FEV(1) was lower (P trend = .025): on average, decline passed from 34 mL/y in nonusers (half of the sample) to 20 mL/y in subjects treated for 48 months or more (18%). When adjusting for all covariates, there was an interaction (P = .02) between ICS use and total IgE: in subjects with high (>100 kU/L) IgE, ICS use for 4 years or more was associated with a lower FEV(1) decline (23 mL/y; 95% CI, 8-38 compared with nonusers). This association was not seen in those with lower IgE.\",\n \"We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging.\",\n \"Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":192,"string":"192"}}},{"rowIdx":273172,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"A 10-year national trend study of alcohol consumption, 1984-1995: is the period of declining drinking over?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns.","Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting."],"string":"[\n \"Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns.\",\n \"Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Increasing the price of alcohol is consistently shown to reduce the average level of consumption. However, the evidence for the effect of increasing the price on high-intensity drinking is both limited and equivocal. The aim of this analysis is to estimate the effect of changes in price on patterns of consumption. Self-reported patterns of alcohol consumption and demographic data were obtained from the Australian National Drug Strategy Household Surveys, conducted in 2001, 2004 and 2007. A pooled three-stage least-squares estimator was used to simultaneously model the impact of the price on the frequency (measured in days) of consuming no, low, moderate and high quantities of alcohol. A 1% increase in the price of alcohol was associated with a statistically significant increase of 6.41 days per year on which no alcohol is consumed (P ≤ 0.049), and a statistically significant decrease of 7.30 days on which 1-4 standard drinks are consumed (P ≤ 0.021). There was no statistically significant change for high or moderate-intensity drinking.","yes. The results show that the previous positive trends in Danish dietary habits, during the period 1995-2001, have come to a standstill. There is therefore a need for a new and more effective effort to encourage positive changes in food consumption patterns.","We observed a yearly trend of decrease in efficacy.","The purpose of this three-wave longitudinal study was twofold. First, prevalence data on alcohol characteristics (e.g., drinks per day, heavy episodic drinking [HED]) were provided for a community sample of middle-aged adults. Aggregate (or group) and individual levels of stability of these characteristics across a 10-year interval were a major focus. Second, an actor-partner interdependence model (APIM) was used to test husbands' and wives' mutual influences on each other's alcohol use. Prospective data were collected from the middle-aged parents of a cohort study that originally targeted adolescents. Three measurement occasions occurred at baseline, 5 years later, and an additional 5 years later. Data from 597 men and 847 women were used to derive prevalence data on alcohol use, and 489 intact marital dyads were used to test spouses' interdependence on alcohol use and HED in the APIMs. The majority of men and women reported alcohol use at each measurement occasion, and the average number of drinks per day was highly similar across time, as was the percentage reporting HED. There was substantial stability at the individual level in the amount of alcohol consumed and HED between waves of measurement. Marital partners had significant but modest effects on each other's alcohol use. Wives had a somewhat greater influence on their husbands' drinking than vice versa.","We investigated if increased drinking frequency among adults in the second half of life co-occurred with increased usual quantity and increased intoxication frequency. Two-wave panel study. Norway. Norwegian adults (1017 women and 959 men) aged 40-79 years. Drinking frequency, usual quantity and intoxication frequency was measured by self-report in 2002/03 and again in 2007/08. Information about gender, age and level of education was obtained from the public register. Health was collected by self-report. Because of a significant gender × change in drinking frequency interaction effect on change in intoxication frequency (b = 0.02, P = 0.013), women and men were analysed separately. After adjusting for covariates, women who increase their drinking frequency showed a non-significant decrease in usual quantity [low initial usual quantity (LIUQ): β = -0.01, P = 0.879; high initial usual quantity (HIUQ): β = -0.06, P = 0.164]and a non-significant increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.04, P = 0.569; HIUQ: β = 0.09, P = 0.251). Men who increased their drinking frequency showed a small decrease in usual quantity (LIUQ: β = -0.06, P = 0.049; HIUQ: β = -0.05, P = 0.002) and a small increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.05, P = 0.035; HIUQ: β = 0.13, P = 0.004).","Trends in tobacco use reflect an underutilization of preventive measures in general, and health education measures in particular. Financial resources appropriated for health education and information were reduced by 90% during the 1980s.","To determine whether low to moderate alcohol intake is protective against cognitive decline in older people. Prospective cohort study. Community-based study in Ireland, the Netherlands, and Scotland. Five thousand eight hundred four people (3,000 women) aged 70 to 82 and randomized to pravastatin or placebo in the Prospective Study of Pravastatin in the Elderly at Risk. Alcohol consumption was determined at study baseline. Serial measures of cognitive function over 3.2 years mean follow-up included Mini-Mental-State-Examination (MMSE), speed of information processing (Stroop and Letter-Digit Coding tests), and immediate and delayed memory (Picture-Word Learning test). Forty-two percent of women and 71% of men were alcohol drinkers. Cognitive performance was better for female drinkers than nondrinkers for all cognitive domains over the 3.2-year follow-up; no significant effects were seen for men (linear mixed model, including adjusting for possible confounders). The rate of cognitive decline was similar for drinkers and nondrinkers for all cognitive domains, except for MMSE, which declined significantly less in female drinkers than nondrinkers (linear mixed model attenuated rate of decline=0.05 MMSE units per annum, P=.001).","Although it seems intuitive that alcohol use disorders (AUDs) include excessive alcohol consumption (EAC), this notion is not well established. This study investigates to which degree EAC (defined as >14/21 drinks weekly for women/men and at least three 5+ drinking days per week) and AUD overlap and whether problematic alcohol use groups (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) differ from each other and from nonproblematic alcohol users regarding sociodemographics, mental health problems, functioning, and service utilization. Data were derived from the Netherlands Mental Health Survey and Incidence Study-2, a population-based study including 5,443 current drinkers (aged 18 to 64) interviewed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview 3.0. Both DSM-IV AUDs and a proxy of DSM-5 AUD are considered. Of the current drinkers, 3.8% reported 12-month EAC. Twelve-month prevalence of DSM-IV and DSM-5 AUD were 5.4 and 4.4%, respectively. Regarding DSM-IV, only 17.7% of subjects with AUD reported EAC and 25.3% of those with EAC had an AUD. Compared with nonproblematic alcohol users, the 3 groups of problematic alcohol use (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) were more often associated with mental health problems, poorer functioning, and service utilization. There were few differences between EAC-only and AUD-only regarding these correlates. However, EAC + AUD had strongest associations with above-mentioned correlates compared with the other 3 groups. Compared with DSM-IV findings, DSM-5 AUDs had slightly larger overlap with EAC, but correlates were similarly associated with problematic alcohol use groups.","It has been argued that as smoking prevalence declines in countries, the smokers that remain include higher proportions of those who are unwilling or unable to quit (a process known as 'hardening'). Smokeless tobacco and e-cigarettes have been promoted as a strategy to deal with such smokers. If hardening is occurring, there would be a positive association between smoking prevalence and quitting, with less quitting at lower prevalence. There would also be a neutral or negative association between prevalence and the number of cigarettes smoked. We examined US state-level associations using the Tobacco Use Supplement (1992/1993-2010/2011) and Eurobarometer surveys for 31 European countries (2006-2009-2012) using regressions of quit attempts, quit ratios, and number of cigarettes smoked on smoking prevalence over time. For each 1% drop in smoking prevalence, quit attempts increase by 0.55%±.07 (p<0.001) in the USA and remain stable in Europe (p=0.53), US quit ratios increase by 1.13%±0.06 (p<0.001), and consumption drops by 0.32 cig/day±0.02 (p<0.001) in the USA and 0.22 cig/day±0.05 (p<0.001) in Europe. These associations remain stable over time (p>0.24), with significantly lower consumption at any given prevalence level as time passed in the USA (-0.15 (cig/day)/year±0.06, p<0.05).","Alcohol consumption is influenced by genetic factors. Previous studies have examined the heritability of alcohol consumption, or related phenotypes, from adolescence into adulthood, frequently finding that total heritability changes over time. However, it remains unclear whether the same genes underlie liability to alcohol consumption across development versus whether novel risk genes become important over time. Method A population-based study of adult male twins (n=1790) born in Virginia, USA, retrospectively reported on their average monthly alcohol consumption from early adolescence through adulthood. We used twin modeling methods to explore genetic and environmental influences on alcohol consumption over time. One latent genetic factor accounted for the majority of the heritability in alcohol consumption during mid- to late adolescence, but its influence declined thereafter; from young adulthood forward, heritability was largely attributable to a second genetic factor. The total heritability of alcohol consumption increased from 0 at ages 12-14 years to 0.40 by ages 18-21 years. Shared environmental factors declined in influence over time.","The 10-year pattern of emergency department presentations for alcohol-related injuries increased significantly in the Mount Isa region compared with the control region. Further research should investigate the impacts of population flow related to Indigenous community alcohol management plans.","Socioeconomic differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, as based on register data, are larger than socioeconomic differences in various types of harmful drinking, as based on survey data. The aim was to use a follow-up study to examine whether differential drinking patterns between socioeconomic groups explain the observed differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, or whether similar drinking patterns predict higher mortality among lower socioeconomic groups. The study population included Finns who participated in cross-sectional surveys on drinking habits in 1969, 1976 or 1984 when aged 25-69 (n = 6406). They were followed up for alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations (n = 180) for 16 years. Drinking patterns were measured by total consumption, frequency of subjective intoxication and of drinking different amounts of alcohol at a time, and by volume of consumption that was drunk in heavy drinking occasions and non-heavy drinking occasions. Compared with non-manual workers, manual workers had a 2.06-fold hazard of alcohol-related death or hospitalisation. Adjustment for drinking patterns explained only a small fraction of the excess hazard among manual workers. Additionally, in each category of total consumption and in each level of the volume drunk in heavy drinking occasions, the risk of alcohol-related death and hospitalisation was higher for manual than for non-manual workers.","To quantify the association between including specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes and the prevalence of use. Quasi-experimental. One thousand one hundred forty-one nursing homes in four U.S. states. Residents living in one of the included nursing homes in operation during 1997 (before Beers; n=130,250) and 2000 (after Beers; n=164,889). Inclusion of specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes. Logistic regression models adjusting for clustering effects of residents residing in homes provided estimates of the relationship between the survey process and use of any medications targeted as potentially inappropriate as part of the survey process, as well as those deemed inappropriate but not included. The use of any potentially inappropriate medication decreased from 42.5% in 1997 to 39.8% in 2000. After adjustment for resident characteristics, residents were less likely to receive any potentially inappropriate medication (odds ratio (OR)=0.85, 95% confidence interval (95% CI)=0.84-0.87), those considered high-severity drugs (those with a high likelihood of a clinically significant adverse event) (OR=0.67, 95% CI=0.65-0.69), or Beers' medications not included in the surveyors' guidelines (OR=0.76, 95% CI=0.74-0.79) in 2000 than in 1997 after the changes to the drug regulations and interpretive guidelines.","In all, 5054 suicide cases (76% males, 24% females) were examined with respect to the official autopsy reports of the Estonian Bureau of Forensic Medicine (autopsy rates: 95% of males, 88% of females) before (1981-84), during (1986-88) and after (1989-92) the campaign. Cases were divided by gender and BAC level (0.5-1.49, 1.5-2.49 and>2.5 per thousand). During the campaign, annual per capita alcohol consumption in Estonia fell from 10.9 to 6.6 l. Alcohol in blood was found in 47.9% before, 35.1% during and 40.9% after the campaign. During the intervention, BAC-positive, i.e. alcohol-positive, suicides decreased by 39.2% for males and 41.4% for females, with the largest fall occurring at the BAC 2.5 per thousand + level for both sexes. Changes in BAC-negative suicides were modest. When the campaign ended suicide rates started to rise.","A majority of individuals that meet criteria for alcohol abuse based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV), do so by endorsing the hazardous use criterion. We used a large, nationally representative data set to investigate whether alcohol abuse due to hazardous use is distinct from abuse attributable to other abuse criteria and whether abuse due to hazardous use is a less severe form of alcohol abuse. Two waves of data, collected 3 years apart, from 34,653 individuals who participated in the National Epidemiological Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions were used. Logistic regression was used to compare those with alcohol abuse due to hazardous use and those with alcohol abuse due to other criteria across several sociodemographic and psychiatric correlates at Wave 1 and across alcohol-related outcomes at the 3-year follow-up. Those with a lifetime history of alcohol dependence at Wave 1 were excluded. Abuse due to hazardous use was more commonly noted in older individuals, those not living below the poverty line, and those without nicotine dependence and was more likely to be noted in White participants. Abuse due to hazardous use was also associated with lower rates of problematic drinking, alcohol dependence, and help seeking at 3-year follow-up.","yes. Alcoholic beverage consumption in later life is strongly related to early patterns. Heavy consumption is associated with smoking and lower levels of education.","Population-based estimates for the prevalence of smokers receiving advice from a health professional to quit smoking and the prevalence of binge drinkers being talked to about alcohol use are lacking for U.S. adults. This information is useful for clinicians and public health professionals. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of U.S. adults. In 1997, 10 states collected data on these health interventions for tobacco and alcohol use. The prevalence of professional advice to quit smoking and about alcohol use was calculated and examined by demographic characteristics. The number of at-risk adults who had a routine checkup in the last year and had not received these interventions was also estimated. By self-report, 70% of smokers were advised to quit, and 23% of binge drinkers were talked to about their alcohol use. Using multivariate logistic regression analyses, we found among smokers that women and older persons were more likely to receive advice; among binge drinkers, health intervention was more likely to occur for men and non-Hispanic blacks. Across the 10 states, approximately 2 million smokers and 2 million binge drinkers with a routine checkup in the past 12 months were not advised to quit smoking or talked to about their alcohol use.","This study examines the sex-specific association between alcohol intake and health-related quality of life in middle class community-dwelling older adults. Information on alcohol intake and measures of quality of life were obtained from 1594 participants (n=633 men, n=961 women) aged 50-97 years during a research clinic visit in 1992-1996, and from their responses to a phone interview and mailed questionnaires. Quality of life measures included the Medical Outcome Study Short Form 36 (SF-36), Quality of Well-Being (QWB) Scale, Life Satisfaction Index-Z (LSI-Z), and Satisfaction with Life Survey (SWLS). Depressed mood was assessed using the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI). Men and women were stratified into four groups of reported alcohol intake: non-drinker, occasional drinker (alcohol <3 times/week), light regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week, but <170g/week), and moderate regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week and >/=170g/week). Average age of both sexes was 72+/-10 years. Only 11% of the men and 17% of the women were non-drinkers; 54% of men and 40% of women reported drinking alcohol >/=3 times per week; 18% of men and 7.5% of women were heavier regular drinkers. In multivariable regression analyses, increasing frequency of alcohol use was positively associated with better quality of life in men and in women. Associations were not explained by age, physical activity, smoking, depressed mood, or common chronic diseases including diabetes, hypertension and cardiovascular disease.","yes. Public health professionals should note that past-year drinking in a significant proportion of women of childbearing age exceeds guidelines for alcohol use. When targeting such prevention efforts, they should thus include assessment of past-year alcohol use patterns.","yes. Over a third of 12 year-olds had ever drunk an alcoholic beverage in their lifetime suggesting that the prevention of alcohol use and disorders must begin in late childhood. Initiatives to foment parental monitoring and to prevent, identify, and treat alcohol use problems in non-school attending youth in particular should be a priority for the wellbeing of Mexico City adolescents.","This study examined support for models of peer influence, which postulates that young adolescents whose friends use alcohol will also engage in that behavior, and of peer selection, whereby young adolescents seek out friends whose drinking behavior is similar to their own. Data for this study are from 1804 adolescents participating in Project Northland, a school- and community-based alcohol use prevention trial. Using latent variable structural equation modeling, a series of models examined directions of influence between participant alcohol use and friend drug use over three points in Grades 7, 8, and 9. Findings indicated that higher levels of friends' drug use led to increased participant alcohol use. The reverse-order relationship (i.e., greater participant involvement in alcohol leading to more drug use among friends) was not supported by these data. Finally, best-fitting models supported the notion that both participants' alcohol use and the alcohol and other drug use of friends were highly stable over time.","This study provides support for the utility of the public health perspective on alcohol in explaining changes in consumption and alcohol-related harm in a historical context. We discuss our findings from tsarist Russia in the light of experiences from more recent alcohol policy changes in Russia.","The present study examined familial risk and protective factors as moderators of parents allowing their adolescent children to drink at home on longitudinal alcohol involvement trajectories. A total of 772 community adolescents and their parents provided data beginning in 1989 and at four subsequent time points over 15 years; Black adolescents were intentionally oversampled (50% at baseline). Outcomes related to allowing adolescents to drink at home depended on family structure: Adolescents from intact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the lowest levels of alcohol use and problems over time, whereas those from nonintact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the highest levels of involvement. These results controlled for family history of alcohol problems, consistent parenting styles, and demographic characteristics.","Among job-seekers with high levels of alcohol consumption, an intervention tailored to motivational 'stage of change' was more effective than a non-stage tailored intervention for reducing alcohol use 15 months after baseline assessment in participants with low initial motivation to change.","yes. A 5-year prospective evaluation of attributes associated with suicide attempts among alcohol-dependent persons identified factors that contributed to a small but significant proportion of the variance for future suicidal behavior.","Data support a critical developmental period for positive alcohol expectancies, with the greatest change observed between third and fourth grade and between fourth and fifth grade, and only in those expectancies clearly describing positive outcomes (e.g., Relaxation/Tension Reduction) via positive or negative reinforcement versus those with either combined or ambiguous outcomes (e.g., Social Behavior Enhancement or Impediment).","In this study, we have observed a general acceptance that alcohol could provide positive reinforcement, especially among those who have had a prior experience of intake of alcohol. Thus, this study throws light on whether there is likelihood of youngsters falling into addiction in the later part of their life; hence it can act as a useful predictor for parents, health professionals, social counselors and the society as a whole so that they can take preventive measures against alcohol addiction.","yes. Subjective perceptions in young adult social drinkers depend on the slope of the BrAC when examined in association with RDH. These results support the differentiator model hypothesis concerning the ascending slope and suggest that moderate alcohol consumers could be at risk for increased alcohol consumption because they feel more intoxicated and high on the ascending slope. Subjects did not feel less sedated on the descending slope, contrary to the differentiator model but replicating several previous studies.","This study provides evidence that screening and very brief (5- to 10-minute) advice and counseling delivered by a physician or nurse practitioner as part of routine primary care significantly reduces alcohol consumption by high-risk drinkers.","This study used a person-centered approach to test whether drinking motive typologies could be identified. Longitudinal study of college students within the intensive multivariate prospective alcohol college-transitions (IMPACTS) data set. University campus in the United States. University students (baseline n reporting alcohol motives = 2158; baseline age = 18.60 years old). The drinking motives questionnaire-revised (DMQ-R). Using Steinley&Brusco's cluster analysis approach [based on the theoretical ratio expected between the within sum of squares and the total sum of squares when the data are divided into two clusters when no cluster structure is present; the cut-off for the ratio is 0.25 for uniform (multivariate uniform) distributions and 0.36 for normal (multivariate normal) distributions], we examined whether there was evidence for distinct clusters of individuals that differed on their overall level of motives to drink. We tested the fit of a one-group (cluster) solution compared to multi-cluster solutions. Both cross-sectionally and prospectively, the data could not be partitioned into two or more clusters [regardless of whether the cut-off assuming a multivariate uniform distribution (i.e. 0.25) or the more liberal multivariate normal distribution (i.e., 0.36) was used]. These findings showed that enhancement and coping drinkers do not form two distinct groups but, rather, these motives exist on a continuum such that individuals who are high in one internal motive tend to be high in the other motive.","Negative outcomes of alcoholism are progressively more severe as the duration of problem of alcohol use increases. Additionally, alcoholics demonstrate tendencies to neglect negative consequences associated with drinking and/or to choose to drink in the immediate presence of warning factors against drinking. The recently derived crossed high-alcohol-preferring (cHAP) mice, which volitionally drink to heavier intoxication (as assessed by blood ethanol [EtOH] concentration) than other alcohol-preferring populations, as well as spontaneously escalating their intake, may be a candidate to explore mechanisms underlying long-term excessive drinking. Here, we hypothesized that an extended drinking history would reduce the ability of 2 manipulations (forced abstinence [FA] and conditioned taste aversion [CTA]) to attenuate drinking. Experiment 1 examined differences between groups drinking for either 14 or 35 days, half of each subjected to 7 days of FA and half not, to characterize the potential changes in postabstinence drinking resulting from an extended drinking history. Experiment 2 used a CTA procedure to assess stimulus specificity of the ability of an aversive flavorant to decrease alcohol consumption. Experiment 3 used this taste aversion procedure to assess differences among groups drinking for 1, 14, or 35 days in their propensity to overcome this aversion when the flavorant was mixed with either EtOH or water. Experiment 1 demonstrated that although FA decreased alcohol consumption in mice with a 14-day drinking history, it failed to do so in mice drinking alcohol for 35 days. Experiment 2 showed that the addition of a flavorant only suppressed alcohol drinking if an aversion to the flavorant was previously established. Experiment 3 demonstrated that an extended drinking history expedited extinction of suppressed alcohol intake caused by a conditioned aversive flavor.","To review the findings of a paper that has often been cited as evidence-with potentially adverse public health consequences-that the demand for alcohol in Indigenous Australian communities is not responsive to price and that, in the face of increasing alcohol prices, expenditure is diverted from basic sustenance to the purchase of alcohol. The raw data on income and various items of expenditure from the original study were entered in a database, a trend variable was created, and trends in measures of interest were tested using appropriate cross-correlations. Re-analysis of the data did not support the findings of the original study.","This study assessed which demographic groups were most likely to consume alcohol excessively, and which groups had received inquiries and discussion about alcohol use from their physicians compared with discussions about other health risks. This was a cross-sectional study using data from the Centers for Disease Control Behavioral Risk Factors Surveillance System 1997 data set that represents a stratified random sample in the United States. We selected 23,349 adults who reported a routine physical examination within the last 3 years. The main variables involved responses to questions about alcohol intake and whether the respondent's physician had initiated discussions about drinking. Physicians spoke to patients about alcohol use much less frequently than about other health-related behaviors. Discussions were roughly targeted to groups with the largest intake. However, physicians were least likely to speak with white patients, women, and widows who drank significantly.","In a community sample, the rate of past year DSM-IV alcohol dependence was lower among male 2t-AUDPs than females, though both groups showed past year rates substantially lower than lifetime rates. However, less than half of ECA 2t-AUDPs exhibited low-risk or abstinent alcohol use behaviors, indicating that while remission from diagnosis is common, clinical relevance persists.","Many studies have found that earlier drinking initiation predicts higher risk of later alcohol and substance use problems, but the causal relationship between age of initiation and later risk of substance use disorder remains unknown. We use a \"natural experiment\" study design to compare the 12-month prevalence of Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, Fourth Edition, alcohol and substance use disorders among adult subjects exposed to different minimum legal drinking age laws minimum legal drinking age in the 1970s and 1980s. The sample pools 33,869 respondents born in the United States 1948 to 1970, drawn from 2 nationally representative cross-sectional surveys: the 1991 National Longitudinal Alcohol Epidemiological Survey (NLAES) and the 2001 National Epidemiological Study of Alcohol and Related Conditions. Analyses control for state and birth year fixed effects, age at assessment, alcohol taxes, and other demographic and social background factors. Adults who had been legally allowed to purchase alcohol before age 21 were more likely to meet criteria for an alcohol use disorder [odds ratio (OR) 1.31, 95% confidence intervals (95% CI) 1.15 to 1.46, p < 0.0001] or another drug use disorder (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.19 to 2.44, p = 0.003) within the past-year, even among subjects in their 40s and 50s. There were no significant differences in effect estimates by respondent gender, black or Hispanic ethnicity, age, birth cohort, or self-reported age of initiation of regular drinking; furthermore, the effect estimates were little changed by inclusion of age of initiation as a potential mediating variable in the multiple regression models.","In contrast to proposals that physical activity (PA) can be a substitute for alcohol use, people who engage in greater overall PA generally consume more alcohol on average than less-active peers. Acknowledging that both PA and alcohol use vary considerably from day-to-day, this study evaluated whether established associations reflect daily behavioral coupling within-person, are an artifact of procedures that aggregate behavior over time, or both. A life span sample of 150 adults (aged 19-89 years) completed three 21-day measurement bursts of a daily diary study. At the end of each day, they reported on their PA and alcohol consumption. Data were analyzed in a negative binomial multilevel regression. As expected, both behaviors exhibited limited between-person variation. After controlling for age, gender, and seasonal and social calendar influences, daily deviations in PA were significantly associated with daily total alcohol use. Once the within-person process linking PA and alcohol use was controlled, usual PA and total alcohol use were not associated.","Future studies may benefit from investigating the factors suspected to be driving the weak relationships between these measures, including the actual time over which the reported alcohol was consumed and pattern of drinking over the consumption period.","Investigation on an individual level showed that alcohol consumption was a common precursor to suicide and that rigorous alcohol restrictions were accompanied particularly by a decrease in BAC-positive suicide mortality among both sexes. However, the 'natural experiment' does not, in terms of study design, demonstrate convincingly that the fall in the suicide rate was due specifically to the decrease in alcohol use as such.","Among those who drank alcohol, there was no evidence that any pattern of current alcohol consumption was associated with poor self-rated health, even after adjustment for a wide range of variables. The results associated with the stopped drinking profile indicate improvement in self-rated health can be associated with changes in drinking behaviour. Although several limitations of the study are noted, policy makers may wish to consider how these findings should be translated into drinking guidelines for older adults.","Polarized drinking habits are a likely explanation for the recent divergence between per capita alcohol consumption, which has decreased, and alcohol-related hospitalizations, which have increased sharply among Swedish youth in recent years. We suggest that ongoing social changes could be affecting young people in the form of greater disparities, which are associated with a higher incidence of social problems generally, including heavy drinking.","To explore the utility of using national data from high school students to explain changes in national declines in pregnancy rates. Although declines in teen pregnancy and birthrates in the 1990s have been welcome news to those interested in adolescent health and welfare, the reasons for these declines are not readily apparent. Previous attempts to explain these declines focused on the period before 1995 and did not directly calculate the impact of improved contraceptive use. The national Youth Risk Behavior Survey provided estimates for sexual activity and contraceptive use among teens aged 15-17 years between 1991 and 2001 (n = 31,058). These data were combined with method-specific contraceptive failure rates (CFRs) derived from the 1988 and 1995 National Survey of Family Growth and pregnancy rates from the National Vital Statistics System. We calculated weighted-average CFRs (WACFR) and used the annual rate of change in the WACFR and sexual activity to estimate their relative contributions to the annual change in risk of pregnancy. Weighted least-squares regression in SUDAAN was used to test change over time. Between 1991 and 2001, annual rates of change in sexual behaviors were -1.7% for sexual experience and -1.6% for the WACFR. Improvements in WACFR resulted primarily from a decline in use of withdrawal (from 20% to 13%) and use of no method (from 17% to 13%) and an increase in condom use (40% to 51%). Recent sexual intercourse (i.e., intercourse during the past 3 months among teens who had ever had intercourse) did not change over time. The change in the estimated risk of pregnancy closely approximated the annual decline in the pregnancy rates for blacks and Hispanics but underestimated the actual decline for whites. Overall, 53% of the decline in pregnancy rates can be attributed to decreased sexual experience (95%CI 26% to 79%) and 47% to improved contraceptive use (95%CI 21% to 74%).","To determine the nature of the association between alcohol consumption and symptoms of anxiety and depression in women. Prospective cohort study of women (n = 4527) who received antenatal care at a major public hospital (Mater Misericordiae Hospital) in South Brisbane between 1981 and 1984 and who have follow-up data on alcohol use, depressive and anxiety symptoms over a 14-year period. At the 5-year follow-up there was a 'J-shaped' association between alcohol consumption and both symptoms of depression and of anxiety. However, at the baseline assessment and the 14-year follow-up alcohol consumption was linearly and positively associated with depressive symptoms with increasing prevalence of symptoms with greater consumption. At the 5-year follow-up the prevalence of depressive and anxiety symptoms among those who were abstainers at both baseline and 5-year follow-up was similar to that among those who had been previous drinkers and then become abstainers (P = 0.67). Similarly, the prevalence of these symptoms was the same at the 14-year follow-up comparing those who had been abstainers at baseline, 5-year and 14-year follow-up to those who had previously consumed alcohol but were then abstainers.","To examine cross-national changes in frequent adolescent cannabis use (40+ times consumed over life-time at age 15) over time and relate these trends to societal wealth, family affluence and gender. Data from three cycles (2002, 2006, 2010) of the Health Behaviour in School-aged Children (HBSC) Study were used for cross-sectional and trend analyses of adolescent cannabis use. Representative surveys in 30 European and North American countries. A total of 160 606 15-year-old students. Respondents' life-time cannabis use, demographics, family affluence (FAS) and frequency of peer contacts were measured individually. Indicators of wealth (gross domestic product per capita, GDP) and perceived availability of cannabis were obtained from national public data bases. The frequency of life-time cannabis use decreased over time among adolescents in Europe and North America, particularly in western European countries and the United States (relative risk (RR) = 0.86: confidence interval (CI) 0.79-0.93). This trend was not observed consistently in rapidly developing countries in eastern, central and southern Europe. Over time (2002-10), cannabis use became: (i) less characteristic of high GDP countries in contrast to lower GDP countries (RR = 0.74: CI 0.57-0.95); (ii) less characteristic of youth from high FAS families in contrast to youth from low FAS families (RR = 0.83: CI 0.72-0.96); and (iii) characterized by an increasing gender gap, i.e. consumption was higher among males (RR 1.26: CI 1.04-1.53). Perceived availability of cannabis and peer contacts remained strong predictors of frequent cannabis use.","To determine if allowing wine sales in corner grocery stores, beginning in 1978 for domestic Quebec wines and then in 1983 for imported wines, in addition to sales in government monopoly stores, led to an increase in alcohol consumption. Aggregate retail sales data for the period 1953 to 1990 were analyzed using econometric regression techniques. Time series (unit root) analysis and structural modeling were used to take into account the effect of price, income and other social, economic and demographic factors in order to determine the effect of factors underlying consumption behavior in both the long and short term. In the post-intervention period, wine consumption continued along the rising trend established in the pre-intervention period, with an apparent shift in favor of domestic wine consumption. The increase in wine consumption was highest in the period immediately following privatization, but the increase eventually dampened down within a few years. There was no fundamental change in the responsiveness of wine consumption to price.","To compare recent trends in smoking initiation by adolescents with trends in inflation-adjusted cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures. We examined smoking initiation trends in demographic subgroups of adolescents aged 14-17 years during the decade 1979-1989. Data on cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures were adjusted for inflation and plotted over this same period. Large population surveys, United States. 140,975 ever-smokers aged 17-38 when surveyed in 1992 or 1993, who reported on age of smoking initiation during the decade 1979-1989. Initiation rate was calculated as the number in an age group who reported starting to smoke regularly in a year, divided by the number of never-smokers at the start of the year. Trends were evaluated by linear and quadratic models. From 1979 to 1984, adolescent initiation rates decreased, but increased thereafter, particularly among males, whites, and those who, as adults, reported never having graduated from high school. Cigarette price increased throughout the decade as did tobacco marketing expenditures, especially for coupons, value-added items, and promotional allowances.","Observational retrospective study of the database of the Office for National Statistics, alcohol consumption data reported by the General Household Survey, and other published data. England, 1993-9. Deaths for each million of the population from alcohol related illness increased by 59% in men and 40% in women over the years 1993 to 1999. One subgroup of alcohol related deaths, ICD 571.3 (alcoholic liver damage unspecified), showed a 243% increase in men aged 40 to 49 years over the same period. Figures for younger men, and women in all age groups, showed less pronounced increases. There has been no associated rise in alcohol intake. There has been an increase in the incidence of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection in recent years, and alcohol consumption in HCV positive individuals accelerates the progression to cirrhosis. Circumstantial evidence links the rise in HCV infection to the use of illicit drugs in the 1970s and 1980s, among those currently aged 40 to 59 years.","yes. These data suggest that while heavy current alcohol consumption is associated with significant impairment in a number of neurocognitive domains, history of alcohol dependence, even in the absence of heavy current alcohol use, is associated with lasting negative consequences for neurocognitive function.","yes. These data suggest that effective environmental prevention efforts at reducing underage drinking may be an important strategy to lower the prevalence of alcohol dependence in this high-risk population.","To prove the possibility of shifting distribution of cardiovascular risk factors for a whole population over time and thereby to influence the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, according to the theory stated by Geoffrey Rose in 1985. Examination of standardised data from the German Cardiovascular Prevention Study (GCP), a seven year long, population-based, multicentre intervention trial, concerned with decreasing risk factors for cardiovascular disease. three cross sectional surveys of a population 25 to 69 years old in six study regions, and three nationwide cross sectional surveys in the former West Germany in 1984, 1988 and 1991. The relation between the population mean for systolic and diastolic blood pressure, total serum cholesterol, body mass index, and alcohol intake, and the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, as are systolic (>or =140 and>or =160 mm Hg) and diastolic hypertension (>or =90 and>or =95 mm Hg), hypercholesterolaemia (>or =250 and>or =300 mg/dl), overweight (body mass index>or =30 kg/m2), and heavy drinking (weekly alcohol intake>or =300 g/week). Results are expressed as linear regression equations and Pearson correlation coefficients. The correlation between the mean population values and prevalence of disease was close for blood pressures and body mass index. The Pearson coefficients, corrected for the influence of values increased above borderlines, were 0.86 and 0.81 respectively for systolic blood pressure, 0.88 and 0.91 for diastolic blood pressure, 0.28 and 0.52 for cholesterol, and 0.86 for the body mass index. The coefficient for alcohol intake was 0.55.","Adult alcohol consumption is influenced by peer consumption, but whether peer drinking is associated with first-onset alcohol dependence (AD) in adults after age 30 is unknown. 703 adult participants in the St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area Survey (ECA) with no prior history of AD, but with high risk based on previously reported drinking or family history, were re-interviewed 11 years after the last ECA assessment to detect new cases of AD (age at follow-up: M(S.D.)=42.9 (8.2)). Incident AD during the assessment interval was examined in relation to drinking patterns in the social network and history of alcohol problems in parents. Fifteen percent of the sample had a first-onset of AD; another 19.5% never developed AD but were high-risk drinkers at follow-up. Of those who developed AD, 32.1% were remitted and 67.9% were unremitted (current AD) or unstably remitted (asymptomatic high-risk drinkers). Compared to abstinent or low-risk drinkers who did not develop AD, high-risk drinkers with no AD and unremitted/unstably remitted individuals were 4 times as likely to report moderate drinkers in their networks and remitted individuals were nearly 3 times as likely to report network members in recovery from alcohol problems. Associations of social network drinking with remitted and current AD were similar in strength to those of parental alcohol problems.","To analyse how adolescent drunkenness and frequency of drinking were associated with adult drinking patterns and alcohol control policies. Cross-sectional survey data on 13- and 15-year-olds in 37 countries who participated in the Health Behaviour in School-Aged Children (HBSC) Study in 2010 (n = 144 788) were linked to national-level indicators on alcohol control policies and adult drinking patterns. Outcome measures were self-reported weekly drinking and life-time drunkenness (drunk once or more). Data were analysed using multi-level logistic regression models. In the mutually adjusted models, adolescent drunkenness was associated significantly with high adult alcohol consumption [odds ratio (OR) = 3.15 among boys, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 2.13-4.64, OR girls = 2.44, CI = 1.57-3.80] and risky drinking patterns in the adult population (OR boys = 2.02, CI = 1.33-3.05, OR girls = 1.61, CI = 1.18-2.18). The level of abstainers in the adult population was also associated significantly with girls' drunkenness; a 10% increase in the number of abstainers in a country reduced the odds of drunkenness with 21% (OR = 0.79, CI = 0.68-0.90). Weekly drinking was associated significantly with weak restrictions on availability (OR boys = 2.82, CI = 1.74-4.54, OR girls = 2.00, CI = 1.15-3.46) and advertising (OR boys = 1.56, CI = 1.02-2.40, OR girls = 1.79, CI = 1.10-2.94).","To examine self-reported alcohol consumption and relationships between consumption, awareness of the 2009 NHMRC guidelines of no more than two standard drinks per day, drinking in excess of the guideline threshold and perceptions of alcohol as a risk factor for cancer. Questions were included in annual, cross-sectional surveys of approximately 2,700 South Australians aged 18 years and over from 2004 to 2012. Consumption data for 2011 and 2012 were merged for the majority of analyses. In 2011 and 2012, 21.6% of adults drank in excess of the guideline threshold (33.0% males; 10.7% females). While 53.5% correctly identified the NHMRC consumption threshold for women, only 20.3% did so for men (39.0% nominated a higher amount). A large minority said they did not know the consumption threshold for women (39.2%) or men (40.4%). In 2012, only 36.6% saw alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Important predictors of excess consumption for men were: higher household income; and not perceiving alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Predictors for women were similar but the role of household income was even more prominent.","To examine the associations between alcohol control policies in four regulatory domains with alcohol consumption in low- and middle-income countries (LAMICs), controlling for country-level living standards and drinking patterns. Cross-sectional analyses of individual-level alcohol consumption survey data and country-level alcohol policies using multi-level modeling. Data from 15 LAMICs collected in the Gender, Alcohol, and Culture: an International Study (GENACIS) data set. Individuals aged 18-65 years. Alcohol policy data compiled by the World Health Organization; individual-level current drinking status, usual quantity and frequency of drinking, binge drinking frequency and total drinking volume; gross domestic product based on purchasing power parity (GDP-PPP) per capita; detrimental drinking pattern scale; and age and gender as individual-level covariates. Alcohol policies regulating the physical availability of alcohol, particularly those concerning business hours or involving a licensing system for off-premises alcohol retail sales, as well as minimum legal drinking age, were the most consistent predictors of alcohol consumption. Aggregate relative alcohol price levels were associated inversely with all drinking variables (P < 0.05) except drinking volume. Greater restrictions on alcohol advertising, particularly beer advertising, were associated inversely with alcohol consumption (P < 0.05). Policies that set legal blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limits for drivers and random breath testing to enforce BAC limits were not associated significantly with alcohol consumption.","Data were collected using the 1995 Minnesota Student Survey. Survey items were designed to correspond to DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for substance abuse and dependence. Public schools, alternative schools and area learning centers. Of the 78,800 students between the ages of 14 and 18 years who completed the survey, 18,803 reported substance use and at least one substance use disorder diagnostic criterion during the previous 12 months and were used for the analyses. The sample was divided randomly into two groups in order to conduct data analyses on one group (n = 9490) and confirm the findings in the other group (n = 9313). Confirmatory factor analyses were conducted to test three competing factor structure models consisting of a single factor model, a two-factor model of distinct dimensions and a two-factor model with interrelated dimensions. The single factor and correlated two-factor models had similar parameter estimates and fit the data better than the competing two-factor model with distinct dimensions. Findings were confirmed in a second sample.","Studies on the role of labour market position and change in alcohol use during midlife are scarce and their results are inconclusive mainly due to their failure to define comprehensive and distinct labour market groups and the short periods of time studied. In this study we used different activity categories for men and women to examine alcohol use trajectories in midlife covering a period of 17 years. Using data from four sweeps of the National Child Development Study covering ages 33-50 (N=9960), we used multilevel growth models to study the association between labour market categories and longitudinal changes in weekly units of alcohol consumed. In the reference group of full-time employed men alcohol trajectory decreased over the follow-up period (β=-0.14; 95% CI -0.18 to -0.11) while in the reference group of employed women it increased (β=0.06; 95% CI 0.04 to 0.08). Men and women who were 'mainly sick' had significantly steeper declines in their alcohol consumption trajectory. Women who became employed after being homemakers had the steepest increase in alcohol use (β=0.05; 95% CI 0.01 to 0.09).","The official decline in the suicide rate between 1987 and 2000 may have been a partial artifact of misclassification of non-elderly suicides within unintentional poisoning mortality. We recommend in-depth national, regional, and local population-based research investigations of the poisoning-suicide nexus, and endorse calls for widening the scope of the definition of suicide and evaluation of its risk factors.","Popular culture (movies, television shows, advertising) often portrays drinking to the point of intoxication as either humorous or associated with enjoyable social activities that enhance quality of life. This study examined the association between binge drinking (consuming five or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion) and health-related quality of life (HRQOL) among U.S. adults. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of adults aged>/=18 years conducted in all states. This survey included questions about alcohol consumption and HRQOL. In 2001, 52% of U.S. adults were current drinkers (one or more drinks in the past 30 days). Of current drinkers, 11% were frequent binge drinkers (three or more episodes in past month) and 14% were infrequent binge drinkers (one to two episodes in past month). After adjusting for confounding factors, frequent binge drinkers were more likely than non-binge drinkers to experience>/=14 unhealthy days (physical or mental) in the past month (adjusted odds ratio [AOR]=1.39, 95% confidence interval [CI]=1.24-1.56), primarily because they had more mentally unhealthy days than non-binge drinkers (AOR=1.52, 95% CI=1.32-1.75).","From 1985 to 1995, drivers younger than 21 years experienced a 50% drop in fatal crashes involving alcohol. This study addresses whether the decrease is explained by young drivers' drinking less or by their separating drinking from driving. Nighttime roadside surveys were conducted in 3 communities to test drivers' breath and administer questionnaires on drinking practices. From 1992 to 1996, 34,898 drivers (21% of whom were younger than 21 years) were interviewed. Although drivers younger than 21 years were more likely to have consumed 6 or more drinks on at least 1 occasion during the previous month, a smaller percentage of younger drivers than of older drivers had blood alcohol concentrations of 0.01 or higher.","Married individuals have lower rates of problem drinking, but little is known about this relationship in the context of other factors. This longitudinal analysis examines marital status with other individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics to understand its strength in predicting alcohol consumption over 5 years. A probability sample of dependent (n = 600) and problem (n = 992) drinkers was recruited through consecutive adult intakes from a Northern California county's alcohol and drug treatment programs and through a general population survey. Annual volume of drinks consumed over a 5-year period-measured at baseline, and at 1, 3 and 5 years later-was estimated in four nested models using maximum likelihood estimation via PROC MIXED. In simpler models that examined only marital status, married individuals drank significantly less than those never married (p<.01 for problem drinkers and p<.05 for dependent drinkers); however, when our models added individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics, marital status was no longer significant in predicting a trajectory of decreased drinking. For problem drinkers, the following characteristics were more important than marital status in predicting alcohol consumption over the 5 years: individual predisposing characteristics (age, p<.001; income, p<.001; education, p<.001; and age of initiation of regular alcohol use, p<.001), problem severity (number of alcohol dependence symptoms, p<.001; number of alcohol-related social consequences, p<.001; and higher drug severity, p<.05) and social predisposing characteristics (family member with an alcohol problem, p<.05; the size of heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network, p<.05; and chemical dependency treatment in the prior year, p<.001). For those who were alcohol dependent, income (p<.05), number of alcohol dependence symptoms (p<.001), higher drug severity (p<.05) and a heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network (p<.05 ) were more important than marital status in predicting consumption.","Substance use of adolescents was investigated in a region around Amsterdam, the Netherlands, in the period 2005-2009. The study was intended to find out to what extent behaviour related to different substances are interrelated and how trends develop in different subgroups. Two cross-sectional surveys were conducted among Dutch students in the second and fourth year of secondary school, aged 13-16 [n = 1,854 in 2005; n = 2,088 in 2009] by making use of an online questionnaire including questions about alcohol consumption, tobacco use (smoking behaviour) and cannabis use. Two educational levels were included. Decreases in alcohol consumption, tobacco and cannabis use were found between 2005 and 2009. The strongest decline was seen in alcohol consumption. Last month drinking decreased from 61.8% in 2005 to 36.5% in 2009. Last month binge drinking decreased from 38.7% in 2005 to 24.0% in 2009. Reduced alcohol consumption was found among boys and girls, for all ages and in both educational levels. Changes were strongest among 13-year-olds. Weekly or daily smoking declined between 2005 and 2009 among 13-year-olds, girls and students in the lower schooling level. Last month cannabis use decreased among girls and students in the higher schooling level. In both 2005 and 2009 clustering with alcohol consumption was found for the use of other substances.","We examined risky drinking and alcohol use patterns associated with prenatal effects of alcohol exposure in women of childbearing age, using various definitions of low-risk drinking. Computer-assisted telephone interview (CATI) methodology was used to gather information in a cross-sectional survey on alcohol use and problems, pregnancy and likelihood of future pregnancy. Participants were respondents in the 2000 National Alcohol Survey (NAS, N10, response rate 58%) which includes men and women from all 50 states of the United States and the District of Columbia. A total of 1504 women aged 18-39 years were included; 72 were pregnant, 511 were currently not pregnant but reported being likely to be pregnant in the next 5 years, and 921 women were neither pregnant nor likely to be in the next 5 years. Various alcohol use patterns in the past 12 months including average volume, amount per session, drinking with food and time spent drinking were assessed. Seven per cent of childbearing age women exceeded guidelines used to classify women as risky drinkers in the past month. Thirty per cent were classified as risky drinkers when these guidelines were extended to past-year drinking. Examination of specific alcohol use patterns revealed that while under 10% of risky drinkers reported past-month heavy episodic drinking, 30% or more reported heavy episodic drinking and exceeding daily limits for alcohol consumption in the past year.","To analyze selected indicators of alcohol use (lifetime use, initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age, weekly use, beverage preferences, initiation of drunkenness at ≤13 years of age and lifetime drunkenness) in adolescents in Slovakia from 2006 to 2014. The Health Behaviour in School Aged Children (HBSC) study is a cross-sectional questionnaire study. A standardized uniform questionnaire was used in representative samples of 11-, 13- and 15-year-old adolescents. In Slovakia, the HBSC study was undertaken in 2006 (n = 3972), 2010 (n = 5089) and 2014 (n = 4369). Over the study period, decreases were observed in weekly drinking (from 34.3% to 21.0% in 15-year-old boys and from 22.1% to 11.9% in 15-year-old girls), lifetime drinking and initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age. In terms of beverage preferences, the reduction in beer consumption was most notable. Approximately one-third of respondents got drunk for the first time at ≤13 years of age, and this remained consistent throughout the study period.","The study largely confirmed the expectation that the increase in cannabis use from 1988 to 1996 was paralleled by a decrease in the age of first cannabis use. From 1996 to 2003 age of first cannabis use and prevalence stabilized, possibly occasioned by a change in cannabis policy in the mid-1990s.","yes. The trajectory of decreasing of pressure over time is most likely the result of decreases in heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm. Pressure was generally targeted toward higher risk drinkers, such as heavy drinkers and those reporting alcohol-related harm. However, demographic findings suggest that the social context of drinking might also be a determinant of receiving pressure. Additional studies should identify when pressure is associated with decreased drinking and increased help seeking.","To identify independent relationships between socio-economic status and drinking patterns and related consequences and to identify socio-economic groups at risk for heavier consumption. Three comparable national telephone surveys were utilized: 1995, 2000 and 2004. The respondents were aged 18-65 years. Contextual information includes that a number of liberalized alcohol policy changes occurred over the time of the surveys. Educational qualification, income and occupation were associated independently with alcohol consumption. There were indications that the different dimensions of drinking (quantity and frequency) had different relationships with socio-economic status (SES). For example, lower SES groups drank heavier quantities while higher SES groups drank more frequently. SES, however, did not play a major role predicting drinking consequences once drinking patterns were controlled for, although there were some exceptions. It was the lower-to-average SES groups that were at greater risk for drinking heavier quantities compared to other SES groups in the population (as they had sustained increases in the quantities they consumed over time where other SES groups did not).","The declining trend in alcohol use among adolescents in Slovakia may reflect a progressive change in the social environment and is attributable, at least in part, to policy improvements such as pricing and stricter legislation and enforcement.","To study total alcohol consumption and its correlates, with an emphasis on the direction of causality. The associations among total alcohol consumption, abstaining, alcohol dependence (AD) and heavy episodic drinking were compared in 29 Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries in 2010. Either total alcohol consumption is determined by the number of abstainers and that of alcohol dependents, or the number of alcohol dependents is determined by total alcohol consumption. The number of non-dependent heavy episodic drinkers does not play a role.","yes. The current findings suggest that student alcohol consumption declines over their undergraduate studies; however weekly levels of consumption at Year 3 remain high for a substantial number of students. The persistence of high levels of consumption in a large population of students suggests the need for effective preventative and treatment interventions for all year groups.","Beyond the initial relapse episode, little is known about short-term patterns of alcohol and other drug use in treated adolescents. This study characterized treated teens' short-term alcohol and other drug use trajectories over 1-year follow-up. Adolescents (N = 110, ages 12-18, 65% male, 94% white) recruited from addictions treatment, with a current DSM-IV alcohol diagnosis, reported on daily alcohol and other drug use in monthly telephone contacts over 1-year follow-up using the Timeline Follow-Back procedure. Latent class mixture modeling identified trajectories based on maximum number of consecutive abstinent days per month, separately for alcohol and other drugs. Four alcohol trajectories were identified: high abstinence (53%), decreasing abstinence (10%), increasing abstinence (16%) and low abstinence (21%). The alcohol trajectories were distinguished by gender, age, readiness to change substance use and alcohol-related coping. To characterize changes in alcohol abstinence in relation to abstinence from other drugs, four other drug trajectories were identified: high (59%), decreasing (12%), increasing (14%) and low (15%) abstinence. Cross-classification of the alcohol and drug trajectories indicated a moderate level of concordance (kappa = 0.49).","to assess the relation between alcohol intake and mortality among seven cohorts of middle-aged and elderly Danes. Prospective population study with baseline assessment of alcohol- and tobacco consumption, educational level and body mass index, and a mean of 11.5 years follow-up of mortality. 16304 men and women aged 50 years or more. number and time of deaths from 1974 to 1995 as ascertained by the national central person register. the effect of alcohol intake on mortality did not differ between middle-aged (50-64 years, mean = 56.6 years) and elderly subjects (>64 years old, mean = 69.9 years). There was a U-shaped risk function in both age groups, which persisted also when adjusting for age, sex, smoking habits, level of education and body mass index. Abstaining women had a relative risk of 1.29 (95% confidence limits 1.17-1.42) as compared with light drinkers (1-6 (drinks per week), while the relative risk for abstaining men was 1.22 (95% confidence limits; 1.08 to 1.37) as compared with light drinkers. Heavy drinking women (>28 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 1.23 (95% confidence limits; 0.85 to 1.78) and heavy drinking men (more than 69 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 2.11 (95% confidence limits 1.66-2.69), both compared with light drinkers.","To examine the association of alcohol consumption over 10 years with cognitive performance in different socio-economic groups. Prospective cohort study, the French GAZEL study. France. Employees of France's national electricity and gas company. Alcohol intake was assessed annually, beginning in 1992, using questions on frequency and quantity of alcoholic beverages consumed in a week; used to define mean consumption and trajectory of alcohol intake over 10 years. Cognitive performance among participants aged ≥ 55 years (n = 4073) was assessed in 2002-04 using the Digit Symbol Substitution Test (DSST), a measure of psychomotor speed, attention and reasoning. Occupational position at age 35 and education were used as the markers of socio-economic position. All analyses were stratified by socio-economic position. In the low occupational group, participants consuming a mean of more than 21 drinks per week had 2.1 points lower (95% CI: -3.9, -0.3) DSST score compared to those consuming four to 14 drinks per week. In participants with primary school education, the corresponding difference was 3.6 points (95% CI: -7.1, -0.0). No association between alcohol consumption and cognitive performance was observed in the intermediate and high socio-economic groups, defined using either occupation or education. Analysis of trajectories of alcohol consumption showed that in the low socio-economic groups large increase or decrease in alcohol consumption was associated with lower cognitive scores compared to stable consumption.","The purpose of the present study was to assess patterns and correlates of alcohol consumption among African-American women. We used postal questionnaires to collect data in 1995 on alcohol consumption and on demographic, medical, and behavioral factors from 64,500 African-American women aged 21-69 years from across the United States enrolled in the Black Women's Health Study. We used logistic regression analysis to assess the association of consumption with potential correlates. The prevalence of current drinking was highest (37.1%) among women 40-49 years of age, and lowest (23.1%) among women aged 21-29. In every region, heavy drinking (at least 14 drinks a week), reported by about 8% of current drinkers, was associated with current smoking, lower educational attainment, commencement of drinking at younger ages and, particularly, consumption of greater amounts of alcohol in the early years of drinking.","To investigate the course of alcoholism in males and females in a 14-year follow-up of persons with DSM-III alcoholism compared to very heavy drinkers and unaffected controls in a community sample. Case-control study based on data from the 1997 Health Services Use and Cost study, a 14-year follow-up survey of 442 individuals who participated in two waves of the 1981-1983 St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area study. Cases met criteria for DSM-III alcohol abuse (AA) or dependence (AD) at both waves of the ECA: \"Two-times Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA 2t-AUDPs).\" Two comparison groups were frequency matched to 2t-AUDPs: (1) ECA Very Heavy Drinkers/One-time Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs) and (2) ECA alcohol-unaffecteds. Lifetime and past year alcohol use disorders, patterns of drinking and recovery among males and females are reported. 84.6% of 2t-AUDPs again met lifetime DSM-III criteria at 14-year follow-up. At follow-up, only 9.3% male 2t-AUDPs and 20.7% female 2t-AUDPs met past year DSM-IV AUD criteria. Past year drinking patterns, however, revealed higher rates of DSM-IV AA or AD, problem or risk drinking among 2t-AUDPs (61.7%) compared to both ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs (41.2%) and ECA alcohol-unaffecteds (22.1%).","Between 2005 and 2009 alcohol consumption strongly decreased among high school students. This may be due to the national prevention campaign which in the same period highlighted the importance of not drinking before the age of 16. The decrease in smoking and cannabis use between 2005 and 2009 may be due to clustering with alcohol consumption. A reduction in the use of alcohol in adolescence did not lead to replacement by tobacco or cannabis use.","(a) there was a positive relationship between violence and binge drinking among Swedish youth at the aggregated level, but mainly with regards to the shorter study period, (b) changes in per capita alcohol consumption were associated with binge drinking among young men and this was more evident for the shorter study period and (c) there was empirical evidence for the idea that these associations became weaker or non-existent after the year 2000.","To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.","If public health research does not progress beyond descriptive research to testing the effectiveness of interventions that can provide causal data, its contribution to evidence-based practice will not be realized. This paper examined the number and percentage of public health research publications over three time periods (1987-1988, 1997-1998, 2005-2006) for three preventive health issues: tobacco use, alcohol use, and inadequate physical activity. A computer-based literature search was conducted, using the Medline and PsycINFO databases. A random sample of 1000 abstracts for each preventive health issue was examined per time period. The abstracts were first categorized as public health or not, and then as data-based or non-data-based public health research. Data-based publications were classified according to research type as measurement-, descriptive/epidemiologic-, or intervention-oriented. Data analysis occurred in 2007. The number of data-based public health research publications examined for each topic ranged between 180 and 346 in 1987-1988, 199 and 322 in 1997-1998, and 302 and 364 in 2005-2006. Despite a significant increase over time in the percentage of intervention publications for tobacco (from 10% in 1987-1988 to 18% in 2005-2006, p=0.008), the majority of publications in all three time periods were descriptive/epidemiologic for all topics (62%-87% in 1987-1988, 64%-85% in 1997-1998, 78%-79% in 2005-2006). There were fewer measurement (3%-7% in 1987-1988, 2%-6% in 1997-1998, 4%-10% in 2005-2006) or intervention publications (9%-31% in 1987-1988, 10%-30% in 1997-1998, 12%-18% in 2005-2006).","This study aimed at testing whether drinking volume and episodic heavy drinking (EHD) frequency in Germany are polarizing between consumption levels over time. Polarization is defined as a reduction in alcohol use among the majority of the population, while a subpopulation with a high intake level maintains or increases its drinking or its EHD frequency. The polarization hypothesis was tested across and within socio-economic subgroups. Analyses were based on seven cross-sectional waves of the Epidemiological Survey of Substance Abuse (ESA) conducted between 1995 and 2012 (n = 7833-9084). Overall polarization was estimated based on regression models with time by consumption level interactions; the three-way interaction with socio-economic status (SES) was consecutively introduced to test the stability of effects over socio-economic strata. Interactions were interpreted by graphical inspection. For both alcohol use indicators, declines over time were largest in the highest consumption level. This was found within all SES groups, but was most pronounced at low and least pronounced at medium SES.","Among drinkers, increases in 30-day abstinence and declines in HED suggest that recent alarms about women's drinking may have been overstated. The contrast of lower rates of HED but increased reports of intoxication may indicate that women are more alert to alcohol's effects now than in earlier decades.","The health and social impact of drinking in excess of internationally recognized weekly (>21 units in men;>14 units in women) and daily (>4 units in men;>3 units in women) recommendations for 'sensible' alcohol intake are largely unknown. A prospective cohort study of 1551 men and women aged around 55 years in 1988 when typical alcohol consumption was recalled using a 7-day grid. An average of 3.4 years later (1990/92), study participants were re-surveyed (n = 1259; 84.7% of the target population) when they responded to nurse-administered enquiries regarding minor psychiatric morbidity, self-perceived health, hypertension, accidents, overweight/obesity and financial difficulties. Study members were followed up for mortality experience over 18 years. In fully adjusted analyses, surpassing guidelines for sensible alcohol intake was associated with an increased risk of hypertension [daily guidelines only: P-value(trend): 0.012], financial problems [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.046]and, to a lesser degree, accidents [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.065]. There was no association between either indicator of alcohol intake and mortality risk.","To describe changes in alcohol and drug use between two independent samples of gay-bisexual men aged 25-29. Comparisons between the 1984 San Francisco Men's Health Survey (SFMHS) and the 1992 San Francisco Young Men's Health Survey (SFYMHS). Heaviest levels of alcohol use decreased between the 1984 and 1992 samples as did most types of drug use, with the exception of an increase in the use of MDA.","A striking reduction of alcohol-related problems, such as liver cirrhosis death rates, has been observed in many western countries in recent years. It might be expected that these declines are accompanied by a lagged reduction in per capita alcohol consumption, since many years of intake are required for cirrhosis of the liver to develop (lag theory). The main aim of this study is to verify the validity of the lag theory, taking as target populations those resident in European countries. Changes in liver cirrhosis death rates in 22 European countries between 1970 and 1089 were regressed onto changes in per capita alcohol consumption (1961-89) to evaluate the latency period between trends of these variables. Eastern countries had a latency period between trends in alcohol consumption and in mortality rates of many years, whereas in northern, western and southern Europe cirrhosis mortality rates were explained by their relationship with per capita alcohol consumption, which lagged a few years. In some countries, an immediate contemporary appearance of the two phenomena was observed.","To determine effects of late-middle-aged adults' baseline drinking behavior on their subsequent 10-year depressive symptom trajectories. Health and Retirement Study participants (N = 7,939) were assessed on baseline demographic, health, and drinking characteristics, and biennially assessed for the next 10 years on their depressive symptoms. Growth mixture modeling generated four classes of depressive symptom trajectories: Consistently low (72%), consistently elevated (6%), increasing (12%), and decreasing (10%). Baseline abstinence from alcohol, possibly enforced by poorer health and a history of drinking problems, and heavier drinking, \"binge\" drinking, and having a history of drinking problems, raised risk of membership in the \"consistently elevated\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems-and light, moderate, and heavier drinking-protected against membership in the \"increasing\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems elevated-and moderate drinking reduced-likelihood of membership in the \"decreasing\" class.","The 1990 Health Promotion and Disease Prevention supplement to The National Health Interview Survey was used to develop point-prevalence data about drinking for four age groups, 55-64, 65-74, 75-84, and over 84, and to assess the impact of sociodemographics, health status, and health belief variables on light, moderate, and heavy alcohol consumption. The number of observations in the unweighted sample was 12,819, and the weighted sample contained 51,046,521 observations. The chi 2 and Cohran-Mantel-Haenszel tests were used to investigate prevalence patterns, and odds ratios were generated from logistic regressions. Eighty percent of the sample had had at least 12 drinks during their lifetime, and 46% reported drinking during the survey year. The modal category for the number of days a respondent drank during the survey was 1-4 days, and the modal amount consumed on days that a person drank was 1-3 drinks. Age, gender, race, education, city size, labor force participation, geographic region, health status, having diabetes, and health beliefs about the adverse effects of excessive drinking and being overweight were associated with alcohol consumption, although their effects were different by drinking level.","The goal of this study was to examine how well per capita alcohol consumption figures derived from beverage sales data relate to changes over time in survey-based measures of drinking patterns. It was expected that strong associations would be found among these various measures of consumption. Data from 12 household surveys conducted in Ontario between 1977 and 1997 provided information on: percentages of drinkers; daily drinkers; those drinking five or more drinks at a sitting weekly; those reporting two or more alcohol-related harms; and average number of drinks per week. These variables were then correlated with per capita consumption. Significant correlations were found only between per capita consumption and percentage of daily drinkers, and between percentage of drinkers and average number of drinks per week.","To test whether survey respondents who report alcohol misuse in the past year are more likely to be abstinent or binge-free in the past 30 days if they have used treatment, than if they have not. Analysis of data from the 2002 US National Survey on Drug Use and Health was obtained. A total of 5730 respondents scored positive for alcohol abuse or dependence in the preceding year. Fewer than 10% had used any treatment for alcohol or drugs in this period, but this was associated with a 10% increase in the past-month abstinence and past-month binge-free drinking compared with respondents who did not access treatment. Such an apparent short-term recovery appeared greater in those whose treatment had been received in a formal treatment setting, a doctor's office, or in self-help groups than in the emergency room or in prison.","Women's alcohol consumption in the United States has aroused increased public concern, despite a scarcity of evidence of any major increases in women's drinking. To help resolve this apparent inconsistency, we examined patterns of historical and age-related changes in U.S. women's drinking from 1981 to 2001. In national surveys of women in 1981, 1991, and 2001, we measured the prevalence of 12-month and 30-day drinking, heavy episodic drinking (HED; six or more drinks per day), and subjective intoxication. Using these data, we analyzed time and age trends for six 10-year age groups in each survey, taking into account effects of repeated observations and possible covariates (ethnicity, marital status, and education). Women's 12-month drinking did not change significantly between 1981 and 1991, but it became more prevalent in the total samples between 1991 and 2001. Among 12-month drinkers, however, 30-day abstinence increased from 1981 to 2001 (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30). From 1981 to 2001, HED declined (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30), but intoxication became more prevalent (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-50). Drinking, HED, and intoxication became consistently less prevalent with increasing age.","This paper describes changes in alcohol consumption among Swedish youth over the past decade with the aim of exploring the polarization hypothesis, which asserts that while a majority of young drinkers have reduced their alcohol consumption, a subgroup have increased their drinking substantially, resulting in greater harm. We analysed repeated cross-sectional self-report data from 45,841 15-16-year olds and 40,889 18-19-year-old high-school students living in the Stockholm municipality between 2000 and 2010. The questionnaire assessed alcohol and drug use, and risk factors for alcohol misuse. Changes over time at different levels of consumption are presented by age and gender. We find evidence of a polarization effect in youth drinking, with consumption reducing significantly over the past 10 years among all young people, except the heaviest drinkers, where consumption and binge drinking tended to increase. The dispersion in per capita consumption also increased over time, indicating more heavy drinkers. The total number of risk factors for alcohol misuse decreased among most survey participants from 2000 to 2010, but with variability between years.","To estimate the national trend in per capita consumption (PCC) of alcohol for Australians aged 15 years and older for the financial years 1990-91 to 2008-09. With the use of data obtained from Australian Bureau of Statistics' catalogues and World Advertising Research Centre reports, three alternative series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol for the past 20 years (1990-91 to 2008-09) were estimated based on different assumptions about the alcohol content of wine. For the \"old\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have been stable over time. For the \"new\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have increased once in 2004-05 and then to have remained stable to 2008-09. For the \"adjusted\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have gradually increased over time, beginning in 1998-99. Linear trend analysis was applied to identify significant trends. National trend in annual PCC of alcohol 1990-91 to 2008-09. The new and adjusted series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol showed increasing trends; the old series was stable.","yes. Important declines in heavy alcohol use and overall drug use occurred among young gay men between 1984 and 1992. However, levels of substance use still remain high and may constitute a continued threat to the health of gay-bisexual men.","To estimate the relationship between per capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking in Sweden during the last 40 years and to estimate the relationship between female and male youth drinking during the 40-year study period. Per capita alcohol consumption was proxied by official sales data, supplemented by data on unrecorded consumption. Youth consumption was measured by a question on heavy episodic drinking (HED) included in an annual school survey of alcohol and drug habits among Swedish 9th -grade students (15-16 years of age). The annual samples comprise approximately 5000 individuals (with roughly equal numbers of boys and girls) with response rates in the range 80-93%. The study spans the period 1972-2012. Autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) time-series analysis was used to estimate the relation between per-capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking. Ocular inspection of the time-series data suggested a stronger synchronization between the two series in the early period, before the mid-1990s, than in the later period, indicating a structural shift in the relation at issue. We therefore conducted period specific time-series analyses with 1995 as the year of division. There was a statistically significant relation between per capita alcohol consumption and HED among youth for 1972-94. A 1% increase in per capita alcohol consumption was associated with an increase in HED of 1.52% (P = 0.008). The estimate for 1995-2012 (0.12) was well below statistical significance (P = 0.580). The estimated elasticity of the association between boys' and girls' HED during 1972-94 was close to unity (0.98, P < 0.001), suggesting proportional changes in boys' and girls' drinking. When controlling for per capita consumption, the association was halved (to 0.55) but still significant in table 3 (P = 0.045).","The vast majority of individuals with alcohol problems in the United States and elsewhere do not seek help. One policy response has been to encourage institutions such as criminal justice and social welfare systems to mandate treatment for individuals with alcohol problems (Addiction, 1997;92:1133). However, informal pressures to drink less from family and friends are far more common than institutional pressures mandating treatment (Addiction, 1996;91:643). The prevalence and correlates of these informal pressures have been minimally studied. This analysis used data from 5 Alcohol Research Group National Alcohol Surveys (NAS) collected at approximately 5-year intervals over a 21-year period (1984 to 2005, pooled N = 16,241) to describe the patterns of pressure that drinkers received during the past year from spouse, family, friends, physicians, police, and the workplace. The overall trend of pressure combining all 6 sources across all 5 NAS data sets indicated a decline. Frequent heavy drinking and alcohol-related harms also declined, and both were strong predictors of receiving pressure. Trends among different sources varied. In multivariate regression models, pressure from friends showed an increase. Pressure from spouse and family showed a relatively flat trajectory, with the exception of a spike in pressure from family in 1990.","To estimate age-period-cohort models predicting alcohol volume, heavy drinking and beverage-specific alcohol volume in order to evaluate whether the 1976-1985 birth cohorts drink relatively heavily. Data from seven cross-sectional surveys of the USA conducted between 1979 and 2010 were utilized in negative binomial generalized linear models of age, period and cohort effects predicting alcohol measures. General population surveys of the USA. Thirty-six thousand four hundred and thirty-two US adults (aged 18 years or older). Monthly number of alcohol drinks, beer, wine and spirits drinks, and days drinking five or more drinks in the past year derived from beverage-specific graduated frequency questions. Relative to the reference 1956-60 birth cohort, men in the 1976-1980 cohort for were found to consume more alcohol [incidence rate ratio (IRR) = 1.222: confidence interval (CI) 1.07-1.39) and to have more 5+ days (the number of days having five or more drinks) (IRR = 1.365: CI 1.09-1.71) as were men in the 1980-85 cohort for volume (IRR = 1.284: CI 1.10-1.50) and 5+ days (IRR = 1.437: CI 1.09-1.89). For women, those in the 1980-85 cohort were found to have higher alcohol volume (IRR = 1.299: CI 1.07-1.58) and more 5+ days (IRR = 1.547: CI 1.01-2.36). Beverage-specific models found different age patterns of volume by beverage with a flat age pattern for both genders' spirits and women's wine, an increasing age pattern for men's wine and a declining age pattern from those in their early 20s for beer.","Skog's collectivity theory of alcohol consumption predicted that changes in alcohol consumption would synchronize across all types of drinkers in a population. The aim of this paper is examine this theory in the Australian context. We examined whether there was a collective change in alcohol use in Australia from 2001 to 2013, estimated alcohol consumption in non-high risk and high risk drinkers, and examined the trends in alcohol treatment episodes. Data from the 2001-2013 National Drug Strategy Household Surveys (N = 127,916) was used to estimate the prevalence and alcohol consumption of abstainers, high risk drinkers and frequent heavy episodic drinkers. Closed treatment episodes recorded in the Alcohol and Other Drug Treatment Services National Minimum Dataset (N = 608,367) from 2001 to 2013 were used to examine the trends of closed alcohol treatment episodes. The prevalence of non-drinkers (abstainers) decreased to the lowest level in 2004 (15.3 %) and rebounded steadily thereafter (20.4 % in 2013; p < .001). Correspondingly, the per capita consumption of high risk drinkers (2 standard drinks or more on average per day) increased from 20.7 L in 2001 to peak in 2010 (21.5 L; p = .020). Non-high risk drinkers' consumption peaked in 2004 (2.9 L) and decreased to 2.8 L in 2013 (p < .05). There were decreases in alcohol treatment episodes across nearly all birth cohorts in recent years.","To examine trends in adult alcohol consumption by age, gender and education from 1982 to 2008 and evaluate the effects that a significant reduction in alcohol prices in 2004 had on alcohol consumption in different population subgroups. The study population comprised respondents aged 25-64 (n = 79,100) replying to nationally representative annual postal surveys from 1982 to 2008 (average response rate 72%). The main measurements were the prevalence of respondents who had drunk at least eight (men) or five (women) drinks in the previous week ('moderate to heavy drinkers') and prevalence of those who weekly (men) or monthly (women) drank six or more drinks on a single occasion ('heavy episodic drinkers') (one 'drink' containing 11-13 g ethanol). Logistic models were used to test differences across population subgroups in the changes in drinking. Following the reduction of alcohol prices in 2004, drinking increased among men and women aged 45-64. Among men, both moderate to heavy drinking and heavy episodic drinking increased in the lowest educational group. Among women, moderate to heavy drinking increased mostly in the lowest and intermediate educational groups, while the highest increases for heavy episodic drinking were in the intermediate and highest female educational groups.","Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting.","These findings are partially consistent with and support Skog's collectivity theory. There has been a turnaround in alcohol consumption after a decade-long uptrend, as evident in the collective decreases in alcohol consumption among nearly all types of drinkers. There was also a turnaround in rate of treatment seeking, which peaked at 2007 and then decreased steadily. The timing of this turnaround differs with level of drinking, with non-high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2004 and high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2010.","Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns."],"string":"[\n \"Increasing the price of alcohol is consistently shown to reduce the average level of consumption. However, the evidence for the effect of increasing the price on high-intensity drinking is both limited and equivocal. The aim of this analysis is to estimate the effect of changes in price on patterns of consumption. Self-reported patterns of alcohol consumption and demographic data were obtained from the Australian National Drug Strategy Household Surveys, conducted in 2001, 2004 and 2007. A pooled three-stage least-squares estimator was used to simultaneously model the impact of the price on the frequency (measured in days) of consuming no, low, moderate and high quantities of alcohol. A 1% increase in the price of alcohol was associated with a statistically significant increase of 6.41 days per year on which no alcohol is consumed (P ≤ 0.049), and a statistically significant decrease of 7.30 days on which 1-4 standard drinks are consumed (P ≤ 0.021). There was no statistically significant change for high or moderate-intensity drinking.\",\n \"yes. The results show that the previous positive trends in Danish dietary habits, during the period 1995-2001, have come to a standstill. There is therefore a need for a new and more effective effort to encourage positive changes in food consumption patterns.\",\n \"We observed a yearly trend of decrease in efficacy.\",\n \"The purpose of this three-wave longitudinal study was twofold. First, prevalence data on alcohol characteristics (e.g., drinks per day, heavy episodic drinking [HED]) were provided for a community sample of middle-aged adults. Aggregate (or group) and individual levels of stability of these characteristics across a 10-year interval were a major focus. Second, an actor-partner interdependence model (APIM) was used to test husbands' and wives' mutual influences on each other's alcohol use. Prospective data were collected from the middle-aged parents of a cohort study that originally targeted adolescents. Three measurement occasions occurred at baseline, 5 years later, and an additional 5 years later. Data from 597 men and 847 women were used to derive prevalence data on alcohol use, and 489 intact marital dyads were used to test spouses' interdependence on alcohol use and HED in the APIMs. The majority of men and women reported alcohol use at each measurement occasion, and the average number of drinks per day was highly similar across time, as was the percentage reporting HED. There was substantial stability at the individual level in the amount of alcohol consumed and HED between waves of measurement. Marital partners had significant but modest effects on each other's alcohol use. Wives had a somewhat greater influence on their husbands' drinking than vice versa.\",\n \"We investigated if increased drinking frequency among adults in the second half of life co-occurred with increased usual quantity and increased intoxication frequency. Two-wave panel study. Norway. Norwegian adults (1017 women and 959 men) aged 40-79 years. Drinking frequency, usual quantity and intoxication frequency was measured by self-report in 2002/03 and again in 2007/08. Information about gender, age and level of education was obtained from the public register. Health was collected by self-report. Because of a significant gender × change in drinking frequency interaction effect on change in intoxication frequency (b = 0.02, P = 0.013), women and men were analysed separately. After adjusting for covariates, women who increase their drinking frequency showed a non-significant decrease in usual quantity [low initial usual quantity (LIUQ): β = -0.01, P = 0.879; high initial usual quantity (HIUQ): β = -0.06, P = 0.164]and a non-significant increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.04, P = 0.569; HIUQ: β = 0.09, P = 0.251). Men who increased their drinking frequency showed a small decrease in usual quantity (LIUQ: β = -0.06, P = 0.049; HIUQ: β = -0.05, P = 0.002) and a small increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.05, P = 0.035; HIUQ: β = 0.13, P = 0.004).\",\n \"Trends in tobacco use reflect an underutilization of preventive measures in general, and health education measures in particular. Financial resources appropriated for health education and information were reduced by 90% during the 1980s.\",\n \"To determine whether low to moderate alcohol intake is protective against cognitive decline in older people. Prospective cohort study. Community-based study in Ireland, the Netherlands, and Scotland. Five thousand eight hundred four people (3,000 women) aged 70 to 82 and randomized to pravastatin or placebo in the Prospective Study of Pravastatin in the Elderly at Risk. Alcohol consumption was determined at study baseline. Serial measures of cognitive function over 3.2 years mean follow-up included Mini-Mental-State-Examination (MMSE), speed of information processing (Stroop and Letter-Digit Coding tests), and immediate and delayed memory (Picture-Word Learning test). Forty-two percent of women and 71% of men were alcohol drinkers. Cognitive performance was better for female drinkers than nondrinkers for all cognitive domains over the 3.2-year follow-up; no significant effects were seen for men (linear mixed model, including adjusting for possible confounders). The rate of cognitive decline was similar for drinkers and nondrinkers for all cognitive domains, except for MMSE, which declined significantly less in female drinkers than nondrinkers (linear mixed model attenuated rate of decline=0.05 MMSE units per annum, P=.001).\",\n \"Although it seems intuitive that alcohol use disorders (AUDs) include excessive alcohol consumption (EAC), this notion is not well established. This study investigates to which degree EAC (defined as >14/21 drinks weekly for women/men and at least three 5+ drinking days per week) and AUD overlap and whether problematic alcohol use groups (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) differ from each other and from nonproblematic alcohol users regarding sociodemographics, mental health problems, functioning, and service utilization. Data were derived from the Netherlands Mental Health Survey and Incidence Study-2, a population-based study including 5,443 current drinkers (aged 18 to 64) interviewed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview 3.0. Both DSM-IV AUDs and a proxy of DSM-5 AUD are considered. Of the current drinkers, 3.8% reported 12-month EAC. Twelve-month prevalence of DSM-IV and DSM-5 AUD were 5.4 and 4.4%, respectively. Regarding DSM-IV, only 17.7% of subjects with AUD reported EAC and 25.3% of those with EAC had an AUD. Compared with nonproblematic alcohol users, the 3 groups of problematic alcohol use (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) were more often associated with mental health problems, poorer functioning, and service utilization. There were few differences between EAC-only and AUD-only regarding these correlates. However, EAC + AUD had strongest associations with above-mentioned correlates compared with the other 3 groups. Compared with DSM-IV findings, DSM-5 AUDs had slightly larger overlap with EAC, but correlates were similarly associated with problematic alcohol use groups.\",\n \"It has been argued that as smoking prevalence declines in countries, the smokers that remain include higher proportions of those who are unwilling or unable to quit (a process known as 'hardening'). Smokeless tobacco and e-cigarettes have been promoted as a strategy to deal with such smokers. If hardening is occurring, there would be a positive association between smoking prevalence and quitting, with less quitting at lower prevalence. There would also be a neutral or negative association between prevalence and the number of cigarettes smoked. We examined US state-level associations using the Tobacco Use Supplement (1992/1993-2010/2011) and Eurobarometer surveys for 31 European countries (2006-2009-2012) using regressions of quit attempts, quit ratios, and number of cigarettes smoked on smoking prevalence over time. For each 1% drop in smoking prevalence, quit attempts increase by 0.55%±.07 (p<0.001) in the USA and remain stable in Europe (p=0.53), US quit ratios increase by 1.13%±0.06 (p<0.001), and consumption drops by 0.32 cig/day±0.02 (p<0.001) in the USA and 0.22 cig/day±0.05 (p<0.001) in Europe. These associations remain stable over time (p>0.24), with significantly lower consumption at any given prevalence level as time passed in the USA (-0.15 (cig/day)/year±0.06, p<0.05).\",\n \"Alcohol consumption is influenced by genetic factors. Previous studies have examined the heritability of alcohol consumption, or related phenotypes, from adolescence into adulthood, frequently finding that total heritability changes over time. However, it remains unclear whether the same genes underlie liability to alcohol consumption across development versus whether novel risk genes become important over time. Method A population-based study of adult male twins (n=1790) born in Virginia, USA, retrospectively reported on their average monthly alcohol consumption from early adolescence through adulthood. We used twin modeling methods to explore genetic and environmental influences on alcohol consumption over time. One latent genetic factor accounted for the majority of the heritability in alcohol consumption during mid- to late adolescence, but its influence declined thereafter; from young adulthood forward, heritability was largely attributable to a second genetic factor. The total heritability of alcohol consumption increased from 0 at ages 12-14 years to 0.40 by ages 18-21 years. Shared environmental factors declined in influence over time.\",\n \"The 10-year pattern of emergency department presentations for alcohol-related injuries increased significantly in the Mount Isa region compared with the control region. Further research should investigate the impacts of population flow related to Indigenous community alcohol management plans.\",\n \"Socioeconomic differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, as based on register data, are larger than socioeconomic differences in various types of harmful drinking, as based on survey data. The aim was to use a follow-up study to examine whether differential drinking patterns between socioeconomic groups explain the observed differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, or whether similar drinking patterns predict higher mortality among lower socioeconomic groups. The study population included Finns who participated in cross-sectional surveys on drinking habits in 1969, 1976 or 1984 when aged 25-69 (n = 6406). They were followed up for alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations (n = 180) for 16 years. Drinking patterns were measured by total consumption, frequency of subjective intoxication and of drinking different amounts of alcohol at a time, and by volume of consumption that was drunk in heavy drinking occasions and non-heavy drinking occasions. Compared with non-manual workers, manual workers had a 2.06-fold hazard of alcohol-related death or hospitalisation. Adjustment for drinking patterns explained only a small fraction of the excess hazard among manual workers. Additionally, in each category of total consumption and in each level of the volume drunk in heavy drinking occasions, the risk of alcohol-related death and hospitalisation was higher for manual than for non-manual workers.\",\n \"To quantify the association between including specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes and the prevalence of use. Quasi-experimental. One thousand one hundred forty-one nursing homes in four U.S. states. Residents living in one of the included nursing homes in operation during 1997 (before Beers; n=130,250) and 2000 (after Beers; n=164,889). Inclusion of specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes. Logistic regression models adjusting for clustering effects of residents residing in homes provided estimates of the relationship between the survey process and use of any medications targeted as potentially inappropriate as part of the survey process, as well as those deemed inappropriate but not included. The use of any potentially inappropriate medication decreased from 42.5% in 1997 to 39.8% in 2000. After adjustment for resident characteristics, residents were less likely to receive any potentially inappropriate medication (odds ratio (OR)=0.85, 95% confidence interval (95% CI)=0.84-0.87), those considered high-severity drugs (those with a high likelihood of a clinically significant adverse event) (OR=0.67, 95% CI=0.65-0.69), or Beers' medications not included in the surveyors' guidelines (OR=0.76, 95% CI=0.74-0.79) in 2000 than in 1997 after the changes to the drug regulations and interpretive guidelines.\",\n \"In all, 5054 suicide cases (76% males, 24% females) were examined with respect to the official autopsy reports of the Estonian Bureau of Forensic Medicine (autopsy rates: 95% of males, 88% of females) before (1981-84), during (1986-88) and after (1989-92) the campaign. Cases were divided by gender and BAC level (0.5-1.49, 1.5-2.49 and>2.5 per thousand). During the campaign, annual per capita alcohol consumption in Estonia fell from 10.9 to 6.6 l. Alcohol in blood was found in 47.9% before, 35.1% during and 40.9% after the campaign. During the intervention, BAC-positive, i.e. alcohol-positive, suicides decreased by 39.2% for males and 41.4% for females, with the largest fall occurring at the BAC 2.5 per thousand + level for both sexes. Changes in BAC-negative suicides were modest. When the campaign ended suicide rates started to rise.\",\n \"A majority of individuals that meet criteria for alcohol abuse based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV), do so by endorsing the hazardous use criterion. We used a large, nationally representative data set to investigate whether alcohol abuse due to hazardous use is distinct from abuse attributable to other abuse criteria and whether abuse due to hazardous use is a less severe form of alcohol abuse. Two waves of data, collected 3 years apart, from 34,653 individuals who participated in the National Epidemiological Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions were used. Logistic regression was used to compare those with alcohol abuse due to hazardous use and those with alcohol abuse due to other criteria across several sociodemographic and psychiatric correlates at Wave 1 and across alcohol-related outcomes at the 3-year follow-up. Those with a lifetime history of alcohol dependence at Wave 1 were excluded. Abuse due to hazardous use was more commonly noted in older individuals, those not living below the poverty line, and those without nicotine dependence and was more likely to be noted in White participants. Abuse due to hazardous use was also associated with lower rates of problematic drinking, alcohol dependence, and help seeking at 3-year follow-up.\",\n \"yes. Alcoholic beverage consumption in later life is strongly related to early patterns. Heavy consumption is associated with smoking and lower levels of education.\",\n \"Population-based estimates for the prevalence of smokers receiving advice from a health professional to quit smoking and the prevalence of binge drinkers being talked to about alcohol use are lacking for U.S. adults. This information is useful for clinicians and public health professionals. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of U.S. adults. In 1997, 10 states collected data on these health interventions for tobacco and alcohol use. The prevalence of professional advice to quit smoking and about alcohol use was calculated and examined by demographic characteristics. The number of at-risk adults who had a routine checkup in the last year and had not received these interventions was also estimated. By self-report, 70% of smokers were advised to quit, and 23% of binge drinkers were talked to about their alcohol use. Using multivariate logistic regression analyses, we found among smokers that women and older persons were more likely to receive advice; among binge drinkers, health intervention was more likely to occur for men and non-Hispanic blacks. Across the 10 states, approximately 2 million smokers and 2 million binge drinkers with a routine checkup in the past 12 months were not advised to quit smoking or talked to about their alcohol use.\",\n \"This study examines the sex-specific association between alcohol intake and health-related quality of life in middle class community-dwelling older adults. Information on alcohol intake and measures of quality of life were obtained from 1594 participants (n=633 men, n=961 women) aged 50-97 years during a research clinic visit in 1992-1996, and from their responses to a phone interview and mailed questionnaires. Quality of life measures included the Medical Outcome Study Short Form 36 (SF-36), Quality of Well-Being (QWB) Scale, Life Satisfaction Index-Z (LSI-Z), and Satisfaction with Life Survey (SWLS). Depressed mood was assessed using the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI). Men and women were stratified into four groups of reported alcohol intake: non-drinker, occasional drinker (alcohol <3 times/week), light regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week, but <170g/week), and moderate regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week and >/=170g/week). Average age of both sexes was 72+/-10 years. Only 11% of the men and 17% of the women were non-drinkers; 54% of men and 40% of women reported drinking alcohol >/=3 times per week; 18% of men and 7.5% of women were heavier regular drinkers. In multivariable regression analyses, increasing frequency of alcohol use was positively associated with better quality of life in men and in women. Associations were not explained by age, physical activity, smoking, depressed mood, or common chronic diseases including diabetes, hypertension and cardiovascular disease.\",\n \"yes. Public health professionals should note that past-year drinking in a significant proportion of women of childbearing age exceeds guidelines for alcohol use. When targeting such prevention efforts, they should thus include assessment of past-year alcohol use patterns.\",\n \"yes. Over a third of 12 year-olds had ever drunk an alcoholic beverage in their lifetime suggesting that the prevention of alcohol use and disorders must begin in late childhood. Initiatives to foment parental monitoring and to prevent, identify, and treat alcohol use problems in non-school attending youth in particular should be a priority for the wellbeing of Mexico City adolescents.\",\n \"This study examined support for models of peer influence, which postulates that young adolescents whose friends use alcohol will also engage in that behavior, and of peer selection, whereby young adolescents seek out friends whose drinking behavior is similar to their own. Data for this study are from 1804 adolescents participating in Project Northland, a school- and community-based alcohol use prevention trial. Using latent variable structural equation modeling, a series of models examined directions of influence between participant alcohol use and friend drug use over three points in Grades 7, 8, and 9. Findings indicated that higher levels of friends' drug use led to increased participant alcohol use. The reverse-order relationship (i.e., greater participant involvement in alcohol leading to more drug use among friends) was not supported by these data. Finally, best-fitting models supported the notion that both participants' alcohol use and the alcohol and other drug use of friends were highly stable over time.\",\n \"This study provides support for the utility of the public health perspective on alcohol in explaining changes in consumption and alcohol-related harm in a historical context. We discuss our findings from tsarist Russia in the light of experiences from more recent alcohol policy changes in Russia.\",\n \"The present study examined familial risk and protective factors as moderators of parents allowing their adolescent children to drink at home on longitudinal alcohol involvement trajectories. A total of 772 community adolescents and their parents provided data beginning in 1989 and at four subsequent time points over 15 years; Black adolescents were intentionally oversampled (50% at baseline). Outcomes related to allowing adolescents to drink at home depended on family structure: Adolescents from intact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the lowest levels of alcohol use and problems over time, whereas those from nonintact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the highest levels of involvement. These results controlled for family history of alcohol problems, consistent parenting styles, and demographic characteristics.\",\n \"Among job-seekers with high levels of alcohol consumption, an intervention tailored to motivational 'stage of change' was more effective than a non-stage tailored intervention for reducing alcohol use 15 months after baseline assessment in participants with low initial motivation to change.\",\n \"yes. A 5-year prospective evaluation of attributes associated with suicide attempts among alcohol-dependent persons identified factors that contributed to a small but significant proportion of the variance for future suicidal behavior.\",\n \"Data support a critical developmental period for positive alcohol expectancies, with the greatest change observed between third and fourth grade and between fourth and fifth grade, and only in those expectancies clearly describing positive outcomes (e.g., Relaxation/Tension Reduction) via positive or negative reinforcement versus those with either combined or ambiguous outcomes (e.g., Social Behavior Enhancement or Impediment).\",\n \"In this study, we have observed a general acceptance that alcohol could provide positive reinforcement, especially among those who have had a prior experience of intake of alcohol. Thus, this study throws light on whether there is likelihood of youngsters falling into addiction in the later part of their life; hence it can act as a useful predictor for parents, health professionals, social counselors and the society as a whole so that they can take preventive measures against alcohol addiction.\",\n \"yes. Subjective perceptions in young adult social drinkers depend on the slope of the BrAC when examined in association with RDH. These results support the differentiator model hypothesis concerning the ascending slope and suggest that moderate alcohol consumers could be at risk for increased alcohol consumption because they feel more intoxicated and high on the ascending slope. Subjects did not feel less sedated on the descending slope, contrary to the differentiator model but replicating several previous studies.\",\n \"This study provides evidence that screening and very brief (5- to 10-minute) advice and counseling delivered by a physician or nurse practitioner as part of routine primary care significantly reduces alcohol consumption by high-risk drinkers.\",\n \"This study used a person-centered approach to test whether drinking motive typologies could be identified. Longitudinal study of college students within the intensive multivariate prospective alcohol college-transitions (IMPACTS) data set. University campus in the United States. University students (baseline n reporting alcohol motives = 2158; baseline age = 18.60 years old). The drinking motives questionnaire-revised (DMQ-R). Using Steinley&Brusco's cluster analysis approach [based on the theoretical ratio expected between the within sum of squares and the total sum of squares when the data are divided into two clusters when no cluster structure is present; the cut-off for the ratio is 0.25 for uniform (multivariate uniform) distributions and 0.36 for normal (multivariate normal) distributions], we examined whether there was evidence for distinct clusters of individuals that differed on their overall level of motives to drink. We tested the fit of a one-group (cluster) solution compared to multi-cluster solutions. Both cross-sectionally and prospectively, the data could not be partitioned into two or more clusters [regardless of whether the cut-off assuming a multivariate uniform distribution (i.e. 0.25) or the more liberal multivariate normal distribution (i.e., 0.36) was used]. These findings showed that enhancement and coping drinkers do not form two distinct groups but, rather, these motives exist on a continuum such that individuals who are high in one internal motive tend to be high in the other motive.\",\n \"Negative outcomes of alcoholism are progressively more severe as the duration of problem of alcohol use increases. Additionally, alcoholics demonstrate tendencies to neglect negative consequences associated with drinking and/or to choose to drink in the immediate presence of warning factors against drinking. The recently derived crossed high-alcohol-preferring (cHAP) mice, which volitionally drink to heavier intoxication (as assessed by blood ethanol [EtOH] concentration) than other alcohol-preferring populations, as well as spontaneously escalating their intake, may be a candidate to explore mechanisms underlying long-term excessive drinking. Here, we hypothesized that an extended drinking history would reduce the ability of 2 manipulations (forced abstinence [FA] and conditioned taste aversion [CTA]) to attenuate drinking. Experiment 1 examined differences between groups drinking for either 14 or 35 days, half of each subjected to 7 days of FA and half not, to characterize the potential changes in postabstinence drinking resulting from an extended drinking history. Experiment 2 used a CTA procedure to assess stimulus specificity of the ability of an aversive flavorant to decrease alcohol consumption. Experiment 3 used this taste aversion procedure to assess differences among groups drinking for 1, 14, or 35 days in their propensity to overcome this aversion when the flavorant was mixed with either EtOH or water. Experiment 1 demonstrated that although FA decreased alcohol consumption in mice with a 14-day drinking history, it failed to do so in mice drinking alcohol for 35 days. Experiment 2 showed that the addition of a flavorant only suppressed alcohol drinking if an aversion to the flavorant was previously established. Experiment 3 demonstrated that an extended drinking history expedited extinction of suppressed alcohol intake caused by a conditioned aversive flavor.\",\n \"To review the findings of a paper that has often been cited as evidence-with potentially adverse public health consequences-that the demand for alcohol in Indigenous Australian communities is not responsive to price and that, in the face of increasing alcohol prices, expenditure is diverted from basic sustenance to the purchase of alcohol. The raw data on income and various items of expenditure from the original study were entered in a database, a trend variable was created, and trends in measures of interest were tested using appropriate cross-correlations. Re-analysis of the data did not support the findings of the original study.\",\n \"This study assessed which demographic groups were most likely to consume alcohol excessively, and which groups had received inquiries and discussion about alcohol use from their physicians compared with discussions about other health risks. This was a cross-sectional study using data from the Centers for Disease Control Behavioral Risk Factors Surveillance System 1997 data set that represents a stratified random sample in the United States. We selected 23,349 adults who reported a routine physical examination within the last 3 years. The main variables involved responses to questions about alcohol intake and whether the respondent's physician had initiated discussions about drinking. Physicians spoke to patients about alcohol use much less frequently than about other health-related behaviors. Discussions were roughly targeted to groups with the largest intake. However, physicians were least likely to speak with white patients, women, and widows who drank significantly.\",\n \"In a community sample, the rate of past year DSM-IV alcohol dependence was lower among male 2t-AUDPs than females, though both groups showed past year rates substantially lower than lifetime rates. However, less than half of ECA 2t-AUDPs exhibited low-risk or abstinent alcohol use behaviors, indicating that while remission from diagnosis is common, clinical relevance persists.\",\n \"Many studies have found that earlier drinking initiation predicts higher risk of later alcohol and substance use problems, but the causal relationship between age of initiation and later risk of substance use disorder remains unknown. We use a \\\"natural experiment\\\" study design to compare the 12-month prevalence of Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, Fourth Edition, alcohol and substance use disorders among adult subjects exposed to different minimum legal drinking age laws minimum legal drinking age in the 1970s and 1980s. The sample pools 33,869 respondents born in the United States 1948 to 1970, drawn from 2 nationally representative cross-sectional surveys: the 1991 National Longitudinal Alcohol Epidemiological Survey (NLAES) and the 2001 National Epidemiological Study of Alcohol and Related Conditions. Analyses control for state and birth year fixed effects, age at assessment, alcohol taxes, and other demographic and social background factors. Adults who had been legally allowed to purchase alcohol before age 21 were more likely to meet criteria for an alcohol use disorder [odds ratio (OR) 1.31, 95% confidence intervals (95% CI) 1.15 to 1.46, p < 0.0001] or another drug use disorder (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.19 to 2.44, p = 0.003) within the past-year, even among subjects in their 40s and 50s. There were no significant differences in effect estimates by respondent gender, black or Hispanic ethnicity, age, birth cohort, or self-reported age of initiation of regular drinking; furthermore, the effect estimates were little changed by inclusion of age of initiation as a potential mediating variable in the multiple regression models.\",\n \"In contrast to proposals that physical activity (PA) can be a substitute for alcohol use, people who engage in greater overall PA generally consume more alcohol on average than less-active peers. Acknowledging that both PA and alcohol use vary considerably from day-to-day, this study evaluated whether established associations reflect daily behavioral coupling within-person, are an artifact of procedures that aggregate behavior over time, or both. A life span sample of 150 adults (aged 19-89 years) completed three 21-day measurement bursts of a daily diary study. At the end of each day, they reported on their PA and alcohol consumption. Data were analyzed in a negative binomial multilevel regression. As expected, both behaviors exhibited limited between-person variation. After controlling for age, gender, and seasonal and social calendar influences, daily deviations in PA were significantly associated with daily total alcohol use. Once the within-person process linking PA and alcohol use was controlled, usual PA and total alcohol use were not associated.\",\n \"Future studies may benefit from investigating the factors suspected to be driving the weak relationships between these measures, including the actual time over which the reported alcohol was consumed and pattern of drinking over the consumption period.\",\n \"Investigation on an individual level showed that alcohol consumption was a common precursor to suicide and that rigorous alcohol restrictions were accompanied particularly by a decrease in BAC-positive suicide mortality among both sexes. However, the 'natural experiment' does not, in terms of study design, demonstrate convincingly that the fall in the suicide rate was due specifically to the decrease in alcohol use as such.\",\n \"Among those who drank alcohol, there was no evidence that any pattern of current alcohol consumption was associated with poor self-rated health, even after adjustment for a wide range of variables. The results associated with the stopped drinking profile indicate improvement in self-rated health can be associated with changes in drinking behaviour. Although several limitations of the study are noted, policy makers may wish to consider how these findings should be translated into drinking guidelines for older adults.\",\n \"Polarized drinking habits are a likely explanation for the recent divergence between per capita alcohol consumption, which has decreased, and alcohol-related hospitalizations, which have increased sharply among Swedish youth in recent years. We suggest that ongoing social changes could be affecting young people in the form of greater disparities, which are associated with a higher incidence of social problems generally, including heavy drinking.\",\n \"To explore the utility of using national data from high school students to explain changes in national declines in pregnancy rates. Although declines in teen pregnancy and birthrates in the 1990s have been welcome news to those interested in adolescent health and welfare, the reasons for these declines are not readily apparent. Previous attempts to explain these declines focused on the period before 1995 and did not directly calculate the impact of improved contraceptive use. The national Youth Risk Behavior Survey provided estimates for sexual activity and contraceptive use among teens aged 15-17 years between 1991 and 2001 (n = 31,058). These data were combined with method-specific contraceptive failure rates (CFRs) derived from the 1988 and 1995 National Survey of Family Growth and pregnancy rates from the National Vital Statistics System. We calculated weighted-average CFRs (WACFR) and used the annual rate of change in the WACFR and sexual activity to estimate their relative contributions to the annual change in risk of pregnancy. Weighted least-squares regression in SUDAAN was used to test change over time. Between 1991 and 2001, annual rates of change in sexual behaviors were -1.7% for sexual experience and -1.6% for the WACFR. Improvements in WACFR resulted primarily from a decline in use of withdrawal (from 20% to 13%) and use of no method (from 17% to 13%) and an increase in condom use (40% to 51%). Recent sexual intercourse (i.e., intercourse during the past 3 months among teens who had ever had intercourse) did not change over time. The change in the estimated risk of pregnancy closely approximated the annual decline in the pregnancy rates for blacks and Hispanics but underestimated the actual decline for whites. Overall, 53% of the decline in pregnancy rates can be attributed to decreased sexual experience (95%CI 26% to 79%) and 47% to improved contraceptive use (95%CI 21% to 74%).\",\n \"To determine the nature of the association between alcohol consumption and symptoms of anxiety and depression in women. Prospective cohort study of women (n = 4527) who received antenatal care at a major public hospital (Mater Misericordiae Hospital) in South Brisbane between 1981 and 1984 and who have follow-up data on alcohol use, depressive and anxiety symptoms over a 14-year period. At the 5-year follow-up there was a 'J-shaped' association between alcohol consumption and both symptoms of depression and of anxiety. However, at the baseline assessment and the 14-year follow-up alcohol consumption was linearly and positively associated with depressive symptoms with increasing prevalence of symptoms with greater consumption. At the 5-year follow-up the prevalence of depressive and anxiety symptoms among those who were abstainers at both baseline and 5-year follow-up was similar to that among those who had been previous drinkers and then become abstainers (P = 0.67). Similarly, the prevalence of these symptoms was the same at the 14-year follow-up comparing those who had been abstainers at baseline, 5-year and 14-year follow-up to those who had previously consumed alcohol but were then abstainers.\",\n \"To examine cross-national changes in frequent adolescent cannabis use (40+ times consumed over life-time at age 15) over time and relate these trends to societal wealth, family affluence and gender. Data from three cycles (2002, 2006, 2010) of the Health Behaviour in School-aged Children (HBSC) Study were used for cross-sectional and trend analyses of adolescent cannabis use. Representative surveys in 30 European and North American countries. A total of 160 606 15-year-old students. Respondents' life-time cannabis use, demographics, family affluence (FAS) and frequency of peer contacts were measured individually. Indicators of wealth (gross domestic product per capita, GDP) and perceived availability of cannabis were obtained from national public data bases. The frequency of life-time cannabis use decreased over time among adolescents in Europe and North America, particularly in western European countries and the United States (relative risk (RR) = 0.86: confidence interval (CI) 0.79-0.93). This trend was not observed consistently in rapidly developing countries in eastern, central and southern Europe. Over time (2002-10), cannabis use became: (i) less characteristic of high GDP countries in contrast to lower GDP countries (RR = 0.74: CI 0.57-0.95); (ii) less characteristic of youth from high FAS families in contrast to youth from low FAS families (RR = 0.83: CI 0.72-0.96); and (iii) characterized by an increasing gender gap, i.e. consumption was higher among males (RR 1.26: CI 1.04-1.53). Perceived availability of cannabis and peer contacts remained strong predictors of frequent cannabis use.\",\n \"To determine if allowing wine sales in corner grocery stores, beginning in 1978 for domestic Quebec wines and then in 1983 for imported wines, in addition to sales in government monopoly stores, led to an increase in alcohol consumption. Aggregate retail sales data for the period 1953 to 1990 were analyzed using econometric regression techniques. Time series (unit root) analysis and structural modeling were used to take into account the effect of price, income and other social, economic and demographic factors in order to determine the effect of factors underlying consumption behavior in both the long and short term. In the post-intervention period, wine consumption continued along the rising trend established in the pre-intervention period, with an apparent shift in favor of domestic wine consumption. The increase in wine consumption was highest in the period immediately following privatization, but the increase eventually dampened down within a few years. There was no fundamental change in the responsiveness of wine consumption to price.\",\n \"To compare recent trends in smoking initiation by adolescents with trends in inflation-adjusted cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures. We examined smoking initiation trends in demographic subgroups of adolescents aged 14-17 years during the decade 1979-1989. Data on cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures were adjusted for inflation and plotted over this same period. Large population surveys, United States. 140,975 ever-smokers aged 17-38 when surveyed in 1992 or 1993, who reported on age of smoking initiation during the decade 1979-1989. Initiation rate was calculated as the number in an age group who reported starting to smoke regularly in a year, divided by the number of never-smokers at the start of the year. Trends were evaluated by linear and quadratic models. From 1979 to 1984, adolescent initiation rates decreased, but increased thereafter, particularly among males, whites, and those who, as adults, reported never having graduated from high school. Cigarette price increased throughout the decade as did tobacco marketing expenditures, especially for coupons, value-added items, and promotional allowances.\",\n \"Observational retrospective study of the database of the Office for National Statistics, alcohol consumption data reported by the General Household Survey, and other published data. England, 1993-9. Deaths for each million of the population from alcohol related illness increased by 59% in men and 40% in women over the years 1993 to 1999. One subgroup of alcohol related deaths, ICD 571.3 (alcoholic liver damage unspecified), showed a 243% increase in men aged 40 to 49 years over the same period. Figures for younger men, and women in all age groups, showed less pronounced increases. There has been no associated rise in alcohol intake. There has been an increase in the incidence of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection in recent years, and alcohol consumption in HCV positive individuals accelerates the progression to cirrhosis. Circumstantial evidence links the rise in HCV infection to the use of illicit drugs in the 1970s and 1980s, among those currently aged 40 to 59 years.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that while heavy current alcohol consumption is associated with significant impairment in a number of neurocognitive domains, history of alcohol dependence, even in the absence of heavy current alcohol use, is associated with lasting negative consequences for neurocognitive function.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that effective environmental prevention efforts at reducing underage drinking may be an important strategy to lower the prevalence of alcohol dependence in this high-risk population.\",\n \"To prove the possibility of shifting distribution of cardiovascular risk factors for a whole population over time and thereby to influence the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, according to the theory stated by Geoffrey Rose in 1985. Examination of standardised data from the German Cardiovascular Prevention Study (GCP), a seven year long, population-based, multicentre intervention trial, concerned with decreasing risk factors for cardiovascular disease. three cross sectional surveys of a population 25 to 69 years old in six study regions, and three nationwide cross sectional surveys in the former West Germany in 1984, 1988 and 1991. The relation between the population mean for systolic and diastolic blood pressure, total serum cholesterol, body mass index, and alcohol intake, and the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, as are systolic (>or =140 and>or =160 mm Hg) and diastolic hypertension (>or =90 and>or =95 mm Hg), hypercholesterolaemia (>or =250 and>or =300 mg/dl), overweight (body mass index>or =30 kg/m2), and heavy drinking (weekly alcohol intake>or =300 g/week). Results are expressed as linear regression equations and Pearson correlation coefficients. The correlation between the mean population values and prevalence of disease was close for blood pressures and body mass index. The Pearson coefficients, corrected for the influence of values increased above borderlines, were 0.86 and 0.81 respectively for systolic blood pressure, 0.88 and 0.91 for diastolic blood pressure, 0.28 and 0.52 for cholesterol, and 0.86 for the body mass index. The coefficient for alcohol intake was 0.55.\",\n \"Adult alcohol consumption is influenced by peer consumption, but whether peer drinking is associated with first-onset alcohol dependence (AD) in adults after age 30 is unknown. 703 adult participants in the St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area Survey (ECA) with no prior history of AD, but with high risk based on previously reported drinking or family history, were re-interviewed 11 years after the last ECA assessment to detect new cases of AD (age at follow-up: M(S.D.)=42.9 (8.2)). Incident AD during the assessment interval was examined in relation to drinking patterns in the social network and history of alcohol problems in parents. Fifteen percent of the sample had a first-onset of AD; another 19.5% never developed AD but were high-risk drinkers at follow-up. Of those who developed AD, 32.1% were remitted and 67.9% were unremitted (current AD) or unstably remitted (asymptomatic high-risk drinkers). Compared to abstinent or low-risk drinkers who did not develop AD, high-risk drinkers with no AD and unremitted/unstably remitted individuals were 4 times as likely to report moderate drinkers in their networks and remitted individuals were nearly 3 times as likely to report network members in recovery from alcohol problems. Associations of social network drinking with remitted and current AD were similar in strength to those of parental alcohol problems.\",\n \"To analyse how adolescent drunkenness and frequency of drinking were associated with adult drinking patterns and alcohol control policies. Cross-sectional survey data on 13- and 15-year-olds in 37 countries who participated in the Health Behaviour in School-Aged Children (HBSC) Study in 2010 (n = 144 788) were linked to national-level indicators on alcohol control policies and adult drinking patterns. Outcome measures were self-reported weekly drinking and life-time drunkenness (drunk once or more). Data were analysed using multi-level logistic regression models. In the mutually adjusted models, adolescent drunkenness was associated significantly with high adult alcohol consumption [odds ratio (OR) = 3.15 among boys, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 2.13-4.64, OR girls = 2.44, CI = 1.57-3.80] and risky drinking patterns in the adult population (OR boys = 2.02, CI = 1.33-3.05, OR girls = 1.61, CI = 1.18-2.18). The level of abstainers in the adult population was also associated significantly with girls' drunkenness; a 10% increase in the number of abstainers in a country reduced the odds of drunkenness with 21% (OR = 0.79, CI = 0.68-0.90). Weekly drinking was associated significantly with weak restrictions on availability (OR boys = 2.82, CI = 1.74-4.54, OR girls = 2.00, CI = 1.15-3.46) and advertising (OR boys = 1.56, CI = 1.02-2.40, OR girls = 1.79, CI = 1.10-2.94).\",\n \"To examine self-reported alcohol consumption and relationships between consumption, awareness of the 2009 NHMRC guidelines of no more than two standard drinks per day, drinking in excess of the guideline threshold and perceptions of alcohol as a risk factor for cancer. Questions were included in annual, cross-sectional surveys of approximately 2,700 South Australians aged 18 years and over from 2004 to 2012. Consumption data for 2011 and 2012 were merged for the majority of analyses. In 2011 and 2012, 21.6% of adults drank in excess of the guideline threshold (33.0% males; 10.7% females). While 53.5% correctly identified the NHMRC consumption threshold for women, only 20.3% did so for men (39.0% nominated a higher amount). A large minority said they did not know the consumption threshold for women (39.2%) or men (40.4%). In 2012, only 36.6% saw alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Important predictors of excess consumption for men were: higher household income; and not perceiving alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Predictors for women were similar but the role of household income was even more prominent.\",\n \"To examine the associations between alcohol control policies in four regulatory domains with alcohol consumption in low- and middle-income countries (LAMICs), controlling for country-level living standards and drinking patterns. Cross-sectional analyses of individual-level alcohol consumption survey data and country-level alcohol policies using multi-level modeling. Data from 15 LAMICs collected in the Gender, Alcohol, and Culture: an International Study (GENACIS) data set. Individuals aged 18-65 years. Alcohol policy data compiled by the World Health Organization; individual-level current drinking status, usual quantity and frequency of drinking, binge drinking frequency and total drinking volume; gross domestic product based on purchasing power parity (GDP-PPP) per capita; detrimental drinking pattern scale; and age and gender as individual-level covariates. Alcohol policies regulating the physical availability of alcohol, particularly those concerning business hours or involving a licensing system for off-premises alcohol retail sales, as well as minimum legal drinking age, were the most consistent predictors of alcohol consumption. Aggregate relative alcohol price levels were associated inversely with all drinking variables (P < 0.05) except drinking volume. Greater restrictions on alcohol advertising, particularly beer advertising, were associated inversely with alcohol consumption (P < 0.05). Policies that set legal blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limits for drivers and random breath testing to enforce BAC limits were not associated significantly with alcohol consumption.\",\n \"Data were collected using the 1995 Minnesota Student Survey. Survey items were designed to correspond to DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for substance abuse and dependence. Public schools, alternative schools and area learning centers. Of the 78,800 students between the ages of 14 and 18 years who completed the survey, 18,803 reported substance use and at least one substance use disorder diagnostic criterion during the previous 12 months and were used for the analyses. The sample was divided randomly into two groups in order to conduct data analyses on one group (n = 9490) and confirm the findings in the other group (n = 9313). Confirmatory factor analyses were conducted to test three competing factor structure models consisting of a single factor model, a two-factor model of distinct dimensions and a two-factor model with interrelated dimensions. The single factor and correlated two-factor models had similar parameter estimates and fit the data better than the competing two-factor model with distinct dimensions. Findings were confirmed in a second sample.\",\n \"Studies on the role of labour market position and change in alcohol use during midlife are scarce and their results are inconclusive mainly due to their failure to define comprehensive and distinct labour market groups and the short periods of time studied. In this study we used different activity categories for men and women to examine alcohol use trajectories in midlife covering a period of 17 years. Using data from four sweeps of the National Child Development Study covering ages 33-50 (N=9960), we used multilevel growth models to study the association between labour market categories and longitudinal changes in weekly units of alcohol consumed. In the reference group of full-time employed men alcohol trajectory decreased over the follow-up period (β=-0.14; 95% CI -0.18 to -0.11) while in the reference group of employed women it increased (β=0.06; 95% CI 0.04 to 0.08). Men and women who were 'mainly sick' had significantly steeper declines in their alcohol consumption trajectory. Women who became employed after being homemakers had the steepest increase in alcohol use (β=0.05; 95% CI 0.01 to 0.09).\",\n \"The official decline in the suicide rate between 1987 and 2000 may have been a partial artifact of misclassification of non-elderly suicides within unintentional poisoning mortality. We recommend in-depth national, regional, and local population-based research investigations of the poisoning-suicide nexus, and endorse calls for widening the scope of the definition of suicide and evaluation of its risk factors.\",\n \"Popular culture (movies, television shows, advertising) often portrays drinking to the point of intoxication as either humorous or associated with enjoyable social activities that enhance quality of life. This study examined the association between binge drinking (consuming five or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion) and health-related quality of life (HRQOL) among U.S. adults. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of adults aged>/=18 years conducted in all states. This survey included questions about alcohol consumption and HRQOL. In 2001, 52% of U.S. adults were current drinkers (one or more drinks in the past 30 days). Of current drinkers, 11% were frequent binge drinkers (three or more episodes in past month) and 14% were infrequent binge drinkers (one to two episodes in past month). After adjusting for confounding factors, frequent binge drinkers were more likely than non-binge drinkers to experience>/=14 unhealthy days (physical or mental) in the past month (adjusted odds ratio [AOR]=1.39, 95% confidence interval [CI]=1.24-1.56), primarily because they had more mentally unhealthy days than non-binge drinkers (AOR=1.52, 95% CI=1.32-1.75).\",\n \"From 1985 to 1995, drivers younger than 21 years experienced a 50% drop in fatal crashes involving alcohol. This study addresses whether the decrease is explained by young drivers' drinking less or by their separating drinking from driving. Nighttime roadside surveys were conducted in 3 communities to test drivers' breath and administer questionnaires on drinking practices. From 1992 to 1996, 34,898 drivers (21% of whom were younger than 21 years) were interviewed. Although drivers younger than 21 years were more likely to have consumed 6 or more drinks on at least 1 occasion during the previous month, a smaller percentage of younger drivers than of older drivers had blood alcohol concentrations of 0.01 or higher.\",\n \"Married individuals have lower rates of problem drinking, but little is known about this relationship in the context of other factors. This longitudinal analysis examines marital status with other individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics to understand its strength in predicting alcohol consumption over 5 years. A probability sample of dependent (n = 600) and problem (n = 992) drinkers was recruited through consecutive adult intakes from a Northern California county's alcohol and drug treatment programs and through a general population survey. Annual volume of drinks consumed over a 5-year period-measured at baseline, and at 1, 3 and 5 years later-was estimated in four nested models using maximum likelihood estimation via PROC MIXED. In simpler models that examined only marital status, married individuals drank significantly less than those never married (p<.01 for problem drinkers and p<.05 for dependent drinkers); however, when our models added individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics, marital status was no longer significant in predicting a trajectory of decreased drinking. For problem drinkers, the following characteristics were more important than marital status in predicting alcohol consumption over the 5 years: individual predisposing characteristics (age, p<.001; income, p<.001; education, p<.001; and age of initiation of regular alcohol use, p<.001), problem severity (number of alcohol dependence symptoms, p<.001; number of alcohol-related social consequences, p<.001; and higher drug severity, p<.05) and social predisposing characteristics (family member with an alcohol problem, p<.05; the size of heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network, p<.05; and chemical dependency treatment in the prior year, p<.001). For those who were alcohol dependent, income (p<.05), number of alcohol dependence symptoms (p<.001), higher drug severity (p<.05) and a heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network (p<.05 ) were more important than marital status in predicting consumption.\",\n \"Substance use of adolescents was investigated in a region around Amsterdam, the Netherlands, in the period 2005-2009. The study was intended to find out to what extent behaviour related to different substances are interrelated and how trends develop in different subgroups. Two cross-sectional surveys were conducted among Dutch students in the second and fourth year of secondary school, aged 13-16 [n = 1,854 in 2005; n = 2,088 in 2009] by making use of an online questionnaire including questions about alcohol consumption, tobacco use (smoking behaviour) and cannabis use. Two educational levels were included. Decreases in alcohol consumption, tobacco and cannabis use were found between 2005 and 2009. The strongest decline was seen in alcohol consumption. Last month drinking decreased from 61.8% in 2005 to 36.5% in 2009. Last month binge drinking decreased from 38.7% in 2005 to 24.0% in 2009. Reduced alcohol consumption was found among boys and girls, for all ages and in both educational levels. Changes were strongest among 13-year-olds. Weekly or daily smoking declined between 2005 and 2009 among 13-year-olds, girls and students in the lower schooling level. Last month cannabis use decreased among girls and students in the higher schooling level. In both 2005 and 2009 clustering with alcohol consumption was found for the use of other substances.\",\n \"We examined risky drinking and alcohol use patterns associated with prenatal effects of alcohol exposure in women of childbearing age, using various definitions of low-risk drinking. Computer-assisted telephone interview (CATI) methodology was used to gather information in a cross-sectional survey on alcohol use and problems, pregnancy and likelihood of future pregnancy. Participants were respondents in the 2000 National Alcohol Survey (NAS, N10, response rate 58%) which includes men and women from all 50 states of the United States and the District of Columbia. A total of 1504 women aged 18-39 years were included; 72 were pregnant, 511 were currently not pregnant but reported being likely to be pregnant in the next 5 years, and 921 women were neither pregnant nor likely to be in the next 5 years. Various alcohol use patterns in the past 12 months including average volume, amount per session, drinking with food and time spent drinking were assessed. Seven per cent of childbearing age women exceeded guidelines used to classify women as risky drinkers in the past month. Thirty per cent were classified as risky drinkers when these guidelines were extended to past-year drinking. Examination of specific alcohol use patterns revealed that while under 10% of risky drinkers reported past-month heavy episodic drinking, 30% or more reported heavy episodic drinking and exceeding daily limits for alcohol consumption in the past year.\",\n \"To analyze selected indicators of alcohol use (lifetime use, initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age, weekly use, beverage preferences, initiation of drunkenness at ≤13 years of age and lifetime drunkenness) in adolescents in Slovakia from 2006 to 2014. The Health Behaviour in School Aged Children (HBSC) study is a cross-sectional questionnaire study. A standardized uniform questionnaire was used in representative samples of 11-, 13- and 15-year-old adolescents. In Slovakia, the HBSC study was undertaken in 2006 (n = 3972), 2010 (n = 5089) and 2014 (n = 4369). Over the study period, decreases were observed in weekly drinking (from 34.3% to 21.0% in 15-year-old boys and from 22.1% to 11.9% in 15-year-old girls), lifetime drinking and initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age. In terms of beverage preferences, the reduction in beer consumption was most notable. Approximately one-third of respondents got drunk for the first time at ≤13 years of age, and this remained consistent throughout the study period.\",\n \"The study largely confirmed the expectation that the increase in cannabis use from 1988 to 1996 was paralleled by a decrease in the age of first cannabis use. From 1996 to 2003 age of first cannabis use and prevalence stabilized, possibly occasioned by a change in cannabis policy in the mid-1990s.\",\n \"yes. The trajectory of decreasing of pressure over time is most likely the result of decreases in heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm. Pressure was generally targeted toward higher risk drinkers, such as heavy drinkers and those reporting alcohol-related harm. However, demographic findings suggest that the social context of drinking might also be a determinant of receiving pressure. Additional studies should identify when pressure is associated with decreased drinking and increased help seeking.\",\n \"To identify independent relationships between socio-economic status and drinking patterns and related consequences and to identify socio-economic groups at risk for heavier consumption. Three comparable national telephone surveys were utilized: 1995, 2000 and 2004. The respondents were aged 18-65 years. Contextual information includes that a number of liberalized alcohol policy changes occurred over the time of the surveys. Educational qualification, income and occupation were associated independently with alcohol consumption. There were indications that the different dimensions of drinking (quantity and frequency) had different relationships with socio-economic status (SES). For example, lower SES groups drank heavier quantities while higher SES groups drank more frequently. SES, however, did not play a major role predicting drinking consequences once drinking patterns were controlled for, although there were some exceptions. It was the lower-to-average SES groups that were at greater risk for drinking heavier quantities compared to other SES groups in the population (as they had sustained increases in the quantities they consumed over time where other SES groups did not).\",\n \"The declining trend in alcohol use among adolescents in Slovakia may reflect a progressive change in the social environment and is attributable, at least in part, to policy improvements such as pricing and stricter legislation and enforcement.\",\n \"To study total alcohol consumption and its correlates, with an emphasis on the direction of causality. The associations among total alcohol consumption, abstaining, alcohol dependence (AD) and heavy episodic drinking were compared in 29 Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries in 2010. Either total alcohol consumption is determined by the number of abstainers and that of alcohol dependents, or the number of alcohol dependents is determined by total alcohol consumption. The number of non-dependent heavy episodic drinkers does not play a role.\",\n \"yes. The current findings suggest that student alcohol consumption declines over their undergraduate studies; however weekly levels of consumption at Year 3 remain high for a substantial number of students. The persistence of high levels of consumption in a large population of students suggests the need for effective preventative and treatment interventions for all year groups.\",\n \"Beyond the initial relapse episode, little is known about short-term patterns of alcohol and other drug use in treated adolescents. This study characterized treated teens' short-term alcohol and other drug use trajectories over 1-year follow-up. Adolescents (N = 110, ages 12-18, 65% male, 94% white) recruited from addictions treatment, with a current DSM-IV alcohol diagnosis, reported on daily alcohol and other drug use in monthly telephone contacts over 1-year follow-up using the Timeline Follow-Back procedure. Latent class mixture modeling identified trajectories based on maximum number of consecutive abstinent days per month, separately for alcohol and other drugs. Four alcohol trajectories were identified: high abstinence (53%), decreasing abstinence (10%), increasing abstinence (16%) and low abstinence (21%). The alcohol trajectories were distinguished by gender, age, readiness to change substance use and alcohol-related coping. To characterize changes in alcohol abstinence in relation to abstinence from other drugs, four other drug trajectories were identified: high (59%), decreasing (12%), increasing (14%) and low (15%) abstinence. Cross-classification of the alcohol and drug trajectories indicated a moderate level of concordance (kappa = 0.49).\",\n \"to assess the relation between alcohol intake and mortality among seven cohorts of middle-aged and elderly Danes. Prospective population study with baseline assessment of alcohol- and tobacco consumption, educational level and body mass index, and a mean of 11.5 years follow-up of mortality. 16304 men and women aged 50 years or more. number and time of deaths from 1974 to 1995 as ascertained by the national central person register. the effect of alcohol intake on mortality did not differ between middle-aged (50-64 years, mean = 56.6 years) and elderly subjects (>64 years old, mean = 69.9 years). There was a U-shaped risk function in both age groups, which persisted also when adjusting for age, sex, smoking habits, level of education and body mass index. Abstaining women had a relative risk of 1.29 (95% confidence limits 1.17-1.42) as compared with light drinkers (1-6 (drinks per week), while the relative risk for abstaining men was 1.22 (95% confidence limits; 1.08 to 1.37) as compared with light drinkers. Heavy drinking women (>28 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 1.23 (95% confidence limits; 0.85 to 1.78) and heavy drinking men (more than 69 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 2.11 (95% confidence limits 1.66-2.69), both compared with light drinkers.\",\n \"To examine the association of alcohol consumption over 10 years with cognitive performance in different socio-economic groups. Prospective cohort study, the French GAZEL study. France. Employees of France's national electricity and gas company. Alcohol intake was assessed annually, beginning in 1992, using questions on frequency and quantity of alcoholic beverages consumed in a week; used to define mean consumption and trajectory of alcohol intake over 10 years. Cognitive performance among participants aged ≥ 55 years (n = 4073) was assessed in 2002-04 using the Digit Symbol Substitution Test (DSST), a measure of psychomotor speed, attention and reasoning. Occupational position at age 35 and education were used as the markers of socio-economic position. All analyses were stratified by socio-economic position. In the low occupational group, participants consuming a mean of more than 21 drinks per week had 2.1 points lower (95% CI: -3.9, -0.3) DSST score compared to those consuming four to 14 drinks per week. In participants with primary school education, the corresponding difference was 3.6 points (95% CI: -7.1, -0.0). No association between alcohol consumption and cognitive performance was observed in the intermediate and high socio-economic groups, defined using either occupation or education. Analysis of trajectories of alcohol consumption showed that in the low socio-economic groups large increase or decrease in alcohol consumption was associated with lower cognitive scores compared to stable consumption.\",\n \"The purpose of the present study was to assess patterns and correlates of alcohol consumption among African-American women. We used postal questionnaires to collect data in 1995 on alcohol consumption and on demographic, medical, and behavioral factors from 64,500 African-American women aged 21-69 years from across the United States enrolled in the Black Women's Health Study. We used logistic regression analysis to assess the association of consumption with potential correlates. The prevalence of current drinking was highest (37.1%) among women 40-49 years of age, and lowest (23.1%) among women aged 21-29. In every region, heavy drinking (at least 14 drinks a week), reported by about 8% of current drinkers, was associated with current smoking, lower educational attainment, commencement of drinking at younger ages and, particularly, consumption of greater amounts of alcohol in the early years of drinking.\",\n \"To investigate the course of alcoholism in males and females in a 14-year follow-up of persons with DSM-III alcoholism compared to very heavy drinkers and unaffected controls in a community sample. Case-control study based on data from the 1997 Health Services Use and Cost study, a 14-year follow-up survey of 442 individuals who participated in two waves of the 1981-1983 St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area study. Cases met criteria for DSM-III alcohol abuse (AA) or dependence (AD) at both waves of the ECA: \\\"Two-times Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA 2t-AUDPs).\\\" Two comparison groups were frequency matched to 2t-AUDPs: (1) ECA Very Heavy Drinkers/One-time Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs) and (2) ECA alcohol-unaffecteds. Lifetime and past year alcohol use disorders, patterns of drinking and recovery among males and females are reported. 84.6% of 2t-AUDPs again met lifetime DSM-III criteria at 14-year follow-up. At follow-up, only 9.3% male 2t-AUDPs and 20.7% female 2t-AUDPs met past year DSM-IV AUD criteria. Past year drinking patterns, however, revealed higher rates of DSM-IV AA or AD, problem or risk drinking among 2t-AUDPs (61.7%) compared to both ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs (41.2%) and ECA alcohol-unaffecteds (22.1%).\",\n \"Between 2005 and 2009 alcohol consumption strongly decreased among high school students. This may be due to the national prevention campaign which in the same period highlighted the importance of not drinking before the age of 16. The decrease in smoking and cannabis use between 2005 and 2009 may be due to clustering with alcohol consumption. A reduction in the use of alcohol in adolescence did not lead to replacement by tobacco or cannabis use.\",\n \"(a) there was a positive relationship between violence and binge drinking among Swedish youth at the aggregated level, but mainly with regards to the shorter study period, (b) changes in per capita alcohol consumption were associated with binge drinking among young men and this was more evident for the shorter study period and (c) there was empirical evidence for the idea that these associations became weaker or non-existent after the year 2000.\",\n \"To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.\",\n \"If public health research does not progress beyond descriptive research to testing the effectiveness of interventions that can provide causal data, its contribution to evidence-based practice will not be realized. This paper examined the number and percentage of public health research publications over three time periods (1987-1988, 1997-1998, 2005-2006) for three preventive health issues: tobacco use, alcohol use, and inadequate physical activity. A computer-based literature search was conducted, using the Medline and PsycINFO databases. A random sample of 1000 abstracts for each preventive health issue was examined per time period. The abstracts were first categorized as public health or not, and then as data-based or non-data-based public health research. Data-based publications were classified according to research type as measurement-, descriptive/epidemiologic-, or intervention-oriented. Data analysis occurred in 2007. The number of data-based public health research publications examined for each topic ranged between 180 and 346 in 1987-1988, 199 and 322 in 1997-1998, and 302 and 364 in 2005-2006. Despite a significant increase over time in the percentage of intervention publications for tobacco (from 10% in 1987-1988 to 18% in 2005-2006, p=0.008), the majority of publications in all three time periods were descriptive/epidemiologic for all topics (62%-87% in 1987-1988, 64%-85% in 1997-1998, 78%-79% in 2005-2006). There were fewer measurement (3%-7% in 1987-1988, 2%-6% in 1997-1998, 4%-10% in 2005-2006) or intervention publications (9%-31% in 1987-1988, 10%-30% in 1997-1998, 12%-18% in 2005-2006).\",\n \"This study aimed at testing whether drinking volume and episodic heavy drinking (EHD) frequency in Germany are polarizing between consumption levels over time. Polarization is defined as a reduction in alcohol use among the majority of the population, while a subpopulation with a high intake level maintains or increases its drinking or its EHD frequency. The polarization hypothesis was tested across and within socio-economic subgroups. Analyses were based on seven cross-sectional waves of the Epidemiological Survey of Substance Abuse (ESA) conducted between 1995 and 2012 (n = 7833-9084). Overall polarization was estimated based on regression models with time by consumption level interactions; the three-way interaction with socio-economic status (SES) was consecutively introduced to test the stability of effects over socio-economic strata. Interactions were interpreted by graphical inspection. For both alcohol use indicators, declines over time were largest in the highest consumption level. This was found within all SES groups, but was most pronounced at low and least pronounced at medium SES.\",\n \"Among drinkers, increases in 30-day abstinence and declines in HED suggest that recent alarms about women's drinking may have been overstated. The contrast of lower rates of HED but increased reports of intoxication may indicate that women are more alert to alcohol's effects now than in earlier decades.\",\n \"The health and social impact of drinking in excess of internationally recognized weekly (>21 units in men;>14 units in women) and daily (>4 units in men;>3 units in women) recommendations for 'sensible' alcohol intake are largely unknown. A prospective cohort study of 1551 men and women aged around 55 years in 1988 when typical alcohol consumption was recalled using a 7-day grid. An average of 3.4 years later (1990/92), study participants were re-surveyed (n = 1259; 84.7% of the target population) when they responded to nurse-administered enquiries regarding minor psychiatric morbidity, self-perceived health, hypertension, accidents, overweight/obesity and financial difficulties. Study members were followed up for mortality experience over 18 years. In fully adjusted analyses, surpassing guidelines for sensible alcohol intake was associated with an increased risk of hypertension [daily guidelines only: P-value(trend): 0.012], financial problems [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.046]and, to a lesser degree, accidents [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.065]. There was no association between either indicator of alcohol intake and mortality risk.\",\n \"To describe changes in alcohol and drug use between two independent samples of gay-bisexual men aged 25-29. Comparisons between the 1984 San Francisco Men's Health Survey (SFMHS) and the 1992 San Francisco Young Men's Health Survey (SFYMHS). Heaviest levels of alcohol use decreased between the 1984 and 1992 samples as did most types of drug use, with the exception of an increase in the use of MDA.\",\n \"A striking reduction of alcohol-related problems, such as liver cirrhosis death rates, has been observed in many western countries in recent years. It might be expected that these declines are accompanied by a lagged reduction in per capita alcohol consumption, since many years of intake are required for cirrhosis of the liver to develop (lag theory). The main aim of this study is to verify the validity of the lag theory, taking as target populations those resident in European countries. Changes in liver cirrhosis death rates in 22 European countries between 1970 and 1089 were regressed onto changes in per capita alcohol consumption (1961-89) to evaluate the latency period between trends of these variables. Eastern countries had a latency period between trends in alcohol consumption and in mortality rates of many years, whereas in northern, western and southern Europe cirrhosis mortality rates were explained by their relationship with per capita alcohol consumption, which lagged a few years. In some countries, an immediate contemporary appearance of the two phenomena was observed.\",\n \"To determine effects of late-middle-aged adults' baseline drinking behavior on their subsequent 10-year depressive symptom trajectories. Health and Retirement Study participants (N = 7,939) were assessed on baseline demographic, health, and drinking characteristics, and biennially assessed for the next 10 years on their depressive symptoms. Growth mixture modeling generated four classes of depressive symptom trajectories: Consistently low (72%), consistently elevated (6%), increasing (12%), and decreasing (10%). Baseline abstinence from alcohol, possibly enforced by poorer health and a history of drinking problems, and heavier drinking, \\\"binge\\\" drinking, and having a history of drinking problems, raised risk of membership in the \\\"consistently elevated\\\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems-and light, moderate, and heavier drinking-protected against membership in the \\\"increasing\\\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems elevated-and moderate drinking reduced-likelihood of membership in the \\\"decreasing\\\" class.\",\n \"The 1990 Health Promotion and Disease Prevention supplement to The National Health Interview Survey was used to develop point-prevalence data about drinking for four age groups, 55-64, 65-74, 75-84, and over 84, and to assess the impact of sociodemographics, health status, and health belief variables on light, moderate, and heavy alcohol consumption. The number of observations in the unweighted sample was 12,819, and the weighted sample contained 51,046,521 observations. The chi 2 and Cohran-Mantel-Haenszel tests were used to investigate prevalence patterns, and odds ratios were generated from logistic regressions. Eighty percent of the sample had had at least 12 drinks during their lifetime, and 46% reported drinking during the survey year. The modal category for the number of days a respondent drank during the survey was 1-4 days, and the modal amount consumed on days that a person drank was 1-3 drinks. Age, gender, race, education, city size, labor force participation, geographic region, health status, having diabetes, and health beliefs about the adverse effects of excessive drinking and being overweight were associated with alcohol consumption, although their effects were different by drinking level.\",\n \"The goal of this study was to examine how well per capita alcohol consumption figures derived from beverage sales data relate to changes over time in survey-based measures of drinking patterns. It was expected that strong associations would be found among these various measures of consumption. Data from 12 household surveys conducted in Ontario between 1977 and 1997 provided information on: percentages of drinkers; daily drinkers; those drinking five or more drinks at a sitting weekly; those reporting two or more alcohol-related harms; and average number of drinks per week. These variables were then correlated with per capita consumption. Significant correlations were found only between per capita consumption and percentage of daily drinkers, and between percentage of drinkers and average number of drinks per week.\",\n \"To test whether survey respondents who report alcohol misuse in the past year are more likely to be abstinent or binge-free in the past 30 days if they have used treatment, than if they have not. Analysis of data from the 2002 US National Survey on Drug Use and Health was obtained. A total of 5730 respondents scored positive for alcohol abuse or dependence in the preceding year. Fewer than 10% had used any treatment for alcohol or drugs in this period, but this was associated with a 10% increase in the past-month abstinence and past-month binge-free drinking compared with respondents who did not access treatment. Such an apparent short-term recovery appeared greater in those whose treatment had been received in a formal treatment setting, a doctor's office, or in self-help groups than in the emergency room or in prison.\",\n \"Women's alcohol consumption in the United States has aroused increased public concern, despite a scarcity of evidence of any major increases in women's drinking. To help resolve this apparent inconsistency, we examined patterns of historical and age-related changes in U.S. women's drinking from 1981 to 2001. In national surveys of women in 1981, 1991, and 2001, we measured the prevalence of 12-month and 30-day drinking, heavy episodic drinking (HED; six or more drinks per day), and subjective intoxication. Using these data, we analyzed time and age trends for six 10-year age groups in each survey, taking into account effects of repeated observations and possible covariates (ethnicity, marital status, and education). Women's 12-month drinking did not change significantly between 1981 and 1991, but it became more prevalent in the total samples between 1991 and 2001. Among 12-month drinkers, however, 30-day abstinence increased from 1981 to 2001 (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30). From 1981 to 2001, HED declined (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30), but intoxication became more prevalent (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-50). Drinking, HED, and intoxication became consistently less prevalent with increasing age.\",\n \"This paper describes changes in alcohol consumption among Swedish youth over the past decade with the aim of exploring the polarization hypothesis, which asserts that while a majority of young drinkers have reduced their alcohol consumption, a subgroup have increased their drinking substantially, resulting in greater harm. We analysed repeated cross-sectional self-report data from 45,841 15-16-year olds and 40,889 18-19-year-old high-school students living in the Stockholm municipality between 2000 and 2010. The questionnaire assessed alcohol and drug use, and risk factors for alcohol misuse. Changes over time at different levels of consumption are presented by age and gender. We find evidence of a polarization effect in youth drinking, with consumption reducing significantly over the past 10 years among all young people, except the heaviest drinkers, where consumption and binge drinking tended to increase. The dispersion in per capita consumption also increased over time, indicating more heavy drinkers. The total number of risk factors for alcohol misuse decreased among most survey participants from 2000 to 2010, but with variability between years.\",\n \"To estimate the national trend in per capita consumption (PCC) of alcohol for Australians aged 15 years and older for the financial years 1990-91 to 2008-09. With the use of data obtained from Australian Bureau of Statistics' catalogues and World Advertising Research Centre reports, three alternative series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol for the past 20 years (1990-91 to 2008-09) were estimated based on different assumptions about the alcohol content of wine. For the \\\"old\\\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have been stable over time. For the \\\"new\\\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have increased once in 2004-05 and then to have remained stable to 2008-09. For the \\\"adjusted\\\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have gradually increased over time, beginning in 1998-99. Linear trend analysis was applied to identify significant trends. National trend in annual PCC of alcohol 1990-91 to 2008-09. The new and adjusted series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol showed increasing trends; the old series was stable.\",\n \"yes. Important declines in heavy alcohol use and overall drug use occurred among young gay men between 1984 and 1992. However, levels of substance use still remain high and may constitute a continued threat to the health of gay-bisexual men.\",\n \"To estimate the relationship between per capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking in Sweden during the last 40 years and to estimate the relationship between female and male youth drinking during the 40-year study period. Per capita alcohol consumption was proxied by official sales data, supplemented by data on unrecorded consumption. Youth consumption was measured by a question on heavy episodic drinking (HED) included in an annual school survey of alcohol and drug habits among Swedish 9th -grade students (15-16 years of age). The annual samples comprise approximately 5000 individuals (with roughly equal numbers of boys and girls) with response rates in the range 80-93%. The study spans the period 1972-2012. Autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) time-series analysis was used to estimate the relation between per-capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking. Ocular inspection of the time-series data suggested a stronger synchronization between the two series in the early period, before the mid-1990s, than in the later period, indicating a structural shift in the relation at issue. We therefore conducted period specific time-series analyses with 1995 as the year of division. There was a statistically significant relation between per capita alcohol consumption and HED among youth for 1972-94. A 1% increase in per capita alcohol consumption was associated with an increase in HED of 1.52% (P = 0.008). The estimate for 1995-2012 (0.12) was well below statistical significance (P = 0.580). The estimated elasticity of the association between boys' and girls' HED during 1972-94 was close to unity (0.98, P < 0.001), suggesting proportional changes in boys' and girls' drinking. When controlling for per capita consumption, the association was halved (to 0.55) but still significant in table 3 (P = 0.045).\",\n \"The vast majority of individuals with alcohol problems in the United States and elsewhere do not seek help. One policy response has been to encourage institutions such as criminal justice and social welfare systems to mandate treatment for individuals with alcohol problems (Addiction, 1997;92:1133). However, informal pressures to drink less from family and friends are far more common than institutional pressures mandating treatment (Addiction, 1996;91:643). The prevalence and correlates of these informal pressures have been minimally studied. This analysis used data from 5 Alcohol Research Group National Alcohol Surveys (NAS) collected at approximately 5-year intervals over a 21-year period (1984 to 2005, pooled N = 16,241) to describe the patterns of pressure that drinkers received during the past year from spouse, family, friends, physicians, police, and the workplace. The overall trend of pressure combining all 6 sources across all 5 NAS data sets indicated a decline. Frequent heavy drinking and alcohol-related harms also declined, and both were strong predictors of receiving pressure. Trends among different sources varied. In multivariate regression models, pressure from friends showed an increase. Pressure from spouse and family showed a relatively flat trajectory, with the exception of a spike in pressure from family in 1990.\",\n \"To estimate age-period-cohort models predicting alcohol volume, heavy drinking and beverage-specific alcohol volume in order to evaluate whether the 1976-1985 birth cohorts drink relatively heavily. Data from seven cross-sectional surveys of the USA conducted between 1979 and 2010 were utilized in negative binomial generalized linear models of age, period and cohort effects predicting alcohol measures. General population surveys of the USA. Thirty-six thousand four hundred and thirty-two US adults (aged 18 years or older). Monthly number of alcohol drinks, beer, wine and spirits drinks, and days drinking five or more drinks in the past year derived from beverage-specific graduated frequency questions. Relative to the reference 1956-60 birth cohort, men in the 1976-1980 cohort for were found to consume more alcohol [incidence rate ratio (IRR) = 1.222: confidence interval (CI) 1.07-1.39) and to have more 5+ days (the number of days having five or more drinks) (IRR = 1.365: CI 1.09-1.71) as were men in the 1980-85 cohort for volume (IRR = 1.284: CI 1.10-1.50) and 5+ days (IRR = 1.437: CI 1.09-1.89). For women, those in the 1980-85 cohort were found to have higher alcohol volume (IRR = 1.299: CI 1.07-1.58) and more 5+ days (IRR = 1.547: CI 1.01-2.36). Beverage-specific models found different age patterns of volume by beverage with a flat age pattern for both genders' spirits and women's wine, an increasing age pattern for men's wine and a declining age pattern from those in their early 20s for beer.\",\n \"Skog's collectivity theory of alcohol consumption predicted that changes in alcohol consumption would synchronize across all types of drinkers in a population. The aim of this paper is examine this theory in the Australian context. We examined whether there was a collective change in alcohol use in Australia from 2001 to 2013, estimated alcohol consumption in non-high risk and high risk drinkers, and examined the trends in alcohol treatment episodes. Data from the 2001-2013 National Drug Strategy Household Surveys (N = 127,916) was used to estimate the prevalence and alcohol consumption of abstainers, high risk drinkers and frequent heavy episodic drinkers. Closed treatment episodes recorded in the Alcohol and Other Drug Treatment Services National Minimum Dataset (N = 608,367) from 2001 to 2013 were used to examine the trends of closed alcohol treatment episodes. The prevalence of non-drinkers (abstainers) decreased to the lowest level in 2004 (15.3 %) and rebounded steadily thereafter (20.4 % in 2013; p < .001). Correspondingly, the per capita consumption of high risk drinkers (2 standard drinks or more on average per day) increased from 20.7 L in 2001 to peak in 2010 (21.5 L; p = .020). Non-high risk drinkers' consumption peaked in 2004 (2.9 L) and decreased to 2.8 L in 2013 (p < .05). There were decreases in alcohol treatment episodes across nearly all birth cohorts in recent years.\",\n \"To examine trends in adult alcohol consumption by age, gender and education from 1982 to 2008 and evaluate the effects that a significant reduction in alcohol prices in 2004 had on alcohol consumption in different population subgroups. The study population comprised respondents aged 25-64 (n = 79,100) replying to nationally representative annual postal surveys from 1982 to 2008 (average response rate 72%). The main measurements were the prevalence of respondents who had drunk at least eight (men) or five (women) drinks in the previous week ('moderate to heavy drinkers') and prevalence of those who weekly (men) or monthly (women) drank six or more drinks on a single occasion ('heavy episodic drinkers') (one 'drink' containing 11-13 g ethanol). Logistic models were used to test differences across population subgroups in the changes in drinking. Following the reduction of alcohol prices in 2004, drinking increased among men and women aged 45-64. Among men, both moderate to heavy drinking and heavy episodic drinking increased in the lowest educational group. Among women, moderate to heavy drinking increased mostly in the lowest and intermediate educational groups, while the highest increases for heavy episodic drinking were in the intermediate and highest female educational groups.\",\n \"Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting.\",\n \"These findings are partially consistent with and support Skog's collectivity theory. There has been a turnaround in alcohol consumption after a decade-long uptrend, as evident in the collective decreases in alcohol consumption among nearly all types of drinkers. There was also a turnaround in rate of treatment seeking, which peaked at 2007 and then decreased steadily. The timing of this turnaround differs with level of drinking, with non-high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2004 and high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2010.\",\n \"Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":969,"string":"969"}}},{"rowIdx":273173,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Should cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients receive auricular acupuncture?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.","These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed."],"string":"[\n \"Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.\",\n \"These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Among the illicit stimulants, cocaine and amphetamines are the most widely abused. Although these drugs have similar psychoactive properties and routes of administration, their duration of action and mechanism of action are different, as are the psychiatric problems that accompany their use. The authors explored whether these differences and results of urine drug testing were associated with differences in use of psychiatric inpatient services. The records of 2,357 patients admitted to a large county psychiatric emergency service were examined to determine whether patients admitted for amphetamine-related or cocaine-related disorders differed in rates of transfer to an inpatient psychiatric ward or in length of stay on the ward after transfer. The authors also examined whether positive or negative results of urine drug screens predicted transfer or length of stay. Patients with amphetamine-related disorders were more than a third more likely than patients with cocaine-related disorders to be transferred to the inpatient ward. Patients with negative urine screens were a third more likely than those with positive screens to be transferred and stayed slightly longer on the ward after transfer. Patients with cocaine-related disorders stayed slightly longer on the ward than patients with amphetamine-related disorders.","To investigate the effect of ischemic compression (IC) versus placebo and control on reducing postneedling soreness of 1 latent myofascial trigger point and on improving cervical range of motion (CROM) in asymptomatic subjects. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial with 72-hour follow-up. A university community. Asymptomatic volunteers (N = 90: 40 men and 50 women) aged 18 to 39 years (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: 22 ± 3 years). All subjects received a dry needling application over the upper trapezius muscle. Participants were then randomly divided into 3 groups: a treatment group who received IC over the needled trapezius muscle, a placebo group who received sham IC, and a control group who did not receive any treatment after needling. Visual analog scale (VAS; during needling, at posttreatment and 6, 12, 24, 48, and 72 hours) and CROM (at preneedling, postneedling, and 24 and 72 hours). Subjects in the IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness than the placebo and the control group subjects immediately after treatment (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: IC, 20.1 ± 4.8; placebo, 36.7 ± 4.8; control, 34.8 ± 3.6) and at 48 hours (mean ± SD: IC, 0.6 ± 1; placebo, 4.8 ± 1; control, 3.8 ± 0.7). In addition, subjects in the dry needling+IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness duration (P = .026). All subjects significantly improved CROM in contralateral lateroflexion and both homolateral and contralateral rotations, but only the improvements found in the IC group reached the minimal detectable change.","We investigated the efficacy of electroacupuncture in reducing the duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after laparoscopic surgery for colorectal cancer. We performed a prospective study of 165 patients undergoing elective laparoscopic surgery for colonic and upper rectal cancer, enrolled from October 2008 to October 2010. Patients were assigned randomly to groups that received electroacupuncture (n = 55) or sham acupuncture (n = 55), once daily from postoperative days 1-4, or no acupuncture (n = 55). The acupoints Zusanli, Sanyinjiao, Hegu, and Zhigou were used. The primary outcome was time to defecation. Secondary outcomes included postoperative analgesic requirement, time to ambulation, and length of hospital stay. Patients who received electroacupuncture had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received no acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 122.1 ± 53.5 h; P < .001) and length of hospital stay (6.5 ± 2.2 vs 8.5 ± 4.8 days; P = .007). Patients who received electroacupuncture also had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received sham acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 107.5 ± 46.2 h; P = .007). Electroacupuncture was more effective than no or sham acupuncture in reducing postoperative analgesic requirement and time to ambulation. In multiple linear regression analysis, an absence of complications and electroacupuncture were associated with a shorter duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after the surgery.","Buprenorphine is an effective treatment for opioid dependence that can be provided in a primary care setting. Offering this treatment may also facilitate the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions. We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of 168 patients who presented to a primary care clinic for treatment of opioid dependence and who received a prescription for sublingual buprenorphine within a month of their initial visit. Of the 168 new patients, 122 (73%) did not report having an established primary care provider at the time of the initial visit. One hundred and twenty-five patients (74%) reported at least one established chronic condition at the initial visit. Of the 215 established diagnoses documented on the initial visit, 146 (68%) were not being actively treated; treatment was initiated for 70 (48%) of these within one year. At least one new chronic medical condition was identified in 47 patients (28%) during the first four months of their care. Treatment was initiated for 39 of the 54 new diagnoses (72%) within the first year.","Acupuncture is a form of Eastern medicine that has been practiced for centuries. Despite its long history and worldwide application, the biological mechanisms of acupuncture in relieving pain have been poorly defined. Recent studies in mice, however, demonstrate that acupuncture triggers increases in interstitial adenosine, which reduces the severity of chronic pain through adenosine A1 receptors, suggesting that adenosine-mediated antinociception contributes to the clinical benefits of acupuncture. We asked here whether acupuncture in human subjects is also linked to a local increase in interstitial adenosine concentration. We collected microdialysis samples of interstitial fluid before, during, and after delivering 30 minutes of conventional acupuncture in the Zusanli point in human subjects. The interstitial adenosine concentration increased significantly during acupuncture and remained elevated for 30 minutes after the acupuncture. Acupuncture-mediated adenosine release was not observed if acupuncture was not delivered in the Zusanli point or if the acupuncture needle was inserted, but not rotated. This study strengthens the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by directly providing such evidence in humans.","Transdermal formulations of buprenorphine offer controlled delivery of buprenorphine for sustained analgesic efficacy with reduced adverse events (AEs) compared with the other modes of administration. A buprenorphine transdermal system (BTDS) delivering 5, 10, or 20 mcg/hour for seven days is now marketed in the U.S. as Butrans(®) (Lohmann Therapie-System AG, Andernach Germany), a Schedule III single-entity opioid analgesic indicated for the management of moderate and chronic pain in patients requiring continuous around-the-clock analgesia for an extended period. This was a randomized open-label study in healthy subjects to characterize the steady-state buprenorphine pharmacokinetics after the delivery of three consecutive seven-day BTDS applications. Thirty-seven subjects were randomized to receive three consecutive BTDS 10 mcg/hour (BTDS 10) patches applied to the deltoid or upper back for seven days each. Blood samples for buprenorphine concentration measurements were taken. Safety was assessed using recorded AEs, clinical laboratory test results, vital signs, pulse oximetry, physical examinations, and electrocardiograms. Patch adhesion assessments were taken. Analysis of Cmin demonstrated that steady state was reached during the first BTDS 10 application. No significant difference in Cmin was observed across the three applications. Total and peak plasma buprenorphine exposures were similar after each of the seven-day administrations of BTDS.","yes. Fentanyl injection of small dose at auricular points achieves definite analgesic effect on procedural pain in dressing changes of burn wounds, superior to subcutaneous injection of fentanyl.","yes. Our study suggests that a potential mechanism by which acupuncture has an antihypertensive effect and can significantly halt deteriorating renal function due to cBSA GN might be mediated by inhibiting the Erk1/2 MAPK pathway to reduce renal sympathetic nerve activity (RSNA).","As buprenorphine treatment and illicit buprenorphine use increase, many patients seeking buprenorphine treatment will have had prior experience with buprenorphine. Little evidence is available to guide optimal treatment strategies for patients with prior buprenorphine experience. We examined whether prior buprenorphine experience was associated with treatment retention and opioid use. We also explored whether type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed or illicit use) was associated with these treatment outcomes. We analyzed interview and medical record data from a longitudinal cohort study of 87 individuals who initiated office-based buprenorphine treatment. We examined associations between prior buprenorphine experience and 6-month treatment retention using logistic regression models, and prior buprenorphine experience and any self-reported opioid use at 1, 3, and 6 months using nonlinear mixed models. Most (57.4%) participants reported prior buprenorphine experience; of these, 40% used prescribed buprenorphine and 60% illicit buprenorphine only. Compared with buprenorphine-naïve participants, those with prior buprenorphine experience had better treatment retention (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 2.65, 95% CI = 1.05-6.70). Similar associations that did not reach significance were found when exploring prescribed and illicit buprenorphine use. There was no difference in opioid use when comparing participants with prior buprenorphine experience with those who were buprenorphine-naive (AOR = 1.33, 95% CI = 0.38-4.65). Although not significant, qualitatively different results were found when exploring opioid use by type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 2.20, 95% CI = 0.58-8.26; illicit buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 0.47, 95% CI = 0.07-3.46).","A pilot study to document changes in symptoms after acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care in patients with incurable cancer. Patients receiving palliative care with estimated survival of at least 3 months were screened with the Edmonton Symptom Assessment System (ESAS). Patients (n=20) with significant symptoms were randomised to receive weekly acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care for 4 weeks. ESAS scores were obtained before and after each treatment, and weekly for 6 weeks after treatment by telephone. 42 of 170 patients screened were eligible. 20 gave consent for recruitment. The compliance rate was 90% for acupuncture and 80% for nurse-led supportive care. Total symptom scores were reduced by an average of 22% after each acupuncture visit and by 14% after each supportive care visit. Compared with baseline, ESAS scores at the end of the follow-up period were reduced by 19% for the acupuncture arm and 26% for nurse-led supportive care.","To evaluate the efficacy of acupressure wristbands in the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Two hundred ASA I-II patients undergoing elective endoscopic urological procedures were included in a randomized, prospective, double blind, placebo-controlled study. Spherical beads of acupressure wristbands were placed at the P6 points in the anterior surface of both forearms in Group I patients (acupressure group, n = 100) whereas, in Group 2 (control group, n = 100) they were placed inappropriately on the posterior surface. The acupressure wristbands were applied 30 min before induction of anesthesia and were removed six hours postoperatively. Anesthesia was induced with thiopental and maintained with nitrous oxide and oxygen, fentanyl, isoflurane and vecuronium. The tracheas were extubated on the operation table after patients received neostigmine and atropine. Post operative nausea and vomiting were evaluated separately as none, mild, moderate or severe at the time of patient's arrival in PACU, then at six hours and twenty-four hours after surgery by a blinded observer. In the acupressure group, 25 patients had PONV compared with 29 patients in the control group (P = NS).","We tested the hypothesis that electro-acupuncture at the Zusanli, Yanglingquan, and Kunlun acupuncture points on the legs decreases anesthetic requirement. Fourteen young, healthy volunteers were anesthetized with desflurane on two separate days. Needle electrodes were positioned at the three acupuncture points thought to produce a generalized sedative and analgesic effect. Needles were percutaneously placed on treatment days; on control days, they were insulated and taped near the insertion points. The electrodes were stimulated on the treatment day. Stimulation consisted of 2-Hz and 100-Hz currents alternated at 2-s intervals. When the end-tidal desflurane concentration of 5.5% was stable for 15 min, noxious electrical stimuli were administered via 25-gauge needles on both thighs (70 mA at 100 Hz for 10 s). Desflurane concentration was increased 0.5% when movement occurred and decreased 0.5% when it did not. An investigator, blinded to treatment, determined movement. These up-and-down sequences were continued until volunteers crossed from movement to no movement four times. A logistic regression determined the partial pressure of desflurane that produced a 50% likelihood of movement in response to noxious stimulation and consequently identified the minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalent for desflurane. There was no significant difference in minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalents between the electro-acupuncture (4.6% +/- 0.6%, mean +/- SD) and control (4.6% +/- 0.8%) days (P = 0.8). These data provided an 80% power for detecting a difference of 0.35 volume-percent between the groups.","In anesthetized patients, electro-acupuncture (EA) has been found to reduce sevoflurane-induced suppression of cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery without influencing the level of anesthesia. The underlying mechanisms are unclear. In the present study, blood samples were analyzed to evaluate if the increased clinical motor responses to surgery in patients subjected to EA under sevoflurane anesthesia are also reflected in higher plasma levels of catecholamines, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), or cortisol. Blood samples were obtained before anesthetic induction, soon after the study or control procedures had been completed under general anesthesia, and after 30 minutes of surgery under steady-state anesthesia with 1.8% of sevoflurane, in 45 healthy female patients, scheduled for sterilization by laparoscopy, randomized for bilateral 2 Hz-burst EA (study group; n = 22) or control (control group; n = 23) procedures. Plasma levels of adrenaline were found to approach the higher preanesthetic level after 30 minutes of surgery in patients given EA stimulation but to remain low in control patients (P < 0.05)-in agreement with the stronger clinical motor responses to skin incision in the EA group. Plasma levels of noradrenaline, ACTH, and cortisol did not change in or differ between the two groups.","To compare the analgesic effect of uni- and bi-lateral electroacupuncture (EA) in response to thermal and mechanical nociceptive stimuli and to investigate the cardiorespiratory, endocrine, and behavioral changes in dogs submitted to EA. Prospective, randomized cross-over experimental study. Eight adult, clinically healthy, cross-breed dogs, weighing 13 +/- 4 kg. Dogs underwent electrostimulation at false acupoints (T-false); bilateral EA at acupoints, stomach 36, gall bladder 34 and spleen 6 (T-EA/bil); unilateral EA at the same points (T-EA/uni) or were untreated (T-control). All animals received acepromazine (0.05 mg kg(-1)) IV; and heart rate, pulse oximetry, indirect arterial blood pressure, respiratory rate, Pe'CO(2), rectal temperature, and plasma cortisol concentration were measured before, during, and after EA. Analgesia was tested using thoracic and abdominal cutaneous thermal and mechanical stimuli, and an interdigital thermal stimulus. Behavior was classified as calm or restless. Analysis of variance for repeated measures followed by Tukey's test was used for analysis of the data. There were no cardiorespiratory differences among the treatments. The cutaneous pain threshold was higher after EA, compared with false points. The latency period was shorter and analgesia was more intense in T-EA/bil than T-EA/uni, when both were compared with T-false and T-control. Six out of eight animals treated with EA were calm during treatment, and 5/8 and 4/8 of the T-false and T-control animals, respectively, were restless. Latency to interdigital thermal stimulation increased in T-EA/bil compared with the others. There was no difference in plasma cortisol concentrations among the treatments.","Although a number of studies on traditional eastern or Chinese medicine, such as acupuncture, moxibustion, and herbal drugs, have been reported, few reports describe electroacupuncture (EAC) effects on drug- and alcohol-seeking behaviors in animal models. The purpose of the present study was to investigate the effect of EAC on changes in alcohol-drinking behavior in rats challenged with restriction and immobilization stress. Male Sprague Dawley rats (260-280 g) were tightly hung and immobilized in restriction models for 10 min. These immobilization stresses were performed twice a week for 1 week and for 3 consecutive weeks for the short- and long-restricted stress groups, respectively. EAC was applied for 10 min to the hindlimb point, Tsu-San-Li (ST 36), and the lumbar point, Shen-Shu (BL 23). These points are used to treat mental and psychosomatic disorders and are known clinically to produce a sedation effect. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior was determined at 24 hr after the termination of EAC. Finally, brain dopamine (DA) levels were assayed in the two groups. A sham-control group underwent only restricted stress without EAC. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior increased significantly in the long-restricted group compared with the short-restricted group and controls. EAC applied to the ST 36 (Tsu-San-Li) point suppressed the increased alcohol-drinking behavior in restricted rats. However, EAC applied to the Shen-Shu (BL 23) point was not effective, because alcohol-drinking behavior was significantly increased in long-restricted rats compared with short-restricted rats. Striatal DA levels of restricted rats with EAC stimulated at Tsu-San-Li were increased significantly compared with the rats with EAC applied to the Shen-Shu point.","The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of acupuncture to the acupuncture point HT7 (Sinmun) on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization and the neuronal changes in nucleus accumbens and striatum in rats. Male Sprague-Dawley rats were given repeated injections of morphine hydrochloride for 5 days followed by 3 day withdrawal and one challenge injection. The acupuncture treatment was performed for 1 minute once a day for 3 days of withdrawal period and its effect on morphine-induced changes of locomotor activity and Fos expression was examined. The acupuncture stimulation to HT7 significantly suppressed the morphine-induced increases in the locomotor activity and Fos expression in the nucleus accumbens and striatum, as compared to the controls of non-acupoint or the acupoint on other meridian.","Contingency management (CM) reduces drug use, but questions remain regarding optimal targets and magnitudes of reinforcement. We evaluated the efficacy of CM reinforcing attendance in patients who initiated treatment with cocaine-negative samples, and of higher magnitude abstinence-based CM in patients who began treatment positive. Initially cocaine-negative patients (n = 333) were randomized to standard care (SC), SC + CM reinforcing submission of negative samples with $250 in prizes ($250Abs), or SC + CM reinforcing attendance ($250Att). Initially cocaine-positive patients (n = 109) were randomized to SC, $250Abs, or higher magnitude CM ($560Abs). For initially cocaine-negative patients, $250Abs and $250Att were equally efficacious to SC in enhancing longest duration of abstinence (LDA); $250Att patients submitted lower proportions of negative samples when missing samples were considered missing, but these patients also attended more study sessions, provided more samples, and submitted a higher proportion of negative samples than SC patients when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. In initially cocaine-positive patients, both CM conditions increased proportions of negative samples relative to SC when missing samples were excluded from analyses, but only $560Abs was efficacious in increasing LDA and proportion of negative samples when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. Follow-ups revealed no differences among groups, but LDA was consistently associated with abstinence during follow-up, p < .05.","To examine indicators of buprenorphine diversion and injection among injecting drug users in Melbourne, Australia and to determine the factors associated with buprenorphine injection. Melbourne arm of the 2002 Illicit Drug Reporting System (IDRS) cross-sectional study. Five Needle and Syringe Programme sites in Melbourne, Australia. A total of 156 current injecting drug users (IDU). Study eligibility criteria were at least monthly injection during the previous 6 months, and Melbourne residence for at least the preceding 12 months. Structured questionnaire covering demographic characteristics, drug use history, the price, purity and availability of drugs, criminal activity, risk-taking behaviours, health-related issues and general drug use trends. Over one-third (37%) of the study sample reported injecting buprenorphine in their life-time and 33% reported injecting the drug in the last 6 months. Recent buprenorphine injection was associated with the injection of other drug types (i.e. polydrug injectors), opioid substitution treatment, injection-related health problems and involvement in crime. Almost half (47%) of those who reported recent buprenorphine injection reported obtaining the drug illicitly at least once during that time.","Although acupuncture is effective for treating several conditions, its site specificity is questionable. To investigate whether acupuncture influences the brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP). 10 healthy volunteers were enrolled according to inclusion criteria. One of four acupuncture points-TE3, GB43 (both auditory system-specific, according to traditional Chinese medicine) and non-specific acupuncture points HT7 and ST44-was needled during each session. Each volunteer received four sessions of acupuncture, with a 1-week interval between the sessions. Peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP were registered before and during each session of acupuncture. Pain intensity and the incidence of paraesthesia (Qi sensation) during acupuncture were also registered. The peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP registered during acupuncture had not changed from the baseline levels. Needling of acupoint HT7 was most painful and induced the maximal incidence of Qi sensation.","Buprenorphine has shown limited success to date as a bridge to HCV treatment within an HIV clinic. Buprenorphine's stabilization of opioid dependence and HIV disease may permit the use of HCV therapy over time.","yes. Mood and substance use comorbidity is prevalent among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment. The findings support the need for clinicians to assess and address these conditions.","yes. In CUD participants at risk of early relapse, increased pHp basal activity and pHp-PCC circuit strength may reflect the propensity for heightened reactivity to cocaine cues and persistent cocaine-related ruminations. Mechanisms to mute hyperactivated brain regions and delink dysregulated neural circuits may prove useful to prevent relapse in patients with CUD.","Buprenorphine is associated with enhanced human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) treatment outcomes including increased antiretroviral therapy initiation rates, adherence, and CD4 cell counts among HIV-infected opioid-dependent individuals. Buprenorphine facilitates hepatitis C virus (HCV) treatment in opioid-dependent patients with HCV monoinfection. Less is known about buprenorphine's role in HIV/HCV coinfection. We conducted a retrospective chart review to evaluate HCV care for HIV-infected buprenorphine patients in the first 4 years of buprenorphine's integration into a Rhode Island HIV clinic. Sixty-one patients initiated buprenorphine. All had HCV antibody testing; 57 (93%) were antibody-positive. All antibody-positive patients underwent HCV RNA testing; 48 (84%) were RNA-positive. Of these, 15 (31%) were not referred to HCV care. Among chronically infected patients, 3 received HCV treatment after buprenorphine; all had cirrhosis and none achieved viral eradication. At buprenorphine induction, most patients had inadequately controlled HIV infection, with detectable HIV RNA (59%) or CD4 cell count less than or equal to 350/μL (38%).","yes. These results suggest that TCI in auricle skin using PC plus CT in BALB/c mice is a simple approach for induction of systemic and mucosal immune responses that are shifted in the Th2 direction.","yes. High magnitude abstinence-based reinforcement improved all abstinence outcomes in patients who began treatment while using cocaine. For patients initiating treatment abstinent, both attendance- and abstinence-based CM resulted in improvements on some measures.","yes. Guanfacine improves selective cognitive processes which may underlie salient treatment-related regulatory behaviors. Alpha2 agonists may therefore represent important agents for cocaine dependence.","yes. Because of the increased risk of stent thrombosis, consideration should be given to a more conservative approach in cocaine abusers who present with acute coronary syndromes.","yes. This article presents further evidence of the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by demonstrating that local adenosine concentrations increase in the acupoint in human subjects receiving traditional acupuncture.","Severe burn injury has been demonstrated to delay gastric emptying. The aim of this study was to investigate effects and cellular mechanisms of auricular electroacupuncture (AEA) at the acupoints innervated by the auricular branch of vagus nerve on burn-induced gastric dysmotility in rats. Propranolol (β-adrenoceptor antagonist) was injected intraperitoneally after the rats underwent burn injury. All experiments were performed 6 h following burn/sham burn injury. AEA was performed at bilateral auricular acupoints for 45 min. Electrocardiogram was recorded for 30 min. Plasma hormones were measured; cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 expressions in gastric tissue were measured using western blotting and real-time RT-PCR. (i) Burn injury delayed gastric emptying (p = 0.006) and AEA increased gastric emptying by 49% (p = 0.045). (ii) Burn injury evoked a significant elevation in plasma noradrenaline, which was suppressed by AEA. (iii) Burn injury significantly increased protein and mRNA expressions of COX-2 in gastric fundus and antrum. AEA suppressed burn-induced increase in protein expressions, but not mRNA expressions of COX-2.","For most graduates of IOPs, the combination of brief weekly telephone therapeutic contacts and a support group in the first month produced outcomes that are as good as those obtained in more intensive face-to-face continuing care interventions. However, patients with current dependence on both alcohol and cocaine who make little progress towards achieving the central goals of IOP may have better outcomes if they receive twice-weekly group counseling following IOP.","yes. BLC stimulation is sufficient to reinstate cocaine-seeking behavior in the rat. These results are congruent with the hypothesis that the basolateral complex of the amygdala is part of a neural system mediating drug-seeking behavior.","yes. These results demonstrate that viral transfer of CocH may be useful in promoting long-term resistance to relapse to cocaine addiction.","The results showed the beneficial effects of buprenorphine maintenance treatment in improving the QOL of opioid-dependent subjects at nine month follow up. These results point towards the need for an expanded nation-wide provision of buprenorphine maintenance treatment as a harm reduction strategy for the opioid dependent population.","Spinal manipulation and acupuncture can be helpful in reducing the symptoms of musculoskeletal (MSK) pain. Both approaches are currently recommended by NICE as treatment options for patients with persistent low back pain. However, there has been no previous evaluation of a GP service using them together for MSK pain. The purpose of this study was to evaluate acceptability and outcomes for an osteopathy and acupuncture service (delivered by complementary therapy practitioners) for patients with MSK problems provided within a General Practice. Patients were asked to complete a questionnaire before and after their course of treatment. Outcome measures included the Bournemouth Questionnaire (measuring MSK problems), EuroQoL-5D (measuring quality of life), medication use, physical activity and general well-being. Non-parametric tests were used to compare pre- and post- treatment variables. Qualitative data, regarding participants' views on the service, were collected from patients via a service survey and healthcare professionals via interviews. Qualitative data were analysed using thematic analysis. 123 adults with MSK problems were referred into the service (79 female and 44 male, mean age 49 years). Complete patient questionnaire data sets (pre- and post- treatment) were available for 102 participants; 91 completed a service survey. All healthcare professionals involved in the service participated in interviews including all seven GPs and the administration manager at the practice, as well as the three acupuncture/osteopathy practitioners. Patient outcomes: comparisons between pre and post-treatment revealed a statistically significant improvement in MSK pain (p<0.0001) and quality of life (p<0.0001), and a statistically significant reduction in medication use (p<0.0001). Qualitative analysis found that patients reported improvements in their MSK pain, mobility, other physical health conditions, well-being and self-management of their MSK problem.Acceptability of the service: overall patients and healthcare professionals were satisfied with the service and its provision within the Practice. Patients reported wanting increased appointment availability and flexibility, and more sessions. Complementary therapy practitioners reported finding the high number of referrals of chronic patients challenging, and wanting increased communication with GPs.","yes. The bilateral ablation of NAc by stereotactic neurosurgery was a feasible method for alleviating psychological dependence on opiate drugs and preventing a relapse. Long-term follow-up suggested that surgery can improve the personality and psychopathological profile of opiate addicts with a trend towards normal levels, provided persistent abstinence can be maintained; relapse, on the other hand, may ruin this effect.","It was shown that one session of acupuncture treatment results in acute improvements in pressure pain sensitivity in the neck and calf of patients with chronic WAD. Acupuncture had no effect on conditioned pain modulation or temporal summation of pressure pain. Both acupuncture and relaxation appear to be well-tolerated treatments for people with chronic WAD. These findings suggest that acupuncture treatment activates endogenous analgesia in patients with chronic WAD.","yes. EA on PC6 is effective in the prevention of PONV, and pre-operative acupuncture is more effective than post-operative acupuncture.","yes. A reduced error-related negativity measured during the first week of treatment was associated with more days of cocaine use at 3-month follow-up. Moreover, the error-related negativity was a stronger predictor of recent cocaine use than addiction severity and craving. These results suggest that underactive error-related brain activity might help to identify patients who are at risk of relapse as early as in the first week of detoxification treatment.","The treatment of cocaine-related acute coronary syndromes presents unique challenges. Although percutaneous coronary intervention in cocaine abusers appears to be safe in the short term, longer-term outcomes have not been reported. We postulated that cocaine use would be associated with increased risk for stent thrombosis. We report 30-day and 9-month clinical outcomes including stent thrombosis, myocardial infarction, repeat revascularization, and death in 71 cocaine abusers who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention at our institution (66 of whom received a stent) compared with 3216 control patients. Propensity score-matched analysis was performed to control for statistical bias present in nonrandomized study populations. Stent thrombosis occurred in 5 (7.6%) of the 66 stented cocaine abusers during the 9-month follow-up period compared to a 0.6% rate of stent thrombosis in the control database, a highly statistically significant difference (P < .001). In the propensity analysis, stent thrombosis occurred in 4 stented cocaine abusers and 0 of 70 matched controls (6.2% vs 0%; P = .04) throughout the 9-month follow-up period. There was no significant difference in overall rates of myocardial infarction, death, or repeat revascularization at 9 months.","Acupuncture has been shown to influence skin perfusion and the subjective cold perception threshold. Therefore, we hypothesized that auricular electroacupuncture (EA) might reduce symptoms in primary Raynaud's phenomenon (PRP). Twenty-six patients with PRP received 6 cycles of auricular EA. After 3, 6 and 24 weeks attack frequency and severity were reevaluated using standardized questionnaires and a visual analogue scale (VAS). Skin temperature was assessed by infrared thermography and laser Doppler perfusion imaging was used to determine skin perfusion. Compared to baseline we found a significant reduction of attack frequency after 3 (p = 0.001) and 6 weeks (p < 0.001) of auricular EA. This improvement sustained following cessation of EA, after 24 weeks (p < 0.001). Furthermore, attack associated pain was reduced after 3 (p = 0.003), 6 (p = 0.003) and 24 weeks (p = 0.001) of treatment, while skin temperature and skin perfusion did not change significantly throughout the study period.","yes. These results indicate that BV injection at specific acupuncture points effectively alleviates AD-like skin lesions by inhibiting inflammatory and allergic responses in a TMA-induced contact hypersensitivity mouse model.","Cocaine abuse continues to be a significant public health problem associated with morbidity and mortality. To date, no pharmacotherapeutic approach has proven effective for treating cocaine use disorders. Preclinical and clinical evidence suggests that noradrenergic activity may play a role in mediating some effects of cocaine and may be a rational target for treatment. This double blind, placebo-controlled randomized, parallel group, 12-week outpatient clinical trial enrolled cocaine dependent individuals seeking treatment to examine the potential efficacy of the selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, atomoxetine (80 mg/day; p.o.; n = 25), compared to placebo (n = 25). Subjects were initially stratified on cocaine use (< 15 days or ≥ 15 days of the last 30), age and race using urn randomization. Attendance, medication adherence and study compliance were reinforced with contingency management, and weekly counseling was offered. An array of measures (vital signs, laboratory chemistries, cognitive and psychomotor tests, cocaine craving and urine samples for drug testing) was collected throughout the study and at follow-up. Survival analysis revealed no differences in study retention between the two groups, with approximately 56% of subjects completing the 12-week study (Cox analysis χ(2) = .72; p = .40; Hazard Ratio 1.48 [95% CI 0.62-3.39]). GEE analysis of the proportion of urine samples positive for benzoylecgonine, a cocaine metabolite, revealed no differences between the atomoxetine and placebo groups (χ(2) = 0.2, p = .66; OR = 0.89 [95% CI 0.41-1.74]). Atomoxetine was generally well tolerated in this population.","yes. There are not enough evidences to approve that the effect of acupuncture-moxibustion and Tuina massage on sub-health is better than that of other therapies. Therefore, more high quality randomized controlled trials with strict and scientific designation are necessary for obtaining more and better evidences.","yes. Intraoperative P6 acupuncture point stimulation with a conventional nerve stimulator during surgery significantly reduced the incidence of PONV over 24 h. The efficacy of P6 stimulation is similar to that of commonly used antiemetic drugs in the prevention of PONV.","yes. Acupuncture appears to be a safe, effective, and durable treatment in improving symptoms in, and the quality of life of, men with chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome refractory to treatment. A larger controlled study is required to confirm these encouraging initial results.","Auricular acupuncture is effective in reducing vomiting following transabdominal cholecystectomy in female patients.","no. Although chronic cocaine exposure has been shown to increase isoflurane minimum alveolar concentration by 25% in sheep; chronic cocaine exposure does not result in tolerance of the cardiovascular depression produced by isoflurane.","Usage of nonpharmacological treatment contributes to an overall patient well-being, assisting in physical and emotional healing. Acupuncture has been reported to be useful in reducing early postoperative vomiting (POV) and attenuating postoperative pain.AIM: The aim of this study was to compare the effect of dexamethasone vs acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 on the incidence and severity of POV in children undergoing tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy. One hundred and twenty children, ASA I-III aged 2-8 years undergoing elective tonsillectomy were included in this prospective randomized double-blind study. Children were randomly divided into two equal groups (60 each). At induction of anesthesia, the dexamethasone group received 0.15 mg·kg(-1) dexamethasone IV plus sham acupuncture, and the acupuncture group received acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 plus 2 ml of normal saline IV. Vomiting was recorded at 0-6, 6-24, and 0-24 h postoperatively. There was no difference in the incidence of vomiting between the acupuncture and dexamethasone groups. The mean difference in time to first oral intake (95% CI) was 4.3 (0.5-8.6) min between dexamethasone group and acupuncture group; P = 0.426. The mean difference in time until first vomit (95% CI) was 12 (9.5-13.8) min between both groups. No significant differences between Kaplan-Meier curves for time until first vomit (log-rank test) were obtained (P = 0.697).","yes. EA given at classical acupoint ST-36 alleviates stress-induced visceral pain, which is most likely mediated by opioid pathways in the periphery.","yes. We conclude that there is an increased prevalence of vasospasm in aSAH patients with recent cocaine exposure but no difference in clinical outcome. In addition, these patients are younger and more likely to have anterior circulation aneurysms.","yes. These findings, provided they can be extrapolated to abstinent human addicts, suggest therapeutic potential for the selective 5-HT2C agonist in preventing cue-controlled cocaine-seeking and relapse.","yes. The present results demonstrated that levels of AMPK gene expression in the rat hypothalamus determine the individual differences in the sensitivity to EA analgesia. Thus, our findings provide a clinically useful evidence for the application of acupuncture or EA for analgesia.","A control treatment in acupuncture research must be credible, regardless if the needling is performed by one or by several therapists. To investigate if individuals could identify whether needling had been given with an acupuncture needle or a sham needle and if the therapist influenced this ability. Eighty individuals were randomized to one single needling given by one of four physiotherapists using either an invasive needle or a non-penetrating telescopic sham needle. An equal proportion of individuals, 27 (68%), in the acupuncture group and the sham group answered incorrectly or was not sure at all regarding needling type but the proportion varied between the therapists from 55 to 80% (ns). Bang's blinding index was 0.20 (95% CI 0.03-0.36) in the acupuncture group and 0.10 (95% CI 0.09-0.29) in the sham group (interpretation: 20 and 10% identified needling type beyond statistical chance). Acupuncture was on a four-grade scale rated as median \"mildly painful\" and sham as \"not painful\" (ns). Pain ratings varied from median \"not\" to \"mildly painful\" in the therapists (p = 0.01).","Opioid agonist therapy (OAT) through addiction specialty clinic settings (clinic-based OAT) using methadone or buprenorphine or office-based settings using buprenorphine (office-based OAT) is an evidence-based treatment for opioid dependence. The low number of clinic-based OATs available to veterans (N = 53) presents a barrier to OAT access; thus, the expansion in office-based OAT has been encouraged. To examine trends in office-based OAT utilization over time and whether availability of office-based OAT improved the proportion of veterans with opioid use disorders treated with OAT. We examined Veterans Health Administration (VHA) administrative data for evidence of buprenorphine prescribing and clinic-based OAT clinic stops from October 2003 through September 2010 [fiscal years (FY) 2004-2010]. The number of patients receiving buprenorphine increased from 300 at 27 facilities in FY2004 to 6147 at 118 facilities in FY2010. During this time, the number of patients diagnosed with an opioid use disorder increased by 45%; however, the proportion of opioid use disorder patients receiving OAT remained relatively stable, ranging from 25% to 27%.","Capsicum plaster at classical Chinese acupoints is an alternative to acupuncture, which has been used as an effective method for preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting, sore throat, and pain. In this study, we investigated the postoperative analgesic efficacy of capsicum plaster at Hegu (LI 4) acupoints in patients after bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy. A double-blind, sham-controlled study was conducted with 84 patients undergoing orthognathic surgery, and who were randomly assigned to three treatment regimens (n = 28 each): Hegu group = capsicum plaster at Hegu acupoints and placebo tape on the shoulders as a nonacupoint; sham group = capsicum plaster on the shoulders and placebo tape at Hegu acupoints; and control group = placebo tape at Hegu acupoints and on the shoulders. The capsicum plaster was applied before induction of anesthesia and maintained for 8 h per day for 3 postoperative days. The total amount of patient-controlled analgesia, containing 6.5 microg/mL fentanyl and 1.2 mg/mL ketorolac, administered in the first 24 h after the operation was decreased in the Hegu group (26.8 +/- 3.4 mL) compared with the control (44.2 +/- 7.3 mL) and sham (42.1 +/- 6.9 mL) groups (P < 0.01). The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting and the need for rescue medication were reduced, and the overall satisfaction score was greater in the Hegu group compared with other groups (P < 0.01).","yes. Stimulation of the P6 acupoint with capsicum plaster is an effective method for prevention of PONV after middle ear surgery and its efficacy is comparable to ondansetron for the first six hours after surgery.","yes. P6 stimulation may be beneficial for various conditions involving nausea and vomiting. The added value to modern antiemetics remains unclear. In patients on chemotherapy, future research should focus on patients for whom the problems are refractory. The next steps in research should include investigating whether acupuncture points added to P6 or individualizing treatment based on a Traditional Chinese Medicine diagnosis increases treatment effectiveness. It would also be worthwhile to identify predictors of response across the different conditions so that the individual patients can optimize acupuncture point therapy.","yes. Incentives delivered contingent on submitting cocaine-free urine specimens significantly improve treatment outcome in ambulatory cocaine-dependent patients.","Our results did not show agreements between patients' reported musculoskeletal pain regions and tender zones in the external ears assessed according to commonly used maps in auricular acupuncture using a pressure stylus. However, very tender points occur on the external ear in a population with chronic musculoskeletal pain.","yes. Acupuncture may be a viable adjunct to pharmacological approaches for pain management after THR or TKR.","Prescription drug abuse and illicit drug use are common in chronic pain patients. Adherence monitoring with screening tests, and urine drug testing, periodic monitoring with prescription monitoring programs, has become a common practice in recent years. Random drug testing for appropriate use of opioids and use of illicit drugs is often used in pain management practices. Thus, it is expected that random urine drug testing will deter use of illicit drugs, and also improve compliance. To study the prevalence of illicit drug use in patients receiving opioids for chronic pain management and to compare the results of illicit drug use with the results from a previous study. A prospective, consecutive study. Interventional pain management practice setting in the United States. A total of 500 consecutive patients on opioids, considered to be receiving stable doses of opioids supplemental to their interventional techniques, were studied by random drug testing. Testing was performed by rapid drug screen. Results were considered positive if one or more of the monitored illicit drugs including cocaine, marijuana (THC), methamphetamine or amphetamines were present. Illicit drug use was evident in 80 patients, or 16%, with marijuana in 11%, cocaine in 5%, and methamphetamine and/or amphetamines in 2%. When compared with previous data, the overall illicit drug use was significantly less. Illicit drug use in elderly patients was absent.","The urine of a patient admitted for chest and epigastric pain tested positive for cocaine using an immunoassay-based drug screening method (positive/negative cutoff concentration 150 ng/mL). Despite the patient's denial of recent cocaine use, this positive cocaine screening result in conjunction with a remote history of drug misuse impacted the patient's recommended pain therapy. Specifically, these factors prompted the clinical team to question the appropriateness of opioids and other potentially addictive therapeutics during the treatment of cancer pain from previously undetected advanced pancreatic carcinoma. After pain management and clinical pathology consultation, it was decided that the positive cocaine screening result should be confirmed by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) testing. This more sensitive and specific analytical technique revealed that both cocaine and its primary metabolite benzoylecgonine were undetectable (i.e., less than the assay detection limit of 50 ng/mL), thus indicating that the positive urine screening result was falsely positive. With this confirmation, the pain management service team was reassured in offering intrathecal pump (ITP) therapy for pain control. ITP implantation was well tolerated, and the patient eventually achieved excellent pain relief. However, ITP therapy most likely would not have been utilized without the GC-MS confirmation testing unless alternative options failed and extensive vigilant monitoring was initiated.","Acupuncture-naïve and exposed participants both reported different perceptions of real and sham acupuncture using a blindfolded toothpick protocol. This suggests that future trials should carefully monitor participant perceptions of treatments received, even for naïve individuals. Differences between groups further suggest that participants with significant and/or recent exposure to real acupuncture may introduce bias to blinded clinical acupuncture trials.","yes. This study demonstrates that BV acupuncture produces a significant antinociception without nociceptive behavior in rodents, which is mediated by capsaicin-insensitive afferents and involves activation of central adrenergic circuits. These results further suggest that BV stimulation into this acupuncture point might be a valuable alternative to traditional electrical or mechanical acupoint stimulation.","P6 acupuncture in adults is reported to be an effective preventive treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). It is not clear, however, whether this technique is effective as a preventive treatment for PONV in children. Children undergoing anesthesia and surgery were randomized to four groups: (a) intravenous saline + bilateral P6 acupoint injections (n = 50); (b) intravenous droperidol + bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 49); (c) intravenous saline + bilateral sham point injections (n = 43); (d) intravenous saline +bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 45). The perioperative anesthetic technique was standardized in all subjects. The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) was evaluated in postanesthesia care unit (PACU) and 24 h after surgery. Incidence of nausea in the PACU was significantly lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (32% vs. 56%, P = 0.029) and P6 sham group (32% vs. 64%, P = 0.002) but not as compared with the droperidol group (32% vs. 46%, P = ns). Similarly, subjects in the acupoint group had a significantly lower incidence of vomiting in the PACU as compared with the sham point group (12% vs. 33%, P = 0.026) and P6 sham group (12% vs. 31%, P = 0.029) but not as compared with the droperidol group (12% vs. 18%, P = ns). The combined incidence of early PONV was also lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (P = 0.045) and P6 sham group (P = 0.004) but not as compared with the droperidol group (42% vs. 51%, P = ns). Finally, significantly fewer subjects in the acupoint group required intravenous ondansetron as an initial rescue therapy (P = 0.024). At 24 h after surgery, however, the incidence of late PONV was similar among the four study groups (P = ns).","yes. Offering treatment for opioid dependence with buprenorphine in a primary care practice is associated with the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions.","yes. Acupuncture or pharmacopuncture were equally effective as morphine or carprofen to control postoperative pain in bitches undergoing ovariohysterectomy.","We treated the acupuncture pneumothorax by making a choice between the closed thoracostomy and the percutaneous chest drainage based on a smoking history and chest radiographic findings. In the absence of smoking history and pulmonary emphysema or bullae, we got favorable results, not by the closed thoracostomy but only by the percutaneous chest drainage with a narrow-bore central venous catheter.","Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) are still common and distressing problems after general anesthesia, especially in patients undergoing abdominal hysterectomy. We studied a nonpharmacological therapy of PONV-capsicum plaster (PAS)-at either the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 or the Chinese acupuncture point Pericardium 6 (P6) of both hands. One-hundred-sixty healthy patients were included in a randomized, double-blinded study: 60 patients were in the control group, 50 patients were in the K-D2 group, and 50 patients were in the P6 group. PAS was applied at the K-D2 point in the K-D2 group and at the P6 point in the P6 group, whereas in the control group, an inactive tape was fixed at the K-D2 point of both hands. The PAS was applied before the induction of anesthesia and removed at 8 h after surgery. The incidence of PONV and the need for rescue medication were evaluated at predetermined time intervals. In the treatment group, the incidence of vomiting was significantly less (22% for the K-D2 group and 26% for the P6 group) than in the control group (56.7%) at 24 h after surgery (P < 0.001). The need for rescue antiemetics was significantly less in the treatment groups compared with the control group (P < 0.001). We conclude that PAS at the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 was an effective method for reducing PONV, as was PAS at the P6 acupoint, after abdominal hysterectomy.","yes. These results demonstrated that the inhibitory effect of the acupuncture stimulation to HT7 on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization was closely associated with the suppression of dopamine biosynthesis and its activity in the post-synaptic neurons in nucleus accumbens and striatum. It means that the behavioral effect of the acupuncture can originate from the modulation of the same neuronal mechanism in the central dopaminergic system as in the morphine-induced behavioral sensitization. This modulation was also strictly confined to the stimulation of the specific acupoint, because the stimulation to other acupoint (TE5) on another meridian did not show the modulating effect despite being relatively close to each other. It can be therefore suggested that the acupuncture stimulation has an acupoint-specific property, and might be a useful therapeutic alternative with few side effects for treating morphine addiction.","Given the risks of opioid medications, nonpharmacological strategies should be considered for total joint replacement patients. We investigated acupuncture as an adjunct therapy for postsurgical pain management in a total joint replacement program by examining which total hip and knee replacement patients elected to receive acupuncture and the effect of acupuncture on short-term pain. A total joint replacement program using fast-track physiotherapy offered elective postsurgical acupuncture to all patients, at no additional cost, as an adjunct therapy to opioids for pain management. The Joint Replacement Center at Abbott Northwestern Hospital, a 630-bed teaching and specialty hospital in Minneapolis, Minnesota from 2010 to 2012. Our sample included 2,500 admissions of total hip (THR) and total knee replacement (TKR) patients. Self-reported pain was assessed before and after acupuncture using a 0-10 scale and categorized as none/mild (0-4) and moderate/severe pain (5-10). Seventy-five percent of admissions included acupuncture. Women (Odds Ratio: 1.48, 95% Confidence Interval (CI): 1.22, 1.81) had higher odds of receiving acupuncture compared to men, and nonwhite patients (Odds Ratio: 0.55, 95% CI: 0.39, 0.78) had lower odds of receiving acupuncture compared to white patients. Average short-term pain reduction was 1.91 points (95% CI: 1.83, 1.99), a 45% reduction from the mean prepain score. Forty-one percent of patients reported moderate/severe pain prior to receiving acupuncture, while only 15% indicated moderate/severe pain after acupuncture.","yes. The clinical facilitation of both cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery in patients given acupuncture under sevoflurane anesthesia is associated with increased plasma levels of adrenaline, possibly reflecting sympathetic activation.","yes. Bufei Yishen granule and acupoint sticking can improve pulmonary function and lung pathological impairment in COPD rats, the curative effect of the combination is better than acupoint sticking or aminophylline only.","no. Application of acupressure wristbands at the P6 of both forearms 30 min before induction of anesthesia did not decrease the incidence of PONV in patients undergoing endoscopic urological procedures.","yes. The rate of data completion met our predefined criterion for determining a randomized trial to be feasible (at least 75% of patients tolerated the intervention and provided evaluable data). This novel intervention is acceptable to patients undergoing thoracotomy and does not interfere with standard preoperative care. There was no evidence of important adverse events. We are now testing the hypothesis that acupuncture significantly adds to standard perioperative pain management in a randomized trial.","To detect the effect of capsicum plasters on bilateral HT 7 acupoints for decreasing Emergence agitation (EA) in pediatric patients undergoing tonsillectomy and/or adenoidectomy. Emergence agitation with its incidence of 10% to 80% may have deleterious effects in postoperative period. Children may harm themselves and/or care providers who require extra nursing care and additional sedatives and/or analgesics that may cause a delay in discharge from hospital. The studies dealt with the potential benefits of the use of adjuvant drugs have yielded controversial results. Some may have side effects as well as the absence of a positive effect on EA. Fifty patients undergoing elective adenoidectomy and/or tonsillectomy who aged between 2 and 10 were included to the study. Patients were divided into two groups, and capsicum plasters (acupuncture) or inactive plasters (sham) were applied on bilateral HT 7 points preoperatively. Pain, emergence agitation, and side effects were evaluated for 15 min postoperatively. Incidence of EA (PAED scale) (28.0% vs 60.0) and postoperative side effects was lower in acupuncture group than in sham group while there was no significant difference in the severity of EA between groups. Duration of recovery was shorter in acupuncture group. Pain scores (CHEOPS scale) were comparable between groups. EA patients were noted to have greater age and more retching than non-EA patients. Postoperative side effects such as retching, laryngospasm, and vomiting were seen more frequently in the patients with EA.","yes. Our data indicates that the inhalation of buprenorphine has occurred in a significant minority of Australian OST clients. The motivations, contexts and potential health consequences of buprenorphine use by these atypical routes of administration, particularly in a correctional setting, warrant further exploration.","yes. The study indicates that the prevalence of significant coronary stenoses is high in asymptomatic young and middle-aged African American chronic cocaine users. These findings emphasize the importance of aggressive reduction of risk factors, including vitamin D deficiency in this population.","These results demonstrate that the non-toxic cocaine abusing patient can be administered general anaesthesia with no greater risk than comparable age and ASA matched drug-free patients.","Evidence suggests that electroacupuncture (EA) protects against arrhythmia and myocardial injury induced by myocardial ischaemia-reperfusion. However, to our knowledge, it remains unknown whether EA could alleviate bupivacaine-induced cardiotoxicity. Therefore, we aimed to explore the effect of EA pretreatment on bupivacaine-induced cardiac arrest and outcomes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in rats. 24 adult male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly divided into two groups: EA (n=12), and minimal acupuncture (MA) (n=12). Rats in both groups were needled at bilateral PC6, ST36, and ST40. Needles in the EA group were electrically stimulated for 60 min. ECG and invasive arterial blood pressure measurements were recorded. Two hours after EA or MA, 10 mg/kg bupivacaine was infused intravenously at a rate of 5 mg/kg/min in all rats. Rats suffering cardiac arrest were immediately subjected to CPR. At the end of the experiment, arterial blood samples were taken from surviving rats for blood gas analysis. The time from bupivacaine infusion until 20% prolongation of the QRS and QT interval, and the time to cardiac arrest, were notably increased among the rats pretreated with EA. Moreover, EA pretreatment significantly improved mean arterial pressure and heart rate at all monitored points after bupivacaine infusion. The proportion of animals surviving was higher in the EA group (9/12) than the MA group (3/12) at the end of experiment (p=0.039).","Psychiatric comorbidity can adversely affect opioid dependence treatment outcomes. While the prevalence of psychiatric comorbidity among patients seeking methadone maintenance treatment has been documented, the extent to which these findings extend to patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment is unclear. To determine the prevalence of mood and substance use disorders among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment, via cross sectional survey. 237 consecutive patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment were evaluated using modules from the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I). Current (past 30 days) and past diagnoses were cataloged separately. Patients ranged in age from 18 to 62 years old (M=33.9, SD=9.9); 173 (73%) were men; 197 (83%) were white. Major depression was the most prevalent mood disorder (19% current, 24% past). A minority of patients met criteria for current dysthymia (6%), past mania (1%), or past hypomania (2%). While 37 patients (16%) met criteria for current abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (7% cocaine, 4% alcohol, 4% cannabis, 2% sedatives, 0.4% stimulants, 0.4% polydrug), 168 patients (70%) percent met criteria for past abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (43% alcohol, 38% cannabis, 30% cocaine, 9% sedatives, 8% hallucinogens, 4% stimulants, 1% polydrug, and 0.4% other substances).","When auricular acupuncture is applied to reduce discomfort during hysteroscopy, particular attention must be paid when choosing the points/areas to be stimulated, which are not only those indicated in the Chinese or French maps.","yes. These findings suggest that bee venom acupuncture has a preventive and therapeutic effect on methamphetamine-induced addiction.","yes. The neuroimaging results of our study suggest that in future acupuncture research; the prefrontal cortex as well as the precentral gyrus should be treated for symptoms of Parkinson's disease and that GB 34 seems to be a suitable acupoint. Moreover, acupuncture evoked different brain activations in patients with Parkinson's disease than in healthy participants in our study, stressing the importance of conducting acupuncture studies on both healthy participants as well as patients within the same study, in order to detect acupuncture efficacy.","To determine if acupuncture-exposed and naïve participants differ in their perceptions of real and sham acupuncture under blinded conditions. The setting was an outpatient clinic at the Colorado School of Traditional Chinese Medicine. Participants were between the ages of 18 and 90 years. Acupuncture-exposed participants had at least five prior acupuncture treatments, with one treatment in the month prior to the study date. Acupuncture-naïve participants had experienced no prior acupuncture treatments. Participants with dementia, cognitive impairment, or neuropathy were excluded. In total, 61 acupuncture-exposed and 59 acupuncture-naïve participants were blindfolded and received either real acupuncture or toothpick sham acupuncture treatment. Following treatment, participants completed a questionnaire rating the realness of the acupuncture and were asked how they made this determination. We used a previously developed scale rating treatments from 1 (definitely real needle) to 5 (definitely imitation needle) to assess outcome. Perceptions of the real treatment were rated as more real than sham treatments for all participants. Further analysis revealed that prior acupuncture exposure did not influence ratings of real treatments, but exposed participants rated sham treatments as significantly less real than naïve participants.","The cholinergic and opioid systems play important roles in modulating inflammation. This study tests whether auricular acupuncture (AA) produces anti-inflammatory effects via opioid and peripheral cholinergic receptors in a rat model. Rats were anesthetized with chloral hydrate and inflammation was induced by intraplantar injection of carrageenan. Electroacupuncture was performed at auricular points bilaterally. The severity of inflammation was assessed using changes in paw volume and thermal and mechanical pain thresholds of the rats during recovery from anesthesia. Electroacupuncture at selected auricular acupoints significantly reduced paw edema and mechanical hyperalgesia, with no significant effect on thermal hyperalgesia. The anti-edematous and analgesic effects of AA were abolished by blockade of peripheral cholinergic muscarinic receptors with methyl atropine. Blockade of local muscarinic receptors at the inflamed site with a small dose of atropine also antagonized the anti-edematous effect of AA. By contrast, systemic opioid receptor blockade with naloxone did not antagonize the anti-inflammatory effects of AA.","The objective of this study was to analyse whether auricular acupuncture, acupuncture at the outer ear, could reduce state anxiety before dental treatment. This prospective, randomised patient-blinded study with 182 patients compared anxiety before dental treatment following auricular acupuncture at the relaxation-, tranquillizer- and master cerebral points (auricular acupuncture group) versus acupuncture at sham points (finger-, shoulder- and tonsil points; sham group) and a non-intervention control group. Anxiety was assessed using the Spielberger State Trait Anxiety Inventory (German version) before auricular acupuncture and 20 min thereafter, immediately before dental treatment. Auricular acupuncture reduced state anxiety score more effectively from 54.7 ± 10.8 to 46.9 ± 10.4 (mean ± SD) than sham acupuncture from 51.9 ± 10.2 to 48.4 ± 10.0. In contrast, state anxiety in the control group increased from 51.0 ± 11.7 to 54.0 ± 11.6 (mean increase +3.0; CI +4.7 to +1.2). The decrease in state anxiety in both intervention groups was statistically significant (p < 0.001) when compared to the non-intervention control group. After correcting for group differences in baseline state anxiety, the reduction in anxiety was -7.3 score points (CI -9.0 to -5.6) in the auricular acupuncture group and -3.7 score points (CI -5.4 to -1.9) in the sham group (p = 0.008).","Given the significant health harms associated with intravenous buprenorphine use (e.g. vein damage, abscesses and infections, precipitated withdrawal, blood-borne virus transmission, hospitalization and death), routine monitoring of the misuse of buprenorphine in Melbourne is warranted. These results suggest the need for development of effective countermeasures to address diversion and injection of buprenorphine in this setting.","Commonly, cocaine abusing patient are scheduled for elective surgery with a positive urine test for cocaine metabolites. As many of these patients were clinically non-toxic [normal arterial pressure and heart rate, normothermic, and a normal (or unchanged from previous) ECG, including a QTc interval<500 ms], we have recently proceeded with elective surgery requiring general anaesthesia in this patient group. Forty urine cocaine positive patients were compared with an equal number of drug-free controls in a prospective, non-randomized, blinded analysis. Intraoperative mean arterial blood pressure, ST segment analysis, heart rate and body temperature were recorded and compared. Cardiovascular stability during and after general anaesthesia in cocaine positive, non-toxic patients was not significantly different when compared with an age and ASA matched drug-free control group.","Although acupuncture is most commonly used for its analgesic effect, it has also been used to treat various drug addictions including cocaine and morphine in humans. This study was designed to investigate the effect of bee venom injection on methamphetamine-induced addictive behaviors including conditioned place preference and hyperlocomotion in mice. Methamphetamine (1 mg/kg) was subcutaneously treated on days 1, 3 and 5 and the acquisition of addictive behaviors was assessed on day 7. After confirming extinction of addictive behaviors on day 17, addictive behaviors reinstated by priming dose of methamphetamine (0.1 mg/kg) was evaluated on day 18. Bee venom (20 microl of 1 mg/ml in saline) was injected to the acupuncture point ST36 on days 1, 3 and 5. Repeated bee venom injections completely blocked development of methamphetamine-induced acquisition and subsequent reinstatement. Single bee venom acupuncture 30 minutes before acquisition and reinstatement test completely inhibited methamphetamine-induced acquisition and reinstatement. Repeated bee venom acupunctures from day 8 to day 12 after methamphetamine-induced acquisition partially but significantly suppressed reinstatement.","yes. Continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM significantly decreases pain intensity and significantly improves psychological well-being, activity, and sleep in chronic cervical pain patients.","Auricular acupuncture (AA) has been shown to alleviate acute and chronic pain. We investigated the effects of auricular electroacupuncture (AE) on pain and analgesic drug consumption in the first 48 h after unilateral mandibular third molar tooth extraction under local anesthesia in a prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study in 149 patients. Patients received either AA with electrical stimulation (AE, n = 76) or without (AA, n = 37) electrical stimulation at an alternating frequency of 2/100 Hz or a sham AE with metal plates instead of needles and no electrical stimulation, no-needle (NN, n = 36) at the AA points 1 (tooth), 55 (Shen men) and 84 (mouth) during the entire study period. Regularly rated pain intensity (five-point verbal rating scale), consumption of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets and additional rescue medication with mefenamic acid 500 mg were assessed. The median fraction of time when pain was rated as moderate or worse (upper and lower quartile): AE: 33% (12%, 64%), AA: 22% (6%, 56%), NN: 30% (7%, 53%) did not differ significantly among the treatment groups. There were no significant differences in mean number of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets (range): AE: 5.2 (0-12), AA: 4.6 (0-11), NN: 5.4 (0-10) or percentage of patients requiring additional mefenamic acid: AE: 19%, AA: 18%, NN: 19%.","yes. Auricular acupuncture, a minimally invasive method, effectively reduces state anxiety before dental treatment.","To find the efficacy of auricular acupuncture for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting after cholecystectomy. One hundred (100) female patients undergoing transabdominal cholecystectomy were randomly allocated to two groups of 50 (auricular acupuncture treatment group and nontreatment group) in order to test the effectiveness of auricular acupuncture. Statistical significance (p<0.05) was determined using an unpaired t-test for age, weight, height, and duration of anesthesia; a chi-square test was used to analyze the incidence of vomiting. There was no significant difference in age, weight, height, or duration of anesthesia among the two groups of patients. There was a significant difference between the control and auricular acupuncture treatment groups in the incidence of vomiting 24 hours after surgery (66% and 0%, respectively, p<0.01). No noteworthy side effects from treatment were observed.","In this prospective, randomized, double-blinded, controlled study, we tested the hypothesis that auricular electroacupuncture relieves pain more effectively than conventional manual auricular acupuncture. We studied 21 chronic cervical pain patients without radicular symptoms with insufficient pain relief (visual analogue scale >5) treated with standardized analgesic therapy. All patients received disposable acupuncture needles on the dominant side on the following acupuncture points: cervical spine, shen men, and cushion. In 10 patients, needles were continuously stimulated (2-mA constant current, 1 Hz monophasic) by using the electrical point stimulation device P-STIM. In 11 control patients, no electrical stimulation was administered. All needles were withdrawn 48 h after insertion. Acupuncture was performed once a week for 6 wk. Patients had to complete a questionnaire assessing pain intensity, psychological well-being, activity, sleep, and demand for rescue medication (lornoxicam and tramadol). The reduction in pain scores was significant in the electrical acupuncture group. Similarly, psychological well-being, activity, and sleep were significantly improved in patients receiving electrical acupuncture, and consumption of rescue medication was significantly less. These results demonstrate that continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM improves the treatment of chronic cervical pain in an outpatient population.","Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.","To compare findings from two consecutive clinical trials of auricular acupuncture for cocaine addiction conducted at the same site in order to explore consistency of treatment effects. One hundred and sixty-five (165) cocaine-dependent, methadone-maintained patients (study 1, n = 82; study 2, n = 83). Subjects in both studies were randomly assigned to auricular acupuncture, a needle insertion control condition, or a no-needle relaxation control. Treatment sessions were offered five times weekly for 8 weeks. The two studies were equivalent in design, except that unlike study 1, study 2 offered subject payments for attendance and did not include weekly group counseling. Cocaine use assessed by three times weekly urine screens constituted the primary outcome. Secondary measures included retention in treatment, treatment attendance, treatment credibility, therapeutic alliance, and acute effects of treatments. Intent-to-treat analysis showed that patients assigned to acupuncture in study 1, but not in study 2, were significantly more likely to provide cocaine-negative urine samples relative to the two control conditions.","These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed."],"string":"[\n \"Among the illicit stimulants, cocaine and amphetamines are the most widely abused. Although these drugs have similar psychoactive properties and routes of administration, their duration of action and mechanism of action are different, as are the psychiatric problems that accompany their use. The authors explored whether these differences and results of urine drug testing were associated with differences in use of psychiatric inpatient services. The records of 2,357 patients admitted to a large county psychiatric emergency service were examined to determine whether patients admitted for amphetamine-related or cocaine-related disorders differed in rates of transfer to an inpatient psychiatric ward or in length of stay on the ward after transfer. The authors also examined whether positive or negative results of urine drug screens predicted transfer or length of stay. Patients with amphetamine-related disorders were more than a third more likely than patients with cocaine-related disorders to be transferred to the inpatient ward. Patients with negative urine screens were a third more likely than those with positive screens to be transferred and stayed slightly longer on the ward after transfer. Patients with cocaine-related disorders stayed slightly longer on the ward than patients with amphetamine-related disorders.\",\n \"To investigate the effect of ischemic compression (IC) versus placebo and control on reducing postneedling soreness of 1 latent myofascial trigger point and on improving cervical range of motion (CROM) in asymptomatic subjects. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial with 72-hour follow-up. A university community. Asymptomatic volunteers (N = 90: 40 men and 50 women) aged 18 to 39 years (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: 22 ± 3 years). All subjects received a dry needling application over the upper trapezius muscle. Participants were then randomly divided into 3 groups: a treatment group who received IC over the needled trapezius muscle, a placebo group who received sham IC, and a control group who did not receive any treatment after needling. Visual analog scale (VAS; during needling, at posttreatment and 6, 12, 24, 48, and 72 hours) and CROM (at preneedling, postneedling, and 24 and 72 hours). Subjects in the IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness than the placebo and the control group subjects immediately after treatment (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: IC, 20.1 ± 4.8; placebo, 36.7 ± 4.8; control, 34.8 ± 3.6) and at 48 hours (mean ± SD: IC, 0.6 ± 1; placebo, 4.8 ± 1; control, 3.8 ± 0.7). In addition, subjects in the dry needling+IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness duration (P = .026). All subjects significantly improved CROM in contralateral lateroflexion and both homolateral and contralateral rotations, but only the improvements found in the IC group reached the minimal detectable change.\",\n \"We investigated the efficacy of electroacupuncture in reducing the duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after laparoscopic surgery for colorectal cancer. We performed a prospective study of 165 patients undergoing elective laparoscopic surgery for colonic and upper rectal cancer, enrolled from October 2008 to October 2010. Patients were assigned randomly to groups that received electroacupuncture (n = 55) or sham acupuncture (n = 55), once daily from postoperative days 1-4, or no acupuncture (n = 55). The acupoints Zusanli, Sanyinjiao, Hegu, and Zhigou were used. The primary outcome was time to defecation. Secondary outcomes included postoperative analgesic requirement, time to ambulation, and length of hospital stay. Patients who received electroacupuncture had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received no acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 122.1 ± 53.5 h; P < .001) and length of hospital stay (6.5 ± 2.2 vs 8.5 ± 4.8 days; P = .007). Patients who received electroacupuncture also had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received sham acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 107.5 ± 46.2 h; P = .007). Electroacupuncture was more effective than no or sham acupuncture in reducing postoperative analgesic requirement and time to ambulation. In multiple linear regression analysis, an absence of complications and electroacupuncture were associated with a shorter duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after the surgery.\",\n \"Buprenorphine is an effective treatment for opioid dependence that can be provided in a primary care setting. Offering this treatment may also facilitate the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions. We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of 168 patients who presented to a primary care clinic for treatment of opioid dependence and who received a prescription for sublingual buprenorphine within a month of their initial visit. Of the 168 new patients, 122 (73%) did not report having an established primary care provider at the time of the initial visit. One hundred and twenty-five patients (74%) reported at least one established chronic condition at the initial visit. Of the 215 established diagnoses documented on the initial visit, 146 (68%) were not being actively treated; treatment was initiated for 70 (48%) of these within one year. At least one new chronic medical condition was identified in 47 patients (28%) during the first four months of their care. Treatment was initiated for 39 of the 54 new diagnoses (72%) within the first year.\",\n \"Acupuncture is a form of Eastern medicine that has been practiced for centuries. Despite its long history and worldwide application, the biological mechanisms of acupuncture in relieving pain have been poorly defined. Recent studies in mice, however, demonstrate that acupuncture triggers increases in interstitial adenosine, which reduces the severity of chronic pain through adenosine A1 receptors, suggesting that adenosine-mediated antinociception contributes to the clinical benefits of acupuncture. We asked here whether acupuncture in human subjects is also linked to a local increase in interstitial adenosine concentration. We collected microdialysis samples of interstitial fluid before, during, and after delivering 30 minutes of conventional acupuncture in the Zusanli point in human subjects. The interstitial adenosine concentration increased significantly during acupuncture and remained elevated for 30 minutes after the acupuncture. Acupuncture-mediated adenosine release was not observed if acupuncture was not delivered in the Zusanli point or if the acupuncture needle was inserted, but not rotated. This study strengthens the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by directly providing such evidence in humans.\",\n \"Transdermal formulations of buprenorphine offer controlled delivery of buprenorphine for sustained analgesic efficacy with reduced adverse events (AEs) compared with the other modes of administration. A buprenorphine transdermal system (BTDS) delivering 5, 10, or 20 mcg/hour for seven days is now marketed in the U.S. as Butrans(®) (Lohmann Therapie-System AG, Andernach Germany), a Schedule III single-entity opioid analgesic indicated for the management of moderate and chronic pain in patients requiring continuous around-the-clock analgesia for an extended period. This was a randomized open-label study in healthy subjects to characterize the steady-state buprenorphine pharmacokinetics after the delivery of three consecutive seven-day BTDS applications. Thirty-seven subjects were randomized to receive three consecutive BTDS 10 mcg/hour (BTDS 10) patches applied to the deltoid or upper back for seven days each. Blood samples for buprenorphine concentration measurements were taken. Safety was assessed using recorded AEs, clinical laboratory test results, vital signs, pulse oximetry, physical examinations, and electrocardiograms. Patch adhesion assessments were taken. Analysis of Cmin demonstrated that steady state was reached during the first BTDS 10 application. No significant difference in Cmin was observed across the three applications. Total and peak plasma buprenorphine exposures were similar after each of the seven-day administrations of BTDS.\",\n \"yes. Fentanyl injection of small dose at auricular points achieves definite analgesic effect on procedural pain in dressing changes of burn wounds, superior to subcutaneous injection of fentanyl.\",\n \"yes. Our study suggests that a potential mechanism by which acupuncture has an antihypertensive effect and can significantly halt deteriorating renal function due to cBSA GN might be mediated by inhibiting the Erk1/2 MAPK pathway to reduce renal sympathetic nerve activity (RSNA).\",\n \"As buprenorphine treatment and illicit buprenorphine use increase, many patients seeking buprenorphine treatment will have had prior experience with buprenorphine. Little evidence is available to guide optimal treatment strategies for patients with prior buprenorphine experience. We examined whether prior buprenorphine experience was associated with treatment retention and opioid use. We also explored whether type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed or illicit use) was associated with these treatment outcomes. We analyzed interview and medical record data from a longitudinal cohort study of 87 individuals who initiated office-based buprenorphine treatment. We examined associations between prior buprenorphine experience and 6-month treatment retention using logistic regression models, and prior buprenorphine experience and any self-reported opioid use at 1, 3, and 6 months using nonlinear mixed models. Most (57.4%) participants reported prior buprenorphine experience; of these, 40% used prescribed buprenorphine and 60% illicit buprenorphine only. Compared with buprenorphine-naïve participants, those with prior buprenorphine experience had better treatment retention (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 2.65, 95% CI = 1.05-6.70). Similar associations that did not reach significance were found when exploring prescribed and illicit buprenorphine use. There was no difference in opioid use when comparing participants with prior buprenorphine experience with those who were buprenorphine-naive (AOR = 1.33, 95% CI = 0.38-4.65). Although not significant, qualitatively different results were found when exploring opioid use by type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 2.20, 95% CI = 0.58-8.26; illicit buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 0.47, 95% CI = 0.07-3.46).\",\n \"A pilot study to document changes in symptoms after acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care in patients with incurable cancer. Patients receiving palliative care with estimated survival of at least 3 months were screened with the Edmonton Symptom Assessment System (ESAS). Patients (n=20) with significant symptoms were randomised to receive weekly acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care for 4 weeks. ESAS scores were obtained before and after each treatment, and weekly for 6 weeks after treatment by telephone. 42 of 170 patients screened were eligible. 20 gave consent for recruitment. The compliance rate was 90% for acupuncture and 80% for nurse-led supportive care. Total symptom scores were reduced by an average of 22% after each acupuncture visit and by 14% after each supportive care visit. Compared with baseline, ESAS scores at the end of the follow-up period were reduced by 19% for the acupuncture arm and 26% for nurse-led supportive care.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy of acupressure wristbands in the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Two hundred ASA I-II patients undergoing elective endoscopic urological procedures were included in a randomized, prospective, double blind, placebo-controlled study. Spherical beads of acupressure wristbands were placed at the P6 points in the anterior surface of both forearms in Group I patients (acupressure group, n = 100) whereas, in Group 2 (control group, n = 100) they were placed inappropriately on the posterior surface. The acupressure wristbands were applied 30 min before induction of anesthesia and were removed six hours postoperatively. Anesthesia was induced with thiopental and maintained with nitrous oxide and oxygen, fentanyl, isoflurane and vecuronium. The tracheas were extubated on the operation table after patients received neostigmine and atropine. Post operative nausea and vomiting were evaluated separately as none, mild, moderate or severe at the time of patient's arrival in PACU, then at six hours and twenty-four hours after surgery by a blinded observer. In the acupressure group, 25 patients had PONV compared with 29 patients in the control group (P = NS).\",\n \"We tested the hypothesis that electro-acupuncture at the Zusanli, Yanglingquan, and Kunlun acupuncture points on the legs decreases anesthetic requirement. Fourteen young, healthy volunteers were anesthetized with desflurane on two separate days. Needle electrodes were positioned at the three acupuncture points thought to produce a generalized sedative and analgesic effect. Needles were percutaneously placed on treatment days; on control days, they were insulated and taped near the insertion points. The electrodes were stimulated on the treatment day. Stimulation consisted of 2-Hz and 100-Hz currents alternated at 2-s intervals. When the end-tidal desflurane concentration of 5.5% was stable for 15 min, noxious electrical stimuli were administered via 25-gauge needles on both thighs (70 mA at 100 Hz for 10 s). Desflurane concentration was increased 0.5% when movement occurred and decreased 0.5% when it did not. An investigator, blinded to treatment, determined movement. These up-and-down sequences were continued until volunteers crossed from movement to no movement four times. A logistic regression determined the partial pressure of desflurane that produced a 50% likelihood of movement in response to noxious stimulation and consequently identified the minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalent for desflurane. There was no significant difference in minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalents between the electro-acupuncture (4.6% +/- 0.6%, mean +/- SD) and control (4.6% +/- 0.8%) days (P = 0.8). These data provided an 80% power for detecting a difference of 0.35 volume-percent between the groups.\",\n \"In anesthetized patients, electro-acupuncture (EA) has been found to reduce sevoflurane-induced suppression of cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery without influencing the level of anesthesia. The underlying mechanisms are unclear. In the present study, blood samples were analyzed to evaluate if the increased clinical motor responses to surgery in patients subjected to EA under sevoflurane anesthesia are also reflected in higher plasma levels of catecholamines, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), or cortisol. Blood samples were obtained before anesthetic induction, soon after the study or control procedures had been completed under general anesthesia, and after 30 minutes of surgery under steady-state anesthesia with 1.8% of sevoflurane, in 45 healthy female patients, scheduled for sterilization by laparoscopy, randomized for bilateral 2 Hz-burst EA (study group; n = 22) or control (control group; n = 23) procedures. Plasma levels of adrenaline were found to approach the higher preanesthetic level after 30 minutes of surgery in patients given EA stimulation but to remain low in control patients (P < 0.05)-in agreement with the stronger clinical motor responses to skin incision in the EA group. Plasma levels of noradrenaline, ACTH, and cortisol did not change in or differ between the two groups.\",\n \"To compare the analgesic effect of uni- and bi-lateral electroacupuncture (EA) in response to thermal and mechanical nociceptive stimuli and to investigate the cardiorespiratory, endocrine, and behavioral changes in dogs submitted to EA. Prospective, randomized cross-over experimental study. Eight adult, clinically healthy, cross-breed dogs, weighing 13 +/- 4 kg. Dogs underwent electrostimulation at false acupoints (T-false); bilateral EA at acupoints, stomach 36, gall bladder 34 and spleen 6 (T-EA/bil); unilateral EA at the same points (T-EA/uni) or were untreated (T-control). All animals received acepromazine (0.05 mg kg(-1)) IV; and heart rate, pulse oximetry, indirect arterial blood pressure, respiratory rate, Pe'CO(2), rectal temperature, and plasma cortisol concentration were measured before, during, and after EA. Analgesia was tested using thoracic and abdominal cutaneous thermal and mechanical stimuli, and an interdigital thermal stimulus. Behavior was classified as calm or restless. Analysis of variance for repeated measures followed by Tukey's test was used for analysis of the data. There were no cardiorespiratory differences among the treatments. The cutaneous pain threshold was higher after EA, compared with false points. The latency period was shorter and analgesia was more intense in T-EA/bil than T-EA/uni, when both were compared with T-false and T-control. Six out of eight animals treated with EA were calm during treatment, and 5/8 and 4/8 of the T-false and T-control animals, respectively, were restless. Latency to interdigital thermal stimulation increased in T-EA/bil compared with the others. There was no difference in plasma cortisol concentrations among the treatments.\",\n \"Although a number of studies on traditional eastern or Chinese medicine, such as acupuncture, moxibustion, and herbal drugs, have been reported, few reports describe electroacupuncture (EAC) effects on drug- and alcohol-seeking behaviors in animal models. The purpose of the present study was to investigate the effect of EAC on changes in alcohol-drinking behavior in rats challenged with restriction and immobilization stress. Male Sprague Dawley rats (260-280 g) were tightly hung and immobilized in restriction models for 10 min. These immobilization stresses were performed twice a week for 1 week and for 3 consecutive weeks for the short- and long-restricted stress groups, respectively. EAC was applied for 10 min to the hindlimb point, Tsu-San-Li (ST 36), and the lumbar point, Shen-Shu (BL 23). These points are used to treat mental and psychosomatic disorders and are known clinically to produce a sedation effect. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior was determined at 24 hr after the termination of EAC. Finally, brain dopamine (DA) levels were assayed in the two groups. A sham-control group underwent only restricted stress without EAC. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior increased significantly in the long-restricted group compared with the short-restricted group and controls. EAC applied to the ST 36 (Tsu-San-Li) point suppressed the increased alcohol-drinking behavior in restricted rats. However, EAC applied to the Shen-Shu (BL 23) point was not effective, because alcohol-drinking behavior was significantly increased in long-restricted rats compared with short-restricted rats. Striatal DA levels of restricted rats with EAC stimulated at Tsu-San-Li were increased significantly compared with the rats with EAC applied to the Shen-Shu point.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of acupuncture to the acupuncture point HT7 (Sinmun) on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization and the neuronal changes in nucleus accumbens and striatum in rats. Male Sprague-Dawley rats were given repeated injections of morphine hydrochloride for 5 days followed by 3 day withdrawal and one challenge injection. The acupuncture treatment was performed for 1 minute once a day for 3 days of withdrawal period and its effect on morphine-induced changes of locomotor activity and Fos expression was examined. The acupuncture stimulation to HT7 significantly suppressed the morphine-induced increases in the locomotor activity and Fos expression in the nucleus accumbens and striatum, as compared to the controls of non-acupoint or the acupoint on other meridian.\",\n \"Contingency management (CM) reduces drug use, but questions remain regarding optimal targets and magnitudes of reinforcement. We evaluated the efficacy of CM reinforcing attendance in patients who initiated treatment with cocaine-negative samples, and of higher magnitude abstinence-based CM in patients who began treatment positive. Initially cocaine-negative patients (n = 333) were randomized to standard care (SC), SC + CM reinforcing submission of negative samples with $250 in prizes ($250Abs), or SC + CM reinforcing attendance ($250Att). Initially cocaine-positive patients (n = 109) were randomized to SC, $250Abs, or higher magnitude CM ($560Abs). For initially cocaine-negative patients, $250Abs and $250Att were equally efficacious to SC in enhancing longest duration of abstinence (LDA); $250Att patients submitted lower proportions of negative samples when missing samples were considered missing, but these patients also attended more study sessions, provided more samples, and submitted a higher proportion of negative samples than SC patients when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. In initially cocaine-positive patients, both CM conditions increased proportions of negative samples relative to SC when missing samples were excluded from analyses, but only $560Abs was efficacious in increasing LDA and proportion of negative samples when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. Follow-ups revealed no differences among groups, but LDA was consistently associated with abstinence during follow-up, p < .05.\",\n \"To examine indicators of buprenorphine diversion and injection among injecting drug users in Melbourne, Australia and to determine the factors associated with buprenorphine injection. Melbourne arm of the 2002 Illicit Drug Reporting System (IDRS) cross-sectional study. Five Needle and Syringe Programme sites in Melbourne, Australia. A total of 156 current injecting drug users (IDU). Study eligibility criteria were at least monthly injection during the previous 6 months, and Melbourne residence for at least the preceding 12 months. Structured questionnaire covering demographic characteristics, drug use history, the price, purity and availability of drugs, criminal activity, risk-taking behaviours, health-related issues and general drug use trends. Over one-third (37%) of the study sample reported injecting buprenorphine in their life-time and 33% reported injecting the drug in the last 6 months. Recent buprenorphine injection was associated with the injection of other drug types (i.e. polydrug injectors), opioid substitution treatment, injection-related health problems and involvement in crime. Almost half (47%) of those who reported recent buprenorphine injection reported obtaining the drug illicitly at least once during that time.\",\n \"Although acupuncture is effective for treating several conditions, its site specificity is questionable. To investigate whether acupuncture influences the brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP). 10 healthy volunteers were enrolled according to inclusion criteria. One of four acupuncture points-TE3, GB43 (both auditory system-specific, according to traditional Chinese medicine) and non-specific acupuncture points HT7 and ST44-was needled during each session. Each volunteer received four sessions of acupuncture, with a 1-week interval between the sessions. Peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP were registered before and during each session of acupuncture. Pain intensity and the incidence of paraesthesia (Qi sensation) during acupuncture were also registered. The peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP registered during acupuncture had not changed from the baseline levels. Needling of acupoint HT7 was most painful and induced the maximal incidence of Qi sensation.\",\n \"Buprenorphine has shown limited success to date as a bridge to HCV treatment within an HIV clinic. Buprenorphine's stabilization of opioid dependence and HIV disease may permit the use of HCV therapy over time.\",\n \"yes. Mood and substance use comorbidity is prevalent among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment. The findings support the need for clinicians to assess and address these conditions.\",\n \"yes. In CUD participants at risk of early relapse, increased pHp basal activity and pHp-PCC circuit strength may reflect the propensity for heightened reactivity to cocaine cues and persistent cocaine-related ruminations. Mechanisms to mute hyperactivated brain regions and delink dysregulated neural circuits may prove useful to prevent relapse in patients with CUD.\",\n \"Buprenorphine is associated with enhanced human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) treatment outcomes including increased antiretroviral therapy initiation rates, adherence, and CD4 cell counts among HIV-infected opioid-dependent individuals. Buprenorphine facilitates hepatitis C virus (HCV) treatment in opioid-dependent patients with HCV monoinfection. Less is known about buprenorphine's role in HIV/HCV coinfection. We conducted a retrospective chart review to evaluate HCV care for HIV-infected buprenorphine patients in the first 4 years of buprenorphine's integration into a Rhode Island HIV clinic. Sixty-one patients initiated buprenorphine. All had HCV antibody testing; 57 (93%) were antibody-positive. All antibody-positive patients underwent HCV RNA testing; 48 (84%) were RNA-positive. Of these, 15 (31%) were not referred to HCV care. Among chronically infected patients, 3 received HCV treatment after buprenorphine; all had cirrhosis and none achieved viral eradication. At buprenorphine induction, most patients had inadequately controlled HIV infection, with detectable HIV RNA (59%) or CD4 cell count less than or equal to 350/μL (38%).\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that TCI in auricle skin using PC plus CT in BALB/c mice is a simple approach for induction of systemic and mucosal immune responses that are shifted in the Th2 direction.\",\n \"yes. High magnitude abstinence-based reinforcement improved all abstinence outcomes in patients who began treatment while using cocaine. For patients initiating treatment abstinent, both attendance- and abstinence-based CM resulted in improvements on some measures.\",\n \"yes. Guanfacine improves selective cognitive processes which may underlie salient treatment-related regulatory behaviors. Alpha2 agonists may therefore represent important agents for cocaine dependence.\",\n \"yes. Because of the increased risk of stent thrombosis, consideration should be given to a more conservative approach in cocaine abusers who present with acute coronary syndromes.\",\n \"yes. This article presents further evidence of the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by demonstrating that local adenosine concentrations increase in the acupoint in human subjects receiving traditional acupuncture.\",\n \"Severe burn injury has been demonstrated to delay gastric emptying. The aim of this study was to investigate effects and cellular mechanisms of auricular electroacupuncture (AEA) at the acupoints innervated by the auricular branch of vagus nerve on burn-induced gastric dysmotility in rats. Propranolol (β-adrenoceptor antagonist) was injected intraperitoneally after the rats underwent burn injury. All experiments were performed 6 h following burn/sham burn injury. AEA was performed at bilateral auricular acupoints for 45 min. Electrocardiogram was recorded for 30 min. Plasma hormones were measured; cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 expressions in gastric tissue were measured using western blotting and real-time RT-PCR. (i) Burn injury delayed gastric emptying (p = 0.006) and AEA increased gastric emptying by 49% (p = 0.045). (ii) Burn injury evoked a significant elevation in plasma noradrenaline, which was suppressed by AEA. (iii) Burn injury significantly increased protein and mRNA expressions of COX-2 in gastric fundus and antrum. AEA suppressed burn-induced increase in protein expressions, but not mRNA expressions of COX-2.\",\n \"For most graduates of IOPs, the combination of brief weekly telephone therapeutic contacts and a support group in the first month produced outcomes that are as good as those obtained in more intensive face-to-face continuing care interventions. However, patients with current dependence on both alcohol and cocaine who make little progress towards achieving the central goals of IOP may have better outcomes if they receive twice-weekly group counseling following IOP.\",\n \"yes. BLC stimulation is sufficient to reinstate cocaine-seeking behavior in the rat. These results are congruent with the hypothesis that the basolateral complex of the amygdala is part of a neural system mediating drug-seeking behavior.\",\n \"yes. These results demonstrate that viral transfer of CocH may be useful in promoting long-term resistance to relapse to cocaine addiction.\",\n \"The results showed the beneficial effects of buprenorphine maintenance treatment in improving the QOL of opioid-dependent subjects at nine month follow up. These results point towards the need for an expanded nation-wide provision of buprenorphine maintenance treatment as a harm reduction strategy for the opioid dependent population.\",\n \"Spinal manipulation and acupuncture can be helpful in reducing the symptoms of musculoskeletal (MSK) pain. Both approaches are currently recommended by NICE as treatment options for patients with persistent low back pain. However, there has been no previous evaluation of a GP service using them together for MSK pain. The purpose of this study was to evaluate acceptability and outcomes for an osteopathy and acupuncture service (delivered by complementary therapy practitioners) for patients with MSK problems provided within a General Practice. Patients were asked to complete a questionnaire before and after their course of treatment. Outcome measures included the Bournemouth Questionnaire (measuring MSK problems), EuroQoL-5D (measuring quality of life), medication use, physical activity and general well-being. Non-parametric tests were used to compare pre- and post- treatment variables. Qualitative data, regarding participants' views on the service, were collected from patients via a service survey and healthcare professionals via interviews. Qualitative data were analysed using thematic analysis. 123 adults with MSK problems were referred into the service (79 female and 44 male, mean age 49 years). Complete patient questionnaire data sets (pre- and post- treatment) were available for 102 participants; 91 completed a service survey. All healthcare professionals involved in the service participated in interviews including all seven GPs and the administration manager at the practice, as well as the three acupuncture/osteopathy practitioners. Patient outcomes: comparisons between pre and post-treatment revealed a statistically significant improvement in MSK pain (p<0.0001) and quality of life (p<0.0001), and a statistically significant reduction in medication use (p<0.0001). Qualitative analysis found that patients reported improvements in their MSK pain, mobility, other physical health conditions, well-being and self-management of their MSK problem.Acceptability of the service: overall patients and healthcare professionals were satisfied with the service and its provision within the Practice. Patients reported wanting increased appointment availability and flexibility, and more sessions. Complementary therapy practitioners reported finding the high number of referrals of chronic patients challenging, and wanting increased communication with GPs.\",\n \"yes. The bilateral ablation of NAc by stereotactic neurosurgery was a feasible method for alleviating psychological dependence on opiate drugs and preventing a relapse. Long-term follow-up suggested that surgery can improve the personality and psychopathological profile of opiate addicts with a trend towards normal levels, provided persistent abstinence can be maintained; relapse, on the other hand, may ruin this effect.\",\n \"It was shown that one session of acupuncture treatment results in acute improvements in pressure pain sensitivity in the neck and calf of patients with chronic WAD. Acupuncture had no effect on conditioned pain modulation or temporal summation of pressure pain. Both acupuncture and relaxation appear to be well-tolerated treatments for people with chronic WAD. These findings suggest that acupuncture treatment activates endogenous analgesia in patients with chronic WAD.\",\n \"yes. EA on PC6 is effective in the prevention of PONV, and pre-operative acupuncture is more effective than post-operative acupuncture.\",\n \"yes. A reduced error-related negativity measured during the first week of treatment was associated with more days of cocaine use at 3-month follow-up. Moreover, the error-related negativity was a stronger predictor of recent cocaine use than addiction severity and craving. These results suggest that underactive error-related brain activity might help to identify patients who are at risk of relapse as early as in the first week of detoxification treatment.\",\n \"The treatment of cocaine-related acute coronary syndromes presents unique challenges. Although percutaneous coronary intervention in cocaine abusers appears to be safe in the short term, longer-term outcomes have not been reported. We postulated that cocaine use would be associated with increased risk for stent thrombosis. We report 30-day and 9-month clinical outcomes including stent thrombosis, myocardial infarction, repeat revascularization, and death in 71 cocaine abusers who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention at our institution (66 of whom received a stent) compared with 3216 control patients. Propensity score-matched analysis was performed to control for statistical bias present in nonrandomized study populations. Stent thrombosis occurred in 5 (7.6%) of the 66 stented cocaine abusers during the 9-month follow-up period compared to a 0.6% rate of stent thrombosis in the control database, a highly statistically significant difference (P < .001). In the propensity analysis, stent thrombosis occurred in 4 stented cocaine abusers and 0 of 70 matched controls (6.2% vs 0%; P = .04) throughout the 9-month follow-up period. There was no significant difference in overall rates of myocardial infarction, death, or repeat revascularization at 9 months.\",\n \"Acupuncture has been shown to influence skin perfusion and the subjective cold perception threshold. Therefore, we hypothesized that auricular electroacupuncture (EA) might reduce symptoms in primary Raynaud's phenomenon (PRP). Twenty-six patients with PRP received 6 cycles of auricular EA. After 3, 6 and 24 weeks attack frequency and severity were reevaluated using standardized questionnaires and a visual analogue scale (VAS). Skin temperature was assessed by infrared thermography and laser Doppler perfusion imaging was used to determine skin perfusion. Compared to baseline we found a significant reduction of attack frequency after 3 (p = 0.001) and 6 weeks (p < 0.001) of auricular EA. This improvement sustained following cessation of EA, after 24 weeks (p < 0.001). Furthermore, attack associated pain was reduced after 3 (p = 0.003), 6 (p = 0.003) and 24 weeks (p = 0.001) of treatment, while skin temperature and skin perfusion did not change significantly throughout the study period.\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that BV injection at specific acupuncture points effectively alleviates AD-like skin lesions by inhibiting inflammatory and allergic responses in a TMA-induced contact hypersensitivity mouse model.\",\n \"Cocaine abuse continues to be a significant public health problem associated with morbidity and mortality. To date, no pharmacotherapeutic approach has proven effective for treating cocaine use disorders. Preclinical and clinical evidence suggests that noradrenergic activity may play a role in mediating some effects of cocaine and may be a rational target for treatment. This double blind, placebo-controlled randomized, parallel group, 12-week outpatient clinical trial enrolled cocaine dependent individuals seeking treatment to examine the potential efficacy of the selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, atomoxetine (80 mg/day; p.o.; n = 25), compared to placebo (n = 25). Subjects were initially stratified on cocaine use (< 15 days or ≥ 15 days of the last 30), age and race using urn randomization. Attendance, medication adherence and study compliance were reinforced with contingency management, and weekly counseling was offered. An array of measures (vital signs, laboratory chemistries, cognitive and psychomotor tests, cocaine craving and urine samples for drug testing) was collected throughout the study and at follow-up. Survival analysis revealed no differences in study retention between the two groups, with approximately 56% of subjects completing the 12-week study (Cox analysis χ(2) = .72; p = .40; Hazard Ratio 1.48 [95% CI 0.62-3.39]). GEE analysis of the proportion of urine samples positive for benzoylecgonine, a cocaine metabolite, revealed no differences between the atomoxetine and placebo groups (χ(2) = 0.2, p = .66; OR = 0.89 [95% CI 0.41-1.74]). Atomoxetine was generally well tolerated in this population.\",\n \"yes. There are not enough evidences to approve that the effect of acupuncture-moxibustion and Tuina massage on sub-health is better than that of other therapies. Therefore, more high quality randomized controlled trials with strict and scientific designation are necessary for obtaining more and better evidences.\",\n \"yes. Intraoperative P6 acupuncture point stimulation with a conventional nerve stimulator during surgery significantly reduced the incidence of PONV over 24 h. The efficacy of P6 stimulation is similar to that of commonly used antiemetic drugs in the prevention of PONV.\",\n \"yes. Acupuncture appears to be a safe, effective, and durable treatment in improving symptoms in, and the quality of life of, men with chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome refractory to treatment. A larger controlled study is required to confirm these encouraging initial results.\",\n \"Auricular acupuncture is effective in reducing vomiting following transabdominal cholecystectomy in female patients.\",\n \"no. Although chronic cocaine exposure has been shown to increase isoflurane minimum alveolar concentration by 25% in sheep; chronic cocaine exposure does not result in tolerance of the cardiovascular depression produced by isoflurane.\",\n \"Usage of nonpharmacological treatment contributes to an overall patient well-being, assisting in physical and emotional healing. Acupuncture has been reported to be useful in reducing early postoperative vomiting (POV) and attenuating postoperative pain.AIM: The aim of this study was to compare the effect of dexamethasone vs acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 on the incidence and severity of POV in children undergoing tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy. One hundred and twenty children, ASA I-III aged 2-8 years undergoing elective tonsillectomy were included in this prospective randomized double-blind study. Children were randomly divided into two equal groups (60 each). At induction of anesthesia, the dexamethasone group received 0.15 mg·kg(-1) dexamethasone IV plus sham acupuncture, and the acupuncture group received acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 plus 2 ml of normal saline IV. Vomiting was recorded at 0-6, 6-24, and 0-24 h postoperatively. There was no difference in the incidence of vomiting between the acupuncture and dexamethasone groups. The mean difference in time to first oral intake (95% CI) was 4.3 (0.5-8.6) min between dexamethasone group and acupuncture group; P = 0.426. The mean difference in time until first vomit (95% CI) was 12 (9.5-13.8) min between both groups. No significant differences between Kaplan-Meier curves for time until first vomit (log-rank test) were obtained (P = 0.697).\",\n \"yes. EA given at classical acupoint ST-36 alleviates stress-induced visceral pain, which is most likely mediated by opioid pathways in the periphery.\",\n \"yes. We conclude that there is an increased prevalence of vasospasm in aSAH patients with recent cocaine exposure but no difference in clinical outcome. In addition, these patients are younger and more likely to have anterior circulation aneurysms.\",\n \"yes. These findings, provided they can be extrapolated to abstinent human addicts, suggest therapeutic potential for the selective 5-HT2C agonist in preventing cue-controlled cocaine-seeking and relapse.\",\n \"yes. The present results demonstrated that levels of AMPK gene expression in the rat hypothalamus determine the individual differences in the sensitivity to EA analgesia. Thus, our findings provide a clinically useful evidence for the application of acupuncture or EA for analgesia.\",\n \"A control treatment in acupuncture research must be credible, regardless if the needling is performed by one or by several therapists. To investigate if individuals could identify whether needling had been given with an acupuncture needle or a sham needle and if the therapist influenced this ability. Eighty individuals were randomized to one single needling given by one of four physiotherapists using either an invasive needle or a non-penetrating telescopic sham needle. An equal proportion of individuals, 27 (68%), in the acupuncture group and the sham group answered incorrectly or was not sure at all regarding needling type but the proportion varied between the therapists from 55 to 80% (ns). Bang's blinding index was 0.20 (95% CI 0.03-0.36) in the acupuncture group and 0.10 (95% CI 0.09-0.29) in the sham group (interpretation: 20 and 10% identified needling type beyond statistical chance). Acupuncture was on a four-grade scale rated as median \\\"mildly painful\\\" and sham as \\\"not painful\\\" (ns). Pain ratings varied from median \\\"not\\\" to \\\"mildly painful\\\" in the therapists (p = 0.01).\",\n \"Opioid agonist therapy (OAT) through addiction specialty clinic settings (clinic-based OAT) using methadone or buprenorphine or office-based settings using buprenorphine (office-based OAT) is an evidence-based treatment for opioid dependence. The low number of clinic-based OATs available to veterans (N = 53) presents a barrier to OAT access; thus, the expansion in office-based OAT has been encouraged. To examine trends in office-based OAT utilization over time and whether availability of office-based OAT improved the proportion of veterans with opioid use disorders treated with OAT. We examined Veterans Health Administration (VHA) administrative data for evidence of buprenorphine prescribing and clinic-based OAT clinic stops from October 2003 through September 2010 [fiscal years (FY) 2004-2010]. The number of patients receiving buprenorphine increased from 300 at 27 facilities in FY2004 to 6147 at 118 facilities in FY2010. During this time, the number of patients diagnosed with an opioid use disorder increased by 45%; however, the proportion of opioid use disorder patients receiving OAT remained relatively stable, ranging from 25% to 27%.\",\n \"Capsicum plaster at classical Chinese acupoints is an alternative to acupuncture, which has been used as an effective method for preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting, sore throat, and pain. In this study, we investigated the postoperative analgesic efficacy of capsicum plaster at Hegu (LI 4) acupoints in patients after bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy. A double-blind, sham-controlled study was conducted with 84 patients undergoing orthognathic surgery, and who were randomly assigned to three treatment regimens (n = 28 each): Hegu group = capsicum plaster at Hegu acupoints and placebo tape on the shoulders as a nonacupoint; sham group = capsicum plaster on the shoulders and placebo tape at Hegu acupoints; and control group = placebo tape at Hegu acupoints and on the shoulders. The capsicum plaster was applied before induction of anesthesia and maintained for 8 h per day for 3 postoperative days. The total amount of patient-controlled analgesia, containing 6.5 microg/mL fentanyl and 1.2 mg/mL ketorolac, administered in the first 24 h after the operation was decreased in the Hegu group (26.8 +/- 3.4 mL) compared with the control (44.2 +/- 7.3 mL) and sham (42.1 +/- 6.9 mL) groups (P < 0.01). The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting and the need for rescue medication were reduced, and the overall satisfaction score was greater in the Hegu group compared with other groups (P < 0.01).\",\n \"yes. Stimulation of the P6 acupoint with capsicum plaster is an effective method for prevention of PONV after middle ear surgery and its efficacy is comparable to ondansetron for the first six hours after surgery.\",\n \"yes. P6 stimulation may be beneficial for various conditions involving nausea and vomiting. The added value to modern antiemetics remains unclear. In patients on chemotherapy, future research should focus on patients for whom the problems are refractory. The next steps in research should include investigating whether acupuncture points added to P6 or individualizing treatment based on a Traditional Chinese Medicine diagnosis increases treatment effectiveness. It would also be worthwhile to identify predictors of response across the different conditions so that the individual patients can optimize acupuncture point therapy.\",\n \"yes. Incentives delivered contingent on submitting cocaine-free urine specimens significantly improve treatment outcome in ambulatory cocaine-dependent patients.\",\n \"Our results did not show agreements between patients' reported musculoskeletal pain regions and tender zones in the external ears assessed according to commonly used maps in auricular acupuncture using a pressure stylus. However, very tender points occur on the external ear in a population with chronic musculoskeletal pain.\",\n \"yes. Acupuncture may be a viable adjunct to pharmacological approaches for pain management after THR or TKR.\",\n \"Prescription drug abuse and illicit drug use are common in chronic pain patients. Adherence monitoring with screening tests, and urine drug testing, periodic monitoring with prescription monitoring programs, has become a common practice in recent years. Random drug testing for appropriate use of opioids and use of illicit drugs is often used in pain management practices. Thus, it is expected that random urine drug testing will deter use of illicit drugs, and also improve compliance. To study the prevalence of illicit drug use in patients receiving opioids for chronic pain management and to compare the results of illicit drug use with the results from a previous study. A prospective, consecutive study. Interventional pain management practice setting in the United States. A total of 500 consecutive patients on opioids, considered to be receiving stable doses of opioids supplemental to their interventional techniques, were studied by random drug testing. Testing was performed by rapid drug screen. Results were considered positive if one or more of the monitored illicit drugs including cocaine, marijuana (THC), methamphetamine or amphetamines were present. Illicit drug use was evident in 80 patients, or 16%, with marijuana in 11%, cocaine in 5%, and methamphetamine and/or amphetamines in 2%. When compared with previous data, the overall illicit drug use was significantly less. Illicit drug use in elderly patients was absent.\",\n \"The urine of a patient admitted for chest and epigastric pain tested positive for cocaine using an immunoassay-based drug screening method (positive/negative cutoff concentration 150 ng/mL). Despite the patient's denial of recent cocaine use, this positive cocaine screening result in conjunction with a remote history of drug misuse impacted the patient's recommended pain therapy. Specifically, these factors prompted the clinical team to question the appropriateness of opioids and other potentially addictive therapeutics during the treatment of cancer pain from previously undetected advanced pancreatic carcinoma. After pain management and clinical pathology consultation, it was decided that the positive cocaine screening result should be confirmed by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) testing. This more sensitive and specific analytical technique revealed that both cocaine and its primary metabolite benzoylecgonine were undetectable (i.e., less than the assay detection limit of 50 ng/mL), thus indicating that the positive urine screening result was falsely positive. With this confirmation, the pain management service team was reassured in offering intrathecal pump (ITP) therapy for pain control. ITP implantation was well tolerated, and the patient eventually achieved excellent pain relief. However, ITP therapy most likely would not have been utilized without the GC-MS confirmation testing unless alternative options failed and extensive vigilant monitoring was initiated.\",\n \"Acupuncture-naïve and exposed participants both reported different perceptions of real and sham acupuncture using a blindfolded toothpick protocol. This suggests that future trials should carefully monitor participant perceptions of treatments received, even for naïve individuals. Differences between groups further suggest that participants with significant and/or recent exposure to real acupuncture may introduce bias to blinded clinical acupuncture trials.\",\n \"yes. This study demonstrates that BV acupuncture produces a significant antinociception without nociceptive behavior in rodents, which is mediated by capsaicin-insensitive afferents and involves activation of central adrenergic circuits. These results further suggest that BV stimulation into this acupuncture point might be a valuable alternative to traditional electrical or mechanical acupoint stimulation.\",\n \"P6 acupuncture in adults is reported to be an effective preventive treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). It is not clear, however, whether this technique is effective as a preventive treatment for PONV in children. Children undergoing anesthesia and surgery were randomized to four groups: (a) intravenous saline + bilateral P6 acupoint injections (n = 50); (b) intravenous droperidol + bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 49); (c) intravenous saline + bilateral sham point injections (n = 43); (d) intravenous saline +bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 45). The perioperative anesthetic technique was standardized in all subjects. The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) was evaluated in postanesthesia care unit (PACU) and 24 h after surgery. Incidence of nausea in the PACU was significantly lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (32% vs. 56%, P = 0.029) and P6 sham group (32% vs. 64%, P = 0.002) but not as compared with the droperidol group (32% vs. 46%, P = ns). Similarly, subjects in the acupoint group had a significantly lower incidence of vomiting in the PACU as compared with the sham point group (12% vs. 33%, P = 0.026) and P6 sham group (12% vs. 31%, P = 0.029) but not as compared with the droperidol group (12% vs. 18%, P = ns). The combined incidence of early PONV was also lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (P = 0.045) and P6 sham group (P = 0.004) but not as compared with the droperidol group (42% vs. 51%, P = ns). Finally, significantly fewer subjects in the acupoint group required intravenous ondansetron as an initial rescue therapy (P = 0.024). At 24 h after surgery, however, the incidence of late PONV was similar among the four study groups (P = ns).\",\n \"yes. Offering treatment for opioid dependence with buprenorphine in a primary care practice is associated with the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions.\",\n \"yes. Acupuncture or pharmacopuncture were equally effective as morphine or carprofen to control postoperative pain in bitches undergoing ovariohysterectomy.\",\n \"We treated the acupuncture pneumothorax by making a choice between the closed thoracostomy and the percutaneous chest drainage based on a smoking history and chest radiographic findings. In the absence of smoking history and pulmonary emphysema or bullae, we got favorable results, not by the closed thoracostomy but only by the percutaneous chest drainage with a narrow-bore central venous catheter.\",\n \"Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) are still common and distressing problems after general anesthesia, especially in patients undergoing abdominal hysterectomy. We studied a nonpharmacological therapy of PONV-capsicum plaster (PAS)-at either the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 or the Chinese acupuncture point Pericardium 6 (P6) of both hands. One-hundred-sixty healthy patients were included in a randomized, double-blinded study: 60 patients were in the control group, 50 patients were in the K-D2 group, and 50 patients were in the P6 group. PAS was applied at the K-D2 point in the K-D2 group and at the P6 point in the P6 group, whereas in the control group, an inactive tape was fixed at the K-D2 point of both hands. The PAS was applied before the induction of anesthesia and removed at 8 h after surgery. The incidence of PONV and the need for rescue medication were evaluated at predetermined time intervals. In the treatment group, the incidence of vomiting was significantly less (22% for the K-D2 group and 26% for the P6 group) than in the control group (56.7%) at 24 h after surgery (P < 0.001). The need for rescue antiemetics was significantly less in the treatment groups compared with the control group (P < 0.001). We conclude that PAS at the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 was an effective method for reducing PONV, as was PAS at the P6 acupoint, after abdominal hysterectomy.\",\n \"yes. These results demonstrated that the inhibitory effect of the acupuncture stimulation to HT7 on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization was closely associated with the suppression of dopamine biosynthesis and its activity in the post-synaptic neurons in nucleus accumbens and striatum. It means that the behavioral effect of the acupuncture can originate from the modulation of the same neuronal mechanism in the central dopaminergic system as in the morphine-induced behavioral sensitization. This modulation was also strictly confined to the stimulation of the specific acupoint, because the stimulation to other acupoint (TE5) on another meridian did not show the modulating effect despite being relatively close to each other. It can be therefore suggested that the acupuncture stimulation has an acupoint-specific property, and might be a useful therapeutic alternative with few side effects for treating morphine addiction.\",\n \"Given the risks of opioid medications, nonpharmacological strategies should be considered for total joint replacement patients. We investigated acupuncture as an adjunct therapy for postsurgical pain management in a total joint replacement program by examining which total hip and knee replacement patients elected to receive acupuncture and the effect of acupuncture on short-term pain. A total joint replacement program using fast-track physiotherapy offered elective postsurgical acupuncture to all patients, at no additional cost, as an adjunct therapy to opioids for pain management. The Joint Replacement Center at Abbott Northwestern Hospital, a 630-bed teaching and specialty hospital in Minneapolis, Minnesota from 2010 to 2012. Our sample included 2,500 admissions of total hip (THR) and total knee replacement (TKR) patients. Self-reported pain was assessed before and after acupuncture using a 0-10 scale and categorized as none/mild (0-4) and moderate/severe pain (5-10). Seventy-five percent of admissions included acupuncture. Women (Odds Ratio: 1.48, 95% Confidence Interval (CI): 1.22, 1.81) had higher odds of receiving acupuncture compared to men, and nonwhite patients (Odds Ratio: 0.55, 95% CI: 0.39, 0.78) had lower odds of receiving acupuncture compared to white patients. Average short-term pain reduction was 1.91 points (95% CI: 1.83, 1.99), a 45% reduction from the mean prepain score. Forty-one percent of patients reported moderate/severe pain prior to receiving acupuncture, while only 15% indicated moderate/severe pain after acupuncture.\",\n \"yes. The clinical facilitation of both cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery in patients given acupuncture under sevoflurane anesthesia is associated with increased plasma levels of adrenaline, possibly reflecting sympathetic activation.\",\n \"yes. Bufei Yishen granule and acupoint sticking can improve pulmonary function and lung pathological impairment in COPD rats, the curative effect of the combination is better than acupoint sticking or aminophylline only.\",\n \"no. Application of acupressure wristbands at the P6 of both forearms 30 min before induction of anesthesia did not decrease the incidence of PONV in patients undergoing endoscopic urological procedures.\",\n \"yes. The rate of data completion met our predefined criterion for determining a randomized trial to be feasible (at least 75% of patients tolerated the intervention and provided evaluable data). This novel intervention is acceptable to patients undergoing thoracotomy and does not interfere with standard preoperative care. There was no evidence of important adverse events. We are now testing the hypothesis that acupuncture significantly adds to standard perioperative pain management in a randomized trial.\",\n \"To detect the effect of capsicum plasters on bilateral HT 7 acupoints for decreasing Emergence agitation (EA) in pediatric patients undergoing tonsillectomy and/or adenoidectomy. Emergence agitation with its incidence of 10% to 80% may have deleterious effects in postoperative period. Children may harm themselves and/or care providers who require extra nursing care and additional sedatives and/or analgesics that may cause a delay in discharge from hospital. The studies dealt with the potential benefits of the use of adjuvant drugs have yielded controversial results. Some may have side effects as well as the absence of a positive effect on EA. Fifty patients undergoing elective adenoidectomy and/or tonsillectomy who aged between 2 and 10 were included to the study. Patients were divided into two groups, and capsicum plasters (acupuncture) or inactive plasters (sham) were applied on bilateral HT 7 points preoperatively. Pain, emergence agitation, and side effects were evaluated for 15 min postoperatively. Incidence of EA (PAED scale) (28.0% vs 60.0) and postoperative side effects was lower in acupuncture group than in sham group while there was no significant difference in the severity of EA between groups. Duration of recovery was shorter in acupuncture group. Pain scores (CHEOPS scale) were comparable between groups. EA patients were noted to have greater age and more retching than non-EA patients. Postoperative side effects such as retching, laryngospasm, and vomiting were seen more frequently in the patients with EA.\",\n \"yes. Our data indicates that the inhalation of buprenorphine has occurred in a significant minority of Australian OST clients. The motivations, contexts and potential health consequences of buprenorphine use by these atypical routes of administration, particularly in a correctional setting, warrant further exploration.\",\n \"yes. The study indicates that the prevalence of significant coronary stenoses is high in asymptomatic young and middle-aged African American chronic cocaine users. These findings emphasize the importance of aggressive reduction of risk factors, including vitamin D deficiency in this population.\",\n \"These results demonstrate that the non-toxic cocaine abusing patient can be administered general anaesthesia with no greater risk than comparable age and ASA matched drug-free patients.\",\n \"Evidence suggests that electroacupuncture (EA) protects against arrhythmia and myocardial injury induced by myocardial ischaemia-reperfusion. However, to our knowledge, it remains unknown whether EA could alleviate bupivacaine-induced cardiotoxicity. Therefore, we aimed to explore the effect of EA pretreatment on bupivacaine-induced cardiac arrest and outcomes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in rats. 24 adult male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly divided into two groups: EA (n=12), and minimal acupuncture (MA) (n=12). Rats in both groups were needled at bilateral PC6, ST36, and ST40. Needles in the EA group were electrically stimulated for 60 min. ECG and invasive arterial blood pressure measurements were recorded. Two hours after EA or MA, 10 mg/kg bupivacaine was infused intravenously at a rate of 5 mg/kg/min in all rats. Rats suffering cardiac arrest were immediately subjected to CPR. At the end of the experiment, arterial blood samples were taken from surviving rats for blood gas analysis. The time from bupivacaine infusion until 20% prolongation of the QRS and QT interval, and the time to cardiac arrest, were notably increased among the rats pretreated with EA. Moreover, EA pretreatment significantly improved mean arterial pressure and heart rate at all monitored points after bupivacaine infusion. The proportion of animals surviving was higher in the EA group (9/12) than the MA group (3/12) at the end of experiment (p=0.039).\",\n \"Psychiatric comorbidity can adversely affect opioid dependence treatment outcomes. While the prevalence of psychiatric comorbidity among patients seeking methadone maintenance treatment has been documented, the extent to which these findings extend to patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment is unclear. To determine the prevalence of mood and substance use disorders among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment, via cross sectional survey. 237 consecutive patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment were evaluated using modules from the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I). Current (past 30 days) and past diagnoses were cataloged separately. Patients ranged in age from 18 to 62 years old (M=33.9, SD=9.9); 173 (73%) were men; 197 (83%) were white. Major depression was the most prevalent mood disorder (19% current, 24% past). A minority of patients met criteria for current dysthymia (6%), past mania (1%), or past hypomania (2%). While 37 patients (16%) met criteria for current abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (7% cocaine, 4% alcohol, 4% cannabis, 2% sedatives, 0.4% stimulants, 0.4% polydrug), 168 patients (70%) percent met criteria for past abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (43% alcohol, 38% cannabis, 30% cocaine, 9% sedatives, 8% hallucinogens, 4% stimulants, 1% polydrug, and 0.4% other substances).\",\n \"When auricular acupuncture is applied to reduce discomfort during hysteroscopy, particular attention must be paid when choosing the points/areas to be stimulated, which are not only those indicated in the Chinese or French maps.\",\n \"yes. These findings suggest that bee venom acupuncture has a preventive and therapeutic effect on methamphetamine-induced addiction.\",\n \"yes. The neuroimaging results of our study suggest that in future acupuncture research; the prefrontal cortex as well as the precentral gyrus should be treated for symptoms of Parkinson's disease and that GB 34 seems to be a suitable acupoint. Moreover, acupuncture evoked different brain activations in patients with Parkinson's disease than in healthy participants in our study, stressing the importance of conducting acupuncture studies on both healthy participants as well as patients within the same study, in order to detect acupuncture efficacy.\",\n \"To determine if acupuncture-exposed and naïve participants differ in their perceptions of real and sham acupuncture under blinded conditions. The setting was an outpatient clinic at the Colorado School of Traditional Chinese Medicine. Participants were between the ages of 18 and 90 years. Acupuncture-exposed participants had at least five prior acupuncture treatments, with one treatment in the month prior to the study date. Acupuncture-naïve participants had experienced no prior acupuncture treatments. Participants with dementia, cognitive impairment, or neuropathy were excluded. In total, 61 acupuncture-exposed and 59 acupuncture-naïve participants were blindfolded and received either real acupuncture or toothpick sham acupuncture treatment. Following treatment, participants completed a questionnaire rating the realness of the acupuncture and were asked how they made this determination. We used a previously developed scale rating treatments from 1 (definitely real needle) to 5 (definitely imitation needle) to assess outcome. Perceptions of the real treatment were rated as more real than sham treatments for all participants. Further analysis revealed that prior acupuncture exposure did not influence ratings of real treatments, but exposed participants rated sham treatments as significantly less real than naïve participants.\",\n \"The cholinergic and opioid systems play important roles in modulating inflammation. This study tests whether auricular acupuncture (AA) produces anti-inflammatory effects via opioid and peripheral cholinergic receptors in a rat model. Rats were anesthetized with chloral hydrate and inflammation was induced by intraplantar injection of carrageenan. Electroacupuncture was performed at auricular points bilaterally. The severity of inflammation was assessed using changes in paw volume and thermal and mechanical pain thresholds of the rats during recovery from anesthesia. Electroacupuncture at selected auricular acupoints significantly reduced paw edema and mechanical hyperalgesia, with no significant effect on thermal hyperalgesia. The anti-edematous and analgesic effects of AA were abolished by blockade of peripheral cholinergic muscarinic receptors with methyl atropine. Blockade of local muscarinic receptors at the inflamed site with a small dose of atropine also antagonized the anti-edematous effect of AA. By contrast, systemic opioid receptor blockade with naloxone did not antagonize the anti-inflammatory effects of AA.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to analyse whether auricular acupuncture, acupuncture at the outer ear, could reduce state anxiety before dental treatment. This prospective, randomised patient-blinded study with 182 patients compared anxiety before dental treatment following auricular acupuncture at the relaxation-, tranquillizer- and master cerebral points (auricular acupuncture group) versus acupuncture at sham points (finger-, shoulder- and tonsil points; sham group) and a non-intervention control group. Anxiety was assessed using the Spielberger State Trait Anxiety Inventory (German version) before auricular acupuncture and 20 min thereafter, immediately before dental treatment. Auricular acupuncture reduced state anxiety score more effectively from 54.7 ± 10.8 to 46.9 ± 10.4 (mean ± SD) than sham acupuncture from 51.9 ± 10.2 to 48.4 ± 10.0. In contrast, state anxiety in the control group increased from 51.0 ± 11.7 to 54.0 ± 11.6 (mean increase +3.0; CI +4.7 to +1.2). The decrease in state anxiety in both intervention groups was statistically significant (p < 0.001) when compared to the non-intervention control group. After correcting for group differences in baseline state anxiety, the reduction in anxiety was -7.3 score points (CI -9.0 to -5.6) in the auricular acupuncture group and -3.7 score points (CI -5.4 to -1.9) in the sham group (p = 0.008).\",\n \"Given the significant health harms associated with intravenous buprenorphine use (e.g. vein damage, abscesses and infections, precipitated withdrawal, blood-borne virus transmission, hospitalization and death), routine monitoring of the misuse of buprenorphine in Melbourne is warranted. These results suggest the need for development of effective countermeasures to address diversion and injection of buprenorphine in this setting.\",\n \"Commonly, cocaine abusing patient are scheduled for elective surgery with a positive urine test for cocaine metabolites. As many of these patients were clinically non-toxic [normal arterial pressure and heart rate, normothermic, and a normal (or unchanged from previous) ECG, including a QTc interval<500 ms], we have recently proceeded with elective surgery requiring general anaesthesia in this patient group. Forty urine cocaine positive patients were compared with an equal number of drug-free controls in a prospective, non-randomized, blinded analysis. Intraoperative mean arterial blood pressure, ST segment analysis, heart rate and body temperature were recorded and compared. Cardiovascular stability during and after general anaesthesia in cocaine positive, non-toxic patients was not significantly different when compared with an age and ASA matched drug-free control group.\",\n \"Although acupuncture is most commonly used for its analgesic effect, it has also been used to treat various drug addictions including cocaine and morphine in humans. This study was designed to investigate the effect of bee venom injection on methamphetamine-induced addictive behaviors including conditioned place preference and hyperlocomotion in mice. Methamphetamine (1 mg/kg) was subcutaneously treated on days 1, 3 and 5 and the acquisition of addictive behaviors was assessed on day 7. After confirming extinction of addictive behaviors on day 17, addictive behaviors reinstated by priming dose of methamphetamine (0.1 mg/kg) was evaluated on day 18. Bee venom (20 microl of 1 mg/ml in saline) was injected to the acupuncture point ST36 on days 1, 3 and 5. Repeated bee venom injections completely blocked development of methamphetamine-induced acquisition and subsequent reinstatement. Single bee venom acupuncture 30 minutes before acquisition and reinstatement test completely inhibited methamphetamine-induced acquisition and reinstatement. Repeated bee venom acupunctures from day 8 to day 12 after methamphetamine-induced acquisition partially but significantly suppressed reinstatement.\",\n \"yes. Continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM significantly decreases pain intensity and significantly improves psychological well-being, activity, and sleep in chronic cervical pain patients.\",\n \"Auricular acupuncture (AA) has been shown to alleviate acute and chronic pain. We investigated the effects of auricular electroacupuncture (AE) on pain and analgesic drug consumption in the first 48 h after unilateral mandibular third molar tooth extraction under local anesthesia in a prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study in 149 patients. Patients received either AA with electrical stimulation (AE, n = 76) or without (AA, n = 37) electrical stimulation at an alternating frequency of 2/100 Hz or a sham AE with metal plates instead of needles and no electrical stimulation, no-needle (NN, n = 36) at the AA points 1 (tooth), 55 (Shen men) and 84 (mouth) during the entire study period. Regularly rated pain intensity (five-point verbal rating scale), consumption of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets and additional rescue medication with mefenamic acid 500 mg were assessed. The median fraction of time when pain was rated as moderate or worse (upper and lower quartile): AE: 33% (12%, 64%), AA: 22% (6%, 56%), NN: 30% (7%, 53%) did not differ significantly among the treatment groups. There were no significant differences in mean number of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets (range): AE: 5.2 (0-12), AA: 4.6 (0-11), NN: 5.4 (0-10) or percentage of patients requiring additional mefenamic acid: AE: 19%, AA: 18%, NN: 19%.\",\n \"yes. Auricular acupuncture, a minimally invasive method, effectively reduces state anxiety before dental treatment.\",\n \"To find the efficacy of auricular acupuncture for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting after cholecystectomy. One hundred (100) female patients undergoing transabdominal cholecystectomy were randomly allocated to two groups of 50 (auricular acupuncture treatment group and nontreatment group) in order to test the effectiveness of auricular acupuncture. Statistical significance (p<0.05) was determined using an unpaired t-test for age, weight, height, and duration of anesthesia; a chi-square test was used to analyze the incidence of vomiting. There was no significant difference in age, weight, height, or duration of anesthesia among the two groups of patients. There was a significant difference between the control and auricular acupuncture treatment groups in the incidence of vomiting 24 hours after surgery (66% and 0%, respectively, p<0.01). No noteworthy side effects from treatment were observed.\",\n \"In this prospective, randomized, double-blinded, controlled study, we tested the hypothesis that auricular electroacupuncture relieves pain more effectively than conventional manual auricular acupuncture. We studied 21 chronic cervical pain patients without radicular symptoms with insufficient pain relief (visual analogue scale >5) treated with standardized analgesic therapy. All patients received disposable acupuncture needles on the dominant side on the following acupuncture points: cervical spine, shen men, and cushion. In 10 patients, needles were continuously stimulated (2-mA constant current, 1 Hz monophasic) by using the electrical point stimulation device P-STIM. In 11 control patients, no electrical stimulation was administered. All needles were withdrawn 48 h after insertion. Acupuncture was performed once a week for 6 wk. Patients had to complete a questionnaire assessing pain intensity, psychological well-being, activity, sleep, and demand for rescue medication (lornoxicam and tramadol). The reduction in pain scores was significant in the electrical acupuncture group. Similarly, psychological well-being, activity, and sleep were significantly improved in patients receiving electrical acupuncture, and consumption of rescue medication was significantly less. These results demonstrate that continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM improves the treatment of chronic cervical pain in an outpatient population.\",\n \"Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.\",\n \"To compare findings from two consecutive clinical trials of auricular acupuncture for cocaine addiction conducted at the same site in order to explore consistency of treatment effects. One hundred and sixty-five (165) cocaine-dependent, methadone-maintained patients (study 1, n = 82; study 2, n = 83). Subjects in both studies were randomly assigned to auricular acupuncture, a needle insertion control condition, or a no-needle relaxation control. Treatment sessions were offered five times weekly for 8 weeks. The two studies were equivalent in design, except that unlike study 1, study 2 offered subject payments for attendance and did not include weekly group counseling. Cocaine use assessed by three times weekly urine screens constituted the primary outcome. Secondary measures included retention in treatment, treatment attendance, treatment credibility, therapeutic alliance, and acute effects of treatments. Intent-to-treat analysis showed that patients assigned to acupuncture in study 1, but not in study 2, were significantly more likely to provide cocaine-negative urine samples relative to the two control conditions.\",\n \"These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":177,"string":"177"}}},{"rowIdx":273174,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Duodenojejunitis: is it idiopathic or is it Henoch-Schönlein purpura without the purpura?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination.","Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash."],"string":"[\n \"Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination.\",\n \"Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["The pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is multifactorial, with some patients presenting additional autoimmune symptoms. Inflammatory colitis associated with autoimmune (AI) liver disease appears to have clinical features different from those of \"classical\" ulcerative colitis (CUC). The aim of this study was to describe these features, in order to differentiate a subgroup of colitis associated with autoimmunity (CAI) from CUC. Twenty-eight consecutive children with inflammatory colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), celiac disease, or AI hepatitis were compared with a matched control group of 27 children with isolated UC. Clinical course, histology, as well as inflammatory profile in the colonic mucosa based on real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) were analyzed. In CAI the main digestive symptoms at disease onset were abdominal pain (12/28) and bloody strings in the stool (12/28), along with a high prevalence of autoimmune diseases in relatives, as compared with bloody diarrhea in the CUC group (26/27). At diagnosis, pancolitis was seen in 18/28 CAI patients compared with 8/27 in UC. In CAI, the pathological findings were different from CUC: 1) major lesions predominantly located in the right colon; 2) pseudo-villous appearance of the mucosa, and strong infiltration with eosinophils; 3) mild glandular lesions; and 4) differing inflammatory infiltrate with reduced FOXP3, interleukin (IL)-2, and thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP) levels. Evolution in CAI was less aggressive, requiring less corticosteroids/immunomodulators.","yes. In this model, BPJ exclusion from gut induces M3 and CCK-A receptor expression and increases IL-6 production. In this experimental corollary of gallstone pancreatitis, BPJ exclusion from gut may play a key role in the mechanism of disease pathogenesis.","yes. IgA mesangial glomerulonephritis is a disease of unknown aetiology which has been associated with other diseases. Chronic overexposure to cadmium may contribute to the development of this nephrophathy.","Cerebellitis associated with mGluR1-Abs should be considered in the differential diagnosis of patients with subacute cerebellar ataxia. This first case without any tumor found suggests a possible idiopathic autoimmune rather than a paraneoplastic mechanism. In consideration of this possible primitive autoimmune ataxia involving the directly pathogenic mGluR1-Abs, immunoactive therapy should be initiated as early as possible.","yes. The oral microbiome is unlikely causative of ONJ, rather individuals with BAONJ lacked immune resiliency which impaired their capacity to respond adequately to the immunological stress of N-BP treatment. This may be the common factor linking N-BP and anti-RANK agents to ONJ in at-risk individuals. Preventive and/or therapeutic strategies should target the wound healing deficits present in those with ONJ.","no. In adult patients with staple food induced gastrointestinal symptoms, objectively verified by DBPCFC, there were no indications of IgE mediated allergy to the relevant foods suggesting other mechanisms in adults than in children. Future studies may include measures of local events in the shock organs in relation to food intake, for instance utilising inflammatory markers in jejunal fluids.","Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a common cause of paediatric renal disease in children, representing 10-15% of paediatric glomerulonephritis. This study examined the long-term outcome of biopsy-proven HSP nephritis to identify correlations between disease development and treatment. Patients from three French centres were retrospectively analysed. We followed up 142 patients aged from 2 to 10.5 years with HSP nephritis, graded according to the International Study Group of Kidney Disease in Childhood classification. Mean (±SD) age at presentation was 7.6 ± 2.8 years. Nephrotic range proteinuria was present in 28% of patients with Grade II lesions, 60% with Grade III and 90% with Grade IV. Significant proteinuria (>0.5 g/L) was found in nine of 48 patients 3 years after renal biopsy, eight of 25 patients after 5 years and three of 14 patients after 10 years. There was no correlation between the proteinuria risk at 3, 5 or 10 years and the initial histological lesion or treatment modality. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers (ACEi/ARB) was linked to lower proteinuria, especially if it was started precociously.","yes. Helicobacter pylori infection has no major role in development of gastric metaplasia in duodenal bulb in non-ulcer dyspeptic patients. Furthermore, it does not result in positive CagA-serology, an increased risk for gastric metaplasia compared with CagA-seronegative cases.","yes. Our data reinforce the evidence that hBD1 expression is greatly reduced in the duodenum of patients with active CD. It also strengthens the concept that reduced activity of immune peptides may predispose individuals to bacterial proliferation that contributes to the pathogenesis of CD.","Based on current knowledge, it is possible to have an initial diagnosis of intrinsic or extrinsic ureteropelvic junction obstruction (UPJO) based solely on clinical and imaging findings. However, it may not be possible to strictly discriminate an intrinsic case with an additional extrinsic component from a primarily intrinsic stenosis because of lower pole aberrant vessels. These two disorders may coexist or trigger each other. Herein, we aimed to compare the histological changes observed in intrinsic and extrinsic types of UPJO. Our hypothesis is that inspecting the UPJ during pyeloplasty may not be a sufficient way to delineate the underlying cause of obstruction in every individual. We retrospectively reviewed the data of 56 patients who had dismembered pyeloplasty. The intrinsic and extrinsic groups consisted of 38 and 18 patients, respectively. Masson's trichrome stain, CD117, and connexin 43 (Cx43) antibody were used in histopathology and immunochemistry. Statistical calculations were done with chi-square and Mann-Whitney U tests.","Several immune-mechanisms have been discussed in the background of Whipple's disease, but their primary or secondary role is yet undetermined. First of all, this is a gastrointestinal disease; however, extraintestinal symptoms may be present many years before the final diagnosis. The histological hallmark for the diagnosis is the presence of numerous macrophages in the duodenal mucosa showing periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive inclusions, and the polymerase chain reaction. The choice of antibiotics and the length of the treatment is empiric, but in most cases there is an immediate response to therapy. Relapses are common, especially the involvements of central nervous system.","To investigate the relationship between vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) expression and microvessel injury of renal interstitium in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN). Thirty-two children with HSPN and who had not received glucocorticoid or immunodepressants treatment before hospitalization were enrolled. Five children undergoing nephrectomy due to renal trauma were used as the control group. Renal samples were stained by hematoxylin and eosin and renal pathological changes were evaluated semi-quantitatively. CD34 and VEGF expression was detected by immunohistochemistry. CD34 was used as the marker for endothelial cells of renal microvessels. The microvessel density (MVD) was calculated by CD34 immunostaining. Compared with the control and the renal pathological grade II HSPN groups, MVD in the grade III and above HSPN groups decreased significantly, with an obvious reduction in MVD with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). The renal microvessel score in the grades IIIa, IIIb, IV, and V HSPN groups decreased obviously compared with that in the control group. The renal microvessel score decreased with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the grade II HSPN group was higher (p<0.05), while that in the grades IV and V HSPN group was lower than that in the control group (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the HSPN group showed a significant reduction with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). There was a positive correlation between VEGF expression and MVD in renal tissue in the HSPN group (r=0.935, p<0.01).","Duodenal gastric metaplasia (DGM) is commonly found in association with Helicobacter pylori (Hp)-associated gastritis in adults. DGM is also considered a risk factor for duodenal ulcer development. The prevalence of DGM in children and its association with gastritis, duodenitis, or the presence of Hp organisms is not clear. We investigated the prevalence of DGM in children and explore its association with several possible risk factors, including age, gender, gastritis, duodenitis, or Hp presence in the gastric antrum. A retrospective analysis of 173 upper endoscopy procedures performed between 1993 and 1995 at Cabell Huntington Hospital, Huntington, WV, was done. Gastric and duodenal biopsies were stained with Giemsa for Hp detection, periodic acid-Schiff for DGM, and hematoxylin and eosin for histologic assessment. Gastric mucosal inflammation was graded according to Sydney criteria. Duodenal gastric metaplasia was identified in 23 of 173 (13%) patients. Duodenitis but not age, gender, gastritis, or the presence of Hp in the gastric antrum was associated with DGM development. In 4 of 23 DGM foci, Hp was identified.","yes. Our findings provide new insight into the mechanisms mediating inherited and acquired noncirrhotic portal hypertension, expand the phenotypic spectrum of DGUOK deficiency, and provide a new genetic test for a specific cause of idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension. (Hepatology 2016;63:1977-1986).","yes. The prevalence of H. pylori is lower in patients with bleeding DUs when compared to patients with uncomplicated DUs. In addition, the sensitivity and negative predictive value of the RUT is lower in patients presenting with bleeding, and other methods of H. pylori diagnosis should be used in this patient group.","Hemoconcentration markers are predictors of severe acute pancreatitis but have not been specifically evaluated in post-endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography pancreatitis (PEP). Case-control study of patients undergoing ERCP for suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. We identified patients with PEP (PEP positive) and controls (PEP negative) in a 1:2 ratio. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hematocrit (Hct) were measured before procedure, upon admission, and 24 hours later. Preprocedure levels of BUN and Hct were analyzed to control for confounders. Among the PEP-positive patients, BUN level, Hct level, and systemic inflammatory response syndrome are compared between severe and mild/moderate cases. There were 149 PEP-positive patients, including 18 patients (12.1%) with severe PEP and 301 PEP-negative controls. After adjusting, higher preprocedure BUN level (odds ratio [OR], 1.05 [1.01, 1.10]; P < 0.02) and pancreatic sphincterotomy (OR, 1.60 [1.01, 2.55]; P < 0.05) were associated with PEP, whereas older age (OR, 0.98 [0.96, 0.99]; P < 0.02) and a greater body mass index (OR, 0.97 [0.94, 0.99]; P < 0.03) with a lower rate.Difference in BUN level of 0.0 or greater (failure to decline) had a sensitivity of 71% and a specificity of 79% for differentiating severe from mild/moderate PEP. Patients with severe PEP were more likely to have systemic inflammatory response syndrome upon admission (44.4% [21.5, 67.4]) and after 24 hours (61.1% [38.6, 83.6] versus mild/moderate (9.2% [4.2, 14.1], 10.6% [5.4,16.0]; P < 0.0001 for each).","yes. The identification of a second mutation in the cationic trypsinogen gene (HP2) suggests a dominant role of trypsin in premature protease activation-mediated forms of acute pancreatitis. The pathogenesis of hereditary pancreatitis also suggests that chronic pancreatitis may result from recurrent acute pancreatitis.","1) The discrepancy between autoantibody profile and the clinical phenotype, at least in PF patients, appears to be due to non-pathogenic anti-Dsg3 antibodies; 2) in a proportion of patients the relationship between the Dsg1 and Dsg3 ELISA titers and the disease severity was absent; 3) in some patients, the anti-Dsg1 and -3 autoantibodies were lacking at diagnosis, suggesting a role of other antigens in the pathogenesis of the disease and, lastly, 4) the pure cutaneous and mucosal forms tend to respond more efficiently to the therapy than the mucocutaneous forms and have a persistent response.","Non ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is being postulated as one of the gastroduodenal manifestations of H. pylori infection. H. pylori infection may result in clinical symptoms as well as histological changes in NUD. To compare clinical symptom score and histological changes in H. pylori (Hp) positive and negative untreated NUD patients. Forty six patients with dyspeptic symptoms and normal upper GI endoscopic examinations were included in this study. During endoscopy 2 biopsies each were taken from the antrum and body of the stomach. These biopsies were used for rapid urease test (RUT) and histological examination. Patients were diagnosed to have Hp infection if either of two tests were positive. There were two groups of patients: Hp positive and Hp negative NUD patients. Clinical scoring using Glasgow dyspepsia score (Max. 20) and histological analysis, using Sydney system (Max score 11) was done and compared for both the groups of patients. Clinical scoring, RUT and histological scoring were blinded to each other. H. pylori was present in 29(63%) of the 46 patients. Mean clinical score for H. pylori positive patient was 10.9 while for Hp negative patient was 11.4. Total histological score for Hp positive and Hp negative patients was 3.37 Vs 1.76 (antrum) and 3.68 Vs 1.29(body) (p < .001), respectively. The only histological change found to be statistically significant between Hp positive and Hp negative patients was presence of lymphoid follicles (p < .05).","In the current era of computed tomography, idiopathic or asymptomatic intussusception is being seen more commonly; however, the majority of adult intussusceptions still have pathologic lead points. From our experience, all patients with palpable mass, obstructive symptoms or obstruction, gastrointestinal bleeding, or a lead point on computed tomography should undergo operative exploration.","In unselected patients attending a gastroenterology clinic, small bowel histology and endomysial antibody serology show similar predictive value in the diagnosis of coeliac disease. These results emphasize that a combination of clinical, histological and serological criteria are required for effective diagnosis of this disorder. Exclusive reliance on histology or serology will result in failure to make a diagnosis in a significant proportion of patients.","To discover whether scattered white spots (SWS) in the duodenum are related to a specific kind of disease. We also scrutinized other upper endoscopic findings which might be associated with SWS. Among the patients who were admitted for upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy, those having the endoscopic appearance of SWS in duodenum were enrolled in this study. In total 107 patients [70 women, 37 men, mean age: 51.6 +/- 16.88 years (range: 17-82 years)] were included. At least three duodenal biopsies were taken from each patient and histopathological examinations were done by experienced pathologists. The histopathological examination revealed that 39 (36.4%) patients had intestinal lymphangiectasia (IL), 15 (14%) patients had giardiasis (G) and 30 (28.1%) patients had chronic non-specific duodenitis (CD). Two patients with IL were also found to have G. Twenty patients had both IL and CD. One had both G and CD. G was the least common etiology for SWS in the duodenum. The most common reasons for SWS in the duodenum in this study group were IL and CD, in order of decreasing frequency. There was no significant relationship with the other upper endoscopic findings in all these patients.","The causes of misdiagnosis were low cellularity, epithelial atypia, and non-representative background. The important diagnostic clues to suspect a diagnosis of IgG4-RD include low cellularity despite adequate effort, inflammatory background rich in lymphocytes and spindle cells admixed with a few plasma cells and eosinophils along with radiological features and raised serum IgG4 Diagn. Cytopathol. 2017;45:14-21. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.","POEMS (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal plasma cell disorder, and skin changes) syndrome may be mistaken for chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP). Differentiating the 2 entities is crucial, as there are major treatment implications. We compared platelet counts in 136 POEMS patients and 67 CIDP controls. Of the patients with POEMS, 53.7% had thrombocytosis, compared with 1.5% of those with CIDP (P < 0.0001). The median platelet count in patients with POEMS was 467,000/μl compared with 275,000/μl in those with CIDP (P < 0.0001).","no. The magnitude of [13C]urea breath test or H. pylori IgG serology cannot be used to predict the presence or absence of gastroduodenal ulcer disease.","no. Anti-Cag A antibodies do not seem to discriminate duodenal ulcer patients from non ulcer dyspepsia in the Indian population.","The pathogenesis of idiopathic pancreatitis (IP) remains poorly understood. Our hypothesis is that IP is a sequel of micro-crystallization of hepatic bile. A prospective case control study compared 55 patients; symptomatic cholelithiasis - 30 (14 male, median age 36 years; mean BMI - 25.1 kg/m2), gallstone pancreatitis - 9 (3 male, median age 35 years; mean BMI - 24.86 kg/m2 ) and IP - 16 (9 male, median age 34 years; mean BMI -23.34 kg/m2) with 30 controls (15 male, median age 38 years; mean BMI = 24.5 kg/m2) undergoing laparotomy for conditions not related to the gall bladder and bile duct. Ultrafiltered bile from the common hepatic duct in patients and controls was incubated in anaerobic conditions and examined by polarized light microscopy to assess bile nucleation time (NT). In the analysis, the mean NT of patients with gallstones and gallstone pancreatitis was taken as a cumulative mean NT for those with established gallstone disease (EGD). Patients were similar to controls. Mean NT in all groups of patients was significantly shorter than controls (EGD cumulative mean NT, 1.73 +/- 0.2 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001 and IP patients mean NT, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001). However, NT in those with IP was longer compared with those with EGD (mean NT in IP, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. cumulative mean in EGD: 1.73 +/- 0.2 days, P = 0.002).","IP with marked IgG4-positive plasma cell infiltration without extrathoracic lesions of IgG4-RD had different pathological features from those of IgG4-RD, and it is appropriate to regard this as a separate entity.","Helicobacter Pylori infection has been strongly associated with upper gastrointestinal (GI) disease, especially duodenal ulcer. Endoscopy or contrast radiography is needed to diagnose and appropriately manage peptic ulcer disease. These diagnostic procedures, however, are time consuming and expensive; endoscopy is invasive and contrast radiography cannot help in the diagnosis of H pylori infection. Our aim was to examine in a prospective study the relation between serologic detection of cytotoxic associated gene (CagA) H pylori strains and endoscopic findings among young dyspeptic patients to determine whether this noninvasive test can help differentiate patients with from those without ulcers. One hundred patients younger than 45 years with dyspepsia referred for upper GI endoscopy were included in the study. During endoscopy antral biopsy specimens were obtained for the rapid urease test and histologic examination. At histologic examination gastritis was graded from 0 (normal histologic features) to 3 (severe gastritis). After endoscopy blood was obtained for serologic determination of CagA status. Among the 100 patients 56 were H pylori positive and 44 were H pylori negative. In the group of 56 H pylori-positive patients 36 (64.3%) had peptic ulcers and 20 (35.7%) did not. Among patients with peptic ulcer 34 of 36 (94.4%) were CagA positive and 2 (5.6%) were CagA negative. The respective values for the group of patients without ulcers were 9 of 20 (45%) and 11 of 20 (55%). The difference in the proportion of CagA-positive subjects between the group with and that without peptic ulcer was highly significant (p < 0.0001).","yes. The results suggest that a high density of cagA-positive strains in the duodenum with severe duodenitis are important determinants of DU disease.","yes. Preexisting ulcerative colitis often has an aggressive course, while de novo ulcerative colitis may develop in patients transplanted for primary sclerosing cholangitis and treated without long term steroids.","We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.","The aim of this study was to analyze the contribution of the double-balloon enteroscopy (DBE) for diagnosis of the small bowel disorders. Forty-four patients (20 women, 24 men; mean age 53.5 years-old, range 21-89 years) with chronic gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea, polyposis, weight-loss, Roux-en-Y surgery, and other indications underwent DBE. Twenty patients had occult or obscure gastrointestinal bleeding. The source of bleeding was identified in 15/20 (75%): multiple angiodysplasias in four, arterial-venous malformation beyond the ligament of Treitz in two that could be treated with injection successfully. Other diagnoses included: duodenal adenocarcinoma, jejunal tuberculosis, erosions and ulcer of the jejunum. Of 24 patients with other indications, the diagnosis could be achieved in 18 of them (75%), including: two lymphomas, plasmocytoma, Gardner's syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers' syndrome, familial adenomatous polyposis, Behçet's disease, jejunal submucosal lesion, lymphangiectasia due to blastomycosis and unspecific chronic jejunitis. Of three cases with Roux-en-Y reconstruction, two underwent DBE in order to perform biopsies of the excluded duodenum. Additionally, two patients underwent DBE to exclude Crohn's disease and lymphoma of the small bowel. The mean length of small bowel examination was 240 +/- 50 cm during a single approach. The diagnostic yield was 75% (33/44 cases) and therapeutic yield was 63.6%. No major complications were observed, only minor complication such as sore throat in 4/44 (9.1%).","While acral ischemic lesions could represent initial or isolated (forme fruste) manifestations of a defined vasculitis, acral ischemic lesions may rarely be encountered as the predominant manifestation of an as yet unclassified vasculitis. the histological findings seem to differ. Our report includes a peculiar case of giant cell arteritis of small arteries not classifiable as giant cell arteritis of large arteries or Takayasu disease.","yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.","Mesenteric panniculitis (MP), sclerotic mesenteritis (SM) and mesenteric lipodystrophy (ML) are the three histopathological forms of a rare inflammatory mesenteric disease. The pathogenesis is unknown until now. Hypothesis of a dysimmune disorder is advocated. Our purpose was to find histological basis to assert this hypothesis. All patients with a diagnosis of inflammatory mesenteric disease made in Beaujon hospital were selected. A histological study and a systematic immunostaining with IgG4, CD3 and CD8 antibodies were performed for each patient with paraffin block available. Dysimmune features were defined by: a plasma cells component>30 %, an eosinophilic polynuclears component>10 %, a rate TCD8/CD3>30 % and IgG4+ plasma cells>30/high power field (x400). Cases were classified in 3 forms on the basis of the predominant component: MP (lymphoid/plasma cell infiltrate), SM (fibrosis), ML (fat necrosis). Thirteen patients (7 men, 6 women) were selected, with a mean age of 57 years (21-80 years); a paraffin block was available for 10 patients. The clinical and histological presentations were heterogeneous: a mesenteric mass was the most frequent mode of revelation (6/13 patients) and all histological forms were present (3 MP, 5 SM and 5 ML). Nine patients had surgical biopsy, 2 had a trephine biopsy and 2 a resection. Standard histological analysis showed numerous eosinophils (>or =10 %) and plasma cells (>30 %) in respectively 3 (23 %) and 6 (46 %) of the 13 cases. The immunohistochemistry (performed in 10 patients) showed numerous TCD8+ in 80 % of the cases and numerous IgG4+ plasma cells in only 31 % of the cases (4 cases) (IgG4+>30/x400).","no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.","yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.","yes. These results suggest that the IgA anti-tTG response in coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis is focused on the region of tTG responsible for its transamidation and deamidation reactions, whereas the IgG response may target other regions of the enzyme.","Clinical or biochemical autoimmune stigmata are present in 40% of patients with ICP. Autoimmune mechanisms may be frequent in idiopathic pancreatitis.","Valvular regurgitation, pericardial effusion, pulmonary hypertension and increased left ventricular mass index occur with disproportionately high frequency in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome and no clinically apparent heart disease. Thus echocardiographic studies may need to be performed in these patients especially when palpable purpura, antibody reactivity and low C4 levels are present.","In 2012, European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition published novel guidelines on celiac disease (CD) diagnosis. Symptomatic children with serum anti-transglutaminase (anti-tTG) antibody levels ≥10 times upper limit of normal (ULN) could avoid duodenal biopsies after positive HLA test and serum anti-endomysial antibodies (EMAs). So far, both asymptomatic and symptomatic patients with anti-tTG titer<10 times ULN should undergo upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies to confirm diagnosis. The aim of this study was to assess the accuracy of serological tests to diagnose CD in asymptomatic patients. We retrospectively reviewed data of 286 patients (age range: 10 months to 17 years) with CD diagnosis based on elevated titer of anti-tTG, EMA positivity, and histology. All patients were distinguished between symptomatic and asymptomatic; histological lesions were graded according to the Marsh-Oberhuber (MO) criteria. Fisher exact test was applied to analyze both groups in terms of diagnostic reliability of serological markers. A total of 196 patients (68.53%) had anti-tTG titers ≥10 times ULN. Among them, a group of 156 patients (79.59%) also had symptoms suggestive of CD (\"high-titer\" symptomatic); of these, 142 patients (91.02%) showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). Conversely, 40 out of 196 patients (20.40%) were asymptomatic (\"high-titer\" asymptomatic) and 37 patients (92.5%) of them showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). No difference in histological damage was found between \"high-titer\" symptomatic and \"high-titer\" asymptomatic children (Fisher exact test, P=1.000).","yes. Extraluminal duodenal diverticula are frequently found. They rarely cause symptoms and need no surgical treatment. While ampullary duodenal diverticula can cause chronic pancreatitis, periampullary duodenal diverticula are no etiologic factor.","Atopy and systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis (SoJIA) are two potential outcomes of a dysregulated immune system. Although rare, SoJIA causes 60% of the morbidity of JIA patients which exhibit a wide heterogeneity of prognosis and treatment. Co-morbidities can complicate the responses to therapy. To study the influence of co-existing atopy on the prognosis of SoJIA. Patients diagnosed with SoJIA between Jan 2006 and Sep 2010 were screened, enrolled in this prospective cohort study, and followed for 2 years. Management of SoJIA patients was assessed by ACR Pedi30/50/70 criteria, laboratory variables, and systemic feature score. At disease onset, 61 SoJIA patients (34 male and 27 female) were enrolled and were divided into SoJIA patients with atopy (n = 27) or those without atopy (n = 34). Atopic group at disease onset had significantly higher numbers of affected joints, ferritin levels and IgE serum levels than the non-atopic group. At 3 and 6 months, fewer SoJIA patients with atopy reached the ACR Pedi50 criteria (p < 0.02). During the 2 years of follow-up time, the number of infections and the number of flares were significantly higher in the SoJIA with atopy group (p < 0.01).","yes. The idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease associated with gastrointestinal symptoms in CVID is a unique combination of diverse histologic findings accompanied by excessive Th1 cytokine production, distinct from that in Crohn's disease. These data show that human gut mucosal inflammatory disease can occur with excess interleukin-12 and interferon-gamma production alone and provide a rationale for developing targeted therapies for this complication of CVID.","no. Carefully selected clinically stable patients that have postoperative pneumatosis intestinalis or exhibit rectal bleeding may be successfully managed by reduced enteral feedings with no antibiotics. J Pediatr Surg 36:1820-1823.","Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is the commonest childhood cause of acute renal failure. Peritoneal dialysis peritonitis (PDP) is a well-recognised complication, with some children requiring surgical intervention (SI). The aim of this study is to determine whether the presence of enteric organisms in cases of PDP might predict the need for SI. Retrospective, 5-year (2009-2014) case note review of all HUS cases requiring PD presenting to a single centre. Mann-Whitney U test was used for continuous non-parametric data and χ (2) for categorical data. 48 children required PD for HUS, 18/48 (38 %) developed PDP and of these 5/18 (28 %) required SI (subtotal colectomy n = 4, small bowel resection n = 1). Peritoneal fluid was cultured as part of the work-up for PDP. The presence of enteric organisms was associated with a 10.4 fold relative risk of requiring surgery (p = 0.02, 95 % CI 1.5-71.9), with 4/5 of these patients requiring surgery (median 17 days post-culture result). Only 1/13 patients not requiring surgery grew gram-negative bacteria.","In small vessel vasculitis and its renal-limited form, idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis, renal damage is characterized by pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (CGN) without histological evidence of immunoglobulin (Ig) deposition. In some patients, however, significant amounts of immune deposits may be detected. Therefore, we evaluated the clinical significance of these immune deposits in anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)-associated pauci-immune CGN. Renal biopsies of 45 consecutive patients with new onset of Wegener's granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis and idiopathic CGN were retrospectively evaluated by light microscopy, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy and the findings compared with renal function and outcome. Typical pauci-immune CGN was found in 37 patients (group I). In eight patients (18%; group II), however, histopathological examination revealed substantial deposition of Ig in the mesangium and/or along the glomerular basement membrane. Five of these eight patients were cANCA positive; two initially had pANCA and developed a cANCA pattern and one was pANCA positive. There were no differences between groups in age, gender, renal function or extra-renal organ involvement at the time of biopsy. However, patients in group II had significantly more proteinuria (5.4+/-3.1 vs 1.3+/-1.0 g/24 h; P=0.016). We also observed a trend for a worse outcome with respect to renal function and mortality in group II patients; however, the differences did not reach significance.","To assess the influence of interleukin-8 (IL-8), epithelial cell-derived neutrophil-activating peptide (ENA-78), and regulated upon activation normal T cell expressed and secreted (RANTES) gene polymorphisms in the susceptibility and clinical expression of patients fulfilling classification criteria for Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Fifty patients (25 men) from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP according to proposed criteria were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-8, ENA-78, and RANTES gene polymorphisms. No allele or genotype differences between patients fulfilling HSP classification criteria and controls were observed for any of the chemokines. However, a significantly increased frequency of allele A of the IL-8 gene polymorphism was found in patients with HSP who developed renal manifestations compared with patients without renal involvement (p = 0.02; pcorr = 0.036). Moreover, the genotype distribution in HSP patients with and without renal involvement showed statistically significant differences (p = 0.02).","This series of cases demonstrates the importance of considering G lamblia as a cause for GI symptoms even in the absence of diarrhea. Routine procurement of duodenal biopsy specimens is valuable for recognition of atypical presentations of patients with G lamblia and avoiding delays in diagnosis.","Peptic ulcers and erosions (PU&E) are thought to be uncommon in children. Patients with early exposure to Helicobacter pylori may be at a higher risk for early onset PU&E. Children in Israel have a high prevalence and early acquisition of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) and have easy access to pediatric gastroenterologists and endoscopy. Our aim was to describe the prevalence and characteristics of PU&E in this population referred by Pediatric Gastroenterologists for an upper endoscopy. We conducted a retrospective study over the years January 2003-May 2006. Over these years we had information on 751 diagnostic upper endoscopies. PU&E was regarded as erosive gastritis/duodenitis or ulcer in either the stomach or duodenum. H. pylori status was assessed using rapid urease test and gastric biopsies. PU&E was detected in 169 (22.5%) patients (ulcers 51 (6.8%), erosions 118 (15.7%)). One hundred twenty-four had gastric PU&E and 58 had duodenal PU&E. H. pylori was positive in 112 (66.3%). H. pylori-associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years, with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Most of the H. pylori-negative PU&E were idiopathic and improved symptomatically on PPI treatment. Interestingly, 43% of patients with PU&E in our cohort were either immigrants from the former Soviet Union or of Israeli Arab origin.","yes. This multicenter study further demonstrated that the multiple domains of ADAMTS13, particularly the Cys-rich and spacer domains, are frequently targeted by anti-ADAMTS13 type G immunoglobulins in patients with acquired (idiopathic) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Our data shed more light on the pathogenesis of acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and provide further rationales for adjunctive immunotherapy.","In total, 66 children diagnosed with HSP for the first time and a control group of 25 healthy children were included. The cases were divided into mild and severe groups on the basis of GIS findings. FC was measured twice in all patients with HSP: within 3 days of onset of disease (FC1) and on day 15 (FC2). These results were compared with those of the control group. Faecal occult blood, gastric wall thickness and duodenal wall thickness were measured at the same time as FC1 in all patients, and the presence of renal involvement was recorded. Of the 66 patients, 37 (56%) were females (mean age, 7.5±2.9 years; range, 2.5-14.5 years) and were diagnosed with HSP. Renal involvement was detected in 19 (28%) cases and GIS involvement was found in 28 (43%) cases. GIS involvement was mild in 16 (53%) cases and severe in 12 (43%). A significant difference was detected in FC1 levels between the groups with and without GIS involvement (P=0.01). A marked difference was observed in FC1 levels between the groups with and without renal involvement (P=0.017).","Only one diagnostic parameter is not available for acute appendicitis. For the establishment of diagnosis, combination of medical history, clinical, laboratory tests, and radiological imaging modalities are used so as to decrease the rates of negative laparotomy and morbidity secondary to delay in diagnosis. Thepresent study aimed to determine haematological and inflammatory markers which will be used in the discrimination of acute appendicitis (AA) and renal colic which are the most frequent and indistinguishable causes of abdominal pain in patients applying to the emergency service. A total of 215 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were histopathologically diagnosed as AA, and 200 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were diagnosed as renal colic were included into the study. Control group consisted of 61 patients without any complaints who came to the outpatient clinics of internal medicine only for blood counts. Analyzed blood samples were WBC, RDW, Hb, MCV, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. All differences associated with a chance probability of.05 or less were considered statistically significant. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and renal colic groups as for age, WBC, Hb, MCV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and control groups regarding age, WBC, Hb, RDW, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between renal colic and control groups as for age, WBC, RDW, MPV, neutrophil and NLR. In ROC curve analysis, the area under AUCs for WBC, neutrophil, NLR and PLR were 0.896, 0.916, 0.888 and 0.725, respectively (p≤0.05).","ADAMTS13 deficiency leading to excess ultralarge von Willebrand factor (VWF) multimers and platelet clumping is typically found in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (a type of thrombotic microangiopathy). Idiopathic noncirrhotic intrahepatic portal hypertension (NCIPH) is a microangiopathy of portal venules associated with significant thrombocytopenia and predisposing gut disorders. To determine whether the portal microangiopathy in NCIPH is associated with ADAMTS13 deficiency. Plasma levels of ADAMTS13, anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, and VWF were compared between cases (NCIPH patients) and controls (with chronic liver diseases of other etiology) matched for severity of liver dysfunction. Eighteen NCIPH patients [median (range) MELD score 12 (7-25)] and 25 controls [MELD score 11 (4-26)] were studied. ADAMTS13 activity was reduced in all 18 NCIPH patients and significantly lower than controls (median, IQR: 12.5%, 5-25% and 59.0%, 44-84%, respectively, P<0.0001) [normal range for plasma ADAMTS13 activity (55-160%)]. ADAMTS13 activity was <5% in 5/18 NCIPH patients (28%) and 0/25 controls (P=0.009). ADAMTS13 antigen levels were also decreased. Sustained low ADAMTS13 levels were seen in four NCIPH patients over 6 weeks to 11 months (highest ADAMTS13 level in each patient: <5%, 6%, 6%, and 25%), despite two patients having MELD score 12. Although nine cases had low titer anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, there was no significant difference between cases and controls. Abnormally large VWF multimers were observed in 4/11 NCIPH patients (36%) and in 0/22 controls (P=0.008).","yes. In this series of patients there was no evidence of an underlying vasculitic cause for the PUK. A localized autoimmune response may, however, be involved in the pathogenesis of these cases, as seen in an animal model of chemical injury or in late mustard gas keratitis. We hope that this case series will bring this newly described condition to the attention of ophthalmologists and that this may assist in their treatment, which, in this series, required systemic immunosuppressive therapy.","yes. This study confirms recent reports of duodenal eosinophilia in FD. The high rate of atopic and psychological co-morbidity in FD suggests multi-factorial mechanisms and may explain why current therapeutic options aimed at symptom control are largely unsatisfactory. Duodenal eosinophilia in FD should be considered a therapeutic target.","To assess the influence of interleukin 1 receptor antagonist gene polymorphism (IL1RN) in the incidence of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) and cutaneous leukocytoclastic angiitis (CLA) and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP or hypersensitivity vasculitis (HV) according to proposed criteria were studied. Patients with HV were included if they had a biopsy proven small size blood vessel leukocytoclastic vasculitis limited to skin and also fulfilled the Chapel Hill Consensus Conference on the Nomenclature of Systemic Vasculitis definitions for CLA. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-1 receptor antagonist intron 2 VNTR polymorphism. We examined 96 Caucasian patients (58 HSP and 38 CLA) and 109 controls. No allele or genotype differences between the whole group of HSP or CLA patients and controls were observed. We found a significant association between carriage of IL-1 receptor antagonist allele 2 (ILRN*2) and severe renal involvement, manifested as nephrotic syndrome and/or renal insufficiency (p = 0.016), and permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae) (p = 0.012).","no. A minority of referred primary care patients with lower GI complaints both fulfilled the Rome III criteria for irritable bowel syndrome and lacked alarm symptoms. Although organic bowel disease could be ruled out safely in this small group, application of the Rome III criteria is not likely to lead to a considerable reduction in unnecessary referrals for colonoscopy in these patients.","Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and the hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) share many clinical features and have been difficult to separate into distinct entities. Histologic examination of organs from autopsied patients suggested that TTP and HUS have dissimilar lesions of different severity and distribution. To perform a retrospective observational review of autopsied patients with TTP or HUS to compare the nature and severity of the lesions found. To examine the pathologic features of these conditions, we reviewed all cases among 51 350 indexed autopsies at The Johns Hopkins Hospital (Baltimore, Md) diagnosed with TTP or HUS, and included those showing multiple arteriolar thrombi or their sequela. The 56 cases that met the inclusion criteria fell into 2 distinct groups, based on distribution and severity of arteriolar lesions. In 25 patients classified as having TTP, platelet-rich thrombi were present-in decreasing severity-in heart, pancreas, kidney, adrenal gland, and brain. In 31 patients with HUS, fibrin/red cell-rich thrombi were present, largely confined to the kidney and often severe, and only 6 cases showed pancreas involvement, 4 adrenal gland involvement, 2 brain involvement, and 1 heart involvement.","To assess the contribution of 2 polymorphisms within the inducible nitric oxide (NOS2A) promoter region to the susceptibility to Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Fifty-eight patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls (n=251) were genotyped by PCR based techniques for a multiallelic (CCTTT)n and for the biallelic TAAA repeat in the promoter region of the NOS2A gene. HSP patients exhibited a significantly increased frequency of the NOS2A short (8-11) CCTTTn alleles (OR 1.64, 95% CI 1.09-2.47, p=0.017) and genotypes (OR 3.59, 95% CI 1.79-7.20, p=0.0002) compared to controls, particularly when patients with nephritis were compared with controls. However, when the NOS2A TAAA repeat polymorphism was assessed, no differences were found.","Immunoglobulin (Ig)A nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis in the world. Some bacteria were reported to be the candidate of the antigen or the pathogenesis of IgAN, but systematic analysis of bacterial flora in tonsil with IgAN has not been reported. Moreover, these bacteria specific to IgAN might be candidate for the indicator which can predict the remission of IgAN treated by the combination of tonsillectomy and steroid pulse. We made a comprehensive analysis of tonsil flora in 68 IgAN patients and 28 control patients using Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis methods. We also analyzed the relationship between several bacteria specific to the IgAN and the prognosis of the IgAN. Treponema sp. were identified in 24% IgAN patients, while in 7% control patients (P = 0.062). Haemophilus segnis were detected in 53% IgAN patients, while in 25% control patients (P = 0.012). Campylobacter rectus were identified in 49% IgAN patients, while in 14% control patients (P = 0.002). Multiple Cox proportional-hazards model revealed that Treponema sp. or Campylobactor rectus are significant for the remission of proteinuria (Hazard ratio 2.35, p = 0.019). There was significant difference in remission rates between IgAN patients with Treponema sp. and those without the bacterium (p = 0.046), and in remission rates between IgAN patients with Campylobacter rectus and those without the bacterium (p = 0.037) by Kaplan-Meier analysis. Those bacteria are well known to be related with the periodontal disease. Periodontal bacteria has known to cause immune reaction and many diseases, and also might cause IgA nephropathy.","H. pylori prevalence was similar in celiac disease patients and in controls and higher in patients with milder duodenal lesions. There was no association between H. pylori infection and duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis.","-Jejunoileal neuroendocrine tumors (JINETs) are slow-growing, malignant tumors that are often associated with protracted survival, despite their frequent presentation at an advanced stage. A subset of JINETs is complicated by intestinal ischemic necrosis (IIN), which leads to their initial clinical presentation. -To assess the effect of IIN on overall survival in patients with JINETs. -Ten JINETs with IIN during a 14-year period and a control group of 52 JINETs without IIN were identified retrospectively. The hematoxylin-eosin slides and gross descriptions were reviewed, and pathologic features were assessed. Overall survival was compared between the 2 groups using the Kaplan Meier method and Cox proportional hazards model. -At 1 year postresection, only 40% (4 of 10) of the patients with IIN were alive, whereas 94% (49 of 52) of those without IIN were alive (P < .001). Patients with IIN were significantly older than those without IIN (median, 83 years versus 65.5 years, P = .001). By univariate Cox proportional hazards regression, IIN was associated with a 4.30-fold increased risk of death (95% confidence interval 1.75-10.56; P = .001). When controlling for age, advanced stage (stage III or IV), tumor grade, and synchronous carcinoma in a multivariate analysis, IIN showed a trend toward prognostic significance (2.31-fold increased risk of death; 95% confidence interval, 0.85-6.27; P = .10).","yes. Helicobacter-negative gastritis and duodenitis occur significantly more often in paediatric IBD patients than in non-IBD controls, as well as in adult IBD patients. Such upper gastrointestinal inflammation appears to be particularly common in patients with Crohn's disease.","Based on single case reports, parvovirus B19 (B19) has repeatedly been proposed as an etiologic agent in patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), perhaps causing vasculitis by direct invasion of vascular endothelial cells because of the tissue distribution of the cellular B19 receptor. A cohort of children with HSP and other vasculitic diseases was investigated and compared with healthy control children to assess the role of B19 as well as parvovirus V9 (a putative emerging B19-like virus). Serum samples from 36 children with HSP (n = 29) or other vasculitic diseases (n = 7) were examined, and 38 healthy bone marrow donors were used as controls. The presence of specific B19 and V9 IgM and IgG antibodies was determined with a recently developed enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, and viral DNA was detected by a novel nested PCR. Specific IgM was not present in any of the patient or control serum samples. B19 DNA was detected in one patient, a previously healthy 8-year-old boy diagnosed with HSP, whereas none of the controls was B19-positive. V9 was not detected in any of the clinical or control samples. It seems likely that B19 infection might have triggered the development of HSP in the B19-positive patient, because B19 viremia is otherwise uncommon.","This study suggests that the pathogenesis of intestinal metaplasia at the SCJ is not uniform: at an endoscopically unremarkable SCJ it is a sequela of H pylori gastritis, but coexisting with endoscopic features of Barrett's oesophagus it is associated with male sex and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.","The epidemiology of reactive gastropathy and its relationship with other conditions of the gastrointestinal tract associated with NSAID use have not been evaluated. To test the hypothesis that if reactive gastropathy shares common aetiological factors with these conditions, the analysis of a large cohort would unveil associations. We queried a national pathology database for subjects with a diagnosis of reactive gastropathy; controls were patients with normal gastric biopsies. We also extracted diagnoses of H. pylori infection, intestinal metaplasia, duodenal lymphocytosis, duodenitis, ileitis, microscopic colitis and focal colitis. Of 504 011 patients with gastric biopsies, 69 101 had oesophageal, 166 134 duodenal, 13 010 ileal and 83 334 colonic biopsies. Reactive gastropathy was diagnosed in 15.6% of patients, H. pylori infection in 10.3% and normal gastric mucosa in 16.3%. Reactive gastropathy was evenly distributed across the US and increased from 2.0% in the first decade of life to >20% in octogenarians. Compared with controls, reactive gastropathy was significantly associated with Barrett's mucosa (OR 1.21 95% CI 1.16-129); duodenitis (OR 1.36; 95% CI 1.28-1.44); duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis (OR 1.25; 95% CI 1.13-1.39); active ileitis (OR 1.88; 95% CI 1.47-2.40); focal active colitis (OR 1.57; 95% CI 1.33-1.86); and collagenous colitis (OR 1.50; 95% CI 1.12-2.03).","The effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on the platelet count in patients with thrombocytopenic purpura is controversial. In this multicentre study, we prospectively assessed the effect of H. pylori eradication therapy in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients. Thirty-five consecutive patients with chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (11 males and 24 females, a median age of 57) were assessed for H. pylori infection by use of a urea breath test. All patients received 1-week triple therapy (amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and lansoprazole) to eradicate H. pylori. At 6 months, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients with a platelet count recovery of greater than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) were defined as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders. Helicobacter pylori infection was observed in 25 (71%) of the 35 patients. All infected patients were cured. Eleven patients were identified as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders; 24 were considered nonresponders. Platelet counts improved by more than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) in 11 (44%) of the 25 patients cured of H. pylori infection, while none of the 10 patients H. pylori-negative patients experienced the same improvement (P = 0.015). Univariate analysis showed that H. pylori infection and its eradication were significant factors associated with platelet recovery (P = 0.015).","Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small sized vasculitis affecting mainly children. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) gene polymorphisms have recently been implicated in the susceptibility to some vasculitides. To further investigate the clinical implication of ICAM-1 polymorphisms in HSP, we examined their potential association and influence in the development of severe complications in an unselected series of patients with HSP. Fifty-two patients, of which 41 were children, were diagnosed with HSP using classification criteria of Michel, et al at the Hospital Xeral-Calde (Lugo, Spain); 129 ethnically matched controls were included. Patients had at least one year of followup. Patients and controls were genotyped by allelic oligonucleotide techniques for ICAM-I polymorphism at codon 241 and 469. The frequency distribution of the alleles and genotypes for each ICAM-1 polymorphism did not show significant differences between HSP patients and controls. Also, no differences between patients with or without renal manifestations were found. However, the frequency of the codon 469 K/E genotype was significantly decreased in patients without severe gastrointestinal manifestations compared to those with them (22.29 vs 65%, OR 0.1, p = 0.02, after correction for age, sex, and disease duration). None of the 11 adults exhibited the R/G genotype at codon 241 compared with 7 of 41 children (OR 0.0, 95% CI 0.0-2.9, p = 0.14). Patients with the R/G genotype were associated with low incidence of renal manifestations and none developed permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae); however, this finding did not achieve statistical significance.","The proportion of patients with idiopathic chronic pancreatitis (ICP) that have an autoimmune origin is unknown. Three forms of ICP have been described: pseudotumoral, duct-destructive, and usual chronic pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to identify autoimmune stigmata in the 3 forms. All patients who underwent exploration for ICP were included. The following data were recorded: examination by an internal medicine specialist, autoantibodies and immunoglobulin screening, and pancreatic duct imaging. Sixty patients were included (pseudotumoral, n = 11; duct-destructive, n = 27; usual, n = 22). There were no significant differences among the 3 types with regard to sex ratio, age, frequency of acute pancreatitis, or obstructive jaundice. Pancreatic calcifications were seen only in the usual form (81%; P = .0001). Autoimmune disease was present in 10 patients: ulcerative colitis in 5 patients, primary sclerosing cholangitis in 2 patients, and Sjögren's syndrome, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and Graves' disease in 1 patient each. Autoimmune diseases were not more frequent in patients with pseudotumoral (36%) or duct-destructive (19%) forms than in those with the usual form (5%, P = .06). Immunoglobulin G4 levels were increased in 2 of 6 in the pseudotumoral, 1 of 9 in the duct-destructive, and 0 of 12 patients in the usual group. Combining clinical and biochemical autoimmune parameters, 24 patients (40%) had at least 1 autoimmune marker or disease.","Chronic antibiotic-refractory pouchitis (CARP) occurs more frequently in patients with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) with concomitant autoimmune disorders. The aim of this study was to assess the overlap between dysregulated immune features in patients with IPAA and their association with CARP. We identified 150 symptomatic patients with IPAA who met inclusion criteria, including measurement of select autoimmune serology. Demographic and clinical variables were compared between patients with and without CARP. Autoimmune thyroid disease was more frequent among patients with CARP. The frequency of primary sclerosing cholangitis (16.7% versus 5.3%; P = 0.04) and serum positivity for microsomal antibody (25% versus 6.1%, P = 0.003) were significantly greater in patients with CARP compared with non-CARP patients, respectively. Increased tissue infiltration by IgG4-expressing plasma cells was detected in 17 of 31 patients (54.8%) in the CARP group as compared with 10/67 (14.9%) in the non-CARP group (P = 0.0001). Forty-seven percent of patients in the CARP group versus 22.8% in the non-CARP group had at least 2 immune features (P = 0.019). Among patients with IgG4 histology, 87% of patients in the CARP group versus 60% in the non-CARP group had at least 1 immune marker (P = 0.004). On multivariate analysis, microsomal antibody expression (odds ratio, 6.8; 95% confidence interval, 1.3-42.6; P = 0.02) and increased IgG4-expressing plasma cells tissue infiltration (odds ratio, 9.6; 95% confidence interval, 3.2-32.6, P = 0.0001) were risk factors for CARP.","Most of the palpable purpuras examined were indeed related to leukocytoclastic vasculitis. In the remaining cases, biopsy did not contribute to the diagnosis since it only showed purpura without vessel wall inflammation. In our opinion, a skin biopsy is thus not essential where the clinical presentation is typical.","Our results demonstrate that inflammatory mesenteric diseases are heterogeneous: high components of plasma cells, eosinophils and TCD8+ lymphocytes were found respectively in 46, 23 and 80 % of cases; eosinophils were observed exclusively in sclerotic forms. Only 31 % of cases encompass numerous IgG4+ plasma cells, suggesting a pathogenesis different than hyper-IgG4 diseases.","The prevalence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection is high in China. It not only causes the damage of gastric epithelium, but also plays a potential pathogenic role in several extraintestinal diseases. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is one of the most common vasculitis syndromes affecting children. Although its cause is unclear, HSP is often considered to be associated with infectious agents. This metaanalysis of previously published studies was conducted using a predefined protocol to evaluate the underlying association between H. pylori infection and HSP in Chinese children. Predefined search strategy and inclusion criteria were set up to select studies reporting the prevalence of H. pylori infection among HSP children and control groups. Included studies were subjected to quality assessment and data extraction by two independent reviewers. The pooled odds ratio (OR) was calculated as the effect size via both traditional and cumulative meta-analysis. Heterogeneity was investigated by subgroup analysis, and the nonparametric \"trim and fill\" method was performed to adjust the overall estimate for the existence of publication bias. Ten eligible studies covering 749 HSP children and 560 controls were included for metaanalysis. Observational epidemiology studies clearly aimed at detecting the potential association between H. pylori infection and HSP with retrospective data collection from the children enrolled consecutively. Overall, 49.27% (369/749) of HSP children had evidence of H. pylori infection compared with 23.39% (131/560) of children in the control group. The pooled OR of H. pylori infection in HSP children (10 studies with 749 HSP children) was 3.80 [95% confidence interval (CI): 2.54-5.68, P<0.001], and the overall estimate from the cumulative meta-analysis confirmed the association with more narrow confidence interval (OR=3.35, 95% CI: 2.95-3.81). In HSP children mainly with abdominal manifestations (8 studies with 337 HSP children), the pooled OR was 4.62 (95% CI: 2.66-8.01, P<0.001). The adjusted pooled OR was 2.04 (95% CI: 1.48-2.82, P<0.001), determined by the nonparametric \"trim-andfill\" method for eliminating the effect of publication bias. H. pylori eradication therapy (4 studies with 266 HSP children) was capable of reducing the recurrence of HSP (RR=0.38, 95% CI: 0.25-0.58, P<0.001). Although the subgroup analysis for heterogeneity suggested that diagnostic methods and geographical diversity might be account for the heterogeneity, statistical analysis of differences revealed no differences between subgroups, indicating their limited impact on the overall estimates.","Duodenal biopsies were performed in less than half of the patients. In those not diagnosed with coeliac disease or upper gastrointestinal carcinoma, only three quarters underwent lower gastrointestinal assessment. Approximately 10% were diagnosed with gastrointestinal malignancy as a cause for their anaemia and in 66% of patients no gastrointestinal cause was found. All physicians need to be made fully aware of the BSG guidelines for investigation of IDA.","yes. In this study of patients unselected regarding IgA-tTg/EmA, thus unbiased in this respect, IgA/IgG-DGP identified adult coeliac disease patients negative for antibodies against endomysium and tissue transglutaminase. Serology is often negative in elderly patients with coeliac disease; a small bowel biopsy should therefore be performed generously before coeliac disease is excluded.","Patients with C. jejuni-related Guillain-Barré syndrome can show transient slowing of nerve conduction, mimicking demyelination, but C. jejuni infection does not appear to elicit acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.","TCRgamma clonality does not represent a marker of early disease. However, it might be useful to help in distinguishing celiac disease from other causes of nonspecific duodenitis.","yes. A substantial number of WD patients present without typical intestinal histology findings. Additional PCR analysis of intestinal tissue or synovial fluid increased the sensitivity of the diagnostic evaluation and should be considered particularly in patients presenting with atypical seronegative rheumatic diseases and a high-risk profile for WD.","no. DGE after PPPD seems to be of minor clinical importance following uncomplicated surgery. When taking the results into consideration, it can be said that, despite the lack of a control group, antecolic duodenojejunostomy might be the key to a low incidence of DGE after PPPD. In our experience, DGE is linked to the occurrence of other postoperative complications rather than to pylorus preservation.","The association of positive HLA-DQ2/DQ8 and serologic testing has a high predictive value for CD. We suggest that symptomatic children with high titers of immunoglobulin (Ig)A tTG could be diagnosed as patients with CD without performing jejunal biopsy. In other children, HLA-DQ2/DQ8 could be useful to exclude the diagnosis of CD if negative. In cases of low IgA tTG titers or in patients with IgA deficiency, intestinal biopsy remains mandatory.","yes. PU&E appears to be common in this selected population with a relatively high incidence of gastric PU&E. H. pylori associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Non H. pylori PU&E in children comprises approximately a third of all PU&E, are mostly idiopathic and appear earlier than H. pylori associated PU&E.","Sera from 30 consecutive pediatric patients with IBD were evaluated for ANCA-indirect immunofluorescence and its specific antibodies to investigate whether PR3-ANCA positivity (PR3-ANCA+) identifies a distinct IBD subtype. The 5 PR3-ANCA+ patients (17%) showed significantly more concomitant biliary disease and severe anal blood loss (P<0.05). None had vasculitis features at diagnosis nor during follow-up.","yes. Children with a clinical diagnosis of RAP have marked duodenal eosinophilia, independent of H. pylori infection, suggesting the role of unknown infectious or allergic triggers in the pathogenesis of functional gastrointestinal disorders in childhood. Further research is needed on the diagnostic and therapeutic benefits of targeting duodenal eosinophilia.","Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN) is the most serious long-term complication of Henoch-Schönlein purpura and aberrant galactosylation of IgA1 plays a role in its development. However, the precise role of genetic factors contributing to the abnormal IgA1 galactosylation remains unknown. In order to examine the effects of C1GALT1 gene encoding core 1 β1,3-galactosyltransferase, an important role in the β1,3 glycosylation of IgA1, on HSPN susceptibility, we conducted a case-control association genetic study in 269 HSP and 61 HSPN in China. Five tagging SNPs, SNP1(-734 C/T), SNP4(-465A/G), SNP6(-330 G/T), SNP7(-292 C/-), and SNP8(1365 G/A) in C1GALT1 were studied using single-locus and haplotype-based multilocus analysis. Our results demonstrated that 1365 G allele frequency was significantly higher in HSPN patients than in HSP patients without nephritis (0.459 vs 0.331, p = 0.0008, adjusted p' = 0.004) with an odds ratio (OR) = 1.716, 95%CI 1.151-2.560). The GG genotype of 1,365 G/A was significantly different in HSP without nephritis and HSPN (p = 0.008, adjusted p'' = 0.04). We did not observe statistically significant differences in haplotype frequencies between HSPN and HSP patients.","The main aim of this study was to evaluate the relationship between obesity and renal involvement in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). A retrospective study of 141 pediatric patients with HSP was conducted in our hospital. The clinical data of all patients were collected from the electronic medical record management system from January 2010 to June 2014. The possible risk factors of renal involvement, especially obesity, were analyzed using univariate and multivariate analyses. Renal involvement occurred in 45/141 of the patients. A univariate analysis showed that an age more than 7 years at onset, persistent purpura, obesity, time from symptoms onset to diagnosis more than 14 days, and decreased C3 all increased the risk of renal involvement in HSP. The forward stepwise logistic regression analysis indicated obesity (odds ratio (OR) 4.43, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.896 to 10.358), age more than 7 years at onset (OR 2.81, 95 % CI 1.142 to 6.907), and persistent purpura (OR 2.57, 95 % CI 1.119 to 5.909) were independent risk factors for renal involvement.","Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash.","Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a fairly common disease in children and adolescents. There are only limited data available for adults. A retrospective analysis was conducted to study renal manifestations in patients with HSP treated in our institution between 1982 and 2007. We divided our adult cohort according to age - under or over 60 years - to examine differences in elderly patients. HSP was identified in 2.2% of patients referred to us for kidney biopsy. Purpuric lesions and renal involvement were found in all patients. An important triggering factor for the development of HSP in our series was chronic alcohol intake. Forty percent of our patients fulfilled the WHO criteria for alcoholics. Renal involvement was particularly prominent in patients over 60 years of age. At disease onset, estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was 63% lower in the elderly. Within a median follow-up of 8 years, renal function was significantly better in younger adults than in the elderly. 32% of the elderly have shown Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) < 20 ml/min/1.73 m2 in contrast to only 7% in patients < 60 years. Furthermore, significantly more elderly patients reached end-stage renal failure.","Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is also known as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Increased platelet destruction and insufficient platelet production are both responsible for its etiopathogenesis. ITP can be diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia. One hundred forty-three cases of chronic ITP that were monitored in a hematology clinic were retrospectively evaluated. All cases received first line treatment of 1 mg/kg/day prednisolone. Corticosteroid nonresponsive (CN) cases and corticosteroid-dependent (CD) cases underwent splenectomies. The rate of CN/CD cases was found to be 53% (n=76). Sixty-six percent of these cases (n=50) underwent splenectomies. The ratio of non-responsive cases to relapse cases after splenectomy (SN/SR) was 30% (n=15). The total number of cases was 41, including those without splenectomy (n=26) and with SY/SR (n=15). Helicobacter pylori (Hp) eradication, immunosuppressive agents and danazol treatments were administered to patients (n=10, n=14 and n=4, respectively). Currently, 13 patients are being monitored without treatment. Fifteen patients who were non-responsive to Hp eradication treatment, immunosuppressive treatment or danazol treatment are still being monitored without any treatment.","Henoch-Schoenlein purpura has been reported to be associated with parvovirus B19 infection, particularly in children and rarely in adults. We report the case of a 42-year-old patient presenting with this association. A 42-year-old patient was admitted to our medical center because of lower limb purpura. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura diagnosis was confirmed on histological findings (kidney biopsy) and concomitantly parvovirus B19 infection was proved by serological test (IgM+). Association of Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and parvovirus B19 infection has already been described. However, none of the reported studies demonstrated clearly the link between these two diseases. With regard to this observation, we wonder about the systematic use of the parvovirus B19 serological test in patients presenting first Henoch-Schoenlein purpura. Indeed, parvovirus B19-induced vasculitis is habitually controlled with intravenous immunoglobulins.","yes. Helicobacter pylori infection played a role in the pathogenesis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura in approximately 30% of all patients assessed and 45% of the patients with H. pylori infection. Eradication of H. pylori in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients led to improved disease activity.","Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune bleeding disorder, which occurs as a result of autoantibodies attachment to the platelets surface and subsequent destruction. Several organisms can mimic features of human antigens (Ags) and induce autoantibody production. One of these organisms is Helicobacter pylori (HP). We assessed the prevalence and relationship of HP infection with ITP in a population of children. One hundred and six children younger than 18 years old were enrolled in this case-control study in which 42 children with ITP were in the case group and 64 healthy children were in the control group. Stool exam for detection of HP-Ag were performed and the variables were compared between the two groups. Mean ± standard deviation age of case and control group was 6.4 ± 3.4 and 8.6 ± 4.4 years old, respectively. HP stool Ag differ significantly between the case and the control groups (P<0.05).","A prospective study should explore the link between Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and primary parvovirus B19 infection. Moreover, we should evaluate intravenous immunoglobulins' efficacy in Henoch-Schoenlein purpura associated with active parvovirus B19 infection in order to improve the prognosis of this disease.","To study the influence of deletion/insertion polymorphism in the 16th intron of the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) gene on clinical manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. Cross sectional study. ACE gene polymorphism was determined in patients (4-15 years old at onset) with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (n = 40) and compared with that in patients with IgA nephropathy (n = 79). ACE genotypes, systemic blood pressures, urine protein excretion rate, haematuria, creatinine clearance, serum ACE activities. The initial clinical manifestations of both Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis and IgA nephropathy were no different among homozygotes for insertion (II) and deletion (DD), and heterozygotes (ID) for the ACE gene. In patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis, the incidence of moderate to heavy proteinuria at four and eight years after onset was more than five times higher in the DD genotype than in the II or ID genotypes. No such trend was seen in patients with IgA nephropathy. The number of patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis in whom proteinuria resolved at four and eight years after onset was significantly lower in the DD genotype compared with the II genotype, whereas no differences were detected among the three different genotypes in patients with IgA nephropathy. Plasma ACE activities in patients with the DD genotype were significantly higher than in those with non-DD genotypes.","yes. The ACE DD genotype predicts persistent proteinuria in Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. The proteinuria might be related to a defective angiotensin system which is genetically determined by the D/I polymorphism.","Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a multisystem disease believed to be a consequence of the entrapment of circulating IgA-containing immune complexes in blood vessel walls throughout the skin, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. The skin manifestations are characterized by nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura over the lower extremities. We assessed adult patients with HSP who had nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura on the extensor surfaces of their lower limbs, and had no associated connective tissue disease. Patient medical records, including clinical presentation, laboratory data, and direct immunofluorescence (DIF) reports, were reviewed retrospectively. We reviewed the records of 25 adult patients with HSP who presented at our department, between 2006 and 2008, with an initial cutaneous manifestation of palpable purpura on their lower extremities. Adult HSP was defined in all cases as documented leukocytoclastic vasculitis according to a skin biopsy specimen, with histopathologic evidence of IgA deposition by DIF. Statistical analyses were performed using a χ(2) test to compare prevalence among each clinical manifestation. There was a significant correlation between IgM deposition by DIF and renal involvement (χ(2) = 5.23, P = .022). IgM deposition and complement 3 deposition by DIF showed a close relationship (χ(2) = 5.11, P = .024). There was a significant positive correlation between serum IgA and C-reactive protein levels (Spearman's rank correlation coefficient = 0.35, P = .044).","Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination."],"string":"[\n \"The pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is multifactorial, with some patients presenting additional autoimmune symptoms. Inflammatory colitis associated with autoimmune (AI) liver disease appears to have clinical features different from those of \\\"classical\\\" ulcerative colitis (CUC). The aim of this study was to describe these features, in order to differentiate a subgroup of colitis associated with autoimmunity (CAI) from CUC. Twenty-eight consecutive children with inflammatory colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), celiac disease, or AI hepatitis were compared with a matched control group of 27 children with isolated UC. Clinical course, histology, as well as inflammatory profile in the colonic mucosa based on real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) were analyzed. In CAI the main digestive symptoms at disease onset were abdominal pain (12/28) and bloody strings in the stool (12/28), along with a high prevalence of autoimmune diseases in relatives, as compared with bloody diarrhea in the CUC group (26/27). At diagnosis, pancolitis was seen in 18/28 CAI patients compared with 8/27 in UC. In CAI, the pathological findings were different from CUC: 1) major lesions predominantly located in the right colon; 2) pseudo-villous appearance of the mucosa, and strong infiltration with eosinophils; 3) mild glandular lesions; and 4) differing inflammatory infiltrate with reduced FOXP3, interleukin (IL)-2, and thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP) levels. Evolution in CAI was less aggressive, requiring less corticosteroids/immunomodulators.\",\n \"yes. In this model, BPJ exclusion from gut induces M3 and CCK-A receptor expression and increases IL-6 production. In this experimental corollary of gallstone pancreatitis, BPJ exclusion from gut may play a key role in the mechanism of disease pathogenesis.\",\n \"yes. IgA mesangial glomerulonephritis is a disease of unknown aetiology which has been associated with other diseases. Chronic overexposure to cadmium may contribute to the development of this nephrophathy.\",\n \"Cerebellitis associated with mGluR1-Abs should be considered in the differential diagnosis of patients with subacute cerebellar ataxia. This first case without any tumor found suggests a possible idiopathic autoimmune rather than a paraneoplastic mechanism. In consideration of this possible primitive autoimmune ataxia involving the directly pathogenic mGluR1-Abs, immunoactive therapy should be initiated as early as possible.\",\n \"yes. The oral microbiome is unlikely causative of ONJ, rather individuals with BAONJ lacked immune resiliency which impaired their capacity to respond adequately to the immunological stress of N-BP treatment. This may be the common factor linking N-BP and anti-RANK agents to ONJ in at-risk individuals. Preventive and/or therapeutic strategies should target the wound healing deficits present in those with ONJ.\",\n \"no. In adult patients with staple food induced gastrointestinal symptoms, objectively verified by DBPCFC, there were no indications of IgE mediated allergy to the relevant foods suggesting other mechanisms in adults than in children. Future studies may include measures of local events in the shock organs in relation to food intake, for instance utilising inflammatory markers in jejunal fluids.\",\n \"Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a common cause of paediatric renal disease in children, representing 10-15% of paediatric glomerulonephritis. This study examined the long-term outcome of biopsy-proven HSP nephritis to identify correlations between disease development and treatment. Patients from three French centres were retrospectively analysed. We followed up 142 patients aged from 2 to 10.5 years with HSP nephritis, graded according to the International Study Group of Kidney Disease in Childhood classification. Mean (±SD) age at presentation was 7.6 ± 2.8 years. Nephrotic range proteinuria was present in 28% of patients with Grade II lesions, 60% with Grade III and 90% with Grade IV. Significant proteinuria (>0.5 g/L) was found in nine of 48 patients 3 years after renal biopsy, eight of 25 patients after 5 years and three of 14 patients after 10 years. There was no correlation between the proteinuria risk at 3, 5 or 10 years and the initial histological lesion or treatment modality. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers (ACEi/ARB) was linked to lower proteinuria, especially if it was started precociously.\",\n \"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection has no major role in development of gastric metaplasia in duodenal bulb in non-ulcer dyspeptic patients. Furthermore, it does not result in positive CagA-serology, an increased risk for gastric metaplasia compared with CagA-seronegative cases.\",\n \"yes. Our data reinforce the evidence that hBD1 expression is greatly reduced in the duodenum of patients with active CD. It also strengthens the concept that reduced activity of immune peptides may predispose individuals to bacterial proliferation that contributes to the pathogenesis of CD.\",\n \"Based on current knowledge, it is possible to have an initial diagnosis of intrinsic or extrinsic ureteropelvic junction obstruction (UPJO) based solely on clinical and imaging findings. However, it may not be possible to strictly discriminate an intrinsic case with an additional extrinsic component from a primarily intrinsic stenosis because of lower pole aberrant vessels. These two disorders may coexist or trigger each other. Herein, we aimed to compare the histological changes observed in intrinsic and extrinsic types of UPJO. Our hypothesis is that inspecting the UPJ during pyeloplasty may not be a sufficient way to delineate the underlying cause of obstruction in every individual. We retrospectively reviewed the data of 56 patients who had dismembered pyeloplasty. The intrinsic and extrinsic groups consisted of 38 and 18 patients, respectively. Masson's trichrome stain, CD117, and connexin 43 (Cx43) antibody were used in histopathology and immunochemistry. Statistical calculations were done with chi-square and Mann-Whitney U tests.\",\n \"Several immune-mechanisms have been discussed in the background of Whipple's disease, but their primary or secondary role is yet undetermined. First of all, this is a gastrointestinal disease; however, extraintestinal symptoms may be present many years before the final diagnosis. The histological hallmark for the diagnosis is the presence of numerous macrophages in the duodenal mucosa showing periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive inclusions, and the polymerase chain reaction. The choice of antibiotics and the length of the treatment is empiric, but in most cases there is an immediate response to therapy. Relapses are common, especially the involvements of central nervous system.\",\n \"To investigate the relationship between vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) expression and microvessel injury of renal interstitium in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN). Thirty-two children with HSPN and who had not received glucocorticoid or immunodepressants treatment before hospitalization were enrolled. Five children undergoing nephrectomy due to renal trauma were used as the control group. Renal samples were stained by hematoxylin and eosin and renal pathological changes were evaluated semi-quantitatively. CD34 and VEGF expression was detected by immunohistochemistry. CD34 was used as the marker for endothelial cells of renal microvessels. The microvessel density (MVD) was calculated by CD34 immunostaining. Compared with the control and the renal pathological grade II HSPN groups, MVD in the grade III and above HSPN groups decreased significantly, with an obvious reduction in MVD with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). The renal microvessel score in the grades IIIa, IIIb, IV, and V HSPN groups decreased obviously compared with that in the control group. The renal microvessel score decreased with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the grade II HSPN group was higher (p<0.05), while that in the grades IV and V HSPN group was lower than that in the control group (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the HSPN group showed a significant reduction with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). There was a positive correlation between VEGF expression and MVD in renal tissue in the HSPN group (r=0.935, p<0.01).\",\n \"Duodenal gastric metaplasia (DGM) is commonly found in association with Helicobacter pylori (Hp)-associated gastritis in adults. DGM is also considered a risk factor for duodenal ulcer development. The prevalence of DGM in children and its association with gastritis, duodenitis, or the presence of Hp organisms is not clear. We investigated the prevalence of DGM in children and explore its association with several possible risk factors, including age, gender, gastritis, duodenitis, or Hp presence in the gastric antrum. A retrospective analysis of 173 upper endoscopy procedures performed between 1993 and 1995 at Cabell Huntington Hospital, Huntington, WV, was done. Gastric and duodenal biopsies were stained with Giemsa for Hp detection, periodic acid-Schiff for DGM, and hematoxylin and eosin for histologic assessment. Gastric mucosal inflammation was graded according to Sydney criteria. Duodenal gastric metaplasia was identified in 23 of 173 (13%) patients. Duodenitis but not age, gender, gastritis, or the presence of Hp in the gastric antrum was associated with DGM development. In 4 of 23 DGM foci, Hp was identified.\",\n \"yes. Our findings provide new insight into the mechanisms mediating inherited and acquired noncirrhotic portal hypertension, expand the phenotypic spectrum of DGUOK deficiency, and provide a new genetic test for a specific cause of idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension. (Hepatology 2016;63:1977-1986).\",\n \"yes. The prevalence of H. pylori is lower in patients with bleeding DUs when compared to patients with uncomplicated DUs. In addition, the sensitivity and negative predictive value of the RUT is lower in patients presenting with bleeding, and other methods of H. pylori diagnosis should be used in this patient group.\",\n \"Hemoconcentration markers are predictors of severe acute pancreatitis but have not been specifically evaluated in post-endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography pancreatitis (PEP). Case-control study of patients undergoing ERCP for suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. We identified patients with PEP (PEP positive) and controls (PEP negative) in a 1:2 ratio. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hematocrit (Hct) were measured before procedure, upon admission, and 24 hours later. Preprocedure levels of BUN and Hct were analyzed to control for confounders. Among the PEP-positive patients, BUN level, Hct level, and systemic inflammatory response syndrome are compared between severe and mild/moderate cases. There were 149 PEP-positive patients, including 18 patients (12.1%) with severe PEP and 301 PEP-negative controls. After adjusting, higher preprocedure BUN level (odds ratio [OR], 1.05 [1.01, 1.10]; P < 0.02) and pancreatic sphincterotomy (OR, 1.60 [1.01, 2.55]; P < 0.05) were associated with PEP, whereas older age (OR, 0.98 [0.96, 0.99]; P < 0.02) and a greater body mass index (OR, 0.97 [0.94, 0.99]; P < 0.03) with a lower rate.Difference in BUN level of 0.0 or greater (failure to decline) had a sensitivity of 71% and a specificity of 79% for differentiating severe from mild/moderate PEP. Patients with severe PEP were more likely to have systemic inflammatory response syndrome upon admission (44.4% [21.5, 67.4]) and after 24 hours (61.1% [38.6, 83.6] versus mild/moderate (9.2% [4.2, 14.1], 10.6% [5.4,16.0]; P < 0.0001 for each).\",\n \"yes. The identification of a second mutation in the cationic trypsinogen gene (HP2) suggests a dominant role of trypsin in premature protease activation-mediated forms of acute pancreatitis. The pathogenesis of hereditary pancreatitis also suggests that chronic pancreatitis may result from recurrent acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"1) The discrepancy between autoantibody profile and the clinical phenotype, at least in PF patients, appears to be due to non-pathogenic anti-Dsg3 antibodies; 2) in a proportion of patients the relationship between the Dsg1 and Dsg3 ELISA titers and the disease severity was absent; 3) in some patients, the anti-Dsg1 and -3 autoantibodies were lacking at diagnosis, suggesting a role of other antigens in the pathogenesis of the disease and, lastly, 4) the pure cutaneous and mucosal forms tend to respond more efficiently to the therapy than the mucocutaneous forms and have a persistent response.\",\n \"Non ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is being postulated as one of the gastroduodenal manifestations of H. pylori infection. H. pylori infection may result in clinical symptoms as well as histological changes in NUD. To compare clinical symptom score and histological changes in H. pylori (Hp) positive and negative untreated NUD patients. Forty six patients with dyspeptic symptoms and normal upper GI endoscopic examinations were included in this study. During endoscopy 2 biopsies each were taken from the antrum and body of the stomach. These biopsies were used for rapid urease test (RUT) and histological examination. Patients were diagnosed to have Hp infection if either of two tests were positive. There were two groups of patients: Hp positive and Hp negative NUD patients. Clinical scoring using Glasgow dyspepsia score (Max. 20) and histological analysis, using Sydney system (Max score 11) was done and compared for both the groups of patients. Clinical scoring, RUT and histological scoring were blinded to each other. H. pylori was present in 29(63%) of the 46 patients. Mean clinical score for H. pylori positive patient was 10.9 while for Hp negative patient was 11.4. Total histological score for Hp positive and Hp negative patients was 3.37 Vs 1.76 (antrum) and 3.68 Vs 1.29(body) (p < .001), respectively. The only histological change found to be statistically significant between Hp positive and Hp negative patients was presence of lymphoid follicles (p < .05).\",\n \"In the current era of computed tomography, idiopathic or asymptomatic intussusception is being seen more commonly; however, the majority of adult intussusceptions still have pathologic lead points. From our experience, all patients with palpable mass, obstructive symptoms or obstruction, gastrointestinal bleeding, or a lead point on computed tomography should undergo operative exploration.\",\n \"In unselected patients attending a gastroenterology clinic, small bowel histology and endomysial antibody serology show similar predictive value in the diagnosis of coeliac disease. These results emphasize that a combination of clinical, histological and serological criteria are required for effective diagnosis of this disorder. Exclusive reliance on histology or serology will result in failure to make a diagnosis in a significant proportion of patients.\",\n \"To discover whether scattered white spots (SWS) in the duodenum are related to a specific kind of disease. We also scrutinized other upper endoscopic findings which might be associated with SWS. Among the patients who were admitted for upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy, those having the endoscopic appearance of SWS in duodenum were enrolled in this study. In total 107 patients [70 women, 37 men, mean age: 51.6 +/- 16.88 years (range: 17-82 years)] were included. At least three duodenal biopsies were taken from each patient and histopathological examinations were done by experienced pathologists. The histopathological examination revealed that 39 (36.4%) patients had intestinal lymphangiectasia (IL), 15 (14%) patients had giardiasis (G) and 30 (28.1%) patients had chronic non-specific duodenitis (CD). Two patients with IL were also found to have G. Twenty patients had both IL and CD. One had both G and CD. G was the least common etiology for SWS in the duodenum. The most common reasons for SWS in the duodenum in this study group were IL and CD, in order of decreasing frequency. There was no significant relationship with the other upper endoscopic findings in all these patients.\",\n \"The causes of misdiagnosis were low cellularity, epithelial atypia, and non-representative background. The important diagnostic clues to suspect a diagnosis of IgG4-RD include low cellularity despite adequate effort, inflammatory background rich in lymphocytes and spindle cells admixed with a few plasma cells and eosinophils along with radiological features and raised serum IgG4 Diagn. Cytopathol. 2017;45:14-21. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.\",\n \"POEMS (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal plasma cell disorder, and skin changes) syndrome may be mistaken for chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP). Differentiating the 2 entities is crucial, as there are major treatment implications. We compared platelet counts in 136 POEMS patients and 67 CIDP controls. Of the patients with POEMS, 53.7% had thrombocytosis, compared with 1.5% of those with CIDP (P < 0.0001). The median platelet count in patients with POEMS was 467,000/μl compared with 275,000/μl in those with CIDP (P < 0.0001).\",\n \"no. The magnitude of [13C]urea breath test or H. pylori IgG serology cannot be used to predict the presence or absence of gastroduodenal ulcer disease.\",\n \"no. Anti-Cag A antibodies do not seem to discriminate duodenal ulcer patients from non ulcer dyspepsia in the Indian population.\",\n \"The pathogenesis of idiopathic pancreatitis (IP) remains poorly understood. Our hypothesis is that IP is a sequel of micro-crystallization of hepatic bile. A prospective case control study compared 55 patients; symptomatic cholelithiasis - 30 (14 male, median age 36 years; mean BMI - 25.1 kg/m2), gallstone pancreatitis - 9 (3 male, median age 35 years; mean BMI - 24.86 kg/m2 ) and IP - 16 (9 male, median age 34 years; mean BMI -23.34 kg/m2) with 30 controls (15 male, median age 38 years; mean BMI = 24.5 kg/m2) undergoing laparotomy for conditions not related to the gall bladder and bile duct. Ultrafiltered bile from the common hepatic duct in patients and controls was incubated in anaerobic conditions and examined by polarized light microscopy to assess bile nucleation time (NT). In the analysis, the mean NT of patients with gallstones and gallstone pancreatitis was taken as a cumulative mean NT for those with established gallstone disease (EGD). Patients were similar to controls. Mean NT in all groups of patients was significantly shorter than controls (EGD cumulative mean NT, 1.73 +/- 0.2 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001 and IP patients mean NT, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001). However, NT in those with IP was longer compared with those with EGD (mean NT in IP, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. cumulative mean in EGD: 1.73 +/- 0.2 days, P = 0.002).\",\n \"IP with marked IgG4-positive plasma cell infiltration without extrathoracic lesions of IgG4-RD had different pathological features from those of IgG4-RD, and it is appropriate to regard this as a separate entity.\",\n \"Helicobacter Pylori infection has been strongly associated with upper gastrointestinal (GI) disease, especially duodenal ulcer. Endoscopy or contrast radiography is needed to diagnose and appropriately manage peptic ulcer disease. These diagnostic procedures, however, are time consuming and expensive; endoscopy is invasive and contrast radiography cannot help in the diagnosis of H pylori infection. Our aim was to examine in a prospective study the relation between serologic detection of cytotoxic associated gene (CagA) H pylori strains and endoscopic findings among young dyspeptic patients to determine whether this noninvasive test can help differentiate patients with from those without ulcers. One hundred patients younger than 45 years with dyspepsia referred for upper GI endoscopy were included in the study. During endoscopy antral biopsy specimens were obtained for the rapid urease test and histologic examination. At histologic examination gastritis was graded from 0 (normal histologic features) to 3 (severe gastritis). After endoscopy blood was obtained for serologic determination of CagA status. Among the 100 patients 56 were H pylori positive and 44 were H pylori negative. In the group of 56 H pylori-positive patients 36 (64.3%) had peptic ulcers and 20 (35.7%) did not. Among patients with peptic ulcer 34 of 36 (94.4%) were CagA positive and 2 (5.6%) were CagA negative. The respective values for the group of patients without ulcers were 9 of 20 (45%) and 11 of 20 (55%). The difference in the proportion of CagA-positive subjects between the group with and that without peptic ulcer was highly significant (p < 0.0001).\",\n \"yes. The results suggest that a high density of cagA-positive strains in the duodenum with severe duodenitis are important determinants of DU disease.\",\n \"yes. Preexisting ulcerative colitis often has an aggressive course, while de novo ulcerative colitis may develop in patients transplanted for primary sclerosing cholangitis and treated without long term steroids.\",\n \"We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to analyze the contribution of the double-balloon enteroscopy (DBE) for diagnosis of the small bowel disorders. Forty-four patients (20 women, 24 men; mean age 53.5 years-old, range 21-89 years) with chronic gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea, polyposis, weight-loss, Roux-en-Y surgery, and other indications underwent DBE. Twenty patients had occult or obscure gastrointestinal bleeding. The source of bleeding was identified in 15/20 (75%): multiple angiodysplasias in four, arterial-venous malformation beyond the ligament of Treitz in two that could be treated with injection successfully. Other diagnoses included: duodenal adenocarcinoma, jejunal tuberculosis, erosions and ulcer of the jejunum. Of 24 patients with other indications, the diagnosis could be achieved in 18 of them (75%), including: two lymphomas, plasmocytoma, Gardner's syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers' syndrome, familial adenomatous polyposis, Behçet's disease, jejunal submucosal lesion, lymphangiectasia due to blastomycosis and unspecific chronic jejunitis. Of three cases with Roux-en-Y reconstruction, two underwent DBE in order to perform biopsies of the excluded duodenum. Additionally, two patients underwent DBE to exclude Crohn's disease and lymphoma of the small bowel. The mean length of small bowel examination was 240 +/- 50 cm during a single approach. The diagnostic yield was 75% (33/44 cases) and therapeutic yield was 63.6%. No major complications were observed, only minor complication such as sore throat in 4/44 (9.1%).\",\n \"While acral ischemic lesions could represent initial or isolated (forme fruste) manifestations of a defined vasculitis, acral ischemic lesions may rarely be encountered as the predominant manifestation of an as yet unclassified vasculitis. the histological findings seem to differ. Our report includes a peculiar case of giant cell arteritis of small arteries not classifiable as giant cell arteritis of large arteries or Takayasu disease.\",\n \"yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.\",\n \"Mesenteric panniculitis (MP), sclerotic mesenteritis (SM) and mesenteric lipodystrophy (ML) are the three histopathological forms of a rare inflammatory mesenteric disease. The pathogenesis is unknown until now. Hypothesis of a dysimmune disorder is advocated. Our purpose was to find histological basis to assert this hypothesis. All patients with a diagnosis of inflammatory mesenteric disease made in Beaujon hospital were selected. A histological study and a systematic immunostaining with IgG4, CD3 and CD8 antibodies were performed for each patient with paraffin block available. Dysimmune features were defined by: a plasma cells component>30 %, an eosinophilic polynuclears component>10 %, a rate TCD8/CD3>30 % and IgG4+ plasma cells>30/high power field (x400). Cases were classified in 3 forms on the basis of the predominant component: MP (lymphoid/plasma cell infiltrate), SM (fibrosis), ML (fat necrosis). Thirteen patients (7 men, 6 women) were selected, with a mean age of 57 years (21-80 years); a paraffin block was available for 10 patients. The clinical and histological presentations were heterogeneous: a mesenteric mass was the most frequent mode of revelation (6/13 patients) and all histological forms were present (3 MP, 5 SM and 5 ML). Nine patients had surgical biopsy, 2 had a trephine biopsy and 2 a resection. Standard histological analysis showed numerous eosinophils (>or =10 %) and plasma cells (>30 %) in respectively 3 (23 %) and 6 (46 %) of the 13 cases. The immunohistochemistry (performed in 10 patients) showed numerous TCD8+ in 80 % of the cases and numerous IgG4+ plasma cells in only 31 % of the cases (4 cases) (IgG4+>30/x400).\",\n \"no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.\",\n \"yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that the IgA anti-tTG response in coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis is focused on the region of tTG responsible for its transamidation and deamidation reactions, whereas the IgG response may target other regions of the enzyme.\",\n \"Clinical or biochemical autoimmune stigmata are present in 40% of patients with ICP. Autoimmune mechanisms may be frequent in idiopathic pancreatitis.\",\n \"Valvular regurgitation, pericardial effusion, pulmonary hypertension and increased left ventricular mass index occur with disproportionately high frequency in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome and no clinically apparent heart disease. Thus echocardiographic studies may need to be performed in these patients especially when palpable purpura, antibody reactivity and low C4 levels are present.\",\n \"In 2012, European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition published novel guidelines on celiac disease (CD) diagnosis. Symptomatic children with serum anti-transglutaminase (anti-tTG) antibody levels ≥10 times upper limit of normal (ULN) could avoid duodenal biopsies after positive HLA test and serum anti-endomysial antibodies (EMAs). So far, both asymptomatic and symptomatic patients with anti-tTG titer<10 times ULN should undergo upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies to confirm diagnosis. The aim of this study was to assess the accuracy of serological tests to diagnose CD in asymptomatic patients. We retrospectively reviewed data of 286 patients (age range: 10 months to 17 years) with CD diagnosis based on elevated titer of anti-tTG, EMA positivity, and histology. All patients were distinguished between symptomatic and asymptomatic; histological lesions were graded according to the Marsh-Oberhuber (MO) criteria. Fisher exact test was applied to analyze both groups in terms of diagnostic reliability of serological markers. A total of 196 patients (68.53%) had anti-tTG titers ≥10 times ULN. Among them, a group of 156 patients (79.59%) also had symptoms suggestive of CD (\\\"high-titer\\\" symptomatic); of these, 142 patients (91.02%) showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). Conversely, 40 out of 196 patients (20.40%) were asymptomatic (\\\"high-titer\\\" asymptomatic) and 37 patients (92.5%) of them showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). No difference in histological damage was found between \\\"high-titer\\\" symptomatic and \\\"high-titer\\\" asymptomatic children (Fisher exact test, P=1.000).\",\n \"yes. Extraluminal duodenal diverticula are frequently found. They rarely cause symptoms and need no surgical treatment. While ampullary duodenal diverticula can cause chronic pancreatitis, periampullary duodenal diverticula are no etiologic factor.\",\n \"Atopy and systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis (SoJIA) are two potential outcomes of a dysregulated immune system. Although rare, SoJIA causes 60% of the morbidity of JIA patients which exhibit a wide heterogeneity of prognosis and treatment. Co-morbidities can complicate the responses to therapy. To study the influence of co-existing atopy on the prognosis of SoJIA. Patients diagnosed with SoJIA between Jan 2006 and Sep 2010 were screened, enrolled in this prospective cohort study, and followed for 2 years. Management of SoJIA patients was assessed by ACR Pedi30/50/70 criteria, laboratory variables, and systemic feature score. At disease onset, 61 SoJIA patients (34 male and 27 female) were enrolled and were divided into SoJIA patients with atopy (n = 27) or those without atopy (n = 34). Atopic group at disease onset had significantly higher numbers of affected joints, ferritin levels and IgE serum levels than the non-atopic group. At 3 and 6 months, fewer SoJIA patients with atopy reached the ACR Pedi50 criteria (p < 0.02). During the 2 years of follow-up time, the number of infections and the number of flares were significantly higher in the SoJIA with atopy group (p < 0.01).\",\n \"yes. The idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease associated with gastrointestinal symptoms in CVID is a unique combination of diverse histologic findings accompanied by excessive Th1 cytokine production, distinct from that in Crohn's disease. These data show that human gut mucosal inflammatory disease can occur with excess interleukin-12 and interferon-gamma production alone and provide a rationale for developing targeted therapies for this complication of CVID.\",\n \"no. Carefully selected clinically stable patients that have postoperative pneumatosis intestinalis or exhibit rectal bleeding may be successfully managed by reduced enteral feedings with no antibiotics. J Pediatr Surg 36:1820-1823.\",\n \"Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is the commonest childhood cause of acute renal failure. Peritoneal dialysis peritonitis (PDP) is a well-recognised complication, with some children requiring surgical intervention (SI). The aim of this study is to determine whether the presence of enteric organisms in cases of PDP might predict the need for SI. Retrospective, 5-year (2009-2014) case note review of all HUS cases requiring PD presenting to a single centre. Mann-Whitney U test was used for continuous non-parametric data and χ (2) for categorical data. 48 children required PD for HUS, 18/48 (38 %) developed PDP and of these 5/18 (28 %) required SI (subtotal colectomy n = 4, small bowel resection n = 1). Peritoneal fluid was cultured as part of the work-up for PDP. The presence of enteric organisms was associated with a 10.4 fold relative risk of requiring surgery (p = 0.02, 95 % CI 1.5-71.9), with 4/5 of these patients requiring surgery (median 17 days post-culture result). Only 1/13 patients not requiring surgery grew gram-negative bacteria.\",\n \"In small vessel vasculitis and its renal-limited form, idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis, renal damage is characterized by pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (CGN) without histological evidence of immunoglobulin (Ig) deposition. In some patients, however, significant amounts of immune deposits may be detected. Therefore, we evaluated the clinical significance of these immune deposits in anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)-associated pauci-immune CGN. Renal biopsies of 45 consecutive patients with new onset of Wegener's granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis and idiopathic CGN were retrospectively evaluated by light microscopy, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy and the findings compared with renal function and outcome. Typical pauci-immune CGN was found in 37 patients (group I). In eight patients (18%; group II), however, histopathological examination revealed substantial deposition of Ig in the mesangium and/or along the glomerular basement membrane. Five of these eight patients were cANCA positive; two initially had pANCA and developed a cANCA pattern and one was pANCA positive. There were no differences between groups in age, gender, renal function or extra-renal organ involvement at the time of biopsy. However, patients in group II had significantly more proteinuria (5.4+/-3.1 vs 1.3+/-1.0 g/24 h; P=0.016). We also observed a trend for a worse outcome with respect to renal function and mortality in group II patients; however, the differences did not reach significance.\",\n \"To assess the influence of interleukin-8 (IL-8), epithelial cell-derived neutrophil-activating peptide (ENA-78), and regulated upon activation normal T cell expressed and secreted (RANTES) gene polymorphisms in the susceptibility and clinical expression of patients fulfilling classification criteria for Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Fifty patients (25 men) from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP according to proposed criteria were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-8, ENA-78, and RANTES gene polymorphisms. No allele or genotype differences between patients fulfilling HSP classification criteria and controls were observed for any of the chemokines. However, a significantly increased frequency of allele A of the IL-8 gene polymorphism was found in patients with HSP who developed renal manifestations compared with patients without renal involvement (p = 0.02; pcorr = 0.036). Moreover, the genotype distribution in HSP patients with and without renal involvement showed statistically significant differences (p = 0.02).\",\n \"This series of cases demonstrates the importance of considering G lamblia as a cause for GI symptoms even in the absence of diarrhea. Routine procurement of duodenal biopsy specimens is valuable for recognition of atypical presentations of patients with G lamblia and avoiding delays in diagnosis.\",\n \"Peptic ulcers and erosions (PU&E) are thought to be uncommon in children. Patients with early exposure to Helicobacter pylori may be at a higher risk for early onset PU&E. Children in Israel have a high prevalence and early acquisition of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) and have easy access to pediatric gastroenterologists and endoscopy. Our aim was to describe the prevalence and characteristics of PU&E in this population referred by Pediatric Gastroenterologists for an upper endoscopy. We conducted a retrospective study over the years January 2003-May 2006. Over these years we had information on 751 diagnostic upper endoscopies. PU&E was regarded as erosive gastritis/duodenitis or ulcer in either the stomach or duodenum. H. pylori status was assessed using rapid urease test and gastric biopsies. PU&E was detected in 169 (22.5%) patients (ulcers 51 (6.8%), erosions 118 (15.7%)). One hundred twenty-four had gastric PU&E and 58 had duodenal PU&E. H. pylori was positive in 112 (66.3%). H. pylori-associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years, with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Most of the H. pylori-negative PU&E were idiopathic and improved symptomatically on PPI treatment. Interestingly, 43% of patients with PU&E in our cohort were either immigrants from the former Soviet Union or of Israeli Arab origin.\",\n \"yes. This multicenter study further demonstrated that the multiple domains of ADAMTS13, particularly the Cys-rich and spacer domains, are frequently targeted by anti-ADAMTS13 type G immunoglobulins in patients with acquired (idiopathic) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Our data shed more light on the pathogenesis of acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and provide further rationales for adjunctive immunotherapy.\",\n \"In total, 66 children diagnosed with HSP for the first time and a control group of 25 healthy children were included. The cases were divided into mild and severe groups on the basis of GIS findings. FC was measured twice in all patients with HSP: within 3 days of onset of disease (FC1) and on day 15 (FC2). These results were compared with those of the control group. Faecal occult blood, gastric wall thickness and duodenal wall thickness were measured at the same time as FC1 in all patients, and the presence of renal involvement was recorded. Of the 66 patients, 37 (56%) were females (mean age, 7.5±2.9 years; range, 2.5-14.5 years) and were diagnosed with HSP. Renal involvement was detected in 19 (28%) cases and GIS involvement was found in 28 (43%) cases. GIS involvement was mild in 16 (53%) cases and severe in 12 (43%). A significant difference was detected in FC1 levels between the groups with and without GIS involvement (P=0.01). A marked difference was observed in FC1 levels between the groups with and without renal involvement (P=0.017).\",\n \"Only one diagnostic parameter is not available for acute appendicitis. For the establishment of diagnosis, combination of medical history, clinical, laboratory tests, and radiological imaging modalities are used so as to decrease the rates of negative laparotomy and morbidity secondary to delay in diagnosis. Thepresent study aimed to determine haematological and inflammatory markers which will be used in the discrimination of acute appendicitis (AA) and renal colic which are the most frequent and indistinguishable causes of abdominal pain in patients applying to the emergency service. A total of 215 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were histopathologically diagnosed as AA, and 200 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were diagnosed as renal colic were included into the study. Control group consisted of 61 patients without any complaints who came to the outpatient clinics of internal medicine only for blood counts. Analyzed blood samples were WBC, RDW, Hb, MCV, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. All differences associated with a chance probability of.05 or less were considered statistically significant. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and renal colic groups as for age, WBC, Hb, MCV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and control groups regarding age, WBC, Hb, RDW, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between renal colic and control groups as for age, WBC, RDW, MPV, neutrophil and NLR. In ROC curve analysis, the area under AUCs for WBC, neutrophil, NLR and PLR were 0.896, 0.916, 0.888 and 0.725, respectively (p≤0.05).\",\n \"ADAMTS13 deficiency leading to excess ultralarge von Willebrand factor (VWF) multimers and platelet clumping is typically found in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (a type of thrombotic microangiopathy). Idiopathic noncirrhotic intrahepatic portal hypertension (NCIPH) is a microangiopathy of portal venules associated with significant thrombocytopenia and predisposing gut disorders. To determine whether the portal microangiopathy in NCIPH is associated with ADAMTS13 deficiency. Plasma levels of ADAMTS13, anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, and VWF were compared between cases (NCIPH patients) and controls (with chronic liver diseases of other etiology) matched for severity of liver dysfunction. Eighteen NCIPH patients [median (range) MELD score 12 (7-25)] and 25 controls [MELD score 11 (4-26)] were studied. ADAMTS13 activity was reduced in all 18 NCIPH patients and significantly lower than controls (median, IQR: 12.5%, 5-25% and 59.0%, 44-84%, respectively, P<0.0001) [normal range for plasma ADAMTS13 activity (55-160%)]. ADAMTS13 activity was <5% in 5/18 NCIPH patients (28%) and 0/25 controls (P=0.009). ADAMTS13 antigen levels were also decreased. Sustained low ADAMTS13 levels were seen in four NCIPH patients over 6 weeks to 11 months (highest ADAMTS13 level in each patient: <5%, 6%, 6%, and 25%), despite two patients having MELD score 12. Although nine cases had low titer anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, there was no significant difference between cases and controls. Abnormally large VWF multimers were observed in 4/11 NCIPH patients (36%) and in 0/22 controls (P=0.008).\",\n \"yes. In this series of patients there was no evidence of an underlying vasculitic cause for the PUK. A localized autoimmune response may, however, be involved in the pathogenesis of these cases, as seen in an animal model of chemical injury or in late mustard gas keratitis. We hope that this case series will bring this newly described condition to the attention of ophthalmologists and that this may assist in their treatment, which, in this series, required systemic immunosuppressive therapy.\",\n \"yes. This study confirms recent reports of duodenal eosinophilia in FD. The high rate of atopic and psychological co-morbidity in FD suggests multi-factorial mechanisms and may explain why current therapeutic options aimed at symptom control are largely unsatisfactory. Duodenal eosinophilia in FD should be considered a therapeutic target.\",\n \"To assess the influence of interleukin 1 receptor antagonist gene polymorphism (IL1RN) in the incidence of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) and cutaneous leukocytoclastic angiitis (CLA) and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP or hypersensitivity vasculitis (HV) according to proposed criteria were studied. Patients with HV were included if they had a biopsy proven small size blood vessel leukocytoclastic vasculitis limited to skin and also fulfilled the Chapel Hill Consensus Conference on the Nomenclature of Systemic Vasculitis definitions for CLA. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-1 receptor antagonist intron 2 VNTR polymorphism. We examined 96 Caucasian patients (58 HSP and 38 CLA) and 109 controls. No allele or genotype differences between the whole group of HSP or CLA patients and controls were observed. We found a significant association between carriage of IL-1 receptor antagonist allele 2 (ILRN*2) and severe renal involvement, manifested as nephrotic syndrome and/or renal insufficiency (p = 0.016), and permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae) (p = 0.012).\",\n \"no. A minority of referred primary care patients with lower GI complaints both fulfilled the Rome III criteria for irritable bowel syndrome and lacked alarm symptoms. Although organic bowel disease could be ruled out safely in this small group, application of the Rome III criteria is not likely to lead to a considerable reduction in unnecessary referrals for colonoscopy in these patients.\",\n \"Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and the hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) share many clinical features and have been difficult to separate into distinct entities. Histologic examination of organs from autopsied patients suggested that TTP and HUS have dissimilar lesions of different severity and distribution. To perform a retrospective observational review of autopsied patients with TTP or HUS to compare the nature and severity of the lesions found. To examine the pathologic features of these conditions, we reviewed all cases among 51 350 indexed autopsies at The Johns Hopkins Hospital (Baltimore, Md) diagnosed with TTP or HUS, and included those showing multiple arteriolar thrombi or their sequela. The 56 cases that met the inclusion criteria fell into 2 distinct groups, based on distribution and severity of arteriolar lesions. In 25 patients classified as having TTP, platelet-rich thrombi were present-in decreasing severity-in heart, pancreas, kidney, adrenal gland, and brain. In 31 patients with HUS, fibrin/red cell-rich thrombi were present, largely confined to the kidney and often severe, and only 6 cases showed pancreas involvement, 4 adrenal gland involvement, 2 brain involvement, and 1 heart involvement.\",\n \"To assess the contribution of 2 polymorphisms within the inducible nitric oxide (NOS2A) promoter region to the susceptibility to Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Fifty-eight patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls (n=251) were genotyped by PCR based techniques for a multiallelic (CCTTT)n and for the biallelic TAAA repeat in the promoter region of the NOS2A gene. HSP patients exhibited a significantly increased frequency of the NOS2A short (8-11) CCTTTn alleles (OR 1.64, 95% CI 1.09-2.47, p=0.017) and genotypes (OR 3.59, 95% CI 1.79-7.20, p=0.0002) compared to controls, particularly when patients with nephritis were compared with controls. However, when the NOS2A TAAA repeat polymorphism was assessed, no differences were found.\",\n \"Immunoglobulin (Ig)A nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis in the world. Some bacteria were reported to be the candidate of the antigen or the pathogenesis of IgAN, but systematic analysis of bacterial flora in tonsil with IgAN has not been reported. Moreover, these bacteria specific to IgAN might be candidate for the indicator which can predict the remission of IgAN treated by the combination of tonsillectomy and steroid pulse. We made a comprehensive analysis of tonsil flora in 68 IgAN patients and 28 control patients using Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis methods. We also analyzed the relationship between several bacteria specific to the IgAN and the prognosis of the IgAN. Treponema sp. were identified in 24% IgAN patients, while in 7% control patients (P = 0.062). Haemophilus segnis were detected in 53% IgAN patients, while in 25% control patients (P = 0.012). Campylobacter rectus were identified in 49% IgAN patients, while in 14% control patients (P = 0.002). Multiple Cox proportional-hazards model revealed that Treponema sp. or Campylobactor rectus are significant for the remission of proteinuria (Hazard ratio 2.35, p = 0.019). There was significant difference in remission rates between IgAN patients with Treponema sp. and those without the bacterium (p = 0.046), and in remission rates between IgAN patients with Campylobacter rectus and those without the bacterium (p = 0.037) by Kaplan-Meier analysis. Those bacteria are well known to be related with the periodontal disease. Periodontal bacteria has known to cause immune reaction and many diseases, and also might cause IgA nephropathy.\",\n \"H. pylori prevalence was similar in celiac disease patients and in controls and higher in patients with milder duodenal lesions. There was no association between H. pylori infection and duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis.\",\n \"-Jejunoileal neuroendocrine tumors (JINETs) are slow-growing, malignant tumors that are often associated with protracted survival, despite their frequent presentation at an advanced stage. A subset of JINETs is complicated by intestinal ischemic necrosis (IIN), which leads to their initial clinical presentation. -To assess the effect of IIN on overall survival in patients with JINETs. -Ten JINETs with IIN during a 14-year period and a control group of 52 JINETs without IIN were identified retrospectively. The hematoxylin-eosin slides and gross descriptions were reviewed, and pathologic features were assessed. Overall survival was compared between the 2 groups using the Kaplan Meier method and Cox proportional hazards model. -At 1 year postresection, only 40% (4 of 10) of the patients with IIN were alive, whereas 94% (49 of 52) of those without IIN were alive (P < .001). Patients with IIN were significantly older than those without IIN (median, 83 years versus 65.5 years, P = .001). By univariate Cox proportional hazards regression, IIN was associated with a 4.30-fold increased risk of death (95% confidence interval 1.75-10.56; P = .001). When controlling for age, advanced stage (stage III or IV), tumor grade, and synchronous carcinoma in a multivariate analysis, IIN showed a trend toward prognostic significance (2.31-fold increased risk of death; 95% confidence interval, 0.85-6.27; P = .10).\",\n \"yes. Helicobacter-negative gastritis and duodenitis occur significantly more often in paediatric IBD patients than in non-IBD controls, as well as in adult IBD patients. Such upper gastrointestinal inflammation appears to be particularly common in patients with Crohn's disease.\",\n \"Based on single case reports, parvovirus B19 (B19) has repeatedly been proposed as an etiologic agent in patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), perhaps causing vasculitis by direct invasion of vascular endothelial cells because of the tissue distribution of the cellular B19 receptor. A cohort of children with HSP and other vasculitic diseases was investigated and compared with healthy control children to assess the role of B19 as well as parvovirus V9 (a putative emerging B19-like virus). Serum samples from 36 children with HSP (n = 29) or other vasculitic diseases (n = 7) were examined, and 38 healthy bone marrow donors were used as controls. The presence of specific B19 and V9 IgM and IgG antibodies was determined with a recently developed enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, and viral DNA was detected by a novel nested PCR. Specific IgM was not present in any of the patient or control serum samples. B19 DNA was detected in one patient, a previously healthy 8-year-old boy diagnosed with HSP, whereas none of the controls was B19-positive. V9 was not detected in any of the clinical or control samples. It seems likely that B19 infection might have triggered the development of HSP in the B19-positive patient, because B19 viremia is otherwise uncommon.\",\n \"This study suggests that the pathogenesis of intestinal metaplasia at the SCJ is not uniform: at an endoscopically unremarkable SCJ it is a sequela of H pylori gastritis, but coexisting with endoscopic features of Barrett's oesophagus it is associated with male sex and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.\",\n \"The epidemiology of reactive gastropathy and its relationship with other conditions of the gastrointestinal tract associated with NSAID use have not been evaluated. To test the hypothesis that if reactive gastropathy shares common aetiological factors with these conditions, the analysis of a large cohort would unveil associations. We queried a national pathology database for subjects with a diagnosis of reactive gastropathy; controls were patients with normal gastric biopsies. We also extracted diagnoses of H. pylori infection, intestinal metaplasia, duodenal lymphocytosis, duodenitis, ileitis, microscopic colitis and focal colitis. Of 504 011 patients with gastric biopsies, 69 101 had oesophageal, 166 134 duodenal, 13 010 ileal and 83 334 colonic biopsies. Reactive gastropathy was diagnosed in 15.6% of patients, H. pylori infection in 10.3% and normal gastric mucosa in 16.3%. Reactive gastropathy was evenly distributed across the US and increased from 2.0% in the first decade of life to >20% in octogenarians. Compared with controls, reactive gastropathy was significantly associated with Barrett's mucosa (OR 1.21 95% CI 1.16-129); duodenitis (OR 1.36; 95% CI 1.28-1.44); duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis (OR 1.25; 95% CI 1.13-1.39); active ileitis (OR 1.88; 95% CI 1.47-2.40); focal active colitis (OR 1.57; 95% CI 1.33-1.86); and collagenous colitis (OR 1.50; 95% CI 1.12-2.03).\",\n \"The effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on the platelet count in patients with thrombocytopenic purpura is controversial. In this multicentre study, we prospectively assessed the effect of H. pylori eradication therapy in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients. Thirty-five consecutive patients with chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (11 males and 24 females, a median age of 57) were assessed for H. pylori infection by use of a urea breath test. All patients received 1-week triple therapy (amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and lansoprazole) to eradicate H. pylori. At 6 months, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients with a platelet count recovery of greater than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) were defined as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders. Helicobacter pylori infection was observed in 25 (71%) of the 35 patients. All infected patients were cured. Eleven patients were identified as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders; 24 were considered nonresponders. Platelet counts improved by more than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) in 11 (44%) of the 25 patients cured of H. pylori infection, while none of the 10 patients H. pylori-negative patients experienced the same improvement (P = 0.015). Univariate analysis showed that H. pylori infection and its eradication were significant factors associated with platelet recovery (P = 0.015).\",\n \"Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small sized vasculitis affecting mainly children. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) gene polymorphisms have recently been implicated in the susceptibility to some vasculitides. To further investigate the clinical implication of ICAM-1 polymorphisms in HSP, we examined their potential association and influence in the development of severe complications in an unselected series of patients with HSP. Fifty-two patients, of which 41 were children, were diagnosed with HSP using classification criteria of Michel, et al at the Hospital Xeral-Calde (Lugo, Spain); 129 ethnically matched controls were included. Patients had at least one year of followup. Patients and controls were genotyped by allelic oligonucleotide techniques for ICAM-I polymorphism at codon 241 and 469. The frequency distribution of the alleles and genotypes for each ICAM-1 polymorphism did not show significant differences between HSP patients and controls. Also, no differences between patients with or without renal manifestations were found. However, the frequency of the codon 469 K/E genotype was significantly decreased in patients without severe gastrointestinal manifestations compared to those with them (22.29 vs 65%, OR 0.1, p = 0.02, after correction for age, sex, and disease duration). None of the 11 adults exhibited the R/G genotype at codon 241 compared with 7 of 41 children (OR 0.0, 95% CI 0.0-2.9, p = 0.14). Patients with the R/G genotype were associated with low incidence of renal manifestations and none developed permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae); however, this finding did not achieve statistical significance.\",\n \"The proportion of patients with idiopathic chronic pancreatitis (ICP) that have an autoimmune origin is unknown. Three forms of ICP have been described: pseudotumoral, duct-destructive, and usual chronic pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to identify autoimmune stigmata in the 3 forms. All patients who underwent exploration for ICP were included. The following data were recorded: examination by an internal medicine specialist, autoantibodies and immunoglobulin screening, and pancreatic duct imaging. Sixty patients were included (pseudotumoral, n = 11; duct-destructive, n = 27; usual, n = 22). There were no significant differences among the 3 types with regard to sex ratio, age, frequency of acute pancreatitis, or obstructive jaundice. Pancreatic calcifications were seen only in the usual form (81%; P = .0001). Autoimmune disease was present in 10 patients: ulcerative colitis in 5 patients, primary sclerosing cholangitis in 2 patients, and Sjögren's syndrome, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and Graves' disease in 1 patient each. Autoimmune diseases were not more frequent in patients with pseudotumoral (36%) or duct-destructive (19%) forms than in those with the usual form (5%, P = .06). Immunoglobulin G4 levels were increased in 2 of 6 in the pseudotumoral, 1 of 9 in the duct-destructive, and 0 of 12 patients in the usual group. Combining clinical and biochemical autoimmune parameters, 24 patients (40%) had at least 1 autoimmune marker or disease.\",\n \"Chronic antibiotic-refractory pouchitis (CARP) occurs more frequently in patients with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) with concomitant autoimmune disorders. The aim of this study was to assess the overlap between dysregulated immune features in patients with IPAA and their association with CARP. We identified 150 symptomatic patients with IPAA who met inclusion criteria, including measurement of select autoimmune serology. Demographic and clinical variables were compared between patients with and without CARP. Autoimmune thyroid disease was more frequent among patients with CARP. The frequency of primary sclerosing cholangitis (16.7% versus 5.3%; P = 0.04) and serum positivity for microsomal antibody (25% versus 6.1%, P = 0.003) were significantly greater in patients with CARP compared with non-CARP patients, respectively. Increased tissue infiltration by IgG4-expressing plasma cells was detected in 17 of 31 patients (54.8%) in the CARP group as compared with 10/67 (14.9%) in the non-CARP group (P = 0.0001). Forty-seven percent of patients in the CARP group versus 22.8% in the non-CARP group had at least 2 immune features (P = 0.019). Among patients with IgG4 histology, 87% of patients in the CARP group versus 60% in the non-CARP group had at least 1 immune marker (P = 0.004). On multivariate analysis, microsomal antibody expression (odds ratio, 6.8; 95% confidence interval, 1.3-42.6; P = 0.02) and increased IgG4-expressing plasma cells tissue infiltration (odds ratio, 9.6; 95% confidence interval, 3.2-32.6, P = 0.0001) were risk factors for CARP.\",\n \"Most of the palpable purpuras examined were indeed related to leukocytoclastic vasculitis. In the remaining cases, biopsy did not contribute to the diagnosis since it only showed purpura without vessel wall inflammation. In our opinion, a skin biopsy is thus not essential where the clinical presentation is typical.\",\n \"Our results demonstrate that inflammatory mesenteric diseases are heterogeneous: high components of plasma cells, eosinophils and TCD8+ lymphocytes were found respectively in 46, 23 and 80 % of cases; eosinophils were observed exclusively in sclerotic forms. Only 31 % of cases encompass numerous IgG4+ plasma cells, suggesting a pathogenesis different than hyper-IgG4 diseases.\",\n \"The prevalence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection is high in China. It not only causes the damage of gastric epithelium, but also plays a potential pathogenic role in several extraintestinal diseases. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is one of the most common vasculitis syndromes affecting children. Although its cause is unclear, HSP is often considered to be associated with infectious agents. This metaanalysis of previously published studies was conducted using a predefined protocol to evaluate the underlying association between H. pylori infection and HSP in Chinese children. Predefined search strategy and inclusion criteria were set up to select studies reporting the prevalence of H. pylori infection among HSP children and control groups. Included studies were subjected to quality assessment and data extraction by two independent reviewers. The pooled odds ratio (OR) was calculated as the effect size via both traditional and cumulative meta-analysis. Heterogeneity was investigated by subgroup analysis, and the nonparametric \\\"trim and fill\\\" method was performed to adjust the overall estimate for the existence of publication bias. Ten eligible studies covering 749 HSP children and 560 controls were included for metaanalysis. Observational epidemiology studies clearly aimed at detecting the potential association between H. pylori infection and HSP with retrospective data collection from the children enrolled consecutively. Overall, 49.27% (369/749) of HSP children had evidence of H. pylori infection compared with 23.39% (131/560) of children in the control group. The pooled OR of H. pylori infection in HSP children (10 studies with 749 HSP children) was 3.80 [95% confidence interval (CI): 2.54-5.68, P<0.001], and the overall estimate from the cumulative meta-analysis confirmed the association with more narrow confidence interval (OR=3.35, 95% CI: 2.95-3.81). In HSP children mainly with abdominal manifestations (8 studies with 337 HSP children), the pooled OR was 4.62 (95% CI: 2.66-8.01, P<0.001). The adjusted pooled OR was 2.04 (95% CI: 1.48-2.82, P<0.001), determined by the nonparametric \\\"trim-andfill\\\" method for eliminating the effect of publication bias. H. pylori eradication therapy (4 studies with 266 HSP children) was capable of reducing the recurrence of HSP (RR=0.38, 95% CI: 0.25-0.58, P<0.001). Although the subgroup analysis for heterogeneity suggested that diagnostic methods and geographical diversity might be account for the heterogeneity, statistical analysis of differences revealed no differences between subgroups, indicating their limited impact on the overall estimates.\",\n \"Duodenal biopsies were performed in less than half of the patients. In those not diagnosed with coeliac disease or upper gastrointestinal carcinoma, only three quarters underwent lower gastrointestinal assessment. Approximately 10% were diagnosed with gastrointestinal malignancy as a cause for their anaemia and in 66% of patients no gastrointestinal cause was found. All physicians need to be made fully aware of the BSG guidelines for investigation of IDA.\",\n \"yes. In this study of patients unselected regarding IgA-tTg/EmA, thus unbiased in this respect, IgA/IgG-DGP identified adult coeliac disease patients negative for antibodies against endomysium and tissue transglutaminase. Serology is often negative in elderly patients with coeliac disease; a small bowel biopsy should therefore be performed generously before coeliac disease is excluded.\",\n \"Patients with C. jejuni-related Guillain-Barré syndrome can show transient slowing of nerve conduction, mimicking demyelination, but C. jejuni infection does not appear to elicit acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.\",\n \"TCRgamma clonality does not represent a marker of early disease. However, it might be useful to help in distinguishing celiac disease from other causes of nonspecific duodenitis.\",\n \"yes. A substantial number of WD patients present without typical intestinal histology findings. Additional PCR analysis of intestinal tissue or synovial fluid increased the sensitivity of the diagnostic evaluation and should be considered particularly in patients presenting with atypical seronegative rheumatic diseases and a high-risk profile for WD.\",\n \"no. DGE after PPPD seems to be of minor clinical importance following uncomplicated surgery. When taking the results into consideration, it can be said that, despite the lack of a control group, antecolic duodenojejunostomy might be the key to a low incidence of DGE after PPPD. In our experience, DGE is linked to the occurrence of other postoperative complications rather than to pylorus preservation.\",\n \"The association of positive HLA-DQ2/DQ8 and serologic testing has a high predictive value for CD. We suggest that symptomatic children with high titers of immunoglobulin (Ig)A tTG could be diagnosed as patients with CD without performing jejunal biopsy. In other children, HLA-DQ2/DQ8 could be useful to exclude the diagnosis of CD if negative. In cases of low IgA tTG titers or in patients with IgA deficiency, intestinal biopsy remains mandatory.\",\n \"yes. PU&E appears to be common in this selected population with a relatively high incidence of gastric PU&E. H. pylori associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Non H. pylori PU&E in children comprises approximately a third of all PU&E, are mostly idiopathic and appear earlier than H. pylori associated PU&E.\",\n \"Sera from 30 consecutive pediatric patients with IBD were evaluated for ANCA-indirect immunofluorescence and its specific antibodies to investigate whether PR3-ANCA positivity (PR3-ANCA+) identifies a distinct IBD subtype. The 5 PR3-ANCA+ patients (17%) showed significantly more concomitant biliary disease and severe anal blood loss (P<0.05). None had vasculitis features at diagnosis nor during follow-up.\",\n \"yes. Children with a clinical diagnosis of RAP have marked duodenal eosinophilia, independent of H. pylori infection, suggesting the role of unknown infectious or allergic triggers in the pathogenesis of functional gastrointestinal disorders in childhood. Further research is needed on the diagnostic and therapeutic benefits of targeting duodenal eosinophilia.\",\n \"Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN) is the most serious long-term complication of Henoch-Schönlein purpura and aberrant galactosylation of IgA1 plays a role in its development. However, the precise role of genetic factors contributing to the abnormal IgA1 galactosylation remains unknown. In order to examine the effects of C1GALT1 gene encoding core 1 β1,3-galactosyltransferase, an important role in the β1,3 glycosylation of IgA1, on HSPN susceptibility, we conducted a case-control association genetic study in 269 HSP and 61 HSPN in China. Five tagging SNPs, SNP1(-734 C/T), SNP4(-465A/G), SNP6(-330 G/T), SNP7(-292 C/-), and SNP8(1365 G/A) in C1GALT1 were studied using single-locus and haplotype-based multilocus analysis. Our results demonstrated that 1365 G allele frequency was significantly higher in HSPN patients than in HSP patients without nephritis (0.459 vs 0.331, p = 0.0008, adjusted p' = 0.004) with an odds ratio (OR) = 1.716, 95%CI 1.151-2.560). The GG genotype of 1,365 G/A was significantly different in HSP without nephritis and HSPN (p = 0.008, adjusted p'' = 0.04). We did not observe statistically significant differences in haplotype frequencies between HSPN and HSP patients.\",\n \"The main aim of this study was to evaluate the relationship between obesity and renal involvement in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). A retrospective study of 141 pediatric patients with HSP was conducted in our hospital. The clinical data of all patients were collected from the electronic medical record management system from January 2010 to June 2014. The possible risk factors of renal involvement, especially obesity, were analyzed using univariate and multivariate analyses. Renal involvement occurred in 45/141 of the patients. A univariate analysis showed that an age more than 7 years at onset, persistent purpura, obesity, time from symptoms onset to diagnosis more than 14 days, and decreased C3 all increased the risk of renal involvement in HSP. The forward stepwise logistic regression analysis indicated obesity (odds ratio (OR) 4.43, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.896 to 10.358), age more than 7 years at onset (OR 2.81, 95 % CI 1.142 to 6.907), and persistent purpura (OR 2.57, 95 % CI 1.119 to 5.909) were independent risk factors for renal involvement.\",\n \"Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash.\",\n \"Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a fairly common disease in children and adolescents. There are only limited data available for adults. A retrospective analysis was conducted to study renal manifestations in patients with HSP treated in our institution between 1982 and 2007. We divided our adult cohort according to age - under or over 60 years - to examine differences in elderly patients. HSP was identified in 2.2% of patients referred to us for kidney biopsy. Purpuric lesions and renal involvement were found in all patients. An important triggering factor for the development of HSP in our series was chronic alcohol intake. Forty percent of our patients fulfilled the WHO criteria for alcoholics. Renal involvement was particularly prominent in patients over 60 years of age. At disease onset, estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was 63% lower in the elderly. Within a median follow-up of 8 years, renal function was significantly better in younger adults than in the elderly. 32% of the elderly have shown Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) < 20 ml/min/1.73 m2 in contrast to only 7% in patients < 60 years. Furthermore, significantly more elderly patients reached end-stage renal failure.\",\n \"Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is also known as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Increased platelet destruction and insufficient platelet production are both responsible for its etiopathogenesis. ITP can be diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia. One hundred forty-three cases of chronic ITP that were monitored in a hematology clinic were retrospectively evaluated. All cases received first line treatment of 1 mg/kg/day prednisolone. Corticosteroid nonresponsive (CN) cases and corticosteroid-dependent (CD) cases underwent splenectomies. The rate of CN/CD cases was found to be 53% (n=76). Sixty-six percent of these cases (n=50) underwent splenectomies. The ratio of non-responsive cases to relapse cases after splenectomy (SN/SR) was 30% (n=15). The total number of cases was 41, including those without splenectomy (n=26) and with SY/SR (n=15). Helicobacter pylori (Hp) eradication, immunosuppressive agents and danazol treatments were administered to patients (n=10, n=14 and n=4, respectively). Currently, 13 patients are being monitored without treatment. Fifteen patients who were non-responsive to Hp eradication treatment, immunosuppressive treatment or danazol treatment are still being monitored without any treatment.\",\n \"Henoch-Schoenlein purpura has been reported to be associated with parvovirus B19 infection, particularly in children and rarely in adults. We report the case of a 42-year-old patient presenting with this association. A 42-year-old patient was admitted to our medical center because of lower limb purpura. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura diagnosis was confirmed on histological findings (kidney biopsy) and concomitantly parvovirus B19 infection was proved by serological test (IgM+). Association of Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and parvovirus B19 infection has already been described. However, none of the reported studies demonstrated clearly the link between these two diseases. With regard to this observation, we wonder about the systematic use of the parvovirus B19 serological test in patients presenting first Henoch-Schoenlein purpura. Indeed, parvovirus B19-induced vasculitis is habitually controlled with intravenous immunoglobulins.\",\n \"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection played a role in the pathogenesis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura in approximately 30% of all patients assessed and 45% of the patients with H. pylori infection. Eradication of H. pylori in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients led to improved disease activity.\",\n \"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune bleeding disorder, which occurs as a result of autoantibodies attachment to the platelets surface and subsequent destruction. Several organisms can mimic features of human antigens (Ags) and induce autoantibody production. One of these organisms is Helicobacter pylori (HP). We assessed the prevalence and relationship of HP infection with ITP in a population of children. One hundred and six children younger than 18 years old were enrolled in this case-control study in which 42 children with ITP were in the case group and 64 healthy children were in the control group. Stool exam for detection of HP-Ag were performed and the variables were compared between the two groups. Mean ± standard deviation age of case and control group was 6.4 ± 3.4 and 8.6 ± 4.4 years old, respectively. HP stool Ag differ significantly between the case and the control groups (P<0.05).\",\n \"A prospective study should explore the link between Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and primary parvovirus B19 infection. Moreover, we should evaluate intravenous immunoglobulins' efficacy in Henoch-Schoenlein purpura associated with active parvovirus B19 infection in order to improve the prognosis of this disease.\",\n \"To study the influence of deletion/insertion polymorphism in the 16th intron of the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) gene on clinical manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. Cross sectional study. ACE gene polymorphism was determined in patients (4-15 years old at onset) with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (n = 40) and compared with that in patients with IgA nephropathy (n = 79). ACE genotypes, systemic blood pressures, urine protein excretion rate, haematuria, creatinine clearance, serum ACE activities. The initial clinical manifestations of both Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis and IgA nephropathy were no different among homozygotes for insertion (II) and deletion (DD), and heterozygotes (ID) for the ACE gene. In patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis, the incidence of moderate to heavy proteinuria at four and eight years after onset was more than five times higher in the DD genotype than in the II or ID genotypes. No such trend was seen in patients with IgA nephropathy. The number of patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis in whom proteinuria resolved at four and eight years after onset was significantly lower in the DD genotype compared with the II genotype, whereas no differences were detected among the three different genotypes in patients with IgA nephropathy. Plasma ACE activities in patients with the DD genotype were significantly higher than in those with non-DD genotypes.\",\n \"yes. The ACE DD genotype predicts persistent proteinuria in Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. The proteinuria might be related to a defective angiotensin system which is genetically determined by the D/I polymorphism.\",\n \"Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a multisystem disease believed to be a consequence of the entrapment of circulating IgA-containing immune complexes in blood vessel walls throughout the skin, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. The skin manifestations are characterized by nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura over the lower extremities. We assessed adult patients with HSP who had nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura on the extensor surfaces of their lower limbs, and had no associated connective tissue disease. Patient medical records, including clinical presentation, laboratory data, and direct immunofluorescence (DIF) reports, were reviewed retrospectively. We reviewed the records of 25 adult patients with HSP who presented at our department, between 2006 and 2008, with an initial cutaneous manifestation of palpable purpura on their lower extremities. Adult HSP was defined in all cases as documented leukocytoclastic vasculitis according to a skin biopsy specimen, with histopathologic evidence of IgA deposition by DIF. Statistical analyses were performed using a χ(2) test to compare prevalence among each clinical manifestation. There was a significant correlation between IgM deposition by DIF and renal involvement (χ(2) = 5.23, P = .022). IgM deposition and complement 3 deposition by DIF showed a close relationship (χ(2) = 5.11, P = .024). There was a significant positive correlation between serum IgA and C-reactive protein levels (Spearman's rank correlation coefficient = 0.35, P = .044).\",\n \"Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":595,"string":"595"}}},{"rowIdx":273175,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Is health-related quality of life among older, chronically ill patients associated with unplanned readmission to hospital?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Assessment of health-related quality of life (HRQL) is being used increasingly to assess the impact of treatment. To determine if HRQL, assessed shortly after acute hospitalisation, is associated with readmission to hospital. In a prospective, longitudinal study, 163 chronically ill, medical and surgical patients (mean age 67.0+/-16.3 years) discharged to home following acute hospitalisation were studied. HRQL was assessed at one month post-hospital discharge using the MOS 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36). Patients were followed-up for six months thereafter to determine subsequent incidence of unplanned readmission. HRQL as measured by the eight health dimensions of the SF-36, for the entire cohort, was lower relative to age and gender matched norms for the local population (p<0.01). During study follow-up, 47 (35%) patients had an unplanned readmission and one patient died. Patients who had an unplanned readmission demonstrated both significantly lower physical (32.2+/-9.8 vs 38.6+/-10.1: p<0.001) and mental (45.1+/-12.7 vs 49.9+/-12.3: p=0.03) health component scores in comparison to the remainder of the cohort. On multivariate analysis, independent correlates of unplanned readmission were: 1) presence of formal home assistance (OR 6.4: p<0.01), 2)>or =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score ofor =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score of or =60 with no known psychological diseases were screened by the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) when they consulted at two primary care clinics in Hong Kong. Data on socio-demographic characteristics, chronic morbidity, consultation rates, and health-related quality of life (HROQL) were collected. Multivariable regressions were used to determine the effect of a positive HADS score on HRQOL scores and consultation rates, and the risk factors of unrecognised psychological problems. One thousand eight hundred and fifty-four subjects (mean age 72.6 years and 52% male) were screened and the estimated prevalence of unrecognised psychological diseases was 23% (95% CI = 13.1-33.8%). A positive screening result was associated with poorer SF-36 HROQL scores and higher episodic consultation rates. An increased risk of unrecognised psychological problems was associated with the presence of more than two chronic diseases. Other risk factors included female gender, no formal education and having chronic pulmonary disease or heart disease. Living with a spouse increased the risk in elderly women.","Patients presented better score of the BI at discharge and this figure was associated to the implementation of a rehabilitation treatment. Hospitalization of the elderly patient in a suitable environment, such as a geriatric hospital, contrary to some theories highlighting only the negative aspects of removal from the living environment, can be a measure of benefit for the reduction of disability and the recovery of compromised activities along and after the acute event. The collection of data on the level of autonomy of the subjects before and after hospitalization can be a useful element for clinical evaluation in a geriatric hospital.","The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between functional disability and improvement in late life depression after acute inpatient treatment. The study was a longitudinal assessment of depression and disability. Patients were assessed during an initial inpatient hospitalization and then 3 months postdischarge. All patients were evaluated initially after admission to one of 71 inpatient psychiatric treatment facilities. The study comprised of 2572 patients older than age 60 who were relatively cognitively intact and experiencing significant depressive symptoms. Depressive symptoms were measured using the Geriatric Depression Scale. Disability was measured using the Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale and the Medical Outcomes SF-36. Depressive symptoms improved in the majority of patients. Moreover, improvement in depressive symptomatology was significantly related to improvement in instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and to health-related quality of life as measured by the SF-36. This relationship was strongest among those who initially presented with some disability in IADLs.","yes. Overall physical health status and asthma-specific quality of life predict subsequent ED utilization. Health-related quality of life may be useful in identifying patients at increased risk for asthma exacerbation requiring emergency care.","The purpose of this study is to describe predictors for discharge and one-year outcomes of acute-care hospital patients, 75 years of age or over, based on admission status information. We carried out a prospective study of a randomly selected patient population, from one urban acute-care hospital in each of the Nordic countries. 763 persons aged 75+ were randomly selected from acute admissions to the participating hospitals. 749 observations at discharge and 655 observations at one year were used in analyses. Data were collected with the MDS-AC 1.1 instrument within 24 hours of admission, and at day 7 or discharge, whichever came first. Outcome information was collected either by interviewing the patient or from patient records or registers. Discharge and one-year outcome (home, institution, death) were modeled by multinomial logistic regression, with admission status variables as predictors. At discharge, 84% of subjects returned home, 11% went to an institution and 5.6% had died. At one year, 64% were still living at home, 24% had died, and 12% had moved to an institution. For discharge outcome, those having hospital admission due to a new problem or exacerbation of an old one had a higher risk of dying (OR 3.3) than returning home. Moderate to severe cognitive problems predicted death (OR 2.2) and institutionalization (OR 8.6) compared with discharge home. Problems in instrumental activities of daily living predicted death (OR 3.1) and institutionalization (OR 6.0). At one year, those with exacerbation of an old problem (OR 2.1) or with a new or exacerbated existing problem (OR 2.3) had a higher risk of dying than of institutionalization or discharge home. Having some cognitive problems (OR 2.8) or moderate to severe cognitive problems (OR 6.6) predicted institutionalization, but not dying or discharge home. Those with some problems in activities of daily living had a higher risk of both dying (OR 1.7) and of institutional care (OR 2.7). Those with moderate to severe problems in activities of daily living had also a higher risk of institutional care (OR 4.7) compared with those living at home.","yes. Readmissions increase as a function of time; illness severity, chronic disabling disease score and a recent admission are the strongest predictors of readmission.","yes. In an elderly population with multiple comorbidities undergoing elective common major orthopedic procedures, approximately 2% of patients required readmission to the PACU. The most common problems requiring this step-up in care were cardiac and pulmonary, which resulted in an increased length of hospital stay. Patients with OSA and multiple comorbidities undergoing total knee arthroplasty carry an increased risk for postoperative complications.","The study investigated whether long-stay patients would benefit from discharge into the community in Berlin, Germany. In a prospective controlled study, all long-term hospitalised psychiatric patients from a defined catchment area were assessed using established standardised instruments. Quality of life, treatment satisfaction, needs and psychopathology were re-assessed in 63 non-discharged patients 1.5 years later, and in 65 resettled patients 1 year after discharge. Discharged patients were younger and had spent less time in psychiatric hospitalisation. Whilst patients who remained in hospital care did not show significant changes over time, discharged patients did. Changes in subjective quality of life and total number of needs - but not in psychopathology, unmet needs, and treatment satisfaction - were significantly more favourable in resettled patients as compared to the control group.","yes. Functional status most strongly predicted ER use, highlighting the promise of home-based interventions to improve activities of daily living. Number of chronic conditions and caregiver-reported relationship strain are potential targets of intervention during discharge process.","Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).","Previous research suggests an ostomy worsens health-related quality of life (HR-QOL), but comorbidities also can affect HR-QOL. Eligible patients had abdominal operation with ostomy (cases) or similar procedure without ostomy (controls). Patients were recruited for this case-control study from 3 Veterans Affairs hospital medical and pharmacy records. Comorbidities were assessed with Charlson-Deyo Comorbidity Index. Multinomial logistic regression evaluated the impact of comorbidities and having an ostomy on HR-QOL, measured using the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form 36 for Veterans. A total of 237 ostomates (cases) and 268 controls were studied. Average age was 69 years; 64% of cases had colostomy, 36% ileostomy. Twenty-nine percent of patients had a high level of comorbidities. Cases and controls were similar except for reasons for undergoing surgery. High comorbidity was a significant predictor of low HR-QOL in 6 domains of the Short Form 36 for Veterans; having an ostomy was a significant predictor in 4.","The identification of patients' health needs is pivotal in optimising the quality of health care, increasing patient satisfaction and directing resource allocation. Health needs are complex and not so easily evaluated as health-related quality of life (HRQL), which is becoming increasingly accepted as a means of providing a more global, patient-orientated assessment of the outcome of health care interventions than the simple medical model. The potential of HRQL as a surrogate measure of healthcare needs has not been evaluated. A generic (Short Form-12; SF-12) and a disease-specific questionnaire (Seattle Angina Questionnaire; SAQ) were tested for their potential to predict health needs in patients with acute coronary disease. A wide range of healthcare needs were determined using a questionnaire specifically developed for this purpose. With the exception of information needs, healthcare needs were highly correlated with health-related quality of life. Patients with limited enjoyment of personal interests, weak financial situation, greater dependency on others to access health services, and dissatisfaction with accommodation reported poorer HRQL (SF-12: p<0.001; SAQ: p<0.01). Difficulties with mobility, aids to daily living and activities requiring assistance from someone else were strongly associated with both generic and disease-specific questionnaires (SF-12: r = 0.46-0.55, p<0.01; SAQ: r = 0.53-0.65, p<0.001). Variables relating to quality of care and health services were more highly correlated with SAQ components (r = 0.33-0.59) than with SF-12 (r = 0.07-0.33). Overall, the disease-specific Seattle Angina Questionnaire was superior to the generic Short Form-12 in detecting healthcare needs in patients with coronary disease. Receiver-operator curves supported the sensitivity of HRQL tools in detecting health needs.","The association between high numbers of unmet needs and low subjective quality of life appears increasingly robust across several studies. Future research will need to investigate whether changes in needs precede changes in quality of life. This study provides further evidence that a policy of actively assessing and addressing patient-rated unmet needs may lead to improved quality of life.","The causes of unscheduled returns to the emergency department (ED) within 72 hours of discharge are unclear. A study was undertaken to identify factors associated with this quality care indicator. 250 cases and 250 controls from the ED were prospectively studied. Outcomes measured were unscheduled returns, post-ED destination, and patient dissatisfaction. Possible medical errors (in diagnosis, treatment, prognosis or patient information) and errors in follow up care were identified. Other factors examined included chief complaint at presentation, discharge diagnosis, level of triage, category of treating physician, observation or not, application of emergency treatment, ancillary studies, accessibility to ED, ED time band or work shift, day of the week, past medical history, and demographic data (age, sex, educational level and economic status). The main factor associated with unscheduled returns was error in prognosis (odds ratio 18.62, 95% CI 9.60 to 36.09). Advanced age and a chief complaint of dyspnoea were also associated with unscheduled returns and with admission to hospital. Post-ED destination worsened by 0.61 (95% CI 0.33 to 0.90) with diagnostic errors and by 0.60 (95% CI 0.30 to 0.90) with errors in follow up care. Patient dissatisfaction increased by 0.68 (95% CI 0.55 to 0.80) with information errors, by 0.63 (95% CI 0.17 to 1.09) with errors in follow up care, and by 0.52 (95% CI 0.09 to 0.94) with diagnostic errors.","yes. After adjusting for age, sex, and coexisting conditions, mean HRQoL scores were almost equal in patients and controls. Up to 22% (n = 51) of the patients had, however, a poor quality of life as compared with the controls (-2 SD). This group, which more often consisted of single men, individuals who were on sick leave before admission to the ICU, had an increased mortality after ICU. This group should be a target for future support.","To establish associations with quality of life (QOL) of older people in long-term residential care facilities in two New Zealand cities. The outcome measure of QOL was the Life Satisfaction Index. We used multiple linear regression to explore how broad categories of factors might contribute to QOL. A total of 599 people (median age of 85 years; 74% women) participated. Response rates were 85% for facilities and 83% for residents. A resident's QOL was significantly related to the QOL of co-residents. QOL was higher for people who were more positive about entry to residential care, more physically able, and not depressed, and for those with more family and emotional support.","yes. There are substantial differences between the DHS and KP in the rates of preventable hospitalisations and subsequent readmissions associated with chronic conditions, which suggest much opportunity for improvement within the Danish healthcare system. Reductions in hospitalisations also could improve patient welfare and free considerable resources for use towards preventing disease exacerbations. These conclusions may also apply for similar public systems such as the US Medicare system, the NHS and other systems striving to improve the integration of care for persons with chronic conditions.","The objective of this study is to evaluate health-related quality of life as a risk factor for subsequent emergency department (ED) utilization in a cohort of patients with asthma. We conducted a 1-year prospective cohort study of 1,406 adult asthma patients. Baseline physical and mental health status were measured using the Physical Component Summary and Mental Component Summary scores from the Short Form-12 health status survey. Asthma-specific health-related quality of life was measured with the mini-Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire. Multivariable regression was used to assess the independent association between baseline Physical Component Summary, Mental Component Summary, and Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire scores and asthma-related ED visits during the subsequent year. During the 1-year follow-up period, 116 patients made at least 1 asthma-related ED visit. After adjustment for multiple sociodemographic and clinical factors, both the Physical Component Summary score (odds ratio [OR] 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.46 to 2.02) and the Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire score (OR 1.34; 95% CI 1.18 to 1.52) were associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization. In contrast, overall mental health status was not associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization (OR 1.17; 95% CI 0.96 to 1.44).","Older patients may visit the emergency department (ED) when their illness affects their function. To quantify the function of older ED patients, to assess whether functional decline (FD) had occurred, and to determine whether function contributes to the ED visit and hospital admission. The authors performed an institutional review board-approved, prospective, cross-sectional study in a community teaching hospital ED. Eligible patients were older than 74 years of age, with an illness at least 48 hours old. Patients from a nursing facility and those without a proxy who were unable or unwilling to complete the questions were excluded. The Older Americans Resources and Services Questionnaire, which tests seven instrumental activities of daily living (IADL) and seven physical ADLs (PADL), was used. Data are presented as means or proportions with 95% confidence intervals (95% CI), and comparisons as 95% CI for the difference between proportions. The authors enrolled 90 patients (mean age, 81.6 yr [SD +/- 4.9], 40% male). Dependence in at least one IADL was reported by 68% (95% CI = 57% to 77%), and in at least one PADL by 61% (95% CI = 50% to 71%). Functional decline was reported by 74% (95% CI = 64% to 83%). Two thirds of those with IADL decline and three quarters of those with PADL decline said that this contributed to their ED visit. Seventy-seven percent with, and 63% without, IADL decline were admitted (14% difference, 95% CI = -6.1% to 33%). Seventy-nine percent with and 61% without PADL decline were admitted (18% difference, 95% CI = -1.4% to 38%).","no. Patients experiencing poor outcomes such as long hospital stay or complications have similar perception of quality of care compared with those with regular outcomes. Patient-reported outcome measures are becoming increasingly important in the evaluation of the quality of care and may complement more traditional objective indicators such as morbidity or length of stay.","Activity limitation stages based on activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) are associated with 3-year mortality in elderly Medicare beneficiaries, yet their associations with hospitalization risk in this population have not been studied. To examine the independent association of activity limitation stages with risk of hospitalization within a year among Medicare beneficiaries aged 65 years and older. Cohort study. Community. A total of 9447 community-dwelling elderly Medicare beneficiaries from the Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey for years 2005-2009. Stages were derived for ADLs and IADLs separately. Associations of stages with time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within a year were assessed with Cox proportional hazards models, with which we accounted for baseline sociodemographics, smoking status, comorbidities, and the year of survey entry. Time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within 1 year. The adjusted risk of first hospitalization increased with greater activity limitation stages (except stage III). The hazard ratios (95% confidence intervals) for ADL stages I-IV compared with stage 0 (no limitations) were 1.49 (1.36-1.63), 1.61 (1.44-1.80), 1.54 (1.35-1.76), and 2.06 (1.61-2.63), respectively. The pattern for IADL stages was similar. For recurrent hospitalizations, activity limitation stages were associated with the risk of the first hospitalization but not with subsequent hospitalizations.","Treatment outcomes are an important determinant of patients' treatment preferences. Although studies have examined how well surrogates agree with patients' preferences for specific treatment interventions, agreement regarding the valuation of health states as treatment outcomes is unknown. Cross-sectional cohort study consisting of in-home interviews with 193 persons 60 years or older and seriously ill with cancer, congestive heart failure, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and their caregivers. Patients were asked whether, facing an exacerbation of illness, they would find a series of health states acceptable as a result of treatment (a rating of \"unacceptable\" meant they would prefer to die than to receive treatment). Caregivers were asked whether they would find these states acceptable for the patient. There was 80% or greater agreement for health states that were overall rated either acceptable (current health, mild memory impairment, mild pain, or other symptoms) or unacceptable (coma). There was 58% to 62% agreement (kappa = 0.10-0.25) about states with more severe physical or cognitive impairment. When disagreement occurred, caregivers were more likely to rate the state as acceptable. There was 61% to 65% agreement (kappa = 0.20-0.28) about states with severe pain or other symptoms. When disagreement occurred, caregivers and patients were equally likely to rate the state as acceptable.","To evaluate a Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) designed to utilize alternatives to emergency hospitalization. CDUs are one model of care designed to strengthen the gatekeeper role of Emergency Departments (EDs). This retrospective cohort study was carried out in a UK NHS acute hospital. All 854 patients in the CDU cohort were compared with three age-stratified, historical cohorts from the same clinical centre. The median age was 62 years (range 16-94).The main outcome measures were discharge to general practitioner, outpatient services or hospitalization, the 30-day unplanned reattendance rate for those not hospitalized, and monthly medical admission figures. Approximately 511 [59.8%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 56.5-63.1%] to 560 (65.6%, 95% CI: 62.3-68.7%) patients were admitted in the comparison cohorts, compared with only 186 (21.8%, 95% CI: 19.1-24.7%) in the CDU cohort (P≤0.05). Approximately 243 (28.5%, 95% CI: 25.5-31.6%) to 289 (33.8%, 95% CI: 30.7-37.1%) patients were discharged to general practitioner services in the comparison groups, compared with 562 (65.8%, 95% CI: 62.6-68.9%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). Approximately eight (0.9, 95% CI: 0.5-1.8%) to 17 (2%, 95% CI: 1.2-3.2%) patients in the comparison groups were discharged to outpatient clinics, compared with 82 (9.6%, 95% CI: 7.8-11.8%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). There was no consistent trend towards statistically significant rises in unplanned reattendance (P>0.05). Monthly medical admissions fell substantially during CDU operation.","To test whether there is an association between hospital operating conditions such as average length of stays (LOS) and staffing ratio, and elderly patients' risk of readmission. The main data source was a national patient database of admissions to all acute-care Norwegian hospitals during the year of 1996. It is a cross-sectional study, where Cox' regression analysis was used to test the factors acting on the probability of early unplanned readmission (within 30 days), and later occuring ones. The principal hospital variables included average hospital LOS and staffing ratio (discharges per man-years of personnel). Adjusting patient variables in the model included age, gender, and cost-weights of the Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs). The selected material included discharges from 59 hospitals, and 113,055 elderly patients (>or = 67 years). Multiple admissions to the same hospital were linked together chronologically, and additional hospital data were matched on. To maximize the association between the index stay and the defined outcome (unplanned readmission), no intervening planned admission was accepted. Being admitted to a hospital with relatively short average LOS increased the patient's risk of early readmission significantly. In addition it was found that more intensive care (more staff) could have a compensatory effect. Furthermore, the predictive factors were shown to be time dependent, as hospital variables had much less impact on readmissions occurring late (within 90-180 days).","yes. Both the amount and pattern of chronic diseases have been associated with QOL in elderly populations. Elderly women have low levels of QOL due to multimorbidity and a higher prevalence of chronic disease, which is related to impaired QOL.","yes. Results indicate that patients discharged from inpatient wards at times of high inpatient bed occupancy experience an increased risk of unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge.","Hospitalization for acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with significant morbidity and health care costs, and hospitals in the United States are now penalized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for excessive readmissions. Identifying patients at risk of readmission is important, but modifiable risk factors have not been clearly established, and the potential contributing role of psychological disease has not been examined adequately. We hypothesized that depression and anxiety would increase the risk of both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD. To characterize the associations between depression and anxiety and COPD readmission risk. We examined the medical records for all patients with a primary diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD by International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision codes admitted to the University of Alabama at Birmingham Hospital between November 2010 and October 2012. Those who did not meet the standardized study criteria for acute exacerbation of COPD and those with other respiratory illnesses as the primary diagnosis were excluded. Comorbidities were recorded on the basis of physician documentation of the diagnosis and/or the use of medications in the electronic medical record. Multivariable regression analyses identified factors associated with readmission for acute exacerbation of COPD at 1 year and within 30 and 90 days. Four hundred twenty-two patients were included, with 132 readmitted in 1 year. Mean age was 64.8 ± 11.7 years, and mean percent predicted FEV1 was 48.1 ± 18.7%. On univariate analysis, readmitted patients had lower percent predicted FEV1 (44.9 ± 17.3% vs. 50.2 ± 19.4%; P = 0.05) and a higher frequency of depression (47.7% vs. 23.4%; P < 0.001). On multivariable analysis, 1-year readmission was independently associated with depression (adjusted odds ratio [OR], 2.67; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.59-4.47) and in-hospital tobacco cessation counseling (adjusted OR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.18-0.66). Depression also predicted readmission at 30 days (adjusted OR, 3.83; 95% CI, 1.84-7.96) and 90 days (adjusted OR, 2.47; 95% CI, 1.34-4.55).","To determine whether a simple question about steadiness at admission predicts in-hospital functional decline and whether unsteadiness at admission predicts failure of in-hospital functional recovery of patients who have declined immediately before hospitalization. Prospective cohort study. One university hospital and one community teaching hospital. One thousand five hundred fifty-seven hospitalized medical patients aged 70 and older. On admission, patients reported their steadiness with walking and whether they could perform independently each of five basic activities of daily living (ADLs) at admission and 2 weeks before admission (baseline). For the primary analysis, the outcome was decline in ADL function between admission and discharge. For the secondary analysis, the outcome was in-hospital recovery to baseline ADL function in patients who experienced ADL decline in the 2 weeks before admission. In the primary cohort (n = 1,557), 25% of patients were very unsteady at admission; 22% of very unsteady patients declined during hospitalization, compared with 17%, 18%, and 10% for slightly unsteady, slightly steady, and very steady patients, respectively (P for trend =.001). After adjusting for age; medical comorbidities; Acute Physiology, Age, and Chronic Health Evaluation II score; and admission ADL, unsteadiness remained significantly associated with ADL decline (odds for decline for very unsteady compared with very steady = 2.6, 95% confidence interval = 1.5-4.5). In the secondary analysis, predicting ADL recovery in patients who declined before hospitalization (n = 563), 46% of patients were very unsteady at admission. In this cohort, 44% of very unsteady patients failed to recover, compared with 35%, 36%, and 33% for each successively higher level of steadiness, respectively (P for trend = 0.06). After multivariate adjustment, greater unsteadiness independently predicted failure of recovery (P for trend = 0.02).","yes. Medicaid and uninsured payer status confers increased risk adjusted in-hospital mortality for patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting operations. Medicaid was further associated with the greatest adjusted length of stay and total costs despite risk factors. Possible explanations include delays in access to care or disparate differences in health maintenance.","Modifiable system, as well as patient, characteristics are associated with follow-up appointment-keeping. The practice of not giving patients written appointments at the time of discharge may constitute an implicit form of \"rationing by inconvenience.\" Further studies should also evaluate potential associations between appointment-keeping and re-hospitalization.","Self-reported health perceptions such as physical distress and quality of life are suggested independent predictors of mortality and morbidity in patients with established cardiovascular disease. This study examined the associations between these factors and three years incidence of cardiovascular events in a population of elderly men with long term hyperlipidemia. We studied observational data in a cohort of 433 men aged 64-76 years from a prospective, 2 x 2 factorial designed, three-year interventional trial. Information of classical risk factors was obtained and the following questionnaires were administered at baseline: Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale, Physical Symptom Distress Index and Life Satisfaction Index. The occurrence of cardiovascular death, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular incidences and peripheral arterial disease were registered throughout the study period. Continuous data with skewed distribution was split into tertiles. Hazard ratios (HR) were calculated from Cox regression analyses to assess the associations between physical distress, quality of life and cardiovascular events. After three years, 49 cardiovascular events were registered, with similar incidence among subjects with and without established cardiovascular disease. In multivariate analyses adjusted for age, smoking, systolic blood pressure, serum glucose, HADS-anxiety and treatment-intervention, physical distress was positively associated (HR 3.1, 95% CI 1.2 - 7.9 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) and quality of life negatively associated (HR 2.6, 95% CI 1.1-5.8 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) with cardiovascular events. The association remained statistically significant only for physical distress (hazard ratio 2.8 95% CI 1.2 - 6.8, p < 0.05) when both variables were evaluated in the same model.","Cognitive impairment is common among chronic heart failure (CHF) patients. To determine the prognostic significance of cognitive impairment in patients participating in a randomized study of a CHF management program (CHF-MP). CHF patients were randomized to a CHF-MP (n=100) or usual care (n=100). Baseline cognition was assessed using the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE). Five-year all-cause mortality, and combined death-or-readmission, were compared on the basis of the presence (MMSE 19-26) or absence (MMSE>26) of cognitive impairment. 27 patients (13.5%) had cognitive impairment and, on an adjusted basis, were more likely to die (96.3% versus 68.2%. RR 2.19, 95% CI 1.41 to 3.39: P<0.001) and/or experience an unplanned hospitalization (100% versus 94%. RR 1.44, 95% CI 1.06 to 1.95: P=0.019). Cognitively impaired patients had a similar (non-significant) adjusted risk of death-or-readmission in both the CHF-MP (RR 1.40, 95% CI 0.63 to 3.11: P=0.403) and in usual care (RR 1.38, 95% CI 0.75 to 2.53: P=0.305). In the usual care cohort, cognitive impairment was associated with a greater (non-significant), adjusted risk of death (RR 1.61, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.122). In the CHF-MP, adjusted risk of death was significantly higher for cognitively impaired patients (RR 2.33, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.027).","Thyroid cancer increases in incidence and aggressiveness with age. The elderly are the fastest growing segment of the U.S. population. Reducing rates of rehospitalization would lower cost and improve quality of care. This is the first study to report population-level information characterizing rehospitalization after thyroidectomy among the elderly. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER)-Medicare-linked database was used to identify patients older than aged 65 years with thyroid cancer who underwent thyroidectomy from 1997-2002. Patient and hospital characteristics were studied to predict the risk of rehospitalization. Outcomes were 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate, cost, and length of stay (LOS) of readmission. Of 2,127 patients identified, 69% were women, 84% had differentiated thyroid cancer, and 52% underwent total thyroidectomy. Mean age was 74 years. A total of 171 patients (8%) underwent 30-day unplanned rehospitalization. Rehospitalization was associated with increased comorbidity, advanced stage, number of lymph nodes examined, increased LOS of index admission, and small hospital size (all P < 0.05). Patients with a complication during index hospital stay were more likely to be readmitted (P < 0.001), whereas patients who saw an outpatient medical provider after index discharge returned less frequently (P < 0.001). Forty-seven percent of readmissions were for endocrine-related causes. Mean LOS and cost of rehospitalization were 3.5 days and $5,921, respectively. Unplanned rehospitalization was associated with death at 1 year compared with nonrehospitalized patients (18% vs. 6%; P < 0.001).","Most nationally standardised quality measures use widely accepted evidence-based processes as their foundation, but the discharge instruction component of the United States standards of Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations heart failure core measure appears to be based on expert opinion alone. To determine whether documentation of compliance with any or all of the six required discharge instructions is correlated with readmissions to hospital or mortality. A retrospective study at a single tertiary care hospital was conducted on randomly sampled patients hospitalised for heart failure from July 2002 to September 2003. Applying the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations criteria, 782 of 1121 patients were found eligible to receive discharge instructions. Eligibility was determined by age, principal diagnosis codes and discharge status codes. The primary outcome measures are time to death and time to readmission for heart failure or readmission for any cause and time to death. In all, 68% of patients received all instructions, whereas 6% received no instructions. Patients who received all instructions were significantly less likely to be readmitted for any cause (p = 0.003) and for heart failure (p = 0.035) than those who missed at least one type of instruction. Documentation of discharge instructions is correlated with reduced readmission rates. However, there was no association between documentation of discharge instructions and mortality (p = 0.521).","Hospital discharge planning is aimed to decrease length of stay in hospitals as well as to ensure continuity of health care after being discharged. Hospitalized patients in Turin, Italy, who are in need of medical, social and rehabilitative care are proposed as candidates to either discharge planning relying on a care-home model (DPCH) for a period of about 30 days, or routine discharge care. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether a hospital DPCH that was compared with routine care, improved patients' outcomes in terms of reduced hospital readmission and mortality rates in patients aged 64 years and older. In a retrospective observational cohort study a sample of 380 subjects aged 64 years and over was examined. Participants were discharged from the hospital S. Giovanni Bosco in Turin, Italy from March 1st, 2005 to February 28th, 2006. Of these subjects, 107 received routine discharge care while 273 patients were referred to care-home (among them, 99 received a long-term care intervention (LTCI) afterwards while 174 did not). Data was gathered from various administrative and electronic databases. Cox regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with mortality and hospital readmission. When socio-demographic factors, underlying disease and disability were taken into account, DPCH decreased mortality rates only if it was followed by a LTCI: compared to routine care, the Hazard Ratio (HR) of death was 0.36 (95% Confidence Interval (CI): 0.20 - 0.66) and 1.15 (95%CI: 0.77 - 1.74) for DPCH followed by LTCI and DPCH not followed by LTCI, respectively. On the other hand, readmission rates did not significantly differ among DPCH and routine care, irrespective of the implementation of a LTCI: HRs of hospital readmission were 1.01 (95%CI: 0.48 - 2.24) and 1.18 (95%CI: 0.71 - 1.96), respectively.","yes. The results quantify the strong relationship between NP levels taken following an unplanned admission to a cardiology department and the duration of hospitalization. This information permits improved identification of a patient population likely to require a prolonged hospital stay and consume more healthcare resources. Such patients may require a more aggressive diagnostic, treatment, and management strategy.","This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \"not at risk\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.","The performance of comorbidity measures derived from the hospital discharge abstract, the outpatient pharmacy record, and from both sources combined, were compared in predicting all-cause and unplanned hospital readmission and length of stay. Automated hospital and pharmacy data came from Kaiser-Permanente and included 6721 acute hospitalizations in Southern California from April 1993 to February 1995. The Deyo adaptation of Charlson's 17 comorbidities was derived from hospital discharge data and the 29 Chronic Disease Score (CDS) comorbidity markers were derived from outpatient pharmacy claims data. Logistic and OLS regression models were used to compare the performance of each measure in baseline models and to evaluate whether the CDS contributed additional explanatory power in a combined model. The CDS was a significant predictor of unplanned readmission (C = 0.68) and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26) in multivariable models adjusted for baseline patient demographic and hospitalization characteristics. The Deyo measure was a significant predictor of all-cause readmission (C = 0.63), unplanned readmission (C = 0.68), and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26). When pharmacy-based disease markers were added to the Deyo baseline model, modest, statistically significant improvements in predictive power were noted in the unplanned readmission and LOS models.","yes. Depression is an independent risk factor for both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD and may represent a modifiable risk factor. In-hospital tobacco cessation counseling was also associated with reduced 1-year readmission.","This study fails to demonstrate that outpatient visits after hospital discharge are associated with fewer readmissions for nonelderly Medicaid patients. This suggests that it may not be appropriate to use hospital readmission rates as an indicator of the quality of outpatient care.","Scrutiny of hospital readmissions has led to the development and implementation of policies targeted at reducing readmission rates. To assess whether historic hospital readmission rates predict risk-adjusted patient readmission and to measure the costs of readmission, thus informing reimbursement policies under consideration by non-Veterans Health Administration payers. Multivariable hospital-fixed effects regression analyses of patients admitted to 129 Veterans Health Administration hospitals between 2005 and 2009 for 3 common conditions, acute myocardial infarction (AMI), community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), and congestive heart failure (CHF). We examined whether previous hospital readmission rates predicted risk-adjusted readmission or 30-day episode cost of care for subsequent patients. We then examined the 30-day inpatient hospitalization episode cost differences between those who had a readmission in the episode and those who did not. Hospital readmission rates in the previous quarter are not predictive of individual patient risk-adjusted readmission or of patients' inpatient hospitalization episode cost in the subsequent quarter. Relative to those who were not readmitted within 30 days of index visit discharge, readmitted patients had 30-day episode costs that were 53.3% (P<0.001), 82.8% (P<0.001), and 79.8% (P<0.001) higher for AMI, CAP, and CHF hospitalization episodes, respectively.","yes. Living alone was identified as the single most important risk factor for early readmission after CABGS. Patients who live alone may benefit from additional support during early convalescence. Intervention studies could explore support options for these patients.","New tools to accurately identify potentially preventable 30-day readmissions are needed. The HOSPITAL score has been internationally validated for medical inpatients, but its performance in select conditions targeted by the Hospital Readmission Reduction Program (HRRP) is unknown. Retrospective cohort study. Six geographically diverse medical centers. All consecutive adult medical patients discharged alive in 2011 with 1 of the 4 medical conditions targeted by the HRRP (acute myocardial infarction, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pneumonia, and heart failure) were included. Potentially preventable 30-day readmissions were identified using the SQLape algorithm. The HOSPITAL score was calculated for all patients. A multivariable logistic regression model accounting for hospital effects was used to evaluate the accuracy (Brier score), discrimination (c-statistic), and calibration (Pearson goodness-of-fit) of the HOSPITAL score for each 4 medical conditions. Among the 9181 patients included, the overall 30-day potentially preventable readmission rate was 13.6%. Across all 4 diagnoses, the HOSPITAL score had very good accuracy (Brier score of 0.11), good discrimination (c-statistic of 0.68), and excellent calibration (Hosmer-Lemeshow goodness-of-fit test, P=0.77). Within each diagnosis, performance was similar. In sensitivity analyses, performance was similar for all readmissions (not just potentially preventable) and when restricted to patients age 65 and above.","yes. Patients after long-term remission of CS report more negative illness perceptions compared with patients with other acute or chronic conditions. Further research is needed to assess whether QoL in CS can be improved by addressing these illness perceptions, for example, by a self-management intervention program.","Poor health-related quality of life (QOL) is related to morbidity and mortality in coronary heart disease and ventricular arrhythmias as well as to mortality in patients with heart failure (HF) and atrial fibrillation (AF). This study examined the contributions of QOL to the prediction of 1-year hospitalization and mortality in patients with AF, independent of HF. This study used the public use dataset from the NHLBI/NIH AFFIRM randomized clinical trial. Patients enrolled in the QOL substudy (N = 693) were randomly assigned to rate or rhythm control. QOL was assessed with the Medical Outcomes Study 36-item Short Form Health Survey (SF-36) and the Quality of Life Index-Cardiac Version (QLI-CV). Data were analyzed with logistic regression to predict 1-year hospitalization and Cox proportional hazards analysis to predict mortality. In the first year of participation in the study 37% (n = 256) were hospitalized; mortality was 14.3% (n = 93) with mean follow-up of 3.5 years. Patients' mean age was 69.8 ± 8.2 years, were largely male (62%), and white (93%). Patient histories included 70.8% hypertension, 38.2% coronary artery disease (CAD), and 23.7% HF. History of stroke, HF, rhythm control arm, lower SF-36 mental component scores (MCS), and lower SF-36 physical component scores (PCS) predicted hospitalization (P<0.001). Diabetes, female gender, older age, CAD, hypertension, and lower PCS predicted mortality (P<0.001).","To determine whether geriatric patients aged 65 and older on general adult psychiatric units improve as much as younger patients, over what duration their improvement occurs, and their risk of readmission. Cohort study. Inpatient psychiatric unit of an urban, university-affiliated, county hospital from January 1993 through August 1999. A total of 5,929 inpatients. Standardized, routine assessments by attending psychiatrists included the Psychiatric Symptom Assessment Scale (PSAS) on admission and discharge. Discharge scores, length of stay (LOS), and risk of readmission within 1 year were modeled for the groups using multiple regression analyses. Geriatric patients constituted 5% (n=299) of the 5,929 admissions. In multivariate analysis, geriatric status was not associated with discharge PSAS scores. Median LOS was longer for geriatric patients (16 days) than younger patients (10 days, P<.001), especially in older women (14 days) and geriatric patients with mild medical illness severity (13 days vs 11 days in those with moderate-to-severe medical illness). Geriatric patients were as likely to be readmitted within 1 year of discharge as younger patients.","Longitudinal study of a population-based retrospective cohort conformed by adult patients with type-2 diabetes assigned to any of the primary care centres in Aragon during 2010 and 2011 (n=65,716). Negative binomial regressions were run to model the effect of the type of comorbidity on the number of visits to each level of care. Comorbidities were classified as concordant, discordant or mental based on expert consensus and depending on whether they shared the same overall pathophysiologic risk profile and disease management plan designed for type-2 diabetes. Mental comorbidity was independently associated with total and unplanned admissions (incidence rate ratio [IRR]:1.25; 95% confidence interval [CI]:1.12-1.39, IRR:1.21; 95% CI:1.06-1.39), average length of stay (IRR:1.47; 95% CI:1.25-1.73), and total and priority emergency room visits (IRR:1.26; 95% CI:1.17-1.35, IRR:1.30; 95% CI:1.18-1.42). Patients with discordant comorbidities showed the strongest associations with the number of visits to specialists (IRR:1.38; 95% CI:1.33-1.43) and to different specialties (IRR:1.36; 95% CI:1.32-1.39). Differences regarding GP visits were lower but still significant for patients with discordant comorbidity (IRR:1.08; 95% CI:1.06-1.11), but especially for those with mental comorbidity (IRR:1.17; 95% CI:1.14-1.21).","yes. Readmission models for the inpatient rehabilitation stroke population based on functional status and age showed better predictive ability than models based on medical comorbidities.","To determine whether functional status on admission to a Comprehensive Integrated Inpatient Rehabilitation Program (CIIRP) is associated with unplanned readmission to acute care. Retrospective cohort study. Academic hospital-based CIIRP. Consecutive patients (N=1515) admitted to a CIIRP between January 2009 and June 2012. Patients' functional status, the primary exposure variable, was assessed using tertiles of the total FIM score at CIIRP admission, with secondary analyses using the FIM motor and cognitive domains. A propensity score, consisting of 25 relevant clinical and demographic variables, was used to adjust for confounding in the analysis. Readmission to acute care was categorized as (1) readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP, (2) readmission within 30 days of discharge from the CIIRP, and (3) total readmissions from both groups, with total readmissions being the a priori primary outcome. Among the 1515 patients, there were 347 total readmissions. Total readmissions were significantly associated with FIM scores, with adjusted odds ratios (AORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for the lowest and middle FIM tertiles versus the highest tertile (AOR=2.6; 95% CI, 1.9-3.7; P<.001 and AOR=1.7; 95% CI, 1.2-2.4; P=.002, respectively). There were similar findings for secondary analyses of readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=3.5; 95% CI, 2.2-5.8; P<.001 and AOR=2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.5l P=.002, respectively), and a weaker association for readmissions after discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=1.6; 95% CI, 1.0-2.4; P=.047 and AOR=1.3; 95% CI, 0.8-1.9; P=.28, respectively). The FIM motor domain score was more strongly associated with readmissions than the FIM cognitive score.","The aim of this study was to examine whether the physical and mental components of health-related quality of life (HRQoL) are independent predictors of survival in patients with chronic heart failure (CHF). A cohort of 231 outpatients with CHF was followed prospectively for 986 days (median; interquartile range=664-1120). Generic HRQoL was measured with the Short Form-36 Health Survey (SF-36), disease-specific HRQoL was measured with the Kansas City Cardiomyopathy Questionnaire, and depression was measured with the self-reported Patient Health Questionnaire. Both generic and disease-specific HRQoL were predictive of survival on univariate analyses. After adjustment for prognostic factors such as age, gender, degree of left ventricular dysfunction, and functional status, only the mental health component of SF-36 and the disease-specific HRQoL remained significant. When depression was included, both measures also lost their predictive power.","This study sought to determine whether a model that included self-reported socioeconomic, health status, and psychosocial characteristics obtained from patients recently discharged from hospitalizations for heart failure substantially improved 30-day readmission risk prediction compared with a model that incorporated only clinical and demographic factors. Existing readmission risk models have poor discrimination and it is unknown whether they would be markedly improved by the inclusion of patient-reported information. As part of the Tele-HF (Telemonitoring to Improve Heart Failure Outcomes) trial, we conducted medical record abstraction and telephone interviews in a sample of 1,004 patients recently hospitalized for heart failure to obtain clinical, functional, and psychosocial information within 2 weeks of discharge. Candidate risk factors included 110 variables divided into 2 groups: demographic and clinical variables generally available from the medical record; and socioeconomic, health status, adherence, and psychosocial variables from patient interview. The 30-day readmission rate was 17.1%. Using the 3-level risk score derived from the restricted medical record variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 10.9% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 8.2% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 2 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 32.1% (95% CI: 22.4% to 43.2%), a C-statistic of 0.62. Using the 5-level risk score derived from all variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 9.6% (95% CI: 6.1% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 4 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 55.0% (95% CI: 31.5% to 76.9%), a C-statistic of 0.65.","yes. Coronary heart disease patients' perception of their symptoms and sense of control at time of discharge were significantly associated with their quality of life three years after discharge.","yes. Patients admitted for subacute in-hospital rehabilitation were able to anticipate their discharge health-related quality of life on the EQ-5D instrument with a moderate level of accuracy. This finding adds to the foundational empirical work supporting joint treatment decision making and patient-centered models of care during rehabilitation following acute illness or injury. Accurate patient expectations of the impact of treatment (or disease progression) on future health-related related quality of life is likely to allow patients and health professionals to successfully target interventions to priority areas where meaningful gains can be achieved.","As the majority of unplanned hospital readmissions were associated with medical diagnoses, it is important to consider patient medical comorbidities before surgical treatment of proximal humerus fractures and during the postoperative care phase.","to examine the relationship between depressive symptoms and hospital outcomes in an unselected consecutive sample of older medical inpatients. a prospective cohort study of individuals screened for a trial. medical wards of UK district general hospital in rural East Anglia. six hundred and seventeen medical inpatients aged 65+ were randomly selected from consecutive admissions. Baseline measures: 15-item Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS-15), the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) and the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale-Geriatric (CIRS-G). length of hospital stay; discharge to a community hospital (for rehabilitation), institutional care or usual place of residence; dying in hospital. depressive symptoms are independently associated with an increased likelihood of inpatient death and transfer to a community hospital for rehabilitation, but are not associated with longer length of stay.","Multimorbidity poses a significant clinical challenge and has been linked to greater health services use, including hospitalization; however, we have little knowledge about the influence of contextual factors on outcomes in this population. To describe the extent to which the association between multimorbidity and hospitalization is modified by age, gender, primary care practice model, or continuity of care (COC) among adults with at least one chronic condition. A retrospective cohort study with linked population-based administrative data. Ontario, Canada. All individuals 18 and older with at least one of 16 priority chronic conditions as of April 1, 2009 (baseline). Any hospitalization, 3 or more hospitalizations, non-medical discharge delay, and 30-day readmission within the 1 year following baseline. Of 5,958,514 individuals, 484,872 (8.1 %) experienced 646,347 hospitalizations. There was a monotonic increase in the likelihood of hospitalization and related outcomes with increasing multimorbidity which was modified by age, gender, and COC but not primary care practice model. The effect of increasing multimorbidity was greater in younger adults than older adults and in those with lower COC than with higher COC. The effect of increasing multimorbidity on hospitalization was greater in men than women but reversed for the other outcomes.","High readmission rates are viewed by the Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services as a quality of care determinant but it is unclear whether readmission rates per se reflect quality and the drivers of readmissions after hip arthroplasty remain unclear.QUESTION/ We therefore describe the effects of (1) insurance, discharge disposition, and mental health status as they relate to rates; (2) rehospitalization charges; and (3) reasons for readmissions. We studied a cohort of all 27,019 patients who initially underwent hip arthroplasty in Florida (April 2009 to March 2010). Participants were identified using the All Patient-Refined Diagnosis-Related Group 301. Data were provided by the Agency for Health Care Administration and the Florida Hospital Association who with the Florida Orthopedic Society studied readmissions within 15 days. We extracted readmission rates and their reasons; original payers, discharge disposition, mental health status; and readmission charges. The readmission rate in the first 15 days was 5%. Rates varied by type of insurance: self-pay/underinsured, Medicaid, and Medicare patients (6%) had higher rates than individuals with commercial insurance, HMO, or PPO (3%). Patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) had higher rates (7%) than patients discharged home with/without health care (both 3%). Patients with a mental health issue (10%) were readmitted more frequently than patients without it (5%). Medicare readmissions comprised 81% (USD 59,222,829) of the total readmission charges in this cohort. The most common reasons were infections (all 27%), hip arthroplasty (11%), and cardiovascular problems (9%).","To determine whether or not having an outpatient visit after hospital discharge is associated with a lower likelihood of readmission for a statewide Medicaid population. A case-control study in the Delaware Medicaid program over a two-year period (7/1/93-6/30/95). 3,846 continuously enrolled patients aged 0-64 years who were hospitalized and were readmitted within 90 days (cases = 641) or not readmitted within 90 days (controls = 3,205). Subgroups included those readmitted for the same diagnosis (N = 720), for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (N = 906), or both (N = 276). Likelihood of readmission within 90 days of discharge. Readmission was significantly more likely when an outpatient visit was made after hospital discharge, both before and after controlling for demographic variables and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.47, 95% confidence interval = 1.20-1.80). When readmission for the same diagnosis was examined, having an outpatient visit was associated with an increased likelihood of readmission before but not after controlling for demographics and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.11, 95% confidence interval = 0.67-1.86). The same was for those admitted for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (adjusted odds ratio = 1.16, 95% confidence interval = 0.74-1.85) and for those readmitted for the same ambulatory care sensitive condition (adjusted odds ratio = 1.53, 95% confidence interval = 0.54-4.29).","What are the effects of additional exercise on hospital and patient outcomes for acutely-hospitalised older medical patients? Controlled clinical trial. 236 Patients aged 65 or older admitted to an acute care hospital with a medical illness between October 2002 and July 2003. The experimental group received usual care plus an individually tailored exercise program administered twice daily from hospital admission to discharge. The control group received usual care only. The primary outcome was discharge destination. Secondary outcomes were measures of activity limitation (Barthel Index, Timed Up and Go, Functional Ambulation Classification), length of stay, and adverse events. There was no significant effect of the additional exercise program on any outcome. There were no significant differences between groups for the proportion of the patients discharged to home (RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.86 to 1.14) or inpatient rehabilitation (RR 0.76, 95% CI 0.30 to 1.51) or for measures of activity limitation at hospital discharge. A one day difference in length of stay was identified between groups but this difference was not significant (p = 0.45). There were no significant differences between groups for adverse events: 28-day readmission (RR 1.10, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.86), patient mortality (RR 1.15, 95% CI 0.16 to 8.0), intensive care admission (RR 0.16, 95% CI 0.01 to 3.13) and falls (RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.17 to 2.81).","yes. Reported elder self-neglect was associated with increased rates of 30-day hospital readmission in this community population. Greater self-neglect severity was associated with a greater increase in the rate of 30-day hospital readmission.","yes. Readmission to inpatient psychiatric treatment was common for patients with co-occurring disorders, and these observational findings indicate that continuing care for a substance use disorder was associated with lower risk of early readmission.","yes. In older adults with cancer, certain geriatric parameters are associated with shorter survival after hospitalization. Assessment of functional status, necessity for readmission, and cognitive impairment may provide prognostic information so that oncologists and their patients make more informed, individualized decisions.","Preventive home visits were not effective in reducing hospital readmissions, but satisfaction with care was enhanced. Subjective well-being is a key variable that warrants attention in the planning and evaluation of postdischarge home care.","yes. This study shows a significant and linear relationship between lower global and physical HRQL scores in patients with IHD and 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmission.","This study investigated the relationship between patient-rated unmet needs and subjective quality of life using routine outcome data. 265 mental health service patients from South Verona were assessed using the Camberwell Assessment of Need, the Lancashire Quality of Life Profile, and other standardised assessments of symptoms, disability, function and service satisfaction. At 1-year follow-up, 166 patients were still in contact, of whom 121 patients (73%) were re-assessed. Higher baseline quality of life was associated with being male, a diagnosis of psychosis, higher disability, higher satisfaction with care, fewer staff-rated or patient-rated unmet needs, and fewer patient-rated met needs (accounting for 40% of the variance). Specifically, fewer baseline patient-rated unmet needs were cross-sectionally associated with a higher quality of life (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.12 to -0.04). Apart from its baseline value, the only baseline predictor of follow-up QoL was patient-rated unmet need (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.21 to -0.09), accounting for 58% of the variance in follow-up quality of life. Graphical chain modelling confirmed this association.","Health-related quality of life (HRQOL) is a major clinical outcome for heart failure (HF) patients. We aimed to determine the frequency, durability, and prognostic significance of improved HRQOL after hospitalization for decompensated HF. We analyzed HRQOL, measured serially using the Minnesota Living with Heart Failure Questionnaire (MLHFQ), for 425 patients who survived to discharge in a multicenter randomized clinical trial of pulmonary artery catheter versus clinical assessment to guide therapy for patients with advanced HF. All patients enrolled had 1 or more prior HF hospitalizations or chronic high diuretic doses and 1 or more symptom and 1 sign of fluid overload at admission. Improvement, defined as a decrease of more than 5 points in MLHFQ total score, occurred in 68% of patients by 1 month and stabilized. The degree of 1-month improvement differed (P < .0001 group x time interaction) between 6-month survivors and non-survivors. In a Cox regression model, after adjustment for traditional risk factors for HF morbidity and mortality, improvement in HRQOL by 1 month compared to worsening at 1 month or no change predicted time to subsequent event-free survival (P=.013).","Quality of life (QoL) for women with gynecologic malignancies is predictive of chemotherapy related toxicity and overall survival but has not been studied in relation to surgical outcomes and hospital readmissions. Our goal was to evaluate the association between baseline, pre-operative QoL measures and 30-day post-operative morbidity and health resource utilization by gynecologic oncology patients. We analyzed prospectively collected survey data from an institution-wide cohort study. Patients were enrolled from 8/2012 to 6/2013 and medical record data was abstracted (demographics, comorbid conditions, and operative outcomes). Responses from several validated health-related QoL instruments were collected. Bivariate tests and multivariable linear and logistic regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with QoL scores. Of 182 women with suspected gynecologic malignancies, 152 (84%) were surveyed pre-operatively and 148 (81%) underwent surgery. Uterine (94; 63.5%), ovarian (26; 17.5%), cervical (15; 10%), vulvar/vaginal (8; 5.4%), and other (5; 3.4%) cancers were represented. There were 37 (25%) cases of postoperative morbidity (PM), 18 (12%) unplanned ER visits, 9(6%) unplanned clinic visits, and 17 (11.5%) hospital readmissions (HR) within 30days of surgery. On adjusted analysis, lower functional well-being scores resulted in increased odds of PM (OR 1.07, 95%CI 1.01-.1.21) and HR (OR 1.11, 95%CI 1.03-1.19). A subjective global assessment score was also strongly associated with HR (OR 1.89, 95%CI 1.14, 3.16).","Ascites, the most frequent complication of cirrhosis, is associated with poor prognosis and reduced quality of life. Recurrent hospital admissions are common and often unplanned, resulting in increased use of hospital services. To examine use of hospital services by patients with cirrhosis and ascites requiring paracentesis, and to investigate factors associated with early unplanned readmission. A retrospective review of the medical chart and clinical databases was performed for patients who underwent paracentesis between October 2011 and October 2012. Clinical parameters at index admission were compared between patients with and without early unplanned hospital readmissions. The 41 patients requiring paracentesis had 127 hospital admissions, 1164 occupied bed days and 733 medical imaging services. Most admissions (80.3%) were for management of ascites, of which 41.2% were unplanned. Of those eligible, 69.7% were readmitted and 42.4% had an early unplanned readmission. Twelve patients died and nine developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Of those eligible for readmission, more patients died (P = 0.008) and/or developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (P = 0.027) if they had an early unplanned readmission during the study period. Markers of liver disease, as well as haemoglobin (P = 0.029), haematocrit (P = 0.024) and previous heavy alcohol use (P = 0.021) at index admission, were associated with early unplanned readmission.","Unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge is an indicator of hospital quality. We wanted to determine whether older rural veterans who were enrolled in the VA had different rates of unplanned readmission to VA or non-VA hospitals than their urban counterparts. We used the combined VA/Medicare dataset to examine 3,513,912 hospital admissions for older veterans that occurred in VA or non-VA hospitals between 1997 and 2004. We calculated 30-day readmission rates and odds ratios for rural and urban veterans, and we performed a logistic regression analysis to determine whether living in a rural setting or initially using the VA for hospitalization were independent risk factors for unplanned 30-day readmission, after adjusting for age, sex, length of stay of the index admission, and morbidity. Overall, rural veterans had slightly higher 30-day readmission rates than their urban counterparts (17.96% vs 17.86%; OR 1.006, 95% CI: 1.0004, 1.013). For both rural- and urban-dwelling veterans, readmission after using a VA hospital was more common than after using a non-VA hospital (20.7% vs 16.8% for rural veterans, 21.2% vs 16.1% for urban veterans). After adjusting for other variables, readmission was more likely for rural veterans and following admission to a VA hospital.","To examine the relationship between health-related quality of life (HRQOL) and health service use among older adults with osteoarthritis (OA). Subjects were 9,043 Medicare-enrolled survey respondents with a prior International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision code for OA. Analyses examined the relationship of 5 Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HRQOL items (general health, mental health, pain, activity limitation, and sleep) to physician visits, prescription analgesic or antiinflammatory use, and arthroplasty during 1 year of followup. In analyses controlling for demographic and health-related variables, greater pain frequency was associated with increased odds of visiting a physician, using analgesic or antiinflammatory drugs, and having arthroplasty (P < 0.001). Poorer general health was associated with increased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use but decreased odds of arthroplasty (P < 0.01). More days of activity limitation and poor mental health were associated with decreased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use (P < 0.01).","Emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations of elderly subjects with chronic comorbidities, often disabled, are increasing. The aim of the present study was to assess whether among older subjects functional disability is associated with increased ER visits and hospitalization rates. We assessed the association of functional ability with 1-year ER visits and hospitalization rates in all 342 subjects aged 75+ living in Tuscania (Italy) in 2004. Functional ability was estimated using the Katz' activities of daily living (ADLs), and the Lawton and Brody scale for the instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Functional disability was defined as the dependence for two or more ADLs or IADLs. According to Cox regression, disability in ADLs was associated with increased risk of ER visits (RR 2.12; 95 % CI 1.11-4.08; P = .023) but not of hospital admission (RR 1.50; 95 % CI .80-2.80; P = .208). Also, in Poisson regression, ADLs disability predicted the number of ER visits (IRR 2.56; 95 % CI 1.48-4.40; P = .001).","This study examined the association of self-care behavior and patients' knowledge about self-care with rehospitalization among older adults with heart failure (HF). Case-control comparison (116 cases and 209 controls) nested in a prospective cohort of patients aged 65 years and older admitted for HF at 4 Spanish hospitals. Cases were patients experiencing a first emergency rehospitalization in the 6 months following the index hospital admission. Controls were patients who did not undergo a rehospitalization during such time-period. The number of self-care behaviors was inversely associated with the frequency of readmission (p for linear trend: 0.006). Compared with patients showing the appropriate self-care behavior, hospital readmission was more frequent among those who did no go for a walk daily or did not engage in any daily physical activity (hazard ratio [HR] 1.55; 95% confidence limits [CL] 1.04-2.29), and among those who did not keep their medical appointments (HR 1.82; 95% CL 1.10-3.02). Hospital readmission was also more frequent among patients who: failed to take their medication at the scheduled time (HR 2.07; 95% CL 1.15-3.72); stopped taking their medication when it disagreed with them (HR 1.76; 95% CL 1.08-2.85); and failed to adhere to their drug treatment (HR 1.96; 95% CL 1.29-2.98). Furthermore, the fewer the number of behaviors which patients knew to be required for self-care, the greater the frequency of rehospitalization (p for linear trend:0.029).","In COPD, hospital admissions and readmissions account for the majority of health-care costs. The aim of this prospective randomized controlled study was to determine if early pulmonary rehabilitation, commenced as an inpatient and continued after discharge, reduced acute health-care utilization. Consecutive COPD patients (n = 397), admitted with an exacerbation, were screened: 228 satisfied the eligibility criteria, of whom 97 consented to randomization to rehabilitation or usual care. Both intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses are reported with adherence being defined a priori as participation in at least 75% of rehabilitation sessions. The participants were elderly with severe impairment of pulmonary function, poor health-related quality of life and high COPD-related morbidity. The rehabilitation group demonstrated a 23% (95% CI: 11-36%) risk of readmission at 3 months, with attendees having a 16% (95% CI: 0-32%) risk compared with 32% (95% CI: 19-45%) for usual care. These differences were not significant. There were a total of 79 COPD-related readmission days (1.7 per patient, 95% CI: 0.6-2.7, P = 0.19) in the rehabilitation group, compared with 25 (1.3 per patient, 95% CI: 0-3.1, P = 0.17) for the attendees and 209 (4.2 per patient, 95% CI: 1.7-6.7) for usual care. The BMI, airflow obstruction, dyspnoea and exercise capacity index showed a non-significant trend to greater improvement among attendees compared with those receiving usual care (5.5 (2.3) and 5.6 (2.7) at baseline, improving to 3.7 (1.9) and 4.5 (2.5), respectively, at 3 months). No adverse effects were identified.","To examine the possible use of readmission rates as an outcome indicator of hospital inpatient care by investigating avoidability of unplanned readmissions within 28 days of discharge. Retrospective analysis of a stratified random sample of case notes of patients with an unplanned readmission between July 1987 and June 1988 by nine clinical assessors (263 assessments) and categorisation of the readmission as avoidable, unavoidable, or unclassifiable. District in North East Thames region. 481 General medical, geriatric, and general surgical inpatients with a readmission at 0-6 days or 21-27 days after the first (index) discharge between July 1987 and June 1988 from whom 100 case notes were selected randomly and of which 74 were available for study. Assessment of readmissions as avoidable, unavoidable, unclassifiable, variability of assessment within cases and variability among assessors according to specialty and duration to readmission. General medical and geriatric readmissions and surgical readmissions at 0-6 days after discharge were more likely to be assessed as avoidable than those at 21-27 days (medical readmissions 32 v 6%, surgical admissions 49 v 19%). General surgical readmissions were significantly more frequently assessed as avoidable than general medical and geriatric readmissions. The extent of agreement between doctors varied, with general medical and geriatric readmissions at 21-27 days after first discharge causing the greatest variability of judgment.","The Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation (IMPACT) Act of 2014 stipulates that standardized functional status (self-care and mobility) and cognitive function data will be used for quality reporting in post-acute care settings. Thirty-day post-discharge unplanned rehospitalization is an established quality metric that has recently been extended to post-acute settings. The relationships between the functional domains in the IMPACT Act and 30-day unplanned rehospitalization are poorly understood. To determine the degree to which discharge mobility, self-care, and cognitive function are associated with 30-day unplanned rehospitalization following discharge from post-acute care. This was a retrospective cohort study. Inpatient rehabilitation facilities submitting claims and assessment data to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in 2012-2013. Medicare fee-for-service enrollees discharged from post-acute rehabilitation in 2012-2013. The sample included community-dwelling adults admitted for rehabilitation following an acute care stay who survived for 32 days following discharge (N = 252,406). Not applicable. Thirty-day unplanned rehospitalization following post-acute rehabilitation. The unadjusted 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate was 12.0 % (n = 30,179). Overall, patients dependent at discharge for mobility had a 50 % increased odds of rehospitalization (OR = 1.50, 95 % CI: 1.42-1.59), patients dependent for self-care a 36 % increased odds (OR = 1.36, 95 % CI: 1.27-1.47), and patients dependent for cognition a 19 % increased odds (OR = 1.19, 95 % CI: 1.09-1.29). Patients dependent for both self-care and mobility at discharge (n = 8312, 3.3 %) had a 16.1 % (95 % CI: 15.3-17.0 %) adjusted rehospitalization rate versus 8.5 % (95 % CI: 8.3-8.8 %) for those independent for both (n = 74,641; 29.6 %).","Older patients with comorbid mental illness are shown to receive less appropriate care for their medical conditions. This study analyzed Medicare patients hospitalized for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and determined whether those with comorbid mental illness were more likely to present to hospitals with lower quality of AMI care. Retrospective analyses of Medicare claims in 2008. Hospital quality was measured using the five \"Hospital Compare\" process indicators (aspirin at admission/discharge, beta-blocker at admission/discharge, and angiotension-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotension receptor blocker for left ventricular dysfunction). Multinomial logit model determined the association of mental illness with admission to low-quality hospitals (rank of the composite process score<10(th) percentile) or high-quality hospitals (rank>90(th) percentile), compared to admissions to other hospitals with medium quality. Multivariate analyses further determined the effects of hospital type and mental diagnosis on outcomes. Among all AMI admissions to 2,845 hospitals, 41,044 out of 287,881 patients were diagnosed with mental illness. Mental illness predicted a higher likelihood of admission to low-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 2.9% vs. 2.0%; adjusted odds ratio [OR]1.25, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.17-1.34, p<0.01), and an equal likelihood to high-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 9.8% vs. 10.3%; adjusted OR 0.97, 95% CI 0.93-1.01, p = 0.11). Both lower hospital quality and mental diagnosis predicted higher rates of 30-day readmission, 30-day mortality, and 1-year mortality.","Chronic heart failure (HF) is associated with a poor Health Related Quality of Life (HRQoL). HRQoL has been shown to be a predictor of HF outcomes however, variability in the study designs make it difficult to apply these findings to a clinical setting. The aim of this study was to establish if HRQoL is a predictor of long-term mortality and morbidity in HF patients followed-up in a disease management program (DMP) and if a HRQoL instrument could be applied to aid in identifying high-risk patients within a clinical context. This is a retrospective analysis of HF patients attending a DMP with 18+/-9 months follow-up. Clinical and biochemical parameters were recorded on discharge from index HF admission and HRQoL measures were recorded at 2 weeks post index admission. 225 patients were enrolled into the study (mean age=69+/-12 years, male=61%, and 78%=systolic HF). In multivariable analysis, all dimensions of HRQoL (measured by the Minnesota Living with HF Questionnaire) were independent predictors of both mortality and readmissions particularly in patients <80 years. A significant interaction between HRQoL and age (Total((HRQoL))age: p<0.001) indicated that the association of HRQoL with outcomes diminished as age increased.","A randomized controlled trial was carried out from 2003 to 2005 . The control group (n = 166) received routine care and the study group (n = 166) received home visits from community nurses within 30 days of hospital discharge. Data were collected at baseline before discharge and 30 days after discharge. Patients in the study group were statistically significantly more satisfied with their care. There were no statistically significant differences in other outcomes, including readmission rate, ADL score, self-perceived life satisfaction and self-perceived health. Regression analysis revealed that self-perceived life satisfaction, self-perceived health and disease category other than general symptoms were three statistically significant variables predicting hospital readmissions.","Chronically mentally ill patients in community mental health care report a better quality of life (QOL) than those in long-term hospital care, which suggests that the treatment setting per se influences their QOL. In a region where both treatment settings are of a comparable high standard, we assessed the QOL of 96 schizophrenic patients from these two treatment settings, and the factors which most influenced their QOL. Community-care patients reported a better QOL than long-term hospital-care patients. However, when other factors influencing QOL were included in a regression analysis, the place of treatment was no longer significant, but rather the social support, the severity of the illness, educational level and certain illness concepts.","yes. Among community-dwelling older adults, early hospital readmission is a marker for notably increased risk of one-year mortality. Providers, patients, and families all might respond profitably to an early readmission by reviewing treatment plans and goals of care.","To study whether health-related quality of life (HRQOL), activities of daily living (ADL), and anxiety and depression symptoms affect the risk of hospital admission and potential interactions with having a cancer diagnosis. This study was a prospective observational study with 5-year follow-up and analyzed the follow-up data on hospital admissions until 2010 using baseline data from 227 cognitively intact nursing home (NH) residents (60 of whom had cancer) in 2004-2005. Data on HRQOL were collected by using the Short Form-36 Health Survey, divided into physical component summary (PCS) and mental component summary (MCS), and symptoms of anxiety and depression were collected by using the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS). ADL were obtained from registered observation and sociodemographic variables, diagnoses, and hospital admissions from the NH records. Personal identification numbers were linked to the record systems of the hospitals, thereby registering all hospital admissions. We analyzed the time elapsing between inclusion and the first hospital admission. Residents with higher HRQOL (MCS) had significantly more hospital admissions after adjustment for age, sex, marital status, education, and comorbidity. HRQOL (PCS), ADL, depression, and anxiety symptoms were not associated with hospital admissions. Cancer increased the risk after adjustment for all other risk factors but did not increase the effects of MCS, PCS, ADL, or depression or anxiety symptoms. Having a higher level of education and being less than 75 years of age were associated with hospitalization. The residents diagnosed with cancer had the most days in hospital related to diseases of the respiratory system and cancer, and diseases of the circulatory and respiratory systems were more frequent among the residents without a cancer diagnosis.","Elder self-neglect is associated with increased morbidity and mortality. The objective of this study is to examine the prospective relationship between reported elder self-neglect and the rate of 30-day hospital readmission in a community population. We conducted a prospective population-based study of community-dwelling older adults who participated in the Chicago Health and Aging Project. Of the 7,219 participants in the Chicago Health and Aging Project, a subset of 1,228 participants was reported to the social services agency for suspected elder self-neglect. The primary predictor was elder self-neglect reported to the social services agency. The outcome of interest was the annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission calculated from the Center for Medicare and Medicaid System hospitalization data from 1993 to 2009. Poisson regression models were used to assess these relationships. The average annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission for those without elder self-neglect was 0.2 (SD 0.7) and for those with reported elder self-neglect 0.9 (SD 2.8). After adjusting for sociodemographic and socioeconomic characteristics, medical comorbidities, cognitive function, physical function, and psychosocial well-being, elders who self-neglect had a significantly higher rate of 30-day hospital readmission (rate ratio 2.50, 95% confidence interval 2.02-3.10). Greater self-neglect severity [mild: parameter estimate (PE) 1.09, standard error (SE) 0.19, p < 0.001; moderate: PE 0.84, SE 0.13, p < 0.001; severe: PE 1.24, SE 0.40, p = 0.002] was associated with increased annual rates of 30-day hospital readmission after considering the same confounders. Interaction term analyses suggest that the significant relationship between self-neglect and 30-day hospital readmission was not moderated by medical conditions, cognitive impairment, physical disability, or psychosocial well-being.","To assess whether health-related quality of life is an independent prognostic factor for mortality or nursing home placement in frail elderly patients. A prospective, multicenter study with a 12-month follow-up. Nine French hospitals. A total of 1306 patients aged 75 and older hospitalized through an emergency department. Data obtained from sociodemographic characteristics, Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment and the Duke Health Profile (DHP) were used into a Cox model to identify prognostic variables for 12-month mortality and institutionalization. Crude mortality and nursing home placement rates were 34.1% (n = 445) and 16.1% (n = 210), respectively. Independent prognostic factors identified for mortality were: Comorbidity level (moderate: hazard ratio [HR] [95% confidence interval (CI)]= 1.40 [1.09-1.78]; severe: 2.70 [1.63-4.46]), dependence for activities of daily living (1.68 [1.06-2.67]), pressure sore risk (1.49 [1.16-1.90]), risk of malnutrition (2.09 [1.46-3.00]), delirium (2.25 [1.75-2.90]), and 10-point increase in the DHP perceived health score (0.96 [0.93-0.99]). Independent prognostic factors identified for nursing home placement were the following: living alone at home (1.82 [1.30-2.55]), having 2 children or more (0.71 [0.51-0.99]), dependence for activities of daily living (2.48 [1.39-4.44]), dementia (1.93 [1.39-2.69]), unplanned hospital readmission during follow-up (2.05 [1.45-2.91]), and 10-point increase in the DHP social health score (0.90 [0.83-0.99]). Balance troubles and risk of malnutrition were no more significant when adjusted for the DHP scores and other clinical variables.","Rehospitalization occurs in approximately 20% of medical inpatients within 90 days of discharge. Rehospitalization accounts for considerable morbidity, mortality, and costs. Identification of risk factors could lead to interventions to reduce rehospitalization. The objective of the study was to determine if physical and mental health, substance abuse, and social support are risk factors for rehospitalization. This was a prospective cohort study in an innercity population conducted from September 2002 to September 2004. Participants included 144 adult inpatients with at least 1 hospital admission in the past 6 months. Measurements included age, length of stay, number of admissions in the past year, and medical comorbidity as well as measures of depression, alcohol and drug abuse, social support, and health-related quality of life. The outcome studied was the rehospitalization status of participants within 90 days of the index hospitalization. The mean age of the subjects was 54.8 years; 48% were black and 78% spoke English as a primary language. Subjects were admitted a mean of 2.5 times in the year before the index admission. Sixty-four patients (44%) were subsequently rehospitalized within 90 days after the index admission. In bivariate analysis, rehospitalized patients had more prior admissions (median of 3.0 vs. 2.0 admissions, p = .002), greater medical comorbidity (mean Charlson Comorbidity Index score of 2.6 vs. 2.0, p = .04), and poorer physical functional status (mean SF-12 physical component score of 31.5 vs. 36.2, p = .03). A logistic regression model, including prior admissions in the last year, comorbidity, physical functional status, and depression, showed that depression tripled the odds of rehospitalization (odds ratio = 3.3, 95% CI = 1.2 to 9.3). This model had fair accuracy in identifying patients at greatest risk for rehospitalization (c statistic = 0.72).","Patient health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an important health outcome with lower HRQL associated with adverse events in patients with ischaemic heart disease (IHD). Baseline health-related quality of life was investigated as a predictor of 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmissions in Danish patients with IHD. The international HeartQoL Project survey was designed to develop a core HRQL questionnaire for patients with IHD. Baseline scores on each of the 14 items ultimately included in the HeartQoL questionnaire were linked to Danish national health registries and hazard ratios for mortality and readmissions were estimated using Cox regression models. Among 938 eligible Danish patients with IHD, 662 (70.6%) participated in the international HeartQoL Project. During the 5-year follow-up, 83 patients died and 196 patients were readmitted. Adjusted analyses showed a significant linear association between all-cause mortality and both lower global HRQL (HR = 1.67, 95% CI: 1.26-2.23; p<0.001) and physical scores (HR=1.71, 1.33-2.21; p<0.001) and between readmission and both lower global (HR=1.73, 1.41-2.12; p < 0.001) and physical scores (HR = 1.63, 1.35-1.96; p < 0.001). A significant, but non-linear, effect was found for emotional HRQL score on outcomes.","For chronically ill patients, readmission to the hospital can be frequent and costly. We studied the effect of an intervention designed to increase access to primary care after discharge from the hospital, with the goals of reducing readmissions and emergency department visits and increasing patients' quality of life and satisfaction with care. In a multicenter randomized, controlled trial at nine Veterans Affairs Medical Centers, we randomly assigned 1396 veterans hospitalized with diabetes, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or congestive heart failure to receive either usual care or an intensive primary care intervention. The intervention involved close follow-up by a nurse and a primary care physician, beginning before discharge and continuing for the next six months. The patients were severely ill. Half of those with congestive heart failure (504 patients) had disease in New York Heart Association class III or IV; 30 percent of those with diabetes (751 patients) had end-organ damage; and a quarter of those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (583 patients) required home oxygen treatment or oral corticosteroids. The patients had extremely poor quality-of-life scores. Although they received more intensive primary care than the controls, the patients in the intervention group had significantly higher rates of readmission (0.19 vs 0.14 per month, P = 0.005) and more days of rehospitalization (10.2 vs 8.8, P = 0.041). The patients in the intervention group were more satisfied with their care (P<0.001), but there was no difference between the study groups in quality-of-life scores, which remained very low (P = 0.53).","Health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an increasingly well-recognized measure of health outcome in cardiology. We examined HRQL as a predictor of unplanned rehospitalization for cardiac reasons in patients after coronary revascularization over a period of 3 years. Out of 791 patients enrolled in the study, 743 completed the MacNew HRQL questionnaire after coronary revascularization. MacNew HRQL scores were used as predictors of unplanned rehospitalization. Within the 3-year follow-up period, 125 patients (16.8 %) were rehospitalized. After adjustment for age, gender, and myocardial infarction as the initiating event, there were significant differences in unplanned rehospitalization rates between patients with low or moderate vs. high MacNew HRQL global scores (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) and both physical (HR: 2.2, 95 % CI: 1.4-3.5) and social (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) subscale scores.","Among patients with heart failure, early unplanned readmissions were not associated with suboptimal admission work-up or evaluation and treatment but were weakly associated with readiness for discharge. However, they were strongly associated with the patients' clinical and demographic characteristics.","Hospital readmission within thirty days is common among Medicare beneficiaries, but the relationship between rehospitalization and subsequent mortality in older adults is not known. To compare one-year mortality rates among community-dwelling elderly hospitalized Medicare beneficiaries who did and did not experience early hospital readmission (within 30 days), and to estimate the odds of one-year mortality associated with early hospital readmission and with other patient characteristics. A cohort study of 2133 hospitalized community-dwelling Medicare beneficiaries older than 64 years, who participated in the nationally representative Cost and Use Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey between 2001 and 2004, with follow-up through 2006. One-year mortality after index hospitalization discharge. Three hundred and four (13.7 %) hospitalized beneficiaries had an early hospital readmission. Those with early readmission had higher one-year mortality (38.7 %) than patients who were not readmitted (12.1 %; p<0.001). Early readmission remained independently associated with mortality after adjustment for sociodemographic factors, health and functional status, medical comorbidity, and index hospitalization-related characteristics [HR (95 % CI) 2.97 (2.24-3.92)]. Other patient characteristics independently associated with mortality included age [1.03 (1.02-1.05) per year], low income [1.39 (1.04-1.86)], limited self-rated health [1.60 (1.20-2.14)], two or more recent hospitalizations [1.47 (1.01-2.15)], mobility difficulty [1.51 (1.03-2.20)], being underweight [1.62 (1.14-2.31)], and several comorbid conditions, including chronic lung disease, cancer, renal failure, and weight loss. Hospitalization-related factors independently associated with mortality included longer length of stay, discharge to a skilled nursing facility for post-acute care, and primary diagnoses of infections, cancer, acute myocardial infarction, and heart failure.","To determine if early unplanned readmissions of patients hospitalized for heart failure are associated with suboptimal in-hospital care or with the clinical and demographic characteristics of the patient. We performed a case-control study among patients discharged with a principal diagnosis of heart failure. Cases included all patients unexpectedly readmitted within 31 days of discharge; controls were randomly selected from among those not readmitted. Quality of care was measured using explicit criteria reflecting the admission work-up, evaluation and treatment, and readiness for discharge. Ninety-one cases and 351 controls were included. There was no significant association between early unplanned readmissions and the scores for quality of the admission work-up or evaluation and treatment during the stay. There was a significant association between readiness for discharge and subsequent early readmission: for each 10% decrease in the proportion of fulfilled criteria, the odds of readmission increased by 14% (95% confidence interval [CI] 1. 01 to 1.28, P = 0.04) for all-cause readmissions and by 19% (95% CI: 1.04 to 1.36, P = 0.01) for heart-failure-related readmissions. In a multiple logistic regression model, previous diagnosis of heart failure (odds ratio [OR]= 2.9, 95% CI: 1.7 to 4.8, P<0.001), age (OR = 3.3, 95% CI: 1.3 to 8.5, P = 0.01 for patients aged 65 to 79 years and OR = 4.1, 95% CI: 1.6 to 11, P = 0.004 for patients aged 80 years and older), and history of cardiac revascularization (OR = 2.1, 95% CI: 1.2 to 3.9, P = 0.01) showed a stronger association with early unplanned all-cause readmissions than the readiness-for-discharge score (OR = 1.16, 95% CI: 1.02 to 1.31, P = 0.02). Similar findings were seen for heart failure-related readmissions.","In this cohort of predominantly older and chronically ill patients recently discharged from acute hospital care, relatively lower SF-36 physical health component scores were independently associated with an increased risk of subsequent unplanned readmission.","Assessment of health-related quality of life (HRQL) is being used increasingly to assess the impact of treatment. To determine if HRQL, assessed shortly after acute hospitalisation, is associated with readmission to hospital. In a prospective, longitudinal study, 163 chronically ill, medical and surgical patients (mean age 67.0+/-16.3 years) discharged to home following acute hospitalisation were studied. HRQL was assessed at one month post-hospital discharge using the MOS 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36). Patients were followed-up for six months thereafter to determine subsequent incidence of unplanned readmission. HRQL as measured by the eight health dimensions of the SF-36, for the entire cohort, was lower relative to age and gender matched norms for the local population (p<0.01). During study follow-up, 47 (35%) patients had an unplanned readmission and one patient died. Patients who had an unplanned readmission demonstrated both significantly lower physical (32.2+/-9.8 vs 38.6+/-10.1: p<0.001) and mental (45.1+/-12.7 vs 49.9+/-12.3: p=0.03) health component scores in comparison to the remainder of the cohort. On multivariate analysis, independent correlates of unplanned readmission were: 1) presence of formal home assistance (OR 6.4: p<0.01), 2)>or =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score of or =60 with no known psychological diseases were screened by the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) when they consulted at two primary care clinics in Hong Kong. Data on socio-demographic characteristics, chronic morbidity, consultation rates, and health-related quality of life (HROQL) were collected. Multivariable regressions were used to determine the effect of a positive HADS score on HRQOL scores and consultation rates, and the risk factors of unrecognised psychological problems. One thousand eight hundred and fifty-four subjects (mean age 72.6 years and 52% male) were screened and the estimated prevalence of unrecognised psychological diseases was 23% (95% CI = 13.1-33.8%). A positive screening result was associated with poorer SF-36 HROQL scores and higher episodic consultation rates. An increased risk of unrecognised psychological problems was associated with the presence of more than two chronic diseases. Other risk factors included female gender, no formal education and having chronic pulmonary disease or heart disease. Living with a spouse increased the risk in elderly women.\",\n \"Patients presented better score of the BI at discharge and this figure was associated to the implementation of a rehabilitation treatment. Hospitalization of the elderly patient in a suitable environment, such as a geriatric hospital, contrary to some theories highlighting only the negative aspects of removal from the living environment, can be a measure of benefit for the reduction of disability and the recovery of compromised activities along and after the acute event. The collection of data on the level of autonomy of the subjects before and after hospitalization can be a useful element for clinical evaluation in a geriatric hospital.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between functional disability and improvement in late life depression after acute inpatient treatment. The study was a longitudinal assessment of depression and disability. Patients were assessed during an initial inpatient hospitalization and then 3 months postdischarge. All patients were evaluated initially after admission to one of 71 inpatient psychiatric treatment facilities. The study comprised of 2572 patients older than age 60 who were relatively cognitively intact and experiencing significant depressive symptoms. Depressive symptoms were measured using the Geriatric Depression Scale. Disability was measured using the Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale and the Medical Outcomes SF-36. Depressive symptoms improved in the majority of patients. Moreover, improvement in depressive symptomatology was significantly related to improvement in instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and to health-related quality of life as measured by the SF-36. This relationship was strongest among those who initially presented with some disability in IADLs.\",\n \"yes. Overall physical health status and asthma-specific quality of life predict subsequent ED utilization. Health-related quality of life may be useful in identifying patients at increased risk for asthma exacerbation requiring emergency care.\",\n \"The purpose of this study is to describe predictors for discharge and one-year outcomes of acute-care hospital patients, 75 years of age or over, based on admission status information. We carried out a prospective study of a randomly selected patient population, from one urban acute-care hospital in each of the Nordic countries. 763 persons aged 75+ were randomly selected from acute admissions to the participating hospitals. 749 observations at discharge and 655 observations at one year were used in analyses. Data were collected with the MDS-AC 1.1 instrument within 24 hours of admission, and at day 7 or discharge, whichever came first. Outcome information was collected either by interviewing the patient or from patient records or registers. Discharge and one-year outcome (home, institution, death) were modeled by multinomial logistic regression, with admission status variables as predictors. At discharge, 84% of subjects returned home, 11% went to an institution and 5.6% had died. At one year, 64% were still living at home, 24% had died, and 12% had moved to an institution. For discharge outcome, those having hospital admission due to a new problem or exacerbation of an old one had a higher risk of dying (OR 3.3) than returning home. Moderate to severe cognitive problems predicted death (OR 2.2) and institutionalization (OR 8.6) compared with discharge home. Problems in instrumental activities of daily living predicted death (OR 3.1) and institutionalization (OR 6.0). At one year, those with exacerbation of an old problem (OR 2.1) or with a new or exacerbated existing problem (OR 2.3) had a higher risk of dying than of institutionalization or discharge home. Having some cognitive problems (OR 2.8) or moderate to severe cognitive problems (OR 6.6) predicted institutionalization, but not dying or discharge home. Those with some problems in activities of daily living had a higher risk of both dying (OR 1.7) and of institutional care (OR 2.7). Those with moderate to severe problems in activities of daily living had also a higher risk of institutional care (OR 4.7) compared with those living at home.\",\n \"yes. Readmissions increase as a function of time; illness severity, chronic disabling disease score and a recent admission are the strongest predictors of readmission.\",\n \"yes. In an elderly population with multiple comorbidities undergoing elective common major orthopedic procedures, approximately 2% of patients required readmission to the PACU. The most common problems requiring this step-up in care were cardiac and pulmonary, which resulted in an increased length of hospital stay. Patients with OSA and multiple comorbidities undergoing total knee arthroplasty carry an increased risk for postoperative complications.\",\n \"The study investigated whether long-stay patients would benefit from discharge into the community in Berlin, Germany. In a prospective controlled study, all long-term hospitalised psychiatric patients from a defined catchment area were assessed using established standardised instruments. Quality of life, treatment satisfaction, needs and psychopathology were re-assessed in 63 non-discharged patients 1.5 years later, and in 65 resettled patients 1 year after discharge. Discharged patients were younger and had spent less time in psychiatric hospitalisation. Whilst patients who remained in hospital care did not show significant changes over time, discharged patients did. Changes in subjective quality of life and total number of needs - but not in psychopathology, unmet needs, and treatment satisfaction - were significantly more favourable in resettled patients as compared to the control group.\",\n \"yes. Functional status most strongly predicted ER use, highlighting the promise of home-based interventions to improve activities of daily living. Number of chronic conditions and caregiver-reported relationship strain are potential targets of intervention during discharge process.\",\n \"Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).\",\n \"Previous research suggests an ostomy worsens health-related quality of life (HR-QOL), but comorbidities also can affect HR-QOL. Eligible patients had abdominal operation with ostomy (cases) or similar procedure without ostomy (controls). Patients were recruited for this case-control study from 3 Veterans Affairs hospital medical and pharmacy records. Comorbidities were assessed with Charlson-Deyo Comorbidity Index. Multinomial logistic regression evaluated the impact of comorbidities and having an ostomy on HR-QOL, measured using the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form 36 for Veterans. A total of 237 ostomates (cases) and 268 controls were studied. Average age was 69 years; 64% of cases had colostomy, 36% ileostomy. Twenty-nine percent of patients had a high level of comorbidities. Cases and controls were similar except for reasons for undergoing surgery. High comorbidity was a significant predictor of low HR-QOL in 6 domains of the Short Form 36 for Veterans; having an ostomy was a significant predictor in 4.\",\n \"The identification of patients' health needs is pivotal in optimising the quality of health care, increasing patient satisfaction and directing resource allocation. Health needs are complex and not so easily evaluated as health-related quality of life (HRQL), which is becoming increasingly accepted as a means of providing a more global, patient-orientated assessment of the outcome of health care interventions than the simple medical model. The potential of HRQL as a surrogate measure of healthcare needs has not been evaluated. A generic (Short Form-12; SF-12) and a disease-specific questionnaire (Seattle Angina Questionnaire; SAQ) were tested for their potential to predict health needs in patients with acute coronary disease. A wide range of healthcare needs were determined using a questionnaire specifically developed for this purpose. With the exception of information needs, healthcare needs were highly correlated with health-related quality of life. Patients with limited enjoyment of personal interests, weak financial situation, greater dependency on others to access health services, and dissatisfaction with accommodation reported poorer HRQL (SF-12: p<0.001; SAQ: p<0.01). Difficulties with mobility, aids to daily living and activities requiring assistance from someone else were strongly associated with both generic and disease-specific questionnaires (SF-12: r = 0.46-0.55, p<0.01; SAQ: r = 0.53-0.65, p<0.001). Variables relating to quality of care and health services were more highly correlated with SAQ components (r = 0.33-0.59) than with SF-12 (r = 0.07-0.33). Overall, the disease-specific Seattle Angina Questionnaire was superior to the generic Short Form-12 in detecting healthcare needs in patients with coronary disease. Receiver-operator curves supported the sensitivity of HRQL tools in detecting health needs.\",\n \"The association between high numbers of unmet needs and low subjective quality of life appears increasingly robust across several studies. Future research will need to investigate whether changes in needs precede changes in quality of life. This study provides further evidence that a policy of actively assessing and addressing patient-rated unmet needs may lead to improved quality of life.\",\n \"The causes of unscheduled returns to the emergency department (ED) within 72 hours of discharge are unclear. A study was undertaken to identify factors associated with this quality care indicator. 250 cases and 250 controls from the ED were prospectively studied. Outcomes measured were unscheduled returns, post-ED destination, and patient dissatisfaction. Possible medical errors (in diagnosis, treatment, prognosis or patient information) and errors in follow up care were identified. Other factors examined included chief complaint at presentation, discharge diagnosis, level of triage, category of treating physician, observation or not, application of emergency treatment, ancillary studies, accessibility to ED, ED time band or work shift, day of the week, past medical history, and demographic data (age, sex, educational level and economic status). The main factor associated with unscheduled returns was error in prognosis (odds ratio 18.62, 95% CI 9.60 to 36.09). Advanced age and a chief complaint of dyspnoea were also associated with unscheduled returns and with admission to hospital. Post-ED destination worsened by 0.61 (95% CI 0.33 to 0.90) with diagnostic errors and by 0.60 (95% CI 0.30 to 0.90) with errors in follow up care. Patient dissatisfaction increased by 0.68 (95% CI 0.55 to 0.80) with information errors, by 0.63 (95% CI 0.17 to 1.09) with errors in follow up care, and by 0.52 (95% CI 0.09 to 0.94) with diagnostic errors.\",\n \"yes. After adjusting for age, sex, and coexisting conditions, mean HRQoL scores were almost equal in patients and controls. Up to 22% (n = 51) of the patients had, however, a poor quality of life as compared with the controls (-2 SD). This group, which more often consisted of single men, individuals who were on sick leave before admission to the ICU, had an increased mortality after ICU. This group should be a target for future support.\",\n \"To establish associations with quality of life (QOL) of older people in long-term residential care facilities in two New Zealand cities. The outcome measure of QOL was the Life Satisfaction Index. We used multiple linear regression to explore how broad categories of factors might contribute to QOL. A total of 599 people (median age of 85 years; 74% women) participated. Response rates were 85% for facilities and 83% for residents. A resident's QOL was significantly related to the QOL of co-residents. QOL was higher for people who were more positive about entry to residential care, more physically able, and not depressed, and for those with more family and emotional support.\",\n \"yes. There are substantial differences between the DHS and KP in the rates of preventable hospitalisations and subsequent readmissions associated with chronic conditions, which suggest much opportunity for improvement within the Danish healthcare system. Reductions in hospitalisations also could improve patient welfare and free considerable resources for use towards preventing disease exacerbations. These conclusions may also apply for similar public systems such as the US Medicare system, the NHS and other systems striving to improve the integration of care for persons with chronic conditions.\",\n \"The objective of this study is to evaluate health-related quality of life as a risk factor for subsequent emergency department (ED) utilization in a cohort of patients with asthma. We conducted a 1-year prospective cohort study of 1,406 adult asthma patients. Baseline physical and mental health status were measured using the Physical Component Summary and Mental Component Summary scores from the Short Form-12 health status survey. Asthma-specific health-related quality of life was measured with the mini-Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire. Multivariable regression was used to assess the independent association between baseline Physical Component Summary, Mental Component Summary, and Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire scores and asthma-related ED visits during the subsequent year. During the 1-year follow-up period, 116 patients made at least 1 asthma-related ED visit. After adjustment for multiple sociodemographic and clinical factors, both the Physical Component Summary score (odds ratio [OR] 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.46 to 2.02) and the Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire score (OR 1.34; 95% CI 1.18 to 1.52) were associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization. In contrast, overall mental health status was not associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization (OR 1.17; 95% CI 0.96 to 1.44).\",\n \"Older patients may visit the emergency department (ED) when their illness affects their function. To quantify the function of older ED patients, to assess whether functional decline (FD) had occurred, and to determine whether function contributes to the ED visit and hospital admission. The authors performed an institutional review board-approved, prospective, cross-sectional study in a community teaching hospital ED. Eligible patients were older than 74 years of age, with an illness at least 48 hours old. Patients from a nursing facility and those without a proxy who were unable or unwilling to complete the questions were excluded. The Older Americans Resources and Services Questionnaire, which tests seven instrumental activities of daily living (IADL) and seven physical ADLs (PADL), was used. Data are presented as means or proportions with 95% confidence intervals (95% CI), and comparisons as 95% CI for the difference between proportions. The authors enrolled 90 patients (mean age, 81.6 yr [SD +/- 4.9], 40% male). Dependence in at least one IADL was reported by 68% (95% CI = 57% to 77%), and in at least one PADL by 61% (95% CI = 50% to 71%). Functional decline was reported by 74% (95% CI = 64% to 83%). Two thirds of those with IADL decline and three quarters of those with PADL decline said that this contributed to their ED visit. Seventy-seven percent with, and 63% without, IADL decline were admitted (14% difference, 95% CI = -6.1% to 33%). Seventy-nine percent with and 61% without PADL decline were admitted (18% difference, 95% CI = -1.4% to 38%).\",\n \"no. Patients experiencing poor outcomes such as long hospital stay or complications have similar perception of quality of care compared with those with regular outcomes. Patient-reported outcome measures are becoming increasingly important in the evaluation of the quality of care and may complement more traditional objective indicators such as morbidity or length of stay.\",\n \"Activity limitation stages based on activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) are associated with 3-year mortality in elderly Medicare beneficiaries, yet their associations with hospitalization risk in this population have not been studied. To examine the independent association of activity limitation stages with risk of hospitalization within a year among Medicare beneficiaries aged 65 years and older. Cohort study. Community. A total of 9447 community-dwelling elderly Medicare beneficiaries from the Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey for years 2005-2009. Stages were derived for ADLs and IADLs separately. Associations of stages with time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within a year were assessed with Cox proportional hazards models, with which we accounted for baseline sociodemographics, smoking status, comorbidities, and the year of survey entry. Time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within 1 year. The adjusted risk of first hospitalization increased with greater activity limitation stages (except stage III). The hazard ratios (95% confidence intervals) for ADL stages I-IV compared with stage 0 (no limitations) were 1.49 (1.36-1.63), 1.61 (1.44-1.80), 1.54 (1.35-1.76), and 2.06 (1.61-2.63), respectively. The pattern for IADL stages was similar. For recurrent hospitalizations, activity limitation stages were associated with the risk of the first hospitalization but not with subsequent hospitalizations.\",\n \"Treatment outcomes are an important determinant of patients' treatment preferences. Although studies have examined how well surrogates agree with patients' preferences for specific treatment interventions, agreement regarding the valuation of health states as treatment outcomes is unknown. Cross-sectional cohort study consisting of in-home interviews with 193 persons 60 years or older and seriously ill with cancer, congestive heart failure, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and their caregivers. Patients were asked whether, facing an exacerbation of illness, they would find a series of health states acceptable as a result of treatment (a rating of \\\"unacceptable\\\" meant they would prefer to die than to receive treatment). Caregivers were asked whether they would find these states acceptable for the patient. There was 80% or greater agreement for health states that were overall rated either acceptable (current health, mild memory impairment, mild pain, or other symptoms) or unacceptable (coma). There was 58% to 62% agreement (kappa = 0.10-0.25) about states with more severe physical or cognitive impairment. When disagreement occurred, caregivers were more likely to rate the state as acceptable. There was 61% to 65% agreement (kappa = 0.20-0.28) about states with severe pain or other symptoms. When disagreement occurred, caregivers and patients were equally likely to rate the state as acceptable.\",\n \"To evaluate a Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) designed to utilize alternatives to emergency hospitalization. CDUs are one model of care designed to strengthen the gatekeeper role of Emergency Departments (EDs). This retrospective cohort study was carried out in a UK NHS acute hospital. All 854 patients in the CDU cohort were compared with three age-stratified, historical cohorts from the same clinical centre. The median age was 62 years (range 16-94).The main outcome measures were discharge to general practitioner, outpatient services or hospitalization, the 30-day unplanned reattendance rate for those not hospitalized, and monthly medical admission figures. Approximately 511 [59.8%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 56.5-63.1%] to 560 (65.6%, 95% CI: 62.3-68.7%) patients were admitted in the comparison cohorts, compared with only 186 (21.8%, 95% CI: 19.1-24.7%) in the CDU cohort (P≤0.05). Approximately 243 (28.5%, 95% CI: 25.5-31.6%) to 289 (33.8%, 95% CI: 30.7-37.1%) patients were discharged to general practitioner services in the comparison groups, compared with 562 (65.8%, 95% CI: 62.6-68.9%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). Approximately eight (0.9, 95% CI: 0.5-1.8%) to 17 (2%, 95% CI: 1.2-3.2%) patients in the comparison groups were discharged to outpatient clinics, compared with 82 (9.6%, 95% CI: 7.8-11.8%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). There was no consistent trend towards statistically significant rises in unplanned reattendance (P>0.05). Monthly medical admissions fell substantially during CDU operation.\",\n \"To test whether there is an association between hospital operating conditions such as average length of stays (LOS) and staffing ratio, and elderly patients' risk of readmission. The main data source was a national patient database of admissions to all acute-care Norwegian hospitals during the year of 1996. It is a cross-sectional study, where Cox' regression analysis was used to test the factors acting on the probability of early unplanned readmission (within 30 days), and later occuring ones. The principal hospital variables included average hospital LOS and staffing ratio (discharges per man-years of personnel). Adjusting patient variables in the model included age, gender, and cost-weights of the Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs). The selected material included discharges from 59 hospitals, and 113,055 elderly patients (>or = 67 years). Multiple admissions to the same hospital were linked together chronologically, and additional hospital data were matched on. To maximize the association between the index stay and the defined outcome (unplanned readmission), no intervening planned admission was accepted. Being admitted to a hospital with relatively short average LOS increased the patient's risk of early readmission significantly. In addition it was found that more intensive care (more staff) could have a compensatory effect. Furthermore, the predictive factors were shown to be time dependent, as hospital variables had much less impact on readmissions occurring late (within 90-180 days).\",\n \"yes. Both the amount and pattern of chronic diseases have been associated with QOL in elderly populations. Elderly women have low levels of QOL due to multimorbidity and a higher prevalence of chronic disease, which is related to impaired QOL.\",\n \"yes. Results indicate that patients discharged from inpatient wards at times of high inpatient bed occupancy experience an increased risk of unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge.\",\n \"Hospitalization for acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with significant morbidity and health care costs, and hospitals in the United States are now penalized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for excessive readmissions. Identifying patients at risk of readmission is important, but modifiable risk factors have not been clearly established, and the potential contributing role of psychological disease has not been examined adequately. We hypothesized that depression and anxiety would increase the risk of both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD. To characterize the associations between depression and anxiety and COPD readmission risk. We examined the medical records for all patients with a primary diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD by International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision codes admitted to the University of Alabama at Birmingham Hospital between November 2010 and October 2012. Those who did not meet the standardized study criteria for acute exacerbation of COPD and those with other respiratory illnesses as the primary diagnosis were excluded. Comorbidities were recorded on the basis of physician documentation of the diagnosis and/or the use of medications in the electronic medical record. Multivariable regression analyses identified factors associated with readmission for acute exacerbation of COPD at 1 year and within 30 and 90 days. Four hundred twenty-two patients were included, with 132 readmitted in 1 year. Mean age was 64.8 ± 11.7 years, and mean percent predicted FEV1 was 48.1 ± 18.7%. On univariate analysis, readmitted patients had lower percent predicted FEV1 (44.9 ± 17.3% vs. 50.2 ± 19.4%; P = 0.05) and a higher frequency of depression (47.7% vs. 23.4%; P < 0.001). On multivariable analysis, 1-year readmission was independently associated with depression (adjusted odds ratio [OR], 2.67; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.59-4.47) and in-hospital tobacco cessation counseling (adjusted OR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.18-0.66). Depression also predicted readmission at 30 days (adjusted OR, 3.83; 95% CI, 1.84-7.96) and 90 days (adjusted OR, 2.47; 95% CI, 1.34-4.55).\",\n \"To determine whether a simple question about steadiness at admission predicts in-hospital functional decline and whether unsteadiness at admission predicts failure of in-hospital functional recovery of patients who have declined immediately before hospitalization. Prospective cohort study. One university hospital and one community teaching hospital. One thousand five hundred fifty-seven hospitalized medical patients aged 70 and older. On admission, patients reported their steadiness with walking and whether they could perform independently each of five basic activities of daily living (ADLs) at admission and 2 weeks before admission (baseline). For the primary analysis, the outcome was decline in ADL function between admission and discharge. For the secondary analysis, the outcome was in-hospital recovery to baseline ADL function in patients who experienced ADL decline in the 2 weeks before admission. In the primary cohort (n = 1,557), 25% of patients were very unsteady at admission; 22% of very unsteady patients declined during hospitalization, compared with 17%, 18%, and 10% for slightly unsteady, slightly steady, and very steady patients, respectively (P for trend =.001). After adjusting for age; medical comorbidities; Acute Physiology, Age, and Chronic Health Evaluation II score; and admission ADL, unsteadiness remained significantly associated with ADL decline (odds for decline for very unsteady compared with very steady = 2.6, 95% confidence interval = 1.5-4.5). In the secondary analysis, predicting ADL recovery in patients who declined before hospitalization (n = 563), 46% of patients were very unsteady at admission. In this cohort, 44% of very unsteady patients failed to recover, compared with 35%, 36%, and 33% for each successively higher level of steadiness, respectively (P for trend = 0.06). After multivariate adjustment, greater unsteadiness independently predicted failure of recovery (P for trend = 0.02).\",\n \"yes. Medicaid and uninsured payer status confers increased risk adjusted in-hospital mortality for patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting operations. Medicaid was further associated with the greatest adjusted length of stay and total costs despite risk factors. Possible explanations include delays in access to care or disparate differences in health maintenance.\",\n \"Modifiable system, as well as patient, characteristics are associated with follow-up appointment-keeping. The practice of not giving patients written appointments at the time of discharge may constitute an implicit form of \\\"rationing by inconvenience.\\\" Further studies should also evaluate potential associations between appointment-keeping and re-hospitalization.\",\n \"Self-reported health perceptions such as physical distress and quality of life are suggested independent predictors of mortality and morbidity in patients with established cardiovascular disease. This study examined the associations between these factors and three years incidence of cardiovascular events in a population of elderly men with long term hyperlipidemia. We studied observational data in a cohort of 433 men aged 64-76 years from a prospective, 2 x 2 factorial designed, three-year interventional trial. Information of classical risk factors was obtained and the following questionnaires were administered at baseline: Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale, Physical Symptom Distress Index and Life Satisfaction Index. The occurrence of cardiovascular death, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular incidences and peripheral arterial disease were registered throughout the study period. Continuous data with skewed distribution was split into tertiles. Hazard ratios (HR) were calculated from Cox regression analyses to assess the associations between physical distress, quality of life and cardiovascular events. After three years, 49 cardiovascular events were registered, with similar incidence among subjects with and without established cardiovascular disease. In multivariate analyses adjusted for age, smoking, systolic blood pressure, serum glucose, HADS-anxiety and treatment-intervention, physical distress was positively associated (HR 3.1, 95% CI 1.2 - 7.9 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) and quality of life negatively associated (HR 2.6, 95% CI 1.1-5.8 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) with cardiovascular events. The association remained statistically significant only for physical distress (hazard ratio 2.8 95% CI 1.2 - 6.8, p < 0.05) when both variables were evaluated in the same model.\",\n \"Cognitive impairment is common among chronic heart failure (CHF) patients. To determine the prognostic significance of cognitive impairment in patients participating in a randomized study of a CHF management program (CHF-MP). CHF patients were randomized to a CHF-MP (n=100) or usual care (n=100). Baseline cognition was assessed using the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE). Five-year all-cause mortality, and combined death-or-readmission, were compared on the basis of the presence (MMSE 19-26) or absence (MMSE>26) of cognitive impairment. 27 patients (13.5%) had cognitive impairment and, on an adjusted basis, were more likely to die (96.3% versus 68.2%. RR 2.19, 95% CI 1.41 to 3.39: P<0.001) and/or experience an unplanned hospitalization (100% versus 94%. RR 1.44, 95% CI 1.06 to 1.95: P=0.019). Cognitively impaired patients had a similar (non-significant) adjusted risk of death-or-readmission in both the CHF-MP (RR 1.40, 95% CI 0.63 to 3.11: P=0.403) and in usual care (RR 1.38, 95% CI 0.75 to 2.53: P=0.305). In the usual care cohort, cognitive impairment was associated with a greater (non-significant), adjusted risk of death (RR 1.61, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.122). In the CHF-MP, adjusted risk of death was significantly higher for cognitively impaired patients (RR 2.33, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.027).\",\n \"Thyroid cancer increases in incidence and aggressiveness with age. The elderly are the fastest growing segment of the U.S. population. Reducing rates of rehospitalization would lower cost and improve quality of care. This is the first study to report population-level information characterizing rehospitalization after thyroidectomy among the elderly. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER)-Medicare-linked database was used to identify patients older than aged 65 years with thyroid cancer who underwent thyroidectomy from 1997-2002. Patient and hospital characteristics were studied to predict the risk of rehospitalization. Outcomes were 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate, cost, and length of stay (LOS) of readmission. Of 2,127 patients identified, 69% were women, 84% had differentiated thyroid cancer, and 52% underwent total thyroidectomy. Mean age was 74 years. A total of 171 patients (8%) underwent 30-day unplanned rehospitalization. Rehospitalization was associated with increased comorbidity, advanced stage, number of lymph nodes examined, increased LOS of index admission, and small hospital size (all P < 0.05). Patients with a complication during index hospital stay were more likely to be readmitted (P < 0.001), whereas patients who saw an outpatient medical provider after index discharge returned less frequently (P < 0.001). Forty-seven percent of readmissions were for endocrine-related causes. Mean LOS and cost of rehospitalization were 3.5 days and $5,921, respectively. Unplanned rehospitalization was associated with death at 1 year compared with nonrehospitalized patients (18% vs. 6%; P < 0.001).\",\n \"Most nationally standardised quality measures use widely accepted evidence-based processes as their foundation, but the discharge instruction component of the United States standards of Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations heart failure core measure appears to be based on expert opinion alone. To determine whether documentation of compliance with any or all of the six required discharge instructions is correlated with readmissions to hospital or mortality. A retrospective study at a single tertiary care hospital was conducted on randomly sampled patients hospitalised for heart failure from July 2002 to September 2003. Applying the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations criteria, 782 of 1121 patients were found eligible to receive discharge instructions. Eligibility was determined by age, principal diagnosis codes and discharge status codes. The primary outcome measures are time to death and time to readmission for heart failure or readmission for any cause and time to death. In all, 68% of patients received all instructions, whereas 6% received no instructions. Patients who received all instructions were significantly less likely to be readmitted for any cause (p = 0.003) and for heart failure (p = 0.035) than those who missed at least one type of instruction. Documentation of discharge instructions is correlated with reduced readmission rates. However, there was no association between documentation of discharge instructions and mortality (p = 0.521).\",\n \"Hospital discharge planning is aimed to decrease length of stay in hospitals as well as to ensure continuity of health care after being discharged. Hospitalized patients in Turin, Italy, who are in need of medical, social and rehabilitative care are proposed as candidates to either discharge planning relying on a care-home model (DPCH) for a period of about 30 days, or routine discharge care. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether a hospital DPCH that was compared with routine care, improved patients' outcomes in terms of reduced hospital readmission and mortality rates in patients aged 64 years and older. In a retrospective observational cohort study a sample of 380 subjects aged 64 years and over was examined. Participants were discharged from the hospital S. Giovanni Bosco in Turin, Italy from March 1st, 2005 to February 28th, 2006. Of these subjects, 107 received routine discharge care while 273 patients were referred to care-home (among them, 99 received a long-term care intervention (LTCI) afterwards while 174 did not). Data was gathered from various administrative and electronic databases. Cox regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with mortality and hospital readmission. When socio-demographic factors, underlying disease and disability were taken into account, DPCH decreased mortality rates only if it was followed by a LTCI: compared to routine care, the Hazard Ratio (HR) of death was 0.36 (95% Confidence Interval (CI): 0.20 - 0.66) and 1.15 (95%CI: 0.77 - 1.74) for DPCH followed by LTCI and DPCH not followed by LTCI, respectively. On the other hand, readmission rates did not significantly differ among DPCH and routine care, irrespective of the implementation of a LTCI: HRs of hospital readmission were 1.01 (95%CI: 0.48 - 2.24) and 1.18 (95%CI: 0.71 - 1.96), respectively.\",\n \"yes. The results quantify the strong relationship between NP levels taken following an unplanned admission to a cardiology department and the duration of hospitalization. This information permits improved identification of a patient population likely to require a prolonged hospital stay and consume more healthcare resources. Such patients may require a more aggressive diagnostic, treatment, and management strategy.\",\n \"This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \\\"not at risk\\\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.\",\n \"The performance of comorbidity measures derived from the hospital discharge abstract, the outpatient pharmacy record, and from both sources combined, were compared in predicting all-cause and unplanned hospital readmission and length of stay. Automated hospital and pharmacy data came from Kaiser-Permanente and included 6721 acute hospitalizations in Southern California from April 1993 to February 1995. The Deyo adaptation of Charlson's 17 comorbidities was derived from hospital discharge data and the 29 Chronic Disease Score (CDS) comorbidity markers were derived from outpatient pharmacy claims data. Logistic and OLS regression models were used to compare the performance of each measure in baseline models and to evaluate whether the CDS contributed additional explanatory power in a combined model. The CDS was a significant predictor of unplanned readmission (C = 0.68) and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26) in multivariable models adjusted for baseline patient demographic and hospitalization characteristics. The Deyo measure was a significant predictor of all-cause readmission (C = 0.63), unplanned readmission (C = 0.68), and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26). When pharmacy-based disease markers were added to the Deyo baseline model, modest, statistically significant improvements in predictive power were noted in the unplanned readmission and LOS models.\",\n \"yes. Depression is an independent risk factor for both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD and may represent a modifiable risk factor. In-hospital tobacco cessation counseling was also associated with reduced 1-year readmission.\",\n \"This study fails to demonstrate that outpatient visits after hospital discharge are associated with fewer readmissions for nonelderly Medicaid patients. This suggests that it may not be appropriate to use hospital readmission rates as an indicator of the quality of outpatient care.\",\n \"Scrutiny of hospital readmissions has led to the development and implementation of policies targeted at reducing readmission rates. To assess whether historic hospital readmission rates predict risk-adjusted patient readmission and to measure the costs of readmission, thus informing reimbursement policies under consideration by non-Veterans Health Administration payers. Multivariable hospital-fixed effects regression analyses of patients admitted to 129 Veterans Health Administration hospitals between 2005 and 2009 for 3 common conditions, acute myocardial infarction (AMI), community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), and congestive heart failure (CHF). We examined whether previous hospital readmission rates predicted risk-adjusted readmission or 30-day episode cost of care for subsequent patients. We then examined the 30-day inpatient hospitalization episode cost differences between those who had a readmission in the episode and those who did not. Hospital readmission rates in the previous quarter are not predictive of individual patient risk-adjusted readmission or of patients' inpatient hospitalization episode cost in the subsequent quarter. Relative to those who were not readmitted within 30 days of index visit discharge, readmitted patients had 30-day episode costs that were 53.3% (P<0.001), 82.8% (P<0.001), and 79.8% (P<0.001) higher for AMI, CAP, and CHF hospitalization episodes, respectively.\",\n \"yes. Living alone was identified as the single most important risk factor for early readmission after CABGS. Patients who live alone may benefit from additional support during early convalescence. Intervention studies could explore support options for these patients.\",\n \"New tools to accurately identify potentially preventable 30-day readmissions are needed. The HOSPITAL score has been internationally validated for medical inpatients, but its performance in select conditions targeted by the Hospital Readmission Reduction Program (HRRP) is unknown. Retrospective cohort study. Six geographically diverse medical centers. All consecutive adult medical patients discharged alive in 2011 with 1 of the 4 medical conditions targeted by the HRRP (acute myocardial infarction, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pneumonia, and heart failure) were included. Potentially preventable 30-day readmissions were identified using the SQLape algorithm. The HOSPITAL score was calculated for all patients. A multivariable logistic regression model accounting for hospital effects was used to evaluate the accuracy (Brier score), discrimination (c-statistic), and calibration (Pearson goodness-of-fit) of the HOSPITAL score for each 4 medical conditions. Among the 9181 patients included, the overall 30-day potentially preventable readmission rate was 13.6%. Across all 4 diagnoses, the HOSPITAL score had very good accuracy (Brier score of 0.11), good discrimination (c-statistic of 0.68), and excellent calibration (Hosmer-Lemeshow goodness-of-fit test, P=0.77). Within each diagnosis, performance was similar. In sensitivity analyses, performance was similar for all readmissions (not just potentially preventable) and when restricted to patients age 65 and above.\",\n \"yes. Patients after long-term remission of CS report more negative illness perceptions compared with patients with other acute or chronic conditions. Further research is needed to assess whether QoL in CS can be improved by addressing these illness perceptions, for example, by a self-management intervention program.\",\n \"Poor health-related quality of life (QOL) is related to morbidity and mortality in coronary heart disease and ventricular arrhythmias as well as to mortality in patients with heart failure (HF) and atrial fibrillation (AF). This study examined the contributions of QOL to the prediction of 1-year hospitalization and mortality in patients with AF, independent of HF. This study used the public use dataset from the NHLBI/NIH AFFIRM randomized clinical trial. Patients enrolled in the QOL substudy (N = 693) were randomly assigned to rate or rhythm control. QOL was assessed with the Medical Outcomes Study 36-item Short Form Health Survey (SF-36) and the Quality of Life Index-Cardiac Version (QLI-CV). Data were analyzed with logistic regression to predict 1-year hospitalization and Cox proportional hazards analysis to predict mortality. In the first year of participation in the study 37% (n = 256) were hospitalized; mortality was 14.3% (n = 93) with mean follow-up of 3.5 years. Patients' mean age was 69.8 ± 8.2 years, were largely male (62%), and white (93%). Patient histories included 70.8% hypertension, 38.2% coronary artery disease (CAD), and 23.7% HF. History of stroke, HF, rhythm control arm, lower SF-36 mental component scores (MCS), and lower SF-36 physical component scores (PCS) predicted hospitalization (P<0.001). Diabetes, female gender, older age, CAD, hypertension, and lower PCS predicted mortality (P<0.001).\",\n \"To determine whether geriatric patients aged 65 and older on general adult psychiatric units improve as much as younger patients, over what duration their improvement occurs, and their risk of readmission. Cohort study. Inpatient psychiatric unit of an urban, university-affiliated, county hospital from January 1993 through August 1999. A total of 5,929 inpatients. Standardized, routine assessments by attending psychiatrists included the Psychiatric Symptom Assessment Scale (PSAS) on admission and discharge. Discharge scores, length of stay (LOS), and risk of readmission within 1 year were modeled for the groups using multiple regression analyses. Geriatric patients constituted 5% (n=299) of the 5,929 admissions. In multivariate analysis, geriatric status was not associated with discharge PSAS scores. Median LOS was longer for geriatric patients (16 days) than younger patients (10 days, P<.001), especially in older women (14 days) and geriatric patients with mild medical illness severity (13 days vs 11 days in those with moderate-to-severe medical illness). Geriatric patients were as likely to be readmitted within 1 year of discharge as younger patients.\",\n \"Longitudinal study of a population-based retrospective cohort conformed by adult patients with type-2 diabetes assigned to any of the primary care centres in Aragon during 2010 and 2011 (n=65,716). Negative binomial regressions were run to model the effect of the type of comorbidity on the number of visits to each level of care. Comorbidities were classified as concordant, discordant or mental based on expert consensus and depending on whether they shared the same overall pathophysiologic risk profile and disease management plan designed for type-2 diabetes. Mental comorbidity was independently associated with total and unplanned admissions (incidence rate ratio [IRR]:1.25; 95% confidence interval [CI]:1.12-1.39, IRR:1.21; 95% CI:1.06-1.39), average length of stay (IRR:1.47; 95% CI:1.25-1.73), and total and priority emergency room visits (IRR:1.26; 95% CI:1.17-1.35, IRR:1.30; 95% CI:1.18-1.42). Patients with discordant comorbidities showed the strongest associations with the number of visits to specialists (IRR:1.38; 95% CI:1.33-1.43) and to different specialties (IRR:1.36; 95% CI:1.32-1.39). Differences regarding GP visits were lower but still significant for patients with discordant comorbidity (IRR:1.08; 95% CI:1.06-1.11), but especially for those with mental comorbidity (IRR:1.17; 95% CI:1.14-1.21).\",\n \"yes. Readmission models for the inpatient rehabilitation stroke population based on functional status and age showed better predictive ability than models based on medical comorbidities.\",\n \"To determine whether functional status on admission to a Comprehensive Integrated Inpatient Rehabilitation Program (CIIRP) is associated with unplanned readmission to acute care. Retrospective cohort study. Academic hospital-based CIIRP. Consecutive patients (N=1515) admitted to a CIIRP between January 2009 and June 2012. Patients' functional status, the primary exposure variable, was assessed using tertiles of the total FIM score at CIIRP admission, with secondary analyses using the FIM motor and cognitive domains. A propensity score, consisting of 25 relevant clinical and demographic variables, was used to adjust for confounding in the analysis. Readmission to acute care was categorized as (1) readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP, (2) readmission within 30 days of discharge from the CIIRP, and (3) total readmissions from both groups, with total readmissions being the a priori primary outcome. Among the 1515 patients, there were 347 total readmissions. Total readmissions were significantly associated with FIM scores, with adjusted odds ratios (AORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for the lowest and middle FIM tertiles versus the highest tertile (AOR=2.6; 95% CI, 1.9-3.7; P<.001 and AOR=1.7; 95% CI, 1.2-2.4; P=.002, respectively). There were similar findings for secondary analyses of readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=3.5; 95% CI, 2.2-5.8; P<.001 and AOR=2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.5l P=.002, respectively), and a weaker association for readmissions after discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=1.6; 95% CI, 1.0-2.4; P=.047 and AOR=1.3; 95% CI, 0.8-1.9; P=.28, respectively). The FIM motor domain score was more strongly associated with readmissions than the FIM cognitive score.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to examine whether the physical and mental components of health-related quality of life (HRQoL) are independent predictors of survival in patients with chronic heart failure (CHF). A cohort of 231 outpatients with CHF was followed prospectively for 986 days (median; interquartile range=664-1120). Generic HRQoL was measured with the Short Form-36 Health Survey (SF-36), disease-specific HRQoL was measured with the Kansas City Cardiomyopathy Questionnaire, and depression was measured with the self-reported Patient Health Questionnaire. Both generic and disease-specific HRQoL were predictive of survival on univariate analyses. After adjustment for prognostic factors such as age, gender, degree of left ventricular dysfunction, and functional status, only the mental health component of SF-36 and the disease-specific HRQoL remained significant. When depression was included, both measures also lost their predictive power.\",\n \"This study sought to determine whether a model that included self-reported socioeconomic, health status, and psychosocial characteristics obtained from patients recently discharged from hospitalizations for heart failure substantially improved 30-day readmission risk prediction compared with a model that incorporated only clinical and demographic factors. Existing readmission risk models have poor discrimination and it is unknown whether they would be markedly improved by the inclusion of patient-reported information. As part of the Tele-HF (Telemonitoring to Improve Heart Failure Outcomes) trial, we conducted medical record abstraction and telephone interviews in a sample of 1,004 patients recently hospitalized for heart failure to obtain clinical, functional, and psychosocial information within 2 weeks of discharge. Candidate risk factors included 110 variables divided into 2 groups: demographic and clinical variables generally available from the medical record; and socioeconomic, health status, adherence, and psychosocial variables from patient interview. The 30-day readmission rate was 17.1%. Using the 3-level risk score derived from the restricted medical record variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 10.9% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 8.2% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 2 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 32.1% (95% CI: 22.4% to 43.2%), a C-statistic of 0.62. Using the 5-level risk score derived from all variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 9.6% (95% CI: 6.1% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 4 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 55.0% (95% CI: 31.5% to 76.9%), a C-statistic of 0.65.\",\n \"yes. Coronary heart disease patients' perception of their symptoms and sense of control at time of discharge were significantly associated with their quality of life three years after discharge.\",\n \"yes. Patients admitted for subacute in-hospital rehabilitation were able to anticipate their discharge health-related quality of life on the EQ-5D instrument with a moderate level of accuracy. This finding adds to the foundational empirical work supporting joint treatment decision making and patient-centered models of care during rehabilitation following acute illness or injury. Accurate patient expectations of the impact of treatment (or disease progression) on future health-related related quality of life is likely to allow patients and health professionals to successfully target interventions to priority areas where meaningful gains can be achieved.\",\n \"As the majority of unplanned hospital readmissions were associated with medical diagnoses, it is important to consider patient medical comorbidities before surgical treatment of proximal humerus fractures and during the postoperative care phase.\",\n \"to examine the relationship between depressive symptoms and hospital outcomes in an unselected consecutive sample of older medical inpatients. a prospective cohort study of individuals screened for a trial. medical wards of UK district general hospital in rural East Anglia. six hundred and seventeen medical inpatients aged 65+ were randomly selected from consecutive admissions. Baseline measures: 15-item Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS-15), the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) and the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale-Geriatric (CIRS-G). length of hospital stay; discharge to a community hospital (for rehabilitation), institutional care or usual place of residence; dying in hospital. depressive symptoms are independently associated with an increased likelihood of inpatient death and transfer to a community hospital for rehabilitation, but are not associated with longer length of stay.\",\n \"Multimorbidity poses a significant clinical challenge and has been linked to greater health services use, including hospitalization; however, we have little knowledge about the influence of contextual factors on outcomes in this population. To describe the extent to which the association between multimorbidity and hospitalization is modified by age, gender, primary care practice model, or continuity of care (COC) among adults with at least one chronic condition. A retrospective cohort study with linked population-based administrative data. Ontario, Canada. All individuals 18 and older with at least one of 16 priority chronic conditions as of April 1, 2009 (baseline). Any hospitalization, 3 or more hospitalizations, non-medical discharge delay, and 30-day readmission within the 1 year following baseline. Of 5,958,514 individuals, 484,872 (8.1 %) experienced 646,347 hospitalizations. There was a monotonic increase in the likelihood of hospitalization and related outcomes with increasing multimorbidity which was modified by age, gender, and COC but not primary care practice model. The effect of increasing multimorbidity was greater in younger adults than older adults and in those with lower COC than with higher COC. The effect of increasing multimorbidity on hospitalization was greater in men than women but reversed for the other outcomes.\",\n \"High readmission rates are viewed by the Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services as a quality of care determinant but it is unclear whether readmission rates per se reflect quality and the drivers of readmissions after hip arthroplasty remain unclear.QUESTION/ We therefore describe the effects of (1) insurance, discharge disposition, and mental health status as they relate to rates; (2) rehospitalization charges; and (3) reasons for readmissions. We studied a cohort of all 27,019 patients who initially underwent hip arthroplasty in Florida (April 2009 to March 2010). Participants were identified using the All Patient-Refined Diagnosis-Related Group 301. Data were provided by the Agency for Health Care Administration and the Florida Hospital Association who with the Florida Orthopedic Society studied readmissions within 15 days. We extracted readmission rates and their reasons; original payers, discharge disposition, mental health status; and readmission charges. The readmission rate in the first 15 days was 5%. Rates varied by type of insurance: self-pay/underinsured, Medicaid, and Medicare patients (6%) had higher rates than individuals with commercial insurance, HMO, or PPO (3%). Patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) had higher rates (7%) than patients discharged home with/without health care (both 3%). Patients with a mental health issue (10%) were readmitted more frequently than patients without it (5%). Medicare readmissions comprised 81% (USD 59,222,829) of the total readmission charges in this cohort. The most common reasons were infections (all 27%), hip arthroplasty (11%), and cardiovascular problems (9%).\",\n \"To determine whether or not having an outpatient visit after hospital discharge is associated with a lower likelihood of readmission for a statewide Medicaid population. A case-control study in the Delaware Medicaid program over a two-year period (7/1/93-6/30/95). 3,846 continuously enrolled patients aged 0-64 years who were hospitalized and were readmitted within 90 days (cases = 641) or not readmitted within 90 days (controls = 3,205). Subgroups included those readmitted for the same diagnosis (N = 720), for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (N = 906), or both (N = 276). Likelihood of readmission within 90 days of discharge. Readmission was significantly more likely when an outpatient visit was made after hospital discharge, both before and after controlling for demographic variables and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.47, 95% confidence interval = 1.20-1.80). When readmission for the same diagnosis was examined, having an outpatient visit was associated with an increased likelihood of readmission before but not after controlling for demographics and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.11, 95% confidence interval = 0.67-1.86). The same was for those admitted for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (adjusted odds ratio = 1.16, 95% confidence interval = 0.74-1.85) and for those readmitted for the same ambulatory care sensitive condition (adjusted odds ratio = 1.53, 95% confidence interval = 0.54-4.29).\",\n \"What are the effects of additional exercise on hospital and patient outcomes for acutely-hospitalised older medical patients? Controlled clinical trial. 236 Patients aged 65 or older admitted to an acute care hospital with a medical illness between October 2002 and July 2003. The experimental group received usual care plus an individually tailored exercise program administered twice daily from hospital admission to discharge. The control group received usual care only. The primary outcome was discharge destination. Secondary outcomes were measures of activity limitation (Barthel Index, Timed Up and Go, Functional Ambulation Classification), length of stay, and adverse events. There was no significant effect of the additional exercise program on any outcome. There were no significant differences between groups for the proportion of the patients discharged to home (RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.86 to 1.14) or inpatient rehabilitation (RR 0.76, 95% CI 0.30 to 1.51) or for measures of activity limitation at hospital discharge. A one day difference in length of stay was identified between groups but this difference was not significant (p = 0.45). There were no significant differences between groups for adverse events: 28-day readmission (RR 1.10, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.86), patient mortality (RR 1.15, 95% CI 0.16 to 8.0), intensive care admission (RR 0.16, 95% CI 0.01 to 3.13) and falls (RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.17 to 2.81).\",\n \"yes. Reported elder self-neglect was associated with increased rates of 30-day hospital readmission in this community population. Greater self-neglect severity was associated with a greater increase in the rate of 30-day hospital readmission.\",\n \"yes. Readmission to inpatient psychiatric treatment was common for patients with co-occurring disorders, and these observational findings indicate that continuing care for a substance use disorder was associated with lower risk of early readmission.\",\n \"yes. In older adults with cancer, certain geriatric parameters are associated with shorter survival after hospitalization. Assessment of functional status, necessity for readmission, and cognitive impairment may provide prognostic information so that oncologists and their patients make more informed, individualized decisions.\",\n \"Preventive home visits were not effective in reducing hospital readmissions, but satisfaction with care was enhanced. Subjective well-being is a key variable that warrants attention in the planning and evaluation of postdischarge home care.\",\n \"yes. This study shows a significant and linear relationship between lower global and physical HRQL scores in patients with IHD and 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmission.\",\n \"This study investigated the relationship between patient-rated unmet needs and subjective quality of life using routine outcome data. 265 mental health service patients from South Verona were assessed using the Camberwell Assessment of Need, the Lancashire Quality of Life Profile, and other standardised assessments of symptoms, disability, function and service satisfaction. At 1-year follow-up, 166 patients were still in contact, of whom 121 patients (73%) were re-assessed. Higher baseline quality of life was associated with being male, a diagnosis of psychosis, higher disability, higher satisfaction with care, fewer staff-rated or patient-rated unmet needs, and fewer patient-rated met needs (accounting for 40% of the variance). Specifically, fewer baseline patient-rated unmet needs were cross-sectionally associated with a higher quality of life (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.12 to -0.04). Apart from its baseline value, the only baseline predictor of follow-up QoL was patient-rated unmet need (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.21 to -0.09), accounting for 58% of the variance in follow-up quality of life. Graphical chain modelling confirmed this association.\",\n \"Health-related quality of life (HRQOL) is a major clinical outcome for heart failure (HF) patients. We aimed to determine the frequency, durability, and prognostic significance of improved HRQOL after hospitalization for decompensated HF. We analyzed HRQOL, measured serially using the Minnesota Living with Heart Failure Questionnaire (MLHFQ), for 425 patients who survived to discharge in a multicenter randomized clinical trial of pulmonary artery catheter versus clinical assessment to guide therapy for patients with advanced HF. All patients enrolled had 1 or more prior HF hospitalizations or chronic high diuretic doses and 1 or more symptom and 1 sign of fluid overload at admission. Improvement, defined as a decrease of more than 5 points in MLHFQ total score, occurred in 68% of patients by 1 month and stabilized. The degree of 1-month improvement differed (P < .0001 group x time interaction) between 6-month survivors and non-survivors. In a Cox regression model, after adjustment for traditional risk factors for HF morbidity and mortality, improvement in HRQOL by 1 month compared to worsening at 1 month or no change predicted time to subsequent event-free survival (P=.013).\",\n \"Quality of life (QoL) for women with gynecologic malignancies is predictive of chemotherapy related toxicity and overall survival but has not been studied in relation to surgical outcomes and hospital readmissions. Our goal was to evaluate the association between baseline, pre-operative QoL measures and 30-day post-operative morbidity and health resource utilization by gynecologic oncology patients. We analyzed prospectively collected survey data from an institution-wide cohort study. Patients were enrolled from 8/2012 to 6/2013 and medical record data was abstracted (demographics, comorbid conditions, and operative outcomes). Responses from several validated health-related QoL instruments were collected. Bivariate tests and multivariable linear and logistic regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with QoL scores. Of 182 women with suspected gynecologic malignancies, 152 (84%) were surveyed pre-operatively and 148 (81%) underwent surgery. Uterine (94; 63.5%), ovarian (26; 17.5%), cervical (15; 10%), vulvar/vaginal (8; 5.4%), and other (5; 3.4%) cancers were represented. There were 37 (25%) cases of postoperative morbidity (PM), 18 (12%) unplanned ER visits, 9(6%) unplanned clinic visits, and 17 (11.5%) hospital readmissions (HR) within 30days of surgery. On adjusted analysis, lower functional well-being scores resulted in increased odds of PM (OR 1.07, 95%CI 1.01-.1.21) and HR (OR 1.11, 95%CI 1.03-1.19). A subjective global assessment score was also strongly associated with HR (OR 1.89, 95%CI 1.14, 3.16).\",\n \"Ascites, the most frequent complication of cirrhosis, is associated with poor prognosis and reduced quality of life. Recurrent hospital admissions are common and often unplanned, resulting in increased use of hospital services. To examine use of hospital services by patients with cirrhosis and ascites requiring paracentesis, and to investigate factors associated with early unplanned readmission. A retrospective review of the medical chart and clinical databases was performed for patients who underwent paracentesis between October 2011 and October 2012. Clinical parameters at index admission were compared between patients with and without early unplanned hospital readmissions. The 41 patients requiring paracentesis had 127 hospital admissions, 1164 occupied bed days and 733 medical imaging services. Most admissions (80.3%) were for management of ascites, of which 41.2% were unplanned. Of those eligible, 69.7% were readmitted and 42.4% had an early unplanned readmission. Twelve patients died and nine developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Of those eligible for readmission, more patients died (P = 0.008) and/or developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (P = 0.027) if they had an early unplanned readmission during the study period. Markers of liver disease, as well as haemoglobin (P = 0.029), haematocrit (P = 0.024) and previous heavy alcohol use (P = 0.021) at index admission, were associated with early unplanned readmission.\",\n \"Unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge is an indicator of hospital quality. We wanted to determine whether older rural veterans who were enrolled in the VA had different rates of unplanned readmission to VA or non-VA hospitals than their urban counterparts. We used the combined VA/Medicare dataset to examine 3,513,912 hospital admissions for older veterans that occurred in VA or non-VA hospitals between 1997 and 2004. We calculated 30-day readmission rates and odds ratios for rural and urban veterans, and we performed a logistic regression analysis to determine whether living in a rural setting or initially using the VA for hospitalization were independent risk factors for unplanned 30-day readmission, after adjusting for age, sex, length of stay of the index admission, and morbidity. Overall, rural veterans had slightly higher 30-day readmission rates than their urban counterparts (17.96% vs 17.86%; OR 1.006, 95% CI: 1.0004, 1.013). For both rural- and urban-dwelling veterans, readmission after using a VA hospital was more common than after using a non-VA hospital (20.7% vs 16.8% for rural veterans, 21.2% vs 16.1% for urban veterans). After adjusting for other variables, readmission was more likely for rural veterans and following admission to a VA hospital.\",\n \"To examine the relationship between health-related quality of life (HRQOL) and health service use among older adults with osteoarthritis (OA). Subjects were 9,043 Medicare-enrolled survey respondents with a prior International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision code for OA. Analyses examined the relationship of 5 Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HRQOL items (general health, mental health, pain, activity limitation, and sleep) to physician visits, prescription analgesic or antiinflammatory use, and arthroplasty during 1 year of followup. In analyses controlling for demographic and health-related variables, greater pain frequency was associated with increased odds of visiting a physician, using analgesic or antiinflammatory drugs, and having arthroplasty (P < 0.001). Poorer general health was associated with increased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use but decreased odds of arthroplasty (P < 0.01). More days of activity limitation and poor mental health were associated with decreased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use (P < 0.01).\",\n \"Emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations of elderly subjects with chronic comorbidities, often disabled, are increasing. The aim of the present study was to assess whether among older subjects functional disability is associated with increased ER visits and hospitalization rates. We assessed the association of functional ability with 1-year ER visits and hospitalization rates in all 342 subjects aged 75+ living in Tuscania (Italy) in 2004. Functional ability was estimated using the Katz' activities of daily living (ADLs), and the Lawton and Brody scale for the instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Functional disability was defined as the dependence for two or more ADLs or IADLs. According to Cox regression, disability in ADLs was associated with increased risk of ER visits (RR 2.12; 95 % CI 1.11-4.08; P = .023) but not of hospital admission (RR 1.50; 95 % CI .80-2.80; P = .208). Also, in Poisson regression, ADLs disability predicted the number of ER visits (IRR 2.56; 95 % CI 1.48-4.40; P = .001).\",\n \"This study examined the association of self-care behavior and patients' knowledge about self-care with rehospitalization among older adults with heart failure (HF). Case-control comparison (116 cases and 209 controls) nested in a prospective cohort of patients aged 65 years and older admitted for HF at 4 Spanish hospitals. Cases were patients experiencing a first emergency rehospitalization in the 6 months following the index hospital admission. Controls were patients who did not undergo a rehospitalization during such time-period. The number of self-care behaviors was inversely associated with the frequency of readmission (p for linear trend: 0.006). Compared with patients showing the appropriate self-care behavior, hospital readmission was more frequent among those who did no go for a walk daily or did not engage in any daily physical activity (hazard ratio [HR] 1.55; 95% confidence limits [CL] 1.04-2.29), and among those who did not keep their medical appointments (HR 1.82; 95% CL 1.10-3.02). Hospital readmission was also more frequent among patients who: failed to take their medication at the scheduled time (HR 2.07; 95% CL 1.15-3.72); stopped taking their medication when it disagreed with them (HR 1.76; 95% CL 1.08-2.85); and failed to adhere to their drug treatment (HR 1.96; 95% CL 1.29-2.98). Furthermore, the fewer the number of behaviors which patients knew to be required for self-care, the greater the frequency of rehospitalization (p for linear trend:0.029).\",\n \"In COPD, hospital admissions and readmissions account for the majority of health-care costs. The aim of this prospective randomized controlled study was to determine if early pulmonary rehabilitation, commenced as an inpatient and continued after discharge, reduced acute health-care utilization. Consecutive COPD patients (n = 397), admitted with an exacerbation, were screened: 228 satisfied the eligibility criteria, of whom 97 consented to randomization to rehabilitation or usual care. Both intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses are reported with adherence being defined a priori as participation in at least 75% of rehabilitation sessions. The participants were elderly with severe impairment of pulmonary function, poor health-related quality of life and high COPD-related morbidity. The rehabilitation group demonstrated a 23% (95% CI: 11-36%) risk of readmission at 3 months, with attendees having a 16% (95% CI: 0-32%) risk compared with 32% (95% CI: 19-45%) for usual care. These differences were not significant. There were a total of 79 COPD-related readmission days (1.7 per patient, 95% CI: 0.6-2.7, P = 0.19) in the rehabilitation group, compared with 25 (1.3 per patient, 95% CI: 0-3.1, P = 0.17) for the attendees and 209 (4.2 per patient, 95% CI: 1.7-6.7) for usual care. The BMI, airflow obstruction, dyspnoea and exercise capacity index showed a non-significant trend to greater improvement among attendees compared with those receiving usual care (5.5 (2.3) and 5.6 (2.7) at baseline, improving to 3.7 (1.9) and 4.5 (2.5), respectively, at 3 months). No adverse effects were identified.\",\n \"To examine the possible use of readmission rates as an outcome indicator of hospital inpatient care by investigating avoidability of unplanned readmissions within 28 days of discharge. Retrospective analysis of a stratified random sample of case notes of patients with an unplanned readmission between July 1987 and June 1988 by nine clinical assessors (263 assessments) and categorisation of the readmission as avoidable, unavoidable, or unclassifiable. District in North East Thames region. 481 General medical, geriatric, and general surgical inpatients with a readmission at 0-6 days or 21-27 days after the first (index) discharge between July 1987 and June 1988 from whom 100 case notes were selected randomly and of which 74 were available for study. Assessment of readmissions as avoidable, unavoidable, unclassifiable, variability of assessment within cases and variability among assessors according to specialty and duration to readmission. General medical and geriatric readmissions and surgical readmissions at 0-6 days after discharge were more likely to be assessed as avoidable than those at 21-27 days (medical readmissions 32 v 6%, surgical admissions 49 v 19%). General surgical readmissions were significantly more frequently assessed as avoidable than general medical and geriatric readmissions. The extent of agreement between doctors varied, with general medical and geriatric readmissions at 21-27 days after first discharge causing the greatest variability of judgment.\",\n \"The Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation (IMPACT) Act of 2014 stipulates that standardized functional status (self-care and mobility) and cognitive function data will be used for quality reporting in post-acute care settings. Thirty-day post-discharge unplanned rehospitalization is an established quality metric that has recently been extended to post-acute settings. The relationships between the functional domains in the IMPACT Act and 30-day unplanned rehospitalization are poorly understood. To determine the degree to which discharge mobility, self-care, and cognitive function are associated with 30-day unplanned rehospitalization following discharge from post-acute care. This was a retrospective cohort study. Inpatient rehabilitation facilities submitting claims and assessment data to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in 2012-2013. Medicare fee-for-service enrollees discharged from post-acute rehabilitation in 2012-2013. The sample included community-dwelling adults admitted for rehabilitation following an acute care stay who survived for 32 days following discharge (N = 252,406). Not applicable. Thirty-day unplanned rehospitalization following post-acute rehabilitation. The unadjusted 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate was 12.0 % (n = 30,179). Overall, patients dependent at discharge for mobility had a 50 % increased odds of rehospitalization (OR = 1.50, 95 % CI: 1.42-1.59), patients dependent for self-care a 36 % increased odds (OR = 1.36, 95 % CI: 1.27-1.47), and patients dependent for cognition a 19 % increased odds (OR = 1.19, 95 % CI: 1.09-1.29). Patients dependent for both self-care and mobility at discharge (n = 8312, 3.3 %) had a 16.1 % (95 % CI: 15.3-17.0 %) adjusted rehospitalization rate versus 8.5 % (95 % CI: 8.3-8.8 %) for those independent for both (n = 74,641; 29.6 %).\",\n \"Older patients with comorbid mental illness are shown to receive less appropriate care for their medical conditions. This study analyzed Medicare patients hospitalized for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and determined whether those with comorbid mental illness were more likely to present to hospitals with lower quality of AMI care. Retrospective analyses of Medicare claims in 2008. Hospital quality was measured using the five \\\"Hospital Compare\\\" process indicators (aspirin at admission/discharge, beta-blocker at admission/discharge, and angiotension-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotension receptor blocker for left ventricular dysfunction). Multinomial logit model determined the association of mental illness with admission to low-quality hospitals (rank of the composite process score<10(th) percentile) or high-quality hospitals (rank>90(th) percentile), compared to admissions to other hospitals with medium quality. Multivariate analyses further determined the effects of hospital type and mental diagnosis on outcomes. Among all AMI admissions to 2,845 hospitals, 41,044 out of 287,881 patients were diagnosed with mental illness. Mental illness predicted a higher likelihood of admission to low-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 2.9% vs. 2.0%; adjusted odds ratio [OR]1.25, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.17-1.34, p<0.01), and an equal likelihood to high-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 9.8% vs. 10.3%; adjusted OR 0.97, 95% CI 0.93-1.01, p = 0.11). Both lower hospital quality and mental diagnosis predicted higher rates of 30-day readmission, 30-day mortality, and 1-year mortality.\",\n \"Chronic heart failure (HF) is associated with a poor Health Related Quality of Life (HRQoL). HRQoL has been shown to be a predictor of HF outcomes however, variability in the study designs make it difficult to apply these findings to a clinical setting. The aim of this study was to establish if HRQoL is a predictor of long-term mortality and morbidity in HF patients followed-up in a disease management program (DMP) and if a HRQoL instrument could be applied to aid in identifying high-risk patients within a clinical context. This is a retrospective analysis of HF patients attending a DMP with 18+/-9 months follow-up. Clinical and biochemical parameters were recorded on discharge from index HF admission and HRQoL measures were recorded at 2 weeks post index admission. 225 patients were enrolled into the study (mean age=69+/-12 years, male=61%, and 78%=systolic HF). In multivariable analysis, all dimensions of HRQoL (measured by the Minnesota Living with HF Questionnaire) were independent predictors of both mortality and readmissions particularly in patients <80 years. A significant interaction between HRQoL and age (Total((HRQoL))age: p<0.001) indicated that the association of HRQoL with outcomes diminished as age increased.\",\n \"A randomized controlled trial was carried out from 2003 to 2005 . The control group (n = 166) received routine care and the study group (n = 166) received home visits from community nurses within 30 days of hospital discharge. Data were collected at baseline before discharge and 30 days after discharge. Patients in the study group were statistically significantly more satisfied with their care. There were no statistically significant differences in other outcomes, including readmission rate, ADL score, self-perceived life satisfaction and self-perceived health. Regression analysis revealed that self-perceived life satisfaction, self-perceived health and disease category other than general symptoms were three statistically significant variables predicting hospital readmissions.\",\n \"Chronically mentally ill patients in community mental health care report a better quality of life (QOL) than those in long-term hospital care, which suggests that the treatment setting per se influences their QOL. In a region where both treatment settings are of a comparable high standard, we assessed the QOL of 96 schizophrenic patients from these two treatment settings, and the factors which most influenced their QOL. Community-care patients reported a better QOL than long-term hospital-care patients. However, when other factors influencing QOL were included in a regression analysis, the place of treatment was no longer significant, but rather the social support, the severity of the illness, educational level and certain illness concepts.\",\n \"yes. Among community-dwelling older adults, early hospital readmission is a marker for notably increased risk of one-year mortality. Providers, patients, and families all might respond profitably to an early readmission by reviewing treatment plans and goals of care.\",\n \"To study whether health-related quality of life (HRQOL), activities of daily living (ADL), and anxiety and depression symptoms affect the risk of hospital admission and potential interactions with having a cancer diagnosis. This study was a prospective observational study with 5-year follow-up and analyzed the follow-up data on hospital admissions until 2010 using baseline data from 227 cognitively intact nursing home (NH) residents (60 of whom had cancer) in 2004-2005. Data on HRQOL were collected by using the Short Form-36 Health Survey, divided into physical component summary (PCS) and mental component summary (MCS), and symptoms of anxiety and depression were collected by using the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS). ADL were obtained from registered observation and sociodemographic variables, diagnoses, and hospital admissions from the NH records. Personal identification numbers were linked to the record systems of the hospitals, thereby registering all hospital admissions. We analyzed the time elapsing between inclusion and the first hospital admission. Residents with higher HRQOL (MCS) had significantly more hospital admissions after adjustment for age, sex, marital status, education, and comorbidity. HRQOL (PCS), ADL, depression, and anxiety symptoms were not associated with hospital admissions. Cancer increased the risk after adjustment for all other risk factors but did not increase the effects of MCS, PCS, ADL, or depression or anxiety symptoms. Having a higher level of education and being less than 75 years of age were associated with hospitalization. The residents diagnosed with cancer had the most days in hospital related to diseases of the respiratory system and cancer, and diseases of the circulatory and respiratory systems were more frequent among the residents without a cancer diagnosis.\",\n \"Elder self-neglect is associated with increased morbidity and mortality. The objective of this study is to examine the prospective relationship between reported elder self-neglect and the rate of 30-day hospital readmission in a community population. We conducted a prospective population-based study of community-dwelling older adults who participated in the Chicago Health and Aging Project. Of the 7,219 participants in the Chicago Health and Aging Project, a subset of 1,228 participants was reported to the social services agency for suspected elder self-neglect. The primary predictor was elder self-neglect reported to the social services agency. The outcome of interest was the annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission calculated from the Center for Medicare and Medicaid System hospitalization data from 1993 to 2009. Poisson regression models were used to assess these relationships. The average annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission for those without elder self-neglect was 0.2 (SD 0.7) and for those with reported elder self-neglect 0.9 (SD 2.8). After adjusting for sociodemographic and socioeconomic characteristics, medical comorbidities, cognitive function, physical function, and psychosocial well-being, elders who self-neglect had a significantly higher rate of 30-day hospital readmission (rate ratio 2.50, 95% confidence interval 2.02-3.10). Greater self-neglect severity [mild: parameter estimate (PE) 1.09, standard error (SE) 0.19, p < 0.001; moderate: PE 0.84, SE 0.13, p < 0.001; severe: PE 1.24, SE 0.40, p = 0.002] was associated with increased annual rates of 30-day hospital readmission after considering the same confounders. Interaction term analyses suggest that the significant relationship between self-neglect and 30-day hospital readmission was not moderated by medical conditions, cognitive impairment, physical disability, or psychosocial well-being.\",\n \"To assess whether health-related quality of life is an independent prognostic factor for mortality or nursing home placement in frail elderly patients. A prospective, multicenter study with a 12-month follow-up. Nine French hospitals. A total of 1306 patients aged 75 and older hospitalized through an emergency department. Data obtained from sociodemographic characteristics, Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment and the Duke Health Profile (DHP) were used into a Cox model to identify prognostic variables for 12-month mortality and institutionalization. Crude mortality and nursing home placement rates were 34.1% (n = 445) and 16.1% (n = 210), respectively. Independent prognostic factors identified for mortality were: Comorbidity level (moderate: hazard ratio [HR] [95% confidence interval (CI)]= 1.40 [1.09-1.78]; severe: 2.70 [1.63-4.46]), dependence for activities of daily living (1.68 [1.06-2.67]), pressure sore risk (1.49 [1.16-1.90]), risk of malnutrition (2.09 [1.46-3.00]), delirium (2.25 [1.75-2.90]), and 10-point increase in the DHP perceived health score (0.96 [0.93-0.99]). Independent prognostic factors identified for nursing home placement were the following: living alone at home (1.82 [1.30-2.55]), having 2 children or more (0.71 [0.51-0.99]), dependence for activities of daily living (2.48 [1.39-4.44]), dementia (1.93 [1.39-2.69]), unplanned hospital readmission during follow-up (2.05 [1.45-2.91]), and 10-point increase in the DHP social health score (0.90 [0.83-0.99]). Balance troubles and risk of malnutrition were no more significant when adjusted for the DHP scores and other clinical variables.\",\n \"Rehospitalization occurs in approximately 20% of medical inpatients within 90 days of discharge. Rehospitalization accounts for considerable morbidity, mortality, and costs. Identification of risk factors could lead to interventions to reduce rehospitalization. The objective of the study was to determine if physical and mental health, substance abuse, and social support are risk factors for rehospitalization. This was a prospective cohort study in an innercity population conducted from September 2002 to September 2004. Participants included 144 adult inpatients with at least 1 hospital admission in the past 6 months. Measurements included age, length of stay, number of admissions in the past year, and medical comorbidity as well as measures of depression, alcohol and drug abuse, social support, and health-related quality of life. The outcome studied was the rehospitalization status of participants within 90 days of the index hospitalization. The mean age of the subjects was 54.8 years; 48% were black and 78% spoke English as a primary language. Subjects were admitted a mean of 2.5 times in the year before the index admission. Sixty-four patients (44%) were subsequently rehospitalized within 90 days after the index admission. In bivariate analysis, rehospitalized patients had more prior admissions (median of 3.0 vs. 2.0 admissions, p = .002), greater medical comorbidity (mean Charlson Comorbidity Index score of 2.6 vs. 2.0, p = .04), and poorer physical functional status (mean SF-12 physical component score of 31.5 vs. 36.2, p = .03). A logistic regression model, including prior admissions in the last year, comorbidity, physical functional status, and depression, showed that depression tripled the odds of rehospitalization (odds ratio = 3.3, 95% CI = 1.2 to 9.3). This model had fair accuracy in identifying patients at greatest risk for rehospitalization (c statistic = 0.72).\",\n \"Patient health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an important health outcome with lower HRQL associated with adverse events in patients with ischaemic heart disease (IHD). Baseline health-related quality of life was investigated as a predictor of 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmissions in Danish patients with IHD. The international HeartQoL Project survey was designed to develop a core HRQL questionnaire for patients with IHD. Baseline scores on each of the 14 items ultimately included in the HeartQoL questionnaire were linked to Danish national health registries and hazard ratios for mortality and readmissions were estimated using Cox regression models. Among 938 eligible Danish patients with IHD, 662 (70.6%) participated in the international HeartQoL Project. During the 5-year follow-up, 83 patients died and 196 patients were readmitted. Adjusted analyses showed a significant linear association between all-cause mortality and both lower global HRQL (HR = 1.67, 95% CI: 1.26-2.23; p<0.001) and physical scores (HR=1.71, 1.33-2.21; p<0.001) and between readmission and both lower global (HR=1.73, 1.41-2.12; p < 0.001) and physical scores (HR = 1.63, 1.35-1.96; p < 0.001). A significant, but non-linear, effect was found for emotional HRQL score on outcomes.\",\n \"For chronically ill patients, readmission to the hospital can be frequent and costly. We studied the effect of an intervention designed to increase access to primary care after discharge from the hospital, with the goals of reducing readmissions and emergency department visits and increasing patients' quality of life and satisfaction with care. In a multicenter randomized, controlled trial at nine Veterans Affairs Medical Centers, we randomly assigned 1396 veterans hospitalized with diabetes, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or congestive heart failure to receive either usual care or an intensive primary care intervention. The intervention involved close follow-up by a nurse and a primary care physician, beginning before discharge and continuing for the next six months. The patients were severely ill. Half of those with congestive heart failure (504 patients) had disease in New York Heart Association class III or IV; 30 percent of those with diabetes (751 patients) had end-organ damage; and a quarter of those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (583 patients) required home oxygen treatment or oral corticosteroids. The patients had extremely poor quality-of-life scores. Although they received more intensive primary care than the controls, the patients in the intervention group had significantly higher rates of readmission (0.19 vs 0.14 per month, P = 0.005) and more days of rehospitalization (10.2 vs 8.8, P = 0.041). The patients in the intervention group were more satisfied with their care (P<0.001), but there was no difference between the study groups in quality-of-life scores, which remained very low (P = 0.53).\",\n \"Health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an increasingly well-recognized measure of health outcome in cardiology. We examined HRQL as a predictor of unplanned rehospitalization for cardiac reasons in patients after coronary revascularization over a period of 3 years. Out of 791 patients enrolled in the study, 743 completed the MacNew HRQL questionnaire after coronary revascularization. MacNew HRQL scores were used as predictors of unplanned rehospitalization. Within the 3-year follow-up period, 125 patients (16.8 %) were rehospitalized. After adjustment for age, gender, and myocardial infarction as the initiating event, there were significant differences in unplanned rehospitalization rates between patients with low or moderate vs. high MacNew HRQL global scores (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) and both physical (HR: 2.2, 95 % CI: 1.4-3.5) and social (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) subscale scores.\",\n \"Among patients with heart failure, early unplanned readmissions were not associated with suboptimal admission work-up or evaluation and treatment but were weakly associated with readiness for discharge. However, they were strongly associated with the patients' clinical and demographic characteristics.\",\n \"Hospital readmission within thirty days is common among Medicare beneficiaries, but the relationship between rehospitalization and subsequent mortality in older adults is not known. To compare one-year mortality rates among community-dwelling elderly hospitalized Medicare beneficiaries who did and did not experience early hospital readmission (within 30 days), and to estimate the odds of one-year mortality associated with early hospital readmission and with other patient characteristics. A cohort study of 2133 hospitalized community-dwelling Medicare beneficiaries older than 64 years, who participated in the nationally representative Cost and Use Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey between 2001 and 2004, with follow-up through 2006. One-year mortality after index hospitalization discharge. Three hundred and four (13.7 %) hospitalized beneficiaries had an early hospital readmission. Those with early readmission had higher one-year mortality (38.7 %) than patients who were not readmitted (12.1 %; p<0.001). Early readmission remained independently associated with mortality after adjustment for sociodemographic factors, health and functional status, medical comorbidity, and index hospitalization-related characteristics [HR (95 % CI) 2.97 (2.24-3.92)]. Other patient characteristics independently associated with mortality included age [1.03 (1.02-1.05) per year], low income [1.39 (1.04-1.86)], limited self-rated health [1.60 (1.20-2.14)], two or more recent hospitalizations [1.47 (1.01-2.15)], mobility difficulty [1.51 (1.03-2.20)], being underweight [1.62 (1.14-2.31)], and several comorbid conditions, including chronic lung disease, cancer, renal failure, and weight loss. Hospitalization-related factors independently associated with mortality included longer length of stay, discharge to a skilled nursing facility for post-acute care, and primary diagnoses of infections, cancer, acute myocardial infarction, and heart failure.\",\n \"To determine if early unplanned readmissions of patients hospitalized for heart failure are associated with suboptimal in-hospital care or with the clinical and demographic characteristics of the patient. We performed a case-control study among patients discharged with a principal diagnosis of heart failure. Cases included all patients unexpectedly readmitted within 31 days of discharge; controls were randomly selected from among those not readmitted. Quality of care was measured using explicit criteria reflecting the admission work-up, evaluation and treatment, and readiness for discharge. Ninety-one cases and 351 controls were included. There was no significant association between early unplanned readmissions and the scores for quality of the admission work-up or evaluation and treatment during the stay. There was a significant association between readiness for discharge and subsequent early readmission: for each 10% decrease in the proportion of fulfilled criteria, the odds of readmission increased by 14% (95% confidence interval [CI] 1. 01 to 1.28, P = 0.04) for all-cause readmissions and by 19% (95% CI: 1.04 to 1.36, P = 0.01) for heart-failure-related readmissions. In a multiple logistic regression model, previous diagnosis of heart failure (odds ratio [OR]= 2.9, 95% CI: 1.7 to 4.8, P<0.001), age (OR = 3.3, 95% CI: 1.3 to 8.5, P = 0.01 for patients aged 65 to 79 years and OR = 4.1, 95% CI: 1.6 to 11, P = 0.004 for patients aged 80 years and older), and history of cardiac revascularization (OR = 2.1, 95% CI: 1.2 to 3.9, P = 0.01) showed a stronger association with early unplanned all-cause readmissions than the readiness-for-discharge score (OR = 1.16, 95% CI: 1.02 to 1.31, P = 0.02). Similar findings were seen for heart failure-related readmissions.\",\n \"In this cohort of predominantly older and chronically ill patients recently discharged from acute hospital care, relatively lower SF-36 physical health component scores were independently associated with an increased risk of subsequent unplanned readmission.\",\n \"Assessment of health-related quality of life (HRQL) is being used increasingly to assess the impact of treatment. To determine if HRQL, assessed shortly after acute hospitalisation, is associated with readmission to hospital. In a prospective, longitudinal study, 163 chronically ill, medical and surgical patients (mean age 67.0+/-16.3 years) discharged to home following acute hospitalisation were studied. HRQL was assessed at one month post-hospital discharge using the MOS 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36). Patients were followed-up for six months thereafter to determine subsequent incidence of unplanned readmission. HRQL as measured by the eight health dimensions of the SF-36, for the entire cohort, was lower relative to age and gender matched norms for the local population (p<0.01). During study follow-up, 47 (35%) patients had an unplanned readmission and one patient died. Patients who had an unplanned readmission demonstrated both significantly lower physical (32.2+/-9.8 vs 38.6+/-10.1: p<0.001) and mental (45.1+/-12.7 vs 49.9+/-12.3: p=0.03) health component scores in comparison to the remainder of the cohort. On multivariate analysis, independent correlates of unplanned readmission were: 1) presence of formal home assistance (OR 6.4: p<0.01), 2)>or =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score of85 years.","We efficiently recruited participants and achieved high overall retention rates. However, participant adherence to the daily outbreak visit schedules was low and only 7 (50%) participants used the cream as directed. These limitations could be addressed in future Internet-based studies by using Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs), using reminder devices, and providing incentives. By enhancing participant adherence, clinical trials requiring frequent participant contact may be feasible over the Internet.","To test the hypothesis that children enrolled in Medicaid managed care health plans that provide asthma-specific communication to providers would be more likely to have adequate asthma medication filling. We conducted a historical cohort study of 4498 children (2-17 years old) with moderate-severe asthma in Washington State and Tennessee Medicaid managed care programs from 2000 to 2002. Interviews with health plans were conducted to identify communication strategies health plans used to improve asthma care by providers in the plan. The main outcome measure was guideline-recommended filling of asthma preventer medications. Children in plans that provided specific feedback to providers about asthma quality and notified providers when children had an asthma-related event had the highest mean days plus or minus SE of filling in the 365-day follow-up period (164.6 +/- 13 days) compared with children in plans with neither (135.3 +/- 10.8 days; P < .05). In children with the greatest asthma severity, enrollment in a plan with both features was associated with 27.1 additional days of filling (95% CI, 0.7-53.4 days) during the follow-up period.","The goal of asthma treatment is control of asthma and good quality of life for asthmatic patients; however, many asthmatic patients experience symptoms and limitations. To examine treatment outcome in asthmatic patients under specialist care. Multicenter, cross-sectional study. Four large outpatient asthma clinics in teaching hospitals in three Greek cities. Three hundred seventy-eight randomly selected patients with mild or moderate asthma (265 female patients; mean age, 42.3 years). None. Patients completed a questionnaire structured with eight domains covering patient characteristics, drug use at baseline and during exacerbations, regular follow-up, emergency visits, asthma control, symptoms, and limitations. Results show that the majority of patients have symptoms and limitations in their physical and social activities and have frequent exacerbations, while>40% of patients think that their asthma is not well controlled. Most of our patients receive preventive medication (primarily inhaled corticosteroids, but less so long-acting beta2-agonists [LABAs] and leukotriene antagonists), increase their use of medication in case of exacerbations and have regular follow-up. However, the report shows that 48% of patients tried to reduce their medication dose, a fact implying that compliance is not always good.","A new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) asthma quality-of-care measure designed to quantify patient adherence to asthma controller medication has been implemented. The relationship between this measure and asthma outcomes is unknown. To examine the relationship between the HEDIS Medication Management for people with Asthma (MMA) measure and asthma outcomes. Administrative data identified 30,040 patients who met HEDIS criteria for persistent asthma during 2012. These patients were classified as compliant or noncompliant with the MMA measure at the 75% and 50% threshold, respectively. The association between MMA compliance in 2012 and asthma outcomes in 2013 was determined. Patients who were 75% or 50% MMA compliant in 2012 showed no clinically meaningful difference in asthma-related hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or rescue inhaler dispensing in 2013 compared with those who were noncompliant. Stepwise comparison of patients who were 75% or more, 50% to 74%, and less than 50% MMA compliant showed no meaningful difference in asthma outcomes between groups.","The findings suggest that additional investigations of Internet-based interventions to promote self-management in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are warranted.","Supervised exercise leads to significant improvements in asthma control and quality-of-life in adults with partly controlled asthma; however, the role of unsupervised exercise is unknown. The purpose of this study was to determine the impact of self-directed exercise on subjective and objective indices of asthma-related health. Participants (n = 24) were assigned to an exercise group or a control group for a 12-week period. Those in the exercise group were provided with exercise programs by a qualified exercise professional. These programs were updated through electronic mail every 3 weeks to ensure progression. Controls maintained their current lifestyle habits for the intervention period. Assessments of aerobic fitness, lung function, and subjective and objective asthma measures were conducted at baseline and after completion of the 12-week intervention period for both groups. Analysis of covariance was used to detect differences between groups from baseline to week 12. Qualitative analyses were used to assess responses to open-ended questions. Adherence to the program was poor. Perceived asthma control and self-reported frequency and severity of asthma improved significantly in the exercise group at week 12 compared with that in the control group. Objective measures of asthma such as asthma control, quality-of-life, and lung function, as well as peak and submaximal aerobic fitness did not change relative to controls. Responses to open-ended questions revealed improvements in three areas: asthma management, perceived fitness, and well-being.","We wanted to examine whether a collaborative to improve asthma care influences process and outcomes of care in asthmatic adults. We undertook a preintervention-postintervention evaluation of 185 patients in 6 intervention clinics and 3 matched control sites that participated in the Institute for Healthcare Improvement Breakthrough Series (BTS) Collaborative for asthma care. The intervention consisted of 3, 2-day educational sessions for teams dispatched by participating sites, which were followed by 3 action periods during the course of a year. Overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention compared with the control group (change of 10% vs 1%, P = .003). Patients in the intervention group were more likely to attend educational sessions (20% vs 5%, P = .03). Having a written action plan, setting goals, monitoring peak flow rates, and using long-term asthma medications increased between 2% and 19% (not significant), but asthma-related knowledge was unchanged for the 2 groups. Patients in the BTS Collaborative were significantly more likely to be satisfied with clinician and lay educator communication (62% vs 39%, P = .02). Health-related quality of life, asthma-specific quality of life, number of bed days caused by asthma-related illness, and acute care service use were not significantly different between the 2 groups.","The DIABTel system, a Web-based telemedicine application, integrates a whole communication system (glucometer, insulin pump, wireless hand-held assistant) for medical remote advice. We sought to evaluate, in terms of glycemic control, the DIABTel system in a randomized crossover clinical study. Ten patients with type 1 diabetes [5 women, age 40.6 (21-62) years, diabetes duration 14.7 (3-52) years] were included. During the 4-week active phase, data sent by patients were analyzed by the physician and modifications of the basal rate and bolus were advised in the following 24 hours. During the control phase, patients sent glucose data without any feedback from the medical center. The mean numbers of daily glucose values and bolus sent by patients during the active period were 4.46 +/- 0.91 and 4.58 +/- 0.89, respectively. The personal digital assistant functionalities used more frequently by patients were (times per week) data visualization (8.1 +/- 6.8), data download from the insulin pump (6.8 +/- 3.3), and synchronization with the telemedicine server (8.5 +/- 4.9). After the experimental phase, serum fructosamine decreased significantly (393 +/- 32 vs 366 +/- 25 micromol/liter; p < 0.05) and hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) tended to decrease (8.0 +/- 0.6 vs 7.78 +/- 0.6; p = 0.073), whereas no changes were observed during the control phase. The number of treatment modifications proposed and performed by the patients correlated with the change observed in HbA1c during the active phase (r = -0.729, p = 0.017).","yes. Older patients reproducibly are able to telemetrically transmit electrocardiograms after a short training before discharged home. Although there is a low incidence of complications among our study population, telemedical ECG-monitoring rapidly helps to differentiate between the symptoms leading to increased patient safety and prevented further damage. The reduction of ambulatory visits and hospitalisations only for treatment of objectified symptoms may lead to a overall cost reduction in the health care system. The reduction of unnecessary hospitalisations and ambulatory visits might also contribute to an optimised time management.","Older adults with asthma can develop symptoms early in life or during adulthood. Differences between these groups may have diagnostic and therapeutic implications. Our goal was to identify differences in demographics, control, quality of life and healthcare utilization between those with long-standing asthma (LSA) and late-onset asthma (LOA). Data from a cross-sectional study of asthma patients over age 65 were analyzed. LSA or LOA was based on age of diagnosis (before or after age 40). Demographic and asthma specific information were analyzed, and allergy prick tests and lung function testing (spirometry and FENO) were performed. After regression analysis, LSA subjects were more likely to demonstrate positive prick tests (92 versus 71%, p = 0.04), with both groups demonstrating higher levels of atopy than previously reported. LSA subjects were also more likely to have received a peak flow meter (p = 0.07). LOA subjects were more likely to have moderate or severe asthma (OR = 3.1, p = 0.05), and had higher FENO readings (p = 0.02). They also had more hospitalizations (p = 0.04), though significance was lost after regression analysis. No differences were noted in demographic information, medical comorbidities, spirometry, compliance, asthma control, or asthma quality of life between LSA and LOA subjects.","Web use, as a source of health information, has been shown to be associated with anxiety reduction in patients with or at risk for cardiomyopathy, suggesting that Internet technology can be a useful instrument due to its informational power and its potentially therapeutic value.","Poor adherence contributes to uncontrolled asthma. Pragmatic adherence interventions for primary care settings are lacking. To test the effectiveness of 2 brief general practitioner (GP)-delivered interventions for improving adherence and asthma control. In a 6-month cluster randomized 2 × 2 factorial controlled trial, with GP as unit of cluster, we compared inhaler reminders and feedback (IRF) and/or personalized adherence discussions (PADs) with active usual care alone; all GPs received action plan and inhaler technique training. GPs enrolled patients prescribed combination controller inhalers, with suboptimal Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores (ACT score ≤19). Inhaler monitors recorded fluticasone propionate/salmeterol adherence (covertly for non-IRF groups) and, in IRF groups, provided twice-daily reminders for missed doses, and adherence feedback. PAD GPs received communication training regarding adherence. Outcomes collected every 2 months included ACT scores (primary outcome) and severe exacerbations. Intention-to-treat mixed-model analysis incorporated cluster effect and repeated measures. A total of 43 GPs enrolled 143 patients with moderate-severe asthma (mean age, 40.3 ± 15.2 years; ACT score, 14.6 ± 3.8; fluticasone propionate dose, 718 ± 470 μg). Over 6 months, adherence was significantly higher in the IRF group than in non-IRF groups (73% ± 26% vs 46% ± 28% of prescribed daily doses; P < .0001), but not between PAD and non-PAD groups. Asthma control improved overall (mean change in ACT score, 4.5 ± 4.9; P < .0001), with no significant difference among groups (P = .14). Severe exacerbations were experienced by 11% of the patients in IRF groups and 28% of the patients in non-IRF groups (P = .013; after adjustment for exacerbation history; P = .06).","yes. The level of caregiver supervision is an important factor affecting adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Therefore, a high degree of supervision may be required to increase adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma.","yes. Physician estimates of underlying asthma severity appear to determine asthma care. For patients with inadequate symptom control, lower physician estimates of underlying severity were associated with care that is less consistent with national guidelines. To improve the quality of asthma care, physicians need to update treatment based on their patients' current symptoms and adapt care accordingly.","Internet-based disease management programs have the potential to improve patient care. The objective of this study was to determine whether an interactive, internet-based system enabling supervised, patient self-management of oral anticoagulant therapy provided management comparable to an established anticoagulation clinic. Sixty patients receiving chronic oral anticoagulant therapy who had access to the internet and a printer, were enrolled into this prospective, single-group, before-after study from a single clinic and managed between March 2002 and January 2003. Patients learned how to use a home prothrombin time monitor and how to access the system through the internet. Patients used the system for six months, with daily review by the supervising physician. The primary outcome variable was the difference in time in therapeutic range prior to and following introduction of internet-supervised patient self-management. The mean time in therapeutic range increased from 63% in the anticoagulation clinic (control period) to 74.4% during internet-supervised patient self-management (study period). The mean difference score between control and study periods was 11.4% (P = 0.004, 95% confidence interval 5.5-17.3%). There were no hemorrhagic or thromboembolic complications.","The correct use of medication and the ability to assess the severity of the disease and to react appropriately in the case of exacerbation are essential objectives in the management of asthma patients. This study, conducted in a school of asthma in Seine-Saint-Denis, aims to measure the influence of socio-demographic and clinical factors, before any educational process, on these four security skills. A prospective observational study concerning 280 consecutive patients managed between 2008 and 2011 (70 % women, mean age: 44 years [14-85 years]; deprivation: 48 %; born abroad: 39 %, low level of education: 23 %). The initial educational diagnosis was compared with the clinical and socio-demographic characteristics. In relation to asthma control, social characteristics (unemployment, deprivation), geographic or ethnic origin and educational level significantly influence the command of all or some of the security skills. In medical terms, a period of evolution of the disease of less than 10 years, outpatient follow-up without specialized monitoring and the absence of recent exacerbations also appear as predictors of inappropriate conduct in the management of the disease.","The ratio of controller medication to total asthma medications has been related to asthma utilization outcomes, but its relationship to patient-centered outcomes has not been explored. Surveys that included validated asthma quality-of-life, control, and symptom severity tools were completed by a random sample of 2,250 health maintenance organization members aged 18 to 56 years who had persistent asthma. Linked computerized pharmacy data provided dispensing information on beta-agonist canisters and asthma controller medication. The ratio was calculated as the number of controller medications dispensed during the year of the survey divided by the total number medications (ie, inhaled beta-agonist plus controller medications) dispensed. The relationships of the optimal ratio cutoff to patient-centered outcomes and to subsequent acute asthma exacerbations were determined. Mean asthma quality-of-life, asthma control, and symptom severity scale scores were significantly (p < 0.0001) more favorable in patients with ratios of > or = 0.5. After adjusting for demographic characteristics, patients with ratios of > or = 0.5 were significantly less likely to have adverse results regarding asthma quality of life (odds ratio [OR], 0.65; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.52 to 0.80), asthma control (OR, 0.62; 95% CI, 0.50 to 0.77), and symptom severity (OR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.43 to 0.65), and were also less likely to experience subsequent asthma hospitalizations or emergency department visits (OR, 0.44; 95% CI, 0.26 to 0.74) than patients with lower ratios.","This study highlights the important role of health information technology (HIT) on vaso-occlusive pain management for pediatric patients with sickle cell disease and the critical challenges in accommodating human factor considerations in implementing and evaluating HIT effects.","Patient assessment of high quality asthma care delivery was associated with patient self-report of having an asthma action plan but was not associated with any of the publicly reported asthma performance measures.","yes. The Asthma APGAR tools are feasible to implement in primary care practices and their implementation is associated with increased guideline-compliant asthma management.","yes. A computerized reminder letter followed by an autodial recall telephone message is effective in increasing the influenza immunization rate of children with asthma/RAD. Children with significantly higher respiratory morbidity during and in between two influenza epidemics were more likely to be immunized after receiving written and telephone autodial reminders.","Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.","Serial assessment of peak expiratory flow (PEF) rates has been advocated as a sensitive and specific means of investigating occupational asthma. The possibility that, for several reasons, subjects do not accurately report their values has been raised. The availability of portable instruments that assess PEF and store timings and values now make it possible to estimate compliance and accuracy of results. Twenty-one subjects consecutively investigated for occupational asthma were asked to assess their PEF every 2 hours during the day, both at work and away from work, with a VMX instrument (Clement Clarke International, Columbus, Ohio) and record the times and values on a sheet of paper. The subjects were not aware that the data were also being stored on a computer chip. The diagnosis was occupational asthma in eight subjects, personal asthma in four subjects, and neither condition in nine subjects. The mean duration of recording was 36 days (range, 14 to 79 days). At least 6048 values should have been recorded, but only 4839 (80%) were either recorded or stored. Reported values corresponded precisely to stored values in 2533 of 4839 recordings (52%). The timing of the recording was also examined in relation to the time at which the recording was solicited; values recorded within 1 hour of the solicited time were judged as acceptable. Of the total of 3342 recordings stored, 2375 (71%) satisfied this criterion. Compliance was significantly less satisfactory in those referred by the Workers' Compensation Board (n = 11).","This study investigates whether diabetes patients visiting a primary care setting are interested in using a telemonitoring platform and if so, whether characteristics of interested users could be distinguished. Three questionnaires were administered by 92 diabetes persons recruited between May and September 2011. Descriptive statistics and logistic regression analysis were performed. Special attention was drawn to include patients with low educational levels. Patients with middle or high educational levels show quite some interest in the use of a telemonitoring platform, especially for the transmission of glycaemic data or for asking questions. Patients with low educational levels only show a minor interest in using such a platform.","yes. Negotiating patients' treatment decisions significantly improves adherence to asthma pharmacotherapy and clinical outcomes. Clinical trials registered with www.clinicaltrials.gov (NCT00217945 and NCT00149526).","Despite improved understanding of the pathophysiology of asthma, morbidity and mortality continue to rise, with disproportionate increases occurring among urban, indigent minorities. New approaches in the management of asthma are therefore necessary to reverse these dramatic and costly trends. To determine if patients who are admitted to the hospital with acute asthma and receive inpatient education will have improved outpatient follow-up and clinical outcome measures compared with those receiving conventional care. Patients enrolled in the study had a primary admission diagnosis of asthma and were between ages 18 and 45 years. Exclusion criteria included comorbid disease, inability to speak English, absence of a telephone in the primary residence, or pregnancy. Seventy-seven patients admitted from the emergency department with asthma were randomized to either the inpatient educational program (IEP) or routine care (control group). Patients in the IEP received asthma education, bedside spirometry, a telephone call 24 hours after discharge, and scheduled follow-up in an outpatient asthma program within 1 week of discharge. Those individuals randomized to the routine management group received conventional inpatient asthma care and routine follow-up. The patients enrolled in the IEP had a markedly higher follow-up rate compared with outpatient appointments (60% vs. 27%; P = .01) and significantly fewer emergency department visits (P = .04) and hospitalizations (P = .04) for asthma in the 6 months following IEP intervention, as compared with control patients. This represented a substantial cost savings to the managed care organization.","Exploratory study aimed to examine differences in family interaction patterns during a routine mealtime between overweight, at-risk for overweight, and average weight children with asthma. Eighty families of children with asthma, aged 5-12 years, were videotaped during a mealtime in their homes. The videotapes were rated using the McMaster Mealtime Family Interaction Coding System (MICS). Structural aspects of the meal such as presence of sugary drinks and whether the television was on were also coded. Significant differences were found on the MICS with families of children with asthma who were overweight scoring lower on task accomplishment, affect management, interpersonal involvement, and roles. Families of overweight children with asthma also displayed an increased presence of sugary beverages, shorter meal length, and fewer adults at the table.","yes. Patient management domains with the greatest room for discretion (investigations, comorbid diagnoses, and treatment with ICS among children with normal lung function) are most heavily influenced by physician specialty. These results have implications for asthma management at the patient level and in future practice guidelines.","Accuracy and reliability of diary data collected in allergic rhinitis trials depends on how and when the information is recorded by the subjects. To compare diary data collected by using paper (optical mark readable) and electronic [telephone, interactive voice response system (IVRS)] tools. There was a randomized, 3-week, 3-way, crossover trial, in 87 adults with allergic rhinitis recording diary data at home. Outcome measures were (1) comparison of symptom data during weeks when both or only 1 instrument was used; (2) missing data: and (3) ease of use and participant preference. More than 40,000 symptom data elements were recorded by 72 protocol-correct subjects. Symptoms recorded during the week that both instruments were used and when the 2 instruments were used alone were indistinguishable. Overall, 0.45% of paper and 4.12% of IVRS symptom data were missing. Of 10,080 paired data collected on paper and IVRS diaries during the week in which subjects used both, 94.44% were identical. Using IVRS, 63.2% of protocol-correct data were entered within the designated time and 87.6% within 1 half-day of the time specified; 85% of subjects preferred the paper instrument, 4% preferred IVRS, and 11% had no preference.","General practitioners (GP) in rural areas of Germany are struggling to find successors for their private practices. Telemonitoring at home offers an option to support remaining GPs and specialists in ambulatory care. We assessed the knowledge and attitude towards telemedicine in the population of North Rhine-Westphalia (NRW), Germany, in a population-based telephone survey. Out of 2,006 participants, 734 (36.6%) reported an awareness of telemedical devices. Only 37 participants (1.8%) have experience in using them. The majority of participants were in favour of using them in case of illness (72.2%). However, this approval declined with age. These findings were similar in rural and urban areas. Participants who were in favour of telemedicine (n = 1,480) strongly agreed that they would have to see their doctor less often, and that the doctor would recognize earlier relevant changes in their vital status. Participants who disliked to be monitored by telemedical devices preferred to receive immediate feedback from their physician. Especially, the elderly fear the loss of personal contact with their physician. They need the direct patient-physician communication.","Poor asthma outcomes often result from patients not following physician medication recommendations (ie, nonadherence). Estimates suggest that 50% of patients with asthma do not follow physician medication recommendations. To examine the rationale for making available objective medication adherence monitors for physicians to improve the quality of care for patients with severe persistent asthma. Review of the literature was undertaken in the following areas related to asthma: cost, morbidity, adherence, adherence monitoring, outcomes, and guidelines. Patients with severe asthma are at risk for nonadherence because of (1) the use of multiple medications to control symptoms, (2) coexisting disease states, (3) the occurrence of depression and anxiety, and (4) the high cost of care. Research studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of objective monitoring as part of multiple clinical strategies to improve adherence and reduce morbidity and the cost of asthma care. Without objective adherence monitoring, physicians may not accurately assess nonadherence as the cause of treatment failure. This may lead to inappropriate increases in therapy, diagnostic studies, and consultations and may leave the patient at risk for persistent symptoms, morbidity, and death.","Adult patients are vulnerable to several triggers regardless from underlying severity of the illness. Insufficient compliance to the major preventive measures indicates that new strategies are needed to prevent asthma attacks caused by modifiable triggers.","yes. Telehealth had good uptake and increased clinic attendance in adults with CF living in rural and remote WA, and had high satisfaction amongst participants. The increase in HCU, resulting from increased detection and treatment of exacerbations, may improve long-term outcomes in this population.","yes. (1) A relationship can be observed between the functioning of the asthmatic patient's family and the severity of the patient's declared dyspnea. Dyspnea constitutes a specific form of emotional communication in the inter-spouse relationships. (2) An analysis of the severity of dyspnea in asthmatic patients should take into account the context of the functioning of the patient's family.","Primary care asthma management is often not compatible with national evidence-based guidelines. The objective of this study was to assess the feasibility and impact of the Asthma APGAR tools to enhance implementation of asthma guideline-compatible management in primary care practices. Twenty-four primary care practices across the US. This is a mixed methods study. Quantitative data were used to assess changes in guideline recommended asthma management including use of daily controller therapy, planned care visits, and education and information documentation before and after implementation of the Asthma APGAR. Qualitative data from focus group sessions were used to assess health care professional and patient perceived usability and value of the Asthma APGAR tools during office visits for asthma. Implementing the Asthma APGAR tools in the 24 practices was associated with enhanced asthma visit-related medical record documentation including significant increases in recording of activity limitations due to asthma and asthma symptom frequency, asthma medication nonadherence, asthma triggers, and the patients' perceived response to therapy (p < 0.01 for each item). Some care processes also increased significantly including assessment of inhaler technique and prescribing of daily controller therapy among patients with persistent asthma. Focus groups of patients and of clinical staff reported that the Asthma APGAR tools were easy to use, \"made sense\" and \"improved care\" was given and received.","A substantial number of adult patients with asthma are inadequately controlled despite the availability of effective asthma treatment. Patients and physicians seem to overestimate the level of asthma control. The current study explores whether valid differentiation is possible between asthma patients with controlled and uncontrolled asthma symptoms, on the basis of the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ). In this multi-centre, cross-sectional study, patients were classified according to Global Initiative for Asthma criteria into levels of asthma symptom control based on a diary card registration. We defined Step 1 ('well controlled' asthma symptoms), Step 2 ('moderately controlled'), Step 3 ('poorly controlled') and Step 4 ('very poorly controlled'). These control steps were related with the sum score of the ACQ. From 108 asthma patients complete data were obtained. The Step 1 subgroup comprised 17 patients; Step 2, 12 patients; Step 3, 22 patients; and Step 4, 57 patients. Receiver Operating Characteristic curve analysis showed that the optimal ACQ sum score cut-off value to differentiate between Step 1 and Steps 2, 3 and 4 was three points (sensitivity: 84%, specificity: 76%). For Steps 1 and 2 versus Steps 3 and 4, this was four points (sensitivity: 77%, specificity: 59%). For Steps 1, 2 and 3 versus Step 4, this was six points (sensitivity: 70%, specificity: 74%).","The study supports the more individualized goals of the recently revised British Guidelines for Asthma Management but highlights the need to develop this further in future revisions. It also provides an explanation for patients' acceptance of less than 'perfect' asthma control and it suggests that shared goals may be achieved in practice by considering the advantages and disadvantages of medication and allergen avoidance on everyday life rather than on asthma.","When the Turkish version of the ACT was administered via either the paper-and-pencil or text messaging test, scores were closely associated with physician assessments of asthma control.","Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).","In primary care, light forms of asthma are most commonly monitored. We found low concordance with the GINA 2002 directives. IC are widely used, but often at incorrect doses. We insist on the importance of classifying asthma according to its gravity in order to prescribe the right treatment.","The National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute asthma guidelines recommend that parents communicate with a clinician during childhood asthma exacerbations when symptoms worsen or do not improve with initial therapy. This study tested the hypothesis that communication by parents with a clinician before an Emergency Department visit was associated with more appropriate medication administration for children with asthma exacerbations. This was a retrospective cohort study using data gathered from parents of children presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department. The communicating cohort included parents who communicated by telephone with a clinician during the exacerbation and the non-communicating cohort included parents who did not. Multivariate logistic regression models were used to test three hypotheses; communication with a clinician is associated with (1) administration of short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs), (2) increased dosing frequency of SABAs, and (3) administration of an oral corticosteroid. A total of 199 subjects were enrolled, with 104 (52.3%) in the communicating and 95 (47.7%) in the non-communicating cohort. There was an association between communication and provider practice type, with children who received routine care from a private practice provider more likely to communicate with the clinician than children in hospital-based clinics or community health centers (Adjusted OR 1.9, 95% CI 1.0-3.7). Impoverished children and children insured by Medicaid were less likely to communicate with a clinician (controlling for provider type). Parents who communicated with a clinician were more likely to administer a SABA (adjusted OR 3.6, 95% CI 1.3-9.4) and an oral corticosteroid (adjusted OR 3.3, 95% CI 1.3-8.4) but were not more likely to administer a SABA with increased dosing frequency (adjusted OR 0.9, 95% CI 0.5-1.6).","Many medical records do not include the basic clinical information required to assess asthma severity, adherence to asthma therapy or the response to therapy. This lack of information makes implementation of asthma care guidelines impossible. Therefore, these measures may be useful baseline quality indicators to begin the process of improving asthma care.","yes. Patients with poor navigational ability are likely to have poor inhaler technique and limited understanding of ICS function, as well as limited numeracy and print literacy. Clinicians should consider these elements of self-management for their effect on asthma care and as a marker of more general health literacy deficits.","To determine whether differences exist in the monitoring, diagnosis and treatment of asthmatic patients between family doctors (FD) and pneumology specialists (PD). A descriptive crossover study, performed through an interview with the patients and a medical exploration. Six health centres. 195 asthmatic patients between 14 and 65, chosen by simple random sampling from among all those registered by computer in the SICAP. Each patient answered a structured interview and had a spirometry test. Which doctor usually monitored their illness, social and demographic data, morbidity parameters, treatment prescribed and their compliance with it, were all determined. 66% of patients were under their FD. No differences were found in the clinical characteristics of patients treated by their FD against those treated by their PD.","The specific aim of this investigation was to evaluate the proficiency of health care providers and patients in the proper use of metered-dose inhalers. Health care providers, which include house staff, nurses, and respiratory care practitioners who provide care to patients with asthma in the primary general medicine clinic or the pulmonary medicine clinic of a university-county hospital in which patients were referred, were surveyed and assigned a performance score regarding the knowledge base of the appropriate use of metered-dose inhalers. Patients who attended the primary care general medicine and pulmonary subspecialty clinic were also assessed as to their proficiency in the use of metered-dose inhalers. A significant percentage of patients had a poor understanding of the technique used with the metered-dose inhaler. House staff and nursing staff were also less proficient in the proper use of the metered-dose inhaler. The respiratory care practitioners were the most knowledgeable of the health care providers.","To determine the association between patient assessment of healthcare delivery and publicly reported asthma performance measures. We identified individuals 5-50 years old who had asthma quality measures reported to the Minnesota Community Measurement© (MCM©) by their clinic and sent them a postal survey which included within it the Patient Assessment of Chronic Illness care (PACIC), a validated measure of patient perception of the quality of healthcare delivery. We performed a multivariable analysis to examine the association between PACIC scores and achievement of asthma care quality measures. The response rate for the ACS was 102/367 (28%); a non-response bias analysis revealed no differences between responders and non-responders for age, gender and asthma control. Most responders (73%) reported taking asthma medications daily and most (71%) had poorly controlled asthma. The PACIC score was not associated with any of the asthma quality measures based on the data reported to MCM© by the clinic. A higher PACIC score was, however, associated with having an asthma action plan based on patient-reported data in the ACS (p < 0.0001) but not with patient-reported asthma control or emergency department/hospitalizations for asthma.","yes. This pragmatic telephone-based peer-training intervention reduced asthma impairment. Asthma risk was reduced in children with Medicaid insurance.","Patients found the automated interactive calling, combined with a health risk forecast, both viable and useful, welcoming the information and tools it offered. In many cases, it added to patients' understanding of their illness and promoted better self-management. Future research should focus on the potential impact of the service in terms of health outcomes and cost-effectiveness.","Childhood asthma morbidity remains significant, especially in low-income children. Most often, asthma management is provided by the child's primary care provider. We sought to evaluate whether enhancing primary care management for persistent asthma with telephone-based peer coaching for parents reduced asthma impairment and risk in children 3 to 12 years old. Over 12 months, peer trainers provided parents with asthma management training by telephone (median, 18 calls) and encouraged physician partnership. The intervention was evaluated in a cluster-randomized trial of 11 intervention and 11 usual care pediatric practices (462 and 486 families, respectively). Patient outcomes were assessed by means of telephone interviews at 12 and 24 months conducted by observers blinded to intervention assignment and compared by using mixed-effects models, controlling for baseline values and clustering within practices. In a planned subgroup analysis we examined the heterogeneity of the intervention effect by insurance type (Medicaid vs other). After 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 20.9 (95% CI, 9.1-32.7) more symptom-free days per child than in the control group, and there was no difference in emergency department (ED) visits. After 24 months, ED visits were reduced (difference in mean visits/child, -0.28; 95% CI, -0.5 to -0.02), indicating a delayed intervention effect. In the Medicaid subgroup, after 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 42% fewer ED visits (difference in mean visits/child, -0.50; 95% CI, -0.81 to -0.18) and 62% fewer hospitalizations (difference in mean hospitalizations/child, -0.16; 95% CI, -0.30 to -0.014). Reductions in health care use endured through 24 months.","To determine if the use of the whistle watch (WW), a simple device to monitor peak flow rate, affects the use of bronchodilators at home. Prospective, randomised, crossover design. The asthma outpatients' clinic at Coronation Hospital, a tertiary care centre in Johannesburg. Children between 6 and 18 years of age with moderate or severe asthma for more than a year were enrolled. They were randomised into two groups, with bronchodilator use determined either by the WW or solely by the patient's perceived symptomatology. The patients acted as their own controls, switching over to the other group after 30 days. Eighty patients were enrolled into the study. Forty-three patients completed the study (54%). There were no significant differences between these patients and those who did not complete the study in terms of sex, age and treatment characteristics. There was a significant reduction in the mean monthly number of bronchodilator doses used by the WW group (5.5 doses v. 16.81 doses, paired t-test, t = 3.64, P < 0.001, 95% confidence interval (CI) 6.1-16.55). The change in individual participants varied between 13 extra bronchodilator doses and 71 fewer doses per month with the use of the WW device.","As of 2003, approximately 67% of US adults have Internet access. The purpose of this study was to determine the feasibility and preliminary efficacy of an Internet-based dyspnea self-management program (iDSMP) for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A related aim was to compare the differential effects of the iDSMP on 2 different groups: (1) to test a \"booster\" effect and (2) to evaluate the program as a primary intervention. Two groups (n = 16) were evaluated at baseline and at 3 months after completing the iDSMP, which included education, exercise, self-monitoring, and support. Dyspnea, self-efficacy, perception of available support, and exercise behavior were measured. Paired, independent t tests and Mann-Whitney U tests were used. Most subjects (87%) reported that the program increased their access to information and resources for managing dyspnea. Dyspnea with activities of daily living and self-efficacy for managing the symptom showed significant improvements (both P<.01), whereas more modest changes were noted in perceived support and exercise behavior in the overall sample. There were no differences between the 2 groups on these outcomes.","Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.","Early treatment of worsening chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) symptoms speeds recovery, improves quality of life, and reduces the need for hospitalization. Patients may fail to recognize worsening symptoms leading to delays in treatment. A telemedicine application could facilitate detection and treatment of worsening symptoms. To work, such an application requires consistent use by patients and quick responses from healthcare providers. We conducted a quality assurance assessment of our system to see if we were meeting these goals. Thirty patients were provided a smartphone application for daily COPD symptom reporting. Reports between November 2012 and September 2013 were reviewed. Symptoms reports and interventions were time-stamped by the application. Adherence reporting was calculated as the number of reports made divided by the number of days enrolled in the program for each patient. Time to intervention was calculated as the time a report was submitted to the time a treatment recommendation was sent to the patient. There were 4,434 symptom reports made over 5,178 patient-days of observation for an average reporting compliance of 85.6%. Median reporting compliance was 90.7% (interquartile range, 83.8-98%). Four hundred seventy-five symptom reports resulted in an alert. The average response time for all alerts was 6.64 h, with a median response time of 5.75 h.","Earlier detection of acute exacerbations (AE) of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could reduce emergency admissions and hospitalisations. Studies investigating COPD management programs supported by telehealthcare (THC) have shown conflicting results. To test the feasibility, safety and acceptance of THC for COPD. Patients daily filled out an online questionnaire focused on the detection of AECOPD. The THC platform is integrated in a comprehensive electronic patient data repository, which has to be available for all patients in Switzerland by law by 2017. The study team called the patient by phone in case of suspected AECOPD. Of 339 screened patients, 14% were included. Main reasons for exclusion were missing technical equipment and unwillingness to participate in a study (50%). Data completeness was 88%; 94% completed the study. The current THC approach triggered 230 telephone calls, which led to the verification of 60 AECOPD in 22 patients. Three AECOPD were not detected. Sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value of the questionnaire-based THC approach in detecting AECOPD was 95, 98, 26 and 99.9%, respectively. Overall patient satisfaction in respect to their health condition improved significantly (VAS 8-8.7; p = 0.002).","Asthma is an example of a common, chronic illness in which clinicians are encouraged to promote concordance and adhere to guidelines. Some existing research suggests that these aims may be incompatible. To describe patient goals for life and for asthma management in order to inform concordance with people with asthma. A cross-sectional, qualitative survey. A purposive sample of 47 adults with asthma from Dundee, UK. The subjects were identified from general practice asthma registers and had a range of ages and asthma severity but no significant comorbidity. Tape-recorded semi-structured interviews. The topic guide was based on the literature and had been piloted in a previous study. The participants focussed on improving their lives, only aiming to improve their asthma as a means of improving their lives. Three aspects of asthma were reported to help or hinder improving life: the use of asthma medication, trigger avoidance and exercise. People integrated these three aspects of asthma in order to maximize life.","yes. A Web-based telemedicine system can be a useful tool facilitating the management of pregnant diabetes patients, as a complement to conventional outpatient clinic visits.","According to guidelines, inhaler technique should be tested in all patients, particularly those with poorly controlled asthma. We aimed to assess uncontrolled asthma patients' ability to use a pressurised metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) using the Aerosol Inhalation Monitor (AIM, © Vitalograph). Practices invited patients for a detailed clinical review by trained asthma nurses according to practice-agreed protocols. Reviews took place from 1st April to 30th June 2008, and included checking of inhaler technique. Reasons for invitations included, time since last review, asthma control, prescriptions, adherence to medical advice. A proxy measure of control--the total number of short-acting β2-agonist (SABA) bronchodilator inhaler canisters prescribed in the previous 12 months--was used. Data on 77 pre-determined clinical parameters (including prescribing and healthcare utilisation data) were collected. Patient-completed postal symptom questionnaires (the RCP 3 questions) were obtained in some patients. All patients using pMDIs had at least two assessments using the AIM, and where appropriate inhaler technique education was provided. 2123 (24% of those invited) symptomatic asthma patients were reviewed; 1291 (61%) were using pMDIs (mean age 52 years; SD 21), of whom over 80% were in BTS/SIGN Steps 2 and 3. 1092 (85.6%) of those patients using pMDIs failed the first AIM assessment. There was a significant increase in the number of patients able to use their pMDIs correctly following instruction after the second (129 to 260 of 1197 patients, p<0.01) and third (61 to 181 of 528 patients, p< 0.01) tests. However, 78.4% and 65.7% of those tested twice and three times, respectively, failed the AIM assessment despite instruction. Logistic regression analysis failed to show any effect of age and BTS step on these outcomes.","Guidelines from the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program stipulate that multicomponent self-management interventions for asthma should include a written action plan (WAP). However the specific, independent effect of WAPs in improving outcomes remains unclear. To measure the association between WAP use during the previous year and improved asthma outcomes. We conducted a longitudinal quasi-experimental study using data from the Healthy Homes II (HH-II) randomized controlled trial in Seattle, WA. Action plan use during the previous year was measured at exit of HH-II. A participant was a WAP user if he used his action plan every day, almost every day, or once per week, and non-user if he did not meet these criteria. Sensitivity analyses explored less stringent criteria for WAP user designation. Prespecified outcomes were baseline-to-exit changes in asthma control in the previous 2 weeks, Pediatric Asthma Caregiver Quality of Life Scale score, and urgent health services utilization. We used robust linear and logistic regression to compare outcomes across groups. Two hundred fifty-one patients participated: 112 WAP users; 139 non-users. After adjustment, no significant differences in outcomes were observed between WAP users and non-users. Among a subgroup of participants with recent urgent health services utilization, WAP users had better asthma control than non-users. Changing WAP user criteria to include those who simply owned an action plan, irrespective of use, did not alter our results.","Internet-based applications are becoming more common in our modern world. While electronic health records (EHR) are available for patients and health care providers outside of Germany, most of the available data on EHR address only monetary advantages.This study explores whether or not internet-based communication between family physicians (FP) and patients is as safe as traditional oral communication and if it may lead to further benefits. 500 patients from 14 family doctors' offices were included in this 6 months RCT. Both groups were treated in the same manner by their respective physicians, but members of the study group (SG) were able to access an individual developed web-based software where they could view their diagnosis and medication, and send an electronic message to their doctors who would respond. Their satisfication with the FP, certain health data and the FP's workload were recorded. a) Patients' satisfaction: When e.g. asked about the organization of the family practice or trust in the doctor, there were no significant differences between the control (CG) and the SG (p = 0.07; p = 0.53). However, patients of the SG felt better informed (p = 0.01), and generally more satisfied with their FP (p = 0.04). b) FP workload: Members of the CG had 8.44 contacts with their doctors during the study, while the SG only had 7.96 recorded contacts (including web-based contacts, p = 0.32). It took physicians 3:52 minutes less to read and respond to an electronic message than to see a patient during the consultation hours. c) Changes in patients' health: During the study the blood pressure (BP) in the CG rose 4.44/2.80 mmHg, while it dropped 3.13/4.36 mmHg in the SG (p = 0.19/0.01).The HbA(1C) dropped in both groups (p = 0.91). One week after the first visit to the family doctor, patients of the SG rated their pain 0.28 points lower on a VAS than the CG (p = 0.75). 91% from the CG and 96% from the SG requested the re-prescription of long-term medication on time (p = 0.16).","To determine whether a previously-validated touch screen computer program of symptoms and management of childhood asthma is acceptable to parents who accompany their children to consult a GP, and to examine whether any parent characteristics are associated with acceptability. Conducted in general practice in Newcastle, NSW, Australia. A cross sectional pen and paper survey was given to parents of children consulting a GP after completing the computer questionnaire on childhood asthma in the waiting room. Measurements were frequencies of Likert scale responses to statements concerning the computer questionnaire, compared with demographic and personal characteristics. High levels of acceptability of the asthma computer questionnaire were reported by the 198 respondents, with most being willing to do the same program once or twice a year (87%), or to do similar programs on other topics (91%). Most respondents (81%) agreed that the computer program was enjoyable, and very few (8%) would have preferred to answer the asthma questions by pen and paper rather than by computer. Two or more children accompanying the parent was the characteristic most associated with less positive responses.","Descriptive, cross-sectional study. An urban primary care center. 141 patients with asthma. Performance of a practical test to evaluate each step in IT for different devices according to SEPAR-semFYC guidelines. One point was scored for each step that was performed correctly, and the technique was considered correct if the total score was>9. The main outcome variable was the percentage of patients who performed the IT correctly. About three-fourths of the participants (77.3%) were women; mean age was 56.08 +/- 18.99 years. Inhalation technique was incorrect in 53.9% of the patients (51.06% of those who used a pressurized canister inhaler, 59.1% of those who used a PCI+spacer, 38.5% of those who used a Turbuhaler, and 37.5% of those who used an Accuhaler). The highest error rates were seen in exhaling completely before beginning the inhalation (63.78%), holding the breath after inhalation for as long as possible (65.94%), and breathing out slowly after the inhalation (64.86%). Better IT was seen in younger patients with higher levels of education (P=.007). There were no statistically significant differences in the rest of the variables.","In a real-life setting,>40% of subjects with mild/moderate asthma are currently treated by protocols based on the results of RCTs for which they would not have been eligible. This proportion increases in elderly patients with comorbidities. These findings limit the generalizability of RCTs and advocate that complementary pragmatic studies be conducted. © 2015 S. Karger AG, Basel.","Self-management of moderate-to-severe asthma depends on the patient's ability to (1) navigate (access health care to obtain diagnoses and treatment), (2) use inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) properly, and (3) understand ICS function. We sought to test whether navigation skills (medication recall, knowledge of copay requirements, and ability to provide information needed for a medical visit about a persistent cough unresponsive to medication) are related to other self-management skills and health literacy. A 21-item Navigating Ability (NAV2) questionnaire was developed, validated, and then read to adults with moderate-to-severe asthma. ICS technique was evaluated by using scales derived from instructions in national guidelines; knowledge of ICS function was evaluated by using a validated 10-item questionnaire. Spearman correlation was computed between NAV2 score and these questionnaires and with numeracy (Asthma Numeracy Questionnaire) and print literacy (Short Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults). Two hundred fifty adults participated: age, 51 ± 13 years; 72% female; 65% African American; 10% Latino; 50% with household income of less than $30,000/y; 47% with no more than a 12th-grade education; and 29% experienced hospitalizations for asthma in the prior year. A higher NAV2 score was associated with correct ICS technique (ρ = 0.24, P = .0002), knowledge of ICSs (ρ = 0.35, P < .001), better print literacy (ρ = 0.44, P < .001), and numeracy (ρ = 0.41, P < .001).","In stable, optimized COPD patients who have already completed PR, telemonitoring in addition to best care, reduces primary care chest contacts but not hospital or specialist team utilization.","Patient decision aids (PDAs) are used in shared decision making to improve practitioner-patient communication and help patients decide about treatment options. To develop a PDA for adults with asthma considering inhaled corticosteroids, with or without long-acting beta2-agonists, to optimize asthma control. The PDA was developed based on the International Patient Decision Aid Standards. Step 1: PDA was drafted. Step 2: PDA acceptability was assessed among target users, certified asthma educators (CAEs) and adults with asthma, following an iterative process. a) Participants read the PDA, b) rated its presentation, length, balance, and perceived usefulness, indicated what they liked/disliked about it, and made suggestions for improvement. c) Based on results from (b), PDA was refined. This process was repeated with new participants until no suggestions were made. Step 3: The PDA was field tested with target users. Interviews with CAEs were conducted to identify areas of improvement. Step 4: Final PDA version was written. A color-printed, 4-page, letter-sized PDA was drafted. Acceptability testing involved 11 CAEs (women, n = 10) and 20 adults with asthma (women, n = 13; age 22-61 years). Five successive refined versions were produced. Major changes were made to PDA terminology, instructions, paper size, and visual presentation. Two CAEs (women, n = 2) and 26 adults with asthma (women, n = 19; age 20-65 years) field tested PDA. Minor changes were made to language and instructions to ensure usability. The final version was a color-printed, 12-page, A3-sized booklet.","Three in four cancer outpatients under treatment have access to the Internet and half use websites dedicated to health topics, with an impact of the age and the socioeconomic class level. Developing e-communication tools between caregivers and patients might be considered to improve their home monitoring.","yes. An audiovisual reminder function can significantly improve adherence with ICS therapy in adult asthma.","To explore the extent to which telemonitoring in patients with heart failure empowers them to self-care. Telemonitoring is increasingly used to provide structured follow-up. In patients with heart failure it has been shown to reduce mortality. However there is limited knowledge of the extent to which it supports the patient to develop self-care skills. A qualitative study including interviews with patients at 2 time-points. Fifteen patients mean age 74, 11 (73%) male, 9 (60%) symptomatic on moderate activity, 6 (40%) symptomatic on mild exertion were interviewed at two time points: firstly following three months of telemonitoring and the second interview following six months of telemonitoring. Thematic analysis of the data was undertaken using constant comparison. Patients undertook a variety of self-care actions. During the three-month interview technological skills featured highly in patients accounts and they used telemonitoring to facilitate professional monitoring. However, during the six-month interview patients described how they used telemonitoring to support their self-care actions. Such actions were based on the understanding of heart failure that patients developed from their personal experience of symptoms, and their interaction with the telemonitoring and the telemonitoring nurse. We found no difference in self-care actions regardless of patients age, severity of their heart failure, time since diagnosis with heart failure or living alone.","The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.","To determine whether well trained lay people could deliver asthma self-management education with comparable outcomes to that achieved by primary care based practice nurses. Randomised equivalence trial. 39 general practices in West London and North West England. 567 patients with asthma who were on regular maintenance therapy. 15 lay educators were recruited and trained to deliver asthma self-management education. An initial consultation of up to 45 min offered either by a lay educator or a practice based primary care nurse, followed by a second shorter face to face consultation and telephone follow-up for 1 year. Unscheduled need for healthcare. Patient satisfaction and need for courses of oral steroids. 567 patients were randomised to care by a nurse (n = 287) or a lay educator (n = 280) and 146 and 171, respectively, attended the first face to face educational session. During the first two consultations, management changes were made in 35/146 patients seen by a practice nurse (24.0%) and in 56/171 patients (32.7%) seen by a lay educator. For 418/567 patients (73.7%), we have 1 year data on use of unscheduled healthcare. Under an intention to treat approach, 61/205 patients (29.8%) in the nurse led group required unscheduled care compared with 65/213 (30.5%) in the lay led group (90% CI for difference -8.1% to 6.6%; 95% CI for difference -9.5% to 8.0%). The 90% CI contained the predetermined equivalence region (-5% to +5%) giving an inconclusive result regarding the equivalence of the two approaches. Despite the fact that all patients had been prescribed regular maintenance therapy, 122/418 patients (29.2%) required courses of steroid tablets during the course of 1 year. Patient satisfaction following the initial face to face consultation was similar in both groups.","The opportunity to use the Internet to monitor patients with chronic disease can serve as a challenge to reduce the digital divide gap and, furthermore, to increase their social and technological inclusion.","Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).","Overall the high acceptability of this questionnaire suggests that this computerised format is an appropriate method of screening children for asthma and determining their current management. As a large component of underdiagnosis of asthma is lack of reporting to the doctor, this valid and acceptable diagnostic aid has the potential to improve detection of unreported asthma, and also to identify high-risk individuals.","Test-retest reliability of an asthma paper diary versus an electronic diary (e-diary) with an integrated peak flow meter was investigated. The equivalence of the two modes was also evaluated. Prospective, randomized crossover study design in adolescents (12-17 years) and adults (≥18 years). Key inclusion criteria were persistent asthma, Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores ≥16, use of inhaled corticosteroid with or without long-acting beta-agonist for ≥12 weeks, nocturnal awakenings <2 times in the past week, and activity limitations <1 per week. Participants were randomized to either paper then e-diary or e-diary then paper, to be completed for 14 days each. Forty-seven participants completed all study visits. Weekly percentage of symptom-free days (SFDs) and rescue-free days (RFDs) were calculated. Intraclass correlation coefficients (ICCs) of Week 1 mean SFD and RFD (test) and Week 2 mean SFD and RFD (retest), respectively, were estimated in three groups defined as stable: (i) minimal changes in asthma symptoms, as measured by the global patient reported symptom change question, (ii) less than 15% change (absolute value) in 1 second FEV(1) at adjacent study visits, and (iii) changes in ACT scores less than three points for each mode. SFD demonstrated acceptable ICC (≥0.70) using all three definitions of asthma stability for both modes.","A study was undertaken to investigate the compliance with and accuracy of peak flow diaries in childhood asthma. Forty asthmatic children (5-16 years) were asked to perform peak flow measurements twice daily for 4 weeks by means of an electronic peak flow meter and to record values in a written diary. Patients and parents were unaware that the device stored the peak flow values on a microchip. In random order, half of the patients were only told that the device allowed for more accurate assessment of peak flow while the other half were told that accurate recording of peak flow was important because the results would be used in guiding adjustments to treatment. Data in the written diary (reported data) were compared with those from the electronic diary (actual data). In the entire study population the mean (SD) actual compliance (77.1 (20.5)%) was much lower than the mean reported compliance (95.7 (9.1)%) (95% CI for difference 12.7% to 24.4%) The percentage of correct peak flow entries decreased from 56% to <50% from the first to the last study week (p<0.04), mainly as a result of an increase in self-invented peak flow entries. Results were comparable for both groups. For incorrect peak flow entries the mean difference between written and electronically recorded entries ranged from -72 to 34 l/min per patient.","This study aimed to establish whether the outpatient management of patients presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department (ED) was in compliance with the 1992 guidelines of the \"International Consensus Report on the Diagnosis and Management of Asthma.\" Prospective, observational study using a researcher-administered questionnaire. University tertiary referral ED. Convenience sample of asthmatics (aged 18 to 54 years) presenting for asthma treatment between July 1, 1997, and June 30, 1998. Eighty-five asthmatic patients were enrolled. Of these, 34 patients (40%) smoked, 53 patients (62%) were undertreated with medication when compared to the consensus guidelines, and 74 patients (87%) had no written \"plan of action.\" During an asthma attack, 9 patients (11%) did not use a bronchodilator as first-line action and 76 patients (89%) did not commence or increase the use of an inhaled steroid. Forty-nine patients (58%) did not know that bronchospasm occurred in asthma, and 53 patients (62%) did not know that bronchial swelling occurred. Twenty-six patients (31%) thought short-acting bronchodilator drugs were asthma preventers. Sixty-two patients (73%) could not adequately define peak expiratory flow (PF), 41 patients (48%) did not own a PF meter, and only 8 patients (9%) determined their PF daily. Fifty-three patients (62%) were reviewed by a physician once a year or less, and 18 patients (21%) noted family and friends as their only source of asthma education.","There is widespread interest in using phone-based and email/Internet-based telehealth among patients with chronic diseases, regardless of their health status, access difficulties, age, or many other sociodemographic factors. This interest could be increased by helping patients gain confidence using technologies and through highlighting benefits and addressing concerns about telehealth. While the same pattern exists for social media telehealth, interest in using these technologies is minimal.","Does telehealth reduce the hospital admission rate and cost for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Randomised controlled trial with concealed allocation. The participants' homes in Aalborg, Denmark. Participants were linked with healthcare professionals at primary and secondary healthcare facilities using telehealth technology. Adults were included if they had severe or very severe COPD, lived in Aalborg, and were free from other diseases that limited function (eg, heart disease). Randomisation allocated 60 to the intervention group and 51 to the control group. Participants in the intervention group had a telehealth monitoring device installed in their home for four months and were taught how to monitor their symptoms, measure clinical data (eg, spirometry), use a step counter, and given instructions about home exercise. Healthcare professionals accessed the data to monitor their disease and provide advice. Once a month, the telehealth team met via video to co-ordinate and discuss each participant's rehabilitation program. Those in the control group were instructed regarding home exercises but had no planned contact with healthcare professionals. Hospital admission rate and cost of hospitalisation over a 10-month period. A total of 105 participants completed the study. Over the follow-up period, the admission rate per patient was lower in the intervention group compared with the control group (0.49 vs 1.17, p = 0.041). The cost of hospitalisations appeared to be lower in the intervention group.","In summary, the majority of patients used telemonitoring daily and developed self-care skills in monitoring their heart failure. Such skills were developed over the six-month time-period of the study.","yes. PATIENTS will use internet technology to report their perceptions of health-related adverse events. Some of the patient-reported events reported will be serious.","yes. This novel approach of internet-supervised patient self-management improved time in therapeutic range compared to an anticoagulation clinic. This is the first demonstration of an internet-based expert system enabling remote and effective management of patients on oral anticoagulants. Expert systems may be applicable for management of other chronic diseases.","Electronic implementation of questionnaires has many advantages, but there may be concerns that it alters versions that were validated on paper. To determine whether electronic implementation alters responses to the SF-36 and asthma quality of life questionnaire (AQLQ), compared to paper implementation. Patients with asthma presenting to a pneumologist were asked for consent to participate. Each patient completed both forms of each questionnaire. The order of presentation was alternated sequentially, with the first patient completing the electronic version first. Each patient waited at least 2 hours between completions to minimize recollection of answers. For both the SF-36 and AQLQ, intraclass correlations coefficients were calculated to compare patients' scores, for each scale and overall, on the electronic and paper versions. Sixty-eight patients (mean age: 48 years, 50 females) of 311 contacted were enrolled. Overall intraclass correlation coefficients for the SF-36 and AQLQ were excellent (0.965 and 0.991 respectively). For paper versions, eight questions (AQLQ) and 24 (SF-36) were left blank and nine questions (SF-36) were answered incorrectly by patients selecting more than one answer. Electronic data for one patient could not be retrieved.","It is possibly worthwhile to implement a telemonitoring platform in a primary care setting; however this study did not show immediate profit for implementation in a CHC that organises diabetes clinics on regular basis. In primary care settings where it will be implemented, even if there is a social-digital divide today, the use of a telemonitoring platform could possibly reduce inequity in health care as time could become available for those most in need for face-to-face contact with their physician.","yes. Telehealth can be used to estimate ED visits for respiratory illness at the health unit level. Non-linear modeling methods produced better estimates than regression in larger health units.","Patients using practice-based Internet communication and having significant health risks can be identified through the use of administrative data, presenting an opportunity to test online educational efforts to improve health.","Originally, the Asthma Control Test (ACT) was designed for English-speaking patients using a paper-and-pencil format. The Turkish version of the ACT was recently validated. This article compares the paper-and-pencil and web-based texting formats of the Turkish version of the ACT and evaluates the compatibility of these ACT scores with GINA-based physician assessments of asthma control. This multicentre prospective study included 431 asthma patients from outpatient clinics in Turkey. The patients were randomized into a paper-and-pencil group (n = 220) and a text messaging group (n = 211). Patients completed the ACT at Visit 1, after 10 ± 2 days, and at 5 ± 1 week to demonstrate the reliability and responsiveness of the test. At each visit, physicians assessed patients' asthma control levels. The ACT administered via texting showed an internal consistency of 0.82. For the texting group, we found a significant correlation between the ACT and physician assessments at Visit 1 (r = 0.60, p < 0.001). The AUC was 0.87, with a sensitivity of 78.0% and a specificity of 77.5% for a score of ≤19 for screening \"uncontrolled\" asthma in the texting group.","Assess acceptance and attitudes regarding telemanagement (HAT) in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Noncompliance is a barrier to successful outcomes in patients with IBD. Novel methods for monitoring and assessing compliance are needed. HAT consists of a laptop connected to a weight scale. HAT prompts patients to respond to questions about symptoms, medication side effects, and compliance. Ten consecutive adult patients with IBD were trained to use HAT. Attitudinal surveys and structured qualitative interviews were performed at the end of the session. Twenty percent of patients had never used a computer at home. All patients reported that use of the computer and self-testing was not complicated. All patients reported that the symptom diary and questions on side effects were easy to answer. All patients reported that self-testing took little time. Eighty percent said that testing would not interfere with usual activities, that they could comply with testing 3 times/wk, and that they would agree to use the system in the future.","yes. Children with asthma seen by telemedicine or in-person visits can achieve comparable degrees of asthma control. Telemedicine can be a viable alternative to traditional in-person physician-based care for the treatment and management of asthma.","Access to asthma specialists is a problem, particularly in rural areas, thus presenting an opportunity for management using telemedicine. To compare asthma outcomes during 6 months in children managed by telemedicine vs in-person visits. Children with asthma residing in 2 remote locations were offered the choice of an in-person visit or a telemedicine session at a local clinic. The telemedicine process involved real-time use of a Remote Presence Solution (RPS) equipped with a digital stethoscope, otoscope, and high-resolution camera. A telefacilitator operated the RPS and performed diagnostic and educational procedures, such as spirometry and asthma education. Children in both groups were assessed initially, after 30 days, and at 6 months. Asthma outcome measures included asthma control using validated tools (Asthma Control Test, Childhood Asthma Control Test, and Test for Respiratory and Asthma Control in Kids) and patient satisfaction (telemedicine group only). Noninferiority analysis of asthma control was performed using the minimally important difference of an adjusted asthma control test that combined the 3 age groups. Of 169 children, 100 were seen in-person and 69 via telemedicine. A total of 34 in-person and 40 telemedicine patients completed all 3 visits. All had a small, although statistically insignificant, improvement in asthma control over time. Telemedicine was noninferior to in-person visits. Most of the telemedicine group subjects were satisfied with their experience.","yes. Virtual group patients achieved excellent asthma therapeutic and disease control outcomes. Compared with those who received standardized office-based care, they were more adherent to diary submission and had better inhaler scores at 52 weeks. Store-and-forward telemedicine technology and case management provide additional tools to assist in the management of children with persistent asthma.","The goal was to determine whether home asthma telemonitoring with store-and-forward technology improved outcomes, compared with in-person, office-based visits. A total of 120 patients, 6 to 17 years of age, with persistent asthma were assigned randomly to the office-based or virtual group. The 2 groups followed the same ambulatory clinical pathway for 12 months. Office-based group patients received traditional in-person education and case management. Virtual group patients received computers, Internet connections, and in-home, Internet-based case management and received education through the study Web site. Disease control outcome measures included quality of life, utilization of services, and symptom control. A total of 120 volunteers (45 female) were enrolled. The groups were clinically comparable (office-based: 22 female/38 male; mean age: 9.0 +/- 3.0 years; virtual: 23 female/37 male; mean age: 10.2 +/- 3.1 years). Virtual patients had higher metered-dose inhaler with valved holding chamber technique scores than did the office-based group at 52 weeks (94% vs 89%), had greater adherence to daily asthma symptom diary submission (35.4% vs 20.8%), had less participant time (636 vs 713 patient-months), and were older. Caregivers in both groups perceived an increase in quality of life and an increase in asthma knowledge scores from baseline. There were no other differences in therapeutic or disease control outcome measures.","To evaluate the validity of spirometry self-testing during home telemonitoring and to assess the acceptance of an Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring system by asthma patients. We studied an Internet-based telemonitoring system that collected spirometry data and symptom reports from asthma patients' homes for review by physicians in the medical center's clinical information system. After a 40-min training session, patients completed an electronic diary and performed spirometry testing twice daily on their own from their homes for 3 weeks. A medical professional visited each patient by the end of the third week of monitoring, 10 to 40 min after the patient had performed self-testing, and asked the patient to perform the spirometry test again under his supervision. We evaluated the validity of self-testing and surveyed the patients attitude toward the technology using a standardized questionnaire. Telemonitoring was conducted in patients' homes in a low-income inner city area. Thirty-one consecutive asthma patients without regard to computer experience. Thirty-one asthma patients completed 3 weeks of monitoring. A paired t test showed no difference between unsupervised and supervised home spirometry self-testing. The variability of FVC (4.1%), FEV(1) (3. 7%), peak expiratory flow (7.9%), and other spirometric indexes in our study was similar to the within-subject variability reported by other researchers. Despite the fact that the majority of the patients (71%) had no computer experience, they indicated that the self-testing was \"not complicated at all\" or only \"slightly complicated.\" The majority of patients (87.1%) were strongly interested in using home asthma telemonitoring in the future.","Spirometry self-testing by asthma patients during telemonitoring is valid and comparable to those tests collected under the supervision of a trained medical professional. Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring can be successfully implemented in a group of patients with no computer background."],"string":"[\n \"Understanding triggers is important for managing asthma particularly for patients who seek emergency department (ED) care for exacerbations. The objectives of this analysis were to delineate self-reported triggers in ED patients and to assess associations between triggers and asthma knowledge, severity, and quality of life. At the time of an ED visit, 296 patients were asked what were their usual asthma triggers based on a checklist of 25 potential items, and what they thought specifically precipitated their current ED visit. Using standardized scales, patients also were asked about asthma knowledge, severity, and quality of life. The mean age was 44 years and 72% were women. Patients cited a mean of 12 triggers; most patients had diverse triggers spanning respiratory infections, environmental irritants, emotions, allergens, weather, and exercise. Patients with more triggers were more likely to be women (odds ratio (OR) = 2.0, confidence interval (CI) = 1.3, 3.2, p = .002), obese (OR = 1.7, CI = 1.1, 2.5, p = .01), and to not have a smoking history (OR = 1.9, CI = 1.3, 2.9, p = .001). There were no associations between number of triggers and current age, age at diagnosis, education, socioeconomic status, or race/ethnicity. Patients who cited more triggers had more frequent flares (OR = 1.1, CI = 1.1, 1.2, p < .0001), worse quality of life scores (OR 1.6, CI = 1.1, 2.4, p = .02), and were more likely to have been previously hospitalized for asthma (OR = 1.9, CI = 1.3, 2.9, p = .003) and to have previously required oral corticosteroids (OR = 2.9, CI = 1.6, 5.1, p = .003). There was little clustering of specific triggers according to the variables we considered except for more frequent animal allergy in patients diagnosed at a younger age (OR = 2.8, CI = 1.7, 4.5, p < .0001) and worse quality of life in patients citing emotional stress as a trigger (OR = 2.5, CI = 1.5, 4.0, p = .0002). Patients attributed their current ED visit to multiple precipitants, particularly respiratory infections and weather, and these were concordant with what they reported were known triggers.\",\n \"yes. the threshold for detecting external resistive loads during tidal breathing rises in old age in some, but not all, asthmatic patients as was observed in non-asthmatic subjects. The finding has implications for treatment guidelines because some elderly subjects are likely to have reduced awareness of worsening airflow obstruction, and consequently delay their use of rescue treatments.\",\n \"The results are inconsistent with the results of the first asthma self-management study at this institution and with those of efficacy studies of similar programs. Two factors, selection of the patient population and historical changes in asthma treatment, most likely contributed to the lack of impact of the self-management programs. As a result of the improved standards for usual care due to both factors, the opportunity to effect patient outcomes was substantially reduced.\",\n \"To determine whether locally developed guidelines on asthma and diabetes disseminated through practice based education improve quality of care in non-training, inner city general practices. Randomised controlled trial with each practice receiving one set of guidelines but providing data on the management of both conditions. 24 inner city, non-training general practices. East London. Recording of key variables in patient records (asthma: peak flow rate, review of inhaler technique, review of asthma symptoms, prophylaxis, occupation, and smoking habit; diabetes: blood glucose concentration, glycaemic control, funduscopy, feet examination, weight, and smoking habit); size of practice disease registers; prescribing in asthma; and use of structured consultation \\\"prompts.\\\" In practices receiving diabetes guidelines, significant improvements in recording were seen for all seven diabetes variables. Both groups of practices showed improved recording of review of inhaler technique, smoking habit, and review of asthma symptoms. In practices receiving asthma guidelines, further improvement was seen only in recording of review of inhaler technique and quality of prescribing in asthma. Sizes of disease registers were unchanged. The use of structured prompts was associated with improved recording of four of seven variables on diabetes and all six variables on asthma.\",\n \"This study was aimed at exploring to what extent populations enrolled in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) of inhalation combination treatment for mild/moderate asthma in adults are fully representative of 'real-life' populations. The following is a retrospective analysis of the clinical records of outpatient subjects with an ascertained diagnosis of asthma. A retrospective analysis was performed. Stable conditions, such as smoking habit and chronic diseases other than asthma, were identified as exclusion criteria for RCTs. The selected criteria were then applied to asthmatic outpatients, yielding a population that was potentially eligible for RCTs. Out of 1,909 subjects, 824 (43.2%) met at least one of the exclusion criteria for RCTs. Cigarette smoking (occurring in 34.3% of the entire population), lung diseases other than asthma (5.0%), anxiety and depression (3.3%), arrhythmias (2.3%), and coronary artery disease (1.2%) would have been the most frequent causes for exclusion from RCTs. The proportion of patients excluded from RCTs appears to increase with age, reaching 57.1% in patients aged>85 years.\",\n \"We efficiently recruited participants and achieved high overall retention rates. However, participant adherence to the daily outbreak visit schedules was low and only 7 (50%) participants used the cream as directed. These limitations could be addressed in future Internet-based studies by using Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs), using reminder devices, and providing incentives. By enhancing participant adherence, clinical trials requiring frequent participant contact may be feasible over the Internet.\",\n \"To test the hypothesis that children enrolled in Medicaid managed care health plans that provide asthma-specific communication to providers would be more likely to have adequate asthma medication filling. We conducted a historical cohort study of 4498 children (2-17 years old) with moderate-severe asthma in Washington State and Tennessee Medicaid managed care programs from 2000 to 2002. Interviews with health plans were conducted to identify communication strategies health plans used to improve asthma care by providers in the plan. The main outcome measure was guideline-recommended filling of asthma preventer medications. Children in plans that provided specific feedback to providers about asthma quality and notified providers when children had an asthma-related event had the highest mean days plus or minus SE of filling in the 365-day follow-up period (164.6 +/- 13 days) compared with children in plans with neither (135.3 +/- 10.8 days; P < .05). In children with the greatest asthma severity, enrollment in a plan with both features was associated with 27.1 additional days of filling (95% CI, 0.7-53.4 days) during the follow-up period.\",\n \"The goal of asthma treatment is control of asthma and good quality of life for asthmatic patients; however, many asthmatic patients experience symptoms and limitations. To examine treatment outcome in asthmatic patients under specialist care. Multicenter, cross-sectional study. Four large outpatient asthma clinics in teaching hospitals in three Greek cities. Three hundred seventy-eight randomly selected patients with mild or moderate asthma (265 female patients; mean age, 42.3 years). None. Patients completed a questionnaire structured with eight domains covering patient characteristics, drug use at baseline and during exacerbations, regular follow-up, emergency visits, asthma control, symptoms, and limitations. Results show that the majority of patients have symptoms and limitations in their physical and social activities and have frequent exacerbations, while>40% of patients think that their asthma is not well controlled. Most of our patients receive preventive medication (primarily inhaled corticosteroids, but less so long-acting beta2-agonists [LABAs] and leukotriene antagonists), increase their use of medication in case of exacerbations and have regular follow-up. However, the report shows that 48% of patients tried to reduce their medication dose, a fact implying that compliance is not always good.\",\n \"A new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) asthma quality-of-care measure designed to quantify patient adherence to asthma controller medication has been implemented. The relationship between this measure and asthma outcomes is unknown. To examine the relationship between the HEDIS Medication Management for people with Asthma (MMA) measure and asthma outcomes. Administrative data identified 30,040 patients who met HEDIS criteria for persistent asthma during 2012. These patients were classified as compliant or noncompliant with the MMA measure at the 75% and 50% threshold, respectively. The association between MMA compliance in 2012 and asthma outcomes in 2013 was determined. Patients who were 75% or 50% MMA compliant in 2012 showed no clinically meaningful difference in asthma-related hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or rescue inhaler dispensing in 2013 compared with those who were noncompliant. Stepwise comparison of patients who were 75% or more, 50% to 74%, and less than 50% MMA compliant showed no meaningful difference in asthma outcomes between groups.\",\n \"The findings suggest that additional investigations of Internet-based interventions to promote self-management in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are warranted.\",\n \"Supervised exercise leads to significant improvements in asthma control and quality-of-life in adults with partly controlled asthma; however, the role of unsupervised exercise is unknown. The purpose of this study was to determine the impact of self-directed exercise on subjective and objective indices of asthma-related health. Participants (n = 24) were assigned to an exercise group or a control group for a 12-week period. Those in the exercise group were provided with exercise programs by a qualified exercise professional. These programs were updated through electronic mail every 3 weeks to ensure progression. Controls maintained their current lifestyle habits for the intervention period. Assessments of aerobic fitness, lung function, and subjective and objective asthma measures were conducted at baseline and after completion of the 12-week intervention period for both groups. Analysis of covariance was used to detect differences between groups from baseline to week 12. Qualitative analyses were used to assess responses to open-ended questions. Adherence to the program was poor. Perceived asthma control and self-reported frequency and severity of asthma improved significantly in the exercise group at week 12 compared with that in the control group. Objective measures of asthma such as asthma control, quality-of-life, and lung function, as well as peak and submaximal aerobic fitness did not change relative to controls. Responses to open-ended questions revealed improvements in three areas: asthma management, perceived fitness, and well-being.\",\n \"We wanted to examine whether a collaborative to improve asthma care influences process and outcomes of care in asthmatic adults. We undertook a preintervention-postintervention evaluation of 185 patients in 6 intervention clinics and 3 matched control sites that participated in the Institute for Healthcare Improvement Breakthrough Series (BTS) Collaborative for asthma care. The intervention consisted of 3, 2-day educational sessions for teams dispatched by participating sites, which were followed by 3 action periods during the course of a year. Overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention compared with the control group (change of 10% vs 1%, P = .003). Patients in the intervention group were more likely to attend educational sessions (20% vs 5%, P = .03). Having a written action plan, setting goals, monitoring peak flow rates, and using long-term asthma medications increased between 2% and 19% (not significant), but asthma-related knowledge was unchanged for the 2 groups. Patients in the BTS Collaborative were significantly more likely to be satisfied with clinician and lay educator communication (62% vs 39%, P = .02). Health-related quality of life, asthma-specific quality of life, number of bed days caused by asthma-related illness, and acute care service use were not significantly different between the 2 groups.\",\n \"The DIABTel system, a Web-based telemedicine application, integrates a whole communication system (glucometer, insulin pump, wireless hand-held assistant) for medical remote advice. We sought to evaluate, in terms of glycemic control, the DIABTel system in a randomized crossover clinical study. Ten patients with type 1 diabetes [5 women, age 40.6 (21-62) years, diabetes duration 14.7 (3-52) years] were included. During the 4-week active phase, data sent by patients were analyzed by the physician and modifications of the basal rate and bolus were advised in the following 24 hours. During the control phase, patients sent glucose data without any feedback from the medical center. The mean numbers of daily glucose values and bolus sent by patients during the active period were 4.46 +/- 0.91 and 4.58 +/- 0.89, respectively. The personal digital assistant functionalities used more frequently by patients were (times per week) data visualization (8.1 +/- 6.8), data download from the insulin pump (6.8 +/- 3.3), and synchronization with the telemedicine server (8.5 +/- 4.9). After the experimental phase, serum fructosamine decreased significantly (393 +/- 32 vs 366 +/- 25 micromol/liter; p < 0.05) and hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) tended to decrease (8.0 +/- 0.6 vs 7.78 +/- 0.6; p = 0.073), whereas no changes were observed during the control phase. The number of treatment modifications proposed and performed by the patients correlated with the change observed in HbA1c during the active phase (r = -0.729, p = 0.017).\",\n \"yes. Older patients reproducibly are able to telemetrically transmit electrocardiograms after a short training before discharged home. Although there is a low incidence of complications among our study population, telemedical ECG-monitoring rapidly helps to differentiate between the symptoms leading to increased patient safety and prevented further damage. The reduction of ambulatory visits and hospitalisations only for treatment of objectified symptoms may lead to a overall cost reduction in the health care system. The reduction of unnecessary hospitalisations and ambulatory visits might also contribute to an optimised time management.\",\n \"Older adults with asthma can develop symptoms early in life or during adulthood. Differences between these groups may have diagnostic and therapeutic implications. Our goal was to identify differences in demographics, control, quality of life and healthcare utilization between those with long-standing asthma (LSA) and late-onset asthma (LOA). Data from a cross-sectional study of asthma patients over age 65 were analyzed. LSA or LOA was based on age of diagnosis (before or after age 40). Demographic and asthma specific information were analyzed, and allergy prick tests and lung function testing (spirometry and FENO) were performed. After regression analysis, LSA subjects were more likely to demonstrate positive prick tests (92 versus 71%, p = 0.04), with both groups demonstrating higher levels of atopy than previously reported. LSA subjects were also more likely to have received a peak flow meter (p = 0.07). LOA subjects were more likely to have moderate or severe asthma (OR = 3.1, p = 0.05), and had higher FENO readings (p = 0.02). They also had more hospitalizations (p = 0.04), though significance was lost after regression analysis. No differences were noted in demographic information, medical comorbidities, spirometry, compliance, asthma control, or asthma quality of life between LSA and LOA subjects.\",\n \"Web use, as a source of health information, has been shown to be associated with anxiety reduction in patients with or at risk for cardiomyopathy, suggesting that Internet technology can be a useful instrument due to its informational power and its potentially therapeutic value.\",\n \"Poor adherence contributes to uncontrolled asthma. Pragmatic adherence interventions for primary care settings are lacking. To test the effectiveness of 2 brief general practitioner (GP)-delivered interventions for improving adherence and asthma control. In a 6-month cluster randomized 2 × 2 factorial controlled trial, with GP as unit of cluster, we compared inhaler reminders and feedback (IRF) and/or personalized adherence discussions (PADs) with active usual care alone; all GPs received action plan and inhaler technique training. GPs enrolled patients prescribed combination controller inhalers, with suboptimal Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores (ACT score ≤19). Inhaler monitors recorded fluticasone propionate/salmeterol adherence (covertly for non-IRF groups) and, in IRF groups, provided twice-daily reminders for missed doses, and adherence feedback. PAD GPs received communication training regarding adherence. Outcomes collected every 2 months included ACT scores (primary outcome) and severe exacerbations. Intention-to-treat mixed-model analysis incorporated cluster effect and repeated measures. A total of 43 GPs enrolled 143 patients with moderate-severe asthma (mean age, 40.3 ± 15.2 years; ACT score, 14.6 ± 3.8; fluticasone propionate dose, 718 ± 470 μg). Over 6 months, adherence was significantly higher in the IRF group than in non-IRF groups (73% ± 26% vs 46% ± 28% of prescribed daily doses; P < .0001), but not between PAD and non-PAD groups. Asthma control improved overall (mean change in ACT score, 4.5 ± 4.9; P < .0001), with no significant difference among groups (P = .14). Severe exacerbations were experienced by 11% of the patients in IRF groups and 28% of the patients in non-IRF groups (P = .013; after adjustment for exacerbation history; P = .06).\",\n \"yes. The level of caregiver supervision is an important factor affecting adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Therefore, a high degree of supervision may be required to increase adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma.\",\n \"yes. Physician estimates of underlying asthma severity appear to determine asthma care. For patients with inadequate symptom control, lower physician estimates of underlying severity were associated with care that is less consistent with national guidelines. To improve the quality of asthma care, physicians need to update treatment based on their patients' current symptoms and adapt care accordingly.\",\n \"Internet-based disease management programs have the potential to improve patient care. The objective of this study was to determine whether an interactive, internet-based system enabling supervised, patient self-management of oral anticoagulant therapy provided management comparable to an established anticoagulation clinic. Sixty patients receiving chronic oral anticoagulant therapy who had access to the internet and a printer, were enrolled into this prospective, single-group, before-after study from a single clinic and managed between March 2002 and January 2003. Patients learned how to use a home prothrombin time monitor and how to access the system through the internet. Patients used the system for six months, with daily review by the supervising physician. The primary outcome variable was the difference in time in therapeutic range prior to and following introduction of internet-supervised patient self-management. The mean time in therapeutic range increased from 63% in the anticoagulation clinic (control period) to 74.4% during internet-supervised patient self-management (study period). The mean difference score between control and study periods was 11.4% (P = 0.004, 95% confidence interval 5.5-17.3%). There were no hemorrhagic or thromboembolic complications.\",\n \"The correct use of medication and the ability to assess the severity of the disease and to react appropriately in the case of exacerbation are essential objectives in the management of asthma patients. This study, conducted in a school of asthma in Seine-Saint-Denis, aims to measure the influence of socio-demographic and clinical factors, before any educational process, on these four security skills. A prospective observational study concerning 280 consecutive patients managed between 2008 and 2011 (70 % women, mean age: 44 years [14-85 years]; deprivation: 48 %; born abroad: 39 %, low level of education: 23 %). The initial educational diagnosis was compared with the clinical and socio-demographic characteristics. In relation to asthma control, social characteristics (unemployment, deprivation), geographic or ethnic origin and educational level significantly influence the command of all or some of the security skills. In medical terms, a period of evolution of the disease of less than 10 years, outpatient follow-up without specialized monitoring and the absence of recent exacerbations also appear as predictors of inappropriate conduct in the management of the disease.\",\n \"The ratio of controller medication to total asthma medications has been related to asthma utilization outcomes, but its relationship to patient-centered outcomes has not been explored. Surveys that included validated asthma quality-of-life, control, and symptom severity tools were completed by a random sample of 2,250 health maintenance organization members aged 18 to 56 years who had persistent asthma. Linked computerized pharmacy data provided dispensing information on beta-agonist canisters and asthma controller medication. The ratio was calculated as the number of controller medications dispensed during the year of the survey divided by the total number medications (ie, inhaled beta-agonist plus controller medications) dispensed. The relationships of the optimal ratio cutoff to patient-centered outcomes and to subsequent acute asthma exacerbations were determined. Mean asthma quality-of-life, asthma control, and symptom severity scale scores were significantly (p < 0.0001) more favorable in patients with ratios of > or = 0.5. After adjusting for demographic characteristics, patients with ratios of > or = 0.5 were significantly less likely to have adverse results regarding asthma quality of life (odds ratio [OR], 0.65; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.52 to 0.80), asthma control (OR, 0.62; 95% CI, 0.50 to 0.77), and symptom severity (OR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.43 to 0.65), and were also less likely to experience subsequent asthma hospitalizations or emergency department visits (OR, 0.44; 95% CI, 0.26 to 0.74) than patients with lower ratios.\",\n \"This study highlights the important role of health information technology (HIT) on vaso-occlusive pain management for pediatric patients with sickle cell disease and the critical challenges in accommodating human factor considerations in implementing and evaluating HIT effects.\",\n \"Patient assessment of high quality asthma care delivery was associated with patient self-report of having an asthma action plan but was not associated with any of the publicly reported asthma performance measures.\",\n \"yes. The Asthma APGAR tools are feasible to implement in primary care practices and their implementation is associated with increased guideline-compliant asthma management.\",\n \"yes. A computerized reminder letter followed by an autodial recall telephone message is effective in increasing the influenza immunization rate of children with asthma/RAD. Children with significantly higher respiratory morbidity during and in between two influenza epidemics were more likely to be immunized after receiving written and telephone autodial reminders.\",\n \"Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.\",\n \"Serial assessment of peak expiratory flow (PEF) rates has been advocated as a sensitive and specific means of investigating occupational asthma. The possibility that, for several reasons, subjects do not accurately report their values has been raised. The availability of portable instruments that assess PEF and store timings and values now make it possible to estimate compliance and accuracy of results. Twenty-one subjects consecutively investigated for occupational asthma were asked to assess their PEF every 2 hours during the day, both at work and away from work, with a VMX instrument (Clement Clarke International, Columbus, Ohio) and record the times and values on a sheet of paper. The subjects were not aware that the data were also being stored on a computer chip. The diagnosis was occupational asthma in eight subjects, personal asthma in four subjects, and neither condition in nine subjects. The mean duration of recording was 36 days (range, 14 to 79 days). At least 6048 values should have been recorded, but only 4839 (80%) were either recorded or stored. Reported values corresponded precisely to stored values in 2533 of 4839 recordings (52%). The timing of the recording was also examined in relation to the time at which the recording was solicited; values recorded within 1 hour of the solicited time were judged as acceptable. Of the total of 3342 recordings stored, 2375 (71%) satisfied this criterion. Compliance was significantly less satisfactory in those referred by the Workers' Compensation Board (n = 11).\",\n \"This study investigates whether diabetes patients visiting a primary care setting are interested in using a telemonitoring platform and if so, whether characteristics of interested users could be distinguished. Three questionnaires were administered by 92 diabetes persons recruited between May and September 2011. Descriptive statistics and logistic regression analysis were performed. Special attention was drawn to include patients with low educational levels. Patients with middle or high educational levels show quite some interest in the use of a telemonitoring platform, especially for the transmission of glycaemic data or for asking questions. Patients with low educational levels only show a minor interest in using such a platform.\",\n \"yes. Negotiating patients' treatment decisions significantly improves adherence to asthma pharmacotherapy and clinical outcomes. Clinical trials registered with www.clinicaltrials.gov (NCT00217945 and NCT00149526).\",\n \"Despite improved understanding of the pathophysiology of asthma, morbidity and mortality continue to rise, with disproportionate increases occurring among urban, indigent minorities. New approaches in the management of asthma are therefore necessary to reverse these dramatic and costly trends. To determine if patients who are admitted to the hospital with acute asthma and receive inpatient education will have improved outpatient follow-up and clinical outcome measures compared with those receiving conventional care. Patients enrolled in the study had a primary admission diagnosis of asthma and were between ages 18 and 45 years. Exclusion criteria included comorbid disease, inability to speak English, absence of a telephone in the primary residence, or pregnancy. Seventy-seven patients admitted from the emergency department with asthma were randomized to either the inpatient educational program (IEP) or routine care (control group). Patients in the IEP received asthma education, bedside spirometry, a telephone call 24 hours after discharge, and scheduled follow-up in an outpatient asthma program within 1 week of discharge. Those individuals randomized to the routine management group received conventional inpatient asthma care and routine follow-up. The patients enrolled in the IEP had a markedly higher follow-up rate compared with outpatient appointments (60% vs. 27%; P = .01) and significantly fewer emergency department visits (P = .04) and hospitalizations (P = .04) for asthma in the 6 months following IEP intervention, as compared with control patients. This represented a substantial cost savings to the managed care organization.\",\n \"Exploratory study aimed to examine differences in family interaction patterns during a routine mealtime between overweight, at-risk for overweight, and average weight children with asthma. Eighty families of children with asthma, aged 5-12 years, were videotaped during a mealtime in their homes. The videotapes were rated using the McMaster Mealtime Family Interaction Coding System (MICS). Structural aspects of the meal such as presence of sugary drinks and whether the television was on were also coded. Significant differences were found on the MICS with families of children with asthma who were overweight scoring lower on task accomplishment, affect management, interpersonal involvement, and roles. Families of overweight children with asthma also displayed an increased presence of sugary beverages, shorter meal length, and fewer adults at the table.\",\n \"yes. Patient management domains with the greatest room for discretion (investigations, comorbid diagnoses, and treatment with ICS among children with normal lung function) are most heavily influenced by physician specialty. These results have implications for asthma management at the patient level and in future practice guidelines.\",\n \"Accuracy and reliability of diary data collected in allergic rhinitis trials depends on how and when the information is recorded by the subjects. To compare diary data collected by using paper (optical mark readable) and electronic [telephone, interactive voice response system (IVRS)] tools. There was a randomized, 3-week, 3-way, crossover trial, in 87 adults with allergic rhinitis recording diary data at home. Outcome measures were (1) comparison of symptom data during weeks when both or only 1 instrument was used; (2) missing data: and (3) ease of use and participant preference. More than 40,000 symptom data elements were recorded by 72 protocol-correct subjects. Symptoms recorded during the week that both instruments were used and when the 2 instruments were used alone were indistinguishable. Overall, 0.45% of paper and 4.12% of IVRS symptom data were missing. Of 10,080 paired data collected on paper and IVRS diaries during the week in which subjects used both, 94.44% were identical. Using IVRS, 63.2% of protocol-correct data were entered within the designated time and 87.6% within 1 half-day of the time specified; 85% of subjects preferred the paper instrument, 4% preferred IVRS, and 11% had no preference.\",\n \"General practitioners (GP) in rural areas of Germany are struggling to find successors for their private practices. Telemonitoring at home offers an option to support remaining GPs and specialists in ambulatory care. We assessed the knowledge and attitude towards telemedicine in the population of North Rhine-Westphalia (NRW), Germany, in a population-based telephone survey. Out of 2,006 participants, 734 (36.6%) reported an awareness of telemedical devices. Only 37 participants (1.8%) have experience in using them. The majority of participants were in favour of using them in case of illness (72.2%). However, this approval declined with age. These findings were similar in rural and urban areas. Participants who were in favour of telemedicine (n = 1,480) strongly agreed that they would have to see their doctor less often, and that the doctor would recognize earlier relevant changes in their vital status. Participants who disliked to be monitored by telemedical devices preferred to receive immediate feedback from their physician. Especially, the elderly fear the loss of personal contact with their physician. They need the direct patient-physician communication.\",\n \"Poor asthma outcomes often result from patients not following physician medication recommendations (ie, nonadherence). Estimates suggest that 50% of patients with asthma do not follow physician medication recommendations. To examine the rationale for making available objective medication adherence monitors for physicians to improve the quality of care for patients with severe persistent asthma. Review of the literature was undertaken in the following areas related to asthma: cost, morbidity, adherence, adherence monitoring, outcomes, and guidelines. Patients with severe asthma are at risk for nonadherence because of (1) the use of multiple medications to control symptoms, (2) coexisting disease states, (3) the occurrence of depression and anxiety, and (4) the high cost of care. Research studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of objective monitoring as part of multiple clinical strategies to improve adherence and reduce morbidity and the cost of asthma care. Without objective adherence monitoring, physicians may not accurately assess nonadherence as the cause of treatment failure. This may lead to inappropriate increases in therapy, diagnostic studies, and consultations and may leave the patient at risk for persistent symptoms, morbidity, and death.\",\n \"Adult patients are vulnerable to several triggers regardless from underlying severity of the illness. Insufficient compliance to the major preventive measures indicates that new strategies are needed to prevent asthma attacks caused by modifiable triggers.\",\n \"yes. Telehealth had good uptake and increased clinic attendance in adults with CF living in rural and remote WA, and had high satisfaction amongst participants. The increase in HCU, resulting from increased detection and treatment of exacerbations, may improve long-term outcomes in this population.\",\n \"yes. (1) A relationship can be observed between the functioning of the asthmatic patient's family and the severity of the patient's declared dyspnea. Dyspnea constitutes a specific form of emotional communication in the inter-spouse relationships. (2) An analysis of the severity of dyspnea in asthmatic patients should take into account the context of the functioning of the patient's family.\",\n \"Primary care asthma management is often not compatible with national evidence-based guidelines. The objective of this study was to assess the feasibility and impact of the Asthma APGAR tools to enhance implementation of asthma guideline-compatible management in primary care practices. Twenty-four primary care practices across the US. This is a mixed methods study. Quantitative data were used to assess changes in guideline recommended asthma management including use of daily controller therapy, planned care visits, and education and information documentation before and after implementation of the Asthma APGAR. Qualitative data from focus group sessions were used to assess health care professional and patient perceived usability and value of the Asthma APGAR tools during office visits for asthma. Implementing the Asthma APGAR tools in the 24 practices was associated with enhanced asthma visit-related medical record documentation including significant increases in recording of activity limitations due to asthma and asthma symptom frequency, asthma medication nonadherence, asthma triggers, and the patients' perceived response to therapy (p < 0.01 for each item). Some care processes also increased significantly including assessment of inhaler technique and prescribing of daily controller therapy among patients with persistent asthma. Focus groups of patients and of clinical staff reported that the Asthma APGAR tools were easy to use, \\\"made sense\\\" and \\\"improved care\\\" was given and received.\",\n \"A substantial number of adult patients with asthma are inadequately controlled despite the availability of effective asthma treatment. Patients and physicians seem to overestimate the level of asthma control. The current study explores whether valid differentiation is possible between asthma patients with controlled and uncontrolled asthma symptoms, on the basis of the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ). In this multi-centre, cross-sectional study, patients were classified according to Global Initiative for Asthma criteria into levels of asthma symptom control based on a diary card registration. We defined Step 1 ('well controlled' asthma symptoms), Step 2 ('moderately controlled'), Step 3 ('poorly controlled') and Step 4 ('very poorly controlled'). These control steps were related with the sum score of the ACQ. From 108 asthma patients complete data were obtained. The Step 1 subgroup comprised 17 patients; Step 2, 12 patients; Step 3, 22 patients; and Step 4, 57 patients. Receiver Operating Characteristic curve analysis showed that the optimal ACQ sum score cut-off value to differentiate between Step 1 and Steps 2, 3 and 4 was three points (sensitivity: 84%, specificity: 76%). For Steps 1 and 2 versus Steps 3 and 4, this was four points (sensitivity: 77%, specificity: 59%). For Steps 1, 2 and 3 versus Step 4, this was six points (sensitivity: 70%, specificity: 74%).\",\n \"The study supports the more individualized goals of the recently revised British Guidelines for Asthma Management but highlights the need to develop this further in future revisions. It also provides an explanation for patients' acceptance of less than 'perfect' asthma control and it suggests that shared goals may be achieved in practice by considering the advantages and disadvantages of medication and allergen avoidance on everyday life rather than on asthma.\",\n \"When the Turkish version of the ACT was administered via either the paper-and-pencil or text messaging test, scores were closely associated with physician assessments of asthma control.\",\n \"Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).\",\n \"In primary care, light forms of asthma are most commonly monitored. We found low concordance with the GINA 2002 directives. IC are widely used, but often at incorrect doses. We insist on the importance of classifying asthma according to its gravity in order to prescribe the right treatment.\",\n \"The National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute asthma guidelines recommend that parents communicate with a clinician during childhood asthma exacerbations when symptoms worsen or do not improve with initial therapy. This study tested the hypothesis that communication by parents with a clinician before an Emergency Department visit was associated with more appropriate medication administration for children with asthma exacerbations. This was a retrospective cohort study using data gathered from parents of children presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department. The communicating cohort included parents who communicated by telephone with a clinician during the exacerbation and the non-communicating cohort included parents who did not. Multivariate logistic regression models were used to test three hypotheses; communication with a clinician is associated with (1) administration of short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs), (2) increased dosing frequency of SABAs, and (3) administration of an oral corticosteroid. A total of 199 subjects were enrolled, with 104 (52.3%) in the communicating and 95 (47.7%) in the non-communicating cohort. There was an association between communication and provider practice type, with children who received routine care from a private practice provider more likely to communicate with the clinician than children in hospital-based clinics or community health centers (Adjusted OR 1.9, 95% CI 1.0-3.7). Impoverished children and children insured by Medicaid were less likely to communicate with a clinician (controlling for provider type). Parents who communicated with a clinician were more likely to administer a SABA (adjusted OR 3.6, 95% CI 1.3-9.4) and an oral corticosteroid (adjusted OR 3.3, 95% CI 1.3-8.4) but were not more likely to administer a SABA with increased dosing frequency (adjusted OR 0.9, 95% CI 0.5-1.6).\",\n \"Many medical records do not include the basic clinical information required to assess asthma severity, adherence to asthma therapy or the response to therapy. This lack of information makes implementation of asthma care guidelines impossible. Therefore, these measures may be useful baseline quality indicators to begin the process of improving asthma care.\",\n \"yes. Patients with poor navigational ability are likely to have poor inhaler technique and limited understanding of ICS function, as well as limited numeracy and print literacy. Clinicians should consider these elements of self-management for their effect on asthma care and as a marker of more general health literacy deficits.\",\n \"To determine whether differences exist in the monitoring, diagnosis and treatment of asthmatic patients between family doctors (FD) and pneumology specialists (PD). A descriptive crossover study, performed through an interview with the patients and a medical exploration. Six health centres. 195 asthmatic patients between 14 and 65, chosen by simple random sampling from among all those registered by computer in the SICAP. Each patient answered a structured interview and had a spirometry test. Which doctor usually monitored their illness, social and demographic data, morbidity parameters, treatment prescribed and their compliance with it, were all determined. 66% of patients were under their FD. No differences were found in the clinical characteristics of patients treated by their FD against those treated by their PD.\",\n \"The specific aim of this investigation was to evaluate the proficiency of health care providers and patients in the proper use of metered-dose inhalers. Health care providers, which include house staff, nurses, and respiratory care practitioners who provide care to patients with asthma in the primary general medicine clinic or the pulmonary medicine clinic of a university-county hospital in which patients were referred, were surveyed and assigned a performance score regarding the knowledge base of the appropriate use of metered-dose inhalers. Patients who attended the primary care general medicine and pulmonary subspecialty clinic were also assessed as to their proficiency in the use of metered-dose inhalers. A significant percentage of patients had a poor understanding of the technique used with the metered-dose inhaler. House staff and nursing staff were also less proficient in the proper use of the metered-dose inhaler. The respiratory care practitioners were the most knowledgeable of the health care providers.\",\n \"To determine the association between patient assessment of healthcare delivery and publicly reported asthma performance measures. We identified individuals 5-50 years old who had asthma quality measures reported to the Minnesota Community Measurement© (MCM©) by their clinic and sent them a postal survey which included within it the Patient Assessment of Chronic Illness care (PACIC), a validated measure of patient perception of the quality of healthcare delivery. We performed a multivariable analysis to examine the association between PACIC scores and achievement of asthma care quality measures. The response rate for the ACS was 102/367 (28%); a non-response bias analysis revealed no differences between responders and non-responders for age, gender and asthma control. Most responders (73%) reported taking asthma medications daily and most (71%) had poorly controlled asthma. The PACIC score was not associated with any of the asthma quality measures based on the data reported to MCM© by the clinic. A higher PACIC score was, however, associated with having an asthma action plan based on patient-reported data in the ACS (p < 0.0001) but not with patient-reported asthma control or emergency department/hospitalizations for asthma.\",\n \"yes. This pragmatic telephone-based peer-training intervention reduced asthma impairment. Asthma risk was reduced in children with Medicaid insurance.\",\n \"Patients found the automated interactive calling, combined with a health risk forecast, both viable and useful, welcoming the information and tools it offered. In many cases, it added to patients' understanding of their illness and promoted better self-management. Future research should focus on the potential impact of the service in terms of health outcomes and cost-effectiveness.\",\n \"Childhood asthma morbidity remains significant, especially in low-income children. Most often, asthma management is provided by the child's primary care provider. We sought to evaluate whether enhancing primary care management for persistent asthma with telephone-based peer coaching for parents reduced asthma impairment and risk in children 3 to 12 years old. Over 12 months, peer trainers provided parents with asthma management training by telephone (median, 18 calls) and encouraged physician partnership. The intervention was evaluated in a cluster-randomized trial of 11 intervention and 11 usual care pediatric practices (462 and 486 families, respectively). Patient outcomes were assessed by means of telephone interviews at 12 and 24 months conducted by observers blinded to intervention assignment and compared by using mixed-effects models, controlling for baseline values and clustering within practices. In a planned subgroup analysis we examined the heterogeneity of the intervention effect by insurance type (Medicaid vs other). After 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 20.9 (95% CI, 9.1-32.7) more symptom-free days per child than in the control group, and there was no difference in emergency department (ED) visits. After 24 months, ED visits were reduced (difference in mean visits/child, -0.28; 95% CI, -0.5 to -0.02), indicating a delayed intervention effect. In the Medicaid subgroup, after 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 42% fewer ED visits (difference in mean visits/child, -0.50; 95% CI, -0.81 to -0.18) and 62% fewer hospitalizations (difference in mean hospitalizations/child, -0.16; 95% CI, -0.30 to -0.014). Reductions in health care use endured through 24 months.\",\n \"To determine if the use of the whistle watch (WW), a simple device to monitor peak flow rate, affects the use of bronchodilators at home. Prospective, randomised, crossover design. The asthma outpatients' clinic at Coronation Hospital, a tertiary care centre in Johannesburg. Children between 6 and 18 years of age with moderate or severe asthma for more than a year were enrolled. They were randomised into two groups, with bronchodilator use determined either by the WW or solely by the patient's perceived symptomatology. The patients acted as their own controls, switching over to the other group after 30 days. Eighty patients were enrolled into the study. Forty-three patients completed the study (54%). There were no significant differences between these patients and those who did not complete the study in terms of sex, age and treatment characteristics. There was a significant reduction in the mean monthly number of bronchodilator doses used by the WW group (5.5 doses v. 16.81 doses, paired t-test, t = 3.64, P < 0.001, 95% confidence interval (CI) 6.1-16.55). The change in individual participants varied between 13 extra bronchodilator doses and 71 fewer doses per month with the use of the WW device.\",\n \"As of 2003, approximately 67% of US adults have Internet access. The purpose of this study was to determine the feasibility and preliminary efficacy of an Internet-based dyspnea self-management program (iDSMP) for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A related aim was to compare the differential effects of the iDSMP on 2 different groups: (1) to test a \\\"booster\\\" effect and (2) to evaluate the program as a primary intervention. Two groups (n = 16) were evaluated at baseline and at 3 months after completing the iDSMP, which included education, exercise, self-monitoring, and support. Dyspnea, self-efficacy, perception of available support, and exercise behavior were measured. Paired, independent t tests and Mann-Whitney U tests were used. Most subjects (87%) reported that the program increased their access to information and resources for managing dyspnea. Dyspnea with activities of daily living and self-efficacy for managing the symptom showed significant improvements (both P<.01), whereas more modest changes were noted in perceived support and exercise behavior in the overall sample. There were no differences between the 2 groups on these outcomes.\",\n \"Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.\",\n \"Early treatment of worsening chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) symptoms speeds recovery, improves quality of life, and reduces the need for hospitalization. Patients may fail to recognize worsening symptoms leading to delays in treatment. A telemedicine application could facilitate detection and treatment of worsening symptoms. To work, such an application requires consistent use by patients and quick responses from healthcare providers. We conducted a quality assurance assessment of our system to see if we were meeting these goals. Thirty patients were provided a smartphone application for daily COPD symptom reporting. Reports between November 2012 and September 2013 were reviewed. Symptoms reports and interventions were time-stamped by the application. Adherence reporting was calculated as the number of reports made divided by the number of days enrolled in the program for each patient. Time to intervention was calculated as the time a report was submitted to the time a treatment recommendation was sent to the patient. There were 4,434 symptom reports made over 5,178 patient-days of observation for an average reporting compliance of 85.6%. Median reporting compliance was 90.7% (interquartile range, 83.8-98%). Four hundred seventy-five symptom reports resulted in an alert. The average response time for all alerts was 6.64 h, with a median response time of 5.75 h.\",\n \"Earlier detection of acute exacerbations (AE) of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could reduce emergency admissions and hospitalisations. Studies investigating COPD management programs supported by telehealthcare (THC) have shown conflicting results. To test the feasibility, safety and acceptance of THC for COPD. Patients daily filled out an online questionnaire focused on the detection of AECOPD. The THC platform is integrated in a comprehensive electronic patient data repository, which has to be available for all patients in Switzerland by law by 2017. The study team called the patient by phone in case of suspected AECOPD. Of 339 screened patients, 14% were included. Main reasons for exclusion were missing technical equipment and unwillingness to participate in a study (50%). Data completeness was 88%; 94% completed the study. The current THC approach triggered 230 telephone calls, which led to the verification of 60 AECOPD in 22 patients. Three AECOPD were not detected. Sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value of the questionnaire-based THC approach in detecting AECOPD was 95, 98, 26 and 99.9%, respectively. Overall patient satisfaction in respect to their health condition improved significantly (VAS 8-8.7; p = 0.002).\",\n \"Asthma is an example of a common, chronic illness in which clinicians are encouraged to promote concordance and adhere to guidelines. Some existing research suggests that these aims may be incompatible. To describe patient goals for life and for asthma management in order to inform concordance with people with asthma. A cross-sectional, qualitative survey. A purposive sample of 47 adults with asthma from Dundee, UK. The subjects were identified from general practice asthma registers and had a range of ages and asthma severity but no significant comorbidity. Tape-recorded semi-structured interviews. The topic guide was based on the literature and had been piloted in a previous study. The participants focussed on improving their lives, only aiming to improve their asthma as a means of improving their lives. Three aspects of asthma were reported to help or hinder improving life: the use of asthma medication, trigger avoidance and exercise. People integrated these three aspects of asthma in order to maximize life.\",\n \"yes. A Web-based telemedicine system can be a useful tool facilitating the management of pregnant diabetes patients, as a complement to conventional outpatient clinic visits.\",\n \"According to guidelines, inhaler technique should be tested in all patients, particularly those with poorly controlled asthma. We aimed to assess uncontrolled asthma patients' ability to use a pressurised metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) using the Aerosol Inhalation Monitor (AIM, © Vitalograph). Practices invited patients for a detailed clinical review by trained asthma nurses according to practice-agreed protocols. Reviews took place from 1st April to 30th June 2008, and included checking of inhaler technique. Reasons for invitations included, time since last review, asthma control, prescriptions, adherence to medical advice. A proxy measure of control--the total number of short-acting β2-agonist (SABA) bronchodilator inhaler canisters prescribed in the previous 12 months--was used. Data on 77 pre-determined clinical parameters (including prescribing and healthcare utilisation data) were collected. Patient-completed postal symptom questionnaires (the RCP 3 questions) were obtained in some patients. All patients using pMDIs had at least two assessments using the AIM, and where appropriate inhaler technique education was provided. 2123 (24% of those invited) symptomatic asthma patients were reviewed; 1291 (61%) were using pMDIs (mean age 52 years; SD 21), of whom over 80% were in BTS/SIGN Steps 2 and 3. 1092 (85.6%) of those patients using pMDIs failed the first AIM assessment. There was a significant increase in the number of patients able to use their pMDIs correctly following instruction after the second (129 to 260 of 1197 patients, p<0.01) and third (61 to 181 of 528 patients, p< 0.01) tests. However, 78.4% and 65.7% of those tested twice and three times, respectively, failed the AIM assessment despite instruction. Logistic regression analysis failed to show any effect of age and BTS step on these outcomes.\",\n \"Guidelines from the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program stipulate that multicomponent self-management interventions for asthma should include a written action plan (WAP). However the specific, independent effect of WAPs in improving outcomes remains unclear. To measure the association between WAP use during the previous year and improved asthma outcomes. We conducted a longitudinal quasi-experimental study using data from the Healthy Homes II (HH-II) randomized controlled trial in Seattle, WA. Action plan use during the previous year was measured at exit of HH-II. A participant was a WAP user if he used his action plan every day, almost every day, or once per week, and non-user if he did not meet these criteria. Sensitivity analyses explored less stringent criteria for WAP user designation. Prespecified outcomes were baseline-to-exit changes in asthma control in the previous 2 weeks, Pediatric Asthma Caregiver Quality of Life Scale score, and urgent health services utilization. We used robust linear and logistic regression to compare outcomes across groups. Two hundred fifty-one patients participated: 112 WAP users; 139 non-users. After adjustment, no significant differences in outcomes were observed between WAP users and non-users. Among a subgroup of participants with recent urgent health services utilization, WAP users had better asthma control than non-users. Changing WAP user criteria to include those who simply owned an action plan, irrespective of use, did not alter our results.\",\n \"Internet-based applications are becoming more common in our modern world. While electronic health records (EHR) are available for patients and health care providers outside of Germany, most of the available data on EHR address only monetary advantages.This study explores whether or not internet-based communication between family physicians (FP) and patients is as safe as traditional oral communication and if it may lead to further benefits. 500 patients from 14 family doctors' offices were included in this 6 months RCT. Both groups were treated in the same manner by their respective physicians, but members of the study group (SG) were able to access an individual developed web-based software where they could view their diagnosis and medication, and send an electronic message to their doctors who would respond. Their satisfication with the FP, certain health data and the FP's workload were recorded. a) Patients' satisfaction: When e.g. asked about the organization of the family practice or trust in the doctor, there were no significant differences between the control (CG) and the SG (p = 0.07; p = 0.53). However, patients of the SG felt better informed (p = 0.01), and generally more satisfied with their FP (p = 0.04). b) FP workload: Members of the CG had 8.44 contacts with their doctors during the study, while the SG only had 7.96 recorded contacts (including web-based contacts, p = 0.32). It took physicians 3:52 minutes less to read and respond to an electronic message than to see a patient during the consultation hours. c) Changes in patients' health: During the study the blood pressure (BP) in the CG rose 4.44/2.80 mmHg, while it dropped 3.13/4.36 mmHg in the SG (p = 0.19/0.01).The HbA(1C) dropped in both groups (p = 0.91). One week after the first visit to the family doctor, patients of the SG rated their pain 0.28 points lower on a VAS than the CG (p = 0.75). 91% from the CG and 96% from the SG requested the re-prescription of long-term medication on time (p = 0.16).\",\n \"To determine whether a previously-validated touch screen computer program of symptoms and management of childhood asthma is acceptable to parents who accompany their children to consult a GP, and to examine whether any parent characteristics are associated with acceptability. Conducted in general practice in Newcastle, NSW, Australia. A cross sectional pen and paper survey was given to parents of children consulting a GP after completing the computer questionnaire on childhood asthma in the waiting room. Measurements were frequencies of Likert scale responses to statements concerning the computer questionnaire, compared with demographic and personal characteristics. High levels of acceptability of the asthma computer questionnaire were reported by the 198 respondents, with most being willing to do the same program once or twice a year (87%), or to do similar programs on other topics (91%). Most respondents (81%) agreed that the computer program was enjoyable, and very few (8%) would have preferred to answer the asthma questions by pen and paper rather than by computer. Two or more children accompanying the parent was the characteristic most associated with less positive responses.\",\n \"Descriptive, cross-sectional study. An urban primary care center. 141 patients with asthma. Performance of a practical test to evaluate each step in IT for different devices according to SEPAR-semFYC guidelines. One point was scored for each step that was performed correctly, and the technique was considered correct if the total score was>9. The main outcome variable was the percentage of patients who performed the IT correctly. About three-fourths of the participants (77.3%) were women; mean age was 56.08 +/- 18.99 years. Inhalation technique was incorrect in 53.9% of the patients (51.06% of those who used a pressurized canister inhaler, 59.1% of those who used a PCI+spacer, 38.5% of those who used a Turbuhaler, and 37.5% of those who used an Accuhaler). The highest error rates were seen in exhaling completely before beginning the inhalation (63.78%), holding the breath after inhalation for as long as possible (65.94%), and breathing out slowly after the inhalation (64.86%). Better IT was seen in younger patients with higher levels of education (P=.007). There were no statistically significant differences in the rest of the variables.\",\n \"In a real-life setting,>40% of subjects with mild/moderate asthma are currently treated by protocols based on the results of RCTs for which they would not have been eligible. This proportion increases in elderly patients with comorbidities. These findings limit the generalizability of RCTs and advocate that complementary pragmatic studies be conducted. © 2015 S. Karger AG, Basel.\",\n \"Self-management of moderate-to-severe asthma depends on the patient's ability to (1) navigate (access health care to obtain diagnoses and treatment), (2) use inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) properly, and (3) understand ICS function. We sought to test whether navigation skills (medication recall, knowledge of copay requirements, and ability to provide information needed for a medical visit about a persistent cough unresponsive to medication) are related to other self-management skills and health literacy. A 21-item Navigating Ability (NAV2) questionnaire was developed, validated, and then read to adults with moderate-to-severe asthma. ICS technique was evaluated by using scales derived from instructions in national guidelines; knowledge of ICS function was evaluated by using a validated 10-item questionnaire. Spearman correlation was computed between NAV2 score and these questionnaires and with numeracy (Asthma Numeracy Questionnaire) and print literacy (Short Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults). Two hundred fifty adults participated: age, 51 ± 13 years; 72% female; 65% African American; 10% Latino; 50% with household income of less than $30,000/y; 47% with no more than a 12th-grade education; and 29% experienced hospitalizations for asthma in the prior year. A higher NAV2 score was associated with correct ICS technique (ρ = 0.24, P = .0002), knowledge of ICSs (ρ = 0.35, P < .001), better print literacy (ρ = 0.44, P < .001), and numeracy (ρ = 0.41, P < .001).\",\n \"In stable, optimized COPD patients who have already completed PR, telemonitoring in addition to best care, reduces primary care chest contacts but not hospital or specialist team utilization.\",\n \"Patient decision aids (PDAs) are used in shared decision making to improve practitioner-patient communication and help patients decide about treatment options. To develop a PDA for adults with asthma considering inhaled corticosteroids, with or without long-acting beta2-agonists, to optimize asthma control. The PDA was developed based on the International Patient Decision Aid Standards. Step 1: PDA was drafted. Step 2: PDA acceptability was assessed among target users, certified asthma educators (CAEs) and adults with asthma, following an iterative process. a) Participants read the PDA, b) rated its presentation, length, balance, and perceived usefulness, indicated what they liked/disliked about it, and made suggestions for improvement. c) Based on results from (b), PDA was refined. This process was repeated with new participants until no suggestions were made. Step 3: The PDA was field tested with target users. Interviews with CAEs were conducted to identify areas of improvement. Step 4: Final PDA version was written. A color-printed, 4-page, letter-sized PDA was drafted. Acceptability testing involved 11 CAEs (women, n = 10) and 20 adults with asthma (women, n = 13; age 22-61 years). Five successive refined versions were produced. Major changes were made to PDA terminology, instructions, paper size, and visual presentation. Two CAEs (women, n = 2) and 26 adults with asthma (women, n = 19; age 20-65 years) field tested PDA. Minor changes were made to language and instructions to ensure usability. The final version was a color-printed, 12-page, A3-sized booklet.\",\n \"Three in four cancer outpatients under treatment have access to the Internet and half use websites dedicated to health topics, with an impact of the age and the socioeconomic class level. Developing e-communication tools between caregivers and patients might be considered to improve their home monitoring.\",\n \"yes. An audiovisual reminder function can significantly improve adherence with ICS therapy in adult asthma.\",\n \"To explore the extent to which telemonitoring in patients with heart failure empowers them to self-care. Telemonitoring is increasingly used to provide structured follow-up. In patients with heart failure it has been shown to reduce mortality. However there is limited knowledge of the extent to which it supports the patient to develop self-care skills. A qualitative study including interviews with patients at 2 time-points. Fifteen patients mean age 74, 11 (73%) male, 9 (60%) symptomatic on moderate activity, 6 (40%) symptomatic on mild exertion were interviewed at two time points: firstly following three months of telemonitoring and the second interview following six months of telemonitoring. Thematic analysis of the data was undertaken using constant comparison. Patients undertook a variety of self-care actions. During the three-month interview technological skills featured highly in patients accounts and they used telemonitoring to facilitate professional monitoring. However, during the six-month interview patients described how they used telemonitoring to support their self-care actions. Such actions were based on the understanding of heart failure that patients developed from their personal experience of symptoms, and their interaction with the telemonitoring and the telemonitoring nurse. We found no difference in self-care actions regardless of patients age, severity of their heart failure, time since diagnosis with heart failure or living alone.\",\n \"The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.\",\n \"To determine whether well trained lay people could deliver asthma self-management education with comparable outcomes to that achieved by primary care based practice nurses. Randomised equivalence trial. 39 general practices in West London and North West England. 567 patients with asthma who were on regular maintenance therapy. 15 lay educators were recruited and trained to deliver asthma self-management education. An initial consultation of up to 45 min offered either by a lay educator or a practice based primary care nurse, followed by a second shorter face to face consultation and telephone follow-up for 1 year. Unscheduled need for healthcare. Patient satisfaction and need for courses of oral steroids. 567 patients were randomised to care by a nurse (n = 287) or a lay educator (n = 280) and 146 and 171, respectively, attended the first face to face educational session. During the first two consultations, management changes were made in 35/146 patients seen by a practice nurse (24.0%) and in 56/171 patients (32.7%) seen by a lay educator. For 418/567 patients (73.7%), we have 1 year data on use of unscheduled healthcare. Under an intention to treat approach, 61/205 patients (29.8%) in the nurse led group required unscheduled care compared with 65/213 (30.5%) in the lay led group (90% CI for difference -8.1% to 6.6%; 95% CI for difference -9.5% to 8.0%). The 90% CI contained the predetermined equivalence region (-5% to +5%) giving an inconclusive result regarding the equivalence of the two approaches. Despite the fact that all patients had been prescribed regular maintenance therapy, 122/418 patients (29.2%) required courses of steroid tablets during the course of 1 year. Patient satisfaction following the initial face to face consultation was similar in both groups.\",\n \"The opportunity to use the Internet to monitor patients with chronic disease can serve as a challenge to reduce the digital divide gap and, furthermore, to increase their social and technological inclusion.\",\n \"Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).\",\n \"Overall the high acceptability of this questionnaire suggests that this computerised format is an appropriate method of screening children for asthma and determining their current management. As a large component of underdiagnosis of asthma is lack of reporting to the doctor, this valid and acceptable diagnostic aid has the potential to improve detection of unreported asthma, and also to identify high-risk individuals.\",\n \"Test-retest reliability of an asthma paper diary versus an electronic diary (e-diary) with an integrated peak flow meter was investigated. The equivalence of the two modes was also evaluated. Prospective, randomized crossover study design in adolescents (12-17 years) and adults (≥18 years). Key inclusion criteria were persistent asthma, Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores ≥16, use of inhaled corticosteroid with or without long-acting beta-agonist for ≥12 weeks, nocturnal awakenings <2 times in the past week, and activity limitations <1 per week. Participants were randomized to either paper then e-diary or e-diary then paper, to be completed for 14 days each. Forty-seven participants completed all study visits. Weekly percentage of symptom-free days (SFDs) and rescue-free days (RFDs) were calculated. Intraclass correlation coefficients (ICCs) of Week 1 mean SFD and RFD (test) and Week 2 mean SFD and RFD (retest), respectively, were estimated in three groups defined as stable: (i) minimal changes in asthma symptoms, as measured by the global patient reported symptom change question, (ii) less than 15% change (absolute value) in 1 second FEV(1) at adjacent study visits, and (iii) changes in ACT scores less than three points for each mode. SFD demonstrated acceptable ICC (≥0.70) using all three definitions of asthma stability for both modes.\",\n \"A study was undertaken to investigate the compliance with and accuracy of peak flow diaries in childhood asthma. Forty asthmatic children (5-16 years) were asked to perform peak flow measurements twice daily for 4 weeks by means of an electronic peak flow meter and to record values in a written diary. Patients and parents were unaware that the device stored the peak flow values on a microchip. In random order, half of the patients were only told that the device allowed for more accurate assessment of peak flow while the other half were told that accurate recording of peak flow was important because the results would be used in guiding adjustments to treatment. Data in the written diary (reported data) were compared with those from the electronic diary (actual data). In the entire study population the mean (SD) actual compliance (77.1 (20.5)%) was much lower than the mean reported compliance (95.7 (9.1)%) (95% CI for difference 12.7% to 24.4%) The percentage of correct peak flow entries decreased from 56% to <50% from the first to the last study week (p<0.04), mainly as a result of an increase in self-invented peak flow entries. Results were comparable for both groups. For incorrect peak flow entries the mean difference between written and electronically recorded entries ranged from -72 to 34 l/min per patient.\",\n \"This study aimed to establish whether the outpatient management of patients presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department (ED) was in compliance with the 1992 guidelines of the \\\"International Consensus Report on the Diagnosis and Management of Asthma.\\\" Prospective, observational study using a researcher-administered questionnaire. University tertiary referral ED. Convenience sample of asthmatics (aged 18 to 54 years) presenting for asthma treatment between July 1, 1997, and June 30, 1998. Eighty-five asthmatic patients were enrolled. Of these, 34 patients (40%) smoked, 53 patients (62%) were undertreated with medication when compared to the consensus guidelines, and 74 patients (87%) had no written \\\"plan of action.\\\" During an asthma attack, 9 patients (11%) did not use a bronchodilator as first-line action and 76 patients (89%) did not commence or increase the use of an inhaled steroid. Forty-nine patients (58%) did not know that bronchospasm occurred in asthma, and 53 patients (62%) did not know that bronchial swelling occurred. Twenty-six patients (31%) thought short-acting bronchodilator drugs were asthma preventers. Sixty-two patients (73%) could not adequately define peak expiratory flow (PF), 41 patients (48%) did not own a PF meter, and only 8 patients (9%) determined their PF daily. Fifty-three patients (62%) were reviewed by a physician once a year or less, and 18 patients (21%) noted family and friends as their only source of asthma education.\",\n \"There is widespread interest in using phone-based and email/Internet-based telehealth among patients with chronic diseases, regardless of their health status, access difficulties, age, or many other sociodemographic factors. This interest could be increased by helping patients gain confidence using technologies and through highlighting benefits and addressing concerns about telehealth. While the same pattern exists for social media telehealth, interest in using these technologies is minimal.\",\n \"Does telehealth reduce the hospital admission rate and cost for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Randomised controlled trial with concealed allocation. The participants' homes in Aalborg, Denmark. Participants were linked with healthcare professionals at primary and secondary healthcare facilities using telehealth technology. Adults were included if they had severe or very severe COPD, lived in Aalborg, and were free from other diseases that limited function (eg, heart disease). Randomisation allocated 60 to the intervention group and 51 to the control group. Participants in the intervention group had a telehealth monitoring device installed in their home for four months and were taught how to monitor their symptoms, measure clinical data (eg, spirometry), use a step counter, and given instructions about home exercise. Healthcare professionals accessed the data to monitor their disease and provide advice. Once a month, the telehealth team met via video to co-ordinate and discuss each participant's rehabilitation program. Those in the control group were instructed regarding home exercises but had no planned contact with healthcare professionals. Hospital admission rate and cost of hospitalisation over a 10-month period. A total of 105 participants completed the study. Over the follow-up period, the admission rate per patient was lower in the intervention group compared with the control group (0.49 vs 1.17, p = 0.041). The cost of hospitalisations appeared to be lower in the intervention group.\",\n \"In summary, the majority of patients used telemonitoring daily and developed self-care skills in monitoring their heart failure. Such skills were developed over the six-month time-period of the study.\",\n \"yes. PATIENTS will use internet technology to report their perceptions of health-related adverse events. Some of the patient-reported events reported will be serious.\",\n \"yes. This novel approach of internet-supervised patient self-management improved time in therapeutic range compared to an anticoagulation clinic. This is the first demonstration of an internet-based expert system enabling remote and effective management of patients on oral anticoagulants. Expert systems may be applicable for management of other chronic diseases.\",\n \"Electronic implementation of questionnaires has many advantages, but there may be concerns that it alters versions that were validated on paper. To determine whether electronic implementation alters responses to the SF-36 and asthma quality of life questionnaire (AQLQ), compared to paper implementation. Patients with asthma presenting to a pneumologist were asked for consent to participate. Each patient completed both forms of each questionnaire. The order of presentation was alternated sequentially, with the first patient completing the electronic version first. Each patient waited at least 2 hours between completions to minimize recollection of answers. For both the SF-36 and AQLQ, intraclass correlations coefficients were calculated to compare patients' scores, for each scale and overall, on the electronic and paper versions. Sixty-eight patients (mean age: 48 years, 50 females) of 311 contacted were enrolled. Overall intraclass correlation coefficients for the SF-36 and AQLQ were excellent (0.965 and 0.991 respectively). For paper versions, eight questions (AQLQ) and 24 (SF-36) were left blank and nine questions (SF-36) were answered incorrectly by patients selecting more than one answer. Electronic data for one patient could not be retrieved.\",\n \"It is possibly worthwhile to implement a telemonitoring platform in a primary care setting; however this study did not show immediate profit for implementation in a CHC that organises diabetes clinics on regular basis. In primary care settings where it will be implemented, even if there is a social-digital divide today, the use of a telemonitoring platform could possibly reduce inequity in health care as time could become available for those most in need for face-to-face contact with their physician.\",\n \"yes. Telehealth can be used to estimate ED visits for respiratory illness at the health unit level. Non-linear modeling methods produced better estimates than regression in larger health units.\",\n \"Patients using practice-based Internet communication and having significant health risks can be identified through the use of administrative data, presenting an opportunity to test online educational efforts to improve health.\",\n \"Originally, the Asthma Control Test (ACT) was designed for English-speaking patients using a paper-and-pencil format. The Turkish version of the ACT was recently validated. This article compares the paper-and-pencil and web-based texting formats of the Turkish version of the ACT and evaluates the compatibility of these ACT scores with GINA-based physician assessments of asthma control. This multicentre prospective study included 431 asthma patients from outpatient clinics in Turkey. The patients were randomized into a paper-and-pencil group (n = 220) and a text messaging group (n = 211). Patients completed the ACT at Visit 1, after 10 ± 2 days, and at 5 ± 1 week to demonstrate the reliability and responsiveness of the test. At each visit, physicians assessed patients' asthma control levels. The ACT administered via texting showed an internal consistency of 0.82. For the texting group, we found a significant correlation between the ACT and physician assessments at Visit 1 (r = 0.60, p < 0.001). The AUC was 0.87, with a sensitivity of 78.0% and a specificity of 77.5% for a score of ≤19 for screening \\\"uncontrolled\\\" asthma in the texting group.\",\n \"Assess acceptance and attitudes regarding telemanagement (HAT) in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Noncompliance is a barrier to successful outcomes in patients with IBD. Novel methods for monitoring and assessing compliance are needed. HAT consists of a laptop connected to a weight scale. HAT prompts patients to respond to questions about symptoms, medication side effects, and compliance. Ten consecutive adult patients with IBD were trained to use HAT. Attitudinal surveys and structured qualitative interviews were performed at the end of the session. Twenty percent of patients had never used a computer at home. All patients reported that use of the computer and self-testing was not complicated. All patients reported that the symptom diary and questions on side effects were easy to answer. All patients reported that self-testing took little time. Eighty percent said that testing would not interfere with usual activities, that they could comply with testing 3 times/wk, and that they would agree to use the system in the future.\",\n \"yes. Children with asthma seen by telemedicine or in-person visits can achieve comparable degrees of asthma control. Telemedicine can be a viable alternative to traditional in-person physician-based care for the treatment and management of asthma.\",\n \"Access to asthma specialists is a problem, particularly in rural areas, thus presenting an opportunity for management using telemedicine. To compare asthma outcomes during 6 months in children managed by telemedicine vs in-person visits. Children with asthma residing in 2 remote locations were offered the choice of an in-person visit or a telemedicine session at a local clinic. The telemedicine process involved real-time use of a Remote Presence Solution (RPS) equipped with a digital stethoscope, otoscope, and high-resolution camera. A telefacilitator operated the RPS and performed diagnostic and educational procedures, such as spirometry and asthma education. Children in both groups were assessed initially, after 30 days, and at 6 months. Asthma outcome measures included asthma control using validated tools (Asthma Control Test, Childhood Asthma Control Test, and Test for Respiratory and Asthma Control in Kids) and patient satisfaction (telemedicine group only). Noninferiority analysis of asthma control was performed using the minimally important difference of an adjusted asthma control test that combined the 3 age groups. Of 169 children, 100 were seen in-person and 69 via telemedicine. A total of 34 in-person and 40 telemedicine patients completed all 3 visits. All had a small, although statistically insignificant, improvement in asthma control over time. Telemedicine was noninferior to in-person visits. Most of the telemedicine group subjects were satisfied with their experience.\",\n \"yes. Virtual group patients achieved excellent asthma therapeutic and disease control outcomes. Compared with those who received standardized office-based care, they were more adherent to diary submission and had better inhaler scores at 52 weeks. Store-and-forward telemedicine technology and case management provide additional tools to assist in the management of children with persistent asthma.\",\n \"The goal was to determine whether home asthma telemonitoring with store-and-forward technology improved outcomes, compared with in-person, office-based visits. A total of 120 patients, 6 to 17 years of age, with persistent asthma were assigned randomly to the office-based or virtual group. The 2 groups followed the same ambulatory clinical pathway for 12 months. Office-based group patients received traditional in-person education and case management. Virtual group patients received computers, Internet connections, and in-home, Internet-based case management and received education through the study Web site. Disease control outcome measures included quality of life, utilization of services, and symptom control. A total of 120 volunteers (45 female) were enrolled. The groups were clinically comparable (office-based: 22 female/38 male; mean age: 9.0 +/- 3.0 years; virtual: 23 female/37 male; mean age: 10.2 +/- 3.1 years). Virtual patients had higher metered-dose inhaler with valved holding chamber technique scores than did the office-based group at 52 weeks (94% vs 89%), had greater adherence to daily asthma symptom diary submission (35.4% vs 20.8%), had less participant time (636 vs 713 patient-months), and were older. Caregivers in both groups perceived an increase in quality of life and an increase in asthma knowledge scores from baseline. There were no other differences in therapeutic or disease control outcome measures.\",\n \"To evaluate the validity of spirometry self-testing during home telemonitoring and to assess the acceptance of an Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring system by asthma patients. We studied an Internet-based telemonitoring system that collected spirometry data and symptom reports from asthma patients' homes for review by physicians in the medical center's clinical information system. After a 40-min training session, patients completed an electronic diary and performed spirometry testing twice daily on their own from their homes for 3 weeks. A medical professional visited each patient by the end of the third week of monitoring, 10 to 40 min after the patient had performed self-testing, and asked the patient to perform the spirometry test again under his supervision. We evaluated the validity of self-testing and surveyed the patients attitude toward the technology using a standardized questionnaire. Telemonitoring was conducted in patients' homes in a low-income inner city area. Thirty-one consecutive asthma patients without regard to computer experience. Thirty-one asthma patients completed 3 weeks of monitoring. A paired t test showed no difference between unsupervised and supervised home spirometry self-testing. The variability of FVC (4.1%), FEV(1) (3. 7%), peak expiratory flow (7.9%), and other spirometric indexes in our study was similar to the within-subject variability reported by other researchers. Despite the fact that the majority of the patients (71%) had no computer experience, they indicated that the self-testing was \\\"not complicated at all\\\" or only \\\"slightly complicated.\\\" The majority of patients (87.1%) were strongly interested in using home asthma telemonitoring in the future.\",\n \"Spirometry self-testing by asthma patients during telemonitoring is valid and comparable to those tests collected under the supervision of a trained medical professional. Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring can be successfully implemented in a group of patients with no computer background.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":926,"string":"926"}}},{"rowIdx":273177,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Is rest or exercise hypertension a cause of a false-positive exercise test?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.","In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression."],"string":"[\n \"To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.\",\n \"In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["no. A single bout of resistance exercise decreased BP and cardiac work for 1 h after exercise under clinical conditions, and did not modify ambulatory cardiovascular variables during 24 h in patients with PAD.","no. Acute-hyperlipidemia does not significantly change exercise hemodynamics in healthy males. Therefore, the association between raised lipids and increased exercise BP is likely due to the chronic effects of hyperlipidemia.","yes. These data suggest that exercise training is an important intervention for salt-sensitive hypertension and that the enhanced survival observed with exercise training appears to be independent of training-induced SBP lowering effects.","yes. To our knowledge, these findings provide the first direct evidence that exercise induces rapid interstitial lung fluid accumulation and hypoxemia in patients with CMS that appear to be related to exaggerated pulmonary hypertension. We suggest that this problem contributes to exercise intolerance in patients with CMS.","30 minutes of rest between two ISWTs are not enough for all cardiovascular variables and perceived exertion to return to baseline values. However, this period appears to be sufficient for blood pressure and performance to recover in most subjects.","Hypertensive response to exercise in patients with untreated stage I essential hypertension is associated with endothelial dysfunction and increased carotid IMT. It seems that this phenomenon is not a benign one but rather a dangerous alarm.","yes. Exercise tests may predict the clinical outcome of CHD among elderly patients. A negative finding in an exercise test is very reliable.","This study demonstrates a 33.3% false positive SHIM diagnosis of ED in men with PE. This is likely to limit subject recruitment in clinical trials by exclusion of subjects with low-range IELTs but is unlikely to result in significantly different baseline IELTs or IELT distributions.","The present study was designed to assess the impact of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) independent of hypertension on the presence of silent myocardial ischemia and arrhythmia, as well as on systolic and diastolic function in otherwise healthy elderly men. Twenty apparently healthy normotensive subjects with LVH were compared with 18 hypertensive subjects with LVH and with 20 healthy subjects without LVH (controls)--all recruited from a health screening programme of 70-year-old men. All participants were free from known coronary heart disease and were evaluated by means of echocardiography with Doppler, a symptom-limited exercise test and 24 h ambulatory ECG monitoring. The healthy normotensive subjects with LVH showed impaired systolic function (ejection fraction 66 +/- 8 (SD)% versus 72 +/- 8% in controls, P < 0.03) and impaired diastolic function (E/A ratio 0.86 +/- 0.20 versus 1.12 +/- 0.30, P < 0.01) as well as an increased number of premature ventricular complexes in the exercise test and during the 24 h ECG monitoring (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. The hypertensive subjects with LVH showed impaired diastolic function (P < 0.05) and a more pronounced ST depression in the exercise test (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. In both of the LVH groups, more than 20% of the subjects evidenced ST-segment depression > or = 1 mm in the exercise test, compared with 5% of the healthy group without LVH.","yes. These data indicate that hypertension leads to enhanced functional coupling of ryanodine receptors-BKCa to buffer pressure-induced constriction of cerebral arteries, which attributes not only to an upregulation of BKCa β1-subunit function but also to an increase of Ca(2+) release from ryanodine receptors. However, regular aerobic exercise efficiently prevents augmented coupling and so alleviates the pathological compensation and restores cerebral arterial function.","Exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response during exercise test reflects future risk of hypertension and has been shown to be related to increased left ventricular mass (LVM) in hypertensive patients. However, it is not known whether there is such a relationship in normotensives. The objective of this study is to investigate whether exercise BP response is related to left ventricular mass in normotensive subjects. Among the normotensive (systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) < 80 mmHg and no history of antihypertensive treatments or clinical cardiovascular diseases) subjects who underwent routine health screening, both exercise test and echocardiography results were available in 7607 men and women. Exercise test was done by Bruce protocol and SBP at stage 1 was used as an indicator of exercise BP response. Left ventricular mass was calculated by American Society of Echocardiography equation, and divided by body surface area to estimate LVM index. Mean age was 50 ± 7 years and proportion of male was 74%. Mean LVM index was 81.3 ± 16.0 gm/m. Exercise SBP at stage 1 was significantly correlated to LVM index (r = 0.11, p < 0.0001) Higher exercise SBP at stage 1 was associated with increased LVM index after adjustment for age, gender, resting SBP and DBP, waist circumference and fasting glucose (p < 0.0001).","yes. MH can be identified in untreated individuals from low-intensity exercise SBP. Further research on the diagnostic value of BP during early phases of exercise stress testing is needed.","Based on the information added by exercise testing to clinical data, these results confirm the ACC/AHA guideline assignments for test selection. However, despite these guidelines, patients with a low pretest probability can be selected for exercise testing with the knowledge that a positive result is infrequent and a negative result carries a very high negative predictive value. Intermediate-probability patients on average carry a significant false-negative rate, suggesting that exercise ECG alone may not be a sufficient screening test in all intermediate-probability patients. Because of poor negative predictive value and a large percentage of negative tests, high-probability patients should undergo coronary angiography as the initial strategy, unless the goal of exercise testing is to assess prognosis.","Whether intensity or other characteristics of physical activity can better promote the release of nitric oxide (NO) and reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive older-adults is still unknown. In this study, the post-exercise blood pressure (BP) response and NO release after different intensities of aerobic exercise in elderly women were analyzed. Blood pressure response and NO were analyzed in 23 elderly mildly hypertensive women. Participants underwent (1) high-intensity incremental exercise (IT); (2) moderate-intensity 20 min exercise at 90% of the anaerobic threshold (AT), and (3) control (CONT) session. BP was measured before and after interventions; volunteers remained seated for 1 h. NO estimates were made through NO2- analyses. After CONT session, both diastolic BP and mean arterial pressure (MAP) were significantly higher than during pre-exercise resting. Post-exercise hypotension (PEH) was observed after exercise at IT and 90% of AT. Although exercise in both sessions lowered SBP and MAP compared with CONT, exercise at the highest intensity (IT) was more effective on lowering systolic BP after exercise. In comparison with pre-exercise resting, NO2- increased significantly only after IT, but both exercise sessions caused NO2- to increase compared with CONT.","Ankle-to-brachial index (ABI) can be easily performed by all physicians. The Ruffier-Dickson (RD) test is an easy procedure to attain moderate exercise at the bedside for physicians who do not have an ergometer. Retrospective analysis. Tertiary care, institutional practice. Fifty-three asymptomatic athletes and 22 patients suffering from unilateral pain due to histologically proven exercise-induced arterial endofibrosis (EIAE). Brachial and ankle systolic blood pressures were measured in the supine position on the suspected leg in EIAE or left leg in controls, at rest (rest) and at the first minute of the recovery from incremental maximal cycle ergometer exercise (maxCE) and Ruffier-Dickson (RD) exercise tests. Comparison of ABI(rest), ABI(maxCE), and ABI(RD) in discriminating patients from normal subjects, using receiver operating characteristics (ROC) curves. Area (+/-SE of area) of ROC curve was 0.76 +/- 0.06 for ABI(rest), 0.83 +/- 0.05 for ABI(RD) (nonsignificant from rest), and 0.99 +/- 0.01 for ABI(maxCE) (P<0.01 from ABI(RD) and P<0.001 from ABI(rest)). An ABI(maxCE) below 0.48 was 100% specific and 80% sensitive for EIAE. For the RD test, a 100% negative predictive value was only attained for postexercise ABI values higher than 0.92.","Physical exercise is known to alter the physiological response to orthostatic stress. This study compared reported physical activity levels in patients with unexplained syncope who did or did not demonstrate positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. We reviewed the records of 1,336 patients with unexplained syncope who underwent carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Patients with positive responses (cases) were compared with patients with negative responses (controls). Multivariable regression analysis was used to identify independent predictors of positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Seventy patients had a positive response to carotid sinus massage and 564 patients had a positive response to head-up tilt-table testing. Physical activity was an independent positive predictor of a positive response to both carotid sinus massage {adjusted odds ratio (AOR) 1.86, 95% CI (1.14-3.05); p = 0.01} and head-up tilt-table testing {AOR 1.31, 95% CI (1.04-1.65); P = 0.02} even after adjustment for multiple other factors including age, gender, and other medical conditions.","yes. Prehypertension is associated with metabolic disarrangement and preclinical target organ damage but not with exercise capacity. Exercise capacity is determined by age, resting heart rate, and body composition in relatively healthy individuals who do not have hypertension.","The mechanisms responsible for impaired cardiovascular hemodynamics during exercise among persons with milder forms of hypertension are not well documented. We examined the relationship of oxygen pulse during exercise, a correlate of stroke volume, with echocardiographic indices of resting left ventricular function to determine whether abnormal contractility and relaxation are related to abnormal cardiovascular dynamics during exercise among such persons. Subjects were 44 men and 55 women ages 55 to 75 years with mild hypertension but who were otherwise healthy. Resting left ventricular systolic and diastolic functions were assessed with 2-dimensional Doppler echocardiography and tissue Doppler imaging. Oxygen pulse (millimeters per beat) at rest and during multistage treadmill testing was derived from measurements of oxygen consumption and heart rate. The slope of oxygen pulse between successive exercise stages was calculated. After a steep rise in oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 of exercise, a markedly diminished oxygen pulse slope was seen between subsequent exercise stages. In stepwise regression analysis, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 was explained by a greater lean body mass (57%, P < .001) and a larger left atrial size (2%, P < .001). After exercise stage 1, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse was explained by sex (24%, P < .001), higher mitral E/A ratio (6%, P < .001), and higher mitral annular systolic velocity (6%, P < .001).","Stroke mortality rate is higher in South Asians than in Europeans, despite equivalent or lower resting blood pressure (BP). Elevated recovery BP after exercise predicts stroke, independently of resting values. We hypothesized that South Asians would have adverse postexercise hemodynamics and sought explanations for this. A population-based sample of 147 European and 145 South Asian middle-aged men and women performed the Dundee 3-minute step test. Cardiovascular risk factors were measured. BP, heart rate, and rate-pressure product, a measure of myocardial oxygen consumption, were compared. With 90% power and 5% significance, we could detect a difference of 0.38 of a standard deviation in any outcome measure. Resting systolic BP was similar in South Asians (144 mm Hg) and Europeans (142 mm Hg) (P=0.2), as was exercise BP (P=0.4). However, recovery systolic BP at 3 minutes after exercise was higher in South Asians by 4.3 mm Hg (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.2 to 8.3 mm Hg; P=0.04). This effect persisted when adjusted for exercise BP and work effort (5.4 mm Hg [95% CI, 2.2 to 8.7 mm Hg; P=0.001]). Adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and greater aortic stiffness in South Asians contributes greatly to attenuating this ethnic difference (1.9 mm Hg [95% CI, -0.9 to 4.6 mm Hg; P=0.4]). Similarly, rate-pressure product recovery after exercise was impaired in South Asians by 735 mm Hg/min (95% CI, 137 to 1334 mm Hg/min; P=0.02); again, adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and aortic stiffness attenuated this difference (261 mm Hg/min [95% CI, -39 to 561 mm Hg/min; P=0.3]).","Our aim was to investigate the relationship between impaired exercise capacity and albumin excretion level in the setting of never treated essential hypertension. For this purpose, 338 consecutive essential hypertensives (52 ± 8.5 years, 227 males, office BP = 148.6/96.1 mmHg) performed a negative for myocardial ischemia, maximal treadmill exercise testing and were classified based on the gender specific median value of the amount of metabolic equivalents (METs) achieved (10.1 ml/kg/min for women and 11 ml/kg/min for men) as fit (n = 177) and unfit (n = 161). All the participants underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring, complete echocardiographic study including left ventricular diastolic function evaluation and determination of albumin to creatinine ratio (ACR) on two non-consecutive morning spot urine samples. Unfit hypertensives compared to the fit ones were older by 4.5 years (p < 0.001) and had greater waist circumference by 4.5 cm (p < 0.001), body mass index by 1.3 kg/m(2) (p = 0.001), 24-h pulse pressure by 3.0 mmHg (p = 0.005), ACR levels by 12.6% (p = 0.003) and prevalence of microalbuminuria (19.5% vs 10.3%, p = 0.007) while the differences in diastolic function indices lost significance after adjustment for confounders. By applying stepwise multivariate linear regression analysis in order to identify the predictors of METs, it was revealed that age (β = -0.338, p = 0.045), gender (β = 0.274, p = 0.045), body mass index (β = -0.230, p = 0.045) and logACR (β = -0.151, p = 0.004) were the only independent predictors of exercise capacity.","yes. A direct effect of cuff inflation leads to the underestimation of ongoing HR during cuff-based ABP measurement. Additional underestimation of HR occurs during periods with physical activity, probably due to behavioural freezing during blood pressure measurements. HR underestimation was not affected by hypertensive state. When its limitations are taken into account, ABP-derived ambulatory HR can be considered a reliable and valid measure.","yes. Replacement of the RDT kit's dedicated buffer by saline, distilled water and tap water can cause false-positive test results.","Studies on the prognostic importance of the systolic blood pressure (SBP) response during exercise report ambiguous results. Most research focuses on younger and middle-aged selected patient groups and rarely includes women. We investigated the prognostic value of SBP response during exercise testing in 75-year-olds. Prospective observational cohort study. A community-based random sample of 75-year-old men and women (n = 382). The prognostic value of SBP change from rest to peak exercise during a symptom-limited cycle test was evaluated for the endpoints all-cause mortality and cardiovascular mortality during long-term follow-up. After a median follow-up of 10.6 years, 140 (37%) of the participants had died, 64 (17%) from cardiovascular causes. The all-cause mortalities for exercise SBP changes of < or =30 mm Hg, 31-55 mm Hg and >55 mm Hg were 5.1, 4.2 and 2.6 per 100 person-years, respectively (logrank 9.6; p = 0.008). For every 10 mm Hg increase in SBP during exercise the relative hazard for all-cause mortality was reduced by 13% (p = 0.030) and for cardiovascular mortality by 26% (p = 0.004) after adjustment for sex, smoking, waist circumference, total/HDL cholesterol ratio, prevalent ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, cardiovascular medication, pre-exercise SBP, exercise capacity, resting left ventricular ejection fraction and left ventricular mass index.","To test the hypothesis that in young, normotensive obese subjects, physical activity at a fixed, moderate workload, causes a more pronounced hypertensive effect than in lean subjects. 24 subjects (12 with BMI >30 kg/m(2), 12 with BMI <25 kg/m(2)), underwent a moderate-intensity physical activity protocol (cycling at 100 W). Blood pressure and oxygen consumption were monitored continuously. In the obese subjects, physical activity caused a more pronounced increase in both systolic blood pressure (increase of 40.4 +/- 15.3 mmHg vs 21.2 +/- 10.2 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.001) and diastolic blood pressure (17.5 +/- 17.9 mmHg vs 3.2 +/- 8.1 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.02). In regression analyses, these differences were only partly explained by small differences in resting blood pressure.","1. The prevalence of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing is very high, occurring in more than two-thirds of patients. 2. This prevalence is significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations. 3. Age, gender, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium channel antagonists, significant valvular disesase/LVH, symptoms and blood pressure during stress were not associated with the presence or absence of IVG. 4. The presence of IVG is associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST changes during dobutamine stress echocardiography.","The objective of this study was to investigate the effect of regular physical activity on the haemodynamic response to public speaking and to evaluate the long-term effect of exercise on development of hypertension. We assessed 75 sedentary and 44 active participants screened for stage 1 hypertension with consistent activity habits and 63 normotensive individuals as control. The blood pressure (BP) response to public speaking was assessed with beat-to-beat noninvasive recording. Definition of incident hypertension was based either on clinic or 24-h BP measurement. The BP response to public speaking was greater in the hypertensive than the normotensive participants (P=0.018/0.009). Among the former, sedentary participants showed increased BP reactivity to the speech test (45.2+/-22.6/22.2+/-11.5mmHg, P<0.01/<0.001 versus controls), whereas physically active participants had a response similar to that of controls (35.4+/-18.5/18.5+/-11.5mmHg, P=not significant). During a median follow-up of 71 months, ambulatory BP did not virtually change in the active participants (-0.9+/-7.8/-0.0+/-4.7mmHg) and increased in their sedentary peers (2.8+/-9.8/3.2+/-7.4mmHg, P=0.08/0.003 versus active). Active participants were less likely to develop incident hypertension than sedentary ones. After controlling for several confounders including baseline heart rate, the hazard ratio was 0.53 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.31-0.94] for clinic hypertension and 0.60 (95% CI 0.37-0.99) for ambulatory hypertension. Inclusion of BP response to public speaking into the Cox model influenced the strength of the association only marginally [hazard ratio=0.55 (95% CI 0.30-0.97) and hazard ratio=0.59 (95% CI 0.36-0.99), respectively].","yes. This study shows that the percentage of positive exercise challenge test results in the summer is half that of any other season. It is likely that the lower percentage of positive results for asthma in the summer reflects the lower sensitivity of the test during this season due to decreased asthma activity. We suggest performing exercise challenge testing only when patients are symptomatic. Physicians caring for patients with symptoms suggestive of exercise-induced asthma whose exercise test results are negative while asymptomatic should consider repeat exercise testing when their patients are symptomatic.","yes. EFT was found to be related to altered BP responses to exercise stress testing. The echocardiographic measurement of EFT may serve as a useful non-invasive indicator of heightened risk of future hypertension.","A previous study observed that the chronic effects of aerobic training on blood pressure (BP) are related to acute BP responses after a single bout of aerobic exercise. However, whether similar responses are observed with resistance exercise (RE) remains obscure. Thus, this study analysed the relationship between the acute BP responses to a single bout of RE and chronic changes in resting BP after a RE training in medicated hypertensive elderly women. Twenty medicated hypertensive women participated in the study. They underwent an acute RE bout where BP and heart rate (HR) were obtained at rest and for 60 min after the RE. Subsequently, the participants underwent a progressive RE training for 12 weeks at 60-80% of maximal strength test. Resting BP and HR were also obtained after the RE training. The chronic decreases in systolic and diastolic BP were significantly greater in the participants who experienced acutely decreased systolic and diastolic BP, respectively (P<0·05). The changes in systolic BP after acute RE were correlated with the chronic changes in resting systolic BP after RE training (r = 0·47; P = 0·03). Similar correlations between acute and chronic responses were also observed for diastolic BP (r = 0·70; P = 0·01), mean BP (r = 0·58; P = 0·01), HR (r = 0·73; P<0·01) and RPP (r = 0·52; P = 0·01).","yes. Normal coronary arteries show reduced vasodilation during exercise in hypertensive patients that may be explained by the presence of endothelial dysfunction. Stenotic vessels demonstrate paradoxical vasoconstriction during exercise in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. PTCA reverses vasoconstriction by elimination of the flow-limiting stenosis and prevention of coronary stenosis narrowing during exercise in normotensive and hypertensive patients.","The aim of this study was to test the hypothesis that blood pressure (BP) reactivity to the stress of a clinic visit, the so-called white-coat effect, is associated with increased BP reactivity to physical activity. Patients referred to our clinic for assessment of hypertension prospectively underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring and simultaneous actigraphy. The difference between mean clinic BP and mean daytime ambulatory BP was considered to be a measure of the white-coat effect. Presence or absence of a white-coat effect (clinic-daytime difference > 0 mmHg) was added to a mixed model regression of BP on mean activity score for the 10-min interval preceding BP measurement. The group (n = 421) was heterogeneous in age, gender, mean 24-h BP and use of antihypertensive medications. A total of 259 patients had a systolic white-coat effect; for diastolic BP there were 264. Female patients exhibited a significantly larger white-coat effect. Coefficients for the regressions of both systolic and diastolic blood pressure on physical activity levels were significantly higher in those who had a white-coat effect.","yes. Raised ARR consequent to β-blocker therapy causes false-positive screening for PA. Where β-blockers can be safely withdrawn, this effect is reversed within 2-3 weeks depending on whether DRC or PRA is used to calculate ARR.","Insulin resistance has been implicated in the pathogenesis of essential hypertension. Elevated blood pressure during physical exercise is a more powerful predictor of future hypertension than resting blood pressure. We have therefore studied the relationship between insulin resistance and blood pressure response to exercise in strongly hypertension-prone subjects. Twenty-five normotensive subjects aged 18-35 years with bi-parental hypertension, and 26 matched controls with normotensive parents. (i) Maximal exercise tolerance test with continuous gas-exchange measurement; (ii) blood pressure at rest, during exercise and 24-h ambulatory; (iii) euglycemic hyperinsulinemic clamp. Diastolic blood pressure during exercise was higher in hypertensionprone subjects as compared to controls, but only in subjects with low insulin sensitivity. Resting and 24-h diastolic blood pressure were higher in hypertension-prone subjects, but independent of insulin sensitivity level. Insulin sensitivity and exercise capacity were similar in the groups.","no. It is unlikely that the exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes are caused by the exercise-induced immune response. Therefore, exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes have to be differentiated from increases in cardiovascular patients with systemic inflammation.","yes. Changes in diastolic blood pressure during gentle exercise are strongly associated with serum concentrations of total cholesterol and insulin resistance. This may contribute to development of hypertensive complications in dyslipidemic and/or insulin-resistant patients.","yes. Postexercise recovery of BP and rate-pressure product is impaired in South Asians compared to Europeans even though resting and exercise BP are similar. This is associated with the autonomic dysfunction and aortic stiffness in South Asians.","yes. RVA pacing results in myocardial perfusion defects. The false-positive findings are present at rest and more obvious with high-rate pacing than during adenosine infusion. Detection of coronary artery disease should be performed with caution in RVA paced patients because of the high number of perfusion defects observed in the absence of coronary artery disease.","no. Achievement of 85% MPHR is not a valid diagnostic or functional exercise endpoint because it significantly underestimates exercise capacity and inducible ischemia.","The aim of this study was to investigate the association between an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response to exercise and augmented angiotensin (Ang) II rise during exercise. Although a central pressor effect of Ang II has been implicated in the pathogenesis of hypertension, the relationship between Ang II and exaggerated BP response to exercise is unclear. Thirty-six subjects with an exaggerated BP response to exercise (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group II) were compared with 36 age- and gender-matched control subjects (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group I) with normal BP reactivity. The subjects who had resting BP >or=140/90 mm Hg or were treated with any antihypertensive drugs were excluded. The blood was sampled at rest and immediately after peak exercise for measurement of renin, Ang II, aldosterone, and catecholamine. At rest, there were no significant differences in BP, renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine levels between the 2 groups. The renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine were increased during exercise, but there were no significant differences between the groups. However, log Ang II at rest (0.78 +/- 0.32 vs. 0.98 +/- 0.38, p = 0.004) and peak exercise (0.84 +/- 0.35 vs. 1.17 +/- 0.51, p < 0.001) and the magnitude of the increment of log Ang II with exercise (0.06 +/- 0.12 vs. 0.19 +/- 0.20, p = 0.003) were significantly higher in the exaggerated BP response group.","yes. In patients with Doppler evidence of diastolic dysfunction at rest and a hypertensive response to exercise, Ang II receptor blockade blunts the hypertensive response to exercise, increases exercise tolerance and improves quality of life.","Patients with hypertensive heart disease and left ventricular hypertrophy demonstrate impaired left ventricular diastolic filling. Aim of this study was to find out if physiological left ventricular hypertrophy induced by endurance training causes abnormal left ventricular systolic and diastolic filling. We examined 42 athletes with left ventricular hypertrophy due to endurance training (aged 25 +/- 7 years), 31 patients with left ventricular hypertrophy due to hypertensive heart disease (aged 28 +/- 6 years) and 20 untrained, healthy subjects (controls, aged 26 +/- 8 years) by conventional echocardiography and calculated left ventricular muscle mass and fractional shortening. In addition the following Doppler-echocardiographic parameters were measured: maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, ratio of maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, acceleration and deceleration time and isovolumetric relaxation time. All three study groups showed normal fractional shortening. Conventional echocardiography revealed a higher left ventricular muscle mass in the two study groups as compared to the controls (controls: 119 +/- 12 g, athletes: 225 +/- 18 g*; hypertensive patients: 216 +/- 16 g*; * p<0.01 versus controls). In the athletes with physiological left ventricular hypertrophy a normal left ventricular diastolic filling pattern was documented (VE: 0.64 +/- 0.1 m/s; VA: 0.51 +/- 0.2 m/s). In hypertensive heart disease a diastolic dysfunction in terms of a delayed relaxation pattern with a decrease of maximal early velocity of diastolic filling (VE: 0.45 +/- 0.09 m/s) and a compensatory increase of the maximal late velocity of diastolic filling (VA: 0.54 +/- 0.1 m/s) was demonstrated.","We assessed the association of systolic blood pressure response to exercise with the risk of an acute myocardial infarction. We conducted a population-based follow-up study. This study was based on 1731 middle-aged men without history of coronary heart disease who underwent a cycle ergometer exercise test. Systolic blood pressure was measured every 2 min during a cycle ergometer exercise test in 1731 men followed for 12.7 years on average. A total of 188 acute myocardial infarctions were observed. The total change in systolic blood pressure, the slope of the rise in systolic blood pressure per minute and maximal systolic blood pressure during exercise in quintiles were related to the risk of acute myocardial infarction. Maximal systolic blood pressure of over 230 mmHg was associated with a 2.47 [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.46-4.18] fold risk of acute myocardial infarction, after adjustment for age, other risk factors including the use of antihypertensive medications and systolic blood pressure at rest. Among men with elevated systolic blood pressure at rest, the relative risk for an acute myocardial infarction was 4.31 (95% CI 2.04-9.07) times higher for those who had a steep slope of systolic blood pressure rise (>9.4 mmHg per min of exercise) as compared with those who had a more gradual rise in systolic blood pressure.","yes. In a group of consecutive subjects referred for ambulatory BP monitoring, masked hypertension was found to be as common as isolated clinic hypertension. Masking was correlated with male sex, young age, and higher awake heart rate, thus suggesting a causal relationship with greater daytime physical activity. The linear association of the masking and the white-coat effects to clinic BP suggests that regression toward the mean may partially explain these phenomena.","Hypertensives may develop bilateral trapping of para-aminohippurate analogues in the tissue of the kidneys during light exercise, as can be demonstrated using radioactively labelled [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine. Tracer accumulation in the kidneys during exercise results in a typical renographic pattern, the bilateral-abnormal exercise renogram. The disturbance is common during exercise, being found in almost 60% of all hypertensives, regardless of aetiology. To determine whether bilateral-abnormal exercise renograms are spurious phenomena, or whether the results of exercise renography are reproducible. We reviewed the renographic examinations of 27 hypertensive patients, each of whom had undergone at least one resting and two [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine gamma-camera exercise renograms. The status of the renal artery at the time of scintigraphy was documented, using available arteriograms. The causes of vascular lesions were noted, as were revascularization procedures and the antihypertensive medication being taken at the time of scintigraphy. The average time between exercise renograms was 15.5 months, and 24 of the 27 hypertensive patients had comparable results in the first and the follow-up exercise renogram, divergent results being noted for the other three patients. Re-evaluation of the scintigrams of the three hypertensive patients with divergent results suggested that intermittent pelvic retention might have caused errors of interpretation in two. We found it notable that neither revascularization nor a change in antihypertensive drug therapy influenced the results of exercise renography. Exercise renograms were reproducible over long periods, and potential extraneous influences on blood flow, such as antihypertensive drugs or revascularization, failed to alter the results.","To evaluate the effects of high-intensity resistance exercise on postexercise hypotension (PEH) and forearm vascular resistance (FVR) in the hypertensive elderly. The study was conducted with ten hypertensive elderly individuals (65 ± 3 years, 28·7 ± 3 kg m(-2)). They were subjected to three experimental sessions: control session (SC), exercise 50% (S50%) and 80% (S80%) of 1RM. For each session, subjects were evaluated pre-and postintervention. In the preintervention, the blood pressure (BP) and FVR were measured after 10 min of rest. Thereafter, they were taken to the gym to perform the exercise sessions or remained at rest in each of the equipment during the same time. Both S50% and S80% were composed of a set of ten repetitions of ten exercises, with an interval of 90 s between exercises. Subsequently, the FVR and BP measurements were again performed at 10, 30, 50, 70 and 90 min of recovery (postintervention). The PEH was greater in S80% compared with S50%, with the lower value of BP being found at 90 min of recovery for the two sessions (systolic BP: 115 ± 3,0 mmHg versus 124 ± 5 mmHg; diastolic BP: 75 ± 5 mmHg versus 86 ± 3 mmHg and mean BP: 87 ± 3 mmHg versus 95 ± 4 mmHg, respectively). Concomitantly, the FVR also decreased significantly in both sessions, this reduction being more evident in S80% (P<0·05).","The apparent relation between exercise systolic blood pressure response and left ventricular mass is confounded by age, resting systolic blood pressure, and body mass; the degree of confounding is such that the biologic significance of this relationship should be questioned.","Although an exaggerated systolic blood pressure (SBP) response to exercise is a predictor of future hypertension and cardiovascular mortality, the underlying mechanisms are not fully understood. We tested the hypothesis that an exaggerated SBP response is associated with carotid atherosclerosis in a cross-sectional study of 9073 healthy men (aged 47.8 +/- 8.8 years). Exaggerated SBP response was defined as an SBP of 210 mmHg or greater during a maximal treadmill test. Carotid atherosclerosis was defined as stenosis greater than 25% or intima-media thickness greater than 1.2 mm using B-mode ultrasonography. An exaggerated SBP response was present in 375 men (4.1%). The proportion of individuals with carotid atherosclerosis in the group with an exaggerated SBP response to exercise was higher than in the group with a normal SBP response (14.4 versus 5.3%, P < 0.001). In a multivariable logistic regression model, individuals with an exaggerated SBP (>or= 210 mmHg) response to exercise had a 2.02 times [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.33-3.05] increased risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals with an SBP response of less than 210 mmHg. The highest quartile (> 61 mmHg) group of relative exercise-induced increases in SBP showed a 1.57 (95% CI 1.18-2.08) greater risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals in the lowest quartile (< 38 mmHg) in the adjusted model.","We examined by thallium-201 scintigraphy whether exercise-induced abnormal blood pressure response (BPR) is related to myocardial ischemia. Hemodynamic instabilities during exercise in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) are considered to be caused by abnormal reflex control of vascular resistance. In 105 patients with HCM, exercise thallium scintigraphy was performed by means of a multistage, symptom-limited bicycle ergometer exercise test. Eighty-eight patients had normal BPR (> or = 25 mm Hg from baseline to peak exercise), and 17 had abnormal BPR (<25 mm Hg). Clinical characteristics including age, the prevalence of obstruction, New York Heart Association functional class and echocardiographic measurements were similar between the two groups. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure was significantly higher in patients with abnormal BPR than in those with normal BPR (18+/-8 vs. 14+/-5 mm Hg, p < 0.05). Exercise-induced perfusion abnormalities including fixed and reversible perfusion defects, and left ventricular cavity dilatation (LVCD) were identified in 72 (69%) of 105 study patients. Left ventricular cavity dilatation indicates subendocardial hypoperfusion and is a marker of diffuse subendocardial ischemia. The prevalence of fixed or reversible perfusion defects was similar between the two groups. Patients with abnormal BPR had the higher prevalence of LVCD as compared to those with normal BPR (47.1 vs. 10%, p < 0.0002). Multiple logistic regression analysis revealed that LVCD was independently associated with abnormal BPR (odds ratio 3.76, 95% confidence interval 1.61 to 8.76).","yes. Among asymptomatic patients undergoing stress testing, delayed HRR was independently associated with early and late stages of PHT. Further studies are needed to determine the usefulness of measuring HRR in the prevention and management of hypertension.","This study sought to assess the diagnostic value of myocardial perfusion imaging during exercise and pharmacologic stress in patients with left bundle branch block. Patients with left bundle branch block often have septal perfusion defects during exercise perfusion tomography that mimic defects caused by coronary artery disease. These defects appear to be less frequent during pharmacologic stress using adenosine or dipyridamole. Data are scantly on the value of dobutamine tomography in these patients. We studied 383 consecutive patients with left bundle branch block referred for perfusion scintigraphy over a 5-year span. Perfusion tomography was performed in conjunction with exercise in 206 patients, adenosine in 127 and dobutamine in 50. Coronary angiography was performed within 1 month of the nuclear study in 77, 50 and 27 patients, respectively. Exercise, adenosine and dobutamine tomography had similar sensitivity and specificity for the detection of>50% stenosis in the left circumflex (74% and 96%; 50% and 100%; 63% and 91%, respectively) and right coronary arteries (96% and 86%; 82% and 91%; 79% and 100%, respectively) and similar sensitivity for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis (88%, 79% and 100%, respectively). However, the false-positive rate for septal defects was higher by exercise tomography (26 [46%] of 57) than by pharmacologic methods (5 [10%]of 48, p<0.001), and there was no significant difference between adenosine (4 [11%] of 35) and dobutamine (1 [8%]of 13, p = 0.7). The specificity and predictive value of a positive test response for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis were 36% and 51% for exercise compared with 81% and 85% for adenosine (p/=210 mm Hg was 68% lower (odds ratio = 0.32, 96% confidence interval 0.2 to 0.53) in the beta-blocker-based therapy versus other medications. African Americans exhibited higher BP and HR than Caucasians at all exercise workloads regardless of antihypertensive therapy and had over a 90% higher likelihood for an abnormal exercise BP response. This risk was attenuated by 35% with a beta-blocker-based therapy.","Exercise electrocardiographic hump sign is associated with uncontrolled arterial hypertension (AH), left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction, and false-positive exercise testing (ET). The aim of this prospective study was to evaluate the antihypertensive treatment effect on hump and on pseudoischemic ST-segment depression and potential correlations to LV diastolic function and mass changes. The study comprised 59 non-coronary artery disease patients (45.9 years; 67.8% men) with never-treated arterial hypertension (143.2/95.1 mm Hg). Treadmill ET and echocardiography were performed at baseline and 6 months after pharmaceutical blood pressure normalization. Prevalence of hump and ST depression, transmitral (E/A) and tissue Doppler imaging (E'/A') early/late velocities ratios, E/E' ratio, and LV mass index (LVMI) were all defined. Prevalence of hump was reduced from 69.5% to 23.7% and false-positive ETs from 35.6% to 18.6% (P < .05). Significant improvement (P < .05) was found in E'/A' ratio (0.68 vs 0.84), E/E' ratio (9.3 vs 7.9), and LVMI (109.2 vs 99.8 g/m(2)). Changes in hump were related to ST-depression changes (r = 0.632, P < .001) and to LV diastolic indices changes; patients with hump only at first ET (54.2%) improved E/A and E'/A' ratios, whereas patients with hump only at second ET (8.5%) worsened diastolic indices with similar changes in blood pressure and LVMI.","yes. The results are considered relevant, because a direct relationship appears probable between hypertension and the disturbance investigated. Reproducible results suggest that the exercise-mediated disturbance is fixed to the kidneys, that it can be reactivated repeatedly and that it may play a role in maintaining hypertension.","It has been previously postulated that Thallium-201 (Tl201) scintigraphy is characterized by relatively low specificity in hypertensive patients. This study was undertaken to assess any possible influence of false-positive scintigraphic results on the prognosis of hypertensive patients. The study group comprised 179 consecutive hypertensive patients (128 men and 51 women), aged 50+/-7 years, who underwent exercise Tl(201) scintigraphy and coronary angiography (patients with normal scintigraphic results underwent coronary angiography due to persistent angina-like symptoms). All patients with normal coronary arteries underwent a second Tl201 scintigraphy within 36+/-6 months. Patients with reversible ischemia in the second scintigraphy underwent also a second coronary angiography. Coronary artery disease (CAD) was detected in 78 (44%) patients, while the rest 101 (56%) patients had normal coronary arteries. Abnormal scintigraphic results were revealed in 66 (85%) patients with CAD and in 38 (38%) patients without CAD. Twenty-two (58%) of the 38 hypertensive patients with false-positive scintigraphic results presented reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. Coronary artery disease was detected in 7 (32%) of these patients during the follow-up period.","no. Patients who have exaggerated blood pressure responses to exercise are not more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings than those with normal blood pressure responses. The majority of patients who have echocardiographic abnormalities and subsequently undergo coronary angiography have substantial (≥50% stenosis) coronary artery disease.","In patients with coronary artery disease an abnormal increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise stress testing correlated well with left ventricular systolic function at rest but not with the number of obstructed coronary arteries. The abnormal response of diastolic blood pressure probably reflects deterioration of myocardial function.","Some experts have suggested that patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses during exercise echocardiography are more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings and less likely to have angiographically significant coronary artery disease than patients with normal blood pressure responses. The aim of this study was to evaluate the impact of exercise blood pressure on exercise echocardiographic findings and subsequent angiographic results in men and women. In this retrospective study, clinical, exercise, and echocardiographic characteristics of patients who underwent treadmill exercise echocardiography over a 2-year period were examined, and the angiographic findings of the subgroup of patients who subsequently underwent coronary angiography within 30 days were analyzed. Among the 7,015 patients (mean age, 61 ± 13 years), 3,992 were men (57%). The likelihood of patients' having abnormal exercise echocardiographic results was similar at all levels of exercise blood pressure, except in men who had low peak systolic blood pressures (<120 mm Hg); they had the highest rate of abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings. Of the 3,225 patients without histories of hypertension or coronary artery disease, 3,098 had peak systolic blood pressures of 120 to 219 mm Hg (a \"normal\" blood pressure response), and 59 had peak systolic blood pressures ≥ 220 mm Hg (an exaggerated blood pressure response). These patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses were just as likely to have normal exercise echocardiographic results as those who had normal blood pressure responses (85% vs 83%, P > .99). A subgroup of 508 patients underwent coronary angiography. The rate of false-positive findings was similar for patients who had exaggerated blood pressure responses and those who had normal blood pressure responses. The false-positive rate tended to be lower in patients who had low blood pressure responses.","yes. Normotensive individuals with an exaggerated BP response to exercise exhibit impairment in longitudinal myocardial function. Even without apparent hypertension, an exaggerated BP response could cause repeated increases in afterload and result in subclinical myocardial dysfunction.","Masked hypertension (MH) independently predicts mortality but cannot be diagnosed from clinic blood pressure (BP) taken under resting conditions. We sought to determine if MH could be identified from BP taken during a single bout of low-intensity exercise. BP was recorded at rest and during brief low-level cycling exercise (60-70% of age-predicted maximal heart rate) in 75 untreated subjects with a hypertensive response to exercise (aged 54 ± 9 years). All subjects underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) and MH was defined as clinic BP < 140/90 mmHg and ABPM BP ≥ 130/80 mmHg. There were 42 (56%) patients with MH, and at rest systolic (SBP) was higher in subjects with MH compared with those without MH (127 ± 9 vs 120 ± 9 mmHg; p < 0.05). During exercise, MH subjects had significantly higher SBP (188 ± 22 vs 168 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05), with a greater change from baseline (61 ± 21 vs 48 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05). Low-level exercise SBP was independently associated with MH, and if ≥ 175 mmHg, identified MH with 74% sensitivity and 67% specificity (p < 0.001).","yes. Patients with treated hypertension with normal resting echocardiography can have exercise limitation associated with widespread systolic and diastolic left ventricular dysfunction on exercise. Normal resting echocardiography does not preclude the presence of significant functional abnormalities on exercise that can contribute to symptoms.","yes. Higher SBP during low-intensity exercise was associated with increased LVM index in normotensive subjects. Exaggerated exercise BP response with normal clinic BP may indicate masked hypertension and possibly hidden target organ damage.","Treadmill exercise testing has low specificity for the detection of significant epicardial coronary artery disease (CAD). A possible mechanism to explain some of the false positives is transient subendocardial ischemia induced by intraventricular gradients (IVG) during stress. The development of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography (DSE) occurs in 8-38% of non-selected populations. To determine: 1. the prevalence of IVG in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing; 2. whether this prevalence is different from that described for non-selected populations; 3. whether patient characteristics are related to the presence of IVG; 4. the relation between the presence of IVG and the occurrence of ECG abnormalities, symptoms and blood pressure. We evaluated 50 consecutive patients with false positive treadmill stress tests (normal CT coronary angiography, nuclear perfusion tests or angiography) with DSE (2D and Doppler evaluation). All DSE exams were negative for ischemia. Stress-induced IVG was seen in 34 of the 50 patients (68%) and 16 patients (32%) did not develop IVG (p<0.05). The prevalence of IVG in our selected population (68%) was significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations (8-38%) (p<0.001). Most patient characteristics (gender, age, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium antagonists, significant valvular disease/left ventricular hypertrophy [LVH], symptoms, and blood pressure during stress) were not statistically associated with the prevalence of IVG (p>0.05). However, the presence of IVG was associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST depression during dobutamine stress echo (p<0.05).","To describe two cases of Takotsubo like myocardial contractile pattern during exercise stress test secondary to hypertensive response. Treadmill exercise testing is known to cause sympathetic stimulation, leading to increased levels of catecholamine, resulting in alteration in vascular tone. Hypertensive response during exercise testing can cause abnormal consequences, resulting in false positive results.CASES: We present the cases of two patients experiencing apical and basal akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography, in whom normal wall motion response was observed on subsequent pharmacologic stress testing. The first patient developed transient left ventricular (LV) apical akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography. Due to high suspicion that this abnormality might be secondary to hypertensive response, pharmacologic stress testing was performed after three days, which was completely normal and showed no such wall motion abnormality. Qualitative assessment of myocardial perfusion using contrast was also performed, which showed good myocardial blood flow, indicating low probability for significant obstructive coronary artery disease. The second patient developed LV basal akinesis as a result of hypertensive response during exercise testing. Coronary angiogram was not performed in either patient due to low suspicion for coronary artery disease, and subsequently negative stress studies. Transient stress induced cardiomyopathy can develop secondary to hypertensive response during exercise stress testing.","yes. This study demonstrates that reduced exercise tolerance in hypertension is associated with worsening of diastolic dysfunction during exercise consistent with an increase in left atrial pressure.","no. A hypertensive BP response to exercise is not associated with increased rates of ischemic ECG changes, higher-risk Duke treadmill scores, greater degrees of abnormal MPI or worse clinical outcome.","no. Regression of left ventricular mass caused by 6-month antihypertensive therapy does not improve exercise performance of patients with essential hypertension.","Systemic hypertension and an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response with exercise have been associated with 'false-positive' findings on stress electrocardiography and echocardiography; however, limited data is available for stress myocardial perfusion imaging (MPI). The purpose of this study was to investigate whether an exaggerated elevation in BP with exercise is associated with an increased prevalence of abnormal MPI. BP responses to exercise were assessed in a cohort of 7,205 patients who underwent stress testing with technetium 99m-SPECT MPI (7/1999-6/2005) for the evaluation of chest pain or dyspnea. A hypertensive response, defined as a peak systolic BP > or = 220 mmHg, occurred in 355 (4.9%) and was not associated with higher rates of ischemic ECG changes (16.1 versus 16.6%; P = .7), differences in Duke treadmill scores (4.7 +/- 4 versus 5.1 +/- 5; P = .3) or an increased prevalence of abnormal perfusion images (30.1% versus 32.9%; P = .3) to those without a hypertensive exercise response. Patients with a hypertensive response and either intermediate or high-risk MPI (on the basis of summed-difference-scores) referred for coronary angiography, had a high prevalence of coronary artery disease which was similar to those without a hypertensive response (88% versus 83%; P = .5). In an analysis of a community-based patient subset, a hypertensive response was not associated with a difference in either all-cause mortality or subsequent myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization or cardiac death (8% versus 9%; P = .7).","yes. Exercise testing detects hypertension and arch gradients in patients with a good coarctation repair as assessed at rest. The hypertension and arch \"obstruction\" appear to be related to discrepancies in the growth of the transverse aortic arch proximal to the repair site, rather than a \"recoarctation\" of the aorta.","yes. These results suggest that impaired endothelial vasodilator function may be a mechanism contributing to exercise hypertension and may also be one link between exaggerated exercise BP and worsening hypertension.","To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.","yes. Hypertensive patients with normal coronary arteries and false-positive scintigraphic results usually present with reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. This group of patients seems to be at increased risk of developing CAD in a long-term follow-up period.","Exercise echocardiography is a reliable routine test in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. However, in ∼15% of all patients, stress echocardiography leads to false-positive stress echocardiography results. We aimed to investigate the impact of hypertension on stress echocardiographic results. We performed a retrospective study of patients with suspected or known stable coronary artery disease who underwent a bicycle exercise stress echocardiography. Patients with false-positive stress results were compared with those with appropriate results. 126 patients with suspected or known coronary artery disease were included in this retrospective study. 23 patients showed false-positive stress echocardiography results. Beside comparable age, gender distribution and coronary artery status, hypertension was more prevalent in patients with false-positive stress results (95.7% vs. 67.0%, p = 0.0410). Exercise peak load revealed a borderline-significance with lower loads in patients with false-positive results (100.0 (IQR 75.0/137.5) vs. 125.0 (100.0/150.0) W, p = 0.0601). Patients with false-positive stress results showed higher systolic (2.05 ± 0.69 vs. 1.67 ± 0.39 mmHg/W, p = 0.0193) and diastolic (1.03 ± 0.38 vs. 0.80 ± 0.28 mmHg/W, p = 0.0165) peak blood pressure (BP) per wattage. In a multivariate logistic regression test, hypertension (OR 17.6 [CI 95% 1.9-162.2], p = 0.0115), and systolic (OR 4.12 [1.56-10.89], p = 0.00430) and diastolic (OR 13.74 [2.46-76.83], p = 0.00285) peak BP per wattage, were associated with false-positive exercise results. ROC analysis for systolic and diastolic peak BP levels per wattage showed optimal cut-off values of 1.935mmHg/W and 0.823mmHg/W, indicating false-positive exercise echocardiographic results with AUCs of 0.660 and 0.664, respectively.","In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression.","yes. Hypertension is a risk factor for false-positive stress exercise echocardiographic results in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. Presence of hypertension was associated with 17.6-fold elevated risk of false-positive results."],"string":"[\n \"no. A single bout of resistance exercise decreased BP and cardiac work for 1 h after exercise under clinical conditions, and did not modify ambulatory cardiovascular variables during 24 h in patients with PAD.\",\n \"no. Acute-hyperlipidemia does not significantly change exercise hemodynamics in healthy males. Therefore, the association between raised lipids and increased exercise BP is likely due to the chronic effects of hyperlipidemia.\",\n \"yes. These data suggest that exercise training is an important intervention for salt-sensitive hypertension and that the enhanced survival observed with exercise training appears to be independent of training-induced SBP lowering effects.\",\n \"yes. To our knowledge, these findings provide the first direct evidence that exercise induces rapid interstitial lung fluid accumulation and hypoxemia in patients with CMS that appear to be related to exaggerated pulmonary hypertension. We suggest that this problem contributes to exercise intolerance in patients with CMS.\",\n \"30 minutes of rest between two ISWTs are not enough for all cardiovascular variables and perceived exertion to return to baseline values. However, this period appears to be sufficient for blood pressure and performance to recover in most subjects.\",\n \"Hypertensive response to exercise in patients with untreated stage I essential hypertension is associated with endothelial dysfunction and increased carotid IMT. It seems that this phenomenon is not a benign one but rather a dangerous alarm.\",\n \"yes. Exercise tests may predict the clinical outcome of CHD among elderly patients. A negative finding in an exercise test is very reliable.\",\n \"This study demonstrates a 33.3% false positive SHIM diagnosis of ED in men with PE. This is likely to limit subject recruitment in clinical trials by exclusion of subjects with low-range IELTs but is unlikely to result in significantly different baseline IELTs or IELT distributions.\",\n \"The present study was designed to assess the impact of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) independent of hypertension on the presence of silent myocardial ischemia and arrhythmia, as well as on systolic and diastolic function in otherwise healthy elderly men. Twenty apparently healthy normotensive subjects with LVH were compared with 18 hypertensive subjects with LVH and with 20 healthy subjects without LVH (controls)--all recruited from a health screening programme of 70-year-old men. All participants were free from known coronary heart disease and were evaluated by means of echocardiography with Doppler, a symptom-limited exercise test and 24 h ambulatory ECG monitoring. The healthy normotensive subjects with LVH showed impaired systolic function (ejection fraction 66 +/- 8 (SD)% versus 72 +/- 8% in controls, P < 0.03) and impaired diastolic function (E/A ratio 0.86 +/- 0.20 versus 1.12 +/- 0.30, P < 0.01) as well as an increased number of premature ventricular complexes in the exercise test and during the 24 h ECG monitoring (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. The hypertensive subjects with LVH showed impaired diastolic function (P < 0.05) and a more pronounced ST depression in the exercise test (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. In both of the LVH groups, more than 20% of the subjects evidenced ST-segment depression > or = 1 mm in the exercise test, compared with 5% of the healthy group without LVH.\",\n \"yes. These data indicate that hypertension leads to enhanced functional coupling of ryanodine receptors-BKCa to buffer pressure-induced constriction of cerebral arteries, which attributes not only to an upregulation of BKCa β1-subunit function but also to an increase of Ca(2+) release from ryanodine receptors. However, regular aerobic exercise efficiently prevents augmented coupling and so alleviates the pathological compensation and restores cerebral arterial function.\",\n \"Exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response during exercise test reflects future risk of hypertension and has been shown to be related to increased left ventricular mass (LVM) in hypertensive patients. However, it is not known whether there is such a relationship in normotensives. The objective of this study is to investigate whether exercise BP response is related to left ventricular mass in normotensive subjects. Among the normotensive (systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) < 80 mmHg and no history of antihypertensive treatments or clinical cardiovascular diseases) subjects who underwent routine health screening, both exercise test and echocardiography results were available in 7607 men and women. Exercise test was done by Bruce protocol and SBP at stage 1 was used as an indicator of exercise BP response. Left ventricular mass was calculated by American Society of Echocardiography equation, and divided by body surface area to estimate LVM index. Mean age was 50 ± 7 years and proportion of male was 74%. Mean LVM index was 81.3 ± 16.0 gm/m. Exercise SBP at stage 1 was significantly correlated to LVM index (r = 0.11, p < 0.0001) Higher exercise SBP at stage 1 was associated with increased LVM index after adjustment for age, gender, resting SBP and DBP, waist circumference and fasting glucose (p < 0.0001).\",\n \"yes. MH can be identified in untreated individuals from low-intensity exercise SBP. Further research on the diagnostic value of BP during early phases of exercise stress testing is needed.\",\n \"Based on the information added by exercise testing to clinical data, these results confirm the ACC/AHA guideline assignments for test selection. However, despite these guidelines, patients with a low pretest probability can be selected for exercise testing with the knowledge that a positive result is infrequent and a negative result carries a very high negative predictive value. Intermediate-probability patients on average carry a significant false-negative rate, suggesting that exercise ECG alone may not be a sufficient screening test in all intermediate-probability patients. Because of poor negative predictive value and a large percentage of negative tests, high-probability patients should undergo coronary angiography as the initial strategy, unless the goal of exercise testing is to assess prognosis.\",\n \"Whether intensity or other characteristics of physical activity can better promote the release of nitric oxide (NO) and reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive older-adults is still unknown. In this study, the post-exercise blood pressure (BP) response and NO release after different intensities of aerobic exercise in elderly women were analyzed. Blood pressure response and NO were analyzed in 23 elderly mildly hypertensive women. Participants underwent (1) high-intensity incremental exercise (IT); (2) moderate-intensity 20 min exercise at 90% of the anaerobic threshold (AT), and (3) control (CONT) session. BP was measured before and after interventions; volunteers remained seated for 1 h. NO estimates were made through NO2- analyses. After CONT session, both diastolic BP and mean arterial pressure (MAP) were significantly higher than during pre-exercise resting. Post-exercise hypotension (PEH) was observed after exercise at IT and 90% of AT. Although exercise in both sessions lowered SBP and MAP compared with CONT, exercise at the highest intensity (IT) was more effective on lowering systolic BP after exercise. In comparison with pre-exercise resting, NO2- increased significantly only after IT, but both exercise sessions caused NO2- to increase compared with CONT.\",\n \"Ankle-to-brachial index (ABI) can be easily performed by all physicians. The Ruffier-Dickson (RD) test is an easy procedure to attain moderate exercise at the bedside for physicians who do not have an ergometer. Retrospective analysis. Tertiary care, institutional practice. Fifty-three asymptomatic athletes and 22 patients suffering from unilateral pain due to histologically proven exercise-induced arterial endofibrosis (EIAE). Brachial and ankle systolic blood pressures were measured in the supine position on the suspected leg in EIAE or left leg in controls, at rest (rest) and at the first minute of the recovery from incremental maximal cycle ergometer exercise (maxCE) and Ruffier-Dickson (RD) exercise tests. Comparison of ABI(rest), ABI(maxCE), and ABI(RD) in discriminating patients from normal subjects, using receiver operating characteristics (ROC) curves. Area (+/-SE of area) of ROC curve was 0.76 +/- 0.06 for ABI(rest), 0.83 +/- 0.05 for ABI(RD) (nonsignificant from rest), and 0.99 +/- 0.01 for ABI(maxCE) (P<0.01 from ABI(RD) and P<0.001 from ABI(rest)). An ABI(maxCE) below 0.48 was 100% specific and 80% sensitive for EIAE. For the RD test, a 100% negative predictive value was only attained for postexercise ABI values higher than 0.92.\",\n \"Physical exercise is known to alter the physiological response to orthostatic stress. This study compared reported physical activity levels in patients with unexplained syncope who did or did not demonstrate positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. We reviewed the records of 1,336 patients with unexplained syncope who underwent carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Patients with positive responses (cases) were compared with patients with negative responses (controls). Multivariable regression analysis was used to identify independent predictors of positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Seventy patients had a positive response to carotid sinus massage and 564 patients had a positive response to head-up tilt-table testing. Physical activity was an independent positive predictor of a positive response to both carotid sinus massage {adjusted odds ratio (AOR) 1.86, 95% CI (1.14-3.05); p = 0.01} and head-up tilt-table testing {AOR 1.31, 95% CI (1.04-1.65); P = 0.02} even after adjustment for multiple other factors including age, gender, and other medical conditions.\",\n \"yes. Prehypertension is associated with metabolic disarrangement and preclinical target organ damage but not with exercise capacity. Exercise capacity is determined by age, resting heart rate, and body composition in relatively healthy individuals who do not have hypertension.\",\n \"The mechanisms responsible for impaired cardiovascular hemodynamics during exercise among persons with milder forms of hypertension are not well documented. We examined the relationship of oxygen pulse during exercise, a correlate of stroke volume, with echocardiographic indices of resting left ventricular function to determine whether abnormal contractility and relaxation are related to abnormal cardiovascular dynamics during exercise among such persons. Subjects were 44 men and 55 women ages 55 to 75 years with mild hypertension but who were otherwise healthy. Resting left ventricular systolic and diastolic functions were assessed with 2-dimensional Doppler echocardiography and tissue Doppler imaging. Oxygen pulse (millimeters per beat) at rest and during multistage treadmill testing was derived from measurements of oxygen consumption and heart rate. The slope of oxygen pulse between successive exercise stages was calculated. After a steep rise in oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 of exercise, a markedly diminished oxygen pulse slope was seen between subsequent exercise stages. In stepwise regression analysis, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 was explained by a greater lean body mass (57%, P < .001) and a larger left atrial size (2%, P < .001). After exercise stage 1, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse was explained by sex (24%, P < .001), higher mitral E/A ratio (6%, P < .001), and higher mitral annular systolic velocity (6%, P < .001).\",\n \"Stroke mortality rate is higher in South Asians than in Europeans, despite equivalent or lower resting blood pressure (BP). Elevated recovery BP after exercise predicts stroke, independently of resting values. We hypothesized that South Asians would have adverse postexercise hemodynamics and sought explanations for this. A population-based sample of 147 European and 145 South Asian middle-aged men and women performed the Dundee 3-minute step test. Cardiovascular risk factors were measured. BP, heart rate, and rate-pressure product, a measure of myocardial oxygen consumption, were compared. With 90% power and 5% significance, we could detect a difference of 0.38 of a standard deviation in any outcome measure. Resting systolic BP was similar in South Asians (144 mm Hg) and Europeans (142 mm Hg) (P=0.2), as was exercise BP (P=0.4). However, recovery systolic BP at 3 minutes after exercise was higher in South Asians by 4.3 mm Hg (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.2 to 8.3 mm Hg; P=0.04). This effect persisted when adjusted for exercise BP and work effort (5.4 mm Hg [95% CI, 2.2 to 8.7 mm Hg; P=0.001]). Adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and greater aortic stiffness in South Asians contributes greatly to attenuating this ethnic difference (1.9 mm Hg [95% CI, -0.9 to 4.6 mm Hg; P=0.4]). Similarly, rate-pressure product recovery after exercise was impaired in South Asians by 735 mm Hg/min (95% CI, 137 to 1334 mm Hg/min; P=0.02); again, adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and aortic stiffness attenuated this difference (261 mm Hg/min [95% CI, -39 to 561 mm Hg/min; P=0.3]).\",\n \"Our aim was to investigate the relationship between impaired exercise capacity and albumin excretion level in the setting of never treated essential hypertension. For this purpose, 338 consecutive essential hypertensives (52 ± 8.5 years, 227 males, office BP = 148.6/96.1 mmHg) performed a negative for myocardial ischemia, maximal treadmill exercise testing and were classified based on the gender specific median value of the amount of metabolic equivalents (METs) achieved (10.1 ml/kg/min for women and 11 ml/kg/min for men) as fit (n = 177) and unfit (n = 161). All the participants underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring, complete echocardiographic study including left ventricular diastolic function evaluation and determination of albumin to creatinine ratio (ACR) on two non-consecutive morning spot urine samples. Unfit hypertensives compared to the fit ones were older by 4.5 years (p < 0.001) and had greater waist circumference by 4.5 cm (p < 0.001), body mass index by 1.3 kg/m(2) (p = 0.001), 24-h pulse pressure by 3.0 mmHg (p = 0.005), ACR levels by 12.6% (p = 0.003) and prevalence of microalbuminuria (19.5% vs 10.3%, p = 0.007) while the differences in diastolic function indices lost significance after adjustment for confounders. By applying stepwise multivariate linear regression analysis in order to identify the predictors of METs, it was revealed that age (β = -0.338, p = 0.045), gender (β = 0.274, p = 0.045), body mass index (β = -0.230, p = 0.045) and logACR (β = -0.151, p = 0.004) were the only independent predictors of exercise capacity.\",\n \"yes. A direct effect of cuff inflation leads to the underestimation of ongoing HR during cuff-based ABP measurement. Additional underestimation of HR occurs during periods with physical activity, probably due to behavioural freezing during blood pressure measurements. HR underestimation was not affected by hypertensive state. When its limitations are taken into account, ABP-derived ambulatory HR can be considered a reliable and valid measure.\",\n \"yes. Replacement of the RDT kit's dedicated buffer by saline, distilled water and tap water can cause false-positive test results.\",\n \"Studies on the prognostic importance of the systolic blood pressure (SBP) response during exercise report ambiguous results. Most research focuses on younger and middle-aged selected patient groups and rarely includes women. We investigated the prognostic value of SBP response during exercise testing in 75-year-olds. Prospective observational cohort study. A community-based random sample of 75-year-old men and women (n = 382). The prognostic value of SBP change from rest to peak exercise during a symptom-limited cycle test was evaluated for the endpoints all-cause mortality and cardiovascular mortality during long-term follow-up. After a median follow-up of 10.6 years, 140 (37%) of the participants had died, 64 (17%) from cardiovascular causes. The all-cause mortalities for exercise SBP changes of < or =30 mm Hg, 31-55 mm Hg and >55 mm Hg were 5.1, 4.2 and 2.6 per 100 person-years, respectively (logrank 9.6; p = 0.008). For every 10 mm Hg increase in SBP during exercise the relative hazard for all-cause mortality was reduced by 13% (p = 0.030) and for cardiovascular mortality by 26% (p = 0.004) after adjustment for sex, smoking, waist circumference, total/HDL cholesterol ratio, prevalent ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, cardiovascular medication, pre-exercise SBP, exercise capacity, resting left ventricular ejection fraction and left ventricular mass index.\",\n \"To test the hypothesis that in young, normotensive obese subjects, physical activity at a fixed, moderate workload, causes a more pronounced hypertensive effect than in lean subjects. 24 subjects (12 with BMI >30 kg/m(2), 12 with BMI <25 kg/m(2)), underwent a moderate-intensity physical activity protocol (cycling at 100 W). Blood pressure and oxygen consumption were monitored continuously. In the obese subjects, physical activity caused a more pronounced increase in both systolic blood pressure (increase of 40.4 +/- 15.3 mmHg vs 21.2 +/- 10.2 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.001) and diastolic blood pressure (17.5 +/- 17.9 mmHg vs 3.2 +/- 8.1 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.02). In regression analyses, these differences were only partly explained by small differences in resting blood pressure.\",\n \"1. The prevalence of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing is very high, occurring in more than two-thirds of patients. 2. This prevalence is significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations. 3. Age, gender, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium channel antagonists, significant valvular disesase/LVH, symptoms and blood pressure during stress were not associated with the presence or absence of IVG. 4. The presence of IVG is associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST changes during dobutamine stress echocardiography.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to investigate the effect of regular physical activity on the haemodynamic response to public speaking and to evaluate the long-term effect of exercise on development of hypertension. We assessed 75 sedentary and 44 active participants screened for stage 1 hypertension with consistent activity habits and 63 normotensive individuals as control. The blood pressure (BP) response to public speaking was assessed with beat-to-beat noninvasive recording. Definition of incident hypertension was based either on clinic or 24-h BP measurement. The BP response to public speaking was greater in the hypertensive than the normotensive participants (P=0.018/0.009). Among the former, sedentary participants showed increased BP reactivity to the speech test (45.2+/-22.6/22.2+/-11.5mmHg, P<0.01/<0.001 versus controls), whereas physically active participants had a response similar to that of controls (35.4+/-18.5/18.5+/-11.5mmHg, P=not significant). During a median follow-up of 71 months, ambulatory BP did not virtually change in the active participants (-0.9+/-7.8/-0.0+/-4.7mmHg) and increased in their sedentary peers (2.8+/-9.8/3.2+/-7.4mmHg, P=0.08/0.003 versus active). Active participants were less likely to develop incident hypertension than sedentary ones. After controlling for several confounders including baseline heart rate, the hazard ratio was 0.53 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.31-0.94] for clinic hypertension and 0.60 (95% CI 0.37-0.99) for ambulatory hypertension. Inclusion of BP response to public speaking into the Cox model influenced the strength of the association only marginally [hazard ratio=0.55 (95% CI 0.30-0.97) and hazard ratio=0.59 (95% CI 0.36-0.99), respectively].\",\n \"yes. This study shows that the percentage of positive exercise challenge test results in the summer is half that of any other season. It is likely that the lower percentage of positive results for asthma in the summer reflects the lower sensitivity of the test during this season due to decreased asthma activity. We suggest performing exercise challenge testing only when patients are symptomatic. Physicians caring for patients with symptoms suggestive of exercise-induced asthma whose exercise test results are negative while asymptomatic should consider repeat exercise testing when their patients are symptomatic.\",\n \"yes. EFT was found to be related to altered BP responses to exercise stress testing. The echocardiographic measurement of EFT may serve as a useful non-invasive indicator of heightened risk of future hypertension.\",\n \"A previous study observed that the chronic effects of aerobic training on blood pressure (BP) are related to acute BP responses after a single bout of aerobic exercise. However, whether similar responses are observed with resistance exercise (RE) remains obscure. Thus, this study analysed the relationship between the acute BP responses to a single bout of RE and chronic changes in resting BP after a RE training in medicated hypertensive elderly women. Twenty medicated hypertensive women participated in the study. They underwent an acute RE bout where BP and heart rate (HR) were obtained at rest and for 60 min after the RE. Subsequently, the participants underwent a progressive RE training for 12 weeks at 60-80% of maximal strength test. Resting BP and HR were also obtained after the RE training. The chronic decreases in systolic and diastolic BP were significantly greater in the participants who experienced acutely decreased systolic and diastolic BP, respectively (P<0·05). The changes in systolic BP after acute RE were correlated with the chronic changes in resting systolic BP after RE training (r = 0·47; P = 0·03). Similar correlations between acute and chronic responses were also observed for diastolic BP (r = 0·70; P = 0·01), mean BP (r = 0·58; P = 0·01), HR (r = 0·73; P<0·01) and RPP (r = 0·52; P = 0·01).\",\n \"yes. Normal coronary arteries show reduced vasodilation during exercise in hypertensive patients that may be explained by the presence of endothelial dysfunction. Stenotic vessels demonstrate paradoxical vasoconstriction during exercise in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. PTCA reverses vasoconstriction by elimination of the flow-limiting stenosis and prevention of coronary stenosis narrowing during exercise in normotensive and hypertensive patients.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to test the hypothesis that blood pressure (BP) reactivity to the stress of a clinic visit, the so-called white-coat effect, is associated with increased BP reactivity to physical activity. Patients referred to our clinic for assessment of hypertension prospectively underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring and simultaneous actigraphy. The difference between mean clinic BP and mean daytime ambulatory BP was considered to be a measure of the white-coat effect. Presence or absence of a white-coat effect (clinic-daytime difference > 0 mmHg) was added to a mixed model regression of BP on mean activity score for the 10-min interval preceding BP measurement. The group (n = 421) was heterogeneous in age, gender, mean 24-h BP and use of antihypertensive medications. A total of 259 patients had a systolic white-coat effect; for diastolic BP there were 264. Female patients exhibited a significantly larger white-coat effect. Coefficients for the regressions of both systolic and diastolic blood pressure on physical activity levels were significantly higher in those who had a white-coat effect.\",\n \"yes. Raised ARR consequent to β-blocker therapy causes false-positive screening for PA. Where β-blockers can be safely withdrawn, this effect is reversed within 2-3 weeks depending on whether DRC or PRA is used to calculate ARR.\",\n \"Insulin resistance has been implicated in the pathogenesis of essential hypertension. Elevated blood pressure during physical exercise is a more powerful predictor of future hypertension than resting blood pressure. We have therefore studied the relationship between insulin resistance and blood pressure response to exercise in strongly hypertension-prone subjects. Twenty-five normotensive subjects aged 18-35 years with bi-parental hypertension, and 26 matched controls with normotensive parents. (i) Maximal exercise tolerance test with continuous gas-exchange measurement; (ii) blood pressure at rest, during exercise and 24-h ambulatory; (iii) euglycemic hyperinsulinemic clamp. Diastolic blood pressure during exercise was higher in hypertensionprone subjects as compared to controls, but only in subjects with low insulin sensitivity. Resting and 24-h diastolic blood pressure were higher in hypertension-prone subjects, but independent of insulin sensitivity level. Insulin sensitivity and exercise capacity were similar in the groups.\",\n \"no. It is unlikely that the exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes are caused by the exercise-induced immune response. Therefore, exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes have to be differentiated from increases in cardiovascular patients with systemic inflammation.\",\n \"yes. Changes in diastolic blood pressure during gentle exercise are strongly associated with serum concentrations of total cholesterol and insulin resistance. This may contribute to development of hypertensive complications in dyslipidemic and/or insulin-resistant patients.\",\n \"yes. Postexercise recovery of BP and rate-pressure product is impaired in South Asians compared to Europeans even though resting and exercise BP are similar. This is associated with the autonomic dysfunction and aortic stiffness in South Asians.\",\n \"yes. RVA pacing results in myocardial perfusion defects. The false-positive findings are present at rest and more obvious with high-rate pacing than during adenosine infusion. Detection of coronary artery disease should be performed with caution in RVA paced patients because of the high number of perfusion defects observed in the absence of coronary artery disease.\",\n \"no. Achievement of 85% MPHR is not a valid diagnostic or functional exercise endpoint because it significantly underestimates exercise capacity and inducible ischemia.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to investigate the association between an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response to exercise and augmented angiotensin (Ang) II rise during exercise. Although a central pressor effect of Ang II has been implicated in the pathogenesis of hypertension, the relationship between Ang II and exaggerated BP response to exercise is unclear. Thirty-six subjects with an exaggerated BP response to exercise (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group II) were compared with 36 age- and gender-matched control subjects (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group I) with normal BP reactivity. The subjects who had resting BP >or=140/90 mm Hg or were treated with any antihypertensive drugs were excluded. The blood was sampled at rest and immediately after peak exercise for measurement of renin, Ang II, aldosterone, and catecholamine. At rest, there were no significant differences in BP, renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine levels between the 2 groups. The renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine were increased during exercise, but there were no significant differences between the groups. However, log Ang II at rest (0.78 +/- 0.32 vs. 0.98 +/- 0.38, p = 0.004) and peak exercise (0.84 +/- 0.35 vs. 1.17 +/- 0.51, p < 0.001) and the magnitude of the increment of log Ang II with exercise (0.06 +/- 0.12 vs. 0.19 +/- 0.20, p = 0.003) were significantly higher in the exaggerated BP response group.\",\n \"yes. In patients with Doppler evidence of diastolic dysfunction at rest and a hypertensive response to exercise, Ang II receptor blockade blunts the hypertensive response to exercise, increases exercise tolerance and improves quality of life.\",\n \"Patients with hypertensive heart disease and left ventricular hypertrophy demonstrate impaired left ventricular diastolic filling. Aim of this study was to find out if physiological left ventricular hypertrophy induced by endurance training causes abnormal left ventricular systolic and diastolic filling. We examined 42 athletes with left ventricular hypertrophy due to endurance training (aged 25 +/- 7 years), 31 patients with left ventricular hypertrophy due to hypertensive heart disease (aged 28 +/- 6 years) and 20 untrained, healthy subjects (controls, aged 26 +/- 8 years) by conventional echocardiography and calculated left ventricular muscle mass and fractional shortening. In addition the following Doppler-echocardiographic parameters were measured: maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, ratio of maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, acceleration and deceleration time and isovolumetric relaxation time. All three study groups showed normal fractional shortening. Conventional echocardiography revealed a higher left ventricular muscle mass in the two study groups as compared to the controls (controls: 119 +/- 12 g, athletes: 225 +/- 18 g*; hypertensive patients: 216 +/- 16 g*; * p<0.01 versus controls). In the athletes with physiological left ventricular hypertrophy a normal left ventricular diastolic filling pattern was documented (VE: 0.64 +/- 0.1 m/s; VA: 0.51 +/- 0.2 m/s). In hypertensive heart disease a diastolic dysfunction in terms of a delayed relaxation pattern with a decrease of maximal early velocity of diastolic filling (VE: 0.45 +/- 0.09 m/s) and a compensatory increase of the maximal late velocity of diastolic filling (VA: 0.54 +/- 0.1 m/s) was demonstrated.\",\n \"We assessed the association of systolic blood pressure response to exercise with the risk of an acute myocardial infarction. We conducted a population-based follow-up study. This study was based on 1731 middle-aged men without history of coronary heart disease who underwent a cycle ergometer exercise test. Systolic blood pressure was measured every 2 min during a cycle ergometer exercise test in 1731 men followed for 12.7 years on average. A total of 188 acute myocardial infarctions were observed. The total change in systolic blood pressure, the slope of the rise in systolic blood pressure per minute and maximal systolic blood pressure during exercise in quintiles were related to the risk of acute myocardial infarction. Maximal systolic blood pressure of over 230 mmHg was associated with a 2.47 [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.46-4.18] fold risk of acute myocardial infarction, after adjustment for age, other risk factors including the use of antihypertensive medications and systolic blood pressure at rest. Among men with elevated systolic blood pressure at rest, the relative risk for an acute myocardial infarction was 4.31 (95% CI 2.04-9.07) times higher for those who had a steep slope of systolic blood pressure rise (>9.4 mmHg per min of exercise) as compared with those who had a more gradual rise in systolic blood pressure.\",\n \"yes. In a group of consecutive subjects referred for ambulatory BP monitoring, masked hypertension was found to be as common as isolated clinic hypertension. Masking was correlated with male sex, young age, and higher awake heart rate, thus suggesting a causal relationship with greater daytime physical activity. The linear association of the masking and the white-coat effects to clinic BP suggests that regression toward the mean may partially explain these phenomena.\",\n \"Hypertensives may develop bilateral trapping of para-aminohippurate analogues in the tissue of the kidneys during light exercise, as can be demonstrated using radioactively labelled [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine. Tracer accumulation in the kidneys during exercise results in a typical renographic pattern, the bilateral-abnormal exercise renogram. The disturbance is common during exercise, being found in almost 60% of all hypertensives, regardless of aetiology. To determine whether bilateral-abnormal exercise renograms are spurious phenomena, or whether the results of exercise renography are reproducible. We reviewed the renographic examinations of 27 hypertensive patients, each of whom had undergone at least one resting and two [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine gamma-camera exercise renograms. The status of the renal artery at the time of scintigraphy was documented, using available arteriograms. The causes of vascular lesions were noted, as were revascularization procedures and the antihypertensive medication being taken at the time of scintigraphy. The average time between exercise renograms was 15.5 months, and 24 of the 27 hypertensive patients had comparable results in the first and the follow-up exercise renogram, divergent results being noted for the other three patients. Re-evaluation of the scintigrams of the three hypertensive patients with divergent results suggested that intermittent pelvic retention might have caused errors of interpretation in two. We found it notable that neither revascularization nor a change in antihypertensive drug therapy influenced the results of exercise renography. Exercise renograms were reproducible over long periods, and potential extraneous influences on blood flow, such as antihypertensive drugs or revascularization, failed to alter the results.\",\n \"To evaluate the effects of high-intensity resistance exercise on postexercise hypotension (PEH) and forearm vascular resistance (FVR) in the hypertensive elderly. The study was conducted with ten hypertensive elderly individuals (65 ± 3 years, 28·7 ± 3 kg m(-2)). They were subjected to three experimental sessions: control session (SC), exercise 50% (S50%) and 80% (S80%) of 1RM. For each session, subjects were evaluated pre-and postintervention. In the preintervention, the blood pressure (BP) and FVR were measured after 10 min of rest. Thereafter, they were taken to the gym to perform the exercise sessions or remained at rest in each of the equipment during the same time. Both S50% and S80% were composed of a set of ten repetitions of ten exercises, with an interval of 90 s between exercises. Subsequently, the FVR and BP measurements were again performed at 10, 30, 50, 70 and 90 min of recovery (postintervention). The PEH was greater in S80% compared with S50%, with the lower value of BP being found at 90 min of recovery for the two sessions (systolic BP: 115 ± 3,0 mmHg versus 124 ± 5 mmHg; diastolic BP: 75 ± 5 mmHg versus 86 ± 3 mmHg and mean BP: 87 ± 3 mmHg versus 95 ± 4 mmHg, respectively). Concomitantly, the FVR also decreased significantly in both sessions, this reduction being more evident in S80% (P<0·05).\",\n \"The apparent relation between exercise systolic blood pressure response and left ventricular mass is confounded by age, resting systolic blood pressure, and body mass; the degree of confounding is such that the biologic significance of this relationship should be questioned.\",\n \"Although an exaggerated systolic blood pressure (SBP) response to exercise is a predictor of future hypertension and cardiovascular mortality, the underlying mechanisms are not fully understood. We tested the hypothesis that an exaggerated SBP response is associated with carotid atherosclerosis in a cross-sectional study of 9073 healthy men (aged 47.8 +/- 8.8 years). Exaggerated SBP response was defined as an SBP of 210 mmHg or greater during a maximal treadmill test. Carotid atherosclerosis was defined as stenosis greater than 25% or intima-media thickness greater than 1.2 mm using B-mode ultrasonography. An exaggerated SBP response was present in 375 men (4.1%). The proportion of individuals with carotid atherosclerosis in the group with an exaggerated SBP response to exercise was higher than in the group with a normal SBP response (14.4 versus 5.3%, P < 0.001). In a multivariable logistic regression model, individuals with an exaggerated SBP (>or= 210 mmHg) response to exercise had a 2.02 times [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.33-3.05] increased risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals with an SBP response of less than 210 mmHg. The highest quartile (> 61 mmHg) group of relative exercise-induced increases in SBP showed a 1.57 (95% CI 1.18-2.08) greater risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals in the lowest quartile (< 38 mmHg) in the adjusted model.\",\n \"We examined by thallium-201 scintigraphy whether exercise-induced abnormal blood pressure response (BPR) is related to myocardial ischemia. Hemodynamic instabilities during exercise in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) are considered to be caused by abnormal reflex control of vascular resistance. In 105 patients with HCM, exercise thallium scintigraphy was performed by means of a multistage, symptom-limited bicycle ergometer exercise test. Eighty-eight patients had normal BPR (> or = 25 mm Hg from baseline to peak exercise), and 17 had abnormal BPR (<25 mm Hg). Clinical characteristics including age, the prevalence of obstruction, New York Heart Association functional class and echocardiographic measurements were similar between the two groups. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure was significantly higher in patients with abnormal BPR than in those with normal BPR (18+/-8 vs. 14+/-5 mm Hg, p < 0.05). Exercise-induced perfusion abnormalities including fixed and reversible perfusion defects, and left ventricular cavity dilatation (LVCD) were identified in 72 (69%) of 105 study patients. Left ventricular cavity dilatation indicates subendocardial hypoperfusion and is a marker of diffuse subendocardial ischemia. The prevalence of fixed or reversible perfusion defects was similar between the two groups. Patients with abnormal BPR had the higher prevalence of LVCD as compared to those with normal BPR (47.1 vs. 10%, p < 0.0002). Multiple logistic regression analysis revealed that LVCD was independently associated with abnormal BPR (odds ratio 3.76, 95% confidence interval 1.61 to 8.76).\",\n \"yes. Among asymptomatic patients undergoing stress testing, delayed HRR was independently associated with early and late stages of PHT. Further studies are needed to determine the usefulness of measuring HRR in the prevention and management of hypertension.\",\n \"This study sought to assess the diagnostic value of myocardial perfusion imaging during exercise and pharmacologic stress in patients with left bundle branch block. Patients with left bundle branch block often have septal perfusion defects during exercise perfusion tomography that mimic defects caused by coronary artery disease. These defects appear to be less frequent during pharmacologic stress using adenosine or dipyridamole. Data are scantly on the value of dobutamine tomography in these patients. We studied 383 consecutive patients with left bundle branch block referred for perfusion scintigraphy over a 5-year span. Perfusion tomography was performed in conjunction with exercise in 206 patients, adenosine in 127 and dobutamine in 50. Coronary angiography was performed within 1 month of the nuclear study in 77, 50 and 27 patients, respectively. Exercise, adenosine and dobutamine tomography had similar sensitivity and specificity for the detection of>50% stenosis in the left circumflex (74% and 96%; 50% and 100%; 63% and 91%, respectively) and right coronary arteries (96% and 86%; 82% and 91%; 79% and 100%, respectively) and similar sensitivity for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis (88%, 79% and 100%, respectively). However, the false-positive rate for septal defects was higher by exercise tomography (26 [46%] of 57) than by pharmacologic methods (5 [10%]of 48, p<0.001), and there was no significant difference between adenosine (4 [11%] of 35) and dobutamine (1 [8%]of 13, p = 0.7). The specificity and predictive value of a positive test response for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis were 36% and 51% for exercise compared with 81% and 85% for adenosine (p/=210 mm Hg was 68% lower (odds ratio = 0.32, 96% confidence interval 0.2 to 0.53) in the beta-blocker-based therapy versus other medications. African Americans exhibited higher BP and HR than Caucasians at all exercise workloads regardless of antihypertensive therapy and had over a 90% higher likelihood for an abnormal exercise BP response. This risk was attenuated by 35% with a beta-blocker-based therapy.\",\n \"Exercise electrocardiographic hump sign is associated with uncontrolled arterial hypertension (AH), left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction, and false-positive exercise testing (ET). The aim of this prospective study was to evaluate the antihypertensive treatment effect on hump and on pseudoischemic ST-segment depression and potential correlations to LV diastolic function and mass changes. The study comprised 59 non-coronary artery disease patients (45.9 years; 67.8% men) with never-treated arterial hypertension (143.2/95.1 mm Hg). Treadmill ET and echocardiography were performed at baseline and 6 months after pharmaceutical blood pressure normalization. Prevalence of hump and ST depression, transmitral (E/A) and tissue Doppler imaging (E'/A') early/late velocities ratios, E/E' ratio, and LV mass index (LVMI) were all defined. Prevalence of hump was reduced from 69.5% to 23.7% and false-positive ETs from 35.6% to 18.6% (P < .05). Significant improvement (P < .05) was found in E'/A' ratio (0.68 vs 0.84), E/E' ratio (9.3 vs 7.9), and LVMI (109.2 vs 99.8 g/m(2)). Changes in hump were related to ST-depression changes (r = 0.632, P < .001) and to LV diastolic indices changes; patients with hump only at first ET (54.2%) improved E/A and E'/A' ratios, whereas patients with hump only at second ET (8.5%) worsened diastolic indices with similar changes in blood pressure and LVMI.\",\n \"yes. The results are considered relevant, because a direct relationship appears probable between hypertension and the disturbance investigated. Reproducible results suggest that the exercise-mediated disturbance is fixed to the kidneys, that it can be reactivated repeatedly and that it may play a role in maintaining hypertension.\",\n \"It has been previously postulated that Thallium-201 (Tl201) scintigraphy is characterized by relatively low specificity in hypertensive patients. This study was undertaken to assess any possible influence of false-positive scintigraphic results on the prognosis of hypertensive patients. The study group comprised 179 consecutive hypertensive patients (128 men and 51 women), aged 50+/-7 years, who underwent exercise Tl(201) scintigraphy and coronary angiography (patients with normal scintigraphic results underwent coronary angiography due to persistent angina-like symptoms). All patients with normal coronary arteries underwent a second Tl201 scintigraphy within 36+/-6 months. Patients with reversible ischemia in the second scintigraphy underwent also a second coronary angiography. Coronary artery disease (CAD) was detected in 78 (44%) patients, while the rest 101 (56%) patients had normal coronary arteries. Abnormal scintigraphic results were revealed in 66 (85%) patients with CAD and in 38 (38%) patients without CAD. Twenty-two (58%) of the 38 hypertensive patients with false-positive scintigraphic results presented reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. Coronary artery disease was detected in 7 (32%) of these patients during the follow-up period.\",\n \"no. Patients who have exaggerated blood pressure responses to exercise are not more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings than those with normal blood pressure responses. The majority of patients who have echocardiographic abnormalities and subsequently undergo coronary angiography have substantial (≥50% stenosis) coronary artery disease.\",\n \"In patients with coronary artery disease an abnormal increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise stress testing correlated well with left ventricular systolic function at rest but not with the number of obstructed coronary arteries. The abnormal response of diastolic blood pressure probably reflects deterioration of myocardial function.\",\n \"Some experts have suggested that patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses during exercise echocardiography are more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings and less likely to have angiographically significant coronary artery disease than patients with normal blood pressure responses. The aim of this study was to evaluate the impact of exercise blood pressure on exercise echocardiographic findings and subsequent angiographic results in men and women. In this retrospective study, clinical, exercise, and echocardiographic characteristics of patients who underwent treadmill exercise echocardiography over a 2-year period were examined, and the angiographic findings of the subgroup of patients who subsequently underwent coronary angiography within 30 days were analyzed. Among the 7,015 patients (mean age, 61 ± 13 years), 3,992 were men (57%). The likelihood of patients' having abnormal exercise echocardiographic results was similar at all levels of exercise blood pressure, except in men who had low peak systolic blood pressures (<120 mm Hg); they had the highest rate of abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings. Of the 3,225 patients without histories of hypertension or coronary artery disease, 3,098 had peak systolic blood pressures of 120 to 219 mm Hg (a \\\"normal\\\" blood pressure response), and 59 had peak systolic blood pressures ≥ 220 mm Hg (an exaggerated blood pressure response). These patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses were just as likely to have normal exercise echocardiographic results as those who had normal blood pressure responses (85% vs 83%, P > .99). A subgroup of 508 patients underwent coronary angiography. The rate of false-positive findings was similar for patients who had exaggerated blood pressure responses and those who had normal blood pressure responses. The false-positive rate tended to be lower in patients who had low blood pressure responses.\",\n \"yes. Normotensive individuals with an exaggerated BP response to exercise exhibit impairment in longitudinal myocardial function. Even without apparent hypertension, an exaggerated BP response could cause repeated increases in afterload and result in subclinical myocardial dysfunction.\",\n \"Masked hypertension (MH) independently predicts mortality but cannot be diagnosed from clinic blood pressure (BP) taken under resting conditions. We sought to determine if MH could be identified from BP taken during a single bout of low-intensity exercise. BP was recorded at rest and during brief low-level cycling exercise (60-70% of age-predicted maximal heart rate) in 75 untreated subjects with a hypertensive response to exercise (aged 54 ± 9 years). All subjects underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) and MH was defined as clinic BP < 140/90 mmHg and ABPM BP ≥ 130/80 mmHg. There were 42 (56%) patients with MH, and at rest systolic (SBP) was higher in subjects with MH compared with those without MH (127 ± 9 vs 120 ± 9 mmHg; p < 0.05). During exercise, MH subjects had significantly higher SBP (188 ± 22 vs 168 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05), with a greater change from baseline (61 ± 21 vs 48 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05). Low-level exercise SBP was independently associated with MH, and if ≥ 175 mmHg, identified MH with 74% sensitivity and 67% specificity (p < 0.001).\",\n \"yes. Patients with treated hypertension with normal resting echocardiography can have exercise limitation associated with widespread systolic and diastolic left ventricular dysfunction on exercise. Normal resting echocardiography does not preclude the presence of significant functional abnormalities on exercise that can contribute to symptoms.\",\n \"yes. Higher SBP during low-intensity exercise was associated with increased LVM index in normotensive subjects. Exaggerated exercise BP response with normal clinic BP may indicate masked hypertension and possibly hidden target organ damage.\",\n \"Treadmill exercise testing has low specificity for the detection of significant epicardial coronary artery disease (CAD). A possible mechanism to explain some of the false positives is transient subendocardial ischemia induced by intraventricular gradients (IVG) during stress. The development of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography (DSE) occurs in 8-38% of non-selected populations. To determine: 1. the prevalence of IVG in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing; 2. whether this prevalence is different from that described for non-selected populations; 3. whether patient characteristics are related to the presence of IVG; 4. the relation between the presence of IVG and the occurrence of ECG abnormalities, symptoms and blood pressure. We evaluated 50 consecutive patients with false positive treadmill stress tests (normal CT coronary angiography, nuclear perfusion tests or angiography) with DSE (2D and Doppler evaluation). All DSE exams were negative for ischemia. Stress-induced IVG was seen in 34 of the 50 patients (68%) and 16 patients (32%) did not develop IVG (p<0.05). The prevalence of IVG in our selected population (68%) was significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations (8-38%) (p<0.001). Most patient characteristics (gender, age, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium antagonists, significant valvular disease/left ventricular hypertrophy [LVH], symptoms, and blood pressure during stress) were not statistically associated with the prevalence of IVG (p>0.05). However, the presence of IVG was associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST depression during dobutamine stress echo (p<0.05).\",\n \"To describe two cases of Takotsubo like myocardial contractile pattern during exercise stress test secondary to hypertensive response. Treadmill exercise testing is known to cause sympathetic stimulation, leading to increased levels of catecholamine, resulting in alteration in vascular tone. Hypertensive response during exercise testing can cause abnormal consequences, resulting in false positive results.CASES: We present the cases of two patients experiencing apical and basal akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography, in whom normal wall motion response was observed on subsequent pharmacologic stress testing. The first patient developed transient left ventricular (LV) apical akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography. Due to high suspicion that this abnormality might be secondary to hypertensive response, pharmacologic stress testing was performed after three days, which was completely normal and showed no such wall motion abnormality. Qualitative assessment of myocardial perfusion using contrast was also performed, which showed good myocardial blood flow, indicating low probability for significant obstructive coronary artery disease. The second patient developed LV basal akinesis as a result of hypertensive response during exercise testing. Coronary angiogram was not performed in either patient due to low suspicion for coronary artery disease, and subsequently negative stress studies. Transient stress induced cardiomyopathy can develop secondary to hypertensive response during exercise stress testing.\",\n \"yes. This study demonstrates that reduced exercise tolerance in hypertension is associated with worsening of diastolic dysfunction during exercise consistent with an increase in left atrial pressure.\",\n \"no. A hypertensive BP response to exercise is not associated with increased rates of ischemic ECG changes, higher-risk Duke treadmill scores, greater degrees of abnormal MPI or worse clinical outcome.\",\n \"no. Regression of left ventricular mass caused by 6-month antihypertensive therapy does not improve exercise performance of patients with essential hypertension.\",\n \"Systemic hypertension and an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response with exercise have been associated with 'false-positive' findings on stress electrocardiography and echocardiography; however, limited data is available for stress myocardial perfusion imaging (MPI). The purpose of this study was to investigate whether an exaggerated elevation in BP with exercise is associated with an increased prevalence of abnormal MPI. BP responses to exercise were assessed in a cohort of 7,205 patients who underwent stress testing with technetium 99m-SPECT MPI (7/1999-6/2005) for the evaluation of chest pain or dyspnea. A hypertensive response, defined as a peak systolic BP > or = 220 mmHg, occurred in 355 (4.9%) and was not associated with higher rates of ischemic ECG changes (16.1 versus 16.6%; P = .7), differences in Duke treadmill scores (4.7 +/- 4 versus 5.1 +/- 5; P = .3) or an increased prevalence of abnormal perfusion images (30.1% versus 32.9%; P = .3) to those without a hypertensive exercise response. Patients with a hypertensive response and either intermediate or high-risk MPI (on the basis of summed-difference-scores) referred for coronary angiography, had a high prevalence of coronary artery disease which was similar to those without a hypertensive response (88% versus 83%; P = .5). In an analysis of a community-based patient subset, a hypertensive response was not associated with a difference in either all-cause mortality or subsequent myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization or cardiac death (8% versus 9%; P = .7).\",\n \"yes. Exercise testing detects hypertension and arch gradients in patients with a good coarctation repair as assessed at rest. The hypertension and arch \\\"obstruction\\\" appear to be related to discrepancies in the growth of the transverse aortic arch proximal to the repair site, rather than a \\\"recoarctation\\\" of the aorta.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that impaired endothelial vasodilator function may be a mechanism contributing to exercise hypertension and may also be one link between exaggerated exercise BP and worsening hypertension.\",\n \"To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.\",\n \"yes. Hypertensive patients with normal coronary arteries and false-positive scintigraphic results usually present with reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. This group of patients seems to be at increased risk of developing CAD in a long-term follow-up period.\",\n \"Exercise echocardiography is a reliable routine test in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. However, in ∼15% of all patients, stress echocardiography leads to false-positive stress echocardiography results. We aimed to investigate the impact of hypertension on stress echocardiographic results. We performed a retrospective study of patients with suspected or known stable coronary artery disease who underwent a bicycle exercise stress echocardiography. Patients with false-positive stress results were compared with those with appropriate results. 126 patients with suspected or known coronary artery disease were included in this retrospective study. 23 patients showed false-positive stress echocardiography results. Beside comparable age, gender distribution and coronary artery status, hypertension was more prevalent in patients with false-positive stress results (95.7% vs. 67.0%, p = 0.0410). Exercise peak load revealed a borderline-significance with lower loads in patients with false-positive results (100.0 (IQR 75.0/137.5) vs. 125.0 (100.0/150.0) W, p = 0.0601). Patients with false-positive stress results showed higher systolic (2.05 ± 0.69 vs. 1.67 ± 0.39 mmHg/W, p = 0.0193) and diastolic (1.03 ± 0.38 vs. 0.80 ± 0.28 mmHg/W, p = 0.0165) peak blood pressure (BP) per wattage. In a multivariate logistic regression test, hypertension (OR 17.6 [CI 95% 1.9-162.2], p = 0.0115), and systolic (OR 4.12 [1.56-10.89], p = 0.00430) and diastolic (OR 13.74 [2.46-76.83], p = 0.00285) peak BP per wattage, were associated with false-positive exercise results. ROC analysis for systolic and diastolic peak BP levels per wattage showed optimal cut-off values of 1.935mmHg/W and 0.823mmHg/W, indicating false-positive exercise echocardiographic results with AUCs of 0.660 and 0.664, respectively.\",\n \"In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression.\",\n \"yes. Hypertension is a risk factor for false-positive stress exercise echocardiographic results in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. Presence of hypertension was associated with 17.6-fold elevated risk of false-positive results.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":296,"string":"296"}}},{"rowIdx":273178,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Pancreatitis during therapy of acute myeloid leukemia: cytarabine related?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge.","Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified."],"string":"[\n \"Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge.\",\n \"Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. In obese mice, cannabinoid receptor CB-1 blockade with rimonabant attenuates the severity of acute pancreatitis by an adiponectin-mediated mechanism.","yes. The soluble inflammatory cell mediator TNFα directly induces premature protease activation and necrosis in pancreatic acinar cells. This activation depends on calcium and cathepsin-B activity. The findings from the present work further suggest that targeting TNFα, for which pharmaceutical agents are readily available, could be an effective treatment strategy that directly addresses the cellular causes of pancreatitis.","The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of irinotecan monotherapy in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer (APC). Patients with APC refractory to gemcitabine and S-1 were included. Irinotecan (100 mg/m(2)) was administered on days 1, 8, and 15 every 4 weeks until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity was observed. The relationship between uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase 1 family polypeptide A1 gene (UGT1A1) polymorphisms and clinical outcomes was evaluated. Between January 2007 and December 2011, 231 cycles were delivered in 56 patients. Irinotecan was administered as second-line chemotherapy in 35.7% of patients and as third-line chemotherapy or later in 64.3%. A partial response was achieved in two (3.6%) and stable disease in 23 patients (41.0%), giving a disease control rate of 44.6%. The median time to progression (TTP) and overall survival (OS) were 2.9 (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.8-3.5) months and 5.3 (95% CI 4.5-6.8) months, respectively. Median survival from the first-line chemotherapy was 19.5 (95% CI 15.3-23.8) months. Major grade 3/4 adverse events included neutropenia (28.6%), anemia (12.5%), and anorexia (10.7%). Patients with *6 and/or *28 allele(s) (n = 15) were associated with grade 3/4 neutropenia and anorexia but showed longer TTP (5.3 vs. 1.8 months; p = 0.05), and OS (8.0 vs. 4.8 months; p = 0.09) than those without *6 and/or *28 (n = 29).","yes. In the early phase of acute pancreatitis, drotrecogin alfa treatment did not result in a significant improvement in oxidative and inflammatory parameters or renal functions.","Clinical and experimental observations have associated acute and chronic hypercalcemia with pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to determine whether acute hypercalcemia can induce acute pancreatitis and, if so, whether the pathogenesis involves premature protease activation. Rats given bolus infusions of CaCl2 (200 mg/kg; n = 76) were compared with saline-treated controls (n = 40). Serum [Ca2+], serum amylase activity, trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) concentration in serum and pancreatic tissue, pancreatic wet/dry weight ratio, and histology were assessed for 24 hours. For dose-response analysis, CaCl2 was injected at a dose of 50-200 mg/kg, and the aforementioned indices were assayed for 1 hour (n = 5 each). There were no significant changes in the controls. Calcium infusion increased serum [Ca2+] 3-fold after 5 minutes (P < 0.001). Within 1 hour, serum amylase (2.5-fold) and tissue TAP (3-fold) levels increased along with macroscopic and microscopic edema formation and leukocytic infiltration. The extent of the changes at 1 hour correlated with the calcium dose. Amylase and tissue TAP concentrations remained elevated until 24 hours when serum TAP concentration had increased (P < 0.001) and focal acinar necrosis became evident.","Acute pancreatitis following endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography presents a unique opportunity for prophylaxis and early modification of the disease process because the initial triggering event is temporally well defined and takes place in the hospital. We report a prospective, single-center, randomized, double-blind controlled trial to determine if rectal diclofenac reduces the incidence of pancreatitis following cholangiopancreatography. Entry to the trial was restricted to patients who underwent endoscopic retrograde pancreatography or had manometrically verified sphincter of Oddi hypertension. Immediately after endoscopy, patients were given a suppository containing either 100 mg diclofenac or placebo. Estimation of serum amylase levels and clinical evaluation were performed in all patients. A total of 220 patients entered the trial, and 110 received rectal diclofenac. Twenty-four patients developed pancreatitis (11%), of whom 7 received rectal diclofenac and 17 received placebo (P < 0.05).","Adenosine has been shown to modulate various pathophysiologic conditions through receptor-mediated mechanisms. However, the role of adenosine in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis has not been described. We examined the effect of adenosine-receptor stimulation or inhibition on the pathologic changes of the pancreas. Rats received intraperitoneal injections of selective agonists of A1, A2a, and A3 adenosine receptors: 2-chloro-N(6)-cyclopentyladenosine (CCPA), CGS-21680 (CGS), or 1-deoxy-1-[6-[[(3-iodophenyl)methyl]amino]-9H-purin-9-yl]-N-methyl-be ta-D-ribofuranuronamide (IB-MECA), respectively. Serum amylase activity and pathologic changes of the pancreas were evaluated. The effects of a specific A1-receptor antagonist (FK-838) on the pathologic findings of cerulein- and taurocholate-induced pancreatitis were also examined. Administration of a selective A1 agonist induced hyperamylasemia and morphologic changes in the pancreas characterized by interstitial edema and leukocyte infiltration; neither A2a nor A3 agonist produced such changes. Treatment with an A1-receptor antagonist significantly attenuated the outcome induced by A1 agonist stimulation. In addition, the A1-receptor antagonist significantly ameliorated pancreatic edema in both pancreatitis models, although it did not improve the acinar cell damage of the pancreas or the increase of serum amylase.","The SPINK1 variant p.N34S is overrepresented in patients with acute pancreatitis, but more studies distinguishing between first-time and recurrent acute pancreatitis have to be done to determine whether this is only true for patients with recurrent acute pancreatitis.","Acute necrotizing pancreatitis (ANP) is characterized by decreased capillary pancreatic blood flow. Thus, antibiotics may not reach pancreatic necrosis in therapeutic concentrations and consequently fail to prevent bacterial infection of the pancreas which today is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in ANP. To evaluate whether improvement of impaired pancreatic microcirculation by isovolemic hemodilution with dextran leads to an increase in the pancreatic tissue concentration of imipenem (IMI), an antibiotic widely used in clinical ANP. After induction of ANP rats were randomized for either standard fluid therapy with Ringer's lactate (RL) or isovolemic hemodilution with dextran 70,000 (IHD/DEX). Thereafter the animals received an intravenous injection of IMI, and 15 min later they were sacrificed for determination of IMI in serum and tissue. Capillary pancreatic blood flow (CPBF) at the time of antibiotic therapy was assessed by intravital microscopy in an additional set of animals. There was no significant difference in the pancreatic tissue concentration of IMI in animals pretreated with either RL (11.7 +/- 0.6 micrograms/g) or IHD/DEX (11.4 +/- 1.4 micrograms/g), although CPBF was significantly increased in the latter group (1.3 +/- 0.05 vs. 0.8 +/- 0.04 nl/min/capillary).","Previous studies demonstrated that intravenous contrast medium (CM), as used in contrast enhanced computed tomography, aggravates the impairment of pancreatic microcirculation (PM) characteristic of severe pancreatitis and increases necrosis and mortality in necrotizing pancreatitis (NP) in rats. This study evaluates the use of isovolemic hemodilution, which can enhance the microcirculation in severe pancreatitis, for preventing CM-induced injury. NP was induced in 30 dextran-tolerant Wistar rats by intraductal glycodeoxycholic acid and intravenous cerulein for 6 hours. PM was quantified by intravital microscopy using fluorescein isothiocyanate labeled erythrocytes. Based on previous results, areas with low blood flow (< 1.6 nL/min/cap) were identified and baseline recordings of capillary blood flow taken. A reduction of hematocrit to 75% of baseline was achieved by replacement of 5 mL/kg of blood with 25 mL/kg Ringer's lactate (RL) or by exchange of 8 mL/kg of blood for the same amount of dextran 70.6%. Thereafter, the nonionic CM iopamidol (Solutrast, Byk Gulden, Konstanz, Germany) was injected during 1 minute and PM measurements repeated after 30 and 60 minutes. Despite hemodilution with RL, pancreatic capillary perfusion was significantly decreased to 87% of baseline (0.83 +/- 0.04 mL/min/cap; n = 216) 60 minutes after CM infusion (P < 0.05). In contrast, capillary blood flow was significantly increased to 161% (1.56 +/- 0.05 nL/min/cap; n = 278) in the group treated with dextran. Moreover, the percentage of capillaries developing complete stasis was significantly lower in the dextran group (2.3 +/- 1.2%) compared to animals diluted with RL (22.3 +/- 4.8%) (P < 0.002).","Severe acute pancreatitis (AP) is still a significant clinical problem which is associated with a highly mortality. The aim of this study was the evaluation of prognostic value of CT regional perfusion measurement performed on the first day of onset of symptoms of AP, in assessing the risk of developing severe form of acute pancreatitis. 79 patients with clinical symptoms and biochemical criteria indicative of acute pancreatitis (acute upper abdominal pain, elevated levels of serum amylase and lipase) underwent perfusion CT within 24 hours after onset of symptoms. The follow-up examinations were performed after 4-6 days to detect progression of the disease. Perfusion parameters were compared in 41 people who developed severe form of AP (pancreatic and/or peripancreatic tissue necrosis) with parameters in 38 consecutive patients in whom course of AP was mild. Blood flow, blood volume, mean transit time and permeability surface area product were calculated in the three anatomic pancreatic subdivisions (head, body and tail). At the same time the patient's clinical status was assessed by APACHE II score and laboratory parameters such as CRP, serum lipase and amylase, AST, ALT, GGT, ALP and bilirubin were compared. Statistical differences in the perfusion parameters between the group of patients with mild and severe AP were shown. Blood flow, blood volume and mean transit time were significantly lower and permeability surface area product was significantly higher in patients who develop severe acute pancreatitis and presence of pancreatic and/or peripancreatic necrosis due to pancreatic ischemia. There were no statistically significant differences between the two groups in terms of evaluated on admission severity of pancreatitis assessed using APACHE II score and laboratory tests.","Adenosine shows protective effects against cellular damage and dysfunction under several adverse conditions such as inflammation and ischemia. In the current study, we examined the effects of 3-[1-(6,7-diethoxy-2-morpholinoquinazolin-4-yl)piperidin-4-yl]-1,6-dimethyl-2,4(1,3 )-quinazolinedione hydrochloride (KF24345), an adenosine uptake inhibitor, on cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice to investigate whether inhibition of adenosine uptake could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in mice with six intraperitoneal injections of cerulein (50 microg/kg each) at hourly intervals. The cerulein injection increased activities of serum amylase and lipase and caused pathologic changes such as interstitial edema, polymorphonuclear cell infiltration, and acinar cell necrosis in the pancreas. KF24345 (10 mg/kg p.o.) ameliorated all these changes observed in mice with acute pancreatitis, and the suppressing effect of KF24345 on the elevation in serum amylase activity was abolished by the treatment with 8-(p-sulfophenyl)theophylline, an adenosine receptor antagonist. In addition, 2-(aminocarbonyl)- -(4-amino-2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-[5,5-bis-(4-fluorophenyl)pentyl]-1-piperazineacetamide (R75231) and dipyridamole, other adenosine uptake inhibitors, also decreased the elevated serum amylase activity.","yes. These are the first demonstrations that the adenosine uptake inhibitors ameliorate cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice, and these data suggest that adenosine uptake inhibition could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis in vivo.","An elevated serum creatinine concentration at any time during the first 48 h of admission is not a marker for pancreatic necrosis in a first attack of acute pancreatitis. If serum creatinine is normal, necrotizing pancreatitis is unlikely, and contrast-enhanced CT need not be performed unless complications occur and/or the patient's condition deteriorates.","We examined the effects of a weak base, chloroquine, on the trypsinogen processing in cerulein-induced pancreatitis. Immunofluorescence studies were performed using newly generated affinity-purified antibodies to the trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP). The present study showed that chloroquine pretreatment blocked intracellular TAP generation in cerulein-induced pancreatitis.","Investigate the therapeutic effect of regional arterial infusion (RAI) with Aspirin-Triggered Lipoxin A4 (ATL) in experimental severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) in rats. SAP was induced by injection of 5% sodium taurocholate into the pancreatic duct. Rats with SAP were treated with ATL (the ATL group) or physiological saline (the SAP group) infused via the left gastric artery 30 min after injection of sodium taurocholate. The sham group was subjected to the same surgical procedure, though without induction of SAP. Serum levels of amylase, phospholipase A2 (PLA2), interleukin-1β (IL-1β), IL-6 and tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) were measured at 12 and 24 h after induction of SAP. Ascitic fluid, the pancreatic index (wet weight ratio) and myeloperoxidase (MPO) levels in the pancreas were determined and histopathological findings were evaluated. The expression of intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1), NF-κB p65, and heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1) in the pancreas were estimated by immunofluorescence and western blot, respectively. ATL rats had lower serum levels of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 (P<0.01), PLA2 (P<0.05), and amylase levels (P<0.05) studied as compared with the SAP group. The pancreatic index in the ATL group decreased only at 24 h as compared with the SAP group (P<0.05). The histopathological findings and MPO levels in the pancreas significantly decreased in the ATL group as compared to the SAP group (P<0.05 and P<0.01, respectively). Immunofluorescence and western blot showed that ATL attenuated the expression of NF-κB p65, ICAM-1 and PECAM-1 in the pancreas, and increased the expression of HO-1 in SAP animals.","We have previously shown that distal pancreatic duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice is associated with substantial mortality. We examined the cause of death in duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice by serial examination of multiple parameters in three experimental groups: distal pancreatic duct ligation (PD), bile duct ligation alone (BD), and sham operation (S). BD and S had no mortality, while PD had 94% mortality with most deaths between days 2 and 4. Characteristics of mice with acute pancreatitis included (ANOVA; p < 0.05): extracellular regulated kinase activation in the pancreas and lung; pancreatic neutrophil infiltration and acinar cell necrosis maximal on day 2; increased plasma cytokine and aspartate aminotransferase levels and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid neutrophil count and cytokine levels, peaked on day 3; hypotension and bradycardia were worst on day 4; pulmonary neutrophil infiltration and plasma creatinine level peaked on day 4. Liver injury evidenced by raised aspartate serum transaminase after hepatic obstruction was exacerbated by PD.","To determine the impact of high-dose cytarabine (ARA-C) (HDAC) dose modification, based on renal function, on the incidence of neurotoxicity (NT). We retrospectively analyzed the records of 256 patients treated with HDAC (> or = 2.0 g/m2 per dose) for acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) at the University of California, San Francisco (UCSF). From 1985 to 1994, a total of 358 cycles of HDAC were administered, using either a twice-daily schedule (n = 208) or a once-daily regimen (n = 48). In 1989, a dose-modification algorithm was initiated at our institution, which reduced ARA-C doses in the setting of renal insufficiency (RI). For patients with a serum creatinine (Cr) level of 1.5 to 1.9 mg/dL during treatment, or an increase in Cr during treatment (deltaCr) of 0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL, ARA-C was decreased to 1 g/m2 per dose. For patients with a Cr > or = 2.0 mg/dL or a deltaCr greater 1.2 mg/dL, the dose was reduced to 0.1 g/m2/d. Overall, the incidence of NT was 16% (34 of 208) for patients treated with twice-daily HDAC and 0% (none of 48) for patients treated with daily HDAC (P = .003). NT occurred more often in patients treated on a twice-daily schedule with 3 g/m2 per dose compared with 2 g/m2 per dose (25% v 8%; P = .009). NT occurred in 55% of the twice-daily-treated patients with RI, compared with 7% of those with normal renal function (P = .00001). In patients with RI, NT occurred in none of 11 dose-modified cycles versus five of 11 (45%) total unmodified cycles (P = .01). None of 14 patients treated with once-daily HDAC given during RI developed NT, compared to 55% of patients (23 of 42) receiving twice-daily HDAC during RI (P = .009). By univariate analysis, NT was not associated with patient age or serum alkaline phosphatase, but NT was significantly increased in patients treated with twice-daily HDAC when the serum bilirubin was > or = 2.0 mg/dL compared with twice-daily HDAC given when the total bilirubin was less than 2.0 mg/dL (33% v 14%; P = .017). Multivariate analysis confirmed that RI was the most significant risk factor associated with the development of NT.","During the time of lowest white blood cell count (nadir) of allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT), cancer patients suffer from tremendous symptom burden related to therapy that requires intensive patient care. However, the mechanism underlying the development of multiple symptoms has not been established. To explore the role of inflammatory cytokines in the development of treatment-related symptoms, we studied dynamic changes in symptoms and in serum concentrations of inflammatory cytokines (interleukin [IL]-6, IL-8, soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 [sTNF-R1], IL-1 receptor antagonist, and IL-12p40p70) from pretherapy throughout the first 30 days of allo-HSCT in 30 patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. We measured multiple symptoms repeatedly using the M. D. Anderson Symptom Inventory. Mixed-effects modeling was used to analyze longitudinal data. In response to conditioning and stem-cell infusion, serum levels of IL-6 and the severity of multiple symptoms increased rapidly and peaked at nadir. From baseline to nadir (approximately Day 8 post-transplantation), increase in IL-6 was significantly associated with worsening of the most severe symptoms (fatigue, poor appetite, pain, drowsiness, dry mouth, and disturbed sleep; P< .01). During the first 30 days after transplantation, increases in IL-6 (P< .001) and sTNF-R1 (P< .05) significantly predicted the increasing severity of these symptoms.","Five percent of alcoholics develop an acute pancreatitis (AP). The mechanism leading to pancreatic injury is not yet understood. Microcirculatory disorders seem to play a pivotal role. The objective of this study was to compare alcoholic pancreatic injury in response to intravenous and intragastric routes of alcohol administration. Alcohol was applied in rats intravenously (IV) or gastric via a surgical implanted feeding tube (IG). Serum alcohol concentration was maintained between 1.5‰ and 2.5‰. Four subgroups (n = 6/group) were examined in the IV/IG arm and compared with healthy controls. Pancreatic microcirculation, enzyme levels, and morphological damage were assessed after 3, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Microcirculatory analysis showed significantly disturbed pancreatic perfusion and increased adherent leukocytes in IV and IG animals. In IV and IG groups, serum amylase was increased without morphological signs of AP compared with healthy controls.","Activated neutrophils are presumed to injure pulmonary endothelium by releasing oxygen radicals, proteases, and proinflammatory cytokines. Standard counting methods do not distinguish between leukocytosis, neutrophil sequestration, and activation. We used leukocyte uptake of the glucose analog [18F]fluorodeoxyglucose (18FDG), which indicates postmigrational neutrophil activity, to identify and quantify the relationship between acute respiratory distress syndrome and neutrophil activation in experimental pancreatitis in rats. Prospective, experimental study. Research laboratory at a university hospital. Mild and severe pancreatitis models in the rat. INTERVENTIONS Pulmonary (with muscle as control) leukocyte accumulation was assessed by uptake of technetium-99m-labeled chemotactic peptide (fMLFK) and confirmed by measurement of myeloperoxidase activity. Neutrophil activity was assessed by 18FDG uptake. Tissue-to-blood ratios for fMLFK, 18FDG, and leukocytes were calculated to control for background. Neutrophils were counted in histologic sections of saline-perfused lungs. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid was assessed for neutrophil migration and autoradiographed for intracellular 18FDG localization. Lung myeloperoxidase activity, 18FDG, and peripheral white blood cells all significantly increased in both mild and severe pancreatitis, but lung fMLFK only increased in severe pancreatitis. After correction for blood background, only 18FDG in lung (but not muscle) was significantly increased in pancreatitis (severe > mild > normal, p<.001). Histologic analysis showed significant increase in extravascular (migrated) neutrophils only in severe pancreatitis. Autoradiography of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid confirmed the 18FDG within intra-alveolar neutrophils.","This RCT did not show a significant protective effect of pancrelipase replacement therapy over conventional pancreatic enzyme supplementation on NAFLD development after pancreatoduodenectomy for pancreatic cancer. Further studies are clearly required to investigate the etiology of and new therapeutic strategies for treatment-resistant NAFLD (UMIN 000019817).","yes. Our findings suggest that the pathogenesis of acute alcoholic pancreatitis may require a state of exocrine hyperstimulation, perhaps via cholecystokinin, but do not support a role for constriction or obstruction of Oddi's sphincter.","A recent meta-analysis suggests that the addition of oxaliplatin or cisplatin to gemcitabine can lead to improved survival in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer, especially those with a good performance status. In an event of a platinum hypersensitivity reaction, the particular platinum salt is likely discontinued. Desensitization has shown benefit anecdotically but it is an intensive process. We present a case in which platinum-containing therapy was able to continue in a patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer following a hypersensitivity reaction to oxaliplatin, by switching to cisplatin after a negative intradermal skin test. A 58-year-old gentleman with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma received biweekly cycles of gemcitabine in combination with oxaliplatin. During the fifth cycle, he experienced a grade 2 hypersensitivity reaction including erythema and lip numbness, for which he was medicated with antihistaminics and corticosteroids. Cycles 6 and 7 of oxaliplatin were tolerated over 4 h infusion with pretreatment of H1, H2 blockers and corticosteroids. During the 8th cycle, the patient developed a grade 3 hypersensitivity reaction manifesting as facial flushing, sweating, symptomatic bronchospasm, cyanotic lips and chest tightness. Symptoms resolved with antihistaminics, corticosteroids and epinephrine. Although oxaliplatin treatment was discontinued, the patient's response to the platinum therapy merited a cisplatin rechallenge. An intradermal skin test was administered with negative result, allowing for a regimen change to biweekly gemcitabine and cisplatin. The patient has tolerated multiple additional cycles with further decrease in tumor size and tumor markers.","yes. Early pancreatic volume reduction on CT after steroid therapy indicates the therapeutic effects of steroids, and a low decrease in the pancreatic volume may be associated with a limited response that predicts future relapse in patients with type 1 AIP. Reduction of steroids in these cases must be observed carefully with consideration of immunomodulator use.","One of the goals of study AMA-BFM-87 was to test prospectively in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) patients if cranial irradiation could be replaced by late intensification therapy with high-dose cytarabine (Ara-C) and etoposide (VP-16). Patients with a low risk of CNS relapses (ie, no initial CNS disease, WBC count at diagnosis.80), could only be reproduced in study AML-BFM-87 in patients who had received cranial irradiation.","High-dose cytarabine (HiDAC) is safe and very effective in younger patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), but it generally is not well tolerated in the elderly. The authors explored the safety and tolerability of a modified HiDAC induction regimen consisting of 6 daily doses of cytarabine at 2 g/m(2) in combination with 3 daily doses of daunorubicin at 45 mg/m(2) in 59 consecutive patients aged >60 years who had de novo AML diagnosed between July 1996 and February 2005. The median patient age was 68 years (range, 60-86 years). The regimen was well tolerated. Infections were common and occurred in 39% of patients, but cerebellar toxicities occurred in only 7% of patients and were reversible. The day-30 induction-related mortality rate was 10%. Overall, 69% of patients achieved complete remissions (CR), and 80% received up to 3 consolidations with HiDAC. The median follow-up for surviving patients was 53 months (range, 17-114 months). The median overall survival was 15.3 months (range, 1-114 months), and the relapse-free survival was 13.8 months (range, 1-113 months). Survival for patients who achieved CR was 27 months (range, 2-114 months).","yes. PLA2 induces AMs to release NO, which contributes to lung injury in acute pancreatitis. This lung injury was prevented by the administration of the PLA2 inhibitor quinacrine.","The aim of our present study was to investigate the efficacy of poly(adenosine diphosphate-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibition in the development of acute kidney injury in an experimental model of severe acute pancreatitis induced by retrograde infusion of sodium taurocholate into the bile-pancreatic duct. Severity of pancreatitis was evaluated by serum amylase, lipase, tumor necrosis factor α, interleukin-1β, interleukin-6, and histological grading. The following markers of renal dysfunction and injury were measured: serum creatinine level, urea nitrogen level, myeloperoxidase activity, and histology. Activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin protein in the kidney was studied using Western blot analysis. 3-Aminobenzamide attenuated the following: (1) serum amylase, lipase, and renal dysfunction; (2) serum concentrations of proinflammatory cytokines; (3) pancreatic and renal pathological injury; (4) renal myeloperoxidase activity; and (5) activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin in the kidney.","Pancreatitis is the most common serious complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). We performed a pilot study to determine whether aggressive periprocedural hydration with lactated Ringer's solution reduces the incidence of pancreatitis after ERCP. Patients who underwent first-time ERCP were randomly assigned to groups (2:1) that received aggressive hydration with lactated Ringer's solution (3 mL/kg/h during the procedure, a 20-mL/kg bolus after the procedure, and 3 mL/kg/h for 8 hours after the procedure, n = 39) or standard hydration with the same solution (1.5 mL/kg/h during and for 8 hours after procedure, n = 23). Serum levels of amylase, visual analogue pain scores (scale of 0-10), and volume overload were assessed at baseline and 2, 8, and 24 hours after ERCP. The primary end point, post-ERCP pancreatitis, was defined as hyperamylasemia (level of amylase >3 times the upper limit of normal) and increased epigastric pain (≥3 points on visual analogue scale) persisting for ≥24 hours after the procedure. Secondary end points included hyperamylasemia, increased pain, and volume overload. None of the patients who received aggressive hydration developed post-ERCP pancreatitis, compared with 17% of patients who received standard hydration (P = .016). Hyperamylasemia developed in 23% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 39% of those who received standard hydration (P = .116, nonsignificant); increased epigastric pain developed in 8% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 22% of those who received standard hydration (P = .146, nonsignificant). No patients had evidence of volume overload.","yes. Intravenous CM increases pancreatic injury when administered early in the course of severe experimental AP. Because CM may convert borderline ischemia to irreversible necrosis, CECT performed early in pancreatitis to show poor perfusion and predict areas of necrosis may depict a self-fulfilling prophecy. Early CECT should be reconsidered and perhaps avoided.","Pancreatitis is the most severe complication of ERCP. The aim of this study was to assess whether the use of potentially pancreatotoxic drugs is a risk factor for post-ERCP pancreatitis. Risk factors for post-ERCP pancreatitis and all drugs taken during the month before ERCP were recorded retrospectively in a database. Patients with other causes of acute pancreatitis or chronic pancreatitis were excluded from the analysis. Post-ERCP pancreatitis was defined as abdominal pain and/or vomiting associated with amylase/lipase plasma levels equal to or greater than twice the upper normal value. A total of 173 patients (95 men, 78 women; mean age, 68 [16] years) were included. Post-ERCP pancreatitis occurred in 31 patients (18%). Several risk factors were identified in a multivariate analysis: difficulty in cannulation (p<0.001), endoscopic sphincterotomy (p<0.005), and female gender (p=0.02). Having taken potent pancreatotoxic drugs increased the occurrence of post-ERCP pancreatitis: odds ratio 3.7: 95% confidence intervals [1.1,12.4], p=0.04.","yes. Prophylactic inosine reduces microcirculatory and pancreatic injury in acute necrotizing pancreatitis. These effects should be assessed in the clinical setting of ERCP and pancreas transplantation.","yes. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with hyperhomocysteinemia and derangements in transmethylation and transsulfuration pathways. Low folate levels observed in these patients seem to have a key role in this derangement.","yes. While technically feasible to treat locally advanced pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, prolonged regional pancreatic perfusion with gemcitabine following pancreatic arterial redistribution carries a high risk for gastrointestinal toxicity. Shorter infusion schedules with frequent on treatment evaluations should be considered for future clinical trials.","yes. Pancreatitis-associated CTRC mutations can markedly increase the propensity of chymotrypsinogen C to elicit ER stress in pancreatic acinar cells. Thus, carriers of CTRC mutations may be at a higher risk of developing ER stress in the exocrine pancreas, which may contribute to parenchymal damage through acinar cell apoptosis.","yes. These data support the notion that patients entering BMT conditioning without prior cytotoxic treatment (e.g., patients with chronic myeloid leukemia) may be at increased risk of posttransplant complications associated with excessive inflammatory cytokine production.","Individualized optimization of intravascular fluid status during the early course of severe acute pancreatitis, compared with a treatment strategy of maximizing stroke volume by fluid loading, leads to less vascular endothelial damage, pancreatic edema, and inflammatory response.","Much of the late morbidity and mortality of acute pancreatitis (AP) is attributed to complications of pancreatic necrosis (PNEC). Early diagnosis of PNEC in high-risk patients is critical to management. Hemoconcentration is one risk factor for PNEC, but additional risk factors are likely implicated. (1) To evaluate a series of preselected clinical factors in a prospectively collected cohort with AP to identify risk factors for PNEC and (2) to verify the relative risk of any newly identified factor(s) by retrospective analysis of a large patient cohort. Phase I: 102 AP patients were prospectively ascertained, of which 77 (mean age 49 yr; 35 women, 42 men) underwent contrast-enhanced computerized tomography (CECT) and were studied. Eleven subjects developed PNEC (14%). Binary logistic regression was performed to identify any clinical factors associated with PNEC. Phase II: 1,474 anonymized patients admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of AP were electronically reviewed to identify 359 subjects (mean age 54 yr; 157 women, 202 men) with AP and CECT. Seventy-six of these patients (21%) exhibited CECT evidence of PNEC. The associations found in the Phase I group were compared with Phase II by logistic regression analysis. In Phase I, only chronic alcohol consumption was identified as a significant new risk factor for the development of PNEC (6/19 vs 5/58, p= 0.02, OR 4.8, CI 1.27-18.2). In Phase II, it was verified that excessive alcohol consumption was a significant risk factor for PNEC (18/52 vs 58/307, p= 0.012, OR 2.27, CI 1.19-4.30).","Recent studies have shown that inosine, a purine nucleoside produced during the breakdown of adenosine, has immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory properties. The aim of this study was to examine the effects of inosine on the course of acute pancreatitis. Edematous pancreatitis was induced by the intraperitoneal injection of caerulein (50 micro g/kg), seven times, at 1-h intervals, in male Wistar rats (caerulein pancreatitis). Inosine (100 mg/kg) was administered 30 min before or 1 h after the first injection of caerulein. The effects of inosine on the severity of pancreatitis were assessed by serum amylase, pancreatic edema (wet/dry ratio), myeloperoxidase activity, cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations, and histological changes. Prophylactic administration of inosine significantly decreased the elevation of serum amylase, myeloperoxidase activity, and cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations in the pancreas and the lung. Inosine did not significantly affect edema formation. Histologically, vacuole formation in pancreatic acinar cells, infiltration of inflammatory cells in the pancreas and the lung, and alveolar wall thickening in the lung were reduced. Inosine improved the histological findings and reduced myeloperoxidase activity even if it was administered 1 h after the first injection of caerulein.","yes. Interleukin-6 appears to be implicated in the development of chronic hyperglycemia and insulin resistance in patients after acute pancreatitis. It may become a potential target in the prevention and early treatment of diabetes after diseases of the exocrine pancreas.","yes. The degree of intestinal damage after myeloablative conditioning appeared to be the most important determined the inflammatory response following SCT, and was associated with inflammatory complications. Studies should explore ways to ameliorate cytotoxic therapy-induced intestinal damage in order to reduce complications associated with myeloablative conditioning therapy.","We demonstrated that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improved histopathologic score and oxidative stress in experimental pancreatitis. In addition, it was demonstrated microbiologically and histopathologically that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improves bacterial translocation. Further survival studies demonstrating the efficacy of 3-aminobenzamide therapy and explaining the potential mechanisms of bacterial translocation prevention in acute necrotizing pancreatitis will be beneficial.","yes. Our novel data suggest that Rho-kinase signalling plays an important role in acute pancreatitis by regulating trypsinogen activation and subsequent CXC chemokine formation, neutrophil infiltration and tissue injury. Thus, these results indicate that Rho-kinase may constitute a novel target in the management of SAP.","To evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of topotecan and cytarabine in patients with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDSs) and chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML). Fifty-nine patients with MDSs and 27 with CMML were enrolled. They were either previously untreated (66%) or had received only biologic agents (14%) or chemotherapy with or without biologic agents (20%). Treatment consisted of topotecan 1.25 mg/m(2) by continuous intravenous infusion daily for 5 days and cytarabine 1. 0 g/m(2) by infusion over 2 hours daily for 5 days. Prophylaxis included antibacterial, antifungal, and antiviral agents. At a median follow-up of 7 months, all 86 patients were assessable for response and toxicity. Complete remission (CR) was observed in 48 patients (56%; 61% with MDSs, 44% with CMML; P =.15). Similar CR rates were observed for patients with good-risk and poor-risk MDS (70% and 56%, respectively). The treatment effectively induced CR in patients with a poor-prognosis karyotype involving chromosomes 5 and 7 (CR, 71%) and secondary MDSs (CR, 72%). Fifty-four patients received one induction course, 25 patients received two, and the rest received more than two. The median number of continuation courses was two. The median overall duration of CR was 34 weeks (50 weeks for MDSs and 33 weeks for CMML). The median survival was 60 weeks for MDS and 44 weeks for CMML patients. CR and survival durations were longer in patients with refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB). Grade 3 or 4 mucositis or diarrhea was observed in three patients each. Fever was observed in 63%, and infections in 49% of patients. Six patients (7%) died during induction therapy.","To determine whether recommendations for treatment of acute pancreatitis (AP) in adults impact the outcomes of pediatric AP. Adult guidelines regarding early management of AP were implemented through an admission order set at Cincinnati Children's Hospital Medical Center at the beginning of the year 2014. Recommendations included administering high rates of intravenous fluid (IVF) within 24 hours of admission and enteral nutrition within 48 hours of admission. A retrospective chart review of AP admissions before and after the implementation of the recommendations was undertaken. Outcomes studied were: hospital length of stay, intensive care unit transfer rates, development of severe AP, pulmonary complications, and readmission rates post discharge from the hospital. The study included 201 patients. Children who received feeds within the first 48 hours and received greater than maintenance IVF within 24 hours had a shorter length of stay, less intensive care unit admissions and severe AP rates compared with the patients who remained nil per os during the first 48 hours and received lower rates of IVF.","yes. Treatment of acute necrotizing pancreatitis with multidrug regimens significantly decreases short-term mortality compared to monotherapies. Moreover, multidrug strategies are still effective after a wide therapeutic window. Key to this effective therapy is the inhibition of microcirculatory disturbances and of the systemic inflammatory response. The experimental superiority of the multidrug approach should be confirmed in a clinical trial.","yes. Activation of sPLA(2)-I is associated with the early pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis, but not in the development of distant organ damage. This observation raises questions as to the theory of generalized zymogen activation being a principle mechanism involved in the pathogenesis of distant organ damage in acute pancreatitis.","yes. In a large retrospective cohort study of patients undergoing ERCP that included low-risk patients and patients with malignant biliary obstruction, rectal indomethacin was associated with a significant decrease in the absolute rate and severity of pancreatitis.","This study was designed to evaluate the protective effect of a peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist, pranlukast hydrate, against pancreatic injuries during acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in rats by intravenous infusion of a supramaximal dose of cerulein (5 micrograms/kg h for 4 h). In this model marked hyperamylasemia, a significant increase in pancreatic water content, and a significant increase in pancreatic microvascular leakage of Evans blue dye were observed. Pancreatic subcellular redistribution of the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin B from the lysosomal fraction to the zymogen fraction was also observed. Pretreatment with pranlukast hydrate at a dose of 10 micrograms/kg (twice, 8 and 4 h before cerulein infusion) significantly inhibited these pancreatic injuries, including hyperamylasemia, increased pancreatic microvascular permeability, and redistribution of cathepsin B in pancreatic acinar cells.","yes. The polymorphism of the GT repeats in the heme oxygenase-1 promoter region may be a risk factor for developing severe and necrotizing acute pancreatitis.","yes. Topotecan and cytarabine induced high CR rates in unselected patients with MDSs and CMML, particularly among patients with poor-prognosis cytogenetics and secondary MDSs. Topotecan-cytarabine is an active induction regimen in MDS and CMML patients, is well tolerated, and is associated with a low mortality rate.","yes. Chemokine production and leucocyte infiltration are timely regulated in lung and pancreas during pancreatitis. CXC chemokine inhibition with Evasin-3 improved neutrophil inflammation and injury, potentially interfering with damages in acute pancreatitis and related pulmonary complications.","Acute pancreatitis has been reported in a few cases treated with macrolides or glucocorticoids. We report the case of a 58 year old patient who, after 2 days of treatment with roxithromycin and betamethasone, manifested acute pancreatitis. Other causes of the disease were ruled out. No re-occurrence of pancreatitis was observed in a 16 month follow-up.","Intraduodenal hematoma (IDH) is an uncommon complication of endoscopic duodenal biopsy that can cause severe obstruction of the digestive, biliary, or pancreatic tracts. We aimed to analyze the risk factors and outcomes of biopsy-induced IDH in our series. Between 2010 and 2014, a retrospective chart review was conducted for all children younger than 18 years of age treated for IDH. We collected their data in our tertiary pediatric center and compared them to those of controls matched for age, sex, and pathology. Among 2705 upper nontherapeutic endoscopies and 1163 duodenal biopsies, 7 IDH occurred in 6 children suspected of developing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) after bone marrow transplantation (BMT) and in 1 patient with Noonan syndrome. The IDH prevalence was significantly higher after BMT compared to children who did not undergo grafting (7% vs 0.1%; P = 7.9 × 10; odds ratio = 82). After a median delay of 48 hours, patients developed intestinal obstruction with abdominal pain and vomiting. The diagnosis was confirmed by using ultrasonography or computed tomography scans. Acute pancreatitis was determined in 3 out of 7 patients. Conservative treatment allowed complete resolution in all patients.","Severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is characterized by trypsinogen activation, infiltration of leucocytes and tissue necrosis but the intracellular signalling mechanisms regulating organ injury in the pancreas remain elusive. Rho-kinase is a potent regulator of specific cellular processes effecting several pro-inflammatory activities. Herein, we examined the role of Rho-kinase signalling in acute pancreatitis. Pancreatitis was induced by infusion of taurocholate into the pancreatic duct in C57BL/6 mice. Animals were treated with a Rho-kinase inhibitor Y-27632 (0.5-5 mg·kg⁻¹) before induction of pancreatitis. Taurocholate infusion caused a clear-cut increase in blood amylase, pancreatic neutrophil infiltration, acinar cell necrosis and oedema formation in the pancreas. Levels of pancreatic myeloperoxidase (MPO), macrophage inflammatory protein-2 (MIP-2), trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) and lung MPO were significantly increased, indicating local and systemic disease. Inhibition of Rho-kinase activity dose-dependently protected against pancreatitis. For example, 5 mg·kg⁻¹ Y-27632 reduced acinar cell necrosis, leucocyte infiltration and pancreatic oedema by 90%, 89% and 58%, respectively, as well as tissue levels of MPO by 75% and MIP-2 by 84%. Moreover, Rho-kinase inhibition decreased lung MPO by 75% and blood amylase by 83%. Pancreatitis-induced TAP levels were reduced by 61% in Y-27632-treated mice. Inhibition of Rho-kinase abolished secretagogue-induced activation of trypsinogen in pancreatic acinar cells in vitro.","Acute pancreatitis (AP) is an inflammatory disease characterized by acinar cell damage and inflammation of the pancreas with infiltration of leukocytes, predominantly neutrophils. We investigated whether neutrophil depletion protects against experimental AP induced by L-arginine. AP was induced in C57BL/6 mice via two intraperitoneal L-arginine (4 g/kg) injections. Mice were pretreated with 250 and 100 µg anti-Gr-1 antibody via intraperitoneal injection at 24 and 4 h, respectively, before L-arginine challenge for neutrophil depletion. At 48 and 72 h after injection, the severity of AP was determined with the aid of biochemical and histological analyses. Amylase and MPO activity was detected using specific assay kits. The plasma cytokines levels were detected using ELISA. Neutrophil depletion resulted in significantly reduced plasma amylase levels in pancreas, myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity in pancreas and lung, reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation and cell apoptosis, and decreased circulating neutrophil, tissue damage as well as expression levels of nuclear factor NF-κB.","yes. Chronic osteomyelitis correlates with increased risk of acute pancreatitis. Patients with chronic osteomyelitis should be carefully monitored about the risk of acute pancreatitis.","yes. Activation of the adenosine A1-receptor pathway may have an important role in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis.","yes. Spinal administration of combined doses of NMDA receptor antagonist, D-APV, and MS reversed three behavioral responses to induction of an acute pancreatitis model. These results suggest that in the clinical management of visceral pain, such as pancreatitis, restricted usage of glutamate antagonists might be useful as adjuvant potentiation at the onset of morphine therapy.","Fulminant acute pancreatitis is a disease of complex origin that results in activation of several of the proinflammatory cytokines. Because interleukin-1 (IL-1) is an integral early component of the acute inflammatory process, the use of an IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) was investigated in experimental acute pancreatitis to determine the therapeutic potential of proximal cytokine blockade and to further establish the role of inflammatory cytokines in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis. IL-1ra was administered in escalating doses either before or after acute edematous, necrotizing pancreatitis was induced in adult male mice by injection of cerulein. The severity of pancreatitis was quantified by serum amylase, lipase, interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) levels, pancreatic wet weight, and blinded histologic grading. Administration of medium (10 mg/kg) and high (100 mg/kg) doses of IL-1ra either before or after the induction of pancreatitis significantly decreased the expected rise in pancreatic wet weight, lipase, IL-6, and TNF-alpha (all, p < 0.01). Serum amylase was significantly reduced when IL-1ra was administered in either dosage before (p < 0.05), but not after, induction of pancreatitis. Pancreatic edema, necrosis, and inflammatory cell infiltrate were significantly diminished (p < 0.05) by histologic grading in all animals receiving medium or high doses of IL-1ra. Low doses of IL-1ra (1.0 mg/kg) had modest effects if given before, but no effect if given after, induction of pancreatitis.","yes. Acute pancreatitis associated with IPMNs could predict malignant intestinal-type tumor. and IAP.","We evaluated the attitude in using chemotherapy near the end of life in advanced pancreatic adenocarcinoma (PAC). Clinical and laboratory parameters recorded at last chemotherapy administration were analyzed, in order to identify risk factors for imminent death. Retrospective analysis of patients who underwent at least one line of palliative chemotherapy was made. Data concerning chemotherapy (regimens, lines, and date of last administration) were collected. Clinical and laboratory factors recorded at last chemotherapy administration were: performance status, presence of ascites, hemoglobin, white blood cell (WBC), platelets, total bilirubin, albumin, LDH, C-reactive protein (C-rp), and Ca 19.9. We analyzed 231 patients: males/females, 53/47 %; metastatic/locally advanced disease, 80/20 %; and median age, 66 years (range 32-85). All patients died due to disease progression. Median overall survival was 6.1 months (95 % CI 5.1-7.2). At the last chemotherapy delivery, performance status was 0-1 in 37 % and 2 in 63 %. Fifty-nine percent of patients received one chemotherapy line, while 32, 8, and 1 % had second-, third-, and fourth line, respectively. The interval between last chemotherapy administration and death was<4 weeks in 24 %, ≥4-12 in 47 %, and>12 in 29 %. Median survival from last chemotherapy to death was 7.5 weeks (95 % CI 6.7-8.4). In a univariate analysis, ascites, elevated WBC, bilirubin, LDH, C-rp and Ca 19.9, and reduced albumin were found to predict shorter survival; however, none of them remained significant in a multivariate analysis.","yes. These results suggest that hematin is one of the cytotoxic factors in PAAF that causes hepatocellular injury and that cellular injuries caused by hematin may be involved in the development of multiple organ failure associated with severe acute pancreatitis.","yes. The initial response of the cytokine network to damage of the human pancreas leading to acute pancreatitis includes the release of IL-8 and the IL-1 antagonist IL-1-RA, while IL-1beta is not found in the systemic circulation. The TNF system does not seem to be involved as indicated by the lack of detectable changes in TNF and the soluble TNFR p55 and p75 serum concentrations. Lymphocyte activation as indicated by elevated IL-2R levels occurred days after the initial trauma. Even mild post-ERP pancreatitis leads to significant systemic release of cytokines and their biological counterparts.","The aim of this study was to evaluate the hypothesis that mild endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-induced acute pancreatitis (AP) runs a distinctly shorter clinical course compared with mild attacks caused by other etiological factors. ERCP-induced AP was defined as the persistence of postprocedure abdominal pain requiring analgesia for at least 24 h in association with hyperamylasemia of more than three times the normal value. Among 2552 patients who had undergone ERCP between 1996 and 2002 in two different hospitals, mild AP developed after \"elective\" ERCP in 48 (group I). Among a random sample of 10% of 700 patients admitted with AP to both hospitals during the same study period, 58 had mild non-ERCP-related AP (group II). Results shown are medians. Patients in group I had significantly shorter durations of pain (55 vs. 114 h, P<0.0001), analgesic intake (56 vs.93 h, P = 0.007), and intravenous hydration (48 vs. 80 h, P<0.0001), a lower opiate analgesic requirement (58 mg morphine equivalent vs. 100 mg, P = 0.001), a shorter time to resumption of oral diet (3 vs. 5 days, P<0.0001), and a shorter hospital stay (4 vs. 7 days, P<0.0001) than patients in group II.","yes. Our results suggest that apoptosis plays an important role in acute pancreatitis-associated lung injury (APALI), and inhibition of caspase activity may represent a new therapeutic approach for the treatment of APALI.","no. Whilst severe attacks of acute pancreatitis are associated with early derangement in gut barrier function and systemic endotoxin translocation, there is no molecular evidence for associated bacterial \"translocation.\"","In the 1960s, it was reported that infectious complications were the main cause of fever during neutropenia that followed hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). More recently, mucositis has become recognized as an important determinant of the inflammatory response and infectious complications. The objective of this prospective study was to determine the impact of intestinal mucositis, as measured by plasma citrulline, and neutropenia on the systemic inflammatory response (C-reactive protein) and the occurrence of bacteremia among 2 cohorts of HSCT recipients: 1 composed of 18 patients who had been treated with a myeloablative (MA) regimen (high-dose melphalan) and the other involving 19 patients who had received the non-myeloablative (NMA) regimen (fludarabine and cyclophosphamide). Blood cultures were obtained for surveillance from admission onwards as well as at the onset of fever. The MA regimen induced severe intestinal mucositis manifest by citrullinemia <10 μmol/L, which was accompanied by an inflammatory response, and bacteremia affected 8 (44%) of 18 patients and coincided with the nadir of citrullinemia. By contrast, those who had been treated with the NMA regimen did not develop severe intestinal mucositis, had a moderate inflammatory response, and only 2 (11%) of the 19 patients developed bacteremia. However, both groups experienced profound neutropenia and its duration was significantly longer for those receiving the NMA regimen.","This study investigated the role of hypoxia-inducible factor 1alpha (HIF-1alpha) in acute pancreatitis (AP) and whether HIF-1alpha is involved in the therapeutic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) on AP. Thirty Wistar rats with taurocholate-induced AP were randomly assigned to 3 groups (each group had 10 rats) receiving oxygen, HBO, or no therapeutic treatment 4 hours after induction. Ten healthy sham-operated rats also served as controls. The arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, pH, lactate dehydrogenase in the arterial sera, and amylase and tumor necrosis factor alpha in the venous sera were measured 6 hours after induction. Pancreatic tissues were subjected to histopathologic analysis, immunohistochemical and Western-blotted analyses of HIF-1alpha and vascular endothelial growth factor, and measuring of myeloperoxidase activity. The HBO therapy attenuated the severity of acute pancreatitis; reduced histopathologic scores, dry weight-wet weight ratio of pancreatic tissues, and levels of amylase and lactate dehydrogenase; and elevated blood arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, and pH values. The HBO therapy inhibited AP-induced up-regulation of HIF-1alpha and its downstream effector vascular endothelial growth factor and the production of tumor necrosis factor alpha and myeloperoxidase activity.","yes. Chemokines are induced in acinar cells by treatments that induce pancreatitis and may play an important role in the early stages of the disease.","We evaluated whether clofarabine-containing chemotherapy predisposed patients to hepatic toxicity (particularly venoocclusive disease [VOD]) after allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT). In the group who received clofarabine and subsequent transplantation, there were no cases of VOD, and liver toxicity was comparable to a control group who received standard acute myeloid leukemia (AML) chemotherapy. Other transplant-specific outcomes, including overall survival (OS), were also similar when compared with the control group. Clofarabine is actively being investigated as a component of frontline chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Hepatotoxicity is 1 of the primary adverse events associated with clofarabine and can occasionally can include severe venoocclusive disease (VOD). Many patients with AML undergo allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT), a procedure that is also associated with hepatotoxicity. We identified AML patients undergoing allo-SCT and stratified them according to whether they received clofarabine-containing (clofarabine, idarubicin, and cytarabine [CIA]) or non-clofarabine-containing cytarabine-based induction/consolidation chemotherapy (idarubicin and cytarabine [ara-C] [IA]). We compared both groups for differences in posttransplantation hepatotoxicity, VOD, and other transplantation outcomes. Forty-two patients were identified (20 receiving CIA and 22 receiving IA). Patient and transplant characteristics were similar. All patients receiving clofarabine-based treatment received CIA within 2.5 months of their allo-SCT. There was no difference in the incidence of VOD in the 30 days after transplantation (0 CIA, 1 IA; P = 1.0). Rates of grade 3/4 hepatotoxicity also did not differ between groups. Acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), early relapse, and survival were also not significantly different.","yes. In acute pancreatitis, structural capillary diameter and heterogeneity of diameter increase and capillary density decreases. These parameters are all improved by HBO treatment. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment normalizes the pancreatic microvasculature after acute pancreatitis and may be a potentially effective treatment of this disease.","To determine the effect of intestinal ischemia-reperfusion (IIR) on acute pancreatitis (AP) and the role of mesenteric lymph. Intestinal ischemia is an early feature of AP and is related to the severity of disease. It is not known whether this contributes to the severity of AP or is a consequence. Two experiments are reported here using intravital microscopy and a rodent model of mild acute pancreatitis (intraductal 2.5% sodium taurocholate). In the first, rats had an episode of IIR during AP that was produced by temporary occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery (30 min or 3 x 10 min) followed by 2h reperfusion. In a second study rats with AP had an intravenous infusion of mesenteric lymph collected from donor rats that had been subjected to IIR. In both experiments the pancreatic erythrocyte velocity (EV), functional capillary density (FCD), leukocyte adherence (LA), histology and edema index were measured. The addition of IIR to AP caused a decline in the pancreatic microcirculation greater than that of AP alone (EV 42% of baseline vs. 73% of baseline AP alone, FCD 43% vs 72%, LA 7 fold increase vs 4 fold increase). This caused an increased severity of AP as evidenced by 1.4-1.8 fold increase of pancreatic edema index and histologic injury respectively. A very similar exacerbation of microvascular failure and increased pancreatitis severity was then demonstrated by the intravenous infusion of IIR conditioned mesenteric lymph from donor animals.","Our 9-year experience suggests that imaging findings such as attenuation pattern on the delayed phase of CT scan and tapering pattern of pancreatic ductal stricture on pancreatogram can help to differentiate mass-forming pancreatitis from early-stage pancreatic adenocarcinoma.","Acute pancreatitis is a severe and frequently life-threatening disease, which can lead to pancreatic necrosis, acute lung injury, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and other complications. In this study, we hypothesized that the expression of heme oxygenase-1 determined by the number of guanidinium thiocyanate (GT) repeats can influence the occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Patients with acute pancreatitis (n = 131) and age- and sex-matched healthy controls (n = 108) were studied. The polymerase chain reaction products were analyzed by ABI 3130 genetic analyzer and the exact size of the polymerase chain reaction products was determined by GeneMapper software. A short allele was defined as containing 27 GT repeats or fewer, whereas a long allele was more than 27 repeats. The subjects were categorized into 3 groups on the basis of the genotype results: 1 short and 1 long, 2 short, and 2 long alleles (L/L). Patients with necrotizing disease more frequently were carriers of LL genotype compared with those who had edematous acute pancreatitis. Furthermore, logistic regression analysis revealed that the presence of L/L allele type doubles the risk for developing pancreatic necrosis in patients with acute pancreatitis.","yes. This study provides the first evidence that (1) prevention of the activation of protein tyrosine kinases reduces the development of acute pancreatitis, and (2) inhibition of the activity of certain tyrosine kinases may represent a novel approach for the therapy of acute pancreatitis.","yes. Pretreatment with AIHA reduces the severity of L-arginine-induced pancreatitis most likely by inhibiting arginase activity.","This trial revealed that the 11.3% of all patients developed thrombosis,who had been treated with MA and chemotherapy concomittantly. There was no statistically significant difference regarding to occurrence of thrombotic process, among the patients receiving different chemotherapy regimens with MA concomittantly. Pancreatic cancer seemed to be related to thrombosis rather than MA use.","Acute pancreatitis is well defined as pancreatic inflammation due to the activation of pancreatic enzymes secondary to several etiological factors. In the majority of patients, the clinical symptoms are self-limited, but it can also cause tissue necrosis and severe organ failures. In experimental animal models, it has been shown that wide apoptotic cell death is related to a clinically mild presentation of acute pancreatitis. Cytokeratin 18, a cytoskeletal protein, is shown to be related with apoptosis. In this study, we aimed to show the relation between serum cytokeratin 18 and the clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis in humans. A total of 54 acute pancreatitis patients were enrolled into the study. Patients were classified as mild or severe pancreatitis according to Ranson's criteria. There were 36 (66.7%) patients in the mild pancreatitis group (score<6), and 18 (33.3%) patients in the severe pancreatitis group (score ≥ 6). During the first admission, blood samples were obtained for serum cytokeratin 18 levels. Cytokeratin 18 levels in the mild pancreatitis group were significantly higher than in the severe pancreatitis group (271.2 ± 45.5 vs. 152.6 ± 38.2 IU/L; p<0.001). There was a negative correlation between the disease activity score (Ranson score) and the serum cytokeratin 18 levels (p<0.001; r = -0.724).","One of the most important complications of acute pancreatitis is the secondary bacterial infections of the pancreas and gut. Translocation of bacteria from the gut is accepted as being responsible for the development of septic complications in acute pancreatitis. In this study, our aim was to investigate the effect of PARP inhibition via 3-aminobenzamide on the bacterial translocation in acute pancreatitis. 45 male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly allocated into three groups. Group I (Sham+saline) received normal saline infusion into the common biliopancreatic duct. Acute pancreatitis was induced in Group II (acute pancreatitis+saline) and Group III (acute pancreatitis+ 3-aminobenzamide) by the retrograde injection of taurocholate into the common biliopancreatic duct. Six hours after induction of pancreatitis, the rats in Group I and II were treated with saline (1 ml, every 12 hours), while the rats in Group III were treated with 3-aminobenzamide (10 mg/kg/day every 12 hours), intraperitoneally. In the 54th hour of the study, blood and tissue samples were taken for biochemical, microbiological and histopathological analysis. Acute pancreatitis developed in Groups II and III. Pathologic score [median (25-75% percentiles)] of the pancreatitis in Group III [8 (7-9)]was significantly lower than in Group II [19 (18-21)] (p<0.001). Bacterial translocation to mesenteric lymph node (53.3%), peritoneum (60%) and pancreas (46.7%) in Group III was significantly lower than in Group II (100% for all) (p<0.02, p<0.03, p<0.005, respectively). Pancreatic tissue glutathione peroxidase, superoxide dismutase, and malondialdehyde levels were better in Group III compared to Group II (p<0.001 for all). Comparison of Groups II and III demonstrated reduced severity of inflammation of the gut in Group III (p>0.05). Improvement in bacterial translocation was correlated with reducing oxidative stress.","Despite the well-established association between PIs and hypertriglyceridemia, there was no significant increase in the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in this HIV-infected population after the introduction of PIs. Medication-associated pancreatitis remains the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the era of potent antiretroviral therapy.","This first human study suggests that cytokeratin 18 (marker of apoptosis) might be a serological predictive marker for acute pancreatitis for disease activity.","yes. The SPINK1 N34S variant is associated with acute pancreatitis. This supports the importance of premature protease activation in the pathogenesis of AP and suggests that mutated SPINK1 may predispose certain individuals to develop this disease.","yes. The excessive leucocyte activation together with the impaired phagocytosis could be related to the onset of complications in severe acute pancreatitis.","yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.","Treatment with high-dose cytarabine (1-beta-D-arabinofuranosylcytosine) is often associated with an acute febrile reaction sometimes including abdominal pain, myalgia, and rash. The similarity of these symptoms to those caused by hypersecretion of cytokines in the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) prompted us to investigate the plasma levels of proinflammatory cytokines during treatment of children with high-dose cytarabine. Sixteen children treated for hematological malignancies and in clinical remission were studied during treatment with six infusions of cytarabine given every 12 hr at a dose of 2 g/m(2). Blood samples for analysis of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), interleukin-1gamma (IL-1gamma), interleukin-6 (IL-6), interleukin-8 (IL-8), interleukin-10 (IL-10) and interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) were obtained prior to treatment and subsequently at 12, 36 and 60 hr. Additional samples were collected as soon as fever occurred. Thirteen of 16 patients developed fever at a median time of 30 hr following start of treatment. At 12 hr levels of TNF-alpha were elevated followed by a rise in IL-6, IFN-alpha, and IL-1ra, peaking at the onset of fever. Thereafter these levels slowly declined whereas low IL-10 levels became detectable.","This study not only demonstrated the differential effects of captopril, losartan and L-158809 in acute pancreatitis but also showed that there is still much to investigate about pancreatic renin-angiotensin system. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme should be evaluated carefully as a potential new therapeutic target in acute pancreatitis.","yes. In patients of severe acute pancreatitis with organ dysfunction and receiving gabexate treatment, neutrophil apoptosis is associated with the severity of organ dysfunction.","yes. Treatment with Met-RANTES reduces lung damage associated with caerulein-induced pancreatitis in mice. Chemokine receptor antagonists may be of use for the treatment of the systemic complications of acute pancreatitis.","yes. These results suggest that peptide leukotrienes may be involved in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis in the early stage of the disease and that peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist might be of therapeutic value for treatment of acute pancreatitis.","yes. We conclude that high-dose cytarabine treatment often induces release of TNF-alpha followed by the sequential release of other proinflammatory cytokines. Most likely these cytokines mediate the development of symptoms comprising the cytarabine syndrome.","Hypertriglyceridemia is a well-established cause of acute pancreatitis in the general population. Protease inhibitor (PI) therapy, introduced in 1996 for HIV infection, is associated with moderate to severe hypertriglyceridemia. To determine whether the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients has increased since the introduction of PIs. This was a retrospective study of patients with acute pancreatitis and HIV infection admitted to three local hospitals between 1990 and 2001. Before PIs became available (1990-1995), 30 index cases of acute pancreatitis in the setting of HIV infection were identified, and one of these cases (3.3%) was attributed to hypertriglyceridemia. After the introduction of PIs (1996-2001), 54 cases of acute pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients were identified, and two of these cases were attributed to hypertriglyceridemia (3.7%; p = 0.6). In both time periods, medication-induced pancreatitis was the most common cause of pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients.","yes. Our findings suggest that acute pancreatitis is associated with the upregulation of cytokines in blood as well as upregulation of NF-kappaB levels and downregulation of IkappaBalpha activation in peripheral blood neutrophilic granulocytes. In contrast, HBO plays a role in acute pancreatitis treatment by normalizing these changes.","l-Asparaginase is an important drug for treatment of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), but is associated with serious toxicities, including pancreatitis and hypertriglyceridemia (HTG). Asparaginase-associated pancreatitis (AAP) is a common reason for stopping asparaginase treatment. The aim of this study was to explore if HTG or early elevations in pancreatic enzymes were associated with the subsequent development of AAP. Children (1.0-17.9 years) diagnosed with ALL, treated with asparaginase for 30 weeks, according to the NOPHO ALL2008 protocol at the University Hospital Rigshospitalet, Copenhagen, Denmark, were eligible. Pancreatic enzymes, triglycerides, and cholesterol were measured regularly. Thirty-one patients were included. Seven patients were diagnosed with AAP. HTG was most evident when PEG-asparaginase and dexamethasone were administered concomitantly. Overall, there was no significant difference in triglyceride levels in patients who experienced AAP and patients who did not. An increase in triglyceride levels during concomitant dexamethasone therapy in delayed intensification was significantly associated with an increase in pancreas-specific amylase levels two weeks later (P = 0.005).","The use of propofol is controversial in patients with a history of acute pancreatitis or those taking drugs, including certain chemotherapeutic drugs, that are associated with pancreatitis. To investigate this issue, we reviewed the medical records of all children who were diagnosed with pancreatitis while receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia during a 5-year period. A temporal relationship between propofol use and development of acute pancreatitis could not be established.","Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified.","Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge."],"string":"[\n \"yes. In obese mice, cannabinoid receptor CB-1 blockade with rimonabant attenuates the severity of acute pancreatitis by an adiponectin-mediated mechanism.\",\n \"yes. The soluble inflammatory cell mediator TNFα directly induces premature protease activation and necrosis in pancreatic acinar cells. This activation depends on calcium and cathepsin-B activity. The findings from the present work further suggest that targeting TNFα, for which pharmaceutical agents are readily available, could be an effective treatment strategy that directly addresses the cellular causes of pancreatitis.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of irinotecan monotherapy in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer (APC). Patients with APC refractory to gemcitabine and S-1 were included. Irinotecan (100 mg/m(2)) was administered on days 1, 8, and 15 every 4 weeks until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity was observed. The relationship between uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase 1 family polypeptide A1 gene (UGT1A1) polymorphisms and clinical outcomes was evaluated. Between January 2007 and December 2011, 231 cycles were delivered in 56 patients. Irinotecan was administered as second-line chemotherapy in 35.7% of patients and as third-line chemotherapy or later in 64.3%. A partial response was achieved in two (3.6%) and stable disease in 23 patients (41.0%), giving a disease control rate of 44.6%. The median time to progression (TTP) and overall survival (OS) were 2.9 (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.8-3.5) months and 5.3 (95% CI 4.5-6.8) months, respectively. Median survival from the first-line chemotherapy was 19.5 (95% CI 15.3-23.8) months. Major grade 3/4 adverse events included neutropenia (28.6%), anemia (12.5%), and anorexia (10.7%). Patients with *6 and/or *28 allele(s) (n = 15) were associated with grade 3/4 neutropenia and anorexia but showed longer TTP (5.3 vs. 1.8 months; p = 0.05), and OS (8.0 vs. 4.8 months; p = 0.09) than those without *6 and/or *28 (n = 29).\",\n \"yes. In the early phase of acute pancreatitis, drotrecogin alfa treatment did not result in a significant improvement in oxidative and inflammatory parameters or renal functions.\",\n \"Clinical and experimental observations have associated acute and chronic hypercalcemia with pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to determine whether acute hypercalcemia can induce acute pancreatitis and, if so, whether the pathogenesis involves premature protease activation. Rats given bolus infusions of CaCl2 (200 mg/kg; n = 76) were compared with saline-treated controls (n = 40). Serum [Ca2+], serum amylase activity, trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) concentration in serum and pancreatic tissue, pancreatic wet/dry weight ratio, and histology were assessed for 24 hours. For dose-response analysis, CaCl2 was injected at a dose of 50-200 mg/kg, and the aforementioned indices were assayed for 1 hour (n = 5 each). There were no significant changes in the controls. Calcium infusion increased serum [Ca2+] 3-fold after 5 minutes (P < 0.001). Within 1 hour, serum amylase (2.5-fold) and tissue TAP (3-fold) levels increased along with macroscopic and microscopic edema formation and leukocytic infiltration. The extent of the changes at 1 hour correlated with the calcium dose. Amylase and tissue TAP concentrations remained elevated until 24 hours when serum TAP concentration had increased (P < 0.001) and focal acinar necrosis became evident.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis following endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography presents a unique opportunity for prophylaxis and early modification of the disease process because the initial triggering event is temporally well defined and takes place in the hospital. We report a prospective, single-center, randomized, double-blind controlled trial to determine if rectal diclofenac reduces the incidence of pancreatitis following cholangiopancreatography. Entry to the trial was restricted to patients who underwent endoscopic retrograde pancreatography or had manometrically verified sphincter of Oddi hypertension. Immediately after endoscopy, patients were given a suppository containing either 100 mg diclofenac or placebo. Estimation of serum amylase levels and clinical evaluation were performed in all patients. A total of 220 patients entered the trial, and 110 received rectal diclofenac. Twenty-four patients developed pancreatitis (11%), of whom 7 received rectal diclofenac and 17 received placebo (P < 0.05).\",\n \"Adenosine has been shown to modulate various pathophysiologic conditions through receptor-mediated mechanisms. However, the role of adenosine in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis has not been described. We examined the effect of adenosine-receptor stimulation or inhibition on the pathologic changes of the pancreas. Rats received intraperitoneal injections of selective agonists of A1, A2a, and A3 adenosine receptors: 2-chloro-N(6)-cyclopentyladenosine (CCPA), CGS-21680 (CGS), or 1-deoxy-1-[6-[[(3-iodophenyl)methyl]amino]-9H-purin-9-yl]-N-methyl-be ta-D-ribofuranuronamide (IB-MECA), respectively. Serum amylase activity and pathologic changes of the pancreas were evaluated. The effects of a specific A1-receptor antagonist (FK-838) on the pathologic findings of cerulein- and taurocholate-induced pancreatitis were also examined. Administration of a selective A1 agonist induced hyperamylasemia and morphologic changes in the pancreas characterized by interstitial edema and leukocyte infiltration; neither A2a nor A3 agonist produced such changes. Treatment with an A1-receptor antagonist significantly attenuated the outcome induced by A1 agonist stimulation. In addition, the A1-receptor antagonist significantly ameliorated pancreatic edema in both pancreatitis models, although it did not improve the acinar cell damage of the pancreas or the increase of serum amylase.\",\n \"The SPINK1 variant p.N34S is overrepresented in patients with acute pancreatitis, but more studies distinguishing between first-time and recurrent acute pancreatitis have to be done to determine whether this is only true for patients with recurrent acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"Acute necrotizing pancreatitis (ANP) is characterized by decreased capillary pancreatic blood flow. Thus, antibiotics may not reach pancreatic necrosis in therapeutic concentrations and consequently fail to prevent bacterial infection of the pancreas which today is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in ANP. To evaluate whether improvement of impaired pancreatic microcirculation by isovolemic hemodilution with dextran leads to an increase in the pancreatic tissue concentration of imipenem (IMI), an antibiotic widely used in clinical ANP. After induction of ANP rats were randomized for either standard fluid therapy with Ringer's lactate (RL) or isovolemic hemodilution with dextran 70,000 (IHD/DEX). Thereafter the animals received an intravenous injection of IMI, and 15 min later they were sacrificed for determination of IMI in serum and tissue. Capillary pancreatic blood flow (CPBF) at the time of antibiotic therapy was assessed by intravital microscopy in an additional set of animals. There was no significant difference in the pancreatic tissue concentration of IMI in animals pretreated with either RL (11.7 +/- 0.6 micrograms/g) or IHD/DEX (11.4 +/- 1.4 micrograms/g), although CPBF was significantly increased in the latter group (1.3 +/- 0.05 vs. 0.8 +/- 0.04 nl/min/capillary).\",\n \"Previous studies demonstrated that intravenous contrast medium (CM), as used in contrast enhanced computed tomography, aggravates the impairment of pancreatic microcirculation (PM) characteristic of severe pancreatitis and increases necrosis and mortality in necrotizing pancreatitis (NP) in rats. This study evaluates the use of isovolemic hemodilution, which can enhance the microcirculation in severe pancreatitis, for preventing CM-induced injury. NP was induced in 30 dextran-tolerant Wistar rats by intraductal glycodeoxycholic acid and intravenous cerulein for 6 hours. PM was quantified by intravital microscopy using fluorescein isothiocyanate labeled erythrocytes. Based on previous results, areas with low blood flow (< 1.6 nL/min/cap) were identified and baseline recordings of capillary blood flow taken. A reduction of hematocrit to 75% of baseline was achieved by replacement of 5 mL/kg of blood with 25 mL/kg Ringer's lactate (RL) or by exchange of 8 mL/kg of blood for the same amount of dextran 70.6%. Thereafter, the nonionic CM iopamidol (Solutrast, Byk Gulden, Konstanz, Germany) was injected during 1 minute and PM measurements repeated after 30 and 60 minutes. Despite hemodilution with RL, pancreatic capillary perfusion was significantly decreased to 87% of baseline (0.83 +/- 0.04 mL/min/cap; n = 216) 60 minutes after CM infusion (P < 0.05). In contrast, capillary blood flow was significantly increased to 161% (1.56 +/- 0.05 nL/min/cap; n = 278) in the group treated with dextran. Moreover, the percentage of capillaries developing complete stasis was significantly lower in the dextran group (2.3 +/- 1.2%) compared to animals diluted with RL (22.3 +/- 4.8%) (P < 0.002).\",\n \"Severe acute pancreatitis (AP) is still a significant clinical problem which is associated with a highly mortality. The aim of this study was the evaluation of prognostic value of CT regional perfusion measurement performed on the first day of onset of symptoms of AP, in assessing the risk of developing severe form of acute pancreatitis. 79 patients with clinical symptoms and biochemical criteria indicative of acute pancreatitis (acute upper abdominal pain, elevated levels of serum amylase and lipase) underwent perfusion CT within 24 hours after onset of symptoms. The follow-up examinations were performed after 4-6 days to detect progression of the disease. Perfusion parameters were compared in 41 people who developed severe form of AP (pancreatic and/or peripancreatic tissue necrosis) with parameters in 38 consecutive patients in whom course of AP was mild. Blood flow, blood volume, mean transit time and permeability surface area product were calculated in the three anatomic pancreatic subdivisions (head, body and tail). At the same time the patient's clinical status was assessed by APACHE II score and laboratory parameters such as CRP, serum lipase and amylase, AST, ALT, GGT, ALP and bilirubin were compared. Statistical differences in the perfusion parameters between the group of patients with mild and severe AP were shown. Blood flow, blood volume and mean transit time were significantly lower and permeability surface area product was significantly higher in patients who develop severe acute pancreatitis and presence of pancreatic and/or peripancreatic necrosis due to pancreatic ischemia. There were no statistically significant differences between the two groups in terms of evaluated on admission severity of pancreatitis assessed using APACHE II score and laboratory tests.\",\n \"Adenosine shows protective effects against cellular damage and dysfunction under several adverse conditions such as inflammation and ischemia. In the current study, we examined the effects of 3-[1-(6,7-diethoxy-2-morpholinoquinazolin-4-yl)piperidin-4-yl]-1,6-dimethyl-2,4(1,3 )-quinazolinedione hydrochloride (KF24345), an adenosine uptake inhibitor, on cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice to investigate whether inhibition of adenosine uptake could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in mice with six intraperitoneal injections of cerulein (50 microg/kg each) at hourly intervals. The cerulein injection increased activities of serum amylase and lipase and caused pathologic changes such as interstitial edema, polymorphonuclear cell infiltration, and acinar cell necrosis in the pancreas. KF24345 (10 mg/kg p.o.) ameliorated all these changes observed in mice with acute pancreatitis, and the suppressing effect of KF24345 on the elevation in serum amylase activity was abolished by the treatment with 8-(p-sulfophenyl)theophylline, an adenosine receptor antagonist. In addition, 2-(aminocarbonyl)- -(4-amino-2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-[5,5-bis-(4-fluorophenyl)pentyl]-1-piperazineacetamide (R75231) and dipyridamole, other adenosine uptake inhibitors, also decreased the elevated serum amylase activity.\",\n \"yes. These are the first demonstrations that the adenosine uptake inhibitors ameliorate cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice, and these data suggest that adenosine uptake inhibition could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis in vivo.\",\n \"An elevated serum creatinine concentration at any time during the first 48 h of admission is not a marker for pancreatic necrosis in a first attack of acute pancreatitis. If serum creatinine is normal, necrotizing pancreatitis is unlikely, and contrast-enhanced CT need not be performed unless complications occur and/or the patient's condition deteriorates.\",\n \"We examined the effects of a weak base, chloroquine, on the trypsinogen processing in cerulein-induced pancreatitis. Immunofluorescence studies were performed using newly generated affinity-purified antibodies to the trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP). The present study showed that chloroquine pretreatment blocked intracellular TAP generation in cerulein-induced pancreatitis.\",\n \"Investigate the therapeutic effect of regional arterial infusion (RAI) with Aspirin-Triggered Lipoxin A4 (ATL) in experimental severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) in rats. SAP was induced by injection of 5% sodium taurocholate into the pancreatic duct. Rats with SAP were treated with ATL (the ATL group) or physiological saline (the SAP group) infused via the left gastric artery 30 min after injection of sodium taurocholate. The sham group was subjected to the same surgical procedure, though without induction of SAP. Serum levels of amylase, phospholipase A2 (PLA2), interleukin-1β (IL-1β), IL-6 and tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) were measured at 12 and 24 h after induction of SAP. Ascitic fluid, the pancreatic index (wet weight ratio) and myeloperoxidase (MPO) levels in the pancreas were determined and histopathological findings were evaluated. The expression of intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1), NF-κB p65, and heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1) in the pancreas were estimated by immunofluorescence and western blot, respectively. ATL rats had lower serum levels of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 (P<0.01), PLA2 (P<0.05), and amylase levels (P<0.05) studied as compared with the SAP group. The pancreatic index in the ATL group decreased only at 24 h as compared with the SAP group (P<0.05). The histopathological findings and MPO levels in the pancreas significantly decreased in the ATL group as compared to the SAP group (P<0.05 and P<0.01, respectively). Immunofluorescence and western blot showed that ATL attenuated the expression of NF-κB p65, ICAM-1 and PECAM-1 in the pancreas, and increased the expression of HO-1 in SAP animals.\",\n \"We have previously shown that distal pancreatic duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice is associated with substantial mortality. We examined the cause of death in duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice by serial examination of multiple parameters in three experimental groups: distal pancreatic duct ligation (PD), bile duct ligation alone (BD), and sham operation (S). BD and S had no mortality, while PD had 94% mortality with most deaths between days 2 and 4. Characteristics of mice with acute pancreatitis included (ANOVA; p < 0.05): extracellular regulated kinase activation in the pancreas and lung; pancreatic neutrophil infiltration and acinar cell necrosis maximal on day 2; increased plasma cytokine and aspartate aminotransferase levels and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid neutrophil count and cytokine levels, peaked on day 3; hypotension and bradycardia were worst on day 4; pulmonary neutrophil infiltration and plasma creatinine level peaked on day 4. Liver injury evidenced by raised aspartate serum transaminase after hepatic obstruction was exacerbated by PD.\",\n \"To determine the impact of high-dose cytarabine (ARA-C) (HDAC) dose modification, based on renal function, on the incidence of neurotoxicity (NT). We retrospectively analyzed the records of 256 patients treated with HDAC (> or = 2.0 g/m2 per dose) for acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) at the University of California, San Francisco (UCSF). From 1985 to 1994, a total of 358 cycles of HDAC were administered, using either a twice-daily schedule (n = 208) or a once-daily regimen (n = 48). In 1989, a dose-modification algorithm was initiated at our institution, which reduced ARA-C doses in the setting of renal insufficiency (RI). For patients with a serum creatinine (Cr) level of 1.5 to 1.9 mg/dL during treatment, or an increase in Cr during treatment (deltaCr) of 0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL, ARA-C was decreased to 1 g/m2 per dose. For patients with a Cr > or = 2.0 mg/dL or a deltaCr greater 1.2 mg/dL, the dose was reduced to 0.1 g/m2/d. Overall, the incidence of NT was 16% (34 of 208) for patients treated with twice-daily HDAC and 0% (none of 48) for patients treated with daily HDAC (P = .003). NT occurred more often in patients treated on a twice-daily schedule with 3 g/m2 per dose compared with 2 g/m2 per dose (25% v 8%; P = .009). NT occurred in 55% of the twice-daily-treated patients with RI, compared with 7% of those with normal renal function (P = .00001). In patients with RI, NT occurred in none of 11 dose-modified cycles versus five of 11 (45%) total unmodified cycles (P = .01). None of 14 patients treated with once-daily HDAC given during RI developed NT, compared to 55% of patients (23 of 42) receiving twice-daily HDAC during RI (P = .009). By univariate analysis, NT was not associated with patient age or serum alkaline phosphatase, but NT was significantly increased in patients treated with twice-daily HDAC when the serum bilirubin was > or = 2.0 mg/dL compared with twice-daily HDAC given when the total bilirubin was less than 2.0 mg/dL (33% v 14%; P = .017). Multivariate analysis confirmed that RI was the most significant risk factor associated with the development of NT.\",\n \"During the time of lowest white blood cell count (nadir) of allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT), cancer patients suffer from tremendous symptom burden related to therapy that requires intensive patient care. However, the mechanism underlying the development of multiple symptoms has not been established. To explore the role of inflammatory cytokines in the development of treatment-related symptoms, we studied dynamic changes in symptoms and in serum concentrations of inflammatory cytokines (interleukin [IL]-6, IL-8, soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 [sTNF-R1], IL-1 receptor antagonist, and IL-12p40p70) from pretherapy throughout the first 30 days of allo-HSCT in 30 patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. We measured multiple symptoms repeatedly using the M. D. Anderson Symptom Inventory. Mixed-effects modeling was used to analyze longitudinal data. In response to conditioning and stem-cell infusion, serum levels of IL-6 and the severity of multiple symptoms increased rapidly and peaked at nadir. From baseline to nadir (approximately Day 8 post-transplantation), increase in IL-6 was significantly associated with worsening of the most severe symptoms (fatigue, poor appetite, pain, drowsiness, dry mouth, and disturbed sleep; P< .01). During the first 30 days after transplantation, increases in IL-6 (P< .001) and sTNF-R1 (P< .05) significantly predicted the increasing severity of these symptoms.\",\n \"Five percent of alcoholics develop an acute pancreatitis (AP). The mechanism leading to pancreatic injury is not yet understood. Microcirculatory disorders seem to play a pivotal role. The objective of this study was to compare alcoholic pancreatic injury in response to intravenous and intragastric routes of alcohol administration. Alcohol was applied in rats intravenously (IV) or gastric via a surgical implanted feeding tube (IG). Serum alcohol concentration was maintained between 1.5‰ and 2.5‰. Four subgroups (n = 6/group) were examined in the IV/IG arm and compared with healthy controls. Pancreatic microcirculation, enzyme levels, and morphological damage were assessed after 3, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Microcirculatory analysis showed significantly disturbed pancreatic perfusion and increased adherent leukocytes in IV and IG animals. In IV and IG groups, serum amylase was increased without morphological signs of AP compared with healthy controls.\",\n \"Activated neutrophils are presumed to injure pulmonary endothelium by releasing oxygen radicals, proteases, and proinflammatory cytokines. Standard counting methods do not distinguish between leukocytosis, neutrophil sequestration, and activation. We used leukocyte uptake of the glucose analog [18F]fluorodeoxyglucose (18FDG), which indicates postmigrational neutrophil activity, to identify and quantify the relationship between acute respiratory distress syndrome and neutrophil activation in experimental pancreatitis in rats. Prospective, experimental study. Research laboratory at a university hospital. Mild and severe pancreatitis models in the rat. INTERVENTIONS Pulmonary (with muscle as control) leukocyte accumulation was assessed by uptake of technetium-99m-labeled chemotactic peptide (fMLFK) and confirmed by measurement of myeloperoxidase activity. Neutrophil activity was assessed by 18FDG uptake. Tissue-to-blood ratios for fMLFK, 18FDG, and leukocytes were calculated to control for background. Neutrophils were counted in histologic sections of saline-perfused lungs. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid was assessed for neutrophil migration and autoradiographed for intracellular 18FDG localization. Lung myeloperoxidase activity, 18FDG, and peripheral white blood cells all significantly increased in both mild and severe pancreatitis, but lung fMLFK only increased in severe pancreatitis. After correction for blood background, only 18FDG in lung (but not muscle) was significantly increased in pancreatitis (severe > mild > normal, p<.001). Histologic analysis showed significant increase in extravascular (migrated) neutrophils only in severe pancreatitis. Autoradiography of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid confirmed the 18FDG within intra-alveolar neutrophils.\",\n \"This RCT did not show a significant protective effect of pancrelipase replacement therapy over conventional pancreatic enzyme supplementation on NAFLD development after pancreatoduodenectomy for pancreatic cancer. Further studies are clearly required to investigate the etiology of and new therapeutic strategies for treatment-resistant NAFLD (UMIN 000019817).\",\n \"yes. Our findings suggest that the pathogenesis of acute alcoholic pancreatitis may require a state of exocrine hyperstimulation, perhaps via cholecystokinin, but do not support a role for constriction or obstruction of Oddi's sphincter.\",\n \"A recent meta-analysis suggests that the addition of oxaliplatin or cisplatin to gemcitabine can lead to improved survival in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer, especially those with a good performance status. In an event of a platinum hypersensitivity reaction, the particular platinum salt is likely discontinued. Desensitization has shown benefit anecdotically but it is an intensive process. We present a case in which platinum-containing therapy was able to continue in a patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer following a hypersensitivity reaction to oxaliplatin, by switching to cisplatin after a negative intradermal skin test. A 58-year-old gentleman with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma received biweekly cycles of gemcitabine in combination with oxaliplatin. During the fifth cycle, he experienced a grade 2 hypersensitivity reaction including erythema and lip numbness, for which he was medicated with antihistaminics and corticosteroids. Cycles 6 and 7 of oxaliplatin were tolerated over 4 h infusion with pretreatment of H1, H2 blockers and corticosteroids. During the 8th cycle, the patient developed a grade 3 hypersensitivity reaction manifesting as facial flushing, sweating, symptomatic bronchospasm, cyanotic lips and chest tightness. Symptoms resolved with antihistaminics, corticosteroids and epinephrine. Although oxaliplatin treatment was discontinued, the patient's response to the platinum therapy merited a cisplatin rechallenge. An intradermal skin test was administered with negative result, allowing for a regimen change to biweekly gemcitabine and cisplatin. The patient has tolerated multiple additional cycles with further decrease in tumor size and tumor markers.\",\n \"yes. Early pancreatic volume reduction on CT after steroid therapy indicates the therapeutic effects of steroids, and a low decrease in the pancreatic volume may be associated with a limited response that predicts future relapse in patients with type 1 AIP. Reduction of steroids in these cases must be observed carefully with consideration of immunomodulator use.\",\n \"One of the goals of study AMA-BFM-87 was to test prospectively in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) patients if cranial irradiation could be replaced by late intensification therapy with high-dose cytarabine (Ara-C) and etoposide (VP-16). Patients with a low risk of CNS relapses (ie, no initial CNS disease, WBC count at diagnosis.80), could only be reproduced in study AML-BFM-87 in patients who had received cranial irradiation.\",\n \"High-dose cytarabine (HiDAC) is safe and very effective in younger patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), but it generally is not well tolerated in the elderly. The authors explored the safety and tolerability of a modified HiDAC induction regimen consisting of 6 daily doses of cytarabine at 2 g/m(2) in combination with 3 daily doses of daunorubicin at 45 mg/m(2) in 59 consecutive patients aged >60 years who had de novo AML diagnosed between July 1996 and February 2005. The median patient age was 68 years (range, 60-86 years). The regimen was well tolerated. Infections were common and occurred in 39% of patients, but cerebellar toxicities occurred in only 7% of patients and were reversible. The day-30 induction-related mortality rate was 10%. Overall, 69% of patients achieved complete remissions (CR), and 80% received up to 3 consolidations with HiDAC. The median follow-up for surviving patients was 53 months (range, 17-114 months). The median overall survival was 15.3 months (range, 1-114 months), and the relapse-free survival was 13.8 months (range, 1-113 months). Survival for patients who achieved CR was 27 months (range, 2-114 months).\",\n \"yes. PLA2 induces AMs to release NO, which contributes to lung injury in acute pancreatitis. This lung injury was prevented by the administration of the PLA2 inhibitor quinacrine.\",\n \"The aim of our present study was to investigate the efficacy of poly(adenosine diphosphate-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibition in the development of acute kidney injury in an experimental model of severe acute pancreatitis induced by retrograde infusion of sodium taurocholate into the bile-pancreatic duct. Severity of pancreatitis was evaluated by serum amylase, lipase, tumor necrosis factor α, interleukin-1β, interleukin-6, and histological grading. The following markers of renal dysfunction and injury were measured: serum creatinine level, urea nitrogen level, myeloperoxidase activity, and histology. Activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin protein in the kidney was studied using Western blot analysis. 3-Aminobenzamide attenuated the following: (1) serum amylase, lipase, and renal dysfunction; (2) serum concentrations of proinflammatory cytokines; (3) pancreatic and renal pathological injury; (4) renal myeloperoxidase activity; and (5) activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin in the kidney.\",\n \"Pancreatitis is the most common serious complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). We performed a pilot study to determine whether aggressive periprocedural hydration with lactated Ringer's solution reduces the incidence of pancreatitis after ERCP. Patients who underwent first-time ERCP were randomly assigned to groups (2:1) that received aggressive hydration with lactated Ringer's solution (3 mL/kg/h during the procedure, a 20-mL/kg bolus after the procedure, and 3 mL/kg/h for 8 hours after the procedure, n = 39) or standard hydration with the same solution (1.5 mL/kg/h during and for 8 hours after procedure, n = 23). Serum levels of amylase, visual analogue pain scores (scale of 0-10), and volume overload were assessed at baseline and 2, 8, and 24 hours after ERCP. The primary end point, post-ERCP pancreatitis, was defined as hyperamylasemia (level of amylase >3 times the upper limit of normal) and increased epigastric pain (≥3 points on visual analogue scale) persisting for ≥24 hours after the procedure. Secondary end points included hyperamylasemia, increased pain, and volume overload. None of the patients who received aggressive hydration developed post-ERCP pancreatitis, compared with 17% of patients who received standard hydration (P = .016). Hyperamylasemia developed in 23% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 39% of those who received standard hydration (P = .116, nonsignificant); increased epigastric pain developed in 8% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 22% of those who received standard hydration (P = .146, nonsignificant). No patients had evidence of volume overload.\",\n \"yes. Intravenous CM increases pancreatic injury when administered early in the course of severe experimental AP. Because CM may convert borderline ischemia to irreversible necrosis, CECT performed early in pancreatitis to show poor perfusion and predict areas of necrosis may depict a self-fulfilling prophecy. Early CECT should be reconsidered and perhaps avoided.\",\n \"Pancreatitis is the most severe complication of ERCP. The aim of this study was to assess whether the use of potentially pancreatotoxic drugs is a risk factor for post-ERCP pancreatitis. Risk factors for post-ERCP pancreatitis and all drugs taken during the month before ERCP were recorded retrospectively in a database. Patients with other causes of acute pancreatitis or chronic pancreatitis were excluded from the analysis. Post-ERCP pancreatitis was defined as abdominal pain and/or vomiting associated with amylase/lipase plasma levels equal to or greater than twice the upper normal value. A total of 173 patients (95 men, 78 women; mean age, 68 [16] years) were included. Post-ERCP pancreatitis occurred in 31 patients (18%). Several risk factors were identified in a multivariate analysis: difficulty in cannulation (p<0.001), endoscopic sphincterotomy (p<0.005), and female gender (p=0.02). Having taken potent pancreatotoxic drugs increased the occurrence of post-ERCP pancreatitis: odds ratio 3.7: 95% confidence intervals [1.1,12.4], p=0.04.\",\n \"yes. Prophylactic inosine reduces microcirculatory and pancreatic injury in acute necrotizing pancreatitis. These effects should be assessed in the clinical setting of ERCP and pancreas transplantation.\",\n \"yes. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with hyperhomocysteinemia and derangements in transmethylation and transsulfuration pathways. Low folate levels observed in these patients seem to have a key role in this derangement.\",\n \"yes. While technically feasible to treat locally advanced pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, prolonged regional pancreatic perfusion with gemcitabine following pancreatic arterial redistribution carries a high risk for gastrointestinal toxicity. Shorter infusion schedules with frequent on treatment evaluations should be considered for future clinical trials.\",\n \"yes. Pancreatitis-associated CTRC mutations can markedly increase the propensity of chymotrypsinogen C to elicit ER stress in pancreatic acinar cells. Thus, carriers of CTRC mutations may be at a higher risk of developing ER stress in the exocrine pancreas, which may contribute to parenchymal damage through acinar cell apoptosis.\",\n \"yes. These data support the notion that patients entering BMT conditioning without prior cytotoxic treatment (e.g., patients with chronic myeloid leukemia) may be at increased risk of posttransplant complications associated with excessive inflammatory cytokine production.\",\n \"Individualized optimization of intravascular fluid status during the early course of severe acute pancreatitis, compared with a treatment strategy of maximizing stroke volume by fluid loading, leads to less vascular endothelial damage, pancreatic edema, and inflammatory response.\",\n \"Much of the late morbidity and mortality of acute pancreatitis (AP) is attributed to complications of pancreatic necrosis (PNEC). Early diagnosis of PNEC in high-risk patients is critical to management. Hemoconcentration is one risk factor for PNEC, but additional risk factors are likely implicated. (1) To evaluate a series of preselected clinical factors in a prospectively collected cohort with AP to identify risk factors for PNEC and (2) to verify the relative risk of any newly identified factor(s) by retrospective analysis of a large patient cohort. Phase I: 102 AP patients were prospectively ascertained, of which 77 (mean age 49 yr; 35 women, 42 men) underwent contrast-enhanced computerized tomography (CECT) and were studied. Eleven subjects developed PNEC (14%). Binary logistic regression was performed to identify any clinical factors associated with PNEC. Phase II: 1,474 anonymized patients admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of AP were electronically reviewed to identify 359 subjects (mean age 54 yr; 157 women, 202 men) with AP and CECT. Seventy-six of these patients (21%) exhibited CECT evidence of PNEC. The associations found in the Phase I group were compared with Phase II by logistic regression analysis. In Phase I, only chronic alcohol consumption was identified as a significant new risk factor for the development of PNEC (6/19 vs 5/58, p= 0.02, OR 4.8, CI 1.27-18.2). In Phase II, it was verified that excessive alcohol consumption was a significant risk factor for PNEC (18/52 vs 58/307, p= 0.012, OR 2.27, CI 1.19-4.30).\",\n \"Recent studies have shown that inosine, a purine nucleoside produced during the breakdown of adenosine, has immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory properties. The aim of this study was to examine the effects of inosine on the course of acute pancreatitis. Edematous pancreatitis was induced by the intraperitoneal injection of caerulein (50 micro g/kg), seven times, at 1-h intervals, in male Wistar rats (caerulein pancreatitis). Inosine (100 mg/kg) was administered 30 min before or 1 h after the first injection of caerulein. The effects of inosine on the severity of pancreatitis were assessed by serum amylase, pancreatic edema (wet/dry ratio), myeloperoxidase activity, cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations, and histological changes. Prophylactic administration of inosine significantly decreased the elevation of serum amylase, myeloperoxidase activity, and cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations in the pancreas and the lung. Inosine did not significantly affect edema formation. Histologically, vacuole formation in pancreatic acinar cells, infiltration of inflammatory cells in the pancreas and the lung, and alveolar wall thickening in the lung were reduced. Inosine improved the histological findings and reduced myeloperoxidase activity even if it was administered 1 h after the first injection of caerulein.\",\n \"yes. Interleukin-6 appears to be implicated in the development of chronic hyperglycemia and insulin resistance in patients after acute pancreatitis. It may become a potential target in the prevention and early treatment of diabetes after diseases of the exocrine pancreas.\",\n \"yes. The degree of intestinal damage after myeloablative conditioning appeared to be the most important determined the inflammatory response following SCT, and was associated with inflammatory complications. Studies should explore ways to ameliorate cytotoxic therapy-induced intestinal damage in order to reduce complications associated with myeloablative conditioning therapy.\",\n \"We demonstrated that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improved histopathologic score and oxidative stress in experimental pancreatitis. In addition, it was demonstrated microbiologically and histopathologically that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improves bacterial translocation. Further survival studies demonstrating the efficacy of 3-aminobenzamide therapy and explaining the potential mechanisms of bacterial translocation prevention in acute necrotizing pancreatitis will be beneficial.\",\n \"yes. Our novel data suggest that Rho-kinase signalling plays an important role in acute pancreatitis by regulating trypsinogen activation and subsequent CXC chemokine formation, neutrophil infiltration and tissue injury. Thus, these results indicate that Rho-kinase may constitute a novel target in the management of SAP.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of topotecan and cytarabine in patients with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDSs) and chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML). Fifty-nine patients with MDSs and 27 with CMML were enrolled. They were either previously untreated (66%) or had received only biologic agents (14%) or chemotherapy with or without biologic agents (20%). Treatment consisted of topotecan 1.25 mg/m(2) by continuous intravenous infusion daily for 5 days and cytarabine 1. 0 g/m(2) by infusion over 2 hours daily for 5 days. Prophylaxis included antibacterial, antifungal, and antiviral agents. At a median follow-up of 7 months, all 86 patients were assessable for response and toxicity. Complete remission (CR) was observed in 48 patients (56%; 61% with MDSs, 44% with CMML; P =.15). Similar CR rates were observed for patients with good-risk and poor-risk MDS (70% and 56%, respectively). The treatment effectively induced CR in patients with a poor-prognosis karyotype involving chromosomes 5 and 7 (CR, 71%) and secondary MDSs (CR, 72%). Fifty-four patients received one induction course, 25 patients received two, and the rest received more than two. The median number of continuation courses was two. The median overall duration of CR was 34 weeks (50 weeks for MDSs and 33 weeks for CMML). The median survival was 60 weeks for MDS and 44 weeks for CMML patients. CR and survival durations were longer in patients with refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB). Grade 3 or 4 mucositis or diarrhea was observed in three patients each. Fever was observed in 63%, and infections in 49% of patients. Six patients (7%) died during induction therapy.\",\n \"To determine whether recommendations for treatment of acute pancreatitis (AP) in adults impact the outcomes of pediatric AP. Adult guidelines regarding early management of AP were implemented through an admission order set at Cincinnati Children's Hospital Medical Center at the beginning of the year 2014. Recommendations included administering high rates of intravenous fluid (IVF) within 24 hours of admission and enteral nutrition within 48 hours of admission. A retrospective chart review of AP admissions before and after the implementation of the recommendations was undertaken. Outcomes studied were: hospital length of stay, intensive care unit transfer rates, development of severe AP, pulmonary complications, and readmission rates post discharge from the hospital. The study included 201 patients. Children who received feeds within the first 48 hours and received greater than maintenance IVF within 24 hours had a shorter length of stay, less intensive care unit admissions and severe AP rates compared with the patients who remained nil per os during the first 48 hours and received lower rates of IVF.\",\n \"yes. Treatment of acute necrotizing pancreatitis with multidrug regimens significantly decreases short-term mortality compared to monotherapies. Moreover, multidrug strategies are still effective after a wide therapeutic window. Key to this effective therapy is the inhibition of microcirculatory disturbances and of the systemic inflammatory response. The experimental superiority of the multidrug approach should be confirmed in a clinical trial.\",\n \"yes. Activation of sPLA(2)-I is associated with the early pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis, but not in the development of distant organ damage. This observation raises questions as to the theory of generalized zymogen activation being a principle mechanism involved in the pathogenesis of distant organ damage in acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. In a large retrospective cohort study of patients undergoing ERCP that included low-risk patients and patients with malignant biliary obstruction, rectal indomethacin was associated with a significant decrease in the absolute rate and severity of pancreatitis.\",\n \"This study was designed to evaluate the protective effect of a peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist, pranlukast hydrate, against pancreatic injuries during acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in rats by intravenous infusion of a supramaximal dose of cerulein (5 micrograms/kg h for 4 h). In this model marked hyperamylasemia, a significant increase in pancreatic water content, and a significant increase in pancreatic microvascular leakage of Evans blue dye were observed. Pancreatic subcellular redistribution of the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin B from the lysosomal fraction to the zymogen fraction was also observed. Pretreatment with pranlukast hydrate at a dose of 10 micrograms/kg (twice, 8 and 4 h before cerulein infusion) significantly inhibited these pancreatic injuries, including hyperamylasemia, increased pancreatic microvascular permeability, and redistribution of cathepsin B in pancreatic acinar cells.\",\n \"yes. The polymorphism of the GT repeats in the heme oxygenase-1 promoter region may be a risk factor for developing severe and necrotizing acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Topotecan and cytarabine induced high CR rates in unselected patients with MDSs and CMML, particularly among patients with poor-prognosis cytogenetics and secondary MDSs. Topotecan-cytarabine is an active induction regimen in MDS and CMML patients, is well tolerated, and is associated with a low mortality rate.\",\n \"yes. Chemokine production and leucocyte infiltration are timely regulated in lung and pancreas during pancreatitis. CXC chemokine inhibition with Evasin-3 improved neutrophil inflammation and injury, potentially interfering with damages in acute pancreatitis and related pulmonary complications.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis has been reported in a few cases treated with macrolides or glucocorticoids. We report the case of a 58 year old patient who, after 2 days of treatment with roxithromycin and betamethasone, manifested acute pancreatitis. Other causes of the disease were ruled out. No re-occurrence of pancreatitis was observed in a 16 month follow-up.\",\n \"Intraduodenal hematoma (IDH) is an uncommon complication of endoscopic duodenal biopsy that can cause severe obstruction of the digestive, biliary, or pancreatic tracts. We aimed to analyze the risk factors and outcomes of biopsy-induced IDH in our series. Between 2010 and 2014, a retrospective chart review was conducted for all children younger than 18 years of age treated for IDH. We collected their data in our tertiary pediatric center and compared them to those of controls matched for age, sex, and pathology. Among 2705 upper nontherapeutic endoscopies and 1163 duodenal biopsies, 7 IDH occurred in 6 children suspected of developing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) after bone marrow transplantation (BMT) and in 1 patient with Noonan syndrome. The IDH prevalence was significantly higher after BMT compared to children who did not undergo grafting (7% vs 0.1%; P = 7.9 × 10; odds ratio = 82). After a median delay of 48 hours, patients developed intestinal obstruction with abdominal pain and vomiting. The diagnosis was confirmed by using ultrasonography or computed tomography scans. Acute pancreatitis was determined in 3 out of 7 patients. Conservative treatment allowed complete resolution in all patients.\",\n \"Severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is characterized by trypsinogen activation, infiltration of leucocytes and tissue necrosis but the intracellular signalling mechanisms regulating organ injury in the pancreas remain elusive. Rho-kinase is a potent regulator of specific cellular processes effecting several pro-inflammatory activities. Herein, we examined the role of Rho-kinase signalling in acute pancreatitis. Pancreatitis was induced by infusion of taurocholate into the pancreatic duct in C57BL/6 mice. Animals were treated with a Rho-kinase inhibitor Y-27632 (0.5-5 mg·kg⁻¹) before induction of pancreatitis. Taurocholate infusion caused a clear-cut increase in blood amylase, pancreatic neutrophil infiltration, acinar cell necrosis and oedema formation in the pancreas. Levels of pancreatic myeloperoxidase (MPO), macrophage inflammatory protein-2 (MIP-2), trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) and lung MPO were significantly increased, indicating local and systemic disease. Inhibition of Rho-kinase activity dose-dependently protected against pancreatitis. For example, 5 mg·kg⁻¹ Y-27632 reduced acinar cell necrosis, leucocyte infiltration and pancreatic oedema by 90%, 89% and 58%, respectively, as well as tissue levels of MPO by 75% and MIP-2 by 84%. Moreover, Rho-kinase inhibition decreased lung MPO by 75% and blood amylase by 83%. Pancreatitis-induced TAP levels were reduced by 61% in Y-27632-treated mice. Inhibition of Rho-kinase abolished secretagogue-induced activation of trypsinogen in pancreatic acinar cells in vitro.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis (AP) is an inflammatory disease characterized by acinar cell damage and inflammation of the pancreas with infiltration of leukocytes, predominantly neutrophils. We investigated whether neutrophil depletion protects against experimental AP induced by L-arginine. AP was induced in C57BL/6 mice via two intraperitoneal L-arginine (4 g/kg) injections. Mice were pretreated with 250 and 100 µg anti-Gr-1 antibody via intraperitoneal injection at 24 and 4 h, respectively, before L-arginine challenge for neutrophil depletion. At 48 and 72 h after injection, the severity of AP was determined with the aid of biochemical and histological analyses. Amylase and MPO activity was detected using specific assay kits. The plasma cytokines levels were detected using ELISA. Neutrophil depletion resulted in significantly reduced plasma amylase levels in pancreas, myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity in pancreas and lung, reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation and cell apoptosis, and decreased circulating neutrophil, tissue damage as well as expression levels of nuclear factor NF-κB.\",\n \"yes. Chronic osteomyelitis correlates with increased risk of acute pancreatitis. Patients with chronic osteomyelitis should be carefully monitored about the risk of acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Activation of the adenosine A1-receptor pathway may have an important role in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Spinal administration of combined doses of NMDA receptor antagonist, D-APV, and MS reversed three behavioral responses to induction of an acute pancreatitis model. These results suggest that in the clinical management of visceral pain, such as pancreatitis, restricted usage of glutamate antagonists might be useful as adjuvant potentiation at the onset of morphine therapy.\",\n \"Fulminant acute pancreatitis is a disease of complex origin that results in activation of several of the proinflammatory cytokines. Because interleukin-1 (IL-1) is an integral early component of the acute inflammatory process, the use of an IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) was investigated in experimental acute pancreatitis to determine the therapeutic potential of proximal cytokine blockade and to further establish the role of inflammatory cytokines in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis. IL-1ra was administered in escalating doses either before or after acute edematous, necrotizing pancreatitis was induced in adult male mice by injection of cerulein. The severity of pancreatitis was quantified by serum amylase, lipase, interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) levels, pancreatic wet weight, and blinded histologic grading. Administration of medium (10 mg/kg) and high (100 mg/kg) doses of IL-1ra either before or after the induction of pancreatitis significantly decreased the expected rise in pancreatic wet weight, lipase, IL-6, and TNF-alpha (all, p < 0.01). Serum amylase was significantly reduced when IL-1ra was administered in either dosage before (p < 0.05), but not after, induction of pancreatitis. Pancreatic edema, necrosis, and inflammatory cell infiltrate were significantly diminished (p < 0.05) by histologic grading in all animals receiving medium or high doses of IL-1ra. Low doses of IL-1ra (1.0 mg/kg) had modest effects if given before, but no effect if given after, induction of pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Acute pancreatitis associated with IPMNs could predict malignant intestinal-type tumor. and IAP.\",\n \"We evaluated the attitude in using chemotherapy near the end of life in advanced pancreatic adenocarcinoma (PAC). Clinical and laboratory parameters recorded at last chemotherapy administration were analyzed, in order to identify risk factors for imminent death. Retrospective analysis of patients who underwent at least one line of palliative chemotherapy was made. Data concerning chemotherapy (regimens, lines, and date of last administration) were collected. Clinical and laboratory factors recorded at last chemotherapy administration were: performance status, presence of ascites, hemoglobin, white blood cell (WBC), platelets, total bilirubin, albumin, LDH, C-reactive protein (C-rp), and Ca 19.9. We analyzed 231 patients: males/females, 53/47 %; metastatic/locally advanced disease, 80/20 %; and median age, 66 years (range 32-85). All patients died due to disease progression. Median overall survival was 6.1 months (95 % CI 5.1-7.2). At the last chemotherapy delivery, performance status was 0-1 in 37 % and 2 in 63 %. Fifty-nine percent of patients received one chemotherapy line, while 32, 8, and 1 % had second-, third-, and fourth line, respectively. The interval between last chemotherapy administration and death was<4 weeks in 24 %, ≥4-12 in 47 %, and>12 in 29 %. Median survival from last chemotherapy to death was 7.5 weeks (95 % CI 6.7-8.4). In a univariate analysis, ascites, elevated WBC, bilirubin, LDH, C-rp and Ca 19.9, and reduced albumin were found to predict shorter survival; however, none of them remained significant in a multivariate analysis.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that hematin is one of the cytotoxic factors in PAAF that causes hepatocellular injury and that cellular injuries caused by hematin may be involved in the development of multiple organ failure associated with severe acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. The initial response of the cytokine network to damage of the human pancreas leading to acute pancreatitis includes the release of IL-8 and the IL-1 antagonist IL-1-RA, while IL-1beta is not found in the systemic circulation. The TNF system does not seem to be involved as indicated by the lack of detectable changes in TNF and the soluble TNFR p55 and p75 serum concentrations. Lymphocyte activation as indicated by elevated IL-2R levels occurred days after the initial trauma. Even mild post-ERP pancreatitis leads to significant systemic release of cytokines and their biological counterparts.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to evaluate the hypothesis that mild endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-induced acute pancreatitis (AP) runs a distinctly shorter clinical course compared with mild attacks caused by other etiological factors. ERCP-induced AP was defined as the persistence of postprocedure abdominal pain requiring analgesia for at least 24 h in association with hyperamylasemia of more than three times the normal value. Among 2552 patients who had undergone ERCP between 1996 and 2002 in two different hospitals, mild AP developed after \\\"elective\\\" ERCP in 48 (group I). Among a random sample of 10% of 700 patients admitted with AP to both hospitals during the same study period, 58 had mild non-ERCP-related AP (group II). Results shown are medians. Patients in group I had significantly shorter durations of pain (55 vs. 114 h, P<0.0001), analgesic intake (56 vs.93 h, P = 0.007), and intravenous hydration (48 vs. 80 h, P<0.0001), a lower opiate analgesic requirement (58 mg morphine equivalent vs. 100 mg, P = 0.001), a shorter time to resumption of oral diet (3 vs. 5 days, P<0.0001), and a shorter hospital stay (4 vs. 7 days, P<0.0001) than patients in group II.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest that apoptosis plays an important role in acute pancreatitis-associated lung injury (APALI), and inhibition of caspase activity may represent a new therapeutic approach for the treatment of APALI.\",\n \"no. Whilst severe attacks of acute pancreatitis are associated with early derangement in gut barrier function and systemic endotoxin translocation, there is no molecular evidence for associated bacterial \\\"translocation.\\\"\",\n \"In the 1960s, it was reported that infectious complications were the main cause of fever during neutropenia that followed hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). More recently, mucositis has become recognized as an important determinant of the inflammatory response and infectious complications. The objective of this prospective study was to determine the impact of intestinal mucositis, as measured by plasma citrulline, and neutropenia on the systemic inflammatory response (C-reactive protein) and the occurrence of bacteremia among 2 cohorts of HSCT recipients: 1 composed of 18 patients who had been treated with a myeloablative (MA) regimen (high-dose melphalan) and the other involving 19 patients who had received the non-myeloablative (NMA) regimen (fludarabine and cyclophosphamide). Blood cultures were obtained for surveillance from admission onwards as well as at the onset of fever. The MA regimen induced severe intestinal mucositis manifest by citrullinemia <10 μmol/L, which was accompanied by an inflammatory response, and bacteremia affected 8 (44%) of 18 patients and coincided with the nadir of citrullinemia. By contrast, those who had been treated with the NMA regimen did not develop severe intestinal mucositis, had a moderate inflammatory response, and only 2 (11%) of the 19 patients developed bacteremia. However, both groups experienced profound neutropenia and its duration was significantly longer for those receiving the NMA regimen.\",\n \"This study investigated the role of hypoxia-inducible factor 1alpha (HIF-1alpha) in acute pancreatitis (AP) and whether HIF-1alpha is involved in the therapeutic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) on AP. Thirty Wistar rats with taurocholate-induced AP were randomly assigned to 3 groups (each group had 10 rats) receiving oxygen, HBO, or no therapeutic treatment 4 hours after induction. Ten healthy sham-operated rats also served as controls. The arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, pH, lactate dehydrogenase in the arterial sera, and amylase and tumor necrosis factor alpha in the venous sera were measured 6 hours after induction. Pancreatic tissues were subjected to histopathologic analysis, immunohistochemical and Western-blotted analyses of HIF-1alpha and vascular endothelial growth factor, and measuring of myeloperoxidase activity. The HBO therapy attenuated the severity of acute pancreatitis; reduced histopathologic scores, dry weight-wet weight ratio of pancreatic tissues, and levels of amylase and lactate dehydrogenase; and elevated blood arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, and pH values. The HBO therapy inhibited AP-induced up-regulation of HIF-1alpha and its downstream effector vascular endothelial growth factor and the production of tumor necrosis factor alpha and myeloperoxidase activity.\",\n \"yes. Chemokines are induced in acinar cells by treatments that induce pancreatitis and may play an important role in the early stages of the disease.\",\n \"We evaluated whether clofarabine-containing chemotherapy predisposed patients to hepatic toxicity (particularly venoocclusive disease [VOD]) after allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT). In the group who received clofarabine and subsequent transplantation, there were no cases of VOD, and liver toxicity was comparable to a control group who received standard acute myeloid leukemia (AML) chemotherapy. Other transplant-specific outcomes, including overall survival (OS), were also similar when compared with the control group. Clofarabine is actively being investigated as a component of frontline chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Hepatotoxicity is 1 of the primary adverse events associated with clofarabine and can occasionally can include severe venoocclusive disease (VOD). Many patients with AML undergo allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT), a procedure that is also associated with hepatotoxicity. We identified AML patients undergoing allo-SCT and stratified them according to whether they received clofarabine-containing (clofarabine, idarubicin, and cytarabine [CIA]) or non-clofarabine-containing cytarabine-based induction/consolidation chemotherapy (idarubicin and cytarabine [ara-C] [IA]). We compared both groups for differences in posttransplantation hepatotoxicity, VOD, and other transplantation outcomes. Forty-two patients were identified (20 receiving CIA and 22 receiving IA). Patient and transplant characteristics were similar. All patients receiving clofarabine-based treatment received CIA within 2.5 months of their allo-SCT. There was no difference in the incidence of VOD in the 30 days after transplantation (0 CIA, 1 IA; P = 1.0). Rates of grade 3/4 hepatotoxicity also did not differ between groups. Acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), early relapse, and survival were also not significantly different.\",\n \"yes. In acute pancreatitis, structural capillary diameter and heterogeneity of diameter increase and capillary density decreases. These parameters are all improved by HBO treatment. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment normalizes the pancreatic microvasculature after acute pancreatitis and may be a potentially effective treatment of this disease.\",\n \"To determine the effect of intestinal ischemia-reperfusion (IIR) on acute pancreatitis (AP) and the role of mesenteric lymph. Intestinal ischemia is an early feature of AP and is related to the severity of disease. It is not known whether this contributes to the severity of AP or is a consequence. Two experiments are reported here using intravital microscopy and a rodent model of mild acute pancreatitis (intraductal 2.5% sodium taurocholate). In the first, rats had an episode of IIR during AP that was produced by temporary occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery (30 min or 3 x 10 min) followed by 2h reperfusion. In a second study rats with AP had an intravenous infusion of mesenteric lymph collected from donor rats that had been subjected to IIR. In both experiments the pancreatic erythrocyte velocity (EV), functional capillary density (FCD), leukocyte adherence (LA), histology and edema index were measured. The addition of IIR to AP caused a decline in the pancreatic microcirculation greater than that of AP alone (EV 42% of baseline vs. 73% of baseline AP alone, FCD 43% vs 72%, LA 7 fold increase vs 4 fold increase). This caused an increased severity of AP as evidenced by 1.4-1.8 fold increase of pancreatic edema index and histologic injury respectively. A very similar exacerbation of microvascular failure and increased pancreatitis severity was then demonstrated by the intravenous infusion of IIR conditioned mesenteric lymph from donor animals.\",\n \"Our 9-year experience suggests that imaging findings such as attenuation pattern on the delayed phase of CT scan and tapering pattern of pancreatic ductal stricture on pancreatogram can help to differentiate mass-forming pancreatitis from early-stage pancreatic adenocarcinoma.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis is a severe and frequently life-threatening disease, which can lead to pancreatic necrosis, acute lung injury, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and other complications. In this study, we hypothesized that the expression of heme oxygenase-1 determined by the number of guanidinium thiocyanate (GT) repeats can influence the occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Patients with acute pancreatitis (n = 131) and age- and sex-matched healthy controls (n = 108) were studied. The polymerase chain reaction products were analyzed by ABI 3130 genetic analyzer and the exact size of the polymerase chain reaction products was determined by GeneMapper software. A short allele was defined as containing 27 GT repeats or fewer, whereas a long allele was more than 27 repeats. The subjects were categorized into 3 groups on the basis of the genotype results: 1 short and 1 long, 2 short, and 2 long alleles (L/L). Patients with necrotizing disease more frequently were carriers of LL genotype compared with those who had edematous acute pancreatitis. Furthermore, logistic regression analysis revealed that the presence of L/L allele type doubles the risk for developing pancreatic necrosis in patients with acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. This study provides the first evidence that (1) prevention of the activation of protein tyrosine kinases reduces the development of acute pancreatitis, and (2) inhibition of the activity of certain tyrosine kinases may represent a novel approach for the therapy of acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Pretreatment with AIHA reduces the severity of L-arginine-induced pancreatitis most likely by inhibiting arginase activity.\",\n \"This trial revealed that the 11.3% of all patients developed thrombosis,who had been treated with MA and chemotherapy concomittantly. There was no statistically significant difference regarding to occurrence of thrombotic process, among the patients receiving different chemotherapy regimens with MA concomittantly. Pancreatic cancer seemed to be related to thrombosis rather than MA use.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis is well defined as pancreatic inflammation due to the activation of pancreatic enzymes secondary to several etiological factors. In the majority of patients, the clinical symptoms are self-limited, but it can also cause tissue necrosis and severe organ failures. In experimental animal models, it has been shown that wide apoptotic cell death is related to a clinically mild presentation of acute pancreatitis. Cytokeratin 18, a cytoskeletal protein, is shown to be related with apoptosis. In this study, we aimed to show the relation between serum cytokeratin 18 and the clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis in humans. A total of 54 acute pancreatitis patients were enrolled into the study. Patients were classified as mild or severe pancreatitis according to Ranson's criteria. There were 36 (66.7%) patients in the mild pancreatitis group (score<6), and 18 (33.3%) patients in the severe pancreatitis group (score ≥ 6). During the first admission, blood samples were obtained for serum cytokeratin 18 levels. Cytokeratin 18 levels in the mild pancreatitis group were significantly higher than in the severe pancreatitis group (271.2 ± 45.5 vs. 152.6 ± 38.2 IU/L; p<0.001). There was a negative correlation between the disease activity score (Ranson score) and the serum cytokeratin 18 levels (p<0.001; r = -0.724).\",\n \"One of the most important complications of acute pancreatitis is the secondary bacterial infections of the pancreas and gut. Translocation of bacteria from the gut is accepted as being responsible for the development of septic complications in acute pancreatitis. In this study, our aim was to investigate the effect of PARP inhibition via 3-aminobenzamide on the bacterial translocation in acute pancreatitis. 45 male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly allocated into three groups. Group I (Sham+saline) received normal saline infusion into the common biliopancreatic duct. Acute pancreatitis was induced in Group II (acute pancreatitis+saline) and Group III (acute pancreatitis+ 3-aminobenzamide) by the retrograde injection of taurocholate into the common biliopancreatic duct. Six hours after induction of pancreatitis, the rats in Group I and II were treated with saline (1 ml, every 12 hours), while the rats in Group III were treated with 3-aminobenzamide (10 mg/kg/day every 12 hours), intraperitoneally. In the 54th hour of the study, blood and tissue samples were taken for biochemical, microbiological and histopathological analysis. Acute pancreatitis developed in Groups II and III. Pathologic score [median (25-75% percentiles)] of the pancreatitis in Group III [8 (7-9)]was significantly lower than in Group II [19 (18-21)] (p<0.001). Bacterial translocation to mesenteric lymph node (53.3%), peritoneum (60%) and pancreas (46.7%) in Group III was significantly lower than in Group II (100% for all) (p<0.02, p<0.03, p<0.005, respectively). Pancreatic tissue glutathione peroxidase, superoxide dismutase, and malondialdehyde levels were better in Group III compared to Group II (p<0.001 for all). Comparison of Groups II and III demonstrated reduced severity of inflammation of the gut in Group III (p>0.05). Improvement in bacterial translocation was correlated with reducing oxidative stress.\",\n \"Despite the well-established association between PIs and hypertriglyceridemia, there was no significant increase in the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in this HIV-infected population after the introduction of PIs. Medication-associated pancreatitis remains the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the era of potent antiretroviral therapy.\",\n \"This first human study suggests that cytokeratin 18 (marker of apoptosis) might be a serological predictive marker for acute pancreatitis for disease activity.\",\n \"yes. The SPINK1 N34S variant is associated with acute pancreatitis. This supports the importance of premature protease activation in the pathogenesis of AP and suggests that mutated SPINK1 may predispose certain individuals to develop this disease.\",\n \"yes. The excessive leucocyte activation together with the impaired phagocytosis could be related to the onset of complications in severe acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.\",\n \"Treatment with high-dose cytarabine (1-beta-D-arabinofuranosylcytosine) is often associated with an acute febrile reaction sometimes including abdominal pain, myalgia, and rash. The similarity of these symptoms to those caused by hypersecretion of cytokines in the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) prompted us to investigate the plasma levels of proinflammatory cytokines during treatment of children with high-dose cytarabine. Sixteen children treated for hematological malignancies and in clinical remission were studied during treatment with six infusions of cytarabine given every 12 hr at a dose of 2 g/m(2). Blood samples for analysis of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), interleukin-1gamma (IL-1gamma), interleukin-6 (IL-6), interleukin-8 (IL-8), interleukin-10 (IL-10) and interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) were obtained prior to treatment and subsequently at 12, 36 and 60 hr. Additional samples were collected as soon as fever occurred. Thirteen of 16 patients developed fever at a median time of 30 hr following start of treatment. At 12 hr levels of TNF-alpha were elevated followed by a rise in IL-6, IFN-alpha, and IL-1ra, peaking at the onset of fever. Thereafter these levels slowly declined whereas low IL-10 levels became detectable.\",\n \"This study not only demonstrated the differential effects of captopril, losartan and L-158809 in acute pancreatitis but also showed that there is still much to investigate about pancreatic renin-angiotensin system. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme should be evaluated carefully as a potential new therapeutic target in acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. In patients of severe acute pancreatitis with organ dysfunction and receiving gabexate treatment, neutrophil apoptosis is associated with the severity of organ dysfunction.\",\n \"yes. Treatment with Met-RANTES reduces lung damage associated with caerulein-induced pancreatitis in mice. Chemokine receptor antagonists may be of use for the treatment of the systemic complications of acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that peptide leukotrienes may be involved in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis in the early stage of the disease and that peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist might be of therapeutic value for treatment of acute pancreatitis.\",\n \"yes. We conclude that high-dose cytarabine treatment often induces release of TNF-alpha followed by the sequential release of other proinflammatory cytokines. Most likely these cytokines mediate the development of symptoms comprising the cytarabine syndrome.\",\n \"Hypertriglyceridemia is a well-established cause of acute pancreatitis in the general population. Protease inhibitor (PI) therapy, introduced in 1996 for HIV infection, is associated with moderate to severe hypertriglyceridemia. To determine whether the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients has increased since the introduction of PIs. This was a retrospective study of patients with acute pancreatitis and HIV infection admitted to three local hospitals between 1990 and 2001. Before PIs became available (1990-1995), 30 index cases of acute pancreatitis in the setting of HIV infection were identified, and one of these cases (3.3%) was attributed to hypertriglyceridemia. After the introduction of PIs (1996-2001), 54 cases of acute pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients were identified, and two of these cases were attributed to hypertriglyceridemia (3.7%; p = 0.6). In both time periods, medication-induced pancreatitis was the most common cause of pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients.\",\n \"yes. Our findings suggest that acute pancreatitis is associated with the upregulation of cytokines in blood as well as upregulation of NF-kappaB levels and downregulation of IkappaBalpha activation in peripheral blood neutrophilic granulocytes. In contrast, HBO plays a role in acute pancreatitis treatment by normalizing these changes.\",\n \"l-Asparaginase is an important drug for treatment of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), but is associated with serious toxicities, including pancreatitis and hypertriglyceridemia (HTG). Asparaginase-associated pancreatitis (AAP) is a common reason for stopping asparaginase treatment. The aim of this study was to explore if HTG or early elevations in pancreatic enzymes were associated with the subsequent development of AAP. Children (1.0-17.9 years) diagnosed with ALL, treated with asparaginase for 30 weeks, according to the NOPHO ALL2008 protocol at the University Hospital Rigshospitalet, Copenhagen, Denmark, were eligible. Pancreatic enzymes, triglycerides, and cholesterol were measured regularly. Thirty-one patients were included. Seven patients were diagnosed with AAP. HTG was most evident when PEG-asparaginase and dexamethasone were administered concomitantly. Overall, there was no significant difference in triglyceride levels in patients who experienced AAP and patients who did not. An increase in triglyceride levels during concomitant dexamethasone therapy in delayed intensification was significantly associated with an increase in pancreas-specific amylase levels two weeks later (P = 0.005).\",\n \"The use of propofol is controversial in patients with a history of acute pancreatitis or those taking drugs, including certain chemotherapeutic drugs, that are associated with pancreatitis. To investigate this issue, we reviewed the medical records of all children who were diagnosed with pancreatitis while receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia during a 5-year period. A temporal relationship between propofol use and development of acute pancreatitis could not be established.\",\n \"Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified.\",\n \"Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":721,"string":"721"}}},{"rowIdx":273179,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Pediatric residents' telephone triage experience: do parents really follow telephone advice?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.","If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center."],"string":"[\n \"A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.\",\n \"If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["the Internet is the world's fastest growing source of health related information. Parents and guardians are increasingly turning to the Internet for information about their children's medical conditions and treatments. This paper has the following objectives 1) determine the prevalence of web searches for medical information performed by parents/guardians of children undergoing ENT surgery in a private hospital of Sao Paulo, Brazil. 2) assess whether the gathered information influenced the parents/guardians' decision on the treatment/surgery. questionnaire voluntarily responded by 132 parents/guardians of children submitted to ENT surgery in a private hospital in Sao Paulo, Brazil.","Previous research indicates physicians frequently choose a patient problem to explore before determining the patient's full spectrum of concerns. To examine the extent to which experienced family physicians in various practice settings elicit the agenda of concerns patients bring to the office. A cross-sectional survey using linguistic analysis of a convenience sample of 264 patient-physician interviews. Primary care offices of 29 board-certified family physicians practicing in rural Washington (n = 1; 3%), semirural Colorado (n = 20; 69%), and urban settings in the United States and Canada (n = 8; 27%). Nine participants had fellowship training in communication skills and family counseling. Patient-physician verbal interactions, including physician solicitations of patient concerns, rate of completion of patient responses, length of time for patient responses, and frequency of late-arising patient concerns. Physicians solicited patient concerns in 199 interviews (75.4%). Patients' initial statements of concerns were completed in 74 interviews (28.0%). Physicians redirected the patient's opening statement after a mean of 23.1 seconds. Patients allowed to complete their statement of concerns used only 6 seconds more on average than those who were redirected before completion of concerns. Late-arising concerns were more common when physicians did not solicit patient concerns during the interview (34.9% vs 14.9%). Fellowship-trained physicians were more likely to solicit patient concerns and allow patients to complete their initial statement of concerns (44% vs 22%).","PALS is successful in providing basic resuscitation knowledge to pediatric residents, but knowledge of critical algorithm details is not sustained. The course does not provide for the expected level of competency in relevant technical skills. Residents do not achieve the confidence to feel well prepared to provide comprehensive care to pediatric patients in cardiopulmonary arrest. These findings support the hypothesis that the PALS course alone is insufficient to provide pediatric residents with competency in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.","Intervention improved parental knowledge; however, intervention did not translate into anticipated improvement in clinic and emergency room utilization patterns. Emphasis on education and preventative services are important in both civilian and military pediatric practice. Results of this study highlight the need to discuss and reinforce fever education as a topic in pediatric preventive health care visits.","Parents of children with asthma exacerbations who communicated with clinicians were more likely to administer SABAs and an oral corticosteroid before bringing their child to an emergency department. Frequency of SABA dosing was not associated with communication. Clinicians providing telephone advice to parents need to provide explicit instructions about medication administration, emphasizing the frequency with which SABAs should be administered.","Parents rated residents at both training levels very highly for the quality of care provided. PL-3 residents had higher longitudinal continuity scores and were perceived to have greater knowledge about behavioral counseling and coordination of care with schools. Further research will need to elucidate strategies to improve earlier resident acquisition of coordination and behavior management skills.","to assess knowledge of pediatric residents attending adolescents, including ethical issues on contraceptive advice. A prospective study was conducted involving 75 residents in order to assess their knowledge, along with ethical issues involved, in clinical attendance of adolescents. The SPSS 13 software package was used for data analysis. 100% of interviewees stated that adolescents have the right to privacy during medical appointments. Yet, when asked from what age this privacy should be granted, 62% reported at any age. When questioned on whether an adolescent could be examined alone, without another person with them in the room, 50% of physicians answered yes and 50% no. 91.7% of interviewees felt that adolescents had the right to confidentiality and medical secrecy, but only 84.8% knew the contents of the Code of Medical Ethics regarding medical secrecy. A further 79.2% felt prepared to give advice on contraception to adolescents.","yes. A policy of reminding outpatients of their appointments via telephone reduces absenteeism at a hospital-based pulmonary function laboratory. We found no difference in absenteeism between communicating the reminder via direct conversation versus via leaving a message on an answering machine.","To evaluate the effect of weekly telephone contact with families in enhancing the use of home apnea monitors. This was a prospective, randomized, single-blinded study of 65 infants who were prescribed home apnea monitoring at the time of initial discharge from the hospital. Exclusion criteria included participation in any other study involving home monitoring or nonavailability of home telephone. Infants were randomized either to the \"standard\" or \"telephone\" group by a stratified balanced block technique. All families were instructed to use the monitor during the first 4-week period at all times except during bathing and during the second 4-week period at all unattended times and at night. The families in the telephone group were contacted weekly for 8 weeks. The telephone interview reviewed the events of the previous week but did not include specific encouragement to use the monitor. Both groups received routine pediatric care and follow-up at our high-risk premature clinic. The primary outcome measure was compliance measured as the percentage of time as well as the hours per day that the infant spent on the monitor as recorded by the documented monitor. The telephone (n = 30) and standard (n = 32) groups were similar (p > 0.10) with respect to birth weight (1567 +/- 778 versus 1710 +/- 777 gm), gestational age (30.9 +/- 4.2 versus 31.1 +/- 4.6 weeks), maternal age (24.9 +/- 6.0 versus 25.3 +/- 5.4 years), and commercial insurance (46.7% versus 46.9%), a marker of higher socioeconomic status. Compliance of the telephone versus the standard group was similar during the first 4-week period (74.7 +/- 24.9 versus 75 +/- 27.8%, p = 0.85) (17.9 +/- 5.9 versus 18.2 +/- 6.6 hours/day), the second 4 week period (63.4 +/- 29.1 versus 58.9 +/- 30.9%, p = 0.59) (15.2 +/- 7.0 versus 14.1 +/- 7.4 hours/day) and the entire 8-week period (69.3 +/- 24.7 versus 67.7 +/- 26.2%, p = 0.82, Mann-Whitney U-test) (16.7 +/- 6.0 versus 16.1 +/- 6.5 hours/day), respectively. An abnormal pneumocardiogram at the time of discharge was the only identified factor that improved the compliance for the entire 8-week period (73.1 +/- 22 versus 52.1 +/- 28.5%, p = 0.02) (17.5 +/- 5.2 versus 12.5 +/- 6.8 hours/day) and the first 4-week period of monitoring (81.7 +/- 22.9 versus 59.5 +/- 31.3%, p = 0.01) (19.6 +/- 5.5 versus 14.2 +/- 7.5 hours/day).","yes. Many children are referred by CCC staff to physicians contrary to established guidelines. As staff must act on behalf of parents, a low threshold for referral is not unreasonable. However, this survey confirms that CCC staff recommend children to receive antibiotics and exclude children inappropriately. These practices are based on incomplete knowledge. Research on appropriate management of upper respiratory tract infections by CCC staff is needed. Education to correct specific knowledge deficits should be initiated.","Our data do suggest that health care professionals, excluding those in emergency medicine, are not better than laymen in evaluating an emergency situation correctly, and when the caller is a doctor or a nurse the dispatcher seems to trust the evaluation of the situation to be correct and rarely asks any clarifying questions about vital signs of the patient.","We sought to better understand barriers to adherence to published guidelines for respiratory infections among community providers. A case-based survey was developed and emailed to all members of the state pediatric society. Providers chose their preferred management for acute otitis media, acute bacterial sinusitis, and community-acquired pneumonia. An \"answer key\" and a follow-up questionnaire were distributed to assess reevaluation of current practices. We received 173 completed surveys (15% response rate). While most responders followed guideline recommendations (6 of the 10 questions with ≥ 65% choosing recommended antibiotic), discrepancies existed in several cases. After receiving the answer key, respondents said they reviewed the guidelines (69%), adjusted their practice (26%), used cases for teaching (9%), and discussed guidelines with colleagues (21%).","yes. Finnish parents seek information from health care professionals and PILs when looking for information concerning their children's medication. Furthermore, they find health care professionals and PILs to be reliable information sources.","We determine whether practice patterns of pediatricians contribute to delays in diagnosing and treating adolescents with varicoceles. A survey consisting of 11 multiple-choice questions was mailed to 5,000 pediatricians selected by zip code in New York State. Zip codes were chosen to reflect urban, suburban and rural counties. A total of 544 of the 5000 (10.9%) surveys were returned, and 92 (16.9%) pediatricians acknowledged that they did not routinely perform physical examinations of the genitalia of adolescent males patients. Of 497 pediatricians who routinely or occasionally examine the genitalia 54 (10.9%) did not examine for the presence of varicoceles. When pediatricians were asked how they assess for the presence of varicoceles, 13 of 521 (2.5%) only used visual inspection, 50 (9.6%) only examined patients in the supine position and 379 (72.7%) of these pediatricians never used Valsalva maneuvers. Of 517 respondents 442 (85.5%) referred patients with varicoceles to a urologist for followup and 72 (13.9%) did no further evaluation. When asked to indicate what they thought was the greatest concern regarding the pediatric varicocele, 327 of 497 (65.0%) pediatricians indicated deterioration of future infertility, 120 (30.0%) indicated testicular growth retardation, 105 (24.2%) indicated pain and 18 (4.3%) indicated cosmesis.","In recent years, there has been a growth in the use of triage nurses to decrease general practitioner (GP) workloads and increase the efficiency of telephone triage. The actual safety of decisions made by triage nurses has not yet been assessed. To investigate whether triage nurses accurately estimate the urgency level of health complaints when using the national telephone guidelines, and to examine the relationship between the performance of triage nurses and their education and training. A cross-sectional, multicentre, observational study employing five mystery (simulated) patients who telephoned triage nurses in four GP cooperatives. The mystery patients played standardised roles. Each role had one of four urgency levels as determined by experts. The triage nurses called were asked to estimate the level of urgency after the contact. This level of urgency was compared with a gold standard. Triage nurses estimated the level of urgency of 69% of the 352 contacts correctly and underestimated the level of urgency of 19% of the contacts. The sensitivity and specificity of the urgency estimates provided by the triage nurses were found to be 0.76 and 0.95, respectively. The positive and negative predictive values of the urgency estimates were 0.83 and 0.93, respectively. A significant correlation was found between correct estimation of urgency and specific training on the use of the guidelines. The educational background (primary or secondary care) of the nurses had no significant relationship with the rate of underestimation.","This study is a qualitative analysis examining caregivers' expectations for pediatricians with regard to behavioral health care. Fifty-five parents/caregivers of children seen in an urban primary care clinic participated in semistructured interviews. Participants were parents or guardians of children between the ages of 2 and 17 years, referred from the pediatric clinic to the mental health center. Interviews were analyzed using grounded theory methods. Pertinent themes were the following: expected range of care, components of an effective primary care provider (PCP) relationship, action of the PCP, and parent reaction to PCP intervention. Forty-seven percent of caregivers saw the PCP role as strictly for physical health care; 53% expected the PCP to have a role in both physical and behavioral health. Responses were overwhelmingly positive from caregivers when the PCP asked about or conducted a behavioral health intervention.","Children with care for acute illness available through the Health-e-Access telemedicine model at childcare and schools were previously found to have 22% less emergency department (ED) use than counterparts without this service, but they also had 24% greater acute care use overall. We assessed the hypothesis that increased utilization reflected improved access among impoverished inner-city children to a level experienced by more affluent suburban children. This observational study compared utilization among children without and with telemedicine access, beginning in 1993, ending in 2007, and based on 84,287 child-months of billing claims-based observation. Health-e-Access Telemedicine was initiated in stepwise manner over 187 study-months among 74 access sites (childcare, schools, community centers), beginning in month 105. Children dwelled in inner city, rest-of-city Rochester, NY, or in surrounding suburbs. Rate of total acute care visits (office, ED, telemedicine) was measured as visits per 100 child-years. Observed utilization rates were adjusted in multivariate analysis for age, sex, insurance type, and season of year. When both suburban and inner-city children lacked telemedicine access, overall acute illness visits were 75% greater among suburban than inner-city children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 1.75, p < 0.0001). After telemedicine became available to inner-city children, their overall acute visits approximated those of suburban children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 0.80, p = 0.07), whereas acute visits among suburban children remained at least (worst-case comparison) 56% greater than inner-city children without telemedicine (rate ratio 1.56, p < 0.0001).","To examine the level of involvement in pre-hospital care for children by faculty and fellows of teaching hospitals with a Pediatric Emergency Medicine (PEM) fellowship. In addition, we hypothesized that a divisional faculty member's involvement as principal investigator (PI) on an EMSC grant would not impact divisional involvement in on or off-line medical direction. Cross-sectional national survey. PEM fellowship directors. Self-administered questionnaire. Descriptive and Chi-square analysis to study null hypothesis. The response rate to the survey was 62% (53/85). Of the programs responding, 53 % provided on-line pediatric medical direction for pre-hospital providers, 77% were involved with paramedic education other than PALS, and 58% of systems had pediatric specific protocols. In 87 % of the programs, a designated faculty member functioned as an EMSC liaison. A division faculty member was or had been the PI on an EMSC grant in 18 programs (34%). There was no significant difference in the provision of on or off-line medical direction comparing programs with or without involvement in an EMSC grant. Only 34% of the responding program directors felt that the current level of exposure to EMS was adequate for PEM fellow training.","yes. As indicated by their humoral stress responses, the medical encounter was stressful for the parents. Pediatricians' affective communication modulated this stress response in that more supportive communication was related to smaller cortisol increases.","To assess agreement between the advice to symptomatic callers to Healthline, and that advised by primary care doctors given the same clinical information, and thus to assess the safety of Healthline advice. Ninety records of symptomatic calls to Healthline were examined by three primary care specialists, blinded to the actual advice given. They independently recorded what they would have advised, and their advice was compared with that actually given by the Healthline nurse guided by Care Enhance Call Centre software. Variation among the three doctors was greater than that between the median doctor and Healthline. In 82% of cases, the median doctor triaged to an endpoint close to (or lower than) Healthline. In all but one of the remainder, at least one doctor thought there was no risk to the patient (i.e. in 99% of cases). Review of that case indicated nurse error and the guideline itself was judged to be safe.","To assess whether use of a parent questionnaire, the Child Development Review (CDR), before health maintenance examinations (HMEs) increases parent identification and increases resident discussion and documentation of behavioral issues for toddler and preschool-aged children. Quasi-experimental design using convenience samples with comparisons before and after questionnaire implementation. Children 15 to 47 months of age and their parents attending a hospital-based, primary care clinic serving a low-income population, and the residents caring for them. Participants were enrolled into early control, concurrent control, and intervention groups. All parents completed an exit interview about 9 behavioral issues and were asked if they had discussed these issues with the doctor. Before the visit, the intervention group parents completed the CDR, which was available for the residents to review. Information from the CDR and exit interview, and resident documentation were compared for control and intervention groups. There were 122 intervention and 135 control group HMEs. Parents using the CDR identified more behavioral issues for their children at the exit interview (median, 2.0 vs 1.0, P =.01). The 6 issues on both the CDR and the exit interview accounted for this increase. Intervention group parents reported discussion of more behavioral issues (median, 2.0 vs 0.0, P <.001). Discussion increased for all issues. Documentation was not increased for the intervention group.","To describe the experience of a U.S. emergency medical services (EMS) agency utilizing a dispatch algorithm to identify low-acuity patients and determine whether secondary telephone triage by a nurse was associated with subsequent hospital admission among those patients. This was a retrospective study of all patients meeting the low-acuity Omega classification by the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS) in a large urban EMS system, conducted in two phases. Patients were excluded from the study if a refusal for transport was obtained, the call was received from a third-party caller, the MPDS system was not used, the patient was being referred from a skilled nursing facility, school, or university nursing office or physician's office, or if the call was referred to the Carolina Poison Center. Patients were enrolled over two phases using two different versions of the MPDS protocol, and in phase 2 patients were offered the option of speaking with an advice-line nurse. The outcome of interest was emergency department disposition, classified as hospital admission or discharge home. Admission to an intensive care unit (ICU) bed was also collected as a subcategory of hospital admission. Of the 1,862 patients in phase 1, 69.3% were discharged home from the emergency department, whereas in phase 2, 73.0% of the 1,078 patients were discharged home. Individuals were most frequently admitted to the hospital across both phases if they had a dispatch determinant of pregnancy, psychiatric/behavioral, fall, sick person. Hospital admission was also associated with receiving an EMS or emergency department procedure. There were 530 patients in phase 2 who underwent secondary triage by an advice-line nurse. Among this cohort of patients, 134 (25.3%) required subsequent hospital admission, with a further three (2.2%) requiring an ICU admission.","yes. Telephone training provided by a special education professional appears effective in prelingually deafened children with a CI. Home training provided by parents is less effective, but helps maintain the skills acquired in the professional telephone training.","Almost 9 in 10 pediatric residents have a mentor who provides career advice. Although multiple factors shape decisions about careers, mentor specialty is one factor that might encourage residents to pursue fellowship training.","yes. Most phone calls originated from a minority of patients. Repeated calling by the same patient and new onset of gastrointestinal (GI) and non-GI symptoms were important factors predicting the order of diagnostic modalities or therapeutic changes in care. Triaging calls to IBD healthcare providers for patients more likely to require a change in management may improve healthcare delivery.","To evaluate the impact of a dedicated, free-floating, pediatric-targeted care delivery model on emergency department (ED) waiting times, parent satisfaction, and transition of care. A prospective, observational study was conducted between July 16 and August 12, 2007. It incorporated a before-and-after design with a 2-week preintervention and a 2-week intervention group. In the intervention period, the pediatric ED initiative (PEDI) team was introduced, which consisted of a free-floating doctor and nurse equipped to see pediatric patients. Consenting patients/parents were followed up by telephone 7 to 14 days after discharge regarding satisfaction and waiting times. Four hundred fifty-three pediatric presentations (216 in the preintervention group and 237 in the intervention group) were analyzed, of which the PEDI team treated 81 pediatric patients during the intervention period. The intervention group had a significantly shorter length of stay in the ED (158 vs 194 minutes; P = 0.01). However, there was no difference in time to be seen by a doctor (80 vs 78 minutes; P = 0.54). Satisfaction of the total study group was significantly related to staff attitude and understanding of the wait.","To examine the relationships among physician-parent communication practices, physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotic treatment, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral upper respiratory tract infections. Cross-sectional study of pediatric encounters motivated by cold symptoms between October 1, 2000, and June 30, 2001. Each encounter was videotaped. Physicians completed a postvisit survey that measured whether they perceived the parent as expecting antibiotics. Coded communication variables were merged with survey variables. Multivariate analyses identified key predictors of parent-physician communication practices, physician perceptions of parents' expectations for antibiotics, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral conditions. Twenty-seven pediatric practices in Los Angeles, Calif. Thirty-eight pediatricians and 522 consecutively approached parents of children with cold symptoms. Physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotics, inappropriate antibiotic prescribing, and parental questioning of nonantibiotic treatments. Physicians were 20.2% more likely to perceive parents as expecting antibiotics when they questioned the physician's treatment plan (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 6.3%-34.0%). When physicians perceived parents as expecting antibiotics, they were 31.7% more likely to inappropriately prescribe them (P<.001; 95% confidence interval, 16.0%-47.3%). Parents were 24.0% more likely to question the treatment plan when the physician ruled out the need for antibiotics (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 7.7%-40.3%).","Telephone triage by triage nurses is efficient but possibly not safe, with potentially severe consequences for the patient. An educational programme for triage nurses is recommended. Also, a direct second safety check of all cases by a specially trained GP telephone doctor is advisable.","To determine the preference of primary care physicians for computer-generated vs dictated discharge summaries from a neonatal intensive care unit. Survey mailed to primary care physicians. Regional referral area of a level III neonatal intensive care unit. Pediatricians and family medicine physicians caring for infants discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit. Of 58 questionnaires sent, 45 (78%) were returned. Overall, 33 physicians (73%) either strongly or mildly preferred the computer-generated discharge summary; eight (18%) had no preference; and four (9%) preferred the dictated discharge summary (P<.001). The category of strongest preference was relevance of information for continued patient care. Preference for type of discharge summary was not significantly influenced by time in practice, type of practice, preference to read or scan summaries, or frequency of computer use.","To assess the accuracy of residents' record review, using trained abstractors as a gold standard comparison. In 2005, the authors asked 74 residents to review their own charts (n = 392) after they received brief instruction on both how to locate data on the medical record and how to use a data abstraction form. Trained abstractors then re-reviewed these charts to assess performance of preventive health care measures in medicine (smoking screening, smoking cessation advice, mammography, colon cancer screening, lipid screening, and pneumonia vaccination) and pediatrics (parent smoking screening, parent smoking cessation advice, car seat safety, car restraint use, eye alignment, and immunizations up to date). The authors then quantified agreement between the two record reviews and assessed the sensitivity and specificity of the residents versus the trained abstractors. Overall resident-measured performance was similar (within 5%) to that of the trained abstractor for five of six measures in medicine and four of six in pediatrics. For the various measures, sensitivity of resident-measured performance ranged from 100% to 15% and specificity from 100% to 33% compared with the trained abstractors. Relative to the trained abstractor record review, residents did not overestimate their performance. Most residents' (81%) relative performance rankings did not change when the basis for the ranking was resident measured versus trained abstractor measured.","If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center.","Prospective multicenter study in thirteen paediatric emergency departments. The parents and doctors completed questionnaires based on closed-ended questions with a common core of four items: reasons of hospitalization, diagnosis, treatment and seriousness of child condition. We evaluated concordance between parents and doctor answers for these items by comparing their responses. This study included 380 parents. Percentage of concordance was 55% for the reason of hospitalization, 78% for the diagnosis, 92% for the treatment, 48% for the seriousness of the condition and 19% for all four items. The mean number of concordant items was 2.76 (CI 95%, 2.66-2.86). Parents whose children seemed not in pain and parents who received additional information from the nurse showed significantly slightly higher levels of concordance with doctor's answers (2.98 vs 2.66, p = 0.006 and 2.89 vs 2.60, p = 0.004, respectively).","The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.","Clinical questions frequently arise during the practice of medicine, and primary care physicians frequently use curbside consultations with specialty physicians to answer these questions. It is hypothesized that well-formulated clinical questions are more likely to be answered and less likely to receive a recommendation for formal consultation. To assess the relationship between the structure of clinical questions asked by family physicians and the response of specialty physicians engaged in curbside consultations. A case series of clinical questions asked during informal consultations between 60 primary care and 33 specialty physicians using an e-mail service. Curbside consultation questions were sent, using e-mail, to academic specialty physicians by primary care physicians (faculty, residents, and community practitioners) in eastern Iowa. Questions were analyzed to determine the clinical task and to identify 3 components: an intervention, a comparison, and an outcome. Consultants' responses were analyzed to identify whether questions were answered and whether consultants recommended formal consultation. There were 708 questions in this analysis: 278 (39.3%) were diagnosis questions, 334 (47.2%) were management questions, 57 (8.0%) were prognosis questions, and 39 (5.5%) were requests for direction. Clinical questions were less likely to go unanswered or receive a recommendation for formal consultation when the question identified the proposed intervention (odds ratio, 0.54; 95% confidence interval, 0.34-0.86; P = .006) and desired outcome (odds ratio, 0.46; 95% confidence interval, 0.29-0.69; P<.001). Only 271 (38.3%) of 708 curbside consult questions identified both of these components.","To compare asthma treatment decisions by pediatric residents to current asthma guidelines and to learn whether treatment decisions vary by postgraduate year in training. We conducted a Web-based survey of residents from 10 training programs through the Continuity Research Network of the Academic Pediatric Association (CORNET). Surveys included 6 vignettes of patients receiving low-dose inhaled steroids with guideline- and non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status and 1 stable patient on high-intensity medication. There were 369 resident respondents (65% response rate), 26% postgraduate year (PGY) 1, 38% PGY2, and 36% PGY3+. Seventy-five percent of each resident group reported seeing fewer than 1 asthma patient per continuity clinic session. A majority of residents made appropriate treatment recommendations in 2 of 4 vignettes of guideline-based indicators of asthma status: first, 97% overall stepping up treatment for mild persistent asthma; and second, 52% overall stepping down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma on high-intensity medications. Inconsistent with guideline recommendations, 82% of residents overall did not step down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma receiving low-intensity therapy; 75% of residents did not step up treatment for a patient with a recent hospitalization for asthma. Of the 3 vignettes evaluating non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status, a majority of residents (60%) stepped up treatment for parental reports of worse asthma, while a minority did so for a parental report of being bothered by their child's asthma (27%) or when wheezing was reported at physical examination (43%). There were no statistically significant differences for any of the comparisons by year in training.","The debate continues as to what constitutes an adequate postnatal follow-up after an early hospital discharge. The main objective of this study was to determine whether the type and timing of postnatal services were associated with mothers' and newborns' health, breastfeeding duration, and maternal assessment of the delay and usefulness of the services they received after discharge. A telephone survey was conducted one month after a vaginal, uncomplicated delivery by 2,583 mothers who had given birth in five health regions of the Province of Québec, between 1999 and 2003. The response rate to the survey was 72.1%. Virtually all the newborns (98.1%) had at least one routine contact with a health professional after discharge. Within 72 hours of discharge, 26.0% of the mothers received only a telephone call, 44.3% were visited by a public health nurse, 11.1% of the babies were examined by a physician and 49.5% were examined by a nurse or a physician. Newborns who had a first contact with a health professional within 72 hours of hospital discharge were less likely to have been readmitted to the hospital (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.45; 95% CI 0.21-0.97), while their mothers were less likely to have signs of moderate to severe depression at one month postpartum (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.60; 95% CI 0.45-0.79). The sooner the telephone call and the home visit were received the more likely the women were to have found that the services were useful.","To evaluate the quality of pediatric primary care, including preventive services, before and after the introduction of an electronic medical record (EMR) developed for use in an urban pediatric primary care center. A pre-postintervention analysis was used in the study. The intervention was a pediatric EMR. Routine health care maintenance visits for children <5 years old were reviewed, and documentation during preintervention (paper-based, 1998) and postintervention visits (computer-based, 2000) was compared. A total of 235 paper-based visits and 986 computer-based visits met study criteria. Twelve clinicians (all attendings or nurse practitioners) contributed an average of 19.4 paper-based visits (range: 5-39) and 7 of these clinicians contributed an average of 141 computer-based visits each (range: 61-213). Computer-based clinicians were significantly more likely to address a variety of routine health care maintenance topics including: diet (relative risk [RR]: 1.09), sleep (RR: 1.46), at least 1 psychosocial issue (RR: 1.42), smoking in the home (RR: 15.68), lead risk assessment (RR: 106.54), exposure to domestic or community violence (RR: 35.19), guns in the home (RR: 58.11), behavioral or social developmental milestones (RR: 2.49), infant sleep position (RR: 9.29), breastfeeding (RR: 1.99), poison control (RR: 3.82), and child safety (RR: 1.29). Trends toward improved lead exposure, vision, and hearing screening were seen; however, differences were not significant. Users of the system reported that its use had improved the overall quality of care delivered, was well-accepted by families, and improved guidance quality; however, 5 of 7 users reported that eye-to-eye contact with patients was reduced, and 4 of 7 reported that use of the system increased the duration of visits (mean: 9.3 minutes longer). All users recommended continued use of the system.","Overall, parental understanding of ED discharge instructions is good. However, there remains a considerable number (about 20%) who fail to fully comprehend the diagnosis or treatment directives. This subset might benefit from the use of lay terminology by the staff, institution of a special discharge nurse, or use of diagnosis-specific information sheets.","We wanted to discover how parents differ from physicians in making decisions about how to treat a child who may have acute otitis media (AOM). We used questionnaires that required participants to judge the probability of AOM or choose treatment for 2 sets of 46 paper scenarios of hypothetical children aged 15 months who might have AOM, and they subsequently rated the importance of individual cues and described their attitudes and opinions related to health care and AOM. Convenience samples of 19 US family physicians, 35 French generalists, 21 French pediatricians, 52 US parents, and 86 French parents were included. The primary outcomes were the judgment policies-the weights placed on each of the scenario cues when making decisions-that were derived for each individual and each group by multiple linear regression. The mean judged probabilities of AOM were nearly the same for all groups: 50% for the US physicians, 51% for the US parents, 52.5% for the French physicians, and 52% for the French parents. The percentages of cases treated with antibiotics did not differ: 53% for US physicians, 45% for US parents, 53% for French physicians, and 51% for French parents. All groups gave greatest weight to the physical examination cues for decisions about both diagnosis and treatment. The parents paid little attention to the cues that reflected parental concerns.","To evaluate the quality of objective information obtained during telephone requests for the transport of pediatric patients. To evaluate the ability of subjective judgment, the Pediatric Risk of Mortality (PRISM) score, and the presence of tachycardia for age to predict the need for a physician on as a member of the pediatric transport team. Prospective data collection. The pediatric transport program of a children's hospital. All 129 infants and children transported over a 4-month period. We defined an objective measure of the need for a physician's presence during the transport of a pediatric patient, based on either the necessity for procedural or medical interventions during the time of transport or on direct admission to the pediatric ICU after transport. At the time of initial telephone contact, a physician's subjective opinion of the need for physician presence was recorded, a PRISM score was derived, and the presence of tachycardia (adjusted for age) was determined. Subsequently, the vital signs recorded on the record of this request were compared with those vital signs charted at the referring hospital at the time of the initial telephone request. A total of 96% of vital signs obtained during the initial telephone contact were consistent with those percentages in the referring hospital medical records. Fifty (39%) of 129 transported patients required procedural or medical interventions or pediatric ICU admission. Subjective judgments predicted physician need with a high sensitivity (0.98), but with a low specificity (0.18). PRISM score predicted 62 (48%) of 129 transports to be \"physician-required\" (sensitivity = 0.72; specificity = 0.67). There was no statistical association between tachycardia for age and the objective need for a physician's presence.","To evaluate the affect of families' attitudes about the appropriateness of discussing psychosocial concerns on pediatric providers' identification of psychosocial problems. These data were collected as part of the Greater New Haven Child Health Study, New Haven, Conn. The study design was a prospective cohort. Families were recruited from a stratified random sample of all primary care practices in the greater New Haven area. Nineteen of 23 invited practices agreed to participate including 2 prepaid practices, 2 neighborhood health centers, and 7 fee-for-service group and 8 fee-for-service solo practices. All families of children aged 4 to 8 years who attended these practices during 2 separate 3-week periods (1 in fall 1987 and 1 in spring 1988) were invited to participate in the study. Families were invited to participate only once, on the first contact with any eligible child, using approved procedures. Of 2006 eligible families, 1886 (94%) chose to participate. The outcome variable for these analyses is the identification of any behavioral, emotional, or developmental problem by the pediatrician on the 13-category checklist. Overall, pediatric clinicians identified 27.5% of children with 1 or more psychosocial problems. Our data suggest that there is a great deal of discrepancy between what parents report is appropriate to do when their children have psychosocial problems and what they actually do when they recognize such problems in their children. Most (81.1%) believed it was appropriate to discuss 4 or more of the 6 hypothetical situations with their children's physician, while only 40.9% actually did discuss any of these problems with a physician when a problem occurred. Given the correlates of parents who intended to discuss such problems (higher education, older age, Euro-American ethnicity, higher income, married, availability of medical insurance) the possibility that parents are providing socially acceptable responses to such questions seems likely. Further, our data indicate that parents' actual reports of discussions of psychosocial problems is unrelated to whether physicians identified those problems in children.","The planned clinical activity of pediatric urologists has been well described. However, little is known about nonscheduled work (eg consultation requests). We describe the unplanned clinical activity of pediatric urologists at a high volume academic medical center. Demographic data regarding inpatient, operating room and emergency department pediatric urology consults were prospectively entered into an internal database. Consults from July 2008 through June 2010 underwent retrospective chart abstraction to identify reasons for consultation. Bivariate and multivariate statistics were used to evaluate 1) temporal trends in unplanned clinical activity, and 2) patient and service specific factors associated with whether a consult was billable (ie seen by attending physician within 24 hours). During the study period 665 pediatric consults were obtained. Mean ± SD patient age was 8.4 ± 7.7 years. Nearly all consults were seen at the emergency department (51%) or the inpatient wards (47%). The most common primary diagnoses were infection, obstruction/hydronephrosis and neurogenic bladder. The number of consults per month decreased during the course of the academic year (r(2) = 0.1422). Nearly three fourths of consults were eligible for billing. The factors associated with consult eligibility for billing included specific attending physician (p = 0.03), location (p <0.0001) and house officer experience (p = 0.007).","117 parents/guardians (90%) used the Internet to search for information on the disease and surgical treatment of the children. Only 12 parents/guardians (10%) discussed the information with the physician assigned to perform the surgical procedure. 91 parents/guardians (78%) said that the information had impact upon the decision to have surgery performed on their children.","To establish the safety and effectiveness of nurse-led triage of otolaryngology out-patient referrals. One hundred consecutive general practitioner referrals were reviewed by two consultants, two specialist registrars, two foundation year two senior house officers and two otolaryngology nurses. One of the nurses had received triage training. All referrals were triaged as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' by each rater. The triage-trained nurse's results demonstrated good agreement with those of the senior consultant (80 per cent). This agreement was similar to that with the other consultant (77 per cent) and the specialist registrars (79 and 82 per cent). Weighted kappa statistics (correcting for chance agreement) showed that the triage-trained nurse had the second closest agreement to the senior consultant (0.66). After the actual out-patient appointments, retrospective review of the patients' case notes revealed that none had been triaged inappropriately by the trained nurse, and no urgent cases had been missed.","To investigate whether the medical interview in the pediatric context generates a stressful response in parents in form of heightened cortisol activity, and whether pediatricians' empathetic communication is able to attenuate this stress response. 68 parents were recruited at pediatric out-patient and in-patient consultations. Salivary samples were collected between 60 and 30min prior to the consultation, shortly before the consultation, 20min as well as 45min after the consultation. 19 pediatricians participated in the study and effectuated the medical visit as usual. We videotaped the consultations and coded pediatricians' affective communication using the RIAS and the Four Habits Coding Scheme. Parents' cortisol increased during the medical visit with a peak at 20min after the medical encounter. Furthermore, multilevel analysis revealed a lesser increase in parents' cortisol response associated with pediatricians' levels in supportive communication behaviors.","yes. These results highlight the enhanced clinical effectiveness of not just recommending the quitline to parents but also offering them enrollment in the quitline at the time of their child's visit to the pediatric office.","In this single-site study, children referred from outside EDs with lower pediatric volumes and staffed by nonpediatricians were more likely to be discharged from a children's hospital ED after transport. These transports may represent unnecessary resource use. Outreach education, shared staffing models, and telemedicine are potential methods to address unnecessary transfers.","A majority of general pediatricians believe that an established diagnosis is important when considering EI referral. This perception is associated with decreased reported referral for children with speech delay and those whose parents express concern for inappropriate development.","In addition to the assessment and the management of patients with skin diseases, a considerable portion of dermatology residency involves examining clinical images and generating differential diagnoses from these images. This training, though helpful for recognizing manifestations of rare disorders, goes unused by most practicing dermatologists after certification. In contrast, dermatology residents learn and master verbal descriptions of skin diseases and continue to use this skill throughout their careers. However, problems arise when a dermatologist is not available and a non-dermatologist attempts to verbally describe a skin condition. An accurate description of a cutaneous disorder can facilitate effective triage management of a patient when a dermatologist is not available. Unfortunately, an inaccurate description by the referring provider can lead to diagnostic bias and ineffective, or even harmful, initial treatment. In recent years, digital photography has facilitated the electronic transfer of clinical images over distances. However, despite the promise that this technique shows in providing teledermatologic services to specialty-underserved areas and the availability of low-cost digital cameras, telephone consultation is still the standard of care when a dermatologist is not available. The purpose of this study is to compare the reliability of dermatologic consultations that use the telephone with that of dermatologic consultations that use both the telephone and digital images. After patient approval, an acute care provider randomly assigned patients with skin disorders of unclear etiology to two groups, with and without digital images. The acute care provider then performed an exam and took the patient's history. Telephone data, with or without digital images, were then presented to the consulting dermatologist, who formulated a pre-physical exam differential diagnosis and treatment plan. The consulting dermatologist immediately examined the patient in person and refined the diagnosis and management. The confidence in diagnosis, both before and after the in-person exam, was compared in the patient group with digital images and in the patient group without digital images using a five-point scale (1 = no confidence, 5 = most confident).","To determine the willingness of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department to have a physician assistant (PA) assess and treat their child and the waiting time reduction sufficient for them to choose to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. After describing the training and scope of practice of PAs, we asked caregivers of children triaged as urgent to nonurgent if they would be willing to have their child assessed and treated by a PA on that visit: definitely, maybe, or never. We also asked the minimum amount of waiting time reduction they would want to see before choosing to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. We approached 320 eligible subjects, and 273 (85.3%) consented to participate. Regarding whether they would be willing to have their child receive treatment by a PA, 140 (51.3%) respondents answered definitely, 107 (39.2%) said maybe, and 26 (9.2%) said never. Most respondents (64.1%) would choose to have their child seen by a PA instead of waiting for a physician if the waiting time reduction were at least 60 minutes (median 60 minutes [interquartile range 60 minutes]). Respondents' perception of the severity of their child's condition was associated with unwillingness to receive treatment by a PA, whereas child's age, presenting complaint, and actual waiting time were not.","To evaluate the relative accuracy of physicians, nurses, and parents in estimating the weight of children presenting to the emergency department. One hundred pediatric patients between the ages of 0 and 8 years presenting to an urban teaching emergency department (40,000 patients per year) were enrolled over a 1-month period (September 1996). The parents, triage nurse, and examining physician were asked to estimate the patient's weight, each blinded to the others' estimates and the child's actual weight. Parents, nurses, and physicians all slightly underestimated patient weights (P < 0 .05), but these groups did not differ among themselves (P > 0 .05). The total range of estimates was broad in each group (parents +292% to -41%, nurses +30% to -36%, and physicians +43% to -56%). There was no significant relationship between estimates with regard to age, weight, or sex. Twenty-nine percent of physicians' estimates, 40% of nurses' estimates, and 16% of parents' estimates differed from the actual weight by more than 15%.","yes. Only a small minority of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department for urgent to nonurgent issues are unwilling to have their child treated by PAs.","We concluded that first-year pediatric residents have inadequate skills in the delivery of bad news. In addition, our data suggest that higher EI alone is not sufficient to effectively deliver death news and more robust skill training is necessary for residents to gain competence and acquire mastery in this important communication domain.","Before seeing a pediatrician, parents often look online to obtain child health information. We aimed to determine the influence of IUC (internet use regarding the reason for consultation) on their subjective information level, their assessment of acute diseases and the change in this assessment. Secondary objectives were to identify the most commonly used online resources and factors with an influence on IUC. This cross-sectional observational study was conducted at a general pediatric outpatient clinic located in Vienna, Austria. An anonymous, voluntary and 14-items-containing questionnaire served to gather all data. A total number of 500 questionnaires were collected. Of the parents attending the outpatient clinic, 21 % use the internet before the appointment (= IUC). Most common online resources utilized for this purpose are websites run by doctors (61.3 %), the outpatient clinic's homepage (56.3 %), Google (40 %), Wikipedia (32.5 %), health advisory services provided by doctors (28.7 %), health portals (21.3 %) and health forums and communities (18.8 %). The information level in terms of the reason for consultation is rated as good by 50.6 %, as average by 46.7 % and as insufficient by 2.7 % (internet users: 42.7 %, 55.3 %, 1.9 %). Acute diseases of the children are estimated to be mild by 58.4 %, to be moderate by 41.1 % and to be severe by 0.5 % (internet users: 54.9 %, 45.1 %, 0 %). After having used any source of information, this assessment is unchanged in 82.8 %, acute diseases are rated as more severe in 13.8 % and as less severe in 3.4 % (internet users: 79.2 %, 16.7 %, 4.2 %). Internet users and non-users do not differ with respect to their information level (p = 0.178), the assessment of acute diseases (p = 0.691) and the change in this assessment (p = 0.999). A higher education level of parents (mothers: p = 0.025, fathers: p = 0.037), a young age of their children (p = 0.012) and acute diseases of their children (p = 0.046) predispose to IUC.","To evaluate the Flexible Option (FO), a residency training schedule offered by the University of California, San Francisco, Pediatric Residency Program. In 2002, structured telephone interviews were conducted with residents who participated in the FO between 1992 and 2002. Twenty-four of the 284 pediatrics residents during this time participated in the FO. Descriptive interview data were analyzed. A Web-based questionnaire was sent to 72 regularly scheduled (RS) residents at the end of 2001-02. FO and RS residents' specialty board performances were compared. Twenty-one FO residents participated in the telephone interviews. The majority reported that the FO was critical to their success as residents. Most requested the FO for personal and family reasons; over 40% would otherwise have requested leaves from the residency. The most common perceived disadvantages were delay in graduation and financial concerns. Forty-two RS residents completed the online questionnaire. Seventeen percent considered the FO an important factor in program selection; 43% had considered participating in the FO. Seventy-nine percent felt that the FO had a positive effect on the general morale of the program. RS residents perceived that the FO increased workload (43%) and created scheduling problems (52%). However, 88% of RS residents encouraged the program to continue offering the FO. Specialty board scores were similar across FO and RS residents.","The aim of this study was to document the experience and patient satisfaction with providing pediatric surgery consultations and follow-up appointments to remote locations via audiovisual telecommunications technology. From January 2000 to April 2001, 16 consecutive pediatric general surgery clinics were reviewed for the type of patient (new or review), the diagnosis, the adequacy and accuracy of the evaluation, and the ability to formulate a plan. In the first year, first-time users were requested to complete a satisfaction survey of 15 questions. Responses to 13 questions were recorded on a 4-point Likert scale, and 2 questions required a \"yes\" or \"no\" response. One hundred eighteen appointments were scheduled. Twenty patients did not show up or cancelled. There were 45 new patient consultations. Thirty-three patients were scheduled for surgery, of which, 21 are completed, and 12 are pending. There were no errors in diagnosis or changes in planned procedures. There were 42 patients seen in 53 follow-up sessions. Thirty-six surveys of a possible 53 were available for analysis. The mean rating of overall treatment experience at Telehealth was 3.47 (95% confidence interval 0.17). One hundred percent responded they would use Telehealth again and would recommend it to another person.","The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) has established communication as a core competency for physicians in training. However, data suggest that most pediatric residents perceive inadequate training in the delivery of bad news and the majority of former trainees in pediatric oncology received no formal training in the delivery of bad news during fellowship. The study examines communication training in ACGME accredited US pediatric hematology-oncology (PHO) fellowship programs. An online survey was distributed to 315 PHO fellows in training via the American Society of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology (ASPHO) fellow email registry. Each fellow received an initial request to participate and 2 reminders, while participation was encouraged through a random incentive drawing. One hundred and ten fellows (35%) responded. Eighty percent of respondents perceived communication training to be important to fellow education, however only 32% reported receiving communication training (other than direct observation). The most common reported teaching method of fellowship communication training was formal lecture (42%). Twenty-three percent of respondents reported neither communication training nor frequent feedback on their communication skills from faculty observation. This same group was the least satisfied with their programs' approach to teaching communication (P<0.001).","We determined parent recall and perceived usefulness of drowning prevention messages included in routine computer-generated discharge instructions. All pediatric emergency department patients' computerized discharge instructions included 3 prevention messages: wear a life vest, swim in safe areas, and do not drink alcohol while swimming or boating. Parents were telephoned 1 to 2 weeks after the visit and asked to recall the prevention messages and rate the usefulness of the instructions. Responses were linked with patient characteristics and ED visit variables (day and time of visit, duration of ED visit, severity of condition, diagnostic category, number of tests, and treatments). Of 914 parents who were contacted, 795 were eligible. Of those, 619 (78%) completed the interview. Fifty percent of parents recalled receiving drowning prevention information; of these, 41% recalled unaided the life vest messages and 35% of 155 parents who did not own a life vest stated they would subsequently consider buying their child a life vest. Most (88%) rated the prevention information useful or very useful. No patient or visit variables were associated with usefulness ratings.","Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).","Surveys of residency graduates and employers have suggested that residency programs do not prepare residents well for practice. Since 1988, pediatric residents at the University of Massachusetts have been paired one-on-one with an office-based pediatrician for their 3-year continuity experience. This survey was conducted to determine if graduates of such a program are prepared to enter pediatric practice. Graduates of the program from 1991 through 1995 who entered primary care practice were surveyed about their preparedness for practice. The questionnaire was also sent to the residents' first employers. The 32 questions were directed to overall sense of preparedness, ability to manage the pace of practice, common illnesses, common behavior problems, anticipatory guidance, office management, and subspecialty problems. Data from all 25 residents who entered practice and the employers of 20 of the 25 residents were obtained and analyzed. Both groups rated overall resident preparedness to be \"well-prepared\" or \"very well-prepared\" and gave high scores on working at the pace of practice, diagnosing and treating common illnesses, diagnosing and treating common behavior problems, and providing anticipatory guidance. Areas in which residents were considered to be less well-prepared included anticipatory guidance about nutrition, managing problems by telephone, office management, gynecology, and orthopedics.","A computerized kiosk based in a pediatric ED can help screen families for their injury risk. However, to elicit significant behavior change, an IPS discussing safety changes may be more effective.","The purpose of this study was to measure the effect of distractions, in the form of telephone call interruptions, on radiology resident diagnostic accuracy. Radiology resident discrepancy reports and reading room telephone logs at an academic tertiary care pediatric hospital were collected over a 13-month period. Phone call times and durations were recorded. Major discrepancy shifts (defined as a call shift where at least one major discrepancy was discovered the following morning by the attending radiologist between the resident preliminary and attending final reports), and dictation time stamps for each discrepant preliminary dictation were also recorded. Telephone call volume and preliminary report time stamps were compared between \"discrepancy shifts\" and \"no discrepancy shifts.\" Each call shift spanned 14 hours, during which one radiology resident was responsible for the generation of preliminary interpretations. Review of the discrepancy log data revealed 51 major discrepancies in 41 shifts, of which 39 discrepancies had documented error details and resident preliminary report time stamps. The average number of telephone calls for the \"discrepancy shifts\" was slightly greater than the \"no discrepancy shifts\" (48.59 vs. 44.02) but was not statistically significant (P = .0575). However, there was a statistically significant increase in the average number of phone calls in the 1 hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report versus the \"no discrepancy shifts\" (4.23 vs. 3.24 calls, P = .027). One additional phone call during the hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report resulted in a 12% increased likelihood of a resident error (P = .017).","The aim of this study was to compare parental perception of quality of care provided by first- versus third-year pediatric residents who served as their children's primary care providers. The Parents' Perception of Primary Care (P3C) survey was administered to all parents who identified a pediatric resident as a primary care provider at 19 Continuity Research Network (CORNET) sites. Parent survey scores were compared between those identifying first-year pediatric residents (PL-1) versus third-year pediatric residents (PL-3) as care providers by using t tests and linear regression modeling, as well as item-specific chi-square analysis and logistic regression. Comparing the responses of the 347 parents who identified a PL-3 resident and the 360 parents who identified a PL-1 resident as their child's primary care provider, those who identified a PL-3 resident rated their childrens overall care higher, with a mean score of 79.2 (95% confidence interval [95% CI] 77.5-80.8) as compared to 75.9 (95% CI 74.4-77.3); P<.05. This disparity was primarily due to differences in the longitudinal continuity domain. Comparisons of the other domains of communication, comprehensiveness, access, contextual knowledge, and coordination showed no statistically significant differences between the 2 groups. Parents rated PL-3 residents as having greater knowledge in behavioral counseling and coordination with schools than PL-1 residents.","To determine whether family members interfere with patient care when present during invasive procedures performed on their children in the ED. A prospective observational study of consecutive cases of procedural sedation of children aged between 12 months and 16 years was conducted between March 2002 and March 2006 in the ED of a secondary-level regional hospital in south-east Queensland. Procedures performed included laceration repair, fracture reduction, foreign body removal and abscess incision and drainage. Parents/primary caregivers were encouraged to stay with their child. A stepwise explanation of the procedure and sedation to be used was undertaken, informed consent obtained and telephone follow up attempted 5-14 days post procedure. Six hundred and fifty-two patient encounters with parents or primary caregivers present for the procedure were included for a total of 656 procedures: 234 laceration repairs, 250 fracture reductions, 85 foreign body removals, 33 abscess incision and drainages, 14 dislocation reductions and 40 other procedures. Telephone follow up was successful in 65% (424) of cases. The mean age was 6.5 years. Family member interference occurred in one case (0.15%, 95% confidence interval 0-0.73%). In 17 cases (2.68%, 95% confidence interval 2.1-5.9%) family members present expressed concerns about the procedure during the telephone follow up but had not interfered at the time of the procedure. There were no significant differences between the concerned parents at follow up and the study group across key patient variables such as child's age (P = 0.369), weight (P = 0.379), respiratory rate (P = 0.477), sex (P = 0.308), procedure indication (P = 0.308) and airway manoeuvres (P = 0.153).","The Institute of Medicine has called for physician education as a key step in medical error prevention. In our 2002 national survey, pediatric resident education about medical error prevention was sporadic. We sought to describe the amount and type of pediatric resident training about medical errors and to assess the change in training since 2002. We surveyed a national sample of 50 pediatric chief residents randomly selected from the 198 Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education-accredited residency programs from August to November 2010. The 31-item telephone survey was developed from the 2002 survey, with the addition of 10 items about electronic learning and resident quality improvement projects. The survey included 4 domains: current patient safety curriculum, chief resident knowledge, learning from medical errors, and demographics. We phoned 55 chief residents and contacted 51. Fifty participated (90% participation rate). Ninety-four percent of chief residents stated that their program had a formalized curriculum to discuss medical errors, compared to only 50% (P<.001) in 2002. Ninety-six percent understood that the response to a medical error should be systemic change. The primary method for educating residents about medical error reported was informal teaching. Ninety-two percent reported never or rarely discussing medical error in an outpatient setting. Seventy-four percent of chief residents reported that they never or rarely learn from an error made by an attending physician, and 50% never or rarely learned from an error made by a fellow resident.","yes. Calls received by a daytime nurse telephone triage office in an affluent SP and a UP are similar in regard to medical problems. Training programs can feasibly prepare physicians and nurses for both kinds of practice settings. The urban site received more calls affected by language and social issues. This could have administrative implications for staffing ratios, language skills of staff and knowledge of available support services.","Evaluation procedures that rely solely on attending physician ratings may not identify residents who display poor communication skills or unprofessional behavior. Inclusion of non-physician evaluators should capture a more complete account of resident competency. No published reports have examined the relationship between resident evaluations obtained from different sources in pediatric settings. The objective of this study was to determine whether parent and nurse ratings of specific resident behaviors significantly differ from those of attending physicians. Thirty-six pediatric residents were evaluated by parents, nurses, and attending physicians during their first year of training. For analysis, the percentage of responses in the highest response category was calculated for each resident on each item. Differences between attending physician ratings and those of parents and nurses were compared using the signed rank test. Parent and attending physician ratings were similar on most items, but attending physicians indicated that they frequently were unable to observe the behaviors of interest. Nurses rated residents lower than did attending physicians on items that related to respecting staff (69% vs 97%), accepting suggestions (56% vs 82%), teamwork (63% vs 88%), being sensitive and empathetic (62% vs 85%), respecting confidentiality (73% vs 97%), demonstrating integrity (75% vs 92%), and demonstrating accountability (67% vs 83%). Nurse responses were higher than attending physicians on anticipating postdischarge needs (46% vs 25%) and effectively planning care (52% vs 33%).","To examine if telephones overcome geographical barriers to accessing primary care out-of-hours by parents of young children. Mixed methods including quantitative analysis of 5697 calls about children aged 0-4 years, 30 hours of observation at primary care centres, eight interviews with parents and a review of 80 telephone call recordings. Call rates for children (0-4 years) decreased with increasing distance: the 20% of people who lived furthest from a primary care centre made fewer calls, 570 per 1000 patients/year (95% CI 558 to 582) than the 20% living closest, 652 (95% CI 644 to 661). Overall, call rates decreased with increasing rurality. Qualitative analysis suggested that this geographical variation was linked to familiarity with the system (notably previous contact with health services) and the availability of services, legitimacy of demand (particularly for children) and negotiation about mode of care.","To ascertain why parents use an accident and emergency department for health care for their infants. Prospective one month study. One accident and emergency department of a children's hospital in the east end of London. Parents of 159 infants aged<9 months attending as self referrals (excluding infants attending previously or inpatients within one month, parents advised by the hospital to attend if concerned about their child's health, infants born abroad and arrived in Britain within the previous month). Details of birth, postnatal hospital stay, contact with health professionals, perceptions of roles of community midwife and health visitor, and current attendance obtained from a semistructured questionnaire administered in the department by a research health visitor; diagnosis, discharge, and follow up. 152(96%) parents were interviewed, 43(28%) of whom were single parent and 68(45%) first time mothers. Presenting symptoms included diarrhoea or vomiting, or both (34, 22%), crying (21, 14%), and feeding difficulties (10, 7%). Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection was diagnosed in 70(46%) infants. Only 17(11%) infants were admitted; hospital follow up was arranged for 27(20%) infants not admitted. Most (141, 94%) parents were registered with a general practitioner; 146(27%) had contact with the community midwife and 135(89%) the health visitor.","An emergency department (ED) visit may be an effective place to screen and educate families about injury prevention. The purpose of this study was to determine if a computerized kiosk in a pediatric ED can screen families for injury risk and encourage them to make more safety changes at follow-up survey compared with an injury prevention specialist (IPS). A prospective, randomized controlled study was performed with families of children younger than 14 years in an ED lobby. Families were screened for injury risk by computerized kiosk based on child's age category at triage (birth to 1 year, 1-4 years, 5-9 years, or 10-14 years). Families were randomized to receive either injury behavior instructions by kiosk printout or by IPS when answers to specific practices were deemed unsafe. Three weeks after intervention, families were telephoned to determine change in safety practices. Three hundred seventeen families completed ED kiosk screen at enrollment (172 kiosk, 145 IPS). On initial screen, kiosk families practiced 79.6% of behaviors safely versus 75.9% in the IPS group (p = 0.011). A total of 221 families (69.7%) were reached for follow-up (121 kiosk, 100 IPS). On average, IPS families improved their safe behavior responses by 8.3% versus 1.0% in the kiosk group (p<0.0001). Significantly more families in the IPS group than in the kiosk group (36% vs. 23%, p<0.03) used additional safety equipment after the intervention.","Health education messages are posted in nearly all the waiting rooms studied; parents remember them in a variable and rather inexplicable order. Posting these messages demonstrates the pediatricians' willingness to be involved - beyond the simple consultation - in the health education of children and families. Identifying the real impact of these messages would require further study.","To compare triage categorization as a measure of perceived patient acuity on presentation to the emergency department by pediatric emergency medicine (PEM) attending physicians, nurses, and pediatric residents with their general emergency medicine (GEM) counterparts. A questionnaire that contained 12 pediatric triage scenarios was sent to all PEM attending physicians, triage-trained nurses, and pediatric residents and their GEM counterparts at a large urban hospital with separate pediatric and general emergency departments. Participants were asked to use a 3-tier triage system (emergent, urgent, nonurgent) to assign a triage level for each patient scenario. The response rate was 99%. The kappa level of agreement was highest (.39) among the PEM physicians. Significantly more GEM attending physicians triaged the following scenarios at a higher acuity level as compared with PEM attending physicians with a trend toward emergent triage: simple febrile seizure, 50% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%); 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips, 21% (95% CI: 9%-43%) versus 0% (95% CI: 0%-23%); and 15-month-old well-appearing child with high fever, 50% (95% CI: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%). Significant differences were found between GEM and PEM triage-trained nurses only in the 15-month-old high fever scenario and between GEM and pediatric residents in the 15-month-old high fever scenario, the 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips scenario, and a fever/limp scenario.","yes. A well-educated and technologically sophisticated parent population does not favour advanced communication technologies over simple, face-to-face interaction in an in-hospital setting. These parents are prepared to receive technology-based information about their child's surgery and to schedule non-emergency hospital appointments online.","To determine whether there is a significant difference in initial successful contact when attempting follow-up of patients discharged from a pediatric emergency department (ED) using either pagers or the telephone. In addition, to evaluate whether the combination of both pager and telephone follow-up is more successful than telephone follow-up alone when confined to a 2-hour period. A prospective comparison of intervention and control groups taken from convenience samples of patients seen in an ED of an urban, tertiary care children's hospital. One hundred eighty-five patients whose families had access to both a pager and a telephone (intervention group) and 112 patients whose families had access to only a telephone (control group) were enrolled. Before discharging the patient from the ED, the investigators verified a pager number and/or a best contact telephone number for a follow-up telephone call. Participants were divided into 2 groups. The intervention group consisted of caretakers with both pagers and telephones. The control group consisted of caretakers with only telephones. On even calendar days after ED visits, intervention group caretakers were paged initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. On odd calendar days, intervention group caretakers were telephoned initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. Successful contact was defined as communication with a family member or guardian over the age of 18. If the caretaker spoke only Spanish, a translator was used. In a crossover design with the intervention group, if contact was unsuccessful after 1 hour, the alternative mode of communication was used at noon. Control group caretakers were telephoned from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. If telephone contact was unsuccessful, they were called again 1 hour later. Two hundred forty-six (36%) of 685 of the convenience sample of caretakers had access to both a pager and a telephone. Fifty-two (55%) of 94 intervention caretakers were contacted initially using pagers versus 47 (52%) of 91 intervention caretakers contacted initially by telephones. Overall successful contact of intervention caretakers (telephones and pagers) was 145 (78%) of 185 when confined to a 2-hour time period. In contrast, overall successful contact of control caretakers was 68 (61%) of 112 when confined to a 2-hour time period. Successful contact was greater with the intervention caretakers than with control caretakers (78% vs 61%).","Patients often establish initial contact with healthcare institutions by telephone. During this process they are frequently medically triaged. To investigate the safety of computer-assisted telephone triage for walk-in patients with non-life-threatening medical conditions at an emergency unit of a Swiss university hospital. This prospective surveillance study compared the urgency assessments of three different types of personnel (call centre nurses, hospital physicians, primary care physicians) who were involved in the patients' care process. Based on the urgency recommendations of the hospital and primary care physicians, cases which could potentially have resulted in an avoidable hazardous situation (AHS) were identified. Subsequently, the records of patients with a potential AHS were assessed for risk to health or life by an expert panel. 208 patients were enrolled in the study, of whom 153 were assessed by all three types of personnel. Congruence between the three assessments was low. The weighted κ values were 0.115 (95% CI 0.038 to 0.192) (hospital physicians vs call centre), 0.159 (95% CI 0.073 to 0.242) (primary care physicians vs call centre) and 0.377 (95% CI 0.279 to 0.480) (hospital vs primary care physicians). Seven of 153 cases (4.57%; 95% CI 1.85% to 9.20%) were classified as a potentially AHS. A risk to health or life was adjudged in one case (0.65%; 95% CI 0.02% to 3.58%).","Patient experience scores are now recognized as a chief indicator of healthcare quality. This report compares outpatient pediatric otolaryngology patient satisfaction in the teaching and non-teaching settings. Cross-sectional, multi-site, patient-level analysis of satisfaction surveys (Press Ganey™ Medical Practice©) completed by parents of pediatric otolaryngology patients in FY2010. Surveys were stratified by teaching/non-teaching affiliation. The survey has 29 Likert-scaled questions which comprise an overall score and subscores in 6 domains: access, visit, nursing, provider, personal issues, and assessment. The item likelihood-to-recommend was measured to indicate practice loyalty. Mean scores were compared by Kruskal-Wallis rank test. Multivariate logistic regression was performed to evaluate the association of teaching status with receipt of highest scores (HI-SCORES). 4704 pediatric surveys were analyzed, with 1984 (42%) from the teaching setting. For the teaching setting, mean scores were lower overall (88.1 vs. 89.0; p<0.001) and in domains of access (includes scheduling ease, promptness in returning calls; 86.7 vs. 89.4; p<0.001) and personal issues (includes office hour convenience, sensitivity to needs; 87.0 vs. 88.5; p<0.001). Differences in access scores were largest for young children (0-<6 years; 86.0 vs. 89.5; p<0.001). Children in the teaching setting were less likely to have HI-SCORES overall (OR 0.78; 95%CI 0.65-0.95; p=0.011) and for access (OR 0.8; 95%CI 0.67-0.95; p=0.012); probability of HI-SCORES was similar for the two settings for all other domains.","To assess the presence and impact of health education messages in pediatricians' waiting rooms. In September 2001, 81 pediatricians completed a questionnaire about the furnishings and equipment in their waiting rooms. They also distributed a questionnaire about waiting room health education messages to parents, to be completed at home. The analysis considered 1830 questionnaires. Health education messages were posted in 91% of the waiting rooms and most frequently concerned children's accidents, vaccines, hygiene and nutrition. The best topics that the parents remembered involved child neglect, antibiotic therapy, AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases, and nutrition. Although memorization of the messages was not influenced by duration of the wait, it was higher among parents who had previously visited the pediatrician. These messages led 14% of the parents to discuss them spontaneously with their pediatrician.","(1) To assess pediatric residents' attitudes and practices related to counseling about and prescribing emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) for teens. (2) To determine whether attitudes, counseling, and prescribing practices vary among different levels of residency training. Questionnaire. Two large inner-city academic medical centers in New York City. Pediatric residents (PGY 1-3). Attitudes, counseling and prescribing patterns of ECPs by the pediatric residents 101/120 residents participated in the survey; 35% PGY1, 38% PGY2, 28% PGY3. Less than a third (26%) reported counseling teens about the availability of ECPs during routine non-acute care visits and just over half (56%) provided ECP counseling during visits for contraception. Only 6% of pediatric residents reported that they prescribed ECPs often, while 42% never prescribed ECPs. The majority of the residents did not think that prescribing ECPs would encourage teens to practice unsafe sex or would discourage compliance with other contraceptive methods (70% and 68%, respectively). However, the majority (67%) also reported that they did not think that ECPs should be available over the counter, without prescription. Further analysis by year of training showed that more junior and senior residents than interns counseled adolescents about ECPs at both routine health care maintenance visits and at visits for contraception (32% vs 15%; 62% vs 42%, respectively), would provide adolescent girls with ECPs to have on hand prior to an episode of unprotected sex (52% vs 31%), and thought that ECPs should be available over the counter (39% vs 20%), P<0.05.","Excessive, sometimes unnecessary consultation challenges the ophthalmology resident's ability to obtain adequate rest and personal time while taking at-home calls. Basic training of nonophthalmologists in assessing and treating common ophthalmic emergencies offers a potential solution to this problem by providing primary caregivers the knowledge base, tools, and confidence to manage them independently. We measured ophthalmic consultation requests at a large teaching institution and the impact of an educational intervention on the number and type of requests. During a 31-day period in 2009 all requests for urgent ophthalmic consultation were logged and characterized by reason, urgency, and source of the call. A 3-part educational intervention was targeted to residents and attending physicians in the departments of emergency medicine (half-day lecture and practice), anesthesiology (grand rounds lecture), and otolaryngology (guidelines for traumatic orbital fractures). Six months later we conducted a 26-day call log to evaluate the impact. Pre intervention, we received 63 total and 56 after-hours calls for urgent ophthalmic consultation as compared to 39 total and 35 after-hours calls post intervention. Ophthalmology residents reported seeing more urgent and fewer nonessential consultations in the postintervention period, and there was greater agreement between calling physicians' initial diagnosis and consulting physicians' final diagnosis. No adverse patient outcomes occurred as a result of the change in practices.","The purpose of this study was to investigate factors related to well-child visit noncompliance in an ethnically diverse family practice clinic population. Participants included 146 parents (131 mothers and 15 fathers) of children aged 0 to 24 months who received care at a St. Paul residency clinic. Participants completed telephone surveys that asked about their demographic characteristics, attitudes toward well-child visits, whether the most recent planned well-child visit had been kept, and their own and their child's health characteristics. All participants thought that well-child visits were important, with immunizations being the highest rated reason for importance. Fourteen percent of parents said they had missed a recent well-child visit, mostly because they forgot. More than three fourths of parents believed visit reminders were helpful, and the preferred type of reminder was a telephone call. Noncompliance with well-child visits was associated with the parent's depressive symptoms, transportation difficulties, working at a job, having private (vs public) health insurance, and being older (vs younger).","At our institution, patients undergoing selected operative procedures are referred to a protocol for telephone follow-up by surgical specialty nurses. Our objective was to review our experience with this protocol to determine if telephone follow-up is a safe and preferred alternative to the traditional postoperative clinic visit. Records of patients followed up by telephone over 6 months were evaluated for information regarding each patient's postoperative course. Records included telephone follow-up forms, clinic notes, and emergency department records. A total of 563 patients underwent a total of 601 procedures. Seventy-six percent (n = 427) were successfully contacted postoperatively; 24% (n = 136) did not respond to multiple contact attempts. Forty-five requests for clinic follow-up resulted in 27 actual visits, 10 from families not satisfied with telephone contact alone. Most families contacted (382/427, 90%) were satisfied and did not request an appointment. A total of 43 postoperative clinic or emergency department evaluations resulted in 9 interventions (1.6% complication rate).","Studies demonstrate gaps in anticipatory guidance during well-child visits, but none consider academic teaching hospitals where physician trainees also provide counseling. We prospectively assessed parental perception of anticipatory guidance at the outpatient clinic of an academic teaching hospital. Parents of patients newborn to<60 months old completed questionnaires regarding providers seen and anticipatory guidance preferences. Of 204 parents, 40% saw the child's primary attending alone. There was no association between providers seen and the number of topics covered. Seeing the child's primary attending alone increased the odds that parents' priority topics were covered compared with another attending (odds ratio [OR] = 0.31; 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.11-0.90) or the addition of a resident (OR = 0.35; 95% CI = 0.16-0.77) or medical student (OR = 0.33; 95% CI = 0.12-0.90).","Our objective was to assess the occurrence of pediatric emergencies in the offices of family physicians and pediatricians, the preparedness to respond, and the perceived importance of being prepared. We performed a cross-sectional random mail survey of physicians. Surveys were sent to 187 family physicians and 129 pediatricians practicing in North Carolina with 75% and 86% response rates, respectively. The 169 total respondents were in community practices regularly treating children and were included for analysis. We measured the incidence of 8 types of pediatric emergencies, the availability of 11 items for resuscitation and stabilization, whether the physician had Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) training in the previous 2 years, whether the office ever conducted a mock emergency, and beliefs about the importance of preparing for and providing emergency care to children. Six types of pediatric emergencies were seen in one third or more of all practices during the year. The average practice saw 4 or more pediatric emergencies in a year (family physicians = 3.8 vs pediatricians = 4.9, P<.001). Family physicians had fewer resuscitation and stabilization items than pediatricians (5.7 vs 8.6 items, P<.001) and were less prepared in terms of PALS training (19% vs 51%, P<.001). Those with PALS training were more likely to have an intraosseous needle and Broselow tape and to have conducted a mock code. Family physicians considered it is less important than pediatricians to provide such care or to be prepared to do so.","The proportions of callers who sought unadvised medical care and who received unadvised significant care were not significantly different in the advice nurse and pediatrician groups. This suggests that advice nurses do not delay significant medical treatment when compared with pediatricians.","We hypothesized that advanced information and communication technology (ICT) would be acceptable to parents in a pediatric surgical, and diagnostic imaging day care setting. After Ethics Committee approval, we distributed surveys, over a one-month period, to parents of children arriving for day care surgery or diagnostic imaging. Parents indicated their acceptance of various proposed modes of postoperative discussion of healthcare i.e.; face-to-face, videophone, or telephone. Parents were also asked to describe their receptiveness to scheduling non-emergency hospital appointments online and to receiving electronic media describing their child's surgery and postoperative management. Parental education, income, and familiarity with the Internet were also assessed. A total of 451 surveys (84% response rate) were returned. Most parents (95%) had access to the Internet and 70% did their banking online. Forty-two percent of the parents had at least a university education and 63% had an annual family income > $50,000 Canadian. The majority of parents (98%) accepted face-to-face interaction, while only 35% and 37% of parents were receptive to videophone and telephone interviews, respectively. Computer availability (P = 0.001) and online banking (P = 0.011) were the only variables that predicted those parents who were in favour of using videophone technology. Parents were receptive to instruction electronic media (80%) and booking appointments online (61%).","The goal was to examine pediatricians' views about whether and how well-child care for children 0 to 5 years of age should be changed. A mail survey of a national random sample of 1000 general pediatricians was performed with a survey instrument that examined pediatricians' attitudes and behaviors toward our current way and an ideal way of providing well-child care. Results were analyzed for the following 3 major domains of change in well-child care: provider type, visit format, and visit location. Sixty percent (n = 502) of eligible subjects responded to the survey. Nearly all respondents (97%) rated the current US system as excellent or good in providing well-child care. Most pediatricians (85%-91%) reported that they are currently the main providers of anticipatory guidance, developmental screening, and psychosocial screening. However, a majority (54%-60%) reported that, in an ideal system that maximized the effectiveness and efficiency of care, nonphysicians would provide these services. Fewer pediatricians (24%) reported that ideally nonphysicians should provide the physical examination. The majority of respondents (79%-93%) reported that at least some anticipatory guidance, minor acute care, and chronic care services could be conducted through telephone or e-mail communication, and 55% stated that at least some well-child care services should be provided in alternative locations, such as day care centers. In multivariate analysis, support for these changes was distributed widely across pediatricians with varying personal and practice characteristics.","The Internet has become in recent years an unlimited source of health-related information and revolutionized health information access. Follow-up after an emergency department (ED) visit is important for continuity of care but is difficult to achieve. We conducted this study to determine whether e-mail could become a method for a follow-up contact after leaving the pediatric ED. Over a 2-month period, parents who had a telephone line and e-mail access and whose child was discharged from the ED at the Hospital for Sick Children in Toronto were randomized to receive an e-mail or a telephone follow-up. Main outcome measure was the response rates by parents to the telephone or e-mail. A total of 265 (79%) of the 337 families who were approached had Internet access, and the majority (75%) check e-mails at least once a day. Eighty-seven percent (85 of 98) and 53% (53 of 100) of the families who were contacted by telephone or e-mail, respectively, were reached within an average of 17 and 46 hours, respectively. Fourteen percent of families from the study population were unreachable either by telephone or by e-mail. Most (57%) parents who did not respond to the e-mail did not check or did not remember reading the e-mail or had trouble with access. Ten percent of the e-mails were undeliverable.","Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).","Understanding discharge instructions is crucial to optimal healing but may be compromised in the hectic environment of the emergency department. To determine parents' understanding of ED discharge instructions and factors that may affect it. A convenience sample of parents of children discharged home from the ED of an urban tertiary care pediatric facility (n = 287) and a suburban level II general hospital (n = 195) completed a 13 item questionnaire covering demographics, level of anxiety, and quality of physician's explanation. Parents also described their child's diagnosis and treatment instructions and indicated preferred auxiliary methods of delivery of information. Data were analyzed using the BMPD statistical package. Full understanding was found in 72% and 78% of the parents at the respective centers for the diagnosis, and in 82% and 87% for the treatment instructions (P = NS between centers). There was no statistical correlation between level of understanding and parental age, gender, education, level of anxiety before or after the ED visit, or time of day. The most contributory factor to lack of understanding was staff use of medical terminology. Parents suggested further explanations by a special discharge nurse and written information as auxiliary methods.","To determine whether implementation of a set of standardized pediatric telephone triage protocols results in consistent triage dispositions when applied by different operators. A descriptive study with interrater comparisons was performed. Telephone interviews simulated the setting of a triage station in a university hospital-based pediatric emergency department. A mock parent presented 15 standardized respiratory cases in random order to 12 pediatric ED nurses. Nurses assigned patients' complaints to severity categories using 9 respiratory complaint protocols extracted from a commercially available pediatric telephone triage tool. Protocol selection and severity endpoints were recorded. Interobserver agreement among nurses was analyzed by the kappa statistic. Comparisons of operator characteristics and triage results were carried out by ANOVA. Interrater agreement in triage disposition among nurses was poor (kappa,.11; 95% confidence interval,.02 to.20). Protocol selection varied; the group used a mean of 3 different disposition-generating protocols per case. Disposition also varied, with up to 4 different severity endpoints per protocol in a given case. A post-hoc comparison of the mean disposition severity between nurses did not reach significance at an adjusted level (P =.04). Fifty-eight percent of the nurses felt confined by the protocols, and 42% admitted to at least 1 intentional deviation from them.","There is concern that after-hours nurse telephone triage systems are overwhelming the emergency department (ED) with nonemergent pediatric referrals. This study aimed to critically review a nonpediatric hospital-based call center with the aim of identifying the algorithms responsible for the majority of nonessential referrals. This is a retrospective observational study performed at a tertiary medical care facility over 1 year. Telephone triage forms of children and adolescents younger than 18 years, exclusively referred by triage nurses using the Barton Schmitt protocols, were reviewed, and their ED course was evaluated by consulting the electronic medical record. \"Essential\" referrals to the ED were classified as presentations warranting immediate evaluation or referrals requiring \"essential interventions\" such as serum laboratory tests, imaging, complex procedures, intravenous medications, subspecialty consultation, or admission. A total of 220 patients were included in this study. Of these, 73 (33%) were classified as nonessential, whereas 147 (67%) were classified as essential. Nonessential patients were significantly younger compared with essential referrals (P<0.05). They also had lower triage scores (P = 0.026) and shorter ED stays (P<0.0001). The algorithms for \"fever-3 months or older\" (12.3%), \"vomiting without diarrhea\" (8.2%), \"trauma-head\" (8.2%), \"headache\" (6.8%), and \"sore throat\" (5.5%) were determined most likely to result in a nonessential referral.","The telephone is better than e-mail as a follow-up channel with families of children who visit the pediatric ED. The main reason for not responding to e-mails is \"technical problems.\" E-mail could be a mean for follow-up contact for part of our patient population, especially for nonurgent purposes.","Our study identifies that a third of unnecessary pediatric visits to the ED occurred as a result of the nurse triage telephone system in question. We recommend review of the algorithms stated to reduce strain on local ED resources.","To compare daytime nurse telephone triage calls received by a suburban practice with those received by a hospital-based, inner-city pediatric practice. A research assistant, listening simultaneously with triage personnel, prospectively coded all calls received by the nurse triage telephone offices in 2 pediatric practices. Calls were coded the first full, nonholiday week of 3 consecutive summer and 3 consecutive winter months, alternating morning and afternoon sessions. One practice was suburban and had almost all commercially insured patients; the other was hospital-based, in an inner-city, and consisted mostly of patients with Medicaid coverage or no health insurance. A total of 901 calls were triaged in the suburban practice (SP) and 768 in the urban practice (UP). The chief complaints of calls regarding medical problems were similar at both sites. Difficulties with language were noted less often in SP compared with UP (1% vs 17%). The reason for the calls differed by site: medical problem relating to illness or injury (SP 55% vs UP 40%); social issue (SP 1% vs UP 9%); documentation request (SP 2% vs UP 7%); request for laboratory work (SP.3% vs UP 4%); and well child advice (SP 9% vs UP 5%). The disposition of calls also differed by site: telephone advice was offered significantly more in SP than in UP (32% vs 20%); fewer calls required the need for the medical record in SP than in UP (2% vs 12%).","Advice nurse call centers are used to ensure access to medical advice, thereby potentially reducing the costs of health services. To determine if medical advice from advice nurses and on-call physicians delays significant medical treatment in a general pediatrics population. Randomized controlled trial. A university general pediatrics faculty practice. Parents or guardians calling for after-hours advice regarding their children.Intervention After-hours medical advice calls were randomized at the time of the call to an advice nurse or an on-call pediatrician. The proportion of callers who sought medical care not advised by the advice nurse or on-call pediatrician and the proportion who received unadvised significant care. There were 1182 advice calls: 566 in the pediatrician group and 616 in the advice nurse group. There were no significant differences in the types of telephone triage advice in the physician and advice nurse groups. There was no significant difference in the proportion of callers who sought unadvised care (108 [19.9%] in the physician group vs 110 [19.0%]in the advice nurse group) or in the proportion of callers who received unadvised significant care (23 [4.2%] in the physician group vs 25 [4.3%]in the advice nurse group).","Telephone calls for advice are common in pediatric emergency departments. This study was conducted to determine the nature of these calls and the answers provided. From 24 April through 24 July 1994, all telephone calls requesting pediatric advice in the emergency department of the Poissy Hospital were independently analysed by two pediatricians from forms prospectively filled in for each call by the resident or the attending people who answered the call. Of the 239 registered calls, 186 could be analysed. They represented, in number, 15.25% of the children seen at the same emergency department during the study period. Weekend and holiday calls accounted for 35.5% of calls. 7.8% of calls were received from 0.01 am to 8.00 am, 28.7% from 8.01 am to 4.00 pm, and 63.5% from 4.01 pm to 12.00 pm. Thirty-seven percent concerned children under one year of age. The caller was one of the parents in 93% of cases. The four most frequent complaints were fever (26.5%), requests for information (17.2%), rash (12.3%), and vomiting (10.2%). The review of calls by two pediatricians determined that 67% of children did not need to be seen by a physician within six hours; 28% needed to be seen within 6 hours, and 5% needed to be seen within one hour. The advice given was followed in 88% of cases; 96% of callers were satisfied with their calls management.","A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.","yes. Telephone advice constitutes an important part of the activity in the pediatric emergency department. Instructional programs in telephone management are necessary for physicians. These programs should include communication skills and familiarization with protocols concerning the most frequent complaints, especially those regarding children under one year of age."],"string":"[\n \"the Internet is the world's fastest growing source of health related information. Parents and guardians are increasingly turning to the Internet for information about their children's medical conditions and treatments. This paper has the following objectives 1) determine the prevalence of web searches for medical information performed by parents/guardians of children undergoing ENT surgery in a private hospital of Sao Paulo, Brazil. 2) assess whether the gathered information influenced the parents/guardians' decision on the treatment/surgery. questionnaire voluntarily responded by 132 parents/guardians of children submitted to ENT surgery in a private hospital in Sao Paulo, Brazil.\",\n \"Previous research indicates physicians frequently choose a patient problem to explore before determining the patient's full spectrum of concerns. To examine the extent to which experienced family physicians in various practice settings elicit the agenda of concerns patients bring to the office. A cross-sectional survey using linguistic analysis of a convenience sample of 264 patient-physician interviews. Primary care offices of 29 board-certified family physicians practicing in rural Washington (n = 1; 3%), semirural Colorado (n = 20; 69%), and urban settings in the United States and Canada (n = 8; 27%). Nine participants had fellowship training in communication skills and family counseling. Patient-physician verbal interactions, including physician solicitations of patient concerns, rate of completion of patient responses, length of time for patient responses, and frequency of late-arising patient concerns. Physicians solicited patient concerns in 199 interviews (75.4%). Patients' initial statements of concerns were completed in 74 interviews (28.0%). Physicians redirected the patient's opening statement after a mean of 23.1 seconds. Patients allowed to complete their statement of concerns used only 6 seconds more on average than those who were redirected before completion of concerns. Late-arising concerns were more common when physicians did not solicit patient concerns during the interview (34.9% vs 14.9%). Fellowship-trained physicians were more likely to solicit patient concerns and allow patients to complete their initial statement of concerns (44% vs 22%).\",\n \"PALS is successful in providing basic resuscitation knowledge to pediatric residents, but knowledge of critical algorithm details is not sustained. The course does not provide for the expected level of competency in relevant technical skills. Residents do not achieve the confidence to feel well prepared to provide comprehensive care to pediatric patients in cardiopulmonary arrest. These findings support the hypothesis that the PALS course alone is insufficient to provide pediatric residents with competency in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.\",\n \"Intervention improved parental knowledge; however, intervention did not translate into anticipated improvement in clinic and emergency room utilization patterns. Emphasis on education and preventative services are important in both civilian and military pediatric practice. Results of this study highlight the need to discuss and reinforce fever education as a topic in pediatric preventive health care visits.\",\n \"Parents of children with asthma exacerbations who communicated with clinicians were more likely to administer SABAs and an oral corticosteroid before bringing their child to an emergency department. Frequency of SABA dosing was not associated with communication. Clinicians providing telephone advice to parents need to provide explicit instructions about medication administration, emphasizing the frequency with which SABAs should be administered.\",\n \"Parents rated residents at both training levels very highly for the quality of care provided. PL-3 residents had higher longitudinal continuity scores and were perceived to have greater knowledge about behavioral counseling and coordination of care with schools. Further research will need to elucidate strategies to improve earlier resident acquisition of coordination and behavior management skills.\",\n \"to assess knowledge of pediatric residents attending adolescents, including ethical issues on contraceptive advice. A prospective study was conducted involving 75 residents in order to assess their knowledge, along with ethical issues involved, in clinical attendance of adolescents. The SPSS 13 software package was used for data analysis. 100% of interviewees stated that adolescents have the right to privacy during medical appointments. Yet, when asked from what age this privacy should be granted, 62% reported at any age. When questioned on whether an adolescent could be examined alone, without another person with them in the room, 50% of physicians answered yes and 50% no. 91.7% of interviewees felt that adolescents had the right to confidentiality and medical secrecy, but only 84.8% knew the contents of the Code of Medical Ethics regarding medical secrecy. A further 79.2% felt prepared to give advice on contraception to adolescents.\",\n \"yes. A policy of reminding outpatients of their appointments via telephone reduces absenteeism at a hospital-based pulmonary function laboratory. We found no difference in absenteeism between communicating the reminder via direct conversation versus via leaving a message on an answering machine.\",\n \"To evaluate the effect of weekly telephone contact with families in enhancing the use of home apnea monitors. This was a prospective, randomized, single-blinded study of 65 infants who were prescribed home apnea monitoring at the time of initial discharge from the hospital. Exclusion criteria included participation in any other study involving home monitoring or nonavailability of home telephone. Infants were randomized either to the \\\"standard\\\" or \\\"telephone\\\" group by a stratified balanced block technique. All families were instructed to use the monitor during the first 4-week period at all times except during bathing and during the second 4-week period at all unattended times and at night. The families in the telephone group were contacted weekly for 8 weeks. The telephone interview reviewed the events of the previous week but did not include specific encouragement to use the monitor. Both groups received routine pediatric care and follow-up at our high-risk premature clinic. The primary outcome measure was compliance measured as the percentage of time as well as the hours per day that the infant spent on the monitor as recorded by the documented monitor. The telephone (n = 30) and standard (n = 32) groups were similar (p > 0.10) with respect to birth weight (1567 +/- 778 versus 1710 +/- 777 gm), gestational age (30.9 +/- 4.2 versus 31.1 +/- 4.6 weeks), maternal age (24.9 +/- 6.0 versus 25.3 +/- 5.4 years), and commercial insurance (46.7% versus 46.9%), a marker of higher socioeconomic status. Compliance of the telephone versus the standard group was similar during the first 4-week period (74.7 +/- 24.9 versus 75 +/- 27.8%, p = 0.85) (17.9 +/- 5.9 versus 18.2 +/- 6.6 hours/day), the second 4 week period (63.4 +/- 29.1 versus 58.9 +/- 30.9%, p = 0.59) (15.2 +/- 7.0 versus 14.1 +/- 7.4 hours/day) and the entire 8-week period (69.3 +/- 24.7 versus 67.7 +/- 26.2%, p = 0.82, Mann-Whitney U-test) (16.7 +/- 6.0 versus 16.1 +/- 6.5 hours/day), respectively. An abnormal pneumocardiogram at the time of discharge was the only identified factor that improved the compliance for the entire 8-week period (73.1 +/- 22 versus 52.1 +/- 28.5%, p = 0.02) (17.5 +/- 5.2 versus 12.5 +/- 6.8 hours/day) and the first 4-week period of monitoring (81.7 +/- 22.9 versus 59.5 +/- 31.3%, p = 0.01) (19.6 +/- 5.5 versus 14.2 +/- 7.5 hours/day).\",\n \"yes. Many children are referred by CCC staff to physicians contrary to established guidelines. As staff must act on behalf of parents, a low threshold for referral is not unreasonable. However, this survey confirms that CCC staff recommend children to receive antibiotics and exclude children inappropriately. These practices are based on incomplete knowledge. Research on appropriate management of upper respiratory tract infections by CCC staff is needed. Education to correct specific knowledge deficits should be initiated.\",\n \"Our data do suggest that health care professionals, excluding those in emergency medicine, are not better than laymen in evaluating an emergency situation correctly, and when the caller is a doctor or a nurse the dispatcher seems to trust the evaluation of the situation to be correct and rarely asks any clarifying questions about vital signs of the patient.\",\n \"We sought to better understand barriers to adherence to published guidelines for respiratory infections among community providers. A case-based survey was developed and emailed to all members of the state pediatric society. Providers chose their preferred management for acute otitis media, acute bacterial sinusitis, and community-acquired pneumonia. An \\\"answer key\\\" and a follow-up questionnaire were distributed to assess reevaluation of current practices. We received 173 completed surveys (15% response rate). While most responders followed guideline recommendations (6 of the 10 questions with ≥ 65% choosing recommended antibiotic), discrepancies existed in several cases. After receiving the answer key, respondents said they reviewed the guidelines (69%), adjusted their practice (26%), used cases for teaching (9%), and discussed guidelines with colleagues (21%).\",\n \"yes. Finnish parents seek information from health care professionals and PILs when looking for information concerning their children's medication. Furthermore, they find health care professionals and PILs to be reliable information sources.\",\n \"We determine whether practice patterns of pediatricians contribute to delays in diagnosing and treating adolescents with varicoceles. A survey consisting of 11 multiple-choice questions was mailed to 5,000 pediatricians selected by zip code in New York State. Zip codes were chosen to reflect urban, suburban and rural counties. A total of 544 of the 5000 (10.9%) surveys were returned, and 92 (16.9%) pediatricians acknowledged that they did not routinely perform physical examinations of the genitalia of adolescent males patients. Of 497 pediatricians who routinely or occasionally examine the genitalia 54 (10.9%) did not examine for the presence of varicoceles. When pediatricians were asked how they assess for the presence of varicoceles, 13 of 521 (2.5%) only used visual inspection, 50 (9.6%) only examined patients in the supine position and 379 (72.7%) of these pediatricians never used Valsalva maneuvers. Of 517 respondents 442 (85.5%) referred patients with varicoceles to a urologist for followup and 72 (13.9%) did no further evaluation. When asked to indicate what they thought was the greatest concern regarding the pediatric varicocele, 327 of 497 (65.0%) pediatricians indicated deterioration of future infertility, 120 (30.0%) indicated testicular growth retardation, 105 (24.2%) indicated pain and 18 (4.3%) indicated cosmesis.\",\n \"In recent years, there has been a growth in the use of triage nurses to decrease general practitioner (GP) workloads and increase the efficiency of telephone triage. The actual safety of decisions made by triage nurses has not yet been assessed. To investigate whether triage nurses accurately estimate the urgency level of health complaints when using the national telephone guidelines, and to examine the relationship between the performance of triage nurses and their education and training. A cross-sectional, multicentre, observational study employing five mystery (simulated) patients who telephoned triage nurses in four GP cooperatives. The mystery patients played standardised roles. Each role had one of four urgency levels as determined by experts. The triage nurses called were asked to estimate the level of urgency after the contact. This level of urgency was compared with a gold standard. Triage nurses estimated the level of urgency of 69% of the 352 contacts correctly and underestimated the level of urgency of 19% of the contacts. The sensitivity and specificity of the urgency estimates provided by the triage nurses were found to be 0.76 and 0.95, respectively. The positive and negative predictive values of the urgency estimates were 0.83 and 0.93, respectively. A significant correlation was found between correct estimation of urgency and specific training on the use of the guidelines. The educational background (primary or secondary care) of the nurses had no significant relationship with the rate of underestimation.\",\n \"This study is a qualitative analysis examining caregivers' expectations for pediatricians with regard to behavioral health care. Fifty-five parents/caregivers of children seen in an urban primary care clinic participated in semistructured interviews. Participants were parents or guardians of children between the ages of 2 and 17 years, referred from the pediatric clinic to the mental health center. Interviews were analyzed using grounded theory methods. Pertinent themes were the following: expected range of care, components of an effective primary care provider (PCP) relationship, action of the PCP, and parent reaction to PCP intervention. Forty-seven percent of caregivers saw the PCP role as strictly for physical health care; 53% expected the PCP to have a role in both physical and behavioral health. Responses were overwhelmingly positive from caregivers when the PCP asked about or conducted a behavioral health intervention.\",\n \"Children with care for acute illness available through the Health-e-Access telemedicine model at childcare and schools were previously found to have 22% less emergency department (ED) use than counterparts without this service, but they also had 24% greater acute care use overall. We assessed the hypothesis that increased utilization reflected improved access among impoverished inner-city children to a level experienced by more affluent suburban children. This observational study compared utilization among children without and with telemedicine access, beginning in 1993, ending in 2007, and based on 84,287 child-months of billing claims-based observation. Health-e-Access Telemedicine was initiated in stepwise manner over 187 study-months among 74 access sites (childcare, schools, community centers), beginning in month 105. Children dwelled in inner city, rest-of-city Rochester, NY, or in surrounding suburbs. Rate of total acute care visits (office, ED, telemedicine) was measured as visits per 100 child-years. Observed utilization rates were adjusted in multivariate analysis for age, sex, insurance type, and season of year. When both suburban and inner-city children lacked telemedicine access, overall acute illness visits were 75% greater among suburban than inner-city children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 1.75, p < 0.0001). After telemedicine became available to inner-city children, their overall acute visits approximated those of suburban children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 0.80, p = 0.07), whereas acute visits among suburban children remained at least (worst-case comparison) 56% greater than inner-city children without telemedicine (rate ratio 1.56, p < 0.0001).\",\n \"To examine the level of involvement in pre-hospital care for children by faculty and fellows of teaching hospitals with a Pediatric Emergency Medicine (PEM) fellowship. In addition, we hypothesized that a divisional faculty member's involvement as principal investigator (PI) on an EMSC grant would not impact divisional involvement in on or off-line medical direction. Cross-sectional national survey. PEM fellowship directors. Self-administered questionnaire. Descriptive and Chi-square analysis to study null hypothesis. The response rate to the survey was 62% (53/85). Of the programs responding, 53 % provided on-line pediatric medical direction for pre-hospital providers, 77% were involved with paramedic education other than PALS, and 58% of systems had pediatric specific protocols. In 87 % of the programs, a designated faculty member functioned as an EMSC liaison. A division faculty member was or had been the PI on an EMSC grant in 18 programs (34%). There was no significant difference in the provision of on or off-line medical direction comparing programs with or without involvement in an EMSC grant. Only 34% of the responding program directors felt that the current level of exposure to EMS was adequate for PEM fellow training.\",\n \"yes. As indicated by their humoral stress responses, the medical encounter was stressful for the parents. Pediatricians' affective communication modulated this stress response in that more supportive communication was related to smaller cortisol increases.\",\n \"To assess agreement between the advice to symptomatic callers to Healthline, and that advised by primary care doctors given the same clinical information, and thus to assess the safety of Healthline advice. Ninety records of symptomatic calls to Healthline were examined by three primary care specialists, blinded to the actual advice given. They independently recorded what they would have advised, and their advice was compared with that actually given by the Healthline nurse guided by Care Enhance Call Centre software. Variation among the three doctors was greater than that between the median doctor and Healthline. In 82% of cases, the median doctor triaged to an endpoint close to (or lower than) Healthline. In all but one of the remainder, at least one doctor thought there was no risk to the patient (i.e. in 99% of cases). Review of that case indicated nurse error and the guideline itself was judged to be safe.\",\n \"To assess whether use of a parent questionnaire, the Child Development Review (CDR), before health maintenance examinations (HMEs) increases parent identification and increases resident discussion and documentation of behavioral issues for toddler and preschool-aged children. Quasi-experimental design using convenience samples with comparisons before and after questionnaire implementation. Children 15 to 47 months of age and their parents attending a hospital-based, primary care clinic serving a low-income population, and the residents caring for them. Participants were enrolled into early control, concurrent control, and intervention groups. All parents completed an exit interview about 9 behavioral issues and were asked if they had discussed these issues with the doctor. Before the visit, the intervention group parents completed the CDR, which was available for the residents to review. Information from the CDR and exit interview, and resident documentation were compared for control and intervention groups. There were 122 intervention and 135 control group HMEs. Parents using the CDR identified more behavioral issues for their children at the exit interview (median, 2.0 vs 1.0, P =.01). The 6 issues on both the CDR and the exit interview accounted for this increase. Intervention group parents reported discussion of more behavioral issues (median, 2.0 vs 0.0, P <.001). Discussion increased for all issues. Documentation was not increased for the intervention group.\",\n \"To describe the experience of a U.S. emergency medical services (EMS) agency utilizing a dispatch algorithm to identify low-acuity patients and determine whether secondary telephone triage by a nurse was associated with subsequent hospital admission among those patients. This was a retrospective study of all patients meeting the low-acuity Omega classification by the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS) in a large urban EMS system, conducted in two phases. Patients were excluded from the study if a refusal for transport was obtained, the call was received from a third-party caller, the MPDS system was not used, the patient was being referred from a skilled nursing facility, school, or university nursing office or physician's office, or if the call was referred to the Carolina Poison Center. Patients were enrolled over two phases using two different versions of the MPDS protocol, and in phase 2 patients were offered the option of speaking with an advice-line nurse. The outcome of interest was emergency department disposition, classified as hospital admission or discharge home. Admission to an intensive care unit (ICU) bed was also collected as a subcategory of hospital admission. Of the 1,862 patients in phase 1, 69.3% were discharged home from the emergency department, whereas in phase 2, 73.0% of the 1,078 patients were discharged home. Individuals were most frequently admitted to the hospital across both phases if they had a dispatch determinant of pregnancy, psychiatric/behavioral, fall, sick person. Hospital admission was also associated with receiving an EMS or emergency department procedure. There were 530 patients in phase 2 who underwent secondary triage by an advice-line nurse. Among this cohort of patients, 134 (25.3%) required subsequent hospital admission, with a further three (2.2%) requiring an ICU admission.\",\n \"yes. Telephone training provided by a special education professional appears effective in prelingually deafened children with a CI. Home training provided by parents is less effective, but helps maintain the skills acquired in the professional telephone training.\",\n \"Almost 9 in 10 pediatric residents have a mentor who provides career advice. Although multiple factors shape decisions about careers, mentor specialty is one factor that might encourage residents to pursue fellowship training.\",\n \"yes. Most phone calls originated from a minority of patients. Repeated calling by the same patient and new onset of gastrointestinal (GI) and non-GI symptoms were important factors predicting the order of diagnostic modalities or therapeutic changes in care. Triaging calls to IBD healthcare providers for patients more likely to require a change in management may improve healthcare delivery.\",\n \"To evaluate the impact of a dedicated, free-floating, pediatric-targeted care delivery model on emergency department (ED) waiting times, parent satisfaction, and transition of care. A prospective, observational study was conducted between July 16 and August 12, 2007. It incorporated a before-and-after design with a 2-week preintervention and a 2-week intervention group. In the intervention period, the pediatric ED initiative (PEDI) team was introduced, which consisted of a free-floating doctor and nurse equipped to see pediatric patients. Consenting patients/parents were followed up by telephone 7 to 14 days after discharge regarding satisfaction and waiting times. Four hundred fifty-three pediatric presentations (216 in the preintervention group and 237 in the intervention group) were analyzed, of which the PEDI team treated 81 pediatric patients during the intervention period. The intervention group had a significantly shorter length of stay in the ED (158 vs 194 minutes; P = 0.01). However, there was no difference in time to be seen by a doctor (80 vs 78 minutes; P = 0.54). Satisfaction of the total study group was significantly related to staff attitude and understanding of the wait.\",\n \"To examine the relationships among physician-parent communication practices, physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotic treatment, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral upper respiratory tract infections. Cross-sectional study of pediatric encounters motivated by cold symptoms between October 1, 2000, and June 30, 2001. Each encounter was videotaped. Physicians completed a postvisit survey that measured whether they perceived the parent as expecting antibiotics. Coded communication variables were merged with survey variables. Multivariate analyses identified key predictors of parent-physician communication practices, physician perceptions of parents' expectations for antibiotics, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral conditions. Twenty-seven pediatric practices in Los Angeles, Calif. Thirty-eight pediatricians and 522 consecutively approached parents of children with cold symptoms. Physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotics, inappropriate antibiotic prescribing, and parental questioning of nonantibiotic treatments. Physicians were 20.2% more likely to perceive parents as expecting antibiotics when they questioned the physician's treatment plan (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 6.3%-34.0%). When physicians perceived parents as expecting antibiotics, they were 31.7% more likely to inappropriately prescribe them (P<.001; 95% confidence interval, 16.0%-47.3%). Parents were 24.0% more likely to question the treatment plan when the physician ruled out the need for antibiotics (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 7.7%-40.3%).\",\n \"Telephone triage by triage nurses is efficient but possibly not safe, with potentially severe consequences for the patient. An educational programme for triage nurses is recommended. Also, a direct second safety check of all cases by a specially trained GP telephone doctor is advisable.\",\n \"To determine the preference of primary care physicians for computer-generated vs dictated discharge summaries from a neonatal intensive care unit. Survey mailed to primary care physicians. Regional referral area of a level III neonatal intensive care unit. Pediatricians and family medicine physicians caring for infants discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit. Of 58 questionnaires sent, 45 (78%) were returned. Overall, 33 physicians (73%) either strongly or mildly preferred the computer-generated discharge summary; eight (18%) had no preference; and four (9%) preferred the dictated discharge summary (P<.001). The category of strongest preference was relevance of information for continued patient care. Preference for type of discharge summary was not significantly influenced by time in practice, type of practice, preference to read or scan summaries, or frequency of computer use.\",\n \"To assess the accuracy of residents' record review, using trained abstractors as a gold standard comparison. In 2005, the authors asked 74 residents to review their own charts (n = 392) after they received brief instruction on both how to locate data on the medical record and how to use a data abstraction form. Trained abstractors then re-reviewed these charts to assess performance of preventive health care measures in medicine (smoking screening, smoking cessation advice, mammography, colon cancer screening, lipid screening, and pneumonia vaccination) and pediatrics (parent smoking screening, parent smoking cessation advice, car seat safety, car restraint use, eye alignment, and immunizations up to date). The authors then quantified agreement between the two record reviews and assessed the sensitivity and specificity of the residents versus the trained abstractors. Overall resident-measured performance was similar (within 5%) to that of the trained abstractor for five of six measures in medicine and four of six in pediatrics. For the various measures, sensitivity of resident-measured performance ranged from 100% to 15% and specificity from 100% to 33% compared with the trained abstractors. Relative to the trained abstractor record review, residents did not overestimate their performance. Most residents' (81%) relative performance rankings did not change when the basis for the ranking was resident measured versus trained abstractor measured.\",\n \"If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center.\",\n \"Prospective multicenter study in thirteen paediatric emergency departments. The parents and doctors completed questionnaires based on closed-ended questions with a common core of four items: reasons of hospitalization, diagnosis, treatment and seriousness of child condition. We evaluated concordance between parents and doctor answers for these items by comparing their responses. This study included 380 parents. Percentage of concordance was 55% for the reason of hospitalization, 78% for the diagnosis, 92% for the treatment, 48% for the seriousness of the condition and 19% for all four items. The mean number of concordant items was 2.76 (CI 95%, 2.66-2.86). Parents whose children seemed not in pain and parents who received additional information from the nurse showed significantly slightly higher levels of concordance with doctor's answers (2.98 vs 2.66, p = 0.006 and 2.89 vs 2.60, p = 0.004, respectively).\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.\",\n \"Clinical questions frequently arise during the practice of medicine, and primary care physicians frequently use curbside consultations with specialty physicians to answer these questions. It is hypothesized that well-formulated clinical questions are more likely to be answered and less likely to receive a recommendation for formal consultation. To assess the relationship between the structure of clinical questions asked by family physicians and the response of specialty physicians engaged in curbside consultations. A case series of clinical questions asked during informal consultations between 60 primary care and 33 specialty physicians using an e-mail service. Curbside consultation questions were sent, using e-mail, to academic specialty physicians by primary care physicians (faculty, residents, and community practitioners) in eastern Iowa. Questions were analyzed to determine the clinical task and to identify 3 components: an intervention, a comparison, and an outcome. Consultants' responses were analyzed to identify whether questions were answered and whether consultants recommended formal consultation. There were 708 questions in this analysis: 278 (39.3%) were diagnosis questions, 334 (47.2%) were management questions, 57 (8.0%) were prognosis questions, and 39 (5.5%) were requests for direction. Clinical questions were less likely to go unanswered or receive a recommendation for formal consultation when the question identified the proposed intervention (odds ratio, 0.54; 95% confidence interval, 0.34-0.86; P = .006) and desired outcome (odds ratio, 0.46; 95% confidence interval, 0.29-0.69; P<.001). Only 271 (38.3%) of 708 curbside consult questions identified both of these components.\",\n \"To compare asthma treatment decisions by pediatric residents to current asthma guidelines and to learn whether treatment decisions vary by postgraduate year in training. We conducted a Web-based survey of residents from 10 training programs through the Continuity Research Network of the Academic Pediatric Association (CORNET). Surveys included 6 vignettes of patients receiving low-dose inhaled steroids with guideline- and non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status and 1 stable patient on high-intensity medication. There were 369 resident respondents (65% response rate), 26% postgraduate year (PGY) 1, 38% PGY2, and 36% PGY3+. Seventy-five percent of each resident group reported seeing fewer than 1 asthma patient per continuity clinic session. A majority of residents made appropriate treatment recommendations in 2 of 4 vignettes of guideline-based indicators of asthma status: first, 97% overall stepping up treatment for mild persistent asthma; and second, 52% overall stepping down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma on high-intensity medications. Inconsistent with guideline recommendations, 82% of residents overall did not step down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma receiving low-intensity therapy; 75% of residents did not step up treatment for a patient with a recent hospitalization for asthma. Of the 3 vignettes evaluating non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status, a majority of residents (60%) stepped up treatment for parental reports of worse asthma, while a minority did so for a parental report of being bothered by their child's asthma (27%) or when wheezing was reported at physical examination (43%). There were no statistically significant differences for any of the comparisons by year in training.\",\n \"The debate continues as to what constitutes an adequate postnatal follow-up after an early hospital discharge. The main objective of this study was to determine whether the type and timing of postnatal services were associated with mothers' and newborns' health, breastfeeding duration, and maternal assessment of the delay and usefulness of the services they received after discharge. A telephone survey was conducted one month after a vaginal, uncomplicated delivery by 2,583 mothers who had given birth in five health regions of the Province of Québec, between 1999 and 2003. The response rate to the survey was 72.1%. Virtually all the newborns (98.1%) had at least one routine contact with a health professional after discharge. Within 72 hours of discharge, 26.0% of the mothers received only a telephone call, 44.3% were visited by a public health nurse, 11.1% of the babies were examined by a physician and 49.5% were examined by a nurse or a physician. Newborns who had a first contact with a health professional within 72 hours of hospital discharge were less likely to have been readmitted to the hospital (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.45; 95% CI 0.21-0.97), while their mothers were less likely to have signs of moderate to severe depression at one month postpartum (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.60; 95% CI 0.45-0.79). The sooner the telephone call and the home visit were received the more likely the women were to have found that the services were useful.\",\n \"To evaluate the quality of pediatric primary care, including preventive services, before and after the introduction of an electronic medical record (EMR) developed for use in an urban pediatric primary care center. A pre-postintervention analysis was used in the study. The intervention was a pediatric EMR. Routine health care maintenance visits for children <5 years old were reviewed, and documentation during preintervention (paper-based, 1998) and postintervention visits (computer-based, 2000) was compared. A total of 235 paper-based visits and 986 computer-based visits met study criteria. Twelve clinicians (all attendings or nurse practitioners) contributed an average of 19.4 paper-based visits (range: 5-39) and 7 of these clinicians contributed an average of 141 computer-based visits each (range: 61-213). Computer-based clinicians were significantly more likely to address a variety of routine health care maintenance topics including: diet (relative risk [RR]: 1.09), sleep (RR: 1.46), at least 1 psychosocial issue (RR: 1.42), smoking in the home (RR: 15.68), lead risk assessment (RR: 106.54), exposure to domestic or community violence (RR: 35.19), guns in the home (RR: 58.11), behavioral or social developmental milestones (RR: 2.49), infant sleep position (RR: 9.29), breastfeeding (RR: 1.99), poison control (RR: 3.82), and child safety (RR: 1.29). Trends toward improved lead exposure, vision, and hearing screening were seen; however, differences were not significant. Users of the system reported that its use had improved the overall quality of care delivered, was well-accepted by families, and improved guidance quality; however, 5 of 7 users reported that eye-to-eye contact with patients was reduced, and 4 of 7 reported that use of the system increased the duration of visits (mean: 9.3 minutes longer). All users recommended continued use of the system.\",\n \"Overall, parental understanding of ED discharge instructions is good. However, there remains a considerable number (about 20%) who fail to fully comprehend the diagnosis or treatment directives. This subset might benefit from the use of lay terminology by the staff, institution of a special discharge nurse, or use of diagnosis-specific information sheets.\",\n \"We wanted to discover how parents differ from physicians in making decisions about how to treat a child who may have acute otitis media (AOM). We used questionnaires that required participants to judge the probability of AOM or choose treatment for 2 sets of 46 paper scenarios of hypothetical children aged 15 months who might have AOM, and they subsequently rated the importance of individual cues and described their attitudes and opinions related to health care and AOM. Convenience samples of 19 US family physicians, 35 French generalists, 21 French pediatricians, 52 US parents, and 86 French parents were included. The primary outcomes were the judgment policies-the weights placed on each of the scenario cues when making decisions-that were derived for each individual and each group by multiple linear regression. The mean judged probabilities of AOM were nearly the same for all groups: 50% for the US physicians, 51% for the US parents, 52.5% for the French physicians, and 52% for the French parents. The percentages of cases treated with antibiotics did not differ: 53% for US physicians, 45% for US parents, 53% for French physicians, and 51% for French parents. All groups gave greatest weight to the physical examination cues for decisions about both diagnosis and treatment. The parents paid little attention to the cues that reflected parental concerns.\",\n \"To evaluate the quality of objective information obtained during telephone requests for the transport of pediatric patients. To evaluate the ability of subjective judgment, the Pediatric Risk of Mortality (PRISM) score, and the presence of tachycardia for age to predict the need for a physician on as a member of the pediatric transport team. Prospective data collection. The pediatric transport program of a children's hospital. All 129 infants and children transported over a 4-month period. We defined an objective measure of the need for a physician's presence during the transport of a pediatric patient, based on either the necessity for procedural or medical interventions during the time of transport or on direct admission to the pediatric ICU after transport. At the time of initial telephone contact, a physician's subjective opinion of the need for physician presence was recorded, a PRISM score was derived, and the presence of tachycardia (adjusted for age) was determined. Subsequently, the vital signs recorded on the record of this request were compared with those vital signs charted at the referring hospital at the time of the initial telephone request. A total of 96% of vital signs obtained during the initial telephone contact were consistent with those percentages in the referring hospital medical records. Fifty (39%) of 129 transported patients required procedural or medical interventions or pediatric ICU admission. Subjective judgments predicted physician need with a high sensitivity (0.98), but with a low specificity (0.18). PRISM score predicted 62 (48%) of 129 transports to be \\\"physician-required\\\" (sensitivity = 0.72; specificity = 0.67). There was no statistical association between tachycardia for age and the objective need for a physician's presence.\",\n \"To evaluate the affect of families' attitudes about the appropriateness of discussing psychosocial concerns on pediatric providers' identification of psychosocial problems. These data were collected as part of the Greater New Haven Child Health Study, New Haven, Conn. The study design was a prospective cohort. Families were recruited from a stratified random sample of all primary care practices in the greater New Haven area. Nineteen of 23 invited practices agreed to participate including 2 prepaid practices, 2 neighborhood health centers, and 7 fee-for-service group and 8 fee-for-service solo practices. All families of children aged 4 to 8 years who attended these practices during 2 separate 3-week periods (1 in fall 1987 and 1 in spring 1988) were invited to participate in the study. Families were invited to participate only once, on the first contact with any eligible child, using approved procedures. Of 2006 eligible families, 1886 (94%) chose to participate. The outcome variable for these analyses is the identification of any behavioral, emotional, or developmental problem by the pediatrician on the 13-category checklist. Overall, pediatric clinicians identified 27.5% of children with 1 or more psychosocial problems. Our data suggest that there is a great deal of discrepancy between what parents report is appropriate to do when their children have psychosocial problems and what they actually do when they recognize such problems in their children. Most (81.1%) believed it was appropriate to discuss 4 or more of the 6 hypothetical situations with their children's physician, while only 40.9% actually did discuss any of these problems with a physician when a problem occurred. Given the correlates of parents who intended to discuss such problems (higher education, older age, Euro-American ethnicity, higher income, married, availability of medical insurance) the possibility that parents are providing socially acceptable responses to such questions seems likely. Further, our data indicate that parents' actual reports of discussions of psychosocial problems is unrelated to whether physicians identified those problems in children.\",\n \"The planned clinical activity of pediatric urologists has been well described. However, little is known about nonscheduled work (eg consultation requests). We describe the unplanned clinical activity of pediatric urologists at a high volume academic medical center. Demographic data regarding inpatient, operating room and emergency department pediatric urology consults were prospectively entered into an internal database. Consults from July 2008 through June 2010 underwent retrospective chart abstraction to identify reasons for consultation. Bivariate and multivariate statistics were used to evaluate 1) temporal trends in unplanned clinical activity, and 2) patient and service specific factors associated with whether a consult was billable (ie seen by attending physician within 24 hours). During the study period 665 pediatric consults were obtained. Mean ± SD patient age was 8.4 ± 7.7 years. Nearly all consults were seen at the emergency department (51%) or the inpatient wards (47%). The most common primary diagnoses were infection, obstruction/hydronephrosis and neurogenic bladder. The number of consults per month decreased during the course of the academic year (r(2) = 0.1422). Nearly three fourths of consults were eligible for billing. The factors associated with consult eligibility for billing included specific attending physician (p = 0.03), location (p <0.0001) and house officer experience (p = 0.007).\",\n \"117 parents/guardians (90%) used the Internet to search for information on the disease and surgical treatment of the children. Only 12 parents/guardians (10%) discussed the information with the physician assigned to perform the surgical procedure. 91 parents/guardians (78%) said that the information had impact upon the decision to have surgery performed on their children.\",\n \"To establish the safety and effectiveness of nurse-led triage of otolaryngology out-patient referrals. One hundred consecutive general practitioner referrals were reviewed by two consultants, two specialist registrars, two foundation year two senior house officers and two otolaryngology nurses. One of the nurses had received triage training. All referrals were triaged as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' by each rater. The triage-trained nurse's results demonstrated good agreement with those of the senior consultant (80 per cent). This agreement was similar to that with the other consultant (77 per cent) and the specialist registrars (79 and 82 per cent). Weighted kappa statistics (correcting for chance agreement) showed that the triage-trained nurse had the second closest agreement to the senior consultant (0.66). After the actual out-patient appointments, retrospective review of the patients' case notes revealed that none had been triaged inappropriately by the trained nurse, and no urgent cases had been missed.\",\n \"To investigate whether the medical interview in the pediatric context generates a stressful response in parents in form of heightened cortisol activity, and whether pediatricians' empathetic communication is able to attenuate this stress response. 68 parents were recruited at pediatric out-patient and in-patient consultations. Salivary samples were collected between 60 and 30min prior to the consultation, shortly before the consultation, 20min as well as 45min after the consultation. 19 pediatricians participated in the study and effectuated the medical visit as usual. We videotaped the consultations and coded pediatricians' affective communication using the RIAS and the Four Habits Coding Scheme. Parents' cortisol increased during the medical visit with a peak at 20min after the medical encounter. Furthermore, multilevel analysis revealed a lesser increase in parents' cortisol response associated with pediatricians' levels in supportive communication behaviors.\",\n \"yes. These results highlight the enhanced clinical effectiveness of not just recommending the quitline to parents but also offering them enrollment in the quitline at the time of their child's visit to the pediatric office.\",\n \"In this single-site study, children referred from outside EDs with lower pediatric volumes and staffed by nonpediatricians were more likely to be discharged from a children's hospital ED after transport. These transports may represent unnecessary resource use. Outreach education, shared staffing models, and telemedicine are potential methods to address unnecessary transfers.\",\n \"A majority of general pediatricians believe that an established diagnosis is important when considering EI referral. This perception is associated with decreased reported referral for children with speech delay and those whose parents express concern for inappropriate development.\",\n \"In addition to the assessment and the management of patients with skin diseases, a considerable portion of dermatology residency involves examining clinical images and generating differential diagnoses from these images. This training, though helpful for recognizing manifestations of rare disorders, goes unused by most practicing dermatologists after certification. In contrast, dermatology residents learn and master verbal descriptions of skin diseases and continue to use this skill throughout their careers. However, problems arise when a dermatologist is not available and a non-dermatologist attempts to verbally describe a skin condition. An accurate description of a cutaneous disorder can facilitate effective triage management of a patient when a dermatologist is not available. Unfortunately, an inaccurate description by the referring provider can lead to diagnostic bias and ineffective, or even harmful, initial treatment. In recent years, digital photography has facilitated the electronic transfer of clinical images over distances. However, despite the promise that this technique shows in providing teledermatologic services to specialty-underserved areas and the availability of low-cost digital cameras, telephone consultation is still the standard of care when a dermatologist is not available. The purpose of this study is to compare the reliability of dermatologic consultations that use the telephone with that of dermatologic consultations that use both the telephone and digital images. After patient approval, an acute care provider randomly assigned patients with skin disorders of unclear etiology to two groups, with and without digital images. The acute care provider then performed an exam and took the patient's history. Telephone data, with or without digital images, were then presented to the consulting dermatologist, who formulated a pre-physical exam differential diagnosis and treatment plan. The consulting dermatologist immediately examined the patient in person and refined the diagnosis and management. The confidence in diagnosis, both before and after the in-person exam, was compared in the patient group with digital images and in the patient group without digital images using a five-point scale (1 = no confidence, 5 = most confident).\",\n \"To determine the willingness of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department to have a physician assistant (PA) assess and treat their child and the waiting time reduction sufficient for them to choose to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. After describing the training and scope of practice of PAs, we asked caregivers of children triaged as urgent to nonurgent if they would be willing to have their child assessed and treated by a PA on that visit: definitely, maybe, or never. We also asked the minimum amount of waiting time reduction they would want to see before choosing to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. We approached 320 eligible subjects, and 273 (85.3%) consented to participate. Regarding whether they would be willing to have their child receive treatment by a PA, 140 (51.3%) respondents answered definitely, 107 (39.2%) said maybe, and 26 (9.2%) said never. Most respondents (64.1%) would choose to have their child seen by a PA instead of waiting for a physician if the waiting time reduction were at least 60 minutes (median 60 minutes [interquartile range 60 minutes]). Respondents' perception of the severity of their child's condition was associated with unwillingness to receive treatment by a PA, whereas child's age, presenting complaint, and actual waiting time were not.\",\n \"To evaluate the relative accuracy of physicians, nurses, and parents in estimating the weight of children presenting to the emergency department. One hundred pediatric patients between the ages of 0 and 8 years presenting to an urban teaching emergency department (40,000 patients per year) were enrolled over a 1-month period (September 1996). The parents, triage nurse, and examining physician were asked to estimate the patient's weight, each blinded to the others' estimates and the child's actual weight. Parents, nurses, and physicians all slightly underestimated patient weights (P < 0 .05), but these groups did not differ among themselves (P > 0 .05). The total range of estimates was broad in each group (parents +292% to -41%, nurses +30% to -36%, and physicians +43% to -56%). There was no significant relationship between estimates with regard to age, weight, or sex. Twenty-nine percent of physicians' estimates, 40% of nurses' estimates, and 16% of parents' estimates differed from the actual weight by more than 15%.\",\n \"yes. Only a small minority of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department for urgent to nonurgent issues are unwilling to have their child treated by PAs.\",\n \"We concluded that first-year pediatric residents have inadequate skills in the delivery of bad news. In addition, our data suggest that higher EI alone is not sufficient to effectively deliver death news and more robust skill training is necessary for residents to gain competence and acquire mastery in this important communication domain.\",\n \"Before seeing a pediatrician, parents often look online to obtain child health information. We aimed to determine the influence of IUC (internet use regarding the reason for consultation) on their subjective information level, their assessment of acute diseases and the change in this assessment. Secondary objectives were to identify the most commonly used online resources and factors with an influence on IUC. This cross-sectional observational study was conducted at a general pediatric outpatient clinic located in Vienna, Austria. An anonymous, voluntary and 14-items-containing questionnaire served to gather all data. A total number of 500 questionnaires were collected. Of the parents attending the outpatient clinic, 21 % use the internet before the appointment (= IUC). Most common online resources utilized for this purpose are websites run by doctors (61.3 %), the outpatient clinic's homepage (56.3 %), Google (40 %), Wikipedia (32.5 %), health advisory services provided by doctors (28.7 %), health portals (21.3 %) and health forums and communities (18.8 %). The information level in terms of the reason for consultation is rated as good by 50.6 %, as average by 46.7 % and as insufficient by 2.7 % (internet users: 42.7 %, 55.3 %, 1.9 %). Acute diseases of the children are estimated to be mild by 58.4 %, to be moderate by 41.1 % and to be severe by 0.5 % (internet users: 54.9 %, 45.1 %, 0 %). After having used any source of information, this assessment is unchanged in 82.8 %, acute diseases are rated as more severe in 13.8 % and as less severe in 3.4 % (internet users: 79.2 %, 16.7 %, 4.2 %). Internet users and non-users do not differ with respect to their information level (p = 0.178), the assessment of acute diseases (p = 0.691) and the change in this assessment (p = 0.999). A higher education level of parents (mothers: p = 0.025, fathers: p = 0.037), a young age of their children (p = 0.012) and acute diseases of their children (p = 0.046) predispose to IUC.\",\n \"To evaluate the Flexible Option (FO), a residency training schedule offered by the University of California, San Francisco, Pediatric Residency Program. In 2002, structured telephone interviews were conducted with residents who participated in the FO between 1992 and 2002. Twenty-four of the 284 pediatrics residents during this time participated in the FO. Descriptive interview data were analyzed. A Web-based questionnaire was sent to 72 regularly scheduled (RS) residents at the end of 2001-02. FO and RS residents' specialty board performances were compared. Twenty-one FO residents participated in the telephone interviews. The majority reported that the FO was critical to their success as residents. Most requested the FO for personal and family reasons; over 40% would otherwise have requested leaves from the residency. The most common perceived disadvantages were delay in graduation and financial concerns. Forty-two RS residents completed the online questionnaire. Seventeen percent considered the FO an important factor in program selection; 43% had considered participating in the FO. Seventy-nine percent felt that the FO had a positive effect on the general morale of the program. RS residents perceived that the FO increased workload (43%) and created scheduling problems (52%). However, 88% of RS residents encouraged the program to continue offering the FO. Specialty board scores were similar across FO and RS residents.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to document the experience and patient satisfaction with providing pediatric surgery consultations and follow-up appointments to remote locations via audiovisual telecommunications technology. From January 2000 to April 2001, 16 consecutive pediatric general surgery clinics were reviewed for the type of patient (new or review), the diagnosis, the adequacy and accuracy of the evaluation, and the ability to formulate a plan. In the first year, first-time users were requested to complete a satisfaction survey of 15 questions. Responses to 13 questions were recorded on a 4-point Likert scale, and 2 questions required a \\\"yes\\\" or \\\"no\\\" response. One hundred eighteen appointments were scheduled. Twenty patients did not show up or cancelled. There were 45 new patient consultations. Thirty-three patients were scheduled for surgery, of which, 21 are completed, and 12 are pending. There were no errors in diagnosis or changes in planned procedures. There were 42 patients seen in 53 follow-up sessions. Thirty-six surveys of a possible 53 were available for analysis. The mean rating of overall treatment experience at Telehealth was 3.47 (95% confidence interval 0.17). One hundred percent responded they would use Telehealth again and would recommend it to another person.\",\n \"The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) has established communication as a core competency for physicians in training. However, data suggest that most pediatric residents perceive inadequate training in the delivery of bad news and the majority of former trainees in pediatric oncology received no formal training in the delivery of bad news during fellowship. The study examines communication training in ACGME accredited US pediatric hematology-oncology (PHO) fellowship programs. An online survey was distributed to 315 PHO fellows in training via the American Society of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology (ASPHO) fellow email registry. Each fellow received an initial request to participate and 2 reminders, while participation was encouraged through a random incentive drawing. One hundred and ten fellows (35%) responded. Eighty percent of respondents perceived communication training to be important to fellow education, however only 32% reported receiving communication training (other than direct observation). The most common reported teaching method of fellowship communication training was formal lecture (42%). Twenty-three percent of respondents reported neither communication training nor frequent feedback on their communication skills from faculty observation. This same group was the least satisfied with their programs' approach to teaching communication (P<0.001).\",\n \"We determined parent recall and perceived usefulness of drowning prevention messages included in routine computer-generated discharge instructions. All pediatric emergency department patients' computerized discharge instructions included 3 prevention messages: wear a life vest, swim in safe areas, and do not drink alcohol while swimming or boating. Parents were telephoned 1 to 2 weeks after the visit and asked to recall the prevention messages and rate the usefulness of the instructions. Responses were linked with patient characteristics and ED visit variables (day and time of visit, duration of ED visit, severity of condition, diagnostic category, number of tests, and treatments). Of 914 parents who were contacted, 795 were eligible. Of those, 619 (78%) completed the interview. Fifty percent of parents recalled receiving drowning prevention information; of these, 41% recalled unaided the life vest messages and 35% of 155 parents who did not own a life vest stated they would subsequently consider buying their child a life vest. Most (88%) rated the prevention information useful or very useful. No patient or visit variables were associated with usefulness ratings.\",\n \"Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).\",\n \"Surveys of residency graduates and employers have suggested that residency programs do not prepare residents well for practice. Since 1988, pediatric residents at the University of Massachusetts have been paired one-on-one with an office-based pediatrician for their 3-year continuity experience. This survey was conducted to determine if graduates of such a program are prepared to enter pediatric practice. Graduates of the program from 1991 through 1995 who entered primary care practice were surveyed about their preparedness for practice. The questionnaire was also sent to the residents' first employers. The 32 questions were directed to overall sense of preparedness, ability to manage the pace of practice, common illnesses, common behavior problems, anticipatory guidance, office management, and subspecialty problems. Data from all 25 residents who entered practice and the employers of 20 of the 25 residents were obtained and analyzed. Both groups rated overall resident preparedness to be \\\"well-prepared\\\" or \\\"very well-prepared\\\" and gave high scores on working at the pace of practice, diagnosing and treating common illnesses, diagnosing and treating common behavior problems, and providing anticipatory guidance. Areas in which residents were considered to be less well-prepared included anticipatory guidance about nutrition, managing problems by telephone, office management, gynecology, and orthopedics.\",\n \"A computerized kiosk based in a pediatric ED can help screen families for their injury risk. However, to elicit significant behavior change, an IPS discussing safety changes may be more effective.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to measure the effect of distractions, in the form of telephone call interruptions, on radiology resident diagnostic accuracy. Radiology resident discrepancy reports and reading room telephone logs at an academic tertiary care pediatric hospital were collected over a 13-month period. Phone call times and durations were recorded. Major discrepancy shifts (defined as a call shift where at least one major discrepancy was discovered the following morning by the attending radiologist between the resident preliminary and attending final reports), and dictation time stamps for each discrepant preliminary dictation were also recorded. Telephone call volume and preliminary report time stamps were compared between \\\"discrepancy shifts\\\" and \\\"no discrepancy shifts.\\\" Each call shift spanned 14 hours, during which one radiology resident was responsible for the generation of preliminary interpretations. Review of the discrepancy log data revealed 51 major discrepancies in 41 shifts, of which 39 discrepancies had documented error details and resident preliminary report time stamps. The average number of telephone calls for the \\\"discrepancy shifts\\\" was slightly greater than the \\\"no discrepancy shifts\\\" (48.59 vs. 44.02) but was not statistically significant (P = .0575). However, there was a statistically significant increase in the average number of phone calls in the 1 hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report versus the \\\"no discrepancy shifts\\\" (4.23 vs. 3.24 calls, P = .027). One additional phone call during the hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report resulted in a 12% increased likelihood of a resident error (P = .017).\",\n \"The aim of this study was to compare parental perception of quality of care provided by first- versus third-year pediatric residents who served as their children's primary care providers. The Parents' Perception of Primary Care (P3C) survey was administered to all parents who identified a pediatric resident as a primary care provider at 19 Continuity Research Network (CORNET) sites. Parent survey scores were compared between those identifying first-year pediatric residents (PL-1) versus third-year pediatric residents (PL-3) as care providers by using t tests and linear regression modeling, as well as item-specific chi-square analysis and logistic regression. Comparing the responses of the 347 parents who identified a PL-3 resident and the 360 parents who identified a PL-1 resident as their child's primary care provider, those who identified a PL-3 resident rated their childrens overall care higher, with a mean score of 79.2 (95% confidence interval [95% CI] 77.5-80.8) as compared to 75.9 (95% CI 74.4-77.3); P<.05. This disparity was primarily due to differences in the longitudinal continuity domain. Comparisons of the other domains of communication, comprehensiveness, access, contextual knowledge, and coordination showed no statistically significant differences between the 2 groups. Parents rated PL-3 residents as having greater knowledge in behavioral counseling and coordination with schools than PL-1 residents.\",\n \"To determine whether family members interfere with patient care when present during invasive procedures performed on their children in the ED. A prospective observational study of consecutive cases of procedural sedation of children aged between 12 months and 16 years was conducted between March 2002 and March 2006 in the ED of a secondary-level regional hospital in south-east Queensland. Procedures performed included laceration repair, fracture reduction, foreign body removal and abscess incision and drainage. Parents/primary caregivers were encouraged to stay with their child. A stepwise explanation of the procedure and sedation to be used was undertaken, informed consent obtained and telephone follow up attempted 5-14 days post procedure. Six hundred and fifty-two patient encounters with parents or primary caregivers present for the procedure were included for a total of 656 procedures: 234 laceration repairs, 250 fracture reductions, 85 foreign body removals, 33 abscess incision and drainages, 14 dislocation reductions and 40 other procedures. Telephone follow up was successful in 65% (424) of cases. The mean age was 6.5 years. Family member interference occurred in one case (0.15%, 95% confidence interval 0-0.73%). In 17 cases (2.68%, 95% confidence interval 2.1-5.9%) family members present expressed concerns about the procedure during the telephone follow up but had not interfered at the time of the procedure. There were no significant differences between the concerned parents at follow up and the study group across key patient variables such as child's age (P = 0.369), weight (P = 0.379), respiratory rate (P = 0.477), sex (P = 0.308), procedure indication (P = 0.308) and airway manoeuvres (P = 0.153).\",\n \"The Institute of Medicine has called for physician education as a key step in medical error prevention. In our 2002 national survey, pediatric resident education about medical error prevention was sporadic. We sought to describe the amount and type of pediatric resident training about medical errors and to assess the change in training since 2002. We surveyed a national sample of 50 pediatric chief residents randomly selected from the 198 Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education-accredited residency programs from August to November 2010. The 31-item telephone survey was developed from the 2002 survey, with the addition of 10 items about electronic learning and resident quality improvement projects. The survey included 4 domains: current patient safety curriculum, chief resident knowledge, learning from medical errors, and demographics. We phoned 55 chief residents and contacted 51. Fifty participated (90% participation rate). Ninety-four percent of chief residents stated that their program had a formalized curriculum to discuss medical errors, compared to only 50% (P<.001) in 2002. Ninety-six percent understood that the response to a medical error should be systemic change. The primary method for educating residents about medical error reported was informal teaching. Ninety-two percent reported never or rarely discussing medical error in an outpatient setting. Seventy-four percent of chief residents reported that they never or rarely learn from an error made by an attending physician, and 50% never or rarely learned from an error made by a fellow resident.\",\n \"yes. Calls received by a daytime nurse telephone triage office in an affluent SP and a UP are similar in regard to medical problems. Training programs can feasibly prepare physicians and nurses for both kinds of practice settings. The urban site received more calls affected by language and social issues. This could have administrative implications for staffing ratios, language skills of staff and knowledge of available support services.\",\n \"Evaluation procedures that rely solely on attending physician ratings may not identify residents who display poor communication skills or unprofessional behavior. Inclusion of non-physician evaluators should capture a more complete account of resident competency. No published reports have examined the relationship between resident evaluations obtained from different sources in pediatric settings. The objective of this study was to determine whether parent and nurse ratings of specific resident behaviors significantly differ from those of attending physicians. Thirty-six pediatric residents were evaluated by parents, nurses, and attending physicians during their first year of training. For analysis, the percentage of responses in the highest response category was calculated for each resident on each item. Differences between attending physician ratings and those of parents and nurses were compared using the signed rank test. Parent and attending physician ratings were similar on most items, but attending physicians indicated that they frequently were unable to observe the behaviors of interest. Nurses rated residents lower than did attending physicians on items that related to respecting staff (69% vs 97%), accepting suggestions (56% vs 82%), teamwork (63% vs 88%), being sensitive and empathetic (62% vs 85%), respecting confidentiality (73% vs 97%), demonstrating integrity (75% vs 92%), and demonstrating accountability (67% vs 83%). Nurse responses were higher than attending physicians on anticipating postdischarge needs (46% vs 25%) and effectively planning care (52% vs 33%).\",\n \"To examine if telephones overcome geographical barriers to accessing primary care out-of-hours by parents of young children. Mixed methods including quantitative analysis of 5697 calls about children aged 0-4 years, 30 hours of observation at primary care centres, eight interviews with parents and a review of 80 telephone call recordings. Call rates for children (0-4 years) decreased with increasing distance: the 20% of people who lived furthest from a primary care centre made fewer calls, 570 per 1000 patients/year (95% CI 558 to 582) than the 20% living closest, 652 (95% CI 644 to 661). Overall, call rates decreased with increasing rurality. Qualitative analysis suggested that this geographical variation was linked to familiarity with the system (notably previous contact with health services) and the availability of services, legitimacy of demand (particularly for children) and negotiation about mode of care.\",\n \"To ascertain why parents use an accident and emergency department for health care for their infants. Prospective one month study. One accident and emergency department of a children's hospital in the east end of London. Parents of 159 infants aged<9 months attending as self referrals (excluding infants attending previously or inpatients within one month, parents advised by the hospital to attend if concerned about their child's health, infants born abroad and arrived in Britain within the previous month). Details of birth, postnatal hospital stay, contact with health professionals, perceptions of roles of community midwife and health visitor, and current attendance obtained from a semistructured questionnaire administered in the department by a research health visitor; diagnosis, discharge, and follow up. 152(96%) parents were interviewed, 43(28%) of whom were single parent and 68(45%) first time mothers. Presenting symptoms included diarrhoea or vomiting, or both (34, 22%), crying (21, 14%), and feeding difficulties (10, 7%). Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection was diagnosed in 70(46%) infants. Only 17(11%) infants were admitted; hospital follow up was arranged for 27(20%) infants not admitted. Most (141, 94%) parents were registered with a general practitioner; 146(27%) had contact with the community midwife and 135(89%) the health visitor.\",\n \"An emergency department (ED) visit may be an effective place to screen and educate families about injury prevention. The purpose of this study was to determine if a computerized kiosk in a pediatric ED can screen families for injury risk and encourage them to make more safety changes at follow-up survey compared with an injury prevention specialist (IPS). A prospective, randomized controlled study was performed with families of children younger than 14 years in an ED lobby. Families were screened for injury risk by computerized kiosk based on child's age category at triage (birth to 1 year, 1-4 years, 5-9 years, or 10-14 years). Families were randomized to receive either injury behavior instructions by kiosk printout or by IPS when answers to specific practices were deemed unsafe. Three weeks after intervention, families were telephoned to determine change in safety practices. Three hundred seventeen families completed ED kiosk screen at enrollment (172 kiosk, 145 IPS). On initial screen, kiosk families practiced 79.6% of behaviors safely versus 75.9% in the IPS group (p = 0.011). A total of 221 families (69.7%) were reached for follow-up (121 kiosk, 100 IPS). On average, IPS families improved their safe behavior responses by 8.3% versus 1.0% in the kiosk group (p<0.0001). Significantly more families in the IPS group than in the kiosk group (36% vs. 23%, p<0.03) used additional safety equipment after the intervention.\",\n \"Health education messages are posted in nearly all the waiting rooms studied; parents remember them in a variable and rather inexplicable order. Posting these messages demonstrates the pediatricians' willingness to be involved - beyond the simple consultation - in the health education of children and families. Identifying the real impact of these messages would require further study.\",\n \"To compare triage categorization as a measure of perceived patient acuity on presentation to the emergency department by pediatric emergency medicine (PEM) attending physicians, nurses, and pediatric residents with their general emergency medicine (GEM) counterparts. A questionnaire that contained 12 pediatric triage scenarios was sent to all PEM attending physicians, triage-trained nurses, and pediatric residents and their GEM counterparts at a large urban hospital with separate pediatric and general emergency departments. Participants were asked to use a 3-tier triage system (emergent, urgent, nonurgent) to assign a triage level for each patient scenario. The response rate was 99%. The kappa level of agreement was highest (.39) among the PEM physicians. Significantly more GEM attending physicians triaged the following scenarios at a higher acuity level as compared with PEM attending physicians with a trend toward emergent triage: simple febrile seizure, 50% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%); 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips, 21% (95% CI: 9%-43%) versus 0% (95% CI: 0%-23%); and 15-month-old well-appearing child with high fever, 50% (95% CI: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%). Significant differences were found between GEM and PEM triage-trained nurses only in the 15-month-old high fever scenario and between GEM and pediatric residents in the 15-month-old high fever scenario, the 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips scenario, and a fever/limp scenario.\",\n \"yes. A well-educated and technologically sophisticated parent population does not favour advanced communication technologies over simple, face-to-face interaction in an in-hospital setting. These parents are prepared to receive technology-based information about their child's surgery and to schedule non-emergency hospital appointments online.\",\n \"To determine whether there is a significant difference in initial successful contact when attempting follow-up of patients discharged from a pediatric emergency department (ED) using either pagers or the telephone. In addition, to evaluate whether the combination of both pager and telephone follow-up is more successful than telephone follow-up alone when confined to a 2-hour period. A prospective comparison of intervention and control groups taken from convenience samples of patients seen in an ED of an urban, tertiary care children's hospital. One hundred eighty-five patients whose families had access to both a pager and a telephone (intervention group) and 112 patients whose families had access to only a telephone (control group) were enrolled. Before discharging the patient from the ED, the investigators verified a pager number and/or a best contact telephone number for a follow-up telephone call. Participants were divided into 2 groups. The intervention group consisted of caretakers with both pagers and telephones. The control group consisted of caretakers with only telephones. On even calendar days after ED visits, intervention group caretakers were paged initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. On odd calendar days, intervention group caretakers were telephoned initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. Successful contact was defined as communication with a family member or guardian over the age of 18. If the caretaker spoke only Spanish, a translator was used. In a crossover design with the intervention group, if contact was unsuccessful after 1 hour, the alternative mode of communication was used at noon. Control group caretakers were telephoned from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. If telephone contact was unsuccessful, they were called again 1 hour later. Two hundred forty-six (36%) of 685 of the convenience sample of caretakers had access to both a pager and a telephone. Fifty-two (55%) of 94 intervention caretakers were contacted initially using pagers versus 47 (52%) of 91 intervention caretakers contacted initially by telephones. Overall successful contact of intervention caretakers (telephones and pagers) was 145 (78%) of 185 when confined to a 2-hour time period. In contrast, overall successful contact of control caretakers was 68 (61%) of 112 when confined to a 2-hour time period. Successful contact was greater with the intervention caretakers than with control caretakers (78% vs 61%).\",\n \"Patients often establish initial contact with healthcare institutions by telephone. During this process they are frequently medically triaged. To investigate the safety of computer-assisted telephone triage for walk-in patients with non-life-threatening medical conditions at an emergency unit of a Swiss university hospital. This prospective surveillance study compared the urgency assessments of three different types of personnel (call centre nurses, hospital physicians, primary care physicians) who were involved in the patients' care process. Based on the urgency recommendations of the hospital and primary care physicians, cases which could potentially have resulted in an avoidable hazardous situation (AHS) were identified. Subsequently, the records of patients with a potential AHS were assessed for risk to health or life by an expert panel. 208 patients were enrolled in the study, of whom 153 were assessed by all three types of personnel. Congruence between the three assessments was low. The weighted κ values were 0.115 (95% CI 0.038 to 0.192) (hospital physicians vs call centre), 0.159 (95% CI 0.073 to 0.242) (primary care physicians vs call centre) and 0.377 (95% CI 0.279 to 0.480) (hospital vs primary care physicians). Seven of 153 cases (4.57%; 95% CI 1.85% to 9.20%) were classified as a potentially AHS. A risk to health or life was adjudged in one case (0.65%; 95% CI 0.02% to 3.58%).\",\n \"Patient experience scores are now recognized as a chief indicator of healthcare quality. This report compares outpatient pediatric otolaryngology patient satisfaction in the teaching and non-teaching settings. Cross-sectional, multi-site, patient-level analysis of satisfaction surveys (Press Ganey™ Medical Practice©) completed by parents of pediatric otolaryngology patients in FY2010. Surveys were stratified by teaching/non-teaching affiliation. The survey has 29 Likert-scaled questions which comprise an overall score and subscores in 6 domains: access, visit, nursing, provider, personal issues, and assessment. The item likelihood-to-recommend was measured to indicate practice loyalty. Mean scores were compared by Kruskal-Wallis rank test. Multivariate logistic regression was performed to evaluate the association of teaching status with receipt of highest scores (HI-SCORES). 4704 pediatric surveys were analyzed, with 1984 (42%) from the teaching setting. For the teaching setting, mean scores were lower overall (88.1 vs. 89.0; p<0.001) and in domains of access (includes scheduling ease, promptness in returning calls; 86.7 vs. 89.4; p<0.001) and personal issues (includes office hour convenience, sensitivity to needs; 87.0 vs. 88.5; p<0.001). Differences in access scores were largest for young children (0-<6 years; 86.0 vs. 89.5; p<0.001). Children in the teaching setting were less likely to have HI-SCORES overall (OR 0.78; 95%CI 0.65-0.95; p=0.011) and for access (OR 0.8; 95%CI 0.67-0.95; p=0.012); probability of HI-SCORES was similar for the two settings for all other domains.\",\n \"To assess the presence and impact of health education messages in pediatricians' waiting rooms. In September 2001, 81 pediatricians completed a questionnaire about the furnishings and equipment in their waiting rooms. They also distributed a questionnaire about waiting room health education messages to parents, to be completed at home. The analysis considered 1830 questionnaires. Health education messages were posted in 91% of the waiting rooms and most frequently concerned children's accidents, vaccines, hygiene and nutrition. The best topics that the parents remembered involved child neglect, antibiotic therapy, AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases, and nutrition. Although memorization of the messages was not influenced by duration of the wait, it was higher among parents who had previously visited the pediatrician. These messages led 14% of the parents to discuss them spontaneously with their pediatrician.\",\n \"(1) To assess pediatric residents' attitudes and practices related to counseling about and prescribing emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) for teens. (2) To determine whether attitudes, counseling, and prescribing practices vary among different levels of residency training. Questionnaire. Two large inner-city academic medical centers in New York City. Pediatric residents (PGY 1-3). Attitudes, counseling and prescribing patterns of ECPs by the pediatric residents 101/120 residents participated in the survey; 35% PGY1, 38% PGY2, 28% PGY3. Less than a third (26%) reported counseling teens about the availability of ECPs during routine non-acute care visits and just over half (56%) provided ECP counseling during visits for contraception. Only 6% of pediatric residents reported that they prescribed ECPs often, while 42% never prescribed ECPs. The majority of the residents did not think that prescribing ECPs would encourage teens to practice unsafe sex or would discourage compliance with other contraceptive methods (70% and 68%, respectively). However, the majority (67%) also reported that they did not think that ECPs should be available over the counter, without prescription. Further analysis by year of training showed that more junior and senior residents than interns counseled adolescents about ECPs at both routine health care maintenance visits and at visits for contraception (32% vs 15%; 62% vs 42%, respectively), would provide adolescent girls with ECPs to have on hand prior to an episode of unprotected sex (52% vs 31%), and thought that ECPs should be available over the counter (39% vs 20%), P<0.05.\",\n \"Excessive, sometimes unnecessary consultation challenges the ophthalmology resident's ability to obtain adequate rest and personal time while taking at-home calls. Basic training of nonophthalmologists in assessing and treating common ophthalmic emergencies offers a potential solution to this problem by providing primary caregivers the knowledge base, tools, and confidence to manage them independently. We measured ophthalmic consultation requests at a large teaching institution and the impact of an educational intervention on the number and type of requests. During a 31-day period in 2009 all requests for urgent ophthalmic consultation were logged and characterized by reason, urgency, and source of the call. A 3-part educational intervention was targeted to residents and attending physicians in the departments of emergency medicine (half-day lecture and practice), anesthesiology (grand rounds lecture), and otolaryngology (guidelines for traumatic orbital fractures). Six months later we conducted a 26-day call log to evaluate the impact. Pre intervention, we received 63 total and 56 after-hours calls for urgent ophthalmic consultation as compared to 39 total and 35 after-hours calls post intervention. Ophthalmology residents reported seeing more urgent and fewer nonessential consultations in the postintervention period, and there was greater agreement between calling physicians' initial diagnosis and consulting physicians' final diagnosis. No adverse patient outcomes occurred as a result of the change in practices.\",\n \"The purpose of this study was to investigate factors related to well-child visit noncompliance in an ethnically diverse family practice clinic population. Participants included 146 parents (131 mothers and 15 fathers) of children aged 0 to 24 months who received care at a St. Paul residency clinic. Participants completed telephone surveys that asked about their demographic characteristics, attitudes toward well-child visits, whether the most recent planned well-child visit had been kept, and their own and their child's health characteristics. All participants thought that well-child visits were important, with immunizations being the highest rated reason for importance. Fourteen percent of parents said they had missed a recent well-child visit, mostly because they forgot. More than three fourths of parents believed visit reminders were helpful, and the preferred type of reminder was a telephone call. Noncompliance with well-child visits was associated with the parent's depressive symptoms, transportation difficulties, working at a job, having private (vs public) health insurance, and being older (vs younger).\",\n \"At our institution, patients undergoing selected operative procedures are referred to a protocol for telephone follow-up by surgical specialty nurses. Our objective was to review our experience with this protocol to determine if telephone follow-up is a safe and preferred alternative to the traditional postoperative clinic visit. Records of patients followed up by telephone over 6 months were evaluated for information regarding each patient's postoperative course. Records included telephone follow-up forms, clinic notes, and emergency department records. A total of 563 patients underwent a total of 601 procedures. Seventy-six percent (n = 427) were successfully contacted postoperatively; 24% (n = 136) did not respond to multiple contact attempts. Forty-five requests for clinic follow-up resulted in 27 actual visits, 10 from families not satisfied with telephone contact alone. Most families contacted (382/427, 90%) were satisfied and did not request an appointment. A total of 43 postoperative clinic or emergency department evaluations resulted in 9 interventions (1.6% complication rate).\",\n \"Studies demonstrate gaps in anticipatory guidance during well-child visits, but none consider academic teaching hospitals where physician trainees also provide counseling. We prospectively assessed parental perception of anticipatory guidance at the outpatient clinic of an academic teaching hospital. Parents of patients newborn to<60 months old completed questionnaires regarding providers seen and anticipatory guidance preferences. Of 204 parents, 40% saw the child's primary attending alone. There was no association between providers seen and the number of topics covered. Seeing the child's primary attending alone increased the odds that parents' priority topics were covered compared with another attending (odds ratio [OR] = 0.31; 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.11-0.90) or the addition of a resident (OR = 0.35; 95% CI = 0.16-0.77) or medical student (OR = 0.33; 95% CI = 0.12-0.90).\",\n \"Our objective was to assess the occurrence of pediatric emergencies in the offices of family physicians and pediatricians, the preparedness to respond, and the perceived importance of being prepared. We performed a cross-sectional random mail survey of physicians. Surveys were sent to 187 family physicians and 129 pediatricians practicing in North Carolina with 75% and 86% response rates, respectively. The 169 total respondents were in community practices regularly treating children and were included for analysis. We measured the incidence of 8 types of pediatric emergencies, the availability of 11 items for resuscitation and stabilization, whether the physician had Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) training in the previous 2 years, whether the office ever conducted a mock emergency, and beliefs about the importance of preparing for and providing emergency care to children. Six types of pediatric emergencies were seen in one third or more of all practices during the year. The average practice saw 4 or more pediatric emergencies in a year (family physicians = 3.8 vs pediatricians = 4.9, P<.001). Family physicians had fewer resuscitation and stabilization items than pediatricians (5.7 vs 8.6 items, P<.001) and were less prepared in terms of PALS training (19% vs 51%, P<.001). Those with PALS training were more likely to have an intraosseous needle and Broselow tape and to have conducted a mock code. Family physicians considered it is less important than pediatricians to provide such care or to be prepared to do so.\",\n \"The proportions of callers who sought unadvised medical care and who received unadvised significant care were not significantly different in the advice nurse and pediatrician groups. This suggests that advice nurses do not delay significant medical treatment when compared with pediatricians.\",\n \"We hypothesized that advanced information and communication technology (ICT) would be acceptable to parents in a pediatric surgical, and diagnostic imaging day care setting. After Ethics Committee approval, we distributed surveys, over a one-month period, to parents of children arriving for day care surgery or diagnostic imaging. Parents indicated their acceptance of various proposed modes of postoperative discussion of healthcare i.e.; face-to-face, videophone, or telephone. Parents were also asked to describe their receptiveness to scheduling non-emergency hospital appointments online and to receiving electronic media describing their child's surgery and postoperative management. Parental education, income, and familiarity with the Internet were also assessed. A total of 451 surveys (84% response rate) were returned. Most parents (95%) had access to the Internet and 70% did their banking online. Forty-two percent of the parents had at least a university education and 63% had an annual family income > $50,000 Canadian. The majority of parents (98%) accepted face-to-face interaction, while only 35% and 37% of parents were receptive to videophone and telephone interviews, respectively. Computer availability (P = 0.001) and online banking (P = 0.011) were the only variables that predicted those parents who were in favour of using videophone technology. Parents were receptive to instruction electronic media (80%) and booking appointments online (61%).\",\n \"The goal was to examine pediatricians' views about whether and how well-child care for children 0 to 5 years of age should be changed. A mail survey of a national random sample of 1000 general pediatricians was performed with a survey instrument that examined pediatricians' attitudes and behaviors toward our current way and an ideal way of providing well-child care. Results were analyzed for the following 3 major domains of change in well-child care: provider type, visit format, and visit location. Sixty percent (n = 502) of eligible subjects responded to the survey. Nearly all respondents (97%) rated the current US system as excellent or good in providing well-child care. Most pediatricians (85%-91%) reported that they are currently the main providers of anticipatory guidance, developmental screening, and psychosocial screening. However, a majority (54%-60%) reported that, in an ideal system that maximized the effectiveness and efficiency of care, nonphysicians would provide these services. Fewer pediatricians (24%) reported that ideally nonphysicians should provide the physical examination. The majority of respondents (79%-93%) reported that at least some anticipatory guidance, minor acute care, and chronic care services could be conducted through telephone or e-mail communication, and 55% stated that at least some well-child care services should be provided in alternative locations, such as day care centers. In multivariate analysis, support for these changes was distributed widely across pediatricians with varying personal and practice characteristics.\",\n \"The Internet has become in recent years an unlimited source of health-related information and revolutionized health information access. Follow-up after an emergency department (ED) visit is important for continuity of care but is difficult to achieve. We conducted this study to determine whether e-mail could become a method for a follow-up contact after leaving the pediatric ED. Over a 2-month period, parents who had a telephone line and e-mail access and whose child was discharged from the ED at the Hospital for Sick Children in Toronto were randomized to receive an e-mail or a telephone follow-up. Main outcome measure was the response rates by parents to the telephone or e-mail. A total of 265 (79%) of the 337 families who were approached had Internet access, and the majority (75%) check e-mails at least once a day. Eighty-seven percent (85 of 98) and 53% (53 of 100) of the families who were contacted by telephone or e-mail, respectively, were reached within an average of 17 and 46 hours, respectively. Fourteen percent of families from the study population were unreachable either by telephone or by e-mail. Most (57%) parents who did not respond to the e-mail did not check or did not remember reading the e-mail or had trouble with access. Ten percent of the e-mails were undeliverable.\",\n \"Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).\",\n \"Understanding discharge instructions is crucial to optimal healing but may be compromised in the hectic environment of the emergency department. To determine parents' understanding of ED discharge instructions and factors that may affect it. A convenience sample of parents of children discharged home from the ED of an urban tertiary care pediatric facility (n = 287) and a suburban level II general hospital (n = 195) completed a 13 item questionnaire covering demographics, level of anxiety, and quality of physician's explanation. Parents also described their child's diagnosis and treatment instructions and indicated preferred auxiliary methods of delivery of information. Data were analyzed using the BMPD statistical package. Full understanding was found in 72% and 78% of the parents at the respective centers for the diagnosis, and in 82% and 87% for the treatment instructions (P = NS between centers). There was no statistical correlation between level of understanding and parental age, gender, education, level of anxiety before or after the ED visit, or time of day. The most contributory factor to lack of understanding was staff use of medical terminology. Parents suggested further explanations by a special discharge nurse and written information as auxiliary methods.\",\n \"To determine whether implementation of a set of standardized pediatric telephone triage protocols results in consistent triage dispositions when applied by different operators. A descriptive study with interrater comparisons was performed. Telephone interviews simulated the setting of a triage station in a university hospital-based pediatric emergency department. A mock parent presented 15 standardized respiratory cases in random order to 12 pediatric ED nurses. Nurses assigned patients' complaints to severity categories using 9 respiratory complaint protocols extracted from a commercially available pediatric telephone triage tool. Protocol selection and severity endpoints were recorded. Interobserver agreement among nurses was analyzed by the kappa statistic. Comparisons of operator characteristics and triage results were carried out by ANOVA. Interrater agreement in triage disposition among nurses was poor (kappa,.11; 95% confidence interval,.02 to.20). Protocol selection varied; the group used a mean of 3 different disposition-generating protocols per case. Disposition also varied, with up to 4 different severity endpoints per protocol in a given case. A post-hoc comparison of the mean disposition severity between nurses did not reach significance at an adjusted level (P =.04). Fifty-eight percent of the nurses felt confined by the protocols, and 42% admitted to at least 1 intentional deviation from them.\",\n \"There is concern that after-hours nurse telephone triage systems are overwhelming the emergency department (ED) with nonemergent pediatric referrals. This study aimed to critically review a nonpediatric hospital-based call center with the aim of identifying the algorithms responsible for the majority of nonessential referrals. This is a retrospective observational study performed at a tertiary medical care facility over 1 year. Telephone triage forms of children and adolescents younger than 18 years, exclusively referred by triage nurses using the Barton Schmitt protocols, were reviewed, and their ED course was evaluated by consulting the electronic medical record. \\\"Essential\\\" referrals to the ED were classified as presentations warranting immediate evaluation or referrals requiring \\\"essential interventions\\\" such as serum laboratory tests, imaging, complex procedures, intravenous medications, subspecialty consultation, or admission. A total of 220 patients were included in this study. Of these, 73 (33%) were classified as nonessential, whereas 147 (67%) were classified as essential. Nonessential patients were significantly younger compared with essential referrals (P<0.05). They also had lower triage scores (P = 0.026) and shorter ED stays (P<0.0001). The algorithms for \\\"fever-3 months or older\\\" (12.3%), \\\"vomiting without diarrhea\\\" (8.2%), \\\"trauma-head\\\" (8.2%), \\\"headache\\\" (6.8%), and \\\"sore throat\\\" (5.5%) were determined most likely to result in a nonessential referral.\",\n \"The telephone is better than e-mail as a follow-up channel with families of children who visit the pediatric ED. The main reason for not responding to e-mails is \\\"technical problems.\\\" E-mail could be a mean for follow-up contact for part of our patient population, especially for nonurgent purposes.\",\n \"Our study identifies that a third of unnecessary pediatric visits to the ED occurred as a result of the nurse triage telephone system in question. We recommend review of the algorithms stated to reduce strain on local ED resources.\",\n \"To compare daytime nurse telephone triage calls received by a suburban practice with those received by a hospital-based, inner-city pediatric practice. A research assistant, listening simultaneously with triage personnel, prospectively coded all calls received by the nurse triage telephone offices in 2 pediatric practices. Calls were coded the first full, nonholiday week of 3 consecutive summer and 3 consecutive winter months, alternating morning and afternoon sessions. One practice was suburban and had almost all commercially insured patients; the other was hospital-based, in an inner-city, and consisted mostly of patients with Medicaid coverage or no health insurance. A total of 901 calls were triaged in the suburban practice (SP) and 768 in the urban practice (UP). The chief complaints of calls regarding medical problems were similar at both sites. Difficulties with language were noted less often in SP compared with UP (1% vs 17%). The reason for the calls differed by site: medical problem relating to illness or injury (SP 55% vs UP 40%); social issue (SP 1% vs UP 9%); documentation request (SP 2% vs UP 7%); request for laboratory work (SP.3% vs UP 4%); and well child advice (SP 9% vs UP 5%). The disposition of calls also differed by site: telephone advice was offered significantly more in SP than in UP (32% vs 20%); fewer calls required the need for the medical record in SP than in UP (2% vs 12%).\",\n \"Advice nurse call centers are used to ensure access to medical advice, thereby potentially reducing the costs of health services. To determine if medical advice from advice nurses and on-call physicians delays significant medical treatment in a general pediatrics population. Randomized controlled trial. A university general pediatrics faculty practice. Parents or guardians calling for after-hours advice regarding their children.Intervention After-hours medical advice calls were randomized at the time of the call to an advice nurse or an on-call pediatrician. The proportion of callers who sought medical care not advised by the advice nurse or on-call pediatrician and the proportion who received unadvised significant care. There were 1182 advice calls: 566 in the pediatrician group and 616 in the advice nurse group. There were no significant differences in the types of telephone triage advice in the physician and advice nurse groups. There was no significant difference in the proportion of callers who sought unadvised care (108 [19.9%] in the physician group vs 110 [19.0%]in the advice nurse group) or in the proportion of callers who received unadvised significant care (23 [4.2%] in the physician group vs 25 [4.3%]in the advice nurse group).\",\n \"Telephone calls for advice are common in pediatric emergency departments. This study was conducted to determine the nature of these calls and the answers provided. From 24 April through 24 July 1994, all telephone calls requesting pediatric advice in the emergency department of the Poissy Hospital were independently analysed by two pediatricians from forms prospectively filled in for each call by the resident or the attending people who answered the call. Of the 239 registered calls, 186 could be analysed. They represented, in number, 15.25% of the children seen at the same emergency department during the study period. Weekend and holiday calls accounted for 35.5% of calls. 7.8% of calls were received from 0.01 am to 8.00 am, 28.7% from 8.01 am to 4.00 pm, and 63.5% from 4.01 pm to 12.00 pm. Thirty-seven percent concerned children under one year of age. The caller was one of the parents in 93% of cases. The four most frequent complaints were fever (26.5%), requests for information (17.2%), rash (12.3%), and vomiting (10.2%). The review of calls by two pediatricians determined that 67% of children did not need to be seen by a physician within six hours; 28% needed to be seen within 6 hours, and 5% needed to be seen within one hour. The advice given was followed in 88% of cases; 96% of callers were satisfied with their calls management.\",\n \"A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.\",\n \"yes. Telephone advice constitutes an important part of the activity in the pediatric emergency department. Instructional programs in telephone management are necessary for physicians. These programs should include communication skills and familiarization with protocols concerning the most frequent complaints, especially those regarding children under one year of age.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":523,"string":"523"}}},{"rowIdx":273180,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Organizational and financial characteristics of health plans: are they related to primary care performance?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05).","With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined."],"string":"[\n \"Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05).\",\n \"With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["This study found lower levels of severe mental health problems, especially depression, than reported elsewhere, but higher prevalence of psychological distress. High levels of physical and mental health co-morbidity were found. These findings suggest that planning for primary care services needs to adopt a flexible assessment model. The development of effective, time-limited protocols and screening tools to assist the PHCT in improving their identification rates is recommended. This needs to be supported by the availability of appropriate treatments for the psychological distress.","It is concluded that these hypotheses form a sound basis for further primary care research on how the organizational structure of health care systems influences patient reflections on access to medical care.","These findings suggest that for some treatment modalities, stronger primary care linkage mechanisms decrease subsequent utilization of expensive ED and hospital services. Future study should examine the cost implications of these strong linkage mechanisms and ways to strengthen linkages to off-site medical care.","The use of physician profiles in \"pay for performance\" initiatives depend on their reliability and accuracy. To evaluate whether health care delivery units (practices) can be reliably differentiated using the Health Employers Data Information System (HEDIS) performance measure. Simulation was used to describe the relationship between practice size (number of children with persistent asthma) and precision of practice measures to estimate performance. Children enrolled in 1 of the 39 practice groups from 1 of 3 managed care organizations participating in the Pediatric Asthma Care Patient Outcomes Research Team (PAC PORT). The main outcome was reproducibility of 4 performance measures, the HEDIS measure and 3 additional measures available from automated claims data: the proportion of children with asthma related-hospitalization, emergency department visits and oral steroid dispensings for asthma. The ability to reproducibly rank a practice is dependent on the performance measure, practice size, and the reproducibility threshold chosen. Of measures evaluated, none achieved a reproducibility>85% for practice size of 50 or less. At a practice size of 100 subjects, the HEDIS measure reproducibly ranked practices 89% of the time, compared with 85% for emergency department visits and 83% for hospitalizations. Only at a practice size of 100 children with persistent asthma, was reproducibility of ranking greater than 85% with all performance measures evaluated.","Cross-sectionally, family practices with better quality of diabetes care had fewer emergency admissions for short-term complications of diabetes. Over time, after controlling for national trends in admissions, improvements in quality in a family practice were associated with a reduction in its admissions.","yes. Physicians from integrated medical groups and groups with greater numbers of PCPs performed better on several patient experience measures, suggesting that organized care processes adopted by these groups may enhance patients' experiences. Physicians practicing in markets with high concentrations of vulnerable populations may be disadvantaged by constraints that affect performance. Future studies should clarify the extent to which performance deficits associated with area-level deprivation are modifiable.","Getting to know the opinion of area managers and Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators about the indicators used to measure the PHC output. Questionnaire via mail. Descriptive statistics. Areas 2-5, and 3, Zaragoza, Spain. Managing teams of these three areas and Primary Health Care facilities coordinators. The questionnaire was sent to 57 Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators and 16 area managers which was answered 53% of them. In the range from 1 to 10 the so-called product achieved in the evaluation the highest marks have been: the Services offered by the PHCF (7.8), Coverage (7.8), Achievement of the Minimal Technical Rules (7.76) and Patient Satisfaction (7.51). The indicator that obtained the highest level of agreement was also the product achieved in the evaluation of the Services offered by PHCF.","Nearly all managed care plans rely on a physician \"gatekeeper\" to control use of specialty, hospital, and other expensive services. Gatekeeping is intended to reduce costs while maintaining or improving quality of care by increasing coordination and prevention and reducing duplicative or inappropriate care. Whether gatekeeping achieves these goals remains largely unproven. To assess physicians' attitudes about the effects of gatekeeping compared with traditional care on administrative work, quality of patient care, appropriateness of resource use, and cost. Cross-sectional survey of primary care physicians Outpatient facilities in metropolitan Boston, Mass. All physicians who served as both primary care gatekeepers and traditional Blue Cross/Blue Shield providers for the employees of Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. Of the 330 physicians surveyed, 202 (61%) responded. Physician ratings of the effects of gatekeeping on 21 aspects of care, including administrative work, physician-patient interactions, decision making, appropriateness of resource use, cost, and quality of care. Physicians reported that gatekeeping (compared with traditional care) had a positive effect on control of costs, frequency, and appropriateness of preventive services and knowledge of a patient's overall care (P<.001). They also felt that gatekeeping increased paperwork and telephone calls and negatively affected the overall quality of care, access to specialists, ability to order expensive tests and procedures, freedom in clinical decisions, time spent with patients, physician-patient relationships, and appropriate use of hospitalizations and laboratory tests (P<.001). Overall, 32% of physicians rated gatekeeping as better than traditional care, 40% the same, 21% gatekeeping as worse, and 7% were of mixed opinion. Positive ratings of gatekeeping were associated with fewer years in clinical practice, generalist training, and experience with gatekeeping and health maintenance organization plans.","Socioeconomic disparities in treatment and outcomes of non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) are well established. To explore whether these differences are secondary to individual or institutional characteristics, we examined treatment selection and outcome in a diverse population treated at a single medical center. We performed a retrospective analysis of consecutive patients diagnosed with NSCLC stages I-III from 2000 to 2005 at the University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center. Treatment selection was dichotomized as 'standard' (surgery for stage I-II; surgery and/or radiation therapy for stage III) or 'other.' Associations between patient characteristics (including socioeconomic status) and treatment selection were examined using logistic regression; associations between characteristics and overall survival were examined using Cox regression models and Kaplan-Meier survival analysis. A total of 450 patients were included. Twenty-eight percent of patients had private insurance, 43% had Medicare, and 29% had an indigent care plan. The likelihood of receiving 'standard' therapy was significantly associated with insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance odds ratio [OR] 0.13, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.04, 0.43 for stage I-II; OR 0.38, 95% CI 0.14, 1.00 for stage III). For patients with stage I-II NSCLC, survival was associated with age, sex, insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance hazard ratio for death 1.98; 95% CI 1.16, 3.37), stage, and treatment selection. In stage III NSCLC, survival was associated with treatment selection.","no. Despite the lack of difference in symptom characteristics between children in primary and tertiary care, a notable differential in cost of evaluation exists in accordance with level of care. Symptom characteristics do not seem to drive diagnostic evaluation in either primary or tertiary care. Given the lack of differences in child-reported symptoms and the maternal perspective that children evaluated by a gastroenterologist had more severe pain, we speculate that parent perception of child symptoms may be a primary factor in seeking tertiary care.","This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \"not at risk\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.","Team-based primary care improves patients' perception of process and outcome indicators in the area of access to after-hours care, quality of care, confidence in the system, overall coordination and patient centeredness. Future research needs to establish the causal link between team-based primary care and health outcomes of patients.","A high proportion of the US primary care workforce reports burnout, which is associated with negative consequences for clinicians and patients. Many protective factors from burnout are characteristics of patient-centered medical home (PCMH) models, though even positive organizational transformation is often stressful. The existing literature on the effects of PCMH on burnout is limited, with most findings based on small-scale demonstration projects with data collected only among physicians, and the results are mixed. To determine if components of PCMH related to team-based care were associated with lower burnout among primary care team members participating in a national medical home transformation, the VA Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT). Web-based, cross-sectional survey and administrative data from May 2012. A total of 4,539 VA primary care personnel from 588 VA primary care clinics. The dependent variable was burnout, and the independent variables were measures of team-based care: team functioning, time spent in huddles, team staffing, delegation of clinical responsibilities, working to top of competency, and collective self-efficacy. We also included administrative measures of workload and patient comorbidity. Overall, 39 % of respondents reported burnout. Participatory decision making (OR 0.65, 95 % CI 0.57, 0.74) and having a fully staffed PACT (OR 0.79, 95 % CI 0.68, 0.93) were associated with lower burnout, while being assigned to a PACT (OR 1.46, 95 % CI 1.11, 1.93), spending time on work someone with less training could do (OR 1.29, 95 % CI 1.07, 1.57) and a stressful, fast-moving work environment (OR 4.33, 95 % CI 3.78, 4.96) were associated with higher burnout. Longer tenure and occupation were also correlated with burnout.","yes. These findings suggest that in primary care, structured diabetes care allowing for individualization was highly effective among diabetic patients with co-occurring PI.","We analyzed data from a cohort of 782 older patients assembled in 1999 to 2000 to determine whether baseline patient assessments of the quality of the primary care services they had received, measured using the Components of Primary Care Index (CPCI), were associated with subsequent changes in health-related quality of life (HRQoL) and/or survival. Longitudinal growth curve models were used to analyze changes in Quality of Well-Being (QWB-SA) scores over an average (S.D.) of 2.07 (1.07) years. Cox proportional hazards models were used to identify variables associated with mortality over an average of 8.26 years (6460 person-years). To reduce confounding by severity of illness, subjects were stratified into disabled, nondisabled high utilizers of primary care, and nondisabled low utilizers. Within subgroups, we controlled for number of chronic illnesses and scores on the General Health subscale of the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form-36 (SF-36). We also controlled for baseline age, sex, marital status, income, body mass index, educational attainment, duration of the relationship with current primary care physician (PCP), and number of visits to the PCP in the year before enrollment. Analyses took into account clustering of patients within PCP. Neither total CPCI nor any CPCI subscale score was associated with QWB-SA change over time. Higher ratings of Coordination of Care were associated with reduced survival in the disabled and nondisabled high utilizer subgroups (P = .007).","To examine how resource use varies with care quality for managed care populations with diabetes. Data from 31 commercial health plans (23 health maintenance organizations and 8 preferred provider organizations) were analyzed. Resource use was calculated using medical and pharmacy claims and enrollment data for members with diabetes. A standardized pricing methodology was applied for resource use associated with inpatient, pharmacy, evaluation and management, and procedural services. Quality of care results were calculated for 4 process quality indicators of the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) comprehensive diabetes care measure set. Resource use varied more between organizations than quality of care results. Pharmacy resource use was significantly associated with higher quality; inpatient, procedure and surgery, and ambulatory care visit resource use were not significantly associated.","The health care market is demanding increasing amounts of information regarding quality of care in health plans. Physicians are a potentially important but infrequently used source of such information. To assess physicians' views on health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care in health plans and to compare ratings between plans. Minneapolis-St Paul, Minn. One hundred physicians in each of 3 health plans. Each physician rated 1 health plan. Likert-type items that assessed health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care. A total of 249 physicians (84%) completed the survey. Fewer than 20% of all physicians gave plans the highest rating (excellent or strongly agree) for health plan practices that promote delivery of high-quality care (such as providing continuing medical education for physicians, identifying patients needing preventive care, and providing physicians feedback about practice patterns). Barriers to delivering high-quality care related to sufficiency of time to spend with patients, covered benefits and copayment structure, and utilization management practices. Ratings differed across health plans. For example, the percentage of physicians indicating that they would recommend the plan they rated to their own family was 64% for plan 1, 92% for plan 2, and 24% for plan 3 (P<.001 for all comparisons).","After controlling for population factors, better scheduled primary care access and glycaemic control were associated with lower hospital admission rates across most complications. There is little rationale to restrict primary care-sensitive condition definitions to acute complications. They should be revised to improve the usefulness of hospital admission data as an outcome measure, and to facilitate international comparisons. The risk of emergency hospital admission should be monitored routinely.","These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.","To measure the readiness of rural primary care practices to qualify as patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs), one step toward participating in changes underway in health care finance and delivery. We used the 2008 Health Tracking Physician Survey to compare PCMH readiness scores among metropolitan and nonmetropolitan primary care practices. The National Committee on Quality Assurance (NCQA) assessment system served as a framework to assess the PCMH capabilities of primary care practices based on their services, processes, and policies. We found little difference between urban and rural practices. Approximately 41% of all primary care practices offer minimal or no PCMH services. We also found that large practices score higher on standards primarily related to information technology and care management.","The objective of this study was to evaluate the association of patient satisfaction with type of practitioner attending visits in the primary care practice of a managed care organization (MCO). We conducted a retrospective observational study of 41,209 patient satisfaction surveys randomly sampled from visits provided by the pediatrics and adult medicine departments from 1997 to 2000. Logistic regression, with practitioner and practice fixed effects, of patient satisfaction versus dissatisfaction was estimated for each of 3 scales: practitioner interaction, care access, and overall experience. Models were estimated separately by department. Independent variables were type of practitioner attending the visit and other patient and visit characteristics. Adjusted for patient and visit characteristics, patients were significantly more likely to be satisfied with practitioner interaction on visits attended by physician assistant/nurse practitioners (PA/NPs) than visits attended by MDs in both the adult medicine and pediatrics practices. Patient satisfaction with care access or overall experience did not significantly differ by practitioner type. In adult medicine, patients were more satisfied on diabetes visits provided by MDs than by PA/NPs. Otherwise, patient satisfaction for the combined effects of practitioner type and specific presenting condition did not differ.","American health plans can make a substantial contribution to the control of cardiometabolic risk (CMR), a condition associated with both adverse health outcomes and increased cost of care. Our goal was to determine health plan interest in and ability to provide CMR control services. In January 2008, America's Health Insurance Plans, in collaboration with the HealthPartners Research Foundation, surveyed the chief medical officers of 74 member health insurance plans that offer commercial health maintenance organization, point of service, and preferred provider organization insurance. The response rate was 47%. The 35 responding chief medical officers reported that their plans identify members with CMR through referral from case or care management (89%), health risk assessment data (86%), claims data (82%), and pharmaceutical use data (79%). Nearly all (97%) plans currently offer interventions for tobacco use, obesity/overweight, and nutrition. Ninety-four percent of plans offer interventions to increase physical activity. All plans offer health risk appraisal or assessment with feedback and education, 91% use Web-based tools, and 85% use health coaching to help plan members lower their risk. Perceived barriers to broader implementation of risk control programs included lack of resources (79%), limited available enrollee data (74%), and lack of reporting systems (79%). Few health plan officers viewed lack of purchaser interest to be a barrier to program implementation.","Many view advanced primary care models such as the patient-centered medical home as foundational for accountable care organizations (ACOs), but it remains unclear how these two delivery reforms are complementary and how they may produce conflict. The objective of this study was to identify how joining an ACO could help or hinder a primary care practice's efforts to deliver high-quality care. This qualitative study involved interviews with a purposive sample of 32 early adopters of advanced primary care and/or ACO models, drawn from across the U.S. and conducted in mid-2014. Interview notes were coded using qualitative data analysis software, permitting topic-specific queries which were then summarized. Respondents perceived many potential benefits of joining an ACO, including care coordination staff, data analytics, and improved communication with other providers. However, respondents were also concerned about added \"bureaucratic\" requirements, referral restrictions, and a potential inability to recoup investments in practice improvements.","To determine if specific components of the medical home are differentially associated with beneficial child outcomes. Logistic regression was used to model each component (family-centeredness, comprehensive care, and care coordination) with health care utilization, child health, and health promoting behaviors in 81 232 subjects from the 2003 National Survey of Children's Health. Family-centeredness was associated with increased odds of children being read to (adjusted odds ratio [aOR] = 2.16). Comprehensive care was associated with decreased outpatient (aOR = 0.70) and emergency department (aOR = 0.79) sick visits and with increased child health per parental assessment (aOR = 1.50). Care coordination was associated with increased preventive care visits (aOR = 1.41) and increased outpatient (aOR = 1.21) and emergency department (aOR = 1.24) sick visits. Stratification by special health care needs demonstrated similar findings.","When evaluating the influence of primary health care on the rates of hospitalisations, both socioeconomic factors and health care structure must be taken into consideration. Doing this, the rates of GP visits correlated negatively with the rates of hospitalisations.","To examine the association between the degree of healthcare provider continuity and healthcare utilization and costs. A longitudinal, prospective, observational study. Data on patients with arthritis, asthma, epigastric pain/peptic ulcer disease, hypertension, and otitis media were collected at each of 6 health maintenance organizations (HMOs). Outcome variables included the number of prescriptions for the target disease and the cost, total number of prescriptions and the cost, the number of outpatient visits, and the number of hospital admissions. Disease-specific severity of illness, type of visit, and provider information were obtained at each encounter. HMO profit status, visit copay, gatekeeper strictness, formulary limitations, use of multisource (generic) drugs, gender, number of months in the study, age, and severity of illness were controlled in the analyses. There were 12,997 patients followed for more than 99,000 outpatient visits, 1000 hospitalizations, and more than 240,000 prescriptions. Increasing the number of primary or specialty care providers a patient encountered during the study generally was associated with increased utilization and costs when HMO and patient characteristics were controlled. The number of specialty care providers also increased as the number of primary care providers increased. The incremental increase in pharmacy costs per patient per year with each additional provider ranged between $19 in subjects with otitis media to $58 in subjects with hypertension.","yes. Although a large proportion of primary care visits are for musculoskeletal symptoms, the majority of primary care providers tested at a large, regional, academic primary care institution failed to demonstrate adequate musculoskeletal knowledge and confidence. Further characterization of the relationship between knowledge and confidence and its association with demographic variables might benefit the education of musculoskeletal providers in the future.","To determine whether a major improvement in access (ie, implementing an open access system) in a large multispecialty medical group during 2000 was associated with changes in utilization or costs for patients with diabetes, coronary heart disease (CHD), or depression. Multilevel regression analysis of health plan administrative data. Approximately 7000 patients with diabetes, 3800 with CHD, and 6000 with depression who received all of their care in this care system served as the subjects for this study. Utilization and costs between 1999 and 2001 (before and after implementation of open access) were compared for these patients. The main outcome measures were rates of inpatient admissions and various types of outpatient encounters as well as associated costs for these subjects. Between 1999 and 2001, total office visit changes were small and varied with condition, but the proportion of these visits made to primary care physicians increased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9% and primary care physician continuity increased for each condition. Urgent care visits also decreased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9%, but there was no change in emergency department visits or hospital admissions. Total costs of care for these patients were much larger than those for the overall population of the medical group, but increased at a similar rate.","yes. Increasing family physician comprehensiveness of care, especially as measured by claims measures, is associated with decreasing Medicare costs and hospitalizations. Payment and practice policies that enhance primary care comprehensiveness may help \"bend the cost curve.\"","Whereas there were some statistically discerned differences between insurance groupings for proportionate receipt of low-acuity care and high-acuity care among both the pediatric and adult populations, the magnitude of most differences noted was not large, and may not reflect important differences in health care need or ED use based on insurance.","The expectation that giving primary care organisations responsibility for commissioning care will result in improved patients' experiences of care or better use of resources should be treated with caution. The presence of strong national policy may be equally important. Models of service organisation are not proxies for quality of care. The most powerful force shaping patients' experiences of care may be health care professionals' ability to translate national policy into local services.","Despite increasing data demonstrating the positive impact primary care has on quality of care and costs, our specialty faces uncertainty. Its popularity among medical students is declining, and the income gap is growing between primary care and other specialties. Congress has the power to intervene in this impending crisis. If we want to influence lawmakers' actions, we need to know how they are thinking about these issues. Using a set of questions covering several physician payment topics, we interviewed 14 congressional staff aides (5 aides on Medicare-oversight committees, 9 general staff aides) and one representative from each of 3 governmental agencies: the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission, Congressional Budget Office, and Government Accountability Office. Interviewees revealed that issues in primary care are not high on the congressional agenda, and that Medicare's Sustainable Growth Rate (SGR) is the physician-payment issue on the minds of congressional staff members.","Higher health care charges, particularly from ambulatory (primary care clinic) settings, predicted smoking cessation among both individuals with and without chronic diseases. These charges may be proxies for other factors, such as smoking-related symptoms or physician advice or messaging regarding smoking cessation.","To examine the effect of public reporting (PR) and financial incentives tied to quality performance on the use of care management practices (CMPs) among small- and medium-sized physician groups.DATA: Survey data from The National Study of Small and Medium-sized Physician Practices were used. Primary data collection was also conducted to assess community-level PR activities. The final sample included 643 practices engaged in quality reporting; about half of these practices were subject to PR. We used a treatment effects model. The instrumental variables were the community-level variables that capture the level of PR activity in each community in which the practices operate. (1) PR is associated with increased use of CMPs, but the estimate is not statistically significant; (2) financial incentives are associated with greater use of CMPs; (3) practices' awareness/sensitivity to quality reports is positively related to their use of CMPs; and (4) combined PR and financial incentives jointly affect CMP use to a greater degree than either of these factors alone.","Among families with large employers offering a single health plan, those from low-income neighborhoods are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans. In contrast, families with small employers offering a single plan are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans if they are healthier and have lower baseline costs. These findings suggest that families with children in high-deductible plans may represent two distinct groups, one with higher-risk characteristics and another with lower-risk characteristics compared with those in traditional plans.","yes. The top 1% of frequent users usually had adequate health insurance and primary care access but were burdened by chronic conditions and frequent hospital admissions. Such patients may require more extensive coordinated medical management to decrease ED utilization.","Using frameworks, such as the long-term conditions pyramid of healthcare, primary care organizations (PCOs) in England and Wales are exploring ways of developing services for people with long-term respiratory disease. We aimed to explore the current and planned respiratory services and the roles of people responsible for change. A purposive sample of 30 PCOs in England and Wales. Semi-structured telephone interviews with the person responsible for driving the reconfiguration of respiratory services. Recorded interviews were transcribed and coded, and themes identified. The association of the composition of the team driving change with the breadth of services provided was explored using a matrix. All but two of the PCOs described clinical services developed to address the needs of people with respiratory conditions, usually with a focus on preventing admissions for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although the majority identified the need to develop a strategic approach to service development and to meet educational needs of primary care professionals, relatively few described clearly developed plans for addressing these issues. Involvement of clinicians from both primary and secondary care was associated with a broad multifaceted approach to service development. Teamwork was often challenging, but could prove rewarding for participants and could result in a fruitful alignment of objectives. The imminent merger of PCOs and overriding financial constraints resulted in a 'fluid' context which challenged successful implementation of plans.","Current healthcare reform efforts have highlighted the potential impact of insurance status on patient outcomes. The influence of primary payer status (PPS) within the pediatric surgical patient population remains unknown. The purpose of this study was to examine risk-adjusted associations between PPS and postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization in pediatric surgical patients within the United States. A weighted total of 153,333 pediatric surgical patients were evaluated using the national Kids' Inpatient Database (2003 and 2006): appendectomy, intussusception, decortication, pyloromyotomy, congenital diaphragmatic hernia repair, and colonic resection for Hirschsprung's disease. Patients were stratified according to PPS: Medicare (n=180), Medicaid (n=51,862), uninsured (n=12,539), and private insurance (n=88,753). Multivariable hierarchical regression modeling was utilized to evaluate risk-adjusted associations between PPS and outcomes. Overall median patient age was 12 years, operations were primarily non-elective (92.4%), and appendectomies accounted for the highest proportion of cases (81.3%). After adjustment for patient, hospital, and operation-related factors, PPS was independently associated with in-hospital death (p<0.0001) and postoperative complications (p<0.02), with increased risk for Medicaid and uninsured populations. Moreover, Medicaid PPS was also associated with greater adjusted lengths of stay and total hospital charges (p<0.0001). Importantly, these results were dependent on operation type.","Health Insurance subscribers in Ghana have high trust in their primary care provider giving them quality care under capitation payment despite their negative attitude towards capitation payment. They are guided by proximity and quality of care considerations in their choice of provider. The NHIA would, however, have to address itself to the negative perceptions about the capitation payment policy.","To determine whether there are important differences in performance between group practices and singlehanded general practitioners and the extent to which any differences are explained by practice characteristics such as deprivation. Cross sectional survey. 206 singlehanded practices and 606 partnerships in Trent region, United Kingdom. Comparison of process and outcome measures derived from routinely collected data on hospital admissions and target payments for singlehanded practices and partnerships. Multivariate analysis was used to adjust for the confounding effects of general practice characteristics-deprivation (Townsend score), percentage of Asian residents, percentage of black residents, proportion of men over 75 years, proportion of women over 75 years, rurality, presence of a female general practitioner, and vocational training status. Differences in achievement of immunisation and cytology targets apparent on univariate analysis were not seen after adjustment for other general practice characteristics. Similarly, significant differences (>15%; P<0.01) for three types of hospital admission seen on univariate analysis were not present after adjustment for other practice characteristics.","There has never been a conclusive test of whether there is a relation between ultimately choosing to be a primary care physician and one's amount of student loan debt at medical school graduation. To test this question, we examined data from the Women Physicians' Health Study, a large, nationally representative, questionnaire-based study of 4,501 U.S. women physicians. We found that the youngest physicians were more than five times as likely as the oldest to have had some student loan debt and far more likely to have had high debt levels (p <.0001). However, younger women physicians were also more likely to choose a primary care specialty (p <.002). There was no relation between being a primary care physician and amount of indebtedness (p =.77); this was true even when the results were adjusted for the physicians' decade of graduation and ethnicity (p =.79).","To find whether in certain primary care teams an association exists between the level of coverage in determined services and expenditure on drugs for pathologies included in these services. Retrospective descriptive study. Primary care, INSALUD, Area 1, Huesca. Using the data on coverage of the service portfolio in 1999 and pharmacy expenditure by therapeutic sub-groups during January-October of the same year, the following was analysed:- The service caring for chronic patients: Hypercholesterolaemia and comparison with expenditure in sub-group B04A (lipid-lowerers/ anti-atheroma drugs).- The service caring for chronic patients: Diabetes and comparison with expenditure in sub-groups A10A (insulin) and A10B (oral antidiabetic drugs). Expenditure was expressed as cost adjusted per 100 insured persons, using the INSALUD coefficients for the adjustment (active person coefficient: 0.732; pensioner coefficient: 0.268). The relationship between the two variables was represented graphically by a cloud of dots. Association between them was measured by Pearson's correlation coefficient. No statistically significant correlation was found between coverage and pharmacy expenditure in these sub-groups. Hypercholesterolaemia/lipid-lowerers: Pearson's coefficient = 0.334, 95% CI (-0.115 to 0.669). Diabetes/oral diabetic drugs and insulin: Pearson's coefficient<0.1.","yes. The stronger a physician's relationship with a health plan, the more positive the physician's experience with care management practices and policies was. The concordance between the types of available practices and physicians' ratings suggests that health plans and physicians agree about how to improve the quality of care.","Little is known about how concordance between patient self-report and medical record data varies with medical organization type. Given discrepancies in quality of care received across patient cohorts and organizations, it is important to understand the degree to which concordance metrics are robust across organization types. We tested whether concordance between patient selfreport and medical record data would vary with medical organization type, controlling for patient demographic characteristics, health status, and domain of medical care. This observational study included 1270 patients sampled from 39 West Coast medical organizations with at least 1 of the following conditions: diabetes, ischemic heart disease, asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or low back pain. Medical records and patient self-report were used to measure 50 items grouped into 4 conceptual domains: diagnosis, clinical services delivered, counseling and referral, and medication use. We evaluated the concordance between ambulatory medical record and patient survey data. We conducted multivariate logistic regressions to test the impact of medical organization type (medical groups vs independent practice associations), controlling for patient characteristics and domain of care, on 5 concordance measures. Independent practice associations were associated with worse agreement, survey specificity, and medical record sensitivity, and better medical record specificity compared with medical groups.","To explore medical home attributes of community health centers (CHCs) that provide care to low-income children nationwide compared to other providers for the poor. Cross-sectional study of children aged 0 to 17 years in the Medical Expenditure Panel Survey (MEPS; 2003 to 2009) who resided in families living at<200% of the federal poverty level (FPL) and had visits to a primary care setting. CHC visits were defined as a visit to a neighborhood/family health center, rural health clinic, or community health center. Independent measures included provider type, age, gender, race/ethnicity, insurance, FPL, number of parents at home, language, maternal education, health status, and special health care need. Dependent measures included 4 medical home attributes: accessibility, and family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. CHCs typically serve low-income children who are publicly insured or uninsured, come from racial/ethnic minority groups, and have poorer health status. Eighty percent to 90% of parents visiting both CHCs and other primary care providers rated high levels of family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. However, CHCs had a 10% to 18% lower rating of accessibility (after-hours care, telephone access) even after controlling for sociodemographic characteristics. Racial/ethnic disparities existed at both settings, but these patterns did not differ between CHCs and other settings.","To determine whether patients' satisfaction with their primary care is related to providers' use of medical resources. Sixty-two practices serving 2805 patients enrolled in BlueCross BlueShield of Minnesota were analyzed using hierarchical regression models. Three measures of satisfaction included patient satisfaction with overall healthcare, patient satisfaction with the time spent with a physician or other provider during a visit, and the likelihood that a patient would recommend the clinic to others. Patient satisfaction was found to be primarily a function of patient characteristics and not of practice characteristics. Providers' use of medical resources was not significantly related to patients' overall ratings of healthcare or to patients' willingness to recommend the practice to others. However, the time spent with a physician or other provider was significantly negatively related to patient satisfaction. Physician workload was significantly related to patient satisfaction.","To test the relationship between the presence of recommended chronic care model systems and the degree of integration among large medical groups. Cross-sectional survey in 2007 completed by medical directors of medical groups nationally with at least 100 physicians and a range of medical services and who had also participated in the National Survey of Physician Organizations. We recruited 111 medical directors among 123 who were eligible. The survey asked about the medical group's structural, financial, and functional aspects of integrated care, as well as the presence and use of practice systems for chronic disease care as measured by the Physician Practice Connections-Readiness Survey (PPC-RS). The analysis tested the association between integration measures and the presence of practice systems, controlling for medical group attributes. Ninety-seven completed surveys were returned (89.0% of 109 medical directors eligible). Measures of integration and practice systems varied widely among the medical groups. The total PPC-RS score correlated with each measure of integration but most highly with functional integration (r = 0.53, P<.01). The strongest PPC-RS component score correlations were for delivery systems redesign (r = 0.27-0.52, P<.01) and for decision support (r = 0.21-0.46, P<.05). Adjusting for organizational characteristics had little effect on these relationships.","Prior analyses of Medicare health plans have examined either utilization of services or quality of care, but not both jointly. Our objective was to compare utilization and quality for Medicare Advantage (MA) enrollees with diabetes or cardiovascular disease to that for similarly defined traditional Medicare (TM) beneficiaries. Cross-sectional matched observational study using data for 2007. We obtained individual-level Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) relative resource use (RRU) and quality data for patients enrolled in MA, and then developed comparable claims-based measures for matched samples of TM beneficiaries. utilization levels for inpatient care, evaluation and management services, and surgery; number of emergency department (ED) and inpatient visits; and quality of ambulatory care measures. We studied approximately 680,000 MA health maintenance organization (HMO) enrollees with diabetes and 270,000 HMO enrollees with cardiovascular conditions. For both conditions and almost all major strata, the RRU was lower for those enrolled in MA than for those in TM. Spending for those with diabetes was $5223 for MA HMO enrollees compared with $6413 for those in TM (cost ratio, 0.81; P < .001). ED utilization rates were consistently lower in MA than TM (567 vs 719 visits/1000 enrollees; rate ratio, 0.79; P < .001). Health plans that are more established, nonprofit, and/or larger generally had lower resource use and better relative quality than did smaller, newer, for-profit HMOs or preferred provider organizations.","Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.","yes. Managed-care plans, particularly HMOs, have complex systems for selecting, paying, and monitoring their physicians. Hybrid forms are common, and the differences between group or staff HMOs and network or IPA HMOs are less extensive than is commonly assumed.","To investigate the degree to which the absence of prescriber identifying information and the absence of pharmacy claims might affect the validity of physicians' economic profiles. The study database consisted of 4 years of claims from a mixed-model health maintenance organization. Using the grouper of Episode Treatment Groups by Symmetry Health Data Systems, Inc, 2 episode databases were created, with and without pharmacy claims included. For each database, the responsibility for defined episodes was attributed to physicians within specialty (1) on the basis of combined professional and prescribing costs and (2) on the basis of professional costs alone. Using the different databases and attribution rules, physicians were ranked within specialty on the economic profiling metric, and the various rankings were compared for consistency. Analyses were performed for cardiologists, family practitioners, general surgeons, and neurologists. The absence of prescriber identifying information appears to have only a small effect on physicians' economic profiles. The absence of pharmacy claims, on the other hand, may affect economic profile performance, but the effects differ by specialty and depend on pharmacy costs as a percentage of episode total costs for the specialty and the correlation of episode costs with and without pharmacy costs included.","The strong association between CoC hospital volume or type and guideline-recommended care diminishes after gastric cancer surgery. Variations in referral, insurance, and documentation patterns are potential explanations for these findings. These results highlight some limitations of using hospital attributes as a sole predictor of optimal cancer care.","Patients cared for in IMGs generally received higher-quality primary care than those cared for in IPAs. Having an EMR and implementation of quality improvement strategies did not explain the differences in quality. These findings suggest that physician group type influences health care quality.","This study aimed to explore whether specific characteristics of a general practice organization were associated with aspects of patient safety management. Secondary analysis of data from 271 primary care practices, collected in 10 European countries. These data were collected by a practice visitor and physician questionnaires. For this study we constructed 10 measures of patient safety, covering 45 items as outcomes, and 6 measures of practice characteristics as possible predictors for patient safety. Eight of the 10 patient safety measures yielded higher scores in larger practices (practices with more than 2 general practitioners). Medication safety (B 0.64), practice building safety (B 0.49) and incident reporting items (B 0.47) showed the strongest associations with practice size. Also measures on hygiene (B 0.37), medical record keeping (B 0.30), quality improvement (B 0.28), professional competence (B 0.24) and organized patient feedback items (B 0.24) had higher scores in larger practices.","To examine whether there are differential impacts of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the use of a recommended cancer screening service (mammography) versus a controversial cancer screening service (prostate cancer screening [PCS]). Observational cohort using the 1996 Medical Expenditure Panel Survey. A nationally representative sample of privately insured individuals was examined. Outcome measures were the receipt of mammography and PCS. Logistic regression was used to assess the impact of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the receipt of mammography and PCS, controlling for other covariates. Patient cost sharing and gatekeeper requirements were strong predictors of PCS but were statistically insignificant predictors of mammography. Men in health plans with a copayment over dollar 10 (odds ratio [OR] = 0.38, 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.19-0.78) or with deductibles over dollar 250 (OR = 0.38, 95% CI = 0.23-0.62) were significantly less likely to receive PCS than men in plans with no or lower copayments and deductibles. Men in gatekeeper plans were less likely to receive PCS than those without gatekeepers (OR = 0.48, 95% CI = 0.29-0.81).","Based on the US Preventive Services Task Force recommendations, we studied how health insurance type, ie, fee-for-service (FFS) or health maintenance organization (HMO), affects the utilization of preventive services of differing effectiveness. Household survey data from the 1993 and 1994 National Health Interview Surveys. We compared the use of mammograms, Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, counseling about hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and general physical examinations in FFS plans and HMOs. We used the bivariate probit model to control for selection bias caused by the unobservable factors in the choice of health insurance type. Enrollees in HMOs obtained more Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, mammograms (women 40 to 49 years old), and general physical examinations than enrollees in FFS plans. No significant difference was found between FFS plans and HMOs for the use of mammograms (women aged 30 to 39 years and 50 to 64 years) or HRT counseling. The correlation ratios from bivariate probit estimations indicated no selection bias favoring HMOs; for some preventive services, selection bias favored FFS plans.","yes. FA between medical schools and their primary teaching hospitals more strongly predicts academic health centers' performance than does SI. As demands for greater collaboration increase under health reform, emphasis should be placed on increasing FA rather than SI.","To inform the debate about managed care by examining how different types of private insurance-indemnity insurance, PPOs, open model HMOs, and closed model HMOs-affect the use of health services and consumer assessments of care.DATA SOURCES/ The 1996-1997 Community Tracking Study Household Survey, a nationally representative telephone survey of households, and the Community Tracking Study Insurance Followback Survey, a supplement to the Household Survey, which asks insurance organizations to match household respondents to specific insurance products. The analysis sample includes 27,257 nonelderly individuals covered by private insurance. Based on insurer reports, individuals are grouped into one of the four insurance product types. Measures of service use include ambulatory visits, preventive care use, hospital use, surgeries, specialist use, and whether there is a usual source of care. Consumer assessments of care include unmet or delayed care needs, satisfaction with health care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians. Estimates are adjusted to control for differences in individual characteristics and location. As one moves from indemnity insurance to PPOs to open model HMOs to closed model HMOs, use of primary care increases modestly but use of specialists is reduced. Few differences are observed in other areas of service use, such as preventive care, hospital use, and surgeries. The likelihood of having unmet or delayed care does not vary by insurance type, but the reasons that underlie such access problems do vary: enrollees in more managed products are less likely to cite financial barriers to care but are more likely to perceive problems in provider access, convenience, and organizational factors. Consumer assessments of care-including satisfaction with care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians-are generally lower under more managed products, particularly closed model HMOs.","The amount of public and private funding for health care is associated with US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. Changes in these funding sources may predict future student specialty choice and could be used to plan residency match rates in disciplines such as family medicine.","Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.","The effects of Medicaid HMO penetration on physician participation vary by the type of plan. If states are able to attract and retain commercial plans, participation by office-based physicians is likely to increase in a way that opens existing practices to more new Medicaid patients. Other policy variables that affect participation include the presence of a federally qualified health center (FQHC) in the county and cost-adjusted Medicaid fees relative to Medicare.","yes. Using sources of information that are routinely employed in primary health care services management, the model enables the measurement of the output of family medicine by considering the dimensions such as inter-personnel relationships, internal coordination of the team and the scientific-technical quality of the service. Despite its simplicity, this measure of the output incorporates the views not only of the users but of the health care professionals, as well.","Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.","Medicaid and Uninsured populations are a significant focus of current healthcare reform. We hypothesized that outcomes following major surgical operations in the United States is dependent on primary payer status. From 2003 to 2007, 893,658 major surgical operations were evaluated using the Nationwide Inpatient Sample (NIS) database: lung resection, esophagectomy, colectomy, pancreatectomy, gastrectomy, abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, hip replacement, and coronary artery bypass. Patients were stratified by primary payer status: Medicare (n = 491,829), Medicaid (n = 40,259), Private Insurance (n = 337,535), and Uninsured (n = 24,035). Multivariate regression models were applied to assess outcomes. Unadjusted mortality for Medicare (4.4%; odds ratio [OR], 3.51), Medicaid (3.7%; OR, 2.86), and Uninsured (3.2%; OR, 2.51) patient groups were higher compared to Private Insurance groups (1.3%, P < 0.001). Mortality was lowest for Private Insurance patients independent of operation. After controlling for age, gender, income, geographic region, operation, and 30 comorbid conditions, Medicaid payer status was associated with the longest length of stay and highest total costs (P < 0.001). Medicaid (P < 0.001) and Uninsured (P < 0.001) payer status independently conferred the highest adjusted risks of mortality.","Separate quality of care assessments for adults and children within the same managed care system identify significant differences in reported quality. Having health plan quality information about adult care does not serve as a proxy for needed information on children, particularly the care related to primary care and specialist providers. Areas of health plan assessment common to both adults and children (eg, claims processing) could be replaced with more targeted assessments of importance to parents and purchasers (eg, children with chronic conditions).","no. Performance on HCAHPS is an area that demands hospital attention both to provide patient-centered care and to maximize revenue. Development of an HAC was not associated with decreased satisfaction scores in a population of orthopedic surgery patients at a private, university-affiliated specialty center. The lack of any statistically significant difference in patient satisfaction may be attributable to patient satisfaction with care in response to complications, the decreased sensitivity inherent to using a general satisfaction survey, or a homogeneity among orthopedic surgery patients and their expectations of care.","On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.","yes. Primary payer status is associated with risk-adjusted postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization among pediatric surgical patients. Uninsured patients are at increased risk for postoperative mortality while Medicaid patients accrue greater morbidity, hospital lengths of stay, and total charges. These results highlight a complex interaction between socioeconomic and patient-related factors, and primary payer status should be considered in the preoperative risk stratification of pediatric patients.","Cross-sectional analyses of baseline performance often inform the development of interventions to improve care. An implicit assumption in these studies is that factors associated with better performance at baseline may also be useful in predicting change in performance over time. We analyzed data collected from 1997-2002 at 77 practices in Northeast Ohio participating in an intervention to increase evidence-based preventive services delivery (PSD). Spearman's correlation coefficients and multivariable models assessed associations between practice-level characteristics (e.g., organizational structure, objectives, climate, and culture) and baseline PSD, and with final PSD controlling for baseline values. Patterns of associations for both outcomes were inspected for overlap. The mean PSD rate was 36.8% (+/-8.8%) at baseline. This measure increased by an average of 4.9% (+/-6.3%) by the end of the intervention. Of eight practice characteristics correlated with either baseline performance or change from baseline in PSD, only two were common to both: characteristics associated with baseline PSD did not predict final PSD in multivariable models.","Withdrawals of health plans from Medicare have affected more than 1.6 million beneficiaries. Some plans claim that providing higher quality care raises costs, lowers profits, and spurs withdrawal because plans cannot sustain high quality care under current payment levels. To assess whether higher performance by Medicare health plans on quality indicators was associated with withdrawal. Retrospective cohort study. Taking each county where a contract was active as a unit of analysis, Medicare managed care plans active in 2310 contract-county combinations in 1997 were studied and followed for 3 years. Independent variables were scores on six indicators from the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) for each contract, collapsed into two summary measures: clinical and ambulatory care access. Separate Cox proportional hazards regressions were used for each indicator, and each summary measure, to assess the association of HEDIS performance with our outcome measure, time-to-withdrawal from Medicare. Multiple potential confounders were adjusted for. Of 2310 managed care contract-county combinations, 877 (38%) withdrew. The proportion of contract-counties with high scores on the summary clinical quality measure that withdrew was one-fifth that for low scorers (4.2% vs. 20.5%). For summary ambulatory care access performance, the corresponding ratio was two-fifths (12.8% vs. 32.0%). Lower payments were associated with higher withdrawal risk, but also higher clinical and ambulatory care access quality performance. In separate multivariable analyses controlling for confounders, both high clinical performance (HR, 0.18; 95% CI, 0.08-0.42) and high ambulatory care access performance (HR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.27-1.07) were independently associated with lower withdrawal risk.","Physician reimbursement strategies are associated with diabetes care processes, although their independent contributions are difficult to assess, due to high correlation with physician organizational model. Regardless of causality, a group's use of quality/satisfaction scores to determine physician compensation may indicate delivery of high-quality diabetes care.","The patient-centered medical home has gained much traction. Little is known about the relationship between the model and specific health care processes for chronic diseases such as diabetes. This study assesses the impact of features of a medical home on diabetes care. A cross-sectional survey of 540 patients with Medicaid (Medi-Cal) health insurance and type 2 diabetes in Los Angeles County was performed. The Primary Care Assessment Tools was used to measure seven features of medical-home performance. The response rate of the patient survey was 68.9%. Patient-reported medical-home performance averaged a score of 2.85 ± 0.29 (on a 1-4 scale, with 4 equaling the best care). Patients who received more timely and thorough diabetes care reported higher medical-home performance in every feature except for the comprehensiveness-services available. For example, the first-contact access feature score was higher among patients who had an HbA1c test in the past 6 months versus those who did not (2.38 vs. 2.25; P<0.05). Before and after adjusting for sociodemographics and health status, total medical-home performance was positively associated with each diabetes care measure. A 1-point increase in total medical-home score was associated with 4.53 higher odds of an HbA1c test in the past 6 months and 1.88 higher odds of an eye exam in the past year.","To investigate the relative impact of physician groups and health plans on quality of care measures. Secondary data analysis of receipt of preventive care services included in the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) among 10 758 patients representing 21 health maintenance organizations and 22 large provider groups in the San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, areas in 1997. Each patient was eligible for (at least) one of six HEDIS-measured services. Data identify whether or not the service was provided, the patient's health plan, and the provider group responsible for the care. We used logistic regression to examine variations across plans in HEDIS rates, and whether variations persist after controls for provider groups are included. Patients from 21 health maintenance organizations serving San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, in 1997. Breast cancer screening, childhood immunizations, cervical cancer screening, diabetic retinal exam, prenatal care in the first trimester, and check-ups after delivery among patients for whom these services are appropriate. There are statistically significant differences across health plans in utilization rates for the six services examined. These differences are not substantially affected when we control for the provider group that cared for the patient. That is, controlling for provider group does not explain variations across plans, consistent with the view that health plans have an impact on HEDIS quality measures independent of the providers that they contract with.","To assess reported results of health care quality for children and adults in managed systems of care and to determine if variations exist between reported quality results for adults and children within the same plan. We utilized Consumer Assessment of Health Plan Survey results reported from 424 managed care plans to the National Committee for Quality Assurance in 1999. Responses from 218 530 adults (515 per plan, 424 plans) and 55 081 parents of children 0-12 years of age (304 per plan, 181 plans) were available. Restricting analyses to the 178 plans reporting both adult and child results, we performed matched-pairs analyses to test the hypothesis that child results would be the same as their adult counterparts within the same plan. Regression methods were employed to test for potential demographic differences explaining observed differences. Within the same plan, reported results for care provided by specialists and primary care physicians to adults and children in the same plan revealed marked variation, including rating of doctor (Spearman correlation coefficient, r(S) =.504) and rating of specialist (r(S) =.326). Conversely, assessments of activities related directly to health plan activities showed little variation, including rating of health plan (r(S) =.850) and claims processing (r(S) =.857). Differences in demographic characteristics between adults and child survey respondents do not appear to explain observed variations.","Provider continuity with a family physician is related to lower total health care costs. This finding brings evidence to the debate on the importance of structured primary health care (with high continuity for family practice) for a cost-effective health policy.","yes. Health plans appear to be positioned to provide CMR control services that could improve health outcomes, reduce health care costs, and increase workplace productivity in the United States.","Health organisations continually seek good output indicators of family medicine health care provision because they are accountable to society, they need to compare services, and need to evaluate the impact of organisational reforms. Using the sources of information routinely available in health-service management, we sought to assess the groups of components of primary health care output that best serve to define the outcome of family medicine services. Cross-sectional descriptive study. SITE: Primary health care in Catalunya. 213 primary health care teams. Information was collected on team structure, user satisfaction, quality-of-professional-life of the health care professionals, and physicians' drug prescription. Confirmatory Factor Analysis was used to assess the number of dimensions that best explained the family medicine outcome. The model that best fits the structure of the data (AGFI=0.778) is that which consists of three dimensions i.e. (1) the individual accessibility to the services and professional-patient relationship; (2) the coordination within the health care team; (3) the scientific-technical quality of the service. The first two of these dimensions were correlated between themselves, but the third was totally independent of the other two.","To examine the relationship between racial disparities in common primary care procedures and patient HMO membership and physician level of HMO participation. Cross-sectional analysis. Data were obtained from a nationally representative sample of primary care office visits documented in the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for 1985, 1989-1992, and 1997-2000. Patient HMO membership was assessed based on reports by primary care physicians (defined as family physicians/general practitioners, internists, or obstetrician-gynecologists). Physician HMO participation was assessed based on the proportion of the physician's patients who were in an HMO. Patient characteristics (age, sex, race, insurance, diagnoses) and office procedures or interventions were determined by examining the physician report. Patients were adults aged 19 years or older. In adjusted analyses, African Americans, compared with whites, had lower odds of receiving a Pap test (adjusted odds ratio [AORI = 0.76; 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.65, .90), a rectal exam (AOR = 0.67; 95% CI = 0.54, 0.84), smoking cessation advice (AOR = 0.72; 95% CI = 0.58, 0.91), and mental health advice (AOR = 0.46; 95% CI = 0.29, 0.72), but had higher odds of receiving advice on diet and weight, and a follow-up appointment. Notably, there were no significant interactions between either patient HMO membership or physician level of HMO participation, patient race, and receipt of primary care services.","To study how payment for specialty services affects the rates of performance of invasive procedures by physicians in a number of specialties. Observational study. Administrative data from 1996-1997 and 1997-1998 from 3 large health maintenance organizations (HMOs) in the Midwestern and western United States were used to study variations in procedure rates associated with different methods of paying for cardiology, gastroenterology, ophthalmology, orthopedic, and ear, nose and throat services within each HMO. The age-, sex-, and comorbidity adjusted probabilities of undergoing selected, potentially discretionary procedures, were compared within each plan by payment method. After adjustment, rates under fee-for-service payment tended to be higher than those under capitation or salary payment, whereas there was no clear pattern for salary versus capitation payment. Even within a single specialty in a single plan, however, rates did not always follow the same pattern for different procedures.","This study explored whether certain economic markers are associated with changes in the selection of primary care as a career. Using linear regression models, we examined whether economic factors in the United States could be used to predict the variability in US senior match rates in family medicine and three hospital-based specialties between 1978 and 2000. A linear regression model using several economic indicators showed that public and private expenditures were associated with the US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. As private expenditures increased, the match rate for family medicine fell while the match rates for anesthesia and radiology increased. Increases in public expenditures were associated with increased family medicine match rates and declining match rates for the other two specialties. Increases in private spending resulted in average increases of 0.92% and 2.38% in the anesthesia and radiology match, respectively, with a drop in family medicine match rates of 1.36%. We found that for every 1% increase in public expenditures for health, family medicine match rates rise on average 1.39%, while anesthesia rates fall by 0.84% and radiology rates drop 2.16%.","To identify primary care practice characteristics associated with colorectal cancer (CRC) screening performance, controlling for patient-level factors. Primary care director survey (1999-2000) of 155 VA primary care clinics linked with 38,818 eligible patients' sociodemographics, utilization, and CRC screening experience using centralized administrative and chart-review data (2001). Practices were characterized by degrees of centralization (e.g., authority over operations, staffing, outside-practice influence); resources (e.g., sufficiency of nonphysician staffing, space, clinical support arrangements); and complexity (e.g., facility size, academic status, managed care penetration), adjusting for patient-level covariates and contextual factors. Chart-based evidence of CRC screening through direct colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, or consecutive fecal occult blood tests, eliminating cases with documented histories of CRC, polyps, or inflammatory bowel disease. After adjusting for sociodemographic characteristics and health care utilization, patients were significantly more likely to be screened for CRC if their primary care practices had greater autonomy over the internal structure of care delivery (p<.04), more clinical support arrangements (p<.03), and smaller size (p<.001).","With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined.","Despite the growth of managed care in the United States, there is little information about the arrangements managed-care plans make with physicians. In 1994 we surveyed by telephone 138 managed-care plans that were selected from 20 metropolitan areas nationwide. Of the 108 plans that responded, 29 were group-model or staff-model health maintenance organizations (HMOs), 50 were network or independent-practice-association (IPA) HMOs, and 29 were preferred-provider organizations (PPOs). Respondents from all three types of plan said they emphasized careful selection of physicians, although the group or staff HMOs tended to have more demanding requirements, such as board certification or eligibility. Sixty-one percent of the plans responded that physicians' previous patterns of costs or utilization of resources had little influence on their selection; 26 percent said these factors had a moderate influence; and 13 percent said they had a large influence. Some risk sharing with physicians was typical in the HMOs but rare in the PPOs. Fifty-six percent of the network or IPA HMOs used capitation as the predominant method of paying primary care physicians, as compared with 34 percent of the group or staff HMOs and 7 percent of the PPOs. More than half the HMOs reported adjusting payments according to utilization or cost patterns, patient complaints, and measures of the quality of care. Ninety-two percent of the network or IPA HMOs and 61 percent of the group or staff HMOs required their patients to select a primary care physician, who was responsible for most referrals to specialists. About three quarters of the HMOs and 31 percent of the PPOs reported using studies of the outcomes of medical care as part of their quality-improvement programs.","To examine associations between physician reimbursement incentives and diabetes care processes and explore potential confounding with physician organizational model. Primary data collected during 2000-2001 in 10 managed care plans. Multilevel logistic regressions were used to estimate associations between reimbursement incentives and process measures, including the receipt of dilated eye exams, foot exams, influenza immunizations, advice to take aspirin, and assessments of glycemic control, proteinuria, and lipid profile. Reimbursement measures included the proportions of compensation received from salary, capitation, fee-for-service (FFS), and performance-based payment; the performance-based payment criteria used; and interactions of these criteria with the strength of the performance-based payment incentive. Patient, provider group, and health plan surveys and medical record reviews were conducted for 6,194 patients with diabetes. Without controlling for physician organizational model, care processes were better when physician compensation was based primarily on direct salary rather than FFS reimbursement (four of seven processes were better, with relative risks ranging from 1.13 to 1.23) or capitation (six were better, with relative risks from 1.06 to 1.36); and when quality/satisfaction scores influenced physician compensation (three were better, with relative risks from 1.17 to 1.26). However, these associations were substantially confounded by organizational model.","To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.","Health care reimbursement is increasingly based on quality. Little is known about how clinic-level patient characteristics affect quality, particularly in community health centers (CHCs). Using data from electronic health records for 4019 diabetic patients from 23 primary care CHCs in the OCHIN practice-based research network, we calculated correlations between a clinic's patient panel characteristics and rates of delivery of diabetes preventive services in 2007. Using regression models, we estimated the proportion of variability in clinics' preventive services rates associated with the variability in the clinics' patient panel characteristics. We also explored whether clinics' performance rates were affected by how patient panel denominators were defined. Clinic rates of hemoglobin testing, influenza immunizations, and lipid screening were positively associated with the percentage of patients with continuous health insurance coverage and negatively associated with the percentage of uninsured patients. Microalbumin screening rates were positively associated with the percentage of racial minorities in a clinic's panel. Associations remained consistent with different panel denominators.","The association between the organizational structure of physician groups and health care quality has never been evaluated empirically. To examine whether integrated medical groups (IMGs) provide higher-quality primary care than individual practice associations (IPAs). Cross-sectional study. PacifiCare, a large health maintenance organization. Approximately 1.7 million enrollees of PacifiCare cared for by 119 California physician groups between July 1999 and June 2000. The percentage of eligible PacifiCare enrollees who received mammography, Papanicolaou smear screening, chlamydia screening, diabetic eye examination, an asthma controller medication, or a beta-blocker after acute myocardial infarction. Physician groups identified as IMGs, compared with those identified as IPAs, had higher rates of mammography (relative risk, 1.15 [95% CI, 1.01 to 1.33]), Papanicolaou smear screening (relative risk, 2.29 [CI, 1.53 to 3.42]), chlamydia screening (relative risk, 2.17 [CI, 1.04 to 4.55]), and diabetic eye screening (relative risk, 1.55 [CI, 1.28 to 1.88]). Leaders of IMGs were more likely to report using EMRs (37% vs. 2%; P<0.001) and quality improvement strategies, but these characteristics explained little of the quality differences between IMGs and IPAs. Organizational characteristics, including group type, were reported by physician group leaders and not directly assessed. Patient characteristics that could have accounted for some of the observed differences also were not assessed.","The financing and organization of primary care in the United States has changed dramatically in recent decades. Primary care physicians have shifted from solo practice to larger group practices. The culture of a medical practice is thought to have an important influence on physician behavior. This study examines the effects of practice culture and organizational structure (while controlling for patient and physician characteristics) on the quality of physician decision-making. Data were obtained from a balanced factorial experiment which employed a clinically authentic video-taped scenario of diabetes with emerging peripheral neuropathy. Our findings show that several key practice culture variables significantly influence clinical decision-making with respect to diabetes. Practice culture may contribute more to whether essential examinations are performed than patient or physician variables or the structural characteristics of clinical organizations.","The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.","To examine the extent to which medical group and market factors are related to individual primary care physician (PCP) performance on patient experience measures. This study employs Clinician and Group CAHPS survey data (n=105,663) from 2,099 adult PCPs belonging to 34 diverse medical groups across California. Medical group directors were interviewed to assess the magnitude and nature of financial incentives directed at individual physicians and the adoption of patient experience improvement strategies. Primary care services area (PCSA) data were used to characterize the market environment of physician practices. We used multilevel models to estimate the relationship between medical group and market factors and physician performance on each Clinician and Group CAHPS measure. Models statistically controlled for respondent characteristics and accounted for the clustering of respondents within physicians, physicians within medical groups, and medical groups within PCSAs using random effects. Compared with physicians belonging to independent practice associations, physicians belonging to integrated medical groups had better performance on the communication ( p=.007) and care coordination ( p=.03) measures. Physicians belonging to medical groups with greater numbers of PCPs had better performance on all measures. The use of patient experience improvement strategies was not associated with performance. Greater emphasis on productivity and efficiency criteria in individual physician financial incentive formulae was associated with worse access to care ( p=.04). Physicians located in PCSAs with higher area-level deprivation had worse performance on the access to care ( p=.04) and care coordination ( p<.001) measures.","Physician organizations (POs)--independent practice associations and medical groups--located in lower socioeconomic status (SES) areas may score poorly in pay-for-performance (P4P) programs. To examine the association between PO location and P4P performance. Cross-sectional study; Integrated Healthcare Association's (IHA's) P4P Program, the largest non-governmental, multi-payer program for POs in the U.S. 160 POs participating in 2009. We measured PO SES using established methods that involved geo-coding 11,718 practice sites within 160 POs to their respective census tracts and weighting tract-specific SES according to the number of primary care physicians at each site. P4P performance was defined by IHA's program and was a composite mainly representing clinical quality, but also including measures of patient experience, information technology and registry use. The area-based PO SES measure ranged from -11 to +11 (mean 0, SD 5), and the IHA P4P performance score ranged from 23 to 86 (mean 69, SD 15). In bivariate analysis, there was a significant positive relationship between PO SES and P4P performance (p < 0.001). In multivariate analysis, a one standard deviation increase in PO SES was associated with a 44% increase (relative risk 1.44, 95%CI, 1.22-1.71) in the likelihood of a PO being ranked in the top two quintiles of performance (p < 0.001).","To identify the characteristics of the primary health-care (PHC) team's structure and of the assigned population affecting service quality dimensions, and to check whether the PHC team's performance varies when assessing the service quality using crude values or those adjusted by the structural factors that affect it. Cross-sectional descriptive study. 213 Catalan PHC teams. Service quality indicators measured in three dimensions: (1) access and physician-patient relationship; (2) team coordination and (3) evidence-based practice. The PHC team structural factors studied are: experience, setting (urban or rural), geographical dispersion, teaching activities and managerial structure. The catchment population characteristics analysed are: age, socio-economic level, mortality, and the proportion of the population that are immigrants. Access and physician-patient relationship dimension were not affected by the studied structural factors. Team coordination improved in rural teams and in those providing care for older populations. Evidence-based practice was found to be higher in teaching teams, in more experienced teams and in those attending populations with a lower socio-economic level. Adjusted service quality indicator values substantially modify the PHC team quality ranking carried out on the basis of its crude values, especially in the team coordination and evidence-based practice dimensions.","Growth of at-risk managed care contracts between health plans and medical groups has been well documented, but less is known about the nature of financial incentives within those medical groups or their effects on health care utilization. To test whether utilization and cost of health services per enrollee were influenced independently by the compensation method of the enrollee's primary care physician. Survey of medical groups contracting with selected managed care health plans, linked to 1994 plan enrollment and utilization data for adult enrollees. Medical groups, major managed care health plans, and their patients/enrollees in the state of Washington. Sixty medical groups in Washington, 865 primary care physicians (internal medicine, pediatrics, family practice, or general practice) from those groups and affiliated with 1 or more of 4 managed care health plans, and 200 931 adult plan enrollees. The effect of method of primary care physician's compensation on the utilization and cost of health services was analyzed by weighted least squares and random effects regression. Total visits, hospital days, and per member per year estimated costs. Compensation method was not significantly (P>.30) related to utilization and cost in any multivariate analyses. Patient age (P<.001), female gender (P<.001), and plan benefit level (P<.001) were significantly positively related to visits, hospital days, and per member per year costs. The primary care physician's age was significantly negatively related (P<.001) to all 3 dependent measures.","Recent reports have emphasized the importance of delivery systems in improving health care quality. However, few prior studies have assessed differences in primary care quality between physician groups that differ in size and organizational configuration. We examined whether larger physician group size and affiliation with networks of multiple groups are associated with higher quality of care. We conducted a cross-sectional observational analysis of 132 physician groups (including 4,358 physicians) who delivered primary care services in Massachusetts in 2002. We compared physician groups on performance scores for 12 Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures reflecting processes of adult primary care. Network-affiliated physician groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups for 10 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05). There was no consistent relationship between group size and performance scores. Multivariable models including group size, network affiliation, and health plan showed that network-affiliated groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups on 8 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05), and larger group size was not associated with higher performance scores. Adjusted differences in the performance scores of network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups ranged from 2% to 15%. For 4 HEDIS measures related to diabetes care, performance score differences between network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups were most apparent among the smallest groups.","yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.","To determine if patient assessments (reports and ratings) of primary care differ by patient ethnicity.DATA SOURCES/ A self-administered patient survey of 6,092 Massachusetts employees measured seven defining characteristics of primary care: (1) access (financial, organizational); (2) continuity (longitudinal, visit based); (3) comprehensiveness (knowledge of patient, preventive counseling); (4) integration; (5) clinical interaction (communication, thoroughness of physical examinations); (6) interpersonal treatment; and (7) trust. The study employed a cross-sectional observational design. Asians had the lowest primary care performance assessments of any ethnic group after adjustment for socioeconomic and other factors. For example, compared to whites, Asians had lower scores for communication (69 vs. 79, p = .001) and comprehensive knowledge of patient (56 vs. 48, p = .002), African Americans and Latinos had less access to care, and African Americans had less longitudinal continuity than whites.","The competitive managed care marketplace is causing increased restrictiveness in the structure of health plans. The effect of plan restrictiveness on the delivery of primary care is unknown. Our purpose was to examine the association of the organizational and financial restrictiveness of managed care plans with important elements of primary care, the patient-clinician relationship, and patient satisfaction. We conducted a cross-sectional study of 15 member practices of the Ambulatory Sentinel Practice Network selected to represent diverse health care markets. Each practice completed a Managed Care Survey to characterize the degree of organizational and financial restrictiveness for each individual health care plan. A total of 199 managed care plans were characterized. Then, 1475 consecutive outpatients completed a patient survey that included: the Components of Primary Care Instrument as a measure of attributes of primary care; a measure of the amount of inconvenience involved with using the health care plan; and the Medical Outcomes Study Visit Rating Form for assessing patient satisfaction. Clinicians' reports of inconvenience were significantly associated (P<.001) with the financial and organizational restrictiveness scores of the plan. There was no association between plan restrictiveness and patient report of multiple aspects of the delivery of primary care or patient satisfaction with the visit.","Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05)."],"string":"[\n \"This study found lower levels of severe mental health problems, especially depression, than reported elsewhere, but higher prevalence of psychological distress. High levels of physical and mental health co-morbidity were found. These findings suggest that planning for primary care services needs to adopt a flexible assessment model. The development of effective, time-limited protocols and screening tools to assist the PHCT in improving their identification rates is recommended. This needs to be supported by the availability of appropriate treatments for the psychological distress.\",\n \"It is concluded that these hypotheses form a sound basis for further primary care research on how the organizational structure of health care systems influences patient reflections on access to medical care.\",\n \"These findings suggest that for some treatment modalities, stronger primary care linkage mechanisms decrease subsequent utilization of expensive ED and hospital services. Future study should examine the cost implications of these strong linkage mechanisms and ways to strengthen linkages to off-site medical care.\",\n \"The use of physician profiles in \\\"pay for performance\\\" initiatives depend on their reliability and accuracy. To evaluate whether health care delivery units (practices) can be reliably differentiated using the Health Employers Data Information System (HEDIS) performance measure. Simulation was used to describe the relationship between practice size (number of children with persistent asthma) and precision of practice measures to estimate performance. Children enrolled in 1 of the 39 practice groups from 1 of 3 managed care organizations participating in the Pediatric Asthma Care Patient Outcomes Research Team (PAC PORT). The main outcome was reproducibility of 4 performance measures, the HEDIS measure and 3 additional measures available from automated claims data: the proportion of children with asthma related-hospitalization, emergency department visits and oral steroid dispensings for asthma. The ability to reproducibly rank a practice is dependent on the performance measure, practice size, and the reproducibility threshold chosen. Of measures evaluated, none achieved a reproducibility>85% for practice size of 50 or less. At a practice size of 100 subjects, the HEDIS measure reproducibly ranked practices 89% of the time, compared with 85% for emergency department visits and 83% for hospitalizations. Only at a practice size of 100 children with persistent asthma, was reproducibility of ranking greater than 85% with all performance measures evaluated.\",\n \"Cross-sectionally, family practices with better quality of diabetes care had fewer emergency admissions for short-term complications of diabetes. Over time, after controlling for national trends in admissions, improvements in quality in a family practice were associated with a reduction in its admissions.\",\n \"yes. Physicians from integrated medical groups and groups with greater numbers of PCPs performed better on several patient experience measures, suggesting that organized care processes adopted by these groups may enhance patients' experiences. Physicians practicing in markets with high concentrations of vulnerable populations may be disadvantaged by constraints that affect performance. Future studies should clarify the extent to which performance deficits associated with area-level deprivation are modifiable.\",\n \"Getting to know the opinion of area managers and Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators about the indicators used to measure the PHC output. Questionnaire via mail. Descriptive statistics. Areas 2-5, and 3, Zaragoza, Spain. Managing teams of these three areas and Primary Health Care facilities coordinators. The questionnaire was sent to 57 Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators and 16 area managers which was answered 53% of them. In the range from 1 to 10 the so-called product achieved in the evaluation the highest marks have been: the Services offered by the PHCF (7.8), Coverage (7.8), Achievement of the Minimal Technical Rules (7.76) and Patient Satisfaction (7.51). The indicator that obtained the highest level of agreement was also the product achieved in the evaluation of the Services offered by PHCF.\",\n \"Nearly all managed care plans rely on a physician \\\"gatekeeper\\\" to control use of specialty, hospital, and other expensive services. Gatekeeping is intended to reduce costs while maintaining or improving quality of care by increasing coordination and prevention and reducing duplicative or inappropriate care. Whether gatekeeping achieves these goals remains largely unproven. To assess physicians' attitudes about the effects of gatekeeping compared with traditional care on administrative work, quality of patient care, appropriateness of resource use, and cost. Cross-sectional survey of primary care physicians Outpatient facilities in metropolitan Boston, Mass. All physicians who served as both primary care gatekeepers and traditional Blue Cross/Blue Shield providers for the employees of Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. Of the 330 physicians surveyed, 202 (61%) responded. Physician ratings of the effects of gatekeeping on 21 aspects of care, including administrative work, physician-patient interactions, decision making, appropriateness of resource use, cost, and quality of care. Physicians reported that gatekeeping (compared with traditional care) had a positive effect on control of costs, frequency, and appropriateness of preventive services and knowledge of a patient's overall care (P<.001). They also felt that gatekeeping increased paperwork and telephone calls and negatively affected the overall quality of care, access to specialists, ability to order expensive tests and procedures, freedom in clinical decisions, time spent with patients, physician-patient relationships, and appropriate use of hospitalizations and laboratory tests (P<.001). Overall, 32% of physicians rated gatekeeping as better than traditional care, 40% the same, 21% gatekeeping as worse, and 7% were of mixed opinion. Positive ratings of gatekeeping were associated with fewer years in clinical practice, generalist training, and experience with gatekeeping and health maintenance organization plans.\",\n \"Socioeconomic disparities in treatment and outcomes of non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) are well established. To explore whether these differences are secondary to individual or institutional characteristics, we examined treatment selection and outcome in a diverse population treated at a single medical center. We performed a retrospective analysis of consecutive patients diagnosed with NSCLC stages I-III from 2000 to 2005 at the University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center. Treatment selection was dichotomized as 'standard' (surgery for stage I-II; surgery and/or radiation therapy for stage III) or 'other.' Associations between patient characteristics (including socioeconomic status) and treatment selection were examined using logistic regression; associations between characteristics and overall survival were examined using Cox regression models and Kaplan-Meier survival analysis. A total of 450 patients were included. Twenty-eight percent of patients had private insurance, 43% had Medicare, and 29% had an indigent care plan. The likelihood of receiving 'standard' therapy was significantly associated with insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance odds ratio [OR] 0.13, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.04, 0.43 for stage I-II; OR 0.38, 95% CI 0.14, 1.00 for stage III). For patients with stage I-II NSCLC, survival was associated with age, sex, insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance hazard ratio for death 1.98; 95% CI 1.16, 3.37), stage, and treatment selection. In stage III NSCLC, survival was associated with treatment selection.\",\n \"no. Despite the lack of difference in symptom characteristics between children in primary and tertiary care, a notable differential in cost of evaluation exists in accordance with level of care. Symptom characteristics do not seem to drive diagnostic evaluation in either primary or tertiary care. Given the lack of differences in child-reported symptoms and the maternal perspective that children evaluated by a gastroenterologist had more severe pain, we speculate that parent perception of child symptoms may be a primary factor in seeking tertiary care.\",\n \"This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \\\"not at risk\\\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.\",\n \"Team-based primary care improves patients' perception of process and outcome indicators in the area of access to after-hours care, quality of care, confidence in the system, overall coordination and patient centeredness. Future research needs to establish the causal link between team-based primary care and health outcomes of patients.\",\n \"A high proportion of the US primary care workforce reports burnout, which is associated with negative consequences for clinicians and patients. Many protective factors from burnout are characteristics of patient-centered medical home (PCMH) models, though even positive organizational transformation is often stressful. The existing literature on the effects of PCMH on burnout is limited, with most findings based on small-scale demonstration projects with data collected only among physicians, and the results are mixed. To determine if components of PCMH related to team-based care were associated with lower burnout among primary care team members participating in a national medical home transformation, the VA Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT). Web-based, cross-sectional survey and administrative data from May 2012. A total of 4,539 VA primary care personnel from 588 VA primary care clinics. The dependent variable was burnout, and the independent variables were measures of team-based care: team functioning, time spent in huddles, team staffing, delegation of clinical responsibilities, working to top of competency, and collective self-efficacy. We also included administrative measures of workload and patient comorbidity. Overall, 39 % of respondents reported burnout. Participatory decision making (OR 0.65, 95 % CI 0.57, 0.74) and having a fully staffed PACT (OR 0.79, 95 % CI 0.68, 0.93) were associated with lower burnout, while being assigned to a PACT (OR 1.46, 95 % CI 1.11, 1.93), spending time on work someone with less training could do (OR 1.29, 95 % CI 1.07, 1.57) and a stressful, fast-moving work environment (OR 4.33, 95 % CI 3.78, 4.96) were associated with higher burnout. Longer tenure and occupation were also correlated with burnout.\",\n \"yes. These findings suggest that in primary care, structured diabetes care allowing for individualization was highly effective among diabetic patients with co-occurring PI.\",\n \"We analyzed data from a cohort of 782 older patients assembled in 1999 to 2000 to determine whether baseline patient assessments of the quality of the primary care services they had received, measured using the Components of Primary Care Index (CPCI), were associated with subsequent changes in health-related quality of life (HRQoL) and/or survival. Longitudinal growth curve models were used to analyze changes in Quality of Well-Being (QWB-SA) scores over an average (S.D.) of 2.07 (1.07) years. Cox proportional hazards models were used to identify variables associated with mortality over an average of 8.26 years (6460 person-years). To reduce confounding by severity of illness, subjects were stratified into disabled, nondisabled high utilizers of primary care, and nondisabled low utilizers. Within subgroups, we controlled for number of chronic illnesses and scores on the General Health subscale of the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form-36 (SF-36). We also controlled for baseline age, sex, marital status, income, body mass index, educational attainment, duration of the relationship with current primary care physician (PCP), and number of visits to the PCP in the year before enrollment. Analyses took into account clustering of patients within PCP. Neither total CPCI nor any CPCI subscale score was associated with QWB-SA change over time. Higher ratings of Coordination of Care were associated with reduced survival in the disabled and nondisabled high utilizer subgroups (P = .007).\",\n \"To examine how resource use varies with care quality for managed care populations with diabetes. Data from 31 commercial health plans (23 health maintenance organizations and 8 preferred provider organizations) were analyzed. Resource use was calculated using medical and pharmacy claims and enrollment data for members with diabetes. A standardized pricing methodology was applied for resource use associated with inpatient, pharmacy, evaluation and management, and procedural services. Quality of care results were calculated for 4 process quality indicators of the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) comprehensive diabetes care measure set. Resource use varied more between organizations than quality of care results. Pharmacy resource use was significantly associated with higher quality; inpatient, procedure and surgery, and ambulatory care visit resource use were not significantly associated.\",\n \"The health care market is demanding increasing amounts of information regarding quality of care in health plans. Physicians are a potentially important but infrequently used source of such information. To assess physicians' views on health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care in health plans and to compare ratings between plans. Minneapolis-St Paul, Minn. One hundred physicians in each of 3 health plans. Each physician rated 1 health plan. Likert-type items that assessed health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care. A total of 249 physicians (84%) completed the survey. Fewer than 20% of all physicians gave plans the highest rating (excellent or strongly agree) for health plan practices that promote delivery of high-quality care (such as providing continuing medical education for physicians, identifying patients needing preventive care, and providing physicians feedback about practice patterns). Barriers to delivering high-quality care related to sufficiency of time to spend with patients, covered benefits and copayment structure, and utilization management practices. Ratings differed across health plans. For example, the percentage of physicians indicating that they would recommend the plan they rated to their own family was 64% for plan 1, 92% for plan 2, and 24% for plan 3 (P<.001 for all comparisons).\",\n \"After controlling for population factors, better scheduled primary care access and glycaemic control were associated with lower hospital admission rates across most complications. There is little rationale to restrict primary care-sensitive condition definitions to acute complications. They should be revised to improve the usefulness of hospital admission data as an outcome measure, and to facilitate international comparisons. The risk of emergency hospital admission should be monitored routinely.\",\n \"These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.\",\n \"To measure the readiness of rural primary care practices to qualify as patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs), one step toward participating in changes underway in health care finance and delivery. We used the 2008 Health Tracking Physician Survey to compare PCMH readiness scores among metropolitan and nonmetropolitan primary care practices. The National Committee on Quality Assurance (NCQA) assessment system served as a framework to assess the PCMH capabilities of primary care practices based on their services, processes, and policies. We found little difference between urban and rural practices. Approximately 41% of all primary care practices offer minimal or no PCMH services. We also found that large practices score higher on standards primarily related to information technology and care management.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to evaluate the association of patient satisfaction with type of practitioner attending visits in the primary care practice of a managed care organization (MCO). We conducted a retrospective observational study of 41,209 patient satisfaction surveys randomly sampled from visits provided by the pediatrics and adult medicine departments from 1997 to 2000. Logistic regression, with practitioner and practice fixed effects, of patient satisfaction versus dissatisfaction was estimated for each of 3 scales: practitioner interaction, care access, and overall experience. Models were estimated separately by department. Independent variables were type of practitioner attending the visit and other patient and visit characteristics. Adjusted for patient and visit characteristics, patients were significantly more likely to be satisfied with practitioner interaction on visits attended by physician assistant/nurse practitioners (PA/NPs) than visits attended by MDs in both the adult medicine and pediatrics practices. Patient satisfaction with care access or overall experience did not significantly differ by practitioner type. In adult medicine, patients were more satisfied on diabetes visits provided by MDs than by PA/NPs. Otherwise, patient satisfaction for the combined effects of practitioner type and specific presenting condition did not differ.\",\n \"American health plans can make a substantial contribution to the control of cardiometabolic risk (CMR), a condition associated with both adverse health outcomes and increased cost of care. Our goal was to determine health plan interest in and ability to provide CMR control services. In January 2008, America's Health Insurance Plans, in collaboration with the HealthPartners Research Foundation, surveyed the chief medical officers of 74 member health insurance plans that offer commercial health maintenance organization, point of service, and preferred provider organization insurance. The response rate was 47%. The 35 responding chief medical officers reported that their plans identify members with CMR through referral from case or care management (89%), health risk assessment data (86%), claims data (82%), and pharmaceutical use data (79%). Nearly all (97%) plans currently offer interventions for tobacco use, obesity/overweight, and nutrition. Ninety-four percent of plans offer interventions to increase physical activity. All plans offer health risk appraisal or assessment with feedback and education, 91% use Web-based tools, and 85% use health coaching to help plan members lower their risk. Perceived barriers to broader implementation of risk control programs included lack of resources (79%), limited available enrollee data (74%), and lack of reporting systems (79%). Few health plan officers viewed lack of purchaser interest to be a barrier to program implementation.\",\n \"Many view advanced primary care models such as the patient-centered medical home as foundational for accountable care organizations (ACOs), but it remains unclear how these two delivery reforms are complementary and how they may produce conflict. The objective of this study was to identify how joining an ACO could help or hinder a primary care practice's efforts to deliver high-quality care. This qualitative study involved interviews with a purposive sample of 32 early adopters of advanced primary care and/or ACO models, drawn from across the U.S. and conducted in mid-2014. Interview notes were coded using qualitative data analysis software, permitting topic-specific queries which were then summarized. Respondents perceived many potential benefits of joining an ACO, including care coordination staff, data analytics, and improved communication with other providers. However, respondents were also concerned about added \\\"bureaucratic\\\" requirements, referral restrictions, and a potential inability to recoup investments in practice improvements.\",\n \"To determine if specific components of the medical home are differentially associated with beneficial child outcomes. Logistic regression was used to model each component (family-centeredness, comprehensive care, and care coordination) with health care utilization, child health, and health promoting behaviors in 81 232 subjects from the 2003 National Survey of Children's Health. Family-centeredness was associated with increased odds of children being read to (adjusted odds ratio [aOR] = 2.16). Comprehensive care was associated with decreased outpatient (aOR = 0.70) and emergency department (aOR = 0.79) sick visits and with increased child health per parental assessment (aOR = 1.50). Care coordination was associated with increased preventive care visits (aOR = 1.41) and increased outpatient (aOR = 1.21) and emergency department (aOR = 1.24) sick visits. Stratification by special health care needs demonstrated similar findings.\",\n \"When evaluating the influence of primary health care on the rates of hospitalisations, both socioeconomic factors and health care structure must be taken into consideration. Doing this, the rates of GP visits correlated negatively with the rates of hospitalisations.\",\n \"To examine the association between the degree of healthcare provider continuity and healthcare utilization and costs. A longitudinal, prospective, observational study. Data on patients with arthritis, asthma, epigastric pain/peptic ulcer disease, hypertension, and otitis media were collected at each of 6 health maintenance organizations (HMOs). Outcome variables included the number of prescriptions for the target disease and the cost, total number of prescriptions and the cost, the number of outpatient visits, and the number of hospital admissions. Disease-specific severity of illness, type of visit, and provider information were obtained at each encounter. HMO profit status, visit copay, gatekeeper strictness, formulary limitations, use of multisource (generic) drugs, gender, number of months in the study, age, and severity of illness were controlled in the analyses. There were 12,997 patients followed for more than 99,000 outpatient visits, 1000 hospitalizations, and more than 240,000 prescriptions. Increasing the number of primary or specialty care providers a patient encountered during the study generally was associated with increased utilization and costs when HMO and patient characteristics were controlled. The number of specialty care providers also increased as the number of primary care providers increased. The incremental increase in pharmacy costs per patient per year with each additional provider ranged between $19 in subjects with otitis media to $58 in subjects with hypertension.\",\n \"yes. Although a large proportion of primary care visits are for musculoskeletal symptoms, the majority of primary care providers tested at a large, regional, academic primary care institution failed to demonstrate adequate musculoskeletal knowledge and confidence. Further characterization of the relationship between knowledge and confidence and its association with demographic variables might benefit the education of musculoskeletal providers in the future.\",\n \"To determine whether a major improvement in access (ie, implementing an open access system) in a large multispecialty medical group during 2000 was associated with changes in utilization or costs for patients with diabetes, coronary heart disease (CHD), or depression. Multilevel regression analysis of health plan administrative data. Approximately 7000 patients with diabetes, 3800 with CHD, and 6000 with depression who received all of their care in this care system served as the subjects for this study. Utilization and costs between 1999 and 2001 (before and after implementation of open access) were compared for these patients. The main outcome measures were rates of inpatient admissions and various types of outpatient encounters as well as associated costs for these subjects. Between 1999 and 2001, total office visit changes were small and varied with condition, but the proportion of these visits made to primary care physicians increased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9% and primary care physician continuity increased for each condition. Urgent care visits also decreased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9%, but there was no change in emergency department visits or hospital admissions. Total costs of care for these patients were much larger than those for the overall population of the medical group, but increased at a similar rate.\",\n \"yes. Increasing family physician comprehensiveness of care, especially as measured by claims measures, is associated with decreasing Medicare costs and hospitalizations. Payment and practice policies that enhance primary care comprehensiveness may help \\\"bend the cost curve.\\\"\",\n \"Whereas there were some statistically discerned differences between insurance groupings for proportionate receipt of low-acuity care and high-acuity care among both the pediatric and adult populations, the magnitude of most differences noted was not large, and may not reflect important differences in health care need or ED use based on insurance.\",\n \"The expectation that giving primary care organisations responsibility for commissioning care will result in improved patients' experiences of care or better use of resources should be treated with caution. The presence of strong national policy may be equally important. Models of service organisation are not proxies for quality of care. The most powerful force shaping patients' experiences of care may be health care professionals' ability to translate national policy into local services.\",\n \"Despite increasing data demonstrating the positive impact primary care has on quality of care and costs, our specialty faces uncertainty. Its popularity among medical students is declining, and the income gap is growing between primary care and other specialties. Congress has the power to intervene in this impending crisis. If we want to influence lawmakers' actions, we need to know how they are thinking about these issues. Using a set of questions covering several physician payment topics, we interviewed 14 congressional staff aides (5 aides on Medicare-oversight committees, 9 general staff aides) and one representative from each of 3 governmental agencies: the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission, Congressional Budget Office, and Government Accountability Office. Interviewees revealed that issues in primary care are not high on the congressional agenda, and that Medicare's Sustainable Growth Rate (SGR) is the physician-payment issue on the minds of congressional staff members.\",\n \"Higher health care charges, particularly from ambulatory (primary care clinic) settings, predicted smoking cessation among both individuals with and without chronic diseases. These charges may be proxies for other factors, such as smoking-related symptoms or physician advice or messaging regarding smoking cessation.\",\n \"To examine the effect of public reporting (PR) and financial incentives tied to quality performance on the use of care management practices (CMPs) among small- and medium-sized physician groups.DATA: Survey data from The National Study of Small and Medium-sized Physician Practices were used. Primary data collection was also conducted to assess community-level PR activities. The final sample included 643 practices engaged in quality reporting; about half of these practices were subject to PR. We used a treatment effects model. The instrumental variables were the community-level variables that capture the level of PR activity in each community in which the practices operate. (1) PR is associated with increased use of CMPs, but the estimate is not statistically significant; (2) financial incentives are associated with greater use of CMPs; (3) practices' awareness/sensitivity to quality reports is positively related to their use of CMPs; and (4) combined PR and financial incentives jointly affect CMP use to a greater degree than either of these factors alone.\",\n \"Among families with large employers offering a single health plan, those from low-income neighborhoods are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans. In contrast, families with small employers offering a single plan are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans if they are healthier and have lower baseline costs. These findings suggest that families with children in high-deductible plans may represent two distinct groups, one with higher-risk characteristics and another with lower-risk characteristics compared with those in traditional plans.\",\n \"yes. The top 1% of frequent users usually had adequate health insurance and primary care access but were burdened by chronic conditions and frequent hospital admissions. Such patients may require more extensive coordinated medical management to decrease ED utilization.\",\n \"Using frameworks, such as the long-term conditions pyramid of healthcare, primary care organizations (PCOs) in England and Wales are exploring ways of developing services for people with long-term respiratory disease. We aimed to explore the current and planned respiratory services and the roles of people responsible for change. A purposive sample of 30 PCOs in England and Wales. Semi-structured telephone interviews with the person responsible for driving the reconfiguration of respiratory services. Recorded interviews were transcribed and coded, and themes identified. The association of the composition of the team driving change with the breadth of services provided was explored using a matrix. All but two of the PCOs described clinical services developed to address the needs of people with respiratory conditions, usually with a focus on preventing admissions for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although the majority identified the need to develop a strategic approach to service development and to meet educational needs of primary care professionals, relatively few described clearly developed plans for addressing these issues. Involvement of clinicians from both primary and secondary care was associated with a broad multifaceted approach to service development. Teamwork was often challenging, but could prove rewarding for participants and could result in a fruitful alignment of objectives. The imminent merger of PCOs and overriding financial constraints resulted in a 'fluid' context which challenged successful implementation of plans.\",\n \"Current healthcare reform efforts have highlighted the potential impact of insurance status on patient outcomes. The influence of primary payer status (PPS) within the pediatric surgical patient population remains unknown. The purpose of this study was to examine risk-adjusted associations between PPS and postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization in pediatric surgical patients within the United States. A weighted total of 153,333 pediatric surgical patients were evaluated using the national Kids' Inpatient Database (2003 and 2006): appendectomy, intussusception, decortication, pyloromyotomy, congenital diaphragmatic hernia repair, and colonic resection for Hirschsprung's disease. Patients were stratified according to PPS: Medicare (n=180), Medicaid (n=51,862), uninsured (n=12,539), and private insurance (n=88,753). Multivariable hierarchical regression modeling was utilized to evaluate risk-adjusted associations between PPS and outcomes. Overall median patient age was 12 years, operations were primarily non-elective (92.4%), and appendectomies accounted for the highest proportion of cases (81.3%). After adjustment for patient, hospital, and operation-related factors, PPS was independently associated with in-hospital death (p<0.0001) and postoperative complications (p<0.02), with increased risk for Medicaid and uninsured populations. Moreover, Medicaid PPS was also associated with greater adjusted lengths of stay and total hospital charges (p<0.0001). Importantly, these results were dependent on operation type.\",\n \"Health Insurance subscribers in Ghana have high trust in their primary care provider giving them quality care under capitation payment despite their negative attitude towards capitation payment. They are guided by proximity and quality of care considerations in their choice of provider. The NHIA would, however, have to address itself to the negative perceptions about the capitation payment policy.\",\n \"To determine whether there are important differences in performance between group practices and singlehanded general practitioners and the extent to which any differences are explained by practice characteristics such as deprivation. Cross sectional survey. 206 singlehanded practices and 606 partnerships in Trent region, United Kingdom. Comparison of process and outcome measures derived from routinely collected data on hospital admissions and target payments for singlehanded practices and partnerships. Multivariate analysis was used to adjust for the confounding effects of general practice characteristics-deprivation (Townsend score), percentage of Asian residents, percentage of black residents, proportion of men over 75 years, proportion of women over 75 years, rurality, presence of a female general practitioner, and vocational training status. Differences in achievement of immunisation and cytology targets apparent on univariate analysis were not seen after adjustment for other general practice characteristics. Similarly, significant differences (>15%; P<0.01) for three types of hospital admission seen on univariate analysis were not present after adjustment for other practice characteristics.\",\n \"There has never been a conclusive test of whether there is a relation between ultimately choosing to be a primary care physician and one's amount of student loan debt at medical school graduation. To test this question, we examined data from the Women Physicians' Health Study, a large, nationally representative, questionnaire-based study of 4,501 U.S. women physicians. We found that the youngest physicians were more than five times as likely as the oldest to have had some student loan debt and far more likely to have had high debt levels (p <.0001). However, younger women physicians were also more likely to choose a primary care specialty (p <.002). There was no relation between being a primary care physician and amount of indebtedness (p =.77); this was true even when the results were adjusted for the physicians' decade of graduation and ethnicity (p =.79).\",\n \"To find whether in certain primary care teams an association exists between the level of coverage in determined services and expenditure on drugs for pathologies included in these services. Retrospective descriptive study. Primary care, INSALUD, Area 1, Huesca. Using the data on coverage of the service portfolio in 1999 and pharmacy expenditure by therapeutic sub-groups during January-October of the same year, the following was analysed:- The service caring for chronic patients: Hypercholesterolaemia and comparison with expenditure in sub-group B04A (lipid-lowerers/ anti-atheroma drugs).- The service caring for chronic patients: Diabetes and comparison with expenditure in sub-groups A10A (insulin) and A10B (oral antidiabetic drugs). Expenditure was expressed as cost adjusted per 100 insured persons, using the INSALUD coefficients for the adjustment (active person coefficient: 0.732; pensioner coefficient: 0.268). The relationship between the two variables was represented graphically by a cloud of dots. Association between them was measured by Pearson's correlation coefficient. No statistically significant correlation was found between coverage and pharmacy expenditure in these sub-groups. Hypercholesterolaemia/lipid-lowerers: Pearson's coefficient = 0.334, 95% CI (-0.115 to 0.669). Diabetes/oral diabetic drugs and insulin: Pearson's coefficient<0.1.\",\n \"yes. The stronger a physician's relationship with a health plan, the more positive the physician's experience with care management practices and policies was. The concordance between the types of available practices and physicians' ratings suggests that health plans and physicians agree about how to improve the quality of care.\",\n \"Little is known about how concordance between patient self-report and medical record data varies with medical organization type. Given discrepancies in quality of care received across patient cohorts and organizations, it is important to understand the degree to which concordance metrics are robust across organization types. We tested whether concordance between patient selfreport and medical record data would vary with medical organization type, controlling for patient demographic characteristics, health status, and domain of medical care. This observational study included 1270 patients sampled from 39 West Coast medical organizations with at least 1 of the following conditions: diabetes, ischemic heart disease, asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or low back pain. Medical records and patient self-report were used to measure 50 items grouped into 4 conceptual domains: diagnosis, clinical services delivered, counseling and referral, and medication use. We evaluated the concordance between ambulatory medical record and patient survey data. We conducted multivariate logistic regressions to test the impact of medical organization type (medical groups vs independent practice associations), controlling for patient characteristics and domain of care, on 5 concordance measures. Independent practice associations were associated with worse agreement, survey specificity, and medical record sensitivity, and better medical record specificity compared with medical groups.\",\n \"To explore medical home attributes of community health centers (CHCs) that provide care to low-income children nationwide compared to other providers for the poor. Cross-sectional study of children aged 0 to 17 years in the Medical Expenditure Panel Survey (MEPS; 2003 to 2009) who resided in families living at<200% of the federal poverty level (FPL) and had visits to a primary care setting. CHC visits were defined as a visit to a neighborhood/family health center, rural health clinic, or community health center. Independent measures included provider type, age, gender, race/ethnicity, insurance, FPL, number of parents at home, language, maternal education, health status, and special health care need. Dependent measures included 4 medical home attributes: accessibility, and family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. CHCs typically serve low-income children who are publicly insured or uninsured, come from racial/ethnic minority groups, and have poorer health status. Eighty percent to 90% of parents visiting both CHCs and other primary care providers rated high levels of family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. However, CHCs had a 10% to 18% lower rating of accessibility (after-hours care, telephone access) even after controlling for sociodemographic characteristics. Racial/ethnic disparities existed at both settings, but these patterns did not differ between CHCs and other settings.\",\n \"To determine whether patients' satisfaction with their primary care is related to providers' use of medical resources. Sixty-two practices serving 2805 patients enrolled in BlueCross BlueShield of Minnesota were analyzed using hierarchical regression models. Three measures of satisfaction included patient satisfaction with overall healthcare, patient satisfaction with the time spent with a physician or other provider during a visit, and the likelihood that a patient would recommend the clinic to others. Patient satisfaction was found to be primarily a function of patient characteristics and not of practice characteristics. Providers' use of medical resources was not significantly related to patients' overall ratings of healthcare or to patients' willingness to recommend the practice to others. However, the time spent with a physician or other provider was significantly negatively related to patient satisfaction. Physician workload was significantly related to patient satisfaction.\",\n \"To test the relationship between the presence of recommended chronic care model systems and the degree of integration among large medical groups. Cross-sectional survey in 2007 completed by medical directors of medical groups nationally with at least 100 physicians and a range of medical services and who had also participated in the National Survey of Physician Organizations. We recruited 111 medical directors among 123 who were eligible. The survey asked about the medical group's structural, financial, and functional aspects of integrated care, as well as the presence and use of practice systems for chronic disease care as measured by the Physician Practice Connections-Readiness Survey (PPC-RS). The analysis tested the association between integration measures and the presence of practice systems, controlling for medical group attributes. Ninety-seven completed surveys were returned (89.0% of 109 medical directors eligible). Measures of integration and practice systems varied widely among the medical groups. The total PPC-RS score correlated with each measure of integration but most highly with functional integration (r = 0.53, P<.01). The strongest PPC-RS component score correlations were for delivery systems redesign (r = 0.27-0.52, P<.01) and for decision support (r = 0.21-0.46, P<.05). Adjusting for organizational characteristics had little effect on these relationships.\",\n \"Prior analyses of Medicare health plans have examined either utilization of services or quality of care, but not both jointly. Our objective was to compare utilization and quality for Medicare Advantage (MA) enrollees with diabetes or cardiovascular disease to that for similarly defined traditional Medicare (TM) beneficiaries. Cross-sectional matched observational study using data for 2007. We obtained individual-level Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) relative resource use (RRU) and quality data for patients enrolled in MA, and then developed comparable claims-based measures for matched samples of TM beneficiaries. utilization levels for inpatient care, evaluation and management services, and surgery; number of emergency department (ED) and inpatient visits; and quality of ambulatory care measures. We studied approximately 680,000 MA health maintenance organization (HMO) enrollees with diabetes and 270,000 HMO enrollees with cardiovascular conditions. For both conditions and almost all major strata, the RRU was lower for those enrolled in MA than for those in TM. Spending for those with diabetes was $5223 for MA HMO enrollees compared with $6413 for those in TM (cost ratio, 0.81; P < .001). ED utilization rates were consistently lower in MA than TM (567 vs 719 visits/1000 enrollees; rate ratio, 0.79; P < .001). Health plans that are more established, nonprofit, and/or larger generally had lower resource use and better relative quality than did smaller, newer, for-profit HMOs or preferred provider organizations.\",\n \"Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.\",\n \"yes. Managed-care plans, particularly HMOs, have complex systems for selecting, paying, and monitoring their physicians. Hybrid forms are common, and the differences between group or staff HMOs and network or IPA HMOs are less extensive than is commonly assumed.\",\n \"To investigate the degree to which the absence of prescriber identifying information and the absence of pharmacy claims might affect the validity of physicians' economic profiles. The study database consisted of 4 years of claims from a mixed-model health maintenance organization. Using the grouper of Episode Treatment Groups by Symmetry Health Data Systems, Inc, 2 episode databases were created, with and without pharmacy claims included. For each database, the responsibility for defined episodes was attributed to physicians within specialty (1) on the basis of combined professional and prescribing costs and (2) on the basis of professional costs alone. Using the different databases and attribution rules, physicians were ranked within specialty on the economic profiling metric, and the various rankings were compared for consistency. Analyses were performed for cardiologists, family practitioners, general surgeons, and neurologists. The absence of prescriber identifying information appears to have only a small effect on physicians' economic profiles. The absence of pharmacy claims, on the other hand, may affect economic profile performance, but the effects differ by specialty and depend on pharmacy costs as a percentage of episode total costs for the specialty and the correlation of episode costs with and without pharmacy costs included.\",\n \"The strong association between CoC hospital volume or type and guideline-recommended care diminishes after gastric cancer surgery. Variations in referral, insurance, and documentation patterns are potential explanations for these findings. These results highlight some limitations of using hospital attributes as a sole predictor of optimal cancer care.\",\n \"Patients cared for in IMGs generally received higher-quality primary care than those cared for in IPAs. Having an EMR and implementation of quality improvement strategies did not explain the differences in quality. These findings suggest that physician group type influences health care quality.\",\n \"This study aimed to explore whether specific characteristics of a general practice organization were associated with aspects of patient safety management. Secondary analysis of data from 271 primary care practices, collected in 10 European countries. These data were collected by a practice visitor and physician questionnaires. For this study we constructed 10 measures of patient safety, covering 45 items as outcomes, and 6 measures of practice characteristics as possible predictors for patient safety. Eight of the 10 patient safety measures yielded higher scores in larger practices (practices with more than 2 general practitioners). Medication safety (B 0.64), practice building safety (B 0.49) and incident reporting items (B 0.47) showed the strongest associations with practice size. Also measures on hygiene (B 0.37), medical record keeping (B 0.30), quality improvement (B 0.28), professional competence (B 0.24) and organized patient feedback items (B 0.24) had higher scores in larger practices.\",\n \"To examine whether there are differential impacts of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the use of a recommended cancer screening service (mammography) versus a controversial cancer screening service (prostate cancer screening [PCS]). Observational cohort using the 1996 Medical Expenditure Panel Survey. A nationally representative sample of privately insured individuals was examined. Outcome measures were the receipt of mammography and PCS. Logistic regression was used to assess the impact of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the receipt of mammography and PCS, controlling for other covariates. Patient cost sharing and gatekeeper requirements were strong predictors of PCS but were statistically insignificant predictors of mammography. Men in health plans with a copayment over dollar 10 (odds ratio [OR] = 0.38, 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.19-0.78) or with deductibles over dollar 250 (OR = 0.38, 95% CI = 0.23-0.62) were significantly less likely to receive PCS than men in plans with no or lower copayments and deductibles. Men in gatekeeper plans were less likely to receive PCS than those without gatekeepers (OR = 0.48, 95% CI = 0.29-0.81).\",\n \"Based on the US Preventive Services Task Force recommendations, we studied how health insurance type, ie, fee-for-service (FFS) or health maintenance organization (HMO), affects the utilization of preventive services of differing effectiveness. Household survey data from the 1993 and 1994 National Health Interview Surveys. We compared the use of mammograms, Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, counseling about hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and general physical examinations in FFS plans and HMOs. We used the bivariate probit model to control for selection bias caused by the unobservable factors in the choice of health insurance type. Enrollees in HMOs obtained more Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, mammograms (women 40 to 49 years old), and general physical examinations than enrollees in FFS plans. No significant difference was found between FFS plans and HMOs for the use of mammograms (women aged 30 to 39 years and 50 to 64 years) or HRT counseling. The correlation ratios from bivariate probit estimations indicated no selection bias favoring HMOs; for some preventive services, selection bias favored FFS plans.\",\n \"yes. FA between medical schools and their primary teaching hospitals more strongly predicts academic health centers' performance than does SI. As demands for greater collaboration increase under health reform, emphasis should be placed on increasing FA rather than SI.\",\n \"To inform the debate about managed care by examining how different types of private insurance-indemnity insurance, PPOs, open model HMOs, and closed model HMOs-affect the use of health services and consumer assessments of care.DATA SOURCES/ The 1996-1997 Community Tracking Study Household Survey, a nationally representative telephone survey of households, and the Community Tracking Study Insurance Followback Survey, a supplement to the Household Survey, which asks insurance organizations to match household respondents to specific insurance products. The analysis sample includes 27,257 nonelderly individuals covered by private insurance. Based on insurer reports, individuals are grouped into one of the four insurance product types. Measures of service use include ambulatory visits, preventive care use, hospital use, surgeries, specialist use, and whether there is a usual source of care. Consumer assessments of care include unmet or delayed care needs, satisfaction with health care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians. Estimates are adjusted to control for differences in individual characteristics and location. As one moves from indemnity insurance to PPOs to open model HMOs to closed model HMOs, use of primary care increases modestly but use of specialists is reduced. Few differences are observed in other areas of service use, such as preventive care, hospital use, and surgeries. The likelihood of having unmet or delayed care does not vary by insurance type, but the reasons that underlie such access problems do vary: enrollees in more managed products are less likely to cite financial barriers to care but are more likely to perceive problems in provider access, convenience, and organizational factors. Consumer assessments of care-including satisfaction with care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians-are generally lower under more managed products, particularly closed model HMOs.\",\n \"The amount of public and private funding for health care is associated with US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. Changes in these funding sources may predict future student specialty choice and could be used to plan residency match rates in disciplines such as family medicine.\",\n \"Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.\",\n \"The effects of Medicaid HMO penetration on physician participation vary by the type of plan. If states are able to attract and retain commercial plans, participation by office-based physicians is likely to increase in a way that opens existing practices to more new Medicaid patients. Other policy variables that affect participation include the presence of a federally qualified health center (FQHC) in the county and cost-adjusted Medicaid fees relative to Medicare.\",\n \"yes. Using sources of information that are routinely employed in primary health care services management, the model enables the measurement of the output of family medicine by considering the dimensions such as inter-personnel relationships, internal coordination of the team and the scientific-technical quality of the service. Despite its simplicity, this measure of the output incorporates the views not only of the users but of the health care professionals, as well.\",\n \"Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.\",\n \"Medicaid and Uninsured populations are a significant focus of current healthcare reform. We hypothesized that outcomes following major surgical operations in the United States is dependent on primary payer status. From 2003 to 2007, 893,658 major surgical operations were evaluated using the Nationwide Inpatient Sample (NIS) database: lung resection, esophagectomy, colectomy, pancreatectomy, gastrectomy, abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, hip replacement, and coronary artery bypass. Patients were stratified by primary payer status: Medicare (n = 491,829), Medicaid (n = 40,259), Private Insurance (n = 337,535), and Uninsured (n = 24,035). Multivariate regression models were applied to assess outcomes. Unadjusted mortality for Medicare (4.4%; odds ratio [OR], 3.51), Medicaid (3.7%; OR, 2.86), and Uninsured (3.2%; OR, 2.51) patient groups were higher compared to Private Insurance groups (1.3%, P < 0.001). Mortality was lowest for Private Insurance patients independent of operation. After controlling for age, gender, income, geographic region, operation, and 30 comorbid conditions, Medicaid payer status was associated with the longest length of stay and highest total costs (P < 0.001). Medicaid (P < 0.001) and Uninsured (P < 0.001) payer status independently conferred the highest adjusted risks of mortality.\",\n \"Separate quality of care assessments for adults and children within the same managed care system identify significant differences in reported quality. Having health plan quality information about adult care does not serve as a proxy for needed information on children, particularly the care related to primary care and specialist providers. Areas of health plan assessment common to both adults and children (eg, claims processing) could be replaced with more targeted assessments of importance to parents and purchasers (eg, children with chronic conditions).\",\n \"no. Performance on HCAHPS is an area that demands hospital attention both to provide patient-centered care and to maximize revenue. Development of an HAC was not associated with decreased satisfaction scores in a population of orthopedic surgery patients at a private, university-affiliated specialty center. The lack of any statistically significant difference in patient satisfaction may be attributable to patient satisfaction with care in response to complications, the decreased sensitivity inherent to using a general satisfaction survey, or a homogeneity among orthopedic surgery patients and their expectations of care.\",\n \"On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.\",\n \"yes. Primary payer status is associated with risk-adjusted postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization among pediatric surgical patients. Uninsured patients are at increased risk for postoperative mortality while Medicaid patients accrue greater morbidity, hospital lengths of stay, and total charges. These results highlight a complex interaction between socioeconomic and patient-related factors, and primary payer status should be considered in the preoperative risk stratification of pediatric patients.\",\n \"Cross-sectional analyses of baseline performance often inform the development of interventions to improve care. An implicit assumption in these studies is that factors associated with better performance at baseline may also be useful in predicting change in performance over time. We analyzed data collected from 1997-2002 at 77 practices in Northeast Ohio participating in an intervention to increase evidence-based preventive services delivery (PSD). Spearman's correlation coefficients and multivariable models assessed associations between practice-level characteristics (e.g., organizational structure, objectives, climate, and culture) and baseline PSD, and with final PSD controlling for baseline values. Patterns of associations for both outcomes were inspected for overlap. The mean PSD rate was 36.8% (+/-8.8%) at baseline. This measure increased by an average of 4.9% (+/-6.3%) by the end of the intervention. Of eight practice characteristics correlated with either baseline performance or change from baseline in PSD, only two were common to both: characteristics associated with baseline PSD did not predict final PSD in multivariable models.\",\n \"Withdrawals of health plans from Medicare have affected more than 1.6 million beneficiaries. Some plans claim that providing higher quality care raises costs, lowers profits, and spurs withdrawal because plans cannot sustain high quality care under current payment levels. To assess whether higher performance by Medicare health plans on quality indicators was associated with withdrawal. Retrospective cohort study. Taking each county where a contract was active as a unit of analysis, Medicare managed care plans active in 2310 contract-county combinations in 1997 were studied and followed for 3 years. Independent variables were scores on six indicators from the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) for each contract, collapsed into two summary measures: clinical and ambulatory care access. Separate Cox proportional hazards regressions were used for each indicator, and each summary measure, to assess the association of HEDIS performance with our outcome measure, time-to-withdrawal from Medicare. Multiple potential confounders were adjusted for. Of 2310 managed care contract-county combinations, 877 (38%) withdrew. The proportion of contract-counties with high scores on the summary clinical quality measure that withdrew was one-fifth that for low scorers (4.2% vs. 20.5%). For summary ambulatory care access performance, the corresponding ratio was two-fifths (12.8% vs. 32.0%). Lower payments were associated with higher withdrawal risk, but also higher clinical and ambulatory care access quality performance. In separate multivariable analyses controlling for confounders, both high clinical performance (HR, 0.18; 95% CI, 0.08-0.42) and high ambulatory care access performance (HR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.27-1.07) were independently associated with lower withdrawal risk.\",\n \"Physician reimbursement strategies are associated with diabetes care processes, although their independent contributions are difficult to assess, due to high correlation with physician organizational model. Regardless of causality, a group's use of quality/satisfaction scores to determine physician compensation may indicate delivery of high-quality diabetes care.\",\n \"The patient-centered medical home has gained much traction. Little is known about the relationship between the model and specific health care processes for chronic diseases such as diabetes. This study assesses the impact of features of a medical home on diabetes care. A cross-sectional survey of 540 patients with Medicaid (Medi-Cal) health insurance and type 2 diabetes in Los Angeles County was performed. The Primary Care Assessment Tools was used to measure seven features of medical-home performance. The response rate of the patient survey was 68.9%. Patient-reported medical-home performance averaged a score of 2.85 ± 0.29 (on a 1-4 scale, with 4 equaling the best care). Patients who received more timely and thorough diabetes care reported higher medical-home performance in every feature except for the comprehensiveness-services available. For example, the first-contact access feature score was higher among patients who had an HbA1c test in the past 6 months versus those who did not (2.38 vs. 2.25; P<0.05). Before and after adjusting for sociodemographics and health status, total medical-home performance was positively associated with each diabetes care measure. A 1-point increase in total medical-home score was associated with 4.53 higher odds of an HbA1c test in the past 6 months and 1.88 higher odds of an eye exam in the past year.\",\n \"To investigate the relative impact of physician groups and health plans on quality of care measures. Secondary data analysis of receipt of preventive care services included in the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) among 10 758 patients representing 21 health maintenance organizations and 22 large provider groups in the San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, areas in 1997. Each patient was eligible for (at least) one of six HEDIS-measured services. Data identify whether or not the service was provided, the patient's health plan, and the provider group responsible for the care. We used logistic regression to examine variations across plans in HEDIS rates, and whether variations persist after controls for provider groups are included. Patients from 21 health maintenance organizations serving San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, in 1997. Breast cancer screening, childhood immunizations, cervical cancer screening, diabetic retinal exam, prenatal care in the first trimester, and check-ups after delivery among patients for whom these services are appropriate. There are statistically significant differences across health plans in utilization rates for the six services examined. These differences are not substantially affected when we control for the provider group that cared for the patient. That is, controlling for provider group does not explain variations across plans, consistent with the view that health plans have an impact on HEDIS quality measures independent of the providers that they contract with.\",\n \"To assess reported results of health care quality for children and adults in managed systems of care and to determine if variations exist between reported quality results for adults and children within the same plan. We utilized Consumer Assessment of Health Plan Survey results reported from 424 managed care plans to the National Committee for Quality Assurance in 1999. Responses from 218 530 adults (515 per plan, 424 plans) and 55 081 parents of children 0-12 years of age (304 per plan, 181 plans) were available. Restricting analyses to the 178 plans reporting both adult and child results, we performed matched-pairs analyses to test the hypothesis that child results would be the same as their adult counterparts within the same plan. Regression methods were employed to test for potential demographic differences explaining observed differences. Within the same plan, reported results for care provided by specialists and primary care physicians to adults and children in the same plan revealed marked variation, including rating of doctor (Spearman correlation coefficient, r(S) =.504) and rating of specialist (r(S) =.326). Conversely, assessments of activities related directly to health plan activities showed little variation, including rating of health plan (r(S) =.850) and claims processing (r(S) =.857). Differences in demographic characteristics between adults and child survey respondents do not appear to explain observed variations.\",\n \"Provider continuity with a family physician is related to lower total health care costs. This finding brings evidence to the debate on the importance of structured primary health care (with high continuity for family practice) for a cost-effective health policy.\",\n \"yes. Health plans appear to be positioned to provide CMR control services that could improve health outcomes, reduce health care costs, and increase workplace productivity in the United States.\",\n \"Health organisations continually seek good output indicators of family medicine health care provision because they are accountable to society, they need to compare services, and need to evaluate the impact of organisational reforms. Using the sources of information routinely available in health-service management, we sought to assess the groups of components of primary health care output that best serve to define the outcome of family medicine services. Cross-sectional descriptive study. SITE: Primary health care in Catalunya. 213 primary health care teams. Information was collected on team structure, user satisfaction, quality-of-professional-life of the health care professionals, and physicians' drug prescription. Confirmatory Factor Analysis was used to assess the number of dimensions that best explained the family medicine outcome. The model that best fits the structure of the data (AGFI=0.778) is that which consists of three dimensions i.e. (1) the individual accessibility to the services and professional-patient relationship; (2) the coordination within the health care team; (3) the scientific-technical quality of the service. The first two of these dimensions were correlated between themselves, but the third was totally independent of the other two.\",\n \"To examine the relationship between racial disparities in common primary care procedures and patient HMO membership and physician level of HMO participation. Cross-sectional analysis. Data were obtained from a nationally representative sample of primary care office visits documented in the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for 1985, 1989-1992, and 1997-2000. Patient HMO membership was assessed based on reports by primary care physicians (defined as family physicians/general practitioners, internists, or obstetrician-gynecologists). Physician HMO participation was assessed based on the proportion of the physician's patients who were in an HMO. Patient characteristics (age, sex, race, insurance, diagnoses) and office procedures or interventions were determined by examining the physician report. Patients were adults aged 19 years or older. In adjusted analyses, African Americans, compared with whites, had lower odds of receiving a Pap test (adjusted odds ratio [AORI = 0.76; 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.65, .90), a rectal exam (AOR = 0.67; 95% CI = 0.54, 0.84), smoking cessation advice (AOR = 0.72; 95% CI = 0.58, 0.91), and mental health advice (AOR = 0.46; 95% CI = 0.29, 0.72), but had higher odds of receiving advice on diet and weight, and a follow-up appointment. Notably, there were no significant interactions between either patient HMO membership or physician level of HMO participation, patient race, and receipt of primary care services.\",\n \"To study how payment for specialty services affects the rates of performance of invasive procedures by physicians in a number of specialties. Observational study. Administrative data from 1996-1997 and 1997-1998 from 3 large health maintenance organizations (HMOs) in the Midwestern and western United States were used to study variations in procedure rates associated with different methods of paying for cardiology, gastroenterology, ophthalmology, orthopedic, and ear, nose and throat services within each HMO. The age-, sex-, and comorbidity adjusted probabilities of undergoing selected, potentially discretionary procedures, were compared within each plan by payment method. After adjustment, rates under fee-for-service payment tended to be higher than those under capitation or salary payment, whereas there was no clear pattern for salary versus capitation payment. Even within a single specialty in a single plan, however, rates did not always follow the same pattern for different procedures.\",\n \"This study explored whether certain economic markers are associated with changes in the selection of primary care as a career. Using linear regression models, we examined whether economic factors in the United States could be used to predict the variability in US senior match rates in family medicine and three hospital-based specialties between 1978 and 2000. A linear regression model using several economic indicators showed that public and private expenditures were associated with the US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. As private expenditures increased, the match rate for family medicine fell while the match rates for anesthesia and radiology increased. Increases in public expenditures were associated with increased family medicine match rates and declining match rates for the other two specialties. Increases in private spending resulted in average increases of 0.92% and 2.38% in the anesthesia and radiology match, respectively, with a drop in family medicine match rates of 1.36%. We found that for every 1% increase in public expenditures for health, family medicine match rates rise on average 1.39%, while anesthesia rates fall by 0.84% and radiology rates drop 2.16%.\",\n \"To identify primary care practice characteristics associated with colorectal cancer (CRC) screening performance, controlling for patient-level factors. Primary care director survey (1999-2000) of 155 VA primary care clinics linked with 38,818 eligible patients' sociodemographics, utilization, and CRC screening experience using centralized administrative and chart-review data (2001). Practices were characterized by degrees of centralization (e.g., authority over operations, staffing, outside-practice influence); resources (e.g., sufficiency of nonphysician staffing, space, clinical support arrangements); and complexity (e.g., facility size, academic status, managed care penetration), adjusting for patient-level covariates and contextual factors. Chart-based evidence of CRC screening through direct colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, or consecutive fecal occult blood tests, eliminating cases with documented histories of CRC, polyps, or inflammatory bowel disease. After adjusting for sociodemographic characteristics and health care utilization, patients were significantly more likely to be screened for CRC if their primary care practices had greater autonomy over the internal structure of care delivery (p<.04), more clinical support arrangements (p<.03), and smaller size (p<.001).\",\n \"With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined.\",\n \"Despite the growth of managed care in the United States, there is little information about the arrangements managed-care plans make with physicians. In 1994 we surveyed by telephone 138 managed-care plans that were selected from 20 metropolitan areas nationwide. Of the 108 plans that responded, 29 were group-model or staff-model health maintenance organizations (HMOs), 50 were network or independent-practice-association (IPA) HMOs, and 29 were preferred-provider organizations (PPOs). Respondents from all three types of plan said they emphasized careful selection of physicians, although the group or staff HMOs tended to have more demanding requirements, such as board certification or eligibility. Sixty-one percent of the plans responded that physicians' previous patterns of costs or utilization of resources had little influence on their selection; 26 percent said these factors had a moderate influence; and 13 percent said they had a large influence. Some risk sharing with physicians was typical in the HMOs but rare in the PPOs. Fifty-six percent of the network or IPA HMOs used capitation as the predominant method of paying primary care physicians, as compared with 34 percent of the group or staff HMOs and 7 percent of the PPOs. More than half the HMOs reported adjusting payments according to utilization or cost patterns, patient complaints, and measures of the quality of care. Ninety-two percent of the network or IPA HMOs and 61 percent of the group or staff HMOs required their patients to select a primary care physician, who was responsible for most referrals to specialists. About three quarters of the HMOs and 31 percent of the PPOs reported using studies of the outcomes of medical care as part of their quality-improvement programs.\",\n \"To examine associations between physician reimbursement incentives and diabetes care processes and explore potential confounding with physician organizational model. Primary data collected during 2000-2001 in 10 managed care plans. Multilevel logistic regressions were used to estimate associations between reimbursement incentives and process measures, including the receipt of dilated eye exams, foot exams, influenza immunizations, advice to take aspirin, and assessments of glycemic control, proteinuria, and lipid profile. Reimbursement measures included the proportions of compensation received from salary, capitation, fee-for-service (FFS), and performance-based payment; the performance-based payment criteria used; and interactions of these criteria with the strength of the performance-based payment incentive. Patient, provider group, and health plan surveys and medical record reviews were conducted for 6,194 patients with diabetes. Without controlling for physician organizational model, care processes were better when physician compensation was based primarily on direct salary rather than FFS reimbursement (four of seven processes were better, with relative risks ranging from 1.13 to 1.23) or capitation (six were better, with relative risks from 1.06 to 1.36); and when quality/satisfaction scores influenced physician compensation (three were better, with relative risks from 1.17 to 1.26). However, these associations were substantially confounded by organizational model.\",\n \"To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.\",\n \"Health care reimbursement is increasingly based on quality. Little is known about how clinic-level patient characteristics affect quality, particularly in community health centers (CHCs). Using data from electronic health records for 4019 diabetic patients from 23 primary care CHCs in the OCHIN practice-based research network, we calculated correlations between a clinic's patient panel characteristics and rates of delivery of diabetes preventive services in 2007. Using regression models, we estimated the proportion of variability in clinics' preventive services rates associated with the variability in the clinics' patient panel characteristics. We also explored whether clinics' performance rates were affected by how patient panel denominators were defined. Clinic rates of hemoglobin testing, influenza immunizations, and lipid screening were positively associated with the percentage of patients with continuous health insurance coverage and negatively associated with the percentage of uninsured patients. Microalbumin screening rates were positively associated with the percentage of racial minorities in a clinic's panel. Associations remained consistent with different panel denominators.\",\n \"The association between the organizational structure of physician groups and health care quality has never been evaluated empirically. To examine whether integrated medical groups (IMGs) provide higher-quality primary care than individual practice associations (IPAs). Cross-sectional study. PacifiCare, a large health maintenance organization. Approximately 1.7 million enrollees of PacifiCare cared for by 119 California physician groups between July 1999 and June 2000. The percentage of eligible PacifiCare enrollees who received mammography, Papanicolaou smear screening, chlamydia screening, diabetic eye examination, an asthma controller medication, or a beta-blocker after acute myocardial infarction. Physician groups identified as IMGs, compared with those identified as IPAs, had higher rates of mammography (relative risk, 1.15 [95% CI, 1.01 to 1.33]), Papanicolaou smear screening (relative risk, 2.29 [CI, 1.53 to 3.42]), chlamydia screening (relative risk, 2.17 [CI, 1.04 to 4.55]), and diabetic eye screening (relative risk, 1.55 [CI, 1.28 to 1.88]). Leaders of IMGs were more likely to report using EMRs (37% vs. 2%; P<0.001) and quality improvement strategies, but these characteristics explained little of the quality differences between IMGs and IPAs. Organizational characteristics, including group type, were reported by physician group leaders and not directly assessed. Patient characteristics that could have accounted for some of the observed differences also were not assessed.\",\n \"The financing and organization of primary care in the United States has changed dramatically in recent decades. Primary care physicians have shifted from solo practice to larger group practices. The culture of a medical practice is thought to have an important influence on physician behavior. This study examines the effects of practice culture and organizational structure (while controlling for patient and physician characteristics) on the quality of physician decision-making. Data were obtained from a balanced factorial experiment which employed a clinically authentic video-taped scenario of diabetes with emerging peripheral neuropathy. Our findings show that several key practice culture variables significantly influence clinical decision-making with respect to diabetes. Practice culture may contribute more to whether essential examinations are performed than patient or physician variables or the structural characteristics of clinical organizations.\",\n \"The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.\",\n \"To examine the extent to which medical group and market factors are related to individual primary care physician (PCP) performance on patient experience measures. This study employs Clinician and Group CAHPS survey data (n=105,663) from 2,099 adult PCPs belonging to 34 diverse medical groups across California. Medical group directors were interviewed to assess the magnitude and nature of financial incentives directed at individual physicians and the adoption of patient experience improvement strategies. Primary care services area (PCSA) data were used to characterize the market environment of physician practices. We used multilevel models to estimate the relationship between medical group and market factors and physician performance on each Clinician and Group CAHPS measure. Models statistically controlled for respondent characteristics and accounted for the clustering of respondents within physicians, physicians within medical groups, and medical groups within PCSAs using random effects. Compared with physicians belonging to independent practice associations, physicians belonging to integrated medical groups had better performance on the communication ( p=.007) and care coordination ( p=.03) measures. Physicians belonging to medical groups with greater numbers of PCPs had better performance on all measures. The use of patient experience improvement strategies was not associated with performance. Greater emphasis on productivity and efficiency criteria in individual physician financial incentive formulae was associated with worse access to care ( p=.04). Physicians located in PCSAs with higher area-level deprivation had worse performance on the access to care ( p=.04) and care coordination ( p<.001) measures.\",\n \"Physician organizations (POs)--independent practice associations and medical groups--located in lower socioeconomic status (SES) areas may score poorly in pay-for-performance (P4P) programs. To examine the association between PO location and P4P performance. Cross-sectional study; Integrated Healthcare Association's (IHA's) P4P Program, the largest non-governmental, multi-payer program for POs in the U.S. 160 POs participating in 2009. We measured PO SES using established methods that involved geo-coding 11,718 practice sites within 160 POs to their respective census tracts and weighting tract-specific SES according to the number of primary care physicians at each site. P4P performance was defined by IHA's program and was a composite mainly representing clinical quality, but also including measures of patient experience, information technology and registry use. The area-based PO SES measure ranged from -11 to +11 (mean 0, SD 5), and the IHA P4P performance score ranged from 23 to 86 (mean 69, SD 15). In bivariate analysis, there was a significant positive relationship between PO SES and P4P performance (p < 0.001). In multivariate analysis, a one standard deviation increase in PO SES was associated with a 44% increase (relative risk 1.44, 95%CI, 1.22-1.71) in the likelihood of a PO being ranked in the top two quintiles of performance (p < 0.001).\",\n \"To identify the characteristics of the primary health-care (PHC) team's structure and of the assigned population affecting service quality dimensions, and to check whether the PHC team's performance varies when assessing the service quality using crude values or those adjusted by the structural factors that affect it. Cross-sectional descriptive study. 213 Catalan PHC teams. Service quality indicators measured in three dimensions: (1) access and physician-patient relationship; (2) team coordination and (3) evidence-based practice. The PHC team structural factors studied are: experience, setting (urban or rural), geographical dispersion, teaching activities and managerial structure. The catchment population characteristics analysed are: age, socio-economic level, mortality, and the proportion of the population that are immigrants. Access and physician-patient relationship dimension were not affected by the studied structural factors. Team coordination improved in rural teams and in those providing care for older populations. Evidence-based practice was found to be higher in teaching teams, in more experienced teams and in those attending populations with a lower socio-economic level. Adjusted service quality indicator values substantially modify the PHC team quality ranking carried out on the basis of its crude values, especially in the team coordination and evidence-based practice dimensions.\",\n \"Growth of at-risk managed care contracts between health plans and medical groups has been well documented, but less is known about the nature of financial incentives within those medical groups or their effects on health care utilization. To test whether utilization and cost of health services per enrollee were influenced independently by the compensation method of the enrollee's primary care physician. Survey of medical groups contracting with selected managed care health plans, linked to 1994 plan enrollment and utilization data for adult enrollees. Medical groups, major managed care health plans, and their patients/enrollees in the state of Washington. Sixty medical groups in Washington, 865 primary care physicians (internal medicine, pediatrics, family practice, or general practice) from those groups and affiliated with 1 or more of 4 managed care health plans, and 200 931 adult plan enrollees. The effect of method of primary care physician's compensation on the utilization and cost of health services was analyzed by weighted least squares and random effects regression. Total visits, hospital days, and per member per year estimated costs. Compensation method was not significantly (P>.30) related to utilization and cost in any multivariate analyses. Patient age (P<.001), female gender (P<.001), and plan benefit level (P<.001) were significantly positively related to visits, hospital days, and per member per year costs. The primary care physician's age was significantly negatively related (P<.001) to all 3 dependent measures.\",\n \"Recent reports have emphasized the importance of delivery systems in improving health care quality. However, few prior studies have assessed differences in primary care quality between physician groups that differ in size and organizational configuration. We examined whether larger physician group size and affiliation with networks of multiple groups are associated with higher quality of care. We conducted a cross-sectional observational analysis of 132 physician groups (including 4,358 physicians) who delivered primary care services in Massachusetts in 2002. We compared physician groups on performance scores for 12 Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures reflecting processes of adult primary care. Network-affiliated physician groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups for 10 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05). There was no consistent relationship between group size and performance scores. Multivariable models including group size, network affiliation, and health plan showed that network-affiliated groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups on 8 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05), and larger group size was not associated with higher performance scores. Adjusted differences in the performance scores of network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups ranged from 2% to 15%. For 4 HEDIS measures related to diabetes care, performance score differences between network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups were most apparent among the smallest groups.\",\n \"yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.\",\n \"To determine if patient assessments (reports and ratings) of primary care differ by patient ethnicity.DATA SOURCES/ A self-administered patient survey of 6,092 Massachusetts employees measured seven defining characteristics of primary care: (1) access (financial, organizational); (2) continuity (longitudinal, visit based); (3) comprehensiveness (knowledge of patient, preventive counseling); (4) integration; (5) clinical interaction (communication, thoroughness of physical examinations); (6) interpersonal treatment; and (7) trust. The study employed a cross-sectional observational design. Asians had the lowest primary care performance assessments of any ethnic group after adjustment for socioeconomic and other factors. For example, compared to whites, Asians had lower scores for communication (69 vs. 79, p = .001) and comprehensive knowledge of patient (56 vs. 48, p = .002), African Americans and Latinos had less access to care, and African Americans had less longitudinal continuity than whites.\",\n \"The competitive managed care marketplace is causing increased restrictiveness in the structure of health plans. The effect of plan restrictiveness on the delivery of primary care is unknown. Our purpose was to examine the association of the organizational and financial restrictiveness of managed care plans with important elements of primary care, the patient-clinician relationship, and patient satisfaction. We conducted a cross-sectional study of 15 member practices of the Ambulatory Sentinel Practice Network selected to represent diverse health care markets. Each practice completed a Managed Care Survey to characterize the degree of organizational and financial restrictiveness for each individual health care plan. A total of 199 managed care plans were characterized. Then, 1475 consecutive outpatients completed a patient survey that included: the Components of Primary Care Instrument as a measure of attributes of primary care; a measure of the amount of inconvenience involved with using the health care plan; and the Medical Outcomes Study Visit Rating Form for assessing patient satisfaction. Clinicians' reports of inconvenience were significantly associated (P<.001) with the financial and organizational restrictiveness scores of the plan. There was no association between plan restrictiveness and patient report of multiple aspects of the delivery of primary care or patient satisfaction with the visit.\",\n \"Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05).\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":590,"string":"590"}}},{"rowIdx":273181,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Are genetic influences on peptic ulcer dependent or independent of genetic influences for Helicobacter pylori infection?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Genetic factors play a role or roles in the etiology of peptic ulcer disease and the acquisition of Helicobacter pylori infection. To evaluate the relative importance of genetic and environmental influences as well as the importance of H. pylori on peptic ulcer disease. Cross-sectional study on monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins, reared apart or together. Twins of the subregistry of the Swedish Twin Registry included in the Swedish Adoption/Twin Study of Aging. Peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori status were assessed in MZ and DZ twin pairs reared apart or together. A total of 258 twin pairs had information regarding H. pylori status and history of peptic ulcer. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed as the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG. The intraclass correlations for peptic ulcer disease for MZ twins reared apart and together and DZ twins reared apart and together were 0.67, 0.65, 0.22, and 0.35, respectively, which indicates that genetic effects are important for liability to peptic ulcer. The correlation coefficient for MZ twins reared apart (0.67) provides the best single estimate of the relative importance of genetic effects (heritability) for variation in liability to peptic ulcer disease, and structural model fitting analyses confirmed this result (heritability, 62%). The cross-twin cross-trait correlations for MZ and DZ twins were examined to determine whether genetic effects for peptic ulcer were shared with or independent of genetic influences for H. pylori. The cross-correlations for MZ and DZ twins were almost identical (0.25 and 0.29, respectively), suggesting that familial environmental rather than genetic influences mediate the association between peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori infection.","Genetic influences are of moderate importance for liability to peptic ulcer disease. Genetic influences for peptic ulcer are independent of genetic influences important for acquiring H. pylori infection."],"string":"[\n \"Genetic factors play a role or roles in the etiology of peptic ulcer disease and the acquisition of Helicobacter pylori infection. To evaluate the relative importance of genetic and environmental influences as well as the importance of H. pylori on peptic ulcer disease. Cross-sectional study on monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins, reared apart or together. Twins of the subregistry of the Swedish Twin Registry included in the Swedish Adoption/Twin Study of Aging. Peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori status were assessed in MZ and DZ twin pairs reared apart or together. A total of 258 twin pairs had information regarding H. pylori status and history of peptic ulcer. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed as the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG. The intraclass correlations for peptic ulcer disease for MZ twins reared apart and together and DZ twins reared apart and together were 0.67, 0.65, 0.22, and 0.35, respectively, which indicates that genetic effects are important for liability to peptic ulcer. The correlation coefficient for MZ twins reared apart (0.67) provides the best single estimate of the relative importance of genetic effects (heritability) for variation in liability to peptic ulcer disease, and structural model fitting analyses confirmed this result (heritability, 62%). The cross-twin cross-trait correlations for MZ and DZ twins were examined to determine whether genetic effects for peptic ulcer were shared with or independent of genetic influences for H. pylori. The cross-correlations for MZ and DZ twins were almost identical (0.25 and 0.29, respectively), suggesting that familial environmental rather than genetic influences mediate the association between peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori infection.\",\n \"Genetic influences are of moderate importance for liability to peptic ulcer disease. Genetic influences for peptic ulcer are independent of genetic influences important for acquiring H. pylori infection.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["H. pylori infection monitored by LARA- (13)C-urea breath test was rapidly suppressed during intensive care treatment, which can be explained by the routine use of antibiotics for gut decontamination.The low incidence of stress ulcer-related bleeding might be related to the prevention of H. pylori-associated stress lesions by effective suppression of this microorganism, but further studies are warranted to test this hypothesis.","yes. The children of H. pylori-infected dyspeptic mothers had an increased risk for such infection. The risk further increased once their siblings were infected. H. pylori infection in pre-adolescent children may determine iron deficiency and growth retardation.","The role of Helicobacter pylori in nonulcer dyspepsia is controversial. Speculation has arisen that only strains of H. pylori carrying the CagA virulence factor are important in the development of dyspepsia. The objective of this study was to determine whether nonulcer dyspepsia correlated with CagA-positive H. pylori infection. A total of 435 healthy blood donors and 102 general medicine clinic respondents completed the Bowel Disease Questionnaire and the PRIME-MD survey, a validated screen for common psychiatric disorders. Subjects were classified as cases of nonulcer dyspepsia if they reported pain in the upper abdomen more than six times in the previous year and denied a past or current history of peptic ulcer disease. Study participants were tested for IgG antibodies to H. pylori and the CagA protein. Clinic respondents were more likely than healthy blood donors to meet the case definition for nonulcer dyspepsia (34% vs 13%, p < 0.001), to be seropositive for H. pylori (54% vs 18%, p < 0.001), and to be CagA seropositive (41% vs 10%, p = 0.01). Logistic regression identified CagA seropositivity (p = 0.03), race (p = 0.001), and positive screens for depression (p = 0.007) or somatization (p < 0.001) as variables independently associated with nonulcer dyspepsia.","yes. Patients with and without preoperative H. pylori infection had few differences in adverse pathologic features at the time of gastric adenocarcinoma resection. Despite similar disease presentations, preoperative H. pylori infection was independently associated with improved OS. Further studies examining the interaction between H. pylori and tumor immunology and genetics are merited.","The impact of H pylori infection as an independent risk factor for CHD seems to be minor. On the other hand the results are consistent with the hypothesis that H pylori infection might modify the serum lipid concentrations in a way that could increase the risk of CHD.","The role that H. pylori infection plays in the development of and Barrett's esophagus (BE) is uncertain. We tested the hypothesis that infection with cagA+ Helicobacter pylori strains protects against the development of BE. We studied 104 consecutive patients, residents in an area with a high prevalence of H. pylori infection, with BE and 213 sex- and age-matched controls. H. pylori infection and CagA antibody status were determined by western blot serology. H. pylori prevalence was higher in patients with BE than in controls (87.5% vs. 74.6%; OR. 2.3; 95% CI: 1.23-4.59). Increasing age was associated with a higher prevalence of H. pylori (p < 0.05). The prevalence of CagA+ H. pylori serology was similar in patients with BE and controls (64.4% vs. 54.5%; NS). Type I H. pylori infection (CagA+ and VacA+) was similar in patients with BE and controls (44.2% vs. 41.3%; NS). Logistic regression analysis identified alcohol (O.R. 7.09; 95% CI 2.23-22.51), and H. pylori infection (OR: 2.41; 95%CI: 1.20-4.84) but not CagA+ serology as independent factors.","Proinflammatory interleukin (IL)-1 gene polymorphisms associated with high levels of IL-1beta activity increase the risk for hypochlorhydria and distal gastric carcinoma. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether carriers of these polymorphic genes are protected against gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). TNFA-308 polymorphisms were also studied. We prospectively evaluated 385 patients without gastric cancer and peptic ulcer. Of these patients, 383 (98 with GERD and 285 controls) were successfully genotyped for all cytokines studied. The cagA status of Helicobacter pylori isolates was determined by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). IL1B-511/-31, IL1RN, and TNFA-308 polymorphisms were genotyped by PCR, PCR/restriction fragment length polymorphism, or PCR/confronting 2-pair primers. Histologic gastritis was assessed according to the updated Sydney system. The role of the proinflammatory cytokine genotypes in the genesis of GERD was evaluated before and after stratification by H. pylori status in logistic regression models controlling for confounding factors. IL1B-31 (a near-complete linkage disequilibrium between polymorphism at -31 and -511 was found) and IL1RN*2 allele polymorphisms were associated with GERD. After stratification, in the group of H. pylori-positive patients, cagA-positive status, IL1B-31 polymorphic alleles, IL1RN*2 alleles, and the degree of corpus gastritis were negatively associated with GERD. In the H. pylori-negative group, IL1B-31C/C genotype was inversely associated with GERD even after adjustment for age and sex.","yes. Carriage of the shorter allele of the PG-II 100 bp ins/del polymorphism and elevated levels of PG-II are associated with GC, particularly with H. pylori infection and IM.","yes. Helicobacter pylori, and especially strains carrying the CagA gene, may contribute to the inflammatory mechanisms involved in the pathogenesis of PE.","yes. PCR study demonstrated that there was no significant association between the distribution of babA2 genotype or of triple positive strains and disease outcome in this sub population. The adherence assay showed that there was no significant difference in the extent of adherence to AGS cells among babA2 positive and negative strains. But the ex vivo study indicated that the triple positive or even the babA2 only positive strains are involved in increased virulence. The wild type strains also exhibited increased virulence compared to the babA2 mutant strains. This inconsistency demonstrated that bacterial genotype along with host genetic polymorphisms or other factors play important role in determining the clinical manifestation of H. pylori infections.","yes. In individuals with the T allele at the -260 site of the promoter region of the CD14 gene, H. pylori infection accentuates gastric mucosal inflammation.","Infection with cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) Helicobacter pylori is associated with severe gastric diseases. Previous studies in humans have reported a decreased gastric hydrophobicity with H pylori infection. The aim of the present study was to differentiate between the effect of cagA+ and cagA- strains on gastric mucus hydrophobicity. One hundred patients without peptic ulcers and not on medication were randomly recruited from endoscopy clinics; each patient had six biopsies. Contact angle measurements were performed using a goniometer assisted by computer software. H pylori status was assessed by histology, Campylobacter-like organism test and culture, and cagA+ status was determined by polymerase chain reaction. In age- and sex-matched patients, there was no significant difference (P=0.27) in contact angle between H pylori-positive (61+/-2.8 degrees ) and H pylori-negative patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees ). There was also no significant difference (P=0.36) in contact angle among H pylori-negative, cagA- and cagA+ patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees , 58.6+/-3.6 degrees and 63.4+/-4.9 degrees , respectively). However, a trend of increased mean contact angles in cagA+ compared with cagA- and H pylori-negative patients was observed in patients 50 years and younger (68.3+/-8.3 degrees , 61.1+/-6.1 degrees and 63.6+/-2.2 degrees , respectively; P=0.70) and in patients without atrophy (71.1+/-8 degrees , 59.6+/-4 degrees and 66+/-2 degrees , respectively; P=0.30). In addition, there was no significant correlation between contact angles and patient age (r=0.104, P=0.306).","Cytochrome P450 2C19 (CYP2C19) polymorphism has been associated with the development of lung, liver or oesophageal cancer by detoxification of carcinogen(s) or activation of procarcinogen(s). To clarify the association between CYP2C19 polymorphisms and gastric cancer development in Japanese. Methods : We determined CYP2C19 genotypes (CYP2C19*1, *2 and *3) in 111 Helicobacter pylori-positive patients with gastric cancer and 315 H. pylori-positive controls without gastric cancer consisting of patients with gastritis only or peptic ulcer. Frequencies of CYP2C19 genotypes and serum pepsinogen I and II levels, a biomarker of gastric atrophy, in the gastric cancers and controls were compared. Frequencies of homozygous extensive metabolizers, heterozygous extensive metabolizers and poor metabolizers were 31.5%, 42.3% and 26.2% in the gastric cancers and 38.1%, 47.0% and 14.9% in the controls, respectively (P = 0.046). Poor metabolizers were associated with an increased risk for developing gastric cancer with the age- and sex-adjusted odds ratio (OR) of 1.975 [95% confidence interval (CI): 1.068-3.649], especially for diffuse type (OR: 3.385, CI: 1.187-9.648). There is no significant association between CYP2C19 genotypes and serum pepsinogen I level or pepsinogen I/II ratios, although serum pepsinogen I level in gastric cancers were significantly decreased.","yes. In this study, a DNA construct encoding the urease B subunit was assessed for its immune profile and its ability to reduce bacterial colonization in the murine stomach. Our studies suggest that local innate immune responses may play a greater role than previously supposed in limiting H. pylori colonization in the gastric mucosa.","Although H. pylori infection has been recognized as a cause of gastric cancer in humans, some large populations with high prevalence of infection have low gastric cancer rates. This so-called \"African enigma\" so far remains unexplained. Our findings suggest that virulence-associated genes of H. pylori may partially explain the African enigma. Other factors, including human genetic polymorphisms and diet, are also suspected to play a major role. Further investigations are needed to test this hypothesis.","yes. Our data suggest that early-life stress, on the background of a genetic predisposition to display an anxiety- and depressive-like phenotype, selectively influences GI function rather than stress-related behaviors. Thus, our findings highlight the importance of genetic predisposition on the outcome of early-life adversity on GI function.","Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) has been recognized as one of the most common chronic bacterial infections in the world. Most children are colonized in early childhood, and the infection will last a lifetime unless the child is treated with appropriate antibiotics.AIM: To evaluate whether H. pylori infection has an influence on growth and whether the severity of endoscopic findings relates to the growth impairment. We formed four groups based on the presence or absence of H. pylori infection and gastrointestinal complaints as follows: group I: RAP +/H. pylori+; group II: RAP +/H. pylori-; group III: RAP -/H. pylori+; group IV: RAP -/H. pylori-. The relationship between endoscopic appearances, histological severity of gastritis, and antral H. pylori density with growth parameters was evaluated. The BMI standard derivation scores of groups I and II were significantly lower than those of asymptomatic controls independent of their H. pylori status. A significant difference in height for age standard derivation scores was observed only between groups I and IV. When we compared the BMI and height for age standard derivation scores of group III and group IV combined with that of the endoscopically normal children in the recurrent abdominal pain group, there was no significant difference between the two groups.","yes. IL-1beta-511 polymorphism is one of the determinants of successful eradication of H. pylori using triple therapy with a PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin, together with CYP2C19 genotype and bacterial resistance to clarithromycin.","yes. Although, H. pylori strains with distinct cagA-types are circulating within the primary ethnic groups resident in Malaysia and Singapore, these genotypes appear unassociated with the development of GC in the ethnic Chinese population. The phenomenon of distinct strains circulating within different ethnic groups, in combination with host and certain environmental factors, may help to explain the rates of GC development in Malaysia.","yes. Our data suggest that the TLR4+896A>G polymorphism is a risk factor for noncardia gastric carcinoma and its precursors. The findings underscore the role of the host innate immune response in outcome of H pylori infection.","yes. This study indicated that the up-regulation of miR-155 and miR-146b decreases H. pylori (cagA+)-introduced IL6 overexpression, which might weaken the cleanup of H. pylori (cagA+) and contributes to ulcer.","yes. Genetic variations in the IL-1β and IL-1RN genes influence disease progression in gastric cancer. Screening for these genetic variations might help to stratify therapies for gastric cancer patients in the future.","Helicobacter pylori was found to increase the transcription of RANTES as a potent chemoattractant cytokine in mucosal inflammation. The aim of this study was to test if a functional promotor polymorphism in the RANTES gene leading to a higher transcriptional activity influences the severity of the mucosal damage in H. pylori infected individuals. A single nucleotide polymorphism, C-471T, was genotyped by TaqMan technology in a sample of 344 consecutive patients with H. pylori infection undergoing upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and 370 blood donors. Association with the development of erosions and stomach or duodenum ulcers as well as atrophic gastritis were tested. None of the genotypes were associated with the severity of mucosal damage in stomach or duodenum (P > 0.05).","yes. Our findings provide evidence that GGT is a pathogenic factor associated with H pylori-induced peptic ulcer disease.","yes. The IL-1β -581C/T and IL-1β -1061C/T genotypes may be associated with low-dose aspirin-induced peptic ulcers in a Korean ethnic group.","yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.","no. Helicobacter pylori infection was not significantly more prevalent in polytraumatized patients with hemorrhage when compared with control group. Our data suggest that the infection with Helicobacter pylori does not play an important role in bleeding, indicating no causative role for it in upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage of polytraumatized patients. The incidence of bleeding is low and bleeding develops usually later, in the meantime is the Helicobacter pylori infection eradicated with the antibiotics used for another purpose.","yes. Ethnic Malays is genetically susceptible to H. pylori infection and is possibly mediated through a genetic variation in the DCC gene.","To investigate whether the sequential therapy composed of high dose omeprazole and high dose amoxicillin in the first step was effective in eradication of H. pylori and whether there was a relation between effectiveness of the therapy and CYP2C19 gene polymorphism. 134 dyspeptic patients with H. pylori were administered a modified sequential therapy composed of omeprazole 40 mg t.i.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg t.i.d, for the first five days followed by omeprazole 20 mg b.d., metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. and tetracycline 500 mg t.i.d, for the next five days. CYP2C19 genotype status was determined in patients. Hp eradication status was investigated by C14 UNT four weeks after treatment. The eradication rates were 64.9% in ITT and 74.3% in PP analysis. In subgroup analyses, eradication rates were 73.8% and 60.8% (p: 0.145) in ITT for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively and 86.1% and 69.1% (p: 0.052) in PP analysis for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively. The difference was not significant. As for the CYP2C19 gene status, 81.5% of the patients had HoEM and 17.3% of the patients had HeEM, and eradication rates were 72% and 75% in ITT analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.803) and 73.9% and 85.7% in PP analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.347). There was not a significant difference in H. pylori eradication rates between the two groups.","yes. Gastric cancer in patients younger than 40 years is closely associated with H. pylori infection, but not with genetic characteristics. Eradication therapy for H. pylori and endoscopic examination of H. pylori-positive young adults may be anticipated to be adopted as a strategy for the prevention and/or early detection of cancer.","yes. In addition to epigenetic changes in the RUNX3 proximal promoter, genetic changes in the distal promoter may be associated with susceptibility to intestinal-type gastric cancer by increasing promoter activity. Functionally, 2 RUNX3 isoforms may contribute differentially to intestinal-type gastric cancer susceptibility, at least in part through regulating NF-κB activity and IL1B expression.","Polymorphism in interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta) is associated with intragastric pH levels in Helicobacter pylori-positive subjects. Intragastric pH levels affect the activity of antibiotics against H. pylori in the stomach. The aim of this study was to investigate whether IL-1beta polymorphism is associated with eradication rates of H. pylori by triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. Three hundred thirty-six patients infected with H. pylori completed treatment with omeprazole, 20 mg, or lansoprazole, 30 mg twice daily; clarithromycin, 200 mg 3 times daily; and amoxicillin, 500 mg 3 times daily, for 1 week. IL-1beta-511 and CYP2C19 genotypes of patients and sensitivity of H. pylori to clarithromycin and amoxicillin were determined. Logistic regression analysis showed that the IL-1beta-511 polymorphism, as well as CYP2C19 genotype of patients and clarithromycin-resistance of H. pylori, was associated with successful eradication. Eradication rates for H. pylori were 77.3% (75 of 97; 95% confidence interval, 67.5-84.6), 89.6% (147 of 164; 95% confidence interval, 83.9-93.1), and 94.7% (95% confidence interval, 86.9-98.5) in patients with the C/C, C/T, and T/T genotypes of IL-1beta-511, respectively (P = 0.0014).","yes. The sudden rise of peptic ulcer disease during the 19th century and the 10-20-yr time lag between gastric and duodenal ulcer are difficult to explain based on changing infection rates with Helicobacterpylori alone. The similarity between the time trends of duodenal ulcer and ulcerative colitis suggests the influence of one or more shared risk factors.","yes. All clinical H. pylori isolates from different gastric diseases in our Taiwanese patients were positive for the PAI, but only 36% of these isolates carried an IS605 insertion. The selected genes in the PAI were not correlated with disease outcome. The determination of cagA prevalence is based on the selection of suitable primers. In contrast, bacterial factors such as the presence of iceAl could be related to severity of gastric inflammation and increase in ulcer size in H. pylori-infected patients.","Almost all Helicobacter pylori infected person develop gastritis and severe gastritis is supposed to be the denominator of peptic ulcer diseases, which may lead to gastric cancer. However, it is still an enigma why few strains are associated with ulcer formation, while others are not related with any disease outcome. Although a number of putative virulence factors have been reported for H. pylori, there are contradictory results regarding their connotation with diseases. Recently, there has been a significant attention in strain-specific genes outside the cag pathogenicity island, especially genes within plasticity regions. Studies demonstrated that certain genes in this region may play important roles in the pathogenesis of H. pylori-associated diseases. The aim of this study was to assess the role of selected genes (jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949) in the plasticity region in relation to risk of H. pylori-related diseases in Indian population. A total of 113 H. pylori strains isolated from duodenal ulcer (DU) (n = 61) and non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) subjects (n = 52) were screened by PCR and Dot-Blot to determine the presence of these genes. The comparative study of IL-8 production and apoptosis were also done by co-culturing the AGS cells with H. pylori strains of different genotype. PCR and Dot-Blot results indicated that the prevalence rates of jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 in the H. pylori strains were 9.8, 47.5, 50.8, 40.9 % and 17.3, 28.8, 26.9, 19.2 % isolated from DU and NUD, respectively. IL-8 production and apoptotic cell death were significantly higher in H. pylori strains containing jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 than the strains lacking those genes. Results indicated that the prevalence of jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 are associated with increased risk of severe diseases in India.","yes. Helicobacter pylori infection significantly and independently contributed to promoting insulin resistance in a large asymptomatic population.","Pro-inflammatory polymorphisms within the genes interleukin (IL)-1B and IL-1RN are associated with risk for gastric carcinoma (GC) in Helicobacter pylori-infected individuals. We aimed to determine the association between variation of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha gene and the risk for chronic atrophic gastritis (CAG) and GC. We also investigated the extent to which the combined effect of proinflammatory genetic polymorphisms (IL-1B, IL-1RN, and TNF-alpha), and the combined effect of TNF-alpha and bacterial genotypes each influence such a risk. In a case-control study including 306 controls, 221 individuals with chronic gastritis, and 287 GC patients, the TNF-alpha-308 and IL-1B-511 bi-allelic polymorphisms, the IL-1RN variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), and the H. pylori genes vacA (s and m regions) and cagA were genotyped. We found that carriers of the TNF-alpha-308*A allele are at increased risk for GC development with an odds ratio (OR) of 1.9 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.3-2.7). For both CAG and GC, the odds of developing disease increased with the number of high-risk genotypes. Individuals carrying high-risk genotypes at the 3 loci are at increased risk for CAG and GC with an OR of 5.8 (95% CI, 1.1-31.0) and 9.7 (95% CI, 2.6-36.0), respectively. The risk for GC was not affected significantly by the combination of bacterial and TNF-alpha-308 genotypes.","yes. Our data suggest that COMT gene 158Met polymorphism is associate with a reduced risk of developing more severe intestinal metaplasia in H. pylori infected older subjects.","yes. The present meta-analysis results suggest that the LTA rs909253 GA genotype is a possible risk factor for developing gastric cancer in the Asian population, especially those with H. pylori infection.","yes. Our results suggest the importance of the local immune response in the development of H. pylori related diseases. Also some interesting points for further study of the association between immune response against H. pylori and the development of duodenal ulcer disease were indicated.","yes. Taiwanese H pylori isolates are 100% babA2 genopositive. Gastric Le(b) as well as Le(x) intensity may be major determinants of H pylori density. While lacking gastric Le(b) expression, Le(x) and Le(a) were closely related to H pylori colonisation.","yes. The outcome of H. pylori treatment with omeprazole and amoxicillin may depend on several factors, such as age, ethnic origin, and a pronounced acid suppression. However, the only factor of independent importance in this study was prolonged and profound acid inhibition.","yes. A direct gastric mutagenic effect due to H. pylori infection in the Big Blue transgenic mouse model has been shown 6 months after inoculation. This genotoxicity can be attributable to oxidative DNA damage involving the inflammatory host response.","yes. 1) Helicobacter pylori infection seems to be a protective factor for the presence of endoscopic esophagitis. 2) When esophagitis is present, the degree of damage appears to be independent of the H. pylori infection.","yes. cagA-positive H. pylori is highly prevalent in southern Mexico, and all CagA variants were of the western type. The cagA alleles that code for EPIYA-ABCC motif patterns are associated with peptic ulcers and gastric cancer.","Our results disclose a clear inverse association between a pro-inflammatory genetic profile and H. pylori seropositivity among cases with CAG, supporting suggestions of enhanced elimination of H. pylori during the development of the disease.","cagA status and the vacA genotyping was successful with tissue samples taken directly from gastric and duodenal biopsies. Discrepancies between isolate and biopsy strain types stress the need for caution when interpreting in vitro strain types and suggest that direct PCR of biopsies is the preferred typing technique. The cagA status and the s1 vacA allele are unreliable as single markers in determining the risk of developing peptic ulcer disease.","Helicobacter pylori infection is now accepted as the most common cause of chronic active gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. The etiologies of many infectious diseases have been attributed to specific or clonal strains of bacterial pathogens. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification of DNA between repetitive DNA sequences, REP elements (REP-PCR), has been utilized to generate DNA fingerprints to examine similarity among strains within a bacterial species. Genomic DNA from H. pylori isolates obtained from 70 individuals (39 duodenal ulcers and 31 simple gastritis) was PCR-amplified using consensus probes to repetitive DNA elements. The H. pylori DNA fingerprints were analyzed for similarity and correlated with disease presentation using the NTSYS-pc computer program. Each H. pylori strain had a distinct DNA fingerprint except for two pairs. Single-colony DNA fingerprints of H. pylori from the same patient were identical, suggesting that each patient harbors a single strain. Computer-assisted cluster analysis of the REP-PCR DNA fingerprints showed two large clusters of isolates, one associated with simple gastritis and the other with duodenal ulcer disease.","yes. H. pylori infection induces IL-18 in the gastric mucosa. H. pylori-infected patients with IL18 -607C/C and -137G/G have higher IL-18 levels, which causes severe gastric inflammation. IL18 genotype might be a marker for predicting the effects of eradication therapy.","We examined referrals to oesophagogastroduodenoscopy and the impact of demographic and clinical variables to predict major findings (peptic ulcer, cancer) on oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. We collected data on 3669 consecutive patients referred for oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. Dyspeptic and reflux symptoms constituted 80% of oesophagogastroduodenoscopy referrals. A major finding was observed in 419 patients (11.4%). The mean age of cancer patients was 72.7 years (95% confidence interval (CI) 70.0-76.5 years) and that of peptic ulcer patients 62.0 years (95% CI 60.5-63.5 years). Independent risk factors for a major finding were age>50 years (odds ratio (OR) 1.62, 95% CI 1.24-2.10), male sex (OR 1.38, 95% CI 1.11-1.72), ulcer-type pain (OR 2.33, 95% CI 1.80-3.02), weight loss (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.14-2.53), anaemia (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.38-2.40), bleeding symptoms (OR 3.27, 95% CI 2.26-4.75) and Helicobacter pylori (OR 2.49, 95% CI 2.00-3.11), whereas reflux symptoms were protective (OR 0.73, 95% CI 0.53-1.00). The area under receiver operating characteristic curve of age over 50 years with alarm symptoms to predict major finding was 0.68 (95% CI 0.65-0.71), which positive H. pylori status increased to 0.71 (95% CI 0.69-0.74). Of the major findings, 87.2% were detected in patients with risk factors. Major findings were detected in 15.1% patients with and 8.1% (p<0.001) without alarm symptoms.","no. Even though H. pylori itself induces expression of RANTES, at the transcriptional level, genetic variations leading to higher transcriptional activity do not modify the degree of inflammation.","Helicobacter pylori colonisation rates in childhood have declined in Western populations, but it is unknown whether this trend is similar in children of non-Western ethnic backgrounds, born in a Western country. We aimed to identify H. pylori status in children, and determine mother-to-child transmission and risk factors for colonisation. Antibodies against H. pylori and cytotoxin-associated gene A (CagA) were measured in children participating in a population-based prospective cohort study in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. Information on demographics and characteristics was collected using questionnaires. We analysed the serum of 4467 children (mean age 6.2 years±0.4 SD) and compared the results with the H. pylori status of their mothers (available for 3185 children). Overall, 438 (10%) children were H. pylori-positive, of whom 142 (32%) were CagA-positive. Independent risk factors for colonisation were: maternal H. pylori positivity (OR 2.12; 95% CI 1.62 to 2.77), non-Dutch ethnicity (OR 2.05; 95% CI 1.54 to 2.73), female gender (OR 1.47; 95% CI 1.20 to 1.80) and lower maternal education level (OR 1.38; 95% CI 1.06 to 1.79). Comparing mothers and children, we found an intergenerational decrease of 76% and 77% for Hp(+)CagA(-) and Hp(+)CagA(+)-strains, respectively, consistent across all nine ethnic groups studied. Male gender, higher maternal educational level and no older siblings, were independently associated with absence of H. pylori.","In greater Rochester, NY, where the majority of our patients with EGD were whites, the prevalence of H. pylori among ulcer patients was lower compared to other regions, particularly among whites. This suggests that an additional causative factor or factors for peptic ulcers may be present. Hence, empirical antibiotic therapy of ulcer patients without confirming the presence of H. pylori may not be justified.","yes. H. felis infection leads to increased apoptosis and altered cellular differentiation in the C57BL/6 mouse, a strain that lacks gastric sPLA2 expression. Because sPLA2 has been identified recently as the MOM1 (modifier of MIN) locus that influences polyp formation in the colon, these studies suggest that sPLA2 may also influence the gastric epithelial response to Helicobacter infection.","Polymorphisms of genes encoding cytokines could be potential biomarkers to predict risk of gastric cancer (GC). Here, we investigated the association between the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism in its promoter region and GC risk. In this case-control study of 215 GC cases and 518 non-cancer controls, the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism was genotyped by polymerase chain reaction-restriction fragment length polymorphism (PCR-RFLP). Individuals with the TC or CC genotype were associated with a significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.710, 95%CI: 0.504-0.999, P=0.049) compared with TT wild-type carriers. Ther C allele was also associated with significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.715, 95%CI: 0.536- 0.954, P=0.023) compared with the T allele. In the stratification analysis, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased GC risk in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases. However, no significant interaction was observed for TC or CC genotypes with H. pylori infection. On stratification with the Lauren classification, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased risk of diffuse- type GC (OR=0.497, 95%CI: 0.266-0.925, P=0.027), also in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases.","yes. These results indicate that Hp infection of gastric cancer cells alters 11p15 mucin gene transcription and that MUC5AC downregulation is mediated by urease virulence factor.","yes. This study indicates that factors related to bleeding peptic ulcers in elderly patients have shifted from Helicobacter pylori infection to comorbidities associated with low-dose aspirin, suggesting a close relationship between low-dose aspirin therapy and comorbidities in elderly patients with peptic ulcers.","yes. The high prevalence of the cagA gene in asymptomatic gastritis suggests that it will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish more virulent or disease-specific H. pylori strains. The genetic heterogeneity among H. pylori strains makes PCR an unwise choice as the single method to determine prevalence of a putative virulence factor. In evaluation of the prevalence of a gene or genetic factor in a population of H. pylori, hybridization with extended probes might be important to ensure that the results are representative of the organism's genotype.","Polymorphism in the gene of pepsinogen-II (PG-II) and its serum level are effective biomarkers for terminal differentiation of gastric mucosa into gastritis, intestinal metaplasia (IM), and gastric cancer (GC) in relationship to Helicobacter pylori infection. Genotyping of the PG-II 100 bp insertion/deletion (ins/del) polymorphism was performed in patients with GC (n = 192) and age- and gender-matched H. pylori-associated dyspepsia (n = 180) and healthy subjects (HS, n = 240) by PCR. IgG anti-H. pylori (in all subjects) and serum PG-II levels were estimated in 145 patients each with GC and dyspepsia and in 65 healthy controls (HC) using ELISA (Biohit Oyj, Finland). Five alleles were amplified by PCR: allele 5 (510 bp), allele 4 (480 bp), allele 3 (450 bp), allele 2 (400 bp), and allele 1 (shorter allele, 310 bp). Allele 1 carriage was infrequent, and serum PG-II level was higher among patients with GC than in HC [OR 0.43 (95 % CI, 0.29-0.85), p < 0.001 and mean ± SD; 17.53 ± 12.60 vs. 12.77 ± 7.53 µg/l, p = 0.005, respectively], particularly in the presence of H. pylori [OR 0.42 (0.25-0.71), p = 0.001 and 18.78 ± 12.63 vs. 13.97 ± 8.14, p = 0.034]. However, allele 1 carriage and PG-II levels were comparable among patients with GC and dyspepsia. Patients with IM also carried allele 1 infrequently and had higher levels of PG-II than those without [OR 0.5 (0.29-0.85), p = 0.011 and 20.07 ± 14.22 vs. 16.61 ± 12.08, p = 0.048].","yes. The present study demonstrates that in Helicobacter pylori-infected human gastric mucosa, cag+ infection is associated with enhanced Interleukin-8 expression, higher levels of active gastritis and bacterial density, and presence of duodenal ulcer.","Infection with Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease (PUD), but there are limited longitudinal data on the associations between infection and incident gastric or duodenal ulcers. Information on potential risk factors, lifetime history of PUD, and serologic measurements of H pylori infection were obtained from a German cohort of 9953 adults, 50 to 74 years old at baseline (2000-2002). The incidence of ulcers was determined by questionnaires sent to study participants and general practitioners 2 and 5 years later, and was validated by medical records. A lifetime history of PUD was reported by 1030 participants, and during the follow-up period 48 had a first gastric and 22 had a first duodenal ulcer. Infection with H pylori strains that express cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) was significantly associated with a lifetime history of PUD (odds ratio, 1.75; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.50-2.04). Based on longitudinal analyses with physician-validated end points, the adjusted hazard ratios for incident gastric and duodenal ulcer disease were 2.9 (95% CI, 1.5-5.5) and 18.4 (95% CI, 4.2-79.9), respectively, among patients infected with cagA-positive strains of H pylori.","yes. H pylori infection leads to aberrant expression of AID and might be a mechanism of the accumulation of submicroscopic deletions and somatic mutations in gastric epithelial cells. AID-mediated genotoxic effects appear to occur frequently at the CDKN2b-CDKN2a locus and contribute to malignant transformation of the gastric mucosa.","yes. A low serum pepsinogen I/II ratio combined with positivity for H. pylori IgG, and a IL-1beta-511 C/C genotype may be independent risk factors for gastric cancer in Thais.","yes. Infection with a CagA-positive strain of H. pylori is associated with a clinical diagnosis of nonulcer dyspepsia. However, nonulcer dyspepsia was also strongly and independently associated with positive screens for depression or somatization disorder as well as with ethnicity. These potential sources of variance should be considered in the design of future studies evaluating nonulcer dyspepsia.","A high prevalence of Helicobacter pylori infection has been reported in Iran. Although the importance of H. pylori in the induction of peptic ulcer disease is clearly defined, only few studies have addressed its role in bleeding from peptic ulcers. We evaluated the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer bleeding. Patients with acute peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB) and those with peptic ulcer disease without bleeding ('controls') were enrolled. Upper GI endoscopy and rapid urease test were performed in both groups. Histological study for detection of H. pylori was performed in patients with active bleeding, if RUT was negative. Other variables evaluated included sex, age, smoking, previous history of bleeding, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs use, ulcer size, ulcer location, and duration of acid-peptic disease. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify independent risk factors. 161 patients with PUB and 287 control patients were enrolled. H. pylori infection was seen more frequently in patients with duodenal ulcer than gastric ulcer (88.9% vs. 60.5%, p<0.001). Univariate analysis showed that patients with PUB were more often male, older in age, used NSAID, had history of PUB in the past, had ulcer located in the stomach and not in the duodenum, and more often had large ulcer (>1 cm). Logistic regression analysis showed that H. pylori infection was protective in PUB after controlling for confounders (OR 0.41, 95% CI 0.21-0.79), when ulcer location was not entered in the model. A second model including ulcer location (to test for a residual effect) showed that H. pylori infection was not a significant risk factor in PUB (OR 0.61, 95% CI 0.30-1.24).","yes. Our results indicate that IL10 variants rs1800896, rs3024491, rs1878672, and rs3024496 are more consistently associated with the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG by inducing increased production of IL-10. Further studies are underway to elucidate the role of additional genetic variants and to investigate their impact on the occurrence of gastric cancer.","yes. Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with increased serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha. Subjects who harbour CagA positive strains have more severe mucosal damage, higher bacterial colonization, higher probability of developing duodenal ulcer and higher serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha than those infected with CagA- strains.","no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.","no. These results strongly suggest that the cagA gene will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish disease-specific H. pylori strains in the development of peptic ulcer diseases in Korean patients.","To investigate the association of cagA positivity and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity in wild-type Helicobacter pylori strains with peptic ulcer disease or chronic gastritis only. Helicobacter pylori were isolated from antral biopsies of 53 consecutive patients with chronic antral gastritis, of whom 24 had peptic ulcer disease endoscopically. The presence of cagA, a marker for the cag pathogenicity island, was determined by polymerase chain reaction with specific oligonucleotide primers, and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity by luminol enhanced chemiluminescence. The cagA gene was present in 39 of 53 (73.6%) strains, 20 of which (83.3%) were from the 24 patients with peptic ulcer disease and 19 (65.5%) from the 29 patients with chronic gastritis only. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found in 29 (54.7%) strains, 16 of which (66.7%) were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and 13 (44.8%) from those with chronic gastritis. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found more frequently in cagA+ than cagA- strains (59% v 42.9%). Whereas four of the 14 cagA- strains and eight of the 24 non-opsonic neutrophil activation negative strains were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, only two of 24 (8.3%) peptic ulcer disease strains expressed neither cagA nor non-opsonic neutrophil activation. The cagA gene and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity were co-expressed in 14 of 24 (58.3%) strains from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and in nine of 29 (31%) strains from individuals with chronic gastritis.","yes. Our study suggests a significant association between the H. pylori vacA s1,m1 genotype, cytotoxic activity, cagA, and gastric cancer. Detection of H. pylori possessing these virulence determinants may help to identify patients being at an increased risk to develop gastric cancer in our population.","Recent studies have reported an association between cytokine gene polymorphisms and GC risk. However, results are inconsistent among studies from different geographic regions and ethnic groups. Our goal was to evaluate the influence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection and host genetic factors on GC susceptibility in a population of Spanish white GC patients. DNA from 404 unrelated patients with GC and 404 sex- and age-matched healthy controls was typed for several functional polymorphisms in pro- (IL-1B, TNFA, LTA, IL-12p40) and anti-inflammatory (IL-4, IL-1RN, IL-10, TGFB1) genes by PCR, RFLP, and TaqMan assays. H. pylori infection and CagA/VacA antibody status were also determined by western blot serology. Logistic regression analysis identified H. pylori infection with cagA strains (OR 2.54, 95% CI 1.77-3.66), smoking habit (OR 1.91, 95% CI 1.25-2.93), and positive family history of GC (OR 3.67, 95% CI 2.01-6.71) as independent risk factors for GC. None of the cytokine gene polymorphisms analyzed in this study were associated with susceptibility to GC development, whether GC patients were analyzed as a group or categorized according to anatomic location or histological subtype. Some simultaneous combinations of proinflammatory genotypes reportedly associated with greater GC risk yielded no significant differences between patients and controls.","H. pylori may not be an independent factor in bleeding from peptic ulcers. The lower frequency of this infection in these patients can be described by the higher frequency of bleeding from gastric ulcers, which are less H. pylori related compared with duodenal ulcer.","yes. Although the highest H. pylori and CagA prevalence was found in children of non-Dutch ethnicities, the decreased colonisation rates were uniform across all ethnic groups, implying the importance of environmental factors in H. pylori transmission in modern cities, independent of ethnicity.","yes. A lower frequency of cytotoxic H pylori genotypes such as cagA and vacA s1m1 and a higher frequency of non cytotoxic genotypes, was observed in patients with NAG, when compared to patients with GC or PU. These results suggest that even in Colombia, vacA and cagA could be used as markers of increased virulence.","yes. Topographic colonization of H pylori and the virulence genes harboured by these isolates have no direct bearing to the clinical state of the patients. In multi-ethnic Singapore, the stomach of each patient is colonized by a predominant strain of H pylori, irrespective of the clinical diagnosis.","Several genes of Helicobacter pylori, such as vacA, cagA, iceA and babA, have been reported to significantly increase the risk of gastrointestinal diseases. The aim of this study was to study the relationship between H. pylori virulence factors and clinical outcomes and identify the independent markers of peptic ulcer disease in Iraq. DNA was extracted from specimens taken from 154 unselected H. Pylori positive Iraqi patients. Genotyping was performed by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), using specific primers for cagA, vacA (s, m), iceA and babA2 genes. A total of 56 (82%) peptic ulcer disease (PUD) patients carried cagA+ strains, significantly more than the 56 (65%) non-ulcer disease (NUD) patients (p=0.017). The difference in the prevalence of babA2 positivity was significant between patients with NUD (33.7%) and PUD (58.8%) (p=0.002). In addition, babA2 was associated as an independent factor, with PUD (p=0.005; odds ratio (OR)=0.4; confidence interval (CI)=0.18-0.68) followed by cagA (p=0.05; OR=0.4; CI=0.18-0.85). Forty-five isolates (29%) were typed as 'triple positive' strains, and their presence was significantly associated with PUD (p=0.001).","yes. In this preliminary data, the association with MDR1 C3435T polymorphism and risk for developing H. pylori-related gastric cancer and peptic ulcer in Japanese was low. P-glycoprotein might not be involved in the carcinogenesis of H. pylori-related gastric cancer.","The infection with cagA-positive Helicobacter pylori strains is reported to be associated with peptic ulcer disease in developed countries, but it is controversial in Asia. To investigate the relationship between the virulence factors of H. pylori and peptic ulcer disease in Japan, we compared these between ulcer and nonulcer patients. Seventy-four strains of clinically isolated H. pylori obtained from 22 gastric ulcer (GU), 23 duodenal ulcer (DU), and 29 chronic gastritis (CG) patients were studied. The presence of vacA and cagA gene was examined by polymerase chain reaction method using two different primer sets. We evaluated the proliferation-inhibiting and lethal cytotoxicity of culture supernatants using the alamarBlue assay. The vacA gene was identified in all strains by the original primers. S1 strains were found in 90.9% (20/22) from GU, 95.7% (22/23) from DU, and 96.6% (28/29) from CG patients. The prevalence of cagA gene determined by the first, and second primers was 90.9% (20/22), 90.9% (20/22) in strains from GU, 87.0% (20/23), 91.3% (21/23) from DU, and 86.2% (25/29), 89.7% (26/29) from CG patients, respectively. The supernatant showed cytolethal effect in 95.5% (21/22) of strains from GU, in 100% (23/23) from DU, and in 93.1% (27/29) from CG patients. There was no significant difference in the prevalence of the virulence factors between H. pylori strains isolated from patients with peptic ulcers and those with chronic gastritis.","yes. TNF-alpha-1031 and -863 promoter SNP should be novel host factors to determine the gastric inflammation and risk of peptic ulceration upon H. pylori infection.","The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and symptoms remains controversial. We aimed to determine if an association exists between unexplained dyspepsia (pain or discomfort centered in the upper part of the abdomen) and H pylori. A validated questionnaire was completed by 592 healthy blood donors. Helicobacter pylori serologic values (via enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), blood group status, and Rh status were measured; 4.9% of subjects who had a history of peptic ulcer disease were excluded from the analyses. The prevalence of dyspepsia and no ulcer history was 11% (95% confidence interval [CI], 8.6%-13.8%); 15.4% of subjects with dyspepsia had H pylori while 14.6% of subjects without dyspepsia were infected (P=.90). The mean dyspepsia impact scores (combining frequency and severity) in those with and without H pylori were 4.7 and 5.4, respectively (P=.20). The median H pylori optical density values in dyspepsia vs no dyspepsia were not significantly different (P=.30). Independent risk factors for dyspepsia were the use of aspirin (odds ratio [OR], 2.2; 95% CI, 1.3-3.7) and smoking (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.6) but not age, sex, marital status, educational level, income, or the use of alcohol, coffee, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Independent risk factors for H pylori were increasing age (OR, 1.8 per decade; 95% CI, 1.5-2.3), male sex (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.4), and net family income (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-3.3).","yes. These results suggest that more than half of the genes induced by cagPAI-positive H pylori depend on NF-kappaB and ERK signaling activation, and these pathways may play a role in the gene expression induced by host-bacterial interaction which may associate with H pylori-related gastro-duodenal diseases.","This study tested whether host genotypes of the tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) promoter single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) could determine clinical and histological outcomes after Helicobacter pylori infection. A total of 524 dyspeptic patients, 424 with and 100 without H. pylori infection, were checked for TNF-alpha promoter SNP over the locus on -1031(T/C), -863(C/A), -857(C/T), -806(C/T), and -308(G/A) by sequence-specific oligonucleotide probe. Each patient received panendoscopy to take gastric biopsy to detect H. pylori infection and its related histology using the updated Sydney's system. Gastric TNF-alpha expressions were stained by immunohistochemistry. In H. pylori-infected patients, -1031C or -863A carriers of TNF-alpha promoter had more severe gastric neutrophil infiltration and TNF-alpha gastric staining than individuals with -1031TT or -863CC genotype, respectively (p<0.05). The multivariate logistic regression verified both -1031C and -863A carriers were independent risk factors to have duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcer without IM in the H. pylori-infected hosts (p<0.05). As compared to -863CC and -1031TT genotype combinations, the ulcer risk after H. pylori infection was 2.46 (95% CI: 1.32-4.59, pG polymorphism is a risk factor for noncardia gastric carcinoma and its precursors. The findings underscore the role of the host innate immune response in outcome of H pylori infection.\",\n \"yes. This study indicated that the up-regulation of miR-155 and miR-146b decreases H. pylori (cagA+)-introduced IL6 overexpression, which might weaken the cleanup of H. pylori (cagA+) and contributes to ulcer.\",\n \"yes. Genetic variations in the IL-1β and IL-1RN genes influence disease progression in gastric cancer. Screening for these genetic variations might help to stratify therapies for gastric cancer patients in the future.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori was found to increase the transcription of RANTES as a potent chemoattractant cytokine in mucosal inflammation. The aim of this study was to test if a functional promotor polymorphism in the RANTES gene leading to a higher transcriptional activity influences the severity of the mucosal damage in H. pylori infected individuals. A single nucleotide polymorphism, C-471T, was genotyped by TaqMan technology in a sample of 344 consecutive patients with H. pylori infection undergoing upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and 370 blood donors. Association with the development of erosions and stomach or duodenum ulcers as well as atrophic gastritis were tested. None of the genotypes were associated with the severity of mucosal damage in stomach or duodenum (P > 0.05).\",\n \"yes. Our findings provide evidence that GGT is a pathogenic factor associated with H pylori-induced peptic ulcer disease.\",\n \"yes. The IL-1β -581C/T and IL-1β -1061C/T genotypes may be associated with low-dose aspirin-induced peptic ulcers in a Korean ethnic group.\",\n \"yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.\",\n \"no. Helicobacter pylori infection was not significantly more prevalent in polytraumatized patients with hemorrhage when compared with control group. Our data suggest that the infection with Helicobacter pylori does not play an important role in bleeding, indicating no causative role for it in upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage of polytraumatized patients. The incidence of bleeding is low and bleeding develops usually later, in the meantime is the Helicobacter pylori infection eradicated with the antibiotics used for another purpose.\",\n \"yes. Ethnic Malays is genetically susceptible to H. pylori infection and is possibly mediated through a genetic variation in the DCC gene.\",\n \"To investigate whether the sequential therapy composed of high dose omeprazole and high dose amoxicillin in the first step was effective in eradication of H. pylori and whether there was a relation between effectiveness of the therapy and CYP2C19 gene polymorphism. 134 dyspeptic patients with H. pylori were administered a modified sequential therapy composed of omeprazole 40 mg t.i.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg t.i.d, for the first five days followed by omeprazole 20 mg b.d., metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. and tetracycline 500 mg t.i.d, for the next five days. CYP2C19 genotype status was determined in patients. Hp eradication status was investigated by C14 UNT four weeks after treatment. The eradication rates were 64.9% in ITT and 74.3% in PP analysis. In subgroup analyses, eradication rates were 73.8% and 60.8% (p: 0.145) in ITT for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively and 86.1% and 69.1% (p: 0.052) in PP analysis for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively. The difference was not significant. As for the CYP2C19 gene status, 81.5% of the patients had HoEM and 17.3% of the patients had HeEM, and eradication rates were 72% and 75% in ITT analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.803) and 73.9% and 85.7% in PP analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.347). There was not a significant difference in H. pylori eradication rates between the two groups.\",\n \"yes. Gastric cancer in patients younger than 40 years is closely associated with H. pylori infection, but not with genetic characteristics. Eradication therapy for H. pylori and endoscopic examination of H. pylori-positive young adults may be anticipated to be adopted as a strategy for the prevention and/or early detection of cancer.\",\n \"yes. In addition to epigenetic changes in the RUNX3 proximal promoter, genetic changes in the distal promoter may be associated with susceptibility to intestinal-type gastric cancer by increasing promoter activity. Functionally, 2 RUNX3 isoforms may contribute differentially to intestinal-type gastric cancer susceptibility, at least in part through regulating NF-κB activity and IL1B expression.\",\n \"Polymorphism in interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta) is associated with intragastric pH levels in Helicobacter pylori-positive subjects. Intragastric pH levels affect the activity of antibiotics against H. pylori in the stomach. The aim of this study was to investigate whether IL-1beta polymorphism is associated with eradication rates of H. pylori by triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. Three hundred thirty-six patients infected with H. pylori completed treatment with omeprazole, 20 mg, or lansoprazole, 30 mg twice daily; clarithromycin, 200 mg 3 times daily; and amoxicillin, 500 mg 3 times daily, for 1 week. IL-1beta-511 and CYP2C19 genotypes of patients and sensitivity of H. pylori to clarithromycin and amoxicillin were determined. Logistic regression analysis showed that the IL-1beta-511 polymorphism, as well as CYP2C19 genotype of patients and clarithromycin-resistance of H. pylori, was associated with successful eradication. Eradication rates for H. pylori were 77.3% (75 of 97; 95% confidence interval, 67.5-84.6), 89.6% (147 of 164; 95% confidence interval, 83.9-93.1), and 94.7% (95% confidence interval, 86.9-98.5) in patients with the C/C, C/T, and T/T genotypes of IL-1beta-511, respectively (P = 0.0014).\",\n \"yes. The sudden rise of peptic ulcer disease during the 19th century and the 10-20-yr time lag between gastric and duodenal ulcer are difficult to explain based on changing infection rates with Helicobacterpylori alone. The similarity between the time trends of duodenal ulcer and ulcerative colitis suggests the influence of one or more shared risk factors.\",\n \"yes. All clinical H. pylori isolates from different gastric diseases in our Taiwanese patients were positive for the PAI, but only 36% of these isolates carried an IS605 insertion. The selected genes in the PAI were not correlated with disease outcome. The determination of cagA prevalence is based on the selection of suitable primers. In contrast, bacterial factors such as the presence of iceAl could be related to severity of gastric inflammation and increase in ulcer size in H. pylori-infected patients.\",\n \"Almost all Helicobacter pylori infected person develop gastritis and severe gastritis is supposed to be the denominator of peptic ulcer diseases, which may lead to gastric cancer. However, it is still an enigma why few strains are associated with ulcer formation, while others are not related with any disease outcome. Although a number of putative virulence factors have been reported for H. pylori, there are contradictory results regarding their connotation with diseases. Recently, there has been a significant attention in strain-specific genes outside the cag pathogenicity island, especially genes within plasticity regions. Studies demonstrated that certain genes in this region may play important roles in the pathogenesis of H. pylori-associated diseases. The aim of this study was to assess the role of selected genes (jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949) in the plasticity region in relation to risk of H. pylori-related diseases in Indian population. A total of 113 H. pylori strains isolated from duodenal ulcer (DU) (n = 61) and non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) subjects (n = 52) were screened by PCR and Dot-Blot to determine the presence of these genes. The comparative study of IL-8 production and apoptosis were also done by co-culturing the AGS cells with H. pylori strains of different genotype. PCR and Dot-Blot results indicated that the prevalence rates of jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 in the H. pylori strains were 9.8, 47.5, 50.8, 40.9 % and 17.3, 28.8, 26.9, 19.2 % isolated from DU and NUD, respectively. IL-8 production and apoptotic cell death were significantly higher in H. pylori strains containing jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 than the strains lacking those genes. Results indicated that the prevalence of jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 are associated with increased risk of severe diseases in India.\",\n \"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection significantly and independently contributed to promoting insulin resistance in a large asymptomatic population.\",\n \"Pro-inflammatory polymorphisms within the genes interleukin (IL)-1B and IL-1RN are associated with risk for gastric carcinoma (GC) in Helicobacter pylori-infected individuals. We aimed to determine the association between variation of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha gene and the risk for chronic atrophic gastritis (CAG) and GC. We also investigated the extent to which the combined effect of proinflammatory genetic polymorphisms (IL-1B, IL-1RN, and TNF-alpha), and the combined effect of TNF-alpha and bacterial genotypes each influence such a risk. In a case-control study including 306 controls, 221 individuals with chronic gastritis, and 287 GC patients, the TNF-alpha-308 and IL-1B-511 bi-allelic polymorphisms, the IL-1RN variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), and the H. pylori genes vacA (s and m regions) and cagA were genotyped. We found that carriers of the TNF-alpha-308*A allele are at increased risk for GC development with an odds ratio (OR) of 1.9 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.3-2.7). For both CAG and GC, the odds of developing disease increased with the number of high-risk genotypes. Individuals carrying high-risk genotypes at the 3 loci are at increased risk for CAG and GC with an OR of 5.8 (95% CI, 1.1-31.0) and 9.7 (95% CI, 2.6-36.0), respectively. The risk for GC was not affected significantly by the combination of bacterial and TNF-alpha-308 genotypes.\",\n \"yes. Our data suggest that COMT gene 158Met polymorphism is associate with a reduced risk of developing more severe intestinal metaplasia in H. pylori infected older subjects.\",\n \"yes. The present meta-analysis results suggest that the LTA rs909253 GA genotype is a possible risk factor for developing gastric cancer in the Asian population, especially those with H. pylori infection.\",\n \"yes. Our results suggest the importance of the local immune response in the development of H. pylori related diseases. Also some interesting points for further study of the association between immune response against H. pylori and the development of duodenal ulcer disease were indicated.\",\n \"yes. Taiwanese H pylori isolates are 100% babA2 genopositive. Gastric Le(b) as well as Le(x) intensity may be major determinants of H pylori density. While lacking gastric Le(b) expression, Le(x) and Le(a) were closely related to H pylori colonisation.\",\n \"yes. The outcome of H. pylori treatment with omeprazole and amoxicillin may depend on several factors, such as age, ethnic origin, and a pronounced acid suppression. However, the only factor of independent importance in this study was prolonged and profound acid inhibition.\",\n \"yes. A direct gastric mutagenic effect due to H. pylori infection in the Big Blue transgenic mouse model has been shown 6 months after inoculation. This genotoxicity can be attributable to oxidative DNA damage involving the inflammatory host response.\",\n \"yes. 1) Helicobacter pylori infection seems to be a protective factor for the presence of endoscopic esophagitis. 2) When esophagitis is present, the degree of damage appears to be independent of the H. pylori infection.\",\n \"yes. cagA-positive H. pylori is highly prevalent in southern Mexico, and all CagA variants were of the western type. The cagA alleles that code for EPIYA-ABCC motif patterns are associated with peptic ulcers and gastric cancer.\",\n \"Our results disclose a clear inverse association between a pro-inflammatory genetic profile and H. pylori seropositivity among cases with CAG, supporting suggestions of enhanced elimination of H. pylori during the development of the disease.\",\n \"cagA status and the vacA genotyping was successful with tissue samples taken directly from gastric and duodenal biopsies. Discrepancies between isolate and biopsy strain types stress the need for caution when interpreting in vitro strain types and suggest that direct PCR of biopsies is the preferred typing technique. The cagA status and the s1 vacA allele are unreliable as single markers in determining the risk of developing peptic ulcer disease.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori infection is now accepted as the most common cause of chronic active gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. The etiologies of many infectious diseases have been attributed to specific or clonal strains of bacterial pathogens. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification of DNA between repetitive DNA sequences, REP elements (REP-PCR), has been utilized to generate DNA fingerprints to examine similarity among strains within a bacterial species. Genomic DNA from H. pylori isolates obtained from 70 individuals (39 duodenal ulcers and 31 simple gastritis) was PCR-amplified using consensus probes to repetitive DNA elements. The H. pylori DNA fingerprints were analyzed for similarity and correlated with disease presentation using the NTSYS-pc computer program. Each H. pylori strain had a distinct DNA fingerprint except for two pairs. Single-colony DNA fingerprints of H. pylori from the same patient were identical, suggesting that each patient harbors a single strain. Computer-assisted cluster analysis of the REP-PCR DNA fingerprints showed two large clusters of isolates, one associated with simple gastritis and the other with duodenal ulcer disease.\",\n \"yes. H. pylori infection induces IL-18 in the gastric mucosa. H. pylori-infected patients with IL18 -607C/C and -137G/G have higher IL-18 levels, which causes severe gastric inflammation. IL18 genotype might be a marker for predicting the effects of eradication therapy.\",\n \"We examined referrals to oesophagogastroduodenoscopy and the impact of demographic and clinical variables to predict major findings (peptic ulcer, cancer) on oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. We collected data on 3669 consecutive patients referred for oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. Dyspeptic and reflux symptoms constituted 80% of oesophagogastroduodenoscopy referrals. A major finding was observed in 419 patients (11.4%). The mean age of cancer patients was 72.7 years (95% confidence interval (CI) 70.0-76.5 years) and that of peptic ulcer patients 62.0 years (95% CI 60.5-63.5 years). Independent risk factors for a major finding were age>50 years (odds ratio (OR) 1.62, 95% CI 1.24-2.10), male sex (OR 1.38, 95% CI 1.11-1.72), ulcer-type pain (OR 2.33, 95% CI 1.80-3.02), weight loss (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.14-2.53), anaemia (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.38-2.40), bleeding symptoms (OR 3.27, 95% CI 2.26-4.75) and Helicobacter pylori (OR 2.49, 95% CI 2.00-3.11), whereas reflux symptoms were protective (OR 0.73, 95% CI 0.53-1.00). The area under receiver operating characteristic curve of age over 50 years with alarm symptoms to predict major finding was 0.68 (95% CI 0.65-0.71), which positive H. pylori status increased to 0.71 (95% CI 0.69-0.74). Of the major findings, 87.2% were detected in patients with risk factors. Major findings were detected in 15.1% patients with and 8.1% (p<0.001) without alarm symptoms.\",\n \"no. Even though H. pylori itself induces expression of RANTES, at the transcriptional level, genetic variations leading to higher transcriptional activity do not modify the degree of inflammation.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori colonisation rates in childhood have declined in Western populations, but it is unknown whether this trend is similar in children of non-Western ethnic backgrounds, born in a Western country. We aimed to identify H. pylori status in children, and determine mother-to-child transmission and risk factors for colonisation. Antibodies against H. pylori and cytotoxin-associated gene A (CagA) were measured in children participating in a population-based prospective cohort study in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. Information on demographics and characteristics was collected using questionnaires. We analysed the serum of 4467 children (mean age 6.2 years±0.4 SD) and compared the results with the H. pylori status of their mothers (available for 3185 children). Overall, 438 (10%) children were H. pylori-positive, of whom 142 (32%) were CagA-positive. Independent risk factors for colonisation were: maternal H. pylori positivity (OR 2.12; 95% CI 1.62 to 2.77), non-Dutch ethnicity (OR 2.05; 95% CI 1.54 to 2.73), female gender (OR 1.47; 95% CI 1.20 to 1.80) and lower maternal education level (OR 1.38; 95% CI 1.06 to 1.79). Comparing mothers and children, we found an intergenerational decrease of 76% and 77% for Hp(+)CagA(-) and Hp(+)CagA(+)-strains, respectively, consistent across all nine ethnic groups studied. Male gender, higher maternal educational level and no older siblings, were independently associated with absence of H. pylori.\",\n \"In greater Rochester, NY, where the majority of our patients with EGD were whites, the prevalence of H. pylori among ulcer patients was lower compared to other regions, particularly among whites. This suggests that an additional causative factor or factors for peptic ulcers may be present. Hence, empirical antibiotic therapy of ulcer patients without confirming the presence of H. pylori may not be justified.\",\n \"yes. H. felis infection leads to increased apoptosis and altered cellular differentiation in the C57BL/6 mouse, a strain that lacks gastric sPLA2 expression. Because sPLA2 has been identified recently as the MOM1 (modifier of MIN) locus that influences polyp formation in the colon, these studies suggest that sPLA2 may also influence the gastric epithelial response to Helicobacter infection.\",\n \"Polymorphisms of genes encoding cytokines could be potential biomarkers to predict risk of gastric cancer (GC). Here, we investigated the association between the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism in its promoter region and GC risk. In this case-control study of 215 GC cases and 518 non-cancer controls, the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism was genotyped by polymerase chain reaction-restriction fragment length polymorphism (PCR-RFLP). Individuals with the TC or CC genotype were associated with a significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.710, 95%CI: 0.504-0.999, P=0.049) compared with TT wild-type carriers. Ther C allele was also associated with significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.715, 95%CI: 0.536- 0.954, P=0.023) compared with the T allele. In the stratification analysis, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased GC risk in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases. However, no significant interaction was observed for TC or CC genotypes with H. pylori infection. On stratification with the Lauren classification, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased risk of diffuse- type GC (OR=0.497, 95%CI: 0.266-0.925, P=0.027), also in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases.\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that Hp infection of gastric cancer cells alters 11p15 mucin gene transcription and that MUC5AC downregulation is mediated by urease virulence factor.\",\n \"yes. This study indicates that factors related to bleeding peptic ulcers in elderly patients have shifted from Helicobacter pylori infection to comorbidities associated with low-dose aspirin, suggesting a close relationship between low-dose aspirin therapy and comorbidities in elderly patients with peptic ulcers.\",\n \"yes. The high prevalence of the cagA gene in asymptomatic gastritis suggests that it will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish more virulent or disease-specific H. pylori strains. The genetic heterogeneity among H. pylori strains makes PCR an unwise choice as the single method to determine prevalence of a putative virulence factor. In evaluation of the prevalence of a gene or genetic factor in a population of H. pylori, hybridization with extended probes might be important to ensure that the results are representative of the organism's genotype.\",\n \"Polymorphism in the gene of pepsinogen-II (PG-II) and its serum level are effective biomarkers for terminal differentiation of gastric mucosa into gastritis, intestinal metaplasia (IM), and gastric cancer (GC) in relationship to Helicobacter pylori infection. Genotyping of the PG-II 100 bp insertion/deletion (ins/del) polymorphism was performed in patients with GC (n = 192) and age- and gender-matched H. pylori-associated dyspepsia (n = 180) and healthy subjects (HS, n = 240) by PCR. IgG anti-H. pylori (in all subjects) and serum PG-II levels were estimated in 145 patients each with GC and dyspepsia and in 65 healthy controls (HC) using ELISA (Biohit Oyj, Finland). Five alleles were amplified by PCR: allele 5 (510 bp), allele 4 (480 bp), allele 3 (450 bp), allele 2 (400 bp), and allele 1 (shorter allele, 310 bp). Allele 1 carriage was infrequent, and serum PG-II level was higher among patients with GC than in HC [OR 0.43 (95 % CI, 0.29-0.85), p < 0.001 and mean ± SD; 17.53 ± 12.60 vs. 12.77 ± 7.53 µg/l, p = 0.005, respectively], particularly in the presence of H. pylori [OR 0.42 (0.25-0.71), p = 0.001 and 18.78 ± 12.63 vs. 13.97 ± 8.14, p = 0.034]. However, allele 1 carriage and PG-II levels were comparable among patients with GC and dyspepsia. Patients with IM also carried allele 1 infrequently and had higher levels of PG-II than those without [OR 0.5 (0.29-0.85), p = 0.011 and 20.07 ± 14.22 vs. 16.61 ± 12.08, p = 0.048].\",\n \"yes. The present study demonstrates that in Helicobacter pylori-infected human gastric mucosa, cag+ infection is associated with enhanced Interleukin-8 expression, higher levels of active gastritis and bacterial density, and presence of duodenal ulcer.\",\n \"Infection with Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease (PUD), but there are limited longitudinal data on the associations between infection and incident gastric or duodenal ulcers. Information on potential risk factors, lifetime history of PUD, and serologic measurements of H pylori infection were obtained from a German cohort of 9953 adults, 50 to 74 years old at baseline (2000-2002). The incidence of ulcers was determined by questionnaires sent to study participants and general practitioners 2 and 5 years later, and was validated by medical records. A lifetime history of PUD was reported by 1030 participants, and during the follow-up period 48 had a first gastric and 22 had a first duodenal ulcer. Infection with H pylori strains that express cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) was significantly associated with a lifetime history of PUD (odds ratio, 1.75; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.50-2.04). Based on longitudinal analyses with physician-validated end points, the adjusted hazard ratios for incident gastric and duodenal ulcer disease were 2.9 (95% CI, 1.5-5.5) and 18.4 (95% CI, 4.2-79.9), respectively, among patients infected with cagA-positive strains of H pylori.\",\n \"yes. H pylori infection leads to aberrant expression of AID and might be a mechanism of the accumulation of submicroscopic deletions and somatic mutations in gastric epithelial cells. AID-mediated genotoxic effects appear to occur frequently at the CDKN2b-CDKN2a locus and contribute to malignant transformation of the gastric mucosa.\",\n \"yes. A low serum pepsinogen I/II ratio combined with positivity for H. pylori IgG, and a IL-1beta-511 C/C genotype may be independent risk factors for gastric cancer in Thais.\",\n \"yes. Infection with a CagA-positive strain of H. pylori is associated with a clinical diagnosis of nonulcer dyspepsia. However, nonulcer dyspepsia was also strongly and independently associated with positive screens for depression or somatization disorder as well as with ethnicity. These potential sources of variance should be considered in the design of future studies evaluating nonulcer dyspepsia.\",\n \"A high prevalence of Helicobacter pylori infection has been reported in Iran. Although the importance of H. pylori in the induction of peptic ulcer disease is clearly defined, only few studies have addressed its role in bleeding from peptic ulcers. We evaluated the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer bleeding. Patients with acute peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB) and those with peptic ulcer disease without bleeding ('controls') were enrolled. Upper GI endoscopy and rapid urease test were performed in both groups. Histological study for detection of H. pylori was performed in patients with active bleeding, if RUT was negative. Other variables evaluated included sex, age, smoking, previous history of bleeding, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs use, ulcer size, ulcer location, and duration of acid-peptic disease. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify independent risk factors. 161 patients with PUB and 287 control patients were enrolled. H. pylori infection was seen more frequently in patients with duodenal ulcer than gastric ulcer (88.9% vs. 60.5%, p<0.001). Univariate analysis showed that patients with PUB were more often male, older in age, used NSAID, had history of PUB in the past, had ulcer located in the stomach and not in the duodenum, and more often had large ulcer (>1 cm). Logistic regression analysis showed that H. pylori infection was protective in PUB after controlling for confounders (OR 0.41, 95% CI 0.21-0.79), when ulcer location was not entered in the model. A second model including ulcer location (to test for a residual effect) showed that H. pylori infection was not a significant risk factor in PUB (OR 0.61, 95% CI 0.30-1.24).\",\n \"yes. Our results indicate that IL10 variants rs1800896, rs3024491, rs1878672, and rs3024496 are more consistently associated with the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG by inducing increased production of IL-10. Further studies are underway to elucidate the role of additional genetic variants and to investigate their impact on the occurrence of gastric cancer.\",\n \"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with increased serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha. Subjects who harbour CagA positive strains have more severe mucosal damage, higher bacterial colonization, higher probability of developing duodenal ulcer and higher serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha than those infected with CagA- strains.\",\n \"no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.\",\n \"no. These results strongly suggest that the cagA gene will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish disease-specific H. pylori strains in the development of peptic ulcer diseases in Korean patients.\",\n \"To investigate the association of cagA positivity and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity in wild-type Helicobacter pylori strains with peptic ulcer disease or chronic gastritis only. Helicobacter pylori were isolated from antral biopsies of 53 consecutive patients with chronic antral gastritis, of whom 24 had peptic ulcer disease endoscopically. The presence of cagA, a marker for the cag pathogenicity island, was determined by polymerase chain reaction with specific oligonucleotide primers, and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity by luminol enhanced chemiluminescence. The cagA gene was present in 39 of 53 (73.6%) strains, 20 of which (83.3%) were from the 24 patients with peptic ulcer disease and 19 (65.5%) from the 29 patients with chronic gastritis only. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found in 29 (54.7%) strains, 16 of which (66.7%) were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and 13 (44.8%) from those with chronic gastritis. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found more frequently in cagA+ than cagA- strains (59% v 42.9%). Whereas four of the 14 cagA- strains and eight of the 24 non-opsonic neutrophil activation negative strains were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, only two of 24 (8.3%) peptic ulcer disease strains expressed neither cagA nor non-opsonic neutrophil activation. The cagA gene and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity were co-expressed in 14 of 24 (58.3%) strains from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and in nine of 29 (31%) strains from individuals with chronic gastritis.\",\n \"yes. Our study suggests a significant association between the H. pylori vacA s1,m1 genotype, cytotoxic activity, cagA, and gastric cancer. Detection of H. pylori possessing these virulence determinants may help to identify patients being at an increased risk to develop gastric cancer in our population.\",\n \"Recent studies have reported an association between cytokine gene polymorphisms and GC risk. However, results are inconsistent among studies from different geographic regions and ethnic groups. Our goal was to evaluate the influence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection and host genetic factors on GC susceptibility in a population of Spanish white GC patients. DNA from 404 unrelated patients with GC and 404 sex- and age-matched healthy controls was typed for several functional polymorphisms in pro- (IL-1B, TNFA, LTA, IL-12p40) and anti-inflammatory (IL-4, IL-1RN, IL-10, TGFB1) genes by PCR, RFLP, and TaqMan assays. H. pylori infection and CagA/VacA antibody status were also determined by western blot serology. Logistic regression analysis identified H. pylori infection with cagA strains (OR 2.54, 95% CI 1.77-3.66), smoking habit (OR 1.91, 95% CI 1.25-2.93), and positive family history of GC (OR 3.67, 95% CI 2.01-6.71) as independent risk factors for GC. None of the cytokine gene polymorphisms analyzed in this study were associated with susceptibility to GC development, whether GC patients were analyzed as a group or categorized according to anatomic location or histological subtype. Some simultaneous combinations of proinflammatory genotypes reportedly associated with greater GC risk yielded no significant differences between patients and controls.\",\n \"H. pylori may not be an independent factor in bleeding from peptic ulcers. The lower frequency of this infection in these patients can be described by the higher frequency of bleeding from gastric ulcers, which are less H. pylori related compared with duodenal ulcer.\",\n \"yes. Although the highest H. pylori and CagA prevalence was found in children of non-Dutch ethnicities, the decreased colonisation rates were uniform across all ethnic groups, implying the importance of environmental factors in H. pylori transmission in modern cities, independent of ethnicity.\",\n \"yes. A lower frequency of cytotoxic H pylori genotypes such as cagA and vacA s1m1 and a higher frequency of non cytotoxic genotypes, was observed in patients with NAG, when compared to patients with GC or PU. These results suggest that even in Colombia, vacA and cagA could be used as markers of increased virulence.\",\n \"yes. Topographic colonization of H pylori and the virulence genes harboured by these isolates have no direct bearing to the clinical state of the patients. In multi-ethnic Singapore, the stomach of each patient is colonized by a predominant strain of H pylori, irrespective of the clinical diagnosis.\",\n \"Several genes of Helicobacter pylori, such as vacA, cagA, iceA and babA, have been reported to significantly increase the risk of gastrointestinal diseases. The aim of this study was to study the relationship between H. pylori virulence factors and clinical outcomes and identify the independent markers of peptic ulcer disease in Iraq. DNA was extracted from specimens taken from 154 unselected H. Pylori positive Iraqi patients. Genotyping was performed by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), using specific primers for cagA, vacA (s, m), iceA and babA2 genes. A total of 56 (82%) peptic ulcer disease (PUD) patients carried cagA+ strains, significantly more than the 56 (65%) non-ulcer disease (NUD) patients (p=0.017). The difference in the prevalence of babA2 positivity was significant between patients with NUD (33.7%) and PUD (58.8%) (p=0.002). In addition, babA2 was associated as an independent factor, with PUD (p=0.005; odds ratio (OR)=0.4; confidence interval (CI)=0.18-0.68) followed by cagA (p=0.05; OR=0.4; CI=0.18-0.85). Forty-five isolates (29%) were typed as 'triple positive' strains, and their presence was significantly associated with PUD (p=0.001).\",\n \"yes. In this preliminary data, the association with MDR1 C3435T polymorphism and risk for developing H. pylori-related gastric cancer and peptic ulcer in Japanese was low. P-glycoprotein might not be involved in the carcinogenesis of H. pylori-related gastric cancer.\",\n \"The infection with cagA-positive Helicobacter pylori strains is reported to be associated with peptic ulcer disease in developed countries, but it is controversial in Asia. To investigate the relationship between the virulence factors of H. pylori and peptic ulcer disease in Japan, we compared these between ulcer and nonulcer patients. Seventy-four strains of clinically isolated H. pylori obtained from 22 gastric ulcer (GU), 23 duodenal ulcer (DU), and 29 chronic gastritis (CG) patients were studied. The presence of vacA and cagA gene was examined by polymerase chain reaction method using two different primer sets. We evaluated the proliferation-inhibiting and lethal cytotoxicity of culture supernatants using the alamarBlue assay. The vacA gene was identified in all strains by the original primers. S1 strains were found in 90.9% (20/22) from GU, 95.7% (22/23) from DU, and 96.6% (28/29) from CG patients. The prevalence of cagA gene determined by the first, and second primers was 90.9% (20/22), 90.9% (20/22) in strains from GU, 87.0% (20/23), 91.3% (21/23) from DU, and 86.2% (25/29), 89.7% (26/29) from CG patients, respectively. The supernatant showed cytolethal effect in 95.5% (21/22) of strains from GU, in 100% (23/23) from DU, and in 93.1% (27/29) from CG patients. There was no significant difference in the prevalence of the virulence factors between H. pylori strains isolated from patients with peptic ulcers and those with chronic gastritis.\",\n \"yes. TNF-alpha-1031 and -863 promoter SNP should be novel host factors to determine the gastric inflammation and risk of peptic ulceration upon H. pylori infection.\",\n \"The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and symptoms remains controversial. We aimed to determine if an association exists between unexplained dyspepsia (pain or discomfort centered in the upper part of the abdomen) and H pylori. A validated questionnaire was completed by 592 healthy blood donors. Helicobacter pylori serologic values (via enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), blood group status, and Rh status were measured; 4.9% of subjects who had a history of peptic ulcer disease were excluded from the analyses. The prevalence of dyspepsia and no ulcer history was 11% (95% confidence interval [CI], 8.6%-13.8%); 15.4% of subjects with dyspepsia had H pylori while 14.6% of subjects without dyspepsia were infected (P=.90). The mean dyspepsia impact scores (combining frequency and severity) in those with and without H pylori were 4.7 and 5.4, respectively (P=.20). The median H pylori optical density values in dyspepsia vs no dyspepsia were not significantly different (P=.30). Independent risk factors for dyspepsia were the use of aspirin (odds ratio [OR], 2.2; 95% CI, 1.3-3.7) and smoking (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.6) but not age, sex, marital status, educational level, income, or the use of alcohol, coffee, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Independent risk factors for H pylori were increasing age (OR, 1.8 per decade; 95% CI, 1.5-2.3), male sex (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.4), and net family income (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-3.3).\",\n \"yes. These results suggest that more than half of the genes induced by cagPAI-positive H pylori depend on NF-kappaB and ERK signaling activation, and these pathways may play a role in the gene expression induced by host-bacterial interaction which may associate with H pylori-related gastro-duodenal diseases.\",\n \"This study tested whether host genotypes of the tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) promoter single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) could determine clinical and histological outcomes after Helicobacter pylori infection. A total of 524 dyspeptic patients, 424 with and 100 without H. pylori infection, were checked for TNF-alpha promoter SNP over the locus on -1031(T/C), -863(C/A), -857(C/T), -806(C/T), and -308(G/A) by sequence-specific oligonucleotide probe. Each patient received panendoscopy to take gastric biopsy to detect H. pylori infection and its related histology using the updated Sydney's system. Gastric TNF-alpha expressions were stained by immunohistochemistry. In H. pylori-infected patients, -1031C or -863A carriers of TNF-alpha promoter had more severe gastric neutrophil infiltration and TNF-alpha gastric staining than individuals with -1031TT or -863CC genotype, respectively (p<0.05). The multivariate logistic regression verified both -1031C and -863A carriers were independent risk factors to have duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcer without IM in the H. pylori-infected hosts (p<0.05). As compared to -863CC and -1031TT genotype combinations, the ulcer risk after H. pylori infection was 2.46 (95% CI: 1.32-4.59, p0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.","BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly."],"string":"[\n \"Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer (DU) relapse, but it remains uncertain whether eradication of H. pylori alone heals duodenal ulceration.AIM: To test the hypothesis that eradication of H. pylori infection is accompanied by healing of duodenal ulcer. A total of 115 consecutive patients with endoscopically confirmed H. pylori-infected duodenal ulcer were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group BTC patients received a 1-week course of colloidal bismuth subcitrate 220 mg b.d., tinidazole 500 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. Group OBTC patients received omeprazole 20 mg daily for 4 weeks with the BTC regimen during the first week. Endoscopy with antral biopsies and 13C-urea breath test (UBT) were performed before and 4 weeks after completion of the 7-day triple or quadruple therapy. Eight patients dropped out (four in BTC and four in OBTC). Duodenal ulcer healing rates on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 86% (95% CI: 77-95%) and 90% (95% CI: 82-98%), respectively. The eradication rates of H. pylori on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 88% (95% CI: 79-96%) and 91% (95% CI: 84-99%), respectively. There were no statistically significant differences in ulcer healing rates and eradication rates between these two groups (P>0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.\",\n \"BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Helicobacter pylori eradication decreases ulcer recurrence and should prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. By meta-analysis, to compare treatment of H. pylori infection with other approaches to prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage and, by cost minimization analysis, to determine the least costly strategy. We searched for randomized, controlled trials comparing treatment of H. pylori infection with ulcer healing alone or with maintenance therapy in preventing recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. We calculated the relative and absolute risk reductions and numbers needed to treat. Treatment of H. pylori infection decreased recurrent bleeding by 17% (numbers needed to treat=6) compared with ulcer healing treatment alone. Compared with ulcer healing treatment followed by maintenance therapy, recurrent bleeding was decreased by 4% (numbers needed to treat=25). Decision model-based cost minimization analysis demonstrated that treatment of H. pylori infection was the least costly strategy unless the incidence of complicated recurrences after treatment was over 6%, or the cost of confirming eradication was over $741.","no. H. pylori eradication does not increase gastric acidity or gastro-oesophageal acid reflux in patients with mild to moderate reflux oesophagitis over the first 15 months.","Eradication of H. pylori does not reduce the residual ulcer rate indicating that H. pylori infection might not be a significant risk factor for PUD in cirrhotic patients. Hence, routine H. pylori eradication might not be warranted in patients with cirrhosis and peptic ulcer disease.","yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.","Rabeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor which is particularly suitable for use in short-term Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment. Levofloxacin-based H. pylori eradication regimens have shown good efficacy and very few side effects. Shorter treatment and absence of significant side effects should improve compliance to therapy and increase the Hp H. pylori eradication rate. To evaluate the effectiveness of 2 rabeprazole-based H. pylori eradication regimens in an open-label, randomized study carried out in a clinical practice setting. One hundred sixty-nine consecutive, treatment-naive patients with H. pylori infection were randomized to receive rabeprazole (20 mg, bid), levofloxacin (500 mg, bid), and tinidazole (500 mg, bid) for either 4 [4-d rabeprazole, levofloxacin, tinidazole (RLT), n=85] or 7 days (7-d RLT, n=84). Before treatment, all patients underwent upper digestive endoscopy. Cure rates were assessed by means of C-urea breath test. and were compared with the eradication rate obtained with standard triple therapy in our Unit (ie, 78%) and average eradication rate reported in the literature (ie, 79%). The intention-to-treat eradication rates were 94% [87% to 98%, 95% confidence interval (CI)] and 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 7-day RLT regimens, respectively, whereas per-protocol eradication rates were 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 96% (90% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 7-day RLT. Both treatment regimens obtained significantly higher eradication rates as compared with standard triple therapy. The 4-day RLT showed significantly fewer side effects.","To determine H. pylori eradication rate with lansoprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin treatment regimen, which is the most frequently used as first-line therapy, in the Kirikkale region. One hundred and five patients (44 male, 61 female) with H. pylori infection were included in the study. Patients were divided into two groups based on the endoscopic findings: non-ulcer dyspepsia (n=84, 31 male, 53 female) and acute gastric or duodenal ulcer (n=21, 13 male, 8 female) groups. The diagnosis of H. pylori infection was confirmed if both the urease test and histological examination, which were performed on endoscopic biopsies, were positive. Lansoprazole 30 mg, amoxicillin 1 g, and clarithromycin 500 mg were given twice daily for 14 days to all patients. Endoscopic biopsies were repeated for the evaluation of eradication three months after the treatment. Ninety-six patients completed the study. Eradication rates were found to be 45.8% (44 of 96) in all patients, 42.1% (32 of 76 patients) in the non-ulcer dyspepsia group and 60% (12 of 20 patients) in the gastric or duodenal ulcer group for per protocol analysis, and the difference between non-ulcer dyspepsia and gastric or duodenal ulcer groups was not statistically significant (p=0.208).","yes. The proportion of patients with H pylori negative duodenal ulcers is on the rise because of a continued drop in incidence of H pylori positive duodenal ulcers in recent years. Such patients have distinct clinical characteristics and it is important to ascertain the H pylori status before starting eradication therapy.","yes. Strategies that emphasize early H. pylori eradication were cost-effective for patients with peptic ulcer and possibly cost-effective for patients with uninvestigated dyspepsia, relative to other medical interventions. Dyspeptic symptoms cause significant disutility that should be incorporated in future cost-effectiveness analyses of treatment strategies.","Helicobacter pylori infection is common world-wide and has been linked to development of gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, and gastric lymphoma. However, antimicrobial resistance has decreased H. pylori eradication rates worldwide. This study aimed to evaluate the effect of -bacterial load on eradication rate. This prospective study included 237 consecutive patients who presented to our institution with dyspeptic symptoms and underwent both upper endoscopy and urea breath tests (UBT). The patients were divided into three equal sized groups according to their UBT values. All subjects received a standard triple eradication regimen, followed by a bismuth- based quadruple eradication regimen if triple eradication was not successful. The three groups were compared with respect to age, endoscopic findings, sex, and eradication rates. Our results were consistent with those of previous studies : higher UBT values were associated with failure of standard 14-day triple treatment (p < 0.05). However, in patients who received a quadruple eradication regimen, differences between groups were not significant (p = 0.434). There was no relationship between UBT values and gastric pathologies (p = 0.751). Age and sex also did not differ significantly between groups (p = 0.061).","To assess whether the eradication of Helicobacter pylori leads to long-term relief of symptoms in functional dyspepsia. Eight hundred patients with functional dyspepsia were randomized to receive double-blind treatment with twice-daily 30 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L30AC), twice-daily 15 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L15AC), or once-daily 15 mg lansoprazole for 14 days (LP). Dyspepsia and reflux symptoms were monitored for 12 months. In intention-to-treat analysis, the non-ulcer dyspepsia sum score showed a statistically significant benefit in terms of symptom relief in the L30AC group (P = 0.0068) compared with the LP group, but there was no significant difference between the L15AC and LP groups (P = 0.2). When all patients in the two eradication therapy arms were considered together, successful eradication had a significant benefit with regard to the complete absence of symptoms (P < 0.04). H. pylori eradication did not lead to an increase in reflux symptoms.","no. H. pylori eradication therapy in patients on long-term NSAID treatment had no beneficial effect on the occurrence of ulcers, erosions, or dyspepsia. Ulcer rates in both study arms are remarkably low, in both patients with and without gastroprotective therapy.","yes. RBC in co-prescription with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. is as effective as RBC plus clarithromycin 500 t.d.s. in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers.","1-week eradication therapy with previously described combinations commonly used in clinical practice achieves high ulcer healing rates with no complications in the period without antacid treatment. We consider that it is not necessary, at least in most patients, to prolong antacid therapy.","We studied whether different initial bacterial densities of Helicobacter pylori would alter the eradication rate of H. pylori by triple therapy (amoxicillin 500 mg t.i.d. and metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. for 14 days; bismuth subcitrate 120 mg t.i.d. for 28 days) in patients with duodenal ulcer bleeding. One hundred thirty-six cases with duodenal ulcer bleeding and H. pylori infection (proved by rapid urease test and histology during emergency endoscopy) were studied. One hundred twenty-seven of these patients completed a course of triple therapy. In each case, anti-H. pylori IgG titer, gastric biopsies for H. pylori density (score 1 to 5), and evaluation of severity of gastritis were collected at the first endoscopy and 1 month after completion of the triple therapy. The ulcer healing rate was 84.3% (107 of 127) at the time of the second evaluation. The eradication rate of H. pylori was 76.4% (97 or 127). Eradication for H. pylori failed in 30 cases. In these eradication failure cases, initial serologic titer and density of H. pylori were higher than those of eradication success cases. The eradication rate of H. pylori decreased as the initial density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori: 1, 88.3%; 2, 83.8%; 3, 74.2%; 4, 68%; 5, 50%). At the second evaluation, the serologic titer was lower and continued to decline in eradication success cases whose mean residual titer ratio (100% x follow-up titer/initial titer) was lower than that of eradication failure cases (57.1% +/- 14.6% vs 107.1% +/- 24.1%, p < 0.001). The mean residual titer ratio also disclosed an upward trend as the density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori 1 to 5: 57.5%, 66.6%, 73.5%, 75.3%, 81.8%, respectively).","There have been few reliable published studies permitting assessment of therapeutic regimens for Helicobacter pylori infection in gastric ulcer (GU) patients. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the efficacy of omeprazole-based dual and triple therapy regimens, both including clarithromycin, for the cure of H. pylori infection in active GU and duodenal ulcer (DU) patients. The study was conducted in Japan, a country in which GU is more prevalent than DU. Two hundred and thirty-four consecutive peptic ulcer patients (GU: n = 124; DU: n = 103; GDU: n = 7) suffering from H. pylori infection were randomly treated with either omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + amoxicillin 500 mg q.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OAC) or with omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OC) for 14 days. H. pylori infection was evaluated by histology and culture from antral and corpus biopsies 6 weeks after completing antimicrobial therapy. Follow-up data were available in 202 patients. The cure rates of H. pylori infection in GU patients were 83.9% (47/56) with OAC and 59. 2% (29/49) with OC. Corresponding rates in DU patients were 91.5% (43/47) and 70.5% (31/44), respectively. The cure rates with OAC were significantly higher than those with OC (p < 0.001, chi2 test). The cure rates in GU patients were lower than those in DU patients for both regimens, but these differences were not statistically significant. Side effects were generally mild and did not interfere with compliance. One patient in the OAC group and 2 patients in the OC group complained of severe side effects that led to therapy discontinuation.","yes. Triple therapy with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin is a safe and effective regimen for the cure of H. pylori infection in GU patients as well as in DU patients. We recommend this triple regimen as a first-line treatment in all patients with peptic ulcers associated with H. pylori infection in Japan.","yes. Cluster analysis of REP-PCR DNA fingerprints of H. pylori strains suggests that duodenal ulcer isolates, as a group, are more similar to one another and different from gastritis isolates. These results suggest that disease-specific strains may exist.","The aim of this study was to determine the efficacy of a 1-week low-dose proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy without further acid suppression for cure of Helicobacter pylori infection and the ulcer healing in peptic ulcer disease. Patients with endoscopically proven peptic ulcers who were H. pylori positive participated in this study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and tinidazole 500 mg b.d., then patients were treated randomly for another 4 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily (OCM-O group; n = 40) or without acid suppressing agents (OCM group; n = 39). Patients were investigated endoscopically for H. pylori and ulcer status before treatment, four weeks (week 5) and 8 weeks later (week 9) after anti-H. pylori treatment. H. pylori infection was assessed by rapid urease test and histology. The eradication rates of H. pylori were 72.5% (95% CI: 59-86%) and 76.3% (95% CI: 63-90%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM-O group and were 87.2% (95% CI: 77-98%) and 97.1% (95% CI: 92-100%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM group (p < 0.05 in per protocol analysis). In respect to ulcer healing status at week 5, 89.5% (34/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 80% (28/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers; at week 9, 86.8% (33/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 88.6% (31/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers (p = NS). When the ulcer status was analyzed in relation to the H. pylori status, at week 5 ulcer had healed in 84.4% (54/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and in 88.9% (8/9) of those with persistent infection. At week 9, ulcer healing increased up to 93.8% (60/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and decreased to 44.4% (4/9) of patients with persistent infection. The adverse events (20%) were mild in these two treatment groups and no patients required discontinuation of the study medications.","To compare the efficacy of one-week versus two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin in inducing healing of Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcers as well as to investigate the role of several factors, determinant in the ulcer healing process. Seventy-one active duodenal ulcer patients were randomised to receive one- or two-week treatment with lansoprazole (30 mg bid), clarithromycin (500 mg bid) and amoxycillin (1 g bid), not followed by any additional acid suppressive therapy. Ulcer healing and Helicobacter pylori infection were assessed by endoscopy and urea breath test 4 weeks after the end of treatment. Before entering the trial and four weeks after the end of treatment, dyspeptic symptoms were recorded and scored by a validated questionnaire. The potential effects of a number of clinical variables on the ulcer healing process were evaluated by means of univariate and multivariate analyses. Duodenal ulcer was healed in 80.5% patients treated for one week and in 91.4% patients treated for 2 weeks according to intention-to-treat analysis (p=NS). Ulcer healing was more frequent in the Helicobacter pylori cured patients compared to those with persisting infection (90.9% vs 68.5%; p=0.04). Multivariate analysis did not reveal any significant predictor of duodenal ulcer healing.","In patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer, a 7-day triple therapy alone is sufficient to control the disease.","Helicobacter pylori and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the major causes of gastroduodenal ulcers. Studies on the benefit of eradication of H. pylori in NSAID users yielded conflicting results. To investigate whether H. pylori eradication in patients on long-term NSAIDs reduces the incidence of gastroduodenal ulcers. Patients on long-term NSAID treatment and who are H. pylori positive on serologic testing, were randomly assigned to either H. pylori eradication (omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin) or placebo. Primary endpoint was the presence of endoscopic gastric or duodenal ulcers 3 months after randomization. One hundred sixty-five (48%) of a total of 347 patients were on gastroprotective medication. At endoscopy, gastroduodenal ulcers were diagnosed in 6 (4%) and 8 (5%) patients in the eradication and placebo group, respectively (p = .65). During follow-up of 12 months, no symptomatic ulcers or ulcer complications developed. No significant differences were found in the development of gastroduodenal erosions, dyspepsia, or in quality of life.","No randomized double-blind studies have been performed to compare clarithromycin 1 g/day with higher doses of the macrolide (1.5 g/day) when combined with ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC). To compare H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates of RBC 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks combined for the first 2 weeks either with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. (Group A) or clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. (Group B). Two hundred and seventy-three patients with H. pylori-positive active duodenal ulcer were included. H. pylori infection was detected by CLO-test and histology on antral and corpus biopsies before and at least 4 weeks after the end of therapy. Eradication was assumed if both CLO-test and histology results were negative for H. pylori. Eradication/healing rates according to intention-to-treat and per protocol analysis were 76/82% and 87/92% for Group A and 78/85% and 88/95% for Group B, respectively (P = N.S.). Adverse events were reported by 7% and 12% of patients in Groups A and B, respectively, and they were generally mild.","Ten years of extensive Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) eradication in symptomatic patients led to a significant reduction in peptic ulcer prevalence. This reduction was particularly evident in Padova, where a project for the sensibilization of H pylori eradication among general practioners was carried out between 1990 and 1992. Should our hypothesis be true, H pylori eradication might in the future lead to peptic ulcer as a rare endoscopic finding.","To compare the efficacy of the coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus the antibiotic clarithromycin, with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone or clarithromycin alone for the healing of duodenal ulcers, eradication of H. pylori and the reduction of ulcer recurrence. This two-phase, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicentre study consisted of a 4-week treatment phase followed by a 24-week post-treatment observation phase. Patients with an active duodenal ulcer were treated with either ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for first 2 weeks; placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; or placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks. Ulcer healing rates after 4 weeks of treatment were highest with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (82%) followed by ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (74%; P = 0.373), clarithromycin alone (73%; P = 0.33) and placebo (52%; P = 0.007). Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin provided significantly better ulcer symptom relief compared with clarithromycin alone or placebo (P < 0.05). The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin resulted in significantly higher H. pylori eradication rates 4 weeks post-treatment (82%) than did treatment with either ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (0%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (36%; P = 0.008) or placebo (0%; P < 0.001). Ulcer recurrence rates 24 weeks post-treatment were lower following treatment with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (21%) compared with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (86%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (40%; P = 0.062) or placebo (88%; P = 0.006). All treatments were well tolerated.","To study the efficacy of a 2-week anti-Helicobacter therapy in the healing of H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Omeprazole 20 mg, clarithromycin 500 mg and amoxycillin 1 g, twice daily, were given for 2 weeks to 180 patients with H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Endoscopy was repeated 4 weeks after the eradication therapy to assess healing of the peptic ulcers. Repeat endoscopies were performed in 168 patients (42 gastric ulcer and 126 duodenal ulcer) who followed the protocol. Thirty-eight patients with bleeding gastric ulcers and 124 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcers healed 4 weeks after treatment (per protocol analysis; gastric ulcer: 91% vs. duodenal ulcer: 98%; P=0. 035). No patients who were compliant to the study medications suffered from re-bleeding. Stepwise discriminant analysis demonstrated that small ulcers (< 15 mm) and the presence of duodenal ulcers best predicted healing of the peptic ulcers.","yes. Although eradicating H. pylori is not likely to relieve symptoms in the majority of patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia, a small proportion of H. pylori-infected patients may benefit from eradication treatment.","Antimicrobial resistance has decreased eradication rates for Helicobacter pylori infection, and recent reports from different countries report eradication rates lower than 80% with triple therapy. The aim of this pilot study was to investigate the efficacy of standard triple eradication regimen in long-term aspirin users. The study population consisted of 77 aspirin using patients with dyspeptic symptoms and 79 age- and sex-matched dyspeptic patients without aspirin use as a control group. Both the study group and control patients were given lansoprazole (30 mg twice a day), clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day) and amoxicillin (1 g twice a day) (LCA) for 14 days as the eradication regimen. Patients on the study group were allowed to take aspirin during the eradication regimen (LCAAsp). Eradication was defined as the absence of H pylori as assessed with the C-urea breath test and H pylori stool antigen test 8 weeks after the end of the antimicrobial therapy. The H pylori eradication rate in the LCAAsp group was 64/77 [83%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 79%-94%] with intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis and 64/75 (85%, 95% CI: 82%-96%) with per protocol (PP) analysis, and the H pylori eradication rate in the LCA group was 42/79 (53%, 95% CI: 43%-65%) with ITT analysis and 42/75 (56%, 95% CI: 46%-68%) with PP analysis. The difference between the groups both with ITT analysis and with PP analysis was statistically significant (P<0.05).","yes. This study shows that eradication of H. pylori results in a significant long-term reduction in symptoms of non-ulcer dyspepsia.","Mouthrinse treatment alone or combined with periodontal treatment can, to some extent, reduce the prevalence of oral H. pylori and improve the eradication rate of gastric H. pylori.","Successful eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection clearly modifies the natural history of peptic ulcer disease and prevents further recurrences of duodenal and gastric ulcers. However, there are few prospective studies about actual rates of rebleeding after H. pylori eradication, a highly relevant aspect of management as re-infection, relapse of ulcer disease for other reasons (i.e. anti-inflammatory agents) or idiopathic ulcers unrelated to H. pylori may develop and cause further bleeding episodes. To determine the incidence of bleeding episodes after eradication of H. pylori infection in patients who had bled from an H. pylori-positive peptic ulcer. H. pylori-positive patients who bled from a gastric or duodenal ulcer were treated with appropriate triple and/or quadruple therapy. H. pylori eradication was confirmed by urea breath test 4 weeks after treatment. Patients received no further treatment but were followed clinically and additional urea breath tests were performed every 6 months. Endoscopy with antral and corpus biopsies and urea breath test were repeated as soon as patients manifested any dyspeptic symptoms that might signal recurrence. A total of 103 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcer were included in the study; H. pylori was successfully eradicated in 93 of these patients, who were followed for a median interval of 27 months. The yearly re-infection rate was calculated to be 0.6%. There were no instances of rebleeding in any patients during the follow-up period.","Triple therapies were safe and effective for H. pylori eradication in Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer patients. Dual therapy was significantly less effective in the Japanese patients, half of whom had a history of GU and more abnormal histology than in the Swedish patients, all of whom had DU.","yes. Eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of peptic ulcers in the patients with 'ulcer-like' functional dyspepsia. However, this approach does not significantly reduce the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients.","Despite the widely accepted view that Helicobacter pylori is the most important cause of peptic ulcer disease, recent studies have suggested that the microbe protects against nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-associated gastroduodenal lesions and promotes ulcer healing. We investigated the effects of H. pylori eradication on the healing of NSAID-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Chronic NSAID users presenting with peptic ulcer haemorrhage underwent endoscopy to secure haemostasis and to document H. pylori infection by rapid urease test and culture. They were prospectively randomized to receive either omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks or a 1-week course of triple therapy (bismuth subcitrate 120 mg, tetracycline 500 mg, metronidazole 400 mg, all given four times daily) plus omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated after 8 weeks. Final H. pylori status was determined by a 13C-urea breath test that was performed at least 4 weeks after discontinuation of omeprazole. 195 H. pylori-infected NSAID users, complicated by bleeding ulcers, were randomized to receive omeprazole alone (102) or triple therapy plus omeprazole (93). 174 patients returned for second endoscopy at 8 weeks (91 in the omeprazole group, 83 in the triple therapy group). Urea breath test was negative in 14% in the omeprazole group vs. 92% in the triple therapy group (P<0.001). Complete ulcer healing was achieved in 88 (97%) patients in the omeprazole group and 77 (93%) in the triple therapy group (P=0. 31). On intention-to-treat analysis, ulcers were healed in 86% of the omeprazole group and 83% of the triple therapy group (P=0.50). There was no significant difference in the healing rates of gastric or duodenal ulcers between the two groups.","There has been significant controversy over the relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and reflux esophagitis. We investigated the effects of eradicating H. pylori on the reflux esophagitis found in patients with peptic ulcers. Prospective posteradication evaluations were conducted yearly in 162 H. pylori-positive patients who had reflux esophagitis together with peptic ulcer disease (4 women and 158 men, mean age = 49.1 yr). The Los Angeles classification of the patients' esophagitis was: grade A, 90; grade B, 63; and grade C, 9. The follow-up evaluations began 1 to 2 months after completion of the eradication treatment (mean time of follow-up = 22 mo), and consisted of endoscopy and an interview focusing on heartburn. Six patients were withdrawn from the study because of adverse drug reactions or a failure to regularly keep their appointments. After eradication therapy, we observed endoscopically that reflux esophagitis had improved in 87 (55.8%) of the 156 patients. The improvement rate was significantly higher in patients cured of infection (60.8%) than in those with persistent H. pylori infection (38.9%) (P = 0.04). Body mass index (odds ratio = 0.86, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.76-0.97), cure of infection (3.68, 95% CI = 1.56-8.69), the absence of a hiatal hernia (3.90, 95% CI = 1.83-8.28), and an ulcer located in the duodenum (2.75, 95% CI = 1.33-5.70) were identified as significant independent factors for the improvement of reflux esophagitis.","To evaluate the efficacy of 3-day intravenous Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy in patients with bleeding peptic ulcer associated with H. pylori infection. We studied 53 patients admitted to hospital with bleeding of the upper gastrointestinal tract due to peptic ulcer and positive urease test over a 12-month period. After endoscopic diagnosis, intravenous pantoprazole (40 mg/12 hours), metronidazole (500 mg/8 hours) and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (1,000 mg/200 mg/8 hours) was administered for 72 hours. The efficacy of eradication therapy was evaluated by 13C-urea breath test at least 2 months after the end of treatment. Fifty-one patients were included. Of these, 40 had duodenal ulcer and 11 had gastric ulcer. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 87.5% of those with duodenal ulcers and in 63.6% of those with gastric ulcers (p = 0.066). No adverse reactions or episodes of bleeding recurrence were found and none of the patients withdrew from treatment.","yes. Our results demonstrate that the association of acid suppression, obtained with 2 week ranitidine administration with OTT improved ulcer healing but did not enhance H. pylori eradication.","The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and non-ulcer dyspepsia is not established. To determine whether eradication of H. pylori might be of benefit in non-ulcer dyspepsia patients. We randomly assigned 129 H. pylori infected patients with severe epigastric pain, without gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, to receive twice daily treatment with 300 mg of ranitidine, 1000 mg of amoxicillin, and 500 mg of clarithromycin for 7 days and 124 such patients to receive identical-appearing placebos. Treatment was successful (decrease of symptoms at 12 months) in 62% of patients in the active-treatment group and in 60% of the placebo group (N.S.). At 12 months, the rate of eradication of H. pylori was 69% in the active-treatment group and 18% in the placebo group (P < 0.001). Complete relief of symptoms occurred significantly more frequently in patients on the active treatment (43%) than in placebo-treated patients (31%, P=0.048). Within the active-treatment group, therapeutic success was significantly more frequent in the non-infected patients (84% vs. 64%, P=0.04).","As a consequence of gastric histological differences, Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer (PU) patients may respond differently to Helicobacter pylori eradication therapies. The study was single-blind and compared four eradication therapies in Japanese and Swedish patients with healed gastric (GU) or duodenal (DU) ulcer. Swedish patients received either (a) omeprazole+clarithromycin (OC, where O = 20 mg, C = 500 mg) for 2 weeks, or triple therapy with (b) omeprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin (OAC-L where O = 20mg, A = 1 g, C = 250 mg); (c) OAC-H (where O = 20 mg, A-1 g, C-500 mg); or (d) omeprazole + metronidazole + clarithromycin (OMC, where O = 20 mg, M = 400 mg, C = 250 mg) for 1 week. Antibiotic doses were weight-adjusted downwards in Japanese patients. H. pylori was assessed using the urea breath test (UBT), histology and culture pre-entry, with UBT being repeated 4 and 8 weeks after stopping treatment. Histology and culture were repeated if the UBT was positive post-therapy. Recruitment included 120 patients from Japan (43 GU, 61 DU, 16 GU+DU) and 120 from Sweden (119 DU, 1 GU+DU). There were 26 exclusions from a FAS analysis due to H. pylori negativity (14), no drug administration (7) or no data after visit 1 (5). Eradication rates (FAS) from Japan were (a) 63%, (b) 93%, (c) 96% or (d) 96%, and for Sweden (a) 92%, (b) 86%, (c) 93% or (d) 96%. Dual therapy was less effective in patients with gastric atrophy associated with GU disease. Tolerability was good in all treatment groups, with no serious adverse events.","Although the 'test-and-treat' strategy is suggested as first-line therapy for uninvestigated dyspepsia, no large-scale studies in a real-life setting are available. 1552 dyspeptic patients aged between 25 and 60 with no alarm symptoms were recruited to the study. After screening with a 13C-urea breath test, they were randomized into three treatment arms: Helicobacter pylori-positive either to eradication therapy with OAM (omeprazole, amoxycillin and metronidazole) (Hp+/erad) or omeprazole 20 mg daily (Hp+/ome) for 10 days, whereas H. pylori-negative patients (Hp-/ome) were treated with 20 mg omeprazole for 10 days. Gastrointestinal symptoms were registered at baseline at 1 and 2 years on the Gastrointestinal Symptom Rating Scale (GSRS) and quality of life with the Psychological General Well-Being index (PGWB). Additional visits, referrals for and number of endoscopies and their findings were registered during the 2 years' follow-up. Of the 1552 patients, 583 were H. pylori-positive (37.6%), and 288 of these were randomized for omeprazole and 295 to OAM. The Hp-/ome group had fewer general practitioner (GP) contacts (P<0.0001) than the H. pylori-positive groups. Eradication therapy significantly improved general well-being and reduced upper gastrointestinal symptoms: abdominal pain (P=0.0001), heartburn (P=0.0061), acid regurgitation (P=0.003), hunger pain (P=0.009), especially in Hp+/erad. Peptic ulcer was found in 6.2%, 1.0%, 0.2% in Hp+/ome, Hp-+/erad and Hp-/ome, respectively (P=0.0007). Only 3 patients (1.0%) developed peptic ulcers in Hp-+/erad, all eradication failures.","Our results indicate that treatment of HP infection by eradication regimen (triple therapy only) is not enough to prevent recurrence of ulcer in the Jordanian population. Thus, we recommend maintenance acid suppression following standard H. pylori eradication regimen to maintain remission.","yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection by triple therapy significantly and equally reduces UAS in CU patients with positive and negative ASST.","yes. In patients with peptic ulcer bleeding a 3-day anti-Helicobacter pylori therapy is a good alternative for eradicating Helicobacter pylori infection.","yes. While Italian primary care physicians appropriately target eradication therapy for H pylori infection in patients with peptic ulcer disease rather than nonulcer disease, the intervention was still underused in these patients. Improvements in this prescribing behavior are needed.","To evaluate whether the addition of 2 weeks of ranitidine to a 1-week oral triple therapy (OTT) regimen improved ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. Two hundred and eleven consecutive patients with an endoscopic diagnosis of active duodenal ulcer (DU) and a positive antrum biopsy for H. pylori were enrolled. Those attending the Hospital Vera Cruz (Group A, n=142) received a 14-day course of ranitidine (150 mg after breakfast and dinner) plus a 1-week OTT, consisting of bismuth subcitrate, (240 mg after the 3 meals), tetracycline (500 mg, 10 min before the three meals and at bedtime), and furazolidone (200 mg after breakfast and dinner). Patients from the Hospital das Clinicas (Group B, n=69) received the same OTT as Group A but without ranitidine. Patients underwent endoscopy again on average 40 days (range: 30-60 days) after completing therapy in order to assess ulcer healing and H. pylori status. Both schedules were equally efficient in eradicating H. pylori with 90% (128/142) eradication in group A, and 84% (58/69) in group B (p=0.2). In contrast, the addition of ranitidine to OTT improved ulcer healing when compared with OTT alone (96%, 137/142, vs. 70%, 48/69; p<0.001).","In Helicobacter pylori infection, the effect of short-term triple therapy with proton pump inhibitor plus two antibiotics on gastric ulcer healing is not well known.AIM: To compare 1-week triple therapy with 8-week proton pump inhibitor therapy on gastric ulcer healing in infected patients. We randomly assigned 120 patients with H. pylori and gastric ulcers to proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 1 week (n = 61) or proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks (n = 59), with endoscopic assessment of ulcer healing 8 weeks after the start of treatment. Triple therapy eradicated H. pylori in 51 patients [intention-to-treat, 84%; 95% confidence interval (CI), 75-93%]. At 8 weeks, gastric ulcers were healed in 30 patients given triple therapy (49%; 95% CI, 37-62%) and in 49 patients given proton pump inhibitor (83%; 95% CI, 73-93%, P<0.001). Healing rates in the triple therapy and proton pump inhibitor-only groups were 89% and 100%, respectively, for ulcers of<1.0 cm in diameter, 54% and 77% for ulcers of 1.0 to<1.5 cm in diameter, and 5% and 77% (P<0.001) for ulcers of>or = 1.5 cm in diameter.","To evaluate whether antral biopsies are enough for confirming Helicobacter pylori eradication with the \"new\" one week triple therapies with omeprazole. 229 duodenal ulcer patients were treated with omeprazole for 7 days plus two antibiotics. Eradication was confirmed with histology (two biopsies from both gastric antrum and body) and 13C-urea breath test one month after the end of therapy. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 76.9% of the patients (95% CI: 71-82%). Histology at antrum was highly reliable to detect eradication failure: in all but in one case in which H. pylori was observed at gastric body, was the microogranism also observed at antrum. Infection prevalences at both locations were not homogeneous (McNemar: 6.4; p < 0.05). Concordance between antral biopsies and breath test for H. pylori diagnosis after therapy was excellent (kappa: 0.91; SE: 0.07), and both prevalences were homogeneous (McNemar: 1.3; p > 0.05).","yes. Two-week therapies, independently of antibiotic combination, lead to a significant increase of H. pylori eradication rate compared to 1-week therapies, with same compliance and tolerability, even if, taking account of low-eradication rates, one must question whether the triple therapy should still be used.","yes. Ulcer-healing drugs should be continued after a 2-week course of omeprazole-containing anti-Helicobacter therapy for gastric ulcers and large peptic ulcers that have bled, but can be omitted in most patients with a bleeding duodenal ulcer.","To evaluate whether omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 12 days is more effective for Helicobacter pylori eradication than the same regimen for only 6 days; and to verify whether these eradication regimens are more effective in peptic ulcer disease than in non-ulcer dyspepsia. We studied 411 patients in whom a gastroscopy was carried out due to symptoms related to the upper gastrointestinal tract and who were diagnosed with duodenal ulcer (175 patients, 43%), gastric ulcer (42 patients, 10%), or non-ulcer dyspepsia (194 patients, 47%), and concomitant infection by H. pylori. At endoscopy, biopsies were obtained for rapid urease test, and a 13C-urea breath test was carried out. Urea breath test was repeated four weeks after completing eradication treatment with 1) omeprazole (20 mg b.i.d.), amoxicillin (1 g b.i.d.) and clarithromycin (500 mg b.i.d.) for six days (239 patients), or 2) the same regimen for 12 days (172 patients). H. pylori eradication was achieved in 73.6% (95% CI, 68-79%) of the patients treated during 6 days, and in 84.3% (79-90%) of those receiving 12 days of therapy (P<0.01). The overall eradication rate with both regimens (6 plus 12 days), respectively in patients with duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia, was 84.6% (79-90%), 75.6% (61-86%), and 72.8% (67-79%) (P<0.01 when comparing duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia). Twelve-day regimen was more effective than 6-day regimen only in non-ulcer dyspepsia (62% vs. 83%, P<0.01), but not in duodenal or gastric ulcer. In the multivariate analysis the duration (6 vs. 12 days) of eradication therapy (odds ratio: 2.2; 1.3-3.7) and the type of disease (duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia; odds ratio: 2.3; 1.3-3.8) were the only variables which influenced on H. pylori eradication efficacy (chi 2 model, 17; P<0.001).","Esomeprazole is the first proton pump inhibitor to be developed as an optical isomer for the treatment of acid-related diseases. Four hundred and forty eight duodenal ulcer patients with Helicobacter pylori infection, confirmed by 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and no current ulcer, were randomised to double-blind treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg twice daily (b.d.) (n=224) or omeprazole 20 mg b.d. (n=224), in combination with amoxicillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). A negative UBT at both 4 and 8 weeks after completing therapy indicated successful H. pylori eradication. Intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis comprised 400 patients (EAC, n=204; OAC, n=196) and per protocol (PP) analysis 377 patients (EAC, n=192; OAC, n=185). Eradication rates (95% confidence intervals) for ITT and PP populations were: EAC, 90% (85-94%) and 91% (86-94%); OAC, 88% (82-92%) and 91% (86-95%). Between-group differences in eradication rates were not statistically significant. Both regimens were well tolerated, with an adverse event profile and frequency typical of proton pump inhibitor plus antibiotic combination therapy.","Omeprazole is less effective in healthy subjects than in patients with duodenal ulcers. The aim of this study was to determine whether Helicobacter pylori augments the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole in patients with duodenal ulcers. In 16 patients with duodenal ulcers, baseline intragastric acidity was measured before and 4-6 weeks after the cure of H. pylori infection. In 17 patients with duodenal ulcers, 24-hour pH metry was performed during treatment with 20 mg omeprazole once daily before as well as after eradication of H. pylori. Intragastric acidity was measured using a glass electrode placed 5 cm below the cardia. H. pylori infection was assessed by [13C] urea breath test, culture, histology, and rapid urease test. H. pylori eradication resulted in marked decrease of the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole (24-hour median gastric pH, 5.5 vs. 3.0; P<0.002) that was most pronounced during nighttime (median gastric pH, 6.4 vs. 2.1; P=0.001). On the other hand, baseline intragastric pH remained unchanged after eradication (median gastric pH, 1.0 vs. 1.1; P=0.5).","One-hundred and four patients (mean age: 49 +/- 16 years, 67% males) attended at four general hospitals in Spain, who had a duodenal ulcer demonstrated by endoscopy. These patients were infected with H. pylori demonstrated by urease test and histologic methods, and in 32 by a breath test and 18 by culture. Omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. plus amoxycillin 1 gr b.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated 1 month after completing therapy, and the aforementioned diagnostic methods were performed again. Eradication was achieved in 29% of cases (n = 30). In multiple logistic regression analysis, duration of ulcer disease was the only variable which correlated with success in H. pylori eradication (chi(2) = 7.2; p = 0.02). Additional variables (age, sex, smoking, pre-treatment with omeprazole, AINEs or H2 antagonist, ulcer size, and antral histologic gastritis) were not correlated with H. pylori eradication. Ulcer healing was demonstrated in 80% of patients (n = 83), and the healing rate was higher when eradication was achieved (97%) than in H. pylori-positive patients (73%) (p<0.01). Compliance was good in all cases. No adverse effects were observed.","yes. In patients with duodenal ulcers treated with omeprazole, intragastric pH depends significantly on the presence or absence of H. pylori, whereas baseline pH remained unchanged after H. pylori eradication.","Treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer relapse. It has not been established if treatment of the infection heals duodenal ulcer.AIM: To test the hypothesis that treatment of the infection was associated with healing of duodenal ulcer. A randomised, double blind placebo controlled trial was performed to study the efficacy of an antibiotic only regimen consisting of 300 mg metronidazole, 500 mg amoxycillin, and 250 mg clarithromycin, each given four times daily for two weeks, in the healing of duodenal ulcer as assessed by endoscopy. Symptoms were controlled with acetaminophen and antacids. Of 100 consecutive patients with endoscopically established duodenal ulcer, 97 with positive rapid urease test on antral biopsy specimens were admitted into the study and 81 completed the trial. Of these, 40 were randomised to receive antibiotics and 41 to receive placebo. Treatment with antibiotics resulted in 92.5% (95% confidence interval (95% CI) 84.3-100) healing at four weeks and 100% at eight and 12 weeks; the corresponding healing rates for placebo treatment were respectively, 36.6%, 61%, and 63.4% (95% CIs 21.8-51.3, 46.0-75.9, and 48.7-78.2 respectively). The differences between the two treatment groups were significant at p<0.001 at each time point and by life table analysis. Clearance of H pylori as assessed by urease test on antral biopsy specimens at four weeks and eradication of the organism as determined by 13C-urea breath test at eight weeks were achieved in 85% and 62.5% of patients respectively. Duodenal ulcer healed at four weeks in 87.2% and 86.2% (95% CIs 76.7-97.7 and 73.7-98.8) of patients in whom H pylori clearance or eradication, was achieved, versus 42.9% and 51.9% (95% CIs 27.9-57.8 and 38.3-65.5; p<0.001 and<0.003 respectively) in whom these processes failed. Stepwise discriminant analysis on 32 clinical, personal, and endoscopic characteristics as well as H pylori clearance and eradication identified H pylori clearance as the most discriminative variable for the healing of duodenal ulcer at four weeks, followed by ulcer depth and eradication of the organism.","Experience with proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy is predominantly with omeprazole-containing regimens. To investigate the efficacy of a pantoprazole-based regimen, with either a 1 or 2-week course of antibiotic co-therapy, in eradicating H. pylori, healing duodenal ulcers and to assess the antibiotic sensitivity profiles of isolated H. pylori strains. A single-blind, multicentre, parallel group comparison of patients with endoscopically proven, H. pylori associated, active duodenal ulceration. All patients received pantoprazole, 40 mg b.d. for 2 weeks. Patients were randomized to receive either 1 or 2 weeks of therapy with amoxycillin, 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. Patients were endoscoped at entry, at 14 days and a minimum of 4 weeks after cessation of all therapy. H. pylori status was determined by urease reaction, histological assessment and culture from antral and body biopsies. Antibiotic sensitivity was determined using the agar dilution technique. Sixty-seven patients were randomized. One week co-therapy (n=33): eradication efficacy, ITT= 79% (95% CI: 61-91%); ulcer healing efficacy (at 6-week visit)=88% (95% CI: 72-97%). Two-week co-therapy (n=34): eradication efficacy, ITT=91% (95% CI: 76-98%: ulcer healing efficacy= 88% (95% CI: 73-97%). Both regimens were well tolerated and no primary antibiotic resistance was noted.","yes. Overall, H. pylori eradication therapy is more effective in PUD than in NUD patients. This advantage of eradication therapies in PUD patients seems to be observed with 7-day PPI-based triple regimens, and with 5-day RBC-based quadruple therapy, while the 7-day RBC-based triple regimen seems to be equally effective in both diseases.","yes. Ranitidine bismuth citrate with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. provides an effective, simple and well tolerated regimen for the eradication of H. pylori and healing of duodenal ulcers.","Efficacy with omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin regimen in patients with duodenal ulcer is higher than in those patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia. The increase of H. pylori eradication rate by 21% in our non-ulcer dyspepsia patients justifies the prolongation from 6 to 12 days of omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin therapy, whilst the increase of cure rates in duodenal or gastric ulcer patients with a 12-day therapy would not be cost-effective.","To test the hypothesis that 1-week low-dose triple therapy for H. pylori is sufficient for relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers. Fifty-nine out-patients with duodenal ulcers and positive rapid urease test participated in this randomized, double-blind, two-centre study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and metronidazole 400 mg b.d. In a double-blind fashion, patients were then randomly treated for another 3 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily or an identical-looking placebo. Patients were investigated endoscopically before treatment for H. pylori, after 2 weeks and after 4 weeks. H. pylori infection was assessed by a 13C-urea breath test at the time of enrollment and 4 weeks after cessation of any study medication. Fifty-two patients were included in the 'all patients treated' analysis of efficacy. The overall H. pylori cure rate was 96% (95% CI = 87-100%), with no difference between the treatment groups. After 2 weeks duodenal ulcer healing was confirmed in 91% (95% CI = 80-100%) of patients treated with omeprazole and in 76% (95% CI = 60-91%) in the placebo group (P = 0.14). After 4 weeks all ulcers had healed. Relief from dyspeptic symptoms and adverse events (13.8 and 16.7%) did not differ between the treatment groups.","The eradication rate of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection might be affected by the degree of inflammation of gastric mucosa represented by the endoscopic stage of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The aims of this study were to evaluate the eradication rates of H. pylori infection according to the endoscopic stage of PUD and to document whether early eradication in the active stage could yield a higher eradication rate in patients with peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB). A total of 1,177 patients with PUD (380 gastric ulcer, 710 duodenal ulcer, and 87 combined ulcer) who received proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)-based triple therapy were included, and the eradication rates were compared by ulcer stage. Univariate and multivariate analyses were conducted to identify factors influencing eradication rate. In PUB, the eradication rates between the early eradication group (≤7 days) and the late eradication group (>7 days) were compared. The eradication rates according to endoscopic stage were significantly different in gastric ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 84.8% vs 82.7% vs 70.6%, p = .014, respectively), but there were no significant differences in duodenal ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 87.6% vs 80.9%% vs 80.9% p = .169, respectively). In multivariate analyses, active ulcer as well as age younger than 50 was a significantly independent predictor of successful eradication (Odds ratio; 2.799, 95% CI; 1.659-4.723, p = .0001). The eradication rate of the early eradication group was significantly higher than the late eradication group in PUB (89.2% vs 71.9%, 95% CI; 1.265-8.269, p = .011).","To investigate the efficacy of a short course of pantoprazole-based triple therapy in Helicobacter pylori eradication in a single-centre pilot study. Patients with active or healed duodenal ulcer or with gastric erosions or gastritis, all of whom were H. pylori-positive, received 10 days of twice-daily open treatment with pantoprazole 40 mg, plus clarithromycin 250 mg and tinidazole 500 mg. H. pylori was assessed at entry and 28-35 days after the end of treatment by rapid urease test (at entry only), culture and antimicrobial sensitivity, histology and 13C urea breath test. The criterion for eradication was a negative result in all three tests. Seventy patients were treated, of whom four were excluded from analysis due to major deviations from the study protocol. Eradication of H. pylori was achieved in 57/66 patients (per protocol analysis 86% (95% CI: 78-95%)) and was higher in patients with organisms sensitive to nitroimidazole before treatment (sensitive: 47/53 (89%), insensitive: 10/13 (77%)). There was marked reduction in acute gastritis throughout the stomach while chronic gastritis decreased only in the corpus. Healing was achieved in all 24 patients with active duodenal ulcer. Treatment was complied with; only one patient missed one of the 20 doses. Adverse events were of mild or moderate intensity and did not require withdrawal from treatment.","yes. In a managed care environment, therapy with clarithromycin and omeprazole to eradicate H pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer disease would result in significant cost savings secondary to a reduction in the utilization of healthcare resources.","Helicobacter pylori eradication reduces the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. It is unclear why duodenal ulcers rarely recur in the absence of reinfection with H. pylori or NSAID treatment. Basal, gastrin-releasing peptide- and pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid outputs in patients with ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication were measured, and compared with patients without ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication. Pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher in H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers than in H. pylori-negative controls, and fell significantly after H. pylori eradication. In H. pylori-negative patients with recurrent duodenal ulcers, pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher than in controls and similar to H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers.","yes. These findings suggest that duodenal ulcer relapse after eradication of H. pylori may be related to high pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output. In this subset of patients with duodenal ulcers, maintenance anti-secretory treatment may be necessary to prevent relapse.","To test whether one week's triple therapy with omeprazole and two antibiotics is enough to induce healing of a peptic (gastric and/or duodenal) ulcer. 112 Patients (73 males, 39 females; median age 55 [18-88] years) proven by culture or histology to have an Helicobacter (H.) pylori infection and uncomplicated peptic (gastroduodenal) ulcer. For one week they received omeprazole (20 mg once or twice daily) plus two antibiotics (clarithromycin/metronidazole, clarithromycin/tetracycline, clarithromycin/amoxycillin or amoxycillin/metronidazole) to eradicate H. pylori. No further anti-ulcer treatment was given subsequently. Healing of the ulcer and H. pylori status were checked by the urease test, culture and histology (endoscopic biopsy) 4 weeks later. The 5-week ulcer healing rate was 94.6% (95% confidence interval: 89-98%). Persisting ulcers (n = 6) were associated with either treatment with aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (n = 3), persistent H. pylori infection (n = 2) or persistent H. pylori infection plus treatment with aspirin (n = 1). The ulcer healing rate was significantly higher in patients with eradicated infection than in those with posttherapy persistence of H. pylori (97.0 vs. 76.9%; P = 0.02). There were no significant differences after 5 weeks between patients with duodenal and those with gastric ulcer (97.4 vs. 89.3%).","yes. A 1-week regimen of esomeprazole-based triple therapy is sufficient for DU healing and H. pylori eradication in patients with DU disease.","It has been reported that dual therapy with high doses of omeprazole and amoxycillin proves efficient for Helicobacter pylori eradication. To compare the efficacy, safety and tolerability of eradicating regimens with omeprazole/amoxycillin. In this randomized multicentre study, 267 duodenal ulcer patients were treated for 2 weeks with omeprazole 40 bid (Group A) or 20 mg bid (Group B), respectively, and with amoxycillin 0.5 g. qid followed by 4 weeks of 20 mg omeprazole om. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed by both histology and urease test in the antrum and the corpus. The patients were then followed-up for 9 months. Helicobacter pylori infection was cured in 62.9% of group A (95% CI: 53.8-71.4) and in 44.8% of group B (95% CI: 35.6-54.3; p = 0.007). Healing was achieved in 91.9% of patients in group A (95% CI:85.7-96.1), and in 87.9% of patients in group B (95% CI:80.6-93.2). The estimated probability of being in ulcer remission for cured patients was 0.95 (95% CI: 0.90-0.99) and for the not cured was 0.41 (95% CI: 0.24-0.59; p = 0.0001). However, between the two treatment groups no significant differences in symptom relief or ulcer recurrence were observed. Both regimens were well tolerated with minor side-effects occurring likewise within the two groups. At two months in cured patients antral histology revealed a total (group A + B) prevalence of 13.7% of active chronic gastritis.","yes. In patients with reflux esophagitis associated with duodenal ulcer, a significant improvement in pre-existing reflux esophagitis was noted after H. pylori eradication.","Evidence remains inconclusive as to whether eradication of Helicobacter pylori prevents ulcer relapse after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer. This study was conducted to determine the effect of H. pylori eradication using a quadruple drug regimen along with a probiotic on ulcer recurrence after perforation closure. A total of 93 patients who had presented with perforated duodenal ulcer and had a simple closure of a duodenal perforation comprised the study group. Three months postoperatively, patients who were found to be positive for H. pylori infection (n = 60) were administered quadruple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin, amoxicillin and colloidal bismuth subcitrate for 10 days along with the probiotic Lactobacillus sporogenes for 14 days. Diagnosis of H. pylori was carried out by urease test and histology. Patients were followed for 18 months. Recurrence of ulcer was analyzed for correlation with H. pylori status. Of 60 patients who received H. pylori eradication therapy, 53 were available for subsequent follow up. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 43/53 (81.1%) patients. The ulcer recurrence in the eradicated group was 18.6% (8/43) compared to 70% (7/10) in the noneradicated group (P = 0.003).","no. Our data show that successful eradication of H. pylori infection does not increase the incidence of GERD in duodenal ulcer patients.","One-week effective eradication treatment is adequate to induce healing of H. pylori-positive peptic ulcers. Anti-ulcer treatment after eradication of H. pylori should be considered only if the patient is receiving treatment with ulcerogenic drugs or continues to have symptoms.","To confirm whether 1-week anti-Helicobacter therapy to achieve ulcer healing is sufficient and safe. We retrospectively analyzed patients with peptic ulcer who were infected with Helicobacter pylori and treated with 3 different 7-day regimens, according to predefined protocols in 3 different centers in the same geographical area (Aragón, Spain). Three combinations commonly described in the literature were used: a) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), tetracycline hydrochloride (2 g/24 h), colloidal bismuth subcitrate (480 mg/24 h) and metronidazole (750 mg/24 h) (OBTM, n = 105); b) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1.5 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (3 g/24 h) (O40C1.5A3, n = 13); and c) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (2 g/24 h) (O40C1A2, n = 4). In all patients the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease was confirmed endoscopically, and H. pylori infection was verified with urease testing and histological analysis. After treatment ended, no other antacids were allowed until after endoscopic examination to check eradication and ulcer healing. 122 patients were included (107 with duodenal ulcer, 12 with gastric ulcer and 3 with both). Compliance was good and side effects infrequent and mild. Eradication rates were 88.5% (93/105) in the OBTM group, 100% (13/13) with O40C1.5A3, and 75% (3/4) with O40C1A2. Healing was achieved in 98.16% (107/109) of the patients in whom the bacterial infection was eradicated, and in 23.07% (3/13) of those in whom it was not (p<0.0001). No patient had any complications during the period without treatment.","yes. H. pylori eradication in duodenal ulcer patients was associated with a significant decrease in basal and stimulated pepsinogen-I levels. Measurement of these levels could determine how successful response to therapy has been in both the eradication and resolution of associated gastritis. Other advantages of this procedure are that it has low cost and results are evident at an early stage.","Ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) b.i.d. with clarithromycin q.i.d. eradicates Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) in 82-94% of patients, and heals duodenal ulcers in 88-90% of patients. This double blind, placebo-controlled study examines the efficacy of a simpler b.i.d. treatment regimen, and examines the potential benefit of including a second antibiotic, metronidazole, to the b.i.d. treatment regimen. A total of 648 patients with active duodenal ulcer received RBC 400 mg b.i.d. for 4 wk, coprescribed with clarithromycin 250 mg q.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., or clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. with metronidazole 400 mg b.i.d. for the first 2 wk of treatment. Endoscopies were performed prestudy, after 4 wk of treatment, and at least 4 wk posttreatment. H. pylori status was assessed by CLOtest, 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and histology prestudy, and by UBT and histology at least 4 wk posttreatment. Adverse events were recorded at each visit. All three regimens were highly effective and well tolerated. H. pylori eradication rates were 84-94% and duodenal ulcer healing rates were 92-96% (observed data). Highest H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates were achieved with RBC 400 mg b.i.d. with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d.","yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence and rebleeding in complicated ulcer disease.","yes. Eradication of H. pylori may lead to a significant net increase of BMI in patients with duodenal ulcers. Such BMI gain, as well as higher baseline BMI and hiatus hernia, predisposes to new-onset reflux esophagitis after H. pylori eradication.","yes. The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin is a simple, well-tolerated and effective treatment for active H. pylori-associated duodenal ulcer disease. This treatment regimen effectively heals duodenal ulcers, provides effective symptom relief, eradicates H. pylori infection and reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence. The eradication of H. pylori infection in patients with recently healed duodenal ulcers is associated with a significant reduction in the rate of ulcer recurrence.","Although the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection benefits patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers, the value of eradicating the infection in the patients with functional dyspepsia (FD) remains controversial. To determine whether eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of ulcers or relieve the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients. In a double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 161 patients infected with H. pylori who had functional dyspepsia were randomly assigned to 7 days of treatment with a lansoprazole-based triple therapy or placebo and then followed for 1 year. The main outcome measures were the development of peptic ulcers and the resolution of symptoms. H. pylori was eradicated in 63 out of 81 patients (78%) in the treatment group and none of the 80 patients (0%) in the placebo group. During the follow-up period, two patients in the treatment group and six patients in the placebo group developed peptic ulcers at repeat endoscopy (2.5% vs. 7.5%; 95% CI: -12 to 2). The reduction in ulcer rates was statistically significant in the 'ulcer-like' sub-group (0% vs. 16.7%; 95% CI: -32 to -2), but not in the 'dysmotility-like' and 'unclassifiable' sub-groups. Regarding symptom response, the resolution rates of symptoms were similar between the treatment and placebo groups (58.0% vs. 55.0%, 95% CI: -12 to 18). Additionally, no significant differences existed in the symptom responses between the treatment and control arms in each of the dyspepsia sub-groups.","yes. Our results demonstrate that the addition of bismuth subnitrate to dual oral therapy enhances H. pylori eradication, and improves healing of peptic ulcers.","Triple therapy currently forms the cornerstone of the treatment of patients with Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer.AIM: To establish whether prolonged antisecretory therapy is necessary in patients with active duodenal ulcer. A total of 77 patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer were included in a prospective, controlled, double-blind study. All patients received a 7-day treatment with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg b.d. Patients in the omeprazole group underwent an additional 14-day therapy with omeprazole 20 mg; patients in placebo group received placebo. Endoscopy was performed upon inclusion in the study and after 3 and 8 weeks. Seventy-four patients were eligible for a per protocol analysis after 3 weeks, and 65 after 8 weeks. After 3 weeks, the healing rate was 89% in the omeprazole group and 81% in the placebo group (P=0.51). After 8 weeks, the ulcer healed in 97% of the patients in the total group (95% CI: 92.7-100%). H. pylori was eradicated in 88% of patients in the omeprazole group and in 91% in the placebo group (P=1.0). No statistically significant differences between the groups were found in ulcer-related symptoms or in ulcer healing.","The eradication of Helicobacter pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer is associated with a significant decrease in the basal concentrations of serum pepsinogen II measured 5 months after completion of treatment. The verification of this decrease constitutes a useful, inexpensive non invasive method to prove the eradication of H. pylori with treatment.","The NIH consensus conference in 1994 recommended that all patients with peptic ulcers should be tested and treated for Helicobacter pylori. Recent studies have shown that the eradication of H. pylori is associated with a significant reduction in the relapse rate of peptic ulcers, but there are few reports about long-term outcome. To evaluate the relapse rate of peptic ulcer in the long-term follow-up of patients after H. pylori eradication therapy. Patients infected with H. pylori (445; 88 duodenal ulcer, 357 gastric ulcer) were randomly divided into three groups. In group A, patients received 'conventional treatment' including acid decreasing therapy with a histamine H2-receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor (PPI). In group B, patients received 'dual therapy' including one antibiotic plus acid-decreasing therapy. In group C, patients received 'triple therapy' with PPI plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin. Eradication of H. pylori infection was assessed by histology of biopsy specimens from both the antrum and body corpus at 4 weeks, and 6 and 12 months after stopping therapy. Endoscopy was performed at intervals of 6 months for 5 years. Intention-to-treat eradication rates for the duodenal ulcer patients were 0% for group A, 46% for group B and 80% for group C; eradication rates for the gastric ulcer patients were 0%, 33% and 83% respectively. No recurrence was noted in the duodenal ulcer patients and only 4% of gastric ulcers recurred after successful eradication during follow-up for 5 years. In contrast, in patients with persistent H. pylori infection all DU and 92% of gastric ulcers recurred.","yes. One-week low-dose triple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin and metronidazole is a highly effective and well-tolerated approach to the cure of H. pylori infection in patients with a duodenal ulcer. Our data suggest that continuation of antisecretory drug therapy beyond anti-H. pylori therapy is actually excessive regarding relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers.","Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) monotherapy is commonly continued for 3 weeks after Helicobacter pylori eradication with PPI-based triple therapy regimens to ensure duodenal ulcer (DU) healing. This randomized, double-blind, multicentre study evaluated whether only 1 week of triple therapy with the new PPI esomeprazole was sufficient to ensure high rates of ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. A total of 446 H. pylori-positive patients with active DU received twice daily treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg (n = 222) or omeprazole 20 mg (n = 224) in combination with amoxicillin 1 g and clarithromycin 500 mg for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). Patients in the OAC group then received 3 weeks' monotherapy with omeprazole 20 mg once daily; those treated with EAC received placebo. Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy on completion of therapy and H. pylori status was assessed by (13)C-urea breath testing and histology 4-6 weeks later. Ulcer healing rates (95% CI) for intention-to-treat and per-protocol populations were: EAC + placebo 91% (87-95%) and 94% (90-97%); OAC + omeprazole 92% (88-95%) and 96% (92-98%). Corresponding H. pylori eradication rates were: EAC + placebo 86% (81-90%) and 89% (84-93%); OAC + omeprazole 88% (83-92%) and 90% (85-93%). Both eradication regimens were well tolerated, and patient compliance was high.","To compare the efficacy of two protocols for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection and the healing of active duodenal ulcer: (i) ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) plus two antibiotics for 7 days, and (ii) the same triple therapy followed by 3 weeks of anti-secretory drug treatment. The study comprised 102 patients with active duodenal ulcer and H. pylori infection; the patients were randomized to open treatment with either RBC 400 mg b.d. plus amoxycillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 7 days, or the same treatment followed by 3 weeks of RBC 400 mg b.d. alone. Ulcer healing was confirmed by endoscopy. H. pylori eradication was assessed by endoscopy, rapid urease test and histology. The ulcer healed in 48/50 patients on RBC-based triple therapy alone (96.0%) and in 51/52 patients on triple therapy plus further anti-secretory treatment (98.1%). On an intention-to-treat basis, H. pylori had been successfully eradicated in 42/50 patients on triple therapy (84.0%) and in 44/52 patients on triple therapy plus anti-secretory treatment (84.6%), while by per protocol analysis the H. pylori eradication rates were 91.3% (42/46) and 89.8% (44/49), respectively.","yes. Esomeprazole-based triple therapy for 1 week is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori infection in duodenal ulcer disease, offers comparable efficacy to omeprazole-based therapy, and is well tolerated.","Two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin, without continuation of antisecretive therapy, is better, although the difference is not statistically significant, than one-week treatment in healing Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer disease. The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the most important factor related to ulcer healing.","yes. Pantoprazole-based triple therapy, with either 1 or 2 weeks of co-therapy with amoxycillin and clarithromycin, is effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulceration.","yes. Eradication of H. pylori significantly reduces the relapse of duodenal ulcer after simple closure of perforation. Anti H. pylori therapy must be recommended for all H. pylori positive patients after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer.","yes. One-week triple therapy with RBC, amoxycillin and clarithromycin is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers, even if not followed by anti-secretory drug treatment.","Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer (DU) relapse, but it remains uncertain whether eradication of H. pylori alone heals duodenal ulceration.AIM: To test the hypothesis that eradication of H. pylori infection is accompanied by healing of duodenal ulcer. A total of 115 consecutive patients with endoscopically confirmed H. pylori-infected duodenal ulcer were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group BTC patients received a 1-week course of colloidal bismuth subcitrate 220 mg b.d., tinidazole 500 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. Group OBTC patients received omeprazole 20 mg daily for 4 weeks with the BTC regimen during the first week. Endoscopy with antral biopsies and 13C-urea breath test (UBT) were performed before and 4 weeks after completion of the 7-day triple or quadruple therapy. Eight patients dropped out (four in BTC and four in OBTC). Duodenal ulcer healing rates on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 86% (95% CI: 77-95%) and 90% (95% CI: 82-98%), respectively. The eradication rates of H. pylori on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 88% (95% CI: 79-96%) and 91% (95% CI: 84-99%), respectively. There were no statistically significant differences in ulcer healing rates and eradication rates between these two groups (P>0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.","To compare healing of Helicobacter pylori-related non complicated duodenal ulcer after one-week eradication triple therapy alone and after triple therapy with further 3-weeks antisecretory treatment with ranitidine. Three hundred and forty three patients with symptomatic H. pylori positive duodenal ulcer were included in this randomized double-blind placebo controlled study. H. pylori infection was established by rapid urease test and histopathology of antral biopsies. All patients were treated for one week with ranitidine 300 mg b.i.d., amoxicillin 1 g b.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., and then randomly treated for the following 3 weeks either with ranitidine 300 mg once daily (triple therapy + ranitidine, n =180) or placebo (triple therapy alone, n =163). Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy 4 weeks after inclusion. H. pylori eradication was established by (13) C-urea breath testing 5 weeks after the end of triple therapy. In intention to treat, duodenal ulcer healed at 4 weeks in 86 % of patients treated with triple therapy + ranitidine and in 83 % of patients treated with triple therapy alone (equivalence: 90 % CI [-3. 8 %; 9.2 %]). The H. pylori eradication rates were 67 % and 69 % respectively. Ulcer healed in 88 % of patients in whom H. pylori eradication was achieved and in 77 % of patients in whom eradication failed.","A prospective study of 92 duodenal ulcer patients (diagnosed by endoscopy) with H. pylori infection demonstrated by rapid urease test, positive histology and culture. They were treated with a 7-day regimen of lansoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin. Healing was evaluated in a follow-up gastroscopy performed one month after treatment had finished. Eradication was defined as negative urease test, histology and culture at 30 days and negative urea breath test at 60 days. Duodenal ulcer healing was observed in 85 patients (92.4%, CI 85-96.9). Eradication of H. pylori infection was the only variable independently associated with ulcer healing. Healing was observed in 97.2% of patients with H. pylori eradication versus 75% of those with persistent infection (p<0.01; OR = 11.6; CI 95% = 2.06-65.9).","yes. Both regimens were highly effective in healing ulcers. The eradication of H. pylori infection was associated with more side-effects and poor compliance but was more effective than the maintenance therapy in reducing the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. For the prevention of ulcer recurrence, testing of H. pylori status after triple therapy is more important than maintenance therapy.","no. These results demonstrate that one-week triple therapy alone is highly effective in healing non complicated H. pylori associated duodenal ulcer without additional antisecretory treatment.","BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly.","Treatment with an antibiotic only regimen was effective for the healing of duodenal ulcer, and clearance as well as eradication of H pylori contributed significantly to the healing. The results constituted the strongest evidence to date that H pylori infection was aetiologically related to duodenal ulceration, and support the concept of treating duodenal ulcer associated with H pylori as an infection and relieving its symptoms with acid reducing agents such as antacids.","Eliminating H. pylori infection favors duodenal ulcer healing and, from a clinical point of view, confirmation of H. pylori eradication almost always means healing of duodenal ulcer."],"string":"[\n \"Helicobacter pylori eradication decreases ulcer recurrence and should prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. By meta-analysis, to compare treatment of H. pylori infection with other approaches to prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage and, by cost minimization analysis, to determine the least costly strategy. We searched for randomized, controlled trials comparing treatment of H. pylori infection with ulcer healing alone or with maintenance therapy in preventing recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. We calculated the relative and absolute risk reductions and numbers needed to treat. Treatment of H. pylori infection decreased recurrent bleeding by 17% (numbers needed to treat=6) compared with ulcer healing treatment alone. Compared with ulcer healing treatment followed by maintenance therapy, recurrent bleeding was decreased by 4% (numbers needed to treat=25). Decision model-based cost minimization analysis demonstrated that treatment of H. pylori infection was the least costly strategy unless the incidence of complicated recurrences after treatment was over 6%, or the cost of confirming eradication was over $741.\",\n \"no. H. pylori eradication does not increase gastric acidity or gastro-oesophageal acid reflux in patients with mild to moderate reflux oesophagitis over the first 15 months.\",\n \"Eradication of H. pylori does not reduce the residual ulcer rate indicating that H. pylori infection might not be a significant risk factor for PUD in cirrhotic patients. Hence, routine H. pylori eradication might not be warranted in patients with cirrhosis and peptic ulcer disease.\",\n \"yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.\",\n \"Rabeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor which is particularly suitable for use in short-term Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment. Levofloxacin-based H. pylori eradication regimens have shown good efficacy and very few side effects. Shorter treatment and absence of significant side effects should improve compliance to therapy and increase the Hp H. pylori eradication rate. To evaluate the effectiveness of 2 rabeprazole-based H. pylori eradication regimens in an open-label, randomized study carried out in a clinical practice setting. One hundred sixty-nine consecutive, treatment-naive patients with H. pylori infection were randomized to receive rabeprazole (20 mg, bid), levofloxacin (500 mg, bid), and tinidazole (500 mg, bid) for either 4 [4-d rabeprazole, levofloxacin, tinidazole (RLT), n=85] or 7 days (7-d RLT, n=84). Before treatment, all patients underwent upper digestive endoscopy. Cure rates were assessed by means of C-urea breath test. and were compared with the eradication rate obtained with standard triple therapy in our Unit (ie, 78%) and average eradication rate reported in the literature (ie, 79%). The intention-to-treat eradication rates were 94% [87% to 98%, 95% confidence interval (CI)] and 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 7-day RLT regimens, respectively, whereas per-protocol eradication rates were 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 96% (90% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 7-day RLT. Both treatment regimens obtained significantly higher eradication rates as compared with standard triple therapy. The 4-day RLT showed significantly fewer side effects.\",\n \"To determine H. pylori eradication rate with lansoprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin treatment regimen, which is the most frequently used as first-line therapy, in the Kirikkale region. One hundred and five patients (44 male, 61 female) with H. pylori infection were included in the study. Patients were divided into two groups based on the endoscopic findings: non-ulcer dyspepsia (n=84, 31 male, 53 female) and acute gastric or duodenal ulcer (n=21, 13 male, 8 female) groups. The diagnosis of H. pylori infection was confirmed if both the urease test and histological examination, which were performed on endoscopic biopsies, were positive. Lansoprazole 30 mg, amoxicillin 1 g, and clarithromycin 500 mg were given twice daily for 14 days to all patients. Endoscopic biopsies were repeated for the evaluation of eradication three months after the treatment. Ninety-six patients completed the study. Eradication rates were found to be 45.8% (44 of 96) in all patients, 42.1% (32 of 76 patients) in the non-ulcer dyspepsia group and 60% (12 of 20 patients) in the gastric or duodenal ulcer group for per protocol analysis, and the difference between non-ulcer dyspepsia and gastric or duodenal ulcer groups was not statistically significant (p=0.208).\",\n \"yes. The proportion of patients with H pylori negative duodenal ulcers is on the rise because of a continued drop in incidence of H pylori positive duodenal ulcers in recent years. Such patients have distinct clinical characteristics and it is important to ascertain the H pylori status before starting eradication therapy.\",\n \"yes. Strategies that emphasize early H. pylori eradication were cost-effective for patients with peptic ulcer and possibly cost-effective for patients with uninvestigated dyspepsia, relative to other medical interventions. Dyspeptic symptoms cause significant disutility that should be incorporated in future cost-effectiveness analyses of treatment strategies.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori infection is common world-wide and has been linked to development of gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, and gastric lymphoma. However, antimicrobial resistance has decreased H. pylori eradication rates worldwide. This study aimed to evaluate the effect of -bacterial load on eradication rate. This prospective study included 237 consecutive patients who presented to our institution with dyspeptic symptoms and underwent both upper endoscopy and urea breath tests (UBT). The patients were divided into three equal sized groups according to their UBT values. All subjects received a standard triple eradication regimen, followed by a bismuth- based quadruple eradication regimen if triple eradication was not successful. The three groups were compared with respect to age, endoscopic findings, sex, and eradication rates. Our results were consistent with those of previous studies : higher UBT values were associated with failure of standard 14-day triple treatment (p < 0.05). However, in patients who received a quadruple eradication regimen, differences between groups were not significant (p = 0.434). There was no relationship between UBT values and gastric pathologies (p = 0.751). Age and sex also did not differ significantly between groups (p = 0.061).\",\n \"To assess whether the eradication of Helicobacter pylori leads to long-term relief of symptoms in functional dyspepsia. Eight hundred patients with functional dyspepsia were randomized to receive double-blind treatment with twice-daily 30 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L30AC), twice-daily 15 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L15AC), or once-daily 15 mg lansoprazole for 14 days (LP). Dyspepsia and reflux symptoms were monitored for 12 months. In intention-to-treat analysis, the non-ulcer dyspepsia sum score showed a statistically significant benefit in terms of symptom relief in the L30AC group (P = 0.0068) compared with the LP group, but there was no significant difference between the L15AC and LP groups (P = 0.2). When all patients in the two eradication therapy arms were considered together, successful eradication had a significant benefit with regard to the complete absence of symptoms (P < 0.04). H. pylori eradication did not lead to an increase in reflux symptoms.\",\n \"no. H. pylori eradication therapy in patients on long-term NSAID treatment had no beneficial effect on the occurrence of ulcers, erosions, or dyspepsia. Ulcer rates in both study arms are remarkably low, in both patients with and without gastroprotective therapy.\",\n \"yes. RBC in co-prescription with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. is as effective as RBC plus clarithromycin 500 t.d.s. in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers.\",\n \"1-week eradication therapy with previously described combinations commonly used in clinical practice achieves high ulcer healing rates with no complications in the period without antacid treatment. We consider that it is not necessary, at least in most patients, to prolong antacid therapy.\",\n \"We studied whether different initial bacterial densities of Helicobacter pylori would alter the eradication rate of H. pylori by triple therapy (amoxicillin 500 mg t.i.d. and metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. for 14 days; bismuth subcitrate 120 mg t.i.d. for 28 days) in patients with duodenal ulcer bleeding. One hundred thirty-six cases with duodenal ulcer bleeding and H. pylori infection (proved by rapid urease test and histology during emergency endoscopy) were studied. One hundred twenty-seven of these patients completed a course of triple therapy. In each case, anti-H. pylori IgG titer, gastric biopsies for H. pylori density (score 1 to 5), and evaluation of severity of gastritis were collected at the first endoscopy and 1 month after completion of the triple therapy. The ulcer healing rate was 84.3% (107 of 127) at the time of the second evaluation. The eradication rate of H. pylori was 76.4% (97 or 127). Eradication for H. pylori failed in 30 cases. In these eradication failure cases, initial serologic titer and density of H. pylori were higher than those of eradication success cases. The eradication rate of H. pylori decreased as the initial density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori: 1, 88.3%; 2, 83.8%; 3, 74.2%; 4, 68%; 5, 50%). At the second evaluation, the serologic titer was lower and continued to decline in eradication success cases whose mean residual titer ratio (100% x follow-up titer/initial titer) was lower than that of eradication failure cases (57.1% +/- 14.6% vs 107.1% +/- 24.1%, p < 0.001). The mean residual titer ratio also disclosed an upward trend as the density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori 1 to 5: 57.5%, 66.6%, 73.5%, 75.3%, 81.8%, respectively).\",\n \"There have been few reliable published studies permitting assessment of therapeutic regimens for Helicobacter pylori infection in gastric ulcer (GU) patients. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the efficacy of omeprazole-based dual and triple therapy regimens, both including clarithromycin, for the cure of H. pylori infection in active GU and duodenal ulcer (DU) patients. The study was conducted in Japan, a country in which GU is more prevalent than DU. Two hundred and thirty-four consecutive peptic ulcer patients (GU: n = 124; DU: n = 103; GDU: n = 7) suffering from H. pylori infection were randomly treated with either omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + amoxicillin 500 mg q.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OAC) or with omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OC) for 14 days. H. pylori infection was evaluated by histology and culture from antral and corpus biopsies 6 weeks after completing antimicrobial therapy. Follow-up data were available in 202 patients. The cure rates of H. pylori infection in GU patients were 83.9% (47/56) with OAC and 59. 2% (29/49) with OC. Corresponding rates in DU patients were 91.5% (43/47) and 70.5% (31/44), respectively. The cure rates with OAC were significantly higher than those with OC (p < 0.001, chi2 test). The cure rates in GU patients were lower than those in DU patients for both regimens, but these differences were not statistically significant. Side effects were generally mild and did not interfere with compliance. One patient in the OAC group and 2 patients in the OC group complained of severe side effects that led to therapy discontinuation.\",\n \"yes. Triple therapy with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin is a safe and effective regimen for the cure of H. pylori infection in GU patients as well as in DU patients. We recommend this triple regimen as a first-line treatment in all patients with peptic ulcers associated with H. pylori infection in Japan.\",\n \"yes. Cluster analysis of REP-PCR DNA fingerprints of H. pylori strains suggests that duodenal ulcer isolates, as a group, are more similar to one another and different from gastritis isolates. These results suggest that disease-specific strains may exist.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to determine the efficacy of a 1-week low-dose proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy without further acid suppression for cure of Helicobacter pylori infection and the ulcer healing in peptic ulcer disease. Patients with endoscopically proven peptic ulcers who were H. pylori positive participated in this study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and tinidazole 500 mg b.d., then patients were treated randomly for another 4 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily (OCM-O group; n = 40) or without acid suppressing agents (OCM group; n = 39). Patients were investigated endoscopically for H. pylori and ulcer status before treatment, four weeks (week 5) and 8 weeks later (week 9) after anti-H. pylori treatment. H. pylori infection was assessed by rapid urease test and histology. The eradication rates of H. pylori were 72.5% (95% CI: 59-86%) and 76.3% (95% CI: 63-90%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM-O group and were 87.2% (95% CI: 77-98%) and 97.1% (95% CI: 92-100%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM group (p < 0.05 in per protocol analysis). In respect to ulcer healing status at week 5, 89.5% (34/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 80% (28/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers; at week 9, 86.8% (33/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 88.6% (31/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers (p = NS). When the ulcer status was analyzed in relation to the H. pylori status, at week 5 ulcer had healed in 84.4% (54/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and in 88.9% (8/9) of those with persistent infection. At week 9, ulcer healing increased up to 93.8% (60/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and decreased to 44.4% (4/9) of patients with persistent infection. The adverse events (20%) were mild in these two treatment groups and no patients required discontinuation of the study medications.\",\n \"To compare the efficacy of one-week versus two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin in inducing healing of Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcers as well as to investigate the role of several factors, determinant in the ulcer healing process. Seventy-one active duodenal ulcer patients were randomised to receive one- or two-week treatment with lansoprazole (30 mg bid), clarithromycin (500 mg bid) and amoxycillin (1 g bid), not followed by any additional acid suppressive therapy. Ulcer healing and Helicobacter pylori infection were assessed by endoscopy and urea breath test 4 weeks after the end of treatment. Before entering the trial and four weeks after the end of treatment, dyspeptic symptoms were recorded and scored by a validated questionnaire. The potential effects of a number of clinical variables on the ulcer healing process were evaluated by means of univariate and multivariate analyses. Duodenal ulcer was healed in 80.5% patients treated for one week and in 91.4% patients treated for 2 weeks according to intention-to-treat analysis (p=NS). Ulcer healing was more frequent in the Helicobacter pylori cured patients compared to those with persisting infection (90.9% vs 68.5%; p=0.04). Multivariate analysis did not reveal any significant predictor of duodenal ulcer healing.\",\n \"In patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer, a 7-day triple therapy alone is sufficient to control the disease.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the major causes of gastroduodenal ulcers. Studies on the benefit of eradication of H. pylori in NSAID users yielded conflicting results. To investigate whether H. pylori eradication in patients on long-term NSAIDs reduces the incidence of gastroduodenal ulcers. Patients on long-term NSAID treatment and who are H. pylori positive on serologic testing, were randomly assigned to either H. pylori eradication (omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin) or placebo. Primary endpoint was the presence of endoscopic gastric or duodenal ulcers 3 months after randomization. One hundred sixty-five (48%) of a total of 347 patients were on gastroprotective medication. At endoscopy, gastroduodenal ulcers were diagnosed in 6 (4%) and 8 (5%) patients in the eradication and placebo group, respectively (p = .65). During follow-up of 12 months, no symptomatic ulcers or ulcer complications developed. No significant differences were found in the development of gastroduodenal erosions, dyspepsia, or in quality of life.\",\n \"No randomized double-blind studies have been performed to compare clarithromycin 1 g/day with higher doses of the macrolide (1.5 g/day) when combined with ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC). To compare H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates of RBC 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks combined for the first 2 weeks either with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. (Group A) or clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. (Group B). Two hundred and seventy-three patients with H. pylori-positive active duodenal ulcer were included. H. pylori infection was detected by CLO-test and histology on antral and corpus biopsies before and at least 4 weeks after the end of therapy. Eradication was assumed if both CLO-test and histology results were negative for H. pylori. Eradication/healing rates according to intention-to-treat and per protocol analysis were 76/82% and 87/92% for Group A and 78/85% and 88/95% for Group B, respectively (P = N.S.). Adverse events were reported by 7% and 12% of patients in Groups A and B, respectively, and they were generally mild.\",\n \"Ten years of extensive Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) eradication in symptomatic patients led to a significant reduction in peptic ulcer prevalence. This reduction was particularly evident in Padova, where a project for the sensibilization of H pylori eradication among general practioners was carried out between 1990 and 1992. Should our hypothesis be true, H pylori eradication might in the future lead to peptic ulcer as a rare endoscopic finding.\",\n \"To compare the efficacy of the coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus the antibiotic clarithromycin, with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone or clarithromycin alone for the healing of duodenal ulcers, eradication of H. pylori and the reduction of ulcer recurrence. This two-phase, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicentre study consisted of a 4-week treatment phase followed by a 24-week post-treatment observation phase. Patients with an active duodenal ulcer were treated with either ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for first 2 weeks; placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; or placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks. Ulcer healing rates after 4 weeks of treatment were highest with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (82%) followed by ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (74%; P = 0.373), clarithromycin alone (73%; P = 0.33) and placebo (52%; P = 0.007). Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin provided significantly better ulcer symptom relief compared with clarithromycin alone or placebo (P < 0.05). The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin resulted in significantly higher H. pylori eradication rates 4 weeks post-treatment (82%) than did treatment with either ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (0%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (36%; P = 0.008) or placebo (0%; P < 0.001). Ulcer recurrence rates 24 weeks post-treatment were lower following treatment with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (21%) compared with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (86%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (40%; P = 0.062) or placebo (88%; P = 0.006). All treatments were well tolerated.\",\n \"To study the efficacy of a 2-week anti-Helicobacter therapy in the healing of H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Omeprazole 20 mg, clarithromycin 500 mg and amoxycillin 1 g, twice daily, were given for 2 weeks to 180 patients with H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Endoscopy was repeated 4 weeks after the eradication therapy to assess healing of the peptic ulcers. Repeat endoscopies were performed in 168 patients (42 gastric ulcer and 126 duodenal ulcer) who followed the protocol. Thirty-eight patients with bleeding gastric ulcers and 124 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcers healed 4 weeks after treatment (per protocol analysis; gastric ulcer: 91% vs. duodenal ulcer: 98%; P=0. 035). No patients who were compliant to the study medications suffered from re-bleeding. Stepwise discriminant analysis demonstrated that small ulcers (< 15 mm) and the presence of duodenal ulcers best predicted healing of the peptic ulcers.\",\n \"yes. Although eradicating H. pylori is not likely to relieve symptoms in the majority of patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia, a small proportion of H. pylori-infected patients may benefit from eradication treatment.\",\n \"Antimicrobial resistance has decreased eradication rates for Helicobacter pylori infection, and recent reports from different countries report eradication rates lower than 80% with triple therapy. The aim of this pilot study was to investigate the efficacy of standard triple eradication regimen in long-term aspirin users. The study population consisted of 77 aspirin using patients with dyspeptic symptoms and 79 age- and sex-matched dyspeptic patients without aspirin use as a control group. Both the study group and control patients were given lansoprazole (30 mg twice a day), clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day) and amoxicillin (1 g twice a day) (LCA) for 14 days as the eradication regimen. Patients on the study group were allowed to take aspirin during the eradication regimen (LCAAsp). Eradication was defined as the absence of H pylori as assessed with the C-urea breath test and H pylori stool antigen test 8 weeks after the end of the antimicrobial therapy. The H pylori eradication rate in the LCAAsp group was 64/77 [83%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 79%-94%] with intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis and 64/75 (85%, 95% CI: 82%-96%) with per protocol (PP) analysis, and the H pylori eradication rate in the LCA group was 42/79 (53%, 95% CI: 43%-65%) with ITT analysis and 42/75 (56%, 95% CI: 46%-68%) with PP analysis. The difference between the groups both with ITT analysis and with PP analysis was statistically significant (P<0.05).\",\n \"yes. This study shows that eradication of H. pylori results in a significant long-term reduction in symptoms of non-ulcer dyspepsia.\",\n \"Mouthrinse treatment alone or combined with periodontal treatment can, to some extent, reduce the prevalence of oral H. pylori and improve the eradication rate of gastric H. pylori.\",\n \"Successful eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection clearly modifies the natural history of peptic ulcer disease and prevents further recurrences of duodenal and gastric ulcers. However, there are few prospective studies about actual rates of rebleeding after H. pylori eradication, a highly relevant aspect of management as re-infection, relapse of ulcer disease for other reasons (i.e. anti-inflammatory agents) or idiopathic ulcers unrelated to H. pylori may develop and cause further bleeding episodes. To determine the incidence of bleeding episodes after eradication of H. pylori infection in patients who had bled from an H. pylori-positive peptic ulcer. H. pylori-positive patients who bled from a gastric or duodenal ulcer were treated with appropriate triple and/or quadruple therapy. H. pylori eradication was confirmed by urea breath test 4 weeks after treatment. Patients received no further treatment but were followed clinically and additional urea breath tests were performed every 6 months. Endoscopy with antral and corpus biopsies and urea breath test were repeated as soon as patients manifested any dyspeptic symptoms that might signal recurrence. A total of 103 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcer were included in the study; H. pylori was successfully eradicated in 93 of these patients, who were followed for a median interval of 27 months. The yearly re-infection rate was calculated to be 0.6%. There were no instances of rebleeding in any patients during the follow-up period.\",\n \"Triple therapies were safe and effective for H. pylori eradication in Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer patients. Dual therapy was significantly less effective in the Japanese patients, half of whom had a history of GU and more abnormal histology than in the Swedish patients, all of whom had DU.\",\n \"yes. Eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of peptic ulcers in the patients with 'ulcer-like' functional dyspepsia. However, this approach does not significantly reduce the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients.\",\n \"Despite the widely accepted view that Helicobacter pylori is the most important cause of peptic ulcer disease, recent studies have suggested that the microbe protects against nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-associated gastroduodenal lesions and promotes ulcer healing. We investigated the effects of H. pylori eradication on the healing of NSAID-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Chronic NSAID users presenting with peptic ulcer haemorrhage underwent endoscopy to secure haemostasis and to document H. pylori infection by rapid urease test and culture. They were prospectively randomized to receive either omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks or a 1-week course of triple therapy (bismuth subcitrate 120 mg, tetracycline 500 mg, metronidazole 400 mg, all given four times daily) plus omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated after 8 weeks. Final H. pylori status was determined by a 13C-urea breath test that was performed at least 4 weeks after discontinuation of omeprazole. 195 H. pylori-infected NSAID users, complicated by bleeding ulcers, were randomized to receive omeprazole alone (102) or triple therapy plus omeprazole (93). 174 patients returned for second endoscopy at 8 weeks (91 in the omeprazole group, 83 in the triple therapy group). Urea breath test was negative in 14% in the omeprazole group vs. 92% in the triple therapy group (P<0.001). Complete ulcer healing was achieved in 88 (97%) patients in the omeprazole group and 77 (93%) in the triple therapy group (P=0. 31). On intention-to-treat analysis, ulcers were healed in 86% of the omeprazole group and 83% of the triple therapy group (P=0.50). There was no significant difference in the healing rates of gastric or duodenal ulcers between the two groups.\",\n \"There has been significant controversy over the relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and reflux esophagitis. We investigated the effects of eradicating H. pylori on the reflux esophagitis found in patients with peptic ulcers. Prospective posteradication evaluations were conducted yearly in 162 H. pylori-positive patients who had reflux esophagitis together with peptic ulcer disease (4 women and 158 men, mean age = 49.1 yr). The Los Angeles classification of the patients' esophagitis was: grade A, 90; grade B, 63; and grade C, 9. The follow-up evaluations began 1 to 2 months after completion of the eradication treatment (mean time of follow-up = 22 mo), and consisted of endoscopy and an interview focusing on heartburn. Six patients were withdrawn from the study because of adverse drug reactions or a failure to regularly keep their appointments. After eradication therapy, we observed endoscopically that reflux esophagitis had improved in 87 (55.8%) of the 156 patients. The improvement rate was significantly higher in patients cured of infection (60.8%) than in those with persistent H. pylori infection (38.9%) (P = 0.04). Body mass index (odds ratio = 0.86, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.76-0.97), cure of infection (3.68, 95% CI = 1.56-8.69), the absence of a hiatal hernia (3.90, 95% CI = 1.83-8.28), and an ulcer located in the duodenum (2.75, 95% CI = 1.33-5.70) were identified as significant independent factors for the improvement of reflux esophagitis.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy of 3-day intravenous Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy in patients with bleeding peptic ulcer associated with H. pylori infection. We studied 53 patients admitted to hospital with bleeding of the upper gastrointestinal tract due to peptic ulcer and positive urease test over a 12-month period. After endoscopic diagnosis, intravenous pantoprazole (40 mg/12 hours), metronidazole (500 mg/8 hours) and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (1,000 mg/200 mg/8 hours) was administered for 72 hours. The efficacy of eradication therapy was evaluated by 13C-urea breath test at least 2 months after the end of treatment. Fifty-one patients were included. Of these, 40 had duodenal ulcer and 11 had gastric ulcer. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 87.5% of those with duodenal ulcers and in 63.6% of those with gastric ulcers (p = 0.066). No adverse reactions or episodes of bleeding recurrence were found and none of the patients withdrew from treatment.\",\n \"yes. Our results demonstrate that the association of acid suppression, obtained with 2 week ranitidine administration with OTT improved ulcer healing but did not enhance H. pylori eradication.\",\n \"The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and non-ulcer dyspepsia is not established. To determine whether eradication of H. pylori might be of benefit in non-ulcer dyspepsia patients. We randomly assigned 129 H. pylori infected patients with severe epigastric pain, without gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, to receive twice daily treatment with 300 mg of ranitidine, 1000 mg of amoxicillin, and 500 mg of clarithromycin for 7 days and 124 such patients to receive identical-appearing placebos. Treatment was successful (decrease of symptoms at 12 months) in 62% of patients in the active-treatment group and in 60% of the placebo group (N.S.). At 12 months, the rate of eradication of H. pylori was 69% in the active-treatment group and 18% in the placebo group (P < 0.001). Complete relief of symptoms occurred significantly more frequently in patients on the active treatment (43%) than in placebo-treated patients (31%, P=0.048). Within the active-treatment group, therapeutic success was significantly more frequent in the non-infected patients (84% vs. 64%, P=0.04).\",\n \"As a consequence of gastric histological differences, Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer (PU) patients may respond differently to Helicobacter pylori eradication therapies. The study was single-blind and compared four eradication therapies in Japanese and Swedish patients with healed gastric (GU) or duodenal (DU) ulcer. Swedish patients received either (a) omeprazole+clarithromycin (OC, where O = 20 mg, C = 500 mg) for 2 weeks, or triple therapy with (b) omeprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin (OAC-L where O = 20mg, A = 1 g, C = 250 mg); (c) OAC-H (where O = 20 mg, A-1 g, C-500 mg); or (d) omeprazole + metronidazole + clarithromycin (OMC, where O = 20 mg, M = 400 mg, C = 250 mg) for 1 week. Antibiotic doses were weight-adjusted downwards in Japanese patients. H. pylori was assessed using the urea breath test (UBT), histology and culture pre-entry, with UBT being repeated 4 and 8 weeks after stopping treatment. Histology and culture were repeated if the UBT was positive post-therapy. Recruitment included 120 patients from Japan (43 GU, 61 DU, 16 GU+DU) and 120 from Sweden (119 DU, 1 GU+DU). There were 26 exclusions from a FAS analysis due to H. pylori negativity (14), no drug administration (7) or no data after visit 1 (5). Eradication rates (FAS) from Japan were (a) 63%, (b) 93%, (c) 96% or (d) 96%, and for Sweden (a) 92%, (b) 86%, (c) 93% or (d) 96%. Dual therapy was less effective in patients with gastric atrophy associated with GU disease. Tolerability was good in all treatment groups, with no serious adverse events.\",\n \"Although the 'test-and-treat' strategy is suggested as first-line therapy for uninvestigated dyspepsia, no large-scale studies in a real-life setting are available. 1552 dyspeptic patients aged between 25 and 60 with no alarm symptoms were recruited to the study. After screening with a 13C-urea breath test, they were randomized into three treatment arms: Helicobacter pylori-positive either to eradication therapy with OAM (omeprazole, amoxycillin and metronidazole) (Hp+/erad) or omeprazole 20 mg daily (Hp+/ome) for 10 days, whereas H. pylori-negative patients (Hp-/ome) were treated with 20 mg omeprazole for 10 days. Gastrointestinal symptoms were registered at baseline at 1 and 2 years on the Gastrointestinal Symptom Rating Scale (GSRS) and quality of life with the Psychological General Well-Being index (PGWB). Additional visits, referrals for and number of endoscopies and their findings were registered during the 2 years' follow-up. Of the 1552 patients, 583 were H. pylori-positive (37.6%), and 288 of these were randomized for omeprazole and 295 to OAM. The Hp-/ome group had fewer general practitioner (GP) contacts (P<0.0001) than the H. pylori-positive groups. Eradication therapy significantly improved general well-being and reduced upper gastrointestinal symptoms: abdominal pain (P=0.0001), heartburn (P=0.0061), acid regurgitation (P=0.003), hunger pain (P=0.009), especially in Hp+/erad. Peptic ulcer was found in 6.2%, 1.0%, 0.2% in Hp+/ome, Hp-+/erad and Hp-/ome, respectively (P=0.0007). Only 3 patients (1.0%) developed peptic ulcers in Hp-+/erad, all eradication failures.\",\n \"Our results indicate that treatment of HP infection by eradication regimen (triple therapy only) is not enough to prevent recurrence of ulcer in the Jordanian population. Thus, we recommend maintenance acid suppression following standard H. pylori eradication regimen to maintain remission.\",\n \"yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection by triple therapy significantly and equally reduces UAS in CU patients with positive and negative ASST.\",\n \"yes. In patients with peptic ulcer bleeding a 3-day anti-Helicobacter pylori therapy is a good alternative for eradicating Helicobacter pylori infection.\",\n \"yes. While Italian primary care physicians appropriately target eradication therapy for H pylori infection in patients with peptic ulcer disease rather than nonulcer disease, the intervention was still underused in these patients. Improvements in this prescribing behavior are needed.\",\n \"To evaluate whether the addition of 2 weeks of ranitidine to a 1-week oral triple therapy (OTT) regimen improved ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. Two hundred and eleven consecutive patients with an endoscopic diagnosis of active duodenal ulcer (DU) and a positive antrum biopsy for H. pylori were enrolled. Those attending the Hospital Vera Cruz (Group A, n=142) received a 14-day course of ranitidine (150 mg after breakfast and dinner) plus a 1-week OTT, consisting of bismuth subcitrate, (240 mg after the 3 meals), tetracycline (500 mg, 10 min before the three meals and at bedtime), and furazolidone (200 mg after breakfast and dinner). Patients from the Hospital das Clinicas (Group B, n=69) received the same OTT as Group A but without ranitidine. Patients underwent endoscopy again on average 40 days (range: 30-60 days) after completing therapy in order to assess ulcer healing and H. pylori status. Both schedules were equally efficient in eradicating H. pylori with 90% (128/142) eradication in group A, and 84% (58/69) in group B (p=0.2). In contrast, the addition of ranitidine to OTT improved ulcer healing when compared with OTT alone (96%, 137/142, vs. 70%, 48/69; p<0.001).\",\n \"In Helicobacter pylori infection, the effect of short-term triple therapy with proton pump inhibitor plus two antibiotics on gastric ulcer healing is not well known.AIM: To compare 1-week triple therapy with 8-week proton pump inhibitor therapy on gastric ulcer healing in infected patients. We randomly assigned 120 patients with H. pylori and gastric ulcers to proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 1 week (n = 61) or proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks (n = 59), with endoscopic assessment of ulcer healing 8 weeks after the start of treatment. Triple therapy eradicated H. pylori in 51 patients [intention-to-treat, 84%; 95% confidence interval (CI), 75-93%]. At 8 weeks, gastric ulcers were healed in 30 patients given triple therapy (49%; 95% CI, 37-62%) and in 49 patients given proton pump inhibitor (83%; 95% CI, 73-93%, P<0.001). Healing rates in the triple therapy and proton pump inhibitor-only groups were 89% and 100%, respectively, for ulcers of<1.0 cm in diameter, 54% and 77% for ulcers of 1.0 to<1.5 cm in diameter, and 5% and 77% (P<0.001) for ulcers of>or = 1.5 cm in diameter.\",\n \"To evaluate whether antral biopsies are enough for confirming Helicobacter pylori eradication with the \\\"new\\\" one week triple therapies with omeprazole. 229 duodenal ulcer patients were treated with omeprazole for 7 days plus two antibiotics. Eradication was confirmed with histology (two biopsies from both gastric antrum and body) and 13C-urea breath test one month after the end of therapy. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 76.9% of the patients (95% CI: 71-82%). Histology at antrum was highly reliable to detect eradication failure: in all but in one case in which H. pylori was observed at gastric body, was the microogranism also observed at antrum. Infection prevalences at both locations were not homogeneous (McNemar: 6.4; p < 0.05). Concordance between antral biopsies and breath test for H. pylori diagnosis after therapy was excellent (kappa: 0.91; SE: 0.07), and both prevalences were homogeneous (McNemar: 1.3; p > 0.05).\",\n \"yes. Two-week therapies, independently of antibiotic combination, lead to a significant increase of H. pylori eradication rate compared to 1-week therapies, with same compliance and tolerability, even if, taking account of low-eradication rates, one must question whether the triple therapy should still be used.\",\n \"yes. Ulcer-healing drugs should be continued after a 2-week course of omeprazole-containing anti-Helicobacter therapy for gastric ulcers and large peptic ulcers that have bled, but can be omitted in most patients with a bleeding duodenal ulcer.\",\n \"To evaluate whether omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 12 days is more effective for Helicobacter pylori eradication than the same regimen for only 6 days; and to verify whether these eradication regimens are more effective in peptic ulcer disease than in non-ulcer dyspepsia. We studied 411 patients in whom a gastroscopy was carried out due to symptoms related to the upper gastrointestinal tract and who were diagnosed with duodenal ulcer (175 patients, 43%), gastric ulcer (42 patients, 10%), or non-ulcer dyspepsia (194 patients, 47%), and concomitant infection by H. pylori. At endoscopy, biopsies were obtained for rapid urease test, and a 13C-urea breath test was carried out. Urea breath test was repeated four weeks after completing eradication treatment with 1) omeprazole (20 mg b.i.d.), amoxicillin (1 g b.i.d.) and clarithromycin (500 mg b.i.d.) for six days (239 patients), or 2) the same regimen for 12 days (172 patients). H. pylori eradication was achieved in 73.6% (95% CI, 68-79%) of the patients treated during 6 days, and in 84.3% (79-90%) of those receiving 12 days of therapy (P<0.01). The overall eradication rate with both regimens (6 plus 12 days), respectively in patients with duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia, was 84.6% (79-90%), 75.6% (61-86%), and 72.8% (67-79%) (P<0.01 when comparing duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia). Twelve-day regimen was more effective than 6-day regimen only in non-ulcer dyspepsia (62% vs. 83%, P<0.01), but not in duodenal or gastric ulcer. In the multivariate analysis the duration (6 vs. 12 days) of eradication therapy (odds ratio: 2.2; 1.3-3.7) and the type of disease (duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia; odds ratio: 2.3; 1.3-3.8) were the only variables which influenced on H. pylori eradication efficacy (chi 2 model, 17; P<0.001).\",\n \"Esomeprazole is the first proton pump inhibitor to be developed as an optical isomer for the treatment of acid-related diseases. Four hundred and forty eight duodenal ulcer patients with Helicobacter pylori infection, confirmed by 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and no current ulcer, were randomised to double-blind treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg twice daily (b.d.) (n=224) or omeprazole 20 mg b.d. (n=224), in combination with amoxicillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). A negative UBT at both 4 and 8 weeks after completing therapy indicated successful H. pylori eradication. Intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis comprised 400 patients (EAC, n=204; OAC, n=196) and per protocol (PP) analysis 377 patients (EAC, n=192; OAC, n=185). Eradication rates (95% confidence intervals) for ITT and PP populations were: EAC, 90% (85-94%) and 91% (86-94%); OAC, 88% (82-92%) and 91% (86-95%). Between-group differences in eradication rates were not statistically significant. Both regimens were well tolerated, with an adverse event profile and frequency typical of proton pump inhibitor plus antibiotic combination therapy.\",\n \"Omeprazole is less effective in healthy subjects than in patients with duodenal ulcers. The aim of this study was to determine whether Helicobacter pylori augments the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole in patients with duodenal ulcers. In 16 patients with duodenal ulcers, baseline intragastric acidity was measured before and 4-6 weeks after the cure of H. pylori infection. In 17 patients with duodenal ulcers, 24-hour pH metry was performed during treatment with 20 mg omeprazole once daily before as well as after eradication of H. pylori. Intragastric acidity was measured using a glass electrode placed 5 cm below the cardia. H. pylori infection was assessed by [13C] urea breath test, culture, histology, and rapid urease test. H. pylori eradication resulted in marked decrease of the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole (24-hour median gastric pH, 5.5 vs. 3.0; P<0.002) that was most pronounced during nighttime (median gastric pH, 6.4 vs. 2.1; P=0.001). On the other hand, baseline intragastric pH remained unchanged after eradication (median gastric pH, 1.0 vs. 1.1; P=0.5).\",\n \"One-hundred and four patients (mean age: 49 +/- 16 years, 67% males) attended at four general hospitals in Spain, who had a duodenal ulcer demonstrated by endoscopy. These patients were infected with H. pylori demonstrated by urease test and histologic methods, and in 32 by a breath test and 18 by culture. Omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. plus amoxycillin 1 gr b.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated 1 month after completing therapy, and the aforementioned diagnostic methods were performed again. Eradication was achieved in 29% of cases (n = 30). In multiple logistic regression analysis, duration of ulcer disease was the only variable which correlated with success in H. pylori eradication (chi(2) = 7.2; p = 0.02). Additional variables (age, sex, smoking, pre-treatment with omeprazole, AINEs or H2 antagonist, ulcer size, and antral histologic gastritis) were not correlated with H. pylori eradication. Ulcer healing was demonstrated in 80% of patients (n = 83), and the healing rate was higher when eradication was achieved (97%) than in H. pylori-positive patients (73%) (p<0.01). Compliance was good in all cases. No adverse effects were observed.\",\n \"yes. In patients with duodenal ulcers treated with omeprazole, intragastric pH depends significantly on the presence or absence of H. pylori, whereas baseline pH remained unchanged after H. pylori eradication.\",\n \"Treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer relapse. It has not been established if treatment of the infection heals duodenal ulcer.AIM: To test the hypothesis that treatment of the infection was associated with healing of duodenal ulcer. A randomised, double blind placebo controlled trial was performed to study the efficacy of an antibiotic only regimen consisting of 300 mg metronidazole, 500 mg amoxycillin, and 250 mg clarithromycin, each given four times daily for two weeks, in the healing of duodenal ulcer as assessed by endoscopy. Symptoms were controlled with acetaminophen and antacids. Of 100 consecutive patients with endoscopically established duodenal ulcer, 97 with positive rapid urease test on antral biopsy specimens were admitted into the study and 81 completed the trial. Of these, 40 were randomised to receive antibiotics and 41 to receive placebo. Treatment with antibiotics resulted in 92.5% (95% confidence interval (95% CI) 84.3-100) healing at four weeks and 100% at eight and 12 weeks; the corresponding healing rates for placebo treatment were respectively, 36.6%, 61%, and 63.4% (95% CIs 21.8-51.3, 46.0-75.9, and 48.7-78.2 respectively). The differences between the two treatment groups were significant at p<0.001 at each time point and by life table analysis. Clearance of H pylori as assessed by urease test on antral biopsy specimens at four weeks and eradication of the organism as determined by 13C-urea breath test at eight weeks were achieved in 85% and 62.5% of patients respectively. Duodenal ulcer healed at four weeks in 87.2% and 86.2% (95% CIs 76.7-97.7 and 73.7-98.8) of patients in whom H pylori clearance or eradication, was achieved, versus 42.9% and 51.9% (95% CIs 27.9-57.8 and 38.3-65.5; p<0.001 and<0.003 respectively) in whom these processes failed. Stepwise discriminant analysis on 32 clinical, personal, and endoscopic characteristics as well as H pylori clearance and eradication identified H pylori clearance as the most discriminative variable for the healing of duodenal ulcer at four weeks, followed by ulcer depth and eradication of the organism.\",\n \"Experience with proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy is predominantly with omeprazole-containing regimens. To investigate the efficacy of a pantoprazole-based regimen, with either a 1 or 2-week course of antibiotic co-therapy, in eradicating H. pylori, healing duodenal ulcers and to assess the antibiotic sensitivity profiles of isolated H. pylori strains. A single-blind, multicentre, parallel group comparison of patients with endoscopically proven, H. pylori associated, active duodenal ulceration. All patients received pantoprazole, 40 mg b.d. for 2 weeks. Patients were randomized to receive either 1 or 2 weeks of therapy with amoxycillin, 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. Patients were endoscoped at entry, at 14 days and a minimum of 4 weeks after cessation of all therapy. H. pylori status was determined by urease reaction, histological assessment and culture from antral and body biopsies. Antibiotic sensitivity was determined using the agar dilution technique. Sixty-seven patients were randomized. One week co-therapy (n=33): eradication efficacy, ITT= 79% (95% CI: 61-91%); ulcer healing efficacy (at 6-week visit)=88% (95% CI: 72-97%). Two-week co-therapy (n=34): eradication efficacy, ITT=91% (95% CI: 76-98%: ulcer healing efficacy= 88% (95% CI: 73-97%). Both regimens were well tolerated and no primary antibiotic resistance was noted.\",\n \"yes. Overall, H. pylori eradication therapy is more effective in PUD than in NUD patients. This advantage of eradication therapies in PUD patients seems to be observed with 7-day PPI-based triple regimens, and with 5-day RBC-based quadruple therapy, while the 7-day RBC-based triple regimen seems to be equally effective in both diseases.\",\n \"yes. Ranitidine bismuth citrate with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. provides an effective, simple and well tolerated regimen for the eradication of H. pylori and healing of duodenal ulcers.\",\n \"Efficacy with omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin regimen in patients with duodenal ulcer is higher than in those patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia. The increase of H. pylori eradication rate by 21% in our non-ulcer dyspepsia patients justifies the prolongation from 6 to 12 days of omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin therapy, whilst the increase of cure rates in duodenal or gastric ulcer patients with a 12-day therapy would not be cost-effective.\",\n \"To test the hypothesis that 1-week low-dose triple therapy for H. pylori is sufficient for relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers. Fifty-nine out-patients with duodenal ulcers and positive rapid urease test participated in this randomized, double-blind, two-centre study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and metronidazole 400 mg b.d. In a double-blind fashion, patients were then randomly treated for another 3 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily or an identical-looking placebo. Patients were investigated endoscopically before treatment for H. pylori, after 2 weeks and after 4 weeks. H. pylori infection was assessed by a 13C-urea breath test at the time of enrollment and 4 weeks after cessation of any study medication. Fifty-two patients were included in the 'all patients treated' analysis of efficacy. The overall H. pylori cure rate was 96% (95% CI = 87-100%), with no difference between the treatment groups. After 2 weeks duodenal ulcer healing was confirmed in 91% (95% CI = 80-100%) of patients treated with omeprazole and in 76% (95% CI = 60-91%) in the placebo group (P = 0.14). After 4 weeks all ulcers had healed. Relief from dyspeptic symptoms and adverse events (13.8 and 16.7%) did not differ between the treatment groups.\",\n \"The eradication rate of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection might be affected by the degree of inflammation of gastric mucosa represented by the endoscopic stage of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The aims of this study were to evaluate the eradication rates of H. pylori infection according to the endoscopic stage of PUD and to document whether early eradication in the active stage could yield a higher eradication rate in patients with peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB). A total of 1,177 patients with PUD (380 gastric ulcer, 710 duodenal ulcer, and 87 combined ulcer) who received proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)-based triple therapy were included, and the eradication rates were compared by ulcer stage. Univariate and multivariate analyses were conducted to identify factors influencing eradication rate. In PUB, the eradication rates between the early eradication group (≤7 days) and the late eradication group (>7 days) were compared. The eradication rates according to endoscopic stage were significantly different in gastric ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 84.8% vs 82.7% vs 70.6%, p = .014, respectively), but there were no significant differences in duodenal ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 87.6% vs 80.9%% vs 80.9% p = .169, respectively). In multivariate analyses, active ulcer as well as age younger than 50 was a significantly independent predictor of successful eradication (Odds ratio; 2.799, 95% CI; 1.659-4.723, p = .0001). The eradication rate of the early eradication group was significantly higher than the late eradication group in PUB (89.2% vs 71.9%, 95% CI; 1.265-8.269, p = .011).\",\n \"To investigate the efficacy of a short course of pantoprazole-based triple therapy in Helicobacter pylori eradication in a single-centre pilot study. Patients with active or healed duodenal ulcer or with gastric erosions or gastritis, all of whom were H. pylori-positive, received 10 days of twice-daily open treatment with pantoprazole 40 mg, plus clarithromycin 250 mg and tinidazole 500 mg. H. pylori was assessed at entry and 28-35 days after the end of treatment by rapid urease test (at entry only), culture and antimicrobial sensitivity, histology and 13C urea breath test. The criterion for eradication was a negative result in all three tests. Seventy patients were treated, of whom four were excluded from analysis due to major deviations from the study protocol. Eradication of H. pylori was achieved in 57/66 patients (per protocol analysis 86% (95% CI: 78-95%)) and was higher in patients with organisms sensitive to nitroimidazole before treatment (sensitive: 47/53 (89%), insensitive: 10/13 (77%)). There was marked reduction in acute gastritis throughout the stomach while chronic gastritis decreased only in the corpus. Healing was achieved in all 24 patients with active duodenal ulcer. Treatment was complied with; only one patient missed one of the 20 doses. Adverse events were of mild or moderate intensity and did not require withdrawal from treatment.\",\n \"yes. In a managed care environment, therapy with clarithromycin and omeprazole to eradicate H pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer disease would result in significant cost savings secondary to a reduction in the utilization of healthcare resources.\",\n \"Helicobacter pylori eradication reduces the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. It is unclear why duodenal ulcers rarely recur in the absence of reinfection with H. pylori or NSAID treatment. Basal, gastrin-releasing peptide- and pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid outputs in patients with ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication were measured, and compared with patients without ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication. Pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher in H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers than in H. pylori-negative controls, and fell significantly after H. pylori eradication. In H. pylori-negative patients with recurrent duodenal ulcers, pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher than in controls and similar to H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers.\",\n \"yes. These findings suggest that duodenal ulcer relapse after eradication of H. pylori may be related to high pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output. In this subset of patients with duodenal ulcers, maintenance anti-secretory treatment may be necessary to prevent relapse.\",\n \"To test whether one week's triple therapy with omeprazole and two antibiotics is enough to induce healing of a peptic (gastric and/or duodenal) ulcer. 112 Patients (73 males, 39 females; median age 55 [18-88] years) proven by culture or histology to have an Helicobacter (H.) pylori infection and uncomplicated peptic (gastroduodenal) ulcer. For one week they received omeprazole (20 mg once or twice daily) plus two antibiotics (clarithromycin/metronidazole, clarithromycin/tetracycline, clarithromycin/amoxycillin or amoxycillin/metronidazole) to eradicate H. pylori. No further anti-ulcer treatment was given subsequently. Healing of the ulcer and H. pylori status were checked by the urease test, culture and histology (endoscopic biopsy) 4 weeks later. The 5-week ulcer healing rate was 94.6% (95% confidence interval: 89-98%). Persisting ulcers (n = 6) were associated with either treatment with aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (n = 3), persistent H. pylori infection (n = 2) or persistent H. pylori infection plus treatment with aspirin (n = 1). The ulcer healing rate was significantly higher in patients with eradicated infection than in those with posttherapy persistence of H. pylori (97.0 vs. 76.9%; P = 0.02). There were no significant differences after 5 weeks between patients with duodenal and those with gastric ulcer (97.4 vs. 89.3%).\",\n \"yes. A 1-week regimen of esomeprazole-based triple therapy is sufficient for DU healing and H. pylori eradication in patients with DU disease.\",\n \"It has been reported that dual therapy with high doses of omeprazole and amoxycillin proves efficient for Helicobacter pylori eradication. To compare the efficacy, safety and tolerability of eradicating regimens with omeprazole/amoxycillin. In this randomized multicentre study, 267 duodenal ulcer patients were treated for 2 weeks with omeprazole 40 bid (Group A) or 20 mg bid (Group B), respectively, and with amoxycillin 0.5 g. qid followed by 4 weeks of 20 mg omeprazole om. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed by both histology and urease test in the antrum and the corpus. The patients were then followed-up for 9 months. Helicobacter pylori infection was cured in 62.9% of group A (95% CI: 53.8-71.4) and in 44.8% of group B (95% CI: 35.6-54.3; p = 0.007). Healing was achieved in 91.9% of patients in group A (95% CI:85.7-96.1), and in 87.9% of patients in group B (95% CI:80.6-93.2). The estimated probability of being in ulcer remission for cured patients was 0.95 (95% CI: 0.90-0.99) and for the not cured was 0.41 (95% CI: 0.24-0.59; p = 0.0001). However, between the two treatment groups no significant differences in symptom relief or ulcer recurrence were observed. Both regimens were well tolerated with minor side-effects occurring likewise within the two groups. At two months in cured patients antral histology revealed a total (group A + B) prevalence of 13.7% of active chronic gastritis.\",\n \"yes. In patients with reflux esophagitis associated with duodenal ulcer, a significant improvement in pre-existing reflux esophagitis was noted after H. pylori eradication.\",\n \"Evidence remains inconclusive as to whether eradication of Helicobacter pylori prevents ulcer relapse after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer. This study was conducted to determine the effect of H. pylori eradication using a quadruple drug regimen along with a probiotic on ulcer recurrence after perforation closure. A total of 93 patients who had presented with perforated duodenal ulcer and had a simple closure of a duodenal perforation comprised the study group. Three months postoperatively, patients who were found to be positive for H. pylori infection (n = 60) were administered quadruple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin, amoxicillin and colloidal bismuth subcitrate for 10 days along with the probiotic Lactobacillus sporogenes for 14 days. Diagnosis of H. pylori was carried out by urease test and histology. Patients were followed for 18 months. Recurrence of ulcer was analyzed for correlation with H. pylori status. Of 60 patients who received H. pylori eradication therapy, 53 were available for subsequent follow up. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 43/53 (81.1%) patients. The ulcer recurrence in the eradicated group was 18.6% (8/43) compared to 70% (7/10) in the noneradicated group (P = 0.003).\",\n \"no. Our data show that successful eradication of H. pylori infection does not increase the incidence of GERD in duodenal ulcer patients.\",\n \"One-week effective eradication treatment is adequate to induce healing of H. pylori-positive peptic ulcers. Anti-ulcer treatment after eradication of H. pylori should be considered only if the patient is receiving treatment with ulcerogenic drugs or continues to have symptoms.\",\n \"To confirm whether 1-week anti-Helicobacter therapy to achieve ulcer healing is sufficient and safe. We retrospectively analyzed patients with peptic ulcer who were infected with Helicobacter pylori and treated with 3 different 7-day regimens, according to predefined protocols in 3 different centers in the same geographical area (Aragón, Spain). Three combinations commonly described in the literature were used: a) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), tetracycline hydrochloride (2 g/24 h), colloidal bismuth subcitrate (480 mg/24 h) and metronidazole (750 mg/24 h) (OBTM, n = 105); b) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1.5 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (3 g/24 h) (O40C1.5A3, n = 13); and c) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (2 g/24 h) (O40C1A2, n = 4). In all patients the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease was confirmed endoscopically, and H. pylori infection was verified with urease testing and histological analysis. After treatment ended, no other antacids were allowed until after endoscopic examination to check eradication and ulcer healing. 122 patients were included (107 with duodenal ulcer, 12 with gastric ulcer and 3 with both). Compliance was good and side effects infrequent and mild. Eradication rates were 88.5% (93/105) in the OBTM group, 100% (13/13) with O40C1.5A3, and 75% (3/4) with O40C1A2. Healing was achieved in 98.16% (107/109) of the patients in whom the bacterial infection was eradicated, and in 23.07% (3/13) of those in whom it was not (p<0.0001). No patient had any complications during the period without treatment.\",\n \"yes. H. pylori eradication in duodenal ulcer patients was associated with a significant decrease in basal and stimulated pepsinogen-I levels. Measurement of these levels could determine how successful response to therapy has been in both the eradication and resolution of associated gastritis. Other advantages of this procedure are that it has low cost and results are evident at an early stage.\",\n \"Ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) b.i.d. with clarithromycin q.i.d. eradicates Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) in 82-94% of patients, and heals duodenal ulcers in 88-90% of patients. This double blind, placebo-controlled study examines the efficacy of a simpler b.i.d. treatment regimen, and examines the potential benefit of including a second antibiotic, metronidazole, to the b.i.d. treatment regimen. A total of 648 patients with active duodenal ulcer received RBC 400 mg b.i.d. for 4 wk, coprescribed with clarithromycin 250 mg q.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., or clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. with metronidazole 400 mg b.i.d. for the first 2 wk of treatment. Endoscopies were performed prestudy, after 4 wk of treatment, and at least 4 wk posttreatment. H. pylori status was assessed by CLOtest, 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and histology prestudy, and by UBT and histology at least 4 wk posttreatment. Adverse events were recorded at each visit. All three regimens were highly effective and well tolerated. H. pylori eradication rates were 84-94% and duodenal ulcer healing rates were 92-96% (observed data). Highest H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates were achieved with RBC 400 mg b.i.d. with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d.\",\n \"yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence and rebleeding in complicated ulcer disease.\",\n \"yes. Eradication of H. pylori may lead to a significant net increase of BMI in patients with duodenal ulcers. Such BMI gain, as well as higher baseline BMI and hiatus hernia, predisposes to new-onset reflux esophagitis after H. pylori eradication.\",\n \"yes. The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin is a simple, well-tolerated and effective treatment for active H. pylori-associated duodenal ulcer disease. This treatment regimen effectively heals duodenal ulcers, provides effective symptom relief, eradicates H. pylori infection and reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence. The eradication of H. pylori infection in patients with recently healed duodenal ulcers is associated with a significant reduction in the rate of ulcer recurrence.\",\n \"Although the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection benefits patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers, the value of eradicating the infection in the patients with functional dyspepsia (FD) remains controversial. To determine whether eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of ulcers or relieve the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients. In a double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 161 patients infected with H. pylori who had functional dyspepsia were randomly assigned to 7 days of treatment with a lansoprazole-based triple therapy or placebo and then followed for 1 year. The main outcome measures were the development of peptic ulcers and the resolution of symptoms. H. pylori was eradicated in 63 out of 81 patients (78%) in the treatment group and none of the 80 patients (0%) in the placebo group. During the follow-up period, two patients in the treatment group and six patients in the placebo group developed peptic ulcers at repeat endoscopy (2.5% vs. 7.5%; 95% CI: -12 to 2). The reduction in ulcer rates was statistically significant in the 'ulcer-like' sub-group (0% vs. 16.7%; 95% CI: -32 to -2), but not in the 'dysmotility-like' and 'unclassifiable' sub-groups. Regarding symptom response, the resolution rates of symptoms were similar between the treatment and placebo groups (58.0% vs. 55.0%, 95% CI: -12 to 18). Additionally, no significant differences existed in the symptom responses between the treatment and control arms in each of the dyspepsia sub-groups.\",\n \"yes. Our results demonstrate that the addition of bismuth subnitrate to dual oral therapy enhances H. pylori eradication, and improves healing of peptic ulcers.\",\n \"Triple therapy currently forms the cornerstone of the treatment of patients with Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer.AIM: To establish whether prolonged antisecretory therapy is necessary in patients with active duodenal ulcer. A total of 77 patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer were included in a prospective, controlled, double-blind study. All patients received a 7-day treatment with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg b.d. Patients in the omeprazole group underwent an additional 14-day therapy with omeprazole 20 mg; patients in placebo group received placebo. Endoscopy was performed upon inclusion in the study and after 3 and 8 weeks. Seventy-four patients were eligible for a per protocol analysis after 3 weeks, and 65 after 8 weeks. After 3 weeks, the healing rate was 89% in the omeprazole group and 81% in the placebo group (P=0.51). After 8 weeks, the ulcer healed in 97% of the patients in the total group (95% CI: 92.7-100%). H. pylori was eradicated in 88% of patients in the omeprazole group and in 91% in the placebo group (P=1.0). No statistically significant differences between the groups were found in ulcer-related symptoms or in ulcer healing.\",\n \"The eradication of Helicobacter pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer is associated with a significant decrease in the basal concentrations of serum pepsinogen II measured 5 months after completion of treatment. The verification of this decrease constitutes a useful, inexpensive non invasive method to prove the eradication of H. pylori with treatment.\",\n \"The NIH consensus conference in 1994 recommended that all patients with peptic ulcers should be tested and treated for Helicobacter pylori. Recent studies have shown that the eradication of H. pylori is associated with a significant reduction in the relapse rate of peptic ulcers, but there are few reports about long-term outcome. To evaluate the relapse rate of peptic ulcer in the long-term follow-up of patients after H. pylori eradication therapy. Patients infected with H. pylori (445; 88 duodenal ulcer, 357 gastric ulcer) were randomly divided into three groups. In group A, patients received 'conventional treatment' including acid decreasing therapy with a histamine H2-receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor (PPI). In group B, patients received 'dual therapy' including one antibiotic plus acid-decreasing therapy. In group C, patients received 'triple therapy' with PPI plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin. Eradication of H. pylori infection was assessed by histology of biopsy specimens from both the antrum and body corpus at 4 weeks, and 6 and 12 months after stopping therapy. Endoscopy was performed at intervals of 6 months for 5 years. Intention-to-treat eradication rates for the duodenal ulcer patients were 0% for group A, 46% for group B and 80% for group C; eradication rates for the gastric ulcer patients were 0%, 33% and 83% respectively. No recurrence was noted in the duodenal ulcer patients and only 4% of gastric ulcers recurred after successful eradication during follow-up for 5 years. In contrast, in patients with persistent H. pylori infection all DU and 92% of gastric ulcers recurred.\",\n \"yes. One-week low-dose triple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin and metronidazole is a highly effective and well-tolerated approach to the cure of H. pylori infection in patients with a duodenal ulcer. Our data suggest that continuation of antisecretory drug therapy beyond anti-H. pylori therapy is actually excessive regarding relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers.\",\n \"Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) monotherapy is commonly continued for 3 weeks after Helicobacter pylori eradication with PPI-based triple therapy regimens to ensure duodenal ulcer (DU) healing. This randomized, double-blind, multicentre study evaluated whether only 1 week of triple therapy with the new PPI esomeprazole was sufficient to ensure high rates of ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. A total of 446 H. pylori-positive patients with active DU received twice daily treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg (n = 222) or omeprazole 20 mg (n = 224) in combination with amoxicillin 1 g and clarithromycin 500 mg for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). Patients in the OAC group then received 3 weeks' monotherapy with omeprazole 20 mg once daily; those treated with EAC received placebo. Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy on completion of therapy and H. pylori status was assessed by (13)C-urea breath testing and histology 4-6 weeks later. Ulcer healing rates (95% CI) for intention-to-treat and per-protocol populations were: EAC + placebo 91% (87-95%) and 94% (90-97%); OAC + omeprazole 92% (88-95%) and 96% (92-98%). Corresponding H. pylori eradication rates were: EAC + placebo 86% (81-90%) and 89% (84-93%); OAC + omeprazole 88% (83-92%) and 90% (85-93%). Both eradication regimens were well tolerated, and patient compliance was high.\",\n \"To compare the efficacy of two protocols for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection and the healing of active duodenal ulcer: (i) ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) plus two antibiotics for 7 days, and (ii) the same triple therapy followed by 3 weeks of anti-secretory drug treatment. The study comprised 102 patients with active duodenal ulcer and H. pylori infection; the patients were randomized to open treatment with either RBC 400 mg b.d. plus amoxycillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 7 days, or the same treatment followed by 3 weeks of RBC 400 mg b.d. alone. Ulcer healing was confirmed by endoscopy. H. pylori eradication was assessed by endoscopy, rapid urease test and histology. The ulcer healed in 48/50 patients on RBC-based triple therapy alone (96.0%) and in 51/52 patients on triple therapy plus further anti-secretory treatment (98.1%). On an intention-to-treat basis, H. pylori had been successfully eradicated in 42/50 patients on triple therapy (84.0%) and in 44/52 patients on triple therapy plus anti-secretory treatment (84.6%), while by per protocol analysis the H. pylori eradication rates were 91.3% (42/46) and 89.8% (44/49), respectively.\",\n \"yes. Esomeprazole-based triple therapy for 1 week is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori infection in duodenal ulcer disease, offers comparable efficacy to omeprazole-based therapy, and is well tolerated.\",\n \"Two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin, without continuation of antisecretive therapy, is better, although the difference is not statistically significant, than one-week treatment in healing Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer disease. The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the most important factor related to ulcer healing.\",\n \"yes. Pantoprazole-based triple therapy, with either 1 or 2 weeks of co-therapy with amoxycillin and clarithromycin, is effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulceration.\",\n \"yes. Eradication of H. pylori significantly reduces the relapse of duodenal ulcer after simple closure of perforation. Anti H. pylori therapy must be recommended for all H. pylori positive patients after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer.\",\n \"yes. One-week triple therapy with RBC, amoxycillin and clarithromycin is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers, even if not followed by anti-secretory drug treatment.\",\n \"Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer (DU) relapse, but it remains uncertain whether eradication of H. pylori alone heals duodenal ulceration.AIM: To test the hypothesis that eradication of H. pylori infection is accompanied by healing of duodenal ulcer. A total of 115 consecutive patients with endoscopically confirmed H. pylori-infected duodenal ulcer were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group BTC patients received a 1-week course of colloidal bismuth subcitrate 220 mg b.d., tinidazole 500 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. Group OBTC patients received omeprazole 20 mg daily for 4 weeks with the BTC regimen during the first week. Endoscopy with antral biopsies and 13C-urea breath test (UBT) were performed before and 4 weeks after completion of the 7-day triple or quadruple therapy. Eight patients dropped out (four in BTC and four in OBTC). Duodenal ulcer healing rates on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 86% (95% CI: 77-95%) and 90% (95% CI: 82-98%), respectively. The eradication rates of H. pylori on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 88% (95% CI: 79-96%) and 91% (95% CI: 84-99%), respectively. There were no statistically significant differences in ulcer healing rates and eradication rates between these two groups (P>0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.\",\n \"To compare healing of Helicobacter pylori-related non complicated duodenal ulcer after one-week eradication triple therapy alone and after triple therapy with further 3-weeks antisecretory treatment with ranitidine. Three hundred and forty three patients with symptomatic H. pylori positive duodenal ulcer were included in this randomized double-blind placebo controlled study. H. pylori infection was established by rapid urease test and histopathology of antral biopsies. All patients were treated for one week with ranitidine 300 mg b.i.d., amoxicillin 1 g b.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., and then randomly treated for the following 3 weeks either with ranitidine 300 mg once daily (triple therapy + ranitidine, n =180) or placebo (triple therapy alone, n =163). Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy 4 weeks after inclusion. H. pylori eradication was established by (13) C-urea breath testing 5 weeks after the end of triple therapy. In intention to treat, duodenal ulcer healed at 4 weeks in 86 % of patients treated with triple therapy + ranitidine and in 83 % of patients treated with triple therapy alone (equivalence: 90 % CI [-3. 8 %; 9.2 %]). The H. pylori eradication rates were 67 % and 69 % respectively. Ulcer healed in 88 % of patients in whom H. pylori eradication was achieved and in 77 % of patients in whom eradication failed.\",\n \"A prospective study of 92 duodenal ulcer patients (diagnosed by endoscopy) with H. pylori infection demonstrated by rapid urease test, positive histology and culture. They were treated with a 7-day regimen of lansoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin. Healing was evaluated in a follow-up gastroscopy performed one month after treatment had finished. Eradication was defined as negative urease test, histology and culture at 30 days and negative urea breath test at 60 days. Duodenal ulcer healing was observed in 85 patients (92.4%, CI 85-96.9). Eradication of H. pylori infection was the only variable independently associated with ulcer healing. Healing was observed in 97.2% of patients with H. pylori eradication versus 75% of those with persistent infection (p<0.01; OR = 11.6; CI 95% = 2.06-65.9).\",\n \"yes. Both regimens were highly effective in healing ulcers. The eradication of H. pylori infection was associated with more side-effects and poor compliance but was more effective than the maintenance therapy in reducing the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. For the prevention of ulcer recurrence, testing of H. pylori status after triple therapy is more important than maintenance therapy.\",\n \"no. These results demonstrate that one-week triple therapy alone is highly effective in healing non complicated H. pylori associated duodenal ulcer without additional antisecretory treatment.\",\n \"BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly.\",\n \"Treatment with an antibiotic only regimen was effective for the healing of duodenal ulcer, and clearance as well as eradication of H pylori contributed significantly to the healing. The results constituted the strongest evidence to date that H pylori infection was aetiologically related to duodenal ulceration, and support the concept of treating duodenal ulcer associated with H pylori as an infection and relieving its symptoms with acid reducing agents such as antacids.\",\n \"Eliminating H. pylori infection favors duodenal ulcer healing and, from a clinical point of view, confirmation of H. pylori eradication almost always means healing of duodenal ulcer.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":329,"string":"329"}}},{"rowIdx":273183,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Diversion colitis in children: an iatrogenic appendix vermiformis?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed.","Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis."],"string":"[\n \"Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed.\",\n \"Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["yes. Neutrophilic inflammation of the distal ileum, as reflected by fecal calprotectin, is common after restorative proctocolectomy for pediatric-onset UC.","yes. Abnormal small intestinal permeability in children with ulcerative colitis could predict a more relapsing disease.","This study seeks to compare outcomes (in-hospital mortality, colostomy rates, and 30-day readmission rates) in older adult patients undergoing emergency/urgent versus elective surgery for diverticulitis. Data were derived from the 100% Medicare Provider Analysis and Review (MEDPAR) inpatient file from 2004-2007. All patients 65 years of age and above with a primary diagnosis of diverticulitis that underwent left colon resection, colostomy, or ileostomy were included. The primary outcome variable was in-hospital mortality. Secondary outcome variables included intestinal diversion, 30-day post-discharge readmission rates, discharge destination, length of stay, and total charges. Patients were grouped in two categories for comparison: emergent/urgent (EU) versus elective surgery, as defined by admission type. Multivariate analysis was performed adjusting for age (categorized by five groups), gender, race, and medical comorbidity as measured by Charlson Index. Fifty-three thousand three hundred sixteen individuals were eligible for inclusion, with 23,764 (44.6%) in the elective group. On average, EU patients were older (76.8 vs. 73.9 years of age, p < 0.001) and less likely to be female (65.4% vs. 71.1%, p < 0.001). EU patients had higher in-hospital mortality (8.0% vs. 1.4%, p < 0.001), higher intestinal diversion rates (64.2% vs. 12.7%, p < 0.001), and higher 30-day readmission rates (21.4% vs. 11.9%, p < 0.001) and the worse outcomes persisted even after adjustment for risk factors. Unadjusted and adjusted mortality rates dramatically increased by age, although the affect of age on mortality was more pronounced in the elective group where mortality rates ranged from 0.56% in patients 65-69 years old to 6.5% in patients 85+ years old. The rates of ostomy and 30-day readmission generally increased with age, with worse outcomes noted particularly in the elective group.","Intussusception is the second most common cause of acute abdomen in children, following appendicitis. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the experience of the authors, in an effort to promote intussusception management, especially that of small bowel intussusception. Records of intussusception diagnosed between July 2002 and September 2014 were evaluated in terms of patient age, sex, clinical findings, admission time, ultrasonographic findings, treatment methods, and outcomes. Eighty-one patients, 52 males and 29 females, were included (mean age: 10.6 months). Intussusceptions were ileocolic (IC) in 52 cases, ileoileal (IL) in 26, and jejunojejunal (JJ) in 3. Nineteen (23.5%) patients underwent surgery. Hydrostatic reduction was performed in 45 (55.5%) IC cases. Seventeen (21%) patients with small bowel intussusceptions (SBIs), measuring 1.8-2.3 cm in length, spontaneously reduced. All patients who underwent surgery had intussusceptums ≥4 cm. Three of the 4 intestinal resection cases had history of abdominal surgery.","Abdominal pain symptoms and incontinence are common in childhood. The aim of this study was to analyse abdominal pain symptoms and their associations with incontinence and symptoms of anxiety and depression in young children. We examined 1130 children during the school entry check-up (mean age 6.2 years) and 951 participated in the study. Parents completed a questionnaire contained 11 items regarding Rome-III functional gastrointestinal disorders (FGIDs) and incontinence and 14 items from the anxious/depressed scale of the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). Of the 951 children (55.6% boys) we recruited, 30.1% had experienced abdominal pain symptoms in the past two months and 14% had complained of them at least once a week. In addition, 2.6% had irritable bowel syndrome, 11.3% had childhood functional abdominal pain, 2.4% were affected by faecal incontinence, 2.1% were affected by daytime urinary incontinence, and 5.5% were affected by nocturnal enuresis. One in ten (10.6%) had symptoms of anxiety and depression, and these were significantly higher in the children with FGIDs, particularly if they were also incontinent.","yes. Intestinal obstruction after pediatric liver transplantation is commonly related to what would conventionally be considered unusual causes. A high index of suspicion must be maintained and early operative therapy considered as obstruction because causes such as diaphragmatic hernia and PTLD are unlikely to resolve with conservative measures.","The appendix is the conduit of choice for a Mitrofanoff procedure. Re-tubularized small bowel conduits have a considerably higher incidence of catheterization problems. Anatomical factors may contribute to the unique incidence of pouch formation.","Although luminal obstruction has traditionally been viewed as the underlying cause of appendicitis, recent evidence has suggested that the disease may result directly from invasion by specific pathogens, e.g. Fusobacterium nucleatum. The purpose of this study was to survey microbial communities within pediatric appendectomy specimens using a culture-independent approach. We performed 16S ribosomal gene sequence analysis to profile the microbiota present within luminal fluid obtained from 22 pediatric appendectomy specimens. These included 10 simple appendicitis cases, 5 perforated appendicitis cases, 2 interval appendectomies, and 5 incidental appendectomies. Samples could be divided into 2 distinct clusters based upon the composition of the appendiceal bacterial communities. Appendicitis samples contained an increased abundance of Fusobacterium spp. and a reduced abundance of Bacteroides spp. relative to non-appendicitis cases. Appendicitis samples also contained variable amounts of other oral taxa such as Porphyromonas, Parvimonas, and Gemella, whereas these taxa were generally absent from non-appendicitis samples.","Laparoscopic Appendectomy (LA) is a safe procedure in adults resulting in shorter hospitalization and sooner return to activity. The relative merits of LA and open appendectomy (OA) are evaluated in this first prospective and randomized study in children. A total of 129 children with appendicitis were included. Forty-three boys and 45 girls, age 1 to 16 years, were enrolled. Randomization was determined by sealed assignment card. OA utilized a 3- to 4-cm right lower quadrant, muscle-splitting incision. Wounds were closed without drains. Antibiotics, when used, consisted of gentamycin, clindamycin, and ampicillin. LA was performed by experienced surgeons utilizing a 3-trocar technique with reusable instruments. Twenty-one children (24%) were perforated. Patients were discharged as soon as they were taking a diet and afebrile. Statistical comparisons were by Fisher's Exact and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. There were no differences in postoperative analgesia, resumption of oral intake, length of hospitalization, return to normal activities, or morbidity. Laparoscopic appendectomy was associated with longer operating times and increased cost.","Intussusception is an entity well codify in pediatric surgery, with guidelines well defined since years in terms of imaging and procedures. From January '99 to Dec. '03, 25 children were admitted to the Department of Pediatric Surgery of the Children's Hospital of Milan. All the aspects related to the pathology have been evaluated in the study. 25 patients have been studied. 23/25 presented severe pain, 19/25 normal bowel movements in the last 3 hours and in 9/25 a mass were detected at clinical examination.19/25 were submitted to laparotomy after failure of reduction through barium enema, and in 17/19 a manual reduction were performed. Only 2 patients required a bowel resection with primary anastomosis. The analysis of the delay of diagnosis, the delta-T between beginning of the symptoms and first medical evaluation was of 16,23 h. (3-72), and the delta-T between the first evaluation and diagnosis was 18,7 h. The interval between diagnosis and surgery was of 4,3.","Our data reveal significantly higher appendectomy rates in patients with a diagnosis of diverticulitis, medically or surgically managed, in comparison with patients with incidentally identified diverticulosis. Therefore, we propose that appendicitis and diverticulitis share similar risk factors and potentially a common pathological link.","yes. Our findings suggest that allergic predisposition might be another important risk factor for complicated courses of acute sigmoid diverticulitis and linked with histamine receptor expression. Supportive therapies with antihistaminic drugs might become an option. Allergic predisposition might be worth considering when indicating surgery for sigmoid diverticulitis.","yes. Unsafe child feces disposal was significantly associated with environmental enteropathy and impaired growth in a pediatric population in rural Bangladesh. Interventions are needed to reduce this high-risk behavior to protect the health of susceptible pediatric populations.","no. Neither diverticulosis nor treatment with gastric acid inhibitors seem to be risk factors for developing peritonitis of enteric origin in PD patients. This type of peritonitis has to be promptly identified and treated in order to diminish the high frequency of peritoneal catheter removal and PD dropout due to such episodes.","To determine whether the use of ultrasonography (US) improves the outcome of children with appendicitis. All cases of patients (<17 years old) with pathologically confirmed appendicitis treated in the ED between July 1992 and December 1995 were retrospectively reviewed. 231 charts met criteria for analysis. 100 (43%) patients had US prior to surgery. Age, race, and insurance status were similar for children in the US and non-US groups; there were no differences between the groups at presentation in mean temperature, mean WBC count, or percentage of children with vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal tenderness, or guarding. Those in the non-US group were more often male (71%, p=0.002) and more frequently had right lower quadrant pain (65%, p=0.003). Time from ED triage to the OR was 17.1 hours (US group) vs 10.4 hours (non-US group) (p=0.002). The perforation rates and the complication (abscess, wound infection, wound dehiscence) rates were similar for children in the two groups. Hospital charges were higher in the US group than in the non-US group ($14,123 vs $13,021, p=0.007).","Studies have suggested that scans with technetium-tagged white blood cells (WBC-Tc99m) may be equal to endoscopy in the assessment of extent and activity of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). We have retrospectively examined the accuracy of WBC-Tc99m scans in differentiating continuous from discontinuous colitis in pediatric IBD. There were 207 children in the study (96 boys, 111 girls, median age 13 years). This included 29 controls - children with no gastrointestinal disease (NL) who underwent WBC-Tc99m scans for other medical problems. Scans were obtained at 30 minutes and 2-4 hours following injection. Scans were interpreted as showing continuous colitis, discontinuous colitis, or no colitis. In the 77 children with active Crohn's disease (CD) of the colon, the scans revealed discontinuous uptake in 63 children and continuous uptake in 14. In the 29 children with ulcerative colitis (UC), 23 scans showed continuous uptake and 6 revealed discontinuous uptake. Two of these 6 showed focal activity near the appendix, and subclinical appendicitis could not be excluded. Another child was bleeding and the scan could have been misinterpreted as showing small- bowel inflammation. In the last three patients, skip areas were clearly identifiable. In none of these last three patients were the biopsies typical of CD (i. e., no granuloma was identified) nor was inflammation patchy. In summary, of the 106 scans showing inflammation, 6 were classified into the wrong group.","The minimally invasive laparoscopic technique is feasible, safe, and efficacious for children with complicated appendicitis. Laparoscopic appendectomy should be the initial procedure of choice for most cases of complicated appendicitis in children.","Lumenal obstruction has typically been regarded as the cause of acute appendicitis (AA). Recent evidence including data from \"antibiotics first\" trials suggests that this disease may result from invasion of the appendix by specific pathogens. Small studies have identified an abundance of bacteria from the genus Fusobacterium in appendixes from patients with AA. We aimed to validate these findings in a larger cohort of children with appendicitis in addition to profiling the appendiceal microbiota in a population of children without appendicitis. Appendix swabs were collected from children undergoing appendectomy for AA (n = 60), incidental appendectomy for reasons other than appendicitis (n = 18), or ileocecectomy for inflammatory bowel disease (n = 7), in addition to samples from other sites. Bacterial 16S ribosomal RNA gene sequences from each sample were amplified, sequenced, and analyzed with the UPARSE and QIIME programs. We found that the normal human appendix harbors populations of Fusobacteria that are generally absent in fecal samples from healthy adults and children. In patients with AA, Fusobacteria populations proliferate and often persist despite several weeks of broad-spectrum antibiotics prior to surgery. Relative to non-AA samples, AA samples were depleted of sequences from the genus Bacteroides Phylogenetic analysis of sequence data indicates that F. nucleatum, F. necrophorum, and F. varium are the species of Fusobacterium observed in AA samples.","Intractable constipation in children is an uncommon but debilitating condition. When medical therapy fails, surgery is warranted; but the optimal surgical approach has not been clearly defined. We reviewed our experience with operative management of intractable constipation to identify predictors of success and to compare outcomes after 3 surgical approaches: antegrade continence enema (ACE), enteral diversion, and primary resection. A retrospective review of pediatric patients undergoing ACE, diversion, or resection for intractable, idiopathic constipation from 1994 to 2007 was performed. Satisfactory outcome was defined as minimal fecal soiling and passage of stool at least every other day (ACE, resection) or functional enterostomy without abdominal distension (diversion). Forty-four patients (range = 1-26 years, mean = 9 years) were included. Sixteen patients underwent ACE, 19 underwent primary diversion (5 ileostomy, 14 colostomy), and 9 had primary colonic resections. Satisfactory outcomes were achieved in 63%, 95%, and 22%, respectively. Of the 19 patients diverted, 14 had intestinal continuity reestablished at a mean of 27 months postdiversion, with all of these having a satisfactory outcome at an average follow-up of 56 months. Five patients underwent closure of the enterostomy without resection, whereas the remainder underwent resection of dysmotile colon based on preoperative colonic manometry studies. Of those undergoing ACE procedures, age younger than 12 years was a predictor of success, whereas preoperative colonic manometry was not predictive of outcome. Second manometry 1 year post-ACE showed improvement in all patients tested. On retrospective review, patient noncompliance contributed to ACE failure.","yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.","We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.","This study was performed to provide outcome data for the development of evidenced-based management techniques for children with appendicitis in the authors' hospital. This is a retrospective analysis of 1,196 consecutive children with appendicitis over a 5-year period (1996 to 2001) at a metropolitan hospital. The median age was 9 years (7 months to 18 years). The perforation rate was 38.9%, and the nonappendicitis rate was 5.6%. Predictors of perforation included age less than 8 years, Hispanic ethnicity, generalized abdominal tenderness, rebound tenderness, and increased number of bands. In perforated cases, the median length of stay was 5 days, and the complication rate was 13.5%. There was no difference in complication rates related to type or timing of antibiotics or related to the individual surgeon. There was no difference in infection rates related to type of wound management.","Acute appendicitis is the most common cause of acute abdomen in pediatric emergency department (ED) visits, and right lower quadrant abdominal ultrasound (RLQUS) is a valuable diagnostic tool in the clinical approach. The utility of ultrasound in predicting perforation has not been well-defined. We sought to determine the sensitivity of RLQUS to identify perforation in pediatric patients with appendicitis. A chart review of all patients 3 to 21 years of age who received a radiographic work-up and who were ultimately diagnosed with perforated appendicitis between 2010 and 2013 at a pediatric ED was conducted. The final read for ultrasonography was compared to either the operative diagnosis, surgical pathology diagnosis, or further imaging results (if the patient was managed nonoperatively). Test characteristics were calculated for the identification of appendicitis and identification of perforation. Of the 539 patients evaluated for appendicitis, 144 (26.7%) patients had appendicitis, and 40 of these (27.8%) were perforated. Thirty-nine had RLQUS performed as part of their evaluation. Of these, 28 had positive findings for appendicitis, and 9 were read as definite or possible perforated appendicitis. The sensitivity of RLQUS for the diagnosis of appendicitis in the group with perforation was 77.1% (95% confidence interval [CI], 59.4-89%) and the sensitivity for diagnosing a perforation was 23.1% (95% CI, 11.1-39.3%).","To identify the factors that facilitate the diagnosis of pediatric appendicitis. Institutionally approved retrospective, single center analysis of all patients with acute abdominal pain was done. Medical history, symptoms, laboratory and radiologic findings of all children presenting with abdominal pain were evaluated. To identify the best predictors, uni- and multi-variate analysis were used. In 2 years, 431 patients fulfilled the inclusion criteria. Data was complete in all subjects. Of these, 156 (36.2 %) suffered from appendicitis. The best discriminators for appendicitis were clinical and ultrasound features. The four best factors were identified by CART analysis (continuous abdominal pain, tenderness on the right lower quadrant, rebound tenderness and conspicuous ultrasound) and combined to the Heidelberg Appendicitis score. A positive score (>3 features) is highly predictive for acute appendicitis (PPV 89.3 %, NPV 94.9 %) and includes all cases of perforated appendicitis.","The role of the appendix has been highlighted in the pathogenesis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The aims of this study were to elucidate the immuno-imbalances in the appendix of UC patients, and to clarify the role of the appendix in the development of UC. Colonoscopic biopsy specimens of the appendix, transverse colon, and rectum were obtained from 86 patients with UC: active pancolitis (A-Pan; n = 15), active left-sided colitis (A-Lt; n = 25), A-Lt with appendiceal involvement (A-Lt/Ap; n = 10), inactive pancolitis (I-Pan; n = 14), and inactive left-sided colitis (I-Lt; n = 22), and from controls. In the isolated mucosal T cells, the CD4/CD8 ratio and proportion of activated CD4+ T cells were investigated, and compared with controls. In the appendix, the CD4/CD8 ratio significantly increased in A-Lt and A-Lt/Ap. The ratio in the appendix also tended to increase in A-Pan. In the rectum, the ratio significantly increased in all UC groups. In the appendix, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ (early activation antigen) T cells significantly increased in all UC groups. In the rectum, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ T cells significantly increased only in A-Pan. The proportion of CD4+HLA-DR+ (mature activation antigen) T cells significantly increased only in the rectum of A-Pan, but not in the other areas of any groups.","no. The use of CT for the diagnosis of appendicitis in children does not change the negative appendectomy rate. Results of studies performed in adults may not be extrapolated to the evaluation of children with suspected acute appendicitis.","To compare treatment failure leading to hospital readmission in children with complicated appendicitis who received oral versus intravenous antibiotics after discharge. Antibiotics are often employed after discharge to prevent treatment failure in children with complicated appendicitis, although existing studies comparing intravenous and oral antibiotics for this purpose are limited. We identified all patients aged 3 to 18 years undergoing appendectomy for complicated appendicitis, who received postdischarge antibiotics at 35 childrens hospitals from 2009 to 2012. Discharge codes were used to identify study subjects from the Pediatric Health Information System database, and chart review confirmed eligibility, treatment assignment, and outcomes. Exposure status was based on outpatient antibiotic therapy, and analysis used optimal and full matching methods to adjust for demographic and clinical characteristics. Treatment failure (defined as an organ-space infection) requiring inpatient readmission was the primary outcome. Secondary outcomes included revisits from any cause to either the inpatient or emergency department setting. In all, 4579 patients were included (median: 99/hospital), and utilization of intravenous antibiotics after discharge ranged from 0% to 91.7% across hospitals. In the matched analysis, the rate of treatment failure was significantly higher for the intravenous group than the oral group [odds ratio (OR) 1.74, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.05-2.88; risk difference: 4.0%, 95% CI 0.4-7.6%], as was the rate of all-cause revisits (OR 2.11, 95% CI 1.44-3.11; risk difference: 9.4%, 95% CI 4.7-14.2%). The rate of peripherally inserted central catheter line complications was 3.2% in the intravenous group, and drug reactions were rare in both groups (intravenous: 0.7%, oral: 0.5%).","In pediatric cases of ingested foreign bodies, gastrointestinal foreign bodies (GIFB) have distinct factors contributing to longer and more costly hospitalizations. Patients admitted with ingested foreign bodies were identified in the Kids' Inpatient Database (1997-2009). Overall, 7480 cases were identified. Patients were most commonly <5years of age (44%), male (54%), and Caucasian (57%). A total of 2506 procedures were performed, GI surgical procedures (57%) most frequently, followed by GI endoscopy (24%), esophagoscopy (11%), and bronchoscopy - in cases of inhaled objects (9%). On multivariate analysis, length of stay increased when cases were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=1.7), esophageal perforation (OR=40.0), intestinal perforation (OR=4.4), exploratory laparotomy (OR=1.9), and gastric (OR=2.9), small bowel (OR=1.5), or colon surgery (OR=2.5), all p<0.02. Higher total charges (TC) were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=2.0), endoscopy of esophagus (OR=1.8), stomach (OR=2.1), or colon (OR=3.3), and exploratory laparotomy (OR=3.6) or surgery of stomach (OR=5.6), small bowel (OR=6.4), or colon (OR=3.4), all p<0.001.","yes. Patients with ulcerative colitis and indeterminate colitis with a family history of Crohn's disease or preoperative anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae immunoglobulin-A seropositivity are more likely to be diagnosed with Crohn's disease after ileal pouch-anal anastomosis.","no. The present results indicate that asymptomatic bacteriuria in patients with a continent ileal reservoir for urinary diversion is generally of no clinical importance and should not be treated with antibiotics. This conclusion is based on the observations that the bacterial strains growing in the reservoir changed spontaneously indicating colonization rather than infection. Raised titres of antibodies against E. coli correlated weakly with bacterial growth. The observed elevations in antibody titres were usually just above the normal upper limit.","no. Ileal inflammation is not a contraindication for restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch construction in patients with UC or idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease of indeterminate type. Ileal inflammation with pancolitis is not a useful criterion for classifying otherwise typical UC as colitis of indeterminate type, because pouch outcomes are not affected.","Chronic abdominal pain (CAP) in children, a condition that accounts for approximately 25% of pediatric gastroenterology office visits, may be a precursor to irritable bowel syndrome in adults. Recently, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) has been reported in 78-84% of IBS patients regardless of their abdominal symptoms, compared to 20% in healthy controls. Aims The aim of this study was, therefore, to assess the prevalence of SIBO in children with CAP. Seventy-five children aged 8-18 years diagnosed with CAP based on the Rome II criteria and 40 healthy controls were enrolled. All subjects underwent a lactulose breath hydrogen test (LBT) to assess for SIBO. Children with CAP also filled out symptom questionnaires. There was a 91% prevalence of an abnormal LBT suggestive of SIBO in the children with CAP and 35% in controls (odds ratio = 16.7, 95% confidence interval 6.0-57.5, P < 0.0001). A comparison of CAP children with a positive LBT to CAP children with a negative LBT revealed the former had significantly more \"urgency to have a bowel movement\" (P = 0.049) and experienced less \"soiling\" (P = 0.016) than those with a negative LBT. No significant differences were found between the two groups in terms of the location of their pain or any other associated symptoms.","Taking into account the overlap in several symptoms between IBS and Appendicopathy there is a possibility that both syndromes originate (partly) in the appendix and therefore laparoscopy and appendicectomy may play a part in the treatment of IBS as well. Pilot studies in this direction seem to be indicated.","These data show that initial antibiotic treatment of perforated appendicitis in children, followed by interval appendectomy, is useful for a select group who present with little or no peritonitis, slightly elevated temperature, and WBC that falls at least 25% within 3 to 4 days.","yes. Our study shows that an RCT comparing initial antibiotic treatment strategy with urgent appendectomy is feasible in children; the intervention seems to be safe.","Two common factors, cigarette smoking and appendectomy, have been found to play a role in ulcerative colitis (UC). Data on their role in the development of extraintestinal manifestations (EIM) are scarce. The relationship between cigarette smoking, appendectomy, and EIM was examined in a prospective study involving 535 (M/F = 319/216) consecutive UC patients followed up for 18 yr. We considered the major EIM: seronegative spondyloarthropathy, pyoderma gangrenosum/erythema nodosum, acute anterior uveitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. We excluded patients with a history of EIM or those colectomized before study entry, ex-smokers, and those who started to smoke during the course of UC. In UC patients, seronegative spondyloarthropathy and dermatologic complications were found increased in smokers (p < 0.0001; p = 0.001) or in subjects with appendectomy (p = 0.0003; p = 0.02), while acute anterior uveitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis did not differ. The Kaplan-Meier analysis showed 18-yr rates for EIM of 71% in smokers and 45% in nonsmokers (log-rank test, p = 0.0001), and of 85% in patients with appendectomy and 48% in those without (p = 0.0001). Cox proportional-hazard model showed that cigarette smoking and appendectomy are independent factors promoting EIM. In smokers with appendectomy the adjusted hazard ratio (3.197, 95% CI 1.529-6.684) was higher than in patients with appendectomy alone (2.617, 95% CI 1.542-4.442) or smoking alone (1.947, 95% CI 1.317-2.879).","The above data support the use of laparoscopy in the management of perforated appendicitis in children. In conclusion, laparoscopy is as safe as open appendectomy. Laparoscopy is an effective alternative with a shorter length of hospital stay compared with that for an open appendectomy for perforated appendicitis in children.","yes. TULAA, in which the appendix is exteriorized via a combination of open and laparoscopic techniques, is a safe and effective procedure for treating appendicitis in children. TULAA is a cost-effective treatment that provides excellent cosmetic results.","yes. Enthesitis is a prevalent extra-intestinal manifestation of pediatric IBD and is associated with increased musculoskeletal pain. Future studies should evaluate the functional and long-term impact of enthesitis on children with IBD.","yes. LA is a favorable alternative in children with complicated appendicitis in view of less postoperative pain, fewer postoperative complications and quicker return to normal activity.","To determine whether interval resection in asymptomatic patients after 1 or 2 episodes of acute diverticulitis (prophylactic resection) is justified as a means of preventing late inflammatory complications of diverticular disease. A retrospective analysis. A university-affiliated tertiary care hospital. Those requiring hospitalization from 1987 to 1995 for treatment of acquired diverticular disease of the colon. Twenty-eight patients underwent elective resection and 154 were treated for inflammatory complications (perforation, fistula, complete large-bowel obstruction). Standard surgical management for diverticular disease, but only 3 prophylactic resections were undertaken during this period. Type of operation, stoma creation and closure, hospital death. In those treated for complicated disease, the effects on outcome of all previous outpatient treatment and hospitalizations. Only 10% of those presenting with complications had been treated conservatively for acute diverticulitis and only 5% had been hospitalized for this reason.","The use of antibiotics in uncomplicated appendicitis in children, remains the area of controversy. The aim of the study was to assess the necessity of antibiotic administration in nonperforated appendicitis in children. The design of the study was a double blind randomized controlled trial, with a follow-up of 4 to 20 months. Surgical Department in a University Pediatric Hospital. One hundred and eighty seven out of 249 children subjected to emergency appendectomies met the inclusion criteria, with 35 eligible but not included in the study. The remaining 152 patients were randomized; 41 had complicated appendicitis, 3 other diagnosis, 108 were analyzed within 3 study groups: 1 (n = 31) no antibiotic, 2 (n = 41) one dose, 3 (n = 36) 5-day course. Open appendectomy was a surgical procedure and Ceftriaxone 1.0 g i.v. was administered. Investigated parameters were: body temperature, WBC, bowel sounds, wound healing, recovery and morbidity. Valid outcome data were available for 90 of 108 randomized patients. Protocols of 18 children due to fever>39 degrees C, upper airway infection or allergy were disclosed. In the remaining 90 children, there were no differences in WBC and oral feeding between groups 1 (n = 24), 2 (n = 35) and 3 (n = 31). Group 1 and 2 had a higher mean temperature on day 1 post-op, without any clinical significance. A higher mean temperature was noted on day 5 post-op in group 1, due to wound infection in one patient. There were no intraabdominal abscesses. The only other complications were 2 adhesion small bowel obstructions (in groups 1 and 2 each).","yes. Tumour necrosis factor-α expression in segmental colitis associated with diverticulosis seems to be related to the severity of the endoscopic damage. This behaviour, similar to that of the inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), confirms that this disease should be considered as a subtype of IBD.","To describe the demographic and clinical characteristics of hospitalized children with enema-reduced intussusception and to determine the necessity of hospitalization. Retrospective cross-sectional study of patients (0-17 years of age) with enema-reduced intussusception hospitalized at a 110-bed urban children's hospital. For this study, potential necessity of hospitalization was defined as the presence of associated dehydration, persistent symptoms and signs of intussusception requiring repeated radiographic studies, and/or enema-reduced serious complications (bowel perforation and/or sepsis). For a 12-year period (January 1995 to December 2006), 45 patients who had enema-reduced intussusception were hospitalized. There were 32 males (71%). Three (6.7%) of the 45 patients had recurrent episodes of intussusception occurring at 2, 7, and 45 months after the initial episode. The initial episode for only 1 of these 3 was an enema-reduced hospitalization event. Thus, the following results include 46 episodes among 45 patientsThe mean (SD) age at the time of intussusception was 19.6 (25.4) months, and the median age was 10 months (range, 2-135 months). There were 27 episodes (59%) of patients 12 months or younger. The types of intussusception were ileocolic, 44 and ileoileum, 2. In 13 episodes (28%), patients were described as dehydrated and/or having an abnormal basic metabolic panel test result and meeting one of the study criteria for potential necessity of hospitalization. During the hospitalization, enema was repeated in 1 patient (2%) who had recurrent pain. The repeated enema was normal. No patient had a recurrent intussusception or developed signs of bowel perforation or sepsis while hospitalized. The mean (SD) hospital length of stay was 25.6 (9.9) hours, and the median time was 23 hours (range, 12-60 hours).","no. In this uncontrolled study, the accuracy of preoperative diagnosis of appendicitis and the incidence of pathology-proven perforation appendix were similar for children with suspected acute appendicitis whether they had CT, US or neither imaging, in conjunction with surgical consult. The imaging modality of CT was not associated with better outcomes for children presenting to the ED with suspected appendicitis.","Large-bowel obstruction and perforation are still frequently occurring entities for the acute care surgeon. In these cases, Hartmann's procedure is the most commonly used surgical technique. However, recent papers demonstrate that colon resection and primary anastomosis (RPA) in the emergency setting is a safe and feasible procedure. We present our series of left colon resection and primary anastomosis procedures from Torrevieja Hospital (Alicante, Spain), performed without bowel irrigation or a diverting ileostomy. Thirty-two RPA procedures were performed in emergency settings for perforation or obstruction, or both, during an 18-month period. The following data were prospectively collected: age, gender, nationality, diagnoses, ASA score, body mass index (BMI), POSSUM score (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enumeration of Mortality and morbidity), and the score according to the Hinchey classification. Furthermore, duration of the operation, length of postoperative hospital stay, and mortality and morbidity data were recorded. Sixteen of these patients were diagnosed with acute diverticulitis, 14 patients with neoplasm (of which 9 cases had obstruction, 2 cases had perforation, and 3 cases had both), and foreign body perforation in the remaining 2 cases. The mean hospital stay was 7.8 (range, 4-10) days. The physiological POSSUM score was 24.4 (range, 15-39), and the surgical POSSUM score was 19.8 (range, 16-24). None of the patients died (0% mortality). Seven patients developed some kind of complication (21.9%), all of which were managed conservatively.","Although older children had a higher risk of abscess drainage, younger children were more likely to have perforated appendicitis, be readmitted, and have longer LOH. Management of appendicitis differed according to age. Laparoscopic appendectomy was more frequently performed in older children, whereas the youngest children were more likely to be treated nonoperatively.","no. Resection with primary anastomosis following iatrogenic perforation of the splenic flexure is not safe because of a high chance of anastomotic dehiscence. Following a late diagnosis in an unstable patient exteriorization of the perforation as a stoma is a better option prior to a definitive prophylactic colectomy.","Those who have had an appendicectomy have a reduced risk of developing ulcerative colitis. However, the effect of appendicectomy on disease activity in patients with ulcerative colitis has not been established. We used the Danish National Patient Registry to identify all incident cases of ulcerative colitis in Denmark during the period 1981 to 1999. Of these, 202 had an appendicectomy after their first admission with ulcerative colitis. In these patients, we compared the incidence rate of hospitalisations with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis during the period between the onset of ulcerative colitis and appendicectomy, with the rate of such hospitalisations after appendicectomy. To adjust for the clinical course of ulcerative colitis unrelated to appendicectomy, we extracted a reference cohort (n = 808), matched to the index subjects with respect to age, sex, and year of first admission, but with an intact appendix. The rate of admission with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis decreased by 47% after appendicectomy (rate ratio 0.53 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.36-0.80)). However, the reference cohort showed a similar decline in admission rate (rate ratio 0.51). Thus appendicectomy had no apparent beneficial effect on admission rate after adjustment for the clinical course of disease unrelated to appendicectomy (adjusted rate ratio 1.05 (95% CI 0.67-1.67)).","Bowel wall thickening on computed tomography (CT) scans in children may raise concern for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The significance of this radiological finding is unclear. Our purpose was to evaluate the clinical outcomes with regard to IBD in children with no known underlying disease, presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall on CT scan. A retrospective analysis of pediatric patients with abdominal pain and CT findings of thickened bowel wall was performed between 2006 and 2010. Endoscopic findings, clinical variables, and follow-up assessments were evaluated. Fifty-six patients presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall findings on CT scan were identified. Overall, 30 (54%) had terminal ileum wall thickening, 17 (30%) had isolated colonic wall thickening, and 9 (16%) had other small bowel wall thickening. Of the 56 patients, 21 (38%) underwent endoscopy, of which 14 (67%) had positive findings-11 (79%) had histologic evidence of chronic colitis, and 5 (36%) had duodenitis/ileitis. Ultimately, 11/56 (20%) were diagnosed as having IBD, 8/56 (14%) with functional abdominal pain/constipation, 9/56 (16%) appendicitis, 10/56 (18%) infectious gastroenteritis, and 18/56 (32%) with miscellaneous diagnoses. Median levels of erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, albumin, and platelet count were significantly abnormal in the IBD group compared to the non-IBD group. Additional follow-up of those who did not undergo endoscopic evaluation revealed no new diagnoses of IBD.","yes. In infants, inflammatory and ischemic intestinal pathologies treated with prolonged courses of antibiotics durably alter the intestinal mucosal microbiome. Diversion of mechanoluminal stimulation, however, does not.","Abdominal colectomy has been used in patients with inflammatory bowel disease unclassified (IBDU), requiring surgery to allow histopathological evaluation of the colectomy specimen to rule out Crohn's disease (CD). We evaluated whether any histopathological feature was associated with an adverse postoperative outcome. Patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) or IBDU undergoing ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) were prospectively examined. A checklist of 17 histopathological features atypical for UC was developed. Outcomes of acute pouchitis (AP), chronic pouchitis (CP), and de novo CD were assessed. The 153 study patients included 119 (78%) UC and 34 (22%) IBDU patients. The following atypical features were identified (n; %): broad-based ulcer (99; 65%), appendiceal involvement (78; 51%), V-shaped ulcer (48; 31%), crypt-associated granuloma (42; 27%), isolated giant cells (39; 25%), discontinuous active inflammation (36; 24%), slit-like fissure (32; 21%), discontinuous chronic inflammation (16; 10%), ileal villous architectural distortion (12; 8%), neural hypertrophy (10; 7%), backwash ileitis (10; 7%), transmural inflammation (8; 5%), discontinuous ileitis (8; 5%), muscle hypertrophy (5; 3%), ileal ulcer (4; 3%), and ileal pyloric metaplasia (1; 1%). A total of 29 patients (19%) developed AP, 17 (11%) developed CP, and 13 patients (8%) developed de novo CD. On univariate analysis, de novo CD developed in 3 of the 10 patients (30%) with neural hypertrophy compared with only 10 of the 143 patients (7%) without neural hypertrophy (P=0.01). Multivariate regression did not show a single atypical histopathological feature, which predicted a worse outcome after IPAA.","yes. In children, ileal CD lesions are delayed compared with colonic lesions. This observation is in agreement with the previously proposed hypothesis of a pathophysiological role of Peyer's patches in ileal CD. The rarity of small bowel lesions should be a warning to be cautious when classifying chronic colitis in small children.","Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a significant cause of postoperative morbidity, yet studies characterizing outcomes in children are limited. Our aim was to review our experience to describe the role of operative and nonoperative therapy, markers of outcome, and burden of disease in children. Admissions for ASBO at British Columbia Children's Hospital (Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada) identified by International Classification of Disease, Ninth Revision, codes were reviewed over a 10-year period. Demographic, clinical, laboratory, and operative details were collected for all patients. Our study identified 165 admissions of which 32 (19%) were managed with immediate operation, whereas 133 were initially managed nonoperatively. One hundred seven patients went on to laparotomy, whereas 26 (16%) were managed nonoperatively. Absence of leukocytosis and older age appeared to be associated with successful nonoperative therapy. Tachycardia and younger age appeared to be independent risk factors for failure of nonoperative management. Delayed surgery or conservative management did not cause an increase in complications. Appendectomy, stoma formation and closure, Nissen fundoplication, and Ladd's procedures were the most common procedures leading to ASBO.","It is not common that, after diversion of the faecal stream by a colostomy, the defunctioned colon develops colitis. The pathogenesis of this colitis is still unclear and it has been proposed that ischaemia may play a major role. Our aim is to look for signs of ischaemia in a group of patients developing colitis after diversion colostomy for various causes. Surgical specimens from 32 patients resected for colitis developed after diverting colostomy were examined with routine (haematoxylin-eosin) and Elastic-Van Gieson and Perls' stains. The histological features related to mucosal crypt architecture, crypt epithelium and inflammation were mild, non specific or related to the underlying disease. Fibrosis was present in 21 (65.6%) patients, superficial coagulative necrosis was found in 18 (56%) patients, splitting and/or thickening of muscularis mucosae was present in 20 (62%) patients. The vessels were substantially normal or ectasic without thrombi or alterations in the wall. Evident ischaemia with coagulative necrosis, submucosal oedema and focal fibrosis was detected in only two (6%) patients and an intermediate picture between acute and chronic ischaemia was present in 16 (50%) patients.","In the nonoperative management of children with perforated appendicitis, admission CT findings demonstrating disease beyond the right lower quadrant correlate with treatment failure.","Child reconstruction with a modified Braun enteroenterostomy offers an advantage with respect to marginal ulcer after standard pancreaticoduodenectomy, potentially decreasing the incidence of alkaline reflux gastritis as effectively as Roux-en-Y reconstruction.","Appendicitis is a common pediatric condition requiring urgent surgical intervention to prevent complications. Pelvic ultrasound (US) as a diagnostic aid has become increasingly common. Despite its advantages, evidence suggests US can lead to delayed definitive management. The objective was to test the hypothesis that US is associated with an increased time to appendectomy in children with acute appendicitis. A chart review was conducted of all children aged 0-17 years who presented to the pediatric emergency department (ED) with a discharge diagnosis of appendicitis. The primary outcome variable was the interval between initial evaluation to appendectomy between patients who received an US and those who did not. Of 662 cases included, 424 patients (64%) underwent a pelvic US and 238 patients underwent an appendectomy without US. Median time interval from initial evaluation in the ED by a physician to appendectomy among patients who received an US was 9.7 h (interquartile range [IQR]: 6.8-15.0 h) compared with 5.5 h (IQR: 3.8-8.6 h) among patients who did not receive an US (Mann-Whitney, p<0.001). The increased time to appendectomy in patients who received an US was dependent on the patient being female and presenting to the ED after hours (univariate analysis of variance test for interaction, p<0.05).","Laparoscopic appendectomy is a safe procedure for complicated appendicitis in children, but the greatest short-term benefit is cosmetic. Long-term results have to be evaluated, particularly with regards to the long-term complication rate.","yes. For non-perforated diverticulitis of the right colon, appendicectomy and intravenous antibiotics without diverticulectomy is the preferred treatment strategy.","In the presence of clinical features atypical of acute appendicitis, right-sided colonic diverticulitis should be taken into account; pre-operative instrumental examinations might increase diagnostic accuracy, thereby leading to a more correct therapeutic approach.","Validated risk adjustment programs do not use patient diagnosis as a potential covariate in the evaluation of organ space infections. We hypothesized that patient diagnosis is an important risk factor for organ space infection after colorectal resections. We conducted a retrospective cohort study abstracting data from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement Program from January 2005 through December 2009. Patients who underwent 1 of 3 types of colorectal resections (ileocolostomy, partial colectomy, and coloproctostomy) were identified by the use of Current Procedural Terminology codes. We excluded patients with concomitant formation of diverting or end stoma. The primary outcome measured was organ space infection. Validated risk adjustment models were used with the addition of diagnostic codes. We identified 52,056 patients who underwent a colorectal resection of whom 1774 patients developed an organ space infection (3.4%) and 894 (50.2%) returned to the operating room for further surgery. For ileocolostomy, operations for endometriosis (OR, 7.8; 95% CI, 1.7-36.6) and intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 3.0; 95% CI, 1.5-6.0) were associated with increased risk of organ space infection. For partial colectomy, operations for intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 2.3; 95% CI, 1.2-4.3), IBD (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 1.6-3.8), and bowel obstruction (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-2.6) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. For coloproctostomy, operations for malignant neoplasm (OR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.1-4.3) and diverticular bleeding (OR, 3.1; 95% CI, 1.1-9.0) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. This study was limited by the retrospective study design.","A fecalith is a fecal concretion that can obstruct the appendix leading to acute appendicitis. We hypothesized that the presence of a fecalith would lead to an earlier appendiceal perforation. Between January 2001 and December 2005, the charts of all patients younger than 18 years old who underwent appendectomy at our institution were reviewed. Duration of symptoms and timing between presentation and operation were noted along with radiologic, operative, and pathologic findings. There were 388 patients who met the study criteria. A fecalith was present in 31% of patients (n = 121). The appendix was perforated in 57% of patients who had a fecalith vs 36% in patients without a fecalith (P < .001). The overall rate of interval appendectomies was 12%. A fecalith was present on the initial radiologic studies of 36% of the patients who had interval appendectomies, and the appendix was perforated significantly sooner in these patients when compared to those without a fecalith (91 vs 150 hours; P = .036).","yes. ELP occurs most frequently in cases that have been diverted for inflammatory bowel disease. Fewer cases of ELP were noted in cases of inflammatory bowel disease in the absence of diversion colitis. It is postulated that altered bowel flora and immune dysregulation may be pivotal in the causation of this association.","Primary carcinoma of the bowel is a rare malignancy in pediatric age group. The aim of the study was to assess the incidence of appendicular malignancies in children and the possibility of reducing the need for routine histopathological examination of appendix. In last 15 years, all the cases of appendectomies in children were analyzed. Retrospective analysis of the data was done to document the clinical presentation, diagnosis, outcome and histopathology reports of the specimen. The case files and operation notes were studied thoroughly in cases where HPR was positive for malignancy. From July 1995 to June 2010, 595 appendectomies were done in children. Three cases of carcinoid tumor were detected. All were less than 1 cm and were on the tip of the appendix. There was no preoperative or intraoperative suspicion.","no. In this experience with high definition colonoscopes in chronic colitis, no synchronous adenocarcinomas were found when colectomy was performed for low-grade dysplasia or index adenocarcinoma, and only 1 adenocarcinoma in the appendix was found in the setting of high-grade dysplasia. These findings suggest that active surveillance or subtotal colectomy may be safe options for patients with IBD and some grades of neoplasia.","no. Most patients presenting with acute right-sided peritonitic pain are diagnosed and managed as cases of acute appendicitis. Acute pain in the lower right side of the abdomen caused by appendiceal diverticulitis is very rare and clinically indistinguishable from acute appendicitis. Inflammatory complications of appendiceal diverticula mimic acute appendicitis.","Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a feared complication after abdominal operations in both children and adults. The optimal management of ASBO in the pediatric population is debated. The aim of the present study was to examine the safety and effectiveness of non-operative management in ASBO. A retrospective review of 33 patients who were admitted for ASBO over a 5-year period was carried out. Follow-up data were available for 29 patients. Demographic, clinical, and operative details and outcomes were collected for these patients. Data analysis was done with SPSS version 15.0. P ≤ 0.05 was regarded as significant. Out of 618 abdominal surgeries within the 5-year period, 34 admissions were recorded from 29 patients at the follow-up period of 1-28 months. There were 19 boys (65.5%). The median age of patients was 4.5 years. Typhoid intestinal perforation (n = 7), intussusception (n = 6), intestinal malrotation (n = 5), and appendicitis (n = 4) were the major indications for a prior abdominal surgery leading to ASBO. Twenty-five patients (73.5%) developed SBO due to adhesions within the first year of the primary procedure. Of the 34 patients admitted with ASBO, 18 (53%) underwent operative intervention and 16 (47%) were successfully managed non-operatively. There were no differences in sex (P = 0.24), initial procedure (P = 0.12), age, duration of symptoms, and time to re-admission between the patients who responded to non-operative management and those who underwent operative intervention. However, the length of hospital stay was significantly shorter in the non-operative group (P<0.0001). Five (14.7%) patients had small bowel resection. A 43-day-old child who initially underwent Ladd's procedure died within 15 h of re-admission while being prepared for surgery, accounting for the only mortality (3.4%).","Childhood obesity is an increasing problem in affluent societies throughout the world. We sought to identify the impact of obesity on the outcome of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and determine differences (if any) between ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (CD). The 2009 Kids' Inpatient Database was explored for all children (≤ 20 years) admitted with IBD. ICD-9 codes were used to identify obesity and complications, including hemorrhage, perforation, and complex fistulas. Logistic regression analysis accounting for demographics, underlying disease, surgical procedures, and obesity was performed to identify factors associated with complication development. Data are expressed as odds ratios (OR) and a 95% confidence interval (CI). A P value of 0.05 was regarded as significant. From 12,465 admissions, 164 children were obese (1.3%), with no difference between CD and UC (1.3% vs. 1.4%; P=0.60). Girls had a two-fold increase in obesity (OR: 2.06, CI: 1.48-2.86; P<0.01). Obesity had no effect on elective/emergent admission rate (OR: 0.85, CI: 0.54-1.35; P=0.49), perforation (OR: 0.76, CI: 0.13-4.46; P=0.76), hemorrhage (OR: 0.64,CI: 0.34-1.21; P=0.17), complex fistula (OR: 1.19, CI: 0.45-3.17; P=0.72), or requirement for surgery (OR: 0.80, CI: 0.48-1.31; P=0.37). While the overall clinical morbidity rate was 10.7%, obesity was not associated with the development of overall complications (OR 1.20, CI: 0.75-1.93; P=0.45) or length of stay (6.36 vs. 6.10 days; P=0.61). Obesity increased the rate of central venous catheter (CVC) infections (OR: 10.98, CI: 2.50-48.20; P<0.01).","This study was designed to compare the safety and effectiveness of routine drainage and nondrainage after emergency laparotomy for typhoid intestinal perforation (TIP). A retrospective review of children 15 years or younger who underwent surgery for TIP from 2002 to 2009 was performed. All children underwent resuscitation and laparotomy and were given antibiotics but were then divided into 2 groups: group I (n = 81), postoperative peritoneal drainage, and group II, (n = 66) no drainage. There was no demographic difference between the groups (e.g., mean age 9.6 vs 9.0 years; P = .21). There was no significant difference in mean time for return of bowel function (3.8 vs 4.0 days; P = .6), rate of surgical site infection (63% vs 70%; P = .39), wound dehiscence (36% vs 27%; P = .27), anastomotic leak (2.5% vs 1.5%; P = .27), enterocutaneous fistula formation (10% vs 6.1%; P = .40), intraabdominal abscess formation (4% vs 9%; P = .18), or mean length of hospital stay (22 vs 19 days; P = .26).","Natural history of paediatric-onset ulcerative proctitis (UP) is poorly described. Our aim was to describe the phenotype and disease course of incident UP in a population-based study of paediatric-onset UC. All patients with UC diagnosed <17 years from 1988 to 2004, and followed during >2 years have been extracted from a population-based registry. UC location was defined according to the Paris classification. Cumulative risks for use of immunosuppressants (IS), anti-tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) therapy, colonic extension and colectomy were described using Kaplan-Meier method. Risk factors for colonic extension were assessed using Cox proportional hazards models. 158 patients with paediatric-onset UC (91 females) with a median age at diagnosis of 14.5 years (Q1: 11.4-Q3: 16.1) have been identified and followed during a median of 11.4 years (8.2-15.8). Among them, 25% had UP (E1) at diagnosis and 49% of them presented a colonic extension at maximal follow-up. In these children, the cumulative risk for colonic extension was 10% at 1 year, 45% at 5 years and 52% at 10 years. No parameter at diagnosis was associated with colonic extension in the UP (E1 group). IS use was significantly lower in patients with UP than in those with E2, E3 or E4 location (p=0.049). For the UP cohort, the cumulative risk for colectomy was 3% at 1 year, 10% at 5 years, 13% at 10 years and 13% at 15 years. Risks for colonic extension, treatment with anti-TNF-α and colectomy did not differ between the E1 group and the E2-E3-E4 group.","yes. Appendiceal faecaliths may be a cause of right iliac fossa pain in the absence of obvious appendiceal inflammation. In this study, the policy of routine removal of a normal-looking appendix at laparoscopy in the absence of any other obvious pathology appeared to be an effective treatment for recurrent symptoms in those cases with a faecalith. Further studies are needed to assess this putative association.","The findings of this study suggest that the AG is unsuitable for routine biliary repair in children. It should be used only as a salvage technique when conventional HJ repair is contraindicated. Because of the high risk of graft dysfunction, we recommend screening tests to detect biochemical or histologic cholestasis in any patient previously treated with appendix grafting.","Patients who are suspected of having acute appendicitis usually undergo surgery in order to avoid life-threatening complications such as perforation and peritonitis. However, acute appendicitis is difficult to distinguish from other sources of right-sided abdominal pain. The clinical picture is almost indistinguishable from appendiceal diverticulitis, which is a rare entity and remains a difficult diagnostic problem. We describe the case of a 39-year-old male with perforated appendiceal diverticulitis. The patient was admitted to our surgical unit with acute appendicitis-like symptoms and underwent surgery with a diagnosis of suspected acute appendicitis. The patient was found to have perforated appendiceal diverticulitis and standard appendectomy with abdominal lavage was carried out.","For this retrospective study, case notes of all children (n = 262) who underwent SPA between August 2005 and December 2008 were reviewed. Those children in whom the preoperative ultrasonography revealed suspected perforation were excluded from SPA and subsequently underwent open surgery. SPA was performed using a 12-mm trocar with one 5-mm working channel, introduced through a sub-umbilical incision. After grasping the appendix with atraumatic forceps, the appendix was exteriorized through the umbilicus and dissected outside the abdominal cavity as in open surgery. Preoperatively, each patient received one dose of Metronidazole and Cefuroxime, and the umbilicus was cleaned in particular. Of the 262 children who underwent SPA, 146 were boys (55.7%) and 116 girls (44.3%). Median age at operation was 11.4 years (range, 1.1-15.9). Six obese (with a body mass index greater than the 95th percentile) children (2.3%) developed intra-abdominal abscess after perforated appendicitis that was treated with a course of antibiotics. One child required revisional surgery and drainage. The median length of antibiotic treatment was 3 days (range, 0-15).","Enterocolic lymphocytic phlebitis (ELP) is an uncommon cause of bowel pathology and most frequently results in ischaemia. It is characterised by an artery-sparing, venulocentric lymphoid infiltrate that causes a phlebitis and vascular compromise. Rare cases of ELP have been encountered with lymphocytic colitis in the absence of ischaemic bowel change. The present study examined the occurrence of ELP in the setting of diversion colitis and inflammatory bowel disease, as well as in random colectomy specimens. The study cohort comprised the following: 26 completion proctectomy specimens for ulcerative colitis with superimposed diversion colitis in the rectal stump; 3 colectomy specimens for Crohn disease with diversion colitis; 6 colectomy specimens for adenocarcinoma and/or diverticular disease with diversion colitis; 34 resection specimens with ulcerative colitis only; 19 with Crohn disease only; and 100 random colon resection specimens for adenocarcinoma, adenoma, diverticular disease and ischaemia. ELP was present in 18 of the 26 ulcerative colitis cases with diversion colitis, 3/3 Crohn disease cases with diversion colitis, 1/6 cases of diverticular disease with diversion colitis, 6/34 cases of ulcerative colitis without diversion, 2/19 Crohn disease cases without diversion colitis, and only 1 of 100 colectomy cases without inflammatory bowel disease or diversion colitis.","The appendix graft (AG) is used widely for urinary tract replacement in children. Biliary tract replacement is less common. The purpose of this retrospective multicentric study was to evaluate the safety of appendix grafting for biliary reconstruction. The files of 33 patients treated at 7 European pediatric centers were reviewed. Indications included choledochal cyst (CC) in 5 cases, biliary trauma (BT) in 1, and biliary atresia (BA) in 27. In CC and BT patients, the graft was inserted isoperistaltically between the proximal biliary duct and second duodenum. In all but one of the BA patients, the graft was placed antiperistaltically by patching its cecal end onto the porta hepatis. Postoperatively, all CC and BT patients initially became asymptomatic but developed laboratory evidence of anicteric cholestasis within 1 year. The most common manifestation was increased gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase level (GGT), whereas histologic findings showed liver damage (mainly fibrosis). Reoperation has been carried out in 4 CC and 1 BT patients within a mean period of 19 months after appendix grafting. The graft procedure was converted to hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) in 4 and to choledocoduodenostomy in 1. Surgical exploration showed kinking in 1 patient and stenosis in 1. In the remaining 3 cases, there was no discernible cause of cholestasis, and appendix histology findings were normal. In all 5 reoperated patients, liver function findings returned to normal within 1 month. Reoperation is scheduled for the remaining CC patient who currently requires ursodesoxycholic medication to maintain normal liver function and presents histologic evidence of \"de novo\" sclerosing cholangitis. Results of appendix grafting also were poor in the 27 BA patients. Procedure-related perioperative complications occurred in 4 (15%) including 1 early death from graft necrosis. Another early death resulted from intestinal hemorrhage. Jaundice cleared in only 8 (28%).","This method was used in 14 children, seven boys and seven girls, aged from 2.7 to 14 years, with acute appendicitis and peritonitis. Conversion to median laparotomy was necessary in order to perform adhesiolysis in two cases in which small bowel was observed. Postoperative complications occurred in four patients involving three wound infections and one mechanical intestinal obstruction. There was no intra-abdominal abscess.","Cecal diverticulitis is an uncommon cause of acute abdominal pain and presents clinically similar to acute appendicitis. There are many perspectives concerning the management of this condition, ranging from different types of surgical resections to conservative treatment with antibiotics. We present 3 cases of cecal diverticulitis. One of the patients was treated conservatively with intravenous antibiotics and the other 2 were treated with surgical resection.","Chronic right-lower-quadrant abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. The purpose of this report is to detail the outcome of management of these patients with appendectomy. Appendiceal colic was judged to be present if the history showed cramping abdominal pain in association with McBurney's point tenderness. This is a retrospective review of 50 consecutive pediatric patients experiencing pain for greater than 1 year. All patients were evaluated at a single institution by one surgeon and underwent elective appendectomies from April 1985 through April 1997. Seventy-five percent of the patients were girls. One hundred forty-nine imaging and endoscopic studies were performed with 135 negative findings. Twenty-three patients had a minimum of one previous emergency room visit or hospitalization for the same abdominal complaints. The pathological findings were distinctly different from those of incidental appendectomies. Three patients had undergone previous diagnostic explorations for abdominal pain, the appendix was not removed, and a subsequent appendectomy relieved the discomfort. Forty-nine of the 50 patients were pain free at 1 year.","yes. An unusual cause of mild chronic abdominal pain can be the presence of appendiceal diverticulum with inspissated intraluminal secretions. The evaluation of these patients is usually normal. Exploratory laparoscopy with appendectomy should be the final evaluation for patients with mild chronic abdominal pain.","no. Recurrent appendicitis is rare in pediatric patients after successful nonoperative management of perforated appendicitis. Routine IA is not necessarily indicated for these children.","Persons who have had an appendectomy are less prone to develop ulcerative colitis than those who have not. The underlying mechanism and the clinical use of this finding are unknown. Two competing hypotheses were examined: (1) the inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is conferred by a mutual determinant such as genes, and (2) the appendix itself has biologic effects that promote the development of ulcerative colitis. We performed a population-based cohort study of all 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy performed in Denmark 1977 through 1999. We used a bidirectional cohort design, calculating the standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis both before and after the appendectomy. If the hypothesis of a constant, confounding factor were true, incidence rates of ulcerative colitis would be equal before and after appendectomy. If the incidence of ulcerative colitis were lower after appendectomy than before, it would support the second hypothesis and a true protective effect of the appendectomy. We controlled confounding by age and sex using direct standardization. Of 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy, 559 developed ulcerative colitis during a mean follow up of 17.5 years. The standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis was lower in the postappendectomy period than in the preappendectomy period (incidence rate ratio = 0.74; 95% confidence interval = 0.62-0.88).","The inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is not explained by time-stable factors such as genes. Appendectomy might have a genuine protective effect toward development of ulcerative colitis.","Antegrade continence enemas (ACEs) are successful for constipation and/or fecal incontinence caused by anorectal malformations or spina bifida but have been thought to be less successful in the treatment for patients with colonic dysmotility. We studied the long-term efficacy of ACE in a large group of patients with idiopathic slow-transit constipation (STC). We identified 56 children with an appendicostomy for ACE with radiologically proven STC. An independent investigator (SKK) performed confidential telephone interviews. We assessed 42 of 56 children (31 boys) of mean age 13.1 years (range, 6.9-25). Mean follow-up was at 48 months (range, 3-118). Mean symptom duration before appendicostomy was 7.5 years (range, 1.4-17.4). Indications for appendicostomy were soiling (29/42), inadequate stool evacuation (7/42), and recurrent hospital admissions for nasogastric washouts (6/42). Both quality of life (Templeton quality of life [P < .0001]) and continence (modified Holschneider continence score [P < .0001]) improved with ACE. Soiling frequency decreased in 32 of 42 (11/32 completely continent). Thirty-seven of 42 children had reduced abdominal pain severity (P < .0001) and frequency (P < .0001). Complications included granulation tissue (33/42), stomal infection (18/42), and washout leakage (16/42). Fifteen of 42 children ceased using the appendicostomy (7/15 symptoms resolved). Thirty-five of 42 families felt that their aspirations had been met.","The aim of the present study was to review postoperative complications of pediatric patients undergoing colectomy for ulcerative colitis (UC) or inflammatory bowel disease-unspecified (IBD-U) with a focus on preoperative immunosuppression including exposure to infliximab. We performed a retrospective chart review of all of the children with UC or IBD-U undergoing colectomy at our institution from 1996 to 2010. Data collected included indication for colectomy, immunosuppressive medications taken within 30 to 90 days of colectomy, surgical techniques and staging, and early and late postoperative complications. A total of 51 patients underwent colectomy (45 UC, 6 IBD-U) (55% male, 63% pancolitis at diagnosis, mean age at diagnosis 10.8 ± 3.8 years, mean age at colectomy 13.1 ± 3.8 years). Indications for colectomy were fulminant colitis in 26% and medically refractory chronic disease in 74%. Patient exposure to immunosuppression in the 30 days before colectomy included corticosteroids (88%), thiopurines (51%), and calcineurin inhibitors (4%). Within 90 days before colectomy, 65% of patients were exposed to infliximab. Small bowel obstruction was the most common postoperative complication, occurring in 19% (treated surgically in 30%), followed by wound infection in 8% and intraabdominal abscess in 6%. One patient developed postoperative sepsis. There was no increased incidence of early or late infectious or noninfectious complications in those patients taking or not taking thiopurines or calcineurin inhibitors (within 30 days), or infliximab (within 90 days).","The findings suggest that laparoscopic appendectomy should be avoided in children who have complicated appendicitis because of the increased risk for postoperative intraabdominal abscesses. The authors propose a prospective, randomized trial to verify this finding.","yes. The present data emerging from a large multicentre study, confirm that appendectomy has a protective role for the development of ulcerative colitis.","To find out the incidence of acute appendicitis leading to acute abdominal pain and necessitating appendectomy in the follow-up of patients after radical cystectomy and urinary diversions. A prospective 160 consecutive radical cystectomy patients with urinary diversion in whom appendectomy was not done between January 1991 and June 2001 were reviewed for the incidence of acute appendicitis. Ages ranged between 26 and 73 years. There were 143 males and 17 females. 120 patients had ileal conduit, 20 sigmoid neobladder, 5 continent urinary diversion, and 15 ureterosigmoidostomy as urinary diversion. Each patients was followed up regularly till death or last follow-up. The follow-up ranged between 4 months and 10 years (mean 6 years). Intestinal obstruction (11%) and acute pyelonephritis (16%) were the most common causes of acute abdominal pain. The remaining causes include sigmoid neobladder perforation (0.6%), parastomal hernia (0.6%), urinary retention due to mucus (1.8%) and renal colic (1.8%). In all patients, diagnosis was easily made and they were managed accordingly. None of the patients had acute appendicitis requiring appendectomy on follow-up.","Laparoscopic appendectomy (LA) is controversial due to the high rate of intraabdominal abscess (IAA). We report a postlaparoscopic appendectomy complication (PLAC) observed in pediatric patients discharged after an uneventful postoperative period. In this case series, a review of the medical records of children who underwent LA or open appendectomy (OA) during a 5-year period was performed. The diagnosis of PLAC was based on three well-defined criteria: time of appearance, clinical and laboratory findings, and ultrasonographic characteristic features. A total of 374 patients underwent appendectomy (LA, 129 patients; OA, 245 patients). One patient with conversion of LA to OA and 35 patients with gangrenous or perforated appendicitis (seven from the LA group and 28 from the OA group) were excluded from the study. After LA, nine children developed intraabdominal complications during their hospitalization (six infiltrate in the right lower quadrant and three IAA); these were also excluded. Discharge from the department was done when three conditions were fulfilled: normal body temperature, normal leukocyte count, and passage of a stool. Among the 112 LA patients, PLAC was observed in 15 (13.4%), aged 12.5 +/- 2.9 years, who were discharged after LA in 2.7 +/- 0.9 days. Number of PLAC and time of its appearance were not significantly different in patients with normal or pathological appendix. Sonographic findings of PLAC at admission were fluid alone (n = 11), edematous mesenteric fat (n = 7), thickening of bowel wall (n = 9), and more than one sign (n = 9). At repeated sonography, these signs were present in all patients, and IAA developed in one of them. All children were successfully treated with antibiotics for 10.1 +/- 3.9 days, one of whom underwent a CT-guided percutaneous drainage for IAA.","yes. The presence of fecalith is associated with earlier and higher rates of appendiceal perforation in pediatric patients with acute appendicitis. An expedient appendectomy should therefore be performed in the pediatric patient with a radiologic evidence of fecalith.","E nterobius vermicularis is one of the most common parasitic infections of the gastrointestinal tract, and has been shown to infest up to 28% of children worldwide. The role of E . vermicularis in acute appendicitis has previously been questioned, with some studies identifying infection as a precursor for inflammation of the appendix, with others refuting such a link. A retrospective review was conducted of all appendices received for histological analysis at our unit from January 2002 to December 2011 (10-year period), removed in the course of acute appendicectomy in children aged 3 to 15 years. Appendices were categorized by degree of inflammation and infestation with E . vermicularis. Appendicectomy for clinical suspicion of acute appendicitis was performed in 2923 patients, 1694 (58%) male, median age 11.6 years. E . vermicularis was present in 4% of appendices; 25% of which showed concurrent acute inflammation. E . vermicularis infestation was more common in females (F : M 76% versus 24% of inflamed appendices and 66.7% versus 33.3% for non-inflamed appendices). European individuals showed higher representation in the E . vermicularis group than the total study population (79% versus 53% respectively).","E . vermicularis was found to be more common in females and those of European descent. Seventy-seven percent of patients with E . vermicularis did not have concurrent acute inflammation of the appendix on histological examination. The question remains as to whether infestation is protective of inflammation or whether infestation causes appendiceal colic and subsequent appendicectomy of a non-inflamed appendix, thereby protective of the morbidity of acute appendicitis.","Diverticulum of the vermiform appendix is rarely encountered. Previous reports in the literature indicate that appendiceal diverticulum without inflammations are asymptomatic. During the past 10 years, 217 patients have been evaluated in our office for chronic lower abdominal pain. Six patients in this group were unusual in that no diagnosis could be made after a complete history, physical examination, and multiple imaging and laboratory studies. Each patient had a normal computed tomography scan of the abdomen, upper endoscopy, colonoscopy, barium enema, and small bowel enteroclysis. Each of the 6 patients underwent an exploratory laparoscopy and appendectomy. All 6 patients in this series had acquired diverticulum of the appendix with inspissated intraluminal secretions without histological evidence of inflammation. The age range was 37 to 57 years. Most patients were male, and most had a single diverticulum projecting into the mesoappendix. All 6 patients had complete resolution of their chronic abdominal pain after the laparoscopic appendectomy.","Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis.","Appendiceal colic may be a true clinical entity. Children suffering from appendiceal colic may benefit from elective appendectomy.","Unexplained recurrent abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. An organic cause is found in 10 percent of children. Recurrent abdominal pain is responsible for multiple hospital admissions and patient evaluations. In some children, partial luminal obstruction of the appendix without inflammation may be the cause of this pain, and is defined as \"appendiceal colic.\" During a period of five years, we performed a prospective study among children admitted for right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Children operated on for suspected acute appendicitis were eliminated from the study. Among the remaining patients, those with recurrent pain were evaluated for appendiceal colic. Medical histories were obtained, and the patients underwent physical examinations, routine laboratory studies, stool cultures, abdominal roentgenograms, and sonography scans (including the pelvic region in girls). Precise radiologic evaluation of the appendix was performed by barium swallow in 22 children or by barium enema in four. The diagnosis of appendiceal colic was made if the following three criteria were met: a history of longer than one month with three or more recurrent attacks of right lower quadrant abdominal pain; localized tenderness in the right lower abdomen without signs of peritoneal irritation or inflammation; or radiologic findings at barium examination consisting of irregular filling of the appendix, nonfilling or partial filling of the appendix after 24 hours, or nonemptying of the appendix after 72 hours. Children thus diagnosed underwent elective appendectomy, which was performed only after an additional episode of abdominal pain. Twenty-six children (average age 11.4 years) were treated by appendectomy and of these, 23 (88.5 percent) experienced pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. The remaining three children had pain relief within four months after appendectomy.","Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed."],"string":"[\n \"yes. Neutrophilic inflammation of the distal ileum, as reflected by fecal calprotectin, is common after restorative proctocolectomy for pediatric-onset UC.\",\n \"yes. Abnormal small intestinal permeability in children with ulcerative colitis could predict a more relapsing disease.\",\n \"This study seeks to compare outcomes (in-hospital mortality, colostomy rates, and 30-day readmission rates) in older adult patients undergoing emergency/urgent versus elective surgery for diverticulitis. Data were derived from the 100% Medicare Provider Analysis and Review (MEDPAR) inpatient file from 2004-2007. All patients 65 years of age and above with a primary diagnosis of diverticulitis that underwent left colon resection, colostomy, or ileostomy were included. The primary outcome variable was in-hospital mortality. Secondary outcome variables included intestinal diversion, 30-day post-discharge readmission rates, discharge destination, length of stay, and total charges. Patients were grouped in two categories for comparison: emergent/urgent (EU) versus elective surgery, as defined by admission type. Multivariate analysis was performed adjusting for age (categorized by five groups), gender, race, and medical comorbidity as measured by Charlson Index. Fifty-three thousand three hundred sixteen individuals were eligible for inclusion, with 23,764 (44.6%) in the elective group. On average, EU patients were older (76.8 vs. 73.9 years of age, p < 0.001) and less likely to be female (65.4% vs. 71.1%, p < 0.001). EU patients had higher in-hospital mortality (8.0% vs. 1.4%, p < 0.001), higher intestinal diversion rates (64.2% vs. 12.7%, p < 0.001), and higher 30-day readmission rates (21.4% vs. 11.9%, p < 0.001) and the worse outcomes persisted even after adjustment for risk factors. Unadjusted and adjusted mortality rates dramatically increased by age, although the affect of age on mortality was more pronounced in the elective group where mortality rates ranged from 0.56% in patients 65-69 years old to 6.5% in patients 85+ years old. The rates of ostomy and 30-day readmission generally increased with age, with worse outcomes noted particularly in the elective group.\",\n \"Intussusception is the second most common cause of acute abdomen in children, following appendicitis. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the experience of the authors, in an effort to promote intussusception management, especially that of small bowel intussusception. Records of intussusception diagnosed between July 2002 and September 2014 were evaluated in terms of patient age, sex, clinical findings, admission time, ultrasonographic findings, treatment methods, and outcomes. Eighty-one patients, 52 males and 29 females, were included (mean age: 10.6 months). Intussusceptions were ileocolic (IC) in 52 cases, ileoileal (IL) in 26, and jejunojejunal (JJ) in 3. Nineteen (23.5%) patients underwent surgery. Hydrostatic reduction was performed in 45 (55.5%) IC cases. Seventeen (21%) patients with small bowel intussusceptions (SBIs), measuring 1.8-2.3 cm in length, spontaneously reduced. All patients who underwent surgery had intussusceptums ≥4 cm. Three of the 4 intestinal resection cases had history of abdominal surgery.\",\n \"Abdominal pain symptoms and incontinence are common in childhood. The aim of this study was to analyse abdominal pain symptoms and their associations with incontinence and symptoms of anxiety and depression in young children. We examined 1130 children during the school entry check-up (mean age 6.2 years) and 951 participated in the study. Parents completed a questionnaire contained 11 items regarding Rome-III functional gastrointestinal disorders (FGIDs) and incontinence and 14 items from the anxious/depressed scale of the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). Of the 951 children (55.6% boys) we recruited, 30.1% had experienced abdominal pain symptoms in the past two months and 14% had complained of them at least once a week. In addition, 2.6% had irritable bowel syndrome, 11.3% had childhood functional abdominal pain, 2.4% were affected by faecal incontinence, 2.1% were affected by daytime urinary incontinence, and 5.5% were affected by nocturnal enuresis. One in ten (10.6%) had symptoms of anxiety and depression, and these were significantly higher in the children with FGIDs, particularly if they were also incontinent.\",\n \"yes. Intestinal obstruction after pediatric liver transplantation is commonly related to what would conventionally be considered unusual causes. A high index of suspicion must be maintained and early operative therapy considered as obstruction because causes such as diaphragmatic hernia and PTLD are unlikely to resolve with conservative measures.\",\n \"The appendix is the conduit of choice for a Mitrofanoff procedure. Re-tubularized small bowel conduits have a considerably higher incidence of catheterization problems. Anatomical factors may contribute to the unique incidence of pouch formation.\",\n \"Although luminal obstruction has traditionally been viewed as the underlying cause of appendicitis, recent evidence has suggested that the disease may result directly from invasion by specific pathogens, e.g. Fusobacterium nucleatum. The purpose of this study was to survey microbial communities within pediatric appendectomy specimens using a culture-independent approach. We performed 16S ribosomal gene sequence analysis to profile the microbiota present within luminal fluid obtained from 22 pediatric appendectomy specimens. These included 10 simple appendicitis cases, 5 perforated appendicitis cases, 2 interval appendectomies, and 5 incidental appendectomies. Samples could be divided into 2 distinct clusters based upon the composition of the appendiceal bacterial communities. Appendicitis samples contained an increased abundance of Fusobacterium spp. and a reduced abundance of Bacteroides spp. relative to non-appendicitis cases. Appendicitis samples also contained variable amounts of other oral taxa such as Porphyromonas, Parvimonas, and Gemella, whereas these taxa were generally absent from non-appendicitis samples.\",\n \"Laparoscopic Appendectomy (LA) is a safe procedure in adults resulting in shorter hospitalization and sooner return to activity. The relative merits of LA and open appendectomy (OA) are evaluated in this first prospective and randomized study in children. A total of 129 children with appendicitis were included. Forty-three boys and 45 girls, age 1 to 16 years, were enrolled. Randomization was determined by sealed assignment card. OA utilized a 3- to 4-cm right lower quadrant, muscle-splitting incision. Wounds were closed without drains. Antibiotics, when used, consisted of gentamycin, clindamycin, and ampicillin. LA was performed by experienced surgeons utilizing a 3-trocar technique with reusable instruments. Twenty-one children (24%) were perforated. Patients were discharged as soon as they were taking a diet and afebrile. Statistical comparisons were by Fisher's Exact and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. There were no differences in postoperative analgesia, resumption of oral intake, length of hospitalization, return to normal activities, or morbidity. Laparoscopic appendectomy was associated with longer operating times and increased cost.\",\n \"Intussusception is an entity well codify in pediatric surgery, with guidelines well defined since years in terms of imaging and procedures. From January '99 to Dec. '03, 25 children were admitted to the Department of Pediatric Surgery of the Children's Hospital of Milan. All the aspects related to the pathology have been evaluated in the study. 25 patients have been studied. 23/25 presented severe pain, 19/25 normal bowel movements in the last 3 hours and in 9/25 a mass were detected at clinical examination.19/25 were submitted to laparotomy after failure of reduction through barium enema, and in 17/19 a manual reduction were performed. Only 2 patients required a bowel resection with primary anastomosis. The analysis of the delay of diagnosis, the delta-T between beginning of the symptoms and first medical evaluation was of 16,23 h. (3-72), and the delta-T between the first evaluation and diagnosis was 18,7 h. The interval between diagnosis and surgery was of 4,3.\",\n \"Our data reveal significantly higher appendectomy rates in patients with a diagnosis of diverticulitis, medically or surgically managed, in comparison with patients with incidentally identified diverticulosis. Therefore, we propose that appendicitis and diverticulitis share similar risk factors and potentially a common pathological link.\",\n \"yes. Our findings suggest that allergic predisposition might be another important risk factor for complicated courses of acute sigmoid diverticulitis and linked with histamine receptor expression. Supportive therapies with antihistaminic drugs might become an option. Allergic predisposition might be worth considering when indicating surgery for sigmoid diverticulitis.\",\n \"yes. Unsafe child feces disposal was significantly associated with environmental enteropathy and impaired growth in a pediatric population in rural Bangladesh. Interventions are needed to reduce this high-risk behavior to protect the health of susceptible pediatric populations.\",\n \"no. Neither diverticulosis nor treatment with gastric acid inhibitors seem to be risk factors for developing peritonitis of enteric origin in PD patients. This type of peritonitis has to be promptly identified and treated in order to diminish the high frequency of peritoneal catheter removal and PD dropout due to such episodes.\",\n \"To determine whether the use of ultrasonography (US) improves the outcome of children with appendicitis. All cases of patients (<17 years old) with pathologically confirmed appendicitis treated in the ED between July 1992 and December 1995 were retrospectively reviewed. 231 charts met criteria for analysis. 100 (43%) patients had US prior to surgery. Age, race, and insurance status were similar for children in the US and non-US groups; there were no differences between the groups at presentation in mean temperature, mean WBC count, or percentage of children with vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal tenderness, or guarding. Those in the non-US group were more often male (71%, p=0.002) and more frequently had right lower quadrant pain (65%, p=0.003). Time from ED triage to the OR was 17.1 hours (US group) vs 10.4 hours (non-US group) (p=0.002). The perforation rates and the complication (abscess, wound infection, wound dehiscence) rates were similar for children in the two groups. Hospital charges were higher in the US group than in the non-US group ($14,123 vs $13,021, p=0.007).\",\n \"Studies have suggested that scans with technetium-tagged white blood cells (WBC-Tc99m) may be equal to endoscopy in the assessment of extent and activity of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). We have retrospectively examined the accuracy of WBC-Tc99m scans in differentiating continuous from discontinuous colitis in pediatric IBD. There were 207 children in the study (96 boys, 111 girls, median age 13 years). This included 29 controls - children with no gastrointestinal disease (NL) who underwent WBC-Tc99m scans for other medical problems. Scans were obtained at 30 minutes and 2-4 hours following injection. Scans were interpreted as showing continuous colitis, discontinuous colitis, or no colitis. In the 77 children with active Crohn's disease (CD) of the colon, the scans revealed discontinuous uptake in 63 children and continuous uptake in 14. In the 29 children with ulcerative colitis (UC), 23 scans showed continuous uptake and 6 revealed discontinuous uptake. Two of these 6 showed focal activity near the appendix, and subclinical appendicitis could not be excluded. Another child was bleeding and the scan could have been misinterpreted as showing small- bowel inflammation. In the last three patients, skip areas were clearly identifiable. In none of these last three patients were the biopsies typical of CD (i. e., no granuloma was identified) nor was inflammation patchy. In summary, of the 106 scans showing inflammation, 6 were classified into the wrong group.\",\n \"The minimally invasive laparoscopic technique is feasible, safe, and efficacious for children with complicated appendicitis. Laparoscopic appendectomy should be the initial procedure of choice for most cases of complicated appendicitis in children.\",\n \"Lumenal obstruction has typically been regarded as the cause of acute appendicitis (AA). Recent evidence including data from \\\"antibiotics first\\\" trials suggests that this disease may result from invasion of the appendix by specific pathogens. Small studies have identified an abundance of bacteria from the genus Fusobacterium in appendixes from patients with AA. We aimed to validate these findings in a larger cohort of children with appendicitis in addition to profiling the appendiceal microbiota in a population of children without appendicitis. Appendix swabs were collected from children undergoing appendectomy for AA (n = 60), incidental appendectomy for reasons other than appendicitis (n = 18), or ileocecectomy for inflammatory bowel disease (n = 7), in addition to samples from other sites. Bacterial 16S ribosomal RNA gene sequences from each sample were amplified, sequenced, and analyzed with the UPARSE and QIIME programs. We found that the normal human appendix harbors populations of Fusobacteria that are generally absent in fecal samples from healthy adults and children. In patients with AA, Fusobacteria populations proliferate and often persist despite several weeks of broad-spectrum antibiotics prior to surgery. Relative to non-AA samples, AA samples were depleted of sequences from the genus Bacteroides Phylogenetic analysis of sequence data indicates that F. nucleatum, F. necrophorum, and F. varium are the species of Fusobacterium observed in AA samples.\",\n \"Intractable constipation in children is an uncommon but debilitating condition. When medical therapy fails, surgery is warranted; but the optimal surgical approach has not been clearly defined. We reviewed our experience with operative management of intractable constipation to identify predictors of success and to compare outcomes after 3 surgical approaches: antegrade continence enema (ACE), enteral diversion, and primary resection. A retrospective review of pediatric patients undergoing ACE, diversion, or resection for intractable, idiopathic constipation from 1994 to 2007 was performed. Satisfactory outcome was defined as minimal fecal soiling and passage of stool at least every other day (ACE, resection) or functional enterostomy without abdominal distension (diversion). Forty-four patients (range = 1-26 years, mean = 9 years) were included. Sixteen patients underwent ACE, 19 underwent primary diversion (5 ileostomy, 14 colostomy), and 9 had primary colonic resections. Satisfactory outcomes were achieved in 63%, 95%, and 22%, respectively. Of the 19 patients diverted, 14 had intestinal continuity reestablished at a mean of 27 months postdiversion, with all of these having a satisfactory outcome at an average follow-up of 56 months. Five patients underwent closure of the enterostomy without resection, whereas the remainder underwent resection of dysmotile colon based on preoperative colonic manometry studies. Of those undergoing ACE procedures, age younger than 12 years was a predictor of success, whereas preoperative colonic manometry was not predictive of outcome. Second manometry 1 year post-ACE showed improvement in all patients tested. On retrospective review, patient noncompliance contributed to ACE failure.\",\n \"yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.\",\n \"We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.\",\n \"This study was performed to provide outcome data for the development of evidenced-based management techniques for children with appendicitis in the authors' hospital. This is a retrospective analysis of 1,196 consecutive children with appendicitis over a 5-year period (1996 to 2001) at a metropolitan hospital. The median age was 9 years (7 months to 18 years). The perforation rate was 38.9%, and the nonappendicitis rate was 5.6%. Predictors of perforation included age less than 8 years, Hispanic ethnicity, generalized abdominal tenderness, rebound tenderness, and increased number of bands. In perforated cases, the median length of stay was 5 days, and the complication rate was 13.5%. There was no difference in complication rates related to type or timing of antibiotics or related to the individual surgeon. There was no difference in infection rates related to type of wound management.\",\n \"Acute appendicitis is the most common cause of acute abdomen in pediatric emergency department (ED) visits, and right lower quadrant abdominal ultrasound (RLQUS) is a valuable diagnostic tool in the clinical approach. The utility of ultrasound in predicting perforation has not been well-defined. We sought to determine the sensitivity of RLQUS to identify perforation in pediatric patients with appendicitis. A chart review of all patients 3 to 21 years of age who received a radiographic work-up and who were ultimately diagnosed with perforated appendicitis between 2010 and 2013 at a pediatric ED was conducted. The final read for ultrasonography was compared to either the operative diagnosis, surgical pathology diagnosis, or further imaging results (if the patient was managed nonoperatively). Test characteristics were calculated for the identification of appendicitis and identification of perforation. Of the 539 patients evaluated for appendicitis, 144 (26.7%) patients had appendicitis, and 40 of these (27.8%) were perforated. Thirty-nine had RLQUS performed as part of their evaluation. Of these, 28 had positive findings for appendicitis, and 9 were read as definite or possible perforated appendicitis. The sensitivity of RLQUS for the diagnosis of appendicitis in the group with perforation was 77.1% (95% confidence interval [CI], 59.4-89%) and the sensitivity for diagnosing a perforation was 23.1% (95% CI, 11.1-39.3%).\",\n \"To identify the factors that facilitate the diagnosis of pediatric appendicitis. Institutionally approved retrospective, single center analysis of all patients with acute abdominal pain was done. Medical history, symptoms, laboratory and radiologic findings of all children presenting with abdominal pain were evaluated. To identify the best predictors, uni- and multi-variate analysis were used. In 2 years, 431 patients fulfilled the inclusion criteria. Data was complete in all subjects. Of these, 156 (36.2 %) suffered from appendicitis. The best discriminators for appendicitis were clinical and ultrasound features. The four best factors were identified by CART analysis (continuous abdominal pain, tenderness on the right lower quadrant, rebound tenderness and conspicuous ultrasound) and combined to the Heidelberg Appendicitis score. A positive score (>3 features) is highly predictive for acute appendicitis (PPV 89.3 %, NPV 94.9 %) and includes all cases of perforated appendicitis.\",\n \"The role of the appendix has been highlighted in the pathogenesis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The aims of this study were to elucidate the immuno-imbalances in the appendix of UC patients, and to clarify the role of the appendix in the development of UC. Colonoscopic biopsy specimens of the appendix, transverse colon, and rectum were obtained from 86 patients with UC: active pancolitis (A-Pan; n = 15), active left-sided colitis (A-Lt; n = 25), A-Lt with appendiceal involvement (A-Lt/Ap; n = 10), inactive pancolitis (I-Pan; n = 14), and inactive left-sided colitis (I-Lt; n = 22), and from controls. In the isolated mucosal T cells, the CD4/CD8 ratio and proportion of activated CD4+ T cells were investigated, and compared with controls. In the appendix, the CD4/CD8 ratio significantly increased in A-Lt and A-Lt/Ap. The ratio in the appendix also tended to increase in A-Pan. In the rectum, the ratio significantly increased in all UC groups. In the appendix, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ (early activation antigen) T cells significantly increased in all UC groups. In the rectum, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ T cells significantly increased only in A-Pan. The proportion of CD4+HLA-DR+ (mature activation antigen) T cells significantly increased only in the rectum of A-Pan, but not in the other areas of any groups.\",\n \"no. The use of CT for the diagnosis of appendicitis in children does not change the negative appendectomy rate. Results of studies performed in adults may not be extrapolated to the evaluation of children with suspected acute appendicitis.\",\n \"To compare treatment failure leading to hospital readmission in children with complicated appendicitis who received oral versus intravenous antibiotics after discharge. Antibiotics are often employed after discharge to prevent treatment failure in children with complicated appendicitis, although existing studies comparing intravenous and oral antibiotics for this purpose are limited. We identified all patients aged 3 to 18 years undergoing appendectomy for complicated appendicitis, who received postdischarge antibiotics at 35 childrens hospitals from 2009 to 2012. Discharge codes were used to identify study subjects from the Pediatric Health Information System database, and chart review confirmed eligibility, treatment assignment, and outcomes. Exposure status was based on outpatient antibiotic therapy, and analysis used optimal and full matching methods to adjust for demographic and clinical characteristics. Treatment failure (defined as an organ-space infection) requiring inpatient readmission was the primary outcome. Secondary outcomes included revisits from any cause to either the inpatient or emergency department setting. In all, 4579 patients were included (median: 99/hospital), and utilization of intravenous antibiotics after discharge ranged from 0% to 91.7% across hospitals. In the matched analysis, the rate of treatment failure was significantly higher for the intravenous group than the oral group [odds ratio (OR) 1.74, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.05-2.88; risk difference: 4.0%, 95% CI 0.4-7.6%], as was the rate of all-cause revisits (OR 2.11, 95% CI 1.44-3.11; risk difference: 9.4%, 95% CI 4.7-14.2%). The rate of peripherally inserted central catheter line complications was 3.2% in the intravenous group, and drug reactions were rare in both groups (intravenous: 0.7%, oral: 0.5%).\",\n \"In pediatric cases of ingested foreign bodies, gastrointestinal foreign bodies (GIFB) have distinct factors contributing to longer and more costly hospitalizations. Patients admitted with ingested foreign bodies were identified in the Kids' Inpatient Database (1997-2009). Overall, 7480 cases were identified. Patients were most commonly <5years of age (44%), male (54%), and Caucasian (57%). A total of 2506 procedures were performed, GI surgical procedures (57%) most frequently, followed by GI endoscopy (24%), esophagoscopy (11%), and bronchoscopy - in cases of inhaled objects (9%). On multivariate analysis, length of stay increased when cases were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=1.7), esophageal perforation (OR=40.0), intestinal perforation (OR=4.4), exploratory laparotomy (OR=1.9), and gastric (OR=2.9), small bowel (OR=1.5), or colon surgery (OR=2.5), all p<0.02. Higher total charges (TC) were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=2.0), endoscopy of esophagus (OR=1.8), stomach (OR=2.1), or colon (OR=3.3), and exploratory laparotomy (OR=3.6) or surgery of stomach (OR=5.6), small bowel (OR=6.4), or colon (OR=3.4), all p<0.001.\",\n \"yes. Patients with ulcerative colitis and indeterminate colitis with a family history of Crohn's disease or preoperative anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae immunoglobulin-A seropositivity are more likely to be diagnosed with Crohn's disease after ileal pouch-anal anastomosis.\",\n \"no. The present results indicate that asymptomatic bacteriuria in patients with a continent ileal reservoir for urinary diversion is generally of no clinical importance and should not be treated with antibiotics. This conclusion is based on the observations that the bacterial strains growing in the reservoir changed spontaneously indicating colonization rather than infection. Raised titres of antibodies against E. coli correlated weakly with bacterial growth. The observed elevations in antibody titres were usually just above the normal upper limit.\",\n \"no. Ileal inflammation is not a contraindication for restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch construction in patients with UC or idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease of indeterminate type. Ileal inflammation with pancolitis is not a useful criterion for classifying otherwise typical UC as colitis of indeterminate type, because pouch outcomes are not affected.\",\n \"Chronic abdominal pain (CAP) in children, a condition that accounts for approximately 25% of pediatric gastroenterology office visits, may be a precursor to irritable bowel syndrome in adults. Recently, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) has been reported in 78-84% of IBS patients regardless of their abdominal symptoms, compared to 20% in healthy controls. Aims The aim of this study was, therefore, to assess the prevalence of SIBO in children with CAP. Seventy-five children aged 8-18 years diagnosed with CAP based on the Rome II criteria and 40 healthy controls were enrolled. All subjects underwent a lactulose breath hydrogen test (LBT) to assess for SIBO. Children with CAP also filled out symptom questionnaires. There was a 91% prevalence of an abnormal LBT suggestive of SIBO in the children with CAP and 35% in controls (odds ratio = 16.7, 95% confidence interval 6.0-57.5, P < 0.0001). A comparison of CAP children with a positive LBT to CAP children with a negative LBT revealed the former had significantly more \\\"urgency to have a bowel movement\\\" (P = 0.049) and experienced less \\\"soiling\\\" (P = 0.016) than those with a negative LBT. No significant differences were found between the two groups in terms of the location of their pain or any other associated symptoms.\",\n \"Taking into account the overlap in several symptoms between IBS and Appendicopathy there is a possibility that both syndromes originate (partly) in the appendix and therefore laparoscopy and appendicectomy may play a part in the treatment of IBS as well. Pilot studies in this direction seem to be indicated.\",\n \"These data show that initial antibiotic treatment of perforated appendicitis in children, followed by interval appendectomy, is useful for a select group who present with little or no peritonitis, slightly elevated temperature, and WBC that falls at least 25% within 3 to 4 days.\",\n \"yes. Our study shows that an RCT comparing initial antibiotic treatment strategy with urgent appendectomy is feasible in children; the intervention seems to be safe.\",\n \"Two common factors, cigarette smoking and appendectomy, have been found to play a role in ulcerative colitis (UC). Data on their role in the development of extraintestinal manifestations (EIM) are scarce. The relationship between cigarette smoking, appendectomy, and EIM was examined in a prospective study involving 535 (M/F = 319/216) consecutive UC patients followed up for 18 yr. We considered the major EIM: seronegative spondyloarthropathy, pyoderma gangrenosum/erythema nodosum, acute anterior uveitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. We excluded patients with a history of EIM or those colectomized before study entry, ex-smokers, and those who started to smoke during the course of UC. In UC patients, seronegative spondyloarthropathy and dermatologic complications were found increased in smokers (p < 0.0001; p = 0.001) or in subjects with appendectomy (p = 0.0003; p = 0.02), while acute anterior uveitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis did not differ. The Kaplan-Meier analysis showed 18-yr rates for EIM of 71% in smokers and 45% in nonsmokers (log-rank test, p = 0.0001), and of 85% in patients with appendectomy and 48% in those without (p = 0.0001). Cox proportional-hazard model showed that cigarette smoking and appendectomy are independent factors promoting EIM. In smokers with appendectomy the adjusted hazard ratio (3.197, 95% CI 1.529-6.684) was higher than in patients with appendectomy alone (2.617, 95% CI 1.542-4.442) or smoking alone (1.947, 95% CI 1.317-2.879).\",\n \"The above data support the use of laparoscopy in the management of perforated appendicitis in children. In conclusion, laparoscopy is as safe as open appendectomy. Laparoscopy is an effective alternative with a shorter length of hospital stay compared with that for an open appendectomy for perforated appendicitis in children.\",\n \"yes. TULAA, in which the appendix is exteriorized via a combination of open and laparoscopic techniques, is a safe and effective procedure for treating appendicitis in children. TULAA is a cost-effective treatment that provides excellent cosmetic results.\",\n \"yes. Enthesitis is a prevalent extra-intestinal manifestation of pediatric IBD and is associated with increased musculoskeletal pain. Future studies should evaluate the functional and long-term impact of enthesitis on children with IBD.\",\n \"yes. LA is a favorable alternative in children with complicated appendicitis in view of less postoperative pain, fewer postoperative complications and quicker return to normal activity.\",\n \"To determine whether interval resection in asymptomatic patients after 1 or 2 episodes of acute diverticulitis (prophylactic resection) is justified as a means of preventing late inflammatory complications of diverticular disease. A retrospective analysis. A university-affiliated tertiary care hospital. Those requiring hospitalization from 1987 to 1995 for treatment of acquired diverticular disease of the colon. Twenty-eight patients underwent elective resection and 154 were treated for inflammatory complications (perforation, fistula, complete large-bowel obstruction). Standard surgical management for diverticular disease, but only 3 prophylactic resections were undertaken during this period. Type of operation, stoma creation and closure, hospital death. In those treated for complicated disease, the effects on outcome of all previous outpatient treatment and hospitalizations. Only 10% of those presenting with complications had been treated conservatively for acute diverticulitis and only 5% had been hospitalized for this reason.\",\n \"The use of antibiotics in uncomplicated appendicitis in children, remains the area of controversy. The aim of the study was to assess the necessity of antibiotic administration in nonperforated appendicitis in children. The design of the study was a double blind randomized controlled trial, with a follow-up of 4 to 20 months. Surgical Department in a University Pediatric Hospital. One hundred and eighty seven out of 249 children subjected to emergency appendectomies met the inclusion criteria, with 35 eligible but not included in the study. The remaining 152 patients were randomized; 41 had complicated appendicitis, 3 other diagnosis, 108 were analyzed within 3 study groups: 1 (n = 31) no antibiotic, 2 (n = 41) one dose, 3 (n = 36) 5-day course. Open appendectomy was a surgical procedure and Ceftriaxone 1.0 g i.v. was administered. Investigated parameters were: body temperature, WBC, bowel sounds, wound healing, recovery and morbidity. Valid outcome data were available for 90 of 108 randomized patients. Protocols of 18 children due to fever>39 degrees C, upper airway infection or allergy were disclosed. In the remaining 90 children, there were no differences in WBC and oral feeding between groups 1 (n = 24), 2 (n = 35) and 3 (n = 31). Group 1 and 2 had a higher mean temperature on day 1 post-op, without any clinical significance. A higher mean temperature was noted on day 5 post-op in group 1, due to wound infection in one patient. There were no intraabdominal abscesses. The only other complications were 2 adhesion small bowel obstructions (in groups 1 and 2 each).\",\n \"yes. Tumour necrosis factor-α expression in segmental colitis associated with diverticulosis seems to be related to the severity of the endoscopic damage. This behaviour, similar to that of the inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), confirms that this disease should be considered as a subtype of IBD.\",\n \"To describe the demographic and clinical characteristics of hospitalized children with enema-reduced intussusception and to determine the necessity of hospitalization. Retrospective cross-sectional study of patients (0-17 years of age) with enema-reduced intussusception hospitalized at a 110-bed urban children's hospital. For this study, potential necessity of hospitalization was defined as the presence of associated dehydration, persistent symptoms and signs of intussusception requiring repeated radiographic studies, and/or enema-reduced serious complications (bowel perforation and/or sepsis). For a 12-year period (January 1995 to December 2006), 45 patients who had enema-reduced intussusception were hospitalized. There were 32 males (71%). Three (6.7%) of the 45 patients had recurrent episodes of intussusception occurring at 2, 7, and 45 months after the initial episode. The initial episode for only 1 of these 3 was an enema-reduced hospitalization event. Thus, the following results include 46 episodes among 45 patientsThe mean (SD) age at the time of intussusception was 19.6 (25.4) months, and the median age was 10 months (range, 2-135 months). There were 27 episodes (59%) of patients 12 months or younger. The types of intussusception were ileocolic, 44 and ileoileum, 2. In 13 episodes (28%), patients were described as dehydrated and/or having an abnormal basic metabolic panel test result and meeting one of the study criteria for potential necessity of hospitalization. During the hospitalization, enema was repeated in 1 patient (2%) who had recurrent pain. The repeated enema was normal. No patient had a recurrent intussusception or developed signs of bowel perforation or sepsis while hospitalized. The mean (SD) hospital length of stay was 25.6 (9.9) hours, and the median time was 23 hours (range, 12-60 hours).\",\n \"no. In this uncontrolled study, the accuracy of preoperative diagnosis of appendicitis and the incidence of pathology-proven perforation appendix were similar for children with suspected acute appendicitis whether they had CT, US or neither imaging, in conjunction with surgical consult. The imaging modality of CT was not associated with better outcomes for children presenting to the ED with suspected appendicitis.\",\n \"Large-bowel obstruction and perforation are still frequently occurring entities for the acute care surgeon. In these cases, Hartmann's procedure is the most commonly used surgical technique. However, recent papers demonstrate that colon resection and primary anastomosis (RPA) in the emergency setting is a safe and feasible procedure. We present our series of left colon resection and primary anastomosis procedures from Torrevieja Hospital (Alicante, Spain), performed without bowel irrigation or a diverting ileostomy. Thirty-two RPA procedures were performed in emergency settings for perforation or obstruction, or both, during an 18-month period. The following data were prospectively collected: age, gender, nationality, diagnoses, ASA score, body mass index (BMI), POSSUM score (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enumeration of Mortality and morbidity), and the score according to the Hinchey classification. Furthermore, duration of the operation, length of postoperative hospital stay, and mortality and morbidity data were recorded. Sixteen of these patients were diagnosed with acute diverticulitis, 14 patients with neoplasm (of which 9 cases had obstruction, 2 cases had perforation, and 3 cases had both), and foreign body perforation in the remaining 2 cases. The mean hospital stay was 7.8 (range, 4-10) days. The physiological POSSUM score was 24.4 (range, 15-39), and the surgical POSSUM score was 19.8 (range, 16-24). None of the patients died (0% mortality). Seven patients developed some kind of complication (21.9%), all of which were managed conservatively.\",\n \"Although older children had a higher risk of abscess drainage, younger children were more likely to have perforated appendicitis, be readmitted, and have longer LOH. Management of appendicitis differed according to age. Laparoscopic appendectomy was more frequently performed in older children, whereas the youngest children were more likely to be treated nonoperatively.\",\n \"no. Resection with primary anastomosis following iatrogenic perforation of the splenic flexure is not safe because of a high chance of anastomotic dehiscence. Following a late diagnosis in an unstable patient exteriorization of the perforation as a stoma is a better option prior to a definitive prophylactic colectomy.\",\n \"Those who have had an appendicectomy have a reduced risk of developing ulcerative colitis. However, the effect of appendicectomy on disease activity in patients with ulcerative colitis has not been established. We used the Danish National Patient Registry to identify all incident cases of ulcerative colitis in Denmark during the period 1981 to 1999. Of these, 202 had an appendicectomy after their first admission with ulcerative colitis. In these patients, we compared the incidence rate of hospitalisations with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis during the period between the onset of ulcerative colitis and appendicectomy, with the rate of such hospitalisations after appendicectomy. To adjust for the clinical course of ulcerative colitis unrelated to appendicectomy, we extracted a reference cohort (n = 808), matched to the index subjects with respect to age, sex, and year of first admission, but with an intact appendix. The rate of admission with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis decreased by 47% after appendicectomy (rate ratio 0.53 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.36-0.80)). However, the reference cohort showed a similar decline in admission rate (rate ratio 0.51). Thus appendicectomy had no apparent beneficial effect on admission rate after adjustment for the clinical course of disease unrelated to appendicectomy (adjusted rate ratio 1.05 (95% CI 0.67-1.67)).\",\n \"Bowel wall thickening on computed tomography (CT) scans in children may raise concern for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The significance of this radiological finding is unclear. Our purpose was to evaluate the clinical outcomes with regard to IBD in children with no known underlying disease, presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall on CT scan. A retrospective analysis of pediatric patients with abdominal pain and CT findings of thickened bowel wall was performed between 2006 and 2010. Endoscopic findings, clinical variables, and follow-up assessments were evaluated. Fifty-six patients presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall findings on CT scan were identified. Overall, 30 (54%) had terminal ileum wall thickening, 17 (30%) had isolated colonic wall thickening, and 9 (16%) had other small bowel wall thickening. Of the 56 patients, 21 (38%) underwent endoscopy, of which 14 (67%) had positive findings-11 (79%) had histologic evidence of chronic colitis, and 5 (36%) had duodenitis/ileitis. Ultimately, 11/56 (20%) were diagnosed as having IBD, 8/56 (14%) with functional abdominal pain/constipation, 9/56 (16%) appendicitis, 10/56 (18%) infectious gastroenteritis, and 18/56 (32%) with miscellaneous diagnoses. Median levels of erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, albumin, and platelet count were significantly abnormal in the IBD group compared to the non-IBD group. Additional follow-up of those who did not undergo endoscopic evaluation revealed no new diagnoses of IBD.\",\n \"yes. In infants, inflammatory and ischemic intestinal pathologies treated with prolonged courses of antibiotics durably alter the intestinal mucosal microbiome. Diversion of mechanoluminal stimulation, however, does not.\",\n \"Abdominal colectomy has been used in patients with inflammatory bowel disease unclassified (IBDU), requiring surgery to allow histopathological evaluation of the colectomy specimen to rule out Crohn's disease (CD). We evaluated whether any histopathological feature was associated with an adverse postoperative outcome. Patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) or IBDU undergoing ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) were prospectively examined. A checklist of 17 histopathological features atypical for UC was developed. Outcomes of acute pouchitis (AP), chronic pouchitis (CP), and de novo CD were assessed. The 153 study patients included 119 (78%) UC and 34 (22%) IBDU patients. The following atypical features were identified (n; %): broad-based ulcer (99; 65%), appendiceal involvement (78; 51%), V-shaped ulcer (48; 31%), crypt-associated granuloma (42; 27%), isolated giant cells (39; 25%), discontinuous active inflammation (36; 24%), slit-like fissure (32; 21%), discontinuous chronic inflammation (16; 10%), ileal villous architectural distortion (12; 8%), neural hypertrophy (10; 7%), backwash ileitis (10; 7%), transmural inflammation (8; 5%), discontinuous ileitis (8; 5%), muscle hypertrophy (5; 3%), ileal ulcer (4; 3%), and ileal pyloric metaplasia (1; 1%). A total of 29 patients (19%) developed AP, 17 (11%) developed CP, and 13 patients (8%) developed de novo CD. On univariate analysis, de novo CD developed in 3 of the 10 patients (30%) with neural hypertrophy compared with only 10 of the 143 patients (7%) without neural hypertrophy (P=0.01). Multivariate regression did not show a single atypical histopathological feature, which predicted a worse outcome after IPAA.\",\n \"yes. In children, ileal CD lesions are delayed compared with colonic lesions. This observation is in agreement with the previously proposed hypothesis of a pathophysiological role of Peyer's patches in ileal CD. The rarity of small bowel lesions should be a warning to be cautious when classifying chronic colitis in small children.\",\n \"Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a significant cause of postoperative morbidity, yet studies characterizing outcomes in children are limited. Our aim was to review our experience to describe the role of operative and nonoperative therapy, markers of outcome, and burden of disease in children. Admissions for ASBO at British Columbia Children's Hospital (Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada) identified by International Classification of Disease, Ninth Revision, codes were reviewed over a 10-year period. Demographic, clinical, laboratory, and operative details were collected for all patients. Our study identified 165 admissions of which 32 (19%) were managed with immediate operation, whereas 133 were initially managed nonoperatively. One hundred seven patients went on to laparotomy, whereas 26 (16%) were managed nonoperatively. Absence of leukocytosis and older age appeared to be associated with successful nonoperative therapy. Tachycardia and younger age appeared to be independent risk factors for failure of nonoperative management. Delayed surgery or conservative management did not cause an increase in complications. Appendectomy, stoma formation and closure, Nissen fundoplication, and Ladd's procedures were the most common procedures leading to ASBO.\",\n \"It is not common that, after diversion of the faecal stream by a colostomy, the defunctioned colon develops colitis. The pathogenesis of this colitis is still unclear and it has been proposed that ischaemia may play a major role. Our aim is to look for signs of ischaemia in a group of patients developing colitis after diversion colostomy for various causes. Surgical specimens from 32 patients resected for colitis developed after diverting colostomy were examined with routine (haematoxylin-eosin) and Elastic-Van Gieson and Perls' stains. The histological features related to mucosal crypt architecture, crypt epithelium and inflammation were mild, non specific or related to the underlying disease. Fibrosis was present in 21 (65.6%) patients, superficial coagulative necrosis was found in 18 (56%) patients, splitting and/or thickening of muscularis mucosae was present in 20 (62%) patients. The vessels were substantially normal or ectasic without thrombi or alterations in the wall. Evident ischaemia with coagulative necrosis, submucosal oedema and focal fibrosis was detected in only two (6%) patients and an intermediate picture between acute and chronic ischaemia was present in 16 (50%) patients.\",\n \"In the nonoperative management of children with perforated appendicitis, admission CT findings demonstrating disease beyond the right lower quadrant correlate with treatment failure.\",\n \"Child reconstruction with a modified Braun enteroenterostomy offers an advantage with respect to marginal ulcer after standard pancreaticoduodenectomy, potentially decreasing the incidence of alkaline reflux gastritis as effectively as Roux-en-Y reconstruction.\",\n \"Appendicitis is a common pediatric condition requiring urgent surgical intervention to prevent complications. Pelvic ultrasound (US) as a diagnostic aid has become increasingly common. Despite its advantages, evidence suggests US can lead to delayed definitive management. The objective was to test the hypothesis that US is associated with an increased time to appendectomy in children with acute appendicitis. A chart review was conducted of all children aged 0-17 years who presented to the pediatric emergency department (ED) with a discharge diagnosis of appendicitis. The primary outcome variable was the interval between initial evaluation to appendectomy between patients who received an US and those who did not. Of 662 cases included, 424 patients (64%) underwent a pelvic US and 238 patients underwent an appendectomy without US. Median time interval from initial evaluation in the ED by a physician to appendectomy among patients who received an US was 9.7 h (interquartile range [IQR]: 6.8-15.0 h) compared with 5.5 h (IQR: 3.8-8.6 h) among patients who did not receive an US (Mann-Whitney, p<0.001). The increased time to appendectomy in patients who received an US was dependent on the patient being female and presenting to the ED after hours (univariate analysis of variance test for interaction, p<0.05).\",\n \"Laparoscopic appendectomy is a safe procedure for complicated appendicitis in children, but the greatest short-term benefit is cosmetic. Long-term results have to be evaluated, particularly with regards to the long-term complication rate.\",\n \"yes. For non-perforated diverticulitis of the right colon, appendicectomy and intravenous antibiotics without diverticulectomy is the preferred treatment strategy.\",\n \"In the presence of clinical features atypical of acute appendicitis, right-sided colonic diverticulitis should be taken into account; pre-operative instrumental examinations might increase diagnostic accuracy, thereby leading to a more correct therapeutic approach.\",\n \"Validated risk adjustment programs do not use patient diagnosis as a potential covariate in the evaluation of organ space infections. We hypothesized that patient diagnosis is an important risk factor for organ space infection after colorectal resections. We conducted a retrospective cohort study abstracting data from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement Program from January 2005 through December 2009. Patients who underwent 1 of 3 types of colorectal resections (ileocolostomy, partial colectomy, and coloproctostomy) were identified by the use of Current Procedural Terminology codes. We excluded patients with concomitant formation of diverting or end stoma. The primary outcome measured was organ space infection. Validated risk adjustment models were used with the addition of diagnostic codes. We identified 52,056 patients who underwent a colorectal resection of whom 1774 patients developed an organ space infection (3.4%) and 894 (50.2%) returned to the operating room for further surgery. For ileocolostomy, operations for endometriosis (OR, 7.8; 95% CI, 1.7-36.6) and intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 3.0; 95% CI, 1.5-6.0) were associated with increased risk of organ space infection. For partial colectomy, operations for intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 2.3; 95% CI, 1.2-4.3), IBD (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 1.6-3.8), and bowel obstruction (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-2.6) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. For coloproctostomy, operations for malignant neoplasm (OR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.1-4.3) and diverticular bleeding (OR, 3.1; 95% CI, 1.1-9.0) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. This study was limited by the retrospective study design.\",\n \"A fecalith is a fecal concretion that can obstruct the appendix leading to acute appendicitis. We hypothesized that the presence of a fecalith would lead to an earlier appendiceal perforation. Between January 2001 and December 2005, the charts of all patients younger than 18 years old who underwent appendectomy at our institution were reviewed. Duration of symptoms and timing between presentation and operation were noted along with radiologic, operative, and pathologic findings. There were 388 patients who met the study criteria. A fecalith was present in 31% of patients (n = 121). The appendix was perforated in 57% of patients who had a fecalith vs 36% in patients without a fecalith (P < .001). The overall rate of interval appendectomies was 12%. A fecalith was present on the initial radiologic studies of 36% of the patients who had interval appendectomies, and the appendix was perforated significantly sooner in these patients when compared to those without a fecalith (91 vs 150 hours; P = .036).\",\n \"yes. ELP occurs most frequently in cases that have been diverted for inflammatory bowel disease. Fewer cases of ELP were noted in cases of inflammatory bowel disease in the absence of diversion colitis. It is postulated that altered bowel flora and immune dysregulation may be pivotal in the causation of this association.\",\n \"Primary carcinoma of the bowel is a rare malignancy in pediatric age group. The aim of the study was to assess the incidence of appendicular malignancies in children and the possibility of reducing the need for routine histopathological examination of appendix. In last 15 years, all the cases of appendectomies in children were analyzed. Retrospective analysis of the data was done to document the clinical presentation, diagnosis, outcome and histopathology reports of the specimen. The case files and operation notes were studied thoroughly in cases where HPR was positive for malignancy. From July 1995 to June 2010, 595 appendectomies were done in children. Three cases of carcinoid tumor were detected. All were less than 1 cm and were on the tip of the appendix. There was no preoperative or intraoperative suspicion.\",\n \"no. In this experience with high definition colonoscopes in chronic colitis, no synchronous adenocarcinomas were found when colectomy was performed for low-grade dysplasia or index adenocarcinoma, and only 1 adenocarcinoma in the appendix was found in the setting of high-grade dysplasia. These findings suggest that active surveillance or subtotal colectomy may be safe options for patients with IBD and some grades of neoplasia.\",\n \"no. Most patients presenting with acute right-sided peritonitic pain are diagnosed and managed as cases of acute appendicitis. Acute pain in the lower right side of the abdomen caused by appendiceal diverticulitis is very rare and clinically indistinguishable from acute appendicitis. Inflammatory complications of appendiceal diverticula mimic acute appendicitis.\",\n \"Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a feared complication after abdominal operations in both children and adults. The optimal management of ASBO in the pediatric population is debated. The aim of the present study was to examine the safety and effectiveness of non-operative management in ASBO. A retrospective review of 33 patients who were admitted for ASBO over a 5-year period was carried out. Follow-up data were available for 29 patients. Demographic, clinical, and operative details and outcomes were collected for these patients. Data analysis was done with SPSS version 15.0. P ≤ 0.05 was regarded as significant. Out of 618 abdominal surgeries within the 5-year period, 34 admissions were recorded from 29 patients at the follow-up period of 1-28 months. There were 19 boys (65.5%). The median age of patients was 4.5 years. Typhoid intestinal perforation (n = 7), intussusception (n = 6), intestinal malrotation (n = 5), and appendicitis (n = 4) were the major indications for a prior abdominal surgery leading to ASBO. Twenty-five patients (73.5%) developed SBO due to adhesions within the first year of the primary procedure. Of the 34 patients admitted with ASBO, 18 (53%) underwent operative intervention and 16 (47%) were successfully managed non-operatively. There were no differences in sex (P = 0.24), initial procedure (P = 0.12), age, duration of symptoms, and time to re-admission between the patients who responded to non-operative management and those who underwent operative intervention. However, the length of hospital stay was significantly shorter in the non-operative group (P<0.0001). Five (14.7%) patients had small bowel resection. A 43-day-old child who initially underwent Ladd's procedure died within 15 h of re-admission while being prepared for surgery, accounting for the only mortality (3.4%).\",\n \"Childhood obesity is an increasing problem in affluent societies throughout the world. We sought to identify the impact of obesity on the outcome of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and determine differences (if any) between ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (CD). The 2009 Kids' Inpatient Database was explored for all children (≤ 20 years) admitted with IBD. ICD-9 codes were used to identify obesity and complications, including hemorrhage, perforation, and complex fistulas. Logistic regression analysis accounting for demographics, underlying disease, surgical procedures, and obesity was performed to identify factors associated with complication development. Data are expressed as odds ratios (OR) and a 95% confidence interval (CI). A P value of 0.05 was regarded as significant. From 12,465 admissions, 164 children were obese (1.3%), with no difference between CD and UC (1.3% vs. 1.4%; P=0.60). Girls had a two-fold increase in obesity (OR: 2.06, CI: 1.48-2.86; P<0.01). Obesity had no effect on elective/emergent admission rate (OR: 0.85, CI: 0.54-1.35; P=0.49), perforation (OR: 0.76, CI: 0.13-4.46; P=0.76), hemorrhage (OR: 0.64,CI: 0.34-1.21; P=0.17), complex fistula (OR: 1.19, CI: 0.45-3.17; P=0.72), or requirement for surgery (OR: 0.80, CI: 0.48-1.31; P=0.37). While the overall clinical morbidity rate was 10.7%, obesity was not associated with the development of overall complications (OR 1.20, CI: 0.75-1.93; P=0.45) or length of stay (6.36 vs. 6.10 days; P=0.61). Obesity increased the rate of central venous catheter (CVC) infections (OR: 10.98, CI: 2.50-48.20; P<0.01).\",\n \"This study was designed to compare the safety and effectiveness of routine drainage and nondrainage after emergency laparotomy for typhoid intestinal perforation (TIP). A retrospective review of children 15 years or younger who underwent surgery for TIP from 2002 to 2009 was performed. All children underwent resuscitation and laparotomy and were given antibiotics but were then divided into 2 groups: group I (n = 81), postoperative peritoneal drainage, and group II, (n = 66) no drainage. There was no demographic difference between the groups (e.g., mean age 9.6 vs 9.0 years; P = .21). There was no significant difference in mean time for return of bowel function (3.8 vs 4.0 days; P = .6), rate of surgical site infection (63% vs 70%; P = .39), wound dehiscence (36% vs 27%; P = .27), anastomotic leak (2.5% vs 1.5%; P = .27), enterocutaneous fistula formation (10% vs 6.1%; P = .40), intraabdominal abscess formation (4% vs 9%; P = .18), or mean length of hospital stay (22 vs 19 days; P = .26).\",\n \"Natural history of paediatric-onset ulcerative proctitis (UP) is poorly described. Our aim was to describe the phenotype and disease course of incident UP in a population-based study of paediatric-onset UC. All patients with UC diagnosed <17 years from 1988 to 2004, and followed during >2 years have been extracted from a population-based registry. UC location was defined according to the Paris classification. Cumulative risks for use of immunosuppressants (IS), anti-tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) therapy, colonic extension and colectomy were described using Kaplan-Meier method. Risk factors for colonic extension were assessed using Cox proportional hazards models. 158 patients with paediatric-onset UC (91 females) with a median age at diagnosis of 14.5 years (Q1: 11.4-Q3: 16.1) have been identified and followed during a median of 11.4 years (8.2-15.8). Among them, 25% had UP (E1) at diagnosis and 49% of them presented a colonic extension at maximal follow-up. In these children, the cumulative risk for colonic extension was 10% at 1 year, 45% at 5 years and 52% at 10 years. No parameter at diagnosis was associated with colonic extension in the UP (E1 group). IS use was significantly lower in patients with UP than in those with E2, E3 or E4 location (p=0.049). For the UP cohort, the cumulative risk for colectomy was 3% at 1 year, 10% at 5 years, 13% at 10 years and 13% at 15 years. Risks for colonic extension, treatment with anti-TNF-α and colectomy did not differ between the E1 group and the E2-E3-E4 group.\",\n \"yes. Appendiceal faecaliths may be a cause of right iliac fossa pain in the absence of obvious appendiceal inflammation. In this study, the policy of routine removal of a normal-looking appendix at laparoscopy in the absence of any other obvious pathology appeared to be an effective treatment for recurrent symptoms in those cases with a faecalith. Further studies are needed to assess this putative association.\",\n \"The findings of this study suggest that the AG is unsuitable for routine biliary repair in children. It should be used only as a salvage technique when conventional HJ repair is contraindicated. Because of the high risk of graft dysfunction, we recommend screening tests to detect biochemical or histologic cholestasis in any patient previously treated with appendix grafting.\",\n \"Patients who are suspected of having acute appendicitis usually undergo surgery in order to avoid life-threatening complications such as perforation and peritonitis. However, acute appendicitis is difficult to distinguish from other sources of right-sided abdominal pain. The clinical picture is almost indistinguishable from appendiceal diverticulitis, which is a rare entity and remains a difficult diagnostic problem. We describe the case of a 39-year-old male with perforated appendiceal diverticulitis. The patient was admitted to our surgical unit with acute appendicitis-like symptoms and underwent surgery with a diagnosis of suspected acute appendicitis. The patient was found to have perforated appendiceal diverticulitis and standard appendectomy with abdominal lavage was carried out.\",\n \"For this retrospective study, case notes of all children (n = 262) who underwent SPA between August 2005 and December 2008 were reviewed. Those children in whom the preoperative ultrasonography revealed suspected perforation were excluded from SPA and subsequently underwent open surgery. SPA was performed using a 12-mm trocar with one 5-mm working channel, introduced through a sub-umbilical incision. After grasping the appendix with atraumatic forceps, the appendix was exteriorized through the umbilicus and dissected outside the abdominal cavity as in open surgery. Preoperatively, each patient received one dose of Metronidazole and Cefuroxime, and the umbilicus was cleaned in particular. Of the 262 children who underwent SPA, 146 were boys (55.7%) and 116 girls (44.3%). Median age at operation was 11.4 years (range, 1.1-15.9). Six obese (with a body mass index greater than the 95th percentile) children (2.3%) developed intra-abdominal abscess after perforated appendicitis that was treated with a course of antibiotics. One child required revisional surgery and drainage. The median length of antibiotic treatment was 3 days (range, 0-15).\",\n \"Enterocolic lymphocytic phlebitis (ELP) is an uncommon cause of bowel pathology and most frequently results in ischaemia. It is characterised by an artery-sparing, venulocentric lymphoid infiltrate that causes a phlebitis and vascular compromise. Rare cases of ELP have been encountered with lymphocytic colitis in the absence of ischaemic bowel change. The present study examined the occurrence of ELP in the setting of diversion colitis and inflammatory bowel disease, as well as in random colectomy specimens. The study cohort comprised the following: 26 completion proctectomy specimens for ulcerative colitis with superimposed diversion colitis in the rectal stump; 3 colectomy specimens for Crohn disease with diversion colitis; 6 colectomy specimens for adenocarcinoma and/or diverticular disease with diversion colitis; 34 resection specimens with ulcerative colitis only; 19 with Crohn disease only; and 100 random colon resection specimens for adenocarcinoma, adenoma, diverticular disease and ischaemia. ELP was present in 18 of the 26 ulcerative colitis cases with diversion colitis, 3/3 Crohn disease cases with diversion colitis, 1/6 cases of diverticular disease with diversion colitis, 6/34 cases of ulcerative colitis without diversion, 2/19 Crohn disease cases without diversion colitis, and only 1 of 100 colectomy cases without inflammatory bowel disease or diversion colitis.\",\n \"The appendix graft (AG) is used widely for urinary tract replacement in children. Biliary tract replacement is less common. The purpose of this retrospective multicentric study was to evaluate the safety of appendix grafting for biliary reconstruction. The files of 33 patients treated at 7 European pediatric centers were reviewed. Indications included choledochal cyst (CC) in 5 cases, biliary trauma (BT) in 1, and biliary atresia (BA) in 27. In CC and BT patients, the graft was inserted isoperistaltically between the proximal biliary duct and second duodenum. In all but one of the BA patients, the graft was placed antiperistaltically by patching its cecal end onto the porta hepatis. Postoperatively, all CC and BT patients initially became asymptomatic but developed laboratory evidence of anicteric cholestasis within 1 year. The most common manifestation was increased gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase level (GGT), whereas histologic findings showed liver damage (mainly fibrosis). Reoperation has been carried out in 4 CC and 1 BT patients within a mean period of 19 months after appendix grafting. The graft procedure was converted to hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) in 4 and to choledocoduodenostomy in 1. Surgical exploration showed kinking in 1 patient and stenosis in 1. In the remaining 3 cases, there was no discernible cause of cholestasis, and appendix histology findings were normal. In all 5 reoperated patients, liver function findings returned to normal within 1 month. Reoperation is scheduled for the remaining CC patient who currently requires ursodesoxycholic medication to maintain normal liver function and presents histologic evidence of \\\"de novo\\\" sclerosing cholangitis. Results of appendix grafting also were poor in the 27 BA patients. Procedure-related perioperative complications occurred in 4 (15%) including 1 early death from graft necrosis. Another early death resulted from intestinal hemorrhage. Jaundice cleared in only 8 (28%).\",\n \"This method was used in 14 children, seven boys and seven girls, aged from 2.7 to 14 years, with acute appendicitis and peritonitis. Conversion to median laparotomy was necessary in order to perform adhesiolysis in two cases in which small bowel was observed. Postoperative complications occurred in four patients involving three wound infections and one mechanical intestinal obstruction. There was no intra-abdominal abscess.\",\n \"Cecal diverticulitis is an uncommon cause of acute abdominal pain and presents clinically similar to acute appendicitis. There are many perspectives concerning the management of this condition, ranging from different types of surgical resections to conservative treatment with antibiotics. We present 3 cases of cecal diverticulitis. One of the patients was treated conservatively with intravenous antibiotics and the other 2 were treated with surgical resection.\",\n \"Chronic right-lower-quadrant abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. The purpose of this report is to detail the outcome of management of these patients with appendectomy. Appendiceal colic was judged to be present if the history showed cramping abdominal pain in association with McBurney's point tenderness. This is a retrospective review of 50 consecutive pediatric patients experiencing pain for greater than 1 year. All patients were evaluated at a single institution by one surgeon and underwent elective appendectomies from April 1985 through April 1997. Seventy-five percent of the patients were girls. One hundred forty-nine imaging and endoscopic studies were performed with 135 negative findings. Twenty-three patients had a minimum of one previous emergency room visit or hospitalization for the same abdominal complaints. The pathological findings were distinctly different from those of incidental appendectomies. Three patients had undergone previous diagnostic explorations for abdominal pain, the appendix was not removed, and a subsequent appendectomy relieved the discomfort. Forty-nine of the 50 patients were pain free at 1 year.\",\n \"yes. An unusual cause of mild chronic abdominal pain can be the presence of appendiceal diverticulum with inspissated intraluminal secretions. The evaluation of these patients is usually normal. Exploratory laparoscopy with appendectomy should be the final evaluation for patients with mild chronic abdominal pain.\",\n \"no. Recurrent appendicitis is rare in pediatric patients after successful nonoperative management of perforated appendicitis. Routine IA is not necessarily indicated for these children.\",\n \"Persons who have had an appendectomy are less prone to develop ulcerative colitis than those who have not. The underlying mechanism and the clinical use of this finding are unknown. Two competing hypotheses were examined: (1) the inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is conferred by a mutual determinant such as genes, and (2) the appendix itself has biologic effects that promote the development of ulcerative colitis. We performed a population-based cohort study of all 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy performed in Denmark 1977 through 1999. We used a bidirectional cohort design, calculating the standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis both before and after the appendectomy. If the hypothesis of a constant, confounding factor were true, incidence rates of ulcerative colitis would be equal before and after appendectomy. If the incidence of ulcerative colitis were lower after appendectomy than before, it would support the second hypothesis and a true protective effect of the appendectomy. We controlled confounding by age and sex using direct standardization. Of 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy, 559 developed ulcerative colitis during a mean follow up of 17.5 years. The standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis was lower in the postappendectomy period than in the preappendectomy period (incidence rate ratio = 0.74; 95% confidence interval = 0.62-0.88).\",\n \"The inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is not explained by time-stable factors such as genes. Appendectomy might have a genuine protective effect toward development of ulcerative colitis.\",\n \"Antegrade continence enemas (ACEs) are successful for constipation and/or fecal incontinence caused by anorectal malformations or spina bifida but have been thought to be less successful in the treatment for patients with colonic dysmotility. We studied the long-term efficacy of ACE in a large group of patients with idiopathic slow-transit constipation (STC). We identified 56 children with an appendicostomy for ACE with radiologically proven STC. An independent investigator (SKK) performed confidential telephone interviews. We assessed 42 of 56 children (31 boys) of mean age 13.1 years (range, 6.9-25). Mean follow-up was at 48 months (range, 3-118). Mean symptom duration before appendicostomy was 7.5 years (range, 1.4-17.4). Indications for appendicostomy were soiling (29/42), inadequate stool evacuation (7/42), and recurrent hospital admissions for nasogastric washouts (6/42). Both quality of life (Templeton quality of life [P < .0001]) and continence (modified Holschneider continence score [P < .0001]) improved with ACE. Soiling frequency decreased in 32 of 42 (11/32 completely continent). Thirty-seven of 42 children had reduced abdominal pain severity (P < .0001) and frequency (P < .0001). Complications included granulation tissue (33/42), stomal infection (18/42), and washout leakage (16/42). Fifteen of 42 children ceased using the appendicostomy (7/15 symptoms resolved). Thirty-five of 42 families felt that their aspirations had been met.\",\n \"The aim of the present study was to review postoperative complications of pediatric patients undergoing colectomy for ulcerative colitis (UC) or inflammatory bowel disease-unspecified (IBD-U) with a focus on preoperative immunosuppression including exposure to infliximab. We performed a retrospective chart review of all of the children with UC or IBD-U undergoing colectomy at our institution from 1996 to 2010. Data collected included indication for colectomy, immunosuppressive medications taken within 30 to 90 days of colectomy, surgical techniques and staging, and early and late postoperative complications. A total of 51 patients underwent colectomy (45 UC, 6 IBD-U) (55% male, 63% pancolitis at diagnosis, mean age at diagnosis 10.8 ± 3.8 years, mean age at colectomy 13.1 ± 3.8 years). Indications for colectomy were fulminant colitis in 26% and medically refractory chronic disease in 74%. Patient exposure to immunosuppression in the 30 days before colectomy included corticosteroids (88%), thiopurines (51%), and calcineurin inhibitors (4%). Within 90 days before colectomy, 65% of patients were exposed to infliximab. Small bowel obstruction was the most common postoperative complication, occurring in 19% (treated surgically in 30%), followed by wound infection in 8% and intraabdominal abscess in 6%. One patient developed postoperative sepsis. There was no increased incidence of early or late infectious or noninfectious complications in those patients taking or not taking thiopurines or calcineurin inhibitors (within 30 days), or infliximab (within 90 days).\",\n \"The findings suggest that laparoscopic appendectomy should be avoided in children who have complicated appendicitis because of the increased risk for postoperative intraabdominal abscesses. The authors propose a prospective, randomized trial to verify this finding.\",\n \"yes. The present data emerging from a large multicentre study, confirm that appendectomy has a protective role for the development of ulcerative colitis.\",\n \"To find out the incidence of acute appendicitis leading to acute abdominal pain and necessitating appendectomy in the follow-up of patients after radical cystectomy and urinary diversions. A prospective 160 consecutive radical cystectomy patients with urinary diversion in whom appendectomy was not done between January 1991 and June 2001 were reviewed for the incidence of acute appendicitis. Ages ranged between 26 and 73 years. There were 143 males and 17 females. 120 patients had ileal conduit, 20 sigmoid neobladder, 5 continent urinary diversion, and 15 ureterosigmoidostomy as urinary diversion. Each patients was followed up regularly till death or last follow-up. The follow-up ranged between 4 months and 10 years (mean 6 years). Intestinal obstruction (11%) and acute pyelonephritis (16%) were the most common causes of acute abdominal pain. The remaining causes include sigmoid neobladder perforation (0.6%), parastomal hernia (0.6%), urinary retention due to mucus (1.8%) and renal colic (1.8%). In all patients, diagnosis was easily made and they were managed accordingly. None of the patients had acute appendicitis requiring appendectomy on follow-up.\",\n \"Laparoscopic appendectomy (LA) is controversial due to the high rate of intraabdominal abscess (IAA). We report a postlaparoscopic appendectomy complication (PLAC) observed in pediatric patients discharged after an uneventful postoperative period. In this case series, a review of the medical records of children who underwent LA or open appendectomy (OA) during a 5-year period was performed. The diagnosis of PLAC was based on three well-defined criteria: time of appearance, clinical and laboratory findings, and ultrasonographic characteristic features. A total of 374 patients underwent appendectomy (LA, 129 patients; OA, 245 patients). One patient with conversion of LA to OA and 35 patients with gangrenous or perforated appendicitis (seven from the LA group and 28 from the OA group) were excluded from the study. After LA, nine children developed intraabdominal complications during their hospitalization (six infiltrate in the right lower quadrant and three IAA); these were also excluded. Discharge from the department was done when three conditions were fulfilled: normal body temperature, normal leukocyte count, and passage of a stool. Among the 112 LA patients, PLAC was observed in 15 (13.4%), aged 12.5 +/- 2.9 years, who were discharged after LA in 2.7 +/- 0.9 days. Number of PLAC and time of its appearance were not significantly different in patients with normal or pathological appendix. Sonographic findings of PLAC at admission were fluid alone (n = 11), edematous mesenteric fat (n = 7), thickening of bowel wall (n = 9), and more than one sign (n = 9). At repeated sonography, these signs were present in all patients, and IAA developed in one of them. All children were successfully treated with antibiotics for 10.1 +/- 3.9 days, one of whom underwent a CT-guided percutaneous drainage for IAA.\",\n \"yes. The presence of fecalith is associated with earlier and higher rates of appendiceal perforation in pediatric patients with acute appendicitis. An expedient appendectomy should therefore be performed in the pediatric patient with a radiologic evidence of fecalith.\",\n \"E nterobius vermicularis is one of the most common parasitic infections of the gastrointestinal tract, and has been shown to infest up to 28% of children worldwide. The role of E . vermicularis in acute appendicitis has previously been questioned, with some studies identifying infection as a precursor for inflammation of the appendix, with others refuting such a link. A retrospective review was conducted of all appendices received for histological analysis at our unit from January 2002 to December 2011 (10-year period), removed in the course of acute appendicectomy in children aged 3 to 15 years. Appendices were categorized by degree of inflammation and infestation with E . vermicularis. Appendicectomy for clinical suspicion of acute appendicitis was performed in 2923 patients, 1694 (58%) male, median age 11.6 years. E . vermicularis was present in 4% of appendices; 25% of which showed concurrent acute inflammation. E . vermicularis infestation was more common in females (F : M 76% versus 24% of inflamed appendices and 66.7% versus 33.3% for non-inflamed appendices). European individuals showed higher representation in the E . vermicularis group than the total study population (79% versus 53% respectively).\",\n \"E . vermicularis was found to be more common in females and those of European descent. Seventy-seven percent of patients with E . vermicularis did not have concurrent acute inflammation of the appendix on histological examination. The question remains as to whether infestation is protective of inflammation or whether infestation causes appendiceal colic and subsequent appendicectomy of a non-inflamed appendix, thereby protective of the morbidity of acute appendicitis.\",\n \"Diverticulum of the vermiform appendix is rarely encountered. Previous reports in the literature indicate that appendiceal diverticulum without inflammations are asymptomatic. During the past 10 years, 217 patients have been evaluated in our office for chronic lower abdominal pain. Six patients in this group were unusual in that no diagnosis could be made after a complete history, physical examination, and multiple imaging and laboratory studies. Each patient had a normal computed tomography scan of the abdomen, upper endoscopy, colonoscopy, barium enema, and small bowel enteroclysis. Each of the 6 patients underwent an exploratory laparoscopy and appendectomy. All 6 patients in this series had acquired diverticulum of the appendix with inspissated intraluminal secretions without histological evidence of inflammation. The age range was 37 to 57 years. Most patients were male, and most had a single diverticulum projecting into the mesoappendix. All 6 patients had complete resolution of their chronic abdominal pain after the laparoscopic appendectomy.\",\n \"Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis.\",\n \"Appendiceal colic may be a true clinical entity. Children suffering from appendiceal colic may benefit from elective appendectomy.\",\n \"Unexplained recurrent abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. An organic cause is found in 10 percent of children. Recurrent abdominal pain is responsible for multiple hospital admissions and patient evaluations. In some children, partial luminal obstruction of the appendix without inflammation may be the cause of this pain, and is defined as \\\"appendiceal colic.\\\" During a period of five years, we performed a prospective study among children admitted for right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Children operated on for suspected acute appendicitis were eliminated from the study. Among the remaining patients, those with recurrent pain were evaluated for appendiceal colic. Medical histories were obtained, and the patients underwent physical examinations, routine laboratory studies, stool cultures, abdominal roentgenograms, and sonography scans (including the pelvic region in girls). Precise radiologic evaluation of the appendix was performed by barium swallow in 22 children or by barium enema in four. The diagnosis of appendiceal colic was made if the following three criteria were met: a history of longer than one month with three or more recurrent attacks of right lower quadrant abdominal pain; localized tenderness in the right lower abdomen without signs of peritoneal irritation or inflammation; or radiologic findings at barium examination consisting of irregular filling of the appendix, nonfilling or partial filling of the appendix after 24 hours, or nonemptying of the appendix after 72 hours. Children thus diagnosed underwent elective appendectomy, which was performed only after an additional episode of abdominal pain. Twenty-six children (average age 11.4 years) were treated by appendectomy and of these, 23 (88.5 percent) experienced pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. The remaining three children had pain relief within four months after appendectomy.\",\n \"Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":782,"string":"782"}}},{"rowIdx":273184,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Raising research awareness among midwives and nurses: does it work?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation.","The introduction of clinical governance challenges healthcare providers to improve the care they deliver. There are huge opportunities for Trusts to invest in developing staff knowledge and use of research. However, staff will only seize these opportunities if there is an appropriate, enabling environment--an environment that delivers intensive interventions and is sensitive to the wider structural factors in the NHS affecting staff morale and commitment. In the absence of this environment, what may be seen as opportunities to managers may be regarded as just another burden by staff."],"string":"[\n \"The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation.\",\n \"The introduction of clinical governance challenges healthcare providers to improve the care they deliver. There are huge opportunities for Trusts to invest in developing staff knowledge and use of research. However, staff will only seize these opportunities if there is an appropriate, enabling environment--an environment that delivers intensive interventions and is sensitive to the wider structural factors in the NHS affecting staff morale and commitment. In the absence of this environment, what may be seen as opportunities to managers may be regarded as just another burden by staff.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Although most workers have OSH questions, only 40% seek information or advice to answer their questions. Moreover, many OSH questions remain unanswered by common information facilities. This study provides input on how to develop campaigns and new facilities that may induce workers to seek information and that offer more applicable information.","Here we report the results of a randomized study undertaken to test the efficacy of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention in increasing patients' awareness and understanding of the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate. During a 12-month period, 180 cancer patients who were approached to participate in a phase II or III clinical trial were randomized to undergo either of the following: (1) standard informed consent procedures based on verbal explanations from the treating physician plus written information (controls); or (2) standard informed consent procedures plus a supplementary, telephone-based contact with an oncology nurse (intervention). For purposes of evaluation, face-to-face interviews were conducted with all patients approximately 1 week after the informed consent process had been completed. The two groups were comparable with regard to sociodemographic and clinical variables. Both groups had a high level of awareness of the diagnosis and of the nature and objectives of the proposed treatments. The intervention group was significantly (P < .01) better informed about the following: (1) the risks and side effects of treatment; (2) the clinical trial context of the treatment; (3) the objectives of the clinical trial; (4) where relevant, the use of randomization in allocating treatment; (5) the availability of alternative treatments; (6) the voluntary nature of participation; and (7) the right to withdraw from the clinical trial. The intervention did not have any significant effect on patients' anxiety levels or on rates of clinical trial participation. Patients reported high levels of satisfaction with the intervention.","To assess and improve knowledge of correct resuscitation procedures if an unexpected event occurs during an intra-uterine device (IUD) fitting. Previous literature on resuscitation in the family planning clinic was reviewed to provide a basis for a questionnaire for doctors and nurses within the service to assess knowledge of correct procedures. Outcome of first questionnaire: Seventeen questionnaires were returned in the first round, of which 12 were from nurses. The results to the first question gave a 70% correct response rate. The response to the second gave a correct response of 41%. Only six out of 17 would give atropine in a vaso-vagal attack. The results were discussed at an audit meeting and most staff said that they wanted further training. This was linked with the Leeds Community and Mental Health Trust training for resuscitation. By linking to this training programme it saved time and resources for the family planning service. Outcome of second questionnaire: Twenty-one staff returned questionnaires, of which 12 were nurses. The results to the first question gave an 87% correct response rate. The response to the second showed a correct response of 71%. Fourteen out of the 21 replying would give atropine.","This study is the first in France that assessed students' knowledge on fertility. We observed: (1) gaps and misconceptions about female fertility despite a medical training in midwifery students; (2) a belief that in vitro fertilization is effective to overcome infertility related to age; (3) that some of these young students would be favorable to oocyte social freezing (technique not allowed in France); (4) that an adequate information on the decrease of fertility with age could lead some students to anticipate their first pregnancy. Specific information regarding the decrease of fertility with age should be offered to all reproductive-aged young women.","A previous survey has highlighted the fact that most individuals in chemical pathology identifiable from specialist society membership failed to publish material in Medline cited journals during a five year period. It could be considered that published research that is not cited in other work is not useful unless it has achieved visibility, as demonstrated by citation in another research publication. To determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. A random selection from the previous survey was investigated to determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. There was a logarithmic relation between the frequency of publication and visibility, with an increasing probability of citation as publication frequency increases.","yes. Almost all women at RHW access information antenatally about intrapartum pain management, often from informal sources. Demographic factors affected type of information accessed and women's plans. Adequate access to information affected use of, and satisfaction with, pain management.","To increase maintenance of breastfeeding through improved primary care support. A cluster randomised controlled trial recruited 15 rural family doctor's offices and 330 women who were currently breastfeeding took part. Eight practices formed the intervention group (154 women) and seven formed the control group (176 women). The practice nurses who provided the intervention used a specially designed motivational flowchart to speak to the mothers when they brought their child for immunisation at 2, 4 and 6 months. The nurses also attended preparatory workshops on breastfeeding management, counselling skills, motivational interviewing and reflective practice and were given resources and support. Breastfeeding rates were measured at 4 and 6 months. Randomisation equally distributed all measured variables except prenatal intentions to rejoin employment within 12 months (70% intervention, 56% control, p < 0.05). After adjustment, the 4-month figures showed significantly higher rates of exclusive breastfeeding (OR 1.88; 95%CI 1.01-3.50; p = 0.047) and full breastfeeding (water/juice allowed) (OR 1.95; 95%CI 1.03-3.69; p = 0.04) in the intervention group. There were no differences at 6 months.","Attending a nurse-led education and counselling group intervention had a positive impact on various aspects of the women's lived experiences. The programme also provided professionals with important insights into the patients' views and feelings regarding cancer treatment, trajectories and rehabilitation. This knowledge has already proven itself useful in clinical practice for improving staff communication skills and psycho-social support related to gynaecological cancer care.","no. Clarity about what does (and does not) constitute MI promotes quality assurance in scientific research, clinical practice, and training.","yes. To improve the uptake rate, we should focus on the personal moral obligation of eligible women, beliefs about the risks of cervical cancer, and available cures. Invitations and reminders within general practices enhance the uptake rate.","Despite considerable investment in research priority setting within diverse fields of healthcare, little is known about the extent to which different stakeholder groups share research priorities. Conflicting priorities may jeopardize stakeholder engagement in research. To identify the research priorities of different stakeholder groups within mental health care and examine the extent and nature of agreement between them. Using a Delphi technique, we conducted parallel consultation processes within four different stakeholder groups. Each group process consisted of three rounds. The study was carried out within a mental health and learning disabilities trust in southern England. Participants were recruited from the following groups: mental health service users (34), informal carers (26), mental health practitioners (35) and service managers (23). There were striking differences between the four groups in respect of their ability and willingness to make priority decisions. These differences notwithstanding, there was considerable overlap in respect of their research interests. All groups identified and attached high importance to issues relating to the promotion of independence, self-esteem and recovery. The quality of in-patient care, the place of psychological therapies and the relationship between physical and mental health also emerged across the board.","yes. Educational needs of research ethics among nursing professors and students in the postgraduate course was high. We recommend both basic and advanced research ethics educational programs for the nursing researchers. The basic course should be at least 6 hr and include various cases and something to discuss.","We conducted a population-based study to assess whether work as a nurse during pregnancy increases the risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and small-for-gestational-age. The study population was selected from The Finnish Prenatal Environment and Health Study of 2568 newborns (response 94%) and included 128 (5.0%) newborns of nurses and 559 newborns of office workers (21.8%) as a reference group. The risk of low birth weight (adjusted odds ratio = 1.02; 95% confidence interval = 0.32-3.22) and preterm delivery (0.81; 0.32-2.05) did not differ between newborns of nurses and office workers, but the risk of small-for-gestational-age was substantially higher among newborns of nurses (1.99; 1.10-3.59). This corresponds to a population attributable fraction of 2.5%.","Although well aware of the problem, clinical researchers knowingly contribute to problems of selective reporting and nonpublication of trials. They call for changes in current practices of journal-based communication of trial reporting and for systematic evaluation of measures to decrease publication bias.","For postgraduate nurses, daylong cancer pain education workshops were, in the group studied, as effective as hands-on experience in improving cancer pain knowledge and changing attitudes. Both the workshop-only and the enriched-model nurses relative to controls had significantly improved knowledge and changed attitudes towards optimal pain management.","yes. We conclude that the nurses working in CHCs need guidance and information about gamete donation in order to be able to support parents in the disclosure of information to their children and also how to inform or withhold information to significant others in their surrounding milieu.","yes. the instruction in pelvic floor exercises by health service professionals was provided on an ad hoc basis. In many instances, the programme of instruction did not meet recommendations made in the literature. It is likely that the success of randomised controlled trials reported in the literature would not be repeated in the 'real world' Implications for practice: there is a need for the service to be reorganised so that all women receive high-quality instruction during pregnancy, with a reminder to exercise following birth. This could help to prevent, or relieve, the symptoms of stress incontinence that frequently occur at these times.","yes. The women in this study valued continuity of midwifery care and were able to form meaningful relationships with their midwifery student. Programs leading to registration as a midwife should privilege continuity of care experiences. Not only does this benefit women but provides the future midwifery workforce with a clear understanding of models that best meet women's individual and the benefits of working in these models.","yes. This study supports efforts aimed at improving teamwork-related factors as they are associated with a decrease in violence against nurses.","Despite an increase in the proportion of qualitative research in medical journals over a 10 year period, the proportion remains low. Journals' policies pertaining to qualitative research, as expressed by the appearance of specific guidelines and editorials/methodological papers on the subject, are independently associated with the publication of original qualitative research; irrespective of the journals' impact factor.","A lack of awareness of bias and negative attitudes towards research present significant barriers in terms of conducting methodologically rigorous pediatric RCTs. Knowledge translation efforts must focus on these issues to ensure the relevance and validity of trial results.","Analysis of international language, communication and nursing literature revealed the essential role language consistency plays in promoting competency and desirable behavioural outcomes. It also revealed the difficulty nursing has had in gaining consistency of language associated with theory, research and reasoning. Six nursing theory, research and terminology texts with international circulation were analysed to identify key words related to theory, research and reasoning and to determine consistency of definitions among texts. Next, 97 nursing educators were surveyed to determine their ability to define the same key words. Educators were recruited during three national nursing education meetings in the United States of America between 2006 and 2007. Analysis revealed significant variability in definitions of key words among texts and in nursing educators' ability to match any defining words used by the texts and by each other.","This study examined effectiveness of a theoretically based education programme in reducing inappropriate antipyretic use in fever management. Paediatric nurses' inconsistent, ritualistic antipyretic use in fever management is influenced by many factors including inconsistent beliefs and parental requests. Determinants of antipyretic administration, identified by the theory of planned behaviour, were belief-based attitudes and subjective norms. A quasi-experiment explored group effects of a peer education programme, based on the theory of planned behaviour, on factors influencing paediatric nurses' antipyretic administration. Surveys and chart audits collected data from medical wards at experimental and control hospitals one month pre and one and four months postpeer education programme. All nurses employed in targeted wards were eligible to participate in surveys and all eligible charts were audited. The peer education programme consisted of four one-hour sessions targeting evidence-based knowledge, myths and misconceptions, normative, attitudinal and control influences over and rehearsal of evidence-based fever management. All nurses in experimental hospital targeted wards were eligible to attend. Peer education and support facilitated session information reaching those unable to attend sessions. Two-way univariate anovas explored between subject, experimental and control group and within subject factors, pre, post and latency data. Significant interactions in normative influence (p = 0.01) and intentions (p = 0.01), a significant main group effect in control influence (p = 0.01) and a significant main effect between audit data across time points (p = 0.03) highlight peer education programme effectiveness in behaviour change. Normative, control and intention changes postpeer education programme were maintained in latency data; mean temperature was not.","We have developed a validated questionnaire which tests patient's level of knowledge with respect to surgical myocardial revascularisation. Our study identified areas of informed consent where the minimal level of knowledge is below the recommended level. The questionnaire could be used in audits and clinical trials in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. It could be used as a tool to measure the effectiveness of patient education programmes. With appropriate changes, this instrument could also be applied in other fields of medical intervention, which require patients to give informed consent.","Given the factors that distinguish researching from non-researching Fellows, attention needs to be paid to the ethos of the professional environment, mentoring, and training opportunities in research in order to increase the recruitment of women investigators.","Despite poor design and inadequate funding, our findings have shown some promising results after PBF training in the study area. The findings have highlighted the potential of PBF to act as leverage for initiating innovative and proactive actions, which may motivate health personnel performance and quality of care in the study setting with minimal support. However, key policy issues at the national level should be addressed in order to exploit this opportunity.","The research enterprise is addressing one in five knowledge gaps identified in clinical practice recommendations in endocrinology. These findings suggest an inefficiency in the allocation of very scarce research economical resources. Linking the research agenda to evidence gaps in clinical practice guidelines may improve both the efficiency of the research enterprise and the translation of evidence into more confident clinical practice.","yes. Research and prevention strategies should not focus solely on isolated early risk factors, but also on the entire pre- and perinatal situation.","Relevant, high quality research summaries were found for few of the topics identified by managers. Few proposals used national surveys evidence to identify barriers to vaccination. Researchers generating or adapting evidence about health systems need to be more responsive to managers' needs. Use of available evidence from local or national surveys should be strongly encouraged.","Breast cancer is the most common female cancer worldwide including India, where advanced stages at diagnosis, and rising incidence and mortality rates, make it essential to understand cancer literacy in women. We conducted a literature review to evaluate the awareness levels of risk factors for breast cancer among Indian women and health professionals. A structured literature search using combined keywords was undertaken on bibliographic databases including MEDLINE, Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews, Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health (CINAHL) and SCOPUS. Searches were restricted to research published in English language peer-reviewed journals through December, 2014 in India. A total of 7066 women aged 15-70 years showed varied levels of awareness on risk factors such as family history (13-58%), reproductive history (1-88%) and obesity (11-51%). Literacy levels on risk factors did not improve over the 8-year period (2005-2013). On average, nurses reported higher, though still varied, awareness levels for risk factors such as family history (40.8-98%), reproductive history (21-90%) and obesity (34-6%). Awareness levels were not consistently higher for the stronger determinants of risk.","To use an \"evidence-mapping\" approach to assess the usefulness of Cochrane reviews in identifying research gaps in the maternal health. The article describes the general mapping, prioritizing, reconciling, and updating approach: (1) identifying gaps in the maternal health research using published systematic reviews and formulating research questions, (2) prioritizing questions using Delphi method, (3) reconciling identified research priorities with the existing literature (i.e., searching of ongoing trials in trials registries), (4) updating the process. A comprehensive search of Cochrane systematic reviews published or updated from January 2006 to March 2011 was performed. We evaluated the \"Implications for Research\" section to identify gaps in the research. Our search strategy identified 695 references; 178 systematic reviews identifying at least one research gap were used. We formulated 319 research questions, which were classified into 11 different categories based on the direct and indirect causes of maternal mortality: postpartum hemorrhage, abortion, hypertensive disorders, infection/sepsis, caesarean section, diabetes, pregnancy prevention, preterm labor, other direct causes, indirect causes, and health policies and systems. Most research questions concerned the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including drugs (42.6%), nonpharmacologic interventions (16.3%), and health system (14.7%).","yes. Trial introduction meetings involving researcher led presentation of information, followed by group discussion, can help enhance the information provided in the patient information leaflet in a useful and non coercive manner.","Funding has been made available for nurses to convert from second level to first level registration. Managers need to know the value of this initiative. Questionnaires sent to a sample of 130 enrolled nurses and semi-structured interviews with eight nurses and one manager. Descriptive statistics were used to analyse the questionnaires and themes identified from the transcripts of the interviews. One year after completion, participants identified changes in grade, job and further study. Interviews revealed a developmental change in their personal and professional life. The depth of perceived prejudice towards them remains very powerful.","The increasing amount of the clinical research conducted in the primary health care has enabled extending research beyond traditional settings, but this transfer has implied some trade-offs. Health care professionals who conduct research with trusted patients require assuming the ethical standards of research and communication skills to enable patients' autonomy and freedom of choice. This study aims to measure the opinions of health professionals and patients on issues of communication in clinical research. A cross-sectional study with health care professionals and patients from primary health care centres in Barcelona (Spain). Each group completed a similar self-administered questionnaire. A Rasch model was fitted to data. After examination of goodness-of-fit, differences between groups were compared using analysis of variance, and patients' measures were calibrated to professionals' measures to compare overall mean measures. Professionals and patients found the ethical attitudes most difficult to endorse related to trust in clinical researchers and conflicts of interest. Patients' perceptions of professional ethical behaviour were significantly lower than professionals'. Different item functioning between nurses and family doctors was found in the item on seeking ethical collaboration when collaborating in clinical research. Effective knowledge of ethical norms was associated with greater perceived ethical values in clinical research and confidence in health care professionals among patients.","yes. Residents at all levels demonstrated improved research and statistics scores after receiving the curriculum. Because the ABSITE includes a wide spectrum of research topics, sustained improvements suggest a genuine level of understanding that will promote lifelong evaluation and clinical application of the surgical literature.","To describe how changes in recommendations regarding aspirating for blood return prior to intramuscular immunization have diffused into perinatal nurses' practice using the diffusions of innovations theory as a framework and to explore what factors influenced decisions to adopt new administration techniques.DESIGN & This descriptive study used a survey design with a convenience sample of hospital-based perinatal nurses. A link to an online survey regarding injection knowledge and practices surrounding administering the hepatitis B vaccine to newborns was distributed to nurse managers in Indiana, and they were asked to forward the link to their staffs. A total of 72 nurses participated in the survey. The majority of respondents (90%) continued to aspirate with the vaccination. Only 13% knew this practice was no longer recommended.","yes. Increasingly nursing work is translated into quantitative data or metrics. This is an inescapable development which seeks to enhance understanding of nursing work. However, qualitative research may also offer a useful approach which captures the otherwise hidden, subjective experiences associated with time and work. Such data can exist alongside nursing metrics, and together these can build a better and more nuanced consideration of nursing practice.","The findings point to the need for research-based information, exposure to professional journals and, in particular, organizational support for evidence-based nursing practice.","yes. A minority of perinatal nurses have expertise in adolescent mother-friendly care. There is a need for perinatal unit-level interventions to support the development of nurses' skills in caring for adolescent mothers and their knowledge of community-based resources. Peer mentoring and self-reflective practice are promising strategies.","Differences in the views of the communication process between patients and professionals could alert research boards, health care institutions and researchers to the need for greater transparency, trust and ethical instruction when patients are involved in clinical research.","To test the effect of publicity on recruitment to a randomized trial. Recruitment is often poor in trials. Publicity within recruitment packs might be an inexpensive method of increasing recruitment. We tested this in two quasi-randomized trials. In a primary care setting, within the context of a randomized trial of falls prevention, we allocated participants to receive a newspaper article about the study with their information sheet. The first trial compared one newspaper article against no article; the second compared a more favorably written article against the original. In the first study 4,488 participants were allocated into two groups. The response rate was 102 and 97 in the intervention and control groups, respectively (4.55% vs. 4.32%, 95% confidence interval [CI]: -0.98, 1.43); the recruitment rate was 73 and 71, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant. In the second study 2,745 were allocated into two groups with a response rate of 75 and 69 for the control and intervention groups, respectively (5.46% vs. 5.03%, 95% CI: -1.24, 2.09); the recruitment rate was 57 and 54, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant.","yes. It is important to ensure that new mothers are adequately informed about topics important to them while in hospital. The findings highlight the need for accessible and appropriate community-based information resources for women in the postpartum period, especially for those of low socioeconomic status.","Antenatal care recommended in protocols used in Australia varies, and is not always consistent with national policies or research evidence. Producing and disseminating systematic reviews of research evidence and national guidelines might reduce this variability and improve the quality of Australian antenatal care.","Nurse practitioners (NPs) are in a prime position to educate women about initial signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer (OC) and perform appropriate screening tests. However, little is known about NPs knowledge regarding OC. This article's purpose is to present the outcomes of a focused OC awareness program for NP students. NP students (N = 104) participated in this longitudinal one group pre-post study. Knowledge was calculated based on the number of correct answers for a total knowledge score and subscales related to OC incidence, risk, screening, symptoms, and treatment. An item related to the effectiveness of the Pap test to screen for OC was evaluated separately.","Additional support provided by nurses, or nurses and home visitors, can successfully address informational needs and increase the likelihood that women will use existing community-based resources. This finding was true even for high-risk women, although this intervention did not reduce the difference in resource use between high- and low-risk women.","yes. This work demonstrates that labor abnormalities and diagnosis of fetal distress are less frequent in patients cared for by nurse-midwives, and there is an association with a lower incidence of cesarean section.","Informed choice is often lacking in women's decisions about prenatal screening.AIM: The aim of this study is to evaluate how well midwives in Ontario, Canada are facilitating informed choice in this area. An Internet-based survey was used to investigate 171 midwifery clients' knowledge, attitude towards and experience of prenatal genetic screening tests, and to determine the proportion of study participants who made an informed choice about prenatal screening. All participants demonstrated adequate knowledge of prenatal screening. The vast majority (93.0%) of participants made an informed choice. Participants who chose to screen had lower knowledge scores than those who opted out of screening. Client satisfaction rates in regard to care received in this area ranged from 97% to 100%.","Despite a modest response rate, this study provides support for formalizing the training of nurses in hormonal contraception by integrating it into nursing education at all levels, and for implementing it in other health organizations such as family medicine groups, which are widespread in Quebec.","The decision aid increased attention to and perceived helpfulness of educational information about the study, but most families did not read it completely. The study suggests that even well-designed study materials are not fully reviewed in the context of in-hospital postpartum study recruitment and may need to be accompanied by a research recruiter to obtain informed consent.","We describe a simple, innovative method of engagement with patients and the general public to help educate and disseminate important public health messages around antimicrobial resistance and stewardship. We also identified the need for public health campaigns to address the knowledge gaps found around this topic.","The model proved useful in eliciting research priorities from both professionals and burn survivors, and in stimulating a meaningful dialogue between these groups. The involvement of burn survivors identified burn research areas that are currently not the focus of research in The Netherlands.","Action research has been used successfully to promote change in disciplines other than medicine, but there are few examples of its use in primary care. We aimed to discuss the benefits and difficulties of using action research in primary care using the example of child health surveillance provision in general practice. Twenty-eight general practices were randomly allocated into two groups. Action research was used to promote change in 14 practices by facilitating practice meetings and by providing written feedback. The other 14 practices received written feedback alone. The two groups of practices were compared using the following: (i) semi-structured interviews with one health visitor and GP from each practice; (ii) observation of baby clinics; (iii) questionnaires to parents; and (iv) return rates of child health surveillance reviews from the personal child health record. All 14 practices in the action research arm of the study met as individual practice teams and decided to make changes to their provision of child health surveillance. Ten practices audited their child health surveillance as a result. More health visitors in the action research practices than in the comparison practices reported changes to child health surveillance, audit, communication and use of the personal child health record. The majority of health visitors and GPs thought involvement in the action research process was beneficial. However, we were unable to show a statistically significant difference between the two groups of practices in baby clinic provision, parent satisfaction or the return rate of child health surveillance reviews.","Thirty percent of nursing students did not know or had doubts about the concept of brain death. It is therefore important to take this group into account in information campaigns to improve training of these future professionals.","Ensuring the use of research evidence in health system management and policy decisions is an important challenge in this century. Knowledge transfer and exchange (KTE) has emerged as a paradigm to address the challenges and start closing the 'know-do' gap. This area of work is gaining momentum in most developed countries, yet, to date, no work has been performed in Israel within this area. The purpose of this study was to identify which KTE activities health systems and policy researchers in Israel have undertaken. A cross-sectional web-based survey of researchers who have conducted health systems and policy research in Israel was developed. The survey consisted of a demographics section, quantitative scales, and open-ended questions. The survey was sent to all health systems and policy researchers in Israel (n = 125). The study response rate (28%) was relatively low as compared to other studies in the same field (range of 42% to 88%). Our survey found that more than a third of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel reported that they were frequently or always involved in the following KTE activities: interactions with target audience through the research process (i.e., during developing a research question or executing the research; 35% to 42%) or through formal or informal meetings during conferences, workshops, or conversations (40%). Less than half of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel are engaged in bridging activities aimed to facilitate target audiences to use research.","Nurturing critical thinking skills in the classroom is considered an important educational activity. It is believed that critical thinking skills are transferable and that they can be applied in practice when appraising, evaluating and implementing research. That more nurses than ever before have been judged academically knowledgeable in research has not guaranteed the transfer of such knowledge to practice. This paper discusses some of the reasons for the failure to narrow the gap between research and practice. In particular we argue that, if nurses are encouraged to develop creative and generative thinking alongside their critical thinking skills, then the art of nursing will have fuller representation in education, research and practice. The successful development of critical thinking skills for academic purposes does not necessarily mean that these skills are used in practice in relation either to research or clinical decision-making. This suggests that the transferability of critical thinking skills is less than straightforward. Indeed, there has been little narrowing of the research-practice gap since students started to learn critical thinking for academic purposes. However, we propose that thinking skills can be encouraged in the context of practice and that regular educational events, such as journal clubs, can contribute to developing critical thinking in the practice environment.","It is unclear whether algorithms with evidence-based interventions are used in a setting where the work load is high and qualified staff is scarce to identify neonates with life-threatening conditions. The nurse-midwives' knowledge and opinion about the World Health Organization (WHO) guide on postpartum newborn care were assessed in a hospital in Tanzania before and after training. Their adherence to this guide was evaluated by analysing 100 neonatal records. Before training, 44% of the nurse-midwives were familiar with the WHO guide. All nurse-midwives supported the implementation of the guide. In all, 21% of the postpartum record forms were fully completed. Risk factors for illness were missed in 27%.","Research provides the important evidence base for public health practice. We sought to compare the current support for public health research within European countries. Within a collaborative study SPHERE (Strengthening Public Health Research in Europe), we developed an e-mail questionnaire and sent it to 93 representatives of national member associations of the European Public Health Association. We compared the answers with reference to tree macro-areas: Northern, Southern and Eastern Europe. We gained responses for 22 of 39 European countries (56% country response rate). Current priorities at national level were: health service and patient safety for Northern Europe; infectious disease, health service and cardiovascular disease for Southern Europe; and food safety and nutrition, environmental and occupational health for Eastern Europe. Respondents gave fewer priorities for international research. In the North Europe the priorities empathized were health promotion, prevention and education (26.3%) together the injuries and alcohol habits (26.3%).","The intervention increased knowledge about colposcopy for this population. Because patient education is an essential nursing function, these results are encouraging. This intervention can be replicated by nurses in other settings. Further research is necessary to understand how nurses can best help women alleviate anxiety before colposcopy.","There is increased interest in building research capacity in rural health research in Australia and internationally. In Australia, the Primary Health Care Research Evaluation and Development program funded by the Australian Government has supported this move. Overall this program aims to build the quantum of primary healthcare research to underpin clinical practice, health systems improvement, and policy. In order to achieve this objective, one strand of the program aims to build research capacity among practitioners. In implementing this program in rural and remote areas of the west of South Australia, the Spencer Gulf Rural Health School has identified methodological and research design issues faced by practitioners who are researching in their communities. These issues include problems encountered in living and researching in the same location and accessing small-scale statistical information. We were interested to know whether there was interest in a formal course (Rural Research and Evaluation) that would address these issues and provide information about community-based research designs. A cross-sectional anonymous survey was designed and sent to 141 organisations in the health, human service, and local government sectors in regional South Australia. Respondents were asked to evaluate the demand and interest for a new course--Rural Research and Evaluation. The term 'rural' was used to refer to both rural and remote locations. Information was sought on the respondent's role in the organisation, current level of research participation, views about the proposed course content, and factors that the respondent thought would facilitate or inhibit their participation. The majority of questions were close-ended. Sixty surveys were returned giving a 42.5% response rate. Data were analysed using descriptive statistics. A high level of research and evaluation activity was reported with 80% of respondents undertaking research or evaluation as part of their professional role. There was also agreement that all the proposed topics were important to be included in a course. Each of the topics was ranked at four or five on a five-point scale by at least 58% of respondents. The topic 'understanding evaluation methodologies' was ranked at four or five by 85% of respondents, making it the most highly ranked topic. There was also consensus about the features respondents thought would make the course attractive for them to study. Over half (62%) of the respondents ranked having lecturers with a broad rural research background at five, very important, on a five-point scale. Almost half (48%) of the respondents ranked online delivery at five, a very important factor in making the course attractive to study.","To assess midwifery students' knowledge in the field of female fertility and to study their decision if they had diagnosis of diminished ovarian reserve (DOR). A prospective observational study by self-administered questionnaire was conducted among female midwifery students of seven French schools from June to December 2013. The questionnaire had three parts: (1) questions designed to gather information on the study population; (2) a questionnaire consisting of 10 items to test knowledge about female fertility and ovarian reserve; (3) a self-administered questionnaire simulating a DOR diagnosis and quantifying the decision that students would make using a Likert scale of 5 points. The participation rate was 72.5% (n=285/393). The average age was 22, 6 years±1.9. Among the 285 participants, the ovarian reserve concept was known by 93% of them (n=265) thanks to the midwifery studies (77%, n=204), the media (9%, n=24) and other sources of information. In total, 83.5% of midwifery students (n=238) were interested in assessing their ovarian reserve, and 48.3% of them were interested in evaluating it immediately (n=115). Among midwifery students, 22.5% of them (n=64) reported that female fertility began to decline from the age of 35 years old; 85.6% (n=244) thought that in vitro fertilization allowed women to conceive if fertility is related to a diminished ovarian reserve; 43.9% (n=125) answered that physical activity and a healthy diet had a beneficial effect on the ovarian reserve. If a DOR was diagnosed to them, 76.8% of students (n=219) would be likely to conceive their first child earlier than expected. Among them, 57.9% (n=165) would agree to have oocyte freezing in this context.","yes. The majority of residents surveyed thought that research activity was worthwhile. Residents' participation in research activity was associated with higher levels of satisfaction with residency training. Implementing measures to overcome existing barriers may have educational benefits for residents.","Creative promotion of clinical research at all stages of medical education and career development offers great promise to expand current physician-scientist numbers, and thereby stimulate many exciting advances in medicine.","The authors argue that although the clinical outcomes it set out to achieve remain elusive, the project produced a cohort of nurse researchers who went on to give important leadership in nursing, including in nursing academia/research. A contemporary version of the Study of Nursing Care has important potential to generate the next generation of nurse researchers, and leaders, into the twenty-first century.","The findings of this study, suggest that a theory-based educational intervention focused at RNs can be effective in changing RN's knowledge and attitudes regarding cancer pain management. However, the high number of dropouts between baseline and four weeks needs to be taken into account when evaluating our findings. Finally, this kind of theory-based educational intervention with interactive learning activities has been sparsely researched and needs to be evaluated further in larger projects.","A randomised controlled trial of caseload midwifery care for pregnant adolescents would not be feasible in this setting without modifications to the research protocol. The recruitment plan should maximise opportunities for participation by increasing the upper age limit and enabling women to be recruited at a later gestation. Strategies to engage the support of hospital-employed staff are essential and would require substantial, and ongoing, work. A Zelen method of post-randomisation consent, monetary incentives and 'peer recruiters' could also be considered.","Further research is recommended to develop a valid and reliable research tool to specifically measure the attitudes of 'nurses' working across different mental healthcare facilities towards this vulnerable patient group.","To examine the research translation phase focus (T1-T4) of systematic reviews published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) and Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects (DARE). Briefly, T1 includes reviews of basic science experiments; T2 includes reviews of human trials leading to guideline development; T3 includes reviews examining how to move guidelines into policy and practice; and T4 includes reviews describing the impact of changing health practices on population outcomes. A cross-sectional audit of randomly selected reviews from CDSR (n = 500) and DARE (n = 500) was undertaken. The research translation phase of reviews, overall and by communicable disease, noncommunicable disease, and injury subgroups, were coded by two researchers. A total of 898 reviews examined a communicable, noncommunicable, or injury-related condition. Of those, 98% of reviews within CDSR focused on T2, and the remaining 2% focused on T3. In DARE, 88% focused on T2, 8.7% focused on T1, 2.5% focused on T3, and 1.3% focused on T4. Almost all reviews examining communicable (CDSR 100%, DARE 93%), noncommunicable (CDSR 98%, DARE 87%), and injury (CDSR 95%, DARE 88%) were also T2 focused.","In light of declining numbers of physician-scientists, the goal of this project was to identify strategies to invigorate and attract new talent to clinical research in the field of pediatric neurosciences. To develop a broad perspective, a program of direct questions was addressed to both US and non-US physicians at all stages of career development. Respondents identified numerous promising avenues of research but also indicated obstacles to research progress at all stages of career development including medical students, resident physicians, junior medical faculty, mid-career faculty, and senior faculty. At each career stage, ideas were offered to attract resources for, build prestige for, and motivate commitment for participation in clinical research.","Research is crucial to the generation of new knowledge and for the development of nursing services. However, poor research conduct has prompted a growing international impetus to govern and monitor research activity. In 2004, a centralized Research Management and Governance Model aimed at fostering a quality research culture through streamlining bureaucratic management processes was implemented across 14 primary care provider organizations in the United Kingdom. A questionnaire survey was undertaken in 2004 to explore researchers' experiences (n = 76) of the model across the 14 organizations, and semi-structured interviews were conducted with five research and development managers. The interview transcripts were independently thematically analysed. Governance processes were seen as useful or very useful by 36.8% (n = 28) of researchers viewed, and 47.3% (n = 36) thought they were a hindrance or not useful. Managers suggested that the model supported the research infrastructure and had reduced paperwork. The benefits of centralization were balanced against managers' perceptions of reduced autonomy and control.","yes. The nursing staff's knowledge and use of prevention strategies increased. Fall rates decreased for 5 months after the educational intervention, but the reduction was not sustained.","Collaborations between managers and researchers can improve research relevance and quality and research capacity development. Factors critical to success relate to the fit between the project and the management fellow and how clearly the purpose is understood.","yes. The results showed the issue of attitudes towards compulsory research as a component of critical scholarship in the curriculum of medical courses. Moreover, employment of the research experts can be helpful for research training in schools of medical sciences.","In this definition survey, data were obtained from 113 nursing and midwifery students (n = 113) in third and fourth class and their mothers, sisters and other relatives in Turkey. Data were collected using a personal data form, a knowledge evaluation form for BSE (Maurer 1997) and the Champion's Health Belief Model Scale. Number percentage, Chi-square test were used in the evaluation of the data. Students learned breast cancer and BSE in their lessons one or two years previously. Knowledge level scores of the students were 52.3 ± 9.6 (min:25,max: 75). Rate of having regular BSE was 32.7%. When health belief scale assessed; the average of susceptibility was 7.52 ± 2.62, seriousness was 21.8 ± 5.30, benefit was 16.7±4.45, barrier was 22.3 ± 6.44, confidence was 40.3 ± 6.67 and medical motivation was 26.6 ± 4.22. The rate of having regular BSE and benefit, barrier scores were compared, they were statistically significant difference(p<0.05). The majority (106, 91.3%) gave BSE training to their mother and sisters, and 42.6% (48) to relatives, 6.2% (7) to friends, and 5.4% (6) to patients.","yes. Information dissemination interventions can increase awareness and changes in nursing home falls management activities.","yes. The use of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention is a feasible and effective means to increase cancer patients' awareness and understanding of the salient issues that surround the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate.","yes. The findings point to the importance of strengthening gynaecologists' and midwives' control beliefs by professional education and training on smoking prevention.","This study has shown a significant increase in awareness from using different kinds of media and has shown radio to be the most effective in our target community. Although the campaign has raised awareness, this study has not shown a change in health-seeking behaviour.","Our study suggests that action research is a successful method of promoting change in primary care. However, measuring the impact of change is difficult.","To study the effects of small group continuous quality improvement (CQI) on the clinical practice of midwives in the Netherlands. Randomised pre-/post-test (balanced block). The CQI groups were assigned to either the set of peer review topics including 'perineal repair' and 'artificial rupture of the membranes (ARM)', or to the set of topics including 'airway aspiration' and 'measuring blood pressure'. The two research groups acted as each other's control group. The Netherlands. Two hundred and fifty-five individual midwives practising in primary and secondary care who made up 28 peer groups. MEASUREMENT AND KEY FINDINGS: Questionnaires were used to collect data on clinical practice prior to the start of the intervention and one year later. Pre- and post-test data were received from 156 respondents. The intervention had a positive effect on adherence to the recommendations with respect to airway aspiration of the baby and measuring blood pressure. For ARM, no difference was found between pre- and post-test adherence to recommendations in the intervention group, while in the control group, the percentage of midwives that adhered to the recommendations decreased in the period between pre- and post-test. No significant effect was found for perineal repair.","yes. Implementation of a literature-based guideline on MH, powered by educational meetings and individual feedback, improves MH performance by ICU nurses.","Response rates to surveys conducted among healthcare professionals have been declining steadily. This paper is based on the development of a response rate strategy to address this challenge. A study in Ireland using a survey instrument that relied on the voluntary participation of managers and healthcare professionals. Database and manual literature searches were undertaken across the literature related to methodology to increase response rates from healthcare professionals. The databases Cinahl, Medline, PsycINFO, Wiley Online Library and Scopus-V.4 were searched using 'response rates' and the terms: 'response rate theory', 'survey response rates', 'increase', 'improve health professionals', 'primary care research', 'health care teams', 'health service research' and 'research participation'. Only English-language publications were reviewed. Researchers must be aware of factors that influence healthcare professionals they seek to engage and so they can create research environments that do not preclude or dissuade practitioners from participating.","Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students, to increasae their sensitivity, beliefs and attitudes, and medical motivation for BSE.","Our aim was to evaluate whether the involvement of health care managers in research projects improves the quality and relevance of research, and whether collaboration builds capacity in the managerial community. The NIHR Service Delivery and Organization Management Fellowship programme supports the direct involvement of health care managers in research projects. Data were collected from face-to-face interviews with management fellows and chief investigators of research projects at 10 case study sites. Data were analysed thematically using an adapted Kirkpatrick framework for programme evaluation. Management fellows improved the relevance and quality of research through enhancing its validity, efficiency and credibility. This was achieved by: using their contextual understanding to enable and support access and recruitment participants, data collection tools, processes and analysis; supporting dissemination activities; and undertaking additional work which was complementary to the main project. Capacity was developed through formal courses and exposure to new knowledge, ideas and practices. Factors found to enable or impede improvements in research included management fellows' knowledge and experience of the NHS, their background and personal characteristics, mutual respect, timing and flexibility. Consequences were not always predictable. Costs for management fellows included foregone opportunities, specifically for promoted posts. Researchers reported time-costs associated with administering the fellowship.","This is the first study in healthcare research to investigate the relationship between mentoring perception, scientific collaboration and research performance in the context of gender. It presents a series of initiatives that proved effective in marginalising the gender gap. These include the Athena Scientific Women's Academic Network charter, new recruitment and advertisement strategies, setting up a 'Research and Family Life' forum, establishing mentoring circles for women and projecting female role models.","The initiative taken by NHS Research and Development in examining methods to promote the uptake of research findings is welcome, but will only prove helpful if careful attention is paid to the different stages of the development process, and different research approaches are used appropriately at different stages.","Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students. Their susceptibility, belief and attitudes, medical motivation with BSE should thereby increase.","The research-practice gap will reduce only if research becomes part of practitioners' ideology, which includes the art and science of nursing. Critical and creative thinking are prerequisites to narrowing the disjuncture between research and practice, and we suggest that educators and practitioners explore structured ways of meeting together to appraise literature as a possible means of making use of their thinking and knowledge in clinical practice.","Findings suggest the need to increase nursing staffs' awareness of changes to policies and procedures during clinical guideline implementation. Furthermore, results indicate that organizational support may have a positive influence on modifications to policies and procedures that are guided by research-based clinical guideline recommendations.","Research utilisation is essential in developing evidence-based practices; although many students may be generally able to adopt such skills, there are reports of barriers related to critical appraisal skills. To explore how students perceive the relevance of research to future clinical practice and patients, and to what extent they read research (including reading pattern). Additionally, the objective was to explore whether a three-week intensive course in critical appraisal of research could affect these variables. A cross-sectional survey design, with a pre- and post-test. One large university college in Southeastern Norway. 196 multidisciplinary healthcare students at baseline and 147 after three weeks. A purposely-designed 21 item questionnaire was used to quantify students' attitudes towards using research and critical thinking. The questionnaire was based on themes emerging from prior focus group interviews with 10 nursing and social educator students as well as from the existing literature. At baseline, 6.1% and 7.1% of respondents perceived the research to be of little or very little importance for their future work and patients, respectively. Furthermore, 83.2% reported that they seldom or very seldom read scientific papers. At baseline, 40 different patterns of reading a scientific paper were identified. Additionally, 7.1% of respondents reported to read the introduction, methods and conclusion in combination. Significantly improved scores were found after completing the three-week course related to a) relevance of research for future work (p<0.01), b) self-perceived skills in critical appraisal (p<0.001), c) ability to find scientific papers (p≤0.01), and d) relevance of research for patients and users (p≤0.001).","Results of this study suggest that Ontario midwives are effective in conveying information on prenatal genetic screening, contributing to high levels of client knowledge and satisfaction in comparison to similar studies in other jurisdictions.","Although the skills necessary to implement evidence into obstetrical practice are still available, evidence based research results do not seem to be of great importance, when midwives decide which method to use for intrapartum FHR monitoring. Hospital policies and the professional training received were more important factors. Programs designed to implement evidence in care should reflect the identification and use of these factors in order to facilitate the process of realisation.","from clinical trials are often slowly implemented. We studied whether participation in multicenter clinical trials improves reported dissemination, convincement, and subsequent implementation of its results. We sent a web-based questionnaire to gynecologists, residents, nurses, and midwives in all obstetrics and gynecology departments in the Netherlands. For nine trials in perinatology, reproductive medicine, and gynecologic oncology, we asked the respondents whether they had knowledge of the results, were convinced by the results, and what percentage of their patients were treated according to the results of these trials. We compared the level of knowledge, convincement, and reported implementation of results in practice for the nine trials for respondents who worked in hospitals that had recruited for a trial with respondents who worked in a hospital that had not recruited for that trial. The reported implementation was restricted to six trials that showed decisive results. Results We analyzed 202 questionnaires from 83 departments in obstetrics and gynecology in the Netherlands (93% of all departments). The percentage of respondents who had worked in a hospital that recruited for a specific study varied between 8% and 71% per study and was 28% on average. The relative risk (RR) for knowledge of the study result for respondents who had worked in a recruiting hospital was for all studies positive and varied between 1.1 and 3.3 (pooled RR: 1.8, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.7-1.9). In general, health-care workers were convinced of trial results, independent of whether they had worked in a hospital that recruited for a trial or not (pooled RR: 1.02, 95% CI: 0.99-1.05). Reported implementation of trial's results, that is, less than 20% were treated with unfavorable treatment according to study results, was better in hospitals that had recruited for those trials (pooled RR: 1.1, 95% CI: 1.02-1.19).","It is important for nurse researchers to develop critical awareness of the research methodologies and methods they employ. We argue that the phenomenological focus group is not an oxymoron. Rather, the use of focus groups can provide a greater understanding of the phenomenon under study.","To examine the relationship between sustained work with quality improvement (QI) and factors related to research utilization in a group of nurses. The study was designed as a comparative survey that included 220 nurses from various health care organizations in Sweden. These nurses had participated in uniformly designed 4-day basic training courses to manage a method for QI. A validated questionnaire covering different aspects of research utilization was employed. The response rate was 70% (154 of 220). Nurses in managerial positions at the departmental level were excluded. Therefore, the final sample consisted of 119 respondents. Four years after the training courses, 39% were still involved in audit-related activities, while 61% reported that they had discontinued the QI work (missing = 1). Most nurses (80-90%) had a positive attitude to research. Those who had continued the QI work over a 4-year period reported more activity in searching research literature compared with those who had discontinued the QI work (P = 0.005). The QI-sustainable nurses also reported more frequent participation in research-related activities, particularly in implementing specific research findings in practice (P = 0.001). Some contextual differences were reported: the QI-sustainable nurses were more likely to obtain support from their chief executive (P = 0.001), consultation from a skilled researcher (P = 0.005) and statistical support (P = 0.001). Within the broader health care organization, the existence of a research committee and a research and development strategy, as well as access to research assistant staff, had a tendency to be more common for nurses who had continued the QI work.","The aim of this study was to examine whether there was a difference between clinical nurses who were research-active, and clinical nurses who were nonresearch-active in utilization of research. A further aim was to identify the most significant barriers faced by a group of Danish clinical nurses in their use of research. Discrepancy between the improved quality of research results and the lack of implementing them was the starting point for a series of studies which showed the types of barriers clinical nurses found especially cumbersome when applying the research results of other researchers. This study investigates whether the clinical nurses' own engagement in research had any impact on their perception of research utilization. The study had an exploratory and descriptive design. Seventy-nine Danish clinical nurses participated and semi-structured interviewing was used as the research method. There was a statistically significant difference between the research-active and nonresearch-active nurses on various variables. The study showed that, to a larger extent, research-active nurses used evidence-based knowledge and were generally more internationally orientated. Furthermore, two important barriers for research utilization were identified by all 79 clinical nurses included in the study, i.e. 90% of the nurses explained that the quantity of research results was overwhelming, and 75% of them found that they were unable to evaluate the quality of the research.","yes. Clinical nurses, who were research-active themselves, experienced more success in overcoming some of the barriers, which existed in applying research to practice. The research potential found amongst clinical nurses in Denmark needed to be further supported through training and guidance in research methodology, establishing introductory stipends and part-time research positions. By doing so, some of the barriers affecting research utilization and the so-called theory-practice gap might be reduced. Further empirical studies, based on Giddens theory of sociological reflectivity, might see clinical nurses in a more serious light and simultaneously perceive them as producers of knowledge.","Despite the growing body of literature, the reality of getting evidence into practice remains problematic. The purpose of this study was to establish levels of research awareness amongst registered health care professionals (RHCPs) and the influence of research awareness on evidence-based practice activities. This was a descriptive quantitative study. A convenience sample of 2,126 registered RHCPs working in a large acute hospital in Northeast England, the United Kingdom was used. A self-completion Research Awareness Questionnaire (RAQ) was directed towards measuring RHCP: attitudes towards research, understanding of research and the research process, and associations with practising using an evidence base. Data were entered into a Statistical Package for Social Science (SPSS) database and descriptive and inferential statistics were used. A total of 843 questionnaires were returned. Seven hundred and thirty-three (91%) RHCPs overwhelmingly agreed with the principle that evidence-based practice has a large part to play in improving patient care. This point was reinforced by 86% (n = 701) of respondents strongly agreeing or agreeing with the idea that evidence-based practice is the way forward to change clinical practice. Significant associations were noted between levels of confidence to undertake a piece of research and whether the individual had received adequate information about the research process, had basic knowledge and understanding of the research process, or had research awareness education or training.","The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation."],"string":"[\n \"Although most workers have OSH questions, only 40% seek information or advice to answer their questions. Moreover, many OSH questions remain unanswered by common information facilities. This study provides input on how to develop campaigns and new facilities that may induce workers to seek information and that offer more applicable information.\",\n \"Here we report the results of a randomized study undertaken to test the efficacy of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention in increasing patients' awareness and understanding of the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate. During a 12-month period, 180 cancer patients who were approached to participate in a phase II or III clinical trial were randomized to undergo either of the following: (1) standard informed consent procedures based on verbal explanations from the treating physician plus written information (controls); or (2) standard informed consent procedures plus a supplementary, telephone-based contact with an oncology nurse (intervention). For purposes of evaluation, face-to-face interviews were conducted with all patients approximately 1 week after the informed consent process had been completed. The two groups were comparable with regard to sociodemographic and clinical variables. Both groups had a high level of awareness of the diagnosis and of the nature and objectives of the proposed treatments. The intervention group was significantly (P < .01) better informed about the following: (1) the risks and side effects of treatment; (2) the clinical trial context of the treatment; (3) the objectives of the clinical trial; (4) where relevant, the use of randomization in allocating treatment; (5) the availability of alternative treatments; (6) the voluntary nature of participation; and (7) the right to withdraw from the clinical trial. The intervention did not have any significant effect on patients' anxiety levels or on rates of clinical trial participation. Patients reported high levels of satisfaction with the intervention.\",\n \"To assess and improve knowledge of correct resuscitation procedures if an unexpected event occurs during an intra-uterine device (IUD) fitting. Previous literature on resuscitation in the family planning clinic was reviewed to provide a basis for a questionnaire for doctors and nurses within the service to assess knowledge of correct procedures. Outcome of first questionnaire: Seventeen questionnaires were returned in the first round, of which 12 were from nurses. The results to the first question gave a 70% correct response rate. The response to the second gave a correct response of 41%. Only six out of 17 would give atropine in a vaso-vagal attack. The results were discussed at an audit meeting and most staff said that they wanted further training. This was linked with the Leeds Community and Mental Health Trust training for resuscitation. By linking to this training programme it saved time and resources for the family planning service. Outcome of second questionnaire: Twenty-one staff returned questionnaires, of which 12 were nurses. The results to the first question gave an 87% correct response rate. The response to the second showed a correct response of 71%. Fourteen out of the 21 replying would give atropine.\",\n \"This study is the first in France that assessed students' knowledge on fertility. We observed: (1) gaps and misconceptions about female fertility despite a medical training in midwifery students; (2) a belief that in vitro fertilization is effective to overcome infertility related to age; (3) that some of these young students would be favorable to oocyte social freezing (technique not allowed in France); (4) that an adequate information on the decrease of fertility with age could lead some students to anticipate their first pregnancy. Specific information regarding the decrease of fertility with age should be offered to all reproductive-aged young women.\",\n \"A previous survey has highlighted the fact that most individuals in chemical pathology identifiable from specialist society membership failed to publish material in Medline cited journals during a five year period. It could be considered that published research that is not cited in other work is not useful unless it has achieved visibility, as demonstrated by citation in another research publication. To determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. A random selection from the previous survey was investigated to determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. There was a logarithmic relation between the frequency of publication and visibility, with an increasing probability of citation as publication frequency increases.\",\n \"yes. Almost all women at RHW access information antenatally about intrapartum pain management, often from informal sources. Demographic factors affected type of information accessed and women's plans. Adequate access to information affected use of, and satisfaction with, pain management.\",\n \"To increase maintenance of breastfeeding through improved primary care support. A cluster randomised controlled trial recruited 15 rural family doctor's offices and 330 women who were currently breastfeeding took part. Eight practices formed the intervention group (154 women) and seven formed the control group (176 women). The practice nurses who provided the intervention used a specially designed motivational flowchart to speak to the mothers when they brought their child for immunisation at 2, 4 and 6 months. The nurses also attended preparatory workshops on breastfeeding management, counselling skills, motivational interviewing and reflective practice and were given resources and support. Breastfeeding rates were measured at 4 and 6 months. Randomisation equally distributed all measured variables except prenatal intentions to rejoin employment within 12 months (70% intervention, 56% control, p < 0.05). After adjustment, the 4-month figures showed significantly higher rates of exclusive breastfeeding (OR 1.88; 95%CI 1.01-3.50; p = 0.047) and full breastfeeding (water/juice allowed) (OR 1.95; 95%CI 1.03-3.69; p = 0.04) in the intervention group. There were no differences at 6 months.\",\n \"Attending a nurse-led education and counselling group intervention had a positive impact on various aspects of the women's lived experiences. The programme also provided professionals with important insights into the patients' views and feelings regarding cancer treatment, trajectories and rehabilitation. This knowledge has already proven itself useful in clinical practice for improving staff communication skills and psycho-social support related to gynaecological cancer care.\",\n \"no. Clarity about what does (and does not) constitute MI promotes quality assurance in scientific research, clinical practice, and training.\",\n \"yes. To improve the uptake rate, we should focus on the personal moral obligation of eligible women, beliefs about the risks of cervical cancer, and available cures. Invitations and reminders within general practices enhance the uptake rate.\",\n \"Despite considerable investment in research priority setting within diverse fields of healthcare, little is known about the extent to which different stakeholder groups share research priorities. Conflicting priorities may jeopardize stakeholder engagement in research. To identify the research priorities of different stakeholder groups within mental health care and examine the extent and nature of agreement between them. Using a Delphi technique, we conducted parallel consultation processes within four different stakeholder groups. Each group process consisted of three rounds. The study was carried out within a mental health and learning disabilities trust in southern England. Participants were recruited from the following groups: mental health service users (34), informal carers (26), mental health practitioners (35) and service managers (23). There were striking differences between the four groups in respect of their ability and willingness to make priority decisions. These differences notwithstanding, there was considerable overlap in respect of their research interests. All groups identified and attached high importance to issues relating to the promotion of independence, self-esteem and recovery. The quality of in-patient care, the place of psychological therapies and the relationship between physical and mental health also emerged across the board.\",\n \"yes. Educational needs of research ethics among nursing professors and students in the postgraduate course was high. We recommend both basic and advanced research ethics educational programs for the nursing researchers. The basic course should be at least 6 hr and include various cases and something to discuss.\",\n \"We conducted a population-based study to assess whether work as a nurse during pregnancy increases the risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and small-for-gestational-age. The study population was selected from The Finnish Prenatal Environment and Health Study of 2568 newborns (response 94%) and included 128 (5.0%) newborns of nurses and 559 newborns of office workers (21.8%) as a reference group. The risk of low birth weight (adjusted odds ratio = 1.02; 95% confidence interval = 0.32-3.22) and preterm delivery (0.81; 0.32-2.05) did not differ between newborns of nurses and office workers, but the risk of small-for-gestational-age was substantially higher among newborns of nurses (1.99; 1.10-3.59). This corresponds to a population attributable fraction of 2.5%.\",\n \"Although well aware of the problem, clinical researchers knowingly contribute to problems of selective reporting and nonpublication of trials. They call for changes in current practices of journal-based communication of trial reporting and for systematic evaluation of measures to decrease publication bias.\",\n \"For postgraduate nurses, daylong cancer pain education workshops were, in the group studied, as effective as hands-on experience in improving cancer pain knowledge and changing attitudes. Both the workshop-only and the enriched-model nurses relative to controls had significantly improved knowledge and changed attitudes towards optimal pain management.\",\n \"yes. We conclude that the nurses working in CHCs need guidance and information about gamete donation in order to be able to support parents in the disclosure of information to their children and also how to inform or withhold information to significant others in their surrounding milieu.\",\n \"yes. the instruction in pelvic floor exercises by health service professionals was provided on an ad hoc basis. In many instances, the programme of instruction did not meet recommendations made in the literature. It is likely that the success of randomised controlled trials reported in the literature would not be repeated in the 'real world' Implications for practice: there is a need for the service to be reorganised so that all women receive high-quality instruction during pregnancy, with a reminder to exercise following birth. This could help to prevent, or relieve, the symptoms of stress incontinence that frequently occur at these times.\",\n \"yes. The women in this study valued continuity of midwifery care and were able to form meaningful relationships with their midwifery student. Programs leading to registration as a midwife should privilege continuity of care experiences. Not only does this benefit women but provides the future midwifery workforce with a clear understanding of models that best meet women's individual and the benefits of working in these models.\",\n \"yes. This study supports efforts aimed at improving teamwork-related factors as they are associated with a decrease in violence against nurses.\",\n \"Despite an increase in the proportion of qualitative research in medical journals over a 10 year period, the proportion remains low. Journals' policies pertaining to qualitative research, as expressed by the appearance of specific guidelines and editorials/methodological papers on the subject, are independently associated with the publication of original qualitative research; irrespective of the journals' impact factor.\",\n \"A lack of awareness of bias and negative attitudes towards research present significant barriers in terms of conducting methodologically rigorous pediatric RCTs. Knowledge translation efforts must focus on these issues to ensure the relevance and validity of trial results.\",\n \"Analysis of international language, communication and nursing literature revealed the essential role language consistency plays in promoting competency and desirable behavioural outcomes. It also revealed the difficulty nursing has had in gaining consistency of language associated with theory, research and reasoning. Six nursing theory, research and terminology texts with international circulation were analysed to identify key words related to theory, research and reasoning and to determine consistency of definitions among texts. Next, 97 nursing educators were surveyed to determine their ability to define the same key words. Educators were recruited during three national nursing education meetings in the United States of America between 2006 and 2007. Analysis revealed significant variability in definitions of key words among texts and in nursing educators' ability to match any defining words used by the texts and by each other.\",\n \"This study examined effectiveness of a theoretically based education programme in reducing inappropriate antipyretic use in fever management. Paediatric nurses' inconsistent, ritualistic antipyretic use in fever management is influenced by many factors including inconsistent beliefs and parental requests. Determinants of antipyretic administration, identified by the theory of planned behaviour, were belief-based attitudes and subjective norms. A quasi-experiment explored group effects of a peer education programme, based on the theory of planned behaviour, on factors influencing paediatric nurses' antipyretic administration. Surveys and chart audits collected data from medical wards at experimental and control hospitals one month pre and one and four months postpeer education programme. All nurses employed in targeted wards were eligible to participate in surveys and all eligible charts were audited. The peer education programme consisted of four one-hour sessions targeting evidence-based knowledge, myths and misconceptions, normative, attitudinal and control influences over and rehearsal of evidence-based fever management. All nurses in experimental hospital targeted wards were eligible to attend. Peer education and support facilitated session information reaching those unable to attend sessions. Two-way univariate anovas explored between subject, experimental and control group and within subject factors, pre, post and latency data. Significant interactions in normative influence (p = 0.01) and intentions (p = 0.01), a significant main group effect in control influence (p = 0.01) and a significant main effect between audit data across time points (p = 0.03) highlight peer education programme effectiveness in behaviour change. Normative, control and intention changes postpeer education programme were maintained in latency data; mean temperature was not.\",\n \"We have developed a validated questionnaire which tests patient's level of knowledge with respect to surgical myocardial revascularisation. Our study identified areas of informed consent where the minimal level of knowledge is below the recommended level. The questionnaire could be used in audits and clinical trials in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. It could be used as a tool to measure the effectiveness of patient education programmes. With appropriate changes, this instrument could also be applied in other fields of medical intervention, which require patients to give informed consent.\",\n \"Given the factors that distinguish researching from non-researching Fellows, attention needs to be paid to the ethos of the professional environment, mentoring, and training opportunities in research in order to increase the recruitment of women investigators.\",\n \"Despite poor design and inadequate funding, our findings have shown some promising results after PBF training in the study area. The findings have highlighted the potential of PBF to act as leverage for initiating innovative and proactive actions, which may motivate health personnel performance and quality of care in the study setting with minimal support. However, key policy issues at the national level should be addressed in order to exploit this opportunity.\",\n \"The research enterprise is addressing one in five knowledge gaps identified in clinical practice recommendations in endocrinology. These findings suggest an inefficiency in the allocation of very scarce research economical resources. Linking the research agenda to evidence gaps in clinical practice guidelines may improve both the efficiency of the research enterprise and the translation of evidence into more confident clinical practice.\",\n \"yes. Research and prevention strategies should not focus solely on isolated early risk factors, but also on the entire pre- and perinatal situation.\",\n \"Relevant, high quality research summaries were found for few of the topics identified by managers. Few proposals used national surveys evidence to identify barriers to vaccination. Researchers generating or adapting evidence about health systems need to be more responsive to managers' needs. Use of available evidence from local or national surveys should be strongly encouraged.\",\n \"Breast cancer is the most common female cancer worldwide including India, where advanced stages at diagnosis, and rising incidence and mortality rates, make it essential to understand cancer literacy in women. We conducted a literature review to evaluate the awareness levels of risk factors for breast cancer among Indian women and health professionals. A structured literature search using combined keywords was undertaken on bibliographic databases including MEDLINE, Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews, Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health (CINAHL) and SCOPUS. Searches were restricted to research published in English language peer-reviewed journals through December, 2014 in India. A total of 7066 women aged 15-70 years showed varied levels of awareness on risk factors such as family history (13-58%), reproductive history (1-88%) and obesity (11-51%). Literacy levels on risk factors did not improve over the 8-year period (2005-2013). On average, nurses reported higher, though still varied, awareness levels for risk factors such as family history (40.8-98%), reproductive history (21-90%) and obesity (34-6%). Awareness levels were not consistently higher for the stronger determinants of risk.\",\n \"To use an \\\"evidence-mapping\\\" approach to assess the usefulness of Cochrane reviews in identifying research gaps in the maternal health. The article describes the general mapping, prioritizing, reconciling, and updating approach: (1) identifying gaps in the maternal health research using published systematic reviews and formulating research questions, (2) prioritizing questions using Delphi method, (3) reconciling identified research priorities with the existing literature (i.e., searching of ongoing trials in trials registries), (4) updating the process. A comprehensive search of Cochrane systematic reviews published or updated from January 2006 to March 2011 was performed. We evaluated the \\\"Implications for Research\\\" section to identify gaps in the research. Our search strategy identified 695 references; 178 systematic reviews identifying at least one research gap were used. We formulated 319 research questions, which were classified into 11 different categories based on the direct and indirect causes of maternal mortality: postpartum hemorrhage, abortion, hypertensive disorders, infection/sepsis, caesarean section, diabetes, pregnancy prevention, preterm labor, other direct causes, indirect causes, and health policies and systems. Most research questions concerned the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including drugs (42.6%), nonpharmacologic interventions (16.3%), and health system (14.7%).\",\n \"yes. Trial introduction meetings involving researcher led presentation of information, followed by group discussion, can help enhance the information provided in the patient information leaflet in a useful and non coercive manner.\",\n \"Funding has been made available for nurses to convert from second level to first level registration. Managers need to know the value of this initiative. Questionnaires sent to a sample of 130 enrolled nurses and semi-structured interviews with eight nurses and one manager. Descriptive statistics were used to analyse the questionnaires and themes identified from the transcripts of the interviews. One year after completion, participants identified changes in grade, job and further study. Interviews revealed a developmental change in their personal and professional life. The depth of perceived prejudice towards them remains very powerful.\",\n \"The increasing amount of the clinical research conducted in the primary health care has enabled extending research beyond traditional settings, but this transfer has implied some trade-offs. Health care professionals who conduct research with trusted patients require assuming the ethical standards of research and communication skills to enable patients' autonomy and freedom of choice. This study aims to measure the opinions of health professionals and patients on issues of communication in clinical research. A cross-sectional study with health care professionals and patients from primary health care centres in Barcelona (Spain). Each group completed a similar self-administered questionnaire. A Rasch model was fitted to data. After examination of goodness-of-fit, differences between groups were compared using analysis of variance, and patients' measures were calibrated to professionals' measures to compare overall mean measures. Professionals and patients found the ethical attitudes most difficult to endorse related to trust in clinical researchers and conflicts of interest. Patients' perceptions of professional ethical behaviour were significantly lower than professionals'. Different item functioning between nurses and family doctors was found in the item on seeking ethical collaboration when collaborating in clinical research. Effective knowledge of ethical norms was associated with greater perceived ethical values in clinical research and confidence in health care professionals among patients.\",\n \"yes. Residents at all levels demonstrated improved research and statistics scores after receiving the curriculum. Because the ABSITE includes a wide spectrum of research topics, sustained improvements suggest a genuine level of understanding that will promote lifelong evaluation and clinical application of the surgical literature.\",\n \"To describe how changes in recommendations regarding aspirating for blood return prior to intramuscular immunization have diffused into perinatal nurses' practice using the diffusions of innovations theory as a framework and to explore what factors influenced decisions to adopt new administration techniques.DESIGN & This descriptive study used a survey design with a convenience sample of hospital-based perinatal nurses. A link to an online survey regarding injection knowledge and practices surrounding administering the hepatitis B vaccine to newborns was distributed to nurse managers in Indiana, and they were asked to forward the link to their staffs. A total of 72 nurses participated in the survey. The majority of respondents (90%) continued to aspirate with the vaccination. Only 13% knew this practice was no longer recommended.\",\n \"yes. Increasingly nursing work is translated into quantitative data or metrics. This is an inescapable development which seeks to enhance understanding of nursing work. However, qualitative research may also offer a useful approach which captures the otherwise hidden, subjective experiences associated with time and work. Such data can exist alongside nursing metrics, and together these can build a better and more nuanced consideration of nursing practice.\",\n \"The findings point to the need for research-based information, exposure to professional journals and, in particular, organizational support for evidence-based nursing practice.\",\n \"yes. A minority of perinatal nurses have expertise in adolescent mother-friendly care. There is a need for perinatal unit-level interventions to support the development of nurses' skills in caring for adolescent mothers and their knowledge of community-based resources. Peer mentoring and self-reflective practice are promising strategies.\",\n \"Differences in the views of the communication process between patients and professionals could alert research boards, health care institutions and researchers to the need for greater transparency, trust and ethical instruction when patients are involved in clinical research.\",\n \"To test the effect of publicity on recruitment to a randomized trial. Recruitment is often poor in trials. Publicity within recruitment packs might be an inexpensive method of increasing recruitment. We tested this in two quasi-randomized trials. In a primary care setting, within the context of a randomized trial of falls prevention, we allocated participants to receive a newspaper article about the study with their information sheet. The first trial compared one newspaper article against no article; the second compared a more favorably written article against the original. In the first study 4,488 participants were allocated into two groups. The response rate was 102 and 97 in the intervention and control groups, respectively (4.55% vs. 4.32%, 95% confidence interval [CI]: -0.98, 1.43); the recruitment rate was 73 and 71, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant. In the second study 2,745 were allocated into two groups with a response rate of 75 and 69 for the control and intervention groups, respectively (5.46% vs. 5.03%, 95% CI: -1.24, 2.09); the recruitment rate was 57 and 54, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant.\",\n \"yes. It is important to ensure that new mothers are adequately informed about topics important to them while in hospital. The findings highlight the need for accessible and appropriate community-based information resources for women in the postpartum period, especially for those of low socioeconomic status.\",\n \"Antenatal care recommended in protocols used in Australia varies, and is not always consistent with national policies or research evidence. Producing and disseminating systematic reviews of research evidence and national guidelines might reduce this variability and improve the quality of Australian antenatal care.\",\n \"Nurse practitioners (NPs) are in a prime position to educate women about initial signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer (OC) and perform appropriate screening tests. However, little is known about NPs knowledge regarding OC. This article's purpose is to present the outcomes of a focused OC awareness program for NP students. NP students (N = 104) participated in this longitudinal one group pre-post study. Knowledge was calculated based on the number of correct answers for a total knowledge score and subscales related to OC incidence, risk, screening, symptoms, and treatment. An item related to the effectiveness of the Pap test to screen for OC was evaluated separately.\",\n \"Additional support provided by nurses, or nurses and home visitors, can successfully address informational needs and increase the likelihood that women will use existing community-based resources. This finding was true even for high-risk women, although this intervention did not reduce the difference in resource use between high- and low-risk women.\",\n \"yes. This work demonstrates that labor abnormalities and diagnosis of fetal distress are less frequent in patients cared for by nurse-midwives, and there is an association with a lower incidence of cesarean section.\",\n \"Informed choice is often lacking in women's decisions about prenatal screening.AIM: The aim of this study is to evaluate how well midwives in Ontario, Canada are facilitating informed choice in this area. An Internet-based survey was used to investigate 171 midwifery clients' knowledge, attitude towards and experience of prenatal genetic screening tests, and to determine the proportion of study participants who made an informed choice about prenatal screening. All participants demonstrated adequate knowledge of prenatal screening. The vast majority (93.0%) of participants made an informed choice. Participants who chose to screen had lower knowledge scores than those who opted out of screening. Client satisfaction rates in regard to care received in this area ranged from 97% to 100%.\",\n \"Despite a modest response rate, this study provides support for formalizing the training of nurses in hormonal contraception by integrating it into nursing education at all levels, and for implementing it in other health organizations such as family medicine groups, which are widespread in Quebec.\",\n \"The decision aid increased attention to and perceived helpfulness of educational information about the study, but most families did not read it completely. The study suggests that even well-designed study materials are not fully reviewed in the context of in-hospital postpartum study recruitment and may need to be accompanied by a research recruiter to obtain informed consent.\",\n \"We describe a simple, innovative method of engagement with patients and the general public to help educate and disseminate important public health messages around antimicrobial resistance and stewardship. We also identified the need for public health campaigns to address the knowledge gaps found around this topic.\",\n \"The model proved useful in eliciting research priorities from both professionals and burn survivors, and in stimulating a meaningful dialogue between these groups. The involvement of burn survivors identified burn research areas that are currently not the focus of research in The Netherlands.\",\n \"Action research has been used successfully to promote change in disciplines other than medicine, but there are few examples of its use in primary care. We aimed to discuss the benefits and difficulties of using action research in primary care using the example of child health surveillance provision in general practice. Twenty-eight general practices were randomly allocated into two groups. Action research was used to promote change in 14 practices by facilitating practice meetings and by providing written feedback. The other 14 practices received written feedback alone. The two groups of practices were compared using the following: (i) semi-structured interviews with one health visitor and GP from each practice; (ii) observation of baby clinics; (iii) questionnaires to parents; and (iv) return rates of child health surveillance reviews from the personal child health record. All 14 practices in the action research arm of the study met as individual practice teams and decided to make changes to their provision of child health surveillance. Ten practices audited their child health surveillance as a result. More health visitors in the action research practices than in the comparison practices reported changes to child health surveillance, audit, communication and use of the personal child health record. The majority of health visitors and GPs thought involvement in the action research process was beneficial. However, we were unable to show a statistically significant difference between the two groups of practices in baby clinic provision, parent satisfaction or the return rate of child health surveillance reviews.\",\n \"Thirty percent of nursing students did not know or had doubts about the concept of brain death. It is therefore important to take this group into account in information campaigns to improve training of these future professionals.\",\n \"Ensuring the use of research evidence in health system management and policy decisions is an important challenge in this century. Knowledge transfer and exchange (KTE) has emerged as a paradigm to address the challenges and start closing the 'know-do' gap. This area of work is gaining momentum in most developed countries, yet, to date, no work has been performed in Israel within this area. The purpose of this study was to identify which KTE activities health systems and policy researchers in Israel have undertaken. A cross-sectional web-based survey of researchers who have conducted health systems and policy research in Israel was developed. The survey consisted of a demographics section, quantitative scales, and open-ended questions. The survey was sent to all health systems and policy researchers in Israel (n = 125). The study response rate (28%) was relatively low as compared to other studies in the same field (range of 42% to 88%). Our survey found that more than a third of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel reported that they were frequently or always involved in the following KTE activities: interactions with target audience through the research process (i.e., during developing a research question or executing the research; 35% to 42%) or through formal or informal meetings during conferences, workshops, or conversations (40%). Less than half of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel are engaged in bridging activities aimed to facilitate target audiences to use research.\",\n \"Nurturing critical thinking skills in the classroom is considered an important educational activity. It is believed that critical thinking skills are transferable and that they can be applied in practice when appraising, evaluating and implementing research. That more nurses than ever before have been judged academically knowledgeable in research has not guaranteed the transfer of such knowledge to practice. This paper discusses some of the reasons for the failure to narrow the gap between research and practice. In particular we argue that, if nurses are encouraged to develop creative and generative thinking alongside their critical thinking skills, then the art of nursing will have fuller representation in education, research and practice. The successful development of critical thinking skills for academic purposes does not necessarily mean that these skills are used in practice in relation either to research or clinical decision-making. This suggests that the transferability of critical thinking skills is less than straightforward. Indeed, there has been little narrowing of the research-practice gap since students started to learn critical thinking for academic purposes. However, we propose that thinking skills can be encouraged in the context of practice and that regular educational events, such as journal clubs, can contribute to developing critical thinking in the practice environment.\",\n \"It is unclear whether algorithms with evidence-based interventions are used in a setting where the work load is high and qualified staff is scarce to identify neonates with life-threatening conditions. The nurse-midwives' knowledge and opinion about the World Health Organization (WHO) guide on postpartum newborn care were assessed in a hospital in Tanzania before and after training. Their adherence to this guide was evaluated by analysing 100 neonatal records. Before training, 44% of the nurse-midwives were familiar with the WHO guide. All nurse-midwives supported the implementation of the guide. In all, 21% of the postpartum record forms were fully completed. Risk factors for illness were missed in 27%.\",\n \"Research provides the important evidence base for public health practice. We sought to compare the current support for public health research within European countries. Within a collaborative study SPHERE (Strengthening Public Health Research in Europe), we developed an e-mail questionnaire and sent it to 93 representatives of national member associations of the European Public Health Association. We compared the answers with reference to tree macro-areas: Northern, Southern and Eastern Europe. We gained responses for 22 of 39 European countries (56% country response rate). Current priorities at national level were: health service and patient safety for Northern Europe; infectious disease, health service and cardiovascular disease for Southern Europe; and food safety and nutrition, environmental and occupational health for Eastern Europe. Respondents gave fewer priorities for international research. In the North Europe the priorities empathized were health promotion, prevention and education (26.3%) together the injuries and alcohol habits (26.3%).\",\n \"The intervention increased knowledge about colposcopy for this population. Because patient education is an essential nursing function, these results are encouraging. This intervention can be replicated by nurses in other settings. Further research is necessary to understand how nurses can best help women alleviate anxiety before colposcopy.\",\n \"There is increased interest in building research capacity in rural health research in Australia and internationally. In Australia, the Primary Health Care Research Evaluation and Development program funded by the Australian Government has supported this move. Overall this program aims to build the quantum of primary healthcare research to underpin clinical practice, health systems improvement, and policy. In order to achieve this objective, one strand of the program aims to build research capacity among practitioners. In implementing this program in rural and remote areas of the west of South Australia, the Spencer Gulf Rural Health School has identified methodological and research design issues faced by practitioners who are researching in their communities. These issues include problems encountered in living and researching in the same location and accessing small-scale statistical information. We were interested to know whether there was interest in a formal course (Rural Research and Evaluation) that would address these issues and provide information about community-based research designs. A cross-sectional anonymous survey was designed and sent to 141 organisations in the health, human service, and local government sectors in regional South Australia. Respondents were asked to evaluate the demand and interest for a new course--Rural Research and Evaluation. The term 'rural' was used to refer to both rural and remote locations. Information was sought on the respondent's role in the organisation, current level of research participation, views about the proposed course content, and factors that the respondent thought would facilitate or inhibit their participation. The majority of questions were close-ended. Sixty surveys were returned giving a 42.5% response rate. Data were analysed using descriptive statistics. A high level of research and evaluation activity was reported with 80% of respondents undertaking research or evaluation as part of their professional role. There was also agreement that all the proposed topics were important to be included in a course. Each of the topics was ranked at four or five on a five-point scale by at least 58% of respondents. The topic 'understanding evaluation methodologies' was ranked at four or five by 85% of respondents, making it the most highly ranked topic. There was also consensus about the features respondents thought would make the course attractive for them to study. Over half (62%) of the respondents ranked having lecturers with a broad rural research background at five, very important, on a five-point scale. Almost half (48%) of the respondents ranked online delivery at five, a very important factor in making the course attractive to study.\",\n \"To assess midwifery students' knowledge in the field of female fertility and to study their decision if they had diagnosis of diminished ovarian reserve (DOR). A prospective observational study by self-administered questionnaire was conducted among female midwifery students of seven French schools from June to December 2013. The questionnaire had three parts: (1) questions designed to gather information on the study population; (2) a questionnaire consisting of 10 items to test knowledge about female fertility and ovarian reserve; (3) a self-administered questionnaire simulating a DOR diagnosis and quantifying the decision that students would make using a Likert scale of 5 points. The participation rate was 72.5% (n=285/393). The average age was 22, 6 years±1.9. Among the 285 participants, the ovarian reserve concept was known by 93% of them (n=265) thanks to the midwifery studies (77%, n=204), the media (9%, n=24) and other sources of information. In total, 83.5% of midwifery students (n=238) were interested in assessing their ovarian reserve, and 48.3% of them were interested in evaluating it immediately (n=115). Among midwifery students, 22.5% of them (n=64) reported that female fertility began to decline from the age of 35 years old; 85.6% (n=244) thought that in vitro fertilization allowed women to conceive if fertility is related to a diminished ovarian reserve; 43.9% (n=125) answered that physical activity and a healthy diet had a beneficial effect on the ovarian reserve. If a DOR was diagnosed to them, 76.8% of students (n=219) would be likely to conceive their first child earlier than expected. Among them, 57.9% (n=165) would agree to have oocyte freezing in this context.\",\n \"yes. The majority of residents surveyed thought that research activity was worthwhile. Residents' participation in research activity was associated with higher levels of satisfaction with residency training. Implementing measures to overcome existing barriers may have educational benefits for residents.\",\n \"Creative promotion of clinical research at all stages of medical education and career development offers great promise to expand current physician-scientist numbers, and thereby stimulate many exciting advances in medicine.\",\n \"The authors argue that although the clinical outcomes it set out to achieve remain elusive, the project produced a cohort of nurse researchers who went on to give important leadership in nursing, including in nursing academia/research. A contemporary version of the Study of Nursing Care has important potential to generate the next generation of nurse researchers, and leaders, into the twenty-first century.\",\n \"The findings of this study, suggest that a theory-based educational intervention focused at RNs can be effective in changing RN's knowledge and attitudes regarding cancer pain management. However, the high number of dropouts between baseline and four weeks needs to be taken into account when evaluating our findings. Finally, this kind of theory-based educational intervention with interactive learning activities has been sparsely researched and needs to be evaluated further in larger projects.\",\n \"A randomised controlled trial of caseload midwifery care for pregnant adolescents would not be feasible in this setting without modifications to the research protocol. The recruitment plan should maximise opportunities for participation by increasing the upper age limit and enabling women to be recruited at a later gestation. Strategies to engage the support of hospital-employed staff are essential and would require substantial, and ongoing, work. A Zelen method of post-randomisation consent, monetary incentives and 'peer recruiters' could also be considered.\",\n \"Further research is recommended to develop a valid and reliable research tool to specifically measure the attitudes of 'nurses' working across different mental healthcare facilities towards this vulnerable patient group.\",\n \"To examine the research translation phase focus (T1-T4) of systematic reviews published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) and Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects (DARE). Briefly, T1 includes reviews of basic science experiments; T2 includes reviews of human trials leading to guideline development; T3 includes reviews examining how to move guidelines into policy and practice; and T4 includes reviews describing the impact of changing health practices on population outcomes. A cross-sectional audit of randomly selected reviews from CDSR (n = 500) and DARE (n = 500) was undertaken. The research translation phase of reviews, overall and by communicable disease, noncommunicable disease, and injury subgroups, were coded by two researchers. A total of 898 reviews examined a communicable, noncommunicable, or injury-related condition. Of those, 98% of reviews within CDSR focused on T2, and the remaining 2% focused on T3. In DARE, 88% focused on T2, 8.7% focused on T1, 2.5% focused on T3, and 1.3% focused on T4. Almost all reviews examining communicable (CDSR 100%, DARE 93%), noncommunicable (CDSR 98%, DARE 87%), and injury (CDSR 95%, DARE 88%) were also T2 focused.\",\n \"In light of declining numbers of physician-scientists, the goal of this project was to identify strategies to invigorate and attract new talent to clinical research in the field of pediatric neurosciences. To develop a broad perspective, a program of direct questions was addressed to both US and non-US physicians at all stages of career development. Respondents identified numerous promising avenues of research but also indicated obstacles to research progress at all stages of career development including medical students, resident physicians, junior medical faculty, mid-career faculty, and senior faculty. At each career stage, ideas were offered to attract resources for, build prestige for, and motivate commitment for participation in clinical research.\",\n \"Research is crucial to the generation of new knowledge and for the development of nursing services. However, poor research conduct has prompted a growing international impetus to govern and monitor research activity. In 2004, a centralized Research Management and Governance Model aimed at fostering a quality research culture through streamlining bureaucratic management processes was implemented across 14 primary care provider organizations in the United Kingdom. A questionnaire survey was undertaken in 2004 to explore researchers' experiences (n = 76) of the model across the 14 organizations, and semi-structured interviews were conducted with five research and development managers. The interview transcripts were independently thematically analysed. Governance processes were seen as useful or very useful by 36.8% (n = 28) of researchers viewed, and 47.3% (n = 36) thought they were a hindrance or not useful. Managers suggested that the model supported the research infrastructure and had reduced paperwork. The benefits of centralization were balanced against managers' perceptions of reduced autonomy and control.\",\n \"yes. The nursing staff's knowledge and use of prevention strategies increased. Fall rates decreased for 5 months after the educational intervention, but the reduction was not sustained.\",\n \"Collaborations between managers and researchers can improve research relevance and quality and research capacity development. Factors critical to success relate to the fit between the project and the management fellow and how clearly the purpose is understood.\",\n \"yes. The results showed the issue of attitudes towards compulsory research as a component of critical scholarship in the curriculum of medical courses. Moreover, employment of the research experts can be helpful for research training in schools of medical sciences.\",\n \"In this definition survey, data were obtained from 113 nursing and midwifery students (n = 113) in third and fourth class and their mothers, sisters and other relatives in Turkey. Data were collected using a personal data form, a knowledge evaluation form for BSE (Maurer 1997) and the Champion's Health Belief Model Scale. Number percentage, Chi-square test were used in the evaluation of the data. Students learned breast cancer and BSE in their lessons one or two years previously. Knowledge level scores of the students were 52.3 ± 9.6 (min:25,max: 75). Rate of having regular BSE was 32.7%. When health belief scale assessed; the average of susceptibility was 7.52 ± 2.62, seriousness was 21.8 ± 5.30, benefit was 16.7±4.45, barrier was 22.3 ± 6.44, confidence was 40.3 ± 6.67 and medical motivation was 26.6 ± 4.22. The rate of having regular BSE and benefit, barrier scores were compared, they were statistically significant difference(p<0.05). The majority (106, 91.3%) gave BSE training to their mother and sisters, and 42.6% (48) to relatives, 6.2% (7) to friends, and 5.4% (6) to patients.\",\n \"yes. Information dissemination interventions can increase awareness and changes in nursing home falls management activities.\",\n \"yes. The use of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention is a feasible and effective means to increase cancer patients' awareness and understanding of the salient issues that surround the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate.\",\n \"yes. The findings point to the importance of strengthening gynaecologists' and midwives' control beliefs by professional education and training on smoking prevention.\",\n \"This study has shown a significant increase in awareness from using different kinds of media and has shown radio to be the most effective in our target community. Although the campaign has raised awareness, this study has not shown a change in health-seeking behaviour.\",\n \"Our study suggests that action research is a successful method of promoting change in primary care. However, measuring the impact of change is difficult.\",\n \"To study the effects of small group continuous quality improvement (CQI) on the clinical practice of midwives in the Netherlands. Randomised pre-/post-test (balanced block). The CQI groups were assigned to either the set of peer review topics including 'perineal repair' and 'artificial rupture of the membranes (ARM)', or to the set of topics including 'airway aspiration' and 'measuring blood pressure'. The two research groups acted as each other's control group. The Netherlands. Two hundred and fifty-five individual midwives practising in primary and secondary care who made up 28 peer groups. MEASUREMENT AND KEY FINDINGS: Questionnaires were used to collect data on clinical practice prior to the start of the intervention and one year later. Pre- and post-test data were received from 156 respondents. The intervention had a positive effect on adherence to the recommendations with respect to airway aspiration of the baby and measuring blood pressure. For ARM, no difference was found between pre- and post-test adherence to recommendations in the intervention group, while in the control group, the percentage of midwives that adhered to the recommendations decreased in the period between pre- and post-test. No significant effect was found for perineal repair.\",\n \"yes. Implementation of a literature-based guideline on MH, powered by educational meetings and individual feedback, improves MH performance by ICU nurses.\",\n \"Response rates to surveys conducted among healthcare professionals have been declining steadily. This paper is based on the development of a response rate strategy to address this challenge. A study in Ireland using a survey instrument that relied on the voluntary participation of managers and healthcare professionals. Database and manual literature searches were undertaken across the literature related to methodology to increase response rates from healthcare professionals. The databases Cinahl, Medline, PsycINFO, Wiley Online Library and Scopus-V.4 were searched using 'response rates' and the terms: 'response rate theory', 'survey response rates', 'increase', 'improve health professionals', 'primary care research', 'health care teams', 'health service research' and 'research participation'. Only English-language publications were reviewed. Researchers must be aware of factors that influence healthcare professionals they seek to engage and so they can create research environments that do not preclude or dissuade practitioners from participating.\",\n \"Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students, to increasae their sensitivity, beliefs and attitudes, and medical motivation for BSE.\",\n \"Our aim was to evaluate whether the involvement of health care managers in research projects improves the quality and relevance of research, and whether collaboration builds capacity in the managerial community. The NIHR Service Delivery and Organization Management Fellowship programme supports the direct involvement of health care managers in research projects. Data were collected from face-to-face interviews with management fellows and chief investigators of research projects at 10 case study sites. Data were analysed thematically using an adapted Kirkpatrick framework for programme evaluation. Management fellows improved the relevance and quality of research through enhancing its validity, efficiency and credibility. This was achieved by: using their contextual understanding to enable and support access and recruitment participants, data collection tools, processes and analysis; supporting dissemination activities; and undertaking additional work which was complementary to the main project. Capacity was developed through formal courses and exposure to new knowledge, ideas and practices. Factors found to enable or impede improvements in research included management fellows' knowledge and experience of the NHS, their background and personal characteristics, mutual respect, timing and flexibility. Consequences were not always predictable. Costs for management fellows included foregone opportunities, specifically for promoted posts. Researchers reported time-costs associated with administering the fellowship.\",\n \"This is the first study in healthcare research to investigate the relationship between mentoring perception, scientific collaboration and research performance in the context of gender. It presents a series of initiatives that proved effective in marginalising the gender gap. These include the Athena Scientific Women's Academic Network charter, new recruitment and advertisement strategies, setting up a 'Research and Family Life' forum, establishing mentoring circles for women and projecting female role models.\",\n \"The initiative taken by NHS Research and Development in examining methods to promote the uptake of research findings is welcome, but will only prove helpful if careful attention is paid to the different stages of the development process, and different research approaches are used appropriately at different stages.\",\n \"Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students. Their susceptibility, belief and attitudes, medical motivation with BSE should thereby increase.\",\n \"The research-practice gap will reduce only if research becomes part of practitioners' ideology, which includes the art and science of nursing. Critical and creative thinking are prerequisites to narrowing the disjuncture between research and practice, and we suggest that educators and practitioners explore structured ways of meeting together to appraise literature as a possible means of making use of their thinking and knowledge in clinical practice.\",\n \"Findings suggest the need to increase nursing staffs' awareness of changes to policies and procedures during clinical guideline implementation. Furthermore, results indicate that organizational support may have a positive influence on modifications to policies and procedures that are guided by research-based clinical guideline recommendations.\",\n \"Research utilisation is essential in developing evidence-based practices; although many students may be generally able to adopt such skills, there are reports of barriers related to critical appraisal skills. To explore how students perceive the relevance of research to future clinical practice and patients, and to what extent they read research (including reading pattern). Additionally, the objective was to explore whether a three-week intensive course in critical appraisal of research could affect these variables. A cross-sectional survey design, with a pre- and post-test. One large university college in Southeastern Norway. 196 multidisciplinary healthcare students at baseline and 147 after three weeks. A purposely-designed 21 item questionnaire was used to quantify students' attitudes towards using research and critical thinking. The questionnaire was based on themes emerging from prior focus group interviews with 10 nursing and social educator students as well as from the existing literature. At baseline, 6.1% and 7.1% of respondents perceived the research to be of little or very little importance for their future work and patients, respectively. Furthermore, 83.2% reported that they seldom or very seldom read scientific papers. At baseline, 40 different patterns of reading a scientific paper were identified. Additionally, 7.1% of respondents reported to read the introduction, methods and conclusion in combination. Significantly improved scores were found after completing the three-week course related to a) relevance of research for future work (p<0.01), b) self-perceived skills in critical appraisal (p<0.001), c) ability to find scientific papers (p≤0.01), and d) relevance of research for patients and users (p≤0.001).\",\n \"Results of this study suggest that Ontario midwives are effective in conveying information on prenatal genetic screening, contributing to high levels of client knowledge and satisfaction in comparison to similar studies in other jurisdictions.\",\n \"Although the skills necessary to implement evidence into obstetrical practice are still available, evidence based research results do not seem to be of great importance, when midwives decide which method to use for intrapartum FHR monitoring. Hospital policies and the professional training received were more important factors. Programs designed to implement evidence in care should reflect the identification and use of these factors in order to facilitate the process of realisation.\",\n \"from clinical trials are often slowly implemented. We studied whether participation in multicenter clinical trials improves reported dissemination, convincement, and subsequent implementation of its results. We sent a web-based questionnaire to gynecologists, residents, nurses, and midwives in all obstetrics and gynecology departments in the Netherlands. For nine trials in perinatology, reproductive medicine, and gynecologic oncology, we asked the respondents whether they had knowledge of the results, were convinced by the results, and what percentage of their patients were treated according to the results of these trials. We compared the level of knowledge, convincement, and reported implementation of results in practice for the nine trials for respondents who worked in hospitals that had recruited for a trial with respondents who worked in a hospital that had not recruited for that trial. The reported implementation was restricted to six trials that showed decisive results. Results We analyzed 202 questionnaires from 83 departments in obstetrics and gynecology in the Netherlands (93% of all departments). The percentage of respondents who had worked in a hospital that recruited for a specific study varied between 8% and 71% per study and was 28% on average. The relative risk (RR) for knowledge of the study result for respondents who had worked in a recruiting hospital was for all studies positive and varied between 1.1 and 3.3 (pooled RR: 1.8, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.7-1.9). In general, health-care workers were convinced of trial results, independent of whether they had worked in a hospital that recruited for a trial or not (pooled RR: 1.02, 95% CI: 0.99-1.05). Reported implementation of trial's results, that is, less than 20% were treated with unfavorable treatment according to study results, was better in hospitals that had recruited for those trials (pooled RR: 1.1, 95% CI: 1.02-1.19).\",\n \"It is important for nurse researchers to develop critical awareness of the research methodologies and methods they employ. We argue that the phenomenological focus group is not an oxymoron. Rather, the use of focus groups can provide a greater understanding of the phenomenon under study.\",\n \"To examine the relationship between sustained work with quality improvement (QI) and factors related to research utilization in a group of nurses. The study was designed as a comparative survey that included 220 nurses from various health care organizations in Sweden. These nurses had participated in uniformly designed 4-day basic training courses to manage a method for QI. A validated questionnaire covering different aspects of research utilization was employed. The response rate was 70% (154 of 220). Nurses in managerial positions at the departmental level were excluded. Therefore, the final sample consisted of 119 respondents. Four years after the training courses, 39% were still involved in audit-related activities, while 61% reported that they had discontinued the QI work (missing = 1). Most nurses (80-90%) had a positive attitude to research. Those who had continued the QI work over a 4-year period reported more activity in searching research literature compared with those who had discontinued the QI work (P = 0.005). The QI-sustainable nurses also reported more frequent participation in research-related activities, particularly in implementing specific research findings in practice (P = 0.001). Some contextual differences were reported: the QI-sustainable nurses were more likely to obtain support from their chief executive (P = 0.001), consultation from a skilled researcher (P = 0.005) and statistical support (P = 0.001). Within the broader health care organization, the existence of a research committee and a research and development strategy, as well as access to research assistant staff, had a tendency to be more common for nurses who had continued the QI work.\",\n \"The aim of this study was to examine whether there was a difference between clinical nurses who were research-active, and clinical nurses who were nonresearch-active in utilization of research. A further aim was to identify the most significant barriers faced by a group of Danish clinical nurses in their use of research. Discrepancy between the improved quality of research results and the lack of implementing them was the starting point for a series of studies which showed the types of barriers clinical nurses found especially cumbersome when applying the research results of other researchers. This study investigates whether the clinical nurses' own engagement in research had any impact on their perception of research utilization. The study had an exploratory and descriptive design. Seventy-nine Danish clinical nurses participated and semi-structured interviewing was used as the research method. There was a statistically significant difference between the research-active and nonresearch-active nurses on various variables. The study showed that, to a larger extent, research-active nurses used evidence-based knowledge and were generally more internationally orientated. Furthermore, two important barriers for research utilization were identified by all 79 clinical nurses included in the study, i.e. 90% of the nurses explained that the quantity of research results was overwhelming, and 75% of them found that they were unable to evaluate the quality of the research.\",\n \"yes. Clinical nurses, who were research-active themselves, experienced more success in overcoming some of the barriers, which existed in applying research to practice. The research potential found amongst clinical nurses in Denmark needed to be further supported through training and guidance in research methodology, establishing introductory stipends and part-time research positions. By doing so, some of the barriers affecting research utilization and the so-called theory-practice gap might be reduced. Further empirical studies, based on Giddens theory of sociological reflectivity, might see clinical nurses in a more serious light and simultaneously perceive them as producers of knowledge.\",\n \"Despite the growing body of literature, the reality of getting evidence into practice remains problematic. The purpose of this study was to establish levels of research awareness amongst registered health care professionals (RHCPs) and the influence of research awareness on evidence-based practice activities. This was a descriptive quantitative study. A convenience sample of 2,126 registered RHCPs working in a large acute hospital in Northeast England, the United Kingdom was used. A self-completion Research Awareness Questionnaire (RAQ) was directed towards measuring RHCP: attitudes towards research, understanding of research and the research process, and associations with practising using an evidence base. Data were entered into a Statistical Package for Social Science (SPSS) database and descriptive and inferential statistics were used. A total of 843 questionnaires were returned. Seven hundred and thirty-three (91%) RHCPs overwhelmingly agreed with the principle that evidence-based practice has a large part to play in improving patient care. This point was reinforced by 86% (n = 701) of respondents strongly agreeing or agreeing with the idea that evidence-based practice is the way forward to change clinical practice. Significant associations were noted between levels of confidence to undertake a piece of research and whether the individual had received adequate information about the research process, had basic knowledge and understanding of the research process, or had research awareness education or training.\",\n \"The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":912,"string":"912"}}},{"rowIdx":273185,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Delivery of primary care to women. Do women's health centers do it better?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.","These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics."],"string":"[\n \"Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.\",\n \"These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["Emphasis on ensuring women's access to preventive health services has increased over the past decade. Relatively little attention has been paid to whether the sex of the physician affects the rates of cancer screening among women. We examined differences between male and female physicians in the frequency of screening mammograms and Pap smears among women patients enrolled in a large Midwestern health plan. We identified claims for mammography and Pap tests submitted by primary care physicians for 97,962 women, 18 to 75 years of age, who were enrolled in the health plan in 1990. The sex of the physician was manually coded, and the physician's age was obtained from the state licensing board. After identifying a principal physician for each woman, we calculated the frequency of mammography and Pap smears for each physician, using the number of women in his or her practice during 1990 as the denominator. Using unconditional logistic regression, we also calculated the odds ratio of having a Pap smear or mammogram for women patients with female physicians as compared with those with male physicians, controlling for the physician's and the patient's age. Crude rates for Pap smears and mammography were higher for the patients of female than male physicians in most age groups of physicians. The largest differences between female and male physicians were in the rates of Pap smears among the youngest physicians. For the subgroup of women enrolled in the health plan for a year who saw only one physician, after adjustment for the patient's age and the physician's age and specialty, the odds ratio for having a Pap smear was 1.99 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.72 to 2.30) for the patients of female physicians as compared with those of male physicians. For women 40 years old and older, the odds ratio for having a mammogram was 1.41 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.22 to 1.63). For both Pap smears and mammography, the differences between female and male physicians in screening rates were much more pronounced in internal medicine and family practice than in obstetrics and gynecology.","yes. Centralized primary care of advanced ovarian and fallopian tube cancers increases complete cytoreduction, decreases time interval from PDS to chemotherapy and improves relative survival significantly.","yes. Relational continuity of care in integrated maternity and child health clinics seems to increase parents' satisfaction with the services and might increase the provision of home visits.","Primary care offices located in poor and minority communities in a large, suburban county had high levels of access to and interest in Web-based systems. Physicians' offices may therefore provide a venue for online services aimed at improving health outcomes for poor and minority communities. Research is needed in other geographic regions to determine the generalizability of these findings.","Among VHA patients with diabetes, clinically significant gender inequality was not apparent in most of diabetes care measures. However, there was evidence of better care among nonwhite and non-African American women than their male counterparts. Further research on interaction of race and gender on diabetes care is needed. This includes evaluation of integrated VHA women's health programs as well as cultural issues. Lower LDL-C control among women suggests areas of unmet needs for women and opportunities for future targeted quality improvement interventions at system and provider levels.","yes. Primary and secondary prevention of ACEs may optimize the health of young girls in Hawaii, and reduce the burden of asthma and COPD among women in the state.","Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.","This is the first study examining rural-urban differences in maternal readmissions. The results indicate the importance of monitoring and potentially improving the quality of maternal care, especially when the delivery involves a C-section. More studies investigating rural health disparities in women's health are clearly necessary.","To determine the effects of physician gender on rates of Pap testing, mammography, and cholesterol testing when identifying and adjusting for demographic, psychosocial, and other patient variables known to influence screening rates. A prospective design with baseline and six-month follow-up assessments of patients' screening status. Twelve community-based group family practice medicine offices in North Carolina. 1,850 adult patients, aged 18-75 years (six-month response rate, 83%), each of whom identified one of 37 physicians as being his or her regular care provider. Where screening was indicated at baseline, the patients of the women physicians were 47% more likely to get a Pap test [odds ratio (OR) = 1.47, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.05, 2.04] and 56% more likely to get a cholesterol test (OR = 1.56, 95% CI = 1.08, 2.24) during the study period than were the patients of the men physicians. For mammography, the younger patients (aged 35-39 years) of the women physicians were screened at a much higher rate than were the younger patients of the men physicians (OR = 2.69, 95% CI = 0.98, 7.34); however, at older ages, the patients of the women and the men physicians had similar rates of screening.","yes. PHC facilities and pharmacies most commonly provided sub-optimal care. These facilities were more commonly utilized as the first option for child care in rural areas and among the poor and non-educated families. These are groups with the highest child mortality, which calls for interventions' targeting improvement of care at these facilities to further reduce child mortality from treatable illnesses in Tanzania.","Women had greater familial responsibilities than men, but this was not a barrier to access or utilization of healthcare services. Despite less advanced HIV disease, women received similar care and had similar utilization of health services.","Women residing in Indonesia's major cities have a higher risk of developing chronic conditions, starting at younger ages. The findings highlight the challenges inherent in providing long-term healthcare with its associated cost within major Indonesian cities and the importance of chronic disease prevention programmes targeting women at an early age.","Higher unadjusted mortality in females after primary PCI was accompanied by significant differences in baseline characteristics, interventional approach and secondary prophylaxis in spite of the same standard of care. Lower guideline adherence seems to be less gender specific but rather a manifestation of the risk-treatment paradox.","yes. Both male and female resident physicians acquire more experience with same-gender health care visits during training. Panel demographics and continuity do not explain the differential experience. Patient preferences and/or biased scheduling selection may explain why residents accumulate same-gender health care visits at twice the rate of opposite-gender health care visits.","Female physicians with children at home spend more time on child care and household maintenance than their male partners. These responsibilities reduce professional work time (at least until all children are at school full time) and might deter women from active involvement in professional organizations.","no. Although there may be other reasons for reducing student loan debt, at least among U.S. women physicians, encouraging primary care as a specialty choice may not be a reason for doing so.","The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.","yes. Obstetrician-gynecologists at an academic medical center did not provide postpartum diabetes mellitus screening for 66.7% of women with a history of gestational diabetes.","Women's health tracks (WHTs) were developed to overcome identified deficiencies in residency training. Their effectiveness in preparing residents to manage both gender-neutral and gender-specific medical conditions is unknown. Using current guidelines for internal medicine training, we designed a 65-item survey to measure residents' knowledge, comfort levels, and referral patterns concerning two gender-neutral topics (diabetes and thyroid disease) and two gender-specific topics (polycystic ovarian syndrome [PCOS] and menopause). We administered it to postgraduate year 2 (PGY2) and PGY3 internal medicine residents at a large academic medical center and compared the results of WHT and non-WHT residents using chi-square and t tests. Of 61 residents, 50 (82%) responded. Fifty percent of respondents were female, 62% were PGY3, and 36% were WHT. WHT residents had higher mean knowledge scores than non-WHT residents concerning PCOS (60% vs. 45%, p<0.05) and menopause (73% vs. 60 %, p<0.01), and they were more likely to report feeling \"very comfortable\" handling PCOS and menopause issues (43% vs. 18%, p<0.02), including diagnosing PCOS, managing hot flashes, and managing vaginal atrophy. WHT residents were less likely than non-WHT to immediately recommend referrals if patients had suspected PCOS (0% vs. 19%, p<0.03) or confirmed PCOS (0% vs. 32%, p<0.02), and they were more likely to report feeling adequately trained to provide comprehensive ambulatory women's healthcare (73% vs. 7%, p<0.001). There were no significant differences between WHT and non-WHT residents on gender-neutral topics.","To evaluate the satisfaction of difficult to treat patients (DTP) cared for by a primary care team (PCT), as regards the organisational aspects and the care received, and to compare it with that obtained by a sample of the general patient population (GPP). DESIGN. Cross-sectional descriptive study. Urban health centre. One hundred-one DTP participated, after being selected using Ellis and O'Dowd criteria by 8 doctors. Between March and May 2004 the DTP were given self-administered anonymous questionnaires, prepared and validated by the Catalonian Health Institute, which was divided into 8 sections for their analysis. The results were compared with those obtained in June 2003 from a representative sample from the GPP. A total of 52 questionnaires were returned (51% participation), of which 62% were from women, with a mean age of 61.5+/-12.3. Average scores (0 to 10) were: organisation 7.2+/-1.8; (95% confidence intervale [CI], 6.6-7.7), care by the doctors 8.4+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.7-9), by nurses 7.9+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.3-8.6), by administrators 6.9+/-1.9 (95% CI, 6.3-7.4), care resolved 7.2+/-2 (95% CI, 6.6-7.9), installations 7.6+/-1.7 (95% CI, 7.1-8.1), overall satisfaction 7.5+/-1.8 (95% CI, 7-8), and total satisfaction total 7.2+/-1.6 (95% CI, 6.8-7.7). The 91.7% (95% CI, 80-97.7) would recommend their friends to be treated in the centre. All the scores are higher than those in the GPP sample, with no statistical differences in the care by doctors and nurses sections.","yes. In Maryland Medicaid, the odds of cancer screening and related acute care visits were greater for women with major mental disorders compared with women in the control group. For women with substance use disorders, however, screening was reduced and acute care visits were similar compared with women in the control group. Providers should encourage and support their patients with substance use disorders to increase use of preventive care services by primary care physicians and gynecologists.","Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.","The majority of women in our study left CBHCs and used other sites for pediatric care. Higher education, having child health insurance, and car ownership were associated with leaving CBHCs. Among women who left, race/ethnicity and perceived pediatric expertise were major factors associated with using HBCs rather than PPs.","We do not find support for the hypothesis that children and pregnant women who use private care are less likely to receive public health services. Results are consistent with the notion that Indian households are able to successfully navigate the coexisting public and private systems, and obtain services selectively from each. However, because the study employed an observational, cross-sectional study design, findings should be interpreted cautiously.","This study examined whether Medicaid-insured women at low risk receive less adequate obstetrical care than privately insured women. Low-risk women who were cared for by a random sample of obstetrical providers in Washington State were randomly selected. Information on all prenatal and intrapartum services was abstracted from medical records. Service information was aggregated into standardized resource-use units. Results compared Medicaid-insured women with those who were privately insured. Medicaid-insured women were significantly younger (22.5 years vs 26.9 years) and averaged 6% fewer visits than privately insured women. Nonetheless, Medicaid status had no meaningful association with prenatal, intrapartum, or overall resource use. Some variation occurred in individual resources received. Medicaid-insured women had 38.8% more resources expended on testing for sexually transmitted diseases. Privately insured women had more resources expended on alpha-fetoprotein testing and on amniocentesis. There were no meaningful differences in birthweight or gestational age at delivery.","To evaluate the impact of general practitioners' commissioning of maternity services on women's experiences of care and on resource use, and to consider the implications for primary care commissioning. Comparison of women's experiences and resource use between 11 commissioning and 10 non-commissioning general practices. Face-to-face interviews with 212 staff in general practices, National Health Service trusts and health authorities between 1996 and 1998 to establish how maternity care was organised. Women's experience of information, choice, control and resource use obtained by questionnaire mailed 4 weeks post-partum. Data were analysed using multi-level modelling to adjust for case-mix differences. After two reminders, 1957 women (62%) responded to the questionnaire (inter-practice range 52-81%). There were no significant differences in women's experience of care or their resource use between commissioning and non-commissioning practices. Commissioning practices were more likely to be associated with more vertically integrated models of service organisation, but responses to only three of 21 questions about experience of information, choice and control over care, or about resource use, differed between the four models of service organisation identified.","To compare patient outcomes and complications before and after involvement of family medicine residents in intrapartum care. Secondary data analysis. London, Ont. Obstetric patients of a family physician with a special interest in obstetrics. Total number of births attended and births missed, as well as rates of inductions, augmentations for dystocia, augmentations for prelabour ruptured membranes, types of births (ie, normal vaginal, vacuum-assisted, low and outlet forceps deliveries; cesarean sections; and obstetrician-assisted vaginal births), and perineal outcomes (ie, intact; first-, second-, third-, or fourth-degree tears; episiotomies; and episiotomies with third-or fourth-degree extensions). During the period of time when family medicine residents were involved in intrapartum care, women sustained slightly more second-degree tears, and more cesarean sections were performed. Fewer women had vacuum-assisted births or unmedicated births. There were no significant differences in rates of normal vaginal births, low and outlet forceps deliveries, and perineal trauma (other than second-degree tears) including episiotomies.","Insights into where CMWs might provide delivery services were obtained through this study. Birthing stations may be an option as a preferred location for delivery care and should be considered as part of Pakistan's national CMW programme.","yes. The frequent absence of means of effective communication between primary and secondary care about diagnosed abnormalities, and health professionals' uncertainties about their role has implications for the quality of care given to women who receive positive results after prenatal screening or diagnosis. There is a need for standards to be established concerning the communication of information to the health professionals responsible for the community-based care of pregnant women after a positive test result.","There is clear evidence that women do change their childbirth locations over successive births in low and middle income countries. After two decades of efforts to improve maternal health, it might be expected that a higher proportion of women will be deciding against home births in favour of facility births. The results from this analysis show that is not the case.","FMU care appears to offer important benefits for birthing women with no additional risk to the infant. Both for women with and without post-secondary education, intending to give birth in an FMU significantly increased the likelihood of a spontaneous, uncomplicated birth with good outcomes for mother and infant compared to women intending to give birth in an OU. All women should be provided with adequate information about different care models and supported in making an informed decision about the place of birth.","This study examines the association between physician gender and diabetes quality of care. We examined the association between the gender of primary care physicians (n = 1,686) and the quality of diabetes care they provided to their patients participating in the Translating Research Into Action for Diabetes (TRIAD) study. Main outcome measures were diabetes processes of care including receipt of dilated retinal exams, urine microalbumin/protein testing, foot exams, lipid and HbA(1c) (A1C) testing, recommendation to take aspirin, and influenza vaccination over 1 year. Intermediate outcomes included blood pressure, A1C, LDL levels, and patient satisfaction. Hierarchical regression models accounted for clustering within provider groups and health plans and adjusted for patient age, gender, race, income, education, diabetes treatment and duration, and health status, along with physician age, years of practice, and specialty. Compared with male physicians (n = 1,213), female physicians (n = 473) were younger, had more recently completed training, and were more often internists. Patients of female physicians (n = 4,585) were more often women and younger than patients of male physicians (n = 1,783). In adjusted analyses, patients of female physicians were slightly more likely to receive lipid measurements (predicted probability 1.09 [95% CI 1.02-1.15]) and A1C measurements (1.02 [1.00-1.05]) and were slightly more likely to have an LDL<130 mg/dl (1.05 [1.00-1.10]).","The study compared the content of primary care visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices. We compared the content of primary care adult visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices using data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey 1997 to 2002. Larger African American practice (>14% of primary care visits by African Americans) was empirically defined to conform with previous studies. Larger African American practices comprised 24% of all practices but accounted for 80% of all visits by African American patients. In adjusted analyses, physicians with larger African American practices were less likely to refer patients to specialists (adjusted odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence internal 0.61-0.98) and marginally less likely to perform rectal examinations (adjusted odds ratio 0.84; 95% confidence interval 0.56-1.00) but were more likely to schedule a return appointment (adjusted odds ratio 1.25; 95% confidence interval, 1.02-1.52). However, there were no other significant differences in the reported content of the office visits. Results were not altered when different cutoffs for larger African American practices were used or when obstetricians-gynecologists were excluded from the analyses.","These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.","To examine the effects of state legislation mandating direct access to obstetricians and gynecologists (OB/GYNs) on maternal health behaviors and infant health outcomes. 1992-2002 Natality Detail File; 1994-2002 Pregnancy Assessment and Monitoring Survey (PRAMS). Using variation in state policy over time, we use individual-level data from two sources to consider the effects of direct access legislation on prenatal care utilization, maternal health behaviors during pregnancy, and infant health outcomes. Our results suggest that there is little evidence that direct access laws are effective at improving prenatal care access or conferring benefits to mothers and infants. These results are consistent across two data sets, a variety of specifications, and specific subgroups of women who are most likely to be affected by direct access legislation.","The study suggests that sociodemographic characteristics of women have limited impact on their perception of ANC quality. The identified predictors may serve as the criteria for selecting women that require intensive health centre-specific antenatal interventions aimed at improving perceived quality and thus sustained utilization of antenatal care services in these primary health care facilities.","Although the results show that women wanted to be well received at health facilities, respected, treated with kindness, dignity and not shouted at, they were not critical of the care they received. The women did not know the quality of care to expect because they were not well informed. The women were not critical of the care they received because they were not aware of the standard of care. Instead they had low expectations. Health workers have a responsibility to inform women and their families about the care that women should expect. There is also a need for standardization of the antenatal information that is provided.","no. Women not seeking prenatal care in a system with few external barriers to care have significantly more family dysfunction (P < .001) than women seeking prenatal care. Infants of women with NPC generated a disproportionate amount of adverse neonatal outcome. The combination of NPC and family dysfunction was more predictive of adverse neonatal outcome than was NPC alone.","The finding that women with common symptoms are at risk of future sickness absence is of particular importance in a primary health care setting. The finding that women in active job positions had a higher risk of sickness absence might be an effect of modern working conditions for women.","yes. A considerable proportion of patients in primary care were untreated despite current guidelines on lipid-lowering therapy. Treatment outcome in women was less efficient compared with men. Strategies to improve pharmacological treatment in these patients should be developed.","In this study, the cesarean delivery rate was lower among women who may have greater access to medical knowledge. However, the lower rates observed among female physicians and physician relatives in Taiwan are still considerably higher than the national averages of many countries. This finding suggests that other than information, practice patterns, and social and cultural milieu may play a role.","The study raised awareness of genital chlamydia among women attending family planning clinics and showed that primary care could make a significant contribution to the prevention of chlamydial infection. It is only by initiating intervention strategies in such settings that genital chlamydia will be controlled effectively in the UK.","Few studies have addressed whether male family medicine residents have more exposure to men's health issues than their female colleagues. Additionally, the association between panel demographics or continuity of care and the differential experience with gender-specific health care is unclear. Between July 1, 2011, and June 30, 2014, all residents in the family medicine program had their gender, the number of women's and men's health care visits, the total number of male and female visits, and the number of visits with patients assigned to their primary care panel recorded each academic year. To determine which visits pertained to men's or women's health care, Clinical Classification Software developed by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) was used to map ICD9 billing codes into a useful ontology. Female residents had significantly more women's health visits (229 versus 123) while male residents had significantly more men's health visits (89 versus 49) than colleagues of the opposite gender. There were no significant differences in continuity, the gender distribution of panels, nor the mean age of panels. However, female residents saw a greater percentage of female visits overall (60.6% versus 53.3%).","A WHT can help improve competencies in selected areas of women's health without compromising residents' knowledge or comfort concerning two core gender-neutral topics in ambulatory medicine.","To examine access to and utilization of primary healthcare services with respect to gender. Greater family and child-rearing responsibilities are possible barriers to healthcare access and utilization for women with HIV infection. This study was part of a prospective, randomized, controlled trial evaluating primary care for HIV-infected patients at Duke University Medical Center (DUMC), a tertiary care medical center. Subjects were 214 HIV-infected, uninsured or publicly insured participants. Ambulatory care visits, emergency room utilization, hospitalization rates, length of stay, preventive and screening measures, and antiretroviral use were the outcome measures. Women (n = 83) and men (n = 131) enrolled in the study were similar with respect to race, educational level, marital status, and employment status. Women with HIV were more likely than men to have children (80% vs. 25%, p = 0.001) and spend their time as primary caregivers for their children (22% vs. 0.8%, p = 0.001). Women had higher CD4(+) cell counts (378 +/- 287 vs. 243 +/- 252 cells/microl, p = 0.0002), and a smaller proportion of women than men had AIDS at baseline (41% vs. 62%, p = 0.002). Women and men had similar numbers of primary care visits, emergency room visits, annual admission rates, and lengths of stay for hospitalizations. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia prophylaxis, pneumococcal vaccination, and tuberculosis screening were also similar between women and men. Women were more likely than men to have ever been prescribed an antiretroviral agent (88.0% vs. 71.8%, p = 0.005).","In our targeted population we have observed a higher demand for medical clinics in women, though the actual demand will depend on factors such as age, place of residence and the referee.","yes. The way in which women answer questions about intrapartal care reflects the way in which the questions are posed. This study therefore has asked not only how care was perceived but also what importance individual women ascribed to different areas of their care. The questionnaire used in this study allows identification of areas where \"what is, could be better\".","antenatal care can play an important role in preparing women for birth. This study shows that information about birth provided during pregnancy is insufficient from women's perspective, although some groups of women do report being more satisfied with this information. The way that this segment of antenatal care is provided leaves room for improvement.","yes. Shared antenatal care is not more satisfying than public clinic care for women from non-English-speaking backgrounds. Further evaluation of shared care is clearly needed.","Overall, this cohort of women did not anticipate differences in reproductive healthcare based on institution. If women who enroll at Catholic hospitals do not receive information related to potential healthcare restrictions, their ability to act as informed healthcare consumers may be constrained.","The Women's Support Service is accessed by a higher number of women, many more than access the local liaison service. It is suggested that this is due to their multiple and gender-specific needs being adequately addressed by the former service and the organizations to which they are referred. Mental health needs may also be secondary to other more basic needs, which makes the generic service provided by the Women's Support Service more appropriate than a liaison service that deals with mental health support alone.","Primary care physicians practicing in a managed care setting are less likely to refer women for a urologic evaluation of new or first recurrent episodes of hematuria than to refer men in all patient age categories, except for 40-49 years. This apparent gender disparity could result in unequal access of specialty evaluation and could potentially delay the diagnosis of important urologic conditions.","To compare routine antenatal care provided by general practitioners and midwives with obstetrician led shared care. Multicentre randomised controlled trial. 51 general practices linked to nine Scottish maternity hospitals. 1765 women at low risk of antenatal complications. Routine antenatal care by general practitioners and midwives according to a care plan and protocols for managing complications. Comparisons of health service use, indicators of quality of care, and women's satisfaction. Continuity of care was improved for the general practitioner and midwife group as the number of carers was less (median 5 carers v 7 for shared care group, P<0.0001) and the number of routine visits reduced (10.9 v 11.7, P<0.0001). Fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had antenatal admissions (27% (222/834) v 32% (266/840), P<0.05), non-attendances (7% (57) v 11% (89), P<0.01) and daycare (12% (102) v 7% (139), P<0.05) but more were referred (49% (406) v 36% (305), P<0.0001). Rates of antenatal diagnoses did not differ except that fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had hypertensive disorders (pregnancy induced hypertension, 5% (37) v 8% (70), P<0.01) and fewer had labour induced (18% (149) v 24% (201), P<0.01). Few failures to comply with the care protocol occurred, but more Rhesus negative women in the general practitioner and midwife group did not have an appropriate antibody check (2.5% (20) v 0.4% (3), P<0.0001). Both groups expressed high satisfaction with care (68% (453/663) v 65% (430/656), P=0.5) and acceptability of allocated style of care (93% (618) v 94% (624), P=0.6). Access to hospital support before labour was similar (45% (302) v 48% (312) visited labour rooms before giving birth, P=0.6).","yes. Office systems hold promise in enhancing provision of cancer prevention services in primary care. The practice should be approached as a team, and should include practice clinicians as well as nonclinical staff members. Current research should provide answers over the next few years about the cost-effectiveness of various approaches and the most feasible ways to promote dissemination to practices that need it.","General practitioners of women with diabetes, who have more health care encounters and poorer health-related quality of life, have adopted ACC with little impact on the decline in quality of life of the women nor on health care costs.","On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.","Disparities in access to HVS for cancer care exist for minority women. Selective referral to high-volume providers should be considered to improve outcomes among minority women.","yes. After model adjustment, we suggest that being female, suffering from more severe asthma, or being attended by a primary care physician, could pose a significantly higher risk of having poorly controlled asthma in adults.","To examine physician factors associated with ovarian cancer screening. Postal questionnaires to Maryland primary care physicians. Bivariate tests for statistical significance used X-Square and Student's t tests. Multivariate analysis and logistic regression were used to analyze responses based on specialty type, gender, and work experience. Fifty-six percent of the 375 were male, 44%, females; 33%, OB/GYN; and 67%, family/internal medicine (FM/IM). The mean age was 47 and the mean number of years in practice was 16. OB/GYNs provided more ovarian cancer counseling, OR 2.64 (CI 1.55, 4.48) and were more likely to respond correctly to knowledge questions--i.e., reduction of ovarian cancer risk with oral contraceptive (OCP) use than IM/FM, OR 8.57 (CI 3.54, 20.8). Overall, there were few gender differences in approach to evaluation, but male physicians were less likely to be aware of the relationship of OCP use to ovarian cancer risk than females, OR 0.48 (CI 0.25, 0.91). IF/FM physicians were less likely to order CA-125 for patients (of any age) based upon symptoms of bloating or physical examination alone. OB/GYN physicians, OR 4.77 (2.73, 8.34) and physicians with>15 years in practice, OR 2.79 (1.46, 5.35) attended more meetings on ovarian cancer than non OB/GYNs or those with less experience. Although 74% indicated access to the Internet, just 16% to 26% used the Internet for cancer information; OB/GYNs used the Internet less frequently than FM/IMs, OR 0.53 (0.28, 0.97).","Although patients with identical symptoms were presented, primary care doctors' behavior differed by patients' gender in all 3 countries under study. These gender differences suggest that women may be less likely to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment than men.","To describe where women receiving prenatal care (PNC) at community-based health centers (CBHCs) go for infant primary care, and to assess reasons for and factors associated with leaving CBHCs and using other practices for infant care. A prospective survey of women receiving PNC at CBHCs from February 2000 to February 2002 was conducted. In-person, prepartum, and postpartum surveys included questions about sociodemographic and health characteristics, and health services use. Among 1,107 primarily low-income, African American mothers, 60% of women left CBHCs and used other practices for their infants due to dissatisfaction, inconvenience, referral to and perceived expertise at other sites, and insurance changes. Leaving CBHCs was associated with being white, Latina, US born, educated beyond high school, single, owning a car, using non-CBHC practices for prepregnancy care, and having child health insurance. Among those who left, 48% used hospital-based clinics (HBCs) and 52% used private practices (PPs). Mothers using HBCs, when compared to those using PPs, were more likely to be African American (AOR = 6.83; 95% CI: 3.82, 12.22) or Latina (AOR = 5.60; 95% CI: 2.79, 11.24), dissatisfied with their PNC (AOR = 2.02; 95% CI: 1.05, 3.89) and to leave CBHCs because of insurance changes (AOR = 2.27; 95% CI: 1.18, 4.39) and perceived pediatric expertise at other sites (AOR = 4.81; 95% CI: 2.53, 9.11).","Voucher schemes increased deliveries in health centres and, to a lesser extent, improved antenatal and postnatal care. However, schemes that targeted poorer women did not appear to be efficient since these women were more likely than less poor women to be encouraged to give birth in a public health-care facility, even with universal voucher schemes.","To examine whether male and female family physicians practise maternity care differently, particularly regarding the maternal serum screening (MSS) program. Mailed survey fielded between October 1994 and March 1995. Ontario family practices. Random sample of 2000 members of the College of Family Physicians of Canada who care for pregnant women. More than 90% of eligible physicians responded. Attitudes toward, knowledge about, and behaviour toward MSS. Women physicians were more likely than men to practise part time, in groups, and in larger communities. Men physicians were more likely to perform deliveries; women were more likely to do shared care. Despite a shorter work week, on average, female physicians cared for more pregnant women than male physicians did. Among those providing intrapartum care, women performed more deliveries, on average, than men. Women physicians were more likely than men to offer MSS to all pregnant patients. Although average time spent discussing MSS before the test was similar, women physicians had better knowledge of when best to do the test and its true-positive rate. All differences reported were statistically significant (P12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.","The present study revealed that the current form of PHC centers afforded to diabetic patients provided significantly improved outcomes for males, but only minor improved outcomes for females. This study reinforces calls for a gender-specific approach to diabetes care.","yes. This research indicates a gap in health care for young mothers. Only half enter parenthood with a PCP, and once mothers, few plan to see a physician for preventive care. In this study, OBGYNs were identified most often for preventive health care. Therefore OBGYNs should provide comprehensive care to this population, or connect them with other PCPs. Furthermore, young mothers do plan on seeing FPs for acute health care, supporting previous recommendations that physicians use all visits to provide comprehensive care to adolescents.","The phenomenon of sex concordance between patient and physician has increased in recent years, particularly in primary care. Nearly four of five patient visits to female primary care physicians are from women, and female physicians report performing more preventive health services for their female patients.","Women may prefer female physicians, particularly for preventive health services. We assessed national trends in the proportion of women among patients seeing female physicians, and compared visit characteristics and preventive services among visits to female and male primary care physicians. We assessed the characteristics of 92,389 visits from the 1995-2000 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, a nationally representative survey of office-based physicians in the United States, using linear and logistic regression. Female physicians were more likely than male physicians to see female patients in the specialties of primary care (73% vs. 56%), psychiatry (72% vs. 54%), dermatology (67% vs. 56%), and pediatrics (52% vs. 46%; P<0.01 for all). In primary care, the difference increased over time, such that by 2000, 78% of visits to female primary care physicians were from women, compared with 56% for male primary care physicians (P<0.01). Female primary care physicians saw younger patients (mean age, 45 vs. 49 years, P = 0.04), reported longer visits (19 vs. 17 minutes, P<0.01), and reported performing more preventive services than did male primary care physicians when seeing female patients, including Papanicolaou testing (11% vs. 4.7%, P<0.01) and mammograms (9% vs. 4%, P<0.01).","The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).","Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.","Within this multispecialty Women's Health Care Clinic, internal medicine physicians are practicing primary care and obstetricians/gynecologists are providing specialty care.","Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.","These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics."],"string":"[\n \"Emphasis on ensuring women's access to preventive health services has increased over the past decade. Relatively little attention has been paid to whether the sex of the physician affects the rates of cancer screening among women. We examined differences between male and female physicians in the frequency of screening mammograms and Pap smears among women patients enrolled in a large Midwestern health plan. We identified claims for mammography and Pap tests submitted by primary care physicians for 97,962 women, 18 to 75 years of age, who were enrolled in the health plan in 1990. The sex of the physician was manually coded, and the physician's age was obtained from the state licensing board. After identifying a principal physician for each woman, we calculated the frequency of mammography and Pap smears for each physician, using the number of women in his or her practice during 1990 as the denominator. Using unconditional logistic regression, we also calculated the odds ratio of having a Pap smear or mammogram for women patients with female physicians as compared with those with male physicians, controlling for the physician's and the patient's age. Crude rates for Pap smears and mammography were higher for the patients of female than male physicians in most age groups of physicians. The largest differences between female and male physicians were in the rates of Pap smears among the youngest physicians. For the subgroup of women enrolled in the health plan for a year who saw only one physician, after adjustment for the patient's age and the physician's age and specialty, the odds ratio for having a Pap smear was 1.99 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.72 to 2.30) for the patients of female physicians as compared with those of male physicians. For women 40 years old and older, the odds ratio for having a mammogram was 1.41 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.22 to 1.63). For both Pap smears and mammography, the differences between female and male physicians in screening rates were much more pronounced in internal medicine and family practice than in obstetrics and gynecology.\",\n \"yes. Centralized primary care of advanced ovarian and fallopian tube cancers increases complete cytoreduction, decreases time interval from PDS to chemotherapy and improves relative survival significantly.\",\n \"yes. Relational continuity of care in integrated maternity and child health clinics seems to increase parents' satisfaction with the services and might increase the provision of home visits.\",\n \"Primary care offices located in poor and minority communities in a large, suburban county had high levels of access to and interest in Web-based systems. Physicians' offices may therefore provide a venue for online services aimed at improving health outcomes for poor and minority communities. Research is needed in other geographic regions to determine the generalizability of these findings.\",\n \"Among VHA patients with diabetes, clinically significant gender inequality was not apparent in most of diabetes care measures. However, there was evidence of better care among nonwhite and non-African American women than their male counterparts. Further research on interaction of race and gender on diabetes care is needed. This includes evaluation of integrated VHA women's health programs as well as cultural issues. Lower LDL-C control among women suggests areas of unmet needs for women and opportunities for future targeted quality improvement interventions at system and provider levels.\",\n \"yes. Primary and secondary prevention of ACEs may optimize the health of young girls in Hawaii, and reduce the burden of asthma and COPD among women in the state.\",\n \"Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.\",\n \"This is the first study examining rural-urban differences in maternal readmissions. The results indicate the importance of monitoring and potentially improving the quality of maternal care, especially when the delivery involves a C-section. More studies investigating rural health disparities in women's health are clearly necessary.\",\n \"To determine the effects of physician gender on rates of Pap testing, mammography, and cholesterol testing when identifying and adjusting for demographic, psychosocial, and other patient variables known to influence screening rates. A prospective design with baseline and six-month follow-up assessments of patients' screening status. Twelve community-based group family practice medicine offices in North Carolina. 1,850 adult patients, aged 18-75 years (six-month response rate, 83%), each of whom identified one of 37 physicians as being his or her regular care provider. Where screening was indicated at baseline, the patients of the women physicians were 47% more likely to get a Pap test [odds ratio (OR) = 1.47, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.05, 2.04] and 56% more likely to get a cholesterol test (OR = 1.56, 95% CI = 1.08, 2.24) during the study period than were the patients of the men physicians. For mammography, the younger patients (aged 35-39 years) of the women physicians were screened at a much higher rate than were the younger patients of the men physicians (OR = 2.69, 95% CI = 0.98, 7.34); however, at older ages, the patients of the women and the men physicians had similar rates of screening.\",\n \"yes. PHC facilities and pharmacies most commonly provided sub-optimal care. These facilities were more commonly utilized as the first option for child care in rural areas and among the poor and non-educated families. These are groups with the highest child mortality, which calls for interventions' targeting improvement of care at these facilities to further reduce child mortality from treatable illnesses in Tanzania.\",\n \"Women had greater familial responsibilities than men, but this was not a barrier to access or utilization of healthcare services. Despite less advanced HIV disease, women received similar care and had similar utilization of health services.\",\n \"Women residing in Indonesia's major cities have a higher risk of developing chronic conditions, starting at younger ages. The findings highlight the challenges inherent in providing long-term healthcare with its associated cost within major Indonesian cities and the importance of chronic disease prevention programmes targeting women at an early age.\",\n \"Higher unadjusted mortality in females after primary PCI was accompanied by significant differences in baseline characteristics, interventional approach and secondary prophylaxis in spite of the same standard of care. Lower guideline adherence seems to be less gender specific but rather a manifestation of the risk-treatment paradox.\",\n \"yes. Both male and female resident physicians acquire more experience with same-gender health care visits during training. Panel demographics and continuity do not explain the differential experience. Patient preferences and/or biased scheduling selection may explain why residents accumulate same-gender health care visits at twice the rate of opposite-gender health care visits.\",\n \"Female physicians with children at home spend more time on child care and household maintenance than their male partners. These responsibilities reduce professional work time (at least until all children are at school full time) and might deter women from active involvement in professional organizations.\",\n \"no. Although there may be other reasons for reducing student loan debt, at least among U.S. women physicians, encouraging primary care as a specialty choice may not be a reason for doing so.\",\n \"The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.\",\n \"yes. Obstetrician-gynecologists at an academic medical center did not provide postpartum diabetes mellitus screening for 66.7% of women with a history of gestational diabetes.\",\n \"Women's health tracks (WHTs) were developed to overcome identified deficiencies in residency training. Their effectiveness in preparing residents to manage both gender-neutral and gender-specific medical conditions is unknown. Using current guidelines for internal medicine training, we designed a 65-item survey to measure residents' knowledge, comfort levels, and referral patterns concerning two gender-neutral topics (diabetes and thyroid disease) and two gender-specific topics (polycystic ovarian syndrome [PCOS] and menopause). We administered it to postgraduate year 2 (PGY2) and PGY3 internal medicine residents at a large academic medical center and compared the results of WHT and non-WHT residents using chi-square and t tests. Of 61 residents, 50 (82%) responded. Fifty percent of respondents were female, 62% were PGY3, and 36% were WHT. WHT residents had higher mean knowledge scores than non-WHT residents concerning PCOS (60% vs. 45%, p<0.05) and menopause (73% vs. 60 %, p<0.01), and they were more likely to report feeling \\\"very comfortable\\\" handling PCOS and menopause issues (43% vs. 18%, p<0.02), including diagnosing PCOS, managing hot flashes, and managing vaginal atrophy. WHT residents were less likely than non-WHT to immediately recommend referrals if patients had suspected PCOS (0% vs. 19%, p<0.03) or confirmed PCOS (0% vs. 32%, p<0.02), and they were more likely to report feeling adequately trained to provide comprehensive ambulatory women's healthcare (73% vs. 7%, p<0.001). There were no significant differences between WHT and non-WHT residents on gender-neutral topics.\",\n \"To evaluate the satisfaction of difficult to treat patients (DTP) cared for by a primary care team (PCT), as regards the organisational aspects and the care received, and to compare it with that obtained by a sample of the general patient population (GPP). DESIGN. Cross-sectional descriptive study. Urban health centre. One hundred-one DTP participated, after being selected using Ellis and O'Dowd criteria by 8 doctors. Between March and May 2004 the DTP were given self-administered anonymous questionnaires, prepared and validated by the Catalonian Health Institute, which was divided into 8 sections for their analysis. The results were compared with those obtained in June 2003 from a representative sample from the GPP. A total of 52 questionnaires were returned (51% participation), of which 62% were from women, with a mean age of 61.5+/-12.3. Average scores (0 to 10) were: organisation 7.2+/-1.8; (95% confidence intervale [CI], 6.6-7.7), care by the doctors 8.4+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.7-9), by nurses 7.9+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.3-8.6), by administrators 6.9+/-1.9 (95% CI, 6.3-7.4), care resolved 7.2+/-2 (95% CI, 6.6-7.9), installations 7.6+/-1.7 (95% CI, 7.1-8.1), overall satisfaction 7.5+/-1.8 (95% CI, 7-8), and total satisfaction total 7.2+/-1.6 (95% CI, 6.8-7.7). The 91.7% (95% CI, 80-97.7) would recommend their friends to be treated in the centre. All the scores are higher than those in the GPP sample, with no statistical differences in the care by doctors and nurses sections.\",\n \"yes. In Maryland Medicaid, the odds of cancer screening and related acute care visits were greater for women with major mental disorders compared with women in the control group. For women with substance use disorders, however, screening was reduced and acute care visits were similar compared with women in the control group. Providers should encourage and support their patients with substance use disorders to increase use of preventive care services by primary care physicians and gynecologists.\",\n \"Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.\",\n \"The majority of women in our study left CBHCs and used other sites for pediatric care. Higher education, having child health insurance, and car ownership were associated with leaving CBHCs. Among women who left, race/ethnicity and perceived pediatric expertise were major factors associated with using HBCs rather than PPs.\",\n \"We do not find support for the hypothesis that children and pregnant women who use private care are less likely to receive public health services. Results are consistent with the notion that Indian households are able to successfully navigate the coexisting public and private systems, and obtain services selectively from each. However, because the study employed an observational, cross-sectional study design, findings should be interpreted cautiously.\",\n \"This study examined whether Medicaid-insured women at low risk receive less adequate obstetrical care than privately insured women. Low-risk women who were cared for by a random sample of obstetrical providers in Washington State were randomly selected. Information on all prenatal and intrapartum services was abstracted from medical records. Service information was aggregated into standardized resource-use units. Results compared Medicaid-insured women with those who were privately insured. Medicaid-insured women were significantly younger (22.5 years vs 26.9 years) and averaged 6% fewer visits than privately insured women. Nonetheless, Medicaid status had no meaningful association with prenatal, intrapartum, or overall resource use. Some variation occurred in individual resources received. Medicaid-insured women had 38.8% more resources expended on testing for sexually transmitted diseases. Privately insured women had more resources expended on alpha-fetoprotein testing and on amniocentesis. There were no meaningful differences in birthweight or gestational age at delivery.\",\n \"To evaluate the impact of general practitioners' commissioning of maternity services on women's experiences of care and on resource use, and to consider the implications for primary care commissioning. Comparison of women's experiences and resource use between 11 commissioning and 10 non-commissioning general practices. Face-to-face interviews with 212 staff in general practices, National Health Service trusts and health authorities between 1996 and 1998 to establish how maternity care was organised. Women's experience of information, choice, control and resource use obtained by questionnaire mailed 4 weeks post-partum. Data were analysed using multi-level modelling to adjust for case-mix differences. After two reminders, 1957 women (62%) responded to the questionnaire (inter-practice range 52-81%). There were no significant differences in women's experience of care or their resource use between commissioning and non-commissioning practices. Commissioning practices were more likely to be associated with more vertically integrated models of service organisation, but responses to only three of 21 questions about experience of information, choice and control over care, or about resource use, differed between the four models of service organisation identified.\",\n \"To compare patient outcomes and complications before and after involvement of family medicine residents in intrapartum care. Secondary data analysis. London, Ont. Obstetric patients of a family physician with a special interest in obstetrics. Total number of births attended and births missed, as well as rates of inductions, augmentations for dystocia, augmentations for prelabour ruptured membranes, types of births (ie, normal vaginal, vacuum-assisted, low and outlet forceps deliveries; cesarean sections; and obstetrician-assisted vaginal births), and perineal outcomes (ie, intact; first-, second-, third-, or fourth-degree tears; episiotomies; and episiotomies with third-or fourth-degree extensions). During the period of time when family medicine residents were involved in intrapartum care, women sustained slightly more second-degree tears, and more cesarean sections were performed. Fewer women had vacuum-assisted births or unmedicated births. There were no significant differences in rates of normal vaginal births, low and outlet forceps deliveries, and perineal trauma (other than second-degree tears) including episiotomies.\",\n \"Insights into where CMWs might provide delivery services were obtained through this study. Birthing stations may be an option as a preferred location for delivery care and should be considered as part of Pakistan's national CMW programme.\",\n \"yes. The frequent absence of means of effective communication between primary and secondary care about diagnosed abnormalities, and health professionals' uncertainties about their role has implications for the quality of care given to women who receive positive results after prenatal screening or diagnosis. There is a need for standards to be established concerning the communication of information to the health professionals responsible for the community-based care of pregnant women after a positive test result.\",\n \"There is clear evidence that women do change their childbirth locations over successive births in low and middle income countries. After two decades of efforts to improve maternal health, it might be expected that a higher proportion of women will be deciding against home births in favour of facility births. The results from this analysis show that is not the case.\",\n \"FMU care appears to offer important benefits for birthing women with no additional risk to the infant. Both for women with and without post-secondary education, intending to give birth in an FMU significantly increased the likelihood of a spontaneous, uncomplicated birth with good outcomes for mother and infant compared to women intending to give birth in an OU. All women should be provided with adequate information about different care models and supported in making an informed decision about the place of birth.\",\n \"This study examines the association between physician gender and diabetes quality of care. We examined the association between the gender of primary care physicians (n = 1,686) and the quality of diabetes care they provided to their patients participating in the Translating Research Into Action for Diabetes (TRIAD) study. Main outcome measures were diabetes processes of care including receipt of dilated retinal exams, urine microalbumin/protein testing, foot exams, lipid and HbA(1c) (A1C) testing, recommendation to take aspirin, and influenza vaccination over 1 year. Intermediate outcomes included blood pressure, A1C, LDL levels, and patient satisfaction. Hierarchical regression models accounted for clustering within provider groups and health plans and adjusted for patient age, gender, race, income, education, diabetes treatment and duration, and health status, along with physician age, years of practice, and specialty. Compared with male physicians (n = 1,213), female physicians (n = 473) were younger, had more recently completed training, and were more often internists. Patients of female physicians (n = 4,585) were more often women and younger than patients of male physicians (n = 1,783). In adjusted analyses, patients of female physicians were slightly more likely to receive lipid measurements (predicted probability 1.09 [95% CI 1.02-1.15]) and A1C measurements (1.02 [1.00-1.05]) and were slightly more likely to have an LDL<130 mg/dl (1.05 [1.00-1.10]).\",\n \"The study compared the content of primary care visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices. We compared the content of primary care adult visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices using data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey 1997 to 2002. Larger African American practice (>14% of primary care visits by African Americans) was empirically defined to conform with previous studies. Larger African American practices comprised 24% of all practices but accounted for 80% of all visits by African American patients. In adjusted analyses, physicians with larger African American practices were less likely to refer patients to specialists (adjusted odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence internal 0.61-0.98) and marginally less likely to perform rectal examinations (adjusted odds ratio 0.84; 95% confidence interval 0.56-1.00) but were more likely to schedule a return appointment (adjusted odds ratio 1.25; 95% confidence interval, 1.02-1.52). However, there were no other significant differences in the reported content of the office visits. Results were not altered when different cutoffs for larger African American practices were used or when obstetricians-gynecologists were excluded from the analyses.\",\n \"These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.\",\n \"To examine the effects of state legislation mandating direct access to obstetricians and gynecologists (OB/GYNs) on maternal health behaviors and infant health outcomes. 1992-2002 Natality Detail File; 1994-2002 Pregnancy Assessment and Monitoring Survey (PRAMS). Using variation in state policy over time, we use individual-level data from two sources to consider the effects of direct access legislation on prenatal care utilization, maternal health behaviors during pregnancy, and infant health outcomes. Our results suggest that there is little evidence that direct access laws are effective at improving prenatal care access or conferring benefits to mothers and infants. These results are consistent across two data sets, a variety of specifications, and specific subgroups of women who are most likely to be affected by direct access legislation.\",\n \"The study suggests that sociodemographic characteristics of women have limited impact on their perception of ANC quality. The identified predictors may serve as the criteria for selecting women that require intensive health centre-specific antenatal interventions aimed at improving perceived quality and thus sustained utilization of antenatal care services in these primary health care facilities.\",\n \"Although the results show that women wanted to be well received at health facilities, respected, treated with kindness, dignity and not shouted at, they were not critical of the care they received. The women did not know the quality of care to expect because they were not well informed. The women were not critical of the care they received because they were not aware of the standard of care. Instead they had low expectations. Health workers have a responsibility to inform women and their families about the care that women should expect. There is also a need for standardization of the antenatal information that is provided.\",\n \"no. Women not seeking prenatal care in a system with few external barriers to care have significantly more family dysfunction (P < .001) than women seeking prenatal care. Infants of women with NPC generated a disproportionate amount of adverse neonatal outcome. The combination of NPC and family dysfunction was more predictive of adverse neonatal outcome than was NPC alone.\",\n \"The finding that women with common symptoms are at risk of future sickness absence is of particular importance in a primary health care setting. The finding that women in active job positions had a higher risk of sickness absence might be an effect of modern working conditions for women.\",\n \"yes. A considerable proportion of patients in primary care were untreated despite current guidelines on lipid-lowering therapy. Treatment outcome in women was less efficient compared with men. Strategies to improve pharmacological treatment in these patients should be developed.\",\n \"In this study, the cesarean delivery rate was lower among women who may have greater access to medical knowledge. However, the lower rates observed among female physicians and physician relatives in Taiwan are still considerably higher than the national averages of many countries. This finding suggests that other than information, practice patterns, and social and cultural milieu may play a role.\",\n \"The study raised awareness of genital chlamydia among women attending family planning clinics and showed that primary care could make a significant contribution to the prevention of chlamydial infection. It is only by initiating intervention strategies in such settings that genital chlamydia will be controlled effectively in the UK.\",\n \"Few studies have addressed whether male family medicine residents have more exposure to men's health issues than their female colleagues. Additionally, the association between panel demographics or continuity of care and the differential experience with gender-specific health care is unclear. Between July 1, 2011, and June 30, 2014, all residents in the family medicine program had their gender, the number of women's and men's health care visits, the total number of male and female visits, and the number of visits with patients assigned to their primary care panel recorded each academic year. To determine which visits pertained to men's or women's health care, Clinical Classification Software developed by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) was used to map ICD9 billing codes into a useful ontology. Female residents had significantly more women's health visits (229 versus 123) while male residents had significantly more men's health visits (89 versus 49) than colleagues of the opposite gender. There were no significant differences in continuity, the gender distribution of panels, nor the mean age of panels. However, female residents saw a greater percentage of female visits overall (60.6% versus 53.3%).\",\n \"A WHT can help improve competencies in selected areas of women's health without compromising residents' knowledge or comfort concerning two core gender-neutral topics in ambulatory medicine.\",\n \"To examine access to and utilization of primary healthcare services with respect to gender. Greater family and child-rearing responsibilities are possible barriers to healthcare access and utilization for women with HIV infection. This study was part of a prospective, randomized, controlled trial evaluating primary care for HIV-infected patients at Duke University Medical Center (DUMC), a tertiary care medical center. Subjects were 214 HIV-infected, uninsured or publicly insured participants. Ambulatory care visits, emergency room utilization, hospitalization rates, length of stay, preventive and screening measures, and antiretroviral use were the outcome measures. Women (n = 83) and men (n = 131) enrolled in the study were similar with respect to race, educational level, marital status, and employment status. Women with HIV were more likely than men to have children (80% vs. 25%, p = 0.001) and spend their time as primary caregivers for their children (22% vs. 0.8%, p = 0.001). Women had higher CD4(+) cell counts (378 +/- 287 vs. 243 +/- 252 cells/microl, p = 0.0002), and a smaller proportion of women than men had AIDS at baseline (41% vs. 62%, p = 0.002). Women and men had similar numbers of primary care visits, emergency room visits, annual admission rates, and lengths of stay for hospitalizations. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia prophylaxis, pneumococcal vaccination, and tuberculosis screening were also similar between women and men. Women were more likely than men to have ever been prescribed an antiretroviral agent (88.0% vs. 71.8%, p = 0.005).\",\n \"In our targeted population we have observed a higher demand for medical clinics in women, though the actual demand will depend on factors such as age, place of residence and the referee.\",\n \"yes. The way in which women answer questions about intrapartal care reflects the way in which the questions are posed. This study therefore has asked not only how care was perceived but also what importance individual women ascribed to different areas of their care. The questionnaire used in this study allows identification of areas where \\\"what is, could be better\\\".\",\n \"antenatal care can play an important role in preparing women for birth. This study shows that information about birth provided during pregnancy is insufficient from women's perspective, although some groups of women do report being more satisfied with this information. The way that this segment of antenatal care is provided leaves room for improvement.\",\n \"yes. Shared antenatal care is not more satisfying than public clinic care for women from non-English-speaking backgrounds. Further evaluation of shared care is clearly needed.\",\n \"Overall, this cohort of women did not anticipate differences in reproductive healthcare based on institution. If women who enroll at Catholic hospitals do not receive information related to potential healthcare restrictions, their ability to act as informed healthcare consumers may be constrained.\",\n \"The Women's Support Service is accessed by a higher number of women, many more than access the local liaison service. It is suggested that this is due to their multiple and gender-specific needs being adequately addressed by the former service and the organizations to which they are referred. Mental health needs may also be secondary to other more basic needs, which makes the generic service provided by the Women's Support Service more appropriate than a liaison service that deals with mental health support alone.\",\n \"Primary care physicians practicing in a managed care setting are less likely to refer women for a urologic evaluation of new or first recurrent episodes of hematuria than to refer men in all patient age categories, except for 40-49 years. This apparent gender disparity could result in unequal access of specialty evaluation and could potentially delay the diagnosis of important urologic conditions.\",\n \"To compare routine antenatal care provided by general practitioners and midwives with obstetrician led shared care. Multicentre randomised controlled trial. 51 general practices linked to nine Scottish maternity hospitals. 1765 women at low risk of antenatal complications. Routine antenatal care by general practitioners and midwives according to a care plan and protocols for managing complications. Comparisons of health service use, indicators of quality of care, and women's satisfaction. Continuity of care was improved for the general practitioner and midwife group as the number of carers was less (median 5 carers v 7 for shared care group, P<0.0001) and the number of routine visits reduced (10.9 v 11.7, P<0.0001). Fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had antenatal admissions (27% (222/834) v 32% (266/840), P<0.05), non-attendances (7% (57) v 11% (89), P<0.01) and daycare (12% (102) v 7% (139), P<0.05) but more were referred (49% (406) v 36% (305), P<0.0001). Rates of antenatal diagnoses did not differ except that fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had hypertensive disorders (pregnancy induced hypertension, 5% (37) v 8% (70), P<0.01) and fewer had labour induced (18% (149) v 24% (201), P<0.01). Few failures to comply with the care protocol occurred, but more Rhesus negative women in the general practitioner and midwife group did not have an appropriate antibody check (2.5% (20) v 0.4% (3), P<0.0001). Both groups expressed high satisfaction with care (68% (453/663) v 65% (430/656), P=0.5) and acceptability of allocated style of care (93% (618) v 94% (624), P=0.6). Access to hospital support before labour was similar (45% (302) v 48% (312) visited labour rooms before giving birth, P=0.6).\",\n \"yes. Office systems hold promise in enhancing provision of cancer prevention services in primary care. The practice should be approached as a team, and should include practice clinicians as well as nonclinical staff members. Current research should provide answers over the next few years about the cost-effectiveness of various approaches and the most feasible ways to promote dissemination to practices that need it.\",\n \"General practitioners of women with diabetes, who have more health care encounters and poorer health-related quality of life, have adopted ACC with little impact on the decline in quality of life of the women nor on health care costs.\",\n \"On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.\",\n \"Disparities in access to HVS for cancer care exist for minority women. Selective referral to high-volume providers should be considered to improve outcomes among minority women.\",\n \"yes. After model adjustment, we suggest that being female, suffering from more severe asthma, or being attended by a primary care physician, could pose a significantly higher risk of having poorly controlled asthma in adults.\",\n \"To examine physician factors associated with ovarian cancer screening. Postal questionnaires to Maryland primary care physicians. Bivariate tests for statistical significance used X-Square and Student's t tests. Multivariate analysis and logistic regression were used to analyze responses based on specialty type, gender, and work experience. Fifty-six percent of the 375 were male, 44%, females; 33%, OB/GYN; and 67%, family/internal medicine (FM/IM). The mean age was 47 and the mean number of years in practice was 16. OB/GYNs provided more ovarian cancer counseling, OR 2.64 (CI 1.55, 4.48) and were more likely to respond correctly to knowledge questions--i.e., reduction of ovarian cancer risk with oral contraceptive (OCP) use than IM/FM, OR 8.57 (CI 3.54, 20.8). Overall, there were few gender differences in approach to evaluation, but male physicians were less likely to be aware of the relationship of OCP use to ovarian cancer risk than females, OR 0.48 (CI 0.25, 0.91). IF/FM physicians were less likely to order CA-125 for patients (of any age) based upon symptoms of bloating or physical examination alone. OB/GYN physicians, OR 4.77 (2.73, 8.34) and physicians with>15 years in practice, OR 2.79 (1.46, 5.35) attended more meetings on ovarian cancer than non OB/GYNs or those with less experience. Although 74% indicated access to the Internet, just 16% to 26% used the Internet for cancer information; OB/GYNs used the Internet less frequently than FM/IMs, OR 0.53 (0.28, 0.97).\",\n \"Although patients with identical symptoms were presented, primary care doctors' behavior differed by patients' gender in all 3 countries under study. These gender differences suggest that women may be less likely to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment than men.\",\n \"To describe where women receiving prenatal care (PNC) at community-based health centers (CBHCs) go for infant primary care, and to assess reasons for and factors associated with leaving CBHCs and using other practices for infant care. A prospective survey of women receiving PNC at CBHCs from February 2000 to February 2002 was conducted. In-person, prepartum, and postpartum surveys included questions about sociodemographic and health characteristics, and health services use. Among 1,107 primarily low-income, African American mothers, 60% of women left CBHCs and used other practices for their infants due to dissatisfaction, inconvenience, referral to and perceived expertise at other sites, and insurance changes. Leaving CBHCs was associated with being white, Latina, US born, educated beyond high school, single, owning a car, using non-CBHC practices for prepregnancy care, and having child health insurance. Among those who left, 48% used hospital-based clinics (HBCs) and 52% used private practices (PPs). Mothers using HBCs, when compared to those using PPs, were more likely to be African American (AOR = 6.83; 95% CI: 3.82, 12.22) or Latina (AOR = 5.60; 95% CI: 2.79, 11.24), dissatisfied with their PNC (AOR = 2.02; 95% CI: 1.05, 3.89) and to leave CBHCs because of insurance changes (AOR = 2.27; 95% CI: 1.18, 4.39) and perceived pediatric expertise at other sites (AOR = 4.81; 95% CI: 2.53, 9.11).\",\n \"Voucher schemes increased deliveries in health centres and, to a lesser extent, improved antenatal and postnatal care. However, schemes that targeted poorer women did not appear to be efficient since these women were more likely than less poor women to be encouraged to give birth in a public health-care facility, even with universal voucher schemes.\",\n \"To examine whether male and female family physicians practise maternity care differently, particularly regarding the maternal serum screening (MSS) program. Mailed survey fielded between October 1994 and March 1995. Ontario family practices. Random sample of 2000 members of the College of Family Physicians of Canada who care for pregnant women. More than 90% of eligible physicians responded. Attitudes toward, knowledge about, and behaviour toward MSS. Women physicians were more likely than men to practise part time, in groups, and in larger communities. Men physicians were more likely to perform deliveries; women were more likely to do shared care. Despite a shorter work week, on average, female physicians cared for more pregnant women than male physicians did. Among those providing intrapartum care, women performed more deliveries, on average, than men. Women physicians were more likely than men to offer MSS to all pregnant patients. Although average time spent discussing MSS before the test was similar, women physicians had better knowledge of when best to do the test and its true-positive rate. All differences reported were statistically significant (P12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.\",\n \"The present study revealed that the current form of PHC centers afforded to diabetic patients provided significantly improved outcomes for males, but only minor improved outcomes for females. This study reinforces calls for a gender-specific approach to diabetes care.\",\n \"yes. This research indicates a gap in health care for young mothers. Only half enter parenthood with a PCP, and once mothers, few plan to see a physician for preventive care. In this study, OBGYNs were identified most often for preventive health care. Therefore OBGYNs should provide comprehensive care to this population, or connect them with other PCPs. Furthermore, young mothers do plan on seeing FPs for acute health care, supporting previous recommendations that physicians use all visits to provide comprehensive care to adolescents.\",\n \"The phenomenon of sex concordance between patient and physician has increased in recent years, particularly in primary care. Nearly four of five patient visits to female primary care physicians are from women, and female physicians report performing more preventive health services for their female patients.\",\n \"Women may prefer female physicians, particularly for preventive health services. We assessed national trends in the proportion of women among patients seeing female physicians, and compared visit characteristics and preventive services among visits to female and male primary care physicians. We assessed the characteristics of 92,389 visits from the 1995-2000 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, a nationally representative survey of office-based physicians in the United States, using linear and logistic regression. Female physicians were more likely than male physicians to see female patients in the specialties of primary care (73% vs. 56%), psychiatry (72% vs. 54%), dermatology (67% vs. 56%), and pediatrics (52% vs. 46%; P<0.01 for all). In primary care, the difference increased over time, such that by 2000, 78% of visits to female primary care physicians were from women, compared with 56% for male primary care physicians (P<0.01). Female primary care physicians saw younger patients (mean age, 45 vs. 49 years, P = 0.04), reported longer visits (19 vs. 17 minutes, P<0.01), and reported performing more preventive services than did male primary care physicians when seeing female patients, including Papanicolaou testing (11% vs. 4.7%, P<0.01) and mammograms (9% vs. 4%, P<0.01).\",\n \"The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).\",\n \"Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.\",\n \"Within this multispecialty Women's Health Care Clinic, internal medicine physicians are practicing primary care and obstetricians/gynecologists are providing specialty care.\",\n \"Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.\",\n \"These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":590,"string":"590"}}},{"rowIdx":273186,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Analysis of failures after whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphomas. Is prophylactic irradiation of inguinal lymph nodes required?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%).","General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary."],"string":"[\n \"To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%).\",\n \"General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["In a retrospective study, the efficacy of radiotherapy alone was compared with combined modality treatment in patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). Between 1980 and 1994, 296 patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of intermediate or high grade malignancy (according to the Working Formulation) were treated in four different institutions. All patients were included except patients that presented with NHLs localized in the central nervous system, testis or skin. Two hundred two patients were treated with radiation therapy alone and 94 patients were treated with combined modality treatment. Increasing age and radiation as a single treatment (versus combined modality treatment) were highly significant adverse prognostic factors by multivariate analysis. The actuarial 10-year rates for progression-free and overall survival were 83 and 70%, respectively, for the patients treated with combined modality treatment and 47 and 43%, respectively, for the patients treated with radiation therapy alone.","Peritoneal dissemination of appendiceal malignancy combined with regional lymph node metastasis is an unusual combination of patterns of cancer dissemination. A database of 501 appendiceal malignancy patients, all with documented peritoneal seeding, was used to identify 25 patients with involvement of the regional lymph nodes. All patients were uniformly treated with cytoreductive surgery plus perioperative intraperitoneal chemotherapy with mitomycin C and 5-fluorouracil. The clinical and pathologic features of the lymph node-positive patients were compared with those of the lymph node-negative patients. The effect of regional lymph node involvement on survival was determined. Within the group of lymph node-positive patients, clinical and pathologic features were tested for their effect on survival. When compared with patients with no apparent lymph node positivity, patients with positive lymph nodes were more likely to have an acute abdomen as the initial presentation (P < .001). The intestinal (nonmucinous) histological type was more common (P < .001), and the disseminated peritoneal adenomucinosis histology was less common (P < .001). Survival with the aggressive treatment strategy used in these patients was not different for lymph node-positive as compared with lymph node-negative patients (P = .15 by univariate and P = .38 by multivariate analysis).","In conclusion, our study showed that prophylactic therapy with 4,000 IU/day LMWH was not completely effective for the prevention of postoperative DVT in patients with CD, and even less so in those with UC. In these patients, a more tailored prophylactic therapy should be considered, and further randomized controlled trials testing the effectiveness of different prophylactic protocols would be advisable. Furthermore, aCL IgM serum levels might be helpful in identifying IBD patients who are at higher risk of postoperative DVT.","In colorectal surgery UICC/AJCC criteria require a yield of 12 or more locoregional lymph nodes for adequate staging. Neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy for rectal carcinoma reduces the number of lymph nodes in the resection specimen; the prognostic impact of this reduced lymph node yield has not been determined. One hundred two patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy were compared with 114 patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving primary surgery followed by adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Total lymph node yield and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes were determined and correlated with survival. After neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy both total lymph node yield (12.9 vs. 21.4, p < 0.0001) and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes (1.0 vs. 2.3, p = 0.014) were significantly lower than after primary surgery plus adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Reduced total lymph node yield in neoadjuvantly treated patients had no prognostic impact, with overall survival of patients with 12 or more lymph nodes the same as that of patients with less than 12 lymph nodes. Overall survival of neoadjuvantly treated patients was significantly influenced by the number of tumor-positive lymph nodes with 5-year-survival rates of 88, 63, and 39% for 0, 1-3, and more than 3 positive lymph nodes (p < 0.0001).","The low IGN recurrence rate even with ACI and the feasibility of salvage of isolated IGN recurrence indicated that routine elective IGN irradiation is not necessary for rectal cancer with ACI.","To determine whether intra-operative radiation therapy (IORT) at the time of pelvic exenteration (PE) or laterally extended endopelvic resection (LEER) improves progression-free survival (PFS) in patients with recurrent, previously irradiated gynecologic cancers. We conducted a single institution retrospective review of patients who had undergone a complete PE for locally recurrent gynecologic cancer. Demographic and clinicopathologic data were collected. 32 patients were identified (2000-2012); 21 (66%) cervical cancer, 8 (25%) vaginal, and 3 (9%) vulvar cancer. All patients were previously irradiated. Twenty-one (66%) received IORT. Mean age was 51. Eight patients had a LEER, all with IORT. Median PFS and OS, respectively, for those with PE alone was 33 and 41 vs. 10 and 10 months for PE+IORT compared to 9 and 17 months for LEER+IORT (P=.04). Increasing tumor size negatively impacted PFS (hazard ratio 1.3; 95%CI 1.12-1.52). Margin status was not associated with survival. No patients undergoing LEER+IORT recurred only locally whereas 62% recurred with a distant component (+/- local). Patients with PE alone had mainly local (36%) and few (9%) distant recurrences compared to 31% local and 38% distant (+/- local) recurrences for those with PE+IORT.","Little is known about the effect of lateral pelvic node dissection after preoperative chemoradiotherapy on rectal cancer patients with initially suspected lateral pelvic nodes. The purpose of this study was to identify a subgroup of patients receiving preoperative chemoradiotherapy who can benefit from lateral pelvic node dissection. The study included 580 patients who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and total mesorectal excision. The lateral pelvic node responses to preoperative chemoradiotherapy were divided: group I (no suspected lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node<5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy; group II (responsive lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre-chemoradiotherapy but<5 mm post-chemoradiotherapy; and group III (persistent lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy. Prognostic factors for lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival were analyzed. In a multivariate analysis, lateral pelvic node response was an independent factor associated with lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival (P<.05). Group III had significantly poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than groups II and I (74.1%, 93.4%, and 98.6%; 71.7%, 89.4%, and 97%; 56.9%, 76.6%, and 81.7%; 74.9%, 85.7%, and 89.1%, respectively; P<.05). Group II tended to have poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than group I, and the differences in relapse-free survival and overall survival between the 2 groups were not significant (P>.05).","Because duodenal adenocarcinoma (DA) is relatively rare, few studies have investigated the impact of resection type on long-term outcomes. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database was used to identify all patients between 1988 and 2010 with DA. Patients were divided into two groups based on the type of surgery received: simple resection (SR), defined as a simple removal of the primary site, and radical resection (RR), defined as removal of the primary site with a resection in continuity with other organs. Differences in disease-specific survival (DSS) and overall survival (OS) were compared. Of the 1,611 patients included, 746 (46.3 %) underwent SR and 865 (53.7 %) underwent RR. As expected, patients undergoing RR were more likely to present with poorly differentiated and large tumors, as well as advanced stage disease. Despite greater lymph node (LN) retrieval (11.0 vs. 6.8; p < 0.0001), RR was not associated with improved survival (5-year DSS and OS rates of 52.8 and 41.3 % for SR vs. 48.8 and 37.6 % for RR; p > 0.05). On univariate Cox proportional hazards regression analysis, the type of surgery was not associated with OS (odds ratio [OR] 0.98; 95 % confidence interval [CI]0.87-1.11). Increasing TNM stages, tumor grade, fewer LNs removed, LN ratio, and absence of radiation were associated with worse survival. After controlling for confounding factors, type of surgery still did not influence OS (OR 1.11; 95 % CI 0.97-1.27).","As a sole modality, preoperative radiation for rectal carcinoma achieves a local control comparable to that of postoperative radiation plus chemotherapy. Although the addition of chemotherapy to preoperative treatment improves the pathologic complete response rate, there is also a substantial increase in acute and perioperative morbidity. Identification of subsets of patients who are at low or high risk for recurrence can help to optimize treatment. During the period 1977-95, 384 patients received preoperative radiation therapy for localized adenocarcinoma of the rectum. Ages ranged from 19 to 97 years (mean 64.4), and there were 171 females. Preoperative treatment consisted of conventionally fractionated radiation to 3600-5040 cGy (median 4500 cGy) 6-8 weeks before surgery in 293 cases or low doses of <3000 cGy (median 2000 cGy) immediately before surgery in 91 cases. Concurrent preoperative chemotherapy was given to only 14 cases in this study period. Postoperative chemotherapy was delivered to 55 cases. Overall 93 patients have experienced recurrence (including 36 local failures). Local failures were scored if they occurred at any time, not just as first site of failure. For the group as a whole, the actuarial (Kaplan-Meier) freedom from relapse (FFR) and local control (LC) were 74% and 90% respectively at 5 years. Univariate analysis of clinical characteristics demonstrated a significant (p < 0.05) adverse effect on both LC and FFR for the following four clinical factors: (1) location <5 cm from the verge, (2) circumferential lesion, (3) near obstruction, (4) tethered or fixed tumor. Size, grade, age, gender, ultrasound stage, CEA, radiation dose, and the use of chemotherapy were not associated with outcome. Background of the surgeon was significantly associated with outcome, colorectal specialists achieving better results than nonspecialist surgeons. We assigned a clinical score of 0 to 2 on the basis of how many of the above four adverse clinical factors were present: 0 for none, 1 for one or two, 2 for three or four. This sorted outcome highly significantly (p < or = 0.002, Tarone Ware), with 5-year LC/FFR of 98%/85% (score 0), 90%/72% (score 1), and 74%/58% (score 2). The scoring system sorts the data for both subgroups of surgeons; however, there are substantial differences in LC on the basis of the surgeon's experience. For colorectal specialists (251 cases), the 5-year LC is 100%, 94%, and 78% for scores of 0, 1, and 2, respectively (p = 0.004). For the more mixed group of nonspecialist surgeons (133 cases), LC is 98%, 80%, and 65% for scores of 0, 1, and 2 (p = 0.008). In multivariate analysis, the clinical score and surgeon's background retained independent predictive value, even when pathologic stage was included.","Nuclear accidents and terrorism presents a serious threat for mass casualty. While bone-marrow transplantation might mitigate hematopoietic syndrome, currently there are no approved medical countermeasures to alleviate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome (RIGS), resulting from direct cytocidal effects on intestinal stem cells (ISC) and crypt stromal cells. We examined whether bone marrow-derived adherent stromal cell transplantation (BMSCT) could restitute irradiated intestinal stem cells niche and mitigate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome. Autologous bone marrow was cultured in mesenchymal basal medium and adherent cells were harvested for transplantation to C57Bl6 mice, 24 and 72 hours after lethal whole body irradiation (10.4 Gy) or abdominal irradiation (16-20 Gy) in a single fraction. Mesenchymal, endothelial and myeloid population were characterized by flow cytometry. Intestinal crypt regeneration and absorptive function was assessed by histopathology and xylose absorption assay, respectively. In contrast to 100% mortality in irradiated controls, BMSCT mitigated RIGS and rescued mice from radiation lethality after 18 Gy of abdominal irradiation or 10.4 Gy whole body irradiation with 100% survival (p<0.0007 and p<0.0009 respectively) beyond 25 days. Transplantation of enriched myeloid and non-myeloid fractions failed to improve survival. BMASCT induced ISC regeneration, restitution of the ISC niche and xylose absorption. Serum levels of intestinal radioprotective factors, such as, R-Spondin1, KGF, PDGF and FGF2, and anti-inflammatory cytokines were elevated, while inflammatory cytokines were down regulated.","Locoregional recurrence remains low in breast cancer patients (one to three positive axillary lymph nodes +/- ECE) treated with surgery, adequate axillary dissection, and tangential field irradiation only. However, ECE is significantly linked to a considerable risk for subsequent distant failure.","yes. From our preliminary results, adjuvant radiation treatment limited to the para-aortic lymph node region, without ipsilateral pelvic irradiation, appears to be adequate treatment for Stage I seminoma. Such an approach in our patients resulted in minimal toxicity and excellent disease-free survival.","In the United States, early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) is defined as asymptomatic stage I/II non-bulky disease. European groups stratify patients to more intense treatment by considering additional unfavorable factors, such as age, number of nodal sites, sedimentation rate, extranodal disease, and elements of the international prognostic score for advanced HL. We sought to determine the prognostic significance of these factors in patients with early-stage disease treated at Stanford University Medical Center. This study was a retrospective analysis of 101 patients treated with abbreviated Stanford V chemotherapy (8 weeks) and 30-Gy (n=84 patients) or 20-Gy (n=17 patients) radiotherapy to involved sites. Outcomes were assessed after applying European risk factors. At a median follow-up of 8.5 years, freedom from progression (FFP) and overall survival (OS) rates were 94% and 97%, respectively. From 33% to 60% of our patients were unfavorable per European criteria (i.e., German Hodgkin Study Group [GHSG], n=55%; European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer, n=33%; and Groupe d'Etudes des Lymphomes de l'Adulte, n=61%). Differences in FFP rates between favorable and unfavorable patients were significant only for GHSG criteria (p=0.02) with there were no differences in OS rates for any criteria. Five of 6 patients who relapsed were successfully salvaged.","To evaluate the results of postoperative radiotherapy in patients with extra-hepatic bile duct cancer (EHBDC) and identify the prognostic factors for local control and survival. Between January 2001 and December 2010, we retrospectively reviewed the cases of 70 patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection and received postoperative radiotherapy. The median radiation dose was 50.4 Gy (range, 41.4 to 54 Gy). The resection margin status was R0 in 30 patients (42.9%), R1 in 25 patients (35.7%), and R2 in 15 patients (21.4%). The 5-year rates of overall survival (OS), event-free survival (EFS), and locoregional control (LRC) for all patients were 42.9%, 38.3%, and 61.2%, respectively. The major pattern of failure was distant relapses (33 patients, 47.1%). A multivariate analysis showed that the postradiotherapy CA19-9 level, radiation dose (≥50 Gy), R2 resection margins, perineural invasion, and T stage were the significant prognostic factors for OS, EFS, and LRC. OS was not significantly different between the patients receiving R0 and R1 resections, but was significantly lower among those receiving R2 resection (54.6%, 56.1%, and 7.1% for R0, R1, and R2 resections, respectively).","yes. Edge restenosis following gamma irradiation treatment of ISR is related to GM: a mismatch between the segment of artery injured during the primary catheter-based intervention and the length of the radiation source.","The prediction of biologic behavior of poorly cohesive early gastric carcinoma (EGC) is an important issue in the selection of the treatment modality. To elucidate the risk factors for lymph node metastasis (LNM) of poorly cohesive EGC, we focused on the histologic purity of the poorly cohesive component and evaluated the impact of this factor on LNM. We divided poorly cohesive EGC into (1) pure signet ring cell (SRC) carcinoma, which was defined as composed only of signet ring cells or poorly cohesive cells and (2) mixed SRC carcinoma, defined as poorly cohesive carcinoma with minor tubular components. We reviewed the clinicopathologic features, including age, sex, location, size, depth, lymphovascular invasion (LVI), LNM, ulceration, and intestinal metaplasia between the two groups in a large series of poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC (n = 317). LNM was found in 58 cases (18.3 %). Mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (p < 0.001), larger tumor size (more than 2 cm) (p = 0.012), and the presence of LVI (p < 0.001) were associated with LNM. Pure SRC carcinomas accounted for 56.2 % (178/317) of the cases. Fourteen pure SRC carcinomas (7.8 %) showed LNM, whereas 44 mixed SRC carcinomas (31.9 %) exhibited LNM (p < 0.001). On multivariate logistic regression, the presence of LVI (odds ratio 6.737; 95 % confidence interval 2.714-16.720; p < 0.001) and mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (odds ratio 4.674; 95 % confidence interval 2.370-9.216; p < 0.001) were independent predictors of LNM in poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC.","yes. Some patients with isolated inguinal lymph node metastasis show a good prognosis after lymph node excision and, therefore, should be treated surgically. Patients with metachronous metastases have a better prognosis than patients with synchronous ILN metastases. Nevertheless, assessment of additional patients for prognosis and treatment strategy is warranted.","yes. A high SUV at baseline (18)F-FDG PET and a lower reduction in the SUV within 3 months after eradication therapy are associated with treatment failure in H. pylori-positive low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma patients undergoing eradication treatment.","To examine the pattern of failures in patients with limited-stage small-cell lung cancer (LS-SCLC) treated with involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) and chemotherapy, with the aim of investigating the safety of IFRT. Two consecutive clinical phase II trials in patients with LS-SCLC conducted in our center from 1997 to 2010 were reviewed retrospectively. Both trials had the same inclusion criteria. All patients (n=108) received combined chemotherapy and thoracic radiotherapy. Only the primary tumor and involved lymphatic regions based on computed tomography (CT) scan were irradiated. Isolated nodal failure (INF) was defined as a failure in an initially uninvolved lymph node region in the absence of local recurrence or distant metastasis. With a median follow-up of 21 months, 78 patients experienced treatment failures. Out of 28 patients with local-regional recurrences, 16 in-field, 10 out-of-field, and 2 both in-field and out-of-field recurrences were observed. INF occurred in 5 patients (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area. Four patients developed simultaneously supraclavicular nodal failures and distant metastases. The median overall survival was 27 months (95% confidence interval, 24-30 months) and the median progression-free survival was 16 months (95% confidence interval, 12-21 months). For the 5 patients with INF, the median time to INF from the end of thoracic radiotherapy was 5 months (range, 1-18 months).","This study reports 21 patients with Stage I-III low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who were treated with comprehensive lymphatic irradiation (CLI) at the University of Florida between 1966 and 1992. Sites clinically involved with disease were treated with 30 Gy, whereas clinically uninvolved sites were treated with 25 Gy. Median follow-up for the group was 14 years (24.5 years for Stage III patients). Overall absolute survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 34%. Cause-specific survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 56%. Freedom-from-relapse rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 75%, 58%, and 58%, with no relapses noted after 10 years. Bulky disease (>6 cm) was a significant indicator of poor prognosis for cause-specific survival (p = .01).","Immunohistochemical profiles of esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma differ according to the presence or absence of Barrett's epithelium (BIM) and gastric intestinal metaplasia (GIM) in the fundus and antrum. Different lymphatic spreading has been demonstrated in esophageal adenocarcinoma. We investigated the correlation among the presence or absence of intestinal metaplasia in the esophagus and stomach and lymphatic metastases in patients who underwent radical surgery for esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma. The mucosa surrounding the adenocarcinoma and the gastric mucosa were analyzed. The BIM+ patients underwent subtotal esophagectomy and gastric pull up, and the BIM- patients underwent esophagectomy at the azygos vein, total gastrectomy, and esophagojejunostomy. The radical thoracic (station numbers 2, 3, 4R, 7, 8, and 9) and abdominal (station numbers 15 through 20) lymphadenectomy was identical in both procedures except for the greater curvature. One hundred ninety-four consecutive patients were collected in three major groups: BIM+/GIM-, 52 patients (26.8%); BIM-/GIM-, 90 patients (46.4%); BIM-/GIM+, 50 patients (25.8%). Two patients (1%) were BIM+/GIM+. A total of 6,010 lymph nodes were resected: 1,515 were recovered in BIM+, 1,587 in BIM-/GIM+, and 2,908 in BIM-/GIM- patients. The percentage of patients with pN+ stations 8 and 9 was higher in BIM+ (p=0.001), and the percentage of patients with pN+ perigastric stations was higher in BIM- (p=0.001). The BIM-/GIM- patients had a number of abdominal metastatic lymph nodes higher than did the BIM-/GIM+ patients (p=0.0001).","Although use of lymphadenectomy for treatment of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is established, routine lymphadenectomy for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (ICC) remains controversial. We examined the factors predicting survival in patients after ICC resection and compared outcomes of patients with and without systematic hepatic pedicle lymph node dissection (LND). Data were retrospectively collected for 215 patients with ICC who underwent liver resection during the years 1995-2012. Patients were divided into those (n = 102; 47.4%) who received LND (LN [D]) and those (n = 113; 52.6%) who did not (LN [D0]). Demographic data were similar between the 2 groups except for presence of preoperative symptom (P = .019) and liver cirrhosis (P<.001), carbohydrate antigen 19-9 (P = .003), tumor location according to the hepatic lobe (P<.001), type of hepatectomy (P<.001), adjuvant treatment (P<.001), and postoperative complications (P = .028). Tumor recurrence at a distant site was observed in 102 patients (68.5%). LN metastasis was independently associated with risk of distant recurrence (P = .002). The LN (D) and LN (D0) groups did not differ in overall survival (P = .101) or disease-free survival (P = .111). Poorly differentiated histologic grade (P = .016) and LN metastasis (P<.001) was identified as an independent predictor of overall survival.","yes. In patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection, a postoperative radiotherapy dose less than 50 Gy was suboptimal for OS and LRC. Higher radiation doses may be needed to obtain better LRC. Further investigation of novel therapy or palliative treatment should be considered for patients receiving R2 resection.","No statistically significant differences in the relapse rates and survival times were found. Risk factors were equally distributed in both study groups except for clitoris involvement. The 5-year survival rates in both groups were similar to those reported in the literature for radical vulvectomy and inguinal lymph-node dissection (83-96%). Morbidity in our study was low. Although our data showed similar results in both groups, we are not recommending at this time to omit groin radiation in general, but it may be justified in low-risk cases.","This study aimed to determine whether postoperative morbidity and mortality rates increased after preoperative chemoradiation in patients who underwent gastrectomy. The medical records of 7404 patients with gastric or gastroesophageal cancer seen from January 1995 to August 2012 were reviewed to identify patients who underwent gastrectomy. χ (2) and logistic regression analysis were used to determine differences in the 90-day postoperative morbidity and mortality rates of patients who underwent upfront surgery (SURG), preoperative chemotherapy (CHEMO), or preoperative chemoradiation (CHEMOXRT). Of the 500 patients included in this study, 200 underwent SURG, 65 had CHEMO, and 235 had CHEMOXRT. Respectively, 33, 43, and 58 % of these patients underwent total gastrectomy (p < 0.01). Resection of other organs was performed respectively in 19, 26, and 23 % of the patients (p = 0.37). Minor complications within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 1 or 2) occurred for 41 % of the SURG patients, 43 % of the CHEMO patients, and 45 % of the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.68). Major complications or death within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 3, 4, or 5) occurred for 21, 28, and 29 % of the patients, respectively (p = 0.15). The 90-day mortality (Clavien-Dindo 5) rates were 2 % for the SURG patients, 6 % for the CHEMO patients, and 3 % for the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.25). The median hospital stays were respectively 12, 12, and 13 days (p = 0.09). In the multivariate analysis, male sex, gastroesophageal junction cancer, total gastrectomy, and resection of other organs were associated with increased major morbidity and mortality rates, whereas preoperative therapy was not.","Since D2 total gastrectomy carried an increased overall morbidity risk and did not improve survival in patients with intestinal or diffuse type carcinoma, it seems that with regard to luminal gastric resection, SG is the treatment of choice for carcinomas located in the distal third of the stomach. Whether extensive radical D2 lymphadenectomy should be routinely performed in addition to SG is still controversial.The spleen should be preserved in most cases.","The purpose of our study was to determine the management and cancer outcome of incidental cancer-related findings reported on CT radiation treatment planning scans. We conducted a retrospective review of CT planning scans performed from 2004 to 2006 with diagnostic radiology reports. We previously found 45 (8%) cancer-related findings, defined as any previously unknown radiologic finding that could potentially change the staging or treatment of the cancer, in the 580 CT scans reviewed. This study further examines the cancer-related findings to identify their clinical significance, management, and cancer outcomes. Eight (18%) of the 45 cancer-related findings prompted additional imaging, with negative findings and no cancer failure at the site of the cancer-related findings. Three (7%) cancer-related findings resulted in changes in cancer management without further imaging, including initiating induction chemotherapy instead of localized radiation, increasing the radiation dose to identified lymphadenopathy, and changing the sequence of local management to initial surgery followed by radiation. Two of these findings had local recurrence at the site of cancer-related findings. The remaining 34 (76%) cancer-related findings did not result in any additional action. With a median follow-up of 17 months (range, 2-67 months) from CT, there was a similar failure rate at the site of cancer-related findings in the groups without (15%) and with (18%) additional action.","Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) of bone is a rare musculoskeletal malignancy accounting for fewer than 7% of bone cancers. Traditionally, we have treated patients who have NHL of bone with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, but the role of radiotherapy in disease management and patient functional outcomes after treatment have not been well studied. We investigated the survival advantage of radiotherapy in a large cohort of patients with NHL of bone and assessed associated patient complications of radiotherapy.QUESTIONS/ The objective of this study was to compare patients treated for NHL of bone with and without radiation in terms of (1) overall survival; (2) pretreatment complications; (3) posttreatment complications; and (4) functional outcomes using the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) score. A retrospective analysis of all patients with biopsy-proven NHL of bone diagnosed at our institution between 1985 and 2013 was undertaken; 70 patients met our criteria for inclusion with minimum followup of 6 months (median, 55 months; range, 10-219 months). Overall survival at 5 and 10 years was estimated and compared between two groups of patients: one group treated with systemic therapy alone (chemotherapy, rituximab; 46 patients [66%]) and the other with combined modality therapy (systemic therapy and radiotherapy; 24 patients [34%]). During the period in question, indications for radiotherapy included bulky disease, an abbreviated course of systemic therapy, and an incomplete response to systemic therapy. Patients not meeting these criteria generally received systemic therapy alone. With the available sample size, it was estimated that a difference in survival of approximately 30% would have to be present for detection with 80% power (α = 0.05, β = 0.2, n = 70, Δ = 30%). Pretreatment and posttreatment complications occurring in both patient groups were retrospectively reviewed with special emphasis on fracture healing after treatment. MSTS scores were obtained for 45 patients with appendicular tumors at a median followup of 42 months (range, 10-215 months). With the data available, no difference in Kaplan-Meier survivorship was observed between patients treated with and without radiation at 5 years (98%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 93%-100% versus 95%; 95% CI, 85%-100%; p = 0.281). Patients who were treated with radiation were more likely to experience problems with fracture healing (relative risk [RR], 12.8; 95% CI, 1.8-89.8; p = 0.01). Similarly, patients treated with radiation were at a higher risk for fracture in the posttreatment period (five of 24 versus no radiation zero of 46; RR, 20.7; 95% CI, 1.2-359.0; p = 0.0375). MSTS scores were poorer in patients treated with radiation (75% versus 91%; p = 0.034) attributable in part to a higher incidence of bony complications in this group after treatment.","Use of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND) in paratesticular rhabdomyosarcoma (PTRMS) is controversial and has changed over the past 2 decades. The Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study Group (IRSG) required ipsilateral RPLND (IRPLND) for all patients with PTRMS treated on IRS-III (1984-91), but changed to clinical evaluation of RPLNs using computerized tomography (CT) in IRS-IV (1991 through 1997). In IRS-IV, only those patients with identified lymph node involvement on CT required surgical evaluation of the RPLNs. Nodal radiation therapy was administered only to patients with RPLNs recognized as positive; such patients received more intensive chemotherapy as well. Thus, they compared the incidence of recognized RPLN involvement using these 2 different approaches. They then analyzed patient outcome to determine whether this change in management affected outcome. Eligible patients with group I or II PTRMS who were treated on IRS III (n = 100) or IRS IV (n = 134) were analyzed. Failure-free survival (FFS) and survival (S) rates were estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method and compared using the log-rank test. There was a significant change in the distribution of patients with group I versus II tumors from IRS-III to IRS-IV (group I, 68% in IRS-III versus 82% in IRS-IV). This was the result of decreased node recognition when CT was used to stage RPLNs in IRS-IV and was most notable for adolescents (>10 years of age). Overall, 3-year FFS was 92% for patients treated on IRS-III and 86% for those treated on IRS-IV (P =.10), whereas survival estimates were 96% and 92%, respectively (P =.30). Adolescents were at higher risk of RPLN relapse than were children (<10 years of age) and their FFS and survival were worse, regardless of IRS protocol. Furthermore, adolescents with recognized group II tumors experienced better 3-year FFS than those with group I tumors on IRS-IV (100% versus 68%, P =.06), most likely as a result of receiving radiotherapy and intensified chemotherapy.","Category 1 guidelines emphasize multimodality therapy (MMT) for patients with gastric cardia cancer (GCC). These patients are often referred to thoracic surgeons for \"esophagogastric junction\" cancers rather than to abdominal surgeons for \"proximal gastric\" cancers. This study sought to determine the ideal surgical approach using national datasets evaluating morbidity/mortality (M/M) and overall survival (OS). Patients with resected GCC were identified from the 2005 to 2012 ACS-NSQIP dataset and the 1998 to 2010 SEER dataset. Multivariate 30-day M/M analyses were performed using NSQIP. Survival analyses were derived from SEER and stratified by surgical approach. There were 1,181 NSQIP patients with GCC included; 81.8% had esophagectomies and 18.1% had gastrectomies. Major postoperative M/M occurred in 33.2%/3.7% patients after gastrectomy vs 35.0%/2.4% after esophagectomy (p = 0.260). Although a major postoperative complication (odds ratio 12.8, p<0.001) was an independent predictor of mortality on multivariate analysis, surgical approach was not. Of the 3,815 SEER patients included, 71.1% had esophagectomies and 28.9% had gastrectomies. Radiation use (surrogate for MMT) was administered more often with esophagectomy vs gastrectomy (42.9% vs 29.6%, p<0.001). Unadjusted median overall survival (OS) favored esophagectomy (26.0 vs 21.0 months, p = 0.025). However, multivariate analysis confirmed age (hazard ratio [HR] 1.01), T/N stages (HR 1.12/1.91), and radiation use (HR 0.83, all p ≤ 0.018), but not surgical approach (HR 0.95, p = 0.259), as independent predictors of OS.","For distant metastatic (M1) gastric adenocarcinoma, a policy to maximally avoid resection of the primary tumor is safe and efficacious. Cohort study. Academic tertiary care center. Sixty-seven (32%) of 211 consecutive patients with adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction had synchronous M1 disease on computed tomography or laparoscopy. Sixty-three patients with M1 disease were treated nonoperatively, and complete data sets were available for 40 men and 15 women (median age, 73 years). Pretreatment functional performance status was good in 67%. The primary tumor was at the gastroesophageal junction in 20% and was poorly differentiated in 60%. The M1 disease involved the peritoneum in 80% or was exclusively nonperitoneal in 20%. Systemic chemotherapy was administered to 67%. Incidence of subsequent invasive intervention for primary tumor-related complications and survival in 55 nonoperatively managed patients with M1 disease. Fourteen patients (25%) had intervention a median of 5 months after diagnosis. Eight patients had more than 1 intervention. Intervention was for gastric obstruction (20%), bleeding (7%), or perforation (2%). No patient underwent gastrectomy. Laparotomy was performed in 9%; the remainder had endoscopic or radiologic procedures or radiotherapy. There was no intervention-related mortality. Median survival was 7 months (95% confidence interval, 4-10 months). In Cox regression univariate analysis, good functional performance status, exclusively nonperitoneal metastasis, nonpoor differentiation, and chemotherapy predicted significantly longer survival; chemotherapy was the only independently significant predictive factor.","To evaluate whether the ratio between the number of metastatic lymph nodes and the number of total removed lymph nodes (MLR) is related survival in patients with locally advanced (stage 3) gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy. We included 179 patients with locally advanced lymph node-positive gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy within this study. The cut-off values, area under curve (AUC), sensitivity, and specificity were calculated using the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve technique for MLR. The sensitivity and specificity of MLR for mortality were 71.54% and 51.79%, respectively, when the cutoff level was accepted as the ratio ≥ 0.3. The AUC for the predictive value of MLR with regard to mortality was 0.609 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.533-0.681, p: 0.0135). Overall survival rates were significantly lower in patients with high MLR than in those with low MLR (15 months vs. 35 months, p: 0.002, respectively). In multivariate analysis, overall survival rates were significantly associated with MLR status (low or high).","The objective was to analyze locoregional (LR) failure patterns in patients with head-and-neck cancer (HNC) treated using intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) with whole salivary gland-sparing: parotid (PG), submandibular (SMG), and accessory salivary glands represented by the oral cavity (OC). Seventy consecutive patients with Stage I-II (23%) or III/IV (77%) HNC treated by definitive IMRT were included. For all LR failure patients, the FDG-PET and CT scans documenting recurrence were rigidly registered to the initial treatment planning CT. Failure volumes (Vf) were delineated based on clinical, radiological, and histological data. The percentage of Vf covered by 95% of the prescription isodose (Vf-V95) was analyzed. Failures were classified as \"in-field\" if Vf-V95 ≥ 95%, \"marginal\" if 20% < Vf-V95 < 95%, and \"out-of-field\" if Vf-V95 ≤20%. Correlation between Vf-V95 and mean doses (Dmean) in the PG, SMG, and OC was assessed using Spearman's rank-order correlation test. The salivary gland dose impact on the LR recurrence risk was assessed by Cox analysis. The median follow-up was 20 months (6-35). Contralateral and ipsilateral PGs were spared in 98% and 54% of patients, respectively, and contralateral and ipsilateral SMG in 26% and 7%, respectively. The OC was spared to a dose ≤40 Gy in 26 patients (37%). The 2-year LR control rate was 76.5%. One recurrence was \"marginal\", and 12 were \"in-field\". No recurrence was observed in vicinity of spared structures. Vf-V95 was not significantly correlated with Dmean in PG, SMG, and OC. The LR recurrence risk was not increased by lower Dmean in the salivary glands, but by T (p = 0.04) and N stages (p = 0.03).","To date, no study has compared laparoscopy (LB) to percutaneous (PB) biopsy for the diagnosis of abdominal lymphoma. The objective of this study is to compare the success rate and safety profile of laparoscopic lymph node biopsy to the percutaneous approach in patients with intra-abdominal lymphadenopathy concerning for lymphoma. We performed a multi-institution, retrospective review of patients undergoing lymph node biopsy for suspected intra-abdominal lymphoma between 2005 and 2013. Our primary outcome was adequate tissue yield between the two techniques, both for histologic diagnosis and for ancillary studies such as flow cytometry. Secondary outcomes included 30-day morbidity, 30-day readmission rates, the need for additional lymph node biopsy procedures, and length of stay. All 34 of the LB patients had adequate specimen for histologic diagnosis compared to 92.3% of patients with a PB (p = 0.18). Significantly more patients in the LB group had sufficient tissue for ancillary studies when needed than in the PB group, 95.5 and 68.2%, respectively (p = 0.04). A second biopsy was pursued in 23.1% of failed PB patients, 0% with success on second attempt.","To analyze the cause of GI symptoms after pelvic radiotherapy (RT) in a consecutive series of patients with symptoms beginning after RT. A striking lack of evidence is available concerning the optimal treatment for the 50% of patients who develop permanent changes in bowel habits affecting their quality of life after pelvic RT. As a result, in the UK, most such patients are never referred to a gastroenterologist. All diagnoses were prospectively recorded from a consecutive series of patients with symptoms that started after RT and who were referred during a 32-month period to a gastroenterology clinic. Patients either underwent direct access flexible sigmoidoscopy or were investigated in a standard manner by one gastroenterologist after first being seen in the clinic. A total of 265 patients referred from 15 institutions were investigated. They included 90 women (median age, 61.5 years; range, 22-84 years) and 175 men (median age, 70 years; range, 31-85 years). RT had been completed a median of 3 years (range, 0.1-34 years) before the study in the women and 2 years (range, 0-21 years) before in the men. Of the 265 patients, 171 had primary urologic, 78 gynecologic, and 16 GI tumors. The GI symptoms included rectal bleeding in 171, urgency in 82, frequency in 80, tenesmus, discomfort, or pain in 79, fecal incontinence in 79, change in bowel habit in 42, weight loss in 19, vomiting without other obstructive symptoms in 18, steatorrhea in 7, nocturnal defecation in 8, obstructive symptoms in 4, and other in 24. After investigation, significant neoplasia was found in 12%. One-third of all diagnoses were unrelated to the previous RT. More than one-half of the patients had at least two diagnoses. Many of the abnormalities diagnosed were readily treatable. The symptoms were generally unhelpful in predicting the diagnosis, with the exception of pain, which was associated with neoplasia (p<0.001).","To evaluate whether varying degrees of seminomatous elements in the primary orchiectomy specimen would be predictive of patient morbidity during post-chemotherapy retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (PC-RPLND) since the desmoplastic reaction with seminoma is associated with increased intraoperative complexity. We retrospectively identified 127 patients who underwent PC-RPLND for residual retroperitoneal masses. Clinicodemographic, intraoperative, and 30 day postoperative outcomes were compared for patients with pure seminoma (SEM), mixed germ cell tumors (GCT) containing seminoma elements (NS+SEM), and tumors with no seminoma elements (NS). Multivariate logistic regression was used to determine independent predictors of intraoperative and postoperative 30 day complications. We excluded 19 patients who received chemotherapy prior to orchiectomy, 2 patients with primary extragonadal GCT, and 3 patients who underwent re-do RPLND, leaving 103 patients for analysis. Fourteen patients (13.6%) had SEM, 18 (17.5%) had NS+SEM, and 71 (68.9%) had only NS elements. SEM patients were older (p = 0.03), had more intraoperative blood loss (p = 0.03), and were more likely to have residual seminomatous components in their post-chemotherapy lymph node (LN) histology (p = 0.01). Percent seminoma in the orchiectomy specimen was an independent predictor of estimated blood loss>1.5 liters (odds ratio: 1.04, 95% confidence interval: 1.01-1.07; p = 0.013) after adjusting for age, stage, IGCCC risk category, preop chemotherapy, number and largest LN removed, need for vascular or adjacent organ resection (including nephrectomy), and LN histology.","Low total lymphocyte count (TLC) and lymphocyte-to-neutrophil ratio have been found to be poor prognostic indicators in several different tumor types at various stages. Although immune-based therapies are under rapid development, it is not known whether baseline complete blood counts, particularly lymphocytes, are associated with the clinical outcomes of patients receiving immunotherapies. We performed a retrospective analysis of complete blood count for 59 patients enrolled onto a phase II trial evaluating the integration of an adjuvant immunotherapy-irradiated granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) secreting allogeneic pancreatic tumor vaccine (GVAX)-with standard chemoradiation. After adjusting for nodal status, individuals with a TLC of <1,500 cells/mm(3) (10 patients) had significantly higher risk, both in terms of overall survival (OS) [adjusted hazard ratio 2.63, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.22-5.67, p = 0.013] and progression-free survival (adjusted hazard ratio 3.07, 95 % CI 1.03-6.93, p = 0.003), compared to those with a TLC of ≤ 1,500 cells/mm(3) (49 patients). Adjuvant chemoradiation significantly reduced lymphocyte counts from baseline values. Patients with suppression of their lymphocytes to <500 cells/mm(3) after chemoradiation also had shorter disease-free and OS.","Relative to combined breast and local lymph node irradiation, isolated breast irradiation does not appear to be associated with a higher risk of locoregional relapse or death among cN0 to cN2 breast cancer patients with pN0 status after NAC. These results need to be confirmed in a prospective study.","Resection of distal pancreas and/or spleen plus total gastrectomy for advanced gastric cancer is associated to a greater number of isolated lymph nodes, but do not improve the survival of patients.","To evaluate the inguinal nodal failure rate in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer with anal canal involvement (ACI) treated with pelvic chemoradiation without elective inguinal irradiation. From 1990 and 1998, 536 patients received preoperative or postoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer with curative intent; 186 patients had ACI (<4 cm from the anal verge on rigid proctoscopy). Two patients had positive inguinal nodes at presentation. Chemoradiation was delivered preoperatively (45 Gy in 25 fraction) or postoperatively (53 Gy in 29 fractions) with concurrent continuous infusion of 5-fluorouracil (300 mg/m2/d). The inguinal region was specifically irradiated in only 2 patients who had documented inguinal nodal disease. The median follow-up was 50 months. Only 6 of 184 ACI patients who had clinically negative inguinal nodes at presentation developed inguinal nodal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate 4%); 4 of the 6 cases were isolated. Two patients underwent successful salvage. Only 1 died of uncontrolled groin disease. Local control was achieved in both patients with inguinal nodal disease at presentation, but both died of metastatic disease. Only 3 patients with tumors >4 cm from the verge developed inguinal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate <1%).","Extended chemoradiation therapy with additional chemotherapy cycles and 54 Gy of radiation may result in over 50% of sustained (>12 months) complete clinical response rates that may ultimately avoid radical rectal resection. Local failures occur more frequently during the initial 12 months of follow-up in up to 17% of cases, whereas late recurrences are less common but still possible, leading to 50% of patients who never required surgery. Strict follow-up may allow salvage therapy in the majority of these patients (see Video, Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/DCR/A113.).","We analyzed whether axillary nodal irradiation could control clinically node-negative disease, including those patients with a positive sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), most of whom received regional nodal irradiation. We also evaluated toxicity profiles that resulted from nodal irradiation. From 1988 to 2011, 2107 patients with cT1-T2N0M0 breast cancer underwent breast conservation therapy in the absence of axillary dissection: nx group (n = 1548), without any axillary surgery; the sn(-) group (n = 518), with a negative SLNB; and sn(+) group (n = 104), with a positive SLNB. The median follow-up times were 88, 56, and 55 months for the nx, sn(-), and sn(+) groups, respectively. The nx group had more risk factors than did the other 2 groups in terms of age, grade, or T stage. Ninety-eight percent of the sn(-)group received only tangent irradiation, and 100% and 83% of the sn(+) and nx group, respectively, received additional regional nodal irradiation. The 5-year cumulative incidences of axillary failure and regional nodal failure were 34, 3, and 0 (2.7%, 0.7%, and 0%; P = .02, log-rank test) and 57, 4, and 0 (4.4, 1%, and 0; P = .04), respectively. Overall survival rates in 5 years were 96.4%, 98.9%, and 97.6% (P = .03), respectively. Symptomatic but transient radiation pneumonitis developed in 31, 16, and 6 (2.0%, 3.1%, and 5.7%). Mild arm edema was observed in 1, 4, and 0 (0.06%, 0.8%, and 0%) in the nx, sn(-), sn(+) groups, respectively.","Malignant nodes in patients with localized esophageal adenocarcinoma (L-EAC) portend a poor prognosis. We assessed the correlation of the distribution of nodes with the outcome of patients undergoing chemoradiation/surgery (trimodality therapy). We studied 209 L-EAC patients who had confirmed or suspicious nodes at baseline staging. All patients received trimodality therapy and were grouped according to the nodal geography: above the diaphragm (AD), below the diaphragm (BD), or above and below the diaphragm (ABD). Survival estimates were calculated using the Kaplan-Meier method, and the outcomes of the groups were assessed by the log-rank test. Patients were primarily Caucasian (91%) and male (93%), with a baseline stage III L-EAC (89%). The median follow-up was 2.8 years (range, 0.4-11.7). Of the 209 patients, 35% (n = 73) had AD nodes, 20% (n = 41) had BD nodes, and 45% (n = 95) had ABD nodes. ABD patients had a 5-year overall survival rate of 33%, whereas this rate was 55% in AD patients and 60% in BD patients (p = 0.02). Patients with a higher histology grade were also at a higher risk of relapse and had a poor survival (p < 0.01 for both).","A North American phase III trial has recently shown that postoperative chemoradiotherapy using the FUFOL Mayo Clinic regimen improves overall survival and relapse-free survival after surgical resection of gastric cancer. However, severe grade 3-4, hematologic and gastrointestinal toxicities were frequent. The aim of this retrospective and multicentric study was to determine the tolerance of a postoperative chemoradiotherapy regimen using LV5FU2 instead of the Mayo Clinic regimen. Twenty-three patients with resected adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction at high risk of recurrence were treated with LV5FU2 chemotherapy and radiotherapy (45 Gy in 25 fractions and 5 weeks) delivered to the tumor bed and regional nodes. Nineteen patients were treated with two to four cycles before radiotherapy, then three cycles during radiotherapy, and finally four cycles after radiotherapy; four patients were only given three cycles during radiotherapy. Of the 23 patients assigned to this protocol, 20 completed treatment (87%). There was only one interruption of treatment because of hematologic or gastrointestinal toxicity. Tolerance of LV5FU2 regimen associated with radiotherapy was excellent: one grade 3 or 4 gastrointestinal toxicity (4.3%), no toxic death, and only one grade 3 neutropenia (4.3%) were reported.","yes. Reduced lymph node yield after preoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer does not indicate inadequate oncologic surgery. It may represent good treatment response and better prognosis, especially in patients with good pathologic tumor regression after chemoradiation.","yes. The independent prognostic factors in the current study suggest that either the M. D. Anderson tumor score system or the IPI can be used to select which aggressive lymphoma patients are at high risk for disease recurrence based on their having more than two adverse factors and who consequently are candidates for more intensive frontline therapy. Involved-field radiotherapy should be considered in those patients with bulky lymphomas.","Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) accounts for approximately 80-85% of all lung cancers, especially in patients 70 years old or more. In this study, we investigated the efficacy and safety of involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) for patients 70 years old or more with early stage NSCLC. We conducted a multicenter prospective study in elderly patients with NSCLC treated with intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT). From January 1999 to December 2001, 80 patients with medically inoperable or refused surgery early stage (I/II) NSCLC were eligible for toxicity and treatment response analysis. IMRT plans were designed to deliver 66.6 Gy to involved-field that included only the primary tumor and clinically enlarged lymph nodes using six equidistant coplanar 6-MV beams. Elective nodal failure (ENF) was defined as a recurrence in an initially uninvolved lymph node in the absence of local failure. The objective response rate of all patients was 88.6% with a median overall survival (OS) time of 38 months and the 1-, 2- and 5-year OS rates and local progression-free survival (LPFS) rates were 65.8%, 55.7%, 25.3% and 84.8%, 59.5%, 34.2%, respectively. The medians OS time for patients with gross tumor volume (GTV) >100.8 cm3 and GTV < or =100.8 cm3 were 13 and 50 months, respectively (p=0.0001). Only 29 patients (36.7%) with ENF were identified, with a median time to treatment failure of 55 months (range, 49-61 months) after treatment. There were no treatment-related deaths or grade 4 toxicity. Grade 3 toxicities were esophagitis (1.3%), radiation pneumonitis (3.8%) and hematological effects (2.5%).","The objective of our study was to demonstrate differences in relapse rates, total survival times, and complication rates between inguinofemoral radiation and its absence in cases of invasive vulvar carcinoma without lymph node involvement (FIGO Stages T1, N0-1). From 1974 to 1990, 135 patients with invasive vulvar carcinoma in Stage T1 without clinical evidence of inguinal lymph node involvement underwent simple vulvectomy performed by hot-knife resection without lymphadenectomy. Although 65 patients (Group 1) received postoperative inguinofemoral radiation therapy, 70 patients (Group 2) did not, and none received local vulva irradiation. The 5-year survival rates were 93.7% in Group 1 and 91.4% in Group 2 (p = NS). Although clitoris involvement was significantly more prevalent in the irradiation group (p = 0.04), inguinal relapse was found less frequently in Group 1 (4.6% or 3 out of 65 patients) than in group 2 (10% or 7 out of 70 patients) (p = 0.32). The complication rates were, 7.7% in Group 1 and 2.9% in Group 2, 2.7% for vaginal stenosis (two patients in each group), 1.5% for inguinal pain (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for rectovaginal fistula (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for vulvar infection (one patient in Group 1).","A subset of patients with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) with clinical stage I or IE at presentation is left without other NHL localizations following surgery performed for diagnostic histology, and thus without any target lesion to judge the immediate effectiveness of immediately applied additional treatment modalities. Since 1988 we have adopted in this single centre, prospective non-randomized study, a watch-and-wait policy for such patients, who in addition had to have non-bulky disease, normal LDH levels, no 'B' symptoms and no Burkitt, lymphoblastic and cutaneous T-cell histology. Up to 1993 we have observed 50 consecutive cases. Patients were regularly followed with the endpoint to determine the relapse-free interval and overall survival. NHL relapses were treated, either with locoregional radiotherapy, or with chemotherapy, or both. The median observation time is at the moment 53.5+ months (range 6-106+). The initial NHL localizations were: a solitary cervical or auxillary lymph node in 18 patients, inguinal or scarpal lymph node in eight, tonsil in 12 and skin/subcutis in 12 (B-cell NHL only for skin/subcutis). Nine patients had low, 15 intermediate, and 26 high-grade histology. Within the observation period NHL relapses occurred in 10/50 patients (20 per cent). At the moment 46/50 patients (92 per cent) are alive and NHL free. The estimated 9-year freedom from relapse is 79 per cent and overall survival 92 per cent, and for 41 patients with intermediate/high-grade histologies 80 per cent and 95 per cent respectively.","Treatment results were reviewed in a retrospective analysis and compared with literature data. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse and overall survival were identified. We analyzed the history of 183 patients treated for Hodgkin's disease between 1977 and 1989 at the Department of Radiation Therapy at the University of Würzburg. There were 100 males and 83 females between 16 and 86 years of age. 70.5% of patients presented with early stage Hodgkin's disease (23.5% stage I and 47.0% stage II) and 29.5% had advanced stages (25.1% stage III and 4.4% stage IV). All patients were treated initially with radiotherapy, 114 had radiotherapy alone and 69 patients received combined modality treatment. Hundred and sixty-one patients (88.0%) reached a complete remission. Freedom from relapse was 73.7% at 5 years and 70.3% at 10 years for these patients, overall survival was 74.3% and 62.8% at 5 and 10 years for all patients. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse were stage IV, B symptoms, age greater than 35 years and more than 3 involved lymph node regions. These factors also were relevant for overall survival, in addition mixed cellularity or lymphocyte depleted subtype, high erythrocyte sedimentation rate, failure to achieve a complete remission following initial treatment and relapse of Hodgkin's disease were identified as negative prognostic factors. Laparotomy staged patients who received radiotherapy only for stage I and II Hodgkin's disease had better outcome than clinically staged patients. Our data suggest that adequate therapy is able to reduce the impact of unfavourable prognostic factors. The outcome for patients with bulky mediastinal disease was similar to that in patients without a mediastinal mass.","To determine whether baseline hemoglobin level and radiation treatment interruptions predict for loco-regional failure after intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with concurrent chemotherapy for definitive treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN). This retrospective review identified 78 consecutive patients treated with definitive concurrent chemoradiation for SCCHN. Patients were treated with IMRT to 70 Gy in 35 daily fractions to the high-dose target volume and 56 Gy to the elective target volume. Median age of the cohort was 62 (37-81). Median follow-up was 12 months. Tumor sites included: oropharynx (54%), larynx (36%), oral cavity (5%), and hypopharynx (5%). Fifteen of 78 patients (19%) experienced loco-regional failure. These included: 6 primary site failures, 5 regional failures, and 4 failures in both the primary site and regional lymph nodes. All but one failure occurred in the high-dose target volume. Only duration of radiation treatment and baseline hemoglobin levels were significant predictors of local control. Loco-regional failure occurred in 6 of 13 patients (46%) with radiation treatment interruptions (>1 week) versus 9 of 65 patients (14%) completing radiation therapy without interruption (P = 0.0148). Loco-regional failure occurred in 7 of 19 patients (37%) whose pretreatment hemoglobin level was <12 g/dL compared with 8 of 59 patients (14%) with hemoglobin levels > or = 12 (P = 0.042).","Surgery alone with adequate nodal evaluation may have a role in low-risk gastric cancer. To corroborate these findings, surgery with adequate lymphadenectomy alone (as treatment arm) deserves consideration in the design of gastric cancer trials to provide effective yet resource-conserving, rather than maximally tolerated, treatments.","The objective of this study is to ascertain whether omission of lymphadenectomy is possible when endometrial cancer is considered low-risk based on intraoperative pathologic indicators. A total of 128 patients were deemed to be low-risk based on intraoperative evaluation, including frozen-section determination of grade and myometrial invasion. We divided these 128 patients into 2 groups, the total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO) with lymphadenectomy (LA group, n=68) and the TAH-BSO without lymphadenectomy (non-LA group, n=60) group. The only adjuvant treatment used was chemotherapy, and the decision to use chemotherapy was based on stage, grade, or lymphovascular space involvement. A retrospective review of the medical records was performed, and disease-free survival (DFS), overall survival (OS), operative time, estimated blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement, incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema and post-operative deep vein thrombosis were evaluated. The 5-year DFS and OS rates were 95.6% and 98.5% in the LA group, and 98.3% and 98.3% in the non-LA group, respectively, and were not significantly different. In the LA group, pelvic lymph node metastasis was observed in only 1 case. In the LA group, blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement and the incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema were significantly higher than those in the non-LA group.","To describe the clinical presentation, treatment technique, outcome and complications in a large single institutional experience using radiotherapy for treatment of orbital lymphoma. Twenty-five patients with lymphoma of the orbit or ocular adnexa were treated with radiotherapy at Stanford University Medical Center during the fourteen year period, 1977-1991. Patients were staged using the Ann Arbor criteria with chest x-ray, computerized tomography of abdomen and orbits, lymphangiogram, and bone marrow biopsy. Patients with disease localized to the orbits as well as those with disseminated disease and symptomatic orbital lesions were treated. Thirty-one involved eyes were treated. Mean radiotherapy dose was 35.3 Gy, with a range of 28 Gy to 40.2 Gy. Lens protection was used in all cases. Two patients with diffuse large cell lymphoma also received chemotherapy as part of their initial treatment. Follow-up ranged from 10 months to 13 years, with a mean follow-up time of 4 years. Twenty patients had disease confined to one or both orbits (Stage I). One patient had a monoclonal atypical infiltrate, while the remainder had a histologic diagnosis of malignant lymphoma: diffuse small lymphocytic, 13; follicular mixed, 3; diffuse small cleaved, 3; diffuse large cell, 2; follicular small cleaved, 1; follicular and diffuse small cleaved, 1; undifferentiated, 1. Two local relapses occurred; the actuarial 5-year freedom from local relapse is 89%. Actuarial 5-year freedom from distant relapse, freedom from any relapse and overall survival are 77%, 70%, and 93%, respectively. Acute complications of treatment were mild. Late complications included transient cystoid macular edema (one patient), asymptomatic subcapsular and medial sector cataract formation (two patients), retinopathy (two patients), mild eyelid retraction (one patient), and dry eye with secondary conjunctivitis (one patient).","To investigate whether a dose reduction to CT-enlarged but FDG-PET-negative (([(18)F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose positron emission tomography) inguinal lymph nodes in radiochemotherapy of anal cancer is safe. 39 sequential patients with anal cancer (mean age 59 years [range: 37-86 years], median follow-up 26 months [range: 3-51 months]) receiving pretherapeutic FDG-PET were included. All patients were treated with combined radiochemotherapy including elective radiation of the inguinal lymph nodes with 36 Gy. In case of involvement (FDG-PET positivity defined as normalized SUV [standard uptake value] above Delta>2.5 higher than blood pool), radiation dose was increased up to 50-54 Gy. Planning CT and PET results were compared for detectability and localization of lymph nodes. In addition, local control and freedom from metastases were analyzed regarding the lymph node status as determined by FDG-PET. In the planning CTs, a total of 162 inguinal lymph nodes were detected with 16 in nine patients being suspicious. Only three of these lymph nodes in three patients were PET-positive receiving 50.4-54 Gy, whereas all other patients only received elective inguinal nodal irradiation. No recurrence in inguinal lymph nodes occurred, especially not in patients with CT-enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and elective irradiation only. Patients with PET-positive nodal disease had a higher risk of developing distant metastases (p = 0.045).","In comparison with historical controls, postoperative tumor bed irradiation improves local control for some subsets of patients. In addition to standard 5-fluorouracil-based chemotherapy, adjuvant tumor bed irradiation should be considered when colon cancers invade adjoining structures, when they are complicated by perforation or fistulas, or when they are incompletely excised at the primary site.","The objective of this study was to evaluate how the administration of different adjuvant therapies influences the risk for developing recurrences in the para-aortic area in endometrial cancer (EC) with positive pelvic and unknown para-aortic nodes. We retrospectively evaluated the data of 58 patients with EC affected by stage IIIC1 who had undergone pelvic but not para-aortic lymphadenectomy from January 1, 1990 to December 31, 2011. Survival outcomes within the first 5 years after surgery were assessed using the Kaplan-Meier model. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy, chemotherapy only, and external radiotherapy only were administered in 12 (23%), 18 (34%), and 23 (43%) patients, respectively. Five (9%) patients, who were selected to forego adjuvant therapy due to poor performance status, were excluded from the analysis. Disease-free and overall survivals assessed at 5 years were 54%, and 61%, respectively. All para-aortic recurrences were observed among the patients with endometrioid EC, whereas no cases of para-aortic recurrences were found in patients with nonendometrioid histology (5/36 (14%) vs 0/17 (0%); P = 0.16); the latter were more likely to develop distant (hematogenous, peritoneal, and distant lymphatic) recurrences (P = 0.09). Type of adjuvant therapy was the only factor influencing para-aortic failure: chemotherapy (± radiotherapy) reduced the rate of para-aortic node recurrence in comparison with pelvic radiotherapy as a sole modality (P = 0.01). However, adjuvant therapy did not influence the 5-year survival outcomes (P > 0.05).","The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of primary extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and the prognostic factors of primary gastric diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (PG-DLBCL) differ in various studies. We retrospectively searched for PG-DLBCL in a single institution, performed immunohistochemical analysis, classified tumor phenotype (Hans and Muris algorithms), reviewed medical records, and analyzed the clinical and immunophenotypic variables using Cox proportional hazard regression model. A total of 46 cases were identified including 25 males and 21 females with a median age of 63.5; 18 (39%) were at stage I and 28 (61%) at stage II. Seven (15%) patients underwent surgery as initial treatment including total (n = 3, 7%) and subtotal (n = 4, 9%) gastrectomy. Thirty-three patients (72%) received frontline chemotherapy treatment including ten with additional rituximab (MabThera) injection, and two (6%) of these patients developed perforation after chemotherapy. Four patients passed away shortly after diagnosis and the remaining three were lost to follow-up. The overall 2- and 5- year survival rates were 55% and 50%, respectively. The expression of various differentiation markers was CD10 (25%), bcl-2 (50%), bcl-6 (84%), and MUM1 (64%). Half of the cases studied (22/44) were classified as germinal center B-cell (GCB) phenotype and the remaining half as non-GCB according to Hans algorithm; 66% and 34% cases belonged to groups 1 and 2, respectively, according to Muris algorithm. Univariate analysis showed the expression of bcl-6 by the tumor cells as a favorable factor, while elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level, bcl-2 expression, and Muris group 2 were associated with poorer outcome. Multivariate analysis revealed that the two prognostic factors were bcl-6 expression and elevated LDH level, with hazard ratios of 0.09 (p = 0.002) and 3.72 (p = 0.024), respectively.","To evaluate volume effect of small bowel for diarrhea during pelvic irradiation in gynecologic patients with or without prior abdomen operation. From January 1996 through December 2003, 759 patients undergoing 4-field pelvic irradiation for cervical or uterine cancer were analyzed. Whole pelvic (WP), modified whole pelvic (MWP), or lower pelvic (LP) irradiation were delivered initially. According to contrast medium within small bowel in simulation films, we categorized the small-bowel volume of full dose related to WP fields as small-volume and large-volume groups. We recorded the severity of diarrhea until 39.6 Gy/22 fractions of pelvic irradiation. The actuarial rates of overall and moderate to severe diarrhea were compared among different groups. Significantly more large-volume distribution (85%) was noted in patients>60 years without prior operation (P<0.001). Large-volume distribution was 53%, 65%, and 82% in post-operative patients with no diarrhea, mild diarrhea, and moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.002), respectively. The corresponding rate was 79%, 77%, and 80% in patients without prior abdomen operation (P = 0.869). In multivariate analysis, prior operation with LP fields (P = 0.005) and prior operation with small volume (P = 0.031) were significantly protective factors for overall diarrhea. The latter was also a protective factor for moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.026). Prior operation could diminish overall diarrhea in patients without simultaneous large-field (WP or MWP) and large-volume. Large volume was a significant factor of overall (P = 0.014) and moderate to severe (P = 0.004) diarrhea in large-field patients with operation. The volume effect did not exist in those patients without operation.","Both surgical and conservative treatment strategies offer an excellent outcome to patients with gastric lymphoma. No comparison of surgical resection with primary radiation or chemotherapy on a prospective randomised basis was available up to now. The aim of this study was to compare surgery with radiation and surgery plus chemotherapy with chemotherapy alone in patients with marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (MZBCL) of MALT and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), respectively, with respect to long-term outcome and quality of life. 49 patients [21 male and 28 female; age 65 (35 - 75) years] with newly diagnosed MZBCL of MALT (n = 19) and DLBCL (n = 30) of stage I and II were recruited. Outcome was evaluated after a follow-up of 74 (7 - 102) months and quality of life was measured using the SF-36 health survey and the gastrointestinal life quality index (GLQI). Complete remission rates in MZBCL of MALT were 88 % and 89 % in patients treated by surgery or radiotherapy, respectively. The corresponding rates for patients with DLBCL were 93 % following surgery plus chemotherapy and 92 % after chemotherapy alone, respectively. The results in the different treatment groups did not differ significantly. Posttherapeutic quality of life was generally high with a significant advantage for patients treated conservatively compared to those who underwent surgery.","yes. Adequate lymph node dissection and pathologic staging is critical in directing optimal treatment of patients with early gastric cancer. Understaging as a result of suboptimal lymphadenectomy may explain the perceived benefit of adjuvant chemoradiation after an R0 resection for T2N0 gastric cancer.","We implemented a peer review program that required presentation of all nonpalliative cases to a weekly peer review conference. The purpose of this review is to document compliance and determine how this program impacted care. A total of 2988 patients were eligible for peer review. Patient data were presented to a group of physicians, physicists, and dosimetrists, and the radiation therapy plan was reviewed. Details of changes made were documented within a quality assurance note dictated after discussion. Changes recommended by the peer review process were categorized as changes to radiation dose, target, or major changes. Breast cancer accounted for 47.9% of all cases, followed in frequency by head-and-neck (14.8%), gastrointestinal (9.9%), genitourinary (9.3%), and thoracic (6.7%) malignancies. Of the 2988 eligible patients, 158 (5.3%) were not presented for peer review. The number of missed presentations decreased over time; 2007, 8.2%; 2008, 5.7%; 2009, 3.8%; and 2010, 2.7% (P < .001). The reason for a missed presentation was unknown but varied by disease site and physician. Of the 2830 cases presented for peer review, a change was recommended in 346 cases (12.2%) and categorized as a dose change in 28.3%, a target change in 69.1%, and a major treatment change in 2.6%. When examined by year of treatment the number of changes recommended decreased over time: 2007, 16.5%; 2008, 11.5%; 2009, 12.5%; and 2010, 7.8% (P < .001). The number of changes recommended varied by disease site and physician. The head-and-neck, gynecologic, and gastrointestinal malignancies accounted for the majority of changes made.","Chemoradiation (CRT) is the standard of care in patients with node-positive (cN+) and node-negative (cN0) anal cancer. Depending on the tumor size (T-stage), total doses of 50-60 Gray (Gy) in daily fractions of 1.8-2.0 Gy are usually applied to the tumor site. Inguinal and iliac lymph nodes usually receive a dose of ≥ 45 Gy. Since 2010, our policy has been to apply a reduced total dose of 39.6 Gy to uninvolved nodal regions. This paper provides preliminary results of the efficacy and safety of this protocol. Overall, 30 patients with histologically confirmed and node-negative anal cancer were treated in our department from 2009-2014 with definitive CRT. Histology all cases showed squamous cell carcinoma. A total dose of 39.6 Gy [single dose (SD) 1.8 Gy] was delivered to the iliac/inguinal lymph nodes. The area of the primary tumor received 50-59.4 Gy, depending on the T-stage. In parallel with the irradiation, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) at a dose of 1000 mg/m(2) was administered by continuous intravenous infusion over 24 h on days 1-4 and 29-32, and mitomycin C (MMC) at a dose of 10 mg/m(2) (maximum absolute dose 14 mg) was administered on days 1 and 29. The distribution of the tumor stages was as follows: T1, n = 8; T2, n = 17; T3 n = 3. Overall survival (OS), local control (LC) of the lymph nodes, colostomy-free survival (CFS), and acute and chronic toxicities were assessed. The median follow-up was 27.3 months (range 2.7-57.4 months). Three patients (10.0 %) died, 2 of cardiopulmonary diseases and one of liver failure, yielding a 3-year OS of 90.0 %. Two patients (6.7 %) relapsed early and received salvage colostomies, yielding a 3-year CFS of 93.3 %. No lymph node relapses were observed, giving a lymph node LC of 100 %. According to the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events Version 4.0 (CTCAE V. 4.0), there were no grade IV gastrointestinal or genitourinary acute toxicities. Seven patients showed acute grade III perineal skin toxicity. Acute grade III groin skin toxicity was not observed.","yes. The data show that there are regional differences in the intestinal response to irradiation, depending on whether it was delivered to the whole body or locally to the abdominopelvic region. In particular, the ileum exhibited an acute increase in myeloperoxidase activity following abdominopelvic but not total-body irradiation.","Based on the numbers of patients in our study, we could not demonstrate a survival advantage with radiation use. Rather, radiotherapy may be associated with orthopaedic complications occurring during and after treatment. Larger, prospective studies are necessary to definitively establish whether radiation is necessary for the treatment of patients with lymphoma of bone.","yes. The primary site and regional lymph node involvement are independent prognostic factors for early-stage ENKTCL treated with chemotherapy followed by definitive radiotherapy.","A proper and timely diagnosis of enteropathy-associated lymphoma requires clinical vigilance and unrelentless perseverance to obtain adequate fresh and frozen tissue for histochemical staining. Further research in a larger number of patients is warranted to investigate the relation between the primary site of the lymphoma, i.e. extranodal intestinal, extranodal extraintestinal, or nodal intestinal, and (its impact on) clinical presentation and prognosis.","IFRT based on CT scan in our patients resulted in a low rate of INF (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area; but another four supraclavicular nodal failures with simultaneously distant metastases were also observed. The modern imaging with higher diagnostic capabilities of lymph node especially for supraclavicular area should be incorporated in the assessment of LS-SCLC when IFRT is being contemplated.","The benefit of adjuvant therapy following resection of early stage, node-negative gastric adenocarcinoma following a margin negative (R0) resection is unclear. The National Cancer Data Base was used to identify patients with a T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma (tumor invasion into the muscularis propria) who underwent R0 resection. Patients treated with neoadjuvant therapy and those for whom lymph node count was unavailable were excluded from the analysis. Kaplan-Meier and Cox regression were used to evaluate differences in and predictors of overall survival. A total of 1687 patients underwent R0 resection for T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma between 2003-2011. Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment was administered to 7.1 and 14.1 % received adjuvant chemoradiation; 65.4 % had <15 lymph nodes examined. Multivariate Cox regression identified higher Charlson score, <15 lymph nodes examined, higher tumor grade, and tumor location in the cardia as factors associated with significantly decreased overall survival. With a median follow-up of 36 months, the 5-year overall survival was 71 % for patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined and 53 % for those with <15 lymph nodes (p < 0.001). In patients who had <15 lymph nodes examined, there was an overall survival benefit for adjuvant chemoradiation (hazard ratio 0.71, p = 0.043). In patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined, no survival benefit for adjuvant therapy was identified (p > 0.74).","yes. The majority of failures after definitive radiotherapy for cervical cancer include distant failures, even in the setting of concurrent chemotherapy. PMR within the cervix or lymph nodes is more commonly associated with isolated local recurrence.","Postoperative tumor-residual-mass is the most important prognostic factor in epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC). Aim of our study was to define risk factors for incomplete tumor resection in advanced primary EOC.PATIENTS & A validated intraoperative documentation tool (\"Intraoperative-Mapping of Ovarian-Cancer\" = \"IMO\") was applied to systematically evaluate intraabdominal tumor dissemination pattern, maximal tumor load, tumor residuals and operative morbidity for all EOC-patients who underwent primary surgery in our institution during 09/2000-08/2009. Univariate- and multivariate analysis were performed to identify independent risk factors of incomplete tumor resection and operative complications. We evaluated 360 consecutive EOC-patients of FIGO-stage-III/IV. In 221(61%) patients a complete tumor resection could be obtained. In 50(14%) patients tumor residuals were<0.5 cm. Sixty (17%) patients developed a major (14%) complication. Multivariate analysis identified intestinal resection (OR:2.0; 95%CI:1.14-3.4; p = 0.01) and macroscopical tumor residuals (OR:0.5; 95%CI:0.2-1.2; p = 0.05) as independent predictors of major operative morbidity. Tumor dissemination pattern and maximal tumor load were significantly different between tumor-free and not-tumor-free operated patients, with less extrapelvic tumor involvement in the tumor-free group (p<0.001). More than 4 IMO-fields of tumor involvement (OR:3.3; 95%CI:1.5-7.0; p = 0.002) were identified to be of predictive significance for incomplete tumor resection. FIGO-stage, histology, age, CA125-levels, bowel resection and ascites did not affect optimal tumor resectability.","Preoperative chemoradiotherapy can lead to pathologic complete response of rectal cancer. This study was designed to determine the relationship between postchemoradiotherapy pathologic T stage (ypT stage) and nodal metastases and to evaluate whether pathologic complete response of the primary tumor results in sterilization of mesorectal lymph nodes. Clinicopathological data from 1997 to 2007 of a prospectively maintained colorectal cancer database were examined. Inclusion criteria were patients with extraperitoneal rectal cancer who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and subsequent radical resection. Statistical analysis was performed by use of Kruskall-Wallis and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. Two hundred forty-two patients were identified (73.1% male, median age, 57 y (range, 36-85 y)). Data regarding preoperative chemoradiotherapy were available for 177 patients (73.1%). The median dose of radiotherapy was 5040 cGy (3060-6100 cGy). The mean preoperative radiotherapy dose and interval between chemoradiotherapy and surgery are similar when stratified by ypT stage (P = .55 and P = .72, respectively). Low anterior resection was performed in 174 patients (71.6%), and the remainder underwent abdominoperineal resection. A mural pathologic complete response was achieved in 62 patients (25.6%). In this pathologic complete-response group, positive lymph nodes were found in 2 patients (3.2%). The rate of metastatic lymph nodes increased as ypT stage increased (ypT1 = 11.1%, ypT2 = 29.2%, ypT3 = 37.3%).","Reduction of the irradiation dose to CT-enlarged but PET-negative inguinal lymph nodes in anal cancer seems not to result in increased failure rates.","yes. Carefully planned radiotherapy with lens shielding is an effective and safe treatment in the management of orbital lymphoma. We recommend megavoltage radiation doses of 30-35 Gy in 180-200 cGy fractions for low grade lesions, and 36-40 Gy for intermediate and high grade lesions.","There have been conflicting reports regarding the incidence of duodenal toxicity in patients receiving intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with an extended field covering the para-aortic (PA) lymph nodes for gynecologic cancers. We reviewed our experiences and rates of duodenal toxicity in patients treated with extended field IMRT. Patients with either cervical or endometrial cancer who were treated with IMRT to the PA nodes for involved lymph nodes or for prophylactic intent between 2005 and 2013 were included. For prophylactic intent, the radiation dose to the PA nodes was 45 Gy in 25 fractions. For involved lymph nodes, a boost was delivered to the gross disease with a 0.7-cm expansion, with editing for critical structures. The entire duodenum was retrospectively contoured on all patients from the gastric outlet to the jejunal transition. We identified 76 eligible patients with endometrial and cervical cancer. The PA region was treated prophylactically in 46.1% (n = 35) and for involved PA lymph nodes in 53.9% (n = 41). The duodenum was contoured on all patients with a median volume of 83.2 cm(3) (range, 21.2-174.9 cm(3)). The mean volume of duodenum receiving 55 Gy (V55) for those treated prophylactically and for involved PA nodes was 0 cm(3) and 0.8 cm(3) (range, 0-10.6 cm(3)), respectively (P = .014). Specifically, no patient had a V55>15 cm(3). The mean V40 was 28.3 cm(3) (range, 0-77.3 cm(3)) and 41.4 (range, 0-90.0 cm(3)), respectively (P = .016). The mean dose delivered to 2 cm(3) of the duodenum was 34.9 Gy (range, 0-52.3 Gy) and 50.1 Gy (range, 31.3 - 58.3 Gy), respectively. Grade 3 acute gastrointestinal toxicity was recorded in 3.9% (n = 3) of patients.","To determine the reliability of pretherapeutic laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy in cervical cancer as a function of lymph node recurrences according to initial lymph node status: 1) to establish the false negative rate by analyzing lymph node recurrence in patients N-, 2) to verify treatment adequacy in patients N+ by comparing the rate of node recurrence to initial node positivity. Retrospective analysis of a prospectively registered patient database. One hundred and ninety patients treated by a combination of radiotherapy and surgery for cervical cancer stages 1b to 2b in 95% of cases had undergone, from March 1992 to June 2003, a previous laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy. Median follow-up was 40 months (range: 3-126 months). Initial lymph node positivity (N+) was found in 79 patients (42%). Fourteen patients (7.4%) presented with lymph node recurrence, all of whom have died from disease. Lymph node recurrence was found in 4/111 patients N- (3.6%) and in 10/79 patients N+ (12.7%), of whom 8/10 occurred outside the radiation fields.","With 5cm supero-inferior margins added to gross tumour volume, less than 3% of patients had an isolated out-field recurrence. However, half of the patients suffered in-field local recurrence and one third had metastases. These findings advocate for a limited prophylactic nodal irradiation. Trials are ongoing to assess dose escalation or surgery in order to increase local control.","To describe the results of a series of 63 Western patients presenting with gastric adenocarcinoma and treated with surgery and intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) over a 8-year period and to discuss the role of IORT when combined with limited lymph node dissection. From 1986 to 1993, 63 patients with gastric adenocarcinoma have been operated in the department of radiation oncology of the Hospices Civils de Lyon. The stage was: I in 17, II in 11, IIIA in 9, IIIB in 20, and IV in 6. The lymph node dissection was considered to be limited in 56 patients and extended in 7. The IORT dose ranged from 12 to 23 Gy (median: 15). Thirty patients also underwent a postoperative external beam irradiation with a standard dose of 44-46 Gy. The postoperative mortality rate was 4.8%. The 5-year overall survival in the entire series was 47% and was 82, 55, 78, 20, and 0% in Stages I, II, IIIA, IIIB, and IV, respectively. Loco-regional relapse occurred in 15 of 63 patients and metastases in 15 of 63.","Primary gastric lymphoma (PGL) is the most common site of extra-nodal non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). In recent years there has been a move away from a surgical approach to primary chemotherapy with or without radiotherapy. Data support this approach, with overall survival rates equivalent or superior to surgery. Concerns have been raised over the incidence of acute chemotherapy complications, primarily gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage and perforation. As a result, several units, including our own, have routinely admitted all patients for observation during the commencement of therapy. We conducted an audit to elucidate the incidence and timing of such complications. We used our prospectively recorded lymphoma database to identify all patients with aggressive PGL treated with primary chemotherapy. We examined individual patient notes for the incidence of gastric perforation and GI haemorrhage, defined as a fall in haemoglobin of least 2 g/dl, or the occurrence of haematemesis or malaena. We identified 29 patients with aggressive PGL who received primary systemic chemotherapy. Of these, only two had acute complications, one with GI bleed and the other with perforation. Both events occurred after discharge following our standard inpatient admission period of 5 days (day 13 and day 17).","yes. The optimal choice of treatment for patients with early stage Hodgkin's disease--combined modality treatment/radiotherapy alone/chemotherapy alone?--and for patients with advanced stages--consolidation radiotherapy?--remains an unresolved issue and needs further testing in large randomized trials considering acute and late complications. Staging laparotomy may be used only for a small group of patients who would receive radiotherapy alone as definitive treatment. Modifications of therapy clearly reduce the impact of negative prognostic factors.","Results of treatment of patients with Stage I seminoma with orchiectomy and radiotherapy are excellent. Even without adjuvant radiotherapy, the relapse rate is only 15-20%; most of the patients fail in the retroperitoneum, with rare failures observed in the pelvis (0.5-2%). In 1991, we began a prospective study evaluating para-aortic lymph node radiation as the only adjuvant treatment for such patients. This paper reports our preliminary results. Between March 1991 and January 1996, 35 patients with histologically proven Stage I seminoma were entered in the study. Median age was 37.9 years (range: 27-65 years). A radical inguinal orchiectomy was performed in all patients. Staging workup consisted of a chest X-ray; B-HCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis in all patients. Lymphangiogram was done in 23 (66%) of 35 patients for further evaluation of the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Radiotherapy consisted of treatment to the para-aortic region only. Parallel opposed fields extending from the top of T11 to the bottom of L5 were used. The median field size was 8.7 x 21.8 cm (range: 7-11 x 18-26 cm). The median total dose, prescribed at midpoint, was 25 Gy given in 15 daily fractions of 1.66 Gy. Follow-up was performed every 3 months for the first year, every 4-5 months for the second and third years, and every 6 months thereafter. Chest X-ray, tumor markers, and CT scan of the pelvis were performed routinely as part of the follow-up investigation. At a median follow-up of 39.7 months (range: 16-74 months), 34 (97.1%) of 35 patients are alive with no evidence of disease for an overall actuarial survival rate of 97.1% at 5 years and a cause-specific actuarial survival rate of 100%. Treatment morbidity was limited to Grade I-II acute side effects in 18 (51.4%) of 35 patients. No late side effects were seen.","yes. We observed only a 4.3% recurrence of any ENF and a 1.7% recurrence of isolated ENF in patients with NSCLC treated with definitive 3D-CRT without prophylactic irradiation of uninvolved lymph node stations. Thus, distant metastasis and IFF remain the primary causes of treatment failure and cancer death in such patients, suggesting little value of ENI in this cohort.","To evaluate the impact of preoperative radiation on pouch outcomes in patients with colitis-associated cancer (CAC). CAC patients who underwent restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) from 1984 to 2009 were identified from our registry. The impact of preoperative pelvic radiation for CAC or other pelvic cancer on pouch related outcomes was evaluated. Sixty-three pouch patients with confirmed CAC were included (37 male, 58.7%). The mean age at pouch construction was 46.9±10.6 years. Seven patients were excluded due to the presence of persistent diverting ileostomy (n=2) or no follow-up (n=5). The remaining 56 patients were analyzed, including 9 who received pelvic radiation prior to IPAA creation for CRC or other cancers. Preoperative pelvic radiation was significantly associated with chronic pouchitis (P=0.024). There was, however, no correlation between pelvic radiation and pouch/anal transitional zone neoplasia, pouch stricture, pelvic abscess and pouch fistula/sinus. Pouch failure occurred in 13 patients after a median follow-up of 66.4 (range: 2.7-322.2) months. Although a simple statistical analysis based on the number of patients with pouch failure did not achieve significance (4/9 vs. 9/47, P=0.19), Kaplan-Meier analysis showed a strong association between preoperative pelvic radiation and the risk for pouch failure (P<0.001). A subgroup analysis of rectal cancer patients revealed that 3/7 patients (42.9%) with radiation and 3/17 (17.6%) without had pouch failure (P=0.31). Again, the association between pelvic radiation and pouch failure was confirmed using Kaplan-Meier analysis (P=0.02).","no. No associated survival benefit for surgery in the treatment in gastrointestinal lymphoma was observed. Determination of lymphoma should preclude surgical resection. Nonetheless, inadvertent extirpative surgery or in association with perforation does not appear to increase mortality.","Local-regional failure was seen most in patients who had gross disease at the time of IMRT, almost always occurred outside of the 70 Gy volume and was frequently in the area of oesophageal sparing. Meticulous surgical dissection, especially in the perioesophageal region, should be prioritised to prevent long-term LRF.","To examine sites of initial recurrence in patients after resection of gastric and gastroesophageal junction Siewert II/III adenocarcinoma (GA). There are few recent studies on recurrence for Western patients following potentially curative resection of GA. A review of a prospectively maintained, single institution database was performed. Clinicopathologic factors, site(s) of initial recurrence, disease-free survival, and overall survival were examined. From January 2000 to June 2010, 957 patients underwent potentially curative resection for GA, 435 patients (46%) had recurrent disease, and complete data on recurrence site(s) could be obtained in 386 patients. Tumors were Lauren intestinal type in 206 (53%) and diffuse or mixed-type in 180 (47%). Median time to recurrence was 12 months and 75% of recurrences occurred within 2 years. There was a significant difference in pattern of initial recurrence between the intestinal and diffuse/mixed cohorts (P < 0.001). For intestinal tumors, distant metastasis was the most common site (54%), followed by locoregional (20%), peritoneal (15%), and multifocal (11%). For diffuse/mixed tumors, peritoneal recurrence was the most common (37%), followed by distant (32%), locoregional (22%), and multifocal (9%). On multivariate analysis, Lauren histologic type was the only significant factor that was associated with both peritoneal recurrence (diffuse, hazard ratio 2.22, confidence interval 1.38-3.94) and distant recurrence (intestinal, hazard ratio 1.888, confidence interval 1.202-2.966). After recurrence, median overall survival was only 8.4 months.","National guidelines endorse adjuvant chemotherapy ± radiotherapy (C ± RT) for early-stage gastric cancer (ESGC). Compliance with these guidelines and the specific impact of adjuvant C ± RT on overall survival (OS) in ESGC have not been extensively explored. The National Cancer Data Base was queried for stage IB-II gastric adenocarcinoma patients undergoing gastrectomy (1998-2011). Multivariable modeling identified factors associated with adjuvant C ± RT receipt and compared risk-adjusted OS by treatment type (i.e., adjuvant therapy versus surgery alone). Of 23,461 ESGC patients (1998-2011), 79.4 % and 20.6 % received surgery alone and adjuvant C ± RT (chemoradiotherapy 17.7 %; chemotherapy alone 2.9 %), respectively. Predictors of adjuvant C ± RT receipt included age <67 years, pathologic nodal positivity, and adequate lymph node staging (LNS; ≥15 nodes examined; all p < 0.001). Survival analyses included 15,748 patients (1998-2006); median, 1-, and 5-year survival were 63.5 months, 86.0 %, and 27.0 % respectively. Omission of adjuvant C ± RT conferred an increased hazard of risk-adjusted mortality in the overall cohort, and stage IB and II subgroups (all p ≤ 0.001). The benefit of adjuvant C ± RT was most pronounced in stage II and node-positive patients-regardless of LNS adequacy (all p < 0.001)-and inadequately staged IB patients (p = 0.003). While associated with a trend toward improved OS in node-negative patients overall (p = 0.051), adjuvant C ± RT did not improve OS if surgical LNS was adequate in this subgroup (p = 0.960).","Multiple population-based studies have suggested increasing omission of radiation therapy in favor of alternative treatment strategies in lymphomas, with an associated negative impact on survival. Radiation therapy has long been considered the standard management for many mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas. Thus, we aimed to evaluate patterns of treatment utilization and survival. A retrospective analysis based on the National Cancer Database was performed on 22,378 patients with splenic, nodal, or extranodal stage I-II marginal zone lymphoma diagnosed between 1998 and 2012. A logistic regression model was used to assess the association between sociodemographic, tumor, and treatment characteristics and the utilization of radiation therapy. Multivariate propensity score-adjusted Cox proportional hazards models were performed to identify factors independently associated with overall survival (OS). Of 22,378 patients, 82% had stage I disease, 77% had extranodal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, 5% had splenic marginal zone lymphoma, and 64% were older than 60 years. Radiation therapy utilization decreased from a peak of 39% in 2007 to 33% in 2011 (P < .001), with a corresponding significant increase in systemic therapy utilization. Radiation therapy was associated with a 5- and 10-year OS of 86.7% and 68.8% compared with 78.3% and 54.3% for no radiation therapy (P < .001). On multivariate propensity score-adjusted survival analysis, radiation therapy remained independently associated with improved OS (hazard of death, 0.75; 95% confidence interval, 0.65-0.85; P < .001).","Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma) is a distinct lymphoma with unique clinicopathologic features. We report the clinical outcome of stage I and II MALT lymphoma treated with involved field radiation therapy (RT). From 1989 to 2000, 103 patients with stage IE and IIE disease were referred. Their median age was 60 years, with a 2:1 female predominance. Presenting sites were stomach (17 patients), orbital adnexa (31 patients), salivary glands (24 patients), thyroid gland (13 patients), and other sites (18 patients). Ninety-three patients received RT--85 received RT alone, and eight received chemotherapy and RT--with a median dose of 30 Gy. The median follow-up time was 5.1 years. A complete response (CR) to RT alone was achieved in 84 of 85 patients. Among CR patients, 14 experienced relapse. Relapse sites were mostly contralateral paired-organ or distant MALT locations and, infrequently, lymph nodes. The crude local control rate with RT was 95.3% (81 of 85 patients). No relapses were observed in patients with stomach or thyroid lymphoma, whereas 14 of 63 patients (22%) experienced relapse in the other sites. The overall 5-year survival rate was 98%, and the disease-free survival rate was 77%. Transformed lymphoma was observed in 14% of patients (two of 14) experiencing relapse.","Chemoradiation is the standard of care for the treatment of anal canal cancer, with surgery reserved for salvage. For tumours with uninvolved inguinal nodes, it is standard to irradiate the inguinal nodes prophylactically, resulting in large field sizes, which contribute to acute and late toxicity. The aim of this single-centre retrospective study was to determine if, in selected cases, prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation could be avoided. Between August 1998 and August 2004, 30 patients with biopsy-proven squamous cell anal canal cancer were treated with chemoradiation using one phase of treatment throughout. A three-field beam arrangement was used without attempting to treat the draining inguinal lymph nodes prophylactically. The radiotherapy dose prescribed was 50Gy in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks. Concomitant chemotherapy was delivered with the radiation using mitomycin-C 7-12mg/m(2) on day 1 and protracted venous infusional 5-fluorouracil 200mg/m(2)/day throughout radiotherapy. All patients had clinically and radiologically uninvolved inguinal and pelvic nodes and all had primary lesions that were T3 or less. The median age at diagnosis was 65 years (range 41-84). The median follow-up was 41 months (range 24-113). The mean posterior field size was 14x15cm and the mean lateral field size was 12x15cm. All patients achieved a complete response. Ninety-four per cent of patients (28/30) were alive and disease free. The two patients who died did so of unrelated causes and were disease free at death. Four patients relapsed and all were salvaged with surgery; two for local disease requiring abdominoperineal resection, one with an inguinal nodal relapse requiring inguinofemoral block dissection and one for metastatic disease to the liver who underwent liver resection.","To show that radiotherapy (RT) dose to the noninvolved extended field (EF) can be reduced without loss of efficacy in patients with early-stage Hodgkin's disease (HD). During 1988 to 1994, pathologically staged patients with stage I or II disease who were without risk factors (large mediastinal mass, extranodal lesions, massive splenic disease, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, or three or more involved areas) were recruited from various centers. All patients received 40 Gy total fractionated dose to the involved field areas but were randomly assigned to receive either 40 Gy (arm A) or 30 Gy (arm B) total fractionated dose for the clinically noninvolved EF. No chemotherapy was given. RT films were prospectively reviewed for protocol violations and recurrences retrospectively related to the applied RT. Of 382 recruited patients, 376 were eligible for randomized comparison, 190 in arm A and 186 in arm B. Complete remission was attained in 98% of patients in each arm. With a median follow-up of 86 months, 7-year relapse-free survival (RFS) rates were 78% (arm A) and 83% (arm B) (P =.093). The upper 95% confidence limit for the possible inferiority of arm B in RFS was 4%. Corresponding overall survival rates were 91% (arm A) and 96% (arm B) (P =.16). The most common causes of death (n = 27) were cardiorespiratory disease/pulmonary embolisms (seven), second malignancy (six), and HD (five). Protocol violation was associated with significantly poorer RFS. Nonirradiated nodes were involved in 42 of 52 reviewed relapses, infield areas in 18, marginal areas in 17, and extranodal sites in 16.","To evaluate retrospectively the results of radiotherapy for 177 patients with stage I (n = 73 [41%]) and II (n = 104 [59%]) follicular small cleaved-cell and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) treated in the Department of Radiation Oncology, Stanford University between 1961 and 1994. Histology was follicular small cleaved-cell in 101 (57%) cases and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell in 76 (43%). Forty-five patients (25%) had staging laparotomy; 34 (19%) had extranodal involvement. All patients had received radiotherapy, either to one side of the diaphragm (involved or extended field) or to both sides (total lymphoid irradiation [TLI] or subtotal lymphoid irradiation [STLI]. Radiotherapy doses ranged from 35 to 50 Gy. The median follow-up duration was 7.7 years. The longest follow-up duration was 31 years. Actuarial survival rates at 5, 10, 15, and 20 years were 82%, 64%, 44%, and 35%, respectively. The median survival time was 13.8 years. At 5, 10, 15, and 20 years, 55%, 44%, 40%, and 37% of patients, respectively, were relapse-free. Only five of 47 patients who reached 10 years without relapse subsequently developed recurrence. Survival and freedom from relapse (FFR) were significantly worse for older patients. Relapse rates were lower following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or staging laparotomy. Univariate analysis showed that youth and staging laparotomy were associated with significantly better survival and that FFR was better following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or laparotomy.","This single-centre retrospective study supports the treatment for selected cases of anal canal cancer with smaller than standard radiation fields, avoiding prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation. Hopefully this will translate into reduced acute and late toxicity. In future studies we would suggest that consideration is given as to whether omission of prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation for early stage tumours should be explored.","yes. Although clinical guidelines endorse radiation therapy as the preferred initial therapy for early-stage nongastric and Helicobacter pylori-negative gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, radiation therapy is underused. Radiation therapy with or without systemic therapy was associated with a significant improvement in OS and should remain standard of care.","no. Inguinal nodal failure in rectal cancer patients with ACI treated with neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemoradiation is not high enough to justify routine elective groin irradiation.","To evaluate the impact of surgery on gastrointestinal lymphoma. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) database was queried from 1973 to 2005. A total of 17,222 cases of PGIL were identified. The overall incidence of PGIL was approximately 1.505 cases per 100,000. A significantly increasing incidence for PGIL was observed (APC = +4.67, P < 0.05). In the cases for which treatment data was available, resection occurred in roughly half of the patients. In univariate analysis, surgical extirpation did not improve survival (47 months vs. 76 months, P < 0.001), while radiation treatment improved median survival (77 months vs. 59 months, P < 0.001). Multivariate analysis revealed increasing age and male gender as independent predictors of decreased overall survival. Tumor location also was a significant predictor of outcome. Large B-cell lymphoma type PGIL had a poorer prognosis than marginal zone B-cell lymphoma. By multivariate analysis, surgery was not found to increase the risk of death (HR = 0.99).","General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary.","To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%)."],"string":"[\n \"In a retrospective study, the efficacy of radiotherapy alone was compared with combined modality treatment in patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). Between 1980 and 1994, 296 patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of intermediate or high grade malignancy (according to the Working Formulation) were treated in four different institutions. All patients were included except patients that presented with NHLs localized in the central nervous system, testis or skin. Two hundred two patients were treated with radiation therapy alone and 94 patients were treated with combined modality treatment. Increasing age and radiation as a single treatment (versus combined modality treatment) were highly significant adverse prognostic factors by multivariate analysis. The actuarial 10-year rates for progression-free and overall survival were 83 and 70%, respectively, for the patients treated with combined modality treatment and 47 and 43%, respectively, for the patients treated with radiation therapy alone.\",\n \"Peritoneal dissemination of appendiceal malignancy combined with regional lymph node metastasis is an unusual combination of patterns of cancer dissemination. A database of 501 appendiceal malignancy patients, all with documented peritoneal seeding, was used to identify 25 patients with involvement of the regional lymph nodes. All patients were uniformly treated with cytoreductive surgery plus perioperative intraperitoneal chemotherapy with mitomycin C and 5-fluorouracil. The clinical and pathologic features of the lymph node-positive patients were compared with those of the lymph node-negative patients. The effect of regional lymph node involvement on survival was determined. Within the group of lymph node-positive patients, clinical and pathologic features were tested for their effect on survival. When compared with patients with no apparent lymph node positivity, patients with positive lymph nodes were more likely to have an acute abdomen as the initial presentation (P < .001). The intestinal (nonmucinous) histological type was more common (P < .001), and the disseminated peritoneal adenomucinosis histology was less common (P < .001). Survival with the aggressive treatment strategy used in these patients was not different for lymph node-positive as compared with lymph node-negative patients (P = .15 by univariate and P = .38 by multivariate analysis).\",\n \"In conclusion, our study showed that prophylactic therapy with 4,000 IU/day LMWH was not completely effective for the prevention of postoperative DVT in patients with CD, and even less so in those with UC. In these patients, a more tailored prophylactic therapy should be considered, and further randomized controlled trials testing the effectiveness of different prophylactic protocols would be advisable. Furthermore, aCL IgM serum levels might be helpful in identifying IBD patients who are at higher risk of postoperative DVT.\",\n \"In colorectal surgery UICC/AJCC criteria require a yield of 12 or more locoregional lymph nodes for adequate staging. Neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy for rectal carcinoma reduces the number of lymph nodes in the resection specimen; the prognostic impact of this reduced lymph node yield has not been determined. One hundred two patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy were compared with 114 patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving primary surgery followed by adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Total lymph node yield and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes were determined and correlated with survival. After neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy both total lymph node yield (12.9 vs. 21.4, p < 0.0001) and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes (1.0 vs. 2.3, p = 0.014) were significantly lower than after primary surgery plus adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Reduced total lymph node yield in neoadjuvantly treated patients had no prognostic impact, with overall survival of patients with 12 or more lymph nodes the same as that of patients with less than 12 lymph nodes. Overall survival of neoadjuvantly treated patients was significantly influenced by the number of tumor-positive lymph nodes with 5-year-survival rates of 88, 63, and 39% for 0, 1-3, and more than 3 positive lymph nodes (p < 0.0001).\",\n \"The low IGN recurrence rate even with ACI and the feasibility of salvage of isolated IGN recurrence indicated that routine elective IGN irradiation is not necessary for rectal cancer with ACI.\",\n \"To determine whether intra-operative radiation therapy (IORT) at the time of pelvic exenteration (PE) or laterally extended endopelvic resection (LEER) improves progression-free survival (PFS) in patients with recurrent, previously irradiated gynecologic cancers. We conducted a single institution retrospective review of patients who had undergone a complete PE for locally recurrent gynecologic cancer. Demographic and clinicopathologic data were collected. 32 patients were identified (2000-2012); 21 (66%) cervical cancer, 8 (25%) vaginal, and 3 (9%) vulvar cancer. All patients were previously irradiated. Twenty-one (66%) received IORT. Mean age was 51. Eight patients had a LEER, all with IORT. Median PFS and OS, respectively, for those with PE alone was 33 and 41 vs. 10 and 10 months for PE+IORT compared to 9 and 17 months for LEER+IORT (P=.04). Increasing tumor size negatively impacted PFS (hazard ratio 1.3; 95%CI 1.12-1.52). Margin status was not associated with survival. No patients undergoing LEER+IORT recurred only locally whereas 62% recurred with a distant component (+/- local). Patients with PE alone had mainly local (36%) and few (9%) distant recurrences compared to 31% local and 38% distant (+/- local) recurrences for those with PE+IORT.\",\n \"Little is known about the effect of lateral pelvic node dissection after preoperative chemoradiotherapy on rectal cancer patients with initially suspected lateral pelvic nodes. The purpose of this study was to identify a subgroup of patients receiving preoperative chemoradiotherapy who can benefit from lateral pelvic node dissection. The study included 580 patients who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and total mesorectal excision. The lateral pelvic node responses to preoperative chemoradiotherapy were divided: group I (no suspected lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node<5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy; group II (responsive lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre-chemoradiotherapy but<5 mm post-chemoradiotherapy; and group III (persistent lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy. Prognostic factors for lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival were analyzed. In a multivariate analysis, lateral pelvic node response was an independent factor associated with lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival (P<.05). Group III had significantly poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than groups II and I (74.1%, 93.4%, and 98.6%; 71.7%, 89.4%, and 97%; 56.9%, 76.6%, and 81.7%; 74.9%, 85.7%, and 89.1%, respectively; P<.05). Group II tended to have poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than group I, and the differences in relapse-free survival and overall survival between the 2 groups were not significant (P>.05).\",\n \"Because duodenal adenocarcinoma (DA) is relatively rare, few studies have investigated the impact of resection type on long-term outcomes. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database was used to identify all patients between 1988 and 2010 with DA. Patients were divided into two groups based on the type of surgery received: simple resection (SR), defined as a simple removal of the primary site, and radical resection (RR), defined as removal of the primary site with a resection in continuity with other organs. Differences in disease-specific survival (DSS) and overall survival (OS) were compared. Of the 1,611 patients included, 746 (46.3 %) underwent SR and 865 (53.7 %) underwent RR. As expected, patients undergoing RR were more likely to present with poorly differentiated and large tumors, as well as advanced stage disease. Despite greater lymph node (LN) retrieval (11.0 vs. 6.8; p < 0.0001), RR was not associated with improved survival (5-year DSS and OS rates of 52.8 and 41.3 % for SR vs. 48.8 and 37.6 % for RR; p > 0.05). On univariate Cox proportional hazards regression analysis, the type of surgery was not associated with OS (odds ratio [OR] 0.98; 95 % confidence interval [CI]0.87-1.11). Increasing TNM stages, tumor grade, fewer LNs removed, LN ratio, and absence of radiation were associated with worse survival. After controlling for confounding factors, type of surgery still did not influence OS (OR 1.11; 95 % CI 0.97-1.27).\",\n \"As a sole modality, preoperative radiation for rectal carcinoma achieves a local control comparable to that of postoperative radiation plus chemotherapy. Although the addition of chemotherapy to preoperative treatment improves the pathologic complete response rate, there is also a substantial increase in acute and perioperative morbidity. Identification of subsets of patients who are at low or high risk for recurrence can help to optimize treatment. During the period 1977-95, 384 patients received preoperative radiation therapy for localized adenocarcinoma of the rectum. Ages ranged from 19 to 97 years (mean 64.4), and there were 171 females. Preoperative treatment consisted of conventionally fractionated radiation to 3600-5040 cGy (median 4500 cGy) 6-8 weeks before surgery in 293 cases or low doses of <3000 cGy (median 2000 cGy) immediately before surgery in 91 cases. Concurrent preoperative chemotherapy was given to only 14 cases in this study period. Postoperative chemotherapy was delivered to 55 cases. Overall 93 patients have experienced recurrence (including 36 local failures). Local failures were scored if they occurred at any time, not just as first site of failure. For the group as a whole, the actuarial (Kaplan-Meier) freedom from relapse (FFR) and local control (LC) were 74% and 90% respectively at 5 years. Univariate analysis of clinical characteristics demonstrated a significant (p < 0.05) adverse effect on both LC and FFR for the following four clinical factors: (1) location <5 cm from the verge, (2) circumferential lesion, (3) near obstruction, (4) tethered or fixed tumor. Size, grade, age, gender, ultrasound stage, CEA, radiation dose, and the use of chemotherapy were not associated with outcome. Background of the surgeon was significantly associated with outcome, colorectal specialists achieving better results than nonspecialist surgeons. We assigned a clinical score of 0 to 2 on the basis of how many of the above four adverse clinical factors were present: 0 for none, 1 for one or two, 2 for three or four. This sorted outcome highly significantly (p < or = 0.002, Tarone Ware), with 5-year LC/FFR of 98%/85% (score 0), 90%/72% (score 1), and 74%/58% (score 2). The scoring system sorts the data for both subgroups of surgeons; however, there are substantial differences in LC on the basis of the surgeon's experience. For colorectal specialists (251 cases), the 5-year LC is 100%, 94%, and 78% for scores of 0, 1, and 2, respectively (p = 0.004). For the more mixed group of nonspecialist surgeons (133 cases), LC is 98%, 80%, and 65% for scores of 0, 1, and 2 (p = 0.008). In multivariate analysis, the clinical score and surgeon's background retained independent predictive value, even when pathologic stage was included.\",\n \"Nuclear accidents and terrorism presents a serious threat for mass casualty. While bone-marrow transplantation might mitigate hematopoietic syndrome, currently there are no approved medical countermeasures to alleviate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome (RIGS), resulting from direct cytocidal effects on intestinal stem cells (ISC) and crypt stromal cells. We examined whether bone marrow-derived adherent stromal cell transplantation (BMSCT) could restitute irradiated intestinal stem cells niche and mitigate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome. Autologous bone marrow was cultured in mesenchymal basal medium and adherent cells were harvested for transplantation to C57Bl6 mice, 24 and 72 hours after lethal whole body irradiation (10.4 Gy) or abdominal irradiation (16-20 Gy) in a single fraction. Mesenchymal, endothelial and myeloid population were characterized by flow cytometry. Intestinal crypt regeneration and absorptive function was assessed by histopathology and xylose absorption assay, respectively. In contrast to 100% mortality in irradiated controls, BMSCT mitigated RIGS and rescued mice from radiation lethality after 18 Gy of abdominal irradiation or 10.4 Gy whole body irradiation with 100% survival (p<0.0007 and p<0.0009 respectively) beyond 25 days. Transplantation of enriched myeloid and non-myeloid fractions failed to improve survival. BMASCT induced ISC regeneration, restitution of the ISC niche and xylose absorption. Serum levels of intestinal radioprotective factors, such as, R-Spondin1, KGF, PDGF and FGF2, and anti-inflammatory cytokines were elevated, while inflammatory cytokines were down regulated.\",\n \"Locoregional recurrence remains low in breast cancer patients (one to three positive axillary lymph nodes +/- ECE) treated with surgery, adequate axillary dissection, and tangential field irradiation only. However, ECE is significantly linked to a considerable risk for subsequent distant failure.\",\n \"yes. From our preliminary results, adjuvant radiation treatment limited to the para-aortic lymph node region, without ipsilateral pelvic irradiation, appears to be adequate treatment for Stage I seminoma. Such an approach in our patients resulted in minimal toxicity and excellent disease-free survival.\",\n \"In the United States, early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) is defined as asymptomatic stage I/II non-bulky disease. European groups stratify patients to more intense treatment by considering additional unfavorable factors, such as age, number of nodal sites, sedimentation rate, extranodal disease, and elements of the international prognostic score for advanced HL. We sought to determine the prognostic significance of these factors in patients with early-stage disease treated at Stanford University Medical Center. This study was a retrospective analysis of 101 patients treated with abbreviated Stanford V chemotherapy (8 weeks) and 30-Gy (n=84 patients) or 20-Gy (n=17 patients) radiotherapy to involved sites. Outcomes were assessed after applying European risk factors. At a median follow-up of 8.5 years, freedom from progression (FFP) and overall survival (OS) rates were 94% and 97%, respectively. From 33% to 60% of our patients were unfavorable per European criteria (i.e., German Hodgkin Study Group [GHSG], n=55%; European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer, n=33%; and Groupe d'Etudes des Lymphomes de l'Adulte, n=61%). Differences in FFP rates between favorable and unfavorable patients were significant only for GHSG criteria (p=0.02) with there were no differences in OS rates for any criteria. Five of 6 patients who relapsed were successfully salvaged.\",\n \"To evaluate the results of postoperative radiotherapy in patients with extra-hepatic bile duct cancer (EHBDC) and identify the prognostic factors for local control and survival. Between January 2001 and December 2010, we retrospectively reviewed the cases of 70 patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection and received postoperative radiotherapy. The median radiation dose was 50.4 Gy (range, 41.4 to 54 Gy). The resection margin status was R0 in 30 patients (42.9%), R1 in 25 patients (35.7%), and R2 in 15 patients (21.4%). The 5-year rates of overall survival (OS), event-free survival (EFS), and locoregional control (LRC) for all patients were 42.9%, 38.3%, and 61.2%, respectively. The major pattern of failure was distant relapses (33 patients, 47.1%). A multivariate analysis showed that the postradiotherapy CA19-9 level, radiation dose (≥50 Gy), R2 resection margins, perineural invasion, and T stage were the significant prognostic factors for OS, EFS, and LRC. OS was not significantly different between the patients receiving R0 and R1 resections, but was significantly lower among those receiving R2 resection (54.6%, 56.1%, and 7.1% for R0, R1, and R2 resections, respectively).\",\n \"yes. Edge restenosis following gamma irradiation treatment of ISR is related to GM: a mismatch between the segment of artery injured during the primary catheter-based intervention and the length of the radiation source.\",\n \"The prediction of biologic behavior of poorly cohesive early gastric carcinoma (EGC) is an important issue in the selection of the treatment modality. To elucidate the risk factors for lymph node metastasis (LNM) of poorly cohesive EGC, we focused on the histologic purity of the poorly cohesive component and evaluated the impact of this factor on LNM. We divided poorly cohesive EGC into (1) pure signet ring cell (SRC) carcinoma, which was defined as composed only of signet ring cells or poorly cohesive cells and (2) mixed SRC carcinoma, defined as poorly cohesive carcinoma with minor tubular components. We reviewed the clinicopathologic features, including age, sex, location, size, depth, lymphovascular invasion (LVI), LNM, ulceration, and intestinal metaplasia between the two groups in a large series of poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC (n = 317). LNM was found in 58 cases (18.3 %). Mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (p < 0.001), larger tumor size (more than 2 cm) (p = 0.012), and the presence of LVI (p < 0.001) were associated with LNM. Pure SRC carcinomas accounted for 56.2 % (178/317) of the cases. Fourteen pure SRC carcinomas (7.8 %) showed LNM, whereas 44 mixed SRC carcinomas (31.9 %) exhibited LNM (p < 0.001). On multivariate logistic regression, the presence of LVI (odds ratio 6.737; 95 % confidence interval 2.714-16.720; p < 0.001) and mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (odds ratio 4.674; 95 % confidence interval 2.370-9.216; p < 0.001) were independent predictors of LNM in poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC.\",\n \"yes. Some patients with isolated inguinal lymph node metastasis show a good prognosis after lymph node excision and, therefore, should be treated surgically. Patients with metachronous metastases have a better prognosis than patients with synchronous ILN metastases. Nevertheless, assessment of additional patients for prognosis and treatment strategy is warranted.\",\n \"yes. A high SUV at baseline (18)F-FDG PET and a lower reduction in the SUV within 3 months after eradication therapy are associated with treatment failure in H. pylori-positive low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma patients undergoing eradication treatment.\",\n \"To examine the pattern of failures in patients with limited-stage small-cell lung cancer (LS-SCLC) treated with involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) and chemotherapy, with the aim of investigating the safety of IFRT. Two consecutive clinical phase II trials in patients with LS-SCLC conducted in our center from 1997 to 2010 were reviewed retrospectively. Both trials had the same inclusion criteria. All patients (n=108) received combined chemotherapy and thoracic radiotherapy. Only the primary tumor and involved lymphatic regions based on computed tomography (CT) scan were irradiated. Isolated nodal failure (INF) was defined as a failure in an initially uninvolved lymph node region in the absence of local recurrence or distant metastasis. With a median follow-up of 21 months, 78 patients experienced treatment failures. Out of 28 patients with local-regional recurrences, 16 in-field, 10 out-of-field, and 2 both in-field and out-of-field recurrences were observed. INF occurred in 5 patients (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area. Four patients developed simultaneously supraclavicular nodal failures and distant metastases. The median overall survival was 27 months (95% confidence interval, 24-30 months) and the median progression-free survival was 16 months (95% confidence interval, 12-21 months). For the 5 patients with INF, the median time to INF from the end of thoracic radiotherapy was 5 months (range, 1-18 months).\",\n \"This study reports 21 patients with Stage I-III low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who were treated with comprehensive lymphatic irradiation (CLI) at the University of Florida between 1966 and 1992. Sites clinically involved with disease were treated with 30 Gy, whereas clinically uninvolved sites were treated with 25 Gy. Median follow-up for the group was 14 years (24.5 years for Stage III patients). Overall absolute survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 34%. Cause-specific survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 56%. Freedom-from-relapse rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 75%, 58%, and 58%, with no relapses noted after 10 years. Bulky disease (>6 cm) was a significant indicator of poor prognosis for cause-specific survival (p = .01).\",\n \"Immunohistochemical profiles of esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma differ according to the presence or absence of Barrett's epithelium (BIM) and gastric intestinal metaplasia (GIM) in the fundus and antrum. Different lymphatic spreading has been demonstrated in esophageal adenocarcinoma. We investigated the correlation among the presence or absence of intestinal metaplasia in the esophagus and stomach and lymphatic metastases in patients who underwent radical surgery for esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma. The mucosa surrounding the adenocarcinoma and the gastric mucosa were analyzed. The BIM+ patients underwent subtotal esophagectomy and gastric pull up, and the BIM- patients underwent esophagectomy at the azygos vein, total gastrectomy, and esophagojejunostomy. The radical thoracic (station numbers 2, 3, 4R, 7, 8, and 9) and abdominal (station numbers 15 through 20) lymphadenectomy was identical in both procedures except for the greater curvature. One hundred ninety-four consecutive patients were collected in three major groups: BIM+/GIM-, 52 patients (26.8%); BIM-/GIM-, 90 patients (46.4%); BIM-/GIM+, 50 patients (25.8%). Two patients (1%) were BIM+/GIM+. A total of 6,010 lymph nodes were resected: 1,515 were recovered in BIM+, 1,587 in BIM-/GIM+, and 2,908 in BIM-/GIM- patients. The percentage of patients with pN+ stations 8 and 9 was higher in BIM+ (p=0.001), and the percentage of patients with pN+ perigastric stations was higher in BIM- (p=0.001). The BIM-/GIM- patients had a number of abdominal metastatic lymph nodes higher than did the BIM-/GIM+ patients (p=0.0001).\",\n \"Although use of lymphadenectomy for treatment of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is established, routine lymphadenectomy for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (ICC) remains controversial. We examined the factors predicting survival in patients after ICC resection and compared outcomes of patients with and without systematic hepatic pedicle lymph node dissection (LND). Data were retrospectively collected for 215 patients with ICC who underwent liver resection during the years 1995-2012. Patients were divided into those (n = 102; 47.4%) who received LND (LN [D]) and those (n = 113; 52.6%) who did not (LN [D0]). Demographic data were similar between the 2 groups except for presence of preoperative symptom (P = .019) and liver cirrhosis (P<.001), carbohydrate antigen 19-9 (P = .003), tumor location according to the hepatic lobe (P<.001), type of hepatectomy (P<.001), adjuvant treatment (P<.001), and postoperative complications (P = .028). Tumor recurrence at a distant site was observed in 102 patients (68.5%). LN metastasis was independently associated with risk of distant recurrence (P = .002). The LN (D) and LN (D0) groups did not differ in overall survival (P = .101) or disease-free survival (P = .111). Poorly differentiated histologic grade (P = .016) and LN metastasis (P<.001) was identified as an independent predictor of overall survival.\",\n \"yes. In patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection, a postoperative radiotherapy dose less than 50 Gy was suboptimal for OS and LRC. Higher radiation doses may be needed to obtain better LRC. Further investigation of novel therapy or palliative treatment should be considered for patients receiving R2 resection.\",\n \"No statistically significant differences in the relapse rates and survival times were found. Risk factors were equally distributed in both study groups except for clitoris involvement. The 5-year survival rates in both groups were similar to those reported in the literature for radical vulvectomy and inguinal lymph-node dissection (83-96%). Morbidity in our study was low. Although our data showed similar results in both groups, we are not recommending at this time to omit groin radiation in general, but it may be justified in low-risk cases.\",\n \"This study aimed to determine whether postoperative morbidity and mortality rates increased after preoperative chemoradiation in patients who underwent gastrectomy. The medical records of 7404 patients with gastric or gastroesophageal cancer seen from January 1995 to August 2012 were reviewed to identify patients who underwent gastrectomy. χ (2) and logistic regression analysis were used to determine differences in the 90-day postoperative morbidity and mortality rates of patients who underwent upfront surgery (SURG), preoperative chemotherapy (CHEMO), or preoperative chemoradiation (CHEMOXRT). Of the 500 patients included in this study, 200 underwent SURG, 65 had CHEMO, and 235 had CHEMOXRT. Respectively, 33, 43, and 58 % of these patients underwent total gastrectomy (p < 0.01). Resection of other organs was performed respectively in 19, 26, and 23 % of the patients (p = 0.37). Minor complications within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 1 or 2) occurred for 41 % of the SURG patients, 43 % of the CHEMO patients, and 45 % of the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.68). Major complications or death within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 3, 4, or 5) occurred for 21, 28, and 29 % of the patients, respectively (p = 0.15). The 90-day mortality (Clavien-Dindo 5) rates were 2 % for the SURG patients, 6 % for the CHEMO patients, and 3 % for the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.25). The median hospital stays were respectively 12, 12, and 13 days (p = 0.09). In the multivariate analysis, male sex, gastroesophageal junction cancer, total gastrectomy, and resection of other organs were associated with increased major morbidity and mortality rates, whereas preoperative therapy was not.\",\n \"Since D2 total gastrectomy carried an increased overall morbidity risk and did not improve survival in patients with intestinal or diffuse type carcinoma, it seems that with regard to luminal gastric resection, SG is the treatment of choice for carcinomas located in the distal third of the stomach. Whether extensive radical D2 lymphadenectomy should be routinely performed in addition to SG is still controversial.The spleen should be preserved in most cases.\",\n \"The purpose of our study was to determine the management and cancer outcome of incidental cancer-related findings reported on CT radiation treatment planning scans. We conducted a retrospective review of CT planning scans performed from 2004 to 2006 with diagnostic radiology reports. We previously found 45 (8%) cancer-related findings, defined as any previously unknown radiologic finding that could potentially change the staging or treatment of the cancer, in the 580 CT scans reviewed. This study further examines the cancer-related findings to identify their clinical significance, management, and cancer outcomes. Eight (18%) of the 45 cancer-related findings prompted additional imaging, with negative findings and no cancer failure at the site of the cancer-related findings. Three (7%) cancer-related findings resulted in changes in cancer management without further imaging, including initiating induction chemotherapy instead of localized radiation, increasing the radiation dose to identified lymphadenopathy, and changing the sequence of local management to initial surgery followed by radiation. Two of these findings had local recurrence at the site of cancer-related findings. The remaining 34 (76%) cancer-related findings did not result in any additional action. With a median follow-up of 17 months (range, 2-67 months) from CT, there was a similar failure rate at the site of cancer-related findings in the groups without (15%) and with (18%) additional action.\",\n \"Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) of bone is a rare musculoskeletal malignancy accounting for fewer than 7% of bone cancers. Traditionally, we have treated patients who have NHL of bone with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, but the role of radiotherapy in disease management and patient functional outcomes after treatment have not been well studied. We investigated the survival advantage of radiotherapy in a large cohort of patients with NHL of bone and assessed associated patient complications of radiotherapy.QUESTIONS/ The objective of this study was to compare patients treated for NHL of bone with and without radiation in terms of (1) overall survival; (2) pretreatment complications; (3) posttreatment complications; and (4) functional outcomes using the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) score. A retrospective analysis of all patients with biopsy-proven NHL of bone diagnosed at our institution between 1985 and 2013 was undertaken; 70 patients met our criteria for inclusion with minimum followup of 6 months (median, 55 months; range, 10-219 months). Overall survival at 5 and 10 years was estimated and compared between two groups of patients: one group treated with systemic therapy alone (chemotherapy, rituximab; 46 patients [66%]) and the other with combined modality therapy (systemic therapy and radiotherapy; 24 patients [34%]). During the period in question, indications for radiotherapy included bulky disease, an abbreviated course of systemic therapy, and an incomplete response to systemic therapy. Patients not meeting these criteria generally received systemic therapy alone. With the available sample size, it was estimated that a difference in survival of approximately 30% would have to be present for detection with 80% power (α = 0.05, β = 0.2, n = 70, Δ = 30%). Pretreatment and posttreatment complications occurring in both patient groups were retrospectively reviewed with special emphasis on fracture healing after treatment. MSTS scores were obtained for 45 patients with appendicular tumors at a median followup of 42 months (range, 10-215 months). With the data available, no difference in Kaplan-Meier survivorship was observed between patients treated with and without radiation at 5 years (98%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 93%-100% versus 95%; 95% CI, 85%-100%; p = 0.281). Patients who were treated with radiation were more likely to experience problems with fracture healing (relative risk [RR], 12.8; 95% CI, 1.8-89.8; p = 0.01). Similarly, patients treated with radiation were at a higher risk for fracture in the posttreatment period (five of 24 versus no radiation zero of 46; RR, 20.7; 95% CI, 1.2-359.0; p = 0.0375). MSTS scores were poorer in patients treated with radiation (75% versus 91%; p = 0.034) attributable in part to a higher incidence of bony complications in this group after treatment.\",\n \"Use of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND) in paratesticular rhabdomyosarcoma (PTRMS) is controversial and has changed over the past 2 decades. The Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study Group (IRSG) required ipsilateral RPLND (IRPLND) for all patients with PTRMS treated on IRS-III (1984-91), but changed to clinical evaluation of RPLNs using computerized tomography (CT) in IRS-IV (1991 through 1997). In IRS-IV, only those patients with identified lymph node involvement on CT required surgical evaluation of the RPLNs. Nodal radiation therapy was administered only to patients with RPLNs recognized as positive; such patients received more intensive chemotherapy as well. Thus, they compared the incidence of recognized RPLN involvement using these 2 different approaches. They then analyzed patient outcome to determine whether this change in management affected outcome. Eligible patients with group I or II PTRMS who were treated on IRS III (n = 100) or IRS IV (n = 134) were analyzed. Failure-free survival (FFS) and survival (S) rates were estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method and compared using the log-rank test. There was a significant change in the distribution of patients with group I versus II tumors from IRS-III to IRS-IV (group I, 68% in IRS-III versus 82% in IRS-IV). This was the result of decreased node recognition when CT was used to stage RPLNs in IRS-IV and was most notable for adolescents (>10 years of age). Overall, 3-year FFS was 92% for patients treated on IRS-III and 86% for those treated on IRS-IV (P =.10), whereas survival estimates were 96% and 92%, respectively (P =.30). Adolescents were at higher risk of RPLN relapse than were children (<10 years of age) and their FFS and survival were worse, regardless of IRS protocol. Furthermore, adolescents with recognized group II tumors experienced better 3-year FFS than those with group I tumors on IRS-IV (100% versus 68%, P =.06), most likely as a result of receiving radiotherapy and intensified chemotherapy.\",\n \"Category 1 guidelines emphasize multimodality therapy (MMT) for patients with gastric cardia cancer (GCC). These patients are often referred to thoracic surgeons for \\\"esophagogastric junction\\\" cancers rather than to abdominal surgeons for \\\"proximal gastric\\\" cancers. This study sought to determine the ideal surgical approach using national datasets evaluating morbidity/mortality (M/M) and overall survival (OS). Patients with resected GCC were identified from the 2005 to 2012 ACS-NSQIP dataset and the 1998 to 2010 SEER dataset. Multivariate 30-day M/M analyses were performed using NSQIP. Survival analyses were derived from SEER and stratified by surgical approach. There were 1,181 NSQIP patients with GCC included; 81.8% had esophagectomies and 18.1% had gastrectomies. Major postoperative M/M occurred in 33.2%/3.7% patients after gastrectomy vs 35.0%/2.4% after esophagectomy (p = 0.260). Although a major postoperative complication (odds ratio 12.8, p<0.001) was an independent predictor of mortality on multivariate analysis, surgical approach was not. Of the 3,815 SEER patients included, 71.1% had esophagectomies and 28.9% had gastrectomies. Radiation use (surrogate for MMT) was administered more often with esophagectomy vs gastrectomy (42.9% vs 29.6%, p<0.001). Unadjusted median overall survival (OS) favored esophagectomy (26.0 vs 21.0 months, p = 0.025). However, multivariate analysis confirmed age (hazard ratio [HR] 1.01), T/N stages (HR 1.12/1.91), and radiation use (HR 0.83, all p ≤ 0.018), but not surgical approach (HR 0.95, p = 0.259), as independent predictors of OS.\",\n \"For distant metastatic (M1) gastric adenocarcinoma, a policy to maximally avoid resection of the primary tumor is safe and efficacious. Cohort study. Academic tertiary care center. Sixty-seven (32%) of 211 consecutive patients with adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction had synchronous M1 disease on computed tomography or laparoscopy. Sixty-three patients with M1 disease were treated nonoperatively, and complete data sets were available for 40 men and 15 women (median age, 73 years). Pretreatment functional performance status was good in 67%. The primary tumor was at the gastroesophageal junction in 20% and was poorly differentiated in 60%. The M1 disease involved the peritoneum in 80% or was exclusively nonperitoneal in 20%. Systemic chemotherapy was administered to 67%. Incidence of subsequent invasive intervention for primary tumor-related complications and survival in 55 nonoperatively managed patients with M1 disease. Fourteen patients (25%) had intervention a median of 5 months after diagnosis. Eight patients had more than 1 intervention. Intervention was for gastric obstruction (20%), bleeding (7%), or perforation (2%). No patient underwent gastrectomy. Laparotomy was performed in 9%; the remainder had endoscopic or radiologic procedures or radiotherapy. There was no intervention-related mortality. Median survival was 7 months (95% confidence interval, 4-10 months). In Cox regression univariate analysis, good functional performance status, exclusively nonperitoneal metastasis, nonpoor differentiation, and chemotherapy predicted significantly longer survival; chemotherapy was the only independently significant predictive factor.\",\n \"To evaluate whether the ratio between the number of metastatic lymph nodes and the number of total removed lymph nodes (MLR) is related survival in patients with locally advanced (stage 3) gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy. We included 179 patients with locally advanced lymph node-positive gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy within this study. The cut-off values, area under curve (AUC), sensitivity, and specificity were calculated using the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve technique for MLR. The sensitivity and specificity of MLR for mortality were 71.54% and 51.79%, respectively, when the cutoff level was accepted as the ratio ≥ 0.3. The AUC for the predictive value of MLR with regard to mortality was 0.609 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.533-0.681, p: 0.0135). Overall survival rates were significantly lower in patients with high MLR than in those with low MLR (15 months vs. 35 months, p: 0.002, respectively). In multivariate analysis, overall survival rates were significantly associated with MLR status (low or high).\",\n \"The objective was to analyze locoregional (LR) failure patterns in patients with head-and-neck cancer (HNC) treated using intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) with whole salivary gland-sparing: parotid (PG), submandibular (SMG), and accessory salivary glands represented by the oral cavity (OC). Seventy consecutive patients with Stage I-II (23%) or III/IV (77%) HNC treated by definitive IMRT were included. For all LR failure patients, the FDG-PET and CT scans documenting recurrence were rigidly registered to the initial treatment planning CT. Failure volumes (Vf) were delineated based on clinical, radiological, and histological data. The percentage of Vf covered by 95% of the prescription isodose (Vf-V95) was analyzed. Failures were classified as \\\"in-field\\\" if Vf-V95 ≥ 95%, \\\"marginal\\\" if 20% < Vf-V95 < 95%, and \\\"out-of-field\\\" if Vf-V95 ≤20%. Correlation between Vf-V95 and mean doses (Dmean) in the PG, SMG, and OC was assessed using Spearman's rank-order correlation test. The salivary gland dose impact on the LR recurrence risk was assessed by Cox analysis. The median follow-up was 20 months (6-35). Contralateral and ipsilateral PGs were spared in 98% and 54% of patients, respectively, and contralateral and ipsilateral SMG in 26% and 7%, respectively. The OC was spared to a dose ≤40 Gy in 26 patients (37%). The 2-year LR control rate was 76.5%. One recurrence was \\\"marginal\\\", and 12 were \\\"in-field\\\". No recurrence was observed in vicinity of spared structures. Vf-V95 was not significantly correlated with Dmean in PG, SMG, and OC. The LR recurrence risk was not increased by lower Dmean in the salivary glands, but by T (p = 0.04) and N stages (p = 0.03).\",\n \"To date, no study has compared laparoscopy (LB) to percutaneous (PB) biopsy for the diagnosis of abdominal lymphoma. The objective of this study is to compare the success rate and safety profile of laparoscopic lymph node biopsy to the percutaneous approach in patients with intra-abdominal lymphadenopathy concerning for lymphoma. We performed a multi-institution, retrospective review of patients undergoing lymph node biopsy for suspected intra-abdominal lymphoma between 2005 and 2013. Our primary outcome was adequate tissue yield between the two techniques, both for histologic diagnosis and for ancillary studies such as flow cytometry. Secondary outcomes included 30-day morbidity, 30-day readmission rates, the need for additional lymph node biopsy procedures, and length of stay. All 34 of the LB patients had adequate specimen for histologic diagnosis compared to 92.3% of patients with a PB (p = 0.18). Significantly more patients in the LB group had sufficient tissue for ancillary studies when needed than in the PB group, 95.5 and 68.2%, respectively (p = 0.04). A second biopsy was pursued in 23.1% of failed PB patients, 0% with success on second attempt.\",\n \"To analyze the cause of GI symptoms after pelvic radiotherapy (RT) in a consecutive series of patients with symptoms beginning after RT. A striking lack of evidence is available concerning the optimal treatment for the 50% of patients who develop permanent changes in bowel habits affecting their quality of life after pelvic RT. As a result, in the UK, most such patients are never referred to a gastroenterologist. All diagnoses were prospectively recorded from a consecutive series of patients with symptoms that started after RT and who were referred during a 32-month period to a gastroenterology clinic. Patients either underwent direct access flexible sigmoidoscopy or were investigated in a standard manner by one gastroenterologist after first being seen in the clinic. A total of 265 patients referred from 15 institutions were investigated. They included 90 women (median age, 61.5 years; range, 22-84 years) and 175 men (median age, 70 years; range, 31-85 years). RT had been completed a median of 3 years (range, 0.1-34 years) before the study in the women and 2 years (range, 0-21 years) before in the men. Of the 265 patients, 171 had primary urologic, 78 gynecologic, and 16 GI tumors. The GI symptoms included rectal bleeding in 171, urgency in 82, frequency in 80, tenesmus, discomfort, or pain in 79, fecal incontinence in 79, change in bowel habit in 42, weight loss in 19, vomiting without other obstructive symptoms in 18, steatorrhea in 7, nocturnal defecation in 8, obstructive symptoms in 4, and other in 24. After investigation, significant neoplasia was found in 12%. One-third of all diagnoses were unrelated to the previous RT. More than one-half of the patients had at least two diagnoses. Many of the abnormalities diagnosed were readily treatable. The symptoms were generally unhelpful in predicting the diagnosis, with the exception of pain, which was associated with neoplasia (p<0.001).\",\n \"To evaluate whether varying degrees of seminomatous elements in the primary orchiectomy specimen would be predictive of patient morbidity during post-chemotherapy retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (PC-RPLND) since the desmoplastic reaction with seminoma is associated with increased intraoperative complexity. We retrospectively identified 127 patients who underwent PC-RPLND for residual retroperitoneal masses. Clinicodemographic, intraoperative, and 30 day postoperative outcomes were compared for patients with pure seminoma (SEM), mixed germ cell tumors (GCT) containing seminoma elements (NS+SEM), and tumors with no seminoma elements (NS). Multivariate logistic regression was used to determine independent predictors of intraoperative and postoperative 30 day complications. We excluded 19 patients who received chemotherapy prior to orchiectomy, 2 patients with primary extragonadal GCT, and 3 patients who underwent re-do RPLND, leaving 103 patients for analysis. Fourteen patients (13.6%) had SEM, 18 (17.5%) had NS+SEM, and 71 (68.9%) had only NS elements. SEM patients were older (p = 0.03), had more intraoperative blood loss (p = 0.03), and were more likely to have residual seminomatous components in their post-chemotherapy lymph node (LN) histology (p = 0.01). Percent seminoma in the orchiectomy specimen was an independent predictor of estimated blood loss>1.5 liters (odds ratio: 1.04, 95% confidence interval: 1.01-1.07; p = 0.013) after adjusting for age, stage, IGCCC risk category, preop chemotherapy, number and largest LN removed, need for vascular or adjacent organ resection (including nephrectomy), and LN histology.\",\n \"Low total lymphocyte count (TLC) and lymphocyte-to-neutrophil ratio have been found to be poor prognostic indicators in several different tumor types at various stages. Although immune-based therapies are under rapid development, it is not known whether baseline complete blood counts, particularly lymphocytes, are associated with the clinical outcomes of patients receiving immunotherapies. We performed a retrospective analysis of complete blood count for 59 patients enrolled onto a phase II trial evaluating the integration of an adjuvant immunotherapy-irradiated granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) secreting allogeneic pancreatic tumor vaccine (GVAX)-with standard chemoradiation. After adjusting for nodal status, individuals with a TLC of <1,500 cells/mm(3) (10 patients) had significantly higher risk, both in terms of overall survival (OS) [adjusted hazard ratio 2.63, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.22-5.67, p = 0.013] and progression-free survival (adjusted hazard ratio 3.07, 95 % CI 1.03-6.93, p = 0.003), compared to those with a TLC of ≤ 1,500 cells/mm(3) (49 patients). Adjuvant chemoradiation significantly reduced lymphocyte counts from baseline values. Patients with suppression of their lymphocytes to <500 cells/mm(3) after chemoradiation also had shorter disease-free and OS.\",\n \"Relative to combined breast and local lymph node irradiation, isolated breast irradiation does not appear to be associated with a higher risk of locoregional relapse or death among cN0 to cN2 breast cancer patients with pN0 status after NAC. These results need to be confirmed in a prospective study.\",\n \"Resection of distal pancreas and/or spleen plus total gastrectomy for advanced gastric cancer is associated to a greater number of isolated lymph nodes, but do not improve the survival of patients.\",\n \"To evaluate the inguinal nodal failure rate in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer with anal canal involvement (ACI) treated with pelvic chemoradiation without elective inguinal irradiation. From 1990 and 1998, 536 patients received preoperative or postoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer with curative intent; 186 patients had ACI (<4 cm from the anal verge on rigid proctoscopy). Two patients had positive inguinal nodes at presentation. Chemoradiation was delivered preoperatively (45 Gy in 25 fraction) or postoperatively (53 Gy in 29 fractions) with concurrent continuous infusion of 5-fluorouracil (300 mg/m2/d). The inguinal region was specifically irradiated in only 2 patients who had documented inguinal nodal disease. The median follow-up was 50 months. Only 6 of 184 ACI patients who had clinically negative inguinal nodes at presentation developed inguinal nodal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate 4%); 4 of the 6 cases were isolated. Two patients underwent successful salvage. Only 1 died of uncontrolled groin disease. Local control was achieved in both patients with inguinal nodal disease at presentation, but both died of metastatic disease. Only 3 patients with tumors >4 cm from the verge developed inguinal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate <1%).\",\n \"Extended chemoradiation therapy with additional chemotherapy cycles and 54 Gy of radiation may result in over 50% of sustained (>12 months) complete clinical response rates that may ultimately avoid radical rectal resection. Local failures occur more frequently during the initial 12 months of follow-up in up to 17% of cases, whereas late recurrences are less common but still possible, leading to 50% of patients who never required surgery. Strict follow-up may allow salvage therapy in the majority of these patients (see Video, Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/DCR/A113.).\",\n \"We analyzed whether axillary nodal irradiation could control clinically node-negative disease, including those patients with a positive sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), most of whom received regional nodal irradiation. We also evaluated toxicity profiles that resulted from nodal irradiation. From 1988 to 2011, 2107 patients with cT1-T2N0M0 breast cancer underwent breast conservation therapy in the absence of axillary dissection: nx group (n = 1548), without any axillary surgery; the sn(-) group (n = 518), with a negative SLNB; and sn(+) group (n = 104), with a positive SLNB. The median follow-up times were 88, 56, and 55 months for the nx, sn(-), and sn(+) groups, respectively. The nx group had more risk factors than did the other 2 groups in terms of age, grade, or T stage. Ninety-eight percent of the sn(-)group received only tangent irradiation, and 100% and 83% of the sn(+) and nx group, respectively, received additional regional nodal irradiation. The 5-year cumulative incidences of axillary failure and regional nodal failure were 34, 3, and 0 (2.7%, 0.7%, and 0%; P = .02, log-rank test) and 57, 4, and 0 (4.4, 1%, and 0; P = .04), respectively. Overall survival rates in 5 years were 96.4%, 98.9%, and 97.6% (P = .03), respectively. Symptomatic but transient radiation pneumonitis developed in 31, 16, and 6 (2.0%, 3.1%, and 5.7%). Mild arm edema was observed in 1, 4, and 0 (0.06%, 0.8%, and 0%) in the nx, sn(-), sn(+) groups, respectively.\",\n \"Malignant nodes in patients with localized esophageal adenocarcinoma (L-EAC) portend a poor prognosis. We assessed the correlation of the distribution of nodes with the outcome of patients undergoing chemoradiation/surgery (trimodality therapy). We studied 209 L-EAC patients who had confirmed or suspicious nodes at baseline staging. All patients received trimodality therapy and were grouped according to the nodal geography: above the diaphragm (AD), below the diaphragm (BD), or above and below the diaphragm (ABD). Survival estimates were calculated using the Kaplan-Meier method, and the outcomes of the groups were assessed by the log-rank test. Patients were primarily Caucasian (91%) and male (93%), with a baseline stage III L-EAC (89%). The median follow-up was 2.8 years (range, 0.4-11.7). Of the 209 patients, 35% (n = 73) had AD nodes, 20% (n = 41) had BD nodes, and 45% (n = 95) had ABD nodes. ABD patients had a 5-year overall survival rate of 33%, whereas this rate was 55% in AD patients and 60% in BD patients (p = 0.02). Patients with a higher histology grade were also at a higher risk of relapse and had a poor survival (p < 0.01 for both).\",\n \"A North American phase III trial has recently shown that postoperative chemoradiotherapy using the FUFOL Mayo Clinic regimen improves overall survival and relapse-free survival after surgical resection of gastric cancer. However, severe grade 3-4, hematologic and gastrointestinal toxicities were frequent. The aim of this retrospective and multicentric study was to determine the tolerance of a postoperative chemoradiotherapy regimen using LV5FU2 instead of the Mayo Clinic regimen. Twenty-three patients with resected adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction at high risk of recurrence were treated with LV5FU2 chemotherapy and radiotherapy (45 Gy in 25 fractions and 5 weeks) delivered to the tumor bed and regional nodes. Nineteen patients were treated with two to four cycles before radiotherapy, then three cycles during radiotherapy, and finally four cycles after radiotherapy; four patients were only given three cycles during radiotherapy. Of the 23 patients assigned to this protocol, 20 completed treatment (87%). There was only one interruption of treatment because of hematologic or gastrointestinal toxicity. Tolerance of LV5FU2 regimen associated with radiotherapy was excellent: one grade 3 or 4 gastrointestinal toxicity (4.3%), no toxic death, and only one grade 3 neutropenia (4.3%) were reported.\",\n \"yes. Reduced lymph node yield after preoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer does not indicate inadequate oncologic surgery. It may represent good treatment response and better prognosis, especially in patients with good pathologic tumor regression after chemoradiation.\",\n \"yes. The independent prognostic factors in the current study suggest that either the M. D. Anderson tumor score system or the IPI can be used to select which aggressive lymphoma patients are at high risk for disease recurrence based on their having more than two adverse factors and who consequently are candidates for more intensive frontline therapy. Involved-field radiotherapy should be considered in those patients with bulky lymphomas.\",\n \"Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) accounts for approximately 80-85% of all lung cancers, especially in patients 70 years old or more. In this study, we investigated the efficacy and safety of involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) for patients 70 years old or more with early stage NSCLC. We conducted a multicenter prospective study in elderly patients with NSCLC treated with intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT). From January 1999 to December 2001, 80 patients with medically inoperable or refused surgery early stage (I/II) NSCLC were eligible for toxicity and treatment response analysis. IMRT plans were designed to deliver 66.6 Gy to involved-field that included only the primary tumor and clinically enlarged lymph nodes using six equidistant coplanar 6-MV beams. Elective nodal failure (ENF) was defined as a recurrence in an initially uninvolved lymph node in the absence of local failure. The objective response rate of all patients was 88.6% with a median overall survival (OS) time of 38 months and the 1-, 2- and 5-year OS rates and local progression-free survival (LPFS) rates were 65.8%, 55.7%, 25.3% and 84.8%, 59.5%, 34.2%, respectively. The medians OS time for patients with gross tumor volume (GTV) >100.8 cm3 and GTV < or =100.8 cm3 were 13 and 50 months, respectively (p=0.0001). Only 29 patients (36.7%) with ENF were identified, with a median time to treatment failure of 55 months (range, 49-61 months) after treatment. There were no treatment-related deaths or grade 4 toxicity. Grade 3 toxicities were esophagitis (1.3%), radiation pneumonitis (3.8%) and hematological effects (2.5%).\",\n \"The objective of our study was to demonstrate differences in relapse rates, total survival times, and complication rates between inguinofemoral radiation and its absence in cases of invasive vulvar carcinoma without lymph node involvement (FIGO Stages T1, N0-1). From 1974 to 1990, 135 patients with invasive vulvar carcinoma in Stage T1 without clinical evidence of inguinal lymph node involvement underwent simple vulvectomy performed by hot-knife resection without lymphadenectomy. Although 65 patients (Group 1) received postoperative inguinofemoral radiation therapy, 70 patients (Group 2) did not, and none received local vulva irradiation. The 5-year survival rates were 93.7% in Group 1 and 91.4% in Group 2 (p = NS). Although clitoris involvement was significantly more prevalent in the irradiation group (p = 0.04), inguinal relapse was found less frequently in Group 1 (4.6% or 3 out of 65 patients) than in group 2 (10% or 7 out of 70 patients) (p = 0.32). The complication rates were, 7.7% in Group 1 and 2.9% in Group 2, 2.7% for vaginal stenosis (two patients in each group), 1.5% for inguinal pain (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for rectovaginal fistula (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for vulvar infection (one patient in Group 1).\",\n \"A subset of patients with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) with clinical stage I or IE at presentation is left without other NHL localizations following surgery performed for diagnostic histology, and thus without any target lesion to judge the immediate effectiveness of immediately applied additional treatment modalities. Since 1988 we have adopted in this single centre, prospective non-randomized study, a watch-and-wait policy for such patients, who in addition had to have non-bulky disease, normal LDH levels, no 'B' symptoms and no Burkitt, lymphoblastic and cutaneous T-cell histology. Up to 1993 we have observed 50 consecutive cases. Patients were regularly followed with the endpoint to determine the relapse-free interval and overall survival. NHL relapses were treated, either with locoregional radiotherapy, or with chemotherapy, or both. The median observation time is at the moment 53.5+ months (range 6-106+). The initial NHL localizations were: a solitary cervical or auxillary lymph node in 18 patients, inguinal or scarpal lymph node in eight, tonsil in 12 and skin/subcutis in 12 (B-cell NHL only for skin/subcutis). Nine patients had low, 15 intermediate, and 26 high-grade histology. Within the observation period NHL relapses occurred in 10/50 patients (20 per cent). At the moment 46/50 patients (92 per cent) are alive and NHL free. The estimated 9-year freedom from relapse is 79 per cent and overall survival 92 per cent, and for 41 patients with intermediate/high-grade histologies 80 per cent and 95 per cent respectively.\",\n \"Treatment results were reviewed in a retrospective analysis and compared with literature data. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse and overall survival were identified. We analyzed the history of 183 patients treated for Hodgkin's disease between 1977 and 1989 at the Department of Radiation Therapy at the University of Würzburg. There were 100 males and 83 females between 16 and 86 years of age. 70.5% of patients presented with early stage Hodgkin's disease (23.5% stage I and 47.0% stage II) and 29.5% had advanced stages (25.1% stage III and 4.4% stage IV). All patients were treated initially with radiotherapy, 114 had radiotherapy alone and 69 patients received combined modality treatment. Hundred and sixty-one patients (88.0%) reached a complete remission. Freedom from relapse was 73.7% at 5 years and 70.3% at 10 years for these patients, overall survival was 74.3% and 62.8% at 5 and 10 years for all patients. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse were stage IV, B symptoms, age greater than 35 years and more than 3 involved lymph node regions. These factors also were relevant for overall survival, in addition mixed cellularity or lymphocyte depleted subtype, high erythrocyte sedimentation rate, failure to achieve a complete remission following initial treatment and relapse of Hodgkin's disease were identified as negative prognostic factors. Laparotomy staged patients who received radiotherapy only for stage I and II Hodgkin's disease had better outcome than clinically staged patients. Our data suggest that adequate therapy is able to reduce the impact of unfavourable prognostic factors. The outcome for patients with bulky mediastinal disease was similar to that in patients without a mediastinal mass.\",\n \"To determine whether baseline hemoglobin level and radiation treatment interruptions predict for loco-regional failure after intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with concurrent chemotherapy for definitive treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN). This retrospective review identified 78 consecutive patients treated with definitive concurrent chemoradiation for SCCHN. Patients were treated with IMRT to 70 Gy in 35 daily fractions to the high-dose target volume and 56 Gy to the elective target volume. Median age of the cohort was 62 (37-81). Median follow-up was 12 months. Tumor sites included: oropharynx (54%), larynx (36%), oral cavity (5%), and hypopharynx (5%). Fifteen of 78 patients (19%) experienced loco-regional failure. These included: 6 primary site failures, 5 regional failures, and 4 failures in both the primary site and regional lymph nodes. All but one failure occurred in the high-dose target volume. Only duration of radiation treatment and baseline hemoglobin levels were significant predictors of local control. Loco-regional failure occurred in 6 of 13 patients (46%) with radiation treatment interruptions (>1 week) versus 9 of 65 patients (14%) completing radiation therapy without interruption (P = 0.0148). Loco-regional failure occurred in 7 of 19 patients (37%) whose pretreatment hemoglobin level was <12 g/dL compared with 8 of 59 patients (14%) with hemoglobin levels > or = 12 (P = 0.042).\",\n \"Surgery alone with adequate nodal evaluation may have a role in low-risk gastric cancer. To corroborate these findings, surgery with adequate lymphadenectomy alone (as treatment arm) deserves consideration in the design of gastric cancer trials to provide effective yet resource-conserving, rather than maximally tolerated, treatments.\",\n \"The objective of this study is to ascertain whether omission of lymphadenectomy is possible when endometrial cancer is considered low-risk based on intraoperative pathologic indicators. A total of 128 patients were deemed to be low-risk based on intraoperative evaluation, including frozen-section determination of grade and myometrial invasion. We divided these 128 patients into 2 groups, the total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO) with lymphadenectomy (LA group, n=68) and the TAH-BSO without lymphadenectomy (non-LA group, n=60) group. The only adjuvant treatment used was chemotherapy, and the decision to use chemotherapy was based on stage, grade, or lymphovascular space involvement. A retrospective review of the medical records was performed, and disease-free survival (DFS), overall survival (OS), operative time, estimated blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement, incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema and post-operative deep vein thrombosis were evaluated. The 5-year DFS and OS rates were 95.6% and 98.5% in the LA group, and 98.3% and 98.3% in the non-LA group, respectively, and were not significantly different. In the LA group, pelvic lymph node metastasis was observed in only 1 case. In the LA group, blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement and the incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema were significantly higher than those in the non-LA group.\",\n \"To describe the clinical presentation, treatment technique, outcome and complications in a large single institutional experience using radiotherapy for treatment of orbital lymphoma. Twenty-five patients with lymphoma of the orbit or ocular adnexa were treated with radiotherapy at Stanford University Medical Center during the fourteen year period, 1977-1991. Patients were staged using the Ann Arbor criteria with chest x-ray, computerized tomography of abdomen and orbits, lymphangiogram, and bone marrow biopsy. Patients with disease localized to the orbits as well as those with disseminated disease and symptomatic orbital lesions were treated. Thirty-one involved eyes were treated. Mean radiotherapy dose was 35.3 Gy, with a range of 28 Gy to 40.2 Gy. Lens protection was used in all cases. Two patients with diffuse large cell lymphoma also received chemotherapy as part of their initial treatment. Follow-up ranged from 10 months to 13 years, with a mean follow-up time of 4 years. Twenty patients had disease confined to one or both orbits (Stage I). One patient had a monoclonal atypical infiltrate, while the remainder had a histologic diagnosis of malignant lymphoma: diffuse small lymphocytic, 13; follicular mixed, 3; diffuse small cleaved, 3; diffuse large cell, 2; follicular small cleaved, 1; follicular and diffuse small cleaved, 1; undifferentiated, 1. Two local relapses occurred; the actuarial 5-year freedom from local relapse is 89%. Actuarial 5-year freedom from distant relapse, freedom from any relapse and overall survival are 77%, 70%, and 93%, respectively. Acute complications of treatment were mild. Late complications included transient cystoid macular edema (one patient), asymptomatic subcapsular and medial sector cataract formation (two patients), retinopathy (two patients), mild eyelid retraction (one patient), and dry eye with secondary conjunctivitis (one patient).\",\n \"To investigate whether a dose reduction to CT-enlarged but FDG-PET-negative (([(18)F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose positron emission tomography) inguinal lymph nodes in radiochemotherapy of anal cancer is safe. 39 sequential patients with anal cancer (mean age 59 years [range: 37-86 years], median follow-up 26 months [range: 3-51 months]) receiving pretherapeutic FDG-PET were included. All patients were treated with combined radiochemotherapy including elective radiation of the inguinal lymph nodes with 36 Gy. In case of involvement (FDG-PET positivity defined as normalized SUV [standard uptake value] above Delta>2.5 higher than blood pool), radiation dose was increased up to 50-54 Gy. Planning CT and PET results were compared for detectability and localization of lymph nodes. In addition, local control and freedom from metastases were analyzed regarding the lymph node status as determined by FDG-PET. In the planning CTs, a total of 162 inguinal lymph nodes were detected with 16 in nine patients being suspicious. Only three of these lymph nodes in three patients were PET-positive receiving 50.4-54 Gy, whereas all other patients only received elective inguinal nodal irradiation. No recurrence in inguinal lymph nodes occurred, especially not in patients with CT-enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and elective irradiation only. Patients with PET-positive nodal disease had a higher risk of developing distant metastases (p = 0.045).\",\n \"In comparison with historical controls, postoperative tumor bed irradiation improves local control for some subsets of patients. In addition to standard 5-fluorouracil-based chemotherapy, adjuvant tumor bed irradiation should be considered when colon cancers invade adjoining structures, when they are complicated by perforation or fistulas, or when they are incompletely excised at the primary site.\",\n \"The objective of this study was to evaluate how the administration of different adjuvant therapies influences the risk for developing recurrences in the para-aortic area in endometrial cancer (EC) with positive pelvic and unknown para-aortic nodes. We retrospectively evaluated the data of 58 patients with EC affected by stage IIIC1 who had undergone pelvic but not para-aortic lymphadenectomy from January 1, 1990 to December 31, 2011. Survival outcomes within the first 5 years after surgery were assessed using the Kaplan-Meier model. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy, chemotherapy only, and external radiotherapy only were administered in 12 (23%), 18 (34%), and 23 (43%) patients, respectively. Five (9%) patients, who were selected to forego adjuvant therapy due to poor performance status, were excluded from the analysis. Disease-free and overall survivals assessed at 5 years were 54%, and 61%, respectively. All para-aortic recurrences were observed among the patients with endometrioid EC, whereas no cases of para-aortic recurrences were found in patients with nonendometrioid histology (5/36 (14%) vs 0/17 (0%); P = 0.16); the latter were more likely to develop distant (hematogenous, peritoneal, and distant lymphatic) recurrences (P = 0.09). Type of adjuvant therapy was the only factor influencing para-aortic failure: chemotherapy (± radiotherapy) reduced the rate of para-aortic node recurrence in comparison with pelvic radiotherapy as a sole modality (P = 0.01). However, adjuvant therapy did not influence the 5-year survival outcomes (P > 0.05).\",\n \"The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of primary extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and the prognostic factors of primary gastric diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (PG-DLBCL) differ in various studies. We retrospectively searched for PG-DLBCL in a single institution, performed immunohistochemical analysis, classified tumor phenotype (Hans and Muris algorithms), reviewed medical records, and analyzed the clinical and immunophenotypic variables using Cox proportional hazard regression model. A total of 46 cases were identified including 25 males and 21 females with a median age of 63.5; 18 (39%) were at stage I and 28 (61%) at stage II. Seven (15%) patients underwent surgery as initial treatment including total (n = 3, 7%) and subtotal (n = 4, 9%) gastrectomy. Thirty-three patients (72%) received frontline chemotherapy treatment including ten with additional rituximab (MabThera) injection, and two (6%) of these patients developed perforation after chemotherapy. Four patients passed away shortly after diagnosis and the remaining three were lost to follow-up. The overall 2- and 5- year survival rates were 55% and 50%, respectively. The expression of various differentiation markers was CD10 (25%), bcl-2 (50%), bcl-6 (84%), and MUM1 (64%). Half of the cases studied (22/44) were classified as germinal center B-cell (GCB) phenotype and the remaining half as non-GCB according to Hans algorithm; 66% and 34% cases belonged to groups 1 and 2, respectively, according to Muris algorithm. Univariate analysis showed the expression of bcl-6 by the tumor cells as a favorable factor, while elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level, bcl-2 expression, and Muris group 2 were associated with poorer outcome. Multivariate analysis revealed that the two prognostic factors were bcl-6 expression and elevated LDH level, with hazard ratios of 0.09 (p = 0.002) and 3.72 (p = 0.024), respectively.\",\n \"To evaluate volume effect of small bowel for diarrhea during pelvic irradiation in gynecologic patients with or without prior abdomen operation. From January 1996 through December 2003, 759 patients undergoing 4-field pelvic irradiation for cervical or uterine cancer were analyzed. Whole pelvic (WP), modified whole pelvic (MWP), or lower pelvic (LP) irradiation were delivered initially. According to contrast medium within small bowel in simulation films, we categorized the small-bowel volume of full dose related to WP fields as small-volume and large-volume groups. We recorded the severity of diarrhea until 39.6 Gy/22 fractions of pelvic irradiation. The actuarial rates of overall and moderate to severe diarrhea were compared among different groups. Significantly more large-volume distribution (85%) was noted in patients>60 years without prior operation (P<0.001). Large-volume distribution was 53%, 65%, and 82% in post-operative patients with no diarrhea, mild diarrhea, and moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.002), respectively. The corresponding rate was 79%, 77%, and 80% in patients without prior abdomen operation (P = 0.869). In multivariate analysis, prior operation with LP fields (P = 0.005) and prior operation with small volume (P = 0.031) were significantly protective factors for overall diarrhea. The latter was also a protective factor for moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.026). Prior operation could diminish overall diarrhea in patients without simultaneous large-field (WP or MWP) and large-volume. Large volume was a significant factor of overall (P = 0.014) and moderate to severe (P = 0.004) diarrhea in large-field patients with operation. The volume effect did not exist in those patients without operation.\",\n \"Both surgical and conservative treatment strategies offer an excellent outcome to patients with gastric lymphoma. No comparison of surgical resection with primary radiation or chemotherapy on a prospective randomised basis was available up to now. The aim of this study was to compare surgery with radiation and surgery plus chemotherapy with chemotherapy alone in patients with marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (MZBCL) of MALT and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), respectively, with respect to long-term outcome and quality of life. 49 patients [21 male and 28 female; age 65 (35 - 75) years] with newly diagnosed MZBCL of MALT (n = 19) and DLBCL (n = 30) of stage I and II were recruited. Outcome was evaluated after a follow-up of 74 (7 - 102) months and quality of life was measured using the SF-36 health survey and the gastrointestinal life quality index (GLQI). Complete remission rates in MZBCL of MALT were 88 % and 89 % in patients treated by surgery or radiotherapy, respectively. The corresponding rates for patients with DLBCL were 93 % following surgery plus chemotherapy and 92 % after chemotherapy alone, respectively. The results in the different treatment groups did not differ significantly. Posttherapeutic quality of life was generally high with a significant advantage for patients treated conservatively compared to those who underwent surgery.\",\n \"yes. Adequate lymph node dissection and pathologic staging is critical in directing optimal treatment of patients with early gastric cancer. Understaging as a result of suboptimal lymphadenectomy may explain the perceived benefit of adjuvant chemoradiation after an R0 resection for T2N0 gastric cancer.\",\n \"We implemented a peer review program that required presentation of all nonpalliative cases to a weekly peer review conference. The purpose of this review is to document compliance and determine how this program impacted care. A total of 2988 patients were eligible for peer review. Patient data were presented to a group of physicians, physicists, and dosimetrists, and the radiation therapy plan was reviewed. Details of changes made were documented within a quality assurance note dictated after discussion. Changes recommended by the peer review process were categorized as changes to radiation dose, target, or major changes. Breast cancer accounted for 47.9% of all cases, followed in frequency by head-and-neck (14.8%), gastrointestinal (9.9%), genitourinary (9.3%), and thoracic (6.7%) malignancies. Of the 2988 eligible patients, 158 (5.3%) were not presented for peer review. The number of missed presentations decreased over time; 2007, 8.2%; 2008, 5.7%; 2009, 3.8%; and 2010, 2.7% (P < .001). The reason for a missed presentation was unknown but varied by disease site and physician. Of the 2830 cases presented for peer review, a change was recommended in 346 cases (12.2%) and categorized as a dose change in 28.3%, a target change in 69.1%, and a major treatment change in 2.6%. When examined by year of treatment the number of changes recommended decreased over time: 2007, 16.5%; 2008, 11.5%; 2009, 12.5%; and 2010, 7.8% (P < .001). The number of changes recommended varied by disease site and physician. The head-and-neck, gynecologic, and gastrointestinal malignancies accounted for the majority of changes made.\",\n \"Chemoradiation (CRT) is the standard of care in patients with node-positive (cN+) and node-negative (cN0) anal cancer. Depending on the tumor size (T-stage), total doses of 50-60 Gray (Gy) in daily fractions of 1.8-2.0 Gy are usually applied to the tumor site. Inguinal and iliac lymph nodes usually receive a dose of ≥ 45 Gy. Since 2010, our policy has been to apply a reduced total dose of 39.6 Gy to uninvolved nodal regions. This paper provides preliminary results of the efficacy and safety of this protocol. Overall, 30 patients with histologically confirmed and node-negative anal cancer were treated in our department from 2009-2014 with definitive CRT. Histology all cases showed squamous cell carcinoma. A total dose of 39.6 Gy [single dose (SD) 1.8 Gy] was delivered to the iliac/inguinal lymph nodes. The area of the primary tumor received 50-59.4 Gy, depending on the T-stage. In parallel with the irradiation, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) at a dose of 1000 mg/m(2) was administered by continuous intravenous infusion over 24 h on days 1-4 and 29-32, and mitomycin C (MMC) at a dose of 10 mg/m(2) (maximum absolute dose 14 mg) was administered on days 1 and 29. The distribution of the tumor stages was as follows: T1, n = 8; T2, n = 17; T3 n = 3. Overall survival (OS), local control (LC) of the lymph nodes, colostomy-free survival (CFS), and acute and chronic toxicities were assessed. The median follow-up was 27.3 months (range 2.7-57.4 months). Three patients (10.0 %) died, 2 of cardiopulmonary diseases and one of liver failure, yielding a 3-year OS of 90.0 %. Two patients (6.7 %) relapsed early and received salvage colostomies, yielding a 3-year CFS of 93.3 %. No lymph node relapses were observed, giving a lymph node LC of 100 %. According to the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events Version 4.0 (CTCAE V. 4.0), there were no grade IV gastrointestinal or genitourinary acute toxicities. Seven patients showed acute grade III perineal skin toxicity. Acute grade III groin skin toxicity was not observed.\",\n \"yes. The data show that there are regional differences in the intestinal response to irradiation, depending on whether it was delivered to the whole body or locally to the abdominopelvic region. In particular, the ileum exhibited an acute increase in myeloperoxidase activity following abdominopelvic but not total-body irradiation.\",\n \"Based on the numbers of patients in our study, we could not demonstrate a survival advantage with radiation use. Rather, radiotherapy may be associated with orthopaedic complications occurring during and after treatment. Larger, prospective studies are necessary to definitively establish whether radiation is necessary for the treatment of patients with lymphoma of bone.\",\n \"yes. The primary site and regional lymph node involvement are independent prognostic factors for early-stage ENKTCL treated with chemotherapy followed by definitive radiotherapy.\",\n \"A proper and timely diagnosis of enteropathy-associated lymphoma requires clinical vigilance and unrelentless perseverance to obtain adequate fresh and frozen tissue for histochemical staining. Further research in a larger number of patients is warranted to investigate the relation between the primary site of the lymphoma, i.e. extranodal intestinal, extranodal extraintestinal, or nodal intestinal, and (its impact on) clinical presentation and prognosis.\",\n \"IFRT based on CT scan in our patients resulted in a low rate of INF (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area; but another four supraclavicular nodal failures with simultaneously distant metastases were also observed. The modern imaging with higher diagnostic capabilities of lymph node especially for supraclavicular area should be incorporated in the assessment of LS-SCLC when IFRT is being contemplated.\",\n \"The benefit of adjuvant therapy following resection of early stage, node-negative gastric adenocarcinoma following a margin negative (R0) resection is unclear. The National Cancer Data Base was used to identify patients with a T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma (tumor invasion into the muscularis propria) who underwent R0 resection. Patients treated with neoadjuvant therapy and those for whom lymph node count was unavailable were excluded from the analysis. Kaplan-Meier and Cox regression were used to evaluate differences in and predictors of overall survival. A total of 1687 patients underwent R0 resection for T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma between 2003-2011. Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment was administered to 7.1 and 14.1 % received adjuvant chemoradiation; 65.4 % had <15 lymph nodes examined. Multivariate Cox regression identified higher Charlson score, <15 lymph nodes examined, higher tumor grade, and tumor location in the cardia as factors associated with significantly decreased overall survival. With a median follow-up of 36 months, the 5-year overall survival was 71 % for patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined and 53 % for those with <15 lymph nodes (p < 0.001). In patients who had <15 lymph nodes examined, there was an overall survival benefit for adjuvant chemoradiation (hazard ratio 0.71, p = 0.043). In patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined, no survival benefit for adjuvant therapy was identified (p > 0.74).\",\n \"yes. The majority of failures after definitive radiotherapy for cervical cancer include distant failures, even in the setting of concurrent chemotherapy. PMR within the cervix or lymph nodes is more commonly associated with isolated local recurrence.\",\n \"Postoperative tumor-residual-mass is the most important prognostic factor in epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC). Aim of our study was to define risk factors for incomplete tumor resection in advanced primary EOC.PATIENTS & A validated intraoperative documentation tool (\\\"Intraoperative-Mapping of Ovarian-Cancer\\\" = \\\"IMO\\\") was applied to systematically evaluate intraabdominal tumor dissemination pattern, maximal tumor load, tumor residuals and operative morbidity for all EOC-patients who underwent primary surgery in our institution during 09/2000-08/2009. Univariate- and multivariate analysis were performed to identify independent risk factors of incomplete tumor resection and operative complications. We evaluated 360 consecutive EOC-patients of FIGO-stage-III/IV. In 221(61%) patients a complete tumor resection could be obtained. In 50(14%) patients tumor residuals were<0.5 cm. Sixty (17%) patients developed a major (14%) complication. Multivariate analysis identified intestinal resection (OR:2.0; 95%CI:1.14-3.4; p = 0.01) and macroscopical tumor residuals (OR:0.5; 95%CI:0.2-1.2; p = 0.05) as independent predictors of major operative morbidity. Tumor dissemination pattern and maximal tumor load were significantly different between tumor-free and not-tumor-free operated patients, with less extrapelvic tumor involvement in the tumor-free group (p<0.001). More than 4 IMO-fields of tumor involvement (OR:3.3; 95%CI:1.5-7.0; p = 0.002) were identified to be of predictive significance for incomplete tumor resection. FIGO-stage, histology, age, CA125-levels, bowel resection and ascites did not affect optimal tumor resectability.\",\n \"Preoperative chemoradiotherapy can lead to pathologic complete response of rectal cancer. This study was designed to determine the relationship between postchemoradiotherapy pathologic T stage (ypT stage) and nodal metastases and to evaluate whether pathologic complete response of the primary tumor results in sterilization of mesorectal lymph nodes. Clinicopathological data from 1997 to 2007 of a prospectively maintained colorectal cancer database were examined. Inclusion criteria were patients with extraperitoneal rectal cancer who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and subsequent radical resection. Statistical analysis was performed by use of Kruskall-Wallis and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. Two hundred forty-two patients were identified (73.1% male, median age, 57 y (range, 36-85 y)). Data regarding preoperative chemoradiotherapy were available for 177 patients (73.1%). The median dose of radiotherapy was 5040 cGy (3060-6100 cGy). The mean preoperative radiotherapy dose and interval between chemoradiotherapy and surgery are similar when stratified by ypT stage (P = .55 and P = .72, respectively). Low anterior resection was performed in 174 patients (71.6%), and the remainder underwent abdominoperineal resection. A mural pathologic complete response was achieved in 62 patients (25.6%). In this pathologic complete-response group, positive lymph nodes were found in 2 patients (3.2%). The rate of metastatic lymph nodes increased as ypT stage increased (ypT1 = 11.1%, ypT2 = 29.2%, ypT3 = 37.3%).\",\n \"Reduction of the irradiation dose to CT-enlarged but PET-negative inguinal lymph nodes in anal cancer seems not to result in increased failure rates.\",\n \"yes. Carefully planned radiotherapy with lens shielding is an effective and safe treatment in the management of orbital lymphoma. We recommend megavoltage radiation doses of 30-35 Gy in 180-200 cGy fractions for low grade lesions, and 36-40 Gy for intermediate and high grade lesions.\",\n \"There have been conflicting reports regarding the incidence of duodenal toxicity in patients receiving intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with an extended field covering the para-aortic (PA) lymph nodes for gynecologic cancers. We reviewed our experiences and rates of duodenal toxicity in patients treated with extended field IMRT. Patients with either cervical or endometrial cancer who were treated with IMRT to the PA nodes for involved lymph nodes or for prophylactic intent between 2005 and 2013 were included. For prophylactic intent, the radiation dose to the PA nodes was 45 Gy in 25 fractions. For involved lymph nodes, a boost was delivered to the gross disease with a 0.7-cm expansion, with editing for critical structures. The entire duodenum was retrospectively contoured on all patients from the gastric outlet to the jejunal transition. We identified 76 eligible patients with endometrial and cervical cancer. The PA region was treated prophylactically in 46.1% (n = 35) and for involved PA lymph nodes in 53.9% (n = 41). The duodenum was contoured on all patients with a median volume of 83.2 cm(3) (range, 21.2-174.9 cm(3)). The mean volume of duodenum receiving 55 Gy (V55) for those treated prophylactically and for involved PA nodes was 0 cm(3) and 0.8 cm(3) (range, 0-10.6 cm(3)), respectively (P = .014). Specifically, no patient had a V55>15 cm(3). The mean V40 was 28.3 cm(3) (range, 0-77.3 cm(3)) and 41.4 (range, 0-90.0 cm(3)), respectively (P = .016). The mean dose delivered to 2 cm(3) of the duodenum was 34.9 Gy (range, 0-52.3 Gy) and 50.1 Gy (range, 31.3 - 58.3 Gy), respectively. Grade 3 acute gastrointestinal toxicity was recorded in 3.9% (n = 3) of patients.\",\n \"To determine the reliability of pretherapeutic laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy in cervical cancer as a function of lymph node recurrences according to initial lymph node status: 1) to establish the false negative rate by analyzing lymph node recurrence in patients N-, 2) to verify treatment adequacy in patients N+ by comparing the rate of node recurrence to initial node positivity. Retrospective analysis of a prospectively registered patient database. One hundred and ninety patients treated by a combination of radiotherapy and surgery for cervical cancer stages 1b to 2b in 95% of cases had undergone, from March 1992 to June 2003, a previous laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy. Median follow-up was 40 months (range: 3-126 months). Initial lymph node positivity (N+) was found in 79 patients (42%). Fourteen patients (7.4%) presented with lymph node recurrence, all of whom have died from disease. Lymph node recurrence was found in 4/111 patients N- (3.6%) and in 10/79 patients N+ (12.7%), of whom 8/10 occurred outside the radiation fields.\",\n \"With 5cm supero-inferior margins added to gross tumour volume, less than 3% of patients had an isolated out-field recurrence. However, half of the patients suffered in-field local recurrence and one third had metastases. These findings advocate for a limited prophylactic nodal irradiation. Trials are ongoing to assess dose escalation or surgery in order to increase local control.\",\n \"To describe the results of a series of 63 Western patients presenting with gastric adenocarcinoma and treated with surgery and intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) over a 8-year period and to discuss the role of IORT when combined with limited lymph node dissection. From 1986 to 1993, 63 patients with gastric adenocarcinoma have been operated in the department of radiation oncology of the Hospices Civils de Lyon. The stage was: I in 17, II in 11, IIIA in 9, IIIB in 20, and IV in 6. The lymph node dissection was considered to be limited in 56 patients and extended in 7. The IORT dose ranged from 12 to 23 Gy (median: 15). Thirty patients also underwent a postoperative external beam irradiation with a standard dose of 44-46 Gy. The postoperative mortality rate was 4.8%. The 5-year overall survival in the entire series was 47% and was 82, 55, 78, 20, and 0% in Stages I, II, IIIA, IIIB, and IV, respectively. Loco-regional relapse occurred in 15 of 63 patients and metastases in 15 of 63.\",\n \"Primary gastric lymphoma (PGL) is the most common site of extra-nodal non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). In recent years there has been a move away from a surgical approach to primary chemotherapy with or without radiotherapy. Data support this approach, with overall survival rates equivalent or superior to surgery. Concerns have been raised over the incidence of acute chemotherapy complications, primarily gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage and perforation. As a result, several units, including our own, have routinely admitted all patients for observation during the commencement of therapy. We conducted an audit to elucidate the incidence and timing of such complications. We used our prospectively recorded lymphoma database to identify all patients with aggressive PGL treated with primary chemotherapy. We examined individual patient notes for the incidence of gastric perforation and GI haemorrhage, defined as a fall in haemoglobin of least 2 g/dl, or the occurrence of haematemesis or malaena. We identified 29 patients with aggressive PGL who received primary systemic chemotherapy. Of these, only two had acute complications, one with GI bleed and the other with perforation. Both events occurred after discharge following our standard inpatient admission period of 5 days (day 13 and day 17).\",\n \"yes. The optimal choice of treatment for patients with early stage Hodgkin's disease--combined modality treatment/radiotherapy alone/chemotherapy alone?--and for patients with advanced stages--consolidation radiotherapy?--remains an unresolved issue and needs further testing in large randomized trials considering acute and late complications. Staging laparotomy may be used only for a small group of patients who would receive radiotherapy alone as definitive treatment. Modifications of therapy clearly reduce the impact of negative prognostic factors.\",\n \"Results of treatment of patients with Stage I seminoma with orchiectomy and radiotherapy are excellent. Even without adjuvant radiotherapy, the relapse rate is only 15-20%; most of the patients fail in the retroperitoneum, with rare failures observed in the pelvis (0.5-2%). In 1991, we began a prospective study evaluating para-aortic lymph node radiation as the only adjuvant treatment for such patients. This paper reports our preliminary results. Between March 1991 and January 1996, 35 patients with histologically proven Stage I seminoma were entered in the study. Median age was 37.9 years (range: 27-65 years). A radical inguinal orchiectomy was performed in all patients. Staging workup consisted of a chest X-ray; B-HCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis in all patients. Lymphangiogram was done in 23 (66%) of 35 patients for further evaluation of the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Radiotherapy consisted of treatment to the para-aortic region only. Parallel opposed fields extending from the top of T11 to the bottom of L5 were used. The median field size was 8.7 x 21.8 cm (range: 7-11 x 18-26 cm). The median total dose, prescribed at midpoint, was 25 Gy given in 15 daily fractions of 1.66 Gy. Follow-up was performed every 3 months for the first year, every 4-5 months for the second and third years, and every 6 months thereafter. Chest X-ray, tumor markers, and CT scan of the pelvis were performed routinely as part of the follow-up investigation. At a median follow-up of 39.7 months (range: 16-74 months), 34 (97.1%) of 35 patients are alive with no evidence of disease for an overall actuarial survival rate of 97.1% at 5 years and a cause-specific actuarial survival rate of 100%. Treatment morbidity was limited to Grade I-II acute side effects in 18 (51.4%) of 35 patients. No late side effects were seen.\",\n \"yes. We observed only a 4.3% recurrence of any ENF and a 1.7% recurrence of isolated ENF in patients with NSCLC treated with definitive 3D-CRT without prophylactic irradiation of uninvolved lymph node stations. Thus, distant metastasis and IFF remain the primary causes of treatment failure and cancer death in such patients, suggesting little value of ENI in this cohort.\",\n \"To evaluate the impact of preoperative radiation on pouch outcomes in patients with colitis-associated cancer (CAC). CAC patients who underwent restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) from 1984 to 2009 were identified from our registry. The impact of preoperative pelvic radiation for CAC or other pelvic cancer on pouch related outcomes was evaluated. Sixty-three pouch patients with confirmed CAC were included (37 male, 58.7%). The mean age at pouch construction was 46.9±10.6 years. Seven patients were excluded due to the presence of persistent diverting ileostomy (n=2) or no follow-up (n=5). The remaining 56 patients were analyzed, including 9 who received pelvic radiation prior to IPAA creation for CRC or other cancers. Preoperative pelvic radiation was significantly associated with chronic pouchitis (P=0.024). There was, however, no correlation between pelvic radiation and pouch/anal transitional zone neoplasia, pouch stricture, pelvic abscess and pouch fistula/sinus. Pouch failure occurred in 13 patients after a median follow-up of 66.4 (range: 2.7-322.2) months. Although a simple statistical analysis based on the number of patients with pouch failure did not achieve significance (4/9 vs. 9/47, P=0.19), Kaplan-Meier analysis showed a strong association between preoperative pelvic radiation and the risk for pouch failure (P<0.001). A subgroup analysis of rectal cancer patients revealed that 3/7 patients (42.9%) with radiation and 3/17 (17.6%) without had pouch failure (P=0.31). Again, the association between pelvic radiation and pouch failure was confirmed using Kaplan-Meier analysis (P=0.02).\",\n \"no. No associated survival benefit for surgery in the treatment in gastrointestinal lymphoma was observed. Determination of lymphoma should preclude surgical resection. Nonetheless, inadvertent extirpative surgery or in association with perforation does not appear to increase mortality.\",\n \"Local-regional failure was seen most in patients who had gross disease at the time of IMRT, almost always occurred outside of the 70 Gy volume and was frequently in the area of oesophageal sparing. Meticulous surgical dissection, especially in the perioesophageal region, should be prioritised to prevent long-term LRF.\",\n \"To examine sites of initial recurrence in patients after resection of gastric and gastroesophageal junction Siewert II/III adenocarcinoma (GA). There are few recent studies on recurrence for Western patients following potentially curative resection of GA. A review of a prospectively maintained, single institution database was performed. Clinicopathologic factors, site(s) of initial recurrence, disease-free survival, and overall survival were examined. From January 2000 to June 2010, 957 patients underwent potentially curative resection for GA, 435 patients (46%) had recurrent disease, and complete data on recurrence site(s) could be obtained in 386 patients. Tumors were Lauren intestinal type in 206 (53%) and diffuse or mixed-type in 180 (47%). Median time to recurrence was 12 months and 75% of recurrences occurred within 2 years. There was a significant difference in pattern of initial recurrence between the intestinal and diffuse/mixed cohorts (P < 0.001). For intestinal tumors, distant metastasis was the most common site (54%), followed by locoregional (20%), peritoneal (15%), and multifocal (11%). For diffuse/mixed tumors, peritoneal recurrence was the most common (37%), followed by distant (32%), locoregional (22%), and multifocal (9%). On multivariate analysis, Lauren histologic type was the only significant factor that was associated with both peritoneal recurrence (diffuse, hazard ratio 2.22, confidence interval 1.38-3.94) and distant recurrence (intestinal, hazard ratio 1.888, confidence interval 1.202-2.966). After recurrence, median overall survival was only 8.4 months.\",\n \"National guidelines endorse adjuvant chemotherapy ± radiotherapy (C ± RT) for early-stage gastric cancer (ESGC). Compliance with these guidelines and the specific impact of adjuvant C ± RT on overall survival (OS) in ESGC have not been extensively explored. The National Cancer Data Base was queried for stage IB-II gastric adenocarcinoma patients undergoing gastrectomy (1998-2011). Multivariable modeling identified factors associated with adjuvant C ± RT receipt and compared risk-adjusted OS by treatment type (i.e., adjuvant therapy versus surgery alone). Of 23,461 ESGC patients (1998-2011), 79.4 % and 20.6 % received surgery alone and adjuvant C ± RT (chemoradiotherapy 17.7 %; chemotherapy alone 2.9 %), respectively. Predictors of adjuvant C ± RT receipt included age <67 years, pathologic nodal positivity, and adequate lymph node staging (LNS; ≥15 nodes examined; all p < 0.001). Survival analyses included 15,748 patients (1998-2006); median, 1-, and 5-year survival were 63.5 months, 86.0 %, and 27.0 % respectively. Omission of adjuvant C ± RT conferred an increased hazard of risk-adjusted mortality in the overall cohort, and stage IB and II subgroups (all p ≤ 0.001). The benefit of adjuvant C ± RT was most pronounced in stage II and node-positive patients-regardless of LNS adequacy (all p < 0.001)-and inadequately staged IB patients (p = 0.003). While associated with a trend toward improved OS in node-negative patients overall (p = 0.051), adjuvant C ± RT did not improve OS if surgical LNS was adequate in this subgroup (p = 0.960).\",\n \"Multiple population-based studies have suggested increasing omission of radiation therapy in favor of alternative treatment strategies in lymphomas, with an associated negative impact on survival. Radiation therapy has long been considered the standard management for many mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas. Thus, we aimed to evaluate patterns of treatment utilization and survival. A retrospective analysis based on the National Cancer Database was performed on 22,378 patients with splenic, nodal, or extranodal stage I-II marginal zone lymphoma diagnosed between 1998 and 2012. A logistic regression model was used to assess the association between sociodemographic, tumor, and treatment characteristics and the utilization of radiation therapy. Multivariate propensity score-adjusted Cox proportional hazards models were performed to identify factors independently associated with overall survival (OS). Of 22,378 patients, 82% had stage I disease, 77% had extranodal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, 5% had splenic marginal zone lymphoma, and 64% were older than 60 years. Radiation therapy utilization decreased from a peak of 39% in 2007 to 33% in 2011 (P < .001), with a corresponding significant increase in systemic therapy utilization. Radiation therapy was associated with a 5- and 10-year OS of 86.7% and 68.8% compared with 78.3% and 54.3% for no radiation therapy (P < .001). On multivariate propensity score-adjusted survival analysis, radiation therapy remained independently associated with improved OS (hazard of death, 0.75; 95% confidence interval, 0.65-0.85; P < .001).\",\n \"Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma) is a distinct lymphoma with unique clinicopathologic features. We report the clinical outcome of stage I and II MALT lymphoma treated with involved field radiation therapy (RT). From 1989 to 2000, 103 patients with stage IE and IIE disease were referred. Their median age was 60 years, with a 2:1 female predominance. Presenting sites were stomach (17 patients), orbital adnexa (31 patients), salivary glands (24 patients), thyroid gland (13 patients), and other sites (18 patients). Ninety-three patients received RT--85 received RT alone, and eight received chemotherapy and RT--with a median dose of 30 Gy. The median follow-up time was 5.1 years. A complete response (CR) to RT alone was achieved in 84 of 85 patients. Among CR patients, 14 experienced relapse. Relapse sites were mostly contralateral paired-organ or distant MALT locations and, infrequently, lymph nodes. The crude local control rate with RT was 95.3% (81 of 85 patients). No relapses were observed in patients with stomach or thyroid lymphoma, whereas 14 of 63 patients (22%) experienced relapse in the other sites. The overall 5-year survival rate was 98%, and the disease-free survival rate was 77%. Transformed lymphoma was observed in 14% of patients (two of 14) experiencing relapse.\",\n \"Chemoradiation is the standard of care for the treatment of anal canal cancer, with surgery reserved for salvage. For tumours with uninvolved inguinal nodes, it is standard to irradiate the inguinal nodes prophylactically, resulting in large field sizes, which contribute to acute and late toxicity. The aim of this single-centre retrospective study was to determine if, in selected cases, prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation could be avoided. Between August 1998 and August 2004, 30 patients with biopsy-proven squamous cell anal canal cancer were treated with chemoradiation using one phase of treatment throughout. A three-field beam arrangement was used without attempting to treat the draining inguinal lymph nodes prophylactically. The radiotherapy dose prescribed was 50Gy in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks. Concomitant chemotherapy was delivered with the radiation using mitomycin-C 7-12mg/m(2) on day 1 and protracted venous infusional 5-fluorouracil 200mg/m(2)/day throughout radiotherapy. All patients had clinically and radiologically uninvolved inguinal and pelvic nodes and all had primary lesions that were T3 or less. The median age at diagnosis was 65 years (range 41-84). The median follow-up was 41 months (range 24-113). The mean posterior field size was 14x15cm and the mean lateral field size was 12x15cm. All patients achieved a complete response. Ninety-four per cent of patients (28/30) were alive and disease free. The two patients who died did so of unrelated causes and were disease free at death. Four patients relapsed and all were salvaged with surgery; two for local disease requiring abdominoperineal resection, one with an inguinal nodal relapse requiring inguinofemoral block dissection and one for metastatic disease to the liver who underwent liver resection.\",\n \"To show that radiotherapy (RT) dose to the noninvolved extended field (EF) can be reduced without loss of efficacy in patients with early-stage Hodgkin's disease (HD). During 1988 to 1994, pathologically staged patients with stage I or II disease who were without risk factors (large mediastinal mass, extranodal lesions, massive splenic disease, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, or three or more involved areas) were recruited from various centers. All patients received 40 Gy total fractionated dose to the involved field areas but were randomly assigned to receive either 40 Gy (arm A) or 30 Gy (arm B) total fractionated dose for the clinically noninvolved EF. No chemotherapy was given. RT films were prospectively reviewed for protocol violations and recurrences retrospectively related to the applied RT. Of 382 recruited patients, 376 were eligible for randomized comparison, 190 in arm A and 186 in arm B. Complete remission was attained in 98% of patients in each arm. With a median follow-up of 86 months, 7-year relapse-free survival (RFS) rates were 78% (arm A) and 83% (arm B) (P =.093). The upper 95% confidence limit for the possible inferiority of arm B in RFS was 4%. Corresponding overall survival rates were 91% (arm A) and 96% (arm B) (P =.16). The most common causes of death (n = 27) were cardiorespiratory disease/pulmonary embolisms (seven), second malignancy (six), and HD (five). Protocol violation was associated with significantly poorer RFS. Nonirradiated nodes were involved in 42 of 52 reviewed relapses, infield areas in 18, marginal areas in 17, and extranodal sites in 16.\",\n \"To evaluate retrospectively the results of radiotherapy for 177 patients with stage I (n = 73 [41%]) and II (n = 104 [59%]) follicular small cleaved-cell and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) treated in the Department of Radiation Oncology, Stanford University between 1961 and 1994. Histology was follicular small cleaved-cell in 101 (57%) cases and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell in 76 (43%). Forty-five patients (25%) had staging laparotomy; 34 (19%) had extranodal involvement. All patients had received radiotherapy, either to one side of the diaphragm (involved or extended field) or to both sides (total lymphoid irradiation [TLI] or subtotal lymphoid irradiation [STLI]. Radiotherapy doses ranged from 35 to 50 Gy. The median follow-up duration was 7.7 years. The longest follow-up duration was 31 years. Actuarial survival rates at 5, 10, 15, and 20 years were 82%, 64%, 44%, and 35%, respectively. The median survival time was 13.8 years. At 5, 10, 15, and 20 years, 55%, 44%, 40%, and 37% of patients, respectively, were relapse-free. Only five of 47 patients who reached 10 years without relapse subsequently developed recurrence. Survival and freedom from relapse (FFR) were significantly worse for older patients. Relapse rates were lower following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or staging laparotomy. Univariate analysis showed that youth and staging laparotomy were associated with significantly better survival and that FFR was better following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or laparotomy.\",\n \"This single-centre retrospective study supports the treatment for selected cases of anal canal cancer with smaller than standard radiation fields, avoiding prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation. Hopefully this will translate into reduced acute and late toxicity. In future studies we would suggest that consideration is given as to whether omission of prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation for early stage tumours should be explored.\",\n \"yes. Although clinical guidelines endorse radiation therapy as the preferred initial therapy for early-stage nongastric and Helicobacter pylori-negative gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, radiation therapy is underused. Radiation therapy with or without systemic therapy was associated with a significant improvement in OS and should remain standard of care.\",\n \"no. Inguinal nodal failure in rectal cancer patients with ACI treated with neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemoradiation is not high enough to justify routine elective groin irradiation.\",\n \"To evaluate the impact of surgery on gastrointestinal lymphoma. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) database was queried from 1973 to 2005. A total of 17,222 cases of PGIL were identified. The overall incidence of PGIL was approximately 1.505 cases per 100,000. A significantly increasing incidence for PGIL was observed (APC = +4.67, P < 0.05). In the cases for which treatment data was available, resection occurred in roughly half of the patients. In univariate analysis, surgical extirpation did not improve survival (47 months vs. 76 months, P < 0.001), while radiation treatment improved median survival (77 months vs. 59 months, P < 0.001). Multivariate analysis revealed increasing age and male gender as independent predictors of decreased overall survival. Tumor location also was a significant predictor of outcome. Large B-cell lymphoma type PGIL had a poorer prognosis than marginal zone B-cell lymphoma. By multivariate analysis, surgery was not found to increase the risk of death (HR = 0.99).\",\n \"General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary.\",\n \"To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%).\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":475,"string":"475"}}},{"rowIdx":273187,"cells":{"query":{"kind":"string","value":"Loco-regional block in ophthalmic surgery: single drug or drug combination with hyaluronidase?"},"positive":{"kind":"list like","value":["The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia.","Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects."],"string":"[\n \"The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia.\",\n \"Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects.\"\n]"},"negative":{"kind":"list like","value":["IVRA with lidocaine and with the inclusion of ketorolac and dexamethasone provides effective perioperative analgesia for patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery, when compared to the use of lidocaine alone or lidocaine with ketorolac IVRA.","Arthroscopic shoulder surgery is often associated with severe postoperative pain. The results concerning subacromial bursa blockade (SUB) as a method of pain relief have been contradictory. We hypothesized that a SUB and interscalene brachial plexus block (ISB) would similarly reduce early postoperative pain and the need for oxycodone as compared to placebo (PLA). Forty-five patients scheduled for arthroscopic shoulder surgery were enrolled in this randomised, prospective study. The ISB and SUB blockades were performed with 15 ml of ropivacaine (5 mg/ml). In the PLA group, 15 ml of 0.9% saline was injected into the subacromial bursa. All patients received general anaesthesia. The mean intravenously patient-controlled delivered oxycodone consumption during the first 6 h was significantly lower in the ISB group (6 mg) than in the SUB group (24.1 mg; P=0.001) or in the PLA group (27 mg; P<0.001). No significant differences were detected between the SUB and PLA groups (P=0.791). The postoperative pain scores during the first 4 h at rest and during the first 6 h on movement were significantly lower in the ISB group than in the SUB and PLA groups.","We did not find clinical studies of the alkalization of ropivacaine in the literature. The objectives of this study were: (1) to determine the quantity of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO(3)), which alkalinizes 0.75% ropivacaine (with and without adrenaline); (2) to verify the physico-chemical alterations arising from this alkalization; and (3) to determine whether alkalinized ropivacaine produces a higher-quality epidural block measured via sensory-motor onset, block spread and anesthesia duration. It was determined in the laboratory that 0.012 and 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3), respectively, alkalinized 10 mL of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions without and with adrenaline (1:200,000). In the second phase, the study was random and double-blind and involved 60 patients divided into 3 groups of 20 (G1, G2, and G3). Via epidural lumbar blocks, these groups received, respectively, 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.5 mL of 0.9% NaCl (solution A), 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.0012 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution B), and 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine (with adrenaline) plus 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution C). The pH, PCO(2) (partial CO(2) pressure), and the nonionized fractions of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions were compared before and after the addition of 0.9% NaCl or NaHCO(3) or adrenaline plus NaHCO(3). The motor and sensory onsets, block spread, and the duration of the block were evaluated. The values of the pH, PCO(2), and nonionized fractions increased significantly in solutions B and C in relation to solution A. No differences among the groups were observed in relation to block spread and sensory-motor onset. The duration of the sensory blocks was significantly greater in the patients in groups G2 and G3.","To compare the lateral pre-iliac approach to the lumbar plexus combined with lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve block, and the dorsal paravertebral approach to the lumbar plexus combined with sciatic nerve block in dogs. Retrospective examination of case records of dogs that received the blocks and underwent pelvic limb orthopaedic surgery between 2010 and 2012. Success rate (intraoperative fentanyl consumption <2·1 µg/kg/hour), type and dose of local anaesthetic used, multiple of minimum alveolar concentration of volatile anaesthetic agent administered, incidence of intraoperative hypotension, postoperative methadone administration, postoperative contralateral limb paralysis and neurological complication at 6 weeks re-examination were analysed. Ninety-six and 95 records were retrieved in which lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve were used, respectively. Success rates were 82·3% in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and 74·7% in dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve groups. Bupivacaine, levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were used. Total local anaesthetic doses, intraoperative hypotension and postoperative methadone administered were similar between groups; minimum alveolar concentration multiple was significantly (P<0·001) lower in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve group. No neurological complications were noted.","yes. We successfully performed repeated psoas compartment blocks with a local anesthetic and subsequently with added opioids, which produced substantial pain relief, especially after the addition of opioids.","yes. S I t after topical anesthesia with 0.5% proparacaine hydrochloride eye drops is more objective and reliable than that without anesthesia in reflecting the status of DE, and its diagnostic value in patients with ADDE was even higher, making itself a meaningful evidence for the diagnosis and treatment of DE.","For laparoscopic pyloromyotomy in term infants using propofol, sevoflurane and no intraoperative opioid, succinylcholine may be the best neuromuscular blocking drug choice, provided no contraindication is present. However, based on the small difference in time to transport, rocuronium as administered herein may be a reasonable alternative preferred by some clinicians.","Primary cleft lip repair is performed in infants under 1 year of age. The efficacy of an infraorbital nerve block vs intravenous fentanyl was compared in our prospective, randomized controlled trial. Forty-six infants scheduled for primary cleft lip repair were prospectively randomized to one of two groups: group F that received 2 mcg x kg(-1) of fentanyl intravenously and an infraorbital nerve block with 0.5 ml on each side of preservative-free normal saline, and, group B that received bilateral infraorbital nerve blocks with 0.5 ml on each side of 0.25% bupivacaine and 2 ml of preservative-free saline solution intravenously after induction of anesthesia but prior to surgical incision. Patients were observed by a blinded observer for (i) pain scores using neonatal infant pain score; (ii) need for rescue medication in the anesthesia care unit (PACU), in the short stay unit (SSU) and at home and (iii) feeding parameters including difficulty in feeding, time to first feeding and volume of feeds in the PACU, SSU and at home. There were no significant differences in pain scores between the two groups over time (P = 0.98); there were no differences between groups in the number of rescue medications in the PACU, in the SSU as well as at home; however, the time to first rescue medication was greater in the block group compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.07). There were no significant differences in feeding volumes between groups in the PACU (P = 0.46), SSU (P = 0.57) and at home (P = 0.15). There were no differences in time to initiate feeding between the two groups (P = 0.81). However, there was difficulty with feeding in the block groups compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.01).","To examine if ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block could reduce the need for post-Cesarean delivery morphine analgesia and thus reduce the incidence of opioid related adverse-effects. A multi-level technique for performing the nerve block with bupivacaine was developed and then utilized in this two-part study. Part one was a retrospective assessment of Cesarean delivery patients with and without ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric blocks to determine if the technique reduced patient controlled analgesia morphine use and thus would warrant further study. The second phase was a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled trial to compare post-Cesarean morphine use and the appearance of opioid-related side effects between the anesthetic and placebo-injected groups. Both phases demonstrated that our method of ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block significantly reduced the amount of iv morphine used by patients during the 24 hr following Cesarean delivery. In the retrospective assessment, morphine use was 49 +/- 30 mg in the block group vs 79 +/- 25 mg in the no block group (P = 0.0063). For the prospective trial, patients who received nerve blocks with bupivacaine had a similar result, self-administering 48 +/- 27 mg of morphine over 24 hr compared to 67 +/- 28 mg administered by patients who received infiltrations of saline. However, despite the significant decrease in morphine use, there was no reduction in opioid-related adverse effects: the incidences of nausea were 41% and 46% (P = 0.70) and for itching were 79% and 63% (P = 0.25) in the placebo and nerve block groups, respectively.","The authors assess the effect of warming local anesthetic solutions on pain of injection and on bulbar akinesia and analgesia of retrobulbar anesthesia (RBA). Seventy patients undergoing RBA for cataract surgery were enrolled in a prospective, double-blind trial. They were allocated randomly to receive 5 ml either warm (37 degrees C) or cold (20 degrees C) anesthetic solution for RBA. Additionally, O'Brien's method was used to create an akinesia of the orbicularis oculi muscle. The following data were collected before and 20 minutes after retrobulbar injection: pain of injection, eye motility (Kestenbaum test), and corneal sensitivity (0: no sensitivity; 1: sensitivity remaining) at four different sites. The pain of injection was registered using an ordinal analogous scale before and immediately after the injection. Furthermore, data acquisition included any possible side effects and the bulbar length, measured with ultrasound. The score for injection pain (4.5 +/- 2.3 points), horizontal eye motility (0.2 +/- 0.8 mm), vertical eye motility (0.9 +/- 2.1 mm) all were lower for the warm group in comparison to the cold group (average pain score: 5.2 +/- 2.6 points; horizontal eye motility: 0.7 +/- 1.6 mm; vertical eye motility: 1.2 +/- 2.0 mm). Two patients in the warm group and four patients in the cold group had remaining corneal sensitivity. None of the differences were significant.","yes. Local analgesia infiltration and abdominal nerve blocks as adjuncts to regional analgesia and general anaesthesia are of benefit in caesarean section by reducing opioid consumption. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as an adjuvant may confer additional pain relief.","Management of postoperative pain following repair of pectus excavatum has traditionally included thoracic epidural analgesia, narcotics, and benzodiazepines. We hypothesized that the use of intercostal or paravertebral regional blocks could result in decreased inpatient length of stay (LOS). We conducted a retrospective cohort study of 137 patients (118 Nuss and 19 Ravitch - Nuss and Ravitch patients were analyzed separately) who underwent surgical repair of pectus excavatum with pain management via epidural, intercostal, or paravertebral analgesia from January 2009-December 2012. Measured outcomes included LOS, pain scores, benzodiazepine/narcotic requirements, emesis, professional fees, hospital cost, and total cost. In the Nuss patients, LOS was significantly reduced in the paravertebral group (p<0.005) and the intercostal group (p<0.005) compared to the epidural group, but was paradoxically countered by a nonsignificant increase in total cost (p=0.09). While benzodiazepine doses/day was not increased in the paravertebral group (p=0.08), an increase was seen in narcotic use (p<0.005). Despite increased narcotic use, no differences were seen in emesis between epidural and paravertebral use. Compared to epidural, pain scores were higher for both intercostal and paravertebral on day one (p<0.005), but equivalent for paravertebral on day three (p=0.62). The Ravitch group was too small for detailed independent statistical analysis but followed the same overall trend seen in the Nuss patients.","Adequate neuromuscular block is required throughout laryngeal microsurgery. We hypothesized that the surgical conditions would improve under a deeper level of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular block. Seventy-two patients undergoing laryngeal microsurgery were randomly allocated to either the 'post-tetanic counts 1-2' (PTC1-2) group or the 'train-of-four counts 1-2' (TOFcount1-2) group according to the level of neuromuscular block used. Two different doses of rocuronium (1.2 or 0.5 mg kg(-1)) were used after anaesthetic induction, and two respective targets of neuromuscular block (post-tetanic counts ≤2 or train-of-four count of 1 or 2) were used. Surgical conditions were assessed by the surgeon using a five-point rating scale (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal), and clinically acceptable surgical conditions were defined as those which were rated acceptable, good, or optimal. The occurrence of vocal cord movement and postoperative adverse events was assessed. The surgical conditions were significantly different between the PTC1-2 and TOFcount1-2 groups (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal: 0/2/1/7/26 and 3/10/2/14/7, respectively, P<0.001). The incidence of clinically acceptable surgical conditions was significantly higher in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (94 vs 64%, P=0.003). The percentage of patients who exhibited vocal cord movement was significantly lower in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (3 vs 39%, P<0.001). The incidence of postoperative adverse events was not significantly different except for the less frequent occurrence of mouth dryness in the PTC1-2 group (P=0.035).","Epidural lidocaine can be used when regional anesthesia needs to be established quickly, but the effect of co-administering epidural fentanyl on the minimum local analgesic concentration (MLAC) of lidocaine is not known. We compared the MLAC of epidural lidocaine in combination with different doses of fentanyl for epidural anesthesia in adults. One hundred and twenty patients requiring epidural analgesia were randomly allocated to receive 20 ml of one of four solutions: lidocaine, or lidocaine plus fentanyl 1 µg/ml, 2 µg/ml, or 3 µg/ml. The first patient in each group was administered 1% lidocaine weight by volume; subsequent patients received a concentration determined by the response of the previous patient to a higher or lower concentration according to up and down sequential allocation in 0.1% increments. Efficacy was assessed using a visual analog pain scale, and accepted if this was = 10 mm on a 100 mm scale within 30 minutes. The extent of motor block and of nausea and vomiting were recorded at 30 minutes after administration of the epidural solution and two hours after surgery, respectively. The MLAC of lidocaine in those receiving lidocaine alone was 0.785% (95%CI 0.738 - 0.864). A significant dose-dependent reduction was observed with the addition of fentanyl: the MLAC of lidocaine with fentanyl at 2 µg/ml was 0.596% (95%CI 0.537 - 0.660) and 0.387% with fentanyl at 3 µg/ml (95%CI 0.329 - 0.446, P < 0.001).","yes. Treatment with nepafenac ophthalmic suspension 0.1% significantly reduced postoperative pain compared with placebo after pterygium surgery.","Intraarticular (IA) local anesthetics are often used for the management and prevention of pain after arthroscopic knee surgery. Recently, IA tramadol was also used for the management of these patients. However, the IA combination of local anesthetic and tramadol has not been evaluated in arthroscopic outpatients. Our primary aim in this study was to evaluate the analgesic effect of an IA combination of bupivacaine and tramadol when compared with each drug alone using visual analog scale (VAS) pain scores in patients undergoing day-care arthroscopic knee surgery. Additionally, we assessed analgesic demand. Ninety ASA I/II patients undergoing arthroscopic partial meniscectomy, performed by a single surgeon under general anesthesia, were assigned in a randomized, double-blind manner into three groups: group B (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine, group T (n = 30) received 100 mg tramadol, and group BT (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine and 100 mg tramadol to a total volume of 20 mL by the IA route after surgery. Postoperative pain scores were measured on a VAS, at rest and on mobilization at 0.5, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 24 h. Duration of analgesia, the subsequent 24 h consumption of rescue analgesia, time to ambulation, and time to discharge were evaluated. In addition, the systemic side effects of the IA injected drugs were also assessed. The results showed significantly lower VAS pain scores in group BT (P << 0.1) when compared with groups T and B. Group BT had a later onset of postsurgical pain and longer time to first rescue analgesic than groups B and T. The 24 h consumption of analgesic was significantly less in group BT when compared with the other two groups (26.7% of the patients required rescue analgesia in group BT, whereas this number was 90% in group B and 86.7% in group T). In addition, time in hours to discharge and time to unassisted ambulation were significantly shorter in group BT when compared with groups T and B, and this was not associated with any detectable systemic effects.","This prospective, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study was designed to determine the efficacy of dexmedetomidine compared with lidocaine in reducing the pain of propofol and rocuronium injection pain. One hundred and fifty patients, scheduled for elective surgery with general anaesthesia, were divided into five groups: saline (Group 1), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) (Group 2), lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 3), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.25 mg kg(-1) (Group 4) or dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 5) were administered at a rate of 0.5 mL s(-1) after tourniquet application. The occlusion was released after 1 min and 5 mL of propofol was injected over 20 s. Pain was evaluated by use of a 10-point verbal analogue scale. Then, the rest of the induction dose of propofol, 3 mL of saline bolus and 0.6 mg kg(-1) of rocuronium, was injected. The response to injection of rocuronium was assessed with a four-point scale (0-3). Groups 1 and 2 were found to have higher propofol injection pain scores than Groups 3, 4 and 5 (P<0.05). When the study groups were compared according to the overall incidence of withdrawal movements due to rocuronium (1 response) in Groups 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, they were different (86.7%, 60%, 36.7%, 50% and 40%, respectively) (P<0.05). Except Group 1, there was no significant difference between the groups according to incidence of withdrawal movement after rocuronium injection (P = 0.325).","Multimodal analgesia can improve perioperative analgesia but knowledge of combination protocols is still incomplete. This study was designed to evaluate whether the combination of sciatic nerve blockade (SNB) and intravenous alfentanil (IVA) is more effective than either single treatment in relieving postoperative pain in rats. In a plantar incision model, withdrawal thresholds were evaluated by von Frey test before incision as baselines and for 7 days after incision. The animals were randomly allocated into various groups to receive SNB with 1% or 2% lidocaine, IVA of 50 or 150 μg/kg, or combined treatments (SNB 1% + 50 μg/kg IVA or SNB 2% + 150 μg/kg IVA) before incision. The results were compared with those of sham procedures--i.e., injections of peri-sciatic or intravenous saline, or a combination of both. Plantar incision caused postoperative allodynia for 3 days. SNB with 2% lidocaine reduced allodynia at 1 hour, 3 hours, day 1, and day 2, but not at postoperative 5 hours or days 3-7, whereas 150 μg/kg IVA produced short analgesia for only 3 hours after surgery. Neither low-dose SNB nor low-dose IVA had a significant effect. When high-dose SNB and high-dose IVA were combined, a strong antiallodynic effect was shown in an additive manner. No synergism was evidently displayed by the combination.","yes. Inguinal paravascular block with parasacral sciatic nerve block led to a much higher incidence of obturator nerve motor block when compared to the inguinal paravascular block with posterior sciatic nerve block during knee arthroscopies.","We studied three different injection techniques of sciatic nerve block in terms of block onset time and efficacy with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 75 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly allocated to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic posterior approach (group classic; n = 25), a modified subgluteus posterior approach (group subgluteus; n = 25), or a lateral popliteal approach (group popliteal; n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator (stimulation frequency, 2 Hz; intensity, 2-0.5 mA) and 30 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine. Onset of nerve block was defined as complete loss of pinprick sensation in the sciatic nerve distribution with concomitant inability to perform plantar or dorsal flexion of the foot. In the three groups, an appropriate sciatic stimulation was elicited at <0.5 mA. The failure rate was similar in the three groups (group popliteal: 4% versus group classic: 4% versus group subgluteus: 8%). The onset of nerve block was slower in group popliteal (25 +/- 5 min) compared with group classic (16 +/- 4 min) and group subgluteus (17 +/- 4 min; P < 0.001). There was no significant difference in the onset of nerve block between group classic and group subgluteus. No differences in the degree of pain measured at the first postoperative administration of pain medication were observed among the three groups. We conclude that the three approaches resulted in clinically acceptable anesthesia in the distribution of the sciatic nerve. The subgluteus and classic posterior approaches generated a significantly faster onset of anesthesia than the lateral popliteal approach.","To investigate the sensory block onset time, duration time, and side effects of adding dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine for cervical plexus block. Forty American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Class I or II adult patients who were scheduled to undergo thyroid surgery were randomly allocated to the following groups to receive cervical plexus block: 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with 1 μg kg(-1) of dexmedetomidine; 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with saline (control). The sensory block onset time, duration of analgesia, mean arterial pressure (MAP), heart rate (HR), and the incidences of side effects, such as hypotension, bradycardia, and hypoxemia were recorded. The addition of dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine (Group D) shortened the sensory block onset time compared with the ropivacaine group (Group C) (95% confidence interval [CI] 4.18-5.26; p < 0.05). The duration of analgesia of cervical plexus block in Group D was significantly longer than that in Group C (95% CI 295.96-311.12; p < 0.05). The Ramsay sedation score at 5, 10, 20, 40, 60, 90, and 120 minutes after local anesthetic administration in Group D was significantly higher than that in Group C (p < 0.05). MAP level and HR level in Group D were significantly lower than that in Group C (p < 0.05).","yes. The present study showed that the group of patients who received transtracheal block with lidocaine had a reduction in the requirement of the induction agent, propofol, and were more stable hemodynamically in the intraoperative period compared to those patients who did not receive transtracheal lidocaine. We conclude that transtracheal injection of lidocaine performed just prior to induction of general anesthesia is an effective alternative to intraoperative propofol infusion when long-acting muscle relaxants are to be avoided.","Endoscopic sinus surgery (ESS) is a common procedure preferably done with an anesthetic technique ensuring effective postoperative analgesia while speeding discharge home. Although anesthesia administered locally in conjunction with vasoconstricting agents is known to minimize intraoperative bleeding, its usefulness in providing postoperative analgesia has not been well characterized. The results supporting the use of regional anesthesia for sinus surgery have also been limited. Using a randomized, double-blinded and placebo-controlled design, we evaluated recovery times, opioid consumption, and nausea and vomiting after ESS when patients were randomized to either general anesthesia (GA) alone or with regional blockade. Subjects were 70 adults scheduled for sinus surgery. All participants underwent propofol/remifentanil/nitrous oxide anesthesia and similar intraoperative care. Patients received either GA alone or with sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) blocks in a double-masked study design. Independent observers recorded readiness for discharge, incidence of nausea/vomiting, and pain scores every 15 minutes until discharge. Overall opioid use in the recovery area was also a secondary end point. Twenty-four hours later, patients were called and asked to rate their pain and overall satisfaction with their pain control. Block group participants were considered ready for discharge after 45 minutes and discharged from the hospital ∼40 minutes sooner than GA group participants. The block group required less total fentanyl in the recovery room than did the GA group. The incidences of nausea and vomiting did not differ significantly. Data at 24 hours postoperatively did not differ significantly between groups but trended toward increased satisfaction in the block group. No lasting adverse events were observed.","We hypothesized that without the analgesic effects of volatile anesthetics, caudal 0.20% ropivacaine would be less effective during surgical stimulation than 0.20% bupivacaine or 0.20% levobupivacaine. This trial was designed to examine whether the combination of a caudal block with 0.20% ropivacaine and i.v. anesthesia resulted in reduced analgesic efficacy during surgery compared with caudal 0.20% levobupivacaine or 0.20% bupivacaine in children. Ninety ASA I-II children between 1 and 7 years old, scheduled for inguinal hernia repair or orchidopexy under propofol anesthesia were randomized to receive a caudal block with 1 ml x kg(-1) of 0.2% bupivacaine, 0.2% ropivacaine or 0.2% levobupivacaine. The primary outcome measure of the study was the clinical efficacy of the caudal block during surgery. Secondary outcome measures were postoperative pain relief and residual motor blockade. Four children were excluded and 86 were analyzed. The proportion of children with effective caudal block during surgery was significantly higher in children receiving levobupivacaine (26/28) or bupivacaine (27/29) compared with patients receiving ropivacaine (21/29) (P = 0.03). There were no significant differences among groups in the analgesic onset time (P = 0.1), incidence of residual motor blockade (P = 0.4), number of patients requiring analgesia after operation or in the time from caudal injection to the first administration of analgesic medication (P = 0.3).","Regional anesthesia and analgesia for shoulder surgery is most commonly performed via interscalene nerve block. We developed an ultrasound-guided technique that specifically targets the C5 nerve root proximal to the traditional interscalene block and assessed its efficacy for shoulder analgesia. Prospective case series. Vanderbilt Bone and Joint Surgery Center. Patients undergoing shoulder arthroscopy at an ambulatory surgery center. Thirty-five outpatient shoulder arthroscopy patients underwent an analgesic nerve block using a new technique where ultrasound visualization of the C5 nerve root served as the primary target at a level proximal to the traditional interscalene approach. The block was performed with 15mL of 0.5% plain ropivicaine. Post anesthesia care unit pain scores, opioid consumption, hand strength, and duration of block were recorded. Cadaver dissection after injection with methylene blue confirmed that the primary target under ultrasound visualization was the C5 nerve root. Pain scores revealed 97% patients had 0/10 pain at arrival to PACU, with 91% having a pain score of 3/10 or less at discharge from PACU. Medical Research Council (MRC) hand strength mean (SD) score was 4.17 (0.92) on a scale of 1-5. The mean (SD) duration of the block was 13.9 (3.5) hours.","yes. Using a preincisional retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine with adrenaline, BS-11 pain scores remained low with no or minimal additional analgesia for up to 4 hours post surgery. In combination with oral analgesia, effective pain control was provided in most cases for up to 8 hours post block.","yes. Greater palatine nerve block with a combination of dexmedetomidine and bupivacaine increased the duration of analgesia after repair of a cleft palate by 50% with no clinically relevant side effects.","yes. Regional anesthesia for pain after ACL repair in pediatric patients facilitated reliable same-day surgery discharge and significantly reduced UHAs. Single-shot blocks and blocks performed outside the OR were the most cost-effective. In addition, nerve block patients required less opioids and were ready for discharge sooner.","To evaluate the adequacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only in vitreoretinal surgery. The study involved 90 patients, 25 who underwent 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy and 65 who underwent 20-gauge standard pars plana vitrectomy. Twenty-five of the 90 patients also underwent combined phacoemulsification and posterior intraocular lens implantation. The efficacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only was assessed by monitoring vital signs during surgery, reviewing patient responses to a questionnaire regarding their experience during surgery, and analyzing surgical outcomes. Four patients complained of moderate pain during surgery, but no patient complained of severe pain. Infiltrative anesthesia was additionally required in 14 patients. No patient experienced intraoperative complications due to head movement. Increased systolic blood pressure greater than 15 mm Hg occurred in 11 patients and increased respiratory rate by 3 breaths per minute or greater occurred in 7 patients. Anatomical and functional success rates were 95% and 80%, respectively. Complications included manageable retrobulbar bleeding (1 patient) and postoperative neovascular glaucoma (2 patients).","Intraocular pressure is increased during laparoscopic surgeries performed in a steep Trendelenburg position. This study compared the effects of propofol with those of sevoflurane on intraocular pressure in patients undergoing robot-assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy in a 30° Trendelenburg position. Sixty-six patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil and sevoflurane (Sevoflurane Group) or remifentanil and propofol (Propofol Group). Intraocular pressure (IOP) was measured at nine predefined time points, including baseline (T0), five minutes after establishing pneumoperitoneum (T2), 30 min after establishing the Trendelenburg position with pneumoperitoneum (T3), five minutes after returning to the horizontal position (T4), and immediately after tracheal extubation (T6). The primary outcome was the change in intraocular pressure from T0 to T3. The results of linear mixed model analysis showed that intraocular pressure differed between the two groups (P = 0.0039). At T3, the mean (SD) IOP was greater in the Sevoflurane Group [23.5 (4.3) mmHg] than in the Propofol Group [19.9 (3.8) mmHg] (P = 0.0019). At T2 and T6, IOP was also greater in the Sevoflurane Group than in the Propofol Group (P = 0.038 and P = 0.009, respectively). There was a statistically significant increase in intraocular pressure from baseline to T3 (pneumoperitoneum and steep Trendelenberg) in the Sevoflurane Group [6.0 (5.0) mmHg; P < 0.001] but not in the Propofol Group [2.1 (5.1) mmHg; P = 0.136]. None of the patients experienced ocular complications.","To compare preservative-free 1% lignocaine with balanced salt solution (BSS) in alleviating pain during hydrodissection in phacoemulsification cataract surgery. West Norwich Hospital, Norfolk, United Kingdom. This prospective double-masked trial comprised 68 patients having day-case phacoemulsification cataract surgery. Patients were randomly divided into 2 groups, receiving either BSS or lignocaine 1% solution for hydrodissection during routine uneventful phacoemulsification using topical anesthesia. The level of intraoperative pain was scored on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (severe pain), and the scores between the 2 groups were compared. Of the 68 patients, 33 (49%) received BSS and 35 (51%), lignocaine 1% solution. A pain score greater than 2 was considered clinically significant; 28 patients (85%) in the BSS group and 25 (71%) in the lignocaine 1% group scored 2 or less. The chi-square and Mann-Whitney tests found no significant difference between the BSS and lignocaine 1% groups (P = .30 and P = .432, respectively).","Several peripheral nerve block techniques (PNB) are performed for hand surgery. Their tolerance by patients or their efficacy are poorly described. We evaluated them for blocks at the wrist and at the brachial canal. Cohort of outpatients undergoing open carpal tunnel release under PNB with arm tourniquet. Various anaesthetic protocols existed in our staff. The primary end points were a moderate to severe pain (greater than 3/10 on a numerical rating scale) felt during needle puncture, nerve stimulation, mepivacaine injection, at the surgical site (intraoperatively) or at the arm tourniquet, an intraoperative lidocaine supplementation, the occurrence of vasovagal events. For each primary end point, a logistic regression analyzed: the effects of gender, age, operated side, Emla(®)application, sedation before PNB (midazolam-sufentanil), wrist or brachial canal approach, musculocutaneous or radial block were using. Between January 2007 and June 2010, 551 consecutive patients were analyzed. Puncture pain, mepivacaine injection pain, pain tourniquet and vasovagal events were associated with wrist block (P=0.003, relative risk=1.86; P<0.001, RR=4.22; P<0.001, RR=4.52; P=0.035, RR=6.40). An intraoperative pain greater than 3/10 at the surgical site, or a supplementation by the surgeon were associated with the absence of musculocutaneous block (P=0.013, RR=2.44; P=0.013, RR=2.51).","yes. Results of the study showed that the combination of 75 µg fentanyl and 1.5% lidocaine solution accelerated the onset of sensory and motor blockade during interscalene anesthesia.","Caudal analgesia is commonly employed to provide excellent intra- and postoperative analgesia for primary hypospadias repair in children. Several additives to local anesthetics are commonly employed to increase the block duration, although these have uncertain benefits. This study investigated whether, in caudal analgesia with levobupivacaine 0.25%, the addition of S (+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both agents combined, would prolong postoperative analgesia in patients undergoing primary hypospadias repair. We conducted a retrospective chart analysis for all patients who underwent hypospadias repair with caudal analgesia over a consecutive 3-period at this institution. The study examined four patient groups, classified according to the analgesia used: No additive, levobupivacaine aloneLevobupivacaine and S (+)-ketamineLevobupivacaine and clonidineLevobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidinePRIMARY OUTCOME MEASURES WERE AS FOLLOWS: time to the first postoperative request for analgesia, total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia, and time to hospital discharge. The 87 patients included had a mean ± SD age of 21.4 ± 13.5 months and weight of 11.9 ± 2.4 kg. The median doses of levobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidine were 0.7 mg/kg (range, 0.4-1.3), 0.5 mg/kg (0.2-1.1), and 1.8 μg/kg (0.8-2.3), respectively. The addition of S(+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both did not increase the time to first oral analgesia request. Neither did it reduce the total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia requirements or alter hospital discharge time. However, the additive drugs in combination did increase postoperative sedation.","yes. Ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block with IV dexketoprofen increases patient satisfaction by decreasing opioid consumption, increasing patient satisfaction, which suggests that dexketoprofen trometamol is an effective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesic in postoperative analgesia.","To evaluate the efficacy of preemptive analgesia in surgical repair of retinal detachment (RD) using scleral buckle and cryopexy under general anesthesia. Thirty patients who were scheduled for rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair using scleral buckle and cryopexy and who were American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status I, II, or III were included in this study. The patients were randomly divided into two equal groups. The surgery was done under general anesthesia in both groups, but in Group 2, sub-Tenon anesthesia was given as preemptive analgesia after induction anesthesia and before start of surgery. Both groups were statistically comparable as regards patient age and weight and duration of anesthesia and surgery. The incidences of intraoperative oculocardiac reflex and postoperative vomiting were significantly lower in Group 2 compared with Group 1 (P<0.001 and 0.0113, respectively). The time of first postoperative analgesic dose was significantly shorter in Group 1 (46.67 +/- 18.84 minutes) compared with Group 2 (162.67 +/- 29.391 minutes) (P<0.001). The total analgesic consumption per 24 hours was significantly higher in Group 1 compared with Group 2 (P<0.001). The time of discharge from the hospital was significantly shorter in Group 2 (8.8 +/- 2.704 hours) compared with Group 1 (12.4 +/- 3.481 hours) (P = 0.0018).","To compare the quality of pain relief and incidence of side effects between 24-hr postoperative continuous epidural infusion (CEI) and subsequent patient-controlled epidural analgesia (PCEA) with different analgesics after major abdominal surgery. Twenty-eight women undergoing extended gynecological tumour surgery received postoperative CEI with 0.15 mL x kg(-1) x hr(-1) 0.2% ropivacaine (R: n = 14) or 0.125% bupivacaine plus 0.5 micro g x mL(-1) sufentanil (BS: n = 14) during 24 postoperative hours. Twenty-four hours later, postoperative pain management was switched to PCEA without background infusion and 5 mL single bolus application of R or BS every 20 min at most. Visual analogue scales (VAS; 1-100 mm) were assessed by patients at rest and on coughing after 24 hr of CEI and PCEA. Side effects, doses of local anesthetics and opioids were recorded and plasma concentrations of total and unbound ropivacaine and bupivacaine were measured. Patients required lower doses of each respective analgesic medication with PCEA (R: 108 +/- 30 mL; BS: 110 +/- 28 mL) than with CEI (R: 234 +/- 40; BS: 260 +/- 45; P < 0.01). Ropivacaine plasma concentrations were lower 24 hr after PCEA when compared with CEI (P < 0.01). No patient after PCEA but two after CEI (n = 4; NS) presented motor block. PCEA with R provided better postoperative pain relief than CEI (37 +/- 32 vs 59+/-27, P < 0.05). No difference in parenteral opioid rescue medication between CEI and PCEA was seen.","This multicentre, double-blind, placebo-controlled study compared the opioid-sparing effectiveness and clinical safety of parecoxib sodium over 48 h, in 195 postoperative patients after routine total knee replacement surgery. Elective total primary knee arthroplasty was performed under spinal anaesthesia, with a single dose of spinal bupivacaine 10-20 mg, and intraoperative sedation with midazolam 0.5-1.0 mg i.v., or propofol <6 mg kg(-1)h(-1). Patients were randomized to receive either parecoxib sodium 20 mg twice daily (bd) i.v. (n=65), parecoxib sodium 40 mg bd i.v. (n=67), or placebo (n=63) at the completion of surgery, and after 12, 24, and 36 h. Morphine (1-2 mg) was taken by patient-controlled analgesia or by bolus doses after 30 min. Patients receiving parecoxib sodium 20 mg bd and 40 mg bd consumed 15.6% and 27.8% less morphine at 24 h than patients taking placebo (both P<0.05). Both doses of parecoxib sodium administered with morphine provided significantly greater pain relief than morphine alone from 6 h (P<0.05). A global evaluation of study medication demonstrated a greater level of satisfaction among patients taking parecoxib sodium than those taking placebo. Parecoxib sodium administered in combination with morphine was well tolerated. However, a reduction in opioid-type side-effects was not demonstrated in the parecoxib sodium groups.","yes. Vitreoretinal surgery, particularly 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy, can be safely and efficiently performed under retrobulbar block anesthesia only. Retrobulbar block anesthesia only could become a more acceptable anesthesia for vitreoretinal surgery for selected patients.","Evidence indicating that single- and double-injection techniques for inducing a sciatic nerve block via a posterior subgluteal approach yield a similar success rate prompted us to investigate whether the two anesthetic techniques yield a similar success rate via a lateral approach. We also hypothesized that, owing to the peculiar anatomic features of the sciatic nerve at the popliteal level, a single injection via the lateral approach might induce effective anesthesia by targeting the tibial nerve only. Ninety-six patients undergoing popliteal sciatic nerve block via a lateral popliteal approach for foot surgery were randomized to receive a single 30-ml injection of ropivacaine 7.5 mg/ml to block the tibial nerve (TN group, n= 32) or the common peroneal nerve (CPN group, n= 32), or two separate 15-ml injections (TN + CPN group, n= 32), after stimulation to evoke motor responses from the target nerves. The mean time to obtain a complete sensory blockade (surgical anesthesia) was shorter in the TN group than in the CPN and TN + CPN groups (14 +/- 7 min vs. 23 +/- 17 and 21 +/- 14 min, respectively; P < 0.05). The success rate was similar in the TN and TN + CPN groups (94%) and, 25 min after the initial injection, was already better in these groups than in the CPN group (94% vs. 75%; P < 0.05).","no. Use of sub-Tenon block does not decrease the incidence of postoperative pain significantly in children undergoing squint surgery. However, it leads to a statistically significant decrease in the incidence of intraoperative OCR and PONV in the early recovery period in these patients.","Effective pain management is an important component of aesthetic procedures. To compare the pain relief and safety of large-gel particle hyaluronic acid (HA) plus 0.3% lidocaine (LGP-HA+L) with that of LGP-HA without lidocaine during correction of nasolabial folds (NLFs) and to assess filler safety in different skin types. Sixty subjects were enrolled in a randomized, double-blind, split-face study of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L for NLF correction. Subjects assessed pain on a 100-mm visual analog scale (VAS). The primary objective was to demonstrate that more than 50% of subjects experienced pain relief with LGP-HA+L, defined as a within-subject VAS difference of at least 10 mm at the end of injection. LGP-HA+L resulted in pain relief in 57 (95.0%, 95% confidence interval=86.1-99.0) subjects at the end of injection. The mean within-subject VAS difference was 34.4 mm. Injection-related adverse events occurred at similar frequencies with both products. Slightly higher adverse event rates were observed with Fitzpatrick skin type IV for both compounds. The safety profiles of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L were similar to each other in all skin types.","yes. Multimodal anesthesia is associated with less postoperative pain and shorter LOS compared to epidural or traditional anesthetic techniques for the Nuss procedure. Multimodal anesthesia with a single intraoperative dose of methadone was associated with lowest total opioid use, time with uncontrolled pain, and shortest LOS.","This double-blinded, randomized clinical trial was designed to evaluate intraocular pressure (IOP) change in cataract surgery using the combination of propofol and remifentanil or the combination of isoflurane and remifentanil. One hundred sixty patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil + isoflurane (group I), normal saline + isoflurane (group II), propofol + remifentanil (group III) or normal saline + propofol (group IV). IOP was measured at seven predefined time points, baseline (T0), 3 min after the start of continuous remifentanil infusion (T2), after induction of anesthesia (T3), immediately after laryngoscopy and intubation (T4), 5 min after laryngoscopy (T5), immediately after the block of continuous remifentanil infusion (T6) and 3 min after T6 (T7). Outcomes included IOP, systole blood pressure (SBP) and diastole blood pressure (DBP), mean arterial pressure (MAP) and heart rate (HR). The mean of IOP in Group III was lower than other groups and in group IV was higher than other groups. At time point T4 and T5 differences in the mean of IOP between groups III and IV was significantly different (P > 0.05). The trend in changes in the mean of IOP was statistically significant among groups (P value = 0.01). The trends in changes in the mean of SBP, DBP and MAP were not significantly different among groups (P value = 0.41). HR in group III was significantly lower than other groups. The trend in changes in the mean of HR was significantly different among groups (P value = 0.002).","The inability to provide effective postoperative analgesia is one of the major disadvantages of intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA). We designed a prospective, randomized, double blind study to evaluate the analgesic effectiveness of adding both ketorolac and dexamethasone to lidocaine for IVRA. The study involved 45 patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery. They were randomly allocated into three groups: Group L, Group LK and Group LDK. Group L received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine; Group LK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine + 30 mg ketorolac; and Group LDK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine for IVRA + 8 mg dexamethasone + 30 mg ketorolac for IVRA using a 40 mL solution. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were recorded. Tourniquet pain and pain at the operative site were assessed by a visual analog scale. In the first 24 h after surgery, opioid requirements and total analgesic consumption, including side effects, were noted. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were similar in all groups. Patients in Groups LK and LDK required less alfentanyl for control of intraoperative and early postoperative pain. Further, patients in Groups LK and LDK reported significantly lower pain scores compared to those in Group L (P<0.001). Patients in Groups LK and LDK required fewer postoperative ketorolac tablets (2.2+/-1.6 and 1.3+/-0.6 tablets, respectively) in the first 24 h after surgery and had significantly longer periods during which they required no analgesics (524 min and 566 min, respectively) compared to those in Group L (3.8+/-1.3 tablets; 122 min, P<0.001).","In this study, our aim was to evaluate the effects of intravenous dexketoprofen trometamol with ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve block on analgesic quality and morphine consumption after total abdominal hysterectomy operations. We conducted this randomized controlled clinical study on 61 patients. The study was conducted in the operation room, post-anesthesia care unit, and inpatient clinic. We randomly grouped the 61 patients into control group (group C), block group (group B) and dexketoprofen-block group (group DB). Before the skin incision performed after anesthesia induction, we performed ilioinguinal iliohypogastric block (group C given saline and group P and DB given levobupivacaine). In contrast to group C and B, group DB was given dexketoprofen. We administered morphine analgesia to all patients by patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) during the postoperative 24 hours. We recorded Visual Analogue Scale (VAS), satisfaction scores, morphine consumption and side effects during postoperative 24 hours. We found the DB group's VAS scores to be lower than the control group and block group's (p < 0.05) values at postoperative 1(st), 2(nd), 6(th) and 12(th) hours. VAS scores of group C were higher than of group B at postoperative first 2 hours. Time to first PCA demand was longer, morphine consumption values were lower and satisfaction scores were higher in group DB than in the other two groups (p < 0.05).","The results of the present study suggest that intravenous sedation preoperatively seems to be an important determinant to relieve the sensation of discomfort/pain during small incision cataract surgery, but intracameral lidocaine was shown not to have a clinically useful role.","The aim of this study is to compare the effects of parasacral and posterior Winnie approaches when combined with the inguinal paravascular approach for lumbar plexus block. After the approval of the Ethics Committee, 40 patients scheduled to undergo arthroscopic knee surgery were enrolled. The patients were randomly assigned into two groups in a double-blind manner to perform sciatic nerve block either by the parasacral technique (Group I) or by the posterior approach (Group II). The obturator nerve motor block success rate was found to be 80% (16/20) in Group I, whereas it was 10% (2/20) in Group II (p<0.05).","Pediatric strabismus surgery is associated with a very high incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting [(PONV) 44-88%]. Droperidol (10-75 microg kg(-1)) and ondansetron (50-150 microg kg(-1)) have shown variable success in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV. Combination of these two drugs has shown promising results. This randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of these two drugs in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV in pediatric strabismus surgery. After institutional approval and parental informed consent, 240 children of ASA physical status I and II of either sex, aged 1-15 years were included in this study. None of the children received any premedication and a standardized anesthesia technique was used for all the children. They were prospectively randomized to one of the four treatment groups. Group PP received normal saline placebo intravenously after induction and at the end of the procedure. Group DP received droperidol 25 microg kg(-1) after induction and normal saline at the end. Group OP received ondansetron 150 microg kg(-1) after induction and saline at the end. Group DO received droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) after induction and ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1) at the end. Combination prophylaxis resulted in a lower incidence of PONV (13%) as compared to placebo (62.5%, P<0.001), ondansetron (37%, P<0.001), or droperidol (32%, P<0.01).","Injection pain is a well-known adverse effect of propofol which distresses patients. Lidocaine pretreatment is the most popular method for reducing this pain but this drug cannot entirely eliminate the problem. The purpose of this study was to examine the analgesic effect of lidocaine/metoclopramide combination, compared with lidocaine alone, during propofol injection. In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 90 patients, 40 males and 50 females, scheduled for elective plastic surgery received either lidocaine 20 mg plus metoclopramide 10 mg iv, lidocaine 20 mg iv, or placebo (saline); (n = 30 in each), with venous occlusion for one minute, followed by administration of propofol 0.5 mg.kg(-1) into a dorsal hand vein. Pain was assessed on a four-point scale (0 = none, 1 = mild, 2 = moderate, 3 = severe) during propofol injection. 25 patients (83%) complained of pain in the placebo group, compared with 12 (40%) in the lidocaine group (P < 0.05) and three (10%) in the combination group (P < 0.05). Pain score (median) was less in the lidocaine (0) and combination (0) groups than in the placebo group (2); (P < 0.05). The difference in the incidence of pain between the combination and lidocaine groups was significant (P < 0.05).","yes. These results indicate that olopatadine ophthalmic solutions appear to exert additional SP release inhibition besides dual-action such as selective histamine H1 receptor antagonistic action and mast cell stabilization action.","The aim of the study was to compare visual estimation of onset of neuromuscular blockade at both the adductor pollicis (AP) and the orbicularis oculi (OO) in children and to determine if monitoring the OO could predict good intubating conditions during vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Thirty ASAI--II children (1.5-9 yr) were studied. Anaesthesia was induced with 6-8 mg.kg-1 thiopentone. The ulnar nerve at the wrist and the temporal branch of the facial nerve were stimulated every 10 sec using train-of-four (TOF) stimuli. Vecuronium, 0.15 mg.kg-1, was administered as a bolus. The responses at both the OO and the AP were evaluated visually. Patients were randomly divided into two groups. In the AP group (n = 15), the trachea was intubated when the AP was completely blocked. In the OO group (n = 15), intubation was performed when the OO was completely blocked. Intubating conditions were scored on a scale of 1 to 4. All the patients had complete blockade at both the orbicularis oculi and the adductor pollicis. In the two group, time from injection of vecuronium to complete neuromuscular blockade was shorter at the orbicularis oculi than at the adductor pollicis, 1.5 +/- 0.5 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.7 min, respectively, (P < 0.05; mean +/- SD) in the AP group, 1.7 +/- 0.3 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.8 min, respectively in the OO group (P < 0.05). Intubating conditions were excellent in all patient except one, where it was rated as good. They did not differ between groups.","Intrarectal lidocaine gel instillation before periprostatic neurovascular bundle block produces a significant additional analgesic effect during biopsy. The procedure is simple, safe and rapid, and it should be considered in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy.","yes. A multi-level ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block technique can reduce the amount of systemic morphine required to control post-Cesarean delivery pain but this reduction was not associated with a reduction of opioid related adverse effects in our study group.","This pilot study, the first of its type, was conducted to determine the clinical outcome of glaucoma drainage implant (GDI) surgery supplemented with injectable crosslinked hyaluronic acid (HA) in patients with severe glaucoma. This was a retrospective chart study involving 10 eyes of 10 patients with severe glaucoma (glaucomatous visual field loss worse than -20 dB) who had previously undergone GDI surgery supplemented with crosslinked HA with a 2-year follow-up. Surgical success was defined as intraocular pressure (IOP) <21 mm Hg with a reduction of ≥40% (definition A) or ≥50% (definition B) from baseline IOP on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, IOP >5 mm Hg on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, and neither reoperation of glaucoma nor loss of light perception vision. The mean ± SD baseline IOP before GDI was 38.5 ± 10.7 mm Hg, and the mean IOP at the last follow-up visit was 13.0 ± 5.0 mm Hg, with a mean pressure drop of 24.4 ± 10.9 mm Hg (62%; p = 0.005). According to definition A, life-table analysis showed an overall success rate of 80%, while according to definition B, the success rate was 50% after 24 months of follow-up. Complications were infrequent and not serious. No complications resulting from the reticulated HA therapy itself were observed.","yes. Hyaluronidase increases the duration of mepivacaine in inferior alveolar nerve blocks.","yes. A single intravenous dexamethasone dose when combined with caudal block reduces postoperative pain, decreases paracetamol requirement and prolongs analgesic duration in children after open herniotomy.","For peripheral nerve blockade, the double-injection technique proved to be superior to a single injection in previous investigations. The current study was designed to compare onset time and efficacy of two different double-injection approaches for sciatic nerve block with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 50 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly assigned to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic (Labat) posterior approach (n = 25) or a lateral popliteal approach (n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator, and both major components of the sciatic nerve (tibial and common peroneal nerves) received separately 10 ml ropivacaine, 0.75%. Success rate was defined as a complete sensory and motor block associated with pain-free surgery. A greater success rate was observed in the classic group (96%) as compared with the popliteal group (68%; P < 0.05). A general anesthetic became necessary in six patients (24%) with the lateral popliteal approach and none with the classic approach (P < 0.05). The onset of complete sensory and motor blockade was significantly faster in the classic group (12 +/- 6 min) as compared with the popliteal group (26 +/- 10 min; P < 0.05).","In patients undergoing lung surgery, single intercostal nerve block plus i.v. patient-controlled analgesia with morphine is not as effective as patient-controlled EDA with respect to pain control and restoration of pulmonary function.","Current techniques of peripheral nerve block have major limitations, including lack of differentiation between motor and sensory fibers and potential toxicity of local anesthetics. Recent studies have suggested that a nociceptive-selective nerve block can be achieved via a transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 activator (capsaicin) along with local anesthetics. We hypothesized that the combination of potent transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 agonist resiniferatoxin (RTX) and selected antidepressants (amitriptyline, doxepin, and fluoxetine, also potent sodium channel blockers) would produce prolonged and predominantly sensory nerve block. Rats were anesthetized with isoflurane, and 0.2 mL of amitriptyline, doxepin, or fluoxetine was deposited next to the surgically exposed sciatic nerves (n = 8 per group). Some animals received a second injection containing RTX (n = 8 per group). The effect of nerve block was assessed by neurobehavioral tests of the motor function (extensor postural thrust) and the nocifensive reaction (mechanical pinch). A single application of RTX produced nociceptive-selective sciatic nerve block, whereas antidepressants produced nociceptive and motor block. The combined administration of RTX and antidepressant resulted in a predominantly nociceptive nerve block. Compared with antidepressants or RTX alone, the combination prolonged the nociceptive nerve block more than the motor block.","Patient dissatisfaction has been previously associated with motor block in shoulder surgery patients receiving brachial plexus block. For elective minor wrist and hand surgery, we tested whether a regional block accelerating the early return of upper extremity motor function would improve patient satisfaction compared with a long-acting proximal brachial plexus block. A total of 177 patients having elective 'minor' wrist and hand surgery under awake regional block randomly received adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 2% 10 ml+ropivacaine 0.75% 20 ml ('long acting', n=90), or adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 1.5% 30 ml+long-acting distal median, radial, and ulnar nerve blocks selected according to the anticipated area of postoperative pain ('short acting', n=87). A blinded observer questioned patients on day 1 for numerically rated (0-10) subjective outcomes. With 95% power, there was no evidence for a 1-point satisfaction shift in the short acting group: satisfaction was similarly high for both groups [median (inter-quartile range)=10 (8-10) vs 10 (8-10), P=0.71], and also demonstrated strong evidence for equivalence [mean difference (95% confidence interval)=-0.18 (-0.70 to 0.35)]. There was no difference between the groups for weakness- or numbness-related dissatisfaction (low for both groups), or for numerically rated or time to first pain. Surgical anaesthesia success was similar between the groups (short acting, 97% vs 93%, P=0.50), although more patients in the short acting group had surgery initiated in ≤25 min (P=0.03).","yes. The use of bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block for postoperative analgesia after hysterectomy decreased morphine consumption by one-half during the first two postoperative days without differences in side effects from morphine between groups.","Both multiple injection and single posterior cord injection techniques are associated with extensive anesthesia of the upper limb after an infraclavicular coracoid block (ICB). The main objective of this study was to directly compare the efficacy of both techniques in terms of the rates of completely anesthetizing cutaneous nerves below the elbow. Seventy patients undergoing surgery at or below the elbow were randomly assigned to receive an ICB after the elicitation of either a single radial nerve-type response (Radial group) or of two different main nerve-type responses of the upper limb, except for the radial nerve (Dual group). Forty milliliters of 1.5% mepivacaine was given in a single or a dual dose, according to group assignment. The sensory block was assessed in each of the cutaneous nerves at 10, 20 and 30 min. Block performance times and the rates of complete anesthesia below the elbow were also noted. Higher rates of sensory block of the radial nerve were found in the Radial group at 10, 20 and 30 min (P<0.05). The rates of sensory block of the ulnar nerve at 30 min were 97% and 75% in the Radial and in the Dual groups, respectively (P<0.05). The rate of complete anesthesia below the elbow was also higher in the Radial group at 30 min (P<0.05).","There is controversy about the effectiveness of perineural clonidine used as an adjuvant to local anesthetics. This study investigated whether the addition of 150 μg clonidine to 0.5% levobupivacaine used for posterior sciatic nerve block would prolong the duration of analgesia. This double-blind, prospective trial compared the analgesic characteristics of 20 mL plain levobupivacaine versus 20 mL levobupivacaine 0.5% plus 150 μg clonidine in a posterior sciatic nerve block (Labat approach) for foot and ankle surgery. Sixty patients were randomized and allocated to receive either levobupivacaine alone or levobupivacaine plus clonidine, to find a 30% prolongation of analgesia with the adjuvant, using the same SD. The onset and duration of the block (time from completion of block administration to first morphine request), the hemodynamic changes during surgery, the need for rescue analgesia, and technical or neurologic complications were assessed over a 24-hour period. The onset of sensory block (in minutes) was similar in the levobupivacaine and levobupivacaine plus clonidine groups (10 [5-20] vs 10 [5-23] minutes, median [interquartile range], respectively), as was the time to first request of pain medication (1215 [920-1530] vs 1275 [1067-1360] minutes, respectively). However, during surgery, statistically significantly more subjects in the levobupivacaine plus clonidine group than the levobupivacaine group experienced a decrease of more than 20% in systolic arterial pressure (50% vs 28% of patients, respectively; P < 0.028). No complications were noted in either group over 24 hours.","The aim of this review is to provide an overview of the drugs and techniques used for multimodal postoperative pain management in the older population undergoing surgery in the ambulatory setting. Interest has grown in the possibility of adding adjuncts to a single shot nerve block in order to prolong the local anesthetic effect. The rapid and short-acting local anesthetics for spinal anesthesia are potentially beneficial for day-case surgery in the older population because of shorter duration of the motor block, faster recovery, and less transient neurologic symptoms. Another recent advance is the introduction of intravenous acetaminophen, which can rapidly achieve rapid peak plasma concentration (<15 min) following infusion and analgesic effect in ∼5 min with a duration of action up to 4 h.","yes. Ephedrine combined with either bupivacaine or lidocaine acted synergistically to block motor function and has the potential to reduce the amount of local anesthetic needed for spinal block. The synergistic effect of ephedrine in combination with local anesthetics is an interesting pharmacological phenomenon that warrants further clinical evaluation.","In isolated nerves, tetrodotoxin (TTX) blocks nerve conduction longer than bupivacaine. In vivo, however, both substances block nerve conduction to an equal duration, presumably because the hydrophilic TTX binds only weakly to the perineural tissue. High molecular weight hyaluronic acid (HA) prolongs the action of local anaesthetics several-fold. We tested whether admixture of HA enhances the binding of TTX to the perineural tissue and thus induces an ultra-long conduction block after a single application. In 12 anaesthetized rabbits, the minimal blocking concentrations of TTX, TTX and HA (TTX/HA) and bupivacaine with HA (bupivacaine/HA) were determined by blocking the natural spike activity of the aortic nerve. In 18 other animals, equipotent concentrations of either TTX, TTX/HA or TTX/bupivacaine/HA were applied topically to the aortic nerve. After disappearance of the spike activity, the wound was closed to simulate the clinical situation of a single shot nerve block. The time until recovery of spike activity was determined. The nerves were examined for signs of neurotoxicity 24 h after the application of the drugs. Data are presented as means +/- SD and compared by ANOVA and Student's t-test for unpaired data. The conduction block by TTX/bupivacaine/HA (10.1 +/- 1.9 h) or TTX/HA (9.3 +/- 1.0 h) was significantly longer than that of plain TTX (7.9 +/- 1.0 h). Neurotoxicity was not observed.","yes. Both tertiary amine local anesthetics and their quaternary ammonium derivatives can elicit a predominantly sensory/nociceptor selective block when followed by injection of capsaicin. The combined application of transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 channel agonists and various local anesthetics or their quaternary ammonium derivatives is an appealing strategy to achieve a long-lasting differential block in regional analgesia.","To investigate the therapeutic effects of a local ice compress in alleviating eyelid swelling and errhysis and providing relief from pain after surgery. Eyelid swelling and pain are the most common postoperative symptoms after scleral buckling surgery. A local ice compress can reduce the severity of swelling, errhysis and pain after acute injury as well as after surgery. A retrospective study. A total of 100 patients who had undergone scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment were classified into an ice compress group or a control group. All patients received standard postoperative medical care: a 1% Tropicamide ophthalmic solution (Minims The severity of swelling, pain and errhysis in the operated eyes was significantly lower in the ice compress group.","We performed a prospective audit of the level of postoperative pain experienced by patients following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant after preincisional regional retrobulbar anaesthesia using bupivacaine 0.75% with 1:100,000 adrenaline. An 11-point numerical ranking box scale was used to measure the subjective experience of postoperative pain following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant in 40 patients with uveal melanoma. Surgery was performed under general anaesthesia with a supplementary peroperative retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine 0.75%/adrenaline 1:100,000. Pain scores were measured for the first 8 hours following administration of the block. The sample included 19 female and 21 male patients with a mean age of 66.7 years (31-87). At four hours post block, 80% were still pain free with 17% experiencing only mild to moderate pain (BS-11 = 1-4). Thirty-four (85%), twenty-eight (70%) and twenty-seven (67%) patients remained pain free at 2, 3 and 4 hours, respectively with no additional analgesia. The remainder scored BS-11 of 1-4 in 92% of cases. Twenty percent required supplementary analgesia (paracetemol in 78% cases) by 5 hours and 57% by 8 hours. BS-11 at 8 hours were 0 in 50%, 1-4 in 22% and 5-10 in 10% of patients (17% asleep). No complications using this technique were recorded.","Beyond the analgesia provided by the regional anesthesia of the ilioinguinal and field blocks, the preoperative use of ketorolac further reduced postoperative pain scores and the need for additional postoperative analgesic medication. Comparable outcomes for the i.v., i.m. and i.w. groups indicate the lack of any benefit to concentrating the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug at the wound (i.w.) or to achieving high blood levels rapidly (i.v.). In conclusion, ketorolac is a useful supplement to ilioinguinal plus field block regional anesthesia for hernia surgery and is most effective administered parenterally.","Inguinal herniorrhaphy (IH) is a common outpatient procedure, yet postoperative pain and anesthetic side effects remain a problem. Paravertebral somatic nerve blocks (PVB) have the potential to offer unilateral abdominal wall anesthesia and long-lasting pain relief with minimal side effects. We compared PVB with peripheral neural blocks for outpatient IH. Forty-six patients scheduled for IH were entered into this prospective, single-blind study. All patients underwent a standardized general anesthetic. Patients were randomly assigned to receive a PVB (levels T10-L2) preoperatively (n = 24) or an intraoperative peripheral block (PB) by the surgeon (n = 22), using 0.5% ropivacaine (40 mL). Opioid use, verbal analog pain scores, and side effects were documented for 72 hours. The use of opioids during surgery was less for the PVB group 162 +/- 70 mg than the PB group, 210 +/- 60 (P =.02). Need for opioids in PACU was less for the PVB group (39%) than the PB group (61%) (P =.002). Time until first pain after discharge was not different between groups, 312 +/- 446 minutes (PB) and 425 +/- 384 minutes (PVB) (P =.12). Of the PVB patients, 29% used no opioids at all compared with 18% of PB patients (P =.12). Mean time until first oxycodone use was similar between groups, 303 +/- 469 minutes (PB) and 295 +/- 225 minutes (PVB) (P =.18). Oxycodone use was also similar; 35 +/- 34 mg (PVB) versus 49 +/- 42 mg (PB) (P =.30). More patients in the PB group (50%) required antiemetic treatment in the postanesthesia care unit than the PVB group (21%) (P <.001). Side effects were similar at all other measurements.","Dexmedetomidine can prolong the duration of local anesthetics, but the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on the potency of ropivacaine for retrobulbar block has not been investigated. Our study was designed to determine the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on ropivacaine for retrobulbar block in children. A group of 90 children aged 10-16 years scheduled for vitreoretinal surgery who received retrobulbar block were randomly assigned to 1 of 3 groups: group L (retrobulbar ropivacaine), group LD1 (ropivacaine plus 0.5 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine), or group LD2 (ropivacaine plus 1 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine). The minimum local anesthetic concentration (MLAC) was determined according to a Dixon-Massey protocol. The primary endpoint of the study was MLAC. Secondary outcomes were duration of postoperative analgesia, postoperative pain scores, dexmedetomidine side effects, and time to hospital discharge. The MLAC values of retrobulbar ropivacaine were 0.314%, 0.259%, and 0.246% in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively. The median (interquartile range) durations of analgesia in the postoperative period were 66 (54-117), 89 (40-157), and 168 (120-194) minutes in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively (L vs LD1 or LD2, p<0.05). Wake-up time was significantly increased in groups LD1 and LD2.","Retrobulbar injection can be associated with significant pain, due to both needle insertion and deposition of the local anaesthetic solution. The local anaesthetic cream EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) which contains a mixture of lignocaine and prilocaine has been shown to reduce the pain associated with skin puncture. The efficacy of EMLA in alleviating the pain of retrobulbar injection for cataract surgery was assessed in this study. In this, randomised double-blind study, EMLA (n = 53) or lignocaine 5% ointment (n = 50) was administered to the inferior orbital margin at least 45 min before retrobulbar block in 103 patients. Pain assessed during retrobulbar block was marked subjectively by the patient on a 10-point numerical rating scale. Median verbal pain scores were 3.0 with an interquartile range of 1.5-6.5 in the control group and 3.50 with an interquartile range of 2.0-6.0 in the EMLA(R) group (P = 0.67). There was no significant difference between the EMLA group and the lignocaine ointment group according to this pain assessment.","yes. A single bolus of i.v. ketamine 1 or 2 mg/kg for anesthetic induction results in a lower incidence of OCR than propofol when combined with sevoflurane for maintenance in children undergoing strabismus surgery.","Both methods of anaesthesia are appropriate, but phacoemulsification with TA is more painful than with RBA. In hypertonic patients and younger patients who are more susceptible to pain, TA should be avoided or used in combination with individualized sedation.","Ropivacaine appears attractive for epidural analgesia because it produces less motor block than racemic bupivacaine. The potential benefits of levobupivacaine with regard to motor blockade require further investigations. In this study, we compared the efficacy, dose requirements, side effects, and motor block observed with epidural levobupivacaine and ropivacaine when given in combination with small-dose morphine for 60 h after major abdominal surgery. Postoperatively, 50 patients were randomly allocated, in a double-blinded manner, to patient-controlled epidural analgesia with the same settings and without basal infusion, using 0.1% levobupivacaine or 0.1% ropivacaine. Both were combined with an epidural infusion of 0.1 mg/h morphine. Pain scores, side effects, motor block, and local anesthetic consumption were measured for 60 h. Pain scores measured on a 100-mm visual analog scale were approximately 20 mm at rest and 40 mm during mobilization in both groups. Bromage scores were 1 for all patients after the fourth postoperative hour. Consumption of levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were similar: 344 +/- 178 mg levobupivacaine versus 347 +/- 199 mg ropivacaine 48 h postoperatively. On postoperative day 2, 19 patients in the ropivacaine group versus 12 in the levobupivacaine group were able to ambulate (P < 0.05). No difference was noted concerning incidence of side effects. We conclude that when used as patient-controlled epidural analgesia and combined with small-dose epidural morphine, 0.1% levobupivacaine and 0.1% ropivacaine produce comparable postoperative analgesia with a similar incidence of side effects.","Regional anesthesia represents the most suitable anesthesia technique in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification. Only in 8% of patients MAC was suitable, due to excessive anxiety or cardiovascular imbalance. Compared to other anesthesia techniques, regional anaesthesia is significantly safer. The utility of preoperative tests in reducing the morbidity associated with surgery, is also discussed.","yes. This prospective, randomized, double-blinded study demonstrated that, when providing combined sciatic-femoral nerve block for hallux valgus repair, the addition of 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine prolongs the duration of postoperative analgesia by 3 h, with only a slight and short-lived increase in the degree of sedation and no hemodynamic adverse effects.","yes. The combination ADG for preoperative preparation of cataract patients achieves at least equivalent dilation and corneal anaesthesia as the current preoperative pharmacologic regimen.","To assess the analgesic and side effects of the continuous epidural infusion of 0.2% ropivacaine combined with morphine compared to both drugs alone. In this study, both observers and patients were blinded to patient group assignment. Sixty patients scheduled to undergo lower abdominal surgery were enrolled. Patients were randomized to one of three postoperative treatment groups: 1) combination group (a combination of 0.2% ropivacaine and 0.003% morphine); 2) morphine group (0.003% morphine); or 3) ropivacaine group (0.2% ropivacaine). Postoperatively, all solutions were administered epidurally at a rate of 6 mL.hr(-1) for 24 hr. Patients were given iv flurbiprofen as a supplemental analgesic on demand. The combination group showed lower visual analogue scale scores than those of patients receiving either drug alone, both at rest and on coughing. The combination group showed a slight motor block at two hours after the continuous epidural infusion, while the ropivacaine and morphine groups did not show any motor block. The incidence of itching was significantly increased in the morphine and combination groups, compared to the ropivacaine group. There was no significant difference between the numbers of patients with nausea in the three groups. No hypotension or respiratory complications were observed in the three groups.","Unilateral spinal anesthesia is performed to provide restriction of sensory and motor block. The aim of this study was to compare unilateral and bilateral spinal anesthesia, with regard to limiting the nerve block exclusively to the area of surgery. This was a prospective, randomised, double-blind study, conducted in 40 consecutive outpatients scheduled for unilateral inguinal regional surgery. Patients in both groups received 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 15 mg + morphine 0.1 mg. Patients in the unilateral group (Group U) were placed in the lateral decubitus position for 10 minutes (min) on their side to be operated, while patients in the bilateral group (Group B) were placed in the supine position. The pin-prick test was used to assess the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 sensory blocks and the times to reach motor block. In addition, the sensory and motor block recovery times were recorded using a modified Bromage scale. Furthermore, the duration of the operation and the times to first analgesic requirement were noted. There were significant differences between Group U and Group B in the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 dermatome levels of sensory block, and the times to reach motor block using the modified Bromage scale on three levels. However, there was no difference in the time to ambulation, the time to complete sensory regression and the time to first analgesic requirement.","To evaluate the efficacy of a combination anaesthetic plus dilating gel (ADG) on pupil dilation (PD) and corneal anaesthesia (KA) compared to traditional preoperative pharmacotherapy for cataract surgery. Prospective, noninferiority study. We studied 20 consenting adults who experienced unilateral cataracts and underwent routine cataract surgery, receiving the traditional preoperative pharmacologic regimen in the operated eye (control eye): diclofenac 0.1%, gentamicin 0.3%, cyclopentolate 1%, phenylephrine 2.5%, and tropicamide 1% 60 and 20 minutes prior to surgery. They then received tetracaine 0.5% and povidone-iodine 5% 10 minutes prior to surgery; and were given tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and lidocaine 2% gel 1 minute prior to surgery. Epinephrine 0.1%, 1 cc per 500 mL bag of balanced saline salt solution was administered during surgery. The nonoperated eye (study eye) received tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and 0.35 cc ADG gel (phenylephrine 10%, tropicamide 1%, diclofenac 0.1%, and lidocaine 2%) 60 and 10 minutes prior to surgery. PD and KA were measured at baseline, at 30 minutes, and at 5 minutes prior to surgery, and at 5 minutes after surgery. There was no difference in PD (p = 0.2634) or KA (p = 0.6058) between the study eyes and the control eyes at baseline. Preoperatively, greater mydriasis was achieved in the study eye (7.95 ± 0.91 mm vs 7.17 ± 1.25 mm; p < 0.0001). There was no significant difference in preoperative KA between the study and control eyes (1.5 ± 2.2 mm vs 1.4 ± 2.1 mm; p = 0.77).","Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have become a popular component of analgesia regimens, particularly in combination with narcotics. We questioned whether there might also be a place for their use in conjunction with regional anesthesia and whether there was a preferable route for NSAID administration. Ilioinguinal and field blocks were performed preoperatively on seventy patients undergoing outpatient inguinal hernia repair. Patients were divided into a control group who received no ketorolac and four study groups who received a preoperative dose of 30 mg ketorolac by one of the following routes: i.v., i.m., p.o., or intrawound (i.w.). The ketorolac in the i.w group was mixed in the syringe with the local anesthetic used for the field block. i.v. and i.m. groups also received ketorolac at the time of the preoperative regional anesthesia and the PO group received the dose at least one hour preoperatively. All patients received a similar general anesthetic intraoperatively. Postoperative pain scores and analgesic requirements were lowest for the i.m., i.v., and i.w. groups. Pain scores and analgesic requirements for the PO group were less than for the control group but more than for the other three groups. Analgesic efficacy therefore ranked: i.m. = i.v. = i.w.>p.o.>control. Though no differences were found between groups in the time to discharge from the recovery room, the ease of nursing care paralleled the findings for pain scores and analgesia requirements.","yes. Hyaluronidase permits a significant 2.4-fold (95% CI, 1.8-3.4) reduction in MLAV for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia.","no. We conclude, therefore, that for carpal tunnel operation under iv regional anesthesia, the combination of tramadol and lidocaine is not more effective than lidocaine alone.","To evaluate the effects of adding small-dose clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine during peripheral nerve blocks, 30 ASA physical status I and II patients undergoing hallux valgus repair under combined sciatic-femoral nerve block were randomly allocated in a double-blinded fashion to receive block placement with 30 mL of either 0.75% ropivacaine alone (group Ropivacaine, n = 15) or 0.75% ropivacaine plus 1 microg/kg clonidine (group Ropivacaine-Clonidine, n = 15). Hemodynamic variables, oxygen saturation, and levels of sedation, as well as the time required to achieve surgical block and time to first analgesic request, were recorded by a blinded observer. Time to surgical blockade required 10 min in both groups. Patients in the Ropivacaine-Clonidine group were more sedated than patients in the Ropivacaine group only 10 min after block placement. No differences in oxygen saturation and hemodynamic variables, degree of pain measured at first analgesic request, and consumption of postoperative analgesics were observed between the two groups. The mean time from block placement to first request for pain medication was shorter in group Ropivacaine (13.7 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 11. 8-14.5 h) than in group Ropivacaine-Clonidine (16.8 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 13.5-17.8 h) (P = 0.038). We conclude that adding 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine provided a 3-h delay in first request for pain medication after hallux valgus repair, with no clinically relevant side effects.","To determine whether irrigation of the sub-Tenon's space with anesthetic agents during pars plana vitrectomy (PPV) involving general anesthesia decreases postoperative pain, analgesic use, or nausea. A prospective, controlled trial of 46 consecutive patients requesting general anesthesia for PPV who were randomized to receive or not receive a sub-Tenon's space injection prior to surgery. A mixture of 3 mL of 2% lidocaine with hyaluronidase and 3 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine was used to induce local blockade. Pain, postoperative nausea, and analgesia use were evaluated. Local blockade did not significantly alter the proportion of reported pain at 30 minutes and 2, 4, and 24 hours after the operation. The local blockade had no effect on reducing postoperative nausea or the number of patients requiring pain medication.","yes. Droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) in combination with ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1), administered at the induction and end of the operative procedure respectively, is more effective than either drug given individually in reducing the incidence of PONV after strabismus surgery.","We compared the effects of sub-Tenon's local anaesthetic block and placebo on peri-operative opioid requirement and cardiovascular stability and on postoperative pain, nausea and vomiting in patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia. We studied 43 patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia in a randomized double blind study. Patients received a standard general anaesthetic followed by a sub-Tenon's injection of 4-5 mL of either bupivacaine 0.75% or saline. We recorded intraoperative invasive arterial pressure, then the incidence and severity of pain and of nausea and vomiting, for 24 h postoperatively. In the sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group, there was a significant reduction in the perioperative opioid use and a reduction in the frequency of bradycardia and hypertensive episodes, defined as a rise > 25% of baseline for a duration of > 3 min. The sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group also had significantly lower pain scores and nausea scores at 12 h, concomitant with a lower consumption of analgesia and antiemetics.","The use of sub-Tenon block as preemptive analgesia after induction of general anesthesia and before the start of rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair was effective in reducing postoperative pain and analgesic requirements compared with an unblocked group. The use of sub-Tenon block was also effective in reducing intraoperative incidence of oculocardiac reflex and postoperative incidence of vomiting.","To evaluate the duration of the effect of mepivacaine when hyaluronidase is injected immediately prior to the end of pulpal anesthesia. Forty bilateral, symmetrical third molar surgeries were performed in 20 healthy patients. Inferior alveolar nerve block was induced using 2.8 mL 2% mepivacaine with epinephrine. Hyaluronidase (75 turbidity-reducing units) or a placebo was injected 40 minutes after the beginning of pulpar anesthesia (randomized and double-blind trial). The duration of effect in the pulpal and gingival tissues was evaluated by response to painful electrical stimuli applied to the adjacent premolar, and by mechanical stimuli (pin prick) to the vestibular gingiva, respectively. In both tissues, the duration of anesthetic effect with hyaluronidase was longer (P < .01) than with the placebo.","Bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block may be useful to control postoperative pain in gynecologic surgery, especially hysterectomy. In a prospective, randomized, double-blind study, we compared the combination of ropivacaine and clonidine (block group) versus saline (control group). The main objective of this study was to compare the total dose of morphine required during the first two postoperative days. All patients received antiemetic prophylaxis and multimodal IV analgesia. Seventy patients were randomized. The total morphine consumption during the first two postoperative days was decreased by 51% in the block group compared with the control group (21 +/- 9 mg vs 41 +/- 24 mg, P < 0.0001). This difference was not only due to morphine titration, but remained significant over the following 2 days. The course of the visual analog scale was equivalent between the two groups. No difference was observed in the side effects of morphine.","Retrospective study in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification in order to evaluate the incidence of regional peribulbar anaesthesia compared with MAC (Monitored Anesthesia Care). Between January 1999 and December 2000, 1902 patients were studied. Peribulbar anaesthesia was performed by using a double or single inferior-lateral injection with a mixture of Lidocaine 2% and Bupivacaine 0.5% or, as a single agent, of Ropivacaine 0.75%. Jaluronydase 10 UI/ml was added to either agents. Only in 8% of patients intravenous drugs were added during surgery to correct bradycardia in 3%, hypertension 3% and for sedation in 2%.","To investigate whether hyaluronidase (Hyalase) is a useful and justified addition to haematoma block for pain relief. The study was a randomised double blind trial of 33 consecutive patients attending the accident and emergency department for manipulation of distal radius fracture under haematoma block. Control patients received 1% lignocaine; the treatment group received 1% lignocaine plus 1500 IU hyaluronidase. Manipulation occurred 10 minutes after instituting the block. 16 patients received hyaluronidase, 17 received lignocaine only. One patient with unsuccessful manipulation was excluded. There was no significant difference between the two groups for any of three methods of pain assessment (P>0.05, Mann Whitney).","Volumes of local anaesthetics for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia vary. Lower volumes produce less akinesia, whereas higher volumes increase chemosis and intra-ocular pressures. Hyaluronidase is often added to local anaesthetics to improve akinesia without increasing the volume of the injection, but this is controversial. This randomized, sequential allocation study examines the addition of hyaluronidase on the minimum local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) required for a sub-Tenon's block. Sixty-two patients having sub-Tenon's blocks for cataract surgery were randomized into two groups. The control group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine and the study group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine with hyaluronidase 15 IU ml(-1). Using parallel up-down sequential allocation from a 4 ml starting volume, the volumes in both groups were changed using a testing interval of 1 ml according to the quality of globe akinesia. The median effective local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) was calculated for both groups using probit regression. The groups were similar for age, sex, and ocular axial length. The MLAV in the hyaluronidase group was 2.6 ml [95% confidence interval (CI), 2.1-3.l] and 6.4 ml (95% CI, 5.1-8.1) in the control group (P<0.002).","Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects.","The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia."],"string":"[\n \"IVRA with lidocaine and with the inclusion of ketorolac and dexamethasone provides effective perioperative analgesia for patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery, when compared to the use of lidocaine alone or lidocaine with ketorolac IVRA.\",\n \"Arthroscopic shoulder surgery is often associated with severe postoperative pain. The results concerning subacromial bursa blockade (SUB) as a method of pain relief have been contradictory. We hypothesized that a SUB and interscalene brachial plexus block (ISB) would similarly reduce early postoperative pain and the need for oxycodone as compared to placebo (PLA). Forty-five patients scheduled for arthroscopic shoulder surgery were enrolled in this randomised, prospective study. The ISB and SUB blockades were performed with 15 ml of ropivacaine (5 mg/ml). In the PLA group, 15 ml of 0.9% saline was injected into the subacromial bursa. All patients received general anaesthesia. The mean intravenously patient-controlled delivered oxycodone consumption during the first 6 h was significantly lower in the ISB group (6 mg) than in the SUB group (24.1 mg; P=0.001) or in the PLA group (27 mg; P<0.001). No significant differences were detected between the SUB and PLA groups (P=0.791). The postoperative pain scores during the first 4 h at rest and during the first 6 h on movement were significantly lower in the ISB group than in the SUB and PLA groups.\",\n \"We did not find clinical studies of the alkalization of ropivacaine in the literature. The objectives of this study were: (1) to determine the quantity of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO(3)), which alkalinizes 0.75% ropivacaine (with and without adrenaline); (2) to verify the physico-chemical alterations arising from this alkalization; and (3) to determine whether alkalinized ropivacaine produces a higher-quality epidural block measured via sensory-motor onset, block spread and anesthesia duration. It was determined in the laboratory that 0.012 and 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3), respectively, alkalinized 10 mL of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions without and with adrenaline (1:200,000). In the second phase, the study was random and double-blind and involved 60 patients divided into 3 groups of 20 (G1, G2, and G3). Via epidural lumbar blocks, these groups received, respectively, 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.5 mL of 0.9% NaCl (solution A), 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.0012 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution B), and 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine (with adrenaline) plus 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution C). The pH, PCO(2) (partial CO(2) pressure), and the nonionized fractions of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions were compared before and after the addition of 0.9% NaCl or NaHCO(3) or adrenaline plus NaHCO(3). The motor and sensory onsets, block spread, and the duration of the block were evaluated. The values of the pH, PCO(2), and nonionized fractions increased significantly in solutions B and C in relation to solution A. No differences among the groups were observed in relation to block spread and sensory-motor onset. The duration of the sensory blocks was significantly greater in the patients in groups G2 and G3.\",\n \"To compare the lateral pre-iliac approach to the lumbar plexus combined with lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve block, and the dorsal paravertebral approach to the lumbar plexus combined with sciatic nerve block in dogs. Retrospective examination of case records of dogs that received the blocks and underwent pelvic limb orthopaedic surgery between 2010 and 2012. Success rate (intraoperative fentanyl consumption <2·1 µg/kg/hour), type and dose of local anaesthetic used, multiple of minimum alveolar concentration of volatile anaesthetic agent administered, incidence of intraoperative hypotension, postoperative methadone administration, postoperative contralateral limb paralysis and neurological complication at 6 weeks re-examination were analysed. Ninety-six and 95 records were retrieved in which lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve were used, respectively. Success rates were 82·3% in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and 74·7% in dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve groups. Bupivacaine, levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were used. Total local anaesthetic doses, intraoperative hypotension and postoperative methadone administered were similar between groups; minimum alveolar concentration multiple was significantly (P<0·001) lower in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve group. No neurological complications were noted.\",\n \"yes. We successfully performed repeated psoas compartment blocks with a local anesthetic and subsequently with added opioids, which produced substantial pain relief, especially after the addition of opioids.\",\n \"yes. S I t after topical anesthesia with 0.5% proparacaine hydrochloride eye drops is more objective and reliable than that without anesthesia in reflecting the status of DE, and its diagnostic value in patients with ADDE was even higher, making itself a meaningful evidence for the diagnosis and treatment of DE.\",\n \"For laparoscopic pyloromyotomy in term infants using propofol, sevoflurane and no intraoperative opioid, succinylcholine may be the best neuromuscular blocking drug choice, provided no contraindication is present. However, based on the small difference in time to transport, rocuronium as administered herein may be a reasonable alternative preferred by some clinicians.\",\n \"Primary cleft lip repair is performed in infants under 1 year of age. The efficacy of an infraorbital nerve block vs intravenous fentanyl was compared in our prospective, randomized controlled trial. Forty-six infants scheduled for primary cleft lip repair were prospectively randomized to one of two groups: group F that received 2 mcg x kg(-1) of fentanyl intravenously and an infraorbital nerve block with 0.5 ml on each side of preservative-free normal saline, and, group B that received bilateral infraorbital nerve blocks with 0.5 ml on each side of 0.25% bupivacaine and 2 ml of preservative-free saline solution intravenously after induction of anesthesia but prior to surgical incision. Patients were observed by a blinded observer for (i) pain scores using neonatal infant pain score; (ii) need for rescue medication in the anesthesia care unit (PACU), in the short stay unit (SSU) and at home and (iii) feeding parameters including difficulty in feeding, time to first feeding and volume of feeds in the PACU, SSU and at home. There were no significant differences in pain scores between the two groups over time (P = 0.98); there were no differences between groups in the number of rescue medications in the PACU, in the SSU as well as at home; however, the time to first rescue medication was greater in the block group compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.07). There were no significant differences in feeding volumes between groups in the PACU (P = 0.46), SSU (P = 0.57) and at home (P = 0.15). There were no differences in time to initiate feeding between the two groups (P = 0.81). However, there was difficulty with feeding in the block groups compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.01).\",\n \"To examine if ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block could reduce the need for post-Cesarean delivery morphine analgesia and thus reduce the incidence of opioid related adverse-effects. A multi-level technique for performing the nerve block with bupivacaine was developed and then utilized in this two-part study. Part one was a retrospective assessment of Cesarean delivery patients with and without ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric blocks to determine if the technique reduced patient controlled analgesia morphine use and thus would warrant further study. The second phase was a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled trial to compare post-Cesarean morphine use and the appearance of opioid-related side effects between the anesthetic and placebo-injected groups. Both phases demonstrated that our method of ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block significantly reduced the amount of iv morphine used by patients during the 24 hr following Cesarean delivery. In the retrospective assessment, morphine use was 49 +/- 30 mg in the block group vs 79 +/- 25 mg in the no block group (P = 0.0063). For the prospective trial, patients who received nerve blocks with bupivacaine had a similar result, self-administering 48 +/- 27 mg of morphine over 24 hr compared to 67 +/- 28 mg administered by patients who received infiltrations of saline. However, despite the significant decrease in morphine use, there was no reduction in opioid-related adverse effects: the incidences of nausea were 41% and 46% (P = 0.70) and for itching were 79% and 63% (P = 0.25) in the placebo and nerve block groups, respectively.\",\n \"The authors assess the effect of warming local anesthetic solutions on pain of injection and on bulbar akinesia and analgesia of retrobulbar anesthesia (RBA). Seventy patients undergoing RBA for cataract surgery were enrolled in a prospective, double-blind trial. They were allocated randomly to receive 5 ml either warm (37 degrees C) or cold (20 degrees C) anesthetic solution for RBA. Additionally, O'Brien's method was used to create an akinesia of the orbicularis oculi muscle. The following data were collected before and 20 minutes after retrobulbar injection: pain of injection, eye motility (Kestenbaum test), and corneal sensitivity (0: no sensitivity; 1: sensitivity remaining) at four different sites. The pain of injection was registered using an ordinal analogous scale before and immediately after the injection. Furthermore, data acquisition included any possible side effects and the bulbar length, measured with ultrasound. The score for injection pain (4.5 +/- 2.3 points), horizontal eye motility (0.2 +/- 0.8 mm), vertical eye motility (0.9 +/- 2.1 mm) all were lower for the warm group in comparison to the cold group (average pain score: 5.2 +/- 2.6 points; horizontal eye motility: 0.7 +/- 1.6 mm; vertical eye motility: 1.2 +/- 2.0 mm). Two patients in the warm group and four patients in the cold group had remaining corneal sensitivity. None of the differences were significant.\",\n \"yes. Local analgesia infiltration and abdominal nerve blocks as adjuncts to regional analgesia and general anaesthesia are of benefit in caesarean section by reducing opioid consumption. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as an adjuvant may confer additional pain relief.\",\n \"Management of postoperative pain following repair of pectus excavatum has traditionally included thoracic epidural analgesia, narcotics, and benzodiazepines. We hypothesized that the use of intercostal or paravertebral regional blocks could result in decreased inpatient length of stay (LOS). We conducted a retrospective cohort study of 137 patients (118 Nuss and 19 Ravitch - Nuss and Ravitch patients were analyzed separately) who underwent surgical repair of pectus excavatum with pain management via epidural, intercostal, or paravertebral analgesia from January 2009-December 2012. Measured outcomes included LOS, pain scores, benzodiazepine/narcotic requirements, emesis, professional fees, hospital cost, and total cost. In the Nuss patients, LOS was significantly reduced in the paravertebral group (p<0.005) and the intercostal group (p<0.005) compared to the epidural group, but was paradoxically countered by a nonsignificant increase in total cost (p=0.09). While benzodiazepine doses/day was not increased in the paravertebral group (p=0.08), an increase was seen in narcotic use (p<0.005). Despite increased narcotic use, no differences were seen in emesis between epidural and paravertebral use. Compared to epidural, pain scores were higher for both intercostal and paravertebral on day one (p<0.005), but equivalent for paravertebral on day three (p=0.62). The Ravitch group was too small for detailed independent statistical analysis but followed the same overall trend seen in the Nuss patients.\",\n \"Adequate neuromuscular block is required throughout laryngeal microsurgery. We hypothesized that the surgical conditions would improve under a deeper level of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular block. Seventy-two patients undergoing laryngeal microsurgery were randomly allocated to either the 'post-tetanic counts 1-2' (PTC1-2) group or the 'train-of-four counts 1-2' (TOFcount1-2) group according to the level of neuromuscular block used. Two different doses of rocuronium (1.2 or 0.5 mg kg(-1)) were used after anaesthetic induction, and two respective targets of neuromuscular block (post-tetanic counts ≤2 or train-of-four count of 1 or 2) were used. Surgical conditions were assessed by the surgeon using a five-point rating scale (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal), and clinically acceptable surgical conditions were defined as those which were rated acceptable, good, or optimal. The occurrence of vocal cord movement and postoperative adverse events was assessed. The surgical conditions were significantly different between the PTC1-2 and TOFcount1-2 groups (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal: 0/2/1/7/26 and 3/10/2/14/7, respectively, P<0.001). The incidence of clinically acceptable surgical conditions was significantly higher in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (94 vs 64%, P=0.003). The percentage of patients who exhibited vocal cord movement was significantly lower in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (3 vs 39%, P<0.001). The incidence of postoperative adverse events was not significantly different except for the less frequent occurrence of mouth dryness in the PTC1-2 group (P=0.035).\",\n \"Epidural lidocaine can be used when regional anesthesia needs to be established quickly, but the effect of co-administering epidural fentanyl on the minimum local analgesic concentration (MLAC) of lidocaine is not known. We compared the MLAC of epidural lidocaine in combination with different doses of fentanyl for epidural anesthesia in adults. One hundred and twenty patients requiring epidural analgesia were randomly allocated to receive 20 ml of one of four solutions: lidocaine, or lidocaine plus fentanyl 1 µg/ml, 2 µg/ml, or 3 µg/ml. The first patient in each group was administered 1% lidocaine weight by volume; subsequent patients received a concentration determined by the response of the previous patient to a higher or lower concentration according to up and down sequential allocation in 0.1% increments. Efficacy was assessed using a visual analog pain scale, and accepted if this was = 10 mm on a 100 mm scale within 30 minutes. The extent of motor block and of nausea and vomiting were recorded at 30 minutes after administration of the epidural solution and two hours after surgery, respectively. The MLAC of lidocaine in those receiving lidocaine alone was 0.785% (95%CI 0.738 - 0.864). A significant dose-dependent reduction was observed with the addition of fentanyl: the MLAC of lidocaine with fentanyl at 2 µg/ml was 0.596% (95%CI 0.537 - 0.660) and 0.387% with fentanyl at 3 µg/ml (95%CI 0.329 - 0.446, P < 0.001).\",\n \"yes. Treatment with nepafenac ophthalmic suspension 0.1% significantly reduced postoperative pain compared with placebo after pterygium surgery.\",\n \"Intraarticular (IA) local anesthetics are often used for the management and prevention of pain after arthroscopic knee surgery. Recently, IA tramadol was also used for the management of these patients. However, the IA combination of local anesthetic and tramadol has not been evaluated in arthroscopic outpatients. Our primary aim in this study was to evaluate the analgesic effect of an IA combination of bupivacaine and tramadol when compared with each drug alone using visual analog scale (VAS) pain scores in patients undergoing day-care arthroscopic knee surgery. Additionally, we assessed analgesic demand. Ninety ASA I/II patients undergoing arthroscopic partial meniscectomy, performed by a single surgeon under general anesthesia, were assigned in a randomized, double-blind manner into three groups: group B (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine, group T (n = 30) received 100 mg tramadol, and group BT (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine and 100 mg tramadol to a total volume of 20 mL by the IA route after surgery. Postoperative pain scores were measured on a VAS, at rest and on mobilization at 0.5, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 24 h. Duration of analgesia, the subsequent 24 h consumption of rescue analgesia, time to ambulation, and time to discharge were evaluated. In addition, the systemic side effects of the IA injected drugs were also assessed. The results showed significantly lower VAS pain scores in group BT (P << 0.1) when compared with groups T and B. Group BT had a later onset of postsurgical pain and longer time to first rescue analgesic than groups B and T. The 24 h consumption of analgesic was significantly less in group BT when compared with the other two groups (26.7% of the patients required rescue analgesia in group BT, whereas this number was 90% in group B and 86.7% in group T). In addition, time in hours to discharge and time to unassisted ambulation were significantly shorter in group BT when compared with groups T and B, and this was not associated with any detectable systemic effects.\",\n \"This prospective, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study was designed to determine the efficacy of dexmedetomidine compared with lidocaine in reducing the pain of propofol and rocuronium injection pain. One hundred and fifty patients, scheduled for elective surgery with general anaesthesia, were divided into five groups: saline (Group 1), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) (Group 2), lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 3), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.25 mg kg(-1) (Group 4) or dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 5) were administered at a rate of 0.5 mL s(-1) after tourniquet application. The occlusion was released after 1 min and 5 mL of propofol was injected over 20 s. Pain was evaluated by use of a 10-point verbal analogue scale. Then, the rest of the induction dose of propofol, 3 mL of saline bolus and 0.6 mg kg(-1) of rocuronium, was injected. The response to injection of rocuronium was assessed with a four-point scale (0-3). Groups 1 and 2 were found to have higher propofol injection pain scores than Groups 3, 4 and 5 (P<0.05). When the study groups were compared according to the overall incidence of withdrawal movements due to rocuronium (1 response) in Groups 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, they were different (86.7%, 60%, 36.7%, 50% and 40%, respectively) (P<0.05). Except Group 1, there was no significant difference between the groups according to incidence of withdrawal movement after rocuronium injection (P = 0.325).\",\n \"Multimodal analgesia can improve perioperative analgesia but knowledge of combination protocols is still incomplete. This study was designed to evaluate whether the combination of sciatic nerve blockade (SNB) and intravenous alfentanil (IVA) is more effective than either single treatment in relieving postoperative pain in rats. In a plantar incision model, withdrawal thresholds were evaluated by von Frey test before incision as baselines and for 7 days after incision. The animals were randomly allocated into various groups to receive SNB with 1% or 2% lidocaine, IVA of 50 or 150 μg/kg, or combined treatments (SNB 1% + 50 μg/kg IVA or SNB 2% + 150 μg/kg IVA) before incision. The results were compared with those of sham procedures--i.e., injections of peri-sciatic or intravenous saline, or a combination of both. Plantar incision caused postoperative allodynia for 3 days. SNB with 2% lidocaine reduced allodynia at 1 hour, 3 hours, day 1, and day 2, but not at postoperative 5 hours or days 3-7, whereas 150 μg/kg IVA produced short analgesia for only 3 hours after surgery. Neither low-dose SNB nor low-dose IVA had a significant effect. When high-dose SNB and high-dose IVA were combined, a strong antiallodynic effect was shown in an additive manner. No synergism was evidently displayed by the combination.\",\n \"yes. Inguinal paravascular block with parasacral sciatic nerve block led to a much higher incidence of obturator nerve motor block when compared to the inguinal paravascular block with posterior sciatic nerve block during knee arthroscopies.\",\n \"We studied three different injection techniques of sciatic nerve block in terms of block onset time and efficacy with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 75 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly allocated to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic posterior approach (group classic; n = 25), a modified subgluteus posterior approach (group subgluteus; n = 25), or a lateral popliteal approach (group popliteal; n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator (stimulation frequency, 2 Hz; intensity, 2-0.5 mA) and 30 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine. Onset of nerve block was defined as complete loss of pinprick sensation in the sciatic nerve distribution with concomitant inability to perform plantar or dorsal flexion of the foot. In the three groups, an appropriate sciatic stimulation was elicited at <0.5 mA. The failure rate was similar in the three groups (group popliteal: 4% versus group classic: 4% versus group subgluteus: 8%). The onset of nerve block was slower in group popliteal (25 +/- 5 min) compared with group classic (16 +/- 4 min) and group subgluteus (17 +/- 4 min; P < 0.001). There was no significant difference in the onset of nerve block between group classic and group subgluteus. No differences in the degree of pain measured at the first postoperative administration of pain medication were observed among the three groups. We conclude that the three approaches resulted in clinically acceptable anesthesia in the distribution of the sciatic nerve. The subgluteus and classic posterior approaches generated a significantly faster onset of anesthesia than the lateral popliteal approach.\",\n \"To investigate the sensory block onset time, duration time, and side effects of adding dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine for cervical plexus block. Forty American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Class I or II adult patients who were scheduled to undergo thyroid surgery were randomly allocated to the following groups to receive cervical plexus block: 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with 1 μg kg(-1) of dexmedetomidine; 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with saline (control). The sensory block onset time, duration of analgesia, mean arterial pressure (MAP), heart rate (HR), and the incidences of side effects, such as hypotension, bradycardia, and hypoxemia were recorded. The addition of dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine (Group D) shortened the sensory block onset time compared with the ropivacaine group (Group C) (95% confidence interval [CI] 4.18-5.26; p < 0.05). The duration of analgesia of cervical plexus block in Group D was significantly longer than that in Group C (95% CI 295.96-311.12; p < 0.05). The Ramsay sedation score at 5, 10, 20, 40, 60, 90, and 120 minutes after local anesthetic administration in Group D was significantly higher than that in Group C (p < 0.05). MAP level and HR level in Group D were significantly lower than that in Group C (p < 0.05).\",\n \"yes. The present study showed that the group of patients who received transtracheal block with lidocaine had a reduction in the requirement of the induction agent, propofol, and were more stable hemodynamically in the intraoperative period compared to those patients who did not receive transtracheal lidocaine. We conclude that transtracheal injection of lidocaine performed just prior to induction of general anesthesia is an effective alternative to intraoperative propofol infusion when long-acting muscle relaxants are to be avoided.\",\n \"Endoscopic sinus surgery (ESS) is a common procedure preferably done with an anesthetic technique ensuring effective postoperative analgesia while speeding discharge home. Although anesthesia administered locally in conjunction with vasoconstricting agents is known to minimize intraoperative bleeding, its usefulness in providing postoperative analgesia has not been well characterized. The results supporting the use of regional anesthesia for sinus surgery have also been limited. Using a randomized, double-blinded and placebo-controlled design, we evaluated recovery times, opioid consumption, and nausea and vomiting after ESS when patients were randomized to either general anesthesia (GA) alone or with regional blockade. Subjects were 70 adults scheduled for sinus surgery. All participants underwent propofol/remifentanil/nitrous oxide anesthesia and similar intraoperative care. Patients received either GA alone or with sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) blocks in a double-masked study design. Independent observers recorded readiness for discharge, incidence of nausea/vomiting, and pain scores every 15 minutes until discharge. Overall opioid use in the recovery area was also a secondary end point. Twenty-four hours later, patients were called and asked to rate their pain and overall satisfaction with their pain control. Block group participants were considered ready for discharge after 45 minutes and discharged from the hospital ∼40 minutes sooner than GA group participants. The block group required less total fentanyl in the recovery room than did the GA group. The incidences of nausea and vomiting did not differ significantly. Data at 24 hours postoperatively did not differ significantly between groups but trended toward increased satisfaction in the block group. No lasting adverse events were observed.\",\n \"We hypothesized that without the analgesic effects of volatile anesthetics, caudal 0.20% ropivacaine would be less effective during surgical stimulation than 0.20% bupivacaine or 0.20% levobupivacaine. This trial was designed to examine whether the combination of a caudal block with 0.20% ropivacaine and i.v. anesthesia resulted in reduced analgesic efficacy during surgery compared with caudal 0.20% levobupivacaine or 0.20% bupivacaine in children. Ninety ASA I-II children between 1 and 7 years old, scheduled for inguinal hernia repair or orchidopexy under propofol anesthesia were randomized to receive a caudal block with 1 ml x kg(-1) of 0.2% bupivacaine, 0.2% ropivacaine or 0.2% levobupivacaine. The primary outcome measure of the study was the clinical efficacy of the caudal block during surgery. Secondary outcome measures were postoperative pain relief and residual motor blockade. Four children were excluded and 86 were analyzed. The proportion of children with effective caudal block during surgery was significantly higher in children receiving levobupivacaine (26/28) or bupivacaine (27/29) compared with patients receiving ropivacaine (21/29) (P = 0.03). There were no significant differences among groups in the analgesic onset time (P = 0.1), incidence of residual motor blockade (P = 0.4), number of patients requiring analgesia after operation or in the time from caudal injection to the first administration of analgesic medication (P = 0.3).\",\n \"Regional anesthesia and analgesia for shoulder surgery is most commonly performed via interscalene nerve block. We developed an ultrasound-guided technique that specifically targets the C5 nerve root proximal to the traditional interscalene block and assessed its efficacy for shoulder analgesia. Prospective case series. Vanderbilt Bone and Joint Surgery Center. Patients undergoing shoulder arthroscopy at an ambulatory surgery center. Thirty-five outpatient shoulder arthroscopy patients underwent an analgesic nerve block using a new technique where ultrasound visualization of the C5 nerve root served as the primary target at a level proximal to the traditional interscalene approach. The block was performed with 15mL of 0.5% plain ropivicaine. Post anesthesia care unit pain scores, opioid consumption, hand strength, and duration of block were recorded. Cadaver dissection after injection with methylene blue confirmed that the primary target under ultrasound visualization was the C5 nerve root. Pain scores revealed 97% patients had 0/10 pain at arrival to PACU, with 91% having a pain score of 3/10 or less at discharge from PACU. Medical Research Council (MRC) hand strength mean (SD) score was 4.17 (0.92) on a scale of 1-5. The mean (SD) duration of the block was 13.9 (3.5) hours.\",\n \"yes. Using a preincisional retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine with adrenaline, BS-11 pain scores remained low with no or minimal additional analgesia for up to 4 hours post surgery. In combination with oral analgesia, effective pain control was provided in most cases for up to 8 hours post block.\",\n \"yes. Greater palatine nerve block with a combination of dexmedetomidine and bupivacaine increased the duration of analgesia after repair of a cleft palate by 50% with no clinically relevant side effects.\",\n \"yes. Regional anesthesia for pain after ACL repair in pediatric patients facilitated reliable same-day surgery discharge and significantly reduced UHAs. Single-shot blocks and blocks performed outside the OR were the most cost-effective. In addition, nerve block patients required less opioids and were ready for discharge sooner.\",\n \"To evaluate the adequacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only in vitreoretinal surgery. The study involved 90 patients, 25 who underwent 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy and 65 who underwent 20-gauge standard pars plana vitrectomy. Twenty-five of the 90 patients also underwent combined phacoemulsification and posterior intraocular lens implantation. The efficacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only was assessed by monitoring vital signs during surgery, reviewing patient responses to a questionnaire regarding their experience during surgery, and analyzing surgical outcomes. Four patients complained of moderate pain during surgery, but no patient complained of severe pain. Infiltrative anesthesia was additionally required in 14 patients. No patient experienced intraoperative complications due to head movement. Increased systolic blood pressure greater than 15 mm Hg occurred in 11 patients and increased respiratory rate by 3 breaths per minute or greater occurred in 7 patients. Anatomical and functional success rates were 95% and 80%, respectively. Complications included manageable retrobulbar bleeding (1 patient) and postoperative neovascular glaucoma (2 patients).\",\n \"Intraocular pressure is increased during laparoscopic surgeries performed in a steep Trendelenburg position. This study compared the effects of propofol with those of sevoflurane on intraocular pressure in patients undergoing robot-assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy in a 30° Trendelenburg position. Sixty-six patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil and sevoflurane (Sevoflurane Group) or remifentanil and propofol (Propofol Group). Intraocular pressure (IOP) was measured at nine predefined time points, including baseline (T0), five minutes after establishing pneumoperitoneum (T2), 30 min after establishing the Trendelenburg position with pneumoperitoneum (T3), five minutes after returning to the horizontal position (T4), and immediately after tracheal extubation (T6). The primary outcome was the change in intraocular pressure from T0 to T3. The results of linear mixed model analysis showed that intraocular pressure differed between the two groups (P = 0.0039). At T3, the mean (SD) IOP was greater in the Sevoflurane Group [23.5 (4.3) mmHg] than in the Propofol Group [19.9 (3.8) mmHg] (P = 0.0019). At T2 and T6, IOP was also greater in the Sevoflurane Group than in the Propofol Group (P = 0.038 and P = 0.009, respectively). There was a statistically significant increase in intraocular pressure from baseline to T3 (pneumoperitoneum and steep Trendelenberg) in the Sevoflurane Group [6.0 (5.0) mmHg; P < 0.001] but not in the Propofol Group [2.1 (5.1) mmHg; P = 0.136]. None of the patients experienced ocular complications.\",\n \"To compare preservative-free 1% lignocaine with balanced salt solution (BSS) in alleviating pain during hydrodissection in phacoemulsification cataract surgery. West Norwich Hospital, Norfolk, United Kingdom. This prospective double-masked trial comprised 68 patients having day-case phacoemulsification cataract surgery. Patients were randomly divided into 2 groups, receiving either BSS or lignocaine 1% solution for hydrodissection during routine uneventful phacoemulsification using topical anesthesia. The level of intraoperative pain was scored on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (severe pain), and the scores between the 2 groups were compared. Of the 68 patients, 33 (49%) received BSS and 35 (51%), lignocaine 1% solution. A pain score greater than 2 was considered clinically significant; 28 patients (85%) in the BSS group and 25 (71%) in the lignocaine 1% group scored 2 or less. The chi-square and Mann-Whitney tests found no significant difference between the BSS and lignocaine 1% groups (P = .30 and P = .432, respectively).\",\n \"Several peripheral nerve block techniques (PNB) are performed for hand surgery. Their tolerance by patients or their efficacy are poorly described. We evaluated them for blocks at the wrist and at the brachial canal. Cohort of outpatients undergoing open carpal tunnel release under PNB with arm tourniquet. Various anaesthetic protocols existed in our staff. The primary end points were a moderate to severe pain (greater than 3/10 on a numerical rating scale) felt during needle puncture, nerve stimulation, mepivacaine injection, at the surgical site (intraoperatively) or at the arm tourniquet, an intraoperative lidocaine supplementation, the occurrence of vasovagal events. For each primary end point, a logistic regression analyzed: the effects of gender, age, operated side, Emla(®)application, sedation before PNB (midazolam-sufentanil), wrist or brachial canal approach, musculocutaneous or radial block were using. Between January 2007 and June 2010, 551 consecutive patients were analyzed. Puncture pain, mepivacaine injection pain, pain tourniquet and vasovagal events were associated with wrist block (P=0.003, relative risk=1.86; P<0.001, RR=4.22; P<0.001, RR=4.52; P=0.035, RR=6.40). An intraoperative pain greater than 3/10 at the surgical site, or a supplementation by the surgeon were associated with the absence of musculocutaneous block (P=0.013, RR=2.44; P=0.013, RR=2.51).\",\n \"yes. Results of the study showed that the combination of 75 µg fentanyl and 1.5% lidocaine solution accelerated the onset of sensory and motor blockade during interscalene anesthesia.\",\n \"Caudal analgesia is commonly employed to provide excellent intra- and postoperative analgesia for primary hypospadias repair in children. Several additives to local anesthetics are commonly employed to increase the block duration, although these have uncertain benefits. This study investigated whether, in caudal analgesia with levobupivacaine 0.25%, the addition of S (+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both agents combined, would prolong postoperative analgesia in patients undergoing primary hypospadias repair. We conducted a retrospective chart analysis for all patients who underwent hypospadias repair with caudal analgesia over a consecutive 3-period at this institution. The study examined four patient groups, classified according to the analgesia used: No additive, levobupivacaine aloneLevobupivacaine and S (+)-ketamineLevobupivacaine and clonidineLevobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidinePRIMARY OUTCOME MEASURES WERE AS FOLLOWS: time to the first postoperative request for analgesia, total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia, and time to hospital discharge. The 87 patients included had a mean ± SD age of 21.4 ± 13.5 months and weight of 11.9 ± 2.4 kg. The median doses of levobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidine were 0.7 mg/kg (range, 0.4-1.3), 0.5 mg/kg (0.2-1.1), and 1.8 μg/kg (0.8-2.3), respectively. The addition of S(+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both did not increase the time to first oral analgesia request. Neither did it reduce the total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia requirements or alter hospital discharge time. However, the additive drugs in combination did increase postoperative sedation.\",\n \"yes. Ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block with IV dexketoprofen increases patient satisfaction by decreasing opioid consumption, increasing patient satisfaction, which suggests that dexketoprofen trometamol is an effective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesic in postoperative analgesia.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy of preemptive analgesia in surgical repair of retinal detachment (RD) using scleral buckle and cryopexy under general anesthesia. Thirty patients who were scheduled for rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair using scleral buckle and cryopexy and who were American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status I, II, or III were included in this study. The patients were randomly divided into two equal groups. The surgery was done under general anesthesia in both groups, but in Group 2, sub-Tenon anesthesia was given as preemptive analgesia after induction anesthesia and before start of surgery. Both groups were statistically comparable as regards patient age and weight and duration of anesthesia and surgery. The incidences of intraoperative oculocardiac reflex and postoperative vomiting were significantly lower in Group 2 compared with Group 1 (P<0.001 and 0.0113, respectively). The time of first postoperative analgesic dose was significantly shorter in Group 1 (46.67 +/- 18.84 minutes) compared with Group 2 (162.67 +/- 29.391 minutes) (P<0.001). The total analgesic consumption per 24 hours was significantly higher in Group 1 compared with Group 2 (P<0.001). The time of discharge from the hospital was significantly shorter in Group 2 (8.8 +/- 2.704 hours) compared with Group 1 (12.4 +/- 3.481 hours) (P = 0.0018).\",\n \"To compare the quality of pain relief and incidence of side effects between 24-hr postoperative continuous epidural infusion (CEI) and subsequent patient-controlled epidural analgesia (PCEA) with different analgesics after major abdominal surgery. Twenty-eight women undergoing extended gynecological tumour surgery received postoperative CEI with 0.15 mL x kg(-1) x hr(-1) 0.2% ropivacaine (R: n = 14) or 0.125% bupivacaine plus 0.5 micro g x mL(-1) sufentanil (BS: n = 14) during 24 postoperative hours. Twenty-four hours later, postoperative pain management was switched to PCEA without background infusion and 5 mL single bolus application of R or BS every 20 min at most. Visual analogue scales (VAS; 1-100 mm) were assessed by patients at rest and on coughing after 24 hr of CEI and PCEA. Side effects, doses of local anesthetics and opioids were recorded and plasma concentrations of total and unbound ropivacaine and bupivacaine were measured. Patients required lower doses of each respective analgesic medication with PCEA (R: 108 +/- 30 mL; BS: 110 +/- 28 mL) than with CEI (R: 234 +/- 40; BS: 260 +/- 45; P < 0.01). Ropivacaine plasma concentrations were lower 24 hr after PCEA when compared with CEI (P < 0.01). No patient after PCEA but two after CEI (n = 4; NS) presented motor block. PCEA with R provided better postoperative pain relief than CEI (37 +/- 32 vs 59+/-27, P < 0.05). No difference in parenteral opioid rescue medication between CEI and PCEA was seen.\",\n \"This multicentre, double-blind, placebo-controlled study compared the opioid-sparing effectiveness and clinical safety of parecoxib sodium over 48 h, in 195 postoperative patients after routine total knee replacement surgery. Elective total primary knee arthroplasty was performed under spinal anaesthesia, with a single dose of spinal bupivacaine 10-20 mg, and intraoperative sedation with midazolam 0.5-1.0 mg i.v., or propofol <6 mg kg(-1)h(-1). Patients were randomized to receive either parecoxib sodium 20 mg twice daily (bd) i.v. (n=65), parecoxib sodium 40 mg bd i.v. (n=67), or placebo (n=63) at the completion of surgery, and after 12, 24, and 36 h. Morphine (1-2 mg) was taken by patient-controlled analgesia or by bolus doses after 30 min. Patients receiving parecoxib sodium 20 mg bd and 40 mg bd consumed 15.6% and 27.8% less morphine at 24 h than patients taking placebo (both P<0.05). Both doses of parecoxib sodium administered with morphine provided significantly greater pain relief than morphine alone from 6 h (P<0.05). A global evaluation of study medication demonstrated a greater level of satisfaction among patients taking parecoxib sodium than those taking placebo. Parecoxib sodium administered in combination with morphine was well tolerated. However, a reduction in opioid-type side-effects was not demonstrated in the parecoxib sodium groups.\",\n \"yes. Vitreoretinal surgery, particularly 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy, can be safely and efficiently performed under retrobulbar block anesthesia only. Retrobulbar block anesthesia only could become a more acceptable anesthesia for vitreoretinal surgery for selected patients.\",\n \"Evidence indicating that single- and double-injection techniques for inducing a sciatic nerve block via a posterior subgluteal approach yield a similar success rate prompted us to investigate whether the two anesthetic techniques yield a similar success rate via a lateral approach. We also hypothesized that, owing to the peculiar anatomic features of the sciatic nerve at the popliteal level, a single injection via the lateral approach might induce effective anesthesia by targeting the tibial nerve only. Ninety-six patients undergoing popliteal sciatic nerve block via a lateral popliteal approach for foot surgery were randomized to receive a single 30-ml injection of ropivacaine 7.5 mg/ml to block the tibial nerve (TN group, n= 32) or the common peroneal nerve (CPN group, n= 32), or two separate 15-ml injections (TN + CPN group, n= 32), after stimulation to evoke motor responses from the target nerves. The mean time to obtain a complete sensory blockade (surgical anesthesia) was shorter in the TN group than in the CPN and TN + CPN groups (14 +/- 7 min vs. 23 +/- 17 and 21 +/- 14 min, respectively; P < 0.05). The success rate was similar in the TN and TN + CPN groups (94%) and, 25 min after the initial injection, was already better in these groups than in the CPN group (94% vs. 75%; P < 0.05).\",\n \"no. Use of sub-Tenon block does not decrease the incidence of postoperative pain significantly in children undergoing squint surgery. However, it leads to a statistically significant decrease in the incidence of intraoperative OCR and PONV in the early recovery period in these patients.\",\n \"Effective pain management is an important component of aesthetic procedures. To compare the pain relief and safety of large-gel particle hyaluronic acid (HA) plus 0.3% lidocaine (LGP-HA+L) with that of LGP-HA without lidocaine during correction of nasolabial folds (NLFs) and to assess filler safety in different skin types. Sixty subjects were enrolled in a randomized, double-blind, split-face study of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L for NLF correction. Subjects assessed pain on a 100-mm visual analog scale (VAS). The primary objective was to demonstrate that more than 50% of subjects experienced pain relief with LGP-HA+L, defined as a within-subject VAS difference of at least 10 mm at the end of injection. LGP-HA+L resulted in pain relief in 57 (95.0%, 95% confidence interval=86.1-99.0) subjects at the end of injection. The mean within-subject VAS difference was 34.4 mm. Injection-related adverse events occurred at similar frequencies with both products. Slightly higher adverse event rates were observed with Fitzpatrick skin type IV for both compounds. The safety profiles of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L were similar to each other in all skin types.\",\n \"yes. Multimodal anesthesia is associated with less postoperative pain and shorter LOS compared to epidural or traditional anesthetic techniques for the Nuss procedure. Multimodal anesthesia with a single intraoperative dose of methadone was associated with lowest total opioid use, time with uncontrolled pain, and shortest LOS.\",\n \"This double-blinded, randomized clinical trial was designed to evaluate intraocular pressure (IOP) change in cataract surgery using the combination of propofol and remifentanil or the combination of isoflurane and remifentanil. One hundred sixty patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil + isoflurane (group I), normal saline + isoflurane (group II), propofol + remifentanil (group III) or normal saline + propofol (group IV). IOP was measured at seven predefined time points, baseline (T0), 3 min after the start of continuous remifentanil infusion (T2), after induction of anesthesia (T3), immediately after laryngoscopy and intubation (T4), 5 min after laryngoscopy (T5), immediately after the block of continuous remifentanil infusion (T6) and 3 min after T6 (T7). Outcomes included IOP, systole blood pressure (SBP) and diastole blood pressure (DBP), mean arterial pressure (MAP) and heart rate (HR). The mean of IOP in Group III was lower than other groups and in group IV was higher than other groups. At time point T4 and T5 differences in the mean of IOP between groups III and IV was significantly different (P > 0.05). The trend in changes in the mean of IOP was statistically significant among groups (P value = 0.01). The trends in changes in the mean of SBP, DBP and MAP were not significantly different among groups (P value = 0.41). HR in group III was significantly lower than other groups. The trend in changes in the mean of HR was significantly different among groups (P value = 0.002).\",\n \"The inability to provide effective postoperative analgesia is one of the major disadvantages of intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA). We designed a prospective, randomized, double blind study to evaluate the analgesic effectiveness of adding both ketorolac and dexamethasone to lidocaine for IVRA. The study involved 45 patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery. They were randomly allocated into three groups: Group L, Group LK and Group LDK. Group L received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine; Group LK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine + 30 mg ketorolac; and Group LDK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine for IVRA + 8 mg dexamethasone + 30 mg ketorolac for IVRA using a 40 mL solution. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were recorded. Tourniquet pain and pain at the operative site were assessed by a visual analog scale. In the first 24 h after surgery, opioid requirements and total analgesic consumption, including side effects, were noted. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were similar in all groups. Patients in Groups LK and LDK required less alfentanyl for control of intraoperative and early postoperative pain. Further, patients in Groups LK and LDK reported significantly lower pain scores compared to those in Group L (P<0.001). Patients in Groups LK and LDK required fewer postoperative ketorolac tablets (2.2+/-1.6 and 1.3+/-0.6 tablets, respectively) in the first 24 h after surgery and had significantly longer periods during which they required no analgesics (524 min and 566 min, respectively) compared to those in Group L (3.8+/-1.3 tablets; 122 min, P<0.001).\",\n \"In this study, our aim was to evaluate the effects of intravenous dexketoprofen trometamol with ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve block on analgesic quality and morphine consumption after total abdominal hysterectomy operations. We conducted this randomized controlled clinical study on 61 patients. The study was conducted in the operation room, post-anesthesia care unit, and inpatient clinic. We randomly grouped the 61 patients into control group (group C), block group (group B) and dexketoprofen-block group (group DB). Before the skin incision performed after anesthesia induction, we performed ilioinguinal iliohypogastric block (group C given saline and group P and DB given levobupivacaine). In contrast to group C and B, group DB was given dexketoprofen. We administered morphine analgesia to all patients by patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) during the postoperative 24 hours. We recorded Visual Analogue Scale (VAS), satisfaction scores, morphine consumption and side effects during postoperative 24 hours. We found the DB group's VAS scores to be lower than the control group and block group's (p < 0.05) values at postoperative 1(st), 2(nd), 6(th) and 12(th) hours. VAS scores of group C were higher than of group B at postoperative first 2 hours. Time to first PCA demand was longer, morphine consumption values were lower and satisfaction scores were higher in group DB than in the other two groups (p < 0.05).\",\n \"The results of the present study suggest that intravenous sedation preoperatively seems to be an important determinant to relieve the sensation of discomfort/pain during small incision cataract surgery, but intracameral lidocaine was shown not to have a clinically useful role.\",\n \"The aim of this study is to compare the effects of parasacral and posterior Winnie approaches when combined with the inguinal paravascular approach for lumbar plexus block. After the approval of the Ethics Committee, 40 patients scheduled to undergo arthroscopic knee surgery were enrolled. The patients were randomly assigned into two groups in a double-blind manner to perform sciatic nerve block either by the parasacral technique (Group I) or by the posterior approach (Group II). The obturator nerve motor block success rate was found to be 80% (16/20) in Group I, whereas it was 10% (2/20) in Group II (p<0.05).\",\n \"Pediatric strabismus surgery is associated with a very high incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting [(PONV) 44-88%]. Droperidol (10-75 microg kg(-1)) and ondansetron (50-150 microg kg(-1)) have shown variable success in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV. Combination of these two drugs has shown promising results. This randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of these two drugs in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV in pediatric strabismus surgery. After institutional approval and parental informed consent, 240 children of ASA physical status I and II of either sex, aged 1-15 years were included in this study. None of the children received any premedication and a standardized anesthesia technique was used for all the children. They were prospectively randomized to one of the four treatment groups. Group PP received normal saline placebo intravenously after induction and at the end of the procedure. Group DP received droperidol 25 microg kg(-1) after induction and normal saline at the end. Group OP received ondansetron 150 microg kg(-1) after induction and saline at the end. Group DO received droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) after induction and ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1) at the end. Combination prophylaxis resulted in a lower incidence of PONV (13%) as compared to placebo (62.5%, P<0.001), ondansetron (37%, P<0.001), or droperidol (32%, P<0.01).\",\n \"Injection pain is a well-known adverse effect of propofol which distresses patients. Lidocaine pretreatment is the most popular method for reducing this pain but this drug cannot entirely eliminate the problem. The purpose of this study was to examine the analgesic effect of lidocaine/metoclopramide combination, compared with lidocaine alone, during propofol injection. In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 90 patients, 40 males and 50 females, scheduled for elective plastic surgery received either lidocaine 20 mg plus metoclopramide 10 mg iv, lidocaine 20 mg iv, or placebo (saline); (n = 30 in each), with venous occlusion for one minute, followed by administration of propofol 0.5 mg.kg(-1) into a dorsal hand vein. Pain was assessed on a four-point scale (0 = none, 1 = mild, 2 = moderate, 3 = severe) during propofol injection. 25 patients (83%) complained of pain in the placebo group, compared with 12 (40%) in the lidocaine group (P < 0.05) and three (10%) in the combination group (P < 0.05). Pain score (median) was less in the lidocaine (0) and combination (0) groups than in the placebo group (2); (P < 0.05). The difference in the incidence of pain between the combination and lidocaine groups was significant (P < 0.05).\",\n \"yes. These results indicate that olopatadine ophthalmic solutions appear to exert additional SP release inhibition besides dual-action such as selective histamine H1 receptor antagonistic action and mast cell stabilization action.\",\n \"The aim of the study was to compare visual estimation of onset of neuromuscular blockade at both the adductor pollicis (AP) and the orbicularis oculi (OO) in children and to determine if monitoring the OO could predict good intubating conditions during vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Thirty ASAI--II children (1.5-9 yr) were studied. Anaesthesia was induced with 6-8 mg.kg-1 thiopentone. The ulnar nerve at the wrist and the temporal branch of the facial nerve were stimulated every 10 sec using train-of-four (TOF) stimuli. Vecuronium, 0.15 mg.kg-1, was administered as a bolus. The responses at both the OO and the AP were evaluated visually. Patients were randomly divided into two groups. In the AP group (n = 15), the trachea was intubated when the AP was completely blocked. In the OO group (n = 15), intubation was performed when the OO was completely blocked. Intubating conditions were scored on a scale of 1 to 4. All the patients had complete blockade at both the orbicularis oculi and the adductor pollicis. In the two group, time from injection of vecuronium to complete neuromuscular blockade was shorter at the orbicularis oculi than at the adductor pollicis, 1.5 +/- 0.5 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.7 min, respectively, (P < 0.05; mean +/- SD) in the AP group, 1.7 +/- 0.3 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.8 min, respectively in the OO group (P < 0.05). Intubating conditions were excellent in all patient except one, where it was rated as good. They did not differ between groups.\",\n \"Intrarectal lidocaine gel instillation before periprostatic neurovascular bundle block produces a significant additional analgesic effect during biopsy. The procedure is simple, safe and rapid, and it should be considered in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy.\",\n \"yes. A multi-level ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block technique can reduce the amount of systemic morphine required to control post-Cesarean delivery pain but this reduction was not associated with a reduction of opioid related adverse effects in our study group.\",\n \"This pilot study, the first of its type, was conducted to determine the clinical outcome of glaucoma drainage implant (GDI) surgery supplemented with injectable crosslinked hyaluronic acid (HA) in patients with severe glaucoma. This was a retrospective chart study involving 10 eyes of 10 patients with severe glaucoma (glaucomatous visual field loss worse than -20 dB) who had previously undergone GDI surgery supplemented with crosslinked HA with a 2-year follow-up. Surgical success was defined as intraocular pressure (IOP) <21 mm Hg with a reduction of ≥40% (definition A) or ≥50% (definition B) from baseline IOP on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, IOP >5 mm Hg on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, and neither reoperation of glaucoma nor loss of light perception vision. The mean ± SD baseline IOP before GDI was 38.5 ± 10.7 mm Hg, and the mean IOP at the last follow-up visit was 13.0 ± 5.0 mm Hg, with a mean pressure drop of 24.4 ± 10.9 mm Hg (62%; p = 0.005). According to definition A, life-table analysis showed an overall success rate of 80%, while according to definition B, the success rate was 50% after 24 months of follow-up. Complications were infrequent and not serious. No complications resulting from the reticulated HA therapy itself were observed.\",\n \"yes. Hyaluronidase increases the duration of mepivacaine in inferior alveolar nerve blocks.\",\n \"yes. A single intravenous dexamethasone dose when combined with caudal block reduces postoperative pain, decreases paracetamol requirement and prolongs analgesic duration in children after open herniotomy.\",\n \"For peripheral nerve blockade, the double-injection technique proved to be superior to a single injection in previous investigations. The current study was designed to compare onset time and efficacy of two different double-injection approaches for sciatic nerve block with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 50 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly assigned to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic (Labat) posterior approach (n = 25) or a lateral popliteal approach (n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator, and both major components of the sciatic nerve (tibial and common peroneal nerves) received separately 10 ml ropivacaine, 0.75%. Success rate was defined as a complete sensory and motor block associated with pain-free surgery. A greater success rate was observed in the classic group (96%) as compared with the popliteal group (68%; P < 0.05). A general anesthetic became necessary in six patients (24%) with the lateral popliteal approach and none with the classic approach (P < 0.05). The onset of complete sensory and motor blockade was significantly faster in the classic group (12 +/- 6 min) as compared with the popliteal group (26 +/- 10 min; P < 0.05).\",\n \"In patients undergoing lung surgery, single intercostal nerve block plus i.v. patient-controlled analgesia with morphine is not as effective as patient-controlled EDA with respect to pain control and restoration of pulmonary function.\",\n \"Current techniques of peripheral nerve block have major limitations, including lack of differentiation between motor and sensory fibers and potential toxicity of local anesthetics. Recent studies have suggested that a nociceptive-selective nerve block can be achieved via a transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 activator (capsaicin) along with local anesthetics. We hypothesized that the combination of potent transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 agonist resiniferatoxin (RTX) and selected antidepressants (amitriptyline, doxepin, and fluoxetine, also potent sodium channel blockers) would produce prolonged and predominantly sensory nerve block. Rats were anesthetized with isoflurane, and 0.2 mL of amitriptyline, doxepin, or fluoxetine was deposited next to the surgically exposed sciatic nerves (n = 8 per group). Some animals received a second injection containing RTX (n = 8 per group). The effect of nerve block was assessed by neurobehavioral tests of the motor function (extensor postural thrust) and the nocifensive reaction (mechanical pinch). A single application of RTX produced nociceptive-selective sciatic nerve block, whereas antidepressants produced nociceptive and motor block. The combined administration of RTX and antidepressant resulted in a predominantly nociceptive nerve block. Compared with antidepressants or RTX alone, the combination prolonged the nociceptive nerve block more than the motor block.\",\n \"Patient dissatisfaction has been previously associated with motor block in shoulder surgery patients receiving brachial plexus block. For elective minor wrist and hand surgery, we tested whether a regional block accelerating the early return of upper extremity motor function would improve patient satisfaction compared with a long-acting proximal brachial plexus block. A total of 177 patients having elective 'minor' wrist and hand surgery under awake regional block randomly received adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 2% 10 ml+ropivacaine 0.75% 20 ml ('long acting', n=90), or adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 1.5% 30 ml+long-acting distal median, radial, and ulnar nerve blocks selected according to the anticipated area of postoperative pain ('short acting', n=87). A blinded observer questioned patients on day 1 for numerically rated (0-10) subjective outcomes. With 95% power, there was no evidence for a 1-point satisfaction shift in the short acting group: satisfaction was similarly high for both groups [median (inter-quartile range)=10 (8-10) vs 10 (8-10), P=0.71], and also demonstrated strong evidence for equivalence [mean difference (95% confidence interval)=-0.18 (-0.70 to 0.35)]. There was no difference between the groups for weakness- or numbness-related dissatisfaction (low for both groups), or for numerically rated or time to first pain. Surgical anaesthesia success was similar between the groups (short acting, 97% vs 93%, P=0.50), although more patients in the short acting group had surgery initiated in ≤25 min (P=0.03).\",\n \"yes. The use of bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block for postoperative analgesia after hysterectomy decreased morphine consumption by one-half during the first two postoperative days without differences in side effects from morphine between groups.\",\n \"Both multiple injection and single posterior cord injection techniques are associated with extensive anesthesia of the upper limb after an infraclavicular coracoid block (ICB). The main objective of this study was to directly compare the efficacy of both techniques in terms of the rates of completely anesthetizing cutaneous nerves below the elbow. Seventy patients undergoing surgery at or below the elbow were randomly assigned to receive an ICB after the elicitation of either a single radial nerve-type response (Radial group) or of two different main nerve-type responses of the upper limb, except for the radial nerve (Dual group). Forty milliliters of 1.5% mepivacaine was given in a single or a dual dose, according to group assignment. The sensory block was assessed in each of the cutaneous nerves at 10, 20 and 30 min. Block performance times and the rates of complete anesthesia below the elbow were also noted. Higher rates of sensory block of the radial nerve were found in the Radial group at 10, 20 and 30 min (P<0.05). The rates of sensory block of the ulnar nerve at 30 min were 97% and 75% in the Radial and in the Dual groups, respectively (P<0.05). The rate of complete anesthesia below the elbow was also higher in the Radial group at 30 min (P<0.05).\",\n \"There is controversy about the effectiveness of perineural clonidine used as an adjuvant to local anesthetics. This study investigated whether the addition of 150 μg clonidine to 0.5% levobupivacaine used for posterior sciatic nerve block would prolong the duration of analgesia. This double-blind, prospective trial compared the analgesic characteristics of 20 mL plain levobupivacaine versus 20 mL levobupivacaine 0.5% plus 150 μg clonidine in a posterior sciatic nerve block (Labat approach) for foot and ankle surgery. Sixty patients were randomized and allocated to receive either levobupivacaine alone or levobupivacaine plus clonidine, to find a 30% prolongation of analgesia with the adjuvant, using the same SD. The onset and duration of the block (time from completion of block administration to first morphine request), the hemodynamic changes during surgery, the need for rescue analgesia, and technical or neurologic complications were assessed over a 24-hour period. The onset of sensory block (in minutes) was similar in the levobupivacaine and levobupivacaine plus clonidine groups (10 [5-20] vs 10 [5-23] minutes, median [interquartile range], respectively), as was the time to first request of pain medication (1215 [920-1530] vs 1275 [1067-1360] minutes, respectively). However, during surgery, statistically significantly more subjects in the levobupivacaine plus clonidine group than the levobupivacaine group experienced a decrease of more than 20% in systolic arterial pressure (50% vs 28% of patients, respectively; P < 0.028). No complications were noted in either group over 24 hours.\",\n \"The aim of this review is to provide an overview of the drugs and techniques used for multimodal postoperative pain management in the older population undergoing surgery in the ambulatory setting. Interest has grown in the possibility of adding adjuncts to a single shot nerve block in order to prolong the local anesthetic effect. The rapid and short-acting local anesthetics for spinal anesthesia are potentially beneficial for day-case surgery in the older population because of shorter duration of the motor block, faster recovery, and less transient neurologic symptoms. Another recent advance is the introduction of intravenous acetaminophen, which can rapidly achieve rapid peak plasma concentration (<15 min) following infusion and analgesic effect in ∼5 min with a duration of action up to 4 h.\",\n \"yes. Ephedrine combined with either bupivacaine or lidocaine acted synergistically to block motor function and has the potential to reduce the amount of local anesthetic needed for spinal block. The synergistic effect of ephedrine in combination with local anesthetics is an interesting pharmacological phenomenon that warrants further clinical evaluation.\",\n \"In isolated nerves, tetrodotoxin (TTX) blocks nerve conduction longer than bupivacaine. In vivo, however, both substances block nerve conduction to an equal duration, presumably because the hydrophilic TTX binds only weakly to the perineural tissue. High molecular weight hyaluronic acid (HA) prolongs the action of local anaesthetics several-fold. We tested whether admixture of HA enhances the binding of TTX to the perineural tissue and thus induces an ultra-long conduction block after a single application. In 12 anaesthetized rabbits, the minimal blocking concentrations of TTX, TTX and HA (TTX/HA) and bupivacaine with HA (bupivacaine/HA) were determined by blocking the natural spike activity of the aortic nerve. In 18 other animals, equipotent concentrations of either TTX, TTX/HA or TTX/bupivacaine/HA were applied topically to the aortic nerve. After disappearance of the spike activity, the wound was closed to simulate the clinical situation of a single shot nerve block. The time until recovery of spike activity was determined. The nerves were examined for signs of neurotoxicity 24 h after the application of the drugs. Data are presented as means +/- SD and compared by ANOVA and Student's t-test for unpaired data. The conduction block by TTX/bupivacaine/HA (10.1 +/- 1.9 h) or TTX/HA (9.3 +/- 1.0 h) was significantly longer than that of plain TTX (7.9 +/- 1.0 h). Neurotoxicity was not observed.\",\n \"yes. Both tertiary amine local anesthetics and their quaternary ammonium derivatives can elicit a predominantly sensory/nociceptor selective block when followed by injection of capsaicin. The combined application of transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 channel agonists and various local anesthetics or their quaternary ammonium derivatives is an appealing strategy to achieve a long-lasting differential block in regional analgesia.\",\n \"To investigate the therapeutic effects of a local ice compress in alleviating eyelid swelling and errhysis and providing relief from pain after surgery. Eyelid swelling and pain are the most common postoperative symptoms after scleral buckling surgery. A local ice compress can reduce the severity of swelling, errhysis and pain after acute injury as well as after surgery. A retrospective study. A total of 100 patients who had undergone scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment were classified into an ice compress group or a control group. All patients received standard postoperative medical care: a 1% Tropicamide ophthalmic solution (Minims The severity of swelling, pain and errhysis in the operated eyes was significantly lower in the ice compress group.\",\n \"We performed a prospective audit of the level of postoperative pain experienced by patients following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant after preincisional regional retrobulbar anaesthesia using bupivacaine 0.75% with 1:100,000 adrenaline. An 11-point numerical ranking box scale was used to measure the subjective experience of postoperative pain following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant in 40 patients with uveal melanoma. Surgery was performed under general anaesthesia with a supplementary peroperative retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine 0.75%/adrenaline 1:100,000. Pain scores were measured for the first 8 hours following administration of the block. The sample included 19 female and 21 male patients with a mean age of 66.7 years (31-87). At four hours post block, 80% were still pain free with 17% experiencing only mild to moderate pain (BS-11 = 1-4). Thirty-four (85%), twenty-eight (70%) and twenty-seven (67%) patients remained pain free at 2, 3 and 4 hours, respectively with no additional analgesia. The remainder scored BS-11 of 1-4 in 92% of cases. Twenty percent required supplementary analgesia (paracetemol in 78% cases) by 5 hours and 57% by 8 hours. BS-11 at 8 hours were 0 in 50%, 1-4 in 22% and 5-10 in 10% of patients (17% asleep). No complications using this technique were recorded.\",\n \"Beyond the analgesia provided by the regional anesthesia of the ilioinguinal and field blocks, the preoperative use of ketorolac further reduced postoperative pain scores and the need for additional postoperative analgesic medication. Comparable outcomes for the i.v., i.m. and i.w. groups indicate the lack of any benefit to concentrating the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug at the wound (i.w.) or to achieving high blood levels rapidly (i.v.). In conclusion, ketorolac is a useful supplement to ilioinguinal plus field block regional anesthesia for hernia surgery and is most effective administered parenterally.\",\n \"Inguinal herniorrhaphy (IH) is a common outpatient procedure, yet postoperative pain and anesthetic side effects remain a problem. Paravertebral somatic nerve blocks (PVB) have the potential to offer unilateral abdominal wall anesthesia and long-lasting pain relief with minimal side effects. We compared PVB with peripheral neural blocks for outpatient IH. Forty-six patients scheduled for IH were entered into this prospective, single-blind study. All patients underwent a standardized general anesthetic. Patients were randomly assigned to receive a PVB (levels T10-L2) preoperatively (n = 24) or an intraoperative peripheral block (PB) by the surgeon (n = 22), using 0.5% ropivacaine (40 mL). Opioid use, verbal analog pain scores, and side effects were documented for 72 hours. The use of opioids during surgery was less for the PVB group 162 +/- 70 mg than the PB group, 210 +/- 60 (P =.02). Need for opioids in PACU was less for the PVB group (39%) than the PB group (61%) (P =.002). Time until first pain after discharge was not different between groups, 312 +/- 446 minutes (PB) and 425 +/- 384 minutes (PVB) (P =.12). Of the PVB patients, 29% used no opioids at all compared with 18% of PB patients (P =.12). Mean time until first oxycodone use was similar between groups, 303 +/- 469 minutes (PB) and 295 +/- 225 minutes (PVB) (P =.18). Oxycodone use was also similar; 35 +/- 34 mg (PVB) versus 49 +/- 42 mg (PB) (P =.30). More patients in the PB group (50%) required antiemetic treatment in the postanesthesia care unit than the PVB group (21%) (P <.001). Side effects were similar at all other measurements.\",\n \"Dexmedetomidine can prolong the duration of local anesthetics, but the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on the potency of ropivacaine for retrobulbar block has not been investigated. Our study was designed to determine the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on ropivacaine for retrobulbar block in children. A group of 90 children aged 10-16 years scheduled for vitreoretinal surgery who received retrobulbar block were randomly assigned to 1 of 3 groups: group L (retrobulbar ropivacaine), group LD1 (ropivacaine plus 0.5 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine), or group LD2 (ropivacaine plus 1 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine). The minimum local anesthetic concentration (MLAC) was determined according to a Dixon-Massey protocol. The primary endpoint of the study was MLAC. Secondary outcomes were duration of postoperative analgesia, postoperative pain scores, dexmedetomidine side effects, and time to hospital discharge. The MLAC values of retrobulbar ropivacaine were 0.314%, 0.259%, and 0.246% in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively. The median (interquartile range) durations of analgesia in the postoperative period were 66 (54-117), 89 (40-157), and 168 (120-194) minutes in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively (L vs LD1 or LD2, p<0.05). Wake-up time was significantly increased in groups LD1 and LD2.\",\n \"Retrobulbar injection can be associated with significant pain, due to both needle insertion and deposition of the local anaesthetic solution. The local anaesthetic cream EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) which contains a mixture of lignocaine and prilocaine has been shown to reduce the pain associated with skin puncture. The efficacy of EMLA in alleviating the pain of retrobulbar injection for cataract surgery was assessed in this study. In this, randomised double-blind study, EMLA (n = 53) or lignocaine 5% ointment (n = 50) was administered to the inferior orbital margin at least 45 min before retrobulbar block in 103 patients. Pain assessed during retrobulbar block was marked subjectively by the patient on a 10-point numerical rating scale. Median verbal pain scores were 3.0 with an interquartile range of 1.5-6.5 in the control group and 3.50 with an interquartile range of 2.0-6.0 in the EMLA(R) group (P = 0.67). There was no significant difference between the EMLA group and the lignocaine ointment group according to this pain assessment.\",\n \"yes. A single bolus of i.v. ketamine 1 or 2 mg/kg for anesthetic induction results in a lower incidence of OCR than propofol when combined with sevoflurane for maintenance in children undergoing strabismus surgery.\",\n \"Both methods of anaesthesia are appropriate, but phacoemulsification with TA is more painful than with RBA. In hypertonic patients and younger patients who are more susceptible to pain, TA should be avoided or used in combination with individualized sedation.\",\n \"Ropivacaine appears attractive for epidural analgesia because it produces less motor block than racemic bupivacaine. The potential benefits of levobupivacaine with regard to motor blockade require further investigations. In this study, we compared the efficacy, dose requirements, side effects, and motor block observed with epidural levobupivacaine and ropivacaine when given in combination with small-dose morphine for 60 h after major abdominal surgery. Postoperatively, 50 patients were randomly allocated, in a double-blinded manner, to patient-controlled epidural analgesia with the same settings and without basal infusion, using 0.1% levobupivacaine or 0.1% ropivacaine. Both were combined with an epidural infusion of 0.1 mg/h morphine. Pain scores, side effects, motor block, and local anesthetic consumption were measured for 60 h. Pain scores measured on a 100-mm visual analog scale were approximately 20 mm at rest and 40 mm during mobilization in both groups. Bromage scores were 1 for all patients after the fourth postoperative hour. Consumption of levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were similar: 344 +/- 178 mg levobupivacaine versus 347 +/- 199 mg ropivacaine 48 h postoperatively. On postoperative day 2, 19 patients in the ropivacaine group versus 12 in the levobupivacaine group were able to ambulate (P < 0.05). No difference was noted concerning incidence of side effects. We conclude that when used as patient-controlled epidural analgesia and combined with small-dose epidural morphine, 0.1% levobupivacaine and 0.1% ropivacaine produce comparable postoperative analgesia with a similar incidence of side effects.\",\n \"Regional anesthesia represents the most suitable anesthesia technique in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification. Only in 8% of patients MAC was suitable, due to excessive anxiety or cardiovascular imbalance. Compared to other anesthesia techniques, regional anaesthesia is significantly safer. The utility of preoperative tests in reducing the morbidity associated with surgery, is also discussed.\",\n \"yes. This prospective, randomized, double-blinded study demonstrated that, when providing combined sciatic-femoral nerve block for hallux valgus repair, the addition of 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine prolongs the duration of postoperative analgesia by 3 h, with only a slight and short-lived increase in the degree of sedation and no hemodynamic adverse effects.\",\n \"yes. The combination ADG for preoperative preparation of cataract patients achieves at least equivalent dilation and corneal anaesthesia as the current preoperative pharmacologic regimen.\",\n \"To assess the analgesic and side effects of the continuous epidural infusion of 0.2% ropivacaine combined with morphine compared to both drugs alone. In this study, both observers and patients were blinded to patient group assignment. Sixty patients scheduled to undergo lower abdominal surgery were enrolled. Patients were randomized to one of three postoperative treatment groups: 1) combination group (a combination of 0.2% ropivacaine and 0.003% morphine); 2) morphine group (0.003% morphine); or 3) ropivacaine group (0.2% ropivacaine). Postoperatively, all solutions were administered epidurally at a rate of 6 mL.hr(-1) for 24 hr. Patients were given iv flurbiprofen as a supplemental analgesic on demand. The combination group showed lower visual analogue scale scores than those of patients receiving either drug alone, both at rest and on coughing. The combination group showed a slight motor block at two hours after the continuous epidural infusion, while the ropivacaine and morphine groups did not show any motor block. The incidence of itching was significantly increased in the morphine and combination groups, compared to the ropivacaine group. There was no significant difference between the numbers of patients with nausea in the three groups. No hypotension or respiratory complications were observed in the three groups.\",\n \"Unilateral spinal anesthesia is performed to provide restriction of sensory and motor block. The aim of this study was to compare unilateral and bilateral spinal anesthesia, with regard to limiting the nerve block exclusively to the area of surgery. This was a prospective, randomised, double-blind study, conducted in 40 consecutive outpatients scheduled for unilateral inguinal regional surgery. Patients in both groups received 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 15 mg + morphine 0.1 mg. Patients in the unilateral group (Group U) were placed in the lateral decubitus position for 10 minutes (min) on their side to be operated, while patients in the bilateral group (Group B) were placed in the supine position. The pin-prick test was used to assess the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 sensory blocks and the times to reach motor block. In addition, the sensory and motor block recovery times were recorded using a modified Bromage scale. Furthermore, the duration of the operation and the times to first analgesic requirement were noted. There were significant differences between Group U and Group B in the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 dermatome levels of sensory block, and the times to reach motor block using the modified Bromage scale on three levels. However, there was no difference in the time to ambulation, the time to complete sensory regression and the time to first analgesic requirement.\",\n \"To evaluate the efficacy of a combination anaesthetic plus dilating gel (ADG) on pupil dilation (PD) and corneal anaesthesia (KA) compared to traditional preoperative pharmacotherapy for cataract surgery. Prospective, noninferiority study. We studied 20 consenting adults who experienced unilateral cataracts and underwent routine cataract surgery, receiving the traditional preoperative pharmacologic regimen in the operated eye (control eye): diclofenac 0.1%, gentamicin 0.3%, cyclopentolate 1%, phenylephrine 2.5%, and tropicamide 1% 60 and 20 minutes prior to surgery. They then received tetracaine 0.5% and povidone-iodine 5% 10 minutes prior to surgery; and were given tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and lidocaine 2% gel 1 minute prior to surgery. Epinephrine 0.1%, 1 cc per 500 mL bag of balanced saline salt solution was administered during surgery. The nonoperated eye (study eye) received tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and 0.35 cc ADG gel (phenylephrine 10%, tropicamide 1%, diclofenac 0.1%, and lidocaine 2%) 60 and 10 minutes prior to surgery. PD and KA were measured at baseline, at 30 minutes, and at 5 minutes prior to surgery, and at 5 minutes after surgery. There was no difference in PD (p = 0.2634) or KA (p = 0.6058) between the study eyes and the control eyes at baseline. Preoperatively, greater mydriasis was achieved in the study eye (7.95 ± 0.91 mm vs 7.17 ± 1.25 mm; p < 0.0001). There was no significant difference in preoperative KA between the study and control eyes (1.5 ± 2.2 mm vs 1.4 ± 2.1 mm; p = 0.77).\",\n \"Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have become a popular component of analgesia regimens, particularly in combination with narcotics. We questioned whether there might also be a place for their use in conjunction with regional anesthesia and whether there was a preferable route for NSAID administration. Ilioinguinal and field blocks were performed preoperatively on seventy patients undergoing outpatient inguinal hernia repair. Patients were divided into a control group who received no ketorolac and four study groups who received a preoperative dose of 30 mg ketorolac by one of the following routes: i.v., i.m., p.o., or intrawound (i.w.). The ketorolac in the i.w group was mixed in the syringe with the local anesthetic used for the field block. i.v. and i.m. groups also received ketorolac at the time of the preoperative regional anesthesia and the PO group received the dose at least one hour preoperatively. All patients received a similar general anesthetic intraoperatively. Postoperative pain scores and analgesic requirements were lowest for the i.m., i.v., and i.w. groups. Pain scores and analgesic requirements for the PO group were less than for the control group but more than for the other three groups. Analgesic efficacy therefore ranked: i.m. = i.v. = i.w.>p.o.>control. Though no differences were found between groups in the time to discharge from the recovery room, the ease of nursing care paralleled the findings for pain scores and analgesia requirements.\",\n \"yes. Hyaluronidase permits a significant 2.4-fold (95% CI, 1.8-3.4) reduction in MLAV for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia.\",\n \"no. We conclude, therefore, that for carpal tunnel operation under iv regional anesthesia, the combination of tramadol and lidocaine is not more effective than lidocaine alone.\",\n \"To evaluate the effects of adding small-dose clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine during peripheral nerve blocks, 30 ASA physical status I and II patients undergoing hallux valgus repair under combined sciatic-femoral nerve block were randomly allocated in a double-blinded fashion to receive block placement with 30 mL of either 0.75% ropivacaine alone (group Ropivacaine, n = 15) or 0.75% ropivacaine plus 1 microg/kg clonidine (group Ropivacaine-Clonidine, n = 15). Hemodynamic variables, oxygen saturation, and levels of sedation, as well as the time required to achieve surgical block and time to first analgesic request, were recorded by a blinded observer. Time to surgical blockade required 10 min in both groups. Patients in the Ropivacaine-Clonidine group were more sedated than patients in the Ropivacaine group only 10 min after block placement. No differences in oxygen saturation and hemodynamic variables, degree of pain measured at first analgesic request, and consumption of postoperative analgesics were observed between the two groups. The mean time from block placement to first request for pain medication was shorter in group Ropivacaine (13.7 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 11. 8-14.5 h) than in group Ropivacaine-Clonidine (16.8 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 13.5-17.8 h) (P = 0.038). We conclude that adding 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine provided a 3-h delay in first request for pain medication after hallux valgus repair, with no clinically relevant side effects.\",\n \"To determine whether irrigation of the sub-Tenon's space with anesthetic agents during pars plana vitrectomy (PPV) involving general anesthesia decreases postoperative pain, analgesic use, or nausea. A prospective, controlled trial of 46 consecutive patients requesting general anesthesia for PPV who were randomized to receive or not receive a sub-Tenon's space injection prior to surgery. A mixture of 3 mL of 2% lidocaine with hyaluronidase and 3 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine was used to induce local blockade. Pain, postoperative nausea, and analgesia use were evaluated. Local blockade did not significantly alter the proportion of reported pain at 30 minutes and 2, 4, and 24 hours after the operation. The local blockade had no effect on reducing postoperative nausea or the number of patients requiring pain medication.\",\n \"yes. Droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) in combination with ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1), administered at the induction and end of the operative procedure respectively, is more effective than either drug given individually in reducing the incidence of PONV after strabismus surgery.\",\n \"We compared the effects of sub-Tenon's local anaesthetic block and placebo on peri-operative opioid requirement and cardiovascular stability and on postoperative pain, nausea and vomiting in patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia. We studied 43 patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia in a randomized double blind study. Patients received a standard general anaesthetic followed by a sub-Tenon's injection of 4-5 mL of either bupivacaine 0.75% or saline. We recorded intraoperative invasive arterial pressure, then the incidence and severity of pain and of nausea and vomiting, for 24 h postoperatively. In the sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group, there was a significant reduction in the perioperative opioid use and a reduction in the frequency of bradycardia and hypertensive episodes, defined as a rise > 25% of baseline for a duration of > 3 min. The sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group also had significantly lower pain scores and nausea scores at 12 h, concomitant with a lower consumption of analgesia and antiemetics.\",\n \"The use of sub-Tenon block as preemptive analgesia after induction of general anesthesia and before the start of rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair was effective in reducing postoperative pain and analgesic requirements compared with an unblocked group. The use of sub-Tenon block was also effective in reducing intraoperative incidence of oculocardiac reflex and postoperative incidence of vomiting.\",\n \"To evaluate the duration of the effect of mepivacaine when hyaluronidase is injected immediately prior to the end of pulpal anesthesia. Forty bilateral, symmetrical third molar surgeries were performed in 20 healthy patients. Inferior alveolar nerve block was induced using 2.8 mL 2% mepivacaine with epinephrine. Hyaluronidase (75 turbidity-reducing units) or a placebo was injected 40 minutes after the beginning of pulpar anesthesia (randomized and double-blind trial). The duration of effect in the pulpal and gingival tissues was evaluated by response to painful electrical stimuli applied to the adjacent premolar, and by mechanical stimuli (pin prick) to the vestibular gingiva, respectively. In both tissues, the duration of anesthetic effect with hyaluronidase was longer (P < .01) than with the placebo.\",\n \"Bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block may be useful to control postoperative pain in gynecologic surgery, especially hysterectomy. In a prospective, randomized, double-blind study, we compared the combination of ropivacaine and clonidine (block group) versus saline (control group). The main objective of this study was to compare the total dose of morphine required during the first two postoperative days. All patients received antiemetic prophylaxis and multimodal IV analgesia. Seventy patients were randomized. The total morphine consumption during the first two postoperative days was decreased by 51% in the block group compared with the control group (21 +/- 9 mg vs 41 +/- 24 mg, P < 0.0001). This difference was not only due to morphine titration, but remained significant over the following 2 days. The course of the visual analog scale was equivalent between the two groups. No difference was observed in the side effects of morphine.\",\n \"Retrospective study in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification in order to evaluate the incidence of regional peribulbar anaesthesia compared with MAC (Monitored Anesthesia Care). Between January 1999 and December 2000, 1902 patients were studied. Peribulbar anaesthesia was performed by using a double or single inferior-lateral injection with a mixture of Lidocaine 2% and Bupivacaine 0.5% or, as a single agent, of Ropivacaine 0.75%. Jaluronydase 10 UI/ml was added to either agents. Only in 8% of patients intravenous drugs were added during surgery to correct bradycardia in 3%, hypertension 3% and for sedation in 2%.\",\n \"To investigate whether hyaluronidase (Hyalase) is a useful and justified addition to haematoma block for pain relief. The study was a randomised double blind trial of 33 consecutive patients attending the accident and emergency department for manipulation of distal radius fracture under haematoma block. Control patients received 1% lignocaine; the treatment group received 1% lignocaine plus 1500 IU hyaluronidase. Manipulation occurred 10 minutes after instituting the block. 16 patients received hyaluronidase, 17 received lignocaine only. One patient with unsuccessful manipulation was excluded. There was no significant difference between the two groups for any of three methods of pain assessment (P>0.05, Mann Whitney).\",\n \"Volumes of local anaesthetics for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia vary. Lower volumes produce less akinesia, whereas higher volumes increase chemosis and intra-ocular pressures. Hyaluronidase is often added to local anaesthetics to improve akinesia without increasing the volume of the injection, but this is controversial. This randomized, sequential allocation study examines the addition of hyaluronidase on the minimum local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) required for a sub-Tenon's block. Sixty-two patients having sub-Tenon's blocks for cataract surgery were randomized into two groups. The control group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine and the study group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine with hyaluronidase 15 IU ml(-1). Using parallel up-down sequential allocation from a 4 ml starting volume, the volumes in both groups were changed using a testing interval of 1 ml according to the quality of globe akinesia. The median effective local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) was calculated for both groups using probit regression. The groups were similar for age, sex, and ocular axial length. The MLAV in the hyaluronidase group was 2.6 ml [95% confidence interval (CI), 2.1-3.l] and 6.4 ml (95% CI, 5.1-8.1) in the control group (P<0.002).\",\n \"Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects.\",\n \"The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia.\"\n]"},"cluster":{"kind":"number","value":385,"string":"385"}}}],"truncated":false,"partial":false},"paginationData":{"pageIndex":2731,"numItemsPerPage":100,"numTotalItems":273188,"offset":273100,"length":100}},"jwt":"eyJhbGciOiJFZERTQSJ9.eyJyZWFkIjp0cnVlLCJwZXJtaXNzaW9ucyI6eyJyZXBvLmNvbnRlbnQucmVhZCI6dHJ1ZX0sImlhdCI6MTcyOTEwODg0Niwic3ViIjoiL2RhdGFzZXRzL0hpZXVtYW4vUHViTWVkUUEiLCJleHAiOjE3MjkxMTI0NDYsImlzcyI6Imh0dHBzOi8vaHVnZ2luZ2ZhY2UuY28ifQ.9UsSsAKTPKCXdXXGkmPb7xoGhUhXZ156l9p3bY2Ckf7RS1lBV660bhkLvz9H-77CV8SmI4lhfKdwsNd0Tt8eAg","displayUrls":true},"discussionsStats":{"closed":0,"open":0,"total":0},"fullWidth":true,"hasGatedAccess":true,"hasFullAccess":true,"isEmbedded":false}">
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Does an inflatable obstetric belt facilitate spontaneous vaginal delivery in nulliparae with epidural analgesia? | [
"To assess whether an inflatable obstetric belt, synchronised to apply uniform fundal pressure during a uterine contraction, reduces operative delivery rates when used in the second stage of labour. Randomised controlled trial. Five hundred nulliparae with a singleton cephalic pregnancy at term and with an epidural in labour were recruited during the first stage and randomised at full dilatation. Standard care involved one hour passive second stage and one hour active pushing after which instrumental delivery was performed if delivery was not imminent. Those randomised to the belt group, in addition to standard care, had the inflatable obstetric belt for the whole second stage of labour. Mode of delivery. One hundred and eleven of the 260 women in the belt group (42.7%) compared with 94 of the 240 in the control group (39.2%) had a spontaneous vertex delivery (P = 0.423). The lift-out instrumental delivery rate was similar between the two groups: 108 belts (41.5%), compared with 101 controls (42.1%) (P = 0.902), whereas rotational instrumental deliveries in the belt group were 26 belts (10%) compared with 36 controls (15%) (P = 0.09). Fifteen women (5.8%) in the belt group and nine women (3.8%) in the control group had a caesarean section in the second stage (P = 0.292). An intact perineum was more likely in the belt group (16.5% compared with 9.6%, P = 0.022) as was a third degree tear (6.5% compared with 0.4%, P = 0.001).",
"The inflatable obstetric belt did not significantly reduce operative delivery rates when used in this clinical setting in the second stage of labour."
] | [
"Acupuncture treatment used in nulliparas after PROM showed no significant effect in reducing time to active labour or in reducing rate of inductions. There was no change in wellbeing as a result of acupuncture, but it was considered positive to receive this kind of treatment while waiting for labour to begin.",
"To determine whether induction of labor (IOL) after successful external cephalic version (ECV) is associated with an increased risk of cesarean delivery (CD) compared with IOL with spontaneous cephalic presentation. Retrospective case-control study. All women having IOL after successful ECV were eligible. Each woman in the study group was matched for parity, age and indication for induction with two consecutive controls having IOL and spontaneous cephalic presentation. The primary outcome measure was CD. Secondary outcomes measures were operative vaginal delivery, perineal tear/episiotomy and post-partum hemorrhage. 79 women enrolled in the study group were matched with 158 controls. The overall incidence of CD was significantly higher in the study group compared with the control group (20.3 vs. 10.1 %; OR 2.25, 95 % CI 1.06-4.79, P = 0.03). After dividing the groups according to parity, the difference in the CD rate remained statistically significant for nulliparous women (36.7 vs. 15 %; OR 3.28, 95 % CI 1.17-9.16, P = 0.02), but not for multiparous women (10.2 vs. 7.1 %; OR 1.48, 95 % CI 0.44-4.92, P = 0.53). There was no significant difference in adjusted odds ratios for secondary outcomes.",
"3D transperineal ultrasound, which is easily accessible, can provide useful information on morphological changes of the female pelvic floor. Women with a spontaneous or operative vaginal first delivery had a significantly larger hiatal area and axial distension than did women whose first delivery was by Cesarean section, even 2 years after delivery. Performing 3D ultrasound after the first delivery may help to identify women at high risk for persisting pelvic floor disorders.",
"Low-risk nulliparae in spontaneous labour giving birth at the level 4 hospital in this health service are at significantly increased risk of caesarean section. This may have implications for the organisation and resource management of other level 4 public maternity units. Care in a tertiary (level 6) service may not necessarily equate to the higher rates of intervention reported by others.",
"To examine trends in obstetric interventions in women at low risk over approximately 3 years. It was postulated that there would be a general reduction in most intervention rates. Retrospective review of hospital records. Three downtown hospitals of the University of Toronto, in which academic and nonacademic family physicians and obstetricians practised. A total of 2365 women in phase 1 (April 1985 to March 1986) and 1277 in phase 2 (May to September 1988) met the inclusion criteria for grade A (pregnancy at no predictable risk) of the Ontario Antenatal Record at the time of admission to hospital. Rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction, augmentation, epidural anesthesia, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), instrumental delivery, episiotomy and cesarean section. The family physicians and the obstetricians had significant decreases (p<0.01) over time in the rates of episiotomy, especially mediolateral, and low forceps delivery. The rate of epidural anesthesia decreased significantly in the obstetrician group. The rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction and continuous EFM increased in the two physician groups; the increased rate of EFM was significant in the obstetrician group (p<0.01). There was no significant change in the rates of augmentation, midforceps delivery, vacuum extraction or cesarean section. All of the trends were found to hold when the intervention rates were analysed according to the women's parity.",
"Women who experience unexpected labour and birth interventions describe feeling distressed and have an increased risk of postnatal depression. Primigravidae who have an unrealistic expectation of labour and birth may be at higher risk of these outcomes. To determine whether primigravidae and their carers have a realistic expectation of uncomplicated labour and birth. One hundered and ninety-five primigravidae, 32 obstetricians, 76 midwives, 198 medical students prior to their obstetric term and 131 medical students after their obstetric term completed a short questionnaire about the likelihood of primigravid women undergoing spontaneous onset of labour, no augmentation of labour and a cephalic vaginal birth without instrumental assistance, defined as birth without intervention. This number was compared to the local published data. Overall, the study subjects believed that women had a 48% chance of birth without intervention, and a 26% chance of birth without intervention or perineal sutures. The statewide published figures for these two outcomes are 21 and 8%, respectively. Staff, both obstetric and midwifery, were more accurate than medical students who were in turn more accurate than pregnant women. Attendance at antenatal education classes by pregnant women did not improve accuracy. Level of experience did not improve accuracy by medical staff. Medical students were more accurate after teaching than before teaching.",
"To compare family physicians', obstetricians' and midwives' self-reported practices, attitudes and beliefs about central issues in childbirth. Mail-out questionnaire. SETTING/POPULATION; All registered midwives in the province, and a sample of family physicians and obstetricians in a maternity care teaching hospital. Response rates: 91% (n = 50), 69% (n = 97) and 89% (n = 34), respectively. A postal survey. Twenty-three five-point Likert scale items (strongly agree to strongly disagree) addressing attitudes toward routine electronic fetal monitoring, induction of labour, epidural analgesia, episiotomy, doulas, vaginal birth after caesarean section (VBACs), birth centres, provision educational material, birth plans and caesarean section. Cluster analysis identified three distinct clusters based on similar response to the questions. The 'MW' cluster consisted of 100% of midwives and 26% of the family physicians. The 'OB' cluster was composed of 79% of the obstetricians and 16% of the family physicians. The 'FP' cluster was composed of 58% the family physicians and 21% the obstetricians. Members of the 'OB' cluster more strongly believed that women had the right to request a caesarean section without maternal/fetal indications (P<0.001), that epidurals early in labour were not associated with development of fetal malpositions (P<0.001) and that increasing caesarean rates were a sign of improvement in obstetrics (P<0.001). The 'OB' cluster members were more likely to say they would induce women as soon as possible after 41 3/7 weeks of gestation (P<0.001) and were least likely to encourage the use of birth plans (P<0.001). The 'MW' cluster's views were the opposite of the 'OBs' while the 'FP' cluster's views fell between the 'MW' and 'OB' clusters.",
"yes. Prolonged local blockade of the myometrium with bupivacaine inhibits preterm labor after fetal surgery in rabbits. The high fetal mortality rate observed in this study may be caused by \"transplacental\" transfer of the local anesthetic to the fetus. Notably, the abortifacient effect of a dead fetus was completely suppressed by the local blockade. Studies using microspheres with local anesthetics that do not cross the placenta, in animal models with longer gestational periods, are warranted.",
"In places where planned vaginal delivery is a common practice and when strict criteria are met before and during labor, planned vaginal delivery of singleton fetuses in breech presentation at term remains a safe option that can be offered to women.",
"Our findings showed that epidural analgesia is associated with an increased risk of prolonged labor, and instrumental and cesarean delivery but is not related to increased postpartum SUI. Regarding the impact of the timing of epidural analgesia given in the labor course, the first stage of labor appeared to last longer when analgesia was administered early rather than late.",
"At our institution a large reduction in the use of episiotomy in spontaneous vaginal deliveries was associated with a significant reduction in perineal trauma in all groups of women except for nulliparous women with macrosomic infants.",
"To examine the rate of episiotomy use among nulliparous Yemeni women, and to evaluate its impact on perineal tears. We retrospectively reviewed the delivery record for all nulliparous women with and without episiotomy and singleton spontaneous births at Al-Thawra General Hospital, Sana'a, Yemen between January and December 2008. The womens' charts were retrieved, and the demographic characteristics were obtained. For women with episiotomy, the indication and type of incision were noted. The rate of the procedure and the perineal tears was recorded, and compared between women with and without episiotomy. A total of 2588 nulliparous women had singleton spontaneous births. Out of these, 1944 (75.1%) women had an episiotomy. Most cases (96%) had a mediolateral incision. Seventeen episiotomy cases (0.87%) were complicated by second and third degree perineal tears versus 12 cases (1.7%) with the same type of tear in women without the procedure.",
"The spinal portion of the combined spinal epidural technique (CSE) provides dramatic but limited labour analgesia. Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) has been noted to modulate pain, in part by the frequency of stimulation chosen. Because nerve action potentials are blocked by local anesthetics in a frequency dependent manner, we speculated that a TENS unit could increase the quality and duration of the spinal portion of a CSE. Forty parturients in active spontaneous labour, with a singleton, vertex, term fetus, requesting analgesia were enrolled in a randomized, double blind fashion to receive a standardized CSE with either an active or inactive TENS unit. Prior to CSE placement, TENS intensity thresholds were determined with electrodes placed on the paraspinus muscles at T10-L1, and S2-4; TENS settings for mode, cycle, and pulse width were standardized. Data were collected at timed intervals on pain (VAS), sensory level (pinprick), motor blockade (Bromage), cervical dilatation, and duration of analgesia, and at delivery on fetal and neonatal outcome. The duration of the spinal portion of the CSE did not differ between groups (TENS off 91.1+/-33 [mean +/- SD] vs. TENS on 83.1+/-28 min, P = .42). Kaplan-Meier survival analysis and Mantel-Cox log rank analysis showed no difference between the two treatments (P = .28). Analgesia was comparable throughout the first hour of spinal analgesia.",
"The aim of this study was to determine risk factors for obstetric anal sphincter injury and whether any of them were modifiable. This was a retrospective review of 2572 women (cases=1286; controls=1286) that took place over a 10 year period at a University teaching hospital. Maternal (Age, Parity, BMI and ethnicity), Obstetric (gestational age, assistance during delivery, episiotomy) and fetal (weight) risk factors were analyzed using logistic regression model presented as odds ratio (OR) with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Both univariate and multivariate analyses were conducted with outcome variables comparing cases and controls. Cases without instrumental deliveries were also compared to controls to exclude for the effect of assisted delivery. This study shows that in addition to instrumental delivery, primiparity (OR 9.8; CI 7.8-12.3), episiotomy (OR 8.6; CI 6.4-11.6), gestational age over 41 weeks (OR 1.5; CI 1.2-1.9), fetal weight over 4 kg (OR 3.2; CI 2.3-4.4) and Asian ethnicity (OR 1.9; CI 1.4-2.7) were all strongly associated with OASI. A raised BMI over 30 appeared to have a protective effect (OR 0.4; CI 0.2-0.5).",
"Prevalence of postpartum SUI is similar following spontaneous vaginal delivery and cesarean section performed for obstructed labor. It is quite possible that pelvic floor injury in such cases is already too extensive to be prevented by surgical intervention. Conversely, elective cesarean section, with no trial of labor, was found to be associated with a significantly lower prevalence of postpartum SUI. Whether the prevention of pelvic floor injury should be an indication for elective cesarean section is yet to be established.",
"Membrane sweeping, has beneficial effects on labor and delivery, which is limited to nulliparas with unfavorable cervix requiring PGE2 or Oxytocin alone.",
"To investigate whether episiotomy prevents 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries (vacuum or forceps), persistent occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia (>4,000 g), and non-reassuring fetal heart rate (NRFHR) patterns. A retrospective study comparing 3rd and 4th degree perineal tears during vaginal deliveries with or without episiotomy, in selected critical conditions was performed. Multiple gestations, preterm deliveries (<37 weeks' gestation) and cesarean deliveries were excluded from the analysis. Stratified analysis (using the Mantel-Haenszel technique) was used to obtain the weighted odds ratio (OR), while controlling for these variables. During the study period, there were 168,077 singleton vaginal deliveries. Of those, 188 (0.1%) had 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears. Vaginal deliveries with episiotomy had statistically significant higher rates of 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears than those without episiotomy (0.2 vs. 0.1%; P<0.001). The association between episiotomy and severe perineal tears remained significant even in the critical conditions. Stratified analysis revealed that the adjusted ORs for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in these critical conditions (Macrosomia OR=2.3; instrumental deliveries OR=1.8; NRFHR patterns OR=2.1; occipito-posterior position OR=2.3; and shoulder dystocia OR=2.3) were similar to the crude OR (OR=2.3).",
"To investigate whether transperineal ultrasound examination just after full cervical dilatation is determined can predict the mode of delivery. This was a prospective observational study of pregnant women. After full cervical dilatation was determined by vaginal examination during labor, transperineal ultrasound was immediately performed, and the head direction (HD), progression distance (PD), and angle of progression (AoP) were measured. The cases were divided into two groups: spontaneous vaginal delivery and operative delivery due to failure of progression. Differences between the groups were statistically analyzed using Student's t test and Fisher's exact test. Of the 50 women, 42 had spontaneous vaginal deliveries and 8 had vacuum extractions. The spontaneous delivery group had significantly higher HD, PD, and AoP values than the vacuum extraction group. The areas under the receiver-operating characteristic curves for the prediction of spontaneous vaginal delivery were 0.850 for HD, 0.827 for PD, and 0.783 for AoP. The optimum cut-off points and positive predictive values were 83° and 92.9 % for HD, 56 mm and 94.9 % for PD, and 146° and 94.3 % for AoP, respectively.",
"To compare adequacy of peri-partum pain management with or without neuraxial opioids in patients on buprenorphine maintenance therapy (BMT). After institutional review board approval for the study protocol, retrospective peripartum anesthesia/analgesia data of BMT patients for five-year period were accessed and analyzed. Out of reviewed 51 patient charts, nineteen patients were found eligible for final comparative analysis. The daily amounts of peri-partum rescue analgesics with vs without neuraxial opioids were equianalgesic doses of parenteral hydromorphone (10.7 +/- 13.8 mg vs 2.6 +/- 0.7 mg, P = 0.45 for vaginal delivery; 16.4 +/- 21.1 mg vs 5.3 +/- 3.6 mg, P = 0.42 for elective cesarean section (CS)), oral ibuprofen (1.1 +/- 0.5g vs 0.8 +/- 0.4g, P = 0.37 for vaginal delivery; 1.1 +/- 0.2g vs 1.6 +/- 0.6g, P = 0.29 for elective CS), and acetaminophen (0.2 +/- 0.4g vs 0 +/- 0g, P = 0.56 for vaginal delivery; 0.3 +/- 0.3g vs 0.2 +/- 0.2g, P = 0.81 for elective CS). In the patients who underwent emergent CS after failed labor (all had received epidural opioids), there was clinical trend for higher daily amounts ofperi-partum rescue analgesics (parenteral hydromorphone 35.6 +/- 37.5 mg; oral ibuprofen 1.2 +/- 0.4g; oral acetaminophen 1.2 +/- 0.5g), when compared with vaginal delivery patients or elective CS patients who all had received neuraxial opioids.",
"Especially in the Nordic countries, increases in obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) have prompted standard use of the Finnish intervention for their prevention. We performed a quality assessment of the introduction of the intervention in a Danish hospital setting. All vaginal deliveries by primiparous women the year before (N = 343) and after (N = 334) the introduction were compared in a retrospective, observational design. Fisher's exact test, Student's t-test, and multiple logistic regression analysis were performed. No significant difference in OASIS (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-1.1) was found. The post-implementation group saw a significant increase in episiotomy (OR: 1.8; 95% CI: 1.1-2.9) and the length of second stage labor (p < 0.05) while intact perineum (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-0.9), use of upright positions for birth (OR: 3.2; 95% CI: 1.8-5.5), and neonatal blood gas levels were significantly reduced (p < 0.05).",
"yes. The anesthetic management of the morbidly obese parturient is associated with special hazards. The risk for difficult or failed intubation is exceedingly high. The early placement of an epidural or intrathecal catheter may overcome the need for general anesthesia, however, the high initial failure rate necessitates critical block assessment and catheter replacement when indicated.",
"To provide local data on term breech delivery for future guidance. Retrospective, 'intended-mode-of-delivery' analysis of 711 antenatally uncomplicated singleton breech deliveries at>or=37 weeks: 445 (63%) planned for vaginal delivery (VD) (no fetal growth restriction, fetal weight 2000-4000 g, adequate pelvic size, maternal consent) and 266 for cesarean section (CS). Apgar score, cord blood acid-base status, childhood deaths and disability. Perinatal mortality was nil in both groups. Low 1-min Apgar scores and low arterial cord blood pH were significantly more frequent in planned VD, but not low Apgar scores at 5 or 10 min or low venous pH. Metabolic acidosis, neonatal intensive care, neonatal seizures, birth trauma, childhood death (CS=1), and neurodevelopmental handicaps (CS=2, VD=1) were equally common.",
"yes. These data suggest that an increased local anesthetic requirement for epidural labor analgesia is associated with more intense pain related to dystocia. Women in early, clinically normal labor but who later develop dystocia require more local anesthetic and, by inference, are experiencing more severe pain than women who deliver vaginally. This association should be considered when studying the relation between the method of labor analgesia and the course of labor.",
"Most women will sustain some degree of trauma to the genital tract after vaginal birth. This study aimed to examine the association between maternal position at birth and perineal outcome in women who had a midwife-attended, spontaneous vaginal birth and an uncomplicated pregnancy at term. Data from 3,756 births in a major public tertiary teaching hospital were eligible for analysis. The need for sutures in perineal trauma was evaluated and compared for each major factor studied (maternal age, first vaginal delivery, induction of labor, not occipitoanterior, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head and newborn birthweight>3,500 g). Birth positions were compared against each other. Subgroup analysis determined whether birth positions mattered more or less in each of the major factors studied. The chi-square test was used to compare categorical variables. Most women (65.9%) gave birth in the semi-recumbent position. Of the 1,679 women (44.5%) who required perineal suturing, semi-recumbent position was associated with the need for perineal sutures, whereas all-fours was associated with reduced need for sutures; these associations were more marked in first vaginal births and newborn birth weight over 3,500 g. When regional anesthesia was used, semi-recumbent position was associated with a need for suturing, and lateral position associated with a reduced need for suturing. The four major factors significantly related to perineal trauma included first vaginal birth, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head, and newborn weight more than 3,500 g.",
"yes. We found that mode of delivery was associated with POP and pelvic floor muscle trauma in women from a general population, 16-24 years after their first delivery. Forceps was associated with significantly more POP, levator avulsion and larger hiatal areas than were vacuum and normal vaginal deliveries. There were no statistically significant differences between vacuum and normal vaginal deliveries. Cesarean delivery was associated with significantly less POP and pelvic floor muscle trauma than were normal or operative vaginal delivery.",
"Intrathecal narcotics (ITNs) are being used in some settings as a sole labor analgesic. However, they have not been directly compared to epidural analgesia. We used a prospective observational design. Eighty-two women with uncomplicated full-term pregnancies were enrolled upon analgesia request during spontaneous labor with cervical dilation 3 to 7 cm. Sixty-three chose ITNs (morphine and fentanyl), and 19 chose epidural analgesia (continuous infusion of bupivacaine and fentanyl). Pain scores were documented using a visual analog scale. Satisfaction and side effects were rated with Likert scales during a structured interview on the first postpartum day. Outcomes were analyzed with multivariate regression techniques. Intrathecal narcotics were associated with significantly higher pain scores than was epidural analgesia during the first and second stages of labor and on an overall postpartum rating. The median effective duration of action for ITNs was between 60 and 120 minutes; however, ITNs provided excellent analgesia for a subgroup of women who delivered within 2 to 3 hours of receiving them. Although women in both groups were satisfied with their pain management, women receiving ITNs had statistically lower overall satisfaction scores.",
"The aim of the study was to elicit the safety and efficacy of breast stimulation as an intervention to prevent postdatism and as an aid in spontaneous onset of labour. Primigravidas with cephalic presentation, without any high-risk factor, were recruited between 36 to 38 weeks of gestation. 200 patients were recruited and randomized into two groups (n = 100). Breast stimulation was advised to one group but not to the other group. Bishop's scoring was done at 38 weeks and repeated at 39 weeks of gestation. Maternal and fetal outcomes were compared in two groups. Bishop's score changed from 3.12 (±1.01) to 3.9 (±1.08) in control group and from 3.02 (±0.82) to 6.08 (±1.29) in breast stimulation group after one week (P value<0.0001). The period of gestation at delivery was 39.5 (±2.3) weeks in control group and 39.2 (±2.8) weeks in intervention group (P value: 0.044). There were increased chances of vaginal delivery in intervention group (P value: 0.046). Duration of labor, hyperstimulation, presence of meconium stained liquor, postpartum hemorrhage, and neonatal outcomes were similar in both groups.",
"To determine the risk factors for anal sphincter injuries during operative vaginal delivery. A population-based observational study. All 21 254 women delivered with vacuum extraction and 7478 women delivered with forceps, derived from the previously validated Dutch National Obstetric Database from the years 1994 to 1995. Anal sphincter injury was defined as any injury, partial or complete, of the anal sphincters. Risk factors were determined with multivariate logistic regression analysis. Individual obstetric factors, e.g. fetal birthweights, duration of second stage, etc. Anal sphincter injury occurred in 3.0% of vacuum extractions and in 4.7% of forceps deliveries. Primiparity, occipitoposterior position and fetal birthweight were associated with an increased risk for anal sphincter injury in both types of operative vaginal delivery, whereas duration of second stage was associated with an increased risk only in vacuum extractions. Mediolateral episiotomy protected significantly for anal sphincter damage in both vacuum extraction (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.09-0.13) and forceps delivery (OR 0.08, 95% CI 0.07-0.11). The number of mediolateral episiotomies needed to prevent one sphincter injury in vacuum extractions was 12, whereas 5 mediolateral episiotomies could prevent one sphincter injury in forceps deliveries.",
"Our data suggest that, even if the underlying cause of IUGR is not pre-eclampsia, epidural local anesthetic administration might improve placental blood flow and be beneficial in a subgroup of patients. A clinical trial to test this hypothesis appears warranted.",
"yes. The addition of small dose of morphine to the spinal component of the CSE technique improved the effectiveness of epidural labour analgesia and reduced the need for pain medications over 24 h, but resulted in a small increase in nausea.",
"To explore the influence of epidural analgesia on the course of the third stage of labor and on the incidence of the complete retained placenta as well as retained parts of the placenta. This is a population-based cohort study in a tertiary medical center. We collected data from all 4227 spontaneous singleton vaginal deliveries during 6 months and compared the incidence of retained placenta in deliveries with epidural analgesia with those without analgesia. Multivariable logistic regression was used to control for possible confounders. More than two-thirds of the women (69.25%) used epidural analgesia during their delivery. A need for intervention due to placental disorder during the third stage of labor was noted in 4.2% of all deliveries. Epidural analgesia appeared to be significantly (P=0.028) related to placental disorders compared with no analgesia: 4.8% vs. 3%, respectively. Deliveries with manual interventions during the third stage, for either complete retained placenta or suspected retained parts of the placenta, were associated with the use of epidural analgesia (P=0.008), oxytocin (P=0.002) and older age at delivery (P=0.000), but when including all factors in a multivariable analysis, using a stepwise logistic regression, the factors that were independently associated with interventions for placental disruption during the third stage of delivery were previous cesarean section, oxytocin use and, marginally, older age.",
"There is co-activation of the transversus abdominis/internal oblique and the pelvic floor muscles in young, asymptomatic nulliparous women. This pattern was modified in primigravid pregnant and primiparous postpartum women regardless of the delivery mode.",
"yes. The addition of fentanyl 15 micrograms to hyperbaric lidocaine for subarachnoid anesthesia for cesarean delivery increases the duration of effective analgesia by approximately 30 minutes compared to plain hyperbaric lidocaine, and provides a protective effect regarding nausea and vomiting in the perioperative period.",
"To compare patient outcomes and complications before and after involvement of family medicine residents in intrapartum care. Secondary data analysis. London, Ont. Obstetric patients of a family physician with a special interest in obstetrics. Total number of births attended and births missed, as well as rates of inductions, augmentations for dystocia, augmentations for prelabour ruptured membranes, types of births (ie, normal vaginal, vacuum-assisted, low and outlet forceps deliveries; cesarean sections; and obstetrician-assisted vaginal births), and perineal outcomes (ie, intact; first-, second-, third-, or fourth-degree tears; episiotomies; and episiotomies with third-or fourth-degree extensions). During the period of time when family medicine residents were involved in intrapartum care, women sustained slightly more second-degree tears, and more cesarean sections were performed. Fewer women had vacuum-assisted births or unmedicated births. There were no significant differences in rates of normal vaginal births, low and outlet forceps deliveries, and perineal trauma (other than second-degree tears) including episiotomies.",
"yes. Significant maternal adaptations occur in the vagina during pregnancy, presumably in preparation for vaginal delivery. Greater adaptation, including vaginal descent and higher first-trimester elastase activity, is associated with an increased likelihood of uncomplicated spontaneous VD.",
"Routine episiotomy has declined since liberal usage has been discouraged. Anal sphincter laceration rates with spontaneous vaginal delivery have decreased, likely reflecting the decreased usage of episiotomy. The decline in operative vaginal delivery corresponds to a sharp increase in cesarean delivery, which may indicate that practitioners are favoring cesarean delivery for difficult births.",
"To investigate the timing of resumption of vaginal sex and assess associations with method of birth, perineal trauma and other obstetric and social factors. Prospective pregnancy cohort study of nulliparous women. Melbourne, Australia. A total of 1507 nulliparous women recruited in early pregnancy (≤24 weeks). Women were recruited from six public hospitals. Data from hospital records and self-administered questionnaires at recruitment and 3, 6 and 12 months postpartum were analysed using univariable and multivariable logistic regression. Resumption of vaginal sex. Sexual activity was resumed earlier than vaginal sex, with 53% resuming sexual activity by 6 weeks postpartum, and 41% attempting vaginal sex. By 8 weeks a majority of women had attempted vaginal sex (65%), increasing to 78% by 12 weeks, and 94% by 6 months. Compared with women who had a spontaneous vaginal birth with an intact perineum, women who had a spontaneous vaginal birth with an episiotomy (adjusted odds ratio 3.43, 95% confidence interval 1.9-6.2) or sutured perineal tear (adjusted odds ratio 3.18, 95% confidence interval 2.1-4.9) were more likely not to have resumed vaginal sex by 6 weeks postpartum. Similarly, women who had an assisted vaginal birth or caesarean section had raised odds of delaying resumption of sex.",
"No significant differences were observed between epidural and combined spinal-epidural given for labor analgesia in nulliparous women in duration of labor, mode of delivery, or local anesthetic consumed.",
"We studied obstetric delivery practices for fetal gastroschisis and correlated this with neonatal outcomes. Our objectives were to identify changes in delivery practices over time and to determine if these changes resulted in improved neonatal outcomes. After IRB approval, maternal and neonatal records from 219 gastroschisis births between 1990 and 2008 were reviewed. Obstetrical data and neonatal data were collected. Univariate comparisons were made between maternal delivery variables and neonatal outcomes. Significant and clinically relevant obstetrical variables were combined for multivariate linear regression modeling. The practice of elective cesarean delivery (ELCS) shifted to spontaneous vaginal delivery (sVD) over time (p <0.001). Babies born by sVD had longer hospitalization than those born by ELCS (median 36.0 vs 21.6days, p <0.05). Gestational age (GA) and birth weight were similar between groups. Babies born by induced VD (iVD) had short hospitalization (median 22.5days). A linear regression model demonstrated that spontaneous onset of labor (SOL) and GA were independently related to LOS.",
"Vaginal birth after a prior low transverse caesarean section (VBAC) is advocated as a safe and effective method to reduce the total caesarean section rate. However, the risk of uterine rupture has dampened the enthusiasm of practising clinicians for VBAC. Uterine rupture occurs more frequently in women receiving prostaglandins in preparation for the induction of labour. We hypothesised that similar to the cervix, prostaglandins induces biochemical changes in the uterine scar favouring dissolution, predisposing the uterus to rupture at the scar of the lower segment as opposed to elsewhere. We tested aspects of this hypothesis by investigating the location of uterine rupture associated with prostaglandins and compared it with the sites of rupture in the absence of prostaglandins. Two North American University Hospitals. Twenty-six women with a prior caesarean section, experiencing uterine rupture in active labour. Retrospective review of all pregnancies complicated by uterine rupture at two North American teaching hospitals from 1991 to 2000. Site of the uterine rupture. Thirty-four women experienced rupture after a previous caesarean section with low transverse uterine incision. Ten of the women who ruptured (29%) received prostaglandins for cervical ripening (dinoprostone: n= 8 or misoprostol: n= 2) followed by either spontaneous contractions (n= 3) or oxytocin augmentation during labour (n= 7). In 16 women (47%), oxytocin alone was sufficient for the induction/augmentation of labour. Eight (23%) women ruptured at term before reaching the active phase of labour in the absence of pro-contractile agents or attempted VBAC. There were no differences among the groups in terms of age, body mass index, parity, gestational age, fetal weight or umbilical cord pH measurements. Women treated with prostaglandins experienced rupture at the site of their old scar more frequently than women in the oxytocin-alone group whose rupture tended to occur remote from their old scar (prostaglandins 90%vs oxytocin 44%; OR: 11.6, 95% CI: 1.2-114.3).",
"yes. Cervical ripening and induction of delivery by local administration of prostaglandin E2 gel or vaginal tablets in cases presenting with an unfavorable cervical state is equally effective.",
"no. There was no difference in hourly bupivacaine consumption in parturients with prior lumbar discectomy surgery undergoing neuraxial labor analgesia in comparison with controls. Time to placement of the epidural catheter was not different either, but more interspaces were attempted in the discectomy group. Our findings suggest that standard clinical neuraxial analgesic methods are effective in women with discectomy surgery.",
"Epidural analgesia is associated with a four- to five- fold increase in noninfectious maternal fever in nulliparous women. Fever prophylaxis may safely reduce both unnecessary neonatal sepsis evaluations and the potential effect of fever on the fetus. We performed a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled study. Immediately after epidural placement, full-term nulliparas with a temperature of <99.5 degrees F received acetaminophen 650 mg or placebo, per rectum, every 4 hours. Tympanic membrane temperatures were measured hourly. Our power to detect an effect of acetaminophen treatment on maternal temperature over time was 90%. In all, 21 subjects were randomized to each arm. Treatment with acetaminophen did not impact maternal temperature curves. Fever >100.4 degrees F was identical in the acetaminophen and placebo groups (23.8%, p=1.0). Neonatal surveillance blood cultures did not reveal occult infection.",
"no. We conclude that there is no clinically important difference in duration of third stage of labour between women with or without epidural analgesia who have spontaneous placental delivery or placental expulsion with fundal pressure/gentle cord traction. However, duration of third stage of labour was shorter in women who received epidural analgesia and required manual removal of the placenta.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether an occiput posterior (OP) fetal head position increases the risk for anal sphincter injury when compared with an occiput anterior (OA) position in vacuum-assisted deliveries. We conducted a retrospective cohort study of 393 vacuum-assisted singleton vaginal deliveries. Maternal demographics and obstetric and neonatal data were collected from an obstetric database and chart review. Within the OP group, 41.7% developed a third- or fourth-degree laceration compared with 22.0% in the OA group (OR 2.5, 95% CI 1.4-4.7). In a logistic regression model that controlled for BMI, race, nulliparity, length of second stage, episiotomy, birth weight, head circumference, and fetal head position, OP position was 4.0 times (95% CI 1.7-9.6) more likely to be associated with an anal sphincter injury than OA position.",
"To test the hypothesis that patient-controlled epidural analgesia (PCEA) using ropivacaine and fentanyl provides better maternal satisfaction and less anesthetic requirement than conventional continuous epidural infusion (CEI) during labor, we studied 58 uncomplicated parturients (singleton, vertex presentation). After establishing effective epidural analgesia with 11 ml of 0.2% ropivacaine, all parturients were randomly divided into one of two groups: the PCEA group (n = 29) or the CEI group (n = 29). In the PCEA group, the pump was initiated to deliver a basal infusion at 6 ml x h(-1) and a demand dose of 5 ml; the lockout interval was 10 min, and there was a 31 ml x h(-1) limit. The drugs used were 0.1% ropivacaine + fentanyl 2 microg x ml(-1). In the CEI group, epidural analgesia was maintained with the same solution as the PCEA group at a constant rate of 10 ml x h(-1). If parturients requested additional analgesia in the CEI group, we added 8 ml of epidural 0.2% ropivacaine without fentanyl. Parturients' demographic data, such as duration of labor, mode of delivery, Apgar score, and umbilical arterial pH did not differ between the two groups. However, the hourly requirement of ropivacaine was significantly less in the PCEA group than in the CEI group (9.3 +/- 2.5 vs. 17.6 +/- 7.6 mg x h(-1); P < 0.05). Parturients' satisfaction assessed by the Visual Analogue Scale tended to be higher in the PCEA group than in the CEI group. Side effects such as nausea, hypotension, and itching were similar for the two groups.",
"The combination of the Foley balloon and prostaglandin gel significantly improved the Bishop score and led to fewer failed inductions, although it did not increase the vaginal delivery rate.",
"This prospective, randomized study was performed to see if intermittent labor epidural analgesia was protective against maternal intrapartum fever, compared to continuous epidural infusion. Ninety-two healthy, term, nulliparous women in spontaneous labor were assigned to either intermittent (ILEA) or continuous labor epidural analgesia (CLEA), 46 in each group. In both groups, epidural analgesia was established with fentanyl 100 microg, and 8 mL of either 0.125% bupivacaine with fentanyl 0.0002%, or 0.1% ropivacaine with fentanyl 0.0002%. Maintenance in the CLEA group was with the same bupivacaine/fentanyl or ropivacaine/fentanyl solutions at 10-15 mL/h. In the ILEA group, additional boluses of the same solution were given as needed. Maternal tympanic temperature was measured before epidural insertion, 4-hourly during labor and 4 h post partum. Fever was defined as a temperature of > or =38 degrees C. Newborn temperature was noted within 60 min of birth. The incidence of fever in ILEA was significantly lower at four hours (2/42, vs. 10/44 in CLEA, P=0.036). No significant differences were detected at other time periods. Mean maternal temperatures did not differ between groups at any time. There were no differences in neonatal temperature or neonatal sepsis evaluation rate (CLEA vs. ILEA 0/46 vs. 2/43, P=0.45).",
"The need for a skilled neonatal resuscitator in the form of a paediatrician or paediatric registrar to attend a vaginal delivery or Caesarean section (CS) is not clearly defined. This study was undertaken in order to ascertain the level of resuscitation a neonate might require dependent on the delivery mode and type of anaesthesia used. We analysed the Tasmanian Obstetric Audit from 1980 to 1989 for the need for intubation and Apgar scores at 1 min of term singleton deliveries by the mode of delivery. The number of singleton term deliveries was 64739. When the data were analysed annually there was a trend for a reduction in the need for intubation in CS deliveries during the first 5 years, although this was not paralleled by an improvement in Apgar scores. Thus the intubation rate data are also presented for the last 5 years of the study. The intubation rate, Apgar score at 1 min of<4, and Apgar score at 1 min of>or = 4<7 for repeat CS under epidural anaesthesia were 0.55% (0.26% for 1985-89) 0.83% and 3.58%, respectively, with relative risks when compared with spontaneous normal vaginal delivery of 1.8 (1.2 for 1985-89), 0.7 and 0.5, respectively. The relative risk of these outcomes was higher than for normal vaginal delivery for all other modes of delivery including repeat CS under general anaesthesia.",
"Our goal was to evaluate whether active management of labor lowers cesarean section rates, shortens the length of labor, and overcomes any negative effects of epidural analgesia on nulliparous labor. We randomly assigned 405 low-risk term nulliparous patients to either an active management of labor (n = 200) or our usual care control protocol (n = 205). Patients who were undergoing active management of labor were diagnosed as being in labor on the basis of having painful palpable contractions accompanied by 80% cervical effacement, underwent early amniotomy, and were treated with high-dose oxytocin for failure to progress adequately in labor. The cesarean section rate in the active management of labor group was lower than that of controls but not significantly so (active management, 7.5%; controls, 11.7%; p = 0.36). The length of labor in the active management group was shortened by 1.7 hours (from 11.4 to 9.7 hours, p = 0.001). Fifty-five percent of patients received epidural analgesics; a reduction in length of labor persisted despite the use of epidural analgesics (active management 11.2 hours vs control 13.3 hours, p = 0.001). A significantly greater proportion of active management patients were delivered by 12 hours compared with controls (75% vs 58%, p = 0.01); this difference also persisted despite the use of epidural analgesics (66% vs 51%, p = 0.03).",
"To test the hypothesis that sufficient pain relief during delivery decreases the risk of postnatal depression. As part of a prospective follow-up study of the risk factors for postnatal depression and its impact on the mother-infant interaction and child development, 185 parturients filled in the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS), first during the first postpartum week and again (n = 162) 4 months later. The incidence and the risk of high EPDS scores was calculated according to the mode of delivery and the mode of pain relief during vaginal delivery, also after adjusting for the length of labor. Mothers who received epidural/paracervical blockade during their delivery spent less time in the delivery room than mothers in the nitrous oxide/acupuncture group (p = 0.033) or mothers with no pain relief (p = 0.026) and had shorter length of labor than mothers without pain relief (p = 0.04). The adjusted risk of depressive scores at the first postnatal week was decreased in the epidural/paracervical group when compared with no analgesia group (OR: 0.25, 95% CI: 0.09-0.72). This difference was not shown at 4 months postpartum. Elective or emergency cesarean section did not increase the risk of high EPDS scores at the first week or at 4 months postpartum.",
"Parity, age, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia are strongly associated with obstetric anal sphincter injury. Mediolateral episiotomy appears to be protective against OASI but a randomised controlled trial would be needed to confirm this. The rising incidence of OASI after normal vaginal deliveries may be related to adoption of the hands off technique or increased identification of tears.",
"yes. Placement of bupivacaine-soaked spongostan into the episiotomy bed resulted in decreased postpartum pain and drug requirement. It may be attributed to a higher drug concentration at episiotomy bed and prolonged drug effect.",
"Social and cultural factors combined with little information may prevent the diffusion of epidural analgesia for pain relief during childbirth. The present study was launched contemporarily to the implementation of analgesia for labor in our Department in order to perform a 2 years audit on its use. The goal is to evaluate the epidural acceptance and penetration into hospital practice by women and care givers and safety and efficacy during childbirth. This audit cycle measured epidural analgesia performance against 4 standards: (1) Implementation of epidural analgesia for labor to all patients; (2) Acceptance and good satisfaction level reported by patients and caregivers. (3) Effectiveness of labor analgesia; (4) No maternal or fetal side effects. During the audit period epidural analgesia increased from 15.5% of all labors in the first trimester of the study to 51% in the last trimester (p<0.005). Satisfaction levels reported by patients and care givers were good. A hierarchical clustering analysis identified two clusters based on VAS (Visual Analogue Scale) time course: in 226 patients (cluster 1) VAS decreased from 8.5±1.4 before to 4.1±1.3 after epidural analgesia; in 1002 patients (cluster 2) VAS decreased from 8.12±1.7 before (NS vs cluster 1), to 0.76±0.79 after (p<0.001 vs before and vs cluster 2 after). No other differences between clusters were observed.",
"[corrected] During arrest of descent, maternal tissues conform to the fetal head, resulting in a suction-cup like effect during cesarean delivery. We hypothesize that breaking this suction might ease delivery. A novel device was designed for this purpose and tested in this series of 23 patients. University-based retrospective cohort feasibility study. Term pregnant women with second-stage labor arrest (n = 23) provided written consent for use of the experimental device, inserted vaginally prior to cesarean delivery. Delivering obstetricians rated device effectiveness. Following case collection, the presence of hysterotomy extensions in study patients was retrospectively compared with controls (n = 49) from the same study period. On a 7-point Likert scale, consultant obstetricians rated overall device effectiveness as 6.0, and resident obstetricians rated it 6.3, consistent with a moderate improvement in ease of delivery. The device performed optimally at mid-pelvic stations (0 to +1), with no hysterotomy extensions (n = 0/17), which was significantly better than controls (n = 14/41, 34%, p < 0.01).",
"yes. Adoption of the lateral recumbent head-down position for the performance of lumbar epidural blockade, in labour at term, reduces the incidence of lumbar epidural venous puncture.",
"To assess whether the station of the fetal head when lumbar epidural analgesia is administered influences the duration or the mode of delivery in low-risk laboring women. We prospectively evaluated 131 consecutive cases of low-risk parturients at term who requested intrapartum epidural analgesia. Obstetric outcome of 65 parturients who underwent epidural analgesia when the fetal head was low in the birth canal was compared to 66 patients whose fetal head station was above the ischial spine. Both groups were similar in their obstetric characteristics. Cervical dilatation when performing the epidural analgesia was similar in both groups. The duration of labor and mode of delivery, as well as percentage of malpositions, were not significantly different in the two groups.",
"yes. Present audit shows that the process of implementation of labor analgesia was quick, successful and safe, notwithstanding the identification of one cluster of women with suboptimal response to epidural analgesia that need to be further studies, overall pregnant womens'adhesion to labor analgesia was satisfactory.",
"Epidural anaesthesia (EDA) is an effective method to lower labour pain. EDA might have an impact on instrumental delivery rates and on caesarean section rates. The present study compares the mode of delivery in women who were either receiving EDA or not. The indication for EDA was pain relief only in order to switch off a selection bias. During a 1-year duration, we included a total of 1,452 cases. Exclusion criteria were factors that could influence the mode of delivery, independent from EDA, as well as obstetrical indications for administering EDA. 530 women remained in the analysis. The primary outcome variable was the mode of delivery. We detected in both nullipara and multipara a statistically significant accumulatin in patients with EDA and caesarean section combined. Most importantly, the majority of the women without EDA (57% of nullipara and 60% of multipara) delivered within the median timeframe from admission until administration of EDA.",
"yes. Ten-group analysis of international obstetric cesarean practice identifies wide variations in women in spontaneous cephalic term labor, a low-risk cohort amenable to effective intrapartum corrective intervention.",
"Early administration of epidural analgesia did not prolong labor or increase the incidence of operative delivery, when compared with intravenous nalbuphine followed by late administration of epidural analgesia, in nulliparous women who were receiving intravenous oxytocin.",
"To assess the influence of body mass index (BMI) on labor outcome in both induced and actively managed spontaneous nulliparous labors. This is a prospective observational study of all consecutive nulliparous women who delivered in the National Maternity Hospital, Dublin in 2008. Labor outcome variables examined in relation to BMI included duration of labor, oxytocin requirements, epidural use, mode of delivery, and infant birthweight. Of 4162 nulliparous women who labored during the study period, accurate BMI data were available on 3158, who constituted the study group. Of these women, 2143 (68%) were in spontaneous labor and 1015 (32%) had labor induced. A statistically significant association was found between maternal BMI at first antenatal visit and the need for intrapartum cesarean section (CS) in both spontaneous and induced labors (p < 0.05). A significantly poorer response to oxytocin augmentation was observed in women with a higher BMI, as indicated by an increased intrapartum CS rate for dystocia despite oxytocin augmentation. There was a linear relationship between maternal BMI and gestational age at onset of spontaneous labor.",
"To draw a comparison between spontaneous vaginal delivery and vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery in relation to the incidence and the type of levator ani avulsion in primiparas. Retrospective observational study. SETTIMG: Department of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, University Hospital of Ostrava. In the study, the primiparas who were from 6 to 12 months after spontaneous vaginal delivery (group A, n = 52) or after childbirth with vacuum extraction (group B, n = 51) underwent translabial 3D ultrasound. The obstetric data had been obtained from the hospital database. Translabial 3D ultrasound examination were performed by two sonographists. The monitored parameter was the distance between urethra and fibres of musculus levator ani - levator urethra gap [6]. The distance longer than 25 mm was considered an avulsion injury [6, 22]. Other parameters assessed in relation to the avulsion were: women's age, BMI, epidural analgesia, episiotomy performance, the length of the first and the second stages of labour, and fetal weight. Musculus levator ani avulsion was diagnosed in 10 women - unilateral in 8 cases and bilateral in 2 cases. In group A, women after spontaneous birth, we noticed avulsion injury in 7.7% of cases, whereas in group B, women after vacuum extraction, we recorded avulsion injury in 11.8% of cases. Thus the use of vacuum extraction is not statistically significant risk factor for avulsion musculus levator ani. Statistically significant difference in comparison group A and B was recorded in BMI, the length of the second stages of labour and episiotomy performance.",
"External cephalic version (ECV) has been successfully used to decrease the fetal and maternal morbidity and costs of cesarean delivery. As there are limited data regarding the use of central neuraxial blockade in the setting of previously failed ECV attempts, we sought to evaluate the efficacy and safety of spinal and epidural anesthesia in this setting. A retrospective review of all ECV attempts performed by a single experienced obstetrician between 1995 and 1999 was conducted. Standardized tocolytic and anesthetic regimens were used. A total of 77 patients underwent ECV attempts; of these, 37 (48%) were unsuccessful, 15 of which consented to further attempts with anesthesia. Neuraxial anesthesia was associated with frequent ECV success in both multiparous 4/4 (100%) and nulliparous 9/11 (82%) parturients. Overall 5/6 (83%) and 8/9 (89%) (P = NS) ECV attempts were successful with spinal and epidural anesthesia, respectively, with 2/5 (40%) and 6/8 (75%) (P = NS) resulting in vaginal deliveries. One successful ECV in the epidural group had an urgent cesarean delivery for persistent fetal bradycardia with good neonatal and maternal outcomes. We conclude central neuraxial anesthesia promotes successful ECV after previously failed ECV attempts.",
"yes. Transperineal ultrasound examination just after full cervical dilatation was determined was useful in predicting spontaneous vaginal delivery.",
"Prevention of post-spinal hypotension in obstetric patients can be accomplished using intravenous fluid expansion and prophylactic use of sympathomimetic drugs. The affect of combination of colloids and phenylephrine infusion on maternal hemodynamics has not been widely studied and there is no consensus about the dosage required and time of starting its administration. This prospective, randomized, double-blind study enrolled 90 healthy term parturients undergoing elective Cesarean delivery under lumbar subarachnoid block (0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 10 mg with fentanyl 25 μg). Patients in Group A received prophylactic intravenous phenylephrine infusion (60 μg/minute) along with hydroxyl-ethyl-starch cohydration (6% HES 130/0.42;15 ml/kg) immediately after subarachnoid block. In Group B, patients received 6% HES cohydration and intermittent intravenous 50 μg boluses of phenylephrine. The efficacy of these in maintaining maternal SBP at 90-110% of baseline and neonatal well-being was evaluated. In Group B, 75.5% of patients required rescue phenylephrine boluses to maintain SBP while maternal hemodynamics were well maintained in Group A and rescue drug was not needed. Reactive hypertension occurred in one patient (2.2%) and bradycardia in two patients (4.4%) in Group A. Six patients complained of nausea in Group B (13.3%) compared to one in Group A. All the newborns had normal Apgar scores and Umbilical arterial pH > 7.2.",
"yes. The results support the restrictive use of episiotomy, since 909 episiotomies appear to be needed to prevent one OASR among primiparous women. Equivalent estimate in vacuum assisted deliveries among primiparous women was 66, favoring routine use of episiotomy in such cases.",
"To evaluate the medium-term effect of epidural analgesia (EA) on the possible onset of postpartum urinary incontinence (PUI). We performed a single-centre, retrospective case-control study. At 8-week postpartum, we recruited a cohort of women who had term singleton pregnancy and foetus in cephalic presentation, and divided in six groups: (1) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, without EA; (2) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, with EA; (3) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, without EA; (4) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, with EA; (5) emergency caesarean section without previous EA during labour and (6) emergency caesarean section with previous EA during labour. For each woman, we recorded age, Body Mass Index (BMI) and the result of the following questionnaire for urinary incontinence: International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire Short Form (ICIQ-SF), Incontinence Impact Questionnaire-7 (IIQ-7) and Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6). Subsequently, we compared group 1 versus group 2, group 3 versus group 4 and group 5 versus group 6. We did not evidence any significant difference for age, BMI and incontinence scores between groups 1 and 2, 3 and 4, and 5 and 6.",
"yes. Nuchal cord in normal pregnancies at term is associated with increased rate of operative vaginal and caesarean delivery in nulliparae. The presence of a nuchal cord results in slightly lower Apgar scores at 1 and 5 min, mainly as a consequence of higher operative delivery rates.",
"More than 50% of pregnant women in the United States are using epidural analgesia for labor pain. However, whether epidural analgesia prolongs labor and increases the risk of cesarean delivery remains controversial. We examined this question in a community-based, tertiary military medical center where the rate of continuous epidural analgesia in labor increased from 1% to 84% in a 1-year period while other conditions remained unchanged-a natural experiment. We systematically selected 507 and 581 singleton, nulliparous, term pregnancies with spontaneous onset of labor and vertex presentation from the respective times before and after the times that epidural analgesia was available on request during labor. We compared duration of labor, rate of cesarean delivery, instrumental delivery, and oxytocin use between these two groups. Despite a rapid and dramatic increase in epidural analgesia during labor (from 1% to 84% in 1 year), rates of cesarean delivery overall and for dystocia remained the same (for overall cesarean delivery: adjusted relative risk, 0.8; 95% confidence interval, 0.6-1.2; for dystocia: adjusted relative risk, 1.0; 95% confidence interval, 0.7-1.6). Overall instrumental delivery did not increase (adjusted relative risk, 1.0; 95% confidence interval, 0.8-1.4), nor did the duration of the first stage and the active phase of labor (multivariate analysis; P>.1). However, the second stage of labor was significantly longer by about 25 minutes (P<.001).",
"yes. vaginal bilateral cervical lips suture can prevent intrauterine balloon prolapse, which may be a useful adjunct to intrauterine balloon tamponade in management of postpartum hemorrhage.",
"yes. Adoption of the lateral recumbent head-down position for the performance of lumbar epidural blockade, in labour at term, reduces the incidence of lumbar epidural venous puncture in these obese parturients.",
"The objective of the study was to define maternal tissue adaptations in pregnancy associated with uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery using anatomical and biological outcomes. Nulliparous gravidas were prospectively enrolled in the first trimester at 2 institutions. Demographic and delivery data were chart abstracted. Vaginal elastase activity (units per milligram of protein) and Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification measurements of pelvic organ support were obtained in the first and third trimesters. A subset underwent 3-dimensional ultrasound measures of levator hiatus. Uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery (VD) was defined as no cesarean, forceps, vacuum, shoulder dystocia, third- or fourth-degree perineal laceration, or prolonged second stage labor. We enrolled 173 women in their first trimester, 50 of whom had ultrasounds. Mean age was 25.5 ± 5.5 years with a body mass index of 28.0 ± 7.3 kg/m(2). Sixty-seven percent were white/Caucasian, 27% black/African American, and 6% Hispanic/Latina. Mean delivery gestational age was 38.5 ± 2.9 weeks, with 23% delivering by cesarean and 59% achieving uncomplicated spontaneous VD. Vaginal support changed significantly over trimesters with posterior vaginal and hiatal relaxation, vaginal lengthening, and increased levator hiatus area during strain. Women achieving uncomplicated spontaneous VD demonstrated significantly greater relaxation on third-trimester Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification for anterior, apical, and hiatal measures than those without uncomplicated spontaneous VD. Higher first-trimester vaginal elastase activity was strongly associated with uncomplicated spontaneous VD (geometric mean activity 0.289 ± 0.830 U/mg vs -0.029 ± 0.585 U/mg, P = .009). Higher first-trimester elastase, younger age, lower first-trimester body mass index, and more third-trimester vaginal support laxity in points C and GH were predictive of VD success.",
"To ascertain any differences in foetomaternal outcomes in induced and spontaneous labour among nulliparous women delivering at term. A retrospective matched cohort study consisting of 403 nulliparous women induced at ≥ 292 days and 806 nulliparous women with spontaneous labour at 285-291 days. Compared to those in spontaneous labour, women who had induction of labour were three times more likely to have a caesarean delivery (OR 3.1, 95% CI 2.4-4.1; P<0.001). Women who had induction of labour were 2.2 times more likely to have oxytocin augmentation (OR 2.2, 95% CI 1.7-2.8; P<0.001), 3.6 times more likely to have epidural anaesthesia (OR 3.6, 95% CI 2.8-4.6; P<0.001), 1.7 times more likely to have uterine hyperstimulation (OR 1.7, 95% CI 1.1-2.6), 2 times more likely to have a suspicious foetal heart rate trace (OR 2.0, 95% CI 1.5-2.6), 4.1 times more likely to have blood loss over 500 ml (OR 4.1, 95% CI 2.9-5.5; P<0.001), and 2.9 times more likely to stay in hospital beyond 5 days (OR 2.9, 95% CI 1.5-5.6; P<0.001). Babies born to mothers who had induction of labour were significantly more likely to have an Apgar score of<5 at 5 min and an arterial cord pH of<7.0.",
"To investigate whether there is an association between epidural analgesia and duration of third stage of labour, and between epidural analgesia and type of placental delivery (spontaneous vs expressed vs manual). We examined, retrospectively, the computerized labour and delivery data of all 7,468 parturients who had vaginal deliveries from 1996 to 1999 at the Civic Campus of the Ottawa Hospital. There was no difference in duration of third stage of labour between women with and without epidural pain relief who had spontaneous or expressed (fundal pressure/gentle cord traction) placental delivery. Duration of third stage of labour was shorter in women with epidural analgesia requiring manual removal of placenta. (25.3 min vs 40.1 min, P < 0.0001). The incidence of expressed placental delivery or manual removal of placenta was not different between the groups.",
"To investigate the relation between use of epidural analgesia (EDA) and maternal and fetal characteristics. Population-based register study. Nationwide study in Sweden. All 106,775 primiparous women who in 2002-2005 delivered a singleton infant vaginally at term. Register study with data from the Medical Birth Registry and the Swedish Register of Education. Use of EDA during vaginal delivery. A total of 47,810 women (45%) received EDA during labor. EDA was used more often in women who were either young or short, had a high body mass index or a short education, or gave birth to an infant with high birthweight. After adjustment, the positive correlation with birthweight persisted. The use of EDA was twice as high in women with infant birthweight >4,500 g, 60% higher in those with infants weighing between 4,000 and 4,500 g and 25% lower when infants weighed <3,000 g, when compared to those with newborns weighing between 3,000 and 3,500 g.",
"yes. Advanced maternal age plays an important role in the development of anal sphincter tears in nulliparous women. Episiotomy and operative vaginal deliveries should be restrictively performed when possible. To identify further preventive approaches in patients with accumulated risk factors prospective randomized studies are needed.",
"Some studies suggest that epidural analgesia prolongs labor and increases the incidence of cesarean section, especially if it is administered before 5 cm cervical dilation. The purpose of the current study was to determine whether early administration of epidural analgesia affects obstetric outcome in nulliparous women who are receiving intravenous oxytocin. Informed consent was obtained from healthy nulliparous women with a singleton fetus in a vertex presentation, who requested epidural analgesia while receiving intravenous oxytocin at at least 36 weeks' gestation. Each patient was randomized to receive either early or late epidural analgesia. Randomization occurred only after the following conditions were met: (1) the patient requested pain relief at that moment, (2) a lumbar epidural catheter had been placed, and (3) the cervix was at least 3 but less than 5 cm dilated. Patients in the early group immediately received epidural bupivacaine analgesia. Patients in the late group received 10 mg nalbuphine intravenously. Late-group patients did not receive epidural analgesia until they achieved a cervical dilation of at least 5 cm or until at least 1 h had elapsed after a second dose of nalbuphine. Early administration of epidural analgesia did not prolong the interval between randomization and the diagnosis of complete cervical dilation, and it did not increase the incidence of malposition of the vertex at delivery. Also, early administration of epidural analgesia did not result in an increased incidence of cesarean section or instrumental vaginal delivery. Thirteen (18%) of 74 women in the early group and 14 (19%) of 75 women in the late group underwent cesarean section (relative risk for the early group 0.94; 95% confidence interval 0.48-1.84). Patients in the early group had lower pain scores between 30 and 120 min after randomization, and were more likely to experience transient hypotension. Infants in the late group had lower umbilical arterial and venous blood pH and higher umbilical arterial and venous blood carbon dioxide tension measurements at delivery.",
"To determine whether early initiation of epidural analgesia in nulliparous women affects the rate of cesarean sections and other obstetric outcome measures. A randomized trial in which 449 at term nulliparous women in early labor, at less than 3 cm of cervical dilatation, were assigned to either immediate initiation of epidural analgesia at first request (221 women), or delay of epidural until the cervix dilated to at least 4 cm (228 women). At initiation of the epidural the mean cervical dilatation was 2.4 cm in the early epidural group and 4.6 cm in the late group (P<0.0001). The rates of cesarean section were not significantly different between the groups--13% and 11% in the early and late groups, respectively (P = 0.77). The mean duration from randomization to full dilatation was significantly shorter in the early compared to the late epidural group--5.9 hours and 6.6 hours respectively (P = 0.04). When questioned after delivery regarding their next labor, the women indicated a preference for early epidural.",
"To identify the risk factors for obstetric anal sphincter rupture (OASR). Retrospective population-based register study. A total of 514,741 women with singleton pregnancy and vaginal delivery between 1997 and 2007 in Finland. Primiparous (n = 2,315) and multiparous women (n = 534) with OASR were compared with primiparous and multiparous women without OASR by using stepwise logistic regression analysis. The OASR risk. Episiotomy decreased the likelihood of OASR for the primiparous [odds ratio (OR) 0.83, 95% CI (confidence interval) 0.75-0.92], but not the multiparous women (OR 2.01, 95% CI 1.67-2.44). The strongest risk factors for OASR among the primiparous women were forceps delivery (OR 10.20, 95% CI 3.60-28.90), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 4.66, 95% CI 3.86-5.63), vacuum assisted delivery (OR 3.88, 95% CI 3.25-4.63), occiput posterior presentation (OR 3.17, 95% CI 1.64-6.15), and prolonged active second stage of birth (OR 2.06, 95% CI 1.65-2.58). Episiotomy was associated with decreased risks for OASR in vacuum assisted deliveries (OR 0.70, 95% CI 0.57-0.85). Risk factors for OASR among the multiparous women included forceps delivery (OR 10.13, 95% CI 2.46-41.81), prolonged active second stage of the birth (OR 7.18, 95% CI 4.32-11.91), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 5.84, 95% CI 3.40-10.02), and vacuum assisted delivery (OR 4.17, 95% CI 3.17-5.48).",
"Compared to those with spontaneous labour, nulliparous women with induced labours are more likely to have uterine hyperstimulation, caesarean delivery, and babies with low Apgar scores. Nulliparous women should be made aware of this, as well as potential risks of expectant management during counseling.",
"To investigate possible differences in operative delivery rate among low-risk women, randomised to an alongside midwifery-led unit or to standard obstetric units within the same hospital. Randomised controlled trial. Department of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, Østfold Hospital Trust, Tromsø, Norway. A total of 1111 women assessed to be at low risk at onset of spontaneous labour. Randomisation into one of three birth units: the special unit; the normal unit; or the midwife-led unit. Total operative delivery rate, augmentation, pain relief, postpartum haemorrhage, sphincter injuries and intrapartum transfer, Apgar score<7 at 5 minutes, metabolic acidosis and transfer to neonatal intensive care unit. There were no significant differences in total operative deliveries between the three units: 16.3% in the midwife-led unit; 18.0% in the normal unit; and 18.8% in the special unit. There were no significant differences in postpartum haemorrhage, sphincter injuries or in neonatal outcomes. There were statistically significant differences in augmentation (midwife-led unit versus normal unit RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.59-0.89; midwife-led unit versus special unit RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.56-0.86), in epidural analgesia (midwife-led unit versus normal unit RR 0.68, 95% CI 0.52-0.90; midwife-led unit versus special unit RR 0.64, 95% CI 0.47-0.86) and in acupuncture (midwife-led unit versus normal unit RR 1.45, 95% CI 1.25-1.69; midwife-led unit versus special unit RR 1.45, 95% CI 1.22-1.73).",
"To reduce the operative delivery rate in the prolonged second stage of labor (PSSL) through intrapartum sonography. Sixty-two women - with uncomplicated pregnancies at term, fetus in cephalic presentation and occipitoanterior position, in PSSL - had already undergone epidural anesthesia and oxytocin infusion. Transperineal ultrasound was performed to define fetal head direction (downward, horizontal, and upward) and patients were divided into three groups (D, H, and U). Cessation of oxytocin infusion, addition of a dose of anesthesia, invitation to assume a hand-and-knee position, and to relax. After one hour, oxytocin infusion was started again and women were invited to push. Fetal well-being ensured by cardiotocography (CTG). Chi-square test was used to compare the mode of delivery: cesarean section (CS), vacuum extraction (VE), and spontaneous delivery (SD). Group D (n = 20): 4 SD (20%), 4 VE, 12 CS; group H (n = 22): 9 SD (41%), 9 VE, 4 CS; group U (n20): 16 SD (80%), 4 VE. The risk of not having a SD in group D versus U is quadrupled (RR 4; 95% CI 1.6-9.9).",
"yes. Induction of labor after successful ECV in nulliparous women increased the risk of CD compared with IOL with spontaneous cephalic presentation.",
"Patient-controlled epidural analgesia (PCEA) with a moderate to high concentration of bupivacaine in obstetrics has been shown to give comparable analgesia and even higher level of satisfaction compared to continuous epidural infusion. We hypothesised that the use of a very low concentration technique (ropivacaine/fentanyl) might result in excessive dosing in the PCEA group, more motor blockade and a negative impact on spontaneous delivery rate. We conducted a randomised, double-blind study of 60 nulliparous women at term comparing low concentration ropivacaine/fentanyl administered in either patient-controlled or fixed continuous infusion mode. Parturients with known predictors of painful deliveries, i.e. breech presentation, primary induction of labour, were not included. Deliveries within 90 min from the start of epidural analgesia were omitted from the evaluation. We found that both groups required a mean of 12 ml/h low concentration mixture (loading and midwife rescue boluses included). There was no difference between groups with respect to spontaneous delivery rate (71%). This low concentration technique resulted in haemodynamic stability without crystalloid preloading, infusion or vasopressor use. Motor blockade of clinical importance was not detected in any patient.",
"To compare duration of labor, mode of delivery, and local anesthetic consumed in women who received labor analgesia with epidural or combined spinal-epidural technique. Retrospective, observational study. Delivery room of a university hospital. 788 nulliparous women in labor at term with cervical dilation between three and 5 cm. In Group E (epidural alone), parturients received an epidural solution of 8 mL (levobupivacaine 0.125% with fentanyl 5 microg/mL). In Group CSE (combined spinal-epidural), parturients received a spinal injection of levobupivacaine two mg with fentanyl 15 microg (total volume two mL). Then an epidural catheter was placed in all patients and connected to a patient-controlled analgesia pump (basal infusion rate of 8 mL/hr of 0.1% levobupivacaine and fentanyl two microg/mL, patient-controlled bolus dose of three mL, and lockout time of 30 min). Labor duration, mode of delivery (spontaneous vaginal vs. instrumental delivery vs. cesarean section), and local anesthetic consumed, were recorded. Labor analgesia was performed with an epidural technique in 322 patients (40.9%), and a combined spinal-epidural technique in 466 patients (59.1%), of whom 39 Group E women (12.1%) and 46 Group CSE women (9.9%) required cesarean section (P=ns). No differences in the mode of delivery were observed between the groups. Time from analgesia to delivery (Group E: 217 +/- 111 min vs. Group CSE: 213 +/- 115 min; P=ns), and epidural local anesthetic consumed (Group E: 35 +/- 20 mL vs. Group CSE: 33 +/- 20 mL; P=ns), were similar in both groups.",
"We conclude that epidural use of ropivacaine 1 mg/ml+fentanyl 2 microg/ml provides effective analgesia with equal volume requirements irrespective of administration mode, with a high spontaneous delivery rate. Choice of PCEA or CEI (continuous epidural infusion) should be directed by other considerations, most importantly compliance of midwife and possible reduction in workload for anaesthesiology staff.",
"To determine whether mode of delivery is associated with the endocrine stress response in mother and child. Prospective observational study. Tertiary care centre, University hospital. A total of 103 nulliparous women with uncomplicated singleton pregnancies at term undergoing either spontaneous labour for vaginal delivery or delivering by caesarean section without labour. Thirty women delivered vaginally without any pain relief, 21 women delivered vaginally with epidural anaesthesia, 23 women had ventouse extraction and 29 women underwent caesarean section with epidural analgesia. After delivery, maternal and umbilical cord blood was collected for determination of different stress-associated hormones. Concentrations of epinephrine (EP), norepinephrine (NOR), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), cortisol (CORT), prolactin (PRL), corticotropin-releasing factor and beta-endorphin (BE). Caesarean section was associated with significantly lower maternal concentrations of EP, NOR, ACTH, CORT, PRL and BE and lower newborn levels of EP, NOR and CORT compared with all other modes of delivery. Concentrations of EP, ACTH and BE differed significantly in newborns delivered by normal vaginal delivery, vaginal delivery with epidural anaesthesia and ventouse extraction.",
"yes. Primiparity and occipitoposterior presentation are strong risk factors for the occurrence of anal sphincter injury during operative vaginal delivery. The highly significant protective effect of mediolateral episiotomies in both types of operative vaginal delivery warrants the conclusions that this type of episiotomy should be used routinely during these interventions to protect the anal sphincters.",
"The effect of epidural analgesia on nulliparous labor and delivery remains controversial. In addition, pregnancy and delivery have long been considered risk factors in the genesis of stress urinary incontinence (SUI). We sought to determine the effect of epidural analgesia and timing of administration on labor course and postpartum SUI. Five hundred and eighty three nulliparous women were admitted for vaginal delivery at>or = 36 gestational weeks. We compared various obstetric parameters and SUI, at puerperium and 3 months postpartum, among patients who had epidural and non-epidural analgesia, and among those who had early (cervical dilatation<3 cm) and late (cervical dilatation>or = 3 cm) epidural analgesia. When compared with the non-epidural analgesia group (n = 319), the group that received epidural analgesia (n = 264) had significant prolongation of the first and second stages of labor, and higher likelihood for instrumental and cesarean delivery but similar incidence of severe vaginal laceration and postpartum SUI. Except for the first stage of labor, early administration of epidural analgesia did not result in a significant influence on obstetric parameters or an increased incidence of postpartum SUI.",
"We performed a population-based cohort study in Tasmania using data collected between January 1998 and December 2003 inclusive. Data on all singleton births>or=37 weeks gestation was analysed from the Tasmanian Obstetric and Neonatal Audit database to determine the number and type of resuscitations, and the number of low 1-min Apgar scores for each mode of delivery. There were 31 820 singleton deliveries born at>or=37 weeks gestation over the 6-year period. Of these 21 733 (68.3%) were spontaneous unassisted vertex vaginal deliveries and 2918 (9.2%) were elective CSs performed under regional anaesthesia (2620 spinal and 298 epidural). The incidence of a 1-min Apgar score of<4 and a 1-min Apgar score of>or=4 and<7 for elective sections under spinal was significantly lower when compared with unassisted, spontaneous, vertex vaginal delivery at 0.57% and 11.8% respectively. The relative risks when compared with unassisted, spontaneous, vertex vaginal delivery were 0.36 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.21-0.60, P<0.05) and 0.73 (95% CI 0.65-0.81, P<0.05), respectively. There was a small but statistically significant difference between unassisted, spontaneous, vertex vaginal delivery and elective CSs performed under regional anaesthesia in the requirement for resuscitation in the form of bag and mask ventilation. The relative risk for the need for bag and mask ventilation was 1.33 (95% CI 1.11-1.58, P<0.05) for spinal anaesthesia and 1.99 (95% CI 1.33-2.96, P<0.05) for epidural anaesthesia. There was no difference in the need for bag and mask ventilation or low 1-min Apgar scores between non-cephalic and cephalic presentation at elective CS under regional anaesthesia.",
"This is a retrospective review of the medical records of 861 patients admitted for vaginal delivery. Patients were randomized to either epidural analgesia or other analgesic methods of pain relief for labor pains. The primary purpose of this study was to evaluate the effect of epidural analgesia on the rate of cesarean section delivery. 861 patients were admitted to Saad Specialist Hospital for vaginal delivery between May 1, to September 30, 2006. Patients were divided into Nulliparous (334 patients) and Multiparous (527 patients) populations. Each population was then divided into two groups, epidural and non-epidural group. Epidural analgesia was initiated by a bolus of bupivacaine 0.25% (6 to 10 ml) plus fentanyl (50 to 100 microg), followed by bupivacaine 0.125% plus fentanyl (1 to 2 microg/ml) at the rate of (6 to 12 ml/h). Non-epidural analgesia was initiated by one or mixture of I.M meperidine 50 to 100 mg I.M, promethazine hydrochloride 25 mg, or Ontonox inhalers. In the Nulliparous population a total of 57 patients requested epidural (the epidural gp), while 277 patients received other analgesic methods (the non-epidural gp). There was no difference in the rate of cesarean section deliveries between the two analgesia groups (12 patients of 57 in the epidural group (21.1%), versus 61 patients of 277 (22%) in the non-epidural gp). In the Multiparous population, a total of 49 patients requested epidural analgesia (epidural gp), while 478 patients received other analgesic methods (the non-epidural gp). There was no difference in the rate of cesarean section deliveries between the two analgesia groups (5 of 49 patients (10.2%) in the epidural group compared to 39 of 478 patients (8.2%) in the non-epidural gp). Significantly, more patients in the epidural group had forceps or vacuum assisted deliveries compared to the other analgesia group (the non-epidural gp). This was evident in both the Nulliparous population (7 of 57 patients in the epidural gp (12.3%) compared to 13 of 277 patients (4.7%) in the non-epidural gp, p<0.05), and in the Multiparous population (4 of 49 patients (8.2%) in the epidural gp versus only 6 of 478 patients (1.3%) in the non-epidural gp, p<0.005). Patients in the epidural gp had significantly lower pain scores compared to the other analgesia gp. Nulliparous reported lower pain scores during the first stage (epidural 2 +/- 2 vs non-epidural 5 +/- 4, p<0.0001) and second stage of labor (epidural 3 +/- 3 vs non-epidural 6 +/- 3, p<0.0001). Multiparous scores were (epidural 2 +/- 2 vs non-epidural 4 +/- 3, p<0.0001) in the first stage and (epidural 3 +/- 3 vs non-epidural 5 +/- 4, p = 0.0007) in the second stage. Higher satisfaction rates were reported in epidural groups versus the non-epidural groups. 80% of Nulliparous women who received epidural rated their satisfaction as excellent or good versus 45% in the non-epidural group p<0.001. In the Multiparous population 77% in the epidural versus 43% in the non-epidural groups p<0.001 reported excellent to good satisfaction rates.",
"To analyze the effects of epidural analgesia for labor when dystocia occurs. Retrospective cohort study. Academic health center. 641 low risk, nulliparous women in spontaneous labor. 406 (63%) women received epidurals analgesia and 253 (37%) did not. Sixty women (9.4%) required an abdominal delivery for dystocia. Women receiving epidural analgesia were more likely to be white, receive care from an attending physician, need labor augmentation, and deliver a heavier infant. Multivariate analysis identified five variables predictive of dystocia and abdominal delivery: pitocin augmentation odds ratio (O.R.) = 3.9 (2.0 to 7.6), duration of labor more than 20 hours O.R. = 2.4 (1.3 to 4.4), high epidural dose O.R. = 2.2 (1.2 to 4.1), birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.0 (1.0 to 4.2), and early placement of epidural O.R. = 1. 9 (1.0 to 3.5). Repeating the regression after excluding the 20 women who developed abnormal labor prior to epidural placement (18 of 20 women had protracted dilatation) demonstrated that pitocin augmentation O.R. = 4.0 (1.8 to 4.), high epidural dose O.R. = 3.0 (1.9 to 6.2), duration of labor greater than 20 hours O.R. = 2.7 (1.3 to 5.7), and birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.1 (0. 9 to 4.8) were associated with dystocia.",
"no. The findings may support the conclusion that continuous epidural analgesia for pain relief during labor would not increase the rate of cesarean delivery. In contrast, it may reduce this risk in nulliparas.",
"Some studies suggest that epidural analgesia prolongs labor and increases the incidence of cesarean section, especially if it is administered before 5 cm cervical dilation. The purpose of the current study was to determine whether early administration of epidural analgesia affects obstetric outcome in nulliparous women who are in spontaneous labor. Informed consent was obtained from 344 healthy nulliparous women with a singleton fetus in a vertex presentation, who requested epidural analgesia during spontaneous labor at at least 36 weeks' gestation. Each patient was randomized to receive either early or late epidural analgesia. Randomization occurred only after the following conditions were met: (1) the patient requested pain relief at that moment, (2) a lumbar epidural catheter had been placed, and (3) the cervix was at least 3 cm but less than 5 cm dilated. Patients in the early group immediately received epidural bupivacaine analgesia. Patients in the late group received 10 mg nalbuphine intravenously. Late-group patients did not receive epidural analgesia until they achieved a cervical dilation of at least 5 cm or until at least 1 h had elapsed after a second dose of nalbuphine. Ten of the 344 patients were excluded because of a protocol violation or voluntary withdrawal from the study. Early administration of epidural analgesia did not increase the incidence of oxytocin augmentation, prolong the interval between randomization and the diagnosis of complete cervical dilation, or increase the incidence of malposition of the vertex at delivery. Also, early administration of epidural analgesia did not result in an increased incidence of cesarean section or instrumental vaginal delivery. Seventeen (10%) of 172 women in the early group and 13 (8%) of 162 women in the late group underwent cesarean section (relative risk for the early group 1.22; 95% confidence interval 0.62-2.40). Patients in the early group had lower pain scores between 30 and 150 min after randomization. Infants in the late group had lower umbilical arterial and venous blood pH and higher umbilical venous blood carbon dioxide tension measurements at delivery.",
"Early administration of epidural analgesia did not prolong labor, increase the incidence of oxytocin augmentation, or increase the incidence of operative delivery, when compared with intravenous nalbuphine followed by late administration of epidural analgesia, in nulliparous women who were in spontaneous labor at term.",
"To create a Proportional Hazards Model of prospective factors associated with time-to-vaginal-delivery (TTVD). We analyzed a group of 144 women undergoing childbirth who received one out of two possible axial analgesia techniques, to find-out factors associated with TTVD. The patients were randomly assigned to receive either a levobupivacaine labor epidural (bolus concentration 0.25 % or less; infusion concentration 0.125 % or less) or a combined spinal-epidural procedure (morphine 0.20 mg, fentanyl 25 µg and hyperbaric bupivacaine 2.5 mg as spinal components) for labor analgesia. The factors initially chosen were: mother age, height and weight, parity, gestational age, newborn weight, type of labor, analgesic procedure, levobupivacaine and fentanyl doses, Bromage scale, pain Numeric Rating Scale, and a satisfaction interview. Cesarean section was the censored variable in our model. A systematic multivariate Cox regression was performed. Our Final Model stated that nulliparous women had 2.5 times more chances of having longer TTVD than primiparous (p < 0.001, CI 1.76-3.8), and 3.4 times more (p = 0.015, CI 1.27-9.25) than multiparous. Women with oxytocin-augmented labor had 2.05 times more chances (p = 0.001, CI 1.31-3.22) of having longer TTVD than patients without oxytocin. An induced partum had 3.8 times more chances (p < 0.001, CI 2.09-6.8) of having longer TTVD compared to a spontaneous partum.",
"To assess whether an inflatable obstetric belt, synchronised to apply uniform fundal pressure during a uterine contraction, reduces operative delivery rates when used in the second stage of labour. Randomised controlled trial. Five hundred nulliparae with a singleton cephalic pregnancy at term and with an epidural in labour were recruited during the first stage and randomised at full dilatation. Standard care involved one hour passive second stage and one hour active pushing after which instrumental delivery was performed if delivery was not imminent. Those randomised to the belt group, in addition to standard care, had the inflatable obstetric belt for the whole second stage of labour. Mode of delivery. One hundred and eleven of the 260 women in the belt group (42.7%) compared with 94 of the 240 in the control group (39.2%) had a spontaneous vertex delivery (P = 0.423). The lift-out instrumental delivery rate was similar between the two groups: 108 belts (41.5%), compared with 101 controls (42.1%) (P = 0.902), whereas rotational instrumental deliveries in the belt group were 26 belts (10%) compared with 36 controls (15%) (P = 0.09). Fifteen women (5.8%) in the belt group and nine women (3.8%) in the control group had a caesarean section in the second stage (P = 0.292). An intact perineum was more likely in the belt group (16.5% compared with 9.6%, P = 0.022) as was a third degree tear (6.5% compared with 0.4%, P = 0.001)."
] | 581 |
Isolated fetal echogenic intracardiac foci or golf balls: is karyotyping for Down's syndrome indicated? | [
"To determine the prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and the subsequent risk for Down's syndrome at 18-23 weeks in an unselected obstetric population. Prospective study. A district general hospital serving a routine obstetric population. 16,917 pregnant women who underwent a routine ultrasound screening at 18-23 weeks of gestation between November 1994 and August 1998. All women were offered screening for Down's syndrome by nuchal translucency or maternal serum biochemistry. The prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci was determined and the relative risk for Down's syndrome was calculated for different ultrasound findings. The combined sensitivity of age, nuchal translucency and maternal serum biochemistry for Down's syndrome was 84% (27/32). The relative risk for Down's syndrome was 0.17 (95% CI 0.07-0.41) for the women with normal scan findings at 18-23 weeks. The prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci at 18-23 weeks was 0.9% (144/16,917). None of these pregnancies were affected by Down's syndrome.",
"The significance of the association between isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and Down's syndrome is a matter of ongoing debate. The data of this study suggest that in an unselected obstetric population with prior, effective, routine Down's syndrome screening, the association between isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and Down's syndrome is no longer significant."
] | [
"yes. Our results suggest that fetuses with Down's Syndrome detectable prenatally from screening are more likely to abort spontaneously than fetuses with Down's Syndrome which are not detected.",
"yes. These results provide a rationale for the high rate of success in the testicular sperm extraction plus ICSI procedures when applied to Klinefelter patients. It is also in agreement with previous studies in the XXY-mouse model. These spermatogenic foci most probably originate from clones of spermatogonia that have randomly lost one of the X chromosomes, probably during periods of life when high spermatogonial mitotic activity occurs.",
"Under the baseline assumptions, selective fetal echocardiography after an abnormal detailed anatomic survey is more cost-effective compared with universal fetal echocardiography as a screening strategy for cardiac defects in pregnant diabetics.",
"yes. These results identify important developmental differences in the response of the MAPKs and Akt in the stressed fetal heart. Differences in protein-to-DNA ratios likely reflect the different populations of cardiomyocytes composing the fetal heart at these two GAs and their cell-dependent response to a hemodynamic load.",
"To assess whether medically qualified sonologists with low-to-intermediate scanning experience are able to detect major abnormalities of the outflow tracts by reviewing the A-plane of cardiac volume datasets acquired with spatiotemporal image correlation (STIC). Fourteen sonologists of low-to-intermediate scanning experience were recruited among residents and colleagues involved in the screening ultrasound clinic at our referral center. Basic criteria for selection were: ability to perform the 20-week anomaly scan and to assess the four-chamber view, inability to perform extended cardiac screening (outflows); willingness to participate in the study. These sonologists attended a 2-hour lesson on: a) how the outflow tract views can be abnormal, and b) how to use a laptop and the dedicated software to review cardiac volumes in the A-plane only. After this briefing, each of them, independently, reviewed 26 preselected volumes at a workstation (from 16 normal fetuses and 10 with outflow tract abnormalities), without knowing how many of them were normal. After reviewing each volume, the sonologist was asked to define the outflow tract views as normal or abnormal and, if willing, to hypothesize the anomaly. The sequence of cases was changed for each participant. The time allotted for review of the volumes was 1 hour (about 2 min per case). Of the 364 diagnoses from review of the volumes, 116 (31.9%) were true positives, 195 (53.6%) were true negatives, 29 (8.0%) were false positives and 24 (6.6%) were false negatives. The sensitivity, specificity and positive and negative predictive values were 83%, 87%, 80% and 89%, respectively. Individual diagnostic accuracy ranged from 66 to 100% (median, 85.5%) and individual detection rate from 50 to 100% (median, 85%). The detection rate per single congenital heart disease ranged from 50% (for TGA with intact ventricular septum) to 100% (for DORV, DORV with pulmonary atresia and TGA with ventricular septal defect). There was no correlation between detection rate and alignment of the four-chamber view with the ultrasound beam (apical vs. transverse).",
"To examine the effect of early vaginal bleeding on first-trimester screening markers for Down syndrome. A retrospective study was conducted on 1755 normal singleton fetuses that underwent first-trimester combined screening for Down syndrome on the basis of ultrasound and maternal serum markers. Fetal delta-nuchal translucency (NT), maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and free beta-hCG were compared between pregnancies with (n = 252) and without (n = 1503) an episode of vaginal bleeding. Subgroup analysis for the intensity of bleeding (spotting n = 191; light n = 32; heavy n = 29) was performed. The median +/- SD (log(10)) for delta-NT, multiple of medians (MoM) PAPP-A and MoM free beta-hCG (corrected for maternal weight, smoking and ethnicity) was - 0.17 +/- 0.62, 1.10 +/- 0.28, 1.1 +/- 0.28 and - 0.15 +/- 0.51, 0.98 +/- 0.26, 0.94 +/- 0.3 in pregnancies with and without a history of early vaginal bleeding, which were not significantly different. Exclusion of patients with spotting from the vaginal bleeding group revealed significantly higher maternal serum free beta-hCG MoM values (median +/- SD (log(10))) compared to patients without bleeding, 1.29 +/- 0.27 vs 0.96 +/- 0.3(p = 0.011). Screen-positive (cut off of 1:350) rate after combined first-trimester screening was 28.1% in patients with light vaginal bleeding and 8.4% in patients without bleeding (p = 0.001).",
"Besides conventional long-term tissue cultures and G-bands by trypsin using Giemsa (GTG) bandings, FISH analyses were also performed. A total of 134 spontaneous abortion specimens (singleton gestations) were referred for cytogenetic evaluation, of which 125 specimens were successfully karyotyped. Of these, 20.8% (26/125) had chromosome aberrations; 88.5% (23/26) of these aberrations were numerical and 11.5% (3/26) were structural. The most prevalent numerical anomalies were trisomies 15, 16 and 21, tetraploidies, triploidies and monosomy X. FISH results were obtained for 45 out of 92 cases with 46,XX, of which 2 (4.4%) showed XY signals.",
"Several studies have already shown the superiority of chromosomal microarray analysis (CMA) compared with conventional karyotyping for prenatal investigation of fetal ultrasound abnormality. This study used very high-resolution single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) arrays to determine the impact on detection rates of all clinical categories of copy number variations (CNVs), and address the issue of interpreting and communicating findings of uncertain or unknown clinical significance, which are to be expected at higher frequency when using very high-resolution CMA. Prospective validation study. Tertiary clinical genetics centre. Women referred for further investigation of fetal ultrasound anomaly. We prospectively tested 104 prenatal samples using both conventional karyotyping and high-resolution arrays. The detection rates for each clinical category of CNV. Unequivocal pathogenic CNVs were found in six cases, including one with uniparental disomy (paternal UPD 14). A further four cases had a 'likely pathogenic' finding. Overall, CMA improved the detection of 'pathogenic' and 'likely pathogenic' abnormalities from 2.9% (3/104) to 9.6% (10/104). CNVs of 'unknown' clinical significance that presented interpretational difficulties beyond results from parental investigations were detected in 6.7% (7/104) of samples.",
"Most patients who present for the evaluation of hypospadias, chordee and undescended testis have a normal karyotype. Routine karyotype investigation of all patients with hypospadias, chordee and cryptorchidism does not seem warranted. If karyotypic intersex abnormalities are identified, those patients are more likely to have ambiguous genitalia, especially those with perineal hypospadias and cryptorchidism.",
"yes. Microfluidic digital PCR allows detection of fetal chromosomal aneuploidy utilizing uncultured amniocytes and chorionic villus tissue in less than 6 hours.",
"no. Findings should provide reassurance to practitioners and parents that isolated CPCs in fetuses with normal karyotypes do not affect child development after birth.",
"How does a national prenatal screening program for Down syndrome (DS) perform in detecting sex chromosome abnormalities (SCAs)-Turner syndrome (TS), Klinefelter syndrome, 47,XXX and 47,XYY syndromes.",
"To evaluate the influence of maternal weight and the orientation of the fetal 4-chamber heart view on the detection of a fetal echogenic cardiac focus. In this nested case-control study, 103 women undergoing anatomic surveys at 15 to 22 weeks between January 1, 1997, and June 15, 1999, were identified as having an echogenic cardiac focus via our computerized database. A control group was selected from among the same group of patients. Data were collected from the sonography reports, prenatal records, and sonographic images of 4-chamber heart views; maternal characteristics and sonographic details were recorded, including the orientation of the 4-chamber view (apical, basilar, and right and left lateral). Gravidas in the echogenic cardiac focus group were more likely to be of lower weight (68.0 +/- 14.4 versus 72.9 +/- 18.3 kg; P = .04), of lower body mass index (25.5 +/- 5.3 versus 27.3 +/- 6.2 kg/m2; P = .03), of younger age (24.4 +/- 6.5 versus 26.9 +/- 6.9 years; P = .01), and African American or Asian (37.9% versus 27.2% and 9.7% versus 2%; P = .01). Cases were scanned at earlier gestational ages (18.9 +/- 1.6 versus 19.5 +/- 1.7 weeks; P = .01). The focus group was more likely to have had an apical view of the fetal heart taken (80.8% versus 51.4%; P = .0001). Controls were more likely to have had a right lateral view taken (44.6% versus 20.8%; P = .002). No significant difference was found between groups in terms of any other maternal or sonographic variable studied.",
"Congenital heart disease (CHD) is a cardinal feature of X chromosome monosomy, or Turner syndrome (TS). Haploinsufficiency for gene(s) located on Xp have been implicated in the short stature characteristic of the syndrome, but the chromosomal region related to the CHD phenotype has not been established. We used cardiac MRI to diagnose cardiovascular abnormalities in four non-mosaic karyotype groups based on 50-metaphase analyses: 45,X (n=152); 46,X,del(Xp) (n=15); 46,X,del(Xq) (n=4); and 46,X,i(Xq) (n=14) from peripheral blood cells. Bicuspid aortic valves (BAV) were found in 52/152 (34%) 45,X study subjects and aortic coarctation (COA) in 19/152 (12.5%). Isolated anomalous pulmonary veins (APV) were detected in 15/152 (10%) for the 45,X study group, and this defect was not correlated with the presence of BAV or COA. BAVs were present in 28.6% of subjects with Xp deletions and COA in 6.7%. APV were not found in subjects with Xp deletions. The most distal break associated with the BAV/COA trait was at cytologic band Xp11.4 and ChrX:41,500 000. One of 14 subjects (7%) with the 46,X,i(Xq) karyotype had a BAV and no cases of COA or APV were found in this group. No cardiovascular defects were found among four patients with Xq deletions.",
"In the human fetus, sex chromosome aneuploidies (SCAs) are as prevalent as the common autosomal trisomies 21, 18, and 13. Currently, most noninvasive prenatal tests (NIPTs) offer screening only for chromosomes 21, 18, and 13, because the sensitivity and specificity are markedly higher than for the sex chromosomes. Limited studies suggest that the reduced accuracy associated with detecting SCAs is due to confined placental, placental, or true fetal mosaicism. We hypothesized that an altered maternal karyotype may also be an important contributor to discordant SCA NIPT results. We developed a rapid karyotyping method that uses massively parallel sequencing to measure the degree of chromosome mosaicism. The method was validated with DNA models mimicking XXX and XO mosaicism and then applied to maternal white blood cell (WBC) DNA from patients with discordant SCA NIPT results. Sequencing karyotyping detected chromosome X (ChrX) mosaicism as low as 5%, allowing an accurate assignment of the maternal X karyotype. In a prospective NIPT study, we showed that 16 (8.6%) of 181 positive SCAs were due to an abnormal maternal ChrX karyotype that masked the true contribution of the fetal ChrX DNA fraction.",
"yes. In our chorionic villus sampling population a fetal crown-rump length smaller than dates is associated with a significant increase in risk of chromosome anomalies. Moreover, the larger the size-dates discrepancy, the higher the possibility that the aneuploidy affecting that pregnancy is of the severe or lethal type.",
"The object of the study was to determine the necessity of routine fetal karyotyping in patients undergoing amniocentesis for elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). Data were collected retrospectively on patients under age 35 who underwent amniocentesis for elevated maternal serum AFP at the University of Medicine and Dentistry of New Jersey, New Jersey Medical School, Newark, New Jersey, between 1 January 1986 and 31 March 1995. A total of 537 patients with maternal serum AFP values greater than 2.5 multiples of the median were included in the study. Of 509 patients in the group with normal amniotic fluid AFP, 505 had a normal karyotype (specificity 94.9%, negative predictive value 99.2%). One of 28 patients in the group with an elevated amniotic fluid AFP demonstrated an abnormal karyotype (sensitivity 20%, positive predictive value 3.6%).",
"yes. Thorough separation and cleaning of villi prior to sending missed abortion specimens significantly increases sensitivity of conventional cytogenetics for detecting aneuploidy by decreasing maternal contamination.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare the efficacy of the use of nasal bone (NB) multiples of the median (MoM) with the biparietal diameter (BPD)/NB ratio as definitions of NB hypoplasia that is associated with Down syndrome in the second trimester. We conducted a prospective cohort study of women who underwent an anatomic survey between 16 and 22 weeks of gestation. The fetal NB and other markers of fetal aneuploidy were evaluated. MoMs for the NB length at each gestational age category were calculated and adjusted for maternal race. NB hypoplasia was defined either as an absent NB or by a ratio of the BPD/NB>11 or by NB lengths<0.75, 0.5, and 0.25 MoM for the gestational age, respectively. Fetuses or infants with Down syndrome were compared with those without for the presence of NB hypoplasia. Among 3634 women whose condition was evaluated, NB assessment was obtained in 3197 women (88%). There were 23 cases of Down syndrome that were detected. Receiver operating characteristic curve comparison revealed NB MoM<0.75 to be the best definition of NB hypoplasia (area under receiver operating characteristic curve, 0.75). NB<0.75 MoM had a sensitivity and specificity of 49% (95% CI, 26-69) and 92% (95% CI, 91%-93%), respectively, compared with 61% (95% CI, 38%-80%) and 84% (95% CI, 82%-85%), respectively for BPD/NB>11. The difference in the sensitivity of 12% (95% CI, -5-31) with the BPD/NB ratio>11 vs with an NB MoM<0.75 was not significant (P<.25). The difference in the specificity of 8% (95% CI, 7.5-9.5) with the BPD/NB ratio>11 vs an NB MoM<0.75 was significant (P<.0001).",
"The proportion of circulating cell free DNA derived from the feto-placental unit (fetal fraction or FF) correlates with test success and interpretation reliability. Some fetal disorders are associated with systematically lower FF, sometimes resulting in noninformative results. We analyzed results from pregnancies tested in a nested case/control study derived from a cohort of 4664 high-risk pregnancies. Low FF was defined before and after adjusting for maternal weight and gestational age. Compared with euploid pregnancies, the median FF was significantly higher in Down syndrome pregnancies (ratio 1.17) and significantly lower in trisomy 18 and triploid pregnancies (ratios 0.71 and 0.19, respectively). Among 2157 pregnancies tested, 13 (0.6%) had FF<3.0% (all noninformative), including three trisomy 18 and three triploidy fetuses. After adjustment, 16 pregnancies (0.7%) had FF<0.3 multiples of the median (six informative), including one trisomy 18 and three triploidy fetuses. Modeled positive predictive values for low and high-risk populations were 7% and 30%, respectively.",
"The aim of our study is to evaluate the prevalence of cystic fibrosis (CF) in fetuses referred for genetic testing because of ultrasonographic sign (nonvisualized fetal gallbladder--NVFGB). We reviewed the results of CFTR gene analysis over the period 2002 to 2009 in all consecutive cases referred because of NVFGB in Western France. We correlated these data with the presence of a more classical ultrasonographic finding (fetal echogenic bowel - FEB). Cystic fibrosis was diagnosed in 5 of the 37 fetuses with NVFGB (13.5%, 95% confidence interval (CI): [2.5%; 24.5%]) and in only 9 of the 229 other cases referred because of FEB (3.9%, 95% CI: [3.2%; 14.7%]). In our series, all CF-affected fetuses with NVFGB also had FEB. The risk of CF was 11.6-fold higher in fetuses with both indications (NVFGB + FEB) than in fetuses with isolated FEB (45.5% vs 3.9%, RR = 11.6, 95% CI: [4.7%; 28.8%], p = 0.0001). We also estimated that the residual risk of CF was less than 1 in 68 (1.5%) when a single mutation was identified in the fetus by our molecular protocol.",
"yes. ARSA can be identified during a routine first trimester ultrasound scan. Our single ARSA case had a normal karyotype and no associated cardiac malformations.",
"The low detection rate of subtelomeric imbalances and the poor genotype-phenotype correlations in pregnancies with ultrasound abnormalities and normal karyotype suggest that subtelomeric MLPA is not a crucial tool in the prenatal diagnosis of these cases. However, our work provides evidence that MLPA is very useful for the characterization of unbalanced karyotypes. Copyright © 2010 John Wiley&Sons, Ltd.",
"no. These results indicate that the risk of amniocentesis is not acceptable if isolated choroid plexus cysts are isolated findings. More data are needed to establish whether choroid plexus cysts and other soft signs independently increase the risk of aneuploidy.",
"Although SUA is associated with an increased incidence of cardiac defects it may not be necessary to refer such patients for specialist fetal echocardiography because the defects are detectable by evaluating standard cardiac views that should be part of the routine second-trimester scan.",
"To compare mid-gestation sonographic measurements of all five digits of the hands of fetuses with Down syndrome with those of normal controls. Twenty-nine fetuses between 17 and 26 weeks' gestation which had been confirmed by karyotyping to have Down syndrome were included in this prospective study. Each fetus was scanned once and the digits of only one hand were measured. Measurements were compared with those of 302 previously reported normal controls matched for gestational age. All measurements were expressed in multiples of the gestation-specific normal median (MoM) for each digit. Compared to 1 MoM for the length of Digits 1 to 5 from the normal population, the respective values in the Down syndrome digits were: 0.94, 0.85, 0.92, 0.88 and 0.85 MoM, representing values significantly lower than normal (P < 0.05; t-test).",
"To determine whether the frequency of soft sonographic aneuploidy markers varies by fetal sex. We identified all singleton fetuses with known sex undergoing genetic sonography at 17 weeks' to 21 weeks 6 days' gestation in a single perinatal center from January 1, 2000, to December 31, 2003. Markers studied were biparietal diameter/femur length, transcerebellar diameter, ear length, echogenic bowel, femur length, humerus length, absent middle fifth phalanx, nuchal fold, renal pelvis dilatation, echogenic cardiac focus, and choroid plexus cysts. Additional information extracted from the prospectively ascertained database included maternal age, referral indications, and chromosomal analyses. Multiple gestations and fetuses with structural or chromosomal abnormalities were excluded. The study received exempt review status by the Institutional Review Board. Dichotomous variables were compared by the chi(2) or Fisher exact test; continuous variables were compared by the unpaired t test. In total, 4057 eligible fetuses, 2103 male and 1954 female, were examined at 18.9 +/- 0.9 weeks (mean +/- SD). Referral indications included maternal age of 35 years or older (n = 2983), abnormal second-trimester serum screen results (n = 610), soft marker on sonography (n = 583), prior aneuploid offspring (n = 24), and other (n = 125). More than 1 referral indication was possible for a given fetus. Overall, male fetuses exhibited echogenic fetal bowel (odds ratio, 1.76; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.14-2.72; P = .009) and renal pelvis dilatation (odds ratio, 2.00; 95% CI, 1.30-3.09; P = .001) significantly more often than female fetuses. However, when fetuses were evaluated for single isolated markers, only male predominance of renal pelvis dilatation persisted (odds ratio, 2.32; 95% CI, 1.32-4.09; P = .003). No markers had increased frequency in female offspring.",
"We sought to evaluate the association between first trimester nuchal translucency measurement and the risk for major congenital heart defect in chromosomally normal fetuses. First trimester (10 weeks 4 days of gestation to 13 weeks 6 days of gestation) nuchal translucency was obtained in a large prospective multicenter National Institute of Child Health and Human Development study for Down syndrome prediction. The study, which was conducted between May 1998 and December 2000, was restricted to singleton pregnancies. Gestational age was determined by crown rump length measurements. Perinatal outcomes were determined and included the frequency of major congenital heart defect, which was defined as those cases that potentially could require surgery, intensive medical therapy, or prolonged follow-up time. Logistic regression analysis was used to determine whether nuchal translucency was a significant predictor of congenital heart defect. There were 8167 chromosomally normal pregnancies, of which 21 cases of major congenital heart defect were identified at follow-up examination (incidence, 2.6/1000 pregnancies). The risk of congenital heart defect rose with increasing nuchal translucency measurements. The mean nuchal translucency value for the normal and congenital heart defect groups were 1.5 mm and 1.9 mm, respectively (P = .05). With a nuchal translucency measurement of < 2.0 mm, the incidence of congenital heart defect was 13 of 6757 pregnancies (1.9 of every 1000 pregnancies). At 2.0 to 2.4 mm, the incidence was 5 of 1032 pregnancies (4.8 of every 1000 pregnancies). At 2.5 to 3.4 mm, the incidence was 2 of 335 pregnancies (6.0 of every 1000 pregnancies). At > or = 3.5 mm, the incidence was 1 of 43 pregnancies (23 of every 1000 pregnancies). Logistic regression analysis confirmed that nuchal translucency was associated significantly with congenital heart defect (odds ratio, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.4-3.1; P = .0004).",
"To determine if the combination of fronto-maxillary facial (FMF) angle and nasal bone (NB) evaluation improves the detection of Down syndrome (DS) in the second trimester. We compared the FMF angle measurements in euploid and DS fetuses seen between 2005 and 2008. The FMF angles were measured from stored two-dimensional (2-D) images by investigators blinded to the DS status of the fetus. All NB measurements were obtained prospectively. Receiver operator characteristic curve plot was used to determine the optimal definition for abnormal FMF angle. The detection and false positive rates and likelihood ratios positive and negative for the DS markers and their combinations were compared. Of 22 fetuses with DS seen between 16 and 22 weeks over the study period, NB and FMF angle evaluation was available for 21. These were compared with a control group of 201 fetuses seen at similar gestational age ranges without DS. NB alone identified 10/21 (47.6%) of Down syndrome while FMF angle identified 2/21 (9.5%). The combination of FMF angle and NB identified only one additional case of Down syndrome.",
"Neonates with Down syndrome are known to have an enlarged anterior fontanelle. The aim of this study was to assess whether fetuses diagnosed with Down syndrome in the second trimester have larger anterior fontanelles in comparison with normal euploid fetuses. The study population included 13 fetuses with trisomy 21 and 26 normal euploid fetuses analyzed between the 19(th) and the 23(rd) weeks of gestation. The anterior fontanelle was assessed by three-dimensional ultrasound, with the midsagittal plane of the fetal head being the reference view for acquisition of the volume. Anteroposterior and laterolateral diameters, perimeter and area of the fontanelle were then measured offline; the diameters were normalized for biparietal diameter and the perimeter and area were normalized for head circumference. Non-parametric statistical analysis was used to compare the mean values of all variables in the two groups of fetuses. Intra- and interobserver variability were also assessed. All variables except the fontanelle laterolateral diameter were significantly greater in Down syndrome fetuses than in controls, with anterior fontanelle perimeter/head circumference and fontanelle area/head circumference ratios showing the highest sensitivity for the detection of Down syndrome. Using a cut-off of 2.1 for the fontanelle area/head circumference ratio, the sensitivity and specificity for the detection of Down syndrome were 77% and 96%, respectively.",
"To determine if the Nuchal index (NIx) is increased in euploid fetuses with structural congenital heart defects (CHD). Euploid fetuses with CHD between 18 and 24 weeks gestation were identified. The next fetus meeting the same criteria with a normal fetal echocardiogram were selected as a control. The NIx [(mean nuchal thickness /mean biparietal diameter) x 100] and cardiac axis (CA; degrees) were calculated for each fetus. Standard descriptive tests and two-tailed t test were used. The NIx in the abnormal (n = 20) and control (n = 20) groups were 9.10 (2.35) and 7.54 (p = 0.04) and CA was 55.8 degrees and 48.6 degrees (p = 0.02), respectively.",
"The objective of this study is to determine what percentage of fetal chromosomal anomalies remains undetected when first trimester combined testing is replaced by non-invasive prenatal testing for trisomies 13, 18, and 21. We focused on the added clinical value of nuchal translucency (NT) measurement. Data on fetal karyotype, ultrasound findings, and pregnancy outcome of all pregnancies with an NT measurement ≥3.5 mm were retrospectively collected from a cohort of 25,057 singleton pregnancies in which first trimester combined testing was performed. Two hundred twenty-five fetuses (0.9 %) had an NT ≥3.5 mm. In 24 of these pregnancies, a chromosomal anomaly other than trisomy 13, 18, or 21 was detected. Eleven resulted in fetal demise, and ten showed fetal ultrasound anomalies. In three fetuses with normal ultrasound findings, a chromosomal anomaly was detected, of which one was a triple X.",
"To assess the implications of a change in prenatal diagnosis policy from full karyotype analysis to rapid trisomy testing for women referred primarily for increased risk of Down's Syndrome. Retrospective collection and review of data. The four London Regional Genetics Centres. Pregnant women (32,674) in the London area having invasive prenatal diagnosis during a six-year three-month period. Abnormal karyotypes and total number of samples referred for raised maternal age, raised risk of Down's Syndrome following serum screening or maternal anxiety were collected. Abnormal karyotypes detected by molecular trisomy detection were removed, leaving cases with residual abnormal karyotypes. These were assessed for their clinical significance. Pregnancy outcomes were ascertained by reviewing patient notes or by contacting obstetricians or general practioners. Proportion of prenatal samples with abnormal karyotypes that would not have been detected by rapid trisomy testing, and the outcome of those pregnancies with abnormal karyotypes. Results from 32,674 samples were identified, of which 24,891 (76.2%) were from women referred primarily for Down's Syndrome testing. There were 118/24,891 (0.47%) abnormal sex chromosome karyotypes. Of the samples with autosomal abnormalities that would not be detected by rapid trisomy testing, 153/24,891 (0.61%) were in pregnancies referred primarily for Down's Syndrome testing. Of these, 98 (0.39%) had a good prognosis (46/98 liveborn, 3/98 terminations, 1/98 intrauterine death, 1/98 miscarriage, 47/98 not ascertained); 37 (0.15%) had an uncertain prognosis (20/37 liveborn, 5/37 terminations; 12/37 not ascertained) and 18 (0.07%) had a poor prognosis (1/18 liveborn, 2/18 miscarriage, 11/18 terminations, 4/18 not ascertained).",
"The major current concept for the pathogenesis of the Down Syndrome (DS) phenotype including congenital heart disease (CHD) is the so-called \"gene dosage effect.\" According to this hypothesis, genes encoded by chromosome 21 at the \"critical region\" (which is thought to be crucial for the development of the DS phenotype) are overexpressed in the trisomic state, thus leading to an imbalance of genes as, e.g., the protooncogene ets-2, superoxide dismutase, etc. We studied heart biopsies obtained at surgery from 6 patients with DS and 7 patients with congenital heart disease. ets-2-mRNA steady state levels were determined by a competitive reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) technique which allowed the determination of this gene at the attomol level. ets-2 mRNA in total ventricular tissue of DS patients showed concentrations of 0.60 +/- 0.42 fg/10 ng total RNA (mean, +/- SD). When normalized versus the housekeeping gene beta-actin to rule out general transcriptional changes in that disorder, the ratio of 0.56 +/- 0.28 (mean, +/- SD) was calculated. ets-2 mRNA in total ventricular tissue of patients with non-DS CHD showed concentrations of 0.45 +/- 0.22 fg/10 ng total RNA (mean, +/-SD) and ratios of 0.48 +/- 0.35 (mean, +/-SD). No differences could be found at the p<0.05 level.",
"The finding of an isolated EIF on prenatal sonography does not significantly increase the risk for fetal T21 in populations not otherwise at an increased risk for the disorder. An isolated EIF should be considered an incidental finding in patients younger than 35 years and in those without abnormal serum aneuploidy screening results.",
"The biological importance of calcifications occasionally noted in fetal tissues (mainly liver) at autopsy or ultrasound is largely unexplored. Previous reports hint at an association to infection, circulatory compromise, malformations or chromosomal abnormalities. To identify factors associated with calcifications, we have performed a case-control study on the largest cohort of fetuses with calcifications described thus far. One-hundred and fifty-one fetuses with calcifications and 302 matched controls were selected from the archives of the Department of Pathology, Karolinska University Hospital. Chromosome analysis by karyotyping or quantitative fluorescence-polymerase chain reaction was performed. Autopsy and placenta reports were scrutinized for presence of malformations and signs of infection. Calcifications were mainly located in the liver, but also in heart, bowel, and other tissues. Fetuses with calcifications showed a significantly higher proportion of chromosomal abnormalities than controls; 50% vs. 20% (p<0.001). The most frequent aberrations among cases included trisomy 21 (33%), trisomy 18 (22%), and monosomy X (18%). A similar distribution was seen among controls. When comparing cases and controls with chromosomal abnormalities, the cases had a significantly higher prevalence of malformations (95% vs. 77%, p=0.004). Analyzed the other way around, cases with malformations had a significantly higher proportion of chromosomal abnormalities compared with controls, (66% vs. 31%, p<0.001).",
"yes. Our study suggested that STIC used by general obstetricians to check normality of fetal cardiac structures at 17-21 weeks' gestation has marginal clinical effectiveness when compared to 2D scanning by a fetal echocardiologist, and should need some improvement before it can be used as a tool to expand a fetal cardiac screening program.",
"Each fetus with multiple malformations needs a chromosomal analysis. Within the group of isolated malformations, our study emphasizes that medical maternal history and the type of malformation need to be taken into account before performing a fetal karyotype.",
"Congenital heart disease (CHD) is often associated with extracardiac malformations (ECMs) and genetic syndromes. To determine the effect of cytogenetic anomalies and/or ECMs associated with CHD on parental decision to choose termination of pregnancy (TOP) or compassionate care (CC), as well as on the outcome of children born alive. This 10-year retrospective study included all prenatally diagnosed cases of CHD in a single tertiary referral centre. From January 2002 to December 2011, 2036 consecutive cases of fetal CHD (798 TOPs and 1238 live births, including 59 with postnatal CC) were included. CHD was associated with a known cytogenetic anomaly in 9.8% of cases and a major ECM in 11.7% of cases. The proportion of prenatally identified associated cytogenetic anomalies was significantly lower in the live-birth group than in the TOP plus CC group (4.2% vs 17.5%; P<0.001); this was also true for ECMs (8.1% vs 16.7%; P<0.001). The mortality rate was higher in the group with an associated cytogenetic anomaly or ECM (29.1%) than in cases with isolated CHD; a 2.4-fold increase in the death rate was observed (95% confidence interval 1.34-4.38; P=0.003). These associations remained significant after multivariable analysis, including the severity of the CHD (uni- or biventricular physiology).",
"The finding of isolated echogenic foci at the time of the 20 week-scan does not significantly change the risks of trisomy 21 if background risk and previous nuchal translucency measurements are taken into account in the individual risk calculation. We suggest that no further adjustments to risk should be used.",
"To investigate if ductus venosus (DV) pulsatility index for veins (PIV) and a-wave measurements can increase the accuracy of first-trimester Down syndrome screening in a high-risk population. The database of our fetal medicine unit was searched for all cases at increased first-trimester Down syndrome risk. Multivariable logistic regression was used to construct a prediction rule for chromosomal anomalies at any given maternal age, nuchal translucency multiples of the median (NT-MoM) and DV-PIV MoM. The discriminative ability of the model was assessed by using receiver-operating characteristics (ROC) analysis. The study population included 445 fetuses. DV-PIV was increased (≥ 95(th) percentile) in 239 (54%) and DV a-wave was abnormal in 187 fetuses (42%). In this cohort, 80% of all chromosomal anomalies were identified by an increased DV-PIV and 68% by an abnormal a-wave. The odds of chromosomal anomalies increased by a factor of 4.2 per MoM increase in DV-PIV, adjusted for NT and maternal age. The area under the ROC curve for the prediction of chromosomal anomalies was 0.79. After correction for DV-PIV, DV a-wave did not significantly add to the prediction of chromosomal anomalies.",
"To evaluate a casting technique in the interpretation of fetal cardiac anatomy. In 32 fetuses, the echocardiographic and cast features were compared and correlated. Three normal fetal heart specimens from spontaneous abortuses and 32 specimens from spontaneous or induced abortions with congenital heart malformation. There was close correlation between the echocardiographic and anatomical features in 32 abnormal fetuses studied. In some, additional features of diagnosis could be displayed on the cast and the relative sizes of the cardiac structures could be appreciated and defined.",
"Children with Down syndrome (DS) have about a 40 to 50% incidence of congenital heart disease (CHD). The objectives of this study were to evaluate the distribution and frequency of CHD patterns in Libyan children with DS. All patients with DS who were referred to the cardiology clinic between January 1995 and December 2008 were reviewed. Of the 1 193 patients reviewed, 537 (45%) had an associated CHD. Overall there were 349 (65%) patients who had a single cardiac lesion, and 188 (35%) had multiple cardiac lesions. The most common isolated cardiac lesion was atrial septal defect (ASD), found in 125 (23%) patients, followed by atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD) in 103 (19%), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) in 76 (14%).",
"yes. In practice, the overall small differences in age-related risk between the different studies did not materially affect the performance of antenatal screening for Down syndrome. If a choice is to be made, the analysis based on the National Down Syndrome Cytogenetic Register (NDSCR) has marginal advantages since it is based on the largest data set and the corresponding model fits the data well. More data is needed to clarify the pattern of risk with maternal age among women over 45 years of age.",
"The aim of this study was to assess the application of iliac bone length measurement in screening for Down's syndrome. Measurement of fetal iliac bone length was prospectively carried out in 609 pregnant women at the time of amniocentesis, and correlated with the results of karyotype analysis. Following exclusion of cases with chromosomal abnormalities other than trisomy 21, cases with intrauterine growth impairment or structural abnormalities and cases with incomplete follow-up, 466 karyotypically normal fetuses and 14 fetuses with trisomy 21 were included in the analysis. Centiles, standard deviations, expected values by means of linear regression analysis of the iliac bone, in relation to the biparietal diameter, were calculated in the normal fetuses. In order to identify pregnancies at risk for trisomy 21, where a 'longer' than normal iliac bone was expected, three cut-offs previously proposed by other authors and three new criteria were employed. Sensitivity, false-positive rate and likelihood ratio were calculated to assay the different cut-off criteria. Eleven of the 14 (79%) fetuses affected by trisomy 21 had an iliac bone length greater than the 50th centile of normal values. The most useful threshold was an iliac bone length>or = 2 SD of the normal (29% sensitivity and 2% false-positive rate).",
"yes. With increasing echocardiographic detection of congenital heart disease in early prenatal life, an increasing number of fetal heart specimens of small size are dissected for pathological confirmation. The use of silicone rubber casts to reproduce the internal anatomy proved a useful addition to dissection, providing a three dimensional model of the cardiac defect.",
"To evaluate the clinical performance of non-invasive prenatal testing for trisomy 21, 18, and 13 using targeted cell-free DNA (cfDNA) analysis. Targeted cfDNA analysis using DANSR™ and FORTE™ with microarray quantitation was used to evaluate the risk of trisomy 21, 18, and 13 in blinded samples from 799 singleton, twin, natural, and IVF pregnancies. Subjects either had fetal chromosome evaluation by karyotype, FISH, QF-PCR, or karyotype for newborns with suspected aneuploidy at birth. The results of targeted cfDNA analysis were compared to clinical genetic testing outcomes to assess clinical performance. Targeted cfDNA analysis with microarray quantification identified 107/108 trisomy 21 cases (99.1%), 29/30 trisomy 18 cases (96.7%), and 12/12 trisomy 13 cases (100%). The specificity was 100% for all three trisomies. Combining this data with all published clinical performance studies using DANSR/FORTE methodology for greater than 23 000 pregnancies, the sensitivity of targeted cfDNA analysis was calculated to be greater than 99% for trisomy 21, 97% for trisomy 18, and 94% for trisomy 13. Specificity for each trisomy was greater than 99.9%.",
"yes. Seventeen per cent of patients with Down's syndrome living in residential centres had undiagnosed CHD, and valvular regurgitation was present in the majority of patients. Cardiac screening is recommended in older Down's syndrome patients, for whom new therapeutic options are available and for prevention of cardiac complications in old age.",
"The prevalence of CHD in newborns with myelomeningocele is increased compared with the general population; however, critical disease is uncommon. We propose preoperative echocardiography is unnecessary when the myelomeningocele is prenatally diagnosed, antenatal cardiac screening is complete and normal, and the newborn is clinically well.",
"yes. The presence of fetal calcifications is associated with high risk of chromosomal abnormality in combination with malformations. Identification of a calcification together with a malformation at autopsy more than doubles the probability of detecting a chromosomal abnormality, compared with identification of a malformation only. We propose that identification of a fetal tissue calcification at autopsy, and potentially also at ultrasound examination, should infer special attention towards co-existence of malformations, as this would be a strong indicator for a chromosomal abnormality.",
"To assess the prevalence and detection rate of major anomalies (MAs) by applying first trimester anomaly scan (FTAS) including first trimester fetal echocardiography (FTFE) to all fetuses and discuss ethical implications. The study group included 6879 consecutive fetuses with known outcome of pregnancy (follow-up: 98%), 6565 with 'normal' nuchal translucency (NT) (≤ P95), 314 with 'increased' NT (>P95). All fetuses received FTAS/FTFE. As MAs with the potential of being detected at FTAS/FTFE, we defined anomalies present at conception or developed during first trimester. Prevalence of MAs in fetuses with 'normal' NT reached 1.7%. Although 29.8% of chromosomal abnormalities were found in the group of 'normal' NT, 77% of MAs accompanied by a normal karyotype were found in this group. In fetuses with 'normal' NT and MA, diagnosis was made prenatally in 87.4% (FTAS/FTFE: 58.6%).",
"The echogenic cardiac focus group was more likely to have a lower body mass index and to be scanned with the apical fetal heart view. The orientation of the fetal 4-chamber heart view exerted the most statistically significant influence on detection rates for the echogenic cardiac focus, implying that the more technically facile the sonographic study, the more likely an echogenic cardiac focus will be found.",
"To evaluate the prevalence of congenital heart defects (CHDs) in live-born infants with Down syndrome (DS) and to investigate whether these CHDs might be detected during routine second trimester ultrasound screening performed at the primary level. A retrospective analysis of 66 cases of DS in live-born infants. The infants with DS underwent a detailed echocardiographic examination to evaluate cardiac morphological characteristics and function. Thirty-six live-born DS infants (54.5%) had associated CHDs. According to the apical four-chamber view at the first postnatal echocardiographic examination, we estimated that 20 (55.6%) of the 36 patients with associated CHDs should have been identified during the routine second-trimester prenatal scan [17 infants with complete atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD), two with partial AVSD, and one with non-restrictive perimembranous ventricular septal defect] if the results had been correctly interpreted. An additional seven patients with associated CHDs should have been identified if the evaluation of both outflow tracts had been included into the screening protocol.",
"Two types of quality assurance processes for nuchal translucency (NT) measurement have been described: qualitative through review of images and quantitative comparison of operator's specific NT distribution to reference distributions. The aim of this study was to assess the results of these two approaches. Prospective evaluation of sonologists affiliated to the French Ultrasound College who first underwent qualitative evaluation based on the College Français d'Echographie Foetale (CFEF) score. During one year, those same sonologists measured the NT for Down syndrome screening purposes. The operator's specific NT distributions were compared to their CFEF score, their number of unsatisfactory images and their number of NT measurements per year. The study involved 1726 sonologists who performed 174 722 first-trimester examinations. Mean (SD) quantitative score was 23.4/32 (+/-7.4). The median [inter-quantile range] number of examinations per sonologist was 69 [37; 123]. The median [range] NT multiples of the mean (MoM) value was 0.81 [0.46; 1.22]. NT (MoM) absolute deviation from 1 MoM was significantly correlated with mean score obtained (R(2) = -0.17, p < 0.0001), number of unacceptable images (R(2) = 0.14, p < 0.0001) and number of ultrasound scans performed per year (R(2) = -0.19, p < 0.0001).",
"To determine the number of Down syndrome (DS) fetuses identified, amniocenteses performed, and procedure-related losses incurred when second-trimester ultrasound is used to screen high-risk patients in order to determine who should undergo an amniocentesis. A decision analytic model was designed for women at increased risk for a DS fetus due to either advanced maternal age (AMA) or a positive expanded maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening test, also known as a triple screen (+triple) test. The model compared: (1) the current standard of offering all at-risk women amniocentesis to (2) a policy of performing amniocentesis only when sonographic markers of DS are seen on ultrasound. Baseline assumptions included a sensitivity of 60.6% for targeted ultrasound and a screen-positive rate of 16.2%. If targeted ultrasound is used to determine whether high-risk patients should undergo amniocentesis, 56% (3933/7025) of all DS fetuses are missed. The diagnosis of DS is missed most frequently among women at highest risk for DS (AMA and +triple). In this subgroup of patients, there are 3152 DS fetuses in the second trimester, of which 2815 (89%) are identified by triple screen test. When an ultrasound screen is added, only 1709 (54%) of DS fetuses will be identified.",
"The objectives of this study were to use a factual basis to: (1) determine the number, nature, and probable phenotypic consequences of karyotype anomalies that would probably be missed (structural anomalies, uncommon aneuploidies and mosaic aneuploidies) by rapid aneuploidy screening (RAS), and (2) appraise whether RAS can replace traditional karyotyping when amniocenteses are performed for increased risk of Down's syndrome by maternal serum screening or advanced maternal age in the absence of ultrasound abnormality. This retrospective cohort study analysed the indications, results and outcomes of 5,713 consecutive amniocenteses over a 5-year period at a single prenatal diagnosis centre in Paris. Advanced maternal age and increased Down's risk with maternal serum marker were the most common indications. Chromosome abnormalities were detected in 3.64% of the pregnancies tested, and unexpected structural anomalies in 0.63% (n = 36). Translocations were more likely to be reciprocal, balanced and of parental origin. There were 6 mosaic gonosomal aneuploidies. Overall, 4 mosaic autosomal aneuploidies and 36 structural aberrations would not have been recognised by RAS alone. Of the 4 mosaic autosomal aneuploidies, all were terminated, one had major malformations and the others had discrete signs that a good quality ultrasound examination would probably not detect. Of the 36 structural aberrations, 24 would be undetected by ultrasound scan, from which 6 would be associated with a significant risk of an abnormal phenotype outcome.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine the risk of poor perinatal outcome in normal karyotype second-trimester fetuses with the sonographic finding of isolated echogenic bowel. Medical records, ultrasonographic findings and outcome details were reviewed for 97 cases of isolated fetal echogenic bowel, after excluding cases of aneuploidy and major congenital anomalies, and compared with a cohort of 400 fetuses without pathologic intra-abdominal findings. The incidence of echogenic bowel during the 14-year study period was 0.8%. Eighty (82.5%) pregnancies resulted in healthy, live-born infants. Congenital infection and cystic fibrosis was reported in 6.2% and 4.4%, respectively. The incidence of intrauterine growth restriction and intrauterine fetal demise was significantly higher in the group of isolated echogenic bowels compared with the control group (9.9% versus 1.3%, p ≤ 0.001; 8.9% versus 0.5% p ≤ 0.001).",
"This study confirms that fetuses with Down's syndrome tend to have a longer iliac bone length measurement than those with normal karyotype. However, due to the different methods used in different centers, the application of this measurement does not offer sufficiently convincing results for it to be used when screening for Down's syndrome.",
"yes. All five digits of the hands of fetuses with Down syndrome are shorter than are those of euploid fetuses. Integration of fetal digit measurement into the antenatal assessment of selected high-risk cases may be of value although confirmation of our findings should be obtained before this measurement is incorporated into Down syndrome screening in the general population.",
"yes. During the mid-trimester the dimensions of the anterior fontanelle are significantly increased in fetuses with Down syndrome in comparison with normal euploid fetuses. This finding may be of help in the detection of trisomy 21 at the time of the anomaly scan.",
"Congenital heart defects are common in neonates, especially girls, with meningomyelocele and are unrelated to meningomyelocele location or associated noncardiac defects. Because the clinical examination is insensitive for detecting heart defects in this group, screening echocardiograms are warranted. This information has important implications for ventriculoatrial shunting, urinary tract instrumentation (antibiotic prophylaxis), and neurosurgical procedures (venous air embolism).",
"yes. Increased first trimester nuchal translucency measurement was associated with a higher risk of major congenital heart defect in chromosomally normal pregnancies. The practical implications of our findings are that patients with unexplained elevations of nuchal translucency may need referral for a fetal echocardiogram.",
"For pregnant women with a raised risk of Down's Syndrome, a change of policy from full karyotype analysis to rapid trisomy testing would result in the failure to detect chromosome abnormalities likely to have serious clinical significance in approximately 0.06% (1 in 1659) cases. However, it should be noted that this figure may be higher (up to 0.12%; 1 in 833) if there were fetal abnormalities in some of the pregnancies in the uncertain prognosis group for which outcome information was not available.",
"This study shows the following: (1) The triple screen is a useful adjunct to targeted ultrasonography in selecting patients with fetal choroid plexus cysts for amniocentesis. (2) A normal triple-screen result and the absence of additional fetal anomalies on ultrasonography reliably exclude an underlying chromosomal abnormality, and amniocentesis is not indicated. (3) If the triple-screen result is abnormal, additional anomalies are seen on ultrasonography, or the mother is aged>/=35 years, then fetal karyotyping is recommended. (4) Patients who decline fetal karyotyping should have follow-up ultrasonography in 34 weeks' time.",
"yes. In a population of fetuses at increased first-trimester risk for Down syndrome, the combination in a logistic regression model of NT, DV-PIV and maternal age can improve the accuracy of screening for trisomy 21 and other chromosomal anomalies. This is the first study that models the additional value of DV-PIV as a continuous variable to NT measurement alone in a high-risk first-trimester population.",
"Among women with noninformative results attributable to low FF, trisomy 18 and/or triploidy risk are sufficiently high to warrant offering additional assessments (e.g. ultrasound). If the testing indication is ultrasound abnormality, amniocentesis and karyotype/microarray should be considered. © 2014 John Wiley&Sons, Ltd.",
"To elucidate the significance of isolated absent or hypoplastic nasal bone in the second trimester ultrasound scan. All cases of absent or hypoplastic nasal bone (length < 5th percentile) encountered during 2007-2009 were retrieved from database and all the ultrasound findings including structural abnormalities and soft markers for Down syndrome and fetal karyotype were reviewed. The cases were categorized into a study group with isolated absent or hypoplastic nasal bone and a comparison group with additional ultrasound findings. The incidence of Down syndrome confirmed by karyotyping was compared between the two groups. Among 14 fetuses with absent or hypoplastic nasal bone identified, six (42.9%) had Down syndrome and eight (57.1%) were normal. All (100%) of the six fetuses with isolated absent or hypoplastic nasal bone (Study Group) had normal karyotype, while six (75%) of the other eight fetuses with additional ultrasound findings (Comparison Group) had Down syndrome (p = 0.010).",
"To determine the prevalence of karyotype abnormalities in fetuses with prenatally detected spina bifida and evaluate the ability of prenatal sonography to enable prediction of chromosomal abnormalities. Sonograms from 63 fetuses with prenatally detected spina bifida were reviewed, and associated sonographic abnormalities were recorded. Sonographic findings were correlated with autopsy or clinical findings when possible. Associated sonographic abnormalities were present in 15 (24%) of fetuses with spina bifida. Among 52 fetuses with known karyotypes, the prevalence of chromosome abnormalities was 17%. Karyotype abnormalities included trisomy 18, trisomy 13, triploidy, and translocation. Twenty-two percent of chromosomally abnormal fetuses had sonographically isolated spina bifida.",
"yes. In patients younger than 35 years, sonographic nuchal markers for Down syndrome are more frequent (but apparently less ominous) in gestations with a male fetus. If the gender is known, counseling can be modified to include such differential risks.",
"After prenatal diagnosis of isolated unilateral or bilateral clubfoot, there appeared to be no indication to offer karyotyping, provided that a detailed sonographic fetal anatomy survey was normal and there were no additional indications for invasive prenatal diagnoses.",
"no. Despite the presumption that CPCs with normal karyotypes are benign variants, little empirical support exists. These results indicate that CPCs detected by prenatal ultrasound do not pose or reveal a threat to fetal development.",
"yes. Fetuses with NCH are at high risk for adverse outcome and detailed prenatal diagnosis including invasive procedures should be offered. According to the presented autopsy findings, to determine fetal outcome in NCH cases with normal karyotypes, detailed sonography should be concentrated beside the exclusion of fetal heart defects and existence of hydrops fetalis, on the skeletal, urogenital and craniofacial anomalies, as these might cause severe morbidity.",
"The prevalence of karyotypic abnormalities is significantly increased in fetuses with isolated neural tube defects; therefore, prompt antenatal genetic evaluation should be considered in such cases.",
"Prenatal sonography can help predict most karyotypically abnormal fetuses with spina bifida, but approximately 20% will be missed with this technique alone in the second trimester. The authors believe cytogenetic analysis is justified in the setting of prenatally detected spina bifida.",
"To evaluate the appropriateness of fetal karyotyping after prenatal sonographic diagnosis of isolated unilateral or bilateral clubfoot. We retrospectively reviewed a database of fetal abnormalities diagnosed by ultrasound at a single tertiary referral center from July 1994 to March 1999 for cases of unilateral or bilateral clubfoot. Fetuses who had additional anomalies diagnosed prenatally, after targeted sonographic fetal anatomy surveys, were excluded. Outcome results included fetal karyotype diagnosed by amniocentesis, or newborn physical examination by a pediatrician. During the 5-year period, 5,731 fetal abnormalities were diagnosed from more than 27,000 targeted prenatal ultrasound examinations. There were 51 cases of isolated clubfoot. The mean maternal age at diagnosis was 30.5 years. The mean gestational age at diagnosis was 21.6 weeks. Twenty-three of the women (45%) were at increased risk of fetal aneuploidy, on the basis of advanced maternal age or abnormal maternal serum screening. Six women (12%) had positive family histories of clubfoot; however, no cases of aneuploidy were found by fetal karyotype evaluation or newborn physical examination. All cases of clubfoot diagnosed prenatally were confirmed at newborn physical examination, and no additional malformations were detected.",
"Simple echographic features can help to predict 22q11 status in fetuses with tetralogy of Fallot. This may improve the efficiency of prenatal screening for this defect.",
"Our purpose was to determine the significance of finding an isolated clubfoot on a prenatal sonogram. All fetuses found to have an isolated congenital clubfoot over a 9-year period were retrospectively identified. Fetuses with associated anomalies were excluded. Review of medical records for obstetric and neonatal outcome and pathologic and cytogenic results were tabulated. Eighty-seven fetuses were identified from our database as having isolated clubfoot on prenatal ultrasonography, with complete follow-up available for 68 fetuses. Sixty of the 68 fetuses were confirmed as having clubfoot after delivery (false-positive rate = 11.8%). The male/female ratio was 2:1. Four fetuses (5.9%) had abnormal karyotypes: 47,XXY, 47,XXX, trisomy 18, and trisomy 21. Nine fetuses had hip or other limb abnormalities noted after birth. Other anomalies not detected until delivery included a unilateral undescended testis, ventriculoseptal defects (n = 2), hypospadias (n = 2), early renal dysplasia, mild posterior urethral valves, and a two-vessel cord. Five of the 68 patients (including those with aneuploidy) had pregnancy terminations. Eleven patients were delivered preterm.",
"Whether the isolated VSD (i-VSD) is associated with aneuploidy to the same degree as a more severe heart anomaly is unclear. Our objective was to determine the likelihood of aneuploidy in pregnancies at a tertiary referral center when an i-VSD is detected before 24 weeks. A retrospective chart review of all detailed anatomy ultrasounds before 24 weeks performed at the University of Kansas Medical Center from 08/23/2006 to 06/07/2012 was conducted. A complete evaluation of the fetal heart was accomplished using gray scale and spectral/color Doppler examinations. The outcomes of each pregnancy were reviewed for any diagnoses of aneuploidy. Odds ratios were calculated. A total of 4078 pregnancies with complete obstetric and neonatal data were reviewed. The prevalence of an i-VSD was 2.7% (112/4078). The odds ratio of aneuploidy when an i-VSD was present was (OR: 36.0, 95% CI: 5.0, 258.1). This odds ratio remained large when either an abnormal or unknown serum screen was present.",
"Intracardiac echogenic foci in fetuses with chromosomal abnormalities, including those with trisomy 21, are not useful markers for CHD.",
"An isolated fetal cardiac echogenic focus is not an efficacious marker for congenital cardiac defects. It should not be the sole indication for fetal echocardiography.",
"The aim of this study was to determine whether karyotyping should be performed for every fetal malformation detected in low risk populations. A karyotype was obtained from 428 fetuses examined over a 10-year period after fetal malformation was diagnosed using obstetrical ultrasound. These fetuses were separated into two groups, one with isolated malformations and the other with multiple malformations. The association between each type of malformation and the result of karyotype was evaluated. Forty-eight chromosomal abnormalities were encountered in 428 fetuses (11.2%). The karyotype was abnormal in 32/343 (9.3%) fetuses with isolated malformations and 16/85 (18.8%) fetuses with multiple malformations (p=0.022). The probability of an abnormal karyotype among the group of isolated malformation depended on the anatomical system involved (p<0.001). Our study demonstrated several isolated malformations without chromosomal abnormality (hydronephrosis with high obstruction, unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney, gastroschisis, intestinal dilatation, meconium peritonitis, cystic adenomatoid malformation, pulmonary sequestration, tumor, vertebral anomaly).",
"To confirm the hypothesis that isolated cardiac echogenic foci at the second-trimester anomaly scan do not influence our current calculation of risk of trisomy 21 in individual pregnancies, which is based on maternal age and nuchal translucency thickness at 11-14 weeks. Observational study in a fetal medicine unit. In a general pregnant population undergoing first-trimester nuchal translucency screening, data from 239 singleton pregnancies with isolated cardiac echogenic foci at the second-trimester anomaly scan were compared with those of a control group of 7449 pregnancies with normal anomaly scans. Prevalence of trisomy 21 was determined in both groups. Following the anomaly scan, the individual risks of trisomy 21 were calculated by adjusting the previous risk based on maternal age and first-trimester nuchal translucency. We assumed that echogenic foci did not alter each individual risk calculation. The expected number of cases of Down syndrome in both groups was then calculated from the sum of probabilities of each individual affected fetus. The observed number of cases was compared with the expected number in both study and control populations. There was no statistically significant difference between the prevalence of trisomy 21 in the study group (no cases) and in the control population (three cases). From individual risk calculations, observing no cases of trisomy 21 in the study group was the most likely event if echogenic foci did not increase the risk of this chromosomal abnormality (P = 0.62).",
"The purpose of this study was to evaluate the impact of an echogenic intracardiac focus (EIF) on the risk for fetal trisomy 21 (T21) in populations with differing prevalence of T21. A retrospective cohort study of pregnancies presenting to our prenatal ultrasound units over 16 years (1990-2006) was conducted. Contingency table analysis of the presence of an EIF and diagnosis of fetal T21 was performed. The groups analyzed included the following: (1) all fetuses with EIF plus other sonographic markers, (2) EIF as an isolated sonographic marker, (3) those younger than 35 years with an isolated finding of EIF, and (4) a group with an isolated finding of EIF excluding those at increased risk for T21 on serum screening. Echogenic intracardiac foci were found in 2223 of 62,111 pregnancies (3.6%), and T21 was diagnosed in 218 pregnancies (0.4%). The presence of an EIF along with other markers was associated with a statistically significant risk for T21 (positive likelihood ratio [LR], 4.4; 95% confidence interval [CI], 3.2-6.0; P<.05). An isolated EIF was not associated with a statistically significant increased risk for T21 in patients younger than 35 years (positive LR, 1.7; 95%, CI 0.7-4.1) and those without abnormal serum screening results for aneuploidy (positive LR, 1.6; 95% CI, 0.8-3.1).",
"To determine the clinical significance of hyperechoic bowel seen sonographically in second-trimester fetuses. Fifty fetuses (0.6%) with echogenic bowel were identified sonographically from a population of 8680 consecutive second-trimester fetuses over 21 months. The fetal bowel was considered hyperechoic if its echogenicity was similar to that of surrounding bone. Follow-up was obtained through medical record review. Twenty-nine of 50 fetuses (58%) were normal; eight (16%) were aneuploid, including six Down syndrome, one trisomy 13, and one Turner syndrome. All eight fetuses with aneuploidy had sonographic anomalies in addition to the echogenic bowel. Eight of 50 fetuses (16%) were growth-retarded, and five others (10%) had normal karyotypes but are still undelivered. Among the eight growth-retarded fetuses, there were five intrauterine or neonatal deaths, one elective abortion, and two survivors. In addition, the six fetuses with Down syndrome and echogenic bowel represented 12.5% of all second-trimester Down syndrome fetuses karyotyped in our laboratory during the study period. Combining results from the present study (six Down syndrome fetuses) with three studies from the literature (21 additional Down syndrome fetuses), a total of 27 fetuses with echogenic bowel and Down syndrome were identified, 11 (40.7%) of whom had no other sonographic findings. We calculate that if 1,000,000 second-trimester fetuses were scanned, 5105 would have hyperechoic bowel as the only finding, of whom 71 would have Down syndrome and 5034 would not. The risk of Down syndrome in fetuses with isolated hyperechoic bowel is, therefore, 71 in 5105 or 1.4%.",
"To assess the clinical utility of fluorescence in-situ hybridisation with chromosomes 13, 18, 21, X and Y as a stand-alone test in detecting chromosomal abnormalities, and the types of chromosomal abnormalities missed. Retrospective analysis. A restructured Government hospital in Singapore and an academic hospital in the United States. Cytogenetic data of prenatal specimens and results of fluorescence in-situ hybridisation of 5883 patients performed between January 2000 and August 2007 were reviewed. Fluorescence in-situ hybridisation detected 558 (9.5%) patients with chromosomal abnormalities. Abnormal ultrasounds (70%) and maternal serum screens (21%) were the most indicative of chromosomal abnormalities. When comparing fluorescence in-situ hybridisation data with karyotype results for the five chromosomes of interest, the sensitivity and specificity were 99.3% and 99.9%, respectively. When comparing fluorescence in-situ hybridisation data with karyotype results for all chromosomes, the sensitivity decreased to 86.8%, whereas the specificity remained at 99.9%. Of 643 cases with karyotype abnormalities, 85 were fluorescence in-situ hybridisation-negative (false negative rate, 13.2%), which included structural rearrangements, chromosome mosaicism, and other trisomies. Despite abnormal ultrasound indications, fluorescence in-situ hybridisation missed 32 cases which included structural rearrangements, mosaicisms, and other trisomies.",
"Subtle anomalies, of which echogenic bowel and clinodactyly are the most significant, further increase Down syndrome screening efficiency over standard biometry or the finding of gross anatomic defect. Our data appear to support the addition of subtle anomaly findings to ultrasonographic screening for Down syndrome.",
"Our purpose was to determine whether the identification of subtle anomalies further improves Down syndrome detection over standard ultrasonographic biometry and the detection of gross morphologic defects. The screening efficiency of clinodactyly, dilated renal pelvis (>or =4 mm), echogenic bowel, mild ventriculomegaly (>or =10 to 15 mm), and two-vessel cord was determined prospectively in midtrimester fetuses at amniocentesis. The screening efficiency of increased nuchal thickness and shortened long-bone length (standard biometry) and gross morphologic defects was determined for comparison. Multiple backward stepwise regression analysis was used to determine which subtle anomalies significantly correlated with Down syndrome detection rate and whether they increased Down syndrome detection over that with standard biometry and morphologic defects. Although all subtle anomalies except two-vessel cord correlated with the presence of Down syndrome on univariate analysis, only echogenic bowel (Wald chi2 = 15.0211, p = 0.0001) and clinodactyly (Wald chi2 = 9.4273, p = 0.002) persisted in regression analysis of the subtle anomaly group. When either of the above-described anomalies was present, the detection rate for Down syndrome was 28.6%, p<0.00001. For the combination of standard biometry (either increased nuchal thickness or short humerus) or gross anatomic defect, Down syndrome detection rate was 53.3% (p<0.00000001). This increased to 63.2% (p<0.00000001) when subtle anatomic defects (either echogenic bowel or clinodactyly) were included in the definition of an abnormal sonogram.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether or not genetic amniocentesis is warranted when isolated choroid plexus cysts (CPC) or echogenic cardiac foci (EF) are noted on prenatal ultrasound. We performed a retrospective analysis on patients from our perinatal database. All obstetric patients with CPC or EF noted on second-trimester perinatology ultrasound from April, 1998 to November, 2004 were included. Information regarding ultrasound findings and neonatal outcome were analyzed. During the study period, 515 patients with CPC or EF were evaluated. Of these, 429 (83.3%) had isolated CPC or EF and 86 (16.7%) had additional risk factors. The incidence of abnormal karyotype was 0 versus 2.3%, respectively (P = .03). The additional risk factors considered were: advanced maternal age, abnormal serum triple marker screening, and/or other abnormal ultrasound findings. Furthermore, during the study period there were 20,122 live births and 27 (0.1%) cases of aneuploidy diagnosed postnatally. Of these, none had isolated CPC or EF on prenatal ultrasound.",
"To determine the value of cytogenetic evaluation in fetuses with isolated neural tube defects diagnosed by prenatal ultrasound. Fifty-five thousand two hundred sixty obstetric ultrasounds performed for various indications at the Indiana University Prenatal Diagnostic Center from July 1988 to March 1994 were reviewed using a computerized data base. Excluding all cases of anencephaly, fetuses with isolated neural tube defects were identified. Maternal demographic data, pregnancy outcomes, level of defect, and fetal karyotype when available were obtained. Statistical analysis was performed using the chi 2 test, when appropriate. P<or = .05 was considered statistically significant. Seventy-seven medical record charts of women with prenatally diagnosed isolated fetal neural tube defects were reviewed. Nineteen pregnancies were terminated, 42 pregnancies were delivered, and 16 pregnancies were lost to follow-up. Karyotypes were available in 43 of the 77 cases (55.8%). The theoretical risk of chromosomal anomalies in this sample population based solely on maternal age was 0.3%. Of the 43 documented karyotypes, seven chromosomal anomalies were discovered (16.3%). The difference was statistically significant (P = .012). Detected chromosomal anomalies included two trisomy 18, two triploid 69,XXX, one triploid 69,XXY, one balanced Robertsonian translocation t(13q,14q), and one inversion in the q arm of the X chromosome.",
"To determine whether the presence of an isolated fetal cardiac echogenic focus should be an indication for fetal echocardiography. We reviewed our fetal echocardiography and obstetrics databases from January 1992 through July 1999. The study groups were formulated from patients referred for fetal echocardiography. Patients referred for echocardiography because of a single isolated fetal cardiac echogenic focus were compared with patients referred for other indications. The sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values were calculated for an isolated echogenic focus as a marker for structural cardiac abnormalities as detected by fetal echocardiography. Of 10,406 fetuses seen for ultrasonography, 1908 had fetal echocardiography. Cardiac abnormalities were identified in 3.4% (65 of 1908) of the fetuses that had echocardiography. The prevalence of an isolated echogenic focus was 2.2% (230 of 10,406) and was the indication in 12.1% (230 of 1908) of our echocardiograms. Only 1 of the 230 fetuses with an isolated echogenic focus had a structural cardiac defect (membranous ventricular septal defect). An isolated echogenic focus as a marker for congenital cardiac defects resulted in sensitivity and specificity of 1.5% and 87.6%, respectively. The positive and negative predictive values were 0.4% and 96.2%, respectively The relative risk for an echogenic focus in predicting congenital cardiac defects was 0.11 (95% confidence interval, 0.02-0.82).",
"The use of isolated absent or hypoplastic nasal bone in the second trimester ultrasound scan for Down syndrome screening may not be effective. Amniocentesis, however, is indicated for fetuses with structural abnormality or additional soft marker which should be carefully searched by an experienced ultrasonographer.",
"This retrospective review shows that karyotyping in fetal lung lesions with an associated heart defect or isolated large lung lesions is indicated. It also suggests that there is a subpopulation of fetuses with CCAMs who have conotruncal heart defects. This finding may suggest a common genetic background.",
"Karyotypic evaluation is recommended when isolated clubfoot is identified on prenatal sonogram because other subtle associated malformations may not be detected ultrasonographically in the early second trimester.",
"To determine whether intracardiac echogenic foci (ICEF) are markers of congenital heart disease (CHD) in fetuses with chromosomal abnormalities. We identified all fetuses with chromosomal abnormalities undergoing targeted sonography at 17 weeks' to 21 weeks 6 days' gestation in a single perinatal center from January 1, 1994, to June 30, 2003. Offspring with and without CHD were compared for the presence or absence of ICEF. Two (8%) of 25 fetuses with ICEF had CHD versus 38 (33.3%) of 114 fetuses without ICEF (P = .006). Similarly, 1 (5.5%) of 18 fetuses with trisomy 21 and ICEF had CHD compared with 16 (37.2%) of 43 fetuses with trisomy 21 without ICEF (P = .009).",
"no. The results of the statistical analysis showed that the risk of aneuploidy is increased in fetuses with an echogenic intracardiac focus; however, the finding should prompt a detailed structural survey and correlation with a priori risk. Amniocentesis need not be offered to patients who are otherwise at low risk and have an isolated echogenic intracardiac focus.",
"To evaluate the risk of Down syndrome in fetuses with a heart echogenic focus using the Bayes theorem and likelihood ratios in an unselected population. We prospectively evaluated 12,672 second-trimester sonographic features and extracted and examined a population with an echogenic focus for chromosomal anomalies. There were 479 cases of echogenic focus; 90.4% were isolated, whereas 9.6% had associated findings. Eleven patients had fetuses with trisomy 21 (9 per 10,000). Eight of those did not have an echogenic focus, whereas 3 had a heart echogenic focus. Only 1 fetus with trisomy 21 had an isolated echogenic focus. The positive likelihood ratio for total cases of a heart echogenic focus and trisomy 21 was 7.25, whereas for an isolated echogenic focus, the positive likelihood ratio was 2.66.",
"To determine the prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and the subsequent risk for Down's syndrome at 18-23 weeks in an unselected obstetric population. Prospective study. A district general hospital serving a routine obstetric population. 16,917 pregnant women who underwent a routine ultrasound screening at 18-23 weeks of gestation between November 1994 and August 1998. All women were offered screening for Down's syndrome by nuchal translucency or maternal serum biochemistry. The prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci was determined and the relative risk for Down's syndrome was calculated for different ultrasound findings. The combined sensitivity of age, nuchal translucency and maternal serum biochemistry for Down's syndrome was 84% (27/32). The relative risk for Down's syndrome was 0.17 (95% CI 0.07-0.41) for the women with normal scan findings at 18-23 weeks. The prevalence of isolated echogenic intracardiac foci at 18-23 weeks was 0.9% (144/16,917). None of these pregnancies were affected by Down's syndrome.",
"The significance of the association between isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and Down's syndrome is a matter of ongoing debate. The data of this study suggest that in an unselected obstetric population with prior, effective, routine Down's syndrome screening, the association between isolated echogenic intracardiac foci and Down's syndrome is no longer significant."
] | 37 |
Preparation of the internal thoracic artery by vasodilator drugs: is it really necessary? | [
"The internal thoracic artery has become the conduit of choice for coronary artery bypass grafting. To avoid spasm of the artery, and increases in its diameter and flow, various vasodilators have been used either intraluminally or by topical application by different surgeons. In order to define the best vasodilating agent for preparation of the internal thoracic artery, a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled clinical study was performed in a group of patients submitted for elective coronary artery bypass grafting. Eighty (80) consecutive patients submitted for elective first time coronary artery bypass grafting were randomly subdivided into five treatment groups. Free flow of the left internal thoracic artery was measured using an electromagnetic flow meter. The first measurement was performed shortly after the internal thoracic artery was dissected from the chest wall and the second just prior to performing distal anastomosis to the left anterior descending coronary artery. During the time interval between the two measurements the internal thoracic artery was immersed in a special applicator tube containing 20 ml solution of one of the following drugs: papaverin 2 mg/ml, nitroglycerin 1 mg/ml, verapamil 0.5 mg/ml, nitroprusside 0.5 mg/ml, normal saline 0.9%. No statistically significant differences were found between the groups in respect to age, body surface area, bypass time, cross clamping time, and time interval between the two flow measurements. Mean arterial pressure at the time of the first and second internal thoracic artery flow measurements did not show statistically significant differences either within or between the groups. In all five groups, the free flow of the internal thoracic artery increased significantly with time. However, no statistically significant differences were shown between the five groups with respect to second flow (P = 0.2).",
"Within the limits of our study design, we suggest that preparation of the LITA by topical vasodilator drugs using a special applicator tube does not result in a significantly superior free flow than placebo."
] | [
"Isoflurane causes increases in coronary blood flow in vivo, which are mediated by the adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-sensitive potassium channels, but the role of the arterioles (resistance vessels) in these responses is controversial. Medium porcine coronary arterioles (internal diameter, 172 +/- 51 [SD] microm) were placed in a chamber supplied with Kreb's buffer, pressurized (40 mmHg), and preconstricted with acetylcholine (10(-8)-10(-6) M). Vascular diameter (VD) was assessed using an optical density video-detection system. Isoflurane (in 95% oxygen and 5% carbon dioxide) was added to buffer using a membrane oxygenator supplied by a calibrated vaporizer. In series 1 (n = 14), 2% isoflurane was administered according to an abrupt (ISO-A) and gradual (ISO-G) protocol. In series 2 (n = 13) and 3 (n = 6), ISO-A (1.5%) was assessed before and after glibenclamide (an ATP-sensitive potassium channel antagonist) or 8-phenyltheophylline (a nonselective adenosine receptor antagonist), respectively. In series 4 (n = 5), validation studies were performed using sodium nitroprusside and adenosine diphosphate to verify that the vascular smooth muscle and endothelium of the vessels were functionally intact. In series 5 (n = 6), ISO-A (0.75 and 1.5%) was compared during preconstriction with acetylcholine and the thromboxane analog U46619 (10(-6) M). ISO-G caused essentially concentration-dependent increases in VD. At 2% isoflurane, the increases in VD were greater during ISO-A than ISO-G. Glibenclamide, but not 8-phenyltheophylline, attenuated isoflurane-induced increases in VD. Both sodium nitroprusside and adenosine diphosphate caused dose-dependent increases in VD. Isoflurane caused equivalent concentration-dependent increases in VD during acetylcholine and U46619.",
"Acute vasoreactivity testing (VT) is considered mandatory in the diagnostic work-up of patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH). We studied the relation between the acute absolute arterial vasodilatation and the severity of vascular remodeling estimated by intravascular ultrasound (IVUS) in patients with idiopathic PAH. Simultaneous right heart catheterization and IVUS of the pulmonary artery (PA) were performed both in basal conditions and during short-term intravenous epoprostenol infusion in nineteen idiopathic PAH patients. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVRi) and capacitance indexes (stroke volume/pulse pressure, Cp), were calculated. Local pulsatility was estimated by IVUS (IVUSp) (systolic-diastolic lumen area/diastolic lumen area×100; sA-dA/dA) and PA stiffness was assessed by the elastic modulus (E: pulse pressure/IVUSp). Epoprostenol infusion (11±2ng/kg/min) determined a real vasodilatation (increment of dA>10%) in six patients. This vasodilation group presented on average significantly higher cardiac index, stroke volume index and Cp, and lower PVRi and IVUSp (P<0.05), with a lower E (P=0.08). Three patients were responders according to the actual criteria, but only one showed a real vasodilator response. Baseline E below the median value (≤190mm Hg) was able to differentiate patients with an acute vasodilator response (sensibility 83%, specificity 73%, area under ROC 0.81; P<0.05). Neither E nor vasodilator response is correlated with delta mean PA pressure and PVRi.",
"yes. Donepezil produces acute vasodilation induced by a selective activation of neuronal nitric oxide synthase in the cerebral parenchymal arterioles. This agent may be capable of enhancing this enzymatic activity directly or via acetylcholinesterase existing on the arteriolar wall.",
"yes. Vasodilation of very small coronary arterioles by isoflurane depends on preexisting tone and may in part be mediated by the K(+)-ATP channels.",
"yes. Diltiazem infusion which started prior to harvesting provided higher IMA blood flow compared to nitroglycerin infusion. Considering the percentage of increases in flows after resection of distal segment, the most prone part to vasospasm, we assume that a certain amount of spasm occurred in IMA in spite of infusion of study drugs, such that less with diltiazem and more with nitroglycerin. Diltiazem plays more important role than nitroglycerin in the prevention of vasospasm.",
"Reduced nitric oxide bioavailability caused by endothelial dysfunction or damage is a contributory factor in the initiation and progression of a number of cardiovascular diseases. Delivery of exogenous nitric oxide is an attractive therapeutic option, but current agents lack selectivity for areas of endothelial damage. We tested the hypothesis that a novel nitric oxide donor drug, N-(S-nitroso-N-acetylpenicillamine)-2-amino-2-deoxy-1,3,4,6-tetra-O-acet yl-P-glucopyranose [RIG200], which has selective effects in endothelium-denuded isolated arteries in vitro, would exert similar effects in dorsal hand veins with experimentally damaged endothelium in vivo. Venodilator responses to sodium nitroprusside and RIG200 were compared in two groups of healthy volunteers (age range, 18 to 63 years; n = 7 for each group) in norepinephrine 70% maximum effective concentration (EC70) preconstricted hand veins with use of the Aellig technique. In this doubleblind study, subjects were randomly assigned to receive either sodium nitroprusside or RIG200 (infusions of 0.06 and 6 nmol/min into the hand vein) before and 2 days after 15 minutes of local venous irription with distilled water. Endothelial function was assessed in all subjects on both visits with use of the endothelium-dependent vasodilator acetylcholine (1 nmol/min). Irrigation of hand veins with distilled water abolished endothelium-dependent dilatation in response to acetylcholine in both study groups (n = 14) but did not affect the amplitude or duration of responses to the conventional nitric oxide donor sodium nitroprusside (P = .87; n = 7). However, responses to RIG200 were significantly prolonged during the washout phase (30 minutes) in veins after water irrigation (P = .02; n = 7).",
"yes. Bicyclol has endothelium-dependent vasodilating effect on rat thoracic aorta and improves vascular function by attenuating oxidative stress. Nitric oxide from endothelium is involved in the anti-oxidative effect of bicyclol.",
"yes. During normal arterial inflow, serotonin dilated coronary resistance vessels and increased flow to all myocardial layers. During hypoperfusion, a vasodilator response was still present in the subepicardium, but vasoconstriction was then observed in the subendocardium. Our data suggest that serotonin constricts the intramural penetrating arteries, thereby selectively increasing resistance to subendocardial blood flow.",
"yes. In patients with IGT and CAD, 4 weeks of exercise training exert significant and superior improvement of endothelium-dependent vasodilatation as compared with rosiglitazone therapy or usual care. This finding should be seen as an even further encouragement to recommend and, where available, prescribe exercise training to our patients.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate both endothelium-dependent and endothelium-independent vasodilatation in syndrome X patients. Recently selective impairment of endothelium-dependent function has been reported in a small number of syndrome X patients. However, other investigators have reported impaired endothelium-independent function. We infused the endothelium-independent vasodilators papaverine and glyceryl trinitrate, and endothelium-dependent vasodilator acetylcholine in the left coronary artery of 35 patients with syndrome X and in 17 control subjects (atypical chest pain, negative exercise test, and normal coronary angiograms). Coronary blood flow was measured with an intracoronary Doppler catheter positioned in the proximal left anterior descending coronary artery, and the artery diameter was assessed using quantitative coronary angiography. The mean increase in coronary blood flow in response to a 12 mg dose of papaverine was significantly less in the syndrome X group (185 +/- 74% vs 411 +/- 59%, P < 0.001). The increase in coronary blood flow in response to acetylcholine, at doses of 1, 3, 10, and 30 micrograms.min-1, was also significantly lower in the syndrome X group (12 +/- 13 (P < 0.05), 41 +/- 33, 57 +/- 68, and 124 +/- 87% (P < 0.001)) as compared to the control group (76 +/- 49, 214 +/- 116, 355 +/- 115, and 361 +/- 74%).",
"yes. We had previously validated the IMI infusion technique for intramedullary delivery of vasoconstrictors in rabbits. Our present results indicate that this technique has limited application for delivery of vasodilator agents, in part because counterregulatory vasoconstrictor mechanisms are activated.",
"yes. The antero-lateral thoracotomy off-pump coronary bypass surgery is an alternative indicated in high risk patient with coronary revascularization.",
"Vitamin C is a potent acute vasodilator in both smokers and nonsmokers and is superior to diltiazem in preoperative coronary patients who need protection from vasospasm of the radial conduit.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate coronary vasomotor function in cardiac transplant recipients maintained on sirolimus (SRL)- or cyclosporin (CyA)-based immunosuppression. Endothelium-independent response to intracoronary nitroglycerin and adenosine and endothelium-dependent response to intracoronary acetylcholine (Ach) were assessed in 15 SRL- and 21 CyA- treated subjects with angiographically normal coronary arteries. Baseline mean blood pressure was lower in the SRL group (85.6 +/- 10.3 vs. 105.2 +/- 8.7 mmHg, P = 0.002). There was no difference between the groups in coronary flow reserve after adenosine administration in multivariable analysis (P = 0.34). Nitroglycerin administration resulted in increase in coronary artery diameter in the SRL compared with the CyA groups (2.79 +/- 0.54 vs. 2.57 +/- 0.61, P = 0.0036). In 13 SRL-treated subjects without evidence of cardiac allograft vasculopathy (CAV), Ach administration resulted in less epicardial vasoconstriction compared with CyA-treated subjects (2.7 +/- 17.7 vs. -15.6 +/- 17.2%, P = 0.005). Two SRL-treated subjects with three-dimensional intravascular ultrasound evidence of CAV developed coronary spasm in response to Ach 10(-4). Microvascular endothelial function did not differ between the groups.",
"yes. Nitroglycerin is a superior conduit vasodilator and is more effective in preventing graft spasm than diltiazem. Nitroglycerin should be strongly considered as the drug of choice to prevent conduit spasm after coronary bypass grafting.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the effects of a short period of ischemia (10 mins) and a prolonged period of ischemia (60 mins) followed by reperfusion on coronary flow changes induced by acetylcholine (ACh), adenosine (ADO), and endothelin (ET). The left anterior descending coronary artery in anesthetized pigs was occluded for 10 or 60 minutes followed by 120 minutes reperfusion. Thereafter, the flow changes in the left anterior descending coronary artery were studied after intracoronary infusion of ACh, ADO, and ET. Short-term ischemia (10 minutes) caused a decrease in vasodilatation, but not the vasoconstriction response to ACh. Prolonged ischemia (60 minutes) impaired ADO induced vasodilatation and aggravated ET evoked vasoconstriction.",
"Recent reports of improved radial artery patency have been attributed, in part, to routine use of diltiazem to prevent vasospasm. However, diltiazem is costly, and its use may be associated with negative inotropic and chronotropic side effects. This study compares the vasodilatory properties of diltiazem to those of nitroglycerin. In vitro, with the use of organ chambers, the vasodilatory properties of diltiazem and nitroglycerin were compared in matched segments of radial artery, internal thoracic artery, and saphenous vein that were harvested from the same patients (n = 11). The vasodilatory response of the radial artery to intravenous diltiazem or nitroglycerin was compared in vivo (n = 10) with the use of ultrasonographic measurements of radial artery diameter. The maximum relaxation of radial artery (100% +/- 4%), internal thoracic artery (96% +/- 4%), and saphenous vein (100% +/- 3%) to nitroglycerin were significantly greater than the response to diltiazem (33% +/- 6%, 22% +/- 7%, and 34% +/- 5%, respectively; P <.001). The thromboxane mimetic, U46619, induced radial artery spasm with a median effective concentration of 3.7 +/- 0.8 nmol/L. Physiologic concentrations of nitroglycerin (0.1+/- micromol/L) significantly inhibited the radial artery response to U46619 (median effective concentration, 6.2 +/- 1.1 nmol/L; P =.046), whereas diltiazem (1 micromol/L) did not (median effective concentration, 3.7 +/- 0.8 nmol/L; P =.64). In vivo, nitroglycerin increased radial artery diameter 22% +/- 3%, which was significantly greater than diltiazem (3% +/- 0.5%; P =.001).",
"no. Right internal thoracic artery grafting fails in this circumstance, and alternative surgical options provide a good outcome.",
"Acetylcholine produces coronary artery (CA) constriction in diabetic patients suggesting an impairment of endothelium-dependent dilation. To examine the mechanism of this abnormal response. 2 physiological tests, i.e. cold pressor test (CPT) and coronary flow-increase induced by 10 mg papaverine (PAP) injection in the distal left anterior descending CA (dLAD), were performed before (1) and after (2) either i.v. L-arginine (L-arg, 625 mg/min x 10 min) or i.v. desferrioxamine (DFX, 50 mg/min x 10 min) in 15 normotensive nonsmoker diabetic patients with angiographically normal CA and normal cholesterol. Dimensions of the proximal LAD (pLAD) were measured by quantitative angiography. [table: see text] Before administration of L-arg or DFX, CPT induced a decrease of pLAD diameter, and PAP injection in dLAD dit not modify pLAD diameter. In the 7 diabetic patients receiving L-arg, responses to CPT and PAP were not modified. Conversely in the 10 patients receiving DFX, pLAD dilated in response to the 2 tests. Intracoronary isosorbide dinitrate, an endothelium-independent dilator, produced similar dilation in the 2 groups (+20 +/- 8% and +16 +/- 6%, respectively).",
"Recently, the internal thoracic arteries have been preferentially used in autologous breast reconstruction at the levels of the third or fourth intercostal spaces. This may compromise future treatment of occult coronary disease. We hypothesized that internal thoracic artery length at the fourth intercostal space would allow both breast reconstruction and future coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). Anatomic analysis of 20 female patients undergoing CABG was performed examining internal thoracic artery length from its origin to the third, fourth, fifth intercostal spaces and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery target. The left internal thoracic artery was anastamosed to the LAD target at a mean length of 11.4 ± 1.4 cm. The mean lengths of the pedicled left internal thoracic artery from its origin to the third, fourth and fifth intercostal space were 8.5 ± 1.0, 10.9 ± 1.2 and 13.0 ± 1.4 cm, respectively. Therefore, the left internal thoracic artery length was adequate at the fourth intercostal space in 6 of 20 (30%) patients.",
"We sought to determine whether endothelium-derived relaxing factor (nitric oxide) exerts a tonic vasodilating effect on coronary collateral channels developed in response to myocardial ischemia. Although the coronary collateral circulation is known to react to several vasoactive agents, the role of endogenously produced nitric oxide is unclear. Coronary collateral channels were induced in the left circumflex artery bed of 12 chronically instrumented dogs by either ameroid implantation or repeated occlusion of the left circumflex coronary artery. With the native circumflex artery occluded, aortic and circumflex pressures and microsphere flows were measured before and after systemic administration of NG-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester, an arginine analogue known to block the synthesis of nitric oxide. NG-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester increased mean aortic pressure from a mean +/- SEM of 92 +/- 4 to 114 +/- 4 mm Hg, whereas pressure in the occluded circumflex artery decreased from 61 +/- 4 to 55 +/- 4 mm Hg. The increase in aortic-circumflex pressure gradient (from 31 +/- 4 to 59 +/- 5 mm Hg) was accompanied by a decrease in flow in the circumflex bed (from 1.31 to +/- 0.14 to 1.09 +/- 0.15 ml/min per g), resulting in an increase in coronary collateral resistance averaging 173 +/- 37% (from 26 +/- 4 to 64 +/- 9 mm Hg/ml per min per g, p < 0.01). The increase in collateral resistance could be partially reversed by administration of L-arginine.",
"Acute aortic disease is a common but challenging entity in clinical practice. Titration the blood pressure and heart rate to a target level is of paramount importance in the acute phase regardless of whether the patient will undergo a surgery or not eventually. In addition to the initially intravenous β-blockers, parenteral infusion of nicardipine and urapidil are the most common used antihypertensive therapy currently in mainland China. However, few empirical data was available with respect to the different effect on patients' outcome of the two antihypertensive strategies. Specifically given the deleterious reflex tachycardia of vasodilators which may increase force of ventricular contraction and potentially worsen aortic disease. Therefore, this study was aimed to evaluate the difference of the abovementioned two antihypertensive strategies on the outcome of patients with aortic disease. All patients with new diagnosed aortic diseases presented to our hospitals from January 1, 2013 to June 30, 2014 were retrospectively reviewed. The antihypertensive strategies and their association with patients' outcomes were evaluated with logistics regression. A total of 120 patients with new diagnosed aortic disease were included in the study. Of them, 47 patients received urapidil while 73 patients received nicardipine antihypertensive therapy. Patients with nicardipine were more quickly to reach the target blood pressure level than those treated with urapidil (median, 18 vs. 35 min, P=0.024). After adjustment for patient demographics, co-morbidity, involved extend of aorta, interventional strategies, antihypertensive therapy with nicardipine (with urapidil as reference) for patients with aortic disease was significantly associated with high esmolol cost [odds ratio (OR): 6.2, 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.8-21.6, P=0.004] and longer ICU length of stay (LOS) (OR: 3.9, 95% CI, 1.5-10.3, P=0.006). However, there was no significant correlation between nicardipine use and ICU mortality (OR: 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-1.4, P=0.123).",
"It has been advocated that skeletonized bilateral internal thoracic artery (BITA) grafting may be implemented safely in diabetics, thus bestowing these patients with the long-term benefits of this strategy. However, the feasibility of this approach in insulin-treated patients has yet to be determined. One-hundred twenty-four insulin-treated diabetics, operated on between April 1996 and December 2001, were compared according to the surgical technique used: BITA (n = 50) or single internal thoracic artery (SITA; n = 74). In the latter, complementary grafts used were saphenous veins and radial arteries. The groups had comparable risk profiles, with the exception of more neurologic events in the SITA group (21% vs 4%, p = 0.008). There was no significant difference in 30-day mortality (6% vs 4%, p = 0.684), nor in the incidence of neurologic complications (2% vs 8%, p = 0.240). The rate of sternal infection was comparable (4% vs 2.7%, p = 1.000). Use of BITAs was associated with a lower return of angina (4% vs 20%, p = 0.025), less cardiac events (17% vs 38%, p = 0.01), and reduced cardiac mortality (none vs 10%, p = 0.04). Despite the similar 6-year survival (80.5% and 77.4%, p = NS), cardiac-related event-free survival was better in BITA patients (69% vs 23%, p<0.0001). Multivariate analysis identified use of BITA as a protective factor resulting in less return of angina (p = 0.007) and improved cardiac-related event-free survival (p = 0.001).",
"yes. Mexiletine induces augmentation of vasodilation mediated by adenosine triphosphate (ATP)-sensitive K(+) channels activated by the opener as well as a nitric oxide donor in normotensive, but not hypertensive, rat aortas, partly by the soluble guanylate cyclase-independent action of nitric oxide on ATP-sensitive K(+) channels of vascular smooth muscle cells.",
"The advantages of internal thoracic artery skeletonization include early high blood flow, a longer conduit, and less bleeding than pedicle internal thoracic artery grafts. Longer conduits are needed for complete endoscopic arterial revascularization. Therefore this study was designed to determine the feasibility and safety of internal thoracic artery skeletonization using the da Vinci robotic system (Intuitive Surgical, Sunnyvale, CA). Nine dogs underwent bilateral robotic internal thoracic artery harvesting through three ports placed in the left chest. One internal thoracic artery was harvested as a pedicle in each dog, and the other was skeletonized. Internal thoracic artery blood flow was measured in each graft, and comparative endothelial histologic studies were performed. Data are mean +/- the standard error of the mean. All 18 internal thoracic arteries were harvested successfully. Skeletonized internal thoracic artery harvests required more time (48.0 minutes +/- 1.8) than pedicle internal thoracic artery harvests (39.0 minutes +/- 1.4; p<0.05). Internal thoracic artery flows during the final intervals were similar (skeletonized = 30.0 mL/min +/- 2.4 vs pedicle = 31.5 mL/min +/- 1.8; p = 0.9). Free internal thoracic artery bleeding flow was similar in both groups (skeletonized = 162.0 mL/min +/- 3.0 vs pedicle = 189.0 mL/min +/- 2.4; p = 0.4). Histologically, both groups were similar with minimal endothelial damage.",
"yes. Vasodilation (i.e. ischemia) just prior to infusion of crystalloid cardioplegic solution may impair myocardial protection even when the cardioplegic solution is delivered at a relatively low and presumably safe pressure.",
"yes. Implantation in the coronary circulation leads to major anatomic and vasoreactive modifications of the RAs that tend to lose the morphofunctional features of a muscular conduit and assume those of an elastomuscular artery, such as the ITA.",
"yes. Patient survival after CABG using an ITA graft may be affected by the level of preoperative EF. The internal thoracic artery-specific patient survival benefit appears to be less in a patient with poor left ventricular function.",
"There are few reports that demonstrate the chronologic changes in the functional integrity of the internal thoracic artery (ITA) wall after skeletonization. We investigated the impact of skeletonization on ITA wall integrity by immunohistochemical analyses in acute and chronic phases. Nine mongrel dogs underwent bilateral ITA dissection with one skeletonized vessel and the other pedicled. The following studies were performed 1 week (acute phase, n = 3) and 12 weeks (chronic phase, n = 6) after ITA harvesting. All specimens of the ITAs were stained by antibodies against von Willebrand Factor (VWF), endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS), inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS), and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). After observation with confocal laser scanning microscopy, quantitative analyses of the staining signal for VWF and eNOS expressed on endothelial cells were performed. There were significantly more microvessels positive for VWF in the adventitia of skeletonized ITAs than in the adventitia of pedicled ITAs but the expression of PCNA in both groups was minimal, as in normal vessels. iNOS was not detected in any specimen. The intensity of VWF and eNOS expressed by endothelial cells had no significant differences between groups at either phase.",
"yes. Coronary vasodilation with IV dipyridamole is associated with significant reductions in blood flow to collateral-dependent myocardium consistent with coronary steal in about 45% of patients with severe CAD.",
"yes. \"Preconditioning\" of the lung vasculature with short-term NO administration maintains endothelial integrity in a subsequent ischemia/reperfusion maneuver, with nonvasodilatory and non-cGMP-related mechanisms suggested to be largely responsible. This finding may offer interesting perspectives for donor management in clinical lung transplantation.",
"yes. Nicorandil infusion significantly (P = 0.007) reduced the incidence of intra-aortic balloon pump insertion in our series. In patients with left ventricular dysfunction (ejection fraction ≤ 30%), this difference (P = 0.008) assumes a special significance as off-pump bypass surgery is considered high risk in this subset. Nicorandil is an inexpensive drug, and the reduction in cost of surgery by avoiding intra-aortic balloon pump insertion is an added advantage. The use of nicorandil infusion during off-pump coronary artery bypass may result in favorable patient outcomes by reducing invasive intra-aortic balloon pump insertion during off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"The complication rate with thoracentesis performed by interventional radiologists under ultrasound guidance is lower than that reported for non-image-guided thoracentesis. Premedication with atropine is unnecessary given the low incidence of vasovagal reactions. Re-expansion pulmonary edema is uncommon even when>1,000 mL of pleural fluid are removed, as long as the procedure is stopped when symptoms develop.",
"yes. Perivascular adipose tissue in human internal thoracic arteries releases a transferable relaxation factor that acts through the activation of calcium-dependent potassium channels. Because perivascular adipose tissue is often removed in coronary artery bypass grafting, retaining perivascular adipose tissue might be helpful in reducing the occurrence of vasospasm of the graft vessels.",
"yes. Cold blood infusion into the clamped segment of aorta accelerates Tc-MEPs changes and can possibly reduce ischemic insults of spinal cord during diagnostic process, while it accurately detects presence of critical intercostal artery in the segment. This method appears to be promising adjunct on-site assessment.",
"Knowledge of the maximal pharmacologic coronary flow reserve is an inadequate surrogate for assessment of coronary vasodilation in response to increases in myocardial metabolic demand in nonstenotic arteries.",
"The unavailability of ECC does not seem to be a compromising factor in the management of thoracic aorta disease, however a good experience in endovascular techniques is required.",
"yes. The force of aortic flow often impairs precise deployment of thoracic endoprostheses, resulting in distal displacement. Partial inflow occlusion provides precise control over the extent and duration of the hypotensive period, allowing accurate deployment of thoracic endoprostheses.",
"yes. Use of the axillary artery as inflow for cardiopulmonary bypass is associated with low morbidity. However, cannulation with a side graft was associated with less cannulation-related morbidity than direct cannulation. Routine use of a side graft is recommended whenever axillary artery cannulation is indicated.",
"yes. Local administration of a calcium antagonist during the late ischaemia and early reperfusion reduces IS and preserves coronary endothelial function. The cardioprotective effect of clevidipine is suggested to be dependent on maintained local bioavailability of NO.",
"yes. Inotropic stress may be superior to vasodilators for the determination of the extent and severity of myocardial involvement and reversible ischemia by Tc-99m sestamibi SPECT.",
"no. The vasodilator response to dipyridamole was markedly impaired immediately after successful angioplasty, and was not augmented by intracoronary nitroprusside. Thus, a reduced production or release of nitric oxide in the coronary circulation does not seem to be responsible for the impaired vasodilator response after angioplasty.",
"yes. Vasoconstriction is a frequent reaction of coronary arteries after high-dose intracoronary beta-radiation, necessitating repetitive administration of vasodilators.",
"no. Inhibition of EDRF, prostanoid synthesis, and ATP sensitive potassium channels did not reduce the vasodilator reserve during increased metabolic demands induced by beta 1 adrenergic stimulation. Therefore, adaptation of myocardial blood flow to increased metabolic demands is independent of endothelial relaxing factors in the rat heart.",
"Intracoronary application of adenosine prior to coronary angioplasty increases tolerance of ischemia and prevents deterioration of left ventricular hemodynamics during ischemia. One potential explanation of these results is that induction of ischemic preconditioning took place.",
"The purpose of this research was to investigate the in vivo morphofunctional changes induced in the radial artery (RA) by its use as coronary artery bypass conduit by comparing the morphological features and vasoreactivity of the native RA versus the coronary RA graft in the same patient. Ten years after surgery, 10 patients were submitted to intravascular ultrasound examination of the RA graft of the controlateral (in situ) RA and of the internal thoracic artery (ITA) graft and to vasoactive challenges with acetylcholine and serotonin. Quantitative angiographic assessment showed that the mean diameter of the RA coronary grafts was significantly larger than that of the in situ RA and of the ITA (2.89+/-0.40 mm RA grafts, 2.14+/-0.52 mm in situ RA, 2.25+/-0.53 mm ITA grafts; P<0.001). The in situ RA demonstrated a typical muscular architecture, whereas RA coronary grafts showed a clear reduction of the thickness of the medial layer and had a less well-defined muscular component of the media with interposition of elastic tissue. Serotonin endovascular infusion elicited a strong spastic reaction in in situ RAs; the same challenge induced only moderate constriction in RA and ITA coronary grafts.",
"The acute and long-term benefits of internal thoracic artery grafting are clear in younger patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. The elderly, however, face higher surgical risks and have shorter life expectancy, and thus the use of internal thoracic artery grafting in this age group has been debated. This study examined the use, complication risks, and operative (30-day) mortality associated with internal thoracic artery grafting in patients 75 years of age and older. Between 1996 and 1999, 522,656 patients in the Society of Thoracic Surgeons National Cardiac Database underwent primary, nonemergency-salvage coronary artery bypass grafting; of these, 99,942 were 75 years of age or older. The influence of internal thoracic artery use on operative mortality and 5 major complications in this elderly group was examined by means of (1) risk adjustment (adjusting for 28 baseline risk factors and site) and (2) a treatment propensity score analysis that compares patients with similar baseline likelihood for receiving an internal thoracic artery graft. In the National Cardiac Database 77.4% of patients aged 75 to 84 years received an internal thoracic artery graft compared with 93.5% for those aged 55 years or less. In this elderly group use of the internal thoracic artery was strongly associated with decreased operative mortality (unadjusted mortality, 6.20% vs. 4.05%; P<.0001) that persisted after controlling for baseline risk and provider effects (adjusted odds ratio, 0.85; 95% confidence intervals, 0.79-0.91). This mortality benefit was seen among those with low-to-high baseline propensity for receiving an internal thoracic artery graft.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that combined temporary clipping of the aortic arch (just proximal to the left common carotid artery) plus left subclavian artery for 17 minutes reproduces reliable paraplegia, and a single dose of MK-801 given before ISCI provides significant neuroprotection.",
"Despite their well-established advantages, bilateral internal thoracic arteries (BITA) are still largely underused. This is partly because of the technical complexities associated with the use of the right internal thoracic artery (RITA) to guarantee the universally accepted gold standard left internal thoracic artery (LITA) to left anterior descending artery (LAD) graft. The use of the in situ RITA for LAD grafting is a less technically demanding strategy. The impact of this strategy on early and late outcomes is investigated in the context of BITA usage. Among 1667 patients undergoing first-time isolated coronary artery bypass grafting using BITA, in situ RITA for LAD grafting was used in 546 patients compared with in situ LITA to LAD in 1121 patients. Propensity score matching was carried out to investigate the impact of in situ RITA to LAD on early and late outcomes including mortality and need for repeat revascularization. A total of 546 propensity matched pairs were available for comparison. In the propensity matched cohort, the mean follow-up time was 7.8±3.8 years. RITA to LAD did not increase the risk for late death (hazard ratio [HR], 0.78; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.48-1.26), the need for repeat revascularization (HR, 0.83; 95% CI, 0.70-2.42), and the composite of death or repeat revascularization (HR, 0.81; 95% CI, 0.64-1.14).",
"It has been reported that large side branches of internal thoracic artery grafts may steal flow from the coronary circulation. Material an. To assess the importance of the side branches, we measured the proximal and distal flow and pressures (mean subclavian artery pressure and mean arterial anastomotic pressure) at baseline and during infusion of adenosine (0.5 mg/kg/min) in 10 Landrace pigs in which an internal thoracic artery-left anterior descending anastomosis was constructed without interruption of the side branches. The difference between proximal and distal flow was considered to represent the blood flow of the internal thoracic artery side branches. Measurements were then repeated after surgical occlusion of all the side branches. At baseline, blood flow of the side branches represented 18% of the total flow in the proximal internal thoracic artery, and this percentage remained constant under the infusion of adenosine, which caused a 220% increase of the cardiac index and a 368% increase of the proximal flow. The infusion reduced the gradient along the left internal thoracic artery (mean subclavian artery pressure-mean arterial anastomotic pressure) from 15 to 10 mm Hg (P =.02) as the result of a lower mean subclavian artery pressure, although the mean arterial anastomotic pressure remained constant. Interruption of all the side branches resulted in a small and not significant increase in distal flow even after adenosine infusion.",
"yes. Acetylcholine vasodilator responses in human gluteal subcutaneous arterioles are NO synthase dependent and correlate with cardiac risk factors and in vivo measures of endothelial function. These data suggest subcutaneous arterioles offer an opportunity for translational studies of mechanisms of modulating NO bioavailability relevant to in vivo endothelial function measures.",
"yes. Intravenous urapidil lowered elevated pulmonary vascular resistance in patients before heart transplantation. In comparison with other vasodilative drugs, the major benefit of urapidil is its oral formulation.",
"Although prone to spasm, the radial artery (RA) is commonly used as a graft in coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG). Successful use of the RA as a graft is dependent on techniques to manage vasospasm during operation. We routinely store the RA in a papaverine blood solution after harvesting, a procedure which might damage the endothelium and predispose the RA to postoperative spasm. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the vasodilator and vasoconstrictor responsiveness in freshly obtained and stored segments of RA. Discarded segments of RA were obtained at operation from patients undergoing CABG and mounted as 3-mm rings in organ baths for isometric recording of changes in smooth muscle force production. Responses to cumulative additions of acetylcholine, noradrenaline, serotonin, angiotensin II, and the thromboxane A2 mimetic U46619 were normalized to contractions induced by a high potassium solution. Endothelium-dependent relaxation to acetylcholine was not different between preparations from freshly-obtained and blood-stored RA segments. However, maximum contractions to all vasoconstrictors studied were markedly increased in preparations from stored arteries. The sensitivity (pEC50) of stored arteries to U46619, noradrenaline, and angiotensin were also enhanced when compared to preparations from freshly-obtained segments.",
"Bilateral superior vena cava-to-pulmonary artery anastomosis is associated with an increased risk of thrombus formation and unfavorable growth in the central pulmonary arteries. Modifications of surgical technique may alter flow patterns, thereby optimizing growth and diminishing the risk of thrombus formation. Anticoagulation therapy may be an important adjunct in children undergoing a b-CPA.",
"Bilateral internal thoracic artery grafting should be considered in patients>65 years of age because of the significant survival benefit obtained with this surgical technique with no additional risk of sternal wound infection related to age.",
"The internal thoracic artery (ITA) is the first choice for myocardial revascularization, but atherosclerotic lesions and perioperative vasospasm may still limit its functionality. Oxidative stress via the peroxynitrite - poly-(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) cascade plays an important role in the pathogenesis of impaired vascular tone via endothelial injury. We aimed to investigate and describe the histology, PARP activation and functionality of ITA grafts and to assess the possible beneficial effect of PARP-inhibition. ITA specimens from 47 patients (26 men, mean age 66.2 ± 1.7 years) who underwent coronary bypass surgery were processed for histological and immunohistochemical studies for oxidative stress and PARP activation, and were functionally tested with acetylcholine (ACh) and sodium nitroprusside (SNP) with or without PARP inhibition. The sections showed atherosclerotic alterations and oxidative and nitrosative stress were evidenced by positive 3-nitrotyrosine, 4-hydroxynonenal and PAR stainings. Functionally, 88.1% reacted to K-Krebs, 68.7% exhibited contraction after 1 µM phenylephrine, 29.9% exhibited relaxation to 30 µM Ach, and all precontracted segments relaxed to 30 µM SNP. High amplitude vasomotion was observed in 47.8% of the segments, which could be abolished by the application of 10 µM SNP.Incubation of the preparations with PJ34 did not improve endothelium-dependent vasodilation.",
"1- Sternal perfusion is not affected significantly apart from the dissection technique used for both internal thoracic arteries in the general population when assessed by bone scintillography. 2 - In the diabetic subgroup, a significant preservation of the sternal perfusion was observed in patients undergone skeletonized dissection of the internal thoracic arteries. Although these findings should be confirmed in a greater number of cases, diabetic patients should have the internal thoracic arteries dissected using skeletonization techinque.",
"yes. The vasodilator response of epicardial coronary arteries to tachycardia is preserved in heart transplant recipients. This suggests that the functional response of the endothelium to an increase in coronary blood flow remains normal in these patients.",
"yes. A vasodilator conditioning test was reliable for PH patients undergoing heart transplantation for preoperative evaluation and preparation.",
"yes. In this model of rabbit hindlimb ischemia, preservation of endothelial cell-mediated vasorelaxation occurs with administration of intra-arterial SIN-1 during reperfusion. This preservation of endothelial function cannot be explained by histologic changes in the arterial wall or attributed to altered arterial contractility in response to potassium chloride or norepinephrine.",
"The gastroepiploic artery (GEA) has been used as an alternative arterial in situ graft for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). However, because of the large individual differences and the spastic nature of the GEA, caution has to be exercised during harvesting. We evaluated the usefulness of fasudil, a Rho kinase inhibitor, as a vasodilator for right GEA (RGEA) graft after harvesting, compared with the conventional agents papaverine and verapamil-nitroglycerin. Between June 2009 and January 2013, 30 patients with ischemic heart disease who underwent isolated CABG using RGEA graft were randomly assigned to fasudil (n = 10), papaverine (n = 10), or verapamil-nitroglycerin (n = 10) group. Fasudil (2.67 mmol/L), papaverine (1.0 mmol/L) mixed with heparinized blood, or verapamil-nitroglycerin (30 μmol/L each) was injected intraluminally into the RGEA graft after harvesting. Right GEA graft free flow (GFF), hemodynamic changes, and histopathology of RGEA were evaluated. Intraluminal injection of fasudil increased GFF significantly (P < 0.001) and markedly from 41.5 ± 31.5 mL/min at baseline to 149.3 ± 46.7 mL/min after injection. Papaverine increased GFF (P < 0.001) from 40.0 ± 35.8 to 64.9 ± 33.7 mL/min, and verapamil-nitroglycerin also increased GFF (P < 0.001) from 38.8 ± 32.1 to 79.0 ± 35.2 mL/min. The GFF was significantly higher (P = 0.001) in the fasudil group than in the other two groups. Histopathologically, fasudil treatment markedly increased the diameter of RGEA graft, while maintaining integrity of the multiple elastic lamellae. Blood pressure did not change significantly after drug injection in all groups.",
"no. These experiments do not support the hypothesis that an increase in myocardial blood flow induced by intracoronary vasodilators causes an increase in myocardial systolic function.",
"The efficacy and risk of using the bilateral internal thoracic artery (BITA) for coronary artery bypass grafting in dialysis patients is virtually unknown. Twenty-five patients on dialysis who underwent coronary artery bypass grafting using the BITA were retrospectively studied (BITA group). For comparison purposes, 52 patients on dialysis who underwent coronary artery bypass grafting using the left ITA were selected (LITA group). No wound healing problems occurred in the BITA group. Mean postoperative bleeding volume was 1,427 +/- 808 mL and 800 +/- 508 mL in the BITA and LITA groups, respectively (p = 0.00009). Blood transfusions for the BITA and LITA groups required an average of 6.8 and 6.2 units of packed red blood cells, respectively, with no significant difference. Five patients in the BITA group (20%) showed severe atherosclerotic deterioration of the ascending aorta, precluding clamping. Hospital mortality was 4% (1 of 25 patients) in the BITA group and 7.7% (4 of 52 patients) in the LITA group, with no significant difference (p = 0.49).",
"yes. This study demonstrated that low vasa vasorum spatial density and higher lumen area observed in the left internal thoracic artery compared with that seen in the native coronary artery can be the structural background for the low incidence of atherosclerosis in this vessel.",
"yes. After adjusting for relevant clinical differences, only multiple arterial grafting using the bilateral internal thoracic artery was able to offer a long-term survival advantage over single internal thoracic artery grafting in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"To describe recent results regarding the use of the internal mammary artery for coronary artery bypass grafting with emphasis on bilateral internal mammary artery grafting, patency, resistance to atherosclerosis, skeletonisation, composite arterial grafts, flow measurement, vasodilatation, and non-invasive imaging techniques. Coronary artery bypass grafting plays an important part in coronary revascularisation and seems to be associated with a survival benefit in comparison with percutaneous coronary intervention. After 10 years, internal mammary arteries demonstrate better patency than vein grafts except when grafting moderately stenosed right coronary arteries. Bilateral internal mammary artery grafting increases survival further, but carries a higher risk of sternal complications. Skeletonisation may reduce this risk. The internal mammary arteries are used increasingly as composite arterial grafts and this technical solution should no longer be considered experimental. Perioperative flow measurement by the transit-time method is recommended while postoperative echocardiography represents an accurate method for evaluation of flow in internal mammary artery grafts. Multi-detector computed tomography allows for accurate assessment of all types of bypass conduits and native coronary arteries. At present, magnetic resonance imaging of internal mammary artery patency and flow is possible.",
"yes. This study shows that the benefit of the left internal thoracic artery in the octogenarian population undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting may be gender related. For elderly female patients, the use of the left internal thoracic artery as a bypass conduit was associated with better long-term survival, whereas no significant difference was found among the male population. The use of the left internal thoracic artery was associated with a greater postoperative pulmonary morbidity for the study population as a whole. The present study does not refute the benefit of the left internal thoracic artery-left anterior descending graft, but instead distinguishes a subset who might benefit more.",
"Internal thoracic artery patency decreases as coronary competitive flow increases. However, the nature of this relationship indicates ITAs should not be abandoned at moderate grades of stenosis.",
"The role of internal thoracic artery (ITA) nervous supply has not been previously considered as a potential factor influencing excellent long-term patency of an ITA graft. To define the interaction between the primary afferent neurons and endothelial cells of ITA, we investigated the effects of acute capsaicin administration in vitro on the isometric tension of human ITAs. Vessels were obtained from patients undergoing coronary bypass or from multi-organ transplant donors. Thirty-three ITA segments (5 mm wide) were suspended as rings between two stainless-steel stir-ups in water-jacketed (37 degrees C) tissue baths. The tissue baths contained 10 ml physiological salt solution (PSS) of the following composition (mM/L): NaCl 119, KCl 4.7, NaH2PO4 1.0, MgCl2 0.5, CaCl2 2.5, NaHCO3 25, and glucose 11, aerated continuously with 95% O2 and 5% CO2. Peptidase inhibitors, phosphoramidon (1 microM) and captopril (1 microM), were added to PSS to decrease peptide degradation. Mechanical responses were measured isometrically and recorded on a polygraph via isometric force transducers. Vessels were preconstricted with submaximal concentrations of norepinephrine. After the tension had stabilized, capsaicin was added cumulatively to the tissue bath. The viability of ITA was verified by its responses to endothelial-dependent (acetylcholine, 1 microM) (n=20) and endothelial-independent (sodium nitroprusside, 10 microM) (n=13) vasodilators. The exposure of capsaicin (3 microM) to human ITA produced varied effects on ITA irrespective of its endothelium. Capsaicin induced contraction of the ITA smooth muscle in 13 endothelium-intact ITA segments while it produced vasoconstriction in 9 endothelium-denuded ITAs (p=0.6437). In response to capsaicin, relaxation of ITA smooth muscle was observed in 7 ITA rings with endothelium, while vasodilation was present in 4 ITA segments without endothelium (p=0.4099).",
"yes. Intra-arterial nicardipine is associated with significant intra-operative blood pressure lowering, an increased requirement for intra-operative vasopressor therapy, and a tendency toward re-treatment when used as initial monotherapy for vasospasm.",
"Left internal mammary artery spasm is well recognized during coronary artery bypass operations. Papaverine has been used by many surgeons to maximize mammary artery flow perioperatively, but the best delivery method is not known. We analyzed two techniques used at our institution. Fifty-eight patients were randomized into three groups to compare papaverine's ability to prevent spasm and to treat established spasm. Group 1 was control and no treatment was employed. In group 2, papaverine was injected with a blunt needle through the endothoracic fascia parallel to the mammary artery before harvest to assess spasm prevention. In group 3, papaverine was delivered perivascular in an identical manner to group 2 but after the mammary artery was dissected from the chest wall. This group was an evaluation of spasm treatment. Drug dosage was the same for both groups and routine bypass grafting was performed. Before anastomosing the mammary artery to the left anterior descending artery, blood flow was recorded for 15 seconds and flow per minute calculated. Cardiopulmonary bypass pressures were maintained at 70 mm Hg during collection. Mean blood flows were: group 1 = 86.2 mL/min, group 2 = 122.5 mL/min, and group 3 = 139.7 mL/min. Left internal mammary artery flow in group 3 was statistically different from control (p = 0.0457). Group 2 flow approached but did not reach statistical significance (p = 0.0874). Mammary artery dissection times for the three groups were not different.",
"yes. The release of endothelium-derived nitric oxide and prostacyclin from bypass grafts into the lumen, particularly during hypoxemia, could promote the vasodilation of distal coronary arterial beds, enhancing myocardial perfusion.",
"This study was conceived to evaluate the effect of carbon dioxide insufflation on free internal thoracic artery flows. We studied 56 consecutive patients who underwent coronary artery bypass grafting in which the left internal thoracic artery was anastomosed to the left anterior descending artery. The first 26 consecutive internal thoracic arteries were harvested as a pedicled graft (group 1), and the next 30 consecutive internal thoracic arteries were dissected by using the carbon dioxide insufflation technique (group 2). The internal thoracic artery harvesting was performed by 2 experienced surgeons by using the same instrumentation and technique. First, free flows of the internal thoracic arteries were registered after distal cutting of the vessel in both groups. After the first measurements, diluted papaverine was sprayed on the internal thoracic artery pedicle only in group 1, and then second measurements were registered after 15 minutes in both groups. Hemodynamic parameters were recorded with each measurement. The first free flow measurement was significantly higher in the carbon dioxide-insufflated internal thoracic arteries (group 2, 60 +/- 32 mL/min; group 1, 28 +/- 19 mL/min; P<.05). Although the second free flow measurement of the carbon dioxide-insufflated group was higher than in group 1, the difference was not statistically significant (68 +/- 46 mL/min vs 53 +/- 32 mL/min; P =.53).",
"Recent studies have shown that perivascular adipose tissue from the rat aorta secretes a substance that can dilate the aorta. The purpose of the present study was to examine whether this vasodilator is also present in human internal thoracic arteries. Vascular function of human internal thoracic arteries with and without perivascular adipose tissue was assessed with wire myography, and morphology was examined with light microscopy. The presence of perivascular adipose tissue attenuated the maximal contraction to U 46619 and the contraction to phenylephrine (1 micromol/L) by 37% and 24%, respectively. Transfer of the solution incubated with a perivascular adipose tissue-intact vessel (donor) to a vessel without perivascular adipose tissue (recipient) induced a significant relaxation (36%) in the recipient artery precontracted with phenylephrine. Transfer of incubation solution with perivascular adipose tissue alone also induced a relaxation response in the recipient vessel (37%). The relaxation of the recipient artery induced by the transfer of incubation solution from the donor (artery with intact perivascular adipose tissue or perivascular adipose tissue alone) was absent in vessels precontracted by KCl (60 mmol/L) and was prevented by calcium-dependent potassium channel blockers (tetraethylammonium chloride, 1 mmol/L; iberiotoxin, 100 nmol/L), but not by the voltage-dependent potassium channel blocker 4-aminopyridine (1 mmol/L) and the adenosine triphosphate-dependent potassium channel blocker glibenclamide (10 micromol/L).",
"yes. In phenoxybenzamine-treated sections of radial artery, circulating vasoconstrictor agonists may still contribute to the induction of spasm. Additional vasodilator strategies may be required to completely prevent vasospasm.",
"yes. Pharmacologic preparation of the vein grafts results in upregulation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase and increased nitric oxide production in the vein grafts after arterial implantation. This might provide greater clinical benefit than conventional pressure-distention methods.",
"Dissection of the left internal thoracic artery to the fourth intercostal space would allow for concomitant use in CABG and breast reconstruction in one-third of cases. However, skeletonization of the internal thoracic artery at the level of the fourth intercostal space would be sufficient for CABG in all cases following autologous breast reconstruction.",
"Greater release of endothelium-derived nitric oxide is implicated in the superior patency of the internal mammary artery (IMA) used in coronary artery bypass grafting. This study compared the release of endothelium-derived nitric oxide into the lumen of the IMA and the saphenous vein under normoxic versus hypoxic conditions. Segments of canine IMA and saphenous vein were perfused in vitro. Vasorelaxant activity was measured as vasodilatation of coronary artery smooth muscle induced by the effluent. Effluents from the IMA and saphenous vein caused comparable vasodilation of coronary artery smooth muscle. The vasodilatation reversed when perfusion was switched to a prosthetic conduit. Vasodilator activity from the IMA and saphenous vein was attenuated by removing the intima of the grafts or by adding N(G)-monomethyl-L-arginine (10(-4) mol/L) or N(G)-nitro-L-arginine (10(-4) mol/L), two inhibitors of nitric oxide synthesis. Indomethacin attenuated vasorelaxant activity from saphenous vein grafts but not IMA grafts (n = 10). Vasodilator release from the IMA and saphenous vein was augmented by hypoxia. This augmentation was inhibited by indomethacin (n = 10, p < 0.05). Hypoxic augmentation reversed with return to normoxia.",
"yes. Reoperative aortic valve replacement in patients with previous coronary artery bypass grafting and a patent left internal thoracic artery graft can be performed safely without dissection or clamping of the left internal thoracic artery using systemic hyperkalemia and hypothermia. We believe this method prevents unnecessary injury during dissection of the left internal thoracic artery graft.",
"To evaluate the potential for flow steal of the internal mammary artery (IMA) side-branches at rest and in case of dilatation of their vascular bed (as probably occurs during physical exercise). Transthoracic echo-Doppler evaluation of IMA flow was performed preoperatively in 40 patients undergoing myocardial revascularization. IMA flow was measured at rest and in condition of peripheral vasodilatation (obtained using forced ventilation for 2 min, dypiridamole 0.84 mg/kg endovenous (e.v.), xantinole nicotinate 500 mg e.v., nifedipine 20 mg sublingual (s.l.)). IMA mean peak systolic velocity increased 23% after forced ventilation (from 67 to 83 cm/s), 6% after dypiridamole (from 75 to 80 cm/s), 30% after xantinole infusion (from 62 to 81 cm/s) and 23% after nifedipine administration (from 60 to 74 cm/s). IMA flow increased 17.7% after forced ventilation (from 39.5 to 46.5 ml/min), 4.8% after dypiridamole (from 39.2 to 41.1 ml/min), 20.2% after xantinole infusion (from 41.4 to 49.8 ml/min) and 16.5% after nifedipine administration (from 41.6 to 48.5 ml/min).",
"yes. Skeletonization of internal thoracic artery conduits lowers the risk of deep sternal wound infection in patients with diabetes undergoing bilateral internal thoracic artery grafting. We no longer consider diabetes a contraindication to bilateral internal thoracic artery grafting, provided the internal thoracic arteries are skeletonized.",
"yes. Papaverine delivery to the left internal mammary artery after dissection treats spasm effectively, improves blood flow at the time of its anastamosis to the left anterior descending artery, and avoids any risk of intimal injury. Injection of papaverine before mammary artery harvest does not shorten dissection time, and flow is not statistically improved.",
"yes. Topical application of heated papaverine itself does not warm pedicle tissue, but papaverine efficiency increases when the pedicle is stored in normothermic conditions. Preserving internal thoracic artery pedicles in normothermic conditions can be the preferred treatment for spasms.",
"Within the limits of our study design, we suggest that preparation of the LITA by topical vasodilator drugs using a special applicator tube does not result in a significantly superior free flow than placebo.",
"Muscle damage in latissimus dorsi grafts is known to occur following surgical mobilization for cardiomyoplasty. It is believed that ischemia may be a contributory factor. We tested the hypothesis that surgical manipulation of the muscle graft resulted in vasospasm of the intramuscular arteries that compromised muscle viability by examining the effects of vasodilators in the early ischemic period. Rat latissimus dorsi muscles were mobilized from all truncal attachments with preservation of the thoracodorsal neurovascular pedicle. Undisturbed contralateral muscles served as controls. After 24 hours, regional analysis of muscle viability was performed by enzyme macrohistochemistry and histologic assessment. The experimental interventions in four randomized groups (n = 5 each) included: group A, control; group B, topical papaverine (1%); group C, intravenous hydralazine (0.5 mg/kg); and group D, intravenous verapamil (75 microg/kg). All mobilized muscles showed loss of viability, as compared to controls, with damage most apparent in the distal part (mobilized vs control: viable area = 56.76% [51.26-62.26] vs 98.54% [97.87-99.21]; p<0.001). All three vasodilators failed to prevent muscle necrosis whereas papaverine appeared to aggravate the damage (papaverine vs control: viable area = 53.60% [30.73-76.47] vs 76.60% [75.02-78.18]in the middle region; p<0.05 and 44.27% [29.53-59.01] vs 56.76% [51.26-62.26]in the distal region; p<0.05).",
"yes. Changes in arteriovenous fistula flow state did not significantly alter Doppler flow hemodynamics of either the ipsilateral or contralateral in-situ internal thoracic artery. Further studies of the possible effects on internal thoracic arteries used as pedicled coronary grafts may be required.",
"no. Concurrent use of oral vasodilators does not appear to mask a significant response to inhaled NO on the pulmonary vasculature. Therefore, routine discontinuation of pulmonary vasodilators is likely unnecessary before vasodilator testing in patients with pulmonary arterial hypertension.",
"no. When infused intra-arterially in clinically relevant doses in both hypotensive and normotensive normal vascular territories remote from an AVM nidus, calcium channel blockade caused vasodilation, but there was an absence of response to nitric oxide-mediated vasodilators. These data suggest that (1) the nitric oxide pathway probably is not involved in the adaptation to chronic cerebral hypotension in AVM patients and (2) if our findings in vessels remote from or contralateral to the AVM are applicable to vessels of patients with other forms of cerebrovascular disease, clinically relevant doses of intra-arterial nitrovasodilators may not be useful in the manipulation of cerebrovascular resistance.",
"The internal thoracic artery (ITA) is a very useful conduit for coronary artery bypass artery (CABG), with excellent long-term patency. With the purpose to dilate the ITA graft and increase graft free flow (GFF) intraoperatively, we evaluated the usefulness of intraluminal injection of fasudil, a Rho-kinase inhibitor, in comparison to the conventional graft dilating agent, papaverine. Between June 2011 and January 2012, 30 patients with ischemic heart disease who underwent isolated CABG using ITA were enrolled. The patients were randomly assigned to 2 groups: the fasudil group (n = 15) in which fasudil solution 0.9 mg/dL was injected into the ITA, and the papaverine group (n = 15) in which papaverine solution (0.4 mg/mL) mixed with heparinized blood was used. Outcome measures were left ITA GFF, heart rate, and mean blood pressure during flow measurements, and histopathologic examination of the ITA. In the fasudil group, GFF increased significantly (p < 0.01) from 19.7 ± 15.2 mL/minute at baseline to 66.9 ± 31.7 mL/minute after fasudil injection. In the papaverine group, GFF increased significantly (p < 0.01) from 22.9 ± 17.3 mL/minute at baseline to 44.8 ± 26.7 mL/minute after papaverine injection. Blood pressure and heart rate did not change significantly after drug injection in both groups. The GFF was significantly higher (p = 0.038) in fasudil-treated ITA than in papaverine-treated ITA. Histopathologically, the diameter of the ITA was markedly increased after fasudil injection. Elastica van Gieson staining showed that the multiple elastic lamellae structure was intact.",
"Free flow of the internal thoracic artery decreases commonly after harvesting because of spasm. Tissue heat loss is inevitable during surgery. The aim of this study was to compare the internal thoracic artery pedicle rewarming method with topical papaverine applications in different thermal conditions. Patients (n = 120) were organized in to 6 equally sized groups. The effects of topical papaverine application at room temperature, topical heated papaverine (at 37 degrees C) application, internal thoracic artery pedicle storage in normothermic conditions, pedicle storage in normothermic conditions combined with topical papaverine application, and pedicle storage in normothermic conditions combined with topical heated papaverine application were investigated. In the control group, no treatment was applied and the pedicle was stored in room temperature conditions. We measured internal thoracic artery free flows at 3 stages: at the initiation of harvesting, after total harvesting, and after antispasmodic treatment. Durations of the stages were recorded. At each stage hemodynamic parameters, tissue and core temperatures were also monitored. Internal thoracic artery pedicle temperature significantly decreased simultaneously with the free flow after the harvesting procedure. Recovery of the physiologic temperature state, provided by storing the internal thoracic artery pedicle in normothermic conditions, improved the flow and increased the efficiency of topically applied papaverine on the vasospasm of the internal thoracic artery.",
"Perioperative internal mammary artery (IMA) vasospasm in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery may lead to morbidity and mortality. Surgical stimulus is one of the common causes of IMA vasospasm. Preventive measures, beside treatment should be taken into consideration to obtain vasospasm free IMA. The effect of a pharmacologic agent on IMA flow when it is administered before harvesting the artery has not been documented. We designed a prospective randomized clinical study to compare the IMA free blood flows in patients receiving either diltiazem or nitroglycerin, starting infusion of study drugs before a surgical stimulus was applied to the IMA region and continuing throughout the isolation period. Sixty patients undergoing elective CABG surgery with the left IMA received diltiazem (n=30, 0.05-0.1 mg/kg per hour) or nitroglycerin (n=30, 0.25-2.5 microg/kg per minute) in a randomized manner. Infusions of study drugs were started before applying a surgical stimulus to the IMA region and continued throughout the harvesting period. The first free flow was measured after IMA was cut above its bifurcation and the second after its distal segment was resected. Heart rate, temperature, mean arterial and central venous pressures were recorded. Data were analyzed with Student's t-test and Fischer's exact test. Preoperative and hemodynamic data were similar between the groups. The means of first and second IMA flows in patients treated with diltiazem (53.8+/-30.1 and 72.3+/-35.4 ml/min) were significantly higher than in those treated with nitroglycerin (25.7+/-16.2 and 48.9+/-23.8 ml/min; P=0.000, 0.004, respectively). IMA flows significantly increased after distal segment resection both in diltiazem (34%) and nitroglycerin groups (90%; P= 0.000, 0.000, respectively).",
"To assess, by scintillography, the effect of using bilateral internal thoracic arteries (BITAs) - prepared by two different techniques - on the sternal perfusion. 35 patients undergone coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) were divided into two groups: Group A (18) had both ITA's dissected using skeletonization technique and group B (17) as pedicle preparation. There was no difference in the two groups relating gender, age and demographic characteristics. On the 7th postoperative day the patients underwent bone scintillography. The statistical analysis was performed using the Student's t test with 95% significance. Group A (skeletonized ITA) showed higher perfusion (11.5%) of the sternum as a mean, than Group B (pedicled ITA) patients; however this was not statistically significant (P = 0.127). On the other hand, comparing the diabetic population, seven in each group, there was a marked 47.4% higher perfusion of the sternum in Group A patients (skeletonized ITA) comparing to Group B (pedicled ITA) and this difference reached statistical significance (P = 0.004).",
"Use of the internal thoracic artery in elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting provides an acute survival benefit. This benefit is similar to that seen in younger patients and persists after adjusting for both patient and provider selection factors. The internal thoracic artery appears to be underused in elderly patients undergoing bypass grafting and is a potential area for quality improvement.",
"no. These observations suggest that blood flow in the side branches is minimal either at baseline and under combined systemic and coronary vasodilation. Clinically significant flow steal from the coronary circulation to the internal thoracic artery side branches seems then unlikely.",
"yes. Although the internal thoracic artery is systolic predominant, when native artery is used as graft, it changes its hemodynamics to diastolic predominance, especially at the distal end. Even after 10 years, graft flow dynamics are unchanged. This hemodynamic character may be one of the factors related to the superior long-term patency.",
"yes. Although maintained, the vasodilative response to acetylcholine appears reduced in internal thoracic artery grafts of patients who continued smoking long term after coronary bypass surgery. Whether this could affect the long-term outcome of these patients has to be further investigated.",
"Carbon dioxide insufflation of the internal thoracic artery is an efficient technique to increase the flow and seems to be safe, simple, and reliable. When the internal thoracic artery is harvested in a carbon dioxide-insufflated fashion, arterial spasm and reduced early flow may be avoided, even without vasodilator agents such as papaverine.",
"The internal thoracic artery has become the conduit of choice for coronary artery bypass grafting. To avoid spasm of the artery, and increases in its diameter and flow, various vasodilators have been used either intraluminally or by topical application by different surgeons. In order to define the best vasodilating agent for preparation of the internal thoracic artery, a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled clinical study was performed in a group of patients submitted for elective coronary artery bypass grafting. Eighty (80) consecutive patients submitted for elective first time coronary artery bypass grafting were randomly subdivided into five treatment groups. Free flow of the left internal thoracic artery was measured using an electromagnetic flow meter. The first measurement was performed shortly after the internal thoracic artery was dissected from the chest wall and the second just prior to performing distal anastomosis to the left anterior descending coronary artery. During the time interval between the two measurements the internal thoracic artery was immersed in a special applicator tube containing 20 ml solution of one of the following drugs: papaverin 2 mg/ml, nitroglycerin 1 mg/ml, verapamil 0.5 mg/ml, nitroprusside 0.5 mg/ml, normal saline 0.9%. No statistically significant differences were found between the groups in respect to age, body surface area, bypass time, cross clamping time, and time interval between the two flow measurements. Mean arterial pressure at the time of the first and second internal thoracic artery flow measurements did not show statistically significant differences either within or between the groups. In all five groups, the free flow of the internal thoracic artery increased significantly with time. However, no statistically significant differences were shown between the five groups with respect to second flow (P = 0.2)."
] | 563 |
The medical review article revisited: has the science improved? | [
"The validity of a review depends on its methodologic quality. To determine the methodologic quality of recently published review articles. Critical appraisal. All reviews of clinical topics published in six general medical journals in 1996. Explicit criteria that have been published and validated were used. Of 158 review articles, only 2 satisfied all 10 methodologic criteria (median number of criteria satisfied, 1). Less than a quarter of the articles described how evidence was identified, evaluated, or integrated; 34% addressed a focused clinical question; and 39% identified gaps in existing knowledge. Of the 111 reviews that made treatment recommendations, 48% provided an estimate of the magnitude of potential benefits (and 34%, the potential adverse effects) of the treatment options, 45% cited randomized clinical trials to support their recommendations, and only 6% made any reference to costs.",
"The methodologic quality of clinical review articles is highly variable, and many of these articles do not specify systematic methods."
] | [
"It is accepted worldwide that clinical and educational decisions should be informed by the best available evidence, not individual opinion only. This article discusses the epistemological basis of educational evidence, as compared with clinical evidence, looking at the different nature of the science behind each one. Two models--BEME Reviews in medical education and Cochrane Reviews in clinical medicine--based on our own experience of a soon to be published BEME Review (BEMER) and several systematic reviews our group has published in clinical medicine--were used to identify similarities and differences between the two approaches. The evidence to support clinical as well as educational decision making is different in its nature, as well as in its quality. However, their approach is similar in its fundamental steps (design a question, select evidence, critically appraise it, synthesize and apply), so the differences between BEME and Cochrane are perhaps more a matter of degree, than the existence of fundamental differences.",
"To identify the relationship between in-hospital location and patient outcomes as measured by Medical Emergency Team calls. A narrative systematic review of the literature. A systematic search of the literature was conducted in October 2014 using the electronic databases: Embase, Cochrane, Medline, CINAHL, Science Direct and Google Scholar for the most recent literature from 1997 to 2014. Non-randomised study designs such as case control or cohort studies were eligible. Articles were selected independently by two researchers using a predetermined selection criterion. The screening process removed manuscripts that did not meet the inclusion criteria resulting in an empty review with one manuscript meeting most of the criteria for inclusion. The protocol was revised to a narrative synthesis including a broader scope of studies. The search strategy was expanded and modified to include manuscripts of any study design that comprise both inlier and outlier patients. Two manuscripts were selected for the narrative synthesis.",
"no. As the majority of studies evaluated by this review is insufficient for EBM purposes more coherent studies with LOE of I or II are needed. Co-relating the systems of CMS and LOE and validating the applied scores seems desirable.",
"Increasing the scope of an evidence based approach to areas outside healthcare has renewed the importance of a long-standing discussion on randomised versus observational study designs in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions. We investigate statistically if an increasing recognition of the role of certain nonrandomised studies to support or generalize the results of randomised controlled trials has had an impact on the actual inclusion criteria applied in Cochrane reviews. We conduct an on-line search of the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) and divide all Cochrane reviews according to their design inclusion criterion: (A) RCTs only or (B) RCTs and (some subset of) observational studies. We test statistically whether a shift in the proportion of category B reviews has occurred by comparing reviews published before 2008 with reviews published during 2008/09. We find that the proportion of Cochrane reviews choosing a broader inclusion criterion has increased, although by less than two percentage points. The shift is not statistically significant (P = 0.08).",
"yes. Residents at all levels demonstrated improved research and statistics scores after receiving the curriculum. Because the ABSITE includes a wide spectrum of research topics, sustained improvements suggest a genuine level of understanding that will promote lifelong evaluation and clinical application of the surgical literature.",
"In the hierarchy of research designs, randomized controlled trials and meta-analyses are considered to be evidence of the highest grade, and scientific journals are the main source of scientific information. Using the National Library of Medicine Medline database, all randomized controlled trials and meta-analyses from 1966 to 1999 were retrieved from the journals indexed in the core list of the Science Citation Index in 1999, dedicated primarily to orthopaedics. The abstracts of the articles were reviewed independently by each author and classified by the year, journal name and subject. The total number of articles was 36,293, of which only 671 were randomized controlled trials (1.85%) and 12 were meta-analyses (0.03%). Although there was a progressively increasing trend for randomized controlled trials, more than half of them (81.9%) were published in four journals. Of the randomized controlled trials, 66% was about arthroplasty, and hip and knee arthroplasties covered 90.7%.",
"Antenatal care recommended in protocols used in Australia varies, and is not always consistent with national policies or research evidence. Producing and disseminating systematic reviews of research evidence and national guidelines might reduce this variability and improve the quality of Australian antenatal care.",
"yes. The Cochrane Library systematic review methodology leads to higher quality reviews on dermatological topics.",
"Deciding on 'best quality' is subjective. While literature and guidelines provide clear parameters for many measures, others are difficult to judge. Overall, there was little difference between these two groups. This study has found little evidence to support the claim that computerisation of general practice in Australia has improved the quality of care provided to patients.",
"An increasing amount of research and guidelines has been published on search methodology and the reporting of search strategies in systematic reviews. This research assessed whether this has lead to any improvements in the reporting and quality of searching in systematic reviews of adverse effects. All records within Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews and Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects were scanned for systematic reviews of adverse effects. Data were then extracted on the methods used for information retrieval in these reviews and a descriptive analysis conducted by publication year. A total of 849 reviews published from 1994 to 2011 met the inclusion criteria. There has been a significant increase (P<0.001) in the number of adverse effects reviews per year from 1994 (n=5) to 2010 (n=104). Some improvements were apparent, such as an increase in the number of databases searched and fewer date and language restrictions applied. However, there has been an increase in reviews limited to data from randomized controlled trials, whereas the reporting of search strategies could still be improved further, with only 9% (74/849) of the reviews reporting reproducible searches.",
"A prospective observational study was performed in a tertiary level teaching hospital for children. The study was approved by the local research ethics board. All diagnostic and therapeutic procedures requiring a general anaesthetic carried out over a 4-week period (24 Feb 2014-22 Mar 2014) under the general surgery service or involving a general paediatric surgeon were included in the study. Pubmed and EMBASE were used to search in the literature for the highest level of evidence supporting the recorded procedures. Evidence was classified according to the Oxford Centre for Evidence Based Medicine (OCEBM) 2009 system as well as according to the classification used by Baraldini et al. Results was compared using Χ (2) test. P<0.05 was considered statistically significant. During the study period, 126 operations (36 different types) were performed on 118 patients. According to the OCEBM classification, 62 procedures (49 %) were supported by systematic reviews of multiple homogeneous RCTs (level 1a), 13 (10 %) by individual RCTs (level 1b), 5 (4 %) by systematic reviews of cohort studies (level 2a), 11 (9 %) by individual cohort studies, 1 (1 %) by systematic review of case-control studies (level 3a), 14 (11 %) by case-control studies (level 3b), 9 (7 %) by case series (type 4) and 11 procedures (9 %) were based on expert opinion or deemed self-evident interventions (type 5). High level of evidence (OCEBM level 1a or 1b or level I according to Baraldini et al. PSI 1998) supported 75 (60 %) operations in the current study compared to 18 (26 %) in the study of 1998 (P<0.0001).",
"Primary research and \"evidence-based\" papers seem to be less attractive to readers than narrative reviews and editorials in the first week after publication. Authors and editors should try to improve the early appeal of primary research papers.",
"To assess the type of evidence that supported our management of surgical patients. Retrospective audit. Teaching hospital, Republic of Ireland. All 222 patients admitted by two surgical teams during one month. Patients admitted for diagnostic procedures were included if they were treated as a result. Diagnosis and treatment were established from the notes. Evidence for each intervention was then sought in MEDLINE 1986-1999, Best Evidence 1991-1999, and the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews Issue 3, 1999, and graded into one of five categories: systematic review, meta-analysis, randomised controlled trial, prospective study, or retrospective study. Treatment was supported by systematic review in 14, by meta-analysis in 12, by randomised controlled trial in 75, by prospective studies in 55, by retrospective studies in 58, and by no evidence in 8.",
"To examine trends in and determinants of the number of authors in clinical studies. We analyzed determinants of the number of authors in 633 articles of randomized trials and 313 articles of nonrandomized studies included in large meta-analyses (seven and six topics, respectively). Analyses were adjusted for topic. We also evaluated 310 randomly sampled case reports that had an abstract and described a single case. After adjusting for topic and other determinants, for both randomized trials and nonrandomized studies, the number of authors increased by 0.8 per decade (P<0.001). Topic was a strong determinant of the number of authors; other independent factors included journal impact factor, multinational authorship, and (for randomized trials) article length and sample size. Trials from South Europe (+1.1 authors) and North America (+0.9) and nonrandomized studies from South Europe (+1.8) had more authors than studies from North Europe (P<0.001). For case reports, only geographic location and article length were significantly related with author numbers.",
"yes. Minor changes in procedure in terms of a standard protocol for pathology and specimen dissection by BMAs, leading to an increased quality of the PAD-report, may also improve the long-term outcome for patients.",
"yes. The study by Myhre and associates is another addition to a growing collection of good science in a field of medicine where objectivity is essential.",
"To provide valuable elements and some humor in this so-called era of \"evidence-based practice\" with the aim of helping clinicians make better choices in the care they deliver based on evidence, not simply or exclusively based on a randomized clinical trial (RCT) or meta-analysis (which may not be evidence). Books and peer-reviewed articles are quoted and listed in the bibliography. Evidence of life, learning from our own mistakes and many other evident facts that support this review are not quoted. 1) \"Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence\" and \"lack of evidence of effect does not mean evidence of no effect.\" 2) RCTs with \"negative\" results and those with \"positive\" results, but without outcomes that matter, often cannot conclude what they conclude. 3) Non-randomized clinical trials and practical trials may be important. 4) Research to prove is different than research to improve. 5) Clinical choice must assess effects on outcomes that matter to patients and their parents. 6) Quantifying adverse outcomes, number needed to damage and to treat is not that simple.",
"To classify the sources of bias and variation and to provide an updated summary of the evidence of the effects of each source of bias and variation. We conducted a systematic review of studies of any design with the main objective of addressing bias or variation in the results of diagnostic accuracy studies. We searched MEDLINE, EMBASE, BIOSIS, the Cochrane Methodology Register, and Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects (DARE) from 2001 to October 2011. Citation searches based on three key papers were conducted, and studies from our previous review (search to 2001) were eligible. One reviewer extracted data on the study design, objective, sources of bias and/or variation, and results. A second reviewer checked the extraction. We summarized the number of studies providing evidence of an effect arising from each source of bias and variation on the estimates of sensitivity, specificity, and overall accuracy.",
"Some of the findings reflect recommendations and trends reported in the literature, whereas others are not supported by clear medical evidence. The unpredictable nature of the trends suggests that further study is warranted of the reasons for obstetric trends and for the changes in physicians' practice patterns.",
"Medical humanities publications dramatically decreased over time in psychiatry journals while they more than doubled in internal medicine journals. These data suggest the need for further empirical research and discussion of the potential roles of the humanities in psychiatry.",
"To assess whether the quality of reporting of diagnostic accuracy studies has improved since the publication of the Standards for the Reporting of Diagnostic Accuracy studies (STARD statement). The quality of reporting of diagnostic accuracy studies published in 12 medical journals in 2000 (pre-STARD) and 2004 (post-STARD) was evaluated by two reviewers independently. For each article, the number of reported STARD items was counted (range 0 to 25). Differences in completeness of reporting between articles published in 2000 and 2004 were analyzed, using multilevel analyses. We included 124 articles published in 2000 and 141 articles published in 2004. Mean number of reported STARD items was 11.9 (range 3.5 to 19.5) in 2000 and 13.6 (range 4.0 to 21.0) in 2004, an increase of 1.81 items (95% CI: 0.61 to 3.01). Articles published in 2004 reported the following significantly more often: methods for calculating test reproducibility of the index test (16% vs 35%); distribution of the severity of disease and other diagnoses (23% vs 53%); estimates of variability of diagnostic accuracy between subgroups (39% vs 60%); and a flow diagram (2% vs 12%).",
"To review the scientific status of the biopsychosocial (BPS) model and to propose a way to improve it.",
"yes. The quality of much of the published qualitative dental research is mediocre when assessed using the CASP framework, and several specific areas have been identified for targeting improvement, including better methodological rigour and increased detail in reporting.",
"Although the number of randomized controlled trials and meta-analyses is tending to increase, the conclusion of this study is that the high-quality evidence provided by the major orthopaedic journals is quite low, and more randomized controlled trials and meta-analyses are needed for evidence-based orthopaedic practice.",
"Readers, like most peer reviewers, are generally satisfied with the quality of manuscripts but would like research articles to be more relevant to their clinical practice.",
"yes. Implementation of a literature-based guideline on MH, powered by educational meetings and individual feedback, improves MH performance by ICU nurses.",
"News coverage of medical research is followed closely by many Americans and affects the practice of medicine and influence of scientific research. Prior work has examined the quality of media coverage, but no investigation has characterized the choice of stories covered in a controlled manner. We examined whether the media systematically covers stories of weaker study design. We compared study characteristics of 75 clinically-oriented journal articles that received coverage in the top five newspapers by circulation against 75 clinically-oriented journal articles that appeared in the top five medical journals by impact factor over a similar timespan. Subgroup analysis was performed to determine whether differences between investigations from both sources varied by study type (randomized controlled trial [RCT] or observational study). Investigations receiving coverage from newspapers were less likely to be RCTs (17% vs. 35%, p = 0.016) and more likely to be observational studies (75% vs. 47%, p<0.001). No difference was observed in number of people studied (median: 1034 vs. 1901, p = 0.14) or length of follow-up (median: 1.80 vs. 1.00 years, p = 0.22). In subgroup analysis, observational studies from the media used smaller sample sizes (median: 1984 vs. 21136, p = 0.029) and were more likely to be cross-sectional (71% vs. 31%, p<0.001), while no differences were observed for RCTs.",
"yes. Consulting previous research before embarking on a new trial and basing decisions about future research on the impact on an updated meta-analysis will make the reporting of research more coherent and the design of new RCTs more efficient.",
"Compared with 2003 and 2009, reporting rates for REC approval, ICP, reference to DoH, and study registration for clinical trials of anti-dementia drugs were enhanced in 2014 in the major medical journals of China. However, biomedical publications without definite statements of ethical considerations remain common, and this continues to be seen in Chinese journals. It is imperative that measures are taken to reinforce the ethical protection in clinical trials in China.",
"The level of reviewer agreement was only moderate. Reliable identification of relevant articles is an initial step in assessing published evidence. Advancement in quality improvement will depend on the theory- and consensus-based development and testing of a generalizable framework for identifying QII evaluations.",
"yes. the observed changes in policy content were likely to have been influenced not only by the NPSA publications but also by contemporaneous publications from the Royal College of Physicians' National Audit of Falls and Bone Health, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency. Most areas of local policy indicated substantial improvement, but further improvements are required.",
"yes. The combination of medication error reviews and M&MCs appears to be an efficient means of improving cancer patient safety and personnel proficiency. This multidisciplinary work is indispensable to improve future patient management through the critical analysis of past medical errors.",
"no. When 2 physicians discuss a record that they are reviewing, it substantially improves the agreement between those 2 physicians. However, this improvement is illusory, as discussion does not improve the overall reliability as assessed by examining the reliability between physicians who were part of different discussions. This finding may also have implications with regard to how disagreements are resolved on consensus panels, guideline committees, and reviews of literature quality for meta-analyses.",
"Most articles in clinical journals are not appropriate for direct application by individual clinicians. To create a second order of clinical peer review for journal articles to determine which articles are most relevant for specific clinical disciplines. A 2-stage prospective observational study in which research staff reviewed all issues of over 110 (number has varied slightly as new journals were added or discarded from review but number has always been over 110) clinical journals and selected each article that met critical appraisal criteria from January 2003 through the present. Practicing physicians were recruited from around the world, excluding Northern Ontario, to the McMaster Online Rating of Evidence (MORE) system and registered as raters according to their clinical disciplines. An automated system assigned each qualifying article to raters for each pertinent clinical discipline, and recorded their online assessments of the articles on 7-point scales (highest score, 7) of relevance and newsworthiness (defined as useful new information for physicians). Rated articles fed an online alerting service, the McMaster Premium Literature Service (PLUS). Physicians from Northern Ontario were invited to register with PLUS and then receive e-mail alerts about articles according to MORE system peer ratings for their own discipline. Online access by PLUS users of PLUS alerts, raters' comments, article abstracts, and full-text journal articles was automatically recorded. Clinical rater recruitment and performance. Relevance and newsworthiness of journal articles to clinical practice in the discipline of the rating physician. Through October 2005, MORE had 2139 clinical raters, and PLUS had 5892 articles with 45 462 relevance ratings and 44 724 newsworthiness ratings collected since 2003. On average, clinicians rated systematic review articles higher for relevance to practice than articles with original evidence and lower for useful new information. Primary care physicians rated articles lower than did specialists (P<.05). Of the 98 physicians who registered for PLUS, 88 (90%) used it on 3136 occasions during an 18-month test period.",
"Evidence-based medicine is welcomed by Dutch orthopaedic surgeons. The recent emphasis on evidence-based medicine is reflected in an increased awareness about The Journal's evidence-based medicine section, levels of evidence, and the largest evidence-based medicine resource: the Cochrane reviews. Younger orthopaedic surgeons had better knowledge about evidence-based medicine. The development and use of evidence-based resources as well as preappraised summaries such as The Journal's evidence-based medicine abstracts and Cochrane reviews were perceived as the best way to move from opinion-based to evidence-based orthopaedic practice.",
"Changes in the Instructions to Authors regarding the description of applied statistics and probable changes in the behavior of researchers and Editors have led to an improvement in the quality of statistics in papers published in the American Journal of Obstetrics and Gynecology.",
"yes. Given the inexperience of many nurse authors, it is incumbent upon editors and reviewers to provide guidance and support. Manuscript reviews could be improved by increasing the consistency of numeric ratings, narrative comments, and recommendations regarding disposition of the manuscripts. Nevertheless, the results of this study reaffirm the worth of the peer review approach.",
"Prior efforts to train medical journal peer reviewers have not improved subsequent review quality, although such interventions were general and brief. We hypothesized that a manuscript-specific and more extended intervention pairing new reviewers with high-quality senior reviewers as mentors would improve subsequent review quality. Over a four-year period we randomly assigned all new reviewers for Annals of Emergency Medicine to receive our standard written informational materials alone, or these materials plus a new mentoring intervention. For this program we paired new reviewers with a high-quality senior reviewer for each of their first three manuscript reviews, and asked mentees to discuss their review with their mentor by email or phone. We then compared the quality of subsequent reviews between the control and intervention groups, using linear mixed effects models of the slopes of review quality scores over time. We studied 490 manuscript reviews, with similar baseline characteristics between the 24 mentees who completed the trial and the 22 control reviewers. Mean quality scores for the first 3 reviews on our 1 to 5 point scale were similar between control and mentee groups (3.4 versus 3.5), as were slopes of change of review scores (-0.229 versus -0.549) and all other secondary measures of reviewer performance.",
"yes. Much methodological variability was encountered in the selected reviews. To furnish readers with a more comprehensive assessment of the evidence, authors should observe higher standards when conducting and reporting their reviews.",
"There is a trend for improving quality in pediatric orthopaedic RCTs. Compared with past reports, the mean Detsky score improved from 53% to 67%, and the proportion meeting an acceptable level of quality improved from 19% to 40%. One of the most concerning findings of this study was the lack of attention to sample size and power analysis, and the potential for underpowered studies. Ongoing efforts are necessary to improve the conduct and reporting of clinical trials in pediatric orthopaedics.",
"The reliability of systematic reviews, in particular meta-analyses they contain, can be improved if more attention is paid to missing outcome data. The availability of COSs for specific health conditions might help with this and the concept has support from the majority of Co-ordinating Editors in CRGs.",
"We previously reported that National Institutes of Health (NIH) peer review outcomes in 2002 were slightly but significantly less favorable for grant applications for clinical research than for laboratory research. The present analysis was undertaken to determine if factors related to the review process might contribute to this difference. The impact of each of the following factors on median priority scores and funding rates for clinical and nonclinical R01 grant applications was evaluated: (1) the percentage of clinical applications assigned for review to a study section, (2) the requested direct costs, and (3) the clinical research experience of the reviewers. Confirming our previous observation, in both 1994 and 2004, median priority scores and funding rates for R01 applications were less favorable for clinical research. In 1994, clinical applications did not fare as well in study sections reviewing relatively low percentages of clinical applications. This was not the case in 2004. Although requested direct costs were greater for clinical than for nonclinical R01 applications, median priority scores within each category were actually more favorable for applications requesting greater funding. Assignment of priority scores was not different for reviewers with or without experience conducting clinical research.",
"yes. The 2008 update of the ARIA guidelines has become more evidence-based. Future iterations of the guidelines will further be improved by following the described processes even closer, such as ensuring availability of updated high quality systematic reviews for each question.",
"This educational course improved neurologists' reported decision making. Specialty society-developed CME that utilizes a similar format may enhance the effectiveness of mailed CME information to improve physicians' approach to clinical decisions.",
"yes. This demonstration project shows the feasibility and use of a post-publication clinical peer review system that differentiates published journal articles according to the interests of a broad range of clinical disciplines.",
"The results of this study demonstrate that published research on the value of medical library services has an impact on the literature. These articles are read and cited and continue to be of value.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if the levels of evidence for primary journal articles used as references for musculoskeletal trauma questions on the Orthopaedic In-Training Examination (OITE) have increased over a 15-year period. Basic science article. Geisinger Medical Center (Danville, PA), tertiary referral center. All 329 questions in the musculoskeletal trauma content domain on the OITE from 1995 to 1997 and 2010 to 2012 were reviewed. Baseline characteristics for each question and each reference were recorded. References were categorized as a textbook, a journal review article, an instructional course lecture, or a primary journal article. For each primary journal article, the level of evidence for the article was determined in accordance with the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons Levels of Evidence Guidelines. The level of evidence used for primary journal articles demonstrated a statistically significant increase from 1995 to 1997 to 2010 to 2012. Overall, 27% of primary journal articles cited on the 1995 to 1997 OITEs were level I, II, or III studies, increasing to 43% during the 2010 to 2012 period (p = 0.04). The Buckwalter classification for the OITE questions changed significantly between the 2 periods, with questions from 2010 to 2012 including more T1 questions (25% vs 39%) and fewer T3 questions (46% vs 39%, p = 0.016). The Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery and the Journal of Orthopaedic Trauma were the most frequently cited journals overall.",
"yes. A considerable difference exists between the number of clinical trials showing positive results published in CAM journals compared with traditional journals. We found only 30% of those articles published in CAM journals presented negative findings, whereas over twice that amount were published in traditional journals. These results suggest a publication bias against homeopathy exists in mainstream journals. Conversely, the same type of publication bias does not appear to exist between review and meta-analysis articles published in the two types of journals.",
"yes. The study demonstrates that the provision of medication reviews by accredited pharmacists can improve the appropriateness of prescribing as demonstrated by the change in MAI score and, hence, has the potential to improve patient outcomes. Pharmacists who perform medication reviews could also consider including the systematic approach of applying the MAI to assist in optimizing prescribing in older people.",
"yes. Our data indicate that the review process serves as a sieve and influences whether manuscripts are published in core medical journals. This was demonstrated by the fact that rejected manuscripts often were not published in other indexed medical journals.",
"There has been increasing emphasis on evidence-based approaches to improve patient outcomes through rigorous, standardised and well-validated approaches. Clinical guidelines drive this process and are largely developed based on the findings of systematic reviews (SRs). This paper presents a discussion of the SR process in providing decisive information to shape and guide clinical practice, using a purpose-built review database: the Cochrane reviews; and focussing on a highly prevalent medical condition: hypertension. We searched the Cochrane database and identified 25 relevant SRs incorporating 443 clinical trials. Reviews with the terms 'blood pressure' or 'hypertension' in the title were included. Once selected for inclusion, the abstracts were assessed independently by two authors for their capacity to inform and influence clinical decision-making. The inclusions were independently audited by a third author. Of the 25 SRs that formed the sample, 12 provided conclusive findings to inform a particular treatment pathway. The evidence-based approaches offer the promise of assisting clinical decision-making through clarity, but in the case of management of blood pressure, half of the SRs in our sample highlight gaps in evidence and methodological limitations. Thirteen reviews were inconclusive, and eight, including four of the 12 conclusive SRs, noted the lack of adequate reporting of potential adverse effects or incidence of harm.",
"Agreement regarding peer-review recommendations for publication in spine journals appears to be better than would be expected in the random situation; but still only \"slight.\" This suggests that review methodology varies considerably among reviewers and that further study should be undertaken to determine \"ideal\" agreement levels and ways to increase review consistency/quality commensurate with the editorial missions of the journals.",
"yes. The reported methodological quality of randomized controlled trials of physiotherapy interventions has improved over time. Further improvement is still necessary.",
"In the current study we performed an analysis of the currently used recommendations and gradations in evidence-based medicine and discussed them critically. The great number of the available divisions to evidence-based medicine are often technical and partially differ considerably. An unambiguous assignment of the evidence classes and of recommendation degrees can only succeed if the source is indicated clearly.",
"The authors' study illustrates a moderate improvement in the quality of these publications over the study period but much methodological improvement is required.",
"To examine the evidence base of sports medicine research and assess how relevant and applicable it is to everyday practice. Original research articles, short reports, and case reports published in four major sport and exercise medicine journals were studied and classified according to the main topic of study and type of subjects used. The most common topic was sports science, and very few studies related to the treatment of injuries and medical conditions. The majority of published articles used healthy subjects sampled from the sedentary population, and few studies have been carried out on injured participants.",
"To measure the effect of the peer review and editorial processes on the readability of original articles. Comparison of manuscripts before and after the peer review and editorial processes. Annals of Internal Medicine between March 1 and November 30, 1992. MANUSCRIPTS: One hundred one consecutive manuscripts reporting original research. Assessment of readability by means of two previously validated indexes: the Gunning fog index (units of readability in the fog index roughly correlate to years of education) and the Flesch reading ease score. Each manuscript was analyzed for readability and length on receipt and after it had passed through the peer review and editorial processes. Text and abstracts were analyzed similarly but separately. Mean readability scores were compared by two-tailed t tests for paired observations. Mean (+/- SD) initial readability scores of manuscripts and abstracts by the Gunning fog index were 17.16 +/- 1.55 and 16.65 +/- 2.80, respectively. At publication, scores were 16.85 +/- 1.42 and 15.64 +/- 2.42 (P = .0005 and P < .0001 for before-after differences, respectively). By comparison, studies of other print media showed scores of about 11 for the New York Times editorial page and about 18 for a typical legal contract. Similar changes were found for the Flesch scores. The median length of the manuscripts increased by 2.6% and that of the abstracts by 4.2% during the processes.",
"To evaluate whether completeness of reporting of systematic reviews and meta-analyses in major radiology journals has changed since publication of the Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses (PRISMA) statement; a secondary objective is to evaluate whether completeness of reporting (ie, PRISMA) is associated with study quality (ie, Assessing the Methodological Quality of Systematic Reviews [AMSTAR]). Systematic reviews and meta-analyses published in major radiology journals between January 2007 and December 2011 were identified by searching MEDLINE with the modified Montori method. Studies were reviewed independently by two investigators and assessed for adherence to the AMSTAR and PRISMA checklists. The average results were analyzed to assess for change in mean score before and after PRISMA publication and to assess results over time; a Pearson correlation coefficient was calculated to assess for any association between PRISMA and AMSTAR results. Included were 130 studies from 11 journals. Average PRISMA and AMSTAR results were 21.8 of 27 and 7.2 of 11, respectively. The average result was higher after publication of PRISMA, and PRISMA-reported items were 22.6 of 27 after publication of PRISMA versus 20.9 of 27 before publication of PRISMA; AMSTAR results were 7.7 of 11 after publication of PRISMA versus 6.7 of 11 before publication of PRISMA. There was a strong positive correlation (r = 0.86) between the PRISMA and AMSTAR results. There was high variability between journals. Radiology had the highest PRISMA reported items (24.7 of 27), and American Journal of Neuroradiology had the lowest (19.6 of 27). Two major areas for improvement include study protocol registration and assessment of risk of bias across studies (ie, publication bias).",
"To investigate whether training in writing for scholarly publication, journal editing, or manuscript peer review effectively improves educational outcomes related to the quality of health research reporting. We searched MEDLINE, Embase, ERIC, PsycINFO, and the Cochrane Library for comparative studies of formalized, a priori-developed training programs in writing for scholarly publication, journal editing, or manuscript peer review. Comparators included the following: (1) before and after administration of a training program, (2) between two or more training programs, or (3) between a training program and any other (or no) intervention(s). Outcomes included any measure of effectiveness of training. Eighteen reports of 17 studies were included. Twelve studies focused on writing for publication, five on peer review, and none fit our criteria for journal editing.",
"yes. The reporting of adverse events in the abstract and the reporting of results specified by crossover period in the full texts of journal publications on crossover pain trials should be improved.",
"To examine how changes in outcomes are reported in drug advertisements in medical journals. Advertisements from a convenience sample of 38 issues of Canadian Family Physician, Canadian Journal of Anaesthesia, Canadian Journal of Psychiatry, Canadian Medical Association Journal, and the New England Journal of Medicine. Method of reporting changes in clinical outcomes (relative risk reduction [RRR], absolute risk reduction [ARR], number needed to treat [NNT]), name of product, and company marketing product were sought. In the 22 advertisements included in the analysis, 11 reported results as RRRs; two reported results as RRRs, but readers could calculate ARRs or NNTs from figures given in the advertisement; and nine gave no measure of results, but readers could calculate RRRs, ARRs, or NNTs from figures given.",
"The aim of this study was to determine the association between the IF of surgery journals and the level of evidence of articles on therapeutic procedures published in these journals. A bibliometric study was performed. Journals listed in the 2002 ISI under the subject heading of Surgery were included. Journals were classified by applying the 33rd percentile of their IF (group 1 from 0.128 to 1.690, group 2 from 1.691 to 2.886, and group 3 from 2.887 to 6.674). Simple randomized sampling was conducted of journals in each group (group 1: Eur J Surg, Am Surg and World J Surg; group 2: J Am Coll Surg, Surgery and Arch Surg; and group 3: Br J Surg and Ann Surg). A crossover analysis was performed by 2 independent teams of reviewers. There were 751 article on therapy (41.2%). The mean IF was 1.66 +/- 0.48 for group 1, 2.61 +/- 0.15 for group 2, and 4.69 +/- 1.57 for group 3 (P<.001). There were 16 systematic reviews, 82 randomized clinical trials, 96 cohort studies, 474 case series and 79 review articles. Level 1 evidence was found in only 4.8% of the articles. Statistical differences were verified in 15.1% of the study sample, which was represented by systematic reviews and randomized clinical trials (most frequent in group 3 (P<.001).",
"Preparation of this supplement, Ten years of improvement innovation in cystic fibrosis care, tested a strategy to support writing and scholarly publication by cystic fibrosis (CF) healthcare improvement professionals. Critical elements of the writing initiative included: a request for abstracts that was distributed to over 2000 professionals in the Cystic Fibrosis Foundation-supported improvement community to identify promising work; continuous peer review of manuscripts by co-authors and writing tutors; three webinars and a 2-day face-to-face writing retreat that addressed the challenges of successful scholarly healthcare improvement writing and publication; and finally, journal submission and formal external peer review. The SQUIRE Publication Guidelines provided content framework for manuscripts. 47 abstracts were submitted from which reviewers selected nine for participation. The 28 co-authors of these abstracts took part in the writing initiative. Authors' self-assessment showed that half had previously published fewer than five papers, while 80% considered themselves insufficiently prepared to write for the scholarly improvement literature. Eventually all of the nine abstracts led to full manuscripts, which were submitted to the journal for formal peer review. Of these, seven were accepted for publication and are included in this supplement.",
"Academic medical researchers are judged by how often their publications are cited in the literature. When serving as journal reviewers, they may be more favorably disposed to manuscripts that cite their work. We investigate whether manuscripts that contain a citation to the reviewer's work receive higher evaluations than those that do not and whether peer reviewers encourage authors to cite that reviewer's work. We analyzed all research manuscripts submitted in 2012 to Annals of Emergency Medicine to determine whether they contained citations to each reviewer's work. To determine whether citation affected reviewer scores, we obtained each reviewer's score of the manuscript's overall desirability (1=worst to 5=best) and used descriptive statistics and regression modeling to compare scores of cited and noncited reviewers. We also enumerated how often reviewers suggested that authors add citations to the reviewer's work or other work. There were 395 manuscripts and 999 corresponding reviews with an manuscript desirability score. The 83 reviews by cited reviewers (8.3%) had a mean score of 2.8 (SD 1.4); the 916 reviews by noncited reviewers (91.7%), 2.5 (1.2; Δ=0.3; 95% confidence interval [CI] 0 to 0.6). The mean score in the 117 reviews of the noncited reviewers of the 57 manuscripts that had both cited and noncited reviewers was 2.9 (SD 1.2) compared with 2.9 (SD 1.1) for the 68 reviews by cited reviewers (Δ=0; 95% CI -0.3 to 0.4). In the final ordinal regression model, the unadjusted OR for the manuscript desirability score was 1.6 (95% CI 1.0 to 2.7); when adjusting for the manuscripts' mean desirability score, it was 1.4 (95% CI 0.8 to 2.2), demonstrating that manuscript quality was a confounder. Authors were asked to add a citation to the reviewer's work in 28 reviews (3%) but to others' work in 98 (10%).",
"Systematic Reviews (SRs) are an essential part of evidence-based medicine, providing support for clinical practice and policy on a wide range of medical topics. However, producing SRs is resource-intensive, and progress in the research they review leads to SRs becoming outdated, requiring updates. Although the question of how and when to update SRs has been studied, the best method for determining when to update is still unclear, necessitating further research. In this work we study the potential impact of a machine learning-based automated system for providing alerts when new publications become available within an SR topic. Some of these new publications are especially important, as they report findings that are more likely to initiate a review update. To this end, we have designed a classification algorithm to identify articles that are likely to be included in an SR update, along with an annotation scheme designed to identify the most important publications in a topic area. Using an SR database containing over 70,000 articles, we annotated articles from 9 topics that had received an update during the study period. The algorithm was then evaluated in terms of the overall correct and incorrect alert rate for publications meeting the topic inclusion criteria, as well as in terms of its ability to identify important, update-motivating publications in a topic area. Our initial approach, based on our previous work in topic-specific SR publication classification, identifies over 70% of the most important new publications, while maintaining a low overall alert rate.",
"A total of 20.8% of the articles published were case reports and 25.0% of the articles were prospective or clinical trials. Although randomized clinical trials and systematic reviews provide the highest level of evidence, publications with missing data limit replication of the study and affect the generalizability of results to other populations. To improve the quality of our publications, authors, reviewers, and journal editors should consider the endorsement of standardize checklists.",
"yes. In two small trials, we found that inclusion of an SoF table in a review improved understanding and rapid retrieval of key findings compared with reviews with no SoF table.",
"Despite an increase in the proportion of qualitative research in medical journals over a 10 year period, the proportion remains low. Journals' policies pertaining to qualitative research, as expressed by the appearance of specific guidelines and editorials/methodological papers on the subject, are independently associated with the publication of original qualitative research; irrespective of the journals' impact factor.",
"Although published abstracts have the advantage of being prominent and concise, their quality in the otolaryngology literature has not been studied. We sought to understand the limitations of relying on abstracts as the sole source of information about published research. In addition, we sought to identify specific opportunities for improving the quality of published articles and their associated abstracts. Studies of original research published in four major otolaryngology journals from January 2008 to June 2008 were included. Each study article and abstract was reviewed separately for 12 domains relating to study design, results, and conclusions. Good inter-rater reliability was established as part of the validation process. Four hundred eighteen articles were identified for study, which included 75 percent clinical research and 25 percent basic science. The most common omissions in the abstract when compared with the complete article were study limitations (91% left out of abstract), geographic location (79%), confidence intervals (75%), dropouts or losses (62%), and harms and adverse events (44%). Conversely, the abstract often included information about research design (99%), sample size (92%), source of the data (81%), and quantitative results (67%). These results did not differ significantly with regard to article type, journal, or level of evidence.",
"Our re-examination of the results and conclusions of the meta-analysis illustrates our concerns about the validity of meta-analyses based primarily on quasi-experimental studies. Our tentative conclusion is that the field of medical education might be better served in most instances by systematic narrative reviews that describe and critically evaluate individual studies and their results in light of threats to their validity.",
"yes. This integrative review has outlined potential for achieving practice improvements in intensive care and highlighted the need for further evaluative research to improve patient care at the bedside.",
"The overall quality of Cochrane SRs is fair-to-good. Although reporting quality improved on certain individual items there was no overall improvement seen with updating and methodological quality remained unchanged. Further improvement of quality of reporting is possible. There is room for improvement of methodological quality as well. Authors updating reviews should address identified methodological or reporting weaknesses. We recommend to give full attention to both quality domains when updating SRs.",
"Systematic reviews (SRs) must be of high quality. The purpose of our research was to compare the methodological and reporting quality of original versus updated Cochrane SRs to determine whether updating had improved these two quality dimensions. We identified updated Cochrane SRs published in issue 4, 2002 of the Cochrane Library. We assessed the updated and original versions of the SRs using two instruments: the 10 item enhanced Overview Quality Assessment Questionnaire (OQAQ), and an 18-item reporting quality checklist and flow chart based upon the Quality of Reporting of Meta-analyses (QUOROM) statement. At least two reviewers extracted data and assessed quality. We calculated the percentage (with a 95% confidence interval) of 'yes' answers to each question. We calculated mean differences in percentage, 95% confidence intervals and p-values for each of the individual items and the overall methodological quality score of the updated and pre-updated versions using OQAQ. We assessed 53 SRs. There was no significant improvement in the global quality score of the OQAQ (mean difference 0.11 (-0.28; 0.70 p = 0.52)). Updated reviews showed a significant improvement of 18.9 (7.2; 30.6 p<.01) on the OQAQ item assessing whether the conclusions drawn by the author(s) were supported by the data and/or analysis presented in the SR. The QUOROM statement showed that the quality of reporting of Cochrane reviews improved in some areas with updating. Improvements were seen on the items relating to data sources reported in the abstract, with a significant difference of 17.0 (9.8; 28.7 p = 0.01), review methods, reported in the abstract 35 (24.1; 49.1 p = 0.00), searching methods 18.9 (9.7; 31.6 p = 0.01), and data abstraction 18.9 (11.7; 30.9 p = 0.00).",
"yes. Most of the systematic reviews published by the Cochrane Skin Group provide useful information to improve clinical practice. Clinicians should read these reviews and reconsider their current practice.",
"Guidelines published in the peer-reviewed medical literature during the past decade do not adhere well to established methodological standards. While all areas of guideline development need improvement, greatest improvement is needed in the identification, evaluation, and synthesis of the scientific evidence.",
"Criteria for methodological quality have been widely accepted in many fields of surgical practice. These criteria include those of Velanovich and Gill and Feinstein. No such analysis of the spine surgery literature has ever been reported. This study is a systematic review of the quality of life (QOL) publications to determine if the recent interest in QOL measurements following spinal surgery has been accompanied by an improvement in the quality of the papers published. The archives of the journals Journal of Neurosurgery: Spine, Spine, Journal of Spinal Disorders&Techniques, European Spine Journal, and The Spine Journal, for the years 2000-2004 inclusive, were examined, and all publications reporting QOL outcomes were analyzed. Each paper was scored according to the criteria of Velanovich and Gill and Feinstein, and the methodological quality of these manuscripts-and any time-dependent changes-were determined. During the study period, the total number of articles published increased by 36%, while the number of QOL articles increased by 102%. According to the criteria of Velanovich, there was a statistically significant improvement in the quality of the publications over the study period (p = 0.0394). In 2000, only 27% of outcome measures were disease specific, 77% were valid, and 77% were appropriate for the study design. In 2004, 43% were disease specific, 88% were valid, and 89% were appropriate. In 2000, 53% of studies used appropriate statistical analysis compared with 100 and 96% for 2003 and 2004, respectively. There was no demonstrable improvement in the fulfillment of the more rigorous Gill and Feinstein criteria for any of the 5 journals over the period of the study.",
"The application of evidence-based medicine (EBM) to the practice of hand surgery has been limited. Production of high-quality research is an integral component of EBM. With considerable improvements in the quality evidence in both orthopedic and plastic and reconstructive surgery, it is imperative that hand surgery research emulates this trend. A systematic review was performed on all hand surgery articles published in 6 journals over a 20-year period. The journals included Plastic and Reconstruction Surgery, Journal of Plastic, Reconstructive and Aesthetic Surgery, Journal of Hand Surgery-European Volume, Journal of Hand Surgery-American Volume, Journal of Bone & Joint Surgery, and the Bone & Joint Journal. The level of evidence of each article was determined using the Oxford level of evidence. The quality of methodology of randomized controlled trials (RCTs) was assessed using Jadad scale. Statistical analysis involved chi-squares and Student t test (P < .05). A total of 972 original hand surgery research articles were reviewed. There was a significant increase in the average level of evidence of articles published between1993 and 2013. High-quality evidence only accounted for 11.2% of evidence published, with a significant increase over the study period (P = 0.001). Quantitative evaluation of the 26 published RCTs, using Jadad scale, revealed a progressive improvement in study design from 0.3 in 1993 to 3.33 in 2013.",
"There is a view that the present BJGP is not relevant to the non-academic GP. This is probably due to style rather than content. Simple comparisons with a weekly multi-disciplinary journal may not be valid. The style could be updated to improve retention of information and to highlight areas of particular relevance. Readers are satisfied with the core content of the BJGP but want it to expand to include humour, clinical reviews and medical politics, for example. There is no evidence that the BJGP is more appealing to the academic GP. This study supports an expanded BJGP with an improved style.",
"Several studies indicate that the statistical education model and level in medical training fails to meet the demands of clinicians, especially when they want to understand published clinical research. We investigated how study designs and statistical methods in clinical studies have changed in the last twenty years, and we identified the current trends in study designs and statistical methods in clinical studies. We reviewed 838 eligible clinical study articles that were published in 1990, 2000, and 2010 in four journals New England Journal of Medicine, Lancet, Journal of the American Medical Association and Nature Medicine. The study types, study designs, sample designs, data quality controls, statistical methods and statistical software were examined. Substantial changes occurred in the past twenty years. The majority of the studies focused on drug trials (61.6%, n = 516). In 1990, 2000, and 2010, there was an incremental increase in RCT studies (74.4%, 82.8%, and 84.0%, respectively, p = 0.013). Over time, there was increased attention on the details of selecting a sample and controlling bias, and there was a higher frequency of utilizing complex statistical methods. In 2010, the most common statistical methods were confidence interval for superiority and non-inferiority comparison (41.6%), survival analysis (28.5%), correction analysis for covariates (18.8%) and Logistic regression (15.3%).",
"yes. The levels of evidence for primary journal articles cited on the OITE for questions within the musculoskeletal trauma content domain have increased between 1995 and 2012. Our analysis can be used as a guide to help examinees prepare for musculoskeletal trauma questions on the OITE and as an aid in core curriculum development.",
"Reports of clinical trials often lack adequate descriptions of their design and analysis. Thus readers cannot properly assess the strength of the findings and are limited in their ability to draw their own conclusions. A review of 6 surgical journals in 1984 revealed that the frequency of reporting 11 basic elements of design and analysis in clinical trials was only 59%. This study attempted to identify areas that still need improvement. Eligible studies published from July 1995 through June 1996 included all reports of comparative clinical trials on human subjects that were prospective and had at least 2 treatment arms. A total of 68 articles published in 6 general surgery journals were reviewed. The frequency that the previously identified 11 basic elements of design and analysis were reported was determined. Seventy-four percent of all items were reported accurately (a 15% increase from the previous study), 4% were reported ambiguously, and 23% were not reported; improvement was seen in every journal. The reporting of eligibility criteria and statistical power improved the most. For 3 items, reporting was still not adequate; 32% of reports provided information about statistical power, 40% about the method of randomization, and 49% about whether the person assessing outcomes was blind to the treatment assignment.",
"yes. Some improvements in searching systematic reviews of adverse effects are apparent; however, poor reporting of search strategies remains a great obstacle to readers.",
"yes. These data do not support the hypothesis that the less favorable review outcomes for clinical applications are related to these review factors. We suggest that peer review outcomes for clinical research will benefit from the recent refinement of NIH review criteria, emphasizing the unique contributions of clinical investigation, and from increased training opportunities for clinical investigators.",
"yes. Included studies were generally small and inconclusive regarding the effects of training of authors, peer reviewers, and editors on educational outcomes related to improving the quality of health research. Studies were also of questionable validity and susceptible to misinterpretation because of their risk of bias. This review highlights the gaps in our knowledge of how to enhance and ensure the scientific quality of research output for authors, peer reviewers, and journal editors.",
"Improvements have been made in reporting surgical clinical trials, but in general methodologic questions poorly answered in the 1980s continue to be answered poorly in the 1990s. Editors of surgical journals are urged to provide authors with guidelines on how to report clinical trial design and analysis.",
"The focus on evidence-based medicine has led to calls for increased levels of evidence in surgical journals. The purpose of the present study was to review the levels of evidence in articles published in the foot and ankle literature and to assess changes in the level of evidence over a decade. All of the articles in the literature from the years 2000, 2005, and 2010 in Foot&Ankle International and Foot and Ankle Surgery, as well as all foot and ankle articles from The Journal of Bone and Joint Surgery (JBJS, American [A] and British [B]Volumes) were analyzed. Animal, cadaver, and basic science articles; editorials; surveys; special topics; letters to the editor; and correspondence were excluded. Articles were ranked by a five-point level-of-evidence scale, according to guidelines from the Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine. A total of 720 articles from forty-three different countries were analyzed. The kappa value for interobserver reliability showed very good agreement between the reviewers for types of evidence (κ = 0.816 [p< 0.01]) and excellent agreement for levels of evidence (κ = 0.869 [p< 0.01]). Between 2000 and 2010, the percentage of high levels of evidence (Levels I and II) increased (5.2% to 10.3%) and low levels of evidence (Levels III, IV, and V) decreased (94.8% to 89.7%). The most frequent type of study was therapeutic. The JBJS-A produced the highest proportion of high levels of evidence.",
"The current policy imperative for implementing medicines review needs to be reconsidered in the light of the findings of this study: a small, non significant gain in quality of life, no reduction in hospital admissions and a low probability of cost effectiveness.",
"Quality of publications is considered a subjective measurement, and more weight is placed on prospective studies, especially randomized clinical trials and meta-analyses. This study describes the type of publications and evaluates the quality of randomized clinical trials and review articles using an objective measurement. Medline (PubMed) is the data source for this work. We used the terms \"rectal neoplasms/surgery\" and the filters \"10 years,\" \"humans,\" and \"English.\" We measured compliance with checklist items. Randomized clinical trials were reviewed using the Consolidates Standards of Reporting Trials statement; systematic reviews/meta-analyses were reviewed using the Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses statement. A total of 3603 articles were identified: 20.8% were case report/series, 20.5% were retrospective cohorts, 14.0% were reviews or meta-analyses, 16.4% were prospective cohorts, 14.0% were other types of articles (comments, letters, or editorials), 5.5% were clinical trials (phase I/II), 4.2% were randomized clinical trials, and 4.4% were cross-sectional studies. We reviewed 108 randomized clinical trials; the maximum score possible was 74.0, the average score was 44.6 (range, 20.0-64.0), 4 (3.7%) were graded as \"excellent,\" 21 (19.4%) were \"good,\" 44 (40.7%) were \"deficient,\" and 39 (36.1%) were graded as \"fail.\" The predictors of higher scores for randomized clinical trials were year of publication after 2007 (p = 0.00), higher impact factor (p = 0.03), and declared funding (p = 0.01). Twenty-nine meta-analyses were reviewed; the average score was 19.64 (range, 12.0-25.0); 5 articles (17.2%) were graded as \"excellent,\" 12 (41.4%) were \"good,\" 10 (34.5%) were \"deficient,\" and 2 (6.9%) were \"fail.\" Only 1 electronic database was used, so we lacked a validated score. In addition, the search terms did not include \"colorectal.\"",
"yes. In the light of all data records and satisfaction sheets, the IQM peer review has become well-established over the last five years. Possible reasons are a well-defined framework, clear structures and different kinds of support. The success of the cooperation of the German Medical Association and IQM is illustrated by the development of the curriculum peer review. Re-reviews provide impulses for sustainability. At any rate, there is a need for scientific evaluation of the peer review method in order to generate evidence for this important tool of quality improvement.",
"yes. At present, little empirical evidence is available to support the use of editorial peer review as a mechanism to ensure quality of biomedical research. The methodological problems in studying peer review are many and complex. At present, the absence of evidence on efficacy and effectiveness cannot be interpreted as evidence of their absence. A large, well-funded programme of research on the effects of editorial peer review should be launched urgently.",
"yes. The peer review and editorial processes slightly improved the readability of original articles and their abstracts, but both remained difficult to read at publication. Better readability scores may improve readership.",
"The purpose of this study was to collect the opinions of a cross section of published authors on current practices concerning peer review in biomedical publishing. A questionnaire on various aspects of peer review was emailed to authors, whose manuscripts were published in Gut or the British Journal of Surgery between 2001 and 2006. Authors were asked to base their responses on their overall experience with peer review in biomedical literature and not with that one particular journal. Most respondents felt that peer review is an effective quality control mechanism and does help improve manuscripts. Although some felt that it may cause delays in publication, lead to some research being lost and may not prevent all research-related fraud, most authors felt that there was still a strong role for the peer review process as it exists today.",
"The validity of a review depends on its methodologic quality. To determine the methodologic quality of recently published review articles. Critical appraisal. All reviews of clinical topics published in six general medical journals in 1996. Explicit criteria that have been published and validated were used. Of 158 review articles, only 2 satisfied all 10 methodologic criteria (median number of criteria satisfied, 1). Less than a quarter of the articles described how evidence was identified, evaluated, or integrated; 34% addressed a focused clinical question; and 39% identified gaps in existing knowledge. Of the 111 reviews that made treatment recommendations, 48% provided an estimate of the magnitude of potential benefits (and 34%, the potential adverse effects) of the treatment options, 45% cited randomized clinical trials to support their recommendations, and only 6% made any reference to costs.",
"Studies were identified using the following sources: CINAHL (Cumulative Index to nursing and Allied Health Literature), Cochrane Methodology Register, Dissertation Abstracts, Embase, Evidence-based Medicine Reviews, American College of Physicians Journal Club, Medline, PsycINFO and PubMed. Prospective or retrospective comparative studies were included that had two or more comparison groups, generated by random or other appropriate methods, and that reported original research, regardless of publication status. Because of the variety of study designs, unit of randomisation and outcome measures, a descriptive review was carried out. Twenty-eight studies were included. There was no clear-cut evidence of effect of the well-researched practice of reviewer and/ or author concealment on the outcome of the quality assessment process (nine studies). Checklists and other standardisation media have some evidence to support their use (two studies). There is no evidence that referees' training has any effect on the quality of the outcome (one study). Different methods of communicating with reviewers and means of dissemination do not appear to have an effect on quality (three studies). On the basis of one study, little can be said about the ability of the peer-review process to detect bias against unconventional drugs. Validity of peer review was tested by only one small study in a specialist area. Editorial peer review appears to make papers more readable and improve the general quality of reporting (two studies), but the evidence for this has very limited generalisability.",
"yes. The laboratory and the clinical studies until 2011 were summarized in a review published in this journal. An update of the new studies and knowledge from 2011 to March 2015 focuses on new ways to overcome its low bioavailability and data from clinical trials.",
"The electronic version of the British Medical Journal (eBMJ) has a unique feature in that it provides an electronic record of the number of times an article has been viewed (\"hits\") in the week after its publication. We sought to compare the relative popularity of primary research and \"evidence-based\" papers against that of narrative reviews and editorials. We surveyed four broad groupings of articles in 2001: Editorials, Clinical Reviews (which are narrative reviews), Education and Debate, and Papers (which are original research articles and systematic reviews). Clinical Reviews were the most frequently viewed articles, with an average of 4148 hits per article, while Papers were less popular (average of 1168 hits per article). Systematic reviews (23 articles, average of 1190 hits per article) were visited far less often than narrative reviews. Editorials (average of 2537 hits per article) were viewed much more frequently than Papers, even where the editorial was written as an accompanying piece with a direct link to the paper. Narrative reviews and editorials are accessed more frequently than primary research papers or systematic reviews in the first week after their publication. These findings may disappoint those who believe that it is important for readers to critically appraise the primary research data. Although the technical quality of journal articles may have been helped by recommendations on structured reporting, the readability of such articles has received little attention. Authors and journal editors must take steps to make research articles and systematic reviews more attractive to readers. This may involve using simpler language, as well as innovative use of web resources to produce shorter, snappier papers, with the methodological or technical details made available elsewhere.",
"Results were comparable with previous studies. Care in a medical admissions unit in 2008 is still evidence-based, but, despite the vast growth in medical literature, no more than it was. The process was a useful collaboration between medical and library staff to audit the quality of patient care.",
"In major radiology journal studies, there was modest improvement in completeness of reporting of systematic reviews and meta-analyses, assessed by PRISMA, which was strongly associated with higher study quality, assessed by AMSTAR."
] | 717 |
Does a glass of red wine improve endothelial function? | [
"To examine the acute effect of red wine and de-alcoholized red wine on endothelial function. High frequency ultrasound was used to measure blood flow and percentage brachial artery dilatation after reactive hyperaemia induced by forearm cuff occlusion in 12 healthy subjects, less than 40 years of age, without known cardiovascular risk factors. The subjects drank 250 ml of red wine with or without alcohol over 10 min according to a randomized procedure. Brachial artery dilatation was measured again 30 and 60 min after the subjects had finished drinking. The subjects were studied a second time within a week of the first study in a cross-over design. After the red wine with alcohol the resting brachial artery diameter, resting blood flow, heart rate and plasma-ethanol increased significantly. After the de-alcoholized red wine these parameters were unchanged. Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery was significantly higher (P<0.05) after drinking de-alcoholized red wine (5.6+/-3.2%) than after drinking red wine with alcohol (3.6+/-2.2%) and before drinking (3.9+/-2.5%).",
"After ingestion of red wine with alcohol the brachial artery dilated and the blood flow increased. These changes were not observed following the de-alcoholized red wine and were thus attributable to ethanol. These haemodynamic changes may have concealed an effect on flow-mediated brachial artery dilatation which did not increase after drinking red wine with alcohol. Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery increased significantly after de-alcoholized red wine and this finding may support the hypothesis that antioxidant qualities of red wine, rather than ethanol in itself, may protect against cardiovascular disease."
] | [
"Previous trials suggest that oral l-arginine administration affects endothelial function. However, most of these studies were small, the conclusions were inconsistent, and the precise effects are therefore debatable. The objective was to assess the effect of oral l-arginine supplementation on endothelial function, as measured with the use of fasting flow-mediated dilation (FMD). We conducted a meta-analysis of randomized, placebo-controlled l-arginine supplementation trials that evaluated endothelial function. Trials were identified in PubMed, Cochrane Library, Embase, reviews, and reference lists of relevant papers. The weighted mean difference (WMD) was calculated for net changes in FMD by using random-effect models. Previously defined subgroup analyses and meta-regression analyses were performed to explore the influence of study characteristics. Thirteen trials were included and evaluated. Because there was only one long-term study, we focused on short-term effects of l-arginine (12 studies, 492 participants). In an overall pooled estimate, l-arginine significantly increased FMD (WMD: 1.98%; 95% CI: 0.47, 3.48; P = 0.01). Meta-regression analysis indicated that the baseline FMD was inversely related to effect size (regression coefficient = -0.55; 95% CI: -1.00, -0.1; P = 0.016). A subgroup analysis suggested that l-arginine supplementation significantly increased FMD when the baseline FMD levels were <7% (WMD: 2.56%; 95% CI: 0.87, 4.25; P = 0.003), but had no effect on FMD when baseline FMD was >7% (WMD: -0.27%; 95% CI: -1.52, 0.97; P = 0.67).",
"yes. Long-term oral L-arginine supplementation for 6 months in humans improves coronary small-vessel endothelial function in association with a significant improvement in symptoms and a decrease in plasma endothelin concentrations. This study proposes a role for L-arginine as a therapeutic option for patients with coronary endothelial dysfunction and nonobstructive coronary artery disease.",
"To test the effect of a standardized red wine polyphenolic extract (RWPE) on the phenotype of human liver myofibroblasts in culture. Human myofibroblasts grown from liver explants were used in this study. Cell proliferation was measured with the 3-(4,5-dimethylthiazol-2-yl)-2,5 diphenyltetrazolium bromide (MTT) assay. Signaling events were analyzed by western blot with phospho-specific antibodies. Matrix-metalloproteinase activity was measured with gel zymography. We found that cell proliferation was dose-dependently decreased by up to 90% by RWPE while cell viability was not affected. Exposure to RWPE also greatly decreased the phosphorylation of ERK1/ERK2 and Akt in response to stimulation by the mitogenic factor platelet-derived growth factor BB (PDGF-BB). Finally, RWPE affected extracellular matrix remodeling by decreasing the secretion by myofibroblasts of matrix-metalloproteinase-2 and of tissue inhibitor of matrix-metalloproteinases-1.",
"Regular consumption of small amounts of red wine improves blood lipids. However, there is concern whether this beneficial effect might be counterbalanced by an increase in blood pressure (BP) and heart rate (HR), which are risk factors for cerebro-cardiovascular disease. In particular, we studied whether regular consumption of red wine with and without lifestyle changes (LC; healthy diet and physical activity advice) results in an increase in BP and HR. A prospective, unblinded randomized trial was performed in 108 patients (67% men) with carotid atherosclerosis documented by ultrasound, a mean BP of 122/79 mm Hg and a mean HR of 71 bpm at inclusion in the study. Sixty-eight percent were known and treated hypertensives. The mean 24-hour BP at baseline was 122/79 mm Hg. Half of the study participants, the control group, was seen by a nurse at baseline, after 4 and after 20 weeks, and was instructed not to change their eating and physical activity habits. In the other half, a dietician performed five sessions of 30 min each (at baseline, after 1 week and after 2, 3 and 4 weeks) giving advice on healthy eating based on a Mediterranean diet and physical exercise. The recommendations given were the following: 5 portions of fruit/vegetables per day, a diet low in absolute fat, a preference of vegetable oil (olive or rapeseed oil), whole-grain products, poultry, low-fat dairy products, 1 fat and 1 lean fish meal per week, reduced consumption of red meat, and avoidance of pork, ready-made meals, sugar and excessive salt intake. In addition, regular consumption of 1 bar of dark chocolate (25 g, >70% of cacao), 1-2 tomatoes, and 3-5 walnuts as well as at least 30 min of moderate daily physical activity were recommended. Within these two groups, half of the patients were randomized either to avoid alcohol completely or to drink 100 ml (women) or 200 ml of red wine (men) daily. Neither LC nor red wine had an effect on the mean systolic and diastolic 24-hour BP and HR after 4 and 20 weeks, as analyzed by general linear modeling. No difference was found for diurnal and nocturnal values.",
"yes. Acute resveratrol consumption increased plasma resveratrol concentrations and FMD in a dose-related manner. This effect may contribute to the purported cardiovascular health benefits of grapes and red wine.",
"yes. This trial confirmed the effective and safe use of dietary management with L-arginine in combination with B vitamins. The primary efficacy analysis demonstrated a statistically significant superiority of the combination of L-arginine with B vitamins over placebo in improving and restoring impaired endothelial function and lowering BP in patients with mild to moderate blood pressure elevation.",
"yes. Sustained improvements in endothelial dysfunction by regular dietary intake of flavanols are associated with mobilization of functional CACs. (Effect of Cocoa Flavanols on Vascular Function in Optimally Treated Coronary Artery Disease Patients: Interaction Between Endothelial Progenitor Cells, Reactivity of Micro- and Macrocirculation; NCT00553774).",
"yes. Folic acid significantly improves endothelial function in otherwise healthy cigarette smokers. This provides a potential therapeutic tool in attenuating the atheromatous process in this group.",
"To explore the association between alcohol consumption and the severity of diabetic retinopathy (DR). In this cross-sectional study, patients with type 2 diabetes answered questions on consumption of low and full-strength beer, white wine/champagne, red wine, fortified wines, and spirits. Never, moderate and high consumption of each alcoholic beverage, and overall alcoholic beverage consumption, were defined as <1, 1-14 and >14 standard drinks/week, respectively. DR was categorized into none; non vision-threatening DR (VTDR) and VTDR. Multivariable logistic regression determined the associations between alcohol consumption and DR. Of the 395 participants (mean age±SD [standard deviation] 65.9±10.4years; males=253), 188 (47.6%) consumed alcohol and 235 (59.5%) had any DR. Compared to no alcohol consumption, moderate alcohol consumption (overall) was significantly associated with reduced odds of any DR (OR=0.47, 95% CI [confidence interval] 0.26-0.85). Moderate consumption of white wine/champagne or fortified wine was also associated with reduced odds of any DR (OR=0.48, 95% CI 0.25-0.91, and OR=0.15, 95% CI 0.04-0.62, respectively). Similar results were observed for non-VTDR and VTDR.",
"yes. These findings may explain the beneficial effect of arginase inhibition and L-arginine supplement on endothelial dysfunction under redox imbalance-dependent pathophysiological conditions.",
"yes. Folic acid supplementation improves arterial endothelial function in adults with relative hyperhomocystinemia, with potentially beneficial effects on the atherosclerotic process.",
"yes. HDL particles containing PEth affect endothelial cells by MAPK and PKC signaling. This may mediate the effects of ethanol on the arterial wall by increasing VEGF secretion from endothelial vascular cells. That may explain, at least in part, the beneficial effect of moderate alcohol consumption on atherosclerosis.",
"yes. Close adherence to a Mediterranean-style diet achieved by close dietetic supervision improves endothelial function in subjects with AO.",
"Red wine polyphenols have been reported to possess beneficial properties for preventing cardiovascular diseases but their effects on hemodynamic and functional cardiovascular changes during inhibition of nitric oxide (NO) synthesis have not been elucidated. The effects of the red wine polyphenols, Provinols, on arterial hypertension as well as left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy, myocardial fibrosis and vascular remodeling were investigated in rats during chronic inhibition of nitric oxide synthase (NOS) activity. Rats were divided into four groups: a control group, a group treated with N-nitro-L-arginine methyl ester (L-NAME) (40 mg/kg per day), a group receiving Provinols (40 mg/kg per day) alone or Provinols plus L-NAME. Provinols markedly reduced the increase in both blood pressure and protein synthesis in the heart and aorta caused by chronic inhibition of NO synthesis. Provinols reduced myocardial fibrosis even though it did not affect LV hypertrophy. In addition, Provinols prevented aortic thickening and corrected the augmented reactivity of the aorta to norepinephrine and the attenuated endothelium-dependent relaxation to acetylcholine in NO-deficient rats. These alterations were associated with an increase of NOS activity, a moderate enhancement of endothelial NOS expression and a reduction of oxidative stress in the LV and aorta.",
"Considerable evidence suggests that hyperhomocysteinemia is an independent vascular risk factor that promotes atherosclerosis by inducing endothelial dysfunction. Although folic acid reduces hyperhomocysteinemia, the effect on adverse vascular events is unknown. We hypothesized that in patients with chronic renal failure, a condition associated with both hyperhomocysteinemia and atherosclerosis, treatment with folic acid would improve endothelial function. In a prospective, double-blind protocol, 100 patients (mean age 62 years, 67 men) with predialysis chronic renal failure were randomized to 5 mg folic acid or placebo daily for 12 weeks. Endothelial function was assessed by measuring (1) endothelium-dependent dilation of the brachial artery, (2) combined serum nitrite/nitrate concentrations, and (3) plasma von Willebrand factor concentration. Baseline characteristics of the 2 groups were similar. At the end of the study, both serum and red cell folate concentrations were greater in the folic acid group than the placebo group [mean (95% CI) 39.0 (29.8 to 51.0) versus 7.7 (6.6 to 8.9) microg/L and 739 (613 to 891) versus 220 (184 to 262) microg/L, respectively; both P<0.001]. Despite a reduction in hyperhomocysteinemia in the folic acid group compared with the placebo group [15.1 (14.1 to 16.2) versus 20.1 (18.2 to 22.2) micromol/L; P<0.001], there were no significant differences in endothelium-dependent dilation, combined serum nitrite/nitrate concentrations, or plasma von Willebrand factor concentration between the 2 groups.",
"yes. Our results indicate that RSV, a major polyphenol found in red wine, exerts protection against acrolein-induced cytotoxicity in human ARPE-19 cells via increases in the mitochondrial bioenergetics. In addition, the antioxidant effect of RSV may contribute to protection against laser-induced CNV in animals exposed to CS. Therefore, RSV might be beneficial for treatment of acrolein-induced or CS-evoked RPE degeneration.",
"yes. These data indicate that flavonoids inhibit platelet function by blunting hydrogen peroxide production and, in turn, phospholipase C activation and suggest that the synergism among flavonoids could contribute to an understanding of the relation between the moderate consumption of red wine and the decreased risk of cardiovascular disease.",
"yes. These results suggest that resveratrol requires red wine polyphenols for optimum antioxidant activity.",
"yes. In vivo and in vitro activation of VDR with calcitriol improves endothelial function by normalizing the expressions of AT(1)R and radical generating and scavenging enzymes and thus preventing ROS over-production. The present findings suggest that calcitriol is effective in preserving endothelial function in hypertension.",
"no. Neither ethanol nor red wine polyphenols reduced mature atherosclerosis or changed the content of collagen in plaques in apolipoprotein E-deficient mice.",
"A Mediterranean diet, with and without small daily amounts of red wine, and physical activity reduce the risk of cerebrovascular disease and improve cognition. An increase in cerebral blood flow may be the underlying mechanism. Under normal conditions, cerebral blood flow velocity changes in the internal carotid arteries and in large basal cerebral arteries correlate closely with cerebral blood flow changes, as the diameter of these vessels hardly changes and only the smaller vessels downstream change their diameter. A prospective randomized controlled trial was performed in 108 patients with carotid atherosclerosis (mean age 64 years, 67% men, 66% on statin therapy). Half of them were advised to follow a polyphenol-rich modified Mediterranean diet including 1-2 tomatoes, 3-5 walnuts and a bar of dark chocolate (25 g) a day and to perform moderate physical exercise for 30 min/day (lifestyle changes). Within these two groups, half of the patients were randomized either to avoid any alcohol or to drink 100 ml of red wine (women) or 200 ml of red wine (men) daily. Bilateral middle cerebral and internal carotid blood flow velocity (peak systolic, peak end-diastolic and mean) was measured at baseline and after 4 and 20 weeks using colour-coded duplex ultrasound. Insonation depth and insonation angle were used to identically place the sample volume during follow-up investigations. A general linear model with Tukey-Kramer adjustment for multiple comparisons was used to assess the primary end points. For the analysis we used the mean values of the right and left artery. Neither lifestyle changes nor red wine had an effect on peak systolic, peak end-diastolic or mean cerebral blood flow velocity.",
"yes. Resveratrol increases endothelial NO production to improve endothelial dysfunction and lowers BP in hypertensive rats, which depends on calcium-eNOS activation.",
"yes. Short-term oral folic acid supplementation significantly enhances endothelial function in type 2 diabetic patients, independent of homocysteine lowering.",
"Oxidative stress has been advocated as a major cause for cardiovascular disease (CVD), and low plasma antioxidant concentrations are associated with endothelial dysfunction, the first step towards atherosclerosis. However, although the antioxidant content in fruits and vegetables may explain at least in part their protective effect against CVD, supplementation with antioxidant vitamins fails to improve endothelial function and reduce CVD risk. The aim of this study was to investigate the impact of a diet rich in antioxidants on endothelial function measured by flow-mediated dilatation (FMD) in volunteers at low cardiovascular risk. In a crossover trial, 24 subjects (13 women, mean age 61 ± 3 years), received, in a randomised order, a 14-day high (HT) and a 14-day low (LT) antioxidant diets, with a 2-week wash-out (WO) in between. Both diets were comparable in daily portions of fruits and vegetables, and in alcohol, fibre and macronutrient intake, but differed in their total antioxidant capacity. Before and after each diet, anthropometrics, blood pressure, fasting plasma glucose, lipid profile, hepatic enzymes, circulating antioxidant concentrations, high sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) and FMD were assessed. FMD increased significantly during the HT diet compared to the LT (p < 0.000). FMD values were 2.3% higher after HT compared with LT (p < 0.001) after adjustment for age, gender and diet order. α-tocopherol increased significantly (p < 0.05) and hs-CRP and of γ-glutamyltranspeptidase decreased significantly (p < 0.05 and p < 0.01, respectively) during the HT diet, compared with the LT diet.",
"Oxidative stress dependent-decrease in nitric oxide (NO) bioavailability plays an integral role in hypercholesterolemia-induced erectile dysfunction (ED). Resveratrol has been demonstrated to exert beneficial effects against oxidative stress and improve NO bioavailability. The protective and restorative potentials of resveratrol on endothelium-dependent relaxations were evaluated in hypercholesterolemic rabbit corpus cavernosum (CC). Hypercholesterolemia was induced by administering 2% cholesterol diet (CD) (w/w) to the rabbits for 6 weeks. Two different protocols were applied to test the effects of resveratrol on hypercholesterolemia-induced ED. In Protocol-1 (P1), resveratrol was administrated to the rabbits simultaneously with CD in order to evaluate the protective effect, and for Protocol-2 (P2), resveratrol was administrated for 6 weeks after termination of CD in order to evaluate the restorative effect. Endothelium-dependent relaxations of CC were evaluated by using organ bath studies. In order to elucidate the possible molecular mechanisms, we measured endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) and phosphovasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (VASP) expressions and activations, NADPH oxidase, superoxide dismutase (SOD), and catalase (CAT) and glutathione peroxidase (GPx) activity in cavernosal tissues obtained at the end of the study. Resveratrol showed an improvement in the endothelium-dependent relaxation responses in vitro. We demonstrated significantly increased activatory-phosphorylation (p[S1177]-eNOS) and activated phosphovasodilator-stimulated phosphoprotein (phospho-VASP) levels, but reduced phosphorylation (p[T495]-eNOS) of eNOS and NADPH oxidase activity in the resveratrol-administered HC animals compared with hypercholesterolemic control rabbits in the P1. In the P2, resveratrol exhibited an improvement in endothelium-dependent relaxation responses and more pronounced effects on eNOS activation.",
"yes. The finding that regular moderate intake of red wine is associated with higher FSFI scores for both sexual desire, lubrication, and overall sexual function as compared to the teetotaller status is intriguing. While this finding needs to be interpreted with some caution, because of the small sample size, self-reported data, and the lack of support from laboratory exams, it nevertheless suggests a potential relationship between red wine consumption and better sexuality.",
"yes. Moderate wine consumption is associated with decreased odds of developing AMD. Health promotion and disease prevention activities directed at cardiovascular disease may help reduce the rate of AMD-associated blindness among older people. The nature and pathophysiology of this association warrant further investigation.",
"Epidemiological data suggest that modest red wine consumption may reduce cardiovascular disease risk. Red wine polyphenols improved human endothelial vascular function and reduced blood pressure (BP) in animal studies, but the results of human intervention studies investigating the effect of red wine polyphenols on BP are inconsistent. The objective was to investigate whether polyphenols extracted from red wine reduce peripheral and central BP in subjects with high-normal BP or grade 1 hypertension. In a double-blind, placebo-controlled three-period crossover trial, we assigned 61 subjects (mean age 61.4 ± 8.4 years) with office systolic BP 135 ± 9 mm Hg and diastolic BP 82 ± 8 mm Hg to dairy drinks containing either placebo, 280 mg red wine polyphenols, or 560 mg red wine polyphenols. After each 4-week intervention period, office and 24-h ambulatory BP measurements, and central hemodynamic measurements derived from continuous finger BP recordings were assessed. Polyphenol treatment did not significantly affect 24-h BP: systolic/diastolic BP was 143 ± 2/84 ± 1 mm Hg after placebo, 143 ± 2/84 ± 1 mm Hg after 280 mg/day of red wine polyphenols, and 142 ± 2/83 ± 1 mm Hg after 560 mg/day. Neither dose of polyphenol treatment changed office or central BP, aortic augmentation index (AIx) or pulse wave reflection index.",
"yes. Our results indicated an inhibitory effect of compounds found in cigarette smoke on human RPE phagocytosis, and lutein, zeaxanthin, meclofenamic acid, and resveratrol each offered protection against this inhibition. Therefore, red wine polyphenol, resveratrol, might ameliorate acrolein-induced or age-related RPE degeneration, such as AMD.",
"yes. Postprandial endothelial function was improved by endurance exercise performed approximately 17 h earlier. This effect was accompanied by exercise-induced improvements in insulin action and reductions in glycemia, but did not correspond with reductions in oxidative stress, as assessed by TBARS.",
"One week of moderate consumption of red wine in inactive IBD was associated with a significant decrease in stool calprotectin and a significant increase in intestinal permeability. Our data suggests that patients with inactive IBD who drink red wine daily may be at an increased long-term risk for disease relapse.",
"yes. These findings suggest that the improvement of endothelial function by carvedilol may be caused by its antioxidant activity.",
"yes. Oral supplementation with combined B vitamins during 8 weeks does not improve endothelium-dependent vasodilation in PAOD patients with hyperhomocyst(e)inemia, whereas L-arginine significantly improved endothelial function in these patients. Thus, accumulation of ADMA and increased oxidative stress may underlie endothelial dysfunction under hyperhomocyst(e)inemic conditions. These findings may have importance for evaluation of homocyst(e)ine-lowering therapy.",
"Antioxidant enrichment of LDL can increase its resistance to oxidation and hence reduce its atherogenicity. The objective of the present study was to investigate whether in vivo supplementation with nonalcoholic red wine extract and quercetin can increase the oxidative resistance of LDL, and also whether the supplementation has any effect on other antioxidative micronutrients present in the blood. Twenty-one male subjects were supplemented with a placebo drink for 2 weeks and randomized into two groups. One group (n = 11) received the red wine extract (1 g/day, equivalent to 375 mL of red wine) and the other group (n = 10) quercetin (30 mg/day) for 2 weeks, followed by a 5-week washout period. In the red wine extract-supplemented group, ex vivo copper-initiated oxidation of LDL (lag phase, mean +/- SD) was 40 +/- 11 min at the baseline, and increased significantly to 47 +/- 6 min [P <0.05 compared with placebo (38 +/- 4 min) and the washout values (40 +/- 5 min)]. In the quercetin-supplemented group, the lag phase was 44 +/- 11 and 40 +/- 5 min for the baseline and placebo, respectively, and increased significantly to 51 +/- 7 min [P <0.05 compared with placebo and washout (41 +/- 9 min)] after supplementation. Plasma lipids (triglycerides, total cholesterol, LDL- and HDL-cholesterol) did not change during the study period. Supplementation with red wine extract or quercetin had no effect on plasma vitamin C and E, retinol, and carotenoid concentrations.",
"Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery (FMD) is a biomarker of endothelial function and cardiovascular health. Impaired FMD is associated with several cardiovascular risk factors including hypertension and obesity. Various food ingredients such as polyphenols have been shown to improve FMD. We investigated whether consuming resveratrol, a polyphenol found in red wine, can enhance FMD acutely and whether there is a dose-response relationship for this effect. 19 overweight/obese (BMI 25-35 kg m(-2)) men or post-menopausal women with untreated borderline hypertension (systolic BP: 130-160 mmHg or diastolic BP: 85-100 mmHg) consumed three doses of resveratrol (resVida™ 30, 90 and 270 mg) and a placebo at weekly intervals in a double-blind, randomized crossover comparison. One hour after consumption of the supplement, plasma resveratrol and FMD were measured. Data were analyzed by linear regression versus log(10) dose of resveratrol. 14 men and 5 women (age 55 ± 2 years, BMI 28.7 ± 0.5 kg m(-2), BP 141 ± 2/89 ± 1 mmHg) completed this study. There was a significant dose effect of resveratrol on plasma resveratrol concentration (P < 0.001) and on FMD (P < 0.01), which increased from 4.1 ± 0.8% (placebo) to 7.7 ± 1.5% after 270 mg resveratrol. FMD was also linearly related to log(10) plasma resveratrol concentration (P < 0.01).",
"To investigate red wine's acute effects on aortic pressures and arterial stiffness in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). Fifteen patients with CAD were recruited in a double-blind, cross-over study, which was comprised of 2 study days. Each volunteer consumed either 250 mL of regular or 250 mL of dealcoholized red wine. Wave reflections, expressed as augmentation index (AIx), as well as central and peripheral blood pressures (BP) were assessed at fast and 30, 60, and 90 min postprandially. Both regular and dealcoholized red wine caused a significant decrease in AIx by 10.5% +/- 1.4% (P = .001) and 6.1% +/- 1.4% (P = .011), respectively, whereas no significant change was induced in mean BP and timing of wave reflections expressing pulse wave velocity. Peripheral systolic BPs remained unaltered in both beverages, whereas a significant decrease in peripheral and central diastolic BPs was observed after the dealcoholized red wine consumption (P = .03 and P = .035, respectively). Central systolic BP was decreased after the consumption of regular (-7.4 +/- 2.4 mm Hg, P = .05) and dealcoholized red wine (-5.4 +/- 2.7 mm Hg, P = .019).",
"We compared the in vitro effects of red wine, white wine and ethanol on the cell mediated oxidation of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) by three frequently-used assays. LDL and HDL isolated from normolipidemic human serum were incubated with J774.A1 macrophages in DMEM with copper, with or without red wine, white wine or ethanol (equivalent to 0.2 mg ethanol/ml). Lipoprotein oxidation was assessed by conjugated diene formation as measured by changes in absorbance at 234 nm (deltaA234), thiobarbituric-acid-reactive-substance (TBARS) production and trinitrobenzene-sulfonic-acid (TNBS) reactivity. Red wine (0.2 mg ethanol/mL) inhibited LDL oxidation as indicated by an 85.7% decrease in absorbance at 234 nm, a 96.5% decrease in TBARS production and complete prevention of the decrease in TNBS reactivity. White wine and ethanol did not have any significant effect at 0.2 mg/mL. White wine at 1.0 mg ethanol/mL inhibited TBARS production from LDL by 84.1%. Red wine (0.2 mg ethanol/mL) inhibited HDL oxidation as indicated by a 78.9% decrease in deltaA234, an 81.7% decrease in TBARS production and by no change in TNBS reactivity. White wine and ethanol had no effect at 0.2 mg/mL. White wine at 1.0 mg ethanol/mL inhibited TBARS production from HDL by 66.4%.",
"yes. This study reveals that vascular endothelial function improves in dancers after supplementation with folic acid (10 mg/day) for at least 4 weeks. This finding may have clinically important implications for future cardiovascular disease risk prevention.",
"yes. Rapid intake of alcohol increases platelet aggregation, which might contribute to the increased mortality associated with binge drinking. Red wine does not show increased platelet aggregation, which might support the reduction of cardiovascular disease in red wine consumers. However, alcohol inhibits platelet adhesion to fibrinogen-coated surface under flow. The diminished adhesion might contribute to the cardioprotective effects of alcohol.",
"To investigate whether the daily intake of red wine (RW) at a dose which inversely correlates with cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk modulates immune functions in healthy men. Randomized single-blind trial with four intervention periods. The Institute of Nutritional Physiology, Federal Research Centre for Nutrition, Karlsruhe, Germany. A total of 24 healthy males with moderate alcohol consumption patterns were recruited and all completed the study. Participants consumed 500 ml of RW (12% ethanol (ETOH)) or 500 ml of a 12% ETOH dilution per day for a period of 2 weeks. To control the potential effects of RW polyphenols, accordingly 500 ml/day of dealcoholized red wine (DRW) and of red grape juice (RGJ) were given. The following immune parameters were measured before beverage consumption and at 1 and 2 weeks following beverage consumption: phagocytic activity of neutrophils and monocytes, production of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNFalpha), interleukin-2 and -4, transforming growth factor-beta, TNFalpha mRNA, lymphocyte proliferation, lytic activity of natural killer cells, and percentage of apoptotic lymphocytes. Consumption of a moderate volume of alcohol with RW and with a 12% ETOH dilution had no effect on immune functions in healthy males. Consumption of polyphenol-rich beverages (DRW and RGJ) did not affect immunity-related parameters.",
"yes. These results indicate that endothelial function may be improved acutely by antioxidant treatment in postmenopausal women with established estrogen deficiency.",
"yes. Use of red wine polyphenols may be a potential mechanism for prevention of cardiovascular and metabolic alterations associated with obesity.",
"Several epidemiological studies have demonstrated the beneficial effect of red wine intake in reducing total and cardiovascular mortality. This effect has been attributed in part to its antioxidant properties. Because the monocytes/macrophages and the nuclear transcription factor kappaB (NF-kappaB) are implicated in the pathogenesis of atherosclerotic lesions, we examined the effect of red wine intake on the activation of NF-kappaB in peripheral blood mononuclear cells. Sixteen healthy volunteers were studied 3 times each: after a moderate dose, a low dose, and no wine with a fat-enriched breakfast. Lipid profile and NF-kappaB activation (electrophoretic mobility shift assay) were examined in blood samples taken before and 3, 6, and 9 hours after wine intake. In addition, mononuclear cells were incubated with VLDL in the presence of some antioxidants (quercetin and alpha-tocopherol succinate) contained in red wine to study their effects on NF-kappaB activation. Subjects receiving a fat-enriched breakfast had increased NF-kappaB activation in peripheral blood mononuclear cells coinciding with the augmentation in total triglycerides and chylomicrons. Red wine intake prevented NF-kappaB activity even though it induced a certain increase in serum lipids, particularly VLDL, that did not increase after the fat ingestion alone. However, another form of alcohol intake (vodka) did not modify the NF-kappaB activation provided by postprandial lipemia. In cultured mononuclear cells, isolated human VLDL caused NF-kappaB activation in a time-dependent manner that did not occur in the presence of the red wine antioxidants quercetin and alpha-tocopherol.",
"yes. Our data showed that sHT patients exists impaired endothelial function, and antioxidant alpha-lipoic acid can improve endothelial function, through decrease of oxygen- derived free radicals.",
"no. Intake of red wine polyphenols in two different dosages for 4 weeks did not decrease peripheral or central BP in subjects with a high normal or grade 1 hypertension. Our findings do not support the hypothesis that polyphenols account for the suggested cardiovascular benefits of red wine consumption by lowering BP.",
"yes. For the first time, we have shown that a steep dose-response relationship exists between allopurinol and its effect on endothelial function. We also showed that the mechanism of improvement in endothelial function with allopurinol lies in its ability to reduce vascular oxidative stress and not in urate reduction. The reduction in vascular oxidative stress was profound because high-dose allopurinol totally abolished the oxidative stress that was sensitive to the high-dose vitamin C that was used in this study.",
"yes. Regular consumption of red wine appears to be associated with a reduced serum lipoperoxidation in which the intestinal microbiota may be involved.",
"In patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) medically managed according to currently accepted guidelines, we tested whether a 1-month dietary intervention with flavanol-containing cocoa leads to an improvement of endothelial dysfunction and whether this is associated with an enhanced number and function of circulating angiogenic cells (CACs). Dietary flavanols can improve endothelial dysfunction. The CACs, also termed endothelial progenitor cells, are critical for vascular repair and maintenance of endothelial function. In a randomized, controlled, double-masked, cross-over trial, 16 CAD patients (64+/-3 years of age) received a dietary high-flavanol intervention (HiFI [375 mg]) and a macronutrient- and micronutrient-matched low-flavanol intervention (LoFI [9 mg]) twice daily in random order over 30 days. Endothelium-dependent vasomotor function, as measured by flow-mediated vasodilation of the brachial artery, improved by 47% in the HiFI period compared with the LoFI period. After HiFI, the number of CD34+/KDR+-CACs, as measured by flow cytometry, increased 2.2-fold as compared with after LoFI. The CAC functions, as measured by the capacity to survive, differentiate, proliferate, and to migrate were not different between the groups. The HiFI led to a decrease in systolic blood pressure (mean change over LoFI: -4.2+/-2.7 mm Hg), and increase in plasma nitrite level (mean change over LoFI: 74+/-32 nM). Applying a mixed-effects linear regression model, the results demonstrated a significant increase in flow-mediated vasodilation and a decrease in systolic blood pressure with increasing levels of CD34+/KDR+-CACs.",
"yes. Resveratrol administration, either simultaneously with HC diet or after HC, caused an improvement in the endothelium-dependent relaxation responses in the CC, suggesting its potential in both protective and restorative purposes in hypercholesterolemic rabbit CC.",
"yes. Alcohol-free red wine extract and one of its components, quercetin, can inhibit LDL oxidation after in vivo supplementation; such \"inhibition\" is unrelated to changes in antioxidant vitamin and carotenoid concentrations.",
"Moderate daily consumption of alcoholic beverages is a negative risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease (CAD), especially in France and other Mediterranean areas where red wine is regularly consumed with meals. Platelets contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, CAD, and acute arterial thrombus formation. Anesthetized dogs were prepared with the Folts model of mechanically stenosed coronary arteries and intimal damage. Periodic acute platelet-mediated thrombus formation occurred, causing cyclic flow reductions (CFRs) in coronary blood flow. The CFRs were eliminated by the administration of 1.62 +/- 1.12 mL/kg red wine intravenously (IV) and 4.0 mL/kg intragastrically (IG). The CFRs were abolished by 2.04 +/- 1.42 mL/kg of grape juice IV and 10 mL/kg IG. White wine did not have significant results in eliminating the CFRs, either IV (2.0 mL/kg) or IG (4.0 mL/kg), decreasing the slopes of the CFRs only slightly.",
"yes. Ethanol consumption reduces endothelium-dependent relaxation induced by acetylcholine, but does not affect SNP or EFS-induced relaxation, suggesting that ethanol disrupts the endothelial function. Despite the overexpression of eNOS and iNOS in ethanol-treated rats, the impaired relaxation induced by acetylcholine may suggest that chronic ethanol consumption induces endothelial dysfunction.",
"Obesity is associated with increased risks for development of cardiovascular diseases. Epidemiological studies report an inverse association between dietary flavonoid consumption and mortality from cardiovascular diseases. We studied the potential beneficial effects of dietary supplementation of red wine polyphenol extract, Provinols, on obesity-associated alterations with respect to metabolic disturbances and cardiovascular functions in Zucker fatty (ZF) rats. ZF rats or their lean littermates received normal diet or supplemented with Provinols for 8 weeks. Provinols improved glucose metabolism by reducing plasma glucose and fructosamine in ZF rats. Moreover, it reduced circulating triglycerides and total cholesterol as well as LDL-cholesterol in ZF rats. Echocardiography measurements demonstrated that Provinols improved cardiac performance as evidenced by an increase in left ventricular fractional shortening and cardiac output associated with decreased peripheral arterial resistances in ZF rats. Regarding vascular function, Provinols corrected endothelial dysfunction in aortas from ZF rats by improving endothelium-dependent relaxation in response to acetylcholine (Ach). Provinols enhanced NO bioavailability resulting from increased nitric oxide (NO) production through enhanced endothelial NO-synthase (eNOS) activity and reduced superoxide anion release via decreased expression of NADPH oxidase membrane sub-unit, Nox-1. In small mesenteric arteries, although Provinols did not affect the endothelium-dependent response to Ach; it enhanced the endothelial-derived hyperpolarizing factor component of the response.",
"Epidemiological studies demonstrate an inverse relation between dietary flavonoid intake and cardiovascular risk. Recent studies with flavonoid-containing beverages suggest that the benefits of these nutrients may relate, in part, to improved endothelial function. We hypothesized that dietary supplementation with epigallocatechin gallate (EGCG), a major catechin in tea, would improve endothelial function in humans. We examined the effects of EGCG on endothelial function in a double blind, placebo-controlled, crossover design study. We measured brachial artery flow-mediated dilation by vascular ultrasound at six time points: prior to treatment with EGCG or placebo, two hours after an initial dose of EGCG (300 mg) or placebo, and after two weeks of treatment with EGCG (150 mg twice daily) or placebo. The order of treatments (EGCG or placebo) was randomized and there was a one-week washout period between treatments. A total of 42 subjects completed the study, and brachial artery flow-mediated dilation improved from 7.1 +/- 4.1 to 8.6 +/- 4.7% two hours after the first dose of 300 mg of EGCG (P = 0.01), but was similar to baseline (7.8 +/- 4.2%, P = 0.12) after two weeks of treatment with the final measurements made approximately 14 hours after the last dose. Placebo treatment had no significant effect, and there were no changes in reactive hyperemia or the response to sublingual nitroglycerin. The changes in vascular function paralleled plasma EGCG concentrations, which increased from 2.6 +/- 10.9 to 92.8 +/- 78.7 ng/ml after acute EGCG (P < 0.001), but were unchanged from baseline after two weeks of treatment (3.4 +/- 13.1 ng/ml).",
"Moderate alcohol consumption is protective against coronary artery disease. Endothelial dysfunction contributes to atherosclerosis and the pathogenesis of cardiovascular disease. The effects of alcohol consumption on endothelial function may be relevant to these cardiovascular outcomes, but very few studies have examined the effect of alcohol consumption on endothelial function assessed by flow-mediated dilation (FMD) of the brachial artery in humans. In the population-based Northern Manhattan Study (NOMAS), we performed a cross-sectional analysis of lifetime alcohol intake and brachial artery FMD during reactive hyperemia using high-resolution B-mode ultrasound images among 884 stroke-free participants (mean age 66.8 years, women 56.6%, Hispanic 67.4%, black 17.4%, and white 15.2%). The mean brachial FMD was 5.7% and the median was 5.5%. Compared to non-drinkers, those who drank >1 drink/month to 2 drinks/day were more likely to have FMD above the median FMD (5.5%) (unadjusted OR 1.7, 95% CI 1.2-2.4, p = 0.005). In multivariate analysis, the relationship between moderate alcohol consumption and FMD remained significant after adjusting for multiple traditional cardiovascular risk factors, including sex, race-ethnicity, body mass index, diabetes mellitus, coronary artery disease, Framingham risk score, medication use (adjusted OR 1.8, 95%CI 1.1-3.0, p = 0.03). No beneficial effect on FMD was seen for those who drank more than 2 drinks/day.",
"yes. Pure ethanol has been shown to inhibit platelet aggregation in vitro, ex vivo, and in vivo, although a blood alcohol content (BAC) of > or = 0.2 g/dL is usually required. The BAC of dogs administered the red wine-saline solution intravenously was 0.028 g/dL, much less than is usually necessary for platelet inhibition with pure ethanol. Because red wine and grape juice, but not white wine, abolished the CFRs, this suggests there are compounds present in red wine and grape juice that are not present or are present in a lower concentration in white wine. Wine and grape juice contain a wide variety of naturally occurring compounds, including fungicides, tannins, anthocyanins, and phenolic flavonoids (including flavonols and flavones). These compounds have shown platelet inhibition in vitro by a variety of proposed mechanisms. Perhaps the biological activity of these compounds can explain the platelet-inhibitory properties of red wine and grape juice that are observed without high levels of ethanol.",
"yes. The enhanced FBF response following 3 weeks of red wine consumption, but not after one glass, reflects a change in smooth muscle sensitivity. Alterations in sGC responsiveness/activity, rather than changes in ET-1, appear to underlie this phenomenon.",
"no. Advice on lifestyle changes, including a modified polyphenol-rich Mediterranean diet, a glass of red wine daily and physical exercise, did not affect middle cerebral and internal carotid blood flow velocity in our patient group with carotid atherosclerosis. An increase in cerebral blood flow is thus unlikely to be the cause of the reduced risk of cerebrovascular disease and improved cognitive functioning described in the literature. One possible explanation for the fact that blood flow velocity was not affected by red wine, diet and physical activity advice is that two thirds of our patients were already on statin therapy. Statins increase cerebral blood flow and vasomotor reactivity via nitric oxide.",
"Wine polyphenols attenuate the development of atherosclerosis, which involves an inflammatory process. We studied the beneficial effect of de-alcoholised white and red wines (DWW and DRW, respectively) on the development of atheroma plaques and on the expression of biomarkers. We administered control or de-alcoholised wine-rich diets to apoE-deficient mice for 12 or 20 weeks. We then used optical microscopy or immunofluorescence to examine atherosclerotic lesion development in the thoracic aorta and aortic root and assessed the presence of cytokines and adhesion molecules by qPCR and immunofluorescence in total aorta and aortic root, respectively. Atherosclerotic lesions in thoracic aorta were significantly decreased in mice supplemented with DWW (30 %) and DRW (62 %) for 20 weeks. In addition, the expressions of interferon-γ, interleukin-1β, the monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 and CD68 were reduced by DRW. The adhesion molecule P-selectin, vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 were decreased by 52, 76 and 45 %, respectively, in mice fed DRW for 12 weeks, whereas DWW reduced these parameters in a minor extent. The NF-κB expression in total aorta was significantly decreased in the mice treated with de-alcoholised wines for 12 weeks.",
"yes. Our results provide the first clinical evidence of an acute enhancement of vasodilator responsiveness in cerebral vessels following consumption of resveratrol in this population who are known to have endothelial dysfunction and sub-clinical cognitive impairment. Importantly, maximum improvement was observed with the lowest dose used.",
"Investigate the effect of ascorbic acid (vitamin C) on the endothelial dysfunction induced by acute ethanol intake. Ethanol (1g/kg; p.o. gavage) effects were assessed within 30min in male Wistar rats. Ethanol intake decreased the endothelium-dependent relaxation induced by acetylcholine in the rat aorta and treatment with vitamin C (250mg/kg; p.o. gavage, 5days) prevented this response. Ethanol increased superoxide anion (O2(-)) generation and decreased aortic nitrate/nitrite levels and these responses were not prevented by vitamin C. Superoxide dismutase (SOD) and catalase (CAT) activities as well as hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and reduced glutathione (GSH) levels were not affected by ethanol. RhoA translocation as well as the phosphorylation levels of protein kinase B (Akt), eNOS (Ser(1177) or Thr(495) residues), p38MAPK, SAPK/JNK and ERK1/2 was not affected by ethanol intake. Vitamin C increased SOD activity and phosphorylation of Akt, eNOS (Ser(1177) residue) and p38MAPK in aortas from both control and ethanol-treated rats. Incubation of aortas with tempol prevented ethanol-induced decrease in the relaxation induced by acetylcholine. Ethanol (50mM/1min) increased O2(-) generation in cultured aortic vascular smooth muscle cells (VSMC) and vitamin C did not prevent this response. In endothelial cells, vitamin C prevented the increase on ROS generation and the decrease in the cytosolic NO content induced by ethanol.",
"yes. EGCG acutely improves endothelial function in humans with coronary artery disease, and may account for a portion of the beneficial effects of flavonoid-rich food on endothelial function.",
": The postprandial state after a high-fat meal favors endothelial dysfunction and contributes to the development of atherosclerosis. Little is known about the course of circulating microparticles (MPs) and endothelial progenitor cells (EPCs) after the consumption of a high-fat meal. Both are important for the maintenance and function of endothelial cells. : Ten healthy males consumed a meal with French fries and hot pork sausage. In a crossover design (4 weeks, 1 meal per week) they coingested a drink (mineral water, coke, red wine, liquor). Before and 1 and 2 hours after the meal, blood samples were drawn and endothelial function (expressed as reactive hyperemia index) was measured by a peripheral arterial tone technology. Number of EPCs, total MPs, and endothelial-derived MPs were measured using flow cytometry. : Reactive hyperemia index decreased by about 5% in those tests drinking mineral water, and by about 20% in the coke group, but remained unaffected in the red wine and liquor group. The number of EPCs were not significantly affected. The number of total and endothelial-derived MPs increased after a single meal, most in the coke group (increase by about 62%), and less in the red wine group (by about 5%).",
"no. The possible beneficial effect of regular consumption of small amounts of red wine is not counterbalanced in the long term by an increase in the mean BP or HR in mainly normotensive and well-treated hypertensive patients with carotid atherosclerosis, neither in the patients given healthy lifestyle advice nor in those with a standard lifestyle. Yet, we remain cautious about actively advice patients to drink alcohol regularly given the well-known risks.",
"yes. DRW is shown to be more effective than DWW on cytokines and adhesion molecule expression, in the early stages of the inflammatory events associated with atherosclerosis development, probably due to the high phenolic content of red wine. Downregulation of NF-κB expression may be involved in the mechanism by which de-alcoholised wines modulate atherosclerosis.",
"Red wine polyphenols and ethanol reduce fatty streak formation (early atherosclerosis) in various animal models. These experimental results support the observation that alcoholic beverages protect against myocardial infarction in humans. However, fatty streaks may not reflect the pathology of mature and clinically relevant atherosclerosis. The present study examined the effects of red wine polyphenols and ethanol on mature atherosclerosis in apolipoprotein E-deficient mice. Eighty-four 7-week-old mice were randomized to receive water, red wine (diluted to 6% ethanol v/v), 6% ethanol v/v, or red wine powder in water. All mice were fed a normal chow diet. At 26 weeks of age, the mice were killed. HDL cholesterol was raised 12.0% (95% CI, 4.0% to 20.0%) and 9.2% (95% CI, 1.5% to 16.9%) by red wine and ethanol, respectively. At the end of study, all mice exhibited advanced atherosclerosis in the aortic bulb, whereas less mature atherosclerosis predominated in the brachiocephalic trunk. The amount of atherosclerosis in the aortic bulb and the brachiocephalic trunk were similar in all groups (P:=0.92 and P:=0.14, respectively). To evaluate whether ethanol or red wine polyphenols were protective by stabilizing atherosclerotic plaques rather than reducing their size, we measured the percentage of collagen-poor areas in left coronary sinus plaques as a morphological criterion of plaque stability. The percentage of collagen-poor areas did not differ between groups (P:=0.71).",
"no. Red wine consumption increases plasma catechins, but does not influence lipid peroxidation in postprandial CM.",
"Epidemiological studies have shown that moderate consumption of alcohol is associated with a decreased risk of developing cardiovascular disease, but the causal mechanisms are only partly understood. As inflammation is an important process in the progression of atherosclerosis, we hypothesized that the protective effect of red wine is partly mediated through a reduction in inflammation. We conducted a randomized controlled crossover trial to study the effect of red wine on the levels of the inflammatory markers serum C-reactive protein (CRP) and plasma fibrinogen in healthy, non-smoking individuals. The subjects were randomized to drink one glass of red wine (150 ml, 15 g alcohol) every day ('wine period') or to undergo a period of total abstention from alcohol ('abstention period'). After 3 weeks they switched intervention group. Eighty-seven volunteers completed the study (mean age 50 years). Red wine did not reduce CRP levels and only marginally reduced fibrinogen levels compared with a similar period without alcohol.",
"The purpose of this randomized controlled cross-over study was to determine the acute effects of high doses of alcoholic beverages on circulating markers related to atherosclerosis and fibrinolysis. Twenty-two healthy men consumed a high dose (8.1+/-0.9 dl) of alcohol-containing red wine and dealcoholized red wine, and an equal ethanol dose of cognac (2.4+/-0.3 dl). Blood samples were taken before and shortly after interventions. Red wine, unlike dealcoholized red wine and cognac, increased tissue plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 levels significantly, indicating an acute inhibition of fibrinolysis after a high dose.",
"yes. Kefir treatment for 60 days was able to improve the endothelial function in SHR by partially restoring the ROS/NO imbalance and the endothelial architecture due to endothelial progenitor cells recruitment.",
"After ingestion of red wine with alcohol the brachial artery dilated and the blood flow increased. These changes were not observed following the de-alcoholized red wine and were thus attributable to ethanol. These haemodynamic changes may have concealed an effect on flow-mediated brachial artery dilatation which did not increase after drinking red wine with alcohol. Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery increased significantly after de-alcoholized red wine and this finding may support the hypothesis that antioxidant qualities of red wine, rather than ethanol in itself, may protect against cardiovascular disease.",
"To investigate, in male Wistar rats, the effects of long-term moderate red wine (RW) consumption (equivalent to ∼0.15 mg% resveratrol RS), or RS in low (L, 0.15 mg%) or high (H, 400 mg%) doses in chow. Both RW and RS exhibit cardioprotection. RS extends lifespan in obese rats. It is unclear whether RW consumption or low-dose RS delay vascular aging and prolong life span in the absence of overt risk factors. Endpoints were aerobic performance, exercise capacity, aging biomarkers (p53,p16,p21, telomere length and telomerase activity in aortic homogenates), vascular reactivity. Data were compared with controls (C) given regular chow. Expressions of p53 decreased ∼50% ∼with RW and LRS (p < 0.05 vs. C), p16 by ∼29% with RW (p < 0.05 vs. C) and p21 was unaltered. RW and LRS increased telomere length >6.5-fold vs. C, and telomerase activity increased with LRS and HRS. All treatments increased aerobic capacity (C 32.5 ± 1.2, RW 38.7 ± 1.7, LRS 38.5 ± 1.6, HRS 38.3 ± 1.8 mlO(2) min(-1) kg(-1)), and RW or LRS also improved time of exercise tolerance vs. C (p < 0.05). Endothelium-dependent relaxation improved with all treatments vs. C. Life span, however, was unaltered with each treatment vs. C = 673 ± 30 days, p = NS.",
"yes. These results indicate that red wine inhibits the cell mediated oxidation of lipoproteins, that white wine is not as effective as red wine and that the effect of the red wine is not due to its ethanol content.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that ethanol, at levels consistent with moderate consumption, enhances endothelial angiogenic activity in vitro by stimulating a novel Notch/CBF-1/RBP-JK-Ang1/Tie2-dependent pathway. These actions of ethanol may be relevant to the cardiovascular effects of alcohol consumption purported by epidemiological studies.",
"yes. Both types of red wine provoked favorable acute effects on wave reflections and central systolic pressures, whereas no such effect was evident at the brachial artery. Therefore, these findings could be attributed mainly to red wine antioxidant substances, rendering it a possible means of at least acute attenuation of increased wave reflections, arterial stiffness, and central pressures in patients with coronary artery disease.",
"Previous studies have reported that moderate alcohol consumption is protective against cardiovascular disease, but heavy alcohol consumption increases its risk. Endothelial dysfunction is hypothesized to contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular disease. However, few population-based studies have examined a potential effect of alcohol consumption on endothelial function. This study included 404 men aged 30-79 years who were recruited from residents in 2 communities under the Circulatory Risk in Communities Study in 2013 and 2014. We asked the individuals about the frequency and volume of alcohol beverages and converted the data into grams of ethanol per day. Endothelial function was assessed by brachial artery flow-mediated dilation (FMD) measurements during reactive hyperemia. We performed cross-sectional analysis of alcohol consumption and %FMD by logistic regression analysis, adjusting for age, baseline brachial artery diameter, body mass index, systolic blood pressure, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, HbA1c, smoking, antihypertensive medication use, and community. Individuals who drank ≥ 46 g/day ethanol had a lower age-adjusted mean %FMD than non-drinkers (p＜0.01). Compared with non-drinkers, the age-adjusted odds ratios (ORs) (95% confidence interval) of low %FMD (＜5.3%) for former, light (＜23.0 g/day ethanol), moderate (23.0-45.9 g/day ethanol), and heavy (≥ 46.0 g/day ethanol) drinkers were 1.61 (0.67-3.89), 0.84 (0.43-1.66), 1.09 (0.52-2.25), and 2.99 (1.56-5.70), respectively. The corresponding multivariable-adjusted ORs were 1.76 (0.69-4.50), 0.86 (0.42-1.76), 0.98 (0.45-2.12), and 2.39 (1.15-4.95), respectively.",
"yes. Our results provide a new potential mechanism to explain the beneficial effects of red wine intake in the reduction of cardiovascular mortality.",
"yes. The longer BT in individuals on MD, obtained independently of red wine, denotes less interaction of platelets with the vascular wall, which could be beneficial from the point of view of cardiovascular (CV) risk. This effect is not explained by changes in the measured haemostatic determinants of BT (plasma vWF, ex vivo platelet function), and might be attributed to other as yet unknown vascular factors. Moderate consumption of red wine results in a significant increase in ex vivo platelet aggregation and secretion after stimulation with collagen. This observation contradicts previous reports, although further studies are required to elucidate the influence of this finding on CV risk.",
"Cumulative evidence suggests that moderate red wine consumption protects the cardiovascular system. The effect of cultured cells derived from red grape berry (RGC) on blood pressure (BP) has not been investigated. We therefore studied the antihypertensive effects of oral consumption of RGC in experimental rat model of metabolic-like syndrome and assessed its effect on human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs). Forty male Sprague-Dawley rats were fed for 5 weeks with either a high fructose diet (HFD) (n = 10) or HFD supplemented, during the last 2 weeks, with different doses (200, 400 and 800 mg/kg/day) of RGC suspended in their food (n = 30). BP, plasma triglycerides, insulin and adiponectin levels were measured at the beginning and after 3 and 5 weeks of diet. RGC effect on vasodilatation was evaluated by its ability to affect endothelin-1 (ET-1) production and endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) expression in HUVECs. BP, plasma triglycerides, insulin and adiponectin increased significantly in rats fed with a HFD. The increase in BP, plasma triglycerides and insulin was attenuated by RGC supplementation. Incubation of HUVECs with RGC demonstrated a concentration-dependent inhibition of ET-1 secretion and increase in the level of eNOS, signaling a positive effect of RGC on vasodilatation.",
"Moderate consumption of red wine is associated with fewer cardiovascular events. We investigated whether red wine consumption counteracts the adverse vascular effects of cigarette smoking. Participants smoked 3 cigarettes alone or after drinking a titrated volume of red wine. Clinical chemistry, blood counts, plasma cytokine enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays, immunomagnetic separation of CD14 Compared with baseline, leukocytosis (P = .019), neutrophilia (P <.001), lymphopenia (P <.001), and eosinopenia (P = .008) were observed after only smoking. Endothelial and platelet-, monocyte-, and leukocyte-derived microparticles (P <.001 each) were elevated. In monocytes, messenger RNA expression of interleukin (IL)-6 (2.6- ± 0.57-fold), tumor necrosis factor alpha (2.2- ± 0.62-fold), and IL-1b (2.3- ± 0.44-fold) were upregulated, as was IL-6 (1.2 ± 0.12-fold) protein concentration in plasma. Smoking acutely inhibited mononuclear cell telomerase activity. Markers of endothelial damage, inflammation, and cellular aging were completely attenuated by red wine consumption.",
"yes. Our study provides novel evidence that vitamin C prevents the endothelial dysfunction induced by acute ethanol intake by a mechanism that involves reduced ROS generation and increased NO availability in endothelial cells.",
"An enhanced endothelial formation of nitric oxide (NO) and endothelium-derived hyperpolarizing factor (EDHF), is thought to contribute to the protective effect of moderate consumption of red wine on coronary diseases. The present study has characterized endothelium-dependent relaxations to Concord grape juice (CGJ), a non-alcoholic rich source of grape-derived polyphenols, in the coronary artery. Porcine coronary artery rings were suspended in organ chambers for the measurement of changes in isometric tension in the presence of indomethacin. NO formation was assessed by electron spin resonance spectroscopy, and the phosphorylation of Src, Akt and endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) by Western blot analysis in cultured endothelial cells. Endothelium-dependent relaxations to CGJ were slightly but significantly reduced by L-NA, not affected by charybdotoxin (CTX) plus apamin (APA, two inhibitors of EDHF-mediated responses) whereas the combination of L-NA, CTX plus APA reduced maximal relaxation to about 50%. In the presence of CTX plus APA, relaxations to CGJ were markedly reduced by the membrane permeant mimetic of superoxide dismutase (SOD), MnTMPyP, the membrane permeant analogue of catalase polyethyleneglycol-catalase (PEG-catalase), PP2, an inhibitor of Src kinase, and by wortmannin, an inhibitor of the PI3-kinase. CGJ stimulated the formation of reactive oxygen species and the N(omega)-nitro-L-arginine-, PP2- and wortmannin-sensitive formation of NO in endothelial cells. The formation of NO was associated with a redox-sensitive and time-dependent phosphorylation of Src, Akt and eNOS.",
"yes. : A single high-fat meal deteriorates endothelial function, associated with a significant increase in circulating MPs. These changes were modified by the drink coindigested to the meal. The postprandial state was getting worse when a cola was consumed, but less hazardous when red wine was consumed.",
"yes. Cigarette smoke results in acute endothelial damage, vascular and systemic inflammation, and indicators of the cellular aging processes in otherwise healthy nonsmokers. Pretreatment with red wine was preventive. The findings underscore the magnitude of acute damage exerted by cigarette smoking in \"occasional lifestyle smokers\" and demonstrate the potential of red wine as a protective strategy to avert markers of vascular injury.",
"It has been shown that acute intake of red wine improves endothelial-dependent vasodilatation. It is not clear, however, which constituents of red wine are responsible for this effect. We examined whether acute intake of a red grape polyphenol extract has a positive effect on brachial artery flow-mediated dilatation. We recruited 30 male patients with coronary heart disease. They were randomly assigned either to a red grape polyphenol extract (600 mg) dissolved in 20 ml of water (n = 15) or 20 ml of water (placebo) (n = 15). The extract of grapes contained 4.32 mg epicatechin, 2.72 mg catechin, 2.07 mg gallic acid, 0.9 mg trans-resveratrol, 0.47 mg rutin, 0.42 mg epsilon-viniferin, 0.28 mg, p-coumaric acid, 0.14 mg ferulic acid and 0.04 mg quercetin per gram. Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery was evaluated after reactive hyperemia induced by cuff obstruction of the forearm, using high-resolution ultasonography. Particularly, flow-mediated dilatation was measured after fasting and 30, 60 and 120 min after the intake of the grape extract or placebo. Intake of the red grape polyphenol extract caused an increase in flow-mediated dilatation, peaking at 60 min, which was significantly higher than the baseline values (4.52+/-1.34 versus 2.6+/-1.5%; P < 0.001) and the corresponding values at 60 min after the intake of placebo (4.52+/-1.34 versus 2.64+/-1.8%, P < 0.001). There was no change in FMD values after the intake of placebo throughout the whole duration of the study.",
"Hyperhomocysteinemia is an independent risk factor of coronary artery disease. Clinical studies have indicated that moderate red wine consumption is associated with a reduction of incidence of coronary artery disease. In this study, we determined the effect of red wine on homocysteine- induced endothelial dysfunction in porcine coronary arteries. Porcine coronary arteries were dissected from 6 pig hearts and cut into 5-mm ring segments, which were assigned into 4 groups (9 rings/group): blank control, homocysteine treated (50 muM), red wine treated (0.08% alcohol), and homocysteine plus red wine treated. The rings were cultured in cell culture medium with or without treatment for 24 h. Myograph analysis was performed with U46619 (10(-7) M) for contraction and cumulative bradykinin (10(-9) to 10(-5) M) for endothelium-dependent relaxation. The endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) levels were analyzed by RT-PCR, Western blot, and immunohistochemistry. In response to 10(-5) M bradykinin, porcine coronary artery rings treated with homocysteine (50 muM) showed a significant reduction of endothelium-dependent vasorelaxation by 43% as compared to controls (P < 0.05). However, rings treated with red wine (0.08% alcohol) plus homocysteine showed no significant difference as compared to controls. Endothelium-dependent vasorelaxation was not different between control and red wine treated groups. Furthermore, eNOS mRNA density levels were significantly reduced by 36% in homocysteine treated group as compared to controls (P < 0.05). eNOS protein levels were also substantially reduced in the homocysteine-treated group. However, red wine treatment reversed the effect of homocysteine-induced eNOS downregulation.",
"Acute smoking causes endothelial dysfunction through impairment of nitric oxide (NO) production, or increased oxidative stress, but the exact mechanism still needs to be elucidated. In healthy non-smokers acute endothelial dysfunction caused by smoking one cigarette was counterbalanced by red wine's antioxidants. The aim of the present study is to investigate whether red wine's antioxidant substances could counteract the acute endothelial dysfunction induced by acute cigarette smoking in healthy smokers as well. Twenty healthy volunteers (12 males) participated in a double-blind, cross-over study, comprised of three study days. All subjects either smoked one cigarette, or smoked and drank 250 ml of red wine, or smoked and drank 250 ml of dealcoholized red wine in each one of the study days. Flow mediated dilatation (FMD) was measured at fast and 30, 60 and 90 minutes after each trial. Smoking one cigarette induced a significant decrease in FMD (p<0.001), which remained significant 30 (p<0.001), and 60 (p = 0.003) minutes after the end of smoking. FMD remained statistically unchanged after consumption of either regular red wine, or dealcoholized red wine together with smoking.",
"The observed endothelial dysfunction following smoking of one cigarette was counterbalanced by consumption of either red wine or dealcoholized red wine in healthy smokers. It is possible that acute endothelial dysfunction caused by smoking could be attributed to increased oxidative stress and red wine's antioxidants counteract these acute effects of smoke on endothelium.",
"Population-based studies suggest a reduced incidence of morbidity and mortality from coronary heart disease caused by moderate and regular consumption of red wine. Endothelial nitric oxide (NO) is a pivotal vasoprotective molecule. This study examines the influence of red wine polyphenols on the regulation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) expression and subsequent NO synthesis, focusing on the putative long-lasting antiatherosclerotic effects of red wine. Treatment (20 hours) of human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) and of the HUVEC-derived cell line EA.hy926 with a alcohol-free red wine polyphenol extract (RWPE) led to a concentration-dependent (100 to 600 microg/mL), significant increase in NO release (up to 3.0-fold/HUVEC and 2.0-fold/EA.hy926) as shown by use of the fluorescent probe DAF-2. This effect was corroborated by the [14C]L-arginine/L-citrulline conversion assay in intact EA.hy926 cells. RWPE (20 hours, 100 to 600 microg/mL) also significantly increased eNOS protein levels up to 2.1-fold. Furthermore, we found an increased human eNOS promotor activity (up to 2-fold) in response to red wine polyphenols (18 hours, 100 to 600 microg/mL), as demonstrated by a luciferase reporter gene assay.",
"To examine the acute effect of red wine and de-alcoholized red wine on endothelial function. High frequency ultrasound was used to measure blood flow and percentage brachial artery dilatation after reactive hyperaemia induced by forearm cuff occlusion in 12 healthy subjects, less than 40 years of age, without known cardiovascular risk factors. The subjects drank 250 ml of red wine with or without alcohol over 10 min according to a randomized procedure. Brachial artery dilatation was measured again 30 and 60 min after the subjects had finished drinking. The subjects were studied a second time within a week of the first study in a cross-over design. After the red wine with alcohol the resting brachial artery diameter, resting blood flow, heart rate and plasma-ethanol increased significantly. After the de-alcoholized red wine these parameters were unchanged. Flow-mediated dilatation of the brachial artery was significantly higher (P<0.05) after drinking de-alcoholized red wine (5.6+/-3.2%) than after drinking red wine with alcohol (3.6+/-2.2%) and before drinking (3.9+/-2.5%).",
"Long-term smoking is believed to cause endothelial dysfunction via increased oxidative stress, whereas short-term smoking impairs vasodilatation through an as yet undefined mechanism. However, red wine and its constituents have a powerful antioxidant effect both in long-term and acute consumption. The aim of the current study was to investigate whether red wine, with or without alcohol, influences endothelial dysfunction induced by acute cigarette smoking. Sixteen healthy volunteers (8 males and 8 females) were recruited for a double-blind, crossover study, comprising 3 study days. Each subject smoked 1 cigarette, or smoked and drank 250 mL of red wine, or smoked and drank 250 mL of dealcoholized red wine. Flow-mediated dilatation (FMD) was measured after fasting and 15, 30, 60, and 90 minutes after each trial (smoke or smoke and drink either beverage). Acute smoking of 1 cigarette caused a reduction in FMD (P <.001), which was statistically significant 15, 30, and 60 minutes after the inhalation of smoke compared to baseline levels (P <.001, P <.001, P =.043, respectively). However, simultaneous ingestion of either red wine or dealcoholized red wine with smoking did not lead to a change in FMD.",
"yes. We provide conclusive data showing for the first time that a RWPE increases eNOS expression and subsequent endothelial NO release. Increased active eNOS levels may antagonize the development of endothelial dysfunction and atherosclerosis, a hypothesis that supports the view that red wine indeed may have long-term protective cardiovascular properties mediated by its polyphenols.",
"yes. Acute smoking caused a significant impairment in endothelial function. Simultaneous consumption of red wine or dealcoholized red wine with smoking decreased smoke's harmful effect on endothelium.",
"Moderate red wine consumption improved endothelial function in normal volunteers. Herein we explored the effects of moderate red wine consumption in endothelial function and in oxidative stress in patients with an acute coronary syndrome. 20 patients treated with percutaneous coronary interventions after an acute coronary syndrome were randomized to a red-wine group (n=9, 250 ml daily, Cabernet Sauvignon) or to a control group (n=11, abstinence from alcoholic beverages). Studies were performed at baseline and after 2 months. Endothelial function was estimated by flow-mediated vasodilatation of the brachial artery. Plasma antioxidant capacity was measured by total antioxidant reactivity and ferric reducing antioxidant power. Oxidative damage was evaluated by measurements of 8-OH deoxyguanosine content in leukocyte deoxyribonucleic acid. The endothelium dependent/independent dilatation ratio significantly improved compared to baseline in both groups. The 8-OH deoxyguanosine content decreased significantly in both groups; this effect was more pronounced with wine (p<0.002 vs. control). Oxidative deoxyribonucleic acid damage in controls decreased from 13.1+/-1.1 to 10.0+/-1.0 (p<0.003); with wine from 13+/-0.8 to 5.6+/-0.7 per 10(5) guanosines (p<0.001; p<0.002 vs. control). Total antioxidant reactivity increased from 240+/-18 to 268+/-18 microM in the control group and from 273+/-20 to 330+/-15 microM in the wine group (p<0.03 vs. control). Ferric reducing antioxidant power increased from 1106+/-60 to 1235+/-42 microM in the control group and from 1219+/-82 to 1450+/-63 microM in the wine group (p<0.001 vs. control).",
"Polyphenols in red wine are supposed to improve endothelial function. We investigated whether daily red wine consumption improves in-vivo vascular function by reducing endothelin-1 (ET-1). Additional pathways mediating this effect were studied using porcine coronary arteries (PCAs). Eighteen young healthy women drank red wine daily for 3 weeks. Vascular function was evaluated by determining forearm blood flow (FBF) responses to endothelium-dependent (acetylcholine (ACh)) and endothelium-independent (sodium nitroprusside (SNP)) vasodilators. PCAs were suspended in organ baths and exposed to the endothelium-dependent vasodilator bradykinin, the nitric oxide (NO) donor S-nitroso-N-acetyl-L,L-penicillamine (SNAP) and/or red wine extract (RWE). ACh-induced and SNP-induced FBF increases were equally enhanced after 3 weeks of red wine consumption, but an immediate enhancement (i.e., after drinking the first glass) was not observed. Vice versa, plasma ET-1 levels were not decreased after 3 weeks, but we observed an acute drop after drinking one glass of wine. RWE relaxed preconstricted PCAs in an endothelium-, NO-, and soluble guanylyl cyclase (sGC)/guanosine-3',5'-cyclic monophosphate (cGMP)-dependent manner. Short RWE exposure reduced the response to bradykinin and SNAP by inactivating sGC. This effect disappeared upon prolonged RWE exposure.",
"yes. Homocysteine significantly impaired endothelial functions including endothelium-dependent vasorelaxation and eNOS mRNA and protein levels in porcine coronary arteries; and red wine effectively prevented homocysteine-induced endothelial dysfunction. This study suggests that protecting coronary endothelial cells from homocysteine damage may be an important mechanism of red wine for preventing coronary artery disease.",
"yes. Polyphenolic compounds from red grapes acutely improve endothelial function in patients with coronary heart disease. These results could probably, at least partly, explain the favorable effects of red wine on the cardiovascular system.",
"yes. The addition of moderate amounts of red wine did not improve endothelial function beyond conventional therapy, whereas it showed benefits in parameters of oxidative stress in these patients."
] | 247 |
Does a completely accomplished duplex-based surveillance prevent vein-graft failure? | [
"to assess the benefits of duplex-based vein-graft surveillance over clinical surveillance with distal pressure measurements. prospective randomised comparative trial. three hundred and forty-four patients with 362 consecutive infrainguinal vein bypasses were prospectively randomised to a follow-up regime with or without duplex scanning (ABI group and DD group) at 1, 3, 6, 9, and 12 months postoperatively. one hundred and eighty-three grafts were enrolled to the ABI group and 179 to the DD group. The primary assisted patency, secondary patency and limb salvage rates were 67%, 74%, 85% for the ABI group and 67%, 73%, 81% for the DD group. Ninety grafts in the ABI group and 57 in the DD group had surveillance that completely adhered to the protocol. The outcome was also similar for these groups at one year (77%, 87%, 94% and 77%, 83%, 93% respectively), although grafts were revised more frequently in the DD group.",
"intensive surveillance with duplex scanning did not improve the results of any outcome criteria examined. To demonstrate any potential benefit of duplex scanning for vein-graft surveillance a multicentre study with a large number of patients to ensure sufficient power is needed."
] | [
"yes. Doppler ultrasound surveillance is a valuable tool in early detection of hepatic arterial complications. A decrease in peak systolic velocity and resistivity index compared to the corresponding intraoperative data should raise suspicion of splenic arterial steal syndrome. Also Doppler ultrasound can be effectively used to examine the hepatic arterial inflow after selective arterial embolization.",
"Vascular access (VA) is the main difficulty in our hemodialysis Units and there is not adequate update data in our area. To describe the vascular access management models of the Autonomous Community of Madrid and to analyze the influence of the structured models in the final results. Autonomous multicenter retrospective study. Models of VA monitoring, VA distribution 2007-2008, thrombosis rate, salvage surgery and preventive repair are reviewed. The centers are classified in three levels by the evaluation the Nephrology Departments make of their Surgery and Radiology Departments and the existence of protocols, and the ends are compared. Type distribution of VA. VA thrombosis rate, preventive repair and salvage surgery. Data of 2.332 patients were reported from 35 out of 36 centers. Only 19 centers demonstrate database and annual evaluation of the results. Seventeen centers have multidisciplinary structured protocols. Forty-four point eight percent of the patients started dialysis by tunneled catheter (TC). Twenty-nine point five percent received dialysis by TC in December-08 vs 24.7% in December-07. Forty-four point seven percent of TC were considered final VA due to non-viable surgery, 27% are waiting for review or surgery more than 3 months. For rates study data from 27 centers (1.844 patients) were available. Native AVF and graft-AVF thrombosis rates were 10.13 and 39.91 respectively. Centers with better valued models confirmed better results in all markers: TC rates, 24.2 vs 34.1 %, p: 0.002; native AVF thrombosis rate 5.3 vs 10.7 %; native AVF preventive repair 14.5 vs 10.2%, p: 0.17; Graft- AVF thrombosis rate 19.8 vs 44.4%, p: 0.001; Graft-AVF preventive repair 83.2 vs 26.2, p < 0.001.They also have less patients with TC as a final option (32.2 vs 45.3) and less patients with TC waiting for review or surgery more than 3 months (2.8 vs 0).",
"Parameters influencing failure and recanalization rates of endovenous laser treatment (ELT) of the great saphenous vein (GSV) are still to be determined. To evaluate treatment-related parameters of ELT with respect to early failure of occlusion or recanalization of GSVs. A series of 77 consecutive patients received ELT of 106 GSVs with continuous pullback of the laser fiber. Duplex examination was performed at 1 day, 4 weeks, and 3 months after the procedure. Clinical patient and vessel characteristics as well as technical parameters of the ELT procedure were evaluated via multiple logistic regression analysis. A median vein length of 60 cm (range of 18 to 90) was treated with a median pullback velocity of 0.6 cm/sec (range of 0.4 to 1.3), resulting in a median energy delivery of 23.4 J/cm (range of 11.8 to 35.5) and a median laser fluence of 11.8 J/cm2 (range of 2.8 to 37.3). At day 1 after ELT, 6 GSVs (6%) were not occluded. At 1 and 3 months after ELT, 9 GSVs (9%) and 11 GSVs (10%), respectively, were found open by color duplex examination. Risk factors for nonocclusion 3 months after ELT, by univariate analysis, were laser fluence, laser energy per centimeter of vein length, diameter of the vein before treatment, and distance of the thrombus to the sapheno-femoral junction at day 1 after treatment. Finally, multiple regression analysis selected laser fluence (p=0.004, odds ratio=0.40 J/cm2) as the relevant risk factor for ELT failure or recanalization.",
"Routine bilateral lower-extremity venous duplex studies are not necessary in outpatients presenting with unilateral symptoms. In many outpatients, a single-limb study will suffice. If a patient is found to have a DVT on the symptomatic side, then we believe that a bilateral study is indicated. We do believe that routine bilateral scanning of inpatients remains justified. This algorithm may save technician time and increase vascular laboratory efficiency.",
"Most coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) operations still involve the use of greater saphenous vein (GSV) for one or more grafts, even with the increasing use of arterial conduits for coronary revascularization. Wound complications from GSV harvesting are common, and sometimes severe. In order to reduce the morbidity of this procedure, we adopted a technique of endoscopic vein harvesting (EVH). EVH allows nearly complete harvest of the GSV, with excellent visualization, through minimal incisions. At our institution, a physician's assistant routinely performs EVH, usually while a cardiothoracic surgeon harvests an arterial conduit. In 1997, all GSV harvesting was performed by open technique. During a transition period in 1998 and 1999 we used several different endoscopic techniques. By the beginning of 2000, our technique of EVH was standardized and used routinely. To determine whether EVH reduced the morbidity associated with conventional open vein harvesting (OVH), we reviewed the charts of all patients having primary coronary artery bypass operations utilizing GSV during the years 1997 and 2000. The two groups were comparable in risk factors for leg incision complications. The year 2000 EVH group had a marked reduction in the number of wound complications compared with the year 1997 OVH group (7.1% versus 26.1%, P < 0.00001). There were no significant differences between the two groups in total operative time (OVH 224 minutes, EVH 223 minutes, number of distal coronary anastomoses (OVH 3.38 +/- 0.90, EVH 3.38 +/- 0.94), or the rate of clinically apparent early graft failure. There was a significant increase in the use of sequential grafting techniques in the 2000 group (OVH 21.9%, EVH 43.6%, P < 0.00001).",
"This study was designed to evaluate if patients in whom in-stent restenosis developed had an higher risk of early venous graft failure compared with normal patients. The study cohort comprised 120 patients (60 with previous in-stent restenosis and 60 controls) who received a total of 165 complementary venous grafts on the circumflex or right coronary artery system (84 in the restenosis group and 81 in the control group). All patients were prospectively followed-up and underwent reangiography at 5-years follow-up. In the restenosis group, 28 venous grafts (33.%) were perfectly patent, 10 showed major irregularities, and 46 were occluded. In the control patients, 50 grafts (61.7%) were perfectly patent (p < 0.001 compared with the restenosis series), 12 showed major irregularities (p = .74), and 19 were occluded (p < 0.0001). In contrast, the 5-year outcome of internal thoracic artery grafts was not affected by history of in-stent restenosis.",
"Although we do not believe that duplex sonographic measurement of intrarenal flow patterns alone is an accurate means of assessing main renal artery occlusive disease, the resistive indices seem to reflect the magnitude of intraparenchymal disease, and thus may provide important prognostic information for patients undergoing surgical revascularization. Our data suggest that a preoperative d/s ratio below 0.3 correlates with clinical failure relative to BP and renal function responses.",
"yes. The very high predictive value of a negative platelet scintigraphy (96%) strongly suggests that localised perioperative endothelial injury is an important pathogenetic factor in the development of vein graft stenoses.",
"yes. The AneuRx stent-graft was effective in achieving the primary objective of preventing aneurysm rupture in all patients. However, increasing the flexibility of the bifurcated module significantly improved the primary success rate by reducing the need for subsequent secondary interventions.",
"Early graft failure is a common cause of cardiac mortality and morbidity after coronary artery bypass grafting, but there is little information on its natural incidence. Furthermore, there is particular concern about graft patency in off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting and total arterial grafting. We performed a prospective observational study to assess intraoperative graft patency in patients undergoing off-pump and on-pump coronary artery bypass grafting, who also underwent total arterial grafting. We used an intraoperative imaging system, SPY (Novadaq Technologies Inc), based on the fluorescent properties of indocyanine green dye. We assessed the intraoperative graft patency of 533 conduits in 200 patients. The mean number of grafts was 2.7 per patient. Of these patients, 155 (78%) had off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting, and 45 (22%) had on-pump coronary artery bypass grafting. Overall, 161 (80%) had total arterial grafting, with composite arterial grafting performed in 120 (60%) patients. Fluorescence, confirming graft patency, was observed in all but 8 (1.5%) conduits in 8 (4%) patients, necessitating graft revision. Six (3.9%) and 2 (4.4%) of these patients, respectively, had off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting and on-pump coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"The beneficial role of manual thrombus aspiration in thrombus-containing lesions has been proven in acute myocardial infarction but data is lacking in saphenous vein graft lesions. From January 2004 to December 2008, 74 consecutive post-bypass patients underwent percutaneous coronary interventions to 76 saphenous vein graft lesions under the protection of FilterWire EX/EZ. Among them, the latest 25 consecutive patients with 25 lesions were treated with manual aspiration before stenting. The incidence of filter no reflow was compared between patients with and without manual aspiration pretreatment. No major difference in demography, clinical, lesion, and procedure characteristics, and in-hospital outcome has been observed between the two patient groups. Most importantly, the incidence of filter no reflow has not been reduced (32.0% versus 19.6%, P = 0.26) by manual aspiration, even among thrombus-containing lesions (63.2% versus 64.7%, P = 1.00). The absence of diabetes mellitus is found to be the independent predictor for the occurrence of filter no reflow.",
"yes. The interposition of a prosthetic segment in the juxta-anastomotic vein is a simple, quick and effective technique in the treatment of vascular steal syndrome, with promising results at the 2 year follow-up.",
"yes. Perivascular and distant inflammatory challenges potentiate the magnitude and duration of inflammatory responses in the early vein graft wall, negatively modulating wall adaptations, and thus, potentially contribute to vein graft failure. Furthermore, surgery activates innate immunity in adipose tissue, which is augmented (regionally > systemically) by LPS. Modulation of these local and distant inflammatory signaling networks stands as a potential strategy to enhance the durability of vascular interventions such as vein grafts.",
"Flow patterns and shear forces in native coronary arteries are more protective against neointimal hyperplasia than those in femoral arteries. Yet, the caliber mismatch with their target arteries makes coronary artery bypass grafts more likely to encounter intimal hyperplasia than their infrainguinal counterparts due to the resultant slow flow velocity and decreased wall stress. To allow a site-specific, flow-related comparison of remodeling behavior, saphenous vein bypass grafts were simultaneously implanted in femoral and coronary positions. Saphenous vein grafts were concomitantly implanted as coronary and femoral bypass grafts using a senescent nonhuman primate model. Duplex ultrasound-based blood flow velocity profiles and vein graft and target artery dimensions were correlated with dimensional and histomorphologic graft remodeling in large, senescent Chacma baboons (n = 8; 28.1 ± 4.9 kg) during a 24-week period. At implantation, the cross-sectional quotient (Q(c)) between target arteries and vein grafts was 0.62 ± 0.10 for femoral grafts vs 0.17 ± 0.06 for coronary grafts, resulting in a dimensional graft-to-artery mismatch 3.6 times higher (P < .0001) in coronary grafts. Together with different velocity profiles, these site-specific dimensional discrepancies resulted in a 57.9% ± 19.4% lower maximum flow velocity (P = .0048), 48.1% ± 23.6% lower maximal cycling wall shear stress (P = .012), and 62.2% ± 21.2% lower mean velocity (P = .007) in coronary grafts. After 24 weeks, the luminal diameter of all coronary grafts had contracted by 63%, from an inner diameter of 4.49 ± 0.60 to 1.68 ± 0.63 mm (P < .0001; subintimal diameter: -41.5%; P = .002), whereas 57% of the femoral interposition grafts had dilated by 31%, from 4.21 ± 0.25 to 5.53 ± 1.30 mm (P = .020). Neointimal tissue was 2.3 times thicker in coronary than in femoral grafts (561 ± 73 vs 240 ± 149 μm; P = .001). Overall, the luminal area of coronary grafts was an average of 4.1 times smaller than that of femoral grafts.",
"We evaluated the influence of lipid exposure upon conduit patency in long-term follow-up after primary CABG. From a prospectively compiled database, we identified 1207 grafts (436 SV and 771 mixed arterial grafts) among 413 CABG patients with 9.4 ± 2.4 years of follow-up (range 3-13). Surveillance angiography was performed as part of a randomized trial. All available lipid assays were collected from pathology laboratories, and from these, mean annualized lipid exposure was calculated for total cholesterol, HDL, LDL and triglycerides. Angiographical and clinical data were analysed against lipid exposure. Graft failure was defined as occlusion, string sign or >80% stenosis. Six thousand and seventy-seven lipid measurements were obtained, and there were 154 failed grafts. Three hundred and eleven patients received at least one vein graft, and all 413 patients received at least one arterial graft. Overall, only HDL levels were inversely correlated with graft failure, with total cholesterol and LDL showing no associations in a mixed pool of arterial and venous grafts. To assess whether total/LDL cholesterol had no effect or were exerting competing effects in arteries and veins, separate multivariate analyses were performed. Venous graft failure was associated with increased total cholesterol/HDL (P=0.006) and LDL/HDL (P=0.032). By contrast, elevated total cholesterol was correlated with a reduced risk of arterial graft failure (OR for graft failure 0.705, P 0.023) with increasing LDL cholesterol following a similar trend (OR for graft failure 0.729, P=0.051).",
"Duplex ultrasound (DUS) is reliably used to detect lesions in the peripheral and carotid arterial beds and venous system. Although commonly used in clinical practice, duplex criteria to define lesions in arteriovenous access are not well characterized. This study will define the optimal Doppler-derived peak systolic velocity (PSV) and velocity ratio (VR) to identify >50% lesions in arteriovenous fistulas (AVF) and arteriovenous grafts (AVG). This retrospective analysis includes patients with both DUS and fistulogram within 30 days. DUS-derived PSV and VR were recorded for 3 segments of each access and compared with fistulograms of the same 3 segments of each AV access. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) was used to determine the optimal DUS criteria for diagnosis of >50% stenosis. Fifty pairs of imaging in 40 patients were available for analysis. Mean PSV and VR for segments with greater than 50% stenosis were significantly greater than those without; mean PSV of 480 cm/sec vs. 297 cm/sec (P < 0.001) and mean VR of 3.81 vs. 2.09 (P < 0.001). The ROC analysis demonstrated an optimal PSV of 404 and VR of 2.2 to diagnose >50% stenosis with area under the curve of 0.825 and 0.821 for PSV and VR, respectively. PSV of 500 had sensitivity (Se) of 0.60, specificity (Sp) of 0.86, positive predictive value (PPV) of 0.72, and negative predictive value (NPV) of 0.78. VR of 3.0 had Se of 0.52, Sp of 0.91, PPV of 0.77, and NPV of 0.75.",
"A policy of using clinical signs as a triage for duplex imaging detected all clinically significant DVTs and generated manageable workloads for our vascular laboratory.",
"Our study confirmed that minimally invasive LAD grafting was safe and effective. TECAB is associated with a higher rate of early bypass failure and reintervention. MIDCAB is still the most reliable surgical technique for isolated LAD grafting and the least cost effective.",
"yes. A naturally occurring IgM antibody directed against the proinflammatory epitope PC may be protective against vein graft stenosis and failure, through anti-inflammatory mechanisms. Measurement of this antibody may be a useful prognostic indicator, although larger studies of more diverse populations will be needed to confirm these results. The biological actions of anti-PC IgM suggest it may be useful in developing immunotherapies to improve bypass longevity.",
"Whether to graft a moderately stenosed coronary vessel remains debatable. We investigated whether grafting such vessels is warranted based on angiographic evidence of disease progression. Of 619 patients who underwent on-pump coronary artery bypass grafting in an ongoing, randomized radial artery trial, 405 have at least 1 follow-up angiogram at a mean of 6.2 ± 3.1 years (range, 0-14 years) after surgery. Percent diameter stenosis in each major native vessel was reported by 3 cardiac specialists and classified as either moderate (40%-69%) or severe (≥70%) stenosis. Progression of native vessel disease and graft patency were determined by comparison of pre- and postoperative angiography. A total of 3816 native vessels and 1242 bypass grafts were analyzed, of which 386 moderate preoperative lesions were identified, 323 of which were grafted. In all territories, grafted vessels had greater risk of disease progression than ungrafted equivalents (43.4% vs 10.5%, P < .001). Moderate lesions were more likely than severe lesions to remain unchanged on follow-up angiography (52.6% vs 31.1%, P < .001). Only 1 in 7 moderate lesions in the right coronary artery exhibited significant progression during follow-up if left ungrafted, whereas the likelihood of progression in left-sided counterparts approached 50%. Arterial and vein grafts to left-sided moderately stenosed vessels had excellent patency (83% and 77% at 8 years, respectively), which was not matched by right-sided grafts (P = .051). Placement of a graft for a moderate lesion was associated with significantly greater incidence of disease progression, most marked in the right coronary territory.",
"To evaluate feasibility, technical success, and the need for reintervention in the early perioperative period, following the introduction of intraoperative DynaCT (DynaCT, Siemens AG, Berlin, Germany) in patients undergoing infrarenal endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR). DynaCT involves the generation of computed tomography (CT)-like images from \"on table\" rotational angiographic acquisition. A prospectively maintained database of 312 patients undergoing EVAR (September 2001 - February 2007) was interrogated to determine incidence of early reintervention following satisfactory appearances of uniplanar completion angiography (control group). Following the introduction of DynaCT (DynaCT group - 80 patients), clinical and radiologic outcomes were prospectively evaluated (September 2007 - May 2008). Both groups underwent pre-discharge computed tomographic angiography (CTA) and color-flow duplex scan. Comparative analysis of procedural data, hospital-stay, mortality, and early reintervention between the two groups was undertaken. In the control group, 14 (4.5%) patients required reintervention procedures within 30 days of EVAR (10 endovascular, 7 surgical). Six patients had type 1 endoleaks and 8 presented with acute limb ischemia. Review of this cohort suggested that the majority of complications (86%) may have been immediately identifiable with improved intra-operative quality control. In the DynaCT group, DynaCT was feasible in 81.3% (n = 65/80) of patients and resulted in the detection of five clinically significant anomalies (6.25%, n = 5/80). These technical problems were not identified at completion angiography but were corrected after DynaCT (2 type 1 endoleaks, 1 type 3 endoleak, 1 limb compression, and 1 graft thrombosis). Standard pre-discharge imaging did not identify any further graft-related complications in the DynaCT group. Introduction of DynaCT resulted in a reduced need for early reintervention (0/80 vs 14/312, P = .05).",
"Bypass grafting remains the standard of care for coronary artery disease and severe lower extremity ischemia. Efficacy is limited by poor long-term venous graft patency secondary to intimal hyperplasia (IH) caused by venous injury upon exposure to arterial pressure. We investigate whether photochemical tissue passivation (PTP) treatment of vein grafts modulates smooth muscle cell (SMC) proliferation and migration, and inhibits development of IH. PTP was performed at increasing fluences up to 120 J/cm(2) on porcine veins. Tensiometry performed to assess vessel elasticity/stiffness showed increased stiffness with increasing fluence until plateauing at 90 J/cm(2) (median, interquartile range [IQR]). At 90 J/cm(2), PTP-treated vessels had a 10-fold greater Young's modulus than untreated controls (954 [IQR, 2217] vs 99 kPa [IQR, 63]; P=0.03). Each pig received a PTP-treated and untreated carotid artery venous interposition graft. At 4-weeks, intimal/medial areas were assessed. PTP reduced the degree of IH by 66% and medial hypertrophy by 49%. Intimal area was 3.91 (IQR, 1.2) and 1.3 mm(2) (IQR, 0.97; P≤0.001) in untreated and PTP-treated grafts, respectively. Medial area was 9.2 (IQR, 3.2) and 4.7 mm(2) (IQR, 2.0; P≤0.001) in untreated and PTP-treated grafts, respectively. Immunohistochemistry was performed to assess alpha-smooth muscle actin (SMA) and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA). Objectively, there were less SMA-positive cells within the intima/media of PTP-treated vessels than controls. There was an increase in PCNA-positive cells within control vein grafts (18% [IQR, 5.3]) versus PTP-treated vein grafts (5% [IQR, 0.9]; P=0.02).",
"This study aims to determine whether asymptomatic carotid surgery trial (ACST) centres have entered and can identify high risk patients using duplex. Retrospective study. Eighty-six vascular laboratories collaborating in ACST were studied, Equipment, operator experience, methodology and interpretation criteria were assessed. The ACST randomisation data were examined to determine whether patients believed to be at higher risk of stroke because of tight stenosis, contralateral occlusion or echolucent plaque were randomised. Laboratories (92%) had colour duplex and 62% of all operators had>3 years experience in carotid evaluation. The Doppler angle used to obtain peak velocity was 30-60 degrees in 65%, 60 degrees in 28% and 60-80 degrees in 6% of laboratories. Sixty-two per cent reported diameter reduction, 27% area reduction, and 11% used both methods. One-third of 1657 randomised patients were reported to have ipsilateral echolucent plaque. Median ipsilateral stenosis was 80%, 8% had contralateral occlusion and 8.5% had bilateral>80% stenosis.",
"yes. In this single-center experience with endovascular therapies to treat failing infrapopliteal bypass grafts, rates of limb preservation were high, but the majority of patients developed graft restenosis within 12 months. Grafts with longer stenoses fared poorly by comparison. These data suggest that endovascular interventions to restore or prolong graft patency may be associated with maintained graft patency and that close follow-up with vascular laboratory surveillance is essential.",
"The value of surveillance venous duplex scanning for detecting unsuspected deep venous thrombosis (DVT) in trauma patients who are receiving enoxaparin prophylaxis is open to question. This study was undertaken to determine whether enoxaparin reduced the clinical utility of surveillance scanning and whether management of these patients was altered by findings of the scans. The medical records of trauma patients who met defined criteria for high DVT risk, admitted during 30 consecutive months, were reviewed. These patients received enoxaparin 30 mg every 12 hours for the duration of their admissions. Per protocol, surveillance lower extremity venous duplex scans were performed within 72 hours of enoxaparin administration and then weekly until patients were discharged from the hospital. The records were reviewed for thromboembolic events (DVT or pulmonary embolism [PE]), patient location and ambulatory status, therapeutic interventions (systemic anticoagulation, vena cava filter), and complications of enoxaparin therapy. A total 241 patients underwent 513 venous duplex examinations (1-13 per patient). Eight patients had DVT on the initial scan; seven of these patients were asymptomatic. Five were treated with anticoagulation and/or vena cava filter placement. Of the 233 patients with initially negative duplex scan results, five patients (2%) developed clinically unsuspected lower extremity DVT while hospitalized. All of these five patients were in an intensive care unit. Three of the five patients had no change in treatment. Two of the five underwent anticoagulation, and one vena cava filter was placed. PE occurred in two hospitalized patients, one of whom was ambulatory, with negative duplex scan results. After hospital discharge, six other patients had symptomatic DVT or PE despite in-hospital scans with negative results. Complications associated with enoxaparin included hemorrhage (2) and thrombocytopenia (8).",
"Graft Imaging to Improve Patency (GRIIP), a single-center, randomized blinded clinical trial, reported that intraoperative graft assessment with graft revision according to a priori criteria of transit time flowmetry (TTF) and intraoperative fluorescent angiography did not improve graft patency at one year after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) when compared with standard intraoperative management. The objective of this study is to investigate whether other TTF values are more predictive of the saphenous vein graft (SVG) failure and/or clinical outcomes. This is a case control retrospective study of 65 SVGs from 44 patients from GRIIP. Study outcomes were graft patency at 12 months and major adverse cardiac events (MACE; death, myocardial infarction, repeat revascularization). Twenty-two SVGs were occluded. In receiver operating characteristic curve analysis, TTF mean flow was significantly predictive of one-year SVG failure (area under the curve = 0.698, p<0.01), and 31 mL/min was the best cut-off value (p = 0.017, sensitivity 63.6%, specificity 67.4%). The risk of graft occlusion was 14/28, 50% for grafts with mean flow<31 mL/min and 8/37, 21.6% for grafts with mean flow ≥ 31 mL/min. In logistic regression models, mean flow was a significant predictor of early SVG failure (Odds Ratio 0.95 [0.91-0.99] per mL/min, p = 0.014) whereas other TTF values, patient comorbidities, and/or medication at discharge were not. However, TTF values were not predictive of MACE.",
"We provide evidence that active blood flow surveillance and pre-emptive repair of subclinical stenosis reduce the thrombosis rate and prolong the functional life of mature forearm AVFs. We also show that Qa is a crucial indicator of access patency and a Qa>350 ml/min portends a superior outcome with pre-emptive action in AVFs.",
"Pulse-spray thrombolysis is effective in rapidly recanalizing thrombosed infrainguinal grafts. Grafts failing in the first year after placement should generally be replaced, reserving thrombolysis and revision for grafts greater than 1 year old. Vein grafts tolerate thrombosis less well than synthetic conduits and have decreased long-term patency.",
"An early follow-up protocol consisting of an intraoperative completion angiogram, DUS, and abdominal radiograph shows a high sensitivity and NPV for the detection of endoleaks and should detect early migration or kinking of the stent-graft. An initial postoperative CTA is not necessary for most patients undergoing EVAR and should be reserved for those individuals in whom the aforementioned modalities are inconclusive or show signs of endoleak or other EVAR failure.",
"yes. Dual-vein outflow demonstrated 73% reduction in overall complications and 69% reduction in flap failure rate compared to single-vein flaps. These results suggest a protective effect of a dual-vein outflow system, and when considered together with our findings of unchanged operative time, provide evidence for preferential use of two venous anastomoses when possible for free flap reconstruction of lower extremity trauma.",
"yes. Sonoporation with doxorubicin suppressed IH of the vein graft. Sonoporation may be effective in coronary or peripheral revascularization using vein grafts.",
"Duplex surveillance of infrainguinal PTFE bypass grafts has a low yield and is inadequate at predicting continued bypass patency.",
"yes. These results indicate that Rho kinase is substantially involved in the pathogenesis of intimal thickening of vein grafts and that it is an important therapeutic target for the prevention of graft failure.",
"yes. This study suggests that routine angiography of the brachiocephalic arteries at the time of coronary angiography is effective in preventing coronary-subclavian steal syndrome in select patients who are candidates for bypass grafting using LIMA.",
"Hemodialysis arteriovenous graft (AVG) patency is dependent on favorable flow characteristics. We examined hemodynamic, humoral risk factors, and the effects of stringent flow surveillance coupled with prompt corrective intervention on long-term graft patency. Over a 29-month period 92 chronic hemodialysis patients with AVG were evaluated monthly by flow surveillance. Clinical diagnosis of failing graft, which promoted angiography and corrective intervention was based on flow reduction, and patient's unique medical history and hemodynamic parameters. Graft arteriography revealed stenotic lesions in 94.5% of the cases, necessitating endovascular or surgical angioplasty. Low ejection fraction, early postoperative intervention, and low baseline flow were associated with a statistically significant reduction in intervention-free interval (p < 0.05). Mean AVG flow threshold prior to intervention was 463 +/- 154 ml/min, corresponding to a mean flow reduction of 45 +/- 12%. Total graft thrombosis rate was 0.21 thrombotic episodes/patient year. Primary graft patency at 6, 12, and 24 months was 76, 44 and 35%, and secondary patency 99, 97, 88%, respectively.",
"Preimplant vein morphology has been implicated as a risk factor for subsequent vein graft failure. It is controversial whether microscopic intimal thickening in random saphenous vein biopsy specimens is associated with an increased risk of graft failure. The purpose of this study was to determine the incidence of preexisting intimal thickening in a macroscopically normal preimplant vein, and to evaluate whether preimplant vein intimal thickness was predictive of future vein graft stenosis. As part of an ongoing protocol, samples of preimplant veins were obtained at the time of the primary leg bypass. Routine duplex surveillance identified 14 patients who required operative revision for severe graft stenosis (n = 12) or graft occlusion (n = 2). Verhoeff's staining of specimens was performed to delineate the internal elastic lamina. Morphometric analysis of preimplant vein specimens was performed. The results were compared to a control group of 13 preimplant vein specimens selected from patients whose grafts have remained patent and stenosis-free by duplex. Preoperative risk factors were identical between the two groups. Mean intimal thickness in all 27 specimens was measured by two blinded observers. Almost 50% of specimens exhibited marked intimal thickening (>0.08 mm). The mean preimplant intimal thickness of the stenosis group was 0.108 mm +/- 0.155 compared to 0.100 mm +/- 0.064 for the control group (P = 0.866, NS).",
"Literature reports that surveillance imaging following endovascular aortic aneurysm repair (EVAR) gives rise to asymptomatic secondary interventions (SI) in 1.4-9% of cases. This retrospective study aimed to evaluate whether the modality of surveillance imaging influences the detection rate of asymptomatic SI. Two EVAR surveillance protocols were compared at the same vascular centre. Protocol I, performed from January 2003 to December 2006, consisted of colour duplex ultrasound scan (CDU) plus CT angiography (CTA) 1 month after procedure and every 6 months thereafter. Protocol II, performed from January 2007 to June 2010, consisted of CDU plus CTA 1 month after operation and CDU plus plain abdominal films (XR) every 6 months thereafter. In the second protocol, CTA was carried out only during follow-up in specific conditions. The term 'asymptomatic SI' was used when the necessity for SI was detected by imaging alone on an elective basis, prior to development of any symptoms. Enrolment included 376 and 341 consecutive patients with a mean follow-up of 1148 days (range 1-3204 days) and 942 days (range1-1512 days) in Protocols I and II, respectively (p < 0.001). Freedom rates from aneurysmal rupture, freedom from SI and detection rate for asymptomatic SI at 3 years were 98.3% and 98.7% (p = 0.456), 82% and 83.5%(p = 0.876) and 8.8% (n = 33/376) and 8.5%(n = 25/341) (p = 0.49) in Protocols I and II, respectively. Estimated comparison of the costs, radiation exposure and contrast used at 3 years in Protocol I versus Protocol II showed that Protocol II allowed for a three-, four- and six fold reduction in overall costs, radiation exposure and contrast used, respectively (p < 0.0001).",
"With the technologic advancement in vascular ultrasound imaging, surgeons are now encouraged to perform their own examinations. Vascular surgeons run the vascular laboratory in the Suez Canal University hospital. The aim of this study is to determine the efficiency and advantages of arterial duplex scanning performed by the surgeon. A prospective comparative study between the results of color duplex (performed by a vascular surgeon), arteriogram and operative finding in 105 limbs (96 lower and 9 upper) from 63 patients, with chronic arterial occlusive disease or of peripheral arterial emergencies, was performed. The arterial vessels were divided into 13 segments. A total of 858 segments were examined. Duplex scanning was able to detect significant disease with a sensitivity of 83%, a specificity of 100%, positive predictive index 100%, negative predicative index 93%, accuracy 95% and k value of 0.85. Accuracy for the final therapeutic decision was 83% in arteriography, 80% in duplex and in a combination of both was 100%.",
"yes. Early vein bypass thrombectomy is associated with a two-fold increased risk of graft related stenoses and a reduced secondary bypass patency.",
"Stenoses in infrageniculate arteries proximal to a lower extremity vein graft may reduce flow velocity through the bypass graft and are thought to predispose to graft occlusion. Repair of these lesions has been recommended to preserve graft function. This study was undertaken to better define the natural history of grafts below inflow lesions and to evaluate the necessity of repair to preserve graft patency. From 1994 through 1999, patients undergoing lower extremity vein grafts by a single surgeon at a university hospital and an affiliated teaching hospital were placed in a prospective protocol for proximal infrageniculate native artery and graft surveillance through use of duplex scanning. The records of those patients with grafts originating distal to the common femoral artery were evaluated; they form the basis for this report. Arteriograms were obtained before bypass grafting, and no patient had a stenosis greater than 50% diameter reduction proximal to the graft origin. Follow-up scans were obtained from the common femoral artery through the graft and outflow artery. The peak systolic velocity and velocity ratio in an infrageniculate native artery proximal to the graft origin were recorded, as were the location and the time interval since the bypass graft. Repair of these proximal lesions was not performed during the course of this study. Revision of the bypass graft or its anastomoses was undertaken according to preestablished duplex scan criteria. During this time, 288 autogenous infrainguinal bypass grafts were performed, of which 159 originated below the common femoral artery; of these, 74 were from the superficial femoral artery, 29 from the profunda femoris artery, 49 from the popliteal artery, and 7 from a tibial artery. The maximum peak systolic velocity proximal to the graft origin was more than 250 in 38 arteries (25%) and more than 300 in 26 arteries (16%). The velocity ratio was 3.0 or more in 32 arteries at the same location as the peak systolic velocity and 3.5 or more in 23 arteries (15%), confirming hemodynamically significant stenoses at these sites. The location of peak systolic velocity was the common femoral artery in 81 patients (51%), the superficial femoral artery in 50 (31%), the popliteal artery in 22 (14%), and a tibial artery in 6 (4%). Follow-up ranged from 8 to 60 months (mean, 35 months). During follow-up, 19 patients died, 18 with patent grafts. Overall, nine grafts occluded. One of the occluded grafts had a velocity ratio greater than 3.0; this may have contributed to graft thrombosis. The other occlusions resulted from an unrepaired graft lesion in 2 patients, graft infection in 2 patients, and graft ligation necessitated by below-knee amputation in 2 patients. No cause for the occlusion could be identified in two of the grafts (neither had evidence of proximal arterial stenosis). Assisted primary patency rates were 95% and 91% at 3 and 5 years, respectively.",
"HHD, guided by the routine duplex scan, can accurately mark SPJ with reflux. A second duplex is not required for marking prior to surgery. This will reduce the workload of the vascular laboratory.",
"yes. Our data suggested that c-myc siRNA, when given immediately after the surgery, is an effective approach for the prevention of vein graft restenosis.",
"To assess the value of arterial duplex ultrasound, which assesses the location and severity of arterial disease, in determining whether invasive vascular intervention is required. A total of 166 consecutive diabetic patients presenting at a multidisciplinary foot clinic with severe peripheral vascular disease, with or without a foot ulcer, were included in this prospective study. The choice of vascular intervention was based on the results of a duplex ultrasound examination. Subjects were followed up for two years, and their clinical management, vascular assessments and interventions given, and patient outcomes were recorded in a specially designed protocol. Based on findings of the duplex ultrasound, it was recommended that 55 patients (33%) should undergo angioplasty (percutaneous transluminal angioplasty [PTA] and/or subintimal recanalisation), 64 patients (39%) diagnostic angiography and 47 patients (28%) medical treatment only, thereby avoiding unnecessary angiography and its potential complications. Diagnostic angiography was recommended when the duplex ultrasound results were inconclusive. Fifty-two of the 55 patients recommended angiography with simultaneous angioplasty had an angiography; of these, 42 (81%) then had an angioplasty. Fifty-seven of the 64 patients with inconclusive results had an angiography. Of these, 23 (40%) subsequently had angioplasty, only 10 (18%) had reconstructive surgery and 24 (42%) had a diagnostic angiography only.",
"yes. C1inh significantly protects against early vein graft remodeling, including loss of endothelium and intimal thickening. These data suggest that it may be worth considering its use in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"Significant variability exists in completion imaging (CIM) after infrainguinal lower extremity bypass (LEB). We evaluated the use of CIM and compared graft patency in patients treated by surgeons who performed routine CIM vs those who performed selective CIM. We reviewed the Vascular Study Group of New England database (2003-2010) and assessed the use of CIM (angiography or duplex ultrasound) among patients undergoing LEB. The surgeon-specific CIM strategy was categorized as routine (≥80% of LEBs) vs selective (<80% of LEBs). Exclusion criteria included acute limb ischemia, bilateral procedures, and surgeon volume <10 cases per study period. Primary graft patency at discharge and at 1 year was analyzed on the basis of CIM use and surgeon-specific CIM strategy. Multivariable analyses were performed using Poisson regression. Among 2032 LEB procedures performed by 48 surgeons, CIM was used in 1368 cases (67.3%). CIM was performed in 72% of autogenous LEBs and 52% of prosthetic grafts. Dialysis (odds ratio [OR], 1.7; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1-2.6; P = .01), elective LEB (OR, 2.6; 95% CI, 1.4-4.8; P = .002), great saphenous vein conduit (OR, 2.0; 95% CI, 1.6-2.5; P < .001), and tibial or pedal target artery (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.4-2.3; P < .001) were associated with CIM use. In multivariate models, CIM was not associated with improved primary graft patency at discharge (OR, 1.1; 95% CI, 0.7-1.7; P = .64) or at 1 year (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.7-1.2; P = .47). Sixteen surgeons (33%) were routine users and 32 (67%) were selective users of CIM. Among patients of routine vs selective CIM users, primary graft patency at discharge and at 1 year was 96% vs 94% (P = .21) and 68% vs 72% (P = .09), respectively. In multivariate analysis, routine or selective CIM strategy was not associated with improved discharge (rate ratio, 0.8; 95% CI, 0.6-1.1; P = .31) or 1-year (rate ratio, 1.1; 95% CI, 0.9-1.2; P = .56) graft patency.",
"yes. VABFM for early detection of vascular access malfunction coupled with preventive intervention reduces thrombosis rates in both polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) grafts and native AVFs. While there was a significant increase in the number of angioplasties done during the flow monitoring phase, the comprehensive cost is markedly reduced due to the decreased number of hospitalizations, catheters placed, missed treatments, and surgical interventions. Vascular access blood flow monitoring along with preventive interventions should be the standard of care in chronic hemodialysis patients.",
"Although duplex vein mapping (DVM) of the great saphenous vein (GSV) is common practice, there is no level I evidence for its application. Our prospective randomized trial studied the effect of preoperative DVM in infrainguinal bypass surgery. Consecutive patients undergoing primary bypass grafting were prospectively randomized for DVM of the GSV (group A) or no DMV of the GSV (group B) before surgery. Society for Vascular Surgery reporting standards were applied. From December 2009 to December 2010, 103 patients were enrolled: 51 (group A) underwent DVM of the GSV, and 52 (group B) did not. Group A and group B not differ statistically in age (72.8 vs 71.1 years), sex (women, 29.4% vs 34.6%), cardiovascular risk factors, body mass index (25.9 vs 26.1 kg/m(2)), bypass anatomy, and runoff. Group A and B had equal operative time (151.4 vs 151.1 minutes), incisional length (39.4 vs 39.9 cm), and secondary bypass patency at 30 days (96.1% vs 96.2%; P = .49). Conduit issues resulted in six intraoperative changes of the operative plan in group B vs none in group A (P = .014). Median postoperative length of stay was comparable in both groups (P = .18). Surgical site infections (SSIs) were classified (in group A vs B) as minor (23.5% vs 23.1%; P = 1.0) and major (1.9% vs 21.2%; P = .004). Readmissions due to SSIs were 3.9% in group A vs 19.2% in group B (P = .028). Two patients in group B died after complications of SSIs. Multivariate analysis identified preoperative DVM as the only significant factor influencing the development of major SSI (P = .0038).",
"yes. DUS does not reliably predict arterial occlusion after EVT. Stenosis after EVT appears to have a different natural history than restenosis after vein graft bypass. EVT patients are more likely to have severe stenosis when they present with recurrent symptoms, in contrast to vein graft patients, who commonly have occluded grafts when they present with recurrent symptoms. The potential impact of routine DU-directed reintervention in patients after EVT is questionable. The natural history of DU-detected stenosis after femoropopliteal endovascular therapy suggests questionable clinical utility of routine DUS.",
"The aim of this prospective study conducted at a tertiary referral center was to evaluate the efficacy of high-frequency duplex scanning in the preoperative evaluation of potential pedal target vessels. Material and methods The study population consisted of thirty-three consecutive diabetics suffering critical limb ischemia, with indications of infra-popliteal occlusive disease. Duplex ultrasound was performed by an angiologist unaware of any prior imaging procedures. The pedal vessels were divided into four segments. The inner diameter-, the grade of calcification (on a scale from 1-to-3), the maximal systolic velocity, and the resistance index ([V.max syst-V min syst]/V max syst), were assessed by using a 13-MHz probe, and the pedal target vessel best suited for surgery was identified. Results of duplex scanning were compared to (1) the results of selective digital subtraction angiography (DSA) and contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance angiography (CE-MRA) studies interpreted by two radiologists, (2) the site of distal anastomosis predicted by a vascular surgeon according to DSA and CE-MRA studies, (3) the definitive site of distal anastomosis, and (4) early postoperative results (patency at three months). Duplex scanning depicted significantly more pedal vascular segments than selective DSA- (P =.004, McNemar test). Agreement in predicting the site of distal anastomosis expressed as kappa value as follows: duplex versus DSA/CE-MRA, kappa 0.71;-DSA/CE-MRA versus definitive anastomosis, kappa 0.67; -and duplex versus definitive anastomosis kappa 0.82. Two patients were excluded from surgery as all three imaging modalities failed to demonstrate a pedal target vessel. Two patients had exploratory dissection of a pedal vessel (according to CE-MRA findings) that turned out to be occluded (as predicted by duplex scanning). In one patient the operation had to be terminated due to lack of autologous bypass material. In 31 patients who underwent pedal artery bypass, the resistance index could not be correlated to the run-off as assessed by intra-operative angiography.",
"Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) is the dominant treatment strategy for abdominal aortic aneurysms. However, as a result of uncertainty regarding long-term durability, an ongoing imaging surveillance program is required. The aim of the study was to assess EVAR surveillance in Scotland and its effect on all-cause and aneurysm-related mortality. A retrospective analysis of all EVAR procedures carried out in the four main Scottish vascular units. The primary outcome measure was the implementation of post-EVAR imaging surveillance across Scotland. Patients were identified locally and then categorized as having complete, incomplete, or no surveillance. Secondary outcome measures were all-cause mortality and aneurysm-related mortality. Cause of death was obtained from death certificates. Data were available for 569 patients from the years 2001 to 2012. All centers had data for a minimum of 5 contiguous years. Surveillance ranged from 1.66 to 4.55 years (median 3.03 years). Overall, 53 % had complete imaging surveillance, 43 % incomplete, and 4 % none. For the whole cohort, all-cause 5-year mortality was 33.5 % (95 % confidence interval 28.0-38.6) and aneurysm-related mortality was 4.5 % (.8-7.3). All-cause mortality in patients with complete, incomplete, and no imaging was 49.9 % (39.2-58.6), 19.1 % (12.6-25.2), and 47.2 % (17.7-66.2), respectively. Aneurysm-related mortality was 3.7 % (1.8-7.4), 4.4 % (2.2-8.9), and 9.5 % (2.5-33.0), respectively. All-cause mortality was significantly higher in patients with complete compared to incomplete imaging surveillance (p<0.001). No significant differences were observed in aneurysm-related mortality (p = 0.2).",
"Factors responsible for the variability in outcomes after lower extremity vein bypass grafting (LEVBG) are poorly understood. Recent evidence has suggested that a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) in the promoter region of the p27(Kip1) gene, a cell-cycle regulator, is associated with coronary in-stent restenosis. We hypothesized an association with vein graft patency. This was a retrospective genetic association study nested within a prospective cohort of 204 patients from three referral centers undergoing LEVBG for claudication or critical ischemia. The main outcome measure was primary vein graft patency. All patients were followed up for a minimum of 1 year with duplex graft surveillance (median follow-up, 893 days; interquartile range, 539-1315). Genomic DNA was isolated and SNP analysis for the p27(Kip1)-838C>A variants was performed. Allele frequencies were correlated with graft outcome using survival analysis and Cox proportional hazards modeling. The p27(Kip1)-838C>A allele frequencies observed were CA, 53%; CC, 30%; and AA, 17%, satisfying Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Race (P = .025) and history of coronary artery disease (P = .027) were different across the genotypes; all other baseline variables were similar. Primary graft patency was greater among patients with the -838AA genotype (75% AA vs 55% CA/CC at 3 years; P = .029). In a Cox proportional hazards model including age, sex, race, diabetes, critical limb ischemia, redo (vs primary) bypass, vein type, and baseline C-reactive protein level, the p27(Kip1)-838AA genotype was significantly associated with higher graft patency (hazard ratio for failure, 0.4; 95% confidence interval, 0.17-0.93). Genotype was also associated with early (0-1 month) changes in graft lumen diameter by ultrasound imaging.",
"yes. The importance of life-long strict surveillance of patients treated with a Vanguard endograft was confirmed. Patients with graft-related complications should be treated accordingly.",
"The purpose of this study was to assess the contribution of ongoing graft surveillance to maximize long-term patency of lower limb in situ saphenous vein bypasses. From January 1981 to October 1994, 556 autogenous grafts were constructed in 499 patients. The distal anastomosis was at the popliteal level in 207 (37%) and the tibial level in 349 (63%). All patients were enrolled in a prospective surveillance protocol to identify lesions that compromise graft patency and were evaluated at 1 day, 1 week, 6 weeks, and 3 months. Surveillance studies were then obtained every 3 months for the first 2 postoperative years and every 6 months thereafter. Four-hundred-fifty abnormalities were detected in 236 grafts. The median interval from the initial procedure to detection of an abnormality was 12 months (range 0 to 113 months) and varied with the location of the defect. Later in the life of the graft, progression of atherosclerotic disease manifested as inflow obstruction at a median of 15 months, and outflow disease threatened the graft at a median of 29 months (r = 0.0003). Of the 450 surveillance abnormalities, 294 (65%) occurred within the first 2 years after operation, and 156 (35%) developed more than 2 years after operation. Of the 236 grafts that developed surveillance abnormalities, 50 (21%) developed the initial defect more than 2 years after the initial bypass procedure. Eleven percent of grafts remaining free of abnormality after 2 years went on to fail. Sixty-seven interventions were performed on 62 extremities after 24 months, with 30 involving previously unrevised grafts.",
"With a conservative approach that does not replace nondiseased saphenous vein grafts at redo CABG (1) there is no increase in operative mortality, (2) good late survival is obtained, (3) clinical ischemia related to the NR saphenous vein grafts is uncommon, and (4) NR grafts continue to be patent. We conclude that disease-free vein grafts may not require routine replacement at redo CABG. A randomized study is required for definitive resolution.",
"To determine if intraoperative distal graft end-diastolic velocity (EDV) using completion duplex ultrasound (CDU) predicts patency of crural bypass in patients with critical limb ischemia (CLI). Records of 116 non-consecutive patients who underwent crural revascularization with vein conduit and CDU between 1998 and 2008 were reviewed. Bypass grafts were performed for rest pain (34%) or tissue loss (66%), while 56% of the reported cases were categorized as \"disadvantaged\" because of compromised vein quality or diseased arterial outflow. A 10-MHz low-profile transducer was used to image the entire bypass at case completion. Technical adequacy of the grafts was verified by absence of retained valves, arteriovenous fistulas, or localized velocity increases and presence of bypass-dependent distal pulses. Modified Rutherford scores were calculated as surrogate markers of runoff resistance and compared to distal graft EDV. The primary study end point was graft patency during a 1-year posttreatment period. Patency rates were determined using Kaplan-Meier life table methodology and compared using the log-rank test. Predictors of graft patency were determined by Cox proportional hazards. Primary, primary-assisted, and secondary patency for all crural bypasses were 62%, 66%, and 70% at 1 year, respectively. When stratified by tertiles of distal graft EDV (0 - <5 cm/s, 5-15 cm/s, >15 cm/s), 1-year primary patency rates were 32%, 64%, and 84% (P = .001). Low (0 - < 5 cm/s) distal graft EDV (hazard ratio [HR], 3.3 confidence interval [CI], 1.74-6.41; P < .001), poor-quality conduit (HR, 2.5; CI, 1.19-5.21; P = .016), age <70 (HR, 2.08; CI, 1.06-4.00; P = .031), and lack of statin use (HR, 2.04; CI, 1.04-4.00; P = .038) were independent predictors of graft failure. While the modified Rutherford score correlated with distal graft EDV (P = .05), it was not an independent predictor of patency (P = .58). Predictors of low EDV (<5 cm/s) included single-vessel runoff (odds ratio [OR], 3.33; CI, 1.14-9.71; P = .027), poor conduit (OR, 2.94; CI, 1.16-7.41; P = 0.024), and diabetes (OR, 2.86; CI, 1.14-7.21; P = .025).",
"Although less accurate for central lesions, DU has a key role on VA surveillance, allowing a morphologic and hemodynamic assessment. Angioplasty is effective in preserving VA; however, it may increase restenosis due to accelerated neointimal hyperplasia. Current parameters are not useful. Trials addressing this issue are needed.",
"no. Available data do not permit prediction of which LERVG are immune from missed lesions in a duplex scan surveillance protocol. This suggests to us that arteriography is mandatory before LERVG revisions.",
"The progression of inflow and outflow disease is the predominant cause of failing PTFE grafts, which suggests that this process is a more important cause of PTFE graft thrombosis than is generally recognized. Frequent PTFE graft surveillance may permit detection of some threatening lesions before graft thrombosis occurs and may help maintain and prolong graft patency. The enhanced 5-year patency and limb salvage rates for treated failing PTFE grafts compared with the known poor outcome after reinterventions for PTFE graft failure support the conclusion that surveillance of PTFE grafts is worthwhile.",
"Vascular reconstruction can be undertaken safely in patients with lower limb arterial disease on the basis of Duplex scanning alone.",
"For grafts originating distal to the common femoral artery, stenoses proximal to the graft do not affect bypass graft patency and do not require repair to prevent graft occlusion. Surveillance of these lesions may therefore be unnecessary, inasmuch as the repair of proximal lesions should not be undertaken to preserve graft function.",
"Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious complication of varicose vein surgery, with attendant risks of pulmonary embolization. Prospective duplex screening identifies DVT in 5% of patients compared to clinical incidence of approximately 1%. Universal duplex screening is costly, and the benefits of diagnosing subclinical DVT are unproven. This study evaluates whether a policy of using clinical indications (leg swelling) to determine the need for duplex imaging is safe after varicose vein surgery. Patients undergoing varicose vein surgery over a 4-year period were studied. Postoperative venous duplex imaging was performed if leg swelling occurred within 6 weeks of surgery. Long-term follow-up was performed to detect any missed occurrence of clinical DVT or pulmonary embolism. A total of 411 patients had 491 leg operations with 80 bilateral procedures (27%); 29 patients with leg swelling underwent duplex imaging, 5 of whom had duplex-proven DVT. No patient without early clinical signs went on to develop clinical DVT on long-term follow-up.",
"yes. Examination with HHD ultrasonography is not sufficiently accurate to plan varicose vein surgery. Duplex imaging is recommended before all operations for primary varicose veins.",
"Until April 1997 we routinely performed intra-arterial digital subtraction angiography (iaDSA) in all patients with severe lower leg ischemia requiring intervention. After a comparative study of duplex scanning (DS), pulsegenerated runoff, and iaDSA of the lower leg arteries, we postulated that management could be based on DS/pulse-generated runoff in 59% of patients. We prospectively evaluated the safety of such a noninvasive workup strategy. All consecutive patients referred with severe lower leg ischemia between April 1997 and September 1998 were eligible. Management was based on DS with iaDSA being performed only on indication. Complications within 30 days and 12- and 24-month patency, survival, and limb salvage rates were recorded and compared with historical controls. A total of 125 limbs in 114 patients were evaluated (74% rest pain or tissue loss). In 97 (78%) of 125 limbs, management was based on DS. It comprised conservative treatment (n = 33, 0% after iaDSA), percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (n = 25, 16% iaDSA), femoropopliteal bypass graft (n = 29, 17% iaDSA), femorotibial bypass graft (n = 29, 62% iaDSA), and other surgical procedures (n = 8, 4% iaDSA). Overall, the mortality within 30 days was 4% (5/114), and 2-year survival was 83%. Two-year primary and secondary patency and limb salvage rates were 75%, 93%, and 93% after a femoropopliteal bypass operation, respectively. One-year primary and secondary patency and limb salvage rates were 35%, 73%, and 74%, respectively, after a femorocrural bypass operation. There were no differences in patient characteristics, indication for specific treatment, and immediate and intermediate term outcome between the study and reference population.",
"To assess the risk of graft stenoses following early thrombectomy of peripheral vein bypasses. Prospective study of 371 vein bypasses performed at the Vascular Service, Rigshospitalet, Copenhagen from January 1991 through December 1992. Thirty-six vein bypasses reopened by thrombectomy within 30 days postoperatively (group I) and 335 bypasses not subjected to early thrombectomy (group II) were studied by ultrasound duplex scanning 3, 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36 and 48 months postoperatively. A localised increase in the peak systolic velocity of 250% or more was considered an indicator for significant stenosis. In the perioperative period nine (2%) patients died, 30 (8%) bypasses occluded and 14 (4%) patients were lost to follow-up. Among the 318 patients remaining at risk at 1 month graft stenoses were identified in 39% (9/23) in group I compared to 17% (51/295) in group II, p = 0.03. Late bypass revisions were required in 35% (8/23) in group I as opposed to 9% (28/295) in group II, p = 0.004. Despite this high number of revisional procedures the 12-months secondary bypass patency was lower in recanalised grafts (38% vs. 82%, p < 0.00001).",
"yes. Stringent flow surveillance policy coupled with prompt intervention has been proven effective in maintaining AVG long-term patency. Patients with decreased ejection fraction, early post-operative intervention, and low baseline AVG flow are prone to graft thrombosis.",
"Early in our experience with endovascular aortic aneurysm repair (EVAR) we performed both serial computed tomography scans and duplex ultrasound (DU) imaging in our post-EVAR surveillance regimen. Later we conducted a prospective study with DU imaging as the sole surveillance study and determined cost savings and outcome using this strategy. From September 21, 1998, to May 30, 2008, 250 patients underwent EVAR at our hospital. Before July 1, 2004, EVAR patients underwent CT and DU imaging performed every 6 months during the first year and then annually if no problems were identified (group 1). We compared aneurysm sac size, presence of endoleak, and graft patency between the two scanning modalities. After July 1, 2004, patients underwent surveillance using DU imaging as the sole surveillance study unless a problem was detected (group 2). CT and DU imaging charges for each regimen were compared using our 2008 health system pricing and Medicare reimbursements. All DU examinations were performed in our accredited noninvasive vascular laboratory by experienced technologists. Statistical analysis was performed using Pearson correlation coefficient. DU and CT scans were equivalent in determining aneurysm sac diameter after EVAR (P < .001). DU and CT were each as likely to falsely suggest an endoleak when none existed and were as likely to miss an endoleak. Using DU imaging alone would have reduced cost of EVAR surveillance by 29% ($534,356) in group 1. Cost savings of $1595 per patient per year were realized in group 2 by eliminating CT scan surveillance. None of the group 2 patients sustained an adverse event such as rupture, graft migration, or limb occlusion as a result of having DU imaging performed as the sole follow-up modality.",
"Venous duplex ultrasound (VDU) is the modality of choice for surveillance of venous thromboembolism (VTE), but there is controversy about its appropriate implementation as a screening method. We hypothesize that VDU surveillance in trauma patients at high risk for VTE decreases the rate of pulmonary embolism (PE). One thousand two hundred and eighty-two trauma ICU admissions were screened with Greenfield's Risk Assessment Profile from August 2011 to September 2014. Four hundred and two patients were identified as high risk for VTE (Risk Assessment Profile ≥10). Those who received weekly VDU to evaluate for deep vein thrombosis (n = 259 [64%]) were compared with those who did not (n = 143 [36%]). Parametric data are reported as mean ± SD and nonparametric data are reported as median (interquartile range). Statistical significance was determined at an α level of 0.05. The overall study population was 47 ± 19 years old and 75% were male, 78% of injuries were blunt mechanism, Injury Severity Score was 28 ± 13, Risk Assessment Profile was 14 ± 4, and mortality was 14.3%. Deep vein thrombosis rate was 11.6% (n = 30) in the surveillance group vs 2.1% (n = 3) in the non-surveillance group (p < 0.001). Deep vein thromboses detected in the surveillance group were managed with systemic anticoagulation (43%) or with IVC filter placement (57%). In the surveillance group, the PE rate was 1.9% (n = 5) vs 7.0% (n = 10) in the non-surveillance group (p = 0.014).",
"yes. The findings provide evidence that patients who had substantial progression of atherosclerosis in vein grafts are at an increased risk for subsequent coronary events and suggest that angiographic changes in vein grafts are appropriate surrogate measures for clinical outcomes.",
"Increasing use of primary arteriovenous fistulae (pAVFs) is a desired goal in hemodialysis patients (National Kidney Foundation /Dialysis Outcome Quality Initiative guidelines). However, in many instances, pAVFs fail to adequately mature due to ill-defined mechanisms. We therefore investigated pAVFs with color duplex ultrasound (CDU) surveillance 4 to 12 weeks postoperatively to identify hemodynamically significant abnormalities that may contribute to pAVF failure. From March 2001 to October 2003, 54 upper extremity pAVFs were subjected to CDU assessment before access. A peak systolic velocity ratio (SVR) of>/=2:1 was used to detect>/=50% stenosis involving arterial inflow and venous outflow, whereas an SVR of>/=3:1 was used to detect>/=50% anastomotic stenosis. CDU findings were compared with preoperative vein mapping and postoperative fistulography when available. Of 54 pAVFs, there were 23 brachiocephalic, 14 radiocephalic, and 17 basilic vein transpositions. By CDU surveillance, 11 (20%) were occluded and 14 (26%) were negative. Twenty-nine (54%) pAVFs had 38 hemodynamically significant CDU abnormalities. These included 16 (42%) venous outflow, 13 (34%) anastomotic, and 2 (5%) inflow stenoses. In seven (18%), branch steal with reduced flow was found. In 35 of 54 (65%) pAVFs, preoperative vein mapping was available and demonstrated adequate vein size (>/=3 mm) and outflow in 86% of cases. Twenty-one fistulograms (38%) were available for verifying the CDU abnormalities. In each fistulogram, the arterial inflow, anastomosis, and venous outflow were compared with the CDU findings (63 segments). The sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of CDU in detecting pAVF stenoses>/=50% were 93%, 94%, was 97%, respectively.",
"To report the early results of endovascular in situ saphenous vein bypass (EISVB) using side branch coil occlusion. Between September 1997 and November 1998, 25 patients (15 men; mean age 70.9 years, range 53-85) with lower limb ischemia were treated with endovascular femorodistal bypass. The saphenous vein was prepared using retrograde valvulotomy and endoscopic cannulation with coil occlusion of the side branches. Duplex graft surveillance was performed at 1, 3, 6, and 12 months. The 25 EISVB procedures consisted of 15 femorodistal popliteal, 7 femorotibial, 2 femoroperoneal, and 1 femorodorsalis pedis in situ saphenous vein reconstructions. Mean operative time was 202 +/- 40 minutes, mean number of side branch coils per case was 5.1 +/- 1.3, and mean number of incisions per case was 2.9 +/- 0.6. Mean hospital length of stay (LOS) was 35 +/- 13 hours (1.4 +/- 0.6 days); 19 (76%) patients were discharged on the first postoperative day. Short-term follow-up (mean 6.2 months, range 2-15) was notable for 2 graft thromboses and 1 graft stenosis; primary and secondary patency rates were 88% and 92%, respectively. Three asymptomatic, persistent arteriovenous fistulas discovered on routine duplex were ligated in the outpatient setting. Only 1 (4%) minor wound complication was encountered.",
"Surgeon performed duplex is reliable and should be an integral part of the vascular surgeon's practice. Our practice recommends performing arteriography additionally in the lower limb to maximise preoperative information.",
"Clinical evaluation of patients with VVs is unreliable in planning their management. Clinicians can neither predict those who will require duplex scanning nor correctly identify DVR. Even experienced surgeons often \"get it wrong\" when assessing primary uncomplicated veins despite being certain about the diagnosis. Therefore, an \"all-comers\" duplex imaging policy should be implemented if optimal management is to be achieved.",
"This study was undertaken (1) to determine whether correction of infrainguinal bypass stenoses detected with color duplex scanning (CDS) improved graft survival and (2) to define the natural history of grafts that did not undergo revision. Over a 39-month period 462 color-flow duplex scans were obtained on 170 limbs with autogenous vein grafts. Grafts were scanned within 3 months of operation, at 6 and 12 months, and then yearly. Doubling of the velocity at any point in the graft-arterial system compared with the velocity immediately above or below (velocity ratio>or = 2.0) was the criterion adopted for identification of a hemodynamically significant (>or = 50%) diameter reduction. One hundred ten stenoses were detected in 62 (36%) of the limbs, of which 9 (8%) were in native vessels, 30 (27%) were at the anastomoses, and 71 (65%) were in the graft itself. Seventy-seven percent of the stenoses were detected in the first year. Twenty-four (39%) of the grafts with positive scans were revised. During follow-up, occlusions occurred in 10 (9%) of the 108 grafts with negative scans (NEG), in 2 (8%) of the 24 revised grafts with positive scans (PR), and in 10 (26%) of the 38 non-revised grafts with positive scans (PNR). Cumulative patency rates of NEG grafts were 90% at 1 year and 83% at 2 through 4 years. Similar patency rates were found in the PR vein grafts: 96% at 1 year and 88% at 2 through 4 years. In contrast, patency rates in PNR grafts with 50% or greater stenoses were only 66% at 1 year and 57% at 2 through 4 years. Log-rank tests showed a significant difference between the cumulative patency rates of NEG and PNR grafts (p<0.002) and between PR and PNR grafts (p = 0.02). Flow velocities less than 45 cm/sec and ankle/brachial indexes did not discriminate well between grafts with or without 50% or greater stenoses or identify those grafts that subsequently occluded.",
"no. Predischarge duplex imaging cannot be used to predict the development of stenoses in infrainguinal vein grafts.",
"Only 0.5% of CEAs developed moderate restenosis. No procedures had severe recurrent stenosis on duplex scan within the first 6 months, and none required intervention. Duplex surveillance in the first 6 months is relatively unproductive, providing that there were normal results from an intraoperative completion study for each patient. Routine surveillance can be started at 1 year.",
"yes. Prevention of overdistension of vein grafts with the use of an external cover decreases anastomotic leaks, protects the intimal media, maintains blood flow, reduces the incidence of thrombosis, and thus provides a higher patency rate.",
"The aim of this study was to determine whether predischarge duplex imaging of an infrainguinal vein graft could predict the subsequent development of graft stenosis. Patients with infrainguinal vein grafts underwent a duplex scan of the entire graft before discharge from hospital. Grafts were classified as abnormal or normal based on the presence or absence of flow abnormalities (peak velocity ratio 1.5 or greater). All grafts were re-examined 1 month after surgery, at 3-monthly intervals for the first year and then every 6 months thereafter. A significant stenosis requiring correction was defined by a duplex-derived peak systolic velocity ratio of 3.0 or more. The relationship between the predischarge scan and subsequent development of stenosis was examined. Forty-four grafts were recruited. Two occluded soon after a normal predischarge scan and were excluded from subsequent analysis. Predischarge abnormalities were found in 16 grafts. The abnormality in one graft required immediate correction. A further four grafts subsequently developed significant stenoses and required angioplasty. Of the 26 grafts with no predischarge abnormalities, 11 developed significant stenoses and underwent angioplasty. Abnormal predischarge duplex scans had a sensitivity and specificity of 31 and 58 per cent respectively for the development of stenoses. The positive and negative predictive values were 31 and 58 per cent respectively.",
"no. Although concerns exist about the precise duplex criteria for diagnosing a severe stenosis, this study has shown that a policy of selective angiography does not compromise patient safety or operability and avoids the unnecessary mortality, morbidity and costs associated with routine angiography.",
"To evaluate the need for color duplex surveillance (CDS) for pure in situ bypasses beyond 6 months. We reviewed our in situ surveillance data from August 1987 to April 1994. Lower-extremity revascularization was performed using 245 pure in situ greater saphenous vein bypasses in 219 patients. The CDS of the entire bypass and inflow and outflow arteries was done prior to discharge, at 1 month, every 3 months in the first year, every 6 months in the second year, and annually thereafter. A peak systolic velocity of less than 45 cm/s throughout the bypass or a velocity ratio of greater than 3 (peak systolic velocity at the stenosis divided by peak systolic velocity at an adjacent normal bypass segment) were defined as abnormal during the review of this patient subset. The outcomes were analyzed. Patency and limb salvage rates were calculated by life-table analysis. The mean age of this population (120 men and 99 women) was 67 years (range, 32 to 97 years). We analyzed all bypasses that were subjected to CDS for 6 months or more and identified 171 such bypasses. These bypasses were followed up for a mean duration of 30 months (range, 6 to 82 months). The primary and secondary patency and limb salvage rates at 5 years were 60.4%, 89%, and 92.1%, respectively (SE,<10%). During the first 6 months of surveillance, 54 bypasses had abnormal CDS findings, and 117 had normal CDS findings. Arteriography was performed on 42 of these bypasses with abnormal CDS findings, and 37 had significant findings requiring direct surgical or endovascular intervention. Only two of 117 bypasses that had normal CDS findings for up to 6 months had to be revised later, compared with 43 of the 54 bypasses with abnormal CDS findings prior to 6 months, which were occluded or were revised (significantly different by chi 2 test [P<.001]).",
"yes. STI571-NP-induced suppression of vein graft neointima formation holds promise as a strategy for preventing vein graft failure.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of endovascular therapy for maintaining patency and preserving limbs among patients with failing infrapopliteal bypass grafts. We gathered data from a registry of catheter-based procedures for peripheral artery disease. Of 1554 arteriograms performed from 2006 to 2012, 30 patients had interventions for failing bypass vein grafts to infrapopliteal target vessels. The first intervention for each patient was used in this analysis. Duplex ultrasonography was used within 30 days after intervention and subsequently at 3- to 6-month intervals for graft surveillance. Interventions were performed for duplex ultrasonography surveillance findings in 21 patients and for symptoms of persistent or recurrent critical limb ischemia in 9 patients. Procedural techniques included cutting balloon angioplasty (83%), conventional balloon angioplasty (7%), and stent placement (10%). Procedural success was achieved in all cases. There were no procedure-related complications, amputations, or deaths within 30 days. By Kaplan-Meier analysis, 37% of the patients were free from graft restenosis at 12 months and 31% were at 24 months. Receiver-operating characteristic analysis indicated that a lesion length of 1.75 cm best predicted freedom from restenosis (C statistic: 0.74). Residual stenosis (P = 0.03), patency without reintervention (P = 0.01), and assisted patency with secondary intervention (P = 0.02) rates were superior for short lesions compared with long lesions. The cohort had acceptable rates of adverse clinical outcomes, with 96% of patients free from amputation at both 12 and 24 months; clinical outcomes were also better in patients with short lesions.",
"yes. After initial negative scan results, repeat surveillance duplex scanning during hospitalization detected a low incidence (2%) of DVT in high-risk patients. Furthermore, the detection of unsuspected DVT altered the clinical management of less than 1% of the patients tested. Thus, after a venous duplex scan with negative results and initiation of enoxaparin prophylaxis, subsequent surveillance duplex examinations are not warranted in asymptomatic trauma patients.",
"Duplex ultrasound (DU) surveillance (DUS) criteria for vein graft stenosis and thresholds for reintervention are well established. The natural history of DU-detected stenosis and the threshold criteria for reintervention in patients undergoing endovascular therapy (EVT) of the femoropopliteal system have yet to be determined. We report an analysis of routine DUS after infrainguinal EVT. Consecutive patients undergoing EVT of the superficial femoral artery (SFA) or popliteal artery were prospectively enrolled in a DUS protocol (≤1 week after intervention, then at 3, 6, and 12 months thereafter). Peak systolic velocity (PSV) and velocity ratio (Vr) were used to categorize the treated artery: normal was PSV <200 cm/s and Vr <2, moderate stenosis was PSV = 200-300 cm/s or Vr = 2-3, and severe stenosis was PSV >300 cm/s or Vr >3. Reinterventions were generally performed for persistent or recurrent symptoms, allowing us to analyze the natural history of DU-detected lesions and to perform sensitivity and specificity analysis for DUS criteria predictive of failure. Ninety-four limbs (85 patients) underwent EVT for SFA-popliteal disease and were prospectively enrolled in a DUS protocol. The initial scans were normal in 61 limbs (65%), and serial DU results remained normal in 38 (62%). In 17 limbs (28%), progressive stenoses were detected during surveillance. The rate of thrombosis in this subgroup was 10%. Moderate stenoses were detected in 28 (30%) limbs at initial scans; of these, 39% resolved or stabilized, 47% progressed to severe, and occlusions developed in 14%. Five (5%) limbs harbored severe stenoses on initial scans, and 80% of lesions resolved or stabilized. Progression to occlusion occurred in one limb (20%). The last DUS showed 25 limbs harbored severe stenoses; of these, 13 (52%) were in symptomatic patients and thus required reintervention regardless of DU findings. Eleven limbs (11%) eventually occluded. Sensitivity and specificity of DUS to predict occlusion were 88% and 60%, respectively.",
"Intensive surveillance with duplex scanning did not show any additional benefit in terms of limb salvage rates for patients undergoing vein bypass graft operations, but it did incur additional costs.",
"Modifiable patient factors that contribute to graft occlusion may be addressed after surgery. To determine risk factors associated with reverse vein graft (RVG) occlusion, we examined the characteristics and duplex scan surveillance (DS) patterns of patients with RVGs. Patients treated with RVG from January 1996 through December 2000 were identified from a prospective registry. The study population consisted of all patients with RVGs performed during the study period with grafts that subsequently occluded. Patients whose grafts remained patent served as age-matched and gender-matched control subjects. The prescribed DS regimen was every 3 months for the first postoperative year and every 6 months thereafter. Early DS failure was defined as having no DS within the first 3 months. Cox proportional hazards analysis was used to compare the two groups. Hazard ratios were calculated. During the study period, 674 patients underwent RVG. Fifty-five patients with occluded RVGs were compared with 118 with patent RVGs. The follow-up period for occluded grafts was 13.40 +/- 12.59 months and for patent grafts was 32.40 +/- 15.61 months. Dialysis therapy, a known hypercoagulable state, continued smoking, and DS failure were independent factors associated with RVG occlusion. The hazards ratio for dialysis was 6.45 (95% CI, 3.07 to 13.51; P <.001), for current smoking was 4.72 (95% CI, 2.5 to 8.85; P <.001), for hypercoagulable state was 2.99 (95% CI, 1.47 to 6.10; P =.003), and for early DS failure was 2.43 (95% CI, 1.29 to 4.59; P =.006).",
"TFI is an accurate non-invasive method of vascular graft surveillance. TFI can be carried out in the vascular clinic and is quick and inexpensive. Normally TFI could replace duplex ultrasound surveillance, with ultrasound being reserved for those with an abnormal TFI.",
"Unlike vein bypasses, the role of duplex surveillance of infrainguinal prosthetic bypass grafts is controversial. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the adequacy of color duplex surveillance in identifying failing infrainguinal polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) bypass grafts and to assess its value in predicting continued bypass patency. The surveillance data of primarily patent PTFE bypass grafts were compared with those of revised/occluded PTFE grafts. Ninety-five patients underwent 102 infrainguinal PTFE bypass grafts from January 1991 to December 1996 and were enrolled in a duplex surveillance program at 1 month postoperatively, every 3 months in the first year, every 6 months in the second year, and yearly thereafter. Seventy grafts remained primarily patent, 5 were revised and 27 occluded. There was no significant difference in the mean age, gender, indication for surgery, type of original procedure, or duration of follow-up between both groups. Four hundred and seven duplex surveillance data were available for analysis. Focal increase in peak systolic velocity (PSV) 3 x the adjacent segment or low flow manifested by PSV<45 cm/sec were considered abnormal. In the primarily patent group, 5 bypasses had abnormal duplex surveillance and were found to have no abnormality on angiogram and remained patent during the study period. In the revised/occluded group, duplex surveillance was abnormal in 8 bypasses. Twenty-four bypasses occluded without any predicting abnormalities on their last duplex examination, which was performed within 3 months from the occlusion in the majority of the patients. In the 27 occluded bypasses, no intervention was necessary following the occlusion in 7 grafts because of mild or no symptoms. Two patients were treated with a primary amputation and 2 had new bypasses. In 16 occluded grafts, salvage of the PTFE bypass was attempted. Ten of these grafts were patent at the end of the follow-up. The sensitivity of duplex surveillance was 25% with a positive predictive value of 61.5%.",
"The typical leg bypass surveillance program begins with a duplex scan evaluation of the vein graft 3 months after surgery; studies are repeated every 3 months during the first year of follow-up and are fully reimbursed by our Medicare carrier. Some authors have recommended early (before discharge or first postoperative visit) duplex scanning to identify high-risk grafts. However, the natural history of velocity disturbances detected with early scans is unclear, and furthermore, such studies are not reimbursed by Medicare. We reviewed all infrainguinal vein bypass grafts prospectively entered into a surveillance protocol that included an early (<6 weeks) duplex scan study. Routine completion angiography was performed at the initial operation in all patients. Early duplex scan results, the need for graft revision, and detailed follow-up of these bypass grafts were analyzed. Early duplex scans were performed in 224 bypass grafts placed in 204 patients. Early scans were abnormal (peak systolic velocity [PSV],>200 cm/s) in 58 grafts (26%). Six grafts of the 58 (10.3%; 2.7%) with an early abnormal duplex scan and unrepaired defects occluded during the follow-up period. Thirty grafts were revised on the basis of the initial early scan; 23 of these revisions were performed for critical or rapidly progressive lesions in the first 3 postoperative months. Seven lesions progressed more slowly and were repaired at a mean of 8 months after surgery. Interestingly, 22 flow abnormalities (37%) resolved or stabilized despite a PSV of more than 300 cm/s in six cases (27%). Clear duplex scan evidence of regression or progression of these early flow abnormalities occurred within 3 months in 51/58 cases (88%). A total of 68 grafts (30%) were revised during the entire study period; 30 of these (44%) were on the basis of the early abnormal scan.",
"To determine the safety and efficacy of Duplex scanning as the only imaging modality prior to lower limb vascular reconstruction. Retrospective review. A single university vascular unit. Review of all lower limb vascular reconstructions over a 2 year period. Eighty-five limbs underwent vascular reconstruction based on colour Duplex alone. A wide range of revascularising operations were performed, including 29 cases of infragenicular reconstruction. In the latter cases, the findings of Duplex scanning were confirmed by on table pre-reconstruction angiography in 28 cases and the graft occlusion rate in the first month was 14%. There were no postoperative complications that could be attributed to a failure of preoperative Duplex imaging.",
"Duplex ultrasound scanning is currently the best available non-invasive method for vein graft surveillance. However, it is expensive and its results are highly operator dependent. The aim of the present study is to compare, another non-invasive method of graft surveillance, the transfer function index (TFI), with duplex ultrasound scanning in identifying significant stenoses in infrainguinal saphenous vein bypass grafts. Initially a retrospective pilot study was carried out between 1 January and 30 June 2002. Patients were identified from the vascular surgical operation database. The ultrasound report and TFI result of each patient were reviewed. Then a prospective comparative study was carried out between 1 July and 31 December 2002. Duplex ultrasound and TFI studies were undertaken at the 3 month interval. Comparisons were made between the accuracy and predictive value of ultrasound versus TFI in assessing significant graft stenosis. In the present retrospective study TFI measurement was significantly lower in the at-risk grafts than in the normal grafts (P = 0.001). In the prospective group TFI was again found to be significantly lower in the at-risk group (mean TFI 0.86) than in the normal group (mean TFI 1.064, P = 0.001). The sensitivity and specificity of the TFI were 92% and 97%, respectively. The accuracy of TFI was calculated to be 98%.",
"Duplex surveillance of lower extremity reversed vein bypass grafts (LERVG) is a means of identifying patients at risk for occlusion. The perceived accuracy of duplex scan as a means of identifying stenoses has led many surgeons to perform graft revision on the basis of duplex scan alone. This may result in missing additional lesions that are threatening patency. To assess the role of duplex scan as the sole imaging method before revision of LERVGs, we reviewed consecutive patients undergoing revisions who underwent preoperative arteriography after identification of duplex scan abnormalities. Duplex scan results, operative reports, and preoperative arteriograms for patients undergoing LERVG revision from January 1990 to December 1997 were reviewed. A standard duplex scan surveillance protocol was followed, and attempts were made to survey the entire graft, including inflow and outflow. Duplex scan results were compared with the results of preoperative arteriograms and the operation performed to determine if all significant lesions were identified by means of duplex scan alone. Two hundred five LERVG revisions were performed. The 5-year assisted primary patency rate was 91%. In 119 cases (58%), arteriography did not contribute significantly to duplex scan findings. Arteriography significantly contributed to operative planning in 86 cases (42%). In 38 cases (19%), only a low-flow state was identified by means of duplex scan, and a correctable stenosis was identified by means of arteriography. In 48 cases (23%), additional significant lesions corrected at operation were identified by means of arteriography. These included 26 inflow, 16 graft, and 8 outflow lesions. Arteriography was most useful as a means of determining the revision procedure performed when there were inflow lesions (P <.05) or when the proximal anastomosis was to the profunda or superficial femoral arteries (P <.05). All frequently performed bypass graft configurations had some discrepancy between arteriographic and duplex scan findings.",
"Optimal duration of postoperative duplex surveillance of infrainguinal vein grafts is not known. Previous reports have suggested nearly all vein graft stenoses are present within the first postoperative year, and normal duplex examination results during this time eliminate the need for ongoing graft surveillance. To determine whether surveillance may be safely discontinued in patients with normal early postoperative surveillance studies, we reviewed the color-flow surveillance examinations in our patients who underwent infrainguinal reverse vein graft revisions during a 4 1/2 year period. Clinical and vascular laboratory records were reviewed of all patients who underwent infrainguinal reverse vein bypass grafting followed by subsequent graft revision for a duplex scanning-detected abnormality at our institution between January 1990 and July 1994. Of 447 infrainguinal reverse vein bypasses performed, 36 (8.1%) underwent surgical revision as a result of an abnormal finding during routine duplex surveillance. The initial postoperative duplex examination was obtained within 2 weeks of graft implantation in 23 (64%) patients, between 2 weeks and 3 months in 10 (28%) patients, and between 3 and 6 months in three (8%) patients. Duplex abnormalities prompting revision included 11 (31%) grafts with a mid-graft peak systolic velocity (PSV)<or = 45 cm/sec, 23 (64%) grafts with a focal PSV>or = 200 cm/sec, one graft with a PSV>or = 150 cm/sec but<200 cm/sec, and one thought to be occluded by duplex but found to be patent by angiography. Abnormal duplex findings were initially detected within 2 weeks of graft implantation in five (14%) patients, between 2 weeks and 3 months in eight (22%) patients, from 3 to 6 months in 12 (33%) patients, from 6 to 12 months in six (17%) patients, and>1 year in five (14%) patients. In only 25% of cases were mid-graft PSVs<or = 45 cm/sec or focal velocities>or = 200 cm/sec identified on the initial examination; 75% were found during subsequent surveillance.",
"yes. Because lesions amenable to revision continue to develop years after vein bypass construction, perpetual surveillance is required to ensure optimal rates of graft patency.",
"The purpose of this study was to assess the benefits of duplex compared with clinical vein graft surveillance in terms of amputation rates, quality of life, and healthcare costs in patients after femoropopliteal and femorocrural vein bypass grafts. This was a multicenter, prospective, randomized, controlled trial. A total of 594 patients with a patent vein graft at 30 days after surgery were randomized to either a clinical or duplex follow-up program at 6 weeks, then 3, 6, 9, 12, and 18 months postoperatively. The clinical and duplex surveillance groups had similar amputation rates (7% for each group) and vascular mortality rates (3% versus 4%) over 18 months. More patients in the clinical group had vein graft stenosis at 18 months (19% versus 12%, P=0.04), but primary patency, primary assisted patency, and secondary patency rates, respectively, were similar in the clinical group (69%, 76%, and 80%) and the duplex group (67%, 76%, and 79%). There were no apparent differences in health-related quality of life, but the average health service costs incurred by the duplex surveillance program were greater by 495 pound sterling (95% CI 83 pound sterling to 807 pound sterling) per patient.",
"Despite normal completion arteriography, early graft velocity abnormalities are strikingly common and were detected in 26% of the 224 infrainguinal vein grafts in this series. These lesions were clinically important because 52% necessitated revision. Surprisingly, however, 38% of these early flow disturbances resolved, despite a PSV of more than 300 cm/s in 27% of cases. Early duplex scan surveillance singularly detects a clinically significant subgroup of grafts that need revision. The possible origin of these early lesions deserves further inquiry, but on the basis of its clinical yield, we recommend that early duplex scan surveillance of infrainguinal bypass grafts should be routine and should be considered for Medicare reimbursement.",
"Although most reverse vein graft abnormalities detected by duplex surveillance and prompting graft revision appear within the first postoperative year, many are not detected on the initial examination. In our recent experience 31% of duplex abnormalities leading to vein graft revision were first detected more than 6 months after operation. Discontinuation of graft surveillance based on normal early findings will result in thrombosis of some vein grafts that may otherwise be salvaged.",
"to assess the benefits of duplex-based vein-graft surveillance over clinical surveillance with distal pressure measurements. prospective randomised comparative trial. three hundred and forty-four patients with 362 consecutive infrainguinal vein bypasses were prospectively randomised to a follow-up regime with or without duplex scanning (ABI group and DD group) at 1, 3, 6, 9, and 12 months postoperatively. one hundred and eighty-three grafts were enrolled to the ABI group and 179 to the DD group. The primary assisted patency, secondary patency and limb salvage rates were 67%, 74%, 85% for the ABI group and 67%, 73%, 81% for the DD group. Ninety grafts in the ABI group and 57 in the DD group had surveillance that completely adhered to the protocol. The outcome was also similar for these groups at one year (77%, 87%, 94% and 77%, 83%, 93% respectively), although grafts were revised more frequently in the DD group.",
"intensive surveillance with duplex scanning did not improve the results of any outcome criteria examined. To demonstrate any potential benefit of duplex scanning for vein-graft surveillance a multicentre study with a large number of patients to ensure sufficient power is needed."
] | 1,016 |
Do prostaglandins have a salutary role in skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury? | [
"the effects of prostaglandins (PG) E1, E2, and the prostacyclin analogue iloprost with and without the addition of free-radical scavengers catalase and superoxide dismutase on gastrocnemius blood flow and oedema were studied in a rodent model of hindlimb ischaemia-reperfusion. male Sprague-Dawley rats underwent 6-h hindlimb ischaemia with 4-h reperfusion. Prostaglandins were infused prior to reperfusion and their effects on limb blood flow and oedema examined. control animals exhibited a triphasic pattern of muscle blood flow during reperfusion compared to normal animals. PGE1 did not abolish low reflow at 10 min, relative reperfusion was preserved but reperfusion injury was abolished at 120 min. Muscle blood flow was increased at 240 min compared to controls. Increased limb swelling was also seen. Addition of free-radical scavengers caused the abolition of low reflow. Similar results were seen with iloprost. PGE2 abolished low reflow at 10 min and increased perfusion at 120 min but did not prevent reperfusion injury at 240 min.",
"PGE1 and iloprost enhance muscle blood flow at 4-h reperfusion, though neither abolishes low reflow; PGE2 improved flow at 10 and 120 min but not after 240 min. This study demonstrates a potentially beneficial role for prostaglandins in improving muscle blood flow in skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury."
] | [
"Ischemia-reperfusion injury can activate pathways generating reactive oxygen species, which can injure cells by creating holes in the cell membranes. Copolymer surfactants such as poloxamer 188 are capable of sealing defects in cell membranes. The authors postulated that a single-dose administration of poloxamer 188 would decrease skeletal myocyte injury and mortality following ischemia-reperfusion injury. Mice underwent normothermic hind-limb ischemia for 2 hours. Animals were treated with 150 microl of poloxamer 188 or dextran at three time points: (1) 10 minutes before ischemia; (2) 10 minutes before reperfusion; and (3) 2 or 4 hours after reperfusion. After 24 hours of reperfusion, tissues were analyzed for myocyte injury (histology) and metabolic dysfunction (muscle adenosine 5'-triphosphate). Additional groups of mice were followed for 7 days to assess mortality. When poloxamer 188 treatment was administered 10 minutes before ischemia, injury was reduced by 84 percent, from 50 percent injury in the dextran group to 8 percent injury in the poloxamer 188 group (p < 0.001). When administered 10 minutes before reperfusion, poloxamer 188 animals demonstrated a 60 percent reduction in injury compared with dextran controls (12 percent versus 29 percent). Treatment at 2 hours, but not at 4 hours, postinjury prevented substantial myocyte injury. Preservation of muscle adenosine 5'-triphosphate paralleled the decrease in myocyte injury in poloxamer 188-treated animals. Poloxamer 188 treatment significantly reduced mortality following injury (10 minutes before, 75 percent versus 25 percent survival, p = 0.0077; 2 hours after, 50 percent versus 8 percent survival, p = 0.032).",
"Ischemic preconditioning (IPC) mitigates ischemia-reperfusion (I/R) injury in experimental models. However, the clinical significance of this protection has been unclear and a mortality reduction has not been previously reported in noncardiac models. This study examined the local and remote protection afforded by skeletal muscle IPC and sought to determine the significance of this protection on mortality. Mice subjected to 2 h hindlimb ischemia/24 h reperfusion (standard I/R injury) were compared with those undergoing a regimen of two 20-min cycles of IPC followed by standard I/R injury. Local injury was assessed via gastrocnemius histology, and remote injury was evaluated via intestinal histology and pulmonary neutrophil infiltration (n = 7). Mortality was compared in parallel groups for 1 week (n = 6). Groups were analyzed using an unpaired Student's t-test for gastrocnemius and pulmonary injury, and a Mann-Whitney rank sum test for intestinal injury. Mortality differences were interpreted through a hazard ratio. Significant protection was observed in preconditioned animals. There was a 35% local injury reduction in skeletal muscle (71.2% versus 46.0%, P < 0.01), a 50% reduction in remote intestinal injury (2.3 versus 1.1, P < 0.01), and a 43% reduction in remote pulmonary injury (14.9 versus 8.5, P < 0.01) compared with standard injury controls. Preconditioned animals were also significantly protected from mortality, demonstrating a 66.7% survival at 1 wk compared with 0% survival after standard injury alone (hazard ratio 0.20, 95% CI: 0.02-0.59).",
"yes. We conclude that PGE1 protects the liver against ischemia-reperfusion injury by reducing leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion via down-modulation of ICAM-1 expression on the endothelium.",
"yes. Prostaglandins, including cyclopentenone prostaglandins, are increased in ischemic brain, peak at 24h and can be attenuated by the COX-2 inhibitor SC58125. These data establish the presence of potentially neurotoxic cyclopentenone prostaglandins in post-ischemic brains, thus identifying a target and therapeutic window for neuroprotective therapies.",
"CoPP can decrease skeletal muscle damage when given early in the course of ischemia/reperfusion injury and also provide protection for regenerative stem cell populations.",
"yes. Rofecoxib treatment reduced global and systolic LV function after ischemia-reperfusion injury in APOE*3Leiden mice. These negative effects are prevented by combined treatment with thromboxane prostanoid-receptor antagonist S18886 (terutroban).",
"yes. The results of this study suggest that hepatic perfusion with PGE1 markedly alleviates microcirculatory damage associated with ischaemia and reperfusion through the inhibition of leucocyte-endothelium interactions.",
"yes. We conclude that PGI2 attenuates PV loss after blunt muscle trauma. The vascular effects of PGI2 are associated with a modulation of the trauma-induced inflammatory response.",
"yes. By histopathologic and several molecular measures, our unique renoprotective cocktail mitigated ischemia-reperfusion injury. Our cocktail minimized oxidative stress in an ischemic kidney rat model while at the same time protecting the global parenchymal function during extended periods of ischemia.",
"yes. Prostaglandins play a key role in mediating the accelerated hepatic amino acid transport that occurs during endotoxemia.",
"yes. Our data suggested that isoflurane preconditioning provided a protection against renal ischemic-reperfusion injury which is very likely due to hypoxia inducible factor-1 α upregulation.",
"yes. The findings indicate that TNFalpha protects myocardium against ischemia/reperfusion injury via inhibiting mitochondrial calcium uniporter opening as well as mitochondrial permeability transition pore opening.",
"Polyadenosine diphosphate-ribose polymerase (PARP) has been implicated as a mediator of inflammation and tissue necrosis in murine models of human stroke and myocardial infarction. This study was designed to determine whether PARP modulates skeletal muscle injury and cytokine-growth factor levels during ischemia-reperfusion. Prospective controlled animal study. Medical school-affiliated university hospital. Mice were divided into 2 groups-treated (PJ) and untreated; all mice were subjected to unilateral hind limb tourniquet ischemia followed by 4 or 48 hours of reperfusion. In treated mice, PJ34, an ultrapotent-specific PARP inhibitor was given immediately before ischemia and prior to reperfusion. A group of PARP-1 knockout mice (PARP-/-) were also subjected to hind limb ischemia followed by 48 hours of reperfusion. After ischemia-reperfusion, muscle was harvested for measurement of edema, viability, cytokine, and vascular endothelial growth factor content. The PJ34-treated mice had increased skeletal muscle viability when compared with the untreated mice after 4 and 48 hours of reperfusion (P<.01). Viability between PARP-/- and PJ34-treated mice were similar at 48 hours of reperfusion (P>.05), and it exceeded that of untreated mice (P<.01). Tissue edema was unaltered by PARP inhibition. Tissue levels of cytokine were only different (P<.05) in PJ34-treated vs untreated mice at 48 hours of reperfusion. Vascular endothelial growth factor levels in PJ34-treated mice were markedly reduced when compared with untreated mice only after 4 hours of reperfusion (P<.01), and in PARP-/- mice (P<.01) at 48 hours of reperfusion.",
"yes. UCP1 activity is low under normoxia but is induced during ischemia-reperfusion. The presence of UCP1 mitigates reperfusion-induced damage, probably because it lowers mitochondrial hyperpolarization at reperfusion.",
"yes. The prostaglandin E2 EP4 agonist accelerated the sternal healing and decreased the incidence of sternal wound complications in the diabetic ischemic sternum. This method might help in decreasing sternal necrosis in high-risk patients or permit wider application of bilateral internal thoracic arteries in coronary artery bypass surgery, even in patients with diabetes.",
"yes. Systemic ATL-146e, given during reperfusion, results in time-dependent improvement in spinal cord function after ischemia. This implies that the mechanism of spinal reperfusion injury includes leukocyte-mediated inflammation at a critical post-ischemic time interval.",
"This study examines the hypothesis that the exaggerated splanchnic release of prostacyclin is due to new synthesis of both cyclooxygenase and prostacyclin synthase (PS) in the ileum muscularis/serosa. Sprague-Dawley rats were anesthetized and subjected to acute hemorrhage to 30 mm Hg for 30 minutes (shock) or sham shock. The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) was cannulated and removed with its end-organ intestine and perfused in vitro with Krebs-Henseleit buffer with and without cycloheximide (50 micrograms/ml) or indomethacin (20 micrograms/ml). Venous effluent was analyzed for eicosanoids by radioimmunoassay. The SMA, aorta and ileal mucosa, and muscularis/serosa were analyzed for PS and cyclooxygenase content by immunoblot analysis. The sham splanchnic bed released threefold more 6-keto-PGF1 alpha than prostaglandin E2 and thromboxane. Acute ischemia increased splanchnic release of 6-keto-PGF1 alpha threefold compared with sham, which was abolished by cycloheximide or indomethacin treatment. Acute ischemia increased content of PS and cyclooxygenase in the ileal muscularis/serosa twofold and PS in the aorta and SMA by 50%.",
"yes. The results of this study show that PARP may have a role in the testicular damage caused by ischemia-reperfusion. Administering PARP inhibitors before reperfusion may have the potential to decrease the long-term histologic damage that occurs after testicular torsion.",
"Skeletal muscle reperfusion injury is mediated by IgM natural antibodies and by complement activation, as shown by the attenuation of reperfusion injury seen in mice with no natural IgM [] and in mice deficient in complement C3 and C4 []. We postulate that tissue, when ischemic, expresses neoantigens to which preformed natural IgM antibodies bind, in turn producing harmful complement activation and reperfusion injury. C57Bl/6 mice were subjected to 2 h of tourniquet-induced hind limb ischemia followed by variable periods of reperfusion. Two hours of ischemia and 3 h of reperfusion produced severe muscle necrosis and edema. Deposition of IgM and C3 in tissue was assessed using immunohistochemistry on both frozen and Formalin-fixed tissue samples. IgM binding to the endothelium and muscle bundles of the hind limb began during the ischemic period and continued throughout reperfusion up to 6 h. C3 deposition was not present during ischemia and, in contrast, began to appear at 1 h of reperfusion and increased progressively thereafter.",
"yes. Prostacyclin infusion initiated during revascularization and continued in the early postoperative course could be successfully employed for the prevention of thrombocyte aggregation and potentially decrease the overall incidence of significant myocardial damage after coronary endarterectomy.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that a remote and isolated ischaemia-reperfusion injury to the lower limb, in the absence of infection or bacterial translocation, causes endotoxaemia. Further studies are needed to evaluate the role of endogenous antiendotoxin antibodies in this situation.",
"yes. These data suggest that calpain proteases play a pivotal role in warm ischemia-reperfusion injury of the rat liver through modulation of apoptosis and necrosis.",
"yes. this data indicates that pre-treatment with pravastatin protects against ischaemia-reperfusion induced lung injury in an experimental animal model. We believe that its mechanism of action involves an upregulation of ecNOS, which increases basal expression of nitric oxide providing protective effects on the pulmonary circulation against microvascular injury.",
"yes. P-selectin plays a role in ischemia-reperfusion injury. This is in agreement with data from other groups. The fact that the chimera was effective in this model suggests that carbohydrates or small molecule mimics of carbohydrates would be effective in this model. Such antiinflammatory agents may have fewer side effects in terms of increased risk of sepsis.",
"yes. Low-dose capsaicin exerted protective effects on lung ischemia reperfusion injury in rats. And it is mediated partially by calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor. The underlying molecular mechanism is involved in suppressed inflammatory response.",
"to determine if apoptotic cell death contributes to skeletal muscle reperfusion injury. leg ischaemia was induced in rats with a tourniquet and maintained for 4 h before reperfusion for 24 or 72 h. Apoptosis was assessed by morphology, in situ end labelling of DNA fragments, DNA laddering, expression of p53 mRNA and detection of caspase-3-like proteolytic activity. increased caspase-3-like activity was detected in muscle following ischaemia and zero, 24 h or 72 h of reperfusion. Levels remained relatively low but with a highly significant difference in enzyme activity between the ischaemic and non-ischaemic legs (p <0.0001, Repeated Measures Analysis of Variance). Morphological examination showed considerable oedema, disruption of muscle fibres and infiltration of white cells into tissues. Muscle nuclei did not show any morphological evidence of apoptosis and were negative for DNA fragmentation, while occasional neutrophils contained fragmented DNA. Expression of p53 was not induced by ischaemia and reperfusion and DNA ladders were not detected.",
"Ischaemic injury causes down-regulation of endothelial nitric oxide synthase mRNA expression, which is then associated with reduction of coronary flow during reperfusion, representing one possible mechanism of ischaemia/reperfusion injury. We did not find expected elevations of inducible nitric oxide synthase mRNA expression during ischaemia or reperfusion and we suggest that ischaemia/reperfusion injury is not associated with nitric oxide overproduction.",
"Bradykinin (BK) is used in different tissues. Dose-dependent studies have demonstrated that low doses protect against ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury while higher doses lead to adverse effects. Although the beneficial effects of BK infusion were observed in myocardium, its role on the I/R impact in skeletal muscle (SM) has not been fully clarified. This study was carried out to evaluate the effects of BK, administered in the hindlimbs of rats subjected to I/R. The study design included three experimental groups: Group 1 control (saline), Group 2 (bradykinin), and Group 3 (HOE 140, a BK2 receptor blocker). In all three groups, rats were subjected to hindlimb ischemia for a total of 2 h followed by continuous 4 h of reperfusion with pharmacological interventions. The methods include analysis of enzymes (lactate dehydrogenase-LDH and creatinine phosphokinase-CPK), cell membrane marker of injury (malondialdeyde-MDA), recruitment of neutrophils (myeloperoxidase-MPO), and apoptosis index (immunohistochemistry TUNEL in situ peroxidase dead end). Except for the apoptotic index, all parameters studied were shown to be elevated in the reperfusion group intervened with BK. The blocking of BK2 receptors by HOE 140 did not affect the I/R injury.",
"yes. Preconditioning of pig skeletal muscle is associated with a lower energy metabolism during sustained ischemia. At the present time, it is not known if this energy sparing effect is a major mechanism of ischemia preconditioning against infarction in the skeletal muscle.",
"Nerve growth factor (NGF) mediates a wide range of activities in the central nervous system including neuronal differentiation, synaptic plasticity, and neuroprotection. In addition, NGF places an important role in skeletal muscle physiology by some unknown mechanisms. We recently demonstrated that NGF conferred myoprotection toward ischemia in C2C12 skeletal muscle cell model, establishing an important trophic role for NGF in skeletal muscle. In this report, using ELISA and oxygen-glucose deprivation (OGD) assays, we investigated the potential contribution of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) to NGF myoprotective effects toward C2C12 cultures exposed to OGD insults. Vipera lebetina obtusa disintegrin 5 (VLO5), a selective antagonist of α9β1 integrin, was used as an experimental tool to clarify α9β1 integrin role in NGF action. NGF-induced mitogen-activated protein kinase type 1 or 2 (ERK1/2) phosphorylation in C2C12 cells and in a dose-response fashion stimulated PGE2 release, both effects antagonized by VLO5 and PD98059. NGF-induced myoprotection of the cells exposed for 7 h to OGD, followed by 18 h of reoxygenation, was reversed by VLO5 treatment.",
"yes. Our results suggest activation of sensory neurons in the pathologic process of ischemia/reperfusion-induced acute renal injury. Such activation reduces acute renal injury by attenuating inflammatory responses through enhanced endothelial PGI2 production.",
"The proteasome degrades NF-kappaB blocking protein (I-kappaB) and activates NF-kappaB that plays as a key transcriptional factor to regulate inflammatory factors that are involved in the tissue reperfusion injury. This study was designed to assess whether the proteasome inhibitor can attenuate peripheral nerve ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury and consequently promote motor functional recovery after ischemic insult. Rat sciatic nerves were exposed to 2 hour of ischemia followed by various periods of reperfusion. Rats were administered either proteasome inhibitor (bortezomib) or phosphate-buffered saline 30 minutes before reperfusion start. Results were evaluated using a walking track test, and an isolated muscle contraction test, and by muscle weight, and histology. Bortezomib treatment induced an earlier improvement in sciatic functional index and a more rapid restoration of contractile force and wet weight of extensor digitorum longus muscle. Bortezomib reduced early axonal degeneration and promoted regeneration.",
"no. These findings do not support a major role for endogenous bradykinin, acting via the B(2) kinin receptor, in the mechanism of ischaemia-reperfusion injury or the protective effects of remote ischaemic preconditioning in man.",
"yes. These findings demonstrate that simultaneous signaling by NO and prostaglandins plays an important role in the mechanism of liver regeneration after PH by protecting the remnant tissue from apoptotic death.",
"Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) produced by endothelial cells improves ischemia/reperfusion-induced acute renal injury by inhibiting leukocyte activation in rats. However, the underlying mechanism(s) of increased PGI2 production is not fully understood. Activation of sensory neurons increases endothelial PGI2 production by releasing calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) in rats with hepatic ischemia or reperfusion. We examined here whether activation of sensory neurons increases PGI2 endothelial production, thereby reducing ischemia/reperfusion-induced acute renal injury. Anesthetized rats were subjected to 45 min of renal ischemia/reperfusion. Rats were pretreated with CGRP, capsazepine (a vanilloid receptor-1 antagonist), CGRP(8-37) (a CGRP receptor antagonist), or indomethacin (a cyclooxygenase inhibitor), or subjected to denervation of primary sensory nerves before ischemia/reperfusion. Renal tissue levels of CGRP and 6-keto-prostaglandin F1alpha, a stable metabolite of PGI2, increased after renal ischemia/reperfusion, peaking at 1 h after reperfusion. Overexpression of CGRP was also noted at 1 h after reperfusion. Increases in renal tissue levels of 6-keto-prostaglandin F1alpha at 1 h after reperfusion were significantly inhibited by pretreatment with capsazepine, CGRP(8-37), and indomethacin. Pretreatment with capsazepine, CGRP(8-37), indomethacin, and denervation of primary sensory nerves significantly increased blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels, renal vascular permeability, renal tissue levels of myeloperoxidase activity, cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant, and tumor necrosis factor-alpha, and decreased renal tissue blood flow. However, pretreatment with CGRP significantly improved these changes.",
"This study was designed to investigate the effect of a newly synthesised sodium/hydrogen ion exchange inhibitor, SM-20550, on ischaemia-reperfusion induced injury in a rat hind limb model. In order to induce ischaemia of the hind limbs, the abdominal aorta just distal to the renal arteries and the bilateral femoral arteries were clamped. Nineteen rats were divided into three groups. In the sham group (n=5), the vessels were only dissected and a vehicle solution was administered. In the control group (n=7), the vessels were clamped for five hours, and a vehicle solution was administered 10 minutes prior to clamping and continued for five hours after reperfusion. In the SM group (n=7), clamping was maintained for five hours with a bolus injection of SM-20550 and continuous infusion of the solution for five hours after reperfusion. Water content of the left gastrocnemius muscle was calculated. The right gastrocnemius was fixed in 10% formalin. A transverse thin section was stained with antimyoglobin antibody. Stained cells of the right gastrocnemius were counted and the myoglobin staining index was calculated. Water content was significantly (p<0.002) lower in the SM group than in the control group. The myoglobin staining index was significantly (p<0.01) higher in the SM group than in the control group. There was no significant difference between the control and the SM groups in creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).",
"yes. Microsomal prostaglandin E synthase-1 and COX-2 are co-induced by excess glutamate in ischaemic brain. These enzymes are co-localized and act together to exacerbate stroke injury, by excessive PGE(2) production.",
"yes. Sal B showed a protective action against the ischemia-reperfusion induced injury in rat brain by reducing lipid peroxides, scavenging free radicals and improving the energy metabolism.",
"yes. Treating hepatic ischaemia-reperfusion injury with alprostadil reduces the risk of early HCC recurrence following LT. In particular patients with HCC exceeding the Milan criteria seem to benefit from PGE1-treatment. The molecular mechanisms of the anti-tumour effects need to be further assessed.",
"yes. As a result of this study we concluded that iloprost infused before and during clamping of the thoracic aorta mitigates the spinal cord injury due to ischemia and reperfusion following unclamping.",
"yes. Complement activation and skeletal muscle reperfusion injury occurs predominantly on Type 2 fibers with low myosin content. This suggests that attempts to control the post-reperfusion inflammation will likely produce substantial muscle recovery. Furthermore, the basis of IgM deposition and complement activation may be revealed in the comparison of the two muscle fiber types.",
"The purpose of this study was to examine the effects of cyclooxygenase (COX) deficiency on baseline functional characteristics and on recovery of left ventricular developed pressure (LVDP) after 20 minutes of global ischemia and 40 minutes of reperfusion in untreated and preconditioned hearts. Compared with hearts from wild-type (WT) and COX-2(-/-) mice, baseline cardiac prostaglandin (PG) E(2) and 6-keto-PGF(1alpha) levels were significantly decreased in hearts from COX-1(-/-) mice. After ischemia, cardiac PGE(2) levels increased in WT, COX-1(-/-), and COX-2(-/-) mice (P<0.05). Recovery of function (LVDP) after global ischemia in hearts from COX-1(-/-) and COX-2(-/-) mice was significantly less than in WT hearts. Pretreatment of WT mice with indomethacin for 2 days before ischemia significantly decreased LVDP recovery; however, perfusion of WT hearts with indomethacin for 40 minutes before ischemia did not significantly alter LVDP recovery. Postischemic recovery of LVDP in COX-1(-/-) and COX-2(-/-) was unchanged by perfusion with 5 micromol/L PGE(2), PGD(2), PGF(2alpha), or carboprostacyclin. Hearts from COX-2(-/-) mice showed an increase in ischemic contracture compared with hearts from WT and COX-1(-/-) mice; however, hearts did not differ in intracellular pH, ATP, or inorganic phosphate during ischemia. Ischemic preconditioning significantly improved postischemic LVDP recovery in COX-1(-/-), COX-2(-/-), and WT mice.",
"The molecular mechanisms of the vasoconstrictor responses evoked by hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) have not been clearly elucidated in skeletal muscle arterioles. Changes in diameter of isolated, cannulated and pressurized gracilis muscle arterioles (GAs) of Wistar-Kyoto rats were determined under various test conditions. H2O2 (10-100 µM) evoked concentration-dependent constrictions in the GAs, which were inhibited by endothelium removal, or by antagonists of phospholipase A (PLA; 100 µM 7,7-dimethyl-(5Z,8Z)-eicosadienoic acid), protein kinase C (PKC; 10 µM chelerythrine), phospholipase C (PLC; 10 µM U-73122), or Src family tyrosine kinase (Src kinase; 1 µM Src Inhibitor-1). Antagonists of thromboxane A2 (TXA2; 1 µM SQ-29548) or the non-specific cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor indomethacin (10 µM) converted constrictions to dilations. The COX-1 inhibitor (SC-560, 1 µM) demonstrated a greater reduction in constriction and conversion to dilation than that of COX-2 (celecoxib, 3 µM). H2O2 did not elicit significant changes in arteriolar Ca(2+) levels measured with Fura-2.",
"yes. Short, preconditioning periods of myocardial ischaemia protect the myocardium against the arrhythmogenic effects of a more prolonged occlusion. That this protection is lost if the cyclo-oxygenase pathway is blocked suggests a protective role for prostanoids, most likely prostacyclin, as endogenous myocardial protective substances.",
"yes. C1 INH reduced edema formation locally in reperfused muscle as well as in lung, and improved muscle viability. C1 INH did not primarily act via inhibition of the complement system, but via the kinin and coagulation cascade. APT070 did not show beneficial effects in this model, despite potent inhibition of complement activation. Taken together, C1 INH might be a promising therapy to reduce peripheral ischemia/reperfusion injury and distant lung damage in complex and prolonged surgical interventions requiring tourniquet application.",
"Extremity trauma is the most common injury seen in combat hospitals as well as in civilian trauma centers. Major skeletal muscle injuries that are complicated by ischemia often result in substantial muscle loss, residual disability, or even amputation, yet few treatment options are available. A therapy that would increase skeletal muscle tolerance to hypoxic damage could reduce acute myocyte loss and enhance preservation of muscle mass in these situations.QUESTIONS/ In these experiments, we investigated (1) whether cobalt protoporphyrin (CoPP), a pharmacologic inducer of cytoprotective heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1), would upregulate HO-1 expression and activity in skeletal muscle, tested in muscle-derived stem cells (MDSCs); and (2) whether CoPP exposure would protect MDSCs from cell death during in vitro hypoxia/reoxygenation. Then, using an in vivo mouse model of hindlimb ischemia/reperfusion injury, we examined (3) whether CoPP pharmacotherapy would reduce skeletal muscle damage when delivered after injury; and (4) whether it would alter the host inflammatory response to injury. MDSCs were exposed in vitro to a single dose of 25 μΜ CoPP and harvested over 24 to 96 hours, assessing HO-1 protein expression by Western blot densitometry and HO-1 enzyme activity by cGMP levels. To generate hypoxia/reoxygenation stress, MDSCs were treated in vitro with phosphate-buffered saline (vehicle), CoPP, or CoPP plus an HO-1 inhibitor, tin protoporphyrin (SnPP), and then subjected to 5 hours of hypoxia (<0.5% O2) followed by 24 hours of reoxygenation and evaluated for apoptosis. In vivo, hindlimb ischemia/reperfusion injury was produced in mice by unilateral 2-hour tourniquet application followed by 24 hours of reperfusion. In three postinjury treatment groups (n = 7 mice/group), CoPP was administered intraperitoneally during ischemia, at the onset of reperfusion, or 1 hour later. Two control groups of mice with the same injury received phosphate-buffered saline (vehicle) or the HO-1 inhibitor, SnPP. Myocyte damage in the gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior muscles was determined by uptake of intraperitoneally delivered Evans blue dye (EBD), quantified by image analysis. On serial sections, inflammation was gauged by the mean myeloperoxidase staining intensity per unit area over the entirety of each muscle. In MDSCs, a single exposure to CoPP increased HO-1 protein expression and enzyme activity, both of which were sustained for 96 hours. CoPP treatment of MDSCs reduced apoptotic cell populations by 55% after in vitro hypoxia/reoxygenation injury (from a mean of 57.3% apoptotic cells in vehicle-treated controls to 25.7% in CoPP-treated cells, mean difference 31.6%; confidence interval [CI], 28.1-35.0; p<0.001). In the hindlimb ischemia/reperfusion model, CoPP delivered during ischemia produced a 38% reduction in myocyte damage in the gastrocnemius muscle (from 86.4% ± 7% EBD(+) myofibers in vehicle-treated, injured controls to 53.2% EBD(+) in CoPP-treated muscle, mean difference 33.2%; 95% CI, 18.3, 48.4; p<0.001). A 30% reduction in injury to the gastrocnemius was seen with drug delivery at the onset of reperfusion (to 60.6% ± 13% EBD(+) with CoPP treatment, mean difference 25.8%; CI, 12.2-39.4; p<0.001). In the tibialis anterior, however, myocyte damage was decreased only when CoPP was given at the onset of reperfusion, resulting in a 27% reduction in injury (from 78.8% ± 8% EBD(+) myofibers in injured controls to 58.3% ± 14% with CoPP treatment, mean difference 20.5%; CI, 6.1-35.0; p = 0.004). Delaying CoPP delivery until 1 hour after tourniquet release obviated the protective effect in both muscles. Mean MPO staining intensity per unit area, indicating the host inflammatory response, decreased by 27-34% across both the gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior muscles when CoPP was given either during ischemia or at the time of reperfusion. Delaying drug delivery until 1 hour after the start of reperfusion abrogated this antiinflammatory effect.",
"A new synthetic cyclic adenosine monophosphate phosphodiesterase inhibitor, cilostazol, has been shown to inhibit platelet aggregation and act synergistically with endogenous prostaglandin I2 to enhance smooth-muscle cell vasodilitation. The effect of cilostazol in ischemia/reperfusion injury-induced compartment syndrome was investigated. Sixteen rabbits underwent femoral artery occlusion after ligation of branches from the terminal aorta to the femoral artery. After 7 hours of ischemia, reperfusion was established with heparinized polyethylene shunts. Experimental animals (n = 8) received cilostazol (3.0 mg/kg) and control animals (n = 8) received normal saline as an intravenous infusion 10 minutes before shunt placement. During reperfusion, anterior compartment pressure was continuously monitored in the left lower extremity, and femoral artery blood flow was measured by laser Doppler fluorometry. To quantitate skeletal muscle oxidative metabolism and viability, triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) reduction (micrograms of TTC per milligram of protein) of tibialis anterior muscle from the right lower extremity was measured at femoral artery occlusion, 7 hours of ischemia, and 2 hours of reperfusion. To assess tissue edema, dry/wet weight ratios were also determined at these intervals. Data were expressed as means +/- SE. Comparisons within groups were performed by analysis of variance, and comparisons between groups with two-tailed unpaired t tests. At 2 hours of reperfusion, the difference between controls and cilostazol-treated animals was extremely significant (p = 0.0008). Preischemia and 2-hour reperfusion TTC and dry/wet weight ratios were not significantly different within or between experimental groups, nor was femoral artery blood flow during reperfusion.",
"yes. These results suggest that Rho-kinase plays a pivotal role in myocardial ischemia/reperfusion injury. The cardiac protection provided by treatment with a selective Rho-kinase inhibitor is likely via anti-apoptotic effect and attenuation of ischemia/reperfusion-induced inflammatory responses. The finding of this study suggest a novel therapeutic approach to the treatment of acute myocardial ischemia/reperfusion injury.",
"yes. Biochemical markers for tissue viability, thrombosis, and cytokine-mediated inflammation differ significantly in mice subjected to moderate and severe hindlimb ischemia/reperfusion. These biochemical markers may facilitate stratification of patients in clinical trials for treatment of ischemia/reperfusion injury and contribute to interpretation of their outcomes.",
"yes. In this model of rabbit hindlimb ischemia, endothelial cell-mediated vasorelaxation was preserved with the administration of intraarterial PTX during reperfusion compared to controls. The different relaxation responses could not be attributed to altered arterial contractility in response to norepinephrine, or explained by histologic changes in the arterial wall. These studies demonstrate a potential modality for therapeutic intervention to reduce reperfusion injury after acute limb ischemia.",
"yes. Endothelium-dependent vasodilation in the rat hindlimb, mediated by nitric oxide, was selectively impaired by injury from ischemia and reperfusion. Strategies designed to minimize postischemic attenuation of nitric oxide release may be beneficial in the management of acute limb ischemia.",
"Skeletal muscle injury can result in significant edema, which can in turn lead to the development of acute extremity compartment syndrome (CS). Poloxamer-188 (P-188), a multiblock copolymer surfactant, has been shown to decrease edema by sealing damaged membranes in a number of tissues after a variety of injury modalities. The objective is to determine whether the administration of P-188 significantly reduces skeletal muscle edema associated with ischemia/reperfusion injury (I-R). Male Sprague-Dawley rats underwent 180 minutes of tourniquet-induced ischemia. Five minutes before tourniquet release, rats received either a bolus of (1) P-188 (150 mg/kg; P-188 group) or (2) vehicle (Vehicle group) via a jugular catheter (n=10 per group). After 240 minutes reperfusion, both groups received a second bolus of either P-188 (P-188) or vehicle (Vehicle) via a tail vein catheter. Sixteen hours later, rats were killed; muscle weights were determined, infarct size (2,3,5-triphenyltetrazolium chloride method), and blinded histologic analysis (hematoxylin and eosin) were performed on the gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior muscles, as well as indices of antioxidant status. P-188 resulted in significantly less edema (wet weight) and reduced an index of lipid peroxidation compared with Vehicle (p<0.05). Wet:dry weight ratios were less in the P-188 group (indicating less edema). Muscle viability as indicated by 2,3,5-triphenyltetrazolium chloride staining or routine histology did not reveal statistically significant differences between groups.",
"Neutrophils play an important role in ischemia/reperfusion (IR) induced skeletal muscle injury. Microtubules are required for neutrophil activation in response to various stimuli. This study aimed to investigate the effects of colchicine, a microtubule-disrupting agent, on skeletal muscle IR injury in a rat hindlimb ischemia model. Twenty-one Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly allocated into three groups IR group, colchicine treated-IR (CO) group and sham operation (SM) group. Rats of both the IR and CO groups were subjected to 3 hr of ischemia by clamping the right femoral artery followed by 2 hr of reperfusion. Colchicine (1 mg/kg) was administrated intraperitoneally prior to hindlimb ischemia in the CO group. After 2 hr of reperfusion, we measured superoxide dismutase (SOD) and myeloperoxidase (MPO) activities, and malondialdehyde (MDA), tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α and interleukin (IL)-1β levels in the muscle samples. Plasma creatinine kinase (CK) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels were measured. We also evaluated the histological damage score and wet/dry weight (W/D) ratio. The histological damage score, W/D ratio, MPO activity, MDA, TNF-α and IL-1β levels in muscle tissues were significantly increased, SOD activity was decreased, and plasma CK and LDH levels were remarkably elevated in both the IR and CO groups compared to the SM group (P<0.05). Colchicine treatment significantly reduced muscle damage and edema, oxidative stress and levels of the inflammatory parameters in the CO group compared to the IR group (P<0.05).",
"yes. Results support the hypothesis that the rat jejunum possesses vascularly compromised sites along the mesenteric margin that are susceptible to indomethacin induced injury. Indomethacin may cause ischaemia-reperfusion injury selectively at these sites.",
"yes. These data indicate that activation of NMDA receptors plays an important role in the mechanism of acute injury in both cortex and caudate after 1 hour of transient focal ischemia in the cat. Because NPC 17742 afforded protection when administered at the end of ischemia and during reperfusion, NMDA receptor activation during reperfusion may contribute to the progression of injury in ischemic border regions.",
"Low molecular weight antioxidants (LMWA), which reflect tissue reducing power, are among the endogenous mechanisms for neutralizing reactive oxygen species (ROS). Ischemic preconditioning (IPC) was associated with decreased oxidative stress. We examined the effect of focal ischemia on LMWA and on prostaglandin E(2) (PGE(2), a product of arachidonic acid oxidation) in the brain, heart, liver, and lungs of rats subjected to 90 min of ischemia and in IPC rats subjected to similar insult. Transient right middle cerebral artery occlusion (MCAO) was performed for 90 min and at 0, 5, 30, 60, or 240 min of reperfusion, LMWA and PGE(2) were evaluated by cyclic voltametry (CV) and radioimmunoassay, respectively. IPC was induced by 2 min of MCAO, 24 h prior to the major ischemic episode. LMWA decreased at 5 min of reperfusion in the brain, heart, liver, and lung and rose 4 h later only in the brain. PGE(2) levels increased three to fivefold in all tissues examined. Surprisingly, in IPC rats a dramatic increase of LMWA occurred at 5 min of reperfusion in the brain and in the peripheral organs. Uric acid, but not ascorbic, is the major LMWA increased.",
"yes. These findings show that hind limb ischemia-reperfusion injury is associated with endotoxemia, elevations in plasma interleukin-6, and pulmonary leukosequestration. Treatment with rBPI(21) after ischemia reduces endotoxemia, the interleukin-6 response, and attenuates pulmonary leukosequestration in response to hind limb reperfusion injury.",
"yes. Poloxamer 188 administered to animals decreased myocyte injury, preserved tissue adenosine 5'-triphosphate levels, and improved survival following hind-limb ischemia-reperfusion injury.",
"yes. Results of this study showed that prophylactic administration of CAPE in ischemic condition prevents reperfusion injuries by eliminating oxygen radicals and inhibiting polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltration. CAPE may be useful in combating the diseases of oxidative stress.",
"Curcumin has been shown to decrease ischemia-reperfusion (I/R) injury in kidney or brain tissues. In this study, the effects of curcumin were evaluated in skeletal muscle during I/R injury. Hind limb ischemia was induced by clamping the common femoral artery and vein. After 4 h ischemia, the clamp of the femoral vessels of animals was taken off and the animal underwent 2 h reperfusion. We measured plasma concentrations of interleukin-1β (IL-1β) and tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The right gastrocnemius muscle was harvested and immediately stored at -30°C for the assessment of superoxide dismutase (SOD), catalase (CAT) activities, and measurement of glutathione (GSH), malondialdehyde (MDA), and protein oxidation (PO) levels. Curcumin (100 mg/kg), α-tocopherol, and normal saline (10 mL /kg1) were administered intraperitoneally 1 h prior reperfusion. Plasma TNF-α or IL-1β levels increased significantly in I/R group. The plasma levels of these proinflammatory cytokines were reduced in curcumin group. Muscle tissues of I/R groups revealed significantly higher antioxidant enzyme (superoxide dismutase, glutathione peroxidase, catalase) activities, and increased levels of malondialdehyde, nitric oxide, and protein carbonyl content compared with the SHAM group. Levels of these parameters in muscle revealed significant reductions in the I/R + curcumin group compared witho the I/R group. Curcumin has more potent antioxidant activity than vitamin E in the skeletal muscle I/R.",
"yes. The supplementation of a low dose of nitrite, directly into the microcirculation of ischemic muscle through local intraarterial infusion, significantly attenuated ischemia-reperfusion-induced microcirculatory alterations in vivo and mitochondrial dysfunction in vitro in the microvasculature of skeletal muscle.",
"Ischemia/reperfusion injury of lower extremities and associated lung damage may result from thrombotic occlusion, embolism, trauma, or surgical intervention with prolonged ischemia and subsequent restoration of blood flow. This clinical entity is characterized by high morbidity and mortality. Deprivation of blood supply leads to molecular and structural changes in the affected tissue. Upon reperfusion inflammatory cascades are activated causing tissue injury. We therefore tested preoperative treatment for prevention of reperfusion injury by using C1 esterase inhibitor (C1 INH). Wistar rats systemically pretreated with C1 INH (n = 6), APT070 (a membrane-targeted myristoylated peptidyl construct derived from human complement receptor 1, n = 4), vehicle (n = 7), or NaCl (n = 8) were subjected to 3h hind limb ischemia and 24h reperfusion. The femoral artery was clamped and a tourniquet placed under maintenance of a venous return. C1 INH treated rats showed significantly less edema in muscle (P<0.001) and lung and improved muscle viability (P<0.001) compared to controls and APT070. C1 INH prevented up-regulation of bradykinin receptor b1 (P<0.05) and VE-cadherin (P<0.01), reduced apoptosis (P<0.001) and fibrin deposition (P<0.01) and decreased plasma levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines, whereas deposition of complement components was not significantly reduced in the reperfused muscle.",
"Recent in vivo data indicate that indomethacin improves renal outcome after ischemia via improvement of renal cell survival and function. To examine direct effects of indomethacin on isolated proximal tubular cells, we investigated the influence of indomethacin on markers of ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) damage in an established in vitro model of ischemia and reperfusion. Ischemia was applied for 2 h followed by reperfusion for up to 48 h. Indomethacin was added at the beginning of reperfusion. Parameters were investigated after 6, 24 or 48 h of reperfusion. Indomethacin diminished cell death by necrosis and apoptosis, release of prostaglandin E2, induction of I/R-induced protein, dedifferentiation or induction of inducible nitric oxide synthase. Moreover, indomethacin totally prevented the ischemia-induced inhibition of basolateral organic anion transport. Indomethacin did not affect ischemia-mediated induction of nuclear factor-kappaB or monocyte chemoattractant protein 1. Ischemia did not induce matrix protein synthesis.",
"yes. The transient increases and selective tissue distribution of MCP-1 during early inflammation and muscle regeneration support the hypothesis that this cytokine participates in the early reparative events preceding the restoration of vascular perfusion following ischemic injury.",
"yes. The susceptibility of skeletal muscle to ischemia-induced injury is at least partly independent of muscle blood flow and vascular density, consistent with a muscle cell autonomous response that is genetically determined. Further development of preclinical models of peripheral artery disease that more accurately reflect the nature of the human disease may allow more accurate identification of genetic targets for therapeutic intervention.",
"yes. Bortezomib effectively blocks nuclear factor-kappaB activation in attenuating muscle reperfusion injury through inhibiting nuclear factor-kappaB inhibitory protein degradation. Therefore, inhibition of proteasome activity may provide a novel therapeutic strategy for the treatment of skeletal muscle reperfusion injury.",
"yes. We found that human skeleton muscle escaped cellular damage induced by H2O2 in the early phase after heat stress. These data suggest evidence for an early effect of heat stress against ischemia/reperfusion injury in human muscle.",
"yes. During pulmonary ischemia, Src PTK activation, rather than alteration in gene expression, may play a critical role in reperfusion-induced lung injury. Src PTK inhibition presents a new prophylactic treatment for pulmonary ischemia-reperfusion-induced acute lung injury.",
"The generation of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) is significantly increased in acute myocardial ischemia and reperfusion. PGE2, in addition to other prostaglandins, protects the reperfused ischemic myocardium. It has been hypothesized that this cardioprotection is mediated by E-type prostaglandin receptors of the Gi-coupled EP3 subtype. We tested this hypothesis by generating transgenic (tg) mice with cardiospecific overexpression of the EP3 receptor. According to ligand binding, a 40-fold overexpression of the EP3 receptor was achieved in membranes prepared from tg hearts compared with wild-type (wt) littermates. In isolated cardiomyocytes from tg mice, the forskolin-induced rise in cAMP was markedly attenuated, indicating coupling of the overexpressed EP3 receptor to inhibitory G proteins (Gi) with constitutive receptor activity. There was no evidence for EP3 receptor coupling to Gq-mediated protein kinase C signaling. Isolated hearts from tg and wt mice were subjected to 60 minutes of no-flow ischemia and 45 minutes of reperfusion. In tg hearts, ischemic contracture was markedly delayed compared with wt hearts, and the ischemia-induced increase in left ventricular end-diastolic pressure was reduced by 55%. Creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase release was significantly decreased by 85% and 73%, respectively, compared with wt hearts.",
"yes. These data suggest that isoprostanes are major contributors to the proadhesive effect induced by MM-LDL on neutrophils and provide additional evidence for the involvement of isoprostanes in the pathogenesis of myocardial ischemia/reperfusion injury.",
"After ischaemia and during reperfusion, rat hearts release cardiodepressive substances that are putatively cyclooxygenase-2-dependent. The present study analyses the mechanisms by which these substances mediate their effect downstream of cyclooxygenase-2. After 10 min of global stop-flow ischaemia, isolated rat hearts were reperfused and post-ischaemic coronary effluent was collected over a period of 30 s. Non-ischaemic effluent collected before ischaemia was used as a control. We investigated the effect of the effluents on cell shortening and Ca(++)-metabolism, by application of fluorescence microscopy of field-stimulated adult rat cardiomyocytes incubated with fura-2. Cells were pre-incubated with inhibitors of protein kinase A and C and with antagonists of protein kinase A-dependent prostaglandin receptors. We examined the expression of prostaglandin receptors in cardiomyocytes by Western blotting. In contrast to non-ischaemic effluent, post-ischaemic effluent induced reduction of Ca(++) transient and cell shortening in the cardiomyocytes. In contrast to protein kinase C inhibitor Myr-PKC [19-27], the protein kinase A inhibitor Rp-cAMPS completely blocked the effect of post-ischaemic effluent. Furthermore, we determined a cyclic adenosine monophosphate increase in cardiomyocytes that were pre-incubated with post-ischaemic effluent. The antagonist of prostaglandin E-receptor EP2 AH6809 and the antagonist of receptor subtype EP4 AH23848 attenuated the effect of post-ischaemic effluent in contrast to other antagonists of prostaglandin D and I receptors, which did not influence the effect. In lysates of adherend cardiomyocytes, expression of prostaglandin D, E and I receptors was detected by Western blotting.",
"yes. These data suggest that COX-1 derived prostaglandins exert an inhibitory effect on gastric iNOS during endotoxemia, and this may represent a potential cytoprotective mechanism not previously recognized for this enzyme, since up-regulation of iNOS is deleterious in some tissues.",
"yes. Our results indicate that there is a better availability of interstitial glycolysis metabolites (glucose, lactate, and pyruvate) in the skeletal muscle during ischaemia and reperfusion after sevoflurane exposure than after propofol, suggesting a potential preconditioning effect of sevoflurane on tourniquet-induced skeletal muscle I/R.",
"yes. The effect of post-ischaemic effluent is mediated by the protein kinase A-dependent prostaglandin-receptor subtypes EP2 and EP4 downstream of cyclooxygenase-2.",
"In this investigation we aimed to determine whether: (1) physical activity protects rat skeletal muscle from ischemia/reperfusion (I/R) injury; and (2) continued activity after I/R improves the rate of healing. Rats were divided into sedentary or active (voluntary wheel running) groups. Active rats ran for 4 weeks before I/R or 4 weeks before plus 4 weeks after I/R. Activity before I/R resulted in 73.2% less muscle damage (Evans blue dye inclusion). Sedentary and active rats had a similar decline in neural-evoked (∼ 99%) and directly stimulated (∼ 70%) in vivo muscle torque, and a similar reduction in junctophilin 1. Active rats produced 19% and 15% greater neural-evoked torque compared with sedentary rats at 14 and 28 days postinjury, respectively, although the rate of recovery appeared similar.",
"to assess the efficacy of recombinant human manganese superoxide dismutase (rhMnSOD) in prevention of early and late skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury mediated by superoxide (O2-). Design : randomised controlled trial. seventy-two Sprague-Dawley rats (250-350 g) randomised to receive either 7.5 mg/kg of rhMnSOD or saline. Four hours of ischaemia was induced in the cremaster muscle by dissecting free and clamping its vascular supply. Cremaster muscle contractile function was assessed following 90 minutes, 24, 48 hours and one week of reperfusion. Electrophysiological muscle function was assessed using electrical field stimulation in an organ bath system. muscle function in the untreated groups following ischaemia reperfusion was significantly reduced at 90 minutes, 24, 48 hours and one week of reperfusion (p <0.05). rhMnSOD significantly protected and maintained normal muscle function at 24 and 48 hours (p <0.001). However at one week of reperfusion there was a reduction in function of the treated muscle, such that there was no significant difference between treated and untreated muscle at this point in time.",
"yes. COX-2 protein expression was upregulated in lung tissue in response to skeletal muscle ischemia reperfusion. COX-2 inhibition may modulate pulmonary AQP-1 expression and attenuate lung injury.",
"yes. Polyadenosine diphosphate-ribose polymerase modulates skeletal muscle viability, cytokine and vascular endothelial growth factor synthesis during reperfusion. Polyadenosine diphosphate-ribose polymerase inhibition may represent a novel method to modulate skeletal muscle ischemia-reperfusion injury.",
"yes. A 20-minute reperfusion interval between hind limb ischemia significantly protects against injury in the initially ischemic limb, while similar injury is observed with simultaneous ischemia or an interval of 120 minutes. This study demonstrates remote postconditioning of skeletal muscle and may lead to the development of post hoc therapies.",
"yes. Our results indicate that the sodium/hydrogen ion exchange inhibitor, SM-20550, ameliorates oedema formation and ischaemia-reperfusion induced injury of the skeletal muscle.",
"yes. We have shown that: (a) indomethacin applied after ischemia has a beneficial effect on proximal tubule cell survival after model ischemia and impairs changes of parameters characteristically induced by ischemia via direct action on proximal tubule cells; (b) the inflammatory response of proximal tubule cells was not affected by indomethacin, and (c) fibrosis does not take place after model ischemia in isolated proximal tubule cells.",
"yes. Low-dose prostacyclin effectively reduces hydraulic capillary permeability in cat skeletal muscle and is superior to terbutaline and aminophylline.",
"no. Post hoc administration of enoxaparin did not affect local tissue thrombosis, inflammatory markers, or muscle necrosis. This suggests that despite its potent in vivo activity, enoxaparin did not modulate skeletal muscle injury, thrombosis, or inflammatory following ischemia reperfusion. enoxaparin may not be useful in mediating skeletal muscle injury when administered in a clinically relevant scenario.",
"no. After 2 h of total ischemia, infusion of bradykinin during 4 h of reperfusion, worsened the I/R injury in the hindlimb skeletal muscle.",
"yes. Two periods of ischaemia and reperfusion similar to those which occur during bypass grafting resulted in changes in the distal microcirculation consistent with reperfusion injury. Intraarterial bolus treatment with iloprost prevented these leucocyte-endothelial changes. It appears iloprost may have a role in reducing leukocyte-induced reperfusion injury in femorodistal bypass surgery.",
"yes. This study clearly showed that myocardial injury and edema occurred after ischemia-reperfusion of abdominal aorta and that groups administered with iloprost and iloprost+vitamin C showed an attenuation of ischemia-reperfusion injury in distant organs (Tab. 3, Fig. 4, Ref. 30).",
"yes. The data support a beneficial role for C1-INH in the treatment of ischaemia-reperfusion injuries of skeletal muscles.",
"yes. Simvastatin pretreatment reduced limb ischemia-reperfusion injury in diabetic and nondiabetic animals. We conclude that simvastatin pretreatment may be a potential therapeutic intervention for skeletal muscle ischemia-reperfusion injury in the clinical setting.",
"We investigated the effects of iloprost and pentoxifylline on skeletal muscle ischemia-reperfusion injury in a rabbit model. Forty New Zealand white rabbits were grouped into four. In Group 1, iloprost was continuously infused starting half an hour before the reperfusion following a 2-hour ischemia formed by abdominal aortic occlusion, and it was continued during the 4-hour reperfusion period. Group 2 was treated with pentoxifylline, and Group 3 received saline solution. Group 4 was the sham group. Malondialdehyde levels and edema scores in gastrocnemius muscle were evaluated. Edema score was significantly lower in Group 1 when compared with the control group (Group 1 vs Group 3, p=0.040; Group 2 vs Group 3, p=0.145; Group 1 vs Group 2, p=0.580). Malondialdehyde levels of the medicated groups were significantly lower when compared with the control group (Group 1: 60+/-11 nmol/g tissue, Group 2: 74+/-11 nmol/g tissue, Group 3: 95+/-10 nmol/g tissue; Group 1 vs Group 2, p=0.010; Group 1 vs Group 3, p<0.001; Group 2 vs Group 3, p<0.001; Group 1 vs Group 4, p<0.001; Group 2 vs Group 4, p<0.001; Group 3 vs Group 4: p<0.001).",
"yes. P-188 significantly reduced ischemia-reperfusion-related muscle edema and lipid peroxidation but did not impact muscle viability. Excess edema can lead to acute extremity CS, which is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. P-188 may provide a potential adjunctive treatment for the reduction of CS.",
"yes. High-grade partial ischemia of skeletal muscle is associated with iron delocalization, which persists on reperfusion. Each lazaroid achieved a similar \"membranoprotective\" effect during reperfusion only despite lack of iron binding by U-74389F, suggesting a direct interaction with the cell membrane. These data support the concept that ischemic injury and reperfusion injury occur through fundamentally different mechanisms.",
"yes. In this study, protective effects of curcumin against skeletal muscle ischemia-reperfusion injury have been revealed. We underscore the necessity of human studies with curcumin that would be hypothetically beneficial preventing skeletal muscle I/R injury.",
"yes. these data demonstrate that skeletal muscle dysfunction after ischaemia reperfusion injury is attenuated at 24 and 48 hrs of reperfusion by the superoxide scavenger rhMnSOD. This protective effect is not maintained after seven days of reperfusion.",
"Skeletal muscle ischemia reperfusion accounts for high morbidity and mortality, and cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 is implicated in causing muscle damage. Downregulation of aquaporin-1 (AQP-1) transmembrane protein is implicated in skeletal muscle ischemia reperfusion induced remote lung injury. The expression of COX-2 in lung tissue and the effect of COX-2 inhibition on AQP-1 expression and lung injury during skeletal muscle ischemia reperfusion are not known. We investigated the role of COX-2 in lung injury induced by skeletal muscle ischemia reperfusion in rats and evaluated the effects of NS-398, a specific COX-2 inhibitor. Twenty-four Sprague Dawley rats were randomized into 4 groups: sham group (SM group), sham+NS-398 group (SN group), ischemia reperfusion group (IR group) and ischemia reperfusion+NS-398 group (IN group). Rats in the IR and IN groups were subjected to 3h of bilateral ischemia followed by 6h of reperfusion in hindlimbs, and intravenous NS-398 8 mg/kg was administered in the IN group. In the SM and SN groups, rubber bands were in place without inflation. At the end of reperfusion, myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity, COX-2 and AQP-1 protein expression in lung tissue, PGE2 metabolite (PGEM), tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-α and interleukin (IL)-1β levels in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid were assessed. Histological changes in lung and muscle tissues and wet/dry (W/D) ratio were also evaluated. MPO activity, COX-2 expression, W/D ratio in lung tissue, and PGEM, TNF-α and IL-1β levels in BAL fluid were significantly increased, while AQP-1 protein expression downregulated in the IR group as compared to that in the SM group (P<0.05). These changes were remarkably mitigated in the IN group (P<0.05). NS-398 treatment also alleviated histological signs of lung and skeletal muscle injury.",
"yes. Constitutive prostaglandin EP3 receptor signaling exerts a protective effect on cardiomyocytes, which is probably Gi mediated and results in a remarkable attenuation of myocardial injury during ischemia and reperfusion. Cardioprotective actions of E-type prostaglandins may be mediated by this receptor subtype.",
"the effects of prostaglandins (PG) E1, E2, and the prostacyclin analogue iloprost with and without the addition of free-radical scavengers catalase and superoxide dismutase on gastrocnemius blood flow and oedema were studied in a rodent model of hindlimb ischaemia-reperfusion. male Sprague-Dawley rats underwent 6-h hindlimb ischaemia with 4-h reperfusion. Prostaglandins were infused prior to reperfusion and their effects on limb blood flow and oedema examined. control animals exhibited a triphasic pattern of muscle blood flow during reperfusion compared to normal animals. PGE1 did not abolish low reflow at 10 min, relative reperfusion was preserved but reperfusion injury was abolished at 120 min. Muscle blood flow was increased at 240 min compared to controls. Increased limb swelling was also seen. Addition of free-radical scavengers caused the abolition of low reflow. Similar results were seen with iloprost. PGE2 abolished low reflow at 10 min and increased perfusion at 120 min but did not prevent reperfusion injury at 240 min.",
"yes. Acute skeletal muscle ischemia is a common problem. We are of the opinion that in the early phase of skeletal muscle ischemia, iloprost and pentoxifylline medication may reduce ischemia-reperfusion injury.",
"PGE1 and iloprost enhance muscle blood flow at 4-h reperfusion, though neither abolishes low reflow; PGE2 improved flow at 10 and 120 min but not after 240 min. This study demonstrates a potentially beneficial role for prostaglandins in improving muscle blood flow in skeletal muscle ischaemia-reperfusion injury."
] | 112 |
Occurrence of hippocampal sclerosis: is one hemisphere or gender more vulnerable? | [
"We analyzed a large group of patients investigated for suspected seizures to test whether gender or side are important factors in the origins of hippocampal sclerosis (HS). We studied 996 consecutive patients (48% men, 52% women) by using standard hippocampal T2-relaxometry methods. HS was associated with a highly abnormal T2 time (<or =113 ms). Categoric analysis showed that hippocampal T2 time was independent of gender and side. T2 time was bilaterally normal in 81% of men and in 79% of women; it was unilaterally abnormal in 15% of both men and women; and bilaterally abnormal in 4% of men and in 6% of women. Highly abnormal T2 relaxometry, suggesting HS, occurred with equal frequency in men and women and on the right and left sides. Quantitative analysis of hippocampal T2 times showed values not differing significantly between men and women or between the right and left hemispheres. There was no significant interaction between gender and side.",
"In patients with seizure disorders, hippocampal T2 relaxometry is not different in adult men and women and in the right and left hemispheres."
] | [
"It is unclear which factors lead to progressive neuronal damage in mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE). The objective of this study was to evaluate whether progressive hippocampal and extrahippocampal atrophy occur in patients with MTLE and whether this atrophy is related to seizures. We performed 2 MRI scans in 33 patients with clinical and electroencephalographic diagnosis of MTLE and in 24 healthy controls. MRI was performed in a 2-T scanner, and a T1-weighted gradient-echo sequence with 1 mm thickness was used for voxel-based morphometry analysis. Follow-up images were obtained at least 7 months after the first baseline MRI. Comparisons between the patient's follow-up and baseline MRIs, and between patients and controls, were performed. A corrected p value of 0.05 was set as the threshold for the statistical analysis. Follow-up MRI was performed after a median interval of 39 months (range 7-85 months). Three patients were seizure-free between the first and second MRIs. We observed progressive white and gray matter atrophy (p < 0.05) in patients with MTLE. This progression was more intense in patients with left MTLE compared with right MTLE. A higher frequency of seizures and a longer duration of epilepsy were associated with progression of gray and white matter atrophy in patients with MTLE.",
"The hippocampal formation is essentially involved in the formation of conscious memories for facts and events and neurologic diseases affecting the hippocampus associate with severe memory deficits, i.e., temporal lobe epilepsies. We studied the degree of declarative memory dysfunction in 24 human subjects with unilateral mesial temporal lobe epilepsy, using the unique possibility to access memory performance of each isolated hippocampus by intracarotid amobarbital anesthesia. Subsequently, hippocampal specimens from the same patients were available for neuropathologic analysis following surgical treatment of intractable seizures. Neuronal cell loss in the dentate gyrus and all hippocampal subfields correlated with memory performance with the exception of CA2. Moreover, multiple regression and partial correlation analyses identified neuronal cell loss within the internal limb of the dentate gyrus, a developmentally distinct subregion of the hippocampal formation known to generate new neurons throughout life, as highly significant predictor for the patient's ability to learn and recall memories.",
"To determine whether repeated seizures contribute to hippocampal sclerosis, we investigated whether cell loss in the (para) hippocampal region was related to the severity of chronic seizure activity in a rat model for temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE). Chronic epilepsy developed after status epilepticus (SE) that was electrically induced 3-5 months before. The presence of neuronal damage was assessed by using Fluoro-Jade and dUTP nick end-labeling (TUNEL) of brain sections counterstained with Nissl. We found a negative correlation between the numbers of surviving hilar cells and the duration of the SE (r = -0.66; p < 0.01). In the chronic phase, we could discriminate between rats with occasional seizures (0.15 +/- 0.05 seizures per day) without progression and rats with progressive seizure activity (8.9 +/- 2.8 seizures/day). In both groups, the number of TUNEL-positive cells in parahippocampal regions was similar and higher than in controls. In the hippocampal formation, this was not significantly different from controls. Fluoro-Jade staining showed essentially the same pattern at 1 week and no positive neurons in chronic epileptic rats.",
"Decreased hippocampal volume is observed in patients with Cushing's syndrome and other conditions associated with elevated cortisol levels, stress, or both. Reversibility of hippocampal neuronal atrophy resulting from stress occurs in animals. Our study investigated the potential for reversibility of human hippocampal atrophy. The study included 22 patients with Cushing's disease. Magnetic resonance brain imaging was performed prior to transsphenoidal microadenomectomy and again after treatment. Following treatment, hippocampal formation volume (HFV) increased by up to 10%. The mean percent change (3.2 +/- 2.5) was significantly greater (p < .04) than that of the comparison structure, caudate head volume (1.5 +/- 3.4). Increase in HFV was significantly associated with magnitude of decrease in urinary free cortisol (r = -.61, p < .01). This relationship strengthened after adjustments for age, duration of disease, and months elapsed since surgery (r = -.70, p < .001). There was no significant correlation between caudate head volume change and magnitude of cortisol decrease.",
"Early-onset seizures(ESs) have been reported in 2% to 6% of strokes. Most previous studies have been retrospective and did not systematically perform cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). To determine the prevalence and determinants of ESs in a prospective cohort. Prospective cohort study. Stroke unit in an academic hospital. Six hundred sixty-one consecutive individuals admitted to our stroke unit during an 18-month period for suspected stroke. Initial investigations systematically included cerebral MRI. Among patients with MRI-confirmed cerebral infarction, individuals with ES, defined as occurring within 14 days of stroke, were identified. Three hundred twenty-eight patients had MRI-confirmed cerebral infarcts and 178 had cortical involvement. The ESs, all initially partial seizures, occurred in 14 patients (4.3%) and at stroke onset in 5 patients. The ESs occurred exclusively in patients with cortical involvement (P <.001). With infarcts involving the cerebral cortex, there was a higher risk of ESs in watershed infarctions than in territorial strokes (6 of 26 [23.1%] vs 8 of 152 [5.3%], P = .007). Logistic regression analysis showed an almost 4-fold increased risk of ES in patients with watershed infarctions compared with other cortical infarcts (odds ratio, 4.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.5- 15.4; P = .01). Age, sex, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, smoking, National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale score, and cardioembolic origin were not significant risk factors for ES.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate differences in gray matter volume between patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) with and without depression using voxel-based morphometry. We included 48 adults with refractory MTLE (31 women, 39.18 ± 8.4 years) and 96 healthy controls (75 women, 37.11 ± 8.9 years). For the psychiatric evaluation, the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Axis I, was used for the diagnosis of depression, and the Beck Depression Inventory, for the determination of symptom intensity. All patients underwent an MRI scan. Patients were separated into two groups: those with MTLE with depression (n = 24) and those with MTLE without depression (n = 24). We performed voxel-based morphometric analysis, comparing patients with controls using the t test. The number of areas of gray matter volume loss was higher in patients with MTLE with depression than in those with MTLE without depression.",
"yes. Although early life stress exposure did not impair hippocampus-dependent functioning in female offspring, it irreversibly affected DG structure by reducing cell numbers. This may be relevant for the reduced hippocampal volume observed in depression and the increased vulnerability of women to develop depression.",
"The objective of our study was to test the hypothesis that the finding of hyperintense hippocampal signal intensity on T2-weighted MR images soon after febrile status epilepticus is associated with subsequent hippocampal volume loss and persistent abnormal signal intensity on T2-weighted images (i.e., mesial temporal sclerosis). Eleven children (mean age, 25 months) underwent initial MRI that included coronal temporal lobe imaging within 72 hours of febrile status epilepticus and follow-up imaging from 3 to 23 months later (mean, 9 months). A neuroradiologist blinded to clinical history graded initial and follow-up hippocampal signal intensity on a scale from 0 (normal) to 4 (markedly increased). Two blinded observers measured hippocampal volumes on initial and follow-up MR studies using commercially available software and volumes from 30 healthy children (mean age, 6.3 years). Initial signal intensity and hippocampal volume changes were compared using Kendall tau correlation coefficients. On initial imaging, hyperintense signal intensity ranging from 1 (minimally increased) to 4 (markedly increased) was seen in seven children. Four children had at least one hippocampus with moderate or marked signal abnormality, three children had a hippocampus with mild or minimal abnormality, and four children had normal signal intensity. The Kendall tau correlation coefficient between signal intensity increase and volume change was -0.68 (p < 0.01). Five children (two with temporal lobe epilepsy and two with complex partial seizures) had hippocampal volume loss and increased signal intensity on follow-up imaging, meeting the criteria for mesial temporal sclerosis.",
"To test the clinical usefulness and reliability of a new dual-echo turbo-spin-echo (TSE) sequence for rapid and regional hippocampal T2 relaxometry. Hippocampal T2 relaxation time (HRT) was determined by a TSE sequence on three to four consecutive coronal images in 16 control subjects and 12 patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy. HRT was related to neuropathology findings in hippocampal specimens including neuronal cell density (ND), results of visual analysis of MR images, clinical outcome after epilepsy surgery, and hippocampal volumetry. Rapid HRT differentiated patients from control subjects; all cases of hippocampal sclerosis (HS; n = 10) were correctly diagnosed. HRT showed a strong correlation with ND in CA1 (p < 0.02) and CA3 (p < 0.05). Diagnoses based on rapid relaxometry concurred fully with results of visual inspection. Mean HRT was prolonged ipsilaterally in all patients with excellent postoperative seizure outcome and bilaterally prolonged or normal in patients with poorer outcome. Rapid HRT was concordant with hippocampal volumetry in 10 of 12 patients. Regional HRT of control subjects revealed significantly higher values in the anterior than posterior hippocampus. In patients with unilateral HS, this gradient was absent. The gradient was also absent contralaterally to HS, although surgical outcome was excellent.",
"The role of modifiable and non-modifiable variables in Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD) as compared to Alzheimer's dDisease (AD) and to Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP) or Corticobasal Degeneration Syndrome (CBDS) has not been extensively evaluated. In particular, low education levels have been reported to be a risk factor for AD, but their contribution in FTD is yet not known. To investigate the role of education, other modifiable and non-modifiable factors in FTD as compared to AD, PSP and CBDS patients. One hundred and seventeen FTD patients, 400 AD, 55 PSP, and 55 CBDS entered the study. Demographic and clinical characteristics were carefully recorded. Age, gender, family history for dementia and Apolipoprotein E (APOE) genotype were considered as non-modifiable factors; education and comorbidities were included as modifiable variables. Regression analyses were applied in order to identify differences among groups. FTD differed from AD patients in terms of younger age, positive family history and gender status. In regard to APOE genotype, no differences between FTD and AD were found, but FTD showed higher prevalence of epsilon 4 allele compared to both CBDS and PSP patients (p < 0.05). When modifiable factors were considered, FTD were higher educated than AD patients (p < 0.001). Regression analysis identified younger age, positive family history, and education levels as independently associated variables to FTD diagnosis compared to AD (F = 21.27, R(2) = 24.1, p = 0.036).",
"Hippocampal sclerosis is a common finding in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE), and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) studies associate the reduction of hippocampal volume with the neuron loss seen on histologic evaluation. Astrogliosis and increased levels of chondroitin sulfate, a major component of brain extracellular matrix, are also seen in hippocampal sclerosis. Our aim was to evaluate the association between hippocampal volume and chondroitin sulfate, as well as neuronal and astroglial populations in the hippocampus of patients with TLE. Patients with drug-resistant TLE were subdivided, according to hippocampal volume measured by MRI, into two groups: hippocampal atrophy (HA) or normal volume (NV) cases. Hippocampi from TLE patients and age-matched controls were submitted to immunohistochemistry to evaluate neuronal population, astroglial population, and chondroitin sulfate expression with antibodies against neuron nuclei protein (NeuN), glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP), and chondroitin sulfate (CS-56) antigens, respectively. Both TLE groups were clinically similar. NV cases had higher hippocampal volume, both ipsilateral and contralateral, when compared to HA. Compared to controls, NV and HA patients had reduced neuron density, and increased GFAP and CS-56 immunopositive area. There was no statistical difference between NV and HA groups in neuron density or immunopositive areas for GFAP and CS-56. Hippocampal volume correlated positively with neuron density in CA1 and prosubiculum, and with immunopositive areas for CS-56 in CA1, and negatively with immunopositive area for GFAP in CA1. Multiple linear regression analysis indicated that both neuron density and CS-56 immunopositive area in CA1 were statistically significant predictors of hippocampal volume.",
"Temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) is associated with pathologic changes in hippocampal physiology and morphology. Our aim was to quantify volume reduction of the right and left hippocampus in patients with TLE and to investigate whether the degree of hippocampal atrophy is related to the side of seizure onset. The volume of the right and left hippocampus was estimated for 50 controls and 101 patients with TLE, by applying the unbiased Cavalieri method on MR images. Pairwise comparisons, within a multivariate analysis of variance and adjusted by using the Bonferroni correction, revealed that both right and left hippocampal volumes were, on average, significantly smaller in patients with right-sided seizure onset (R-patients) relative to those of controls (P < .001 and P = .04, respectively). Furthermore, left hippocampal volume was significantly smaller in patients with left-sided seizure onset (L-patients) compared with controls (P < .001), but the right-sided hippocampal volume was not significantly smaller (P = .71). Moreover, a correlation analysis revealed that the strong linear association between the right and left hippocampal volumes existing in the control population (r = 0.73) is partially lost in patients with TLE (r < or = 0.48), and this loss in correlation appears to be more pronounced in L-patients than in R-patients.",
"The anatomical origin of the enlargement of the cerebral ventricles in schizophrenia is obscure. In this study, the volumes of the hemispheres and lateral ventricles were assessed in MRI scans of 43 formalin-fixed brains (23 from patients and 19 comparison subjects) using a spline 'snake' segmentation method. A bilateral ventricular volume increase was found in schizophrenia. Whereas enlargement of the lateral ventricle (mean: 54%) as a whole was related to age of onset and was greater in females than in males, enlargement of the temporal horn (mean: 54%) was not strongly related to age of onset or sex. Lateral ventricle volume was negatively correlated with STG, fusiform and parahippocampal volume in schizophrenia. Hemispheric volumes were unchanged.",
"Various lines of evidence including epidemiological, genetic and foetal pathogenetic models suggest a compelling role for Interleukin-6 (IL-6) in the pathogenesis of schizophrenia. IL-6 mediated inflammatory response triggered by maternal infection or stress induces disruption of prenatal hippocampal development which might contribute towards psychopathology during adulthood. There is a substantial lack of knowledge on how genetic predisposition to elevated IL-6 expression effects hippocampal structure in schizophrenia patients. In this first-time study, we evaluated the relationship between functional polymorphism rs1800795 of IL-6 and hippocampal gray matter volume in antipsychotic-naïve schizophrenia patients in comparison with healthy controls. We examined antipsychotic-naïve schizophrenia patients [N = 28] in comparison with healthy controls [N = 37]group matched on age, sex and handedness. Using 3 Tesla - MRI, bilateral hippocampi were manually segmented by blinded raters with good inter-rater reliability using a valid method. Additionally, Voxel-based Morphometry (VBM) analysis was performed using hippocampal mask. The IL-6 level was measured in blood plasma using ELISA technique. SNP rs1800795 was genotyped using PCR and DNA sequencing. Psychotic symptoms were assessed using Scale for Assessment of Positive Symptoms and Scale for Assessment of Negative Symptoms. Schizophrenia patients had significantly deficient left and right hippocampal volumes after controlling for the potential confounding effects of age, sex and total brain volume. Plasma IL-6 levels were significantly higher in patients than controls. There was a significant diagnosis by rs1800795 genotype interaction involving both right and left hippocampal volumes. Interestingly, this effect was significant only in men but not in women.",
"To analyze the topography of the epileptogenic zone (EZ) and the etiologic substrate as risk factors for sleep-related focal epilepsy. Three hundred three patients (172 males and 131 females, mean age at surgery 25.6 +/- 13.1 years), who were seizure-free after resective surgery for drug-resistant focal epilepsy, were retrospectively reviewed. Statistical analysis was conducted to evaluate the risk of presenting sleep-related epilepsy (SRE) against topography of resection (assumed to correspond or to include the EZ) and results of histology. Thirty-nine patients (12.8%) presented with an SRE. At bivariate analysis, a higher frequency of SRE was associated with a frontal lobe EZ (p = 1.94 x 10(-9)) and Taylor's FCD (TFCD, p = 2.20 x 10(-16)), whereas architectural FCD (p = 0.00977), ganglioglioma (p = 0.02508), and mesial temporal sclerosis (p = 2.47 x 10(-5)) were correlated with a reduced frequency of SRE. Multivariate analysis demonstrated that the only variable significantly associated with SRE was the presence of a TFCD, which increased 14-fold the risk of SRE [p = 1.66 x 10(-10); risk ratio (RR) = 14.44].",
"The association between brain white matter lesions and cognitive impairment in old age is well established. However, little is known about this association in midlife. As this information will inform policy for early preventative healthcare initiatives, we investigated non-periventricular frontal, temporal, parietal and occipital lobe white matter hyperintensities (WMH) in relation to cognitive function in 428 (232 women) community-dwelling adults aged 44 to 48 years. Frontal white matter lesions were significantly associated with greater intraindividual RT variability in women, while temporal WMH were associated with face recognition deficits in men. Parietal and occipital lobe lesions were unrelated to cognitive performance. These findings did not differ when education and a range of health variables, including vascular risk factors, were taken into account.",
"To determine whether the occurrence of hippocampal formation (HF) volumetric asymmetry can reliably discriminate between complex partial seizures (CPSs) of a temporal lobe origin and CPSs of an extra-temporal lobe origin in a prospective study of patients with intractable CPSs (approximately 70% of patients have electrographic foci in the temporal lobe [HF volumetric asymmetry on magnetic resonance imaging scans has been shown to lateralize such foci reliably)]. We examined HF volumetrics on magnetic resonance imaging scans that were acquired with a 1-T magnetic resonance imaging scanner (Siemens Magnetom, Siemens Medical Systems, Iselin, NJ) by using magnetization-prepared rapid gradient echo three-dimensional sequences (producing a gapless series of high-contrast 1.25-mm images). These data were compared with ictal, interictal, invasive, and noninvasive videoelectroencephalographic monitoring data, functional imaging data, and outcome data to define each patient's type of epilepsy. Forty-one patients were recruited from a tertiary university comprehensive epilepsy program, and 22 control subjects were recruited from the neurologically normal university community. Among the control subjects, the difference in HF volumetrics (right-left HF volumetrics) was + 0.085 +/- 0.253 cm3. Of the 41 patients, 25 had temporal lobe epilepsy. When we set the upper limit of normal at the mean +/- 3 SDs, all patients beyond the upper limit had CPSs of a temporal lobe origin. Of the patients with temporal lobe epilepsy, only three fell within normal limits. No patient with CPSs of an extratemporal lobe origin fell beyond the upper limit.",
"Temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) is thought to be a network disease and structural changes using diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) have been shown. However, lateralized differences in the structural integrity of TLE, as well as changes in structural integrity with longer disease duration, have not been well defined. We examined the fractional anisotropy (FA) and mean diffusivity (MD) in the hippocampus, as well as its primary (cingulum and fornix) and remote (uncinate and external capsule) connections in both right and left TLE. Changes in diffusion measures over the disease course were examined by correlating FA and MD in the various structures with epilepsy duration. The potential for each measure of anisotropy and diffusivity as a marker of TLE laterality was investigated using random forest (RF) analysis. MD was increased in the bilateral hippocampus, cingulum, fornix and the right external capsule in both left and right TLE compared to controls. In addition, left TLE exhibited an increased MD in the ipsilateral uncinate fasciculus and bilateral external capsules. A decrease in FA was seen in the left cingulum in left TLE. RF analysis demonstrated that MD of the right hippocampus and FA of the left external capsule were important predictors of TLE laterality. An association of increased MD with epilepsy duration was seen in the left hippocampus in left TLE.",
"To identify independent risk factors for affective disorders in temporal lobe epilepsy. We studied 97 patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) exploring variables like age, gender, family history of epilepsy and psychiatric disorders, duration of epilepsy, control of seizures, presence of aura and initial precipitant insult, abuse of substances, neuroimaging and EEG features. Forty-one patients (42.3% of the total population) had affective disorders. A positive family history of psychiatric disorders (O.R.=3.8; p=0.003) and interictal EEG epileptiform discharges involving the left temporal lobe (O.R.=2.9; p=0.041) were significantly associated with an increased risk for an affective disorder. These associations remained significant after logistic regression, confirming the independent effects of the risk factors observed. Moreover, a binary logistic regression model obtained was able to correctly predict presence or absence of a life-time affective disorder in 71.1% of patients.",
"To evaluate the hypothesis that the entire hippocampus might be affected by susceptibility artifacts. Previous studies described susceptibility artifacts in the amygdala and the anterior hippocampus. We investigated 20 subjects with a verbal memory paradigm aiming at testing two different TEs (45 vs. 64 msec) at 1.5 T for hippocampal blood oxygenation level-dependent (BOLD) activity. T2* maps were calculated from the normalized mean echo-planar imaging (EPI) of the two echo times (TEs). Within the hippocampal region of interest (ROI), the amount of suprathreshold voxels was significantly higher at TE = 64 msec compared to TE = 45 msec. When corrected for multiple comparisons (family-wise error [FWE] in a small volume of interest, P < 0.05) we no longer found significant activations at TE = 45 msec, while a significant number of voxels remained after the small volume correction (P < 0.05, FWE) within the ROI at TE = 64 msec.",
"To determine whether Alzheimer's disease (AD) is associated with preferential atrophy of either the left or right hippocampus. We examined right-left asymmetry in hippocampal volume and atrophy rates in 32 subjects with probable AD and 50 age-matched controls. Hippocampi were measured on two serial volumetric MRI scans using a technique that minimizes laterality bias. We found a non-significant trend for right>left (R>L) asymmetry in controls at both time points (R>L: 1.7%; CI: -0.3-3.7%; p = 0.1). AD subjects showed a similar non-significant trend for R>L asymmetry at baseline (R>L: 1.8%; CI: -1.9-5.5%; p = 0.32), but not at repeat (p = 0.739). Change in R/L ratio between visits in AD patients was significant (p = 0.02). The AD group had significantly higher variance in these ratios than the controls at baseline (p = 0.02), but not repeat (p = 0.06). AD patients had higher atrophy rates than controls (p<0.001). Mean (CI) annualized atrophy rates for left and right hippocampi were 1.2% (0.5-1.8%) and 1.1% (0.5-1.8%) for the controls, and 4.6% (3.3-6.0%) and 6.3% (4.9-7.8%) for AD subjects. There was no significant asymmetry in atrophy rates in controls (p = 0.9), but borderline significantly higher atrophy rates in the right hippocampus of the AD group (p = 0.05) compared to the left. Presence of an APOEepsilon4 allele had no significant effect on the size, asymmetry or atrophy rates in AD (p>0.20).",
"The success of epilepsy surgery in temporal lobe epilepsy reaches a 64% rate of seizure freedom, based on a randomized control trial. Observational studies from epilepsy centers worldwide indicate seizure freedom rates up to 93% when the etiology is unilateral hippocampal sclerosis. Several risk factors are attributed to the recurrence of seizures following the surgical procedure. Nonetheless, whether race influences the outcome of temporal lobe surgery is unknown. The purpose of this study was to evaluate if race plays a role in outcome following surgery. Data were obtained from the discharge database of the University of Alabama at Birmingham video/EEG monitoring unit, between 1998 and 2003, as well as the clinical charts. Seizure recurrence was evaluated 1 year following surgery. The sample consisted of all patients with a primary diagnosis of mesial temporal sclerosis (MTS) who underwent anterior temporal lobectomy. Multiple logistic regression analysis was used to model the presence of seizure recurrence after anterior temporal lobectomy for MTS. Two sets of logistic regression models were estimated to generate odds ratios (ORs) for seizure recurrence after an anterior temporal lobectomy for African-Americans or other possible ethnic/racial group present relative to non-Hispanic Caucasians. The first model incorporated only ethnicity as the independent variable and generated unadjusted ORs for seizure recurrence following the surgical procedure. The second set included the independent variables: duration of epilepsy, history of febrile seizures, lateralization of epileptogenic focus, handedness, and age. Seventy patients underwent surgical treatment and all of them had pathologic confirmation of MTS. Follow-up information for six was not available. Analysis of the remaining 64 patients revealed that African-Americans were more likely than non-Hispanic Caucasians to have seizure recurrence after surgery (OR=2.1, 95% CI=0.6-8.0). After potential confounders (duration of epilepsy, history of febrile seizures, lateralization of epileptogenic focus, handedness, and age) were controlled, this finding did not change (OR=1.7, 95% CI=0.3-10.7).",
"Pharmacoresistance continues to be a major challenge in Temporal Lobe Epilepsies (TLE). A key to overcome pharmacoresistance is to identify subgroups among the TLE and disclose their specific molecular pathways. This will facilitate a tailored pharmacological treatment and improve outcome. There is growing evidence in favor of the theory that TLE with childhood febrile seizures (TLE-FS) may represent one distinctive subgroup among the TLE. We compared clinical features from 102 TLE-FS patients with 105 TLE patients without FS. We also conducted a logistic regression analysis to adjust for possible confounders caused by overrepresentation of patients with Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy with Hippocampal Sclerosis (MTLE-HS) in the TLE-FS group. MTLE-HS was overrepresented in patients with TLE-FS (p=0.043). Age at epilepsy onset was lower in patients with TLE-FS (p<0.001). TLE-FS patients had a higher frequency of first grade family members with FS (p=0.003, adjusted for MTLE-HS: p=0.002). They were more frequently plagued with simple partial seizures (p=0.015, adjusted: p=0.038), and especially with vertiginous symptoms (p=0.004 adjusted: p=0.006). They also had the higher frequency of autonomic symptoms (p=0.003; adjusted: p=0.012), and more generalized tonic-clonic seizures (0.034; adjusted p=0.038).",
"Imaging studies of epilepsy patients with comorbid affective disturbance demonstrate morphometric changes in limbic brain regions implicated in psychiatric disease. Genetic Absence Epilepsy Rats from Strasbourg (GAERS), specifically bred for their epilepsy phenotype, also exhibit elevated anxiety-like behaviors suggesting a common causality. Here we examined whether relevant cerebral morphological alterations exist in this rat strain using volumetric measurements and large deformation high dimensional mapping (HDM-LD), a tool recently validated to produce accurate three-dimensional surface representations of the hippocampus. Volumetric MRI and the Open Field test of anxiety were performed in adult female GAERS (n=12) and Non-Epileptic Controls (NEC; n=11). The volumes of selected brain regions, including cortex, hippocampus, amygdala, thalamus, hypothalamus and lateral ventricles, were measured using Region-Of-Interest analysis from the MRI data and total volumes compared between the two strains. GAERS had increased amygdala (right: p=0.003; left p<0.001), cortices (right: p=0.006; left p=0.012) and ventricular volumes (p=0.002) when compared with NEC rats. Further, HDM-LD showed GAERS to have hippocampal volume loss in two regions: the medial hippocampal surface immediately caudal to the hippocampal commissure, and the lateral hippocampal surface over the mid-portion of the septotemporal axis. GAERS exhibited increased anxiety in the Open Field compared with NEC rats: reduced distance traveled (p<0.001) and reduced time in the centre area (p=0.042).",
"Electrophysiologic hubs within the large-scale functional networks in mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (mTLE) with hippocampal sclerosis (HS) have not been investigated. We hypothesized that mTLE with HS has different resting-state network hubs in their large-scale functional networks compared to the hubs in healthy controls (HC). We also hypothesized that the hippocampus would be a functional hub in mTLE patients with HS. Resting-state functional networks, identified by using magnetoencephalography (MEG) signals in the theta, alpha, beta, and gamma frequency bands, were evaluated. Networks in 44 mTLE patients with HS (left mTLE = 22; right mTLE = 22) were compared with those in 46 age-matched HC. We investigated betweenness centrality at the source-level MEG network. The main network hubs were at the pole of the left superior temporal gyrus in the beta band, the pole of the left middle temporal gyrus in the beta and gamma bands, left hippocampus in the theta and alpha bands, and right posterior cingulate gyrus in all four frequency bands in mTLE patients; all of which were different from the main network hubs in HC. Only patients with left mTLE showed profound differences from HC at the left hippocampus in the alpha band.",
"Smaller hippocampal volumes relative to controls are among the most replicated neuroimaging findings in individuals with unipolar but not bipolar depression. Preserved hippocampal volumes in most studies of participants with bipolar disorder may reflect potential neuroprotective effects of lithium (Li). To investigate hippocampal volumes in patients with bipolar disorder while controlling for Li exposure, we performed a meta-analysis of neuroimaging studies that subdivided patients based on the presence or absence of current Li treatment. To achieve the best coverage of literature, we categorized studies based on whether all or a majority, or whether no or a minority of patients were treated with Li. Hippocampal volumes were compared by combining standardized differences between means (Cohen d) from individual studies using random-effects models. Overall, we analyzed data from 101 patients with bipolar disorder in the Li group, 245 patients in the non-Li group and 456 control participants from 16 studies. Both the left and right hippocampal volumes were significantly larger in the Li group than in controls (Cohen d = 0.53, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.18 to 0.88; Cohen d = 0.51, 95% CI 0.21 to 0.81, respectively) or the non-Li group (Cohen d = 0.93, 95% CI 0.56 to 1.31; Cohen d = 1.07, 95% CI 0.70 to 1.45, respectively), which had smaller left and right hippocampal volumes than the control group (Cohen d = -0.36, 95% CI -0.55 to -0.17; Cohen d = -0.38, 95% CI -0.63 to -0.13, respectively). There was no evidence of publication bias.",
"Twelve right-handed patients who had been operated on left-sided hippocampal sclerosis and 12 right-handed normal subjects were included and the synonym generation task was used for evaluation of language lateralization. Atypical language activations were frequently found in the patients compared to the controls. A total of 3 (25%) subjects in the controls showed atypical activations: 2 bilateral with right and 1 bilateral with left-sided activations. There were no clear right-sided Broca activations in the control group but almost 25% of the patients showed clear right-sided Broca activations. In the patients the incidence of atypical language activations was 91.6% (11 patients).",
"We investigated whether diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) could reveal early hippocampal damage and clinically relevant correlates of memory impairment in persons with clinically isolated syndrome (CIS) suggestive of multiple sclerosis (MS). A total of 37 persons with CIS, 32 with MS and 36 controls prospectively included from 2011 to 2014 were tested for cognitive performances and scanned with 3T-magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to assess volumetric and DTI changes within the hippocampus, whole brain volume and T2-lesion load. While there was no hippocampal atrophy in the CIS group, hippocampal fractional anisotropy (FA) was significantly decreased compared to controls. Decrease in hippocampal FA together with increased mean diffusivity (MD) was even more prominent in MS patients. In CIS, hippocampal MD was correlated with episodic verbal memory performance (r = -0.57, p = 0.0002 and odds ratio (OR) = 0.058, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 0.0057-0.59, p = 0.016 adjusted for age, gender, depression and T2-lesion load), but not with cognitive tasks unrelated to hippocampal functions. Hippocampal MD was the only variable discriminating memory-impaired from memory-preserved persons with CIS (area under the curve (AUC) = 0.77, sensitivity = 90.0%, specificity = 70.3%, positive predictive value (PPV) = 52.9%, negative predictive value (NPV) = 95.0%).",
"yes. This finding reflects the association between neocortical language and hippocampal memory regions in patients with left-sided epilepsy. Atypical language lateralization is advantageous for verbal memory performance, presumably a result of transfer of verbal memory function. In children with focal epilepsy, verbal memory performance provides a better idea of language lateralization than handedness and side of epilepsy and lesion.",
"yes. High level of complex mental activity across the lifespan was correlated with a reduced rate of hippocampal atrophy. This finding could not be explained by general differences in intracranial volume, larger hippocampi at baseline, presence of hypertensive disease, gender or low mood. Our results suggest that neuroprotection in medial temporal lobe may be one mechanism underlying the link between mental activity and lower rates of dementia observed in population-based studies. Additional studies are required to further explore this novel finding.",
"To evaluate white matter (WM) integrity of distinct groups of patients with antiepileptic drug (AED)-resistant localization-related epilepsies. We used diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) fiber-tractography and voxel-based morphometry (VBM) to investigate differences of WM micro- and macrostructural integrity in patients with different drug-resistant localization-related epilepsies: 17 with temporal lobe epilepsy with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) signs of hippocampal sclerosis (TLE-HS), 17 with TLE and normal MRI (TLE-NL), 14 with frontal lobe epilepsy and subtle MRI signs of focal cortical dysplasia (FLE-FCD), and 112 healthy controls. We performed fiber-tractography using a semiautomatic deterministic method to yield average fractional anisotropy (FA), axial (AD), and radial (RD) diffusivity ipsilateral and contralateral to the epileptogenic zone of the following tracts based on their functional and anatomic relevance: body of fornix (BoF), body of cingulum (BoC), inferior frontal occipital (IFO), and uncinate fasciculi (UF). In addition, we performed VBM of the WM maps to assess macrostructural integrity differences among groups. TLE-HS had ipsilateral and contralateral decreased FA and increased RD for all tracts. VBM showed WM alterations mainly in the ipsilateral parahippocampal region and contralateral superior temporal gyrus. FLE-FCD showed bilateral FA decreases only in the BoC and ipsilateral RD increases also in the BoC. VBM showed WM reduction mainly in the ipsilateral precuneus and posterior and anterior cingulum. No significant WM alterations were found in the TLE-NL in DTI or VBM analysis.",
"Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy related to hippocampal sclerosis (MTLE-HS) is the most common surgically remediable epileptic syndrome. Ablation of the cellular prion protein (PrP(c)) gene (PRNP) enhances neuronal excitability of the hippocampus in vitro and sensitivity to seizure in vivo, indicating that PrP(c) might be related to epilepsy. To evaluate the genetic contribution of PRNP to MTLE-HS. The PRNP coding sequence of DNA from peripheral blood cells of 100 consecutive patients with surgically treated MTLE-HS was compared to that from a group of healthy controls adjusted for sex, age, and ethnicity (n = 180). The presence of PRNP variant alleles was correlated with clinical and presurgical parameters as well as surgical outcome. A variant allele at position 171 (Asn-->Ser), absent in controls, was found in heterozygosis (Asn171Ser) in 23% of patients (p < 0.0001). The PRNP genotypes were not correlated with any clinical or presurgical data investigated. However, patients carrying the Asn171Ser variant had a five times higher chance of continuing to have seizures after temporal lobectomy (95% CI 1.65 to 17.33, p = 0.005) than those carrying the normal allele. At 18 months after surgery, 91.8% of patients with the normal allele at codon 171 were seizure free, in comparison to 68.2% of those carrying Asn171Ser (p = 0.005).",
"Cerebral white matter lesions (WMLs), a surrogate for cerebral small-vessel disease, have been shown to be associated with decreasing mobility, gait instability, and falls. The aim of this study was to investigate whether WMLs of the brain are associated with increased incidence of hospital admissions because of any trauma and hip-fractures in a cohort of patients with stroke. We included 383 consecutive patients aged 55 to 85 years with ischemic stroke admitted to the Helsinki University Central Hospital (The Stroke Aging Memory cohort) with a 12-year follow-up. National register data were reviewed for hip-fractures, other traumatic injuries, survival data, and causes of death. WMLs were rated using MRI and dichotomized as none to mild and moderate to severe. The data were analyzed using Kaplan-Meier plots (log-rank) and a complex Cox multivariable hazards models for multiple cases per subject to assess hazard ratios with their 95% confidence intervals. During the 12-year follow-up, there were more hip-fractures (13.5% versus 6.5%; log-rank, P=0.01) and more hospital admissions because of traumatic injury (22.2% versus 16.7%; log-rank, P=0.04) in the moderate-to-severe than in the none-to-mild WMLs group. In the complex samples, Cox multivariable model adjusting for age, sex, National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale, infarct size, and poststroke dementia, moderate-to-severe WMLs were associated with increased incidences of hospital admissions because of hip-fractures (hazard ratio, 3.98; 95% confidence interval, 1.55-10.21) and traumatic injuries including hip-fractures (hazard ratio, 1.72; 95% confidence interval, 1.03-2.87).",
"yes. EQD(2) to 40% of the bilateral hippocampi greater than 7.3 Gy is associated with long-term impairment in list-learning delayed recall after FSRT for benign or low-grade adult brain tumors. Given that modern intensity-modulated radiotherapy techniques can reduce the dose to the bilateral hippocampi below this dosimetric threshold, patients should be enrolled in ongoing prospective trials of hippocampal sparing during cranial irradiation to confirm these preliminary results.",
"Individuals with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome (22q11.2DS) have an elevated risk for schizophrenia, which increases with history of childhood anxiety. Altered hippocampal morphology is a common neuroanatomical feature of 22q11.2DS and idiopathic schizophrenia. Relating hippocampal structure in children with 22q11.2DS to anxiety and impaired cognitive ability could lead to hippocampus-based characterization of psychosis-proneness in this at-risk population. We measured hippocampal volume using a semiautomated approach on MRIs collected from typically developing children and children with 22q11.2DS. We then analyzed hippocampal morphology with Localized Components Analysis. We tested the modulating roles of diagnostic group, hippocampal volume, sex and age on local hippocampal shape components. Lastly, volume and shape components were tested as covariates of IQ and anxiety. We included 48 typically developing children and 69 children with 22q11.2DS in our study. Hippocampal volume was reduced bilaterally in children with 22q11.2DS, and these children showed greater variation in the shape of the anterior hippocampus than typically developing children. Children with 22q11.2DS had greater inward deformation of the anterior hippocampus than typically developing children. Greater inward deformation of the anterior hippocampus was associated with greater severity of anxiety, specifically fear of physical injury, within the 22q11.2DS group.",
"We systematically analyzed the video-recorded and patient-reported, as well as positive and negative ictal affective symptoms (IAS) in temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE). Our aim was to assess (1) frequency, (2) gender effect, (3) lateralizing significance, (4) localizing value, and (5) prognostic significance in epilepsy surgery of IAS in patients with video-registered seizures. We reviewed ictal video recordings of 184 patients (99 women, aged 16-63). All patients had surgery for intractable TLE with video-recorded complex partial seizures (CPS) due to temporal lobe lesions visualized by high-resolution magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Affective auras (AAs) were categorized into two groups: positive or negative. We registered AAs in 18% of patients: positive in 3%, negative in 15%. We saw ictal affective behavior (IAB) in 22% of patients; 10% had positive, whereas 14% had negative IAB. Two patients had both positive and negative IAB. AAs showed an association with IAB in case of fear expression versus fear auras (p = 0.018). IAB, especially negative IAB, occurred more often in women than in men. Patients with negative IAB were younger than others. We could not demonstrate an association between IAS and the localization, lateralization, or hemispheric dominance. Surgical outcome did not associate with IAS.",
"Hippocampus (HC) atrophy is a hallmark of early Alzheimer's disease (AD). Atrophy rates can be measured by high-resolution structural MRI. Longitudinal studies have previously shown sex differences in the progression of functional and cognitive deficits and rates of brain atrophy in early AD dementia. It is important to corroborate these findings on independent datasets. To study temporal rates of HC atrophy over a one-year period in probable AD patients and cognitively normal (CN) subjects by longitudinal MRI scans obtained from the Minimal Interval Resonance Imaging in AD (MIRIAD) database. We used a novel algorithm to compute an index of hippocampal (volumetric) integrity (HI) at baseline and one-year follow-up in 43 mild-moderate probable AD patients and 22 CN subjects in MIRIAD. The diagnostic power of longitudinal HI measurement was assessed using a support vector machines (SVM) classifier. The HI was significantly reduced in the AD group (p < 10(-20)). In addition, the annualized percentage rate of reduction in HI was significantly greater in the AD group (p < 10(-13)). Within the AD group, the annual reduction of HI in women was significantly greater than in men (p = 0.008). The accuracy of SVM classification between AD and CN subjects was estimated to be 97% by 10-fold cross-validation.",
"To investigate the association of an indicator of hippocampal function with severity of depression symptoms in temporal lobe epilepsy. We evaluated 31 patients with video/EEG-confirmed temporal lobe epilepsy using creatine/N-acetylaspartate ratio maps derived from a previously validated (1)H magnetic resonance spectroscopic imaging ((1)H-MRSI) technique at 4.1 T. We also assessed depression symptoms, epilepsy-related factors, and self-perceived social and vocational disability. We used conservative nonparametric bivariate procedures to determine the correlation of severity of depression symptoms with imaging and clinical variables. The extent of hippocampal (1)H-MRSI abnormalities correlated with severity of depression (Spearman rho = 0.65, p value < 0.001), but other clinical factors did not.",
"Patients with epilepsy may have additional psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES). It has been suggested that PNES are more common if patients with epilepsy are female, develop epilepsy later in life and have right-sided brain lesions. We examine whether these or other physical factors affect the risk of PNES in patients with epilepsy in a controlled study. Ninety consecutive patients with PNES and concurrent epilepsy (PNES+E group) and 90 consecutive patients with epilepsy alone (epilepsy group) were compared with regard to the variables sex, age at onset of epilepsy, epilepsy type (focal/generalised), location and lateralisation of epileptogenic zone, aetiology of epilepsy, interictal epileptiform potentials, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) abnormalities, neuropsychological (NPS) deficits and intelligence quotient (IQ). Female sex (P<0.001), abnormal visual memory (P=0.012), global NPS impairment (P=0.029), and low IQ category (P=0.005) were associated with a higher risk of PNES. Other variables did not differ between the groups.",
"yes. The HS-like distribution of atrophy and the restriction of HA to the ipsilateral hippocampus in HYP patients are consistent with focal hippocampal onsets, and suggest a mechanism utilizing intrahippocampal circuitry. In contrast, the bilateral distribution of nonspecific atrophy in the LVF group may reflect mechanisms involving both hippocampal and extrahippocampal networks.",
"When considered alone, measures of HV are not good markers to differentiate AD from bvFTD. Hippocampal sclerosis associated with FTD may explain the high degree of overlap in nHV between both groups.",
"Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) has been shown to result in medical complications on several organ systems including the kidneys, eyes, cardiovascular system, and most recently described the brain, including the hippocampus. There is also evidence that females are disproportionately affected by these medical complications. Brain volume reductions have also been associated with chronic low-grade inflammation and dyslipidaemia. This study investigated the relationships among T2DM, gender, inflammation, dyslipidaemia, and hippocampal volumes. Participant groups consisted of 40 obese adults with T2DM and 47 lean adults, group-matched on age, gender, race, and education. Each participant underwent medical examination including a standard panel of blood tests, a magnetic resonance imaging, and cognitive evaluation. We show that there is a gender difference in the association of T2DM and hippocampal volumes: diabetic women are most affected despite having better glucose control than their male counterparts. Although females with T2DM had disproportionately lower high density lipoprotein as well as better haemoglobin A1c, neither of these results explained why females with T2DM had the smallest hippocampal volumes.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the potential role of an acute adverse stress as \"trigger\" for the onset of epilepsy. Among 4618 consecutive patients, twenty-two reported a major life event within three months before the onset of epilepsy. All patients had focal epilepsy except one with idiopathic generalized epilepsy. The temporal lobe was involved in 90% of patients with focal epilepsy. More precisely, 13 patients (62% of patients with focal epilepsy) had medial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE), two had lateral temporal lobe epilepsy, four had temporoparietooccipital junction epilepsy, and two patients had central lobe epilepsy. The mean age and the median age at onset of epilepsy for patients with MTLE were both 38 years (range: 9.5-65 years). Ten patients had right and three had left MTLE. Among patients with focal epilepsy, MRI was abnormal in 7 (33%) with hippocampal sclerosis in four, periventricular nodular heterotopia in two, and complex cortical dysgenesis in one. The mean age at onset of epilepsy for patients with brain lesions was 26 years (range: 9.5-49). Twelve patients (54%) reported a death as a triggering factor for the onset of their epilepsy. Seven patients (32%) reported that a relationship of trust had been broken. Three patients (14%) had been subjects of violence. No patient reported sexual abuse as a triggering factor.",
"The imaging determinants of hippocampal sclerosis are not prevalent in nonepileptic patients. Incidental identification of hippocampal sclerosis on MR images is uncommon and significant, and should prompt further clinical investigation to exclude a seizure disorder.",
"The 'subdural space' is an artefact of inner dural border layer disruption: it is not anatomical but always pathological. A male bias has long been accepted for chronic subdural haematomas (CSDH), and increased male frequencies of trauma and/or alcohol abuse are often cited as likely explanations: however, no study has validated this. We investigated to see which risk factors accounted for the male bias with CSDH. Retrospective review of prospectively collected data. A male bias (M:F 97:58) for CSDH was confirmed in n=155 patients. The largest risk factor for CSDH was cerebral atrophy (M:F 94% vs. 91%): whilst a male bias prevailed in mild-moderate cases (M:F 58% vs. 41%), a female bias prevailed for severe atrophy (F:M 50% vs. 36%) (χ(2)=3.88, P=0.14). Risk factors for atrophy also demonstrated a female bias, some approached statistical significance: atrial fibrillation (P=0.05), stroke/TIA (P=0.06) and diabetes mellitus (P=0.07). There was also a trend for older age in females (F:M 72±13 years vs. 68±15 years, P=0.09). The third largest risk factor, after atrophy and trauma (i.e. anti-coagulant and anti-platelet use) was statistically significantly biased towards females (F:M 50% vs. 33%, P=0.04). No risk factor accounted for the established male bias with CSDH. In particular, a history of trauma (head injury or fall [M:F 50% vs. 57%, P=0.37]), and alcohol abuse (M:F 17% vs. 16%, P=0.89) was remarkably similar between genders.",
"In localization-related epilepsy, there is a significant association of left-handedness with left hemispheric lateralization of epileptiform EEG patterns and neuropsychological deficits. These findings do not clearly reflect a greater left than right cerebral hemispheric vulnerability to epileptogenesis, except possibly in left-handers.",
"We investigated the prognostic value of the type of epilepsies and epileptic syndromes for seizure recurrence. In patients with partial epilepsy, we focused on the prognostic value of any structural brain abnormality and of the location of the epileptogenic region. A total of 2,200 adult outpatients were included in a hospital-based observational survey, with a follow-up of 1 to 7 years. Twenty-two percent of the patients exhibited generalized epilepsy, 62% partial epilepsy, and 16% undetermined epilepsy. Seizure control (>1 year without seizure) was achieved in 82% of patients who had idiopathic generalized epilepsy, 35% of those with symptomatic partial epilepsy, 45% of those with cryptogenic partial epilepsy, and 11% of those with partial epilepsy associated with hippocampal sclerosis (HS). Temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) was the most refractory partial epilepsy, with only 20% of such patients remaining seizure free, compared with 36% of extra-TLE patients. In partial epilepsy, HS, cerebral dysgenesis, and dual pathology (HS and another lesion) were associated with a low rate of seizure-free patients (11%, 24%, and 3%, respectively). No significant difference in seizure control was found between patients with extra-TLE and those with TLE and no HS.",
"Patients with cerebral cavernomas have an estimated risk of the development of epilepsy of 1.5% to 2.4% per patient-year. To clarify the predictive value of different risk factors for epilepsy in patients with supratentorial cavernomas. We retrospectively analyzed data of 109 patients with supratentorial cavernomas. The correlation of epilepsy with the variables of single or multiple cavernomas, sex, age, side, cortical involvement, mesiotemporal archicortical vs neocortical involvement, lobar location of neocortical cavernomas, the presence of a hemosiderin rim and of edema, and the maximal diameters of cavernoma, hemosiderin rim, and edema, if present, were calculated using univariate and multivariate penalized likelihood logistic regression models. Cortical involvement was the most relevant risk factor for epilepsy (P < .0001). No patient with a subcortical cavernoma presented with epilepsy. Epilepsy was more common in patients with mesiotemporal archicortical cavernomas than in patients with neocortical cavernomas (P = .02), whereas the lobar location of neocortical cavernomas was not significantly associated with the risk of the development of epilepsy. In the multivariate analysis, a greater diameter of the cavernoma, the absence of edema, and localization in the left hemisphere were also associated with the occurrence of epilepsy (P < .05).",
"To assess the prognostic implications of both the absolute spike frequency over the affected temporal lobe and the relative spike distribution between the two temporal lobes (i.e., uni- vs bitemporal spike distribution) for postoperative seizure control in a series of consecutive patients with medically refractory mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) and MRI evidence of unilateral hippocampal atrophy (HA). In this study we included 55 patients (26 women; 29 men) with medically refractory MTLE and unilateral HA on high resolution MRI who underwent a comprehensive noninvasive presurgical evaluation including prolonged video-EEG monitoring. Patients were classified both according to absolute interictal spike frequency and to relative spike distribution between the two temporal lobes as follows: first, we distinguished between patients with frequent spikes (>/=60 spikes/hour over the affected temporal lobe) and patients with nonfrequent spikes (<60 spikes/hour over the affected temporal lobe). Second, we categorized patients in a unitemporal group (>/=90% of spikes over the affected temporal lobe) and a bitemporal group (<90% of spikes over the affected temporal lobe). In all patients first-time epilepsy surgery was performed with a minimum postoperative follow-up of 1 year. One year following surgery we found that only 4 of 14 patients (28.6%) in the frequent spikes group remained completely seizure free since surgery compared to 33 of 41 patients (80.5%) in the nonfrequent spikes group (p = 0.001). Relative spike distribution did not show any significant implication for postoperative outcome.",
"We found a strong concordance between EEG and MRIVol lateralization in patients with TLE. Unilateral hippocampal atrophy predicted ipsilateral interictal epileptiform abnormalities and ipsilateral seizure onsets with no false lateralization. Previous studies in addition to the present series support that a concordant outpatient EEG evaluation in patients with TLE and unilateral hippocampal atrophy would obviate the need for inpatient EEG monitoring.",
"Fibromyalgia patients frequently report cognitive abnormalities. As the hippocampus plays an important role in learning and memory, we determined whether individuals with fibromyalgia had smaller hippocampal volume compared with healthy control participants. T1-weighted structural magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans were acquired from 40 female participants with fibromyalgia and 22 female healthy controls. The volume of the hippocampus was estimated using the software FreeSurfer. An analysis of covariance model controlling for potentially confounding factors of age, whole brain size, MRI signal quality, and Beck Depression Inventory scores were used to determine significant group differences. Fibromyalgia participants had significantly smaller hippocampi in both left (F[1,56]=4.55, P=0.037, η (2) p=0.08) and right hemispheres (F[1,56]=5.89, P=0.019, η (2) p=0.10). No significant effect of depression was observed in either left or right hemisphere hippocampal volume (P=0.813 and P=0.811, respectively).",
"yes. The extent of hippocampal dysfunction is associated with depression symptoms in temporal lobe epilepsy and may be a more important factor than seizure frequency or degree of disability.",
"yes. Hippocampal abnormalities are seen in similar proportions with both acquired and developmental extra-hippocampal pathologies, suggesting that these abnormalities are the result of seizures from the focus that is remote from the hippocampus. In addition, children who have their initial seizure at an early age are less likely to develop seizure-induced hippocampal injury.",
"Limbic encephalitis is an autoimmune-mediated disease leading to temporal lobe epilepsy, mnestic deficits, and affective disturbances. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) usually shows signal and volume changes of the temporomesial structures. However, these abnormalities may be subtle, thereby hampering the diagnosis by conventional visual assessment. In the present study we evaluated the diagnostic value of a fully automated MRI postprocessing technique in limbic encephalitis and hippocampal sclerosis. The MRI postprocessing was based largely on a recently described method allowing for an observer-independent quantification of the fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) signal intensities of amygdala and hippocampus. A 95% confidence region was calculated from the FLAIR intensities of 100 healthy controls. We applied this analysis to the MRI data of 39 patients with antibody-associated limbic encephalitis and 63 patients with hippocampal sclerosis. Moreover, the results were compared to those of visual assessment by an experienced neuroradiologist. The method detected limbic encephalitis and hippocampal sclerosis with a high sensitivity of 85% and 95%, respectively. The detection rate of the automated approach in limbic encephalitis was significantly superior to visual analysis (85% vs. 51%; p = 0.001), whereas no statistically significant difference for the detection rate in hippocampal sclerosis was found. Patients with limbic encephalitis had significantly higher absolute intensity values of the amygdala and a significantly higher percentage fell outside of the amygdalar confidence region compared to those with hippocampal sclerosis (79% vs. 27%; p < 0.001), whereas we found opposite results in the hippocampal analysis (38% vs. 95%; p < 0.001).",
"Normal aging involves a decline in cognitive function that has been shown to correlate with volumetric change in the hippocampus, and with genetic variability in the APOE-gene. In the present study we utilize 3D MR imaging, genetic analysis and assessment of verbal memory function to investigate relationships between these factors in a sample of 170 healthy volunteers (age range 46-77 years). Brain morphometric analysis was performed with the automated segmentation work-flow implemented in FreeSurfer. Genetic analysis of the APOE genotype was determined with polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on DNA from whole-blood. All individuals were subjected to extensive neuropsychological testing, including the California Verbal Learning Test-II (CVLT). To obtain robust and easily interpretable relationships between explanatory variables and verbal memory function we applied the recent method of conditional inference trees in addition to scatterplot matrices and simple pairwise linear least-squares regression analysis. APOE genotype had no significant impact on the CVLT results (scores on long delay free recall, CVLT-LD) or the ICV-normalized hippocampal volumes. Hippocampal volumes were found to decrease with age and a right-larger-than-left hippocampal asymmetry was also found. These findings are in accordance with previous studies. CVLT-LD score was shown to correlate with hippocampal volume. Multivariate conditional inference analysis showed that gender and left hippocampal volume largely dominated predictive values for CVLT-LD scores in our sample. Left hippocampal volume dominated predictive values for females but not for males. APOE genotype did not alter the model significantly, and age was only partly influencing the results.",
"The purpose of this study is to relate hippocampal volume and FLAIR signal intensity to Wyler grading of hippocampal sclerosis (HS). Of 100 consecutive patients with temporal lobe epilepsy and HS as histopathological diagnosis, 32 had high-resolution 3 Tesla MRI and anatomically well-preserved hippocampi following amygdalo-hippocampectomy. Hippocampal volume on 3D T1-weighted gradient echo and signal intensity on coronal FLAIR sequences were determined using FreeSurfer and SPM tools and related to Wyler grading. Seizure outcome was determined after 1 year. Histopathology showed four Wyler II, 19 Wyler III, and 9 Wyler IV HS. Hippocampal volumes were 3.08 ml for Wyler II (Wyler II/contralateral side: p > 0.05), 2.19 ml for Wyler III (p < 0.01), 2.62 ml for Wyler IV (p = 0.01), and 3.08 ml for the contralateral side. Normalized FLAIR signals were 1,354 (p = 0.0004), 1,408 (p < 0.0001), 1,371 (p < 0.04), and 1,296, respectively. Wyler II hippocampi were visually normal. Two of four (50%) Wyler II, 16/19 (84%) Wyler III, and 6/9 (66%) Wyler IV patients achieved Engel I outcome.",
"no. It is apparent that progressive hippocampal damage can occur after CSE of any etiology and is not limited to PFS. Repeated seizures may play an important role, but further follow-up is needed to determine any other risk factors and proportion of children showing initial volume loss progress to clinical MTS and temporal lobe epilepsy.",
"To determine if there is evidence that the left cerebral hemisphere is more prone to epileptogenesis than the right hemisphere. We examined 532 patients with localization-related epilepsy, as documented by long-term EEG-video monitor studies. We identified those with interictal epileptiform patterns on EEG confined to one hemisphere, those with clinical seizures that arose only from one side, and individuals with neuropsychological deficits lateralizing more to one cerebral hemisphere than the other. These data were then related to the handedness of the subjects. For left-handed patients, interictal discharges were significantly more likely to be confined to the left side, seizures more frequently arose from only the left hemisphere, and neuropsychological deficits lateralized more often to the left brain. In contrast, for right-handed subjects, there were no significant differences in unilateral localization of either interictal discharges or of seizure onsets, nor did neuropsychological deficits lateralize more often to one side or the other. Although, as a group, left-handers had an earlier age of onset of epilepsy than right-handers, the lateralizing EEG and neuropsychological patterns seen in left-handers were not related to age of onset of epilepsy, febrile seizures, family history of either epilepsy or left-handedness, or other risk factors.",
"In patients with seizure disorders, hippocampal T2 relaxometry is not different in adult men and women and in the right and left hemispheres.",
"Medically intractable temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) due to hippocampal sclerosis (HS), with or without cortical dysplasia (CD), is associated with atrophy of the hippocampal formation and regional fluorodeoxyglucose positron-emission tomography (FDG-PET) hypometabolism. The relation between areas of functional and structural abnormalities is not well understood. We investigate the relation between FDG-PET metabolism and temporal lobe (TL) and hippocampal atrophy in patients with histologically proven isolated HS and HS associated with CD. Twenty-three patients underwent en bloc resection of the mesial and anterolateral neocortical structures. Ten patients were diagnosed with isolated HS; 13 patients had associated microscopic CD. Temporal lobe volumes (TLVs) and hippocampal volumes were measured. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and PET were co-registered, and regions of interest (ROIs) determined as gray matter of the mesial, lateral, and anterior temporal lobe. All patients (HS with or without CD) had significant ipsilateral PET hypometabolism in all three regions studied (p < 0.0001). In patients with isolated HS, the most prominent hypometabolism was in the anterior and mesial temporal lobe, whereas in dual pathology, it was in the lateral temporal lobe. TLVs and hippocampal volumes were significantly smaller on the epileptogenic side (p < 0.05). The PET asymmetries ipsilateral/contralateral to the epileptogenic zone and TLV asymmetries correlated significantly for the anterior and lateral temporal lobes (p < 0.05) in the HS+CD group, but not in the isolated HS group. Mesial temporal hypometabolism was not significantly different between the two groups.",
"no. These two cases demonstrate histologically that, even in long-standing epilepsy, malformations of the hippocampus do not necessarily develop into hippocampal sclerosis.",
"To correlate hippocampal volumes obtained from brain structural imaging with histopathological patterns of hippocampal sclerosis (HS), in order to predict surgical outcome. Patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) with HS were selected. Clinical data were assessed pre-operatively and surgical outcome in the first year post surgery. One block of mid hippocampal body was selected for HS classification according to ILAE criteria. NeuN-immunoreactive cell bodies were counted within hippocampal subfields, in four randomly visual fields, and cell densities were transformed into z-score values. FreeSurfer processing of 1.5T brain structural images was used for subcortical and cortical volumetric estimation of the ipsilateral hippocampus. Univariate analysis of variance and Pearson's correlation test were applied for statistical analyses. Sixty-two cases (31 female, 32 right HS) were included. ILAE type 1 HS was identified in 48 patients, type 2 in eight, type 3 in two, and four had no-HS. Better results regarding seizure control, i.e. ILAE 1, were achieved by patients with type 1 HS (58.3%). Patients with types 1 and 2 had smaller hippocampal volumes compared to those with no-HS (p<0.001 and p=0.004, respectively). Positive correlation was encountered between hippocampal volumes and CA1, CA3, CA4, and total estimated neuronal densities. CA2 was the only sector which did not correlate its neuronal density with hippocampal volume (p=0.390).",
"To assess the practicability and reliability of a five-dimensional patient-oriented epilepsy classification and to compare it with the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) classification of epilepsy and epileptic syndromes. The dimensions consist of the epileptogenic zone, semiologic seizure type(s), etiology, related medical conditions, and seizure frequency. The 185 epilepsy patients (94 adults, 91 children, aged 18 years or younger) were randomly selected from the database of a tertiary epilepsy center and the general neurological department of a metropolitan hospital (28 adults). The charts were reviewed independently by two investigators and classified according to both the ILAE and the patient-oriented classification. Interrater reliability was assessed, and a final consensus among all investigators was established. Only four (4%) adults and 19 (21%) children were diagnosed with a specific epilepsy syndrome of the ILAE classification. All other patients were in unspecific categories. The patient-oriented classification revealed that 64 adults and 56 children had focal epilepsy. In an additional 34 adults and 45 children, the epileptogenic zone could be localized to a certain brain region, and in 14 adults and five children, the epileptogenic zone could be lateralized. Fourteen adults and 21 children had generalized epilepsy. In 16 adults and 14 children, it remained unclear whether the epilepsy was focal or generalized. Generalized simple motor seizures were found in 66 adults and 52 children, representing the most frequent seizure type. Etiology could be determined in 40 adults and 45 children. Hippocampal sclerosis was the most frequent etiology in adults (10%), and cortical dysplasia (9%), in children. Seven adults and 31 children had at least daily seizures. Seventeen adults and 26 children had rare or no seizures at their last documented contact. The most frequent related medical conditions were psychiatric disorders and mental retardation. Interrater agreement was high (kappa values of 0.8 to 0.9) for both the patient-oriented and the ILAE classification.",
"yes. A history of simple FS in childhood can be associated with hippocampal abnormalities in adults. These abnormalities are probably more pronounced in men. Simple FS may not be as a benign event as previously thought. Our findings suggest that hippocampal abnormalities associated with FS are not necessarily epileptogenic.",
"yes. Aggregation of VRFs is associated with reduced hippocampal and entorhinal cortex volume in apparently healthy elderly men, but not in women. This implies that in men, the medial temporal lobe is vulnerable to cardiovascular risk factors.",
"Patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) with hippocampal sclerosis (HS) have diffuse subtle gray matter (GM) atrophy detectable by MRI quantification analyses. However, it is not clear whether the etiology and seizure frequency are associated with this atrophy. We aimed to evaluate the occurrence of GM atrophy and the influence of seizure frequency in patients with TLE and either normal MRI (TLE-NL) or MRI signs of HS (TLE-HS). We evaluated a group of 172 consecutive patients with unilateral TLE-HS or TLE-NL as defined by hippocampal volumetry and signal quantification (122 TLE-HS and 50 TLE-NL) plus a group of 82 healthy individuals. Voxel-based morphometry was performed with VBM8/SPM8 in 3T MRIs. Patients with up to three complex partial seizures and no generalized tonic-clonic seizures in the previous year were considered to have infrequent seizures. Those who did not fulfill these criteria were considered to have frequent seizures. Patients with TLE-HS had more pronounced GM atrophy, including the ipsilateral mesial temporal structures, temporal lobe, bilateral thalami and pre/post-central gyri. Patients with TLE-NL had more subtle GM atrophy, including the ipsilateral orbitofrontal cortex, bilateral thalami and pre/post-central gyri. Both TLE-HS and TLE-NL showed increased GM volume in the contralateral pons. TLE-HS patients with frequent seizures had more pronounced GM atrophy in extra-temporal regions than TLE-HS with infrequent seizures. Patients with TLE-NL and infrequent seizures had no detectable GM atrophy. In both TLE-HS and TLE-NL, the duration of epilepsy correlated with GM atrophy in extra-hippocampal regions.",
"To analyze clinical, electrophysiologic, and neuroradiologic characteristics of a group of patients with nonlesional intractable temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) and rare or absent interictal epileptiform abnormalities (IEA). Between 1990 and 2000, 31 patients (11 men; mean +/- SD age 34.3 +/- 11.7 years) with nonlesional intractable TLE were consecutively selected on the basis of the absence or paucity of IEA (<1/h) on serial scalp EEG recording; these were defined as \"oligospikers.\" The clinical and laboratory characteristics of oligospikers were compared with those of a group of 27 age-matched control subjects (10 men; mean +/- SD age 38.5 +/- 11 years), randomly selected from a pool of patients with nonlesional TLE with frequent IEA. Oligospikers showed a later age at seizure onset (mean +/- SD 19.1 +/- 14.4 versus 10.2 +/- 7.4 years; p = 0.004), lower monthly frequency of complex partial seizures (median 6 versus 12; p = 0.035), lower incidence of secondarily generalized tonic-clonic seizures (10 versus 81%; p < 0.001), and no status epilepticus (0 versus 22%) than control subjects. Also, hippocampal atrophy (HA) was less commonly found in oligospikers (55 versus 96%; p = 0.001). However, there were no differences between the two groups in the frequency of family history of epilepsy, risk factors, febrile convulsions, and type of medication. Twenty-three (74%) oligospikers and 25 (93%) control patients underwent either a selective amygdalohippocampectomy or corticoamygdalohippocampectomy. Excellent surgical outcome (Engel's Class Ia) was found in 14 of 23 (61%) oligospikers and 17 of 25 (67%) control patients.",
"Temporal and extratemporal white matter abnormalities have been identified frequently in patients with refractory mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (rMTLE). However, the identification of potential water diffusion abnormalities in patients with drug-responsive, benign MTLE (bMTLE) is still missing. The aim of this study was to identify markers of refractoriness in MTLE. The study group included 48 patients with bMTLE (mean age 42.8 + 13.5 years), 38 with rMTLE (mean age 41.7 + 14.1 years) and 54 healthy volunteers. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) was performed to measure mean diffusivity (MD) and fractional anisotropy (FA) in a regions-of-interest analysis comprising hippocampi and temporal lobe gray and white matter regions. The presence of hippocampal sclerosis (Hs) was assessed using automated magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) evaluation. For statistics we used chi-square test; two-tailed, two-sample t-test; and stratified linear regression. The significant demographic differences between the two patient groups were sex (p = 0.003), duration of epilepsy (p = 0.003) and complex febrile convulsions (p = 0.0001). In rMTLE, temporal white matter MD was higher and FA lower, as compared to bMTLE. The analysis of diagnostic accuracy (area under the receiver operator characteristic [ROC] curve [AUC]) showed that FA had an AUC for discriminating patients affected from those unaffected by refractory MTLE of 74.0% (p < 0.001), a value that was higher than that of temporal MD (64.0%), hippocampus volume (65.0%), and Hs (66.0%).",
"Qualitatively, FLAIR MR imaging is sensitive to the detection of hippocampal sclerosis (HS). Quantitative analysis of T2 maps provides a useful objective measure and increased sensitivity over visual inspection of T2-weighted scans. We aimed to determine whether quantification of normalised FLAIR is as sensitive as T2 mapping in detection of HS. Dual echo T2 and FLAIR MR images were retrospectively analysed in 27 patients with histologically confirmed HS and increased T2 signal in ipsilateral hippocampus and 14 healthy controls. Regions of interest were manually segmented in all hippocampi aiming to avoid inclusion of CSF. Hippocampal T2 values and measures of normalised FLAIR Signal Intensity (nFSI) were compared in healthy and sclerotic hippocampi. HS was identified on T2 values with 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity. HS was identified on nFSI measures with 60% sensitivity and 93% specificity.",
"yes. We conclude that, while postnatal MS stress increases anxiety in both genders, this early life stressor results in persisting vulnerability to limbic epileptogenesis only in females. This has implications for human MTLE and its psychiatric comorbidities, suggesting a common causation model and the involvement of gender-specific factors such as sex hormones.",
"To clarify age-related structural changes specific to hippocampal volume by hierarchizing according to age, gender, and menopausal status. Many studies report the neuroprotective effects of estrogen and age-related brain volume changes; however, there are no studies regarding age-related change specific to hippocampal volume in terms of age, gender, and menopausal status. T1-weighted MR images were obtained in 412 healthy adults divided into eight groups according to age and gender, to analyze brain volume change focusing on hippocampal volume. Voxel-based morphometry (VBM) revealed significantly smaller gray matter volume in the hippocampus bilaterally in females aged in their fifties (51 of 59 females were at menopause) compared with females in their forties (3 of 46 females were at menopause). No significant difference was found, however, between female groups in their fifties versus sixties, or sixties versus seventies; or between male groups in their forties versus fifties, fifties versus sixties, or sixties versus seventies. In addition, VBM revealed significant hippocampal volume reduction bilaterally in all postmenopausal women compared with all premenopausal women.",
"yes. Evidence of disrupted white matter architecture in the hippocampus and its primary and remote connections were demonstrated in TLE. While changes in the hippocampus and cingulum were more prominent in right TLE, remote changes were more prominent in left TLE. MD of the right hippocampus and FA of the left external capsule were found to be the strongest structural predictors of TLE laterality. Changes associated with duration of epilepsy indicated that changes in structural integrity may be progressive over the disease course. This study illustrates the potential of structural diffusion tensor imaging in elucidating pathophysiology, enhancing diagnosis and assisting prognostication.",
"yes. In 3T MRI visually inspected by experts, quantification of hippocampal volume and signal can increase the detection of hippocampal sclerosis in 28% of patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy.",
"Previous studies have shown that interictal epileptiform discharges favor the left hemisphere in adults but the right side in children up until age 5. This may be due to sex-influenced asymmetric brain maturation. To clarify this relationship, the authors analyzed age at epilepsy onset by sex and by lateralization of epileptiform activity. An adult epilepsy center long-term monitoring database was used to define patients with exclusively unilateral epileptiform findings. Three groups were studied: any epileptiform activity (n = 404), ictal activity (n = 287), and interictal activity (n = 265). The second and third groups were drawn from the first group and the second and third groups overlapped with each other. Side of lateralized finding and sex were analyzed via factorial two-way analysis of variance with the outcome variable being age at epilepsy onset. Comparison analysis included patients with generalized epilepsy (n = 114), nonepileptic seizures (NES, n = 232), and surgical mesial temporal sclerosis (MTS, n = 116). Patients with unilateral epileptiform activity displayed bimodal epilepsy onset ages with infant and adolescent peaks. For patients with a right-sided focus, epilepsy onset was earlier in men (14.4 years) than women (20.7 years). In contrast, among patients with a left-sided focus, epilepsy began earlier in women (18.2 years) than men (19.9 years, p < 0.01). Parallel results were found in unilateral ictal (p < 0.01) and unilateral interictal activity (p = 0.01). Patients with surgical MTS, NES, or generalized seizure showed no similar patterns.",
"yes. ALL occurs in one-fifth of patients with left MTLE-HS. ALL is more frequent in those with structural or functional extrahippocampal involvement and early onset of epilepsy interrupting the development of normal language networks. Because ALL is uncommon in those with damage/dysfunction restricted to the hippocampus, the hippocampus itself may have only a limited role in determining language lateralization.",
"Ipsilateral anterior temporal changes identical to those observed in adult cases are seen on the MR images of young children with hippocampal sclerosis, with a similar prevalence, and are associated with either epilepsy onset or seizure-related cerebral insult before the age of 2 years. We suggest that the loss of gray-white matter definition may represent a persistent immature appearance, including an abnormality of myelin or myelination, possibly a result of seizures occurring during maturation of the temporal pole.",
"To examine the degree of hippocampal atrophy in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy and proved hippocampal sclerosis to determine whether or not patients with febrile seizures have more severe hippocampal atrophy. To determine whether or not there is a relation between age of seizure onset, duration of temporal lobe epilepsy, or seizure frequency, and severity of hippocampal atrophy. Hippocampal volumes were measured from volumetrically acquired MR images in 77 consecutive surgical patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (37 febrile seizures (FS)+, 40 FS-) with proved hippocampal sclerosis, and compared with 98 controls. Ipsilateral and contralateral hippocampal volumes were not significantly different between the FS+ and FS- groups. There was no difference in the age of onset of habitual seizures, duration of epilepsy, or age at the time of surgery, between these groups. No clinically significant correlations were found between hippocampal volumes and age of onset of first non-febrile seizure, duration of temporal lobe epilepsy, or complex partial and secondarily generalised seizure frequency, in patients with and without febrile seizures.",
"To evaluate if an automatic magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) processing system may improve detection of hippocampal sclerosis (Hs) in patients with mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE). Eighty consecutive patients with a diagnosis of MTLE and 20 age- and sex-matched controls were prospectively recruited and included in our study. The entire group had 3-T MRI visual assessment of Hs analysed by two blinded imaging epilepsy experts. Logistic regression was used to evaluate the performances of neuroradiologists and multimodal analysis. The multimodal automated tool gave no evidence of Hs in all 20 controls and classified the 80 MTLE patients as follows: normal MRI (54/80), left Hs (14/80), right Hs (11/80) and bilateral Hs (1/80). Of note, this multimodal automated tool was always concordant with the side of MTLE, as determined by a comprehensive electroclinical evaluation. In comparison with standard visual assessment, the multimodal automated tool resolved five ambiguous cases, being able to lateralize Hs in four patients and detecting one case of bilateral Hs. Moreover, comparing the performances of the three logistic regression models, the multimodal approach overcame performances obtained with a single image modality for both the hemispheres, reaching a global accuracy value of 0.97 for the right and 0.98 for the left hemisphere.",
"The prevalence of hippocampal sclerosis in the general nonepileptic patient population is not well described. While reports of its association with partial complex seizures are abundant, its absence in nonafflicted patients is generally presumed but not well documented. To test the hypothesis that hippocampal sclerosis is specific for epilepsy, we reviewed the MR imaging studies of 207 patients referred for hearing loss to determine whether high-resolution MR imaging could detect unsuspected hippocampal sclerosis in nonepileptic patients. Our institution screens patients with hearing loss by using high-resolution coronal and axial temporal bone MR imaging that includes the hippocampus within the imaging volume. We retrospectively reviewed 207 studies randomly selected from this database. The hippocampus was normal in 205 patients; in the remaining two patients we identified one or more primary determinants for hippocampal sclerosis. Subsequent retrospective chart review revealed that both patients had had previously diagnosed seizure disorders.",
"In patients with epilepsy, female sex, poor visual memory or global neuropsychological underperformance and low IQ are associated with an increased risk of PNES. MRI changes, epileptiform EEG abnormalities and location of epileptogenic zone do not show a predilection for one hemisphere.",
"Temporal lobe gray-white matter abnormalities (GWMA) are frequent morphological aberrances observed on MRI in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) in addition to hippocampal sclerosis (HS). To study the influence of temporal pole GWMA on clinical characteristics and seizure outcome in patients with HS operated on for TLE. A cohort of 370 patients undergoing surgery for intractable TLE was prospectively collected in an epilepsy surgery data base. Clinical characteristics and seizure outcome of all 58 TLE patients with identified HS and GWMA (group 1) were compared with those of a matched control group of 58 HS patients without GWMA (group 2). Both groups were further subdivided into patients undergoing transsylvian selective amygdalohippocampectomy (sAH) and anterior temporal lobectomy with amygdalohippocampectomy (ATL). The HS plus GWMA patients were significantly younger at epilepsy onset than those without GWMA. In the HS plus GWMA group, 41% of patients were younger than 2 years when they experienced their first seizure in contrast to only 17% of patients with pure HS (P = .004). Seizure outcome was not statistically different between the 2 groups: 75.9% of the patients in group 1 were seizure free (Engel class I) compared with 81% of patients in group 2. Seizure outcome in both groups was about equally successful with selective amygdalohippocampectomy and anterior temporal lobectomy (ns).",
"yes. MRI findings of a markedly hyperintense hippocampus in children with febrile status epilepticus was highly associated with subsequent mesial temporal sclerosis.",
"To investigate the concordance between scalp electroencephalogram (EEG) lateralization and side of hippocampal atrophy in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE). We studied 184 consecutive patients with TLE without lesions other than those compatible with mesial temporal sclerosis. In this study, we studied specifically hippocampal atrophy and the results of scalp EEG investigation. Patients were classified according to the localization of interictal epileptiform discharges as unilateral, bilateral asymmetric, and bilateral symmetric. The EEG seizure onsets were also classified separately as unilateral, bilateral asymmetric, and bilateral symmetric. The hippocampal atrophy was determined by volumetric measurements using high-resolution magnetic resonance imaging (MRIVol). Only 3% of patients had discordance between the ictal and interictal EEG lateralizations; however, none of these had unilateral interictal EEG abnormalities. Interictal EEGs were considered unilateral in 62.0% of patients, bilateral asymmetric in 31.5%, and bilateral symmetric in 6.5%. Ictal EEGs were considered unilateral in 63.5% of patients, bilateral asymmetric in 30.0%, and bilateral symmetric in 6.5%. The MRIVol showed unilateral hippocampal atrophy in 60.9% of patients, bilateral asymmetric hippocampal atrophy in 19.0%, symmetric hippocampal atrophy in 3.8%, and normal volumes in 16.3%. There was a significant concordance between MRIVol lateralization and both interictal and ictal EEG lateralization (P<.001). All patients with unilateral hippocampal atrophy had concordant interictal and ictal EEG lateralization. Six (18.2%) of the 33 patients with bilateral asymmetric hippocampal atrophy had MRI lateralization discordant with EEG lateralization.",
"no. Although febrile seizures was associated with hippocampal sclerosis in 48% of patients in this surgical series, the degree of MRI determined hippocampal atrophy was not related to a history of such seizures. The results do not support the view that febrile seizures cause more severe hippocampal sclerosis and are consistent with the hypothesis that hippocampal sclerosis is a pre-existing abnormality.",
"Subtle microdysplastic features are found in some patients with hippocampal sclerosis (HS) and refractory temporal lobe epilepsy. The significance of these findings is unknown. We investigated their frequency, relation to the pattern of HS, and clinical associations. One-hundred forty patients with histologically confirmed HS (mean age at operation, 35 years; 85 women) were analyzed. The presence of HS and subtle structural abnormalities (SSAs) in the mesial temporal lobe and in the lateral neocortical tissue was assessed in detail. Antecedents, seizure characteristics, two verbal memory tests, and outcome in HS patients with and without SSAs were determined. SSAs were found in 60 (43%) of the 140 HS patients, being mesial only in 32 of the 60 cases, and lateral only in nine cases; the remaining 19 cases had both mesial and lateral abnormalities. The frequency of SSA was not related to the pattern of HS or other tested variables. Prolonged febrile convulsions were present in 26 (44%) patients with SSAs, and in 26 (34%) patients (not significant) without SSAs. The outcome after surgery did not differ between patients with SSAs (incidence rate ratio for seizure recurrence, 0.9; 95% confidence interval, 0.5-1.6) compared with patients without SSAs (reference ratio, 1).",
"The pathophysiologic basis for the [18F]fluorodeoxyglucose positron-emission tomography (FDG-PET) temporal lobe hypometabolism in patients with hippocampal sclerosis (HS) is uncertain. We tested the hypothesis that hippocampal atrophy, which is strongly correlated with hippocampal cell loss, is largely responsible for the regional hypometabolism in HS. Regions of interest (ROIs) on FDG-PET scanning were determined in the medial, lateral, and posterior temporal lobe, thalamus, and basal ganglia. A right/left asymmetry index for each ROI was calculated. These results were correlated with hippocampal magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) volume ratios. There was no correlation between the magnitudes of the FDG-PET asymmetry index and the MRI volume ratio for the mesial or lateral temporal regions (r = -0.09, r = -0.04). When the right/left asymmetry index was compared with the right/left hippocampal volume ratio, correlations for the mesial temporal ROI (r = 0.79, p < 0.0001) and lateral temporal ROI (r = 0.57, p < 0.0005) were found. These, however, simply indicated that both tests accurately reflect the side of the epileptogenic region. The concordance of the side of relative hypometabolism of the FDG-PET with the side of the hippocampal atrophy was higher for the mesial temporal region (100%) than for the lateral (77.5%).",
"Hippocampal sclerosis (HS) is the most common lesion underlying drug-resistant temporal lobe epilepsy. Whether HS is a developmental or acquired pathology remains unclear. Whereas HS has been causally linked to prolonged febrile convulsions in childhood, evidence also exists that it may coexist with extrahippocampal abnormalities, the concept of \"dual pathology.\" The aims of this study were to address whether hippocampal abnormality consistent with HS (a) occurs in children with lesional extrahippocampal epilepsy, (b) is more commonly seen in association with developmental rather than acquired extrahippocampal pathologies, and (c) whether any effect of age at seizure onset is found on the occurrence of HS in lesional extrahippocampal epilepsy. Clinical and histopathologic data of patients having resective surgery for extrahippocampal epilepsy that included the hippocampus were investigated. Twenty-nine children were retrospectively included in this study, and 21 (72%) of 29 were found to have a hippocampal abnormality consistent with HS. No relation was noted between developmental or acquired extrahippocampal pathologies and the presence of hippocampal abnormality. Children with normal hippocampi on visual histologic assessment had a significantly younger age at seizure onset (p < 0.001). Duration of epilepsy was not correlated with the presence of hippocampal abnormality.",
"Ipsilateral loss of anterior temporal gray-white matter definition, due mainly to white matter signal intensity abnormality, is frequently seen on MR images of patients with hippocampal sclerosis. Our aim was to determine the prevalence and clinical correlations of these anterior temporal changes in pediatric cases of hippocampal sclerosis and to determine whether cumulative damage from seizures is important for their development. We reviewed the MR images and clinical details of 54 children (age range, 1.5-19 years) with typical hippocampal sclerosis. Specific imaging features noted included hippocampal sclerosis, anterior temporal changes, anterior temporal atrophy, and extra-hippocampal abnormality. Thirty-one (57%) of 54 children with hippocampal sclerosis had associated ipsilateral anterior temporal changes. Ipsilateral anterior temporal atrophy was associated with anterior temporal changes (P<.03). Children whose images showed anterior temporal changes were younger at onset of epilepsy (P<.01) and younger at antecedent cerebral insult (P<.03) than those with normal anterior temporal lobes. Most (84%) children whose images showed anterior temporal changes had experienced the onset of epilepsy or antecedent cerebral insult before the age of 2 years (P<.0009). Eighty-one percent of children with anterior temporal changes shown on their images experienced seizures at the time of antecedent insult.",
"To investigate the effect of seizure frequency on memory, we performed a cross sectional study comparing mesial temporal lobe epilepsy (MTLE) patients with frequent and infrequent seizures. We performed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) hippocampal volume (HV) measurements and neuropsychological assessment in 22 patients with frequent seizures (at least one dyscognitive seizure [DS] per month) that were refractory to antiepileptic drugs and 20 patients with infrequent seizures (three or less DS per year and no event evolving to a bilateral convulsive seizure), all with MRI signs of hippocampal sclerosis (HS) on visual analysis. We also included 29 controls for comparison of volumetric data. There was no difference in memory performance between patients with frequent seizures and infrequent seizures. We observed a significant bilateral reduction of HV in patients with MTLE when compared to controls (p < 0.001). The degree of hippocampal atrophy (HA) between patients with frequent and infrequent seizures was not different. There was a negative correlation between seizure frequency and HV, with r = -0.3 for the HV ipsilateral to the HS and r = -0.55 for the contralateral side, thus, explaining only 9% and 30% of the HV loss. There was a positive correlation between age of onset and degree of HA (r = 0.37).",
"To evaluate the determinants of postoperative change in visual confrontation naming ability and the differential sensitivity of two common tests of confrontation naming. In a group of 99 patients undergoing lobectomy of the left, language-dominant anterior temporal lobe, we examined naming ability using two measures: the 60 item Boston Naming Test (BNT), and the Visual Naming (VN) subtest of the Multilingual Aphasia Examination (MAE). ATL entailed resection of lateral temporal lobe followed by microsurgical complete removal of hippocampus. Language mapping was not performed. The status of the resected hippocampus was graded on a scale 0-4 of hippocampal sclerosis (HS). A dichotomous grouping HS- (grades 0 and 1, n = 34) and HS+ (grades 3 and 4, n = 61) was effected. Age at surgery, age of epilepsy onset, sex, extent of lateral temporal resection, Full-Scale IQ (FSIQ), and preoperative naming scores were also examined as potential predictors of pre- versus postoperative naming change. Preoperative BNT and VN scores were significantly worse for HS+ than for HS- (BNT, p < 0.05; VN, p = 0.001). Postoperatively, BNT and VN scores significantly declined for HS- as compared with HS+ patients (p < 0.001). For individual risk, the 90th centile of reliable change index (RCI) was used. By this criterion, of the total sample, 39% evidenced decline on the BNT and 17% evidenced decline on the VN. Logistic regression analysis with backward elimination showed HS to be the only predictor of decline in BNT and HS and sex to be the only predictors of VN decline. Males were more at risk than females. Age, age at onset, extent of lateral resection, preoperative scores, and FSIQ were not predictors. Using age at onset as a proxy for HS+/HS- we calculated probabilities for naming decline for given onset age.",
"From the present study, it is clear that functional reorganization of the language-related neuronal network is modified in patients with left hippocampal sclerosis. Although the lesion is far from the primary language-related areas, atypical language lateralization is common in these patients and this should be considered in preoperative period.",
"yes. The results of this study illustrate that hippocampal sclerosis has offered a fertile substrate for intractable ADNFLE to develop. The present findings also highlight the importance of acquired factors that are directly relevant to the epilepsy phenotype and its severity even in monogenic epilepsies.",
"To assess the prevalence and attributes of atypical language lateralization (ALL) in patients with left mesial temporal lobe epilepsy associated with hippocampal sclerosis (MTLE-HS). We recruited consecutive patients with left MTLE-HS, who had undergone resective surgery and had pathologically proven HS. Based on the Wada test, language lateralization was classified into typical (left hemispheric) or atypical (right hemispheric or codominant). We assessed the attributes of patients with ALL using univariate and multivariate analyses. Of 124 patients with left MTLE-HS, 23 (18.5%) had ALL. ALL occurred more frequently in patients with severe initial precipitating injury (IPI), early onset of epilepsy, and a short latent period between IPI and onset of habitual seizures. ALL was more common in patients with bitemporal and extratemporal interictal epileptiform discharges (IEDs) on electroencephalogram (EEG) and extratemporal changes on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). On multivariate analyses, the age at onset of habitual seizures <6 years, atypical IPI, nonunilateral temporal IEDs, and extratemporal MRI abnormalities independently predicted ALL. The likelihood of ALL was very low ( approximately 1%) when all of these four risk factors were absent, whereas it was very high (>95%), if any three or all four of them were present.",
"Despite accurate localization of the seizure focus, not all patients are seizure free after temporal lobectomy. This study determined risk factors for seizure recurrence in patients with proven hippocampal sclerosis. The outcome from surgery was assessed in 56 consecutive patients with proven hippocampal sclerosis. The age at surgery, duration of epilepsy, history and age of febrile seizures, age of onset of epilepsy, sex ratio, laterality of seizure focus, and seizure frequency were compared between patients seizure free and those not seizure free, and those seizure and aura free and those with seizure recurrence including auras. During a mean follow-up of 38 months, 48 (86%) of 56 are seizure free. The mean age at surgery (37 vs. 36 years), duration of epilepsy (26 vs. 22 years), age (1.6 vs. 1.1 years), and occurrence (58 vs. 75%) of febrile seizures, age of onset of epilepsy (11 vs. 14 years), sex ratio (50 vs. 75% female), laterality of seizure focus (42 vs. 50% left), greater than weekly seizures (40 vs. 38%), and a history of (69 vs. 75%) and frequency of (2.10 vs. 2.38 per year) secondarily generalized seizures did not differ significantly between the two groups. Similarly there was no significant difference between patients seizure and aura free and those with seizure recurrence including auras.",
"yes. Our MR imaging results suggest that although the major damage in patients with TLE is located in the hippocampus ipsilateral to the side of seizure onset, R-patients are more likely to have bilateral hippocampal volume reduction. These findings support the hypothesis that cerebral hemispheres may not only differ in their functionality organization but also in their vulnerability to a neurologic insult.",
"It is unclear whether the hippocampal abnormality in temporal lobe epilepsy (TLE) is a consequence or the cause of afebrile or febrile seizures (FSs). We investigated whether hippocampal abnormalities are present in healthy adults>15 years after a simple FS. Eight healthy subjects (5 men) with a history of simple FS (FS+ group) and eight sex- and aged-matched control subjects (FS- group) were investigated by three MR methods: blinded visual inspection of the MRI pictures; automatic voxel-based volumetry; and T2 relaxation time measurements. The mean total volume of the two hippocampi was 5.36 +/- 1.33 cm(3)in the FS+ group and 6.63 +/- 1.46 cm(3)in the FS- group (p = 0.069). The T2 values in the anterior part of the left hippocampus (p = 0.036) and in the middle part of the right hippocampus (p = 0.025) were elevated in the FS+ subjects. The mean volume of the right hippocampus was 3.05 +/- 0.8 cm(3)in the FS+ men and 4.05 +/- 0.48 cm(3)in the FS- men (p = 0.043). The mean total volume of the two hippocampi was 5.38 +/- 1.4 cm(3)in the FS+ men and 7.48 +/- 1.14 cm(3)in the FS- men (p = 0.043). There were three FS+ men in whom hippocampal abnormalities including hippocampal sclerosis (HS) and dysgenesis were observed on visual inspection.",
"Early acquired lesions are considered to be a risk factor for atypical language lateralization in epilepsy, whereas developmental lesions are not. Hippocampal sclerosis (HS) can be understood as an early, acquired lesion, whereas developmental tumors (DT) are thought to originate in utero. We assessed whether language lateralization differs between these groups of temporal lobe epilepsy patients. We used 3-Tesla functional MRI (fMRI) to assess 41 patients (16 DT, 25 HS) and 50 controls, performing a noun-verb-generation task. fMRI data were processed by using SPM2. A laterality index (LI) was calculated based on the number of activated voxels in left- and right-sided frontal lobe language areas. Atypical lateralization was considered if the index was<or = 0.2. Patients had a lower LI (0.42 +/- 0.5) than controls (0.6 +/- 0.3; p<or = 0.05), but the LI was not different between DT (0.44 +/- 0.5) and HS patients (0.43 +/- 0.4; p = 0.9). The frequency of atypical lateralization was increased in patients (27%) compared with controls (8%) but was similar in both patient groups (DT, 31%; HS, 24%). HS patients had an earlier onset and longer duration of epilepsy and a higher frequency of significant antecedent events (p<or = 0.05).",
"We analyzed a large group of patients investigated for suspected seizures to test whether gender or side are important factors in the origins of hippocampal sclerosis (HS). We studied 996 consecutive patients (48% men, 52% women) by using standard hippocampal T2-relaxometry methods. HS was associated with a highly abnormal T2 time (<or =113 ms). Categoric analysis showed that hippocampal T2 time was independent of gender and side. T2 time was bilaterally normal in 81% of men and in 79% of women; it was unilaterally abnormal in 15% of both men and women; and bilaterally abnormal in 4% of men and in 6% of women. Highly abnormal T2 relaxometry, suggesting HS, occurred with equal frequency in men and women and on the right and left sides. Quantitative analysis of hippocampal T2 times showed values not differing significantly between men and women or between the right and left hemispheres. There was no significant interaction between gender and side."
] | 767 |
Can interpectoral nodes be sentinel nodes? | [
"This study was designed to determine if interpectoral nodes could be sentinel nodes for some breast cancers. Thirty-five consecutive breast cancer patients undergoing axillary node dissection had a dissection of the interpectoral nodes. These were sent to pathology as a separate specimen. Three patients were identified with isolated interpectoral nodal metastasis.",
"In upper quadrants or deep breast cancers the interpectoral nodes may be the earliest site of nodal metastasis. This may lead to false negative results in some sentinel node biopsies."
] | [
"yes. The presence of unfavorable histopathology such as ulceration and lymphovascular invasion may identify a group of patients with thin melanomas who would benefit from sentinel lymphadenectomy.",
"It has been suggested that performing a sentinel node biopsy (SNB) in patients with cutaneous melanoma increases the incidence of in-transit metastasis (ITM). ITM rates for 2018 patients with primary melanomas > or =1.0 mm thick treated at a single institution between 1991 and 2000 according to 3 protocols were compared: wide local excision (WLE) only (n = 1035), WLE plus SNB (n = 754), and WLE plus elective lymph node dissection (n = 229). The incidence of ITM for the three protocols was 4.9%, 3.6%, and 5.7%, respectively (not significant), and as a first site of recurrent disease the incidence was 2.5%, 2.4%, and 4.4%, respectively (not significant). The subset of patients who were node positive after SNB and after elective lymph node dissection also had similar ITM rates (10.8% and 7.1%, respectively; P = .11). On multivariate analysis, primary tumor thickness and patient age predicted ITM as a first recurrence, but type of treatment did not. Patients who underwent WLE only and who had a subsequent therapeutic lymph node dissection (n = 149) had an ITM rate of 24.2%, compared with 10.8% in patients with a tumor-positive sentinel node treated with immediate dissection (n = 102; P = .03).",
"A sentinel node is defined as the initial lymph node, to which cancer cells metastasize from a primary tumor. Recently, sentinel node navigation surgery has been done using the dye-guided method. However, no study has shown that a lymph node detected by the dye-guided method is the true sentinel node from the viewpoint of micrometastasis. Micrometastases of lymph nodes, in which no metastasis was found by H&E staining, were examined to establish whether a lymph node detected by the dye-guided method is the true sentinel node. Isosulfan blue was injected endoscopically as the dye-guided method at a submucosal lesion of early gastric cancer. Total 345 lymph nodes, including 150 blue-dyed lymph nodes and 195 nondyed lymph nodes were collected from 57 patients and each was quartered. Two quarters were examined histologically by H&E staining and cytokeratin staining. The other specimens were used for quantitative reverse transcription-PCR of CEA and CK20 mRNAs. Lymph node disease was not found in any of 345 lymph nodes from the 57 patients by routine H&E staining. By contrast, either CEA or CK20 mRNA expression was detected in 21 of 345 lymph nodes obtained from the 10 (18%) of 57 patients by quantitative reverse transcription-PCR. Eight of the 21 micrometastasis-positive lymph nodes were confirmed to be positive for cytokeratin staining. Although micrometastasis of nondyed lymph nodes was found in three cases, these were included in the 10 cases with micrometastasis of blue-dyed nodes, such that there was no patient who only had micrometastasis in nondyed nodes. Six of 10 cases were micrometastasis-positive in a single node; all six were blue-dyed nodes.",
"The present study suggests that sentinel node biopsy is an adequate technique to evaluate lymph node status. The use of the 2009 FIGO classification increases the accuracy of MR imaging to stage patients with early stages of endometrial cancer and contributes to clarify the indication of SN biopsy according to tumour grade and histological type.",
"According to the concept of sentinel node (SN), the lymphatic pathway leading to SN should be regarded as the main and the most important lymphatic route from primary tumor to regional lymph nodes. We performed ex vivo blue-dye SN mapping in postmastectomy specimens to assess whether the main lymphatic tract leading to SN is completely removed during mastectomy. We assumed that ex vivo identification of SN may be possible only if the entire lymphatic tract leading to sentinel node is removed from within the postmastectomy specimen. Blue dye (1 mL) was injected intracutaenously, periareolary into each of 28 postmastectomy specimens. In 13 cases mastectomy was performed with the use of transverse skin incision; in 15 cases oblique incision was used. The use of transverse skin incision during modified radical mastectomy allowed identification of the sentinel node and removal of the entire lymphatic pathway leading to sentinel node only in 4 of 15 cases (31%). Conversely, the use of oblique skin incision during modified radical mastectomy allowed identification of the sentinel node and removal of the entire lymphatic pathway leading to sentinel node in 12 of 15 cases (80%).",
"To determine the likelihood of nonsentinel axillary metastasis in the presence of sentinel node metastasis from a primary breast carcinoma. Sentinel lymphadenectomy is a highly accurate technique for identifying axillary metastasis from a primary breast carcinoma. Our group has shown that nonsentinel axillary lymph nodes are unlikely to contain tumor cells if the axillary sentinel node is tumor-free, but as yet no study has examined the risk of nonsentinel nodal involvement when the sentinel node contains tumor cells. Between 1991 and 1997, axillary lymphadenectomy was performed in 157 women with a tumor-involved sentinel node. Fifty-three axillae (33.5%) had at least one tumor-involved nonsentinel node. The authors analyzed the incidence of nonsentinel node involvement according to clinical and tumor characteristics. Only two variables had a significant impact on the likelihood of nonsentinel node metastasis: the size of the sentinel node metastasis and the size of the primary tumor. The rate of nonsentinel node involvement was 7% when the sentinel node had a micrometastasis (<or =2 mm), compared with 55% when the sentinel node had a macrometastasis (>2 mm). In addition, the rate of nonsentinel node tumor involvement increased with the size of the primary tumor.",
"Preoperative lymphoscintigraphy is commonly used in sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) for patients with early breast cancer; however, its significance to predict SLN metastasis remains to be determined. Sixty patients were enrolled in a feasibility study of SLNB. Patients with clinically node-negative breast cancer were eligible for this study. Dynamic lymphoscintigraphy was performed before SLNB. All patients underwent SLNB followed by axillary lymph node dissection. A dual mapping procedure using isotope and dye injections was performed. SLNs were identified in 59 of 60 patients (98.3%), with a node-positive rate of 41.7% and a false-negative rate of 1.7%. No SLN was identified in 4 of 60 patients (6.7%) on preoperative lymphoscintigraphy. Interestingly, abnormal accumulation of the radiotracer close to hot spots was observed in 29 of 56 patients (51.8%). Lymph node metastases were detected in 18 of 29 patients (62.0%) with this pattern and 5 of 27 patients (18.5%) without this pattern (P < 0.05). Micrometastases were more frequently detected in node-positive patients without this pattern than in those with this pattern (80 vs. 16.7%). Diagnostic parameters of this pattern to predict SLN metastases, including micrometastases, were 62.1% for sensitivity, 81.5% for specificity, and 71.4% for accuracy.",
"yes. FTIR spectroscopy is a promising technique for the real-time diagnosis of SLN metastasis during breast cancer surgery. Surgical relevance Sentinel lymph node (SLN) biopsy is a highly accurate predictor of overall axillary status and has become the standard in disease staging in clinically node-negative breast cancer. A rapid and accurate intraoperative assessment of metastatic spread to the SLN provides the necessary information for the surgeon to proceed with immediate axillary dissection. The results of this research indicate that Fourier transform infrared (FTIR) spectroscopy is a rapid, accurate, non-destructive and cost-effective molecular method that can be used to detect SLN metastasis during surgery. FTIR analysis could be useful for the intraoperative diagnosis of lymph node metastases at large institutions, thereby reducing the workload of pathologists, as well as in regions lacking pathologists such as in developing countries.",
"Sentinel node (SN) detection may be used in patients with colonic carcinoma. However, its use in patients with rectal carcinoma may be unreliable. To address this, SN detection was evaluated in patients with rectal carcinoma after short-course preoperative radiotherapy. Patent Blue V (1-2 ml) was injected peritumorally and submucosally directly after total mesorectal excision (TME) in 34 patients. The first one to four blue lymph nodes were categorized as SNs. All lymph nodes (non-SNs and SNs) were examined by conventional haematoxylin and eosin stained sections. If the SN was negative for metastasis, additional sections were immunostained with anticytokeratin CK7/8. In addition, SN detection was performed in 57 patients with colonic carcinoma. A SN was identified in 26 of 34 patients with rectal carcinoma. In three the SN was the only positive lymph node. There were six false-negative SNs (sensitivity 40 per cent) and two patients were upstaged. By contrast, SN detection was possible in 56 of 57 patient with colonic carcinoma with a sensitivity of 90 per cent, and four patients were upstaged.",
"The majority of patients with penile cancer with a tumor positive sentinel node do not benefit from complementary lymph node dissection because of absent additional involved nodes. We analyzed factors that may determine the involvement of additional nodes. A total of 158 patients with clinically node negative penile carcinoma underwent sentinel node biopsy. Complementary inguinal lymph node dissection was performed when the sentinel node was tumor positive. The size of the sentinel node metastasis was measured and classified as micrometastasis--2 mm or less, or macrometastasis--more than 2 mm. Sentinel and dissection specimen nodes were step-sectioned. Factors were analyzed for their association with additional nodal involvement, including stage, diameter, grade, absence or presence of vascular invasion of the primary tumor, and sentinel node metastasis size. Tumor positive sentinel nodes were found in 46 groins and complementary lymph node dissection was performed. Nine of these 46 groins (20%) contained additional involved lymph nodes. On univariate and multivariate analyses the size of the sentinel node metastasis proved to be the only significant prognostic variable for additional lymph node involvement (each p = 0.02). None of the 15 groins with only micrometastasis in the sentinel node contained additional involved nodes.",
"We hypothesized that even in the face of a positive intramammary lymph node (IMLN) a negative axillary sentinel lymph node (SLN) reliably stages the axilla and complete axillary lymph node dissection (CALND) can be avoided. A literature search identified 386 publications that included IMLNs and SLN biopsies. Patients with a positive IMLN and negative axillary SLN who underwent a CALND were included. A review of our database was also performed. Twenty-one cases in the literature met our criteria. A review of our database resulted in 2 additional cases. Twenty-three patients were identified who had a positive IMLN, negative axillary SLN biopsy, and underwent a CALND. In all cases, the CALND was negative.",
"The aim of this study was to define the factors associated with nonvisualization of a sentinel node (SN) in the axilla area during preoperative lymphoscintigraphy. We retrospectively studied 332 women with T0, T1, or T2<3-cm, N0 invasive breast cancer who underwent a sentinel lymph node biopsy procedure. All patients had intradermal and intraparenchymal injection of 37 MBq (99m)Tc-sulfur colloid in a total volume of 4 x 0.1 mL, above and around the tumor. Anterior and lateral static views were obtained a few minutes and 2-4 h after injection. Surgery was performed the next day. The SNs were localized intraoperatively with the aid of patent blue dye and using a hand-held gamma-probe. SNs were analyzed by serial sections stained with hematoxylin-eosin, with the adjacent section stained with anticytokeratin antibodies. Different parameters, such as the number of positive lymph nodes, presence of lymphovascular invasion, tumor size, tumor grade, histology (invasive vs. in situ), prior excisional biopsy, and patient age were analyzed to determine whether they had any significant correlation with nonvisualization of SNs in the axillary area. An axillary SN was successfully visualized on the preoperative lymphoscintigraphy in 302 of 332 patients (90.7%). No axillary drainage was found in 30 patients on the delayed images, even after a second injection of radiocolloid, and 5 of 30 patients showed uptake outside the axillary area. Positive nodes were identified in 86 of 302 patients (28.5%) with successful axillary drainage and in 19 of 30 patients (63.3%) with unsuccessful axillary drainage. More than 4 invaded axillary nodes (P<0.0001) and the presence of lymphovascular invasion in the breast tumor (P = 0.004) were the only significant variables on univariate analysis, although multivariate analysis showed that only the increased number of invaded nodes was statistically significant.",
"yes. FS, TP, and CS are comparable for the intraoperative detection of SLN metastases, and each method is substantially better at detecting micrometastases than micrometastases. The combination of two or more techniques only marginally improves the sensitivity over that achieved by a single method.",
"A standard intra-operative procedure for assessing sentinel lymph node metastasis in breast cancer patients has not yet been established. One hundred and thirty-eight patients with stage I breast cancer who underwent sentinel node biopsy using both imprint cytology and frozen section were analyzed. Seventeen of the 138 patients had sentinel node involvement. Results of imprint cytology included nine false negative cases (sensitivity, 47.1%). In contrast, only two cases of false negatives were found on frozen section (sensitivity, 88.2%). There were two false positive cases identified by imprint cytology (specificity, 98.3%). On the other hand, frozen section had 100% specificity.",
"Current guidelines recommend completion axillary lymph node dissection (cALND) in case of a sentinel lymph node (SN) metastasis larger than 2 mm (macrometastasis). However in many patients of those, the non-sentinel lymph nodes (NSN) contain no further metastasis, indicating that axillary lymph node dissection provides no benefit. To identify cases who could have undergone omission of the ALND with confidence, we have retrospectively evaluated the predictive factors of NSN metastasis with positive macrometastasis in the SN. This study was based on a retrospective database of 420 patients who underwent sentinel lymph node biopsy (SNB) for breast cancer, of whom 61 patients had SN macrometastasis intra- and postoperatively. We examined predictive factors of NSN involvement in 51 cases of these 61 patients who underwent cALND. All clinical and histological variables were analyzed according to NSN status, by using Mann-Whitney U test, univariate and multivariate logistic regression model. T stage and the proportion of involved SNs among all identified SNs (SN ratio) were correlated with NSN metastasis. Univariate and multivariate analysis showed that T stage and SN ratio were the independent predictive factor of NSN metastasis. The area under ROC curve for SN ratio was 0.71. The best cut off value of SN ratio was 0.667. Negative predictive value to NSN metastasis in cases with both T2 and more than 0.667 of SN ratio was 85.7%.",
"The study on the sentinel lymph node has been carried out, prior informed consent, in 128 patients aged between 27 and 80 years and suffering from non-multicentric infiltrating breast carcinoma, with a diameter not greater than 3 cm, clinically negative axillary, and hospitalized from January 1998 to September 2005 at the Department of Gerontology, Geriatrics and Metabolic Diseases of the Second University of the Study of Naples. For the recruitment of patients subjected to the sentinel lymph node research study, we have respected the inclusion criteria. Histological examination of the tumor revealed 95 cases of ductal carcinoma, 16 cases of mucinus carcinoma, 13 of lobular carcinoma and 4 of medullary carcinoma. The sentinel lymph node was detected through lymphoscintigraphy in 96.9% of the cases (124 patients), whereas it was not possible to identify it in 4 patients (3.1% of the cases), 2 of which had previously been subject to excision biopsy. The SLNB is characterized by an identification rate of SLN>90% with a false negative rate less than 5%. In our study we have found an SLN identification rate of 96.9% with false-negative rates of 3.9%. Our data show that in only 6,3% of the patients (4 non- identified and 4 false-negative cases) it was necessary to perform ALND because the SLN resulted positive; however no metastasis were observed in level III lymph nodes.",
"To evaluate the feasibility of a laparoscopic sentinel node (SN) procedure based on combined method in patients with endometrial cancer. Thirty-three patients (median age 66.1 years) with endometrial cancer of apparent stage I or stage II underwent a laparoscopic SN procedure based on combined radiocolloid and patent blue injected pericervically. After the SN procedure, all the patients underwent laparoscopic bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy. SNs were identified in only 27 patients (81.8%). The mean number of SNs was 2.5 per patient (range 1-5). Only 18 patients (54.5%) had an identified bilateral SN. The most common site of the SNs was the medial external iliac region (67.6%). Fourteen SNs (19.7%) from 8 patients (24.2%) were found to be metastatic at the final histological assessment. No false-negative SN results were observed.",
"To examine whether the intraoperative combined injection technique is feasible in locating the sentinel node(s) of the ovary.METHODS/ In 16 patients with high-risk uterine cancer and normal postmenopausal ovaries, technetium isotope and blue dye were injected in the right or left ovary during laparotomy, respectively. During the operation, the pelvic and para-aortic lymphatic areas were searched, and the number, method of detection, and location(s) of the hot and/or blue node(s) were recorded. One to 3 sentinel nodes per patient were identified in all but 1 patient (15 of 16, 94%). The sentinel nodes (n = 30) were all located in the para-aortic area. The sentinel nodes of the left ovary were mainly (9 of 14, 64%) located above the inferior mesenteric artery level, as the most sentinel nodes of the right ovary (15 of 16, 94%) were found below the inferior mesenteric artery level (P = 0.001). There were no contralateral or bilateral sentinel nodes.",
"The detection of microscopic disease in radiologically and clinically normal-appearing omentum seems to be rare in USC. Sentinel lymph node mapping seems to be valuable in the serous subtype of endometrial cancer. A less extensive surgery may be possible in patients with USC as it seems to provide the same information as a more extensive surgery.",
"To determine which patients with near midline lesions may safely undergo unilateral groin dissection based on clinical exam and lymphoscintigraphy (LSG) results. Patients participating in GOG-173 underwent sentinel lymph node (SLN) localization with blue dye, and radiocolloid with optional LSG before definitive inguinal-femoral lymphadenectomy (LND). This analysis interrogates the reliability of LSG alone relative to primary tumor location in those patients who had an interpretable LSG and at least one SLN identified. Primary tumor location was categorized as lateral (>2cm from midline), midline, or lateral ambiguous (LA) if located within 2cm, but not involving the midline. Two-hundred-thirty-four patients met eligibility criteria. Sixty-four had lateral lesions, and underwent unilateral LND. All patients with LA (N=65) and midline (N=105) tumors underwent bilateral LND. Bilateral drainage by LSG was identified in 14/64 (22%) patients with lateral tumors, 38/65 (58%) with LA tumors and in 73/105 (70%) with midline tumors. At mapping, no SLNs were found in contralateral groins among those patients with LA and midline tumors who had unilateral-only LSGs. However, in these patients groin metastases were found in 4/32 patients with midline tumors undergoing contralateral dissection; none were found in 27 patients with LA tumors.",
"In many patients with early breast cancer, the sentinel lymph node (SLN) is the sole site of regional nodal metastasis. This subgroup of patients may not benefit from completion axillary lymph node dissection (CALND). This pilot study evaluates the status of 2nd echelon (station) lymph nodes in the axilla as a predictor of additional positive nodes in the axilla in the presence of sentinel node metastasis. Cross-sectional study of 40 breast cancer patients. Forty patients with invasive breast cancer underwent SLN biopsy followed by 2nd echelon lymph node biopsy in the same sitting. SLN mapping was performed using a combined technique of isosulfan blue and 99 mTc-sulfur colloid. SLNs (Station I) were defined as blue and/or hot nodes. These nodes were then injected with 0.1 ml of blue dye using a fine needle and their efferent lymphatic was traced to identify the Station II nodes. Then a complete ALND was performed. All the specimens were sent separately for histopathological evaluation. SLNs (Station I nodes) were successfully identified in 98% (39/40) patients. Of the 17 patients with a positive SLN, 8 (47%) patients had no further positive nodes in the axilla, 9 (53%) patients had additional metastasis in nonsentinel lymph nodes upon CALND. Station II nodes were identified in 76% (13/17) patients with a positive SLN. Station II nodes accurately predicted the status of the remaining axilla in 92% patients (12/13). We calculated the Sensitivity, Negative predictive value, Positive predictive value, False negative rate and Identification rate.",
"yes. M2-polarized TAM infiltration of RLNs is significantly associated with nodal lymphangiogenesis and occult nodal involvement in pN0 pancreatic cancer. Node-infiltrating M2-polarized TAMs may facilitate nodal lymphangiogenesis via the production of vascular endothelial growth factor C and thus promote RLN metastasis.",
"Level III axillary dissection is appropriate for patients with palpable ALN, and in those with a tumour which is>20 mm and LVI positive, principally to reduce the risk of axillary recurrence. Staging accuracy is achieved with a level II dissection, or even a level I dissection alone based on strict anatomical criteria. Sentinel node biopsy is a promising technique in identifying pathological node-positive patients in whom an axillary clearance provides optimal local control and staging information.",
"Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC) is a highly aggressive subtype of breast cancer. The purpose of this study was to determine if patients with TNBC have a higher risk of lymph node (LN) metastases. A prospective database review identified 3,289 patients treated with a mastectomy or with breast-conserving surgery between January 2000 and May 2012. The final analysis included those patients who underwent sentinel node biopsy (SNB) and/or axillary lymph node dissection (ALND), and the following information: age at diagnosis, tumor size, grade, stage, histologic subtype, presence of lymphovascular invasion (LVI), and the status of estrogen, progesterone, and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2). A total of 2,967 patients met the inclusion criteria. SNB was performed in 1,094 patients, ALND in 756, and both SNB and ALND in 1,117 patients. LN metastases were detected in 1,050 (35 %) patients. On univariate analysis, the LN positivity varied across subtypes with 33 % in luminal A, 42 % in luminal B, 39 % in TNBC, and 45 % in HER-2 (p = 0.0007). However, on multivariable analysis, there was no difference in LN positivity among subtypes. Age <50, grade 2 or 3 tumors, size ≥2 cm, and presence of LVI were significant predictors of LN positivity. Four or more involved nodes were observed most commonly in the HER2 (19.4 %) and luminal B (13.7 %) subtypes, but only 9.4 % in TNBC (p < 0.0001).",
"yes. Interstitial MR lymphography can be used to determine the extent and shape of pelvic lymphatic vessel drainage and lymph node metastases in patients with cervical cancer.",
"The purpose of the present study was to evaluate whether the combination of dye and radioisotope would improve the detection rate of sentinel nodes (SN) and the diagnostic accuracy of axillary lymph node status over dye alone in patients with breast cancer. Sentinel node biopsy (SNB) was performed in stages I or II breast cancer patients with clinically negative nodes using dye alone (indocyanine green) or a combination of dye and radioisotope (99mTc-radiolabelled tin colloid). SNB guided by dye alone was performed in 93 patients and SNB guided by a combination of dye and radioisotope was performed in 138 patients. The detection rate of SN was significantly (P = 0.006) higher in the combination group (94.9%) than in the dye alone group (83.9%). The sensitivity, specificity, and overall accuracy of SNB in the diagnosis of axillary lymph node status were 100, 100, and 100%, respectively, for the combination group, and 81.0, 100, and 94.9%, respectively, for the dye alone group. There were no false negatives in the combination group, but four false negatives (19.0%) in the dye alone group. The combination method was significantly superior to the dye alone method for sensitivity (P = 0.011) and accuracy (P = 0.018).",
"Lymph node metastases are the most significant prognostic factor in localized non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC). Nodal micrometastases may not be detected with current standard histologic methods. We performed intraoperative technetium-99m ((99m)Tc) sentinel lymph node (SN) mapping in patients with resectable NSCLC. This study aimed to identify the first station of nodal drainage of operable lung cancers. Serial section histology and immunohistochemistry were used to validate the SN and to identify the presence of micrometastatic disease. One hundred patients with potentially resectable suspected NSCLC were enrolled. At thoracotomy, the primary tumor was injected with 0.25 to 2 mCi (99m)Tc. Intraoperative scintigraphic readings of both the primary tumor and lymph nodes were obtained with a hand-held gamma counter. Anatomic resection with a mediastinal node dissection was then performed. Nine of the 100 patients did not have NSCLC (seven benign lesions and two metastatic tumors) and were excluded. Seventy-eight (86%) of 91 patients had a SN identified and a complete resection. Sixty-nine (88.5%) out of the 78 SNs were classified as true-positive with no metastases found in other intrathoracic lymph nodes without concurrent SN involvement. In nine patients, the SN was the only positive node. In seven of these nine patients, the SN was found to harbor only micrometastatic disease.",
"Lymphoscintigraphy should be used to identify the proper lymphatic basins for a sentinel node procedure, however, the removal of nodes must continue until the background count is less than 10%. The correlation of lymph node number identified on lymphoscintigraphy to surgical excision is weak. γ Probe counts cannot be used to differentiate positive from negative nodes and the positive lymph node is not always the hottest node.",
"This prospective study was performed to ascertain the added benefit of lymphoscintigraphy to a standard method of intraoperative lymphatic mapping and sentinel node biopsy for breast cancer. Patients with invasive breast cancer were injected with 99mTc sulfur colloid prior to sentinel node biopsy; preoperative lymphoscintigraphy was then performed in half of the patient population. Sentinel node identification was possible in 45 of 50 patients (90%). All 14 patients (31%) with axillary nodal metastases had at least one histologically positive sentinel node (0% false negative rate). Lymphoscintigraphy revealed sentinel nodes in 17 of the 24 patients (70.8%) imaged. All 17 of these patients had one or more axillary sentinel nodes identified using intraoperative lymphatic mapping. In addition, 5 of 7 patients with a negative preoperative lymphoscintogram had an axillary sentinel lymph node(s) identified intraoperatively. None of the tumors showed drainage to the internal mammary lymph node chain by lymphoscintigraphy despite the fact that there were 5 patients with inner quadrant tumors. There was no significant advantage with respect to sentinel lymph node localization (91.7% versus 88.5%, P = not significant) or false negative rate (0%, both groups, P = not significant) in the group undergoing preoperative lymphoscintigraphy when compared with the patients in whom lymphoscintigraphy was not performed.",
"yes. Increased sentinel LN metastasis lymphangiogenesis is associated with metastatic involvement of nonsentinel axillary LNs. These are the first data sustaining the hypothesis that sentinel LN lymphangiogenesis is involved in further metastatic spread of human breast cancer.",
"This study documents a high incidence of lymph node micrometastases as detected by sentinel node biopsy in patients with high-risk DCIS and DCISM. Although the biological significance of breast cancer micrometastases remains unclear at this time, these findings suggest that sentinel node biopsy should be considered in patients with high-risk DCIS and DCISM.",
"yes. Axillary ultrasound-negative patients before and after primary systemic chemotherapy were suitable for sentinel lymph node biopsy. Axillary ultrasound should be used during primary systemic chemotherapy and before surgery.",
"Patients with IMN metastases, regardless of axillary node status, have a highly significant decrease in 20-year disease-free survival. Treatment strategies based on knowledge of sentinel IMN status may lead to improvement in survival, especially for patients with small tumors. At present, sentinel IMN biopsies should be performed in a clinical trial setting.",
"IE has acceptable sensitivity for lymph node macrometastases, but it is a weak tool for diagnosing micrometastases. FS and TP are roughly equivalent. IE allows management changes, because approximately 20% of all patients are expected to undergo synchronous axillary dissection, and it is particularly helpful in T2 patients. This may allow substantial cost savings for the health-care system.",
"yes. Fourteen (56%) of the 25 patients were spared axillary lymph node dissection when the sentinel node was found to be disease free. Performing sentinel node biopsy before neoadjuvant chemotherapy seems successful and reliable in patients with T2N0 breast cancer.",
"Sentinel lymphadenectomy is highly accurate for identifying axillary metastasis from a primary breast carcinoma. Nonsentinel axillary lymph nodes (NSNs) are unlikely to contain tumor cells if the axillary sentinel node (SN) is tumor free. We previously showed that the size of the primary tumor and the size of its SN metastasis predict the risk of NSN tumor involvement detected by hematoxylin and eosin staining. This study used immunohistochemical staining (IHC) to determine the likelihood of NSN axillary metastasis in the presence of SN metastasis. Between 1991 and 1997, axillary lymphadenectomy was performed in 156 women (157 axillary basins) who had primary breast carcinoma with SN metastasis. By hematoxylin and eosin staining, we identified NSN metastasis in 55 axillae (35%). IHC was then used to re-examine all NSNs (1827 lymph nodes) from the remaining 102 axillae. The incidence of IHC-detected NSN involvement was analyzed with respect to clinical and tumor characteristics. By using IHC, we identified NSN metastasis in 15 (14.7%) of the 102 axillae. By multivariate analysis, the size of the SN metastasis (P = .0001) and the size of the primary tumor (P = .038) were the only independent variables predicting NSN metastasis determined by using either hematoxylin and eosin staining or IHC. Only the number of SN metastases (1 vs. >1) was a significant (P = .04) predictor of IHC-detected NSN metastasis.",
"With the increasing use of sentinel lymph node biopsy, a growing proportion of women with early-stage invasive breast cancer are undergoing breast conserving surgery without a formal axillary lymph node dissection. A frequent question raised is whether the level I-II axillary lymph nodes are treated with standard breast tangent fields. In an attempt to answer this question, surgical clips placed at the time of the level I-II axillary lymph node dissection were used as a surrogate for the location of the nodes and the simulator films for tangent fields of 45 patients were analyzed. Study criteria were as follows: five or more clips placed in the axilla, and all clips and the humeral head visualized on the medial tangent film. Clips were scored as \"in\" or \"out\" of the tangent field, as defined by the delineator wires. All technical parameters were analyzed to determine whether any reproducible techniques would consistently include all of the clips and, hypothetically, the axillary nodes at levels I and II. All clips were included in the medial tangent breast radiation field in only 38% (17 of 45) of cases.",
"Since its inception, the sentinel lymph node technique has gained an increasingly important role in the conservative treatment of the breast carcinoma due to the short duration of the surgery, the decrease of post-operative pain, the risk of lymphedema onset and hospital confinement, the high predictive power and the diagnostic accuracy. We strongly believe that the sentinel lymph node technique is reliable and should be used routinely in selected cases.",
"yes. Sentinel node biopsy in breast cancer is a valid alternative to full axillary dissection for staging the axilla. Patients can make an informed choice to have SNB alone if they understand the limitations of the technique and possible consequences of these limitations. In melanoma SNB provides valuable prognostic information most melanoma patients prefer to have. Adequate self-audit is necessary before a patient can make an informed decision to have SNB in either disease.",
"Lymphoscintigraphy can be used to select patients with rectal cancer who will be helped by a lymphadenectomy extended to the obturator nodes. However, the concept of the sentinel node cannot be applied to rectal cancer.",
"The main study objective was to describe the distribution of sentinel lymph nodes (SLNs) and the prevalence of SLN micrometastases in patients with early cervical cancer. The secondary objective was to confirm the SLN detection rate and negative predictive value found in our preliminary study. We prospectively included 25 patients with early cervical cancer, each of whom received an injection of 120 MBq of technetium-99m for preoperative lymphoscintigraphy and intraoperative node detection using an endoscopic gamma probe. Patent blue dye was injected intraoperatively. SLNs were sought in the pelvic and para-aortic drainage areas. Radical iliac dissection was performed routinely at the end of the procedure. SLNs were examined after hematoxylin-eosin-saffron staining; negative specimens were assessed using immunohistochemistry. Most (85%) of the SLNs were in the inter-iliac territory. Para-aortic or parametrial SLNs were found respectively in 2 patients and common iliac SLNs in 5 patients. Thus 9/25 patients had additional information due to SLN detection. One metastasis and one micrometastasis were detected in SLNs. No patients had positive non-sentinel nodes with negative SLNs.",
"The status of the axillary lymph node(s) is an important prognostic factor in breast cancer and thus decisive in the indication for adjuvant treatment. This study investigated the extent to which examination of the sentinel node (SN) can individualize the need for axillary resection and the diagnosis of lymph nodes be optimized. 96 consecutive patients with breast cancer were studied (94 women, 2 men; mean age 59 [36-84] years) in whom no lymph node enlargement had been diagnosed clinically. After preoperative lymph-drainage scintigraphy with 99mTc Nanocoll combined with intraoperative scintillation probe detection the SN node was identified in 77 of the 96 patients and was removed. Subsequently the axillary lymph nodes in level I and II were removed by a standard technique and all removed lymph nodes and material then compared histologically. In nine of 77 patients with identifiable SN it was the only lymph node with metastasis. In 18 patients both the SN and other axillary lymph nodes were infiltrated. The SN and other axillary lymph nodes were free of metastases in 44 patients. In six patients the SN was not representative, since it was free of tumour, but other axillary nodes were not. Identification of a SN and prognostication of lymphogenic axillary metastases depended on tumour size. Among T3 and T4 tumours, ten of 16 had a verifiable SN, but in six of them it was not representative for axillary metastasization. But in 62 of 73 patients with tumours up to 5 cm in diameter without involvement of skin or chest wall (T1 and T2, respectively) a SN could be identified that was not representative for axillary metastases in only two cases.",
"Lymphoscintigraphy and SPECT/CT after consecutive intratumoral injections of tracer enable lymphatic mapping of each tumour separately in patients with multiple malignancies within one breast. The high incidence of additional sentinel nodes draining from tumours other than the largest one suggests that separate tumour-related tracer injections may be a more accurate approach to mapping and sampling of sentinel nodes in patients with multicentric or multifocal breast cancer.",
"The rising incidence of melanoma and the high prevalence of breast cancer have generated a new scientific problem-how do the regional lymph node basins function after radical lymphadenectomy and are lymphatic drainage patterns altered after radical lymphadenectomy? Furthermore, after radical lymphadenectomy, selective sentinel lymphadenectomy is still a technically feasible and valid staging tool in the upper extremity? Thus, our study asks if selective sentinel lymph node dissection is technically feasible after radical lymph node dissection of the regional draining basin of the upper extremity (axilla). Retrospective review of a prospectively maintained database of patients was reviewed to identify patients who had lymphoscintigraphy and sentinel lymph node biopsy of the upper extremity after a radical axillary node dissection procedure. Imaging and pathology results were analyzed. Seven patients fulfilling the inclusion criteria were identified. The patients all had either melanoma or invasive squamous cell carcinoma, and sentinel lymph nodes were identified in 6 out of 7 patients. One patient had metastases to 2 sentinel lymph nodes. Alternative drainage pathways were identified in 29% of patients, and 14% of patients had no identifiable drainage basin on lymphoscintigraphy.",
"Sentinel node biopsy often results in the identification and removal of multiple nodes as sentinel nodes, although most of these nodes could be non-sentinel nodes. This study investigated whether computed tomography-lymphography (CT-LG) can distinguish sentinel nodes from non-sentinel nodes and whether sentinel nodes identified by CT-LG can accurately stage the axilla in patients with breast cancer. This study included 184 patients with breast cancer and clinically negative nodes. Contrast agent was injected interstitially. The location of sentinel nodes was marked on the skin surface using a CT laser light navigator system. Lymph nodes located just under the marks were first removed as sentinel nodes. Then, all dyed nodes or all hot nodes were removed. The mean number of sentinel nodes identified by CT-LG was significantly lower than that of dyed and/or hot nodes removed (1.1 vs 1.8, p <0.0001). Twenty-three (12.5%) patients had ≥2 sentinel nodes identified by CT-LG removed, whereas 94 (51.1%) of patients had ≥2 dyed and/or hot nodes removed (p <0.0001). Pathological evaluation demonstrated that 47 (25.5%) of 184 patients had metastasis to at least one node. All 47 patients demonstrated metastases to at least one of the sentinel nodes identified by CT-LG.",
"yes. Lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymphadenectomy are feasible in GI neoplasms and identify aberrant lymphatic drainage. The SN status accurately reflects the regional node status. Focused analysis of the SN increases the detection of micrometastases and may improve selection of patients for adjuvant treatment.",
"yes. These findings suggest that frozen section is superior to imprint cytology for the intra-operative determination of sentinel lymph node metastasis in stage I breast cancer patients.",
"If the sentinel node (SN) concept is established for esophageal cancer, it will be possible to reduce safely the extent of lymphadenectomy. Our objective was to perform SN mapping in esophageal cancer to assess distribution of lymph node metastases with the goal to reduce the need for extensive lymphadenectomy. A total of 134 patients who underwent esophagectomy with lymph node dissection were enrolled. The number of patients with clinical T1, T2, and T3 tumors was 60, 31, and 32, respectively. Eleven patients also received neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy (CRT). (99m)Tc-Tin colloid was injected endoscopically into the esophageal wall around the tumor 1 day before surgery. SNs were identified by using radioisotope (RI) uptake. RI uptake of all dissected lymph nodes was measured during and after surgery. Lymph node metastases, including micrometastases, were confirmed by hematoxylin eosin and immunohistochemical staining. Detection rates of SNs were 93.3% in cT1, 100% in cT2, 87.5% in cT3, and 45.5% in CRT patients. In the 120 cases where SNs were identified, lymph node metastases were found in 12 patients with cT1, 18 with cT2, 24 with cT3 tumors, and 3 with CRT. Accuracy rate of SN mapping was 98.2% in cT1, 80.6% in cT2, 60.7% in cT3, and 40% in CRT patients. Although one false-negative case had cT1 tumor, the lymph node metastasis was detected preoperatively.",
"In melanoma patients, we define incomplete sentinel node biopsy (I-SNB) as when fewer lymph nodes are removed during sentinel node biopsy (SNB) than identified on preoperative lymphoscintigraphy (LS). This study quantifies the frequency of I-SNB and evaluates any correlation with patient outcomes. Evaluation of a prospective database of consecutive patients having LS and negative SNB from 1996 to 2006. Additional LS information was obtained from a nuclear medicine database. All statistical analyses were performed using the IBM SPSS Statistic 19.0 software package. I-SNB occurred in 20% of the cohort (n = 2007). For axillary (n = 895), groin (n = 569), and neck/axial patients (n = 334) I-SNB occurred in 12%, 26%, and 28% of cases, respectively (P < .001). On univariate analysis, there was a significant association between I-SNB and worse disease-free survival (DFS), P = .007 and trend toward worse melanoma-specific survival (MSS), P = .056. I-SNB was not associated with worse regional recurrence-free survival (RRFS), P = .144. There was no relationship between I-SNB and worse DFS, RRFS, or MSS on multivariate analysis. Sentinel node region (axilla better than groin and neck/axial) had a significant association with RRFS (P = .039) on univariate analysis and DFS on univariate (P = .009) and multivariate analysis. Significantly worse outcomes for MSS, DFS, and RRFS were seen with male gender, increasing age, high mitotic count, ulceration, and increasing Breslow thickness.",
"Sentinel node biopsy provides accurate staging and important prognostic information. The final place of sentinel node biopsy is still undefined, and therefore sentinel node biopsy is still considered as an experimental surgical staging procedure.",
"yes. Three stage axillary lymphatic massage improves the successful identification of a blue sentinel lymph node in breast cancer patients.",
"Sentinel node mapping is established in some superficial cancers but remains controversial in harder-to-access solid tumors. There are an increasing number of recent studies suggesting that isolated tumor cells have prognostic significance in predicting poor survival, in breast cancer, esophageal cancer, and others. It is for this reason that we have persevered with the sentinel lymph node concept in our esophagectomy cancer patients, and we report our results since 2008. Thirty-one of 32 consecutive patients underwent resection for invasive esophageal cancer along with sentinel lymph node retrieval (resection rate, 97%). Peritumoral injection of (99m)Tc antimony colloid was performed by upper endoscopy prior to the operation. A two-surgeon synchronous approach via a right thoracotomy and laparotomy was performed with a conservative lymphadenectomy. Sentinel lymph nodes were identified with a gamma probe both in and ex vivo, and sent off separately for three serial sections and immunohistochemistry with AE1/AE3. The median patient age was 63.4 years (range, 45-75 years). Most patients (81%) had an adenocarcinoma, and 61% had received neoadjuvant therapy. At least one sentinel lymph node (median, 3) was identified in 29 of 31 patients (success rate, 94%). Sentinel nodes were present in more than one nodal station in 16 patients (55%). One false negative case led to a sensitivity of 90%. In 28 of 29 patients, the sentinel lymph node accurately predicted findings in non-sentinel nodes (accuracy, 96%).",
"Our study found that there was no evidence that correlates intramammary tumour proximity to the nipple with the presence of axillary lymph node metastasis at diagnosis. However, known prognostic factors, such as lymphovascular invasion, surgical size, and younger age at diagnosis, are strong independent predictors for axillary lymph node involvement.",
"The study evaluates the necessity of dissecting the tissue between the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves (internerve tissue) during axillary dissection in breast cancer surgery. By reviewing the lymph node yield and the metastatic rate in the internerve tissue, we examine whether the internerve tissue could be left in situ to minimize the risk of nerve injury. A prospective study was conducted on 30 consecutive women undergoing axillary lymphadenectomy for breast cancer. The internerve tissue remaining was excised separately after a routine axillary dissection and was examined by the same pathologist. Twenty (67%) of 30 internerve specimens contained lymph nodes; the internerve nodes were positive for carcinoma in three cases (10%). In one case the lymph node in the internerve tissue was the only metastatic node in the axilla.",
"The primary objective was to assess the feasibility and accuracy of intraoperative sentinel lymph node mapping by using a video-assisted thoracoscopic indocyanine green fluorescence imaging system in patients with clinical stage I non-small-cell lung cancer. Thirty-one patients who underwent operation between January 2009 and September 2009 were investigated for sentinel node biopsy. Indocyanine green fluorescence imaging was applied by an infrared light charge-coupled device, and sentinel nodes were identified intraoperatively and dissected. Histologic examination by hematoxylin-eosin staining was used to evaluate metastases. Sentinel lymph nodes were identified by segmentectomy in 11 of 14 patients (78.5%) and by lobectomy in 14 of 17 patients (82.4%). The total identification rate was 80.7% (25/31 patients), the false-negative rate was 0% (0/24 patients), and the overall accuracy rate was 80.7% (25/31 patients).",
"Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) is a minimally invasive technique to stage the axillary lymph node status. The burden of nodal metastasis is of great concern, as the clinical relevance and therapeutic implications of pN1mi and pN0(i+) in the sentinel lymph node (SLN) remain a matter of debate. We examined the pathological features of 901 patients above the age of 65 presenting with clinical T1-T2 N0M0 breast tumours (<3 cm), detecting tumours related to llary non-sentinel node (NSN) metastases when the SLN was minimally involved. A total of 270 patients underwent complete axillary lymph node dissection (cALND) after their SLNB specimen tested positive for macrometastasis, micrometastasis and isolated tumour cells (ITCs). Seventy-six patients were diagnosed with micrometastatic disease pN1mi (27.5%), whilst ITCs (pN0i+) were detected in seven patients (2.5%). NSNs were found to be involved in two patients (2.6%) with micrometastases at the SLN. No further metastatic disease was detected in NSNs when the SLN contained ITCs. At a median follow-up period of 5.8 years, no axillary recurrence was observed among pN1mi and pN0(i+) patients. Lobular histotype, multicentricity and lymphovascular invasion were found to be associated with NSN involvement. The results from our case series are supported by IBCSG 23-01 level 1 evidence, which demonstrated a local recurrence rate of 1% in 'minimally involved not-surgical treated axilla'.",
"The presence of discontinuous or \"skip\" metastases in breast cancer is crucial for determining the optimal therapeutic choice. In this study, we compared the clinicopathological characteristics and prognosis of patients with or without skip metastases (SMs). We retrospectively analyzed the records of 1,502 breast cancer patients who underwent radical mastectomy and a separate group of 118 patients who had sentinel lymph node biopsies (SLNB). The median follow-up time was 10 years. Axillary lymph nodes (ALN) were involved in 814/1502 patients, and SMs was found in 119 patients (14.6%). Age, tumor size, location, clinical stage, and the proportion of interpectoral lymph node (IPN) metastases were similar in patients with or without SMs (p > .05). In stage I and II disease, the event-free survival rate of patients with SMs was significantly lower than patients without (p < .05); there was no significant difference in stage III patients (p > .05). The Cox multivariate analysis showed that the tumor size, number of lymphatic metastases, lymph node involvement, and SMs were important prognostic factors. The false-negative rate of SLNB was 12.0% (3/25).",
"yes. The different criteria for radioactive SLNs had different impact on the accuracy, sensitivity, and false negative rate, but not on the success rate, during sentinel node biopsy using radioactive sulfur colloid in breast cancer patients. The first four highest radioactive sentinel nodes could accurately predict the status of axillary metastases. J. Surg. Oncol. 2007;95:635-639. (c) 2007 Wiley-Liss, Inc.",
"To analyze concordance between preoperative lymphoscintigraphy and intraoperative lymphatic mapping (ILM) for sentinel lymph node identification using technetium 99m-labeled-dextran 500 (99m-Tc) and patent blue dye in patients with early cervical cancer undergoing radical hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy, as well as to evaluate sentinel lymph node (SLN) detection. Forty-seven patients underwent surgical treatment for cervical cancer. For SLN identification, 99m-Tc and blue patent were injected into the cervix on the eve and day of surgery, respectively. Preoperative pelvic lymphoscintigraphy was performed in all patients after 99m-Tc injection. Concordance between preoperative lymphoscintigraphy and ILM was evaluated. Of the 56 patients who underwent preoperative lymphoscintigraphy, 43 (81.13%) had at least one lymph node identified. Bilateral lymph nodes were identified in 21 (37.5%) patients. Sentinel lymph nodes detected on ILM had been previously found on preoperative lymphoscintigraphy in 66.7%, 67.2% and 0% in the right, left and central locations, respectively. In 14 patients (25%), only one lymph node was identified on preoperative lymphoscintigraphy, but more than one sentinel lymph node was detected on intraoperative mapping. In nine (16.1%) patients, lymphoscintigraphy showed only unilateral lymph nodes, but ILM identified bilateral sentinel lymph nodes.",
"To map sentinel lymph nodes (SLNs) detected by intracervical injection in patients with endometrial cancer and to determine the prevalence of node micrometastases. Radionuclide and blue dye injections were used for SLN detection in 43 patients with clinical stage I endometrial cancer. Lymphoscintigraphy was done before surgery. Intraoperatively, the pelvic and para-aortic territories were examined for blue and/or radioactive nodes. Pelvic lymphadenectomy was performed with or without para-aortic lymphadenectomy. SLNs stained with hematoxylin-eosin-saffron were examined and, when negative, evaluated using step sectioning and immunohistochemistry. Feasibility was 100%. No adverse effects occurred. SLNs were identified in 30 patients (69.8%), usually in an interiliac location (28/30 patients, 93.3%). SLNs were found only in the common iliac chain in 1 (3%) patient and in both the common iliac chain and promontory area in another (3%). No patients had para-aortic SLNs or SLNs confined to the promontory. Node metastases were identified in eight patients and were confined to SLNs in six. In 2 (2/30, 6%) patients, SLNs contained micrometastases. No false-negatives occurred.",
"Sentinel lymph node biopsy is the standard method for axillary lymph node staging in patients with early stage breast cancer. The aim of the study was to evaluate the necessity of axillary lymph node dissection in patients with breast cancer and sentinel lymph node micrometastasis or isolated tumor cells. Sentinel lymph node biopsy was performed in 136 patients for breast cancer staging: 16 of them (11.7%) were found to have micrometastasis or isolated tumor cells and underwent axillary lymph node dissection. Micrometastases were considered when tumor invasion was ≤ 2 mm and>0.2 mm in diameter and isolated tumor cells when detected alone or in clusters of<0.2 mm in diameter. The dissection of the three axillary lymph node levels of Berg was performed in all cases. Two patients (12.5%) presented isolated tumor cells and 14 (87.5%) micrometastasis in the sentinel lymph node. Among them, 25% presented nonsentinel axillary lymph node tumor invasion, whereas 75% had no further nodal involvement.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate whether clinicopathological features affect the success rate of identifying sentinel nodes using a combination method of dye and radioisotope in breast cancer patients. Sentinel node biopsy was performed in patients (n = 154) with stage I and II breast cancer using a combination method. The association between the clinicopathological features of breast cancer and the success rate in the identification of sentinel nodes was investigated. Sentinel nodes were successfully identified in 147 (95.5%) of the 154 patients. There was a concordance between the sentinel-node and axillary-node status in 146 (99.3%) of 147 cases. The false negative rate of the sentinel node biopsy was 2.4% (1/42). The identification rate of sentinel nodes was significantly (P = 0.005) lower in patients > or = 60 years (84.4%) than in those < 60 years (98.4%). The tumor size, histological node status, lympo-vascular invasion, history of previous surgical biopsy, operative procedure, tumor location, and histological type were not related with the identification rate of sentinel nodes. The mean count ratio of all hot nodes was 14.0 (range 2.0-73.6) in patients > or = 60 years and 73.4 (2.0-1700.6) in patients < 60 years, and this difference was statistically significant (P < 0.0001). In addition, the mean number of sentinel nodes was significantly (P = 0.0006) lower in patients > or = 60 years (1.3; range one to four) than in patients < 60 years (2.1; range one to 12).",
"There is uncertainty about the utility of sentinel node biopsy (SNB) for ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and its potential to avoid axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) in patients undergoing mastectomy for DCIS. A review was conducted of 179 patients who underwent mastectomy with sentinel node biopsy for DCIS without invasion or microinvasion on premastectomy pathology review. The sentinel node identification rate was 98.9% (177/179). Twenty (11.3%) of 177 mastectomies for DCIS had a positive SNB: two micrometastasis (pN1mi) and 18 isolated tumor cells [pN0(i+)]. Unsuspected invasive cancer was found in 20 (11.2%) of 179 mastectomies, eight T1mic, five T1a, three T1b, and four T1c tumors. Sentinel nodes were identified in 19 of 20 patients with invasive cancer and four were positive: one pN1mi and three pN0(i+). Eighteen of 19 patients with unsuspected invasive cancer were able to avoid axillary dissection on the basis of SNB results. Of the 159 patients whose final pathology revealed DCIS without invasion, a sentinel node was identified in 158 (99.4%). The SNB was positive in 16 patients (10.1%): one pN1mi and 15 pN0(i+). Three patients underwent ALND on the basis of positive SNBs and in each the SNB was the only positive node.",
"We sought to identify the risk of axillary node involvement in patients with ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) and to determine whether axillary node assessment is necessary in these patients. Sentinel node biopsy (SNB) is replacing standard axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) for surgical staging of invasive breast cancer. Its use in patients with DCIS versus local excision (LE), observation, and/or breast irradiation remains in question. We examined the records of 813 patients with localized DCIS and disease-negative margins after LE who were randomly assigned to no further therapy or to breast irradiation in National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project (NSABP) trial B-17 and 1799 patients randomized to receive placebo or tamoxifen after LE + radiotherapy in NSABP trial B-24. An ALND was performed in 253 patients in NSABP B-17 and in 162 in NSABP B-24. We found that in NSABP trial B-17, seven patients developed ipsilateral nodal recurrence (INR). Overall INR rate was 0.83/1000 patient-years. In NSABP B-24, overall INR rate was 0.36/1000 patient-years. INR can be considered a surrogate for axillary involvement at the time of DCIS diagnosis.",
"yes. In early-stage vulvar cancer patients with a negative sentinel node, the groin recurrence rate is low, survival is excellent, and treatment-related morbidity is minimal. We suggest that sentinel node dissection, performed by a quality-controlled multidisciplinary team, should be part of the standard treatment in selected patients with early-stage vulvar cancer.",
"Pursuit of IMC sentinel nodes improves the staging of patients with breast cancer and enables treatment to be better adjusted to the needs of the individual patient.",
"yes. S-stages of positive SN are highly predictive for axillary nonsentinel node status. Especially patients with SI sentinel node metastases appear to be at low risk for further nonsentinel node metastases.",
"Early dynamic protocol of pre-operative lymphoscintigraphy is helpful to clarify the relationship between the local lymphatic drainage basin and sentinel nodal uptake. However, this short period of protocol is not always achievable to detect sentinel node, especially in the group with breast malignant lesions.",
"yes. Isolated gamma probe technique for sentinel node penile carcinoma has a very low sensibility and a high false negative rate. Therefore it is highly advisable the addition of others methods such as lymphoscintigraphy, vital blue, ultrasonography and so on. The isolated gamma probe technique for sentinel node penile carcinoma detection is unreliable.",
"In T1 tumors, axillary lymph node dissection will overtreat almost 75% of cases; therefore a sentinel lymph node biopsy is justified in these tumors. Sentinel lymph node biopsy has been shown to reduce the complications of formal axillary dissection, such as shoulder stiffness, pain, and lymphedema. In patients with T2 tumors, where almost 45% have lymph node involvement, sentinel node biopsy may not be cost effective.",
"no. Multilevel sectioning followed by cytokeratin immunohistochemistry may identify additional patients who have lymph node micrometastases; in the current study, this technique identified cases in which micrometastases were present in nonsentinel lymph nodes even when sentinel lymph nodes were found to be negative for disease on biopsy. This high false-negative rate associated with sentinel lymph node biopsy, raises questions regarding the validity of the sentinel lymph node concept in cervical carcinoma.",
"The biopsy of sentinel lymph node is a feasible procedure in endometrial cancer. There was one micrometastatic sentinel node. However there was no isolated lomboaortic sentinel lymph node in this study.",
"yes. Sentinel lymph node procedure with the combined technique is highly accurate in predicting the inguinofemoral lymph node status in patients with early-stage vulvar cancer. Future trials should focus on the safe clinical implementation of the sentinel lymph node procedure in these patients. Step sectioning and immunohistochemistry slightly increase the sensitivity of detecting metastases in sentinel lymph nodes and should be included in these trials.",
"Results suggest that micrometastasis or isolated tumor cells of the sentinel lymph node represent the only site of cancer involvement of the axilla, especially in patients with early breast tumors, and that axillary lymph node dissection may be unnecessary in these cases and represent an overtreatment.",
"yes. Mesenteric sentinel nodes provide important information about locoregional immunology and pathogenesis in inflammatory bowel disease.",
"The aim of this study was to assess concordance between the indocyanine green (ICG) method and (99m)Tc-radiotracer method to identify the sentinel node (SN) in breast cancer. Evidence supports the feasibility and efficacy of the ICG to identify the SN, however this method has not been prospectively compared with the gold-standard radiotracer method in terms of SN detection rate. Between June 2011 and January 2013, 134 women with clinically node-negative early breast cancer received subdermal/peritumoral injection of (99m)Tc-labeled tracer for lymphoscintigraphy, followed by intraoperative injection of ICG for fluorescence detection of SNs using an exciting light source combined with a camera. In all patients, SNs were first identified by the fluorescence method (ICG-positive) and removed. A gamma ray-detecting probe was then used to determine whether ICG-positive SNs were hot ((99m)Tc-positive) and to identify and remove any (99m)Tc-positive (ICG-negative) SNs remaining in the axilla. The study was powered to perform an equivalence analysis. The 134 patients provided 246 SNs, detected by one or both methods. 1, 2 and 3 SNs, respectively, were detected, removed and examined in 70 (52.2%), 39 (29.1%) and 17 (12.7%) patients; 4-10 SNs were detected and examined in the remaining 8 patients. The two methods were concordant for 230/246 (93.5%) SNs and discordant for 16 (6.5%) SNs. The ICG method detected 99.6% of all SNs.",
"yes. In our study overall detection of sentinel nodes using a dye was high. The diluted solution of Patent Blue led to a higher detection rate of parametrial sentinel nodes. These findings might help explain the discrepancy between the high reported rate of parametrial lymph nodes in anatomical studies compared with the low rates in clinical sentinel series.",
"yes. A significantly higher identification rate of sentinel node biopsy and lymphoscintigraphy can be achieved by intradermal injection of Tc-99m tin colloid with a large particle size than by subdermal injection.",
"yes. Sentinel lymph node dissection can be performed with high identification rates regardless of patient age. Breast cancer patients 70 years and older with clinically negative axillary lymph nodes should be offered SLND, as the presence of lymph node metastasis may alter adjuvant therapy recommendations.",
"Although the status of the regional lymph nodes is an important determinant of prognosis in breast cancer, harvesting sentinel nodes (SN) detected in the internal mammary chain (IMC) is still controversial. To determine in how many patients a positive IMC-SN might change the systemic or locoregional adjuvant therapy, with a possible benefit in outcome. During 6 1/2 years data of T1-2 breast cancer patients, having an SN procedure, were prospectively collected. Our policy was not to explore the IMC even if it was the only localization of an SN. In 86 of 571 patients lymphoscintigraphy showed an IMC-SN. In 64 of these, the axillary SN was negative and only 25 of these patients did not have an indication for adjuvant systemic treatment based on their tumor characteristics. In the literature, IMC metastases are found in 0-10% of axillary negative patients. Routine IMC-SN biopsies would have resulted in an indication for adjuvant systemic therapy in 2-3 of our patients. Four parasternal recurrences were found during a median follow-up of 51 months.",
"Internal mammary (IM) nodes are a potential site of breast lymphatic drainage. We examined the relationship between lymphoscintigraphic evidence of IM drainage and survival in early-stage breast cancer patients (pts). From a prospective database of 855 consecutive sentinel node mapping procedures using peritumoral radiocolloid injection from 1996-2004, we analyzed the 604 cases with stage I-III breast cancer. Overall survival and recurrence-free survival (OS, RFS) rates were compared in pts with (IM+) and without (IM-) IM drainage on lymphoscintigraphy using Kaplan-Meier plots and Cox proportional hazards models. 100 of 604 pts (17%) showed IM drainage. Five-year OS and RFS were 92% vs 88% and 88% vs 85% in IM- vs IM+ pts. In the 186 pts with axillary metastases (node+), 5-year OS and RFS were 91% vs 71% and 84% vs 69% in IM- vs IM+ pts. Univariate analysis of node+ pts estimated increased mortality risk for IM+ (hazard ratio, HR 2.9, P = .04), >or=4 positive nodes (HR 3.2, P = .02), tumors that were ER-negative (HR 3.4, P = .02), or had high Ki-67 (HR 6.8, P = .01). Multivariate analysis estimated similar increased risks [>or=4 nodes (HR 4.0, P = .02), IM+ (HR 3.3, P = .06), and ER negativity (HR 2.6, P = .09)].",
"yes. CT-LG can distinguish sentinel nodes from non-sentinel nodes, and sentinel nodes identified by CT-LG can accurately stage the axilla in patients with breast cancer. Successful identification of sentinel nodes using CT-LG may facilitate image-based diagnosis of metastasis, possibly leading to the omission of sentinel node biopsy.",
"no. Sentinel node mapping with isosulfan blue dye and routine processing of retrieved nodes does not improve staging accuracy in patients with intraperitoneal colon cancer. Even using best-case assumptions, the percentage of patients who would potentially benefit from sentinel lymph node mapping is small.",
"The combination of preoperative gamma probe sentinel node detection and ultrasound-guided biopsy could represent a valid alternative to intraoperative sentinel node biopsy in clinically and ultrasonographically negative axillary nodes, resulting in shorter duration of surgery and lower intraoperative risks.",
"Although the numbers were small, this study showed that the sentinel lymph node procedure is capable of identifying patients who have occult lymph node metastases and who may benefit from lymphadenectomy for locoregional control and prevention of distant metastases. However, the data also suggest that the sentinel lymph node procedure may increase the risk of locoregional recurrences (in-transit metastases), especially in patients with thick melanomas. The potential role of the sentinel lymph node procedure as an alternative method of lymph node staging in patients with vulvar melanoma needs further investigation only within the protection of clinical trials and probably should be restricted to patients with melanomas with intermediate thickness (1-4 mm).",
"no. Sentinel lymph node mapping shows low sensitivity for detection of ordinary metastases, micrometastases, and submicrometastases. If only the sentinel nodes had been examined, approximately half of the metastases would have been lost after routine staining, as well as half of the micrometastases and submicrometastases when immunohistochemical examination was added.",
"The combined intraoperative injection technique with radioisotope and blue dye is fast enough to identify the ovarian sentinel node(s). The stained nodes were consistently located on a certain lymphatic area. The sentinel node concept for the early ovarian cancer deserves more attention.",
"yes. The probability of not detecting the sentinel lymph node during the surgical intervention is higher in patients with high histologic grade tumors or in patients in whom preoperative lymphoscintigraphy failed to detect the sentinel node.",
"yes. Intraoperative injection of Tc99 alone with a subareolar or dermal injection technique rapidly localizes the sentinel node in breast cancer, is an oncologically sound procedure, is cost effective and facilitates operative room time management.",
"yes. Sentinel lymph node dissection is a safe and efficacious treatment option for patients with early breast cancer. It provides excellent regional control and is associated with excellent survival. A multicenter trial such as the American College of Surgeons Oncology Group Z0010 is needed to corroborate findings of this single-institution study.",
"yes. Sentinel node detection in MIBC is feasible also in NAC patients, regardless of pT stage. SNd played no role in nodal staging.",
"yes. In penile carcinoma additional nodal involvement was related to the size of the metastasis in the sentinel node. Sentinel node micrometastasis was not associated with other involved lymph nodes. This finding suggests that these patients can be spared complementary lymph node dissection.",
"yes. Video-assisted thoracoscopic indocyanine green fluorescence image-guided surgery is feasible for sentinel node biopsy and may be a powerful tool to eliminate unnecessary lymph node dissection in patients with lung cancer.",
"Although radioisotope intrathoracic lymph node mapping is safe, it appears to be unsuitable for sentinel node biopsy because shine-through and the airway-migrated radioactive tracer complicated the intrathoracic counting. Only serial scintigraphy could distinguish hot nodes from airway migration.",
"If a primary breast tumor is small and if sentinel node involvement is micrometastatic, then tumor cells are unlikely to be found in other axillary lymph nodes. This suggests that axillary lymph node dissection may not be necessary in patients with sentinel node micrometastases from T1/T2 lesions, or in patients with sentinel node metastases from T1a lesions.",
"yes. Sentinel lymph node dissection is technically feasible after previous axillary dissection. Lymphoscintigraphy is an important perioperative tool as lymphatic drainage may be altered or not observed as evidenced in 43% of the studied patients. However, when lymphatic drainage is detected by lymphoscintigraphy, pathologically significant sentinel lymph nodes are surgically identifiable.",
"In upper quadrants or deep breast cancers the interpectoral nodes may be the earliest site of nodal metastasis. This may lead to false negative results in some sentinel node biopsies.",
"This study was designed to determine if interpectoral nodes could be sentinel nodes for some breast cancers. Thirty-five consecutive breast cancer patients undergoing axillary node dissection had a dissection of the interpectoral nodes. These were sent to pathology as a separate specimen. Three patients were identified with isolated interpectoral nodal metastasis."
] | 452 |
Do subjects with asthma have greater perception of acute bronchoconstriction than smokers with airflow limitation? | [
"Smokers who develop chronic airflow limitation (CAL) do not usually present for medical attention until their lung disease is well advanced. In contrast, asthmatic subjects experience acute symptoms and present for care early in the course of their disease. The aim of this study was to determine whether subjects with asthma differ from smokers with CAL in their ability to perceive acute methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction. Thirteen subjects with diagnosed asthma and 10 current smokers with CAL, defined as forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1)<75% predicted and FEV1/forced vital capacity<80%, with no previous diagnosis of asthma, were challenged with methacholine. Symptom severity was recorded on a Borg scale. Lung volumes were measured before challenge and after the FEV1 had fallen by 20%. After methacholine falls in FEV1 were similar in the asthmatic subjects and smokers. The regression lines relating change in FEV1 to symptom score were significantly steeper in asthmatic subjects than smokers (0.13 +/- 0.04, 0.03 +/- 0.04, respectively, P<0.01). At 20% fall in FEV1 there were no significant differences between asthmatic subjects and smokers in the magnitude of change of lung volumes.",
"In asthmatic subjects, symptoms are closely related to change in FEV1. In smokers with CAL, symptoms change little during bronchial challenge despite large changes in FEV1. The differences in perception between the two subject groups are not due to differences in acute hyperinflation during challenge. We propose that heavy smokers may adapt to poor lung function, or may have damaged sensory nerves as a result of prolonged cigarette smoking."
] | [
"Airway eosinophilia is one of the hallmarks of asthma. Eotaxin may play an important role in eosinophil recruitment. To examine the relationship between eotaxin levels in the sputum and eosinophilic inflammation. The sputum was obtained from 11 non-smokers, 14 smokers and 13 asthmatic patients using a sputum induction method. Eotaxin and interleukin (IL)-5 levels in the sputum were determined by ELISA and immunocytochemical analysis. Asthmatic patients had eosinophilia and smokers showed neutrophilia in their sputum. The eotaxin level in the sputum was significantly higher in smokers (median 412.5, range 91.1-872.2 pg/ml) and asthmatic patients (351.0, 185.0-928.0 pg/ml) compared with non-smokers (123.2, 0-369.0 pg/ml; both p < 0.05). IL-5 was detected in the sputum of 1 non-smoker, none of the smokers and 4 asthmatic patients. The percentage of eotaxin-positive cells was higher in smokers and asthmatic patients than in non-smokers, but the percentage of IL-5-positive cells was significantly higher only in asthmatic patients (p < 0.05).",
"Allergic asthma is consistently associated with increased FE(NO) levels whereas divergence exists regarding the use of exhaled nitric oxide (NO) as marker of inflammation in nonallergic asthma and in asthmatic smokers. The aim of this study is to analyze the effect of having allergic or nonallergic asthma on exhaled nitric oxide levels, with special regard to smoking history. Exhaled NO measurements were performed in 695 subjects from Turin (Italy), Gothenburg and Uppsala (both Sweden). Current asthma was defined as self-reported physician-diagnosed asthma with at least one asthma symptom or attack recorded during the last year. Allergic status was defined by using measurements of specific immunoglobulin E (IgE). Smoking history was questionnaire-assessed. Allergic asthma was associated with 91 (60, 128) % [mean (95% CI)] increase of FE(NO) while no significant association was found for nonallergic asthma [6 (-17, 35) %] in univariate analysis, when compared to nonatopic healthy subjects. In a multivariate analysis for never-smokers, subjects with allergic asthma had 77 (27, 145) % higher FE(NO) levels than atopic healthy subjects while subjects with nonallergic asthma had 97 (46, 166) % higher FE(NO) levels than nonatopic healthy subjects. No significant asthma-related FE(NO) increases were noted for ex- and current smokers in multivariate analysis.",
"yes. Despite having no clinical symptoms of a lower airway allergic response (cough and wheeze) allergic non-asthmatic subjects have a pulmonary response to allergen exposure which manifests as reduced ventilation and perfusion.",
"Indoor particulate matter (PM) has been linked to respiratory symptoms in former smokers with COPD. While subjects with COPD and atopy have also been shown to have more frequent respiratory symptoms, whether they exhibit increased susceptibility to PM as compared to their non-atopic counterparts remains unclear. The aim of this study was to determine whether atopic individuals with COPD have greater susceptibility to PM compared to non-atopic individuals with COPD. Former smokers with moderate to severe COPD were enrolled (n = 77). PM2.5, PM with diameter <2.5 micrometers, was measured in the main living area over three one-week monitoring periods at baseline, 3, and 6 months. Quality of life, respiratory symptoms and medication use were assessed by questionnaires. Serum was analyzed for specific IgE for mouse, cockroach, cat, dog and dust mite allergens. Atopy was established if at least one test was positive. Interaction terms between PM and atopy were tested and generalized estimating equation analysis determined the effect of PM concentrations on health outcomes. Multivariate models were adjusted for age, sex, education, race, season, and baseline lung function and stratified by atopic status. Among atopic individuals, each 10 μg/m(3) increase in PM was associated with higher risk of nocturnal symptoms (OR, 1.95; P = 0.02), frequent wheezing (OR, 2.49; P = 0.02), increased rescue medication use (β = 0.14; P = 0.02), dyspnea (β = 0.23; P < 0.001), higher St. George's Respiratory Quality of Life score (β = 2.55; P = 0.01), and higher breathlessness, cough, and sputum score (BCSS) (β = 0.44; P = 0.01). There was no association between PM and health outcomes among the non-atopic individuals. Interaction terms between PM2.5 and atopy were statistically significant for nocturnal symptoms, frequency of rescue medication use, and BCSS (all P < 0.1).",
"yes. The physical score was significantly lower in asthmatics compared to subjects without asthma. Importantly, non-smoking and well-controlled asthmatics have similar HRQL compared to subjects without asthma. Thus, subjects with asthma should be supported to achieve and maintain good asthma control and if they smoke, be offered smoking cessation as means to improve their HRQL.",
"In the exercise challenge test (ECT), a drop in forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV(1)) of between 10 and 15% is the determinant variable for a diagnosis of exercise-induced bronchospasm. The use of FEV(1) plus mean forced expiratory flow between 25% and 75% of the forced vital capacity (FEF(25-75%)) may increase the sensitivity of the ECT in asthmatic children. To compare FEV(1) and FEF(25-75%) changes in a group of asthmatic and healthy children. This was a cross-sectional study. Asthmatics were categorized by their severity (GINA) and after 1 month without controller therapy, an ECT was done under standard protocol. As well, a questionnaire about rhinitis and asthma was conducted with the entire population. ROC curves were used for analysis. A total of 147 children (34 healthy and 113 asthmatics, 18 and 58 males, respectively) were evaluated. Divided into healthy children and intermittent, mild and moderate persistent asthmatics, they had similar average ages (9.4, 9.48, 8.97, and 11.2 years, respectively). Using a 15% fall in FEV(1), we obtained 29% sensitivity and 100% specificity. However, when we used a 10% fall in FEV(1), sensitivity was 47% and specificity was 97%. Adding a 28% fall in FEF(25-75%), sensitivity was 52% and specificity was 94%.",
"Respiratory symptoms are common in the general population, and their presence is related to Health-related quality of life (HRQoL). The objective was to describe the association of respiratory symptoms with HRQoL in subjects with and without asthma or COPD and to investigate the role of atopy, bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR), and lung function in HRQoL. The European Community Respiratory Health Survey (ECRHS) I and II provided data on HRQoL, lung function, respiratory symptoms, asthma, atopy, and BHR from 6009 subjects. Generic HRQoL was assessed through the physical component summary (PCS) score and the mental component summary (MCS) score of the SF-36.Factor analyses and linear regressions adjusted for age, gender, smoking, occupation, BMI, comorbidity, and study centre were conducted. Having breathlessness at rest in ECRHS II was associated with mean score (95% CI) impairment in PCS of -8.05 (-11.18, -4.93). Impairment in MCS score in subjects waking up with chest tightness was -4.02 (-5.51, -2.52). The magnitude of HRQoL impairment associated with respiratory symptoms was similar for subjects with and without asthma/COPD. Adjustments for atopy, BHR, and lung function did not explain the association of respiratory symptoms and HRQoL in subjects without asthma and/or COPD.",
"Smoking prevalence is frequently estimated on the basis of self-reported smoking status. That can lead to an underestimation of smoking rates. The aim of this study was to evaluate the difference between self-reported smoking status and that determined through the use of objective measures of smoking at a pulmonary outpatient clinic. This was a cross-sectional study involving 144 individuals: 51 asthma patients, 53 COPD patients, 20 current smokers, and 20 never-smokers. Smoking status was determined on the basis of self-reports obtained in interviews, as well as through tests of exhaled carbon monoxide (eCO) and urinary cotinine. All of the asthma patients and COPD patients declared they were not current smokers. In the COPD and asthma patients, the median urinary cotinine concentration was 167 ng/mL (range, 2-5,348 ng/mL) and 47 ng/mL (range, 5-2,735 ng/mL), respectively (p<0.0001), whereas the median eCO level was 8 ppm (range, 0-31 ppm) and 5 ppm (range, 2-45 ppm), respectively (p<0.05). In 40 (38%) of the patients with asthma or COPD (n = 104), there was disagreement between the self-reported smoking status and that determined on the basis of the urinary cotinine concentration, a concentration>200 ng/mL being considered indicative of current smoking. In 48 (46%) of those 104 patients, the self-reported non-smoking status was refuted by an eCO level>6 ppm, which is also considered indicative of current smoking. In 30 (29%) of the patients with asthma or COPD, the urinary cotinine concentration and the eCO level both belied the patient claims of not being current smokers.",
"yes. Cigarette smoke enhances acute allergic inflammation and delays, but does not abrogate the development of tolerance due to prolonged challenge with inhaled antigen in experimental asthma.",
"To evaluate lung involvement in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Sixty one consecutive, non-smoking patients, 58 women and three men, were evaluated clinically, physiologically, and radiologically. A bronchial and/or transbronchial biopsy was performed on 13 of the patients. Physiological data were compared with that of a control group of 53 healthy non-smoking subjects matched for age and sex. In 41% of the patients the main symptom was dry cough. Physiological studies revealed that the patients presented significantly lower expiratory flow values (% pred) when compared with those of the control group: the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) (mean (SD)) was 96% (16) v 111% (13) (p < 0.0001), the maximal expiratory flow at the 50% of the vital capacity (MEF50) was 72% (24) v 103% (17) (p < 0.0001), and the maximal expiratory flow at the 25% of the vital capacity (MEF25) was 49% (25) v 98% (20) (p < 0.0001). No significant difference was noted for the carbon monoxide diffusion value (% pred), between patients and controls. Blood gases were evaluated in 44 patients: mild hypoxemia was observed, and the alveolo-arterial oxygen difference (P(A-a)O2) correlated significantly with MEF50 (r = 0.35, p < 0.01) and MEF25 (r = 0.33, p < 0.01) values. Chest radiography showed mild, interstitial-like changes in 27 patients while slightly increased markings were present in 21. High resolution computed tomography of the lungs was performed in 32 patients (four with a normal chest radiograph, six with suspected interstitial pattern, 19 with apparent interstitial pattern, and three with hyperinflation) and revealed predominantly wall thickening at the segmental bronchi. All positive findings by computed tomography derived from the patients with abnormal chest radiographs. Transbronchial and/or endobronchial biopsy specimens in 10 of the 11 sufficient tissue samples revealed peribronchial and/or peribronchiolar mononuclear inflammation, while interstitial inflammation coexisted in two patients.",
"A substantial number of adult patients with asthma are inadequately controlled despite the availability of effective asthma treatment. Patients and physicians seem to overestimate the level of asthma control. The current study explores whether valid differentiation is possible between asthma patients with controlled and uncontrolled asthma symptoms, on the basis of the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ). In this multi-centre, cross-sectional study, patients were classified according to Global Initiative for Asthma criteria into levels of asthma symptom control based on a diary card registration. We defined Step 1 ('well controlled' asthma symptoms), Step 2 ('moderately controlled'), Step 3 ('poorly controlled') and Step 4 ('very poorly controlled'). These control steps were related with the sum score of the ACQ. From 108 asthma patients complete data were obtained. The Step 1 subgroup comprised 17 patients; Step 2, 12 patients; Step 3, 22 patients; and Step 4, 57 patients. Receiver Operating Characteristic curve analysis showed that the optimal ACQ sum score cut-off value to differentiate between Step 1 and Steps 2, 3 and 4 was three points (sensitivity: 84%, specificity: 76%). For Steps 1 and 2 versus Steps 3 and 4, this was four points (sensitivity: 77%, specificity: 59%). For Steps 1, 2 and 3 versus Step 4, this was six points (sensitivity: 70%, specificity: 74%).",
"The aim of the study was to determine whether the forced oscillation technique (FOT), which does not require active cooperation, may be useful to assess bronchial responsiveness in patients with suspected occupational asthma (OA). Changes in resistances evaluated by FOT, and DeltaFEV1 measured during methacholine challenge test were compared in 77 adults referred for suspected OA. Spearman correlations and ROC curves were used. R0 at the final dose of methacholine (R0hmd) and DeltaR0 were strongly correlated with DeltaFEV1 (p<0.001). The ROC curves showed that R0hmd>or= 240% predicted was the best cut-off value to discriminate subjects with OA from nonasthmatic subjects (sensitivity: 80%, specificity: 76%).",
"These data confirm decreased antioxidant capacity in smokers and patients with COPD, indicating the presence of systemic oxidative stress. However, no relationship was found between protein thiols or TEAC levels and measurements of airflow limitation in either smokers or in patients with COPD.",
"Asthmatic patients with a limited smoking history benefit from treatment with budesonide/formoterol maintenance and reliever therapy with dosing 2 × 2 being superior to 1 × 2.",
"Smoking has been associated with decreased incidence and prevalence of sarcoidosis, but few studies have evaluated effects of smoking on clinical parameters of the disease. The objectives were to determine the association of smoking with radiographic patterns and to evaluate the associations of these smoking-related radiographic patterns on airflow obstruction in sarcoidosis. Clinical data and computed tomography (CT) scans of 124 patients with sarcoidosis were reviewed. CT scans were assessed for lymph nodes, nodules, bronchiectasis, bronchovascular bundle thickening, displaced hilum, fibrosis, ground glass, emphysema, pleural changes, and alveolar opacities. CT patterns were compared between patients with and without a history of smoking. The effect of smoking on the associations between radiographic patterns and airflow obstruction was assessed with multivariable analysis. Smokers had less frequency of bronchovascular bundle thickening than nonsmokers (11/38 subjects [29%] vs 50/86 subjects [58%], P = .003) and more emphysema (7/38 subjects [18%] vs 1/86 subjects [1%], P = .001). Patients who had bronchovascular bundle thickening were less likely to have ever smoked (11/61 subjects [18%] vs 27/63 subjects [43%], P = .003) or be current smokers (4/61 subjects [7%] vs 15/63 subjects [24%], P = .008). Age (P = .003) and bronchovascular bundle thickening (P = .02) were independent predictors of airflow obstruction. There were no differences in smoking history between patients with airflow obstruction versus those without (10/37 subjects [27%] vs 28/87 subjects [32%], P = .63).",
"Patients with asthma have on average a more rapid decline in FEV (1) as compared with the general population. Recent cluster analysis has revealed different asthma phenotypes that can be distinguished by age of onset and reversibility of airflow limitation. This study aimed at detecting risk factors associated with persistent airflow limitation in patients with the adult onset asthma phenotype. We recruited 88 patients with adult onset (≥ 18 years) asthma from an academic pulmonary outpatient clinic in the Netherlands. The associations of age, age of asthma onset, asthma duration, gender, race, atopy, smoking pack-years, BMI, use of oral corticosteroids with post-bronchodilator FEV (1) /FVC were investigated. Multiple linear regression analysis showed an association of absence of atopy (r = -0.27, B = -0.26, P = 0.01) and male gender (r = 0.31, B = 0.30, P = 0.004) with post-bronchodilator FEV (1) /FVC. Multiple logistic regression analysis showed that male patients were 10.8 (CI: 2.6-45.2) times the odds than women to have an FEV (1) /FVC < 0.7, and non-atopic patients were 5.2 (CI: 1.3-20.3) times the odds to have an FEV (1) /FVC < 0.7 than atopic patients.",
"Some subjects with suspected asthma and a negative exercise challenge test (ECT) demonstrate improved expiratory flow rates after administration of bronchodilators (BD) at the end of the ECT (unpublished observation). This study investigated whether this response predicts the presence of bronchial hyperreactivity (BHR). The study population included 133 young adults (29.4% women) 21.1 +/- 4.2 years of age who underwent ECT and a methacholine challenge test (MCT). A receiver-operator-characteristic curve was used to calculate the optimal cutoff level of the response to BD as a predictor of BHR according to MCT. Using a MCT cutoff level of PC(20) </= 4 mg/mL showed BHR in 12.8% of subjects. Failure to improve FEV(1) by 8% after BD administration predicted the absence of BHR with sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values of 76.5%, 68.4%, 25.3%, and 95.5%, respectively. Avoiding MCT in subjects with less than 8% response to BD would have saved 62.5% of the MCTs and would have missed only four (3%) patients with BHR.",
"Bronchial hyper-responsiveness in a military population has been evaluated by direct and indirect challenge methods. We hypothesized that negative methacholine challenge testing (MCT) was not sufficient to exclude significant bronchial hyper-responsiveness in a symptomatic military population with exertional dyspnea. The purpose of our study was to identify bronchial hyper-responsiveness in symptomatic military recruits and active duty personnel with normal baseline spirometry and negative pharmacologic bronchoprovocation testing. We performed a retrospective single center electronic chart review of symptomatic service members with a negative MCT who completed a subsequent exercise challenge test (ECT). ECT was positive in 45 (26.4%) of 171 subjects (98 recruits). Subjects with a positive ECT had lower baseline forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), forced vital capacity (FVC) and FEV1/FVC than those with a negative ECT, and these differences were statistically significant. The mean drop in FEV1 with exercise challenge positive patients was 17.9 ± 9.2%, and the mean drop in FEV1 with MCT was significantly greater in exercise challenge positive patients (-9.5 ± 5.5 vs. -7.6 ± 5.5, p = 0.042). Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction (EIB) was observed in 41% of all recruits who subsequently did not complete training. Only 1 recruit subject of 28 with EIB completed training.",
"Smoking induces airway inflammation and relative resistance to inhaled steroids. The objective of this study was to evaluate the effects on airway hyperresponsiveness of adding salmeterol to fluticasone vs doubling the dose of fluticasone in patients with asthma who smoked and patients with asthma who did not smoke. Sixteen patients with mild to moderate persistent asthma who did not smoke and 15 such patients who smoked completed a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled crossover study. They received either a fluticasone/salmeterol combination (FP/SM) (125/25 μg) two puffs bid (plus fluticasone placebo), or active fluticasone (250 μg) two puffs bid (plus FP/SM placebo), for 2 weeks each, with baselines after 1-week to 2-week run-in and washout periods. The primary outcome was the change from baseline in the provocative concentration of methacholine required to produce a 20% fall in FEV(1) (PC(20)). In the patients who did not smoke, there were similar improvements in the methacholine PC(20) with the use of fluticasone and FP/SM. The patients who smoked gained a benefit from FP/SM but not fluticasone, amounting to a PC(20) difference of 1.6 doubling dilutions (95% CI, 1.0-2.2), P < .01. The provocative dose of mannitol required to produce a 15% fall in FEV(1) (PD(15)) showed greater improvements with FP/SM than fluticasone in both patients who smoked and did not smoke. Similar differences in airway caliber between those who smoked and did not smoke were observed in FEV(1) and airway resistance.",
"Airway remodeling in asthma and COPD results in bronchial wall thickening. The thickness of the bronchial wall can be measured in high-resolution computed tomography. The objectives of the study were to assess the bronchial lumen and wall dimensions in asthma and COPD patients, in relation to disease severity, and to compare the airway dimensions in patients with asthma and COPD. Ten asthma subjects and 12 COPD subjects with stable, mild to moderate disease were investigated. All subjects underwent chest high-resolution computed tomography (window level - 450 Hounsfield units, window width 1,500 Hounsfield units). Cross-sections of bronchi (external diameter 1.0-5.0 mm) were identified on enlarged images. The following variables were measured: external and internal diameter, wall area, lumen area, total airway area, the percentage of airway wall area, wall thickness, and the ratio of wall thickness to external diameter. Separate sub-analyses were performed for airways with external diameter ≤ 2.0 mm and external diameter>2.0 mm. We measured 261 and 348 cross-sections of small airways in subjects with asthma and COPD, respectively. There was a significant difference in wall thickness and wall area, which were both greater in asthmatics than in COPD patients. In bronchi with external diameter>2.0 mm, all measured parameters were significantly higher in asthma than COPD. In individual asthmatics the airway wall thickness was similar in all the assessed bronchi, while in COPD it was related to the external airway diameter.",
"yes. Asthmatic young adults seem to experience somewhat more limitations in their vocational and professional careers. Nonetheless, the majority of the young asthmatics seem to be only slightly limited in their careers. In non-asthmatic young adults the presence of asymptomatic bronchial hyperresponsiveness does not seem to lead to career limitations.",
"To investigate whether the bronchodilatory effect of deep inspiration is impaired in subjects with COPD. We measured deep inspiration-induced bronchodilation in 19 patients with COPD and 17 healthy subjects (mean age, 67.8 +/- 7.1 years vs 62.5 +/- 9.3 years, respectively [+/- SEM]). Each subject underwent a series of single-dose methacholine provocations to induce at least a 15% reduction in inspiratory vital capacity (IVC). When this was achieved, subjects were asked to perform four consecutive deep inspirations, after which the IVC measurement was repeated and the percentage of bronchodilation by deep inspiration was calculated. The percentage of reduction in IVC from baseline prior to the deep inspirations did not differ between the two groups (COPD, 20.1 +/- 1.6%; healthy, 22.7 +/- 2.4%; p = 0.38); median single methacholine doses employed were 20 mg/mL (range, 0.025 to 75 mg/mL) and 25 mg/mL (range, 10 to 75 mg/mL), respectively (p = 0.19). Deep inspirations were not able to reverse bronchoconstriction in patients with COPD (bronchodilation, 3.9 +/- 2.6%; p = 0.15 by one-sample t test). Bronchodilation by deep inspiration was present in healthy subjects (13.7 +/- 3.0%, p = 0.0003), and was significantly higher than that of patient with COPD (p = 0.02). In patients with COPD, deep inspiration-induced bronchodilation correlated with the percentage of predicted transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (r = 0.53, p = 0.05), but not with airway obstruction, as assessed by FEV(1) or FEV(1)/FVC.",
"Localised bronchial obstruction is a rare differential diagnosis to asthma. We describe two younger patients treated unsuccessfully for asthma and eventually diagnosed with localised bronchoconstriction. Bronchoscopy revealed bronchoconstriction: Tracheobronchomalacia in case 1 and fixed obstruction in case 2.",
"The Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) classification of severity of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is based solely on obstruction and does not capture physical functioning. The hypothesis that the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale would correlate better with quality of life than the level of airflow limitation was examined.AIM: To study the associations between quality of life in smokers and limitations in physical functioning (MRC dyspnoea scale) and, quality of life and airflow limitation (GOLD COPD stages). Cross-sectional study. The city of IJsselstein, a small town in the centre of The Netherlands. Male smokers aged 40-65 years without a prior diagnosis of COPD and enlisted with a general practice, participated in this study. Quality of life was assessed by means of a generic (SF-36) and a disease-specific, questionnaire (QOLRIQ). A total of 395 subjects (mean age 55.4 years, pack years 27.1) performed adequate spirometry and completed the questionnaires. Limitations of physical functioning according to the MRC dyspnoea scale were found in 25.1% (99/395) of the participants and airflow limitation in 40.2% (159/395). The correlations of limitations of physical functioning with all quality-of-life components were stronger than the correlations of all quality-of-life subscales with the severity of airflow limitation.",
"Respiratory symptoms, chronic airflow obstruction, and bronchial hyperresponsiveness were all common in this adult population sample. However, the predictive value of symptoms for airflow obstruction/bronchial hyperresponsiveness was low. It was concluded that respiratory symptoms do not identify adults with airflow obstruction or bronchial hyperresponsiveness. Investigation by spirometry and peak flow monitoring is necessary to guide appropriate management.",
"Imaging studies have demonstrated that ventilation during bronchoconstriction in subjects with asthma is patchy with large ventilation defective areas (Vdefs). Based on a theoretical model, we postulated that during bronchoconstriction, as smooth muscle force activation increases, a patchy distribution of ventilation should emerge, even in the presence of minimal heterogeneity the lung. We therefore theorized that in normal lungs, Vdefs should also emerge in regions of the lung with reduced expansion. We studied 12 healthy subjects to evaluate whether Vdefs formed during bronchoconstriction, and compared their Vdefs with those observed in 9 subjects with mild asthma. Spirometry, low frequency (0.15 Hz) lung elastance and resistance, and regional ventilation by intravenous ¹³NN-saline positron emission tomography were measured before and after a challenge with nebulized methacholine. Vdefs were defined as regions with elevated residual ¹³NN after a period of washout. The average location, ventilation, volume, and fractional gas content of the Vdefs, relative to those of the rest of the lung, were calculated for both groups. Consistent with the predictions of the theoretical model, both healthy subjects and those with asthma developed Vdefs. These Vdefs tended to form in regions that, at baseline, had a lower degree of lung inflation and, in healthy subjects, tended to occur in more dependent locations than in subjects with asthma.",
"The effects of passive smoke exposure on respiratory health are still under debate. Therefore, we examined the risk of respiratory symptoms related to passive smoke exposure among German adults within the European Community Respiratory Health Survey. The questionnaire data of the population-based sample (n = 1,890) were analyzed. Multiple logistic regression models were carried out for current asthma (asthma symptoms or medication), chronic bronchitis (cough with phlegm for>or = 3 months per year), and wheezing as dependent variables, and self-reported exposure to passive smoke at home and at the workplace as independent variables after adjusting for city, age, gender, active smoking, and socioeconomic status as well as occupational exposure to dusts and/or gases. The relative odds for chronic bronchitis were significantly higher in subjects reporting involuntary tobacco smoke exposure in the workplace (odds ratio [OR], 1.90; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.16 to 3.11). Likewise, the adjusted OR for asthma was slightly elevated (OR, 1.51; 95% CI, 0.99 to 2.32). The risk of chronic bronchitis (OR, 3.07; 95% CI, 1.56 to 6.06), asthma (OR, 2.06; 95% CI, 1.07 to 3.97), and wheezing (OR, 2.12; 95% CI, 1.25 to 3.58) increased significantly with a daily exposure of>8 h.",
"We investigated whether a relationship between small airways dysfunction and bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR), expressed both in terms of ease of airway narrowing and of excessive bronchoconstriction, could be demonstrated in asthma. 63 (36 F; mean age 42 yr ± 14) stable, mild-to-moderate asthmatic patients (FEV1 92% pred ±14; FEV1/FVC 75% ± 8) underwent the methacholine challenge test (MCT). The degree of BHR was expressed as PD20 (in μg) and as ∆FVC%. Peripheral airway resistance was measured pre- and post-MCT by impulse oscillometry system (IOS) and expressed as R5-R20 (in kPa sL-1). All patients showed BHR to methacholine (PD20 < 1600 μg) with a PD20 geometric (95% CI) mean value of 181(132-249) μg and a ∆FVC% mean value of 13.6% ± 5.1, ranging 2.5 to 29.5%. 30 out of 63 patients had R5-R20 > 0.03 kPa sL-1 (>upper normal limit) and showed ∆FVC%, but not PD20 values significantly different from the 33 patients who had R5-R20 ≤ 0.03 kPa sL-1 (15.8% ± 4.6 vs 11.5% ± 4.8, p < 0.01 and 156(96-254) μg vs 207 (134-322) μg, p = 0.382). In addition, ∆FVC% values were significantly related to the corresponding pre- (r = 0.451, p < 0.001) and post-MCT (r = 0.376, p < 0.01) R5-R20 values.",
"Asthma diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms and the demonstration of airflow variability. Airway inflammation measured by fractional exhaled nitric oxide, measured at a flow rate of 50 ml/s (FE(NO50)) remains a controversial diagnostic tool.AIM: To assess the ability of FE(NO50) to identify bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR) to methacholine (provocative concentration of methacholine causing a 20% fall in FEV(1); PC20M ≤ 16 mg/ml) and to establish whether or not symptoms relate to FE(NO50) and PC20M in patients with no demonstrated reversibility to β(2) -agonist. We conducted a prospective study on 174 steroid naive patients with respiratory symptoms, forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV(1) ) ≥ 70% predicted and no demonstrated reversibility to β(2) -agonist. Patients answered to a standardised symptom questionnaire and underwent FE(NO50) and methacholine challenge. Receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) curve and logistic regression analysis assessed the relationship between PC20M and FE(NO50) , taking into account covariates (smoking, atopy, age, gender and FEV(1)). A total of 82 patients had a PC20M ≤ 16 mg/ml and had significantly higher FE(NO50) (19 ppb vs. 15 ppb; p<0.05). By constructing ROC curve, we found that FE(NO50) cut-off value of 34 ppb was able to identify not only BHR with high specificity (95%) and positive predictive value (88%) but low sensitivity (35%) and negative predictive value (62%). When combining all variables into the logistic model, FE(NO50) (p = 0.0011) and FEV(1) (p<0.0001) were independent predictors of BHR whereas age, gender, smoking and atopy had no influence. The presence of diurnal and nocturnal wheezing was associated with raised FE(NO50) (p<0.001 and p<0.05, respectively).",
"yes. The present study does not support the hypothesis that asthma is associated with genotypes of these major antioxidative enzymes. However, we speculate that since we see an impact of these genotypes on lung function in young adult smokers, polymorphisms in antioxidative enzymes may contribute to the range of susceptibility of smokers have to Chronic obstructive lung disease.",
"Although work-exacerbated asthma (WEA) is a prevalent condition likely to have an important societal burden, there are limited data on this condition. The aims of this study were (1) to compare the clinical, functional, and inflammatory characteristics of workers with WEA and occupational asthma (OA) and (2) compare health care use and related costs between workers with WEA and OA, as well as between workers with work-related asthma (WRA; ie, WEA plus OA) and those with non-work-related asthma (NWRA) in a prospective study. We performed a prospective observational study of workers with and without WRA with a 2-year follow-up. The diagnosis of OA and WEA was based on the positivity and negativity of results on specific inhalation challenges, respectively. One hundred fifty-four subjects were enrolled: 53 with WEA, 68 with OA, and 33 control asthmatic subjects (NWRA). WEA was associated with more frequent prescriptions of inhaled corticosteroids (odds ratio [OR], 4.4; 95% CI, 1.4-13.6; P = .009), a noneosinophilic phenotype (OR, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.9; P = .04), a trend toward a lower FEV1 (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.9-1.0; P = .06), and a higher proportion of smokers (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 0.96-9.7; P = .06) than the diagnosis of OA. The health care use of WRA and related costs were 10-fold higher than those of NWRA.",
"Dendritic cells (DCs) are crucial for the processing of antigens, T lymphocyte priming and the development of asthma and allergy. Smokers with asthma display altered therapeutic behaviour and a reduction in endobronchial DC CD83 expression compared with non-smokers with asthma. No information is available on the impact of smoking on peripheral blood DC profiles. Determine peripheral blood DC profiles in subjects with and without asthma with differing smoking histories. Forty-three asthmatics (17 smokers, nine ex-smokers and 17 never-smokers) and 16 healthy volunteers (nine smokers and seven never-smokers) were recruited. Spirometry, exhaled nitric oxide and venesection was performed. DC elution was by flow cytometry via the expression of DC surface markers [plasmacytoid (pDC) (BDCA-2, CD303), type 1 conventional (cDC) (BDCA-1, CD1c), and type 2 cDC (BDCA-3, CD141)]. Subjects with asthma displayed increases in all DC subtypes compared with normal never-smokers: [type 1 cDCs - asthma [median% (IQR)]: 0.59% (0.41, 0.74), normal never-smokers: 0.35% (0.26, 0.43), P=0.013]; type 2 cDCs - asthma: 0.04% (0.02, 0.06), normal never-smokers: 0.02% (0.01, 0.03), P=0.008 and pDCs - asthma: 0.32% (0.27, 0.46), normal never-smokers: 0.22% (0.17, 0.31), P=0.043, and increased pDC and type 1 cDCs compared with normal smokers. Smoking did not affect DC proportions in asthma. Cigarette smoking reduced pDC proportions in normal subjects [normal never-smokers: 0.22% (0.17, 0.31); normal smokers: 0.09% (0.08, 0.15), P=0.003].",
"no. This data suggests that asthma is an uncommon cause of severe chronic respiratory failure necessitating long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy in non-smokers and supports the current consensus that asthma and COPD are different diseases with differing stages of severity and the concept that long-term avoidance of active smoking is fundamental for the prevention of severe chronic respiratory failure.",
"To assess how the diagnosis of airflow limitation (AL) combined with advice to stop smoking in middle-aged smokers influence the smoking cessation rate and to identify predictors of successful outcome. Prospective, single-center, comparative study of the effects of smoking intervention in smokers with diagnosed AL and in smokers with normal lung function (NLF). University hospital, out-patient clinic. Of 659 smokers participating in a population spirometric screening for COPD combined with smoking cessation advice, 558 (AL, 297 smokers; NLF, 261 smokers) were invited for a follow-up after 1 year. At follow-up, spirometry was repeated and smoking status was assessed. Nonsmoking status was validated with carbon monoxide measurements in exhaled air. Patients who did not come for the follow-up visit were considered to be smokers. Of 558 smokers invited, 368 (66%) presented for the follow-up visit. All had tried to reduce their smoking habit. The number of cigarettes smoked per day (cpd) at 1 year was - 5.2 (p < 0.01) in patients with AL and - 2.7 (not significant [NS]) in those with NLF. The 1-year cessation rate in smokers with AL was 10.1% vs 8.4% in smokers with NLF (NS). After stratifying the patients according to AL severity, the highest cessation rate was observed in smokers with moderate and severe AL (16.5%) compared to smokers with mild AL (6.4%; p < 0.001) and smokers with NLF (8.4%; p < 0.05). In a univariate analysis, the cessation of smoking was correlated with older age (p < 0.001), later age when starting smoking (p < 0.005), lower tobacco exposure (in pack-years; p < 0.01), fewer cpd (p < 0.001), and lower lung function (p < 0.05). No interaction effect was observed for any of the studied variables using two-way analysis of variance. In a stepwise logistic regression analysis, age (p < 0.001), tobacco exposure (in pack-years; p < 0.001), and FEV(1) percent predicted (p < 0.01) proved to be significant predictors of success in stopping smoking.",
"To investigate the modulatory effects that dynamic hyperinflation (DH), defined as a reduction in inspiratory capacity (IC), has on exercise tolerance after bronchodilator in patients with COPD. An experimental, randomized study involving 30 COPD patients without severe hypoxemia. At baseline, the patients underwent clinical assessment, spirometry, and incremental cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET). On two subsequent visits, the patients were randomized to receive a combination of inhaled fenoterol/ipratropium or placebo. All patients then underwent spirometry and submaximal CPET at constant speed up to the limit of tolerance (Tlim). The patients who showed ΔIC(peak-rest)<0 were considered to present with DH (DH+). In this sample, 21 patients (70%) had DH. The DH+ patients had higher airflow obstruction and lower Tlim than did the patients without DH (DH-). Despite equivalent improvement in FEV1 after bronchodilator, the DH- group showed higher ΔIC(bronchodilator-placebo) at rest in relation to the DH+ group (p<0.05). However, this was not found in relation to ΔIC at peak exercise between DH+ and DH- groups (0.19 ± 0.17 L vs. 0.17 ± 0.15 L, p>0.05). In addition, both groups showed similar improvements in Tlim after bronchodilator (median [interquartile range]: 22% [3-60%]vs. 10% [3-53%]; p>0.05).",
"The individual perception of bronchial symptoms is highly variable among perennial allergic rhinitis patients. The lack of a maximal airway-narrowing plateau is related to the presence of sputum eosinophilia, which might be useful in the detection of patients susceptible to anti-inflammatory therapy. Prospective studies evaluating whether these patients are more likely to develop symptomatic asthma in the future and if the early anti-inflammatory treatment prevents its development are needed.",
"Different spirometric criteria are recommended to diagnosis chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD): -American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS), Global initiative for chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD): a post bronchodilator (PBD) ratio between the 1st second Forced Expiratory Volume and Forced Vital Capacity (FEV1/FVC) < 0.70; -Thoracic Society of Australia and New Zealand (ANZTS): a PBD FEV1/FVC < 0.70 and a PBD FEV1 < 80%; -British Thoracic Society (BTS): a before BD (BBD) FEV1/FVC < 0.70 and a BBD FEV1 < 80%; -Old criterion retained, till 2010, by the French Society of Pneumology (SPLF): a PBD ratio between FEV1 and slow vital capacity < 0.70. To determine, according to the different recommendations, the percentage of smokers having COPD among a population of smokers of more than 40 Packets/Year (PY) addressed for plethysmography. The plethysmographic data of 531 consecutive stable male smokers that underwent reversibility testing (400 µg of Salbutamol®) were analyzed. The mean ± SD of age, cigarettes consumption, PBD FEV1 (%), were, respectively, 61 ± 11 Yr, 64 ± 20 PY and 52 ± 21%. The percentages of subjects having COPD according to the above criteria were 75.5% (SPLF old criterion); 71.2% (ATS/ERS, GOLD); 70.8% (BTS) and 69.7% (ANZTS).",
"This study aimed to establish whether the outpatient management of patients presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department (ED) was in compliance with the 1992 guidelines of the \"International Consensus Report on the Diagnosis and Management of Asthma.\" Prospective, observational study using a researcher-administered questionnaire. University tertiary referral ED. Convenience sample of asthmatics (aged 18 to 54 years) presenting for asthma treatment between July 1, 1997, and June 30, 1998. Eighty-five asthmatic patients were enrolled. Of these, 34 patients (40%) smoked, 53 patients (62%) were undertreated with medication when compared to the consensus guidelines, and 74 patients (87%) had no written \"plan of action.\" During an asthma attack, 9 patients (11%) did not use a bronchodilator as first-line action and 76 patients (89%) did not commence or increase the use of an inhaled steroid. Forty-nine patients (58%) did not know that bronchospasm occurred in asthma, and 53 patients (62%) did not know that bronchial swelling occurred. Twenty-six patients (31%) thought short-acting bronchodilator drugs were asthma preventers. Sixty-two patients (73%) could not adequately define peak expiratory flow (PF), 41 patients (48%) did not own a PF meter, and only 8 patients (9%) determined their PF daily. Fifty-three patients (62%) were reviewed by a physician once a year or less, and 18 patients (21%) noted family and friends as their only source of asthma education.",
"The impact of airway hyperreactivity (AHR) on respiratory mortality and systemic inflammation among patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is largely unknown. We used data from 2 large studies to determine the relationship between AHR and FEV1decline, respiratory mortality, and systemic inflammation. We sought to determine the relationship of AHR with FEV1decline, respiratory mortality, and systemic inflammatory burden in patients with COPD in the Lung Health Study (LHS) and the Groningen Leiden Universities Corticosteroids in Obstructive Lung Disease (GLUCOLD) study. The LHS enrolled current smokers with mild-to-moderate COPD (n = 5887), and the GLUCOLD study enrolled former and current smokers with moderate-to-severe COPD (n = 51). For the primary analysis, we defined AHR by a methacholine provocation concentration of 4 mg/mL or less, which led to a 20% reduction in FEV1(PC20). The primary outcomes were FEV1decline, respiratory mortality, and biomarkers of systemic inflammation. Approximately 24% of LHS participants had AHR. Compared with patients without AHR, patients with AHR had a 2-fold increased risk of respiratory mortality (hazard ratio, 2.38; 95% CI, 1.38-4.11; P = .002) and experienced an accelerated FEV1decline by 13.2 mL/y in the LHS (P = .007) and by 12.4 mL/y in the much smaller GLUCOLD study (P = .079). Patients with AHR had generally reduced burden of systemic inflammatory biomarkers than did those without AHR.",
"To determine the general utility of clinical (Asthma Control Test) and physiologic (forced expiratory volume in the first second of exhalation [FEV(1)]and fractionated exhaled nitric oxide level [FeNO]) parameters for characterizing asthma patients. Two cross-sectional independent studies simultaneously enrolled 100 patients in the US and 109 patients in Spain>or = 18 years of age with a physician-diagnosis of asthma and confirmed by a>or = 12% improvement in FEV(1) after bronchodilators or the presence of airway hyperresponsiveness, a central feature of asthma, as measured by methacholine challenge (PC(20)<10 mg/mL). There was no restriction on asthma severity or treatment. Patients were excluded if they had a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and/or were current cigarette smokers. Statistical analyses were performed to compare ACT, FeNO, and spirometry within and between sites. Population characteristics revealed significant differences in distributions of age, percent-predicted FEV(1) (%FEV(1)), FeNO, inhaled corticosteroid usage, and atopy between the two populations. The Spain site enrolled younger patients with milder asthma, based on higher %FEV(1) values and less frequent treatment with inhaled corticosteroids. At each site, mean FeNO levels decreased as asthma control categories increased, and means were lower in the US. There was a negative correlation between ACT and FeNO that was statistically significant for Spain patients not treated with inhaled corticosteroids.",
"Cough is an essential innate protective behavior, which is experienced by even healthy individuals. The mechanism of cough triggered by bronchoconstriction is not yet clear. The aim of this study was to investigate the relation between bronchoconstriction and cough caused by methacholine (Mch) inhalation in typical asthmatics and normal healthy subjects. We measured bronchial responsiveness to Mch and counted the number of coughs induced by Mch inhalation in 15 typical asthmatics and 20 normal subjects. After inhalation of Mch at the concentration causing 20% or more decrease in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV(1)) (PC(20)-FEV(1)), coughs were provoked in normal subjects (number of cough: 22.5/32 min, range: 3.3-45). Conversely, coughs were hardly provoked in typical asthmatics (median number of cough: 2/32 min, range: 0-4).",
"Our results indicate that bronchial walls are thicker in asthmatics than in patients with COPD. It seems that airway wall thickness and the lumen diameter in patients with asthma are related to disease severity. There is no such a relationship in COPD patients. High-resolution computed tomography may be a useful tool in the assessment of airway structure in obstructive lung disease.",
"Exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) is associated with increased reports of respiratory symptoms and reduced lung function, but the long-term effects of ETS are unclear, notably in healthy individuals with bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR). To assess the longitudinal effects of ETS exposure on the development of respiratory symptoms and spirometry in subjects with BHR. The study population included 1,661 never-smokers from the SAPALDIA (Swiss Study on Air Pollution and Lung Diseases in Adults) cohort, assessed in 1991 (baseline) and 11 yr later, who were symptom-free at baseline. Incident reports of respiratory symptoms and results of spirometry were assessed at the follow-up survey. Exposure to ETS reported in the two surveys was strongly associated with the development of cough (odds ratio, 2.1; 95% confidence interval, 1.2-3.7; p = 0.01). In subjects with BHR exposed to ETS at both surveys, a trend for strong associations were observed for wheeze, cough, dyspnea, and chronic bronchitis; however, the association reached statistical significance only for the symptom of dyspnea (p < 0.01). Lower FEV1/FVC (mean +/- SD, 72.9 +/- 7.7 vs. 76.8 +/- 6.1%; p < 0.01) and FEF(25-75) (forced expiratory flow, midexpiratory phase)/FVC (mean +/- SD, 56.1 +/- 22.5 vs. 68.1 +/- 21.6%; p < 0.01) were observed in subjects with BHR exposed to ETS compared with nonexposed subjects without BHR. Lower values were found in subjects continuing exposure by the follow-up survey.",
"This study was designed to evaluate the effect of chronic bronchitis (CB) symptoms and degree of emphysema in a multicenter Korean cohort. From April 2012 to May 2015, patients diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD) who were aged above 40 years at 46 hospitals throughout Korea were enrolled. All of the patients were classified according to CB symptoms and the diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO); demographic data, symptom scores, and the result of lung function tests and exacerbations were then analyzed. A total of 812 patients were enrolled. Among these patients, 285 (35.1%) had CB symptoms. A total of 51% of patients had high DLCO without CB symptoms [CB (-) high DLCO], 24.9% had CB symptoms only [CB (+) high DLCO], 14.2% had low DLCO only [CB (-) low DLCO], and 10.2% had both low DLCO and CB [CB (+) low DLCO]. Patients with CB (+) low DLCO showed a significantly lower post-bronchodilator (BD) forced expiratory volume for 1 second (FEV1) and more severe dyspnea than patients with CB (-) high DLCO. On multivariate analysis, the risk of acute exacerbation was two times higher [odds ratio (OR) 2.06; 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.18-3.62; P=0.01] in the CB (+) low DLCO group than in the CB (-) high DLCO group.",
"In general practice airway obstruction and the bronchodilator response are usually assessed using peak expiratory flow (PEF) measurements. A study was carried out in patients presenting with persistent cough to investigate to what extent PEF measurements are reliable when compared with tests using forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)) as the measure of response. Data (questionnaire, physical examination, spirometry, PEF) were collected from 240 patients aged 18-75 years, not previously diagnosed with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), who consulted their general practitioner with cough of at least two weeks duration. The relationship between low PEF (PEF<PEFpred - 1.64RSD) and low FEV(1) (FEV(1)<FEV(1)pred - 1.64RSD) was tested. A positive bronchodilator response after inhaling 400 microg salbutamol was defined as an increase in FEV(1) of>or = 9% predicted and was compared with an absolute increase in PEF with cut off values of 40, 60, and 80 l/min and DeltaPEF % baseline with cut off values of 10%, 15%, and 20%. Forty eight patients (20%) had low FEV(1), 86 (35.8%) had low PEF, and 32 (13.3%) had a positive bronchodilator response. Low PEF had a positive predictive value (PPV) for low FEV(1) of 46.5% and a negative predictive value (NPV) of 95%. DeltaPEF of>or = 10%,>or = 15%, or>or = 20% baseline had PPVs of 36%, 52%, and 67%, respectively, and DeltaPEF of>or = 40,>or = 60, and>or = 80 l/min in absolute terms had PPVs of 39%, 45%, and 57%, respectively, for DeltaFEV(1)>or = 9% predicted; NPVs were high (88-93%).",
"Individuals exposed both to cigarette smoke and respiratory pollutants at work incur a greater risk of development of airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) and accelerated decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) than that incurred by subjects undergoing each exposure separately. We examined whether smoking cessation or smoking reduction improves AHR and thereby slows down the decline in FEV1 in occupationally exposed workers. We examined 165 workers (137 males and 28 females) participating in a smoking cessation programme. Nicotine tablets were used for smoking cessation or smoking reduction. Respiratory symptoms were assessed by questionnaire, FEV1 by spirometry and AHR by methacholine challenge test. At 1 year, subjects were classified into quitters, reducers, or continuing smokers. Sixty-seven subjects completed the study (32 quitters; 17 reducers; 18 continuing smokers). Respiratory symptoms improved markedly in quitters (P<0.001 for all comparisons) and less so in reducers (P values between 0.163 and 0.027). At 1 year, FEV1 had slightly but significantly improved in quitters (P=0.006 vs. smokers; P=0.038 vs. reducers) and markedly deteriorated in reducers and continuing smokers. Concurrent, 1-year change in AHR did not differ significantly among the groups.",
"In middle-aged smokers the correlation of limitations of physical functioning (MRC dyspnoea scale) with quality of life was stronger than the correlation of the severity of airflow limitation with quality of life. Future staging systems of severity of COPD should capture this and not rely on forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) alone.",
"The aim of this study was to analyse whether patients with occupational asthma (OA) caused by low molecular weight (LMW) agents differed from patients with OA caused by high molecular weight (HMW) with regard to risk factors, asthma presentation and severity, and response to various diagnostic tests. Seventy-eight patients with OA diagnosed by positive specific inhalation challenge (SIC) were included. Anthropometric characteristics, atopic status, occupation, latency periods, asthma severity according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) control classification, lung function tests and SIC results were analysed. OA was induced by an HMW agent in 23 patients (29%) and by an LMW agent in 55 (71%). A logistic regression analysis confirmed that patients with OA caused by LMW agents had a significantly higher risk of severity according to the GINA classification after adjusting for potential confounders (OR = 3.579, 95% CI 1.136-11.280; p = 0.029). During the SIC, most patients with OA caused by HMW agents presented an early reaction (82%), while in patients with OA caused by LMW agents the response was mainly late (73%) (p = 0.0001). Similarly, patients with OA caused by LMW agents experienced a greater degree of bronchial hyperresponsiveness, measured as the difference in the methacholine dose-response ratio (DRR) before and after SIC (1.77, range 0-16), compared with patients with OA caused by HMW agents (0.87, range 0-72), (p = 0.024).",
"Nitric oxide (NO) measurements in exhaled air and hypertonic saline-induced sputum are commonly used biomarker sampling methods of the lower airways. Both sampling methods have been validated in asthmatic patients and healthy controls, however, data from chronic smokers are scarce. To evaluate the reproducibility and differences in fractional exhaled NO (FeNO) values in asymptomatic chronic smokers and healthy, non-smoking controls. Furthermore, to test the effect of hypertonic saline sputum induction (SI) on FeNO levels in both study groups. 16 asymptomatic chronic smokers and 16 non-smokers participated in this study. Baseline FeNO and forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV(1)) were recorded pre- and 30 min post NaCl 4.5% SI (3 x 5 min) on 2 study days (+/-2 h; 4-10 days apart). Mixed ANOVA was used to estimate the intra-subject Coefficient of Variation (CV) % over days; changes in FeNO and FEV(1) values before and after SI, were analyzed by a Student's paired t-test.The difference between smokers and non-smokers was estimated by a Student's t-test. On day 1, FeNO values in smokers were significantly lower than in non-smokers, 10.6 ppb, and 18.4 ppb, respectively, (42% difference, p = 0.0028, 95% CI: -59%, -19%). In both study groups, FeNO measurements were reproducible, with an intra-subject CV of 27.2% and 19.2%, for smokers and non-smokers, respectively. SI significantly decreased FeNO levels in both study groups on day 1. In smokers, there was a mean reduction in FeNO of almost 37% (p = 0.0045, 95% CI: -53%, -14%), and in non-smokers a mean decrease of almost 37% (95% CI : -53%, -14%; p = 0.0045). In both study groups SI did not affect FEV(1) (p > 0.94).",
"Airway endotoxin might contribute to corticosteroid insensitivity in asthmatic patients. Because cigarette smoke contains endotoxin, we tested the hypothesis that sputum endotoxin concentrations are increased in cigarette smokers and that endotoxin concentrations are associated with corticosteroid insensitivity in asthmatic patients. Sixty-nine asthmatic patients (never smokers, smokers, and exsmokers) and 20 healthy subjects (never smokers and smokers) were recruited. Fifty-three asthmatic patients received a 2-week course of oral dexamethasone. Serum and induced sputum endotoxin and cytokine concentrations were quantified by using an enzyme immunoassay. Median (interquartile range [IQR]) sputum endotoxin concentration were not significantly different between asthmatic never smokers (184 endotoxin units [EU]/mL; IQR, 91-310 EU/mL), exsmokers (123 EU/mL; IQR, 39-207 EU/mL), and smokers (177 EU/mL; IQR, 41-772 EU/mL; P = .703) and healthy subjects (164 EU/mL; IQR, 106-373 EU/mL). The lung function response to oral corticosteroids decreased with increasing sputum endotoxin concentrations in the never smokers (linear regression α = .05, Spearman r = -0.503, P = .009) but not in smokers (α = .587, r = -0.282, P = .257), as confirmed by using multiple regression analysis. Asthmatic smokers had higher concentrations of serum endotoxin than asthmatic nonsmokers (0.25 EU/mL [IQR, 0.09-0.39 EU/mL] vs 0.08 EU/mL [IQR, 0.05-0.19 EU/mL], P = .042) unrelated to steroid insensitivity or serum cytokine concentrations. In the asthmatic group sputum endotoxin concentrations correlated with sputum IL-1 receptor antagonist concentrations (r = 0.510, P < .001), and serum endotoxin concentrations significantly correlated with sputum IL-6, IL-8, and chemokine motif ligand 2 concentrations.",
"yes. Recovery by children after hospitalization for acute asthma is impaired by environmental tobacco smoke exposure when the period of recovery is characterized by persistent respiratory symptoms and use of asthma medication for symptomatic relief. These findings underscore the need to limit environmental tobacco smoke exposure in children with asthma and argue for closer physician follow-up of those children returning to a home environment in which smokers are present.",
"IL-18 is a cytokine which is known to have an important role in the development of a Th1 lymphocyte response. As such, it may have a regulatory role in asthma by modifying Th2 lymphocyte responses. Cigarette smoking may amplify the airway inflammation associated with asthma. This study investigated if IL-18 could be detected in induced sputum from asthmatics and normal subjects and if smoking altered IL-18 levels. Induced sputum was obtained from asthmatic (31 smokers, 35 non-smokers) and normal (20 smokers, 20 non-smokers) subjects. All smokers had a smoking history of > or =15 pack years. IL-18 levels in sputum supernatant were measured by ELISA. IL-18 mRNA expression and cellular localization were assessed by quantitative PCR and immunocytochemistry, respectively. Smoking was associated with a significant reduction in IL-18 levels (median (interquartile range) - smokers 20 (0-102) pg/mL vs. non-smokers 358 (50-876) pg/mL, P<0.001). This was more pronounced in asthmatics (smokers, 47 (40-64) pg/mL vs. non-smokers, 530 (30-1484) pg/mL; P<0.001) than in normal subjects (smokers, 25 (0-78) pg/mL vs. non-smokers, 247 (50-656) pg/mL; P<0.01). Within each of the smoking and non-smoking groups there was no significant difference in IL-18 levels between asthmatic and normal subjects. There was no correlation between sputum IL-18 levels and any specific cell type in the sputum samples nor serum IgE levels. IL-18 mRNA expression was reduced in asthmatic smokers compared with non-smokers. IL-18 production was localized to sputum macrophages by immunocytochemistry.",
"yes. FP/SM confers greater improvements in airway hyperresponsiveness and airway caliber in patients with asthma who smoke compared with double the dose of fluticasone. We hypothesize that in the presence of relative steroid resistance, the smooth muscle stabilization conferred by salmeterol is of greater clinical importance in patients who smoke than in those who do not smoke.",
"Abnormalities, including bronchiectasis, that are detectable on high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) have been associated with severe asthma. Bronchiectasis is associated with the diagnosis of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), which also occurs in patients with severe asthma. We sought to determine the frequency and pattern of HRCT abnormality and the relationship with Aspergillus fumigatus sensitization in one severe asthma population. We examined our database of patients attending a supraregional severe asthma service (Manchester, UK). Clinical, physiological and immunological characteristics were compared between those with HRCT evidence of airway disease (specifically bronchiectasis) and those with no radiological abnormality. Of 133 patients analysed, 111 (83.4%) had an abnormal HRCT with bronchial wall thickening (41.3%), bronchiectasis (35.3%), air trapping (20.3%) and bronchial dilatation (16.5%) occurring most frequently. Radiological evidence of airway disease was associated with more obstructive spirometry (postbronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio 73.2%vs 64.8% [difference -8.5%, 95% CI -16.9 to -0.1, P = 0.048]). A. fumigatus sensitization was associated with a 2.01 increased hazard ratio of bronchiectasis (95% CI 1.26 to 3.22, P = 0.005), and more obstructive spirometry (postbronchodilator FEV₁/FVC ratio 57.6 vs 70.3 [difference -12.8, 95% CI -19.8 to -5.7, P = 0.001]). Patients with A. fumigatus sensitization had variable clinical and radiological characteristics that frequently did not conform to the conventional diagnostic criteria for ABPA.",
"Neutrophilic asthma and COPD are obstructive airway diseases common in older age and have a characteristic airway inflammation with neutrophilic bronchitis. The structural differences between neutrophilic asthma and COPD have not been investigated. The aim of this study was to examine the airway and parenchymal abnormalities using high resolution computed tomographic (HRCT) scanning in participants with neutrophilic asthma, COPD and smoking controls. Participants (neutrophilic asthma (n=10), COPD (n=17) and smoking controls (n=8)) underwent clinical assessment and sputum induction. HRCT of the chest was performed and independently scored by a radiologist blinded to the subject group using a modified Bhalla scoring system. Participants were of a similar age and those with COPD had a similar degree of airflow obstruction to those with neutrophilic asthma. The pattern of radiographic abnormalities differed between groups. Abnormal bronchial wall thickening was significantly more common in neutrophilic asthma, compared to COPD or smoking controls. Emphysema was greatest in the COPD group, and not recorded as a feature of neutrophilic asthma. FEV(1)% predicted was negatively associated with bronchial wall thickening and consolidation while KCO% predicted was negatively associated with the total emphysema score. Bronchiectasis was minimal in all groups.",
"yes. Several arachidonic acid metabolites and enzyme transcripts involving both lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase pathways are increased in smokers with asthma and differ from never smokers with asthma. Possibly targeting specific lipoxygenase and cyclooxygenase pathways that are activated by asthma and cigarette smoking may optimize therapeutic responses.",
"yes. Despite their good functional status, airflow limitation was present, and underrecognized, in a considerable proportion of our older population. The low bronchodilator use suggests a significant reservoir of untreated disease. Physicians caring for older people need to be more vigilant for both the presence, and the need for treatment, of airflow limitation.",
"yes. Smoking seems to attenuate the increase in FENO in atopic but not in nonatopic asthmatics. This finding suggests differences in biochemical mechanisms of NO formation in atopic and nonatopic asthma. However, FENO was significantly higher both in atopic and nonatopic asthmatic smokers than in healthy controls. This suggests that FENO can be applied for diagnostic purposes also in young adult smokers.",
"yes. In subjects with mild asthma who smoke, the response to inhaled corticosteroids is attenuated, suggesting that adjustments to standard therapy may be required to attain asthma control. The greater improvement seen in some outcomes in smokers treated with montelukast suggests that leukotrienes may be important in this setting. Larger prospective studies are required to determine whether leukotriene modifiers can be recommended for managing asthma in patients who smoke.",
"Many asthmatics have few or no symptoms despite severe obstruction of the airways. Physicians confronted with this phenomenon may therefore underrate the severity of the asthma and treatment may be insufficient. We studied the capacity of a group of general practitioners to assess the bronchial obstruction of patients presenting with varying degrees of symptoms and obstruction. Ten asthmatics were initially examined by a pneumologist. The patients were classified as: normal (N; no dyspnoea, no wheeze, normal spirometry; n = 2); abnormal (A; dyspnoea and whistling, bronchial obstruction; n = 4); falsely normal (FN; mild or no dyspnoea and no wheeze, bronchial obstruction; n = 4). Ten randomly selected general practitioners, ignoring the protocol and aim of the study, examined 6 patients, 2 from each category. They then had to choose from a list of antiasthma treatments, those that would be appropriate for each patient, and assess on a visual analog scale (VAS) the degree of respiratory tract obstruction at the time of examination. Finally, questions on their knowledge and approach to asthma were asked. The VAS assessments (mm) were of 15.6, 65.2 and 11.0 in the FN, A and N patients, corresponding to a maximum expiratory volume per second of 52, 51 and 98% of the predicted values. Dyspnoea and wheeze were mentioned by each physician as criteria for respiratory tract obstruction. Although they also mentioned the laboured breathing, none noted the signs of thoracic distension, present in the falsely normal patients. None used the paradoxical pulse (inspiratory drop in systolic pressure) and/or spirometric measurements; nobody had noted that dyspnoea and wheeze can be lacking despite substantial obstruction of the airways. Five had prescribed beta 2 agonists alone, without corticosteroid therapy in falsely normal patients.",
"Respiratory symptoms are common in older adults. In young populations the predictive value of such symptoms for chronic airflow obstruction and bronchial hyperresponsiveness is low. We investigated whether symptoms predict airflow obstruction and bronchial responsiveness in adults aged 45-86 years. An age-stratified random sample of white adults aged 45 years and older was obtained from family doctor lists in Central Manchester, UK, and sent a respiratory symptoms questionnaire (exclusions: housebound, confused). Responders were invited to participate in a methacholine challenge (Newcastle dosimeter method; exclusions: ischemic heart disease, oral steroids, anticholinergic or beta-blocker medication). Of 783 eligible subjects, 723 responded (response rate 92.3%). Symptoms were reported by 53.8%. Methacholine challenge was completed by 208 subjects. Sixty-five (26.4%) had chronic airflow obstruction, of whom 76.6% reported respiratory symptoms. Bronchial hyperresponsiveness (PD20<or = 100 micrograms) was present in 26.0% of subjects overall, and in 36.8% of symptomatic and 14.6% of asymptomatic subjects (p<.001). Of those with bronchial hyperresponsiveness, 26.4% were asymptomatic. Predictive values of symptoms for chronic airflow obstruction and bronchial hyperresponsiveness were low.",
"yes. Airflow obstruction is mostly unrecognized in young and middle-aged adults. Low forced expiratory volume in 1 second, low forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio, airflow obstruction in young adults, and smoking are highly predictive of low lung function and airflow obstruction in middle age.",
"In asthmatic patients, airflow limitation is at least partly reversed by administration of pharmacological bronchodilators, typically β2 -adrenoceptor agonists. In addition to receptor-mediated bronchodilation, the dynamic mechanical environment of the lung itself can reverse bronchoconstriction. We have now explored the possibility that bronchodilators exert a synergistic effect with oscillatory loads by virtue of reducing airway wall stiffness, and therefore, enhancing the bronchodilatory response to breathing manoeuvres. Whole porcine bronchial segments in vitro were contracted to carbachol and relaxed to the non-specific β-adrenoceptor agonist, isoprenaline, under static conditions or during simulated breathing manoeuvres. The bronchodilatory response to isoprenaline was greater during breathing manoeuvres compared with the response under static conditions. As the bronchodilatory response to breathing manoeuvres is dependent upon airway smooth muscle (ASM) strain, and therefore, airway wall stiffness, our findings are likely to be explained by the effect of isoprenaline on reducing airway wall stiffness, which increased ASM strain, producing greater bronchodilation.",
"Dyspnea is a common symptom in older people. A reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) is associated with a higher mortality rate from cardiovascular and respiratory disease, and increased admissions to hospitals. Underrecognized or undertreated airflow limitation may exacerbate the problem. The purpose of this study was to assess the prevalence and treatment of airflow limitation in a cohort of well-functioning older people. Cross-sectional study. Baseline of a clinical-epidemiological study of incident functional limitation. Participants attended the baseline examination of the Health, Aging, and Body Composition study, a prospective cohort study of 3,075 well-functioning subjects age 70 to 79. Demographic and clinical data were collected by interview. Spirometry was performed unless contraindicated and repeated until three acceptable sets of flow-volume loops were obtained. Patients on bronchodilator medications had spirometry performed posttherapy. Blinded readers assessed the flow-volume loops, and inadequate tests were omitted from analysis. Airflow limitation was defined as a reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) as determined by age-, sex-, and race-normalized values. Severity of airflow limitation was defined by American Thoracic Society criteria. Two thousand four hundred eighty-five subjects (80.8%) had assessable spirometry and data on treatment and diagnosis (1,265 men, 1,220 women). The mean age was 73.6 years. Two hundred sixty-two subjects (10.5%) had airflow limitation; 43 (16.4%) of these never smoked. Only 37.4% of participants with airflow limitation and 55.6% of participants with severe airflow limitation reported a diagnosis of lung disease. Only 20.5% of subjects with at least moderate airflow limitation had used a bronchodilator in the previous 2 weeks.",
"Allergic non-asthmatic (ANA) adults experience upper airway symptoms of allergic disease such as rhinorrhea, congestion and sneezing without symptoms of asthma. The aim of this study was to utilize PET-CT functional imaging to determine whether allergen challenge elicits a pulmonary response in ANA subjects or whether their allergic disease is truly isolated to the upper airways. In 6 ANA subjects, bronchoalveolar lavages (BAL) were performed at baseline and 24h after instillation of an allergen and a diluent in separate lung lobes. After instillation (10h), functional imaging was performed to quantify and compare regional perfusion, ventilation, fractional gas content (Fgas), and glucose uptake rate (Ki) between the baseline, diluent and allergen lobes. BAL cell counts were also compared. In ANA subjects, compared to the baseline and diluent lobes, perfusion and ventilation were significantly lower in the allergen lobe (median [inter-quartile range], baseline vs. diluent vs. allergen: Mean-normalized perfusion; 0.87 [0.85-0.97] vs. 0.90 [0.86-0.98] vs. 0.59 [0.55-0.67]; p<0.05. Mean-normalized ventilation 0.89 [0.88-0.98] vs. 0.95 [0.89-1.02] vs. 0.63 [0.52-0.67], p<0.05). In contrast, no significant differences were found in Fgas between baseline, diluent and allergen lobes or in Ki. Total cell counts, eosinophil and neutrophil cell counts (cells/ml BAL) were significantly greater in the allergen lobe compared to the baseline lobe (all P<0.05).",
"We determined whether emphysema demonstrated on high-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning in apparently well smokers is associated with airflow obstruction. Lung function testing and limited HRCT scanning. Lung function measurements and scans were analyzed independently of each other. We used analysis of covariance to compare FEV(1) and maximum expiratory flow at 50% of vital capacity (MEF(50)) values after suitable corrections, between subjects with and without parenchymal damage (emphysema and/or reduced carbon monoxide transfer coefficient [KCO]), and to compare indexes of parenchymal damage between subjects with and without airflow obstruction. Radiology and lung function departments of a district general hospital. Eighty current cigarette smokers and 20 lifetime nonsmoking control subjects (aged 35 to 65 years) who volunteered following publicity in local media. In all subjects, FEV(1) was>1.5 L; no subjects were known to have lung disease. FEV(1) and MEF(50) were measured spirometrically; static lung volumes were measured by helium dilution and body plethysmography; KCO was measured by a single-breath technique. HRCT scans were analyzed for emphysema by two radiologists. Of smokers, 25% had HRCT emphysema, generally mild; 16.3% and 25% had reduced FEV(1) and MEF(50), respectively; 12.5% had reduced KCO. Smokers with airflow obstruction were not more likely to have parenchymal damage. Smokers with parenchymal damage did not have reduced airway function. Nonsmokers generally had normal airways and parenchyma.",
"COPD includes the chronic bronchitis (CB) and emphysema phenotypes. Although it is generally assumed that emphysema or chronic airflow obstruction (CAO) is associated with worse quality of life (QOL) than is CB, this assumption has not been tested. The current study's analyses from the Lovelace Smokers' Cohort (LSC) were validated in the COPD Gene Cohort (COPDGene). CB without CAO (CB only) was defined as self-reported cough productive of phlegm for ≥ 3 mo/y for 2 consecutive years and postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC ≥ 70%. CAO without CB (CAO only) was defined as a postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 70% with no evidence of CB. QOL outcomes were obtained from the St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (SGRQ) and the 36-Item Short Form Health Survey (SF-36) questionnaires. A priori covariates included age, sex, pack-years of smoking, current smoking, and FEV1. Smokers with CB without CAO (LSC = 341; COPDGene = 523) were younger and had a greater BMI and less smoking exposure than did those with CAO only (LSC = 302; COPDGene = 2,208). Compared with the latter group, QOL scores were worse for those with CB only. Despite similar SGRQ Activity and SF-36 Role Physical and Physical Functioning, SGRQ Symptoms and Impact scores and SF-36 emotional and social measures were worse in the CB-only group, in both cohorts. After adjustment for covariates, the CB-only group remained a significant predictor for \"worse\" symptoms and emotional and social measures.",
"yes. Young and elderly symptomatic subjects are more likely to have methacholine AHR. None of the clinical variables we studied has significant predictive value for methacholine AHR across the age groups, so these variables are poor selection criteria for methacholine bronchoprovocation testing of symptomatic subjects. Given the high prevalence of AHR among these subjects, bronchoprovocation should be considered with all individuals who have respiratory symptoms of wheezing, cough, shortness of breath, or chest tightness.",
"yes. Subjects with COPD and asthma represent a relevant clinical population, with worse health-related quality of life. They experience more frequent and severe respiratory exacerbations despite younger age and reduced lifetime smoking history.",
"yes. COPD patients have more prominent HRCT findings as compared with asthmatics. In the asthmatics, abnormal HRCT findings are more prominent with increased severity, decreased FEV(1) values and the duration of asthma. The remodelling of airways in allergic asthmatics did not differ from that in their nonallergic counterparts as determined by HRCT.",
"yes. Cigarette smoking in asthma is associated with a corticosteroid insensitive increase in multiple airway cytokines. Distinct airway cytokine profiles are present in current smokers and never smokers with asthma and could provide an explanatory mechanism for the altered clinical behavior observed in smokers with asthma.",
"yes. Our results show that in asthmatic patients, small airway dysfunction, as assessed by IOS, is strictly associated to BHR, expressed as excessive bronchoconstriction, but not as ease of airway narrowing.",
"yes. Among adults <50 years old, chronic bronchitis unaccompanied by airflow limitation may represent an early marker of susceptibility to the effects of cigarette smoking on systemic inflammation and long-term risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and all-cause mortality.",
"The diagnostic criteria of asthma-COPD overlap syndrome (ACOS) are controversial. Emphysema is characteristic of COPD and usually does not exist in typical asthma patients. Emphysema in patients with asthma suggests the coexistence of COPD. Quantitative computed tomography (CT) allows repeated evaluation of emphysema noninvasively. We investigated the value of quantitative CT measurements of emphysema in the diagnosis of ACOS. This study included 404 participants; 151 asthma patients, 125 COPD patients, and 128 normal control subjects. All the participants underwent pulmonary function tests and a high-resolution CT scan. Emphysema measurements were taken with an Airway Inspector software. The asthma patients were divided into high and low emphysema index (EI) groups based on the percentage of low attenuation areas less than -950 Hounsfield units. The characteristics of asthma patients with high EI were compared with those having low EI or COPD. The normal value of percentage of low attenuation areas less than -950 Hounsfield units in Chinese aged >40 years was 2.79%±2.37%. COPD patients indicated more severe emphysema and more upper-zone-predominant distribution of emphysema than asthma patients or controls. Thirty-two (21.2%) of the 151 asthma patients had high EI. Compared with asthma patients with low EI, those with high EI were significantly older, more likely to be male, had more pack-years of smoking, had more upper-zone-predominant distribution of emphysema, and had greater airflow limitation. There were no significant differences in sex ratios, pack-years of smoking, airflow limitation, or emphysema distribution between asthma patients with high EI and COPD patients. A greater number of acute exacerbations were seen in asthma patients with high EI compared with those with low EI or COPD.",
"It is important to diagnose asthma at an early stage as early treatment may improve the prognosis in the long term. However, many patients do not present at an early stage of the condition so the physician may have difficulty with the diagnosis. A study was therefore undertaken to compare the proportion of patients who underpresented their respiratory symptoms with the proportion of underdiagnosed cases of asthma by the general practitioner (GP). A secondary aim was to investigate whether bad perception of dyspnoea by the patient was a determining factor in the underpresentation of asthma symptoms to the GP. A random sample of 1155 adult subjects from the general population in the eastern part of the Netherlands was screened for respiratory symptoms and lung function and the results were compared with the numbers of asthma related consultations registered in the medical files of the GP. In subjects with reduced lung function the ability to perceive dyspnoea was investigated during a histamine provocation test in subjects who did and did not report their symptoms to their GP. Of the random sample of 1155 subjects 86 (7%) had objective airflow obstruction (forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)) below the reference value corrected for age, length, and sex minus 1.64SD on two occasions) and had symptoms suggestive of asthma. Of these 86 subjects only 29 (34%) consulted the GP, which indicates underpresentation by 66% of patients. Of all subjects with objective airflow obstruction who presented to their GP with respiratory symptoms, 23 (79%) were recorded in the medical files as having asthma, indicating underdiagnosis by the GP in 21% of cases. Of the subjects with objective airflow obstruction who visited the GP with respiratory symptoms 6% had bad perception of dyspnoea compared with 26% of those who did not present to the GP in spite of airflow obstruction (chi(2) = 3.02, p = 0.08).",
"Studies with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) in smoking asthmatics have mostly shown poorer treatment responses than in non-smoking asthmatics. EuroSMART, an open, randomised, 6-month study, compared budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort (®) Turbuhaler(®))(h) maintenance and reliever therapy (Symbicort SMART(®)) at two maintenance doses of budesonide/formoterol (160/4.5 μg), 1 × 2 and 2 × 2, in patients with asthma who were symptomatic despite treatment with ICS ± long-acting β(2)-agonists. The 8424 randomised patients included 886 smokers (11%; aged<40 years or with a smoking history<10 pack-years if older), who were compared with a propensity-matched group of non-smokers. At baseline, smokers had lower post-bronchodilator peak expiratory flow, lower peak flow reversibility and used more reliever medication per day. Severe asthma exacerbations were counted and changes in five-item Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ-5) scores from baseline calculated. There were 48 and 47 exacerbations in smokers and non-smokers, respectively. Mean time to first severe exacerbation was not statistically different between the two groups. The mean change in ACQ-5 score was significantly greater in non-smokers. Considering the two treatment options there was a statistically significant prolonged time to first severe exacerbation with 2 × 2 versus 1 × 2 in the smokers, but not in the non-smokers. In smokers, the reductions in ACQ-5 scores, asthma symptoms, use of as-needed medication and awakenings were also all significant in favour of 2 × 2 with similar or greater changes than in smokers treated with 1 × 2.",
"Underdiagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is widespread. Early detection of COPD may improve the outcome by timely smoking cessation, a change in lifestyle, and treatment with an inhaled bronchodilator (BD). The objective of this study was to evaluate the diagnostic role of BD reversibility testing in early COPD case finding. General practitioners (n=241) consecutively recruited subjects aged ≥35 years with relevant exposure (history of smoking, and/or occupational exposure) and at least one respiratory symptom. Information on age, smoking status, body mass index, dyspnea score (Medical Research Council scale), and spirometry was obtained. Individuals with airway obstruction (forced expiratory volume in one second [FEV1]/forced vital capacity [FVC]<0.70) underwent a BD test with an inhaled β2 agonist, which was considered positive if ΔFEV1 was>0.20 L and>12%. Asthma and COPD were, respectively, defined as an FEV1 increase>0.50 L and a post-BD FEV1/FVC<0.70. In total, 4,049 subjects (51% male) were included (mean age 58 years, body mass index 27, 32 pack-years of smoking). A significant BD response was found in 143 (15%) of the 937 subjects (23%) with airway obstruction at screening spirometry. In 59% of these subjects, the post-BD FEV1/FVC remained<0.70. In 24% of the subjects with pre-BD airway obstruction, the post-BD FEV1/FVC ratio was within the reference range. In subjects with confirmed COPD, the mean increase in FEV1 following BD was 0.11 L±0.10 L. The subjects with COPD and a significant BD response were characterized by a higher prevalence of dyspnea (72% versus 57%, P=0.02) but less cough (55% versus 75%, P=0.001) when compared with COPD subjects without BD reversibility.",
"Response to eucapnic voluntary hyperventilation (EVH) has not been compared with methacholine challenge testing (MCCT) in nonathletes being evaluated for dyspnea on exertion. To determine the airway response to EVH and MCCT in a population of nonathletes who exercise regularly but have symptoms with exertion. We reviewed records for all patients with exercise symptoms who underwent both EVH and MCCT. Presenting symptoms, comorbid diseases, and results of bronchoprovocation (BP) testing were recorded. This study was approved by the institutional review board at our hospital. A total of 131 patients (mean age 32.3 ± 11.6, body mass index (BMI) 27.1 ± 4.7 kg/m(2), 59.5% male) had an EVH, MCCT, and clinical evaluation performed. Overall, 37 (28.2%) patients had positive BP testing and met criteria for exercise-induced bronchoconstriction (EIB). There were 32 (24.4%) patients with a positive EVH, compared with only 11 patients with a positive MCCT (8.4%). There were 26 patients (19.8%) who had a positive EVH but a negative MCCT, and correlation between the two tests was poor to moderate (r = 0.11-0.57). A complaint of chest pain and younger age were independent predictors for a positive EVH, whereas a history of tobacco use and a decreased FEV(1)/FVC (forced expiratory volume in 1 s/forced vital capacity) predicted a positive MCCT. A previous diagnosis of asthma was an independent predictor for a response to either test. Discussion. In a population of nonathletes who exercise regularly and have symptoms with exertion, EIB is common. Correlation between EVH and MCCT in this population is poor, and although the tests are somewhat complementary, a large percentage of patients had a negative MCCT but a positive EVH.",
"To determine if children with chronic asthma hospitalized for an acute exacerbation experienced prolonged clinical recovery after hospital discharge if they returned to a home environment in which they were exposed to environmental tobacco smoke. A prospective longitudinal study. Children's Hospital and Medical Center, Seattle, Wash. Patients admitted to the emergency department of the Children's Hospital and Medical Center with the single diagnosis of asthma (International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision [ICD-9] code 493). Twenty-two children with acute asthma were sequentially enrolled in the study and longitudinally observed between February and -June 1994. The tobacco-smoking group (n = 11) was defined as having at least 1 smoker in the home. The nonsmoking group (n = 11) had no environmental tobacco smoke exposure at home. The 2 groups were similar in age, sex, preadmission chronic asthma severity, and immediate predischarge asthma status. Discharge medication use was similar in the 2 groups During a 1 month follow-up period, the tobacco-smoking group had a significantly greater number of symptomatic days than the nonsmoking group (P < .05) Of the children in the nonsmoking group, 9 (82%) had less than 1 symptomatic day per week compared with 3 (27%) in the tobacco-smoking group. beta 2-Agonist bronchodilator use declined significantly (P < .001) during follow-up in the nonsmoking group but not in the tobacco-smoking group, despite similar anti-inflammatory drug therapy in both groups.",
"Exhaled nitric oxide provides a convenient, non-invasive insight into airway inflammation. However it is suppressed by current smoking, reducing its potential as an endpoint in studies of smokers with asthma, a group with increased symptoms and poor clinical responses to corticosteroids. We examined extended nitric oxide analysis as some derived variables are thought to be unaffected. Therefore this approach could reveal hidden inflammation and enable its use as an exploratory endpoint in this group. Smokers (n = 22) and never smokers (n = 21) with asthma performed exhaled nitric oxide measurements and spirometry before and after two weeks of oral dexamethasone (6 mg/1.74 m(2)/day). Linear and non-linear nitric oxide analysis was performed to derive estimates for alveolar nitric oxide (C(alv)) and nitric oxide flux (J'(aw)) for each subject. FE(NO50) was significantly lower in smokers with asthma and did not change significantly in response to dexamethasone. C(alv) derived by linear modelling was lower in smokers with asthma and did not change significantly in response in either group. J'(aw) was substantially lower in smokers with asthma (smokers (median (IQR)); 573 pl/s (217, 734), non-smoker; 1535 pl/s (785, 3496), p = 0.001) and was reduced in both groups following dexamethasone (non-smokers change (mean (95% CI)); -743.3 pl/s (-1710, -163), p = 0.005, smokers; -293 pl/s (-572, -60), p = 0.016). Correction for axial flow did not substantially change the derived results.",
"Measurement of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FENO) is useful in assessing eosinophilic airway inflammation. Smoking may modify airway inflammation and reduce FENO levels, compromising the diagnostic value of FENO in smokers. How smoking influences FENO in atopic versus nonatopic asthmatics is unknown. The aim of the present study was to compare FENO in atopic and nonatopic steroid-naive young asthmatic adults and in healthy subjects in terms of smoking. Forty-six (30 atopic) smoking and 70 (54 atopic) nonsmoking steroid-naive army conscripts (mean age 20 years) with current symptomatic asthma underwent FENO measurement, skin prick tests, spirometry with a bronchodilation test, bronchial histamine challenge, and a standardized exercise test. Ten healthy smokers and 9 healthy nonsmokers underwent FENO measurement, spirometry and bronchial histamine challenge. Smokers with asthma showed significantly higher FENO than did healthy smokers and nonsmokers (p = 0.001, both comparisons). Among atopic asthmatics, FENO was lower in smokers than in nonsmokers (p = 0.002) whereas among nonatopic asthmatics no such difference was detectable (p = 0.89). However, even among nonatopic asthmatic smokers FENO was significantly higher than among healthy controls (p = 0.01).",
"The US Preventive Services Task Force recommends against spirometry in the absence of symptoms. However, as much as 50% of COPD cases in the United States remain undiagnosed. Report of symptoms, smoking history, and spirometric data were collected from subjects screened for a work-related medical evaluation (N = 3,955). Prevalence of airflow obstruction and respiratory symptoms were assessed. Sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, and relative risks of predicting symptoms and smoking history for COPD were calculated. Forty-four percent of smokers in our sample had airways obstruction (AO). Of these, 36% reported a diagnosis of or treatment for COPD. Odds ratio (95% CI) for AO with smoking (>or = 20 pack-years) was 3.73 (3.12- 4.45), 1.98 (1.73-2.27) for cough, 1.79 (1.55-2.08) for dyspnea, 1.95 (1.70-2.34) for sputum, and 2.59 (2.26-2.97) for wheeze. Respiratory symptoms were reported by 92% of smokers with AO, 86% smokers with restriction, 76% smokers with normal spirometry, and 73% of nonsmokers. Sensitivity (92% vs 90%), specificity (19% vs 22%), positive (47% vs 40%) and negative (75% vs 80%) predictive values for the presence of one or more symptoms were similar between smokers and all subjects.",
"A substantial proportion of individuals with airflow limitation are never-smokers. However, whether never-smokers with airflow limitation have undiagnosed asthma is unknown. We hypothesised that the majority of never-smokers with respiratory symptoms and airflow limitation but without known asthma have undiagnosed asthma by comparing characteristics and prognosis in never-smokers with airflow limitation and asthma (NS+AFL+A) with never-smokers with airflow limitation but without asthma (NS+AFL-A). Among 94 079 participants aged 20-100 years from the general population, 39 102 (42%) were never-smokers. In this group, 13 719 (35%) reported to have respiratory symptoms of whom 1610 (12%) had airflow limitation. We investigated characteristics and risk of complications (asthma or COPD exacerbations, pneumonias and all-cause mortality) and comorbidities (lung cancer, ischaemic heart disease, myocardial infarction, deep venous thrombosis and PE) during 4.5 years median follow-up. NS+AFL-A compared with NS+AFL+A reported less allergy and respiratory symptoms, and had higher FEV1 and lower levels of eosinophils and IgE in peripheral blood. NS+AFL+A had increased risk of asthma and COPD exacerbations, but not of pneumonias; adjusted HRs in NS+AFL+A compared with NS+AFL-A were 16 (95% CI 3.7 to 73) for asthma exacerbations and 15 (2.8 to 80) for COPD exacerbations. Still, NS+AFL-A had increased risk of COPD exacerbations and pneumonias, but not of asthma exacerbations; adjusted HRs in NS+AFL-A compared with never-smokers without airflow limitation or asthma (NS-AFL-A) were 7.7 (2.8 to 21) for COPD exacerbations and 1.7 (1.3 to 2.3) for pneumonias. Risk of comorbidities or all-cause mortality was not increased in NS+AFL-A or NS+AFL+A compared with NS-AFL-A.",
"yes. Asthmatic smokers have similar sputum endotoxin concentrations compared with those of asthmatic never smokers. The association between higher sputum endotoxin levels and an impaired lung function response to oral corticosteroids, particularly in asthmatic never smokers, suggests that airway endotoxin might contribute to corticosteroid insensitivity in asthmatic patients.",
"Underdiagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in asthmatics attending specialty care in Trinidad, West Indies. To determine the prevalence of COPD in diagnosed asthmatics receiving specialty respiratory care. In a cross-sectional study, 258 asthmatics were screened for lung function measures to examine forced expiratory volume after 1 second (FEV1), forced vital capacity (FVC) and post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC (COPD was defined as FEV1/FVC < 70%). Of 165 patients evaluated (response rate 64.0%), 53 (32.1%, 95%CI 25.0-39.2) had a study diagnosis of COPD and a mean FEV1/FVC of 60.12 +/- 1.2. Proportionally, more males had COPD (50.9%) than asthma (24.1%, P < 0.001). Patients with COPD were 10 years older than asthmatics (P < 0.001). Persons with asthma who smoked were more likely to have COPD (56.0%) (OR 3.26, 95%CI 1.36-7.80, P = 0.006). In both sexes, FEV1/FVC was lower among older people (P < 0.001), with a greater effect (OR 2.75, 95%CI 1.00-7.56, P < 0.01) seen among men in this cross-sectional study.",
"yes. Although typical asthmatics have increased airway responsiveness, their cough response to bronchoconstriction is impaired.",
"Chronic cough and sputum production (chronic mucus hypersecretion) is a poorly described clinical feature of asthma. Our objective was to identify clinical, immunological and computed tomography (CT) measures of airway wall dimensions associated with these symptoms in smokers and never smokers with asthma. Cross-sectional data was analysed from 120 smokers and never smokers with asthma. Participants with and without a history of chronic mucus hypersecretion were compared for clinical outcomes, sputum differential cell counts and CT measures of airway dimensions (wall thickness, luminal area and percent wall area). Chronic mucus hypersecretion occurred in a higher proportion of smokers with asthma (56%) than never smokers with asthma (20%), (p < 0.001) and the proportion of patients with these symptoms increased with asthma severity (p = 0.003). Smokers with asthma and chronic mucus hypersecretion had worse current clinical control than smokers without those symptoms [ACQ score 2.3 versus 1.6, p = 0.002]. A greater proportion of never smokers with chronic mucus hypersecretion required short courses of oral corticosteroids in the last year (58% versus 19%, p = 0.011). Sputum neutrophil and eosinophil counts were similar in asthma patients with or without chronic mucus hypersecretion. Of those with severe asthma and chronic mucus hypersecretion, a CT measure of airway lumen area was reduced in smokers compared to never smokers (11.4 mm(2) versus 18.4 mm(2); p = 0.017).",
"The coexistence of COPD and asthma is widely recognized but has not been well described. This study characterizes clinical features, spirometry, and chest CT scans of smoking subjects with both COPD and asthma. We performed a cross-sectional study comparing subjects with COPD and asthma to subjects with COPD alone in the COPDGene Study. 119 (13%) of 915 subjects with COPD reported a history of physician-diagnosed asthma. These subjects were younger (61.3 vs 64.7 years old, p=0.0001) with lower lifetime smoking intensity (43.7 vs 55.1 pack years, p=0.0001). More African-Americans reported a history of asthma (33.6% vs 15.6%, p<0.0001). Subjects with COPD and asthma demonstrated worse disease-related quality of life, were more likely to have had a severe COPD exacerbation in the past year, and were more likely to experience frequent exacerbations (OR 3.55 [2.19, 5.75], p<0.0001). Subjects with COPD and asthma demonstrated greater gas-trapping on chest CT. There were no differences in spirometry or CT measurements of emphysema or airway wall thickness.",
"yes. The additive effect of smoking on lung function decline in asthma patients is detectable at early ages and leads to signs of airflow limitation before the age of 45 years.",
"One-quarter to one-third of individuals with asthma smoke, which may affect response to therapy and contribute to poor asthma control. To determine if the response to an inhaled corticosteroid or a leukotriene receptor antagonist is attenuated in individuals with asthma who smoke. In a multicenter, placebo-controlled, double-blind, double-dummy, crossover trial, 44 nonsmokers and 39 light smokers with mild asthma were assigned randomly to treatment twice daily with inhaled beclomethasone and once daily with oral montelukast. Primary outcome was change in prebronchodilator FEV(1) in smokers versus nonsmokers. Secondary outcomes included peak flow, PC(20) methacholine, symptoms, quality of life, and markers of airway inflammation. Despite similar FEV(1), bronchodilator response, and sensitivity to methacholine at baseline, subjects with asthma who smoked had significantly more symptoms, worse quality of life, and lower daily peak flow than nonsmokers. Adherence to therapy did not differ significantly between smokers and nonsmokers, or between treatment arms. Beclomethasone significantly reduced sputum eosinophils and eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) in both smokers and nonsmokers, but increased FEV(1) (170 ml, p = 0.0003) only in nonsmokers. Montelukast significantly increased a.m. peak flow in smokers (12.6 L/min, p = 0.002), but not in nonsmokers.",
"yes. The CT scan segmental airway lumen area is reduced in smokers with asthma compared with never smokers with asthma, particularly in severe disease, and is associated with worse current symptom control and small airway dysfunction.",
"There is no obvious link between qualitative descriptors and overall intensity of dyspnea during bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. To determine whether qualitative and quantitative perception of methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction independently contribute to characterizing clinically stable asthma. We assessed changes in inspiratory capacity, and quantitative (by Borg scale) and qualitative (by a panel of eight dyspnea descriptors) sensations of dyspnea at 20 to 30% fall in FEV(1) during methacholine inhalation in 49 asthmatics. Furthermore, we calculated the level of perception of bronchoconstriction at 20% fall in FEV(1) (PB(20)). Descriptors selected by patients during methacholine inhalation allowed us to define three language subgroups: (1) chest tightness (subgroup A, n = 21); (2) work/effort (subgroup B, n = 7); and (3) both descriptors (subgroup C, n = 13). Eight of the 49 patients (subgroup D) were not able to make a clear-cut distinction among descriptors. The subgroups exhibited similar function at baseline and during methacholine inhalation. Most importantly, patients selected chest tightness to a greater extent (42.85%), and work/effort (14.3%) and both descriptors (26.5%) to a lesser extent at the lowest level of bronchoconstriction (FEV(1) fall<10%) as at 20% fall in FEV(1). Thirty-two patients were normoperceivers (PB(20)>or = 1.4 to<5 arbitrary units [au]), 7 patients were hyperperceivers (PB(20)>or = 5 au), and 10 patients were hypoperceivers (PB(20)<1.4 au). Language subgroups were equally distributed across the perceiver subgroups.",
"The perception of somatic sensations like dyspnea can be influenced by such factors as an individual s personality, experiences, or ability to adapt to stimuli. Our aim was to determine whether the perception of acute bronchoconstriction is different for patients with asthma and patients who have never experienced an episode of airway obstruction. We studied 2 groups of patients. The first consisted of 24 subjects with intermittent rhinitis and asthma (10 females and 14 males) with a mean (SD) age of 25 (7) years. All reported not feeling dyspnea at rest on a Borg scale. The second group consisted of 24 subjects who only had rhinitis but no lung disease (no episode of asthma) or dyspnea at rest (12 females and 12 males) with a mean age of 27 (6) years. There were no significant differences between the groups with regard to sex, smoking, economic or educational level, anxiety (determined by the trait portion of the State-Trait Anxiety Inventory), depression (Beck Depression Inventory), or spirometric parameters. All took a histamine bronchial provocation test in which the patient assessed dyspnea on a modified Borg scale after each histamine dose. The provocation dose needed to produce a 20% decrease (PD20) in forced expiratory volume in the first second (FEV1) was calculated. We also recorded dyspnea perception score when FEV1 fell 5%, 10%, 15%, and 20%. No dyspnea was perceived at PS20 by 12.5% of the asthmatics and by 45% of nonasthmatics (P<.0001). The mean PS20 was 2.4 (2.1) (range, 0-7) in the first group and 0.37 (0.48) (range, 0-3) in the second (P<.0001). More asthma patients than nonasthmatics perceived dyspnea at all degrees of bronchial obstruction. PD20 was different in the 2 groups (1.6 [2] vs 6.03 [5]for the first and second groups, respectively; P<.003), but there was no significant relation between PD20 and PS20 (Spearman s correlation coefficient, 0.19; P= .221).",
"Sensitivity and absolute perceptual magnitude characterize the perception of bronchoconstriction (PB). To define whether clinical and functional characteristics and level of bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR) correlate with these two PB indexes during bronchial challenge in asthma. PB on both the Borg scale and the visual-analogue scale (VAS) was assessed in 45 consecutive asthmatics during a methacholine-induced decrease in forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV(1)) and specifically quantified as Borg and VAS slope, as a measure of sensitivity, whereas scores at a 20% FEV(1) decrease (PB(20)) were assessed as a measure of absolute perceptual magnitude. Clinical score and BHR were also assessed. PB(20) related to slope on both the Borg scale and the VAS (p < 0.0001). PB(20) and slope related neither to clinical score nor to baseline functional data on both scales. The relationship between the level of BHR and PB(20) on either scale was of questionable clinical significance (r(2) = 7%).",
"Cigarette smoking is associated with worse symptoms in asthma and abnormal segmental airways in healthy subjects. We tested the hypothesis that current symptom control in smokers with asthma is associated with altered segmental airway dimensions measured by CT scan. In 93 subjects with mild, moderate, and severe asthma (smokers and never smokers), we recorded Asthma Control Questionnaire-6 (ACQ-6) score, spirometry (FEV1; forced expiratory flow rate, midexpiratory phase [FEF(25%-75%)]), residual volume (RV), total lung capacity (TLC), and CT scan measures of the right bronchial (RB) and left bronchial (LB) segmental airway dimensions (wall thickness, mm; lumen area, mm²) in the RB3/LB3, RB6/LB6, and RB10/LB10 (smaller) airways. The CT scan segmental airway (RB10 and LB10) lumen area was reduced in smokers with asthma compared with never smokers with asthma; RB10, 16.6 mm² (interquartile range, 12.4-19.2 mm²) vs 19.6 mm² (14.7-24.2 mm²) (P = .01); LB10, 14.8 mm² (12.1-19.0 mm²) vs 19.9 mm² (14.5-25.0 mm²) (P = .003), particularly in severe disease, with no differences in wall thickness or in larger airway (RB3 and LB3) dimensions. In smokers with asthma, a reduced lumen area in fifth-generation airways (RB10 or LB10) was associated with poor symptom control (higher ACQ-6 score) (-0.463 [-0.666 to -0.196], P = .001, and -0.401 [-0.619 to -0.126], P = .007, respectively) and reduced postbronchodilator FEF(25%-75%) (0.521 [0.292-0.694], P < .001, and [0.471 [0.236-0.654], P = .001, respectively) and higher RV/TLC %.",
"The frequency of smokers among asthma patients often mirrors the frequency of smokers among healthy individuals. Smoking has been shown to increase the lung function decline in adult asthma patients and change the composition of the bronchial inflammation. To examine the consequences of smoking in a large cohort of young asthma patients. Seven hundred ninety-three asthma patients, aged 14 to 44, were examined using lung function measurements, bronchial provocations, clinical interviews, and questionnaires. Forty-five percent of participants were smokers; smokers had significantly lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)), FEV(1) in percent of predicted value (FEV(1)% pred), and FEV(1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) values compared with nonsmokers, and there was a dose-response relationship between tobacco exposure and these lung function measures. Smoking seemingly affected the FEV(1) growth already in adolescence, and before the age of 45, significantly more smokers than nonsmokers had signs of airflow limitation, with FEV(1)/FVC ratios below 0.70. Smokers had more asthma symptoms despite receiving inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) treatment as frequently as did nonsmokers.",
"In asthmatic subjects, symptoms are closely related to change in FEV1. In smokers with CAL, symptoms change little during bronchial challenge despite large changes in FEV1. The differences in perception between the two subject groups are not due to differences in acute hyperinflation during challenge. We propose that heavy smokers may adapt to poor lung function, or may have damaged sensory nerves as a result of prolonged cigarette smoking.",
"Smokers who develop chronic airflow limitation (CAL) do not usually present for medical attention until their lung disease is well advanced. In contrast, asthmatic subjects experience acute symptoms and present for care early in the course of their disease. The aim of this study was to determine whether subjects with asthma differ from smokers with CAL in their ability to perceive acute methacholine-induced bronchoconstriction. Thirteen subjects with diagnosed asthma and 10 current smokers with CAL, defined as forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1)<75% predicted and FEV1/forced vital capacity<80%, with no previous diagnosis of asthma, were challenged with methacholine. Symptom severity was recorded on a Borg scale. Lung volumes were measured before challenge and after the FEV1 had fallen by 20%. After methacholine falls in FEV1 were similar in the asthmatic subjects and smokers. The regression lines relating change in FEV1 to symptom score were significantly steeper in asthmatic subjects than smokers (0.13 +/- 0.04, 0.03 +/- 0.04, respectively, P<0.01). At 20% fall in FEV1 there were no significant differences between asthmatic subjects and smokers in the magnitude of change of lung volumes."
] | 446 |
Is there a relationship between serum S-100beta protein and neuropsychologic dysfunction after cardiopulmonary bypass? | [
"Over the past decade, the glial protein S-100beta has been used to detect cerebral injury in a number of clinical settings including cardiac surgery. Previous investigations suggest that S-100beta is capable of identifying patients with cerebral dysfunction after cardiopulmonary bypass. Whether detection of elevated levels S-100beta reflects long-term cognitive impairment remains to be shown. The present study evaluated whether perioperative release of S-100beta after coronary artery operations with cardiopulmonary bypass could predict early or late neuropsychologic impairment. A total of 100 patients undergoing elective coronary bypass without a previous history of neurologic events were prospectively studied. To exclude noncerebral sources of S-100beta, we did not use cardiotomy suction or retransfusion of shed mediastinal blood. Serial perioperative measurements of S-100beta were performed with the use of a new sensitive immunoluminometric assay up to 8 hours after the operation. Patients underwent cognitive testing on a battery of 11 tests before the operation, before discharge from the hospital, and 3 months later. No significant correlation was found between S-100beta release and neuropsychologic measures either 5 days or 3 months after the operation.",
"Despite using a sensitive immunoluminometric assay of S-100beta, we found no evidence to support the suggestion that early release of S-100beta may reflect long-term neurologic injury capable of producing cognitive impairment."
] | [
"Sepsis-associated encephalopathy (SAE) is defined as a diffuse cerebral dysfunction induced by the systemic response to infection without any clinical or laboratory evidence of direct infectious involvement of the central nervous system. The astroglial protein S100B has been used as a marker of severity of brain injury and as a prognostic index in trauma patients and cardiac arrest survivors. We measured S100B serum levels in patients with severe sepsis to investigate if the severity of SAE correlated with an increase in S100B levels. Twenty-one patients, with a diagnosis of severe sepsis, were included in this study. S100B levels were measured at intensive care unit (ICU) admission, 72 h and 7 days after admission. Their association with markers of brain dysfunction such as Glasgow coma scale (GCS), and EEG, and with sepsis-related organ failure assessment score (SOFA) and ICU mortality was investigated. Fourteen patients had elevated S100B levels. The levels did not correlate with GCS at admission, EEG pattern, or SOFA scores. Also, S100B levels did not differ between patients who recovered neurologically and those who did not (P = 0.62).",
"yes. This study strongly suggests that the combination of preoperative cerebral ischemic injury and use of cardiopulmonary bypass can predict postoperative health status at 3 months. Cerebral magnetic resonance imaging might be a more specific indicator than age for preoperative assessment of vulnerability or resilience during rehabilitation after on-pump cardiac surgery.",
"Patients resuscitated from cardiac arrest have a high early mortality rate. Prognostic evaluation based on clinical observations is uncertain and would benefit from the use of biochemical markers of hypoxic brain damage. The astroglial protein S-100 is an established biochemical marker of central nervous system injury. The purpose of the present study was to validate the use of serum determinations of S-100 with regard to outcome after cardiac arrest. Levels of serum S-100 were measured with a radioimmunoassay in 41 patients the first 3 days after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. The main outcome variable was fatal outcome within 14 days. S-100 levels were increased after cardiac arrest compared with controls with the highest levels observed the first day. S-100 levels day 1 and 2 correlated to the degree of coma as well as to the time of anoxia. Seventeen patients died within 14 days after the cardiac arrest. The deceased patients had increased S-100 levels on days 1 through 3 compared with survivors. All patients (100%) with an S-100 level of > or =0.2 on day 2 after the cardiac arrest died within 14 days, and 89% of the patients with levels below this limit value survived (positive and negative predictive values). The corresponding predictive values on day 1 were 71% and 85%, respectively.",
"Postoperative cognitive dysfunction occurs frequently after cardiac surgeries with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). Available data from rat CPB models are conflicting. However, none of them was designed to investigate the role of isoflurane (the main anesthetic in all of these studies) in the neurocognitive dysfunction after CPB. Isoflurane has documented neuroprotective effects so the present authors hypothesized that isoflurane prevents the neurocognitive dysfunction in rats after CPB. A prospective, interventional study. A university research laboratory. Male Sprague-Dawley rats. Male Sprague-Dawley rats were divided into 5 groups: the isoflurane CPB group, the animals were anesthetized with isoflurane and underwent 60 minutes of normothermic CPB; the chloral hydrate CPB group, the animals were anesthetized with chloral hydrate and underwent 60 minutes of normothermic CPB; the isoflurane sham group, the animals were subjected only to cannulation and the same duration of anesthesia but no CPB; the chloral hydrate sham group, the animals received only cannulation and the same duration of anesthesia but no CPB; and the naive group, the animals received no treatment. The neurocognitive function of all rats was measured on days 4 to 6 (short-term) and 31 to 33 after CPB (long-term). After the behavior tests, the animals were sacrificed, and the brain was harvested for the measurement of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) and choline acetyltransferase protein levels. Short-term (days 4-6 after CPB) learning and memory were impaired after CPB when the animals were anesthetized with chloral hydrate. When isoflurane was used, the learning and memory did not change after CPB. No long-term (days 31-33 after CPB) neurocognitive changes were found after CPB. AChE decreased significantly after isoflurane anesthesia regardless of whether CPB was performed.",
"Phentolamine administration during open-heart surgery shortens the cooling and rewarming phases of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) and hastens weaning from mechanical ventilation and extubation. Data on the effects of phentolamine on cerebral circulation and function in this setting are lacking. This study reports the cerebral effects of phentolamine using blood S100B protein levels and the middle cerebral artery pulsatility index (MCA PI). Sixty pediatric patients undergoing congenital heart disease repair were randomly assigned to receive either phentolamine 0.2 mg kg(-1) i.v. (n = 30) or placebo (n = 30) before the cooling and rewarming phases of CPB. Samples for S100B measurement were collected at seven predetermined time-points before, during and after surgery. MCA PI values were recorded at the same times as sampling. S100B blood levels were higher in the phentolamine-treated group than in controls after rewarming (3.53 +/- 1.88 vs 1.58 +/- 0.53 microg l(-1); p < 0.001), remained persistently higher at the end of surgery (2.95 +/- 0.91 vs 0.79 +/- 0.21 microg l(-1); p < 0.001) and returned to normal ranges 12 h later than in the placebo group (p > 0.05). MCA PI values were also significantly higher at the end of surgery in the phentolamine-treated group (1.83 +/- 0.50 vs 1.22 +/- 0.34; p < 0.01). Cooling and rewarming times were shorter in the phentolamine-treated group (p < 0.01, for all).",
"We tested the hypothesis that elevated postoperative interleukin-6 (IL-6) and C-reactive protein (CRP) concentrations are associated with short- and medium-term impairment of cognitive functions in patients after coronary artery surgery using cardiopulmonary bypass. Eighty-six age- and education-balanced patients ≥55 years of age undergoing elective coronary artery bypass surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass and 28 nonsurgical controls with coronary artery disease were enrolled. Recent verbal and nonverbal memory and executive functions were assessed before surgery and at 1 week and 3 months after surgery using a cognitive test battery. IL-6 concentrations were measured before surgery and 4 h after cardiopulmonary bypass, and CRP concentrations were measured before surgery and at 24 and 72 h after anesthetic induction. Overall cognitive function between high and low biomarker concentration groups was analyzed by the Wilcoxon rank-sum test. Recent memory was at least 1 standard deviation (SD) impaired at 1 week and 3 months in the high-CRP compared with low-CRP and in the high-IL-6 compared with low-IL-6 concentration groups. Overall cognitive function was significantly (P = 0.04 and P = 0.01, respectively) different between the high- and low-CRP concentration groups (CRP assayed 24 h after anesthetic induction) at both 1 week and 3 months. Overall cognitive function was also significantly (P = 0.04) different between the high and low-IL-6 concentration groups at 1 week after surgery.",
"Although coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG) improves the quality of life and functional capacity for numerous patients, many also exhibit impairment in cognitive function immediately after surgery. Although the etiology of this cognitive decline is multifactorial, the inflammatory response to the primary insult may modulate the extent of dysfunction. Patients with low preoperative levels of anti-endotoxin core antibody (EndoCAb) are more likely to experience adverse outcomes, suggesting that decreased immunity to endotoxin causes a heightened release of inflammatory mediators. We therefore sought to determine the association of decreased EndoCAb and the incidence of postoperative cognitive decline. EndoCAb levels were measured before surgery in 460 patients undergoing elective CABG. Cognitive function was measured preoperatively and 6 weeks postoperatively. Multivariable analysis accounted for the effects of age, Parsonnet score, sex, body mass index, baseline cognition, years of education, history of hypertension, bypass time, cross-clamp time, and number of grafts. At 6-week follow-up, 122 patients (36%) showed cognitive decline. Lower preoperative EndoCAb levels were associated with a greater incidence and severity of postoperative cognitive decline. The elderly with decreased endotoxin immunity are particularly susceptible to this decline (relative risk=1.97 for age >64).",
"Raised concentrations of plasma homocysteine and C-reactive protein (CRP) are associated with vascular disease and have also been implicated as independent risk factors for cognitive impairment in population studies. To investigate the association of plasma homocysteine and CRP with cognition in patients scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Cognition was assessed in 264 patients using a standard battery of neuropsychological tests. Patients were classified as having preexisting cognitive impairment (PreCI) by reference to a healthy control group or postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD) by reference to baseline test scores. PreCI was present in 37.3% of patients, and POCD was present in 18.3, 12.1 and 13.6% of patients at 1 week, 3 months and 12 months postoperatively. On multivariate analysis neither homocysteine nor CRP were independently associated with cognition at any testing time but were strongly associated with age and left ventricular function.",
"A large part of the increases in S100beta protein and NSE during CPB and SCP is not attributed to neuronal damage, but to contamination with the blood from the surgical field. To determine whether these markers are useful to predict neurologic complications, it will be necessary to exclude contamination from the surgical field as observed in the present study.",
"Only high levels of protein S100B found 7 h post CPB were associated with decline of explicit memory function, not the release seen during CPB. Thus, when using protein S100B, only values several hours remote from surgery should be used as a brain cell injury marker.",
"To determine the relationship of serum S-100B and C-tau levels to long-term outcome after mild traumatic brain injury (mild TBI). A prospective study of 35 mild TBI subjects presenting to the emergency department. Six hour serum S-100B and C-tau levels compared to 3-month Rivermead Post Concussion Questionnaire (RPCQ) scores and post-concussive syndrome (PCS). The linear correlation between marker levels and RPCQ scores was weak (S-100B: r = 0.071, C-tau: r = -0.21). There was no statistically significant correlation between marker levels and 3-month PCS (S-100B: AUC = 0.589, 95%CI. 038, 0.80; C-tau: AUC = 0.634, 95%CI 0.43, 0.84). The sensitivity of these markers ranged from 43.8-56.3% and the specificity from 35.7-71.4%.",
"yes. This study suggested that mild cognitive impairment was associated with pulmonary complications after coronary artery bypass graft surgery.",
"yes. These data suggest that subtle cerebral injuries after CEA, even in the absence of overt strokes, are associated with significant increases in serum S100B but not neuron-specific enolase levels. Analyses of earlier time points in future studies of subtle cognitive injuries and biochemical markers of cerebral injury after CEA may be revealing.",
"The effects of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) on serum neuron-specific enolase (NSE) levels in patients without cognitive dysfunction and neurological deficit are not yet clarified. This study was designed to see the sole effect of extracorporeal circulation on serum NSE levels in patients without any clinically observed neurological deficit. Thirty-two consecutive patients undergoing first elective open-heart surgery were included in this prospective study. Neurological status was assessed by clinical examination before surgery, and on the postoperative first and second days. Blood samples were obtained after anesthesia induction before the administration of heparin, within the first hour post CPB, 24 and 48 hours after the end of operation. Each blood sample was assayed for hemoglobin (Hb), hematocrit and NSE levels. The Friedman's Test to compare the serial measurements of NSE and hemoglobin samples and the post-hoc Tukey test for paired comparisons between pre and postoperative values were applied Pearson correlation test was used to examine the correlation between NSE concentration and aortic cross-clamping time and CPB time, age, postoperative hematocrit and hemoglobin levels and the amount of blood products transfusion. There were no significant differences between NSE values at any sampling time: 11.6+/-8.0 mg/dL, 8.7+/-4.7 mg/dL, 9.3+/-5.4 mg/dL and 8.9+/-5.8 mg/dL, measured preoperatively, at the end of operation, on the first and second post-operative days, respectively. There was no significant correlation between NSE values with any of the compared variables including CPB time.",
"We undertook to determine the influence of perfusion pressure during hypothermic cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) on cerebral blood flow (CBF) and cognitive memory outcome at 6 months postoperatively. Nineteen patients who underwent hypothermic nonpulsatile CPB for elective coronary artery bypass (CAB) surgery were evaluated by (133)Xe measurement of the CBF and by the Incidental Memory Assessment for evaluating cognitive memory (IMTscore), both at baseline before the operation (T(1)) and again at 5 to 6 months postoperatively (T(2)). Overall, the mean CBF fell significantly from 39 +/- 5 mL.(100 g)(-1).min(-1) at T(1) to 33 +/- 3 mL.(100 g)(-1).min(-1) at T(2) (P < .001). The decrease in CBF from T(1) to T(2) (DeltaCBF(2-1)) correlated with a significant reduction in the IMTscore from T1 to T2 (DeltaIMTscore(2-1)) (P < .001) and with a mean arterial pressure during CPB (MAPCPB) of <60 mm Hg (P = .05). Cluster analysis of DeltaCBF(2-1) and DeltaIMTscore(2-1) demonstrated that the patients with the greatest decrease in CBF showed the greatest decrease in IMTscore, whereas cluster analysis of DeltaCBF(2-1) and MAPCPB indicated that patients with a perfusion pressure maintained at a mean of <60 mm Hg during CPB were prone to a greater decrease in later postoperative CBF.",
"To evaluate the relationship between cerebral oxygen saturation and neuropsychological dysfunction after cardiac surgery. Prospective and observational study. Operating room and cardiac floor of a university hospital. One hundred one patients undergoing elective cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass Bilateral noninvasive cerebral oxygen saturations were monitored over the forehead. The anesthetic and surgical techniques were performed as usual, and no interventions were attempted based on the monitor. Neuropsychological outcome was assessed by the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) and the antisaccadic eye movement test (ASEM). Preoperative baseline values of cerebral oxygen saturation (rSO(2)) were 58.6% +/- 10.2%. Patients with the nadir rSO(2) <35% had significantly higher incidences of postoperative ASEM and MMSE impairments than those with rSO(2) always above 35% (44% and 33% v 12% and 9%, respectively). Patients with areas of rSO(2) <40% for more than 10 minutes . % presented with a significantly higher incidence of postoperative ASEM and MMSE impairments than those with areas of rSO(2) <40% for less than 10 minutes . % (42% and 32% v 13% and 10%, respectively). Patients with postoperative ASEM or MMSE impairment had significantly lower nadir rSO(2) and significantly larger areas of rSO(2) <40%, <45%, and <50% than those with normal postoperative neuropsychological outcome. However, multivariate logistic regression analysis showed that areas of rSO(2) <40% were the only predictor for both postoperative ASEM and MMSE impairments.",
"It is widely assumed that decline in cognition after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is related to use of the cardiopulmonary bypass pump. Because most studies have not included comparable control groups, it remains unclear whether postoperative cognitive changes are specific to cardiopulmonary bypass, general aspects of surgery, or vascular pathologies of the aging brain. This nonrandomized study included four groups: CABG patients (n = 140); off-pump coronary surgery (n = 72); nonsurgical cardiac controls (NSCC) with diagnosed coronary artery disease but no surgery (n = 99); and heart healthy controls (HHC) with no cardiac risk factors (n = 69). Subjects were evaluated at baseline (preoperatively), 3 months, and 12 months. Eight cognitive domains and a global cognitive score, as well as depressive and subjective symptoms were analyzed. At baseline, patients with coronary artery disease (CABG, off-pump, and NSCC) had lower performance than the HHC group in several cognitive domains. By 3 months, all groups had improved. From 3 to 12 months, there were minimal intrasubject changes for all groups. No consistent differences between the CABG and off-pump patients were observed.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether cognitive impairment is related to cardiopulmonary bypass. Twenty-five patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting without cardiopulmonary bypass were matched with 50 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting with cardiopulmonary bypass. All patients received the same anesthetic regimen, and one surgeon performed all the operations. A battery of 10 standard tests of neuropsychologic function were performed before, at discharge, and 3 months after the operation. A comprehensive multidimensional measure of subjective health status was used as the primary clinical measure of functional outcome. The groups were similar with respect to age, sex, and ventricular function and differed only in the need for a circumflex artery graft. Both groups showed significant improvement in the comprehensive multidimensional measure of subjective health status at 3 months. At discharge most neuropsychologic tests had deteriorated in both groups (the same 4 tests had deteriorated significantly in both groups, and an additional test had deteriorated significantly in the cardiopulmonary bypass group). At 3 months all but one test in the cardiopulmonary bypass group had returned to or exceeded baseline performance. The same 2 tests had improved significantly in both groups, and a further test had improved significantly in the group without cardiopulmonary bypass. At no specific time point was there a significant difference between the absolute or change scores between the groups on any of the tests.",
"yes. The results suggest that elevated postoperative IL-6 and CRP concentrations are associated with the subsequent development of short- and medium-term impairment of cognitive functions after coronary artery surgery.",
"Perfluorocarbon (PFC) emulsions are artificial oxygen carriers that have been shown to attenuate the effects of air embolism. Cerebral air embolism, known to occur during cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), may contribute to adverse cerebral outcomes after cardiac surgery. We designed this study to evaluate the effect of a 60% PFC emulsion (perfluoro-tert-butylcyclohexane; PTBCH) on the inflammatory response and neurocognitive outcome of rats after CPB. Twenty-eight Sprague Dawley rats subjected to 60 min of CPB were randomly divided into two groups: PTBCH CPB animals receiving 3 mL/kg of PTBCH into the venous reservoir and control CPB animals receiving 3 mL/kg of 0.9% saline. At several time points, the cytokines interleukin (IL)-1beta, IL-6, IL-10, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha were measured. Neurocognitive testing was planned postoperatively using the Morris water maze. Histologic samples were obtained in a separate series of experiments. Physiologic variables were comparable between groups, but the PTBCH CPB animals required more phenylephrine compared with the controls. Cytokine levels in the PTBCH CPB group were significantly higher than in the control group at 2 and 4 h after CPB (P<0.05). Neurocognitive outcome could not be evaluated as none of the animals in the PTBCH CPB group survived. Myocardial histological analysis revealed increased areas of contraction band necrosis in the PTBCH CPB animals (P = 0.034).",
"yes. The association of serum S100B levels with EEG might be helpful when used together to formulate outcome in comatose patients within 24 h after cardiac arrest. However, increased levels of S100B 12 h after a cardiac arrest might be expression of a still amendable brain damage.",
"Three to 5 years after the CABG surgery no difference in neurocognitive deficits is found between on- and off-pump CABG patients, indicating that the extracorporeal circulation (ECC) may not be the main cause of late neuropsychological decline.",
"yes. Serum concentrations and kinetics of protein S-100B and NSE have a high predictive value for early neurobehavioral outcome after acute stroke. Protein S-100B concentrations at days 2 to 4 after acute stroke may provide valuable information for both neurological status and functional impairment at discharge from the acute care hospital.",
"The study aimed to investigate the predictive value of neurobiochemical markers of brain damage (protein S-100B and neuron-specific enolase [NSE]) with respect to early neurobehavioral outcome after stroke. We investigated 58 patients with completed stroke who were admitted to the stroke unit of the Department of Neurology at Magdeburg University. Serial venous blood samples were taken after admission and during the first 4 days, and protein S-100B and NSE were analyzed by the use of immunoluminometric assays. In all patients, lesion topography and vascular supply were analyzed and volume of infarcted brain areas was calculated. The neurological status was evaluated by a standardized neurological examination and the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) on admission, at days 1 and 4 on the stroke unit, at day 10, and at discharge from the hospital. Comprehensive neuropsychological examinations were performed in all patients with first-ever stroke event and supratentorial brain infarctions. Functional outcome was measured with the Barthel score at discharge from the hospital. NSE and protein S-100B concentrations were significantly correlated with both volume of infarcted brain areas and NIHSS scores. Patients with an adverse neurological outcome had a significantly higher and significantly longer release of both markers. Neuropsychological impairment was associated with higher protein S-100B release, but this did not reach statistical significance.",
"High-intensity transient signals (HITS) are the transcranial Doppler representation of both air and solid cerebral emboli. We studied the frequency of HITS associated with different surgical maneuvers during cardiopulmonary bypass for coronary artery bypass graft surgery and their association with postoperative cognitive dysfunction (POCD). We combined 356 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass graft from 2 clinical trials who had both neuropsychological testing (before, 1 week and 3 months after surgery) and transcranial Doppler during cardiopulmonary bypass. HITS were grouped into periods that included: cannulation, cardiopulmonary bypass onset, aortic crossclamp-on, aortic crossclamp-off, side clamp-on, side clamp-off, and decannulation. POCD was defined by a decreased combined Z-score of at least 2.0 or reduction in Z-scores of at least 2.0 in 20% of the individual tests. Incidence of POCD was 47.3% and 6.3% at 1 week and 3 months after surgery. There was no association between cardiopulmonary bypass counts of HITS and POCD at 1 week (P=0.617) and 3 months (P=0.110). No differences in HITS counts were identified at any of the surgical periods between patients with and without POCD. Factors affecting HITS counts were surgical period (P<0.0001), blood flow velocity (P=0.012), cardiopulmonary bypass duration (P=0.040), and clinical study (P=0.048).",
"Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is known to cause cerebrovascular dysfunction. The etiology of these complications is complex, but disruption of normal cerebral endothelial function as a consequence of inflammatory or hypoperfusion phenomena have been implicated. The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of CPB time on cerebrovascular reactivity and to investigate the correlation of these findings with measured inflammatory markers. Cardiopulmonary bypass was carried out for 30 or 60 minutes on two groups of rats. Sham groups underwent the same surgical procedure without CPB. The middle cerebral artery was harvested and prepared for assessment of induced endothelial and vascular smooth muscle cell responses. Systemic inflammation was evaluated by measuring tumor necrosis factor-alpha and immunohistochemical staining for intercellular adhesion molecule-1. Acetylcholine caused a dose-dependent vasodilation in the control groups that was absent in animals undergoing CPB (21.3% +/- 1.3% increase in diameter at 30 minutes in the sham group compared with 5.4% +/- 1.1% in the corresponding CPB group, p < 0.001). Significantly, this was apparent after only 30 minutes of CPB. Cardiopulmonary bypass did not alter the response to sodium nitroprusside (45.3% +/- 8.6% after 30 minutes in the sham group compared with 57.8% +/- 8.0% in the corresponding CPB group, p < 0.2). Furthermore, the contractile response to serotonin remained intact in all groups (32.9 +/- 4.6 and 27.6 +/- 2.6 at 30 and 60 minutes, respectively, in the sham groups compared with 23.1 +/- 1.6 and 28.0 +/- 4.4 in the corresponding CPB groups, p < 0.2). Cardiopulmonary bypass also led to an early and marked increase in tumor necrosis factor-alpha and overexpression of intercellular adhesion molecule-1.",
"Neuropsychologic disorders are common after coronary artery bypass operations. Air microbubbles are identified as a contributing factor. A dynamic bubble trap might reduce the number of gaseous microemboli. A total of 50 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass operation were recruited for this study. In 26 patients a dynamic bubble trap was placed between the arterial filter and the aortic cannula (group 1), and in 24 patients a placebo dynamic bubble trap was used (group 2). The number of high-intensity transient signals within the proximal middle cerebral artery was continuously measured on both sides during bypass, which was separated into 4 periods: phase 1, start of bypass until aortic clamping; phase 2, aortic clamping until rewarming; phase 3, rewarming until clamp removal; and phase 4, clamp removal until end of bypass. S100 beta values were measured before, immediately after, and 6 and 48 hours after the operation and before hospital discharge. The bubble elimination rate during bypass was 77% in group 1 and 28% in group 2 (P <.0001). The number of high-intensity signals was lower in group 1 during phase 1 (5.8 +/- 7.3 vs 16 +/- 15.4, P <.05 vs group 2) and phase 2 (6.9 +/- 7.3 vs 24.2 +/- 27.3, P <.05 vs group 2) but not during phases 3 and 4. Serum S100 beta values were equally increased in both groups immediately after the operation. Group 2 patients had higher S100 beta values 6 hours after the operation and significantly higher S100 beta values 48 hours after the operation (0.06 +/- 0.14 vs 0.18 +/- 0.24, P =.0133 vs group 2). Age and S100 beta values were correlated in group 2 but not in group 1.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if patients receiving statin therapy before coronary artery bypass grafting surgery would have less cognitive dysfunction after cardiopulmonary bypass as a consequence of a diminished inflammatory response. Retrospective observational study of patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. Referral center for cardiothoracic surgery at a university hospital. Four hundred forty patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass. None. Thirty-five percent of patients received statins in the preoperative period. Multivariable analysis revealed no effect of preoperative statin therapy on cognitive function (p = 0.67). Post hoc analysis revealed that statin therapy at hospital discharge was associated with less improvement in cognitive performance at 6 weeks after surgery (p = 0.011). No significant differences were found between statin therapy groups in either range or maximum value of any of the cytokines (p > 0.05).",
"yes. S100B release is related to embolus and thrombin formation during CPB, indicating that thrombofibrinous embolism is involved in perioperative brain damage. Inflammatory parameters (i.e. interleukin 8 and C5a) seem to have no influence on S100B release.",
"yes. These findings suggest that preoperative cognitive impairment associated with cerebral ischemic lesions and an increased risk of postoperative cognitive dysfunction existed in our patient cohort undergoing cardiac surgery.",
"Neurocognitive disorders commonly occur following cardiac surgery. However, the underlying etiology of these disorders is not well understood. The current study examined the association between perioperative glucose levels and other risk factors and the onset of neurocognitive disorders in adult patients following coronary artery bypass and/or valvular surgery. Adult patients who underwent their first cardiac surgery at a large tertiary care medical center were identified and those with neurocognitive disorders prior to surgery were excluded. Demographic, perioperative, and postoperative neurocognitive outcome data were extracted from the Society for Thoracic Surgery database, and from electronic medical records, between January 2004 and June 2009. Multiple clinical risk factors and measures associated with insulin resistance, such as hyperglycemia, were assessed. Multivariable Cox competing risk survival models were used to assess hyperglycemia and postoperative neurocognitive disorders at follow up, adjusting for other risk factors and confounding variables. Of the 855 patients included in the study, 271 (31.7%) had new onset neurocognitive disorders at follow-up. Age, sex, New York Heart Failure (NYHF) Class, length of postoperative intensive care unit stay, perioperative blood product transfusion, and other key factors were identified and assessed as potential risk factors (or confounders) for neurocognitive disorders at follow-up. Bivariate analyses suggested that new onset neurocognitive disorders were associated with NYHF Class, cardiopulmonary bypass, history of diabetes, intraoperative blood product use, and number of diseased coronary vessels, which are commonly-accepted risk factors in cardiac surgery. In addition, higher first glucose level (median =116 mg/dL) and higher peak glucose >169 mg/dL were identified as risk factors. Male sex and nonuse of intra-operative blood products appeared to be protective. Controlling for potential risk factors and confounders, multivariable Cox survival models suggested that increased perioperative first glucose measured in 20 unit increments, was significantly associated with the onset of postoperative neurocognitive disorders at follow-up (hazard ratio [HR] =1.16, P<0.001) and that women had an elevated risk for this outcome (HR =4.18, P=0.01).",
"S100beta protein level correlates with the duration of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) and aortic crossclamp times, but is different during pulsatile and nonpulsatile CPB. In this study, we investigated the time course of the release of S100beta protein during and after pulsatile and nonpulsatile CPB. This is a prospective study. Twenty patients had open-heart surgery with pulsatile flow and 20 with nonpulsatile flow. We compared complement proteins, interleukins, white blood cells and S100beta protein before the initiation of CPB, immediately prior to aortic crossclamping, following unclamping, and at postoperative 1st and 24th hours. In the pulsatile CPB group following aortic unclamping, S100beta protein (p = 0.028) and C3a (p = 0.011) levels were significantly lower than those of the nonpulsatile group. In the pulsatile CPB group at postoperative first hour, C3a level (p = 0.018) and absolute neutrophil count (p = 0.034) were significantly lower than those of the nonpulsatile group. None of the patients developed a neurological deficit and all of the patients survived after the operation and were discharged from the hospital.",
"yes. the serum levels of S-100 and NSE increased after cardiac arrest due to the anoxic brain damage. The determination of S-100 and NSE can be used as an adjunct to predict long-term outcome after cardiac arrest.",
"Previous uncontrolled studies have suggested that there is late cognitive decline after coronary artery bypass grafting that may be attributable to use of the cardiopulmonary bypass pump. In this prospective, nonrandomized, longitudinal study, we compared cognitive outcomes after on-pump coronary artery bypass surgery (n = 152) with off-pump bypass surgery patients (n = 75); nonsurgical cardiac comparison subjects (n = 99); and 69 heart-healthy comparison (HHC) subjects. The primary outcome measure was change from baseline to 72 months in the following cognitive domains: verbal memory, visual memory, visuoconstruction, language, motor speed, psychomotor speed, attention, executive function, and a composite global score. There were no consistent differences in 72-month cognitive outcomes among the three groups with coronary artery disease (CAD). The CAD groups had lower baseline performance, and a greater degree of decline compared with HHC. The degree of change was small, with none of the groups having more than 0.5 SD decline. None of the groups was substantially worse at 72 months compared with baseline.",
"yes. The current findings suggest that patients with a history of PTSD undergoing coronary artery surgery using cardiopulmonary bypass may be especially vulnerable to postoperative cognitive impairment.",
"yes. Protein S-100 is present in extracerebral fluids before and after cardiac surgery in children. The time point of fluid withdrawal after the operation did not influence the protein S-100 concentration.",
"To identify whether the presence of preoperative depression in patients with diabetes mellitus is a risk factor for postoperative cognitive dysfunction after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Data from 90 patients with diabetes mellitus undergoing elective CABG were analyzed. Hemodynamic data (arterial and jugular venous blood gas values) were measured during cardiopulmonary bypass. Preoperatively, all patients were given the 21-item Beck depression inventory to identify the presence of depression. In addition, all patients underwent a battery of neurological and neuropsychological tests the day before surgery, 7 days after surgery, and 6 months after surgery. The rate of cognitive dysfunction was 50% at 7 days and 23% at 6 months after surgery. Age, hypertension, presence of depression, duration of SjvO(2) ≤ 50%, ascending aorta atherosclerosis, diabetic retinopathy, and insulin therapy were independent predictors of short-term cognitive dysfunction, whereas HbA1c, diabetic retinopathy, insulin therapy, and presence of depression were independent predictors of long-term cognitive dysfunction.",
"yes. The present study shows that hypoxic brain damage after cardiac arrest can be estimated by measurement of serum S-100 concentrations. The method can be used in early prognostic evaluation of short-term outcome after cardiac arrest.",
"yes. High serum cortisol level in the first postoperative morning was associated with increased risk of cognitive dysfunction seven days after coronary artery bypass graft surgery.",
"yes. S-100beta and NSE are frequently increased and associated with brain injury in patients with severe sepsis and septic shock. S-100beta levels more closely reflected severe encephalopathy and type of brain lesions than NSE and the Glasgow Coma Scale.",
"yes. In adolescent survivors of cardiopulmonary bypass surgery for CHD, specific brain regions such as the hippocampus may show long-term persistent alteration and correlate with intellectual deficits, particularly with verbal and memory functions.",
"The relationship of cerebral saturation measured by near-infrared spectroscopy with serum biomarker of brain injury S100B was investigated in infants undergoing cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass. Prospective cohort study. Single-center children's hospital. Forty infants between 1 and 12 months old weighing greater than or equal to 4 kg with congenital heart disease undergoing cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass were enrolled. None. Serum S100B was measured at eight time points over 72 hours using enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Physiologic data including arterial, cerebral, and somatic regional oxygen saturations measured by near-infrared spectroscopy were synchronously recorded at 1-minute intervals from anesthesia induction through 72 postoperative hours. The arterial-cerebral oxygen saturation difference was calculated as the difference between arterial saturation and cerebral regional saturation. Thirty-eight patients, 5.4 ± 2.5 months old, were included in the analysis; two were excluded due to the use of postoperative extracorporeal membrane oxygenation. Seventeen patients (44.7%) had preoperative cyanosis. S100B increased during cardiopulmonary bypass in all patients, from a median preoperative baseline of mean ± SE: 0.055 ± 0.038 to a peak of 0.610 ± 0.038 ng/mL, p less than 0.0001. Patients without preoperative cyanosis had a higher S100B peak at the end of cardiopulmonary bypass. Although the absolute cerebral regional saturation on cardiopulmonary bypass was not associated with S100B elevation, patients who had arterial-cerebral oxygen saturation difference greater than 50 at any time during cardiopulmonary bypass had a higher S100B peak (mean ± SE: 1.053 ± 0.080 vs 0.504 ± 0.039 ng/mL; p < 0.0001).",
"Patients undergoing cardiac surgery procedures are thought to be at risk of early neuropsychological deficits and delirium. Regional cerebral hypoperfusion may play a role in the etiology of this complication. We hypothesized that low systemic perfusion pressure during cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) would correlate with early postoperative cognitive dysfunction in on-pump patients. In this prospective, randomized, single-center trial, we assigned 92 patients scheduled for elective or urgent coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) to high-pressure (HP: 80-90 mm Hg, n = 44) or low-pressure (LP: 60-70 mm Hg, n = 48) perfusion groups during CPB. Patients with prior cerebrovascular or psychiatric disorders were excluded. Primary end point was the cognitive outcome as measured by Mini-Mental-Status examination before and 48 h after surgery. Patients' pre- and intra-operative characteristics did not differ between groups. Significantly more patients in the LP group developed postoperative delirium than in the HP group (LP 13%. vs HP 0%, p = 0.017). The postoperative drop in Mini-Mental-Status scores was significantly greater in the LP group (LP 3.9 ± 6.5 vs HP 1.1 ± 1.9; p = 0.012). No group differences were detected in cerebral oxygenation measured by near-infrared spectroscopy during CPB. The LP group's postoperative arterial lactate concentration in the intensive care unit was significantly higher as compared with the HP group (LP 2.0 ± 1.1 mmol l(-1) vs HP 1.4 ± 0.6 mmol l(-1); p < 0.001). We observed no differences between the groups in any other postoperative clinical, functional, or laboratory parameters.",
"yes. Protein C -1641 AA genotype is associated with decreased survival, more organ dysfunction, and more systemic inflammation in patients having severe sepsis and with increased interleukin-6 levels after cardiopulmonary bypass surgery.",
"To determine the extent to which preoperative performance on tests of executive function and memory was associated with delirium after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Prospective observational cohort study. Two academic medical centers and one Department of Veterans Affairs medical center in Massachusetts. Eighty subjects without preoperative delirium undergoing CABG or CABG-valve surgery completed baseline neuropsychological assessments with validated measures of memory and executive function. Beginning on postoperative Day 2, a battery to diagnose delirium was administered daily. Confirmatory factor analysis (CFA) was used to define two cognitive domain composites (memory and executive function). The loading pattern of neuropsychological measures onto the latent cognitive domains was determined a priori. Poisson regression was used to model the association between neuropsychological performance and cognitive domain composite scores and risk of postoperative delirium. The association was expressed as the difference between impaired (0.5 standard deviations (SDs) below mean) and nonimpaired (0.5 SDs above mean) performers. Forty subjects (50%) developed delirium. Measures of memory function were not significantly related to delirium. Of the executive function measures, verbal fluency, category fluency, Hopkins Verbal Learning Test learning, and backward recounting of days and months were significantly related to delirium. Preoperative mental status was a strong predictor of postoperative delirium. After controlling for age, sex, education, medical comorbidity, mental status, and the other cognitive domain, CFA cognitive domain composites suggest that risk for delirium is specific for executive functioning impairment (relative risk (RR) = 2.77, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.12-6.87) but not for memory impairment (RR = 0.49, 95% CI = 0.19-1.25).",
"Vascular pathology is associated with reduced performance on neuropsychological tests, particularly in older adults. A likely explanation involves a disruption in the blood brain barrier (BBB). Work from clinical samples show alterations in BBB function is associated with cognitive dysfunction on testing, though no study has examined this possibility in healthy older adults. 35 older adults, without significant neurological or psychiatric history, underwent fasting blood draw and neuropsychological testing. Serum levels of S100beta were quantified to provide a measure of BBB function. Partial correlations showed S100beta levels were inversely related to performance in multiple cognitive domains, including memory (r = 0.43, p = 0.02), psychomotor speed and visual attention (r = 0.37, p = 0.05), and working memory (r = -0.48, p = 0.008).",
"yes. Preexisting cognitive dysfunctions as assessed by TMT-B can be a marker of preoperative brain dysfunction, which, in turn, in addition to brain damage caused by cardiac surgery procedures, may further predispose patients to poor behavioral functional capacity and outcome 1 year after surgery. Impaired cognitive functions before surgery should be considered when evaluating the effects of cardiac surgery procedures on long-term behavioral functional status of patients.",
"Hypothermic and normothermic cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) have resulted in apparently contradictionary cardiac and neurologic outcome. Cerebrovascular risk and cognitive dysfunction associated with normothermic CPB still remain uncertain. In a prospective randomized study, we measured the effects of mildly hypothermic (32 degrees C, n=72) vs. normothermic (37 degrees C, n=72) CPB on cognitive brain function. All patients received elective coronary artery bypass grafting (mean age 62.1+/-6.3 years, mean ejection fraction 60.4+/-13%). Cognitive brain function was objectively measured by cognitive P300 auditory-evoked potentials before surgery, 1 week and 4 months after surgery, respectively. Additionally, standard psychometric tests ('trailmaking test A', 'mini-mental state') were performed and clinical outcome was monitored. Patients, operated with mild hypothermia, showed a marked impairment of cognitive brain function. As compared with before surgery (370+/-45 ms), P300 evoked potentials were prolonged at 1 week (385+/-37 ms; P<0.001) and even at 4 months (378+/-34 ms, P<0.001) after surgery, respectively. In contrast, patients operated with normothermic CPB, did not show an impairment of P300 peak latencies (before surgery 369+/-36 ms, 1 week after surgery 376+/-38 ms, n.s.; 4 months after surgery 371+/-32 ms, n.s.). Group comparison revealed a trend towards prolonged P300 peak latencies in the patient group undergoing mildly hypothermic CPB (P=0.0634) 1 week after surgery. Four months postoperatively, no difference between the two groups could be shown (P=n.s.) Trailmaking test A and mini mental state test failed to discriminate any difference. Five patients died (mild hypothermia n=3, normothermia n=2) postoperatively (cardiac related n=3, sepsis n=2). None of the patients experienced major adverse cerebrovascular events.",
"We investigated whether serum levels of neuron-specific enolase (NSE) and S-100beta protein could be used to evaluate cerebral injury and to predict outcome in severe sepsis and severe septic shock. Prospective study. University hospital. In 170 consecutively enrolled patients with severe sepsis and septic shock, serum S-100beta and NSE were measured daily during four consecutive days after intensive care unit admission. Admission Glasgow Coma Scale before sedation and daily Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores were recorded in all patients. Acute encephalopathy was defined as either a state of agitation, confusion, irritability, and convulsions (type A) or characterized by somnolence, stupor, and coma (type B) and persistently observed during 72 hrs after withdrawing sedation. When clinically indicated, contrast computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging were performed to evaluate brain injury. S-100beta and NSE increased in, respectively, 72 (42%) and 90 (53%) patients. High biomarker levels were associated with the maximum Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores (p = .001), and the highest values were found in patients who died early, within 4 days of inclusion (p = .005). Low consciousness encephalopathy type B was more frequently observed in patients with elevated S-100beta (p = .004). S-100beta levels of >or=4 microg/L were associated with severe brain ischemia or hemorrhage, and values of <2 microg/L were found in patients with diffuse cerebral embolic infarction lesions. High S-100beta levels were associated with higher intensive care unit mortality (p = .04) and represented the strongest independent predictor of intensive care unit survival, whereas NSE and the Glasgow Coma Scale failed to predict fatal outcome.",
"yes. Astroglial protein S-100 is an early and sensitive marker of hypoxic brain damage and short-term outcome after cardiac arrest in humans.",
"yes. Findings indicate that increased S100beta levels are associated with poorer cognitive function in neurologically healthy older adults, implicating BBB function in age-related cognitive decline. Further work is needed to clarify possible mechanisms, particularly longitudinal studies that involve neuroimaging.",
"Stress response induced by surgery is proposed to play an important role in the pathogenesis of postoperative cognitive dysfunction. To investigate the association between postoperative serum cortisol level and occurrence of cognitive dysfunction early after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Prospective cohort study. Two teaching hospitals. One hundred and sixth-six adult patients who were referred to elective coronary artery bypass graft surgery from March 2008 to December 2009. None. Neuropsychological tests were completed one day before and seven days after surgery. Cognitive dysfunction was defined using the same definition as used in the ISPOCD1-study. Blood samples were obtained in the first postoperative morning for measurement of serum cortisol concentration. Multivariate Logistic regression analyses were performed to assess the relationship between serum cortisol level and occurrence of postoperative cognitive dysfunction. Cognitive dysfunction occurred in 39.8% (66 of 166) of patients seven days after surgery. Multivariate Logistic regression analysis showed that high serum cortisol level was significantly associated with the occurrence of postoperative cognitive dysfunction (odds ratio [OR] 2.603, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.371-4.944, P = 0.003). Other independent predictors of early postoperative cognitive dysfunction included high preoperative New York Heart Association functional class (OR 0.402, 95% CI 0.207-0.782, P = 0.007), poor preoperative Grooved Pegboard test score of nondominant hand (OR 1.022, 95% CI 1.003-1.040, P = 0.020), use of penehyclidine as premedication (OR 2.565, 95% CI 1.109-5.933, P = 0.028), and occurrence of complications within seven days after surgery (OR 2.677, 95% CI 1.201-5.963, P = 0.016).",
"Cerebral damage is a major problem after reconstructive surgery of the aortic arch and the descending aorta. Current protective strategies, including deep hypothermia and retrograde cerebral perfusion, are used to prolong the tolerated duration of circulatory arrest, and the latter may also decrease the possibility of air/particle embolization. The aim of the current study was to investigate whether the neurochemical marker S-100 is related to the duration of circulatory arrest, when the influence of embolic injury has been minimized by the use of retrograde cerebral perfusion during the last part of circulatory arrest. Arterial serum levels of S-100 were followed before, during and after reconstructive surgery of the thoracic aorta during deep hypothermic arrest in ten adults. Retrograde cerebral blood perfusion was used during the latter part of the arrest period in eight of the ten patients. Neurologic status was followed daily. All patients survived the operation. The median (range) duration of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) was 184.5 (121-386) min. The median duration of circulatory arrest and retrograde cerebral perfusion was 50 (3-118) min and 16 (0-84) min, respectively. S-100 increased from 0.10 (0.02-0.18) microg/l preoperatively to 2.37 (0.64-10.80) microg/l after CPB (P<0.01), followed by a decrease to 0.79 (0.21-2.64) microg/l on the first postoperative day (P<0.01). The duration of circulatory arrest correlated with S-100 levels after CPB (r(S) = 0.71, P<0.05) and even better with the S-100 levels on the first postoperative day (r(S) = 0.83, P<0.01). However, there was no significant correlation between duration of arrest and duration of CPB. The duration of circulatory arrest without retrograde cerebral perfusion correlated well with S-100 levels on the first postoperative day (r(S) = 0.88, P<0.01), but not significantly with S-100 levels after CPB.",
"no. Our findings indicate that increases in S-100B in the early phase after cardiac surgery are not due to release of S-100B from brain alone but also from tissue outside the brain.",
"Coronary artery bypass surgery with CPB causes a significantly greater increase in NSE and S-100beta serum levels than off-pump surgery and correlates with CPB duration.",
"Long-term outcome in patients who suffered stroke after undergoing a cardiac operation has been investigated sparingly, but increased long-term mortality has been reported. S100B is a biochemical marker of brain cell ischemia and blood-brain barrier dysfunction. The aim of this investigation was to record the long-term mortality in consecutive patients undergoing cardiac operations and to explore whether increased concentrations of S100B in blood had a predictive value for mortality. Prospectively collected clinical variables, including S100B, in 767 patients who survived more than 30 days after a cardiac operation, were analyzed with actuarial survival analysis and 678 patients were analyzed with Cox multiple regression analysis. Forty-nine patients (6.4%) were dead at follow-up (range, 18 to 42 months); 11.5% (88 of 767 patients) had elevated S100B 2 days after operation (range, 38 to 42 hours). The probability for death at follow-up was 0.239 if the S100B level was more than 0.3 microg/L, and 0.041 if it was less than 0.3 microg/L. The clinical variables independently associated with mortality were preoperative renal failure, preoperative low left ventricular ejection fraction, emergency operation, severe postoperative central nervous system complication, and elevated S100B values, which turned out to be the most powerful predictor.",
"The aim of the study was to assess long-term state and trait anxiety in cardiac surgical risk patients. Thirty two patients with serum S100B>0.3 microg/l 48 hours after cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass were matched according to age, gender, type, date and length of surgery with 35 operated patients without elevated S100B. They completed Spielberger's Anxiety Inventory (STAI). Patients with elevated S100B reported more state anxiety and trait anxiety. S100B was an independent predictor of both state and trait anxiety when controlling for perioperative variables.",
"Newborns undergoing cardiac operation may acquire some extent of neuronal damage. An early diagnosis is especially hard regarding neonates. In the past years, S-100 has been widely discussed as a marker revealing perioperative damage to the brain. Sequential blood samples from 33 neonates undergoing repair of congenital heart disease were taken perioperatively. Samples of 12 healthy neonates were taken at birth as a control group. The newborns were divided into four groups: cyanotic and acyanotic disease operated on in deep hypothermic circulatory arrest, operation without deep hypothermic cardiac arrest, and operation without extracorporeal circulation. Even in healthy neonates, serum S-100 levels were at 10-fold values compared with adults. On admission, S-100 values in the operative groups were similar. During extracorporeal circulation, levels rose to a certain degree. Cyanotic newborns operated on in deep hypothermic cardiac arrest had significantly higher S-100 levels compared with acyanotic newborns also operated on in deep hypothermic cardiac arrest (p<0.001). Two newborns who experienced seizures postoperatively had the highest absolute S-100 levels. One child with a poor neurologic outcome but no seizures did not have different values when compared with her group.",
"yes. Even slightly elevated S100B values in blood 2 days after cardiac operation imply a bad prognosis for outcome, and especially so in combination with any central nervous system complication.",
"To establish the S-100beta protein profile during carotid artery surgery to show a possible correlation between postoperative stroke and this biochemical marker. Prospective, nonrandomized study. Departments of anesthesiology, biochemistry, and vascular surgery in a single university hospital. One hundred patients consecutively scheduled for carotid endarterectomy. Postoperative neurologic complications were defined as major, occurrence of a postoperative permanent stroke, or minor, occurrence of a new postoperative transient ischemic attack lasting < 2 hours. Serum samples were obtained before induction, before carotid artery cross-clamping, after declamping, at the end of surgery, during recovery, and on the first postoperative day. Concentrations of S-100beta were analyzed using a commercially available kit (LIA-mat S300 analyzer, Byk-Sangtec Medical, Bromma, Sweden). Ninety-five patients awoke without a neurologic defect. Three patients experienced a permanent stroke, and 2 patients had a transient ischemic attack. S-100 basal values were unrelated to preoperative status, including hypertension, neurologic status, renal function, and degree of the carotid lesion. S-100 concentration increased slightly but significantly at the end of surgery and remained stable until the first postoperative day. S-100 profile during the procedure was independent of the duration of carotid artery cross-clamping and the need for a shunt. S-100 serum level was not significantly different in the patients with a postoperative ischemic event in comparison with the entire group. The S-100 profile was not increased in 2 of 3 patients with a permanent stroke and in 1 of 2 patients with a transient ischemic attack in comparison with the 95 patients with uneventful recovery.",
"yes. Inhibition of complement activation by heparin-coated cardiopulmonary bypass reduced brain cell injury and was associated with preserved neuropsychological functioning after coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"The systemic inflammatory reaction (SIR) is assumed to be one of the factors that causes cerebral dysfunction after cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). The aim of the present study was to evaluate the relationship between the SIR and postoperative cognitive performance at 5 days and 3 months. One hundred patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting were studied. Inflammatory markers and markers of coagulation and fibrinolysis were determined at several time points during and after the operation. Correlation analysis between maximum levels of the different markers and early and late performance was performed. No overall association was found between the maximum levels of the inflammatory markers and early and late function.",
"Brain hyperthermia, accompanying the rewarming phase of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), has been involved in the genesis of postoperative brain damage. Blood S100B levels are emerging as a marker of brain distress, and could offer a reliable monitoring tool at different times during and after open heart surgery. Thirty-two patients undergoing repair of congenital heart disease with CPB and deep hypothermic circulatory arrest (DHCA) were monitored by S100B blood levels and middle cerebral artery Doppler velocimetry pulsatility index (MCA PI) before, during, and after surgical procedure at five predetermined time-points. Both S100B and MCA PI significantly increased, MCA PI values exhibiting a peak at the end of surgery time-point (p > 0.05), while S100B blood levels were increased at the end of CPB (p < 0.05). Multivariate analysis, with S100B levels measured at the end of CPB as dependent variable, showed a positive significant correlation with MCA PI (p = 0.04), with the CPB and the rewarming duration (p = 0.03 and p = 0.009, respectively).",
"Carotid endarterectomy (CEA) is an effective means of stroke prevention among appropriately selected patients; however, neuropsychometric testing has revealed subtle cognitive injuries in the early postoperative period. The purpose of this study was to establish whether serum levels of two biochemical markers of cerebral injury were correlated with postoperative declines in neuropsychometric test performance after CEA. Fifty-five consecutive patients underwent a battery of neuropsychometric tests 24 hours before and 24 hours after elective CEA. Two patients were excluded because of postoperative strokes. The pre- and postoperative serum levels of S100B protein and neuron-specific enolase for injured patients, defined as those who exhibited significant declines in neuropsychometric test performance (n = 12), were compared with the levels for uninjured patients (n = 41). There were no significant differences in the baseline S100B levels for the two groups. Injured patients exhibited significantly higher S100B levels, compared with uninjured patients, at 24, 48, and 72 hours after surgery (P < 0.05). There were no significant differences in neuron-specific enolase levels for injured and uninjured patients at any time point.",
"In a variety of experimental models, propofol has been shown to protect the brain. It was hypothesized that a clinically achievable high dose of propofol would induce cerebral protective effects in patients undergoing cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). The authors investigated the effects of different target plasma concentrations of propofol on cerebral injury by measuring serum S-100β protein and neuron-specific enolase (NSE) levels in patients undergoing single-valve replacement with CPB. A prospective, randomized study. A university hospital. Forty-two patients undergoing single-valve replacement with CPB. Patients were randomly divided into 3 groups (n = 14 each). Each group received a target-controlled infusion of propofol with plasma concentrations of 1.8 μg/mL (low dose, Group-L), 2.4 μg/mL (medium dose, Group-M), or 3.2 μg/mL (high dose, Group-H). The propofol target concentrations were unchanged throughout the surgery. In all 3 groups of patients, at all time points after CPB, the plasma S-100β protein and NSE levels, which served as biochemical markers of brain damage, were significantly higher than the preoperative levels (p<0.05). Group-H showed significant decreases in S-100β protein and NSE compared with Group-L (p< 0.05).",
"yes. Intraoperative cerebral oxygen desaturation is associated with early postoperative neuropsychological dysfunction in patients undergoing cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass. However, it remains to be determined whether interventions to maintain adequate cerebral oxygenation may improve neuropsychological outcome.",
"The similar pattern of early decline and late recovery of cognitive function in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting with and without cardiopulmonary bypass suggests that cardiopulmonary bypass is not the major cause of postoperative cognitive impairment. This merits consideration in deciding optimal treatment strategies in coronary revascularization.",
"Cognitive changes after carotid revascularization have been reported in 10-20% of patients. The etiology of cognitive impairments remains largely unknown. This study evaluates the predictive value of S-100β serum values and perioperative microembolization on cognition after carotid revascularization. Forty-six patients with significant carotid stenosis underwent carotid endarterectomy (CEA, n = 26), transfemoral carotid artery stenting with distal protection (CASdp, n = 10), or transcervical carotid stenting with dynamic flow reversal (CASfr, n = 10). Twenty-six matched vascular patients without carotid stenosis were recruited as controls. All patients underwent comprehensive cognitive testing on the day before and 1 month after carotid revascularization. S-100β analysis was performed in 31 cases pre-, peri-, and 2, 6, and 24 hr after carotid surgery, and in 25 patients transcranial Doppler monitoring was done during surgery. In the 3 treatment groups similar transient increases in S-100β values were observed. CASdp was associated with a higher embolic load than CEA and CASfr, while CEA was also associated with less microembolization than CASfr. Cognitive improvement or deterioration could not be predicted by S-100β or perioperative embolic load for any of the investigated cognitive domains.",
"The causes for cognitive impairment after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) have long been a topic for debate. We prospectively followed 308 consecutive, unselected survivors of CABG at our institution. In addition to determination of clinical measurements, cognitive brain function was measured objectively by P300 auditory-evoked potentials before CABG, at 7-day and at 4-month follow-up. Standard psychometric tests (Trail Making Test A, Mini Mental State Examination) were also performed. At 7-day follow-up cognitive P300 auditory-evoked potentials were significantly impaired compared with preoperative levels (peak latencies: 376 +/- 40 ms versus 366 +/- 37 ms, p = 0.0001). P300 measurements were almost normalized at 4-month follow-up (peak latencies: 369 +/- 33 ms, p = NS versus preoperative). Standard psychometric tests failed to detect this subclinical cognitive impairment. Multiple regression analysis revealed that use of cardiopulmonary bypass was the only independent predictor of impaired cognitive brain function at 7-day (p < 0.0001) and 4-month follow-up (p = 0.0008). The presence of diabetes mellitus (p = 0.0135) or concomitant repair of significant carotid artery stenosis (p = 0.0049) was predictive of late improvement of cognitive brain function at 4-month follow-up.",
"Elevated levels of serum S100B after coronary artery bypass grafting may arise from extracerebral contamination. Serum S100B content was analyzed in several tissues, and the two dimers S100A1-B and S100BB were analyzed separately in blood. Serum, shed blood, marrow, fat, and muscle were studied in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting with cardiopulmonary bypass using suction either to the cardiotomy reservoir (group 1, n = 10) or to a cell-saving device (group 2, n = 10), or operated on off-pump (group 3, n = 10). Serum S100B was sixfold higher in group 1 than in groups 2 and 3, which were identical. The same ratio between S100A1-B and S100BB was found in all groups. When compared with serum, S100B was 10(2) to 10(4) times higher in marrow, fat, muscle tissue, and shed blood.",
"Decreased cognitive function associated with coronary artery bypass graft surgery is common. These deficits may be similar to the cognitive dysfunction seen in the spectrum of mild cognitive impairment to Alzheimer's disease, which are believed to result from the accumulation of amyloid beta (Abeta) peptide in the brain. We measured cognition both before and after coronary artery bypass graft surgery and assayed Abeta levels to investigate whether the cognitive dysfunction of cardiac surgery was associated with Abeta levels. The plasma of 332 patients, who had undergone neuropsychological testing before and 3 and 12 months after coronary artery bypass graft surgery, was analyzed for Abeta(42) and Abeta(40). Patients were classified as having preexisting cognitive impairment if cognitive function was decreased in two or more tests compared with a healthy control group, and postoperative cognitive dysfunction was defined as a decline in two or more tests compared with the group mean baseline score. Preexisting cognitive impairment was present in 117 patients (35.2%), and postoperative cognitive dysfunction was present in 40 (12%) at 3 months and 41 (13%) at 12 months after surgery. Both plasma Abeta(42) and Abeta(40) levels assessed before the surgery were significantly lower in patients who later had postoperative cognitive dysfunction at 3 months.",
"yes. Protein S-100B is one of the early and sensitive markers of severe brain damage in patients after cardiac arrest. Its early determination can help in prediction of patient neurological condition and help doctors to decide further action.",
"yes. S-100 levels after aortic surgery with deep hypothermic arrest correlate with the duration of circulatory arrest, indicating that the duration of circulatory arrest is damaging to the brain despite the use of deep hypothermia and partial retrograde cerebral perfusion. The highest correlation between S-100 and duration of arrest was seen on the first postoperative day. S-100 appears to perform well under clinical circumstances as a sensitive and discriminative marker for neuronal injury.",
"Pathophysiology of extracorporeal circulation is multifactorial, and the link between newly developed \"biomaterials\" and clinical outcome is not easy to illustrate. We designed a randomized, double-blinded, prospective study in order to verify the impact of a new surface modification [SMAR(X)T] in combination with an optimized blood air interface, on the cerebral performance after cardiopulmonary bypass. 80 patients were randomly divided into two subgroups (SMAR(X)T vs. standard PVC control) and analyzed for the kinetic of cerebral ischemia markers neuronspecific enolase, protein S100 and neuropsychologically tested with the Mini-Mental-Status Test (MMST) before and after the operation. We could not show significant differences of protein S100 and neuron-specific enolase (NSE) levels between SMAR(X)T patients and the controls, but the incidence of neurological complications was exceptionally low. Although no statistically significant differences could be obtained for the MMST, the different pointloss between both groups trends toward a better cerebral performance in SMAR(X)T patients.",
"To examine whether serum concentrations of S100beta protein and neuron-specific enolase (NSE) are predictors of cerebral damage in cardiovascular surgery. Prospective clinical study. University hospital. Eighteen patients with conventional cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), 7 with selective cerebral perfusion (SCP), and 3 volunteers (blood samples). None. S100beta and NSE were measured in the blood obtained at 7 time points during and after operation. The concentrations of these markers in the blood from the surgical field and the cell-saver device, and the influence of graded hemolysis (in vitro) on the concentrations of these proteins were also examined. The mean values of S100beta in the CPB group (2.08 +/- 2.00 ng/mL) and the SCP group (1.46 +/-0.77 ng/mL) were highest after aortic declamping and after termination of SCP, respectively. The mean values of NSE in the CPB group (29.1 +/- 14.0 ng/mL) and the SCP group (31.2 +/- 13.6 ng/mL) were highest after termination of CPB and at the end of the operation, respectively. Three patients suffered from cerebral complications, but the elevation of these markers during operation was indistinguishable from those in the other patients. Peak concentrations of S100beta protein in the CPB group and NSE in the SCP group were correlated with the duration of aortic cross-clamping and CPB, respectively. S100beta protein and NSE concentrations in the blood from the surgical field were significantly larger than those in arterial blood, whereas the concentrations in the blood in the cell-saving device were not elevated. The concentration of S100beta protein was not influenced by the extent of hemolysis, whereas NSE concentration was markedly elevated by hemolysis.",
"Astrocyte protein S100beta is a potential serum marker for neurologic injury. The goals of this study were to determine whether elevated serum S100beta correlates with neurologic complications in patients requiring hypothermic circulatory arrest (HCA) during thoracic aortic repair, and to determine the impact of retrograde cerebral perfusion (RCP) on S100beta release in this setting. Thirty-nine consecutive patients underwent thoracic aortic repairs during HCA; RCP was used in 25 patients. Serum S100beta was measured preoperatively, after cardiopulmonary bypass, and 24 hours postoperatively. Neurologic complications occurred in 3 patients (8%). These patients had higher postbypass S100beta levels (7.17 +/- 1.01 microg/L) than those without neurologic complications (3.63 +/- 2.31 microg/L, p = 0.013). Patients with S100beta levels of 6.0 microg/L or more had a higher incidence of neurologic complications (3 of 7, 43%) compared with those who had levels less than 6.0 microg/L (0 of 30, p = 0.005). Retrograde cerebral perfusion did not affect S100beta release.",
"Study's purpose: Plasma levels of soluble receptor for advanced glycation endproducts (sRAGE) and S100A12 are increased in young children after cardiac surgery and correlate with the time spent on cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). This study was performed to investigate whether plasma levels of sRAGE and S100A12 are affected by the use of CPB. Levels of S100A12 and sRAGE, along with of interleukin-6, tumor necrosis factor-α, myeloperoxidase, and C-reactive protein were measured in 25 adults undergoing non-urgent coronary artery bypass grafting with and without the use of CPB. Significant finding: Plasma levels of S100A12, sRAGE, IL-6, TNF-α and MPO 4h after cardiac surgery were elevated compared to baseline; this increase was equally observed in patients undergoing traditional coronary artery bypass grafting on cardiopulmonary bypass (n = 16), and in patients undergoing robot-assisted coronary artery bypass grafting off pump (OPCAB, n = 9). Patients with prolonged hospitalization of 7 days or longer had significantly higher S100A12 and sRAGE 4 hours post surgery compared to patients hospitalized ≤ 6 days.",
"Intraoperative thromboembolism and the systemic inflammatory reaction are thought to play a role in causing cerebral dysfunction following cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). Increased levels of S100B, an astroglial protein, have been linked to neuropsychological deficits after CPB. The present study investigated whether S100B release correlates with intraoperative embolus formation, thrombin formation, or the release of inflammatory parameters. 40 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting were included. Blood samples were taken before, during, and after CPB, and levels of S100B, thrombin-antithrombin complex (TAT), complement C5a, and interleukin 8 were analysed. Embolus formation was assessed by Doppler ultrasound at the arterial line of CPB. The release of S100B correlated with embolus count (r = 0.42; p = 0.009) and TAT formation (r = 0.71; p = 0.0001). The correlation of S100B with interleukin 8 (r = 0.58; p = 0.0001) was due to the dependence of both parameters on bypass time (r = 0.29; p = 0.075, partial correlation). A correlation of S100B with C5a formation could not be observed.",
"S100B, a plasma marker of brain injury, was compared after coronary artery bypass grafting with and without cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). Fourteen patients with off-pump operations and 18 patients with CPB were compared. Seven patients in the off-pump group underwent a minithoracotomy and received only an arterial graft, whereas 7 patients underwent sternotomy and received both an arterial and one or two vein grafts. S100B was measured in arterial plasma using an immunoassay with enhanced sensitivity. S100B before the operation was 0.03 microg/L. At wound closure, S100B in patients of the off-pump and CPB groups reached a maximum level of 0.22 +/- 0.07 and 2.4 +/- 1.5 microg/L, respectively (p < 0.001). No strokes occurred. Patients without CPB receiving arterial and vein grafts released slightly more S100B (p < 0.05) than patients with only arterial grafting. In patients undergoing CPB, S100B increased slightly before aortic cannulation (p < 0.001), to the same level as the maximum reached for the non-CPB group.",
"yes. Serum S100beta levels of 6.0 microg/L or higher after HCA correlates with postoperative neurologic complications. Using serum S100beta as a marker for brain injury, RCP does not provide improved cerebral protection over HCA alone.",
"The impact of the postoperative inflammatory response on the central nervous system after cardiac surgery is uncertain. The goal of the study was to evaluate the role of complement activation on cellular brain injury in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. In addition, neuropsychological functioning was assessed. We randomly assigned 30 patients to undergo surgery using either standard noncoated or heparin-coated extracorporeal circuits. Closed cardiopulmonary bypass and controlled suctions of pericardial shed blood were standardized in both groups. Complement activation and cellular brain injury were assessed by measuring sC5b-9 and protein s100beta. Neuropsychometric tests were performed at least 2 weeks before operation and at discharge. They served to calculate z scores of cognitive domains and changes in neuropsychological functioning. Peak value of sC5b-9 at the end of cardiopulmonary bypass in the noncoated group was significantly higher than in the heparin-coated group (p = 0.005). Changes in the heparin-coated group were not significant. Glial injury started after initiation of surgery and peaked at the end of cardiopulmonary bypass with significantly higher concentration of s100beta in the noncoated than in the heparin-coated group (p = 0.008). Values of s100beta and of sC5b-9 were significantly correlated (p = 0.03). Although no statistically significant between group difference was detected, z scores of attention and flexibility or executive functions were lowered postoperatively within the noncoated group (p = 0.033 and p = 0.028), whereas z scores were unchanged within the heparin-coated group.",
"The systemic reoxygenation injury produced by initiating cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) in infants with cyanotic heart disease may be associated with cerebral dysfunction and injury. Increased protein S100 (S100) serum levels may indicate cerebral and blood brain barrier damage as well as inflammatory changes, therefore serving to quantify these changes. The present clinical study assessed S100 in cyanotic patients undergoing CPB with normoxic versus hyperoxic paO2 in acyanotic cases and in controls without CPB. 43 patients with congenital heart disease aged 5 days to 15 years (mean 4.4 years) were enrolled consecutively and divided in four groups: (1) Cyanotic infants undergoing controlled normoxic reoxygenation on CPB (n = 12), (2) cyanotic infants undergoing uncontrolled hyperoxic reoxygenation on CPB (n = 9), (3) acyanotic infants operated with CPB (n = 16) and (4) patients operated without CPB (n = 6). Blood samples were collected after induction of anesthesia (A), up to 4 hours after surgery (B) and at postoperative day one (C). Preoperative S100 serum levels [microg/l] in all groups were below clinical relevance. S100 increased markedly after surgery in groups 1 and 2. Differences in postoperative S100 levels were significant between groups 1 (0.45 +/- 0.13) and 3 (0.35 +/- 0.09; p = 0.018), between groups 2 (1.41 +/- 0.47) and 3 (p = 0.01), and between groups 2 and 4 (0.29 +/- 0.09; p = 0.045). There were no significant differences in postoperative S100 levels (B) between groups 1 and 2 (p = 0.05), groups 1 and 4 (p = 0.05), or groups 3 and 4 (p = 0.93).",
"The aims of this study were to (1) compare the release of S-100 beta and NSE in off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) versus on-pump surgery; (2) investigate whether the S-100 beta and NSE serum concentrations correlate with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) duration. Between October 2002 and May 2004, 42 patients undergoing first time CABG surgery were enrolled in the study. The exclusion criteria were: LVEF<35%, age>70 years, previous myocardial infarction, REDO surgery, the presence of valvular heart disease and/or cerebrovascular disease, abnormal preoperative carotid vessels angiography, coronary artery disease involving the distal circumflex artery, renal dysfunction, coagulopathy. The patients were randomly assigned either to undergo on-pump CABG surgery [group I, n=24 patients] or off-pump CABG [group II, n=18 patients]. Blood was not re-transfused from the cardiotomy suction. All patients presenting haemolysis were excluded from the study. The preoperative S-100beta was 0.13+/-0.08 (microg/l) and NSE 7+/-1.5 (microg/l) in group I and 0.12+/-0.1 (microg/l) and 6.9+/-2.7 (microg/l), respectively in group II. Six hours after the surgery, S-100beta in patients of group I reached a maximum level of 1.38+/-0.4 (microg/l) and NSE of 17.7+/-6.5 (microg/l) compared to 0.5+/-0.11 (microg/l) [S-100B] and NSE 8.6+/-4.2 (microg/l) in group II (p=0.001). Three (12%) patients in group I and none (0%) in group II suffered postoperative delirium, p=0.247. No strokes occurred linear regression analysis revealed a strong correlation between cardiopulmonary bypass duration and S-100beta and NSE peak levels, p<0.0021 (r(2)=0.36) and p<0.0001 (r=0.81), respectively.",
"In this study, S-100 seemed to be a possible marker for a certain degree of neurologic deficit after cardiac operation in neonates, especially regarding postoperative seizures. The missing peaks of this protein in one newborn with poor neurologic outcome show that it is not possible to exclude damage to the brain with normal postoperative values. These results suggest that the mechanism of cerebral damage and S-100 release into the blood in neonates with a developing central nervous system and blood-brain barrier is not fully understood.",
"The goal of this study was to compare the predictive ability of S100B, N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antibodies (NR2Ab) and C-reactive protein (CRP) for neurological deficits after cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). We investigated 557 high-risk adult patients who underwent coronary artery or valve replacement surgery using CPB as a substudy of a prospective, blinded, multicenter clinical trial. Serum concentrations of S100B (n=513 patients), NR2Ab (n=398) and CRP (n=510) were measured preoperatively, 24 and 48 hours after CPB. Neurological adverse events were assessed at baseline and postoperative days 1 and 2; neurocognitive function (mini-mental status examination) was assessed at baseline and on postoperative days 1, 7 and 28. Fifty-five (9.9%) patients had moderate or severe neurological adverse events (confusion/delirium, transient ischemic attack, or stroke) within 48 hours of CPB. Women had significantly more neurological complications than men (15.5% versus 7.8%; P=0.007). Ninety-six percent (24/25) of patients with NR2Ab concentrations > or =2.0 ng/mL preoperatively had neurological complications within 48 hours post-CPB, versus only 5.4% (20/373) of patients with NR2Ab concentrations <2.0 ng/mL, resulting in a 17.9-fold increase (95% CI, 11.6 to 27.6) in postoperative neurological complications for patients with high levels of NR2A antibodies. Preoperative serum S100B and CRP did not predict neurological complications from CPB. Decreased mini-mental status examination scores for orientation, attention and recall were associated with neurological adverse events early after CPB.",
"yes. Objective cognitive P300 auditory-evoked potential measurements demonstrate that the use of cardiopulmonary bypass is the only predictor of short- and long-term cognitive brain dysfunction after CABG. Interestingly, the presence of diabetes mellitus and concomitant repair of a significant carotid artery stenosis were predictive for long-term cognitive benefit.",
"Cardiac operations using extracorporeal circulation bear a risk of cerebral complications. The aim of our study was to investigate if off-pump operations without heart-lung machines can reduce cerebral injury. S100, a protein specific for cerebral tissue, was used as a marker for cerebral impairment in 108 randomized patients undergoing coronary bypass operation: 67 patients (group A) were operated on with extracorporeal circulation and cardioplegic cardiac arrest, and 41 patients (group B) underwent off-pump beating heart revascularization. Both groups were similar regarding age, sex, ejection fraction, and number of anastomoses. S100 levels were measured from induction of anesthesia until 24 hours after the operation. Data collection was 100% complete. There was no in-hospital death. Nonfatal myocardial infarctions occurred in 2 patients in group A, and 1 patient in group B required resternotomy for bleeding. There was no neurologic deficit in either group. S100 levels increased only slightly in the off-pump patients (group B), whereas in group A there was a sharp rise in S100 concentration during extracorporeal circulation, only returning to baseline 6 hours after the end of the operation. Peak S100 levels were four times higher in group A than in group B (2.1 microg/L versus 0.5 microg/L; p<001).",
"yes. Increased sRAGE and S100A12 after cardiac surgery is associated with prolonged length of hospitalization in patients after coronary artery bypass grafting; however, we did not observe an intrinsic effect of cardiopulmonary bypass on S100A12 or sRAGE plasma levels in our small pilot study. Further studies are required to confirm the value of sRAGE and S100A12 in predicting postoperative complications after cardiac surgery in a larger study.",
"We hypothesized that early changes in S-100B levels after cardiac surgery are nonspecific and mostly reflect damage to tissues outside the brain rather than ischemic brain damage. We measured serum levels of S-100B at several times perioperatively in 21 patients undergoing cardiac surgery. In addition, we measured levels of neuron specific enolase (NSE), glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP), creatine kinase (CK), the cardiac isoenzyme of CK (CK-MB), and myoglobin (MB) in these patients. Early increases in serum S-100B concentration were significantly (p<0.01) correlated with increases in markers of tissue injury outside the brain: S-100B/CK: r(2)=0.69; S-100B/CK-MB: r(2)=0.64; S-100B/myoglobin: r(2)=0.60; S-100B/NSE: r(2)=0.51; CK/NSE: r(2)=0.60; CK-MB/NSE: r(2)=0.59; and myoglobin/NSE: r(2)=0.54.",
"yes. A wide cerebral arteriovenous difference measured by near-infrared spectroscopy during cardiopulmonary bypass is associated with increased serum S100B in the perioperative period and may be a modifiable risk factor for neurological injury.",
"The potentially harmful effects of normothermia on neurological outcome during cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) are controversial. In this study, we compared the early and late release patterns of S-100beta, a marker of cerebral injury, after normothermic and moderately hypothermic CPB. Forty-eight patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting were randomly assigned to either the normothermia (37 degrees C) or the hypothermia (32 degrees C) group. Serum S-100beta levels were measured until 24 h after CPB. Neurological examination was performed before and after surgery. With the exception of intraoperative blood glucose levels, there were no differences between groups. This also applied to peak S-100beta values (Gr-N: 3.5 +/- 1.9 microg/l; Gr-H: 3.5 +/- 3.4 microg/l) and values after 24 h (Gr-N: 0.32 +/- 0.16 microg/l; Gr-H: 0.35 +/- 0.28 microg/l).",
"Serum S-100beta protein is suggested to be a neurobiochemical marker of brain injury after cardiac and aortic arch surgery. The aim of the present study was to investigate the predictive value of S-100beta protein with respect to histopathological analysis of the brain after a prolonged period of hypothermic circulatory arrest (HCA). Eighteen pigs (21 to 31 kg) underwent a 75 min period of HCA at 20 degrees C. Serum concentrations of S-100beta were assayed in mixed venous blood before and 2, 4, 7 and 20 h after HCA. A semiquantitative post-mortem histopathological analysis scoring all main regions of the brain was carried out in every animal. All animals were stable during and after cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) and survived at least to the first postoperative day. Ten of the 18 animals survived 7 days after surgery and were electively sacrificed. Animals with severe histopathological injury showed higher serum S-100beta protein levels at every time point after HCA. The strongest correlation between the total histopathologic score and serum S-100beta levels was found at 7 h after HCA (tau = 0.422 and p = 0.023).",
"yes. Serum S-100beta protein levels correlate with histopathological injury after a prolonged period of HCA in pigs. This finding supports the results of previous studies suggesting the potential accuracy of S-100beta in the prediction of brain injury after cardiac surgery.",
"The use of protein S100B as a marker of brain cell injury in conjunction with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) has recently been questioned. The present study investigates functional brain injury based on the relation between S100B and memory disturbances. Four hundred and fifteen low-risk coronary artery bypass patients exposed to CPB were examined. The protein S100B was sampled during and after surgery. Explicit and implicit memory function was assessed preoperatively and at discharge from hospital. Possible associations between the release of the protein S100B and memory function were studied. Serum concentration of S100B peaked at termination of CPB (0.895 +/- 0.84 microg/l) and decreased gradually; 7 h post CPB (0.436 +/- 0.59 microg/l), day 1 (0.149 +/- 0.27 microg/l) and day 2 (0.043 +/- 0.15 microg/l). High levels of S100B (>1.5 microg/l) 7 h post CPB were associated with a significant (-1 SD) decline of explicit memory function (p = 0.006); this was not seen at termination of CPB (p = 0.834). Predictors of memory decline were S100B 7 h post CPB, length of stay in hospital and concomitant neurological disorders. Postoperative S100B concentration was higher among patients with atrial fibrillation (p = 0.022).",
"Over the past decade, the glial protein S-100beta has been used to detect cerebral injury in a number of clinical settings including cardiac surgery. Previous investigations suggest that S-100beta is capable of identifying patients with cerebral dysfunction after cardiopulmonary bypass. Whether detection of elevated levels S-100beta reflects long-term cognitive impairment remains to be shown. The present study evaluated whether perioperative release of S-100beta after coronary artery operations with cardiopulmonary bypass could predict early or late neuropsychologic impairment. A total of 100 patients undergoing elective coronary bypass without a previous history of neurologic events were prospectively studied. To exclude noncerebral sources of S-100beta, we did not use cardiotomy suction or retransfusion of shed mediastinal blood. Serial perioperative measurements of S-100beta were performed with the use of a new sensitive immunoluminometric assay up to 8 hours after the operation. Patients underwent cognitive testing on a battery of 11 tests before the operation, before discharge from the hospital, and 3 months later. No significant correlation was found between S-100beta release and neuropsychologic measures either 5 days or 3 months after the operation.",
"Neuron-specific enolase (NSE) and S-100 protein have been used as markers for major brain damage. Cognitive dysfunction after cardiac surgery represents subtle brain damage that is detected by neuropsychological testing. We hypothesised that blood levels of NSE and S-100 protein would increase after coronary artery bypass surgery and that the change in blood level would correlate with the change in cognitive function. We included 35 elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery. Neuropsychological testing was performed before surgery and postoperatively at discharge from hospital and after 3 months using a neuropsychological test battery. Serum levels of NSE and S-100 protein were measured before surgery and postoperatively after 24 h and 48 h. Serum level of both NSE and S-100 protein increased significantly 24 and 48 h after coronary artery bypass. Only the increase in NSE after 24 h was found to correlate with the degree of cognitive dysfunction at discharge from hospital. The increase in S-100 protein after 24 h correlated significantly with the duration of cardiopulmonary bypass.",
"S-100beta is a specific astroglial protein whose serum level increases after cerebral injury. The purpose of this study was to investigate the correlation between elevated levels of S-100beta and the neurocognitive outcome after cardiac surgery. Fifty consecutive patients undergoing elective coronary artery bypass grafting were studied. Serum S-100beta levels were measured on induction of anaesthesia, at the 15(th) minute, at skin closure and on the 1(st) postoperative day. Neurocognitive outcome was evaluated by STAI-T and Zung tests preoperatively and by Mini-mental state examination every postoperative day until discharge. Neurocognitive tests and S-100beta levels were correlated within the scope of risk factors by Pearson correlation. Serum S-100beta was not detected preoperatively. Peak serum S-100beta levels were reached at skin closure in 36 of 50 patients (72%). In 24 hours, serum S-100beta disappeared in 25 patients but was still elevated in 11 (22%). A highly significant correlation was demonstrated between the duration of CPB and peak serum S-100beta levels (r=0.91). There was a weak correlation between age and peak S-100beta levels (r=0.62). Nine patients (18%) had a positive MMSE test which correlated well with persistent high serum S-100 levels (r=0.98).",
"yes. Serum S-100beta is a promising early biochemical marker for cerebral injury following cardiac surgery within a good correlation with the CPB time, age and especially with neurocognitive tests."
] | 1,020 |
Is herniography an effective and safe investigation? | [
"The records of all patients undergoing herniography within one unit over a 1 year period were studied retrospectively. A follow-up postal questionnaire was sent out to all patients enquiring about outcome and any complications of herniography. From a total of 64 patients undergoing a herniogram, 36% were found to have a positive result and 64% a negative result. This study showed a sensitivity rate of 0.94 and a specificity rate of 0.95. There was a 5% major complication rate leading to hospital admission, and 42% of patients described minor complications occurring within 24 hours of herniography.",
"Herniography is a useful diagnostic tool for identification of clinically occult hernias, with good rates of sensitivity and specificity. In most cases it is a safe investigation but it is not without a significant complication rate."
] | [
"yes. The ITT approach is safe, effective and complementary to standard laparoscopic techniques for the resection of small tumours in segments VII and VIII.",
"USG-guided puncture is a safe and effective approach to the collecting system even in renal anomalies like in pelvic ectopic kidneys when performed in experienced hands.",
"Conducting 1.5T MRI examinations is safe in patients with retained metal fragments from combat and terrorist attacks not in the vicinity of vital organs. However, caution is advised.",
"TI photography is an effective, safe, and cost-effective means of documenting total colonoscopy. Routine biopsy of a \"normal\" TI has a low diagnostic yield.",
"yes. The low number of adverse events recorded in this prospective study concludes that endoscopist-administered propofol sedation is a safe procedure. It does not seem likely that additional support of an anaesthetist would further improve patient's safety, and particularly cost-efficiency.",
"yes. The aims of this study were achieved and we were able to establish the safe use of the aerosolization technique in bariatric surgery and its benefits in reducing postoperative pain.",
"If the endoscopist is experienced in ERCP and precut techniques, an early precut strategy should be the preferred cannulation strategy because this approach is as safe and effective as the late fistulotomy approach and substantially reduces ERCP duration.",
"yes. Our results confirm that ultrasonography is feasible and reliable in the study of superficial margins and for detection of micronodules of less than 0.5 cm in diameter.",
"yes. Surveillance of EVAR patients can be performed accurately, safely, and cost-effectively with DU as the sole imaging study.",
"yes. Our approach of axillary venipunture using fluoroscopic landmark, without contrast venography, is simple, safe, and effective.",
"yes. A CPPV was detected correctly by US in 74 of 348 patients (21.3%) with clinically diagnosed unilateral inguinal hernias. US is a noninvasive and accurate method for evaluating the presence of a CPPV.",
"yes. EUS, either alone or after dilation, is a safe procedure and the complete EUS examination with celiac node visualization adds prognostically significant information.",
"yes. Present audit shows that the process of implementation of labor analgesia was quick, successful and safe, notwithstanding the identification of one cluster of women with suboptimal response to epidural analgesia that need to be further studies, overall pregnant womens'adhesion to labor analgesia was satisfactory.",
"yes. Even during the introductory phase, laparoscopic appendicectomy is a safe and clinically beneficial operating procedure.",
"Based on 6 comparative single-center studies, the FT program was found to reduce length of hospital stay, and was deemed safe for major abdominal surgeries. Present study shows that enhanced recovery or FT program can also be implemented safely in a general surgery unit.",
"yes. Hysteroscopy, a safe and rapid direct visualisation of the uterine cavity, is superior to HSG in the identification of intrauterine pathology. In view of the low positive predictive value and the low specificity of the HSG, we believe it should be replaced by the diagnostic hysteroscopy as a first line infertility investigation.",
"We suggest that the handmade endo-loop technique is a safe, applicable, and cost-effective method to be used in the closure of appendiceal stump.",
"yes. Despite a more aggressive surgical approach, eDHC may reduce early in-hospital mortality and limit transtentorial herniation. Prospective studies are warranted to confirm our results and assess general safety of eDHC.",
"The authors, conclude that videolaparocholecystectomy can be regarded as a safe and effective surgical technique for the treatment of cholelithiasis also in patients who have undergone previous upper abdominal surgery.",
"yes. Our examination found a much smaller, but similar crossover rate to surgery between both injection methods, which argues against one method being more effective than another in avoiding surgery. It is likely that patients are receiving these procedures more frequently during the course of conservative treatment for a disc herniation.",
"yes. During TEP hernioplasty, the pressure of insufflated gas more than 10 mmHg in the preperitoneal space hinders the correct identification of vessels on the retropubic surface. The proposed maneuver, to decrease the pressure in the workspace to 8 mmHg, can provide clear identification of all vessels, which decreases the potential risk of vascular injury.",
"yes. In this small study, X-STOP appeared safe and effective. It is less invasive than other established surgical procedures, but does not jeopardise other options in the event of failure. Large scale clinical trials are justified but floor and ceiling effects suggest that the ODI and SF-36 may not be the best choice of outcome measures for those studies.",
"To guide subsequent treatment, we believe that histological diagnosis is paramount. Stereotactic biopsies are currently the safest and the most efficient way of obtaining this essential information. Recent improvements in stereotactic technology (particularly robotic techniques) appear to be very valuable, with almost no permanent morbidity or mortality risk and no decrease in the accuracy rate. In our opinion, other available neurosurgical techniques (such as endoscopic neurosurgery, stereotactic neurosurgery and open microsurgery) are complementary and not competitive.",
"Laparoscopic hernia repair is safe and feasible in premature neonates when they attain reasonable body size, as long as there is excellent anaesthesia support. Low risk of incarceration was noted in this study and it is worth waiting for the body weight to build up and hence facilitate laparoscopic repair.",
"The tension-free repair of incisional hernia with polypropylene mesh in intraperitoneal position is a safe and easy procedure with acceptable morbidity and no recurrence.",
"As opposed to scans obtained at rest, scans obtained during Valsalva's maneuver aid in the detection and characterization of suspected abdominal wall hernias. A single scan obtained during Valsalva's maneuver is sufficient to detect 100% of anterior abdominal wall hernias identified on CT.",
"yes. Use of portable eye-tracking technology in open surgery is feasible, without impinging surgical performance. Differences in gaze behaviour during open inguinal hernia repair can be seen between expert and junior surgeons and may have uses for assessment of surgical skill.",
"The use of a synthetic tissue adhesive (n-hexyl-α-cyanoacrylate) is safe as a means of fixation in uncomplicated hernia and patients without comorbidity, and with good postoperative results.",
"yes. NIRF-C is a safe and effective alternative to IOC for imaging extrahepatic biliary structures during LC. This technique should be evaluated further under a variety of acute and chronic gallbladder inflammatory conditions to determine its usefulness in biliary ductal identification.",
"yes. Dilation using Tracer guide wire without fluoroscopy is safe and effective in treatment of even very tight esophageal strictures.",
"yes. Exploratory laparoscopy during splenectomy is more accurate than preoperative imaging with CT scan for detection of AcS. Preoperative CT scan misses AcS frequently and should not be obtained for the purpose of its identification.",
"Herniorrhaphy is the most common general surgical procedure performed on children, and hernia sac material is one of the most common tissue specimens microscopically examined in the authors' surgical pathology laboratory. The risk of accidental vas deferens ligation has prompted the recommendation that all hernia sacs be examined pathologically. The authors hypothesized that the incidence of unrecognized vas deferens or epididymis ligation is actually very low and may not warrant routine pathological examination of all pediatric hernia sacs. Over a 3-year period (1994 to 1996), pathology reports from all hernia repairs at the authors' institution were reviewed. A total of 1,494 inguinal hernia sacs were pathologically evaluated from 1,077 pediatric patients (417 were bilateral). Pathological diagnoses not affecting clinical management (ie, chronic inflammation, irritated hernia sacs, embryonal remnants, adrenal cortical rests) were classified as incidental findings. Identification of true vas deferens was classified as a positive finding. The study population had a mean age of 3.9 +/- 0.1 years and 963 (89%) were boys. The incidence of vas deferens injury from herniorrhaphy was found to be 0.13% (2 of 1,494), and these were recognized by the pediatric surgeon in the operating room.",
"On the basis of this initial experience, TAPP hernioplasty with a Surgisis mesh affixed with fibrin glue is feasible, easy to perform, and effective in experienced hands, with good results. The well known characteristics of a minimally invasive and gentle approach, together with the type of mesh implanted and fixation using glue, might explain the encouraging results of this experience. Therefore, this type of mesh might be tailored to not only the sportsman or the patient with a contaminated surgical field, but may also be used in young patients, where there is a fear of leaving behind a long-term foreign body.",
"Based on our clinical experience, the intraoperative diuretic test has proven to be a safe and effective diagnostic tool in children with ureterovascular hydronephrosis. Its use may contribute to treating some cases of ureterovascular hydronephrosis without resorting to pyeloplasty.",
"Laparoscopic contralateral exploration is safe and effective. Because of the low morbidity, the risk to benefit ratio warrants its use in children up to 8 years of age. This sample size is too small to make any meaningful statement in children older than 8 years.",
"yes. In our experience, the simple Rectum Catcher device is safe and useful for performing laparoscopic assisted high and lower rectal surgery.",
"When vas deferens injury is suspected, the sample should always be sent to the pathology department for confirmation. However, no occult carcinoma or other pathology was identified, and the remainder of the histological findings did not change the clinical treatment of any child. Given a fixed cost of pathological analysis, elimination of routine hernia sac examination may result in substantial annual savings. Therefore, in the current era of cost containment, recommendations for routine pathological examination of excised pediatric hernia sacs should be reevaluated.",
"yes. Our results show that the use of a single-coil subcutaneous electrode to reduce the DFT is a safe and effective procedure. Further studies are necessary to confirm these results.",
"Endoscopic mucosal clipping is safe and effective for prevention of probe displacement, and ensures more accurate temporospatial resolution of data for prolonged colonic manometry recording.",
"yes. We conclude that we are unable to find any clinical evidence to support the hypothesis that a hernia might develop as the result of one single strenuous or traumatic event. While we accept that this mechanism might still possibly occur, we believe that, at best, it is extremely uncommon. If a medical expert is preparing a report on such a case in a claim for personal injury, then they have a duty to the court to examine carefully all the contemporaneous medical records. If no clinical evidence exists to support the claim, then they have a duty to the court not to support the plaintiff's claim.",
"yes. Emergency DBE is feasible, safe and effective in acute OGIB and may avoid major surgery, diagnosing and successfully treating most patients. Combined approach with RT viewing by CE is especially useful to identify recurrent bleeding vascular lesions such as DL that may be easily misdiagnosed by non-emergency DBE.",
"yes. Our study shows that microwave ablation of peridiaphragmatic hepatic tumors is safe, without incidence of diaphragmatic hernia, and can be performed with a low rate of local tumor progression.",
"Routine follow up visit after day care Inguinal Hernia surgery in children is not necessary. This practice is safe, economic and well accepted by children and parents.",
"yes. Patients presenting with UGI symptoms less than 3 months after surgery are more likely to have an abnormal finding on endoscopy. Endoscopic balloon dilation is safe and effective in managing anastomotic strictures. Endoscopic scissors are safe and effective in removing unraveled, nonabsorbable sutures contributing to obstruction.",
"The results show that outpatient laparoscopic cholecystectomy is safe and cost-effective in selected patients, and that the mock home setting provides a means of studying the safety of transition of care.",
"yes. Core needle biopsy is a highly accurate and safe method for the diagnosis of radiologically detected lesions of the breast.",
"from the radiological point of view, ERCP is a safe technique that uses low exposure levels compared to other explorations commonly used in medicine. It implies a reasonably low risk of radio induced cancer.",
"yes. Elective laparoscopic CBD exploration is safe and effective. It may become the standard of care in both elderly and younger patients.",
"Analysis of these 20 cases suggested that fluorescein-guided technique with a dedicated filter on the surgical microscope is safe and allows a high rate of complete resection of contrast-enhanced tumor as determined on early postoperative MRI. Clinical trial registration no.: 2011-002527-18 (EudraCT).",
"yes. Capsule endoscopy is safe and effective in the evaluation of patients who have undergone surgical resection of the small bowel for benign or malignant disease.",
"yes. This retrospective analysis adds to the growing body of evidence that observation of desmoid tumors is safe and effective with high rates of stable disease. These data further support an initial conservative approach to desmoid tumors that may spare patients the morbidity and risk of recurrence that accompanies potentially extensive operations.",
"yes. Therapeutic ERCP is safe and effective. It is a useful adjunct in the management of patients with post-operative biliary lesions.",
"yes. Our study shows that sternal puncture is a rapid and safe method to ensure the diagnosis of poststernotomy mediastinitis.",
"In high-volume centers, with strict operation indication, sufficient preoperative evaluation and careful surgical maneuvers, endoscopic areola approach is a safe and effective method for reoperative thyroid surgery, allowing to provide a better cosmetic result and reduce intraoperative blood loss compared with open approach.",
"The volumetric bladder scanner is a rapid, safe, and accurate device that, in this study, greatly improved the success rate of suprapubic aspiration in small children. It also helped to avoid time delays or multiple blind attempts at suprapubic aspiration by predicting volumes at which suprapubic aspiration should or should not be attempted.",
"Endoscopic preperitoneal bilateral hernia repair is a safe and reliable technique in the hands of experienced surgeons. The rate of hernia recurrence and complications is low and independent of the mesh configuration (single or double). Mesh configuration based on personal preference is permissible.",
"Our data provide further evidence that early stabilization of spinal injuries is safe in severely injured patients, does not impair perioperative lung function, and results in a reduced overall ICU and hospital stay. Further prospective randomized investigations are warranted to prove these results.",
"no. The Lichtenstein inguinal hernia repair can be safely performed by residents and junior faculty with the appropriate supervision of senior faculty without any disadvantage to patients. This integrated teaching program for Lichtenstein inguinal hernia repair is effective and feasible for training residents and junior faculty.",
"yes. LPEHR is a safe and effective treatment for PEH. Postoperative radiographic abnormalities, such as a small sliding hernia, are often seen. The clinical importance of these findings is questionable, since only a small percentage of patients require reoperation. True PEH recurrences are uncommon and frequently asymptomatic.",
"Testicular vascularization was not affected by hernia repair using the PIRS technique in our study. We therefore conclude that PIRS is a safe technique for inguinal hernia repair with respect to testicular vascularization.",
"yes. In experienced hands, totally extraperitoneal inguinal hernia repair for patients previously having undergone prostatectomy is safe and has equivalent outcomes to patients not having undergone prostatectomy, and is an option to open repair. Understandably, slightly longer operative times may be justified, given the benefits of early discharge and less postoperative pain after laparoscopic surgery.",
"The 99mTc-Na-pertechnetate scintigraphy has only minor diagnostic value in diagnosing patients suspected of having an MD. Scintigraphic examination should be replaced by diagnostic laparoscopy, which has been reported to be safe and effective and offers the possibility of laparoscopic resection of the MD.",
"yes. The single-operator wire-guided cannulation technique was feasible, safe and efficient. It doesn't require an experienced assistant and precise coordination between the assistant and endoscopist during cannulation.",
"yes. Watchful waiting appears to be a safe strategy in the treatment of incisional, umbilical and epigastric hernias.",
"yes. MRCP produces fastly high-quality images. As it is totally safe, it can be proposed as a first intention method in biliopancreatic duct explorations.",
"Our data suggest that primary endoscopic puncture of ureteroceles is a simple, long-term, effective, and safe procedure avoiding complete reconstruction in the majority of the patients.",
"Laparoscopy is safe and feasible for repair of large inguinal hernias in infants 2 years and provides treatment of contralateral patent processus vaginalis in the same setting with no significant increase in operating time. Extracorporeal knot tying has made the procedure feasible in the limited working space available in these babies. Though there were no recurrences or post-operative hydrocele, the number of patients in the study is too small to comment on rates of recurrence or hydrocele.",
"yes. Day case laparoscopic repair of incisional hernias is feasible and safe and has a good clinical outcome. The hospital costs are less than for open techniques.",
"Due to high clinical success and low complication rate in osteoid osteoma surgery, gamma probe application is an effective and safe method that should be used more extensively in daily practice.",
"LIR is safe and effective with low perioperative morbidity and mortality. The use of laparoscopy as an option in terms of concomitant hernia repair and lysis of adhesions may be considered in selected patients.",
"yes. Laparoscopy is feasible and safe for the diagnosis and treatment of hemodynamically stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma and can reduce the laparotomy rate.",
"yes. The present report is as the greatest volume series detailing the safe and effective use of the bladed optical trocar without previous insufflation as the primary method of peritoneal access in the morbidly obese. The insertion of this device in the midline appears to be a safe method of entry.",
"yes. Cryobiopsy is safe and increases the diagnostic yield in endobronchial tumor lesions. The method also is feasible under routine conditions.",
"Even if limited by its retrospective design, our experience exhibits that the laparoscopic may well be a safe and effective approach to colon pathology in a community hospital setting. Such features make laparoscopy a challenging alternative to open surgery in the approach to colon disease and it can be proven to be cost-effective without undue risk, as long adequate laparoscopic training is undertaken by the surgeon and proper preparation observed.",
"yes. Maximal efforts should be undertaken to prevent perioperative full-thickness enterotomy. Because this was achieved for the vast majority of patients, it is concluded that laparoscopic parastomal hernia repair is feasible and safe. Although a longer follow-up period is needed for definitive conclusions to be drawn regarding the recurrence rate, early follow-up evaluation shows very promising results.",
"yes. Results of this trial show SILC to be a safe and feasible procedure when compared with 4PLC, with similar total adverse events but with an identified significant increase in hernia formation. Cosmesis scoring and patient preference at 12 months continue to favor SILC, and more than half of the patients were willing to pay more for a single-site surgery over a standard laparoscopic procedure. Additional longer-term population-based studies are needed to clarify if this increased rate of hernia formation as compared with 4PLC will continue to hold true.",
"yes. LVHR is safe with a low incidence of perioperative complications. Patients with multiple, larger and recurrent hernias have longer operative times and LOS. This information can be used to guide preoperative planning for the patient, surgeon and treating institution.",
"The results of this study as well as the meta-analysis of the series presented in the literature, indicate that the intraperitoneal onlay mesh repair may be a feasible, safe and effective procedure in the treatment of recurrent and bilateral hernias or when a hernia repair is performed during other laparoscopic procedures. The intraperitoneal onlay mesh repair has in fact been shown to be faster and easier than the other more commonly performed laparoscopic hernioplasties (trans-abdominal preperitoneal repair and total extra-peritoneal repair). These data may also suggest utilizing this technique in particular cases of primitive hernia such as very active young males or heavy-duty workers. However the limited series and the short follow-up ask for randomized prospective long-term studies to definitely ascertain the true incidence of recurrence and therefore the effectiveness of this attractive procedure.",
"The findings of this study support the evidence that lumbar microdiscectomy performed on an outpatient basis is a very safe and effective means of treating sciatic pain due to disc herniation. The authors believe that their outcome success rates of 75 to 80% are more realistic than those of 90% or more found in some reports.",
"yes. Our data indicate that abdominal US-guided core-needle biopsy should be considered as an effective and safe procedure in the diagnosis of patients with lymphoma offering the possibility of determining the tumor subtype and the subsequent specific treatment.",
"Intraoperative non-puncture laparoscopy utilizing a flexible laparoscope through the hernia opening is an uncomplicated, reliable and precise method for identifying a patent contralateral processus vaginalis. It may represent a satisfactory alternative to routine bilateral inguinal exploration. Also, use of the flexible laparoscope may be more beneficial than use of a rigid laparoscope passed through the umbilicus or hernia sac.",
"yes. Our laparoscopic technique of Hartmann's procedure reversal is safe and efficient. It compares positively with the same procedure performed openly in a case control study. Moreover, an indirect cost reduction is generated by the reduction of the length of hospital stay.",
"yes. The laparoscopic repair of ventral hernias is safe, effective, and durable with minimal morbidity. It is particularly successful in patients with recurrent lesions. The laparoscopic approach to ventral hernia repair should be considered the standard of care.",
"yes. Diagnostic laparoscopy is a safe, feasible, and accurate staging tool in patients with suspected peritoneal metastases being considered for CRS.",
"The records of all patients undergoing herniography within one unit over a 1 year period were studied retrospectively. A follow-up postal questionnaire was sent out to all patients enquiring about outcome and any complications of herniography. From a total of 64 patients undergoing a herniogram, 36% were found to have a positive result and 64% a negative result. This study showed a sensitivity rate of 0.94 and a specificity rate of 0.95. There was a 5% major complication rate leading to hospital admission, and 42% of patients described minor complications occurring within 24 hours of herniography.",
"Substituting sutures with glue (n-hexyl-α-cyanoacrylate) in open or laparoscopic inguinal hernioplasty is safe with less postoperative pain and the same possibilities of recurrence.",
"The laparoscopic technique was associated with a low recurrence rate, a small rate of wound infections and high patient comfort. Thus, the laparoscopic approach for mesh implantation appears to be a safe and effective method for the treatment of incisional hernias. The efficiency for laparoscopic intraperitoneal mesh implantation, however, should be further evaluated within a prospectively randomized multicenter trial.",
"Herniotomy was found to be safe, applicable, beneficial, and cost-effective in this age group, with many advantages over Bassini's herniorrhaphy.",
"yes. The videolaparoscopic approach to ventral hernia repair is a safe technique that can guarantee a low recurrence rate; moreover, if it is performed in an experienced laparoscopic surgical center, it can be a valid alternative to the traditional open approach.",
"Our preliminary experiences suggest that the laparoscopic purse-string suture of internal inguinal opening of hernia sac could be a safe, effective, and reliable alternative for management of pediatric inguinal hernia.",
"yes. Synthetic mesh with a self-fixating system used in the TEP technique for inguinal hernia repair has been proved safe and fully effective.",
"Results of the study suggest that the sutureless sublay technique is safe and effective in the treatment of ventral abdominal hernia, especially in small and medium defects.",
"yes. Inguinal hernioplasty for SIH in patients with cirrhosis is a safe procedure. The improvement of QOL represents a clear cut indication for elective hernia repair.",
"Laparoscopic herniorrhaphy is as safe and efficacious as open repair in women, and should be considered when the diagnosis is in question, for management of bilateral hernias or when concomitant abdominal pathology is being addressed.",
"This study demonstrates that, in experienced hands, inguinal hernia repair surgery performed by laparoscopic transabdominal preperitoneal hernioplasty using Parietene and Parietex ProGrip self-gripping meshes is rapid, efficient, and safe with low pain and low hernia recurrence rate. Since no fixating device or glue is necessary for the procedure, additional cost-effectiveness is achieved.",
"Total extraperitoneal hernioplasty is a very effective and safe procedure in the hands of experienced surgeons with specific training. It is an interesting option in bilateral and recurrent hernia as it obtains satisfactory results in terms of postoperative pain and morbidity.",
"yes. While limited by its retrospective design, the present study indicates that the minilaparoscopic approach to groin hernia repair is safe and effective, making miniTAPP a challenging alternative to laparoscopy in the approach to groin hernia repair.",
"Herniography is a useful diagnostic tool for identification of clinically occult hernias, with good rates of sensitivity and specificity. In most cases it is a safe investigation but it is not without a significant complication rate."
] | 426 |
Does exchanging comments of Indian and non-Indian reviewers improve the quality of manuscript reviews? | [
"The quality of peer reviewing in developing countries is thought to be poor. To examine whether this was so, we compared the performance of Indian and non-Indian reviewers who were sent original and review articles submitted to The National Medical Journal of India. We also tested whether informing reviewers that their comments would be exchanged improved the quality of their reviews. In a prospective, randomized, blinded study, we sent 100 manuscripts to pairs of peer reviewers (Indian and non-Indian) of which 78 pairs of completed replies were available for analysis. Thirty-eight pairs of reviews were exchanged and 40 were not. The quality of the reviews was assessed by two editors who were unaware of the reviewers' nationality and whether they had been told that their reviews would be exchanged. The quality of the reviews was scored out of 100 (based on a predesigned evaluation proforma). We also measured the time taken to return a manuscript. Overall, non-Indian reviewers scored higher than Indians (mean scores non-Indians first, 56.7 v. 48.6, p<0.001), especially those in the non-exchanged group (58.4 v. 47.3, p<0.001) but not the exchanged group (54.8 v. 50.0, p<0.06). Being informed that reviews would be exchanged did not affect the quality of reviews by non-Indians (54.8 exchanged v. 58.4 non-exchanged) or of reviews by Indians (50.0 exchanged v. 47.3 non-exchanged). The editors' assessment of the reviewers matched well (r = 0.59, p<0.001). Non-Indians took the same amount of time as Indians to return their reviews, although the postage time was at least eight days longer.",
"We found that non-Indian peer reviewers were better than Indians and informing them that their views would be exchanged did not seem to affect the quality of their reviews. We suggest that Indian editors should also use non-Indian reviewers and start training programmes to improve the quality of peer reviews in India."
] | [
"The aim of our study was to investigate the extent to which Instructions to authors of the Croatian open access (OA) journals are addressing ethical issues. Do biomedical journals differ from the journals from other disciplines in that respect? Our hypothesis was that biomedical journals maintain much higher publication ethics standards. This study looked at 197 Croatian OA journals Instructions to authors to address the following groups of ethical issues: general terms; guidelines and recommendations; research approval and registration; funding and conflict of interest; peer review; redundant publications, misconduct and retraction; copyright; timeliness; authorship; and data accessibility. We further compared a subset of 159 non-biomedical journals with a subset of 38 biomedical journals. Content analysis was used to discern the ethical issues representation in the instructions to authors. The groups of biomedical and non-biomedical journals were similar in terms of originality (χ2=2.183, P=0.140), peer review process (χ2=0.296, P=0.586), patent/grant statement (χ2=2.184, P=0.141), and timeliness of publication (χ2=0.369, P=0.544). We identified significant differences among categories including ethical issues typical for the field of biomedicine, like patients (χ2=47.111, P<0.001), and use of experimental animals (χ2=42.543, P<0.001). Biomedical journals also rely on international editorial guidelines formulated by relevant professional organizations heavily, compared with non-biomedical journals (χ2=42.666, P<0.001).",
"Masking reviewers to author identity as commonly practiced does not improve quality of reviews. Since manuscripts of well-known authors are more difficult to mask, and those manuscripts may be more likely to benefit from masking, the inability to mask reviewers to the identity of well-known authors may have contributed to the lack of effect.",
"Adding or incorporating clinical interpretative comments on biochemistry results is widespread in UK laboratories; although this consumes considerable human resource, there is still little evidence to suggest that it is either effective or appreciated by our clinical colleagues. I therefore decided to survey our local general practitioners (GPs) and nurse practitioners to analyse whether they found biochemistry comments on reports helpful. A simple questionnaire was designed and sent to 159 GPs and 81 nurse practitioners asking them whether they found this activity useful for the limited range of test groups that we routinely comment on and also whether they would like to see commenting on more groups of tests. Overall, 49.6% of questionnaires were returned. Of these, there was overwhelming support for commenting on reports and 77% would like to see comments on a greater range of tests.",
"We conducted a systematic review using GRADE (Grading of Recommendations Assessment, Development and Evaluation) system to assess the quality of evidence of Chinese meta-analyses (MAs). A systematic review of MAs listed in Chinese Biomedicine Literature Database from January 2010 to December 2012. Mesh term \"meta-analysis\" was used to search the Chinese Biomedicine Literature Database from January 2010 to December 2012. Characteristics and main outcomes of each included MA were extracted, and the GRADE system was used to assess the quality of evidence for each outcome. A 10% random sample of Cochrane MAs between 2010 and 2012 was also assessed as control group. A total of 564 Chinese MAs (including 1,237 main outcomes) and 95 Cochrane MAs (including 251 main outcomes) were identified. Almost half (600, 48.5%) of the outcomes in Chinese MAs were rated as low, and the proportion of outcomes with high or moderate quality of evidence was lower in Chinese MAs than Cochrane MAs (Chinese, 406 [32.8%] vs. Cochrane MAs, 155 [61.8%], P < 0.001). Of the outcomes in Chinese MAs, 1,012 (81.8%) were downgraded for risk of bias. Other common factors for downgrading were imprecision (448, 36.2%), publication bias (418, 33.8%), inconsistency (351, 28.4%), and indirectness (1, 0.1%).",
"yes. At present, little empirical evidence is available to support the use of editorial peer review as a mechanism to ensure quality of biomedical research. The methodological problems in studying peer review are many and complex. At present, the absence of evidence on efficacy and effectiveness cannot be interpreted as evidence of their absence. A large, well-funded programme of research on the effects of editorial peer review should be launched urgently.",
"To assess the quality of nuclear medicine reporting, within a private UK hospital, of five physicians from four different National Health Service trusts and compare it with a similar previous clinical governance exercise. Reports (n=140) were shown anonymously to all five physicians, including the one who produced the report. Each physician ranked them on a scale of 1-5, with 1 and 5 corresponding to complete disagreement and complete agreement, respectively. All reports with at least one score of <4 were subjected to consensus review by all five physicians and subsequently given a consensus score. Six hundred and ninety-one audit opinions were present out of a possible 700 (98.7%). Forty-three reports were reviewed, of which 11 received a consensus score of <4 (7.9%). This is not significantly different from the proportion of nontrivial errors in our earlier study (10.2%). Only three reports were present, however, with a score of <3 (2.1%), significantly fewer (P<0.02) than the proportion of nontrivial errors in our earlier study. No scores of 1 were recorded. No reporter attracted significantly more scores of <4 compared with the overall proportion of such scores. A score given by an auditing physician which was 2 or more points different from the consensus score was defined as a suboptimal audit. Forty-four of 691 suboptimal audits (6.4%) were present, significantly fewer than the proportion of suboptimal audits in our earlier study (9.7%; P<0.03).",
"The present study highlights that there is difference in the prevalence and some of the clinical parameters at the time of presentation in Indian patients. There was lower prevalence of perihilar variant and a higher prevalence of tip and cellular variants taken together when compared with the western literature, and this was similar to observations of another Asian cohort (China). Collapsing variant was infrequent when compared to the west.",
"Peer review of university classroom teaching can increase the quality of teaching but is not universally practiced in Australian universities. To report an evaluation of paired peer-review process using both paper and web based teaching evaluation tools. Twenty university teachers in one metropolitan Australian School of Nursing and Midwifery were randomly paired and then randomly assigned to a paper based or web-based peer review tool. Each teacher reviewed each other's classroom teaching as part of a peer review program. The participants then completed an 18 question survey evaluating the peer review tool and paired evaluation process. Responses were analyzed using frequencies and percentages. Regardless of the tool used, participants found this process of peer review positive (75%), collegial (78%), supportive (61%) and non-threatening (71%). Participants reported that the peer review will improve their own classroom delivery (61%), teaching evaluation (61%) and planning (53%). The web-based tool was found to be easier to use and allowed more space than the paper-based tool.",
"Interpretative commenting is an important activity of the clinical diagnostic laboratory. We describe a study of interpretative commenting abilities among senior laboratory professionals in the Asia-Pacific region and Africa. Five sets of laboratory results reflecting common and important problems encountered in clinical chemistry were distributed at 4-weekly intervals to 31 registered participants from countries in the Asia-Pacific region and Africa. Participants were asked to attach an interpretative comment to the results assuming that the requesting doctor had asked for an interpretation of the result. Twelve pathologists and 19 scientists from seven countries registered to participate and the overall reply rate was approximately 50% for the five cases. The quality of the comments returned by participants was diverse and some reflected incorrect or misleading interpretation and advice.",
"To evaluate the inter-rater agreement of the record review process of the Dutch Adverse Event study, which we aimed to improve by the involvement of two independent physician reviewers per record instead of one including a consensus procedure in case of disagreement. The inter-rater agreement within pairs of physicians (independent review between physician A+B) and between pairs of physicians (independent review between physician A+B and C+D) was measured to evaluate the record review process with two physicians including a consensus procedure, with 4,272 and 119 records, respectively. The inter-rater agreement within pairs of physicians was substantial for the determination of adverse events (AEs) with a kappa of 0.64 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.61, 0.68). The inter-rater agreement between pairs of physicians was fair for the determination of AEs with a kappa of 0.25 (95% CI: 0.05, 0.45).",
"There is a lack of an instrument to evaluate systematic reviews of non-randomized studies in epidemiological research. The Assessment of Multiple Systematic Reviews (AMSTAR) is widely used to evaluate the scientific quality of systematic reviews, but it has not been validated for SRs of non-randomized studies. The objective of this paper is to report our experience in applying AMSTAR to systematic reviews of non-randomized studies in terms of applicability, reliability and feasibility. Thus, we applied AMSTAR to a recently published review of 32 systematic reviews of non-randomized studies investigating the hospital volume-outcome relationship in surgery. The inter-rater reliability was high (0.76), albeit items 8 (scientific quality used in formulating conclusions), 9 (appropriate method to combine studies), and 11 (conflicts of interest) scored moderate (≤0.58). However, there was a high heterogeneity between the two pairs of reviewers. In terms of feasibility, AMSTAR proved easy to apply to systematic reviews of non-randomized studies, each review taking 5-10 minutes to complete. We faced problems in applying three items, mainly related to scientific quality of the included studies.",
"Some authors of Cochrane overviews have also (co-)authored one or more of the underlying reviews. We examined the extent of dual (co-)authorship in Cochrane overviews, how it is dealt with, and whether the issue is raised in protocols. The Cochrane Library was searched for overviews and protocols for overviews in September 2015. Data on dual (co-)authorship were extracted for each review into standard spreadsheets by one author and checked for accuracy by a second. Twenty overviews and 25 protocols were identified. The overviews included a median of 10 reviews (interquartile range [IQR]: 6-18.5). In 18/20 overviews (90%), at least one of the included reviews was affected by dual (co-)authorship. A median of 5 (IQR, 2.5-7) reviews per overview was affected by dual (co-)authorship. In 8/18 (44%) overviews with dual (co-)authorship, quality assessment was conducted independently. In 7/25 (28%) protocols, dual (co-)authorship was mentioned.",
"Systematic reviews (SRs) must be of high quality. The purpose of our research was to compare the methodological and reporting quality of original versus updated Cochrane SRs to determine whether updating had improved these two quality dimensions. We identified updated Cochrane SRs published in issue 4, 2002 of the Cochrane Library. We assessed the updated and original versions of the SRs using two instruments: the 10 item enhanced Overview Quality Assessment Questionnaire (OQAQ), and an 18-item reporting quality checklist and flow chart based upon the Quality of Reporting of Meta-analyses (QUOROM) statement. At least two reviewers extracted data and assessed quality. We calculated the percentage (with a 95% confidence interval) of 'yes' answers to each question. We calculated mean differences in percentage, 95% confidence intervals and p-values for each of the individual items and the overall methodological quality score of the updated and pre-updated versions using OQAQ. We assessed 53 SRs. There was no significant improvement in the global quality score of the OQAQ (mean difference 0.11 (-0.28; 0.70 p = 0.52)). Updated reviews showed a significant improvement of 18.9 (7.2; 30.6 p<.01) on the OQAQ item assessing whether the conclusions drawn by the author(s) were supported by the data and/or analysis presented in the SR. The QUOROM statement showed that the quality of reporting of Cochrane reviews improved in some areas with updating. Improvements were seen on the items relating to data sources reported in the abstract, with a significant difference of 17.0 (9.8; 28.7 p = 0.01), review methods, reported in the abstract 35 (24.1; 49.1 p = 0.00), searching methods 18.9 (9.7; 31.6 p = 0.01), and data abstraction 18.9 (11.7; 30.9 p = 0.00).",
"yes. This study provides useful insights into the process of review from the reviewer's perspective. Reviewers spend a substantial amount of time on each paper. Many referees feel their reviews would benefit if they had formal training in the review process, received feedback on their reviews, or were able to ask colleagues for opinions on the paper being reviewed. Most reviewers would be willing to sign their reviews and feel that the process should be transparent. These results may help inform discussions about how to better prepare peer reviewers for their job.",
"yes. The Cochrane Library systematic review methodology leads to higher quality reviews on dermatological topics.",
"Evidence Based Reviews in Surgery (EBRS) is an Internet journal club that is effective in teaching critical appraisal skills to practicing surgeons. The objective of this randomized controlled trial was to determine whether teaching critical appraisal skills to surgical residents through the Internet is as effective as a moderated in-person journal club. Twelve general surgery programs were cluster-randomized to an Internet group (6 programs; 227 residents; 23 to 47 residents/program) or a moderated journal club (6 programs, 216 residents, 21 to 72 residents/program). Each EBRS package includes a clinical and methodological article plus clinical and methodological reviews. Residents in the Internet group were required to complete 8 EBRS packages online plus participate in an online discussion group. Residents in the moderated group were required to attend 8 journal clubs moderated by a faculty member. All residents completed a validated test assessing expertise in critical appraisal. In the Internet group, only 18% of residents completed at least 1 EBRS package compared with 96% in the moderated group. One hundred and thirty (57.8%) residents in the Internet group completed the test compared with 157 (72.7%) in the moderated group. The residents in the moderated group scored considerably better on the critical appraisal test, with a mean score of 42.1 compared with 37.4 in the Internet group (p = 0.05), with a moderate effect size of 0.6 SD.",
"Our results suggest that contacting corresponding authors is problematic throughout the field of biomedical research. Defining the responsibilities of corresponding authors by journals more explicitly-particularly after publication of their manuscript-may increase the response rate on data requests. Possible other ways to improve communication after research publication are: (1) listing more than one email address per corresponding author, eg, an institutional and personal address; (2) specifying all authors' email addresses; (3) when an author leaves an institution, send an automated reply offering alternative ways to get in touch; and (4) linking published manuscripts to research platforms.",
"yes. The attitudes of medical students towards peer feedback were largely positive. We advocate further studies to evaluate quality of feedback, and the role of anonymity in peer feedback, and its effect on group dynamics and cohesion.",
"Free-text comments in multi-source feedback are intended to facilitate change in the assessee's practice. This study was designed to utilise a large dataset of free-text comments obtained in a national pilot study in order to investigate how helpful these free-text comments may be to assessees. We investigated: (i) which areas of performance are usually addressed by free-text comments; (ii) to what extent assessors' (doctors, nurses, allied health professionals and clerical or managerial staff) comments correspond to assessees' (career-grade doctors) self-assessments, and (iii) whether the comments contain specific behavioural evidence and suggestions for change. Initially comments were read through to identify commonly recurring themes. A strong theme was 'respondent-centredness', which refers to the extent to which comments focus on issues that are of value to the assessor rather than to the assessee's personal development. In response to this, the data were re-evaluated against predefined research questions to assess how constructive comments were for the assessee's personal development. Of 11,483 assessor forms, 4777 (42%) included free-text comments. A total of 513 forms contained at least one below average score and 286 (56%) of these forms contained the assessor's free-text feedback. Free-text comments were mostly rater-centred and addressed the effect of the assessee on the colleague's working life rather than areas of relevance to the assessee's personal development. A total of 1806 assessor/assessee pairs of comments were compared; most demonstrated clear differences of opinion or interpretation. Reliability and supportiveness were over-represented; clinical performance and personal development were under-represented. The comments were unlikely to provide specific behavioural evidence or to address how change might be initiated.",
"yes. The vast majority of exotic expert opinions expressed by senior staff members during grand rounds are not evidence-based. Thus, great care must be taken to ensure that exotic expert opinion is not accepted as factual without careful review. Furthermore, this study shows that although seniority is (as expected) associated with a higher incidence of voicing exotic expert opinion, it is negatively associated with reviewing the merits of such opinion.",
"The objective of this prospective study was to conduct medication management reviews (MMR) in people from a non-English speaking background (NESB) (Bosnian/Serbian/Croatian, from former Yugoslavia, currently residing in Australia) in their native language in order to identify medication-related problems (needs analysis) and implement appropriate therapeutic interventions, in collaboration with their general practitioners (GPs). Twenty-five participants entered the study. Each was interviewed and medication-related issues were identified by the health care team. Various interventions (over 150 for the whole group, an average of 6 per participant), based on actual and potential medication-related problems, were designed to improve the use of medicines. The MMRs introduced effective changes into the participants' health care. Psychological (e.g., feeling depressed) and sociological factors (e.g., costs of medicines, not understanding labels written in English) were identified as having significant impacts on medication management.",
"It is commonly believed that the peer-review process is reliable and consistent. It appears, however, that depending on the journal and the editorial leadership, agreement by reviewers on whether to publish submitted articles varies widely; from substantial to slightly greater than one would expect with random assignments of acceptance or rejection. The purpose was to assess peer-review agreement in major spine journals.STUDY DESIGN/ This study is for the assessment of reviewer agreement. The study consisted of consecutive reviews of 200 submitted articles. Agreement via Kappa statistics. Group A consisted of 200 consecutive article reviews for which the senior author was involved in the review or editorial process over the past 8 years for two major spine journals. Reviewers' recommendations were placed into one of two groups: accept/minimal revisions or major revision/reject. Standard Kappa statistics were used to assess reviewer agreement. Group B consisted of a similar set, but with wholly randomly generated recommendations. Again, Kappa statistics were used. Kappa for Group A was 0.155 with a range of 0.017 to 0.294 at 95% confidence interval and agreement at 0.6; suggesting \"slight\" reviewer agreement. Kappa for Group B behaved as expected, with \"poor\" agreement.",
"The Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials, PubMed Medline and Latin American and Caribbean Health Science literature databases were searched, and searches made by hand of identified papers, to source relevant data. (BIOSIS Previews) were searched. There were no language restrictions. Studies were evaluated by two reviewers independently. Only clinical trials were included that were published in the English, Spanish and Portuguese languages and were performed on humans. Articles were excluded when the examiners were not calibrated; when they did not compare manual and electronic probing techniques; when they did not measure the clinical attachment level (CAL); and when the subjects did not present destructive periodontal disease or had already received periodontal treatment. The quality of the identified studies was assessed and standardised data extracted. Only two studies met all the selection criteria so no meta-analysis was performed. Only two of the 37 identified articles were included in the review. The results of these two studies showed that the mean variance and the absolute mean difference between CAL measurements for the two types of probes were not statistically different.",
"To explore the review process from the reviewers' perspective, including perceptions of the time taken to carry out a review, barriers to and facilitators of the review process, benefits of reviewing, opinions about blinded versus transparent reviews, how the process of reviewing might be made easier, and to assess reviewers' experience of, and training in, the peer review process. Reviewers for Medical Education invited to review over a 5-month period between 1st June and 31st October 2002 (n = 221). Postal questionnaire accompanying a request to review a manuscript. The overall response rate was 64.7% (the response rate of those completing and returning a manuscript review and a questionnaire was 87%); 30% were first-time reviewers for Medical Education, although the majority (87%) reviewed for other journals. The average time spent on the current review was just over 3 hours (184.3 minutes, median 162 minutes, range 30-810 minutes), which was stated to be about the same time as usual for the majority. Only 14% of respondents had received formal training in reviewing, although 66% said they would like such training. A total of 79.5% said they would have liked to seek a colleague's opinion, and 90% wished to receive other reviewers' comments. A wide range of problems with the review process were encountered, and the main way in which it was felt it could be made easier was to make the process electronic. Nearly three quarters of respondents said they would be happy to sign their reviews. Acting as a reviewer was seen as a professional responsibility and as an opportunity for learning.",
"yes. Our study confirms that there are no easily identifiable types of formal training or experience that predict reviewer performance. Skill in scientific peer review may be as ill defined and hard to impart as is \"common sense.\" Without a better understanding of those skills, it seems unlikely journals and editors will be successful in systematically improving their selection of reviewers. This inability to predict performance makes it imperative that all but the smallest journals implement routine review ratings systems to routinely monitor the quality of their reviews (and thus the quality of the science they publish).",
"We evaluated the inter-rater reliability (IRR) of assessing the quality of evidence (QoE) using the Grading of Recommendations, Assessment, Development, and Evaluation (GRADE) approach. On completing two training exercises, participants worked independently as individual raters to assess the QoE of 16 outcomes. After recording their initial impression using a global rating, raters graded the QoE following the GRADE approach. Subsequently, randomly paired raters submitted a consensus rating. The IRR without using the GRADE approach for two individual raters was 0.31 (95% confidence interval [95% CI] = 0.21-0.42) among Health Research Methodology students (n = 10) and 0.27 (95% CI = 0.19-0.37) among the GRADE working group members (n = 15). The corresponding IRR of the GRADE approach in assessing the QoE was significantly higher, that is, 0.66 (95% CI = 0.56-0.75) and 0.72 (95% CI = 0.61-0.79), respectively. The IRR further increased for three (0.80 [95% CI = 0.73-0.86] and 0.74 [95% CI = 0.65-0.81]) or four raters (0.84 [95% CI = 0.78-0.89] and 0.79 [95% CI = 0.71-0.85]). The IRR did not improve when QoE was assessed through a consensus rating.",
"A major issue in any systematic review is deciding which trials or studies to include and which to exclude. The Cochrane Collaboration and similar respected organizations have traditionally viewed the randomized trial (RCT) as the only acceptable evidence on treatment outcome. However, many systematic reviews are indeterminate because they include insufficient RCTs whilst they reject large numbers of non-randomized controlled studies. This is particularly true in forensic mental health, a domain where RCT methodology can be problematic. Systematic reviews could become more informative if reviewers knew when, and under what circumstances, non-randomized designs are acceptable for inclusion alongside RCTs. This pilot study explores whether good-quality, controlled, non-randomized studies can be reliable surrogates for RCTs. We examined two published reviews from the Cochrane Schizophrenia Group. We compared outcomes between (a) randomized trials (that had been included) and non-randomized studies (that had been excluded), and (b) between high- and low-quality studies using an established quality checklist. In the first review, effect scores were similar for randomized and non-randomized studies and relatively insensitive to study quality. In the second review, the treatment effect was considerably lower for the RCT group - here, however, studies of high-quality showed much smaller effect scores than those of low-quality on two separate outcomes.",
"To explore opinions of authors of published reports of clinical trials and Cochrane systematic reviews on the causes and methods of preventing publication bias. An online questionnaire was developed and sent to researchers publishing in high-impact or national general medical journals, authors of Cochrane systematic reviews, and a general population of researchers. Open-ended questions about publication bias were qualitatively analyzed. We also held a focus group with experienced researchers and/or Cochrane reviewers. Publication bias was common: 48 (36%) respondents had own unpublished trials and 40 (30%) admitted selective outcome reporting; but researchers felt strongly that blame rested also with the system that promotes and augments publication bias practices. Qualitative analysis of both survey responses and focus group discussion identified possible ways of reducing publication bias through increased transparency, improvements to trial registries, search engines and databases, enhancement of the role of institutional review boards, positive encouragement of scientists, and policy changes.",
"yes. Language of publication is associated with the methodological quality of reports of physiotherapy trials. Although English reports are more likely to have better methodological quality than reports written in other languages, the magnitude of this influence is small.",
"As the volume of medical literature increases exponentially, maintaining current clinical practice is becoming more difficult. Multiple, Internet-based journal clubs and alert services have recently emerged. The purpose of this study is to determine whether the use of the e-mail alert service, Nephrology Now, increases knowledge translation regarding current nephrology literature. Nephrology Now is a nonprofit, monthly e-mail alert service that highlights clinically relevant articles in nephrology. In 2007-2008, the authors randomized 1,683 subscribers into two different groups receiving select intervention articles, and then they used an online survey to assess both groups on their familiarity with the articles and their acquisition of knowledge. Of the randomized subscribers, 803 (47.7%) completed surveys, and the two groups had a similar number of responses (401 and 402, respectively). The authors noted no differences in baseline characteristics between the two groups. Familiarity increased as a result of the Nephrology Now alerts (0.23 ± 0.087 units on a familiarity scale; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.06-0.41; P = .007) especially in physicians (multivariate odds ratio 1.83; P = .0002). No detectable improvement in knowledge occurred (0.03 ± 0.083 units on a knowledge scale; 95% CI: -0.13 to 0.20; P = .687).",
"yes. From 2001 to 2010, IFs increased significantly for English-language and non-English-language journals. When comparing IF values year-by-year (2001-2010), IFs were significantly higher for English-language than for non-English-language journals. In an international scientific community with English as the universal language of science, non-English-language journals should consider changing publication language, and adopt either a bi- or a monolingual approach. Publishing in English will increase citation counts and thus IFs, but, more importantly, scientific findings will be accessible to a much wider audience.",
"Written comments by medical student supervisors provide written foundation for grade narratives and deans' letters and play an important role in student's professional development. Written comments are widely used but little has been published about the quality of written comments. We hypothesized that medical students share an understanding of qualities inherent to a high-quality and a low-quality narrative comment and we aimed to determine the features that define high- and low-quality comments. Using the well-established anthropological pile-sort method, medical students sorted written comments into 'helpful' and 'unhelpful' piles, then were interviewed to determine how they evaluated comments. We used multidimensional scaling and cluster analysis to analyze data, revealing how written comments were sorted across student participants. We calculated the degree of shared knowledge to determine the level of internal validity in the data. We transcribed and coded data elicited during the structured interview to contextualize the student's answers. Length of comment was compared using one-way analysis of variance; valence and frequency comments were thought of as helpful were analyzed by chi-square. Analysis of written comments revealed four distinct clusters. Cluster A comments reinforced good behaviors or gave constructive criticism for how changes could be made. Cluster B comments exhorted students to continue non-specific behaviors already exhibited. Cluster C comments used grading rubric terms without giving student-specific examples. Cluster D comments used sentence fragments lacking verbs and punctuation. Student data exhibited a strong fit to the consensus model, demonstrating that medical students share a robust model of attributes of helpful and unhelpful comments. There was no correlation between valence of comment and perceived helpfulness.",
"To assess whether manuscripts received by JAMA in 1991 possessed differing peer review and manuscript processing characteristics, or had a variable chance of acceptance, associated with the gender of the participants in the peer review process. Retrospective cohort study of 1851 research articles. JAMA editorial office. Eight male and five female JAMA editors, 2452 male and 930 female reviewers, and 1698 male and 462 female authors. Statistically significant gender bias. Female editors were assigned manuscripts from female corresponding authors more often than were male editors (P<.001). Female editors used more reviewers per manuscript if sent for other review. Male reviewers assisted male editors more often than female editors, and male reviewers took longer to return manuscripts than did their female counterparts (median, 25 vs 22 days). Content reviewer recommendations were independent of corresponding author and review gender, while male statistical reviewers recommended the highest and lowest categories more frequently than did female statistical reviewers (P<.001). Manuscripts handled by female editors were rejected summarily at higher rates (P<.001). Articles submitted to JAMA in 1991 were not accepted at significantly different rates based on the gender of the corresponding author or the assigned editor (P<.4).",
"To determine whether sharing the same ethnicity as their family physician influenced the quality of diabetes care for Chinese and South Asian patients in Ontario, Canada. We conducted two related studies: a population-based cohort study of Chinese and South Asian patients with incident diabetes using health care administrative data (n=49,484), and a cross-sectional study of Chinese and South Asian patients with established diabetes using data collected directly from their family physicians' clinical records (n=416). In both studies, quality of care measures were compared between patients whose family physicians were or were not from the same ethnic group. In the cohort study, Chinese patients whose family physicians were also Chinese were more likely to have a diabetes-related family physician visit and appropriate HbA1c and cholesterol testing. In the cross-sectional study, they were more likely to have foot examinations, to have microalbuminuria testing, and to achieve recommended treatment targets for HbA1c and for LDL-cholesterol. In contrast, for South Asian patients, most quality measures in either study did not differ by physician ethnicity.",
"To investigate whether the methodological quality is influenced by language of publication in reports of randomized controlled trials and controlled clinical trials of physiotherapy interventions. Bibliometric and methodological quality data from all reports of trials indexed on the Physiotherapy Evidence Database (PEDro) up to February 2011 were extracted. Descriptive statistics on the total PEDro score and the 11 individual PEDro items were calculated for each language of publication and for all non-English-language reports combined. Regression models were calculated to predict the total PEDro score and the presence of each of the 11 items of the PEDro scale using the language of publication as an independent variable. A total of 13,392 reports of trials were used for this study, 12,532 trials published in English and 860 published in other languages. Overall methodological quality was better for English reports than reports written in other languages (β = 0.15, 95% confidence interval = 0.04, 0.25). Specifically, reporting was better for items relating to random allocation, concealed allocation, and blinding of assessors, worse for more than 85% follow-up and intention-to-treat analysis, and no different for eligibility criteria and source specified, baseline comparability, blinding of subjects and therapists, reporting of between-group statistical comparisons, and reporting of point measures and measures of variability.",
"To examine the relationships between study quality, author prestige, journal impact factors, and citation rates of trials and to examine whether journal impact factors mediated the relationships between study quality and author prestige on citation rates. We used bibliometric data from 128 controlled trials included in a recent meta-analysis on brief alcohol interventions for adolescents and young adults. We obtained the number of citations from ISI Web of Knowledge and Google Scholar; journal impact factors were obtained from ISI Web of Knowledge. Linear regression models were used to examine the direct and indirect effects of interest. The results indicated that studies were published in journals with higher impact factors when first authors had higher h-indices and studies were funded, but this was largely because those studies were of higher quality. Studies were cited more frequently when first authors had higher h-indices and studies were funded, even after adjusting for study quality proxies. The observed associations between study quality and author prestige on citation rates were also partly mediated through journal impact factors.",
"yes. Implementation of a web-based paired peer review system can be a positive method of peer review of university classroom teaching. Pairing of teachers to review each other's classroom teaching is a promising strategy and has the potential to improve teaching in teaching universities.",
"yes. Despite being clinically sound, Indian guidelines score poorly due to weak documentation about their development process. It is recommended that the guideline development process be improved with systematic documentation for achieving standardization.",
"Although almost half of instructions mentioned reporting guidelines, their value in improving research publications is not being fully realised. Journals have a responsibility to support peer reviewers. We make several recommendations including wider reference to the EQUATOR Network online library (www.equator-network.org/).",
"The acceptance of a paper in a top-ranked journal depends on the importance of the study, and should not depend on its country of origin. If the papers' citation rate is a proxy for their importance, and the threshold for acceptance is unrelated to the country of origin, papers from different countries published in the same journal should have a similar number of citations. Conversely, if the threshold is lowered for some countries, their papers will have a lower mean citation rate. The number of citations and the corresponding author's country were obtained for 4724 papers published between 1998 and 2002 in the British Medical Journal, the Lancet, Journal of the American Medical Association and New England Journal of Medicine. Countries were grouped according to the World Bank classification and geographical location: low-middle income countries; high-income European countries; high-income non-European countries; UK and USA. The probability of papers being poorly cited by country of origin was estimated, using domestic papers (British papers published in British journals and US papers published in US journals) as the reference. Compared with domestic papers, the OR of being poorly cited was 0.67 (95% CI 0.55 to 0.81) for papers from high-income European countries, 0.97 (0.76 to 1.24) for papers from high-income non-European countries and 1.93 (1.28 to 2.89) for papers from low-middle income countries.",
"To evaluate the inter-rater reliability of results from Global Trigger Tool (GTT) reviews when one of the three reviewers remains consistent, while one or two reviewers rotate. Comparison of results from retrospective record review performed as a cross-sectional study with three review teams each consisting of two non-physicians and one physician; Team I (three consistent reviewers), Team II (one of the two non-physician reviewers or/and the physician from Team I are replaced for different review periods) and Team III (three consistent reviewers different from reviewers in Team I and Team II). Medium-sized hospital trust in Northern Norway. A total of 120 records were selected as biweekly samples of 10 from discharge lists between 1 July and 31 December 2010 for a 3-fold review. Replacement of review team members was tested to assess impact on inter-rater reliability and adverse events measurment. Inter-rater reliability assessed with the Cohen kappa coefficient between different teams regarding the presence and severity level of adverse events. Substantial inter-rater reliability regarding the presence and severity level of adverse events was obtained between Teams I and II, while moderate inter-rater reliability was obtained between Teams I and III.",
"yes. This evidence-based guideline facilitates the improvement of search quality through peer review, and thus the improvement in quality of systematic reviews. It is relevant for librarians/information specialists, journal editors, developers of knowledge translation tools, research organizations, and funding bodies.",
"The purpose of this cluster-randomised controlled trial was to evaluate the efficacy of quality circles (QCs) working either with general data-based feedback or with an open benchmark within the field of asthma care and drug-drug interactions. Twelve QCs, involving 96 general practitioners from 85 practices, were randomised. Six QCs worked with traditional anonymous feedback and six with an open benchmark. Two QC meetings supported with feedback reports were held covering the topics \"drug-drug interactions\" and \"asthma\"; in both cases discussions were guided by a trained moderator. Outcome measures included health-related quality of life and patient satisfaction with treatment, asthma severity and number of potentially inappropriate drug combinations as well as the general practitioners' satisfaction in relation to the performance of the QC. A significant improvement in the treatment of asthma was observed in both trial arms. However, there was only a slight improvement regarding inappropriate drug combinations. There were no relevant differences between the group with open benchmark (B-QC) and traditional quality circles (T-QC). The physicians' satisfaction with the QC performance was significantly higher in the T-QCs.",
"The overall quality of Cochrane SRs is fair-to-good. Although reporting quality improved on certain individual items there was no overall improvement seen with updating and methodological quality remained unchanged. Further improvement of quality of reporting is possible. There is room for improvement of methodological quality as well. Authors updating reviews should address identified methodological or reporting weaknesses. We recommend to give full attention to both quality domains when updating SRs.",
"yes. Implementation of a tiered system stratifying journal peer reviewers by quality and reliability was readily accomplished by Annals and has appeared to improve the efficiency of our peer review.",
"yes. In a leading specialty journal, cited reviewers gave higher scores than noncited reviewers. However, this was likely due to their being assigned higher-quality manuscripts and not because they were cited in the manuscript. Reviewer requests that their work be cited were rare.",
"Pre-publication peer review of manuscripts should enhance the value of research publications to readers who may wish to utilize findings in clinical care or health policy-making. Much published research across all medical specialties is not useful, may be misleading, wasteful and even harmful. Reporting guidelines are tools that in addition to helping authors prepare better manuscripts may help peer reviewers in assessing them. We examined journals' instructions to peer reviewers to see if and how reviewers are encouraged to use them. We surveyed websites of 116 journals from the McMaster list. Main outcomes were 1) identification of online instructions to peer reviewers and 2) presence or absence of key domains within instructions: on journal logistics, reviewer etiquette and addressing manuscript content (11 domains). Only 41/116 journals (35%) provided online instructions. All 41 guided reviewers about the logistics of their review processes, 38 (93%) outlined standards of behaviour expected and 39 (95%) contained instruction about evaluating the manuscript content. There was great variation in explicit instruction for reviewers about how to evaluate manuscript content. Almost half of the online instructions 19/41 (46%) mentioned reporting guidelines usually as general statements suggesting they may be useful or asking whether authors had followed them rather than clear instructions about how to use them. All 19 named CONSORT for reporting randomized trials but there was little mention of CONSORT extensions. PRISMA, QUOROM (forerunner of PRISMA), STARD, STROBE and MOOSE were mentioned by several journals. No other reporting guideline was mentioned by more than two journals.",
"To study whether reviewers aware of author identity are biased in favor of authors with more previous publications. Randomized controlled trial. Editorial office of the Journal of Developmental and Behavioral Pediatrics. Two \"blinded\" and two \"nonblinded\" reviewers assigned to 57 consecutive manuscripts submitted between September 1991 and March 1992. Spearman rank correlation coefficients were used to compare the sum of rating scores of 1 to 5 (1, accept; 5, reject) given by the two blinded reviewers, the two nonblinded reviewers, and the editors to the number of articles published previously by the first and senior authors (as determined from requested curricula vitae). Blinded reviewers were sent a questionnaire asking whether they could determine the identity of the authors, how they knew, and whether they thought binding changed the quality or difficulty of their review. The Wilcoxon Sign Rank Test disclosed no differences between blinded and nonblinded scores. The number of previous articles by the senior author was significantly correlated (P < .01) with blinded scores (r = -.45) and editors' decisions (r = -.45), but not with nonblinded scores; the number of articles by the first author was correlated (P < .05) with editors' decisions (r = -.35) but not with blinded or nonblinded scores. Fifty (46%) of 108 blinded reviewers correctly guessed the identity of the authors, mostly from self-references and knowledge of the work; 86% believed blinding did not change the quality of their review, and 73% believed it did not change the difficulty of performing a review.",
"The source of research may influence one's interpretation of it in either negative or positive ways, however, there are no robust experiments to determine how source impacts on one's judgment of the research article. We determine the impact of source on respondents' assessment of the quality and relevance of selected research abstracts. Web-based survey design using four healthcare research abstracts previously published and included in Cochrane Reviews. All Council on the Education of Public Health-accredited Schools and Programmes of Public Health in the USA. 899 core faculty members (full, associate and assistant professors) Each of the four abstracts appeared with a high-income source half of the time, and low-income source half of the time. Participants each reviewed the same four abstracts, but were randomly allocated to receive two abstracts with high-income source, and two abstracts with low-income source, allowing for within-abstract comparison of quality and relevance Within-abstract comparison of participants' rating scores on two measures--strength of the evidence, and likelihood of referral to a peer (1-10 rating scale). OR was calculated using a generalised ordered logit model adjusting for sociodemographic covariates. Participants who received high income country source abstracts were equal in all known characteristics to the participants who received the abstracts with low income country sources. For one of the four abstracts (a randomised, controlled trial of a pharmaceutical intervention), likelihood of referral to a peer was greater if the source was a high income country (OR 1.28, 1.02 to 1.62, p<0.05).",
"Antenatal care recommended in protocols used in Australia varies, and is not always consistent with national policies or research evidence. Producing and disseminating systematic reviews of research evidence and national guidelines might reduce this variability and improve the quality of Australian antenatal care.",
"Both senior residents and faculty members evaluate family practice interns (PGY-1) on the inpatient family medicine service at the University of Missouri-Columbia. The purpose of this study was to investigate the content and nature of narrative comments on a clinical evaluation sheet. Objective 1. The authors placed the subjective comments made by faculty and senior residents in their evaluations of PGY-1 residents into 12 distinctive categories. Objective 2. Comments were coded with a positive or negative valence. Objective 3. The genders of the evaluator and learner were recorded. All evaluations made between 1996 and 1999 were analysed. A total of 1341 individual comments were reviewed. Objective 1. Categories used most often were generic comments (20.2%), personal attributes (18%), and clinical competence (14.1%). There was no difference in category use based on the experience level of the evaluator (P = 0.17). Objective 2. The majority of the comments (81.9%) were positive in nature. Senior faculty members were significantly less likely to make negative comments than were junior faculty members or senior residents (P = 0.004). Objective 3. There were no differences in category use based on the gender of the evaluator (P = 0.13).",
"yes. The peer review and editorial processes slightly improved the readability of original articles and their abstracts, but both remained difficult to read at publication. Better readability scores may improve readership.",
"yes. Blinded reviewers and editors in this study, but not nonblinded reviewers, gave better scores to authors with more previous articles. These results suggest that blinded reviewers may provide more unbiased reviews and that nonblinded reviewers may be affected by various types of bias.",
"yes. Nonblinded peer review apparently suffers from type I error to a greater extent than blinded peer review. That is, journals using nonblinded peer review published a larger fraction of papers that should not have been published than do journals using blinded peer review. When reviewers know the identity of the author(s) of an article, they are able to (and evidently do) substitute particularistic criteria for universalistic criteria in their evaluative process.",
"yes. Based on our findings, it can be concluded that manuscript rejection can be avoided by the authors, if the topic is well choosen and communication is maintained with the journal editorial.",
"The quality of surgery manuscripts can be improved by including a statistician as coauthor, with efforts directed toward implementing multi-institutional/interdisciplinary trials. Peer-review across journals can be standardized through the use of instruments measuring methodologic and clinical quality.",
"Receptiveness to interprofessional feedback, which is important for optimal collaboration, may be influenced by 'in-group or out-group' categorisation, as suggested by social identity theory. We used an experimental design to explore how nurses and resident physicians perceive feedback from people within and outside their own professional group. Paediatric residents and nurses participated in a simulation-based team exercise. Two nurses and two physicians wrote anonymous performance feedback for each participant. Participants each received a survey containing these feedback comments with prompts to rate (i) the usefulness (ii) the positivity and (iii) their agreement with each comment. Half of the participants received feedback labelled with the feedback provider's profession (two comments correctly labelled and two incorrectly labelled). Half received unlabelled feedback and were asked to guess the provider's profession. For each group, we performed separate three-way anovas on usefulness, positivity and agreement ratings to examine interactions between the recipient's profession, actual provider profession and perceived provider profession. Forty-five out of 50 participants completed the survey. There were no significant interactions between profession of the recipient and the actual profession of the feedback provider for any of the 3 variables. Among participants who guessed the source of the feedback, we found significant interactions between the profession of the feedback recipient and the guessed source of the feedback for both usefulness (F1,48 = 25.6; p<0.001; η(2) = 0.35) and agreement ratings (F1,48 = 8.49; p<0.01; η(2) = 0.15). Nurses' ratings of feedback they guessed to be from nurses were higher than ratings of feedback they guessed to be from physicians, and vice versa. Among participants who received labelled feedback, we noted a similar interaction between the profession of the feedback recipient and labelled source of feedback for usefulness ratings (F1,92 = 4.72; p<0.05; η(2) = 0.05).",
"yes. Among invited peer reviewers, voluntary attendance at a highly structured and interactive workshop was low and did not improve the quality of subsequent reviews, contrary to the predictions of attendees. Efforts to aggressively recruit average reviewers to a second workshop were time consuming, had low success rates, and showed a similar lack of effect on ratings, despite improvement in scores on a test instrument. Workshop teaching formats, although traditional, are of unproven efficacy.",
"Independent evaluation of clinical evidence is advocated in evidence-based medicine (EBM). However, authors' conclusions are often appealing for readers who look for quick messages. We assessed how well a group of Malaysian hospital practitioners and medical students derived their own conclusions from systematic reviews (SRs) and to what extent these were influenced by their prior beliefs and the direction of the study results. We conducted two cross-sectional studies: one with hospital practitioners (n = 150) attending an EBM course in June 2008 in a tertiary hospital and one with final-year medical students (n = 35) in November 2008. We showed our participants four Cochrane SR abstracts without the authors' conclusions. For each article, the participants chose a conclusion from among six options comprising different combinations of the direction of effect and the strength of the evidence. We predetermined the single option that best reflected the actual authors' conclusions and labelled this as our best conclusion. We compared the participants' choices with our predetermined best conclusions. Two chosen reviews demonstrated that the intervention was beneficial (\"positive\"), and two others did not (\"negative\"). We also asked the participants their prior beliefs about the intervention. Overall, 60.3% correctly identified the direction of effect, and 30.1% chose the best conclusions, having identified both the direction of effect and the strength of evidence. More students (48.2%) than practitioners (22.2%) chose the best conclusions (P<0.001). Fewer than one-half (47%) correctly identified the direction of effect against their prior beliefs. \"Positive\" SRs were more likely than \"negative\" SRs to change the participants' beliefs about the effect of the intervention (relative risk (RR) 1.8, 95% confidence interval 1.3 to 2.6) and \"convert\" those who were previously unsure by making them choose the appropriate direction of effect (RR 1.9, 95% confidence interval 1.3 to 2.8).",
"The review process can be completely open, double-blinded, or somewhere in between. Double-blinded peer review, where neither the authors' nor peer reviewers' identities are shared with each other, is thought to be the fairest system, but there is evidence that it does not affect reviewer behavior or influence decisions. Furthermore, even without presenting author names, authorship is often apparent to reviewers, especially in small specialties. In conjunction with Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery (PRS), the authors examined the effect of double-blinded review on review quality, reviewer publishing recommendation, and reviewer manuscript rating. The authors hypothesized that double-blinded review will not improve review quality and will not affect recommendation or rating. Traditionally, PRS peer review has been conducted in a single-blinded fashion. During a 3-month period of standard operation of the Journal, the authors examined reviews, recommendations, and manuscript ratings. Beginning October 1, 2014, PRS started conducting reviews in a double-blinded manner. The authors examined the additional reviews submitted during a 3-month period after the change. Review quality was assessed using the validated Review Quality Instrument. Double-blinding had no effect on reviewer publishing recommendation or manuscript ranking. Review quality did not improve after the implementation of double-blinded review. Blinding was successful 66 percent of the time. The most common reasons for blinding failure were reviewer familiarity with authors' work and author self-citation.",
"The relationship between the feedback giver and recipient has been described as influencing the uptake of feedback. Findings suggest that nonanonymous practices can enable a positive relationship in resident-to-faculty feedback. The benefits of an open system for resident-to-faculty feedback can be reaped if a \"feedback culture\" exists.",
"To quantify the potential effect of geographic factors on the frequency of honorary authorship in four major radiology journals. In this institutional review board-approved study, an electronic survey was sent to first authors of all original research articles published in American Journal of Roentgenology, European Radiology, Journal of Magnetic Resonance Imaging, and Radiology during 2 years (July 2009 through June 2011). Questions addressed guidelines used for determining authorship, perception of honorary authorship, and demographic information. Univariate analysis was performed by using χ(2) tests. Multiple-variable logistic regression models were used to assess independent factors associated with the perception of honorary authorship. Of 1398 first authors, 328 (23.5%) responded. Of these, 91 (27.7%) perceived that at least one coauthor did not make sufficient contributions to merit authorship, and 165 (50.3%) stated that one or more coauthors performed only \"nonauthor\" tasks according to International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) criteria. The perception of honorary authorship was significantly higher (P ≤ .0001) among respondents from Asia and Europe than from North America and in institutions where a section or department head was automatically listed as coauthor. A significantly lower (P ≤ .0001) perception of honorary authorship was associated with adherence to ICMJE criteria and with policies providing lectures or courses on publication ethics.",
"yes. Included studies were generally small and inconclusive regarding the effects of training of authors, peer reviewers, and editors on educational outcomes related to improving the quality of health research. Studies were also of questionable validity and susceptible to misinterpretation because of their risk of bias. This review highlights the gaps in our knowledge of how to enhance and ensure the scientific quality of research output for authors, peer reviewers, and journal editors.",
"Agreement regarding peer-review recommendations for publication in spine journals appears to be better than would be expected in the random situation; but still only \"slight.\" This suggests that review methodology varies considerably among reviewers and that further study should be undertaken to determine \"ideal\" agreement levels and ways to increase review consistency/quality commensurate with the editorial missions of the journals.",
"Evidence-based surgery is predicated on the quality of published literature. We measured the quality of surgery manuscripts selected by peer review and identified predictors of excellence. One hundred twenty clinical surgery manuscripts were randomly selected from 1998 in 5 eminent peer-reviewed surgery and medical journals. Manuscripts were blinded for author, institution, and journal of origin. Four surgeons and 4 methodologists evaluated the quality using novel instruments based on subject selection, study protocol, statistical analysis/inference, intervention description, outcome assessments, and results presentation. Predictors of quality and impact factor were identified using bivariate and multivariate regression. Oncology was the most common subject (26%), followed by general surgery/gastrointestinal (24%). The average number of study subjects was 417; the majority of manuscripts were American (53%), from a single institution (59%). Eighteen percent had a statistician author. Mean number of citations was 128. Surgery manuscripts from medical, compared with surgery journals, had better total quality scores (3.8 vs. 5.2, P<0.001). They had more subjects and were more likely to have a statistician as coauthor (43% vs. 10%, P<0.001), multi-institutional, international collaboration (30% vs. 8%, P<0.001), and higher citation index (mean: 350 vs. 54, P<0.001). They were more often foreign (70% vs. 40%, P<0.001). Independent predictors of quality were having a statistician coauthor, study funding, European origin, and more study subjects. Quality assessment using our instruments predicted the number of citations after 10 years (P<0.01), along with having a statistician coauthor, international multi-institutional collaboration, and more subjects.",
"Perceived honorary authorship was substantially higher among respondents from Asia and Europe than from North America. Perceived honorary authorship was lower with adherence to the ICMJE guidelines and policies providing lectures or courses on publication ethics.",
"Replacement of reviewers did not influence the results provided that one of the non-physician reviewers remains consistent. The experience of the consistent reviewer can result in continued consistency in interpretation with the new reviewer through discussion of events. These findings could encourage more hospital to rotate reviewers in order to optimize resources when using the GTT.",
"There are a number of sound justifications for publishing nearly identical information in Chinese and English medical journals, assuming several conditions are met. Although overlap publication is perceived as undesirable and ethically questionable in Europe and North America, it may serve an important function in some regions where English is not the native tongue. There is no empirical data on the nature and degree of overlap publication in English and Chinese language journals. A random sample of 100 English manuscripts from Chinese institutions was selected from PubMed. Key words and institutions were searched in the China National Knowledge Infrastructure, a comprehensive Chinese language research database. Unacknowledged overlap was a priori defined according to International Committee of Medical Journal Editor (ICMJE) guidelines following examination by two individuals. 19% (95% CI 11-27) of English manuscripts from Chinese institutions were found to have substantial overlap with Chinese published work based on full text examination. None of the manuscripts met all of the criteria established by the ICMJE for an acknowledged overlap publication. Individual-level, journal-level, and institutional factors seem to influence overlap publication. Manuscripts associated with an institution outside of China and with more than one institution were significantly less likely to have substantial overlap (p<0.05).",
"To assess the role of the referees in assisting the peer review process of systematic reviews and meta-analyses. A one-page questionnaire was mailed to 1391 referees of two journals, the American Journal of Obstetrics and Gynecology and Obstetrics and Gynecology. The referees were asked how often they verified by their own independent analysis 11 key items related to the methodology and statistical analysis of systematic reviews and meta-analyses. Response categories included \"always\", \"frequently\" (>50% of the time), \"infrequently\" (≤ 50% of the time) and \"never\". A second and a third mailing was sent to the non-respondents. 42 mailings were returned because of change of address. Of the remaining 1349 referees, 272 responded (response rate 20%). Of the 272 respondents, 159 (58%) had previously reviewed articles dealing with systematic reviews or meta-analyses. The responses varied according to the key items in the questions but the referees used their own independent analyses \"always\" in only 2%-17% of the time. The rates of \"infrequently\" or \"never\" responses combined together ranged from 51% to 86% for the various key items.",
"The peer review process is the gold standard by which academic manuscripts are vetted for publication. However, some investigators have raised concerns regarding its unopposed supremacy, including lack of expediency, susceptibility to editorial bias and statistical limitation due to the small number of reviewers used. Post-publication review-in which the article is assessed by the general readership of the journal instead of a small group of appointed reviewers-could potentially supplement or replace the peer-review process. In this study, we created a computer model to compare the traditional peer-review process to that of post-publication reader review. We created a mathematical model of the manuscript review process. A hypothetical manuscript was randomly assigned a \"true value\" representing its intrinsic quality. We modeled a group of three expert peer reviewers and compared it to modeled groups of 10, 20, 50, or 100 reader-reviewers. Reader-reviewers were assumed to be less skillful at reviewing and were thus modeled to be only ¼ as accurate as expert reviewers. Percentage of correct assessments was calculated for each group. 400,000 hypothetical manuscripts were modeled. The accuracy of the reader-reviewer group was inferior to the expert reviewer group in the 10-reviewer trial (93.24% correct vs. 97.67%, p<0.0001) and the 20-reviewer trial (95.50% correct, p<0.0001). However, the reader-reviewer group surpassed the expert reviewer group in accuracy when 50 or 100 reader-reviewers were used (97.92 and 99.20% respectively, p<0.0001).",
"The Cochrane collaboration aims to produce high-quality systematic reviews. It is not known whether the methods used in producing Cochrane Skin Group (CSG) reviews result in higher quality reviews than other systematic reviews in dermatology. To determine how the methodological quality of dermatological CSG reviews published in The Cochrane Library and in peer-reviewed journals compare with non-Cochrane systematic reviews. Two blinded investigators independently assessed review quality using the 10-item Oxman and Guyatt scale. Thirty-eight systematic reviews (17 Cochrane reviews published in The Cochrane Library, 11 Cochrane reviews published in peer-reviewed journals and 10 non-Cochrane reviews published in peer-reviewed journals) were examined. The Cochrane Library reviews included quality of life (11/17 vs. 1/10, P = 0.014) and adverse outcomes (14/17 vs. 2/10, P = 0.003) more often than non-Cochrane reviews published in peer-reviewed journals. Cochrane reviews published in both peer-reviewed journals and The Cochrane Library were more likely to include comprehensive search strategies (11/11 and 17/17 vs. 6/10, P-values = 0.04 and 0.01), take steps to minimize selection bias (11/11 and 16/17 vs. 3/10, P-values = 0.003 and 0.001) and appropriately assess the validity of all included trials (10/11 and 16/17 vs. 4/10, P-values = 0.04 and 0.007) than non-Cochrane reviews. Overall, Cochrane reviews published both in peer-reviewed journals and in The Cochrane Library were assigned higher quality scores by reviewers than non-Cochrane reviews (median = 6.0 and 6.5 vs. 4.5, P-values = 0.01 and 0.002).",
"To investigate whether training in writing for scholarly publication, journal editing, or manuscript peer review effectively improves educational outcomes related to the quality of health research reporting. We searched MEDLINE, Embase, ERIC, PsycINFO, and the Cochrane Library for comparative studies of formalized, a priori-developed training programs in writing for scholarly publication, journal editing, or manuscript peer review. Comparators included the following: (1) before and after administration of a training program, (2) between two or more training programs, or (3) between a training program and any other (or no) intervention(s). Outcomes included any measure of effectiveness of training. Eighteen reports of 17 studies were included. Twelve studies focused on writing for publication, five on peer review, and none fit our criteria for journal editing.",
"We characterize changes in review quality by individual peer reviewers over time. Editors at a specialty journal in the top 11% of Institute of Scientific Information journals rated the quality of every review, using a validated 5-point quality score. Linear mixed-effect models were used to analyze rating changes over time, calculating within-reviewer trends plus predicted slope of change in score for each reviewer. Reviewers at this journal have been shown comparable to those at other journals. Reviews (14,808) were performed by 1,499 reviewers and rated by 84 editors during the 14-year study. Ninety-two percent of reviewers demonstrated very slow but steady deterioration in their scores (mean -0.04 points [-0.8%] per year). Rate of deterioration was unrelated to duration of reviewing but moderately correlated with mean reviewer quality score (R=0.52). The mean score of each reviewer's first 4 reviews predicted subsequent performance with a sensitivity of 75% and specificity of 47%. Scores of the group stayed constant over time despite deterioration because newly recruited reviewers initially had higher mean quality scores than their predecessors.",
"The journal Impact factor (IF) is generally accepted to be a good measurement of the relevance/quality of articles that a journal publishes. In spite of an, apparently, homogenous peer-review process for a given journal, we hypothesize that the country affiliation of authors from developing Latin American (LA) countries affects the IF of a journal detrimentally. Seven prestigious international journals, one multidisciplinary journal and six serving specific branches of science, were examined in terms of their IF in the Web of Science. Two subsets of each journal were then selected to evaluate the influence of author's affiliation on the IF. They comprised contributions (i) with authorship from four Latin American (LA) countries (Argentina, Brazil, Chile and Mexico) and (ii) with authorship from five developed countries (England, France, Germany, Japan and USA). Both subsets were further subdivided into two groups: articles with authorship from one country only and collaborative articles with authorship from other countries. Articles from the five developed countries had IF close to the overall IF of the journals and the influence of collaboration on this value was minor. In the case of LA articles the effect of collaboration (virtually all with developed countries) was significant. The IFs for non-collaborative articles averaged 66% of the overall IF of the journals whereas the articles in collaboration raised the IFs to values close to the overall IF.",
"yes. This study, one of few tracking expert performance longitudinally, demonstrates that most journal peer reviewers received lower quality scores for article assessment over the years. This could be due to deteriorating performance (caused by either cognitive changes or competing priorities) or, to a partial degree, escalating expectations; other explanations were ruled out. This makes monitoring reviewer quality even more crucial to maintain the mission of scientific journals.",
"Ethnic minorities report poorer evaluations of primary health care compared to White British patients. Emerging evidence suggests that when a doctor and patient share ethnicity and/or language this is associated with more positive reports of patient experience. Whether this is true for adults in English general practices remains to be explored. We analysed data from the 2010/2011 English General Practice Patient Survey, which were linked to data from the NHS Choices website to identify languages which were available at the practice. Our analysis was restricted to single-handed practices and included 190,582 patients across 1,068 practices. Including only single-handed practices enabled us to attribute, more accurately, reported patient experience to the languages that were listed as being available. We also carried out sensitivity analyses in multi-doctor practices. We created a composite score on a 0-100 scale from seven survey items assessing doctor-patient communication. Mixed-effect linear regression models were used to examine how differences in reported experience of doctor communication between patients of different self-reported ethnicities varied according to whether a South Asian language concordant with their ethnicity was available in their practice. Models were adjusted for patient characteristics and a random effect for practice. Availability of a concordant language had the largest effect on communication ratings for Bangladeshis and the least for Indian respondents (p<0.01). Bangladeshi, Pakistani and Indian respondents on average reported poorer communication than White British respondents [-2.9 (95%CI -4.2, -1.6), -1.9 (95%CI -2.6, -1.2) and -1.9 (95%CI -2.5, -1.4), respectively]. However, in practices where a concordant language was offered, the experience reported by Pakistani patients was not substantially worse than that reported by White British patients (-0.2, 95%CI -1.5,+1.0), and in the case of Bangladeshi patients was potentially much better (+4.5, 95%CI -1.0,+10.1). This contrasts with a worse experience reported among Bangladeshi (-3.3, 95%CI -4.6, -2.0) and Pakistani (-2.7, 95%CI -3.6, -1.9) respondents when a concordant language was not offered.",
"yes. A moderated journal club is considerably better in teaching critical appraisal skills to surgical residents. This is likely because of the low participation in the Internet journal club.",
"Peer review is the gold standard for evaluating scientific quality. Compared with studies on inter-reviewer variability, research on panel evaluation is scarce. To appraise the reliability of panel evaluations in grant review, we compared scores by two expert panels reviewing the same grant proposals. Our main interest was to evaluate whether panel discussion improves reliability. Thirty reviewers were randomly allocated to one of the two panels. Sixty-five grant proposals in the fields of clinical medicine and epidemiology were reviewed by both panels. All reviewers received 5-12 proposals. Each proposal was evaluated by two reviewers, using a six-point scale. The reliability of reviewer and panel scores was evaluated using Cohen's kappa with linear weighting. In addition, reliability was also evaluated for the panel mean scores (mean of reviewer scores was used as panel score). The proportion of large differences (at least two points) was 40% for reviewers in panel A, 36% for reviewers in panel B, 26% for the panel discussion scores, and 14% when the means of the two reviewer scores were used. The kappa for panel score after discussion was 0.23 (95% confidence interval: 0.08, 0.39). By using the mean of the reviewer scores, the panel coefficient was similarly 0.23 (0.00, 0.46).",
"The purpose of this study was to collect the opinions of a cross section of published authors on current practices concerning peer review in biomedical publishing. A questionnaire on various aspects of peer review was emailed to authors, whose manuscripts were published in Gut or the British Journal of Surgery between 2001 and 2006. Authors were asked to base their responses on their overall experience with peer review in biomedical literature and not with that one particular journal. Most respondents felt that peer review is an effective quality control mechanism and does help improve manuscripts. Although some felt that it may cause delays in publication, lead to some research being lost and may not prevent all research-related fraud, most authors felt that there was still a strong role for the peer review process as it exists today.",
"To determine the characteristics of good peer reviewers. Cross-sectional analysis of data gathered during a randomized controlled trial. The Journal of General Internal Medicine. 226 reviewers of 131 consecutively submitted manuscripts of original research. 201 (91%) completed the review and submitted a curriculum vitae. The quality of each review was judged on a scale from 1 to 5 by an editor who was blinded to the identity of the reviewer. Reviewer characteristics were taken from the curricula vitae. 86 of the 201 reviewers (43%) produced good reviews (a grade of 4 or 5). Using logistic regression, the authors found that when a reviewer was less than 40 years old, from a top academic institution, well known to the editor choosing the reviewer, and blinded to the identity of the manuscript's authors, the probability that he or she would produce a good review was 87%, whereas a reviewer without any of these characteristics had a 7% probability of producing a good review. Other characteristics that were significant only on bivariate analysis included previous clinical research training, additional postgraduate degrees, and more time spent on the review. There was a negative but statistically nonsignificant association between academic rank and review quality: 37% of full professors, 39% of associate professors, and 51% of assistant professors or fellows produced good reviews (p = 0.11).",
"Peer review is considered crucial to the selection and publication of quality science, but very little is known about the previous experiences and training that might identify high-quality peer reviewers. The reviewer selection processes of most journals, and thus the qualifications of their reviewers, are ill defined. More objective selection of peer reviewers might improve the journal peer review process and thus the quality of published science. 306 experienced reviewers (71% of all those associated with a specialty journal) completed a survey of past training and experiences postulated to improve peer review skills. Reviewers performed 2,856 reviews of 1,484 separate manuscripts during a four-year study period, all prospectively rated on a standardized quality scale by editors. Multivariable analysis revealed that most variables, including academic rank, formal training in critical appraisal or statistics, or status as principal investigator of a grant, failed to predict performance of higher-quality reviews. The only significant predictors of quality were working in a university-operated hospital versus other teaching environment and relative youth (under ten years of experience after finishing training). Being on an editorial board and doing formal grant (study section) review were each predictors for only one of our two comparisons. However, the predictive power of all variables was weak.",
"yes. The study shows a significantly lower IF in the group of the subsets of non-collaborative LA articles and thus that country affiliation of authors from non-developed LA countries does affect the IF of a journal detrimentally. There are no data to indicate whether the lower IFs of LA articles were due to their inherent inferior quality/relevance or psycho-social trend towards under-citation of articles from these countries. However, further study is required since there are foreseeable consequences of this trend as it may stimulate strategies by editors to turn down articles that tend to be under-cited.",
"Peer review is used to make final judgments about quality of care in many quality assurance activities. To overcome the low reliability of peer review, discussion between several reviewers is often recommended to point out overlooked information or allow for reconsideration of opinions and thus improve reliability. The authors assessed the impact of discussion between 2 reviewers on the reliability of peer review. A group of 13 board-certified physicians completed a total of 741 structured implicit record reviews of 95 records for patients who experienced severe adverse events related to laboratory abnormalities while in the hospital (hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, renal failure, hyponatremia, and digoxin toxicity). They independently assessed the degree to which each adverse event was caused by medical care and the quality of the care leading up to the adverse event. Working in pairs, they then discussed differences of opinion, clarified factual discrepancies, and rerated the record. The authors compared the reliability of each measure before and after discussion, and between and within pairs of reviewers, using the intraclass correlation coefficient for continuous ratings and the kappa statistic for a dichotomized rating. The assessment of whether the laboratory abnormality was iatrogenic had a reliability of 0.46 before discussion and 0.71 after discussion between paired reviewers, indicating considerably improved agreement between the members of a pair. However, across reviewer pairs, the reviewer reliability was 0.36 before discussion and 0.40 after discussion. Similarly, for the rating of overall quality of care, reliability of physician review went from 0.35 before discussion to 0.58 after discussion as assessed by pair. However, across pairs the reliability increased only from 0.14 to 0.17. Even for prediscussion ratings, reliability was substantially higher between 2 members of a pair than across pairs, suggesting that reviewers who work in pairs learn to be more consistent with each other even before discussion, but this consistency also did not improve overall reliability across pairs.",
"BioMed Central (BMC) requires authors to suggest four reviewers when making a submission. Editors searching for reviewers use these suggestions as a source. The review process of the medical journals in the BMC series is open--authors and reviewers know each other's identity--although reviewers can make confidential comments to the editor. Reviews are published alongside accepted articles so readers may see the reviewers' names and recommendations. Our objective was to compare the performance of author-nominated reviewers (ANR) with that of editor-chosen reviewers (ECR) in terms of review quality and recommendations about submissions in an online-only medical journal. Pairs of reviews from 100 consecutive submissions to medical journals in the BMC series (with one author-nominated and one editor-chosen reviewer and a final decision) were assessed by two raters, blinded to reviewer type, using a validated review quality instrument (RQI) which rates 7 items on 5-point Likert scales. The raters discussed their ratings after the first 20 pairs (keeping reviewer type masked) and resolved major discrepancies in scoring and interpretation to improve inter-rater reliability. Reviewers' recommendations were also compared. Reviewer source had no impact on review quality (mean RQI score (+/- SD) 2.24 +/- 0.55 for ANR, 2.34 +/- 0.54 for ECR) or tone (mean scores on additional question 2.72 ANR vs 2.82 ECR) (maximum score = 5 in both cases). However author-nominated reviewers were significantly more likely to recommend acceptance (47 vs 35) and less likely to recommend rejection (10 vs 23) than editor-chosen reviewers after initial review (p<0.001). However, by the final review stage (i.e. after authors had responded to reviewer comments) ANR and ECR recommendations were similar (65 vs 66 accept, 10 vs 14 reject, p = 0.47). The number of reviewers unable to decide about acceptance was similar in both groups at both review stages.",
"This study examined the quality of peer review in three scholarly nursing journals from the perspectives of authors and editors. Specifically, the study examined the extent to which manuscript reviews provided constructive guidance for authors to further develop their work for publication, and for editors to make informed and sound decisions on the disposition of manuscripts. Corresponding authors who had submitted manuscripts to the study journals in 2005-2007 were invited via email to complete an online survey about the quality of the peer review process; 320 authors responded. In addition, one third of the reviews of manuscripts submitted in 2005-2007 (a total of 528) were selected for rating by journal editors on level of detail, bias, and constructive tone; usefulness to authors in revising/developing the manuscript; and usefulness to the editor in making a decision. A majority (73.8%) of authors agreed that peer reviews provided constructive guidance, and 75.6% agreed that reviews provided adequate rationale for editors' decisions. New authors generally reported less satisfaction with reviews than more experienced authors. Ratings of reviews by the editors revealed some problem areas, including inconsistency, insufficient feedback to the author, reviewer bias, and disrespectful tone.",
"Research into the peer review process has previously been conducted in English-language journals. This study deals with a Danish general medical journal with a relatively small pool of both reviewers and readers. The aim of the study was to compare the quality of reviews produced by identifiable and anonymous reviewers, and further to characterize authors' and reviewers' attitudes towards different peer review systems. The study was conducted as a blinded, randomised controlled trial. Each manuscript was reviewed by an identifiable and an anonymous reviewer. Review quality was subsequently assessed by two blinded editors, using the validated Review Quality Instrument. Reviewers' and authors' attitudes towards different peer review systems were characterized using questionnaires. The study included 364 reviews. There was no statistically significant difference in quality between anonymous and identifiable reviewers' evaluations. 55% of the authors preferred the evaluation produced by the identifiable reviewer (p < 0.05). 26% of the identifiable reviewers found it unpleasant that authors knew their identities; 43% of the anonymous reviewers found it reassuring that authors did not know their identities. Regarding reviewers' preferences for different peer review systems, 38% preferred a double-blinded, 34% preferred a single-blinded and 28% preferred an open system. For authors, the corresponding proportions were 43%, 19% and 37%.",
"yes. Given the inexperience of many nurse authors, it is incumbent upon editors and reviewers to provide guidance and support. Manuscript reviews could be improved by increasing the consistency of numeric ratings, narrative comments, and recommendations regarding disposition of the manuscripts. Nevertheless, the results of this study reaffirm the worth of the peer review approach.",
"Quality of reviewers is crucial to journal quality, but there are usually too many for editors to know them all personally. A reliable method of rating them (for education and monitoring) is needed. Whether editors' quality ratings of peer reviewers are reliable and how they compare with other performance measures. A 3.5-year prospective observational study. Peer-reviewed journal. All editors and peer reviewers who reviewed at least 3 manuscripts. Reviewer quality ratings, individual reviewer rate of recommendation for acceptance, congruence between reviewer recommendation and editorial decision (decision congruence), and accuracy in reporting flaws in a masked test manuscript. Editors rated the quality of each review on a subjective 1 to 5 scale. A total of 4161 reviews of 973 manuscripts by 395 reviewers were studied. The within-reviewer intraclass correlation was 0.44 (P<.001), indicating that 20% of the variance seen in the review ratings was attributable to the reviewer. Intraclass correlations for editor and manuscript were only 0.24 and 0.12, respectively. Reviewer average quality ratings correlated poorly with the rate of recommendation for acceptance (R=-0.34) and congruence with editorial decision (R=0.26). Among 124 reviewers of the fictitious manuscript, the mean quality rating for each reviewer was modestly correlated with the number of flaws they reported (R=0.53). Highly rated reviewers reported twice as many flaws as poorly rated reviewers.",
"yes. Subjective editor ratings of individual reviewers were moderately reliable and correlated with reviewer ability to report manuscript flaws. Individual reviewer rate of recommendation for acceptance and decision congruence might be thought to be markers of a discriminating (ie, high-quality) reviewer, but these variables were poorly correlated with editors' ratings of review quality or the reviewer's ability to detect flaws in a fictitious manuscript. Therefore, they cannot be substituted for actual quality ratings by editors.",
"no. When 2 physicians discuss a record that they are reviewing, it substantially improves the agreement between those 2 physicians. However, this improvement is illusory, as discussion does not improve the overall reliability as assessed by examining the reliability between physicians who were part of different discussions. This finding may also have implications with regard to how disagreements are resolved on consensus panels, guideline committees, and reviews of literature quality for meta-analyses.",
"Academic medical researchers are judged by how often their publications are cited in the literature. When serving as journal reviewers, they may be more favorably disposed to manuscripts that cite their work. We investigate whether manuscripts that contain a citation to the reviewer's work receive higher evaluations than those that do not and whether peer reviewers encourage authors to cite that reviewer's work. We analyzed all research manuscripts submitted in 2012 to Annals of Emergency Medicine to determine whether they contained citations to each reviewer's work. To determine whether citation affected reviewer scores, we obtained each reviewer's score of the manuscript's overall desirability (1=worst to 5=best) and used descriptive statistics and regression modeling to compare scores of cited and noncited reviewers. We also enumerated how often reviewers suggested that authors add citations to the reviewer's work or other work. There were 395 manuscripts and 999 corresponding reviews with an manuscript desirability score. The 83 reviews by cited reviewers (8.3%) had a mean score of 2.8 (SD 1.4); the 916 reviews by noncited reviewers (91.7%), 2.5 (1.2; Δ=0.3; 95% confidence interval [CI] 0 to 0.6). The mean score in the 117 reviews of the noncited reviewers of the 57 manuscripts that had both cited and noncited reviewers was 2.9 (SD 1.2) compared with 2.9 (SD 1.1) for the 68 reviews by cited reviewers (Δ=0; 95% CI -0.3 to 0.4). In the final ordinal regression model, the unadjusted OR for the manuscript desirability score was 1.6 (95% CI 1.0 to 2.7); when adjusting for the manuscripts' mean desirability score, it was 1.4 (95% CI 0.8 to 2.2), demonstrating that manuscript quality was a confounder. Authors were asked to add a citation to the reviewer's work in 28 reviews (3%) but to others' work in 98 (10%).",
"To study readers' judgments of manuscript quality and the degree to which readers agreed with peer reviewers. Cross-sectional study. Annals of Internal Medicine. One hundred thirteen consecutive manuscripts reporting original research and selected for publication. Each of two manuscript versions (one before and one after revision) was judged by two readers, randomly sampled from those who said (based on the title) that they would read the article; one peer reviewer (peer), chosen in the usual way for Annals; and one expert in clinical research methods (expert). Each judge completed an instrument that included a 10-point subjective summary grade of manuscript quality. Agreement on the 10-point summary grade of manuscript quality between reader-expert, reader-peer, and reader-reader. Readers and peers gave high grades (77% and 73% gave a grade of 5 or better, respectively), while experts were more critical (52% gave a grade of 5 or better; P<.0001). Agreement was relatively high among judge groups (in all cases,>69%) but agreement beyond chance was poor (kappa<0.04). One third of readers (33%) thought that the manuscript had little relevance to their work.",
"All authors may not be equal in the eyes of reviewers. Specifically, well-known authors may receive less objective (poorer quality) reviews. One study at a single journal found a small improvement in review quality when reviewers were masked to author identity. To determine whether masking reviewers to author identity is generally associated with higher quality of review at biomedical journals, and to determine the success of routine masking techniques. A randomized controlled trial performed on external reviews of manuscripts submitted to Annals of Emergency Medicine, Annals of Internal Medicine, JAMA, Obstetrics&Gynecology, and Ophthalmology. Two peers reviewed each manuscript. In one study arm, both peer reviewers received the manuscript according to usual masking practice. In the other arm, one reviewer was randomized to receive a manuscript with author identity masked, and the other reviewer received an unmasked manuscript. Review quality on a 5-point Likert scale as judged by manuscript author and editor. A difference of 0.5 or greater was considered important. A total of 118 manuscripts were randomized, 26 to usual practice and 92 to intervention. In the intervention arm, editor quality assessment was complete for 77 (84%) of 92 manuscripts. Author quality assessment was complete on 40 (54%) of 74 manuscripts. Authors and editors perceived no significant difference in quality between masked (mean difference, 0.1; 95% confidence interval [CI], -0.2 to 0.4) and unmasked (mean difference, -0.1; 95% CI, -0.5 to 0.4) reviews. We also found no difference in the degree to which the review influenced the editorial decision (mean difference, -0.1; 95% CI,-0.3 to 0.3). Masking was often unsuccessful (overall, 68% successfully masked; 95% CI, 58%-77%), although 1 journal had significantly better masking success than others (90% successfully masked; 95% CI, 73%-98%). Manuscripts by generally known authors were less likely to be successfully masked (odds ratio, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.8). When analysis was restricted to manuscripts that were successfully masked, review quality as assessed by editors and authors still did not differ.",
"Studies were identified using the following sources: CINAHL (Cumulative Index to nursing and Allied Health Literature), Cochrane Methodology Register, Dissertation Abstracts, Embase, Evidence-based Medicine Reviews, American College of Physicians Journal Club, Medline, PsycINFO and PubMed. Prospective or retrospective comparative studies were included that had two or more comparison groups, generated by random or other appropriate methods, and that reported original research, regardless of publication status. Because of the variety of study designs, unit of randomisation and outcome measures, a descriptive review was carried out. Twenty-eight studies were included. There was no clear-cut evidence of effect of the well-researched practice of reviewer and/ or author concealment on the outcome of the quality assessment process (nine studies). Checklists and other standardisation media have some evidence to support their use (two studies). There is no evidence that referees' training has any effect on the quality of the outcome (one study). Different methods of communicating with reviewers and means of dissemination do not appear to have an effect on quality (three studies). On the basis of one study, little can be said about the ability of the peer-review process to detect bias against unconventional drugs. Validity of peer review was tested by only one small study in a specialist area. Editorial peer review appears to make papers more readable and improve the general quality of reporting (two studies), but the evidence for this has very limited generalisability.",
"We sought to determine whether peer reviewers who attend a formal interactive training session produce better reviews. Peer reviewers were invited to attend a formal, 4-hour, highly interactive workshop on peer review. Attendees received a sample manuscript to read and review in writing in advance. The workshop included presentations on analyzing a study and the journal's expectations for a quality review, discussion of the sample manuscript's flaws and how to address them in a review, discussion of the reviews written by the attendees, and discussion of real reviews of other manuscripts illustrating key points. The performance of attendees on the basis of standard editor quality ratings (1 to 5) was assessed for the 2 years after workshop attendance. Control reviewers matched for previous review quality and volume were selected from nonattendees of the workshop. In study 1, all average reviewers received a standard written invitation. In study 2, 75 randomly selected average reviewers were personally and actively recruited with intensive follow-up by means of e-mail and telephone calls in an effort to reduce self-selection bias. In study 1, 25 reviewers volunteered for the course, were eligible for study, attended, and were compared with 25 matched control reviewers. Of attendees filling out evaluations, 19% thought it somewhat and 81% thought it very helpful. All thought it would improve their subsequent reviews, and 85% thought it would improve their review ratings. The mean change in rating after the workshop was 0.11 (95% confidence interval [CI] -0.25 to 0.48) for control reviewers and 0.10 (95% CI -0.20 to 0.39) for attendees. In study 2, of 75 reviewers intensively recruited, only 12 (41%) of those who said they would attend did. All of the participants thought the workshop would improve their performance and ratings. Test scores at the end of the workshop improved in 73% of participants compared with scores on pretests. The control reviewers' average rating changed by -0.10 (95% CI -0.49 to 0.29) versus 0.06 (95% CI -0.34 to 0.23) for attendees.",
"Prior efforts to train medical journal peer reviewers have not improved subsequent review quality, although such interventions were general and brief. We hypothesized that a manuscript-specific and more extended intervention pairing new reviewers with high-quality senior reviewers as mentors would improve subsequent review quality. Over a four-year period we randomly assigned all new reviewers for Annals of Emergency Medicine to receive our standard written informational materials alone, or these materials plus a new mentoring intervention. For this program we paired new reviewers with a high-quality senior reviewer for each of their first three manuscript reviews, and asked mentees to discuss their review with their mentor by email or phone. We then compared the quality of subsequent reviews between the control and intervention groups, using linear mixed effects models of the slopes of review quality scores over time. We studied 490 manuscript reviews, with similar baseline characteristics between the 24 mentees who completed the trial and the 22 control reviewers. Mean quality scores for the first 3 reviews on our 1 to 5 point scale were similar between control and mentee groups (3.4 versus 3.5), as were slopes of change of review scores (-0.229 versus -0.549) and all other secondary measures of reviewer performance.",
"We found that non-Indian peer reviewers were better than Indians and informing them that their views would be exchanged did not seem to affect the quality of their reviews. We suggest that Indian editors should also use non-Indian reviewers and start training programmes to improve the quality of peer reviews in India.",
"The quality of peer reviewing in developing countries is thought to be poor. To examine whether this was so, we compared the performance of Indian and non-Indian reviewers who were sent original and review articles submitted to The National Medical Journal of India. We also tested whether informing reviewers that their comments would be exchanged improved the quality of their reviews. In a prospective, randomized, blinded study, we sent 100 manuscripts to pairs of peer reviewers (Indian and non-Indian) of which 78 pairs of completed replies were available for analysis. Thirty-eight pairs of reviews were exchanged and 40 were not. The quality of the reviews was assessed by two editors who were unaware of the reviewers' nationality and whether they had been told that their reviews would be exchanged. The quality of the reviews was scored out of 100 (based on a predesigned evaluation proforma). We also measured the time taken to return a manuscript. Overall, non-Indian reviewers scored higher than Indians (mean scores non-Indians first, 56.7 v. 48.6, p<0.001), especially those in the non-exchanged group (58.4 v. 47.3, p<0.001) but not the exchanged group (54.8 v. 50.0, p<0.06). Being informed that reviews would be exchanged did not affect the quality of reviews by non-Indians (54.8 exchanged v. 58.4 non-exchanged) or of reviews by Indians (50.0 exchanged v. 47.3 non-exchanged). The editors' assessment of the reviewers matched well (r = 0.59, p<0.001). Non-Indians took the same amount of time as Indians to return their reviews, although the postage time was at least eight days longer."
] | 505 |
Radiation exposure during fluoroscopy: should we be protecting our thyroids? | [
"Recent reports on thyroid cancer among Australian orthopaedic surgeons prompted the present study which sought to evaluate the effectiveness of lead shielding in reducing radiation exposure (RE) to the thyroid region during endo-urological procedures. Radiation exposure to the thyroid region of the surgeon and scrubbed nurse was monitored for 20 consecutive operations over a 6-week period by thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLD). A TLD was placed over and underneath a thyroid shield of 0.5 min lead equivalent thickness to monitor the effect of shielding. Eight percutaneous nephrolithotomies, seven retrograde pyelograms and ureteric stentings and five ureteroscopies for calculous disease were monitored. Total exposure time was 63.1 min. For the surgeon, the total cumulative RE over and under the lead shield was 0.46 and 0.02 mSv, respectively, equating to a 23-times reduction in RE if shielding was used. This effectively reduced RE to almost background levels, which was represented by the control TLD exposure (0.01 mSv).",
"Although RE without thyroid shields did not exceed current standards set by radiation safety authorities, no threshold level has been set below which thyroid carcinogenesis is unlikely to occur. Because lead shields are easy to wear and can effectively reduce RE to the thyroid region to near-background levels, they should be made easily available and used by all surgeons to avoid the harmful effects of radiation on the thyroid."
] | [
"no. Total thyroidectomy in high-risk patients with differentiated thyroid cancer (containing follicular histology, vascular invasion, or extracapsular extension) showed no benefit over partial thyroidectomy. This suggests that the general use of total thyroidectomy is not indicated, except in highly selected patients.",
"Exact localization of recurrent iodine-negative thyroid cancer is mandatory, since surgery is the only curative therapy option in patients with iodine-negative tumor tissue. The aim of this study was to evaluate the impact of (18)F-FDG-PET/CT as a routine diagnostic tool on clinical management in patients with suspected thyroid cancer recurrence and elevated serum thyroglobulin (Tg) but negative radioiodine whole body scan. After total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine ablation, 30 consecutive patients with differentiated thyroid cancer, elevated serum thyroglobulin levels and negative whole body radioiodine scan underwent (18)F-FDG-PET/CT. Results were verified by histology, ultrasound, or clinical follow-up. Diagnostic accuracy was determined for the whole study population and for subgroups with serum thyroglobulin below and above 10 ng/ml, respectively. Impact of PET/CT on clinical management was assessed. PET/CT identified FDG accumulating lesions in 19 of 30 patients. 17 were true-positive and 2 false-positive. In the true-positive group, 11 of the 17 patients had loco-regional disease, 3 had distant metastases only and 3 patients had both loco-regional and distant metastatic involvement. (18)F-FDG-PET/CT was true-negative in 3 patients and false-negative in 8 patients. Overall sensitivity, specificity and accuracy were 68.0, 60.0, and 66.7%, respectively. In the subgroup of patients with serum thyroglobulin above 10 ng/ml (n = 21) the sensitivity, specificity and accuracy were substantially higher with 70.0, 100.0, and 71.4%, respectively. Clinical management was changed for 17 (57%) of 30 patients, guiding to a curative surgical intervention in 9 patients (30%).",
"no. There is no evidence that uptake of (131)I is reduced by performance of a central neck dissection in patients with well-differentiated thyroid cancer. Preablation thyroglobulin levels were not altered by level VI lymph node dissection.",
"Initiation of brain tumours during cardiac fluoroscopic procedures is plausible. Physicians are reminded to practise radiation safety methods during fluoroscopic procedures. The diagnosis of two additional brain tumours in Canadian interventional cardiologists during the past 10 years would confirm the occupational causation theory. The author invites physicians to report knowledge of the diagnosis of brain tumours in Canadian cardiologists to the author or to the editors.",
"The mini C-arm is popular with hand surgeons, and they are particularly at risk for radiation exposure, as they cannot easily distance themselves from the radiation beam. We hypothesized that the nondominant hand receives more radiation exposure than the dominant hand as it is generally closer to the radiation source. This study seeks to determine whether a hand surgeon receives a different amount of radiation exposure to their hands based on hand dominance and then accounting for this, provide a more accurate assessment of hand radiation exposure from mini C-arm fluoroscopy. Two fellowship-trained hand surgeons wore ring dosimeters on both hands during surgeries with mini C-arm fluoroscopy involving bony work of the forearm and hand. Radiation exposure to the hands was measured from ring dosimeters. Six-ring dosimeter pairs were worn during 64 cases, averaging 10.7 cases per ring. No ring met the minimal dose threshold of 30 mrem to record a numerical value. Each ring experienced an average of 413 seconds of fluoroscopy time and 66.3509 cGy*cm(2) of radiation output from the mini C-arm.",
"Our results suggests that prophylactic central neck lymph node dissection can be safely avoided in patients with T1 or T2 papillary thyroid cancer, except in those with multifocal disease.",
"Despite accounting for variations in gland size and iodine kinetics, the success of radioiodine therapy in patients with Graves' disease remains moderately common and unpredictable. We hypothesized that hypoechogenic glands, with large, densely packed cells, are more radiosensitive than normoechogenic glands, in which much radiation is wasted on more abundant colloid. We evaluated this hypothesis in a cohort of patients with Graves' disease. This was a prospective trial of patients recruited during 4 yr and followed up 1 yr after radioiodine therapy. This trial was held in a university hospital-outpatient clinic. A total of 177 consecutive patients with first presentation of Graves' disease (28 males), 23-76 yr old, who relapsed after antithyroid therapy were included in the study. The patients were assigned to an ablative target-absorbed dose of 200 Gy (n = 78) or randomly to 100 or 120 Gy of nonablative dose (n = 99). The measures were incidences of hyperthyroidism, euthyroidism, and hypothyroidism at 12-month follow-up. At follow-up there were 25 hyperthyroid, 44 euthyroid, and 108 hypothyroid patients. Compared with 96 patients with a hypoechogenic gland, in 81 patients with a normoechogenic gland, there were more hyperthyroid (22 vs. 7%) and euthyroid (41 vs. 11%), but less hypothyroid outcomes (37 vs. 81%; P < 0.0001). The other independent predictor of increased radioresistance was the large gland volume.",
"yes. Conclusively, the cellular response to ionizing radiation is complex and differs with absorbed dose. The response acquired at high absorbed doses cannot be extrapolated down to low absorbed doses or vice versa. We also demonstrated that the thyroid - already at absorbed doses similar to those obtained in radionuclide therapy - responds with expression of a high number of genes. Due to the increased heterogeneous irradiation at low absorbed doses, we suggest that this response partly originates from non-irradiated cells in the tissue, i.e., bystander cells.",
"Although all doses of ionizing radiation have some malignancy-inducing potential, a small but important percentage of children with IBD are exposed to particularly high doses of ionizing radiation from diagnostic tests and procedures. Physicians caring for such patients must seek to limit radiation exposure whenever possible to lessen the lifetime risk of malignancy.",
"RET/PTC rearrangements have been identified as a specific genetic event in papillary thyroid cancer (PTC). We conducted this meta-analysis to identify an enriched population who were more likely to occur RET/PTC fusion genes. All relevant studies in the PubMed, Web of Science, and Embase databases were searched up to June 2015. The studies found were screened according to our inclusion and exclusion criteria. All analyses were performed using STATA software. Eventually, 38 eligible studies comprising 2395 participants were included. Overall analysis indicated that radiation exposure contributed to increased RET/PTC risk (OR = 2.82; 95%CI: 1.38-5.78, P = 0.005). Stratified analysis according to RET/PTC subtype and geographical area showed that this association was restricted to the RET/PTC3 subtype (OR = 8.30, 95%CI: 4.32-15.96, P < 0.001) in the Western population. In addition, age < 18 years, i.e., young age, was associated with higher prevalence of RET/PTC3 (OR = 2.03, 95%CI: 1.14-3.62, P = 0.017), especially in the radiation-exposure subpopulation (OR = 2.35, 95%CI: 1.01-5.49, P = 0.048). The association between female gender and RET/PTC1 risk was more significant in the PTC patients without radiation exposure (OR = 1.69, 95%CI: 1.04-2.74, P = 0.034).",
"The optimal extent of thyroidectomy for papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) is controversial. Our objective was to evaluate the effect of total thyroidectomy or partial thyroidectomy on survival in low- and high-risk patients. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database was used to identify PTC patients who underwent thyroidectomy. The independent effects of age, distant metastases, extrathyroidal extension, tumor size, sex, lymph node metastases, radioactive iodine use, and extent of thyroidectomy on survival were analyzed for low- and high-risk PTC. There were 4402 (81%) low-risk and 1030 (19%) high-risk patients; 84.9% underwent total thyroidectomy. The 5- and 10-year survival were 95% and 89% in the low-risk patients and 84% and 73% in the high-risk patients, respectively (P = .001). In the low-risk patients, 10-year survival after total thyroidectomy was 89%, compared with 91% after partial thyroidectomy (adjusted hazard ratio for death, 1.73; 95% confidence interval, 1.28-2.33; P < .001); older age, male sex, larger tumor, lymph node metastases, and lack of radioactive iodine were associated with higher mortality. In the high-risk patients, 10-year survival after total thyroidectomy was 72%, compared with 78% after partial thyroidectomy (adjusted hazard ratio for death, 1.46; 95% confidence interval, .89-2.40; P = .14); older age, distant metastases, larger tumors, and lack of radioactive iodine were associated with higher mortality.",
"yes. (123)I is effective for use in diagnostic radioactive iodine scans in children with differentiated thyroid cancer. The primary advantages of using (123)I include decreased radiation exposure and avoidance of stunning. However, in children there is a possibility of missed detection of metastatic pulmonary disease.",
"yes. The typical 5% risk of thyroid nodule malignancy on FNA varies depending on a patient's age and gender. A patient's age and gender should, therefore, be considered when counseling someone of his or her risk of thyroid cancer by FNA.",
"Differentiated thyroid cancer (DTC) is the most common endocrine malignancy. In recent decades, the incidence has been increasing, largely due to increased detection of patients with low-risk or very low-risk DTC. According to European Thyroid Association and American Thyroid Association guidelines, radioiodine (RAI) thyroid remnant ablation is not indicated in very low-risk patients, while its role is still debated in low-risk patients. Accordingly, risk stratification of DTC patients is pivotal when deciding for or against RAI ablation. Presently, risk stratification is based on pTNM staging integrated with clinical parameters. The aim of our study was to evaluate the relationship between location of malignant thyroid nodules within the thyroid gland and the presence of loco-regional and/or distant metastases in patients with pT1a-pT1b DTCs. We reviewed the records of 246 patients (214 women, 32 men; female-to-male ratio 6.7:1) affected by unifocal DTC ≤ 2 cm, who had undergone RAI thyroid remnant ablation (activity ranged 555-4588 MBq) after levothyroxine withdrawal or after recombinant human TSH (rhTSH) stimulation. The majority of the patients (91.5%) were affected by papillary thyroid carcinoma. Metastases were discovered by posttreatment whole-body scintigraphy in 29 out of 246 (11.8%) patients. In patients with metastases, malignant thyroid nodules were located in the right lobe (14/123, 11.4%), left lobe (7/95, 7.4%), and isthmus (8/27, 29.6%). The prevalence of metastases was significantly higher in patients with DTC located in the isthmus, compared to other sites (χ(2) = 9.6, p = 0.002).",
"no. In patients with previous lobectomy, RF ablation should be considered as a first-line treatment for symptomatic benign thyroid nodules to preserve thyroid function.",
"RPIS of chyluria using a single instillation a combination of povidone iodine with contrast agent is safe and effective. Use of fluoroscopy helps to determine the exact amount of sclerosing solution required to completely fill the system and therefore overfilling is avoided. Moreover, the complications, which arise due to pyelointerstitial backflow, are prevented.",
"Health care workers' potential exposure to ionizing radiation has increased. Annual radiation exposure limit for the general public per US Nuclear Regulatory Commission is 100 mrem (1 mSv). The whole-body annual occupational radiation exposure limit is 5,000 mrem (50 mSv). Studies have been done to evaluate patient radiation exposure. To date, there has been no study to evaluate the radiation exposure of trauma team members or evaluate their behaviors and attitudes. Forty primary providers (residents, physician assistants) rotating on the trauma service at an American College of Surgeons Level 1 trauma center participated. Dosimeters were worn by participants, and the radiation doses were measured monthly. A survey detailing the frequency of involvement in radiographic studies, use of protective equipment, and knowledge of education programs was completed monthly. The range of radiation measured was 1 mrem to 56 mrem, with an average effective dose of 10 mrem per month. Thirty-two (80%) of 40 reported daily exposure to x-rays and 28 (70%) of 40 to computed tomographic scans. Thirty-four (85%) of 40 reported that they never or seldom wore lead apron in trauma bay as opposed to 1 (3%) of 40 who failed to wear it during fluoroscopy. Twenty (50%) reported that an apron was not available, while 20 (50%) reported that it was too hot or did not fit. Thirty-nine (97%) of 40 reported that they received training in radiation safety.",
"There is a significant dose reduction to the thyroid gland and breasts when a bismuth shield is placed on the skin. The dose saving achieved by placing the shield on the cervical collar is approximately halved compared with placement on the skin, and this did not reach statistical significance, and this was accompanied by an increase on image noise. Bismuth shields should not be used in combination with cervical immobilization collars.",
"To achieve a dose of over 200 Gy with the above standard deviation, we recommend calculating an intended dose of 250 Gy and using a dosimetric approach with early and late uptake values in the radioiodine test, to allow early therapeutic intervention should the posttherapeutic thyroid dose fall unexpectedly below 200 Gy.",
"Most patients with primary hyperparathyroidism can have a minimally invasive parathyroidectomy based on localization studies showing single-gland disease. In patients with a history of head and neck irradiation, due to the increased risk of multigland disease and risk of concurrent thyroid cancer, minimally invasive parathyroidectomy is considered by some to be a contraindication. We postulated that previous history of head and neck irradiation should not be a contraindication for minimally invasive parathyroidectomy and tested this hypothesis in a prospective cohort of patients undergoing parathyroidectomy for primary hyperparathyroidism. We performed a retrospective analysis of a prospective database of 491 consecutive parathyroidectomies performed between May 2005 and May 2007 at a tertiary referral medical center. Fifty-two (12.6%) patients had a history of head and neck irradiation and 360 (87.4%) had no exposure to radiation. The 2 groups had no significant difference in terms of gender or ethnicity. The radiation group was older, with an average age of 65.1 years versus 58.1 years (p < 0.0009). There was no significant difference in concurrent benign thyroid neoplasm, thyroid cancer, and type of parathyroid disease (single vs multigland) in the 2 groups. There was no significant difference in the operative approach used between the 2 groups (focused vs unilateral or bilateral).",
"Direct beam radiation exposure to the surgeon, especially to their hands, is extremely common during supracondylar humerus fracture pinnings and results in exposure to significantly greater doses of ionizing radiation when compared with scatter radiation. The purpose of this study was to determine how often surgeons are exposed to direct beam radiation during this surgery and whether the C-arm position and the surgeon's experience influence radiation exposure. In this double blind study, we collected 3842 fluoroscopic still images from 78 closed reduction and percutaneous pinning surgeries for supracondylar humerus fractures performed or supervised by 6 attending surgeons. The percentage of images containing a surgeon's body was calculated as an indicator of direct beam radiation exposure. Total fluoroscopy time, C-arm position (standard or inverted), and whether the primary surgeon was an attending, resident, or both were recorded. Nonparametric statistical analyses were performed. Fluoroscopy lasted for a median of 34 seconds, and the surgeon was exposed to direct beam radiation in a median of 13% of fluoroscopy films, with exposure ranging from 0% to 97% per surgery. Fluoroscopy was significantly longer when the C-arm position was inverted when compared with the standard position (43 vs. 26 s, P=0.034). Surgeons' exposure to direct beam radiation was also slightly greater when the C-arm position was inverted (16% vs. 10%, P=0.087). The duration of fluoroscopy exposure and the percentage of films with the body exposed to radiation did not differ based on whether the surgery was performed by an attending, a resident, or both (P=0.53 and 0.28, respectively). However, the percentage of films with bodily radiation exposure did significantly differ between the attending physicians (P=0.029).",
"Although the use of thyroid shields for patients for head CT examinations is reasonable and even required by German regulations, so far available shields are often not used due to difficult applicability. New shields that are easier to use and therefore may gain wider acceptance and more frequent use are now available. In this work two new patient shields are investigated regarding their dose reduction effectiveness and applicability and compared to a thyroid/sternum shield typically used as a part of personal protective equipment. The reduction of organ doses for thyroid, sternum and mamma were measured with thermoluminescence detectors in an anthropomorphic female phantom. Additionally, the influence of the length or position of the overview scan at the beginning of the CT examination was taken into account. Depending on the patient shield, a reduction of the organ doses for thyroid of 5 - 24 %, for sternum of 25 - 48 % and for mamma of 25 - 70 % could be found. A shift of 25 mm in the cranial direction for the overview scan resulted in a reduction of these organ doses of 12 - 15 %.",
"no. Although glucocorticoids in some contexts seem to attenuate the radiation-induced oxidative stress this had no impact on the final outcome following 131I therapy of patients with Graves' disease.",
"A new proprietary image-processing system known as AlluraClarity, developed by Philips Healthcare (Best, The Netherlands) for radiation-based interventional procedures, claims to lower radiation dose while preserving image quality using noise-reduction algorithms. This study determined whether the surgeon and patient radiation dose during complex endovascular procedures (CEPs) is decreased after the implementation of this new operating system. Radiation dose to operators, procedure type, reference air kerma, kerma area product, and patient body mass index were recorded during CEPs on two Philips Allura FD 20 fluoroscopy systems with and without Clarity. Operator dose during CEPs was measured using optically stimulable, luminescent nanoDot (Landauer Inc, Glenwood, Ill) detectors placed outside the lead apron at the left upper chest position. nanoDots were read using a microStar ii (Landauer Inc) medical dosimetry system. For the CEPs in the Clarity group, the radiation dose to surgeons was also measured by the DoseAware (Philips Healthcare) personal dosimetry system. Side-by-side measurements of DoseAware and nanoDots allowed for cross-calibration between systems. Operator effective dose was determined using a modified Niklason algorithm. To control for patient size and case complexity, the average fluoroscopy dose rate and the dose per radiographic frame were adjusted for body mass index differences and then compared between the groups with and without Clarity by procedure. Additional factors, for example, physician practice patterns, that may have affected operator dose were inferred by comparing the ratio of the operator dose to procedural kerma area product with and without Clarity. A one-sided Wilcoxon rank sum test was used to compare groups for radiation doses, reference air kermas, and operating practices for each procedure type. The analysis included 234 CEPs; 95 performed without Clarity and 139 with Clarity. Practice patterns of operators during procedures with and without Clarity were not significantly different. For all cases, procedure radiation dose to the patient and the primary and assistant operators were significantly decreased in the Clarity group by 60% compared with the non-Clarity group. By procedure type, fluorography dose rates decreased from 44% for fenestrated endovascular repair and up to 70% with lower extremity interventions. Fluoroscopy dose rates also significantly decreased, from about 37% to 47%, depending on procedure type.",
"The results of this study compel us to reinvestigate the current PTC surgical recommendations of total thyroidectomy based on tumor size because this may not affect survival across all populations. In addition, the current use of external beam radiation therapy for the treatment of PTC should be reexamined.",
"Proper localization is crucial in performing minimally invasive parathyroidectomy for primary hyperparathyroidism. Ultrasonography (US) and Tc-99m sestamibi (MIBI) scintigraphy are common methods used for localization. As the appearance and activity of the thyroid gland may impact parathyroid localization, the purpose of this study was to determine how exogenous use of the thyroid hormone, levothyroxine (LT), affects parathyroid localization. Adult patients with non-familial primary hyperparathyroidism who underwent initial parathyroidectomy from 2000-2014 were retrospectively identified. LT (+LT) and non-LT (-LT) patients were matched 1:3 based on age, gender, goiter status, and preoperative parathyroid hormone levels. Subgroup analysis was performed on patients previously treated with radioactive iodine and patients undergoing single adenoma resection. Of the 1737 patients that met inclusion criteria, 286 were on LT at the time of their parathyroid localization scan. Use of LT did not impact the percentage of correct MIBI localization scans when compared with -LT patients (P = 0.83). Interestingly, use of LT significantly hindered localization by US in comparison with the -LT group (48.4 versus 62.2%, P < 0.01). When examining only patients where a single upper gland was removed, the +LT group was less likely to have a correct US compared with the -LT group (50 versus 72.8%, P < 0.01). However, there was no difference in US accuracy for patients who only had a single lower gland removed (P = 0.51).",
"Bypassing the pre-ablative diagnostic scan is feasible. The present ablation dose of 80 mCi of radioiodine is effective. The relatively high postoperative morbidity after difficult total thyroidectomy suggests less aggressive excision and postoperative radioiodine ablation of the remnant tissue.",
"Surgical outcomes are excellent in patients with a previous history of radiation and HPT who undergo parathyroidectomy. Previous radiation exposure does not appear to increase the likelihood of multigland disease in patients with HPT.",
"yes. These results suggest that FNA operators who have less experience may miss cases of thyroid cancer by performing the procedure incorrectly. As such, the experience of the FNA operator should be considered when diagnosing thyroid cancer. When clinicians are being trained in FNA, more effort should be made to increase the accuracy of the procedure; therefore, enhanced teaching programs and/or a more detailed feedback system are recommended.",
"Use of the thyroid shield is recommended for all CT scanning of the chest. The eye shield does not produce as marked a reduction in radiation dose to the lens of the eye, when an angled gantry is used, since the eyes are not in the primary beam. Use of the eyeshield is justifiable where irradiation of the orbit is unavoidable, although whether artifacts would be a problem if the shield was used in this way was not assessed.",
"The use of freehand technique for pedicle screw fixation in spinal deformity correction requires a minimum amount of fluoroscopic use, hence decreasing radiation exposure to the surgeon and patient.",
"yes. Irregular nodule margins, a usual sign of malignancy, are less useful in detecting thyroid cancers in radiation-exposed patients with tumors less than 10 mm. Thyroid cancers that are detected after longer latent periods display less of the US features characteristic of a malignant process, while benign US features are observed more frequently. Therefore, we recommend fine-needle aspiration biopsy to ensure early diagnosis of thyroid cancer for patients with a history of radiation exposure, even if their nodules are less than 10 mm.",
"no. In this single-center series, the overall permanent morbidity was low (1 %). Therefore, FSCND may be recommended (even prophylactically) for experienced high-volume surgeons in patients with thyroid nodules suspicious for malignancy.",
"yes. Our results show that routine preoperative malignancy risk evaluation of presumably benign thyroid nodules is of little value when performed on patients exposed to iodine deficiency.",
"no. As over 60 years of experience has thus far failed to produce conclusive evidence to the contrary, it can be concluded that there is no increased risk of malignancies after 131I therapy for benign thyroid disease.",
"yes. Surgeon-performed US-FNAC decreases the time from fine-needle aspiration request to definitive plan and reduces the number of patient visits, providing more efficient care. Patients referred to the endocrine surgery clinic with thyroid nodules have thyroid cancer more frequently than patients referred to radiology.",
"yes. Significant differences exist in the total radiation exposure in scoliosis patients with different treatment regimens, with operative patients receiving approximately 8 to 14 times more radiation than braced patients or those undergoing observation alone, respectively. Operative patients also receive more than twice the radiation per year than braced or observed patients. Almost 78% of the annual radiation exposure for operative patients occurs intraoperatively. Because children are notably more sensitive to the carcinogenic effects of ionizing radiation, judicious use of present imaging methods and a search for newer imaging methods with limited ionizing radiation should be undertaken.",
"Decreasing the fluoroscopic pulse rate cannot be used as a method of decreasing radiation dose during performance of video fluoroscopic studies because it will potentially result in non-detection of episodes of supraglottic penetration of liquid barium.",
"This study sought to evaluate the impact of obesity on patient radiation dose during atrial fibrillation (AF) ablation procedures under fluoroscopic guidance. Obesity is a risk factor for AF and its recurrence after ablation. It increases patient radiation dose during fluoroscopic imaging, but this effect has not been quantified for AF ablation procedures. Effective radiation dose and lifetime attributable cancer risk were calculated from dose-area product (DAP) measurements in 85 patients undergoing AF ablation guided by biplane low-frequency pulsed fluoroscopy (3 frames/s). Three dose calculation methods were used (Monte Carlo simulation, dose conversion coefficients, and depth-profile dose curves). Median DAP for all patients was 119.6 Gy x cm2 (range 13.9 to 446.3 Gy x cm2) for procedures with a median duration of 4 h and 83 +/- 26 min of fluoroscopy. Body mass index was a more important determinant of DAP than total fluoroscopy time (r = 0.74 vs. 0.37, p < 0.001), with mean DAP values per hour of fluoroscopy of 58 +/- 40 Gy x cm2, 110 +/- 43 Gy x cm2, and 184 +/- 79 Gy x cm2 in normal, overweight, and obese patients, respectively. The corresponding effective radiation doses for AF ablation procedures were 15.2 +/- 7.8 mSv, 26.7 +/- 11.6 mSv, and 39.0 +/- 15.2 mSv, respectively (Monte Carlo). Use of conversion coefficients resulted in higher effective dose estimates than other methods, particularly in obese patients. Mean attributable lifetime risk of all-cancer mortality was 0.060%, 0.100%, and 0.149%, depending on weight class.",
"Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) patients treated before the 1990s have a 1% to 2% increased lifetime risk of developing breast and thyroid cancer as a result of ionizing radiation from plain radiographs. Although present plain radiographic techniques have been able to reduce some of the radiation exposure, modern treatment algorithms for scoliosis often include computed tomography (CT) and intraoperative fluoroscopy. The exact magnitude of exposure to ionizing radiation in adolescents during modern scoliosis treatment is therefore unclear. To determine the difference in radiation exposures in patients undergoing various forms of treatment for AIS. Retrospective cohort. Patients aged 9 to 18 years with a diagnosis of AIS, followed and/or treated with nonoperative or operative management for a minimum of 2 years. Number of radiographs and total radiation exposure calculated. The charts and radiographs of patients managed for AIS at a single institution between September 2007 and January 2012 were reviewed. Patients were divided into three groups: operative group, braced group, and observation group. Patient demographics, Cobb angles, and curve types were recorded. The number of radiographs per year that each patient received and the total radiation dose were recorded. The plain radiographic radiation exposure was then combined with the direct exposure recording from ancillary tests, such as fluoroscopy and CT, and a radiation exposure rate was calculated (mrad/y). A single-factor analysis of variance (α=0.01) with a Tukey honest significant difference post hoc analysis was used to test significance between groups. Two hundred sixty-seven patients were evaluated: 86 operative, 80 brace, and 101 observation. All groups had similar demographics and curve type distribution. The mean initial Cobb angle at presentation was significantly different between the groups: operative (57°±11°), brace (24°±7.9°), and observation (18°±9.4°) (p<.01). There was a significant difference among the groups in terms of the mean number of radiographs received per year; operative group, 12.2 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 10.8-13.5; p<.001); braced group, 5.7 (95% CI: 5.2-6.2; p<.001), and observed group, 3.5 (95% CI: 3.160-3.864; p<.001). The operative group received 1,400 mrad per year (95% CI: 1,350-1,844; p<.001), braced group received 700 mrad per year (95% CI: 598-716; p<.001), and observed group received 400 mrad per year (95% CI: 363-444; p<.001). Importantly, 78% of radiation in the operative group was attributable to the operative fluoroscopy exposure.",
"Dosimetry data from patients and hospital personnel involved in the use of radioisotope for occult lesion localisation (ROLL) of the breast were collected to determine the need for extra radiation protection procedures. Sixty-three patients have been enrolled to date into a randomised trial evaluating ROLL. Two megabecquerels of (99m)Tc- MAA in a syringe was mixed with X-ray contrast medium; this was injected directly into the lesion under image guidance. A gamma-detecting probe (Neo-Probe) was used to locate the area of radioactivity. Radiation doses to all staff groups were estimated using time and motion studies and dose rate measurements at a range of distances during each stage of ROLL. The finger dose [FD](+/-95% CI) was considered to be the critical variable for surgeons and radiologists. Surgeon FD=9.3+/-3.3 microSv, Radiologist FD=0.5+/-0.13 microSv. Whole body doses [WBD](+/-95% CI) were estimated for other staff groups. Nurse WBD=0.4+/-0.4 microSv, porter WBD: nil, contamination and waste: nil.",
"The purpose of this article is to quantify the CT radiation dose increment in five organs resulting from the administration of iodinated contrast medium. Forty consecutive patients who underwent both un-enhanced and contrast-enhanced thoracoabdominal CT were included in our retrospective study. The dose increase between CT before and after contrast agent administration was evaluated in the portal phase for the thyroid, liver, spleen, pancreas, and kidneys by applying a previously validated method. An increase in radiation dose was noted in all organs studied. Average dose increments were 19% for liver, 71% for kidneys, 33% for spleen and pancreas, and 41% for thyroid. Kidneys exhibited the maximum dose increment, whereas the pancreas showed the widest variance because of the differences in fibro-fatty involution. Finally, thyroids with high attenuation values on unenhanced CT showed a lower Hounsfield unit increase and, thus, a smaller increment in the dose.",
"yes. The use of a novel radiation protection surgical drape can significantly reduce scatter radiation exposure to staff and operators during a variety of EP procedures.",
"This three-part study examined the feasibility of reducing operator radiation exposure during coronary angioplasty. As case loads and complexity increase, some cardiologists are receiving increasing radiation scatter doses. Techniques to reduce this are therefore becoming more important. First, the determinants of the operator dose were assessed by measuring the differences in scatter dose with different camera views. The relative contribution of fluoroscopy as opposed to cine was then quantified. Finally, operators were provided with these data, and subsequent changes in technique were evaluated. Left anterior oblique views resulted in 2.6 to 6.1 times the operator dose of equivalently angled right anterior oblique views. Increasing steepness of the left anterior oblique view also resulted in a progressive increase in operator dose, with left anterior oblique 90 degrees causing eight times the dose of left anterior oblique 30 degrees and three times that of left anterior oblique 60 degrees. In the 45 coronary angioplasty cases prospectively analyzed, fluoroscopy was found to be a greater source of total radiation than cine by a 6.3:1 ratio (range 1.1 to 15.8). Once operators were made aware of the importance of left anterior oblique fluoroscopy, there was a marked reduction in its use. When this was not feasible, there was a reduction in the steepness of the angulation. Left anterior oblique fluoroscopy during angioplasty of the left anterior descending and circumflex coronary arteries was reduced from 40% of total screening time to approximately 5%, and left anterior oblique angulation for fluoroscopy during angioplasty of the right coronary artery decreased from 43.6 degrees (+/- 9.1 degrees) to 29.4 degrees (+/- 2.2 degrees). Success rates (90% vs. 89%) and screening times (19.5 vs. 20.7 min) remained unchanged in 200 coronary angioplasties performed after the study. Average operator radiation dose (measured by radiation badges worn under lead at waist level) was reduced from 32.6 to 14.3 microSv/operator per week despite a slight increase in case load.",
"These findings demonstrate a dose dependent increased risk of posterior lens opacities for interventional cardiologists and nurses when radiation protection tools are not used. While study of a larger cohort is needed to confirm these findings, the results suggest ocular radio-protection should be utilized.",
"To present the case of a radioiodine therapy-naïve thyroid cancer patient with postthyroidectomy diplopia. A 63-year-old male patient presented with goiter. Histology performed after thyroidectomy proved follicular thyroid cancer. Without (131)I therapy, diplopia occurred from metastasis to the right medial rectus muscle. Improvement followed after one therapy dose of (131)I.",
"The favorable overall survival of low-risk patients, regardless of the extent of thyroidectomy, supports patient autonomy in treatment-related decision making. Low-risk patients possessing risk factors for distant recurrence would be likely to benefit from total thyroidectomy followed by radioactive iodine.",
"yes. Multiplanar fluoroscopic imaging provides comparable diagnostic preoperative planning to CT scan in an experimental cadaveric model. The use of multiplanar fluoroscopic imaging resulted in between 69% and 85% less radiation exposure than conventional CT scan using pediatric settings.",
"To assess the radiation dose received by the radiologist when performing wire localisation for axillary radio-isotope sentinel node imaging-guided biopsy in patients with impalpable breast cancers treated with breast-preserving excision. When wire placement follows radio-isotope sentinel node imaging (RSNI) the radiologist is exposed to a radiation risk that has never been previously assessed. Radiation doses to radiologists performing ultrasound-guided localisation following nuclear medicine sentinel node imaging were measured for procedures on the day of surgery (20 MBq) and also on the day before surgery (40 MBq). These measurements were compared with theoretically calculated doses. Twelve patients showed comparable results between measurements and estimated doses. The mean measured dose was 1.8 muSv (estimated 1.8 muSv) for same-day and 4.8 muSv (estimated 3.4 muSv) for next-day surgery cases. At worst, radiologists who perform 36 wire localisations per year immediately following RSNI receive a radiation dose of 0.17 mSv.",
"Vitamin E consumption may be associated with a significant protective effect against radiation-induced dysfunction in salivary glands following single-dose ¹³¹I therapy in patients with differentiated thyroid cancer.",
"yes. These findings suggested that Cimetidine administration 1 hour before radiation exposure was potent in ameliorating the thyroid damages.",
"yes. In addition to data in the literature demonstrating accurate detection of thyroid cancer by (18)F-FDG PET, this study showed that (18)F-FDG PET should play an important role in the management of patients with inconclusive cytologic diagnosis of a thyroid nodule. (18)F-FDG PET reduced the number of futile hemithyroidectomies by 66%. Although PET is a relatively costly procedure, this cost outweighs the costs and risks associated with unnecessary thyroid surgery.",
"yes. We report an increased risk of cerebrovascular events in hyperthyroid as well as euthyroid patients treated with radioiodine for benign thyroid disorders. That these patient groups have similar risks suggests the possibility that radiation from radioiodine contributes to cerebrovascular morbidity via acceleration or initiation of atherosclerosis.",
"no. Radioactive iodine ablation after total thyroidectomy in low- and intermediate-risk patients with PTMC did not prevent recurrent tumours. Future randomized, controlled, multicenter prospective trials involving a larger sample of patients followed-up for a longer duration are warranted to confirm our findings.",
"Patients undergoing ERCP receive nontrivial doses of radiation, which may increase their risk of developing cancer, especially young patients. Radiation doses to patients during ERCP correlate closely with fluoroscopy time. The aim of this study was to determine whether endoscopist experience is associated with fluoroscopy time. Retrospective analysis of a prospectively collected database. Data from 69 providers from 6 countries. 9,052 entries of patients undergoing ERCP. Percent difference in fluoroscopy time associated with endoscopist experience and fellow involvement. For procedure types that require less fluoroscopy time, compared with endoscopists who performed > 200 ERCPs in the preceding year, endoscopists who performed <100 and 100 to 200 ERCPs had 104% (95% confidence interval [CI], 85%-124%) and 27% (95% CI, 20%-35%) increases in fluoroscopy time, respectively. Every 10 years of experience was associated with a 21% decrease in fluoroscopy time (95% CI, 19%-24%). For fluoroscopy-intense procedures, compared with endoscopists who performed >200 ERCPs in the preceding year, endoscopists who performed <100 and 100 to 200 ERCPs had 59% (95% CI, 39%-82%) and 11% (95% CI, 3%-20%) increases in fluoroscopy time, respectively. Every 10 years of experience was associated with a 20% decrease in fluoroscopy time (95% CI, 18%-24%).",
"yes. Properly administered, radioactive iodine remains an ideal form of treatment for Graves' disease in the pediatric population. Because of the increased risk of thyroid cancer associated with low-dose thyroid irradiation in children, larger, rather than smaller, doses of (131)I should be given.",
"no. In the case of a surgeon performing 100 procedures per annum, a FD dose of approximately 1 mSv is received, well within the annual dose limit of 150 mSv. Annual WBD to assisting staff may reach 0.04 mSv, compared to an annual limit of 6 mSv. These low doses and the lack of contamination of radioactive waste indicate that no additional radiation protection measures are required.",
"To investigate and characterize the association between fluoroscopy radiation dose rate and various patient size metrics during ureteroscopy. Fluoroscopy data were collected from 100 patients undergoing ureteroscopy for stone disease. Radiation dose rates were determined from fluoroscopy dose and time. Estimated entrance skin dose was calculated from air kerma (AK) by applying correction factors. Effective dose (ED) was estimated with Monte Carlo-based simulation software. Patient size metrics included body mass index (BMI), anterior-posterior (AP) midline distance, AP transrenal thickness, and region of interest (ROI) pixel value magnitude on computed tomography scout. Univariate and multivariate regression analyses were performed to determine the association between AK dose rate and patient size metrics, adjusting for laterality and stone location. Obese patients (>30 kg/m(2)) comprised 46% of the cohort. Mean fluoroscopy time, displayed AK, entrance skin dose, and ED were 4.2 ± 6.0 second, 1.2 ± 2.1 mGy, 1.2 ± 2.2 mGy, and 0.08 ± 0.15 mSv, respectively. Mean AK dose rate and ED dose rates were 0.30 ± 0.23 mGy/second and 0.021 ± 0.016 mSv/second, respectively. Compared with the nonobese category, the highest BMI category (≥35 kg/m(2)) had over a 3-fold higher mean AK rate (0.50 vs 0.16 mGy/second). On univariate and multivariate analysis, BMI, AP midline distance, AP transrenal thickness, and computed tomography scout region of interest pixel value magnitude were each significantly associated with dose rate.",
"This study revealed that the treatment of differentiated thyroid carcinoma with 3.7 and 5.55 GBq of (131I)NaI, on an outpatient basis, can be safe when overseen by qualified professionals and with an adapted radiation-protection guideline. Even considering the radioiodine activity level and the dosimetric methodology applied here, negligible human exposure and a nonmeasurable radiological impact to the human environment were found.",
"yes. This study showed that setup time and operator radiation dose were greater for radiation therapists setting up planning (18)F-FDG PET/CT scans than for nuclear medicine technologists setting up routine (18)F-FDG PET/CT scans. These results have implications for scheduling of radiotherapy planning PET/CT; however, the additional radiation dose was not considered to be significant.",
"To report estimated radiation doses to the eye lens of the interventionalist from procedures performed with and without use of radiation protection measures. Scattered radiation doses for seven interventional radiology fluoroscopic systems were measured by using phantoms simulating patients 16-28 cm in thickness undergoing low-, medium-, and high-mode fluoroscopy, cine cardiac imaging, and digital subtraction angiography (DSA). The radiation doses to the eye lens in low- and high-dose scenarios were estimated. Beam angulation, biplanar equipment, working distance, procedure complexity, imaging collimation, and use of eyeglasses and/or protective suspended screens were taken into account. The doses to the lens in several procedures were assessed. Mean scattered radiation doses to the lens during fluoroscopy were 6.0 and 34.5 microSv/min in the low- and high-dose scenarios, respectively. For DSA, typical doses to the lens ranged from 0.77 to 3.33 microSv per image. Operation modes involving increasing or decreasing radiation doses were quantified. For hepatic chemoembolization, iliac angioplasty, pelvic embolization, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt creation, lens doses ranged from 0.25 to 3.72 mSv per procedure when protection was not used. Lens doses in the neuroembolization procedures could exceed 10 mSv per procedure.",
"Considering radiation exposure risk, protective gear is necessary to ensure safety and efficacy of URS lithotripsy. Efforts to reduce radiation dose before and during surgery are required when ureteral calculi are in upper locations or have large HU, or the patient has a high BMI.",
"To evaluate a sterile, disposable lead-free drape for reducing scatter radiation exposure during fluoroscopy-guided procedures. Computer-aided design software was used to model a procedure room with a thoracic anthropomorphic phantom on the angiography table. Using this model, measurements of scatter radiation were made from the phantom before and after the application of the drape using a collimated and full field of view in low-output conditions (70 kVp, 48 mA) and high-output conditions (125 kVp, 156 mA). Transmission of x-rays through the drape and entrance exposure rates were also measured. Statistical significance was measured using a Student t test. Scatter radiation was attenuated throughout the procedure room when the drape was applied. The highest level of scatter radiation was detected in the expected position of the operator, adjacent to the phantom. Radioprotection by the drape was the greatest in this position: 71.5% attenuation at waist level and 89% at neck level (P < .0001). The use of the drape did not result in an increase of backscatter radiation to the phantom.",
"Previous studies reported that the radiation exposure to the hands of orthopaedic surgeons was far below the acceptable limit. However, the risk could have been underestimated as some factors were overlooked, namely monitoring trainees during average workload, placing dosimeters over the most susceptible locations, measuring the cumulative dosage of radiation and considering the dose limit for non-classified workers. We performed a prospective study in two centres to estimate the radiation dose to the hands of two consultant trauma surgeons and two trainees (one assisting and one operating) while performing 47 fluoroscopy-assisted procedures. We used validated thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs) rings and fingerstalls for monitoring the cumulative dosage. Trainees were at higher risk while performing intramedullary nailing and during assistance. Higher radiation doses were recorded from dominant index fingers and particularly fingertips.",
"A higher dose to the cervical spinal cord can be minimized by using a high junction. However, this would be at the cost of substantially increased doses to surrounding organs such as the thyroid gland, mandible, pharynx, and larynx. This can be critical in children and young adults, where hypothyroidism, mandibular hypoplasia, and development of second malignancies may be a late sequela of radiation therapy.",
"Although RE without thyroid shields did not exceed current standards set by radiation safety authorities, no threshold level has been set below which thyroid carcinogenesis is unlikely to occur. Because lead shields are easy to wear and can effectively reduce RE to the thyroid region to near-background levels, they should be made easily available and used by all surgeons to avoid the harmful effects of radiation on the thyroid.",
"Fluoroscopy is technique that is commonly used for procedures in the treatment of pain, but despite its importance in healthcare, many specialists do not know how to use it. We conducted a national survey to evaluate its use. A questionnaire with 15 questions related to the use of fluoroscopy in the treatment of pain was designed and sent to 105 units that diagnosed and treated pain in Spain, in 2008. A total of 63 (60%) questionnaires with valid responses were received. The majority of specialist (66.6%) had not received specific training on fluoroscopy or pain during their residency. Almost all (90%) of specialists who responded performed procedures that required X-rays in the operating theatre. Just over half (54.7%) performed less than 10 procedures a week, and only 12% performed more than 20 procedures per week. As regards radiation protection, the majority (80%) did not use protective glasses, and only 50% wore leaded gloves. Just under half (47%) were situated less than 0.5 metre from the patient. The majority (76%) did not inform about the radiation, nor was it mentioned in the informed consent (80%).",
"Endovascular aortoiliac aneurysm (EAIA) repair uses substantial fluoroscopic guidance that requires considerable radiation exposure. Doses were determined for a team of three vascular surgeons performing 47 consecutive EAIA repairs over a 1-year period to determine whether this exposure constitutes a radiation hazard. Twenty-nine surgeon-made aortounifemoral devices and 18 bifurcated devices were used. Three surgeons wore dosimeters (1) on the waist, under a lead apron; (2) on the waist, outside a lead apron; (3) on the collar; and (4) on the left ring finger. Dosimeters were also placed around the operating table and room to evaluate the patient, other personnel, and ambient doses. Exposures were compared with standards of the International Commission on Radiological Protection (ICRP). Total fluoroscopy time was 30.9 hours (1852 minutes; mean, 39.4 minutes per case). Yearly total effective body doses for all surgeons (under lead) were below the 20 mSv/y occupational exposure limit of the ICRP. Outside lead doses for two surgeons approximated recommended limits. Lead aprons attenuated 85% to 91% of the dose. Ring doses and calculated eye doses were within the ICRP exposure limits. Patient skin doses averaged 360 mSv per case (range, 120-860 mSv). The ambient (>3 m from the source) operating room dose was 1.06 mSv/y.",
"This study sought to evaluate differences in radiation exposure of the operator depending on the type of catheterization lab procedure. Invasive cardiologists and angiologists are exposed to long-term, low-dose occupational radiation. Increased workload and specialization require more detailed knowledge of the extent and cause of the radiation exposure. In this prospective single-center experience, radiation doses of 3 operators were measured by real-time dosimetry for body, neck, and hand during 284 procedures in 281 patients over a period of 14 weeks. To determine the association between the type of procedure and the doses and to draw a pairwise comparison between the procedures, 3 mixed models were used. The type of procedure, the patient's body mass index, and the fluoroscopy time were independently associated with the operator's radiation exposure. Per procedure, the operators were exposed to a mean effective dose (E) of 2.2 ± 5.9 μSv. Compared with coronary angiography, E was 2.3-fold higher in pelvic procedures (95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.7 to 3.0, p<0.001), 1.7-fold higher in upper limb procedures (95% CI: 1.3 to 2.1, p<0.001), and 1.4-fold higher in below-the-knee procedures (95% CI: 1.1 to 2.0, p = 0.023). The mean eye dose was 19.1 ± 37.6 μSv. Eye doses were significantly higher in peripheral procedures than in coronary angiography procedures. The mean hand dose was 99.6 ± 196.0 μSv. Hand doses were significantly higher in pelvic than in coronary angiography, upper limb, and below-the-knee procedures.",
"yes. In a wide spectrum of cardiac arrhythmias, and especially in AF and VT ablation, fluoroscopy integrated 3D mapping contributed to a dramatic reduction in radiation exposure without prolonging procedure times and compromising patient's safety. That effect, however, could not be maintained in patients with APs and PVCs.",
"Various reports support the use of cervical spine (c-spine) CT over conventional radiography in screening of c-spine injury. Interest now exists in diagnostic radiation-induced morbidity. To estimate excess relative risk for developing cancer from c-spine high-resolution CT radiation exposure. We conducted a retrospective review of children evaluated for c-spine injury using CT. The study population was divided into three age groups, 0-4 years (group 1), 5-8 years (group 2), and older than 8 years (group 3). Anthropomorphic 1-year-old and 5-year-old phantoms were used to measure radiation at the thyroid during radiography and CT. Excess relative risk for thyroid cancer was estimated using these measurements. A total of 557 patients were evaluated with CT. The radiographic method most commonly used was head CT/c-spine CT in 363 (65%). Only 179 children (32%) had any type of prior radiography. The use of c-spine CT exposes the thyroid to 90-200 times more radiation than multiple conventional radiographs. The mean excess relative risk for thyroid cancer after CT was 2.0 for group 1 and 0.6 for group 2. There were no comparison data for group 3.",
"no. Head and neck irradiation should not be a contraindication for minimally invasive parathyroidectomy in patients with primary hyperparathyroidism in the setting of preoperative localization studies showing single-gland disease and no concurrent thyroid neoplasm. Furthermore, history of head and neck irradiation is associated with a later age of presentation for parathyroidectomy.",
"Proper fluoroscopic education and protocols may reduce the patient radiation dose but few prospective studies in urology have been performed. Using optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters we tested whether fluoroscopy time and/or entrance skin dose would decrease after educational and radiation reduction protocols. At default manufacturer settings fluoroscopy time and entrance skin dose were prospectively measured using optically stimulated luminescent dosimeters in patients undergoing ureteroscopy, retrograde pyelogram/stent or percutaneous nephrolithotomy with access for stone disease. A validated radiation safety competency test was administered to urology faculty and residents before and after web based, hands-on fluoroscopy training. Default fluoroscopy settings were changed from continuous to intermittent pulse rate and from standard to half-dose output. Fluoroscopy time and entrance skin dose were then measured again. The cohorts of 44 pre-protocol and 50 post-protocol patients with stones were similarly matched. The change in mean fluoroscopy time and entrance skin dose from pre-protocol to post-protocol was -0.6 minutes and -11.6 mGy (33%) for percutaneous nephrolithotomy (p = 0.62 and <0.001), 0.5 minutes and -0.1 mGy (34%) for ureteroscopy (p = 0.42 and 0.31), and 0.1 minute and -0.1 mGy (29%) for retrograde pyelogram/stent (p = 0.85 and 0.49, respectively). Urologist post-training test scores increased 30% from pretraining scores (p = 0.1).",
"To evaluate irradiation toxic effects from fluoroscopy during intra-arterial chemotherapy for retinoblastoma. Prospective trial. Eight patients treated with intra-arterial chemotherapy. Irradiation toxic effects in vital organs. The mean patient age was 29 months (range, 10-74 months) and 63% were male. The mean irradiation dose to the skin of the affected eye was 0.19173 Gy, to the contralateral eye was 0.03533 Gy, to the chest wall was 0.00296 Gy, and to the abdominal wall was 0.00104 Gy. The estimated irradiation dose to the lens in the treatment eye was 0.16 Gy, which, in accumulated doses, could be cataractogenic. The estimated irradiation dose from a single fluoroscopy session to other organs, including the brain (0.05560 Gy), thyroid (0.00192 Gy), bone marrow (0.00059 Gy), and gonads (0.00015 Gy), was far lower than the minimal toxic level.",
"This study aimed to assess the radiation dose reduction that could be achieved using an in-line bismuth shielding over the thyroid gland and breast and to determine the effect of a cervical spine collar on thyroid dose reduction and image noise when performing computed tomography of the cervical spine using automatic tube current modulation. An anthropomorphic phantom was scanned using a commercially available 64-channel computed tomographic scanner. A standardized trauma cervical spine protocol was used. Scans were obtained with and without a standard cervical spine immobilization collar and with and without bismuth-impregnated thyroid and breast shields. Thermoluminescent dosimeters were placed over the thyroid gland and breasts for each scan. A paired t test was used to determine whether the skin entry dose differed significantly between the shielded and unshielded thyroid and breast and to determine whether placing the thyroid shield over a cervical immobilization collar resulted in a significant dose reduction. Region of interest of pixel values was used to determine image noise. The average measured skin entry dose for the unshielded thyroid gland was 21.9 mGy (95% confidence interval, 18.9-4.7). With a bismuth shield applied directly over the skin, the dose to the thyroid gland was reduced by 22.5% (P<0.05). With the bismuth shield applied over the cervical spine collar, the dose reduction to the thyroid was 10.4%, which was not statistically significant (P = 0.16) compared with the dose reduction without the cervical collar. Skin entry dose over the breasts was significant, although they were outside the primary scan range. Without bismuth shielding, the skin entry dose was 1.5 mGy, and with bismuth shielding, the dose was significantly reduced by 36.6% (P<0.01). Image noise increased most when shielding was used with an immobilization collar.",
"There is a lack of information on the handling of the fluoroscope in the area of pain treatment, and this usually leads to the adoption of insufficient radiation protection measures. The treatments are usually performed in the operating theatre. More than half the specialists perform less 10 procedures per week with x-rays. The control and follow-up of radiation values is insufficient, as is the information and protection offered to the patient.",
"Forty patients were scanned with thermoluminescent dosemeters (TLDs) in situ to measure the radiation dose to the thyroid and eye during CT scanning of the brain and chest. Half of the patients had the \"AttenuRad\" shield in place during scanning. Use of the shielding reduced the mean dose to the eye from 6.0 +/- 0.3 mGy to 4.9 mGy +/- 0.2 mGy and the thyroid dose from 16.4 mGy +/- 1.2 mGy to 7.1 mGy +/- 0.5 mGy.",
"Patients are exposed to radiation during ERCP, and this may increase their lifetime risk of the development of cancer and other deleterious radiation effects. To evaluate the association between the endoscopist's ERCP volume and the patient radiation dose during ERCP. Single-center, retrospective study. Tertiary referral center. A total of 197 patients undergoing 331 ERCPs. Patient radiation exposure parameters including fluoroscopy time, total radiation dose, dose area product, and effective dose for all ERCPs performed at our academic medical center by 2 high-volume endoscopists (HVEs) (≥200 ERCPs/year) and 7 low-volume endoscopists (LVEs). Radiation exposure for each ERCP was adjusted against a validated procedure complexity scale and the Stanford Fluoroscopy Complexity Score, which was created based on the numbers of interventions that would mandate additional radiation exposure. ERCPs performed by LVEs were associated with a significantly higher median total radiation dose (98.30 mGy vs 74.13 mGy), dose area product (13.98 Gy-cm(2) vs 8.8 Gy-cm(2)), and effective dose (3.63 mSv vs 2.28 mSv), despite lower median Stanford Fluoroscopy Complexity Scores (3.0 vs 6.0) compared with HVEs. No significant difference was noted in median fluoroscopy time (4.0 minutes vs 3.30 minutes) between LVEs and HVEs.",
"C-spine CT is associated with a significant exposure to ionizing radiation and increases excess relative risk for thyroid cancer in young children.",
"We assessed and evaluated attitudes and knowledge regarding ionizing radiation of urology surgery room staff. A questionnaire was sent by e-mail to urology surgery room personnel in Turkey, between June and August 2013. The questionnaire included demographic questions and questions regarding radiation exposure and protection. In total, 127 questionnaires were answered. Of them, 62 (48.8%) were nurses, 51 (40.2%) were other personnel, and 14 (11%) were radiological technicians. In total, 113 (89%) participants had some knowledge of radiation, but only 56 (44.1%) had received specific education or training regarding the harmful effects of radiation. In total, 92 (72.4%) participants indicated that they used a lead apron and a thyroid shield. In the subgroup that had received education about the harmful effects of radiation, the use ratio for all protective procedures was 21.4% (n=12); this ratio was only 2.8% (n=2) for those with no specific training; the difference was statistically significant (p=0.004). Regarding dosimeters, the use rates were 100% for radiology technicians, 46.8% for nurses, and 31.4% for other hospital personnel; these differences were statistically significant (p<0.001). No significant relationship between working period in the surgery room, number of daily fluoroscopy procedures, education, task, and use of radiation protection measures was found.",
"To measure radiation exposure of urologists during ureteroscopic (URS) lithotripsy, and hence estimating the number of procedures that can be performed safely considering the annually permissible radiation dose, and to identify influential variables. The radiation exposure dose was measured at the neck, chest, arm, and hands of a single urologist who performed 49 URS lithotripsies. The number of annually performed URS lithotripsies was estimated based on the annual permissible occupational exposure radiation dose guidelines. The fluoroscopy screening time, tube voltage, and tube current were evaluated to determine their correlation with operative time, position, size, and Hounsfield unit (HU) values of the ureteral stones, and patients' body mass index (BMI). Our findings showed that 45 URS lithotripsies can be safely performed without a whole-body apron vs 1725 cases with one; considering the permissible dose for the hands, 448 cases without radiation protection were possible. Significant correlations were observed between operative time and fluoroscopy screening time (P < .001), ureteral calculi location and fluoroscopy screening time (P = .027), HU value and fluoroscopy screening time (P = .016), HU value and operative time (P = .041), and tube current and patients' BMI (P = .009).",
"The increasing use of fluoroscopy-based surgical procedures and the associated exposure to radiation raise questions regarding potential risks for patients and operating room personnel. Computer-assisted technologies can help to reduce the emission of radiation; the effect on the patient's dose for the three-dimensional (3-D)-based technologies has not yet been evaluated.QUESTIONS/ We determined the effective and organ dose in dorsal spinal fusion and percutaneous transsacral screw stabilization during conventional fluoroscopy-assisted and computer-navigated procedures. We recorded the dose and duration of radiation from fluoroscopy in 20 patients, with single vertebra fractures of the lumbar spine, who underwent posterior stabilization with and without the use of a navigation system and 20 patients with navigated percutaneous transsacral screw stabilization for sacroiliac joint injuries. For the conventional iliosacral joint operations, the duration of radiation was estimated retrospectively in two cases and further determined from the literature. Dose measurements were performed with a male phantom; the phantom was equipped with thermoluminescence dosimeters. The effective dose in conventional spine surgery using 2-D fluoroscopy was more than 12-fold greater than in navigated operations. For the sacroiliac joint, the effective dose was nearly fivefold greater for nonnavigated operations.",
"no. To uphold the notion for radiation exposure to be as low as reasonably achievable, ureteroscopic stone retrieval can safely be done without the use of fluoroscopy in a significant number of patients.",
"yes. We conclude that occupational exposure to ionizing radiation is related to the risk of AITD. The usage of thyroid protection shields by radiation workers is strongly recommended.",
"yes. Significantly prolonged procedure time and fluoroscopy time in overweight patients increase the risks associated with spine interventions, not only to the patients but also to the operating room staff exposed to ionizing radiation.",
"yes. Radiation safety training protocols improved clinical knowledge but did not significantly alter fluoroscopy time. Changing equipment default settings to intermittent pulse rate (12 frames per second) and half-dose lowered the entrance skin dose by 30% across all endourology patients but most significantly during percutaneous nephrolithotomy. To limit patient radiation exposure fluoroscopy default settings should be decreased before all endourology procedures and image equipment manufacturers should consider lowering standard default renal settings.",
"Although the total effective body doses under lead fell within established ICRP occupational exposure limits, they are not negligible. Because radiation exposure is cumulative and endovascular procedures are becoming more common, individuals performing these procedures must carefully monitor their exposure. Our results indicate that a team of surgeons can perform 386 hours of fluoroscopy per year or 587 EAIA repairs per year and remain within occupational exposure limits. Individuals who perform these procedures should actively monitor their effective doses and educate personnel in methods for reducing exposure.",
"To assess radiation dose to the thyroid in patients undergoing neurointerventional procedures and to evaluate dose reduction to the thyroid by lead shielding. A randomized patient study was undertaken to evaluate the dose reduction by thyroid lead shields and assess their practicality in a clinical setting. Sixty-five patients attending for endovascular treatment of arteriovenous malformations (AVMs) and aneurysms were randomized into one of 2 groups a) No Thyroid Shield and b) Thyroid Lead Shield. Two thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLDs) were placed over the thyroid gland (1 on each side) at constant positions on each patient in both groups. A thyroid lead shield (Pb eq. 0.5 mm) was placed around the neck of patients in the thyroid lead shield group after the neurointerventional radiologist had obtained satisfactory working access above the neck. The total dose-area-product (DAP) value, number and type of digital subtraction angiography (DSA) runs and fluoroscopy time were recorded for all patients. Of the 72 patients who initially attended for neurointerventional procedures, 7 were excluded due to failure to consent or because of procedures involving access to the external carotid circulation. Of the remaining 65 who were randomized, a further 9 were excluded due to; procedureabandonment, unfeasible shield placement or shield interference with the procedure. Patient demographics included mean age of 47.9 yrs (15-74), F:M=1.4:1. Mean fluoroscopy time was 25.9 min. Mean DAP value was 13,134.8 cGy x cm(2) and mean number of DSA runs was 13.4. The mean relative thyroid doses were significantly different (p<0.001) between the unshielded (7.23 mSv/cGy2 x 105) and shielded groups (3.77 mSv/cGy2 x 105). A mean thyroid dose reduction of 48% was seen in the shielded group versus the unshielded group.",
"yes. Radiographer delivered fluoroscopy could reduce the patient's exposure to ionising radiation for some urological procedures.",
"Recent reports on thyroid cancer among Australian orthopaedic surgeons prompted the present study which sought to evaluate the effectiveness of lead shielding in reducing radiation exposure (RE) to the thyroid region during endo-urological procedures. Radiation exposure to the thyroid region of the surgeon and scrubbed nurse was monitored for 20 consecutive operations over a 6-week period by thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLD). A TLD was placed over and underneath a thyroid shield of 0.5 min lead equivalent thickness to monitor the effect of shielding. Eight percutaneous nephrolithotomies, seven retrograde pyelograms and ureteric stentings and five ureteroscopies for calculous disease were monitored. Total exposure time was 63.1 min. For the surgeon, the total cumulative RE over and under the lead shield was 0.46 and 0.02 mSv, respectively, equating to a 23-times reduction in RE if shielding was used. This effectively reduced RE to almost background levels, which was represented by the control TLD exposure (0.01 mSv).",
"The 1999 Ionising Radiation Regulations recommend that medical professionals using ionising radiation should aim to keep exposure as 'low as reasonably practicable'. Urologists regularly use fluoroscopy during endoscopic surgical procedures. In some institutions, this is delivered by a radiographer whereas in others, it is delivered by the urological surgeon. To determine if radiographer-delivered fluoroscopy can reduce the exposure to ionising radiation during urological procedures. An analysis of 395 consecutive patients, who underwent endoscopic urological procedures requiring fluoroscopy, was performed simultaneously across two institutions, over a 4 month period. 321 patients were matched and included in the analysis. Radiographer delivered fluoroscopy was associated with reduced ionising radiation exposure for retrograde pyelography procedures ED 0.09626 vs. 1.323 mSev, p= 0.0003, and endoscopic stone surgeries ED 0.3066 Vs. 0.5416 mSev, p=0.0039, but not for ureterorenoscopic stone surgeries 0.4880 vs. 0.2213 mSev, p=0.8292.",
"yes. Fluoroscopy is the major source of total radiation exposure during coronary angioplasty, with left anterior oblique views providing the highest dose. Modification of views is feasible and will result in significant reduction of operator radiation dose.",
"Considerable doses to the thyroid are incurred during neurointerventional procedures, highlighting the need for increased awareness of patient radiation protection. Thyroid lead shielding yields significant radiation protection, is inexpensive and when not obscuring the field of view, should be used routinely.",
"yes. Low-frequency pulsed fluoroscopy and other dose-saving keys as well as the radiation risk training might have helped to improve the quality of the procedure in terms of radiation exposure.",
"While traditional intraoperative fluoroscopy protection relies on thyroid shields and aprons, recent data suggest that the surgeon's eyes and hands receive more exposure than previously appreciated. Using a distal radial fracture surgery model, we examined (1) radiation exposure to the eyes, thyroid, chest, groin, and hands of a surgeon mannequin; (2) the degree to which shielding equipment can decrease exposure; and (3) how exposure varies with fluoroscopy unit size. An anthropomorphic model was fit with radiation-attenuating glasses, a thyroid shield, an apron, and gloves. \"Exposed\" thermoluminescent dosimeters overlaid the protective equipment at the eyes, thyroid, chest, groin, and index finger while \"shielded\" dosimeters were placed beneath the protective equipment. Fluoroscopy position and settings were standardized. The mini-c-arm milliampere-seconds were fixed based on the selection of the kilovolt peak (kVp). Three mini and three standard c-arms scanned a model of the patient's wrist continuously for fifteen minutes each. Ten dosimeter exposures were recorded for each c-arm. Hand exposure averaged 31 μSv/min (range, 22 to 48 μSv/min), which was 13.0 times higher than the other recorded exposures. Eye exposure averaged 4 μSv/min, 2.2 times higher than the mean thyroid, chest, and groin exposure. Gloves reduced hand exposure by 69.4%. Glasses decreased eye exposure by 65.6%. There was no significant difference in exposure between mini and standard fluoroscopy.",
"yes. Larger patients experience higher radiation dose rates under fluoroscopy. Severely obese patients receive 3-fold higher dose rates compared with nonobese patients. Given the higher incidence of stone disease in obese patients, all attempts should be made to minimize radiation exposure during ureteroscopy.",
"With institutional review board approval, prospective data were collected during fluoroscopically guided pedicle screw placement. To estimate a surgeon's radiation exposure with all screw constructs during surgery to repair idiopathic scoliosis. To our knowledge, there is no established consensus regarding the safety of radiation exposure during fluoroscopically guided procedures. A surgeon was outfitted intraoperatively with a thermoluminescent dosimeter to estimate radiation exposure to his whole body and thyroid gland. The index surgeon is projected to receive 13.49 mSv of whole body ionizing radiation and 4.31 mSv of thyroid gland irradiation annually. The National Council on Radiation Protection's current recommendations set lifetime dose equivalent limits for classified workers (radiologists) at 10 mSv per year of life and at 3 mSv for nonclassified workers (spinal surgeons). At the levels estimated, a surgeon beginning his/her career at age 30 years would exceed the lifetime limit for nonclassified workers in less than 10 years. The National Council on Radiation Protection limits the single-year maximum safe dosage to the thyroid to 500 mSv; the yearly exposure estimated here is significantly less.",
"Surgeons' hands receive the most radiation exposure during distal radial plate fixation under fluoroscopy. There was a small but insignificant difference in mean exposure between standard fluoroscopy and mini-fluoroscopy, but some standard units resulted in lower exposure than some mini-units. On the basis of these findings, we recommend routine protective equipment to mitigate exposure to surgeons' hands and eyes, in addition to the thyroid, chest, and groin, during fluoroscopy procedures."
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Gender differences in musculoskeletal injury rates: a function of symptom reporting? | [
"This study determined gender differences in voluntary reporting of lower extremity musculoskeletal injuries among U.S, Marine Corps (USMC) recruits, and it examined the association between these differences and the higher injury rates typically found among women trainees. Subjects were 176 male and 241 female enlisted USMC recruits who were followed prospectively through 11 wk (men) and 12 wk (women) of boot camp training. Reported injuries were measured by medical record reviews. Unreported injuries were determined by a questionnaire and a medical examination administered at the completion of training. Among female recruits the most commonly reported injuries were patellofemoral syndrome (10.0% of subjects), ankle sprain (9.1%), and iliotibial band syndrome (5.8%); the most common unreported injuries were patellofemoral syndrome (2.1%), metatarsalgia (1.7%), and unspecified knee pain (1.7%). Among male recruits iliotibial band syndrome (4.0% of subjects), ankle sprain (2.8%), and Achilles tendinitis/bursitis (2.8%) were the most frequently reported injuries; shin splints (4.6%), iliotibial band syndrome (4.0%), and ankle sprain (2.8%) were the most common unreported diagnoses. Female recruits were more likely to have a reported injury than male recruits (44.0% vs 25.6%, relative risk (RR) = 1.72, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.29-2.30), but they were less likely to have an unreported injury (11.6% vs 23.9%, RR = 0.49, 95% CI 0.31-0.75). When both reported and unreported injuries were measured, total injury rates were high for both sexes (53.5% women, 45.5% men, RR = 1.18, 95% CI 0.96-1.44), but the difference between the rates was not statistically significant.",
"Our results indicate that the higher injury rates often found in female military trainees may be explained by gender differences in symptom reporting."
] | [
"Numerous studies have shown differences in pain perception between men and women, which may affect pain management strategies.AIM: Our primary aim was to investigate whether there are gender-based differences in pain management in patients admitted to our emergency department with acute, non-specific abdominal pain (NSAP). Our secondary aim was to evaluate if other factors influence administration of analgesia for patients admitted with NSAP. From June 2007 to June 2008, we carried out a retrospective, gender-based, frequency-matched control study with 150 patients (75 consecutive men and 75 women) who presented with NSAP at our emergency department. Pain was documented using a numerical rating scale ('0' no pain, '10' most severe pain). A multinomial regression model was used to assess factors that might influence pain management. No statistically significant difference was seen between men and women with respect to pain management (P= 0.085). Younger patients were, however, more likely to receive weaker (P= 0.011) and fewer analgesics (P<0.001). Patients with previous abdominal surgery (P= 0.012), known chronic pain conditions (P= 0.029) or relevant comorbidities (P= 0.048) received stronger analgesia. Nationality (P= 0.244), employment status (P= 0.988), time of admission (P= 0.487) and known psychiatric illness (P= 0.579) did not influence pain management.",
"One third of adults aged ≥65 years fall annually, and women are more likely than men to be treated for fall injuries in hospitals and emergency departments. The aim of this study was to examine how men and women differed in seeking medical care for falls and in the information about falls they received from healthcare providers. This study, undertaken in 2010, analyzed population-based data from the 2005 Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey (MBCS), the most recent data available in 2010 from this survey. A sample of 12,052 community-dwelling Medicare beneficiaries aged ≥65 years was used to examine male-female differences among 2794 who reported falling in the previous year, sought medical care for falls and/or discussed fall prevention with a healthcare provider. Multivariable logistic regression analyses were conducted to determine the factors associated with falling for men and women. P-values ≤0.05 were considered significant. Nationally, an estimated seven million Medicare beneficiaries (22%) fell in the previous year. Among those who fell, significantly more women than men talked with a healthcare provider about falls and also discussed fall prevention (31.2% [95% CI=28.8%, 33.6%] vs 24.3% [95% CI=21.6%, 27.0%]). For both genders, falls were most strongly associated with two or more limitations in activities of daily living and often feeling sad or depressed.",
"Female athletes are at a greater risk for noncontact anterior cruciate ligament injuries than male athletes. Gender differences in frontal plane kinematics (hip adduction, knee valgus, and ankle eversion) and temporal relationships that make up the components of dynamic knee valgus may explain this discrepancy. The authors hypothesized that women would reach peak frontal plane kinematic values earlier during landing compared with their male counterparts. Controlled laboratory study. Hip, knee, and ankle 3-dimensional kinematics were measured using high-speed motion capture in 10 National Collegiate Athletic Association Division I female athletes and 10 male practice squad athletes during a drop-jump landing. Independent t tests were used to analyze each dependent variable to identify differences between genders. Maximum hip adduction, knee valgus, and ankle eversion occurred earlier in women than in men (mean differences 33.7% of stance [95% CI, 20.2%-47.2%], 41.7% [95% CI, 31.5%-51.6%], 16.5% of stance [95% CI, 7.3%-25.6%], respectively). Maximum hip adduction and knee valgus occurred before maximum knee flexion in women and after in men (mean differences 0.11 seconds [95% CI, 0.05-0.18 seconds], 0.19 seconds [95% CI, 0.13-0.25 seconds], respectively). Maximum ankle eversion occurred earlier in women than in men (mean difference 0.06 seconds [95% CI, 0.01-0.11 seconds]). There was a significant difference between genders for angular velocity of knee valgus (mean difference = 25.53 deg/sec [95% CI, 8.30-42.77 deg/sec]).",
"Sexual hormones are potent regulators of various immune functions. Although androgens are immunosuppressive, estrogens protect against septic challenges in animal models. This study correlates sexual dimorphism with the incidence of posttraumatic complications in severely injured patients. From January of 1991 to February of 1996, 1,276 consecutive injured patients (Injury Severity Score [ISS] > or = 9 points) were studied. Males (n = 911) did not differ from females (n = 365) with regard to severity of injury (ISS) and injury pattern. The incidence of posttraumatic sepsis (30.7%) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (29.6%) was significantly increased in severely injured males with ISS > or = 25 points in comparison to the equivalent group of females (sepsis, 17.0%; multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, 16.0%). No difference was found in patients with ISS < 25 points. Moreover, plasma levels of procalcitonin and interleukin-6 were elevated (p < 0.05) in severely injured males compared with females.",
"Men and women exhibit different movement patterns, which are thought to contribute to the increased incidence of anterior cruciate ligament injuries in females. Although gender differences have been observed in movement, few studies have examined gender differences during different types of landings. Prospective gender comparison study. Controlled laboratory study. Fourteen male and 14 female recreational soccer players were recruited for the study. All subjects performed a soccer-specific jump heading activity to examine differences in landing mechanics before and after heading the soccer ball. Subjects began the task by performing a forward jump onto 2 force platforms (landing 1) and conducting a countermovement before jumping up to head a soccer ball that was hanging above the force platform before, then landing back on the force platforms (landing 2). A 2-way analysis of variance (gender × landing) was performed to examine the interaction between gender and different types of landings on sagittal plane joint mechanics. Significant interactions existed for the peak hip extension moment and vertical ground reaction force where the male players exhibited increased values during the second landing compared with the female players. Males exhibited greater peak plantarflexion and knee extension moments, but decreased peak hip flexion. Main effects for landing exhibited lower kinematic and larger kinetic values except for the peak plantarflexion moment.",
"Gender differences exist in anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) cross-sectional area and lateral tibial slope. Biomechanical principles suggest that the direction of these gender differences should induce larger peak ACL strains in females under dynamic loading. Peak ACL relative strain during a simulated pivot landing is significantly greater in female ACLs than male ACLs. Controlled laboratory study. Twenty cadaveric knees from height- and weight-matched male and female cadavers were subjected to impulsive 3-dimensional test loads of 2 times body weight in compression, flexion, and internal tibial torque starting at 15° of flexion. Load cells measured the 3-dimensional forces and moments applied to the knee, and forces in the pretensioned quadriceps, hamstring, and gastrocnemius muscle equivalents. A novel, gender-specific, nonlinear spring simulated short-range and longer range quadriceps muscle tensile stiffness. Peak relative strain in the anteromedial bundle of the ACL (AM-ACL) was measured using a differential variable reluctance transducer, while ACL cross-sectional area and lateral tibial slope were measured using magnetic resonance imaging. A repeated-measures Mann-Whitney signed-rank test was used to test the hypothesis. Female knees exhibited 95% greater peak AM-ACL relative strain than male knees (6.37% [2.53%] vs 3.26% [1.89%]; P = .004). Anterior cruciate ligament cross-sectional area and lateral tibial slope were significant predictors of peak AM-ACL relative strain (R(2) = .59; P = .001).",
"The protective effect of gender on posttraumatic mortality or acute complications (acute respiratory distress syndrome [ARDS], pneumonia, and sepsis) is unclear. To assess potential effects, we performed a retrospective case-controlled study, matching patients for injury factors including overall severity (Injury Severity Sscore), the presence of shock (systolic blood pressure [SBP] < 90 mm Hg) at admission, and the presence of closed head injury (CHI). All female patients admitted over a 61/2-year period were reviewed and divided into four groups: group 1, SBP > 90, no CHI; group 2, SBP < 90, no CHI; group 3, SBP > 90, with CHI; and group 4, SBP < 90, with CHI. Each cohort was matched one to one with an equivalent male counterpart. Cohorts were compared for mortality or the development of ARDS, pneumonia, and systemic sepsis using standard definitions. Overall, 1,229 female patients were identified for study. The average Injury Severity Score was 16.3 and overall mortality was 2.7%. Analysis of the groups described previously demonstrated no statistically significant difference in the development of ARDS, pneumonia, systemic sepsis, or overall mortality between male and female patients including patients presenting with shock, CHI, or both.",
"As 90% of fractures are caused by falls, and as fractures are more common in elderly women than in elderly men, a better understanding of potential sex differences in fall rates and underlying mechanisms is needed. The purpose of this study was to determine whether women are more prone than men to falling, and to evaluate whether the risk of falling is associated with variations in gait patterns. The cohort for this prospective observational study consisted of 1390 community-dwelling men and women aged 70 years, examined in a health survey between July 2012 and November 2014. Gait patterns were measured using a computerized walkway system during normal-speed, fast-speed, and dual-task trials. Triaxial accelerometers were used to collect objective data on physical activity, and self-reported fall data were collected by telephone 6 and 12 months after examination. Incident low-energy falls were defined as unexpected events in which participants came to rest on the ground. During the follow-up period, 148 study participants (88 women, 60 men; P = .01) reported falls. After adjusting for multiple confounders, including objective measures of physical activity, socioeconomic factors, cardiovascular disease, and cognitive function, the odds ratio for falling in women was 1.49 (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.02-2.19). Variations in gait pattern were significantly (20%-40%) increased in fallers compared with nonfallers during the dual-task trial for step width, step length, stride length, step time, stance time, stride velocity, and single support time (all P < .05). Furthermore, women showed 15% to 35% increased variability in all of these gait parameters during the dual-task trial compared with men (all P < .01).",
"Female recreational skiers have twice the rate of knee injuries and three time the rate of ACL injuries compared with their male counterparts. Female skiers suffering from a knee injury reported a significantly higher proportion of failure of binding release than knee injured male skiers. To evaluate factors associated with failure of binding release among ACL injured male and female recreational skiers. Cohort study. Among a cohort of 498 recreational skiers (68% females) suffering from an ACL injury (complete rupture or partial rupture), age, sex, height, weight, self-reported skill level and self-reported risk taking behaviour, gear origin, ski length, date of last binding adjustment, perceived speed at the moment of injury, type of fall, and failure of binding release of the ski of the injured knee, were collected by questionnaire. Failure of binding release was reported within 78% of cases and was significantly higher for females compared to males (83 vs 66%, p<0.001) with an adjusted OR of 2.7 (95% CI 1.7 to 4.4). A higher perceived speed at the moment of injury was significantly associated with a decreasing proportion of failure of binding release. A slow perceived speed was independently associated with failure of binding release (adjusted OR 2.0; 95% CI 1.2 to 3.5). There was a significantly higher proportion of failure of binding release during backward falling compared to forward falling (87 vs 72%, p=0.002); similarly, a higher proportion of failure of binding release occurred in cases of complete rupture compared with a partial tear of the ACL (81 vs 64%, p=0.001), respectively.",
"Although interviews are commonly used to gather research data, the integrity of interview data can be threatened by discrepancies between interviewers and respondents on such characteristics as race, gender, or age. To determine if participants' reports of the prevalence and severity of 30 symptoms varied as a function of interviewer gender. Symptoms that were assessed included general physical symptoms (diarrhea, headaches), psychological symptoms (feel blue and depressed, worry about nervous breakdown), and menopausal symptoms (hot flashes, vaginal dryness). Structured telephone interviews were completed by 137 women who were a mean of 56.5 years old (SD = 11.1, range 36-83) and a mean of 38.8 months (SD = 23.6) postdiagnosis of breast cancer. Interviewers included two women and two men. Symptom prevalence and severity did not vary as a function of interviewer gender.",
"Focusing on symptoms referred to as specific for late whiplash may contribute to misconceptions in assessment, treatment, and settlements. We compared Symptom Checklist 90-Revised (SCL-90-R) symptom profiles of patients with late whiplash and patients with chronic pain due to other types of trauma. We compared 156 late whiplash patients (WP group) with 54 chronic pain patients who had suffered different bodily trauma (non-WP group) with regard to the following aspects of the SCL-90-R: the Positive Symptom Total (PST); the nine SCL-90-R dimensions and additional global indices, i.e., Global Severity Index (GSI) and Positive Symptom Distress (PSD); and complaints referred to as specific for late whiplash syndrome. The mean adjusted T score for PST was in the normal range for the WP group (T = 56.1, 95% CI 54.1-58.1) and in the pathological range for the non-WP group (T = 61.1, 95% CI 57.3-64.9). Both the WP and non-WP groups showed mean T scores in the pathological range for the dimensions \"Somatization,\" \"Obsessive-Compulsive,\" and PSD. Only the non-WP group had an average score in the pathological range for the dimensions \"Depression,\" \"Anxiety,\" and \"Phobic Anxiety\" and for the global indices GSI and PST. Multivariable regression controlling for gender and education level was used to identify complaints \"specific for late whiplash\" that were significantly associated with being in the WP group rather than the non-WP group: greater headache (OR 1.54; 95% CI 1.16, 2.03; p = 0.003) and lower emotional lability (OR 0.96; 95% CI 0.93, 0.98; p = 0.003) were the only significant variables.",
"Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is an incompletely understood clinical concept that implies pathomechanical changes in the hip as a cause for hip-related pain in young adults. While a positive anterior impingement test is suggestive of FAI, its association with clinical and radiographic findings remain unconfirmed in healthy young adults.QUESTIONS/ We determined the prevalence of a positive test in 1170 young adults and examined its possible associations with (1) self-reported hip discomfort for the past 3 months; (2) weekly physical exercise; (3) hip ROM; and (4) radiographic findings associated with femoroacetabular impingement. We invited 2344 healthy 19-year-olds to a population-based hip study between 2008 and 2009; 1170 patients (50%) consented. The study included questionnaires on medical and functional status, a clinical hip examination including the impingement test and hip ROM, and two pelvic radiographs (AP and frog-leg views). Based on at least one affected hip, 35 of 480 (7.3%) men and 32 of 672 (4.8%) women had positive impingement tests. Eighteen of the 1170 patients were excluded owing to suboptimal or missing radiographs. Self-reported hip discomfort in the women and increased physical exercise in the men were strongly associated with the positive impingement tests. Decreased abduction and internal rotation in the men, decreased flexion in both genders, and radiographic cam type findings in the men also were associated with positive tests.",
"To evaluate sex differences in the prevalence of overall pain, moderate-severe pain, and persistent pain among Veterans of Operations Enduring Freedom and Iraqi Freedom seen at VA outpatient clinics, and to evaluate sex differences in pain assessment. The observational cohort consisted of Veterans discharged from the U.S. military from October 1, 2001 to November 30, 2007 that enrolled for Veterans Administration (VA) services or received VA care before January 1, 2008. We limited the sample to the 153,212 Veterans (18,481 female, 134,731 male) who had 1 year of observation after their last deployment. Pain was assessed in 59.7% (n = 91,414) of Veterans in this sample. Among those assessed, 43.3% (n = 39,591) reported any pain, 63.2% (n = 25,028) of whom reported moderate-severe pain. Over 20% (n = 3,427) of Veterans with repeated pain measures reported persistent pain. We found no significant difference in the probability of pain assessment by sex (RR = 0.98, 95% CI 0.96, 1.00). Female Veterans were less likely to report any pain (RR 0.89, 95% CI 0.86, 0.92). Among those with any pain, female Veterans were more likely to report moderate-severe pain (RR 1.05, 95% CI 1.01, 1.09) and less likely to report persistent pain (RR 0.90, 95% CI 0.81, 0.99).",
"Socioeconomic variables influence various healthcare issues in different ways. The effect of socioeconomic variables on the shoulder has not been well studied. Because activity level, defined by how much a patient actually does, is an important patient outcome measure and prognostic factor for the shoulder, studying its association with occupation and income will advance our understanding of how these variables relate to shoulder disorders, treatments, and outcomes. We asked: (1) Does shoulder activity score correlate with income level, stratified by gender? (2) Do different employment groups-heavy, moderate, light, student, retired-have different shoulder activity scores, as stratified by gender? (3) Is type of sports participation (contact or overhead) associated with income level, employment type, race, or household size? A survey collected the Brophy and Marx shoulder activity score and demographic information, such as age, gender, race, income, type of employment, and household size from 1625 individuals 18 years and older with no current or previous shoulder pain or injury who are members of a research panel matched to the United States population by age, gender, household income and size, race/ethnicity, and geography. Men and women were analyzed separately. Activity level was controlled for age. Shoulder activity correlated with income level among men (R = 0.03; p < 0.001) and women (R = 0.06; p = 0.0002). For men, heavy employment had the highest Shoulder Activity Scale (SAS) level (12.1 ± 4.9), which was more than SAS levels in sedentary (9.1 ± 4.5; mean difference, 3.0; 95% CI, 2.5-3.6; p = 0.001), student (8.8 ± 5.1; mean difference, 3.3; 95% CI, 3.0-3.7; p = 0.007), retired (8.0 ± 4.6; mean difference, 4.1; 95% CI, 3.6-4.7; p = 0.0001), and not working (7.5 ± 5.3; mean difference, 4.6; 95% CI, 4.6-4.6; p < 0.001) categories; similarly, for women, heavy employment had the highest SAS level (12.0 ± 5.8). However, as there were few women working in heavy labor, the only significant difference in women was between moderate employment (8.8 ± 4.2) and sedentary employment (7.0 ± 4.1; mean difference, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.6-1.9; p = 0.0015). Participation in contact (19.9% vs 12.0%; p = 0.006) and overhead sports (25.2% vs 14.2%; p < 0.001) was greater among males with higher incomes.",
"To compare the risk, circumstances, consequences and causes of prospectively recorded falls between people with multiple sclerosis (PwMS) and healthy controls of similar age and gender. 58 PwMS and 58 healthy controls, who are community-dwelling, were recruited in this 6-month prospective cohort study. 90% of PwMS and 84% of healthy controls completed the study. Participants counted falls prospectively using fall calendars and noted fall location, fall-related injuries, and the cause of the falls. Kaplan Meier survival analysis and log-rank tests were performed to compare the distributions of survival without falling between PwMS and healthy controls. 40.8% of controls and 71.2% of PwMS fell at least once. 48.1% of PwMS and 18.4% of healthy controls fell at least twice. 42.3% of PwMS and 20.4% of health controls sustained a fall-related injury. After adjusting for age and gender, the time to first fall (HR: 1.87, p = 0.033) and the time to recurrent falls (HR: 2.87, p = 0.0082) were significantly different between PwMS and healthy controls. PwMS reported an almost equal number of falls inside and outside, 86% of the falls in healthy controls were outside. Healthy controls were more likely to fall due to slipping on a slippery surface (39.5% vs 10.4%). PwMS more often attributed falls to distraction (31% vs 7%) and uniquely attributed falls to fatigue or heat.",
"Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injuries often occur in women during cutting maneuvers to evade a defensive player. Gender differences in knee kinematics have been observed, but it is not known to what extent these are linked to abnormal neuromuscular control elsewhere in the kinetic chain. Responses to defense players, which may be gender-dependent, have not been included in previous studies. This study determined the effects of gender and defense player on entire lower extremity biomechanics during sidestepping. Eight male and eight female subjects performed sidestep cuts with and without a static defensive opponent while 3D motion and ground reaction force data were recorded. Peak values of eight selected motion and force variables were, as well as their between-trial variabilities, submitted to a two-way (defense x gender) ANOVA. A Bonferroni-corrected alpha level of 0.003 denoted statistical significance. Females had less hip and knee flexion, hip and knee internal rotation, and hip abduction. Females had higher knee valgus and foot pronation angles, and increased variability in knee valgus and internal rotation. Increased medial ground reaction forces and flexion and abduction in the hip and knee occurred with the defensive player for both genders.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare body mass index (BMI) and abdominal circumference (AC) in discriminating individual musculoskeletal injury risk within a large population. We also sought to determine whether age or sex modulates the interaction between body habitus and injury risk. We conducted a retrospective cohort study involving 67,904 US Air Force personnel from 2005 to 2011. Subjects were stratified by age, sex, BMI, adjusted BMI, and AC. New musculoskeletal injuries were recorded relative to body habitus and time elapsed from the start of study. Cox proportional hazards regression revealed increased HR for musculoskeletal injury in those with high-risk AC (males, >39 inches; females, >36 inches) compared with HR in those with low-risk AC (males, ≤35 inches; females, ≤32 inches) in all age categories (18-24 yr: HR = 1.567, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.327-1.849; 25-34 yr: HR = 2.089, 95% CI = 1.968-2.218; ≥35 yr: HR = 1.785, 95% CI = 1.651-1.929). HR for obese (BMI, ≥30 kg·m) compared with that for normal individuals (BMI, <25 kg·m) were less elevated. Kaplan-Meier curves showed a dose-response relation in all age groups but most prominently in 25- to 34-yr-old participants. Time to injury was consistently lowest in 18- to 24-yr-old participants. Score chi-square values, indicating comparative strength of each model for injury risk estimation in our cohort, were higher for AC than those for BMI or adjusted BMI within all age groups.",
"To analyse differences between males and females in expectations about rehabilitation outcome. cross-sectional study. a general rehabilitation centre. n = 616, mean age 44 years, with chronic musculoskeletal pain, referred for multidisciplinary pain rehabilitation. All eligible patients in the period January 2005 to September 2009 were sent a questionnaire prior to or during the first two weeks of the treatment; the response was 630 out of 1105 (57%), of whom 14 patients did not give permission to use their data for research purposes. odds ratios. Odds ratios for 21 items from a list of 25 expectations were not significant, odds ratios for 3 expectations were lower than 2 and odds ratio for 1 expectation was 4.0. Male patients were more likely than female patients to expect that the treatment would enable them to cope better with being a spouse and that the cause of their pain would be found. Female patients were more likely than male patients to expect that the treatment would enable them to better accept the fact that they could no longer do what they were able to do in the past, and that they would have fewer problems with household activities.",
"The perception of pain in response to a noxious stimulus can be markedly reduced following an acute bout of exercise [exercise-induced hypoalgesia (EIH)]. Sex differences in EIH frequently occur after exercise but may be confounded by the sex differences in muscle fatigue. The purpose was to determine if sex differences in pain relief occur after an exercise protocol when muscle fatigue is similar for both young and older men and women. Pain perception of 33 men (15 young) and 31 women (19 young) was measured using a pressure pain stimulus on the left index finger before and after maximal velocity concentric contractions of knee extensors or elbow flexors (separate days). During the 2-min pressure pain test, participants verbally indicated the onset of pain (pain threshold) and reported pain intensity (0-10) every 20 s. Only women experienced an increase in pain threshold (30 ± 27 to 41 ± 32 s) following elbow flexor exercise (trial × sex: p = 0.03). Neither men nor women experienced an increase in pain threshold following knee extensor exercise, and pain ratings were unchanged after exercise with either limb (p > 0.05). The pain response to exercise was similar in young and older adults (trial × age: p > 0.05), despite older adults demonstrating greater fatigability than young adults for the elbow flexor and knee extensor exercise tasks.",
"yes. These data suggest gender-related differences in response to traumatic injury and that alterations in specific EP receptor subtypes may be involved in immune dysfunction after injury. Studies to evaluate targeted modulation of these receptor subtypes may provide further insights to gender-specific differences in the immune response after injury.",
"The aim of this study was to analyze the contribution of sex to the occurrence of falls, accounting for comorbidities and differences in physical fitness. This was a cross-sectional study of 587 community-dwelling adults who were older than 50 yrs. Falls, comorbidities (number of diseases and physical impairments), and physical fitness (body composition, lower and upper body strength and flexibility, agility, aerobic endurance, and balance) were evaluated via questionnaires, bioimpedance, and Fullerton batteries, respectively. Compared with the men, the women presented a 10% higher fall prevalence, 1.7 more diseases/impairments, 10% more body fat, 26% less lean body mass, and poorer physical capacity (P < 0.05). Multivariate logistic regression revealed that male sex (odds ratio [OR], 2.723; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.190-6.230) increased the likelihood of falling, after adjustment for comorbidities (OR, 1.213; 95% CI, 1.109-1.328), lean mass (OR, 0.958; 95% CI, 0.927-0.989), fat mass (OR, 1.053; 95% CI, 1.021-1.086), and balance (OR, 0.942; 95% CI, 0.914-0.971), which were the main risk factors of falls.",
"Pain reported for and from the lumbar and cervical spines was found to be relatively common whereas pain in the thoracic spine and pain radiating into the chest was much less common. Women were, generally, more likely to report pain than men. The prevalence estimates changed surprisingly little over age and were certainly not more common in the oldest groups, although the pain was reported as more long-lasting in the older group.",
"A trend toward young women being at greatest risk for primary and recurrent dislocation of the patella is evident in the current literature. However, a causative factor is missing, and differences in the anatomical risk factors between men and women are less defined. To identify differences between the sexes in the anatomy of lateral patellar instability. Case control study; Level of evidence, 3. Knee magnetic resonance images were collected from 100 patients treated for lateral patellar instability. Images were obtained from 157 patients without patellar instability who served as controls. Using 2-way analyses of variance, the influence of patellar dislocation, gender, and their interaction were analyzed with regard to sulcus angle, trochlear depth, trochlear asymmetry, patellar height, and the tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance. Mechanisms of injury of first-time dislocations were divided into high-risk, low-risk, and no-risk pivoting activities and direct hits. For all response variables, a significant effect was observed for the incidence of patellar dislocation (all P < .01). In addition, sulcus angle, trochlear asymmetry, and trochlear depth depended significantly on gender (all P < .01) but patellar height did not (P = .13). A significant interaction between patellar dislocation and gender was observed for the TT-TG distance (P = .02). The mean difference in TT-TG distance between study and control groups was 4.1 mm for women (P < .01) and 1.6 mm for men (P = .05). Low-risk and no-risk pivoting injuries were most common in women, whereas first-time dislocations in men occurred mostly during high-risk pivoting activities (P < .01).",
"Insomnia is the most commonly reported sleep disorder, characterized by trouble falling asleep, staying asleep, or waking up too early. Previous epidemiological data reveal that women are more likely than men to suffer from insomnia symptoms. We investigate the role that mental health history plays in explaining the gender disparity in insomnia symptoms. Using logistic regression, we analyze National Health and Nutritional Examination Survey (NHANES) III interview and laboratory data, merged with data on sociodemographic characteristics of the residential census tract of respondents. Our sample includes 5469 young adults (ages 20-39) from 1429 census tracts. Consistent with previous research, we find that women are more likely to report insomnia symptoms compared to men (16.7% vs. 9.2%). However, in contrast to previous work, we show that the difference between women's and men's odds of insomnia becomes statistically insignificant after adjusting for history of mental health conditions (OR=1.08, p>.05).",
"yes. The findings of the present study suggest that, in some instances, different ethnic groups and genders may use the same descriptors to report different levels of pain. In the context of clinical pain assessment, it may be important to consider the possibility that descriptions of painful sensations reflect, in part, demographic characteristics.",
"Trauma has been considered an important factor of temporomandibular dysfunction (TMD) etiology. The aim of the present study was to compare the frequency of TMDs in various mandibular fractures. This was a retrospective cohort study. Mandibular fractures were subcategorized into 3 groups: group 1 had a unilateral condylar fracture, group 2 had a unilateral condylar fracture with a fracture of the contralateral body or angle of the mandible, and group 3 had a unilateral fracture of the body or angle of the mandible. TMD signs (click, pain) and maximum mouth opening (MMO) were the outcomes of the study, and fracture pattern was considered a predictor factor. Age, gender, and fixation methods were study variables. A χ(2) test was applied to compare TMD signs among groups. One-way analysis of variance was applied to compare MMO and age among groups. Ninety-nine patients in the 3 groups were examined for TMD signs. Results showed that 54.54% of patients in group 1, 69.69% of patients in group 2, and 24.24% of patients in group 3 had click in the temporomandibular joint (TMJ; unilaterally or bilaterally). Analysis of the data showed a significant difference among groups (P<.05). According to the results, 24.24% of patients in group 1, 73.91% of patients in group 2, and 12.12% of patients in group 3 had pain at the TMJ (unilaterally or bilaterally). There was a significant difference among groups for pain (P<.05). Analysis of the data did not show any difference for MMO among groups (P>.05).",
"High-resolution ultrasound is increasingly used in the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome; yet little is known about gender differences in clinical presentation and ultrasound findings. In this high-resolution ultrasound-based retrospective study in 170 cases, we assessed gender influence in CTS in terms of the severity of neural alterations by wrist-to-forearm ratio (WFR), epineural thickening, loss of fascicular anatomy, as well as classical signs and symptoms. The control group consisted of 42 wrists. Women present with a greater WFR at first admission are affected more often bilaterally, and report less subjective pain intensity, while men report fewer nightly pain episodes at higher WFR. Loss of fascicular anatomy is three times more frequent in women. An increase in epineural thickness, loss of fascicular anatomy, and involvement of more than 1.5 fingers correlate significantly with WFR regardless of sex.",
"To assess the impact of mechanical exposure and work related psychosocial factors on shoulder and neck pain. A prospective cohort study. 4919 randomly chosen, vocationally active men and women ages 45-65 residing in a Swedish city. Neck and shoulder pain were determined by the standardised Nordic questionnaire. Mechanical exposure was assessed by an index based on 11 items designed and evaluated for shoulder and neck disorders. Work related psychosocial factors were measured by the Karasek and Theorell demand-control instrument. High mechanical exposure was associated with heightened risk for shoulder and neck pain among men and women during follow up. Age adjusted odds ratios (OR) were 2.17 (95% confidence intervals (CI): 1.65, 2.85) and 1.59 (95% CI: 1.22, 2.06), respectively. In women, job strain (high psychological job demands and low job decision latitude) correlated with heightened risk (OR = 1.73, 95% CI: 1.29, 2.31). These risk estimates remained statistically significant when controlled for high mechanical exposure regarding job strain (and vice versa), and for sociodemographic factors. Testing for effect modification between high mechanical exposure and job strain showed them acting synergistically only in women.",
"Several studies have shown that knee OA is associated with obesity, physical stress at work, traumatic knee injuries, heredity and female gender. However, the body of such evidence comes from cross-sectional or case-control studies, and from only a few follow-up studies, mostly of short duration. Based on the nationwide Mini-Finland Health Survey, we analysed the potential risk factors for prediction of incident knee OA in the long term. Focused on major health problems, the survey was carried out in 1978-80 in a sample of 8000 subjects, representative of the Finnish population aged > or =30 years. Altogether 823 subjects free from knee OA at the baseline were re-examined in 2000-01, and after the intervening 22 years 94 new cases of knee OA were found. Knee OA was diagnosed on both occasions by physicians using information on disease histories, symptoms and standardized clinical examinations. The risk of developing knee OA was strongly associated with BMI (kg/m(2)); adjusted for age and gender and other covariates, and compared with the reference category (BMI < 25.0); the relative odds ratios (ORs) with 95% CIs were 1.7 (95% CI 1.0, 2.8) and 7.0 (95% CI 3.5, 14.10) for subjects with BMIs 25.0-29.9 and > or =30.0, respectively. Similarly, the adjusted OR for the heaviest category of physical stress at work was 18.3 (95% CI 4.2, 79.4) compared with the lightest category, and 5.1 (95% CI 1.4, 19.0) for permanent complaints due to past knee injury.",
"Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is generally described as being more common in males, with pincer-type FAI being more common in females. The purpose of this study was to determine the effect of sex on FAI subtype, clinical presentation, radiographic findings, and intraoperative findings in patients with symptomatic FAI. We compared cohorts of fifty consecutive male and fifty consecutive female patients who were undergoing surgery for symptomatic FAI. Detailed information regarding clinical presentation, radiographic findings, and intraoperative pathology was recorded prospectively and analyzed. FAI subtype was classified on the basis of clinical diagnosis and radiographic evaluation. Female patients had significantly greater disability at presentation, as measured with use of the modified Harris hip score (mHHS), the Western Ontario and McMaster Universities Osteoarthritis Index (WOMAC), the Hip Disability and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score (HOOS), and the SF-12 (12-Item Short Form Health Survey) physical function subscore (all p ≤ 0.02), despite a significantly lower UCLA (University of California at Los Angeles) activity score (p = 0.03). Female patients had greater hip motion (flexion and internal rotation and external rotation in 90° of flexion; all p ≤ 0.003) and less severe cam-type morphologies (a mean maximum alpha angle of 57.6° compared with 70.8° for males; p < 0.001). Males were significantly more likely to have advanced acetabular cartilage lesions (56% of males compared with 24% of females; p = 0.001) and larger labral tears with more posterior extension of these abnormalities (p < 0.02). Males were more likely than females to have mixed-type FAI and thus a component of pincer-type FAI (combined-type FAI) (62% of males compared with 32% of females; p = 0.003).",
"Injuries to runners are common. However, there are many potential contributing factors to injury. While lack of flexibility alone is commonly related to injury, there are clear differences in hamstring flexibility between males and females. To compare the effect of static hamstring length on sagittal plane mechanics between male and female runners. Forty subjects (30.0±6.4 years) participated and were placed in one of 4 groups: flexible males (n=10), inflexible males (n=10), flexible females (n=10), and inflexible females (n=10). All subjects were free of injury at the time of data collection. Three-dimensional kinematics and kinetics were collected while subjects ran over ground across 2 force platforms. Sagittal plane joint angles and moments were calculated at the knee and hip and compared with a 2-way (sex X flexibility) ANOVA (α=0.05). Males exhibited greater peak knee extension moment than females (M=2.80±0.47, F=2.48±0.52 Nm/kg*m, p=0.05) and inflexible runners exhibited greater peak knee extension moment than flexible runners (In=2.83±0.56, Fl=2.44±0.51 Nm/kg*m, p=0.01). For hip flexion at initial contact, a significant interaction existed (p<0.05). Flexible females (36.7±7.4º) exhibited more hip flexion than inflexible females (27.9±4.6º, p<0.01) and flexible males (30.1±9.5º, p<0.05). No differences existed for knee angle at initial contact, peak knee angle, peak hip angle, or peak hip moment.",
"To characterize the gender dimorphism after injury with specific reference to the reproductive age of the women (young,<48 yrs of age, vs. old,>52 yrs of age) in a cohort of severely injured trauma patients for which significant variation in postinjury care is minimized. Secondary data analysis of an ongoing prospective multicenter cohort study. Academic, level I trauma and intensive care unit centers. Blunt-injured adults with hemorrhagic shock. None. Separate Cox proportional hazard regression models were formulated based on all patients to evaluate the effects of gender on mortality, multiple organ failure, and nosocomial infection, after controlling for all important confounders. These models were then used to characterize the effect of gender in young and old age groups. Overall mortality, multiple organ failure, and nosocomial infection rates for the entire cohort (n = 1,036) were 20%, 40%, and 45%, respectively. Mean Injury Severity Score was 32 +/- 14 (mean +/- SD). Men (n = 680) and women (n = 356) were clinically similar except that men required higher crystalloid volumes, more often had a history of alcoholism and liver disease, and had greater ventilatory and intensive care unit requirements. Female gender was independently associated with a 43% and 23% lower risk of multiple organ failure and nosocomial infection, respectively. Gender remained an independent risk factor in young and old subgroup analysis, with the protection afforded by female gender remaining unchanged.",
"The aim of this study was to identify the relationship between general practitioner (GP) gender and prescribing practice of chronic pain drugs in older adults. Cross-sectional observational study. GPs in private practice throughout France. Two hundred and sixty GPs (80.8% male and 19.2% female) enrolled 1,379 (28.4% male and 71.6% female) noninstitutionalized patients over 65 years of age, suffering from chronic pain. A comparison of prescribing habits between male and female GPs was performed on baseline data with univariate analyses followed by multivariate analyses after taking several confounding factors into account. No significant differences were found when comparing male and female GPs' prescriptions of World Health Organization step 1, step 2, and step 3 analgesics. Male GPs were more likely than female GPs to prescribe antineuropathic pain drugs (11.3% of patients with male GPs versus 4.8% of patients with female GPs, P = 0.004) and less likely to prescribe symptomatic slow-acting drugs for osteoarthritis (SySADOA) (10.2% of male GPs' patients versus 18.8% of female GPs' patients, P = 0.0003). After adjusting for several confounding factors, male GPs were still more likely to prescribe antineuropathic pain drugs (OR 2.43, 95% CI 1.15-5.14, P = 0.02) and less likely to prescribe symptomatic slow-acting drugs (OR 0.64, 95% CI 0.42-0.97, P = 0.03).",
"To investigate the influence of assessment method (spontaneous report versus checklist) on the report of postconcussive syndrome (PCS) symptoms after mild traumatic brain injury (mTBI). Community. Thirty-six participants (58% female) with postacute self-reported mTBI (i.e., sustained 1-6 months prior to participation) and 36 age-, gender-, and ethnicity-matched controls with no history of mTBI. Cross-sectional. Spontaneous symptom report from open-ended questions and checklist endorsed symptoms from the Neurobehavioral Symptom Inventory (both measures administered online). Assessment method significantly affected individual symptom item frequencies (small to large effects), the number of symptoms reported, the total severity score, domain severity scores (i.e., somatic/sensory, cognitive, and affective symptom domains), and the number of participants who met a PCS caseness criterion (large effects; checklist > spontaneous report). The types of symptoms that were different between the groups differed for the assessment methods: Compared to controls, the nonclinical mTBI group spontaneously reported significantly greater somatic/sensory and cognitive domain severity scores, whilst no domain severity scores differed between groups when endorsed on a checklist.",
"Accumulating clinical and epidemiological evidence suggests significant gender differences in the incidence of and outcome following major infection. In a rodent model of hemorrhagic shock, investigators have shown that males manifest depressed cell-mediated immunity that is reversed by castration or pharmacologic testosterone receptor blockade. Female rats, in contrast, show enhanced immune function that is reduced to male levels by testosterone administration. This sexual dimorphism is believed responsible for the improved outcome in female mice following septic challenge. Male gender is a risk factor for major infections following severe injury. Five-year prospective cohort study ending October 1998. Urban level I regional trauma center. A total of 545 trauma patients older than 15 years with an Injury Severity Score greater than 15 and survival more than 48 hours were prospectively identified and studied. Collected data included age, injury mechanism, and Injury Severity Score. Major infections, defined as pneumonia, abdominal and pelvic abscess, wound infection requiring operative debridement, and meningitis, were tabulated. The occurrence of major infections in males and females was compared using multiple logistic regression analysis. Postinjury major infectious complications. Of the 545 patients, 135 (24.8%) were female and 410 (75.2%) were male. Major infections occurred in 219 (40.2%) patients. Logistic regression confirmed that male gender is an independent risk factor for major infections (P=.04) after controlling for age and Injury Severity Score. Males had a 58% greater risk of developing a major infection (odds ratio, 1.58; 95% confidence interval, 1.01-2.48).",
"Poor health status as a risk factor for injury has not been well elucidated. This study aims to investigate the overall risk of injury and the association between health status and risk of injury in New Zealand. We used data from the Survey of Families, Income and Employment (SoFIE) (n=18,955). The outcome measure was self-report of an injury in the past 12 months which stopped you doing your normal activities for more than 7 days. Health status variables were prior self-rated health and number of comorbid conditions. Logistic regression was used to quantify the association adjusting for confounders, overall and for men and women separately. 12% of respondents reported an injury in the past 12 months. Injury was more common in men, young people, and Maori respondents. A linear relationship between worsening health status and increasing injury risk was evident. A strong crude relationship was found of poor self-rated health and the risk of subsequent injury (OR 1.72 95%CI 1.48-2.01), and between 2 or more comorbid diseases and injury (OR 1.70 95%CI 1.47-1.96). The odds ratio was unchanged after adjustment for confounders and health status variables.",
"Gender differences in somatic scores were very small. Thus, differences in the experience and reporting of somatic symptoms would not likely explain gender differences in depression rates and symptom severity.",
"The study sought to examine the gender-specific effects of physical activity level and body mass index on recovery from persistent neck pain (PNP) among citizens of working age in Stockholm, Sweden. A population-based cohort of 1,730 subjects (18-65) with PNP answered surveys in 2002 and 2007. Prognostic factors were self-reported body mass index (BMI) and physical activity level (PAL) at baseline. Analyses were performed with odds ratios (OR) with corresponding 95 % confidence intervals (95 % CI). Women reporting higher physical activity level had higher odds of recovering from PNP than women with sedentary leisure time (OR of 1.5, 95 % CI 1.0-2.4), but no associations were found in men. No associations were found between BMI and recovery from PNP in any analyses.",
"The aim of our study was to determine the relationship between musculoskeletal disorders (MD) and physical activity levels (PAL) in individuals. 125 individuals (74 female, 51 male) aged between 20-65 participated in the study. Extended Nordic Musculoskeletal Questionnaire was used to examine MD, International Physical Activity Questionnaire was used to determine PAL. The mean age of the cases was 31.56 ± 7.09 years. It was found that individuals were 33.6% sufficiently active, 39.2% minimally active, 27.2% inactive. Body regions which were most commonly reported for experiencing pain, low back (51.2%), upper back (51.2%), neck (48.8%) at some point in their lifetime, neck (38.4%), upper back (35.2%), low back (35.2%) during the past 12 months, upper back (29.6%), neck (28.8%), low back (23.2%) in the past month, upper back (16.8%), shoulders (12.8%), neck and low back (11.2%) on the day of study. When MD during the past 12 months, in the past month, on the day of study were compared with PAL, statistically significant relation was found between knee pain and PAL (p=0.002, p=0.001, p=0.023, respectively).",
"A prospective cohort study. The aim of the study was to investigate the extent to which work-related factors contribute to the social gradient in low back pain (LBP). A social gradient in LBP is well established, but only a few studies have examined the extent to which exposure to mechanical and psychosocial work environment factors is a pathway for this gradient. A randomly drawn cohort from the general population in Norway aged 18 to 66 years was followed up for 3 years (n = 12,550, response rate at baseline = 67%). Eligible respondents were in paid work during 2006 and 2009 (n = 6819). Based on administrative register data respondents were coded into five educational levels (university/college ≥4 years was set as the reference group). Outcome of interest was self-reported moderate or severe LBP at follow-up adjusted for baseline LBP. In total, 11.2% (397 individuals) men and 14.5% (461 individual) women reported LBP at follow-up. There was a strong social gradient ranging from 16.4% (elementary) to 6.4% (university/college ≥4 years). The corresponding figures among women were 22.4% and 7.5%. Corrected for age, LBP at baseline and working hours, educational level was a significant predictor of LBP at follow-up (odds ratios 1.8-2.3 in men and 1.7-3.1 in women). Adjusting for mechanical factors reduced the gradient by 39% to 43% in men and 28% to 34% in women. Adjusting for psychosocial factors reduced the gradient by 5% to 12% in men and increased the gradient by 7% to 11% in women.",
"The Phillips Report on traumatic brain injury (TBI) in Ireland found that injury was more frequent in men and that gender differences were present in childhood. This study determined when gender differences emerge and examined the effect of gender on the mechanism of injury, injury type and severity and outcome. A national prospective, observational study was conducted over a 2-year period. All patients under 17 years of age referred to a neurosurgical service following TBI were included. Data on patient demographics, events surrounding injury, injury type and severity, patient management and outcome were collected from 'on-call' logbooks and neurosurgical admissions records. 342 patients were included. Falls were the leading cause of injury for both sexes. Boys' injuries tended to involve greater energy transfer and involved more risk-prone behaviour resulting in a higher rate of other (non-brain) injury and a higher mortality rate. Intentional injury occurred only in boys. While injury severity was similar for boys and girls, significant gender differences in injury type were present; extradural haematomas were significantly higher in boys (p=0.014) and subdural haematomas were significantly higher in girls (p=0.011). Mortality was 1.8% for girls and 4.3% for boys.",
"The purpose of this study was to describe gender differences in self-reported health-related quality-of-life (HRQoL) and to examine whether differences are explained by sociodemographic and socioeconomic status (SES) differentials between men and women. Data were from four US nationally representative surveys: US Valuation of the EuroQol EQ-5D Health States Survey (USVEQ), Medical Expenditure Panel Survey (MEPS), National Health Measurement Study (NHMS) and Joint Canada/US Survey of Health (JCUSH). Gender differences were estimated with and without adjustment for sociodemographic and SES indicators using regression within and across data sets with SF-6D, EQ-5D, HUI2, HUI3 and QWB-SA scores as outcomes. Women have lower HRQoL scores than men on all indexes prior to adjustment. Adjusting for age, race, marital status, education and income reduced but did not remove the gender differences, except with HUI3. Adjusting for marital status or income had the largest impact on estimated gender differences.",
"Less than half of health-affecting psychosocial problems are disclosed to GPs by patients with somatic reasons for encounter. Occupational stress is disclosed more often than other psychosocial problems. Female patients disclose non-occupational problems more often than male patients, especially if they know the doctor or if the doctor is a woman. Symptoms from the musculoskeletal system are the reasons for encounter most often preceding the disclosure of psychosocial problems.",
"Musculoskeletal pain conditions remain a major cause of care-seeking in general practice. Not all patients with musculoskeletal pain (MP) seek care at their general practitioner (GP), but for those who do, the GP's knowledge of what work-related factors might have influenced the patient's decision to seek care could be important in order to give more well-founded advice to our patients. The objective of this study was to elucidate the effects of workloads on care-seeking for back pain or upper extremity pain during an eighteen-month follow-up period. This is a prospective study with a baseline questionnaire and eighteen-month follow-up. Among the registered patients of 8 GPs, we identified 8,517 persons between 17 and 65 years of age, who all received the questionnaire. A total of 5,068 (59.5 %) persons answered. During the eighteen months of follow-up, we used the International Classification for Primary Care (ICPC) to identify all care-seekers with either back pain or upper extremity pain. Of these, all currently employed persons were included in our analysis, in all 4,325 persons. For analysis, we used Cox proportional hazards regression analysis. Analyses were stratified by gender. High levels of heavy lifting, defined as the upper tertile on a categorical scale, were associated with care-seeking for back pain (HR 1.90 [95 % CI: 1.14-3.15]) and upper extremity pain (HR 2.09 [95 % CI: 1.30-3.38]) among males, but not in a statistically significant way among females. Repetitive work and psychosocial factors did not have any statistically significant impact on care-seeking for neither back pain nor upper extremity pain.",
"Hormonal fluctuations are one potential reason why females might have a greater rate of noncontact ACL injury. The hamstrings are capable of limiting anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) loading. This study examined whether relationships existed between reproductive hormones (estradiol-β-17, free testosterone, and progesterone) and hamstring neuromechanical variables (hamstring musculotendinous stiffness (MTS), rate of force production (RFP), time to 50% peak torque (T50%), and electromechanical delay (EMD)) in genders combined and independently. Muscle properties of the hamstrings and reproductive hormones were evaluated in 30 subjects (15 males and 15 females) that were free from lower extremity injury and had no history of ACL injury. Females were tested 3-5 days after the onset of menses and were not using oral contraceptive. Pearson correlation coefficients were calculated for each hormone and muscle property. For genders combined, estrogen (mean = 46.0 ± 28.2 pg/mL) was negatively correlated with RFP (mean = 758.8 ± 507.6 N/kg s(-1), r = -0.43, P = 0.02) and MTS (mean = 12.8 ± 2.6 N/cm, r = -0.43, P = 0.02). Free testosterone (mean = 13.2 ± 13.0 pg/mL) was positively correlated with RFP (r = 0.56, P < 0.01) and MTS (r = 0.46, P = 0.01) but negatively correlated with T50% (mean = 114.7 ± 38.9 ms, r = -0.43, P = 0.02). When gender was considered separately, females demonstrated negative correlation between estrogen (mean = 68.0 ± 23.2 pg/mL) and MTS (mean = 11.7 ± 1.5 N/cm, r = -0.53, P = 0.05) and free testosterone (mean = 1.5 ± 0.6 pg/mL) and MTS (r = -0.52, P = 0.05). Males alone displayed no significant correlations between the selected hormones and muscle properties.",
"Several studies suggest that the gender of patients and their healthcare providers affects overall patient satisfaction. We sought to determine whether the gender of patients or providers was associated with the number of complaints filed by patients against providers. In this case-controlled study, complaints from a health maintenance organisation were analysed for gender disparity during a 12-month period. The odds ratio for patients' female gender to be associated with complaints was 3.10 (95% confidence interval 1.73-5.55, P<0.001). Women were also more likely than men to cite providers' behaviour as the cause of complaints. No significant associations were noted between the number of complaints and a complainant's age, diagnosis of chronic pain or psychiatric illness, or with the provider's gender, age or length of employment in the organisation. The heterogeneity of gender effect demonstrated in the literature suggests that this effect is likely to be unique to the different practice settings.",
"Hip pain (HP) and knee pain (KP) may specifically affect function and performance; few studies investigate the functional impact of HP or KP in the same population. Population-based sample of older individuals living in the Chianti area (Tuscany, Italy) (1998-2000); 1006 persons (564 women and 442 men) were included in this analysis; 11.9% reported HP and 22.4% reported KP in the past 4 weeks. Self-reported disability and lower extremity performance, measured by 400-m walk test and by the short physical performance battery (SPPB, including standing balance, chair raising, and 4-m walk test), were compared in participants reporting HP or KP versus those free of these conditions; the relationship of HP or KP with performance and self-reported disability was studied, adjusting for age, sex, hip or knee flexibility, muscle strength, multiple joint pain, major medical conditions, and depression. Participants reporting HP were more likely to report disability in shopping, cutting toenails, carrying a shopping bag, and using public transportation; those with KP reported more disability in cutting toenails and carrying a shopping bag. Participants reporting HP or KP had significantly lower SPPB scores. Adjusting by SPPB, pain no longer predicted self-reported disability, except for \"HP-carrying a shopping bag.\"",
"Our results suggest that the well-documented association between job stress and musculoskeletal pain is not explained entirely by an effect of stress on reporting of pain. It appears also that workers who report musculoskeletal pain are more likely to develop subsequent perceptions of stress. This may be because pain renders people less tolerant of the psychological demands of work. Another possibility is that reports of pain and stress are both manifestations of a general tendency to be aware of and complain about symptoms and difficulties.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the prevalence of work-related musculoskeletal pain (WRMSP) and depression and the quality of life (QOL) among teachers in Samsun, Turkey. Among 605~participants 99.30% (n=602) completed the survey. A face-to-face questionnaire was given to the participiants in order to evaluate the QOL (Short Form 36, SF-36), the presence of depression (Beck Depression Inventory, BDI) and the presence of pain (Visual Analogue Scale). Among the participants (n=602), 290 were women (48%) and 312 were men (52%). Three hundred sixty three (60.3%) of the participants reported that they had work-related pain. Most of the participants had WRMSP in low back (74.9%), shoulder (55.9%), neck (47.9%), back (42.7%), knee (30.9%) regions. There was a significant difference for BDI and the subscales of SF-36 test, except the emotional role limitation, mental health and energy between the participiants with WRMSP (Group 1) and the participiants without WRMSP (Group 2). BDI scores were significantly higher in the Group 1. The subscale scores of SF-36 were significantly lower in the Group 1. There was a negative correlation between SF-36 and BDI scores; indicating that teachers who have more depressive symptoms have also a lower QOL.",
"yes. Different mouse strains, and male and female rats that are exposed to identical nerve root injuries have diverse levels of tactile hypersensitivity, supporting the hypothesis that genetic factors and sex play a key role in radicular pain. Our results correlate with data compiled in identical mouse and rat strains after L5-L6 nerve ligation, suggesting that the precise nature of the injury is not relevant to the inheritance of neuropathic symptom sensitivity.",
"yes. The rate of falls in women was lower than men in this study population. The result may be affected by the lower proportion of women in the moderately disabled group compared with men. Only gender was significantly associated with the incidence of fall-related fractures in disabled elderly people.",
"This study investigated whether anxiety, fear of pain, or pain catastrophizing were predictive of pain-related outcomes after induced delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS) at the shoulder. Healthy participants (19 males and 23 females) were eligible for participation if they had (a) no history of neck or shoulder pain, (b) no sensory or motor impairments of the upper-extremity, (c) not regularly participating in upper-extremity weight training, (d) not currently or regularly taking pain medication, and (e) no history of upper-extremity surgery. Participants completed self-report measures for fear of pain, pain catastrophizing, and anxiety. Then, participants underwent a standard fatigue protocol to induce DOMS in the shoulder external rotator muscles. Participants were reassessed 24 hours after DOMS induction on clinical and evoked pressure pain reports, muscle force production, self-report of upper-extremity disability, and kinesiophobia. Stepwise regression models considered sex, anxiety, pain intensity, fear of pain, and pain catastrophizing as outcome predictors. Fear of pain alone explained 16% (P=0.008) of the variance in clinical pain and 10% (P=0.047) evoked pressure pain intensity. Clinical pain intensity alone explained 11% (P<0.031) of the variance in muscle force production. Clinical pain intensity and fear of pain explained 50% (P<0.001) of the variance in upper-extremity disability, whereas fear of pain and sex accounted for 26% (P=0.005) of the variance in kinesiophobia.",
"We hypothesized that low socioeconomic status, employer-provided health insurance, low wages, and overtime were predictors of reporting workers compensation indemnity claims. We also tested for gender and race disparities. Responses from 17,190 (person-years) Americans participating in the Panel Study of Income Dynamics, 1997-2005, were analyzed with logistic regressions. The dependent variable indicated whether the subject collected benefits from a claim. Odds ratios for men and African-Americans were relatively large and strongly significant predictors of claims; significance for Hispanics was moderate and confounded by education. Odds ratios for variables measuring education were the largest for all statistically significant covariates. Neither low wages nor employer-provided health insurance was a consistent predictor. Due to confounding from the \"not salaried\" variable, overtime was not a consistently significant predictor.",
"Recent laboratory studies have demonstrated that immune responses differ between male and female rodents, and some clinical studies have suggested gender differences regarding incidence and mortality from sepsis. The differences appear because of both deleterious testosterone and beneficial estrogen effects; clinical trials of testosterone blockage and/or estrogen administration for male subjects have been suggested. We evaluated the effect of gender on various outcomes in trauma patients. Trauma patients over a 52-month period were identified from the trauma registry. Early deaths were excluded. Outcomes included mortality, pneumonia (>or = 10 colony-forming units/mL in bronchoalveolar lavage effluent), acute respiratory distress syndrome, bacteremia, ventilator days, and intensive care unit and hospital length of stay. Patients were stratified by injury mechanism, gender, age (assuming women<or = 40 were premenopausal and those>50 were postmenopausal), and injury severity. There were 18,133 patients identified, and 544 were excluded because of early death. There were 12,756 (73%) men and 4,833 (27%) women. There were no outcome differences after penetrating injury with respect to gender and age group. There was a survival advantage for women<or = 40 in the Injury Severity Score 16 to 24 group, but these patients had statistically less severe injury. Overall, men tended to have more infectious complications, but women had lower survival in the face of infection. Logistic regression did not identify gender as an independent predictor of mortality.",
"A retrospective cohort study of Michigan workers' compensation cases involving back injuries in 1986 and 1987 with incidence and outcome data. To determine claim rates by age, gender, and industry or occupation for compensable back injuries and to investigate the relation between occupation and return to work. The cohort of 24,094 Michigan workers' compensation cases from 1986 and 1987 in which claimants were compensated for back injuries was reviewed. Compensation eligibility requires more than 7 days' disability after injury. Claim rates for back injuries by age, gender, and industry or occupation using employment data interpolated from 1980 and 1990 Census 1% Public Use Microdata Samples. Cox proportional hazards analysis was performed for return to work in the first 8 weeks after injury, with occupation coded at the three-digit level. All-age claim rates for Michigan compensable back injuries by occupation ranged between 0.03% and 1.7% annually (0.39% for all cases) and were generally higher in women in white collar occupations and in men in blue collar occupations. The claim rate peaked in men in the 25-34 year range, with the highest rates in manual labor occupations. The peak claim rates by age were less marked in women, tending to occur broadly throughout the 25-44-year range. Similar all-age values were recorded by industry. The male-to-female risk ratio over all occupations does not vary by age and is approximately 1.4:1. As the classification of occupation became more detailed, large differences in risk were documented within major occupation groups. The highest risk in this study was approximately 6% annually for 25-44 year old men in driver-sales (beverage truck drivers and delivery workers). Only 7 of 40 occupation categories showed a significant relative hazard for return to work in the first 8 weeks after injury, and these were blue collar occupations with earlier return than the reference sales category. For Michigan compensable back injuries, a rough estimate of the true annual incidence of new claims is 94% of the reported claim rate.",
"yes. We found distinct, sex-dependent disease patterns in patients with symptomatic FAI. Females had more profound symptomatology and milder morphologic abnormalities, while males had a higher activity level, larger morphologic abnormalities, more common combined-type FAI morphologies, and more extensive intra-articular disease.",
"Several studies have suggested a gender difference in response to sports-related concussion (SRC). The Concussion in Sport group did not include gender as a modifying factor in SRC, concluding that the evidence at that point was equivocal. In the present study the authors endeavored to assess acute neurocognitive and symptom responses to an SRC in equivalent cohorts of male and female soccer players. The authors hypothesized that female athletes would experience greater levels of acute symptoms and neurocognitive impairment than males. Baseline symptom and neurocognitive scores were determined in 40 male and 40 female soccer players by using the Immediate Postconcussion Assessment and Cognitive Testing (ImPACT) scale prior to any SRC. After sustaining an SRC, each athlete completed postconcussion ImPACT tests and was carefully matched on a wide array of biopsychosocial variables. Baseline symptom and neurocognitive test scores were compared, and their acute symptoms and neurocognitive responses to concussive injury were assessed. Specific a priori hypotheses about differences between males and females at baseline and at postconcussion measurements of verbal and visual memory ImPACT scores were evaluated according to simple main effects of the gender variable and according to baseline-to-postconcussion main effect and interaction of 2 × 2 split-plot ANOVA. Neither the interaction nor the main effects nor the simple main effects for either ImPACT variable were found to be statistically significant. Exploratory ANOVAs applied to the remaining ImPACT variables of visualmotor speed, reaction time, impulse control, and symptom total scores revealed only a single statistically significant baseline-to-postconcussion main effect for the symptom total.",
"These data demonstrate differences in cartilage composition and gait mechanics between men and women in young healthy, middle-aged healthy, and OA cohorts. Considering the cross-sectional nature of the study, longitudinal research is needed to investigate if these differences in cartilage composition and walking mechanics are associated with a greater risk of lateral tibiofemoral or patellofemoral OA in women. Future studies should also investigate the relative risk of lateral versus medial patellofemoral cartilage degeneration risk in women compared with men.",
"yes. We have proposed the use of nonlinear model in estimating the incidence of falls with respect to the total score of the TMIG index of competence. The association of varying total score with the incidence of falls in women diverged from the linearity assumption. The gender-based difference in the association of higher-level functional capacity with the incidence of falls might be related to societal role or activity-related aspects.",
"This study investigated gender-specific interaction between effort-reward imbalance and video display unit (VDU) postural risk factors at work on the incidence of self-reported musculoskeletal symptoms in the shoulder-neck, lower back and upper limbs regions. A cohort of 2,431 VDU users - consisting of white-collar workers in three Canadian public service organizations - was assessed on postural risk factors and effort-reward imbalance at work. After a mean follow-up time of three years, the six-month incidence proportion of musculoskeletal symptoms in each body region was measured. Interaction was estimated with the attributable proportion of cases due to interaction. For women, two significant attributable proportions due to interaction between effort-reward imbalance and postural risk factors were observed in the shoulder-neck (64%) and upper limbs (57%) regions, while an interaction of 25%, although not significant, was observed in the lower back. No interaction was observed for men.",
"The relative risk of compensable back injury is generally higher for females in white collar occupations, higher for males in blue collar occupations and approximately equal in service occupations. Although the risk of back injury is related to occupation, the same occupational factors do not operate as a barrier to return to work.",
"To evaluate whether socioeconomic status is associated with risk of malpractice claims, particularly among those who have suffered medical injury. Case-control study. Fifty-one hospitals in New York State. The presence and severity of medical injury, defined as disability at the time of discharge or prolongation of the hospitalization caused by medical treatment as opposed to the disease process, were assessed through review of approximately 31,000 hospital records in New York in 1984. These sampled records were then linked to formal malpractice claims. To estimate the risk of malpractice claims by age, gender, race, insurance status, and income, we conducted a case-control study of claimant cases matched with nonclaimant controls. The cases were all those patients who filed malpractice claims referring to alleged malpractice during a sampled hospitalization. Physician reviewers had previously judged the level of disability that resulted from the medical injury. Claimants (n = 51) were each matched with five nonclaimant controls on the basis of injury. Noninjured cases were matched with noninjured controls and injured cases were matched with injured controls. We found that poor patients (odds ratio [OR], 0.2; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.03 to 0.8) and uninsured patients (OR, 0.1; 95% CI, 0.005 to 0.9) were significantly less likely to file malpractice claims, after controlling for the severity of medical injury. Among patients who suffered medical injury, the elderly (OR, 0.2; 95% CI, 0.03 to 0.9) were also less likely to file claims. Gender and race were not independently associated with risk of malpractice claims.",
"yes. Female gender was associated with improved survival rates for patients demonstrating sex hormone production (i.e. postpubescent patients) in a manner that was directly proportional to their severity of injury. No protective effect of gender was seen in the prepubescent or peripubertal age groups.",
"Gender differences in depression are usually associated with prevalence, severity, and sometimes with specific syndromes or subtypes. However, a lack of differentiation exists between these factors. To disentangle depression severity and the specific items endorsed by men and women and thus explore the presence of gender-specific subtypes. A group of 963 men and women treated for depression in the period 1993-2002 were matched on demographic characteristics. This resulted in a group of 353 men and 453 women (N = 806) on which all subsequent analyses were performed: Five instruments were used: the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D), SCL-90 subscales for depression (DEP), anxiety (ANX) and somatic complaints (SOMC), and the Quality of Life Depression Scale (QLDS). Total scores and individual-item scores were compared for men and women using ANOVA. A cluster analysis was performed on the three SCL-90 subscales. The distribution of gender over the clusters was tested with Pearson Chi-square. No gender differences were found in depression severity on the HAM-D. Women reported more symptoms on the DEP and the SOMC (p<0.01). No gender differences were found on the QLDS. Of the SOMC items, 58% differentiated between men and women, whereas 31% of the DEP items and 30% of the ANX items detected gender differences. Using cluster analysis, a five-cluster solution was found with good face validity and reliability. Men and women were distributed differently over the five clusters such that women were overrepresented in those clusters in which the SOMC was high, while men were overrepresented in clusters in which SOMC was low (p<0.01).",
"yes. Even though demographic variables, injury characteristics and burn care interventions were similar across genders, following burn injury female patients reported greater impairments in generic and burn-specific HRQoL along with psychological morbidity, when compared to male patients. Urgent clinical and research attention utilising an evidence-based research framework, which incorporates the use of larger sample sizes, the use of validated instruments to measure appropriate outcomes, and a commitment to monitoring long-term care, can only improve burn-care.",
"To examine potential gender bias in recommendations of further examination and rehabilitation in primary care for patients with chronic musculoskeletal pain after an interdisciplinary team assessment. The population consisted of consecutive patients (n = 589 women, 262 men) referred during a 3-year period from primary healthcare for assessment by interdisciplinary teams at a pain specialist rehabilitation clinic. Patient data were collected from the Swedish Quality Registry for Pain Rehabilitation. The outcome was defined as the examination or rehabilitation that was specified in the patient's record. Men had a significantly higher likelihood than women of being recommended physiotherapy and radiological examination, and the gender difference was not explained by confounding variables and covariates (age, marital status, ethnicity, education, working status, pain severity, pain interference, pain sites, anxiety and depression). There was no significant gender difference in recommendations to treatment by specialist physician, occupational therapist, psychologist or social worker.",
"While low back pain (LBP) and neck pain (NP) have been extensively studied, knowledge on mid back pain (MBP) is still lacking. Furthermore, pain from these three spinal areas is typically studied or reported separately and in depth understanding of pain from the entire spine and its consequences is still needed. To describe self-reported consequences of pain in the three spinal regions in relation to age and gender. This was a cross-sectional postal survey, comprising 34,902 twin individuals, representative of the general Danish adult population. The variables of interest in relation to consequences of spinal pain were: Care-seeking, reduced physical activity, sick-leave, change in work situation, and disability pension. Almost two-thirds of individuals with spinal pain did not report any consequence. Generally, consequences due to LBP were more frequently reported than those due to NP or MBP. Regardless of area of complaint, care seeking and reduced physical activities were the most commonly reported consequences, followed by sick-leave, change of work, and disability pension. There was a small mid-life peak for care-seeking and a slow general increase in reduced activities with increasing age. Increasing age was not associated with a higher reporting of sick-leave but the duration of the sick-leave increased somewhat with age. Disability pension due to spinal pain was reported exceedingly rare before the age of 50. Typically, women slightly more often than men reported some kind of consequences due to spinal pain.",
"Job related mechanical exposure in both sexes, and psychosocial factors in women, seem independently of each other to play a part for development of shoulder and neck pain in vocationally active people. The effect of psychosocial factors was more prominent in women, which could be the result of biological factors as well as gender issues. These results suggest that interventions aiming at reducing the occurrence of shoulder and neck pain should include both mechanical and psychosocial factors.",
"Sports medicine professionals commonly describe two functionally different units of the vastus medialis (VM), the VM, and the vastus medialis oblique (VMO), but the anatomical support is equivocal. The functional difference of the VMO is principle to rehabilitation programs designed to alleviate anterior knee pain, a pathology that is known to have a greater occurrence in women. The purpose of this study was to determine whether the motor units of the VM and VMO are differentially recruited and if this recruitment pattern has an effect of sex or menstrual cycle phase. Single motor unit recordings from the VM and VMO were obtained for men and women during an isometric ramp knee extension. Eleven men were tested once. Seven women were tested during five different phases of the menstrual cycle, determined by basal body temperature mapping. The recruitment threshold and the initial firing rate at recruitment were determined from 510 motor unit recordings. The initial firing rate was lower in the VMO than that in the VM in women (P < 0.001) but not in men. There was no difference in recruitment thresholds for the VM and VMO in either sex or across the menstrual cycle. There was a main effect of menstrual phase on initial firing rate, showing increases from the early follicular to late luteal phase (P = 0.003). The initial firing rate in the VMO was lower than that in the VM during ovulatory (P = 0.009) and midluteal (P = 0.009) phases.",
"Gender differences in MR imaging patterns of ACL tears exist: females are more commonly imaged in the acute stage and more commonly possess posterolateral tibial bone contusions; males have a more severe presentation than females, associated with more severe lateral femoral condyle and soft tissue injuries.",
"yes. Men have better estimated health on 3 latent dimensions of HRQoL-physical, psychosocial, and pain-comparable to gender differences on the observed MCS and PCS scores. Gender differences are partly explained by sociodemographic and SES factors, highlighting the role of socioeconomic inequalities in perpetuating gender differences in health outcomes across multiple domains. These results also emphasize the importance of accounting for measurement invariance for meaningful comparison of group differences in estimated means of self-reported measures of health.",
"After deployment-related injury, women have higher rates of arthritis, lower rates of pain disorders, and more severely rated PTSD compared with men. Women are unable to return to duty more often than men injured in combat. These results suggest some difference between men's and women's outcomes after deployment injury, important information for military and Veterans Administration providers seeking to minimize postdeployment disability.",
"Vertebral deformity is associated with back pain and disability. The aim of this analysis was to determine whether location within the spine influences the strength of association between vertebral deformity, back pain and disability. Men and women aged 50 years and over were recruited from population registers in 30 European centres. Subjects were invited for an interviewer administered questionnaire, and for lateral spinal radiographs. The questionnaire included questions about back pain, general health and functional ability. The spinal radiographs were evaluated morphometrically and vertebral deformity defined according to the McCloskey-Kanis method. 756 (11.7%) men and 885 (11. 8%) women had evidence of one or more vertebral deformities. Among women with a single deformity, after adjusting for age and centre, those with a lumbar deformity were more likely than those with a thoracic deformity to report back pain, both currently (OR=1.4; 95% CI 1.0, 2.0) and in the past year (OR=1.5; 95% CI 1.0, 2.3). No association was observed in men. Among women with two deformities, those with adjacent deformities were more likely than those with non-adjacent deformities to report poor general health (OR=2.2; 95%CI 0.9, 5.6), impaired functional ability (OR=1.9; 95%CI 0.8, 4. 7) and current back pain (OR=2.1; 95%CI 0.9, 4.9), though none of these associations were statistically significant. By contrast, among men, non-adjacent deformities were associated with impaired functional ability compared with those with adjacent deformities.",
"Clinically, females receive anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears more commonly than males. We explored whether gender differences exist in MR imaging patterns of ACL tears. At 1.5 T, two observers evaluated MR examinations of 84 consecutive age-matched patients (42 males, 42 females, aged 16-39) with ACL tears, for mechanism of injury, extent and type of tear, the presence of secondary signs and associated osseous, meniscal and ligamentous injuries. The most common mechanism of injury for both females and males was the pivot shift mechanism (67 and 60%, respectively). Females were more commonly imaged in the acute stage of tear than males (98 and 67%, respectively, p=0.001) and more commonly possessed the typical posterolateral tibial bone contusion pattern (88 and 62%, respectively, p=0.0131). Males exhibited a deeper femoral notch sign (2.7 and 2.0 mm, p=0.007) and medial meniscal, lateral collateral ligament and posterior cruciate ligament injuries more commonly than females (48 and 24%, p=0.009, 30 and 7%, p=0.035, 17 and 0%, p=0.035). There was no significant difference between genders for the presence of other secondary signs and contusion patterns, associated lateral meniscal tears, presence of O'Donoghue's triad or associated medial collateral ligament injuries.",
"Studies have addressed the effect of multimodal pain rehabilitation (MMR), whereas criteria for selection are sparse. This study examines whether higher scores on musculoskeletal pain measures are associated with selection to MMR, and whether this differs across gender. A clinical population of 262 male and 589 female patients was recruited consecutively during 3 years, 2007-2010. The patients were referred from primary care to a pain rehabilitation clinic in Northern Sweden for assessment and selection to MMR. Register-based data on self-reported pain were linked to patients' records where outcome (MMR or not) was stated. We modelled odds ratios for selection to MMR by higher scores on validated pain measures (pain severity, interference with daily life, pain sites and localized pain vs. varying pain location). Covariates were age, educational level and multiple pain measures. Anxiety and depression (Hospital, Anxiety and Depression Scale) and working status were used in sensitivity tests. Higher scores of self-reported pain were not associated with selection to MMR in multivariate models. Among women, higher scores on pain severity, pain sites and varying pain location (localized pain = reference) were negatively associated with selection to MMR. After adjustment for multiple pain measures, the negative odds ratio for varying location persisted (OR = 0.59, 95% CI = 0.39-0.89).",
"Musculoskeletal pain is reported commonly; however, the extent to which pain in individual body areas reflects the severity of site-specific pathology or a more generalized propensity to feel pain is uncertain. We used a classical twin design to examine the pattern of pain reporting at different body sites among monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins to assess its heritability and to examine evidence for a common underlying propensity to report musculoskeletal pain. A well-characterized sample of female twins (TwinsUK cohort) was sent a questionnaire to determine their experience of pain in the neck and back, elbow, knee, thigh, hands or feet. The genetic contribution to pain reporting was assessed through univariate and multivariate analyses. Pain was reported with a prevalence of 17-46%, depending on the anatomical site. Univariate analysis indicated an underlying heritability for pain reporting at all sites of 28-71%. Pain reporting at different sites was modestly but uniformly correlated; a single factor accounted for 95% of the overall variance in pain reporting. The correlation for scores on this factor was 0.46 in MZ twins and 0.23 in DZ twins, corresponding to a 'pain reporting factor' heritability of 46% (95% CI 40%, 52%).",
"yes. The gender differences in knee flexion velocity, abduction angle, and muscle activation suggest that females and males possess different neuromuscular strategies to control the knee joint during dynamic landing movements. These differences as well as decreased hamstring and gastrocnemius muscle activity, due to fatigue, provide evidence for different knee joint control in females as well as in fatigued conditions.",
"The purpose of the study was to examine whether gender differences in summary health-related quality of life (HRQoL) are due to differences in specific dimensions of health, and whether they are explained by sociodemographic and socioeconomic (SES) variation. The National Health Measurement Study collected cross-sectional data on a national sample of 3648 black and white noninstitutionalized adults ages 35 to 89 years. Data included the Short Form 36-Item survey, which yielded separate Mental and Physical Component Summary scores (MCS and PCS, respectively), and five HRQoL indexes: Short Form 6 dimension, EuroQol 5 dimension, the Health Utilities Indexes Mark 2 and 3, and the Quality of Well-Being Scale Self-Administered form. Structural equation models were used to explore gender differences in physical, psychosocial, and pain latent dimensions of the 5 indexes, adjusting for sociodemographic and SES indicators. Observed MCS and PCS scores were examined in regression models to judge robustness of latent results. Men had better estimated physical and psychosocial health and less pain than women with similar trends on the MCS and PCS scores. Adjustments for marital status or income reduced gender differences more than did other indicators. Adjusting results for partial factorial invariance of HRQoL attributes supported the presence of gender differentials, but also indicated that these differences are impacted by dimensions being related to some HRQoL attributes differently by gender.",
"yes. These results suggest that there is a significant sex-related difference in human jaw-stretch reflex responses and their modulation by painful stimuli. Since one possible function of facilitated jaw-stretch reflex responses during jaw muscle pain may be to reduce jaw mobility and thus protect against further exacerbation of an existing injury, the finding of a sex-related difference in modulation of jaw-stretch reflex responses may prove to be important in clarifying why the prevalence of temporomandibular disorders is greater in women than in men.",
"The objective of this study was to determine whether there are gender differences in the effect of exposure to work-related physical and psychosocial risk factors on low back, neck, shoulder, or hand-arm symptoms and related sickness absence. Data of a prospective cohort (study on musculoskeletal disorders, absenteeism stress and health) with a follow-up period of three years were used. Questionnaires were used to assess exposure to risk factors and musculoskeletal symptoms. Sickness absence was registered continuously. Female-to-male gender ratios (GR) were calculated to determine whether there were any differences in the effect. A GR value>1.33 or<0.75 was regarded as relevant. Except for the effect of bending the wrist and the neck backwards (GR 1.52-2.55), men generally had a higher risk of symptoms (GR range 0.50-0.68) with equal exposure. For sickness absence, a GR value of>1.33 was found for twisting the upper body, working in uncomfortable postures, twisting the wrist, bending the neck backwards, and coworker and supervisor support (GR range 1.66-2.63). For driving vehicles, hand-arm vibration, squeezing, working above shoulder level or below knee level, reaching, twisting the neck, job demands, and skill discretion, the GR value was<0.75. For job satisfaction, a GR value of 0.50 was found for absence due to back symptoms, while the GR value was 1.78 for sickness absence due to neck, shoulder, or hand-arm symptoms.",
"To examine the effect of sex and socioeconomic position (SEP) on individuals' perceptions of pain and its work-relatedness. We compared self-reported pain in neck-shoulder or arm with clinical diagnoses and workers' judgments of work-relatedness with physicians' assessments based on specific criteria, between sexes and high- and low-SEP participants in the Oslo Health Study (n = 217). Clinical diagnoses were more frequent in low-SEP subjects than high-SEP subjects with pain and generally higher in women than in men. Pain attributed to work was more frequently assessed as work-related by the physicians in low-SEP subjects than high-SEP subjects and in men than in women of low SEP.",
"To assess gender differences in self-reported symptoms, psychosocial, subjective, and objective physical environments. Staff (N=173) in four university buildings were investigated by questionnaires, blood samples, and objective assessment of indoor environment (temperature, air velocity, relative humidity, CO2, and dust [PM 10]). Analyses were performed by linear and logistic regressions. Women reported health symptoms more often than did men and complained more about physical but not psychosocial factors. Men's symptoms and complaints were more specifically associated to air velocity and humidity. For both genders, symptoms were related to both strain (P=0.02) and perceived physical environments (P=0.01). Lower relative humidity in the range of 15% to 35% was associated with perception of too low temperature and dry air.",
"yes. Women are more likely to report muscle and joint pain in PPS. Greater initial motor unit involvement and lower-extremity weakness may be additional important factors for determining joint pain. Both muscle and joint pain are associated with reductions in quality of life.",
"Musculoskeletal pain at several sites (multisite pain) is more common than single-site pain. Little is known on its effects on disability pension (DP) retirement. A nationally representative sample comprised 4071 Finns in the workforce aged 30 to 63. Data (questionnaire, interview, clinical examination) were gathered in 2000-2001 and linked with national DP registers for 2000-2011. Pain during the preceding month in 18 locations was combined into four sites (neck, upper limbs, low back, lower limbs). Hazard ratios (HR) of DP were estimated by Cox regression. The HR of any DP (n = 477) was 1.6 (95% confidence interval 1.2-2.1) for one, 2.5 (1.9-3.3) for two, 3.1 (2.3-4.3) for three and 5.6 (4.0-7.8) for four pain sites, when adjusted for age and gender. When additionally adjusted for clinically assessed chronic diseases, the HRs varied from 1.4 (1.0-1.8) to 3.5 (2.5-4.9), respectively. When further adjusted for physical and psychosocial workload, education, body mass index, smoking, exercise and sleep disorders, the HRs were 1.3 (0.9-1.7), 1.6 (1.2-2.2), 1.8 (1.3-2.5) and 2.5 (1.8-3.6). The number of pain sites was especially strong in predicting DPs due to musculoskeletal diseases (HRs in the full model; 3.1 to 4.3), but it also predicted DPs due to other somatic diseases (respective HRs 1.3 to 2.3); pain in all four sites was also predictive of DPs due to mental disorders (full model HR 2.2).",
"Females have a higher risk of experiencing low back pain or injury than males. One possible reason for this might be altered reflexes since longer paraspinal reflex latencies exist in injured patients versus healthy controls. Gender differences have been reported in paraspinal reflex latency, yet findings are inconsistent. The goal here was to investigate gender differences in paraspinal reflex latency, avoiding and accounting for potentially gender-confounding experimental factors. Ten males and ten females underwent repeated trunk flexion perturbations. Paraspinal muscle activity and trunk kinematics were recorded to calculate reflex latency and maximum trunk flexion velocity. Two-way mixed model analyses of variance were used to determine the effects of gender on reflex latency and maximum trunk flexion velocity. Reflex latency was 18.7% shorter in females than in males (P=0.02) when exposed to identical trunk perturbations, and did not vary by impulse (P=0.38). However, maximum trunk flexion velocity was 35.3% faster in females than males (P=0.01) when exposed to identical trunk perturbations, and increased with impulse (P<0.01). While controlling for differences in maximum trunk flexion velocity, reflex latency was 16.4% shorter in females than males (P=0.04).",
"To evaluate whether differences exist in documentation of straight-leg raising (SLR), based on insurance coverage. Retrospective study. Managed care organization (MCO). Two hundred people with a diagnosis of lumbar radiculopathy or herniated disk were referred to an MCO for authorization of further treatment. Half were self-directed under a personal injury program (PIP) after automobile collisions, and half were covered under a managed care workmen's compensation (WC) program. Not applicable. Documentation of an SLR test, strength, sensation, and/or reflexes were eligible for the study. The results of SLR were coded as 0, 1, or 2, for absent, positive unilateral, and positive bilateral, respectively. Additional information included subject age, sex, date of injury, provider type, and presence of attorney representation A positive (unilateral, bilateral) SLR in women was 7.4 times more likely if they were covered by PIP than by WC (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.4-38.7; P=.018). For men, a positive SLR was 23.5 times more likely if they were covered by a PIP (95% CI, 2.9-189.9; P=.003). The odds of bilateral SLR (radicular pain on both sides) were even more strongly associated with type of reimbursement. For women, bilateral SLR was 105.1 times more likely if they were covered by a PIP than by WC (95% CI, 11.1-992.6; P<.001). For men, bilateral SLR was 38.9 times more likely if covered by a PIP (95% CI, 11.3-133.6; P<.001).",
"Civilian trauma literature suggests sexual dimorphism in outcomes after trauma. Because women represent an increasing demographic among veterans, the question remains if war trauma outcomes, like civilian trauma outcomes, differ between genders.QUESTIONS/ (1) Do women service members develop different conditions resulting in long-term disability compared with men service members after injuries sustained during deployment? (2) Do women service members have more or less severe disability after deployment injury compared with men service members? (3) Are men or women more likely to return to duty after combat injury? The Department of Defense Trauma Registry was queried for women injured during deployment from 2001 to 2011. The subjects were then queried in the Physical Evaluation Board database to determine each subject's return-to-duty status and what disabling conditions and disability percentages were assigned to those who did not return to duty. Frequency of disabling conditions, disability percentages, and return-to-duty rates for 368 women were compared with a previously published cohort of 450 men service members, 378 of whom had orthopaedic injuries. Women who were unable to return to duty had a higher frequency of arthritic conditions (58% [48 of 83] of women versus 35% [133 of 378]of men, p=0.002; relative risk [RR], 1.64; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.307-2.067) and lower frequencies of general chronic pain (1% [one of 83] of women versus 19% [59 of 378]of men, p<0.001; RR, 0.08; 95% CI, 0.011-0.549) and neurogenic pain disorders (1% [one of 83] of women versus 7% [27 of 378]of men, p=0.0410; RR, 0.169; 95% CI, 0.023-1.224). Women had more severely rated posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) compared with men (38%±23% versus 19%±17%). Forty-eight percent (64 of 133) of battle-injured women were unable to return to active duty, resulting in a lower return-to-duty rate compared with men (34% [450 of 1333]; p=0.003).",
"Although women are expected to be more vulnerable to exposure to work-related risk factors, the results of this study show that, in many cases, men are more vulnerable. This study could not explain the gender difference in musculoskeletal symptoms among workers.",
"no. The independent protective effect of female gender on multiple organ failure and nosocomial infection rates remains significant in both premenopausal and postmenopausal women when compared with similarly aged men. This is contrary to previous experimental studies and the known physiologic sex hormone changes that occur after menopause in women. These results suggest that factors other than sex hormones may be responsible for gender-based differences after injury.",
"The primary objective of the present study was to examine the role of sex as a moderator of the relation between depression and activity-related pain. The study sample consisted of 83 participants (42 women, 41 men) with musculoskeletal conditions. Participants were asked to lift a series of 18 canisters that varied in weight (2.9 kg, 3.4 kg and 3.9 kg) and distance from the body. Participants were asked to rate their pain while they lifted each canister and estimate the weight of the canisters. Consistent with previous research, the relations among depression, pain intensity and disability were stronger for women than for men. ANOVA revealed that depression was associated with more intense activity-related pain in women only. For both women and men, the intensity of pain increased with each trial, although the weight of the objects lifted remained constant. Neither sex nor depression had an effect on participants' weight estimates.",
"Research on disparities in the treatment of pain has shown that minorities receive less aggressive pain management than non-minorities. While reasons include physician bias, the focus of this study was to examine whether differences in pain reporting behavior might occur when pain is reported to individuals of a different race or gender. To test whether gender and racial concordance might influence pain reporting and pain behavior in a laboratory setting.DESIGN/ By using a two (subject race)-by-two (subject gender)-by-two (experimenter race)-by two (experimenter gender) quasi-experimental design, pain was assessed in a laboratory through a standard cold pressor task administered by someone whose gender and/or race was similar or dissimilar. Subjects were 343 (156 men; 187 women) undergraduates whose ages ranged from 17 to 43 years (mean 20.27 years). Pain tolerance was assessed by total immersion time in the ice bath. Pain ratings were obtained by using Gracely scales, which rate the intensity and unpleasantness of the task. Total immersion time was shorter for both blacks and women, and both blacks and women reported higher pain intensity and unpleasantness. Racial and gender concordance did not influence pain reporting or pain tolerance, but interactions between subject race and experimenter gender, as well as subject gender and experimenter race, were revealed.",
"Studies suggest that women are at greater risk than men for sports and training injuries. This study investigated the association between gender and risk of exercise-related injuries among Army basic trainees while controlling for physical fitness and demographics. Eight hundred and sixty-one trainees were followed during their 8-week basic training course. Demographic characteristics, body composition, and physical fitness were measured at the beginning of training. Physical fitness measures were taken again at the end of training. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was used to evaluate the association between gender and risk of injury while controlling for potential confounders. Women experienced twice as many injuries as men (relative risk [RR] = 2.1, 1.78-2.5) and experienced serious time-loss injuries almost 2.5 times more often than men (RR = 2.4, 1. 92-3.05). Women entered training at significantly lower levels of physical fitness than men, but made much greater improvements in fitness over the training period.In multivariate analyses, where demographics, body composition, and initial physical fitness were controlled, female gender was no longer a significant predictor of injuries (RR = 1.14, 0.48-2.72). Physical fitness, particularly aerobic fitness, remained significant.",
"Differential risks of occupational injuries by gender have been examined across various industries. With the number of employees in healthcare rising and an overwhelming proportion of this workforce being female, it is important to address this issue in this growing sector. To determine whether compensated work-related injuries among females are higher than their male colleagues in the British Columbia healthcare sector. Incidents of occupational injury resulting in compensated days lost from work over a 1-year period for all healthcare workers were extracted from a standardized operational database and the numbers of productive hours were obtained from payroll data. Injuries were grouped into all injuries and musculoskeletal injuries (MSIs). Detailed analysis was conducted using Poisson regression modelling. A total of 42 332 employees were included in the study of whom 11% were male and 89% female. When adjusted for age, occupation, sub-sector, employment category, health region and facility, female workers had significantly higher risk of all injuries [rate ratio (95% CI) = 1.58 (1.24-2.01)] and MSIs [1.43 (1.11-1.85)]compared to their male colleagues.",
"Many studies report a higher prevalence of musculoskeletal pain in women than in men. This paper presents an overview of sex differences in musculoskeletal pain with specific attention for: different parameters for duration of musculoskeletal pain (ie, 1-y period prevalence, point prevalence, prevalence of chronic pain, and prevalence of persistent chronic pain); and (2) different anatomic pain sites. For the analyses, data from 2 general population-based prospective surveys (Dutch population-based Musculoskeletal Complaints and Consequences Cohort study and Monitoring Project on Risk Factors for Chronic Diseases-study) were used. The study population consisted of persons aged 25 to 64 years living in the Netherlands. Data on self-reported pain complaints were assessed by written questionnaires. The results of this study showed that prevalence rates of musculoskeletal pain were higher for women than for men in the Dutch general population aged 25 to 64 years on the basis of 2 population-based surveys. For musculoskeletal pain in any location, 39% of men and 45% of women reported chronic complaints. Highest female predominance was found for the hip and wrist/hand, whereas lowest and not statistically significant sex differences were found for the lower back and knee. All duration parameters of musculoskeletal pain showed a female predominance of musculoskeletal pain (1-y period prevalence, point prevalence, prevalence of chronic pain, and prevalence of persistent chronic pain). In those with persistent chronic pain, women tended to report higher severity scores.",
"Several studies have reported male-female differences in the prevalence of symptoms of work-related musculoskeletal disorders (MSD), some arising from workplace exposure differences. The objective of this paper was to compare two strategies analyzing a single dataset for the relationships between risk factors and MSD in a population-based sample with a wide range of exposures. The 1998 Québec Health and Social Survey surveyed 11 735 respondents in paid work and reported \"significant\" musculoskeletal pain in 11 body regions during the previous 12 months and a range of personal, physical, and psychosocial risk factors. Five studies concerning risk factors for four musculoskeletal outcomes were carried out on these data. Each included analyses with multiple logistic regression (MLR) performed separately for women, men, and the total study population. The results from these gender-stratified and unstratified analyses were compared. In the unstratified MLR models, gender was significantly associated with musculoskeletal pain in the neck and lower extremities, but not with low-back pain. The gender-stratified MLR models identified significant associations between each specific musculoskeletal outcome and a variety of personal characteristics and physical and psychosocial workplace exposures for each gender. Most of the associations, if present for one gender, were also found in the total population. But several risk factors present for only one gender could be detected only in a stratified analysis, whereas the unstratified analysis added little information.",
"yes. The present study shows that women have higher prevalence rates of musculoskeletal pain in most anatomic pain sites, no matter the duration of musculoskeletal pain. Future research should focus on explaining these sex differences with the ultimate goal to develop better prevention and management strategies for musculoskeletal pain in both men and women.",
"Our results indicate that the higher injury rates often found in female military trainees may be explained by gender differences in symptom reporting.",
"This study determined gender differences in voluntary reporting of lower extremity musculoskeletal injuries among U.S, Marine Corps (USMC) recruits, and it examined the association between these differences and the higher injury rates typically found among women trainees. Subjects were 176 male and 241 female enlisted USMC recruits who were followed prospectively through 11 wk (men) and 12 wk (women) of boot camp training. Reported injuries were measured by medical record reviews. Unreported injuries were determined by a questionnaire and a medical examination administered at the completion of training. Among female recruits the most commonly reported injuries were patellofemoral syndrome (10.0% of subjects), ankle sprain (9.1%), and iliotibial band syndrome (5.8%); the most common unreported injuries were patellofemoral syndrome (2.1%), metatarsalgia (1.7%), and unspecified knee pain (1.7%). Among male recruits iliotibial band syndrome (4.0% of subjects), ankle sprain (2.8%), and Achilles tendinitis/bursitis (2.8%) were the most frequently reported injuries; shin splints (4.6%), iliotibial band syndrome (4.0%), and ankle sprain (2.8%) were the most common unreported diagnoses. Female recruits were more likely to have a reported injury than male recruits (44.0% vs 25.6%, relative risk (RR) = 1.72, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.29-2.30), but they were less likely to have an unreported injury (11.6% vs 23.9%, RR = 0.49, 95% CI 0.31-0.75). When both reported and unreported injuries were measured, total injury rates were high for both sexes (53.5% women, 45.5% men, RR = 1.18, 95% CI 0.96-1.44), but the difference between the rates was not statistically significant."
] | 953 |
Minimally invasive saphenous vein harvesting: is there an improvement of the results with the endoscopic approach? | [
"In the postoperative course after conventional open removal of the greater saphenous vein, wound healing disturbances are common and often painful. Therefore the primary goal of this investigation was to prove the safety and practicability of this new less invasive technique for saphenous vein harvesting and the effect on complications and morbidity. The study comprised 103 coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patients with an endoscopic approach to harvest the saphenous vein (MIVH). We used the VasoView II system developed by Origin, and compared the intraoperative procedure time and the clinical results with 105 equivalent patients in which a conventional open technique was used. In 101 patients endoscopic vein harvesting was successful; a conversion into open technique was necessary in two patients. On average 2.6 vein segments could be harvested in the endogroup versus 2.9 segments in the opengroup. The mean procedure time was 13.2 min per segment in the endogroup compared to 12.2 min per segment in the opengroup. Relevant hematoma were found in 29 patients (27.6%) of the opengroup, whereas only nine patients (8.7%) of the endogroup revealed severe hematoma. Infection was apparent in nine patients (8.5%) after conventional vein harvesting. Two infections were found after endoscopic intervention.",
"Endoscopic saphenous vein harvesting as part of a less invasive concept in cardiac surgery is a safe and after the learning curve, fast alternative to harvest the saphenous graft. The cosmetic result is excellent and the complication rate seems to be lower. It must be noted however, that the cost effectiveness of the method has to be proved and that further histological and functional studies are needed in order to check the intimal structure of the vein."
] | [
"EVLA and concomitant US-guided foam sclerotherapy are effective, safe, and minimally invasive treatment options, yielding good cosmetic and clinical results in both isolated truncal and truncal with perforating vein insufficiency groups. However, clinical results and satisfaction of the patients were remarkably superior in cases with isolated truncal vein insufficiency compared to truncal and perforating vein insufficiency.",
"In this study, the authors introduce and evaluate the feasibility of endoscopic resection using the retroauricular approach for various benign lesions of the upper neck. A retrospective comparative analysis was performed on the clinical outcomes of patients who underwent surgery for upper neck masses as endoscopic resection using the retroauricular approach or conventional transcervical resection at the authors' center from January 2010 through August 2011. The primary outcome was the cosmetic satisfaction of the patients in each group. In addition, the feasibility of the procedure was evaluated by comparing the operation time; hospital stay; amount and duration of drainage; complications such as marginal mandibular nerve, lingual, or hypoglossal nerve palsy; paresthesia of the ear lobe; and wound problems such as hematoma and skin necrosis. Statistical analysis was performed by independent-samples t test and the Fisher exact test, and a P value less than .05 was considered statistically significant. Thirty-six patients underwent endoscopic resection (endo group; 15 men, 21 women; mean age, 38.8 ± 15.0 years) and 40 patients underwent conventional transcervical resection (conventional group; 18 men, 22 women; mean age, 45.1 ± 14.1 years). The operating time in the endo group was longer than in the conventional group (P = .003). No significant difference was observed in the overall perioperative complications between the 2 groups. Cosmetic satisfaction evaluated with a graded scale showed much better results in the endo group (P < .001).",
"Laparoendoscopic single-site surgery (LESS) and natural orifice translumenal endoscopic surgery (NOTES) are prospected as the future of minimally invasive surgery. While scarless surgery (NOTES and LESS) is gaining increasing popularity, perception of these approaches should be investigated. An anonymous questionnaire describing laparoscopy, LESS, and NOTES was given to medical staff (n=120), paramedical staff (n=100), surgical patients (n=100), and the general population (n=100). The survey participants (median age, 37 years; range, 18-81 years) were queried about their expectations for surgical treatment and their approach preference. The first concern of the survey responders was the risk of surgical complications (92%). When asked about the respective importance of surgical safety, cure, and cosmetics, cure was placed first by 74%, safety by 33%, and cosmetics by 3%. These results were not influenced by sex, age, prior surgery or endoscopy, or education. When operative risk was similar, 90% of the participants preferred a scarless approach (75% preferred LESS and 15% preferred NOTES) to laparoscopy. The scarless approach preference was significantly higher among the younger participants (age<40 years; p=0.026), whereas sex showed no influence. The LESS preference was significantly higher among patients and the general population (86%) than among medical (67%) and paramedical (70%) staffs (p<0.001). A decreasing trend of preference for LESS and NOTES was observed with increased procedural risks.",
"The face of surgery has changed over the past two decades with the introduction of laparoscopic techniques. The majority of surgical specialties now perform minimally invasive procedures hence decreasing the scarring, pain, and infection historically associated with open surgery. To further reduce the invasiveness of surgery, new surgical techniques like Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES) and Single-Port Surgery (SPS) are under development. Despite investment from the medical device industry and enthusiasm from medical professionals, we must analyse patient preferences and expectations of these novel techniques. This analysis will help us establish the demand for such techniques and guide future resource allocation. A questionnaire-based study was derived to identify whether the concepts of innovative techniques are acceptable to the general population. Their preferences between different available surgical options were recorded along with their choices for new innovative techniques. This study was carried out face-to-face and by using an online survey. It comprised four questions based upon a hypothetical scenario of an acute appendicitis. All the data were captured in a prospective database and analysed using statistical software. A total of 750 participants from variable backgrounds took part in the study. NOTES or SPS without an established safety profile was accepted by 34.3% of patients. SPS was the most popular method followed by conventional laparoscopy. Open surgery and NOTES were the least preferred (ranked 1.78, 1.98, 2.94, and 3.27, respectively). Choosing between SPS and NOTES only, 80.6% opted for SPS, 11.8% NOTES, and 5.6% declined surgery. The most popular route of access for NOTES is oral (37.7%).",
"This study compares the quality of valve replacement and repair performed through minimally invasive incisions as compared to the standard operation for aortic and mitral valve replacement. With the advent of minimally invasive laparoscopic approaches to orthopedic surgery, urology, general surgery, and thoracic surgery, it now is apparent that standard cardiac valve operations can be performed through very small incisions with similar approaches. Eighty-four patients underwent minimally invasive aortic (n = 41) and minimally invasive mitral valve repair and replacement (n = 43) between July 1996 and April 1997. Demographics, procedures, operative techniques, and postoperative morbidity and mortality were calculated, and a subset of the first 50 patients was compared to a 50-patient cohort who underwent the same operation through a conventional median sternotomy. Demographics, postoperative morbidity and mortality, patient satisfaction, and charges were compared. Of the 84 patients, there were 2 operative mortalities both in class IV aortic patients from multisystem organ failure. There was no operative mortality in the patients undergoing mitral valve replacement or repair. The operations were carried out with the same accuracy and attention to detail as with the conventional operation. There was minimal postoperative bleeding, cerebral vascular accidents, or other major morbidity. Groin cannulation complications primarily were related to atherosclerotic femoral arteries. A comparison of the minimally invasive to the conventional group, although operative time and ischemia time was higher in minimally invasive group, the requirement for erythrocytes was significantly less, patient satisfaction was significantly greater, and charges were approximately 20% less than those in the conventional group.",
"This study sought to establish the causes of failure of great saphenous vein surgery among patients in whom there was confidence that accurate saphenofemoral ligation had been carried and the great saphenous vein had been stripped at least to knee level. This was an observational study of 100 limbs (66 patients) operated on by a single surgeon 5-22 years previously (mean: 12 years). The index operation was primary in 54 limbs and for recurrence in 46 limbs. Thirty-two patients were studied having been re-referred for recurrence while 34 were recalled for review. All were examined clinically and with duplex ultrasonography, and all completed questionnaires (Aberdeen varicose vein questionnaire [AVVQ] and EQ-5D-3L). In order to measure the extent of visible recurrence, a scoring system similar to that in the venous clinical severity score was used but with a range of 0-8. There were visible varicosities in 77 of the 100 limbs. Duplex ultrasonography showed that recurrent saphenofemoral incompetence (SFI) was present in 27% of the limbs. This was judged to result from neovascularisation and was the most common source of reflux. AVVQ scores for the 27 limbs with recurrent SFI (median: 34, interquartile range [IQR]: 20-42) were higher than for the 73 with no recurrent SFI (median: 17, IQR: 11-29), which was a significant difference (Mann-Whitney U test, p<0.01). Analysing clinical scores with chi-squared tests indicated fewer visible varicosities in limbs without recurrent SFI than in those with recurrent SFI (p<0.01).",
"We sought to compare the outcomes of endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) of the great saphenous vein (GSV) to EVLA of the GSV and calf incompetent perforator veins (IPVs) in management of venous stasis ulcers (VSUs). A retrospective review of patients with active VSUs (clinical, etiology, anatomy, and pathophysiology [CEAP] classification C6) that received EVLA of the GSV or combined EVLA of the GSV and IPV between May 2005 and May 2010 was completed. Primary outcomes measured include ulcer healing and a change in the venous clinical severity score (VCSS). Secondary end points included complications, ulcer recurrence rate, and time to ulcer healing. Ninety-five patients (108 limbs) met inclusion criteria with active VSU (CEAP classification C6) before ablation. The average age was 58 years, with a male predominance (61%). Seventy-eight patients (91 limbs) were treated with EVLA of the GSV alone. Subgroup analysis revealed that 46 of 91 limbs (35 patients) had GSV reflux only (group 1) and 45 of 91 limbs (43 patients) had underlying IPV (group 2). Seventeen patients (17 limbs) underwent combined EVLA of the GSV and IPV (group 3). VSU healing (CEAP classification C5) occurred in 21 of 46 limbs (46%) in group 1, 15 of 45 limbs (33%) in group 2, and 12 of 17 limbs (71%) in group 3. A comparison of ulcer healing between groups 1 and 2 and between groups 1 and 3 revealed no significant difference (Fisher's exact test; P = 0.285 and P = 0.095, respectively). However, there was a significant difference in ulcer healing between groups 2 and 3 (P = 0.011). Group 1 ulcers healed in an average of 14.8 weeks, group 2 ulcers in 11.2 weeks, and group 3 in 13.2 weeks (analysis of variance; P = 0.918). Postoperative complications occurred in 7 limbs (15%) in group 1, 5 limbs (11%) in group 2, and 3 (18%) limbs in group 3. Recurrence of VSU occurred in 2 limbs (4%) in group 1, 5 limbs in group 2 (11%), and in no limbs in group 3 (Fisher's exact test; P = 0.676). Mean follow-up was 16.9 weeks for group 1, 19.2 weeks for group 2, and 14.0 weeks for group 3 (P = 0.69).",
"Stripped long saphenous vein was retrieved at operation. Vein samples were cultured using direct plate inoculation and enrichment culture. Further samples were immersed in two low concentration antibiotic solutions and recultured. Smooth muscle viability was assessed after antibiotic immersion and storage by cryopreservation. High quality vein could be retrieved by vein stripping. Vein segments grew skin commensals on enrichment culture despite negative cultures with standard media plate inoculation (Chi-squared = 53.34 1 d.f. p<0.001). Low concentration antibiotic solutions sterilised processed vein. Smooth muscle cell viability was reduced by cryopreservation, Mann-Whitney p = 0.008 (control 98% S.E. 0.93 vs. cryopreserved 64% S.E. 6.58), but prior exposure to antibiotics did not compound this effect.",
"yes. Laparoscopic lymphadenectomy performed by a learning team with standardized technique is effective with adequate number of harvested nodes, in acceptable operative time and with low rate of perioperative complications.",
"The recent successful revival of the radial artery as a coronary-bypass conduit has been attributed to a minimally traumatic harvesting technique without diathermy, combined with long-term oral calcium antagonist therapy. We describe a simplified technique of harvesting the radial artery, which reduces procurement time and maintains conduit relaxation. Radial arteries were harvested using diathermy and topical glyceryl trinitrate-verapamil dilator solution. Postoperatively, intravenous glyceryl trinitrate, but no calcium antagonist was used. The clinical results in the first 100 consecutive patients receiving radial artery grafts (RA group), procured using this technique, were compared with a group of 100 patients receiving saphenous vein conduits (SV group) immediately prior to the introduction of the radial artery at our institution. There were no demographic differences between the two groups, other than the SV group being slightly older. There was one intraoperative death in each group. There was no difference in the rate of peri-operative myocardial infarction or length of stay in the intensive care unit. At a median follow-up time of 16 months for the RA group, and 25 months for the SV group, the survival rates were 97 and 94%, respectively. All survivors were in the New York Heart Association class I. In the SV group, two postoperative angioplasties were performed.",
"Twenty-five years ago, the senior author showed a 55% postoperative ulcer recurrence rate after open perforator ligation. Those data contributed to a nihilistic attitude toward incompetent perforating veins. Conversely, since the introduction of subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS), we have undertaken ablation of superficial and perforator reflux as initial treatment in patients with ulcers (C6) or healed ulcers (C5). This report outlines our long-term results. Between December 1994 and November 1999, SEPS was performed on 51 limbs in 45 patients with C5/C6 disease. Sixteen limbs underwent SEPS alone, and 35 had additional surgery on the greater saphenous vein (GSV), the lesser saphenous vein, or the tributary varicies. Data were collected according to the reporting standards in venous disease. Preoperative duplex scan of deep, superficial, and perforating veins was performed. Data were analyzed with Kaplan-Meier method, Mantel-Cox log-rank test, or t test. Of the 51 limbs that underwent SEPS, the GSV was stripped in 28. Twenty-nine were C6, and 22 were C5. Etiology was primary (Ep) in 25 limbs and secondary (Es) in 26 limbs. All limbs had duplex scan evidence of perforator incompetence (Ap), and deep insufficiency (A(D)) was seen in 39 cases (76%). Reflux predominated (P(R)). The clinical follow-up period was 0 to 82 months (median, 38 months). Venous disability scores improved from 9.8 before surgery to 4.2 at last follow-up (P<.05). Kaplan-Meier analysis showed 74% healing at 6 months. The presence of an ulcer more than 2 cm in diameter, secondary etiology, and SEPS without concomitant GSV stripping were associated (P<.05) with delayed healing. Among patients in whom ulcers healed or who were seen with healed ulcers, the 5-year ulcer recurrence rate was 13%. Lesser saphenous vein reflux was the only factor that correlated with increased ulcer recurrence. Deep system reflux as measured with duplex scan valve closure times did not correlate with the rate of ulcer healing or recurrence.",
"The primary objective was observing transferability of minimally invasive surgical skills between virtual reality simulators for laparoscopy and arthroscopy. Secondary objectives were to assess face validity and acceptability. Prospective single-blinded crossover randomized controlled trial. MSk Laboratory, Imperial College London. Student doctors naïve to simulation and minimally invasive techniques. A total of 72 medical students were randomized into 4 groups (2 control groups and 2 training groups), and tested on haptic virtual reality simulators. Group 1 (control; n = 16) performed a partial laparoscopic cholecystectomy and Group 2 (control; n = 16) performed a diagnostic knee arthroscopy. Both groups then repeated the same task a week later. Group 3 (training; n = 20) completed a partial laparoscopic cholecystectomy, followed by an arthroscopic training program, and repeated the laparoscopic cholecystectomy a week later. Group 4 (training; n = 20) performed a diagnostic knee arthroscopy, followed by a laparoscopic training program, and then repeated the initial arthroscopic test a week later. The time taken, instrument path length, and speed were recorded for each participant and analyzed. Time taken for task: All 4 cohorts were significantly quicker on their second attempt but the 2 training groups outperformed the 2 control groups, with the laparoscopy-trained group improving the most (p<0.05). Economy of movement: All cohorts had a significant improvement in left hand path length (p<0.01) but there was no difference for right hand path length. Left hand speed: Only the 2 training groups showed significant improvement with the laparoscopy-trained group improving the most (p<0.05). Right hand speed: All cohorts improved significantly with the laparoscopy-trained group improving the most (p<0.05). Face validity and acceptability were established for both simulators.",
"no. Adjunctive manual thrombus aspiration fails to reduce the filter no reflow, and probably has no additional benefit in saphenous vein graft lesions already protected by FilterWire EX/EZ.",
"Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) with a two-port system utilizing screw-type ports, CO2 insufflation and an ultrasonic coagulation system, is a useful procedure that does not require burdensome apparatus and techniques. SEPS was accepted as a national advanced medical system by the Japanese Ministry of Health, Labor and Welfare in May 2009. Forty-one limbs of 35 patients with 10 active ulcers (C6) and 2 healed ulcers (C5) were treated by SEPS between February 2010 and December 2011. Thirty-three limbs had concomitant superficial vein surgery. SEPS alone was performed on 8 limbs, in 6 of which the superficial veins had already been ablated. In 2 limbs, incompetent perforating veins (IPVs) existed under the affected skin, around the scars of past surgery. All stasis ulcers of the 10 C6 limbs healed between 1 week and 14 months after SEPS (mean 2.9 months), with no ulcer recurrence during the follow-up period (2 to 24 months). IPVs under the scars were easily and safely interrupted by SEPS.",
"Thoracoscopic resection of indeterminate pulmonary nodules is most commonly performed through three trocars using an endoscopic stapler. We assessed the safety, feasibility, and results of laser resection via minimal access under only local anesthesia. Between September 2009 and June 2010, excision of subpleural nodules using laser application under only local anesthesia was performed in 28 patients (Laser group). A 2-mm trocar (minigrasper) and an 11-mm trocar (operating scope) were used. Anesthesia time, surgery time, global operating room time, chest tube time, piritramid dose, and hospital stay were assessed and compared with data from a patient group (n = 28) that required nodule resection through three trocars using an endoscopic stapler under general anesthesia (Control group). There was no mortality or major morbidity. There was no difference in technical feasibility between the groups. Two patients in the Laser group and one patient in the Control group required conversion to thoracotomy due to severe adhesions. The mean nodule size was 0.9 ± 0.2 cm in the Laser group and 1.0 ± 0.3 cm in the Control group (P = 0.05). Comparisons of Laser group results with Control group results showed that in the Laser group, anesthesia time (3 ± 0.7 vs. 42 ± 6.3 min, P < 0.001), global operating room time (51 ± 4.8 vs. 88 ± 10.8 min, P < 0.001), piritramid dose (65.9 ± 30.5 vs. 109.1 ± 21.9 mg, P < 0.001), and hospital stay (2.3 ± 0.9 vs. 3.2 ± 0.6 days, P < 0.001) were significantly reduced. Patients' satisfaction was high. Ninety-eight percent of patients said they would undergo this surgery again.",
"yes. Probing and warm-wash out technique will simply increase the surgical success and flow rate of draining vein.",
"Early and midterm results of endovenous laser treatment (EVLT) of the saphenous veins for the treatment of symptomatic insufficiency are promising. However, technical factors contributing to success or failure of saphenous vein EVLT have not been fully investigated. This study was performed to test the hypothesis that treatment success is related to achieving a critical threshold of energy delivery relative to the length of vein treated. Data regarding length of treated vein and total energy delivered were collected from prospectively acquired databases at two institutions. Ultrasound (US) examinations were obtained for all treated veins. Successful EVLT was defined as US-documented absence of flow in the treated vein. EVLT failure was defined by US evidence of flow at any point in the treated vein segment at any time more than 1 week after the treatment date. A two-tailed Student t test was performed for statistical analysis and the null hypothesis was rejected at a P value less than .05. One hundred eleven treated veins were followed up with US over 3-78 weeks (mean, 29.5 weeks). During this time, 85 treated veins (77.5%) remained closed. In this group of successfully treated veins, average energy delivered was 63.4 J/cm (range, 20.5-137.8 J/cm). The average energy delivered to the 26 veins (22.5%) in the failure group was 46.6 J/cm (range, 25.7-78 J/cm). This difference in delivered energy was statistically significant (P < .0001). No treatment failures were identified in patients who received doses of 80 J/cm or more.",
"yes. : Ultrasound guidance using the lesser saphenous vein as a reference point results in a more complete and longer lasting sural nerve block than does a traditional approach using surface landmarks.",
"yes. Recurrence is common after varicose vein surgery and in this study was caused principally by neovascularisation at the ligated saphenofemoral junction. Clinical recurrence is reduced by routine stripping of the long saphenous vein.",
"In patients with portal hypertension, early recurrence of esophageal varices often occurs following endoscopic variceal ligation therapy or ligation and injection-sclerotherapy combined treatment. To assess the recurrence risk following endoscopic treatment, this study investigated the association between recurrence-free time and severity of esophagogastric vascular structures before treatment as determined by endoscopic ultrasonography. Sixty-three patients with esophageal varices at high bleeding risk were treated by endoscopic variceal ligation therapy or ligation and injection-sclerotherapy combined treatment. Before the treatment, conventional endoscopy and endoscopic ultrasonography with a 20-MHz catheter probe were performed. Submucosal, perforating and adventitial veins in the esophagus and gastric cardia were examined. According to the endoscopic ultrasonography findings, the vascular structures were classified into two grades: mild and severe. The relationships between the endoscopic ultrasonography grades and variceal recurrence-free time were analyzed by the Kaplan-Meyer method. Patients with severe as opposed to mild grade perforating veins in the gastric cardia had a significantly shorter recurrence-free time (P < 0.05). Those with severe paracardial veins also had a significantly shorter recurrence-free time (P < 0.01).",
"no. Eradication of main stem saphenous reflux corrects IPV reflux in most cases in which reflux is confined to the superficial system. However, in patients with superficial reflux that persists postoperatively, or when there is coexistent deep venous reflux, saphenous surgery alone fails to correct IPVs reflux. In these circumstances, the only way of reliably correcting pathologic outward flow in medial calf perforating veins is to perform SEPS.",
"yes. Newly innovated mini-mitral valve surgical instruments and techniques facilitate both direct-vision and endoscopic-assisted approaches and accomplish a favorable surgical outcome even in the complex pathology of mitral valve insufficiency.",
"yes. Endoscopic anastomotic reduction appears technically feasible and safe and might be a minimally invasive treatment option for patients who experience intractable dumping symptoms after Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. Additional studies are needed to determine the long-term efficacy of this procedure.",
"yes. Compared with traditional resection, minimally invasive surgery is advantageous in improving both survival rates and quality of life, and is thereby worthy of clinical promotion and application.",
"yes. The absence of superficial venous drainage (complete removal of varicose veins and saphenous trunk) leads to appearance of rerecurrences in the surgery of great saphenous vein recurrences, 72.3% of the cases show still new varices at the 5-year follow-up. This poor prognosis probably suggests the presence of a nondraining superficial venous system.",
"The current knowledge of chronic venous disease in teenagers and its treatment is very limited. The aim of the study is to present our experience and the available literature data on the treatment of varicose veins in teenagers with endovenous laser ablation of the great saphenous vein. Five patients, aged 15-17 years, were qualified for surgery, based on typical signs and symptoms of chronic venous disease. Minimally invasive treatment with endovenous laser ablation of the great saphenous vein was applied. The technical success of surgery was achieved in all patients. Over a 2-year follow-up we did not observe any case of recanalisation of the great saphenous vein, recurrence of varicose veins, or serious complications, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. One patient presented with resolving of post-operative bruising, and two cases of local numbness were transient.",
"Between 28 November 2007 and 15 January 2008, 40 consecutive patients (40 legs) with an incompetent GSV were treated by EVLA. The patients were randomized in two groups. In Group A (20 patients) was used a 15-W-power laser and in Group B (20 patients) a 25-W-power laser was used. All patients were re-examined after 1, 10 and 30 days clinically and by Duplex for complications and occlusion in the treated vein segment in a standardized way. There was no significant difference concerning gender, age, C of CEAP, body mass index or diameter of the treated vein. In Group A a mean of 465 mL tumescence fluid (TF) was used and in Group B TF was of 433 mL. In Group A the mean linear endovenous energy density (LEED) was 109.7 J/cm and in Group B 132.6 J/cm. The subgroup Bsub included 16 patients of Group B with a comparable mean LEED of 115.8 J/cm. In all groups occlusion of the treated veins was achieved for all patients. The diameter of the GSV reduced at 3 cm below the sapheno-femoral junction from 1.1 to 0.6 cm, 1.0 to 0.6 cm and 0.9 to 0.6 cm respectively in the three groups. The modified CEAP clinical score improved significantly in all groups. In Group A patients have been administered analgesic tablets for a shorter period. There was also a trend to less postinterventional pain and analgesic use in Group A, but it was not significant. Ecchymosis was rare in both groups (8 in Group A, 7 in Group B).",
"yes. Our findings indicate that the use of a high vacuum leg drain after EVH for long saphenous vein is of clear therapeutic benefit in the early postoperative period. We also report that this technique may reduce antibiotic administration and general practitioner visits after patient discharge.",
"Chronic venous insufficiency and the development of venous ulceration, as a result of this condition affects quality of life. In order to avoid skin changes and allow for quick remedy, subfacial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) has been suggested and gained some popularity. The purpose of this study was to assess the healing rate of venous ulcers in patients undergoing SEPS. The SEPS procedure by using two ports was applied in 20 patients with active venous ulceration (CEAP-C6). The results were evaluated by Doppler findings, Venous Disability Score (VDS) and Venous Clinical Severity Score (VCSS) before and after the operation. Patients with prior deep vein thrombosis were excluded from this study. The ulcers healed in all patients. Significant clinical improvement according to VDS and VCSS values was obtained in all patients after the procedures. There was no mortality or any other major complication during the follow up period.",
"Minimimal access multivessel coronary artery bypass grafting with same day hospital discharge remains the ultimate goal. We evaluated the feasibility for achieving multivessel coronary bypass through minimal access. From January to July 2003, 30 patients under went off-pump minimally invasive multivessel coronary bypass. Internal mammary arteries were harvested with robotic telemanipulation with three ports. A 2-inch to 3-inch incision with soft tissue retractor was used to perform coronary anastomosis. Robotic ports were used to introduce stabilization and cardiac positioning devices. Endoscopic harvesting of radial artery was done when necessary. Twenty-three patients (77%) had anterior throracotomy approach and 7 (23%) had transabdominal approach. Average number of bypass grafts was 2.6 (range 2-4). There was no mortality in hospital or on 30-day follow-up. Twenty-nine patients (97%) were extubated on the operating table. Two patients required reoperation for bleeding and 1 of those patients needed conversion to sternotomy for additional bypass grafting. Within 24 hours of surgery 50% of patients (n = 15) were discharged, 10% (n = 3) were discharged in 24 to 36 hours, 17% (n = 5) were discharged in 36 to 48 hours, 17% (n = 5) were discharged in 48 to 72 hours, and 2 patients stayed more than 3 days in the hospital. Two patients needed readmission to hospital within 30 days; 1 for pleural effusion and 1 for wound infection.",
"To determine whether routine stripping of the long saphenous vein reduces recurrence after varicose vein surgery. Randomised controlled trial. All operations done by a consultant vascular surgeon. Two year follow-up. One hundred patients with primary long saphenous varicose veins (133 legs) were randomised. Two year follow-up in 81 patients (113 legs) with questionnaire, clinical examination and Duplex scanning. Some 89% remained satisfied with the results of their surgery, though 35% had recurrent veins on clinical examination. Recurrence was reduced from 43 to 25% in patients who had their long saphenous vein stripped (p = 0.04, chi 2). Neovascularisation (serpentine tributaries arising from the ligated saphenofemoral junction) was detected in 52% of limbs and was the commonest cause of recurrence. Most tributaries were less than 3 mm in diameter and only caused recurrence if the long saphenous vein or a major thigh vein was intact. Twelve patients had tributaries greater than 3 mm diameter and all had recurrent varicose veins.",
"We investigate the value of vein mapping for predicting the risk of endovenous heat-induced thrombosis (EHIT) after endovenous laser treatment (EVLT) and radiofrequency ablation (RFA) of the great saphenous vein (GSV). In all, 355 consecutive vein mappings were retrospectively analyzed. A generalized estimating equations approach to linear logistic regression was used to evaluate the variables. Among the 312 vein ablation of the GSV, 10 (3.2%) developed EHIT. When comparing the group of patients who developed EHIT versus no EHIT, the mean GSV diameter was 13.05 ± 5.59 mm versus 8.39 ± 3.38 mm (odds ratio [OR]: 1.25, P = .001), the presence of valvular incompetence at the saphenofemoral junction (SFJ) was 10.71% versus 0.44% (OR: 27.75, P =.001), and 3.09% in RFA versus 3.33% in EVLT (OR: 1.09, P = .89).",
"The aim of this retrospective study was to evaluate the clinical outcome of three different minimally invasive surgical techniques for left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG): Port-Access surgery (PA-CABG), minimally invasive direct CABG (MIDCAB) and off-pump totally endoscopic CABG (TECAB). Over a decade, 160 eligible patients for elective LAD bypass were referred to one of the three techniques: 48 PA-CABG, 53 MIDCAB and 59 TECAB. In MIDCAB group, Euroscore was higher and target vessel quality was worse. In TECAB group, early patency was systematically evaluated using coronary CT scan. During follow-up (mean 2.7 ± 0.1 years, cumulated 438 years) symptom-based angiography was performed. There was no conversion from off-pump to on-pump procedure or to sternotomy approach. In TECAB group, there was one hospital cardiac death (1.7%), reoperation for bleeding was higher (8.5% vs 3.7% in MIDCAB and 2% in PA-CABG) and 3-month LAD reintervention was significantly higher (10% vs 1.8% in MIDCAB and 0% in PA-CABG). There was no difference between MIDCAB and PA-CABG groups. During follow-up, symptom-based angiography (n = 12) demonstrated a good patency of LAD bypass in all groups and 4 patients underwent a no LAD reintervention. At 3 years, there was no difference in survival; 3-year angina-free survival and reintervention-free survival were significantly lower in TECAB group (TECAB, 85 ± 12%, 88 ± 8%; MIDCAB, 100%, 98 ± 5%; PA-CABG, 94 ± 8%, 100%; respectively).",
"The effect of the type of surgery on neovascularisation in the groin is unknown. The aim of the present study was to compare three different surgical techniques used for recurrent saphenofemoral incompetence in view of their effect on neovascularisation in the groin at short- and long-term follow-up after surgery. 36 consecutive patients undergoing surgery for recurrent saphenofemoral incompetence were randomised. 12 patients underwent sharp dissection with knife or scissors and excision and ligation of scar tissue using absorbable suture material; 12 had dissection with electrocoagulation and 12 dissection with ultrasound (Ultracision Harmonic Scalpel). Clinical outcome was assessed using the venous clinical severity score and venous disability score, and the saphenofemoral junction was evaluated by means of duplex sonography three months and seven years after the operation respectively. If neovascularisation was present, the maximal diameter of new refluxing veins in the groin was measured. There was no statistically significant difference between the three surgical techniques. Duplex ultrasound showed neovascularisation with an average maximal diameter (± standard error) of the newly formed refluxing vessel of respectively 2.00 (± 0.63) mm, 1.00 (± 0.45) mm and 0.50 (± 0.50) mm after three months and 4.29 (± 1.41) mm, 3.32 (± 0.90) mm and 3.00 (0.83) mm after seven years (no significant difference between groups). After seven years no reflux was detected in 8/36 patients, no varicose veins were found in 14/36 patients. The patients were less symptomatic than before our redo operation and no one needed reoperation within the seven years.",
"Liver surgery was one of the last fields to be conquered by laparoscopy, which has become safe and effective, especially for left lateral sectionectomy (LLS) and limited peripheral resections. However, major hepatectomies remain challenging. Laparoendoscopic single-site (LESS) surgery is being employed for an increasing variety of surgical sites and indications. Three patients underwent LESS hepatectomy. A 36-year-old woman had LLS for a 38-mm adenoma, an 85-year-old woman an atypical resection of segment VI for a 12-mm hepatocellular carcinoma and a 41-year-old woman an atypical right anterior resection for a 9cm symptomatic FNH. Procedures were performed transperitoneally with a single-port device, via a 20-mm or 30-mm incision. Operative times were 110min for LLS, 100min for the atypical segment VI resection and 120min for the atypical right anterior liver resection. Blood loss was less than 50ml in the first two patients and 150ml in the third. Postoperative courses were uneventful. The first two patients were discharged on postoperative day 3 and the third on postoperative day 1.",
"The most preferred method for the treatment of primary varicose veins due to greater saphenous vein (GSV) insufficiency is saphenofemoral high ligation and thigh stripping of the GSV, and ambulatory phlebectomy. Stripping is usually ended at the knee level to prevent nerve injury in the calf. However, different surgical modalities may be used depending on the surgeon's choice and experience. We present the results of complete stripping of the GSV to the ankle and ambulatory phlebectomies performed by a single surgeon. Ninety-six patients (102 limbs) who underwent standardized surgical procedure were participated in this study. Median follow-up time was 3.4 years. All complaints due to varicose veins were resolved in all extremities. Some temporary complications observed were resolved fully during follow-up. Permanent paresthesia which was the most important complication was found only in two patients (2%). No recurrence was observed.",
"To investigate the tolerance and safety of thermal ablation (TA), consisting of radiofrequency or endovenous laser (EVLA) of saphenous veins (SV) in elderly (group 1 ≥75 years), compared with a control group (group 2 <75 years). An Observational multicenter-prospective study was conducted, under the aegis of the French and Swiss Societies of Phlebology (18 centers). Ninety patients were included in group 1, 617 in group 2 (mean age 80 years and 53 years; 69% women in both groups), representing 863 SV. Mean trunk diameters were similar in both groups (small SV: 6 mm; great SV: 7 mm). In group 1, comorbidities were more frequent, particularly cardiac insufficiency, diabetes, history of thrombosis, and CEAP clinical class was significantly higher. EVLA was used in 86% of cases. Settings used were similar in both groups for each technique. Only 6% of TA was performed in an operating room for group 1 (14% group 2). Tumescent local anaesthesia (TLA) alone was used in 91% of cases in group 1 (85% group 2). The mean pain score was only 1.6 for the procedure itself (VASP 0-10; 10 max.) and 1.4 for the 10 days following the procedure. Side effects were few, but rate of paraesthesia was higher when general anaesthesia was used (11.8%) compared with TLA alone (2.2%). At three months, 100% of SV was occluded in group 1 (99.5% group 2), with high satisfaction score (9.3/10).",
"We sought to determine whether strategies to reduce procedural distal embolization and late repeat revascularization have resulted in more favorable outcomes after saphenous vein graft (SVG) angioplasty. Angioplasty of SVG lesions has been associated with frequent procedural and late cardiac events. Therefore, evolving strategies have been attempted to improve outcomes after SVG angioplasty. We compared our earlier experience (1990 to 1994) of 1,055 patients with 1,412 SVG lesions with a recent group (1995 to 1998) of 964 patients with 1,315 lesions. Baseline characteristics were similar between the groups. However, there were significantly more unfavorable lesion characteristics (older, longer and significantly more degenerated SVGs) in the recent series. Between the two periods, there was decreased use ofatheroablative devices, whereas stent use increased. The procedural success rates (96.6% vs. 96.1%) were similar. However, one-year outcome (event-free survival) was significantly improved in the more recent experience (70.7% vs. 59.1%, p<0.0001), especially late mortality (6.1% vs. 11.3%, p<0.0001). Multivariate analysis showed stent use to be the only protective variable for both periods.",
"Treatment of the SSV by endovenous laser ablation using a 1470 nm laser and a radial fibre is safe and effective. Puncturing the vein at mid-calf level causes less post-operative nerve injury without affecting the recanalisation rates.",
"The saphenous vein is commonly used for coronary artery bypass surgery but its patency is poor. Vascular damage occurs during conventional surgery. However, patency improves when the graft is harvested with minimal surgical trauma, partly due to preservation of vascular endothelial nitric oxide synthase (eNOS) and tissue sources of nitric oxide (NO), a factor possessing both dilatory and anti-proliferative properties. Apart from these grafts exhibiting an intact luminal endothelium they are harvested complete with a surrounding cushion of tissue, much of which is fat. Immunostaining for eNOS was performed on vein graft sections and reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction and Western blotting were used to identify eNOS mRNA and protein. NO synthase activity was measured using the citrulline assay. Immunohistochemistry identified eNOS staining of vein graft segments, including dense staining of the cushion of perivascular fat and associated structures surrounding the vein. eNOS protein was confirmed in both the vein and surrounding fat by Western blot analysis. Using the citrulline assay, the perivascular fat and underlying vein possessed comparable NO synthase activity.",
"Despite a learning curve in using endoscopic techniques, the total procedural time for EHV is acceptable and even shorter than open harvesting. Most of the time is gained in closure of the wound. Hematoma formation is the most common peroperative complication, but diminishes with experience. The absence of postoperative edema after EVH is striking. Despite the higher costs for disposable material, we have adopted EVH as a standard technique since patient and surgeon satisfaction have improved substantially.",
"In our experience, the endolaparoscopic approach has proved to be safe, effective, and minimally invasive and therefore superior to transvesical prostatectomy and open bladder diverticulectomy. Its only disadvantage is the longer operative time.",
"Superficial venous insufficiency is a common problem associated with varicose veins. Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) and concomitant ultrasound (US)-guided foam sclerotherapy are recent treatment methods alternative to surgery in the treatment of superficial venous insufficiency. To compare the effectiveness of EVLA and concomitant US-guided foam sclerotherapy prospectively in two different subgroups of the disease (isolated truncal vs. truncal with perforating vein insufficiency). The study was approved by the institutional review board. Fifty-five patients with symptomatic saphenous vein insufficiency and varicose veins were included in the study. Seventy-three EVLA and concomitant foam sclerotherapy were performed for 60 lower extremities. To determine the severity of the venous disease, Venous Clinical Severity Score (VCSS) and Visual Analogue Scale (VAS) were carried out before and 6 months after the treatment. Patients were followed up clinically and with Doppler ultrasonography for 6 months after the procedures. At the sixth month of the follow-up; the total occlusion rate for the saphenous veins was 98.64% (72/73), and re-canalization rate was 1.36% (1/73). The total occlusion rate for the perforating veins was 75% (18/24), re-canalization rate was 25% (6/24). There was no notable major complication. VCSS and VAS scores were decreased significantly following the treatment (p<0.05). The patients who had isolated saphenous vein insufficiency (Group I: 36/60) and those who had saphenous and perforating vein reflux (Group II: 24/60) were compared. VAS scores were more prominently decreased after the treatment in the isolated saphenous vein insufficiency group (p<0.05). VCSS were also decreased more prominently in Group I when compared to Group II.",
"yes. In saphenous vein harvest wounds, the occlusive wrap dressing technique has the potential to reduce the rate of infection by 50%. This simple and inexpensive technique is also readily applicable to the radial artery harvest site in the arm and may provide similar benefit.",
"yes. Endovenous laser ablation of the great saphenous vein in the treatment of chronic venous disease in teenagers is effective and safe. The method provides excellent cosmetic effects, very short recovery time and high levels of patient satisfaction.",
"To report the 2-year single-center results of endovenous laser treatment (EVLT) for reflux in the great saphenous vein (GSV). From January 2002 to January 2003, 85 symptomatic patients (56 women; mean age 49 years, range 27-80) underwent EVLT in 100 limbs. All patients were symptomatic, and the majority (67, 79%) had CEAP clinical class C2 venous disease. After treatment, they were monitored by clinical evaluation and duplex imaging. The initial treatment was completed in 93 limbs. Complications consisted of bruising (31%), tightness (17%), pain (14%), induration (2%), and superficial thrombophlebitis (2%). No severe complications were observed. Over a mean follow-up of 29 months (range 24-37), 3 patients died and 14 were lost to follow-up, leaving 88 (95%) and 76 (82%) limbs available for imaging surveillance at 1 and 2 years, respectively. At 3 months, treatment was anatomically successful in 84% of cases (78 complete occlusion, 7 partial occlusion, and 8 nonocclusion) and functionally successful in 89% (83 no reflux, 10 reflux). All technical failures and 73% (n=11) of the treatment failures occurred in the first half of the studied population, indicating a learning curve effect (p=0.015). Mean energy delivered per unit length was 39+/-8 J/cm (range 25-65) for successful treatment (n=78) and 30+/-10 J/cm (range 21-50) for failed treatment (n=15). No recanalization or recurrent GSV reflux after anatomically and functionally successful treatment was observed in 73 and 61 limbs at 1 and 2-year follow-up, respectively.",
"Following above-knee (AK) great saphenous vein (GSV) endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) 40% to 50% patients have residual varicosities. This randomized controlled trial (RCT) assesses whether more extensive GSV ablation enhances their resolution and influences symptom improvement. Sixty-eight limbs (65 patients) with varicosities and above and below-knee GSV reflux were randomized to Group A: AK-EVLA (n = 23); Group B: EVLA mid-calf to groin (n = 23); and Group C: AK-EVLA, concomitant below-knee GSV foam sclerotherapy (n = 22). Primary outcomes were residual varicosities requiring sclerotherapy (6 weeks), improvement in Aberdeen varicose vein severity scores (AVVSS, 12 weeks), patient satisfaction, and complication rates. EVLA ablated the treated GSV in all limbs. Sclerotherapy requirements were Group A: 14/23 (61%); Group B: 4/23 (17%); and Group C: 8/22 (36%); chi2 = 9.3 (2 df) P = .01 with P(A-B) = 0.006; P(B-C) = 0.19; P(A-C) = 0.14. AVVSS scores improved in all groups as follows: A: 14.8 (9.3-22.6) to 6.4 (3.2-9.1), (P<.001); B: 15.8 (10.2-24.5) to 2.5 (1.1-3.7), (P<.001); and C: 15.1 (9.0-23.1) to 4.1 (2.3-6.8), (P<.001) and P(A-B) = 0.011, P(A -C) = 0.042. Patient satisfaction was highest in Group B. BK-EVLA was not associated with saphenous nerve injury.",
"To examine outcomes following 1000 consecutive endovenous radiofrequency ablation (RFA) closures of saphenous veins and 500 ambulatory phlebectomy procedures for chronic venous insufficiency. Based on the outcomes in this patient cohort, we aim to determine whether concomitant or staged phlebectomy is preferred and examine the rate and optimal treatment of complications using a dedicated treatment algorithm based on our classification system for level of closure following these procedures. Between 2004 and 2012, patients with symptomatic superficial venous incompetence who underwent endovenous RFA of incompetent saphenous veins were identified as well as patients with concomitant or staged microphlebectomy. Demographics, risk factors, procedural success rate, concurrent procedures, complications, and symptom relief were recorded. One thousand radiofrequency ablations (95.5% great saphenous vein and accessory great saphenous veins, 4.5% small saphenous vein) were performed in the ambulatory setting (patients = 735, limbs = 916); 355 limbs with large (>3 mm) symptomatic incompetent tributaries underwent concomitant phlebectomy. Additionally, 145 limbs required phlebectomy at a later setting for persistent symptoms following saphenous RFA. Indications for treatment included lifestyle-limiting pain (94.8%), swelling (66%), lipodermatosclerosis (5.3%), ulceration (9.4%), and/or bleeding (1.4%). All patients (100%) underwent a follow-up ultrasound 24 to 72 hours following the procedure to assess for successful closure and to rule out deep venous thrombosis. The majority of patients (86.7%) had relief of their symptoms at a mean follow-up of 9 months. No patients developed postoperative deep venous thrombosis; however, saphenous closure extended partially into the common femoral vein wall in 18 patients (1.8%) and flush with the saphenofemoral junction in 47 (4.7%). One patient developed a pulmonary embolus despite a normal postoperative ultrasound. No other patients required hospital admission and no deaths occurred during the follow-up period.",
"The aim of this study was to compare the two different directions of tumescent solution delivery (from distal to proximal knee to the saphenofemoral junction [SFJ] or proximal to distal SFJ to the knee) in terms of differences in tumescent volume, number of punctures, and pain and comfort scores of patients. A total of 100 patients were treated with endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) under local anesthesia between August 2013 and October 2013. These 100 patients were divided into two groups. In group 1, tumescent solution was delivered in a proximal to distal direction. In group 2, the tumescent solution was delivered in a distal to proximal direction. In each group, the great saphenous vein (GSV) diameter, delivered total energy, treated GSV length, delivered tumescent volume, number of punctures, and pain and comfort scores were recorded for each patient. All patients were treated unilaterally. EVLA was performed with 100% technical success in all patients. There was no difference statistically between group 1 and group 2 according to GSV diameter, delivered total energy, and treated GSV length. Average tumescent volume, number of punctures, and pain scores in group 2 were lower than in group 1 (p = 0.0001; p<0.05). Also, the average comfort score was higher in group 2 than in group 1 (p = 0.0001; p<0.05).",
"One of the most frequent treatments for ischemic heart disease is myocardial revascularization, often applying the saphenous vein as a coronary graft. However, postoperative complications may occur, such as saphenous dehiscence. According to the literature, low-level laser therapy (LLLT) has been used in the treatment of several inflammatory processes in patients. Recently, its uses have expanded to include LLLT preventive therapy and postoperative treatment. Despite our department's successful application of LLLT in the treatment of saphenectomy incisions, many colleagues are still uncertain as to laser therapy's benefits. Therefore, the study's purpose was to evaluate tissue repair of prodromal surgical incisions after the administration of LLLT. The pilot study included 14 patients, divided into two groups. Both groups of patients received the traditional treatment; additionally, the Laser Group (n = 7) received diode laser treatment (λ = 780 nm, fluence = 19 J/cm(2), pulse = 25 mW, time = 30 sec, energy = 0.75 J, irradiance = 625 mW/cm(2), beam spot size 0.04 cm(2)), which was applied on the edges of the saphenectomy incision. The Control Group (n = 7) received conventional treatment exclusively. In the Laser Group: all seven patients showed significant improvement, whereas the Control Group had twice as many complications, including critical rates of incisional dehiscence.",
"Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) is the minimally invasive alternative to the open (Linton's) procedure. This new technique may allow perforating vein interruption with fewer complications and a shorter postoperative hospital stay. This study was a case note review of 67 procedures: 30 SEPS and 37 Linton's. There were no significant differences between the two groups in age, sex and indication for surgery. SEPS was associated with a significantly reduced postoperative stay in hospital (median 2 (range 1-49) days) compared with the Linton's procedure (median 9 (range 3-36) days) (P < 0.01). Nine patients who had Linton's procedure suffered a calf wound complication compared with none who had SEPS. The presence of an open ulcer at the time of surgery did not prolong the duration of stay in either group, nor did it increase the incidence of calf wound complications.",
"In three centers 180 great saphenous veins were treated with endovenous laser ablation (EVLA). By random selection half of the patients were treated with a 980 nm laser and half with a 1500 nm laser. A Duplex scan was scheduled at one month and six months postoperatively. Ecchymosis was measured at one week using a calculated scale. In addition the need for analgesics, the induration around the treated vein and patient satisfaction rate were noted. At two weeks postoperatively a quality of life score (CIVIQ2) was obtained. The complete occlusion rates at six months were not statistical significant different between both groups (95.5% for 980 nm and 93.1% for 1500 nm). Most of the non-occluded veins had a filiform internal lumen and did not show reflux. There was no significant difference in the postoperative appearance of ecchymosis (P=0.09). Patients treated with a 1500 laser had less induration around the treated vein (P=0.002), less need to take analgetics (1.8 days versus 2.9 days) and had a better postoperative quality of life (P=0.018). The patient satisfaction rate did not differ in the two groups.",
"The laparoscopic approach is associated with a lower venous thromboembolism rate in comparison with open surgery, despite controlling for other variables. This additional benefit of the minimally invasive approach further supports its use, whenever feasible, for a variety of colorectal conditions.",
"The beneficial role of manual thrombus aspiration in thrombus-containing lesions has been proven in acute myocardial infarction but data is lacking in saphenous vein graft lesions. From January 2004 to December 2008, 74 consecutive post-bypass patients underwent percutaneous coronary interventions to 76 saphenous vein graft lesions under the protection of FilterWire EX/EZ. Among them, the latest 25 consecutive patients with 25 lesions were treated with manual aspiration before stenting. The incidence of filter no reflow was compared between patients with and without manual aspiration pretreatment. No major difference in demography, clinical, lesion, and procedure characteristics, and in-hospital outcome has been observed between the two patient groups. Most importantly, the incidence of filter no reflow has not been reduced (32.0% versus 19.6%, P = 0.26) by manual aspiration, even among thrombus-containing lesions (63.2% versus 64.7%, P = 1.00). The absence of diabetes mellitus is found to be the independent predictor for the occurrence of filter no reflow.",
"Hemodynamic consequences of incompetent perforator vein interruption have not been well documented. The effects of perforator interruption, with or without ablation of superficial venous reflux, on venous function in patients with advanced chronic venous insufficiency was studied. Calf muscle pump function, venous incompetence, and outflow obstruction were assessed by means of strain-gauge plethysmography (SGP) before and within 6 months after subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS). SEPS was performed with laparoscopic instrumentation and CO2 insufflation. Concomitant high ligation or saphenous vein stripping was performed in 24 limbs (77%). Twenty-six patients, 18 women and 8 men, with a mean age of 50 years (range, 20 to 77 years) underwent SEPS. Preoperative evaluation confirmed superficial reflux in 65% of limbs, deep venous reflux in 77% of limbs, and perforator incompetence in 97% of limbs. All limbs had advanced venous dysfunction (C3, C4, C5, C6). All active ulcers (C6, n = 12) healed after surgery (mean, 32 +/- 3 days), and only 1 recurred during a mean follow-up period of 11 months (range, 1 to 43 months). Clinical score improved from 6.58 +/- 0.50 to 2.19 +/- 0.25 (P <.0001). Improved calf muscle pump function was demonstrated by means of postoperative SGP and was indicated by increased refill volume (RV: 0.27 +/- 0.06 vs 0.64 +/- 0.10 mL/100 mL tissue, P <.01). Venous incompetence also improved, as evidenced by prolonged duration to refill after exercise (T90: 7. 71 +/- 1.20 vs 16.71 +/- 1.98 seconds, P <.001) and a decrease in RV after passive drainage (3.23 +/- 0.19 vs 2.63 +/- 0.15 mL/100 mL tissue, P <.01). Improved refill rate (RR) correlated with improvements in clinical scores (P <.01, r = 0.77).",
"We believe that saphenofemoral junction reconstruction is a simple technique to perform and that addition of this method to the conventional stripping provides more durable results with a lesser incidence of recurrence. This method should be considered as a treatment modality in patients with greater saphenous vein reflux associated with low-grade (grades I-II) saphenofemoral junctional reflux.",
"To report the early results of endovascular in situ saphenous vein bypass (EISVB) using side branch coil occlusion. Between September 1997 and November 1998, 25 patients (15 men; mean age 70.9 years, range 53-85) with lower limb ischemia were treated with endovascular femorodistal bypass. The saphenous vein was prepared using retrograde valvulotomy and endoscopic cannulation with coil occlusion of the side branches. Duplex graft surveillance was performed at 1, 3, 6, and 12 months. The 25 EISVB procedures consisted of 15 femorodistal popliteal, 7 femorotibial, 2 femoroperoneal, and 1 femorodorsalis pedis in situ saphenous vein reconstructions. Mean operative time was 202 +/- 40 minutes, mean number of side branch coils per case was 5.1 +/- 1.3, and mean number of incisions per case was 2.9 +/- 0.6. Mean hospital length of stay (LOS) was 35 +/- 13 hours (1.4 +/- 0.6 days); 19 (76%) patients were discharged on the first postoperative day. Short-term follow-up (mean 6.2 months, range 2-15) was notable for 2 graft thromboses and 1 graft stenosis; primary and secondary patency rates were 88% and 92%, respectively. Three asymptomatic, persistent arteriovenous fistulas discovered on routine duplex were ligated in the outpatient setting. Only 1 (4%) minor wound complication was encountered.",
"To compare the long-term clinical efficacy of endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) with high ligation and stripping (HLS) as standard treatment for great saphenous vein (GSV) incompetence. Investigator initiated two centre randomized controlled trial with 5 year follow up. Interventions were performed on ambulatory and hospitalized patients at two vein centres, a university dermatology department (EVLA) and a specialized vein clinic (HLS). Four hundred patients suffering from GSV incompetence were assigned to EVLA or HLS of the GSV. One hundred and eighty five and 161 patients (=limbs), respectively, were treated per protocol. Main outcome measures were clinically recurrent varicose veins after surgery (REVAS classification, primary study objective), Duplex detected saphenofemoral recurrence, clinical venous severity scoring (Homburg Varicose Vein Severity Score), quality of life (Chronic Venous Insufficiency Questionnaire 2), side effects, and patient satisfaction 5 years after treatment. Two hundred and eighty one legs (81% of the study population) were evaluated with a median follow up of 60.4 (EVLA) and 60.7 months (HLS). Overall, REVAS was similarly observed in both groups: 45% (EVLA) and 54% (HLS), p = .152. Patients of the EVLA group showed significantly more clinical recurrences in the operated region (REVAS: same site): 18% vs. 5%, p = .002. In contrast, more different site recurrences were observed in the HLS group: 50% vs. 31%, p = .002. Duplex detected saphenofemoral refluxes occurred more frequently after EVLA: 28% vs. 5%, p < .001. Both treatments improved disease severity and quality of life without any difference.",
"Division of incompetent perforating veins has long been regarded as an appropriate approach for treatment of venous stasis ulcers. The development of endoscopic techniques using standard laparoscopic instrumentation has permitted the application of this therapy without the need for long open incisions, fraught with complications. We report our experience with 20 cases of subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) in 19 patients. Seventeen limbs had active ulceration at the time of operation. A gas insufflation technique with two 10 mm ports was used in most cases. An average of four perforating veins were divided in each case. Mean operating time was 1.5 hours. At a mean follow-up of eight months, initial complete healing occurred in 14 of 17 ulcers, three ulcers improved, and three healed ulcers at the time of SEPS have remained healed. One patient developed a small area of recurrent ulceration after initial healing. There were no thromboembolic complications. One procedure was technically unsuccessful because of morbid obesity. One patient developed a wound infection, and one patient required re-exploration for a subfascial hematoma.",
"Saphenopopliteal ligation (SPL) for venous insufficiency is a challenging procedure, with mixed results being reported. The role of stripping of the small saphenous vein (SSV) is contentious. This prospective observational study aimed to assess the risks and benefits of this procedure. Fifty patients underwent SPL under general anaesthesia by a single surgeon in a tertiary referral vascular centre. The aim was to perform inversion stripping in each case, but in a proportion this was not possible. Patients were grouped into SPL with short segment excision ≤5 cm (n = 23) and SPL with extended stripping>5 cm (n = 27). Outcome measures included venous clinical severity scores (VCSS), quality of life (QoL), Aberdeen varicose vein questionnaire (AVVQ), patient satisfaction, recurrence and complication rates. Intragroup analysis demonstrated statistically significant improvements in VCSS (P<0.001), and QoL measures (generic and disease-specific AVVQ) (P<0.050) with both treatments. Intergroup analysis demonstrated statistically significant superior VCSS scores at one year (P = 0.001), AVVQ at three months and one year (P<0.05), and cosmetic satisfaction at one year (P = 0.011) in the SPL extended stripping group. There was no difference in clinical recurrence 1/23 (4.3%) versus 1/27 (3.7%) (P = 0.900) or complication rates (P>0.050).",
"To investigate the long-term clinical outcome, averaging 8.5 years, of two saphenous vein harvesting techniques for CABG; no touch (NT) versus conventional (C). In a randomized study, 49/52 in group NT and 44/52 in group conventional were evaluated for reangina, myocardial infarction, new revascularization, functional class, risk factors and medical treatment. The vein grafts and the native coronary arteries were correlated to the occurrence of reangina. There were significantly more patients free from angina and in NYHA class I (67.3 versus 43.2%; p =0.02) in group NT compared to group C. No cardiac death was found in group NT versus three in group C. There were trends towards fewer patients with cardiac death or myocardial infarction (3.8 vs. 13.4%; p =0.16), more patients free from angina (75.5 vs. 63.6%; p =0.26) and fewer patients with graft occlusion (24.3 vs. 43.2% (p =0.14) in group NT.",
"Endoscopic radial artery harvest provides better cosmetic result without compromising the quality of the graft. We sought to compare postoperative harvesting site neurologic and vascular outcome. From 10/2002 until 10/2004, 50 patients were randomized to have their radial artery harvested for coronary bypass either endoscopically (group A, n = 25) or conventionally (group B, n = 25). Radial arteries were preoperatively evaluated by Doppler echocardiography. Neurologic and functional status was assessed by a self reporting questionnaire with a semiquantitative (1-5) scale. Vascular status of the forearm was assessed by control echocardiography. At an average follow-up of 37 +/- 7 months, patients undergoing endoscopic radial artery harvesting had less overall neurologic complications (11 versus 17 patients, P = .023) and they were less severe (0.8 +/- 1.1 versus 2.2 +/- 1.2; P < .001). Ulnar flow increase was similar among the groups: 13.1 +/- 5.43 cm/s in group A versus 15.9 +/- 4.9 cm/s in group B (P = .147) as well as ulnar artery diameter increase 0.29 +/- 0.16 mm in group A versus 0.29 +/- 0.26 cm in group B (P = .914).",
"yes. Endoscopic radial artery is safe and does not compromise graft quality or forearm and hand circulation postoperatively. Along with providing a better cosmetic result, endoscopic artery harvesting reduces postoperative harvesting site pain and neurologic complications.",
"The small saphenous vein (SSV) lies in close relationship with sural nerve and is at risk of damage during surgery or vein ablation procedures on this vein. The aim of this study was to compare the effect of puncture site for SSV endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) on the rate of post-operative sural nerve injury. Randomised controlled study. Sixty patients with isolated SSV varicose veins (68 limbs) were randomised into two groups. All patients were treated with endovenous laser ablation procedures using radial fibres and a 1470 nm diode laser. In Group 1, SSVs were canulated from lateral malleolar part of the SSV. In Group 2, SSVs were canulated in the mid-calf. EVLA procedures were performed by using 12 W energy and 70 J cm⁻¹ LEED (linear endovenous energy density). Local pain, ecchymosis, induration and paraesthesia in treated regions, vein diameter, treated vein length, tumescent anaesthesia volume, delivered energy were recorded. Follow-up visits were arranged on the 2nd post-operative day, 7th day, 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 6th months. The mean SSV diameters at sapheno-popliteal junction (SPJ) and calf levels were Group 1 SPJ: 6.6 S.D. 1.2 mm, Calf: 5.1 S.D. 1.1 mm, and Group 2 SPJ: 6.8 S.D. 1.6 mm, Calf: 4.9 S.D. 1.3 mm. Adverse events after treatment were 1 patient with induration, 3 with ecchymosis and 6 minimal paraesthesia in Group 1 (malleolar) and 1 local pain, 4 minimal ecchymosis or induration and 1 paraesthesia in Group 2 (mid-calf). In Group 1 in two patients the paraesthesia lasted 2 months and then resolved spontaneously. In the remaining four patients' paraesthesia resolved in less than 1 month without treatment. In Group 2 paraesthesia resolved spontaneously in two weeks. Induration, ecchymosis and local pain also resolved in less than 2 weeks in both groups. There was no recanalisation or reflux in the treated SSV of either group during the follow-up period.",
"To determine which patients require subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery (SEPS) in addition to saphenous surgery to correct pathologic outward flow within incompetent medial calf perforating veins (IPVs). Sixty-two limbs of 47 patients undergoing sapheno-femoral ligation, stripping of the long saphenous vein in the thigh, and multiple phlebectomies (n = 51), sapheno-popliteal ligation and multiple phlebectomies (n = 10), or both (n = 1) were examined with color flow duplex ultrasound scan immediately before and a median of 14 weeks (range, 6 to 26 weeks) after the operations. Indications for surgery were varicose veins (n = 47, Clinical, Etiologic, Anatomic, Pathophysiologic grades C2&3), skin changes (n = 5, C4), and ulceration (n = 10, C5). Surgery resulted in a significant reduction in the total number of limbs in which IPVs were imaged (40/62 or 65% preoperatively vs 23/62 or 37% postoperatively, P <.01, chi2 test), a significant reduction in the proportion of perforators imaged that were incompetent (68/130 or 52% preoperatively vs 34/120 or 28% postoperatively, P <.01, chi2 test), and a reduction in median IPV diameter (4 mm, with a range of 1 to 11 mm preoperatively, vs 3, with a range of 1 to 8 mm postoperatively, P <.01, Mann-Whitney U test). IPVs remained in 8 of 41 (20%) limbs in which main stem reflux was abolished, compared with 15 of 21 (72%) limbs in which superficial or deep reflux remained (P <.01, chi2 test).",
"yes. The majority of patients with symptomatic chronic venous insufficiency benefit from endovenous RFA of incompetent saphenous veins with comparable results to published surgical outcomes for endovenous closure. The great majority of patients with refluxing tributary veins greater than 3 mm in diameter required phlebectomy in addition to saphenous ablation. These patients may benefit from concomitant phlebectomy along with endovenous saphenous closure.",
"yes. Endoscopic and open RA harvesting techniques have equivalent and excellent midterm and long-term patency rates in CABG patients studied by angiography for recurrent symptoms of myocardial ischemia. The degree of stenosis of the target vessel strongly influences the patency rate independent of the harvesting technique.",
"yes. Endovenous ablation of the refluxing saphenous vein represents good alternative of crossectomy and stripping. Combination of both procedures is not effective and, on the contrary, can cause short and long-term complications.",
"Radial arteries are being used more often for coronary artery bypass grafting. A minimally invasive technique was devised for harvesting vessels and compared with the traditional harvesting technique. In a prospective study of 200 consecutive patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting, 100 patients had traditional open radial artery harvesting and 100 underwent endoscopic radial artery harvesting. All patients had a preoperative modified Allen's test with Doppler imaging. The traditional technique involved a longitudinal incision over the radial aspect of the arm from the wrist to the antecubital fossa. The radial artery was dissected subfascially and removed. The endoscopic technique involved a 3-cm incision over the radial aspect of the arm. A vessel loop was placed around the artery and carbon dioxide was insufflated into the wound. The radial artery was dissected to the brachial artery and ligated with an Endo-loop ligature. The branches were divided with bipolar electrocautery and ligated with clips. Patients were evaluated for postoperative pain, bleeding, neuralgias, infection, and any adverse events. A p value of less than 0.05 was considered significant. All 200 radial arteries were successfully harvested and used as grafts. Patients who had undergone endoscopic radial artery harvesting had significantly fewer major complications than patients who underwent the open technique: hematomas (five versus no complications) or wound infections requiring antibiotics (seven versus one complication). The occurrence of major neuralgias that restricted function were also significantly lower postoperatively and 1, 3, and 6 months later (ten versus one, eight versus one, five versus zero, and one versus zero, respectively).",
"Femoropopliteal bypass surgery is the most commonly performed type of peripheral bypass in vascular surgery. The great saphenous vein (GSV) is the preferred bypass conduit. Commonly used methods of GVS harvesting are related to morbidity, such as wound infection, skin necrosis, hematoma, and edema. In this feasibility study we present an \"old-new\" way of harvesting of the GSV by inversion stripping, which is significantly less invasive than conventional GSV harvesting, resulting in less morbidity. All patients recovered uneventfully and all lower limb wounds healed with conventional wound management. No excessive bruising was seen in the VSM trail nor were there any surgical wound infections.",
"A recent multicenter study reported reduced patency of aortocoronary bypass grafts when the saphenous vein was harvested by endoscopic technique compared with patency of vein grafted after harvest by the traditional \"open\" approach. Our aim was to compare the patency rates of radial artery graft (RAG) harvested endoscopically with those harvested using an open technique. Two cohorts were identified: from January 1995 to January 2000, 724 consecutive patients had one or both radial arteries harvested through an open technique, and from February 2000 to January 2008, 727 consecutive patients had endoscopic radial artery (RA) harvest. All patients who underwent symptom-indicated angiography in our institution at any time after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery were identified. Two hundred two patients had angiograms for symptoms: 90 of these patients (119 RAG) had open RA harvest and were studied 78.3 ± 40 months (range, 1-156 months) after CABG. The other 112 patients (148 RAG) had endoscopic RA harvest and underwent angiography 36 ± 24 months (range, 1-96 months) after CABG. The two groups had identical demographics and risk profiles. Overall patency of the \"open\" RAG was 78.9% versus 83.7% for the endoscopic group (P = 0.3). Patency increased to 90% in both groups when the RAG was anastomosed to a native coronary vessel with stenosis >80%.",
"The value of newly developed techniques for saphenous vein harvesting remains controversial. Which technique offers the most benefits is still unknown. The aim of this study was to compare the conventional vein harvesting through a continuous skin incision method with 2 less invasive methods and evaluate surgical advantages and postoperative results. In this prospective study, 110 patients scheduled for coronary artery bypass grafting were randomized into 3 groups: vein harvesting by standard continuous skin incisions (group I), conventional bridge technique (group II), and the SaphLITE retractor system (group III). Particular interest was paid to collecting intraoperative data and postoperative clinical results. The ratio of vein length to incision length was 0.89 for group I, 1.9 for group II, and 3.3 for group III. Dissection time per centimeter of vein harvested and time for wound closure were found to be 1.23 min and 0.77 min for group I, 0.89 min and 0.57 min for group II, and 0.96 min and 0.46 min for group III. No wound infection was seen in either group; conduit quality, postoperative pain, and mobilization were similar. Hematoma and edema formation were less frequent in groups I and II. The best cosmetic results were seen in the SaphLITE group.",
"Although endoscopic vein harvest (EVH) has been reported to reduce the morbidity and length of stay compared with open vein harvest (OVH) for infrainguinal bypass procedures, there have been concerns about decreased graft patency and increased rates of reinterventions with EVH compared with OVH. We started using EVH in 2008, and currently it is our preferred approach. The goal of this study was to see if EVH is comparable to OVH in terms of graft patency and limb salvage and associated with fewer wound complications. The study included 153 patients undergoing 171 elective lower extremity bypass procedures with single-piece autologous great saphenous vein from June 1, 2001, to December 31, 2014. Patients were observed postoperatively clinically and with duplex ultrasound evaluation. Patency, limb salvage rates, and postoperative complications were compared between OVH and EVH. There were 78 patients who had 88 EVH conduits and 75 patients who had 83 OVH conduits; 78.2% of the EVH group and 80% of the OVH group had critical limb ischemia (P = .237). Comorbidities were similar, but the EVH group had a significantly higher number of patients receiving antiplatelet drugs, enteric-coated acetylsalicylic acid (94.9% vs 70.7%; P < .001), and clopidogrel (62.8% vs 44%; P = .02), whereas the OVH group had more patients receiving warfarin anticoagulation (33.3% vs 20.5%; P = .073). Mean vein diameter was not signifciantly different (EVH, 3.2 ± 0.7 mm; OVH, 3.2 ± 0.8 mm; P = .598). Wound complication rates were significantly higher in the OVH group (EVH, 13.6%; OVH, 43.4%; P < .001), with 4.5% of patients in the EVH group and 18.1% of patients in the OVH group requiring débridement for wound complications (P = .005). Mean length of stay was shorter in the EVH group (EVH, 7.5 ± 6.4 days; OVH, 9.6 ± 11.0 days; P = .126). Early and late patency rates (EVH vs OVH 12- and 60-month primary patency, 73% ± 5% and 64% ± 6% vs 72% ± 5% and 56% ± 7 [P = .785]; assisted primary patency, 81% ± 5% and 77% ± 5% vs 81% ± 5% and 70% ± 6% [P = .731]; secondary patency, 87% ± 4% and 85% ± 4% vs 82% ± 4% and 73% ± 6% [P = .193]) and limb salvage rates (critical limb ischemia only, 12 and 60 months, 94% ± 3% and 81% ± 7% vs 83% ± 5% and 81% ± 5% [P = .400]) were similar between the groups.",
"no. Endoscopic radial artery harvesting is a safe technique and provides equivalent graft patency as compared with open harvesting, further investigation is required to confirm the aforementioned conclusion and evaluate the impact of harvesting technique on hand sensory and motor function.",
"Endoscopic radial artery harvesting is a favourable harvesting technique which provides excellent cosmetic result and low incidence of incision related complications, however the impact of this technique on graft quality is less well-explained. We sought to evaluate the impact of harvesting technique on graft patency and relevant clinical outcomes in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). A systematic literature search was conducted to identify publications containing comparisons between different sampling skills in CABG, data was extracted and analysed with Revman, Downs and Black score was applied to evaluate the methodological quality of included studies. Ten studies containing 2782 patients were undertaken, the quality was generally acceptable. Pooled analysis results indicate endoscopic radial artery harvesting was associated with a lower incidence of wound infection and a similar incidence of haematoma formation compared with open harvesting. The difference in graft patency and all-cause mortality was insignificant between two cohorts.",
"Many methods of minimally invasive surgical harvesting of the great saphenous vein have been developed because of the morbidity related to the long skin incision after traditional (open) great saphenous vein harvesting. One such method involves the use of multiple small incisions separated by 10- to 15-cm skin bridges through which the saphenous vein is harvested. We hypothesized that this method of saphenous vein harvesting might subject the saphenous vein to considerable traction forces, resulting in impaired endothelial cell function. Four-millimeter great saphenous vein segments were obtained from patients undergoing elective coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Group A (minimally invasive surgery) consisted of 23 rings from 20 patients (age, 65.8 +/- 11.1 years, mean +/- SD). Group B (open harvesting) consisted of 33 rings from 8 patients (age, 69.8 +/- 8.6 years). All great saphenous vein segments were undistended and were used within 24 hours of harvesting. Isometric tension experiments were performed on each ring of the great saphenous vein by using a force-displacement transducer to measure the force of contraction in grams. Measurements included developed force after exposure to high-potassium depolarizing solution and 50 micromol/L phenylephrine and decrease in force of contraction (relaxation) after exposure to 1 and 10 micromol/L acetylcholine. There were no differences between the minimally invasive surgery and open harvesting groups in their responses to high-potassium depolarizing solution or phenylephrine: high-potassium depolarizing solution, contractions of 4.26 +/- 0.72 g (mean +/- SEM) and 3.95 +/- 0.38 g, respectively (P =.70); phenylephrine, contractions of 3.49 +/- 0.63 g and 2.73 +/- 0.39 g, respectively (P =.41). There was no net relaxation in segments from the minimally invasive surgery group after exposure to 1.0 or 10 micromol/L acetylcholine. In contrast, rings from the open harvesting group demonstrated relaxation of -0.41 +/- 0.07 g and -0.32 +/- 0.09 g after exposure to 1.0 and 10 micromol/L acetylcholine, respectively.",
"Endoscopic vein harvesting (EVH) is a widely accepted technique for coronary artery bypass grafting, with well-reported benefits. However, EVH is associated with severe hematoma formation at incision sites, resulting in postoperative pain. We hypothesized that the use of a leg wound drain at the incision site may reduce these comorbidities. One hundred consecutive patients were prospectively randomly allocated into two groups of 50: group 1 with leg wound drains, and group 2 without drains. Group 1 patients underwent EVH followed by closure with a size 10 high vacuum leg wound drain (20 kPa), whereas group 2 underwent EVH followed by closure without a leg wound drain. Patients were assessed for postoperative pain, wound infection, and satisfaction using validated scoring systems immediately after surgery. Pain at rest (p < 0.001) and with movement (p < 0.001), incidence of hematoma (p < 0.001), and patient satisfaction (p < 0.001) were significantly improved in the drain group at days 1 to 7 and remained significant at week 6 after surgery. Interestingly, the use of antibiotics (6% versus 24%, p = 0.012) and the number of general practitioner visits (6% versus 26%, p = 0.012) were lower in the drain group compared with the no-drain group. However, there were no differences in the length of hospital stay between the two groups after surgery.",
"The study was performed to evaluate the clinical and technical efficacy of endovenous laser ablation (EVLA) of small saphenous varicosities, particularly in relation to the site of endovenous access. Totally 59 patients with unilateral saphenopopliteal junction incompetence and small saphenous vein reflux underwent EVLA (810 nm, 14 W diode laser) with ambulatory phlebectomies. Small saphenous vein access was gained at the lowest site of truncal reflux. Patients were divided into 2 groups: access gained above mid-calf (AMC, n = 33) and below mid-calf (BMC, n = 26) levels. Outcomes included Venous Clinical Severity Scores (VCSS), Aberdeen Varicose Vein Questionnaire (AVVQ), patient satisfaction, complications, and recurrence rates. Both groups demonstrated significant improvement in VCSS, AVVQ, generic quality of life Short Form 36, and EuroQol scores (P<.05) up to 1 year. No differences were seen between AMC and BMC groups for complications (phlebitis: 2 [6%] and 1 [3.8%], P>.05; paresthesia: 2 [6%] and 5 [19%], P = .223) and recurrence (3 [9%] and 1 [3.8%], P = .623), respectively.",
"Injury to the saphenous vein endothelium during harvest impacts patency after coronary artery bypass graft surgery. Many centers are adopting endoscopic saphenous vein harvest (ESVH) instead of using the traditional open saphenous vein harvest (OSVH) technique. Our objective was to compare the effects of ESVH and OSVH on the structural and functional viability of saphenous vein endothelium using multiphoton imaging, immunofluorescence, and biochemical techniques. Ten patients scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft surgery were prospectively identified. Each underwent ESVH for one portion and OSVH for another portion of the saphenous vein. A 1-cm segment from each portion was immediately transported to the laboratory for processing. The vessel segments were labeled with fluorescent markers to quantify cell viability (esterase activity), calcium mobilization, and generation of nitric oxide. Samples were also labeled with immunofluorescent antibodies to visualize caveolin, endothelial nitric oxide synthase, von Willebrand factor, and cadherin, and extracted to identify these proteins using Western blot techniques. All labeling, imaging, and image analysis was done in a blinded fashion. Esterase activity was significantly higher in the OSVH group (p < 0.0001). Similarly, calcium mobilization and nitric oxide production were significantly greater in the OSVH group (p = 0.0209, p < 0.0001, respectively). Immunofluoresence and Western blot techniques demonstrated an abnormal alteration in distribution of caveolin and endothelial nitric oxide synthase in the ESVH group.",
"This minimally invasive technique obviates an extensive incision to harvest the SV and ligate the PAA proximally and distally. If long-term endovascular bypass graft patency and PAA occlusion rates prove to be similar to open operative results, the benefits of reduced wound complications, decreased hospital LOS, and increased health care savings support further investigation of this endovascular approach for the treatment of PAA.",
"Crossectomy (extended saphenofemoral or saphenopopliteal junction ligation) and stripping of refluxing saphenous trunk represent the basis of the traditional surgical therapy of varicose veins. Endovascular techniques of saphenous ablation are the mini-invasive alternatives of the radical surgical treatment. The objective of this study is the comparison of the endovenous laser ablation with and without crossectomy through open groin access. Retroprospective study compares the results of the group of patients treated with simple endovenous laser ablation (HVL - 329 limbs) and HVL completed with crossectomy (35 limbs). Both groups were comparable in terms of basic demographic and preoperative clinical data (p > 0.05). In both cohorts, subgroups with identical laser parameters were selected (p > 0.05). All procedures were performed according the same standard protocol, EVL patients received LMWH in the postoperative period. The results were evaluated by the comparison of CEAP clinical class pre and postoperatively, the percentage of recanalizations and also using the Kaplan-Meier life-table method. No thrombosis, nor pulmonary embolism were diagnosed in the post-operative period. During the follow-up (98% treated limbs), venous occlusion was observed in 88% of them (91.05 % in the endovenous group and 65.71% in the combined group). These differences are not statistically significant (p = 0.24). Same results were found using the Kaplan-Meier method (p = 0.086). Treatment significantly reduced CEAP clinical class in both groups but the results are better (C = 0.41 vs. 0.8) in the endovenous group (p = 0.004).",
"yes. Endoscopic radial artery harvesting results in good cosmetic results, useable grafts, and minimal neuralgias. Endoscopic radial artery harvesting is better than traditional open radial artery harvesting.",
"Less invasive vein harvesting techniques, especially with use of the SaphLITE retractor system, yield favorable clinical results, particular with respect to cosmetic appearance. Compared to the conventional approach, the SaphLITE method is suitable for routine vein harvesting because it has fewer complications and is easy and fast to perform. Because the bridge technique does not require special instruments, it has economic advantages.",
"To investigate the feasability and results of endoscopic vein harvesting (EVH) using the Vasoview Uniport system (Guidant Corporation, Menlo Park,CA). Can this technique be used as a standard technique for vein harvesting in coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG) or is it too time consuming? Do smaller incisions result in less morbidity and discomfort? From October 1998 to May 1999, 158 patients who underwent CABG with venous grafts, in addition to arterial grafts, formed the study population for EVH. In group A (n=131) the vein was harvested with the Vasoview Uniport System. In group B (n=27) the vein was harvested by a conventional open technique with interrupted incisions because of unavailability of the equipment. Recordings were made on vein length, harvest time, length of incision, and complications. In none of the patients in group A was a conversion to the open technique necessary. In 72/131, pure EVH was used. In 59/131 an additional incision below the knee was used for harvesting extra vein length. Mean harvested vein graft length (cm) was 35.9 (range 18-56) in group A and 30.6 (range 16-51) in group B, and mm of vein harvested/min was 77 and 71 in group A and B. Mean time for harvesting and closing (min) was 56.1 (range 14-120) SD 20.4 and 78.3 (range 37-129) SD 26 for a mean length of incision (cm) of six (range 2-19) and 27 (range 12-54). Wound complications at postoperative day three at discharge, and after six weeks were seen in 30 (23%), 27 (20%) and four (4%) patients of group A, and in five (18%), five (18%) and four (23%) of group B.",
"Our formalized training programme consistently minimizes vein trauma resulting in better-quality conduits when compared with the current standard training. Exposure of surgical practitioners to the structured curriculum during their endoscopic vein harvesting training will enhance their learning and lead to better-quality conduits. This is likely to impart clinical benefit post-surgery.",
"yes. In undistended saphenous vein segments isolated from patients undergoing minimally invasive surgical and open techniques of harvesting, there was no acetylcholine-mediated endothelium-dependent relaxation in the minimally invasive surgery group. Therefore harvesting of the great saphenous vein through multiple small incisions might result in endothelial dysfunction, possibly caused by traction injury.",
"Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is the most common procedure performed in adult cardiovascular surgery. The most frequently used conduit is the greater saphenous vein. Using traditional methods, the complication rate of the leg is relatively high (up to 24%). To decrease the complication rate, we used the Endo-Path to harvest the greater saphenous vein. From May 1997 through March 1999, a total of 135 patients received the CABG operation. We excluded the patients who died immediately postoperatively or had concomitant surgical procedures. Sixty patients received the endoscopic saphenous vein harvest procedure (group A), while another 59 patients (group B) did not. No important differences were noted between the two groups in respect to the number of distal anastomoses, length of harvested vein, total surgical time, and length of ICU stay. However, the leg wound complication rate decreased from 20.3% to 5.0% (p < 0.001).",
"Minimally invasive saphenous vein harvesting is advocated to reduce wound morbidity. Our early experience with minimally invasive techniques, however, suggested that increased tissue traction and trauma might follow. We aimed to test the hypothesis that minimally invasive harvesting reduces post-operative pain and inflammation. A secondary objective was to determine if minimally invasive harvesting could be performed efficiently. Forty patients were prospectively randomised into minimally invasive harvesting (Minimal, n=22) and traditional open harvesting (Open, n=18). A modified bridging technique was used for minimally invasive harvesting (SaphLITE, Genzyme Surgical Products, Cambridge, MA, USA). One surgeon performed all operations. Primary end points were signs of impaired healing (a composite score) and pain (visual analogue score). Secondary end-points (operation variables) were also collected. Continuous variables were analysed by Student's t-test and categorical variables were analysed by Mann-Whitney U-test. There were no significant demographic differences between the two groups (height, weight, albumin, diabetes, and peripheral vascular disease). In the early post-operative period, Minimal group had significantly less leg wound pain (P=0.04) and wound sepsis scores (P=0.01). Sternal pain was the same in both groups. After 6 weeks, wound scores and leg pain scores were not significantly different. There were no significant differences in rate of harvest (1.1 cm/min in each group). In Minimal group, 4 cm veins were harvested for each 1 cm skin incision compared with 1 cm in Open group (P<0.01).",
"Most coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) operations still involve the use of greater saphenous vein (GSV) for one or more grafts, even with the increasing use of arterial conduits for coronary revascularization. Wound complications from GSV harvesting are common, and sometimes severe. In order to reduce the morbidity of this procedure, we adopted a technique of endoscopic vein harvesting (EVH). EVH allows nearly complete harvest of the GSV, with excellent visualization, through minimal incisions. At our institution, a physician's assistant routinely performs EVH, usually while a cardiothoracic surgeon harvests an arterial conduit. In 1997, all GSV harvesting was performed by open technique. During a transition period in 1998 and 1999 we used several different endoscopic techniques. By the beginning of 2000, our technique of EVH was standardized and used routinely. To determine whether EVH reduced the morbidity associated with conventional open vein harvesting (OVH), we reviewed the charts of all patients having primary coronary artery bypass operations utilizing GSV during the years 1997 and 2000. The two groups were comparable in risk factors for leg incision complications. The year 2000 EVH group had a marked reduction in the number of wound complications compared with the year 1997 OVH group (7.1% versus 26.1%, P < 0.00001). There were no significant differences between the two groups in total operative time (OVH 224 minutes, EVH 223 minutes, number of distal coronary anastomoses (OVH 3.38 +/- 0.90, EVH 3.38 +/- 0.94), or the rate of clinically apparent early graft failure. There was a significant increase in the use of sequential grafting techniques in the 2000 group (OVH 21.9%, EVH 43.6%, P < 0.00001).",
"We describe and report our results using endoscopic vein harvest (EVH) for lower extremity arterial bypass procedures, following the implementation of technical modifications specific to patients undergoing limb salvage procedures. We underwent training in EVH, followed by implementation of the technique in patients requiring limb salvage for lower extremity ischemia and aneurysms. After technical modifications in the technique were developed for limb salvage, we reviewed our experience in all patients who underwent minimally invasive distal bypass with EVH. Technical modifications include limited arterial dissection before vein harvest, the use of proximal and distal leg incisions for both exposure of arterial vessels and saphenous vein harvest, improved hemostasis techniques in the vein graft tunnel, avoidance of compression wraps to the ipsilateral harvest tunnel, complete removal of the vein with either reversed or nonreversed graft placement, and use of the endoscopic tunnel for conduit placement. Thirteen patients (14 limbs) have undergone minimally invasive distal bypass since technical modifications were implemented. Indications for EVH were rest pain (n = 12; 85.7%) and tissue loss (n = 8; 57.1%). Veins harvested were the ipsilateral great saphenous vein (n = 10; 71.4%), contralateral great saphenous vein (n = 2; 14.3%), and short saphenous vein (n = 2; 14.3%). No venous injuries occurred during endoscopic harvest, and all were used for bypass. Thirty-day primary and primary assisted patency rates were 85.7% and 92.9%, respectively. The limb salvage rate was 100%. Two patients developed postoperative hematomas, one early and one late, as a result of anticoagulation for cardiac comorbidities. Both patients required reoperation for successful re-establishment of patency. There were no perioperative deaths and no postoperative wound infections or complications. Two patients required a later prosthetic bypass, and two required a vein graft angioplasty. Complete wound healing was achieved in 75% of patients with preoperative tissue loss.",
"Endoscopic vein harvesting is one of the most popular minimally invasive vein-harvesting techniques for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. It is associated with improved cosmetic outcome and fewer wound-related problems compared with the conventional open technique. However, its efficacy with regard to conduit damage and long-term patency has recently been questioned. Learning curve-associated trauma to the vein has a major impact on vein quality and the incidence of graft failure post-surgery. In an attempt to address this problem, we have devised and tested a learning tool termed Manchester Endoscopic Learning Tool (MELT). In this study, we compare vein quality following MELT training with standard recommended training. Fourteen practitioners across seven UK centres were enrolled into the study. Practitioners were categorized into two groups receiving MELT or standard training. Data were collected prospectively from the first eight vein retrievals per operator following training. A total of n = 112 vein-harvesting procedures were included in the study. Veins harvested by MELT practitioners had fewer small avulsions (P<0.001), required fewer repairs (P<0.001) and experienced a lower incidence of bruising (P<0.001) than veins obtained by practitioners receiving standard training. The incidence of very short side branches requiring repair was also significantly reduced (P<0.001) in the MELT group compared with standard training.",
"yes. Minimally invasive saphenous vein harvesting significantly reduces early post-operative leg pain and wound sepsis. Our study demonstrates that minimally invasive harvesting can be performed at a satisfactory speed and should be considered to help reduce early post-operative morbidity.",
"yes. Although the long-term patency rate needs time to be proven, the endoscopic greater saphenous vein harvest method is an attractive and effective method.",
"yes. Technical modifications in endoscopic saphenous vein harvest techniques facilitate their use in lower extremity limb salvage procedures. Vascular surgeons should become familiar with these techniques to minimize vein harvest wound complications and extend the options for limb salvage conduits, including use of both the ipsilateral and contralateral saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. Meticulous hemostasis within the tunnel after endoscopic conduit harvest and avoidance of postoperative anticoagulation should help to prevent postoperative hematoma formation and early graft occlusion.",
"In the postoperative course after conventional open removal of the greater saphenous vein, wound healing disturbances are common and often painful. Therefore the primary goal of this investigation was to prove the safety and practicability of this new less invasive technique for saphenous vein harvesting and the effect on complications and morbidity. The study comprised 103 coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patients with an endoscopic approach to harvest the saphenous vein (MIVH). We used the VasoView II system developed by Origin, and compared the intraoperative procedure time and the clinical results with 105 equivalent patients in which a conventional open technique was used. In 101 patients endoscopic vein harvesting was successful; a conversion into open technique was necessary in two patients. On average 2.6 vein segments could be harvested in the endogroup versus 2.9 segments in the opengroup. The mean procedure time was 13.2 min per segment in the endogroup compared to 12.2 min per segment in the opengroup. Relevant hematoma were found in 29 patients (27.6%) of the opengroup, whereas only nine patients (8.7%) of the endogroup revealed severe hematoma. Infection was apparent in nine patients (8.5%) after conventional vein harvesting. Two infections were found after endoscopic intervention.",
"Endoscopic saphenous vein harvesting as part of a less invasive concept in cardiac surgery is a safe and after the learning curve, fast alternative to harvest the saphenous graft. The cosmetic result is excellent and the complication rate seems to be lower. It must be noted however, that the cost effectiveness of the method has to be proved and that further histological and functional studies are needed in order to check the intimal structure of the vein.",
"Minimally invasive harvesting is the most cost-effective method of harvesting the great saphenous vein and can significantly improve a patient's quality of life.",
"In this study we aim to assess the cost-effectiveness analysis of minimally invasive vein harvesting. The great saphenous vein is the most commonly used conduit in coronary artery bypass surgery. In the past decade minimally invasive techniques have been developed to reduce the surgical trauma associated with the conventional open vein-harvesting technique. There is strong evidence to suggest that minimally invasive harvesting can reduce postoperative wound healing complications, pain, mobility restriction, and hospital stay. Despite the increasingly widespread use of this technique, formal cost-effectiveness analysis has never been performed. Economic analysis was performed according to the National Institute of Healthcare and Clinical Excellence guidelines on the evaluation of technology by using published data on postoperative pain and mobility restriction, locally collected data, National Health Service reference costs, and manufacturer's data. Probabilistic sensitivity analysis was performed to investigate and quantify the uncertainty associated with the results of our analysis. The results of our analysis demonstrate that minimally invasive vein harvesting was more cost-effective, with an incremental cost-effectiveness ratio of $19,858.87/quality-adjusted life year (QALY), comparing favorably with other health care interventions. Probabilistic sensitivity analysis demonstrated with 95.6% certainty that endoscopic harvesting was more cost-effective at a willingness-to-pay threshold of $50,000/quality-adjusted life year. Alternative analysis suggested that even with considerable uncertainty associated with quality of life after vein harvesting, minimally invasive harvesting was more cost-effective than conventional vein harvesting."
] | 939 |
Endogenous mediators in emergency department patients with presumed sepsis: are levels associated with progression to severe sepsis and death? | [
"We sought to determine whether levels of the endogenous mediators tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha, interleukin (IL) 6, and nitric oxide (NO) measured in patients with presumed sepsis (systemic inflammatory response syndrome [SIRS] and infection) are different than levels in patients with presumed noninfectious SIRS, whether levels are associated with septic complications, and whether there are potential relationships between mediators. A prospective, observational tricenter study of a convenience sample of adults presenting to the emergency department meeting Bone's criteria for SIRS (any combination of fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, or WBC count aberration) was performed. Mediator levels were determined and associated with deterioration to severe sepsis (hypotension, hypoperfusion, or organ dysfunction) and death in subjects admitted to the hospital with presumed sepsis. One hundred eighty subjects with SIRS were enrolled and classified into 3 groups: group 1 (SIRS, presumed infection, admitted; n=108), group 2 (SIRS, presumed infection, discharged; n=27), and group 3 (SIRS, presumed noninfectious, admitted; n=45). Group 1 TNF-alpha and IL-6 levels were significantly higher than those found in the other groups. NO levels for groups 1 and 2 were significantly lower than those for group 3. TNF-alpha and IL-6 levels were higher in the group 1 subjects who had bacteremia or progressed to severe sepsis or death. NO levels were not associated with these outcomes.",
"ED patients admitted with presumed sepsis have elevated cytokine levels compared with patients with sepsis who are discharged and with those patients with presumed noninfectious SIRS. An association appears to exist between cytokines and subsequent septic complications in these patients. The importance of these measures as clinical predictors for the presence of infection and subsequent septic complications needs to be evaluated."
] | [
"The endothelial protein C receptor (EPCR) is a protein that regulates the protein C anticoagulant and anti-inflammatory pathways. A soluble form of EPCR (sEPCR) circulates in plasma and inhibits activated protein C (APC) activities. The clinical impact of sEPCR and its involvement in the septic process is under investigation. In this study, we assessed the role of sEPCR levels as an early indicator of sepsis development. Plasma sEPCR levels were measured in 59 critically-ill non-septic patients at the time of admission to the intensive care unit (ICU). Multiple logistic regression analysis was performed to identify potential risk factors for sepsis development and Cox-Regression models were fitted for variables to examine their relationship with time to sepsis development. Thirty patients subsequently developed sepsis and 29 did not. At ICU admission, sequential organ failure assessment (SOFA) scores were significantly higher in the subsequent sepsis group as compared to the non sepsis group (mean ± SD: 6.4±2.7 and 5±2.3, respectively, P=0.037). sEPCR levels were also higher in the patients who subsequently developed sepsis compared to the patients who did not (median and interquartile range: 173.4 [104.5-223.5] ng/mL vs. 98.3 [69.8-147.7] ng/mL, respectively; P=0.004). Cox regression analysis identified sEPCR as the only parameter related to sepsis development with time (relative risk: 1.078, 95% confidence interval: 1.016-1.144, by 10 units; P=0.013).",
"yes. Higher plasma NSE concentrations were associated with mortality and delirium in critically ill septic patients, suggesting that NSE may have utility as a marker of neuronal injury in sepsis.",
"Endothelial activation plays a role in organ dysfunction in the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Angiopoietin-1 (Ang-1) promotes vascular quiescence while angiopoietin-2 (Ang-2) mediates microvascular leak. Circulating levels of Ang-1 and Ang-2 in patients with SIRS could provide insight on risks for organ dysfunction and death distinct from inflammatory proteins. In this study, we determined if biomarkers of endothelial activation and inflammation exhibit independent associations with poor outcomes in SIRS. We studied 943 critically ill patients with SIRS admitted to an Intensive Care Unit (ICU) of an academic medical center. We measured plasma levels of endothelial markers (Ang-1, Ang-2, soluble vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (sVCAM-1)) and inflammatory markers (interleukin-6 (IL-6), interleukin-8 (IL-8), granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF), soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor-1 (sTNFR-1)) within 24 hours of enrollment. We tested for associations between each marker and 28 day mortality, shock, and day 3 sequential organ failure assessment (SOFA) score. For 28 day mortality, we performed sensitivity analysis for those subjects with sepsis and those with sterile inflammation. We used multivariate models to adjust for clinical covariates and determine if associations identified with endothelial activation markers were independent of those observed with inflammatory markers. Higher levels of all biomarkers were associated with increased 28 day mortality except levels of Ang-1 which were associated with lower mortality. After adjustment for comorbidities and sTNFR-1 concentration, a doubling of Ang-1 concentration was associated with lower 28 day mortality (Odds ratio (OR) = 0.81; p<0.01), shock (OR = 0.82; p<0.001), and SOFA score (β = -0.50; p<0.001), while Ang-2 concentration was associated with increased mortality (OR = 1.55; p<0.001), shock (OR = 1.51; p<0.001), and SOFA score (β = +0.63; p<0.001). sVCAM-1 was not independently associated with SIRS outcomes.",
"yes. In a medical ICU, serum calcitonin precursor concentrations are more sensitive and are specific markers of sepsis as compared with serum C-reactive protein, interleukin-6, and lactate levels.",
"To determine serum concentrations of macrophage migration inhibitory factor and other cytokines in severe blunt trauma patients in critical settings and to evaluate their association with patient outcome. Prospective, observational study. Emergency department and surgical intensive care unit of a university hospital. Fifty-four severe blunt trauma patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome requiring intensive care, emergency surgical intervention, or both were enrolled in the study. Forty-four patients with minor injuries were the controls. Serum macrophage migration inhibitory factor concentrations were measured in the emergency department<4 hrs postinjury (day 1) and the surgical intensive care unit 24 hrs later (day 2). Blood samples for determination of tumor necrosis factor-alpha, interleukin-6, interleukin-8, and interleukin-10 were measured both in patients with severe blunt trauma and in controls. The Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II, Injury Severity Score, Revised Trauma Score, and Trauma Revised Injury Severity Score were used for clinical evaluation of trauma severity. Serum macrophage migration inhibitory factor concentrations were higher in severe blunt trauma patients than in controls; were significantly correlated with Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II, Revised Trauma Score, and Trauma Revised Injury Severity Score scores in severe blunt trauma patients but not in controls; and were higher in nonsurvivors than in survivors.",
"Patients with sepsis-after surviving the initial hyperinflammatory phase-display features consistent with immunosuppression, including hyporesponsiveness of immunocompetent cells to bacterial agents. Immunosuppression is thought to be facilitated by negative regulators of toll-like receptors, including membrane-bound ST2. We investigated the release of soluble ST2 (sST2), a decoy receptor that inhibits membrane-bound ST2 signaling, during sepsis. The study population comprised 95 patients with severe sepsis admitted to one of two intensive care units (ICUs) at the day the diagnosis of severe sepsis was made. Blood was obtained daily from admission (day 0) until day 7 and finally at day 14. Twenty-four healthy subjects served as controls. sST2 and cytokines were measured in serum. Mortality among patients was 34% in the ICU and 45% in the hospital. On admission, sepsis patients had higher sST2 levels [10,989 (7,871-15,342) pg/ml, geometric mean (95% confidence interval, CI)] than controls [55 (20-145) pg/ml, P < 0.0001]. Serum sST2 remained elevated in patients from day 0 to 14 and correlated with disease severity scores (P < 0.001) and cytokine levels on day 0 and during course of disease (P < 0.0001). Nonsurvivors displayed elevated sST2 levels compared with survivors of the intensive care unit (P < 0.0001).",
"yes. Increased sCD127 plasmatic level enables the identification of a group of septic shock patients at high risk of death. After confirmation in a larger cohort, this biomarker may be of interest for patient stratification in future clinical trials.",
"This study aimed to determine the predictive value of elevated N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NTproBNP) for mortality in patients with severe sepsis. This was a retrospective study in Emergency Department of Sichuan Provincial People's Hospital, and patients were screened between January 1, 2009 and December 31, 2011. Demographic and clinical data as well as Acute Physiology And Chronic Health Evaluation II (APACHE II) and Sepsis Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) scores were collected within the first day of admission. Survival was determined to establish its association with the NT-proBNP using logistic regression and receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve. A total of 171 patients with severe sepsis were analyzed. The median APACHE IIⅡ and SOFA scores were 11 (IQR, 7-16) and 3 (IQR, 1-5), respectively. The median C-reactive protein (CRP), procalcitonin (PCT) and NT-proBNP was 10.3 mg/dL (IQR, 3.4-21.4 mg/dL), 0.4 ng/mL (IQR, 0.2-3.6 ng/mL), and 954 (321-1576) pg/mL, respectively. The median NT-proBNP in survivors was 584 pg/mL (IQR, 321-875 pg/mL) versus 1271 (IQR, 851-1576 pg/mL) in nonsurvivors (p < 0.001). In the ROC curves, the area value was 0.89 for serum NT-proBNP, and its potent cutoff value was 1500 pg/mL. After multivariate regression analysis, NT-proBNP was significantly correlated with the mortality of severe sepsis (OR = 1.58, 95% CI 1.36-1.77).",
"There is a hyperoxidative state in sepsis. The objective of this study was to determine serum malondialdehyde (MDA) levels during the first week of follow up, whether such levels are associated with severity during the first week and whether non-surviving patients showed higher MDA levels than survivors during the first week. We performed an observational, prospective, multicenter study in six Spanish Intensive Care Units. Serum levels of MDA were measured in 328 patients (215 survivors and 113 non-survivors) with severe sepsis at days one, four and eight of diagnosis, and in 100 healthy controls. The primary endpoint was 30-day mortality and the secondary endpoint was six -month mortality. The association between continuous variables was carried out using Spearman's rank correlation coefficient. Cox regression analysis was applied to determine the independent contribution of serum MDA levels on the prediction of 30-day and 6-month mortality. Hazard ratio (HR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated as measures of the clinical impact of the predictor variables. We found higher serum MDA in septic patients at day one (p < 0.001), day four (p < 0.001) and day eight (p < 0.001) of diagnosis than in healthy controls. Serum MDA was lower in surviving than non-surviving septic patients at day one (p < 0.001), day four (p < 0.001) and day eight (p < 0.001). Serum MDA levels were positively correlated with lactic acid and SOFA during the first week. Finally, serum MDA levels were associated with 30-day mortality (HR = 1.05; 95% CI = 1.02-1.09; p = 0.005) and six-month mortality (hazard ratio (HR) = 1.05; 95% CI = 1.02-1.09; p = 0.003) after controlling for lactic acid levels, acute physiology and chronic health evaluation (APACHE)-II, diabetes mellitus, bloodstream infection and chronic renal failure.",
"A delay in diagnosis of sepsis and appropriate treatment increases subsequent mortality. An association with the degree of bandemia, or the presence of immature neutrophils in the white blood cell count, has not been explored in septic patients presenting to the emergency department (ED). We hypothesized that the presenting band levels would be higher in septic patients who die in hospital compared with survivors. This study reviewed charts of ED patients presenting with sepsis to a single urban, academic, tertiary care ED with an annual census of 80,000 visits. Patients were included if they had bandemia assessed and were eligible for early goal-directed therapy. Reviewers blinded to the study purpose abstracted data using predetermined definitions. The band level was compared between patients who died and those who survived to discharge using the Mann-Whitney U test. Logistic regression was used to estimate the effect of bandemia levels on the odds of death. Ninety-six patients meeting inclusion criteria were enrolled; 2 were excluded with incomplete data. Mean age was 59 years, 53% were white, and 51% were male. Thirty-two patients (34%) died during admission. The median band levels in patients who died was 17% (range, 0%-67%); and in patients surviving to discharge, the median band level was 9% (range, 0%-77%) (difference in medians, 8%; CI(95), -27.04 to 11.04; P = .222).",
"Several studies have shown that C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of infection. The aim of this study was to evaluate CRP as marker of prognosis outcome in septic patients and to assess the correlation of CRP with severity of sepsis. During a 14-month period, we prospectively included all patients with sepsis admitted to an intensive care unit (ICU). Patients were categorized into sepsis, severe sepsis and septic shock. Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) II score, Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) II, Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score, CRP, body temperature and white cell count (WCC) of the day of sepsis diagnosis were collected. One hundred and fifty-eight consecutive septic patients (mean age 59 years, 98 men, ICU mortality 34%) were studied. The area under the receiver operating characteristics curves of APACHE II, SAPS II, SOFA, CRP, body temperature and WCC as prognostic markers of sepsis were 0.75 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.67-0.83], 0.82 (95% CI 0.75-0.89), 0.8 (95% CI 0.72-0.88), 0.55 (95% CI 0.45-0.65), 0.48 (95% CI 0.38-0.58) and 0.46 (95% CI 0.35-0.56), respectively. In the subgroup of patients with documented sepsis we obtained similar results. The ICU mortality rate of septic patients with CRP<10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40 and>40 mg/dL was 20, 34, 30.8, 42.3 and 39.1%, respectively (P = 0.7). No correlation was found between CRP concentrations and severity of sepsis.",
"To explore the relationship between measures of baseline disease severity and survival time in patients with severe sepsis. A retrospective evaluation of the placebo group from a large placebo-controlled phase III clinical trial (PROWESS) comprising a total of 840 patients with severe sepsis from 164 medical centers. Data collected included baseline demographics and disease severity measurements, baseline protein C and interleukin-6 levels, 28-day and in-hospital survival rates, and cause of death to 28 days. The survival curve for the placebo patients can be divided into three segments during which the rate of death seemed to be different: the rapid alpha phase (day 0 to day 5), the beta phase (day 6 through day 15), and the gamma phase (day 16 to day 28). The risk of death during each phase was statistically significantly different. More patients died of refractory shock during the alpha phase than in the beta and gamma phases, whereas more patients died of respiratory failure during the beta and gamma phases than during the alpha phase. Multiple organ failure was a frequent cause of death during all phases. Protein C levels at the start of each time interval were highly predictive of outcome within that phase, with continued protein C deficiency being associated with mortality. Patients who died during either the alpha or beta phases had higher interleukin-6 levels at baseline than those who died later or who eventually survived.",
"Obesity is associated with the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in at-risk patients. Low plasma levels of adiponectin, a circulating hormone-like molecule, have been implicated as a possible mechanism for this association. The objective of this study was to determine the association of plasma adiponectin level at ICU admission with ARDS and 30-day mortality in patients with severe sepsis and septic shock. This is a prospective cohort study of patients admitted to the medical ICU at the Hospital of the University of Pennsylvania. Plasma adiponectin was measured at the time of ICU admission. ARDS was defined by Berlin criteria. Multivariable logistic regression was used to determine the association of plasma adiponectin with the development of ARDS and mortality at 30 days. The study included 164 patients. The incidence of ARDS within 5 days of admission was 45%. The median initial plasma adiponectin level was 7.62 mcg/ml (IQR: 3.87, 14.90) in those without ARDS compared to 8.93 mcg/ml (IQR: 4.60, 18.85) in those developing ARDS. The adjusted odds ratio for ARDS associated with each 5 mcg increase in adiponectin was 1.12 (95% CI 1.01, 1.25), p-value 0.025). A total of 82 patients (51%) of the cohort died within 30 days of ICU admission. There was a statistically significant association between adiponectin and mortality in the unadjusted model (OR 1.11, 95% CI 1.00, 1.23, p-value 0.04) that was no longer significant after adjusting for potential confounders.",
"Platelet activation and consumption are common in critically ill patients and are associated with poorer prognosis. Mean platelet volume is a simple surrogate for platelet activation, with higher MPV being associated with worse clinical condition on a large array of clinical diagnoses. We therefore aimed to investigate associations between changes in platelet count and mean platelet volume (MPV) with prognosis and inflammatory cytokine values in critically ill patients. This study prospectively included 84 critically ill patients. Patients were stratified into four groups according to proportional changes in MPV (ΔMPV24h) and platelet count (ΔPlat24h) in the first 24 hours after admission. Mortality between groups was compared using the χ (2) test. Logistic regression was performed using hospital mortality as outcome and Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS 3), ΔPlat24h and ΔMPV24h as covariates. Concentrations of the following inflammatory mediators were measured using Miliplex® technology: IL1β, IL6, IL8, IL10, epidermal growth factor, vascular endothelial growth factor, TNFα and IFNα. Cytokine concentrations were compared between groups using the Kruskal-Wallis test with Bonferroni correction. Patients in whom MPV increased and platelet count decreased had higher mortality rates (46%). According to logistic regression, ΔMPV24h was independently associated with increased mortality (OR 1.28 per 1% increase; 95% CI 1.08 to 1.48). No strong associations between inflammatory mediators and changes in MPV and platelet count were found.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the relation between interleukin (IL) 10, tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF alpha), IL-1, and IL-6 levels in patients with septic shock and relate these cytokine levels to the development of organ failure. In 11 patients with septic shock of recent onset, blood was sampled for determinations of TNF, IL-1, IL-6, and IL-10. The degree of organ failure was scored for four organ systems (respiratory, hepatic, renal, hematologic) in the first 48 hours of the study. The APACHE II score was 21 +/- 4. Three patients died. IL-10 levels were directly correlated with TNF levels (r = 0.73, P < .05) and IL-6 levels (r = 0.67, P < .05); and inversely correlated with total C3 (r = -0.73, P < .05) and CH50 (r = -0.68, P < .05). Both IL-10 and TNF levels were correlated to the organ failure score (r = 0.75 and r = 0.68, both P < .01). Six patients with high IL-10 levels (> 60 pg/mL) had lower C3 (37 +/- 11 v 62 +/- 10 mg/dL) and CH50 (32 +/- 7 v 68 +/- 19%), and higher organ failure scores (5.7 +/- 0.8 v 3.8 +/- 1.3) than those with low IL-10 levels (all P < .05).",
"yes. In patients with ALI, plasma G-CSF levels are associated with morbidity and mortality, but these levels are not influenced by tidal volume strategy. In patients with sepsis-related ALI, a bimodal association between baseline plasma G-CSF levels and subsequent morbidity and mortality from this disease was found.",
"A systemic inflammatory response is observed after cardiopulmonary resuscitation. We investigated two novel inflammatory markers, pentraxin 3 (PTX3) and soluble suppression of tumorigenicity 2 (sST2), in comparison with the classic high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP), for prediction of early multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), early death, and long-term outcome after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. PTX3, sST2, and hsCRP were assayed at ICU admission and 48 h later in 278 patients. MODS was defined as the 24 h non-neurological Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) score ≥ 12. Intensive care unit (ICU) death and 12-month Cerebral Performance Category (CPC) were evaluated. In total, 82% of patients survived to ICU discharge and 48% had favorable neurological outcome at 1 year (CPC 1 or 2). At ICU admission, median plasma levels of hsCRP (2.8 mg/L) were normal, while levels of PTX3 (19.1 ng/mL) and sST2 (117 ng/mL) were markedly elevated. PTX3 and sST2 were higher in patients who developed MODS (p<0.0001). Admission levels of PTX3 and sST2 were also higher in patients who died in ICU and in those with an unfavorable 12-month neurological outcome (p<0.01). Admission levels of PTX3 and sST2 were independently associated with subsequent MODS [OR: 1.717 (1.221-2.414) and 1.340, (1.001-1.792), respectively] and with ICU death [OR: 1.536 (1.078-2.187) and 1.452 (1.064-1.981), respectively]. At 48 h, only sST2 and hsCRP were independently associated with ICU death.",
"We investigated whether preventing hyperglycemia in septic patients affected the plasma concentration of asymmetric-dimethylarginine and if this was associated with clinical benefit. A prospective, multicenter, randomized, controlled, clinical study. Intensive care units (ICU) in three university hospitals. A total of 72 patients admitted for severe sepsis or septic shock, who stayed at least 3 days in the ICU. At admission the patients were assigned to receive either tight or conventional glycemic control. Determination of circulating levels of asymmetric-dimethylarginine, arginine, interleukin-6, C-reactive-protein and tumor-necrosis-factor-alpha. Blood was sampled at admission (no differences between groups), and on the 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th (T12) days. Sequential organ failure assessment was scored at each sampling time. All the data were analyzed on an intention-to-treat basis. The control and treatment groups received the same energy intake, glycemia (110.4 +/- 17.3 vs. 163.0 +/- 28.9 mg/dL, P < 0.001) and insulin (P = 0.02) supply differed. No differences were found in high plasma levels of asymmetric-dimethylarginine (P = 0.812) at any time during the ICU stay. The clinical course, as indicated by markers of inflammation, average and maximum organ failure score, ICU stay and ICU and 90-day mortality, was the same.",
"The diagnosis of infection in critically ill patients is challenging because traditional markers of infection are often misleading. For example, serum concentrations of calcitonin precursors are increased in patients with infections. However, their predictive accuracy for the diagnosis of sepsis in unselected patients in a medical intensive care unit (ICU) is unknown. Therefore, we compared the usefulness of serum concentrations of calcitonin precursors, C-reactive protein, interleukin-6, and lactate for the diagnosis of sepsis in consecutive patients suffering from a broad range of diseases with an anticipated stay of > or =24 hrs in a medical ICU. Prospective cohort study. Medical intensive care unit in a university medical center. 101 consecutive critically ill patients. None. Blood samples were collected at various time points during the course of the disease. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome, sepsis, severe sepsis, and septic shock were diagnosed according to standardized criteria, and patients were reclassified daily without prior knowledge of the serum concentrations of calcitonin precursors or interleukin-6. At admission, 99% of the patients had systemic inflammatory response syndrome, 53% had sepsis, and 5% developed sepsis during their stay in the ICU. Calcitonin precursors, C-reactive protein, interleukin-6, and lactate levels increased with the severity of infection (p < .01, one-way analysis of variance). In a receiver operating characteristic curve analysis, calcitonin precursors were found to be the most reliable laboratory variable for the diagnosis of sepsis as compared with C-reactive protein, interleukin-6, and lactate (p < .01, for each comparison). Calcitonin precursor concentrations of >1 ng/mL had sensitivity of 89% and specificity of 94% for the diagnosis of sepsis. High serum concentrations of calcitonin precursors were associated with poor prognosis (p = .01).",
"yes. This study showed that a high amount of TF in septic patients is significantly associated with increased risk for disease severity, according to a high SAPS II score. Quantification of total MVs in plasma, independent from their cell origin, might be indicative for the outcome of patients in sepsis.",
"yes. Sepsis severity is the major determinant of elevated thrombopoietin levels in septic patients, whereas platelet count is a secondary determinant. Thrombopoietin represents a potential marker of sepsis severity.",
"The endothelial specific angiopoietin (Ang)-Tie2 ligand-receptor system has been identified as a non-redundant mediator of endothelial activation in experimental sepsis. Binding of circulating Ang-1 to the Tie2 receptor protects the vasculature from inflammation and leakage, whereas binding of Ang-2 antagonises Tie2 signalling and disrupts endothelial barrier function. Here, we examine whether circulating Ang-1 and/or Ang-2 independently predict mortality in a cohort of critically ill medical patients. Circulating vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), Ang-1 and Ang-2 were prospectively measured in sera from 29 healthy controls and 43 medical ICU patients by immunoradiometric assay (IRMA) and ELISA, respectively. Survival after 30 days was the primary outcome studied. Median serum Ang-2 concentrations were increasingly higher across the following groups: healthy controls, patients without sepsis, patients with sepsis and patients with septic shock. In contrast, Ang-1 and VEGF concentrations were significantly lower in all patient groups compared with healthy controls. Ang-2 correlated with partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2)/fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2), tissue hypoxia, Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) and Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II (APACHE II) score. Multivariate Cox regression analyses confirmed a strong independent prognostic impact of high Ang-2 as a novel marker of 30-day survival.",
"To evaluate the accuracy of procalcitonin (PCT) in predicting bacterial infection in ICU medical and surgical patients. A 10-bed medical surgical unit. PCT, C-reactive protein (CRP), interleukin 6 (IL-6) dosages were sampled in four groups of patients: septic shock patients (SS group), shock without infection (NSS group), patients with systemic inflammatory response syndrome related to a proven bacterial infection (infect. group) and ICU patients without shock and without bacterial infection (control group). Sixty patients were studied (SS group:n=16, NSS group,n=18, infect. group,n=16, control group,n=10). The PCT level was higher in patients with proven bacterial infection (72+/-153 ng/ml vs 2.9+/-10 ng/ml,p=0.0003). In patients with shock, PCT was higher when bacterial infection was diagnosed (89 ng/ml+/-154 vs 4.6 ng/ml+/-12,p=0.0004). Moreover, PCT was correlated with severity (SAPS:p=0.00005, appearance of shock:p=0.0006) and outcome (dead: 71.3 g/ml, alive: 24.0 g/ml,p=0.006). CRP was correlated with bacterial infection (p<10(-5)) but neither with SAPS nor with day 28 mortality. IL-6 was correlated with neither infection nor day 28 mortality but was correlated with SAPS. Temperature and white blood cell count were unable to distinguish shocked patients with or without infection. Finally, when CRP and PCT levels were introduced simultaneously in a stepwise logistic regression model, PCT remained the unique marker of infection in patients with shock (PCT> or =5 ng/ml, OR: 6.2, 95% CI: 1.1-37,p=0.04).",
"The development and progression of severe sepsis is related to a deficiency in pro-inflammatory cytokine production, characterised by lesser IFNgamma levels, which are not explained by variations in levels of the main putative regulator of IFNgamma, namely IL-12. As alternative regulators of IFNgamma may be of greater importance in human sepsis, we investigated the hypothesis that the development of severe sepsis is related to variations in IL-18, IL-23 and IL-27 gene expression. A prospective observational trial in a mixed intensive care unit (ICU) and hospital wards in a university teaching hospital. Sixty-two ICU patients with severe sepsis, 13 bacteraemic patients with no acute critical illness, and 10 healthy controls. All subjects were assayed for IL-18, IL-23 and IL-27 mRNA levels in peripheral blood. IL-27 mRNA levels distinguished between the three groups, with levels highest in the ICU group, intermediate in the bacteraemic group and lowest in the control group. IL-23 distinguished between the groups, with levels lowest in the ICU group. In late sepsis IL-23 and TNFalpha mRNA levels were directly related. IL-18 mRNA levels did not distinguish between the patient groups.",
"We investigated the time course of lipopolysaccharide binding protein (LBP) plasma concentrations in patients in the surgical intensive care unit (ICU), their value in discriminating sepsis from systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and their association with severity of sepsis and outcome in these patients compared with interleukin (IL)-6, C-reactive protein, and procalcitonin. Prospective, observational, cohort study. Academic ICU. All 327 consecutively admitted patients. Serum LBP concentrations were higher in patients who had severe sepsis/septic shock on ICU admission than in patients who never had sepsis (20.5 [8.1-38.8] vs. 14.2 [7.7-22.2]microg/mL, p<.05) but were similar in patients with sepsis without organ failure and those who never had sepsis. After 3 days, LBP levels were similar in all groups. In a receiver operating characteristic curve analysis, LBP concentrations moderately discriminated sepsis from systemic inflammatory response syndrome (area under curve [AUC] = .66) and severe sepsis from sepsis without organ failure (AUC = .71). IL-6 had the highest AUC in discriminating sepsis from other conditions (AUC = .76) and procalcitonin had the highest AUC for discrimination of severe sepsis from sepsis (AUC = .86). LBP concentrations on admission and during the first week were similar in patients with gram-positive and those with gram-negative infections (15.9 [11-26.7]and 37.2 [25.1-62.4] vs. 16.3 [5.3-31.6]and 31.6 [13.4], microg/mL, p>.2). LBP concentrations on admission were similar in nonsurvivors and survivors and did not discriminate ICU mortality. However, the maximum LBP concentration during the first 3 days in the ICU discriminated moderately between survivors and nonsurvivors.",
"Current theories underline the crucial role of pro-inflammatory mediators produced by monocytes for the pathogenesis of sepsis. Since monocytes derive from progenitor hemopoetic cells, the kinetics of stem cells was studied in peripheral blood of patients with sepsis. Blood was sampled from 44 patients with septic syndrome due to ventilator-associated pneumonia on days 1, 3, 5 and 7 upon initiation of symptoms. Concentrations of tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNFalpha), interleukin (IL)-6, IL-8 and G-CSF were estimated by ELISA. CD34/CD45 cells were determined after incubation with anti-CD45 FITC and anti-CD34 PE monocloncal antibodies and flow cytometric analysis. Samples from eight healthy volunteers served as controls. Median of CD34/CD45 absolute count of controls was 1.0/mul. Respective values of the total study population were 123.4, 112.4, 121.5 and 120.9/mul on days 1, 3, 5 and 7 (p<0.0001 compared to controls). Positive correlations were found between the absolute CD34/CD45 count and the absolute monocyte count on days 1, 5 and 7. Survival was prolonged among patients with less than 310/microl CD34/CD45 cells on day 1 compared to those with more than 310/microl of CD34/CD45 cells (p: 0.022). Hazard ratio for death due to sepsis was 5.47 (p: 0.039) for CD34/CD45 cells more than 310/microl. Median IL-6 on day 1 was 56.78 and 233.85 pg/ml respectively for patients with less than 310/microl and more than 310/microl CD34/CD45 cells (p: 0.021).",
"Pre-B-cell colony-enhancing factor (PBEF) is a potential biomarker for acute lung injury (ALI) in sepsis. We aimed to determine the clinical correlates for elevated plasma PBEF upon ICU admission for severe sepsis and the usefulness of PBEF to predict ALI development and sepsis mortality. This is a prospective cohort of patients admitted to the medical ICU with severe sepsis. Patients without available blood samples or who were not enrolled within 24 h of admission were excluded. Plasma collected within 24 h of ICU admission was measured for PBEF concentrations by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Patients were followed for ALI development as defined by the American-European Consensus Conference and for all-cause hospital mortality. Between September 30, 2008, and March 10, 2009, 113 patients were enrolled, and 50 (44%) developed ALI. Elevated PBEF levels significantly correlated with higher APACHE (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation) III scores (R(2) = 0.08, P = .003) and failure to reach early sepsis goals within 6 h of severe sepsis (P = .003). PBEF did not differ by ALI status (P = .58). The mortality rate was 46%. Nonsurvivors had higher PBEF levels than survivors (2.53 ng/mL; interquartile range [IQR], 1.07-8.16 vs 1.44 ng/mL; IQR, 0.84-2.81; P = .02). After adjusting for severity of illness, PBEF levels were no longer significantly associated with mortality (OR, 1.44 per 10-fold increase; 95% CI, 0.69-3.03, P = .34).",
"Immunocompromised patients who develop sepsis while neutropenic are at high risk for morbidity and mortality; however, it is unknown if neutropenic sepsis is associated with distinct clinical and biological characteristics. We conducted a prospective cohort study of patients admitted to the medical intensive care unit of an academic medical center with severe sepsis. Patients were followed for the development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), acute kidney injury (AKI), and mortality. Plasma proteins, representing the host inflammatory response, anti-inflammatory response, and endothelial leak were measured in 30 % of subjects. Clinical characteristics and plasma protein concentrations of patients with neutropenia at enrollment were compared to patients without neutropenia. Of 797 subjects enrolled, 103 (13 %) were neutropenic at ICU admission. The neutropenic subjects were more often in shock, admitted from the hospital ward, had higher APACHE III scores, and more likely bacteremic. Neutropenia was an independent risk factor for AKI (RR 1.28; 95 % CI 1.04, 1.57; p = 0.03), but not ARDS (RR 0.90; 95 % CI 0.70, 1.17; p = 0.42) or 30-day mortality (RR 1.05; 95 % CI 0.85, 1.31; p = 0.65). Neutropenic subjects had higher plasma interleukin (IL)-6 (457 vs. 249 pg/ml; p = 0.03), IL-8 (581 vs. 94 pg/ml; p <0.001), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) (3624 vs. 99 pg/ml; p <0.001). Angiopoietin-2 and IL-1 receptor antagonist concentrations did not differ between groups.",
"Septic patients with hyperlactatemia have increased mortality rates, irrespective of hemodynamic and oxygen-derived variables. The aims of the study are the following: (1) to ascertain whether lactate clearance (LC) (percentage change in lactate over unit time) predicts mortality in septic patients admitted to intensive care directly from the emergency department and (2) to calculate the optimal \"cut-off\" value for mortality prediction. Three-year retrospective observational study of consecutive patients with severe sepsis and septic shock admitted to intensive care from the emergency department of a tertiary UK hospital. We calculated 6-hour LC, performed receiver operating characteristic analyses to calculate optimal cut-off values for initial lactate and LC, dichotomized patients according to the LC cut-off, and calculated hazard ratios using a Cox proportional hazards model. One hundred six patients were identified; 78, after exclusions. Lactate clearance was independently associated with 30-day mortality (P<.04); optimal cut-off, 36%. Mortality rates were 61.1% and 10.7% for patients with 6-hour LC 36% or less and greater than 36%, respectively. Hazard ratio for death with LC 36% or less was 7.33 (95% confidence interval, 2.17-24.73; P<.001).",
"Serial lactate concentrations can be used to examine disease severity in the intensive care unit. This study examines the clinical utility of the lactate clearance before intensive care unit admission (during the most proximal period of disease presentation) as an indicator of outcome in severe sepsis and septic shock. We hypothesize that a high lactate clearance in 6 hrs is associated with decreased mortality rate. Prospective observational study. An urban emergency department and intensive care unit over a 1-yr period. A convenience cohort of patients with severe sepsis or septic shock. Therapy was initiated in the emergency department and continued in the intensive care unit, including central venous and arterial catheterization, antibiotics, fluid resuscitation, mechanical ventilation, vasopressors, and inotropes when appropriate. Vital signs, laboratory values, and Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) II score were obtained at hour 0 (emergency department presentation), hour 6, and over the first 72 hrs of hospitalization. Therapy given in the emergency department and intensive care unit was recorded. Lactate clearance was defined as the percent decrease in lactate from emergency department presentation to hour 6. Logistic regression analysis was performed to determine independent variables associated with mortality. One hundred and eleven patients were enrolled with mean age 64.9 +/- 16.7 yrs, emergency department length of stay 6.3 +/- 3.2 hrs, and overall in-hospital mortality rate 42.3%. Baseline APACHE II score was 20.2 +/- 6.8 and lactate 6.9 +/- 4.6 mmol/L. Survivors compared with nonsurvivors had a lactate clearance of 38.1 +/- 34.6 vs. 12.0 +/- 51.6%, respectively (p =.005). Multivariate logistic regression analysis of statistically significant univariate variables showed lactate clearance to have a significant inverse relationship with mortality (p =.04). There was an approximately 11% decrease likelihood of mortality for each 10% increase in lactate clearance. Patients with a lactate clearance> or =10%, relative to patients with a lactate clearance <10%, had a greater decrease in APACHE II score over the 72-hr study period and a lower 60-day mortality rate (p =.007).",
"In order to validate immature granulocytes as a universal biomarker, we have compared the clinical relevance of the proportion of immature granulocytes (IG%), measured using Sysmex XE-2100, with other biomarkers (white blood cell, C-reactive protein, lactate and procalcitonin). This single center, retrospective study included 184 patients with sepsis admitted to an emergency department. Patients were classified into two groups: Uncomplicated sepsis and complicated sepsis (severe sepsis and septic shock). IG% and other biomarkers were evaluated and compared for predicting sepsis severity, overt disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and 28 day mortality. In multivariate analysis, only IG% (odd ratio [OR] 2.530, p = 0.004) and lactate (OR 4.500, p < 0.001) could discriminate between complicated and uncomplicated sepsis. The optimal cut-off value for IG% and lactate was 0.5% and 2.0 mmol/L, respectively. In subgroup analyses of complicated sepsis, IG% was related to overt DIC. However, no single biomarker could predict 28-day mortality.",
"The data suggest that non-surviving patients have higher PCT and IL-10 values. Only APACHE III score and PCT plasma levels correlated with a poor outcome. Therefore, routine measurements of plasma PCT concentrations might be helpful to improve the mortality risk prediction in patients with severe sepsis.",
"Although the mortality of severe sepsis is easily quantified, the actual cause and timing of death from severe sepsis are less defined. We used the INDEPTH (International Integrated Database for the Evaluation of Severe Sepsis and Drotrecogin alfa activated) database to investigate the reported cause of death in patients with severe sepsis. Retrospective database analysis. Data from 4459 patients with severe sepsis (drotrecogin alfa activated, n = 3228; placebo, n = 1231) included in five clinical trials conducted in tertiary care institutions in 28 countries. We examined the cause of death and the pattern of Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores near the time of death. We also evaluated the time course of biomarker levels at this late stage. A total of 1201 (27.0%) patients died during the 28-day study period. The main causes of death were as follows: sepsis-associated multiple organ failure (43.1%), refractory septic shock (22.6%), and respiratory failure (13.0%). There were no significant differences in the distributions of cause of death between drotrecogin alfa activated and placebo patients, so that all patients were combined for analysis. The mean cardiovascular Sequential Organ Failure Assessment score increased from 2.4, 4 days before death, to 2.9, 1 day before death, and the mean respiratory Sequential Organ Failure Assessment score increased from 2.6, 4 days before death, to 2.9, 1 day before death. The increase in these individual Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores was more prominent in patients who died early (day 0-5). Protein C levels decreased and interleukin-6 levels increased in the days before death.",
"Inflammatory, autoimmune and metabolic disorders have been associated with alterations in osteopontin (OPN) serum levels. Furthermore, elevated serum levels of OPN were reported from a small cohort of patients with sepsis. We therefore analyzed OPN serum concentrations in a large cohort of critically ill medical patients. A total of 159 patients (114 with sepsis, 45 without sepsis) were studied prospectively upon admission to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) as well as after 3 days of ICU treatment and compared to 50 healthy controls. Clinical data, various laboratory parameters as well as investigational inflammatory cytokine profiles were assessed. Patients were followed for approximately 1 year. We found significantly elevated serum levels of OPN at admission to the ICU and after 3 days of treatment in critically ill patients compared to healthy controls. OPN concentrations were related to disease severity and significantly correlated with established prognosis scores and classical as well as experimental markers of inflammation and multi-organ failure. In the total cohort, OPN levels decreased from admission to day 3 of ICU treatment. However, persistently elevated OPN levels at day 3 of ICU treatment were a strong independent predictor for an unfavorable prognosis, with similar or better diagnostic accuracy than routinely used markers of organ failure or prognostic scoring systems such as SAPS2 or APACHE II score.",
"yes. Factors related to patients' intrinsic characteristics and disease severity as well as the promptness of sepsis recognition are associated with early death among severe septic patients.",
"The purpose of this study was to examine the outcome implications of implementing a severe sepsis bundle in an emergency department as a quality indicator set with feedback to modify physician behavior related to the early management of severe sepsis and septic shock. Two-year prospective observational cohort. Academic tertiary care facility. Patients were 330 patients presenting to the emergency department who met criteria for severe sepsis or septic shock. Five quality indicators comprised the bundle for severe sepsis management in the emergency department: a) initiate central venous pressure (CVP)/central venous oxygen saturation (Scvo2) monitoring within 2 hrs; b) give broad-spectrum antibiotics within 4 hrs; c) complete early goal-directed therapy at 6 hrs; d) give corticosteroid if the patient is on vasopressor or if adrenal insufficiency is suspected; and e) monitor for lactate clearance. Patients had a mean age of 63.8 +/- 18.5 yrs, Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II score 29.6 +/- 10.6, emergency department length of stay 8.5 +/- 4.4 hrs, hospital length of stay 11.3 +/- 12.9 days, and in-hospital mortality 35.2%. Bundle compliance increased from zero to 51.2% at the end of the study period. During the emergency department stay, patients with the bundle completed received more CVP/Scvo2 monitoring (100.0 vs. 64.8%, p < .01), more antibiotics (100.0 vs. 89.7%, p = .04), and more corticosteroid (29.9 vs. 16.2%, p = .01) compared with patients with the bundle not completed. In a multivariate regression analysis including the five quality indicators, completion of early goal-directed therapy was significantly associated with decreased mortality (odds ratio, 0.36; 95% confidence interval, 0.17-0.79; p = .01). In-hospital mortality was less in patients with the bundle completed compared with patients with the bundle not completed (20.8 vs. 39.5%, p < .01).",
"yes. In critically ill trauma patients, plasma levels of the necroptosis mediator RIP3 at 48 h were associated with AKI stage and RBC transfusions.",
"Serum lactate values in the emergency department (ED) have been associated with mortality in diverse populations of critically ill patients. This study investigates whether serum lactate values measured in the ED are associated with mortality in older patients admitted to the hospital, both with and without infections. This is a retrospective cohort study performed at two urban teaching hospitals. The study population includes 1,655 older ED patients (age>or=65 years) over a 3-year period (2004-2006) who had serum lactate measured prior to admission. The presence or absence of infection was determined by review of International Classification of Diseases Ninth Revision (ICD-9) admission diagnosis codes. Mortality during hospitalization was determined by review of inpatient records. Mortality at 30 and at 60 days was determined using a state death registry. In patients with infections, increasing serum lactate values of >or=2.0 mmol/L were linearly associated with relative risk (RR) of mortality during hospitalization (RR=1.9 to 3.6 with increasing lactate), at 30 days (RR=1.7 to 2.6), and at 60 days (RR=1.4 to 2.3) when compared to patients with serum lactate levels of <2.0 mmol/L. In patients without infections, a similar association was observed (RR=1.1 to 3.9 during hospitalization, RR=1.2 to 2.6 at 30 days, RR=1.1 to 2.4 at 60 days). In both groups of patients, serum lactate had a greater magnitude of association with mortality than either of two other commonly ordered laboratory tests, leukocyte count and serum creatinine.",
"Coagulation abnormalities which occur as a consequence of endothelial changes are recognized as diagnostic criteria for sepsis, but significance of these changes in the outcome prognosis and prediction of the course of sepsis is still not accurately defined. 60 patients who fulfilled the criteria for diagnosis of sepsis were included in our study. Patients were categorized in two groups according to sepsis severity and organ failure and MODS development was assessed in the first 48 h from ICU admission. Prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and endothelial cell specific molecule-1(endocan) levels, as well as procalcitonin (PCT) and C-reactive protein (CRP) were determined within the first 24h of the onset of the disease. Predictive APACHE II (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II) and SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment) scores were calculated on the day of ICU admission. Data were used to determine an association between day 1 biomarker levels, organ dysfunction score values and the development of organ failure, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), and mortality during 28 days. These connections were determined by plotting of receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves. Differences between groups were assessed by Mann-Whitney U test. Categorical variables were compared using chi-square test. Concentration of endocan was significantly higher in the group of patients with sepsis induced organ failure, MODS development and in the group of non- survivors in contrast to group with less severe form of the disease, without multiorgan failure, and in contrast to group of survivors (p<0.05). Values of areas under the ROC curves showed that endocan levels had good discriminative power for more severe course of sepsis, MODS development and possible discriminative power for mortality prediction (AUC: 0.81, 0.67, 0.71 retrospectively), better than PCT for fatality (AUC:053) and better than APACHE II (AUC:0.55) and SOFA (AUC: 0.57) scores for organ failure.",
"Gut dysfunction is suspected to play a major role in the pathophysiology of post-resuscitation disease through an increase in intestinal permeability and endotoxin release. However this dysfunction often remains occult and is poorly investigated. The aim of this pilot study was to explore intestinal failure biomarkers in post-cardiac arrest patients and to correlate them with endotoxemia. Following resuscitation after cardiac arrest, 21 patients were prospectively studied. Urinary intestinal fatty acid-binding protein (IFABP), which marks intestinal permeability, plasma citrulline, which reflects the functional enterocyte mass, and whole blood endotoxin were measured at admission, days 1-3 and 6. We explored the kinetics of release and the relationship between IFABP, citrulline and endotoxin values. IFABP was extremely high at admission and normalized at D3 (6668 pg/mL vs 39 pg/mL, p=0.01). Lowest median of citrulline (N=20-40 μmol/L) was attained at D2 (11 μmol/L at D2 vs 24 μmol/L at admission, p=0.01) and tended to normalize at D6 (21 μmol/L). During ICU stay, 86% of patients presented a detectable endotoxemia. Highest endotoxin level was positively correlated with highest IFABP level (R(2)=0.31, p=0.01) and was inversely correlated with lowest plasma citrulline levels (R(2)=0.55, p<0.001). Endotoxin levels increased between admission and D2 in patients with post-resuscitation shock, whereas it decreases in patients with no shock (median +0.33 EU vs -0.19 EU, p=0.03). Highest endotoxin level was positively correlated with D3 SOFA score (R(2)=0.45, p=0.004).",
"Endothelium-derived molecules may be predictive to organ injury. Heat shock protein (HSP) A12B is mainly located in endothelial cells, which can be detected in the plasma of septic patients. Whether it is correlated with prognosis of sepsis remains unclear. Extracellular HSPA12B (eHSPA12B) was determined in plasma of septic mice at 6 h, 12 h, 24 h and 48 h after cecal ligation and puncture (CLP). It was also detected in plasma of patients with severe sepsis, sepsis, systemic inflammatory response syndrome and healthy volunteers. The predictive value for prognosis of severe sepsis was assessed by receiver operating curve (ROC) and Cox regression analyses. eHSPA12B was elevated in plasma of CLP mice at 6 h and peaked at 24 h after surgery. A total of 118 subjects were included in the clinical section, including 66 patients with severe sepsis, 21 patients with sepsis, 16 patients with SIRS and 15 volunteers. Plasma eHSPA12B was significantly higher in patients with severe sepsis than in patients with sepsis, SIRS and volunteers. The level of eHSPA12B was also higher in non-survivals than survivals with severe sepsis. The area under the curve (AUC) of eHSPA12B in predicting death among patients with severe sepsis was 0.782 (0.654-0.909) in ROC analysis, much higher than that of IL-6 and IL-10. Cox regression analysis showed that cardiovascular diseases, IL-6 and eHSPA12B were risk factors for mortality in patients with severe sepsis. Survival curve demonstrated a strikingly significant difference between 28-day survival rates of patients with an eHSPA12B lower or not lower than 1.466 ng/ml.",
"Angiopoietin-2 (ang-2), an angiogenic peptide released by endothelial cell Weibel-Palade bodies (WPBs), increases endothelial activation and vascular permeability. Ang-2 is raised in severe sepsis but the mechanisms underlying this are not known. Nitric oxide (NO) inhibits WPB exocytosis, and bioavailability of endothelial NO is decreased in sepsis. We hypothesized that endothelial NO bioavailability would be inversely correlated with ang-2 concentrations in sepsis. Plasma ang-2, vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and endothelial-active cytokines were assessed in 83 patients with early sepsis and 41 hospital controls, and related to reactive hyperaemia-peripheral arterial tonometry, RH-PAT, a measure of endothelial NO bioavailability. Plasma Ang-2 was elevated in sepsis (median [interquartile range (IQR)], ng/ml: severe sepsis 12.4 [8.5-33.4], sepsis without organ failure 6.1 [5.0-10.4], controls 2.7 [2.2-3.6], P < 0.0001). It correlated inversely with RH-PAT (r = -0.38, P < 0.0001) and positively with IL-6 (r = 0.57, P < 0.0001) and degree of organ failure (sequential organ function assessment score) (r = 0.58, P < 0.0001). The correlation of ang-2 with RH-PAT persisted after controlling for sepsis severity. In a longitudinal mixed-effects model, recovery of RH-PAT over time was associated with decline in ang-2.",
"yes. The major novel finding of our study, the largest cohort of septic patients providing data on circulating CCCK-18 levels, was that serum CCCK-18 levels are associated with mortality in severe septic patients.",
"The purpose of the study is to uncover the role of hemopexin (HPX) as anti-inflammatory mediator in animals and humans. We injected rats with 5 and 10 mg/kg of lipopolysaccharide to induce low- and high-grade endotoxemia (LGE and HGE), respectively, and we measured serum levels of tumor necrosis factor α, interleukin 6, and HPX at 0, 1, 3, and 6 hours after the injection. In a clinical study, we measured the initial serum HPX concentrations of septic shock patients. We evaluated the correlation between HPX levels and sepsis severity in rats and the predictive value of the HPX level for 28-day mortality of patients. In rats, serum interleukin 6 and tumor necrosis factor α concentrations were lower in LGE than in HGE, whereas the HPX level in HGE at 6 hours was significantly lower than in LGE (0.88, interquartile range [0.79-1.00] vs 1.33, interquartile range [1.29-1.49] mg/mL, P= .002). In patients, the initial serum HPX level in nonsurvivors was significantly lower than in survivors (0.75 vs 1.02 mg/mL, P< .001). Multivariate logistic regression analysis revealed that HPX exhibited independent prognostic value for 28-day mortality, and its levels were closely related to Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II scores.",
"Septic shock is a major health care problem that affects a heterogeneous population of patients. To improve sepsis management, a key point is to decrease this heterogeneity by stratifying patients according to specific criteria, such as appropriate biomarkers. As the early phase of septic shock is characterized by cardiovascular dysfunction, precursors of vasoactive hormones represent interesting candidates. The objective of the present study was to concomitantly assess the predictive value of C-terminal proendothelin-1 and midregional proatrial natriuretic peptide (CT-proET-1 and MR-proANP, respectively vasoconstrictor and vasodilator) on 28-day mortality following septic shock. In this observational study which included 99 patients, concentrations of MR-proANP and CT-proET-1 were measured using an immunoluminometric assay three times within the first week after the onset of septic shock. While MR-proANP concentrations were significantly increased in non-survivors in comparison with survivors, no differences were noted for CT-proET-1. Increased MR-proANP concentrations were significantly associated with mortality after both univariate and multivariate analyses, adjusted for usual clinical confounders [SAPS II (simplified acute physiology score II), SOFA (sepsis-related organ failure assessment) scores and number of co-morbidities].",
"We investigated whether serum levels of neuron-specific enolase (NSE) and S-100beta protein could be used to evaluate cerebral injury and to predict outcome in severe sepsis and severe septic shock. Prospective study. University hospital. In 170 consecutively enrolled patients with severe sepsis and septic shock, serum S-100beta and NSE were measured daily during four consecutive days after intensive care unit admission. Admission Glasgow Coma Scale before sedation and daily Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores were recorded in all patients. Acute encephalopathy was defined as either a state of agitation, confusion, irritability, and convulsions (type A) or characterized by somnolence, stupor, and coma (type B) and persistently observed during 72 hrs after withdrawing sedation. When clinically indicated, contrast computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging were performed to evaluate brain injury. S-100beta and NSE increased in, respectively, 72 (42%) and 90 (53%) patients. High biomarker levels were associated with the maximum Sequential Organ Failure Assessment scores (p = .001), and the highest values were found in patients who died early, within 4 days of inclusion (p = .005). Low consciousness encephalopathy type B was more frequently observed in patients with elevated S-100beta (p = .004). S-100beta levels of >or=4 microg/L were associated with severe brain ischemia or hemorrhage, and values of <2 microg/L were found in patients with diffuse cerebral embolic infarction lesions. High S-100beta levels were associated with higher intensive care unit mortality (p = .04) and represented the strongest independent predictor of intensive care unit survival, whereas NSE and the Glasgow Coma Scale failed to predict fatal outcome.",
"Early diagnostic and prognostic stratification of patients with suspected infection is a difficult clinical challenge. We studied plasma pentraxin 3 (PTX3) upon admission to the emergency department in patients with suspected infection. The study comprised 537 emergency room patients with suspected infection: 59 with no systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and without bacterial infection (group 1), 67 with bacterial infection without SIRS (group 2), 54 with SIRS without bacterial infection (group 3), 308 with sepsis (SIRS and bacterial infection) without organ failure (group 4) and 49 with severe sepsis (group 5). Plasma PTX3 was measured on admission using a commercial solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The median PTX3 levels in groups 1-5 were 2.6 ng/ml, 4.4 ng/ml, 5.0 ng/ml, 6.1 ng/ml and 16.7 ng/ml, respectively (p<0.001). The median PTX3 concentration was higher in severe sepsis patients compared to others (16.7 vs. 4.9 ng/ml, p<0.001) and in non-survivors (day 28 case fatality) compared to survivors (14.1 vs. 5.1 ng/ml, p<0.001). A high PTX3 level predicted the need for ICU stay (p<0.001) and hypotension (p<0.001). AUC(ROC) in the prediction of severe sepsis was 0.73 (95% CI 0.66-0.81, p<0.001) and 0.69 in case fatality (95% CI 0.58-0.79, p<0.001). PTX3 at a cut-off level for 14.1 ng/ml (optimal cut-off value for severe sepsis) showed 63% sensitivity and 80% specificity. At a cut-off level 7.7 ng/ml (optimal cut-off value for case fatality) showed 70% sensitivity and 63% specificity in predicting case fatality on day 28.In multivariate models, high PTX3 remained an independent predictor of severe sepsis and case fatality after adjusting for potential confounders.",
"Host immunity should play a principal role in determining both the outcome and recovery of patients with sepsis that originated from a microbial infection. Quantification of the levels of key elements of the immune response could have a prognostic value in this disease. In an attempt to evaluate the quantitative changes in the status of immunocompetence in severe sepsis over time and its potential influence on clinical outcome, we monitored the evolution of immunoglobulins (Igs) (IgG, IgA and IgM), complement factors (C3 and C4) and lymphocyte subsets (CD4+ T cells, CD8+ T cells, B cells (CD19+) and natural killer (NK) cells (CD3-CD16+CD56+)) in the blood of 50 patients with severe sepsis or septic shock at day 1, day 3 and day 10 following admission to the ICU. Twenty-one patients died, ten of whom died within the 72 hours following admission to the ICU. The most frequent cause of death (n = 12) was multiorgan dysfunction syndrome. At day 1, survivors showed significantly higher levels of IgG and C4 than those who ultimately died. On the contrary, NK cell levels were significantly higher in the patients who died. Survivors exhibited a progressive increase from day 1 to day 10 on most of the immunological parameters evaluated (IgG, IgA, IgM, C3, CD4+, CD8+ T cells and NK cells). Multivariate Cox regression analysis, including age, sex, APACHE II score, severe sepsis or septic shock status and each one of the immunological parameters showed that NK cell counts at day 1 were independently associated with increased risk of death at 28 days (hazard ratio = 3.34, 95% CI = 1.29 to 8.64; P = 0.013). Analysis of survival curves provided evidence that levels of NK cells at day 1 (> 83 cells/mm³) were associated with early mortality.",
"Prospective examination whether changes in interleukin (IL)-6, IL-10 or procalcitonin (PCT) concentrations correlate with poor outcome in patients with severe sepsis in comparison with APACHE III or SAPS II. 33 patients who fulfilled the criteria for severe sepsis have been included in the study. Blood samples were collected for cytokine and PCT determinations. The Acute Physiology, Age and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) III score and the Simplified Acute Physiology Score (SAPS) II were calculated for 3 consecutive days. 14 out of 33 patients died of multiple organ failure. The areas under the ROC-curves for APACHE III and SAPS II indicated a poor discrimination between survivors and non-survivors. Plasma PCT and IL-10 concentrations were higher in non-survivors than in survivors. IL-6 levels showed no differences between groups. The multivariate analysis of the APACHE III, SAPS II, IL-10 and PCT data showed a significant relationship between APACHE III, PCT plasma levels and outcome.",
"yes. Markers of antiinflammation are predominant in more severe types of sepsis suggesting that antiinflammation is related to mortality.",
"Febrile neutropenia carries a high risk of sepsis complications, and the identification of biomarkers capable to identify high risk patients is a great challenge. Angiopoietins (Ang -) are cytokines involved in the control microvascular permeability. It is accepted that Ang-1 expression maintains endothelial barrier integrity, and that Ang-2 acts as an antagonizing cytokine with barrier-disrupting functions in inflammatory situations. Ang-2 levels have been recently correlated with sepsis mortality in intensive care units. We prospectively evaluated concentrations of Ang-1 and Ang-2 at different time-points during febrile neutropenia, and explored the diagnostic accuracy of these mediators as potential predictors of poor outcome in this clinical setting before the development of sepsis complications. Patients that evolved with septic shock (n = 10) presented higher levels of Ang-2 measured 48 hours after fever onset, and of the Ang-2/Ang-1 ratio at the time of fever onset compared to patients with non-complicated sepsis (n = 31). These levels correlated with sepsis severity scores.",
"This study was designated to investigate whether increased extravascular lung water index (EVLWI) may correlate multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) and mortality in sepsis. We designed a prospective cohort study in an intensive care unit of a tertiary care hospital. Sixty-seven patients with severe sepsis were included. Data were used to determine an association between EVLWI and the development of MODS and mortality. These connections were determined by the multiple logistic regression, plotting the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve and by Spearman test. EVLWI levels were higher in MODS patients on day 1 (median (IQR), 18(12.8-23.9) ml/kg, n = 38, p<0.0001) than in those without (median (IQR), 12.4 (7.9-16.3) ml/kg, n = 29) and day 3 (median (IQR), 17.8 (11.2-22.8) ml/kg, n = 29, p = 0.004) than in those without (median (IQR), 12.4 (8.0-16.3) ml/kg, n = 29). EVLWI was used as an independent predictor of the development of MODS (odds ratio, 1.6; p = 0.005; 95% confidence interval, 1.2∼2.2) during ICU stay. The area under the ROC curve showed that EVLWI levels could predict MODS (0.866) and mortality (0.881) during ICU stay. Meanwhile, the higher of SOFA score, the more EVLWI was found on day 1 (r = 0.7041, p<0.0001) and day 3 (r = 0.7732, p<0.0001).",
"yes. Increased sRAGE was associated with 28-day mortality in patients with sepsis, and was superior compared to PCT, CRP and lactate. sRAGE correlated with sepsis severity. sRAGE was increased in patients with individual organ failure. sRAGE could be used as an early biomarker in prognostication of outcome in septic patients.",
"There is a need for biomarkers insuring identification of septic patients at high-risk for death. We performed a prospective, multicenter, observational study to investigate the time-course of lipopolysaccharide binding protein (LBP) serum levels in patients with severe sepsis and examined whether serial serum levels of LBP could be used as a marker of outcome. LBP serum levels at study entry, at 48 hours and at day-7 were measured in 180 patients with severe sepsis. Data regarding the nature of infections, disease severity, development of acute lung injury (ALI) and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), and intensive care unit (ICU) outcome were recorded. LBP serum levels were similar in survivors and non-survivors at study entry (117.4+/-75.7 microg/mL vs. 129.8+/-71.3 microg/mL, P = 0.249) but there were significant differences at 48 hours (77.2+/-57.0 vs. 121.2+/-73.4 microg/mL, P<0.0001) and at day-7 (64.7+/-45.8 vs. 89.7+/-61.1 microg/ml, p = 0.017). At 48 hours, LBP levels were significantly higher in ARDS patients than in ALI patients (112.5+/-71.8 microg/ml vs. 76.6+/-55.9 microg/ml, P = 0.0001). An increase of LBP levels at 48 hours was associated with higher mortality (odds ratio 3.97; 95%CI: 1.84-8.56; P<0.001).",
"Both complement and contact system of coagulation have been implicated in the pathophysiology of sepsis. We therefore measured levels of the complement activation products C1-C1-inhibitor complexes and C3a in serial plasma samples (obtained every six hours) from 48 patients with clinically suspected sepsis, and related these levels to the clinical outcome. C4a was also measured in samples obtained on admission. C3a levels were elevated in 47 patients at least once during the observation period. These levels appeared to be considerably higher in patients who died than in patients who survived. This difference was found for the levels on admission (p = 0.0003), as well as for the highest (p = 0.0010) and the lowest (p less than 0.0001) levels encountered in each patient. The mortality in patients with plasma C3a levels of 13 nmol/liter or less on admission (27 patients) was 33 percent, compared with 86 percent in patients with levels of 14 nmol/liter or more. Patients with septic shock had significantly higher C3a levels than normotensive patients (p values between 0.046 and 0.004). No significant differences in C3a were found between patients who had respiratory distress syndrome and those who did not. C4a levels in plasma samples obtained on admission were elevated in 43 patients. These levels correlated very significantly with C3a levels (p less than 0.0001), and showed similar associations with a fatal outcome. C1-C1-inhibitor complexes were elevated in 23 patients at least once during the observation period. These patients had significantly higher levels of C4a and C3a than patients with normal amounts of C1-C1-inhibitor complexes. Patients who died had higher levels of C1-C1-inhibitor complexes than patients who survived. However, this difference was not significant.",
"yes. The presence of clinically evident compared to biochemical signs of organ failure was associated with increased compliance with a SSC-based resuscitation bundle and admission to the ICU, suggesting that recognition of severe sepsis is an important barrier for successful implementation of quality improvement programs for septic patients. In septic ED patients admitted to the ICU, the time to antibiotics was shorter compared to patients admitted to a normal ward.",
"Lactate clearance, a surrogate for the magnitude and duration of global tissue hypoxia, is used diagnostically, therapeutically and prognostically. This study examined the association of early lactate clearance with selected inflammatory, coagulation, apoptosis response biomarkers and organ dysfunction scores in severe sepsis and septic shock. Measurements of serum arterial lactate, biomarkers (interleukin-1 receptor antagonist, interleukin-6, interleukin-8, interleukin-10, tumor necrosis factor-alpha, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, high mobility group box-1, D-Dimer and caspase-3), and organ dysfunction scores (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II, Simplified Acute Physiology Score II, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Score, and Sequential Organ Failure Assessment) were obtained in conjunction with a prospective, randomized study examining early goal-directed therapy in severe sepsis and septic shock patients presenting to the emergency department (ED). Lactate clearance was defined as the percent change in lactate levels after six hours from a baseline measurement in the ED. Two-hundred and twenty patients, age 65.0 +/- 17.1 years, were examined, with an overall lactate clearance of 35.5 +/- 43.1% and in-hospital mortality rate of 35.0%. Patients were divided into four quartiles of lactate clearance, -24.3 +/- 42.3, 30.1 +/- 7.5, 53.4 +/- 6.6, and 75.1 +/- 7.1%, respectively (p < 0.01). The mean levels of all biomarkers and organ dysfunction scores over 72 hours were significantly lower with higher lactate clearance quartiles (p < 0.01). There was a significant decreased in-hospital, 28-day, and 60-day mortality in the higher lactate clearance quartiles (p < 0.01).",
"yes. Plasma copeptin, CRP and procalcitonin concentrations were positively correlated with APACHE II score in patients with sepsis, and reflected disease severity.",
"yes. Septic encephalopathy implies higher mortality in nontraumatic, nonsurgical patients with severe sepsis. VCAM-1 level on presentation is a more powerful predictor of SE in these patients than lactate concentration and other adhesion molecules on admission.",
"Interleukin-6 (IL-6) is a proinflammatory cytokine that plays a central role in the pathogenesis of sepsis. We aim to investigate the association between IL-6 and all-cause mortality in patients with sepsis. A cohort of 40 elderly patients with sepsis was identified between March 2009 and June 2010 at Rambam Health Medical Campus, Haifa, Israel. The cohort was followed up for all-cause mortality occurring during the 6 months after hospital discharge. Cox proportional hazard model was used to assess the association between IL-6 and all-cause mortality. Iinterleukin-6 at discharge had a higher predictive accuracy for all-cause mortality when compared with IL-6 at admission. The area under the curve was 0.752 (P = .015) and 0.545 (P = .661), respectively. Eleven (27.5%) patients died during follow-up; the subjects who died have higher IL-6 levels at discharge (median, 50.6 pg/mL [interquartile range, 39.6-105.9]) compared with survivors at the end of follow-up (median, 35.4 [interquartile range, 15.8-49]; P = .014). The risk of all-cause mortality was higher in subjects with IL-6 levels above the median compared with subjects with lower IL-6 levels (log-rank P = .017). On multivariate Cox proportional analysis, adjusting for the potential confounders, IL-6 at discharge remained an independent predictor for 6 month all-cause mortality (hazard ratio, 6.05 [1.24-24.20]) for levels above the median compared with lower levels.",
"Prior studies showed that lactate is a useful marker in sepsis. However, lactate is often not routinely drawn or rapidly available in the emergency department (ED). The study aimed to determine if base excess (BE), widely and rapidly available in the ED, could be used as a surrogate marker for elevated lactate in ED septic patients. This was a prospective and observational cohort study. From March 2009 to March 2010, consecutive patients 18 years or older who presented to the ED with a suspected severe sepsis were enrolled in the study. Lactate and BE measurements were performed. We defined, a priori, a clinically significant lactate to be greater than 3 mmol/L and BE less than -4 mmol/L. A total of 224 patients were enrolled in the study. The average BE was -4.5 mmol/L (SD, 4.9) and the average lactate was 3.5 mmol/L (SD, 2.9). The sensitivity of a BE less than -4 mmol/L in predicting elevated lactate greater than 3 mmol/L was 91.1% (95% confidence interval, 85.5%-96.6%) and the specificity was 88.6% (95% confidence interval, 83.0%-94.2%). The area under the curve was 0.95.",
"Lactate clearance has been implicated as a predictor of mortality among emergency department (ED) patients with severe sepsis or septic shock. We aimed to validate prior studies showing that lactate clearance during the ED stay is associated with decreased mortality. Retrospective dual-centered cross-sectional study using patients identified in the Yale-New Haven Hospital Emergency Medicine sepsis registry with severe sepsis or septic shock who had initial lactate levels measured in the ED and upon arrival (<24 hours) to the hospital floor. Lactate clearance was calculated as percent of serum lactate change from ED to floor measurement. We compared mortality and hospital interventions between patients who cleared lactate and those who did not. 207 patients (110 male; 63.17±17.9 years) were included. Two reviewers extracted data with 95% agreement. One hundred thirty-six patients (65.7%) had severe sepsis and 71 patients (34.3%) had septic shock. There were 171 patients in the clearance group and 36 patients in the non-clearance group. The 28-day mortality rates were 15.2% in the lactate clearance group and 36.1% in the non-clearance group (p<0.01). Vasopressor support was initiated more often in the non-clearance group (61.1%) than in the clearance group (36.8%, p<0.01) and mechanical ventilation was used in 66.7% of the non-clearance group and 36.3% of the clearance group (p=0.001).",
"The mortality of patients with severe sepsis and septic shock is still high, and the prognosis of elderly patients tends to be particularly poor. Therefore, this study sought to conduct a comparative analysis of the abbreviated mortality in emergency department sepsis (abbMEDS) score, sequential organ failure assessment (SOFA) score, infection probability score (IPS), initial procalcitonin (PCT), and cytokine levels to investigate the effectiveness of each index in predicting the prognosis of elderly patients with sepsis in the emergency department (ED). This was a single-center prospective study, and classified 55 patients (≥65 years of age) with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) from January 2013 to December 2013 in the ED. A total of 36 elderly patients were diagnosed with sepsis. The prediction of prognosis using the prognostic scores (abbMEDS, SOFA, IPS) was analyzed. An early blood examination (WBC count, C-reactive protein, PCT, and cytokines) was conducted within the first 2 h of the patient's arrival at the ED. The median (IQR) age of subjects was 76.5 (70.5-81.5). After 28 days, 27 subjects (75 %) had survived, and 9 (25 %) had died. Fifteen (41.7 %) were sent to intensive care units (ICUs). The SOFA score and abbMEDS showed higher median (IQR) values of 9.5 (7.0-11.0) and 13.5 (12.0-15.0), respectively, in the ICU group than in the general ward group (p < 0.001). Analysis of the levels of PCT, IL-10, IL-6, and IL-5 had a significantly better ability to predict ICU admission (p = 0.001, p = 0.023, p = 0.030, p = 0.001). The prediction of mortality in the first 28 days via SOFA and the abbMEDS resulted in scores of 11.0 (8.0-11.0) and 14.0 (12.5-15.5) (p = 0.004, p = 0.003), respectively. However, levels of IPS, PCT, and cytokines did not show significant differences.",
"To examine the relationships between procalcitonin, bacterial infection, sepsis-induced multiple organ failure, and mortality rate in children. Cohort study. A multidisciplinary, tertiary-care pediatric intensive care unit. Seventy-eight children meeting criteria for sepsis or septic shock and 12 critically ill children without sepsis. Venous or arterial blood sampling. Demographic, epidemiologic, and outcome data were recorded. Plasma from children with sepsis were collected on days 1 and 3, and procalcitonin concentrations were measured by immunoluminometric assay. Organ failure index scores were determined, and multiple organ failure was defined as organ failure index > or = 3. Persistent multiple organ failure was defined by presence of multiple organ failure on day 3. Procalcitonin concentrations (median [25th percentile-75th percentile]) were increased among children with sepsis on day 1 (2.4 ng/mL [0.2-24.2], p < .01) but not on day 3 (0.8 ng/mL [0.1-8.1], p = nonsignificant) vs. controls (0.2 ng/mL [0.1-0.5]). This increase in procalcitonin concentration was particularly robust among children with bacterial sepsis on day 1 (7.1 ng/mL [0.9-44.8], p < .001) and on day 3 (2.9 ng/mL [0.1-32.4], p < .05). Procalcitonin concentrations were not increased among children with fungal, viral, or culture-negative sepsis vs. controls. Procalcitonin concentrations were persistently increased over time among patients with bacterial sepsis who had persistent multiple organ failure (p < .05) and who died (p < .01) but not among patients with nonbacterial sepsis.",
"yes. Patients with the sepsis syndrome have detectable levels of circulating TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, and lipopolysaccharide independent of culture-documented infection. Lipopolysaccharide and cytokines may play a pathogenic role in sepsis, and the combination of several elevated factors may be important in determining patient survival.",
"The endothelial cell produces many bioactive compounds that are presumed to play important roles in the pathogenesis of the adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). We postulated that individuals with sepsis and trauma-two at-risk diagnoses for the development of ARDS--might demonstrate differences in the degree of endothelial cell activity. Prospective cohort study. Intensive care unit patients in a tertiary, university-affiliated, city hospital. Fifty-five intensive care unit patients (19 with sepsis and 36 trauma patients). Plasma measurements of three endothelial cell products--von Willebrand factor antigen, soluble intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), and soluble E-selectin-were performed within 8 hrs of patients meeting our inclusion criteria, and at the clinical onset of ARDS. Twenty-six percent of the septic patients and 25% of the trauma patients developed ARDS. The median (and 25% to 75% quartiles) concentrations of all three mediators measured in the sepsis patients (von Willebrand factor antigen 399% [375% to 452%], ICAM-1 573 ng/mL [470 to 980], and soluble E-selectin 180 ng/mL [81 to 340]) were significantly higher (p < .001 for each individual analysis) than in the trauma patients (von Willebrand factor antigen 256% [217% to 310%], ICAM-1 148 ng/mL [113 to 210], and soluble E-selectin 42 ng/mL [31 to 65 ng/ mL]). In addition, neither the ICAM-1 nor soluble E-selectin concentrations measured in the trauma patients were different (p = .17 and p = .24, respectively) from normal controls. In those patients who developed ARDS, the differences in the concentrations of all three endothelial cell mediators between the sepsis and trauma patients persisted (p = .008 for von Willebrand factor antigen, p = .003 for ICAM-1, and p = .003 for E-selectin).",
"yes. The IMA level, especially at least 110 U/mL, may be a useful predictor of death for patients with severe sepsis.",
"Multiple biomarkers are used to assess sepsis severity and prognosis. Increased levels of the soluble receptor for advanced glycation end products (sRAGE) were previously observed in sepsis but also in end-organ injury without sepsis. We evaluated associations between sRAGE and (i) 28-day mortality, (ii) sepsis severity, and (iii) individual organ failure. Traditional biomarkers procalcitonin (PCT), C-reactive protein (CRP) and lactate served as controls. sRAGE, PCT, CRP, and lactate levels were observed on days 1 (D1) and 3 (D3) in 54 septic patients. We also assessed the correlation between the biomarkers and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), acute kidney injury (AKI) and acute heart failure. There were 38 survivors and 16 non-survivors. On D1, non-survivors had higher sRAGE levels than survivors (p = 0.027). On D3, sRAGE further increased only in non-survivors (p < 0.0001) but remained unchanged in survivors. Unadjusted odds ratio (OR) for 28-day mortality was 8.2 (95% CI: 1.02-60.64) for sRAGE, p = 0.048. Receiver operating characteristic analysis determined strong correlation with outcome on D3 (AUC = 0.906, p < 0.001), superior to other studied biomarkers. sRAGE correlated with sepsis severity (p < 0.00001). sRAGE showed a significant positive correlation with PCT and CRP on D3. In patients without ARDS, sRAGE was significantly higher in non-survivors (p < 0.0001) on D3.",
"yes. Our data suggest a possible role for CXCL12 as a prognostic marker in severe sepsis/septic shock and give background evidence for larger trials to evaluate the pathophysiologic and clinical role of CXCL12 in sepsis, with respect to other markers of inflammation and hypoxia.",
"The aim of the study was to determine whether C-reactive protein (CRP), procalcitonin (PCT), and d-dimer (DD) are markers of mortality in patients admitted to the emergency department (ED) with suspected infection and sepsis. We conducted a prospective cohort in a university hospital in Medellín, Colombia. Patients were admitted between August 1, 2007, and January 30, 2009. Clinical and demographic data and Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II and Sepsis Organ Failure Assessment scores as well as blood samples for CRP, PCT, and DD were collected within the first 24 hours of admission. Survival was determined on day 28 to establish its association with the proposed biomarkers using logistic regression and receiver operating characteristic curves. We analyzed 684 patients. The median Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II and Sepsis Organ Failure Assessment scores were 10 (interquartile range [IQR], 6-15) and 2 (IQR, 1-4), respectively. The median CRP was 9.6 mg/dL (IQR, 3.5-20.4 mg/dL); PCT, 0.36 ng/mL (IQR, 0.1-3.7 ng/mL); and DD, 1612 ng/mL (IQR, 986-2801 ng/mL). The median DD in survivors was 1475 ng/mL (IQR, 955-2627 ng/mL) vs 2489 ng/mL (IQR, 1698-4573 ng/mL) in nonsurvivors (P=.0001). The discriminatory ability showed area under the curve-receiver operating characteristic for DD, 0.68; CRP, 0.55; and PCT, 0.59. After multivariate analysis, the only biomarker with a linear relation with mortality was DD, with an odds ratio of 2.07 (95% confidence interval, 0.93-4.62) for values more than 1180 and less than 2409 ng/mL and an odds ratio of 3.03 (95% confidence interval, 1.38-6.62) for values more than 2409 ng/mL.",
"yes. Initial serum lactate was associated with mortality independent of clinically apparent organ dysfunction and shock in patients admitted to the ED with severe sepsis. Both intermediate and high serum lactate levels were independently associated with mortality.",
"Higher plasma plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1) levels have been reported in septic patients. However, some questions remain unanswered, such as whether there is an association between plasma PAI-1 levels and sepsis severity and mortality, and inflammation state during the first week. Multicenter, observational and prospective study carried out in six Spanish Intensive Care Units of 260 patients with severe sepsis. Circulating levels of PAI-1 and tumour necrosis factor (TNF)-α were measured at day 1, 4 and 8. End-point was 30-day mortality. Nonsurviving septic patients (n=89) presented higher PAI-1 levels than surviving (n=171) at day 1 (58.4 (33.3-83.8) vs 36.5 (21.1-62.5) ng/mL; p<0.001), 4 (34.0 (14.7-53.3) vs 16.2 (10.2-27.4) ng/mL; p<0.001) and 8 (30.6 (16.2-47.8) vs 18.9 (10.4-29.5) ng/mL; p=0.004). We found a positive correlation of PAI-1 levels with SOFA, lactic acid, aPTT, INR and TNF-α, and negative with platelet count at day 1, 4 and 8. Logistic regression analyses showed that PAI-1 levels at day 1 (p<0.001), 4 (p<0.001) and 8 (p=0.001) were associated with 30-day mortality. On ROC curve analysis to predict 30- day survival, the area under the curve of PAI-1 levels at day 1, 4 and 8 were 0.65 (95% CI=0.58-0.72; p<0.001), 0.69 (95% CI=0.60-0.78; p<0.001) and 0.65 (95% CI=0.54-0.75; p=0.005) respectively.",
"Exhaled end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO(2)) concentration is associated with lactate levels in febrile patients. We assessed the association of ETCO(2) with mortality and lactate levels in patients with suspected sepsis. This was a prospective observational study. We enrolled 201 adult patients presenting with suspected infection and 2 or more systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria. Lactate and ETCO(2) were measured and analyzed with patient outcomes. The area under the receiver operator characteristics curve (AUC) was 0.75 (confidence interval [CI], 0.65-0.86) for lactate and mortality and 0.73 (CI, 0.61-0.84) for ETCO(2) and mortality. When analyzed across the different categories of sepsis, the AUCs for lactate and mortality were 0.61 (CI, 0.36-0.87) for sepsis, 0.69 (CI, 0.48-0.89) for severe sepsis, and 0.74 (CI, 0.55-0.93) for septic shock. The AUCs for ETCO(2) and mortality were 0.60 (CI, 0.37-0.83) for sepsis, 0.67 (CI, 0.46-0.88) for severe sepsis, and 0.78 (CI, 0.59-0.96) for septic shock. There was a significant inverse relationship between ETCO(2) and lactate in all categories, with correlation coefficients of -0.421 (P < .001) in the sepsis group, -0.597 (P < .001) in the severe sepsis group, and -0.482 (P = .011), respectively. Adjusted odds ratios were calculated, demonstrating 3 significant predictors of mortality: use of vasopressors 16.4 (95% CI, 1.80-149.2), mechanical ventilation 16.4 (95% CI, 3.13-85.9), and abnormal ETCO(2) levels 6.48 (95% CI, 1.06-39.54).",
"To investigate the role of macrophage migration inhibitory factor (MIF) as a marker of severity of systemic inflammation in patients with severe sepsis and critically ill postsurgical patients. Prospective observational study in consecutive patients with severe sepsis, critically ill nonseptic postsurgical patients, and healthy blood donors. A surgical intensive care unit of a university hospital. 19 patients with severe sepsis, 18 critically ill nonseptic postsurgical patients, and 10 healthy blood donors. MIF plasma levels of patients and participants were measured. Interleukin 6 plasma levels were monitored as a control marker of inflammation. The median MIF plasma level was four to five times higher in patients with severe sepsis (2.70 ng/ml, range 0.31-19.59) and in critically ill nonseptic postsurgical patients (2.43 ng/ml, range 0.49-4.31) than in healthy blood donors (0.56 ng/ml, range 0.16-1.68). MIF plasma levels did not differ between the patient groups.",
"To study whether serially measured plasma concentrations of endothelin (a novel, potent, endogenous vasoconstrictor derived from endothelium and macrophages) relate to the pathophysiology and severity of human septic shock. Prospective analysis. Medical ICU of a university hospital. Six patients with septic shock, studied for 8 days after ICU admission. The initial plasma endothelin concentration was increased (14.2 +/- 5.2 [SD] vs. normal 4.2 +/- 0.7 pg/mL, p less than .05) and correlated with the Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II score (r2 = .79, p less than .05). For pooled data, endothelin levels correlated poorly with leukocyte counts (r2 = .13), mean arterial pressure (MAP) (r2 = .16), and administered doses of dopamine (r2 = .26). In multiple regression analyses, plasma endothelin concentrations were predicted by dopamine doses and not by MAP. Plasma endothelin concentrations predicted the decrease in creatinine clearance, independently from MAP. The pooled value for correlations between endothelin levels and creatinine clearance, during the course of disease in individual patients, was statistically significant (r2 = .31).",
"The incidence of death among patients admitted for severe sepsis or septic shock is high. Adrenomedullin (ADM) plays a central role in initiating the hyperdynamic response during the early stages of sepsis. Pilot studies indicate an association of plasma ADM with the severity of the disease. In the present study we utilized a novel sandwich immunoassay of bioactive plasma ADM in patients hospitalized with sepsis in order to assess the clinical utility. We enrolled 101 consecutive patients admitted to the emergency department with suspected sepsis in this study. Sepsis was defined by fulfillment of at least two systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria plus clinical suspicion of infection. Plasma samples for ADM measurement were obtained on admission and for the next four days. The 28-day mortality rate was recorded. ADM at admission was associated with severity of disease (correlation with Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II (APACHE II) score: r = 0.46; P <0.0001). ADM was also associated with 28-day mortality (ADM median (IQR): survivors: 50 (31 to 77) pg/mL; non-survivors: 84 (48 to 232) pg/mL; P <0.001) and was independent from and additive to APACHE II (P = 0.02). Cox regression analysis revealed an additive value of serial measurement of ADM over baseline assessment for prediction of 28-day mortality (P < 0.01). ADM was negatively correlated with mean arterial pressure (r = -0.39; P <0.0001), and it strongly discriminated those patients requiring vasopressor therapy from the others (ADM median (IQR): no vasopressors 48 (32 to 75) pg/mL; with vasopressors 129 (83 to 264) pg/mL, P <0.0001).",
"It is not known whether lack of recognition of organ failure explains the low compliance with the \"Surviving Sepsis Campaign\" (SSC) guidelines. We evaluated whether compliance was higher in emergency department (ED) sepsis patients with clinically recognizable signs of organ failure compared to patients with only laboratory signs of organ failure. Three hundred twenty-three ED patients with severe sepsis and septic shock were prospectively included. Multivariable binary logistic regression was used to assess if clinical and biochemical signs of organ failure were associated with compliance to a SSC-based resuscitation bundle. In addition, two-way analysis of variance was used to investigate the relation between the predisposition, infection, response and organ failure (PIRO) score (3 groups: 1-7, 8-14, 15-24) as a measure of illness severity and time to antibiotics with disposition to ward or ICU as effect modifier. One hundred twenty-five of 323 included sepsis patients with new-onset organ failure were admitted to the ICU, and in all these patients the SSC resuscitation bundle was started. Respiratory difficulty, hypotension and altered mental status as clinically recognizable signs of organ failure were independent predictors of 100% compliance and not illness severity per se. Corrected ORs (95% CI) were 3.38 (1.08-10.64), 2.37 (1.07-5.23) and 4.18 (1.92-9.09), respectively. Septic ED patients with clinically evident organ failure were more often admitted to the ICU compared to a ward (125 ICU admissions, P < 0.05), which was associated with shorter time to antibiotics [ward: 127 (113-141) min; ICU 94 (80-108) min (P = 0.005)].",
"To investigate whether serum levels of tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) and interleukin 6 (IL-6) are related to mortality and severity of disease in patients admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). Prospective cohort study. Emergency Department of a tertiary university hospital. A total of 140 patients admitted to the ED, representing common acute medical diseases, such as stroke, obstructive lung disease, heart failure, myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, infectious diseases and acute abdominal disorders. APACHE II score at admission, hospital mortality and length of stay in hospital (LOS). A moderate rise in cytokine levels (IL-6; 50-300 ng L(-1), TNF-alpha; 10-70 ng L[-1]) was found in all diagnosis-groups, with the most pronounced elevation seen in patients with acute abdominal disorders (up to 6900 ng L[-1]). IL-6 on arrival to the ED was significantly correlated to the APACHE II score (r = 0.48, P < 0.0001), LOS (r = 0.36, P < 0.0001) and was elevated in nonsurvivors (n = 9) compared to those who did survive. TNF-alpha on arrival showed a significant correlation to LOS (r = 0.36, P < 0.0001) and APACHE II (r = 0.41, P < 0.0001), but was not associated to later mortality.",
"The aim of this study was to delineate the association between high macrophage migration inhibitory factor (MIF) and interleukin 10 (IL-10) levels in the early phase of sepsis and rapidly fatal outcome. One hundred and fifty-three adult subjects with the main diagnosis of severe sepsis (including septic shock) admitted directly from the emergency department of two tertiary medical centers and one regional teaching hospital between January 2009 and December 2011, were included prospectively. MIF and IL-10 levels were measured and outcomes were analyzed by Cox regression analysis according to the following outcomes: rapidly fatal outcome (RFO, death within 48 h), late fatal outcome (LFO, death between 48 h and 28 days), and survival at 28 days. Among the three outcome groups, IL-10 levels were significantly higher in the RFO group (p < 0.001) and no significant differences were seen between the LFO and survivor groups. After Cox regression analysis, each incremental elevation of 1000 pg/ml in both IL-10 and MIF was independently associated with RFO in patients with severe sepsis. Each incremental elevation of 1000 pg/ml in IL-10 increased the RFO risk by a factor of 1.312 (95% confidence interval 1.094-1.575; p=0.003); this was the most significant factor leading to RFO in patients with severe sepsis.",
"To determine whether plasma tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interleukin-1 beta (IL-1 beta), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and lipopolysaccharide are detectable in patients when they first present with the sepsis syndrome and to determine whether levels correlate with patient survival. Prospective study comparing patients with the sepsis syndrome, critically ill patients without sepsis, and normal healthy volunteers. Tertiary care hospital affiliated with a medical school. The study included 97 consecutive patients on a medical service who met the criteria for the sepsis syndrome; 20 critically ill patients without sepsis who were in the medical intensive care unit; and 20 healthy volunteers who served as comparison groups. Plasma tumor necrosis factor-alpha, IL-1 beta, interleukin-6, and endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) levels were measured when a patient was first identified as having the sepsis syndrome. Survival was defined as being alive 30 days after the sepsis syndrome was diagnosed. Fifty-four percent of patients with the sepsis syndrome had detectable levels of TNF-alpha (median, 26 pg/mL; range, nondetectable to 1000 pg/mL); 37% had detectable levels of IL-1 (median, 20 pg/mL; range, nondetectable to 2850 pg/mL); 80% had detectable levels of IL-6 (median, 415 pg/mL; range, nondetectable to 2380 pg/mL); and 89% had detectable levels of lipopolysaccharide (median, 2.6; range, nondetectable to 12.5 endotoxin units [EU]/mL). In all cases levels were higher than those in critically ill patients without sepsis and normal healthy controls (P < 0.001 for all comparisons). Plasma levels of TNF-alpha, IL-1 beta, IL-6, and lipopolysaccharide were detectable in patients regardless of culture status. The IL-6 level was 69% (95% CI, 30% to 108%) higher in patients who died compared with those who survived. The scores for the individual levels of TNF-alpha, IL-1 beta, IL-6, and lipopolysaccharide were summed to arrive at a total lipopolysaccharide-cytokine score, and mortality increased with lipopolysaccharide-cytokine score (P < 0.001).",
"Gamma immunoglobulin E (IgE) is associated with allergic reactions but has not been described as being activated after sepsis. This study aimed at detecting the prognostic value of plasma IgE level in sepsis progression in the emergency department (ED). Plasma IgE and related cytokines levels were measured on enrollment, and the Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II score, Sequential Organ Failure Assessment score, and Mortality in Emergency Department Sepsis score were calculated on ED admission. A 28-day follow-up was performed for all patients. A total of 480 patients were consecutively enrolled in this study. The results revealed that nonsurvivors were in a more severe critical state, with reflected by higher IgE level and higher scoring systems (P<.001). Multivariate logistic regression analysis showed that IgE level was independent predictor of severe sepsis (odds ratio, 1.034; 95% confidence interval, 1.023-1.044; P<.001) and 28-day mortality (odds ratio, 1.038; 95% confidence interval, 1.027-1.053; P<.001). The areas under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC) analysis showed that IgE was a useful parameter in prognosis of severe sepsis (AUC was 0.830; cutoff value was 303.08μg/L) and 28-day mortality (AUC was 0.700; cutoff value was 299.96μg/L), Importantly, the AUC of combination of IgE and Mortality in Emergency Department Sepsis score performed for the most significant prognostic ability than each parameter, respectively, in this cohort (P<.001).",
"Early identification of patients with infection and at risk of developing severe disease with organ dysfunction remains a difficult challenge. We aimed to evaluate and validate the heparin-binding protein, a neutrophil-derived mediator of vascular leakage, as a prognostic biomarker for risk of progression to severe sepsis with circulatory failure in a multicenter setting. A prospective international multicenter cohort study. Seven different emergency departments in Sweden, Canada, and the United States. Adult patients with a suspected infection and at least one of three clinical systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria (excluding leukocyte count). None. Plasma levels of heparin-binding protein, procalcitonin, C-reactive protein, lactate, and leukocyte count were determined at admission and 12-24 hours after admission in 759 emergency department patients with suspected infection. Patients were defined depending on the presence of infection and organ dysfunction. Plasma samples from 104 emergency department patients with suspected sepsis collected at an independent center were used to validate the results. Of the 674 patients diagnosed with an infection, 487 did not have organ dysfunction at enrollment. Of these 487 patients, 141 (29%) developed organ dysfunction within the 72-hour study period; 78.0% of the latter patients had an elevated plasma heparin-binding protein level (>30 ng/mL) prior to development of organ dysfunction (median, 10.5 hr). Compared with other biomarkers, heparin-binding protein was the best predictor of progression to organ dysfunction (area under the receiver operating characteristic curve=0.80). The performance of heparin-binding protein was confirmed in the validation cohort.",
"Mortality in patients with septic shock remains unacceptably high and the attempts to antagonize certain proinflammatory cytokines based on the results of animal model studies have failed to improve survival rates. The objective of this article is to examine the pro-/anti-inflammatory cytokine balance in patients with septic shock and its connection with mortality. Serum levels of proinflammatory cytokines (tumor necrosis factor-α [TNF-α], interleukin 1β [IL-1β], interferonγ [IFN-γ], and IL-6) and soluble cytokine antagonists (soluble TNF receptor I [sTNF-RI], sTNF-RII, and IL-1Ra) were determined on admission to the intensive care unit (ICU) and 3, 7, 14, and 28 days later in 52 patients with septic shock and in 36 healthy controls. Specific sandwich enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) was used for all determinations. Serum levels of most of the pro- and anti-inflammatory molecules examined (TNF-α, IL-6, sTNF-RI, sTNF-RII, and IL-1 receptor agonist [IL-1Ra]) were significantly elevated on admission and during the 28-day observation period in patients when compared to controls. Notably, the anti-inflammatory mediators sTNF-RI, sTNF-RII, and IL-1Ra were better predictors of mortality. Receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) analysis revealed that sTNF-RI or sTNF-RII concentrations over 2767 or 4619 pg/mL, respectively, determined a high risk of death (sensitivity: 100%-100%, specificity: 57.1%-71.4%, area under the curve [AUC] 0.759-0.841, respectively), whereas IL-1Ra concentrations below 7033 pg/mL determined a high probability of survival (sensitivity: 60%, specificity: 100%, AUC 0.724). In addition, IFN-γ levels were significantly higher in survivors than in controls during the initial 2 weeks of observation.",
"Sepsis is an emergency condition with high mortality and morbidity rate. There are limited data on the association of cancer as a risk factor for mortality in sepsis patients in the emergency department (ED). This retrospective study was conducted at the ED, Faculty of Medicine, Ramathibodi Hospital, Bangkok, Thailand. The study period was between January 1st and December 31st, 2014. The inclusion criteria were as follows: adult patients over 15 years of age who presented at the ED with suspicion of sepsis, received treatment at the ED, and whose blood culture was found to be positive. Clinical data were recorded from medical records including the Mortality in Emergency Department Sepsis score (MEDS score). The primary outcome of this study was mortality at one month. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was used to identify independent factors associated with death. During the study period, there were 775 eligible patients. The two most common pathogens identified from blood cultures were Staphylococcus aureus (193 patients; 24.9%) and Escherichia coli (158 patients; 20.4%). At one month after presenting at the ED, 110 patients (14.2%) had died. There were four significant factors for death, having cancer, being on an endotracheal tube, initial diagnosis of bacteremia, and high MED scores. Having cancer had an adjusted OR of 2.12 (95% CI of 1.29, 3.47).",
"yes. Increased EVLWI levels correlates development of MODS and mortality during the patients' ICU stay. Further more, the potential of novel treatment in severe sepsis with lung injury may develop.",
"yes. Serum levels of proinflammatory cytokines collected at admission to the ED were related to the severity of disease and hospital mortality.",
"To determine the utility of a prehospital sepsis screening protocol utilizing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria and end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2). We conducted a prospective cohort study among sepsis alerts activated by emergency medical services during a 12 month period after the initiation of a new sepsis screening protocol utilizing ≥2 SIRS criteria and ETCO2 levels of ≤25 mmHg in patients with suspected infection. The outcomes of those that met all criteria of the protocol were compared to those that did not. The main outcome was the diagnosis of sepsis and severe sepsis. Secondary outcomes included mortality and in-hospital lactate levels. Of 330 sepsis alerts activated, 183 met all protocol criteria and 147 did not. Sepsis alerts that followed the protocol were more frequently diagnosed with sepsis (78% vs 43%, P < .001) and severe sepsis (47% vs 7%, P < .001), and had a higher mortality (11% vs 5%, P = .036). Low ETCO2 levels were the strongest predictor of sepsis (area under the ROC curve (AUC) of 0.99, 95% CI 0.99-1.00; P < .001), severe sepsis (AUC 0.80, 95% CI 0.73-0.86; P < .001), and mortality (AUC 0.70, 95% CI 0.57-0.83; P = .005) among all prehospital variables. Sepsis alerts that followed the protocol had a sensitivity of 90% (95% CI 81-95%), a specificity of 58% (95% CI 52-65%), and a negative predictive value of 93% (95% CI 87-97%) for severe sepsis. There were significant associations between prehospital ETCO2 and serum bicarbonate levels (r = 0.415, P < .001), anion gap (r = -0.322, P < .001), and lactate (r = -0.394, P < .001).",
"Lactate measurements are routinely carried out in emergency departments and are associated with increased mortality in septic patients. However, no definitive research has been carried out into whether lactate measurements can be used as a prognostic marker in a clinically unwell population in the emergency department. We carried out a prospective observational cohort study in consecutive patients whose arterial lactate concentration was measured in the emergency department of a tertiary referral hospital assessing 110,000 patients per year between 11th May and 11th August 2011. The main outcome measure was 30-day mortality. There were 120 deaths (16.1%) at 30 days postattendance in our cohort of 747 patients. Multivariate logistic regression revealed lower lactate levels were associated with 30-day survival: ORs for 30-day death compared with lactate ≥4 were 0.125 (95% CI 0.068 to 0.229) for lactate <2 and 0.273 (95% CI 0.140 to 0.533) for lactate 2-<4. Kaplan-Meier analysis showed a survival difference when dividing lactate concentrations into strata (p<0.0001). This survival difference was maintained when septic diagnoses were taken into account.",
"High-mobility group box 1 (HMGB1) has been proposed as a late mediator of sepsis, but human data are sparse and conflicting. We describe plasma HMGB1 concentrations in humans with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), the most common cause of severe sepsis, and test the hypotheses that HMGB1 levels are higher in CAP than healthy controls, higher in CAP with severe sepsis than CAP without severe sepsis, and higher in severe sepsis nonsurvivors than survivors. Random, outcome-stratified sample from a prospective study of 1,895 subjects hospitalized with CAP. Twenty-eight U.S. teaching and community hospitals. There were 122 CAP subjects (43 never developed severe sepsis, 49 developed severe sepsis and survived hospitalization, and 30 developed severe sepsis and died) and 38 healthy controls. None. Median day of onset of severe sepsis was day of admission. HMGB1 was measured daily for the first week and analyzed using repeated-measures models with and without multivariable adjustment for baseline characteristics. HMGB1 concentrations were higher in CAP subjects compared with controls (median concentration on day of admission vs. controls, 190 vs. 0 ng/mL, p = .0001; 93.7% of all CAP measurements were elevated). HMGB1 remained elevated throughout the hospital course with no significant trend (p = .64) and did not differ between those with and without severe sepsis (p = .30). HMGB1 concentrations were higher in severe sepsis nonsurvivors than survivors (p = .001). HMGB1 concentrations remained elevated at discharge (median final HMGB1 measure, 176 ng/mL). Findings persisted in multivariable models and were robust to sensitivity analyses using alternative definitions of severe sepsis.",
"ED patients admitted with presumed sepsis have elevated cytokine levels compared with patients with sepsis who are discharged and with those patients with presumed noninfectious SIRS. An association appears to exist between cytokines and subsequent septic complications in these patients. The importance of these measures as clinical predictors for the presence of infection and subsequent septic complications needs to be evaluated.",
"To identify biomarkers which distinguish severe sepsis/septic shock from uncomplicated sepsis in the Emergency Department (ED). Patients with sepsis underwent serial blood sampling, including arrival in the ED and up to three subsequent time points over the first 24 hours. Messenger RNA (mRNA) levels of 13 genes representing arms of the innate immune response, organ dysfunction or shock were measured in peripheral blood leucocytes using quantitative PCR, and compared with healthy controls. Serum protein concentrations of targets differentially expressed between uncomplicated sepsis and severe sepsis/septic shock were then measured at each time point and compared between the two patient groups. Of 27 participants (median age 66 years, (IQR 35, 78)), 10 had uncomplicated sepsis and 17 had sepsis with organ failure (14 septic shock; 3 had other sepsis-related organ failures). At the time of first sample collection in the ED, gene expression of Interleukin (IL)-10 and Neutrophil Gelatinase Associated Lipocalin (NGAL) were significantly higher in severe sepsis than uncomplicated sepsis. Expression did not significantly change over time for any target gene. Serum concentrations of IL-6, IL-8, IL-10, NGAL and Resistin were significantly higher in severe sepsis than uncomplicated sepsis at the time of first sample collection in the ED, but only IL-8, NGAL and Resistin were consistently higher in severe sepsis compared to uncomplicated sepsis at all time points up to 24 h after presentation.",
"Although evolutive standard base excess and serum lactate level are still outcome markers in severe sepsis and septic shock patients resuscitated with early goal-directed therapy, other studies must be performed to clarify if hemodynamic interventions based on standard base excess and serum lactate level could be reliable to improve clinical outcomes in severe sepsis and septic shock patients.",
"yes. Our results suggest that high levels of DD are associated with 28-day mortality in patients with infection or sepsis identified in the emergency department.",
"yes. We observed a significant association between ETCO(2) concentration and in-hospital mortality in emergency department patients with suspected sepsis across a range of disease severity.",
"Serum lactate is a potentially useful biomarker to risk-stratify patients with severe sepsis; however, it is plausible that elevated serum lactate is simply a manifestation of clinically apparent organ dysfunction and/or shock (i.e., refractory hypotension). To test whether the association between initial serum lactate level and mortality in patients presenting to the emergency department (ED) with severe sepsis is independent of organ dysfunction and shock. Single-center cohort study. The primary outcome was 28-day mortality and the risk factor variable was initial venous lactate (mmol/L), categorized as low (< 2), intermediate (2-3.9), or high (> or = 4). Potential covariates included age, sex, race, acute and chronic organ dysfunction, severity of illness, and initiation of early goal-directed therapy. Multivariable logistic regression analyses were stratified on the presence or absence of shock. The ED of an academic tertiary care center from 2005 to 2007. Eight hundred thirty adults admitted with severe sepsis in the ED. None. Mortality at 28 days was 22.9% and median serum lactate was 2.9 mmol/L. Intermediate (odds ratio [OR] = 2.05, p = 0.024) and high serum lactate levels (OR = 4.87, p < 0.001) were associated with mortality in the nonshock subgroup. In the shock subgroup, intermediate (OR = 3.27, p = 0.022) and high serum lactate levels (OR = 4.87, p = 0.001) were also associated with mortality. After adjusting for potential confounders, intermediate and high serum lactate levels remained significantly associated with mortality within shock and nonshock strata.",
"We evaluated serum levels of CXCL12 in patients with severe sepsis/septic shock and controls. We enrolled 27 patients admitted to our emergency department with severe sepsis/septic shock and 20 healthy controls. Complete blood count, serum levels of CXCL12, C-reactive protein, lactate, Charlson comorbidity index, sequential organ failure score on hospital admission, and inhospital mortality were evaluated at baseline (T0) and after 24 hours (T24). Mean serum levels of CXCL12 were higher in patients with severe sepsis/septic shock than in healthy subjects (3121 vs 1991 pg/mL; P < .001). We also found that patient who survived had lower serum levels of CXCL12 than those who died (2630 vs 3957 pg/mL; P < .001) but still higher than controls (2630 vs 1991 pg/mL; P = .001) on admission. CXCL12 serum levels were higher in patients with serum lactate greater than 4 mmol/L.",
"yes. These mediators, produced by both damaged tissues and circulating leukocytes, may have important roles in the development of severe sepsis. Further work will determine whether they have any value, in addition to clinical risk parameters, for the early identification of patients that will subsequently deteriorate and/or have a higher risk of death.",
"We sought to determine whether levels of the endogenous mediators tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha, interleukin (IL) 6, and nitric oxide (NO) measured in patients with presumed sepsis (systemic inflammatory response syndrome [SIRS] and infection) are different than levels in patients with presumed noninfectious SIRS, whether levels are associated with septic complications, and whether there are potential relationships between mediators. A prospective, observational tricenter study of a convenience sample of adults presenting to the emergency department meeting Bone's criteria for SIRS (any combination of fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, or WBC count aberration) was performed. Mediator levels were determined and associated with deterioration to severe sepsis (hypotension, hypoperfusion, or organ dysfunction) and death in subjects admitted to the hospital with presumed sepsis. One hundred eighty subjects with SIRS were enrolled and classified into 3 groups: group 1 (SIRS, presumed infection, admitted; n=108), group 2 (SIRS, presumed infection, discharged; n=27), and group 3 (SIRS, presumed noninfectious, admitted; n=45). Group 1 TNF-alpha and IL-6 levels were significantly higher than those found in the other groups. NO levels for groups 1 and 2 were significantly lower than those for group 3. TNF-alpha and IL-6 levels were higher in the group 1 subjects who had bacteremia or progressed to severe sepsis or death. NO levels were not associated with these outcomes."
] | 539 |
Angel trumpet: a poisonous garden plant as a new addictive drug? | [
"Angel's trumpet (Species Brugmansia) is widely used as a garden plant because it is easily kept and the luxuriance of its flowering. Belonging to the Family Solanacea it contains a large amount of alkaloids (parasympatholytics). Because of its hallucinogenic action, its leaves and flowers are increasingly used by young people as a substitute for the hallucinogen LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide). In the summer of 1997, one of a group of youths died after they had ingested its flowers which they had gathered from front gardens. An investigation was undertaken to identify the alkaloids and measure their concentration in the various parts of the plant. Four young and one eight-year old plant were kept outdoors from May until October, and its flowers and leaves were removed for analysis weekly. All samples were deep-frozen at -20 degrees C and later, at the same time, thawed out, weighed and extracted in methanol. The alkaloids were identified by high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC), diode array detector, separated by means of a Hypersil HyPurity cartridge, and measured at a wave-length of 220 nm. All 66 flowers, 32 leaves and 2 speed capsules contained tropane alkaloids, mainly scopolamine. The highest concentrations were found in the seed capsules, lower ones in the flowers, while the leaves contained only small amounts. Total alkaloid content per flower of the younger plants averaged 0.94 mg, of the younger ones 1.81 mg. The flowers of the old plant contained up to 3 mg scopolamine.",
"The ingestion of even a few flowers of Angel's trumpet can cause symptoms of poisoning. Easy availability of the plant thus presents a danger. Because of the increasing incidence of deliberate ingestion by young people, poisoning by Angel's trumpet should be included in the differential diagnosis in patients with confusion and hallucinations of uncertain origin, especially during the summer months."
] | [
"Our findings challenge the idea that propofol anaesthesia and also propofol addiction are directly mediated by FAAH inhibition, but we cannot exclude other indirect actions on cannabinoid receptors.",
"Aldehydes are emitted by electronic cigarettes due to thermal decomposition of liquid components. Although elevated levels have been reported with new-generation high-power devices, it is unclear whether they are relevant to true exposure of users (vapers) because overheating produces an unpleasant taste, called a dry puff, which vapers learn to avoid. The aim was to evaluate aldehyde emissions at different power levels associated with normal and dry puff conditions. Two customizable atomizers were prepared so that one (A1) had a double wick, resulting in high liquid supply and lower chance of overheating at high power levels, while the other (A2) was a conventional setup (single wick). Experienced vapers took 4-s puffs at 6.5 watts (W), 7.5 W, 9 W and 10 W power levels with both atomizers and were asked to report whether dry puffs were generated. The atomizers were then attached to a smoking machine and aerosol was trapped. Clinic office and analytical chemistry laboratory in Greece. Seven experienced vapers. Aldehyde levels were measured in the aerosol. All vapers identified dry puff conditions at 9 W and 10 W with A2. A1 did not lead to dry puffs at any power level. Minimal amounts of aldehydes per 10 puffs were found at all power levels with A1 (up to 11.3 µg for formaldehyde, 4.5 µg for acetaldehyde and 1.0 µg for acrolein) and at 6.5 W and 7.5 W with A2 (up to 3.7 µg for formaldehyde, 0.8 µg for acetaldehyde and 1.3 µg for acrolein). The levels were increased by 30 to 250 times in dry puff conditions (up to 344.6 µg for formaldehyde, 206.3 µg for acetaldehyde and 210.4 µg for acrolein, P < 0.001), while acetone was detected only in dry puff conditions (up to 22.5 µg).",
"3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA; ecstasy) is known for its toxicological, psychopathological and abuse potential. Some environmental conditions, e.g. acoustic stimulation typical of the \"rave scene\" can influence the toxicity of this drug. We investigated the effects of low doses of MDMA in vivo using Wistar rats in the absence of acoustic stimulation (white noise; 95 Db) demonstrating that ecstasy is able to induce a significant activation (reduction of Electrocortical total power) of the telencephalic cortex that spontaneously reverts in the absence of sensorial stimuli, whereas it persists for several days if, in addition to MDMA, the animals are exposed to acoustic stimulation.",
"While the US FDA maintains a voluntary reporting system, postmarketing adverse drug events (ADEs) are underreported, and this case report-based system does not allow accurate determination of incidence. The aim of the study was to assess the usefulness of an automated phone pharmacovigilance system for ambulatory patients by comparing systematically collected, patient-reported symptoms to reflect possible ADEs with those reported on the package inserts of two drugs with postmarketing safety concerns, varenicline and zolpidem. English-speaking adults who received a prescription for zolpidem (n = 370) or varenicline (n = 107) from a primary care physician at one of 11 participating clinics, and who participated in the pharmacovigilance system during 2008-2010, were included in the study. Patients were called approximately 4 weeks following their visit and asked to complete a standard script that asked about adherence and pre-specified symptoms. The main outcome measures were elicited rates of pre-specified symptoms or possible ADEs. Compared with the package insert, patients taking zolpidem were significantly (p<0.001) more likely to report fatigue (9.0% vs 1.0%), itching (4.5% vs 1.0%) and muscle aches (5.6% vs 1.0%). Elicited rates of depression and hallucination were similar to those reported in the package insert. Patients taking varenicline were significantly more likely to report confusion (1.7% vs 0.1%), depression (3.4% vs 0.1%), fatigue (6.0% vs 1.0%), hallucinations (1.7% vs 0.1%), muscle aches (6.0% vs 1.0%) and sexual dysfunction (4.3% vs 0.1%).",
"To examine whether bipolar disorder patients who stop cannabis use during a manic/mixed episode have better clinical and functional outcomes than continued use or never use. Data from the European Mania in Bipolar Longitudinal Evaluation of Medication (EMBLEM), a 2-year prospective observational study in adults with a manic/mixed episode of bipolar disorder, was used. Three cannabis use groups were: current use (between 12-week and 24-month visits); no current but previous use (during first 12 weeks); and never use. Associations between cannabis use and outcomes were analyzed using regression models. Of 1922 patients analyzed, 6.9% were current users, 4.6% previous users, and 88.5% never users. Clinical outcomes differed between groups (P<0.019): previous users had highest rates of remission (68.1%) and recovery (38.7%), and lowest rates of recurrence (42.1%) and relapse (29.8%). Logistic regression showed previous users had similar outcomes to never users (all P>0.05), whereas current users had lower recovery (P=0.004) and remission (P=0.014), higher recurrence (P=0.014), greater work impairment (P=0.016), and were more likely not to be living with partner (P=0.006) than never users.",
"To examine the prevalence and correlates of vaporization (i.e., \"vaping\") as a route of cannabis administration in a sample of medical cannabis patients. Adults ages 21 and older (N=1485M age=45.1) who were seeking medical cannabis certification (either for the first time or as a renewal) at medical cannabis clinics in southern Michigan completed a screening assessment. Participants completed measures of route of cannabis administration, cannabis use, alcohol and other substance use. An estimated 39% (n=511) of the sample reported past-month cannabis vaping, but vaping as the sole route of cannabis administration was rare. Specifically, only 30 participants (2.3% of the full sample and 5.9% of those who reported any vaping) indicated vaping as the sole route of cannabis administration. The majority (87.3%) of those who reported vaping also reported smoking (combustion) as a route of cannabis administration. Being younger than age 44, having more than a high school education, engaging in nonmedical stimulant use, being a returning medical cannabis patient, and greater frequency of cannabis use were associated with higher odds of vaping at the bivariate level and with all variables considered simultaneously.",
"AAN cases are likely to occur in Bangladesh and more awareness needs to be raised about the health risks associated with the use of Aristolochia indica and other species of Aristolochia as herbal medicines.",
"On the one hand, it appears that simultaneous intake of St John's Wort possibly potentiates the toxicity of kavapyrones. On the other hand, an immune-mediated mechanism, induced by kava-kava, cannot be completely excluded in the present case. It must be stressed that in patients with autoimmune hepatitis, precise history of medication intake should also be available.",
"In the last decade we have observed a considerable increase in nonmedical usage of dextromethorphan (DXM) among young age groups, especially school children between 13 and 16 yrs. We analysed the \"trip reports\" after use of DXM, available on a website: www.hyperreal.info in the years 1999-2013. The data collected by authors were analysed according to: age, sex, symptoms, dose of DXM, a reason and a place of using the drug. A review of 124 \"trip reports\" showed that the majority of their writers are male (M 90.3%, F 9.7%). Young people, aged 16-20 (80.4%), dominated among the study population. The most common place of using DXM was a flat of a drug user (70.2%), and the reason of using a willingness to experiment with new psychoactive substances (41.9%) as well as the desire of \"get high\" (25.8%). The majority of users used DXM at least once again in their lives (56.5%). A single dose of the ingested drug ranged from 120 mg to 1575 mg (mean 539.25 mg). Most often received doses were 450 mg (30.4%), 300 mg (12%), 900 mg (11.2%). DXM was positively assessed by the internauts as a recreational psychoactive substance (84.7%). The most common clinical symptoms described by internauts were: difficulties with walking (74.2%), visual illusions (73.4%), altered sense of time (41.9%), feeling of exteriorisation (35.5%), euphoria (33.1%), nausea and vomiting (32.3%), auditory illusions (30.6%) and pruritus (29.8%).",
"Novel experiences activate the brain's reward system in a manner similar to drugs of abuse, and high levels of novelty-seeking and sensation-seeking behavior have been associated with increased susceptibility to alcohol and drug abuse. Here, we show that metabotropic glutamate receptor 5 (mGluR5) signaling on dopaminoceptive neurons is necessary for both novelty-seeking behavior and the abstinence-induced escalation of alcohol drinking. Mice harboring a transgene expressing microRNA hairpins against mGluR5 messenger RNA under the control of the D1 dopamine receptor gene promoter (mGluR5(KD-D1)) were tested in a battery of behavioral tests measuring learning abilities, anxiety levels, reactions to novelty, operant sensation seeking, and alcohol sensitivity. In addition, we have developed a method to assess long-term patterns of alcohol drinking in mice housed in groups using the IntelliCage system. mGluR5(KD-D1) mice showed no behavioral deficits and exhibited normal anxiety-like behaviors and learning abilities. However, mGluR5(KD-D1) animals showed reduced locomotor activity when placed in a novel environment, and exhibited decreased interaction with a novel object. Moreover, unlike control animals, mutant mice did not perform instrumental responses under the operant sensation-seeking paradigm, although they learned to respond for food normally. When mGluR5(KD-D1) mice were provided access to alcohol, they showed similar patterns of consumption as wild-type animals. However, mutant mice did not escalate their alcohol consumption after a period of forced abstinence, but control mice almost doubled their intake.",
"The schizophrenia susceptibility gene neuregulin 1 (NRG1) confers vulnerability to the neurobehavioural eff ects of cannabinoids differently across sexes. Male but not female Nrg1 heterozygous (HET) mice display facilitation of prepulse inhibition (PPI) to acute Δ⁹-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) exposure compared to WT controls. We aim to observe whether repeated administration of THC may overcome the acute insensitivity of female Nrg1 HET mice to THC exposure. Female Nrg1 HET mice and WT controls were administered THC daily for 21 days, with PPI and anxiety-related behaviour in the light-dark test (LD) examined on the fi rst and last day of treatment and 21 days after cessation of dosing. Following repeated, but not acute THC exposure, female Nrg1 HET mice displayed THC-induced facilitation of PPI which was not observed in WT mice treated with THC. There were no residual eff ects of THC on PPI in either genotype when assessed 21 days following the final THC dose. An anxiogenic response to THC was evident following repeated, but not acute, administration in the LD test in both genotypes.",
"Intravenous mephedrone use is associated with a higher risk of harmful drug use, elevated psychiatric symptom profile and increased possibility of mephedrone being considered as an addictive substance. These findings might be important in efficient treatment planning.",
"Areca nut use by itself and more so with tobacco additives, is associated with the development of a dependence syndrome in a substantial numbers of users.",
"Cannabinoid CB(1) receptor antagonists/inverse agonists, potentiate toxin-induced nausea and vomiting in animal models. Here, we sought to determine if this potentiated nausea was mediated by inverse agonism or neutral antagonism of the CB(1) receptor, and if the potentiated nausea would be produced by intracerebroventricular (icv) administration of an inverse agonist. The conditioned gaping model of nausea in rats was used to compare the CB(1) receptor antagonist/inverse agonist, AM251, and the CB(1) receptor neutral antagonists, AM6527 (centrally and peripherally active) and AM6545 (peripherally active), in potentiating conditioned gaping produced by lithium chloride (LiCl) solution. The effect of icv (lateral ventricle and 4th ventricle) administration of AM251 on LiCl-induced gaping in this model was also evaluated. At a dose that did not produce conditioned gaping on its own, systemically administered AM251 (1.25 mg.kg(-1)) potentiated LiCl-induced conditioned gaping and reduced sucrose palatability; however, even doses as high as 8 mg.kg(-1) of AM6545 and AM6527 neither potentiated LiCl-induced conditioned gaping nor reduced sucrose palatability. Infusions of AM251 into the lateral ventricles (1.25, 12.5 and 125 microg) or the 4th ventricle (2.5, 12.5 and 125 microg) did not potentiate LiCl-induced conditioned gaping reactions, but all doses attenuated saccharin palatability during the subsequent test.",
"Opium and hashish, a form of cannabis, are substitutes. In addition, opium consumption displays properties of habit persistence and slight price and wage income responsiveness (inelasticity) consistent with an addictive substance.",
"We sought to better understand the trend for prescription attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) medication abuse by teenagers. We queried the American Association of Poison Control Center's National Poison Data System for the years of 1998-2005 for all cases involving people aged 13 to 19 years, for which the reason was intentional abuse or intentional misuse and the substance was a prescription medication used for ADHD treatment. For trend comparison, we sought data on the total number of exposures. In addition, we used teen and preteen ADHD medication sales data from IMS Health's National Disease and Therapeutic Index database to compare poison center call trends with likely availability. Calls related to teenaged victims of prescription ADHD medication abuse rose 76%, which is faster than calls for victims of substance abuse generally and teen substance abuse. The annual rate of total and teen exposures was unchanged. Over the 8 years, estimated prescriptions for teenagers and preteenagers increased 133% for amphetamine products, 52% for methylphenidate products, and 80% for both together. Reports of exposure to methylphenidate fell from 78% to 30%, whereas methylphenidate as a percentage of ADHD prescriptions decreased from 66% to 56%. Substance-related abuse calls per million adolescent prescriptions rose 140%.",
"CB(1) cannabinoid receptors in the brain are known to participate in the regulation of reward-based behaviors. However, the contribution of each of the endocannabinoid transmitters, anandamide and 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG), to these behaviors remains undefined. To address this question, we assessed the effects of URB597, a selective anandamide deactivation inhibitor, as a reinforcer of drug-seeking and drug-taking behavior in squirrel monkeys. We investigated the reinforcing effects of the fatty acid amide hydrolase (FAAH) inhibitor URB597 in monkeys trained to intravenously self-administer Delta(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), anandamide, or cocaine and quantified brain endocannabinoid levels using liquid chromatography/mass spectrometry. We measured brain FAAH activity using an ex vivo enzyme assay. URB597 (.3 mg/kg, intravenous) blocked FAAH activity and increased anandamide levels throughout the monkey brain. This effect was accompanied by a marked compensatory decrease in 2-AG levels. Monkeys did not self-administer URB597, and the drug did not promote reinstatement of extinguished drug-seeking behavior previously maintained by THC, anandamide, or cocaine. Pretreatment with URB597 did not modify self-administration of THC or cocaine, even though, as expected, it significantly potentiated anandamide self-administration.",
"Mixed cannabinoid receptor 1 and 2 (CB1 and CB2) agonists such as Δ(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (Δ(9)-THC) can produce tolerance, physical withdrawal, and unwanted CB1-mediated central nervous system side effects. Whether repeated systemic administration of a CB2-preferring agonist engages CB1 receptors or produces CB1-mediated side effects is unknown. We evaluated antiallodynic efficacy, possible tolerance, and cannabimimetic side effects of repeated dosing with a CB2-preferring agonist AM1710 in a model of chemotherapy-induced neuropathy produced by paclitaxel using CB1 knockout (CB1KO), CB2 knockout (CB2KO), and wild-type (WT) mice. Comparisons were made with the prototypic classic cannabinoid Δ(9)-THC. We also explored the site and possible mechanism of action of AM1710. Paclitaxel-induced mechanical and cold allodynia developed to an equivalent degree in CB1KO, CB2KO, and WT mice. Both AM1710 and Δ(9)-THC suppressed established paclitaxel-induced allodynia in WT mice. In contrast to Δ(9)-THC, chronic administration of AM1710 did not engage CB1 activity or produce antinociceptive tolerance, CB1-mediated cannabinoid withdrawal, hypothermia, or motor dysfunction. Antiallodynic efficacy of systemic administration of AM1710 was absent in CB2KO mice and WT mice receiving the CB2 antagonist AM630, administered either systemically or intrathecally. Intrathecal administration of AM1710 also attenuated paclitaxel-induced allodynia in WT mice, but not CB2KO mice, implicating a possible role for spinal CB2 receptors in AM1710 antiallodynic efficacy. Finally, both acute and chronic administration of AM1710 decreased messenger RNA levels of tumor necrosis factor-α and monocyte chemoattractant protein 1 in lumbar spinal cord of paclitaxel-treated WT mice.",
"Some plants had been used in the treatment of cancer and one of these has attracted scientific interest, the Euphorbia tirucalli (E. tirucalli), used in the treatment of asthma, ulcers, warts has active components with activities scientifically proven as antimutagenic, anti-inflammatory and anticancer. We evaluate the influence of the antitumoral fraction of the E. tirucalli latex in the larynx squamous cell carcinoma (Hep-2), on the morphology, cell proliferation and gene expression. The Hep-2 cells were cultivated in complete medium (MEM 10 %) and treated with E. tirucalli latex for 1, 3, 5 and 7 days. After statistically analyzing the proliferation of the tested cells, the cells were cultivated again for RNA extraction and the Rapid Subtractive Hybridization (RaSH) technique was used to identify genes with altered expression. The genes found using the RaSH technique were analyzed by Gene Ontology (GO) using Ingenuity Systems. The five genes found to have differential expression were validated by real-time quantitative PCR. Though treatment with E. tirucalli latex did not change the cell morphology in comparison to control samples, but the cell growth was significantly decreased. The RaSH showed change in the expression of some genes, including ANXA1, TCEA1, NGFRAP1, ITPR1 and CD55, which are associated with inflammatory response, transcriptional regulation, apoptosis, calcium ion transport regulation and complement system, respectively. The E. tirucalli latex treatment down-regulated ITPR1 and up-regulated ANXA1 and CD55 genes, and was validated by real-time quantitative PCR.",
"This survey suggests that NPS are likely to be added to drug repertoires, particularly amongst experienced users with consequent health risks for individuals and resource implications for services. This study points to a complex relationship between NPS and illegal drug availability, purity and regulatory control, one which is increasingly important to understand given the global emergence of NPS and the challenges they present to existing supply, demand and harm reduction strategies.",
"Econometric dynamic panel data models for opium consumption are estimated using the generalized method of moments (GMM). A unique dataset containing information about opiate (opium) consumption from the Punjab province of British India for the years 1907-1918 is analyzed (n=252) as a function of its own price, the prices of two forms of cannabis (the leaf (bhang), and the resin (charas, or hashish)), and wage income. Cross-price elasticities are examined to reveal substitution or complementarity between opium and cannabis. Opium is a substitute for charas (or hashish), with a cross price elasticity (βˆ3) of 0.14 (p<0.05), but not for bhang (cannabis leaves; cross price elasticity=0.00, p>0.10). Opium consumption (βˆ1=0.47 to 0.49, p<0.01) shows properties of habit persistence consistent with addiction. The consumption of opium is slightly responsive (inelastic) to changes in its own price (βˆ2=-0.34 to -0.35, p<0.05 to 0.01) and consumer wages (βˆ1=0.15, p<0.05).",
"The 'gateway' pattern of drug initiation describes a normative sequence, beginning with alcohol and tobacco use, followed by cannabis, then other illicit drugs. Previous work has suggested that 'violations' of this sequence may be predictors of later problems but other determinants were not considered. We have examined the role of pre-existing mental disorders and sociodemographics in explaining the predictive effects of violations using data from the US National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R). The NCS-R is a nationally representative face-to-face household survey of 9282 English-speaking respondents aged 18 years and older that used the World Health Organization (WHO) Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) to assess DSM-IV mental and substance disorders. Drug initiation was estimated using retrospective age-of-onset reports and 'violations' defined as inconsistent with the normative initiation order. Predictors of violations were examined using multivariable logistic regressions. Discrete-time survival analysis was used to see whether violations predicted progression to dependence. Gateway violations were largely unrelated to later dependence risk, with the exception of small increases in risk of alcohol and other illicit drug dependence for those who initiated use of other illicit drugs before cannabis. Early-onset internalizing disorders were predictors of gateway violations, and both internalizing and externalizing disorders increased the risks of dependence among users of all drugs.",
"Chewing the leaves of the Qat plant (Catha edulis) for their pleasurable central stimulant effect is a habit that is widespread in Yemen and certain areas of East Africa. The use of the Qat leaves is believed to cause a variety of gastrointestinal and genito-urinary symptoms as well as sleep disturbance. We studied the subjective effects of chewing Qat leaves in human volunteers. This prospective study included 1600 healthy adult male subjects who chewed Qat, and a similar number of 1600 subjects who never chewed Qat serving as control. Subjects in the Qat group chewed Qat for at least four hours daily for three successive days before answering a questionnaire. The study revealed that the prevalence of gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms (epigastric bloating, belching and abdominal distension) and genito-urinary symptoms (weak stream of micturition, post-chewing urethral discharge) were significantly higher (P<0.0001) among Qat-chewing subjects than controls. Similarly, central nervous system (CNS) symptoms such as anorexia, insomnia (delayed bedtime), late wake-up the next morning and low work performance the next day, were significantly higher in Qat chewers (P<0.0001). Stepwise multivariate logistic regression analysis revealed that GI symptoms which were significant in univariate analysis were no longer significant, whereas CNS and genito-urinary symptoms remained significant (P<0.0001).",
"This national study of American adolescents identifies several subgroups of recent drug users, such as females, school dropouts, and youth who have used inhalants and marijuana, which have substantially increased odds of heroin use and IDU. Screening, prevention, and treatment interventions targeted to these groups might reduce medical and social complications of heroin use and IDU.",
"yes. In this trial, a 4-week sequential SLIT-tablet dosing schedule followed by simultaneous intake of timothy grass and ragweed tablets was well tolerated.",
"The purpose of this study is to extend what is known about medical marijuana and non-medical marijuana users who visit the emergency department (ED) by exploring differences in their sociodemographic characteristics and their drug-related problem severity. Of 292 consecutively enrolled exclusive marijuana-only users visiting the ED for any reason, 37% (n = 107) reported using marijuana on the advice of a medical doctor, and 63% (n = 185) reported that they did not use it under the advice of a medical doctor (ie, non-medical user). Participants denied using any other drug with the exception of alcohol. Participants completed the Addiction Severity Index-Lite which provided composite and individual items related to drug use problems, psychiatric problems, medical problems, and alcohol use problems. Self-efficacy for avoiding drug use and sociodemographic characteristics were also collected. In a multivariate model, compared to non-medical marijuana users, medical users reported a higher frequency of days of use, more money spent on marijuana, and lower readiness to change use of marijuana, yet lower frequency of drug problems and tended to be low-risk versus moderate-severe risk users. Medical marijuana use was associated with a greater number of days of psychological problems.",
"Two parallel and interacting processes are said to underlie animal behavior, whereby learning and performance of a behavior is at first via conscious and deliberate (goal-directed) processes, but after initial acquisition, the behavior can become automatic and stimulus-elicited (habitual). With respect to instrumental behaviors, animal learning studies suggest that the duration of training and the action-outcome contingency are two factors involved in the emergence of habitual seeking of \"natural\" reinforcers (e.g., sweet solutions, food or sucrose pellets). To rigorously test whether behaviors reinforced by abused substances such as ethanol, in particular, similarly become habitual was the primary aim of this study. Male Long Evans rats underwent extended or limited operant lever press training with 10% sucrose/10% ethanol (10S10E) reinforcement (variable interval (VI) or (VR) ratio schedule of reinforcement), or with 10% sucrose (10S) reinforcement (VI schedule only). Once training and pretesting were complete, the impact of outcome devaluation on operant behavior was evaluated after lithium chloride injections were paired with the reinforcer, or unpaired 24 hours later. After limited, but not extended instrumental training, lever pressing by groups trained under VR with 10S10E and under VI with 10S was sensitive to outcome devaluation. In contrast, responding by both the extended and limited training 10S10E VI groups was not sensitive to ethanol devaluation during the test for habitual behavior.",
"To assess the clinical characteristics of adolescents with DSM-IV opioid use disorder (OUD) and compare them to adolescents with cannabis/alcohol use disorders. 94 adolescents (ages 14-18 years) with a current OUD and 74 adolescents with a current non-OUD cannabis/alcohol use disorders were recruited from admissions, predominantly residential, to a substance abuse treatment program in Baltimore, ML. Participants were assessed cross-sectionally using standardized interviews and self-reports. Chi-square, t-tests and ANCOVA (adjusting for age, gender and treatment setting, race and residence) were performed to determine group differences on demographic, substance use, psychiatric and HIV-risk behaviors; logistic regression analyses, both unadjusted and adjusted for the above five factors were conducted to assess the strength of associations. The OUD group was more likely to be Caucasian, to have dropped out of school and to live in the suburbs (trend). They also had greater substance use severity with higher proportion of current sedative and multiple substance use disorders (SUD). There were generally no differences in rates of criminal behaviors. Both groups had high rates of current psychiatric disorders (83% vs. 78%, n.s.) but the OUD adolescents reported higher depressive symptoms, mostly in the moderate range. Injection drug use (IDU) and needle sharing was almost exclusive to the OUD group, while both groups reported similar high rates of risky sexual behaviors.",
"yes. Intrathalamic hemorrhaging in the ventrolateral thalamic nucleus induced a bilateral mechanical allodynia, which was reversed by GBP but not AMI or CARBA.",
"Aqueous root extract of Lecaniodiscus cupanioides is widely used in the management of sexual dysfunction in Nigeria. The effect of aqueous root extract of L. cupanioides root on the concentrations of penile cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate (cGMP) and plasma nitric oxide in paroxetine-induced sexually impaired male rats was evaluated. Thirty (30) albino rats were assigned into six groups (A, B, C, D, E and F) of five rats each such that animals in Group A (control) received distilled water while those in Groups B, C, D, E and F which were induced into sexual dysfunction (p.o 10mg/kg of paroxetine hydrochloride suspension in Tween-80) and in addition received distilled water, 7.14 mg/kg body weight of a reference herbal drug (PowmaxM), 25, 50 and 100mg/kg body weight of the extract respectively, orally, once daily for five days. Administration of paroxetine significantly reduced the levels of penile cyclic Guanosine Monophosphate (cGMP) and plasma nitric oxide. These decreases were dose dependently reversed by the aqueous extract of L. cupanioides root. The reversal by the 25 and 50mg/kg body weight of the extract compared favorably with the PowmaxM, whereas the 100mg/kg body weight of the extract compared favorably with the non-sexually impaired distilled water treated control animals.",
"In recent years there has been growing concern about new psychoactive substances (NPS) designed to mimic the effects of established illicit drugs. This paper explores the patterns and correlates of NPS use in a sample of Australian students. A cross-sectional survey was conducted in Australia in 2014. Data were collected from 1126 students (mean age: 14.9 years) from 11 secondary schools. Students completed a self-report questionnaire assessing NPS use and knowledge, beliefs and intentions to use these substances. NPS users were compared with non-users and illicit drug users, who had not used NPS, in terms of gender, binge drinking, tobacco use, psychological distress and self-efficacy to resist peer pressure. Of the 1126 students, 3% reported having ever tried NPS, 2.4% had used synthetic cannabis and 0.4% had used a synthetic stimulant. Analyses revealed that NPS users were more likely to have had an episode of binge drinking in the past 6 months, tried tobacco and had higher levels of psychological distress and lower perceived self-efficacy to resist peer pressure than non-users, but did not significantly differ from users of other illicit drugs.",
"Although Aristolochia manshuriensis (AM), which was incriminated in the Japanese variety of Chinese herbs nephropathy, has been recently shown to be nephrotoxic in rats, less is known about whether this toxicity is attributable to its aristolochic acids (AA). We compared the renal effect of AM with that of Akebia quinata (AQ), which has similar components to AM but is free of AA; we also compared this effect of AM with that of pure AA, and studied its possible mechanism. In study 1, rats were divided into four groups. Each group was orally given either 0.4 g of AM, 4 g of AM, or 4 g of AQ per day, or vehicle, for 5 days. In study 2, rats were given 4 g of AM (which contained 4 mg of AA), or 4 mg of pure AA per day, or vehicle, for 5 days. Renal function, and renal histology were evaluated on day 5 in study 1 and on days 1, 3, 5, and 14 in study 2. In study 2, terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-mediated dUTP-biotin nick end-labeling (TUNEL) and proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) staining were also performed. In study 3, rats were treated in the same way as in study 2, but were all killed on day 5. Concentrations of AA (I + II) were measured in serum and urine in study 2, and in the kidney, lung, heart, liver, and spleen in study 3. In study 1, only the rats that received 4 g/day of AM developed tubular necrosis, azotemia, proteinuria, and glucosuria. In study 2, both AM- and AA-treated rats showed progressive tubular damage, decreased renal function, and increased urinary protein excretion. The degree of these alterations was comparable in the AM and AA groups. Moreover, the concentrations of AA (I + II), in serum, urine, and kidney were also comparable in the AM- and AA-treated rats. High levels of AA were detected in the lung and kidney. Apoptotic tubular cells increased on day 5 and had decreased by day 14 after the withdrawal of AM or AA. Meanwhile, proliferating tubular cells progressively increased from day 3 to day 14.",
"This study examined the ways by which patients obtain nonprescription sildenafil and the patient predictors associated with nonprescribed use. We conducted this descriptive study by distributing an anonymous questionnaire to 231 male sildenafil users (ages 18 to 80) between December 1, 2002 and April 30, 2003 at outpatient Family Medicine and Urology Clinics at The Brooklyn Hospital Center, Brooklyn, NY. Patients were divided into 2 groups: those with erectile dysfunction (as defined by their physician) and those without. The prevalence of erectile dysfunction in our total study population of sildenafil users (n=231) was 40.3% (n=93); 59.7% (n=138) did not have erectile dysfunction. Of those without erectile dysfunction, 76% (n=105) admitted to cannabis use, compared with 7.5% (n=7) of the subjects with erectile dysfunction. Patients without erectile dysfunction and history of cannabis abuse reported obtaining sildenafil from friends and street vendors significantly more often than non-cannabis users with erectile dysfunction (54.3%, n=57 vs 9.3%, n=8; P<.0001).",
"Dual treatment with grass and ragweed sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) tablets has not been studied. To characterize the safety and tolerability of dual grass and ragweed SLIT-tablet administration. This open-label, multicenter trial (NCT02256553) enrolled North American adults (N = 102) allergic to grass and ragweed. The trial had 3 periods, each of 2 weeks duration. In period 1, subjects received once-daily timothy grass SLIT tablet (2800 bioequivalent allergen unit; Merck, Inc, Kenilworth, NJ/ALK, Hørsholm, Denmark). In period 2, subjects received a short ragweed SLIT tablet (12 Ambrosia artemisiifolia 1-U; Merck/ALK) every morning and a grass SLIT tablet every evening. In period 3, subjects received once-daily grass and ragweed SLIT tablets within 5 minutes (simultaneous intake). The primary end point was the proportion of subjects with 1 or more local swelling events in each period. Secondary end points were the proportion of subjects with 1 or more local adverse events (AEs), that discontinued the treatment because of AEs, and subjects with 1 or more local AEs requiring treatment. No severe swellings, systemic allergic reactions, asthma attacks, or reactions requiring epinephrine were reported. Most (99%) AEs were graded mild to moderate. The proportions of subjects with 1 or more local swelling events were 14%, 22%, and 15% for periods 1, 2, and 3, respectively. For periods 1, 2, and 3, the proportions of subjects with 1 or more local AEs were 71%, 69%, and 56%, respectively; the proportions discontinuing the treatment because of treatment-related AEs were 5%, 1%, and 2%, and the proportions with 1 or more local AEs requiring treatment were 4%, 4%, and 1%.",
"yes. It is suggested that Org 25935, and possibly also other GlyT1 inhibitors, can represent a new pharmacological treatment principle for alcohol dependence or abuse.",
"Cannabis-dependent participants with depressive disorder are less likely to achieve abstinence with venlafaxine-XR (VEN-XR) treatment. Individuals on VEN-XR reported more severe withdrawal, despite not reducing their smoking behavior. We hypothesized that withdrawal-like symptoms, likely medication side effects, led to continued marijuana smoking in this group. We conducted a secondary analysis using Marijuana Withdrawal Checklist (MWC) scores and urine THC to test whether severity of withdrawal-like symptoms mediates the relationship between VEN-XR treatment and continued marijuana smoking. We included 103 participants (VEN-XR=51, Placebo=52). Marijuana use was dichotomized into smoking (THC>100 ng/ml) and non-smoking (THC ≤ 100 ng/ml) weeks. MWC scores were obtained weekly. We used three models in a regression based mediation analysis. The estimated risk of smoking marijuana was greater for individuals on VEN-XR in weeks 7-9, even when controlling for MWC scores (week 7 Risk Difference (RD)=0.11, p=0.034; week 8 RD=0.20, p=0.014), and higher scores mediated this effect. In weeks 10 and 11, the estimated effect was stronger (week 10 RD=0.03, p=0.380; week 11 RD=0.07, p=0.504), and worse withdrawal-like symptoms more fully accounted for continued marijuana smoking in the VEN-XR group, according to the models.",
"The over-expression of the anti-apoptotic protein Bcl-2 in cancer is associated with resistance to chemotherapeutic drugs. The phosphorylation of Bcl-2 is one mechanism by which anti-microtubule agents, such as paclitaxel or docetaxel, may inactivate Bcl-2. Although initially active in clinical studies, current anti-microtubule agents are only temporarily effective and the discovery of new agents is warranted. We isolated and identified two known sesquiterpenelactones, O, O-diacetylbritannilactone (OODABL) and O-acetylbritaanilactone (OABL) from the flowers of the medicinal plant Inula britannica and studied their mechanism of anti-tumor effects. To determine the biological significance of Bcl-2 phosphorylation, we used a baby rat kidney (BRK-p53) cell line that was transformed with EIA and a temperature-sensitive mutant p53. The BRK-p53 cell line was transfected with either a vector with wild type Bcl-2 or a vector in which Bcl-2 had mutations in the paclitaxel phosphorylation sites (pcDNA3.1 V5/His Bcl-2 S70, 87A). OODABL and OABL induced phosphorylation of Bcl-2 in breast, ovary and prostate cancer cell lines and induced G2/M cell cycle arrest. Using the BRK cells with mutant Bcl-2 (BRK-Bcl-2-mt) and control (BRK-Bcl-2-wt), we found that OODABL induced phosphorylation of Bcl-2 at sites similar to paclitaxel. Phosphorylation of Bcl-2 was important for OODABL-induced cytotoxicity, since the abrogation of phosphorylation in BRK-Bcl-2-mt cells decreased OODABL-induced cytotoxicity.",
"There is substantial research linking tobacco and alcohol use to subsequent cannabis use, yet the specificity of this relationship is still under debate. The aim of this study was to examine which substance use model--the gateway hypothesis, the common liability (CL) model and/or the route of administration model--best explains the relationship between early onset of tobacco and alcohol use and subsequent cannabis use initiation. We used data from 2,113 (51% female) Dutch adolescents who participated in three consecutive assessment waves (mean age: 11.09, 13.56, and 16.27 years, respectively) of the TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey study. (Pre)adolescent cannabis, tobacco and alcohol use was assessed using the Youth Self-Report and a TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey developed questionnaire. We found that, during adolescence, early onset of tobacco use does not pose a significantly higher risk of initiating cannabis use than early onset alcohol use. Therefore, we can rule out the route of administration model. Moreover, we found that adolescents who reported early onset comorbid use of both tobacco and alcohol have a higher likelihood to initiate cannabis use than adolescents who have tried either tobacco or alcohol. The gateway hypothesis is not broad enough to explain this finding. Therefore, the CL model best predicts our findings.",
"A number of retail shops in Copenhagen sell fresh cassava roots. Cassava roots contain the toxic cyanogenic glucoside linamarin. A survey was made of the shop characteristics, origin of the roots, buyers, shop owner's knowledge of toxicity levels, and actual toxicity levels. Shops selling fresh cassava were shown mostly to be owned by persons originating in the Middle East or Afghanistan, buyers were found to predominantly be of African origin, and sellers' knowledge concerning the potential toxicity was found to be very restricted. Seventy-six per cent of the roots purchased had a total cyanogenic potentials (CNp) above the 50 mg HCN equivalents kg(-1) dry weight (d.w.) proposed as acceptable by an EU working group. Two of 25 roots purchased had CNp higher than 340 mg HCN eq. kg(-1) d.w.",
"yes. BIS impulsivity and acute nicotine exposure reflect a bias in the governance of choice by immediate reward contingencies over global consequences, consistent with contemporary dual-process instrumental learning theories.",
"We addressed the following questions. What are the current and lifetime prevalence of cannabis abuse in an Israeli methadone maintenance treatment (MMT) clinic? Does cannabis abuse change over time during MMT? Is cannabis abuse related to treatment outcome measures such as retention rate and the abuse of drugs? Is the abuse of cannabis related to psychopathology, HIV/HCV risk-taking and infectious diseases? Do cannabis abusers (CAs) have a different psychosocial and demographic profile than nonabusers (NCAs)? Is cannabis abuse part of a polydrug abuse tendency or a distinct substance of abuse? Overlapping samples of either the entire clinic population (n = 283) or all the patients who had completed 1 year of MMT treatment (n = 196 of which 20 were re-entering) underwent random and twice-weekly observed urine analysis for various drugs of abuse, responded to self-report questionnaires (SCL-90-R; HIV/HCV risk-taking behaviours; n = 164), interviews (ASI, n = 176; SCID, n = 151) and hepatitis C and HIV testing (n = 149). Lifetime abuse prevalence was found in 75% and current abuse at MMT intake in 25%. Abuse did not increase significantly over a 1-year period. Cannabis abusers were found to be more often polydrug abusers than NCAs. Cannabis abusers did not suffer from more psychological distress, infectious diseases, and did not engage in more HCV/HIV risk-taking behaviour, nor did they leave treatment earlier than NCAs.",
"What determines inter-individual variability to impairments in behavioural control that may underlie road-traffic accidents, and impulsive and violent behaviours occurring under the influence of cannabis, the most widely used illicit drug worldwide? Employing a double-blind, repeated-measures design, we investigated the genetic and neural basis of variable sensitivity to cannabis-induced behavioural dyscontrol in healthy occasional cannabis users. Acute oral challenge with placebo or Δ9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), the main psychoactive ingredient in cannabis, was combined with functional magnetic resonance imaging, while participants performed a response inhibition task that involved inhibiting a pre-potent motor response. They were genotyped for rs1130233 single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) of the protein kinase B (AKT1) gene. Errors of inhibition were significantly (p = 0.008) increased following administration of THC in carriers of the A allele, but not in G allele homozygotes of the AKT1 rs1130233 SNP. The A allele carriers also displayed attenuation of left inferior frontal response with THC evident in the sample as a whole, while there was a modest enhancement of inferior frontal activation in the G homozygotes. There was a direct relationship (r = -0.327, p = 0.045) between the behavioural effect of THC and its physiological effect in the inferior frontal gyrus, where AKT1 genotype modulated the effect of THC.",
"Lorazepam (Ativan(®)), diphenhydramine (Benadryl(®)), haloperidol (Haldol(®)) (ABH) topical gel is currently widely used for nausea in hospice because of perceived efficacy and low cost and has been suggested for cancer chemotherapy. However, there are no studies of absorption, a prerequisite for effectiveness. We completed this study to establish whether ABH gel drugs are absorbed, as a prerequisite to effectiveness. Ten healthy volunteers, aged 25 to 58 years (mean 37 years), two African Americans and eight Caucasian Americans, applied the standard 1.0 mL dose (2mg of lorazepam, 25mg of diphenhydramine, and 2mg of haloperidol in a pluronic lecithin organogel), rubbed on the volar surface of the wrists by the subject. Blood samples were obtained at 0, 30, 60, 90, 120, 180, and 240 minutes. Plasma concentrations were analyzed by liquid chromatography-tandem mass spectrometry using deuterated internal standards for each drug. No lorazepam or haloperidol was detected in any sample from any of the 10 volunteers down to a level of 0.05 ng/mL. Diphenhydramine was found in multiple plasma samples at concentrations >0.05 ng/mL in three patients, with the highest concentration of 0.30 ng/mL in one person at 240 minutes. Overall, five of 10 patients exhibited detectable diphenhydramine in one or more samples, supporting limited absorption. No subject noted any side effects.",
"Marijuana use by teenagers often predates the use of harder drugs, but the neurobiological underpinnings of such vulnerability are unknown. Animal studies suggest enhanced heroin self-administration (SA) and dysregulation of the endogenous opioid system in the nucleus accumbens shell (NAcsh) of adults following adolescent Δ(9)-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) exposure. However, a causal link between proenkephalin (Penk) expression and vulnerability to heroin has yet to be established. To investigate the functional significance of NAcsh Penk tone, selective viral-mediated knockdown and overexpression of Penk was performed, followed by analysis of subsequent heroin SA behavior. To determine whether adolescent THC exposure was associated with chromatin alteration, we analyzed levels of histone H3 methylation in the NAcsh via chromatin immunoprecipitation at five sites flanking the Penk gene transcription start site. Here we show that regulation of the Penk opioid neuropeptide gene in NAcsh directly regulates heroin SA behavior. Selective viral-mediated knockdown of Penk in striatopallidal neurons attenuates heroin SA in adolescent THC-exposed rats, whereas Penk overexpression potentiates heroin SA in THC-naïve rats. Furthermore, we report that adolescent THC exposure mediates Penk upregulation through reduction of histone H3 lysine 9 (H3K9) methylation in the NAcsh, thereby disrupting the normal developmental pattern of H3K9 methylation.",
"This study investigates the relationship between cannabis use and later depression, suicidal ideation and suicide attempts in a cohort of young Norwegians. Data were gathered through the Young in Norway longitudinal study, in which a population-based sample of 2033 Norwegians were followed up over a 13-year period, from their early teens to their late twenties. Data were gathered on: (a) exposure to cannabis use; and (b) depression, suicide ideation and suicide attempts. In addition, information about possible confounding factors was included. In early adolescence, no associations with later depression or suicidal behaviours were observed. In the sample's twenties, we observed highly significant associations with suicide ideation and suicide attempts. When adjusting for confounders, the OR was 2.9 (95% CI 1.3-6.1) for later suicide attempts in the group who had used cannabis 11+ times during the past 12 months.",
"A history of childhood symptoms of inattention-hyperactivity is often reported in first episode psychosis (FEP) as is cannabis use. In the general population childhood ADHD predicts future cannabis use but the relationship has not been tested in FEP. Parents of patients with a first episode of psychosis (n=75) retrospectively assessed their affected child for symptoms of early-life disorders, namely, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), conduct disorder (CD) and oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) using the Child Behaviour Checklist (CBCL). Assessments were made prospectively of cannabis use over two years following a FEP and of SCID diagnosis of cannabis-use disorder. Childhood hyperactivity-inattention symptoms predicted inability to maintain abstinence from cannabis following treatment (Wald=8.4, p=.004) and lifetime cannabis-use diagnosis (Wald=5.3, p=.022) in a logistic regression controlling for relevant covariates including symptoms of CD and ODD from ages 12 to 18. When the symptom of inattention was considered in place of the hyperactivity-inattention syndrome it predicted cannabis-use diagnosis (Wald=6.4, p=.011) and persistent abstinence from cannabis (Wald=5.3, p=.021). Symptoms of CD and ODD did not predict cannabis use when hyperactivity-inattention symptoms were controlled for.",
"yes. The present findings suggest that self-reported psychopathology in ecstasy users is predominantly attributable to concomitant use of cannabis. Abstinence from cannabis and not ecstasy seems to be a reliable predictor for remission of psychological complaints in ecstasy users.",
"Childhood maltreatment is an important risk factor for problems with alcohol and other drugs such as cannabis. Although this link has been well established, the mechanisms in this association require further study. High levels of impulsivity and difficulties with emotion regulation are often associated with childhood maltreatment. Negative urgency--an emotion-based facet of impulsivity--is a strong predictor of substance use problems and may be a particularly relevant facet of impulsivity in the link between childhood maltreatment and alcohol and cannabis outcomes. However, few studies have examined the specific mediational pathway from childhood maltreatment to alcohol and cannabis problems through negative urgency. We tested the hypothesis that the associations between history of childhood maltreatment and current alcohol and cannabis problems would be mediated by negative urgency, but not other facets of impulsivity. Participants (N=232), who were in late adolescence (mean age=19.75), completed self-report measures of different facets of impulsivity, past childhood maltreatment, and current alcohol and cannabis use and problems. In analyses including several facets of impulsivity as simultaneous mediators, negative urgency was the only facet to mediate the associations of childhood maltreatment severity with alcohol and cannabis problems.",
"yes. Novelty Seeking appears to be a general risk factor for drug addiction. High Harm Avoidance appears to channel individuals with high Novelty Seeking towards alcoholism. Immature character traits and probable Personality Disorder increase the risk of illegal drugs. Based on equivalent research in nonpermissive environments, at least a portion of our opiate addicts could have developed alcoholism instead in environments with more limited access to opiates. Personality factors provide useful guidelines for preventive work with young individuals with personality risk factors for drug addiction.",
"Consumption of chronic morphine induces neuro-inflammation and addictive seeking behavior. Ginger (Zingiber Officinale Roscoe), a well-known spice plant, has been used traditionally in the treatment of a wide variety of ailments. It has been shown that ginger has anti-inflammatory, anti-oxidative and antinociceptive properties. However, its influences on morphine-induced addictive behaviors have not yet been clarified. The aim of the present study was the inhibition of exploratory behavior of morphine addiction in the conditioned place preference test in male desert rats through ginger. For conditioning to the morphine, the male Wistar rats received morphine (12 mg/kg intraperitoneally or i.p.) for 6 consecutive days and treatment groups were given different doses of ginger (25, 50 and 100 mg/kg intragastrically or i.g.) 30 min before morphine injection. For investigating addictive seeking behavior, conditioned place preference test (CPP) was used. Our result demonstrated that injection of morphine for 6 days induces dependency to morphine and creates addictive seeking behavior and ginger (100 mg/kg) could decrease time spend in conditioning box (addictive seeking behavior).",
"This study investigated circumstances of initiating new-type drug use among adult new-type drug users and differences among those who first used methamphetamine, ecstasy and ketamine. A total of 276 participants were recruited, using respondent-driven sampling (RDS) from nine seeds recruited through NGOs, social workers and outreach workers in Shanghai, China. Methamphetamine was the most frequently reported first new-type drug used (37.1%), followed by ecstasy (35.6%) and ketamine (20.0%). 38.7% of participants initiated new-type drug use before the age of 21 years. 47.8% knew at initiation that club drugs can be harmful. Most were introduced to new-type drug use by friends, spouses or boy/girlfriends. The three most common reasons for initiation were curiosity, peer influence, and wishing to dull one's emotions. Those first using methamphetamine were more likely to be female, have a monthly individual income less than 3000 Yuan (approx. $476), initiate use at 21 years or older and at private setting than those first using ecstasy and ketamine.",
"To examine the characteristics of \"diagnostic orphans\" among cannabis users - those who report one or two symptoms of DSM-IV dependence but do not meet diagnostic criteria for DSM-IV abuse or dependence - 4 years post-assessment. Data were collected from a representative population cohort of young Australian adults. Those who reported that they had used cannabis at least weekly at some point within the past year were assessed for symptoms of DSM-IV cannabis abuse and dependence using the Composite International Diagnostic Interview at age 20-21 years. The entire sample was followed up 4 years later. At age 24-25 years, cannabis use and cannabis diagnostic category were examined according to diagnostic category at age 20-21 years. Diagnostic orphans at age 20-21 years were more likely than non-problem cannabis users at that age to be using cannabis, and to meet criteria for cannabis abuse or dependence 4 years later. Those who had met criteria for cannabis abuse or dependence, however, appeared to be at greater risk relative to non-problematic users and diagnostic orphans of meeting criteria for cannabis abuse and dependence at follow-up.",
"To estimate associations between recent licit and illicit substance use and subsequent suicide attempt among people who inject drugs (PWID). Secondary analysis of longitudinal data from a prospective cohort study of PWID followed bi-annually between 2004 and 2011. Montréal, Canada. Seven hundred and ninety-seven PWID who reported injection drug use in the previous 6 months, contributing to a total of 4460 study visits. The median number of visits per participant was five (interquartile range: 3-8). An interviewer-administered questionnaire eliciting information on socio-demographic factors, detailed information on substance use patterns and related behaviours, mental health markers and suicide attempt. The primary exposure variables examined were past-month use of alcohol [heavy (≥ 60 drinks); moderate (one to 59 drinks); none], sedative-hypnotics, cannabis, cocaine, amphetamine and opioids [regular (≥ 4 days); occasional (1-3 days); none]. The outcome was a binary measure of suicide attempt assessed in reference to the previous 6 months. In multivariate analyses, a positive association was found among licit substances between heavy alcohol consumption [adjusted odds ratio (AOR) = 2.05; 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.12-3.75], regular use of sedative-hypnotics (AOR = 1.89; 95% CI = 1.21-2.95) and subsequent attempted suicide. Among illicit substances, occasional use of cannabis (AOR = 1.84; 95% CI = 1.09-3.13) had a positive association with subsequent suicide attempt. No statistically significant association was found for the remaining substances.",
"Ferulago angulata (Apiacea) has been used in Iranian traditional medicine since ancient times and its various health care and pharmacological benefits have been demonstrated recently. In this study, for the first time, we have investigated the effects of F. angulata flower and leaf ethanol extracts on angiogenesis, as the key process in tumor growth, invasion and metastasis. Cytotoxic effects of different concentrations (20-140 µg/mL) of each extract were assessed on human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) using neutral red uptake assay. After evaluating the less toxic concentrations (up to 80 µg/mL), we performed three-dimensional angiogenesis, tube formation and migration assays to assess the key properties of HUVECs, including the angiogenesis process, in response to the extracts. Finally, quantitative gene expression analysis of VEGF-A and VEGFR-2, two critical mediators of angiogenesis, was performed using real-time RT-PCR. Both flower and leaf extracts exhibited concentration-dependent inhibition of sprouting, tube formation and migration capacities of HUVECs. For the flower extract, the respective IC50 values were 25.79, 26.52 and 38.92 µg/mL while for the leaf extract, the corresponding IC50 values were 34.18, 41.24 and 28.69 µg/mL. Both flower and leaf extracts downregulated VEGF-A and VEGFR-2 genes relative to the GAPDH gene as the internal control at concentrations of 60 and 80 µg/mL, respectively.",
"To investigate whether cannabis use predicted the first incidence of mood and anxiety disorders in adults during a 3-year follow-up period. Data were derived from the Netherlands Mental Health Survey and Incidence Study (NEMESIS), a prospective study in the adult population of 18-64 years. The analysis was carried out on 3881 people who had no life-time mood disorders and on 3854 people who had no life-time anxiety disorders at baseline. Life-time cannabis use and DSM-III-R mood and anxiety disorders, assessed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI). After adjustment for strong confounders, any use of cannabis at baseline predicted a modest increase in the risk of a first major depression (odds ratio 1.62; 95% confidence interval 1.06-2.48) and a stronger increase in the risk of a first bipolar disorder (odds ratio 4.98; 95% confidence interval 1.80-13.81). The risk of 'any mood disorder' was elevated for weekly and almost daily users but not for less frequent use patterns. However, dose-response relationships were less clear for major depression and bipolar disorder separately. None of the associations between cannabis use and anxiety disorders remained significant after adjustment for confounders.",
"yes. These findings suggest that bee venom acupuncture has a preventive and therapeutic effect on methamphetamine-induced addiction.",
"Stimulant drugs such as nicotine and Ecstasy/3, 4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) are taken for positive reasons, yet their regular use leads to deficits rather than gains. This article outlines the psychobiological rationale for this paradox. The empirical literature on nicotine, cocaine, amphetamine, Ecstasy/MDMA, and mephedrone are reviewed. A theoretical explanation for why they are problematic to humans is then described. The acute effects of central nervous system (CNS) stimulants are typically positive, with greater alertness and emotional intensity. However, in the post-drug recovery period, the opposite feelings develop, with lethargy and low moods. All recreational stimulants cause mood fluctuation, although it is most pronounced in drugs with rapid onset and comedown (e.g. nicotine and cocaine), explaining why they are the most addictive. Parallel fluctuations occur across many psychological and neurocognitive functions, with users suffering various off-drug deficits. CNS stimulants also affect the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, impairing sleep, disrupting homeostasis, and exacerbating psychiatric distress. Neuroimaging studies reveal altered brain activity patterns in regular users. These problems are related to lifetime usage but commence in novice users.",
"Drug addiction and alcoholism involve a complex etiopathogenesis with a variable degree of risk contributions from the host (person), environment, and addictive substances. In this work, temperament and character features of individuals addicted to opiates or alcohol are compared with normal controls to study personality factors in the overall risk for drug addiction. The study was done in a permissive environment, with easy access to alcohol and heroin, which facilitated analyses of personality factors in drug choice. Participants included 412 consecutive patients (312 opiate addicts, 100 alcohol addicts) treated at the Specialized Hospital for Chemical Dependency in Belgrade, Serbia, and a community sample of 346 controls. Opiate addicts manifested antisocial temperament configuration (high Novelty Seeking, low Reward Dependence) coupled with high Self-transcendence (ie, susceptibility to fantasy and imagination). Alcohol addicts manifested sensitive temperament configuration (high Novelty Seeking coexisting with high Harm Avoidance). Immature personality was observed far more frequently in opiate addicts than in alcoholics or normals.",
"Delta9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta9-THC), the main psychoactive ingredient of marijuana, as well as synthetic cannabinoid (CB1) receptor agonists, has led to negative or equivocal results when tested with the intravenous self-administration procedure, the best validated behavioural model for evaluating abuse liability of drugs in experimental animals. We recently reported, however, that the synthetic CB1 receptor agonist WIN 55,212-2 is intravenously self-administered by drug-naive mice and that its self-administration is blocked by the cannabinoid CB1 receptor antagonist SR 141716A. To assess a reliable model of cannabinoid intravenous self-administration in rats. Long Evans male rats were allowed the opportunity to self-administer WIN 55,212-2 at doses ranging from 6.25 to 50 microg/kg per injection, under a fixed-ratio 1 (FR1) schedule of reinforcement and nose-pokes as the operant responses. The effect of either a change in the unit drug dose available or a pretreatment with the specific CB1 receptor antagonist SR 141716A were then investigated (maintenance phase). Finally, the extinction of the self-administration behaviour was evaluated. Response rate depended on the drug dose available, with maximum rates occurring at 12.5 microg/kg per injection. Response rate increased following pretreatment with the specific CB1 receptor antagonist, SR 141716A. Moreover, operant behaviour rapidly extinguished following both the substitution of saline or vehicle for cannabinoid and the disconnection of the drug delivery pumps.",
"This study was carried out to evaluate the antipsychotic property of solvent-partitioned fractions of the leaf extract of Lonchocarpus cyanescens (LC), a reputable medicinal plant used in folk medicine for the treatment of mental illnesses in Nigeria. The n-hexane fraction, ethyl acetate fraction (EAF), and aqueous ethanol fraction (AEF) of LC were tested for antipsychotic property based on the antagonism of stereotypy induced by apomorphine (APO). Antagonism of hyperactivity and lethality in aggregated mice induced by amphetamine (AMPH) were further employed for screening the antipsychotic effect of the fractions. EAF was tested for catalepsy utilising the horizontal plane paradigm. Thin-layer chromatography (TLC) was used to screen EAF for the presence of secondary metabolites. AEF (100-400 mg/kg) significantly (p<0.05) suppressed stereotypy induced by APO (2 mg/kg, intraperitoneal [IP]) in comparison with control, suggesting antipsychotic activity. However, EAF (200 mg/kg, IP) was most potent in inhibiting the stereotypic effect of APO. EAF was also the most active in antagonising AMPH-induced hyperactivity and in protecting against death caused by AMPH in grouped mice. However, in contrast to haloperidol, EAF did not produce cataleptic behaviour in the horizontal plane paradigm. The TLC analysis revealed that EAF contains several compounds, with some of them having Rf values similar to that of haloperidol, which suggests the presence of active substances with the same chemical structural identity.",
"To examine reciprocal associations between substance use (cigarette smoking, use of alcohol, marijuana, and other illegal drugs) and suicidal ideation among adolescents and young adults (aged 11-21 at wave 1; aged 24-32 at wave 4). Four waves public-use Add Health data were used in the analysis (N=3342). Respondents were surveyed in 1995, 1996, 2001-2002, and 2008-2009. Current regular smoking, past-year alcohol use, past-year marijuana use, and ever use of other illegal drugs as well as past-year suicidal ideation were measured at the four waves (1995, 1996, 2001-2002, and 2008-2009). Fixed effects models with lagged dependent variables were modeled to test unidirectional associations between substance use and suicidal ideation, and nonrecursive models with feedback loops combining correlated fixed factors were conducted to examine reciprocal relations between each substance use and suicidal ideation, respectively. After adjusting for the latent time-invariant effects and lagged effects of dependent variables, the unidirectional associations from substance use to suicidal ideation were consistently significant, and vice versa. Nonrecursive model results showed that use of cigarette or alcohol increased risk of suicidal ideation, while suicidal ideation was not associated with cigarette or alcohol use. Reversely, drug use (marijuana and other drugs) did not increase risk of suicidal ideation, but suicidal ideation increased risk of illicit drug use.",
"The sonographic appearance of the substantia nigra is abnormally bright and enlarged (hyperechogenic) in young adults with a history of illicit stimulant use. The abnormality is a risk factor for Parkinson's disease. The aim of the current study was to identify the type of illicit stimulant drug associated with substantia nigra hyperechogenicity and to determine if individuals with a history of illicit stimulant use exhibit clinical signs of parkinsonism. We hypothesised that use of amphetamines (primarily methamphetamine) is associated with substantia nigra hyperechogenicity and clinical signs of parkinsonism. The area of echogenic signal in the substantia nigra was measured in abstinent human amphetamine users (n = 27; 33 ± 8 years) and in three control groups comprising a) 'ecstasy' users (n = 19; 23 ± 3 years), b) cannabis users (n = 30; 26 ± 8 years), and c) non-drug users (n = 37; 25 ± 7 years). A subset of subjects (n = 55) also underwent a neurological examination comprising the third and fifth part of the Unified Parkinson's Disease Rating Scale. Area of substantia nigra echogenicity was significantly larger in the amphetamine group (0.276 ± 0.080 cm(2)) than in the control groups (0.200 ± 0.075, 0.190 ± 0.049, 0.191 ± 0.055 cm(2), respectively; P < 0.002). The score on the clinical rating scale was also significantly higher in the amphetamine group (8.4 ± 8.1) than in pooled controls (3.3 ± 2.8; P = 0.002).",
"Tabernaemontana catharinensis (Apocynaceae) is a medicinal plant used for the treatment of painful and inflammatory disorders. Here, we investigated the antinociceptive potential of the ethyl acetate fraction (Eta) from T. catharinensis leaves and assessed its toxic effects in mice to validate its popular use. Adult male Swiss mice (30-35g) were used. The Eta antinociceptive effect (200-800mg/kg, oral route (p.o.)) was evaluated in the acetic acid, formalin, capsaicin and tail-immersion tests. Adverse effects were analyzed using rotarod and open-field tests, body temperature, biochemical analysis and gastric lesions assessment. To evaluate the acute (OECD 423) or sub-acute (OECD 407) toxicity of the Eta, it was administered orally at a single (2000mg/kg) or repeated doses (100-400mg/kg/day for 28 days), respectively. Mortality, behavioral changes, biochemical and hematological parameters were evaluated. The Eta effect on cellular viability also was evaluated. Eta (200-800mg/kg) inhibited the nociception caused by acetic acid (93.9±1.5%), formalin (86.2±10.8%) or capsaicin (75.4±3.3%) without inducing gastric lesions. Moreover, Eta neither altered the body temperature, biochemical parameters, nor forced or spontaneous locomotor activity of mice. The acute administration of the Eta (2000mg/kg) promoted a decrease in blood glucose levels and alanine aminotransferase activity. In the sub-acute toxicity study, Eta increased the aspartate aminotransferase activity (400mg/kg) and platelet distribution width (200mg/kg). Furthermore, Eta did not alter the cellular viability in cortical slices.",
"Findings support the view that cannabis may act as a gateway drug that encourages other forms of illicit drug use. None the less, the possibility remains that the association is non-causal and reflects factors that were not adequately controlled in the analysis.",
"yes. The obtained LD50 value classifies the study plant extract as slightly toxic according to Hodge and Sterner toxicity scale. We determined the low toxic dose at a rate of 4038 mg of body weight for the alcoholic extract of this medicinal plant. These results suggest that the alcoholic extract of Bidens tripartita is relatively safe toxicologically when administered intraperitoneally, and this product could be used with some degree of safety to continue the investigation for in vivo biocompatibility evaluation.",
"The specificities of adolescents and young adults (AYAs) aged 15-25 years with cancer are now well recognized. Dedicated care was initiated in 2012 in France under the leadership of the INCa (National Cancer Institute). Research on supportive care and particularly pain management are still rare. This study aimed to evaluate the consumption of toxic substances (tobacco, cannabis, alcohol) in AYAs with cancer as well as its progression during the month following the diagnosis and to analyze its influence on opioid analgesic prescriptions during treatment. This is a prospective study including all new patients aged 15-25 years in two centers between January and June 2013. Data on consumption of psychoactive substances were obtained during an individual interview with a questionnaire. National surveys were used to compare this cohort with the general population. Data on opioid treatments were collected from the computerized prescription software and computerized patient record. Thirty-seven AYAs were eligible and 30 were included; 67% of them were male and the median age was 18.7 years. The questionnaire on tobacco, alcohol, and cannabis consumption at diagnosis was well accepted. Consumption profiles were comparable to the general population. Changes in behavior were observed during the 1st month after diagnosis, with a decrease or cessation of consumption, particularly among young people. This study showed differences in the use and requirements for opioid analgesics during hospitalization according to these consumption data.",
"Taxus species, commonly referred to as yew plants, have the reputation of being inordinately toxic. Case reports which chronicle human near-fatal yew berry ingestions and countless fatalities in livestock present a sober profile to the treating toxicologist. Very often, a limited number of adverse reports influence decisions on all exposures to that potential poison. The objective of this investigation was to profile the toxicity of exposures to Taxus spp and determine what percentage of exposures were associated with significant morbidity. The individual computerized files of all exposures to Taxus spp were retrieved from American Association of Poison Control Centers (AAPCC) Toxic Exposure Surveillance System (TESS) and placed in a relational database. Reports from 1985-1994 were analyzed. The cases were examined to determine patient demographics, the outcome of exposures, the ultimate disposition of the patients, treatment, and symptoms. AAPCC TESS definitions were used to assess outcomes. The number of exposures identified from the 10-year subset was 11,197. Children less than 12 years of age were involved in 96.4% (<6 years 92.7%; 6-12 years, 3.7%) of the exposures. When the final outcome of the exposure was documented (n = 7269), no adverse effects occurred in 92.5% and minor effects were experienced in 7.0%. Moderate (more pronounced, but not life-threatening) effects were experienced by 30 individuals and major (life-threatening) effects occurred in 4 people. There were no fatalities. Decontamination therapy, when compared to no therapy, had no impact on patient outcome. 6.3% were admitted for psychiatric or medical care. When symptoms were related to Taxus spp exposures, the most frequent symptoms were gastrointestinal (65.5%), followed by dermal (8.3%), neurological (6.0%), and cardiovascular (6.0%). There are limitations to the interpretation of AAPCC TESS data which may lead to bias in favor of positive outcomes. However, the large sample size may minimize the limitations.",
"This study examined (a) the predictive value of observed versus reported measures of impulsivity on the onset of cannabis use and determined if lifetime tobacco and cannabis users can be differentiated by their level of impulsivity and (b) the predictive value of observed versus reported measures of impulsivity on repeated cannabis use and determined if repeated tobacco and cannabis users can be differentiated by their level of impulsivity. The present study involves 667 (50.5% female) adolescents assessed at two time points of the TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey (TRAILS). Adolescents in our study participated in the Bangor Gambling Task (BGT), as well as completed self-report questionnaires assessing cannabis use behavior (Mage = 16.11 years) and the Behavioral Inhibition System (BIS)/Behavioral Activation System (BAS) questionnaire (Mage = 13.56 years). Higher levels of BAS functioning increased the likelihood that adolescents would ever use substances such as tobacco or cannabis during their lifetime. In contrast, low BIS functioning increased the likelihood of repeated cannabis use. Repeated tobacco users did not significantly differ from lifetime users by their BIS functioning. The BGT measures were not significant in relation to lifetime or repeated use of cannabis or tobacco.",
"To model consumption patterns and problems associated with alcohol, cannabis, ecstasy, amphetamine and cocaine hydrochloride use in a non-treatment sample of young polysubstance users. A cross-sectional survey of 364 16-22-year-old (56.3% male) polysubstance users recruited and interviewed by peer interviewers. Structured questionnaires were used to gather identical datasets on the five target psychoactive substances, recording patterns of substance use; adverse consequences from use; negative effects; functions for substance use; and perceived peer use. Functions for substance use strongly predicted intensity of use in all five substances when peer use, age of first use and demographics were controlled, explaining an additional 11-19% of the variance in scores. Functions also explained an average of 22% of the variance in problem scores over and above the effects of background variables and current intensity of use. In particular, functions concerned with relief from negative mood states were strong predictors of problem scores in alcohol, cannabis and cocaine.",
"Although acupuncture is most commonly used for its analgesic effect, it has also been used to treat various drug addictions including cocaine and morphine in humans. This study was designed to investigate the effect of bee venom injection on methamphetamine-induced addictive behaviors including conditioned place preference and hyperlocomotion in mice. Methamphetamine (1 mg/kg) was subcutaneously treated on days 1, 3 and 5 and the acquisition of addictive behaviors was assessed on day 7. After confirming extinction of addictive behaviors on day 17, addictive behaviors reinstated by priming dose of methamphetamine (0.1 mg/kg) was evaluated on day 18. Bee venom (20 microl of 1 mg/ml in saline) was injected to the acupuncture point ST36 on days 1, 3 and 5. Repeated bee venom injections completely blocked development of methamphetamine-induced acquisition and subsequent reinstatement. Single bee venom acupuncture 30 minutes before acquisition and reinstatement test completely inhibited methamphetamine-induced acquisition and reinstatement. Repeated bee venom acupunctures from day 8 to day 12 after methamphetamine-induced acquisition partially but significantly suppressed reinstatement.",
"yes. We have developed a novel and technically simple hybrid operant/IAA model in which quinine-resistant motivation for alcohol is evident after an experimentally tractable period of time (3 to 4 months vs. 8 months). Quinine dramatically reduced sucrose and water intake by IAA rats, indicating that continued responding for alcohol in IAA rats despite adulteration with the normally aversive quinine might reflect maladaptive or compulsive motivation for alcohol. This model could facilitate identification of novel therapeutic interventions for pathological alcohol seeking in humans.",
"In randomized controlled trials (RCTs), some drugs, including CB1 antagonists for obesity treatment, have been shown to cause increased suicidal ideation. A key question is whether drugs that increase or are associated with increased suicidal ideations are also associated with suicidal behavior, or whether drug-induced suicidal ideations are unlinked epiphenomena that do not presage the more troubling and potentially irrevocable outcome of suicidal behavior. This is difficult to determine in RCTs because of the rarity of suicidal attempts and completions. To determine whether drugs associated with more suicidal ideations are also associated with more suicide attempts in large spontaneous adverse event (AE) report databases. Generalized linear models with negative binomial distribution were fitted to Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Adverse Event (AE) Reporting System (AERS) data from 2004 to 2008. A total of 1,404,470 AEs from 832 drugs were analyzed as a function of reports of suicidal ideations; other non-suicidal adverse reactions; drug class; proportion of reports from males; and average age of subject for which AE was filed. Drug was treated as the unit of analysis, thus the statistical models effectively had 832 observations. Reported suicide attempts and completed suicides per drug. 832 drugs, ranging from abacavir to zopiclone, were evaluated. The 832 drugs, as primary suspect drugs in a given adverse event, accounted for over 99.9% of recorded AERS. Suicidal ideations had a significant positive association with suicide attempts (p<.0001) and had an approximately 131-fold stronger magnitude of association than non-suicidal AERs, after adjusting for drug class, gender, and age.",
"To investigate the different effects of heroin and milk in activating the corticostriatal system that plays a critical role in reward reinforcement learning. Male SD rats were trained daily for 15 d to self-administer heroin or milk tablets in a classic runway drug self-administration model. Immunohistochemical assay was used to quantify Arc protein expression in the medial prefrontal cortex (mPFC), the nucleus accumbens (NAc), the dorsomedial striatum (DMS) and the ventrolateral striatum (VLS) in response to chronic self-administration of heroin or milk tablets. NMDA receptor antagonist MK801 (0.1 mg/kg) or dopamine D1 receptor antagonist SCH23390 (0.03 mg/kg) were intravenously injected at the same time as heroin was infused intravenously. Runway training with heroin resulted in robust enhancement of Arc expression in the mPFC, the NAc and the DMS on d 1, 7, and 15, and in the VLS on d 1 and d 7. However, runway training with milk led to increased Arc expression in the mPFC, the NAc and the DMS only on d 7 and/or d 15 but not on d 1. Moreover, runway training with milk failed to induce increased Arc protein in the VLS. Both heroin-seeking behavior and Arc protein expression were blocked by MK801 or SCH23390 administration.",
"Colchicine, a potent neurotoxin derived of plant has been recently identified as a degenerative toxin of small pyramidal cells in the hippocampal cortical area 1 (CA1). In this study, the effect of the alkaloid intra hippocampal CA1 on the novelty seeking behavior in the conditioning task was measured. Injections of colchicine (1-75 μg/rat, intra-CA1) were performed in cannulated male Wistar rats while being settled in the stereotaxic apparatus. Control group was solely injected saline (1 μl/rat, intra-CA1). One week later, after recovery, all the animals passed the novelty seeking paradigm using an unbiased conditioning task. They were habituated with the conditioned place preference (CPP) apparatus on day 1. Then they were confined in one part of the CPP box for 3 more days. Finally, the animals were tested in the last day. To evaluate, the possible cell injury effect of the toxin on the pyramidal cells of the CA1 both the motivational staying signal in the parts of the box and the non-motivational locomotive signs of the rats were measured. Based on the present study, the alkaloid caused significant novelty seeking behavior at higher doses. It also affected the compartment entering behavior in the colchicine received group. However, the alkaloid did not show the significant effect on sniffing, rearing or grooming in the rats.",
"yes. These findings provide support for negative urgency as a unique mediator of the associations between childhood maltreatment and both alcohol and cannabis problems, suggesting that future work on mechanisms in these associations should focus on mood-based impulsivity.",
"Species of Aristolochia are associated with aristolochic acid nephropathy (AAN), a renal interstitial fibrosis and upper urinary tract cancer (UUC). Aristolochic acid nephropathy has been reported in ten countries but its true incidence is unknown and most likely underestimated. By combining an ethnobotanical and phytochemical approach we provide evidence for the risk of AAN occurring in Bangladesh. More specifically, we assess the intra-specific variation of aristolochic acid analogues in medicinally used Aristolochia indica samples from Bangladesh. Ethnobotanical information was collected from 16 kavirajes (traditional healers) in different study locations in Bangladesh. Plant samples were obtained from native habitats, botanical gardens, herbal markets and pharmaceutical companies. The samples were extracted using 70% methanol and were analysed using LC-DAD-MS and (1)H-NMR. Roots as well as leaves are commonly used for symptoms such as snake bites and sexual problems. Among the informants knowledge about toxicity or side effects is very limited and Aristolochia indica is often administered in very high doses. Replacement of Aristolochia indica with other medicinal plants such as Rauvolfia serpentina (L.) Benth. ex Kurz was common. Aristolochia indica samples contained a variety of aristolochic acid analogues such as aristolochic acid I, aristolochic acid II, cepharadione A and related compounds.",
"yes. The strain of ZQ-89 is highly toxic to the adults of long-horned beetle, and the crystal protein mainly contributes to the antipest role of this strain. The cry1Ac89 gene is a good candidate to be used for making transgenic trees or develop environment-friendly bioinsecticides against long-horned beetles such as B. horsfieldi in the future.",
"There has been a sharp increase in the abuse of prescription opioid analgesics in the United States in the past decade. It has been asserted, particularly by several governmental and regulatory agencies, that the Internet has become a significant source of these drugs which may account to a great extent for the surge in abuse. We have studied whether this is correct. We asked 1,116 prescription drug abusers admitted for treatment, through standardized questionnaires, where they obtained their drugs. We also attempted to purchase scheduled II and III drugs from a random sample of Internet sites offering such sales. Dealers, friends or relatives, and doctors' prescriptions were listed as a source of drugs with equal frequency ( approximately 50-65%), with theft and forgery far behind at 20%. The Internet was mentioned by fewer than 6% of the total responders. Because these data suggest either lack of availability or that our sample has not yet realized that the Internet is a potential source, we attempted to purchase scheduled II and III opioids and the unscheduled opioid, tramadol, from a random sample of 10% of the sites listing such sales. We were unsuccessful in purchasing a single scheduled opioid analgesic, but found that tramadol, as an unscheduled drug, was freely available.",
"User practices/rituals that involve concurrent use of tobacco and marijuana - smoking blunts and \"chasing\" marijuana with tobacco - are hypothesized to increase cannabis dependence symptoms. Ethnographers administered group surveys to a diverse, purposive sample of marijuana users who appeared to be 17-35 years old. New York City, including non-impoverished areas of Manhattan, the transitional area of East Village/Lower East Side, low-income areas of northern Manhattan and South Bronx, and diverse areas of Brooklyn and Queens. 481 marijuana users ages 14-35, 57% male, 43% female; 27% White, 30% Black, 19% Latino, 5% Asian, 20% of other/multiple race. Among many other topics, group surveys measured cannabis dependence symptoms; frequencies of chasing, blunt smoking, joint/pipe smoking, using marijuana while alone, and general tobacco use; and demographic factors. Blunt smoking and chasing marijuana with tobacco were each uniquely associated with five of the seven cannabis dependence symptoms. Across symptoms, predicted odds were 2.4-4.1 times greater for participants who smoked blunts on all 30 of the past 30 days than for participants who did not smoke blunts in the past 30 days. Significant increases in odds over the whole range of the five-point chasing frequency measure (from never to always) ranged from 3.4 times to 5.1 times.",
"yes. Inhalation exposure to a product containing JWH-018 penetrates into the brain and other organs and produces CB(1) receptor-mediated behavioral pharmacological effects in mice. The increased potency of JWH-018 compared to THC, the variable amount of drug added to various herbal products, and unknown toxicity, undoubtedly contribute to public health risks of synthetic cannabinoids.",
"Across all ages and cultures, mankind has always used substances in order to induce pleasurable sensations or desirable psychophysical states. These substances, notably caffeine, tobacco, alcohol and chocolate, can be labeled 'social drugs'. We analyzed the social drug habits of 562 patients suffering from mood disorders, according to DSM-IV-R criteria (major depressive episode, recurrent depression, bipolar type I and II disorders and depression not otherwise specified). The sample was also divided into bipolar and non-bipolar according to Hypomania Check-list 32 (HCL-32), which proposes a broader concept of hypomania and soft bipolarity, comprising the spectrum of bipolar disorders proper, along with other, \"softer\" expressions of bipolarity intermediate between bipolar disorder and normality. Using HCL-32 criteria, but DSM-IV-R criteria, a link was confirmed between bipolar spectrum and substance use including social drugs such as tobacco and coffee. Observational correlational study.",
"Longitudinal data of four-waves of a broader effectiveness study were used from 1068 early adolescents. Our cross-lagged models indicated that sensation seeking and impulsivity show strongest reciprocal associations with substance use during early adolescence. In contrast, no reciprocity was present between substance use and anxiety sensitivity and only one reciprocal relationship was present between substance use and hopelessness.",
"To assess whether novel psychoactive substances (NPS) displace established club drugs, supplement them or act as drugs of initiation via a study of the relationship between mephedrone, ecstasy pills, cocaine and MDMA powder amongst club-goers considered to be 'early adopters' of psychostimulant/club drug trends. In situ surveys were conducted with 308 customers in two south London gay dance clubs across 3 weekend nights in July 2010 to assess the prevalence and patterns of self-reported use of a range of illegal drugs and NPS. Mephedrone was added to existing drug repertoires amongst those surveyed and acted to supplement more established club drugs including ecstasy pills, cocaine and MDMA powder, rather than replacing or displacing those drugs.",
"Tetracarpidium conophorum (Mull. Arg.) Hutch. & Dalz is one of the many medicinal plants used for ages in folklore as male fertility enhancers. The current study evaluates the effect of the plant leaf extract on alcohol - induced reproductive toxicity in male rats. Thirty rats were randomly divided into six groups of five animals each; Group 1 (positive control) received normal saline only; Group 2 (ethanol alone) were given only 30 % ethanol orally at 7 ml/kg body weight per day, thrice in a week; Group 3, 4, 5 were given ethanol and co-treated with 50 mg/kg, 500 mg/kg and 1000 mg/kg body weight of leaf extract respectively while Group 6 were given ethanol and co-treated with a fertility drug, clomiphene citrate. All the drugs were given daily and the experiment lasted for twenty one consecutive days. Alcohol ingestion resulted in a significant (p < 0.05) decrease in water, food intake and marked elevation of lipid peroxidation as assessed by the accumulation of malondialdehyde (MDA) in the reproductive tissues. Precisely, MDA level was elevated in the testis, epididymis, seminal vesicle and prostate gland by 81 %, 63 %, 95 % and 91 %, respectively. Furthermore, levels of total protein, reduced glutathione (GSH), vitamin C and activities of antioxidant enzymes in the reproductive tissues were significantly (p < 0.0001) reduced in ethanol-ingested rats. Interestingly, co-administration of T. conophorum with ethanol led to almost complete inhibition of lipid peroxidation thereby enhancing antioxidant status of the reproductive tissues.",
"There has been a rise in the illicit use of pharmaceutical opioids (\"pain pills\") in the United States. Conducted with young adult non-medical users of pharmaceutical opioids, this study uses qualitative methods and cultural consensus analysis to describe risk perceptions associated with pharmaceutical opioids and to determine patterns of cultural sharing and intra-cultural variation of these views. The qualitative sub-sample (n=47) was selected from a larger sample of 396 young adults (18-23 years old), who were participating in a natural history study of illicit pharmaceutical opioid use. Qualitative life history interviews, drug ranking task, and cultural consensus analysis were used to elicit participant views about risks and harms associated with pain pills and other drugs, as well as alcohol and tobacco. Cultural consensus analysis revealed that the participants shared a single cultural model of drug risks, but the level of agreement decreased with the increasing range of drugs ever used. Further, those with more extensive drug use histories differed from less \"experienced\" users in their views about OxyContin and some other drugs. Overall, pain pills were viewed as addicting and potentially deadly substances, but these properties were linked to the patterns and methods of use, as well as characteristics of an individual user. Further, risks associated with pharmaceutical opioids were further curtailed because they \"came from the doctor,\" and thus had a legitimate aspect to their use.",
"Use of synthetic \"marijuana\" has increased in recent years, produced adverse effects and prompted the temporary DEA ban of five specific cannabinoid analogs, including JWH-018. The objectives of the current study include determining the chemical content of the herbal product, Buzz, assessing its behavioral effects upon inhalation exposure to mice, determining whether CB(1) receptors mediate its pharmacological activity, and ascertaining its biodisposition in blood and various organs. Using a nose-only exposure system, mice were exposed to smoke produced from combustion of an herbal incense product, Buzz, which contained 5.4% JWH-018. Cannabimimetic effects following smoke exposure were evaluated using the tetrad procedure, consisting of the following indices: hypomotility, antinociception, catalepsy, and hypothermia. Additionally, blood and tissues were collected for JWH-018 quantification. Inhalation exposure to Buzz produced dose-related tetrad effects similar to marijuana as well as dose-related increased levels of JWH-018 in the blood, brain, heart, kidney, liver, lung, and spleen. The behavioral effects were blocked by rimonabant, a CB(1) receptor antagonist. Effects produced by Buzz were similar in magnitude and time-course to those produced by marijuana, though equipotent doses of Buzz and marijuana yielded considerably lower brain levels of JWH-018 than THC for the respective materials.",
"Multiple agency sampling and field work which included 'snowballing' using 'privileged access interviewers'. Each subject underwent a structured interview which included the Severity of Dependency Scale (SDS), and completed a confidential, self-report questionnaire. Three contrasting provincial urban locations. Five hundred and eighty-one regular users of the target drugs. Of these, 380 (65%) denied any contact with police or helping agencies in connection with drug use. Most zero-contact users (79%) expressed little or no concern about their drug use, and no wish for help or advice. They were much more likely to use stimulants only; less likely ever to inject any drug or, for those that did, to share equipment; less likely to use opioids, amphetamine or cocaine powder on a daily basis; more likely to use Ecstasy; and yielded significantly lower SDS scores for all target drugs save crack. Prevalence of crack use was lower, but the proportion of daily users was the same as in the contact group. Most (69%) contact users remained concerned about their drug use, but 58% expressed little or no confidence that local services could meet their needs. In both groups, SDS scores for cocaine powder were comparable to those for cannabis, LSD and Ecstasy. Of the 495 cannabis smokers identified (85% of the sample), 72% reported daily consumption.",
"Lily of the valley is a poisonous plant due to the presence of the cardiac glycoside convallatoxin. We compared two immunoassays (LOCI digoxin assay and iDigoxin assay) for rapid detection of convallatoxin if present in human serum. Aliquots of a drug free serum pool and a digoxin serum pool were supplemented with microliter amounts of lily of the valley extract or nanogram to microgram quantities of convallatoxin, followed by measurement of apparent digoxin concentrations using the LOCI and iDigxoin assays. Apparent digoxin concentrations were observed when aliquots of a drug free serum pool were supplemented with convallatoxin or lily of the valley extract using both assays but apparent digoxin concentrations were significantly higher using the iDigoxin assay. In addition, the interference of convallatoxin in serum digoxin measurement was also significantly higher using iDigxoin assay compared to the LOCI digoxin assay.",
"To assess whether current use of psychoactive substance(s) is a prognostic factor during hospitalization for intentional drug overdose (IDO). Current intoxication with psychoactive substance(s) [cannabis, opiate, buprenorphine, amphetamine/ecstasy, cocaine, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)] was identified using toxicological urinalysis in 671 patients with IDO. An IDO was a priori defined as serious if associated with one of the following events: death, hospitalization in intensive care unit longer than 48 h, respiratory support, use of vasopressive drugs, cardiac massage or dialysis. Subjects positive for toxicological assays were twice as likely to present with serious IDO (OR = 1.9, 95% CI: 1.3-2.8, P = 0.001), independently from a large range of confounding factors. The risk of serious IDO was especially marked in subjects using LSD, buprenorphine or opiates.",
"The recent emergence of new recreational drugs, combined with the ability of the Internet to disseminate information quickly, have raised a number of concerns in the fields of drug policy, substance use research, and public health. A semi-structured questionnaire was advertised on The Study Room's website from November to December 2010 to explore the awareness, the use and the perception of risks of \"legal highs\" among student population in the UK. One-third (31.40%) of the 446 participants reported use of these kinds of drugs. Respondents were more likely to have taken were: mephedrone (41.4%), Salvia divinorum (20%), \"Spice drugs\" (10.7%), methylone (1.4%), naphyrone (NRG) (2.1%) and benzylpiperazine (BZP) (2.1%), while 15.7% did not know what compounds they had ever consumed. The large majority (78.9%) considered these as legal substances, while 74.2% did not consider these safer than illicit drugs. Half (50.8%) of the respondents were aware of the presence of illegal agents in the products they had consumed.",
"Marijuana is one of the most widely used controlled substances in the United States. Despite extensive research on smoked marijuana, little is known regarding the potential psychotropic effects of marijuana \"wax,\" a high-potency form of marijuana that is gaining in popularity. The authors present a case of \"Mr. B,\" a 34-year-old veteran who presented with profound psychosis in the setting of recent initiation of heavy, daily marijuana wax use. He exhibited incoherent speech and odd behaviors and appeared to be in a dream-like state with perseverating thoughts about his combat experience. His condition persisted despite treatment with risperidone 4 mg twice a day (BID), but improved dramatically on day 8 of hospitalization with the return of baseline mental function. Following discharge, Mr. B discontinued all marijuana use and did not exhibit the return of any psychotic symptoms.",
"in the 1990s, a Belgian cohort of more than 100 patients reported cases of Aristolochic Acid Nephropathy (AAN). This progressive renal and interstitial fibrosis, frequently associated with urothelial malignancies, was consecutive to the Chinese-herbs based slimming capsules intake where a plant Stephania tetrandra S. Moore was replaced by a highly genotoxic Aristolochia species. 70% of the Belgian patients evolved into end-stage renal disease, requiring dialysis or renal transplantation. Furthermore the prevalence of upper urinary tract carcinoma was found alarmingly high in these patients. The Aristolochia adulteration was blamed for the intoxication cases and, to the best of our knowledge, the prescription itself has not been further investigated. This work proposes to evaluate the in vitro cytotoxicity and genotoxicity of Aristolochia and Magnolia traditional aqueous decoctions and their association. The cytotoxicity of extracts has been assessed by a MTT cell proliferation assay and the genotoxicity by measuring the presence of γ-H2AX, a phosphorylated histone associated with DNA damages. Treating cells for 24h with a mixture 1:1 of Magnolia officinalis and Aristolochia baetica decoctions led to an increase in the production of γ-H2AX.",
"Plants take up an important place in traditional medicine and scientific research confirmed properties about their use as alternative therapy. Bidens tripartita, commonly known as Three-lobe Beggarticks, Three-part Beggarticks, Trifid Bur-marigold, is a flowering plant in the genus Bidens, family Compositae, subfamily Asteroideae. Evaluation of the chemical composition of this plant has revealed the presence of flavonoids, xanthophylls, volatile oil, acetylene and polyacetylene, sterols, aurones, chalcones, caffeine and tannins. Theoretical data investigation regarding Bidens tripartita plant and experimental researches on acute toxicity of an original extract in mice. The vegetal product of Bidens tripartita used for study was obtained by maceration and extraction in alcohol, and its chemical composition was determined. Acute toxicity of the alcoholic extract of Bidens tripartita was assessed by median lethal dose (LD50) calculation, using a limit dose test of up- and- down procedure at a limit dose of 2000mg/kbw after intraperitoneal administration in mice. In the alcoholic extract of Bidens tripartita different active principles were identified: tannins, anthracene derivatives, triterpenes, coumarins, antocyanosides. The toxicity of plant product was evaluated by different characteristic signs for the mouse which can be retained as toxicity elements of the extract. Using the intraperitoneal route, the animals showed dose-dependent signs of toxicity, ranging from lack of appetite, depression, immobility and respiratory distress to death. Single-dose intraperitoneal LD50 value of the alcoholic Bidens tripartita extract in mice was 4038 mg/kg. No macroscopic changes were seen in the organs of mice that died following extract administration. Histopathological lesions were not found in all examined organs.",
"A new method for administering cannabinoids, called butane hash oil (\"dabs\"), is gaining popularity among marijuana users. Despite press reports that suggest that \"dabbing\" is riskier than smoking flower cannabis, no data address whether dabs users experience more problems from use than those who prefer flower cannabis. The present study aimed to gather preliminary information on dabs users and test whether dabs use is associated with more problems than using flower cannabis. Participants (n=357) reported on their history of cannabis use, their experience with hash oil and the process of \"dabbing,\" reasons for choosing \"dabs\" over other methods, and any problems related to both flower cannabis and butane hash oil. Analyses revealed that using \"dabs\" created no more problems or accidents than using flower cannabis. Participants did report that \"dabs\" led to higher tolerance and withdrawal (as defined by the participants), suggesting that the practice might be more likely to lead to symptoms of addiction or dependence.",
"3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA, ecstasy) has become a widely used recreational drug among young people. This is of great concern, since MDMA is neurotoxic in animal studies and its use has been associated with psychological distress and a variety of self-reported psychiatric symptoms. However, exploring the origins of psychopathology in ecstasy users is hampered by the frequent polydrug use and by the cross-sectional design of all investigations, so far. The present study combines a cross-sectional with a longitudinal approach to further clarify the impact of the use of other illicit drugs on psychopathological symptoms reported by ecstasy users. At baseline, we administered self-rating scales for impulsivity, sensation seeking and general psychological complaints to 60 recreational ecstasy users and 30 matched controls. From the initial sample of ecstasy users, 38 subjects were re-examined 18 months later. RESULTS. At baseline, ecstasy users reported significantly more psychological complaints than controls. However, self-reported psychopathology was mainly associated with regular cannabis use. At follow-up, subjects who had abstained from ecstasy use during the follow-up period did not differ from those reporting continued consumption. In contrast, subjects with regular concomitant cannabis use during the follow-up period reported more anxiety, interpersonal sensitivity and obsessive-compulsive behaviour than cannabis-abstinent users. Finally, higher levels of obsessive-compulsive behaviour, interpersonal sensitivity, depression, anxiety, phobic anxiety and paranoid ideation were significantly correlated with the duration of regular interim cannabis use.",
"White or false hellebore (Veratrum album) has a toxicological relevance because of the potential for misidentification of this plant as yellow gentian (Gentiana lutea). We report a retrospective case series of 11 children (8-12 years) with accidental intake of V. album at a youth camp where they had collected herbs for preparing fresh herb tea. Two children (18%) remained asymptomatic. Nine (82%) developed mild gastrointestinal symptoms, six (55%) presented neurological symptoms, and three (27%) showed bradycardia. All children recovered completely within 10 h of ingestion. The plant was identified at the emergency department; however, detection of veratridine and cevadine by means of high-performance liquid chromatography-Mass spectrometry from the blood of the child with the most severe symptoms was negative (limit 0.01 ng/mL).",
"Angel's trumpet (Species Brugmansia) is widely used as a garden plant because it is easily kept and the luxuriance of its flowering. Belonging to the Family Solanacea it contains a large amount of alkaloids (parasympatholytics). Because of its hallucinogenic action, its leaves and flowers are increasingly used by young people as a substitute for the hallucinogen LSD (lysergic acid diethylamide). In the summer of 1997, one of a group of youths died after they had ingested its flowers which they had gathered from front gardens. An investigation was undertaken to identify the alkaloids and measure their concentration in the various parts of the plant. Four young and one eight-year old plant were kept outdoors from May until October, and its flowers and leaves were removed for analysis weekly. All samples were deep-frozen at -20 degrees C and later, at the same time, thawed out, weighed and extracted in methanol. The alkaloids were identified by high pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC), diode array detector, separated by means of a Hypersil HyPurity cartridge, and measured at a wave-length of 220 nm. All 66 flowers, 32 leaves and 2 speed capsules contained tropane alkaloids, mainly scopolamine. The highest concentrations were found in the seed capsules, lower ones in the flowers, while the leaves contained only small amounts. Total alkaloid content per flower of the younger plants averaged 0.94 mg, of the younger ones 1.81 mg. The flowers of the old plant contained up to 3 mg scopolamine.",
"The ingestion of even a few flowers of Angel's trumpet can cause symptoms of poisoning. Easy availability of the plant thus presents a danger. Because of the increasing incidence of deliberate ingestion by young people, poisoning by Angel's trumpet should be included in the differential diagnosis in patients with confusion and hallucinations of uncertain origin, especially during the summer months."
] | 754 |
Malacoplakia: a possible complication of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus? | [
"A 47-year-old woman with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (HbA1C 9.2%, fasting blood glucose>200 mg/dl) had complained of moderately severe stabbing pain in the left abdomen. On admission there were no abnormal findings on abdominal palpation. Abdominal ultrasound and computed tomography (CT) revealed a partly solid partly cystic well-circumscribed space-occupying lesion, about 15 cm in diameter, in the left abdomen, extending from the lower third of the kidney into the pelvis. Biopsy of the lesion showed chronic granulating inflammation with foamy histiocytes (Hansemann macrophages) as characteristic substrate of extensive malakoplakia. Despite the size of the lesion it was not excised but long-term treatment with ciprofloxacin undertaken. At the same time, the diabetes was carefully controlled with ordinary insulin. Ten months later there was no longer any evidence of the lesion by ultrasound and CT.",
"Even extensive malakoplakia can be successfully treated with ciprofloxacin. Poorly controlled diabetes together with a weak immune status (CD4/CD8<or = 1) may have favoured the occurrence of malakoplakia."
] | [
"Type 2 diabetes is associated with reduced risk of prostate cancer and low prostate-specific antigen levels for uncertain reasons. Recently, two studies demonstrated the time course of diabetes with prostate-specific antigen levels, which would be explained by the chronic renal complication. Therefore, we conducted a retrospective study to determine whether diabetic nephropathy is associated with prostate-specific antigen levels. Eligible patients were men aged ≥40 years, with type 2 diabetes and a recorded prostate-specific antigen level. Patients with a prior history of prostate cancer or prostatectomy or prostate-specific antigen level ≥10 ng/mL and patients with end-organ damage were excluded. Of the 247 patients included in the adjusted analysis, 51 (20.8 %) were diagnosed with diabetic nephropathy. A significant association of diabetic nephropathy with log-transformed prostate-specific antigen level was detected (Spearman's correlation coefficient -0.201, p = 0.003; adjusted for all other correlated variables) and fit into a linear regression model (B-coefficient -0.331, p = 0.003). Comparing diabetic nephropathy group with non-diabetic nephropathy group, the difference in log-transformed prostate-specific antigen levels was also significant (p = 0.002).",
"yes. We show that the presence of other microvascular diabetes complications, together with diabetes duration and A1C, are associated with low nerve conduction velocity and amplitude response and that cardiovascular disease or risk factors do not seem to be associated with these measures.",
"Glycosylation, i.e the enzymatic addition of oligosaccharides (or glycans) to proteins and lipids, known as glycosylation, is one of the most common co-/posttranslational modifications of proteins. Many important biological roles of glycoproteins are modulated by N-linked oligosaccharides. As glucose levels can affect the pathways leading to glycosylation of proteins, we investigated whether metabolic syndrome (MS) and type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), pathological conditions characterized by altered glucose levels, are associated with specific modifications in serum N-glycome. We enrolled in the study 562 patients with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) (mean age 65.6±8.2 years) and 599 healthy control subjects (CTRs) (mean age, 58.5±12.4 years). N-glycome was evaluated in serum glycoproteins. We found significant changes in N-glycan composition in the sera of T2DM patients. In particular, α(1,6)-linked arm monogalactosylated, core-fucosylated diantennary N-glycans (NG1(6)A2F) were significantly reduced in T2DM compared with CTR subjects. Importantly, they were equally reduced in diabetic patients with and without complications (P<0.001) compared with CTRs. Macro vascular-complications were found to be related with decreased levels of NG1(6)A2F. In addition, NG1(6)A2F and NG1(3)A2F, identifying, respectively, monogalactosylated N-glycans with α(1,6)- and α(1,3)-antennary galactosylation, resulted strongly correlated with most MS parameters. The plasmatic levels of these two glycans were lower in T2DM as compared to healthy controls, and even lower in patients with complications and MS, that is the extreme \"unhealthy\" phenotype (T2DM+ with MS).",
"This abnormality in cholinergic second neuron function of the vagal reflex arch and the fact that three of the healthy subjects had no increase in PP concentrations at all during the meal test indicates that PP response to a mixed meal is unsuitable for the diagnosis of autonomic neuropathy in type 1 diabetes. The nature of the defect in the second neuron of the vagal innervation of the pancreas in type 1 diabetes remains to be elucidated.",
"yes. Streptozotocin induced diabetes led to increased LV/bodyweight, increased collagen content, and diminished MMP-2 with no change in PCr/ATP. Therefore, remodeling rather than disturbed energetics may underlie diabetic cardiomyopathy.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate any possible relation between the severity of anorectal dysfunction in diabetes mellitus and duration of disease and presence of microangiopathy or neuropathy or both. Standard multiport anorectal manometry was performed in 25 healthy control subjects (10 males; age (mean +/- 1 standard deviation), 62 +/- 14 years) and 38 patients with diabetes mellitus. Patients were divided into two groups according to the duration of the disease: Group A (19 patients) with a duration less than 10 years (7.2 +/- 2.5; 8 males; age, 57 +/- 18) and Group B (19 patients) with a duration longer than 10 years (19.8 +/- 5.6; 6 males; age, 62 +/- 15). Results are reported as mean +/- one standard deviation. Patients showed lower resting and squeeze anal pressures (P < 0.01), impaired rectoanal inhibitory and anocutaneous reflexes, and reduced sensitivity in rectal distention (P = 0.004) as compared with controls. In addition, Group B showed a significantly increased incidence of microangiopathy (P = 0.04) and autonomic and peripheral neuropathy (P = 0.002), significantly reduced basal and squeeze anal pressures (52 +/- 16 vs. 64 +/- 24 mmHg; P = 0.03 and 98 +/- 39 vs. 124 +/- 54 mmHg; P = 0.04, respectively), reduced amplitude of slow waves (7.3 +/- 3 ts. 9.5 +/- 3.7 mmHg; P = 0.03), anal leak in smaller rectal volumes (P = 0.003), and reduced response of the anal sphincter at the anocutaneous reflexes (29 +/- 14 vs. 39 +/- 14 mmHg; P = 0.05) compared with Group A. The former group of patients exhibited a significantly higher incidence of fecal incontinence (P = 0.008).",
"yes. The present study has shown that pre-exposure to high glucose and subsequent lipopolysaccharide treatment synergistically stimulates MMP-1 expression by mononuclear phagocytes through the NFkappaB and MAPK signaling pathways. This study has thus delineated a pathogenic mechanism that may be involved in the exacerbated periodontal disease in diabetic patients.",
"Diabetic large-nerve fiber dysfunction, as measured by vibration perception threshold (VPT), predicts foot ulceration, amputation, and mortality. Thus, determination of modifiable risk factors is of great clinical importance. We assessed 1,407 patients with type 1 diabetes and a normal VPT participating in the EURODIAB Prospective Complications Study, at baseline mean +/- SD age of 32.7 +/- 10.2 years with diabetes duration of 14.7 +/- 9.3 years and follow-up of 7.3 +/- 0.6 years. VPT was measured using biothesiometry on the right big toe and medial malleolus. An abnormal result was defined as >2 SD from the predicted mean for the patient s age. An abnormal VPT was associated with an increased incidence of gangrene, amputation, foot ulceration, leg bypass or angioplasty, and mortality (P < OR = 0.02). The incidence of abnormal VPT was 24% over the 7.3-year follow-up. Duration of diabetes and A1C significantly influenced the incidence of abnormal VPT (P < 0.0001). After correction for these, established risk factors for cardiovascular disease (CVD), including male sex (P = 0.0004), hypertension (P < 0.0001), total cholesterol (P = 0.002), LDL cholesterol (P = 0.01), smoking (P < 0.0001), weight (P < 0.0001), and diabetes complications (retinopathy [P = 0.0001], nephropathy [P = 0.01], and autonomic neuropathy [P = 0.001]), were all found to be significant risk factors. A previous history of CVD doubled the incidence of abnormal VPT.",
"yes. Our data suggest that loss of modified heparan sulphate in the GBM is mediated by an increased heparanase presence and may play a role in the pathogenesis of diabetes-induced proteinuria.",
"The aims of the study were to evaluate the prevalence of increased urinary albumin excretion (UAE) and associated cardiovascular risk factors and vascular diabetes complications in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM). We studied 975 patients in a cross-sectional design from 1998 to 2000. Frequency of micro- and macroalbuminuria, and their associations with cardiovascular risk factors and vascular DM complications, were examined. Prevalence of increased UAE was 28.5% (18.3% micro- and 10.2% macroalbuminuria). Body mass index (BMI) (only females) and hemoglobin (Hb)A1c significantly correlated with macroalbuminuria (p = 0.034, p = 0.027, respectively), while high blood pressure (diastolic) was associated with microalbuminuria (p = 0.008). Diabetes duration, high systolic blood pressure, total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol and triglycerides were significantly correlated with both micro- and macroalbuminuria. Increased UAE was associated with neuropathy (relative risk (RR) 2.12, confidence interval (CI) 1.07-4.19), retinopathy (RR 2.19, CI 1.76-2.74) and hypertension (RR 2.91, CI 1.77-4.78), but not with cardiovascular disease, high cholesterol and peripheral vascular disease. In the multiple logistic regression analysis, a significant association of albuminuria was found with diabetes duration (odds ratio (OR) 1.59, CI 0.98-2.58; p<0062), hypertension (OR 3.42, CI 2.22-5.27; p<0.0001), low HDL cholesterol (OR 1.78, CI 1.31-2.43; p<0.0003), current smoking status (OR 2.19, CI 1.32-3.64; p<0.0024), and increased serum creatinine (OR 11.16, CI 5.7-21.7; p<0.0001).",
"To investigate the association between glycaemic control, diabetes distress and depressive symptoms among Japanese patients with Type 2 diabetes. Cross-sectional data from 3305 patients with Type 2 diabetes were obtained from a baseline assessment of a diabetes registry at a general hospital in Japan. The Centre for Epidemiologic Studies Depression scale and Problem Areas in Diabetes scale were used to measure depressive symptoms and diabetes-related distress, respectively. Modified Poisson regression analysis was used to estimate the relative risks for poor glycaemic control across the quartiles of Centre for Epidemiologic Studies Depression scale and Problem Areas in Diabetes scale scores. The average age of the participants was 64.9 years and the average HbA(1c) level was 58.1 mmol/mol (7.5%). Clinically significant levels of depressive symptoms (Centre for Epidemiologic Studies Depression scale scores ≥ 16) were reported by 27.8% of participants. These scores significantly correlated with Problem Areas in Diabetes scale scores (r = 0.4354, P < 0.0001). Diabetes distress, but not depressive symptoms, was significantly associated with higher HbA(1c) levels. The relative risks for poor glycaemic control (HbA(1c) ≥ 64 mmol/mol; 8.0%), when adjusted for age, sex, BMI, type of diabetes therapy and duration of diabetes, was 67% higher among patients with Problem Areas in Diabetes scale scores in the highest quartile (≥ 26.25) compared with those in the lowest quartile (0-3.75).",
"To review the management of glycaemia, blood pressure and serum lipids in a hospital outpatient diabetes clinic, the director of which co-authored the current national diabetes management guidelines. Retrospective audit. Outpatient diabetes clinic in a tertiary referral teaching hospital, Sydney, NSW. 96 patients with type 1 diabetes (mean age, 44.4 [SD, 12.8] years) and 509 patients with type 2 diabetes (mean age, 64.4 [SD, 12.0]years) attending the clinic in 2003, who had undergone formal review of complications. Weight, height, control and treatment of glycaemia, blood pressure and serum lipids, and prevalence of diabetic microvascular complications. Glycated haemoglobin (HbA(1c)) was<7% in 13% of type 1 and 30% of type 2 diabetes patients, and>8% in 47% and 34%, respectively. 35% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 71% of patients with type 2 diabetes were treated with antihypertensive agents. Of these patients, 29% and 24%, respectively, had blood pressure readings</= 130/80 mmHg. Among patients not treated with hypertensive agents, blood pressure readings were</= 130/80 mmHg in 60% of type 1 and 38% of type 2 diabetes patients. About 30% of patients with type 1 diabetes and 50% of those with type 2 diabetes were being treated with lipid-lowering agents; of these, about 60% had low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels<2.6 mmol/L. Among patients not treated with lipid-lowering agents, about 40% had LDL cholesterol levels<2.6 mmol/L. Retinopathy was documented in 52% and 18%, and nephropathy in 9% and 36% of type 1 and type 2 diabetes patients, respectively.",
"Our results demonstrate a strong statistical correlation between diabetes and WML. Future scientific challenges could include the identification of potential therapeutic targets and the creation of dedicated screening protocols for WML in diabetic patients other than the simple measurement of leukoaraiosis total burden.",
"yes. We found no concurrent or longitudinal association between MDD or depressive symptoms with A1C, whereas both concurrent and time-concordant relationships were found between diabetes distress and A1C. What has been called \"depression\" among type 2 diabetic patients may really be two conditions, MDD and diabetes distress, with only the latter displaying significant associations with A1C. Ongoing evaluation of both diabetes distress and MDD may be helpful in clinical settings.",
"yes. Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor for worsening changes in renal function after CCTA, even in patients with preserved renal function. In particular, elevated microalbuminuria and low oral fluid intake are high-risk factors for renal functional deterioration.",
"Plasma oxidized low-density lipoprotein (OxLDL) is known to be associated with obesity, metabolic syndrome, and diabetes. The objective of the study was to investigate the association between plasma IgA, IgM, and IgG titers to OxLDL, phosphocholine (PC), and streptococcal cell wall polysaccharide (CWPS) and markers of glucose metabolism, type 2 diabetes, and liver adiposity. A population-based cohort of middle-aged Finns (n = 1039) participated in the study. Plasma IgM, IgG, and IgA to copper oxidized LDL (CuOx-LDL) and malondialdehyde-modified low-density lipoprotein (MDA-LDL), PC, and CWPS were determined with chemiluminescent ELISA and liver adiposity with ultrasonography. IgA autoantibody titers to OxLDL and PC, but not CWPS, were positively associated with fasting blood glucose and plasma insulin levels and inversely with insulin sensitivity index. IgA to OxLDL was significantly higher (P = 0.013 for CuOx-LDL and P = 0.016 for MDA-LDL) and IgG to OxLDL significantly lower (P = 0.036 for CuOx-LDL and P = 0.001 for MDA-LDL) among the subjects with type 2 diabetes compared with subjects with normal or impaired glucose metabolism when adjusted for age, sex, body mass index, smoking, and alcohol consumption. Logistic regression analysis showed that high plasma IgA to OxLDL and low IgG to MDA-LDL were independent risk factors for type 2 diabetes. Plasma IgA titers to OxLDL demonstrated a significant association with liver adiposity (P = 0.012) and gamma-glutamyltransferase levels (P = 0.002).",
"Assess periodontal disease progression among GullahAfrican Americans with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) according to health insurance coverage. From an ongoing clinical trial among T2DM Gullah, we extracted a cohort that was previously enrolled in a cross-sectional study (N=93). Comparing prior exam to trial initiation, total tooth sites/person with periodontal disease progression events [evaluated separately: 2+ mm of clinical attachment loss (CAL), 2+ mm increased periodontal probing depths (PPD), bleeding on probing (BOP) emergence] were evaluated according to health insurance coverage using regression techniques appropriate for data with different counts of potential events per subject (varying tooth sites available). We used negative binomial regression techniques to account for overdispersion and fit multivariable models that also included baseline glycemic control (poor: glycated hemoglobin > OR =7 percent, well: glycated hemoglobin <7 percent), history of established periodontitis, age, gender, body mass index, annual income, and oral hygiene behaviors. Final models included health insurance status, other significant predictors, and any observed confounders. Privately insured were most prevalent (41.94 percent), followed by uninsured (23.66 percent), Medicare (19.35 percent), and Medicaid (15.05 percent). Those with poor glycemic control (65.59 percent) were more prevalent than well-controlled (34.41 percent). CAL events ranged from 0 to 58.8 percent tooth sites/ person (11.83 +/- 12.44 percent), while PPD events ranged from 0 to 44.2 percent (8.66 +/- 10.97 percent) and BOP events ranged from 0 to 95.8 percent (23.65 +/- 17.21 percent). Rates of CAL events were increased among those who were uninsured [rate ratio (RR) = 1.75, P = 0.02], Medicare-insured (RR = 1.90, P = 0.03), and Medicaid-insured (RR = 1.89, P = 0.06).",
"yes. We propose that diabetic nephropathy is complicated by unpredictable and possibly random episodes of usually self-limited acute renal failure, and by subsequent renal inflammation, which appear to accelerate progression and eventual kidney loss.",
"yes. Our findings support the hypothesis that asymptomatic CMV infection is associated with increased risk of new-onset post-transplant diabetes mellitus, and suggest that impaired insulin release may involve one pathogenetic mechanism.",
"People with diabetes have a high risk for periodontal disease, which can be considered one of the complications of diabetes. We evaluated periodontal treatment needs using the Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs (CPITN) in relation to diabetes-related factors and oral hygiene. The sample consisted of 120 dentate diabetics, all of whom were regular patients at the Salo Regional Hospital Diabetes Clinic. The nurses, who interviewed the patients, collected data on duration and type of diabetes, complications, and HbA1c level. Clinical periodontal examination included identification of visible plaque, the presence of calculus and use of the CPITN. The CPITN score 3 was the most prevalent. According to the logistic regression model, poor metabolic control was significantly related to pathologic pockets. No significant association was found between diabetes-related factors and the highest individual CPITN score of 4, which was, in turn, significantly associated with extensive calculus.",
"yes. Decreased levels of EndoCAb and LBP suggest sustained endotoxin activity in T1DM subjects even before the onset of microvascular complications.",
"yes. Diabetes mellitus type 2 is associated with mildly increased levels of myeloperoxidase, independent of other clinical variables. This association may contribute to the accelerated progression of atherosclerosis in diabetics.",
"yes. Glucose intolerance was associated with hs-CRP and cIMa in patients with coronary heart disease without known diabetes mellitus. Thus, inflammation, atherosclerosis and impaired glucose tolerance are tightly interrelated disorders even in subjects without known diabetes mellitus.",
"no. A preserved pancreatic alpha-cell function in diabetics with advanced chronic pancreatitis of the tropics supports the concept of two different pathogenic mechanisms, one eliciting chronic pancreatitis and the other selective pancreatic beta-cell impairment and subsequent diabetes mellitus.",
"yes. GI symptoms in diabetes mellitus may be linked to diabetic complications, particularly peripheral neuropathy, and to poor glycemic control.",
"yes. Platelets from patients with diabetes mellitus have an impaired ability to mediate vasodilation. This impairment appears to be mediated by high glucose concentration. Further work is needed to elucidate the mechanisms for this abnormality in diabetic platelets.",
"no. ABR-latencies were not affected by improvement in metabolic control in patients with IDDM. Our finding suggests that delayed ABR-latencies found in patients with IDDM are not caused by poor metabolic control of diabetes but rather by other mechanisms, for example, microvascular complications.",
"Some factors(s)/features(s) of maternal insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus are considered common human teratogens. Although the variable association of cardiac, renal, and skeletal anomalies are commonly observed in infants from diabetic mothers, the relationship between VACTERL (i.e., the association of vertebral and cardiac defects, tracheo-esophageal fistula, renal/radial malformations, and other limb anomalies) and maternal diabetes has not been sufficiently emphasized in the literature. We report on a 3-year-old boy presenting with a constellation of blastogenetic malformations strongly suggestive of VACTERL association. His mother was affected by insulin-dependent diabetes since she was 7 years old and pregnancy history disclosed very high glucose and HbA1c levels, especially during the first 2 gestational months.",
"yes. These findings indicate that fasting-induced glucose deficit causes gastric mucosal lesions and increases the susceptibility of gastric mucosa to noxious agents owing to the loss of mucus glycoprotein in db/db mice. Prolonged diabetes is likely to augment the severity of fasting-induced impairment of the gastric mucosal function.",
"yes. High serum LPS activity is associated with the development of diabetic nephropathy in Finnish patients with type 1 diabetes.",
"In contrast to hematuria, acanthocyturia is uncommon in patients with the clinical diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy. In diabetic patients with proteinuria, the finding of acanthocyturia points to nondiabetic glomerulopathies, and renal biopsy should be considered.",
"yes. It has been proposed that the generation of oxygen-derived free radicals in diabetes may be linked causally to a loss of glomerular contractile reactivity and thus hyperfiltration in the early stages of diabetes mellitus. This study provides a mechanism for alteration of mesangial cell contractile responsiveness through phosphorylation of Hsp25 and may be a mechanism underlying abnormalities in glomerular hemodynamics in diabetes and in the presence of free radical stress.",
"Several intervention studies have convincingly demonstrated the importance of good glycemic control to avoid long-term diabetic complications, but the importance of other risk factors remains controversial. We previously reported a markedly reduced incidence of severe retinopathy and nephropathy during the past decades in an unselected population of type 1 diabetes mellitus diagnosed in childhood. The aim of the present study was to analyze possible risk factors, which could explain the improved prognosis. In this longitudinal population-based cohort study, we followed all 269 patients in whom type 1 diabetes mellitus was diagnosed in childhood 1961-1985 in a well-defined geographical area in Sweden. The patients were followed until the end of 1990 s. Multivariable regression models were used to analyze the importance of hemoglobin A1c (HbA(1c)), diabetes duration, blood pressure, cardiovascular risk factors and persisting C-peptide secretion for the development of diabetic retinopathy and nephropathy. Beside longer duration and higher HbA(1c), blood pressure and lipid values were higher and cardiovascular disease and smoking were more common in patients with severe complications. However, multivariable analysis abolished these associations. Diabetes duration and long-term HbA(1c) were the only significant independent risk factors for both retinopathy and nephropathy. The risk of overt nephropathy increased substantially when HbA(1c) was above 9.6% [Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) corrected value], while the risk of severe retinopathy increased already when HbA(1c) exceeded 8.6%.",
"yes. Our study demonstrates that PV is closely correlated with diabetes and diabetes has a direct effect on the occurrence and development of BPH.",
"To determine the concurrent, prospective, and time-concordant relationships among major depressive disorder (MDD), depressive symptoms, and diabetes distress with glycemic control. In a noninterventional study, we assessed 506 type 2 diabetic patients for MDD (Composite International Diagnostic Interview), for depressive symptoms (Center for Epidemiological Studies-Depression), and for diabetes distress (Diabetes Distress Scale), along with self-management, stress, demographics, and diabetes status, at baseline and 9 and 18 months later. Using multilevel modeling (MLM), we explored the cross-sectional relationships of the three affective variables with A1C, the prospective relationships of baseline variables with change in A1C over time, and the time-concordant relationships with A1C. All three affective variables were moderately intercorrelated, although the relationship between depressive symptoms and diabetes distress was greater than the relationship of either with MDD. In the cross-sectional MLM, only diabetes distress but not MDD or depressive symptoms was significantly associated with A1C. None of the three affective variables were linked with A1C in prospective analyses. Only diabetes distress displayed significant time-concordant relationships with A1C.",
"yes. Type 2 diabetic patients with poor glycemic control can be at higher risk for developing CMV infection in their coronary arterial wall, which can promote atherosclerosis formation process in this patient population. According to the findings of this study, we recommend better control of serum glucose levels in type 2 diabetic patients to prevent formation/progression of atherosclerosis.",
"Diabetes type 1 is associated not only with increased occurrence of abnormal SAECG but also with LP presence. The disease duration, posterior wall thickness, and CAN are independent predictors of LP appearance in diabetes type 1 children. The presence of cardiovascular complication has no influence on LP occurrence in diabetic children.",
"Cross-sectional analyses of North American population-based cohorts and one nonsignificant longitudinal analysis have suggested that obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a risk factor for diabetes mellitus. However, this observation has yet to be replicated outside the USA or be observed lonigitudinally. Residents of the Western Australian town of Busselton had their OSA quantified by the respiratory disturbance index (RDI) overnight in their own homes (MESAM IV device). Diabetes was defined as either a fasting blood glucose>or = 7 mmol/L or physician diagnosed diabetes. Of 399 participants at baseline, 295 had complete data and did not have diabetes at baseline; 9 incident cases were observed within 4 years. At baseline moderate-severe OSA was associated with a univariate, but not multivariate, increased risk of diabetes (odds ratio = 4.37, 95% CL = 1.12, 17.12). Longitudinally, moderate-severe OSA was a significant univariate and independent risk factor for incident diabetes (fully adjusted OR = 13.45, 95% CL = 1.59, 114.11).",
"yes. Increased platelet reactivity occurred in nearly half of the studied patients subjected to CAS and was independently associated with diabetes mellitus and carotid artery plaques exhibiting HIS on TOF-MRA.",
"yes. These are the first data investigating myometrium in diabetic patients and they support the hypothesis that there is poorer contractility even in the presence of oxytocin. The underlying mechanism is related to reduced Ca channel expression and intracellular calcium signals and a decrease in muscle mass. We conclude that these factors significantly contribute to the increased emergency CS rate in diabetic patients.",
"yes. Brazilian type 2 diabetic patients have a six-fold excess infection-related mortality than the general population. This increased mortality is mainly determined by the presence of micro and macrovascular complications. Multifactorial risk interventions are needed in order to decrease this burden of infection-related mortality.",
"yes. Serial IVUS analysis showed that the main reason for increased restenosis in diabetes mellitus was exaggerated intimal hyperplasia in both stented and nonstented lesions.",
"no. The similarities in findings of newly diagnosed diabetic patients with or without DKA regarding ICA, GADA, IA-2A and IAA suggest that there is no relationship between the expression of antigenicity and the severity of beta-cell dysfunction. The lower prevalence of the four autoantibodies in 15-34-year-old diabetic subjects compared with previous findings in children is not explained by misclassification of diabetes type.",
"yes. The metabolic alterations of type 2 diabetes are associated with protection against IR injury at onset but detrimental effects in late diabetes mellitus consistent with progressive dysfunction of glucose oxidation. These findings may explain the variable efficacy of cardioprotective interventions in individuals with type 2 diabetes.",
"Lower-extremity vascular diseases are important complication of diabetes. In the present study, we investigated the influence of blood glucose fluctuation in type 2 diabetes-associated lower-extremity vascular diseases, and explore the possible mechanism. Patients with type 2 diabetes was assigned to Group B (without lower-extremity vascular disease) and group C (with lower-extremity vascular disease). Healthy subjects (Group A) served as normal controls. All patients received dynamic blood glucose monitoring for 72 h. The mean amplitude of glycemic excursion (MAGE) and the largest amplitude of glycemic excursion (LAGE) were estimated. The levels of von Willebrand factor (vWF), ischemia-modified albumin (IMA), glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c), and biochemical indices were examined, and the lower-extremity vascular diseases were scored in patients from group C. Groups B and C have higher systolic blood pressure (SBP), total cholesterol (TC) level, high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) level, HbA1c level, and vWF level and lower IMA level than those in Group A (p < 0.05). Elevated MAGE and LAGE were observed in groups B and C as compared with Group A. Correlation analysis revealed that the score of lower-extremity vascular diseases was associated with MAGE, LAGE, SBP, LDL-C, vWF, HbA1c, and IMA (p < 0.05). Stepwise multiple-linear regression analysis revealed that lower-extremity vascular diseases were involved with MAGE, IMA, and vWF.",
"Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a very well-known risk factor for development of atherosclerosis, and it has been hypothesized that poor glycemic control and hyperglycemia plays a major role in this process. In the current study, we aimed to evaluate the associates of poor glycemic control in Iranian patients who have already undergone coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), with especial focus on the inhabitation of infectious agents within the coronary arterial wall. In January 2010, 52 consecutive patients with type 2 DM who undergone CABG at the Department of Cardiovascular Surgery of Baqiyatallah University of Medical Sciences (Tehran, Iran) were included into this cross-sectional study and biopsy specimens from their coronary plaques were taken and analyzed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) methods for detecting Helicobacter species, cytomegalovirus (CMV) and Chlamydia pneumoniae, and their potential relation to the glycemic control status in these patients. Compared to that in diabetic patients with mean fasting blood sugar (FBS) levels FBS < 126, atherosclerotic lesions in type 2 diabetic patients with poor glycemic control (FBS > 126) were significantly more likely to be positive for CMV PCR test (41% vs. 9%, respectively; P = 0.05). In laboratorial test results, mean triglyceride level was significantly higher among patients of poor glycemic control (168 ± 89 vs. 222 ± 125 mg/dl, respectively; P = 0.033). Hypertension was also significantly more prevalent in this population (73% vs. 36%, respectively; P = 0.034).",
"yes. In terms of diabetic complications, the lowest EI@3Pa group was closely associated with only the risk of diabetic retinopathy in our study. These results suggest that RBC deformability might be contributory to the development of the microvascular complication.",
"yes. The increased incidence of VCAM-1 and ICAM-1 in the aorta may partly explain the enhanced atherosclerosis associated with diabetes mellitus, and their presence in established lesions may emphasize their long-term importance. The intimal hyperplasia observed in the bypass vessel may be a contributing factor to the increased incidence of restenosis in diabetic patients.",
"Clinical and experimental research has revealed that diabetes mellitus (DM) is characterized by intestinal hypomotility, gut microbial dysbiosis, increased gut permeability, microcirculation disorders, circulatory changes, and dysfunction of intestinal stem cells, which may be linked to inflammation of intestinal mucosa. However, the relationship between type 2 DM (T2DM) and macroscopic small intestinal mucosal injuries is still unclear. Therefore, we retrospectively studied capsule endoscopy data to determine the relationship between T2DM and small intestinal mucosal injuries. We compared the records of 38 T2DM patients with those of 152 non-DM patients for small intestinal mucosal injuries. Different types of mucosal injuries and Lewis scores were compared between T2DM and non-DM patients. The relationships between patients with or without different types of diabetic complications and the Lewis score was assessed. Moreover, the relationships between insulin resistance and Lewis score, between HbA1c and Lewis score, were also both assessed. The prevalence of a villous edema in subjects with T2DM was significantly higher than in those without DM (P < 0.001), but incidence of ulcers was not different (P = 1.000). With T2DM, the Lewis score was also significantly higher (P = 0.002). In addition, subjects with diabetic nephropathy showed significantly higher Lewis scores than patients without diabetic nephropathy (P = 0.033). In Pearson's correlation tests, the homeostasis model assessment of insulin resistance (HOMA-IR) value was correlated positively with the Lewis score (γ = 0.175, P = 0.015), but no statistical correlation was found between HbA1c level and Lewis score (γ = 0.039, P = 0.697).",
"To report the prevalence of ear lobe crease (ELC), a sign of coronary heart disease, in subjects (more than 40 years old) with diabetes and find its association with diabetic retinopathy. Subjects were recruited from the Sankara Nethralaya Diabetic Retinopathy Epidemiology And Molecular-genetics Study (SN-DREAMS), a cross-sectional study between 2003 and 2006; the data were analyzed for the 1414 eligible subjects with diabetes. All patients' fundi were photographed using 45 degrees four-field stereoscopic digital photography. The diagnosis of diabetic retinopathy was based on the modified Klein classification. The presence of ELC was evaluated on physical examination. The prevalence of ELC, among the subjects with diabetes, was 59.7%. The ELC group were older, had longer duration of diabetes, had poor glycemic control and had a high socio-economic status compared to the group without ELC and the variables were statistically significant. There was no statistical difference in the prevalence of diabetic retinopathy in two groups. On multivariate analysis for any diabetic retinopathy, the adjusted OR for women was 0.69 (95% CI 0.51-0.93) (p = 0.014); for age>70 years, 0.49 (95% CI 0.26-0.89) (p = 0.024); for increasing duration of diabetes (per year increase), 1.11(95% CI 1.09-1.14) (p<0.0001); and for poor glycemic control (per unit increase in glycosylated haemoglobin), 1.26 (95% CI 1.19-1.35) (p<0.0001). For sight-threatening diabetic retinopathy, no variable was significant on multivariable analysis. In predicting any diabetic retinopathy, the presence of ELC had sensitivity of 60.4%, and specificity, 40.5%. The area under the ROC curve was 0.50 (95% CI 0.46-0.54) (p 0.02).",
"yes. These data suggest that hyperglycemia is a causal factor in procoagulant activity associated with diabetic nephropathy.",
"yes. Diabetes distress measured by PAID survey was associated with poor glycemic control, and this association was modified by diabetes therapy.",
"yes. Our study unrevealed a new mechanism by which PKC-β activation promotes EC dysfunction caused by the de-regulation of the IL-18/IL-18BP pathway, leading to increased VCAM-1 expression, monocyte/macrophage adhesion, and accelerated atherosclerotic plaque formation in diabetes.",
"Our aim was to assess whether severe hypoglycemic attacks were cross-sectionally associated with abnormalities of the QTc interval in type 1 diabetic patients. The study included 3,248 type 1 diabetic patients from the EURODIAB IDDM Complications Study. Severe hypoglycemia was defined as an attack serious enough to require the help of another person. A corrected QTc interval (QTc) >0.44 s was considered abnormally prolonged. Nineteen percent of patients declared one to two attacks, and 13.2% of patients had three or more attacks. Prevalence of QTc prolongation was greater in patients who experienced three or more hypoglycemic attacks. Logistic regression analysis showed that the frequency of severe hypoglycemia was independently associated with QTc prolongation, even after adjustment for diabetes complications, including autonomic neuropathy (odds ratio 1.27, 95% CI 1.02-1.58).",
"yes. Poorly controlled maternal type 1 diabetes and fetal macrosomia were associated with lipoprotein abnormalities. Macrosomic lipoprotein profiles related to poor metabolic control of type 1 diabetes appear to have implications for later metabolic diseases.",
"The occurrence of hypoglycaemia is assumed to be associated with increased diabetes-related distress. We investigated the association of mild hypoglycaemia (MH) with diabetes-related distress in a large outpatient cohort with diabetes type 1 (DM1) and type 2 (DM2). In a cross-sectional study, we recorded MH and simultaneously assessed diabetes-related distress with the PAID questionnaire in 783 people with diabetes [female 43.8 %, age 63.7 years, duration of diabetes 17.3 years, HbA1c 7.0 % (53 mmol/mol)] in an university outpatient department for metabolic diseases over a period of three months. Participants with and without MH were compared. People with DM1 (n = 191) had 1.09 MH per week. Diabetes-related distress was not different comparing people with DM1 with (n = 125) and without (n = 66) MH (PAID score 18.4 ± 16.2 vs. 16.6 ± 15.0, p = 0.449). The frequency of MH per week in people with DM2 on oral antidiabetic therapy (n = 182) and with insulin therapy (n = 410) is low (0.03 vs. 0.1 episodes). People with DM2 on insulin therapy with (n = 72) and without (n = 338) MH have a comparable PAID score (17.9 ± 13.3 vs. 16.8 ± 14.9, p = 0.552). 14.4 % of those with DM1 as well as 12.5 % of those with DM2 on insulin feel hypoglycaemic events to be a \"somewhat serious problem\" or \"serious problem\".",
"To screen for microvascular complications in adolescents with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Seven adolescents with T2DM were assessed for early secondary complications. Median duration of diabetes was 1.8 (0.8-3.0) yr. All were assessed as follows: blood pressure, ophthalmologic examination for diabetic retinopathy, renal function, full blood count and vitamin B12 levels (to exclude B12 malabsorption - a side effect of metformin), random urine for microalbuminuria, an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip and podiatry performed by an experienced podiatrist. Testing for peripheral neuropathy included foot pulse palpation, tendo-Achilles reflexes, plantar callus test, large nerve fibre function (vibration and threshold for light touch/pressure) assessed by a 128-Hz tuning fork, and by the standard 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test, and small nerve fibre function (pain) assessed by pinprick neurotip. Four adolescents had evidence of peripheral neuropathy on clinical examination, with abnormal large and small nerve fibre function. Six had plantar callus present, and four had weak but palpable posterior tibial pulses. All had normal tendo-Achilles reflex and normal response to vibration. None had diabetic retinopathy or hypertension. Renal function, full blood count (FBC), B12 levels and ECGs were normal. None of 120 adolescents with type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) assessed by the same podiatrist had any signs of peripheral neuropathy.",
"Our case illustrates several important issues in the management of diabetic patients admitted to hospital with infection; the need to thoroughly examine the feet to ascertain any foot lesions and any underlying peripheral vascular disease or peripheral neuropathy, to treat aggressively any infected foot lesions to prevent serious complications of septicaemia and to consider rare conditions like endogenous endophthalmitis in any diabetic patient presenting with acute visual impairment and septicaemia.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that chronic hyperglycemia is associated with functional and structural changes in the peritoneum that parallel with selective regulation of NOS isoforms and AGE deposits. The alterations are prevented by insulin treatment, which suggests that adequate control of diabetes can preserve PM integrity in diabetic patients prior to PD.",
"yes. Increased filtration surface per glomerulus could be associated with glomerular filtration rate preservation in diabetes. Thus, juxtaglomerular apparatus immunologic injury in Type 1 diabetes patients could delay the clinical consequences of diabetic nephropathy.",
"yes. These data support the hypothesis that impaired regulation of matrix remodeling by actions of MMP-2, -3 and-10 and TIMP-1 contributes to the pathogenesis of vascular complications in type 1 diabetes.",
"yes. Uncontrolled hyperglycemia in the early phase of diabetes was associated with elevated plasma MDA, HTN and proteinuria. Insulin therapy alone resulted in significant but incomplete reduction of plasma MDA and BP. Antioxidant therapy which was ineffective when given alone, normalized plasma MDA, BP and reduced urinary protein excretion when combined with insulin treatment.",
"yes. The presence of diabetes mellitus seems to affect the already compromised RBC deformability of septic patients, probably leading to serious microcirculatory functional impairments in septic diabetic patients.",
"To examine the influence of age and comorbidity on intensification of medical therapy for patients with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (DM). Observational cohort study using data from Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) national databases. Thirteen VA medical centers in New England, Florida, and Puerto Rico. Veterans (N=5,317) with poorly controlled DM receiving regular medical care An increase in hypoglycemic medications, or intensification of therapy, was considered present at the visit if a new hypoglycemic medication was started or the dosage of an existing medication was increased. The overall rate of intensification of therapy was 20.8% (1,106/5,317). The rate of intensification was highest in the youngest patients without comorbidity (24.5%) and lowest in the oldest patients with comorbidity (15.7%) (P<.001).",
"Posttransplant diabetes mellitus is associated with impaired long-term renal allograft survival and function, complications similar to those in non-transplant-associated diabetes may occur in posttransplant diabetes, and, hence, as in non-transplant-associated diabetes, tight glycemic control may also be warranted in patients with posttransplant diabetes.",
"yes. These data identify carbonylation as a novel mechanism that contributes to SERCA2a activity loss and diastolic dysfunction during type 1 diabetes.",
"yes. Reduced eGFR associated with IMT thickening independently of albuminuria is found in the patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and further studies investigating the clinical outcomes are needed because this study is based on a cross-sectional design.",
"yes. Patients with Type 2 diabetic nephropathy have worsened islet alpha and beta cell function. Therefore medications based on the regulation of glucagon secretion may improve glycemic control and also be beneficial for delaying the progress of diabetic nephropathy.",
"To investigate whether a history of prior cardiovascular disease (CVD) is associated with severe hypoglycemia (SH) in patients with type 2 diabetes. We conducted a prospective cohort study from January 2001 to December 2012 with a median follow-up time of 9.5 years (5,814 person-years). Patients aged 25 to 75 years with type 2 diabetes and without chronic kidney disease were enrolled (n=894), and 624 patients completed follow-up. SH was defined as hypoglycemic episodes requiring hospitalization or medical care in an emergency department. We used the Cox proportional hazards regression analysis to test associations between SH episodes and potential explanatory variables. Among the 624 participants who completed follow-up, 60 patients (9.6%) had previous CVD. Compared to patients without CVD, patients with previous CVD were older, had a longer duration of diabetes and hypertension, received more insulin, and had more diabetic microvascular complications at baseline. During follow-up, 62 patients (9.9%) experienced at least one SH episode (incidence of 1.33 per 100 patient-years). The development of SH was associated with a history of CVD (hazard ratio, 1.99; 95% confidence interval, 1.07 to 3.72; P=0.031) after adjusting for sex, age, diabetic duration, hypertension, hemoglobin A1c levels, diabetic complications, cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy, and insulin use.",
"This is a population-based study for which 1,414 diabetics were recruited. The fundi were photographed using 45-degree 4-field stereoscopic digital photography. The diagnosis of DR was based on Klein's classification of the Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study scales. The prevalence of DR was 33.3% (95% confidence interval, CI: 26.6-39.9) in known onset of diabetes (≤ 40 years) compared to 15.6% (95% CI: 13.6-17.6) in those with late onset (>40 years; p<0.0001). In the group with age of known onset of diabetes ≤ 40 years, the risk factors, associated with any DR, were poor glycemic control (odds ratio, OR: 1.36 for every g% increase in glycosylated hemoglobin), insulin use (OR: 4.21), increasing known duration of diabetes (OR: 1.10 for increase of every year in known duration of diabetes) and presence of macroalbuminuria (OR: 13.39). In the late onset of diabetes group, besides the above-mentioned risk factors, the presence of microalbuminuria (OR: 2.08), male gender (OR: 1.67), presence of anemia (OR: 1.89) and increased systolic blood pressure (OR: 1.01) were the risk factors for DR.",
"This study identifies uncontrolled diabetes mellitus as an important indicator of clinical features and outcomes in treating multispace infections of the oral-maxillofacial region.",
"yes. Insulin-dependent diabetic patients have an impaired vasodilatory response to hypercapnia compared with that of the control group, and the present findings suggest that their degree of impairment is related to the severity of diabetes mellitus.",
"Nowadays, intensive insulin treatment has been widely used in type 2 diabetics who have poor control of blood glucose, to reduce the risk of chronic complications of diabetes. Recently, some scholars have paid more attention to the pivotal role of inflammation involved in type 2 diabetes and its complications. Monocyte chemoattractant protein-1 (MCP-1) and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), which are two important inflammatory chemokines, have been documented to participate in the onset and development of type 2 diabetes and its complications, such as diabetic nephropathy (DN). In the current study, we recruited 30 type 2 diabetics with microalbuminuria to be treated with multiple insulin injections daily for 2 weeks. Random spot urine samples (corrected for creatinine-Cr) were collected for the examination of urinary MCP-1, ICAM-1 and albumin (Alb) levels before and after the intensive insulin therapy. Changes in their levels were observed to test the hypothesis that type 2 diabetes with microalbuminuria is associated with elevated urinary concentrations of MCP-1 and ICAM-1, and intensive insulin therapy can result in a decline of Alb by reducing the inflammatory reaction. The urinary MCP-1/Cr and urinary ICAM-1/Cr ratios in type 2 diabetic patients with microalbuminuria were much higher than those in normal controls, and intensive insulin treatment could decrease significantly the urinary MCP-1/Cr, ICAM-1/Cr and Alb/Cr ratios in type 2 diabetics with microalbuminuria.",
"Patients treated for proliferative diabetic retinopathy traction RD and for primary rhegmatogenous RD were at high risk for prolonged IOP elevation. These groups also required medical retreatment most often and should therefore be closely monitored. Care must be taken not to overlook delayed IOP elevations.",
"Thus, the repercussions of the diabetes over the respiratory function exist, but remain often infraclinic because of the broad ventilatory reserve available to the human being. In addition, the absence of variation of DLCO/VA according to the position could constitute an invaluable index precociously to detect the lesions of the pulmonary capillary bed among patients presenting a nephropathy diabetic.",
"yes. EGG abnormalities, presented early in a high proportion of diabetic children, are related to the acute hyperglycaemia. These abnormalities are not consistently present in the follow-up studies and not related to the glycosylated haemoglobin and fructosamine. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is therefore an unlikely pathogenic factor for EGG abnormalities in children with diabetes.",
"no. The results of this study do not support previous findings that the risk of diabetic nephropathy is associated with synergism between poor glycaemic control and carriage of the C1166 allele or inheritance of the C1166/major microsatellite haplotype.",
"Coeliac disease (CD) is more common in people with Type 1 diabetes and is associated with poorer glycaemic control, lipid profiles, nephropathy and retinopathy. Potential CD (positive serology but normal duodenal biopsy) is associated with neuropathy but patients with coexisting Type 1 diabetes were excluded. The aim was to determine whether potential CD is associated with increased microvascular complications in patients with Type 1 diabetes. Four groups were recruited; 1) patients with Type 1 diabetes and potential CD, 2) patients with Type 1 diabetes and newly identified CD, 3) patients with Type 1 diabetes alone and 4) patients with CD alone. Glycaemic control, quality of life, lipid profile and microvascular complication rates were examined. As many as 76 individuals were included in the study: 22 in group 1, 14 in group 2, 24 in group 3 and 16 in group 4. There were no differences in age, gender, BMI and diabetes duration between the groups. Patients in group 1 had significantly lower total cholesterol compared to group 3 (p = 0.003) but higher than group 2 (p = 0.027). There were no significant differences in HbA1c, HDL cholesterol, cholesterol:HDL ratio, creatinine, quality of life scores or prevalence of neuropathy between individuals in group 1 and the other groups.",
"yes. These findings suggest that untreated type 2 diabetes and type 2 diabetes with complications are associated with subcortical infarctions.",
"Malnutrition-related diabetes mellitus is a distinct clinical entity subdivided into protein-deficient diabetes mellitus (PDDM) and fibrocalculus pancreatic diabetes (FCPD). Whereas FCPD has obvious pancreatitis manifested by pancreatic duct calculi, the evidence for involvement of the pancreas in PDDM is limited to the presence of ketosis-resistant hyperglycaemia. We studied 10 patients with PDDM biochemically and radiologically. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was performed to determine if they had any evidence of chronic pancreatitis. Their mean faecal chymotrypsin level was low (13.2+/-5.72 microg/g), as was their basal c-peptide value (0.35+/-0.15 mmol/L). Islet cell antibodies were not detected in any of these patients. Ultrasound examination revealed pancreatic atrophy. In two patients, however, the pancreas was bulky. The ERCP showed generalized thinning of the pancreatic duct, measuring 2.4+/-0.06mm in the head, 2.01+/-0.08 mm in the body and 1.02 +/- 0.03 mm in tail region; side branches were seen but they were too sparse and thin.",
"Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus need longer to recover continence than nondiabetics after laparoscopic radical prostatectomy. However, type II diabetes mellitus did not affect overall return to continence. Patients with diabetes mellitus for 5 or more years have an almost 5 times increased risk of post-prostatectomy incontinence compared to those with diabetes mellitus for less than 5 years. Diabetic patients should be counseled for the potential negative impact of diabetes mellitus on the recovery of continence after laparoscopic radical prostatectomy.",
"The role of pathogenic mycobacteria in diabetes has been a focus of speculation since a decade without any meaningful insights into the mechanism of diabetes causation vis a vis mycobacterial factors. Two of our studies based on PCR identification of mycobacterial DNA and detection of antibodies specific to the recombinant antigens and whole cell lysates of the Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis (MAP) shown a clear association of MAP with the presence of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). In this study, we sought to investigate if or not type 2 diabetes (T2DM) patients harbour humoral responses to MAP. Using three different MAP antigen preparations, humoral antibody profiles were estimated for 57 T2DM patients and 57 healthy controls. Statistical analysis was performed with the Chi-square test with Yates' corrections. We observed insignificant levels of humoral antibodies against recombinant heparin binding haemagglutinin (HbHA), glycosyl transferase (Gsd) and MAP whole cell lysate in the blood of subjects with T2DM as compared to healthy controls.",
"According to our data on 4 071 patients with type 2 diabetes, 65.5% of the men and 70.4% of the women complain of lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS). That is twice as much as the normal population for the same age group. The most common symptom was overactive bladder (OAB). In patients with a diabetes-related complication such as retinopathy or nephropathy, the incidence for LUTS was about 20% higher than that in patients without complications, whereas in men with diabetes mellitus type 2 and erectile dysfunction (ED) the incidence for LUTS was 31.9% higher than without ED. We wanted to compare the incidence of LUTS in patients with type 2 diabetes and ED against patients without ED as well as women with type 2 diabetes. Men with ED had a statistically significant longer history of diabetes, a higher HbA1c and increased serum creatinine compared to men without ED (p value <0.0001). The length of diabetes history was not statistically relevant compared to women with type 2 diabetes. However the HbA1c and serum creatinine were higher than those of the women from the data bank (p value <0.0001). Diabetic men with ED complained more often of urinary incontinence, urge incontinence and made more often use of incontinence pads (p value <0.0001). As for pollakisuria and nocturia the difference was not significant. 42.3% of type 2 diabetic patients with ED were diagnosed with OAB by their urologist or GP. That was significantly more than type 2 diabetic patients without ED and type 2 diabetic women (see graph). The same was true of stress incontinence, overflow incontinence and non-classified incontinence with the exception of faecal incontinence. Patients with type 2 diabetes and ED had to take drugs more often than type 2 diabetic men without ED and women with diabetes.",
"yes. Insensate palatal burn as a rare complication of diabetes mellitus is reported here. With the disease being more widespread now, its potential oral complications will be seen with increasing frequency.",
"yes. Patient delay appears to be a serious problem in this rural area with a high prevalence of tuberculosis. Hyperglycemia is independently associated with an increased probability of patient delay, which, in turn, may result in more serious clinical manifestations.",
"yes. The core problem during diabetes is poor glycemic control, which leads to protein glycation, lipid peroxidation, oxidative stress and finally varieties of complications. Periodic evaluation of lipid peroxidation products in diabetes mellitus is recommended as it could contribute to the early identification and management of oxidative stress.",
"The prevalence of myopia in diabetic patients is considerably higher than in the background Danish population. Poor metabolic control of glucose is a suggested risk factor of myopia. The study suggests that myopia may be regarded as a complication of hyperglycaemia in diabetes.",
"yes. Anterior pituitary cell turnover is affected in poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. A decrease in the number of lactotrophs, as a result of increased cell death, could underlie, at least in part, the reduction in prolactin secretion observed in diabetic animals.",
"yes. Long-term diabetes can result in increased mitochondrial mass and may lead to hyperpolarization of blood platelet mitochondrial membrane. These alterations may be a potential underlying cause of abnormal platelet functioning in diabetes mellitus and hence, a potential target for antiplatelet therapies in diabetes.",
"Diabetic striatopathy (DS) is a rare complication of diabetes mellitus (DM). The syndrome appears in patients with uncontrolled DM and is characterized by abrupt onset of movement disorder, mainly hemichorea and accompanied by specific findings on brain imaging. It is believed that DS is unique to the Asian population and affects mainly elderly women with uncontrolled DM. In order to define existence and characterization of DS in Western population, we reviewed the medical records of all patients admitted to the Chaim Sheba Medical Center between 2004 and 2014 and identified those with documented elevated HbA1c (>10%). The charts and imaging studies of those with elevated HbA1c and undiagnosed neurological symptoms were reviewed to diagnose DS. Out of 697 patients with HbA1c>10%, 328 patients had unknown neurological diagnosis. Among them, we identified 4 patients (3 women, mean age 73 and mean HbA1c of 14.8%) with hemichorea or choreoathetosis and brain imaging findings compatible with the diagnosis of DS. Only one out of the 4 patients was diagnosed during hospitalization with DS. All patients were treated with insulin with improvement of their symptoms during hospitalization. However, there was a recurrence in 2 of them and 1 died during the second episode.",
"Diabetes mellitus (DM) is a pandemic metabolic disease characterized by a chronically elevated blood glucose concentration (hyperglycemia) due to insulin dysfunction. Approximately 50% of diabetics show diabetes complications by the time they are diagnosed. Vascular dysfunction, nephropathy and neuropathic pain are common diabetes complications. Chronic hyperglycemia contributes to reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation such as methylglyoxal (MGO). Peer reviewed research papers were studied through bibliographic databases searching focused on review questions and inclusion/exclusion criteria. The reviewed papers were appraised according to the searching focus. The characteristics of screened papers were described, and a deductive qualitative content analysis methodology was applied to the included studies using a conceptual framework to yield this comprehensive systematic review. Sixty-six papers were included in this review. Eleven papers related methylglyoxal generation to carbohydrates metabolism, ten papers related lipid metabolism to methylglyoxal and 5 papers showed the proteolytic pathways that contribute to methylglyoxal generation. Methylglyoxal metabolism was derived from 7 papers. Descriptive figure 1 was drawn to explain methylglyoxal sources and how diabetes increases methylglyoxal generation. Furthermore, twenty-six papers related methylglyoxal to diabetes complications from which 9 papers showed methylglyoxal ability to induce insulin dysfunction, an effect which was described in schematic figure 2. Additionally, fifteen papers revealed methylglyoxal contribution to vascular dysfunction and 3 papers showed methylglyoxal to cause neuropathic pain. Methylglyoxal-induced vascular dysfunction was drawn in a comprehensive figure 3. This review correlated methylglyoxal with diabetes and diabetes complications which were summarised in table 1.",
"yes. This study demonstrated diabetes mellitus to be independently associated with perineal wound complications, and when the patients have diabetes mellitus, especially with a longer comorbid duration and longer operation time, the clinical path should be changed to reduce perineal wound complications.",
"yes. A glycemic gap≥72 mg/dL, rather than admission hyperglycemia or chronic glycemic control, was significantly correlated with adverse outcomes in diabetic PLA patients. Poorer chronic glycemic control in diabetic PLA patients is associated with high incidence of KP infection, hypoalbuminemia and longer hospital stay.",
"yes. Patients with long-standing diabetes mellitus have increased incidence of fecal incontinence and severely impaired function of both the anal sphincters and the rectum. These findings could be attributed to the increased incidence of microangiopathy and autonomic and peripheral neuropathy observed in this subset of diabetic patients.",
"yes. Poorly controlled diabetes is related to increased senescence and shorter telomeres in placentas. Those findings may partially explain increased long-term, related morbidity.",
"yes. Health-related quality of life is adversely associated with symptomatic complications of diabetes mellitus, but not with short-term diabetic control. This suggests that the diabetic patient may not appreciate the impact of good diabetic control immediately on his or her health-related quality of life. More effort should be invested into patient education of the importance of glycaemic control to prevent these long-term complications.",
"A 47-year-old woman with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (HbA1C 9.2%, fasting blood glucose>200 mg/dl) had complained of moderately severe stabbing pain in the left abdomen. On admission there were no abnormal findings on abdominal palpation. Abdominal ultrasound and computed tomography (CT) revealed a partly solid partly cystic well-circumscribed space-occupying lesion, about 15 cm in diameter, in the left abdomen, extending from the lower third of the kidney into the pelvis. Biopsy of the lesion showed chronic granulating inflammation with foamy histiocytes (Hansemann macrophages) as characteristic substrate of extensive malakoplakia. Despite the size of the lesion it was not excised but long-term treatment with ciprofloxacin undertaken. At the same time, the diabetes was carefully controlled with ordinary insulin. Ten months later there was no longer any evidence of the lesion by ultrasound and CT.",
"Even extensive malakoplakia can be successfully treated with ciprofloxacin. Poorly controlled diabetes together with a weak immune status (CD4/CD8<or = 1) may have favoured the occurrence of malakoplakia."
] | 595 |
Iodine deficiency in ambulatory participants at a Sydney teaching hospital: is Australia truly iodine replete? | [
"To assess iodine status in four separate groups--pregnant women, postpartum women, patients with diabetes mellitus and volunteers. Prospective cross-sectional study at a tertiary referral hospital in Sydney. 81 pregnant women attending a \"high risk\" obstetric clinic; 26 of these same women who attended three months postpartum; 135 consecutive patients with diabetes mellitus attending the diabetes clinic for an annual complications screen; and 19 volunteers. There were no exclusion criteria. Spot urine samples were obtained, and urinary iodine was measured by inductively coupled plasma mass spectrometer. Iodine status based on urinary iodine concentration categorised as normal (>100 micrograms/L), mild deficiency (51-100 micrograms/L) and moderate to severe deficiency (<50 micrograms/L). Moderate to severe iodine deficiency was found in 16 pregnant women (19.8%), five postpartum women (19.2%), 46 patients with diabetes (34.1%) and five volunteers (26.3%). Mild iodine deficiency was found in an additional 24 pregnant women (29.6%), nine postpartum women (34.6%), 51 patients with diabetes (37.8%) and 9 normal volunteers (47.4%). Median urinary iodine concentration was 104 micrograms/L in pregnant women, 79 micrograms/L in postpartum women, 65 micrograms/L in patients with diabetes mellitus and 64 micrograms/L in volunteers.",
"The high frequency of iodine deficiency found in our participants suggests that dietary sources of iodine in this country may no longer be sufficient. Further population studies are required."
] | [
"The incidence of differentiated thyroid cancer (DTC) is low in Cuba and the contribution of dietary factors to DTC in this population has not been investigated so far. Our aim was to evaluate the relationship between dietary iodine intake and DTC with regard to the interaction with environmental factors or some common single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), based on a case-control study carried out in Cuba. We interviewed 203 cases and 212 controls from the general population face to face by using the dietary intake questionnaire and the photo booklet from the E3N cohort. A specific food composition table was elaborated for this study. For each parameter studied, the odds ratio (OR) was stratified on age group and sex, and further adjusted for dietary energy, smoking status, ethnic group, level of education, number of pregnancies and body surface area. The risk of DTC was significantly reduced with increasing consumption of fish (p-trend=0.04), but no association between total dietary iodine intake and DTC risk was evident (p-trend=0.7); this lack of significant association was true whatever the age, the smoking status, the dietary selenium intake and the ethnicity (all p-interactions > 0.05). DTC risk was positively and strongly associated with the number of copies in the minor allele (A) for SNP rs965513 near FOXE1 among people who consumed less iodine than the median (adjusted p-interaction=0.005).",
"In a prospective study 115 patients were followed, that were treated for a benign thyroid disease. The patients were discharged 48 hours after the intake of I-131 after falling short of the exposure limit. All patients were measured at discharge and about 8 days later with the same uptake facility. Because of similar results focal and disseminated forms of benign thyroid diseases could be analysed together. The calculated doses 8 days after the discharge were higher than the values at the time of discharge. The doses were underestimated about 4% with an standard error of 15%.",
"yes. The decrease in iPTH is more precise than the iPTH(H4) alone and can accurately predict hypocalcemia after total thyroidectomy. Patients with a decrease in iPTH less than 68.5% can be discharged at postoperative day one without any supplementation. Patients with iPTH decline more than 68.5% should be administered calcium and vitamin D supplementation before symptoms appear.",
"The developing brain is vulnerable to iodine deficiency (ID) and environmental neuro-toxicants. To assess neurocognitive development of children whose mothers have received (or not) iodine supplementation during pregnancy, in an area of borderline ID, while assessing in utero exposure to environmental neuro-toxicants. Among 86 children born from normal euthyroid women who participated in our prospective interventional study on iodine supplementation (150 μg/day) started early in pregnancy, 44 (19 with iodine supplementation, 25 controls) were assessed at two years using the Bayley test. Information on parents' education and habits (smoking), and on child development was recorded. Thyroid tests at each trimester of pregnancy and on cord blood (CB) were available, as well as milk concentrations of selected environmental compounds known for their neurotoxicity, including heavy metals and PCBs. There was no difference in Bayley tests for children born to mothers with and without iodine supplementation, but sample size was small. Language and Social-Emotional Scales were negatively correlated with TBG at all times tested, while PCB 118 correlated negatively with all Language scales. Among maternal and CB thyroid tests, only CB thyroglobulin, the best marker of iodine status, correlated (negatively) with neurodevelopment scales (Motor and Expressive Language).",
"yes. Our results show that routine preoperative malignancy risk evaluation of presumably benign thyroid nodules is of little value when performed on patients exposed to iodine deficiency.",
"The aim of the study was to determine the evolution of thyroid tests throughout pregnancy and postpartum in healthy women with and without iodine supplementation. This was a prospective, randomized, interventional study of iodine supplementation (150 μg/day) from the first trimester until 3 months postpartum versus controls. 111 pregnant women with normal initial thyroid tests were enrolled, undergoing comprehensive thyroid assessment at each trimester. We present results of longitudinal and cross-sectional analyses. Initial ioduria suggested mild iodine deficiency in both groups, while third-trimester ioduria rose to levels of iodine sufficiency in the iodine-supplemented group. In the longitudinal study, free T4 (FT4) levels decreased in the second and third trimesters compared to the first trimester in both groups, with no change in TSH, and rose postpartum, though lower than the first trimester. FT3 levels and the total T4 (TT4)/thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) ratio followed the same evolution as FT4. TT4 levels rose due to TBG increase. Thyroglobulin (Tg) of iodine group remained stable, contrasting with the rise in the control group. In the cross-sectional study, there was no difference between the two groups in thyroid tests at any time-point, except for lower Tg in the second trimester and postpartum visits in the iodine group.",
"To assess the severity of protein energy malnutrition (PEM) in iodine deficient subjects and to assess the impact of PEM on thyroid size. 1002 subjects (530 school-aged children and 472 adults) were assessed for PEM by direct anthropometric measurements of height, weight, triceps skinfold (TSF) thickness, mid upper arm circumference (MUAC) and thigh circumference (TC), and derived indices of body surface area (BSA), body mass index (BMI), and Z-scores for weight-for-age (WAZ), height-for-age (HAZ), and weight-for-height (WHZ). Severity of PEM was based on the World Health Organization (WHO) criteria and the threshold on the Waterlow classification. Thyroid size was measured by ultrasonography to determine the thyroid volume (TV). Linear regression analysis was performed between TV and anthropometric parameters. Children had severe PEM as evident from the WHO percentage prevalence of stunting (HAZ<-2SD)=64% (where<-2SD is the Z-score deficit), wasting (WHZ<-2SD)=43%, underweight (WAZ<-2SD)=82% and BMI<16 kg/m=90%. Waterlow classification showed that children were either stunted or wasted, or stunted and wasted, or stunted and obese. Nearly 100% (529/530) of the children had goiter as evidenced from enlarged TV-for-BSA when compared with the WHO reference. There was a weak but statistically significant (P<0.05) positive correlation between TV and BSA, weight, height, MUAC, TC and HAZ but a negative correlation between TV and WHZ, BMI and TSF (r=-0.1-0.2). Adults had PEM as evident from BMI<18.5 kg/m in 54% subjects. Median MUAC=22.7 cm reveals prolonged severe PEM. Eighty-two percent had enlarged TV (>20 ml). There was a significant (P=0.01) negative correlation between TV and MUAC.",
"In Asturias, where iodine deficiency was eradicated in school children by the year 2000, iodine deficiency persisted in pregnant women, who were recommended to use of iodine supplementation. The aim of this study was to determine the iodine nutrition of pregnant women in our area and whether or not iodine supplements are needed. Throughout May and June 2013 we studied the iodine nutrition and thyroid function during the first trimester of pregnancy in 173 women in the health area of Oviedo. The median urinary iodine was 197 μg/L. Iodinated supplements were used by 47% of women, which had a yoduria median higher than those not taking iodinated supplements (247 vs. 138 μg/L; p<.001), and also a higher TSH (2.30 vs 1.94 mU/L) although not significantly different. Yoduria was also higher in women who took more than 2 servings of dairy products (median: 230 μg/L) than those who took less (median: 191 μg/L). Within the group of women who were not taking iodine supplements, those regularly using iodized salt in the kitchen (47%) had a median urinary iodine concentration of 190μg/L indicating iodine sufficiency.",
"Universal salt iodization is an effective strategy to optimize population-level iodine. At the same time as salt-lowering initiatives are encouraged globally, there is concern about compromised iodine intakes. This study investigated whether salt intakes at recommended levels resulted in a suboptimal iodine status in a country where salt is the vehicle for iodine fortification. Three 24-h urine samples were collected for the assessment of urinary sodium and one sample was taken for urinary iodine concentrations (UICs) in a convenience sample of 262 adult men and women in Cape Town, South Africa. Median UIC was compared across categories of sodium excretion equivalent to salt intakes lower than 5, 5 to 9, and greater than or equal to 9 g/d. The median UIC was 120 μg/L (interquartile range 75.3-196.3), indicating iodine sufficiency. Less one-fourth (23.2%) of subjects had urinary sodium excretion values within the desirable range (salt <5 g/d), 50.7% had high values (5-9 g/d), and 22.8% had very high values (≥9 g/d). No association between urinary iodine and mean 3 × 24-h urinary sodium concentration was found (r = 0.087, P = 0.198) and UIC status did not differ according to urinary sodium categories (P = 0.804).",
"no. Compared to older data, supplementation of neonates with iodine is higher. However, it does not reach optimum levels. The urinary iodine median in Roma neonates lies in the mild iodine deficiency band.",
"Placental transport of iodide is required for fetal thyroid hormone production. The sodium iodide symporter (NIS) mediates active iodide transport into the thyroid and the lactating mammary gland and is also present in placenta. NIS is competitively inhibited by thiocyanate from maternal smoking, but compensatory autoregulation of iodide transport differs between organs. The extent of autoregulation of placental iodide transport remains to be clarified. To compare the impact of maternal smoking on thyroglobulin (Tg) levels in maternal serum at delivery and in cord serum as markers of maternal and fetal iodine deficiency. One hundred and forty healthy, pregnant women admitted for delivery and their newborns were studied before the iodine fortification of salt in Denmark. Cotinine in urine and serum classified mothers as smokers (n=50) or nonsmokers (n=90). The pregnant women reported on intake of iodine-containing supplements during pregnancy and Tg in maternal serum at delivery and in cord serum were analyzed. In a context of mild-to-moderate iodine deficiency, smoking mothers had significantly higher serum Tg than nonsmoking mothers (mean Tg smokers 40.2 vs nonsmokers 24.4 μg/l, P=0.004) and so had their respective newborns (cord Tg 80.2 vs 52.4 μg/l, P=0.006), but the ratio between Tg in cord serum and maternal serum was not significantly different in smokers compared with nonsmokers (smoking 2.06 vs nonsmoking 2.22, P=0.69).",
"yes. In Italy, a relevant proportion of Graves' patients at diagnosis have mild to moderate GD; about half of them have no goiter, slightly less than one-fifth have subclinical hyperthyroidism, and only 20 % have GO. Thus, the clinical phenotype of GD is milder than in the past, possibly due to both earlier diagnosis and treatment, and improved iodine nutrition.",
"To describe the use of dietary supplements in a group of Danish adults and to investigate the differences between users and non-users with respect to age, gender, health and lifestyle factors. Cross-sectional study in two Danish cities. The Danish Investigation on Iodine Intake and Thyroid Diseases, 1997-1998. Participants were 3707 women (selected age groups between 18 and 65 years) and 942 men (60-65 years). Participation rate was 50%. Supplement data were collected in a personal interview. Data on education, smoking, alcohol intake, physical activity, use of medication and self-perceived health were derived from a self-administered questionnaire. Multiple logistic regression was used for the statistical analysis. Participants were asked about all kinds of supplements, ranging from products containing vitamins and minerals, to fish oils and products of herbal origin. On average 59% reported use of some kind of dietary supplement. Most common were combined multivitamin/mineral products (48%) followed by single vitamin C products (10%). Twelve per cent used three or more different supplements. Supplement use was strongly associated with age and gender, being highest among elderly women (78%). Ex-smokers were more likely to use supplements than subjects who had never smoked (odds ratio (OR) 1.36, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.09-1.76). Supplement use was more likely among subjects who had many days of illness 95% CI 1.12-1.66) and among users of medication 95% CI 1.04-1.42). Subjects who perceived their health as poor were more likely to use supplements other than just a multivitamin/mineral tablet 95% CI 1.31-3.77).",
"Belgium used to be affected by mild iodine deficiency. Improvement in iodine nutrition has been recently documented in schoolchildren in Belgium in spite of the absence of any systematic programme of iodine supplementation. The question arises as to whether this 'silent iodine prophylaxis' affected also the neonates. A total of 185 random urine samples were collected from 90 full term and 65 preterm neonates in Brussels on day 5 and repeated on day 30 in 30 preterms who were bottle-fed with iodine-enriched formula-milk. The iodine content was also determined in 58 samples of breast-milk on day 5. The median urinary iodine on day 5 in full term neonates was 86 micro g/l, which is markedly higher than the figure of 48 micro g/L reported 15 years previously in neonates in the same area but still much lower than normal for this age group (150-200 micro g/l). The mean iodine content of breast-milk was 78 micro g/l, which is unchanged as compared to 15 years ago and is about 66% of normal. Finally, the median urinary iodine increased from 60 micro g/l on day 5 to 150 micro g/l on day 30 in preterms bottle-fed with iodine-enriched formula-milk.",
"To determine the effectiveness of implementation of a prevention programme via mobile phone text messaging in enhancing knowledge, attitudes and practice concerning iodine deficiency and iodized salt consumption. In a randomized controlled trial, participants were subjected to a brief tele-educational support regarding iodine deficiency and the importance of iodized salt consumption. The intervention group received daily text messages via mobile phone for 6 weeks. Knowledge, attitude and practice scores, urinary iodine concentration and salt iodine content were assessed at baseline and 8 weeks after the intervention. Participants were recruited from health-care centres in Tehran, the capital city of Iran. For the present study 205 females aged ≥18 years were randomly assigned to the intervention (n 95) and control (n 110) groups. A significant difference was found in median knowledge scores between the intervention and control groups at follow-up (P = 0.004). There was also a significant difference in median attitude scores between the intervention and control groups (P = 0.02). The intervention group did not differ significantly in median practice score, urinary iodine concentration and salt iodine content from the control group.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate vitamin D status by measuring serum 25(OH)D levels in euthyroid patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis (HT) who lived and worked on the sunny island of Crete, Greece, and to evaluate whether vitamin D3 supplementation is beneficial for the management of HT patients with vitamin D deficiency. We studied 218 HT patients, euthyroid Caucasian Cretan Greek citizens: 180 females and 38 males. Among these patients, 186 (85.3%) had vitamin D deficiency defined as serum 25(OH)D levels<30 ng/mL. The mean age of all these 218 HT patients was 35.3 ± 8.5 years. The mean age of the 186 vitamin D deficient HT patients (173 females and 13 males) was 37.3 ± 5.6 years. The 186 vitamin D deficient HT patients received vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol, CF) orally, 1200-4000 IU, every day for 4 months aiming to maintain serum 25(OH)D levels ≥ 40 ng/mL. Anthropometric characteristics (height, weight, waist circumference), systolic and diastolic blood pressure, serum concentration of 25(OH)D, thyrotropin (TSH), free thyroxine (FT4), anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO), antithyroglobulin (anti-TG), calcium and phosphorus levels and thyroid and kidney sonographic findings were recorded and measured before and after CF administration. There was a significant negative correlation only between serum 25(OH)D levels and anti-TPO levels among all 218 HT patients. Also, anti-TPO levels were significantly higher in 186/218 vitamin D deficient HT patients compared to 32/218 HT patients with no vitamin D deficiency (364 ± 181IU/mL versus 115.8 ± 37.1IU/mL, P<0.0001). Supplementation of CF in 186 vitamin D deficient HT patients caused a significant decrease (20.3%) in serum anti-TPO levels. Although at the end of the 4 months period of the study body mass index (BMI), serum anti-TG and TSH levels decreased by 2.2%, 5.3% and 4% respectively, these differences were not significant. No changes in the sonographic findings were observed.",
"no. The present study suggests that excessive iodine intake does not have an effect on the clinical outcomes of Graves' disease in an iodine-replete area, and therefore diet control with iodine restriction might not be necessary in the management of Graves' disease.",
"Inadequate sun exposure and dietary vitamin D intake can result in vitamin D insufficiency. However, limited data are available on actual vitamin D status and predictors in healthy individuals in different regions and by season. We compared vitamin D status [25-hydroxyvitamin D; 25(OH)D] in people < 60 years of age using data from cross-sectional studies of three regions across Australia: southeast Queensland (27 degrees S; 167 females and 211 males), Geelong region (38 degrees S; 561 females), and Tasmania (43 degrees S; 432 females and 298 males). The prevalence of vitamin D insufficiency (<or= 50 nmol/L) in women in winter/spring was 40.5% in southeast Queensland, 37.4% in the Geelong region, and 67.3% in Tasmania. Season, simulated maximum daily duration of vitamin D synthesis, and vitamin D effective daily dose each explained around 14% of the variation in 25(OH)D. Although latitude explained only 3.9% of the variation, a decrease in average 25(OH)D of 1.0 (95% confidence interval, 0.7-1.3) nmol/L for every degree increase in latitude may be clinically relevant. In some months, we found a high insufficiency or even deficiency when sun exposure protection would be recommended on the basis of the simulated ultraviolet index.",
"yes. It seems that the influence of the iodine level is direct, not via thyroid hormones. It could be suggested that in euthyroid children with low iodine excretion with urine a hidden iodine deficiency is already registered by the regulatory mechanisms and a kind of acute phase reaction is started, may be in order to increase iodine uptake and storage.",
"The relationship between iodine intake and effects of antithyroid drugs (ATD) for Graves' disease, especially in iodine-deficient areas, has been demonstrated in many studies. However, it was not clear how chronic high iodine intake influenced the effectiveness of ATD in an iodine-replete area. This study aimed to clarify the effect of iodine intake on clinical outcomes of Graves' disease after discontinuation of ATD in Korea, an iodine-replete area. A total of 142 patients with Graves' disease who visited the outpatient clinic regularly and stopped their ATD between October 2011 and April 2013 were enrolled in our study. Urinary iodine concentration (UIC) was measured just before and after the discontinuation of ATD. Median UIC was not significantly different between the remission and relapse groups, as well as among the four treatment groups (group 1, remission after initial treatment; group 2, remission after repeated treatment; group 3, early relapse within a year; group 4, late relapse after a year). Remission rates did not show a significant difference between the excessive iodine intake (UIC ≥300 μg/l) and average iodine intake groups (UIC <300 μg/l).",
"yes. The prevalence of both TPO-Ab and Tg-Ab was higher 4-5 years after a cautious iodine fortification of salt was introduced in Denmark. The increase was most pronounced in young women and in the low concentrations of antibody. Further studies are needed to evaluate the long-term effects of increased iodine intake on thyroid autoimmunity in the population.",
"To assess transient congenital hypothyroidism (TCH) etiologies in two Iranian cities. Cord dried blood spot samples were collected from neonates in Tehran and Damavand. Serum TSH and T4 were measured in those with cord TSH > or =20 mIU/l. Normal serum values at 2-3 weeks of age confirmed transient hyperthyrotropinemia (THT), while persistently abnormal levels revealed congenital hypothyroidism (CH). Normal serum TSH and T4 4-6 weeks after levothyroxine replacement therapy discontinuation at 2-3 yr of age differentiated TCH from persistent CH. Among 50,409 screened newborns, 9 (1:5601 births) were diagnosed as TCH and compared to 88 full-term neonates (>/=37 weeks' gestation) with THT and 45 normal (cord TSH<20 mIU/l) neonates. At a median age of 11 days, median (range) serum TSH values in TCH, THT, and normal neonates were 36.8 (13-130), 3.6 (0.1-13.3), and 2.9 (0.7-8.0) mIU/l (p<0.0001) and serum T4 values were 97 (36-168), 142 (74-232), and 160 (79-228 nmol/l), respectively (p=0.002). Urinary iodine concentration (UIC) >220 microg/l was observed in 5 (55.6%) of TCH neonates. The occurrence of TCH was not associated with gender, parental consanguinity, mode of delivery, pre- or post-natal consumption of goitrogens and/or thyroid affecting medications, TSH receptor autoantibodies, or neonatal UIC.",
"no. In healthy, mildly iodine-deficient pregnant women, a 'drop' of FT4 and TT4/TBG without TSH increase occurs between the first and second trimesters, and is not prevented by iodine supplementation, suggesting physiology. Therefore, FT4 is valuable to assess thyroid function in pregnancy in clinical practice with appropriate trimester-specific reference range. It brings up reflection on threshold for diagnosis and treatment of hypothyroxinemia.",
"A recent study showed first sign of reduction in goiter prevalence and elimination of iodine deficiency state among school-age children in Turkey after a decade of mandatory iodination of table salt. However, iodine status among pregnant women is a still debated issue in our country. To investigate iodine status, iodized salt consumption rate, and goiter prevalence in 1st trimester pregnant women 8 yr after the mandatory iodination. MATERIAL/ SUBJECTS AND METHODS: One hundred and forty-one 1sttrimester pregnant women who had been followed-up between January and October 2006 in the obstetric outpatient clinics in Turkey were included. Besides a physical examination, subjects underwent laboratory investigations for free T(3), free T(4), and urinary iodine concentration (UIC). All subjects completed a questionnaire regarding sociodemographic parameters, use of iodized salt, and pregnancy history. Goiter status was revealed by a palpation method according to World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines. In this study, we found that the median UIC of pregnant women was 149.7 microg/l (range 20.9-275.1 microg/l). Almost half of the subjects were below the WHO, United Nations Children's Fund, and International Council for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders lower median reference limits of 150 microg/l. Total goiter prevalence was 24.8%, of which 9.2% were visible goiters. Among the study patients, 2.1% had subclinical hypothyroidism, and 0.7% had overt hypothyroidism. The rate for iodized salt use among the pregnant women was 95%.",
"Adequate iodine intake during pregnancy is essential for both the synthesis of maternal thyroid hormones and the maintenance of normal fetal brain development. Scant evidence is available on the effects of excessive iodine intake during pregnancy. The study assesses the relationship between iodine nutritional status and thyroid function of pregnant women with excessive iodine intake during late gestation. A cross-sectional study of 384 pregnant women was carried out in Tianjin and Haixing from April to October in 2010. Morning urine samples and blood samples were obtained from all subjects. Serum levels of free T(3), free T(4), and sensitive TSH and urinary iodine concentration were measured. The median urinary iodine concentration of pregnant women with excessive iodine intake was significantly higher than those with adequate iodine intake (P < 0.001). The prevalence of thyroid disease, especially subclinical hypothyroidism, in pregnant women with excessive iodine intake was significantly higher than in those with adequate iodine intake (P < 0.05). Subclinical hypothyroidism was the most frequent pattern of thyroid disease for pregnant women and those with positive or negative thyroid autoantibodies. Living with high water iodine content and having urinary iodine concentration higher than 250 μg/liter are associated risk factors for subclinical hypothyroidism in pregnant women (OR(1) = 41.822, OR(2) = 6.202; P < 0.05, where OR(1) is the odds ratio for living with high water iodine content and hypothyroidism and OR(2) is the odds ratio for urinary iodine concentration >250 μg/liter and hypothyroidism).",
"The majority (85.3%) of the Greek Caucasian patients with HT studied who lived and worked in Crete had low serum 25(OH)D levels inversely correlated with serum anti-TPO thyroid antibodies. After 4 months of CF supplementation in the 186 HT patients with vitamin D deficiency, a significant decrease (20.3%) of serum anti-TPO levels was found. These findings suggest that vitamin D deficiency may be related to pathogenesis of HT and that its supplementation could contribute to the treatment of patients with HT.",
"For some endocrine and nutritional biomarkers, for example, cortisol and vitamin B(12), significant associations between 24-hour renal analyte excretion and the respective 24-hour urine volume (U-Vol) have been reported. Therefore, our objective was to investigate whether 24-hour U-Vol (a marker of fluid intake) is also a relevant influencing factor of absolute daily iodine excretion. Urinary iodine excretion rates were measured in repeatedly collected 24-hour urine samples of (i) 9 healthy women participating in a controlled diet experiment with constant iodine intake and (ii) 204 healthy free-living adolescents (aged 13-18 years) who performed the respective urine collection during 2003-2008. Associations between U-Vol (L) and renal iodine excretion (μg/24 h) were investigated cross sectionally (multiple linear regression model, PROC GLM) and longitudinally (repeated-measures regression models, PROC MIXED). The major iodine sources in the adolescent's diet (iodized salt, milk, fish, eggs, and meat) were controlled for. Urinary iodine excretion was significantly associated with 24-hour U-Vol in all performed fully adjusted regression models. A 1-L increase of U-Vol predicted an additional 15.0 μg/day (adolescents, 95% confidence interval: [9.8, 20.0], p < 0.0001) and 16.5 μg/day (women, 95% confidence interval: [9.2, 23.7], p = 0.0002) increase in iodine excretion. The longitudinal analysis in adolescents revealed a stronger relation of iodine excretion with U-Vol in girls than in boys (β = 17.1 vs. β = 10.5).",
"To explore whether there are regional differences in iodine status and in prevalence of thyroid diseases in the two main regions of Belgium. A national survey of iodine status among children was performed in 1998. The raw data of this survey were reanalyzed to explore regional differences. The total number of thyroidectomies, carried out for multinodular goiter or solitary nodules, was obtained from the Minimal Clinical Summary hospital discharge database. Percentage of people with thyroid diseases going to the general practitioner or the specialist was assessed by means of data about the number of adults using anti-thyroid medications. Food consumption patterns were explored using national food consumption data. In Flanders, median urinary iodine concentration (UIC) was higher than in Wallonia, 84 μg/L (n = 1,316) and 78 μg/L (n = 1,268), respectively (p<0.001). There were no differences in goiter prevalence and thyroid volume between the regions among children. Data from the food consumption survey showed a significant higher consumption of seafood in Flanders compared to Wallonia. Further, it was observed that the number of thyroidectomies, carried out for MNG or solitary nodules, and the use of anti-thyroid medication were significantly higher in Wallonia than in Flanders.",
"The study has clearly shown that cases of hypothyroidism are associated with excess iodine intake. Cohort studies to generate further evidence and an eco-social epidemiological approach have been suggested as the way forward.",
"The Merseburg triad (hyperthyroidism, goiter, and orbitopathy) characterizes classical description of Graves' disease (GD). Aim of this observational, longitudinal study was to evaluate the current clinical features of newly diagnosed GD in Italy. In two Northern Italy centers (Varese and Pavia), 283 consecutive patients (211 women, 72 men; mean age 47.4 years) with newly diagnosed GD were recruited in the years 2010-2014. Diagnosis was based on established criteria, and thyroid volume was assessed by ultrasonography. A clinical severity score (CSS) to assess the overall disease severity was developed by grading each component of the Merseburg triad. At diagnosis, 45 % of patients had no goiter, and 30 % had a small goiter. The proportion of goitrous patients was much lower than in two Italian studies performed 20-30 years ago. Hyperthyroidism was subclinical in 16 % and mild in 29 % of patients, and Graves' orbitopathy was present in 20 %, usually mild, and active in only 2.5 % of patients. Using the CSS, less than half (44 %) of the patients had severe GD, while 22 % had mild and 34 % moderate disease. CSS was associated with a significantly higher risk of poorly controlled hyperthyroidism at 6 months.",
"There are many studies regarding the effect of iodine supplementation on goiter, but relatively few reports on the duration of iodine supplementation required to eradicate goiter in iodine-deficient regions. In the current study, we aimed to determine goiter prevalence as determined by sonographic methods, as it relates to changes in median urinary iodine concentrations (UIC) among school age children (SAC), ages 9-11. This study was performed in Ankara, Turkey, before and 5-10 years after mandatory iodination of table salt. Three hundred to 400 SAC from the same primary schools were studied every year by measurement of UIC as part of Turkish Iodine Surveys. Sonographically determined thyroid volume of the SAC had been measured before the mandatory iodination in 1997 and 5-10 years afterward, in 2002 and 2007. The prevalence of goiter in children was evaluated using World Health Organization/International Council for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders recommendations for age and sex. Moderate iodine deficiency was present in 1997 (median UIC, 25.5 microg/L), and it improved to mild iodine deficiency in 2001 (median UIC, 87 microg/L). Sufficient iodine intake (median UIC, 117 microg/L) was achieved by the year 2004. Goiter prevalence was 25% in 1997, 12.3% in 2001, and decreased to 1.3% in 2004.",
"no. In Brazil the iodine provided by food, including iodized salt, has been sufficient to maintain iodine status in patients with short gut syndrome.",
"Belgium is one of the Western European countries in which no program of iodine-deficiency correction using iodized salt has been implemented, in spite of well-documented mild iodine deficiency. In 1995, the median urinary iodine concentration was 55 microg/l (normal: 100-200) and the prevalence of goiter was 11% (normal: below 5%) in representative samples of schoolchildren aged 6-12 years. Based on these results, the authors of the present study and others had emphasized to health professionals and to the public the necessity for iodine supplementation. The objective of this study was to evaluate as to whether these efforts had resulted in an improvement in the status of iodine nutrition. We performed a national survey of the status of iodine nutrition in Belgium based on the determination of thyroid volume, obtained by ultrasonography, and urinary iodine concentrations in schoolchildren. A mobile van equipped with an ultrasound instrument, a computer and a deep-freeze visited 23 schools selected from across the country. The sample included 2855 schoolchildren (1365 boys and 1490 girls) aged 6-12 years. The results show a homogeneous situation in the whole country, with a median urinary iodine concentration of 80 microg/l and a goiter prevalence of 5.7%. Urinary iodine slightly decreases with age in girls and reaches a critical value of 59 microg/l at the age of 12 years, together with a goiter prevalence of 18.4%.",
"Iodine deficiency and obesity are worldwide-occurring health problems. Our purpose was to investigate the relationship between morbid obesity and iodine status, including subjects who lost weight after bariatric surgery. Ninety morbidly obese women, 90 women with at least 18 months follow-up after bariatric surgery, and 45 healthy non-obese women were recruited. Urinary iodine concentration (UIC) was measured in a spot urinary sample and expressed as the iodine-to-creatinine ratio. Obese women showed a significantly lower UIC in comparison with non-obese women (96.6 (25.8-267.3) vs. 173.3 (47.0-493.6) μg/g; p < 0.001), with a lesser proportion of subjects with adequate iodine status (46.6 vs. 83.3 %, p < 0.001). The mean UIC significantly increased among women who underwent bariatric surgery before the collection of the urinary sample (96.6 (25.8-267.3) vs. 131.9 (62.9-496.4) μg/g; p < 0.001). No difference in UIC was detected between laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy. Univariate analysis showed that UIC negatively correlated with body mass index (BMI) (r = -0.278, p < 0.001) and positively with age (r = 0.206, p = 0.002). Finally, multiple linear regression analyses showed that BMI was independently associated with UIC (beta = -0.312, p < 0.001; R (2) = 0.166).",
"The importance of restricting iodine intake to increase thyroid uptake of ¹³¹I is well-known, but its minimum duration is not clear. The present study aimed at determining whether 3 weeks is superior to 2 weeks for a low-iodine diet (LID) as a means of increasing the thyroid uptake of ¹³¹I and reducing urinary iodine. A second goal was to evaluate the effectiveness of a questionnaire about ingestion and exposure to iodine to predict individuals in whom the LID would be less effective. Forty-six outpatients who came to the Nuclear Medicine Unit of Santa Casa de Porto Alegre, Brazil, for thyroid evaluation, were randomized to receive an LID for 2 or 3 weeks. Questionnaires regarding their exposure to iodine, the thyroid uptake of ¹³¹I, and the iodine and iodine/creatinine ratio in urine samples were administered or obtained at the beginning and end of the diet. The questionnaire indicated exposure to exogenous iodine in five patients during their LID, all in the 3-week group. Their thyroid ¹³¹I uptake was significantly lower than patients who did not give a history of iodine exposure (p = 0.016). The comparative analysis between the 2-week and 3-week diet groups was then performed excluding the five contaminated patients. The ¹³¹I uptake increased by 43% in the 2-week group and 26.7% in the 3-week group (p = 0.105). Both diets for 2 and 3 weeks caused significant decrease in urinary iodine (p < 0.001), without a difference between the groups (63.2% in the 2-week group and 60.9% in the 3-week group, p = 0.955). There was no difference in the percentage of patients with urinary iodine ≤100 μg/L (p = 0.25) and urinary iodine ≤50 μg/L (p = 0.86) between the groups. A correlation between urinary iodine and iodine/creatinine ratio (r = 0.516; p < 0.001) was observed.",
"Consuming a low-iodine diet (LID) is a widely accepted practice before administering radioiodine (131I) to evaluate and to treat thyroid disease. Although this procedure is well established for the management of patients with differentiated thyroid cancer, its use in patients with benign disease is unclear. So, we aimed to evaluate the influence of a LID on the outcome in patients with Graves' disease (GD) treated with 131I. We evaluated 67 patients with GD who were divided into 2 groups: one group (n = 31) consumed a LID for 1-2 weeks, and the second group (n = 36) was instructed to maintain a regular diet (RD). The LID group experienced a 23% decrease in urinary iodine after 1 week on the diet and a significant 42% decrease after 2 weeks on the diet. The majority (53%) of the patients in the LID group had urinary iodine levels that were consistent with deficient iodine intake. However, there was no difference in the rate of hyperthyroidism's cure between the LID and the RD groups 6 months after 131I therapy. Furthermore, the therapeutic efficacy did not differ in patients with varying degrees of sufficient iodine intake (corresponding urinary iodine levels: < 10 μg/dL is deficient; 10-29.9 μg/dL is sufficient; and > 30 μg/dL is excessive).",
"To contribute evidence relevant to the policy of supplying iodised salt (IS), non-iodised salt (NIS) or both in Chinese cities. Subnational telephone interview survey. China. Totally, 24 557 telephone numbers were dialled and 4833 citizens accepted the telephone interview. The telephone numbers were randomly selected by random digit dialling and a Mitofsky-Waksberg two-stage sampling method in 17 capital cities and 6 coastal cities from 17 iodine deficiency disorder (IDD)-eliminated provinces (municipalities). The 4833 citizens finished the telephone interview. Among them, 3738 (77.3%) citizens chose IS, 481 (10%) citizens chose NIS, and the others chose both IS and NIS. The citizens' awareness rates of IDD and IDD preventive measures were 68.7% and 62.5%, respectively.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the personal nutrition-related attitudes and behaviors of Australian optometrists and, in particular, their understanding of the evidence relating to the merit of specific dietary supplements, as applicable to their own health. An online survey was distributed to optometrists registered in Australia (N = 4242). Respondents anonymously provided information regarding their demographic characteristics (age, sex, practice location and modality), diet and lifestyle behaviors (assessment of self-perceived diet quality, smoking status), and nutritional supplement intake (including the rationale for consumption). Completed surveys were received from 283 practitioners. Although most respondents considered themselves to eat a healthy, balanced diet, approximately 75% indicated taking nutritional supplements in the preceding year. The four most common supplements were fish oil/ω-3 (62%), multivitamins (54%), vitamin C (30%), and vitamin D (29%). In addition to vitamin D, which was typically recommended by a general medical practitioner for an established deficiency, the other three supplement categories were consumed on the basis of the respondents' self-assessment and decision. Analyses of the motivations for taking these supplements highlighted a significant misunderstanding of the evidence; furthermore, these practitioners appeared to base their personal behaviors on this misinterpretation.",
"These data support a link between fetal thyroid function and a fall in maternal iodine intake. While the findings of the proportion of blood TSH values>5.0 mIU/L exclude severe maternal or fetal iodine deficiency, a trend toward increasing TSH may provide an early indication of impending iodine deficiency. The findings assume greater importance in the context of declining UI reported from many developed countries even where the proportion of blood TSH values>5.0 mIU/L is<3%, thus excluding severe maternal and fetal iodine deficiency.",
"yes. We detected only a weak correlation with respect to low ICR. Studies assessing iodine status in a population should take into account that an individual with a low UI excretion in one measurement is not necessarily permanently iodine deficient. On the other hand, current high ICR could have been predicted by high ICR 5 years ago.",
"The mechanisms linking thyroid autoimmunity and iodine use in humans are unknown. Our aim was to correlate iodine intake, thyroid autoimmunity, and recognition of thyroglobulin (Tg) epitopes after implementation of iodine prophylaxis. The general community living in an Italian village was evaluated. Thyroglobulin autoantibodies (TgAb), thyroperoxidase autoantibodies (TPOAb), and urinary iodine excretion were assessed in 906 iodized salt users (IS-users) and 389 nonusers (IS-nonusers). Ultrasound (US) was performed to identify thyroid hypoechogenicity, suggestive of Hashimoto thyroiditis (HT). TgAb epitope pattern in 16 IS-users and 17 IS-nonusers was evaluated by an inhibition binding assay to Tg, using human monoclonal TgAb-Fab directed to A, B, C, and D epitopes on Tg. Median urinary iodine excretion was slightly higher in IS-users than in IS-nonusers (112.0 μg/L vs 86.5 μg/L; P < .01). TgAb, and not TPOAb, was more frequent in IS-users (18.9% vs 13.6%, P = .02). HT-US was found in 87 subjects, among whom both positive TgAb (58.4% vs 31.8%, P = .03) and TPOAb (61.5% vs 45.4%. P = .04) were more frequent in IS-users. In this group significantly higher serum levels of TgAb (median 108 U/mL vs 30 U/mL; P = .02), but not of TPOAb, were present. Iodized salt use had no effect on the 1208 non HT-US subjects. TgAb directed to the epitope B of Tg were more frequent in IS-users than in IS-nonusers (27.5% vs 3.0%, P = .047).",
"Recent regional and germanwide investigations have shown that the abolition of the requirement to declare iodine in foodstuffs and the greater emphasis on information about goitre prevention led to an increase in urinary iodine excretion in German schoolchildren. There was also a decrease in thyroid size and goitre prevalence in children. No up to date results in adults for the whole of Germany are available. In 2005 we examined the urinary iodine excretion in the spontaneous morning urine of 1 538 healthy adults in 357 places from all over Germany. The iodine was measured by the Cer- arsenit method. The median iodine excretion amounted to 132 microg/l. There were no significant differences between age groups, sexes or regions. 64% had no iodine deficiency (>100 microg/l). In 23% the deficiency was slight (50-99 microg/l), in 10% moderate (20-49 microg/l) and in 3% there was severe iodine deficiency (<20 microg/l). 29% excreted >200 microg iodide per litre urine.",
"Hypothyroidism in utero leading to mental retardation is highly prevalent and recurrent in developing countries where iodine deficiency and thiocyanate overload are combined. So, to explore and identify human population's risks for developing iodine deficiency disorders and their endemicity in Western Cameroon, with the aim to prevent this deficiency and to fight again it, urinary iodine and thiocyanate levels were determined. The district of Bamougoum in Western Cameroon was selected for closer study due to its geographic location predisposing for iodine deficiency disorders (IDD). A comprehensive sampling strategy included 24-h urine samples collected over three days from 120 school-aged children. Urinary iodine and thiocyanate levels were measured by colorimetric methods. Twenty one percent of boys between the ages 3 and 19 were classified as iodine deficient. The prevalence of thiocyanate overload in the same population was found to be 20%.",
"Studies of hypothyroidism are often based on patients referred to hospital. It is unknown, to what extent such studies are referral biased. Thus, the aim of the present study was to evaluate the magnitude of selection bias in a study of patients newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism. A computer-based system linked to laboratory databases identified patients with incident overt hypothyroidism (n=346) from 1997 to 2000 in Aalborg, Denmark. An electronic patient administrative system identified patients referred to Department of Endocrinology, Aalborg Hospital. Among patient characteristics recorded at the time of diagnosis-age, gender, nosological subgroup of hypothyroidism, thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), total thyroxine (T4), total triiodothyronine (T3), thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPOAb), thyroglobulin antibody (TgAb), and calendar year--we searched for predictors of referral state. Of all hypothyroid patients, 86 (25%) were referred to our endocrine unit. The referred patients were younger (50.4 vs. 66.0 years, P<0.001), had higher serum TSH (53.6 vs. 32.6 mU/L, P=0.002) and lower serum total T4 (37.0 vs. 44.0 nmol/L, P=0.03) compared with nonreferred patients. In a multivariate model, only less age (P<0.001) and serum total T4 (P=0.03) were statistically associated with referral state.",
"Recent regional and Germany-wide investigations have shown that the abolition of the requirement to declare iodine in foodstuffs and the greater emphasis on information about goitre prevention led to an increase in urinary iodine excretion in German schoolchildren. There was also a decrease in thyroid size and goitre prevalence in children. No up-to-date results in adults for the whole of Germany are available. In 2005, the authors examined the urinary iodine excretion in the spontaneous morning urine of 1,538 healthy adults in 357 places from all over Germany. The iodine was measured by the cer-arsenite method. The median iodine excretion amounted to 132 microg/l. There were no significant differences between age groups, sexes or regions. 64% had no iodine deficiency (> or = 100 microg/l). In 23% the deficiency was slight (50-99 microg/l), in 10% moderate (20-49 microg/l), and in 3% there was severe iodine deficiency (< 20 microg/l). 29% excreted > 200 microg iodide/l urine.",
"Hypothyroidism in utero leading to mental retardation is highly prevalent in developing countries where iodine deficiency and thiocyanate overload are combined. To explore prevalence of IDD in Bamougoum, a mountain region of western Cameroon, by studying urinary iodine and thiocyanate excretion levels in children. Bamougoum district in western Cameroon was selected for closer study due to its geographic location predisposing to iodine deficiency disorders (IDD). A comprehensive sampling strategy included 24-h urine samples collected over three days from 120 school-aged children. Urinary iodine and thiocyanate levels were measured by colorimetric methods. Twenty one percent of boys between the ages 3 and 19 were classified as iodine deficient. The prevalence of thiocyanate overload in the same population was found to be 20%.",
"In many developing countries, children are at high risk of both goiter and iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency adversely affects thyroid metabolism and may reduce the efficacy of iodine prophylaxis in areas of endemic goiter. The aim of this study was to determine whether iron supplementation in goitrous, iron-deficient children would improve their response to iodized salt. We conducted a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial in 5-14-y-old children in Côte d'Ivoire. Goitrous, iron-deficient children (n = 166) consuming iodized salt (10-30 mg I/kg salt at the household level) were supplemented with either iron (60 mg Fe/d, 4 d/wk for 16 wk) or placebo. At 0, 1, 6, 12, and 20 wk, we measured hemoglobin, serum ferritin, serum transferrin receptor, whole-blood zinc protoporphyrin, thyrotropin, thyroxine, urinary iodine, and thyroid gland volume (by ultrasonography). Hemoglobin and iron status at 20 wk were significantly better after iron treatment than after placebo (P < 0.05). At 20 wk, the mean reduction in thyroid size in the iron-treated group was nearly twice that in the placebo group (x +/- SD percentage change in thyroid volume from baseline: -22.8 +/- 10.7% compared with -12.7 +/- 10.1%; P < 0.01). At 20 wk, goiter prevalence was 43% in the iron-treated group compared with 62% in the placebo group (P < 0.02). There were no significant differences between groups in whole-blood thyrotropin or serum thyroxine at baseline or during the intervention.",
"yes. Obesity is an independent risk factor to iodine deficiency, almost in women. Whether more obese population needs to be considered as a vulnerable group and whether bariatric surgery can reverse iodine deficiency still remain to be elucidated.",
"yes. Overall, the majority of the studied population had an optimal dietary iodine intake; DTC risk was inversely associated with high fish consumption. Furthermore, DTC risk was positively associated with the number of copies in the minor allele (A) of rs965513 among people who consumed less iodine than the median. Because these findings are based on post-diagnostic measures, studies with pre-diagnostic dietary iodine are needed for confirmation.",
"This study suggests that autoimmunity may be one of the mechanisms responsible for goiter persistence after iodine replenishment in this iodine deficient region, but the role of other factors should also be considered.",
"yes. Iodine nutrition has improved slightly in Belgium but mild iodine deficiency continues, with public-health consequences. The improvement indicates silent iodine prophylaxis, as no official salt-iodization measures have been taken. Silent iodine prophylaxis only partly corrects iodine deficiency in Western Europe. Active measures, including the implementation of a program of salt iodization, are urgently required.",
"yes. Even when iodine deficiency is 'mild', promotion of adequate iodine intake through salt iodization programs and other means remains crucial.",
"An increasing incidence of hyperthyroidism has been observed when iodine supplementation has been introduced to an iodine-deficient population. Moreover, the influence of chronic more than adequate or excessive iodine intake on the epidemiological features of hyperthyroidism has not been widely and thoroughly described. To investigate the influences of different iodine intake levels on the incidence of hyperthyroidism, we conducted a prospective community-based survey in three communities with mild-deficient, more than adequate (previously mild deficient iodine intake), and excessive iodine intake. In three rural Chinese communities, a total of 3761 unselected inhabitants aged above 13 years participated in the original investigation and 3018 of them received identical examinations after 5 years. Thyroid function, levels of thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPOAb), thyroglobulin antibody and urinary iodine excretion were measured and thyroid ultrasound examination was also performed. In three communities, median urinary iodine excretion was 88, 214, and 634 microg/l (P<0.05) respectively. The cumulative incidence of hyperthyroidism was 1.4, 0.9, and 0.8% (P>0.05) respectively. Autoimmune hyperthyroidism was predominant in thyroid hyperfunction in all the three cohorts. Either positive TPOAb (>50 U/ml) or goiter in original healthy participants was associated with the occurrence of unsuspected hyperthyroidism in 5 years (logistic regression, OR=4.2 (95% CI 1.7-8.8) for positive TPOAb, OR=3.1 (95% CI 1.4-6.8) for goiter).",
"This study assessed the iodine status of New Zealand infants and toddlers and explored factors that might influence their iodine status. A community-based, cross-sectional survey of 6- to 24-mo-old children was conducted in three cities in the South Island of New Zealand. Iodine status was determined by a casual urine sample. Breast-feeding mothers were asked to provide a breast milk sample for iodine determination. Caregivers collected a 3-d weighed diet record from their children to investigate associations between dietary patterns and urinary iodine excretion. The median urinary iodine concentration for the group (n = 230) was 67 microg/L (interquartile range 37-115) with 37% (95% confidence interval 30.5-43.4) of children having a urinary iodine concentration lower than 50 microg/L. When children were classified by current feeding method, those children who were currently formula-fed had a significantly higher median urinary iodine concentration (99 microg/L) than did children who were currently breast-fed (44 microg/L; P<0.000). The mean iodine concentration in breast milk was 22 microg/L (n = 39). After multivariate analysis using estimates from 3-d diet records, only percentage of energy from infant formula was significantly associated with urinary iodine concentration (P = 0.005).",
"yes. Our study revealed that iodine deficiency still remains a serious problem for pregnant women. Based on our results, antenatal follow-up protocols in the primary care setting in Turkey must include iodine supplementation.",
"Autoantibodies against the thyroid gland with thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPO-Ab) and thyroglobulin antibody (Tg-Ab) as the most common can often be demonstrated in serum. The effect of public iodization programmes on antibody prevalence is uncertain. To measure the concentrations of thyroid autoantibodies in the Danish population before and after mandatory iodization of salt. Two identical cross-sectional population studies were performed before (Cohort 1 (C1), year 1997-1998, n = 4649, median urinary iodine 61 μg/l) and 4-5 years after (Cohort 2 (C2), year 2004-2005, n = 3570, median urinary iodine 101 μg/l) mandatory iodine fortification of salt was implemented in Denmark. Blood tests were analysed for TPO-Ab and Tg-Ab using sensitive assays. Antibodies were more frequent in C2 than in C1: TPO-Ab > 30 U/ml, C1 vs C2: 14·3 vs 23·8% (P < 0·001) and Tg-Ab > 20 U/ml, C1 vs C2: 13·7 vs 19·9% (P < 0·001). The C2 vs C1 effect was confirmed in multivariate regression models (C1 reference): TPO-Ab: OR (95% CI): 1·80 (1·59-2·04) and Tg-Ab: 1·49 (1·31-1·69). The increase in the frequency of thyroid antibodies was most pronounced in young women and especially observed at low concentrations of antibodies.",
"The purpose of our study was to determine urinary iodine as an indicator of iodine supplementation in Roma (Gypsy) neonates compared to majority population neonates. The groups studied were formed by 30 full-term Roma neonates and 151 majority population neonates. Iodine was determined from samples of urine collected on the 4th day after delivery, after alkaline ashing, using the Sandell-Kolthoff method. The median of urinary iodine in Roma neonates was 92.15 microg/l urine and in neonates from majority population mothers it was 109.20 microg/l urine. The mean of urinary iodine in Roma neonates was 114.55 microg/l urine (SD 71.68 microg/l) and in neonates from majority population mothers it was 141.86 microg/l urine (SD 87.42 microg/l). The difference was not statistically significant. Majority population mothers more frequently consumed nutrition supplements containing iodine as well as fish.",
"yes. The iodine status in Danish pregnant women was below WHO recommendations. Iodine supplement non-users are at a particular risk of iodine deficiency. Low maternal education, non-Danish origin and pre-pregnancy obesity are predictors of non-iodine supplement use. An increase in iodine fortification may be recommended to improve the iodine status in pregnant Danish women.",
"Disorders of thyroid function have been inconsistently described in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients and in CF transmembrane regulator protein knockout animals. The literature lacks reports on iodine status of CF individuals. We hypothesize, that iodine deficiency is common in CF and account for abnormal thyroid function in CF patients. We investigated 129 children, adolescents, and adults with CF, who were living in the northern part of Bavaria/Germany. Malnutrition and lung function were analyzed. Urinary iodine excretion, TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), and ft4 (free thyroxine) were measured and set in relation to population-based, age-adjusted reference ranges. Subclinical hypothyroidism (normal fT4, elevated TSH) was found in 11.6% of subjects, and iodine deficiency in 83.7%. No correlations were found with age, BMI, status of malnutrition, or lung function.",
"yes. There is endemic goiter in the region studied. Urinary iodine levels were in the normal range and could be interpreted as indicating a transition phase to an improvement in iodine deficiency. Autoimmune diseases would only explain 4 % of cases of goiter.",
"Diabetes Mellitus (DM) is a major health problem worldwide and its prevalence in Saudi Arabia has reached 31.6%. Patients with diabetes mellitus are at an increased risk of thyroid disease. The purpose of this study was to examine the urinary excretion of iodine in type 2 DM (T2DM) patients, and to assess the clinical implication of iodine status on T2DM. A total of 266 adult Saudis aged 18-55 years (109 T2DM patients and 157 healthy controls) were randomly selected from the Riyadh Cohort Study. Subjects were assessed for anthropometry, morning blood chemistries including fasting glucose, and lipid profile; serum concentrations of leptin, adiponectin, resistin, insulin, aPAI, hsCRP, Ang II, TNF-α, TSH, T3, T4, urine creatinine, urine iodine were measured using specific assays. The concentration of urine iodine was significantly lower in T2DM than in healthy control subjects (84.6±2.3 vs. 119.4±3.4, p<0.001), which remained significant after creatinine correction and controlling for age (p=0.01). Furthermore, urinary iodine is negatively correlated with waist, hips, SAD, glucose, insulin, HOMA-IR triglyceride, resistin, angiotensin II (Ang II), and CRP, while it was positively associated with TSH.",
"Iodine status in children was found slightly different in both regions of the country. This finding is in agreement with a higher incidence of thyroidectomies and more extensive use of anti-thyroid medications in the adult population in the region with the lowest iodine excretion.",
"This study found mild iodine deficiency in a group of New Zealand infants and toddlers. Children who consumed infant formula, which is fortified with iodine, had better iodine status than did children who were currently breast-fed because breast milk contained low levels of iodine.",
"To assess thyroid autoimmunity among elderly people living in an area with low iodine intake compared to the sustained recommended iodine intake from a natural source, and to estimate the importance of migration. Iodine content of drinking water is highly different in the Danish towns Randers and Skagen. We collected blood and spot urine samples from 430 long-term Randers and Skagen dwellers aged 75-80 years, who filled in a questionnaire. We measured thyroid peroxidase antibody (TPOAb) and thyroglobulin antibody (TGAb) in serum and iodine and creatinine in urine. Participation rate was 47% (n=212 (men/women 82/130) in Randers; 218 (84/134) in Skagen). Iodine deficiency prevailed in Randers while Skagen dwellers were iodine replete (median urinary iodine 74 μg/24h vs. 184 μg/24h, p<0.001). Thyroid antibodies were more frequent in Randers than in Skagen residents (42% vs. 32%; p=0.006) and more likely with iodine excretion <50 μg/24h (OR, 95%CI: 1.9, 1.1-3.4). Differences between towns increased with longer duration of residence as trends in the occurrence of TGAb and TPOAb were opposite (p<0.001; p=0.007).",
"To determine whether pregnant women and their newborns show evidence of iodine deficiency, and to examine the correlation between maternal urine iodine concentration (UIC) and newborn thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. A cross-sectional study. Hospital antenatal care services (March-May 2004) and private obstetrician clinics (June 2004) in the Central Coast area of New South Wales. 815 pregnant women (>or = 28 weeks' gestation) and 824 newborns. World Health Organization/International Council for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders criteria for assessing severity of iodine deficiency (recommended levels:<20% of urine samples in a population with UIC<50 microg/L; and<3% of newborns with whole-blood TSH level>5 mIU/L). The median UIC for pregnant women was 85 microg/L, indicating mild iodine deficiency. Almost 17% of pregnant women had a UIC<50 microg/L, and 18 newborns (2.2%) had TSH values>5 mIU/L. There was no statistically significant linear correlation between neonatal whole-blood TSH level and maternal UIC (r = - 0.03; P = 0.4). Mothers with a UIC<50 microg/L were 2.6 times (relative risk = 2.65; 95% CI, 1.49-4.73; P = 0.01) more likely to have a baby with a TSH level>5 mIU/L.",
"Monitoring of iodine fortification programs is required for early recognition of oversupply or ineffective supply with iodine. We investigated the potential role of selection bias for studies performed to monitor the iodine supply and prevalence of thyroid disorders. We used the baseline population of 3949 subjects recruited for the Study of Health in Pomerania as a hypothesized source population and associated the information on response behavior from the 5-year follow-up examinations with baseline sociodemographic and thyroid-related characteristics. Due to nonresponse, 649 subjects were lost. The 3300 follow-up respondents were divided into early and late respondents according to their recruitment level. We found no significant bias in the prevalence estimates of thyroid-related variables in the comparison between all respondents, and the source population after response maximization techniques had been applied. Prevalence estimates of thyroid-related characteristics (prior thyroid disorders, goiter, thyroid nodules, low serum thyrotropin, as well as increased and positive antithyroperoxidase [TPO] levels), however, were biased if we would have only investigated subjects who agreed to participate in our study after first invitation. When analyses were adjusted for sociodemographic variables, differences between early and late respondents were only statistically significant for positive anti-TPO levels.",
"yes. The higher prevalence of goiter rather than low levels of urinary iodine in gastric adenocarcinoma cases suggests that goiter, perhaps due to protracted but currently adjusted iodine deficiency, is more likely to be associated with gastric adenocarcinoma compared to the existing iodine deficiency itself.",
"Despite long standing iodine supplementation in Iran the prevalence of goiter remains high in some areas. This may suggest that causes other than iodine deficiency, such as autoimmune thyroid diseases, should also be considered. We therefore assessed the prevalence of anti-thyroid antibodies in children living in an inland area in Iran and correlated these findings with prevalence of goiter within this region. In a cross-sectional study, 1948 students were selected by multistage random cluster sampling from the 108 primary schools (age, 7-13 year-old) of the urban and rural areas of Semirom. After obtaining written consent from their parents, the children were examined by endocrinologists for goiter grading. Grade 2 goitrous children (108 cases) were compared with non-goitrous children (111 children as control group) for anti-thyroid antibodies. Overall, 36.7% of 1948 students had goiter. The mean urinary iodine excretion level was 1.49+/-0.7 micromol/L. This was within normal limits. Of 219 children studied, 4.3% presented with subclinical hypothyroidism, and 7.3% had positive anti-thyroid antibodies. There was non-significant difference of positive thyroperoxidase antibody (anti-TPO) (Odds Ratio= 3.2, p= 0.13) but significant difference of anti Tg between goitrous and non goitrous children (Odds Ratio: 5.6, 95% CI: 1.18-26.0, p: 0.015).",
"To determine whether thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentrations in a large sample of neonates meet World Health Organization criteria for an iodine-replete population (<3% of neonates with whole-blood TSH concentrations>5 mlU/L), and, in a small subset of neonates, to examine the correlation between maternal urinary iodine and neonatal TSH concentrations. Cross-sectional study of neonatal whole-blood TSH values obtained as part of a routine newborn screening program. Royal North Shore Hospital (RNSH) in northern Sydney. Two anonymous samples of neonates born at RNSH (1316 infants born between August 1998 and April 1999 and 1457 infants born between 1 March and 31 December 2000); and 84 infants whose mothers had attended RNSH between September 1998 and August 1999 and supplied a urine sample for iodine measurement. Iodine status of neonates (proportion with whole-blood TSH values>5 mlU/L), and urine iodine concentrations of pregnant women. In the two large population samples of neonates, 8.1% (95% CI, 6.6%-9.5%) and 5.4% (95% Cl, 4.3%-6.6%), respectively, had whole-blood TSH values>5 mlU/L (prevalence range for mild thyroid deficiency, 3%-19%). Comparing the TSH values of the 1316 anonymous infants and the 84 identified infants showed no difference between the proportions with TSH values>5 mlU/L (8.1% v 10.7%, respectively; P = 0.39). Urine iodine concentrations in the 84 pregnant women indicated borderline mild iodine deficiency. TSH values in their 84 infants were positively correlated with maternal urine iodine concentrations.",
"The high frequency of iodine deficiency found in our participants suggests that dietary sources of iodine in this country may no longer be sufficient. Further population studies are required.",
"yes. Presence of endemic iodine deficiency and excessive thiocyanate in the population indicates that the region is at risk of iodine deficiency disorder. A multifactorial approach that includes improvement of diet, increasing iodine and minimizing goitrogen substances intake, soil and crop improvement and an iodine supplementation program may help alleviate IDD in the affected area studied.",
"Our data provide the normative data for cord blood TSH and FT(4) levels in Turkish neonates and show that iodine deficiency is a still a public health problem in Turkey. These measurements can be useful for detection and verification of hypothyroidism in a screening program for congenital hypothyroidism as well as evaluation of the success of the iodination program.",
"yes. BMIC decreased in the first 6 mo in these iodine-deficient lactating women; supplementation with 75 or 150 μg I/d increased the BMIC but was insufficient to ensure adequate iodine status in women or their infants. The study was registered with the Australian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry as ACTRN12605000345684.",
"yes. The time required to normalize the prevalence of goiter in SAC living in a moderately iodine-deficient environment was at least a decade. To achieve a goiter rate of less than 5% among SAC, it may require that, as a population, they were born and grew up under conditions of iodine sufficiency.",
"To prevent goiter and nodular hyperthyroidism, iodine fortification (IF) of salt was introduced in Denmark in 1998. We prospectively registered all new cases of overt hyperthyroidism in two areas of Denmark before and for the first 6 yr after iodine fortification. We used a computer-based register of all new cases of hyperthyroidism in two population subcohorts with moderate iodine deficiency (Aalborg, n = 310,124) and mild iodine deficiency (Copenhagen, n = 225,707), respectively. Data were obtained 1) before IF (1997-1998); 2) during voluntary IF (1999-2000); 3) during the early (2001-2002) period of mandatory IF; and 4) during the late (2003-2004) period with mandatory IF. The overall incidence rate of hyperthyroidism increased [baseline, 102.8/100,000/year; voluntary IF, 122.8; early mandatory IF, 140.7; late mandatory IF, 138.7 (P for trend <0.001)]. Hyperthyroidism increased in both sexes (P < 0.001) and in all age groups: 0-19, 20-39, 40-59, and 60+ yr (P for trend <0.001). The increase was relatively highest in young adults aged 20-39 yr: late mandatory IF (percent increase from baseline), age 20-39, 160%, P < 0.001; age 40-59, 29%, P < 0.01; age 60+ yr, 13%, P = not significant.",
"yes. The inadequate intake of iodine documented in the Zanzibar Islands belies the common assumption that an island population with access to seafood is not at risk for iodine-deficiency disorders. We urge health planners to implement mandatory salt iodation and education efforts to alleviate the situation.",
"We designed our study to evaluate the hypothesis that gastric cancer is correlated with iodine deficiency or thyroid dysfunction. We investigated the total body iodine reserve, thyroid function status and autoimmune disorder in 40 recently diagnosed gastric adenocarcinoma cases versus 80 healthy controls. The participants came from a region with high gastric cancer rate but sufficient iodine supply due to salt iodination. The investigation included urine iodine level, thyroid gland clinical and ultrasonographic examination, and thyroid function tests. Goiter was detected more frequently in the case group (P=0.001); such a finding, however, was not true for lower than normal urine iodine levels. The free T3 mean level was significantly lower in the case group compared to the control group (P=0.005).",
"Delivery of iodine to the foetus depends not only on maternal dietary iodine intake but also on the presence of a functioning placental transport system. A role for the placenta as an iodine storage organ has been suggested, and this study compares the iodine content of placentas from women giving birth at term in Ireland and Iran, areas with median urinary iodine of 79 and 206 μg/l respectively. Placental cotyledon iodine was measured using an alkaline ashing technique with Sandell-Kolthoff kinetic colorimetry. Samples were taken from six sites from the centre and periphery of each cotyledon. Placentas (Ireland n = 58; Iran n = 45) were obtained from consecutive euthyroid women delivering at term. The median placental iodine (μg/g wet weight) was significantly higher in Iranian than in Irish women (187·2 μg/g vs 34·3 μg/g; P<0·001). The distribution of individual placental iodine values showed that values>50μg/g were found in 71·0% of Iranian and in only 21·0% of Irish samples. In Irish subjects, the relationship of placental iodine to pregnant population urinary iodine (UI) (ng/g:μg/l) was 1:2 (40:79), while in Iranians this ratio is closer to 1:1 (211:206).",
"The UICs in this cohort of pregnant women are of concern, and seem unlikely to be improved by the national iodine fortification program. Pregnant women in Gippsland urgently need effective iodine education programs and encouragement to either consume iodine-rich foods or take appropriate supplements.",
"Excess salt intake is a global issue. Effective salt-reduction strategies are needed, however, as salt is a vehicle for iodine fortification, these strategies may also reduce iodine intake. This study examines the case of the remote Indigenous Australian population; we employed an innovative, objective method to assess sodium and iodine intakes against requirements and modelled the potential effects of salt-reduction strategies on estimated sodium and iodine intakes. Store-sales data were collected from 20 remote Indigenous community stores in 2012-14 representing the main source of food for 2 years for ~8300 individuals. Estimated average sodium and iodine intakes were compared against recommendations (nutrient reference values weighted to age and gender distribution). Linear programming was employed to simulate potential effects of salt-reduction strategies on estimated sodium and iodine intakes. Estimated average sodium intake was 2770 (range within communities 2410-3450) mg/day, far exceeding the population-weighted upper limit (2060 mg/day). Discretionary (added) salt, bread and processed meat were the biggest contributors providing 46% of all sodium. Estimated average iodine intake was within recommendations at 206 (186-246) μg/day. The following scenarios enabled modelling of estimated average salt intake to within recommendations: 1) 67% reduction in sodium content of bread and discretionary salt intake, 2) 38% reduction in sodium content of all processed foods, 3) 30% reduction in sodium content of all processed foods and discretionary salt intake. In all scenarios, simulated average iodine intakes remained within recommendations.",
"The distribution of neonatal blood thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) concentrations has been used as an index reflecting population dietary iodine intake, with higher concentrations being indicative of lower iodine intake. We examined this distribution in neonates born in Ireland, where the pregnant population has shown a recent decline in urinary iodine (UI) excretion. Our objectives were to determine if any alteration was observed in the percentage of values>5.0 mIU/L and whether a trend in neonatal blood TSH was apparent. Samples drawn from the National Neonatal Screening Programme were assessed during the years 1995-2006 from winter (January n = 35,079) and summer (August n = 37,940) months, respectively, in view of the known seasonal variation in Irish dietary iodine intake. Apart from the first years studied (1995-1996), the proportion of individual blood TSH values>5.0 mIU/L did not exceed 3%, a value believed to be indicative of iodine deficiency. A significant declining trend in the proportion of blood TSH>5.0 mIU/L was observed in subsequent years (p<0.01). While excluding severe iodine deficiency, these analyses failed to detect the slight but highly significant (p<0.001) tendency toward increasing blood TSH within the 0-5.0 mIU/L interval in the study population between 1999 and 2006, which was greater in summer than in winter months (p<0.001).",
"Iodine deficiency disorders have been known to mankind since antiquity and various researchers elucidated the role of iodine in its causation. However, recent evidence shows that the entire control program ignored multi-causality and association of increased iodine intake with hypothyroidism. This study was conducted to assess differences of iodine intake as measured by urinary iodine excretion (UIE) between cases of hypothyroidism and healthy controls. A case-control study was conducted with three groups (cases, hospital controls and community controls) in two cities of India. Patients with overt hypothyroidism were cases (n = 150) and were compared with age, sex and socioeconomic status-matched hospital (n = 154) and community (n = 488) controls. Thyroid function tests (T3, T4, TSH) were used as diagnostic and inclusion criteria. TPOAb and UIE estimation were carried out for all study participants. Mean values of TPOAb and UIE were higher in cases as compared to hospital controls as well as community controls (p <0.05). With a cut off of 34 IU/mL for TPOAb, more cases had an anti-TPO level>34 as compared to hospital controls (p <0.001) as well as community controls (p <0.001); OR, 0.06 (95% CI, 0.03, 0.12) and 0.08 (0.05, 0.12), respectively. For UIE cut-off of 300 μg/L, more cases than hospital controls (p = 0.090) and community controls (p = 0.001) had higher levels; OR, 0.671, (0.422, 1.066) and 0.509, (0.348, 0.744), respectively.",
"Iodine is a micronutrient essential for thyroid hormone synthesis. Thyroid hormone is critical for normal neurocognitive development in young infants, and even transient hypothyroidism can cause adverse neurodevelopmental outcomes. Both iodine deficiency and excess can cause hypothyroidism. Although iodine-induced hypothyroidism is well recognized in premature infants, full-term neonates have received less attention. Infants with congenital heart disease (CHD) are commonly exposed to excess iodine from administration of iodinated contrast agents during cardiac catheterization as well as topical application of iodine-containing antiseptics and dressings; hence, this is a vulnerable population. We report three cases of iodine-induced hypothyroidism in full-term neonates with CHD after cardiac angiography and topical application of iodine-containing antiseptics and dressings in the operative setting. Three neonates with CHD and normal thyroid function at birth developed hypothyroidism after exposure to excess iodine. Two of these infants had transient hypothyroidism, and one had severe hypothyroidism requiring ongoing thyroid replacement therapy. All infants were asymptomatic, with hypothyroidism detected incidentally in the inpatient setting due to repeat newborn screening mandated by the long duration of hospitalization in these infants.",
"The pregnant women surveyed were mildly iodine deficient. TSH values for their newborns were mostly within acceptable limits. Ongoing surveillance of the iodine status of NSW communities to establish trends over time is recommended.",
"Iodine is an essential micronutrient for normal human growth and development. It is estimated that more than 1.6 billion people live in iodine-deficient environments, yet there are still some countries and areas where the prevalence of iodine-deficiency disorders is unknown. To establish the prevalence of iodine-deficiency disorders in the Zanzibar Islands, a community assumed to have ready access to iodine-rich seafoods. In a cross-sectional study, 11,967 schoolchildren were palpated for goiter prevalence, a subsample was evaluated for urinary iodine concentration, and the availability of iodated salt was assessed at the household and retail levels. The mean total goiter prevalence was 21.3% for Unguja and 32.0% for Pemba. The overall median urinary iodine concentration was 127.5 microg/L. For Unguja the median was 185.7 microg/L, a higher value than the median of 53.4 microg/L for Pemba (p < .01). The household availability of iodated salt was 63.5% in Unguja and 1.0% in Pemba. The community was not aware of the iodine-deficiency problem and had never heard of iodated salt.",
"Iodine is essential for the production of thyroid hormones. In pregnancy, physiological changes occur that can lead to iodine deficiency and impairment of fetal neurological development. We aimed to assess the iodine intake in pregnant women in Eastern Denmark, compare iodine levels in Eastern and Western Denmark and to identify potentially vulnerable groups. This was a cross-sectional cohort study of pregnant Danish women (n = 240). Questionnaires and urine samples were collected at the Ultrasound Clinic, Hvidovre Hospital, Denmark, and urinary iodine concentrations (UIC) (µg/l) were measured. Predictors of iodine supplement use were examined by multivariate logistic regression models. The pregnant women from Eastern Denmark had a median age of 30 years and the median gestational week at which they were included in the study was week 19. The majority took iodine-containing supplements (86%). The median UIC was 118 (interquartile range (IQR): 79-196) µg/l in iodine supplement users and 82 (IQR: 41-122) µg/l in non-users (p < 0.001). Predictors of not using iodine supplement in Eastern and Western Denmark were short maternal education, non-Danish origin and pre-pregnancy obesity.",
"This paper provides evidence of environmental iodine deficiency in the Gippsland region. Quantitative study; water samples were collected from 18 water treatment plants and four rain water tanks across Gippsland and water iodine concentrations were measured. Gippsland region of Victoria, Australia. This paper reports on the iodine concentration of drinking water from sources across Gippsland and examines the contribution of iodine from water to the Gippsland diet. This study also briefly examines the relationship between the concentration of iodine in water and distance from the sea. The cut-off value for water iodine concentrations considered to be indicative of environmental iodine deficiency is<2 µg L(-1) . The mean iodine concentration of water from 18 Gippsland water treatment plants was 0.38 µg L(-1) and would therefore make negligible difference to the dietary intake of iodine. This finding also falls well below the suggested dietary intake of iodine from water estimated by the 22nd Australian Total Diet Study. Our study found no linear relationship between the water iodine concentration and distance from the sea.",
"Severe iodine deficiency (ID) during gestation is associated with neurocognitive sequelae. The long-term impact of mild ID, however, has not been well characterized. The purpose of this study was to determine whether children born to mothers with urinary iodine concentrations (UICs) <150 μg/L during pregnancy have poorer educational outcomes in primary school than peers whose mothers did not have gestational ID (UIC ≥150 μg/L). This was a longitudinal follow-up (at 9 years old) of the Gestational Iodine Cohort. Pregnancy occurred during a period of mild ID in the population, with the children subsequently growing up in an iodine-replete environment. Participants were children whose mothers attended The Royal Hobart Hospital (Tasmania) antenatal clinics between 1999 and 2001. Australian national curriculum and Tasmanian state curriculum educational assessment data for children in year 3 were analyzed. Children whose mothers had UIC <150 μg/L had reductions of 10.0% in spelling (-41.1 points, 95% confidence interval [CI], -68.0 to -14.3, P = .003), 7.6% in grammar (-30.9 points, 95% CI, -60.2 to -1.7, P = .038), and 5.7% in English-literacy (-0.33 points, 95% CI, -0.63 to -0.03, P = .034) performance compared with children whose mothers' UICs were ≥150 μg/L. These associations remained significant after adjustment for a range of biological factors (maternal age at birth of child, gestational length at time of birth, gestational age at time of urinary iodine collection, birth weight, and sex). Differences in spelling remained significant after further adjustment for socioeconomic factors (maternal occupation and education).",
"yes. Dramatic iodine deficiency was found in our cohort of CF patients. This condition can cause subclinical hypothyroidism; therefore, an individual iodine supplementation program is necessary and should be started immediately.",
"Salt intakes of the remote Indigenous Australian population are far above recommendations, likely contributing to the high prevalence of hypertension and cardiovascular mortality experienced by this population. Salt-reduction strategies could considerably reduce salt intake in this population without increasing risk of iodine deficiency at the population-level. These data add to the global evidence informing salt-reduction strategies and the evidence that these strategies can be synergistically implemented with iodine deficiency elimination programmes.",
"To assess iodine status in four separate groups--pregnant women, postpartum women, patients with diabetes mellitus and volunteers. Prospective cross-sectional study at a tertiary referral hospital in Sydney. 81 pregnant women attending a \"high risk\" obstetric clinic; 26 of these same women who attended three months postpartum; 135 consecutive patients with diabetes mellitus attending the diabetes clinic for an annual complications screen; and 19 volunteers. There were no exclusion criteria. Spot urine samples were obtained, and urinary iodine was measured by inductively coupled plasma mass spectrometer. Iodine status based on urinary iodine concentration categorised as normal (>100 micrograms/L), mild deficiency (51-100 micrograms/L) and moderate to severe deficiency (<50 micrograms/L). Moderate to severe iodine deficiency was found in 16 pregnant women (19.8%), five postpartum women (19.2%), 46 patients with diabetes (34.1%) and five volunteers (26.3%). Mild iodine deficiency was found in an additional 24 pregnant women (29.6%), nine postpartum women (34.6%), 51 patients with diabetes (37.8%) and 9 normal volunteers (47.4%). Median urinary iodine concentration was 104 micrograms/L in pregnant women, 79 micrograms/L in postpartum women, 65 micrograms/L in patients with diabetes mellitus and 64 micrograms/L in volunteers.",
"As Gippsland has environmental iodine deficiency there is a greater probability that people living in this region are at higher risk of dietary iodine deficiency than those living in environmentally iodine sufficient regions. Populations living in areas known to have environmental iodine deficiency should be monitored regularly to ensure that problems of iodine deficiency, especially amongst the most vulnerable, are addressed promptly.",
"To assess iodine status and the factors that influence iodine status among a cohort of pregnant women living in Gippsland. Cross-sectional study of 86 pregnant women (at ≥ 28 weeks' gestation) conducted in hospital antenatal care services and private obstetrician clinics across the Gippsland region of Victoria, Australia, from 13 January 2009 to 17 February 2010. Overall proportion of pregnant women with a urinary iodine concentration (UIC)>150 μg/L; proportion of pregnant women with a UIC>150 μg/L after the mandatory iodine fortification of bread; use of supplements containing iodine; intake of foods known to be good sources of iodine; intake of bread. The percentage of pregnant women with UIC>150 μg/L (indicative of iodine sufficiency) was 28%. There was no statistically significant difference in UICs before and since iodine fortification of bread. The median UIC before fortification was 96 μg/L (interquartile range [IQR], 45-153 μg/L) and since fortification was 95.5 μg/L (IQR, 60-156 μg/L). The dietary intake of iodine-rich food (including bread) and the use of appropriate supplements was insufficient to meet the increased iodine requirements during pregnancy.",
"yes. Public health strategies, including nutritional education and supplementation, are urgently required to improve the iodine status of pregnant women. Currently, no readily accessible information on iodine is available to women attending antenatal clinics in Australia.",
"To assess the iodine status and knowledge and practices related to iodine nutrition of Australian women during pregnancy. A cross-sectional study was conducted at a public antenatal clinic in the Illawarra region of New South Wales. One hundred thirty-nine pregnant women across all trimesters provided a spot urine sample (n = 110) and completed a short questionnaire (n = 139) in English. Iodine status was based on World Health Organization/International Committee for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders urine iodine concentration (UIC) categories. Median UIC was 87.5 μg/L (interquartile range 62); only 14.5% of participants had an adequate UIC value ≥150 μg/L. Fifteen percent of women had very low UIC values (<50 μg/L), whereas 45.5% had values in the 50- to 99-μg/L range. Knowledge of the adverse health effects of an inadequate iodine intake was poor. Approximately half the participants were able to indicate good dietary sources of iodine, such as fish (58%) and iodized salt (51%). However, a high level of confusion regarding other foods was evident. Only a small number of participants (11%) reported that they had intentionally changed their diet to increase iodine intake during pregnancy, but 59% indicated supplement use, of which 35% contained iodine. Those who were taking supplements that contained iodine had significantly higher UIC levels (139.1 μg/L) than those who were not (90.8 μg/L, P < 0.05).",
"Our results confirm the existence of inadequate iodine intake in the Australian population, and we call for the urgent implementation of mandatory iodisation of all edible salt in Australia.",
"Our results suggest that the population of northern Sydney may have mild iodine deficiency. However, the expected relationship between maternal urine iodine levels and neonatal TSH concentrations was not found.",
"To document the population iodine nutritional status in Australian schoolchildren. Cross-sectional survey of schoolchildren aged 8-10 years, based on a one-stage random cluster sample drawn from all Year 4 school classes in government and non-government schools in the five mainland Australian states of New South Wales, Victoria, South Australia, Western Australia and Queensland. The study was conducted between July 2003 and December 2004. 1709 students from 88 schools (881 boys and 828 girls), representing 85% of the estimated target number of students. The class participation rate was 65%. (i) Urinary iodine excretion (UIE) levels (compared with the criteria for the severity of iodine deficiency of the World Health Organization/International Council for the Control of Iodine Deficiency Disorders: iodine replete, UIE>or = 100 microg/L; mild iodine deficiency, UIE 50-99 microg/L; moderate iodine deficiency, UIE 20-49 microg/L; severe iodine deficiency, UIE<20 microg/L); (ii) Thyroid volumes measured by ultrasound (compared with new international reference values). Overall, children in mainland Australia are borderline iodine deficient, with a national median UIE of 104 microg/L. On a state basis, NSW and Victorian children are mildly iodine deficient, with median UIE levels of 89 microg/L and 73.5 microg/L, respectively. South Australian children are borderline iodine deficient, with a median UIE of 101 microg/L. Both Queensland and Western Australian children are iodine sufficient, with median UIE levels of 136.5 microg/L and 142.5 microg/L, respectively. Thyroid volumes in Australian schoolchildren are marginally increased compared with international normative data obtained from children living in iodine sufficient countries. There was no significant association between UIE and thyroid volume."
] | 373 |
Co-infection with malaria and HIV in injecting drug users in Brazil: a new challenge to public health? | [
"To describe AIDS and malaria geography in Brazil, highlighting the role of injecting drug users (IDUs) in malaria outbreaks occurring in malaria-free regions, and the potential clinical and public health implications of malaria/HIV co-infection. Review of the available literature and original analyses using geoprocessing and spatial analysis techniques. Both HIV/AIDS and malaria distribution are currently undergoing profound changes in Brazil, with mutual expansion to intersecting geographical regions and social networks. Very recent reports describe the first clinical case of AIDS in a remote Amazonian ethnic group, as well as malaria cases in Rio de Janeiro state (hitherto a malaria-free area for 20 years); in addition, two outbreaks of both infections occurred at the beginning of the 1990s in the most industrialized Brazilian state (São Paulo), due to the sharing of needles and syringes by drug users. Spatial data point to: (a) the expansion of HIV/AIDS towards malarigenic areas located in the centre-west and north of Brazil, along the main cocaine trafficking routes, with IDU networks apparently playing a core role; and (b) the possibility of new outbreaks of secondary malaria in urban settings where HIV/AIDS is still expanding, through the sharing of needles and syringes.",
"New outbreaks of cases of HIV and malaria are likely to occur among Brazilian IDUs, and might conceivably contribute to the development of treatment-resistant strains of malaria in this population. Health professionals should be alert to this possibility, which could also eventually occur in IDU networks in developed countries."
] | [
"Among prospective cohorts of people who inject drugs (PWID), phylogenetic clustering of HCV infection has been observed. However, the majority of studies have included older PWID, representing distant transmission events. The aim of this study was to investigate phylogenetic clustering of HCV infection among a cohort of street-involved youth. Data were derived from a prospective cohort of street-involved youth aged 14-26 recruited between 2005 and 2012 in Vancouver, Canada (At Risk Youth Study, ARYS). HCV RNA testing and sequencing (Core-E2) were performed on HCV positive participants. Phylogenetic trees were inferred using maximum likelihood methods and clusters were identified using ClusterPicker (Core-E2 without HVR1, 90% bootstrap threshold, 0.05 genetic distance threshold). Among 945 individuals enrolled in ARYS, 16% (n=149, 100% recent injectors) were HCV antibody positive at baseline interview (n=86) or seroconverted during follow-up (n=63). Among HCV antibody positive participants with available samples (n=131), 75% (n=98) had detectable HCV RNA and 66% (n=65, mean age 23, 58% with recent methamphetamine injection, 31% female, 3% HIV+) had available Core-E2 sequences. Of those with Core-E2 sequence, 14% (n=9) were in a cluster (one cluster of three) or pair (two pairs), with all reporting recent methamphetamine injection. Recent methamphetamine injection was associated with membership in a cluster or pair (P=0.009).",
"yes. A multi-host reservoir of cutaneous leishmaniasis is indicated in this region of Brazil, though with apparent differences in the competence between the rodent species. The results provide preliminary insights into links between sylvatic and peri-domestic transmission cycles associated with overlaps in the rodent species' ecological niches.",
"To describe and understand the genesis of the explosive 1988 HIV epidemic among Thai injecting drug users (IDU) in Bangkok. Two cross-sectional HIV seroprevalence sample surveys (SP-1 and SP-2) of drug users, including IDU at various stages of treatment. SP-1, a 10-week estimate of prevalence, was conducted by the Bangkok Metropolitan Administration (BMA) in their detoxification clinics from 5 January to 7 March 1988. SP-2 estimated prevalence in 1 week, 12-15 September 1988, in the same 18 BMA clinics. Both surveys included an administered questionnaire that gathered demographic and behavioral information. Analysis of HIV prevalence by clinic in both SP-1 and SP-2, and the relationships between demographic data, behavioral variables, arrest history and HIV positivity in SP-1. Data from individual clinics in SP-1 show significant increases in HIV prevalence among IDU sampled from early February 1988. Of IDU sampled in five 'early' clinics before 9 February, 2% were positive; in the 13 'late' clinics sampled from 9 February until 7 March, 27% were positive. By September 1988, however, the early and late clinics were no longer heterogeneous for HIV prevalence. For current IDU, HIV-positivity was associated with the sharing of injection equipment in SP-1 [odds ratio (OR), 1.82; 95% confidence limits (CL), 1.31-2.53] and recent jail or prison stay (OR, 2.15; 95% CL, 1.18-3.98).",
"It remains controversial how HCV coinfection influences the disease progression during HIV-1 infection. This study aims to define the influence of HCV infection on the replication of HIV-1 and the disease progression in HIV-infected former plasma donors (FPDs) naïve to ART. 168 HIV-1-infected FPDs were enrolled into a cohort study from Anhui province in central China, and thereafter monitored at month 3, 9, 15, 21 and 33. Fresh whole blood samples were used for CD4+ T-cell counting. Their plasma samples were collected and stored for quantification of HIV-1 viral loads and for determination of HCV and Toxoplasma. Out of 168 HIV-infected FBDs, 11.9% (20 cases), 80.4% (135 cases) and 7.7% (13 cases) were infected with HIV-1 alone, HIV-1/HCV and HIV/HCV/Toxoplasma, respectively. During the 33-month follow-up, only 35% (7 out of 20 cases) HIV-1 mono-infected subjects remained their CD4+ T-cell counts above 200 cells/microl and retained on the cohort study, which was significantly lower than 56% (75 out of 135 cases) for HIV/HCV group and 69% (9 out of 13 cases) for HIV/HCV/Toxoplasma group (p<0.05). CD4+ T cells in HIV mono infection group were consistently lower than that in HIV/HCV group (p = 0.04, 0.18, 0.03 and 0.04 for baseline, month 9, month 21 and month 33 visit, respectively). In accordance with those observations, HIV viral loads in HIV mono-infection group were consistently higher than that in HIV/HCV group though statistical significances were only reached at baseline (p = 0.04).",
"yes. After accounting for HCV RNA, frequent and cumulative injection cocaine abuse was associated with CRI progression and should be taken into consideration when evaluating impaired renal function in HIV-HCV coinfection.",
"There is sparse evidence that demonstrates the association between macro-environmental processes and drug-related HIV epidemics. The present study explores the relationship between economic, socio-economic, policy and structural indicators, and increases in reported HIV infections among people who inject drugs (PWID) in the European Economic Area (EEA). We used panel data (2003-2012) for 30 EEA countries. Statistical analyses included logistic regression models. The dependent variable was taking value 1 if there was an outbreak (significant increase in the national rate of HIV diagnoses in PWID) and 0 otherwise. Explanatory variables included the growth rate of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), the share of the population that is at risk for poverty, the unemployment rate, the Eurostat S80/S20 ratio, the Gini coefficient, the per capita government expenditure on health and social protection, and variables on drug control policy and drug-using population sizes. Lags of one to three years were investigated. In multivariable analyses, using two-year lagged values, we found that a 1% increase of GDP was associated with approximately 30% reduction in the odds of an HIV outbreak. In GDP-adjusted analyses with three-year lagged values, the effect of the national income inequality on the likelihood of an HIV outbreak was significant [S80/S20 Odds Ratio (OR) = 3.89; 95% Confidence Interval (CI): 1.15 to 13.13]. Generally, the multivariable analyses produced similar results across three time lags tested.",
"yes. Young adults, men who have sex with men, commercial sex workers, injecting drug users, overseas Filipino workers, and the sexual partners of people in these groups are particularly vulnerable to HIV infection. There is no guarantee that a large HIV epidemic will be avoided in the near future. Indeed, an expanding HIV epidemic is likely to be only a matter of time as the components for such an epidemic are already present in the Philippines.",
"Acute HIV-1 infection (AHI) may present with symptoms for which urgent healthcare is sought. However, little is known about healthcare seeking around the time of HIV-1 seroconversion in sub-Saharan Africa. Review of clinical, counselling, treatment and laboratory records of previously HIV-1 seronegative at-risk adults, followed at monthly or 3-monthly visits, who seroconverted and enrolled in an AHI cohort. All HIV-seronegative plasma samples were tested for p24 antigen (p24) and stored preseroconversion samples for HIV-1 RNA (RNA). Factors associated with malaria treatment while acquiring HIV-1 were evaluated in multiple logistic regression. Sixty men and 12 women (95% of 75 seroconverters) were evaluated, including 43 (60%) with either p24-positive or RNA-positive or HIV-1 discordant rapid antibodies prior to seroconversion. Prior to diagnosis, 54 patients (75%) reported fever and 50 (69%) sought urgent care for symptomatic illness, including 23 (32%) who sought care in a nonresearch setting. Twenty-nine patients (40%) received presumptive malaria treatment. Only 24% of febrile patients were tested for malaria parasites. All documented smear results were negative. Malaria treatment was strongly associated with fever [adjusted odds ratio (aOR): 46, 95% confidence interval (CI): 3-725] and nonresearch setting (aOR: 5, 95% CI: 3-64). AHI was suspected in six (12%) patients who presented for urgent care during research evaluation.",
"Drug use and in particular injecting drug use has been at the forefront of the explosive spread of HIV in general populations in many countries in Asia. There is concern that also in China increased HIV incidence in drug users might spark off a generalized epidemic in the wider population. Close monitoring of HIV incidence and risk factors in drug users is therefore important to be able to target interventions effectively. Second generation surveillance was launched to assess HIV prevalence and risk behaviours jointly with the purpose of describing trends and predicting future developments. To assess whether these goals were fulfilled among drug users in China we provide an analysis of risk factors for HIV infection and of regional differences in HIV prevalence. We analysed data collected in 2005 in 21 drug user second generation surveillance sentinel sites from 14 provinces in China. We used random effects logistic regression to test for risk factors for HIV infection and regional differences. The overall HIV-1 antibody prevalence was 5.4% (279/5128); 4.9% among injecting drug users (IDU) not sharing needles and 3.7% among non-injecting drug users. We found substantial heterogeneity among the surveillance sites with prevalence rates ranging between 0% and 54%. HIV status was strongly affected by the regional prevalence of HIV. Risk behaviours were highly prevalent in regions where HIV prevalence is still low. The distribution of duration of drug use in different sites indicated different stages of the drug use epidemics.",
"The authors report on the prevalence of, and risk factors for, hepatitis A virus (HAV) in a group of drug users in Italy. 404 heroin users were recruited and compared with a control group of 107 subjects in the general population. Drug users born in north-eastern Italy have a prevalence of anti-HAV similar to the control group. A much higher prevalence was found in drug users born in southern Italy.",
"Co-infection with malaria and HIV increases the severity and mortality of both diseases, but the cytokine responses related to this co-infection are only partially characterised. The aim of this study was to explore cytokine responses in relation to severity and mortality in malaria patients with and without HIV co-infection. This was a prospective cross-sectional study. Clinical data and blood samples were collected from adults in Mozambique. Plasma was analysed for 21 classical pro- and anti-inflammatory cytokines, including interleukins, interferons, and chemokines. We included 212 in-patients with fever and/or suspected malaria and 56 healthy controls. Falciparum malaria was diagnosed in 131 patients, of whom 70 were co-infected with HIV-1. The malaria patients had marked increases in their cytokine responses compared with the healthy controls. Some of these changes, particularly interleukin 8 (IL-8) and interferon-γ-inducing protein 10 (IP-10) were strongly associated with falciparum malaria and disease severity. Both these chemokines were markedly increased in patients with falciparum malaria as compared with healthy controls, and raised levels of IL-8 and IP-10 were associated with increased disease severity, even after adjusting for relevant confounders. For IL-8, particularly high levels were found in malaria patients that were co-infected with HIV and in those who died during hospitalization.",
"Thailand has experienced a longstanding epidemic of HIV among people who inject drugs (PWID). However, antiretroviral treatment (ART) coverage among HIV-positive PWID has historically remained low. While ongoing drug law enforcement involving periodic police crackdowns is known to increase the risk of HIV transmission among Thai PWID, the impact of such drug policy approaches on the ART uptake has been understudied. Therefore, we sought to identify factors associated with not receiving ART among HIV-positive PWID in Bangkok, Thailand, with a focus on factors pertaining to drug law enforcement. Data were collected from a community-recruited sample of HIV-positive PWID in Bangkok who participated in the Mitsampan Community Research Project between June 2009 and October 2011. We identified factors associated with not receiving ART at the time of interview using multivariate logistic regression. In total, 128 HIV-positive PWID participated in this study, with 58 (45.3%) reporting not receiving ART at the time of interview. In multivariate analyses, completing less than secondary education (adjusted odds ratio [AOR]: 3.32 ; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.48 - 7.45), daily midazolam injection (AOR: 3.22, 95% CI: 1.45 - 7.15) and exposure to compulsory drug detention (AOR: 3.36, 95% CI: 1.01 - 11.21) were independently and positively associated with not receiving ART. Accessing peer-based healthcare information or support services was independently and positively associated with receiving ART (AOR: 0.21, 95% CI: 0.05 - 0.84).",
"A growing number of veterans in the Veterans Health Administration are coinfected with HIV and hepatitis C virus. This review covers timely research relative to comorbid conditions that are common in this population including psychiatric diagnoses, substance use disorders and neurocognitive problems. Current literature on the psychiatric, substance use disorders and cognitive problems of the coinfected population show that not only are rates of morbidity higher in the coinfected population but that this affects antiviral treatments as well. There is new evidence that brain injuries and infiltration of the virus into the central nervous system may be responsible for cognitive dysfunction. Cotesting, particularly in hepatitis C infected individuals, is not done routinely despite shared risk factors.",
"Accumulating data propose that active injecting drug users might not differ from the general population in terms of sustained virological response when adherent to therapy for chronic hepatitis C. However, current guidelines contain restrictive recommendations for therapy in this group of patients. Therefore, we evaluated a cohort of chronic hepatitis C patients regarding the potent influence of active drug using on initial informed consent, compliance and sustained virological response to treatment. For that purpose, 162 consecutive patients (of which 62 active injecting drug users), who had been evaluated during the last 6 years in our center for chronic hepatitis C and proposed to receive treatment with pegylated interferon alpha and ribavirin, were enrolled. Initial informed consent, compliance, and sustained virological response as well as data regarding age, gender, body mass index, genotype, viral load, coinfection with HBV/HDV/HIV, administered interferon alpha (2a or 2b), liver function tests, liver histology, urban residence, ethnicity, and concomitant use of alcohol were collected and analyzed in respect with injecting drug using. Injecting drug using was positively correlated with male gender (P<0.001), young age (P<0.001), native origin (P = 0.043), and concomitant use of alcohol (P<0.001). Comparable initial informed consent (P = 0.836), compliance (P = 0.879), and sustained virological response (P = 0.132) were observed between injecting drug users and non- injecting drug users. The results were confirmed using a multiple regression model.",
"Plasmodium falciparum infection in pregnancy can lead to congenital malaria, which has detrimental health consequences for infants. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) might increase cord blood P. falciparum infection by decreasing maternal antimalarial-specific antibodies. HIV-negative (n=133) and HIV-positive (n=55) Mozambican pregnant women were assessed at delivery for maternal and cord P. falciparum infection by quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) and P. falciparum-specific antibodies by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and flow cytometry. Prevalence of qPCR-detected cord blood infection was 8.0%. Risk of cord infection was increased in presence of HIV (adjusted odds ratio [AOR], 3.80; P=.04) and placental malaria (AOR, 22.08; P=.002) after adjusting for clinical variables. The odds of having a high immunoglobulin G response to chondrotin sulphate A-binding infected erythrocytes, parasite lysate, and erythrocyte-binding antigen-175 were reduced among HIV-positive women (P < .001, .048, and .056, respectively) and among women with cord P. falciparum infection (P = .009, .04, and .046, respectively). In multivariate analysis including maternal HIV status, placental malaria, and antibody responses, HIV was no longer associated with cord blood infection (P = .11).",
"Injecting drug use is now recognized as a significant risk factor for HIV in sub-Saharan Africa. We evaluated prevalence and correlates of HIV among injecting drug users (IDUs) in Nigeria. A cross sectional design using respondent driven sampling was conducted in six states in 2010. Weighted HIV prevalence and injecting risk behaviors calculated using RDS analytic tool. Logistic regression was used to determine correlates of HIV infection, stratified by state. Total numbers of IDUs ranged from 197 in Lagos to 273 in Cross River and Oyo states. HIV prevalence was highest in Federal Capital Territory (FCT) at 9.3%, Kaduna 5.8%, Oyo 5.1%, Kano 4.9%, CR 3.3% and Lagos 3.0%. Although>90% of participants were male, females had higher HIV prevalence in all states surveyed except FCT (range: 7.4% in CR to 37.7% in Kano). Logistic regression showed that females were significantly more likely to be HIV positive in Kano [OR=33.2, 95% CI: 6.8-160.4], Oyo [AOR=15.9, 95% CI: 3.69-68.51], Lagos [OR=15.5, 95% CI: 2.41-99.5] and Kaduna states [AOR=19.6, 95% CI: 4.4-87.6]. For injecting risk behavior, only receptive sharing was associated with HIV [AOR=7.6, 95% CI: 1.2-48.7] and [AOR=0.2, 95% CI: 0.04-0.92]in Oyo and Kaduna states respectively.",
"HIV transmission among people who inject drugs (PWID) is high in Yunnan and Guangxi provinces in southwest China. To address this epidemic, Population Services International (PSI) and four cooperating agencies implemented a comprehensive harm reduction model delivered through community-based drop-incenters (DiC) and peer-led outreach to reduce HIV risk among PWID. We used 2012 behavioral survey data to evaluate the effectiveness of this model for achieving changes in HIV risk, including never sharing needles or syringes, always keeping a clean needle on hand, HIV testing and counseling (HTC), and consistent condom use. We used respondent-driven sampling to recruit respondents. We then used coarsened exact matching (CEM) to match respondents during analysis to improve estimation of the effects of exposure to both DiC and outreach, only DiC, and only outreach, modeled using multivariable logistic regression. We found a significant relationship between participating in both peer-led DiC-based activities and outreach and having a new needle on hand (odds ratio (OR) 1.53, p < .05) and consistent condom use (OR 3.31, p < .001). We also found a significant relationship between exposure to DiC activities and outreach and HIV testing in Kunming (OR 2.92, p < .01) and exposure to peer-led outreach and HIV testing through referrals in Gejiu, Nanning, and Luzhai (OR 3.63, p < .05).",
"An association between needle exchange attendance and higher HIV prevalence rates among injecting drug users (IDU) in Vancouver has been interpreted by some to suggest that needle exchange programmes (NEP) may exacerbate HIV spread. We investigated this observed association to determine whether needle exchange was causally associated with the spread of HIV. Prospective cohort study of 694 IDU recruited in the downtown eastside of Vancouver. Subjects were HIV-negative at the time of recruitment and had injected illicit drugs within the previous month. Of 694 subjects, the 15-month cumulative HIV incidence was significantly elevated in frequent NEP attendees (11.8+/-1.7 versus 6.2+/-1.5%; log-rank P = 0.012). Frequent attendees (one or more visits per week) were younger and were more likely to report: unstable housing and hotel living, the downtown eastside as their primary injecting site, frequent cocaine injection, sex trade involvement, injecting in 'shooting galleries', and incarceration within the previous 6 months. The Cox regression model predicted 48 seroconversions among frequent attendees; 47 were observed. Although significant proportions of subjects reported obtaining needles, swabs, water and bleach from the NEP, only five (0.7%) reported meeting new friends or people there. When asked where subjects had met their new sharing partners, only one out of 498 respondents cited the needle exchange. Paired analysis of risk variables at baseline and the first follow-up visit did not reveal any increase in risk behaviours among frequent attendees, regardless of whether they had initiated drug injection after establishment of the NEP.",
"Although HAART has led to a reduction in overall mortality among HIV-infected individuals, its impact on death from specific causes is unknown. Twenty-two cohorts of HIV-infected individuals with known dates of seroconversion are pooled in the CASCADE collaboration. Causes of death (COD) were categorized into three AIDS-related and seven non-AIDS-related causes. The unknown causes were assigned a separate category. The cumulative incidence for each COD was calculated in the presence of the other competing COD, for the pre-HAART and HAART eras. A multivariate regression analyses for the cumulative rate of progression to the different COD was performed. A total of 1938 of 7680 HIV-seroconverters died. Pre-HAART, AIDS opportunistic infections (OI) was the most common COD, followed by unknown and HIV/AIDS-unspecified. In the HAART era, the cumulative incidence for all AIDS-related COD decreased, OI remaining the most important. Large reductions in death due to other infections and organ failure were seen. Cumulative death risk decreased in the HAART era for most causes. The effect of HAART was not the same for all risk groups. The cumulative risk of death from AIDS-related malignancies, OI and non-AIDS-related malignancies decreased significantly among homosexual men (MSM), whereas the risk of dying from (un)-intentional death increased significantly among injecting drug users (IDU). A non-significant increase in hepatitis/liver-related death was seen in MSM, IDU and haemophiliacs.",
"China has experienced an epidemic of amphetamine-type stimulant (ATS) use in recent years. The present study explored the status and correlates of HIV and hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection among ATS users in China. A multicenter cross-sectional study of HIV and HCV status and associated behaviors among ATS users was conducted in 6 provinces from September 2009 to December 2010. Socioeconomic/behavioral risk factors were measured. Blood samples were collected to test for HIV and HCV antibodies. Of the 1327 ATS users, the prevalence of HIV and exposure to HCV were 4.5% and 43.5%, respectively, with large geographic variations (0%-20.3% and 8.6%-67.1%, respectively). HIV infection was independently associated with living in Yunnan province [adjusted odds ratio = 15.8; 95% confidence interval (CI): 2.0 to 125.1), polydrug use (adjusted odds ratio = 2.6; 95% CI: 1.3 to 5.4), increased frequency of sexual behavior (adjusted odds ratio = 2.0; 95% CI: 1.1 to 4.1), history of sex with sexually transmitted infection-positive persons (adjusted odds ratio = 11.4; 95% CI: 1.3 to 98.9), and HCV infection (adjusted odds ratio = 2.8; 95% CI: 1.2 to 6.7). HCV was associated with study site, marital status, unemployment (adjusted odds ratio = 1.8; 95% CI: 1.3 to 2.4), a longer duration of ATS use, and history of injection use of ATS (adjusted odds ratio = 13.3; 95% CI: 1.5 to 116.1).",
"This study indicated that the SIF attracted IDUs who have been shown to be at elevated risk of blood-borne disease infection and overdose, and IDUs who were contributing to the public drug use problem and unsafe syringe disposal problems stemming from public injection drug use.",
"People who inject drugs (PWID) are at risk of hepatitis C virus (HCV). It is plausible that PWID who receive a diagnosis of HCV will reduce their injecting risk out of concern for their injecting partners, although evidence for this is currently limited. The aim of this study was to investigate whether informing PWID of their HCV diagnosis was associated with a change in injecting behaviour. Prospective, longitudinal study of PWID recruited from street drug markets across Melbourne, Australia. Interviews and HCV testing were conducted at 3-monthly intervals. The association between receiving a diagnosis of HCV and (i) injecting frequency and (ii) injecting equipment borrowing, was examined using generalized estimating equations (GEE) analysis. Thirty-five individuals received a diagnosis of HCV during the study period. Receiving a diagnosis of HCV was associated with a decrease of 0.35 injections per month (p=0.046) but there was no change in injecting equipment borrowing (p=0.750).",
"To examine the influence of knowledge of HIV serostatus on changes in risk behaviors among injecting drug users (IDU). IDU were recruited through sampling conducted at street drug-selling areas. Of 374 participants, 88.8% consented to be HIV tested and returned for their test results, and 73.5% were relocated and interviewed 6 months later. Of the 176 IDU who reported a seronegative test result prior to baseline, 29 tested seropositive at baseline. No significant differences were found between HIV-positive and HIV-negative IDU in needle risk behaviors. HIV-positive IDU were significantly less likely to report being sexually active [odds ratio (OR), 0.41 : 95% confidence interval (CI), 0.22-0.75] and more likely to use condoms during vaginal (OR, 4.43; 95% CI, 1.48-13.29) and oral sex (OR, 6.67; 95% CI, 1.42-31.33).",
"To identify violent situations in the daily life of adolescents and young people of low-income communities; to establish a relation between the use of drugs and STD/AIDS risk behavior; and to verify if violence in the emotional relationships between adolescents and young people make the STD/AIDS prevention more difficult. Epidemiological study with adolescents and young people of two neighborhoods in the city of Rio de Janeiro, based on the results obtained from a structured questionnaire that dealt with subjects' profile, information about the family, use of drugs, daily violent situations, sexual experience, among others. For the present article, only the variables that dealt with aggressiveness, use of drugs, sexual risk behavior and violence in the emotional relationships were analyzed. The association between the variable \"I used a condom the last time I had sex\" and the questions that indicated violent or non-violent attitudes in emotional relationships received special attention. A total of 1,041 young people aged 14-22 years old took part in the study, 53.6% of them were female. A statistically significant relation was observed between not using condoms (p<0.05) and the categorical variables revealing aggressiveness in emotional relations.",
"Despite dramatic improvement in antiretroviral therapy (ART) access globally, people living with HIV who inject drugs continue to face barriers that limit their access to treatment. This paper explores barriers and facilitators to ART initiation among clients attending a methadone clinic in Dar es Salaam, Tanzania. We interviewed 12 providers and 20 clients living with HIV at the Muhimbili National Hospital methadone clinic between January and February 2015. We purposively sampled clients based on sex and ART status and providers based on job function. To analyze interview transcripts, we adopted a content analysis approach. Participants identified several factors that hindered timely ART initiation for clients at the methadone clinic. These included delays in CD4 testing and receiving CD4 test results; off-site HIV clinics; stigma operating at the individual, social and institutional levels; insufficient knowledge of the benefits of early ART initiation among clients; treatment breakdown at the clinic level possibly due to limited staff; and initiating ART only once one feels physically ill. Participants perceived social support as a buffer against stigma and facilitator of HIV treatment. Some clients also reported that persistent monitoring and follow-up on their HIV care and treatment by methadone clinic providers led them to initiate ART.",
"yes. A novel bivalent compound reveals fundamental differences in CCR5-MOR interactions and HIV-1 infectivity among glia, and has unique therapeutic potential in opiate abuse-HIV interactive comorbidity.",
"Dengue and malaria are two major arthropod-borne infections in tropical areas, but dual infections were only described for the first time in 2005. Reports of these concomitant infections are scarce and there is no evidence of more severe clinical and biological pictures than single infections. To compare co-infections to dengue alone and malaria alone, a retrospective matched-pair study was conducted between 2004 and 2010 among patients admitted in the emergency department of Cayenne hospital, French Guiana. 104 dengue and malaria co-infection cases were identified during the study period and 208 individuals were matched in two comparison groups: dengue alone and malaria alone. In bivariate analysis, co-infection clinical picture was more severe than separated infections, in particular using the severe malaria WHO criteria. In multivariate analysis, independent factors associated with co-infection versus dengue were: masculine gender, CRP level>50 mg/L, thrombocytopaenia<50 109/L, and low haematocrit<36% and independent factors significantly associated with co-infections versus malaria were red cells transfusion, low haematocrit<36%, thrombocytopaenia<50 109/L and low Plasmodium parasitic load<0.001%.",
"yes. Our findings reveal that B19V-infection is frequent in Gabonese children with P. falciparum malaria and signifies a possible contribution of B19V on the clinical course of malaria in a genotype-dependent manner. B19V co-infection should be considered as a additional diagnostic measure in malaria patients with life threatening anemia.",
"The study indicates the probable presence of endemic, unstable and low-intensity malaria transmission in Colombian urban and peri-urban areas of a group of municipalities located mainly on the Pacific coast region and a few others in the eastern region. There is a need to unequivocally confirm the urban or peri-urban origin of the malaria cases reported and the transmission conditions, as well as to develop and implement new strategies for urban and peri-urban malaria control and elimination.",
"To describe epidemiological trends in injecting and equipment sharing among a sample drawn from a drug-using population with a high rate of HIV infection. A structured interview was administered prior to treatment to cross-sectional samples of drug users over the period 1988-1991. Reports of injecting, sharing and HIV infection were compared annually. Lothian Health Board's Community Drug Problems Service is a secondary level service offering harm reduction and treatment of dependency. A total of 734 consecutively referred drug users resident in Edinburgh. Re-referrals in the same calendar year were excluded. History of injecting and sharing, recent injecting and sharing, HIV testing history, drugs used in previous month and substitute prescription status. Large reductions in the frequency of injecting were found over the 4 years even among those who were not receiving oral substitutes. More participants in latter years were receiving prescriptions combining opioids and benzodiazepines. Fewer of those interviewed latterly had ever shared injecting equipment. Among recent injectors just as many share equipment as previously. HIV prevalence did not vary significantly over the period. An HIV prevalence of 19% was reported among recent injectors.",
"Cocaine abuse is a serious and socially damaging illegal drug problem. Different routes of administration are associated with a specific progression of use, different degrees of abuse liability, propensity for dependence and treatment response. There have been relatively few studies comparing different cocaine users groups and no studies into the characterization of the group of individuals reporting concurrent use of powder cocaine and crack cocaine. Six hundred and ninety-nine cocaine users were assessed during the period August 1997 to October 1998 in one outpatient and six inpatient clinics located in the São Paulo, Brazil. Patients were interviewed using a structured questionnaire schedule in Portuguese, designed specifically for the Brazilian population. The statistical analyses were performed using either ANOVA or a chi-squared test and focusing on their preferred form of use/route of administration and other variables. For 83% of the variables tested in this study, the Dual Users subgroup (using both powder and crack cocaine) demonstrated statistical differences from the single drug user subgroups. Those differences include the initiation of cocaine, the abuse of other illicit drugs, and rates of criminal history.",
"yes. In malaria-negative women, maternal HIV-1 disease severity was significantly associated with increased prevalence of LBW and PTD. Such an association was not found in the malaria-infected women.",
"To describe beliefs about remaining HIV-seronegative in injecting drug users in two high-seroprevalence cities, and to consider implications of these beliefs for ongoing risk reduction efforts and for HIV vaccine efficacy trials. Cross-sectional survey with open- and closed-ended questions. 58 HIV-seronegative injecting drug users participating in HIV vaccine preparation cohort studies in New York City, New York, U.S.A., and Bangkok, Thailand. Large majorities of subjects in Bangkok (90%) and in New York (89%) believed their \"own efforts\" to practice safer injection methods and safer sex were very important in avoiding HIV infection. More Bangkok subjects (30%) believed that they would \"probably\" become infected with HIV in the future than New York subjects (4%). Three percent of Bangkok subjects and 70% of New York subjects believed \"having an immune system strong enough to avoid becoming infected with HIV despite exposure to the virus\" was very important in avoiding HIV infection. This belief in New York subjects was associated with having previously engaged in high-risk behaviors (i.e., sharing injection equipment, unprotected sex, or both) with partners known to be HIV-seropositive.",
"People who inject drugs (PWID) experience poor outcomes and fuel HIV epidemics in middle-income countries in Eastern Europe and Central Asia. We assess integrated/co-located (ICL) healthcare for HIV-infected PWID, which despite international recommendations, is neither widely available nor empirically examined. A 2010 cross-sectional study randomly sampled 296 HIV-infected opioid-dependent PWID from two representative HIV-endemic regions in Ukraine where ICL, non-co-located (NCL) and harm reduction/outreach (HRO) settings are available. ICL settings provide onsite HIV, addiction, and tuberculosis services, NCLs only treat addiction, and HROs provide counseling, needles/syringes, and referrals, but no opioid substitution therapy (OST). The primary outcome was receipt of quality healthcare, measured using a quality healthcare indicator (QHI) composite score representing percentage of eight guidelines-based recommended indicators met for HIV, addiction and tuberculosis treatment. The secondary outcomes were individual QHIs and health-related quality-of-life (HRQoL). On average, ICL-participants had significantly higher QHI composite scores compared to NCL- and HRO-participants (71.9% versus 54.8% versus 37.0%, p<0.001) even after controlling for potential confounders. Compared to NCL-participants, ICL-participants were significantly more likely to receive antiretroviral therapy (49.5% versus 19.2%, p<0.001), especially if CD4 ≤ 200 (93.8% versus 62.5% p<0.05); guideline-recommended OST dosage (57.3% versus 41.4%, p<0.05); and isoniazid preventive therapy (42.3% versus 11.2%, p<0.001). Subjects receiving OST had significantly higher HRQoL than those not receiving it (p<0.001); however, HRQoL did not differ significantly between ICL- and NCL-participants.",
"Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients followed in a large cohort in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. To evaluate the association of tuberculosis (TB) and other covariables with non-TB-related (NTR) causes of death (CODs). Patients aged >18 years were followed from 1997 to 2009, until death or 31 December 2009, whichever was earlier. CODs were ascertained using a standardised algorithm. TB diagnosis and prophylaxis followed Brazilian guidelines. Poisson models were used to calculate adjusted rate ratios (aRRs). Of 2887 patients included in the study, 761 had TB (26.4%). NTR death rates were twice as high among patients with TB (4/100 vs. 2.09/100 patient-years). TB was associated with NTR deaths (aRR 1.4, 95%CI 1.05-1.86, P = 0.01). Highly active antiretroviral treatment (HAART) was protective against NTR (aRR 0.46, 95%CI 0.34-0.61, P < 0.001). Among patients who had never had active TB, prophylaxis was also protective against NTR (aRR 0.45, P = 0.04). The CD4 cell count increase was very modest for both TB and NTR CODs compared to those who did not die (0 vs. 249 cells, P < 0.001).",
"yes. Both clinical and LF progression in HIV/HCV-coinfected patients depend strongly on immune status. Intravenous drug users and patients with high γGT (a possible proxy for alcohol abuse) are most-at-risk for both outcomes, as well those who had prolonged exposures to the NRTI class. Therefore, these patients should be prioritized for the access to anti-HCV therapy and a test-and-treat strategy should be implemented for early initiation of cART. Possible benefits of NRTI sparing regimens in HIV/HCV-coinfected patients should be investigated.",
"To examine the putative protective effect of HIV-2 infection against subsequent HIV-1 infection. Retrospective analysis of data from two cross-sectional surveys in the same community. Two surveys between 1989 and 1998 in a rural area in northwestern Guinea-Bissau provided data from residents aged 15-59 years. HIV testing was done in the first survey. In the second survey, tests were made for both HIV and syphilis, and data on sociodemographic factors and sexual behaviour, including commercial sex work, were gathered. Qualitative polymerase chain reaction amplification of HIV-1 and HIV-2 viral DNA was performed on serologically dually reactive samples. Of the 2276 eligible adult villagers initially tested, 60% (1360) provided a second sample. Of 110 HIV-2-infected subjects, 17 became additionally infected with HIV-1 [incidence rate (IR), 26.3/1000 person-years observation]. Of the 1250 HIV-seronegative subjects, 24 became infected with HIV-1 (IR, 2.8/1000 person-years observation). The incidence rate ratio (IRR), comparing the incidence rate in HIV-2-infected people with the rate in HIV-seronegative subjects, was > 1 in all three \"risk groups\": men, female commercial sex workers, and other women. The overall estimate of the IRR, adjusted for age group and risk group, was 3.24 (confidence interval, 1.5-7.1).",
"An intercountry cross-sectional study. Setting Buenos Aires and Montevideo metropolitan areas. A total of 871 NICUs. NICUs were interviewed and their blood was drawn and used for HCV, HIV, HBV surface antigen (HbsAg), HB-anticore and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VRDL) antibody assays. Bivariate and multivariate logistic regression analyses included comparisons of HCV and HIV mono-infected participants with HCV-HIV seronegatives. Prevalence rates were 8.8 [95% confidence interval (CI): 6.9-10.8) for HCV and 7.9 (95% CI: 6.1-9.7) for HIV. HCV-infected NICUs were twice as likely as HCV-HIV seronegatives to have shared straws for cocaine snorting or sniffing, even when adjusted for other variables. HCV prevalence rates ranged from 3.6% among NICUs who denied sharing straws and having had an injection drug user (IDU) or an HIV-positive sexual partner to 12.6% among participants who reported ever having shared straws or having had either an IDU- or HIV-positive sexual partner (χ(2) (trend) = 6.56, P = 0.01).",
"yes. Our results show that traditional cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk factors are the major players in determining increased cIMT among HIV infected patients in Brazil. This finding reinforces the need for thorough assessment of those risk factors in these patients to guarantee the incidence of CVD events remain under control.",
"To determine if HIV treatment-related attitudes are associated with unprotected sex and needle sharing among HIV-seropositive and -seronegative injecting drug users (IDU) in Baltimore, Maryland. IDU participating in a cohort study seen between December 2000 and July 2001 completed an interviewer-administered questionnaire on attitudes toward HIV treatment and risk behaviors (593 HIV-seronegative, 338 HIV-seropositive), including: perceived HIV transmissibility through unprotected sex and needle sharing, and safer sex and injection fatigue. Logistic regression was used to examine the role of attitudinal factors on needle sharing and unsafe sex. Almost two-thirds of sexually active participants engaged in unprotected sex and approximately half of those injecting drugs shared needles. Among HIV-seropositive IDU, perception of reduced HIV transmissibility through unprotected sex was significantly associated with unprotected sex [adjusted odds ratio (AOR), 3.33; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.05-10.55). Safer injection fatigue was independently associated with needle sharing among HIV-seropositive IDU (AOR, 6.55; 95% CI, 1.69-25.39). Among HIV-seronegative IDU, safer sex fatigue and safer injection fatigue were independently associated with unprotected sex (AOR, 3.12; 95% CI, 1.17-8.35) and needle sharing (AOR, 5.15; 95% CI, 2.33-11.37), respectively.",
"Substantial sexual HIV transmission may occur in many IDU populations; HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence could signify its importance.",
"Co-infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and hepatitis B virus (HBV) may lead to accelerated hepatic disease progression with higher rates of liver cirrhosis and liver-related mortality compared with HBV mono-infection. Co or super-infection with hepatitis Delta virus (HDV) may worsen the liver disease and complicate treatment possibilities. In this cross-sectional study we included HIV-infected individuals who had a routine blood analysis performed at an HIV clinic in Bissau, Guinea-Bissau between the 28th of April and 30th of September 2011. All patients were interviewed, had a clinical exam performed and had a blood sample stored. The patients' samples were tested for HBV and HDV serology, and HBV/HDV viral loads were analyzed using in-house real-time PCR methods. In total, 576 patients (417 HIV-1, 104 HIV-2 and 55 HIV-1/2) were included in this study. Ninety-four (16.3%) patients were HBsAg positive of whom 16 (17.0%) were HBeAg positive. In multivariable logistic regression analysis, CD4 cell count <200 cells/µl and animist religion were significantly associated with HBsAg positivity. Due to scarcity of available plasma, virological analyses were not performed for eight patients. HBV DNA was detected in 42 of 86 samples (48.8%) positive for HBsAg and genotyping was performed in 26 patients; 25 of whom had genotype E and one genotype D. Among 9 patients on antiretroviral treatment (ART), one patient had the [L180M, M204V] mutation associated with lamivudine resistance. Among the HBsAg positive patients 25.0% were also positive for anti-HDV and 4/9 (44.4%) had detectable HDV RNA.",
"Injection drug users (IDUs) are at risk of acquiring HIV through injection and sexual practices. We analyzed data collected in five U.S. cities between 2002 and 2004 to identify correlates of HIV infection among 3285 IDUs ages 15-30 years. Overall, HIV prevalence was 2.8% (95% CI 2.3-3.4), ranging from 0.8% in Chicago to 6.3% in Los Angeles. Mean age was 24 years, 70% were male, 64% non-Hispanic (NH) white, 7% NH black, 17% Hispanic, and 12% were other/mixed race. HIV infection was independently associated with: race/ethnicity (NH black [AOR 4.1, 95% CI 1.9-9.1], Hispanic [AOR 3.6, 95% CI 1.5-8.4], or other/mixed [AOR 2.3, 95% CI 1.1-5.2] vs. NH white); males who only had sex with males compared to males who only had sex with females (AOR 15.3, 95% CI 6.8-34.5); injecting methamphetamine alone or with heroin compared to heroin only (AOR 4.0, 95% CI 1.7-9.7); reporting inconsistent means of obtaining income compared to regular jobs (AOR 2.3, 95% CI 1.1-4.8); and having a history of exchanging sex for money/drugs (AOR 2.8, 95% CI 1.5-5.2).",
"HIV infection is prevalent among substance abusers. The effects of specific illicit drugs on HIV disease progression have not been established. We evaluated the relationship between substances of abuse and HIV disease progression in a cohort of HIV-1-positive active drug users. A prospective, 30-month, longitudinal study was conducted on 222 HIV-1 seropositive drug users in Miami, FL. History of illicit drug, alcohol, and medication use, CD4+ cell count, and viral load were performed every 6 months. Crack-cocaine users were 2.14 times [95% confidence interval (CI): 1.08 to 4.25, P = 0.029] more likely to present a decline of CD4 to <or=200 cells/mL, independent of antiretroviral use. Viral load over 30 months was significantly higher in crack users (beta = 0.315, P = 0.037) independent of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) over time. The only multidrug combination that significantly increased the risk of disease progression was crack cocaine with marijuana (hazard ratio = 2.42; 95% CI: 1.042 to 5.617, P = 0.04). Of those on HAART, a significantly lower proportion of crack-cocaine users versus nonusers had controlled viral load (P < 0.001), suggesting lower medication adherence, whereas crack-cocaine users not on HAART showed a greater risk for HIV disease progression than nonusers (hazard ratio = 3.946; 95% CI: 1.049 to 14.85, P = 0.042).",
"Knowledge of infection is essential for human immunodeficiency virus-type 1 (HIV-1) treatment initiation and epidemic control. This study evaluates infection knowledge among infected injection drug users and acceptance of confidential testing among injection drug users, particularly those infected with HIV-1. A total of 810 injection drug users entering treatment in Contra Costa County, Calif, were examined. Clients were tested with unlinked (blinded) tests and simultaneously counseled and offered voluntary confidential HIV-1 antibody testing. Data on confidential testing acceptance, previous testing, drug use, and demographic information were collected. Of the 810 tested, 105 (13.0%) were infected. The current confidential test was accepted by 507 (62.6%). HIV seroprevalence in the unlinked survey was four times greater than in the voluntary survey (13% and 3.5%, respectively). HIV-1 infection was associated with refusal of a confidential test largely because most infected injection drug users (n = 58; 55.2%) already knew of their infection. Of the 47 injection drug users who were not aware of their infection, 12 (25.5%) accepted the test. Although African-American injection drug users presented with a higher infection rate (37.3%), they were three times less likely to know of their infection.",
"Here, we aimed to gain a comprehensive picture of the HIV-1 diversity in the northeast and southeast part of Brazil. To this end, a high-throughput sequencing-by-synthesis protocol and instrument were used to characterize the near full length (NFLG) and partial HIV-1 proviral genome in 259 HIV-1 infected blood donors at four major blood centers in Brazil: Pro-Sangue foundation (São Paulo state (SP), n 51), Hemominas foundation (Minas Gerais state (MG), n 41), Hemope foundation (Recife state (PE), n 96) and Hemorio blood bank (Rio de Janeiro (RJ), n 70). A total of 259 blood samples were obtained from 195 donors with long-standing infections and 64 donors with a lack of stage information. DNA was extracted from the peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) to amplify the HIV-1 NFLGs from five overlapping fragments. The amplicons were molecularly bar-coded, pooled, and sequenced by Illumina paired-end protocol. Of the 259 samples studied, 208 (80%) NFLGs and 49 (18.8%) partial fragments were de novo assembled into contiguous sequences and successfully subtyped. Of these 257 samples, 183 (71.2%) were pure subtypes consisting of clade B (n = 167, 65%), C (n = 10, 3.9%), F1 (n = 4, 1.5%), and D (n = 2, 0.7%). Recombinant viruses were detected in 74 (28.8%) samples and consist of unique BF1 (n = 41, 15.9%), BC (n = 7, 2.7%), BCF1 (n = 4, 1.5%), CF1 and CDK (n = 1, 0.4%, each), CRF70_BF1 (n = 4, 1.5%), CRF71_BF1 (n = 12, 4.7%), and CRF72_BF1 (n = 4, 1.5%). Evidence of dual infection was detected in four patients coinfected with the same subtype (n = 3) and distinct subtype (n = 1).",
"yes. The interaction between HIV serostatus and recent illicit drug use on verbal learning and memory suggests a potential synergistic neurotoxicity that may affect the neural circuitry underlying performance on these tasks.",
"Investigation of the injecting drug users (IDUs) population is becoming extremely critical and timely in light of the recent evidence that IDUs now act as the core of hepatitis C virus (HCV) epidemics in developed countries. The purpose of this article, therefore, is not only to review the epidemiology of HCV in the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, but also to see whether IDUs were adequately studied and whether harm reduction strategies to be applied for their protection have been set. A literature review was carried out of articles published within the last decade on HCV infection. The gathered data showed that the population of IDUs is severely under-investigated throughout the whole region, possibly due to religious and cultural impediments.",
"yes. More than two decades after injection and sexual practices were identified as risk factors for HIV infection, these behaviors remain common among young IDUs. While racial/ethnic disparities persist, methamphetamine may be replacing cocaine as the drug most associated with HIV seropositivity. HIV prevention interventions targeting young IDUs and address both sexual and injection practices are needed.",
"HDV infection is infrequent in the Southeast Region of Brazil, however there have been a few cases in this region. HIV/HBV patients are at potential risk for HDV infection, therefore investigations for the presence of HDV infection must be carried out in these patients.",
"To compare sociodemographic, drug-related, and sexual risk variables between young (13-24 years of age) and older (> or =25 years of age) injection drug users (IDUs); and to determine HIV prevalence and associated risk factors for HIV infection among young IDUs. Data were collected through the Vancouver Injection Drug Users Study (VIDUS). To date, over 1400 Vancouver area IDUs have been enrolled and observed during follow-up. Sociodemographic, drug-related, and sexual risk variables were compared between younger and older IDUs using nonparametric methods. Mantel-Haenszel and logistic regression methods were used to compare HIV-positive and HIV-negative female youth. Younger injectors (N = 232) were more likely to be female; work in the sex trade; report condom use; inject heroin daily; smoke crack cocaine daily; and need help injecting. HIV prevalence at baseline among the youth was 10%. HIV prevalence was associated with female gender; history of sexual abuse; engaging in survival sex; injecting heroin daily; injecting speedballs (a mixture of heroin and cocaine) daily; and having numerous lifetime sexual partners.",
"yes. Malaria with anaemia and HIV exposure are significant risk factors for poor early childhood neurodevelopment in malaria-endemic areas in rural Africa. Because of this, comprehensive and cost/effective intervention is needed for malaria prevention in very young children in these settings.",
"yes. Extensive genetic diversity of HIV-1 was observed in Central West Brazil. Continued molecular studies should monitor the changing dynamics of HIV-1 over time especially in areas where the epidemic is growing.",
"yes. The incidence of LTFU among illicit drug users was almost twice higher than that among non users. Effective intervention for illicit drug use in this population is warranted to ensure proper treatment and prevent the spread of HIV.",
"yes. Important proportions of drug users are young or have recently started injecting. HIV prevalence is relatively high among young and recent-onset IDUs. Recent onset of injection is an independent predictor for HIV seroconversion. Our observations may be explained by non-random patterns of borrowing used needles/syringes. Recent-onset IDUs should be approached more actively for HIV counselling and testing.",
"In HIV and malaria co-endemic settings, considerations of PI cost effectiveness incorporating known reductions in malaria mortality suggest a nominal increase in DALYs gained for PIs over NNRTI-based regimens for HIV positive children under five on ART. Our analysis was based on several assumptions due to lack of sound data on malaria and HIV DALY attribution among pediatric populations. Further study in this area is required.",
"yes. These results show that P. falciparum infection profoundly modifies the placenta cytokine environment and acts as a confounding factor, masking the impact of HIV-1 in co-infected women. This interplay between the two infections might have implications in the in utero MTCT of HIV-1 in areas where HIV-1 and P. falciparum co-circulate.",
"Acute febrile illnesses consistent with malaria are the most common presentation at health clinics in sub-Saharan Africa, accounting for 30-50% of outpatient visits. The symptoms of acute HIV infection can mimic acute malaria. We investigated whether acute HIV infections could be identified among adults with suspected malaria at rural health centers in Uganda. A cross-sectional study of 1000 consecutive patients referred for malaria blood smears at each of seven government health centers, of which 2893 (41%) were 13 years or older and tested for HIV. HIV enzyme immunoassay antibody testing was performed on dried blood spots and confirmed by western blot. Enzyme immunoassay-nonreactive and enzyme immunoassay-reactive, western blot-unconfirmed samples were pooled (10/pool) and tested for HIV RNA by nucleic acid amplification testing. We defined acute HIV infection as HIV-1 RNA positive with a negative or indeterminate HIV-1 western blot pattern and early HIV infection as HIV-1 RNA positive with a positive western blot pattern, but with a BED-corrected optical density of below 0.8. Of 2893 patients evaluated, 324 (11%) had test results indicating HIV infection. Overall, 30 patients (1.0%) had acute HIV infection, 56 (1.8%) had early HIV infection, and 238 (8%) had established HIV infection. Acute HIV infections were more prevalent at sites with higher HIV prevalence and lower malaria endemicity.",
"Amongst injecting drug users (IDUs), HIV is transmitted sexually and parenterally, but HCV is transmitted primarily parenterally. We assess and model the antibody prevalence of HCV amongst HIV-infected IDUs (denoted as HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence) and consider whether it proxies the degree of sexual HIV transmission amongst IDUs. HIV, HCV and HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence data amongst IDU was reviewed. An HIV/HCV transmission model was adapted. Multivariate model uncertainty analyses determined whether the model's ability to replicate observed data trends required the inclusion of sexual HIV transmission. The correlation between the model's HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence and estimated proportion of HIV infections due to injecting was evaluated. The median HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence (prevalence of HCV amongst HIV-infected IDUs) was 90% across 195 estimates from 43 countries. High HCV-HIV co-infection prevalences (>80%) occur in most (75%) settings, but can be lower in settings with low HIV prevalence (<10%) or high HIV/HCV prevalence ratios (HIV prevalence divided by HCV prevalence>0.75). The model without sexual HIV transmission reproduced some data trends but could not reproduce any epidemics with high HIV/HCV prevalence ratios (>0.85) or low HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence (<60%) when HIV prevalence>10%. The model with sexual HIV transmission reproduced data trends more closely. The proportion of HIV infections due to injecting correlated with HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence; suggesting that up to 80/60/<20% of HIV infections could be sexually transmitted in settings with HCV-HIV co-infection prevalence between 50-60/70-80/>90%.",
"yes. While the majority of sexually active participants engaged in unprotected intercourse, the proportion with multiple sex partners was low relative to other samples of persons who use illicit drugs. Among persons with non-medical prescription opioid dependence, those who concurrently use other substances may be at elevated risk for HIV infection. Comprehensive assessment of substance abuse history among individuals dependent upon prescription opioids is critical for identifying patients who may require additional clinical interventions to reduce HIV sexual risk behavior.",
"Notwithstanding the small sample size, this study shows that drug-users practice high-risk sexual behavior more frequently. Interventions, in the form of awareness generation and prevention education programs, are required in order to reduce risk of sexually transmitted diseases and HIV transmission among drug-users.",
"yes. In this study of street-involved youth with HCV infection and recent injecting, 14% demonstrated phylogenetic clustering. Phylogenetic clustering was associated with recent methamphetamine injection, suggesting that methamphetamine drug injection may play an important role in networks of HCV transmission.",
"Across the world, drug-users (DU) have been shown to be at greater risk of contracting and transmitting sexually transmitted diseases and HIV infection. However, in the metropolitan cities of India, where drug-use patterns may uniquely vary between injection and noninjection, depending on drug availability, little is known about the risk behavior of drug-users. The objective of the study was to find out whether drug-users are more likely to practice high-risk sexual behavior compared to non-drug users. The sexual behavior of 70 drug-users, selected by snowball sampling, was compared with 128 age- and economic status-matched controls (non-drug-users), randomly selected from the same community. Seventy-eight percent sexually active drug-users and 43% sexually active non-drug-users had multiple sex partners (P<0.02). The average number of sex partners was significantly higher among the drug-users (P = 0.05). Anal intercourse was practiced by 25.7% drug-users and 8.6% non-drug-users (OR = 3.7; P<0.01). The drug-users were 6.7 times more likely to visit commercial sex workers (P<0.0001). Sexually transmitted disease prevalence was higher among the drug-users (P<0.003).",
"Information is limited about HIV-1 subtypes circulating in less populated Brazilian areas where the AIDS epidemic is expanding, such as in the Central West region. To describe HIV-1 subtypes in patients from the States of Goias, Mato Grosso do Sul and Mato Grosso in Central West Brazil. Heteroduplex mobility analysis of nested-PCR products from env (primers: ED5/ED12, ES7/ES8) and gag regions (primers: H1P202/H1G777, H1Gag1584/g17) of 406 HIV-1 isolates from Goias (n=271), Mato Grosso do Sul (n=85) and Mato Grosso (n=50) collected from 2001 to 2004. Median age of patients was 26 years (1-79 range), 68.7% (279/406) females, 69.9% (269/385) sexual exposure, 14.3% parenteral risk, 15.8% vertical cases. Overall 69.9% (284/406) of HIV-1 subtypes were concordant B(env)/B(gag), 1.7% F(env)/F(gag) and 1% C(env)/C(gag). Discordant HIV-1 isolates were 14.5% (59/406), mainly B(env)/F(gag) and F(env)/B(gag) (49/59); five were B(env)/D(gag), four B(env)/C(gag) and one C(env)/D(gag). B/B and discordant B/F isolates were detected among all risk categories and among children and adults.",
"Evidence of ongoing hepatitis C (HCV) transmission among injecting drug users (IDUs) suggests a need for a better understanding of seroconversion characteristics among new IDUs and other vulnerable subgroups. This study aimed to determine incidence of HCV and associated risk factors among new IDUs in Sydney. IDUs who had injected drugs in the past six months and who were unaware of their antibody HCV status or knew their serostatus to be negative were recruited through street-based outreach, methadone clinics and needle and syringe programs in south-western Sydney. Anti-HCV negative IDUs (n = 215) were enrolled and followed-up at 3-6 monthly intervals. New IDUs (n = 204) were defined as aged below 30 years or injecting for<or = 6 years at baseline. A total of 61 seroconversions were observed and incidence was 45.8 per 100 person years. Independent predictors of seroconversion were duration of injecting<1 year (IRR = 3.10; 95% CI 1.47-6.54), female gender (IRR = 2.0; 95% CI 1.16-3.45), culturally and linguistically diverse background (CALDB) (IRR = 2.03; 95% CI 1.06-3.89) and intravenous cocaine use (IRR = 2.37; 95% CI 1.26-4.44). While new IDUs shared common risk factors, strong associations were observed between HCV seroconversion and sharing syringes, sharing other injecting equipment and backloading in CALDB new IDUs.",
"The 5-7% of adults in the United States with severe mental illness (SMI), especially the 50% who are 'dually diagnosed' with co-occurring substance use disorders (SUD), are at an elevated risk of HIV and hepatitis C virus (HCV). However, little is known about HIV/HCV co-infection in this population. This paper examines the prevalence and correlates of HIV, hepatitis C, and HIV/HCV co-infection in a large, multisite sample of SMI clients. We conducted a re-analysis of data on prevalence and correlates of blood-borne infections in a multisite sample of SMI clients. In 1997-1998, 755 SMI clients were tested for HIV, hepatitis B virus and HCV, and assessed for demographic, illness-related and other behavioral risk factors for blood-borne infections. The prevalence and correlates of co-infection were examined, as well as the knowledge, attitudes and risk behaviors of individuals with HCV mono-infection. Of the 755 participants, 623 (82.5%) were negative for both HIV and HCV, 23 (3.0%) were positive for HIV, 109 (14.4%) were positive for HCV, and 13 (1.7%) were co-infected with HIV and HCV. Overall, 2.5% of dually diagnosed participants were co-infected, whereas only 0.6% of SMI participants without a comorbid SUD diagnosis were co-infected. Co-infection was associated with psychiatric illness severity, ongoing drug abuse, poverty, homelessness, incarceration, urban residence and minority status. HCV-mono-infected clients continued to engage in high levels of risk behavior for HIV.",
"yes. The possibility of transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis C (HCV) or other blood-borne diseases exists in Ontario correctional centres. In this setting, drug injection while incarcerated is primarily related to opiate use prior to incarceration. The correlation between injecting and extensive incarceration history suggests missed opportunities to improve inmates' health.",
"yes. Introduction of subtype C of HIV-1 in Brazil was likely a single event of one or a mixture of similarly related strains. Recombination between subtype C and B viruses is an ongoing process in the country. Primary and secondary drug resistance mutations were observed, although some of the secondary mutations could be associated with subtype C molecular signatures. Subtype-specific polymorphisms of PR and RT sequences found in this subtype C Brazilian variant might influence this emergence and have an impact on HIV treatment and on vaccine development in the country.",
"To investigate the impact of harm-reduction programmes on HIV and hepatitis C virus (HCV) incidence among ever-injecting drug users (DU) from the Amsterdam Cohort Studies (ACS). The association between use of harm reduction and seroconversion for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and/or hepatitis C virus (HCV) was evaluated using Poisson regression. A total of 714 DU were at risk for HIV and/or HCV during follow-up. Harm reduction was measured by combining its two most important components--methadone dose and needle exchange programme (NEP) use--and looking at five categories of participation, ranging from no participation (no methadone in the past 6 months, injecting drug use in the past 6 months and no use of NEP) to full participation (> or = 60 mg methadone/day and no current injecting or > or = 60 mg methadone/day and current injecting but all needles exchanged). Methadone dose or NEP use alone were not associated significantly with HIV or HCV seroconversion. However, with combination of these variables and after correction for possibly confounding variables, we found that full participation in a harm reduction programme (HRP) was associated with a lower risk of HIV and HCV infection in ever-injecting drug users (DU), compared to no participation [incidence rate ratio 0.43 (95% CI 0.21-0.87) and 0.36 (95% CI 0.13-1.03), respectively].",
"Patterns of heroin and cocaine use vary and may be associated with unique risk factors for bloodborne infections. Latent class analysis identified sub-populations of 552 heroin and cocaine users in Baltimore, Maryland. Using latent class regression, these classes were analyzed for associations with demographic characteristics, risky behaviors, Hepatitis C, and HIV. Three classes were found: Crack/Nasal-Heroin users (43.5%), Polysubstance users (34.8%), and Heroin Injectors (21.8%). Compared to Polysubstance users, Crack/Nasal-Heroin users were almost 7 times more likely to identify as Black (OR=6.97, 95% CI=4.35-11.2). Sharing needles was over 2.5 times more likely among Polysubstance users than among Heroin Injectors (OR=2.66, 95% CI=1.49-4.75). Crack/Nasal-Heroin users were 2.5 times more likely than Polysubstance users to exchange drugs for sex (OR=2.50, 95% CI=1.22-5.13). Crack/Nasal-Heroin users were less likely than Heroin Injectors to have Hepatitis C (OR=0.10, 95% CI=0.06-0.18), but no significant differences were found for HIV.",
"To determine impediments to the effective reduction of maternal-infant transmission of HIV in the municipality of Campos dos Goytacazes, RJ, Brazil. This is a cohort study, with medical follow-up, of pregnant women with confirmed diagnosis of HIV infection, and their infant children, assisted at the Municipal Specialized Service of Sexually Transmitted Diseases/AIDS from January 2004 to April 2007. Information regarding exposure and outcome variables was collected from their medical records. Frequencies of variables were determined and bivariate analysis performed for exposure factors and transmission of HIV. Relative risks of HIV transmission associated with exposure variables were calculated using 95% confidence intervals. Statistical significance of risk associations was evaluated. Seventy-eight mother-child pairs were studied; the rate of maternal-infant transmission of HIV was 7.7%. Variables showing significant association with maternal-infant transmission of HIV were the non-utilization of antiretrovirals for prophylaxis or treatment during pregnancy (RR = 21.00; 95%CI 2.64-166.74, p = 0.001) and diagnosis of maternal disease after pregnancy (RR = 6.80; 95%CI 1.59-29.17, p = 0.025). New pregnancies in women with other children also exposed to HIV occurred in 19.12% (15/78) of cases.",
"yes. In this well-characterised CM cohort, HIV-coinfection was associated with marked blunting of the inflammatory response but did not affect parasite density or outcome. These data highlight the complex influence of HIV on severe malaria and bring into question systemic inflammation as a primary driver of pathogenesis in human CM.",
"In the present study, dengue and malaria co-infection clinical picture seems to be more severe than single infections in French Guiana, with a greater risk of deep thrombocytopaenia and anaemia.",
"Requiring help injecting has been associated with syringe sharing among injection drug users (IDUs). No prospective study has fully examined this risk factor and its relation to rates of HIV infection. We investigated whether requiring help injecting illicit drugs was a predictor of HIV infection among a prospective cohort of IDUs. The Vancouver Injection Drug User Study is a prospective study of more than 1500 IDUs who have been recruited from the Downtown Eastside of Vancouver since May 1996. At baseline and semiannually, subjects provided blood samples and completed an interviewer-administered questionnaire. The questionnaire elicits demographic data as well as information about drug use, HIV risk behavior, and drug treatment. HIV incidence rates were calculated using Kaplan-Meier methods, and Cox regression determined independent predictors of seroconversion. A total of 1013 baseline HIV-negative participants were eligible for this study. Within this population, 418 (41.3%) participants had required help injecting during the last 6 months at baseline. Participants requiring help injecting were more likely to be female (odds ratio = 2.3, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.8-3.0; P < 0.001), were slightly younger (33.5 vs. 34.9 years of age; P = 0.014), and had fewer years of experience injecting drugs (7 vs. 11 years; P < or = 0.001). Among participants who required help injecting at baseline, cumulative HIV incidence at 36 months was 16.1% compared with 8.8% among participants who did not require help injecting (log-rank, P < 0.001). In an adjusted model controlling for potential confounding variables, being aboriginal (relative hazard [RH] = 1.68, 95% CI: 1.15-2.48), injecting cocaine daily (RH = 2.71, 95% CI: 1.87-3.95), and requiring help injecting (RH = 1.79, 95% CI: 1.23-2.62) remained independent predictors of HIV seroconversion.",
"yes. Ho Chi Minh City is at the forefront of a new HIV epidemic in Vietnam. This epidemic shows similarities to that in Thailand nearly a decade ago, with rapidly rising HIV rates among injecting drug users and infection already established among sex workers. Prevention efforts should include the targeting of injecting drug users and sex workers outside rehabilitation centers, the availability of sterile needles and condoms, the establishment of anonymous testing sites, the control of sexually transmitted diseases and the coordination of programs within southeast Asia.",
"The potential impact of HIV-1 on falciparum malaria has been difficult to determine because of diagnostic problems and insufficient epidemiological data. In a prospective, cross-sectional study, clinical and laboratory data was registered consecutively for all adults admitted to a medical ward in the Central Hospital of Maputo, Mozambique, during two months from 28th October 2006. Risk factors for fatal outcome were analysed. The impact of HIV on the accuracy of malaria diagnosis was assessed, comparing \"Presumptive malaria\", a diagnosis assigned by the ward clinicians based on fever and symptoms suggestive of malaria in the absence of signs of other infections, and \"Verified malaria\", a malaria diagnosis that was not rejected during retrospective review of all available data. Among 333 included patients, fifteen percent (51/333) had \"presumptive malaria\", ten percent (28 of 285 tested persons) had positive malaria blood slides, while 69.1% (188/272) were HIV positive. Seven percent (n = 23) had \"verified malaria\", after the diagnosis was rejected in patients with neck stiffness or symptom duration longer than 2 weeks (n = 5) and persons with negative (n = 19) or unknown malaria blood slide (n = 4). Clinical stage of HIV infection (CDC), hypotension and hypoglycaemia was associated with fatal outcome. The \"presumptive malaria\" diagnosis was rejected more frequently in HIV positive (20/31) than in HIV negative patients (2/10, p = 0.023).",
"Previous studies indicated that Plasmodium infection activates the immune system, including memory CD4+ T cells, which constitute the reservoir of human immunodeficiency virus type-1 (HIV-1). Therefore, we postulated that co-infection with malaria might activate the reservoir of HIV-1. To test this hypothesis, we used a rhesus macaque model of co-infection with malaria and simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), along with antiretroviral therapy (ART). Our results showed that Plasmodium infection reduced both the replication-competent virus pool in resting CD4+ T cells and the integrated virus DNA (iDNA) load in peripheral blood mononuclear cells in the monkeys. This reduction might be attributable to malaria-mediated activation and apoptotic induction of memory CD4+ T cells. Further studies indicated that histone acetylation and NF-kappaB (NF-κB) activation in resting CD4+ T cells may also play an important role in this reduction.",
"yes. In adults living in central Ethiopia, the perception that HIV testing accompanied the investigation of suspected malaria was common. This is likely to impede presentation for early medical treatment in some areas and represents a reversible risk factor that deserves further study.",
"yes. At multiple sites in Uganda, 1-3% of adults with suspected malaria had acute or early HIV infection. These findings highlight a major opportunity for expanding recognition of acute and early HIV infection in Africa.",
"no. Unlike studies from highly malaria-endemic areas, we did not identify an effect of P falciparum infection on HIV VL; therefore, malaria is not likely to increase HIV-transmission risk in our setting. However, routine HIV testing should be offered to adults presenting with acute malaria in Rwanda. Most importantly, we identified a large percentage of patients with detectable HIV VL despite antiretroviral (ARV) therapy. Some of these patients had HIV genotypic drug resistance. Larger studies are needed to define the prevalence and factors associated with detectable HIV VL in patients prescribed ARVs in Rwanda.",
"Areas endemic for malaria and Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection largely overlap geographically. A recent study has suggested the existence of an interaction between the two pathogens in symptomatic co-infected individuals on the South-American continent. We examined this issue in a hyperendemic area for both pathogens in sub-Saharan Africa. Pre-transfusion samples from a retrospective cohort of 154 blood transfusion recipients were screened for both serological and molecular markers of HBV and Plasmodium genomes using species-specific nested PCR and quantitative real-time PCR. Thirty-seven individuals met exclusion criteria and were subsequently eliminated from further analysis. Of 117 participants, 90% of recipients exhibited evidence of exposure to HBV, 42% with HBsAg and/or HBV DNA and 48% anti-HBc reactive without detectable HBV DNA. Plasmodium genome prevalence by NAT was 50%. Parasitemic individuals were significantly younger than non-parasitemic individuals (P = 0.04). Parasitemia level was not significantly lower in individuals with HBV DNA positive infections compared to those with HBV DNA negative exposures. HBV DNA load was not significantly different in parasitemic and non-parasitemic individuals.",
"This study was carried out to evaluate the prevalence of hepatitis delta virus (HDV) among human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)/hepatitis B virus (HBV) co-infected patients from São Paulo, in the Southeast Region of Brazil. A total of 3259 HIV patients with serological markers for HBV were initially enrolled in the study. Among these patients, 154 (4.7%) were hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-reactive. Serum samples were obtained from 86 HBsAg-positive patients and were submitted to anti-HDV serological assay. One (1.2%) HIV/HBV patient was found to be anti-HDV-positive, and the HDV infection was confirmed by PCR. Phylogenetic analysis showed that this HDV sequence grouped with other HDV genotype 1 sequences from Mediterranean European countries, suggesting that this virus has a common ancestor with HDV from that region. This patient was probably infected by sexual transmission, as he reported unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners over the course of many years but denied intravenous drug use or any travel to the Brazilian Amazon, an area known to have a high HDV prevalence.",
"A large proportion of PWID in Catalonia are new injectors, a subgroup with a high level of both sexual and parenteral exposure and a high incidence rate of HIV/ HCV infections. It is important to improve early diagnosis of these infections among this group, in particular among migrants. To identify and address risk factors for homelessness PWID should be a priority.",
"yes. A threefold increase was observed in the risk of death among HIV-infected individuals on HAART in the neighbourhood with a high concentration of injecting drug users relative to the neighbourhood with a high concentration of gay men. The implications of this study should be assessed in similar HIV/AIDS epicentres.",
"There is a potential for interaction between malaria and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. HIV infection might reduce immunity to malaria resulting in more frequent and severe infections; conversely malaria might enhance the progression of HIV infection to AIDS. In this paper we have reviewed some of the studies that have addressed this topic. Studies identified by a MEDLINE search were systematically reviewed and the measures of association between the two infections were either abstracted or recalculated from the reported data. Inferences drawn from these studies and the biological plausibility of an interaction are discussed. The prevalence ratio (PR) of peripheral parasitaemia among HIV seropositive (HIVSP) individuals compared to HIV seronegative (HIVSN) individuals ranged from 0.72 to 0.94 in children and from 3.3 to 0.69 in adults. However, only one study showed a statistically significant difference between HIVSP and HIVSN groups (PR 3.3, 95% CI: 2.7-4.2). The rate ratio of non-severe malaria among HIVSP children compared to HIVSN children was 1.4 (95% CI: 0.99-2.0). Data from a trial of chemoprophylaxis during pregnancy suggested that placental malaria may predispose to perinatal transmission of HIV. Studies that have investigated the immune response to P. falciparum among HIVSP subjects have given variable results.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that high HIV seropositivity among female adolescents seeking HIV testing in Brazil directly reflects the need for effective interventions specifically designed to prevent risk behaviors in order to halt the spread of HIV infection.",
"There is no convincing evidence for an interaction between malaria and HIV with the possible exception of an interaction between placental malaria and HIV infection. Several studies, however, had potentials for bias and/or an inadequate sample size. There is a need for carefully designed studies to resolve whether mortality from severe malaria, in particular cerebral malaria, is increased in HIVSP subjects, whether malaria infection of the placenta increases the risk of vertical transmission of HIV, and whether malaria infection increases the progression of HIV infection to AIDS.",
"yes. Subpopulations of cocaine and heroin users differed in demographic classifications, HIV-risk behaviors, and Hepatitis C infection. All subpopulations included substantial numbers of HIV-positive individuals. Findings provide further evidence that non-injection drug users face significant infectious disease risk.",
"Plasmodium falciparum infection has been reported to increase human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) viral load (VL), which can facilitate HIV transmission. We prospectively studied the impact of mild P falciparum coinfection on HIV VL in Rwanda. We measured plasma HIV VL at presentation with malaria infection and weekly for 4 weeks after artemether-lumefantrine treatment in Rwandan adults infected with HIV with P falciparum malaria. Regression analyses were used to examine associations between malaria infection and HIV VL changes. Samples with detectable virus underwent genotypic drug-resistance testing. We enrolled 28 HIV-malaria coinfected patients and observed 27 of them for 5 weeks. Three patients (11%) were newly diagnosed with HIV. Acute P falciparum infection had no significant effect on HIV VL slope over 28 days of follow-up. Ten patients with VL <40 copies/mL at enrollment maintained viral suppression throughout. Seventeen patients had a detectable VL at enrollment including 9 (53%) who reported 100% adherence to ARVs; 3 of these had detectable genotypic drug resistance.",
"yes. The findings of this work expand our knowledge of the interaction between these two diseases. As more HIV-1-infected individuals in malaria-endemic areas receive ART, we should explore whether any of the patients co-infected with Plasmodium experience virologic benefits.",
"Areas that are endemic for malaria are also highly endemic for hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection. Nevertheless, it is unknown whether HBV infection modifies the clinical presentation of malaria. This study aimed to address this question. An observational study of 636 individuals was performed in Rondônia, western Amazon, Brazil between 2006 and 2007. Active and passive case detections identified Plasmodium infection by field microscopy and nested Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). HBV infections were identified by serology and confirmed by real-time PCR. Epidemiological information and plasma cytokine profiles were studied. The data were analyzed using adjusted multinomial logistic regression. Plasmodium-infected individuals with active HBV infection were more likely to be asymptomatic (OR: 120.13, P<0.0001), present with lower levels of parasitemia and demonstrate a decreased inflammatory cytokine profile. Nevertheless, co-infected individuals presented higher HBV viremia. Plasmodium parasitemia inversely correlated with plasma HBV DNA levels (r = -0.6; P = 0.0003).",
"yes. Coadministration of artmether/lumefantrine and LPV/r can be carried out for patients coinfected with malaria and HIV. Formal safety analysis of concomitant therapy should be addressed by future studies among individuals living in malaria-endemic regions.",
"There are now an estimated 16 million people who inject drugs (PWID) throughout the world, 3 million of whom are estimated to be infected with HIV. In many countries, substantial proportions of PWID belong to racial/ethnic/nationality minority groups, and are at increased likelihood of being infected with HIV. This article reviews current evidence on ethnic disparities in HIV infection among PWID and assesses the issues that would need to be addressed to reduce these disparities. An ongoing systematic review of ethnic disparities has found that, in a pooled weighted odds ratio, ethnic minority PWID are twice as likely to be HIV seropositive than ethnic majority, PWID from the same geographic area. If implemented with sufficient quality and coverage, current HIV prevention programs probably have the capability of ending HIV transmission among both ethnic majority and minority PWID. Large-scale, evidence-based prevention programs need to be implemented in the contexts of patterns of injecting drug use that continue to evolve-with injecting practices spreading to new areas, changes in drugs injected, and some transitions from injecting to noninjecting drug use. Lack of financial resources and policies against evidence-based programming are increasingly important problems that are likely to have particularly adverse effects on ethnic minority PWID.",
"The aim of this study was to assess differences in the prevalence of HIV and HCV infection and associated risk factors between new (injecting for ≤5 years) and long-term injectors and to estimate HIV/HCV incidence among new injectors. Cross-sectional study among people who inject drugs (PWID) who attended harm reduction centers in Catalonia in 2010-11. Anonymous questionnaires and oral fluid samples were collected. Poisson regression models were applied to determine the association between HIV/HCV infection and risk factors. Of the 761 participants, 21.4% were new injectors. New injectors were younger than long-term injectors (mean age = 31.6 vs. 37.8) and were more likely to be immigrants (59.0% vs. 33.4%). HIV and HCV prevalence was 20.6% and 59.4% among new injectors, and estimated HIV and HCV incidence 8.7 and 25.1 /100 person-years, respectively. Among new injectors, HIV infection was associated with homelessness (PR = 3.10) and reporting a previous sexually transmitted infection (PR = 1.79). Reporting front/backloading (PR = 1.33) and daily injection (PR = 1.35) were risk-factors for HCV infection. For long-term injectors, HIV risk factors were: having shared syringes (PR = 1.85), having injected cocaine (PR = 1.38), reporting front/backloading (PR = 1.30) and ever having been in prison (PR = 2.03).",
"Non-injecting cocaine users from South America are vulnerable to multiple infections and HCV infection appears to occur through the sharing of straws. HCV infection is associated with intimate relationships with IDUs or HIV-seropositive partners, supporting the hypothesis that HCV risk may be due primarily to risk-taking behaviour associated with drugs in this population.",
"To examine associations between risk factors for HIV infection in a sample of young women who sought HIV testing in a city of southern Brazil. Cross-sectional study with a consecutive convenience sample of 258 female adolescents aged 13 to 20 years evaluated in an anonymous testing site for HIV and sexually transmitted diseases in Brazil. Risk behavior for HIV was assessed with the Brazilian version of the Risk Assessment Battery and HIV status was assessed through ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay). Overall seropositivity rate was 7.4%. HIV-seropositive patients had significantly more sexual intercourse in exchange for money, higher rates of pregnancy and abortion, as well as earlier sexual debut. In multiple analyses with the inclusion of two composite variables (sex risk and drug risk), only drug risk was associated with positive HIV status (OR=4.178; IC 95%=1.476-11.827).",
"New outbreaks of cases of HIV and malaria are likely to occur among Brazilian IDUs, and might conceivably contribute to the development of treatment-resistant strains of malaria in this population. Health professionals should be alert to this possibility, which could also eventually occur in IDU networks in developed countries.",
"To describe AIDS and malaria geography in Brazil, highlighting the role of injecting drug users (IDUs) in malaria outbreaks occurring in malaria-free regions, and the potential clinical and public health implications of malaria/HIV co-infection. Review of the available literature and original analyses using geoprocessing and spatial analysis techniques. Both HIV/AIDS and malaria distribution are currently undergoing profound changes in Brazil, with mutual expansion to intersecting geographical regions and social networks. Very recent reports describe the first clinical case of AIDS in a remote Amazonian ethnic group, as well as malaria cases in Rio de Janeiro state (hitherto a malaria-free area for 20 years); in addition, two outbreaks of both infections occurred at the beginning of the 1990s in the most industrialized Brazilian state (São Paulo), due to the sharing of needles and syringes by drug users. Spatial data point to: (a) the expansion of HIV/AIDS towards malarigenic areas located in the centre-west and north of Brazil, along the main cocaine trafficking routes, with IDU networks apparently playing a core role; and (b) the possibility of new outbreaks of secondary malaria in urban settings where HIV/AIDS is still expanding, through the sharing of needles and syringes."
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Does the subspecialty of the surgeon performing primary colonic resection influence the outcome of patients with hepatic metastases referred for resection? | [
"To compare resection rates and outcome of patients subsequently referred with hepatic metastases whose initial colon cancers were resected by surgeons with different specialty interests. Variation in practice among noncolorectal specialist surgeons has led to recommendations that colorectal cancers should be treated by surgeons trained in colorectal surgery or surgical oncology. The resectability of metastases, the frequency and pattern of recurrence after resection, and the length of survival were compared in patients referred to a single center for resection of colorectal hepatic metastases. The patients were divided into those whose colorectal resection had been performed by general surgeons (GS) with other subspecialty interests (n = 108) or by colorectal specialists (CS; n = 122). RESULTS No differences were observed with respect to age, sex, tumor stage, site of primary tumor, or frequency of synchronous metastases. Comparing the GS group with the CS group, resectable disease was identified in 26% versus 66%, with tumor recurrence after a median follow-up of 19 months in 75% versus 44%, respectively. Recurrences involving bowel or lymph nodes accounted for 55% versus 24% of all recurrences, with respective median survivals of 14 months versus 26 months.",
"Fewer patients referred by general surgeons had resectable liver disease. After surgery, recurrent tumor was more likely to develop in the GS group; their overall outcome was worse than that of the CS group. This observation is partly explained by a lower local recurrence rate in the CS group."
] | [
"Patients who have hepatic metastases that are functionally and technically resectable should be considered for surgery because this treatment offers the chance for long-term survival (>5 years).",
"yes. The results of the present study indicate that when liver resection is necessary, repeated minor liver resection will be superior to major liver resection, because major resection, unlike repeated minor resection, stimulates metastasis. This should be taken into consideration in clinical situations that require liver resection.",
"Patients who underwent an aggressive simultaneous resection of primary and metastatic hepatic lesion did not exhibit any improvement. However, it is anticipated that these findings will provide insights into developing an effective adjuvant therapy to impede or destroy macroscopic/occult liver metastasis.",
"Hepatic resection (HR) is the only option offering a potential cure for patients with synchronous colorectal cancer liver metastases (SCRLM). The optimal timing of HR for SCRLM is still controversial. This study aimed to determine whether simultaneous HR is similar to staged resection regarding the morbidity and mortality rates in patients with SCRLM. Four hundred and five consecutive patients with SCRLM were treated with either simultaneous (n = 129) or staged (n = 276) HR. The postoperative complications were analyzed retrospectively according to the documented records and hepatectomy databases at the Gastrointestinal Institute. Perioperative morbidity and mortality did not differ between simultaneous resections and staged resections for selected patients with SCRLM (morbidity, 47.3% versus 54.3%; mortality, 1.5% versus 2.0%, respectively; both p > 0.05). Simultaneous liver resections of three or more segments would not increase the rate of complications compared to staged resections (56.8% and 42.4%, respectively; p = 0.119). Meanwhile, patients with simultaneous resections experienced shorter duration of surgery and postoperative hospitalization time as well as less blood loss during surgery (all p < 0.05).",
"Extrahepatic disease has always been considered an absolute contraindication to hepatectomy for liver metastases. The present study reports the long-term outcome and prognostic factors of patients undergoing resection of extrahepatic disease simultaneously with hepatectomy for liver metastases. From January 1987 to January 2001, 111 (30 per cent) of 376 patients who had hepatectomy for colorectal liver metastases underwent simultaneous resection of extrahepatic disease with curative intent. Surgery was considered R0 in 77 patients (69 per cent) and palliative (R1 or R2) in 34 patients (31 per cent). The mortality rate was 4 per cent and the morbidity rate 28 per cent. After a median follow-up of 4.9 years, the overall 3- and 5-year survival rates were 38 and 20 per cent respectively. The 5-year overall survival rate of patients with R0 resection only (n = 75) was 29 per cent. The difference in survival between patients with and without extrahepatic disease discovered incidentally at operation was significant, as was the number of liver metastases.",
"Management and palliation of pancreatic head adenocarcinoma is challenging. End-of-life decision-making is a variable process involving multiple factors. We conducted a qualitative, physician-based, 40-question international survey characterizing the impact of medical, religious, social, training and system factors on care. A total of 258 international clinicians completed the survey. Respondents were typically fellowship-trained (78%), with a mean of 16 years' experience in a university-affiliated (93%) hepato-pancreato-biliary group (96%) practice. Most (91%) believed resection is potentially curative. Most patients were discussed preoperatively by multidisciplinary teams (94%) and medical assessment clinics (68%), but rarely critical care (21%). Intraoperative surgical palliation included double bypass or no intervention for locally advanced nonresectable tumours (41% and 49% v. 14% and 85%, respectively, for patients with hepatic metastases). Postoperative admission to the intensive care unit was frequent (58%). Severe postoperative complications were often treated with aggressive cardiopulmonary resuscitation, intubation and critical care (96%), with no defined time points for futility (74%). Admitting surgeons guided most end-of-life decisions (97%). Formal medical futility laws were rarely available (26%). Insurance status did not alter treatment (97%) or palliation (95%) in non-universal care regions. Clinician experience, regional culture and training background impacted treatment (all p<0.05).",
"Although recent studies have reported that high-volume surgeons and hospitals have better outcomes for colon cancer resections, it remains unclear whether there are other factors that are more important than volume. This study aims to evaluate the importance of the volume variables relative to other factors in an attempt to target specific areas for improving outcomes. Using nationwide data from the Healthcare Cost and Utilization Program, full-model logistic regression was performed on all patients undergoing colon cancer resection. In hospital mortality was regressed against more than 30 different independent variables, including demographic factors (eg, age, gender, race, ethnicity, and socioeconomic status), burden of morbid and comorbid disease (prevalence and severity), and provider variables (eg, hospital size, location, teaching status, hospital and surgeon volume). A separate baseline probability analysis was then performed to compare the relative importance for all predictor variables. The sample size for this analysis was 22,408; 622 in-hospital deaths occurred (2.8%). Average age was 70 years old, 51% of particIpants were male, and 60% had at least 1 comorbid disease. An operation was elective (64%), urgent (19%), or emergency (15%). The significant predictors for mortality (at P<.05) included age, gender, comorbid disease (ie, cardiovascular, pulmonary, liver), operation severity (ie, emergency, urgent), and volume (both hospital and surgeon). The baseline probability analysis shows that the mortality for a baseline case is 12/1000. If this baseline case goes to a high-volume hospital or surgeon, the mortality will decrease to 11/1000 and 10/1000, respectively. If a patient with a baseline case of colon cancer also has coexistent liver disease or requires an emergency operation, mortality increases to 44/1000 and 45/1000, respectively. Overall, the volume variables, although statistically significant, have a relatively smaller effect on outcome compared with other factors.",
"yes. These results support the hypothesis that echogenicity of liver metastases from colorectal cancer is an independent prognostic factor of outcome after curative resection.",
"The benefit of pre-operative chemotherapy in patients with resectable colorectal liver metastases (CRLM) remains ill defined. We sought to evaluate the impact of peri-operative systemic chemotherapy timing on outcome following resection of CRLM. 676 patients who underwent surgery for CRLM were identified from two hepatobiliary center databases. Data were collected and analyzed utilizing multivariate, matched, and propensity-score analyses. Median number of metastases was 2 and median tumor size was 3.3 cm. 334 patients (49.4%) received pre-operative chemotherapy while 342(50.6%) did not. Surgical treatment was resection only (n = 555; 82.1%; minor hepatectomy, n = 399; 59.1%). While there was no difference in morbidity following minor liver resection (pre-operative chemotherapy: 17.9% versus no pre-operative chemotherapy: 16.5%; P = 0.72), morbidity was higher after major hepatic resection (pre-operative chemotherapy: 23.1% versus no pre-operative chemotherapy: 14.2%; P = 0.06). Patients treated with pre-operative chemotherapy had worse 5-year survival (43%) as compared to patients not treated with pre-operative chemotherapy (55%)(P = 0.009). Controlling for baseline characteristics, pre-operative chemotherapy was not associated with outcome on multivariate (HR = 1.04, P = 0.87) or propensity-score analysis (HR = 1.40, P = 0.12).",
"The quality of surgical excision is held to be a major determinant of outcome following surgery for rectal cancer. Macroscopic examination of the excised mesorectum allows for reproducible assessment of the quality of surgery. We aimed to determine whether quality of excision undertaken by colorectal trainees under supervision was comparable with that performed by consultants, as measured using mesorectal grades. A total of 130 consecutive patients undergoing potentially curative resection for primary adenocarcinoma of the rectum in our centre from 2001 to 2003 were included in the study. The pathologists graded the excised mesorectum according to staged classification proposed by Quirke. The outcome (quality of mesorectal excision and secondary outcomes including local recurrence and overall recurrence) of operations performed by consultants was compared with that of trainees. Statistical significance was tested using Pearson chi(2) test. Eighty-nine operations were performed by consultants and 41 by senior colorectal trainees with consultant supervision. Forty-four patients (49%) had good mesorectum when operated by consultants in comparison with 17 (41.5%) by the trainees. There was no statistically significant difference (P = 0.717) between the two groups in terms of quality of mesorectum excised after potentially curative resection. Furthermore, there were seven local recurrences in patients operated by consultants (7.8%) when compared with four in the trainee group (9.5%) and once again there was no statistical significance between the two groups (P = 0.719).",
"yes. This prospective study establishes the preoperative determination of the hepatic reserve by GEC as a strong independent and valuable predictor for short- and long-term outcome in patients with primary and secondary hepatic tumors undergoing resection.",
"yes. In select patients with any of a variety of malignancies metastatic to the liver, prolonged survival can result from liver resection, especially in those with a single, resectable tumor from a nongastrointestinal primary site.",
"yes. Surgeons accounted for approximately 20% of the variation in patients seeing a medical oncologist. Interventions at the level of the surgeon may be appropriate to improve the care of patients with colon cancer.",
"yes. Repeat liver resection for colorectal liver metastases is safe. Patients with a low tumor load are the best candidates for a repeat resection. In well-selected patients, further resection of the liver can provide prolonged survival after recurrence of colorectal liver metastases.",
"The outcome was similarly favorable in cases of synchronous hepatic metastasis and in cases of metachronous metastasis. Delaying resection allows accurate understanding of the number and location of hepatic metastases, and is beneficial in determining candidates for surgery and in selecting surgical procedure.",
"Hepatic pedicle clamping (HPC) has been demonstrated to be effective for short-term outcomes during hepatic resection. However, HPC-induced hepatic ischemia/reperfusion injury can accelerate the outgrowth of hepatic micrometastases in experimental studies. The conclusive evidence regarding effects of HPC on long-term patient outcomes after hepatic resection for colorectal liver metastasis (CRLM) has not been determined. A comprehensive electronic literature search was performed to identify studies evaluating the oncological effects of HPC after hepatic resection for CRLM. The main outcome measures were intrahepatic recurrence (IHR), disease-free survival (DFS), and overall survival (OS). A meta-analysis was performed using the random-effects models to compute odds ratio (OR) along with 95% confidence intervals (CI). Four studies, with a total of 2,114 patients (73.7% HPC, 26.3% non-HPC), matched the inclusion criteria. Meta-analyses revealed that IHR (OR 0.88; 95% CI 0.69-1.11; P = 0.27), DFS (OR 0.88; 95% CI 0.70-1.10; P = 0.27) and OS (OR 0.99; 95% CI 0.79-1.24; P = 0.90) did not differ significantly between the HPC and non-HPC groups.",
"The management of patients with recurrent colorectal liver metastases (RCLM) remains controversial. This study aimed to determine whether repeat liver resection for RCLM could be performed with acceptable morbidity, mortality and long-term survival. Of 1121 consecutive liver resections performed and prospectively analysed between 1987 and 2005, 852 'curative' resections were performed on patients with colorectal liver metastases. Single liver resection was performed in 718 patients, and 71 repeat hepatic resections for RCLM were performed in 66 patients. There were no postoperative deaths following repeat hepatic resection compared with a postoperative mortality rate of 1.4 per cent after single hepatic resection. Postoperative morbidity was comparable following single and repeat hepatectomy (26.1 versus 18 per cent; P = 0.172), although median blood loss was greater during repeat resection (450 versus 350 ml; P = 0.006). Actuarial 1-, 3- and 5-year survival rates were 94, 68 and 44 per cent after repeat hepatic resection for RCLM, compared with 89.3, 51.7 and 29.5 per cent respectively following single hepatectomy.",
"R0 resection is the standard for colorectal liver metastases (CLMs). Adequacy of R1 resections is debated. Detachment of CLMs from vessels has been proposed to prioritize parenchyma sparing and increase resectability, but outcomes are still to be elucidated. The present study aimed to clarify the outcomes of R1 surgery (margin<1 mm) in patients with CLMs, distinguishing standard R1 resection (parenchymal margin, R1Par) and R1 resection with detachment of CLMs from major intrahepatic vessels (R1Vasc). All patients undergoing first resection between 2004 and June 2013 were prospectively considered. R0, R1Par, and R1Vasc were compared in per-patient and per-resection area analyses. The study included 627 resection areas in 226 consecutive patients. Fifty-one (8.1 %) resections in 46 (20.4 %) patients were R1Vasc, and 177 (28.2 %) resections in 107 (47.3 %) patients were R1Par. Thirty-two (5.1 %) surgical margin recurrences occurred in 28 (12.4 %) patients. Local recurrence risk was similar between the R0 and R1Vasc groups (per-patient analysis 5.3 vs. 4.3 %; per-resection area analysis 1.5 vs. 3.9 %, p = n.s.) but increased in the R1Par group (19.6 and 13.6 %, p < 0.05 for both). The R1Par group had a higher rate of hepatic-only recurrences (49.5 vs. 36.1 %, p = 0.042). On multivariate analysis, R1Par was an independent negative prognostic factor of overall survival (p = 0.034, median follow-up 33 months); conversely R1Vasc versus R0 had no significant differences.",
"It has been suggested that adverse postoperative outcomes may have a negative impact on longterm survival in patients with colorectal liver metastases. This study was conducted to evaluate the prognostic impact of postoperative complications in patients submitted to a potentially curative resection of colorectal liver metastases. A retrospective analysis of outcomes in 199 patients submitted to hepatic resection with curative intent for metastatic colorectal cancer during 1999-2008 was conducted. The overall complication rate was 38% (n = 75). Of all complications, 79% were minor (Grades I or II). There were five deaths (3%). The median length of follow-up was 39 months. Rates of 5-year overall and disease-free survival were 44% and 27%, respectively. Univariate analysis demonstrated that an elevated preoperative level of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), intraoperative blood loss of > 300 ml, multiple metastases, large (≥ 35 mm) metastases and resection margins of < 1 mm were associated with poor overall and disease-free survival. In addition, male sex and synchronous metastases were associated with poor disease-free survival. Postoperative complications did not have an impact on either survival measure. The multivariate model did not include complications as a predictive factor.",
"This article compares judgments about the treatment of Dukes' B2 and C colon cancer made by general surgeons to those of internists and family practitioners. Physician and practice variables were specialty, affiliation with a Community Clinical Oncology Program (CCOP) hospital, time in practice, professional centrality (level of participation in cancer information networks), solo practice, and number of colon cancer patients. Data are combined from national probability samples of CCOP- and non-CCOP-affiliated physicians. This study focused on 1,138 internists, family physicians, and general surgeons who participated in decision making for patients diagnosed with Dukes' B2 or C stage colon cancer. Judgments were elicited using brief vignettes. Judgments of adjuvant therapy are classified as (a) consistent with the National Institutes of Health Consensus Conference recommendations (experimental for Dukes' B2, accepted for Dukes' C); (b) accepted treatment for both stages; or (c) experimental for both stages. Multinomial logit analyses were used to examine the association of practice setting and physician characteristics to judgments of treatment. Surgeons and CCOP-affiliated physicians were more likely to endorse the NIH consensus conference position. Surgeons, younger physicians, and those in group practice were more likely to approve of chemotherapy for both cancer stages. The most common position (chemotherapy experimental) was more likely from nonsurgeons, solo practitioners, and non-CCOP physicians.",
"yes. Surgical volume was a significant independent predictor for survival in patients undergoing resections for stage II colon cancers. Surgeons carrying out only 25 procedures over a 10-year period outperformed surgeons doing fewer cases.",
"To assess the impact of first recurrence location on survival following surgery of colorectal liver metastases. A total of 265 consecutive patients with colorectal liver metastases undergoing liver surgery (2000-2011) were categorized according to first site of tumor recurrence. Time to recurrence (TTR) and overall survival (OS) were determined. Uni- and multivariate analysis were performed to identify factors associated with TTR and OS. Median TTR was 1.16 years following liver resection, and 0.56 years following radiofrequency ablation (RFA). Intrahepatic recurrence following liver resection resulted in a significantly shorter median TTR compared to extrahepatic recurrence. Intrapulmonary recurrence was associated with superior survival compared to other recurrence locations. Such patterns were not observed in the RFA-treated group. Multivariate analysis identified the type of surgical treatment and extra-hepatic first-site recurrence (other than lung) as independent predictors for OS. Pre-operative chemotherapy and simultaneous intrahepatic and extrahepatic recurrence were independent predictors for both TTR and OS.",
"Hepatic metastasis from colorectal cancer (CRC) is best managed with a multimodal approach; however, the optimal timing of liver resection in relation to administration of perioperative chemotherapy remains unclear. Our strategy has been to offer up-front liver resection for patients with resectable hepatic metastases, followed by post-liver resection chemotherapy. We report the outcomes of patients based on this surgical approach. A retrospective review of all patients undergoing liver resection for CRC metastases over a 5-year period (2002-2007) was performed. Associations between clinicopathologic factors and survival were evaluated by the Cox proportional hazard method. A total of 320 patients underwent 336 liver resections. Median follow-up was 40 (range 8-80) months. The majority (n=195, 60.9%) had metachronous disease, and most patients (n=286, 85%) had a major hepatectomy (>3 segments). Thirty-six patients (11%) received preoperative chemotherapy, predominantly for downstaging unresectable disease. Ninety-day mortality was 2.1%, and perioperative morbidity occurred in 68 patients (20.2%). Actual disease-free survival at 3 and 5 years was 46.2% and 42%, respectively. Actual overall survival (OS) at 3 and 5 years was 63.7% and 55%, respectively. Multivariate analysis identified four factors that were independently associated with differences in OS (hazard ratio; 95% confidence interval): size of metastasis>6 cm (2.2; 1.3-3.5), positive lymph node status of the primary CRC (N1 (2.0; 1.0-3.8), N2 (2.4; 1.2-4.9)), synchronous disease (2.1; 1.3-3.5), and treatment with chemotherapy after liver resection (0.42; 0.23-0.75).",
"Prophylactic impact of major hepatectomy (MH) on liver recurrence has yet to be clarified in patients with advanced colorectal liver metastases (CLMs). In our institute, parenchymal-sparing hepatectomy (PSH) is a standard procedure for CLMs consistently throughout initial and repeat resection, and MH is selected only in cases in which CLMs are close to major Glisson's pedicles. We reviewed 145 patients who underwent curative hepatectomy for advanced CLMs (≥4 nodules and ≤50 mm in size) from 1999 to 2012. Surgical outcomes and survival were compared between patients who underwent PSH and MH. PSH was performed in 113 patients (77.9 %) and MH in 32 (22.1 %) patients with advanced CLMs. Tumor characteristics and short-term outcomes did not differ between the 2 groups. Incidence of positive tumor margin (8.8 % in PSH vs 9.4 % in MH; p = .927) and rates of liver-only recurrence (43.4 % in PSH and 50.0 % in MH; p = .505) did not differ. No significant differences were found in 5-year overall survival (37.0 % in PSH vs 29.4 % in MH, p = .473), recurrence-free survival (7.6 vs 6.8 %, p = .597), and liver recurrence-free survival (21.0 vs 21.3 %, p = .691). A total of 65 patients had liver-only recurrence, for which repeat hepatectomy was performed in 81.5 % (53 of 65) following our parenchymal-sparing approach.",
"To date, no consensus has been reached regarding which primary tumor subtypes are managed appropriately with hepatic metastectomy. Specifically, the role of hepatic resection for metastatic periampullary or pancreatic adenocarcinoma remains controversial. Between 1995 and 2005, 1563 patients underwent surgical resection for periampullary carcinoma (n=608 patients) or pancreatic adenocarcinoma (head, n=905 patients; tail, n=50 patients). Data on demographics, operative details, primary tumor status, and-when indicated-extent of hepatic metastasis were collected. Of the 1563 patients who underwent resection of periampullary or pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 22 patients (1.4%) underwent simultaneous hepatic resection for synchronous liver metastasis. The primary tumor site was ampullary (n=1 patient ), duodenal (n=2 patients), distal bile duct (n=2 patients), or pancreas (head, n=10 patients; tail, n=7 patients). The majority of patients (86.4%) had a solitary hepatic metastasis, and the median size of the largest lesion was 0.6 cm. Hepatic metastectomy included wedge resection (n=20 patients), segmentectomy (n=1 patient), and hemihepatectomy (n=1 patient). After matching patients on primary tumor histology and location, the median survival of patients who underwent hepatic resection of synchronous metastasis was 5.9 months compared with 5.6 months for patients who underwent palliative bypass alone (P=.46) and 14.2 months for patients with no metastatic disease who underwent primary tumor resection only (P<.001). Pancreatic (median, 5.9 months) versus nonpancreatic (median, 9.9 months) primary tumor histology was not associated with a difference in survival in patients who underwent resection of synchronous liver metastasis (P=.43).",
"To identify significant predictive factors for overall survival (OS) and disease-free survival (DFS) after liver resection for colon cancer metastases, with special focus on features of the primary colon cancer, such as lymph node ratio (LNR), vascular invasion, and perineural invasion. Patients operated for colonic cancer liver metastases between 2006 and 2014 were included. Details on patient characteristics, the primary colon cancer operation and metastatic disease were collected. Multivariate analysis was performed to select predictive variables for OS and DFS. Median OS and DFS were 67 and 20 months, respectively. 1-, 3- and 5-year OS were 97, 76, and 52%. 1-, 3- and 5-year DFS were 65, 42, and 37%. Multivariate analysis showed LNR to be an independent predictive factor for DFS but not for OS. Other identified predictive factors were vascular and perineural invasion of the primary colon cancer, size of the largest metastasis and severe complications after liver surgery for OS, and perineural invasion, number of liver metastases and preoperative CEA-level for DFS. Traditional N-stage was also considered to be an independent predictive factor for DFS in a separate multivariate analysis.",
"We investigated the risk of morbidity after repeat resections for liver recurrence of hepatocellular carcinoma or for colorectal liver metastases. Although repeat hepatectomy for recurrences of hepatocellular carcinoma or for colorectal cancer liver metastases is well known only to carry risks similar to those seen for an initial liver resection, the safety of such a procedure is questionable because, typically, only a few liver tumors are thought suitable for repeat hepatectomy. Clinicopathology data were available for 412 hepatectomy patients (hepatocellular carcinoma in 226, colorectal liver metastases in 186). Risk factors for postoperative complications were analyzed retrospectively among the 57 patients undergoing a repeat hepatectomy. Using multivariate analysis, intraoperative blood loss (relative risk, 9.61; P = 0.02) affected the occurrence of postoperative complications after a second hepatectomy. In patients who lost more than 1.29 l blood intraoperatively at the second hepatectomy, a major hepatectomy (P < 0.05) by means of an anatomical type of resection (P < 0.01) was more often performed than in the patients with 1.29 l or less of blood loss.",
"To assess whether there is evidence that the surgeon is a prognostic factor in the treatment of colorectal cancer. MEDLINE 1985-February 1999, and bibliographies of retrieved articles. Publications which analysed the outcome of patients with colorectal cancer and in which one of the variables analysed was the surgeon. Thirteen studies were identified which addressed the outcome measures: post-operative mortality, anastomotic leak rate, local recurrence rate, and long-term survival. For these outcomes, different surgeons achieve significantly different results, with experienced and specialist surgeons achieving significantly better results than other surgeons.",
"This report describes the favorable results of mutual reporting of process and outcome of care for major resections of the colon and rectum, one of six focal points for the Center for Medicare Services studies seeking to broadly reduce death and complications and enhance consistency of care. A group of 66 surgical specialists in 9 cities in Kentucky reported cases to a quality improvement network over the past 5 years, and these data were supplemented by chart verification and patient satisfaction surveys. Consecutive colon and rectal resections (N=309) were reported by 23 general and colorectal surgeons. Eighty percent of the operations were performed by 4 surgeons. Forty-four percent of the patients had colorectal cancer, and 27% had diverticulitis; 84% of colon resections were performed by general surgeons whereas 77% of rectal resections were performed by colorectal specialists. Audit showed 6 leaks/fistulas and 16 patients who required unscheduled readmissions. Eleven patients had prolonged ileus. Only 2 patients died. Consensus among network surgeons included the following: 1. Mutual reporting led to a narrowing of choices and improved timing for antibiotic prophylaxis. 2. Standard order sets in one hospital led to a shortened duration of stay. 3. Surgeon participation in a quality improvement network led to a safe reduction in preoperative cardiology consultation. 4. More patients arrive with all evaluations complete due to increased utilization of preoperative anesthesiology clinics. 5. Enhanced operating room throughput has been achieved by joint anesthesia/surgery reporting and includes reduced time to induction of anesthesia and in the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit and lessened use of expensive postoperative antiemetics. 6. Reported medication errors were reduced by standard order sets, as were other reported adverse events.",
"This study was designed to evaluate the prognostic significance of various prognostic factors affecting recurrence after resection of colorectal hepatic metastases. Records of 54 patients who had hepatic resection between 1986 and 1993 for metastatic liver tumor from colorectal cancer were reviewed. Factors analyzed were those reported to be of prognostic significance in other studies, including gender, primary tumor site, Dukes stage, diagnostic interval, grade, preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level, number of metastases, size of metastases, distribution of metastases, type of resection, resection margin, and estimated blood loss. Average follow-up of surviving patients was 28 (range, 12-89) months. Average survival time from date of hepatic resection was 26 months, with an estimated actuarial survival rate of 25.5 percent at five years. Using the multivariate analysis of factors, gender and preoperative CEA level were shown to be significantly related to overall survival (P = 0.0455 and 0.054, respectively). Cancer of the right side colon had significant correlation with hepatic \"recurrence\" (P = 0.0071).",
"This paper discusses, whether neoadjuvant chemotherapy has an impact on the rate of postoperative complications after primary resection of liver metastases from colorectal carcinoma. Of 183 patients 64 were studied. The patients were subdivided into two matched groups of 32 patients each-prior neoadjuvant chemotherapy (CT-group) vs. (control-group, primary resection). There were no postoperative complications in 24 patients of the control group (75%) and 26 patients of the CT-group (81%). Following prior chemotherapy, no major complications such as liver failure were observed, even after extended resections.",
"The aim of this study is to evaluate whether a parenchymal-sparing strategy provides similar results in terms of morbidity, mortality, and oncological outcome of non-PSH hepatectomies in a propensity score matched population (PSMP) in case of multiple (>3) bilobar colorectal liver metastases (CLM). The surgical treatment of bilobar liver metastasis is challenging due to the necessity to achieve complete resection margins and a sufficient future remnant liver. Two approaches are adaptable as follows: parenchymal-sparing hepatectomies (PSH) and extended hepatectomies (NON-PSH). A total of 3036 hepatectomies were analyzed from a multicentric retrospective cohort of hepatectomies. Patients were matched in a 1:1 propensity score analysis in order to compare PSH versus NON-PSH resections. PSH was associated with a lower number of complications (≥1) (25% vs. 34%, p = 0.04) and a lower grade of Dindo-Clavien III and IV (10 vs. 16%, p = 0.03). Liver failure was less present in PSH (2 vs. 7%, p = 0.006), with a shorter ICU stay (0 day vs. 1 day, p = 0.004). No differences were demonstrated in overall and disease-free survival.",
"yes. Simultaneous colon and liver resection is safe and efficient in the treatment of patients with colorectal cancer and synchronous liver metastasis. By avoiding a second laparotomy, the overall complication rate is reduced, with no change in operative mortality. Given its reduced morbidity, shorter treatment time, and similar cancer outcomes, simultaneous resection should be considered a safe option in patients with resectable synchronous colorectal metastasis.",
"yes. This is the first study demonstrating that detection of hematogenous tumor cell dissemination during hepatic resection of colorectal cancer metastases predicts tumor relapse. Detection of disseminated tumor cells may help to individualize adjuvant therapy for patients with colorectal liver metastases and to develop surgical strategies to prevent intraoperative hematogenous tumor cell shedding.",
"Hepatectomy is the most effective treatment for patients with colorectal liver metastasis (CRLM). However, the procedure is also associated with a high risk of recurrence, and adjuvant chemotherapy for postoperative recurrence remains controversial. We investigated the efficacy of adjuvant chemotherapy for CRLM with the clinical risk score (CRS) proposed by Fong et al. Patients with CRLM who were treated, without preoperative chemotherapy, between 1992 and 2012 were classified as having low CRS (score of 0-1), intermediate CRS (2-3), or high CRS (4-5). The efficacy of adjuvant chemotherapy was retrospectively analyzed for each CRS subgroup. Of the 161 patients who underwent hepatectomy, 100 received adjuvant chemotherapy (group A) and 61 did not (group N). For intermediate CRS, 5-year disease free survival (DFS) was significant different between the groups (group A: n = 61; 33.9% vs. group N: n = 39; 23.2%, P = 0.008) and 5-year overall survival (OS) of group A was higher than group N (53.5 vs. 36.5%, P = 0.048), respectively. For both low CRS and high CRS, 5-year DFS and OS were similar between the groups. Multivariate analysis of DFS identified prognostic factors as major resection for low CRS (P = 0.02) and adjuvant chemotherapy for intermediate CRS (P = 0.015). Similarly, multivariate analysis of OS identified major resection for low CRS (P = 0.05) and adjuvant chemotherapy for intermediate CRS (P = 0.05). High CRS was not identified prognostic factor.",
"To evaluate the impact of liver ischemia from hepatic pedicle clamping (HPC) on long-term outcome after hepatectomy for colorectal liver metastases (CRLM). Liver resection offers the only chance of cure for patients with CRLM. Several clinical and pathologic factors have been reported as determinants of poor outcome after hepatectomy for CRLM. A controversial issue is that hepatic ischemia/reperfusion injury from HPC may adversely affect long-term outcome by accelerating the outgrowth of residual hepatic micrometastases. Patients undergoing liver resection for CRLM in 2 tertiary referral centers, between 1992 and 2008, were included. Disease-free survival and specific liver-free survival were analyzed according to the use, type, and duration of HPC. Five hundred forty-three patients had primary hepatectomy for CRLM. Hepatic pedicle clamping was performed in 355 patients (65.4%), and intermittently applied in 254 patients (71.5%). Postoperative mortality and morbidity rates were 1.3% and 18.5%, respectively. Hepatic pedicle clamping had a highly significant impact in reducing the risk of blood transfusions and was not correlated with significantly higher postoperative morbidity. Liver recurrence rate was not significantly different according to the use, type, and duration of HPC, in patients resected after preoperative chemotherapy as well. On univariate analysis, HPC did not significantly affect overall and disease-free survival. These results were confirmed on the multivariate analysis where blood transfusions, primary tumor nodal involvement, and the size of CRLM of more than 5 cm prevailed as determinants of poor outcome.",
"Fewer patients referred by general surgeons had resectable liver disease. After surgery, recurrent tumor was more likely to develop in the GS group; their overall outcome was worse than that of the CS group. This observation is partly explained by a lower local recurrence rate in the CS group.",
"yes. Negative CXCR4 expression in resected colorectal cancer hepatic metastases is independently associated with improved disease-specific and recurrence-free survival and favorable patterns of recurrence.",
"yes. Practicing surgeons meet and/or exceed published benchmarks for colorectal resections and can further improve their outcomes by standardization and refinement of orders and procedures and improved collaboration with anesthesiologists.",
"Surgical indication for stage IV colorectal cancer patients with bilobar hepatic metastases may be controversial. Retrospective cohort analysis was performed using data of 200 patients who underwent surgical resections for synchronous metastases of colorectal cancer between 1990 and 2005. Of these, 80 patients had solitary, 43 had unilobar multiple, and 77 had bilobar metastases. Prognostic factors of the 77 bilobar metastases were evaluated using multivariate analysis. The survival was compared with that of 95 patients undergoing chemotherapy for unresectable bilobar hepatic metastases. Univariate and multivariate analyses revealed that the number of metastasis (≥6) [relative risk (RR), 2.7; P = 0.002] and depth of invasion (T4) (RR, 2.0; P = 0.04) were predictors of survival of the 77 patients. The survival of 11 T4 cancer patients with six or more metastases was poor, but significantly better than that of 95 patients with unresectable bilobar metastases (P = 0.04).",
"Hepatic resection is the treatment of choice in patients with colorectal liver metastases. Perioperative morbidity is associated with decreased long-term survival in several cancers. The aim of this study was to assess the impact of perioperative morbidity and other prognostic factors on the outcome of patients undergoing liver resection for colorectal metastases. One hundred ninety seven patients undergoing liver resection with curative intent were investigated. The influence of prognostic factors, such as complications, tumor stage, margins, age, sex, number of lesions, transfusion, portal inflow obstruction, and era and type of resection, was assessed using univariate and multivariate analysis. Complications were graded using an objective surgical complication classification. The 5-year survival rate was 38%, with a median follow up of 4.5 years. The disease-free survival rate at 5 years was 23%. The perioperative morbidity and mortality rates were 30 and 2.5%, respectively. The median survival of patients with perioperative complications was 3.2 years, compared to 4.4 years in those patients without complications (p < 0.01). For patients with positive resection margins, the median survival was 2.1 years, compared 4.4 years in patients with a margin (p = 0.019).",
"The aim of the study was to compare outcomes for emergency management of diverticulitis before and after the creation of a regional subspecialist colorectal unit. We retrieved data on all emergency admissions for diverticulitis from the regional surgical audit database and compared results before (January 1998 to August 2002) and after (August 2002 to December 2008) establishment of the subspecialist colorectal surgery unit in August 2002. Additional data were retrieved from electronic patient records. The primary outcome measures were mortality and rate of primary anastomosis following resection. There were 879 patients before and 1280 patients after subspecialization. Nonoperative management was undertaken in approximately 80% of cases. Total mortality fell from 3.3 to 1.5% (P = 0.008), attributable to reduced operative mortality (9.6 to 4.2%; P = 0.019). The primary anastomosis rate for all left colon resections increased from 50.3 to 77.9%; P < 0.0001. Stoma formation of any type fell from 46.6 to 27.7%; P < 0001).",
"Recent evidence suggests that metastasectomy is efficacious for selected patients with hepatic and pulmonary metastases from a colorectal primary. The aim of this study was to identify a subgroup of patients who best benefit from hepatic and pulmonary metastasectomy among those with colorectal carcinoma metastases. We analyzed retrospectively a total of 136 patients who underwent resection of hepatic or pulmonary metastases of colorectal origin at Niigata University Medical Hospital between 1982 and 2000. The median follow-up period was 94 months. Eighty-four patients underwent hepatectomy alone, 25 underwent pulmonary resection alone, and 27 underwent both hepatic and pulmonary resection. The 27 patients undergoing hepatic and pulmonary resection were divided into two groups: 17 patients with sequentially detected hepatic and pulmonary metastases and 10 patients with simultaneously detected metastases. Survival time was determined from the date of initial metastasectomy. Differences in cumulative survival were evaluated using the log-rank test. Sixteen factors were assessed for their influence on the survival of the 27 patients undergoing resection of hepatic and pulmonary metastases; univariate and multivariate analyses were used in this evaluation. Patient survival after hepatic and pulmonary resection was comparable with that after hepatectomy alone (p = 0.536) and that after pulmonary resection alone (p = 0.294). Among the 27 patients undergoing hepatic and pulmonary resection, the outcomes after resection were significantly better in patients with sequentially detected metastases (cumulative 5-year survival of 44%) than in those with simultaneously detected ones (cumulative 5-year survival of 0%) (p < 0.001). On multivariate analysis sequential detection of hepatic and pulmonary metastases was the strongest independent favorable prognostic factor (p <0.001).",
"yes. Surgeon specialty impacts the adequacy of oncologic staging in patients undergoing resection for primary lung cancer. Specifically, general thoracic surgeons performed intraoperative oncologic staging significantly more often than did their general surgeon and cardiac surgeon counterparts while achieving significantly lower in-hospital mortality and complication rates.",
"Patients with multiple risk factors had poor overall survival after curative resection of RAS mutant colorectal liver metastases. For such patients, hepatectomy may be ill advised, and alternative therapies or further systemic therapy should be considered.",
"yes. Surgical treatment of colorectal liver metastases remains the best option for patients with this disease. A key factor in overall survival is the destruction or resection of all identifiable disease and not the number of tumors per se. Using cryotherapy as an addition to the surgical arsenal, patients previously deemed unresectable because of the number of lesions have a chance for long-term survival. This study demonstrates improved long-term survival for \"cured\" patients with more than 4 metastatic lesions, thereby extending the indications for resection/ablation.",
"To determine the long-term disease-free and overall survivals for patients undergoing hepatic resection for colorectal cancer metastases and to define significant predictors of improved patients survival. Retrospective review. Single tertiary care center. Two hundred eighty consecutive patients underwent hepatic resection for colorectal cancer metastases at the Mayo Clinic from 1960 to 1987. Fifty patients alive at the completion of the study had a mean follow-up of 11.3 years (median, 121 months). Disease-free interval following initial hepatic resection and death. The overall 5-year survival of the 280 patients was 27%. Twenty-eight patients were alive at 10 years from the time of hepatic resection, and the 10-year actuarial survival was 20%. Only 2 patients alive and free of disease at 5 years had recurrent disease. For all other patients who were free of disease more than 5 years after hepatic resection and died, the cause of death was not cancer related. No patients characteristics or features of the primary tumor affected survival. Clinical presentation of metastatic disease, configuration of hepatic lesions, the presence of extrahepatic lymph node involvement, and the existence of resectable extrahepatic disease significantly affected long-term patient survival. Need for perioperative blood product transfusion was associated with a lower probability of long-term survival.",
"Hepatic resection is well established as a potentially curative treatment for hepatic colorectal cancer metastases. However, only a small proportion of patients with liver metastases are suitable for resection because they either have extrahepatic disease, or the extent and/or the distribution of their hepatic disease would make excision impossible. We have previously described the use of cryotherapy for inadequate resection margins and lesions in the remaining lobe of the liver. Combining such cryodestructive techniques with resection offers the possibility of increasing the proportion of patients to whom potentially curative treatment can be offered. The aim of this study was to compare survival in patients treated with resection and cryotherapy against those of patients treated with resection alone. Potential prognostic variables were also examined. Patients undergoing a hepatic resection with or without cryotherapy at our unit between April 1990 and July 1997 were identified from our database and their notes reviewed. Survival was estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method and compared using the Log rank test. One hundred and seven patients were treated in total: 32 underwent resection alone, and 75 underwent resection combined with cryotherapy. There was no significant difference between the survival of patients treated with resection alone and those treated with resection and cryotherapy.",
"yes. Our study confirmed the number of metastases and CEADT as prominent prognostic factors after hepatic resection for metastatic colorectal cancer. These two factors reflect the degree of Fas/CD95 signaling rather than angiogenesis or cancer growth rate.",
"In asymptomatic patients presenting with non-resectable synchronous metastatic disease from colorectal adenocarcinoma, the beneficial effect of resecting the primary tumor remains to be documented. The aim of this study was to compare survival of patients with metastatic colorectal cancer who underwent elective resection of the primary tumor to those who did not. A retrospective analysis of patients with metastatic colo-rectal cancer treated between June, 1996 and December, 1999 was performed. Overall survival was compared between patients who underwent first-line resection of the primary colorectal tumor (group 1) or those who did not undergo elective resection of the primary (group 2). The probability of surgical resection of the primary tumor for gastrointestinal complications in group 2 was evaluated. Thirty-one and 23 patients were included in groups 1 and 2 respectively. Five patients (21.7%, 95% confidence interval CI95% 4.9-38.5%) in group 2 required surgical treatment for intestinal obstruction due to the primary tumor. Two clinical characteristics were significantly different between groups 1 and 2: rectal localization (9.7% versus 34.7%; P=0.03) and presence of fewer than three metastases (29.0% versus 4.3%; P=0.03). Survival curves were not significantly different (logrank). Median duration of survival was 21 and 14 Months, respectively (P=0.718).",
"yes. Delaying hepatic resection for metastatic colorectal cancer does not impair survival. Potentially, two thirds of patients can avoid maj or hepatic surgery. For synchronous metastases, delaying hepatic resection appears to select patients who will benefit from hepatic resection.",
"Outcome after hepatic resection for colorectal cancer liver metastases (CRLM) is heterogeneous and accurate predictors of survival are lacking. This study analyzes the prognostic relevance of pathologic details of the primary colorectal tumor in patients undergoing hepatic resection for CRLM. Retrospective review of a prospective database identified patients who underwent resection for CRLM. Clinicopathological variables were investigated and their association with outcome was analyzed. From 1997-2007, 1,004 patients underwent hepatic resection for CRLM. The median follow-up was 59 months with a 5-year survival of 47%. Univariate analysis identified nine factors associated with poor survival; three of these related to the primary tumor: lymphovascular invasion (LVI, p<0.0001), perineural invasion (p=0.005), and degree of regional lymph node involvement (N0 vs. N1 vs. N2, p<0.0001). Multivariate analysis identified seven factors associated with poor survival, two of which related to the primary tumor: LVI (hazard ratio (HR) 1.3, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.06-1.64, p=0.01) and degree of regional lymph node involvement [N1 (HR 1.3, 95% CI 1.04-1.69, p=0.02) vs. N2 (HR 1.7, 95% CI 1.27-2.21, p<0.0005)]. A significant decrease in survival along the spectrum of patients ranging from LVI negative/N0 to LVI positive/N2 was present. Patients who were LVI-positive/N2 had a median survival of 40 months compared with 74 months for patients who were LVI-negative/NO (p<0.0001).",
"Assessing impact of major liver resection (LR) for hepatic metastasis of colorectal cancer (HMCC) on post operative courses and long term survival in the elderly. Thirty-three consecutive patients aged over 70 years-old were treated in our institution for up to 3 resectable metachronous HMCC. Fifteen patients had major LR (9 right hepatectomy, 3 extended right hepatectomy, 3 left hepatectomy) without pre or postoperative chemotherapy (group 1) and 18 patients were exclusively treated by chemotherapy (group 2) because of high ASA score (ASA 3) or patients refusal. No patients died of another cause that colorectal cancer disease during observation time. All patients of group 2 died during observation time. Post operative mortality and morbidity of group 1 were respectively 0% and 33%. Survival at 1 and 2 years of group 1-2 were respectively 73-50% (P=0,04) and 47-15% (P=0,05). Median survival of group 1 and 2 were respectively 22 and 12 months (P=0,03).",
"Prognostic factors for colorectal cancer with hepatic metastasis are not well-established. We investigated the factors that predicted survival following surgical resection of hepatic metastases in patients with colorectal cancer. Fifty-three patients underwent resection of hepatic metastases of colorectal cancer between January 2000 and December 2005, with follow-up periods that ranged from 3 to 119 months. In this retrospective study, the effects of sex, age, type of hepatic resection, T stage and N stage of the primary cancer, number and size of metastatic hepatic tumors, synchronicity or metachronicity of the liver metastases, surgical resection margins, and preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels on 1-year and 3-year survival were analyzed using the Kaplan-Meier method and the log rank test. Median survival was 39.9 months and the 3-year survival rate was 62.2%. Twenty patients died during the follow-up period of 3 to 119 months (mean, 48.8±34.24). In univariate analysis, only the surgical margin of the hepatic metastasis resection correlated significantly with 3-year survival. Sex, age, T stage and N stage of the primary cancer, synchronicity or metachronicity of the metastases, number and size of hepatic metastases, type of hepatic resection and preoperative CEA levels did not predict long-term outcome.",
"The aim of this study was to determine the effect of surgeon specialty on disease-free survival and local control in patients with adenocarcinoma of the rectum. Patients underwent curative treatment with neoadjuvant external beam radiotherapy and proctectomy by colorectal surgeons and noncolorectal surgeons. The records of 384 consecutive patients treated by colorectal surgeons (n = 251) and noncolorectal surgeons (n = 133) from 1977 to 1995 were reviewed independently by physicians in the Division of Radiation Oncology. Local recurrence was defined as pelvic recurrence occurring in the presence or absence of distant metastatic disease. The study population comprised 213 males, mean age 64 (range, 19-97) years. Preoperative radiotherapy was delivered as 4,500 cGy in 25 fractions six to eight weeks before surgery (n = 293) or 2,000 cGy in 5 fractions immediately before surgery (n = 91). Concurrent preoperative chemotherapy was given to 14 patients, postoperative chemotherapy to 55. Overall actuarial disease-free survival and local control rates were 74 and 90 percent, respectively, at five years. Actuarial disease-free survival and local control rates at five years were 77 and 93 percent for colorectal surgeons vs. 68 and 84 percent for noncolorectal surgeons (P < or = 0.005 for both, Tarone-Ware). Multivariate analysis revealed that pathologic stage and background of the surgeon were the only independent predictors of disease-free survival (both P < or = 0.006, Cox proportional hazards) and that pathologic stage, background of the surgeon, and proximal location of the tumor were independent predictors of local control (all P < or = 0.02, Cox proportional hazards). Radiation dose and use of chemotherapy were not significant factors. Sphincter preservation was more common by colorectal surgeons (131/251, 52 percent) than noncolorectal surgeons (40/133, 30 percent; P = 0.00004, Fisher's exact test, two-tailed).",
"It is essential that higher surgical trainees (HSTs) obtain adequate emergency operative experience without compromising patient outcome. The aim of this study was to compare the outcomes of patients operated by HSTs with those operated by consultants and to look at the effect of consultant supervision. A retrospective analysis of 362 patients who underwent urgent colorectal surgery was performed. The primary outcome was 30-day mortality. Secondary outcomes were intra-operative and postoperative surgery, specific and systemic complications, and delayed complications. Comparison of the patients operated by a consultant (n = 190) and a HST (n = 172) as the primary surgeon revealed no significant difference between the two groups for age, gender, ASA status or indication for surgery. There was a difference in the type of procedure performed (left-sided resections: consultants 122/190, HST 91/172; P = 0.050). There was no difference between the two groups for the primary and secondary outcomes. However, HSTs operating unsupervised performed significantly fewer primary anastomoses for left-sided resections (P = 0.019) and had more surgery specific complications (P = 0.028) than those supervised by a consultant.",
"There is considerable evidence that blood returning from different abdominal organs does not mix completely but maintains streamline flow in the portal vein. This study tested the hypothesis that the location of primary colorectal carcinoma affects the intrahepatic distribution of liver metastases according to streamline flow in the portal vein. Eighty-five patients with histologically verified liver metastases from colorectal carcinoma underwent potentially curative hepatectomy. Primary tumor location was the right-sided colon in 18 patients and the left-sided colon in 67. The liver was divided into two lobes by Cantlie's line. A total of 195 metastatic deposits were resected: 135 in the right lobe and 60 in the left. In the right-sided colon carcinoma group, 29 deposits were in the right lobe and 3 in the left. In the left-sided colon carcinoma group, 106 deposits were in the right lobe and 57 in the left. The pattern of lobar distribution was significantly different in the two groups (P = 0.003).",
"Hepatic resectional surgery remains a highly specialized area of general surgery usually reserved for completion at tertiary metropolitan referral centres. Port Macquarie, on the Mid North Coast of New South Wales, is the only regionally based hospital offering surgery of this nature in mainland Australia. The purpose of this study is to review the data for patients undergoing hepatic resectional surgery in this non-metropolitan centre in order to illustrate that these operations can be carried out safely in a regional setting with comparable results to tertiary-level centres. A retrospective review of consecutive patients undergoing elective hepatic resections at Port Macquarie from February 2008 to 31 October 2015 was completed. Pre-morbid patient clinical and demographic factors, histopathological details, post-operative complications, survival and mortality data were all noted. A total of 66 consecutive elective liver resections were performed during the study period. Metastatic colorectal cancer was the most commonly observed pathology (n = 33, 50.0%). The 90-day mortality was 4.5% (n = 3) whilst 17 patients (n = 17, 25.8%) experienced major complications (Clavien-Dindo grade 3 or 4). The median overall survival following hepatectomy for colorectal metastases was 48 months (95% confidence interval 37-59 months).",
"yes. Perioperative morbidity and a positive resection margin had a negative impact on long-term survival in patients following liver resection for colorectal metastases.",
"After curative resection of hepatic colorectal metastases, 10-20% of patients experience a resectable hepatic recurrence. We wanted to assess the expected risk-to-benefit ratio in comparison to first hepatectomy and to determine the prognostic factors associated with survival. Twenty-nine patients from a group of 152 patients resected for colorectal liver metastases underwent 32 repeat hepatectomies. In-hospital mortality was 3.5% (1/29 patients); the morbidity after repeat hepatectomy was lower than that after first hepatic resection. Combined extrahepatic surgery was performed on 34.5% of repeat hepatectomies vs. 6.9% of first hepatectomies (P = 0.01). Overall actuarial 3-year survival was 35.1%: four patients have survived more than 3 years and one survived for more than 5 years. The number of hepatic metastases and the carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) serum levels were significant prognostic factors on univariate analysis. The synchronous resection of hepatic and extrahepatic disease was not associated with a lower survival rate when compared with that of patients without extrahepatic localization: three patients of the former group are alive and disease-free at more than 2 years.",
"Our findings suggest that, when feasible, resection of liver metastases should be considered as an initial approach in this setting. Further studies are needed to better delineate innovative therapeutic strategies that may lead to an improved outcome for colorectal cancer patients with surgically resectable liver metastases.",
"It is still a matter of debate as to whether resective surgery of the primary tumor may prolong the survival of patients affected by incurable colorectal cancer (CRC). The main goal of this retrospective study, carried out on patients not undergoing any therapy other than surgery, was to quantify the benefit of primary tumor removal in patients with differently presenting incurable CRC. One hundred and thirty consecutive patients were operated on for incurable CRC (83 undergoing resective and 47 non-resective procedures). With the purpose of comparing homogenous populations and of identifying patients who may benefit from primary tumor resection, the patients were classified according to classes of disease, based on the \"metastatic pattern\" and the \"resectability of primary tumor.\" In patients with \"resectable\" primary tumors, resective procedures are associated with longer median survival than after non-resective ones (9 months vs 3). Only patients with distant spread without neoplastic ascites/carcinosis benefit from primary tumor removal (median survival: 9 months vs 3). Morbidity and mortality of resective procedures is not significantly different from that of non-resective surgery, either in the population studied or in any of the groups considered.",
"To investigate prognostic impact of parenchymal-sparing hepatectomy (PSH) for solitary small colorectal liver metastasis (CLM). It is unclear whether PSH confers an oncologic benefit through increased salvageability or is a detriment through increasing recurrence rate. Database of 300 CLM patients with a solitary tumor (≤ 30 mm in size) was reviewed from 1993 to 2013. A total of 156 patients underwent PSH and 144 patients underwent right hepatectomy, left hepatectomy, or left lateral sectionectomy (non-PSH group). The rate of PSH increased over the study period (P < 0.01). PSH did not impact negatively on overall (OS), recurrence-free, and liver-only recurrence-free survival, compared with non-PSH (P = 0.53, P = 0.97, and P = 0.69, respectively). Liver-only recurrence was observed in 22 patients (14%) in the PSH and 25 (17%) in the non-PSH group (P = 0.44). Repeat hepatectomy was more frequently performed in the PSH group (68% vs 24%, P < 0.01). Subanalysis of patients with liver-only recurrence revealed better 5-year overall survival from initial hepatectomy and from liver recurrence in the PSH than in the non-PSH group [72.4% vs 47.2% (P = 0.047) and 73.6% vs 30.1% (P = 0.018), respectively]. Multivariate analysis revealed that non-PSH was a risk of noncandidacy for repeat hepatectomy (hazard ratio: 8.18, confidence interval: 1.89-45.7, P < 0.01).",
"In this review, we address the underlying mechanisms by which surgery augments metastases outgrowth and how these insights can be used to develop perioperative therapeutic strategies for prevention of tumor recurrence. Surgical removal of the primary tumor provides the best chance of long-term disease-free survival for patients with colorectal cancer (CRC). Unfortunately, a significant part of CRC patients will develop metastases, even after successful resection of the primary tumor. Paradoxically, it is now becoming clear that surgery itself contributes to development of both local recurrences and distant metastases. Data for this review were identified by searches of PubMed and references from relevant articles using the search terms \"surgery,\" \"CRC,\" and \"metastases.\" Surgical trauma and concomitant wound-healing processes induce local and systemic changes, including impairment of tissue integrity and production of inflammatory mediators and angiogenic factors. This can lead to immune suppression and enhanced growth or adhesion of tumor cells, all of which increase the chance of exfoliated tumor cells developing into secondary malignancies.",
"Advances in surgical techniques and chemotherapeutic options have expanded indications for surgery in patients with metastatic colorectal cancer. This study aimed to examine how hepatopancreatobiliary (HPB) surgeons approach the management of patients with hepatic colorectal cancer metastases (HCCM). A web-based survey utilizing 10 clinical scenarios was distributed by e-mail to 37 HPB surgeons in Ontario, Canada. The study region has a population of approximately 13 million people and a universal, single-payer health care system. Descriptive analyses were used to tabulate results. Twenty-two (59%) surgeons responded to the survey. The majority (19/22, 86%) of respondents favoured neoadjuvant chemotherapy for patients with multiple synchronous and unilobar metastases; only nine of 22 (41%) respondents favoured neoadjuvant chemotherapy for patients with a single synchronous metastasis. In the setting of residual resectable disease following downstaging chemotherapy, 77% (17/22) of surgeons advocated hepatic resection with either radiofrequency ablation (RFA) or wedge resection of the 'ghost' lesions. Over 80% of surgeons would perform a liver and pulmonary resection in a patient with hepatic and multiple unilobar lung metastases. None would offer liver resection to patients with multiple retroperitoneal node involvement, although 55% (12/22) would do so if a single retroperitoneal node was involved. Preoperative portal vein embolization was favoured over RFA in patients with a small metastasis and inadequate functional hepatic volume.",
"The objective of this retrospective study was to assess the survival of patients after resection of hepatic and pulmonary colorectal metastases to identify predictors of long-term survival. Patients receiving chemotherapy alone were compared to patients receiving surgery and chemotherapy in a matched-pair analysis with the following criteria: UICC stage, grading, and date of initial primary tumor occurrence. A total of 30 patients with liver and lung metastases of colorectal carcinoma underwent resection. In 20 cases, complete resection was achieved (median survival, 67 months). Incomplete resection and preoperatively elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels are independent risk factors for reduced survival. Patients developing pulmonary metastases prior to hepatic metastases had the worst prognosis. Surgical resection significantly increased survival compared to chemotherapy alone in matched-pair analysis (65 vs. 30 months, p = 0.03).",
"yes. Simultaneous resection of rectal primaries and liver metastases is a safe procedure in carefully selected patients at high-volume institutions, even if major liver resections are required.",
"One quarter of colorectal cancer patients will present with liver metastasis at the time of diagnosis. Recent studies have shown that simultaneous resections are safe and feasible for stage IV colon cancer. Limited data are available for simultaneous surgery in stage IV rectal cancer patients. One hundred ninety-eight patients underwent surgical treatment for stage IV rectal cancer. In 145 (73%) patients, a simultaneous procedure was performed. Fifty-three (27%) patients underwent staged liver resection. A subpopulation of 69 (35%) patients underwent major liver resection (3 segments or more) and 30 (44%) patients with simultaneous surgery. The demographics of the 2 groups were similar. Complication rates were comparable for simultaneous or staged resections, even in the group subjected to major liver resection. Total hospital stay was significantly shorter for the simultaneously resected patients (P < .01).",
"Liver resection is able to offer long-term survival to patients with multiple colorectal metastases provided that the metastatic disease is controlled by chemotherapy prior to surgery. Tumor progression before surgery is associated with a poor outcome, even after potentially curative hepatectomy. Tumor control before surgery is crucial to offer a chance of prolonged remission in patients with multiple metastases.",
"Surgeries for CNS tumors are frequently performed by general neurosurgeons and by those who specialize in surgical neurooncology. Subspecialization in neurosurgical practice has become common and may improve patient morbidity and mortality rates. However, the potential benefits for patients of having their surgeries performed by surgical neurooncologists remain unclear. Recently, a shift in patient care to those who practice predominantly surgical neurooncology has been promoted. Evidence for this practice is lacking and therefore requires fundamental investigation. The authors conducted a case-control study of neurooncology patients who underwent surgery for glioblastoma and anaplastic astrocytoma during 2006-2009. Outcomes were compared for patients whose surgery was performed by general neurosurgeons (generalists) or by specialist neurooncology neurosurgeons (specialists). An electronic record database and a picture archiving and communication system were used to collect data and assess the extent of tumor resection. Mortality rates and survival times were compared. Patient comorbidity and postoperative morbidity were assessed by using the Waterlow, patient handling, and falls risk assessment scores. Effects of case mix were adjusted for by using Cox regression and a hazards model. Outcomes for 135 patients (65 treated by generalists and 70 by specialists) were analyzed. Survival times were longer for patients whose surgery was performed by specialists (p=0.026) and after correction for case mix (p=0.019). Extent of tumor resection was greater when performed by specialists (p=0.005) and correlated with increased survival times (p=0.004). There was a trend toward reduced surgical deaths when surgery was performed by specialists (2.8%) versus generalists (7%) (p=0.102), and inpatient stays were significantly shorter when surgery was performed by specialists (p=0.008).",
"yes. In patients undergoing curative resection of hepatic colorectal metastases, hTERT and Ki-67 are better predictors of survival than is a score based on clinical features.",
"yes. Simultaneous resections of colorectal cancer primary lesions and hepatic metastases were safe and could serve as a primary option for selected SCRLM patients.",
"The optimal surgical strategy for the treatment of synchronous resectable colorectal liver metastasis has not been defined. The aims of this study were to review our experience with synchronous colorectal metastasis and to define the safety of simultaneous versus staged resection of the colon and liver. From September 1984 through November 2001, 240 patients were treated surgically for primary adenocarcinoma of the large bowel and synchronous hepatic metastasis. Clinicopathologic, operative, and perioperative data were reviewed to evaluate selection criteria, operative methods, and perioperative outcomes. One hundred thirty-four patients underwent simultaneous resection of a colorectal primary and hepatic metastasis in a single operation (Group I), and 106 patients underwent staged operations (Group II). Simultaneous resections tend to be performed for right colon primaries (p < 0.001), smaller (p < 0.01) and fewer (p < 0.001) liver metastases, and less extensive liver resection (p < 0.001). Complications were less common in the simultaneous resection group, with 65 patients (49%) sustaining 142 complications, compared with 71 patients (67%) sustaining 197 complications for both hospitalizations in the staged resection group (p < 0.003). Patients having simultaneous resection required fewer days in the hospital (median 10 days versus 18 days, p = 0.001). Perioperative mortality was similar (simultaneous, n = 3; staged, n = 3).",
"The National Health Service (NHS) Cancer Plan guidelines recommend a maximum 2-week wait from referral to first appointment, and 2 months from referral to treatment for primary cancers. However, there are currently no guidelines available for metastatic disease. In the UK, nearly half of all colorectal cancer patients develop hepatic metastases. Timely, surgical resection offers the potential for cure. The aim of this study was to audit current practice for colorectal liver metastases in a regional hepatobiliary unit, and compare this to the NHS Cancer Plan standards for primary disease. A retrospective review of the unit's database was performed for all hepatic metastases referrals from January 2006 to December 2008. The dates of referral, first appointment, investigations and initiation of treatment, along with patient's age and sex, were recorded on Microsoft Excel and analysed. Time was expressed as mean +/- SD in days. A total of 102 patients with hepatic metastases were identified. Five were excluded due to incomplete data. The average time from referral to first appointment was 10.6 +/- 9.4 days and the average time from referral to treatment was 38.5 +/- 28.6 days. Seventy-five (72.7%) had surgical intervention, of whom 37 also had chemotherapy.",
"This study investigates oncological risks and benefits of portal occlusion (PO) in major resection for colorectal liver metastases (CLM). Between 1995 and 2004, 107 patients were scheduled for major hepatectomy for CLM. Of these, 53 patients were selected for PO due to insufficient future liver remnant (FLR), and 54 patients had straightforward hepatectomy. Associations of clinicopathologic factors with resectability, and outcome after PO were analyzed. 21 of 53 patients (39.6%) after PO were unresectable. These patients had a significant smaller volume of the FLR than the 32 resected patients after PO (P = .029). In total, 17 patients (80.9%) did not undergo resection due to cancer progression. Among these, 11 patients (52.4%) exhibited either a progression of known metastases located in the occluded lobes, or new metastases in the nonoccluded portion of the liver. In another 4 individuals (19%), the decision against resection resulted from insufficient hypertrophy of the FLR. Following major hepatectomy, the 5-year survival was 43.66%. Although there was a significantly higher rate of extended hepatectomies versus formal hepatectomies (P<.001), more bilobar distributed metastases versus unilobar manifestations (P = .015), and a smaller resection margin (P = .01) in patients who had PO, no adverse effect on mortality, morbidity, recurrence and survival was observed.",
"no. A greater loss of healthy liver following resection of hepatic metastases from colorectal cancer does not seem to predispose to the development of toxicity from adjuvant HAI and systemic chemotherapy.",
"no. Patients with sequentially detected hepatic and pulmonary metastases from a colorectal primary are good candidates for aggressive metastasectomy. Simultaneous detection of these metastases does not warrant resection.",
"The aim of this study was to determine the results of liver resection for patients with bilateral hepatic metastases from colorectal cancer. We aimed to assess the evolution of the technical approach over time and correlations with morbidity, mortality, and oncologic outcome. Although hepatic resection for isolated colorectal metastases to the liver is thought to be beneficial when feasible, resection of bilateral liver metastases carries unique technical issues and is often associated with more aggressive tumor biology. Little has been written specifically about the results achieved in this subset of patients. Data from a prospectively maintained database of patients undergoing hepatic resection at a single institution over an 11-year time period were reviewed. Resection of bilateral liver metastases from colorectal cancer was accomplished in 443 cases (440 patients) with a 29% incidence of major complications and a 5.4% 90-day mortality. Kaplan-Meier estimated 5-year disease-specific survival was 30% and 5-year recurrence-free survival was 18%. Operative technique changed over time toward a parenchymal-sparing approach as evidenced by the greater use of multiple simultaneous liver resections, wedge resections, and ablations. Similarly, there was a decrease in the use of major hepatectomies. This correlated with decreased mortality without change in disease-specific survival or liver recurrence.",
"To evaluate the impact on survival of primary tumour resection in patients with unresectable synchronous metastases from colorectal cancer (CRC). Primary tumour resection in this setting remains controversial. We retrieved individual data of 1155 patients with metastatic CRC included in four first-line chemotherapy trials: Fédération Francophone de Cancérologie Digestive (FFCD)-9601, FFCD-2000-05, Actions Concertées dans les cancers COloRectaux et Digestifs (ACCORD)-13, and ML-16987. Patients with unresectable synchronous metastases were eligible for this study. We used univariate and multivariate analyses (Cox models stratified on the trial) to assess the impact of primary tumour resection and other potential prognostic variables on overall survival (OS) (the primary endpoint). Amongst the 1155 patients, 810 patients met the inclusion criteria and 59% (n = 478) underwent resection of their primary tumour, prior to trial entry (resection group). Compared to patients in the non-resection group (n =3 32 [41%]), those in the resection group were more likely to have a colonic primary, lower baseline carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and alkaline phosphatase levels, and normal white-blood-cell count (p<0.001 each). Primary tumour resection was independently associated to better OS in multivariate analysis (hazard ratio (HR), 0.63 [0.53-0.75]; p<0.001, with a more favourable impact of resection on OS in case of rectal primary and low CEA level. Primary tumour resection was also independently associated to a better progression-free survival in multivariate analysis (HR, 0.82 [0.70-0.95]; p<0.001).",
"yes. With extensive preoperative imaging, the vast majority of patients with potentially resectable hepatic colorectal metastases do not benefit from laparoscopy. However, in the minority of patients with occult unresectable disease, laparoscopy prevents unnecessary laparotomy and reduces hospital stay and the total hospital charges. The CRS, previously shown to predict survival after hepatic resection, identifies those high risk patients most likely to benefit from laparoscopy and may improve resource utilization.",
"The present study was designed to investigate whether the different venous return of different locations of colorectal carcinomas affects the lobar distribution of metastases to the liver, due to the \"streaming\" within the portal vein. The site of the primary colorectal carcinoma was divided into the right- and left hemicolon according to the different venous drainage via the superior and the inferior mesenteric/splenic vein. Both groups were analyzed for the distribution of the metastases in the liver. The anatomic site of the liver metastases was detected by intraoperative exploration and differentiated between the two lobes using the Cantlie line. Out of a total of 178 patients, 109 men and 69 women with 264 metastases were eligible for the study. The ratio of metastases in the right and left hemiliver was 3.6:1 for 35 right-sided primary tumors (p=0.002) compared with 2.1:1 for 143 left-sided primary tumors (p=NS). No significant differences were evident for the sub-analysis of involved liver segments.",
"yes. Resection of bilateral colorectal liver metastases can be accomplished with acceptable morbidity, mortality, and oncologic results. Increased use of a parenchymal-sparing approach is associated with decreased mortality without compromise in cancer-related outcome.",
"Management of patients with synchronous liver metastasis (SLM) is complex and the surgical decision process should be based on a comprehensive oncological strategy. The aim of the study was to compare outcome of single-center management of patients with colorectal cancer (CRC) and resectable SLM to those of referred patients for liver resection only after removal of their primary tumor (PT). Between 2000 and 2007, 47 patients with CRC and SLM underwent resection of both the PT and metastases under our care (unicentric) and 32 were referred after resection of their PT. The two groups were comparable for demographics, PT and metastatic disease data. In unicentric group, 23% received upfront chemotherapy with the PT in place, 53% had a combined CRC and SLM resection, 11% had a two-stage hepatectomy with resection of the primary during the first stage and 36% underwent delayed hepatectomy. The number of surgical interventions, the delay between diagnosis and liver resection (9 vs. 5 months, P < 0.001), the median number of cycles of chemotherapy before hepatectomy (12 vs. 6 months, P < 0.001) were significantly higher in the referred group. Postoperative morbidity was significantly higher in the referred group (75 vs. 47%, P = 0.023). The median follow-up was 43 months. OS and DFS were not significantly different between the two groups.",
"yes. Hepatic resection in selected patients with single and multiple colorectal hepatic metastases is justified.",
"Whilst hepatic resection is accepted for single colorectal metastases, the role of surgery for multiple deposits is less certain. This study reports results of a programme of aggressive resection of hepatic metastases. Of 150 hepatic resections for colorectal metastases, 107 patients have completed 1-9 years' follow-up for this actuarial survival analysis. Indications for resection were disease confined to the liver, resectability of all metastases and preservation of sufficient hepatic parenchyma. One patient (1 per cent) died after operation and six (6 per cent) suffered serious complications (two surgical and four medical) but with full recovery. Patients who had a radical resection (n = 89) had 1- and 5-year survival rates of 94 and 37 per cent respectively. A palliative group (n = 18) with disease elsewhere (n = 9) or positive histological margins (n = 9) had corresponding survival rates of 56 and 6 per cent. Univariate analysis of the group who had radical surgery demonstrated that survival depended on size of metastases (less than 7 cm) (P = 0.014), width of clear resection margin (greater than 5 mm) (P = 0.004) and primary site (P = 0.010). Factors not affecting outcome were number of metastases, unilateral versus bilateral disease, synchronous versus metachronous spread, tumour differentiation and Dukes stage. Multivariate analysis demonstrated independent survival advantage for small metastases (less than 7 cm) (P = 0.002) and clear resection margin greater than 5 mm (P = 0.037).",
"yes. Laparoscopic resection of colorectal cancer in patients undergoing simultaneous open resection of liver metastases is associated with a reduction of blood loss, morbidity, and postoperative hospital stay, without affecting oncologic radicality. Outcome is mainly conditioned by approach to intestinal surgery, rather than the extent of liver resection.",
"yes. Emergency management of diverticulitis by subspecialist colorectal surgeons is associated with low overall and operative mortality whilst safely achieving high rates of primary anastomosis.",
"yes. These results are similar to those reported for patients undergoing resection for operable metastases without neo-adjuvant therapy. Aggressive multimodality treatment of colorectal liver metastases in specialised centres may improve the resectability rates and survival in a selected group of patients.",
"The data compare favourably to the NHS Cancer Plan guidelines for primary malignancy, demonstrating that a regional hepatobiliary unit is capable of delivering a service for colorectal liver metastases that adheres to the NHS Cancer Plan. Therefore, the NHS Cancer Plan can be applied to this cohort.",
"Safety and efficacy of simultaneous resections for patients with colorectal cancer and synchronous liver metastases have been widely reported, while the topic of approach (laparoscopic or open) to hepatic and colorectal resection is still a debated issue. The aim of this study was to assess short-term outcome of combined resection of left colon or rectum cancer and liver metastases, comparing the results of the primary tumor resection performed by laparoscopic or open approach. From January 2004 to March 2014, 106 patients underwent combined resection of colorectal cancer and synchronous liver metastases. Sixty-nine patients underwent laparoscopic colorectal resection (laparoscopic colorectal surgery, LCS Group), and were compared with 37 patients undergoing colorectal resection by laparotomy (totally open surgery, TOS Group). Hepatic resection was performed by open approach in all the patients. Groups were comparable in terms of patients and disease characteristics, extent of liver resection, and length of surgery. In LCS Group, blood loss (400 vs. 650 mL, p < 0.001) and rate of intraoperative transfusions (19.3 vs. 47.2 %, p = 0.04) were lower compared to TOS Group. LCS Group was associated with reduced postoperative morbidity (24.6 vs. 44.4 %, p = 0.039), and shorter postoperative median hospital stay (9 vs. 13 days, p < 0.001). LCS and TOS Groups had comparable oncologic radicality in terms of primary tumor lymphadenectomy (median number of removed nodes 19 and 20, respectively, p NS) and rate of R1 colorectal resections (two patients in both Groups). Multivariate analysis revealed significant correlation morbidity with preoperative chemotherapy, blood loss, and approach to primary tumor.",
"The ongoing evolution of treatment strategies for colorectal liver metastases necessarily requires all patients to be reviewed at some point by the specialist hepatobiliary unit. This process can be streamlined through close collaboration with the local colorectal multidisciplinary team (MDT). The study was performed to see if a local colorectal MDT was able to make a correct decision regarding potential operability of liver metastases, by comparing its decision with that of two hepatobiliary surgeons in our referral centre. CT scans of 38 patients found to have liver metastases from colorectal cancer were anonymized and sent to two hepatobiliary surgeons in our cancer network. They classified them into three categories: R, resectable; C, chemotherapy to downsize then consider resection; U, unresectable. The results were then compared with the opinion of our colorectal MDT, made before the referral to the hepatobiliary surgeons. The two independent hepatobiliary surgeons agreed with each other on 35/38 (92%) of CT scans. Our colorectal MDT agreed with the hepatobiliary surgeons in 36/38 (95%) of cases. Only 9 (32%) of the 28 patients deemed suitable on the CT scan by the hepatobiliary surgeons actually had a liver resection.",
"The use of major versus limited hepatic resection for colorectal carcinoma liver metastases remains controversial. We evaluated the role of major hepatic resection in managing patients with colorectal carcinoma liver metastases. We performed a retrospective analysis of 102 patients undergoing either major (n = 61) or limited (n = 41) hepatic resection for colorectal carcinoma metastases. Major hepatic resection was defined as segmentectomy or more extensive hepatic resection; limited hepatic resection was defined as non-anatomic removal of the liver tumor plus a rim of normal parenchyma. The median follow-up period was 94 months. Patients undergoing major hepatic resection had larger hepatic tumors than those undergoing limited hepatic resection (p < 0.001, Fisher's exact test). The cumulative probability of intrahepatic recurrences after major hepatic resection was significantly lower than that after limited hepatic resection (p = 0.010, log-rank test). Major hepatic resection independently reduced the probability of intrahepatic recurrences (p = 0.043, Cox's proportional hazards model). Limited hepatic resection frequently resulted in recurrences within the same segment or the same lobe of the remnant liver.",
"Subspecialist CR management of patients undergoing emergency left-sided colonic resection on an acute surgical unit is associated with a similar level of morbidity and mortality while safely achieving significantly higher rates of primary anastomosis and lower stoma rates.",
"Left-sided colonic pathologies requiring emergency resection are commonly encountered on an acute surgical unit. Subspecialist colorectal (CR) management of these patients may result in decreased morbidity, mortality and stoma rates. This study is the first of its kind comparing outcomes between CR surgeons and general surgeons on an acute surgical unit. This is a retrospective review of 196 consecutive patients who underwent emergency left colonic resection on an acute surgical unit between January 2009 and July 2014. Patients were divided into two groups dependent on whether their surgery was managed by a CR specialist or general surgeon. Primary outcome measures were 30-day mortality, rate of primary anastomosis and overall stoma rate. Patients in the two groups were comparable for age, sex, American Society for Anesthesiologists score as well as CR POSSUM scores. Rates of primary anastomosis were significantly higher in the CR group compared with the acute surgical unit group (85.5 versus 28.7%, P ≤ 0.001). Overall stoma rates were significantly lower in the CR group (40.4 versus 88.8%, P = 0.0001). Thirty-day mortality was similar in both groups. Other secondary markers of morbidity including length of stay, return to theatre, anastomotic leak rate, wound problems and systemic complications had no significant difference between the two groups.",
"yes. Hepatic resection provides a safe and effective treatment in patients with hepatic metastasis from colorectal cancer. In this study, only the surgical resection margin of the hepatic metastasis of colorectal cancer significantly predicted survival.",
"yes. Patients with solitary hepatic colorectal cancer metastases should be considered for hepatic resection as this provides superior survival when compared to thermal ablation.",
"yes. Major hepatic resection is more effective in reducing the risk of intrahepatic recurrences than limited hepatic resection in patients with resectable colorectal carcinoma liver metastases.",
"To compare resection rates and outcome of patients subsequently referred with hepatic metastases whose initial colon cancers were resected by surgeons with different specialty interests. Variation in practice among noncolorectal specialist surgeons has led to recommendations that colorectal cancers should be treated by surgeons trained in colorectal surgery or surgical oncology. The resectability of metastases, the frequency and pattern of recurrence after resection, and the length of survival were compared in patients referred to a single center for resection of colorectal hepatic metastases. The patients were divided into those whose colorectal resection had been performed by general surgeons (GS) with other subspecialty interests (n = 108) or by colorectal specialists (CS; n = 122). RESULTS No differences were observed with respect to age, sex, tumor stage, site of primary tumor, or frequency of synchronous metastases. Comparing the GS group with the CS group, resectable disease was identified in 26% versus 66%, with tumor recurrence after a median follow-up of 19 months in 75% versus 44%, respectively. Recurrences involving bowel or lymph nodes accounted for 55% versus 24% of all recurrences, with respective median survivals of 14 months versus 26 months."
] | 882 |
Linked production of antibodies to mammalian DNA and to human polyomavirus large T antigen: footprints of a common molecular and cellular process? | [
"To test whether the presence of antibodies to human polyomavirus large T antigen, a viral DNA-binding protein essential for productive polyomavirus replication, correlates with the presence of antibodies to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), or the autologous TATA-binding protein (TBP). Sera from patients with various diagnosed or suspected autoimmune syndromes were analyzed for the presence of antibodies to T antigen, DNA, or TATA-binding protein, and correlations were determined. Rheumatoid factor (RF) was studied as a control antibody. A highly significant correlation between antibodies to T antigen and antibodies to ssDNA or TATA-binding protein, but not between anti-T antigen antibodies and RF, was found in all patient groups. Of all sera that were positive for antibodies to dsDNA, 62% were positive for antibodies to T antigen (P<0.03).",
"A non-self DNA-binding protein such as human polyomavirus large T antigen may render DNA immunogenic upon binding to nucleosomes when expressed in vivo. This is indicated by the strong correlation between antibodies to T antigen and antibodies to DNA or TBP and is consistent with a hapten-carrier model. This model implies cognate antigen-selective interaction of T antigen-specific T helper cells and DNA-specific B cells or B cells specific for other components of nucleosomes, consistent with the results of previous experiments."
] | [
"yes. These studies indicate that anti-HTLV-I antibody responses detected by LIPS are useful for diagnosis and suggest that elevated anti-Env antibodies are a common feature found in HAM/TSP patients.",
"The correlation between antibody production against mismatched donor human leukocyte antigens (HLA) and the number of amino acid sequence mismatches was analyzed in patients who rejected a kidney transplant (n=146). A similar analysis was performed for the antibody production of women against the paternal HLA antigens of their child (n=1,397). The amino acid sequence (triplet) differences were analyzed using the HLAMatchmaker algorithm. In both groups, a positive correlation was found between the number of triplet mismatches and the percentage of individuals producing antibodies (P <0.0001). If zero triplet mismatches were present, no antibodies were formed in all cases. When 11 or 12 triplet mismatches were present, 94% of the transplant patients produced antibodies against the donor. In pregnancy, 11 or 12 triplet mismatches led to 27% of the women producing specific antibodies.",
"yes. Complement C1q mediates significant interactions between mouse IgG2 class antibodies; these interactions are very common and may be prevented by either complete serum removal or use of alternate IgG1 clones. Such interactions represent a significant potential source of artifact in the use of whole blood lysis methods for specimen preparation for multicolor flow cytometry.",
"Deoxyribonucleic acid oncoviruses can induce neoplastic transformation of cells because their viral proteins interfere with antiproliferative cellular proteins. Simian virus 40 (SV40) is a DNA virus that induces the emergence of ependymomas, choroid plexus tumors, mesotheliomas, osteosarcomas, sarcomas, and various tumors when injected into newborn hamsters. Recently, approximately 60% of human ependymomas, choroid plexus tumors, and mesotheliomas were reported to contain and express SV40 DNA sequences. In this study the presence of SV40 DNA sequences was investigated in human brain tumors. Three of 32 glioblastomas mutiforme (GBMs), but none of two ependymomas and five medulloblastomas, were found to possess SV40 DNA sequences when examined using polymerase chain reaction (PCR). The DNA sequence analysis of PCR-amplified fragments disclosed that the samples were identical to the regulatory region of SV40. All three GBMs, which arose in elderly patients with wild-type p53, were considered to be primary (de novo) tumors. Although each of the three tumors was immunohistochemically negative for SV40 T antigen, in situ hybridization successfully demonstrated the messenger RNA for SV40 T antigen.",
"yes. Our observation that a massively expanded TCR Vβ1-Jβ2.3 chain paired with distinct yet closely related canonical or atypical MAIT cell-related α chains strongly points to an antigen-driven process in early active MS brain lesions.",
"yes. Most patients with melanoma or with vitiligo develop antibodies to similar antigens that are present both on melanocytes and on melanoma cells. These findings support the hypothesis that the clinical link between the two diseases results from immune responses to antigens shared by normal and malignant pigment cells.",
"yes. Severe GvHD and oral mucositis are significantly associated with reactivation of polyomaviridae in the genitourinary-tract already at the level of asymptomatic viruria.",
"yes. We demonstrated the existence of previously unknown histone H1 hydrolyzing IgG abzymes in the serum of multiple myeloma patients. Possible biological role of hisH1-hydrolyzing antibodies in patients with multiple myeloma was discussed.",
"yes. The use of a closely related group of Ig VH genes in a germline configuration to control the early humoral response to xenografts suggests that this response may represent the utilization of a primitive, T cell-independent pathway of antibody production by the graft recipients.",
"yes. These results suggest that bERVE-A and BERV-K1 env are involved in the expression of BNC-specific genes and the progression of bovine trophoblastic cell binucleation, as their expression levels increased during periods of increased BNC-specific molecule expression, which is strongly suggestive of the development of BNC from mononucleate trophoblastic cells. The on-Matrigel culture system is a convenient in vitro tool for studying bovine trophoblastic cell lineages.",
"yes. These findings suggest that in patients with NSCLC, CFH autoantibody is a molecular marker associated with early-stage disease.",
"The human immune proteins APOBEC3G and APOBEC3F (hA3G and hA3F) induce destructive G-to-A changes in the HIV genome, referred to as 'hypermutation'. These two proteins co-express in human cells, co-localize to mRNA processing bodies and might co-package into HIV virions. Therefore they are expected to also co-mutate the HIV genome. Here we investigate the mutational footprints of hA3G and hA3F in a large population of full genome HIV-1 sequences from naturally infected patients to uniquely identify sequences hypermutated by either or both of these proteins. We develop a method of identification based on the representation of hA3G and hA3F target and product motifs that does not require an alignment to a parental/consensus sequence. Out of nearly 100 hypermutated HIV-1 sequences only one sequence from the HIV-1 outlier group showed clear signatures of co-mutation by both proteins. The remaining sequences were affected by either hA3G or hA3F.",
"To investigate the mechanism by which interferon-α (IFNα) accelerates systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in (NZB×NZW)F1 (NZB/NZW) mice. NZB/NZW mice were treated with an adenovirus expressing IFNα. In some mice, T cells were depleted with an anti-CD4 antibody. The production of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies was measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and enzyme-linked immunospot assay. Germinal centers and antibody-secreting cells (ASCs) in spleens and IgG deposition and leukocyte infiltrates in kidneys were visualized by immunofluorescence staining. The phenotype of splenic cells was determined by flow cytometry. Finally, somatic hypermutation and gene usage in VH regions of IgG2a and IgG3 were studied by single-cell polymerase chain reaction. IFNα-accelerated lupus in NZB/NZW mice was associated with elevated serum levels of IgG2 and IgG3 anti-dsDNA antibodies and accumulation of many IgG ASCs in the spleen, which did not develop into long-lived plasma cells. Furthermore, IgG2a and IgG3 antibodies in the mice were highly somatically mutated and used distinct repertoires of VH genes. The induction of SLE in the mice was associated with an increase in B cell Toll-like receptor 7 expression, increased serum levels of BAFF, interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor α, and induction of T cells expressing IL-21. Although IFNα drove a T cell-independent increase in serum levels of IgG, autoantibody induction and the development of nephritis were both completely dependent on CD4+ T cell help.",
"yes. These results suggest that RVs of muscle cells and GVD bodies of neurons share a number of molecules, such as raft-related proteins and tau-modifying proteins.",
"yes. The role of IgG2 anti-HIV antibodies and FcgammaRIIa in the control of HIV replication should be investigated further. Inclusion of an IFN-gamma gene in DNA vaccine constructs might be a means of enhancing IgG2 antibody production.",
"yes. These results using both antisense inhibition of gene expression and AP33 synthesis and the heterologous expression of AP33 in T. foetus confirms a role for this protein as an adhesin in T. vaginalis.",
"yes. Convergent findings from our behavioral screen for memory mutants and DNA microarray analysis of transcriptional responses during memory formation in normal animals suggest the involvement of the pumilio/staufen pathway in memory. Behavioral experiments confirm a role for this pathway and suggest a molecular mechanism for synapse-specific modification.",
"yes. These results suggest that maternal antibodies capable of activating AT1 receptors are likely to account for increased intracellular free Ca2+ concentrations and changes in gene expression associated with preeclampsia.",
"yes. The results suggest that the UL21 protein, like tau and other MAPs, promotes the process by directly or indirectly interacting with microtubules and facilitates the intracellular transport of the virus.",
"yes. The existence of two B-cell clones having distinct VDJ sequences is common in WM, suggesting that frequent transformation events may occur. In two cases, the partner clones had distinct tissue distributions in either blood or bone marrow, were of different immunoglobulin isotypes, and in one case exhibited differential response to therapy. The contributions of each clone are unknown. Their presence suggests that WM may involve a background of molecular and cellular events leading to emergence of one or more malignant clones.",
"yes. We conclude that TTd immunization and i.v. application of monoclonal antibody 26 induced the same reproductive pathology and that the type of pathology is strain dependent.",
"Within monocyte-derived macrophages, HIV-1 accumulates in intracellular virus-containing compartments (VCCs) that are inaccessible to the external environment, which implicate these cells as latently infected HIV-1 reservoirs. During mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1, human placental macrophages (Hofbauer cells (HCs)) are viral targets, and have been shown to be infected in vivo and sustain low levels of viral replication in vitro; however, the risk of in utero transmission is less than 7%. The role of these primary macrophages as viral reservoirs is largely undefined. The objective of this study is to define potential sites of viral assembly, accumulation and neutralization in HCs given the pivotal role of the placenta in preventing HIV-1 infection in the mother-infant dyad. Term placentae from 20 HIV-1 seronegative women were obtained following caesarian section. VCCs were evaluated by 3D confocal and electron microscopy. Colocalization R values (Pearson's correlation) were quantified with colocalization module of Volocity 5.2.1. Replication kinetics and neutralization studies were evaluated using p24 ELISA. We demonstrate that primary HCs assemble and sequester HIV-1(BaL) in intracellular VCCs, which are enriched in endosomal/lysosomal markers, including CD9, CD81, CD63 and LAMP-1. Following infection, we observed HIV-1 accumulation in potentially acidic compartments, which stained intensely with Lysotracker-Red. Remarkably, these compartments are readily accessible via the cell surface and can be targeted by exogenously applied small molecules and HIV-1-specific broadly neutralizing antibodies. In addition, broadly neutralizing antibodies (4E10 and VRC01) limited viral replication by HIV-1-infected HCs, which may be mediated by FcγRI.",
"yes. The results indicate that antibodies specific for alpha-enolase are frequently produced by mixed cryoglobulinemia patients with renal involvement.",
"yes. These data suggest that the presence of high amounts of HBV-DNA in serum is associated with suppressed co-stimulatory and regulatory effects of IL-12 on the immune response to HBV antigens. This may be one explanation for the poor response to immunostimulating therapy in patients with a high viral load.",
"The rejection of pig xenografts in humans is initiated by preformed antibodies that may be related to the natural antibodies that formulate a first line of defense against infectious agents. Immunoglobulin gene variable domains encoding the antibodies that react with similar epitopes expressed on xenoantigens and bacteria may share structurally similar antigen-binding site configurations. We sequenced the VH immunoglobulin genes and germline progenitors of two rat monoclonal antibodies that recognize pig xenoantigens. Nucleic and amino acid sequences of these xenoantibodies were compared with immunoglobulin genes encoding antibodies that react with bacteria or viruses.",
"yes. These findings confirm the existence of the SCMC in sheep and its key role for the oocyte developmental potential, deepening our understanding on the molecular differences underlying cytoplasmic vs nuclear maturation of the oocytes. Describing differences and overlaps in transcriptome composition between model organisms advance our comprehension of the diversity/uniformity between mammalian species during early embryonic development and provide information on genes that play important regulatory roles in fertility in nonmurine models, including the human.",
"yes. This analysis identified co-expression of RNAs that encode functionally-related proteins, in particular, proliferation-associated RNA clusters that are linked to melanoma patient prognosis. Our analysis suggests that A375 cells in vitro may be valid models in which to study the gene expression modules that underlie some melanoma biological processes (e.g., proliferation) but not others (e.g., immune response). The gene expression modules identified here, and the RNAs predicted by Bayesian network inference to be upstream of these modules, are potential prognostic biomarkers and drug targets.",
"yes. These results suggest that GQ1b may polyclonally increase the production of IgG, including IgG anti-dsDNA antibody, in PBMCs from patients with SLE by promoting IL-6 and IL-10 production of T cells through the enhancement of their PKC activity.",
"yes. Several biological pathways that were significantly associated with health and production traits were identified in dairy cattle; i.e. the markers linked to these pathways explained more of the genomic variance and provided a better model fit than 95 % of the randomly sampled gene groups. Our results show that immune related pathways are associated with production traits, and that pathways that include a causal marker for production traits are identified with our procedure. We are confident that the LMM approach provides a general framework to exploit and integrate prior biological information and could potentially lead to improved understanding of the genetic architecture of complex traits and diseases.",
"yes. The conclusion is drawn that there is a clear correlation between the glycosylation of LAK cell glycoproteins and their anti-tumour activity which points to the involvement of cell surface glycoconjugates in the development of LAK activity.",
"To construct a mammalian cell surface display library of full-length human antibodies. The total RNA was isolated from human peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs), and the genes encoding the heavy chain variable regions and kappa light chains (VH and Cκ) of the antibodies were amplified by RT-PCR. The amplified VH and Cκ gene sequences were separately inserted into the vector pDGB-HC-TM. The ligation mixtures were transformed into competent E.coli DH5α cells to construct the antibody libraries, and the library sizes and diversity were analyzed. The library DNAs were transfected into CHO cells and the expression of the full-length human antibodies on the surface of CHO cells was analyzed by flow cytometry. The heavy chain gene library constructed showed a diversity of 2.6 × 10(5), and the kappa light chain gene library had a diversity of 2.0 × 10(5). Sequence analysis of 10 clones randomly selected from the constructed heavy chain gene library and 10 from the light chain gene library showed that 8 heavy chain clones and all 10 light chain clones contained correct open reading frames. Flow cytometry demonstrated that all the 18 clones expressed full-length antibodies, which could be detected on CHO cell surfaces. After co-transfection of the heavy chain and light chain gene libraries into CHO cells, the expression of full-length antibodies on CHO cell surfaces was detected with the positive cells reaching 31.5.",
"yes. The new monoclonal antibodies not only allow a comprehensive quantitative evaluation of the expression of HMT at the cellular level in man and other mammals but will also facilitate sensitive analyses of disease-associated alterations of this protein.",
"yes. A full-length human mammalian display antibody library with a combinatory diversity of 5.2 × 10(10) can be constructed in two weeks, which allows the display of full-length antibodies on mammalian cell surface.",
"yes. This study reveals a complex gene expression response in HUVEC to anti-beta(2)GPI antibodies with multiple chemokines, pro-inflammatory cytokines, pro-thrombotic and pro-adhesive genes regulated by these antibodies in vitro. Some of these newly identified anti-beta(2)GPI antibody-regulated genes could contribute to the vasculopathy associated with this disease.",
"To study the association between simian virus 40 (SV40) and human hepatocarcinogenesis. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to detect SV40 large T antigen (Tag) DNA was performed on: 50 human hepatocellular carcinoma (HCCs) diagnosed between 1978 and 1989 (cohort A); 20 cases of alcoholic liver cirrhosis from the same period; and 20 HCCs diagnosed after 1997 (cohort B). PCR to detect SV40 regulatory sequence and SV40 Tag immunohistochemistry were performed on selected cases from cohorts A and B. Amplified products were directly sequenced. Immunohistochemistry for p53 and pRb and clinicopathological analyses were performed on selected cases from cohorts A and B. Complete survival data were collected for cohort A. SV40 Tag DNA was found in five cohort A HCCs but not in alcoholic liver cirrhosis cases or cohort B HCCs. Neither SV40 regulatory sequence nor SV40 Tag protein were demonstrated in Tag DNA positive HCCs. No clinicopathological differences existed between Tag DNA positive and negative HCCs, but the presence of Tag DNA was associated with reduced disease specific survival. Relatively fewer Tag DNA positive than negative HCCs expressed p53, but loss of pRb expression was similar in the two groups. Patients with Tag DNA positive HCCs were unlikely to have received SV40 contaminated poliovirus vaccine.",
"yes. Our findings contribute to a better understanding of the pathogenesis of impaired cellular immune functions in dialysis patients and, in particular, the decreased antibody production after vaccination. They provide a link between overproduction of pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL-12) and imbalanced T-cell activation.",
"yes. Protein Ki-67 joins the proliferating cell nuclear Ag (PCNA) as an example of a cell proliferation-associated protein that is a target of autoantibodies. The presence of anti-pKi-67 Ab in MRL mice, but not other autoimmune mice, suggests that anti-pKi-67 Ab may be specific markers for the systemic lupus erythematosus-like illness that develops in these animals. Further characterization of the immune response directed against this Ag may provide clues to the etiology and pathogenesis of autoimmune disease in these animals.",
"The authors have determined that the corneal and conjunctival epithelia of the rat produce a mucin-like glycoprotein at the apical surface of the epithelium. The purpose of this study was to determine if human ocular surface epithelium produces similar glycoproteins. Because our initial attempts at production of monoclonal antibodies yielded blood type A-specific antibodies, corneal epithelia from blood type O donor eyes were used for the production of monoclonal antibodies. Screening of hybridoma products was accomplished by immunofluorescence microscopy of cryostat sections of blood type O donor eyes. The monoclonal antibody produced was used for immunofluorescence microscopy and immunoelectron microscopy to determine tissue and cellular distribution, respectively. Immunoblot analysis of SDS-PAGE-separated proteins from corneal epithelial tissue and from cultured human corneal epithelium was used to determine molecular weight range and epitope binding after periodate oxidation, N-glycanase, and O-glycanase treatment. A monoclonal antibody, designated H185, that binds to apical cell layers of human corneal, conjunctival, laryngeal, and vaginal epithelium was produced. The antibody binds to apical membranes of apical cells, particularly at the tips of microplicae. In subapical cells, the antibody binds to small cytoplasmic vesicles. Cultured human corneal epithelium produces H185 antigen. By immunoblot analysis, H185 binds a high molecular weight protein, > 205 kD, from corneal epithelium and cultured corneal epithelium. The protein band visualized by immunoblot analysis cannot be stained by Coomassie or silver stain on SDS-PAGE, but it does stain with Alcian blue followed by silver stain, indicating that the protein is highly glycosylated. H185 binding to blotted proteins is destroyed by sodium periodate treatment and O-glycanase incubation, suggesting that the epitope of H185 is an O-linked carbohydrate.",
"Since human brain tissue is often unavailable for transcriptional profiling studies, blood expression data is frequently used as a substitute. The underlying hypothesis in such studies is that genes expressed in brain tissue leave a transcriptional footprint in blood. We tested this hypothesis by relating three human brain expression data sets (from cortex, cerebellum and caudate nucleus) to two large human blood expression data sets (comprised of 1463 individuals). We found mean expression levels were weakly correlated between the brain and blood data (r range: [0.24,0.32]). Further, we tested whether co-expression relationships were preserved between the three brain regions and blood. Only a handful of brain co-expression modules showed strong evidence of preservation and these modules could be combined into a single large blood module. We also identified highly connected intramodular \"hub\" genes inside preserved modules. These preserved intramodular hub genes had the following properties: first, their expression levels tended to be significantly more heritable than those from non-preserved intramodular hub genes (p<10⁻⁹⁰); second, they had highly significant positive correlations with the following cluster of differentiation genes: CD58, CD47, CD48, CD53 and CD164; third, a significant number of them were known to be involved in infection mechanisms, post-transcriptional and post-translational modification and other basic processes.",
"yes. Our results demonstrated that expression of hTERT could be detected using in situ hybridization in PTCs and was significantly distinguishable from that of benign thyroid disease. Human TERT expression was related to the Ki-67 labeling index, indicating that coupling of telomerase activation with cell proliferation was the associated mechanism for tumorigenesis.",
"yes. Genetic and gene-expression associations of BD cluster in discrete regions of the protein-protein interaction network. We found replicated evidence for association for networks involving several interlinked signaling pathways. These genes are promising candidates to generate animal models and pharmacological interventions. Our results demonstrate the potential advantage of integrative biology analyses of BD datasets.",
"yes. Reticulin, endomysial, and jejunal antibodies detect transglutaminase in both rodent and primate tissues, indicating that these tissue autoantibodies are identical.",
"yes. Loss of wild-type p53 is the major genetic determinant of increased homologous recombination frequencies in immortal rodent fibroblasts. Cellular p53 status will be an important factor to consider when performing functional analysis of the increasing number of mammalian proteins that are found to be involved in homologous recombination.",
"yes. Our results suggest that molecular-level responses to diverse chemical and genetic perturbations are heavily interconnected in a modular fashion. Also, shared molecular pathways can be identified by comparing newly defined gene expression signatures with databases of previously published gene expression signatures.",
"yes. The accumulation of CTCF-binding sites drives expression divergence of tandemly duplicated genes. This process is likely targeted by natural selection. Our study reveals the importance of CTCF to the evolution of animal diversity and complexity.",
"yes. This study provides evidence that even when MICA and MICB share a high degree of homology at both genomic and protein levels, differential regulation of their expression and cell surface appearance might be occurring in cervical cancer-derived cells.",
"yes. Our analysis identified proteins with both novel and previously known associations to ovarian cancer biology. Despite the small overlap between differentially expressed protein sets in serum and tissue, APOA1 and Serotransferrin were significantly lower expressed in both serum and cancer tissue samples, suggesting a tissue-derived effect in serum. Pathway and subsequent interactome analysis also highlighted common regulators in serum and tissue samples, suggesting a yet unknown role for PCBP1 in ovarian cancer pathophysiology.",
"yes. Our Global Match File strategy proved critical for accurately interpretating heterologous datasets, and suggests that similar approaches may be fruitful for other species. Transcript profiling of early events associated with CIS revealed a complex network of events involving sugars, redox and hormone signalling which may be either linked serially or act in parallel. The identification, at a sequence level, of various enzymes long known as having a role in CIS provides molecular tools for further understanding the phenomenon.",
"yes. This suggests that some antibodies are staining the cells in an unspecific manner, and that assessment of transcript presence by RNA-seq can provide guidance for validation of the corresponding antibodies.",
"yes. Our results suggest that TTB cells share several features with human Kaposi's sarcoma spindle cells and can be a useful in vitro system to study the molecular mechanisms involved in Kaposi's sarcoma pathogenesis. Moreover, they synthesize a complex mixture of angiogenic factors and are growth-inhibited by the anti-angiogenic drug AGM-1470.",
"yes. The cellular composition of the ELS differs from the cellular infiltrate in CAV intimal lesions. The presence of memory B lymphocytes and plasma producing IgM and IgG cells suggests that ELS are related to local antibody production, potentially contributing to antibody-mediated CAV. ELS associated with coronary vessels containing CAV show features of underdeveloped TLOs; classic TLOs may not develop due to patient immunosuppression.",
"yes. Taken together, these results establish dual targeting as a widely abundant phenomenon that should affect our concepts of gene expression and protein function. Possible relationships between the MTS/mature sequence traits and protein dual targeting are discussed.",
"yes. These data show that cell-cycle disruption as a result of low-risk HPV infection is similar to that reported for productive high-risk HPV infection, suggesting that the life cycles of these 2 viral groups in suprabasal keratinocytes is similar. The reexpression of Ki67 in areas of viral DNA amplification suggests that this protein may play a role in HPV DNA replication.",
"yes. Our findings indicate that the promiscuous expression of functional and tissue specific cell surface proteins may be a common pattern in embryonic stem cells and germ cells. The conservation of gene expression patterns between early embryonic cells and reproductive cells is propagated to the protein level. These results have deep implications for the cell surface signature characterisation of pluripotent stem cells and germ cells and may lead the way to a new area of study, i.e., the functional significance of promiscuous gene expression in pluripotent and germ cells.",
"Analysis of expression profiles by microarray could provide a reliable method of delineating the clonal relationship of multiple nodules of liver cancer and identifying metastasis-associated genes. Adrenomedullin is a factor associated with progression of IM in human HCC.",
"yes. It is likely that the overlap in binding of biochemically and functionally unrelated transcription factors arises from the high concentrations of these proteins in nuclei, which, coupled with their broad DNA binding specificities, directs them to regions of open chromatin. We suggest that most animal transcription factors will be found to show a similar broad overlapping pattern of binding in vivo, with specificity achieved by modulating the amount, rather than the identity, of bound factor.",
"yes. Monoclonal antibody H5D12 identifies a factor that is produced by the pre-implantation embryo and also synthesized by decidua and trophoblast cells.",
"yes. Our analyses have identified single cell/compartment-specific amino acid changes and differences in N-linked glycosylation patterns between plasma and diverse blood leukocytes. Bayesian network analyses showed associations inferring alternative glycosylation pathways. We believe that these studies will provide crucial insights into the host immune response and its ability in controlling HIV replication in vivo. These findings could also have relevance in shielding and evasion of HIV-1 from neutralizing antibodies.",
"yes. These studies indicate that, in addition to anti-Ad antibodies, other specific and nonspecific factors interact with viral vectors and may impair gene transfer in the tumor milieu. The presence of sCAR in MPE puts forward the notion that in certain contexts (e.g., within the extracellular matrix of solid tumors) the concentrations of secreted (or shed) CAR may be high enough to effectively compete with Ad gene delivery.",
"yes. The results suggest that MAGE-A1 mRNA expression in human hepatoma cell lines is associated with hypomethylation of the genome and the MAGE-A1 promoter domain. This study will be helpful to reveal the expression mechanisms of MAGE-like tumor antigens in cancer cells.",
"To determine the relative contribution of the analysis of intraocular antibody production and the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in aqueous humor (AH) to the diagnosis of infectious uveitis. Retrospective case-control study. Paired AH and serum samples from 230 patients suspected of infectious uveitis were examined for intraocular antibody production against herpes simplex virus (HSV), varicella zoster virus (VZV), and Toxoplasma gondii by calculating the Goldmann-Witmer coefficient (GWC). In addition, AH samples were investigated by real-time PCR to determine the presence of microbial DNA. Positive results were obtained in 54 cases (23%): 13 HSV (24%), 16 VZV (30%), and 25 T gondii (46%). Of these, 23 (43%) were positive for both GWC and PCR, 26 (48%) only for GWC, and 5 (9%) only for PCR. With PCR as the sole diagnostic approach, a correct diagnosis of the infectious etiology would have been missed in 34% of cases for the herpes viruses and in 64% for T gondii. Analysis of the relationship between a positive laboratory diagnosis and the time of sampling after onset of ocular disease demonstrated that intraocular antibody production was found throughout the course of the diseases. Viral DNA was more readily detected early in infection. In contrast, T gondii nucleic acid was not detected until 3 weeks after onset of ocular disease.",
"A key pathway for transduction of proliferative, developmental and oncogenic stimuli from receptors at the cell surface to transcription factors located in the nucleus involves the activation of pRas and pRaf-1. Recent publications have described a physical interaction between pRas and pRaf-1, either as ectopic proteins in yeast or as recombinant proteins added to cellular extracts. Until now, however, physical complexes that include pRas and pRaf-1 have not been identified as native structures in mammalian cells. We have directly identified a pRas-pRaf-1 complex in extracts of mammalian cells. Formation of the complex is augmented in neoplastically transformed cells expressing constitutively activated pRas. Moreover, the complexes form in concert with the activation of pRas during intracellular signalling through the T-cell receptor in T-leukemia cells.",
"yes. We demonstrate that tumor-specific autoantibodies and tumor-infiltrating T cells are correlated in human cancer and can be directed against the same target antigen. This implies that autoantibodies may collaborate with tumor-infiltrating T cells to influence clinical outcomes in EOC. Furthermore, serological screening methods may prove useful for identifying clinically relevant T cell antigens for immunotherapy.",
"yes. Retroviral RT distinguished from known cellular DNA polymerases is expressed in the thyroids of patients with Graves' disease. In a permissive genetice and immunological environment, retroviral DNA integrated into genomic DNA could precipitate the onset of Graves' disease.",
"yes. Our data are consistent with an innate-like antiviral recognition system mediated by B cells using defined germ-line coded B cell receptors, which could provide a rapid germinal center-independent antibody response during the early phase of infection. A model describing concurrent T-dependent and T-independent B cell responses in the context of DENV infection is proposed, which incorporates the selection of B cells using hypomutated IGHV segments and their potential role in poly/cross-reactivity. Its formal demonstration could lead to a definition of its potential implication in antibody-dependent enhancement, and may contribute to rational vaccine development efforts.",
"Polymyositis (PM) and dermatomyositis (DM) are associated with high risk of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) in Asian countries. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) might induce autoimmunity and malignancies in susceptible individuals. To investigate the association of EBV with PM/DM and NPC in PM/DM patients. Serum levels of anti-EBV viral capsid antigens (VCA) and anti-EBV-coded nuclear antigens-1 (EBNA-1) antibodies were measured by ELISA, and EBV DNA loads were determined using real-time PCR for 98 PM/DM patients, 94 systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients and 370 healthy controls (HC). Anti-transfer-RNA synthetase antibodies (ASA) were determined by radioimmunoprecipitation for PM/DM patients. Thirteen (13.3%) of PM/DM patients vs. none of SLE patients had detectable NPC. ASA were detectable in 31.7% of PM/DM without malignancy, while lack of ASA in any PM/DM patient with NPC. IgA anti-EBNA-1 were detectable in 30.6% of PM/DM patients and 31.9% of SLE patients, but only in 4.1% of HC (odds ratio [OR] 10.44 and 11.12 respectively, both p<0.001). Significantly higher positivity for IgA anti-EBNA-1 were observed in PM/DM with NPC than in those without malignancy (OR 44.7, p<0.01). Significantly higher positivity for EBV genome were observed in PM/DM with NPC than in those without malignancy (OR 43.9, p<0.01), in SLE patients (OR 13.2, p<0.05) and in HC (OR 99.4, p<0.001). EBV DNA loads were significantly higher in PM/DM with NPC compared with those without malignancy and HC.",
"yes. This study shows the range of biologically significant antigens resulting from a whole-cell vaccine. Targets include autoantigens that are components of cell cycle regulation. Potent antibody responses against multiple autoantigens are associated with effective tumor destruction without clinical autoimmunity.",
"yes. Heterologous prime-boost using vector-based gene delivery of vaccine antigens is a potent immunization strategy for inducing both antibody and T-cell responses.",
"Human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) infection has been implicated in the development of autoimmunity, including systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Previously we reported that HCMV phosphoprotein 65 (pp65) could induce early onset of autoantibody and glomerulonephritis on lupus-prone NZB/W mice. This study further examined whether the B cell epitope(s) in pp65 is able to drive the development of autoantibody. Sera from SLE patients or HCMVpp65-immunized mice were analyzed for anti-nuclear antibody by immunoblotting, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), immunofluorescent stain and Crithidia luciliae stain. The deposition of immunoglobulin to the kidney was also examined by immunofluorescent stain. The interactions between pp65 sub-fragment to cellular proteins were revealed by yeast two-hybrid analyses. Our results showed that most SLE patients possessed antibodies to the C-terminal half of the HCMVpp65 antigen. Of these positive sera, 73% were also positive to the pp65336-439 sub-fragment. The immunization of pp65336-439 induced formation of multiple anti-nuclear antibodies, including anti-chromatin, anti-centriole, anti-mitotic spindle type I/II (MSA I/II) and a significant elevation of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies on BALB/c mice. Yeast two-hybrid analyses revealed the binding of pp65336-439 sub-fragment to cellular proteins. Immunoglobulin deposition on glomeruli was also detected on pp65336-439-immunized mice.",
"yes. Together, these data suggest that different SAID may share common alterations of plasma protein expression and molecular pathways. An understanding of the mechanisms leading to the altered plasma proteomes common among these SAID may provide useful insights into their pathogeneses.",
"yes. Our analyses show that the platypus has significantly fewer repeats of certain classes in the regions of the genome that have become imprinted in therian mammals. The accumulation of repeats, especially long terminal repeats and DNA elements, in therian imprinted genes and gene clusters is coincident with, and may have been a potential driving force in, the development of mammalian genomic imprinting. These data provide strong support for the host defence hypothesis.",
"yes. VH1-69-encoded antibodies are known to preferentially recognise a variety of viral proteins including HCV E2, influenza A virus haemagglutinin and HIV gp41/gp120, and may serve as innate first line antiviral defense. Thus, like HCV, HBV may cause MC by protracted antigenic stimulation of VH1-69-expressing B-cells.",
"yes. The rapid and widespread appearance of the Hev b 5 transcript in the injected mice confirms that DNA is translocated from the injection site, transcribed, and expressed in immune and nonimmune tissues after injection. Controlling the extent and degree of expression in specific target tissues may allow therapeutic DNA vaccination with plasmids that encode potentially toxic allergens.",
"yes. This study highlights that polymorphic sites spanning the region nearby the TNF locus are associated with AIDS per se and with cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patients.",
"yes. The high prevalence and load of TSPyV DNA only in TS lesions, and the abundant expression of TSPyV protein in the affected hair follicle cells demonstrate a tight relation between TSPyV infection and TS disease, and indicate involvement of active TSPyV infection in TS pathogenesis.",
"The repertoires of Ig and TcR are generated by a combinatorial rearrangement of variable (V), diversity (D), and joining (J) segments (V(D)J recombination) in B- and T-cells. Terminal deoxynucleotidyltransferase (TdT) adds extra nucleotides (N nucleotides) at the junctions of the gene segments to enhance the Ig and TcR genes diversity. Using an anti-TdT antibody column, TdT has been purified as a member of a megadalton protein complex from rat thymus. The N region would be synthesized with the large protein complex. The cDNAs for proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA) were isolated by yeast two-hybrid screening as the gene products which directly interacted with TdT. The interaction between PCNA and TdT was confirmed by co-immunoprecipitation, both in vitro and in vivo. TdT binds directly to a PCNA trimer, as shown by gel filtration. TdT interacts with PCNA in its DNA polymerization domain (DPD), but not in its BRCA-1 C-terminal (BRCT) domain. TdT activity was reduced to 17% of the maximum value by TdT/PCNA complex formation.",
"The significant correlation observed between serum effects and clinical profile suggests a putative involvement of tTG-specific antibodies in gynecological and/or obstetric disorders during active CD.",
"yes. Our results suggest that mRNA induction of some genes by destruction of adherens junctions depends on the Ah receptor. beta-Catenin, one of the components of the adherens junction, was released from the E-cadherin complex, which resulted in its increased interaction with the Ah receptor, and was translocated into the nucleus, and consequently the target genes would be transcribed.",
"yes. Our data suggested that HCMVpp65336-439 sub-fragment may induce cross-reactive antibodies to several nuclear antigens, which could contribute to the development of autoimmunity in genetic-suspected individuals.",
"Strong T cell and antibody responses to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), low virus production, and some genetic traits have been individually associated with nonprogression of HIV infection, but the best correlate with protection against disease progression remains unknown. We prospectively followed 66 untreated long-term nonprogressors and analyzed relationships between HIV-1-specific CD4 T helper (Th) 1 and CD8 T cell responses and HIV-1-specific antibodies, HIV-1 RNA and proviral DNA loads, host genes, and CD4 Th1 cell counts at entry into the study and 4 years later. HIV-1 p24-specific CD4 Th1 cell proliferation, interferon (IFN)- gamma production, and IFN- gamma -producing cell frequencies at entry significantly and negatively correlated with HIV-1 RNA and proviral DNA loads and were independent of CD4 Th1 cell counts and host genes. HIV-1 Gag-specific IFN- gamma -producing CD8 T cell frequencies correlated with HIV-1 proviral DNA loads but not with RNA loads. Only high frequencies of HIV-1 p24-specific CD4 Th1 cells combined with HIV-1 gp41-specific IgG2 antibodies significantly predicted persistence of high CD4 Th1 cell counts.",
"The results of our study support the findings of previous studies using murine anti-DNA monoclonal antibodies, which suggest that pathogenic anti-dsDNA antibodies cross-react with alpha-actinin.",
"yes. TRACK (GGT-HIF1αM3) kidney mRNA profiles show similarities to human ccRCC transcriptome and phenotypes associated with the Warburg effect.",
"yes. This study provides new insights into the complex transcriptional mechanism of a mammalian head-to-head gene pair which requires cooperative binding of multiple transcription factors to a bidirectional minimal promoter of the shared intergenic region.",
"yes. This is the first study comparing the transcriptomes of two thymuses from a single individual. Our finding supports that both thymuses are functionally equivalent and drive T-cell development. These results are an important first step in the understanding of the genetic processes that govern marsupial immunity, and also allow us to begin to trace the evolution of the mammalian immune system.",
"yes. Taken together, the results suggest that cells recognize DNA/protein complexes through a mechanism that involves interaction with the ND10-associated proteins.",
"yes. The results provide strong support for the DNA deamination model for antibody diversification with respect to class-switching as well as hypermutation and, in the context of this model, suggest that (i) UNG is the major mouse DNA glycosylase responsible for processing the programmed dU/dG lesions within the immunoglobulin locus; (ii) the second (dA/dT-biased) phase of mutation is probably triggered by recognition of the initiating dU/dG lesion; and (iii) switch recombination largely proceeds via formation of an abasic site, although (iv) an UNG-independent pathway of switch recombination exists, which could reflect action by another uracil-DNA glycosylase but might alternatively be explained by a distinct pathway of resolution, for example, one involving MSH2/MSH6 recognition of the dU/dG lesion.",
"yes. We mapped regulatory sequences from an extensive number of TFs and cell types between human and mouse using WGA. A comparative analysis of this correspondence unveiled the extent of the shared regulatory sequence across TFs and cell types under study. Importantly, a large part of the shared regulatory sequence is repurposed on the other species. This sequence, fueled by turnover events, provides a strong case for exaptation in regulatory elements.",
"yes. These findings provide a framework linking interactions among cellular signalling pathways associated with reactive oxygen species production, macrophage cholesterol biosynthesis, and cellular PON2 expression in vascular pathophysiology.",
"yes. These data suggest that while IN inoculation alone elicits both cellular and humoral responses, co-administration with homologous DNA vaccination can tailor these towards a more balanced Th1/Th2 phenotype modulating the cellular cytokine profile while eliciting high-levels of antigen-specific antibody. This work provides insights on how to generate differential immune responses within the same vaccination visit, and supports co-immunisation with DNA and protein by a mucosal route as a potential delivery strategy for HIV vaccines.",
"yes. Several immune markers were correlated to either the HIV RNA or the HIV DNA level, but never to both of them, supporting the concept that cell-free virus and infected cells play different roles in HIV-1 immunopathogenesis.",
"yes. The high expression of HPV16 L1-L2 in HEK-293 cells using different delivery systems opens the way for new studies concerning to the use of L2 for DNA delivery via covalent linkage with the gene of interest (Fig. 5, Ref. 20).",
"yes. With the use of a combination of DNA sequencing and recombinant antigen expression, the molecular basis of the PLT-specific Va(a) antigen (HPA-17bw), a low-frequency antigen implicated in FMAIT, has been resolved. These data further demonstrate the value of using recombinant beta3 peptides for the detection of rare but clinically relevant antibodies.",
"yes. VH genes encoding rat anti-pig xenoantibodies are expressed in germline configuration and share structural similarities, including identical amino acids in key antigenic contact sites that define antibody canonical structural groups, with antibodies to infectious agents.",
"yes. The observed difference in polyclonal antibody production seems related to intrinsic activation states of infected individuals, rather than to parasite-antigen specific immune responses. However, it appears influenced by preceding stimuli. This supports the idea that acquired clinical immunity may not exclusively depend on antigen-specific responses, but also on the individual polyclonal reaction.",
"yes. These findings indicate that the renal pathogenicity of anti-DNA antibodies may be attributed in part to their ability to directly modulate gene expression in kidney mesangial cells through both Fc-dependent and non-Fc-dependent mechanisms.",
"yes. A combination of anti-MV/EV antibodies was significantly more protective than anti-EV antibodies alone. These data suggest that DNA vaccine technology could be used to produce a polyclonal antibody cocktail as a possible product to replace vaccinia immune globulin.",
"To test whether the presence of antibodies to human polyomavirus large T antigen, a viral DNA-binding protein essential for productive polyomavirus replication, correlates with the presence of antibodies to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA), double-stranded DNA (dsDNA), or the autologous TATA-binding protein (TBP). Sera from patients with various diagnosed or suspected autoimmune syndromes were analyzed for the presence of antibodies to T antigen, DNA, or TATA-binding protein, and correlations were determined. Rheumatoid factor (RF) was studied as a control antibody. A highly significant correlation between antibodies to T antigen and antibodies to ssDNA or TATA-binding protein, but not between anti-T antigen antibodies and RF, was found in all patient groups. Of all sera that were positive for antibodies to dsDNA, 62% were positive for antibodies to T antigen (P<0.03).",
"A non-self DNA-binding protein such as human polyomavirus large T antigen may render DNA immunogenic upon binding to nucleosomes when expressed in vivo. This is indicated by the strong correlation between antibodies to T antigen and antibodies to DNA or TBP and is consistent with a hapten-carrier model. This model implies cognate antigen-selective interaction of T antigen-specific T helper cells and DNA-specific B cells or B cells specific for other components of nucleosomes, consistent with the results of previous experiments."
] | 271 |
Radicular pain caused by synovial cyst: an underdiagnosed entity in the elderly? | [
"Synovial cyst is a recognized but infrequent cause of nerve root or spinal canal compression. The authors undertook a review of 839 decompressive spinal procedures performed over a 5-year period. They found seven cases in which the symptoms were caused by synovial cysts. Six of these cases were in a subgroup of 80 patients who were older than 60 years of age, which represents 7.5% of the total for this age group. More than 200 cases of this abnormality have been reported in the world literature, but the incidence, prevalence, and natural history remain unknown.",
"The authors propose that the incidence of synovial cysts may be more common than recognized in the elderly and suggest that preoperative diagnosis may help limit the extent of the surgical approach."
] | [
"Dynamic X-rays (DXR) are widely recognized as an effective method to detect lumbar instability (LI). They are usually performed with the patient in standing position (SDXR). In our opinion, standing position inhibits micromovements of the lumbar segment interested by the listhesis, thanks to paravertebral muscles antalgic contraction and augmented tone. We aim to demonstrate that DXR in recumbent position (RDXR), reducing the action of paravertebral muscles, can discover hypermovements not evidenced in SDXR. Between January 2011 and January 2013, we studied 200 consecutive patients with lumbar degenerative disease with MRI, SDXR, and RDXR. We aimed to find a correlation between low back or radicular pain and the presence of a spondylolisthesis not showed by the SDXR, but showed by the RDXR. We analysed 200 patients: of the 133 not pathologic in SDXR, 43 patients (32.3 %) showed an hypermovement in RDXR (p = 0.0001) without any significant correlation between hidden listhesis and age, sex, or level involved.",
"Pubic bone marrow and parasymphyseal findings (cleft, capsule/tendon oedema) on MRI or inguinal canal ballooning on ultrasound were frequently found in asymptomatic athletes and did not predict injury or symptom development.",
"Our results did not show agreements between patients' reported musculoskeletal pain regions and tender zones in the external ears assessed according to commonly used maps in auricular acupuncture using a pressure stylus. However, very tender points occur on the external ear in a population with chronic musculoskeletal pain.",
"To compare the prevalence of synovitis, pain and radiographic progression in non-erosive and erosive hand osteoarthritis (HOA), and to explore whether the different rate of disease progression is explained by different levels of synovitis and structural damage. We included 31 and 34 participants with non-erosive and erosive HOA at baseline, respectively. Using Generalized Estimating Equations, we explored whether participants with erosive HOA had more synovitis (by MRI, ultrasound and clinical examination) independent of the degree of structural damage. Similarly, we explored whether pain at baseline and radiographic progression after 5 years were higher in erosive HOA, independent of the levels of synovitis and structural damage. All analyses were adjusted for age and sex. Power Doppler activity was found mainly in erosive HOA. Participants with erosive HOA demonstrated more moderate-to-severe synovitis, assessed by MRI (OR = 1.73, 95% CI 1.11-2.70), grey-scale ultrasound (OR = 2.02, 95% CI 1.25-3.26) and clinical examination (OR = 1.80, 95% CI 1.44-2.25). The associations became non-significant when adjusting for more structural damage. The higher frequency of joint tenderness in erosive HOA was at least partly explained more structural damage and inflammation. Radiographic progression (OR = 2.53, 95% CI 1.73-3.69) was more common in erosive HOA independent of radiographic HOA severity and synovitis (here: adjusted for grey-scale synovitis by ultrasound).",
"Chronic pain is a major contributor to disability in older adults; however, the potential role of chronic pain as a risk factor for falls is poorly understood. To determine whether chronic musculoskeletal pain is associated with an increased occurrence of falls in a cohort of community-living older adults. The Maintenance of Balance, Independent Living, Intellect, and Zest in the Elderly (MOBILIZE) Boston Study is a population-based longitudinal study of falls involving 749 adults aged 70 years and older. Participants were enrolled from September 2005 through January 2008. Participants recorded falls on monthly calendar postcards mailed to the study center during an 18-month period. There were 1029 falls reported during the follow-up. A report of 2 or more locations of musculoskeletal pain at baseline was associated with greater occurrence of falls. The age-adjusted rates of falls per person-year were 1.18 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.13-1.23) for the 300 participants with 2 or more sites of joint pain, 0.90 (95% CI, 0.87-0.92) for the 181 participants with single-site pain, and 0.78 (95% CI, 0.74-0.81) for the 267 participants with no joint pain. Similarly, more severe or disabling pain at baseline was associated with higher fall rates (P < .05). The association persisted after adjusting for multiple confounders and fall risk factors. The greatest risk for falls was observed in persons who had 2 or more pain sites (adjusted rate ratio [RR], 1.53; 95% CI, 1.17-1.99), and those in the highest tertiles of pain severity (adjusted RR, 1.53; 95% CI, 1.12-2.08) and pain interference with activities (adjusted RR, 1.53; 95%CI, 1.15-2.05), compared with their peers with no pain or those in the lowest tertiles of pain scores.",
"The rheumatoid arthritis patients with both painless and painful synovitis exhibited similar disease histories and radiographic and ultrasound findings. However, the ultrasonography evaluation revealed worse scores in the second and fifth metacarpophalangeal of the synovitis patients who did not experience pain.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that persistent radicular pain is associated with sustained neuronal hyperexcitability in the contralateral VPL of the thalamus. These findings suggest that thalamic processing is altered during radiculopathy and these changes in neuronal firing are associated with behavioral sensitivity.",
"Musculoskeletal pain conditions remain a major cause of care-seeking in general practice. Not all patients with musculoskeletal pain (MP) seek care at their general practitioner (GP), but for those who do, the GP's knowledge of what work-related factors might have influenced the patient's decision to seek care could be important in order to give more well-founded advice to our patients. The objective of this study was to elucidate the effects of workloads on care-seeking for back pain or upper extremity pain during an eighteen-month follow-up period. This is a prospective study with a baseline questionnaire and eighteen-month follow-up. Among the registered patients of 8 GPs, we identified 8,517 persons between 17 and 65 years of age, who all received the questionnaire. A total of 5,068 (59.5 %) persons answered. During the eighteen months of follow-up, we used the International Classification for Primary Care (ICPC) to identify all care-seekers with either back pain or upper extremity pain. Of these, all currently employed persons were included in our analysis, in all 4,325 persons. For analysis, we used Cox proportional hazards regression analysis. Analyses were stratified by gender. High levels of heavy lifting, defined as the upper tertile on a categorical scale, were associated with care-seeking for back pain (HR 1.90 [95 % CI: 1.14-3.15]) and upper extremity pain (HR 2.09 [95 % CI: 1.30-3.38]) among males, but not in a statistically significant way among females. Repetitive work and psychosocial factors did not have any statistically significant impact on care-seeking for neither back pain nor upper extremity pain.",
"The histologically confirmed calcaneal cysts showed the radiological signs that are supposed to be typical for an intraosseous lipoma. It cannot be decided whether the histologically diagnosed calcaneal lipomas described by others can be interpreted as fatty degeneration of a calcaneal cyst, or whether fatty areas of the bone marrow have given a wrong impression. Since the literature only describes single isolated cases of a pathological fracture of the calcaneal cyst or lipoma, asymptomatic patients should be treated non-operatively.",
"In general, older patients with degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) are felt to have lower recovery potential following surgery due to increased degenerative pathology, comorbidities, reduced physiological reserves and age-related changes to the spinal cord. This study aims to determine whether age truly is an independent predictor of surgical outcome and to provide evidence to guide practice and decision-making. A total of 479 patients with DCM were prospectively enrolled in the CSM-International study at 16 centres. Our sample was divided into a younger group (<65 years) and an elderly (≥65 years) group. A mixed model analytic approach was used to evaluate differences in the modified Japanese Orthopaedic Association (mJOA), Nurick, Short Form-36 (SF-36) and Neck Disability Index (NDI) scores between groups. We first created an unadjusted model between age and surgical outcome and then developed two adjusted models that accounted for variations in (1) baseline characteristics and (2) both baseline and surgical factors. Of the 479 patients, 360 (75.16%) were<65 years and 119 (24.84%) were ≥65 years. Elderly patients had a worse preoperative health status (p<0.0001) and were functionally more severe (p<0.0001). The majority of younger patients (64.96%) underwent anterior surgery, whereas the preferred approach in the elderly group was posterior (58.62%, p<0.0001). Elderly patients had a greater number of decompressed levels than younger patients (p<0.0001). At 24 months after surgery, younger patients achieved a higher postoperative mJOA (p<0.0001) and a lower Nurick score (p<0.0001) than elderly patients. After adjustments for patient and surgical characteristics, these differences in postoperative outcome scores decreased but remained significant.",
"To record the incidence of lesions that were not the sequelae of pulpal necrosis (non-SPN) amongst 1521 biopsies of periapical lesions submitted with a clinical diagnosis of a sequelae of pulpal necrosis (SPN). A retrospective study of 1521 biopsy request forms of specimens submitted for histopathological examination with a clinical diagnosis 'periapical inflammation', 'periapical abscess', 'periapical granuloma' or 'periapical cyst' during an arbitrarily selected 14-year period was undertaken. Gender and age of the patient, site and maximum diameter of the lesion, symptoms, inclusion of the final diagnosis in the differential diagnosis and specialty of the clinician submitting the biopsy material were recorded in each case. The final diagnosis for each case was extracted from the pathology report, and two groups were formed, SPN and non-SPN lesions. Differences between the respective features of SPN and non-SPN cases were analysed with Yate's chi-square test and t-test (significance level P < 0.05) RESULTS: In 52 of the 1521 cases examined (3.42%), the histological diagnosis was not consistent with a SPN. In most non-SPN cases, the histopathological diagnosis was not included in the differential diagnosis. The keratocystic odontogenic tumour [odontogenic keratocyst (OKC)] was the most frequent non-SPN lesion (34.62%). Other, yet less frequent, non-SPN lesions included glandular odontogenic cysts, lateral periodontal cysts, central ossifying fibromas as well as malignancies (metastatic carcinomas and Langerhans cell histiocytosis).",
"The prevalence of chronic pain ranges from 40% to 80% in long-term care facilities, and it is especially high among older adults who are unable to communicate due to cognitive impairments. Although validated assessment tools exist, pain detection in this population is often done by interdisciplinary evaluation (IE), which largely relies on the subjective impression of health care providers. The aim of this study was to examine the agreement between the IE and validated observational pain tools. We recruited 59 residents with limited ability to communicate. The pain behaviors of each participant were assessed with two validated tools, the Pain Assessment Checklist for Seniors with Limited Ability to Communicate (PACSLAC) and the Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia (PAINAD), during transfer or mobilization. The results were then compared with the findings of the IE. The correlation between the PACSLAC and PAINAD was high (r = 0.79 [95% CI: 0.67-0.87]). However, we found a low to moderate association between the PACSLAC and the IE (r = 0.34 [95% CI: 0.09-0.55]), and a weaker association was observed between the PAINAD and the IE (r = 0.25 [95% CI: -0.02-0.48]). When the IE concluded that there was an absence of pain behavior, the PAINAD and the PACSLAC detected the presence of pain in 13.6% and 27.1% of the cases respectively.",
"The so-called \"globulomaxillary cyst\", described as a fissural cyst, caused by entrapped epithelium between the nasal and maxillary process, is no longer considered for its own entity. Nevertheless, cystic lesions, which correspond to the previous image of globulomaxillary cysts, do still occur in daily practice. This raises the question to which entities pathological processes in this particular region actually belong to. In a retrospective study, 17 cases (12 men and 5 women, 12-59 years old) of primarily diagnosed globulomaxillary cysts are analysed according to clinical, radiological and histological aspects, catamnestic processed and assigned to a new entity. The results are compared with the international literature and draws conclusions on the diagnostic and therapeutic procedure. Seven lateral periodontal cysts, four radicular cysts, two keratocystic odontogenic tumours, one adenomatoid odontogenic tumour, one periapical granuloma, one residual cyst and one undefined jaw cyst were determined.",
"Although cerebral small vessel disease is a significant contributor to the development of imbalance and falls in the elderly, whether it causes dizziness is not known. A retrospective case analysis was conducted for 122 dizzy patients referred to two neuro-otology tertiary centres in London and Pisa. Patients were divided into 'explained' causes of dizziness (e.g. benign positional vertigo, vestibular neuritis, orthostatic hypotension, cerebellar ataxias) and 'unexplained' dizziness. White matter hyperintensities (WMH) in MRI (T2 weighted and FLAIR sequences) were blindly rated according to the Fazekas scale. 122 patients; 58 (mean age=72, SD=7.95 years) in the 'unexplained' group and 64 (mean age=72.01, SD=8.28 years) in the 'explained' group were recruited. The overall frequency of lesions (Fazekas 1-3) significantly differed between groups (p=0.011). The frequency of severe lesions (Fazekas 3) was significantly higher in the 'unexplained' group (22%) than in the 'explained' group (5%; p=0.003).",
"Inflammation of the sacroiliac joints (SIJ) is a fundamental clinical feature of axial spondyloarthritis (SpA). The anatomy of the irregularly shaped SIJ is complex with an antero-inferior cartilaginous compartment containing central hyaline and peripheral fibrocartilage, and a dorso-superior ligamentous compartment. Several scoring modules to systematically assess SIJ magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in SpA have been developed. Nearly all of them are based on the cartilaginous joint compartment alone. However, there are only limited data about the frequency of inflammatory lesions in the ligamentous compartment and their potential diagnostic utility in axial SpA. We therefore aimed to evaluate the ligamentous compartment on sacroiliac joint MRI for lesion distribution and potential incremental value towards diagnosis of SpA over and above the traditional assessment of the cartilaginous compartment alone. Two independent cohorts of 69 and 88 consecutive back pain patients ≤50 years were referred for suspected SpA (cohort A) or acute anterior uveitis plus back pain (cohort B). Patients were classified according to rheumatologist expert opinion based on clinical, radiographic and laboratory examination as having nonradiographic axial SpA (nr-axSpA; n = 51), ankylosing spondylitis (n = 34), or nonspecific back pain (NSBP; n = 72). Five blinded readers assessed SIJ MRI globally for presence/absence of SpA. Bone marrow edema (BME) and fat metaplasia were recorded in the cartilaginous and ligamentous compartment. The incremental value of evaluating the ligamentous additionally to the cartilaginous compartment alone for diagnosis of SpA was graded qualitatively. We determined the lesion distribution between the two compartments, and the impact of the ligamentous compartment evaluation on diagnostic utility. MRI bone marrow lesions solely in the ligamentous compartment in the absence of lesions in the cartilaginous compartment were reported in just 0-2.0/0-4.0 % (BME/fat metaplasia) of all subjects. Additional assessment of the ligamentous compartment was regarded as essential for diagnosis in 0 and 0.6 %, and as contributory in 28.0 and 7.7 % of nr-axSpA patients in cohorts A and B, respectively. Concomitant BME in both compartments was evident in 11.6-42.0 % of nr-axSpA and 2.1-2.4 % of NSBP patients.",
"Lumbar pathology is often associated with axial pain or neurologic complaints. It is often presumed that such pain is associated with decreased lumbar motion; however, this correlation is not well established. The utility of various outcome measures that are used in both research and clinical practice have been studied, but the connection with range of motion (ROM) has not been well documented. The current study was performed to assess objectively the postulated correlation of lumbar complaints (based on standardized outcome measures) with extremes of lumbar ROM and functional ROM (fROM) with activities of daily living (ADLs) as assessed with an electrogoniometer. This study was a clinical cohort study. Subjects slated to undergo a lumbar intervention (injection, decompression, and/or fusion) were enrolled voluntarily in the study. The two outcome measures used in the study were the Visual Analogue Scale (VAS) for axial extremity, lower extremity, and combined axial and lower extremity, as well as the Oswestry Disability Index (ODI). Pain and disability scores were assessed with the VAS score and ODI. A previously validated electrogoniometer was used to measure ROM (extremes of motion in three planes) and fROM (functional motion during 15 simulated activities of daily living). Pain and disability scores were analyzed for statistically significant association with the motion assessments using linear regression analyses. Twenty-eight men and 39 women were enrolled, with an average age of 55.6 years (range, 18-79 years). The ODI and VAS were associated positively (p<.001). Combined axial and lower extremity VAS scores were associated with lateral and rotational ROM (p<.05), but not with flexion/extension or any fROM. Similar findings were noted for separately analyzed axial and lower extremity VAS scores. On the other hand, the ODI correlated inversely with ROM in all planes, and fROM in at least one plane for 10 of 15 ADLs (p<.05).",
"To determine associations between magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) lesions originating from either axial spondyloarthritis (SpA) or from degeneration and pain in patients with chronic back pain of<2 years duration. Patients from the Spondyloarthritis Caught Early (SPACE) cohort identified the sites of pain (thoracic, lumbar, buttock). The average MRI scores from 2 readers for axial SpA lesions and from 2 different readers for degenerative lesions were used. Associations between sacroiliac (SI) joint lesions and buttock pain were investigated by logistic regression analysis, and associations between axial SpA or degenerative lesions and pain in the spine (thoracic and lumbar) were investigated using generalized estimating equations. Interactions with sex, age, HLA-B27, and fulfillment of Assessment of SpondyloArthritis international Society (ASAS) criteria were tested. In 348 patients (126 males, 127 fulfilling ASAS criteria, mean age 29.4 years), spinal MRI (and SI joint images in 342) were available. Pain was localized in the thoracic spine (35.9%), the lumbar spine (82.5%), or in the buttock(s) (57.8%). Inflammatory lesions of the SI joint (odds ratio [OR] 1.06; P = 0.04) and erosions of the SI joint in patients<25 years (OR 1.16; P = 0.04) were associated with buttock pain. Axial SpA spinal lesions were not associated with pain. Modic type 1 lesions in patients>35 years (OR 5.19; P = 0.001), high-intensity zone lesions in females not fulfilling ASAS criteria (OR 5.09; P = 0.001), and herniation in various subgroups (OR range 2.07-4.66) were associated with pain.",
"Findings on MR imaging within 12 weeks of serious LBP inception are highly unlikely to represent any new structural change. Most new changes (loss of disc signal, facet arthrosis, and end plate signal changes) represent progressive age changes not associated with acute events. Primary radicular syndromes may have new root compression findings associated with root irritation.",
"To determine whether we meet perceived need, in terms of appropriate supportive health services (physiotherapy, occupational therapy, chiropody and footwear, surgery, education and information), of patients aged 60 years and over with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). A cross-sectional survey. 123 patients attending rheumatology outpatient clinics. The response rate was 82% (99/123). Of the respondents 78% had one or more perceived needs. Respondents were more likely to express a need for chiropody or footwear (46%), education about RA (29%), or physiotherapy (22%) than for occupational therapy (7%) or surgery (6%). Further analysis compared this group with the 'non-needy' group. There was a correlation between high disease activity scores and high anxiety scores and greater perceived need for additional health services.",
"yes. Partial deafferentation, with impairment of thin (C/Adelta) and thick (Abeta) fiber-mediated sensations and abnormal temporal summation of pain, is present in the trigger area of patients with trigeminal neuralgia. Relief of pain after PRGR depends on the normalization of abnormal temporal summation of pain, which is independent of general impairment of sensory perception. Assessment of the temporal summation of pain may serve as an important tool to record central neuronal hyperexcitability, which may play a key role in the pathophysiological changes in trigeminal neuralgia.",
"The Short Form 36 (SF-36) health survey has been shown to be a valid instrument when used to measure the self-reported physical and mental health of patients. The impact of lumbar spinal disorders can be assessed as the difference between the SF-36 scale scores and age- and gender-specific population norms. To establish the impact upon the self-reported health status of patients with one of four common lumbar spinal diagnoses. A cross-sectional, observational assessment of the health status of spine patients. Data from patients presenting to the participating centers of the National Spine Network with low back pain or leg pain were collected prospectively using the Health Status Questionnaire 2.0. A database search identified patients with either herniated nucleus pulposus with radicular pain (HNP), lumbar spinal stenosis without deformity (SPS), degenerative spondylolisthesis (DS), and painful disc degeneration/spondylosis (DDD). The mean SF-36 scale scores were generated for each of the diagnostic groups. The impact of these diagnoses on health status was determined as the calculated difference from the age- and gender-specific population norms for each of the eight health scale scores. These scores, usually negative in this population, represent how far below normal these patients are. The analysis was stratified according to the age of the patients (<40 years, 40-60 years, >60 years). Analysis of variance and pair-wise comparison with Bonferroni correction were used to assess the significance of differences across diagnosis and age groups. Data from a total of 4,442 patients were available for this study. All four diagnostic groups had large, negative impact scores for the eight general health scales with the greatest impact upon the three scales that best measure physical health. The greatest impact on these physical health scales (physical functioning, role-physical, and bodily pain) was seen in the HNP diagnostic group. The younger age groups (<40 years and 40-60 years) had the greatest physical impairment when compared with the age- and gender-specific population norms. Analysis of variance showed a significant relationship between diagnosis and SF-36 scores, and between age groups and SF-36 scores.",
"It is a common practice to the link low back pain with protruding disc even when neurological signs are absent. Because pain caused by sacroiliac joint dysfunction can mimic discogenic or radicular low back pain, we assumed that the diagnosis of sacroiliac joint dysfunction is frequently overlooked. To assess the incidence of sacroiliac joint dysfunction in patients with low back pain and positive disc findings on CT scan or MRI, but without claudication or objective neurological deficits. Fifty patients with low back pain and disc herniation, without claudication or neurological abnormalities such as decreased motor strength, sensory alterations or sphincter incontinence and with positive pain provocation tests for sacroiliac joint dysfunction were submitted to fluoroscopic diagnostic sacroiliac joint infiltration. The mean baseline VAS pain score was 7.8 +/- 1.77 (range 5-10). Thirty minutes after infiltration, the mean VAS score was 1.3 +/- 1.76 (median 0.000E+00 with an average deviation from median = 1.30) (P = 0.0002). Forty-six patients had a VAS score ranging from 0 to 3, 8 weeks after the fluoroscopic guided infiltration. There were no serious complications after treatment. An unanticipated motor block that required hospitalization was seen in four patients, lasting from 12 to 36 h.",
"In all, 19-22% of the adult Danish population suffer from chronic pain - most frequently in the musculoskeletal system. Different pain management strategies depending on pain mechanism (neuropathic/nociceptive) make diagnosing the pain condition especially important. To investigate whether a validated, self-administered questionnaire (PainDETECT) helps specialists and general practitioners in Denmark identify patients with neuropathic pain components (NeP). In a non-interventional study a sample of Danish specialists (rheumatologists and anaesthesiologists) and general practitioners used the PainDETECT questionnaire on 1322 chronic pain patients. PainDETECT was filled in by patients and scored by the physician. A PainDETECT score above 18 indicates the presence of NeP. A total of 87-95% of the included chronic pain patients (702 by specialists (mean age: 56 years) and 620 by general practitioners (mean age: 55 years)) had musculoskeletal pain. In 39-43% of these patients NeP components were present as assessed by PainDETECT (score 21.1-21.7). One-third of the 540 NeP patients (31-36%) had their pain diagnosis reclassified from a non-NeP to a predominant/mixed NeP diagnosis after use of PainDETECT.",
"A possible cause of hip pain is the presence of radiating pain from the higher lumbar spine. Identification of factors associated with hip pain arising from the lumbar spine would aid the physician. The first step in identifying possible factors is to look at the association between hip pain and osteoarthritis of the lumbar spine. In an open population based study of people 55 years and older (Rotterdam study), 2,819 lumbar radiographs were scored for the presence and severity of individual radiographic features of disk degeneration. Hip osteoarthritis was scored on anteroposterior pelvic radiographs, and questionnaires including self-reported hip pain were taken. Logistic regression adjusted for possible confounders was used to determine the association between self-reported hip pain and the individual radiographic features of lumbar disk degeneration. The presence of dis space narrowing grade ≥1 at level L1/L2 was significantly associated with hip pain in the last month (men OR = 2.0; 95 % CI 1.1-3.8 and women OR = 1.7; 95 % CI 1.1-2.5). The presence of disk space narrowing grade ≥1 at level L2/L3 was only significantly associated with hip pain in women. The strength of the associations increased for self-reported chronic hip pain, especially in men (L1/L2 OR = 2.5; 95 % CI 1.3-5.0). The presence of disk space narrowing at the lower levels (L3/L4/L5/S1) was not significantly associated with hip pain.",
"Incidental pancreatic cysts found by using CT or MR imaging are associated with increased mortality for patients younger than 65 years and an overall increased risk of pancreatic adenocarcinoma.",
"yes. RhBMP-2 associated radiculitis presenting as immediate post-operative leg pain without MRI evidence of neuronal compression occurs in 17% of the patients with rhBMP-2 assisted fusion. Patients should be pre-operatively counselled regarding immediate post-operative leg pain with rhBMP-2.",
"Radicular cysts are the most common cysts in human jaw bones. These lesions induce bone remodeling of the surrounding alveolar bones, which was termed 'condensing osteitis', and was suggested to be related to cells of the osteoblastic lineage. The Runx2 (core-binding protein [cbfa]1/polyoma enhancer-binding protein [pebp]2alphaA) was shown to be a DNA-binding transcriptional molecule expressed in osteoprogenitor cells. We confirmed the specificity of anti-Runx2 antiserum, using Western blotting analysis. We investigated the expression and localization of Runx2 in 32 radicular cyst cases with bone tissue fragments, immunohistochemically. Signals for Runx2 were seen in 18 cases (56.3%) of radicular cysts with bone formation. These signals were immunolocalized in the nuclei of the spindle-shaped osteoprogenitor cells in the cyst walls, whereas only a few signals were seen in the cuboidal osteoblastic cells near the fibrous bones. Signals for type I collagen were immunolocalized in the dense collagen fibers in the cyst walls and in the matrix of the fibrous bone around the radicular cysts, whereas no signals were seen on the inner portions with inflammatory cell infiltration of the cyst walls. Very weak signals for transforming growth factor (TGF)-beta1 were infrequently seen in the osteoblasts of the fibrous bone, whereas signals for TGF-beta2 were observed in young osteocytes in the fibrous bones, in B-cell lymphocytes infiltrating into the inner portions, and on the cellular membranes of the lining epithelium.",
"yes. Baker's cysts discriminate best between individuals with and without symptomatic knee OA. Structural MR abnormalities, especially in the medial side of the tibiofemoral joint and effusion, add further in discriminating symptomatic OA. Baker's cysts may present as a target for treatment.",
"Degenerative processes can cause chronic low back pain that occasionally creates impingement of the lumbar dorsal rami, resulting in a clinical syndrome previously described as lumbar dorsal ramus syndrome (LDRS). To evaluate the clinical basis of LDRS by comparing pain, disability, and objective measures of pathophysiology in 3 groups of subjects defined by needle electromyography examination (NEE) findings. Prospective group cohort study with retrospective chart review. Veterans Affairs medical center outpatient clinic. Subjects who had undergone lower limb NEE and lumbar magnetic resonance imaging. A total of 71 subjects' records that met the study criteria were retrospectively reviewed for interventional spine procedures performed and to measure the lumbosacral paraspinal cross-sectional area (PSP CSA); 28 of the 71 subjects underwent further clinical assessment. One-way analysis of variance was performed to evaluate group differences. In the retrospective arm: (1) PSP CSAs measured at 4 lower lumbar disk levels (average of 3 consecutive slices/level) bilaterally and overall left and right lumbar average PSP CSA and (2) the frequency and type of interventional spine procedures performed. In the prospective arm: (1) temporal changes of NEE abnormalities, (2) pain measured using the Visual Analog Scale, (3) Pain Disability Questionnaire responses, and (4) Short Form-36 scores. The right L5 CSA was significantly greater in the group with mechanical low back pain compared with the group with lumbar radicular syndrome (F = 3.3; P<.05). No significant group differences were noted in the number of spine procedures performed. No significant differences in pain or disability scores were found among the groups. NEE findings improved over time predominantly in the LDRS group.",
"Intervertebral DD was associated with low back symptom severity among young adults, suggesting that the symptoms may have a discogenic origin at this age. However, DD was also found in one-third of asymptomatic subjects.",
"High demands imposed to the shoulder during tennis activity can decrease the efficiency of static and dynamic constraints. Subtle or frank instability of the glenohumeral joint may occur, and long term degenerative changes may be expected. To determine and compare the prevalence of primary glenohumeral osteoarthritis in senior tennis players and matched controls. Cross sectional controlled study. 18 asymptomatic senior tennis players were studied (17 male; mean (SD) age, 57.2 (8.8) years) with no history of shoulder surgery or major trauma. There were 18 matched controls. Radiographs were used to determine glenohumeral osteoarthritic changes: joint space narrowing, humeral and glenoid subchondral sclerosis, humeral and glenoid juxta-articular cysts, osteophytes, humeral and glenoid flattening, humeral posterior displacement and glenoid posterior erosion. Findings were classified as normal, minimal, moderate, or severe changes. 33% of the players (95% confidence interval (CI), 13% to 59%) had osteoarthritic changes in their dominant shoulder (n = 6; five with minimal changes, one with moderate changes), and 11% of the controls (95% CI, 1% to 34%) had articular degeneration on their dominant side (n = 2; both minimal changes) (p = 0.04, Wilcoxon test). The osteoarthritic group was significantly older than the players without degenerative changes (p = 0.008).",
"FJ bone marrow lesions, effusions, and high periarticular signal intensity were common in this sample of patients with axial LBP and substantially more frequent than in prior reports from unselected samples of patients with or without radicular pain. These FJ features demonstrate side-specific associations with LBP. Further study of associations between these FJ features and LBP are warranted.",
"Lumbar spondylosis (LS) is a common spinal degenerative disorder which causes various types of lower urinary tract dysfunction (LUTD). However, it is not certain whether LS may cause urinary retention in elderly women. In a period covering the past 3 years, we retrospectively reviewed: a) urodynamic case records of women with urinary retention (post-void residuals, PVR>100 ml), b) the records of women with LUTD due to LS (cauda equina syndrome and spinal canal narrowing by MRI), and c) uro-neurological features of women who belonged to both a) and b). a) One-hundred women with a mean age of 58 years had urinary retention. The most common underlying disease was multiple system atrophy [19], followed by multiple sclerosis [13]and cervical/thoracic tumours [8]. LS was the fourth most common [5], with the highest age (71 years) of all diseases. b) Nineteen women with LUTD had LS (12, canal narrowing of 50-70%; 7>70 %), with a mean PVR volume of 60 ml. A fourth [5] of them had urinary retention, with severe spinal canal narrowing (all 5>70%). c) Thus, 5 women belonged to both a) and b). In 4 of these women, LUTD followed or occurred together with typical cauda equina syndrome symptoms such as sciatica and saddle anesthesia. However, one elderly woman presented with painless urinary retention, and absent ankle reflexes were the sole neurological abnormality. The urodynamic abnormalities underlying urinary retention included an underactive detrusor in all 5, bladder sensory impairment in 3, an unrelaxing sphincter in 2, a low compliance detrusor in one, neurogenic sphincter motor unit potentials in 2 of 4 studied, and cholinergic supersensitivity of the detrusor in one of 3 studied. Surgical decompression ameliorated urinary retention in 1 of 2 women who had surgery.",
"Neurogenic claudication from posterior epidural extension of a Baastrup interspinous bursal cyst is rare. Surgical decompression is the gold standard of treatment. This case report describes successful percutaneous treatment with good early clinicoradiological outcome. This study aimed to describe the successful percutaneous treatment of a central posterior epidural Baastrup cyst causing neurogenic claudication. This is a case report study. A 62-year-old man presented with neurogenic claudication on a background of previous lymphoma treated with chemotherapy, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, chronic venous insufficiency, and obesity. Conservative therapy with narcotic analgesia had failed, with new requirement of a walking aid and marked reduction in walking distance. Magnetic resonance imaging confirmed severe L3-L4 canal stenosis from central posterior epidural extension of a Baastrup interspinous bursal cyst. Under conscious sedation, initial percutaneous computed tomography (CT)-guided interspinous bursography indirectly opacified the cyst and facilitated trans-laminar direct needle access to the epidural cyst. Aspiration was performed before needle fenestration and epidural steroid injection. Six-week review revealed significant improvement in pain and mobility, with no analgesic or walking aid requirement, and restoration of the patient's baseline walking distance. At 3 months, repeat magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) confirmed significant reduction in cyst size as the mediator of the treatment effect. Improvement in back and leg symptoms was durable at 24-month follow-up.",
"While low back pain (LBP) and neck pain (NP) have been extensively studied, knowledge on mid back pain (MBP) is still lacking. Furthermore, pain from these three spinal areas is typically studied or reported separately and in depth understanding of pain from the entire spine and its consequences is still needed. To describe self-reported consequences of pain in the three spinal regions in relation to age and gender. This was a cross-sectional postal survey, comprising 34,902 twin individuals, representative of the general Danish adult population. The variables of interest in relation to consequences of spinal pain were: Care-seeking, reduced physical activity, sick-leave, change in work situation, and disability pension. Almost two-thirds of individuals with spinal pain did not report any consequence. Generally, consequences due to LBP were more frequently reported than those due to NP or MBP. Regardless of area of complaint, care seeking and reduced physical activities were the most commonly reported consequences, followed by sick-leave, change of work, and disability pension. There was a small mid-life peak for care-seeking and a slow general increase in reduced activities with increasing age. Increasing age was not associated with a higher reporting of sick-leave but the duration of the sick-leave increased somewhat with age. Disability pension due to spinal pain was reported exceedingly rare before the age of 50. Typically, women slightly more often than men reported some kind of consequences due to spinal pain.",
"To identify potential cysts using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) after autologous osteochondral transplantation (AOT) for osteochondral lesions of the talus (OLTs) as well as to determine the effect of cysts on short-term clinical outcomes. Eighty-nine MRI scans of 37 patients who had AOT for an OLT were evaluated. Radiographic variables examined included cyst presence, cyst location, bone edema, and cartilage integrity. Patient clinical variables recorded and examined for association with the presence of a cyst included gender, age, preoperative lesion size, size and number of osteochondral graft used, symptoms reported, and pre- and postoperative Foot and Ankle Outcome Score (FAOS) and Short Form-12 (SF-12) scores measured at final follow-up. Twenty-four patients (64.8%) had MRI evidence of cystic change after AOT for an OLT at a mean MRI follow-up time of 15 months after surgery (range 2-54). Patients with presence of a cyst after surgery were older (mean age, 42.7 years) than those without cysts (mean age, 32.7 years) (P = .041), and among patients with a cyst, older patients more often had involvement of the subchondral plate (57.3 v 36.7 years) (P < .001). No other variables associated with cyst formation had statistical significance. Mean patient FAOS scores increased from 50 (±19) preoperatively to 87 (±8) postoperatively. Mean SF-12 scores increased from 52 (±18) preoperatively to 85 (±6) postoperatively. Patients not identified as having a cyst had lower SF-12 (P = .028) and FAOS (P = .032) preoperative scores and more improvement in SF-12 (P = .006) and FAOS (P = .016) scores than patients with cysts.",
"To assess the incremental diagnostic value of spine MRI evaluated separately from and combined with sacroiliac joint (SIJ) MRI in non-radiographic axial spondyloarthritis (nr-axSpA) compared with SIJ MRI alone. The study sample comprised two independent cohorts A/B of 130 consecutive patients aged ≤50 years with back pain, newly referred to two university clinics, and 20 healthy controls. Patients were classified according to clinical examination and pelvic radiographs as having nr-axSpA (n=50), ankylosing spondylitis (n=33), or non-specific back pain (n=47). Four readers assessed SIJ and spine MRI separately 6 months apart, and 1-12 months later both scans simultaneously using standardised modules. Readers recorded presence/absence of SpA and their level of confidence in this conclusion on a 0-10 scale (0=definitely not; 10=definite). We analysed differences between SIJ MRI versus spine MRI alone, and SIJ MRI alone versus combined MRI, descriptively by the number/percentage of subjects according to the mean of four readers. In cohorts A/B, 15.8%/24.2% of patients with nr-axSpA having a negative SIJ MRI were reclassified as being positive for SpA by global evaluation of combined scans. However, 26.8%/11.4% of non-specific back pain controls and 17.5% of healthy volunteers with a negative SIJ MRI were falsely reclassified as having SpA by combined MRI. Low confidence in a diagnosis of SpA by SIJ MRI increased to high confidence by combined MRI in 6.6%/7.3% of patients with nr-axSpA.",
"There is often a considerable delay in diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). In this multicenter study, we analyzed the delay and possible associated factors, including an initial diagnosis of lumbar disc herniation (LDH), which we frequently encounter in daily clinical practice. The study included 393 consecutive patients [258 men (65.6%), mean age 39.3 ± 10.8 yrs] with AS according to the modified New York criteria. Face-to-face interviews were done using a structured questionnaire, addressing all the potentially relevant factors. The mean diagnostic delay was 8.1 ± 8.6 years in the whole study population. The shortest delay was observed when rheumatologists were the first physicians consulted (2.9 ± 5.3 yrs). An initial diagnosis of LDH was reported by 33% of the patients. The diagnostic delays in patients with an initial diagnosis of LDH and those without were 9.1 ± 8.5 years and 6.2 ± 7.4 years, respectively (p = 0.002). In a regression model, predictive factors for delay in diagnosis were age at onset of spondyloarthritic symptoms, back pain, education level, prior diagnosis of LDH, and surgical history for LDH.",
"To our knowledge, this is the first report that clearly establishes the role of CSF forces in the symptomatology of sacral nerve root cysts. Lumbar external CSF drainage is a diagnostic tool to investigate the clinical significance of sacral nerve root cyst(s). Lumboperitoneal CSF shunting is a promising alternative in the treatment of symptomatic sacral nerve root cysts.",
"Observational case series. To compare the pattern of distribution of radicular pain with published dermatome charts. Dermatomal charts vary and previous studies have demonstrated significant individual subject variation. Patients with radiologically and surgically proven nerve root compression (NRC) caused by prolapsed intervertebral disc completed computerized diagrams of the distribution of pain and pins and needles. Ninety-eight patients had L5 compressions and 83 had S1 compressions. The distribution of pain and pins and needles did not correspond well with dermatomal patterns. Of those patients with L5 NRC, only 22 (22.4%) recorded any hits on the L5 dermatome on the front, and only 60 (61.2%) on the back with only 13 (13.3%) on both. Only 1 (1.0%) patient placed more than 50% of their hits within the L5 dermatome. Of those patients with S1 NRC, only 3 (3.6%) recorded any hits on the S1 dermatome on the front, and only 64 (77.1%) on the back with only 15 (18.1%) on both. No patients placed more than 50% of their hits within the S1 dermatome. Regarding pins and needles, 27 (29.7%) patients with L5 NRC recorded hits on the front alone, 27 (29.7%) on the back alone, and 14 (15.4%) on both. Nineteen (20.9%) recorded more than 50% of hits within the L5 dermatome. Three (3.6%) patients with S1 NRC recorded hits on the front alone, 44 (53.0%) on the back alone, and 18 (21.7%) on both. Twelve (14.5%) recorded more than 50% of hits within the S1 dermatome.",
"yes. The bilateral responses support central modulation of radicular pain after nerve root injury. An exaggerated and more prolonged response bilaterally after reinjury suggests central sensitization after initial injury. Neuroinflammatory activation in the spinal cord further supports the hypothesis that central neuroinflammation plays an important role in chronic radicular pain.",
"In this population of office workers, only modest support was found for an atherothrombotic component to back pain sickness absence. However, the young age of participants at baseline and the lack of distinction between different types of back pain are likely to bias the findings toward null. Further research is required to ascertain whether a population sub-group of atherothrombotic back pain can be identified.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate, using quantitative sensory testing (QST) parameters and the painDETECT (PD-Q) screening questionnaire, the presence of neuropathic pain (NeP) in patients with unilateral painful cervical radiculopathy (CxRAD) and in patients with unilateral nonspecific neck-arm pain associated with heightened nerve mechanosensitivity (NSNAP). All patients completed the PD-Q before QST. QST was performed bilaterally in the maximal pain area and the affected dermatome in 23 patients with painful C6 or C7 radiculopathy and in 8 patients with NSNAP following a C6/7 dermatomal pain distribution. Patients with CxRAD demonstrated a significant loss of sensory function in mechanical (P≤0.021) and vibration sense (P≤0.003) on the symptomatic side compared with the asymptomatic side in both tested body regions and in the dermatome reduced cold detection (P=0.021) and pressure pain sensitivity (P=0.005), findings consistent with nerve root damage. These sensory alterations in the maximal pain area/symptomatic side are confirmative for the presence of NeP. In contrast to these QST data, only 30% of patients with CxRAD demonstrated a NeP component according to the PD-Q score. In patients with NSNAP, a significant side-to-side difference was demonstrated for warm detection threshold in the dermatome (P=0.030). The PD-Q score indicated that NeP components were unlikely in this group.",
"(1) To determine the prevalence of cervical zygapophyseal joint pain in a specialist clinical setting; (2) to review the number of diagnostic blocks needed to identify the segmental level of the symptomatic joints; and (3) to determine the distribution of segmental levels of cervical zygapophyseal joint pain in a clinical setting. Retrospective audit of patients of three independent rehabilitation medicine specialists who had undergone cervical zygapophyseal joint blocks in hospital outpatient clinics and private rooms. 97 patients aged 18-82 years with chronic neck pain (with or without headache) of more than six months' duration refractory to conservative therapies. Diagnostic fluoroscopic cervical third occipital and medial branch blocks of zygapophyseal joints. Diagnosis required confirmation by a repeat procedure. 35 of 97 patients (36%) had a confirmed symptomatic cervical zygapophyseal joint (95% CI, 27%-45%). The symptomatic segmental level was found at the first attempt by reference to a standard pain diagram in 83% of cases (29 of 35). The most common symptomatic levels were C3-4 (11/35; 31%) and C5-6 (10/35; 29%).",
"Differentiating between ganglion and synovial cysts by standard histology is difficult, leading to inaccurate statements on frequency for each of these periarticular lesions. The purpose of this study was to use immunohistochemical (IHC) analysis to 1) calculate the accuracy of the histologic diagnoses, 2) determine the frequency of ganglion and synovial cysts of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), and 3) compare the frequency of these lesions in the TMJ compared with the extracranial skeleton in patients treated at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH). This is a retrospective cohort study of all patients undergoing treatment of TMJ cysts at MGH from 2001 through 2013. IHC analysis of tissue samples for each patient was completed and compared with the original histologic diagnoses. Categorical variables, including age, gender, and sidedness, were recorded. A natural language search of the MGH Department of Pathology database determined the frequency of extracranial periarticular cysts during the same period. Thirteen patients met the inclusion criteria. Eleven cysts were synovial and 2 were ganglion based on histology. IHC analysis identified 2 false-positive synovial cyst diagnoses, resulting in 100% sensitivity and 50% specificity for the original histologic assessment and a percentage error of 22%. Of the periarticular TMJ lesions, 69% were synovial cysts and 31% were ganglion cysts. The frequency of TMJ versus extracranial ganglion cysts was 0.24%, and the frequency of TMJ versus extracranial synovial cysts was 0.60% based on 3,176 extracranial cysts (1,506 synovial; 1,670 ganglion).",
"Disorders of the sacroiliac joint are challenging to diagnose. This is partially due to similarity in symptom presentation to other lumbar spinal disorders and poor visibility of the joint on imaging studies. The pubic symphysis is clearly visualized in the anteroposterior view on plain film radiographs. As a closed ring, changes in the anterior and posterior portion of the pelvis may be reciprocal. The purpose of this study was to assess the correlation between pubic symphyseal changes observed on X-ray and SI joint disorders. Thirty patients with a confirmed diagnosis of SI joint disorders were compared with 30 patients with low back pain without the evidence of SI joint involvement. Plain film radiographs were blinded and independently reviewed by two orthopedic surgeons. Changes in the pubic symphysis were classified as (0) no change, (1) osteoarthritic degeneration, (2) vertical displacement, or (3) ligament ossification. There was no significant difference between groups in age, gender, or parturition status. The majority of both groups were female. Mean (±SD) subject age was 61 (±11) and 59 (±9) years, and parity was 44% and 39% for the study and control groups, respectively. The prevalence of observable changes in the pubic symphysis was 97% in the study group and 30% in the control group (p<0.001).",
"To correlate magnetic resonance (MR) image findings with pain response by provocation discography in patients with discogenic low back pain, with an emphasis on the combination analysis of a high intensity zone (HIZ) and disc contour abnormalities. Sixty-two patients (aged 17-68 years) with axial low back pain that was likely to be disc related underwent lumbar discography (178 discs tested). The MR images were evaluated for disc degeneration, disc contour abnormalities, HIZ, and endplate abnormalities. Based on the combination of an HIZ and disc contour abnormalities, four classes were determined: (1) normal or bulging disc without HIZ; (2) normal or bulging disc with HIZ; (3) disc protrusion without HIZ; (4) disc protrusion with HIZ. These MR image findings and a new combined MR classification were analyzed in the base of concordant pain determined by discography. Disc protrusion with HIZ [sensitivity 45.5%; specificity 97.8%; positive predictive value (PPV), 87.0%] correlated significantly with concordant pain provocation (P<0.01). A normal or bulging disc with HIZ was not associated with reproduction of pain. Disc degeneration (sensitivity 95.4%; specificity 38.8%; PPV 33.9%), disc protrusion (sensitivity 68.2%; specificity 80.6%; PPV 53.6%), and HIZ (sensitivity 56.8%; specificity 83.6%; PPV 53.2%) were not helpful in the identification of a disc with concordant pain.",
"To investigate the presence of fatty infiltrate in the cervical extensor musculature in patients with insidious-onset neck pain to better understand the possible pathophysiology underlying such changes in chronic whiplash-associated disorders (WAD). A sample of convenience of 23 women with persistent insidious-onset neck pain (mean age 29.2+/-6.9 years) was recruited for the study. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was used to quantify fatty infiltration in the cervical extensor musculature. Quantitative Sensory Testing (QST; pressure and thermal pain thresholds) was performed as sensory features are present in chronic whiplash. Self-reported pain and disability, as well as psychological distress, were measured using the Neck Disability Index (NDI) and the General Health Questionnaire-28 (GHQ-28), respectively. Measures were compared with those of a previous dataset of chronic whiplash patients (n=79, mean age 29.7+/-7.8 years). Using a classification tree, insidious-onset neck pain was clearly identified from whiplash (p<0.001), based on the presence of MRI fatty infiltrate in the cervical extensor musculature (0/102 individuals) and altered temperature thresholds (cold; 3/102 individuals).",
"Persistent pain is grossly undertreated in older adult sufferers, despite its high prevalence in this age group. Because of its multidimensional impacts, including depression, sleep disruption and physical disability, patients with persistent pain often benefit from interdisciplinary pain clinic treatment. This treatment is expensive, however, and may not be required by all patients. The Multiaxial Assessment of Pain (MAP) has demonstrated value in predicting response to treatment in younger adults with persistent pain. To examine the feasibility of a MAP taxonomy for community-dwelling adults age 65 years or older. One hundred eight subjects with persistent pain (mean age 73.8 years, SD=8.4 years) were interviewed and data collected on demographics, pain intensity, depressive symptoms, sleep disruption, pain interference with performance of basic and instrumental activities of daily living, frequency of engagement in advanced activities of daily living, cognitive function and comorbidity. A subset of these subjects underwent physical capacities testing, including maximal isometric lift strength, dynamic lifting endurance, timed chair rise and balance. Analyses derived three primary clusters of patients. Cluster 1 (24%) reported less intense pain, less depression and sleep disruption, and higher activity levels. Cluster 3 (30%) suffered from more pain and were more functionally disabled. Cluster 2 (46%) had characteristics of cluster 1 and cluster 3, but with some characteristics that were clearly unique.",
"Psychiatric examination and search of complex regional pain syndrome, radicular or accessory nerve damage, and genetic predisposition to dystonia are necessary for selecting a difficult treatment in these patients.",
"Especially in geriatric patients with osteoporosis, vertebral fractures can be underdiagnosed with conventional X-rays. Persisting or increasing pain should lead to an MRI to detect and to determine the age of the fracture. In acute fractures, patients profit very well with a significant long-term pain reduction and as a result with an increased mobility after balloon kyphoplasty.",
"yes. The present data indicate that, when controlling for pain intensity and duration, subjective health complaints are associated with a sex - OPRM1 A118G polymorphism interaction in patients with radicular pain.",
"Bursal cysts (bursitis) are attributed to repeated microtrauma of the connective tissue around the synovial joint and are rare in the coccygeal region. A 10-year-old boy had a subcutaneous tumor at the midline of the buttock. He could not walk and slid himself in a seated position because of psychomotor retardation. MR images showed a cystic lesion overlying the coccygeal bone, the intensity of which was identical to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Although meningocele was suspected, constructive interference in steady-state (CISS) MR images clearly depicted a discontinuity between the cyst and CSF space.",
"To determine the frequency of facet joint (FJ) bone marrow lesions, high FJ periarticular signal intensity, and FJ effusions in a convenience sample of patients with axial low back pain (LBP). A cross-sectional pilot study with retrospective data collection. Outpatient spine clinics. Sixty-four adults with axial LBP scheduled to receive an FJ intra-articular corticosteroid injection. Clinical data were abstracted from the medical record by 1 physician, who was blinded to results of the magnetic resonance imaging evaluations. A musculoskeletal radiologist blinded to clinical information performed standardized assessments of the L1-S1 spinal levels for FJ bone marrow lesions, effusions, and high periarticular signal intensity on lumbar magnetic resonance imaging, including short tau inversion recovery sequences. We calculated the frequency of these FJ features and used generalized estimating equations to examine side-specific associations between the location of FJ features and the side on which LBP was experienced. The sample included 64 participants with a mean (standard deviation) age of 59.9 ± 14.5 years. FJ bone marrow lesions were present in 64.1%, effusions in 70.3%, and high periarticular signal intensity in 65.6% of participants. All the features were most common at the L4-L5 level. These FJ features showed significant associations with the side on which LBP was experienced or statistical trends toward an association, with or without adjustment for age, gender, and body mass index. The strongest side-specific associations were seen for the number of bone marrow lesions (odds ratio [OR] 1.60 [95% confidence interval {CI},1.05-2.43]), any FJ effusion (OR 2.23 [95% CI, 1.02-4.85]), and the number of joints with high periarticular signal intensity (OR 1.75 [95% CI, 1.16-2.63]).",
"Baastrup disease is characterized by the development of abnormal contact between adjacent spinous processes. The clinical significance remains unresolved, a few studies showing Baastrup disease as a cause of back pain. The aim of this study was to establish the frequency of Baastrup disease in a large unselected cohort to determine whether it is part of the expected spectrum of degenerative changes in the aging spine. The abdominopelvic CT scans of 1008 patients divided equally into seven age groups were retrospectively reviewed. Baastrup disease was judged present if there was close contact between adjacent spinous processes and if the apposing ends were sclerotic. The presence of other degenerative changes, such as disk degeneration, spondylolisthesis, and facet osteoarthritis, at affected levels also was noted. Evidence of Baastrup disease was found in 413 patients (41.0%). A decade-on-decade increase in frequency was found with a peak of 81.3% among patients older than 80 years. As many as five levels were found to be affected in some patients (4.1% of 413), but in most patients (35.4%), one level was affected. Baastrup disease was most common at L4-L5. Associated degenerative changes were found at almost all affected levels (899/901).",
"Irritable bowel syndrome is under-recognised in elderly care despite negative investigation. Making the diagnosis, even in the presence of co-existent disease, could reduce the overall burden of suffering, improve quality of life and prevent repetitive investigations.",
"To explore factors related to hand pain in persons with radiographic hand osteoarthritis (OA). Persons in the Musculoskeletal Pain in Ullensaker Study with radiographic hand OA (≥1 joint with Kellgren/Lawrence grade ≥2) were included (n = 530). We examined the cross-sectional association between possible explanatory variables and hand pain in the entire sample and in 2 hand OA phenotypes (erosive versus nonerosive) using structural equation analyses. Outcome variables were the Australian/Canadian Hand Osteoarthritis Index (AUSCAN; range 0-20) and number of tender finger joints upon palpation (NTJ; range 0-30). The mean age was 65 years (40-79 years) and 375 participants were women (71%). Diabetes mellitus, female sex, lower education status, familial OA, infrequent alcohol drinking, widespread pain, poor mental health, and higher number of finger joints with ultrasound-detected synovitis and radiographic OA were related to more hand pain in the entire sample. Stratified analyses showed that diabetes mellitus was strongly associated with AUSCAN pain (B-unstandardized coefficient = 3.81 [95% confidence interval (95% CI) 2.27, 5.35]) and NTJ (B-unstandardized coefficient = 4.16 [95% CI 2.01, 6.31]) in erosive hand OA only. In nonerosive OA, lower education status, having familial OA, and poor mental health were associated with hand OA pain. Widespread pain was associated with both outcomes in both phenotypes.",
"Patients with enthesopathy of the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) demonstrate signal changes on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). It is likely that these MRI changes persist for many years or may be permanent, regardless of symptoms, and represent an estimation of disease prevalence. We tested the hypothesis that the prevalence of incidental signal changes in the ECRB origin increases with age. We searched MRI reports of 3374 patients who underwent an MRI scan, including the elbow, for signal changes in the ECRB origin. Medical records were reviewed for symptoms consistent with ECRB enthesopathy. Prevalences of incidental and symptomatic signal changes were calculated and stratified by age. We used multivariate logistic regression analysis to test whether age, sex, and race were independently associated with ECRB enthesopathy and calculated odds ratios. Signal changes in ECRB origin were identified on MRI scans of 369 of 3374 patients (11%) without a clinical suspicion of tennis elbow. The prevalence increased from 5.7% in patients aged between 18 and 30 years up to 16% in patients aged 71 years and older. Older age (odds ratio, 1.04; P <.001) was independently associated with the incidental finding of ECRB enthesopathy on elbow MRI scans.",
"Back pain is a common problem and has been shown to affect approximately 85% of the adult population at any one time. The source of this pain can be difficult to identify and the sacroiliac joint (SIJ) has been proposed as a possible pain source. Its percentage contribution to lower back pain is controversial. Clinical provocative tests for SIJ pathology have been developed but these have high intra and inter-observer variability and the significant of positive findings is unclear. This study proposes that the SIJ should not be imaged as part of a routine MRI lumbar spine series. We retrospectively reviewed the images of 353 patients who had MRI lumbar spine scans. 130 had the SIJ imaged. We recorded the clinical findings and diagnosis at referral. We reviewed the images and documented the radiological findings. SI joint pathology was most frequently identified when clinical suspected. Overall SIJ pathology found on MRI in only 0.02% of patients.",
"We hypothesize that thumb basilar joint osteoarthritis (TBJA) radiographic stage does not correlate with patient-reported measures of symptom severity. Patients with unilateral TBJA who completed the 11-item QuickDASH (Disabilities of the Arm, Shoulder, and Hand), Short-Form 12 Health Survey (SF-12) Mental Component and SF-12 Physical Component surveys were prospectively enrolled in the study. The Eaton-Littler radiographic stage was assigned for each patient. The correlation between the radiographic score and disease stage was calculated. Sixty-two patients (15 men, 47 women; average age, 62.3 years) formed the basis of this study. The average QuickDASH score (and standard deviation) for patients with stage 1 TBJA was 31.5 (11.4); for those with stage 2, it was 37.9 (17.4); with stage 3, it was 30.1 (13.0), and with stage 4, it was 39.4 (12.5). Eaton-Littler stage did not correlate significantly with QuickDASH scores (rho = -0.014, P = 0.91). Neither SF-12 Mental Component scores (MCS-12: rho = 0.019, P = 0.89) nor the SF-12 Physical Component scores (PCS-12: rho = 0.145, P = 0.26) correlated with TBJA stage.",
"Most patients undergoing intra-or peri-articular injections, synovial fluid aspirations and spine injections suffer from procedural pain. Most patients experience usually mild procedural pain and procedural pain management is uncommonly provided by physicians. Specific research and guidelines for the management of procedural pain related to rheumatologic care should be established to improve the quality of care provided by physicians.",
"Identifying Hunner lesions in patients with interstitial cystitis/bladder pain syndrome presents an opportunity for objective classification into Hunner lesion interstitial cystitis/bladder pain syndrome (classic interstitial cystitis) and nonHunner lesion bladder pain syndrome. While currently the former diagnosis requires cystoscopy, limited data suggest that these subtypes can be distinguished without endoscopy based on the degree of bladder focused centricity and the infrequent association with generalized pain conditions. Patients in a prospective, single center database of interstitial cystitis/bladder pain syndrome who had documented cystoscopic findings were categorized with Hunner lesion interstitial cystitis/bladder pain syndrome or nonHunner lesion bladder pain syndrome. Demographics, pain and symptom scores, voiding symptoms, irritable bowel syndrome and clinical UPOINT (urinary, psychosocial, organ specific, infection, neurological and tenderness) scoring were comparatively analyzed. We reviewed the records of 469 patients, including 359 with documented local anesthetic cystoscopic findings, 44 (12.3%) with Hunner lesion interstitial cystitis/bladder pain syndrome and 315 (87.7%) with nonHunner bladder pain syndrome. Patients with Hunner lesions were older (p = 0.004) and had greater urinary frequency (p = 0.013), more nocturia (p = 0.0004) and higher ICSI (Interstitial Cystitis Symptom Index) scores (p = 0.017). Hunner lesion prevalence was significantly lower in those younger than 50 years vs those 50 years old or older (7.8% vs 14.9%, p = 0.0095). There was no difference in the number of UPOINT phenotype domains reported, overall UPOINT scores or the prevalence of irritable bowel syndrome between the groups.",
"Although rare in the healthy volunteers, most of the patients with lumbosacral radiculopathy had gluteal trigger point, located at the painful side. Further studies are required to test the hypothesis that specific gluteal trigger point therapy could be beneficial in these patients.",
"The objective of this study was to compare the prevalence of gluteal trigger point in patients with lumbosacral radiculopathy with that in healthy volunteers. In a cross-sectional, multistage sampling method, patients with clinical, electromyographic, and magnetic resonance imaging findings consistent with lumbosacral radiculopathy were examined for the presence of gluteal trigger point. Age- and sex-matched clusters of healthy volunteers were selected as the control group. The primary outcome of the study was the presence or absence of gluteal trigger point in the gluteal region of the patients and the control group. Of 441 screened patients, 271 met all the inclusion criteria for lumbosacral radiculopathy and were included in the study. Gluteal trigger point was identified in 207 (76.4%) of the 271 patients with radiculopathy, compared with 3 (1.9%) of 152 healthy volunteers (P<0.001). The location of gluteal trigger point matched the side of painful radiculopathy in 74.6% of patients with a unilateral radicular pain. There was a significant correlation between the side of the gluteal trigger point and the side of patients' radicular pain (P<0.001).",
"To investigate the association of ultrasound (US) features-grey scale (GS) synovitis, synovial thickening, effusion and power Doppler signal (PDS)-with symptoms in hand osteoarthritis (HOA). Fifty-five consecutive patients (mean age 62 years, 87% women) with HOA, fulfilling the American College of Rheumatology criteria, were assessed for pain upon palpation and filled in Australian/Canadian Osteoarthritis Index (AUSCAN) scores, visual analogue scale pain and Short Form-36 (SF-36). US was performed in all metacarpophalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, distal interphalangeal, first interphalangeal and first carpometacarpal joints, and features were semiquantitatively scored (0-3). Generalised estimating equations were used to calculate OR (95% CI) for the association between US features and pain per joint adjusted for relevant confounders. The association between US features summated scores and self-reported outcomes was studied by linear regression analysis. GS synovitis, effusion, synovial thickening and PDS were shown in 96%, 91%, 73% and 86% of patients, respectively. US features were dose-dependently associated with pain upon palpation (OR 4.5 (95% CI 2.2 to 9.0), 4.4 (2.0 to 9.4), 4.9 (2.2 to 11.0) and 4.1 (2.2 to 7.9)). GS synovitis was associated with AUSCAN pain, stiffness and SF-36, and effusion with AUSCAN pain.",
"It is widely believed that there are multiple sources of pain at a tissue level in osteoarthritis (OA). Magnetic Resonance Images (MRIs) provide a wealth of anatomic information and may allow identification of specific features associated with pain. We hypothesized that in knees with OA, bone marrow lesions (BMLs), synovitis, and effusion would be associated with weight-bearing and (less so with) non-weight-bearing pain independently. In a cross-sectional study of persons with symptomatic knee OA using univariate and multivariate logistic regressions with maximal BML, effusion, and synovitis defined by Boston Leeds Osteoarthritis Knee Score as predictors, and knee pain using weight-bearing and non-weight-bearing Western Ontario and McMaster University OA Index pain questions as the outcome, we tested the association between MRI findings and knee symptoms. 160 participants, mean age 61 (+/-9.9), mean body mass index (BMI) 30.3 (+/-4.7) and 50% female, stronger associations were seen with weight-bearing compared with non-weight-bearing knee pain with adjusted risk ratios (RRs) of weight-bearing knee pain, for increasing maximal BML scores of 1.0 (referent) (maximal BML=0), 1.2, 1.9, and 2.0 (P for trend=0.006). For effusion scores, adjusted RRs of knee pain were 1.0, 1.7, 2.0, and 2.6 (P for trend=0.0004); and for synovitis scores, adjusted ORs were 1.0, 1.4, 1.5, and 1.9 (P for trend=0.22).",
"To determine whether older adults (aged ≥ 60) experience less improvement in disability and pain with nonsurgical treatment of lumbar disk herniation (LDH) than younger adults (<60). Prospective longitudinal comparative cohort study. Outpatient specialty spine clinic. One hundred thirty-three consecutive patients with radicular pain and magnetic resonance-confirmed acute LDH (89 younger, 44 older). Nonsurgical treatment customized for the individual patient. Patient-reported disability on the Oswestry Disability Index (ODI), leg pain intensity, and back pain intensity were recorded at baseline and 1, 3, and 6 months. The primary outcome was the ODI change score at 6 months. Secondary longitudinal analyses examined rates of change over the follow-up period. Older adults demonstrated improvements in ODI (range 0-100) and pain intensity (range 0-10) with nonsurgical treatment that were not significantly different from those seen in younger adults at 6 month follow-up, with or without adjustment for potential confounders. Adjusted mean improvement in older and younger adults were 31 versus 33 (P = .63) for ODI, 4.5 versus 4.5 (P = .99) for leg pain, and 2.4 versus 2.7 for back pain (P = .69). A greater amount of the total improvement in leg pain and back pain in older adults was noted in the first month of follow-up than in younger adults.",
"In selected cases, percutaneous treatment of symptomatic central posterior epidural cysts as part of Baastrup phenomena may be feasible. This treatment approach avoided general anesthesia, avoided the procedural risks of surgical decompression, and was performed in the outpatient setting, with good early clinicoradiological outcome. This may emerge to be a surgical sparing option or an alternate to continuing conservative therapy in patients who are poor surgical candidates.",
"yes. Musculoskeletal ultrasound is useful for diagnosis and management of refractory musculoskeletal conditions that are commonly misdiagnosed on physical examination and translucent to radiographic imaging. Musculoskeletal ultrasound allowed us to exclude rotator cuff pathology, identify ACJ cyst as the pain generator, classify it as a type 1 ACJ cyst, and aid in needle guidance for successful aspiration leading to full resolution of our patient's pain.",
"yes. The nuclear expression of Runx2 in spindle-shaped cells in the outer portions may play an essential role in the induction of fibrous bone tissue around radicular cysts. TGF-beta2 may play a role in the production of type I collagen, which acts as a template for pathologic new bone formation, in radicular cysts.",
"Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) cysts are uncommon causes of shoulder pain. Type 1 ACJ cysts are limited to the ACJ and form in the presence of intact rotator cuff musculature, while type 2 cysts form secondary to biomechanical instability following rotator cuff tear or rupture. A 36-year-old overweight male with history of chronic left grade 2 (Rockwood classification) ACJ separation presented with intermittent pain at the distal superoanterior left clavicle. Physical examination revealed small step off at the ACJ and multiple subcutaneous cysts surrounding the ACJ. Ultrasound examination revealed a mild separation of the left ACJ, mild distension of the joint capsule, and a small, well-circumscribed, compressible hypo-echoic cyst overlying the clavicle. Palpation of the cyst against the clavicle reproduced the patient's symptoms of intermittent pain. He opted for ultrasound-guided aspiration and subsequently had full resolution of his symptoms.",
"The presence of a subchondral edema with an acetabular cyst on MRI is indicative of a full-thickness cartilage lesion at the time of arthroscopy. These patients have inferior outcomes for arthroscopic treatment of FAI compared with patients with similar age and activity level without MRI subchondral cystic changes.",
"yes. The presence and extent of severe facet joint OA on CT imaging are associated with back pain in community-based older adults, independent of sociodemographics, health factors, and disc height narrowing.",
"A prospective longitudinal cohort study of 176 patients with radicular pain below the knee, who all had an MDT clinical assessment. Based on their pain response, patients were divided into five groups: abolition centralization, reduction centralization, unstable centralization, peripheralization, and \"no effect\". Patients had an MRI. Overall, 84.8% of patients reported experiencing centralization, 7.3% peripheralized and 7.9% reported \"no effect\". The median reduction in RMQ scores across all the three centralization groups was 9.5 points at 3 months, and 12.0 points at 12 months. The peripheralization group improved similarly. The 'no effect' group improved significantly lower (p < 0.001), by 3.0 at both time points. Patients who centralized, and peripheralized had a significantly reduction in leg pain, the \"no effect\" group demonstrated a less favorable outcome (p < 0.02). There was no association between pain responses and the type of disc lesion.",
"yes. This study represents the largest single-institution experience with periarticular cysts of the TMJ, and contrary to previous reports, TMJ cysts appear to be more frequently synovial than ganglion. IHC can be used to overcome the relatively poor specificity of histologic diagnosis of synovial cysts.",
"To evaluate the predictive utility of the pattern of low back pain (LBP) in detecting the source of LBP as internal disk disruption (IDD), facet joint pain (FJP), or sacroiliac joint pain (SIJP). Retrospective chart review. University spine center. A total of 170 cases from 156 patients presenting with LBP whose low back disorder was definitively diagnosed. The mean age was 54.4 years (SD, 16.2) and median duration of LBP was 12 months (interquartile ranges, 6-32). Charts of consecutive LBP patients who underwent definitive diagnostic spinal procedures including provocation diskography, facet joint blocks, and sacroiliac joint blocks were retrospectively reviewed. Each patient with LBP was queried as to the exact location of their LBP: midline, defined as in-line with the spinous processes, and/or paramidline, defined as lateral to 1 fingerbreadth adjacent to the midline. In patients with a definitive diagnosis for the source of LBP, the proportion of each diagnosed source of pain was calculated. χ(2) tests were used to identify differences in the percentages of midline and paramidline LBP among the groups of patients testing positive for IDD, FJP, or SIJP. Diagnostic measures of sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values, diagnostic accuracy, and likelihood ratios of positive and negative tests using the presence/absence of midline and paramidline pain for the diagnosis of IDD, FJP, and SIJP were estimated. With cases of IDD, significantly greater percentages of patients reported midline LBP (95.8%; χ(2) = 101.4, df = 2, P<.0001) as compared with cases of FJP (15.4%) or SIJP (12.9%). In cases of IDD, significantly lower percentages of patients reported paramidline pain (67.3%; χ(2) = 16.1, df = 2, P = .0003) as compared with cases of FJP (95.0%) or SIJ (96.0%). In cases of IDD, significantly greater percentages of patients reported midline LBP (95.8%; χ(2) = 101.4, df = 2, P<.0001) as compared with cases of FJP (15.4%) or SIJP (12.9%). The specificity of midline LBP for IDD, FJP, and SIJP was 74.8% (95% CI = 65.0%-82.9%), 28.0% (20.1%-37.0%), and 36.0% (28.0%-44.5%), respectively. The negative predictive value of paramidline LBP for IDD, FJP, and SIJP was 29.2% (95% CI = 12.6%-51.1%), 91.7% (73.0%-99.0%), and 95.8% (78.9%-99.9%). The diagnostic accuracy of midline LBP for IDD, FJP, and SIJP was 83.5%, 24.1%, and 31.8%, respectively.",
"Joint, spinal and soft tissue injections are commonly performed by rheumatologists in their daily practice. Contrary to other procedures, e.g. performed in pediatric care, little is known about the frequency, the intensity and the management of procedural pain observed in osteo-articular injections in daily practice. This observational, prospective, national study was carried out among a French national representative database of primary rheumatologists to evaluate the prevalence and intensity of pain caused by intra-and peri-articular injections, synovial fluid aspirations, soft tissue injections, and spinal injections. For each physician, data were collected over 1 month, for up to 40 consecutive patients (>18-years-old) for whom a synovial fluid aspiration, an intra or peri-articular injection or a spinal injection were carried out during consultations. Statistical analysis was carried out in order to compare patients who had suffered from pain whilst undergoing the procedure to those who had not. Explanatory analyses were conducted by stepwise logistic regression with the characteristics of the patients to explain the existence of pain. Data were analysed for 8446 patients (64% female, mean age 62 +/- 14 years) recruited by 240 physicians. The predominant sites injected were the knee (45.5%) and spine (19.1%). Over 80% of patients experienced procedural pain which was most common in the small joints (42%) and spine (32%) Pain was severe in 5.3% of patients, moderate in 26.6%, mild in 49.8%, and absent in 18.3%. Pain was significantly more intense in patients with severe pain linked to their underlying pathology and for procedures performed in small joints.Preventative or post-procedure analgesia was rarely given, only to 5.7% and 36.3% of patients, respectively. Preventative analgesia was more frequently prescribed in patients with more severe procedural pain.",
"Pain from the sacroiliac joint (SIJ) is an under-recognized cause of low back pain. The degree to which SIJ pain decreases quality of life has not been directly compared to other more familiar conditions of the lumbar spine. Multivariate regression analysis of individual patient data from two prospective multicenter clinical trials of SIJ fusion and three prospective multicenter clinical trials of surgical treatments for degenerative lumbar spine conditions. Controlling for baseline demographic parameters as well as a validated disability score, quality of life scores (EuroQOL 5-D and SF-36) were, in most cases, lower in the SIJ cohorts compared to the three other spine surgery cohorts.",
"Synovial chondromatosis is a rare intraarticular benign condition arising from the synovial membrane of the joints, synovial sheaths or bursae around the joints. Primary synovial chondromatosis typically affects the large joints in the third to fifth decade of life, although involvement of smaller joints and presentation in younger age group is also documented. The purpose of this case report is to document this rare extra articular synovial pathology present inside the baker's cyst which required open synovectomy and debridement to eradicate it. A 43 yearold male presented with a two year history of pain, swelling and restriction of right knee joint. After the clinical and radiological assessment, open synovectomy, removal of cyst and thorough joint debridement procedure was performed. Histopathological study confirmed the findings of synovial chondromatosis.",
"The management of paraglenoid labral cysts must go beyond addressing the suprascapular nerve compression related to traumatic labral detachment, and surgeons should look automatically for associated degenerative joint damage. The diagnosis of GCs should be supplemented by humeral subluxation index measurement on computed tomography scan or MRI, and the patient should be informed that joint-related posterior shoulder pain might persist in cases of GC1 and GC2.",
"1) To examine recent change in prevalence and Medicare-associated charges for non-invasive/minimally invasive evaluation and treatment of nonspecific low back pain (LBP); and 2) to examine magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) utilization appropriateness in older adults with chronic low back pain (CLBP). Two cross-sectional surveys of 1) national (1991-2002) and Pennsylvania (2000-2002) Medicare data; and 2) patients aged>or= 65 years with CLBP. Outpatient data. Patients aged>or= 65 years with LBP. Study 1: Outpatient national and Pennsylvania Part A Medicare data were examined for number of patients and charges for all patients, and for those with nonspecific LBP. Total number of visits and charges for imaging studies, physical therapy (PT), and spinal injections was also examined for Pennsylvania. Study 2: 111 older adults with CLBP were interviewed regarding presence of red flags necessitating imaging and history of having a lumbar MRI, neurogenic claudication (NC), and back surgery. Study 1: Between 1991 and 2002, there was a 42.5% increase in total Medicare patients, 131.7% increase in LBP patients, 310% increase in total charges, and 387.2% increase in LBP charges. In Pennsylvania (2000-2002), there was a 5.5% increase in LBP patients and 33.2% increase in charges (0.2% for PT, 59.4% for injections, 41.9% for MRI/CT, and 19.3% for X rays). Study 2: None of the 111 participants had red flags and 61% had undergone MRIs (29% with NC, 24% with failed back surgery syndrome).",
"yes. Popliteal cysts and subgastrocnemius bursitis are associated with increased symptoms as well as radiographic and MRI-detected joint structural abnormalities. Longitudinal data will help resolve if they are a consequence or a cause of knee joint abnormalities.",
"Low back pain is one of the most common complaints for which patients seek medical attention. The differential for such a complaint is wide and therefore requires a thoughtful and thorough work-up. Anorectal disorders are an often-overlooked cause of low back pain. We discuss the case of a 46-year-old male with history of dull aching back pain in the midline at the lumbosacral junction. The pain extended to the left of midline, into the region of the sacroiliac joint. There was no radiation into the buttock or leg. Physical exam was unremarkable. Upon soliciting further history, the patient reported a long history of anal pruritus and occasional hematochezia. Colonoscopy subsequently revealed anal fissures in various stages of healing. He was treated with Metamucil capsules and oral nifedipine with significant improvement of his symptoms.",
"Low back pain is a disabling and common condition, whose etiology often remains unknown. A suggested, however rarely considered, cause is neuropathy of the medial branch of the superior cluneal nerves (mSCN)-either at the level of the originating roots or at the point where it crosses the iliac crest, where it is ensheathed by an osseo-ligamentous tunnel. Diagnosis and treatment have, to date, been restricted to clinical assessment and blind infiltration with local anesthetics. To determine whether visualization and assessment of the mSCN with high-resolution ultrasound (HRUS) is feasible. Interventional cadaver study and case series. Visualization of the mSCN was assessed in 7 anatomic specimens, and findings were confirmed by HRUS-guided ink marking of the nerve and consecutive dissection. Further, a patient chart and image review was performed of patients assessed at our department with the diagnosis of mSCN neuropathy. The mSCN could be visualized in 12 of 14 cases in anatomical specimens, as confirmed by dissection. Nine patients were diagnosed with mSCN syndrome of idiopathic or traumatic origin. Diagnosis was confirmed in all of them, with complete resolution of symptoms after HRUS-guided selective nerve block.",
"To study the usefulness of ultrasonography (US) in predicting the diagnostic outcome in patients with polymyalgic symptoms. Sixty-one elderly patients with polymyalgic syndrome were recruited in a secondary care setting and followed up in a prospective way. Clinical, laboratory, and US data obtained at onset were re-evaluated after 1 year when diagnostic outcome was defined. A diagnostic shift was observed in 32 polymyalgic patients (52%). Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPDD) was diagnosed in nine patients, elderly-onset rheumatoid arthritis (EORA) in 18, and elderly-onset spondyloarthritis (EOSpA) in five. In polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) patients US demonstrated synovitis in 90% of cases, in both proximal (90%) and peripheral joints (41%). The best predictive US model for the definitive diagnosis of PMR comprised: the presence of subacromial-subdeltoid bursitis [odds ratio (OR) 5.603, p = 0.003], low frequency of wrist (OR 0.074, p<0.001), metacarpophalangeal (OR 0.052, p<0.001), and metatarsophalangeal effusion/synovitis (OR 0.107, p<0.027), low frequency of knee menisci chondrocalcinosis (OR 0.091, p = 0.013), tendinous calcaneal calcifications (OR 0.078, p = 0.006), and Achilles enthesitis (OR 0.107, p = 0.027), and low power Doppler US (PDUS) scores at wrist (OR 0.052, p<0.001).",
"To determine whether the presence and extent of severe lumbar facet joint osteoarthritis (OA) are associated with back pain in older adults, accounting for disc height narrowing and other covariates. Two hundred and fifty-two older adults from the Framingham Offspring Cohort (mean age 67 years) were studied. Participants received standardized computed tomography (CT) assessments of lumbar facet joint OA and disc height narrowing at the L2-S1 interspaces using four-grade semi-quantitative scales. Severe facet joint OA was defined according to the presence and/or degree of joint space narrowing, osteophytosis, articular process hypertrophy, articular erosions, subchondral cysts, and intraarticular vacuum phenomenon. Severe disc height narrowing was defined as marked narrowing with endplates almost in contact. Back pain was defined as participant report of pain on most days or all days in the past 12 months. We used multivariable logistic regression to examine associations between severe facet joint OA and back pain, adjusting for key covariates including disc height narrowing, sociodemographics, anthropometrics, and health factors. Severe facet joint OA was more common in participants with back pain than those without (63.2% vs 46.7%; P = 0.03). In multivariable analyses, presence of any severe facet joint OA remained significantly associated with back pain (odds ratio (OR) 2.15 [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.13-4.08]). Each additional joint with severe OA conferred greater odds of back pain [OR per joint 1.20 (95% CI 1.02-1.41)].",
"To investigate which structural MR abnormalities discriminate symptomatic knee osteoarthritis (OA), taking co-occurrence of abnormalities in all compartments into account. The Netherlands Epidemiology of Obesity (NEO) study is a population-based cohort aged 45-65 years. In 1285 participants (median age 56 years, 55% women, median body mass index (BMI) 30 kg/m(2)), MRI of the right knee were obtained. Structural abnormalities (osteophytes, cartilage loss, bone marrow lesions (BMLs), subchondral cysts, meniscal abnormalities, effusion, Baker's cyst) at 9 patellofemoral and tibiofemoral locations were scored following the knee OA scoring system. Symptomatic OA in the imaged knee was defined following the American College of Rheumatology criteria. Logistic ridge regression analyses were used to investigate which structural abnormalities discriminate best between individuals with and without symptomatic OA, crude and adjusted for age, sex and BMI. Symptomatic knee OA was present in 177 individuals. Structural MR abnormalities were highly frequent both in individuals with OA and in those without. Baker's cysts showed the highest adjusted regression coefficient (0.293) for presence of symptomatic OA, followed by osteophytes and BMLs in the medial tibiofemoral compartment (0.185-0.279), osteophytes in the medial trochlear facet (0.262) and effusion (0.197).",
"yes. The adaptation of a changed body posture and gait could lead to transient overload of the SIJ and surrounding myofascial structures. The patients should be informed about this possible condition to avoid uncertainty, discontent, unnecessary diagnostics and to induce a quick, specific treatment. Non-diagnosed sacroiliac joint-related pain could be a possible, but reversible reason for the diagnosis of a \"failed-back-surgery\".",
"L5 radiculopathy has characteristic clinical and electrodiagnostic features including: radicular pain; weakness or denervation of hip abductors, ankle dorsiflexors, and inverters; and pre-ganglionic dorsal foot sensory loss. It is unknown how often patients with this distinctive clinical-electrodiagnostic presentation have isolated L5-root compression on neuroimaging or more widespread, possibly age-related, lumbar neuroforaminal or spinal stenosis. A study-blinded neuroradiologist quantitated lumbosacral neuroforaminal, lateral recess, and spinal stenosis in 26 consecutive patients with unilateral, clinically and EMG-ascertained L5 monoradiculopathy, and quantitated a global neuroforaminal and spinal stenosis score (SSS). Only 9 patients (35%) had isolated L5-root compression, 14 (54%) had multi-root compression, and 3 (12%) had normal neuroimaging. Increasing age correlated with SSS, and the 9 patients with isolated L5-root compression were significantly younger than patients with multi-root involvement.",
"The role of popliteal cysts and subgastrocnemius bursitis in knee joint homeostasis is uncertain. The aim of this study is to describe cross-sectional associations between popliteal cysts, subgastrocnemius bursitis, knee symptoms and structural abnormalities in older adults. A cross-sectional sample of 900 randomly-selected subjects (mean age 63 years, 48% female) were studied. Knee pain, stiffness and dysfunction were assessed by self-administered Western Ontario McMaster Osteoarthritis Index (WOMAC) questionnaire. Radiographic knee osteophyte and joint space narrowing (JSN) were recorded. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) was utilized to assess popliteal cysts, subgastrocnemius bursitis, cartilage defects and bone marrow lesions (BMLs). Popliteal cysts were present in 11.7% and subgastrocnemius bursitis in 12.7% of subjects. Subgastrocnemius bursitis was more common in those with popliteal cyst (36.2% versus 9.7%, P <0.01). In multivariable analyses, popliteal cysts were significantly associated with increased osteophytes in both medial and lateral tibiofemoral compartments while subgastrocnemius bursitis was associated with increased osteophytes and JSN in the medial tibiofemoral compartment. Both were significantly associated with cartilage defects in all compartments, and with BMLs in the medial tibiofemoral compartment. Furthermore, both popliteal cysts and subgastrocnemius bursitis were significantly associated with increased weight-bearing knee pain but these associations became non-significant after adjustment for cartilage defects and BMLs.",
"To present two cases, one of a patient with a radicular syndrome and another of a patient with a pseudoradicular syndrome. A 45-yr-old man visited one chiropractic clinic complaining of a \"pinched nerve\" in his neck, with pain and paresthesia in his left hand. He reported that these symptoms began after a work accident 1 month before, when he lifted a heavy object. Radiographs revealed disk space thinning at C4-5, C5-6 and C6-7. CT scans revealed foraminal narrowing with a minor disk bulging at the level of C5-6 and a large disk protrusion at C7-T1. The second patient is a 60-yr-old man with left shoulder and cervical spine pain. The patient stated that the shoulder pain felt like an ache and had begun 2 wk earlier when he had awakened with pain in the shoulder and a stiff neck. X-ray evaluation revealed a moderate level of degenerative change at the the C4-5, C5-6 and C7-T1 region.",
"Imaging features of spine degeneration are common in symptomatic and asymptomatic individuals. We compared the prevalence of MR imaging features of lumbar spine degeneration in adults 50 years of age and younger with and without self-reported low back pain. We performed a meta-analysis of studies reporting the prevalence of degenerative lumbar spine MR imaging findings in asymptomatic and symptomatic adults 50 years of age or younger. Symptomatic individuals had axial low back pain with or without radicular symptoms. Two reviewers evaluated each article for the following outcomes: disc bulge, disc degeneration, disc extrusion, disc protrusion, annular fissures, Modic 1 changes, any Modic changes, central canal stenosis, spondylolisthesis, and spondylolysis. The meta-analysis was performed by using a random-effects model. An initial search yielded 280 unique studies. Fourteen (5.0%) met the inclusion criteria (3097 individuals; 1193, 38.6%, asymptomatic; 1904, 61.4%, symptomatic). Imaging findings with a higher prevalence in symptomatic individuals 50 years of age or younger included disc bulge (OR, 7.54; 95% CI, 1.28-44.56; P = .03), spondylolysis (OR, 5.06; 95% CI, 1.65-15.53; P < .01), disc extrusion (OR, 4.38; 95% CI, 1.98-9.68; P < .01), Modic 1 changes (OR, 4.01; 95% CI, 1.10-14.55; P = .04), disc protrusion (OR, 2.65; 95% CI, 1.52-4.62; P < .01), and disc degeneration (OR, 2.24; 95% CI, 1.21-4.15, P = .01). Imaging findings not associated with low back pain included any Modic change (OR, 1.62; 95% CI, 0.48-5.41, P = .43), central canal stenosis (OR, 20.58; 95% CI, 0.05-798.77; P = .32), high-intensity zone (OR = 2.10; 95% CI, 0.73-6.02; P = .17), annular fissures (OR = 1.79; 95% CI, 0.97-3.31; P = .06), and spondylolisthesis (OR = 1.59; 95% CI, 0.78-3.24; P = .20).",
"To review the disposition and outcome of patients with back pain seen in a neurology clinic, and determine the value of the neurologist's input. Back pain is a common cause of referral to the neurology clinic, but it is not clear how much the neurologist contributes to the care of such patients.DESIGN/ We reviewed all new patients and new consultations seen for the following reasons: low back pain; 'sciatica'; 'back and leg pain', and 'spinal stenosis'. Patients were evaluated by a single attending neurologist at a general neurology clinic over a 2-year period (January 1997 through December 1998). During the 2-year period, there were 97 patients seen for the above reasons. The chief complaint was low back pain alone in 73, while it was combined with another symptom in 24 (leg pain in 18, buttock or hip pain in 6). Thirty-three patients were self-referred, 56 were referred by a healthcare professional, 3 were referred by attorneys, and the referral source was unclear in 5. Median age was (range 25-90) years. Forty-eight were males. Based on the clinical data (history and examination), clinical diagnoses were radiculopathy in 28, myelopathy in 2, uncomplicated spondylosis in 27, and other non-neurologic conditions in 45. Tests performed after the visit included X-rays in 31, CT in 1, MRI in 16, and EMG in 17. 'Final' diagnoses were radiculopathy in 29 patients, myelopathy in 2 (total neurologic n = 30), uncomplicated spondylosis in 27, and other non-neurologic diagnoses in 41 (total non-neurologic n = 67). The non-neurologic diagnoses included periarticular pain, bursitis, muscle strain, soft tissue injury, and vertebral compression fractures. Final dispositions in the non-neurologic group (n = 67) were: nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) in 34 patients; analgesics or muscle relaxants in 37; physical therapy for 19, and none (including rest and observation) for 22. Four patients were referred for epidural blocks. (Many patients had more than one final disposition.) Final dispositions in the neurologic group (n = 39) were: physical therapy (n = 9); NSAIDs (n = 12); analgesics or muscle relaxants (n = 12), and epidural blocks (n = 3). Three patients were referred for surgery, but only 1 had an operation.",
"yes. Meta-analysis demonstrates that MR imaging evidence of disc bulge, degeneration, extrusion, protrusion, Modic 1 changes, and spondylolysis are more prevalent in adults 50 years of age or younger with back pain compared with asymptomatic individuals.",
"This is the first reported case of radiculopathy considered to be a result of facet joint apoplexy in the absence of any preceding synovial cyst formation. The pathomechanism of the hemorrhage at the lumbar facet joint is unclear, but it is speculated that there could be an association with degenerative change of the facet joint. Surgical excision of this mass was considered to be the definitive treatment.",
"Lumbar facet synovial cysts are a cause of back pain and radiculopathy with facet joint degeneration, the most common cause for cyst formation. Typically, LFSCs are T2 hyperintense on MR imaging, but the signal intensity is variable. Treatment options include percutaneous rupture and surgical resection. This study evaluates the relationship between LFSC signal intensity on MR imaging and outcomes as it relates to percutaneous rupture success and need for subsequent surgery. A retrospective review of 110 patients who underwent CT fluoroscopic-guided rupture of symptomatic LFSCs was performed. The LFSCs were characterized by their T2 signal intensity on MR imaging and divided into 3 groups: high, intermediate, and low T2 signal intensity. The rates of successful cyst rupture and need for subsequent surgery were recorded. Percutaneous LFSC rupture was technically successful in 87% of all cases. Cyst rupture was successful in 89% and 90% of high and intermediate signal intensity cysts, respectively, and in 65% of low signal intensity cysts (P = .017, .030). High signal intensity cysts had lower postprocedural surgical rates (29%) when compared with intermediate and low signal cyst as a group (P = .045).",
"The authors propose that the incidence of synovial cysts may be more common than recognized in the elderly and suggest that preoperative diagnosis may help limit the extent of the surgical approach.",
"Synovial cyst is a recognized but infrequent cause of nerve root or spinal canal compression. The authors undertook a review of 839 decompressive spinal procedures performed over a 5-year period. They found seven cases in which the symptoms were caused by synovial cysts. Six of these cases were in a subgroup of 80 patients who were older than 60 years of age, which represents 7.5% of the total for this age group. More than 200 cases of this abnormality have been reported in the world literature, but the incidence, prevalence, and natural history remain unknown."
] | 835 |
Risk factors for the acquisition of genital warts: are condoms protective? | [
"To characterise risk factors for the acquisition of genital warts and specifically to determine whether condoms confer protection from infection. A retrospective case-control study comparing demographic, behavioural, and sexual factors in men and women with and without newly diagnosed genital warts, who attended Sydney Sexual Health Centre (SSHC), an inner city public sexual health centre, in 1996. Data were extracted from the SSHC database. Crude odds ratios (OR) were calculated to compare cases and controls and significant factors were then controlled for using multivariate logistic regression to obtain adjusted odds ratios (ORs). 977 patients with warts and 977 controls matched by sex and date of attendance were included. In both sexes, univariate analysis revealed that younger age, more lifetime sexual partners, failure to use condoms, greater cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption were associated with warts, and there was a negative association with previous infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, hepatitis B, and genital herpes. In males, on multivariate analysis, factors which remained significant were younger age, more lifetime sexual partners; failure to use condoms, greater cigarette smoking, and previous chlamydia. In women, factors which remained significant were younger age, more lifetime sexual partners, condom use, marital status, and previous infections with Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes.",
"Independent risk factors for genital warts include younger age, greater number of lifetime sexual partners, and smoking. Consistent condom use significantly reduces the risk of acquiring genital warts."
] | [
"no. In prospectively followed women reports of consistent condom use was substantially higher than in cross-sectional surveys, but rapidly decreased over time, irrespective of HIV status. The presence of new sexually transmitted diseases suggests that this population of urban women overreports condom use or underreports sexual activity, or both. Intensive and sustained education is needed to achieve consistent condom use. Biologic markers of sexual activity are useful in interpreting reported condom use.",
"Estimates suggest that about 48% of nearly 19 million cases of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) occurring annually in the United States are acquired by persons aged 15-24 years. The purpose of this study was to test the hypothesis that adolescents' attitudes about protecting themselves from STDs predict their laboratory-confirmed prevalence of STDs in early adulthood. Wave 3 of the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health assessed Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas vaginalis. This wave 3 data were regressed on data collected in wave 1 (when those followed were teens). A single-item measure (with a 5-point response option) assessed adolescents' attitude: \"It would be a big hassle to do the things necessary to completely protect yourself from getting an STD.\" Valid urine specimens were provided by 8297 adolescents who also completed the self-reported measures needed for this study. Overall, 6.4% of the weighted sample tested positive for at least 1 of the 3 STDs. Controlling for age, gender, minority status, and age of sexual debut (all of which are well-established predictors of STD prevalence), attitude toward STD protection achieved significance (P<.001). Each additional point on the 5-point scale increased adolescents' odds of testing positive for an STD in early adulthood by about 13%. Of interest, the attitudinal measure did not interact with any of the other variables.",
"Data on the effect of combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) on cervical human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are both limited and conflicting. We aimed to determine the effect of the initiation of cART for HPV genotype detection on cervical samples in HIV-infected South African women. Prospective cohort study. Generalized estimating equation was performed to estimate parameters of mixed-effects logistic regression models of cART on HPV cervical detection risk, adjusting for time-dependent covariates CD4 T-cell count, sexual activity and excision treatment. Ratio of odds ratios (ORs) was computed to compare the pooled cART effect on lower vs. high-risk HPV genotype groups, to the effect of cART on the risk of HPV-16 detection. Of the 300 patients, 204 (68%) were commenced on ART during follow-up, as they met the criteria for cART initiation. cART significantly reduced the risk for detection of HPV by 77% [OR 0.23, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.15-0.37]. cART significantly reduced the risk of HPV-16 detection (OR 0.50, 95% CI 0.37-0.67). Every month on cART significantly reduced the detection risk of any HPV type by 9% (OR 0.91, 95% CI 0.89-0.94). The protective effect of cART on the detection risk for the low-risk HPV genotype group was significantly less than the protective effect of cART on the detection risk of HPV-16 (ratio of ORs 1.35, 95% CI 1.22-1.50).",
"Freud opined that condom use during penile-vaginal intercourse (PVI), like sexual activities other than PVI, led to a detrimental effect on orgasm that fueled the neuroses. Although this hypothesis had not been empirically tested, Freud's hypothesis that inability to have a (PVI) vaginal orgasm is a sign of psychological immaturity has recently received empirical support. The objective is to examine the hypotheses that use of immature psychological defense mechanisms correlates directly with frequency of condom use during PVI, but inversely with frequency of PVI without condoms. An additional aim is to examine the independent contributions of frequency of PVI with and without condoms, and different triggers of orgasm, in predicting the use of immature defense mechanisms. Two hundred ten Portuguese participants (99 women) reported their frequency of PVI with and without condoms, and frequency of orgasms from different sexual activities during the preceding month, and also completed the Defense Style Questionnaire (DSQ-40). The association of DSQ-40 immature defenses (correlated with indices of psychopathology) with past month frequency of PVI with and without condoms, and orgasms from different sexual behaviors. Frequency of PVI with condoms correlated directly with use of immature defenses. Frequency of PVI without condoms correlated inversely with use of immature and neurotic defenses. Results were not confounded by relationship status, age, cohabitation, or social desirability responding. Regression analyses revealed that immature defenses were independently predicted by condom use for PVI and by masturbation orgasms (for both sexes). For women additional predictors were lack of vaginal orgasm, and orgasm from clitoral masturbation during PVI.",
"Intimate partner violence and reproductive coercion are associated with unintended pregnancies and STDs. Greater condom negotiation self-efficacy among young women may mediate these associations. A sample of 841 female adolescents (aged 16-19) and 1,387 young adult women (aged 20-24) recruited from 24 family planning clinics in western Pennsylvania in 2011-2012 reported on intimate partner violence, reproductive coercion, condom negotiation self-efficacy and sexual health outcomes at baseline and four- and 12-month follow-ups. Mixed models were used to test associations of intimate partner violence and reproductive coercion with unintended pregnancy and STD diagnosis. The Sobel test of mediation was used to measure indirect effects of condom negotiation self-efficacy. At baseline, 15% of adolescents and 11% of young adults reported recent intimate partner violence victimization; 7% and 6%, respectively, reported recent reproductive coercion. For both age-groups, intimate partner violence and reproductive coercion were associated with a reduced level of condom negotiation self-efficacy (coefficients, -0.27 to -0.13) and increased odds of STD diagnosis (odds ratios, 1.03-1.1). However, only reproductive coercion was associated with unintended pregnancy (odds ratios, 1.1 for each group). The only association that condom negotiation self-efficacy mediated was between reproductive coercion and unintended pregnancy among young adults (17% of total effect).",
"According to the findings, heterosexual anal sex is directly and indirectly associated with increased behavioural risks of acquiring HIV and other sexually transmissible infections (STI). Sex education and STI prevention programs should focus on the importance of using protection when practicing anal sex.",
"Trichomonas vaginalis (Tv) is a common sexually transmitted disease (STD) among HIV-infected populations. The relationship between Tv and immune status and HIV viral load as affected by protease inhibitor (PI) use has not been well examined. The goals were to evaluate the association between Tv and both immune status and PI use among HIV-infected women, and to characterize factors associated with Tv among HIV-infected women. We used a retrospective cohort study conducted between 1990 and 2000. Of 1578 women, the majority was under 35 years, black (AA), and infected heterosexually or with unidentified risk. Thirty percent (30.2%) had Tv at least once, and 36.9% had at least one subsequent positive test; Tv was more common than chlamydia, gonorrhea, genital warts, or syphilis. After adjusting for follow-up time, young age, AA race, substance use, and other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) were associated with initial Tv infection, but pregnancy, immune status, and PI use were not associated. After adjusting for follow-up time, having other STDs was associated with and pregnancy was protective of subsequent Tv positivity, but immune status and PI use were not associated; neither were age, race, or substance use.",
"Female genitourinary schistosomiasis (FGS) is widespread in endemic areas causing significant morbidity and mortality. Recent data suggest that FGS of the cervix not only is considered a risk factor for contracting different sexually transmitted diseases (STD), but also plays a significant role in modifying the natural history and immunological response to those infections, in particular HIV and HPV. A 32-year-old female from Zambia, who was recently diagnosed with HIV and high-grade dysplasia with koilocytosis on cervical Pap smear, underwent cervical conization which confirmed moderate cervical dysplasia and also revealed the presence of viable and nonviable schistosoma eggs in cervical stroma. Four different HPV types were isolated by PCR, including one \"low-risk\" (type 6) and three \"high-risk\" types (types 45,56, and 58).",
"To establish the importance of commercial sex in driving the HIV epidemic in the general population by determining risk factors for HIV infection among male mine and farm workers and estimating the fraction of prevalent HIV infections attributable to sexual contact with sex workers (SWs). Five commercial farms and 2 mines in Mashonaland West, Zimbabwe. A cross-sectional interviewer-administered questionnaire and urine survey of 1405 male workers. Urine samples were tested for HIV antibodies by a particle agglutination test and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae using a polymerase chain reaction assay. The overall prevalence of HIV antibodies was 27.3% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 24.8 to 29.5), that of C. trachomatis was 1.5% (95% CI: 1.0 to 2.1), and that of N. gonorrhoeae was 0.5% (95% CI: 0.1 to 0.9). A total of 48.4% (95% CI: 45.8 to 51.0) of men reported ever having had sexual contact with an SW, and 29.3% (95% CI: 26.9 to 31.7) reported contact in the past year. HIV was more common among men who reported SW contact on univariate (1.9% [95% CI: 1.5 to 2.4]) and multivariate (1.4% [95% CI: 1.0 to 1.8]) analysis after adjusting for confounding. HIV was also strongly associated with self-reported genital ulceration in the previous 6 months (adjusted odds ratio [OR]= 3.1, 95% CI: 2.2 to 4.3). Genital ulceration and SW contact were highly correlated. A total of 19.6% of HIV infections in men could be attributed to ever having had sexual contact with an SW (95% CI: 10.8 to 27.6).",
"yes. The risk of HBV intrauterine transmission increased with increased frequency of sexual intercourse. Therefore, it is concluded that maternal HBV DNA positivity and sexual intercourse in the second trimester are independent risk factors for HBV intrauterine transmission.",
"BV is associated with some factors related to the acquisition of gonorrhoea and Chlamydia trachomatis. However, infection is not only determined by those factors and therefore factors other than sexual activity may be important in the development of the condition.",
"Anogenital warts (AGWs) are common results of sexually transmitted infection (STI). Human papillomavirus (HPV) types 6 and 11, which are non-oncogenic types, account for 90% of the clinical manifestations. Although the quadrivalent HPV vaccine has been launched, AGW remains prevalent in some countries and shows association with abnormal cervical cytology. To study the prevalence of abnormal cervical cytology (low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions or worse; LSIL+) in immunocompetent Thai women newly presenting with external AGWs. Medical charts of all women attending Siriraj STI clinic during 2007-2011 were reviewed. Only women presenting with external AGWs who were not immunocompromised (pregnant, human immunodeficiency virus positive or being on immunosuppressant drugs) and had not been diagnosed with cervical cancer were included into the study. Multivariate analysis was used to determine the association between the characteristics of the patients and those of AGWs and LSIL+. A total of 191 women were eligible, with a mean age of 27.0±8.9 years; and a mean body mass index of 20.6±8.9 kg/m2. Half of them finished university. The most common type of AGWs was exophytic (80.1%). The posterior fourchette appeared to be the most common affected site of the warts (31.9%), followed by labia minora (26.6%) and mons pubis (19.9%). The median number of lesions was 3 (range 1-20). Around 40% of them had recurrent warts within 6 months after completing the treatment. The prevalence of LSIL+ at the first visit was 16.3% (LSIL 12.6%, ASC-H 1.1%, HSIL 2.6%). After adjusting for age, parity and miscarriage, number of warts ≥ 5 was the only factor associated with LSIL+ (aOR 2.65, 95%CI 1.11-6.29, p 0.027).",
"The rate of condom use at first sexual intercourse is low among the students. It indicates students are exposed to health hazards through their sexual behaviour. If low use of condom at first sex continues, vulnerable sexual networks will grow among them that allow quicker spreading of sexually transmitted diseases and HIV. Findings from this study point to areas that policy and programmes can address to provide youth with access to the kinds of information and services they need to achieve healthy sexual and reproductive lives.",
"A few recent studies have suggested that other sexually transmitted infections may increase the likelihood of a human papillomavirus (HPV) infection progressing to high-grade cervical neoplasia and cancer. The goal was to assess whether exposures to Chlamydia trachomatis, human T-cell lymphotrophic virus type 1 (HTLV-I), and/or human simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) are greater in colposcopy patients with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 or cancer (CIN3+) than in patients with low-grade cervical neoplasia (CIN1). Sequential patients (n=447) attending a colposcopy clinic in Kingston, Jamaica, a country with high cervical cancer rates and high HTLV-I prevalence, were tested for (1) HPV DNA by L1 consensus primer (MY09/11) polymerase chain reaction assays, (2) C trachomatis DNA by ligase chain reaction, (3) C trachomatis antibodies by both microimmunofluorescence and a peptide (VS4) enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), (4) HTLV-I antibodies by ELISA confirmed by western blotting, and (5) HSV-2 antibodies by a recombinant HSV-2-specific ELISA. Odds ratios and 95% confidence intervals were estimated with use of multinomial logistic regression models. HPV DNA detection was associated with grade of cervical neoplasia but other evaluated sexually transmitted infections were not.",
"This study assessed whether participant baseline characteristics modified the effects of a skill-based intervention promoting condom use.STUDY: The randomized, controlled trial enrolled 427 women from a sexually transmitted disease clinic in Birmingham, Alabama. The main outcome measures: consistent (100%) and problem-free (correct, no breakage or slippage) condom use were verified by sexual diary self-report and contraceptive product counts. The enhanced intervention group had a 60% higher consistent condom use rate compared to the basic group (risk ratio [RR], 1.6; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.4-1.8). There was no statistically significant difference between groups in relationship to problem-free, consistent use (RR, 1.0; 95% CI, 0.9-1.1). A binomial regression analysis identified the following factors as significant modifiers of intervention effectiveness on consistent condom use: intention to use condoms next time, early-age sexual debut, marital status combined with place of intercourse, and substance use before sex.",
"To establish frequency of reported condom use and validate reliability of self-reporting among urban women in Malawi. Cross-sectional survey in antenatal women in 1989 and 1993. Prospective study in cohort first surveyed in 1989. A total of 6561 women in 1989 and 2460 women in 1993 answered questions about condom use and sexual activity, had a physical examination and were screened for HIV. A subset of women from the 1989 screening were administered a questionnaire and tested for syphilis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Trichomonas vaginalis infections every 6 months. Although between the two cross-sectional studies intermittent condom use increased from 6 to 15% (P < 0.001) with no difference according to HIV infection, consistent use was reported by less than 1%. In the prospective study, women reported a higher condom use at any visit than either group assessed cross-sectionally. Consistent condom use peaked at 62% in the first 6 months, but declined to as low as 8% in the second year of follow-up. Condom use at each visit, either intermittent or consistent, was higher in HIV-seropositive than HIV-seronegative women. Overall, the incidence of gonorrhea, trichomoniasis and syphilis did not decline in women reporting consistent condom use.",
"To test the association between high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), including CIN 2 and CIN 3, and the main risk factors established in the literature, such as age, early onset of sexual activity, use of hormonal contraception, smoking, sexually transmitted diseases, immunosuppression, the number of deliveries, and abortions. A cross-sectional study using medical records of 531 women examined for a period of 2 years in a referral center in southern Brazil. Multivariate logistic regression analysis confirmed the following risk factors for high-grade CIN: smoking (odds ratio [OR] = 1.92, with 95% confidence interval [CI] = 1.13-3.27), immunosuppression (OR = 3.45, 95% CI = 1.61-7.43), abortion (OR = 2.15, 95% CI = 1.07-4.35) and 2 or more abdominal deliveries (OR = 3.46, 95% CI = 1.90-6.27).",
"Condoms offer the best protection against unintended pregnancies and sexually transmitted infections. Little research has been conducted to determine the prevalence and investigate the influencing factors of condom use at first sexual intercourse among college students. A self-administered questionnaire was completed by 1137 college students (573 male and 564 female) in the Kathmandu Valley. Analyses were confined to 428 students who reported that they have ever had sexual intercourse. The association between condom use at first sexual intercourse and the explanatory variables was assessed in bivariate analysis using Chi-square tests. The associations were further explored using multivariate logistic analysis in order to identify the significant predictors after controlling for other variables. Among the sexually active students, less than half (48%) had used condoms during first sexual intercourse. The results from the logistic regression analysis revealed that age, caste and/or ethnicity, age at first sexual intercourse, types of first sex partner, alcohol consumption and mass media exposure are significant predictors for condom use at first sexual intercourse among the college students. Students in the older age groups who had first sex were about four times (16 to 19 years old) (OR = 3.5) more likely and nine times (20 or older) (OR = 8.9) more likely than the students who had sex before 16 years of age to use condoms at first sexual intercourse.Moreover, those students who had first sex with commercial sex worker were five times (OR = 4.9) more likely than those who had first sex with their spouse to use condoms at first sex. Furthermore, students who had higher exposure to both print and electronic media were about twice (OR = 1.75) as likely as those who had lower media exposure to use condoms. On the other hand, students who frequently consumed alcohol were 54% (OR = 0.46) less likely to use condoms at first sexual intercourse than those who never or rarely consumed alcohol.",
"yes. Results suggest that the efficacy of sexual risk reduction interventions may be improved by emphasizing the increased HIV/STD risks associated with having a boyfriend with concurrent sex partners. In addition, interventions may benefit from incorporating stress management training and addressing key relationship dynamics, particularly among adolescents with a history of STDs.",
"Oral contraception (OC) has been proclaimed by the IARC as a risk factor of cervical cancer (CC), on prolonged use by high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) positive women. However, the available data are far from complete, and more evidence is necessary on the potential confounding effects of sexual behavior and HPV infection. The aim of the present was study to analyse the risk estimates for OC users in order to develop several intermediate end-point markers in cervical carcinogenesis. A cohort of 3,187 women, enrolled in a multi-center screening trial in three New Independent States (NIS) of the former Soviet Union (the NIS Cohort Study), was stratified into three groups according to their contraception modes: i) non-users of contraception, ii) non-OC users and iii) OC users. These groups were analysed forpredictors of three outcome measures: a) exposure to HR-HPV; b) progression to high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2/3 and HSIL); and c) persistence/clearance of HR-HPV and cytological abnormalities during a prospective follow-up. All three groups had an identical prevalence of HR-HPV (HCII and PCR), Pap smear abnormalities and CIN histology, but differed significantly (p=0.0001) with regard to all key variables of sexual behaviour, known as risk factors for CC. Predictors of HR-HPV, CIN2/3 and HSIL were different in the three groups, reflecting these different sexual preferences. Use of OC was not a significant predictor of CIN2/3 or HSIL in HPV-positive or HPV-negative women. Outcomes of cervical disease and HR-HPV infection were unrelated to contraception. In a multivariate regression model mode of contraception was of no predictive value for either HR-HPV or high-grade CIN.",
"Targeting condom negotiation self-efficacy alone in abusive relationships would likely not translate into improved sexual health outcomes in this population. Other strategies are needed to prevent unintended pregnancy and STDs.",
"The objective of this study is to determine the risk and cofactors for HIV acquisition during pregnancy and postpartum. A prospective cohort study : Pregnant women in western Kenya were enrolled if HIV seronegative at that visit or within 3 months. Serial HIV nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) were conducted at 1 to 3-month intervals to 9 months postpartum. Genital swabs were collected for detection of chlamydia and gonorrhoea at baseline, and for trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis and yeast at baseline and follow-up. Among 1304 pregnant women, median age was 22 years, 78% were married for a median of 4 years, 66% reported knowing partner HIV status and 8% reported using condoms. Study retention was 98%. During 1235 person-years of follow-up, HIV incidence was 2.31/100 person-years [95% confidence interval (95% CI) 0.71-4.10]. Incident HIV was associated with syphilis (hazard ratio 9.18, 95% CI 2.15-39.3), chlamydia (hazard ratio 4.49, 95% CI 1.34-15.0), bacterial vaginosis (hazard ratio 2.91, 95% CI 1.25-6.76), yeast (hazard ratio 3.46, 95% CI 1.46-8.19), sexually transmitted infection (STI) history (hazard ratio 3.48, 95% CI 1.31-9.27), lifetime number of sex partners (hazard ratio 1.19, 95% CI 1.03-1.37), partner age discordance (hazard ratio 1.07 per year, 95% CI 1.02-1.13) and shorter marriage (hazard ratio 1.19 per year, 95% CI 1.03-1.38). No women with incident HIV reported an HIV-infected partner. In multivariate analyses, chlamydia, older partners and yeast infection remained significant; however, power was limited.",
"This study was conducted to examine the hypotheses that adolescent and young adult pregnancy test takers are at increased risk for unsafe sex, oral contraception (OC) nonadherence, and higher pregnancy and sexually transmitted infection (STI) rates. We conducted secondary analyses using data collected for a study on OC adherence among 1155 women 16-24 years of age. Data collected at baseline and 3, 6, and 12 months were used for the analyses. At baseline, 33% of women reported having undergone ≥1 pregnancy test at home or a clinic during the past 3 months. Pregnancy test takers were more likely to have ≥3 sexual partners (odds ratio [OR] 2.12; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.49-3.02) in the past year, report unprotected oral (OR 1.48; 95% CI 1.28-1.72) or anal sex (OR 1.78; 95% CI 1.32-2.39), be diagnosed with an STI (OR 1.76; 95% CI 1.23-2.51), become pregnant (hazards ratio 1.52; 95% CI 1.10-2.10), or not use any birth control method (OR 2.11; 95% CI 1.66-2.60). Moreover, they were less likely to continue using OC that was prescribed at baseline (OR 0.38; 95% CI 0.31-0.47) and to report being ambivalent about pregnancy (OR 0.73; 95% CI 0.60-0.90) compared to non-test takers.",
"yes. Consistent condom use between punch biopsy and cone excision in first-time onset CIN2-3 patients significantly increases the regression rate.",
"There are conflicting opinions on whether to recommend spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 for prevention of sexually transmitted diseases, including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). To systematically review and summarize the medical literature on the effect of spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 on prevention of gonorrhea, chlamydial infection, and HIV. Meta-analysis. Potential articles were identified through computerized literature searches. Articles were included if the design was clinical trial, cohort, case-control, or cross-sectional; original outcome data were presented for gonorrhea, chlamydial infection, or HIV; and spermicides containing nonoxynol-9 were used separately from other barrier methods. Study characteristics including design, population, spermicide dose, and delivery method were abstracted. Relative risks (RR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) were determined from information published in the study or from study authors. Summary risk estimates were computed for clinical trials. Twelve eligible articles were identified, including six clinical trials and six observational studies. Eleven articles evaluated gonorrhea; each found a reduced risk of infection with spermicide use. Among six clinical trials, the summary RR was 0.62 (95% CI, 0.49-0.78). The five articles evaluating chlamydial infection also found significant reduction among spermicide users, with the four clinical trials having a summary RR of 0.75 (95% CI, 0.62-0.91). The degree of spermicidal protection against gonorrhea and chlamydial infection did not differ materially among studies with different study designs or spermicidal preparations (i.e., sponge, gel, suppository, or film). Three studies evaluated degree of protection according to consistency of use and found stronger protection with more consistent use. The two studies on spermicidal prevention of HIV had contrasting results: An observational study found a significant protective effect (RR = 0.1), whereas a clinical trial found a nonsignificantly increased risk (RR = 1.7).",
"The incidence of human papillomavirus (HPV)-related oral malignancies is increasing among HIV-infected populations, and the prevalence of oral warts has reportedly increased among HIV patients receiving antiretroviral therapy (ART). We explored whether ART initiation among treatment-naive HIV-positive adults is followed by a change in oral HPV infection or the occurrence of oral warts. Prospective, observational study. HIV-1 infected, ART-naive adults initiating ART in a clinical trial were enrolled. End points included detection of HPV DNA in throat-washes, changes in CD4 T-cell count and HIV RNA, and oral wart diagnosis. Among 388 participants, 18% had at least one HPV genotype present before initiating ART, and 24% had at least one genotype present after 12-24 weeks of ART. Among those with undetectable oral HPV DNA before ART, median change in CD4 count from study entry to 4 weeks after ART initiation was larger for those with detectable HPV DNA during follow-up than those without (P = 0.003). Both prevalence and incidence of oral warts were low (3% of participants having oral warts at study entry; 2.5% acquiring oral warts during 48 weeks of follow-up).",
"At gay sites across The Netherlands, more than half of MSM believed visitors of these sites would not use condoms during anal sex. The perception that others would not use condoms was associated with less own condom use. HIV prevention should address problematic on-site condom-use norms, as they play a role in influencing sexual behavior between men that meet at these sites.",
"To test the hypothesis that individuals attending a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic would adopt sexual protective behaviors after receiving a positive test for herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2). Recruitment (N = 360) occurred in a publicly funded STD clinic located in a metropolitan area of the southern United States. Participants were tested for HSV-2 using a rapid test manufactured by Biokit (Lexington, MA) and they completed a self-administered questionnaire before and 3 months after being tested for HSV-2. Follow-up questionnaires were completed by 256 participants (71.1%). Of those completing follow-up, 43.4% (n = 111) tested positive for HSV-2 at enrollment. Significant differences between participants testing positive and those testing negative (at baseline) for HSV-2 over the follow-up period were not observed for frequency of sex, frequency of condom use, avoiding sex, and number of sex partners. Controlling for statistically identified covariates did not alter the null findings for these between group analyses. When analyzing change (baseline to follow-up) among only those testing positive, significant differences were not found with the exception of reporting greater frequency of condom use with steady (P = 0.037) and nonsteady partners at follow-up (P = 0.017). However, repeated measures analyses yielded only 1 significant group x time interaction; this indicated a greater increase in condom use frequency with steady partners among persons testing negative compared with those testing positive.",
"yes. Results of this study suggest the importance of continued education on condom use and the possibility that multiple risk behavior interventions include sexual risk components.",
"we conclude that the association between the detection of HPV and the epidemiological risk factors, as found with the GP5/6 PCR in the past, could not be confirmed when using SPF10 PCR primers and LiPA HPV genotyping. We suggest that the number of sexual partners and smoking may be determinants of high HPV viral load rather than determinants of the presence of HPV per se.",
"To identify associations between men's self-reports of ill-fitting condoms and selected condom use problems, using an event-specific analysis. A convenience sample of men was recruited via advertisements in newspapers (two urban and one small town) and a blog on the website of a condom sales company. Men completed a questionnaire posted on the website of The Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction. Inclusion criteria were: at least 18 years old, used condoms for penile-vaginal intercourse in the past 3 months and the ability to read English. In controlled, event-specific, analyses of 436 men, those reporting ill-fitting condoms (44.7%) were significantly more likely to report breakage (adjusted odds ratio (AOR 2.6), slippage (AOR 2.7), difficulty reaching orgasm, both for their female partners (AOR 1.9) and for themselves (AOR 2.3). In addition, they were more likely to report irritation of the penis (AOR 5.0) and reduced sexual pleasure, both for their female partner (AOR 1.6) and for themselves (AOR 2.4). Furthermore, they were more likely to report that condoms interfered with erection (AOR 2.0), caused erection loss (AOR 2.3), or became dry during sex (AOR 1.9). Finally, they were more likely to report removing condoms before penile-vaginal sex ended (AOR 2.0).",
"yes. Prophylactic vaccines targeting HPV16 and 18 could potentially prevent up to 80.9% of ICC in the populations investigated. Cancers associated with HPV16, 18 and 45 were diagnosed at younger ages, supporting the hypothesis of faster progression than for tumours caused by other HPV types.",
"The provision of GP-prescribed condoms is highly cost-effective for male homosexuals. Such provision is much less cost-effective for heterosexuals, primarily due to the relatively low prevalence of HIV in the heterosexual population and the low infectivity parameter. This suggests that routine GP-provision of condoms would be inappropriate for all at-risk groups, and should target high-risk groups, specifically male homosexuals.",
"Among STD clinic attendees, suspicion of genital herpes infection may translate into partner protective behaviour, but only for a minority of people and only with respect to sex with steady partners. Clinic-based and community-based education programs may benefit public health by teaching people (especially single women) how to effectively recognise symptoms of primary genital herpes infections. Reversing the often prevailing ethic of genital herpes as a 'community secret' will clearly be a challenge to these education programs.",
"yes. African-American adolescent females who engage in penile-anal sex may experience an elevated risk of vaginally-acquired STIs. The findings suggest that, among those having penile-anal sex, several HIV/STI-associated sexual risk behaviours are significantly more prevalent. Thus, penile-anal sex may be an important proxy of overall sexual risk behaviours and can be readily assessed during paediatrician visits as part of a sexual history.",
"yes. Increased production of chemokines in the genital tract may favour the recruitment of HIV-1 target cells causing a mucosal environment that promotes viral replication and dissemination, whereas higher expression of beta-chemokines at the systemic level is associated with protection from HIV-1 infection.",
"Young people may be more likely to use condoms if they discuss sexual risks with their parents. However, no previous study has examined whether discussing sexual risks with a parent is differently associated with condom use among women using and not using other contraceptive methods. Using weighted data from the 2006-2008 National Survey of Family Growth, we examined condom use at last sex among 1206 sexually active unmarried women aged 15-24 years. Using logistic regression, we examined the association between condom use and discussing sexually transmissible infections (STIs) with parents before the age of 18 years, adjusted for women's characteristics (age, ethnicity, income and condom use at first sex). We estimated the predicted probability of condom use by whether women discussed STIs with parents, stratified by use of other contraceptive methods. Overall, 53% of women used condoms at last sex. Among 564 women using other contraceptives, 42% used condoms, versus 64% of 642 women not using other contraceptive methods (P<0.01). After adjustment for covariates, the predicted probability of condom use among women using other contraceptives was 47% among women who discussed STIs with their parents (v. 31% of those not discussing STIs; P<0.01). Among women not using other contraceptives, the predicted probability of condom use remained 64% regardless of whether they discussed STIs with their parents.",
"To examine the relationship between age and condom use among women who are typically seen in the primary care setting. Survey of a population using a self-administered questionnaire. Four community-based family practice clinics located in a low-income, racially mixed geographical area. All consenting patients (N = 995) during their visits for routine Papanicolaou tests. The mean age of patients was 35 years, with a range of 75 years (12 to 87 years). Respondents were predominantly black (63.2%), 39.2% were single, and over 65% had incomes no greater than $15,000/y. The outcome measure of condom use is reported. Data analysis of patients' sexual behavior revealed that older women might be at risk for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). The hypothesis that condom use is related to age emerged during data collection. Condom use is related to being younger (<31 years), having had an STD, having a sexual partner in whom an STD was diagnosed, having a lower income, or being single or black. In multivariate models, marital status (single), age (<31 years), and having a partner with an STD remain significant. Among unmarried women, the effects of age, race, and a partner with STD remain, and being a nonsmoker is also significant. In the multivariate analysis for unmarried women, only age (<31 years) is significantly related to condom use. An independent random sample of charts revealed that almost 45% of the patients aged 45 years or younger received condom counseling, whereas condoms were discussed with none of those older than 45 years.",
"yes. The prevalence of HSV-2 among pregnant women in Benin City is high. Public health campaigns aimed at: delaying onset of sexual activity; encouraging monogamous relationships; and emphasizing that hormonal contraceptives do not protect from STI's, are recommended.",
"Our goal in the present study was to investigate the prevalence and correlates of genital warts in a population of female sex workers in Mombasa, Kenya. Because of the high prevalence of human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1) in this population, we were particularly interested in the association between HIV-1 infection and genital warts. We conducted a cross-sectional study of the prevalence and correlates of genital warts among high-risk women in Mombasa, Kenya. Between 2001 and 2007, 1182 women were enrolled, of whom 613 (51.4%) were HIV-1 seropositive. Chi square tests and logistic regression were used to examine the associations between genital warts and potential correlates. Genital warts were identified on clinical examination in 27 (2.3%) women. Women who were HIV-1 seropositive were nearly 8 times as likely to have genital warts compared with HIV-1-seronegative women (odds ratio, 7.69; 95% confidence interval, 2.30-25.6).",
"yes. The high HSV-2 seroprevalence in this low risk population may indicate a high risk for future acquisition of HIV in this population. Cervical erosion and hypertrophy as a possible clinical marker for HSV-2 has low positive predictive value and cannot be recommended as a possible diagnostic tool to screen for HSV-2 in resource poor settings.",
": To provide protection against sexually transmitted infections and pregnancy, condoms must be used consistently and correctly. However, a significant proportion of couples in the United States fail to do so. Our objective was to determine the demographic and behavioral correlates of inconsistent and incorrect condom use among sexually active, condom-using women. : Analysis of baseline data from a prospective cohort of sexually active, condom-using women in the Contraceptive CHOICE Project (n = 2087) using self-reported demographic and behavioral characteristics. Poisson regression was used to determine the relative risk of inconsistent and incorrect condom use after adjusting for variables significant in the univariate analysis. : Inconsistent and incorrect condom use was reported by 41% (n = 847) and 36% (n = 757) of women, respectively. A greater number of unprotected acts was most strongly associated with reporting 10 or more sex acts in the past 30 days, younger age at first intercourse, less perceived partner willingness to use condoms, and lower condom use self-efficacy. Incorrect condom use was associated with reporting 10 or more sex acts in the past 30 days, greater perceived risk for future STIs, and inconsistent condom use.",
"young women have poor awareness that human papillomavirus (HPV) can cause both cervical cancer and genital warts, a sexually transmitted infection (STI). A newly developed HPV vaccine can provide protection against both cervical cancer and genital warts. This vaccine could be promoted by health authorities/professionals as preventing cervical cancer plus genital warts, or cervical cancer alone. Because stigma around STIs may reduce acceptance of the vaccine, the effect of information framing ('cervical cancer' versus 'cervical cancer plus genital warts') on intention to receive the HPV vaccine and actual uptake behavior was examined using the health belief model (HBM). we randomized 159 young women under the age of 27 to receive one of two variations of a fact-sheet describing the HPV vaccine as 1) preventing cervical cancer or 2) preventing cervical cancer and genital warts. the results revealed low HPV knowledge (22%) and high HPV vaccination intention (79%), which was not influenced by information framing. Receipt of the vaccine at the 2-month follow-up was 37%, and was also not influenced by information framing. The overall HBM predicted vaccination intention (p<.001) and behavior (p = .002). However, only barriers (p = .029) and benefits (p = .001) independently predicted HPV vaccination intention; susceptibility (p = .023) and benefits (p = .033) independently predicted HPV vaccination behavior.",
"Decision-makers may consider vaccinating girls and boys with different HPV vaccines to benefit from their respective strengths; the quadrivalent (HPV4) prevents anogenital warts (AGW) whilst the bivalent (HPV2) may confer greater cross-protection. We compared, to a girls-only vaccination program with HPV4, the impact of vaccinating: 1) both genders with HPV4, and 2) boys with HPV4 and girls with HPV2. We used an individual-based transmission-dynamic model of heterosexual HPV infection and diseases. Our base-case scenario assumed lifelong efficacy of 100% against vaccine types, and 46,29,8,18,6% and 77,43,79,8,0% efficacy against HPV-31,-33,-45,-52,-58 for HPV4 and HPV2, respectively. Assuming 70% vaccination coverage and lifelong cross-protection, vaccinating boys has little additional benefit on AGW prevention, irrespective of the vaccine used for girls. Furthermore, using HPV4 for boys and HPV2 for girls produces greater incremental reductions in SCC incidence than using HPV4 for both genders (12 vs 7 percentage points). At 50% vaccination coverage, vaccinating boys produces incremental reductions in AGW of 17 percentage points if both genders are vaccinated with HPV4, but increases female incidence by 16 percentage points if girls are switched to HPV2 (heterosexual male incidence is incrementally reduced by 24 percentage points in both scenarios). Higher incremental reductions in SCC incidence are predicted when vaccinating boys with HPV4 and girls with HPV2 versus vaccinating both genders with HPV4 (16 vs 12 percentage points). Results are sensitive to vaccination coverage and the relative duration of protection of the vaccines.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate whether HIV infection is a main risk factor for human papillomavirus (HPV)-16 and HPV-18 seropositivity in men who have sex with men (MSM), and what other risk factors are associated with HPV-16 and HPV-18 seropositivity in this population. Men who have sex with men visiting a sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic in Amsterdam in 2008 to 2009 answered questions concerning demographics and sexual behavior. Sera were tested for HPV antibodies to the major HPV capsid protein L1 by Luminex-based multiplex serology. As it is known that site of exposure is associated with seropositivity, this analysis was restricted to MSM who reported receptive anal sex during the preceding 6 months. Using multivariable logistic regression, we examined whether HIV was associated with HPV serostatus. Included in the study were 415 HIV-negative and 205 HIV-positive MSM reporting receptive anal sex. Median age of the study population was 39 years (interquartile range, 31-44). Human papillomavirus seroprevalence differed significantly between HIV-negative and HIV-positive MSM: 31% versus 65% (P < 0.001) for HPV-16 and 28% versus 51% (P < 0.001) for HPV-18. After adjusting for important risk factors HPV-16 (adjusted odds ratio, 2.80; 95% confidence interval, 1.75-4.49) and HPV-18 (adjusted odds ratio, 1.78; 95% confidence interval, 1.11-2.85), seropositivity was significantly more common in HIV-positive than in HIV-negative MSM. We could not identify other consistent risk factors for HPV-16 and HPV-18 seropositivity.",
"The objectives of this study were to determine the prevalence of risk behaviors, gonorrhea, and chlamydia in clients of female sex workers, and to compare them with men selected from the general population. We conducted a cross-sectional study of men recruited from commercial sex venues in Lima, Peru from January to February 2002. Subjects answered a survey and provided a urine sample. Men reported that in the recently concluded commercial sex encounter, 95.8% used condoms, and 85.8% always used condoms with female sex workers. Only 16% reported always using condoms with their stable partners; 50.8% always used condoms with casual, noncommercial partners; and 59.6% always used condoms for homosexual anal sex. There were 8 (2%) cases of chlamydia and no cases of gonorrhea.",
"The worldwide administration of bivalent and quadrivalent HPV vaccines has resulted in cross-protection against non-vaccine HPV types. Infection with multiple HPV types may offer similar cross-protection in the natural setting. We hypothesized that infections with two or more HPV types from the same species, and independently, infections with two or more HPV types from different species, associate with protection from high-grade lesions. We recruited a cohort of 94 HIV, HPV-positive women from Botswana, with Grade 2 or higher cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Infections with 2 or more HPV types from a single species associated with reduced lesion severity in univariate analysis (OR = 0.41, 95% CI 0.18-0.97, p = 0.042), when adjusted for the presence of HPV 16 or 18 types (OR = 0.41, 95% CI 0.17-1.00, p = 0.049), or all high-risk HPV type infections (OR = 0.38, 95% CI 0.16-0.90, p = 0.028). Infections with 2 or more HPV types from different species did not associate (OR = 0.68, 95% CI 0.25-1.81, p = 0.435).",
"While condoms are widely used during the first acts of intercourse, the rising abortion rates among young people suggests frequent contraceptive failures, which partly result from unprotected intercourse following condom discontinuation. These results question the dichotomy between HIV campaigns based on condom use and campaigns to reduce unintended pregnancies, which promote use of other forms of contraception, such as the pill. To reduce the incidence of unprotected intercourse, it would be important to promote the use of condoms at sexual debut, both as a contraceptive and preventive method against STIs, and provide counseling about all available contraceptive options, including the use of emergency contraception as a backup option in case of errors of use of the condom.",
"To determine the impact of hormonal contraceptive methods on risk of HIV acquisition among HIV-negative women cohabiting with HIV-positive male partners. From 1994-2012, HIV discordant couples recruited from a couples' voluntary HIV counseling and testing center in Lusaka, Zambia were followed longitudinally. HIV-negative partners were tested quarterly. This analysis is restricted to couples in which the man was HIV-positive and the woman was HIV-negative at enrollment and the man was not on antiretroviral treatment. Multivariate Cox models evaluated associations between time-varying contraceptive methods and HIV acquisition among women. Sensitivity analyses explored exposure misclassification and time-varying confounder mediation. Among 1393 couples, 252 incident infections occurred in women over 2842 couple-years (8.9 infections per 100 couple-years; 95% CI, 7.8-10.0). Multivariate Cox models indicated that neither injectable [adjusted hazard ratio (aHR)=1.2; 95% CI, 0.8-1.7], oral contraceptive pill (OCP, aHR=1.3; 95% CI, 0.9-1.8), or implant (aHR=1.1; 95% CI, 0.5-2.2) use was significantly associated with HIV acquisition relative to non-hormonal contraception controlling for woman's age, literacy and time-varying measures of genital ulceration/inflammation. This remained true when only looking at the subset of infections acquired from the spouse (82% of infections) and additionally controlling for baseline HIV viral load of the male partner, pregnancy status, and time-varying measures of sperm on a vaginal swab wet prep and self-reported unprotected sex. OCP and injectable users reported more unprotected sex (p<.001), and OCP users were more likely to have sperm on vaginal swab (p=.1) than nonhormonal method users.",
"Both interventions increased condom use. The HIV-intensive prevention program appeared to be more effective in promoting safer sex negotiation, and the women's health promotion program appeared more effective in promoting HIV testing. The findings suggest that both approaches may be viable ways to package HIV prevention for short-term behavior change in this population.",
"yes. The presence of anal cytological abnormalities in about one third of the recruited MSM and their strong association with HPV infection, in particular that caused by HPV 16 and/or 18, might provide a further complement to the data that now support the introduction of HPV vaccination among MSM to protect them from the development of HPV-associated diseases. Additional studies are needed to determine whether and how screening for anal cancer precursor lesions should be performed in younger MSM.",
"yes. This event-level analysis suggests that women and men who perceive that condom application was rushed are more likely to experience errors/problems during the sexual event that substantially compromise the protective value of condoms against disease and pregnancy. Educational efforts emphasising the need to allow ample time for condom application may benefit this population.",
"To evaluate the association between self-reported condom use and prevalent and incident chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis. Prospective study of 414 males attending a sexually transmitted infection (STI) clinic in Jamaica. Condom use and STI status were assessed at enrollment and at 4 follow-up visits. The analyses on condom use and prevalent STI included data from 414 men, while those on incident STI were based on 1111 intervals from 355 men. We diagnosed prevalent STI (chlamydia, gonorrhea, and/or trichomoniasis) in 54.6% (n = 226) of the participants at enrollment. About 14% (n = 51) of participants had at least 1 of the study STIs during follow-up. Follow-up visits in which participants reported consistent condom use (100% of acts) for the past 7 days had less incident STI (adjusted OR, 0.4; 95% CI, 0.2-0.9) compared with visits where no condom use was reported. Self-reported condom use was more closely correlated with incident than prevalent STI. For example, the adjusted OR for prevalent infection for participants reporting consistent versus no condom use in past 7 days was 0.7 (95% CI, 0.4-1.2). Classifications based on the number of unprotected acts yielded findings similar to those based on the proportion of acts protected.",
"Data on the acquisition of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection in men are limited, especially from developing regions including Africa. The objective of this study was to characterise and determine the risk factors of HPV acquisition among a cohort of uncircumcised men participating in a randomised controlled trial (RCT) of male circumcision in Kisumu, Kenya. Penile exfoliated cell specimens were collected at baseline, 6- and 12-month follow-up visits from the glans/coronal sulcus and shaft of men enrolled in the control arm of the RCT between 2002 and 2005. All participants were HIV seronegative, aged 17-24 years at baseline and remained uncircumcised over follow-up. Specimens were tested with GP5+/6+ PCR to detect 44 HPV types. Parametric frailty models were used to assess risk factors of HPV incidence. The median age of 966 participants was 20 years. The median follow-up time was 12.1 months. The incidence rate (IR) of any HPV infection was 49.3/1000 person-months with HPV16 having the highest IR (10.9/1000 person-months). The strongest risk factors for overall HPV incidence were bathing less frequently than daily (adjusted HR=2.6; 95% CI 1.0 to 6.5) and having ≥ 2 female sexual partners in the past year (adjusted HR=1.6; 95% CI 1.2 to 2.1).",
"yes. Understanding the prevalence and correlates of genital warts will help to determine whether coverage for the wart-inducing subtypes 6 and 11 in a human papillomavirus vaccine is an important consideration in resource-limited countries.",
"Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted agent that causes anogenital cancer and precancer lesions that have an inflammatory infiltrate, may be friable and bleed. Our aim was to determine the association between anal HPV infection and HIV acquisition. A prospective cohort study. We recruited 1409 HIV-negative men who have sex with men from a community-based setting in Boston, Denver, New York and San Francisco. We used Cox proportional hazards regression modeling and assessed the independent association of HPV infection with the rate of acquisition of HIV infection. Of 1409 participants contributing 4375 person-years of follow-up, 51 HIV-seroconverted. The median number of HPV types in HPV-infected HIV-seroconverters was 2 (interquartile range 1-3) at the time of HIV seroconversion. After adjustment for sexual activity, substance use, occurrence of other sexually transmitted infections and demographic variables, there was evidence (P = 0.002) for the effect of infection with at least two HPV types (hazard ratio 3.5, 95% confidence interval 1.2-10.6) in HIV seroconversion.",
"Mounting evidence suggests an association between human papillomavirus (HPV) and HIV acquisition. This study aimed to explore this association among South African female sex workers (FSWs). We used data from 88 HIV-negative FSWs who participated in a vaginal gel (COL-1492) trial. Cervicovaginal rinse samples, obtained before HIV-seroconversion, were genotyped into high-risk (HR-) and low-risk (LR-) HPV. HIV-adjusted hazard ratios (aHRs) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) were estimated using Cox survival analysis. HR- and LR-HPV prevalences were 70.5% (95% CI:60.5-79.2) and 60.2% (95% CI:49.9-70.0), respectively. Twenty-five women HIV seroconverted. Controlling for background characteristics and other sexually transmitted infections, HIV aHR increased by a factor of 1.7 (95% CI:1.01-2.7, P(linear trend) = 0.045) for an increase of one unit of the number of HR-HPV genotypes.",
"Findings from the study identified risk factors (ie, age, gender, and economic disadvantage) and protective factors (ie, healthy family functioning, positive youth development) that influence the levels and growth rates of adolescent sexual behavior and intention. Implications for future research and interventions are discussed.",
"yes. HIV seroconversion among FSWs is associated with genital HR-HPV infection. Further investigation is warranted, including testing the possible protective effect of available HPV vaccines on HIV acquisition.",
"In order to formulate cost-effective health interventions aimed at preventing infertility it is necessary to identify modifiable risk factors for infertility in sub-Saharan Africa. This case-control study examined potential predictors and their population attributable fraction (PAF%) for various infertility types including lifestyle factors, sexual behaviour and reproductive tract infections (RTIs). Sexually active women aged 21-45 year presenting with infertility problems at the infertility clinic of the Kigali University Teaching Hospital (n = 312), and fertile controls who recently delivered (n = 283) were surveyed together with their male partners. Participants were interviewed about socio-demographic characteristics, sexual behaviours and lifestyle factors, and were tested for HIV and RTIs. Variables significantly associated with tubal infertility were history of sexual violence [adjusted odds ratio (AOR) 2.41; 95% CI 1.36-4.25]; positive HIV (AOR 2.41; 95% CI 1.36-4.25), herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2; AOR 1.67; 95% CI 1.03-2.71) and Chlamydia trachomatis serology (AOR 1.78; 95% CI 0.99-3.21), and current bacterial vaginosis by Amsel criteria (AOR 1.97; 95% CI 1.12-3.47). Among men, male factor infertility was associated with positive HIV (AOR 2.43; 95% CI 1.31-5.23) and HSV-2 serology (AOR 1.71; 95% CI 1.02-2.87) and current urologic abnormalities (AOR 2.38; 95% CI 1.01-5.31). Positive HSV-2 serostatus carried the greatest PAF% (26%) for tubal infertility, followed by positive HIV serostatus (20%) and history of sexual violence (17%).",
"yes. The presence of high-risk HPV types and multiple types within low-grade lesions may explain the increased risk of neoplastic progression in HIV patients. Colocalization of HIV and HPV does not appear to be required for this effect. There is no evidence that HPV integration is influenced by HIV infection.",
"yes. HIV-1 infection, but not syphilis or HBV infection, was identified as a strong risk for anorectal condyloma. Anal HPV 16/18 was highly prevalent in patients with HIV-1 infection, especially in those with condyloma.",
"yes. Because sexual activity was not greater among the pregnant patients, we propose that the increased detection of \"high-risk\" human papillomavirus types among the pregnant patients represents a selective activation of these viruses by hormonal or immunologic factors associated with pregnancy.",
"Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection causes genital warts, penile cancer and cervical cancer. Africa has one of the highest rates of penile and cervical cancers, but there are little data on high-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV) prevalence in heterosexual men. Knowledge of HR-HPV prevalence, risk factors and genotype distribution among heterosexual men is important to establish risk-reduction prevention strategies. 1578 uncircumcised men aged 15-49 years who enrolled in male circumcision trials in Rakai, Uganda, were evaluated for HR-HPV from swabs of the coronal sulcus/glans using Roche HPV Linear Array. Adjusted prevalence risk ratios (adjPRRs) were estimated using modified Poisson multivariable regression. HPV prevalence (either high risk or low risk) was 90.7% (382/421) among HIV-positive men and 60.9% (596/978) among HIV-negative men (PRR 1.49, 95% CI 1.40 to 1.58). HIV-positive men had a significantly higher risk of infection with three or more HR-HPV genotypes (PRR=5.76, 95% CI 4.27 to 7.79). Among HIV-positive men, high-risk sexual behaviours were not associated with increased HR-HPV prevalence. Among HIV-negative men, HR-HPV prevalence was associated with self-reported genital warts (adjPRR 1.57, 95% CI 1.07 to 2.31). Among all men (both HIV negative and HIV positive), HR-HPV prevalence was associated with more than 10 lifetime sexual partners (adjPRR 1.30, 95% CI 1.01 to 1.66), consistent condom use (adjPRR 1.31, 95% CI 1.08 to 1.60) and HIV infection (adjPRR 1.80, 95% CI 1.60 to 2.02). HR-HPV prevalence was lower among men who reported no sexual partners during the past year (adjPRR 0.47, 95% CI 0.23 to 0.94).",
"yes. Our findings show that co-infections with genetically similar HPV types reduce the likelihood of progression to high-grade lesions in HIV positive women, an effect not observed in co-infections with taxonomically different HPV types. This observation is possibly caused by an immune cross-protection through a similar mechanism to that observed after HPV vaccination.",
"Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2 are associated with an increased risk of HIV infection. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common STI, but little is know about its role in HIV transmission. The objective of this study was to determine whether cervico-vaginal HPV infection increases the risk of HIV acquisition in women independent of other common STIs. This prospective cohort study followed 2040 HIV-negative Zimbabwean women (average age 27 years, range 18-49 years) for a median of 21 months. Participants were tested quarterly for 29 HPV types (with L1 PCR primers) and HIV (antibody testing on blood samples with DNA or RNA PCR confirmation). HIV incidence was 2.7 per 100 woman-years. Baseline HPV prevalence was 24.5%, and the most prevalent HPV types were 58 (5.0%), 16 (4.7%), 70 (2.4%), and 18 (2.3%). In separate regression models adjusting for baseline variables (including age, high risk partner, positive test for STIs, positive HSV-2 serology and condom use), HIV acquisition was associated with having baseline prevalent infection with HPV 58 (aHR 2.13; 95% CI 1.09-4.15) or HPV 70 (aHR 2.68; 95% CI 1.08-6.66). In separate regression models adjusting for both baseline variables and time-dependent variables (including HSV-2 status, incident STIs, new sexual partner and condom use), HIV acquisition was associated with concurrent infection with any non-oncogenic HPV type (aHR 1.70; 95% CI 1.02-2.85), any oncogenic HPV type (aHR 1.96; 95% CI 1.16-3.30), HPV 31 (aHR 4.25; 95% CI 1.81-9.97) or HPV 70 (aHR 3.30; 95% CI 1.50-7.20). Detection of any oncogenic HPV type within the previous 6 months was an independent predictor of HIV acquisition, regardless of whether HPV status at the HIV acquisition visit was included (aHR 1.95; 95% CI 1.19-3.21) or excluded (aHR 1.96; 95% CI 1.02-2.85) from the analysis.",
"yes. Among YMSM, reports of both IPV perpetration and victimization were associated with increased odds of recent condomless sex. These findings indicate that the need for IPV prevention and intervention programs for this new generation of YMSM is highly warranted.",
"The objective of this study was to assess whether using a condom at adolescent sexual debut is associated with an increased likelihood of subsequent condom use. A nationally representative sample was used, including 4024 sexually active adolescents (12-18 years) from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health. Logistic regression was used to model the association of condom use at sexual debut on condom use at most recent sex (mean interval, 23 months). Condom use at adolescent sexual debut was associated with a twofold increased likelihood of condom use during most recent sex (odds ratio, 2.28; 95% confidence interval, 1.91-2.73).",
"To evaluate the role of hormonal contraceptives as a risk factor of high-risk human papillomavirus (HR-HPV), cervical intraepithelial lesions (CIN) and cervical cancer in our multi-center population-based LAMS (Latin American Screening) study. A cohort study with >12,000 women from Brazil and Argentina using logistic regression to analyze the covariates of hormonal contraception (HOC - oral, injections, patches, implants, vaginal ring and progesterone intrauterine system) use followed by multivariate modeling for predictors of HR-HPV and CIN2+. HR-HPV infection was a consistent risk factor of high-grade CIN in all three groups of women. The length of HOC use was not significantly related to high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL)+ Pap (p = 0.069), LSIL+ Pap (p = 0.781) or ASCUS+ (p = 0.231). The same was true with the length of HOC use and histology CIN3+ (p = 0.115) and CIN2+ (p = 0.515). Frequently, HOC users have previously shown more HPV-related lesions, as well as lower HPV prevalence if they were current smokers. But HOC use and time of usage were not independent risk factors of either HR-HPV infection or high-grade CIN using multiple logistic regressions.",
"yes. Consistent condom use was associated with reduced risk of incident urethral STI. Research on condom effectiveness should focus on incident STI outcomes, where the temporal relationship between condom use and infection is clearer.",
"In a case-control study of hormonal contraceptives and invasive cervical cancer, an unexpected finding was a substantial decline in the prevalence of high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) infection according to the lifetime number of Pap smears received. Here we assess the risk of 3 sexually transmitted viral infections -- herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV2), HPV, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 1 and 2 -- in relation to the lifetime receipt of Pap smears. Stored sera taken from 1540 controls were tested for HSV2 and HIV; cervical scrapings were tested for HPV. Confounder-adjusted odds ratios for the lifetime receipt of Pap smears were estimated, relative to never having had a Papanicolau test. For ever-receipt of a Papanicolau test, the odds ratios for HSV2 and HPV were 0.7 (95% confidence interval = 0.5-0.9) and 0.5 (0.3-0.7), respectively, and there were dose-response trends according to the lifetime number of Pap smears received (test for trend P = 0.02 and 0.04, respectively). For HSV2 the odds ratios according to last receipt declined from 0.8 for 10 or more years previously to 0.4 for <1 year previously (trend P = 0.002). For HPV the ORs were 0.4 (0.3-0.7) for last receipt 5-9 years previously and 0.5 (0.4-0.8) for less than 5 years previously; for HIV the odds ratio for last receipt less than 5 years previously was 0.4 (0.3-0.9). For HSV2 and HIV the crude odds ratio estimates were systematically lower than the adjusted estimates, and residual confounding cannot be ruled out. In particular, the true number of sexual partners may have been under-reported, and there was no information on the sexual activity of the male partners, or on other health behaviors of the women or their partners.",
"Many factors other than contraceptive practice influence the use of condoms. Nevertheless, our results suggest that reproductive issue should be taken into account in specific subgroups of the population when developing policies to prevent sexual transmission of HIV.",
"yes. This could be associated with larger areas of cervical ectopy of younger sex workers who are subjected to repeated trauma during sexual intercourse, facilitating higher HIV transmission. Behavioral factors may increase a young sex worker's risk of acquiring HIV infection, including professional immaturity with clients, which might lead to more unprotected sex. HIV status was associated with other sexually transmitted infection in the previous year but was not associated with literacy status, daily income, duration of sex work, number of clients entertained per day, entertaining clients outside a brothel (in a hotel), and reported condom use.",
"no. Sexual behaviour is different among OC users, non-OC users and in nonusers of contraception; these risk factors predispose women to HR-HPV, high-grade CIN, and determine the outcome of their cervical disease/HR-HPV infection. The use of OC is not an independent risk factor for any of these intermediate end-point markers of cervical carcinogenesis. Failure to record these epidemiological data inevitably leads to erroneous conclusions about the role of OC as an independent risk factor of cervical cancer.",
"yes. HPV infection is common among sexually active males frequenting this STI clinic. HPV types not covered by the current quadrivalent HPV vaccine were identified. Multiple HPV types in the penis are significantly related to the lifetime number of female sexual partners. The high prevalence of HPV at this particular STI clinic evidences that males need to be targeted in primary care settings if the available vaccine is to be effectively promoted. In addition, opportunities for secondary prevention of HPV in STI settings are recommended, because of the burden of anal and penile cancer documented in the island.",
"To determine, among a sample of young black male (YBM), whether female application of male condoms for penile-vaginal intercourse would be associated with higher or lower rates of breakage or slippage. A secondary aim was to investigate if higher rates of breakage or slippage were associated with increased odds of acquiring chlamydia and/or gonorrhea. A cross-sectional study of 412 YBM, aged 15 to 23 years, was conducted in three US cities located in the Southern United States. Among YBM reporting frequent female application of condoms, 43.5% reported one or more instance of breakage or slippage, compared with those reporting less frequent female application (27.2%, P = .003). Among YBM reporting one or more event of breakage or slippage, 25.4% tested positive for chlamydia and/or gonorrhea. In contrast, among those not reporting breakage or slippage, 17.2% tested positive (P = .047).",
"The objective of this study was to assess whether providing a choice of condoms would increase condom acceptability, increase self-reported use, and decrease incident sexually transmitted infection.STUDY: We randomized 414 men presenting with urethral discharge in Jamaica to receive either the \"standard\" clinic condom or a choice of 4 different types of condoms. Men were treated presumptively at enrollment and followed up at 1, 2, 4, and 6 months. Participants in the choice group had a strong preference (P<0.01) for the most popular condom available in Jamaica. This preference did not translate into higher condom use (P = 0.16). The 6-month cumulative probability of first incidence of gonorrhea, chlamydia, or trichomoniasis was slightly higher in the choice group (21%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 15-28%) versus the control group (17%; 95% CI, 11-23%); the difference in the survival curves was not significant (P = 0.35).",
"no. Condom carrying may not be an important outcome of sexually transmitted disease/HIV prevention programs designed to reduce HIV/sexually transmitted disease risk among adolescent females.",
"We examined the effect of male circumcision on the acquisition of 3 nonulcerative sexually transmitted infections (STIs). We evaluated the incidence of STI among men aged 18-24 years enrolled in a randomized trial of circumcision to prevent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in Kisumu, Kenya. The outcome was first incident nonulcerative STI during 2 years of follow-up. STIs examined were laboratory-detected Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, and Trichomonas vaginalis infection. There were 342 incident infections among 2655 men followed up. The incidences of infection due to N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis, and T. vaginalis were 3.48, 4.55, and 1.32 cases per 100 person-years, respectively. The combined incidence of N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis infection was 7.26 cases per 100 person-years (95% confidence interval, 6.49-8.13 cases per 100 person-years). The incidences of these STIs, individually or combined, did not differ by circumcision status as a time-dependent variable or a fixed variable based on assignment. Risks for incident STIs in multivariate analysis included an STI at enrollment, multiple sex partners within <30 days, and sexual intercourse during menses in the previous 6 months; condom use was protective.",
"yes. The incidence of genital HPV infection in this population is relatively low, with relatively quick acquisition and clearance rates. Cervical HPV infection in men's female sexual partners was the main risk factor for genital HPV infection in men.",
"no. We found no association between hormonal contraception and HIV acquisition risk in women. Condom use and reinforced condom counseling should always be recommended for HIV discordant couples. HIV testing of sex partners together is critical to establish HIV risk, ascertain couple fertility intentions and counsel appropriately.",
"yes. Consistent condom use was associated with reduced BV prevalence at 6 months for women who were BV-negative at baseline, but had no effect among women who were BV-positive at baseline. Male condoms appeared to protect against BV occurrence, but not BV recurrence.",
"The aim of this manuscript is to describe the prevalence, genotypic distribution of penile HPV infection and the behavioral risk factors associated with penile HPV infection (any HPV type, high-oncogenic-risk [HR] types, low-oncogenic-risk [LR] types, and of multiple HPV types) in a group of sexually active males who went to an STI clinic in San Juan, Puerto Rico. After providing informed consent, the participants, underwent a detailed behavioral interview and a clinical examination. Frequency distributions and descriptive statistics were used to characterize the study samples. Prevalence estimates and 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated for any type of HPV, HR types, LR types, or multiple types. Logistic regression analyses was performed to determine factors associated with each of the HPV types. Two hundred and six participants were enrolled in this study. The mean age of the participants was 37.8±13.1 years. Close to 80% of the sample were infected with at least one HPV type; 73.5% were infected with one or more LR-HPV types; 32.4%, with one or more HR-HPV types; and 46.0%, with multiple HPV types. The most prevalent HR types were HPV-35, -31, and -16; the most prevalent LR types were HPV 6/11, and -84. After adjusting for age, having a high number of lifetime female sexual partners was highly associated with having multiple types of HPV infection (estimated OR=2.86; 95% CI=1.41, 5.80).",
"The study suggests that women taking the oral contraceptive may be at increased risk of presenting with genital warts. Previously published papers provide some support for this hypothesis and potential biological mechanisms are discussed.",
"yes. Cervico-vaginal HPV infection was associated with an increased risk of HIV acquisition in women, and specific HPV types were implicated in this association. The observational nature of our study precludes establishment of causation between HPV infection and HIV acquisition. However, given the high prevalence of HPV infection in women, further investigation of the role of HPV in HIV transmission is warranted.",
"To evaluate the relationship of warts in different parts of the body and the risk of asymptomatic genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection in men. We examined the relationship of self-reported genital and extra-genital warts with the subsequent acquisition of asymptomatic genital HPV infection in a cohort of 331 adult men. Participants were followed at 2-month intervals for up to 4 years. Past and current presence of warts was queried at study entry. At each visit, the external genitals were sampled for HPV DNA testing. Men who reported a history of genital warts, including current warts, were at increased risk of acquisition of asymptomatic HPV infection of the penis glans/corona, penis shaft and scrotum. The magnitude of these associations was greatest for HPV 6/11 infection. History of warts on the fingers, arms and trunk of the body was also associated with increased risk of genital HPV infection. Current presence of warts on the fingers and trunk specifically increased the risk of acquisition of HPV types not typically found on the genitals.",
"no. Delayed sexual debut was a risk factor for acquiring HSV-2, due to a subgroup with sexual debut at 18 years of age or older that had multiple sexual partners; therefore, in the university population that tends to delay sexual debut, it is necessary to implement prevention programmes to promote the decrease of other risky sexual behaviours, as well as the promotion of the consistent use of condoms.",
"yes. HIV infection is an important risk factor for HPV-16 and HPV-18 seropositivity among MSM reporting receptive anal sex in the preceding 6 months.",
"To measure the association between oral contraceptive use and the prevalence of genital warts in women. Cross sectional case control study comparing oral contraceptive use in women with and without genital warts attending a city centre genitourinary medicine clinic controlling for recent sexual activity, the presence of other sexually transmitted infections, socio-economic class and history of pregnancy using a multivariate logistic regression model. After controlling for potential confounding variables women with genital warts were significantly more likely to be current users of the oral contraceptive pill (OR 1.7, 95% CI 1.3-2.2).",
"yes. A maternal history of genital warts in pregnancy is the strongest risk factor for respiratory papillomatosis in the child. Future studies should examine the efficacy of genital wart treatment for the prevention of disease.",
"yes. Men with a history of warts on the genitals, fingers, arms and trunk may be at increased risk for acquisition of new genital HPV infections. Warts may provide an efficient reservoir for the transmission of virions to the genitals through auto-inoculation. The potential for the spread of HPV throughout the body through auto-inoculation has important implications for prevention and control of HPV infection.",
"yes. Consistent condom use increases the colonization of Lactobacillus crispatus in the vagina and may protect against both bacterial vaginosis (BV) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).",
"Reported associations between condom use and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection in men have been inconsistent. We tested 463 men, ages 18-40 years, in 2 cities in the United States for 37 HPV types in samples from 5 anogenital sites. Men answered questionnaires regarding number of partners and frequency of condom use during vaginal sex in the past 3 months (5 categories, from \"always\" to \"never\"). Among 393 men who reported > or =1 female partner in the past 3 months, the proportions of men with HPV detected overall and at each anatomic site by frequency of condom use were calculated. Logistic regression was used to examine associations between frequency of condom use and HPV detection. Effect modification by number of recent partners (1 vs >1) was evaluated. The proportion of men positive for HPV ranged from 37.9% among men who reported they \"always\" used condoms to 53.9% among those who reported they \"never\" used condoms (P for trend = .008). Always using condoms (vs using them less frequently) was associated with lower odds of HPV detection (adjusted odds ratio, 0.50 [95% confidence interval, 0.30-0.83]). This association was stronger among men with >1 partner than among men with only 1 partner (P for interaction = .05).",
"yes. Receiving cunnilingus and vaginal intercourse are important risk factors for the acquisition of HSV-1 among young women. Genital herpes prevention strategies will need to consider both the increased susceptibility for HSV-1 acquisition that young adults now have at sexual debut and the important contributions of HSV-1 to the burgeoning genital herpes epidemic.",
"Although condoms most likely prevent HIV infection, evidence of their effectiveness against other sexually transmitted diseases is mixed. The goal of the study was to determine whether condom use prevents genital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection and HPV-related conditions. We conducted a literature review and meta-analysis of the effect of condom use on the prevention of genital warts, subclinical HPV infection, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), and invasive cervical cancer (ICC). Among 27 estimates from 20 studies, there was no consistent evidence that condom use reduces the risk of becoming HPV DNA-positive. However, risk for genital warts, CIN of grade II or III (CIN II or III), and ICC was somewhat reduced.",
"Available data are too inconsistent to provide precise estimates. However, they suggest that while condoms may not prevent HPV infection, they may protect against genital warts, CIN II or III, and ICC.",
"To characterise risk factors for the acquisition of genital warts and specifically to determine whether condoms confer protection from infection. A retrospective case-control study comparing demographic, behavioural, and sexual factors in men and women with and without newly diagnosed genital warts, who attended Sydney Sexual Health Centre (SSHC), an inner city public sexual health centre, in 1996. Data were extracted from the SSHC database. Crude odds ratios (OR) were calculated to compare cases and controls and significant factors were then controlled for using multivariate logistic regression to obtain adjusted odds ratios (ORs). 977 patients with warts and 977 controls matched by sex and date of attendance were included. In both sexes, univariate analysis revealed that younger age, more lifetime sexual partners, failure to use condoms, greater cigarette smoking and alcohol consumption were associated with warts, and there was a negative association with previous infection with Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, hepatitis B, and genital herpes. In males, on multivariate analysis, factors which remained significant were younger age, more lifetime sexual partners; failure to use condoms, greater cigarette smoking, and previous chlamydia. In women, factors which remained significant were younger age, more lifetime sexual partners, condom use, marital status, and previous infections with Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes.",
"Independent risk factors for genital warts include younger age, greater number of lifetime sexual partners, and smoking. Consistent condom use significantly reduces the risk of acquiring genital warts."
] | 599 |
Cervical cytology: are national guidelines adequate for women attending genitourinary medicine clinics? | [
"To study whether all women attending a genitourinary medicine (GUM) clinic warrant a cervical smear as part of a routine screen for infection, or whether this \"at risk\" population is adequately covered by the national screening programme. A cervical smear and a screen for sexually transmitted infections (STI) were taken from 900 women attending a GUM clinic between May 1996 and April 1997. Of 812 smears available for analysis, 613 (75.5%) were normal, 176 (21.7%) were mildly abnormal, and 23 (2.8%) were moderately or severely abnormal. In the absence of an STI there was a 14% (37/273) risk of having an abnormal cervical smear. In the presence of cervicitis the risk was 26% (22/84) and with genital warts the risk was 34% (75/215).",
"The national screening programme guidelines for cervical cytology should be followed in the GUM clinic. There is no benefit in performing extra smears outside the programme nor in adopting a policy of universal screening."
] | [
"A report of inflammatory changes on the cervical Pap smear cannot be used to reliably predict the presence of a genital tract infection, especially in asymptomatic women. Nevertheless, the isolation of different pathogens in about 60% of the women with inflammation on the Pap smear cannot be overlooked and must be regarded with concern.",
": The purpose of the present study was to assess the frequency of abnormal histologic findings in polyps of asymptomatic Israeli Jewish women who are known to have a low incidence of cervical neoplasia. : The medical records of Israeli Jewish women with histologically proven cervical polyps treated during 2005 to 2009 in 2 Maccabi Health Service clinics that specialize in cervical pathology and colposcopy were retrieved from a computerized database. The records of asymptomatic women who underwent polypectomy were reviewed, and demographic information, clinical information, and the presence of abnormal colposcopic patterns, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN), and malignancy were abstracted. : The study included 228 asymptomatic women with cervical polyps who underwent colposcopy. Their median age was 49 ± 10.9 years (range = 21-82 y). The highest percentage of patients was observed in the 40- to 49-year-old age group, was Israeli-born, and was married. The percentage of patients referred because of an abnormal cytology report (29.4%) was considerably higher than the percentage reported in Israeli Jewish women. Abnormal colposcopy patterns were seen in 9 polyps, and CIN was found in 6 of them. Despite the high frequency of abnormal cytologic smears, CIN 3 was detected in only 1 polyp (0.4 %). In none of the polyps was malignancy found.",
"In this study experience did not improve colposcopic performance, but differences in colposcopic strategy between the two groups were noted. The rather low overall sensitivity and PPV of colposcopy in identifying HSIL, especially in case of a low-grade referral smear, indicate that the role of colposcopy in the detection and treatment of cervical abnormalities is to assess size, site, and extent of an abnormality, rather than to assess the severity of this abnormality. Histology must remain the gold standard for treatment.",
"A randomised controlled trial was conducted to assess and quantify the efficacy and acceptability of non-invasive testing (NIT) for sexually transmitted infections (STI) in asymptomatic patients within a genitourinary medicine clinic. Patients were randomly assigned to either standard of care (SOC-STI testing with genital examination) or NIT. The length of time patients spent in the clinic was recorded and patients were asked to complete a satisfaction survey. 391 participants were randomly assigned. The length of time male and female patients spent in the clinic was significantly shorter with NIT (men 26 min; women 23 min) compared with SOC (men 41 min; women 45 min, p<0.0001), but most of this decrease was due to reduced patient waiting time within the clinic, rather than less time spent with medical or nursing staff. Those randomly assigned to NIT were significantly more likely to state they were in clinic for less time than expected (p<0.01) and report that the tests were less uncomfortable than expected (p≤0.04). For both men and women, more patients in the SOC group declined testing for syphilis (14%) and HIV (20%) compared with NIT (7% and 13%, respectively), but this was only significantly different between treatments for female patients (p≤0.02).",
"Well-organized cervical screening has been shown to be effective in the reduction of both morbidity and mortality from cancer of the uterine cervix. In The Netherlands, the GP plays an important role in the cervical screening. The question is whether the general practices are able to organize an effective cervical cancer screening. We explored the extent to which Dutch general practices adhere to organizational guidelines for effective population-based prevention of cervical cancer and which practice characteristics are important for this adherence. A postal survey was conducted in a random sample of one-third of all 4758 Dutch general practices. Two sets of information were collected: practice characteristics and adherence to four organizational guidelines for effective cervical screening concerning inviting the women, monitoring attendance and sending reminders, organizing the taking of the smear and follow-up monitoring. A total of 1251 (79%) general practices returned a questionnaire; 90 questionnaires were excluded from analyses owing to missing data. The 1161 practices were representative of the Netherlands. A minority of the practices adhered to the four guidelines (in total, ten recommendations). The presence of the practice characteristics 'a general practice-based inviting system', 'a high delegation index' (delegating many tasks to the assistants) and a 'computerized patient information recording system' were positively associated with the adherence to most of the guidelines.",
"There is insufficient data on geriatric period cervical cytology screening in our country. The aim of this study was to compare the cervical cytological results among elderly women and women aged between 45-64 years. A comparison of cervical cytological results of 273 women aged over 65 years and 388 women aged between 45-64 years from January 2010 to June 2013 was performed for presence of cytological abnormalities. Adequacy was assessed according to the criteria of the 2001 Bethesda System. Cervical cytological abnormalities were classified as follows: atypical squamous cell of undetermined significance (ASCUS), cannot exclude a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (ASC-H), low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL), high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) and squamous cell carcinoma (SSC). Overall, the prevalence of cytological abnormality was 3% and the prevalence of ASCUS, ASCH, LSIL, and HSIL was 1.8%, 0.3%, 0.6% and 0.3%, respectively. Cytological abnormalities were detected to be higher in the geriatric group in comparison to the postmenopausal group (%5.1 vs. %1.5) (p=0.008). ASCUS was detected to be 3.7% in the geriatric group and 0.5% in the postmenopausal group (p=0.005). There was no statistically significant difference between the groups in means of other cytological anomalies. The reactive inflammatory changes were detected more in the postmenopausal group and atrophic changes in the geriatric group (p < 0.001).",
"The significance of the possible presence of infection on the Pap smear of asymptomatic women based on cytological criteria is practically unknown. A total of 1117 asymptomatic nonpregnant women had Pap smear tests and vaginal as well as cervical cultures completed (622 with and 495 without inflammation on the Pap smear). Out of the 622 women with inflammation on Pap test, 251 (40.4%) had negative cultures (normal flora present), while 371 (59.6%) women had positive cultures with different pathogens. In contrast, the group of women without inflammation on Pap test displayed significantly increased percentage of negative cultures (67.1%, P<0.001) and decreased percentage of positive cultures (32.9%, P<0.001). Bacterial vaginosis was diagnosed more frequently in both groups and significantly more in the group with inflammation on Pap smear compared to the group without inflammation (P<0.02).",
"To correlate the ranked review slides by the AutoPap Assisted Primary Screener with the final cytologic diagnosis and to assess whether the ranking of slides improves diagnostic accuracy. A total of 5,865 consecutive conventional and suitable cervical/vaginal smears, including high-risk (HR) cases, were processed by the AutoPap System. All slides designated Review were manually screened by two cytotechnologists using the Ranked Review Report. All abnormal findings and reactive/reparative changes were referred to two attending cytopathologists for a final diagnosis. After screening, the Review slides called Within Normal Limits (WNL) were selected according to rank for a further Quality Control (QC) review by the supervisor. All HR cases not selected by AutoPap for QC review were also rescreened. The final diagnoses of the possibly abnormal/reactive/reparative referred slides were recorded and distributed in five ranks according to the Ranked Review Report assignment. Of 5,865 slides, 5,120 (87%) qualified for scanning. The AutoPap System designated 3,840 (75%) slides for manual review. One thousand three hundred forty-five slides were assigned for QC review. After elimination of nonqualified slides, 763 remained. Rescreening detected 1 high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), 2 low grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL), 5 atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) and 5 Benign Reactive Changes (BRC). QC of 364 HR cases revealed 1 LSIL, 2 ASCUS and 3 BRC. Ultimately, 313 (8.1%) smears were diagnosed as ASCUS or a more severe abnormality, 262 (6.8%) as reactive/reparative changes, 3,259 (84.8%) as WNL and 6 (0.1%) as unsatisfactory. Of 313 abnormal slides, 181 were ranked by the system in the 1st rank, 61 in the 2nd, 38 in the 3rd, 19 in the 4th and 14 in the 5th. No HSIL or more severe lesions occurred in the fourth and fifth ranks.",
"To determine whether cervical glandular abnormalities can be safely followed up by community cytology. A retrospective database review was conducted identifying women with a histological report of cervical glandular abnormalities over a three-year period. Fifty women were found to have a glandular abnormality diagnosed histologically. Twenty were initially referred for colposcopy with cytological glandular abnormalities. Thirty women with cytological squamous abnormalities were later found to have cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) at histological assessment. Two women had invasive adenocarcinoma and all others with endocervical dyskaryosis or CGIN were treated using large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). At follow-up 43 women had negative cytology, one woman defaulted further appointments, one had moved out of the area, seven were successfully treated by a repeat LLETZ following incomplete excision of CGIN at the endocervix, and five had negative cytology in the community. Three women continue to have cytological/histological abnormalities with one subsequently having a hysterectomy.",
"Analysis of the trials which compare the virologic testing (HPV testing) and the cytology in the cervical screening. The MedLine database was consulted using the Keywords: \"cervical screening\", \"pap smear\", \"liquid based cytology\", \"HPV testing\", \"adults\", \"adolescents\", \"cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)\", \"uterine cervix cancer\". Articles were selected according their concern about the debate of the uterine cervix cancer screening in France. The HPV testing seems interesting allowing a decreasing delay in the diagnosis of CIN (more diagnosis of CIN2+ in the first round and less during the second one). But, when the two rounds are added, the number of CIN2+ are identical in the two arms (cytology and HPV testing) in all the trials (except the Italian NTCC trial). A negative HPV testing protects the women much longer than cytology can do: a delay of five years between two rounds seems ideal. The HPV testing alone increases the detection rate of cervical lesions, which could regress spontaneously and may induce an overtreatment, especially in the youngest population: a triage is necessary and the cytology appears to be the best way to select the candidates for colposcopy in case of positive HPV testing and cytology. The HPV infection presents some particularities in adolescent females: for this reason, the HPV testing should not be used in this special population. In vaccinated women, a consensus for the screening is necessary.",
"yes. For some women who have low-grade cytology, a normal colposcopy does not appear to provide psychological reassurance.",
"Satisfactory colposcopy is not an adequate discriminant for the use of an ectocervical excision only for patients with dysplasia. Thirteen percent of patients would theoretically have had persistent disease if an endocervical excision was not performed. Adequate endo- and ectocervical excisions are an important component of the LEEP procedure and cannot be separated.",
"Time to colposcopy (TC) after abnormal Pap smears was evaluated for influence on cytohistologic correlation (CHC). This retrospective study assessed the correlation between TC and CHC of women who had abnormal Pap smears. Colposcopic chart review included participants from 2010- 2013 who attended a colposcopic clinic, Thammasat University Hospital, Thailand. Four hundred and sixty cases who had abnormal Pap smears were recruited. Pap reports were atypical smears with low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL), high grade SIL and cancer at 339, 114 and 7 cases, respectively. One hundred and twenty four patients underwent loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP). A half of the cases were colposcopically examined within 1-2 months after abnormal Pap collection. CHC was 88 percent and not affected at all by TC. Subjects who attended cervical cancer screening from affiliated health providers had shorter TC than those screened in our tertiary hospital.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare patient characteristics and diagnoses in a comprehensive Women's Health Care Clinic between gynecologists and internal medicine physicians. This retrospective cohort study evaluated International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, codes that were recorded between January 1, 2001, and January 4, 2004, at the Women's Health Care Clinic. We compared demographics and prevalence of diagnosis codes for patients who were seen by obstetricians/gynecologists and internal medicine physicians and compared these data with national survey statistics. A sampling of charts was reviewed for coding verification. We analyzed 13,462 visits at the Women's Health Care Clinic. Patients who were seen by internists were older, had greater racial diversity, and had more gender-nonspecific medical disorders (hypertension, depression). Gynecologists saw more specific women's health problems (P<.05). The diagnoses of menstrual disorders, menopause, pelvic pain, and abnormal cytologic findings within the Women's Health Care Clinic follow closely with the national ambulatory survey data.",
"The value of urine cytology in evaluating patients with hematuria remains controversial. The American Urological Association Best Practice Policy on Asymptomatic Microscopic Hematuria recommends cytology only in patients with risk factors for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC). This study evaluated how often urine cytology yielded supportive or unique information that led to the diagnosis of transitional cell carcinoma, the cost of that information and whether it would have been obtained using the current best practice policy. Between March 1976 and June 1985, 1,000 sequential patients with 1 episode of gross hematuria or microscopic hematuria, defined as greater than 3 red blood cells per high power field on 2 of 3 properly collected urinalyses, were evaluated according to a standard protocol in a closed panel health care system in the state of Hawaii. These records were reviewed to determine if urine cytology yielded supportive or unique information that led to the diagnosis of TCC. In 4 patients positive urine cytology was the sole finding supporting a TCC diagnosis. Urine cytology had a sensitivity of 55% and a specificity of 99.3%. The cost of a cytology result that yielded unique information was 8,367 US dollars using the 2002 Medicare reimbursement schedule.",
"To compare the quality of cervical smears taken by practice assistants with the quality of smears taken by general practitioners. Retrospective. Data were collected on the 1672 smears taken as part of the population screening for cervical cancer and recorded 13 general practices in Limburg in the year 1997. The results of smears taken by practice assistants were compared with those made by general practitioners with regard to the quality indicators 'presence of endocervical cells' and 'absence of Pap-o'. In 12.3% of the 481 cervical smears taken by the 17 practice assistants endocervical cells were absent. This is statistically significantly more than to the results (7.2%) in 1191 smears taken by the 22 general practitioners (relative risk: 1.70: 95% confidence interval: 1.23-2.70). Similar differences, but not statistically significant, were found with regard to Pap-o results and pathological findings. Most of the practice assistants had 1-2 years' experience. The proportion of smears made by practice assistants in which endocervical cells were lacking was reasonable compared with the average of 10% for the Netherlands as a whole.",
"Current cervical cancer screening guidelines recommend a 1-year follow-up period for patients with a postmenopausal low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) who are test negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (HrHPV). The aim of this study was to assess whether such patients had an increased immediate risk of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. We assessed 54 HrHPV-negative women with postmenopausal LSIL in the Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology of our hospital between 2012 and 2013. All patients underwent liquid-based cytology and reflex HrHPV testing (for human papillomavirus [HPV] types 16, 18, 31, 33, 35, 39, 45, 51, 52, 56, 58, 59, 66, and 68). Colposcopic examination and guided biopsy were performed by the same gynecologist (MO). The average age of the patients was 53.1 ± 3.2 years. There were 33 patients (61%) with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) grade 1 and 21 who were non-dysplastic. None of the patients was positive for CIN 2 or any other lesions.",
"With a rapid turnaround time for the reporting of cytologic results and given a colposcopy and treatment facility available located at the screening site at the time women receive their results, the majority of women will undergo colposcopy and treatment.",
"yes. Clinicians who communicate HPV and Pap test results to adolescent girls should provide accurate information in a nonjudgmental manner, take into account adolescents' personal experiences with sexually transmitted infections and cancer, and explore personal meaning of results such as anticipated risk and stigma. In this way, clinicians may be able to minimize adverse psychosocial outcomes while promoting positive reproductive health behaviors.",
"Most women undergoing see-and-treat for HSIL cytology will have CIN3 on final histology. In this large cohort, women aged 21 to 24 did not have lower rates of CIN3 compared with women aged 25 and older, suggesting that see-and-treat is still a valid treatment option for the prevention of invasive disease in young women.",
"Despite overall decreasing mortality from cervical cancer, selected groups of Canadian women continue to have suboptimal access to diagnostic and treatment interventions for cervical cancer. In this paper, we present an evaluation of a colposcopy program developed to improve attendance for colposcopy in a lower socio-economic and immigrant population. All women attending the North Hamilton Community Health Centre (CHC) who required colposcopic assessment and were referred to a newly developed colposcopy program based at the CHC were evaluated. Attendance rates for consultation, follow up and treatment in women referred for colposcopy were compared retrospectively for the CHC-based colposcopy program and concurrently with the regional colposcopy clinic (RCC). Women referred to the CHC colposcopy program had a significant reduction in their no-show rate after the introduction of the locally based colposcopy program (17.2% vs. 1.3%, p<0.01). Comparing the same time periods, there was no significant reduction in the default rate at the RCC (2.5% vs. 3.3%, p=0.21). Despite serving a population of women who were at higher risk for non-attendance, patients at the CHC had a default rate for appointments similar to that of the RCC (1.3% vs. 3.3%, p=0.55) after the introduction of the local colposcopy program.",
"To evaluate the usefulness of repeated liquid cytology at the time of colposcopy. We screened 5,100 women with liquid-based cytology and human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing. Women with any abnormal cytology result including atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) or a positive high-risk HPV DNA test result were referred for colposcopy. One thousand three hundred thirty-three women returned for colposcopy with repeated cytology and cervical biopsy. Twenty-one women had less than high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) screening cytology and cervical biopsy results; however, their repeated cytology at the colposcopy visit revealed HSIL, and excisional treatment was recommended. Repeated cytology at colposcopy significantly changed the clinical management for 1.6% (21) of 1,333 women.",
"yes. A review of local cervical cancer cases can highlight areas of weakness in a screening programme and can identify populations who are at risk in presenting symptomatically with advanced disease.",
"Absent or ineffective contraception is common in women attending an inner city genitourinary medicine clinic. Immediate provision of contraceptive education, advice and supplies is welcomed by patients.",
"To compare the sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive values and accuracy of visual inspection with acetic acid under magnification (VIAM) and colposcopy for detecting cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) to determine if VIAM can substitute colposcopy in identifying the biopsy site in screen-positive cases. A prospective cross-sectional study was carried out on 408 symptomatic multiparous women in the reproductive age group (15-49 years) at a tertiary care teaching hospital. VIAM and colposcopy were used to screen for cervical precancerous lesions. Screen-positive women underwent guided biopsy and endocervical curettage. The site of biopsy was recorded as VIAM guided or colposcopy guided. Histopathology was taken as the gold standard. The mean age was 32.3 ± 6.8 years (range 15-49), whilst the mean parity was 2.9 ± 1.2 (range 1-9). A total of 113 women screened positive. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value and accuracy of VIAM and colposcopy were 95, 78, 19, 99 and 79%, and 86, 79, 18, 99 and 79%, respectively for high-grade lesions.",
"If the false-negative rate of endometrial biopsy techniques is taken into account, then the combination of transvaginal ultrasonography and cervical cytologic examination is an adequate form of management for women with postmenopausal bleeding or irregular bleeding during hormone replacement therapy as long as endometrial thickness is</=4 mm. A randomized prospective study is necessary to verify this finding.",
"yes. It should not be forgotten that although the cervical screening follow-up program is discontinued in elderly women, squamous intraepithelial lesions can still be encountered in this group even if the rate is low.",
"Vaginal vault cytology sampling following hysterectomy is recommended for specific indications in national guidelines. However, clinical governance issues surround compliance with guidance. Our first study objective was to quantify how many patients undergoing hysterectomy at the University Hospital of North Staffordshire (UHNS) had vault cytology advice in their histology report and, if indicated, whether it was arranged. The second was to devise a vault cytology protocol based on local experience and national guidance. The local cancer registry was searched. Clinical, clerical and histological data for all patients undergoing hysterectomy were collected. In total, 271 patients were identified from both the gynae-oncology and benign gynaecology teams. Of these, 24% (65/271) were gynae-oncology patients with a mean age of 69 years. The benign gynaecology team had 76% (206/271) of patients with a mean age of 55 years. Subsequently, 94% (256/271) had cytology follow-up advice in their histopathology report. Ultimately, from both cohorts, 39% (18/46) had follow-up cytology performed when indicated.",
"The aim of this study was to determine the effect of timing of the cervical smear test on sample adequacy. Inadequate and negative smears from pre-menopausal women, with a regular menstrual cycle and who were not undertaking any hormone therapy, were selected and re-screened. The inadequate smears were then categorized according to the reasons for the inadequate result. The time of the cycle that the smear was taken was recorded for both inadequate and negative smears. The expected frequency of smears per phase was compared with the observed frequency per phase using the chi-squared statistical test. There was no significant difference between the overall observed and expected rate of the inadequate smears of nine general practitioner (GP) practices (P = 0.886), of GP practice 4 (lowest inadequate rate) (P = 0.610), or GP practice 6 (highest inadequate rate) (P = 0.621) at any phase of the cycle.",
"In Norway, repeat cytology and HPV testing comprise delayed triage of women with minor cytological lesions. The objective of this study was to evaluate HPV DNA and HPV mRNA testing in triage of women with an ASC-US/LSIL diagnosis. We used repeat cytology, HPV DNA testing (Cobas 4800) and HPV mRNA testing (PreTect HPV-Proofer) to follow up 311 women aged 25-69 years with ASC-US/LSIL index cytology. Of 311 women scheduled for secondary screening, 30 women (9.6%) had ASC-H/HSIL cytology at triage and 281 women (90.4%) had ASC-US/LSIL or normal cytology. The HPV DNA test was positive in 92 (32.7%) of 281 instances, and 37 (13.2%) were mRNA positive. Of the 132 women with repeated ASC-US/LSIL, we received biopsies from 97.0% (65/67) of the DNA-positive and 92.9% (26/28) of the mRNA-positive cases. The positive predictive values for CIN2+ were 21.5% (14/65) for DNA positive and 34.6% (9/26) for mRNA positive (ns). The odds ratio for being referred to colposcopy in DNA-positive cases were 2.8 times (95% CI: 1.8-4.6) higher that of mRNA-positive cases. Compared to the mRNA test, the DNA test detected four more cases of CIN2 and one case of CIN3.",
"Absence of a transformation zone component in a screening ThinPrep Papanicolaou test was not associated with missed high-grade lesions. Based upon our data, we do not recommend repeat screening of reproductive-aged women with negative liquid-based tests and no cytologic evidence of a transformation zone component.",
"To improve the effectiveness of cervical cancer screening, quality assurance programs can be designed to ensure that normal Pap smear results are dealt with appropriately and that Pap smears yielding inadequate specimen material are brought to a physician's attention. The objective of this study was to use a new Pap Smear Quality Assurance (PAPQA) system to determine and monitor the performance of physicians in a family practice over a two-year period. We developed a PAPQA system designed to gather data and report on: 1) Pap smear adequacy, 2) reporting of abnormal results to physicians, and 3) follow-up of patients who had abnormal Pap smear results. We followed these parameters for two years. Over a two-year period, 2,771 cervical Pap smears were performed, of which 64% were normal. The percentage of Pap smears that yielded adequate specimen material improved from 82% to 91%, an improvement we attributed to feedback the system provided to physicians. Overall, Pap smear results and follow-up appeared in the medical record of 94% of patients who had abnormal findings. However, during the second year, the quality assurance system detected a deterioration in documentation of results and follow-up plans that coincided with moving the practice to a new facility. The operating cost for this program was approximately $950 per year.",
"Cytologic screening is commonly used in follow-up of women with uterine cancer to detect vaginal recurrence. The study objective was to assess the efficacy and costs associated with Pap tests in routine surveillance of women with uterine cancer. Medical records and pathology databases identified patients with uterine cancer at one institution from 1990 to 2002. Patients with their cytologic follow-up at our institution were selected for a subset analysis of Pap tests to estimate the number of Paps and associated charges and costs during follow-up. Seven hundred seventeen women were diagnosed with uterine cancer; the mean age was 60.9 years and the median follow-up was 46 months. A total of 36 women had a recurrence in the vagina; 31 (86%) were apparent clinically, and only 5 (14%) were asymptomatic and identified by Pap test. Women with grade 1 tumors had decreased risk of vaginal recurrence, with an odds ratio of 0.186 (95% confidence interval 0.49-0.712) on multivariate analysis (stage and histology were not significant factors for vaginal recurrence). A subset of 435 patients received cytologic follow-up at our institution, with a median 3 Pap tests/patient (mean 4.25, range 1-24). Estimates based on our data demonstrate that 430 Pap tests are required to detect one asymptomatic vaginal recurrence, and the addition of the Pap test increases the cost of surveillance by $15,142 per asymptomatic recurrence detected (but a charge to insurance of $23,487). Pap tests identified an asymptomatic vaginal recurrence in only 0.7% of this uterine cancer population.",
"A high proportion of cases complied with national guidance. However, a disappointingly high number did not have vault cytology sampling when this was indicated. This is probably a result of the complex guidance that is misunderstood in both primary and secondary care. Vault follow-up of patients after hysterectomy rests with the team performing the surgery. Vault cytology, if indicated, should be performed in secondary care and follow-up should be planned. The protocol set out in this article should be followed to avoid unnecessary clinical governance failings.",
"To compare the sensitivity, specificity and specimen adequacy of the ThinPrep Pap Test (TP) with the conventional Pap Test (CV) in a low-risk population with subsequent follow-up of HSIL cases. A prospective, randomized, controlled design was chosen to compare the TP with CV. Cytologic diagnosis and specimen adequacy were evaluated and compared with histology data in high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) cases. Fifteen gynecologists in private practice, all trained in colposcopy, participated in the trial. Cytologic diagnosis, specimen adequacy and follow-up of the cytologic HSIL cases were compared in the two groups. In total, 1,999 patients were included, 997 in the TP group and 1,002 in the CV group. Randomization assignments were designated on cytology case report forms, which were placed in sealed envelopes. Each envelope had a sequential randomization number on the outside to allow tracking and authentication of randomization assignments. Comparison of results between CVs and TPs revealed no statistically significant differences in all diagnostic categories, ranging from \"within normal limits\" to HSIL. Specimen adequacy, however, was superior with CVs (P<.001). The cytologic diagnosis of HSIL correlated with the histologic diagnosis in 91% of the TP group and 100% of the CV group.",
"to assess the value of individual histological criteria in the diagnosis of cervical HPV lesions. 138 women referred for colposcopic evaluation (due to abnormal PAP smears) were subjected to cervical punch biopsy. The biopsies were classified as no HPV lesion, CIN 1, or CIN 2-3 by two observers independently. Kappa tests were used for interobserver agreement of the diagnosis. The presence of binucleation, multinucleation, abnormal mitosis. koilocytosis, spindle koilocytosis and dyskeratosis was similarly assessed. the Kappa statistic was 0.638 (CI 95% 0.533-0.743), showing substantial inter-observer agreement. Abnormal mitosis and multi-nucleation were the two most powerful discriminators between CIN 2-3 and CIN 1. Koilocytosis proved to be the single most powerful discriminator between CIN 1 lesions and non-HPV lesions.",
"To determine if use of a detailed risk factor profile accurately predicts the presence of cytological abnormality of the cervix or improves the appropriateness of referral for colposcopic assessment when women are found to have these abnormalities. Cross-sectional survey. Family planning clinic. 1219 consecutive women, aged between 15 and 19 years, attending for contraceptive advice. Variables included age, social class, educational status, hormonal and obstetric history, smoking and alcohol habits, history of sexually transmitted diseases, the age of first intercourse, number of sexual partners, duration of each relationship, frequency of intercourse, contraception used and the age of each partner. Presence or absence of cytological abnormality and the presence or absence of histological abnormality in those with cytological abnormality referred for colposcopic assessment. Univariate analysis confirmed many of the known associations of cervical abnormality. Discriminant analysis identified five independent significant predictors of cytological abnormality and four independent predictors of dyskaryotic cytology. At best models, derived from identified variables correctly predicted 10.1% of individuals with cytological abnormality and 13.5% of those with dyskaryotic cytology. Of those referred for colposcopic assessment because of abnormal cytology, models were able to predict 23.5% of those with histological evidence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.",
"To evaluate the correlation between the experience of the cervical cytologic smear provider and the quality of the smears in terms of the percentages of satisfactory smears and contribution of the various factors affecting the smear's adequacy. A newly available quality control system was used to evaluate the adequacy of 4,000 smears. Of 4,000 smears, 660 (16.5%) were classified as \"satisfactory but limited\" or \"unsatisfactory.\" Technical factors contributed 1.0%, while 15.5% were due to sampling factors, considered human errors. Thus, human error accounted for 90% of the total number of unsatisfactory smears.",
"Balancing needs for contraception and cervical cancer screening is challenging for clinicians. We assessed US obstetrician/gynecologists' practices regarding requirement of Pap testing before prescribing oral contraceptive or emergency contraceptive pills. Questionnaires structured as clinical vignettes describing women desiring contraception with different risks of cervical dysplasia were mailed to a national sample of 355 obstetrician/gynecologists. A minority (3%) of the 185 obstetrician/gynecologists who responded would refill 12 months of oral contraceptives without requiring Pap testing. However, most would provide a limited supply of oral contraceptives until Pap testing could be performed. A substantial proportion (11-16%) would refuse to prescribe emergency contraception to women who they felt required Pap testing. Younger physicians, those practicing in academic settings and those who follow American Cancer Society guidelines were more willing to prescribe contraceptives without Pap testing.",
"yes. Although our overall intervention did not appear to enhance screening practices at the community-level, attendance at a women's health workshop appears to have increased cervical cancer screening.",
"yes. In women with the studied well-defined clinical indications for HPV testing, cobas and HC2 performed similarly in terms of the detection of HPV and ≥CIN2.",
"The diagnosis of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) during cervical screening indicates cellular abnormality but is not sufficient for a definitive diagnosis of a squamous intraepithelial lesion (SIL). Before the 2001 consensus guidelines for the management of women with cervical cytological abnormalities are introduced, follow-up management of ASCUS women by colposcopic biopsy is done at patient and physician discretion. In this study, we examined variables associated with the method of follow-up (colposcopic biopsy, repeat Pap smear) in a sample of 651 women(ages 18-82 years) who were diagnosed with ASCUS and were then referred for either a colposcopic biopsy or a repeat Pap smear at their next follow-up appointment. In a multivariate logistic regression analysis (outcome variable = follow-up by colposcopic biopsy or by repeat Pap smear), we found that the odds of follow-up by colposcopic biopsy were 8-fold (OR 8.5, 95% CI 4.4-16.3) higher for high-income (>47,117 US dollars vs.<24,767 US dollars) women, 2-fold higher (OR 2.8, 95% CI 1.5-5.1 ) for women with private insurance (relative to Medicaid), and 3-fold higher (OR 3.1, 95% CI 1.3-7.4) for middle-aged women (ages 36-45 vs.>55 y).",
"yes. Routine urine cytology is costly and of limited clinical value as a first line investigation for all patients with hematuria, and should be omitted from guidelines.",
"yes. Women found to have mild or moderate dyskaryosis in cervical smears should be kept under regular surveillance. The optimum management of these patients--by cytology or colposcopy--needs to be determined by randomised controlled trials.",
"To investigate whether the introduction of liquid-based cytology (LBC) in an urban setting decreases the diagnosis of glandular neoplasia (grade 6) and improves the positive predictive value (PPV) of cervical cytological screening. A retrospective database review was conducted identifying women with cervical cytological abnormalities including glandular neoplasia (grade 6) before and after the introduction of LBC. Following the introduction of LBC the rate of glandular neoplasia (grade 6) referrals fell from 1.08% to 0.69% of all cervical cytological abnormalities. There was a significant reduction in 'abnormal' cytological samples subsequently found to be associated with no invasive or preinvasive disease but no decrease in the number showing preinvasive or invasive disease. A significant decrease in number of patients having a final diagnosis of normal/inflammatory or wart changes was seen in those patients referred during the LBC period (p < 0.01).",
"Cytology screening for prevention of cervical cancer can reduce incidence and mortality by more than 80% in settings with good organization and rigorous quality control. Audit studies are essential for reaching and maintaining a high quality of screening. The aim of this study was to evaluate variation in performance indicators by screening laboratory and assess the impact on the effectiveness of screening as indicated by cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 and above (CIN3+) rates after a negative screen. Seven cytology screening laboratories operating during 1990-1999 with a total of 953 610 screening tests performed were included in the study. By linking screening and cancer register files, all cases of CIN3+ diagnosed in the screened population were identified. For 395 CIN3+ cases with a preceding negative screen and 787 controls, a re-evaluation of smears was undertaken to uncover false negative screening tests. Performance parameters and rates of CIN3+ after a negative screen were analysed for interlaboratory heterogeneity. The rates of follow-up recommendations and referrals varied by up to 3.6- (2.8-10.2%) and 4.0-fold (0.03-0.12%), respectively. CIN1, CIN2 and CIN3+ screen detection rates differed by up to 8.5- (0.02-0.17%), 5.4- (0.05-0.25%) and 3.3-fold (0.05-0.18%). False negative rates determined by re-evaluation showed up to 2.1-fold differences (29-62%). Rates of CIN3+ after a negative screen (0.023-0.048%) and as a proportion of total CIN3+ (15-31%) in the screened population were low and did not vary significantly.",
"To determine human papillomavirus (HPV) types by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-reverse line blot assay and examine the concordance between HPV by Hybrid Capture 2 (HC2) and PCR on self-collected vaginal and physician-collected cervical samples and cytology. This was a cross-sectional study of 546 sexually active women aged>or =30 years with persistent vaginal discharge, intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding or an unhealthy cervix. Participants self-collected vaginal samples (HPV-S) and physicians collected cervical samples for conventional Pap smear and HPV DNA (HPV-P) testing and performed colposcopy, with directed biopsy, if indicated. HPV testing and genotyping was done by HC2 and PCR reverse line blot assay. Concordance between HC2 and PCR results of self- and physician-collected samples was determined using a Kappa statistic (kappa) and Chi-square test. Complete data were available for 512 sets with 98% of women providing a satisfactory self-sample. PCR detected oncogenic HPV in 12.3% of self- and 13.0% of physician-collected samples. Overall, there was 93.8% agreement between physician-collected and self-samples (kappa=76.31%, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 64.97-82.29%, p=0.04)-complete concordance in 473 cases (57 positive, 416 negative), partial concordance in seven pairs and discordance in 32 pairs. The sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of self-sampling for detection of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)2+ disease were 82.5%, 93.6%, 52.4% and 98.4%, respectively; for physician-sampling they were 87.5%, 93.2%, 52.2% and 98.9%, respectively; and for cytology they were 77.5%, 87.3%, 34.1% and 97.9%, respectively. Concordance between HC2 and PCR was 90.9% for self-samples (kappa=63.7%, 95% CI: 55.2-72.2%) and 95.3% for physician-collected samples (kappa=80.4%, 95% CI: 71.8-89.0%).",
"Several strategies have been used to reach non-attending women in organized cervical-cancer-screening programs, with varying success. Self-sampling (SS) for HPV is effective for increasing coverage in screening programs, but requires expensive commercial sampling kits. We aimed to evaluate if vaginal SS, without commercial preservatives was adequate for HPV testing. Women with abnormal cervical smears as determined from the organized screening program were invited to a colposcopy clinic. The 121 women were asked to insert a cotton swab into the vagina and rotate it, put the cotton swab into a sterile cryotube, break the upper part of the stick and put the cap on. Thereafter, the gynaecologist collected a liquid based cytology (LBC) sample. The presence of HPV-types in SS and LBC samples was analysed with PCR and luminex-based typing. High-risk-HPV (hr-HPV) DNA was found in 65 of the tested 108 SS (60%; 95% CI 0.50-0.69), whereas LBC found hr-HPV in 64/108 samples (59%; 95% CI 0.49-0.69). The agreement between sampling with SS and LBC was good, kappa value 0.67 (95% CI; 0.53-0.81). The sensitivity for SS with hr-HPV to find HSIL was 77% (95% CI; 62-91%), specificity 47% (95% CI; 35-59%) [corrected] and the sensitivity for LBC with hr-HPV to find HSIL was 79% (95% CI 66-93%), specificity 50% (95% CI; 38-62%). [corrected]",
"no. Visible minority women in Canada may not be participating in regular Pap testing because of cultural beliefs and a lack of an understanding of the importance of Pap testing. A culturally appropriate cervical cancer screening intervention program that involves members of visible minority communities may increase participation of this subgroup of Canadian women. This study provides preliminary information on why visible minority women in Canada do not participate in cervical cancer screening. However, the lumping together of all visible minority may obscure differences between different ethnic groups. Therefore, further research on each ethnic group is required to develop tailored culturally appropriate intervention.",
"The evaluation of abnormal cervical cytologic results is time consuming and costly. Most patients with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)-cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 3 (CIN 3) Pap smear results require an excisional procedure for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons. \"See and treat\" is a surgical procedure that involves a loop electrosurgical excisional procedure (LEEP) simultaneously to diagnose and to treat premalignant cervical disease in one visit. This procedure eliminates a second visit that typically is required for treatment. Data is lacking on the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 in patients with an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear result. The objective of this study was to determine the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 in patients with an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear using a see-and-treat protocol. Women referred from local health departments to our university-based colposcopy clinic for evaluation of an HSIL (CIN 2) Pap smear result were evaluated for inclusion in a see and treat protocol. All eligible patients underwent colposcopy to rule out an obvious cervical carcinoma followed by an immediate LEEP to remove the transformation zone. A colposcopic impression was made using the Reid colposcopic index. Pathologic specimens were analyzed for the presence of CIN and the incidence of CIN 2 and CIN 3 was determined. To date, 51 patients have been enrolled in the study. Exclusion criteria included age less than 19 years, pregnancy, or medical contraindications. The mean age of the patients was 26 years (range, 19-45 years). Forty-seven percent were white, 47% were black, and 6% were Hispanic. Of the 51 patients who underwent LEEP, 43 of 51 (85%) had satisfactory colposcopy and no patient had a lesion suspicious for cervical carcinoma. The average Reid colposcopic index was 3.5. Of the 51 LEEP specimens, 4 of 51 had no evidence of CIN (8%), 4 of 51 (8%) had CIN 1, 18 of 51 (35%) had CIN 2, and 25 of 51 (49%) had CIN 3. Eighty-four percent of patients had either CIN 2 or CIN 3, resulting in an overtreatment rate (CIN 1 or less) of 16%.",
"Although pathological discrepancy between Pap smear and biopsy is an accepted indication to perform a diagnostic loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP), this procedure is not without complications. Our objective was to determine the incidence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2,3 and patient factors that increase the likelihood of detecting CIN 2,3. We performed a retrospective chart review of patients who underwent a diagnostic LEEP for pathological discrepancy at a university-based colposcopy clinic. Pathological discrepancy is defined as a high-grade Pap smear with a colposcopically directed biopsy of CIN 1 or less. Demographic, cytological, and histological information were collected using a computerized database. The patients were divided into 2 groups (CIN 2,3 and CIN 1 or less) based on the pathology from the LEEP specimen. Patient factors were compared with final pathological results using chi(2) test, Student t test, Wilcoxon rank sum test, and multivariate analysis as indicated. A total of 102 patients were identified. Seven patients had normal specimens, 3 had HPV changes, 25 had CIN 1, 29 had CIN 2, and 38 had CIN 3. Thirty-five patients (34%) had CIN 1 or less, whereas 67 patients (66%) had CIN 2,3. The 2 groups were comparable in terms of age (30.4 vs 28.1 years), parity (2.2 vs 1.9), and age of coitarche (16.3 vs 16.4 years). No statistical difference existed between the groups regarding race, smoking status, Pap smear, history of previous cytological abnormality, contraception method, number of previous sexual partners, and HIV status. The majority of patients (75%) had not undergone previous treatment of CIN. The CIN 2,3 group were more likely than the CIN 1 or less group to have had previous treatment or biopsy for CIN (66% vs 34%; p = .004). Univariate (p = .004) and multivariate (p<.001) analysis demonstrated previous treatment of CIN as the only significant factor predicting CIN 2,3.",
"To compare rates of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 or greater (CIN3+) between women aged 21 to 24 and women aged 25 or older undergoing a see-and-treat strategy for high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) cytology. In this retrospective cohort study, women treated with a see-and-treat loop electrosurgical excisional procedure (LEEP) for HSIL cytology at our university-based colposcopy clinic between 2008 and 2013 were identified. Data collected included age, race, parity, smoking status, method of contraception, history of abnormal cytology, HIV status, and LEEP histology. Cohorts were compared using Pearson chi-squared test of association and Fisher exact test. Three hundred sixty-nine women were included in this analysis. The mean age was 30 (SD, 7.2; range, 21-56). Ninety-seven women (26.3%) were 21 to 24 years old. The rate of CIN3 in all women undergoing a see-and-treat LEEP for HSIL cytology was 65.9% (95% CI, 60.8-70.5). The rate of CIN 2 was 15.2% (95% CI, 11.9-19.2). Three women (1.1%) had invasive carcinoma. There was no difference in risk of CIN3+ in the young women compared with women aged 25 years or older (RR, 1.37; 95% CI, 0.92-2.02). Within this see-and-treat population, there was no correlation between presence of CIN3+ and race, smoking, contraception, or HIV status.",
"Human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing can be crucial for women who have limited access to traditional screening. The current study compared the results obtained through HPV DNA testing with those obtained through cytology-based screening. A total of 3068 women aged 18 to 85 years were enrolled in an opportunistic cervical cancer screening program developed by the Barretos Cancer Hospital and performed by a team of health professionals working within a mobile unit from March to December 2012, followed by statistical analyses. For each patient, 2 different cervical samples were collected and preserved in a careHPV assay and SurePath medium, respectively. High-risk HPV (hr-HPV) DNA was detected in 10.0% of women, with the majority (86.7%) demonstrating no abnormal Papanicolaou test results. The following cytological samples were found to be hr-HPV positive: 8.2% of the normal samples; 39.4% of the samples with atypical squamous/glandular cells of undetermined significance; 38.5% of the samples with atypical squamous/glandular cells of undetermined significance, cannot exclude high-grade lesion; 55.3% of the samples with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions; and 100% of the samples with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions. Colposcopy examinations were performed among 33.4% of the women with positive results on at least 1 of the tests (HPV DNA positive and/or cytology with atypical squamous/glandular cells of undetermined significance, cannot exclude high-grade lesion or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions), and 59.5% of these women underwent biopsies. Among these samples, 18.2% were confirmed as cervical intraepithelial neoplasia.",
"yes. A cervical carcinoma screening technique which uses a single sample for cytopathology and HPV testing to triage equivocal diagnoses may be promising if it proves to be cost-effective.",
"To investigate whether invitations for publicly funded cervical screening provide sufficient information to enable an informed choice about participation. Cross-sectional study using a checklist of 23 information items on benefits and harms from cervical screening and the risks related to cervical cancer. Invitations to publicly funded cervical screening in 10 Scandinavian and English-speaking countries. Ten Scandinavian and English speaking countries. Sixteen screening units representing 10 Scandinavian and English speaking countries. Number of information items presented in invitations for cervical screening. We contacted 21 coordinating units from 11 countries and 20 (95%) responded. Of these, four units did not issue invitations, but the remaining 16 coordinating units in 10 different countries supplied a sample. The invitations for cervical screening were generally information poor and contained a median of only four out of 23 information items possible (17%), ranging from 0 to 12 (0-52%). The most important harms of cancer screening, overdiagnosis and overtreatment, were typically downplayed or unmentioned. The same applied to other important harms, such as false-positive results and the psychological consequences from an abnormal test result. The majority of invitations took a paternalistic approach. While only two invitations (17%) included a pre-assigned appointment date, eight (70%) of the invitations contained strong appeals for participation.",
"The comparative sensitivity of liquid-based cytology (LBC) test and conventional Papanicolaou (Pap) smears is controversial. This study analyses the distribution of cytology, histology, colposcopy and large loop excision of the transformation zone among women screened in Iceland with LBC at the Cancer Detection Clinic in Reykjavik and with a conventional Pap smear outside the Detection Clinic in 2007-2011. The study material included 42 654 LBC tests from 20 439 women and 103 909 Pap smears from 61 574 women. The period 2000-2004 is used to correct for potential bias as a result of unequal distribution of the studied parameters between the study sites before the introduction of LBC. The observed results indicated that women screened with an LBC sample had significantly decreased detection rates of inadequate smears, increased detection of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)/atypical cytology and referrals to colposcopy, and an increased detection rate of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2 or worse (CIN2+) irrespective of age. LBC increased significantly the detection rates of high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion or worse (HSIL+) cytology and CIN3+ histology only in women under 40 years of age. Taking into consideration the unequal prevalence of the studied parameters between the study sites in 2000-2004 indicated, however, that LBC only affected the rate of inadequate and low-grade cytology tests under the age of 40 years. Positive predictive values for CIN2+ were not significantly different between the tests.",
"The study took place at the Genito-Urinary Medicine Department at the University Hospital of South Manchester and the Cytology Department at Christie NHS Trust Hospital. There were two main objectives, as follows: (1) to determine if patients attending a Genito-Urinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic are less likely to have had a cervical smear in the preceding five years than a control group drawn from the general population; (2) to compare the prevalence of cytological abnormalitity in cases and controls. Cases comprised all women attending the Withington GUM Clinic, between 1991 and 1993, who had had a cervical smear taken at this clinic. Controls were selected from residents of the North West Regional Health Authority who had a cervical smear taken either by a general practitioner (GP) or in an NHS Community Clinic during the same period. The design was a matched case-control study. The main outcome measures considered the proportion of women who had had a cervical smear taken by a GP or in an NHS Community Clinic during the five years preceding the index smear, and the prevalence of abnormal smears in cases and controls. There was no significant difference in the screening history of cases and controls; 363 (50.2 per cent) cases had had a cervical smear taken in the preceding five years as compared with 380 (52.6 per cent) controls [chi 2 (1df) = 0.95; p>0.05; 95 per cent confidence interval (CI) on difference in proportions, -7.1 per cent to 2.4 per cent]. There was a small case-control difference of borderline significance in the prevalence of all grades of cytological abnormality: 22.7 per cent of cases had abnormal cytology as compared with 18.5 per cent of controls [chi 2 (1df) = 3.98; 0.01<p<0.05; 95 per cent CI on difference in proportions, 1 per cent to 8.2 per cent). This excess was largely attributable to differences in the prevalence of minor cytological abnormality. There was no significant difference in the prevalence of cytological abnormality in those case-control pairs who had had a smear in the preceding five years.",
"Our results indicate that non-classic cytomorphological signs can improve the sensitivity of cytology for detecting HPV. Minimally abnormal Pap smears lacking mild nuclear changes (16%) in the present study--do not require further molecular HPV testing.",
"yes. Compared with HPV-only testing, cotesting was more sensitive for the detection of ≥ CIN3 in women ages 30 to 65 years. The current data suggest that approximately 19% of women with cervical cancer may be misdiagnosed by an HPV-only cervical screen. It is important to consider these data as the guidelines for cervical cancer screening undergo revision. This is an open access article under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-NoDerivs License, which permits use and distribution in any medium, provided the original work is properly cited, the use is non-commercial and no modifications or adaptations are made.",
"The goal of this study was to determine the colposcopic findings underlying cytologic abnormalities classified according to the Bethesda system. Women undergoing colposcopy for abnormal cytology at an urban teaching hospital between July 1, 1996 and December 31, 1999 had Papanicolaou smears repeated. Results were compared both with biopsy histology and with the worst histology reported after 8-26 months of follow-up. kappa statistics and Spearman's rho were calculated to determine the degree of agreement. Colposcopy was performed for 2263 (94%) women. Referral and repeat Pap smears were reported identically in 493 (25%) of the 1962 women with results for both. No AGUS (atypical glandular cells of uncertain significance) smears were confirmed on repeat smear, and after excluding AGUS, agreement within one grade was found in 1305 of 1854 (70%). Among the 1842 women with squamous cytologic abnormalities, biopsy revealed a lesion more severe than that suggested by referral cytology in 577 (31%) and a less severe lesion in 648 (35%); exact correspondence was found in only 646 (35%). Of 317 women with ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of uncertain significance) on referral Pap smear, a negative repeat smear, and a specific biopsy result, 95 (30%) had true negative histology, while 148 (47%) had condyloma, 56 (18%) had cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1, 8 (3%) had CIN 2, 10 (3%) had CIN 3, and none had cancer. Comparison of repeat smear and colposcopic biopsy yielded a kappa statistic of 0.16.",
"To assess whether consensus based national standards for colposcopy and treatment of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia are achievable in practice. Identification of 100 consecutive cases of first assessment colposcopy from each gynaecological unit in the former North West region from 1 January 1994 and follow up of their outcome after one year. All 19 gynaecological colposcopy clinics in the former North West region. In one hospital data were available on only 39 women and therefore information was analysed on 1839 women. Waiting times for colposcopy, different modalities of treatment used for premalignant conditions of the cervix and type of anaesthesia used for treatments. With regard to follow up, time of occurrence, whether or not colposcopy was performed and efficacy of treatment as judged by cervical cytology. Waiting times for colposcopy varied in the individual hospitals studied, but overall 56% of patients were seen within eight weeks. Diathermy loop excision was the most popular treatment modality accounting for 44% of cases. At six months after treatment, 9.98% of patients had a smear of mild dyskaryosis or worse. Colposcopy, as well as cytology, was used at the first follow up visit in 43% of cases.",
"The cervical algorithm of TIS performed best on anal samples when HSIL was present both cytologically and histologically. The 27.7% unsatisfactory slides classified as No further review may indicate need for use of different criteria from cervical cytology. Because of the high prevalence of abnormalities, and hence the large proportion of slides needing manual review, the cytologist time-saving would compare unfavorably with use of TIS in cervical screening.",
"Specificity tended to be higher than sensitivity, in other words cytology tended to be more efficient in identifying women without sexually transmitted infection than in identifying those with infection. In summary, the Pap smear should not be used in lieu of more effective diagnostic test for sexually transmitted disease, and treatment should not be based on cytologic findings alone.",
"To determine whether a new system of Papanicolaou test nomenclature (the Bethesda system) or other physician variables influence recommendations for colposcopy and biopsy for women with borderline to moderately abnormal Papanicolaou test results. We hypothesized that physician demographic and practice variables, in addition to Papanicolaou test nomenclature, would influence recommendations for colposcopy. A survey was mailed to a random sample of 510 active members of the American Academy of Family Physicians. Three hundred thirty-five (66%) of the eligible physicians responded, representing all 50 states. Of those in active practice, 78% were in private practice, with a mean age of 44 years and a mean time in practice of 10 years. Ninety-three percent of respondents in active practice performed Papanicolaou tests. Rates of recommendation for colposcopy and biopsy in response to abnormal Papanicolaou test reports framed by a single clinical scenario. Physicians recommended colposcopy more often when the Bethesda nomenclature system was used to describe the results of the Papanicolaou test. These differences were significant for four specific Papanicolaou smear pairs. Inclusion of recommendations for further evaluation strongly influenced physicians to recommend colposcopy. In multivariable analyses, demographic and practice variables were not associated with recommendations for colposcopy.",
"Because of the high prevalence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grades II and III in both the high and the low risk groups social factors are not useful for selecting women with mild or moderate dyskaryosis for either early referral to colposcopy or cytological surveillance.",
"To compare visual inspection with acetic acid (VIA) to Papanicolau (PAP) smears in a community setting in a developing nation. Women undergoing cervical cancer screening in Honduras received either VIA and PAP smears (VIA/PAP group) or PAP smears alone (PAP-only group). Local healthcare providers performed PAP screening. A VIA-trained nurse performed VIA exams. All PAP smears were processed in Honduras. PAP smears from the VIA/PAP group were reviewed in the United States. Women with positive VIA or PAP tests were offered colposcopy. We compared the relative accuracy of PAP smears and VIA and the proportions of women completing follow-up colposcopy after positive screening tests. In total, 1709 PAP smears were performed including women from both the VIA/PAP and PAP-only groups. Nine PAP smears were positive (0.5%). Three women completed colposcopy (33%). All three had biopsy-confirmed dysplasia. In the VIA/PAP group (n = 339), 49 VIA exams were abnormal (14%) and two PAP smears were abnormal when read in Honduras (0.6%). When reviewed in the United States, 14 of the 339 PAP smears were abnormal (4%). Forty women (83%) completed follow-up colposcopy after a positive VIA exam. Twenty-three had biopsy-proven dysplasia. All 23 dysplasia cases had negative PAP smear readings in Honduras; four PAP smears were reclassified as positive in the United States.",
"Routine removal of cervical polyps in asymptomatic women with current, normal cervical cytology testing is unwarranted because it adds little to their management and it has the potential to cause harm.",
"Updated guidelines for the screening and management of cervical cancer in the United States recommend starting Papanicolaou (Pap) testing at age 21 and screening less frequently with less aggressive management for abnormalities. We sought to examine updated Pap test screening guidelines and how they may affect the detection of invasive cervical cancer, especially among women<30 years of age. Patients diagnosed at Brigham and Women's Hospital with invasive cervical cancer between 2002 and 2012 were retrospectively identified. Prior screening history was obtained and patients were divided into two groups based on age<30 years or age ≥30 years. The two groups were then compared with respect to demographics, pathological findings, and time to diagnosis. A total of 288 patients with invasive cervical carcinoma were identified. Among these patients, 109 had adequate information on prior screening history. Invasive adenocarcinoma (IAC) was diagnosed in 37 (33.94%) patients, whereas 64 (58.72%) patients were diagnosed with invasive squamous cell carcinoma (ISCC). The remaining eight patients were diagnosed with other types of cancers of the cervix. A total of 13 patients were younger than 30 while 96 patients were 30 or older. The mean time from normal Pap to diagnosis of IAC was 15 months in patients younger than 30 years of age compared to 56 months in patients aged 30 and older (p < 0.001). The mean time from normal Pap to diagnosis of ISCC was 38 months in patients younger than 30 years of age and 82 months in patients aged 30 and older (p = 0.018).",
"A high incidence of abnormal cervical cytology was observed in women with high-grade EC, particularly in UPSC patients. Although hypothesis generating, a proportion of asymptomatic UPSC patients had abnormal cytology, signifying that Pap smear screening may help detect the disease before the patient develops symptoms.",
"To evaluate whether ThinPrep smears without versus those with a transformation zone component were more likely to have falsely negative cytology findings. Women aged 18-50 (N = 4389) attended one of three Planned Parenthood clinics between 1997 and 2001 for screening by ThinPrep Papanicolaou and polymerase chain reaction-based human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing. Women with 1) any cytologic abnormality, 2) high-risk HPV types, and 3) a random sample with normal Papanicolaou and negative HPV tests were offered repeat cytology, colposcopy, and biopsy. Cytology and biopsy diagnoses at the colposcopy visit were reviewed according to the presence (n = 3689) or absence (n = 700) of a transformation zone component at screening. Among women with normal cytology at screening, histologic detection of at least cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 2 (odds ratio 1.3, 95% confidence interval 0.5, 3.3) at colposcopy did not differ significantly between transformation zone-positive and zone-negative smears. Histologically confirmed cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 1 was detected more often among smears lacking a transformation zone component (odds ratio 2.0, confidence interval 1.0, 3.8). Transformation zone-negative smears were more common among older women, current oral contraceptive users, those past the 14th day of their last menstrual period, and those negative for high-risk HPV types.",
"Most Thai people believe that health care providers have a lower risk of any disease than their patients. This belief may lull Thai health care providers into accepting the false belief that they are at a lower risk of having the precancerous conditions that lead to cervical cancer. This study compares the prevalence of abnormal Pap smears from health care providers (HC) and non health care providers (NHC) by using the standard liquid-based Pap smear processing at Thammasat University Hospital's pathology department, Thailand. Both health care providers (HC) and non health care providers (NHC) were patients at the outpatient clinic, Thammasat University Hospital. They were screened for cervical cancer by using liquid-based Pap smear (LBP). Cytological diagnoses and specimen adequacy were classified using the Bethesda system 2001. All subjects who had abnormal cytology more than atypical squamous cells or atypical glandular cells were counseled to have performed a colposcopic directed biopsy for confirmation of pathology. A total of 250 liquid-base Pap smears were processed and evaluated at the Gynecology clinic, Thammasat University Hospital from April 2008 to May 2008. The groups of HC and NHC consisted of 122 and 128 women, respectively. In general, both the HC and NHC groups were similar in their age, religion, income and education level distributions. The range of ages was between 16 and 75 years, with the mean age equal to 40.2 +/- 10.5 years. Prevalence of abnormal Pap smears was 9.8% in HC and 9.4% in NHC (p-value = 0.90). HC showed atypical change (ASC, AGC), low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) at 0.8%, 1.6% and 7.4%, respectively. NHC had an incidence of atypical change, LSIL and HSIL at 0.8%, 0.8% and 7.8%. HC had an equal incidence of abnormal Pap smears prevalence to NHC. Further, the percentage of HC and NHC groups with histological confirmed cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1 were not significantly different (4.92% vs. 6.25%, p-value = 0.70), likewise CIN 2/3 (1.64% vs. 1.56%, p-value = 1.00). According to our study the rate of abnormal Pap smears observed in both health care providers and clients was essentially the same.",
"Routine endocervical curettage at the time of satisfactory colposcopy for low-grade cytologic abnormalities with a visible lesion does not significantly improve the diagnosis of high-grade dysplasia.",
"When cervical cytology screening shows atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASCUS) or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL), and cervical cytology screening has not been performed in the previous year, it is recommended that cytology screening be repeated six months later. Women with persistent abnormalities should be referred for colposcopy. We explored provincial databases in Ontario to determine whether these recommendations were always followed. Cervical cytology reports in Ontario are contained in a provincial database, deterministically linkable to other health services databases, including those recording physician reimbursement claims for colposcopy. We identified all women in Ontario who had a first time diagnosis of ASCUS or LSIL in 2008 or 2009. We searched for additional cytology reports and for colposcopy billing claims during the 24 months following the date of the first abnormal report. We assessed the interaction of socioeconomic status, having abnormal cytology, and having repeat cytology after a report of low-grade abnormal cervical cytology. A total of 74 770 women had a first time report of low-grade abnormal cytology. Among women with ASCUS and LSIL, 69.7% and 60.3%, respectively, underwent repeat cytology. Repeat cytology following ASCUS disclosed normal (68.2%), ASCUS (19.3%), LSIL (10.6%), and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (1.4%); following LSIL, the corresponding percentages were 48.3%, 18.0%, 30.8%, and 2.6%. Of women with ASCUS, 16.2% went directly for colposcopy; 14.0% did not repeat cytology or go for colposcopy. Of women with LSIL, 26.4% went directly for colposcopy but 13.4% had no follow-up.",
"In the United States, human papillomavirus (HPV) and Papanicolaou (Pap) testing (cotesting) for cervical screening in women ages 30 to 65 years is the preferred strategy, and cytology alone is acceptable. Recently, a proprietary automated test for identifying high-risk HPV types for primary cervical screening was approved by the US Food and Drug Administration. The objective of the current study was to document extensive cervical screening among these screening options. To investigate the sensitivity of various testing options for biopsy-proven cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 or worse (≥ CIN3) and cancer, the authors reviewed 256,648 deidentified results from women ages 30 to 65 years at the time of cotest who had a cervical biopsy specimen obtained within 1 year of the cotest. A positive cotest result was more sensitive (98.8%; 4040 of 4090 cotests) for diagnosing ≥ CIN3 than either a positive HPV-only test (94%; 3845 of 4090 HPV-only tests) or a positive Pap-only test (91.3%; 3734 of 4090 Pap-only tests; P < .0001). A positive Pap-only result was more specific (26.3%; 66,145 of 251,715 Pap-only tests) for diagnosing ≥ CIN3 than a positive HPV-only test (25.6%; 64,625 of 252,556 HPV-only tests) or a positive cotest (10.9%; 27,578 of 252,558 cotests; P < .0001). Of 526 cervical cancers, 98 (18.6%) were HPV-only negative, 64 (12.2%) were Pap-only negative, and 29 (5.5%) were cotest negative.",
"This study showed that most of the Dutch general practices are not yet ready to organize an effective cervical cancer screening system. A general practice-based inviting system, a high delegation index and a computerized patient information recording system proved to be important for the adherence to the guidelines. In order to organize a cervical screening programme to achieve optimal effectiveness, emphasis should be placed on the adherence to the four guidelines described in this study and on stimulating a general practice-based inviting system, delegation to the practice assistant and computerization.",
"From this study it appears that high-grade cytology in this centre reliably indicates high-grade CIN. Therefore, in women referred for colposcopy following a high-grade smear, excision biopsies should be performed in a higher proportion at the first visit to comply with the revised standards.",
"To determine the percentage of women who have had a Pap smear in the last 5 years, and the place where it was carried out. To detect cytological abnormalities and precursors of cervical cancer in un-screened or inadequately screened women and the prevalence of HPV-positive determinations. Cross sectional study. Natahoyo Health Centre, Gijón (Spain). Women aged 40-50 years living in the area and assigned to the Health Centre. The information was collected from databases, telephone and home surveys. There was active recruitment of unscreened women or inadequately screened in Primary Care as well as offering to perform cytology and HPV determination. Of the 1420 women aged 40 to 50 years, 1236 (87%) had cytology in the last 5 years, and 184 women (13%) had no screening or it was inadequate. Of these 184 women, 108 (58.7%) agreed to have cytology and HPV test performed. No high-grade cervical dysplasia was diagnosed. The prevalence of HPV-positive was 8.3%.",
"To evaluate the prevalence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2 or worse among women undergoing cone biopsy for CIN 1, stratified by colposcopic adequacy. A cross-sectional cohort study was performed using a colposcopic database of 3,004 women seen between August 1999 and December 2005. Data collected included demographic information, indications for treatment, adequacy of colposcopic examination, and final cone pathology. A satisfactory colposcopy was defined as being able to define the entire squamocolumnar junction and visualize all lesions in their entirety. Descriptive statistics and crude and adjusted odds ratios with 95% confidence intervals were calculated. Of the 440 cone biopsies, 50 (11%) were done for CIN 1, of which 9 (18%) demonstrated CIN 2 or worse, and 23 (46%) were done in the setting of unsatisfactory colposcopy. Compared with women with satisfactory colposcopy, women with unsatisfactory colposcopy were more likely to be older (median age = 33 vs 25 years, p = .01) and to have CIN 1 on endocervical sampling (5/22 [22%] vs 0, p<.01). Persistent (18 months or more) CIN 1 was more commonly encountered in women with satisfactory colposcopy (21/27 [78%] vs 7/23 [30%], p<.01). Women with unsatisfactory colposcopic examinations were at decreased risk of CIN 2+ on final pathology compared with women with satisfactory examinations (1/23 [4%] vs 8/27 [30%], odds ratios = 0.08, 95% confidence intervals = 0.01-0.95).",
"To conduct a prospective analysis of whether endocervical curettage contributes to the management of patients with abnormal cervical cytology. Three hundred four consecutive patients being evaluated for abnormal squamous cervical cytology at the University of Virginia underwent routine endocervical curettage at the time of diagnostic colposcopy. Among the 304 patients evaluated colposcopically, the information provided by endocervical curettage changed treatment planning in only 13, or 4.27%. In none of these 13 patients would the omission of endocervical curettage at the time of diagnostic colposcopy have resulted in overlooking an occult invasive or microinvasive carcinoma.",
"Women with unsatisfactory colposcopy and CIN 1 are unlikely to have high-grade cervical neoplasia on final pathology. For this subset of women, conservative management is preferable to immediate treatment.",
"High-risk human papillomaviruses (HPVs) are causal factors of cervical carcinomas. To evaluate the sensitivity and efficiency of HPV DNA testing in comparison with conventional cytology for detection of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cancer. Both testing procedures were administered to 593 women, aged 14 to 88 years (average, 41.7 years), who were referred for abnormal cytology from January 2000 through December 2001 at Korea University Guro Hospital (Seoul, Korea). After histologic confirmation by either colposcopically directed biopsy or endocervical curettage, the efficiency of the detection methods for high-grade cervical lesion was evaluated for the following 3 data sets: HPV DNA testing, conventional cytology, and the 2 tests combined. The sensitivity, specificity, and positive predictive, and negative predictive values for the detection of CIN 2 or higher were 92.4%, 52.4%, 49.3%, and 93.2% for HPV DNA testing; 76.3%, 65.8%, 52.8%, and 84.7% for cytology; and 97.8%, 36.7%, 49.2%, and 97.3% for the combined tests. Among the 151 patients diagnosed with CIN 2 or CIN 3, 137 patients (90.7%) were HPV positive, 116 patients (76.8%) were proven to have abnormal cytology, and 147 patients (97.6%) were positive for either HPV DNA testing or cytology. The sensitivity values for HPV DNA testing and cytology were 97.9% (46/47) and 74.5% (35/47), respectively, for invasive cervical cancer detection, and the combined tests showed 100% (47/47) sensitivity. Depending on the patient's age and the grade of the cervical lesion, HPV DNA testing proved to be significantly more sensitive than cytology for the primary detection of cervical abnormalities (P<.001).",
"Cervical human papillomavirus (HPV) infection among young women (20-25 years of age) is common and normally transient. There are growing concerns that referral to a colposcopy clinic may lead to unnecessary treatment with an increased risk of obstetric complications. Therefore, the purpose of this study was to determine the level of intervention for cervical abnormalities in this age group of the Northern Ireland population. A review of all serial new patients under 25 years of age, who were referred to colposcopy clinics in Northern Ireland between January 1, 2009 to June 30, 2009 formed the basis of this study. During the study period, a total of 4,767 women under 25 years of age were screened. Two-hundred-and- thirty-four (4.9%) cases were referred to the colposcopy clinics. The cervical cytology results were: high-grade abnormality in 35%, and low-grade abnormality in 31% of these cases. One-hundred-and-seventy-eight (76%) of the referred women received at least one treatment. One-hundred-and-twenty-one of 234 (51.5%) women underwent an excisional treatment with histology showing the presence of high-grade abnormalities (CIN2-3) in 52%, CIN1 in 28%, and Koilocytosis or normal tissue in 20% of this sub-group of cases.",
"Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.",
"A policy of cervical screening of all GUM patients can no longer be sustained. We would recommend cervical cytology only for those women who have not been screened in the previous three to five years.",
"Guidelines recommend against the use of Papanicolaou (Pap) or human papillomavirus (HPV) testing when determining eligibility for the HPV vaccine. Optimally, the HPV vaccine should be administered before sexual initiation. Guidelines recommend that age-eligible women with past exposure to HPV should still be vaccinated. Little is known about how primary care providers (PCPs) use sexual history and HPV and Pap tests in their HPV vaccine recommendations. Data from the 2007 Cervical Cancer Screening Supplement (CCSS) administered with the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NAMCS) and the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (NHAMCS) were used to assess HPV vaccination recommendations. The CCSS investigates cervical cancer screening practices, HPV testing and HPV vaccine recommendations among PCPs. A summary measure of compliance with guidelines was defined as rarely or never using the number of sexual partners and HPV tests and Pap tests to determine vaccine receipt. A total of 421 PCPs completed the CCSS in 2007. Among NAMCS and NHAMCS providers who recommend the HPV vaccine, only 53% (95% CI 42% to 63%) reported making guideline-consistent recommendations. The majority reported sometimes to always recommending the HPV vaccine to women with a history of an abnormal Pap result (85%; 95% CI 75% to 91%) and a positive HPV test (79%; 95% CI 70% to 86%).",
"We undertook this study to assess the validity of cytologic diagnosis of sexually transmitted infections like: bacterial vaginosis (BV), tricomoniasis and candidiasis using the Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. Prospective, descriptive transverse study. The present study was carried out in the Health Center Dr. José Castro Villagrana in Tlalpan, México, D.F. from January 1997, to February 2000. Routine Pap smears and vaginal secretion smears were collected from two hundred and seventy one patients ranged from age 16-66 years, with cervicovaginitis diagnosis. Of the 271 patients, 92 (33.9%) had bacterial vaginosis diagnosed by Amsel criteria, 47 (17.3%) had candidiasis by culture and 5 (1.8%) had tricomoniasis by wet smear. The Bethesda system for diagnosing BV on Pap smear had 66% sensitivity and a specificity of 86%. The respective positive predictive and negative predictive value were 79% and 84%. Therefore, compared to the Candida culture, cervical cytologic test results had a sensitivity of 21% and specificity of 99%. The predictive positive predictive and negative predictive values were 90% and 85%.",
"To investigate whether the 2006 American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology guidelines for conservative management of minimally abnormal Pap test results (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance, human papillomavirus-positive, and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions) and moderate dysplasia (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia 2) in adolescents 1) resulted in fewer colposcopies and loop electrosurgical excision procedures (LEEPs) in adolescents or 2) resulted in unintended treatment changes in older age groups. We analyzed data from 1,806 women aged 18 years and older attending one of six community health centers who were diagnosed with abnormal Pap test results between January 1, 2004, and December 31, 2008. We used multivariable logistic regression to examine treatment differences in women with minimally abnormal Pap test results before and after guideline changes. Variables included date of abnormality, site of care, race or ethnicity, language, and insurance type. We used Fisher exact tests to examine rates of LEEP in patients with moderate dysplasia before and after guideline publication. Among 206 women aged 18-20 years, rates of colposcopy after a minimally abnormal Pap test result decreased from 78% (n=102) to 45% (n=34) after guideline changes (P<.001). Colposcopy among women over age 21 (n=1,542) remained unchanged (greater than 90%). Multivariable logistic regression indicated that both date of abnormality and site of care were associated with colposcopy referral. After guideline changes, management of moderate dysplasia with LEEP in women aged 18-23 decreased from 55% to 18% (P=.04); rates remained stable in women ages 24 and older (70% compared with 74%; P=.72).",
"To study whether all women attending a genitourinary medicine (GUM) clinic warrant a cervical smear as part of a routine screen for infection, or whether this \"at risk\" population is adequately covered by the national screening programme. A cervical smear and a screen for sexually transmitted infections (STI) were taken from 900 women attending a GUM clinic between May 1996 and April 1997. Of 812 smears available for analysis, 613 (75.5%) were normal, 176 (21.7%) were mildly abnormal, and 23 (2.8%) were moderately or severely abnormal. In the absence of an STI there was a 14% (37/273) risk of having an abnormal cervical smear. In the presence of cervicitis the risk was 26% (22/84) and with genital warts the risk was 34% (75/215).",
"We have demonstrated the potential for substantial improvement in cervical cytology six months after a finding of ASCUS and LSIL. We found that many women with ASCUS and LSIL had unnecessary referrals directly for colposcopy, and we identified a lack of follow-up for one sixth of women with low-grade abnormal cytology.",
"The 2006 American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology Consensus guidelines state that it is acceptable to defer colposcopy until 6 weeks postpartum in pregnant patients with atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US) or low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) cytology. Therefore, we sought to determine the incidence of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2,3 in pregnant patients referred to a university colposcopy clinic. A retrospective study identified all pregnant women with abnormal cytology referred to the University of Alabama at Birmingham colposcopy clinic between May 2005 and September 2007. After an institutional review board approval was obtained, demographic information, referral cytology, and histologic data were collected. The colposcopic impression was also obtained from the records. Six hundred twenty-five pregnant patients were identified. The mean age was 23 years (range, 14-44 years), the mean parity was 1 (range, 0-7), and the mean gestational age was 24 weeks (range, 4-39 weeks). The most common referral cytology was LSIL (41.0%), followed by ASC-US (34.1%), and high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (13.6%). One hundred thirty-eight patients (22%) underwent cervical biopsy at the time of initial colposcopy. Forty-three patients had CIN 1, 28 patients had CIN 2, and 23 patients had CIN 3. Forty-four patients (32%) had no evidence of CIN on biopsy. There were no cases of invasive cervical cancer identified. Of the 469 patients with ASC-US and LSIL cytology, 20 of 78 patients who had a cervical biopsy were diagnosed with CIN 2,3. Of the 128 patients with high-grade intraepithelial lesion or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion cytology, 31 of 60 patients who had a cervical biopsy were diagnosed with CIN 2,3. Repeat colposcopy in the third trimester was performed on 47 patients. Only 3 of 13 patients with a repeat biopsy had CIN 2,3.",
"The aim of the study was to define the learning curve of a single cytologist as a limitation of urinary cytology. A total of 1034 cytologic and histologic findings of patients undergoing transurethral resection of the bladder for suspicion of bladder cancer were reviewed, and cytologic evaluations of a single cytologist from the beginning of his learning period were compared with the results of a cytologist at a national reference center. Our results showed that the individual learning curve has a significant impact on the quality of urine cytology. To define the learning curve of a single cytologist as a limitation of urinary cytology and to compare his results with a reference center for urinary cytology. Cytologic and histologic findings of patients undergoing transurethral resection of the bladder for suspicion of bladder cancer were reviewed. Cytologic evaluations from a single local cytologist during his learning period and of a cytologist of a national reference center were compared. Changes of sensitivity and specificity of cytology from the local cytologist over the time period were assessed. Differences were estimated by using kappa statistics. The local cytologist evaluated 1034 cytologic findings. Sensitivity and specificity of cytology estimated by the local cytologist were 86% and 66% at the beginning of the learning period, but 68% and 84% at the end of it (P ≤ .05). In high-grade carcinomas, sensitivity did not decrease over the years (P > .05). In contrast, the sensitivity in the diagnosis of low-grade tumors decreased from 86% to 56% (P ≤ .05). The reference center estimated a constant sensitivity and specificity of 59% and 97%, respectively. Agreement of findings between local and national cytologists increased significantly over the learning period (P < .05).",
"yes. Although the relative proportion of low-grade and high-grade abnormalities did not change with age, we saw a loss of concordance between HR-HPV detection and cytological abnormalities with increasing age. Current guidelines for cervical cancer screening group together all women age 30 years and older. Our data raise important questions about the interpretation of HPV and Pap test results in this age group and suggest that ongoing surveillance of HPV and cytology in cervical cancer screening programs consider a third age stratification among older women.",
"The purpose of this quality improvement project was to evaluate adherence to Papanicolaou (Pap) test guidelines 6 months prior to and 6 months following a 30-min educational clinical practice meeting in a pediatric primary care office. Guidelines for Pap tests have been revised in recent years by the American Academy of Obstetrics and Gynecology, the American Cancer Society, and the U.S. Preventive Task Force, but providers often do not adhere to the guidelines. A total of 777 charts from a pediatric primary care office were reviewed. Eighty-four percent (652) met criteria for inclusion.",
"The study findings indicated that current American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists guidelines to begin Pap testing at age 21 years are appropriate for the majority of adolescents, because the rate of HSIL is very low, and the risk for invasive carcinoma is minimal. Although higher parity was associated with a significantly increased grade of CIN, the conclusions are questionable because of the significant amount of missing demographic data points. That being said, this study should lead to other similar studies to determine any association of higher grade CIN with adolescent sexual and obstetric history.",
"The National Health Service Cervical Screening Programme monitors the quality of colposcopy services through the annual KC65 returns. The 2002 returns demonstrated that Standard 7c, which specifies a biopsy rate>or = 90% at first colposcopy visit for high-grade referrals, was not met in the assessed 3-month period. This was investigated along with the other standards. Retrospective colposcopy records were accessed for the 597 new referrals, excluding 10 pregnant patients, seen at the colposcopy clinic at the Royal Victoria Infirmary between 1 July 2001 and 31 December 2002, following an abnormal high-grade smear. Cytology and histopathology computer records were checked for confirmation. The results were assessed against the colposcopy standards applicable at that time and the revised standards (2004). Biopsies were taken from 94.47% (Standard>or = 90%) of women at index colposcopy visit including wire loop excision biopsies from 66.16% (87.97% of high-grade colposcopic appearances). Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) on histology was found in 91.79% in the study group (Standard>or = 85%) and in 96.71% of index visit biopsies (Standard>or = 90%), meeting the applicable colposcopy standards. The revised 2004 standards specify a biopsy in>or = 95% of high-grade referrals and excision biopsies in 95% if colposcopic appearances are also high-grade, if colposcopy is low grade but the smear is severely dyskaryotic, or when the lesion extends into the canal. The positive predictive value of high-grade cytology for this entire group was 75.54% with CIN present in 90.95%.",
"Cervical cancer is the fifth most common cancer among women in Puerto Rico (PR). Information about which obstetricians and gynecologists in PR are following current cervical cytology guidelines is not available. Our two objectives were to determine whether current guidelines for abnormal cervical cytology management were being followed adequately by OB-GYN residents and faculty at 3 university hospitals and, in addition, to evaluate the knowledge of the current guidelines that is possessed by these individuals. A retrospective medical record review (records from January 2009 through December 2010) of patients with abnormal cervical cytology results (n=166) to evaluate the management they were given and a cross-sectional survey of OB-GYN residents (n=34) and faculty (n=46) to evaluate their knowledge of cervical cytology guidelines were both performed. One hundred and sixty-six medical records were reviewed. The level of management for 45% of the patients was found to have been optimal.\"Thirty-three percent were lost to follow-up. Eleven percent of the patients were managed sub optimally and the management of 12% of the patients was considered to have been poor. The survey showed that the faculty were less updated with regard to current guidelines for the management of cervical cytology than were the residents. Study limitations were the lack of electronic medical records in the hospital--which makes access to patient information more difficult--and the low response rate of the faculty.",
"OB-GYN physicians and residents were not consistent with their management, according to current guidelines, of cervical cytological abnormalities. The high-risk nature of the patients and their poor adherence to treatment (loss to follow-up) may have been the cause of this inconsistency. Meetings aimed at addressing the lack of compliance by local OB-GYN physicians with the guidelines for cervical cancer screening have been Better screening strategies are also needed if we are to improve patient compliance in our population.",
"The national screening programme guidelines for cervical cytology should be followed in the GUM clinic. There is no benefit in performing extra smears outside the programme nor in adopting a policy of universal screening."
] | 687 |
Can children with autistic spectrum disorders perceive affect in music? | [
"Children with autistic spectrum disorders typically show impairments in processing affective information within social and interpersonal domains. It has yet to be established whether such difficulties persist in the area of music; a domain which is characteristically rich in emotional content. Fourteen children with autism and Asperger syndrome and their age and intelligence matched controls were tested for their ability to identify the affective connotations of melodies in the major or minor musical mode. They were required to match musical fragments with schematic representations of happy and sad faces. The groups did not differ in their ability to ascribe the musical examples to the two affective categories.",
"In contrast to their performance within social and interpersonal domains, children with autistic disorders showed no deficits in processing affect in musical stimuli."
] | [
"Recent neuroimaging studies of autism have indicated reduced functional connectivity during both cognitive tasks and rest. These data suggest long-range connectivity may be compromised in this disorder, and current neurological theories of autism contend disrupted inter-regional interactions may be an underlying mechanism explaining behavioral symptomatology. However, it is unclear whether deficient neuronal communication is attributable to fewer long-range tracts or more of a local deficit in neural circuitry. This study examines the integrity of local circuitry by focusing on gamma band activity in auditory cortices of children and adolescents with autism. Ten children and adolescents with autism and 10 matched controls participated. Both groups listened to 500 ms duration monaural click trains with a 25 ms inter-click interval, as magnetoencephalography was acquired from the contralateral hemisphere. To estimate 40 Hz spectral power density, we performed time-frequency decomposition of the single-trial magnetic steady-state response data using complex demodulation. Children and adolescents with autism exhibited significantly reduced left hemispheric 40 Hz power from 200-500 ms post-stimulus onset. In contrast, no significant between group differences were observed for right hemispheric cortices.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that processing emotional facial expressions influences the performance on a cognitive control task in children and adolescents diagnosed with an anxiety disorder and major depression.",
"Hoarding symptoms have been described in individuals with autism spectrum disorders (ASD). Furthermore, individuals with hoarding disorder (HD) may display some ASD-like features. In order to further refine the diagnostic boundaries of HD, we examined the presence of autistic traits and theory of mind deficits in individuals with HD and of hoarding behavior in patients with ASD. Two hundred and twenty-one participants in five groups (HD, ASD, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), anxiety disorders (AD), and healthy controls (HC)) were administered measures of autistic traits (Autism-Spectrum Quotient), theory of mind (eyes test-revised), and hoarding severity (saving inventory-revised; SI-R (add acronym)). Hoarders displayed more autistic traits compared to healthy individuals but not to psychiatric controls. Participants with ASD had significantly higher scores on the SI-R than both psychiatric (OCD or AD) and HC groups, indicating more severe hoarding behavior, but had lower scores than participants with HD. The presence of autistic traits in individuals with HD was related to the presence of comorbid OCD, but the presence of hoarding symptoms in individuals with ASD was unrelated to comorbid OCD.",
"Children with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) show unusual social behaviors and repetitive behaviors. Some of these behaviors, e.g., time spent in an area or turning rate/direction, can be automatically tracked. Automated tracking has several advantages over subjective ratings including reliability, amount of information provided, and consistency across laboratories, and is potentially of importance for diagnosis, animal models and objective assessment of treatment efficacy. However, its validity for ASD has not been examined. In this exploratory study, we examined associations between rating scale data with automated tracking of children's movements using the Noldus EthoVision XT system; i.e., tracking not involving a human observer. Based on our observations and previous research, we predicted that time spent in the periphery of the room would be associated with autism severity and that rate and direction of turning would be associated with stereotypies. Children with and without ASD were observed in a free-play situation for 3 min before and 3 min after Autism Diagnostic Observation Scale - Generic (ADOS-G) testing. The Noldus system provided measures of the rate and direction of turning, latency to approach and time spend near the periphery or the parent. Ratings of the severity of maladaptive social behaviors, stereotypies, autism severity, and arousal problems were positively correlated with increases in percent time spent in the periphery in the total sample and in the ASD subset. Adaptive social communication skills decreased with increases in the percentage of time spent in the periphery and increases in the latency to approach the parent in the ASD group. The rate and direction of turning was linked with stereotypies only in the group without ASD (the faster the rate of a turn to the left, the worse the rating). In the ASD group, there was a shift from a neutral turning bias prior to the ADOS assessment to a strong left turn bias after the ADOS assessment. In the entire sample, this left turn bias was associated with measures of autism severity.",
"To test differences in neural sensitivity to facial expressions, including expressions with open versus closed mouths, exhibited by (1) adults with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) compared to neurotypical adults, and by (2) short versus long serotonin transporter allele (SLC6A4) carriers. Event related potentials (ERPs) to happy, fearful, and neutral expressions were collected from neurotypical adults (n=25) and adults with ASD (n=27)-of whom 32 had short and 13 had homozygous long SLC6A4 alleles. In the neurotypical group, we confirmed that the N170, VPP and EPN, but not the P1, were influenced by emotional expressions, and determined the EPN was the earliest component modulated by open mouth. Compared to the neurotypical group, individuals with ASD exhibited differences in EPN amplitude in response to open versus closed mouths and in hemispheric distribution. Across groups, short serotonin transporter allele carriers had reduced P1 amplitude compared to long allele carriers.",
"yes. Features of the social environment may influence PA levels of children with ASD. Specifically, certain social group contexts may be more PA-promoting than others depending on the setting.",
"Autism Spectrum Conditions (ASC) are associated with a range of perceptual atypicalities, including abnormalities in gaze processing. Pellicano and Burr (Trends Cogn Sci 16(10):504-10, 2012) have argued that these atypicalities might be explained within a Bayesian framework, in which perception represents the combination of sensory information with prior knowledge. They propose that the Bayesian priors of individuals with ASC might be attenuated, such that their perception is less reliant on prior knowledge than neurotypical individuals. An important tenet of Bayesian decision theory is that increased uncertainty about incoming sensory information will lead to a greater influence of the prior on perception. Consistent with this, Mareschal et al. (Curr Biol 23(8):717-21, 2013) showed that when noise is added to the eyes of a face (increasing uncertainty about gaze direction), gaze is more likely to be perceived as direct. We adopted the same paradigm as Mareschal et al. to determine whether the influence of a prior on gaze perception is reduced in neurotypical participants with high numbers of autistic traits (experiment 1) and in individuals with a clinical diagnosis of ASC (experiment 2). Participants were presented with synthetic faces and asked to make a judgement about the relative gaze directions of the faces. Uncertainty about gaze direction was manipulated by adding noise to the eyes of a face. Consistent with previous work, in both experiment 1 and experiment 2, participants showed a bias towards perceiving gaze as direct under conditions of uncertainty. However, there was no evidence that the magnitude of this bias was reduced either in the ASC group or in neurotypical controls with a high number of autistic traits.",
"yes. Atypical processing is evident in individuals with ASD during perception of simple visual stimuli. The implications of these data for existing theories of atypical perception in ASD are discussed.",
"yes. The dependence of performance on higher-order auditory processing tasks on brain anatomical connectivity was seen in normal-hearing children aged 9 to 11 yrs. Results support a previously hypothesized dual-stream (dorsal and ventral) model of auditory processing, and that higher-order processing tasks rely less on the dorsal stream related to articulatory networks and more on the ventral stream related to semantic comprehension. Results also show that the regions correlating with auditory processing vary according to the specific task, indicating that the neurological bases for the various tests used to diagnose APD in children may be partially independent.",
"We measured psychopathic traits in boys with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) selected for difficult and aggressive behaviour. We asked (i) whether psychopathic tendencies can be measured in ASD independent of the severity of autistic behaviour; (ii) whether individuals with ASD with callous-unemotional (CU) traits differ in their cognitive profile from those without such traits; and (iii) how the cognitive data from this study compare with previous data of youngsters with psychopathic tendencies. Twenty-eight ASD boys were rated on psychopathic tendencies, autistic traits and a range of cognitive measures assessing mentalizing ability, executive functions, emotion recognition and ability to make moral-conventional distinction. Our results indicate that psychopathic tendencies are not related to severity of ASD. In addition, such tendencies do not seem to be related to core autistic cognitive deficits, specifically in 'mind-reading' or executive function. Boys with co-occurring ASD and CU tendencies share some behaviours and aspects of cognitive profile with boys who have psychopathic tendencies alone.",
"yes. The data support the hypothesis that AD is a mild form of AU, and that they share a common etiology and developmental neuropathology. It appears warranted in future diagnostic manuals to incorporate AU and AD into 1 diagnostic category such as, \"Autism Spectrum Disorder, (with modifiers, severe, moderate, mild, atypical, and Asperger's type).\"",
"yes. Fragile X Syndrome (FXS) is the leading known genetic cause of autism spectrum disorders. Individuals with FXS show symptoms of auditory hypersensitivity. These symptoms may arise due to sustained neural responses to repeated sounds, but the underlying mechanisms remain unclear. For the first time, this study shows deficits in habituation of neural responses to repeated sounds in the Fmr1 KO mice as seen in humans with FXS. We also report an abnormally high level of matrix metalloprotease-9 (MMP-9) in the auditory cortex of Fmr1 KO mice and that deletion of Mmp-9 from Fmr1 KO mice reverses habituation deficits. These data provide a translation relevant electrophysiological biomarker for sensory deficits in FXS and implicate MMP-9 as a target for drug discovery.",
"yes. Our twice replicated findings confirm that visual-motor functional connectivity is disrupted in ASD. Furthermore, the observed temporal incongruity between visual and motor systems, which may reflect diminished integration of visual consequences with motor output, was predictive of the severity of social deficits and may contribute to impaired social-communicative skill development in children with ASD.",
"yes. Our findings identify low-level aneuploidy as a new genetic risk factor for autism. Therefore, molecular cytogenetic analysis of somatic mosaicism is warranted in children with unexplained autism.",
"no. These data do not support a systematic reduction in urinary CRT levels in subjects with autism spectrum disorders including autistic disorder and PDD-NOS. Urinary COPRO excess in autistic disorder was not associated with or consequent upon urinary CRT deficiency. Differences between affected and control subjects in age and sampling time, as reported by Whiteley et al., may underlie the apparent CRT reduction.",
"yes. The results confirm the presence of hyperimitation in ASC, which is accompanied by reduced social cognition, suggesting that a general imitation impairment and a global mirror system deficit are absent. These findings offer an explanation for echopractic features based on theories of atypical functioning of top-down modulation processes in autism.",
"Children with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are more likely to have difficulties accessing health care compared to other children with special health care needs. National data based on parent report indicate that children with ASD are overutilizing emergency department (ED) services, but data on actual ED use has been limited to children with psychiatric diagnoses. This study examined factors associated with ED utilization (rate, urgency, and hospital admissions) among children with ASD compared to those without ASD. Data from an urban, tertiary children's hospital level 1 trauma center were examined retrospectively 2006-2009. Anderson's model of health services utilization served as the study framework. The NYU ED algorithm was used to predict nonurgent visits. Multivariate linear and logistic regression analyses were performed on the rate, urgency, and subsequent hospital admissions of these ED visits. There were 115,443 children 2-21 years old, accounting for a total of 157,902 visits. The top three reasons for visiting the ED for children with and without ASD were acute upper respiratory infections, viral infections and otitis media. Children with ASD had on average 0.26 more ED visits annually than children without ASD (p<0.01) and were 2.6 % points more likely to have nonurgent visits; p<0.01). Their visits were also less likely to result in hospital admissions (OR 0. 61; p<0.01).",
"Children with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are an increasingly common patient population in the perioperative setting. Children with ASD present with abnormal development in social interaction, communication, and stereotyped patterns of behavior and may be more prone to elevated perioperative anxiety. The perioperative experience for these patients is complex and presents a unique challenge for clinicians.AIM: The aim of the current study was to provide a further understanding of the premedication patterns and perioperative experiences of children with ASD in comparison to children without ASD. Using a retrospective cohort study design, medical records were evaluated for patients with and without ASD undergoing general anesthesia for dental rehabilitation from 2006-2011. The following objectives were measured and compared: (i) premedication patterns and (ii) complications, pain, anesthetic type, PACU time, and time to discharge. To compare categorical variables, the chi-square test was used. Bivariate and multivariable analyses were performed to control for potential confounding as a result of baseline differences between the two groups. A total of 121 ASD patients and 881 non-ASD patients were identified. When controlling for age, weight, and gender, children in the ASD group were more likely to have nonstandard premedication types (P < 0.0001), while children without ASD were more likely to have standard premedication types (P < 0.0001). No significant group differences were identified in regards to the other outcome measures.",
"no. Results are interpreted as evidence that children's auditory sensitivities are adequate to support weighting strategies similar to those of adults, and so observed differences between children and adults in speech perception cannot be explained by differences in auditory perception. Furthermore, it is concluded that listeners bring expectations to the listening task about the nature of the signals they are hearing based on their experiences with those signals.",
"In early typical language development, children understand words before they are able to use them in speech. Children with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) generally show impairments in both the comprehension and the production of language. However, the relative degree of delay or impairment in each of these sub-domains may also be atypical and remains less well-understood. Relative delay in receptive and expressive language skills was examined within a large sample of preschoolers with autism. Children's language abilities varied from pre-verbal to fluent speech. Scores on one direct clinician assessment and two parent-report measures of language were obtained for 152 preschoolers with core autism. As expected, on average, the language ability of the children with autism was lower than typical age norms, albeit with substantial individual variability. On all three language measures, receptive ability was relatively more impaired than expressive ability. Higher non-verbal ability was associated with such an atypical language profile.",
"yes. Children with ASD are more likely to be diagnosed with EoE compared with controls; however, among children with feeding disorders, there is no difference in the odds of EoE. A diagnosis of feeding disorder was strongly associated with EoE. Feeding disorders in children with ASD should not be assumed to be solely behavioral and an esophagogastroduodenoscopy should be performed to evaluate for EoE.",
"yes. Our findings reveal white matter compromise affecting numerous tracts in children and adolescents with ASD. Slightly varying patterns of diffusion abnormalities detected for some tracts may suggest tract-specific patterns of white matter abnormalities associated with ASD. Age-dependent effects further show that maturational changes (increasing FA, decreasing MD and radial diffusion with age) are diminished in ASD from school-age childhood into young adulthood.",
"yes. This study provides the first evidence that oxytocin nasal spray improves emotion recognition in young people diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders. Findings suggest the potential of earlier intervention and further evaluation of oxytocin nasal spray as a treatment to improve social communication and interaction in young people with autism spectrum disorders.",
"To investigate children selected from a community sample for showing extreme autistic-like traits and to assess the degree to which these individual traits--social impairments (SIs), communication impairments (CIs), and restricted repetitive behaviors and interests (RRBIs)--are caused by genes and environments, whether all of them are caused by the same genes and environments, and how often they occur together (as required by an autism diagnosis). The most extreme-scoring 5% were selected from 3,419 8-year-old pairs in the Twins Early Development Study assessed on the Childhood Asperger Syndrome Test. Phenotypic associations between extreme traits were compared with associations among the full-scale scores. Genetic associations between extreme traits were quantified using bivariate DeFries-Fulker extremes analysis. Phenotypic relationships between extreme SIs, CIs, and RRBIs were modest. There was a degree of genetic overlap between them, but also substantial genetic specificity.",
"yes. Using a well-established sensory processing questionnaire, participants with AgCC reported measurable differences in multiple aspects of sensory processing. The most notable difference was in the quadrant of low sensory registration, suggesting that individuals with AgCC may require sensory information to be presented more slowly or at a higher intensity for adequate processing. The sensory modality that was most affected was the auditory system, which is consistent with increased rates of language disorders and autism spectrum disorders in this population. Understanding sensory processing in individuals with AgCC can both elucidate the role of interhemispheric transfer in the development of intact sensory processing as well as contribute to our knowledge of the role of the corpus callosum in a range of disorders in which sensory processes are impacted. (PsycINFO Database Record",
"yes. The production and/or maintenance of left hemispheric gamma oscillations appeared abnormal in participants with autism. We interpret these data as indicating that in autism, particular brain regions may be unable to generate the high-frequency activity likely necessary for binding and other forms of inter-regional interactions. These findings augment connectivity theories of autism with novel evidence that aberrations in local circuitry could underlie putative deficiencies in long-range neural communication.",
"yes. Listening to favorable music by children undergoing repair for congenital heart disease resulted in less stress and more relaxation.",
"yes. Individuals with ASD exhibited a different pattern of neural response when encoding and recognizing facial expressions at the EPN component. Across groups, SLC6A4 allele type modulated early sensory attention at the P1.",
"Recent models of the early emergence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) propose that infant intrinsic risk susceptibilities in behaviour may be amplified by interaction within the early social environment into an increasingly atypical developmental trajectory. This study examines whether 6- and 12-month parent-infant interactions in at-risk siblings differ from those with low-risk and whether--in at-risk siblings--such interactions predict later 3-year classification of ASD or no ASD. Within the British Autism Study of Infant Siblings (BASIS), 6-min videotaped episodes of parent-infant free play in infants at 6-10 months (45 at-risk siblings and 47 low-risk siblings) and 12-15 months (43 at-risk siblings and 48 low-risk siblings) in a laboratory setting were rated on the Manchester Assessment of Caregiver-Infant Interaction (MACI), blind to participant information. Standard tests were administered for concurrent behavioural signs of ASD features and developmental level. Systematic consensus diagnostic classification of ASD was made at 3 years for the at-risk siblings. Parent nondirectiveness and sensitive responsiveness differed in relation to ASD/risk status (at-risk ASD, at-risk no-ASD and low-risk) at both 6 and 12 months. At 6 months, infant liveliness was lower in the at-risk groups; at 12 months, infant attentiveness to parent and positive affect were lower in the at-risk group later diagnosed with ASD. Dyadic mutuality and intensity of engagement showed a group effect at 12 months. Dyadic mutuality, infant positive affect and infant attentiveness to parent at 12 months (but not 6 months) predicted 3-year ASD outcome, whereas infant ASD-related behavioural atypicality did not.",
"yes. Our findings are consistent with the hypothesis that enhanced perceptual sensitivity to subtle traces of sadness in facial expressions may be a potential mechanism of risk among boys at familial-risk for depression. This enhanced perceptual sensitivity does not appear to be due to biases in the labeling of ambiguous faces.",
"yes. Results confirm that a high percentage of children with hearing impairment have poor motor performance. These problems are associated with difficulties in social relationships. Early recognition of these problems may lead to interventions to assist children with hearing impairment with their peer relationships.",
"The salience network, an intrinsic brain network thought to modulate attention to internal versus external stimuli, has been consistently found to be atypical in autism spectrum disorders (ASD). However, little is known about how this altered resting-state connectivity relates to brain activity during information processing, which has important implications for understanding sensory overresponsivity (SOR), a common and impairing condition in ASD related to difficulty downregulating brain responses to sensory stimuli. This study examined how SOR in youth with ASD relates to atypical salience network connectivity and whether these atypicalities are associated with abnormal brain response to basic sensory information. Functional magnetic resonance imaging was used to examine how parent-rated SOR symptoms related to salience network connectivity in 61 youth (aged 8-17 years; 28 with ASD and 33 IQ-matched typically developing youth). Correlations between resting-state salience network connectivity and brain response to mildly aversive tactile and auditory stimuli were examined. SOR in youth with ASD was related to increased resting-state functional connectivity between salience network nodes and brain regions implicated in primary sensory processing and attention. Furthermore, the strength of this connectivity at rest was related to the extent of brain activity in response to auditory and tactile stimuli.",
"yes. Overall, children with autism engaged in fewer social overtures and spent less time interacting than typically developing peers during play. The peer interaction paradigm resulted in significantly higher levels of cortisol in many children with autism. Distinct patterns emerged within the autism group based on developmental (older), biological (cortisol responder) and behavioral patterns (peripheral group interaction). The enhanced cortisol response was observed in children who voluntarily engaged in interaction; thus, it does not support the notion of a response to social threat. Rather, it appears to reflect attendant metabolic preparedness and enhanced arousal from engaging socially. The data suggest that many children with autism activate hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal responses in relatively benign social situations, which appears to be a function of age and level of social engagement. The findings support the need to teach coping strategies in addition to fundamental social skills to youth with autism.",
"Imitation, which is impaired in children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and critically depends on the integration of visual input with motor output, likely impacts both motor and social skill acquisition in children with ASD; however, it is unclear what brain mechanisms contribute to this impairment. Children with ASD also exhibit what appears to be an ASD-specific bias against using visual feedback during motor learning. Does the temporal congruity of intrinsic activity, or functional connectivity, between motor and visual brain regions contribute to ASD-associated deficits in imitation, motor, and social skills? We acquired resting-state functional magnetic resonance imaging scans from 100 8- to 12-year-old children (50 ASD). Group independent component analysis was used to estimate functional connectivity between visual and motor systems. Brain-behavior relationships were assessed by regressing functional connectivity measures with social deficit severity, imitation, and gesture performance scores. We observed increased intrinsic asynchrony between visual and motor systems in children with ASD and replicated this finding in an independent sample from the Autism Brain Imaging Data Exchange. Moreover, children with more out-of-sync intrinsic visual-motor activity displayed more severe autistic traits, while children with greater intrinsic visual-motor synchrony were better imitators.",
"To empirically test whether systematic examination of emotions and themes in children's play can provide useful information about childhood problems. Using the MacArthur Story-Stem Battery and coding system, distress and destructive themes (aggression, personal injury, and atypical negative responses) were coded from the play of 51 children at ages 3, 4, and 5 years, in a low-risk, nonclinical volunteer sample. To measure behavior problems, both parents completed the Child Behavior Checklist at all ages, and teachers completed the Teacher's Report Form when the children reached 5 years of age. Both distress and destructive themes in the play of 4- and 5-year-olds were found to correlate with externalizing behavior problems as rated by parents and teachers.",
"yes. Results suggest that automated tracking yields valid and unbiased information for assessing children with autism. Turning bias is an interesting and unexplored measure related to autism.",
"Data from a toddler screening study were used to examine: (1) categories of concerns regarding the development of their child reported by parents prior to diagnostic evaluation, (2) congruence of parent concerns with their child's later diagnosis, (3) the extent to which parent concern(s) were associated with the therapies their child received and types of specialists consulted, and (4) the association between the number of parental concern categories and clinical measures. Toddlers who screened positive for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) during well-child checkups received a diagnostic evaluation and parents completed a history questionnaire (n = 532; 274 ASD, 258 non-ASD). Parents' concerns about their child's development, therapy received, and specialists consulted were coded into discrete categories. Most parents (>90%) reported concerns about their child's development. The most common concern in both the ASD and non-ASD groups was speech/communication (78.6%). Significant differences were found between diagnostic groups in the speech/communication, restricted/repetitive behaviors, social, behavioral, and medical concern categories. Parent concerns were associated with therapies received and specialists consulted. The number of concern categories was positively associated with several ASD scores.",
"The aim of this study is to survey parental report of screening signs of auditory processing problem in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) children and its association with gender and co-morbidity with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and separation anxiety (SAD). 104 children and adolescents referrals to the child and adolescent psychiatry clinic were interviewed. The auditory processing problem checklist asked parents to indicate their child's reaction to sounds. It screens signs of two aspects of auditory processing problem including hypersensitivity to sounds (HES) (or auditory defensiveness) and hyposensitivity to sound (HOS) (under-registers). The mean age of the children was 8.5 (SD=1.8). Children with ODD had significantly higher HES, HOS and the whole checklist mean scores. Subtypes of ADHD were not associated with the auditory processing problems.",
"From birth, infants show a preference for the faces, gaze, and voices of others. In individuals with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs) these biases seem to be disturbed. The source of these disturbances is not well-understood, but recent efforts have shown that the spontaneous deployment of attention to social targets might be atypical as early as 6 months of age. The nature of this atypical behavior and the conditions under which it arises are currently unknown. We used eye-tracking to examine the gaze patterns of 6-month-old infants (n = 99) at high risk (n = 57) and low risk (n = 42) for developing ASD as they viewed faces that were: 1) still; 2) moving and expressing positive affect; or 3) speaking. Clinical outcomes were determined through a comprehensive assessment at the age of 3 years. The scanning patterns of infants later diagnosed with ASD were compared with infants without an ASD outcome. Infants who later developed ASD spent less time looking at the presented scenes in general than other infants. When these infants looked at faces, their looking toward the inner features of faces decreased compared with the other groups only when the presented face was speaking.",
"yes. The prominent associations among early oral- and manual-motor skills and later speech fluency bear implications for understanding communication in autism. For instance, these associations challenge the common assumption (made even in diagnostic criteria) that manual modes of communication are available to autistic individuals - if simply they choose to use them. These associations also highlight a potential confound from manual-motor skills when assessing autistic cognition, receptive language, and 'nonverbal' social communication.",
"yes. These results suggest an association between zinc and copper plasma levels and autism, and they suggest that zinc therapy may be most effective at lowering copper levels in autistic children with GI disease.",
"Although there is no known efficacious pharmacotherapy for core symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD), psychotropic medications are commonly prescribed for behavioral/emotional symptoms associated with ASD. We reviewed current evidence-based pharmacotherapy options and updates from recent noteworthy studies. Atypical antipsychotics, particularly risperidone and aripiprazole, are effective in reducing irritability, stereotypy and hyperactivity. Metabolic adverse events, including weight gain and dyslipidemia, are common. Methylphenidate is effective in reducing attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) symptoms. Atomoxetine and alpha-2 agonists appear effective in reducing ADHD symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are not effective in improving repetitive behaviors in children with ASD, and frequently cause activating adverse events. Efficacy of antiepileptic drugs is inconclusive. Overall, efficacy and tolerability of pharmacotherapy in children with ASD are less favorable than data seen in typically developing children with similar symptoms. Newer agents, including glutamatergic agents and oxytocin, appear promising albeit with mixed results.",
"The hallmark characteristic of autism is impaired reciprocal social interaction. While children find social interaction stress-reducing, many children with autism may find social interaction stress-inducing. The current study was designed to examine stress responsivity as measured by cortisol by comparing children with autism to neurotypical peers during an ecologically valid 20-minute playground paradigm. The experiment involved sets of three children: a child with autism, a neurotypical child, and a confederate. Participants included 45 prepubescent males between 8 and 12 years of age (21 with autism and 24 neurotypical children). Children with autism showed fewer initiations (χ²(1) = 4.03, P = 0.044), rejected initiations from others more (χ²(1) = 7.10, P = 0.008) and spent less time interacting during motor (F(1,43) = 16.7, P = 0.0002) and cooperative (F(1,43) = 14.78, P = 0.0004) play. Repeated measures analysis of the cortisol values revealed a significant model (χ²(4) = 22.76, P < 0.0005) that included time of measurement, diagnosis and age as main effects and an interaction between diagnosis and age. Thus, as age increased among children with autism, they experienced enhanced cortisol levels while age did not modify expected cortisol levels for typical children. Stress responsivity was associated with more peripheral equipment play for motor (χ²(3) = 12.3, P = 0.006) and cooperative (χ²(3) = 8.24, P = 0.04) play as well as reduced nonverbal social skills during motor (χ²(1) = 5.52, P = 0.018) and cooperative play (χ²(1) = 4.53, P = 0.033).",
"This study was designed to assess whether children with a sensory disability have consistent delays in acquiring emotion recognition and emotion understanding abilities. Younger (6-11 years) and older (12-18 years) hearing-impaired children (HI; n = 49), vision-impaired children (VI; n = 42), and children with no sensory impairment (NSI; n = 72) were assessed with the Emotion Recognition Scales (ERS), which include two tests of the ability to recognize vocal expressions of emotion, two tests of the ability to recognize facial expressions of emotion, and three tests of emotion understanding. Results indicate that when compared with age-peers, HI children and adolescents have significant delays or deficits on all ERS, but VI children and adolescents are delayed only on emotion recognition tasks. When compared with children group-matched for verbal ability (Wechsler verbal scales), the achievement of HI children on ERS equals or exceeds that of controls; VI children underachieve on an emotion recognition task and overachieve on an emotion vocabulary task compared to verbal ability matched peers.",
"ADHD children with ODD are likely to be at a significant risk for manifesting both of the auditory processing problem including defensiveness and auditory hyposensitivity to sounds. Auditory processing problems do not differentiate different subtypes of ADHD.",
"Our findings combined with the results of poor eye gaze to expressions of fear in previous studies suggest that ASD individuals can derive information pertaining to positive emotion, but cannot sufficiently extract information pertaining to negative emotion from another's eyes.",
"yes. We discuss the theoretical and clinical implications of the brain's response to speech sound contrasts possibly explaining the greater non-verbal versus language ability in children with ASD compared with that in typically developing children.",
"yes. This study shows that exposure of neonatal mice to inhaled sevoflurane could cause not only learning deficits but also abnormal social behaviors resembling autism spectrum disorder.",
"These findings demonstrate that children with autism do not have a general difficulty in connecting context information and item information as predicted by weak central coherence theory. Instead the results suggest that there is specific difficulty with complex verbal stimuli and in particular with using sentence context to disambiguate meaning.",
"yes. The present findings support a comorbidity model that argues for shared and independent risk factors, because ADHD and autism symptoms related to independent aspects of emotional go/no-go performance.",
"yes. Knowing that low levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin may be inherited, and that low levels of AAT may be associated with GI disease in autistic children, genotyping autistic children may help identify individuals susceptible to developing digestive problems.",
"yes. Autistic features observed in our patients suggest that genes in the duplicated interval should be considered as candidates for disorders in the autistic spectrum. Other phenotypic observations are rather variable or aspecific. This adds 17q21.31 duplications to a growing group of recently identified genomic disorders with variable penetrance and expressivity.",
"The objective of this study was to determine whether functional connectivity of the amygdala is altered in preschool-age children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and to assess the clinical relevance of observed alterations in amygdala connectivity. A resting-state functional connectivity magnetic resonance imaging study of the amygdala (and a parallel study of primary visual cortex) was conducted in 72 boys (mean age 3.5 years; n = 43 with ASD; n = 29 age-matched controls). The ASD group showed significantly weaker connectivity between the amygdala and several brain regions involved in social communication and repetitive behaviors, including bilateral medial prefrontal cortex, temporal lobes, and striatum (p < .05, corrected). Weaker connectivity between the amygdala and frontal and temporal lobes was significantly correlated with increased autism severity in the ASD group (p < .05). In a parallel analysis examining the functional connectivity of primary visual cortex, the ASD group showed significantly weaker connectivity between visual cortex and sensorimotor regions (p < .05, corrected). Weaker connectivity between visual cortex and sensorimotor regions was not correlated with core autism symptoms, but instead was correlated with increased sensory hypersensitivity in the visual/auditory domain (p < .05).",
"This study examined the effects of a light fingertip touch on postural control in children with autism spectrum disorders (ASD) and typically developing children (TDC). We recruited 16 children with ASD (age=11.041±1.275), and 16 TDC (age=10.966±1.166 years). A force platform measured postural sway in the anteroposterior (AP) and mediolateral (ML) directions under light fingertip touch (LT) and no touch (NT) conditions, with both eyes open (EO) and both eyes closed (EC). As a summary of the experimental conditions, ML sway was significantly greater in the ASD group than in the TDC group. Also, results showed a significant reduction in postural sway in the ML direction in the LT condition compared with the NT condition. These effects applied to both the EO and EC conditions. Lastly, the reduction in ML sway between the NT and LT conditions was significantly greater in the ASD than the TDC group.",
"Changes in olfactory functions have been found in many neurodegenerative and psychiatric disorders, including autism spectrum disorders (ASDs). The aim of the present study was to evaluate the relationship between olfactory functions (odor-detection thresholds, odor identification, and odor preference) and autism severity and sensory-related behavior in children and adolescents with ASD. Our sample consisted of 35 high-functioning patients with ASD (mean age 10.8±3.6 years, 31 boys). Olfactory testing (threshold and identification) used the Sniffin' Sticks test. Odor pleasantness was assessed on a 5-point scale using the Identification part of the Sniffin' Sticks test. The severity of autistic psychopathology was measured using the Childhood Autism Rating Scale (CARS). Using Spearman's correlation, we found no significant correlations between autism severity (as expressed by total CARS score) and odor-detection thresholds (R=0.144, P=0.409), odor identification (R=0.07, P=0.966), or odor pleasantness (R=-0.046, P=0.794). There was also no significant relationship between CARS item 9 (\"Taste, smell, and touch response and use\") and odor-detection thresholds (R=0.170, P=0.330), odor identification (R=0.282, P=0.100), or odor pleasantness (R=0.017, P=0.923).",
"The current study is the first to demonstrate that the CHAT successfully discriminates 2-year-old children with autism from those with other developmental disorders. In addition, the increased sensitivity of the Denver Criteria in children with developmental disabilities may improve its usefulness as a screening tool for community-based early-diagnostic teams and general practitioners.",
"Recent studies in epidemiology have highlighted the existence of children with autistic difficulties who remain undiagnosed. Other studies have identified 'access barriers' to clinics which include factors mediated by parents as well as health and education services. The purpose of this study was to examine whether social and demographic factors play a role in receiving a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder (ASD) independently of symptom severity. Retrospective secondary analysis of a longitudinal UK cohort study, namely, the Avon Longitudinal Study of Parents and Children (ALSPAC). With the severity of autistic traits held constant, boys were more likely to receive an ASD diagnosis than girls. Younger mothers and mothers of first-born children were significantly less likely to have children diagnosed with ASD. Maternal depression before and around the time of their children's autistic difficulties was associated with lack of diagnosis.",
"Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) both have psychiatric comorbidities and distinctive profiles of executive dysfunction. Although there is evidence that executive function (EF) plays a role in the expression of specific behaviors and psychiatric symptoms, it is not known whether specific EF deficits in ASD and ADHD may be pathways to comorbidities in the disorders. This study examines whether parent reported problems with flexibility in ASD and inhibition in ADHD mediate the disorders' associations with anxiety/depression and oppositional/aggressive behavior, respectively. Parent report data from the Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function (BRIEF) and the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL) were obtained for 125 children (70 ASD, 55 ADHD Hyperactive/Impulsive or Combined type) as part of a neuropsychological assessment. Diagnostic status, BRIEF Shift (shifting/flexibility) and Inhibit (behavioral inhibition) scale scores, and CBCL Anxious/Depressed (anxiety/depression) and Aggressive Behavior (oppositionality/aggression) scale scores were analyzed with a path analysis to investigate the relation of flexibility and inhibition to comorbid symptoms in children with ASD and ADHD. In a path model with good fit ASD predicted greater inflexibility which predicted greater anxiety/depression, while ADHD predicted greater disinhibition that predicted greater aggression, consistent with our mediational hypotheses. Unexpectedly, the greater inflexibility associated with ASD also predicted greater aggression.",
"Many children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) demonstrate verbal communication disorders reflected in lower verbal than non-verbal abilities. The present study examined the extent to which this discrepancy is associated with atypical speech sound differentiation. Differences in the amplitude of auditory event-related potentials elicited by contrasting consonant-vowel syllables during a passive listening paradigm were used to assess speech sound differentiation in 24 children with ASD and 18 chronological age-matched children with typical development (TD), M age 6.90 years (SD = 1.39). Results revealed that compared with TD peers, children with ASD showed reduced consonant differentiation in the 84- to 308-ms period. Brain responses indexing consonant differentiation were negatively related to the degree of discrepancy in non-verbal and verbal abilities and mediated the relationship between diagnostic group membership and the greater discrepancy.",
"A large body of evidence suggests that several aspects of face processing are impaired in autism and that this impairment might be hereditary. This study was aimed at assessing facial emotion recognition in parents of children with autism and its associations with a functional polymorphism of the serotonin transporter (5HTTLPR). We evaluated 40 parents of children with autism and 41 healthy controls. All participants were administered the Penn Emotion Recognition Test (ER40) and were genotyped for 5HTTLPR. Our study showed that parents of children with autism performed worse in the facial emotion recognition test than controls. Analyses of error patterns showed that parents of children with autism over-attributed neutral to emotional faces. We found evidence that 5HTTLPR polymorphism did not influence the performance in the Penn Emotion Recognition Test, but that it may determine different error patterns.",
"To investigate whether autistic subjects show a different pattern of neural activity than healthy individuals during processing of faces and complex patterns. Blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) signal changes accompanying visual processing of faces and complex patterns were analyzed in an autistic group (n = 7; 25.3 [6.9] years) and a control group (n = 7; 27.7 [7.8] years). Compared with unaffected subjects, autistic subjects demonstrated lower BOLD signals in the fusiform gyrus, most prominently during face processing, and higher signals in the more object-related medial occipital gyrus. Further signal increases in autistic subjects vs controls were found in regions highly important for visual search: the superior parietal lobule and the medial frontal gyrus, where the frontal eye fields are located.",
"Atypical social interactions were not observed among infants who later screened positive for autism. Instead, the presence of gaze aversion and endpoint nystagmus was related to better developmental outcomes. Understanding early behaviors associated with autism may enable early identification and lead to timely therapy activation to improve function.",
"yes. Listening to Mozart music decreased epileptiform discharges in children with epilepsy. The majority of these patients showed an increase in parasympathetic tone during music exposure.",
"Children with developmental language disorders have been shown to be impaired not only in language processing (including syntax), but also in rhythm and meter perception. Our study tested the influence of external rhythmic auditory stimulation (i.e., musical rhythm) on syntax processing in children with specific language impairment (SLI; Experiment 1A) and dyslexia (Experiment 1B). Children listened to either regular or irregular musical prime sequences followed by blocks of grammatically correct and incorrect sentences. They were required to perform grammaticality judgments for each auditorily presented sentence. Performance of all children (SLI, dyslexia, and controls) in the grammaticality judgments was better after regular prime sequences than after irregular prime sequences, as shown by d' data. The benefit of the regular prime was stronger for SLI children (partial η2 = .34) than for dyslexic children (partial η2 = .14), who reached higher performance levels.",
"Although impaired sensory processing accompanies various clinical conditions, the question of its status as an independent disorder remains open. Our goal was to delineate the comorbidity (or lack thereof) between childhood psychopathology and sensory over-responsivity (SOR) in middle childhood using phenotypic and behavior-genetic analyses. Participants (N = 970) were drawn from the Wisconsin Twin Project, a population-based sample of twins and their families. Mothers completed a sensory responsivity checklist when their offspring were on average 7 years old, followed by a diagnostic interview (Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children; DISC) within 6-12 months. We examined the incidence of DISC diagnoses - attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, agoraphobia, general anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, panic disorder, separation anxiety, social phobia, specific phobia, depression, enuresis, trichtollomaniatics, selective mutism, and pica - among children with SOR, and vice versa. Children with autism or pervasive developmental disorders were excluded from the present study. In addition, we examined parent-reported physical health diagnoses among nondiagnosed children and three groups of children with SOR and/or DISC diagnoses. Biometric models explored common underlying genetic and environmental influences on symptoms of SOR and psychopathology. A majority of individuals who screened positive for SOR did not qualify for a DISC diagnosis (58.2%), and vice versa (68.3%). Children who screened positive for SOR only and typical children had similar rates of physical health problems. Turning to a dimensional approach, multivariate twin models demonstrated that modest covariation between SOR and DISC symptoms could be entirely accounted for by common underlying genetic effects.",
"It has been debated whether attending to a particular facial region, such as the eyes, is impaired in children with autism. The purpose of this study was to verify the poor eye gaze hypothesis postulating that children with High-Functioning Autism (HFA)/AS are impaired in their ability to attend to another's eyes. Our study used the \"Bubbles\" method. A group with ASD (n=15) and a paired non-ASD group (n=18) completed an identity judgment task requiring a binary judgment of the identity of a person in an image, and an emotion judgment task requiring perception of expressed happiness in a facial image. Results indicated that similar to non-ASD individuals, ASD individuals used information from other people's eyes to judge identity as well as emotion, and performed as successfully as the non-ASD group both in identity and emotion judgment tasks. The results challenge the conventional hypothesis that individuals with ASD cannot attend to or derive information from another's eyes.",
"yes. Impaired recognition of emotions would appear not to be specific to the visual modality but to be present also when emotions are expressed vocally, this impairment being related to depression severity and dysexecutive syndrome. MDD seems to skew the recognition of emotional prosody toward negative emotional stimuli and the blunting of positive emotion appears not to be restricted to the visual modality.",
"Autism spectrum disorders (ASD) and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) frequently co-occur. Given the heterogeneity of both disorders, several more homogeneous ASD-ADHD comorbidity subgroups may exist. The current study examined whether such subgroups exist, and whether their overlap or distinctiveness in associated comorbid symptoms and cognitive profiles gives support for a gradient overarching disorder hypothesis or a separate disorders hypothesis. Latent class analysis was performed on Social Communication Questionnaire (SCQ) and Conners' Parent Rating Scale (CPRS-R:L) data for 644 children and adolescents (5 through 17 years of age). Classes were compared for comorbid symptoms and cognitive profiles of motor speed and variability, executive functioning, attention, emotion recognition, and detail-focused processing style. Latent class analysis revealed five classes: two without behavioral problems, one with only ADHD behavior, and two with both clinical symptom levels of ASD and ADHD but with one domain more prominent than the other (ADHD[+ASD] and ASD[+ADHD]). In accordance with the gradient overarching disorder hypothesis were the presence of an ADHD class without ASD symptoms and the absence of an ASD class without ADHD symptoms, as well as cognitive functioning of the simple ADHD class being less impaired than that of both comorbid classes. In conflict with this hypothesis was that there was some specificity of cognitive deficits across classes.",
"Children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and those with Williams syndrome (WS) have difficulties with learning, though the nature of these remains unclear. In this study, we used novel eye-tracking and behavioral paradigms to measure how 36 preschoolers with ASD and 21 age- and IQ-matched peers with WS attend to and learn novel behaviors (1) from the outcomes of their own actions (non-social learning), (2) through imitation of others' actions (social learning), and across situations in which imitative learning served either an instrumental function or fulfilled social affiliation motives. The two groups demonstrated similar abilities to learn from the consequences of their own actions and to imitate new actions that were instrumental to the achievement of a tangible goal. Children with WS, unlike those with ASD, increased their attention and imitative learning performance when the model acted in a socially engaging manner.",
"yes. Our study suggests that infants later diagnosed with ASD have difficulties regulating attention to complex social scenes. It also suggests that the presence of speech might uniquely disturb the attention of infants who later develop ASD at a critical developmental point when other infants are acquiring language and learning about their social world.",
"The present investigation examined whether higher functioning children with autism would demonstrate impaired response inhibition performance in an emotional go/no-go task, and whether severity of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) or autism symptoms correlated with performance. Forty-four children (21 meeting criteria for autism; 23 typically developing controls [TDCs]) completed an emotional go/no-go task in which an emotional facial expression (angry, fearful, happy, or sad) was the go stimulus and a neutral facial expression was the no-go stimulus, and vice versa. The autism group was faster than the TDC group on all emotional go trials. Moreover, the children in the autism group who had the fastest reaction times on emotional go trials were rated as having the greatest number of symptoms (Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule Social + Communication score), even after accounting for the association with ADHD symptoms. The autism group also made more impulsive responses (i.e., lower d', more false alarms) than the TDC group on all trials. As d' decreased or false alarms increased, so did ADHD symptoms. Hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms were significantly correlated with false alarms, but inattention symptoms were not. There was not a significant relationship between no-go false alarms and autism symptoms; even after partialing out associations with autism symptoms, the significant correlation between ADHD symptoms and no-go false alarms remained.",
"These preliminary findings suggest a lack of evidence demonstrating NJRE as a manifestation of core autistic traits as measured by the AQ. However, NJRE was associated with sensory abnormalities and an earlier age of OCD onset. The role of NJRE as a developmental, and possibly neurodevelopmental, risk factor for OCD possibly warrants further investigation.",
"yes. Conveyance of emotions or movements through music may be decoded differently by persons with different types of communication disorders. Because music is the primary therapeutic tool in music therapy sessions, clinicians should consider these differential abilities when selecting music for clinical interventions focusing on emotions or movement.",
"yes. In line with previous data suggesting an abnormally broad attentional spotlight and enhanced perceptual function in individuals with ASD, the results of this study suggest enhanced awareness of the visual scene in ASD. The results of this study could reflect superior top-down control of visual search in autism, enhanced perceptual function, or inefficient filtering of visual information in ASD.",
"The results demonstrate that children with TSC show high responsiveness to musical stimuli despite otherwise delayed development (e.g., language, cognition, motor skills). This report is the first stating that children with TSC have a unique tendency in terms of correlation between music and developmental age. These findings indicate a non-delayed area of TSC children's development and suggest the use of music as therapeutic intervention.",
"yes. Present findings indicated maturational abnormalities in the development of primary/secondary auditory areas in children with ASD. It is hypothesized that a longitudinal investigation of the maturation of auditory network activity will indicate delayed development of each component of the auditory processing system in ASD.",
"yes. These findings indicate that preschool-age children with ASD have disrupted functional connectivity between the amygdala and regions of the brain important for social communication and language, which might be clinically relevant because weaker connectivity was associated with increased autism severity. Moreover, although amygdala connectivity was associated with behavioral domains that are diagnostic of ASD, altered connectivity of primary visual cortex was related to sensory hypersensitivity.",
"yes. While in certain contexts toddlers with autism attend to people and objects in a typical manner, they show decreased attentional response to dyadic cues for attention. Given that mechanisms supporting responsivity to dyadic cues are present shortly after birth and are highly consequential for development of social cognition and communication, these findings have important implications for the understanding of the underlying mechanisms of limited social monitoring and identifying pivotal targets for treatment.",
"This study presents two experiments that investigated whether children with autism were susceptible to the Thatcher illusion. Perception of the Thatcher illusion requires being able to compute second-order configural relations for facial stimuli. In both experiments children with autism were matched for non-verbal and verbal ability with a group of children with moderate (non-specific) mental retardation (MLD) and a group of typically developing children respectively. Participants were asked to detect the 'unusual' face in a two-alternative-forced-choice version of the Margaret Thatcher illusion with grey-scale (Experiment 1) and monochrome 'Mooney' face images (Experiment 2). In Experiment 1 participants also performed a control task where buildings had been doctored in the same way as the facial stimuli. Children with autism were as susceptible to the Thatcher illusion as both control groups, in terms of accuracy and reaction time to make decisions about which face was unusual. Children with autism performed more accurately than children with MLD in the buildings task.",
"Autistic disorder (AD) and Williams syndrome (WS) are neurodevelopmental disorders characterized by contrasting abnormal social behavior (the former, socially avoidant; the latter, outwardly social); nonetheless, there are individuals with WS who display some behaviors that are characteristic of AD. We quantified the extent to which autism spectrum disorder (ASD) behaviors were present in children with WS. Twenty children with WS (27-58 months) and 26 age- and IQ-equivalent children with AD were administered the Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule (ADOS). ADOS behaviors were compared between groups. Two children with WS met DSM-IV criteria for AD, one of whom was also classified as having AD by the ADOS algorithm. Discriminant analysis of ADOS behaviors indicated that gesture, showing, and quality of social overtures best discriminated the groups.",
"Individuals with autistic spectrum disorder (ASD) experience atypical visual perception, yet the etiology of this remains unknown. The aim of this study was to investigate the neural correlates of visual perception in individuals with and without ASD by carrying out a detailed analysis of the dynamic brain processes elicited by perception of a simple visual stimulus. We investigated perception in 20 individuals with ASD and 20 control subjects with electroencephalography (EEG). Visual evoked potentials elicited by Gabor patches of varying spatial frequency and stimulus-induced changes in alpha- and gamma-frequency bands of independent components were compared in those with and without ASD. By decomposing the EEG data into independent components, we identified several processes that contributed to the average event related potential recorded at the scalp. Differences between the ASD and control groups were found only in some of these processes. Specifically, in those components that were in or near the striate or extrastriate cortex, stimulus spatial frequency exerted a smaller effect on induced increases in alpha- and gamma-band power, and time to peak alpha-band power was reduced, in the participants with ASD. Induced alpha-band power of components that were in or near the cingulate gyrus was increased in the participants with ASD, and the components that were in or near the parietal cortex did not differ between the two groups.",
"This study examined the ability of prelingually deaf children with bilateral implants to identify emotion (i.e. happiness or sadness) in speech and music. Participants in Experiment 1 were 14 prelingually deaf children from 5-7 years of age who had bilateral implants and 18 normally hearing children from 4-6 years of age. They judged whether linguistically neutral utterances produced by a man and woman sounded happy or sad. Participants in Experiment 2 were 14 bilateral implant users from 4-6 years of age and the same normally hearing children as in Experiment 1. They judged whether synthesized piano excerpts sounded happy or sad. Child implant users' accuracy of identifying happiness and sadness in speech was well above chance levels but significantly below the accuracy achieved by children with normal hearing. Similarly, their accuracy of identifying happiness and sadness in music was well above chance levels but significantly below that of children with normal hearing, who performed at ceiling. For the 12 implant users who participated in both experiments, performance on the speech task correlated significantly with performance on the music task and implant experience was correlated with performance on both tasks.",
"yes. Child implant users' accurate identification of emotion in speech exceeded performance in previous studies, which may be attributable to fewer response alternatives and the use of child-directed speech. Moreover, child implant users' successful identification of emotion in music indicates that the relevant cues are accessible at a relatively young age.",
"Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC) is an autosomal dominant disorder that manifests with symptoms that might include mental retardation, epilepsy, skin lesions, and hamartomas in the heart, brain, and kidneys. Anecdotal reports have characterized children with TSC as having high music responsiveness despite their developmental delay. This study is intended to investigate this putative musical skill of children with TSC and to elucidate the presence of non-delayed facets of their development.MATERIAL/ This study examined 11 children with TSC: 10 children with DSM-IV autism and 92 healthy children who participated as control subjects. Correlation was examined between results obtained using Non-Verbal MMRC, which is a validated musical responsiveness battery, and results of a scientifically accepted standardized pediatric developmental test: the New Edition of the Kyoto Scale of Psychological Development. Inter-rater reliability among the three raters was also assessed. The rhythm or melody score on the Non-Verbal MMRC and DA among children with TSC showed no significant correlation. In contrast, a significant correlation was found among normal children and those with autism. Moreover, the inter-rater reliability was good.",
"yes. Schizophrenia patients, unlike autistic individuals, suffer a domain-general difficulty with empathetic perspective-taking that affects equally their appreciation of other people's beliefs, percepts, and emotions.",
"yes. The contrasting performance in emotional processing between visual and auditory stimuli suggests that APD candidates for surgery have either a selective difficulty in recognizing emotions in prosody or a general defect in prosody processing. Studies investigating early-stage PD, and the effect of subcortical lesions in prosody processing, favor the latter interpretation. Further research is needed to understand these deficits in emotional prosody recognition and their possible contribution to later behavioral or neuropsychiatric manifestations of PD.",
"yes. Recognition of the marked receptive language impairment relative to expressive language, found to affect at least one-third of preschoolers with autism in this sample, has important implications for interacting with these children and for informing appropriate targets in language and communication intervention.",
"Findings of auditory abnormalities in children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) include delayed superior temporal gyrus auditory responses, pre- and post-stimulus superior temporal gyrus (STG) auditory oscillatory abnormalities, and atypical hemispheric lateralization. These abnormalities are likely associated with abnormal brain maturation. To better understand changes in brain activity as a function of age, the present study investigated associations between age and STG auditory time-domain and time-frequency neural activity. While 306-channel magnetoencephalography (MEG) data were recorded, 500- and 1000-Hz tones of 300-ms duration were binaurally presented. Evaluable data were obtained from 63 typically developing children (TDC) (6 to 14 years old) and 52 children with ASD (6 to 14 years old). T1-weighted structural MRI was obtained, and a source model created using single dipoles anatomically constrained to each participant's left and right STG. Using this source model, left and right 50-ms (M50), 100-ms (M100), and 200-ms (M200) time-domain and time-frequency measures (total power (TP) and inter-trial coherence (ITC)) were obtained. Paired t tests showed a right STG M100 latency delay in ASD versus TDC (significant for right 500 Hz and marginally significant for right 1000 Hz). In the left and right STG, time-frequency analyses showed a greater pre- to post-stimulus increase in 4- to 16-Hz TP for both tones in ASD versus TDC after 150 ms. In the right STG, greater post-stimulus 4- to 16-Hz ITC for both tones was observed in TDC versus ASD after 200 ms. Analyses of age effects suggested M200 group differences that were due to a maturational delay in ASD, with left and right M200 decreasing with age in TDC but significantly less so in ASD. Additional evidence indicating delayed maturation of auditory cortex in ASD included atypical hemispheric functional asymmetries, including a right versus left M100 latency advantage in TDC but not ASD, and a stronger left than right M50 response in TDC but not ASD.",
"A diagnostic hallmark of autism spectrum disorders is a qualitative impairment in social communication and interaction. Deficits in the ability to recognize the emotions of others are believed to contribute to this. There is currently no effective treatment for these problems. In a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled, crossover design, we administered oxytocin nasal spray (18 or 24 IU) or a placebo to 16 male youth aged 12 to 19 who were diagnosed with Autistic or Asperger's Disorder. Participants then completed the Reading the Mind in the Eyes Task, a widely used and reliable test of emotion recognition. In comparison with placebo, oxytocin administration improved performance on the Reading the Mind in the Eyes Task. This effect was also shown when analysis was restricted to the younger participants aged 12 to 15 who received the lower dose.",
"Previous research has demonstrated the capacity of animal presence to stimulate social interaction among humans. The purpose of this study was to examine the interactions of children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) with an adult and their typically-developing peers in the presence of animals (two guinea pigs) compared to toys. Ninety-nine children from 15 classrooms in 4 schools met the inclusion criteria and participated in groups of three (1 child with ASD and 2 typically-developing peers). Each group was video-recorded during three 10-minute, free-play sessions with toys and three 10-minute, free-play sessions with two guinea pigs. Two blinded observers coded the behavior of children with ASD and their peers. To account for the nested study design, data were analyzed using hierarchical generalized linear modeling. Participants with ASD demonstrated more social approach behaviors (including talking, looking at faces, and making tactile contact) and received more social approaches from their peers in the presence of animals compared to toys. They also displayed more prosocial behaviors and positive affect (i.e., smiling and laughing) as well as less self-focused behaviors and negative affect (i.e., frowning, crying, and whining) in the presence of animals compared to toys.",
"no. Facial emotion recognition deficits are more common in first-degree relatives of autistic patients than in the general population, suggesting that facial emotion recognition is a candidate endophenotype for autism.",
"Although several previous studies have been conducted, the neural basis of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is poorly understood. The objective of the present study was to determine whether individuals with ASD have altered brain chemical metabolites and whether such alterations are related to their autistic symptoms. N-acetylaspartate (NAA)/creatine (Cr) and choline/Cr ratios in the right medial temporal lobe (MTL), medial prefrontal cortex, and cerebellar vermis were measured in 38 individuals with ASD (mean age = 12.9 years), including 12 with autism, 15 with Asperger's Disorder, and 11 with pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS), and 16 matched healthy control subjects (mean age = 11.5 years) with proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy. Autistic symptoms were assessed by the Childhood Autistic Rating Scale-Tokyo Version. There was a significant group difference for NAA/Cr ratio in the right MTL between the autism, Asperger's Disorder, PDD-NOS, and control groups (p < .001), and the autism group had a significantly lower NAA/Cr ratio compared with the PDD-NOS (p < .001) and control (p < .001) groups. In the ASD group, there was a significant negative correlation between NAA/Cr ratio in the right MTL and their Childhood Autistic Rating Scale-Tokyo Version total scores (r = -.44, p = .01) and subscales of emotional response (r = -.38, p = .02) and listening response (r = -.54, p = .001).",
"This study investigated relations among empathy and cradling bias in children diagnosed with autism spectrum disorders (ASDs). Twenty children with ASDs and 20 typically developing (TD) children, aged 5-15 years old, cradled a doll as if it were an infant s/he was putting to sleep on three separate occasions. We recorded side preference on each occasion. Children with ASDs showed no preference for cradling side whereas TD children showed a strong left-sided preference. To the best of our knowledge, children with ASDs are the only population that does not exhibit cradling bias.",
"yes. Taken together, the model results provide some evidence that early motor abilities in young children with ASD can have longitudinal cross-domain influences, potentially contributing, in part, to the linguistic difficulties that characterise ASD. Autism Res 2016, 9: 993-1001. © 2015 The Authors Autism Research published by Wiley Periodicals, Inc. on behalf of International Society for Autism Research.",
"Many of children with autism have hyperacusia, an increased sensation to sound. It can lead to their avoidance from some sounds or they may cover their ears. There was not found any published report about possible effect of any medication for improving hyperacusia in children with autism. The patient is a 5 and half year old girl with autism and hyperacusia. According to her mother's report, severity of hyperacusia was improved after taking risperidone.",
"Effective musical communication requires conveyance of the intended message in a manner perceptible to the receiver. Communication disorders that impair transmitting or decoding of structural features of music (e.g., pitch, timbre) and/or symbolic representation may result in atypical musical communication, which can have a negative impact on music therapy interventions. This study compared recognition of symbolic representation of emotions or movements in music by two groups of children with different communicative characteristics: severe to profound hearing loss (using cochlear implants [CI]) and autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Their responses were compared to those of children with typical-development and normal hearing (TD-NH). Accuracy was examined as a function of communicative status, emotional or movement category, and individual characteristics. Participants listened to recorded musical excerpts conveying emotions or movements and matched them with labels. Measures relevant to auditory and/or language function were also gathered. There was no significant difference between the ASD and TD-NH groups in identification of musical emotions or movements. However, the CI group was significantly less accurate than the other two groups in identification of both emotions and movements. Mixed effects logistic regression revealed different patterns of accuracy for specific emotions as a function of group.",
"In contrast to their performance within social and interpersonal domains, children with autistic disorders showed no deficits in processing affect in musical stimuli.",
"Children with autistic spectrum disorders typically show impairments in processing affective information within social and interpersonal domains. It has yet to be established whether such difficulties persist in the area of music; a domain which is characteristically rich in emotional content. Fourteen children with autism and Asperger syndrome and their age and intelligence matched controls were tested for their ability to identify the affective connotations of melodies in the major or minor musical mode. They were required to match musical fragments with schematic representations of happy and sad faces. The groups did not differ in their ability to ascribe the musical examples to the two affective categories."
] | 485 |
Is there a role for pneumonectomy in pulmonary metastases? | [
"Although sublobar and lobar resections are accepted operations for pulmonary metastases, pneumonectomy is viewed as a major incursion on Stage IV patients. We considered it important to ascertain the current results of pneumonectomy for pulmonary metastases since little information is available. Of the 5,206 patients with pulmonary metastasectomy reported by the International Registry of Lung Metastases, 133 (3%) underwent primary, and 38 (1%) completion pneumonectomy between 1962 and 1994. Data were analyzed to determine the operative mortality rates, survival rates, and determinants of survival. Primary pneumonectomy was performed for metastatic disease mainly from epithelial (49%, 65 of 133) and sarcomatous (33%, 43 of 133) tumors. Indications were central lesion, eg, proximal endobronchial or hilar nodal metastases. Operative mortality was 4% (4 of 112) and a 5-year survival rate of 20% was achieved following complete resection (R0) in 112 patients. In contrast, the 21 incompletely resected patients had an operative mortality rate of 19% (4 of 21), and the majority did not survive beyond 2 years (p = 0.02). Survival was determined by the completeness of resection and not histology of the primary tumor, number of metastases, nodal status, and disease-free interval. In the 38 completion pneumonectomy patients, 35 were operated for recurrent disease and 3 for residual disease. Sarcomatous secondaries predominated in 28 patients. Complete resection was achieved in 31 patients (82%). The operative mortality rate was 3% (1 of 38 patients) and the 5-year survival rate was 30%.",
"Pneumonectomies for pulmonary metastases, albeit infrequently performed, were associated with acceptable operative mortality and long-term survival when performed in selected patients amenable to complete resection."
] | [
"In the United States the majority of lung cancer resections are performed by general surgeons, although surgeons specializing in thoracic surgery have demonstrated superior perioperative and long-term oncologic outcomes. Why these differences exist has not been well studied. We hypothesized that the completeness of intraoperative oncologic staging may explain some of these differences. The Nationwide Inpatient Sample (NIS) database was used to review 222,233 patients with primary lung cancer treated surgically with wedge resection, segmentectomy, lobectomy, or pneumonectomy from 1998 to 2007. Surgeons were classified as general thoracic surgeons if they performed greater than 75% general thoracic operations and less than 10% cardiac operations; they were classified as cardiac surgeons if they performed greater than 10% cardiac operations; they were classified as general surgeons if they performed less than 75% thoracic operations and less than 10% cardiac operations. The main outcome measure was the performance of lymphadenectomy or mediastinoscopy during the same admission as the cancer resection. The overall lymphadenectomy rate was 56% (n = 125,115) and was highest for general thoracic surgeons at 73% (n = 13,313), followed by 55% (n = 65,453) for general surgeons, and 54% (n = 46,349) for cardiac surgeons (p < 0.0001). General surgeons had a significantly higher risk for in-hospital mortality (odds ratio [OR], 1.47; confidence interval [CI], 1.14 to 1.90; p = 0.003) and postoperative complications (OR, 1.17; CI, 1.00 to 1.36; p = 0.043) compared with general thoracic surgeons.",
"In this patient population, given the low incidence of postoperative pulmonary complications, targeted respiratory physiotherapy may not be required in addition to standard care involving a clinical pathway following pulmonary resection via open thoracotomy. These results should be extrapolated with caution to those patients undergoing pulmonary resection with poor preoperative lung function.",
"Thoracoscopic pneumonectomy can be done safely. The availability of this option is important especially in an era of multimodality therapy as more debilitated patients present for surgical therapy.",
"yes. Surgeon specialty impacts the adequacy of oncologic staging in patients undergoing resection for primary lung cancer. Specifically, general thoracic surgeons performed intraoperative oncologic staging significantly more often than did their general surgeon and cardiac surgeon counterparts while achieving significantly lower in-hospital mortality and complication rates.",
"no. The metastasis rate of station 9 lymph nodes was significantly lower than other mediastinal stations in lung cancer patients. The metastasis status of station 9 had no significant influence on tumor staging or prognosis. Routine dissection of station 9 lymph nodes may not be necessary, especially in patients with a low T stage, upper or middle lobe tumors, or without intrapulmonary lymph node metastasis.",
"yes. Pre-operatively detected IPN represent lung metastases in a substantial portion of patients undergoing surgery for hepatic malignancy. IPN are more likely to represent lung metastases in patients with CRCLM compared to those with primary HB and other cancers.",
"yes. A preoperative GPS of 2 effectively predicts a prolonged ICU stay in patients who undergo pneumonectomy for cancer. The score may be proposed as an easy-to-determine, economical, and fast preoperative tool to plan and optimize ICU admissions after elective pneumonectomy.",
"Regarding pneumonectomies performed in Japan during the period analyzed, use of the less-invasive approach increased but bronchopleural fistula was still a major complication. The rate of hospital deaths among pneumonectomy patients worsened 2 years in a row. What is of critical importance is not the choice of approach--VATS or open thoracotomy--but the surgeon's efforts to find a chance to perform lung-saving surgery.",
"The role for repeat pulmonary metastasectomy for colorectal carcinoma has not been well defined. To identify the class of patients who benefit from pulmonary resection of recurrent pulmonary metastases, we herein reviewed our institutional experience. Between 1990 and 2007, 84 patients with pulmonary metastases from colorectal carcinomas underwent complete pulmonary resection, and 22 of them (26%) later underwent complete resection for repeat pulmonary metastasis. Various perioperative variables were investigated retrospectively in these patients to confirm a role for repeat metastasectomy and analyze prognostic factors after repeat pulmonary metastasectomy. Overall survival and disease-free survival after repeat pulmonary metastasectomy were, respectively, 61 and 32% at 5 years. On univariate analysis, male gender and less than 1 year of disease-free status after the first pulmonary metastasectomy demonstrated significantly adverse overall survival (p = 0.01 and p = 0.009, respectively). Elevated preoperative serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level and maximum tumor size larger than 3 cm were also significantly adverse prognostic factors for disease-free survival (p = 0.03 and p = 0.04, respectively). The overall survival curve after repeat pulmonary metastasectomy was almost identical with that after complete resection of the first pulmonary metastasis.",
"yes. Thoracoscopic lobectomy is applicable to a spectrum of malignant and benign pulmonary disease and is associated with a low perioperative morbidity and mortality rate. Survival rates are comparable to those for lobectomy with thoracotomy.",
"It is inappropriate and inadequate to omit lobectomy or lymph node dissection only on the basis of tumor size. Therefore, it seems reasonable to conclude that lobectomy plus lymph node dissection still remains as a standard surgical procedure to treat cT1N0M0 adenocarcinoma of the lung. We must continue to search for new deciding factors in order to choose candidates for limited operation among patients with cT1N0M0 adenocarcinoma of the lung.",
"yes. Our findings indicate that local PPP treatment of the bronchial stump after pneumonectomy decreased necrosis and could have a protective effect on the bronchial stump.",
"yes. For patients with stage I non-small cell lung cancer, segmental resection offers preservation of pulmonary function compared with lobectomy and does not compromise survival. Segmentectomy should be considered whenever permitted by anatomic location.",
"yes. Daily CXRs are not needed in the vast majority of patients who undergo elective pulmonary resection after thoracotomy. It is of little benefit for patients who do not have a pneumothorax on their recovery room CXR or for patients who do not become hypoxic.",
"This study evaluated long-term outcomes of pulmonary metastasectomy for solitary lung metastases to clarify the role of video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery in the selected population. We retrospectively investigated oncologic results after the resection of solitary lung metastases guided by thin-section chest computed tomography scans in 105 patients. Pulmonary metastasectomy for solitary lung metastases was approached by thoracotomy (n = 43) and by thoracoscopy (n = 62). Compared to the thoracotomy group, the thoracoscopy group had a shorter hospital stay (p<0.001) postoperatively. Intrathoracic recurrence developed in 11 (25.6 %) patients in the thoracotomy group and 15 (24.2 %) in the thoracoscopy group. 19 patients (18.1 %) underwent re-metastasectomy during the median 36-month (5-113) follow-up (p = 0.693). Re-metastasectomy was performed in 8 patients (18.6 %) in the thoracotomy group and in 11 patients (17.7 %) in the thoracoscopy group (p = 0.910). Overall survival was not significantly different between the two groups (p = 0.210). Intrathoracic recurrence was the only significant risk factor for overall survival (p = 0.036) in multivariate analysis.",
"yes. PET scan proved to be a valuable staging procedure in patients with clinically resectable lung metastasis and changed the therapeutic management in a high proportion of cases.",
"PVE during major hepatic resection neither improves nor worsens long-term prognosis but allows resection in a patient group that, otherwise, is considered as unresectable. Remote metastasis involving the lung, bone, or stomach was seen more frequently postoperatively in Group P compared with Group N, raising a possibly important issue regarding the use of this approach for the treatment of patients with hepatic malignancies, especially HCC.",
"The presence of extrapulmonary sarcomatous metastases has traditionally been a contraindication for the resection of pulmonary metastases. We, therefore, reviewed our experience with resection of pulmonary metastases in patients who had documented extrapulmonary metastases to determine long-term outcome. From 1998 to 2006, 234 patients underwent pulmonary metastasectomy. They were grouped as follows: group A (lung metastasectomy only); group B1 (with either synchronous or prior extrapulmonary metastasectomy); group B2 (with nonsurgical treatment of synchronous or prior extrapulmonary metastases); group C1 (with later extrapulmonary metastasectomy); group C2 (with later extrapulmonary metastasis which was not resected). Groups A, B1, and B2 consisted of 147 (62.8%), 26 (11.1%), and 13 (5.6%) patients, respectively. The median survival from lung metastasectomy date was 35.5, 37.8, and 13.5 months in groups A, B1, and B2, respectively. Comparison among the three groups showed no significant survival difference in groups A versus B1 (p = 0.96), but a survival difference was found comparing groups A versus B2 (p < 0.001) and B1 versus B2 (p < 0.001). Prognostic factors for increased survival included 3 or greater redo pulmonary operations, greater than 12 month mean time between pulmonary recurrences, greater than 24 month mean time between extrathoracic recurrences, and a prolonged disease-free interval. Prognostic factors for decreased survival included 3 or greater pulmonary metastases and group B2 patients.",
"yes. The TDT of solitary pulmonary metastasis is a significant prognostic factor after surgery for solitary pulmonary metastasis from CRC.",
"Pneumonectomy after concurrent chemoradiation therapy achieved long-term survival. When neoadjuvant therapy resulted in complete response or nodal downstaging, survival was improved. The risk of early perioperative death and complications was higher for right-sided procedures, but long-term survival did not differ between right- and left-sided pneumonectomy. Major complications negatively affected 5-year survival with right-sided pneumonectomies.",
"Mediastinal lymph node dissection is an essential component of lung cancer surgery; however, choosing mediastinal lymph nodes stations to be dissected is subjective. We carried out this research to investigate the need for dissection of station 9 lymph nodes during lung cancer surgery. Patients with primary lung cancer who underwent radical surgery between 2010 and 2014 were retrospectively reviewed. Clinical, pathologic, and prognosis data were obtained and analyzed. A total number of 1397 patients were included in this research. The metastasis rate of station 9 was 3.45%, which was significantly lower than other mediastinal stations. This metastasis rate was significantly correlated with pT stage, the lobe where the tumor was located, metastasis status of intrapulmonary lymph nodes, pTNM stage, and most of the other mediastinal lymph node stations. In males or ground glass opacity (GGO) patients, the metastasis of station 9 nodes was more unlikely to occur, even though there was no statistical significance. The staging results of most patients (99.63%) would not be impaired, even if station 9 nodes were not dissected, and the prognostic analysis showed that the metastasis status of station 9 had no significant influence on survival.",
"yes. We can predict patient prognosis after surgery for non-small cell lung cancer according to the number of lymph nodes instead of the anatomic extent of lymph node metastases. At minimum, the number of metastatic lymph nodes adds more information to the pN category of the current TNM classification system.",
"Bronchioloalveolar lung carcinoma (BAC) is characterized by bronchial and lymphatic dissemination explaining multifocal and bilateral spreading. Bilateral BAC is usually considered as a contraindication to surgery. Regarding poor efficacy of symptomatic and oncological treatments, we hypothesized that surgery might play a role to palliate hypoxemia associated with serious intrapulmonary shunting, as well as continuous bronchorrhea. We retrospectively studied here four consecutive patients, who underwent palliative pneumonectomy. The shunt was confirmed again at the time of the surgery by a pulmonary artery occlusion demonstrating immediate improvement in arterial oxygen saturation from 89% at baseline to 98% after occlusion. Lung resections consisted of a left pneumonectomy in three cases and a right pneumonectomy in one. PaO(2) levels under 5l/min oxygen therapy improved dramatically when comparing preoperative data (mean 50.5 mmHg) to post-operative results (mean 150 mmHg). One patient died postoperatively. Three patients, who experienced an uneventful immediate post-operative course, received chemotherapy after surgery. Improvement of quality of life is testified by the absence of both symptoms and any need for oxygen therapy for few months. Disabling symptoms reappeared at 1, 8 and 10 months. Survival of these patients was 3, 12 and 18 months.",
"The increased operative mortality associated with pneumonectomy has stimulated the use of lung-sparing operations such as sleeve lobectomy. Whether pneumonectomy adversely affects long-term outcome after lung resection is unknown. We reviewed the cases of patients who underwent lobectomy/bilobectomy or pneumonectomy because of non-small cell lung cancer between January 1980 and June 1998. Survival curves were compared by the log-rank test. Covariates were determined for operative mortality and survival using logistic regression analysis and Cox proportional hazards estimation, respectively. There were 259 men and 183 women who underwent lobectomy/bilobectomy (340) or pneumonectomy (102). Operative mortality was 36 (8.1%) patients overall, 24 (7.0%) for lobectomy/bilobectomy and 12 (12%) for pneumonectomy. Mean follow-up was 41 months (range 0-222 months). Median survival was worse for pneumonectomy (stage II: 17.9 vs 36.3 months, log-rank P =. 05; stage III: 11.7 vs 21.3 months, log-rank P =.07). However, important covariates for survival were age, primary tumor status, regional nodal status, and forced expiratory volume in 1 second. After adjusting for these covariates, survival did not differ significantly between the types of operations (hazard ratio for pneumonectomy 1.21; 95% CI 0.88-1.68).",
"yes. Many patients with non-small-cell lung cancer have systemic disease even when they were thought to have resectable tumors. Ligating the pulmonary vein before ligating the artery may lessen intraoperative hematogenous dissemination. Most small-cell lung cancers represent systemic disease even when considered resectable.",
"The long-term benefits and risks of pneumonectomy after neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy remain controversial. This study evaluated our experience with pneumonectomy for advanced non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) after concurrent chemoradiation therapy. We reviewed medical records from patients undergoing concurrent chemoradiation therapy, followed by pneumonectomy (1983 to 2007). Clinical variables affecting Kaplan-Meier survival were analyzed. After chemoradiation therapy, 129 pneumonectomies (right, 65; left, 64) were performed. Postoperative pathologic stages were complete responders (CR), 21; I, 23; II, 19; III, 62; and IV, 4. The 90-day perioperative mortality was 20% (13 of 65) after right-sided pneumonectomy vs 9% (6 of 64) after left-sided pneumonectomy (p = 0.084). Complications occurred in 33% (43 of 129), including bronchopleural fistula in 12% (16 of 129) and acute respiratory distress syndrome in 2% (3 of 129). Overall 5-year survival was 33%. Survival was 32% for right-sided sections vs 34% for left-sided. CR patients had a 5-year survival of 48%. Survival of patients with postoperative N0, N1, and N2 nodes was 42%, 26%, and 28%, respectively. Multivariate analysis showed the development of major complications negatively affected 5-year survival for patients undergoing right-sided pneumonectomy (hazard ratio, 0.462; p = 0.0399).",
"The survival rate of patients operated on was statistically significantly higher than that of patients with conservative treatment. Even patients with multiple or bilateral pulmonary lesions after curative treatment of a primary tumor should be operated on if there is no contraindication against an extended surgical procedure and a complete resection of the metastases seems achievable.",
"The mortality of pneumonectomy after chemotherapy or chemoradiotherapy for locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer is reported to be as high as 26%. We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of patients undergoing these procedures in 2 specialized thoracic centers to determine the outcome. Retrospective analyses were performed of all patients who underwent pneumonectomy after neoadjuvant chemotherapy or chemoradiotherapy for locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer from 1998 to 2007. Presurgical treatment consisted of 3-4 platin-based doublets alone in 20% of patients or combined with radiotherapy (45Gy) to the tumor and mediastinum in 80% of patients. Of 827 patients who underwent neoadjuvant therapy, 176 pneumonectomies were performed, including 138 (78%) extended resections. Post-induction pathologic stages were 0 in 36 patients (21%), I in 33 patients (19%), II in 38 patients (21%), III in 57 patients (32%), and IV in 12 patients (7%). Three patients died of pulmonary embolism, 2 patients of respiratory failure, and 1 patient of cardiac failure, resulting in a 90 postoperative day mortality rate of 3%; 23 major complications occurred in 22 patients (13%). For the overall population, 3-year survival was 43% and 5-year survival was 38%.",
"Although appropriate patient selection and careful perioperative management are mandatory, bilateral pulmonary lobectomy could be an acceptable procedure for patients with bilateral lung cancers.",
"The sensitivity of HCT exceeds that of HRCT. However, complete manual exploration by thoracotomy remains the procedure of choice for patients undergoing pulmonary metastasectomy, because of limitation in preoperative radiological assessment of lung lesions smaller than 6 mm.",
"Our study suggests that local control of lung metastasis can improve survival only when a radical resection can be achieved. Selection criteria need to be improved in order to avoid unnecessary lung resection in patients with high risk of recurrences. The Pet-scan should probably have a certain interest in selecting these patients.",
"To examine the role of radical segmentectomy, defined as a segmentectomy with extensive hilar/mediastinal lymph node dissection and a sufficient surgical margin, for local control in cT1 N0 M0/pN1-2 non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), we examined the following: (1) whether metastases were observed in specimens additionally resected by completion lobectomy undertaken after segmentectomy because of pN1-2 disease and (2) prognostic outcome in patients whose operations were completed with segmentectomy regardless of pN1-2. Of 275 patients with cT1 N0 M0 NSCLC who were scheduled to undergo radical segmentectomy, 15 (6%) had a diagnosis of pN1 or N2 disease. Of these patients, 10 were additionally treated with completion lobectomy, whereas the operations of the remaining 5 were completed with segmentectomy. None of the 10 patients who underwent completion lobectomy showed residual metastases in the specimens additionally resected by completion lobectomy. Two of the 5 patients whose operations were completed with segmentectomy, regardless of N1 or N2 disease, had tumor recurrence, but their first recurrence was not local.",
"no. Tumor location within the lung does not predict survival in pathologic stage I/II non-small cell lung carcinoma. Increasing age, adenocarcinoma histology, and pneumonectomy as the resection may lead to worse long-term survival.",
"Standard pneumonectomy is a safe procedure even after induction chemotherapy, with a mortality rate in the order of 5%, but this increases in patients over the age of 70 years. In the case of induction chemotherapy, the risk of respiratory complications is significantly increased, apparently not affecting the overall mortality rate.",
"Extended resections may be necessary to achieve tumor-free borders for secondary pulmonary malignancies. This study was performed to analyze the outcomes that result from extended resections of pulmonary metastases. Between February 1991 and December 2008, a total of 25 extended pulmonary resections (resection of the chest wall and diaphragm, vascular procedures, sleeve resections, pneumonectomies, atrial resections, and completion pneumonectomies) were performed on 250 patients undergoing 319 metastasectomy procedures. The extended resection group was analyzed in terms of disease-free interval, type of resection, operative morbidity, mortality, and survival and was then compared with patients who underwent lobar or sublobar resections. The extended resection group consisted of 14 male and 11 female patients. The mean disease-free interval was 36.02 (minimum 6, maximum 132) months. The extended resection rate was 10%. After 30 days, all patients were alive. For all extended metastasectomy groups, actuarial 5-year survival rates from the time of the extended metastasectomy were 16.3%. Mean survival times of patients who underwent extended resection and lobar or sublobar resection were 40 months (SD = 11) (95% confidence interval, 19-61) and 20 months (SD = 3) (95% confidence interval, 14-26), respectively. This difference was not statistically significant (P = 0.09) (Fig. 2). In the subgroup analysis, survival in the extended resections and lobar or sublobar resections groups was not statistically significant (osteosarcoma, P = 0.758; epithelial tumor, P = 0.11).",
"Open lobectomy that affords palpation of the rest of the lung may discover nonimaged malignant pulmonary nodules in different lobes in 8% to 9% of patients with non-small cell lung cancer despite preoperative fine-cut chest computed tomographic scan with contrast and integrated integrated 2-deoxy-2-18F-fluoro-D-glucose positron emission tomography computed tomographic scanning. The clinical impact of these findings is unknown.",
"Indications for both iterative and extended pulmonary resection for PM may be discussed only in highly young selected patients; the extremely poor outcome of our subgroup of patients should lead to even more restrictive indications of CP for pulmonary metastatic disease.",
"The impact of chemotherapy on postoperative complications after pneumonectomy remains unclear, and the procedure is often considered as potentially dangerous. This retrospective review of prospectively collected data included 269 patients operated from January 1, 1998 through December 31, 2007. Group 1 included patients those who received preoperative chemotherapy (PCT) and pneumonectomy (54 patients, 20%), and group 2 included patients who underwent pneumonectomy alone (215 patients, 80%). Overall 30- and 90-day mortality rates were 5.9% and 8.9%, respectively. Postoperative mortality at 30 days was 5.6% in group 1 and 6% in group 2 (P = 0.16), and 11.1% for group 1 and 8.3% in group 2 at 90 days (P = 0.8). Incidence of postoperative respiratory failure was 3.7% in group 1 and 3.2% in group 2 (P = 0.62); incidence of empyema was 5.5% in group 1 and 2.8% in group 2 (P = 0.1). Incidence of bronchopleural fistula (BPF) was 3.7% in group 1 and 2.8% in group 2 (P = 0.55); risk of BPF was higher following right pneumonectomy (6.1%) versus left pneumonectomy (0%, P = 0.003).",
"Pneumonectomy can be avoided in a large proportion of patients with non-small cell lung cancer of a main stem bronchus without adversely affecting outcome but with preservation of lung function",
"yes. Disease-free survival and site of recurrence after pulmonary metastasectomy for colorectal carcinoma are dependent on the site of the primary tumor. Lung metastases from rectal cancer have a worse disease-free survival compared with colon cancer. This may influence treatment and follow-up strategies.",
"The prognosis of patients with metastasized head and neck cancer is poor. Limited experience exists with the benefit of resection of lung metastases and systematic mediastinal and hilar lymph node dissection on survival of patients with head and neck carcinoma. Eighty patients undergoing metastasectomy for pulmonary metastases of primary head and neck cancer entered the study. Multivariate analysis was performed by Cox regression analysis. Survival differences between patients operated and those not operated on were analyzed by matched pair analysis. From 1984 until 2006, pulmonary metastases were diagnosed in 332 patients treated for head and neck cancer; 80 of these were admitted to our department for resection. Metastases of the primary head and neck tumor were confirmed histologically in 67 patients. The median overall survival after resection of lung metastases was 19.4 months and was statistically significantly better compared with patients who were not operated on (P<.001). The multivariate analysis after metastasectomy revealed that incomplete resection of pulmonary lesions, complications associated with surgery, and adjuvant therapy of the primary tumor are independent negative prognostic factors for survival. We observed a trend to improved survival in patients without hilar or mediastinal lymph node metastases.",
"no. Performing sleeve lobectomy instead of pneumonectomy for NSCLC with N1 nodal disease does not compromise long-term survival.",
"Pneumonectomy in neoadjuvant trimodal approach for Stage III NSCLC can be done safe with acceptable mortality rate. Patients should not withhold from operation because of necessitating pneumonectomy. Not the procedure but the selection, response rate and R0-resection are crucial for survival after trimodal therapy in experienced centres.",
"Younger patients with solitary metachronous metastases to the liver, then the lung, and long disease-free intervals are more likely to benefit from resection of both liver and lung metastases. Patients with risk factors also had better survival with resection than without resection.",
"Pulmonary sepsis and its complications as well as preexisting comorbidity are the major reasons for fatal outcome, whereas the extent of surgical resection shows no significant influence. Emergent pneumonectomy as ultimate ratio is not only justified but also life saving. Further improvement seems achievable by earlier surgical intervention before the onset of pulmonary sepsis.",
"Recently the pros and cons of limited surgery for small-sized peripheral non-small-cell lung cancers (PNSCLCs), such as omission of mediastinal dissection, etc., have been vigorously debated. We analyzed whether hilar/mediastinal lymph node metastases were present in 30 small-sized PNSCLCs. In the nine years from 1990 to 1998, 294 lung cancer patients underwent lobectomy or pneumonectomy combined with hilar/mediastinal dissection in the Tokai University Hospital. Thirty of these patients diagnosed as having cT1N0M0 PNSCLC with tumor diameters of 1.5 cm or less by computed tomography, are evaluated in this article. The 30 PNSCLC patients consisted of 14 males and 16 females with a mean age of 61 +/- 9 years. Twenty six patients (87%) had no hilar nor mediastinal lymph node metastases (pN0), one patient (3%) had a hilar lymph node metastasis (pN1), and three patients (10%) had mediastinal lymph node metastases (pN2).",
"Bilateral pulmonary metastasectomy was performed safely with thoracoscopy in patients with bilateral oligo-metastatic sub-pleural lesions and the one-stage approach was a feasible option in bilateral single lesions. Preoperative PET scan could help predict intrathoracic recurrence after thoracoscopic metastasectomy.",
"Recent evidence suggests that metastasectomy is efficacious for selected patients with hepatic and pulmonary metastases from a colorectal primary. The aim of this study was to identify a subgroup of patients who best benefit from hepatic and pulmonary metastasectomy among those with colorectal carcinoma metastases. We analyzed retrospectively a total of 136 patients who underwent resection of hepatic or pulmonary metastases of colorectal origin at Niigata University Medical Hospital between 1982 and 2000. The median follow-up period was 94 months. Eighty-four patients underwent hepatectomy alone, 25 underwent pulmonary resection alone, and 27 underwent both hepatic and pulmonary resection. The 27 patients undergoing hepatic and pulmonary resection were divided into two groups: 17 patients with sequentially detected hepatic and pulmonary metastases and 10 patients with simultaneously detected metastases. Survival time was determined from the date of initial metastasectomy. Differences in cumulative survival were evaluated using the log-rank test. Sixteen factors were assessed for their influence on the survival of the 27 patients undergoing resection of hepatic and pulmonary metastases; univariate and multivariate analyses were used in this evaluation. Patient survival after hepatic and pulmonary resection was comparable with that after hepatectomy alone (p = 0.536) and that after pulmonary resection alone (p = 0.294). Among the 27 patients undergoing hepatic and pulmonary resection, the outcomes after resection were significantly better in patients with sequentially detected metastases (cumulative 5-year survival of 44%) than in those with simultaneously detected ones (cumulative 5-year survival of 0%) (p < 0.001). On multivariate analysis sequential detection of hepatic and pulmonary metastases was the strongest independent favorable prognostic factor (p <0.001).",
"yes. Pneumonectomy was associated with significantly higher activation of coagulation system on the seventh postoperative day than lobectomy. TAT complex, TF and E-selectin are promising markers of extensive postoperative activation of coagulation and efficacy of antithrombotic prophylaxis.",
"Mediastinal lymph node metastases were histologically observed in 3 (10%) of 30 PNSCLC patients with tumor diameters of 1.5 cm or less. Our results show that mediastinal dissection is still necessary even for small-sized lung cancers.",
"These results confirm that sequential resection of hepatic and pulmonary metastases can be performed with curative intention provided a systemic spread of the disease is excluded. The surgeon's opinion of resectability should be obtained in patients with such metastases before the patient is scheduled for palliative conservative treatment.",
"The safety and acceptable long-term outcome of pneumonectomy as a general clinical practice were shown for both pN1 and pN2 patients with various preoperative or postoperative therapies. Extended resection due to the extrapleural or extranodal involvement of tumor was an unfavorable prognostic factor.",
"Theoretically, anatomical pulmonary resection does not cause any shunt effect, and thus it is thought that oxygen (O(2)) supplementation is not necessary after a pulmonary lobectomy or pneumonectomy. Without O(2) supplementation, we have streamlined our postoperative management for pulmonary resection. In the present study, we prospectively assessed our perioperative management for both requirement of O(2) supplementation and postoperative complications. From April 2003 to March 2005, 89 consecutive patients underwent a pulmonary lobectomy or pneumonectomy for primary lung cancer. Our protocol for perioperative care is as follows: [Preoperative] Smoking cessation longer than 2 weeks before surgery. [Intraoperative]Postero-lateral thoracotomy through the 5th or 6th rib bed. Cutting of the 5th or 6th intercostal nerve before closure of the wound. [Postoperative day (POD) 1] O(2) administration was discontinued in the morning. Ambulation without O(2) supplementation. [POD 2]Removal of an epidural catheter. During the postoperative period, percutaneous monitoring of O(2) saturation was continued. The mean postoperative O(2) saturation of those 89 patients was 97.0% on the POD 1, 96.4% on the POD 2, 96.6% on the POD 3, and 97.5% on the POD 7. Only 3 patients required O(2) therapy after discontinuation of O(2) administration due to non-lethal pulmonary embolism. Depending on the duration of smoking cessation prior to operation, the patients were divided into 4 groups (2 weeks>, 1 month>, 1 month</=, and nonsmokers). Neither the incidence of postoperative complications nor the length of postoperative hospital stay was different among those 4 groups.",
"Lung cancer resection rates are suboptimal in the UK. Pneumonectomy has a higher perioperative mortality risk than lobectomy. To increase resection rates and improve outcomes we have implemented a policy of parenchymal sparing surgery for tumours involving a main stem bronchus. In a prospective 4 year study of 119 consecutive patients operated upon by a single surgeon the perioperative course, pathology and survival were compared for 81 patients undergoing pneumonectomy and 38 patients in whom pneumonectomy was avoided by bronchoplastic+/-angioplastic procedures. The rate of pneumonectomy decreased significantly with increasing experience with parenchymal sparing surgery (R(2)=0.98, P<0.001) with 21 of the last 30 patients (70%) avoiding pneumonectomy. There were no significant inter-group differences in patient characteristics, perioperative course or outcome. One-year survival was 64% after pneumonectomy and 73% after sleeve lobectomy. However the perioperative loss of respiratory function was significantly lower in the patients in whom pneumonectomy was avoided (P=0.0003).",
"yes. Thoracoscopic resection of single peripheral lung metastases from colorectal cancer with potentially curative intent seems effective and justified since the ultimate outcome of this highly selected group of patients seems to be not different from that obtained after a more invasive approach.",
"Pneumonectomy with en bloc chest wall reconstruction can be safely offered to selected patients. The addition of en bloc chest wall resection to pneumonectomy does not affect operative mortality and morbidity compared with standard pneumonectomy. The pivotal additional effect of the chest wall resection should not be considered a contraindication for such procedures. Survival showed a clinically relevant difference by comparing N0 plus N1 with N2 (58.1 vs 16.6%), not confirmed by the statistical analysis (P = 0.053).",
"yes. Progression of pulmonary metastases after chemotherapy is a novel prognostic factor for survival in patients with sarcoma undergoing metastasectomy, even when controlled for known factors such as disease-free interval and number of metastases.",
"In our series, mortality associated with operative treatment for lung malignancy in the elderly declined, so age alone no longer appears to be a risk factor. Age remains a risk factor for overall, but not major, morbidity. Pneumonectomy should undertaken cautiously in this age group. Based on this data, functional elderly patients should not be denied curative lung resection based on age alone.",
"Pulmonary metastasectomy is a standard method for treatment of selected pulmonary metastases cases. Nevertheless, because prognosis for patients with lung metastases from esophageal cancer who have undergone pulmonary metastasectomy is poor, candidates for this method of treatment are rare. Therefore, the efficacy of surgical treatment for pulmonary metastatic lesions from esophageal cancer has not been thoroughly examined. Between March 1984 and May 2006, 57 patients underwent resection of pulmonary metastases from primary esophageal cancer. These cases were registered in the database developed by the Metastatic Lung Tumor Study Group of Japan and were retrospectively reviewed from the registry. After excluding eight cases because of missing information, we reviewed the remaining 49 cases and examined the prognostic factors for pulmonary metastasectomy for metastases from esophageal cancer. There were no perioperative deaths. After pulmonary metastasectomy, disease recurred in 16 (33%) of the 49 patients. The overall 5-year survival was 29.6%. Median survival time was 18 months. The survival of patients with a disease-free interval (DFI) less than 12 months was significantly lower than patients with a DFI greater than 12 months. Through multivariate analysis, we identified DFI as a clinical factor significantly related to overall survival (p = 0.04).",
"In patients with resectable pulmonary metastases from sarcoma or carcinoma, the number of metastases should have little influence on the surgical decision, except for delaying this decision in patients with several metastases until a significant interval, with or without treatment, has shown that metastatic disease remains resectable and confined to the lungs.",
"yes. We conclude that pneumonectomy is a high-risk procedure, especially in patients with sequelae of tuberculosis.",
"Metastasectomy proved to be the choice treatment in the case of pulmonary metastasis. In this study we assessed the impact on survival of three types of resection: minimal by laser or conventional device and lobectomy. We considered 85 patients who underwent lung metastasectomy for tumors that originated from various sites. Fifty-two minimal resections were accomplished in 34 patients by conventional (diathermy dissection or stapler suture line) device, 59 resections in 29 by Nd:YAG laser. Lobectomies were 22. Minimum follow up required was 2 years. The 3-year Kaplan-Meier survival rate was 63%, 44%, 53% for laser, conventional resections and lobectomy. The 5-year survival was 40%, 28%, 26% respectively. Among the groups there was no significant difference (P = 0.15). Laser patients showed shorter periods of air leakage and hospital stay.",
"Lung cancer is the leading cause of death in cancer statistics throughout developed countries. While single surgical approach provides best results in early stages, multimodality approaches have been employed in advanced disease and demonstrated superior results in selected patients. With either full-dose chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy, patients usually have a poor general condition when entering surgical therapy and therefore neoadjuvant therapy can lead to a higher morbidity and mortality. Especially in the case of pneumonectomy as the completing procedure, mortality rate can exceed over 40%. Therefore, chest physicians often shy away from recommending pneumonectomy as final step in trimodal protocols. We analysed our experience with pneumonectomy after neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy in advanced non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) with a focus on feasibility, outcome and survival. Retrospective, single-centre study of 146 patients with trimodal neoadjuvant therapy for NSCLC Stage III over 17 years time span. Follow-up was taken from our own outpatient files and with survival check of central registry office in Baden-Württemberg, Germany. A total of 118 men and 28 women received 62 lobectomies, 6 bi-lobectomies and 78 pneumonectomies after two different neoadjuvant protocols for Stage III NSCLC. Overall morbidity rate was 53 and 56% after pneumonectomy. Overall hospital mortality rate was 4.8 and 6.4% after pneumonectomy. Overall median survival rate was 31 months with a 5-year survival rate of 38% (Kaplan-Meier). Pneumonectomy, right-sited pneumonectomy and initial T- and N-stages were no risk factors for survival (log-rank test). Significant factors for survival were ypT-stage, ypN-stage, yUICC-stage in univariate testing (log-rank test) and ypUICC-stage in multivariate testing (Cox's regression).",
"There was no survival benefit shown for RLA associated with pulmonary resections in the present cohort, even in the propensity-based analyses. Although some reports recommend a systematic mediastinal lymphadenectomy for proper staging and better survival, a pulmonary resection with non-performance of radical lymphadenectomy could be an acceptable surgical treatment for the increasing number of elderly lung cancer patients.",
"Extended resections, which can be performed during pulmonary metastasectomies of patients with tumor-free surgical borders, may establish curative benefits, with low rates of mortality and morbidity.",
"The small lymph nodes in the hilar or mediastinal stations frequently had metastases of carcinoma even though largest and second largest lymph nodes were negative for metastases, especially in adenocarcinoma cases. Surgical oncologists should, therefore, perform systemic lymph node dissection, and not sampling, during a pulmonary resection of lung cancer.",
"yes. The lateral position with the remaining lung uppermost leads to the highest V˙(A)/Q˙ matching and best gas exchange after pneumonectomy.",
"yes. These results suggest extrapulmonary metastases should no longer be viewed as a contraindication to resection of sarcomatous pulmonary metastases. Long-term survival can be achieved when a complete resection is possible for both the pulmonary and extrapulmonary metastases.",
"yes. Our meta-analysis indicates that RDBS is positively associated with the increased risk of BPF in patients undergoing lung cancer surgery. The further analysis also reveals an increased risk of post-pneumonectomy BPF in patients with RDBS. More accurate and comprehensive evidence should be collected and summarized in updated meta-analyses.",
"yes. Mesh-based pneumostasis during video-assisted major lung resection enabled early chest tube removal, preserved postoperative oxygenation capacity, and promoted postoperative rehabilitation, which may facilitate fast-track surgery for patients undergoing video-assisted major lung resection for cancer.",
"The 3-year survival after pulmonary metastasectomy for osteosarcoma (OS) is approximately 30%. Resection of metastatic disease can prolong life in pediatric patients with OS. Our objective is to assess the outcome of pediatric patients with pulmonary metastases located centrally as compared with peripheral lesions. A retrospective review of patients 0 to 21 years old with a diagnosis of OS with pulmonary metastases on computed tomographic scan between 1985 and 2000 was completed. Demographics, metastasis location, survival, morbidity, and mortality were evaluated. Of 115 patients who had pulmonary metastasis secondary to OS, there were 96 wedge resections and 13 lobectomy/pneumonectomies in 84 patients. The morbidity of wedge resection was 9% and lobectomy/pneumonectomy was 8%. There were no deaths from surgery. The median survival for patients undergoing lobectomy compared with wedge resection was 0.61 and 1.14 years, respectively, but did not reach statistical significance. The median overall survival for the entire cohort was 0.75 years. The median overall survival after initial detection of metastatic disease was 1.06 years among the patients with peripheral disease, compared with 0.38 years in patients with central disease (P = .008).",
"The use of surgery for metastatic lung cancer has been established recently and the indications have been extended to multiple and bilateral lung metastases. However, in some patients, secondary lung metastasis appears soon after the first pulmonary surgery, making curative treatment very difficult. Postoperative weakness of tumor angiogenesis suppression mechanisms seems to play an important role in the recurrence of lung metastases. To verify this hypothesis, we performed a clinical and an experimental study.",
"Helical CT misses metastases in 46% to 47% of cases. Accuracy of preoperative CT scanning for detection of pulmonary metastases was not improved with the provision of clinical history to the reader, nor was it influenced by the interpreter's training. A combined approach to pulmonary metastasectomy including preoperative and postoperative CT as well as manual lung palpation is necessary to render the patient disease-free.",
"yes. We identified that patients with a DFI less than 12 months who underwent pulmonary metastasectomy for metastases from esophageal cancer had a worse prognosis. Pulmonary metastasectomy for esophageal cancer should be considered for selected patients with a DFI >/=12 months.",
"no. Patients with sequentially detected hepatic and pulmonary metastases from a colorectal primary are good candidates for aggressive metastasectomy. Simultaneous detection of these metastases does not warrant resection.",
"yes. Pulmonary metastectomy has a potential survival benefit for patients with metastatic CRC. Improved survival even in the presence of hepatic metastases or multiple pulmonary lesions justifies aggressive surgical management in carefully selected patients. In our cohort, size of metastatic deposit was a statistically significant poor prognostic factor.",
"yes. Patients undergoing multiple pulmonary resections have the same survival as patients undergoing a single pulmonary resection for metachronous colorectal carcinoma. These findings indicate pulmonary metastases may be favorably treated with repeat thoracic interventions.",
"yes. Early stage lung cancer resection has a favorable effect on surgical mortality, not only by preventing the need for pneumonectomy, but also by reducing mortality after lobectomy.",
"yes. Patients with more than 1 year of disease-free status after the first pulmonary metastasectomy demonstrated a significantly better overall survival. Normal preoperative serum CEA level and maximum tumor size <3 cm were significantly adverse prognostic factors for disease-free survival. Our data imply that repeat pulmonary metastasectomy might be beneficial as it can salvage a subset of patients with colorectal carcinoma who retain favorable prognostic determinants.",
"Pulmonary metastasectomy can be performed safely and effectively in patients with recurrent disease after hepatic resection for colorectal metastases. Prolonged survival can be achieved with resection of isolated pulmonary recurrence after hepatic resection for colorectal cancer. Further studies that delineate selection criteria for pulmonary resection of colorectal metastases are warranted.",
"The ability to detect pulmonary metastases in patients with colorectal cancer is limited by preoperative evaluation with computed tomography and surgical techniques, including open thoracotomy with bimanual palpation. Pulmonary metastasectomy by open thoracotomy or thoracoscopy may be a suboptimal intervention to remove metastatic foci in the lungs.",
"Because pulmonary metastasectomy for renal cell carcinoma is safe, survival depends on complete resection of pulmonary disease and adequate pulmonary reserve. Preoperative determination of resectability is thus critical, and computed chest tomography and mediastinoscopy are valuable tools for optimizing patient selection.",
"yes. Adrenalectomy should be considered in patients with adrenal metastasis from renal carcinoma, as well as in those with small secondary lesions from other type of tumor with a controlled primary disease. The clear benefit of adrenalectomy remains to be documented in pulmonary carcinoma metastasis.",
"In patients with stage II (N1) NSCLC, only in case of station 10 involved, pneumonectomy could allow a better survival lowering the incidence of local recurrence. However the major part of patients with stage II (N1) NSCLC die for distant metastasis. This supports the necessity to develop a specific systemic treatment.",
"Pneumonectomy is associated with a higher operative mortality rate and worse 5-year survival after resection for non-small-cell lung cancer, compared to lobectomy. We investigated whether pneumonectomy is an independent risk factor for hospital mortality and poor long-term survival, after risk factor adjustment. We analyzed a prospectively validated thoracic surgery database. Kaplan-Meier survival curves were constructed for patients who had undergone lobectomy (n = 1484) or pneumonectomy (n = 266). Logistic and Cox multivariate regression analysis and propensity matching were performed on hospital mortality and long-term survival data. Univariate analysis demonstrated that pneumonectomy was a significant risk factor for hospital death (p = 0.02) and long-term survival (p < 0.001). Logistic regression failed to demonstrate pneumonectomy as a risk factor for hospital mortality. Cox regression analysis failed to identify pneumonectomy as a statistically significant risk factor. Propensity analysis (n = 266 in each group with 1:1 matching) demonstrated that pneumonectomy was not associated with hospital mortality (p = 0.37) or poorer long-term survival (p = 0.19) compared to lobectomy.",
"The impact of pneumonectomy as an independent factor on long-term survival after lung resection for centrally or locally advanced non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) remains controversial. The aim of this paper is to study the impact of pneumonectomy, and the influence of side of surgery, on long-term survival in patients with pathologic stage I and II NSCLC. A retrospective review of a prospective multi-institutional database of patients operated on for lung cancer was undertaken. In all, 1,475 patients with pathologic stage I or II NSCLC were studied (421 underwent pneumonectomy; 1,054 had a lobectomy/bilobectomy). Survival and impact of side of surgery for pneumonectomy and lesser resection groups were analyzed and compared using the Kaplan-Meier method and the Cox proportional hazards model. Median survival was worse after pneumonectomy than after less extensive resections for patients overall (33 versus 57 months) and for those with stage I NSCLC (38 versus 70 months); however, median survival was better after pneumonectomy for stage II left tumors (55 versus 19 months). Pneumonectomy was an independent adverse determinant of survival for both stage I right tumors (p < 0.001) and stage I left tumors (p < 0.001), but was associated with improved survival for stage II left tumors (p = 0.009).",
"In a highly selected group with solitary lung metastases, pulmonary metastasectomy by thoracotomy or thoracoscopy did not affect survival. There were comparable oncologic results from both surgeries when applied in solitary lung metastases from an extra-thoracic malignancy. Thoracoscopic metastasectomy is a promising option in small, solitary pulmonary metastases.",
"From our experience, lobectomy should still be considered as the treatment of choice in the management of second primary lung cancer, but sublobar resection remains a valid option in high-risk patients with limited pulmonary function. Completion pneumonectomy was a negative prognostic factor in long-term survival.",
"Long-term survival after pneumonectomy for stage IIIA NSCLC is within an acceptable range, but pneumonectomy may not be appropriate after induction therapy or in patients with renal insufficiency. Patient selection and operative technique that limit perioperative morbidity and facilitate the use of adjuvant chemotherapy are critical to optimizing outcomes.",
"no. Pneumonectomy is a safe procedure with low operative mortality. Postoperative morbidity is significant, especially bronchopleural fistulas after right-sided pneumonectomy (11%). However, neither operative mortality nor morbidity appears to be directly associated with preoperative radiotherapy or chemotherapy.",
"Pulmonary metastasectomy may have a curative role in the treatment of metastatic TCC in appropriately selected patients, especially those with a small solitary pulmonary metastasis.",
"Pneumonectomy performed either by means of thoracoscopy or thoracotomy resulted in equivalent survival. Further studies and follow-up are needed to verify the benefits of video-assisted thoracic surgery pneumonectomy for lung cancer.",
"yes. Pneumonectomy after neoadjuvant therapy for non-small-cell lung cancer can be performed with a perioperative mortality rate of 3%. Thus, the need of a pneumonectomy for complete resection alone should not be a reason to exclude patients from a potentially curative procedure if done in an experienced center. The 5-year survival of 38%, which can be achieved, justifies extended surgery within a multimodality concept for selected patients with locally advanced non-small-cell lung cancer.",
"To evaluate the postoperative outcome and long-term results of patients who underwent iterative and extended pulmonary resection leading to completion pneumonectomy for pulmonary metastases. From January 1985 to December 1995, 12 patients (mean age 45 years) underwent completion pneumonectomy for pulmonary metastases. These patients represent 1.5% of all pulmonary metastases operated on. There were 5 sarcoma and 7 carcinoma patients. Before completion pneumonectomy, 8 patients had only one pulmonary resection (wedge resection, 2; segmentectomy, 2; lobectomy, 4), 3 patients had two operations and finally, 1 patient had multiple bilateral wedge resections and 1 lobectomy. The median interval time between the last pulmonary resection and completion pneumonectomy was 13.5 months (range 1-24 months). There were 10 left and two right completion pneumonectomies. Three patients had an extended resection (1 carina; 1 chest wall; 1 pleuropneumonectomy). Intrapericardial dissection was used in 3 patients. Two patients died within 30 days of the operation: 1 died of postoperative complications (8.3%) whereas the other died of rapidly evolving metastatic disease. The remaining 10 patients had an uneventful postoperative course. Only 1 patient is still alive and free of disease 69 months after completion pneumonectomy. One patient is alive with disease, another was lost to follow-up; 9 patients died of metastatic disease. The median survival time after completion pneumonectomy was 6 months (range 0-69 months). The estimated 5-year probability of survival was 10% (95% CI: 2-40%).",
"Although sublobar and lobar resections are accepted operations for pulmonary metastases, pneumonectomy is viewed as a major incursion on Stage IV patients. We considered it important to ascertain the current results of pneumonectomy for pulmonary metastases since little information is available. Of the 5,206 patients with pulmonary metastasectomy reported by the International Registry of Lung Metastases, 133 (3%) underwent primary, and 38 (1%) completion pneumonectomy between 1962 and 1994. Data were analyzed to determine the operative mortality rates, survival rates, and determinants of survival. Primary pneumonectomy was performed for metastatic disease mainly from epithelial (49%, 65 of 133) and sarcomatous (33%, 43 of 133) tumors. Indications were central lesion, eg, proximal endobronchial or hilar nodal metastases. Operative mortality was 4% (4 of 112) and a 5-year survival rate of 20% was achieved following complete resection (R0) in 112 patients. In contrast, the 21 incompletely resected patients had an operative mortality rate of 19% (4 of 21), and the majority did not survive beyond 2 years (p = 0.02). Survival was determined by the completeness of resection and not histology of the primary tumor, number of metastases, nodal status, and disease-free interval. In the 38 completion pneumonectomy patients, 35 were operated for recurrent disease and 3 for residual disease. Sarcomatous secondaries predominated in 28 patients. Complete resection was achieved in 31 patients (82%). The operative mortality rate was 3% (1 of 38 patients) and the 5-year survival rate was 30%.",
"yes. Surgical resection of solitary pulmonary lesion is essential in patients with a history of cancer because substantial numbers of benign lesions are included. In the case of malignancy, metastasectomy had a life-prolonging effect for selected patients, and prognosis of primary lung cancer was no worse than for the general population if treated appropriately. It is important not to hesitate to take a surgical approach for a diagnosis and to treat with standard therapy for primary lung cancer.",
"yes. Pneumonectomy was found to be an independent determinant of survival in patients with stage I and II NSCLC, but results differed for right- and left-sided tumors. Further studies of survival comparing pneumonectomy with lesser resections should differentiate between right and left procedures.",
"Pneumonectomies for pulmonary metastases, albeit infrequently performed, were associated with acceptable operative mortality and long-term survival when performed in selected patients amenable to complete resection."
] | 44 |
Cardiac surgery in octogenarians: can elderly patients benefit? | [
"Increasing numbers of the very old are presenting for cardiac surgical procedures. There is little information about quality of life after hospital discharge in this group. From March 1995 to February 1997, 127 patients older than 80 years at operation (mean age, 83+/-2.5 years; range, 80 to 92 years) were entered into the cardiac surgery database and analyzed retrospectively. The RAND SF-36 Health Survey and the Seattle Angina Questionnaire were used to assess quality of life by telephone interview (mean follow-up, 15.7+/-6.9 months). No patient was lost to follow-up. Operations included coronary artery bypass grafting (65.4%), coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve replacement (15.8%), and isolated valve replacement (14.2%). Preoperatively, 63.8% were in New York Heart Association class IV. Thirty-day mortality was 7.9%, and actuarial survival was 83% (70% confidence interval, 79% to 87%) at 1 year and 80% (70% confidence interval, 75% to 85%) at 2 years. Preoperative renal failure significantly increased the risk of early death (relative risk, 3.96) as did urgent or emergent operation (relative risk, 6.70). In addition, cerebrovascular disease (relative risk, 3.54) and prolonged ventilation (relative risk, 3.82) were risk factors for late death. Ninety-five patients (92.2%) were in New York Heart Association class I or II at follow-up. Seattle Angina Questionnaire scores for anginal frequency (92.3+/-18.9), stability (94.4+/-16.5), and exertional capacity (86.8+/-25.1) indicated good relief of symptoms. SF-36 scores were equal to or better than those for the general population of age greater than 65 years. Of the survivors, 83.7% were living in their own home, 74.8% rated their health as good or excellent, and 82.5% would undergo operation again in retrospect.",
"Octogenarians can undergo cardiac surgical procedures at a reasonable risk and show remarkable improvement in their symptoms. Elderly patients benefit from improved functional status and quality of life."
] | [
"yes. In this study, elderly patients faired well with HCA compared to younger patients. These data suggest that the use of HCA is safe in selected elderly patients. Elderly patients should be considered for indicated procedures of the aortic valve, ascending aorta, and aortic arch regardless of age.",
"yes. Despite a high-risk clinical and angiographic profile, coronary stenting can be safely performed in octogenarians with a high procedural success rate, low complication rate, and excellent 12-month outcome.",
"We retrospectively identified 84 consecutive patients aged ≥80 years, who underwent a cardiac reoperation at the department for Cardiothoracic Surgery in the Heart&Vessel Center Bad Bevensen between January 2007 and 2013. Demographic profiles as well as operative data were analyzed, and the patients were prospectively followed. Patient's functional status and quality of life were assessed with the Barthel Index, New York Heart Association class and the short form-12 questionnaire. The mean age of the study group (61 men, 23 women) was 81.9 ± 1.9 years. Most redo-procedures were carried out after primary coronary artery bypass grafting (65%), primary aortic valve replacement (21%) and primary mitral valve replacement (6%). The most frequent actual surgical procedures were combined coronary artery bypass grafting and aortic valve replacement (26%), isolated coronary artery bypass grafting (19%), and isolated aortic valve replacement (19%). The mean length of hospital stay was 17 ± 15 days. In-hospital mortality counted for 32.1%. During follow up (29 ± 20 months) a further 19.0% of the patients died. The Barthel Index of the survivors was 89 ± 17 and their mean New York Heart Association class was 2 ± 1. A total of 93% of the patients were living at home. Summary scores of physical and mental health of the short form-12 questionnaire equalled those of an age- and sex-matched normative population.",
"In octogenarians undergoing CABG, IRV does not affect survival and freedom from MACCE. Patients' preoperative conditions are important in determining short and long term outcomes.",
"Several prospective randomized trials have proved carotid endarterectomy to be safe and effective for both symptomatic and asymptomatic patients younger than 80 years of age. Recently, carotid artery stenting (CAS) has been approved for use in selected high-risk patients. It has been proposed that being an octogenarian places patients in this high-risk category. All patients between the ages of 80 to 89 years undergoing carotid endarterectomy during a 12-year period were included in the study. Information included indications for carotid endarterectomy, associated risk factors, length of stay, and hospital course. Perioperative morbidity and mortality, including neurologic events and myocardial infarction, were recorded. A total of 103 carotid endarterectomies were performed in 95 octogenarians. Procedures were performed on 59 men and 36 women. Indications for operation included symptomatic carotid stenosis in 44 patients (43%) and asymptomatic carotid stenosis in 59 (57%). Associated risk factors included diabetes mellitus (17%), hypertension (76%), coronary artery disease (28%), hyperlipidemia (39%), and history of smoking (42%). There were 4 perioperative neurologic complications, which included 1 transient ischemic attack (0.97%), 2 minor strokes (1.94%), and 1 major stroke (0.97%). There were no deaths.",
"Results from this study suggest that while elderly patients can safely undergo a pancreatic resection and that age alone should not preclude a pancreatic resection, there is still significant morbidity and mortality in the octogenarian subgroup with poor long-term survival with the need for quality-of-life assessment.",
"yes. The reinforced sternal-closure system provided no additional risk with similar postoperative pain index and postoperative hospital stay compared with conventional method. It is reliable to use in elderly patients undergoing open heart surgery, in the cases presenting a risk factor such as osteoporosis for increased incidence of sternal dehiscence.",
"In our series of off-pump coronary artery bypass operation, obesity was not an independent cause of short- and long-term mortality and was shown beneficial for older patients. However, obese patients had a lower MACE-free survival because of an increased incidence of rehospitalization for congestive heart failure.",
"Emergency surgery for octogenarians with acute aortic dissection showed acceptable mortality. However, families had to take responsibility for patients who experienced unconsciousness, had dementia, or became bedridden. It is important to have consensus between the family and surgeons about emergency surgical treatment for octogenarians.",
"yes. The current data strengthen the observation that preoperative smoking status is predictive of adverse outcomes of cardiac surgery in the elderly. Further study into the effect of preoperative smoking cessation in the elderly may inform cessation counselling and the timing of surgery.",
"yes. Despite high perioperative mortality, results document a sustainable recovery of the survivors offering the prospect of a highly independent and satisfying life. Therefore, advanced age alone should not be a contraindication for redo cardiac interventions. Geriatr Gerontol Int 2016; 16: 1138-1144.",
"The trend toward more conservative treatment in the elderly still occurs in our common practice even with improving surgical techniques. In our study, we suggest that pertinent surgical strategies for acute aortic dissection are necessary to improve the outcome in elderly patients.",
"Octogenarians are at increased risk for perioperative morbidity and mortality after coronary artery bypass. In this study we compared our experience with patients undergoing on-pump coronary artery bypass (CAB) and those undergoing off-pump coronary artery bypass (OPCAB) to assess outcomes. We used hospital database analysis in patients 80 years and older who underwent nonemergent coronary artery bypass with (N = 169) and without (N = 60) cardiopulmonary bypass from January 1999 through June 2001. Both groups were at increased perioperative risk based on the Society of Thoracic Surgeons risk model (7.7% OPCAB vs 5.8% CAB, p = 0.03). There were no operative deaths in the OPCAB group but there were eight (4.7%) in the CAB group (p = NS). Perioperative stroke (0% OPCAB vs 7.1% CAB, p = 0.04), prolonged ventilation (1.7% OPCAB vs 11.8% CAB, p = 0.02), and transfusion rate (33% OPCAB vs 70.4% CAB, p<0.001) were all lower in the OPCAB group. A shorter hospital stay (6.3 days OPCAB vs 11.5 days CAB, p<0.001) resulted in lower hospital cost in the OPCAB group ($9,363 OPCAB vs $12,312 CAB, p<0.001).",
"Critical aortic stenosis with or without coronary artery disease is increasingly common in octogenarians. Surgery is the treatment of choice, but indications and results of aortic valve replacement (AVR), particularly when combined with coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) are debated. We investigated whether the combined procedure of AVR and CABG increased postoperative risk compared with isolated AVR in otherwise healthy octogenarians. In the period 1994-1998, AVR was performed in 94 patients above 80 years, the majority in NYHA class III and IV. Combined AVR and CABG was performed in 52/94 patients. The patients were studied retrospectively by collecting data from hospital records and followed for 0-7 years. Mean age was 82 +/- 2.3 years, sex (male/female) 33/61, left ventricular ejection fraction 70 +/- 18%, transvalvular peak pressure gradient 63 +/- 20 mmHg and aortic valve area 0.5 +/- 0.2 cm(2). Early mortality (< 30 days) was 4/42 (9.5%) after AVR and 4/52 (7.6%) after AVR and CABG (p = NS between groups). Three-year survival was 33/42 (78.5%) after AVR and 42/52 (80.7%) after AVR and CABG (p = NS between groups).",
"Triple-valve surgery is associated with a high perioperative risk. However, the acceptance of elderly patients for this surgery is not associated with a higher mortality or valve-related morbidity. The patients' quality of life was acceptable during follow up, and not affected by age. Hence, the refusal of surgery should depend not on old age alone but rather on an individualized assessment of the patient.",
"Bilateral internal thoracic artery grafting should be considered in patients>65 years of age because of the significant survival benefit obtained with this surgical technique with no additional risk of sternal wound infection related to age.",
"There remain concerns about hospital outcomes in octogenarians being referred for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). Avoiding the use of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) may be an attractive option to improve early outcomes in this group of patients. Between April 1997 and March 2010, 343 consecutive patients aged 80-89 years received isolated first time CABG. We used logistic regression to develop a propensity score for off-pump group membership and then performed a propensity matched analysis comparing off-pump (n=107) to on-pump (n=107) groups for early mortality and morbidity. All analysis was performed retrospectively. Preoperative patient characteristics were comparable in both groups, with mean age 82.0 years (80.6-83.7 years) and logistic EuroSCORE 9.9 (6.1-19.5) in the on-pump group compared to 81.6 (80.7-83.2) and 8.5 (5.3-15.7) in the off-pump group (P=0.96, P=0.23, respectively). Postoperatively, in-hospital mortality was 6.5% in the on-pump group compared to 4.7% in the off-pump group (P=0.55). Postoperative complications showed no statistically significant difference between the two groups. However, off-pump was associated with a shorter mechanical ventilation and intensive care unit (ICU) stay and less use of inotropes.",
"AVR can be performed in the elderly population with acceptable early and mid-term results, despite their urgent status. A large clinical trial is warranted to confirm the influence of an urgent status in octogenarian patients treated with surgical AVR.",
"yes. CAF and FORECAST are additional tools to evaluate elderly patients adequately before elective cardiac surgery, and showed an association with short- and mid-term mortality independently of age.",
"no. AVR with concomitant CABG in octogenarians with aortic stenosis who are otherwise healthy, may be performed without increased risk.",
"As the population ages, more octogenarians become candidates for aortic valve replacement. Many octogenarians, particularly women, have a small aortic annulus and there is uncertainty as to the optimal management of this situation in that age group. To examine this issue, we reviewed 248 octogenarians (mean age, 82.6 +/- 2.3 years; 58% men) who underwent primary isolated aortic valve replacement (n = 99), or aortic valve replacement and coronary revascularization (n = 149), between 1980 and 1995. Nineteen-millimeter valves were used in 26% of the patients. In-hospital mortality was 8.9%, 5% for aortic valve replacement alone and 11.4% for aortic valve replacement and coronary revascularization. It was 12.5% for the 19-mm size valves compared with 7.7% for the bigger size valves (p = 0.24). Follow-up (mean interval, 4.4 years) demonstrated survival for all patients of 85%, 60%, and 30% and survival free from cardiovascular events of 80%, 45%, and 21% at 1, 5, and 10 postoperative years, respectively. Multivariate analysis identified triple-vessel disease and preoperative congestive heart failure as associated with increased risk for both in-hospital and late mortality (p<0.05). Valve size did not influence late survival or event-free survival regardless of body surface area.",
"yes. Aortic root enlargement in octogenarian patients allows for insertion of larger aortic valve prostheses without any apparent increase in operative morbidity or mortality. The larger prostheses demonstrate better hemodynamic performance and less patient prosthesis mismatch, but no apparent functional or survival advantage.",
"In a comparable cohort of elderly patients, RARC can achieve similar perioperative outcomes without compromising pathologic outcomes, with less blood loss and shorter hospital stays. For an experienced robotic team, RARC should be considered in elderly patients because it may offer significant advantage with respect to perioperative morbidity over ORC.",
"no. In an elderly patient population undergoing TAVI for severe AS, a judicious revascularization strategy selection by a dedicated heart team can generate favorable mid-term outcome obviating the need for complete coronary revascularization.",
"The goal of this study is to assess the benefits of a left internal thoracic artery as a bypass conduit in octogenarians undergoing elective coronary artery bypass grafting. We hypothesize that there is no survival advantage and that outcome may be gender related. In a retrospective analysis of 1141 octogenarians (aged >80 years) undergoing isolated coronary artery bypass grafting from 1996 to 2012, patients were divided into 2 groups: Group I (coronary artery bypass grafting-left internal thoracic artery) included 870 patients (339 female/531 male), and group II (coronary artery bypass grafting-saphenous vein graft) included 271 patients (131 female/140 male). The overall 30-day mortality was 5.7%: 4.3% in group I and 7.0% in group II (P = .1). Group II had a lower trend of any postoperative complication (P = .05) and pneumonia (P = .05). When analyzed by gender, there were no discernable differences in long-term survival for male patients in group I (65% at 5 years and 29% at 10 years) versus male patients in group II (65% at 5 years and 31% at 10 years) (P = .2). However, survival was significantly greater for female patients in group I (70% at 5 years and 35% at 10 years) versus female patients in group II (63% at 5 years and 21% at 19 years) (P = .01). Multiple logistic and Cox regression analysis showed that left internal thoracic artery use is associated with improved survival in female patients (hazard ratio [HR], 0.72; confidence interval [CI], 0.56-0.93) but not in male patients (HR, 1.14; CI, 0.9-1.4). Advanced age was associated with an increased risk of mortality (HR, 1.08 per year; CI, 1.05-1.1). Both patient age (P = .01) and Society of Thoracic Surgeons-predicted 30-day mortality (P = .03) remain in the final model for 30-day mortality. The benefit of the left internal thoracic artery after coronary artery bypass grafting in octogenarians may be gender related.",
"Many studies have demonstrated that patients of advanced age are at increased risk for morbidity and mortality following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. When compared to younger age groups, the risks of adverse neurological outcome or mortality have been demonstrated to be higher in septuagenarians and octogenarians. It has been suggested that off-pump coronary artery bypass (OPCAB) surgery, by avoiding the adverse effects of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB), may improve the risks of morbidity and mortality, particularly in these higher risk elderly patients. Despite the increased rates of adverse events in patients of advanced age, various authors have described these risks to be in the acceptable range, justifying continued recommendations for operative revascularization in properly selected elderly patients. OPCAB theoretically may provide improvements in early outcomes for these patients by avoiding the unwanted sequelae of CPB. This report is a study of the potential advantages of OPCAB techniques based on a retrospective analysis of 140 patients aged 70 or more operated on by a single surgeon at a single institution using OPCAB techniques during a 39-month period. In these operations, surgical access was almost exclusively via midline sternotomy. Exposure of target coronary arteries was by means of extended inverted-T pericardiotomy. Local occlusion of coronary arteries was achieved using proximally placed silastic tapes (Quest Medical Inc., Allen, TX). Distal occlusion was rarely needed. Stabilization was obtained exclusively with the suction-based Octopus stabilization system (Medtronic, Inc., Minneapolis, MN). A mean number of 2.36+/-0.95 distal anastomoses were constructed per patient, with a range from one to five. Multivessel OPCAB patients averaged 2.73 grafts per patient. Of the 142 patients who underwent OPCAB surgery, only two required elective conversion to CABG with CPB. The procedure was safe, with no need for urgent conversion to CPB. Myocardial protection was excellent, with no patient requiring inotropic support leaving the operating room, and no patient developed postoperative stroke. Several patients had evidence of temporary nocturnal confusion but recovered prior to discharge. There were no in-hospital or 30-day post-operative mortalities in this group.",
"yes. AAA repair should be approached with extreme caution in octogenarians. Perioperative and 1-year mortality rates after OAR are particularly high in the older population, suggesting that the appropriate aneurysm size threshold for OAR might be larger due to the greater operative risk in octogenarian patients.",
"yes. The results suggest that a closed perfusion system with a heparin-coated circuit and a centrifugal pump may improve cardiopulmonary bypass biocompatibility in elderly cardiac surgery patients in comparison with a conventional system.",
"Although the elderly patients have an increased risk of having cardiac and cerebrovascular events in the postoperative period, the treatment of rAAAs in these patients should not be any different than that of a younger population. The left retroperitoneal approach is feasible and beneficial for rAAA repair and is associated with a limited morbidity and mortality.",
"Rapid recovery protocols after coronary artery bypass grafting have been applied successfully to young patients with normal ventricular function. However, the success of such protocols when applied to the elderly population has not been thoroughly validated, and at some centers there is still reluctance in allowing elderly patients to be discharged early from the hospital. One hundred fifty-two consecutive younger patients (<70 years) were compared retrospectively with 167 consecutive elderly patients (>or = 70 years) who underwent isolated coronary artery bypass grafting using cardiopulmonary bypass. A rapid recovery protocol emphasizing an anesthetic protocol for early extubation, reduced cardiopulmonary bypass time, and perioperative administration of corticosteroids and thyroid hormone was applied to all patients. The protocol also emphasized early identification and management of postoperative atrial fibrillation, a proactive negative fluid balance, rapid return of bowel function, mobilization of the patient, and aggressive use of the intraaortic balloon pump preoperatively. The 30-day mortality rate for the younger group of patients was 3.3% (Parsonnet risk 7.2 +/- 6.2), compared with 4.2% (Parsonnet risk, 17.7 +/- 6.8) for the elderly group of patients. There were no statistically significant differences in the 30-day mortality rates or postoperative complications between the elderly and younger patient groups. Rapid recovery with discharge before the fifth postoperative day was achieved in 19% of the elderly, in comparison with 48% of the younger patients (p<0.001). The younger patients were discharged earlier after operation than the older patients (5.7 +/- 5.2 versus 8.0 +/- 8.5 days; p<0.01).",
"There is a popular perception that aortic valve replacement (AVR) in octogenarians carries a high risk related primarily to advanced age. Using the Department of Veterans Affairs Continuous Improvement in Cardiac Surgery Program, we identified patients who underwent AVR between 1991 and 2007. A prediction model was constructed using stepwise logistic regression methodology for outcome comparisons. Compared with younger patients (age<80 years; n = 6,638), older patients (age>or = 80; n = 504) had a higher prevalence of baseline comorbidities. In a comparison of patients propensity-matched by risk profile (459 from each group), the older group had a higher morbidity rate (21.1% vs 15.5%; p<0.03) but a similar mortality rate (5.2% vs 3.3%; p = 0.19) compared with the younger group.",
"Incomplete revascularization increases the early risk of death after CABG in patients aged 75 years and older. The potential compensating benefit of the shorter aortic cross clamping time does not outweigh the advantages of complete revascularization. Thus, in the era of high-volume interventional approaches and minimally invasive techniques, the advantages of complete revascularization need to be considered.",
"Elective coronary artery bypass surgery can be performed with low operative mortality. There is a controversial discussion whether short-term and long-term results of CABG justify this procedure in elderly patients. To add to this discussion, we evaluated retrospectively, the clinical profile, operative technique, short- and long-term results of 1127 patients over 70 years of age who underwent myocardial revascularization between January 1985 and December 1996. Mean age of the cohort was 73.9 years and it rose continuously. In 1996, septuagenarians represented 21.5% of our coronary patients, in comparison to 6.4% in 1985. Analysis of risk factors showed an increasing prevalence of renal failure, obesity, hyperuricemia and a history of smoking. Preoperatively, 87% of our patients were in NYHA-class III or IV, and thus operated to relieve severe symptoms. The percentage of emergent operations decreased over the observed period by 10.3%. The internal mammary artery was used with rising frequency (44.8% in 1985-1992 vs 61.5% in 1993-1996). The number of simultaneous valve replacements increased, too. Postoperatively, we noted a rising incidence of respiratory failure (17.1%) and neurological disorders (13.7%). On the other hand, the need for intra-aortic balloon pumping and hemofiltration declined by 6.6% and 2.9%, respectively. Perioperative mortality (< or =24 hrs) was 3.65%, hospital mortality (< or =30 days) was 9.64%. The actuarial survival (standard error) at 1 year was 82% (+/-4.3%), and 65.7% (+/-3.8%) at 5 years.",
"Use of HA in hypoalbuminemic cardiac surgery patients aged>80 yr was without benefit with regard to inflammatory response, endothelial activation, and renal function compared to 6% HES 130/0.4.",
"yes. These data suggest that patients aged >70 y undergoing cardiac operations generate more IL-6 during CPB. The increased circulating IL-6 in elderly patients may incite a proinflammatory state that could subsequently underlie the associated higher mortality and morbidity of these procedures in elderly patients.",
"Surgery in octogenarians with acute type A aortic dissection is commonly avoided or denied because of the high surgical morbidity and mortality reported in elderly patients. We sought to compare clinical and quality of life outcomes between octogenarians and those aged less than 80 years who underwent surgical repair at New York Medical College. A total of 101 cases of acute type A aortic dissection repair between July 2005 and December 2011 were retrospectively analyzed, comparing 21 octogenarians with 80 concurrent patients aged less than 80 years. All patients underwent corrective surgery (ascending/hemiarch replacement in 71; Bentall in 22; David procedure in 2; Wheat procedure in 4; total arch replacement in 2) using deep hypothermic circulatory arrest. During follow-up, the RAND 36-Item Short Form Health Survey Questionnaire was used to assess quality of life. Octogenarians (average, 85 years; range, 80-91 years) were compared with the younger group (average, 60 years; range, 30-79 years). The 2 groups had similar preoperative characteristics, but the younger group experienced more malperfusion (40% vs 9%, P = .002), were more likely to have undergone a Bentall procedure (26% vs 5%, P = .04), and had longer circulatory arrest times (20 ± 7 minutes vs 16 ± 9 minutes, P = .03). The overall hospital mortality was 9% (9/101). Among octogenarians, there were no hospital deaths, no late deaths during follow-up (mean, 17 months; range, 1-59 months), and emotional health scores were better than those of the younger patients (P = .04).",
"Patients aged 90 years and older represent a rapidly growing subset of the population, many of whom are functionally limited by cardiovascular disease. Clinical decision making about cardiac surgical intervention in nonagenarians is hindered by a paucity of data examining survival outcomes in this population. A consecutive series of nonagenarians who underwent cardiac operations between 1995 and 2004 were retrospectively reviewed. Data collection included baseline preoperative clinical status, intraoperative characteristics, and perioperative course. Area under the Kaplan-Meier survival estimate method was used to calculate mean survival. Cardiac surgical procedures were done in 49 patients (51% male); their mean age was 91.9 years (range, 90 to 97 years). Operative mortality was 8% (n = 4). Multivariate Cox proportional hazards models found preoperative chronic renal insufficiency (hazard ratio [HR], 4.88; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.53 to 15.55; p = 0.007) and ejection fraction (HR, 0.96; 95% CI, 0.93 to 1.00; p = 0.033) were independently associated with death. Overall mean survival was 5.1 +/- 0.5 years (median, 5.2 years). Quality of life outcomes were similar to that of two related norm-based populations based on age and disease process.",
"yes. Individually tailored revascularization improves the outcome of CLI in octogenarians as well as in nonoctogenarians; even so, endovascular revascularization should be preferred in octogenarians because of the higher mortality associated with surgery.",
"The acute and long-term benefits of internal thoracic artery grafting are clear in younger patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. The elderly, however, face higher surgical risks and have shorter life expectancy, and thus the use of internal thoracic artery grafting in this age group has been debated. This study examined the use, complication risks, and operative (30-day) mortality associated with internal thoracic artery grafting in patients 75 years of age and older. Between 1996 and 1999, 522,656 patients in the Society of Thoracic Surgeons National Cardiac Database underwent primary, nonemergency-salvage coronary artery bypass grafting; of these, 99,942 were 75 years of age or older. The influence of internal thoracic artery use on operative mortality and 5 major complications in this elderly group was examined by means of (1) risk adjustment (adjusting for 28 baseline risk factors and site) and (2) a treatment propensity score analysis that compares patients with similar baseline likelihood for receiving an internal thoracic artery graft. In the National Cardiac Database 77.4% of patients aged 75 to 84 years received an internal thoracic artery graft compared with 93.5% for those aged 55 years or less. In this elderly group use of the internal thoracic artery was strongly associated with decreased operative mortality (unadjusted mortality, 6.20% vs. 4.05%; P<.0001) that persisted after controlling for baseline risk and provider effects (adjusted odds ratio, 0.85; 95% confidence intervals, 0.79-0.91). This mortality benefit was seen among those with low-to-high baseline propensity for receiving an internal thoracic artery graft.",
"yes. This study suggests that patients > 70 years-old were at increased risk of death and other complications in the CABG's postoperative period in comparison to younger patients.",
"yes. These results indicate that with appropriate surgical techniques the MIPA approach for isolated valve surgery can be safely applied to the elderly patient population with excellent results. In our initial experience the MIPA approach is associated with significantly less plasma transfusion, fewer postoperative complications, and shorter length of hospital stay.",
"In accordance with the rising prevalence of octogenarians undergoing cardiac surgery, these patients utilize an increasing portion of intensive care unit (ICU) capacities, provoking economic and ethical concerns. In this study, we evaluated the outcomes and costs generated by the prolonged postoperative ICU treatment of octogenarians. Between July 2009 and August 2010, 109 of 1063 patients required ICU treatment of at least 5 days after cardiac surgery. Patients were retrospectively assigned to either Group A (age<80, n = 86) or Group B (age ≥80, n = 23). Operative risk, mortality, length and costs of ICU treatment were analysed and compared. After 1 year, survival, quality of life (QOL) and functional status were assessed. Hospital mortality was 31.4% in Group A and 56.5% in Group B. Survivals of discharged patients after 1 year were 83% (Group A) and 80% (Group B), respectively. Log EuroSCORE I of octogenarians was significantly higher (30 ± 17 vs 20 ± 16, P<0.001). No significant differences (Group A vs Group B) were found between the groups concerning length of ICU treatment (20 ± 21 vs 16 ± 14 days, P = 0.577) or costs (27 205 ± 29 316€ vs 21 821 ± 16 259€, P = 0.812). Functional capacity, calculated by using Barthel index, was high (Group A: 87 ± 22 and Group B: 67 ± 31, P = 0.108) and did not differ significantly between groups. QOL, measured with the short form-12 health survey, did not differ significantly between groups (physical health summary score: P = 0.27; mental health score: P = 0.885) and was comparable with values of the age-adjusted general population.",
"yes. This study shows that the benefit of the left internal thoracic artery in the octogenarian population undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting may be gender related. For elderly female patients, the use of the left internal thoracic artery as a bypass conduit was associated with better long-term survival, whereas no significant difference was found among the male population. The use of the left internal thoracic artery was associated with a greater postoperative pulmonary morbidity for the study population as a whole. The present study does not refute the benefit of the left internal thoracic artery-left anterior descending graft, but instead distinguishes a subset who might benefit more.",
"Surgery for acute type A aortic dissection in the octogenarian shows high hospital mortality but satisfactory long-term survival among discharged patients. A less aggressive approach should increase the outcomes of surgically managed patients.",
"Presented data propose that advanced age is correlated with a higher mortality, but not with prolonged ICU treatment or higher costs after cardiac surgery. Considering the encouraging functional status and QOL of the survivors, the financial burden caused by octogenarians is justified.",
"yes. Contrary to what is observed in patients younger than 60 years, complete revascularization does not seem to improve long-term survival in older patients. This suggests that elderly patients at high operative risk may be considered, when deemed clinically appropriate, for limited coronary revascularization.",
"AAA surgical treatment in octogenarians had comparable results with younger patients, in either elective or emergency settings. The extension of indications for AAA elective surgery in octogenarians might lead to a lower rate of emergency settings and subsequently to better early and late surgical outcomes.",
"Changes in the age profile of the population in the western world and improvement in surgical techniques and postoperative care have contributed to a growing number of cardiosurgical patients aged over 90. In periods when transapical and transfemoral aortic valve replacement were done, we aimed at evaluating the outcome of nonagenarians after conventional aortic valve replacement and cardiac surgery in general, and determining perioperative parameters to predict a complicated postoperative course. Between 1995 and 2011, 49 nonagenarians (aged 91.2±3.1 years) underwent cardiac surgery. A subgroup of 30 patients received aortic valve replacement alone (63%; n=19), in combination with coronary artery bypass grafting (27%; n=8) or other surgical procedures (10%; n=3). Most of the patients suffered from combined aortic valve disease with a mean valve orifice area of 0.6±0.3 cm2 and a mean antegrade pressure gradient of 86±22 mmHg. Cardiac surgery in nonagenarians resulted in remarkable postoperative morbidity and an overall in-hospital mortality of 10% (n=5). In the AVR subgroup, biological valve prostheses were implanted in 29 patients. In this subgroup, the length of stay was 2.9±0.9 days in the intensive care unit and 17.0±5.5 days in the hospital. The in-hospital mortality amounted to 13% (n=4). Although several general preoperative risk factors of postoperative complications such as renal failure, low cardiac output syndrome and New York Heart Association Class IV were remarkably more frequent among the patients who died after the operation, the small cohort of non-surviving nonagenarians did not allow for significant differences.",
"The study results clearly demonstrate that heart surgery in the elderly with the SJM mechanical valve can be accomplished with acceptable hospital mortality, morbidity, and excellent long-term results. Moreover, long-term QOL in elderly patients with a SJM valve can be expected to meet or exceed that of age- and gender-matched controls.",
"The average age of cardiac patients continues to increase. As more octogenarians undergo surgery during the current era, the outcome of valve surgery was investigated to determine the operative risk in these patients. Among 350 patients aged>or = 80 years who had initial surgery between 1998 and 2006, a total of 188 (105 females, 83 males) underwent valve surgery. A prospective analysis was conducted of the collected data. The median age of patients was 82 years (IQR: 81-84 years), and over half of them presented with severe symptoms (NYHA class III/IV; n = 96), controlled heart failure (n = 108), hypertension (n = 101) and coronary artery disease (n = 108). Concomitant coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) was performed in 89 cases (47%). Perioperative hemodynamic support with inotropes was common (47%). Hospital death after isolated aortic valve replacement (AVR) (n = 89) and mitral valve replacement (MVR) (n = 10) occurred in four patients (4.5%, median additive EuroSCORE 9.0%) and one patient (10%, median additive EuroSCORE 9.8%), respectively. Concomitant CABG led to a doubling of the operative mortality which, for AVR, declined from 5.4% to 3.8% during the latter half of the study period. The median length of stay was 24 h (IQR 21-44 h) in the intensive care unit, and 10 days (IQR 7-14 days) postoperatively. The risk factors for operative mortality were urgent/emergent surgery (HR 3.27, 95% CI 1.12-9.58, p = 0.03), preoperative gastrointestinal disease (HR 3.15, 95% CI 1.12-8.9, p = 0.03), left ventricular ejection fraction<0.30 (HR 4.37, 95% CI 1.29-14.82, p = 0.02), and ischemic time (HR 1.04, 95% CI 1.004-1.07, p = 0.02).",
"Elderly cardiac surgery patients already showed moderately altered coagulation prior to surgery. Thus elderly patients may be at risk of developing postoperative alterations in hemostasis on the ICU. The exact reasons for the impaired coagulation in the elderly remains to be determined.",
"yes. The principle finding from this analysis is a contemporary low operative mortality for CABG in an elderly patient cohort. Risk of death is particularly low in a low-risk subset of elderly patients with reasonable LV function undergoing elective, primary CABG.",
"Elderly patients might be denied nonelective cardiac surgery because of the perception of poor outcomes and an unacceptable quality of life. In this study we evaluate long-term survival and quality of life in these patients. From 1994 to 1999, 262 consecutive patients older than 80 years underwent urgent (n = 223) or emergent (n = 39) cardiac surgery. Of these patients, 160 (61%) underwent coronary artery bypass grafting, 64 (24%) underwent coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve surgery, 17 (7%) underwent valve surgery, and 21 (8%) underwent aortic surgery. Kaplan-Meier survival analysis and quality-of-life assessment were performed, and result were compared with age-adjusted population data. Risk factors for mortality were determined by using Cox regression. The utility of Society of Thoracic Surgeons and EuroSCORE risk scoring were assessed by using area under receiver operating curves. Early mortality was 11% (n = 29) overall, 7% (n = 16) in urgent cases, and 33% (n = 13) in emergent cases. Five-year survival was 50% (n = 132) overall, 53% (n = 105) in urgent cases, and 36% (n = 18) in emergent cases. There was no difference in 10-year survival between patients undergoing urgent surgical intervention and age-adjusted population data. Among survivors, quality-of-life measures were equivalent to those of the general elderly population. Risk factors for early mortality were age, emergent procedure, aortic procedure, bypass time, and postoperative complication (renal failure, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, pneumonia, and reoperation for bleeding). Risk factors for late mortality were peripheral vascular disease, emergent procedure, bypass time, and new renal failure. The EuroSCORE and Society of Thoracic Surgeons risk scores were equivalent but only moderately predictive of mortality.",
"The proportion of elderly patients undergoing isolated coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery has steadily increased. We have evaluated temporal trends in hospital outcomes of patients who were 75 years and older undergoing CABG (1990-2010) at our institution. Data were collected prospectively for 3483 consecutive patients who were 75 years and older (median 78 years; range 75-94) undergoing isolated CABG at our institution over three time cohorts: 1990-96 (n = 817), 1997-2003 (n = 1534) and 2004-10 (n = 1132). Overall mortality declined from 6.0% (49/817) in the earliest era (1990-96) to 1.9% (22/1132) in the most recent era (2003-10; P < 0.001). Mortality in low-risk patients (elective, primary surgery with the ejection fraction >40%) was 5.9% (13/220), 0.8% (4/514) and 0% (0/411) in the first, second and third eras, respectively (P < 0.001). Despite the overall increase in comorbidities in our elderly patients, the prevalences of certain risk factors such as poor LV function, urgency of surgery and reoperation have all declined with time. The independent risk factors for mortality in our population were congestive heart failure, left main disease, earlier year of operation, reoperation, preoperative myocardial infarction, cardiopulmonary bypass time, emergent/urgent surgery and peripheral vascular disease. Of these, earlier year of operation (OR: 3.0; 95% CI: 1.8-5.2) was the most significant predictor. Also, age >80 did not predict mortality.",
"To evaluate the outcomes of mitral valve surgery in octogenarians. Data were collected prospectively from January 1996 to March 2004 at two surgical centers. Of 1386 consecutive patients with mitral valve surgery, 58 (4.2%) were aged>or = 80 years. Survival data were analyzed using Cox proportional hazards modeling and Kaplan-Meier actuarial log rank statistics. Octogenarians were similar to younger patients for the presence of pre-operative hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, and smoking history. Octogenarians had a higher incidence of cerebrovascular disease (19.0 versus 7.8%, P = 0.003), urgent in-hospital surgery (55.2 versus 28.6%, P<0.001), and presence of ischemic disease requiring combined mitral valve plus revascularization surgery (72.4 versus 41.0%, P<0.001). Mitral valve repair was performed in a similar proportion of octogenarians and younger patients (44.8 versus 45.6%). Thirty-day mortality for octogenarians was significantly higher than younger patients (15.5 versus 5.6%, P = 0.002), and actuarial survival of octogenarians was significantly decreased (P = 0.009). However, 52.3% of the octogenarians were alive at 7-years following surgery. Independent predictors of mortality from multivariate risk adjusted modeling of the entire cohort were: emergency surgery (hazards ratio [HR] = 2.94, P<0.001), combined mitral valve plus revascularization surgery (HR = 2.27, P<0.001), mitral valve replacement (HR = 1.85, P<0.01), and age>or = 80 years (HR = 1.80, P = 0.02).",
"Selected patients appear to benefit from off-pump coronary artery bypass compared with conventional coronary artery bypass with cardiopulmonary bypass. It is unknown whether elderly patients undergoing isolated coronary artery bypass grafting operations derive any benefit when performed off-pump. We hypothesized that off-pump coronary bypass offers a greater operative benefit to elderly patients when compared with conventional coronary artery bypass. A total of 1993 elderly patients (age ≥ 80 years) underwent isolated, primary coronary artery bypass graft operations at 16 different statewide centers from 2003 to 2008. Patients were stratified into 2 groups: conventional coronary artery bypass (n = 1589, age = 82.5 ± 2.4 years) and off-pump bypass (n = 404, age = 83.0 ± 2.4 years). Preoperative risk, intraoperative findings, postoperative complications, and costs were evaluated. Patients undergoing off-pump bypass grafting were marginally older (P = .001) and had higher rates of preoperative atrial fibrillation (14.6% vs 10.0%; P = .01) and New York Heart Association class IV heart failure (29.7% vs 21.1%; P<.001) than did those having conventional coronary bypass grafting. Other patient risk factors and operative variables, including Society of Thoracic Surgeons predicted risk of mortality, were similar in both groups (P = .15). Compared with off-pump bypass, conventional coronary bypass incurred higher blood transfusion rates (2.0 ± 1.7 units vs 1.6 ± 1.9 units; P = .05) as well as more postoperative atrial fibrillation (28.4% vs 21.5%; P = .003), prolonged ventilation (14.7% vs 11.4%; P = .05), and major complications (20.1% vs 15.6%; P = .04). Importantly, postoperative stroke (2.6% vs 1.7%; P = .21), renal failure (8.1% vs 6.2%; P = .12), and postoperative length of stay (P = .41) were no different between groups. Despite more complications in patients having conventional bypass, operative mortality (P = .53) and hospital costs (P = .43) were similar to those of patients having off-pump procedures.",
"Increasing numbers of the very old are presenting for cardiac surgical procedures. There is little information about quality of life after hospital discharge in this group. From March 1995 to February 1997, 127 patients older than 80 years at operation (mean age, 83+/-2.5 years; range, 80 to 92 years) were entered into the cardiac surgery database and analyzed retrospectively. The RAND SF-36 Health Survey and the Seattle Angina Questionnaire were used to assess quality of life by telephone interview (mean follow-up, 15.7+/-6.9 months). No patient was lost to follow-up. Operations included coronary artery bypass grafting (65.4%), coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve replacement (15.8%), and isolated valve replacement (14.2%). Preoperatively, 63.8% were in New York Heart Association class IV. Thirty-day mortality was 7.9%, and actuarial survival was 83% (70% confidence interval, 79% to 87%) at 1 year and 80% (70% confidence interval, 75% to 85%) at 2 years. Preoperative renal failure significantly increased the risk of early death (relative risk, 3.96) as did urgent or emergent operation (relative risk, 6.70). In addition, cerebrovascular disease (relative risk, 3.54) and prolonged ventilation (relative risk, 3.82) were risk factors for late death. Ninety-five patients (92.2%) were in New York Heart Association class I or II at follow-up. Seattle Angina Questionnaire scores for anginal frequency (92.3+/-18.9), stability (94.4+/-16.5), and exertional capacity (86.8+/-25.1) indicated good relief of symptoms. SF-36 scores were equal to or better than those for the general population of age greater than 65 years. Of the survivors, 83.7% were living in their own home, 74.8% rated their health as good or excellent, and 82.5% would undergo operation again in retrospect.",
"yes. This study supports the use of arterial grafts in elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting.",
"Operations for acute type A dissection performed on octogenarians involve increased hospital mortality and morbidity. Short-term survival is unfavorable and is associated with a poor quality of life. Without additional corroborative studies to endorse the present findings, the use of age as a parameter to limit access of patients to expensive medical resources remains an unsubstantiated concept. In the context of acute type A aortic dissection, however, the hypothesis that older patients should be denied such a complicated surgical intervention to conserve resources is supported by the presented data.",
"On the background of the well-known age-dependent structural and functional changes of different body organs, our data show that age is a significant risk indicator in cardiac surgery, strongly correlating with morbidity and mortality. Consequently, special preventive and therapeutic measures are required in clinical environment in the case of elderly patients undergoing cardiac surgery.",
"Bypass surgery in the elderly (age >70 years) has increased mortality and morbidity, which may be a consequence of cardiopulmonary bypass. We compare the outcomes of a cohort of elderly off-pump coronary artery bypass (OPCAB) patients with elderly conventional coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patients. Chart and provincial cardiac care registry data were reviewed for 30 consecutive elderly OPCAB patients (age 74.7 +/- 4.2 years) and 60 consecutive CABG patients (age 74.9 +/- 4.1 years, p = 0.82) with similar risk factor profiles: Parsonnet score 17.2 +/- 8.1 (OPCAB) versus 15.6 +/- 6.5 (CABG), p = 0.31; and Ontario provincial acuity index 4.5 +/- 1.9 (OPCAB) versus 4.3 +/- 2.0 (CABG), p = 0.65. Mean hospital stay was 6.3 +/- 1.8 days for OPCAB patients and 7.7 +/- 3.9 days for CABG patients (p < 0.05). Average intensive care unit stay was 24.0 +/- 10.9 h for OPCAB patients versus 36.6 +/- 33.5 h for CABG patients (p < 0.05). Atrial fibrillation occurred in 10.0% of OPCAB patients and 28.3% of CABG patients (p < 0.05). Low output syndrome was observed in 10% of OPCAB patients and 31.7% of CABG patients (p < 0.05). Cost was reduced by $1,082 (Canadian) per patient in the OPCAB group. Postoperative OPCAB graft analysis showed 100% patency.",
"With the aging of society in developed countries and advances in surgical technology in recent years, surgery is increasing in elderly patients. When performing surgery in older patients, both surgical outcomes and the maintenance of postoperative quality of life (QOL) are important issues. This study investigated surgical outcomes and postoperative QOL in octogenarians who underwent cardiac valvular surgery. Fifty-nine (16 males) octogenarians (80-89 years old, mean age, 82.4 ± 2.4 years) underwent cardiac valvular surgery between August 1999 and June 2011. A QOL questionnaire, which included the Barthel Index (BI), Fillenbaum Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (FIADL), and the Vitality Index (VI), was sent to all survivors. Kaplan-Meier analysis was used to assess survival. Hospital mortality was 1.6% (1 patient). The 3-, 5-, and 7-year survival rates were 81.2%, 75.4%, and 67.8%, respectively. The BI showed that 87.5% of patients did not require caregiving, the FIADL showed that 32.5% were highly independent, and the VI showed that 87.5% were motivated to live.",
"yes. In aged human atrial myocardium, the capacity to recover contractile function after in vitro hypoxia or simulated ischemia is reduced compared with the younger myocardium of mature adults. These findings suggest that enhanced myocardial protective strategies may be indicated for elderly patients undergoing cardiac surgery.",
"The outcome of conventional aortic arch surgery in octogenarians is improving. The operations were performed with an acceptable operative risk even under emergency situations, including acute aortic dissection. The conventional surgical option for aortic arch diseases should not be abandoned only because of the high chronologic age of the patient.",
"Surgical treatment for symptomatic aortic stenosis in octogenarians has an acceptable operative risk with excellent long-term results and good quality of life. In this cohort, survival rate is slightly but significantly higher with mechanical prostheses.",
"Use of the internal thoracic artery in elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting provides an acute survival benefit. This benefit is similar to that seen in younger patients and persists after adjusting for both patient and provider selection factors. The internal thoracic artery appears to be underused in elderly patients undergoing bypass grafting and is a potential area for quality improvement.",
"Long-term survival and quality of life after nonelective cardiac surgery can equal that of the general elderly population. Age alone should not disqualify a patient for urgent or emergent cardiac surgery.",
"Aortic surgery utilizing HCA in octogenarians can be performed with an acceptable risk of mortality and stroke. From the evidence in this study, it seems that elective aneurysm repair via a median sternotomy can be undertaken for the usual indications, even in octogenarians. However, the enhanced vulnerability of the brain in the elderly is reflected by a high early mortality following stroke, and a high incidence of TND. Emergency operations increase the possibility of adverse outcome dramatically, and patients who require a lateral thoracotomy are at significantly higher risk than those operated via a median sternotomy.",
"Surgical intervention for aortic arch disease in octogenarians can yield satisfactory early clinical outcomes and acceptable mid-term survival with adequate daily activity. This study indicates that among octogenarians, age alone should not disqualify a patient from receiving an aortic arch intervention.",
"Elective isolated AVR can be performed with modest operative risk in octogenarians with good left ventricular systolic function. Additional procedures impose long ischemic times and increase the operative risk, as does MVR. Strategies to minimize the complexity and extent of surgery should benefit these patients.",
"Octogenarians undergoing VMPR have a higher incidence of atrial fibrillation and admission to the intensive care unit for cardiopulmonary support but otherwise are no different from younger age groups when it comes to rate of conversion to thoracotomy, hospital stay, morbidity and mortality. Age should not be an excuse to deny the elderly curative VATS resection. In our experience, accepting octogenarians early in the VMPR programme did not compromise the outcome results.",
"CABG can be performed in a selected elderly population. Careful attention to risk factors associated with high mortality can be helpful in improving post-operative morality. Age in itself may not be responsible for high morality.",
"We retrospectively reviewed 130 consecutive octogenarians who underwent isolated coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) between January 2003 and September 2010. According to operative technique, patients were categorized in Complete Revascularization (CRV) Group (96 patients) and in Incomplete Revascularization (IRV) Group (34 patients). Follow-up was 98% complete (mean: 30 ± 25 months). The overall in-hospital mortality was 13% and was similar in both groups (p=0.0553). Multivariate regression analysis identified preoperative left ventricular ejection fraction ≤ 40% (p= 0.0060; OR= 0.19) and NHYA class>II (p= 0.0042; OR= 0.17) as risk factor for in-hospital death. Cox regression analysis not identified incomplete revascularization as risk factor for early or late death (p= 0.1381 and p= 0.8865). No differences in 5-year survival and freedom from major adverse cardiac and cerebrovascular events (MACCE) was found between two groups (p=0.8865 and p=0.6283). CRV is important in young patients undergoing CABG, but this principle remains less absolute in elderly patients. In our study, the survival benefit of CRV was less in octogenarians. Probably, the major benefit of CRV was seen in patients less than 80 years of age. This makes sense because these patients have a longer expected survival, and there were more patients available to statistically confirm any difference in outcome.",
"Octogenarians are often denied complex surgical intervention. We evaluated the rationality of this bias by comparing the outcomes of octogenarians undergoing aortic valve replacement (AVR) with or without coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), to those of younger patients. Data on 476 patients (≥ 80 years) who underwent AVR or AVR/CABG were compared to the Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) database. One hundred and seventeen octogenarians underwent AVR and 263 underwent AVR/CABG. Preoperative comorbidity rates were similar between these 2 respective groups, except for diabetes mellitus (18.8 vs. 30.4%, p = 0.02), previous cardiac stent placement (5.1 vs. 17.9%, p = 0.0006) and prior CABG (8.5 vs. 0.8%, p = 0.0002) and mortality did not differ significantly (5.1 vs. 7.6%, p = 0.51). Multivariate analysis identified preoperative chronic renal failure [odds ratio (OR) = 0.09, p<0.048], postoperative arrhythmia (OR = 0.29, p<0.022), sepsis (OR =37.38, p<0.000), pneumonia (OR = 8.29, p<0.038) and renal failure (OR = 10.16, p<0.000) with increased rates of in hospital mortality in AVR alone and AVR/CABG.",
"Between 2009 and 2011, 62 consecutive octogenarians (mean age 83.5 ± 3.5 years) underwent urgent (n = 33) or emergency (n = 29) cardiac surgery. In 69% of patients, coronary artery bypass grafting was carried out, and 24% of patients underwent coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve surgery. Preoperative risk, as well as the postoperative course, was analyzed. All discharged patients were contacted to gain information about survival, functional capacity and QOL using the Barthel Mobility Index and the Short Form 12 Health Survey questionnaire. Results were compared with age-adjusted population data. In-hospital mortality was 32.3% overall, 9.3% in urgent cases and 56.7% in emergency cases. After a mean follow-up period of 447 ± 359 days, survival of the discharged patients was 93.1% (urgent) and 76.9% (emergency), respectively. QOL measures of the survivors were equivalent to those of the general elderly population. Functional capacity, calculated with Barthel Index, was high in both groups (86 ± 13 and 81 ± 21). A total of 92% of the patients were living at home.",
"Elderly patients are often discouraged from undergoing cardiac surgery procedures owing to the perception of high mortality and poor functional outcomes. This study evaluates long-term survival and quality of life after cardiac surgery in octogenarian and nonagenarian patients. We identified a 459 patient cohort greater than 80 years of age who underwent elective cardiac surgery at our institution from 1994 to 1999. Survival was assessed with Kaplan-Meier analysis and compared with an age-matched and sex-matched population cohort. Among survivors, quality of life was assessed 8 years postoperatively using the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form 12 Health Survey, version 2. Risk factors for mortality were identified with Cox regression. Operative mortality was 4.1%. Actuarial postoperative 5-year and 10-year survival was 53% and 27%, respectively. When compared with age- and sex-matched general population data, relative survival (excluding operative deaths) was 90.4% at 5 years and 78.7% at 10 years. Risk factors for late mortality included age greater than 85, male sex, low body mass index, renal failure, and postoperative respiratory failure. Survivors' median quality of life mental health score was higher (55.2 versus 48.9; p<0.05) and physical health score was equivalent (39.3 versus 39.8; p=0.66) to the general elderly population.",
"Although non-elective cardiac surgery in the elderly is related to high in-hospital mortality, physical and psychological recovery of the survivors is encouraging. QOL equals that of the general elderly population, and good functional status offers a highly independent life. Therefore, age per se should not disqualify patients from urgent or emergency cardiac surgery.",
"Cardiac surgery is justified for carefully selected patients in the ninth decade of life. Although these patients are at increased risk of operative death and surgical complications compared with younger patients, the majority regain a life expectancy in the range of that of the global population. Furthermore, they are presented the chance to retain or maintain an independent lifestyle.",
"yes. Our data suggest that coronary artery bypass grafting can be performed in septuagenarians at an acceptable risk. Since the large majority of patients improve symptomatically, surgery is a recommendable option for a growing number of elderly patients suffering from severe angina.",
"Performance of coronary artery bypass grafting among octogenarian patients is safe and effective. Off-pump coronary artery bypass confers shorter postoperative ventilation but equivalent mortality to conventional coronary artery bypass. Off-pump coronary artery bypass was associated with a reduction in the composite incidence of major complications in unadjusted and adjusted analyses and should be considered an acceptable alternative to conventional bypass for myocardial revascularization in elderly patients.",
"Our results suggest that use of BITA grafts for CABG is feasible and beneficial in octogenarians, resulting in improved late outcomes without increased operative risk.",
"Octogenarians undergoing mitral valve surgery have significantly greater incidence of urgent surgery, ischemic disease requiring combined revascularization surgery, and have decreased rates of survival. While caution is required when operating on these higher risk elderly patients, overall 52.3% of the octogenarians are alive at 7-years following surgery, which is greater than the survival of octogenarians in the community. The greatest survival benefit within octogenarians occurred when mitral valve repair was possible over replacement. Further study will more clearly define subgroups of octogenarians with potentially greater benefit from mitral valve surgery.",
"Despite the highest prevalence of concomitant diseases and the requirement of additional resources for the detection and neutralisation of risk factors, heart-valve operations in octogenarians offer excellent results that compare favourably with the expected survival of the age-, sex- and operative year-matched population, particularly after primary operations.",
"Given recent economic implications in caring for an aging population, we sought to determine if postoperative complications and costs for octogenarians differed based on the type of cardiac operation. From 2003 to 2008, patients who underwent cardiac operations at 16 different centers were identified from the Virginia Cardiac Surgery Quality Initiative and selected into two cohorts (<80 years and ≥80 years). Octogenarians (≥80 years) were stratified into isolated primary coronary bypass graft, aortic valve, mitral valve, or combined operation. Preoperative risks, outcomes, and costs were analyzed. Case-mix adjusted models for mortality and major complication rate were developed. We examined 45,731 patients, of which 3,079 were octogenarians (82.7 ± 2.5 years). Compared with younger patients, octogenarians incurred higher mortality (6.5% vs 3.1%, p < 0.001) and major complication rates (13.2% vs 8.4%, p < 0.001) with only incrementally higher total costs (p < 0.001). Among octogenarians mortality was similar despite the operation. Cross-clamp and cardiopulmonary bypass time (p < 0.001), hospital length of stay (p = 0.001), and major complication rate (p = 0.002) were highest for combined operation. Despite the fewest complications, mitral valve operation had the highest total costs (p < 0.001). Type of operation was not predictive of mortality or major complication rate. However, age, female gender, emergent status, and prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass time were independently associated with death despite risk-adjustment.",
"Cardiac surgery is frequently performed to palliate cardiovascular symptoms in patients who are octogenarians, without controlled clinical trials to support its benefits. We hypothesized that death or discharge to a nursing care facility after cardiac surgery is similar in patients who are octogenarians and younger patients. We conducted an inception cohort study in a tertiary care teaching hospital in patients who had undergone coronary grafting, valve surgery, or both over 36 months before. We collected data on preoperative disease, operation characteristics, postoperative complications, and outcome at hospital discharge. Of 783 patients who had cardiac surgery, 96 were octogenarians. Female sex, pulmonary hypertension, previous malignancy, cerebral vascular disease, valvular heart disease, and congestive heart failure were more frequent in patients who were octogenarians than in younger patients. Operative characteristics were similar in both age groups, except there were more frequent valve or combined with coronary grafts surgery and surgical re-exploration in octogenarians. The rate of postoperative complications including cardiovascular, neurological, renal, and nosocomial infections were higher in patients who were octogenarians than younger patients. Death or discharge to a nursing care facility was more frequent in patients who were octogenarians than younger patients (53% vs 14%, P<.002). Age>or =80 years, female sex, congestive heart failure, and surgical re-exploration were independent predictors for death or discharge to a nursing care facility after cardiac surgery.",
"yes. Surgery for acute type A aortic dissection should be offered to octogenarians because excellent surgical and quality of life outcomes can be achieved even in this elderly population.",
"yes. Our analysis shows that OPCAB improves the early outcome and that octogenarians can lead event-free lives after cardiac surgery.",
"Cardiac surgical procedures can be performed safely and with therapeutic benefit in carefully selected nonagenarians. We consider physiologic indicators, social factors, and patient preferences to be the main determinants in the patient selection process. Our results support the need for more proactive intervention in symptomatic nonagenarian patients as it relates to earlier consideration of elective, rather than emergency cardiac operations.",
"Due to aging of the population the upper-age limit for cardiac operations has constantly been extended. In the current era of health care reform the ability to provide appropriate care for geriatric patients at acceptable costs is a major individual and societal concern. The objective of this study was to evaluate the results of cardiac surgery in octogenarians regarding overall morbidity and mortality as well as to quality of life. Between February 1992 and August 1995, 101 consecutive octogenarians underwent several types of cardiac operations. Operative procedures consisted of coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) in 45 patients, valve replacement or repair in 33 patients, and combined CABG and combined procedures in 19 patients. All surviving patients were mailed a questionnaire 3 to 62 months (22.1+/-15.4 months) postoperatively concerning the postoperative course and quality of life (97.5% follow-up). The early mortality was 15.5% in the CABG group, 3.0% in the valve group, and 21.7% in the combined procedure group; 5-year actuarial survival was 79.1% in the CABG group, 86.9% in the valve group, and 58.8% in the combined procedure group, respectively. The questionnaire sent to the survivors revealed that 81.0% of patients considered their functional status better or much better than before surgery. Of the survivors, 97.3% stated that according to their opinion the operation was worthwhile.",
"Cardiac surgery in the very elderly, particularly with regard to aortic valve replacement, carries a high risk of early morbidity and mortality. However, in selected nonagenarians, surgery can be performed with an acceptable outcome. The risk may even be reduced by an individual approach to the procedure. With regard to potential risk factors, the selection of these patients should be carried out very carefully.",
"yes. Advanced age confers increased risks and incrementally higher costs in patients undergoing cardiac operations. Isolated mitral and combined procedures have the highest complications and costs. Any proposed cardiac operation in octogenarians mandates careful consideration of resource utilization.",
"Outcome differences in octogenarians vs patients younger than 80 years undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting or valve surgery can be analyzed to isolate the effect of age alone on morbidity and mortality. Eight-year hospitalization cohort study. Physicians, nurses, and perfusionists prospectively collected data on 225 variables. Community hospital. A consecutive sample of 7726 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting or valve surgery between October 1, 1993, and February 28, 2001. There were 9 main outcomes of interest: mortality, length of hospital stay, gastrointestinal tract complications, neurologic complications, pulmonary complications, renal complications, return to intensive care unit, intraoperative complications, and reoperation to treat bleeding. We controlled for 16 potential confounding variables to isolate outcome differences according to age. Of 7726 patients who fit the inclusion criteria, 522 were octogenarians. Compared with nonoctogenarians, octogenarians had a significantly higher New York Heart Association functional classification, higher incidence of hypertension, and underwent a greater number of coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve surgical procedures (P<.05). They also had significantly lower body surface area, fewer total number of grafts used, less history of tobacco use, and less abnormal left ventricular hypertrophy, and there were fewer nonwhite patients and fewer men. At multivariate analysis, octogenarians had a higher risk for death (relative risk [RR], 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.52-1.83), longer hospital stay (RR, 1.03; 95% CI, 1.01-1.04), more neurologic complications (RR, 1.51; 95% CI, 1.26-1.67), and were more likely to undergo a reoperation to treat bleeding (RR, 1.49; 95% CI, 1.09-1.72). Univariate analyses revealed no difference between octogenarians and nonoctogenarians for diabetes mellitus, urgency of procedure, prior myocardial infarction, time since last myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or pump time.",
"Our data demonstrate that, for selected octogenarians, double valve replacement can be performed with acceptable outcome. A better performance status of the patients at the time of cardiac surgery will probably improve 1-year survival.",
"Age alone has been shown to influence outcomes after cardiac bypass or valve surgery. Octogenarians undergoing cardiac surgery have more comorbidities and higher mortality even after controlling for 16 potential confounding variables, compared with nonoctogenarians.",
"In this study, off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting in elderly patients was associated with fewer complications, a shorter hospital stay, and lower hospital cost. Off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting may be the operation of choice for octogenarians requiring surgical myocardial revascularization.",
"yes. Cardiac surgery in the very elderly patient can be performed with low operative mortality, excellent long-term survival, and postoperative quality of life exceeding that of the general elderly population.",
"The rate of death or discharge to nursing care facility after cardiac surgery was high among patients who were octogenarians. Current operative outcome end points do not reflect such important differences between patients who are octogenarians and younger patients. Informed discussion of treatment options, potential for discharge to a nursing care facility, and quality of life expectations should precede a decision to undergo cardiac surgery in patients who are octogenarians. Randomized clinical trials of medical versus surgical palliation of cardiovascular symptoms in patients who are octogenarians are needed to justify cost-effectiveness and guide better use of relatively scarce Medicare resources.",
"Octogenarians can undergo cardiac surgical procedures at a reasonable risk and show remarkable improvement in their symptoms. Elderly patients benefit from improved functional status and quality of life."
] | 516 |
Are older patients with mechanical heart valves at increased risk? | [
"Controversy exists regarding the use of mechanical valves in older patients. Many authorities believe that the use of anticoagulants in the elderly is associated with an increased risk of warfarin-related complications. Therefore, we compared the results with mechanical valves in older patients to a cohort of younger patients. Aortic (AVR) or mitral valve replacement (MVR) with a mechanical valve was performed in 1,245 consecutive patients who were followed prospectively. They were grouped by age (group 1,<or = 65 years; group 2,>65 years). The study groups consisted of AVR (group 1, 459 patients; group 2, 323 patients) MVR (group 1, 313 patients; group 2, 150 patients). The average age for the groups was: AVR (group 1, 51 years; group 2, 70 years; p = 0.03) and MVR (group 1, 53 years; group 2, 70 years; p = 0.03). For AVR the incidence of thromboembolism was 0.050 (group 1) and 0.038 (group 2) (p = 0.37) and the actuarial freedom from thromboembolism was 83.0%+/-3.0% and 86.5%+/-1.0%, respectively (p = 0.13). The incidence of bleeding after AVR was 0.021 for group 1 and 0.028 for group 2 (p = 0.49). For MVR the incidence of thromboembolism was 0.059 for group 1 and 0.051 for group 2 (p = 0.75) and the actuarial freedom from thromboembolism was 78.8%+/-3.0% and 75.4%+/-8.7%, respectively (p = 0.71). The incidence of bleeding after MVR was 0.020 for group 1 and 0.027 for group 2 (p = 0.62).",
"Mechanical valves perform well in selected older patients with no increased risk of bleeding or thromboembolism."
] | [
"Although the elderly patients have an increased risk of having cardiac and cerebrovascular events in the postoperative period, the treatment of rAAAs in these patients should not be any different than that of a younger population. The left retroperitoneal approach is feasible and beneficial for rAAA repair and is associated with a limited morbidity and mortality.",
"Age alone has been shown to influence outcomes after cardiac bypass or valve surgery. Octogenarians undergoing cardiac surgery have more comorbidities and higher mortality even after controlling for 16 potential confounding variables, compared with nonoctogenarians.",
"yes. Patients with cardiovascular disease are at higher risk for perioperative MI after single anesthetic bilateral TKA.",
"Concomitant aortic and mitral valve (MV) operations have more than doubled over the past decade. We utilized the Society of Thoracic Surgeons Adult Cardiac Surgery Database (ACSD) to evaluate outcomes for patients undergoing combined aortic valve replacement (AVR) and MV repair or replacement. From 1993 to 2007, 23,404 patients undergoing concomitant AVR+MV surgery were identified. Patients with mitral stenosis, emergent or salvage status, and endocarditis were excluded. Outcomes were expressed as unadjusted operative mortality, adjusted odds ratio (OR) for mortality, and a composite of mortality and major complications. The MV repair was performed in 46.0% and replacement in 54.0% of AVR patients. The rate of MV repair increased from 22.5% in 1993 to 59.1% in 2007 (p<0.0001). Compared with the AVR+MV replacement group, the AVR+MV repair group was older (69.7±11.5 vs 67.2±12.7 years, p<0.0001), had worse ejection fraction (0.449±0.153 vs 0.495±0.139, p<0.0001), and more concomitant coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) (50.5% vs 40.9%, p<0.0001). Unadjusted operative mortality was lower in the AVR+MV repair group (8.2% vs 11.6%, p<0.0001). Predictors of operative mortality by multivariable analysis included the following: age (OR 1.21, p<0.0001); concomitant CABG (OR 1.49, p<0.0001); diabetes mellitus (OR 1.56, p<0.0001); reoperation (OR 1.53, p<0.0001); and renal failure with dialysis (OR 3.57, p<0.0001). Patients undergoing MV repair had a lower independent risk of operative mortality (OR 0.61, p<0.0001), and mortality also independently improved over time (2003 to 2007 vs 1993 to 1997, OR 0.79, p<0.002).",
"yes. This large, unselected cohort revealed that among patients with myocardial infarction, heart failure and its worsening are frequent, especially in the elderly, and dramatically worsen the in-hospital mortality.",
"yes. The rate of use of antithrombotic agents increases with age. The role of these agents in ICH becomes larger in aged people, which may be one of the causes of poorer outcome in aged patients with ICH. Given that the population is rapidly aging, the use of antithrombotic agents should be considered an emerging risk factor.",
"Increasing numbers of the very old are presenting for cardiac surgical procedures. There is little information about quality of life after hospital discharge in this group. From March 1995 to February 1997, 127 patients older than 80 years at operation (mean age, 83+/-2.5 years; range, 80 to 92 years) were entered into the cardiac surgery database and analyzed retrospectively. The RAND SF-36 Health Survey and the Seattle Angina Questionnaire were used to assess quality of life by telephone interview (mean follow-up, 15.7+/-6.9 months). No patient was lost to follow-up. Operations included coronary artery bypass grafting (65.4%), coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve replacement (15.8%), and isolated valve replacement (14.2%). Preoperatively, 63.8% were in New York Heart Association class IV. Thirty-day mortality was 7.9%, and actuarial survival was 83% (70% confidence interval, 79% to 87%) at 1 year and 80% (70% confidence interval, 75% to 85%) at 2 years. Preoperative renal failure significantly increased the risk of early death (relative risk, 3.96) as did urgent or emergent operation (relative risk, 6.70). In addition, cerebrovascular disease (relative risk, 3.54) and prolonged ventilation (relative risk, 3.82) were risk factors for late death. Ninety-five patients (92.2%) were in New York Heart Association class I or II at follow-up. Seattle Angina Questionnaire scores for anginal frequency (92.3+/-18.9), stability (94.4+/-16.5), and exertional capacity (86.8+/-25.1) indicated good relief of symptoms. SF-36 scores were equal to or better than those for the general population of age greater than 65 years. Of the survivors, 83.7% were living in their own home, 74.8% rated their health as good or excellent, and 82.5% would undergo operation again in retrospect.",
"CAS in nonagenarian patients carried increased risk of perioperative ischemic events, compared with contemporary trial results in symptomatic and asymptomatic patients. Further, mean survival time postprocedure fell short of guidelines for receiving procedural benefit. Although larger scale multicenter research is needed, we recommend careful consideration of overall health status when contemplating stenting in nonagenarians.",
"yes. Our study demonstrated that multimorbidity in patients undergoing cardiac valve replacement is significantly associated with long-term but not short-term mortality.",
"The American Heart Association recommends that patients with certain abnormal and prosthetic heart valves receive antibiotic prophylaxis before undergoing invasive dental treatment, owing to the risk of bacterial endocarditis, or BE. However, it is not known how many patients are aware that they have such conditions and understand such recommendations. The authors conducted a study to determine how many male users of three U.S. Department of Veterans' Affairs ambulatory medical care centers denied having a heart murmur, even though a murmur was noted in their medical record. The authors asked 637 potential subjects a series of questions to identify those who had a heart murmur that might place them at risk of developing BE. The authors then reviewed each subject's medical records for documentation of a heart murmur. Four hundred ninety-seven dentate men (mean age: 61.0 years) denied having a heart murmur. Seventy (14.1 percent) of these men had documentation of a heart murmur in their medical records, and 13 (2.6 percent) had murmurs that were likely to be pathological. The failure to accurately report having a heart murmur and having a potentially pathological heart murmur were positively related to age (P = .001). Failure to accurately report having a heart murmur also was related to lower educational levels.",
"The proportion of elderly patients undergoing isolated coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) surgery has steadily increased. We have evaluated temporal trends in hospital outcomes of patients who were 75 years and older undergoing CABG (1990-2010) at our institution. Data were collected prospectively for 3483 consecutive patients who were 75 years and older (median 78 years; range 75-94) undergoing isolated CABG at our institution over three time cohorts: 1990-96 (n = 817), 1997-2003 (n = 1534) and 2004-10 (n = 1132). Overall mortality declined from 6.0% (49/817) in the earliest era (1990-96) to 1.9% (22/1132) in the most recent era (2003-10; P < 0.001). Mortality in low-risk patients (elective, primary surgery with the ejection fraction >40%) was 5.9% (13/220), 0.8% (4/514) and 0% (0/411) in the first, second and third eras, respectively (P < 0.001). Despite the overall increase in comorbidities in our elderly patients, the prevalences of certain risk factors such as poor LV function, urgency of surgery and reoperation have all declined with time. The independent risk factors for mortality in our population were congestive heart failure, left main disease, earlier year of operation, reoperation, preoperative myocardial infarction, cardiopulmonary bypass time, emergent/urgent surgery and peripheral vascular disease. Of these, earlier year of operation (OR: 3.0; 95% CI: 1.8-5.2) was the most significant predictor. Also, age >80 did not predict mortality.",
"The study aim was to review the 15-year results of aortic (AVR) and mitral (MVR) valve replacement with the St. Jude Medical Biocor porcine prosthesis, in order to investigate long-term survival and valve-related complications. Between January 1983 and January 1998, a total of 1,187 patients underwent either AVR (n = 1,029; mean age 69 years) or MVR (n = 158; mean age 63 years). Follow up (99.7% complete) was monitored in 1998, and all data were analyzed with regard to actuarial valve failure rates. Long-term echocardiographic data were obtained. Cumulative follow up time was 5,049 patient-years (pt-yr) for AVR patients, and 845 pt-yr for MVR patients. Actuarial survival rate at 15 years was 41 +/- 3%, and freedom from valve-related death was 94 +/- 1% for the AVR group; corresponding values for the MVR group were 25 +/- 11% and 84 +/- 6%. The occurrence of structural valve deterioration (SVD) varied with age; older patients were less affected. Freedom from SVD was 76 +/- 7% and 92 +/- 4% for AVR and MVR patients, respectively. Thromboembolism (TE) occurred mainly among the oldest patients, and was most prevalent among those with MVR. Actuarial freedom from TE was 82 +/- 5% after AVR and 75 +/- 7% after MVR. Prosthetic valve endocarditis (PVE) was rare, but caused the only reoperative mortality. Freedom from PVE was 95 +/- 2% after AVR and 93 +/- 3% after MVR.",
"Mitral valve repair for degenerative disease is widely accepted. Because of low risk and excellent late outcomes, surgical intervention is recommended increasingly early when repair appears possible. The place of repair vis a vis continued medical therapy in the elderly, however, is less well defined as there are scant data on their surgical risk. We reviewed our recent results with mitral valvuloplasty for degenerative disease with attention to the influence of age. Thirty-day results of mitral valvuloplasty for degenerative disease between January 1996 and April 2000 were examined retrospectively. Patients with ischemic etiology were excluded. Results among those over age 70 years were compared with younger patients. Of 140 patients (78 men and 62 women) aged 27 to 91 (mean 62+/-13) years (44 gs;70 years of age), 61 underwent isolated mitral valvuloplasty, 71 mitral valvuloplasty and coronary artery bypass, and 8 mitral valvuloplasty with other procedures. By multivariate analysis preoperative cardiogenic shock (0.001), but not age, was as a risk factor for death. Among patients stratified by age gs; or <70, there were differences in atrial fibrillation (47.7% vs 29.2%, p=0.03), prolonged ventilation (31.8% vs 15.6%, p=0.03) and hospital stay (median 9.5, range 5-285 vs median 6.5, range 2-36, p=0.001), but not 30-day readmission (15.9% vs 22.9%) or death (5.2% vs 9.1%, p=0.49).",
"Transcatheter valve implants currently draw their justification for use from reduction of perioperative risk. However, patient age and comorbidities are independent predictors of adverse outcome after aortic valve replacement, regardless of surgical approach. Therefore, it is unclear whether transapical aortic valve implantation really improves outcomes in high-risk patients. We included a total of 51 high-risk patients with severe aortic valve stenosis. Patients were allocated to transapical aortic valve implantation (n = 21) or minimally invasive aortic valve replacement via a partial upper sternotomy (n = 30), in a nonrandomized fashion. Patient age, preoperative comorbidities, and perioperative risk, expressed as logistic EuroSCORE (38% +/- 14% vs 35% +/- 9%), were matched between the 2 groups. Early morbidity and mortality were comparable between groups, but transapical aortic valve implantation was associated with shorter operative time (P = .004), ventilation time (P<.001), intensive care unit stay (P<.001), and hospital stay (P<.001). Thirty-day mortality was 14% (n = 3) in the transcatheter group versus 10% (n = 3) in the surgical group. After a mean follow-up of 12 +/- 4 months (100% complete), there were a total of 5 (24%) deaths in the transapical group versus 5 (17%) deaths in the open surgery group. There was 1 intraoperative death in the transapical group versus none in the surgery group. In the transapical group, there were 2 re-explorations for bleeding, 2 intraoperative conversions, 1 case of prosthesis migration, and 2 impairments of coronary arteries. The surgery group included 1 re-exploration, 1 stroke, 1 pacemaker implantation for complete atrioventricular block, and 3 cases of atrial fibrillation.",
"Bileaflet prostheses in elderly patients can achieve excellent early and late clinical results, with a low incidence of anticoagulation-related complications and an extremely low risk of a reoperation. Older age can no longer be considered a contraindication to bileaflet prosthesis implantation in the aortic position.",
"Few reliable data are available on clinical outcome of octogenarians undergoing simultaneous aortic and mitral valve replacement. We performed a retrospective analysis of 55 patients aged 80 years and over with double valve replacement who were operated on at our institution between 2001 and 2005. Thirty-day mortality and 1-year survival were assessed. For most of the patients, stenosis was the cause of aortic valve surgery, whereas regurgitation was the cause of mitral valve replacement in the majority of patients. In one third of the patients, cardiac surgery had to be performed on an urgent/emergency basis. A large number of patients had concomitant diagnoses such as atrial fibrillation (73%), coronary artery disease (44%), renal insufficiency (29%), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (20%), and diabetes mellitus (15%). In total, 16 patients (29%) died during follow-up. Survival rates at 30 days and 1 year were 91% and 71%, respectively. As determined by multivariable logistic regression analysis, Karnofsky performance status (hazard ratio: 0.899 per % increase; 95% confidence interval: 0.811 to 0.996; p = 0.043) and bypass time (hazard ratio: 1.062 per min; 95% confidence interval: 1.006 to 1.120; p = 0.028) were independent predictors of 30-day mortality. Beside these factors, additional independent predictors of 1-year mortality were preoperative stroke and postoperative intestinal failure (p = 0.008 and 0.003, respectively).",
"no. Even in younger patients who need anticoagulation therapy irrespective of TVR, mechanical TVR is not superior because of increased occurrence of valve-related events, especially the composite of thrombosis, embolism, and bleeding.",
"yes. Based on our comparative evaluation, bioprostheses should be chosen for MVR in patients 70 years of age and older, whereas mechanical prostheses were better in the patients 64 years of age and younger. The use of bioprostheses in Japanese patients 65 to 69 years of age is not preferable for preventing SVD and subsequent re-MVR.",
"The study aimed to determine if mitral valve repair (MVRR) or bioprosthetic mitral valve replacement (BMVR) without postoperative anticoagulation is associated with a similar risk of thromboembolism and death as anticoagulation. We retrospectively reviewed our 2004-09 experience in 249 MVRR and bioprosthetic replacement patients (53% female; 63 year mean age). Concurrent procedures principally included antiarrhythmic surgery, aortic valve replacement, tricuspid valve repair and coronary bypass grafting. Warfarin therapy was instituted at the discretion of the surgeon. Thirty-day, a period known to have the highest risk of valve-related thromboembolism, outcomes were compared relying on the incidence of stroke and death as surrogates of thromboembolic complications. Intermediate-term survival was compared between the groups using Cox proportional hazard models. The mean follow-up was 2.9 years. Given the non-randomized warfarin use, a propensity score using patient comorbidities and concurrent procedures was created and added to the Cox models. One hundred and ninety-two (77%) patients were discharged on warfarin and 57 (23%) were discharged without warfarin. Thirty-day mortality in patients discharged from the index hospitalization was 1.2% and was similar for the two groups (P = 0.99). Four ischaemic perioperative strokes were detected; 3 in the warfarin group and 1 in the no warfarin group (P = 0.99). Overall survival was 84%, with 84% survival in the warfarin group and 86% in the no warfarin group (P = 0.79). Bleeding complications were comparable between the two groups (P = 0.72). In a multivariate analysis, warfarin was not related to mortality.",
"After risk adjustment, age of 80 years or greater was independently associated with higher AVR-related morbidity but not mortality. Further work is needed to identify ways to reduce operative morbidity in the extremely elderly.",
"yes. NVAF patients whose conditions were complicated with risk factors for embolism could be in the prothrombotic state. Advanced age is a strong predictor of the prothrombotic state in NVAF patients.",
"Guidelines proposed bioprosthesis implantation for aortic valve disease if the patients were at least 65 years old at the time of surgery, with a trend towards even younger patients in recent years. Considering the adverse effects of lifetime anticoagulation, new biological valves (less prone to degeneration) and new technologies may lead patients and surgeons to different choices. Therefore, it is interesting to analyse the results of aortic bioprosthetic valve replacement in patients aged<65 years at the time of surgery. From January 2000 to December 2010, 84 patients aged<65 years at the time of surgery had undergone an aortic bio-prosthetic valve replacement. A mid-term follow-up [(FU) mean FU time: 54.4 ± 39.2 months] was done in August 2011 in all patients (FU completeness: 100%). Results were compared with patients who had a mechanical prosthetic aortic valve replacement during the same period. The reoperation rate for structural valve degeneration (SVD) of bioprostheses was 6% and occurred exclusively among patients<56 years. Contraindications for anticoagulation determined the choice of a bioprosthesis among 83% of these patients. The personal preference to avoid anticoagulation was the leading cause in 68% of the older patients (56-65 years). Neurological complications occurred more frequently in the mechanical control group.",
"yes. This is the first study to show that increasing Society of Thoracic Surgeons risk score predicts greater charges after aortic valve replacement. As competing therapies, such as percutaneous valve replacement, emerge to treat high-risk patients, these results serve as a benchmark to compare resource use.",
"The type, the number, and the combinations of cardiovascular risk factors and the predictors for adverse outcome are different in the 2 age groups. Our observations indicate that people 75 years or older with small number of cardiovascular risk factors can undergo CEA with the same risk of perioperative stroke and death as the younger patients.",
"yes. Increased prevalences of severe aortic arch calcifications and target lesion ulceration are associated with an increased risk for magnetic resonance DWI-detected embolic events during CAS. Because in our study arch calcification and target lesion ulceration were more prevalent in octogenarians, this association may explain the increased risk of CAS in the elderly.",
"yes. PMI incidence increased significantly with advanced age. PMI increased mortality following non-cardiac surgery. The independent risk factors for death in PMI patients following noncardiac surgery were lack of anticoagulation/antiplatelet therapy and cardiogenic shock.",
"yes. Concomitant PCI is--when based on current heart team practice--associated with increased early and late mortality in selected elderly patients undergoing TAVI.",
"There does not appear to be an indication for routine antithrombotic management. The study supports the potential use of antithrombotic therapy for comorbidities of preoperative cerebrovascular accident and concomitant CABG but not atrial fibrillation, left ventricular dysfunction, or elderly age greater than 70 years. Vascular burden and advanced age are likely contributing factors to these independent predictors. There may still be a need for, or at least consideration of, a randomized trial for AVR with bioprostheses.",
"yes. Data indicate that self-management of oral anticoagulation is a promising strategy in order to increase long-term survival in patients with mechanical prosthetic valves.",
"yes. Mitral valve replacement is a feasible option for elderly patients with mitral valve disease in centers with lack expertise in valve repair. Actual surgical results provide low operative mortality and similar survival to general the population (mainly in females).",
"no. Octogenarians are not at increased risk of periprocedural adverse events following CAS compared to younger patients. Exclusion of high-risk patients from CAS based on age alone is unjustified.",
"Elderly patients are at increased risk of morbidity in pancreatocoduodenectomy, in particular POPF. However, morbidity and mortality rates are acceptable. It is therefore justified to offer PD to elderly patients who do not have significant cardiopulmonary comorbidities.",
"In highly selected patients, the use of a mechanical valved conduit in the pulmonary position leads to satisfactory results. To avoid a predictable reoperation after multiple right ventricular outflow tract reconstruction, and therefore reoperation-related morbidity, the implantation of a mechanical prosthesis as a lifelong solution requires consideration. Selection criteria for this permanent solution should include older age, multiple previous operations, and patient compliance with anticoagulant therapy.",
"Despite modern advances in surgical care, triple-valve surgery (TVS) remains a challenge and carries a mortality of 10% to 20%. No validated risk score is available for TVS, and the effect of advanced age is unknown. This study examined our results in the modern era with the aim of identifying perioperative predictors of adverse outcomes. Between 1997 and 2013, 131 patients (mean age, 67.2±13.4 years) underwent TVS at our institution. Sixty-eight patients (51.9%) were aged 70 years and older. The most common etiology for aortic and mitral disease was degenerative (77.1%), rheumatic (10%), and endocarditis or prosthetic-related, or both, in the rest. Tricuspid valve disease was functional in 96%. New York Heart Association functional class III/IV was present in 69.4%, and 24% had had previous cardiac operations. One or more concomitant cardiac procedures were performed in 77 patients (58.8%), including coronary revascularization in 54. All aortic procedures were replacements, 14 patients required a prosthetic root conduit and 7 thoracic aorta replacement. Mitral replacements were used in 55%, repairs in 45%, and 96.2% of tricuspid procedures were repairs. Univariate and multivariate analyses were used to determine predictors of adverse outcomes. The 30-day and hospital mortality was 10.6% (n=14). Major complications occurred in 70 (53.4%). Univariate analysis identified New York Heart Association functional class III/IV (p=0.04), preoperative renal failure requiring dialysis (p=0.04), urgent operation (p=0.04), intraaortic balloon pump placement (p=0.02), and postoperative low cardiac output (p<0.0001) as predictors for early death. Proximal aortic operations, urgent operation, and New York Heart Association class IV correlated with increased early mortality (p<0.04) in patients aged 70 and older in addition to their decreased overall survival and decreased likelihood of discharge to home. Overall actuarial survival at 1, 5, and 10 years was 84.5%, 75%, and 45%, respectively.",
"Given recent economic implications in caring for an aging population, we sought to determine if postoperative complications and costs for octogenarians differed based on the type of cardiac operation. From 2003 to 2008, patients who underwent cardiac operations at 16 different centers were identified from the Virginia Cardiac Surgery Quality Initiative and selected into two cohorts (<80 years and ≥80 years). Octogenarians (≥80 years) were stratified into isolated primary coronary bypass graft, aortic valve, mitral valve, or combined operation. Preoperative risks, outcomes, and costs were analyzed. Case-mix adjusted models for mortality and major complication rate were developed. We examined 45,731 patients, of which 3,079 were octogenarians (82.7 ± 2.5 years). Compared with younger patients, octogenarians incurred higher mortality (6.5% vs 3.1%, p < 0.001) and major complication rates (13.2% vs 8.4%, p < 0.001) with only incrementally higher total costs (p < 0.001). Among octogenarians mortality was similar despite the operation. Cross-clamp and cardiopulmonary bypass time (p < 0.001), hospital length of stay (p = 0.001), and major complication rate (p = 0.002) were highest for combined operation. Despite the fewest complications, mitral valve operation had the highest total costs (p < 0.001). Type of operation was not predictive of mortality or major complication rate. However, age, female gender, emergent status, and prolonged cardiopulmonary bypass time were independently associated with death despite risk-adjustment.",
"Severe thromboembolic and hemorrhagic complications after mechanical heart valve replacement essentially depend on the intensity of oral anticoagulation and the fluctuation of individual international normalized ratio (INR) values. After heart valve replacement with Medtronic Hall, St. Jude Medical, and CarboMedics implants, patients were randomly divided into two groups, one controlling INR values at home, the other being monitored by family practitioners. Almost 80% of the INR values recorded by patients at home were within the stipulated therapeutic range, INR 2.5 to 4.5, compared with just 62% of INR values recorded by family practitioners. The overall complication rate (hemorrhages and thromboembolic events) of the self-management group was significantly (p<0.05) decreased compared with the conventional group.",
"Cardiac valve insufficiency has been well recognised as an important risk factor for congestive heart failure. With the findings that BCI is associated with an increased risk of specific valvular disorders, it is possible that trauma may play an important and heretofore largely unrecognised role in a portion of the burden of cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.",
"A total of 109 consecutive patients with a mean age of 66.4±14 years (Mean logistic EURO-Score: 18.6%) underwent mitral valve surgery in the presence of extensive calcification of mitral annulus between 1996 and 2008. After decalcification and patch-reconstruction of the mitral annulus, mitral valve repair was performed in 53 cases (49%) and the remaining 56 patients (51%) received a mitral valve replacement. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify independent predictors of adverse outcome. Inhospital-mortality was 8.3% and the actuarial survival rate at 8 years 76.2%. Echocardiographic follow up was complete. 65 survivors (94.5%) showed none or only trivial mitral valve insufficiency. The freedom of reoperation at 8 years was 91.8%. We found hypertension, diabetes mellitus, age older than 65 years, NYHA class IV, end stage renal failure, failure to preserve the subvalvular apparatus as well as concomitant aortic valve replacement to be associated with a significant increase of early or/and late mortality.",
"TAVI is technically feasible in high-risk patients after previous mechanical mitral valve replacement; however, careful patient selection is mandatory with respect to preoperative clinical status and anatomic dimensions regarding the distance between aortic annulus and mitral valve prosthesis.",
"Elective isolated AVR can be performed with modest operative risk in octogenarians with good left ventricular systolic function. Additional procedures impose long ischemic times and increase the operative risk, as does MVR. Strategies to minimize the complexity and extent of surgery should benefit these patients.",
"To determine whether a low-grade systolic murmur, found at heart auscultation, in middle-aged healthy men influences the long-term risk of aortic valve replacement (AVR) and death from cardiovascular disease (CVD). Setting and subjects. During 1972-1975, 2014 apparently healthy men aged 40-59 years underwent an examination programme including case history, clinical examination, blood tests and a symptom-limited exercise ECG test. Heart auscultation was performed under standardized conditions, and murmurs were graded on a scale from I to VI. No men were found to have grade V/VI murmurs. Participants were followed for up to 35 years. A total of 1541 men had no systolic murmur; 441 had low-grade murmurs (grade I/II) and 32 had moderate-grade murmurs (grade III/IV). Men with low-grade murmurs had a 4.7-fold [95% confidence interval (CI) 2.1-11.1] increased age-adjusted risk of AVR, but no increase in risk of CVD death. Men with moderate-grade murmurs had an 89.3-fold (95% CI 39.2-211.2) age-adjusted risk of AVR and a 1.5-fold (95% CI 0.8-2.5) age-adjusted increased risk of CVD death.",
"The long-term results of mitral valve replacement (MVR; n = 631) with a bileaflet mechanical prosthesis or a Carpentier-Edwards Perimount bioprosthesis were evaluated in Japanese patients of different age groups. A total of 507 bileaflet mechanical prostheses and 124 bioprostheses have been implanted since 1982 at our institution. Follow-up was completed for 6,598 patient-years in 98.4% of the cases. Among the patients 70 years of age and older, the rate of freedom from valve-related death and valve-related morbidity at 10 years after surgery were significantly better in the bioprostheses group (93.3% ± 6.4% and 83.7% ± 8.7%, respectively; n = 35) than in the mechanical prostheses group (71.1% ± 8.0% and 60.9% ± 8.9%, respectively; n = 82), and neither structural valve deterioration (SVD) nor resulting re-MVR were observed for bioprostheses. In contrast, among the patients 64 years and younger, no significant differences were observed in long-term survival between the mechanical prostheses group (n = 347) and the bioprostheses group (n = 76), while significantly lower rates of freedom from SVD and re-MVR were observed in the bioprostheses group compared with those obtained in the mechanical prostheses group. As for the controversial intermediate-age group of 65 to 69 years, the general tendencies were similar to those observed in the group 64 years and younger.",
"Cardiac surgical mortality has improved during the last decade despite the aging of the population. An integrated US health plan developed a heart valve registry to track outcomes and complications of heart valve operations. This database was used for longitudinal evaluation of mitral valve (MV) outcomes from 1999 to 2008 at four affiliated hospitals. We identified 3130 patients in the Apollo database who underwent 3180 initial MV procedures. Internal administrative and Social Security Administration databases were merged to determine survival rates. Electronic health records were searched to ascertain demographics, comorbidities, and postoperative complications. Cox regression was used to evaluate mean survival and identify risk factors. The procedures included 1160 mechanical valve replacements, 1159 tissue valve replacements, and 861 annuloplasties. The mean age of patients undergoing these procedures was 58 ± 11 years, 69 ± 12 years, and 62 ± 12 years, respectively. Mean survival was 8.9 ± 0.1 years for mechanical valve replacement, 7.0 ± 0.1 years for tissue valve replacement, and 7.7 ± 0.1 years for annuloplasty. Early in the study, there was a preference for implanting mechanical MVs. Beginning in 2003, more patients received tissue valve replacements rather than mechanical valves. Over time, there was an increasing trend of annuloplasty. Cox regression analysis identified the following risk factors for increased ten-year mortality: tissue valve implantation; advanced age; female sex; nonelective, nonisolated procedure; diabetes; postoperative use of banked blood products; previous cardiovascular intervention; dialysis; and longer perfusion time. Hospital location, reoperation, preoperative anticoagulation, and cardiogenic shock were not statistically significant risk factors.",
"Increased left ventricular mass index is associated with an in-hospital adverse outcome and a significantly higher in-hospital mortality in patients undergoing aortic valve replacement. Outcomes in asymptomatic patients could be improved before a clinically significant increase in left ventricular mass index. Further studies should be performed to determine the usefulness of this index in selecting patients for earlier aortic valve replacement.",
"yes. Cardiac lesions and cardiovascular risk factors are frequent in these patients receiving sub-optimal dose maintenance hemodialysis despite their younger age, suggesting an increased susceptibility to cardiovascular complications.",
"yes. SVD repair at an older age is associated with increased risk of late mortality, adverse cardiac events, and worse functional outcome. Repair during childhood is strongly advised.",
"It appears that there is minimal difference in survival after operation for ESRD patients who undergo bioprosthetic or mechanical valve replacement, even in patients younger than 65 years. The attenuated survival of the ESRD population after valve replacement makes the increased burden of anticoagulation (particularly in hemodialysis patients) unattractive. It is likely that only a small portion of ESRD patients benefit from the increased durability of a mechanical valve.",
"Implantation of a standard 19-mm aortic valve in elderly men with aortic stenosis may be associated with an increased risk of operative mortality. A higher performance valve and/or a root enlargement procedure should be considered in men with a measured 19-mm anulus.",
"The aim of this retrospective study was to compare the early and midterm clinical outcomes of aortic root replacement in elderly patients receiving the Freestyle stentless bioprosthesis (FSB) (Medtronic Inc, Minneapolis, MN) with younger patients receiving a mechanical valve conduit. From January 2001 to December 2010, 185 consecutive patients underwent aortic root replacement. Of these, 79 (43%) patients received the Freestyle bioroot (Medtronic Inc, Minneapolis, MN) (group F) and 106 (57%) patients received a mechanical valve conduit (group M). Target endpoints were 30-day mortality, 5-year survival, 5-year freedom from cardiac death, and 5-year freedom from major adverse valve-related and cardiovascular events (MAVCE) (cardiac death, cerebrovascular accident, myocardial infarction, heart failure, valve prosthesis dysfunction requiring reoperation, and thromboembolic and hemorrhagic events). A propensity score model was built to adjust the results according to preoperative and operative characteristics of both groups. Thirty-day mortality was similar in both groups (F group, 2.5% versus M group, 5.7%; p=0.407). Unadjusted analysis showed no differences between groups, whereas adjusted analysis showed a significantly higher 5-year freedom from cardiac death and MAVCE in group F (group F, 98.6±1.9 versus group M, 88.0%±3.0%; p=0.038; group F, 97.4%±2.6% versus group M, 81.2%±3.6%; p=0.010). Multivariate analysis confirmed a significantly higher risk for 5-year MAVCE in patients who did not undergo implantation with the Freestyle bioprosthesis (hazard ratio [HR], 6.87; 95% confidence limit [CL], 1.43-15.09; p=0.016).",
"yes. Echocardiographic and cardiopulmonary data can identify high-risk elderly patients with systolic heart failure, who may need aggressive clinical management.",
"The selection of a suitable valve substitute in patients requiring valvular heart surgery is an important element in the preoperative decision-making process between cardiologist, surgeon, and patient. Controversy persists regarding the use of mechanical valves in the elderly. With the population living longer, reoperative risk becomes of paramount importance. Quality of life (QOL) considerations are often as important to the patient as longevity. The influence of mechanical valve replacement on QOL in elderly patients has not been well documented. Between June 1981 and December 1999, a total of 1,125 consecutive patients aged>or = 65 years (582 men, 543 women; mean age 71.4 +/- 4.9 years) underwent valve replacement with at least one St. Jude Medical (SJM) mechanical valve. Preoperatively, 138 patients (12.3%) were in NYHA class II, 775 (68.9%) in class III, and 212 (18.8%) in class IV. In 535 patients (47.6%), coronary artery disease required surgical intervention. Survivors were administered the Short Form (SF)-36 QOL Survey at follow up, which was 96.1% complete. Hospital mortality was 7.6% (85/1,125). Mean follow up was 5.9 years (range: 9 months to 18.4 years). Mean (+/- SEM) actuarial survival was 70.6 +/- 1.4% at five years, and 40.6 +/- 2.0% at 10 years. Male patients scored significantly higher on the SF-36 than controls in physical (p = 0.012) and mental health (p = 0.004). Comparing female patients with controls revealed no significant difference in physical health; however, they scored higher in mental health than controls (p = 0.001).",
"Consensus reports over the past 10 years from the United States, Europe, United Kingdom, and Canada have not provided consistent guidelines for antithrombotic therapy of aortic valve bioprostheses for the three-month period after surgery. This study was conducted to determine if antithrombotic therapy was protective against TE with aortic bioprostheses 30 days or less after aortic valve replacement (AVR). From 1994 to 2000, 1,372 patients implanted with three currently marketed aortic bioprostheses, Medtronic Mosaic (Medtronic, Inc, Minneapolis, MN) (415 patients), Carpentier-Edwards SAV (462), and Carpentier-Edwards PERIMOUNT (495) (Edwards Lifesciences, Irvine, CA), with a mean age of greater than 70 years were evaluated. Patient populations were comparable, inclusive of concomitant coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) for the overall populations and for patients greater than 70 years. There were 37 thromboembolic (TE) events: major TE, 14; reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND), 12; and minor TE, 11. There were 4 TE deaths. Multivariate (stepwise logistic regression) analysis revealed no predictive risk factors for overall TE. For the combination of major TE plus RIND there were two predictive risk factors with analysis of 12 risk variables: preoperative cerebrovascular accident (odds ratio [OR] 4.45, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.17 to 16.87, p = 0.028); and concomitant CABG (OR 3.19, 95% CI 1.16 to 8.76, p = 0.025). Neither anticoagulant nor antiplatelet therapies gave significant protection.",
"When valve replacement is required in patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD), it is not clear if mechanical or bioprosthetic valve selection is better. We compared outcomes between ESRD patients who underwent either mechanical or biologic valve replacements at our institution. All patients with ESRD who underwent either mitral or aortic valve replacement from 2002 to 2014 at our institution were reviewed (n = 215; mechanical = 64, biological = 151). A Cox proportional hazards model was used to test the hypothesis that a mechanical valve was correlated with improved long-term survival. Among patients younger than 65 years (n = 123) we also compared survival with the Kaplan-Meier method. Similar unadjusted survival was found for patients who received either a bioprosthetic or mechanical valve (log-rank p = 0.55). Survival is clearly attenuated in this patient population, with only about half the patients younger than 65 years surviving beyond 2 years. In the proportional hazards model, a mechanical valve was not correlated with improved survival even when controlled for other variables, including shock, endocarditis, mitral valve replacement, and patient age (95% confidence interval for hazard ratio of mechanical valve: 0.64 to 1.62).",
"Several studies have reported similarities between calcification of the native aortic valve and atherosclerosis. Recent studies also suggested that hypercholesterolemia may be a risk factor for calcific degeneration of bioprosthetic valves. The metabolic syndrome (MS) is associated with a higher risk of vascular atherosclerosis. We thus hypothesized that the atherogenic features of MS could accelerate bioprosthetic valve degeneration. We included 217 patients who underwent aortic valve replacement with a bioprosthetic valve in the study. Of these patients, 71 patients (33%) had MS defined according to the modified criteria proposed by the National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel III. The annualized increase in mean transprosthetic gradient and the worsening of transprosthetic regurgitation measured by Doppler echocardiography were used to assess the deterioration of valve hemodynamic function. Patients with MS had higher progression of gradient (+4+/-5 mm Hg/year versus +2+/-2 mm Hg/year, P<0.001), higher proportion of > or = 1/3 degree worsening of regurgitation (25% versus 12%, P=0.02), and higher proportion of valve function deterioration defined as regurgitation worsening and/or > or = 3 mm Hg/year increase in gradient (41% versus 25%, P=0.02) when compared with patients without MS. On multivariate analysis, MS was an independent predictor of gradient progression (P=0.01), regurgitation worsening (P=0.02), and valve function deterioration (P=0.02). The other independent predictors were diabetes, renal insufficiency, and higher mean gradient at baseline.",
"yes. When controlling for other risk factors, we observed a lower long-term survival rate for tissue valve replacement compared with mechanical valve replacement. Integrating electronic health records with existing electronic databases provided near-real-time analysis of longitudinal cardiac surgical outcomes.",
"yes. We propose a clinical score that predicts adverse outcomes in asymptomatic AS patients and potentially identifies high-risk patients who may benefit from early valve replacement.",
"yes. In a series of elderly patients with aortic stenosis who were implanted with 19-mm bioprosthetic valves, long-term follow-up showed significant left ventricular mass regression and peak and mean aortic valve gradient reductions. The use of 19-mm aortic valves is safe and efficacious for elderly patients with a small aortic root.",
"yes. This study suggests that patients > 70 years-old were at increased risk of death and other complications in the CABG's postoperative period in comparison to younger patients.",
"Current guidelines concerning age and mitral valve prosthesis choice are not being followed for patients aged ≥65 years. With regards to in-hospital and mid-term mortality, this study demonstrates that there is no difference between prosthesis types.",
"The optimal prosthesis choice in young adults requiring aortic valve replacement (AVR) remains controversial. The study aim was to determine whether implanted prosthesis type is an important determinant of outcome after AVR in young adults. Between 1991 and 2001, 414 young adults (mean age 40 +/- 11 years; range: 16-55 years) underwent a total of 438 consecutive AVRs using 204 mechanical prostheses (MP), three bioprostheses (BP), 150 allografts (AL), and 81 autografts (AU). The perioperative characteristics, early and late mortality, occurrence of valve-related events and predictors of adverse outcome and prosthesis selection, were evaluated. Mean patient ages were 45 years for MP, 50 years for BP, 39 years for AL, and 31 years for AU. MP selection was associated with older age, impaired left ventricular function (LVF) and concomitant mitral valve surgery (concMVS); AL selection with ascending aortic aneurysm, active endocarditis, and Marfan's disease; and AU selection with younger age, prior balloon valvuloplasty and isolated valve disease. Hospital mortality was 2.3% (n = 10). During follow up (97% complete) 30 patients died. Ten-year survival was better for AU (96 +/- 2%) compared to MP (84 +/- 4%) and AL (92 +/- 2%). Prosthesis type was not predictive of late mortality; rather, predictors of increased late mortality were prior aortic valve surgery, impaired LVF, concMVS, and older patient age. Ten-year freedom from bleeding and thromboembolism was 89 +/- 3% for MP versus 94 +/- 3% for AL and 99 +/- 1% for AU (p = 0.054). Ten-year freedom from reoperation was 95 +/- 2% for MP versus 79 +/- 5% for AL and 87 +/- 5% for AU (p = 0.003).",
"The average age of cardiac patients continues to increase. As more octogenarians undergo surgery during the current era, the outcome of valve surgery was investigated to determine the operative risk in these patients. Among 350 patients aged>or = 80 years who had initial surgery between 1998 and 2006, a total of 188 (105 females, 83 males) underwent valve surgery. A prospective analysis was conducted of the collected data. The median age of patients was 82 years (IQR: 81-84 years), and over half of them presented with severe symptoms (NYHA class III/IV; n = 96), controlled heart failure (n = 108), hypertension (n = 101) and coronary artery disease (n = 108). Concomitant coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) was performed in 89 cases (47%). Perioperative hemodynamic support with inotropes was common (47%). Hospital death after isolated aortic valve replacement (AVR) (n = 89) and mitral valve replacement (MVR) (n = 10) occurred in four patients (4.5%, median additive EuroSCORE 9.0%) and one patient (10%, median additive EuroSCORE 9.8%), respectively. Concomitant CABG led to a doubling of the operative mortality which, for AVR, declined from 5.4% to 3.8% during the latter half of the study period. The median length of stay was 24 h (IQR 21-44 h) in the intensive care unit, and 10 days (IQR 7-14 days) postoperatively. The risk factors for operative mortality were urgent/emergent surgery (HR 3.27, 95% CI 1.12-9.58, p = 0.03), preoperative gastrointestinal disease (HR 3.15, 95% CI 1.12-8.9, p = 0.03), left ventricular ejection fraction<0.30 (HR 4.37, 95% CI 1.29-14.82, p = 0.02), and ischemic time (HR 1.04, 95% CI 1.004-1.07, p = 0.02).",
"Outcome differences in octogenarians vs patients younger than 80 years undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting or valve surgery can be analyzed to isolate the effect of age alone on morbidity and mortality. Eight-year hospitalization cohort study. Physicians, nurses, and perfusionists prospectively collected data on 225 variables. Community hospital. A consecutive sample of 7726 patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting or valve surgery between October 1, 1993, and February 28, 2001. There were 9 main outcomes of interest: mortality, length of hospital stay, gastrointestinal tract complications, neurologic complications, pulmonary complications, renal complications, return to intensive care unit, intraoperative complications, and reoperation to treat bleeding. We controlled for 16 potential confounding variables to isolate outcome differences according to age. Of 7726 patients who fit the inclusion criteria, 522 were octogenarians. Compared with nonoctogenarians, octogenarians had a significantly higher New York Heart Association functional classification, higher incidence of hypertension, and underwent a greater number of coronary artery bypass grafting plus valve surgical procedures (P<.05). They also had significantly lower body surface area, fewer total number of grafts used, less history of tobacco use, and less abnormal left ventricular hypertrophy, and there were fewer nonwhite patients and fewer men. At multivariate analysis, octogenarians had a higher risk for death (relative risk [RR], 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.52-1.83), longer hospital stay (RR, 1.03; 95% CI, 1.01-1.04), more neurologic complications (RR, 1.51; 95% CI, 1.26-1.67), and were more likely to undergo a reoperation to treat bleeding (RR, 1.49; 95% CI, 1.09-1.72). Univariate analyses revealed no difference between octogenarians and nonoctogenarians for diabetes mellitus, urgency of procedure, prior myocardial infarction, time since last myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular history, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or pump time.",
"The European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation has been used to define a particularly high-risk group of patients for aortic valve replacement in whom alternative procedures, such as stent-mounted percutaneous valve procedures, may be appropriate. Our objective was to assess the validity of this risk assessment at a large-volume, tertiary cardiac surgical center. From January 1, 2000, to December 30, 2006, a total of 1177 patients underwent isolated aortic valve replacement at the Mayo Clinic. Patient and operative demographics were recorded in a prospective database. Early mortality (<or = 30 days) was obtained. Additive and logistic European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluations were calculated for each patient. The mean patient age was 68.0 years (+/-14.7 years) at the time of surgery, and 36.8% were female. Variables used in the calculation of the European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation included chronic lung disease (15% of our cohort), extracardiac arteriopathy (13.8%), neurologic dysfunction (0.2%), previous cardiac surgery (23.2%), renal failure (6.5%), active endocarditis (3.1%), recent myocardial infarction (1.1%), unstable angina (0.1%), and severe pulmonary hypertension (6.5%). The ejection fraction was severely reduced (<or = 30%) in 4.9% of patients and moderately reduced (<or = 50%) in 12.7% of patients. One percent of patients were in a critical state, and operation was performed urgently in 3.4% of patients. Although mean mortality estimates were 6.9% +/- 3.4% (additive European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation) and 10.9% +/- 12.7% (logistic European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation), actual overall operative mortality in our patients was 2.5%. Additive and logistic European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluations overestimated operative mortality in low, intermediate, and high-risk subgroups by up to 17.8%.",
"Percutaneous aortic valve replacement (PAVR) trials are ongoing in patients with an elevated European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation (EuroSCOREs), patients believed to have high mortality rates and poor long-term prognoses with valve replacement surgery. It is, however, uncertain that the EuroSCORE model is well calibrated for such high-risk AVR patients. We evaluated EuroSCORE prediction vs a single institution's surgical results in this target population. From January 1996 through March 2006, 731 patients with EuroSCOREs of 7 or higher underwent isolated AVR. In this cohort, 313 (42.8%) were septuagenarians, 322 (44.0%) were octogenarians or nonagenarians, 233 (31.9%) had had previous cardiac procedures, 237 (32.4%) had atheromatous aortas, and 127 (17.4%) had cerebrovascular disease. A minimally invasive approach was used in 469 (64.2%). Data collection was prospective. Long-term survival was computed from the Social Security Death Benefit Index. The mean EuroSCORE was 9.7 (median, 10), and the mean logistic EuroSCORE was 17.2%. Actual hospital mortality was 7.8% (57 of 731). Multivariate analysis showed ejection fraction of less than 0.30 (p = 0.002; odds ratio [OR], 3.13), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (p = 0.019; OR, 2.14), and peripheral vascular disease (p = 0.048; OR, 2.13) were significant predictors of hospital mortality. Complication(s) occurred in 73 patients (9.9%). Freedom from all-cause death (including hospital mortality) was 72.4% at 5 years (n = 152). Age (p<0.001), previous cardiac operations (p<0.014; OR, 1.51), renal failure (p<0.002; OR, 2.37), and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (p<0.007; OR, 1.30) were predictors of worse survival.",
"The aim of this retrospective single-center study was to assess the authors' results in mitral-aortic double valve replacement (DVR), with attention focused on the risk factors of in-hospital mortality (HM). As the initial results showed a strong relationship between HM and aortic prosthesis-patient mismatch (PPM), this led to an assessment of the impact of PPM on the early results of DVR. Data from 196 consecutive patients (mean age 60 +/- 10 years) who had undergone DVR between January 1996 and December 2011 at the authors' institution were analyzed. A statistical comparison was made of groups defined by the presence/absence of in-hospital death, postoperative complications, and aortic PPM. A logistic regression analysis of the factors associated with HM and their postoperative evolution was also conducted. Surgery was mostly performed on an elective basis (89.3%), using mainly bileaflet mechanical valves (93.9%). The rate of associated coronary bypass (CABG) was 11.2%. Aortic PPM (i.e., an effective orifice area index (EOAI) < or = 0.85 cm2/m2) was noted in 28.1% of patients. HM (6.63%) was significantly related to PPM (p < 0.002), greater age (p < 0.003), a smaller EOAI (p = 0.005), associated CABG (p < 0.008), and a longer aortic cross-clamp time (p < 0.03). Patients with aortic PPM had a significantly worse early outcome, with higher overall (p < 0.0007) and cardiac (p < 0.05) complication rates, a longer intensive care unit stay (p < 0.03), and an almost six-fold higher rate of HM (16.4% versus 2.8%; p < 0.002). PPM and age as risk factors were included in a predictive model of HM based on logistic regression; a similar model for postoperative complications highlighted PPM, age and cardiopulmonary bypass time as significant risk factors.",
"Mitral valve replacement is more frequently performed and perceived to be equivalent to repair in elderly patients, despite the superiority of repair in younger patients. Our objective was to compare mitral repair to replacement in elderly patients age 75 years or older. Patients younger than 75 years undergoing mitral valve surgery served as a reference population. Consecutive elderly patients undergoing operation for mitral regurgitation at our institution from 1998 to 2006 were reviewed. Elderly patients (mean age, 78.0 +/- 2.8 years) who underwent mitral repair (n = 70) or replacement (n = 47) were compared with cohorts of young patients (mean age, 58.9 +/- 9.3 years) who underwent repair (n = 100) or replacement (n = 98) during the same period. Patient details and outcomes were compared using univariate, multivariate, and Kaplan-Meier analyses. Mitral replacement in elderly patients had higher mortality than repair (23.4%, 11 of 47 versus 7.1%, 5 of 70; p = 0.01) or as compared with either operation in the reference group (p<0.0001). Postoperative stroke was higher in elderly replacement patients compared with repair (12.8%, 6 of 47 versus 0%; p = 0.003) or compared with either young cohort (p = 0.02). Compared with elderly repair patients, elderly replacement patients had more cerebrovascular disease (21.3%, 10 of 47 versus 4.3%, 3 of 70; p = 0.005) and rheumatic mitral valves (21.3%, 10 of 47 versus 0%; p = 0.0001). In the young group, overall complication and mortality were no different between replacement and repair. Long-term survival favored repair over replacement in elderly patients (p = 0.04). One elderly repair patient experienced late recurrence of persistent mitral regurgitation.",
"The presence of multimorbidity is known to be related to adverse clinical outcomes. However, its association with mortality in patients undergoing cardiac valve replacement is not known. Multimorbidity (as a continuous variable) was characterized in adults receiving cardiac valve replacement surgery between 2008 and 2012 within Kaiser Permanente Northern California based on information from health plan electronic health records. Our primary outcome was 3-year all-cause mortality after surgery. We used Cox proportional hazards regression to evaluate the independent association of each additional comorbidity with mortality. Among 3686 eligible patients, mean age was 67.9±13.5years and median comorbidity burden was 3 (IQR: 2). The presence of most individual comorbidities except hypertension and hyperlipidemia did not occur in isolation. The unadjusted annual incidence (per 100 person-years) of death increased with higher comorbidity burden: ≤1: 4.61 (95% CI: 3.29-6.45), 2-3: 13.7 (95% CI: 11.9-15.8), 4-5: 23.6 (95% CI: 20.6-26.9), and ≥6: 43.4(95% CI: 34.6-54.4). Advancing age, diabetes mellitus, cerebrovascular accident, heart failure, lung disease, urgent status and use of aldosterone-receptor antagonists were independently associated with an increased risk of mortality. In multivariable analyses, each additional comorbidity was significantly associated with an increased risk of long-term (adjusted hazard ratio (HR) 1.30, 95% CI: 1.22-1.39) but not short-term mortality (HR 0.92, 95% CI: 0.80-1.07).",
"yes. In patients with acute rheumatic fever the ACE-DD genotype is associated with an increased risk of subsequent heart valve damage.",
"Despite the highest prevalence of concomitant diseases and the requirement of additional resources for the detection and neutralisation of risk factors, heart-valve operations in octogenarians offer excellent results that compare favourably with the expected survival of the age-, sex- and operative year-matched population, particularly after primary operations.",
"Elderly cardiac surgery patients already showed moderately altered coagulation prior to surgery. Thus elderly patients may be at risk of developing postoperative alterations in hemostasis on the ICU. The exact reasons for the impaired coagulation in the elderly remains to be determined.",
"Following revision of the AHA/ACC guidelines for selection of prosthetic valves, it is necessary to investigate whether patients aged 60-70 represent the gray zone for selecting valves as in US and European guidelines, or whether a higher age is more appropriate in view of the longer average life expectancy in Japan. Accordingly, further evaluation of the long-term outcome for mechanical and biological valves in Japanese patients is needed to obtain evidence for preparation of original Japanese guidelines on prosthetic valve selection.",
"The study results clearly demonstrate that heart surgery in the elderly with the SJM mechanical valve can be accomplished with acceptable hospital mortality, morbidity, and excellent long-term results. Moreover, long-term QOL in elderly patients with a SJM valve can be expected to meet or exceed that of age- and gender-matched controls.",
"Prolonged survival in the Western world has increased the number of elderly patients referred for open-heart surgery during the last decade. Aortic valve disease is the most common heart valve disease in aged patients. Which aortic valve substitute is best employed in the elderly is still a debated matter. The main concern is about the thromboembolic and hemorrhagic risks related to mechanical valves and anticoagulation. The study aimed at reviewing clinical results after isolated aortic valve replacement with bileaflet prostheses in patients over 70 years and at retrospectively comparing them with those of a group of otherwise comparable patients under 50 years of age who underwent isolated aortic valve replacement with a mechanical device. The study population included 118 consecutive elderly patients (group A) operated on between January 1988 and January 1999 and 122 young patients (group B) who underwent aortic valve replacement during the same time period. Patients with associated coronary artery disease, mitral stenosis or regurgitation, type A aortic dissection, and infective endocarditis were excluded from the study. Preoperative clinical data, early and late postoperative mortality, all valve-related complications, and all data concerning the anticoagulation status - including the mean international normalized ratio (INR) and the mean time interval between each INR assay - were compared between the two groups. The hospital mortality was significantly lower in group B (2.45%) than in group A (9.3%; p = 0.022). The mean follow-up period was 50.98 +/- 2.23 months. The 12-year actuarial survival was significantly lower (69.6 +/- 0.08%) in group A than in group B (94.4 +/- 0.02%; p<0.001). No significant difference was found in terms of valve-related and anticoagulation-related complication rates and actuarial freedom as well as mean interval between consecutive INR checks (p = 0.219) and mean INR value (p = 0.914).",
"Despite the better hemodynamic performance documented in prior investigations, pericardial valves do not confer any survival advantage over porcine valves in patients aged 65 years or older undergoing aortic valve replacement.",
"Patients (94.2%) with mechanical heart valve replacement have no persistent complaints about the valve noise. The grade of annoyance by valve noise is paralleled by lower average quality of life. Age under 60 years or being female increases the probability of severe disturbance due to mechanical valve sounds. It remains unclear whether the disturbing noise is reason or consequence of lower quality of life.",
"yes. Multi-institutional analysis revealed advanced age as a predictor of increased mortality after CF LVAD implantation. Careful patient selection is critical in the elderly to optimize long-term outcomes after CF LVAD implantation.",
"We compared aortic root reconstructions using conduits with biological valves and mechanical valves. Of 597 patients (1995-2008), 307 (mean age 71 years [23-89 years]) had biological valves and 290 (mean age 51 years [21-82 years]) had mechanical valves. The subgroup of 242 patients aged 50 to 70 years included 133 with biological and 109 with mechanical valves. Overall hospital mortality was 3.9% with biological valves (n = 15; elective: 3.7% [n = 10]) versus 2.8% with mechanical valves (n = 8; elective: 1.4% [n = 3]). In patients 50 to 70 years, age greater than 65 years (relative risk: 3.3 [P = .0001]), clot (relative risk: 2.5 [P = .05]), coronary artery disease (relative risk:3.5 [P<.0001]), and degenerative etiology (relative risk: 0.4 [P = .006]) were independent risk factors for long-term survival (after postoperative day 30); there was no difference in long-term survival between biological and mechanical valves (relative risk: 0.9 [P = .74]). The linearized rate for valve/ascending aorta reoperation was 0.86%/pt-y (2 in 2310 pt-y) after mechanical valves and 2.5%/pt-y (4 in 1586 pt-y) after Bentall procedures with the biological valve.",
"Ideal management of the elderly patient with a small aortic root remains controversial. This retrospective analysis was performed to determine whether small prosthetic valve size is related to outcome in patients 70 years of age or older undergoing aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis. Between December 1991 and July 1998, 366 patients 70 years of age or older (median age 77 years, range 73-81 years, 49% male) underwent isolated aortic valve replacement or aortic valve replacement with coronary bypass grafting with standard Carpentier-Edwards bovine pericardial valves (Baxter Healthcare Corp, Edwards Division, Santa Ana, Calif) (n = 277; 76%) or St Jude Medical mechanical valves (St Jude Medical, Inc, St Paul, Minn) (n = 89; 24%). Propensity scoring and multivariable regression models were used to evaluate the risks associated with implantation of 19-mm valves. Operative mortality was 16.7% (17/102) in patients who received 19-mm valves and 3% (8/264) among those receiving>/=21-mm valves (P</=.0005). The univariable odds ratio for operative death for 19-mm versus>/=21-mm valves was 6.4 (95% CI 2.7, 15.4; P</=.0005). In the final multivariable model, receipt of a 19-mm valve alone was not a statistically significant predictor of operative death (odds ratio 2. 1; 95% CI 0.7, 6.4; P =.21). However, the combination of male sex and 19-mm valve resulted in a significant risk of operative death (4/9 patients; odds ratio 17.5; 95% CI 2.2, 139; P =.007). Use of a 19-mm valve was not related to late death in either the univariable (hazard ratio 1.0; 95% CI 0.5, 2.0; P =.95) or the multivariable analysis (hazard ratio 0.7; 95% CI 0.3, 1.8; P =.51).",
"The data suggest that this group of elderly patients with heart failure who received lower ACE inhibitor doses appeared to be at higher risk for clinical events.",
"Elderly patients (≥75 years of age) are at increased risk of early postimplant complications but are at lower risk for lead fracture.",
"Based on the revised AHA/ACC guidelines, it might be necessary to take into consideration the average life expectancy of Japanese people and revise the Japanese guidelines accordingly. Accordingly, we performed the present study to compare the long-term outcome in patients aged 65 years or older who underwent prosthetic valve replacement at our hospital using mechanical valves or biological valves. We have performed valve replacement in 416 patients aged 65 years or older (mechanical: 157; biological: 244). There was no significant difference between the mechanical and biological valve for the actuarial survival rate. As for the valve-related complication free rate, in the mechanical valve group, the rates were significantly higher for all patients, aortic valve replacement (AVR) patients, and mitral valve replacement (MVR) patients.",
"On the background of the well-known age-dependent structural and functional changes of different body organs, our data show that age is a significant risk indicator in cardiac surgery, strongly correlating with morbidity and mortality. Consequently, special preventive and therapeutic measures are required in clinical environment in the case of elderly patients undergoing cardiac surgery.",
"To evaluate the outcomes of mitral valve surgery in octogenarians. Data were collected prospectively from January 1996 to March 2004 at two surgical centers. Of 1386 consecutive patients with mitral valve surgery, 58 (4.2%) were aged>or = 80 years. Survival data were analyzed using Cox proportional hazards modeling and Kaplan-Meier actuarial log rank statistics. Octogenarians were similar to younger patients for the presence of pre-operative hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, and smoking history. Octogenarians had a higher incidence of cerebrovascular disease (19.0 versus 7.8%, P = 0.003), urgent in-hospital surgery (55.2 versus 28.6%, P<0.001), and presence of ischemic disease requiring combined mitral valve plus revascularization surgery (72.4 versus 41.0%, P<0.001). Mitral valve repair was performed in a similar proportion of octogenarians and younger patients (44.8 versus 45.6%). Thirty-day mortality for octogenarians was significantly higher than younger patients (15.5 versus 5.6%, P = 0.002), and actuarial survival of octogenarians was significantly decreased (P = 0.009). However, 52.3% of the octogenarians were alive at 7-years following surgery. Independent predictors of mortality from multivariate risk adjusted modeling of the entire cohort were: emergency surgery (hazards ratio [HR] = 2.94, P<0.001), combined mitral valve plus revascularization surgery (HR = 2.27, P<0.001), mitral valve replacement (HR = 1.85, P<0.01), and age>or = 80 years (HR = 1.80, P = 0.02).",
"In this large population-based registry of UK patients admitted to hospital with ACS without ST elevation, those aged over 70 are at substantially higher risk of adverse events than younger patients. However, they are less likely to receive treatments of proven benefit or to be investigated with a view to revascularisation. A more aggressive approach to these patients may be more appropriate and is likely to result in substantial benefits.",
"yes. In the INCICh 88.7% of patients with cardiac valve surgery had intermediate to high risk and EuroSCORE underestimated the risk of mortality.",
"yes. There was a relatively high prevalence of SEC and thrombi in patients with a mechanical valve prosthesis. Patients with a valve prosthesis may not have clinical symptoms. Anticoagulation intensity was not associated with the occurrence of SEC and thrombi. Patients with the mitral valve prosthesis and atrial fibrillation were identified as a high-risk of subgroup for the development of SEC and thrombi.",
"In patients age 75 years or older, mitral repair is associated with a lower risk of mortality, postoperative stroke, and prolonged intensive care unit and hospital stay compared with mitral replacement. Mitral repair can be performed in preference over replacement even in patients older than the age of 75.",
"Thromboembolism and hemorrhage related to anticoagulation remain a major concern in elderly patients with mechanical valves. Clinical results following isolated aortic valve replacement (AVR) with tilting disk and bileaflet prostheses in patients aged over 70 years were analyzed and compared with results in patients aged <45 years. Between January 1980 and August 2002, 319 consecutive older patients (group A) and 497 young patients AVR. Preoperative clinical data, early and late mortality, valve-related complications and data related to anticoagulation status (including mean INR and mean interval between INR assays) were compared between groups. Hospital mortality was lower in group B (3.4%) than in group A (10.7%; p <0.0001). Twelve-year actuarial survival was lower in older patients (54% in group A versus 78% in group B; p <0.001). The two groups showed similar 12-year actuarial freedom from hemorrhage (99.6% versus 99.5%; p = 0.69), endocarditis (99.6% versus 98.43%; p = 0.25) and perivalvular leak (99.6% versus 97.9%; p = 0.21). However, actuarial freedom from thromboembolism was lower in older patients (98.8% versus 99.7%; p = 0.041).",
"Triple-valve surgery is associated with a high perioperative risk. However, the acceptance of elderly patients for this surgery is not associated with a higher mortality or valve-related morbidity. The patients' quality of life was acceptable during follow up, and not affected by age. Hence, the refusal of surgery should depend not on old age alone but rather on an individualized assessment of the patient.",
"With increased life expectancy, valve operations are more and more common in elderly patients. The choice of valve substitute-mechanical valve or bioprosthesis-remains debated. Two groups of patients of the same age (69, 70, and 71 years) with isolated aortic valve replacement (mechanical 240, bioprostheses 289) were compared for mortality, morbidity, and valve-related complications. No significant difference was found in survival, valve-related mortality, valve endocarditis, and thromboembolism. Mechanical valve had more bleeding events; bioprostheses had more structural deterioration, reoperation, and valve-related morbidity and mortality.",
"yes. Survival was comparable in older patients irrespective of prosthesis type. Bleeding was increased with a mechanical prosthesis, especially in the elderly. The risk of thromboembolism was higher in patients with a bioprosthesis.",
"Controversy exists regarding the use of mechanical valves in older patients. Many authorities believe that the use of anticoagulants in the elderly is associated with an increased risk of warfarin-related complications. Therefore, we compared the results with mechanical valves in older patients to a cohort of younger patients. Aortic (AVR) or mitral valve replacement (MVR) with a mechanical valve was performed in 1,245 consecutive patients who were followed prospectively. They were grouped by age (group 1,<or = 65 years; group 2,>65 years). The study groups consisted of AVR (group 1, 459 patients; group 2, 323 patients) MVR (group 1, 313 patients; group 2, 150 patients). The average age for the groups was: AVR (group 1, 51 years; group 2, 70 years; p = 0.03) and MVR (group 1, 53 years; group 2, 70 years; p = 0.03). For AVR the incidence of thromboembolism was 0.050 (group 1) and 0.038 (group 2) (p = 0.37) and the actuarial freedom from thromboembolism was 83.0%+/-3.0% and 86.5%+/-1.0%, respectively (p = 0.13). The incidence of bleeding after AVR was 0.021 for group 1 and 0.028 for group 2 (p = 0.49). For MVR the incidence of thromboembolism was 0.059 for group 1 and 0.051 for group 2 (p = 0.75) and the actuarial freedom from thromboembolism was 78.8%+/-3.0% and 75.4%+/-8.7%, respectively (p = 0.71). The incidence of bleeding after MVR was 0.020 for group 1 and 0.027 for group 2 (p = 0.62).",
"Cardiac surgery in the very elderly, particularly with regard to aortic valve replacement, carries a high risk of early morbidity and mortality. However, in selected nonagenarians, surgery can be performed with an acceptable outcome. The risk may even be reduced by an individual approach to the procedure. With regard to potential risk factors, the selection of these patients should be carried out very carefully.",
"yes. Advanced age confers increased risks and incrementally higher costs in patients undergoing cardiac operations. Isolated mitral and combined procedures have the highest complications and costs. Any proposed cardiac operation in octogenarians mandates careful consideration of resource utilization.",
"no. The risk of mortality during aortic valve surgery is due mostly to active endocarditis, New York Heart Association class, and comorbidity. We failed to find a significant effect of reoperation on perioperative mortality. Mechanical valves, with their attendant anticoagulation-related morbidity, should not be implanted solely because of anticipated high mortality associated with bioprosthetic rereplacement.",
"There is a popular perception that aortic valve replacement (AVR) in octogenarians carries a high risk related primarily to advanced age. Using the Department of Veterans Affairs Continuous Improvement in Cardiac Surgery Program, we identified patients who underwent AVR between 1991 and 2007. A prediction model was constructed using stepwise logistic regression methodology for outcome comparisons. Compared with younger patients (age<80 years; n = 6,638), older patients (age>or = 80; n = 504) had a higher prevalence of baseline comorbidities. In a comparison of patients propensity-matched by risk profile (459 from each group), the older group had a higher morbidity rate (21.1% vs 15.5%; p<0.03) but a similar mortality rate (5.2% vs 3.3%; p = 0.19) compared with the younger group.",
"To compare valve-related morbidity among patients aged < 70 and ≥ 70 years, receiving either a mechanical or a biological prosthesis in a population-based setting. In total, 3279 patients (21 644 patient-years) were followed up through the Swedish National In-Patients Register, which registers all hospital admissions. Death, thromboembolism, bleeding, endocarditis, valve thrombosis and reoperations were all captured. Survival was lower among patients aged <70 years with a bioprosthesis compared to a mechanical prosthesis (p < 0.0001), but equal among older patients. A mechanical prosthesis indicated a lower risk (p < 0.001) of thromboembolism (1.5% per patient year, ppy), than bioprosthesis (2.6% ppy), irrespective of age. Bleeding was increased (p = 0.002) with a mechanical prosthesis (1.7% ppy) compared to a bioprosthesis (1.1% ppy); the risk of bleeding increased early (<5 years) whereas thromboembolism increased late (>5 years). Event-free survival was higher in younger patients with a mechanical prosthesis compared to bioprosthesis recipients (p < 0.001), but equal among older patients.",
"yes. Despite lower rates of long-term mortality and thromboembolism (the latter because of advanced atherosclerosis) in group A, there were no differences in rates of other valve-related complications. Hence, older age cannot be considered a contraindication to implantation of mechanical valves in the aortic position."
] | 714 |
Myocardial recovery after mechanical support for acute myocarditis: is sustained recovery predictable? | [
"At present, myocardial recovery with mechanical support for acute myocarditis is a more frequently observed issue. However, predictive parameters of a sustained myocardial recovery are still under investigation. Two recent cases of mechanical support for acute lymphocytic myocarditis with two different outcomes are reported. Literature about this disease and predictability of a sustainable myocardial recovery are reviewed. Acute lymphocytic myocarditis is an individual entity whose outcome is associated with the importance of healed cell damage. Unfortunately, there are no available means of quantifying the fibrotic scar and endomyocardial biopsy has a high percentage of false-negative results. Echocardiographic assessment of systolic and diastolic cardiac function is difficult while under mechanical support and its significance is not obvious. Forthcoming development of Doppler could better correlate myocardial contractility and histology to be predictive of a sustained recovery after acute myocarditis under mechanical support.",
"Long-lasting recovery after mechanical support for acute myocarditis remains unpredictable in our experience. More predictive factors are needed."
] | [
"This study sought to evaluate whether myocardial viability, as assessed by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), reliably predicts postrevascularization left ventricular (LV) recovery. Compared with positron emission tomographic findings, MRI has proved to be a reliable technique for the identification of residual myocardial viability. However, the predictive accuracy of MRI-assessed preserved end-diastolic wall thickness (DWT) and dobutamine-induced systolic wall thickening (SWT) for LV functional recovery has not yet been evaluated. Rest and low dose dobutamine MRI was performed in 43 patients with a chronic infarct (> or =4 months since ischemic event) and LV dysfunction who had undergone revascularization of the infarct-related vessel. On the basis of segmental evaluation of corresponding short-axis tomograms, infarct regions were graded viable by MRI if 1) DWT was > or =5.5 mm, and 2) dobutamine-induced SWT was > or =2 mm in > or =50% of dysfunctional segments related to the infarct region. Functional recovery was defined as SWT > or =2 mm in > or =50% of infarct-related segments at rest 4 to 6 months after successful revascularization. Recovery of regional SWT could be observed in 27 (63%) of 43 patients. Comparison MRI grading before and after revascularization indicated that dobutamine-induced SWT was a better predictor of LV functional recovery (sensitivity 89%, specificity 94%) than was preserved DWT (sensitivity 92%, specificity 56%). Segments that remained akinetic after revascularization had significantly lower DWT (6.0+/-3.1 mm [n = 219] vs. 9.8+/-2.6 mm [n = 188], p < 0.001) than those with improved SWT. Left ventricular ejection fraction increased significantly in patients with dobutamine-induced SWT than in those with no contractile reserve (14+/-9% vs. 3+/-9%, p < 0.0002), and the magnitude of this increase was correlated with the number of dobutamine-responsive segments per infarct region (r = 0.68, p < 0.0001).",
"The aims of this study were (1) to assess the relation between ST-segment elevation and wall motion response occurring during dobutamine testing and (2) to evaluate the usefulness of stress-induced ST-segment elevation for predicting functional recovery after acute myocardial infarction. Clinical significance of stress-induced ST-segment elevation after acute myocardial infarction remains controversial. According to previous studies, it may reflect a larger infarcted area, depressed left ventricular function, left ventricular aneurysm, stress-induced dyskinesia, residual myocardial ischemia, or viability in the affected region. Whether transient ST-segment elevation occurring during dobutamine testing may predict functional recovery is unknown. We studied 38 patients who underwent dobutamine stress testing early (5 +/- 2 days) after a first acute myocardial infarction. Dobutamine was infused at increasing doses from 5 to a maximum of 40 microg/kg per minute, with the addition of up to 1 mg of atropine if the target rate could not be reached by dobutamine alone. Twelve-lead electrocardiography and cross-sectional echocardiography were continuously monitored throughout the test. Dobutamine-induced ST-segment elevation was defined as a new or worsening >/=1 mm elevation, 80 ms after J point, in >/=2 infarct-related leads. Quantitative angiography was available in all patients before hospital discharge. Follow-up resting echocardiography was recorded in all patients 12 to 18 months after the acute event. ST-segment elevation was observed in 20 of the 38 patients. There were no significant differences between patients with and those without dobutamine-induced ST-segment elevation in age, site of infarction, peak level of total creatine kinase enzyme, and use of thrombolytic therapy, angioplasty, or both. Persistent akinesis without change during dobutamine stress testing was more frequently observed in patients without ST elevation (P <. 05). A biphasic response during dobutamine testing was more frequently observed in patients with ST-segment elevation (P =.01). Multivariate analysis selected 2 independent variables associated with ST-segment elevation: a biphasic response during dobutamine stress (chi-square = 7.3; P =.007) and the minimal lumen diameter of the infarct-related vessel at quantitative angiography (chi-square = 5.5; P <.02). Functional recovery was demonstrated in 26 patients. Sensitivity of ST-segment elevation for the prediction of functional recovery was 69%, specificity 83%, positive predictive value 90%, and accuracy 74%. Two independent variables predicting functional recovery were selected: dobutamine-induced ST-segment elevation (chi-square = 9.1; P =.003) and a biphasic response during stress (chi-square = 6.15; P =.013).",
"Postcardiotomy cardiogenic shock has been reported to occur following 2% to 6% of cardiac surgical procedures. Both the mandatory New York state cardiac surgery database and a voluntary ventricular assist device registry have reported hospital discharge rates of only 25% in postcardiotomy patients supported with ventricular assist devices. Although many centers have access to short-term mechanical cardiac assist devices, most lack a dedicated team which can resuscitate these critically ill patients. Equally important, these centers do not have easy access to effective cardiac replacement options, including implantable left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) and heart transplantation. A referral network based upon the use of implantable LVADs as a bridge to transplantation in patients with postcardiotomy heart failure was established in the New York City region. Cardiac surgery centers were encouraged to contact our center early following any failed cardiotomy. Forty-four patients entered our postcardiotomy network: 12 recovered without an implantable LVAD, 23 received implantable LVADs, and six expired without long-term LVAD support. Of the 44 referrals, 29 (66%) survived to hospital discharge. Of the 23 patients receiving implantable LVADs, two recovered myocardial function and underwent LVAD explant, 14 were bridged to heart transplant, one underwent an emergent heart transplant, and six expired. Of the 23 implantable LVAD patients, 17 (74%) survived to hospital discharge.",
"Myocardial injury, detected by rises in cardiac troponin I (TnI), is common and associated with decreased survival following open AAA surgery. We examined the relationship between perioperative myocardial injury and postoperative outcome. Observational Cohort Study. Forty-three consecutive patients who underwent elective open AAA repair were screened for perioperative myocardial injury or infarction using serial TnI measurements (taken on days 1, 3, and 7), ECG and clinical assessment. The primary outcome was survival free of cardiac failure, or myocardial infarction (MI) at follow-up. Twenty (47%) of the 43 patients had a TnI elevation. Of these, 11 (26%) patients met the criteria for MI. At a mean (+/-SD) follow-up of 1.5+/-0.8 years, 12 (28%) subjects had experienced at least one endpoint event. Survival free of cardiac failure or MI was 55% in patients who had TnI rises compared to 87% in those without (P=0.02). Logistic regression revealed that TnI elevation was an independent predictor of outcome with an odds ratio of 5.4 (95% CI 1.2-2.4, P=0.03).",
"yes. Persistent lactate release during reperfusion occurs in a significant proportion of low-risk patients undergoing isolated CABG and is an independent predictor of postoperative low cardiac output syndrome. Persistent lactate release during reperfusion suggests a delayed recovery of aerobic myocardial metabolism and may be related to intraoperative misadventure or inadequate myocardial protection. Myocardial lactate release may be useful as an alternative end-point in clinical trials evaluating perioperative myocardial protection.",
"To determine whether advanced age affects the immediate and long-term results of direct-current external cardioversion (ECV) of atrial fibrillation (AF), the sustained arrhythmia most commonly encountered in older patients. Retrospective analysis of medical records. Intensive care unit. Two hundred fifty consecutive patients(age 34-100) with AF who underwent ECV following a standardized protocol in an intensive care unit. Immediate efficacy of ECV, defined as recovery of sinus rhythm, and maintenance of sinus rhythm over the follow-up were study outcomes. The univariate and multivariate associations of immediate efficacy of ECV and long-term results with clinical variables were analyzed. At univariate analysis, immediate efficacy of ECV (overall, 91.2%) was lower in older patients and in those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, higher for a 3- to 90-day pre-ECV duration of AF than for a duration of 2 days or less or more than 90 days, and independent of underlying cardiac disease, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, previous AF, and left atrial dimension. However, pre-ECV duration of AF was the only multivariate predictor of ECV immediate success. Major complications occurred in only three patients. Of 220 patients discharged in sinus rhythm, 211 were followed up for a mean period +/- standard deviation of 34 +/- 25 months. AF relapsed in 45.5% of them. At multivariate analysis, underlying cardiac disease was the only predictor of the relapse rate, and relapse rate was lower in coronary heart disease than in valvular heart disease, congestive heart failure, or lone AF.",
"Intermittent warm blood cardioplegia is controversial, and many surgeons consider it inadequate for myocardial protection. The purpose of this study was to compare intermittent and continuous warm blood cardioplegia as resuscitation in hearts exposed to global ischaemia. Pigs were put on cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) and subjected to 30 min of warm, \"unprotected\", global ischaemia, followed by continuous (n = 7) or intermittent (n = 10, 12 ml/kg every 10 min) warm (34 degrees C) antegrade blood cardioplegia for 45 min (delivery pressure 75-80 mmHg) and weaned from CPB 45 to 60 min later. Indices of left ventricular function were acquired with the conductance catheter technique and pressure-volume loops at baseline and after 90 min of reperfusion. Cardioplegia was delivered during 17% of the cross-clamp time. Global left ventricular function, evaluated by preload recruitable stroke work (PRSW), was unchanged after continuous cardioplegia; 95 (76-130) (median (quartile interval)) to 91 (90-104) erg/ml x 10(3), but decreased after intermittent cardioplegia; 122 (100-128) to 64 (23-93) erg/ml x 10(3). Two pigs in the intermittent group weaned from CPB, but died before post-bypass measurement. A 95% confidence interval for the difference in post-bypass mean PRSW was estimated as 32 +/- 30 erg/ml x 10(3) (corresponding to P = 0.04 for comparison between treatments). The end-diastolic pressure-volume relation (EDPVR) increased from 0.17 (0.14-0.20) (continuous) and 0.15 (0.12-0.22) (intermittent) mmHg/ml to 0.27 (0.22-0.33) (P = 0.018) and 0.39 (0.25-0.66) (P = 0.005) mmHg/ml, respectively, indicating deterioration in diastolic function. No difference between groups was found in EDPVR, stiffness constant, troponin T release or myocardial water content.",
"Myocarditis is a cause of a new-onset dilated cardiomyopathy phenotype in children, with small studies reporting high rates of recovery of left ventricular (LV) function. The presenting characteristics and outcomes of children with myocarditis diagnosed clinically and with biopsy confirmation (n=119) or with probable myocarditis diagnosed clinically or by biopsy alone (n=253) were compared with children with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy (n=1123). Characteristics at presentation were assessed as possible predictors of outcomes. The distributions of time to death, transplantation, and echocardiographic normalization in the biopsy-confirmed myocarditis and probable myocarditis groups did not differ (P≥0.5), but both groups differed significantly from the idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy group (all P≤0.003). In children with myocarditis, lower LV fractional shortening z-score at presentation predicted greater mortality (hazard ratio, 0.85; 95% confidence interval, 0.73 to 0.98; P=0.03) and greater LV posterior wall thickness predicted transplantation (hazard ratio, 1.17; 95% confidence interval, 1.02 to 1.35; P=0.03). In those with decreased LV fractional shortening at presentation, independent predictors of echocardiographic normalization were presentation with an LV end-diastolic dimension z-score >2 (hazard ratio, 0.36; 95% confidence interval, 0.22 to 0.58; P<0.001) and greater septal wall thickness (hazard ratio, 1.16; 95% confidence interval, 1.01 to 1.34; P=0.04).",
"The course of tissue changes in acute myocarditis in humans is not well understood. Diagnostic tools currently available are unsatisfactory. We tested the hypothesis that inflammation is reflected by signal changes in contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). We assessed 44 consecutive patients with symptoms of acute myocarditis. Nineteen patients met the inclusion criteria revealing ECG changes, reduced myocardial function, elevated creatine kinase, positive troponin T, serological evidence for acute viral infection, exclusion of coronary heart disease, and positive antimyosin scintigraphy. We studied these patients on days 2, 7, 14, 28, and 84 after the onset of symptoms. We obtained ECG-triggered, T1-weighted images before and after application of 0.1 mmol/kg gadolinium. We measured the global relative signal enhancement of the left ventricular myocardium related to skeletal muscle and compared it with measurements in 18 volunteers. The global relative enhancement was higher in patients on days 2 (4.8+/-0.3 [mean+/-SE] versus 2.5+/-0.2; P<.0001); 7 (4.7+/-0.5, P<.0001); 14 (4.6+/-0.5, P<.0002); and 28 (3.9+/-0.4, P=.009) but not on day 84 (3.1+/-0.3; P=NS). On day 2, the enhancement was focal, whereas at later time points, the enhancement was diffuse. In patients with evidence of ongoing disease, the values remained elevated.",
"Recent myocardial infarction has been identified as a risk factor and is currently used as a strong predictor in different scores. The aim of our study was to determine whether the impact of myocardial infarction, especially acute myocardial infarction, is still strong enough to justify a restrictive indication for isolated CABG procedure in patients with significant coronary artery disease. 10 272 patients underwent isolated CABG at a single institution. A 10-year follow-up was performed with a completeness of 97.2 %. 6 107 (59.5 %) of the patients had a history of myocardial infarction. A stratified Kaplan-Meier analysis demonstrates a significantly worse survival for patients with myocardial infarction (chi-square value: 36.7, P<0.0001). At a further differentiation for no myocardial infarction (n = 4 165), myocardial infarction>90 days (n = 4 578), myocardial infarction up to 90 days (recent myocardial infarction) (n = 1 266) and ongoing acute myocardial infarction up to 15 days (n = 263), indicated a higher mortality for the more recent infarction in the univariate analysis. However, if patients with acute myocardial infarction in the past 6 years were analyzed separately, their risk remained at the same level as patients with non-acute myocardial infarction over the total observation period. Furthermore, propensity score matching revealed no statistical significant difference in the outcome of the patients.",
"The optimum route for cardioplegia administration in patients with severe coronary disease is still under debate. This study compared clinical, echocardiographic, and biochemical results in patients with left main stem disease treated with 2 different strategies of myocardial protection. Between March 2000 and November 2002, 148 consecutive patients with left main stem disease undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting were divided into 2 groups according to the route of cardioplegia delivery: antegrade in 87 patients (group A) or antegrade followed by retrograde in 61 patients (group B). Electrocardiography, troponin I, MB-creatine kinase, and MB-creatine kinase mass were performed at 12, 24, 48, and 72 hours postoperatively. Echocardiography was performed preoperatively and before hospital discharge. Data were stratified in subgroups of patients with the following associated risk factors: left ventricular hypertrophy, diabetes, and right coronary stenosis. Groups were homogeneous in preoperative and intraoperative variables, apart from the higher incidence of unstable angina and severity of left main stem disease in group B. Hospital deaths, intensive therapy unit and hospital stay, perioperative acute myocardial infarction, and intraaortic balloon pump support were similar in both groups. Postoperative recovery of left ventricle ejection fraction and wall motion score index did not differ between the 2 groups. However, postoperative atrial fibrillation was higher in group A (P =.015), especially in patients with diabetes (P<.0001). Troponin I was significantly higher in group A from postoperative hours 12 to 72 (P<.01), and the same pattern was observed in patients with diabetes (P<.001), critical right coronary stenosis (P<.001), and left ventricle hypertrophy (P<.001).",
"yes. Mechanical circulatory support for severe heart failure is associated with a consistent, significant, and sustained improvement in tissue perfusion, as measured at the bedside by a 2-dimensional microcirculation imaging technique.",
"yes. DDT of LAD flow velocity is strongly associated with myocardial viability after reperfused anterior AMI. Non-invasive TTDE of the LAD may be used in the acute phase to predict long-term viability of the jeopardised myocardium.",
"yes. Our results suggest that unloading of the left ventricle during prolonged LVAD support leads to regression of cellular hypertrophy and a decrease of MT expression. The preferential reduction of MT-positive vacuolized cardiomyocytes in the sub-endocardium is comparable with the concept of greatest reduction of wall stress in this area of the myocardium and may be due to the improvement of myocardial blood flow and the energy balance.",
"The purpose of this study was to assess the association of myocardial salvage by cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) with left ventricular (LV) remodeling and early ST-segment resolution in patients with acute myocardial infarction (MI). Experimental studies revealed that MI size is strongly influenced by the extent of the area at risk (AAR), limiting its accuracy as a marker of reperfusion treatment efficacy in acute MI studies. Hence, an index correcting MI size for AAR extent is warranted. T2-weighted CMR and delayed-enhancement CMR, respectively, enable the determination of AAR and MI size, and the myocardial salvage index (MSI) is calculated by correcting MI size for AAR extent. Nevertheless, the clinical value of CMR-derived MSI has not been evaluated yet. In a prospective cohort of 137 consecutive patients with acutely reperfused ST-segment elevation MI, CMR was performed at 1 week and 4 months. T2-weighted CMR was used to quantify AAR, whereas MI size was detected by delayed-enhancement imaging. MSI was defined as AAR extent minus MI size divided by AAR extent. Adverse LV remodeling was defined as an increase in LV end-systolic volume of >or=15%. The degree of ST-segment resolution 1 h after reperfusion was also calculated. AAR extent was consistently larger than MI size (32+/-15% of LV vs. 18+/-13% of LV, p<0.0001), yielding an MSI of 0.46+/-0.24. MI size was closely related to AAR extent (r=0.81, p<0.0001). After correction for the main baseline characteristics by multivariate analyses, MSI was a major and independent determinant of adverse LV remodeling (odds ratio: 0.64; 95% confidence interval: 0.49 to 0.84, p=0.001) and was independently associated with early ST-segment resolution (B coefficient=0.61, p<0.0001).",
"To test whether preserved coronary flow reserve (CFR) two days after reperfused acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is associated with less microvascular dysfunction (\" no-reflow\" phenomenon) and is predictive of myocardial viability. 24 patients with anterior AMI underwent CFR assessment in the left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) with transthoracic echocardiography and myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) 48 h after primary angioplasty in the LAD (mean 4 (SD 2) and 3 (1) days, respectively). Low-dose dobutamine echocardiography was performed 6 (3) days after AMI and follow-up echocardiography at three months. No-reflow extent was greater in patients with impaired CFR (< 2.5) than in those with preserved CFR (> 2.5) (55 (35)% v 11 (25)%, p < 0.001). MCE reflow was more common in patients with preserved CFR (8/12) than in those with reduced CFR (1/12, p < 0.05). Wall motion score index in the LAD territory (A-WMSI) was similar at the first echocardiography (2.14 (0.39) v 2.32 (0.47), NS), although it was better in patients with preserved CFR at dobutamine (1.38 (0.45) v 1.97 (0.67), p < 0.05) and follow-up echocardiography (1.36 (0.40) v 1.97 (0.64), p < 0.05). An inverse correlation was found between CFR and A-WMSI at dobutamine and follow-up echocardiography (r = -0.49, p = 0.016 and r = -0.55, p = 0.005) and between MCE and A-WMSI at dobutamine and follow-up echocardiography (r = -0.75, p < 0.001 and r = -0.75, p < 0.001). By multivariate analysis MCE reflow remained the only predictor of recovery at both dobutamine and follow-up echocardiography (odds ratio 1.06, 95% CI 1 to 1.1, p = 0.009).",
"Left ventricular hypertrophy in patients with critical aortic stenosis (AS) is an adaptive process that compensates for high intracavitary pressure and reduces systolic wall stress followed by an increase in myocardial masses. In the present prospective clinical trial, we investigated long-term compensatory changes in left ventricular geometry and function after aortic valve replacement using mechanical bileaflet prostheses with the main emphasis on the small-sized aortic annulus and valve prosthesis-patient mismatch. A total of 58 patients with critical AS were assigned to the following groups according to the predictive value of prosthetic valve area index (VAI): group 29 patients (VAI<or =0.99), expected mismatch; group 29 patients (VAI<or =0.99), no mismatch. At controls T(0) (before operation/operation (OP), T(1) and T(2) (4 and 20 months after OP) the left ventricular geometry was recorded by means of Imatron electron beam tomography and the transprosthetic velocities were measured by echocardiography. Statistical analysis showed a consistent reduction in the absolute (P=0.04) and indexed (P=0.04) left ventricular myocardial mass for both cohorts; furthermore, there was a significant difference between EXMIS and NOMIS patients concerning the factors, time and mass reduction (P=0.005), because of distinct baselines. A logistic regression report revealed preoperative cardiac output, absolute left ventricular myocardial mass, perfusion, body surface area and the native valve orifice area as predicting coefficients and factors for a minimum mass reduction of 25%. We explain a mathematical formula that turned out to be the most sensitive for correctly classified factors.",
"We investigated the ability of T-wave pseudonormalization and ST-segment elevation, which are demonstrated in infarct-related leads during submaximal exercise testing, to predict late recovery of contractile function. We studied 88 consecutive patients (73 males, mean age 59 +/- 8 years) with anterior infarction, persistent T-wave inversion and a documented lesion of the proximal segment of the left anterior descending coronary artery. They all underwent 2D-echocardiography on admission, 4 weeks as well as 6 months after myocardial infarction to evaluate the dysfunction score and the ejection fraction. Submaximal (75% of maximal predicted heart rate) exercise testing was performed in 80 patients 2 weeks after myocardial infarction following discontinuation of treatment. During exercise testing, 59 of the 88 patients showing negative T-waves on the resting electrocardiogram exhibited pseudonormalization (group A) in at least three adjacent precordial leads, whilst 29 (group B) did not. Patients of group A more frequently exhibited an early creatine kinase peak (41% vs 24%, P < 0.05) and residual angiographic perfusion (97% vs 69%, P < 0.05). The dysfunction score did not change in group B (from 19 +/- 7 to 22 +/- 4), but decreased in group A (from 18 +/- 4 to 11 +/- 6 P < 0.05). The ejection fraction was similar in the two groups on admission (group A: 48 +/- 7%, group B: 45 +/- 10%), but was significantly different at 4-week (52 +/- 99 vs 42 +/- 11%, P < 0.05) and 6-month follow-up (58 +/- 9 vs 44 +/- 10%, P < 0.01). The concomitant presence of ST-segment elevation and T-wave normalization showed the highest positive predictive value for left ventricular function recovery (100%).",
"We tested the hypothesis that low dose dobutamine stress echocardiography (LDDSE) combined with tissue Doppler imaging (TDI) can be used for the quantitative assessment of the content of viable myocardium. Forty-one patients with coronary artery disease and left ventricular dysfunction (ejection fraction < or =40%), already scheduled for revascularisation, underwent echocardiographic assessment of viability at rest and during low-dose dobutamine infusion (2.5 microg/kg/min up to 10 micro/kg/min) at two time points, 2 days before and 3 months after revascularisation. Pulsed-wave TDI was performed at rest and during LDDSE; ejection (Ej), pre-ejection (pre-Ej) and diastolic velocities (Ea, Aa) were recorded at rest and at 10 microg/kg/min dobutamine infusion. Recovery of regional function was defined as improvement of one or more grades 3 months post-revascularisation. A total of 112 vessels were revascularised. Out of 492 segments, 274 segments were characterised as viable and the remaining 218 as non-viable, according to postoperative functional myocardial recovery. Conventional qualitative LDDSE showed a sensitivity of 78% and specificity of 85% in predicting myocardial recovery. Ej, pre-Ej and Ea velocities increased significantly during LDDSE, while Aa velocity did not change significantly. Using ROC curves, the optimal cut-off value for viability assessment was an increase of 0.5 cm/s in Ej during LDDSE (80% sensitivity and 88% specificity, area under the curve 0.801), 0.6 cm/s in pre-Ej (91% sensitivity and 90% specificity, area under the curve 0.890), and 0.44 cm/s in Ea velocity (80% sensitivity and 81% specificity, area under the curve 0.780).",
"To evaluate whether functional and metabolic changes recover after aortic valve replacement (AVR). Eighteen men with aortic valve stenosis (mean pressure gradient +/- SD, 79.9 mm Hg +/- 15.1) underwent magnetic resonance (MR) imaging and phosphorus 31 MR spectroscopy. In nine patients who underwent AVR, MR imaging and spectroscopy were repeated 40 weeks +/- 12 after AVR. Ten age-matched healthy men were control subjects. Before AVR, the myocardial phosphocreatine (PCr)-to-adenosine triphosphate (ATP) ratio in the 18 patients was 1.24 +/- 0.17 and 1.43 +/- 0.14 in the control group (P <.01). In nine patients who underwent follow-up MR spectroscopy, the ratio increased from 1.28 +/- 0.17 to 1.47 +/- 0.14 (P <.05) following AVR. Before AVR, early acceleration peak corrected for cardiac output was (0.043 +/- 0.008) x 10(-3) sec(-1) in patients and (0.081 +/- 0.033) x 10(-3) sec(-1) in the control group (P <.05). After 40 weeks +/- 12, the mean early acceleration peak corrected for cardiac output in the nine patients increased significantly to (0.055 +/- 0.006) x 10(-3) sec(-1) (P <.05), although it was still significantly lower than that of the control group (P <.05). Before AVR, a significant correlation was found between the myocardial PCr-ATP ratio and left ventricular diastolic function (n = 18; P <.05).",
"Post-exercise heart rate recovery (HRR) is an index of parasympathetic function associated with clinical outcome in patients with chronic heart failure. However, its relationship with the pro-inflammatory response and prognostic value in consecutive patients with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) has not been investigated. We measured HRR and pro-inflammatory markers in 107 prospectively and consecutively enrolled, recovered ADHF patients (71 male, 59 ± 15 years, mean ejection fraction 28.9 ± 14.2%) during the pre-discharge period. The primary endpoint included cardiovascular (CV) events defined as CV mortality, cardiac transplantation, or rehospitalization due to HF aggravation. The CV events occurred in 30 (28.0%) patients (5 cardiovascular deaths and 7 cardiac transplantations) during the follow-up period (median 214 days, 11-812 days). When the patients with ADHF were grouped by HRR according to the Contal and O'Quigley's method, low HRR was shown to be associated with significantly higher levels of serum monokine-induced by gamma interferon (MIG) and poor clinical outcome. Multivariate Cox regression analysis revealed that low HRR was an independent predictor of CV events in both enter method and stepwise method. The addition of HRR to a model significantly increased predictability for CV events across the entire follow-up period.",
"We sought to quantitate the incidence of malignant ventricular arrhythmias and to identify subsequent hemodynamic changes and untoward events in patients who have received an implantable left ventricular circulatory assist device as an extended bridge to heart transplantation. Implantable long-term mechanical circulatory assist devices have been used clinically with increasing frequency and success for the past 4 years. Previous investigators have suggested that patients with malignant ventricular arrhythmias receiving a left ventricular assist device will require both left and right ventricular assistance to maintain vital organ perfusion. We reviewed our 4-year experience with 21 patients who underwent implantation of a left ventricular assist device. Device flows and mean arterial pressure were used to assess systemic perfusion; central venous pressure provided a gauge of right ventricular function. Charts were screened for evidence of end-organ injury resulting from malignant ventricular arrhythmias. Malignant ventricular arrhythmias occurred in 4 patients (19%) before device placement and in 9 patients (43%) during device support. The latter nine patients formed the final study group; their arrhythmias occurred 0 to 186 days after device implantation and had a duration of 10 min to 12 days. The patients reported weakness or palpitation; however, none reported syncope or dyspnea. Mean arterial pressure and central venous pressure were insignificantly changed by the arrhythmias. Device flow decreased by 1.4 +/- 0.6 liters/min (p < 0.05) at the onset of the arrhythmias but returned to normal after cardioversion. No thromboembolic events or significant end-organ dysfunction occurred.",
"These data indicate that in patients with severe ischemic left ventricular dysfunction 'stunned myocardium' is more prevalent than 'hibernation'. Functional normalization is more frequent in 'stunned' segments, whereas areas of 'hibernation' showed more severe tissue injury and protracted recovery. Different degrees of myocardial injury coexist in most patients, which determines the time-course and the extent of improvement after revascularization.",
"To investigate the effects of cell therapy on myocardial perfusion recovery after treatment of acute myocardial infarction (MI) with primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). In this HEBE trial substudy, which was approved by the institutional review board (trial registry number ISRCTN95796863), the authors assessed the effects of intracoronary infusion with bone marrow-derived mononuclear cells (BMMCs) or peripheral blood-derived mononuclear cells (PBMCs) on myocardial perfusion recovery by using cardiac magnetic resonance (MR) imaging after revascularization. In 152 patients with acute MI treated with PCI, cardiac MR imaging was performed after obtaining informed consent-before randomization to BMMC, PBMC, or standard therapy (control group)-and repeated at 4-month follow-up. Cardiac MR imaging consisted of cine, rest first-pass perfusion, and late gadolinium enhancement imaging. Perfusion was evaluated semiquantitatively with signal intensity-time curves by calculating the relative upslope (percentage signal intensity change). The relative upslope was calculated for the MI core, adjacent border zone, and remote myocardium. Perfusion differences among treatment groups or between baseline and follow-up were assessed with the Wilcoxon signed rank or Mann-Whitney U test. At baseline, myocardial perfusion differed between the MI core (median, 6.0%; interquartile range [IQR], 4.1%-8.0%), border zone (median, 8.4%; IQR, 6.4%-10.2%), and remote myocardium (median, 12.2%; IQR, 10.5%-15.9%) (P < .001 for all), with equal distribution among treatment groups. These interregional differences persisted at follow-up (P < .001 for all). No difference in perfusion recovery was found between the three treatment groups for any region.",
"In our study, we investigated the impact of papillary muscle systolic dyssynchrony (DYS-PAP) obtained by 2D speckle-tracking echocardiography (2D-STE) in the prediction of recurrent ischemic mitral regurgitation (MR) after restrictive annuloplasty. The study population consisted of 524 consecutive patients who survived coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) and restrictive annuloplasty, performed between 2001 and 2010 at 3 different Institutions and who met inclusion criteria. The assessment of DYS-PAP was performed preoperatively and at follow-up (median 45.3 months [IQR 26-67]) by 2D-STE in the apical four-chamber view for the anterolateral papillary muscle (ALPM) and apical long-axis view for the posteromedial papillary muscle (PMPM). Recurrence of MR (≥ 2+ in patients with no/trivial MR at discharge) was found in 112 patients (21.3%) at follow-up. Compared to patients without recurrence of MR, these patients had higher DYS-PAP values at baseline (60.6 ± 4.4 ms vs. 47.2 ± 2.9 ms, p<0.001) which significantly worsened at follow-up (74.4 ± 5.2 ms, p=0.002 vs. baseline). In contrast, in patients with no MR recurrence, DYS-PAP was significantly reduced (25.3 ± 4.4 ms, p=0.002 vs. baseline). At logistic regression analysis DYS-PAP (odds ratio [OR]: 4.8, 95% Confidence Interval [CI]: 3.4-8.2, p<0.001), was the strongest predictor of recurrent MR with a cutoff ≥ 58 ms (95%CI 51-66 ms). The model showed an area under the Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) curve of 0.97 (CI 0.94-0.99 [optimism-corrected 0.94; CI 0.89-0.95]) with 98% sensitivity (CI 96-100% [optimism-corrected 95%; CI 91-96%]) and 90% specificity (CI 85-94% [optimism-corrected 87%; CI 82-90%]).",
"This study investigated the hypothesis that direct epicardial bipolar mapping is able to predict the recovery of left ventricular (LV) dysfunction in ischaemic myocardium. In 34 patients with CAD, a maximum of 102 bipolar epicardial electrograms per patient (n=3468 electrograms) were simultaneously recorded with a ventricular jacket array intraoperatively immediately prior to revascularization. Only LV electrograms with good myocardial contact (n=1813, 52+/-14 per patient, mean+/-SD) were analyzed. In accordance to the position of each electrode, segmental myocardial function was assessed by transthoracic echocardiography before and 7+/-2 months (mean+/-SD; range 3-10 months) after CABG using a wall motion score. Preoperatively dysfunctional segments (n=700) were classified as viable (improvement in wall motion score of at least 20% following CABG, n=424) or non-viable (no improvement, n=276). Bipolar voltage was significantly lower in non-viable when compared to viable myocardium (P<0.001, ANOVA) At a cut-off value of 5.9mV, ROC-curve analysis for bipolar voltage (to discriminate between viable and non-viable myocardium) revealed a sensitivity of 83% at a specificity of 83% (area under the ROC-curve of 0.92+/-0.01, mean+/-SE).",
"Our aim was to investigate the associations between B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP), troponin T (TnT) and C-reactive protein (CRP) and changes in left ventricular function and size after acute coronary syndrome. In 119 patients admitted for non-ST-elevation acute coronary syndrome, echocardiography and blood sampling were performed prior to coronary angiography. Echocardiography was repeated at follow-up after 8 ± 3 months. Left ventricular function was assessed by speckle tracking echocardiography. In 50 patients, infarct size was determined by magnetic resonance imaging. The associations between baseline levels of NT-proBNP, TnT and CRP and myocardial functional recovery, left ventricular intraventricular volumes and infarct size were determined by linear regression. All three biomarkers were associated with myocardial dysfunction at baseline. However, high levels of NT-proBNP were associated with better myocardial recovery, as measured by global longitudinal strain, even after adjusting for other factors potentially influencing myocardial recovery.",
"We have shown that passive ventricular constraint during moderate heart failure can halt progressive deterioration in cardiac function in an experimental model of ovine pacing induced heart failure (HF). We report on ventricular constraint in severe heart failure. Eighteen adult merino sheep were used. Severe heart failure was induced in two stages, ie, high rate ventricular pacing for 21 days to produce moderate HF and then for 42 days to induce severe HF. A custom-made polyester mesh cardiac support device ([CSD] Acorn Cardiovascular, St Paul, MN) was implanted snugly around both ventricles through a lower partial sternotomy in 9 sheep (group 1). Rapid ventricular pacing was continued for a further 28 days in all animals to induce advanced HF. Cardiovascular functional indicators were determined using echocardiography and a submaximal treadmill exercise protocol at base line, moderate, severe, and advanced stages. The 9 sheep in group 2 were used as controls. Cardiovascular function was significantly depressed in all animals in advanced heart failure compared with base line, with left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) falling from 50% to 25% (p < 0.05) and LV +dp/dt((max)) declining from 1,777 to 1,243 (p < 0.05). However after CSD implantation cardiovascular function during exercise improved significantly despite ongoing rapid pacing, with LVEF increasing to 30% and LV +dp/dt to 1,499 (p < 0.05) in group 1. There were no significant changes in left ventricular long axis area (157 to 151 cm(2)) and short axis (6.8 to 6.1 cm) dimensions at the termination of pacing compared with those at time of CSD implant. Mitral regurgitation improved slightly from 2.5 to 2.19 after containment (p < 0.05) in group 1 but increased to 2.83 in group 2.",
"yes. Longitudinal strain was uniformly low in patients with severe AS and lower in those with symptoms. Compensatory circumferential myocardial mechanics (increased apical circumferential strain and rotation) were absent in symptomatic patients. Thus, myocardial mechanics may help in the follow-up of patients with severe AS and timing of valve surgery.",
"Cardioplegic arrest induces anaerobic myocardial metabolism with a net production of lactate from glycolysis. However, persistent lactate release during reperfusion suggests a delayed recovery of normal aerobic metabolism and may lead to depressed myocardial function necessitating inotropic or intraaortic balloon pump support (low output syndrome [LOS]). We examined the relation between perioperative myocardial metabolism and postoperative clinical outcomes in patients undergoing isolated coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG). We reviewed 623 patients who were enrolled in clinical studies evaluating perioperative myocardial metabolism between 1983 and 1996. Arterial and coronary sinus blood samples were obtained intraoperatively to assess myocardial metabolism. Clinical data regarding patient demographics and postoperative outcomes were prospectively collected and entered into our institutional database. Low output syndrome developed in 36 patients (5.8%). Myocardial lactate release was higher in these patients compared with those who did not develop postoperative LOS. Advanced age and poor preoperative left ventricular function were independent predictors of lactate release during reperfusion. Persistent lactate release after 5 minutes of reperfusion was the only independent predictor of postoperative LOS in this low-risk population.",
"In patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), successful primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) was found to be useful in earlier restoration of TIMI flow 3. However, the incidence of left ventricular (LV) dilatation and remodelling after successful primary PCI is still high. We aimed to determine the independent predictors of LV remodelling after successful primary PCI for patients with first STEMI. We included 232 STEMI patients treated with primary PCI. Echocardiography was done on the day of PCI and after six months. LV remodelling was defined as ≥ 20% increase in the six-month left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV). In patients with remodelling, symptom-to-door and symptom-to-balloon times were significantly longer (p < 0.00001 for each), initial ejection fraction (EF) was significantly lower (p = 0.044), six-month LVEDV, left ventricular end-systolic volume (LVESV) and LVEDV increase were significantly higher, and EF was significantly lower (p < 0.00001 for each). Mean myocardial blush grade (MBG) was significantly lower in patients with remodelling (p < 0.00001). There was a significant positive correlation between LVEDV increase and both symptom-to-balloon time (r = 0.603, p < 0.00001) and symptom-to-door time (r = 0.564, p < 0.00001), and a significant negative correlation between LVEDV increase and MBG (r = -0.447, p < 0.00001). Logistic regression showed that the independent predictors of LV remodelling were symptom-to-balloon time (p = 0.00068), symptom to door time (p = 0.0013) and MBG (p = 0.0057).",
"yes. IL-1β levels after STEMI were strongly associated with impaired myocardial function and noninfarct LV mass after 1 year, suggesting a potential role for IL-1β as a predictor of maladaptive myocardial remodelling following reperfused MI.",
"Vectorcardiographic (VCG) measurements of ST-vector magnitude (VM) and QRS-vector difference (VD) have been demonstrated to be independent predictors of adverse outcome (AO) and acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in emergency department (ED) chest pain patients with absence of bundle branch block or left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) on the initial 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). The prognostic value of ST-VM and QRS-VD in ED chest pain patients with LVH on the initial 12-lead ECG has not been previously investigated. A prospective observational study was performed in 196 consecutive ED chest pain patients with suspected AMI and presence of voltage criteria for LVH on initial ECG who underwent continuous VCG monitoring during the initial evaluation. The optimal baseline ST-VM value and 2-hour QRS-VD value were defined as the most accurate value on the receiver operator characteristic curve (value with lowest false-negative and false-positive rate). Thirty-day AO was defined as AMI, percutaneous coronary intervention, coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), or cardiac death occurring within 30 days of initial ED visit. Fourteen patients (7.1%) were diagnosed as 24-hour AMI and 28 patients (14.3%) experienced 30-day AO. The optimal cut-off value for predicting 30-day AO was > 124 microV for ST-VM and > 21.7 microV for QRS-VD. Patients with either a positive ST-VM or a positive QRS-VD had 8.8 times increased odds of AMI (95% confidence interval, CI, 1.9-40.3; P = 0.003); 4.3 times increased odds of 30-day PTCA/CABG (95% CI 1.3-13.8; P = 0.019); and 3.8 times increased odds of 30-day AO (95% CI 1.6-9.3; P = 0.003).",
"Cardiac reserve can be used to predict survival and outcome in patients with heart failure. The aim of this study was to investigate if native cardiac reserve could predict survival after myocardial infarction (MI) in mice. We investigated 27 healthy C57Bl6 mice (male symbol10-12 weeks old) with echocardiography using a high-frequency 15-MHz linear transducer. Investigations were performed both at rest and after pharmacological stress induced by dobutamine (1 mug/g body weight i.p.). The day after the echocardiography examination, a large MI was induced by ligation of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery for evaluation of mortality rate. Two weeks after induction of MI, 7 mice were alive (26%). Evaluation of the difference between the surviving and deceased animals showed that the survivors had a better native ability to increase systolic performance (DeltaLVESd -1.86 vs -1.28mm p = 0.02) upon dobutamine challenge, resulting in a better cardiac reserve (DeltaFS 37 vs 25% p = 0.02 and DeltaCO 0.27 vs -0.10 ml/min p = 0.02) and a better chronotropic reserve (DeltaR-R interval -68 vs -19 ms p < 0.01). A positive relationship was found between ability to survive and both cardiac (p < 0.05) and chronotropic reserve (p < 0.05) when the mice were divided into three groups: survivors, surviving < 7 days, and surviving < 1 day.",
"Previous studies suggest that children with myocarditis who receive heart transplantation (HT) may be at higher risk of post-transplant mortality compared with children who are transplanted for idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy. We hypothesized that these differences are because of more severe heart failure at HT in children with myocarditis. We identified 221 children with myocarditis and 1583 with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy who were<18 years old and listed for HT in the United States between July 2004 and December 2013 using the Organ Procurement and Transplant Network database. We compared baseline characteristics at listing and at HT and used Cox models to determine whether myocarditis is independently associated with wait-list mortality (or becoming too sick to transplant) or post-transplant graft loss (death/re-HT). Children with myocarditis were more likely to be listed while on assisted ventilation, mechanical circulatory support and with renal dysfunction. Overall, 137 children with myocarditis and 1249 with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy received HT. In unadjusted analysis, children with myocarditis were at higher risk of wait-list mortality (hazard ratio 2.1; 95% confidence interval 1.5-3.0) and showed a trend toward increased risk of post-transplant graft loss (hazard ratio 1.4; 95% confidence interval 1.0-2.2). However, in adjusted analysis, myocarditis was not associated with wait-list mortality (hazard ratio 1.3, 95% confidence interval 0.9-1.9) or post-transplant graft loss (hazard ratio 1.3, 95% confidence interval 0.9-2.0).",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the most robust predictor of myocardial viability among stress/rest reversibility (coronary flow reserve [CFR] impairment), (201)Tl perfusion status at rest, (201)Tl 24 hours redistribution and systolic wall thickening of (99m)Tc-methoxyisobutylisonitrile using a dual isotope gated myocardial perfusion single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) who were re-vascularized with a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. A total of 39 patients with CAD was enrolled (34 men and 5 women), aged between 36 and 72 years (mean 58 ± 8 standard in years) who underwent both pre- and 3 months post-CABG myocardial SPECT. We analyzed 17 myocardial segments per patient. Perfusion status and wall motion were semi-quantitatively evaluated using a 4-point grading system. Viable myocardium was defined as dysfunctional myocardium which showed wall motion improvement after CABG. The left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) significantly increased from 37.8 ± 9.0% to 45.5 ± 12.3% (p < 0.001) in 22 patients who had a pre-CABG LVEF lower than 50%. Among 590 myocardial segments in the re-vascularized area, 115 showed abnormal wall motion before CABG and 73.9% (85 of 115) had wall motion improvement after CABG. In the univariate analysis (n = 115 segments), stress/rest reversibility (p < 0.001) and (201)Tl rest perfusion status (p = 0.024) were significant predictors of wall motion improvement. However, in multiple logistic regression analysis, stress/rest reversibility alone was a significant predictor for post-CABG wall motion improvement (p < 0.001).",
"Rapid ventricular pacing produces a reliable model of heart failure. Cessation after 4 weeks of rapid ventricular pacing results in rapid normalization of left ventricular function, but the left ventricle remains persistently dilated. We present novel data that show that prolonged rapid ventricular pacing (10 weeks) creates a model of chronic left ventricular dysfunction. In 9 dogs undergoing 10 weeks of rapid ventricular pacing, left ventricular function and volumes were serially assessed by using 2-dimensional echocardiography and pressure-volume analysis for 12 weeks after cessation of pacing. Increased end-diastolic volume and decreased systolic and diastolic function were seen at the end of pacing. By 2 weeks of recovery from rapid ventricular pacing, end-diastolic volume and ejection fraction were partially recovered but did not improve further thereafter. Load-independent and load-sensitive indices of function obtained by pressure-volume analysis at 8 and 12 weeks of recovery confirmed a persistence of both systolic and diastolic dysfunction. In addition, left ventricular mass increased with pacing and remained elevated at 8 and 12 weeks of recovery. Four of these dogs studied at 6 months of recovery showed similar left ventricular abnormalities.",
"These findings suggest that although both reversible and mild-to-moderate irreversible thallium defects after stress retain viable myocardium, the identification of reversible thallium defect on stress in an asynergic region more accurately predicts recovery of function after revascularization. Even at a similar mass of viable myocardial tissue (as reflected by the final thallium content), the presence of inducible ischemia is associated with an increased likelihood of functional recovery.",
"The contribution of neutrophils to myocardial injury during stunning remains controversial because of conflicting results in neutropenic animals. The goal of this study was to compare the recovery of function in stunned myocardium using two distinct methods for inducing neutropenia in pigs. Three groups of pigs were studied: control (n = 6), and made neutropenic by either Leukopak blood filters (n = 7), or cyclophosphamide (n = 7, 50 mg.kg-1 intravenously 4 d prior to study). In anaesthetised open chest pigs, with the heart paced at 110 beats.min-1, the left anterior descending coronary artery was perfused with an extracorporeal circuit at controlled coronary pressure (CP) and the regional coronary blood flow was measured. Systolic wall thickening was determined by sonomicrometry in the left anterior descending and circumflex coronary artery regions. The protocol consisted of 15 min of low flow ischaemia (CP = 40 mm Hg), followed by a staged reperfusion over 10 min back to baseline (CP = 90 mm Hg), and continued for 2 h. Blood filtration was initiated prior to ischaemia and stopped after 90 min reperfusion. In both treated groups during ischaemia and the initial 60 min of reperfusion the neutrophil count was severely depleted to < 5% compared to the control group. Aortic pressure, coronary blood flow during ischaemia, area at risk, and systolic wall thickening in the circumflex region were similar between groups. Recovery of systolic wall thickening in the left anterior descending region after reperfusion was equivalent in all three groups. In the filter group, arrhythmias during ischaemia and reperfusion were significantly less.",
"yes. This is the first study to demonstrate that procedurally successful TF-TAVI results in a transient depression of both systolic and diastolic left ventricular function within the first 24 postoperative hours, despite impressive relief of previously severe, chronic pressure overload. The rise in the markers of myocardial damage suggests that this may be due to periprocedural myocardial injury. Complete recovery of contractility is generally observed after 24 h.",
"yes. Detailed pathological evaluation on an EMB provides prognostic information in patients with acute myocarditis. EMB evaluation should be considered in patients with suspected myocarditis.",
"Persistent long-term apparent healing was evident in a remarkable proportion of dilated cardiomyopathy patients receiving optimal medical treatment and was associated with stable normalization of main clinical and laboratory features. This condition can be characterized by a decline of left ventricular function over the very long term, highlighting the relevance of serial nd individualized follow-up in all patients with dilated cardiomyopathy, especially considering the absence of predictors for longterm apparent healing.",
"yes. Despite its technical limitations, the measurement of ejection and pre-ejection velocities during dobutamine stimulation appears to be an effective way of predicting myocardial segmental recovery following reperfusion.",
"To assess whether strain rate imaging (SRI) can serve to evaluate myocardial viability in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS). In 23 patients with ACS, we measured longitudinal tissue Doppler strain and strain rate values from left ventricular basal, mid, and apical segments (n = 414). These segments were grouped according to their acute end-systolic strain values (S(ES)) into those with normocontraction (S(ES)≤-13%), hypocontraction (S(ES) between -13 and -7%), and severe contraction abnormality (S(ES)>-7%). At 8 months, we evaluated the recovery of contraction: Segments with acutely severe contraction abnormality that improved their strain values to ≤-7% were defined as viable, and those that failed to do so as non-viable. In the acute phase, S(ES), post-systolic strain, as well as systolic, early, and late diastolic strain rate values were significantly better in the viable than in the non-viable segments. Post-systolic strain had the best AUC 0.78, and a cut-off value of -3.8% predicted recovery from severe contraction abnormality with a sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 62%. The transmurality of the infarction, assessed by magnetic resonance imaging with delayed enhancement, was significantly larger in the non-viable than in the viable segments (P = 0.006). Acute global S(ES) and systolic strain rate showed the best correlations with final global S(ES) and global infarction percentage after recovery.",
"We sought to determine whether abnormal heart rate recovery predicts mortality independent of the angiographic severity of coronary disease. An attenuated decrease in heart rate after exercise, or heart rate recovery (HRR), has been shown to predict mortality. There are few data on its prognostic significance once the angiographic severity of coronary artery disease (CAD) is ascertained. For six years we followed 2,935 consecutive patients who underwent symptom-limited exercise testing for suspected CAD and then had a coronary angiogram within 90 days. The HRR was abnormal if < or =12 beats/min during the first minute after exercise, except among patients undergoing stress echocardiography, in whom the cutoff was < or =18 beats/min. Angiographic CAD was considered severe if the Duke CAD Prognostic Severity Index was > or =42 (on a scale of 0 to 100), which corresponds to a level of CAD where revascularization is associated with better long-term survival. Severe CAD was present in 421 patients (14%), whereas abnormal HRR was noted in 838 patients (29%). There were 336 deaths (11%). Mortality was predicted by abnormal HRR (hazard ratio [HR] 2.5, 95% confidence interval [CI] 2.0 to 3.1; p < 0.0001) and by severe CAD (HR 2.0, 95% CI 1.6 to 2.6; p < 0.0001); both variables provided additive prognostic information. After adjusting for age, gender, standard risk factors, medications, exercise capacity, and left ventricular function, abnormal HRR remained predictive of death (adjusted HR 1.6, 95% CI 1.2 to 2.0; p < 0.0001); severe CAD was also predictive (adjusted HR 1.4, 95% CI 1.1 to 1.9; p = 0.008).",
"yes. In patients with recent onset non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy, DF recovery was associated with favourable outcomes independent of LVEF improvement, adding incremental prognostic value to these patients.",
"It is unlikely that mechanical stress altering a single vulnerable plaque leads to myocardial infarction from almost simultaneous proximal atherothrombotic closure of the right coronary artery and the left anterior descending coronary artery. ACUTE MANAGEMENT: Immediate catheter diagnosis and revascularization including stent deployment restored TIMI III flow in both coronary arteries. After an initial bolus, abciximab was continuously infused to optimize myocardial perfusion. LABORATORY TESTS ON ADMISSION: The patient's white blood cell count was markedly elevated and the level of C-reactive protein slightly so. After interventional recanalization, C-reactive protein rose steeply before falling again after two days. Thirty days after acute myocardial infarction, the patient was fully recovered and asymptomatic. Echocardiography revealed only mild-to-moderate global left ventricular hypokinesia.",
"yes. The results of this study suggest that LV recovery is most likely to occur in young patients (<40 years) with nonischemic cardiomyopathy of <1 year duration. Two-year postexplant survival was excellent.",
"The diagnosis of acute myocarditis (AMC) and inflammatory cardiomyopathy (DCMi) can be difficult. Speckle tracking echocardiography with accurate assessments of regional contractility could have an outstanding importance for the diagnosis. N = 25 patients with clinically diagnosed AMC who underwent endomyocardial biopsies (EMBs) were studied prospectively. Speckle tracking imaging was examined at the beginning and during a mean follow-up period of 6.2 months. In the acute phase patients had markedly decreased left ventricular (LV) systolic function (mean LV ejection fraction (LVEF) 40.4 ± 10.3%). At follow-up in n = 8 patients, inflammation persists, correlating with a significantly reduced fractional shortening (FS, 21.5 ± 6.0%) in contrast to those without inflammation in EMB (FS 32.1 ± 7.1%, P < 0.05). All AMC patients showed a reduction in global systolic longitudinal strain (LS, -8.36 ± -3.47%) and strain rate (LSR, 0.53 ± 0.29 1/s). At follow-up, LS and LRS were significantly lower in patients with inflammation, in contrast to patients without inflammation (-9.4 ± 1.4 versus -16.8 ± 2.0%, P < 0.0001; 0.78 ± 0.4 versus 1.3 ± 0.3 1/s). LSR and LS correlate significantly with lymphocytic infiltrates (for CD3 r = 0.7, P < 0.0001, and LFA-1 r = 0.8, P < 0.0001).",
"Viable but hypocontractile myocardium can show functional improvement after revascularization (hibernation). It is sometimes difficult, however, to predict viability and recovery in patients with severe left ventricular function. This study sought to identify possible predictive factors of recovery of cardiac function after revascularization in patients with three-vessel disease. Positron emission tomography (fluoro-18-deoxyglucose uptake for metabolism; nitrogen 13-labeled ammonia for flow) and equilibrium-gated nuclear angiography (for the global ejection fraction) were performed in 59 patients with three-vessel disease before and after undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. The positron emission tomographic data were expressed as match normal (flow and metabolism normal), mismatch (low flow, high metabolism), match viable (moderate decrease in flow and metabolism), and match necrosis (low flow and metabolism). Stepwise logistic regression analysis showed that only mismatch regions played a significant role in predicting postoperative improvement in function (p = 0.019). There were 1.7 +/- 1.5 mismatch regions in 31 patients who showed an improvement in their ejection fraction (0.47 +/- 0.14 versus 0.58 +/- 0.11; mean +/- standard deviation) versus 0.8 +/- 1.0 mismatch regions (p = 0.017) in patients who did not show recovery. There was more pronounced functional improvement with increasing numbers of mismatch regions, and patients with at least one mismatch region had a high likelihood of recovery (p < 0.001). In patients with a very low preoperative ejection fraction and two or more mismatch regions, there was early significant recovery (0.27 +/- 0.08 versus 0.46 +/- 0.06; p = 0.009).",
"Myopericarditis are common in clinical practice: up to 15% of acute pericarditis have a significant myocardial involvement as assessed by biological markers. This prospective, bicentric study is aimed at describing a myopericarditis population, the clinical and MRI follow-up, and search for prognosis markers. Between May 2005 and September 2007, 103 patients hospitalised for acute pericarditis were prospectively enrolled. Physical examination, ECG, echocardiography, biological screening and cardiac MRI, in case of myopericarditis defined as acute pericarditis with troponin I elevation, were performed. Between December 2007 and July 2008, patients were contacted for new clinical and MRI evaluation. Among the initial population of 103 patients admitted for acute pericarditis, 14 myopericarditis and 38 pericarditis were included. Compared with pericarditis, the myopericarditis group was associated with the following features: younger age (34.9 years [95% CI 28.3-41.2]; p=0.01), ST-segment elevation (nine patients between 14; p=0.03), higher troponin I (7.3 microg/L [95% CI 4.4-10.2]; p<10(-4)) and lower systemic inflammation (CRP peak 38.1mg/L [95% CI 7-69.2]; p=0.01). In the case of myopericarditis, infectious etiologies were predominant (12 patients among 14; p=0.002) and patients stayed longer in hospital (5.8 days [95% CI 4.7-6.8]; p=0.01). Follow-up showed no difference in terms of functional status (p=0.3) and global complications (p=0.9) between paired myopericarditis and pericarditis. Nevertheless, cardiac mortality was higher for myopericarditis (p=0.04). MRI follow-up showed myocardial sequelae without clinical impact.",
"We tested the hypothesis that the tissue Doppler imaging (TDI)-derived positive preejection velocity (+VIC) can predict the recovery of contractile function after revascularization in patients with a recent myocardial infarction. In experimental studies, the presence and extent of TDI-derived +VIC correlated with the extent of viable myocardium. Forty-three patients with a large myocardial infarction and an occluded left anterior descending (n = 38) or dominant right coronary (n = 5) artery were selected. The median duration of occlusion was 24 h. Longitudinal myocardial velocities were recorded at rest by pulsed-wave TDI echocardiography 6 +/- 2 h after revascularization. Functional recovery was defined as an increase in segmental chordal shortening > or =10% at three-month follow-up left ventricular angiogram as compared with baseline. A good quality TDI signal was obtained in 309 of 324 analyzed segments (95.4%). Severe dysfunction was present in 198 segments of which 126 (64%) showed recovery at three-month follow-up. Sampling of all dysfunctional segments lasted 11 +/- 4 min per patient. Sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of the +VIC to predict segmental recovery were 91%, 71%, and 84%, respectively. The percentage of segments that were dysfunctional at angiography but showed a +VIC correlated with improvement of both global left ventricular ejection fraction (r = 0.60, p = 0.001) and wall motion score index (r = -0.78, p < 0.0001) at follow-up.",
"yes. In a swine model of prolonged VF in acute myocardial ischemia, 24-hour survival with favorable neurological status was more likely when defibrillation was performed first without preceding chest compressions. Myocardial substrate is an important factor in determining the optimal resuscitation strategy.",
"This article aims to review contemporary studies that utilized mechanical circulatory support (MCS) in the treatment of heart failure and to elaborate on prospective mechanical alternatives. There is a growing need for a well-tolerated, durable and effective MCS option in patients with refractory heart failure. In previous years, the primary indication for MCS therapy supported bridge to transplantation. These early left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) suffered significant adverse events, thereby limiting their prolonged use. With the introduction of newer continuous flow LVADs, with lower morbidity, neurological events, pump failure and the expanded indication use (i.e. destination therapy), the overall number of implanted patients has grown.",
"It appears that patients with LV dysfunction, but without viable myocardium, may also benefit from myocardial revascularisation. Functional recovery continuously occurs throughout the first year after surgical treatment.",
"Clinical and experimental studies have traditionally focused on understanding the mechanisms for why a heart fails. We hypothesize that the pathways involved with myocardial recovery are not simply the reverse of those that cause heart failure. However, determining when and how a decompensated heart can recover remains unknown. Male C57BL/6 mice underwent minimally invasive aortic banding for 3, 4, or 6 wk with or without subsequent band removal for 1 wk (debanding). Physiologic and genomic characterization was performed with intracardiac pressure-volume recordings, rt-PCR, and microarray analysis. Heart weight/body weight ratios and PV loops demonstrated a transition from compensated left ventricular hypertrophy to decompensated heart failure between 3 and 4 wk. Pressure-relief afforded by debanding allowed functional recovery and normalization of LVH after both 3 and 4, but not 6 wk of banding. Whole genome microarrays demonstrated 397 genes differentially expressed in recovered hearts, 250 genes differentially expressed in the nonrecoverable (6 wk) hearts, and only 10 genes shared by both processes. In particular, altered expression patterns of apoptotic and metalloproteinase genes correlated with the heart's ability to functionally recover.",
"Ischaemic preconditioning reduces myocardial infarct size in animal models. Clinical data suggest that episodes of angina immediately before acute myocardial infarction may be associated with smaller infarct size in man. However, it is unclear whether ischaemic episodes preceding acute myocardial infarction also affect contractile recovery in patients. In this study we investigated the recovery of regional myocardial function after thrombolysis in two groups of patients at their first Q-wave acute myocardial infarction; in one group (n = 42) myocardial infarction occurred unheralded, whereas patients of the second group (n = 48) had experienced new-onset angina in the 48 h that preceded infarction. Echocardiographic analysis of myocardial regional function in the infarct area was done at 2, 24 and 72 h after thrombolysis, and at 1 week, and 1 and 3 months follow-up. Peak level of MB-creatine kinase was significantly lower in patients with new-onset angina (96 +/- 47 as compared with 221 +/- 108 IU.l-1, P < 0.01), as was the area under the MB-creatine kinase curve (1321 +/- 876 as compared to 3879 +/- 1555 U.l-1/36 h, P < 0.01). Hypokinetic segments were fewer in patients with pre-infarction angina. Similarly, wall motion score improved significantly earlier in patients who had new-onset angina before acute myocardial infarction. Thus, contractile recovery was more rapid in patients with previous angina than in those in whom infarction occurred unheralded. Complications during the in-hospital outcome and other variables considered during the 4-week follow-up were similar between groups.",
"Implantation of left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) early after acute myocardial infarction (MI) has traditionally been thought to be associated with high mortality rates due to technical limitations and severe end-organ dysfunction. At some experienced centers, doctors have refrained from earlier operation after MI to allow for a period of hemodynamic and end-organ stabilization. We retrospectively investigated the effect of preoperative MI on the survival rates of 25 patients who received a Thermocardiosystems Incorporated LVAD either <2 weeks (Early) (n = 15) or >2 weeks (Late) (n = 10) after MI. Outcome variables included perioperative right ventricular assistance (and right-sided circulatory failure), hemodynamic indexes, percent transplanted or explanted, and mortality. No statistically significant differences were demonstrated between demographic, perioperative or hemodynamic variables between the Early and Late groups. Patients in the Early group demonstrated a lower rate of perioperative mechanical right ventricular assistance, but had a higher rate of perioperative inhaled nitric oxide use. In addition, 67% of patients in the Early group survived to transplantation and 7% to explantation, findings comparable to those in the Late group (60% and 0% respectively).",
"yes. Acute myocarditis evolves from a focal to a disseminated process during the first 2 weeks after onset of symptoms. Contrast media-enhanced MRI visualizes the localization, activity, and extent of inflammation and may serve as a powerful noninvasive diagnostic tool in acute myocarditis.",
"yes. This clinical experience suggests that patients may have comparable outcomes whether implanted early or late after acute MI. These data therefore support the early identification and timely application of this modality in post-MI LVAD candidates, as this strategy may also reveal a subgroup of patients for whom post-MI temporary LVAD insertion may allow for full ventricular recovery.",
"yes. E/e' > 15 obtained 2 weeks after onset is the strongest predictor of cardiac death and readmission for heart failure after a reperfused first ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction. The predictive value of E/e' at 2 weeks is further enhanced by combining this variable with mitral inflow filling pattern.",
"yes. Noninvasive CFR determined < 24 hours after AMI was an independent predictor of LV recovery at 3-month follow-up and of in-hospital adverse cardiac events.",
"Fever is frequently observed in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI); however, its prognostic significance remains to be determined. We sought to determine the prognostic significance of increased body temperature (BT) after AMI. We examined 156 consecutive patients with reperfused first anterior AMI. Axillary BT was serially measured every 6 hours for a week. Patients were divided into quartiles by peak BT from the lowest to highest levels. Peak BT within the first week showed a significant positive correlation with peak C-reactive protein level (P < .0001), but not with peak creatine kinase level. There were positive correlations of peak BT with the incidence of pump failure (P = .022), left ventricular (LV) aneurysm (P = .029), and readmission for heart failure (P = .006). Higher peak BT was associated with greater LV end-diastolic volume (P = .031), greater end-systolic volume (P = .008), and lower LV ejection fraction (P = .014) 2 weeks after AMI. Multiple logistic regression analyses revealed that peak BT quartile was an independent predictor of in-hospital cardiac events (odds ratio = 1.61/quartile, P = .008). Furthermore, peak BT quartile was a significant predictor of readmission for heart failure by Cox proportional hazard model analysis (P = .048).",
"An important number of patients with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy have dramatically improved left ventricular function with optimal treatment; however, little is known about the evolution and long-term outcome of this subgroup, which shows apparent healing. This study assesses whether real healing actually exists in dilated cardiomyopathy. Persistent apparent healing was evaluated among 408 patients with dilated cardiomyopathy receiving tailored medical treatment and followed over the very long-term. Persistent apparent healing was defined as left ventricular ejection fraction ≥50% and indexed left ventricular end-diastolic diameter ≤33 mm/m(2) at both mid-term (19±4 months) and long-term (103±9 months) follow-up. At mid-term, 63 of 408 patients (15%) were apparently healed; 38 (60%; 9%of the whole population) showed persistent apparent healing at long-term evaluation. No predictors of persistent apparent healing were found. Patients with persistent apparent healing showed better heart transplant–free survival at very long-term follow-up (95% versus 71%; P=0.014) compared with nonpersistently normalized patients. Nevertheless, in the very longterm, 37% of this subgroup experienced deterioration of left ventricular systolic function, and 5% died or had heart transplantation.",
"Mechanical circulatory support (MCS) using long-term ventricular assist devices (VADs) is an established therapy in select patients with advanced heart failure. Studies have suggested that outcomes after VAD implantation may be dependent on institutional procedural volume, and outcome data from non-transplant centres are lacking. This study reviews the outcomes of patients who received a long-term VAD at our centre to determine if these devices can be safely implanted at tertiary care, low-volume, non-transplant centres. We conducted a single-centre retrospective cohort study, examining the clinical outcomes of consecutive patients who received a long-term VAD over a 42-month period. During the study period 73 patients required MCS, of whom 16 received a long-term VAD. This select group had a mean Interagency Registry for Mechanically Assisted Circulatory Support (INTERMACS) profile of 1.6 (0.9) and before implantation 94% required at least 1 inotropic medication, 69% had suffered a cardiac arrest, 63% required an intra-aortic balloon pump, 69% required mechanical ventilation, and 44% required short-term MCS. The primary outcome of survival to transplant or ongoing MCS at 1 year was achieved in 75% of patients. Operating room, intensive care unit, and hospital survival were 100%, 88%, and 81%, respectively.",
"yes. The presence of high QRS score is an independent predictor of incomplete ST recovery and 30-day MACE in STEMI treated with primary PCI.",
"The prediction of left ventricular (LV) recovery and adverse cardiac events after reperfused acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is challenging. The aim of this study was to assess the usefulness of noninvasive coronary flow reserve (CFR) to predict LV recovery and in-hospital adverse cardiac events after AMI by comparison with other available tools. Fifty-five consecutive patients (mean age, 59 +/- 13 years; 33% women) with first reperfused ST-elevation anterior AMIs and sustained Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) grade 3 flow underwent prospectively, < 24 hours after successful primary coronary angioplasty, standard echocardiography and noninvasive CFR assessment in the distal part of the left anterior descending coronary artery, using intravenous adenosine infusion, while in a stable hemodynamic situation. CFR was defined as peak hyperemic left anterior descending coronary artery flow velocity divided by baseline flow velocity. LV ejection fraction (LVEF) was measured using the biplane Simpson's rule. A no-reflow pattern was defined as diastolic deceleration time of basal diastolic coronary flow velocity < 600 ms and/or systolic flow reversal and recovery of LV function as an absolute increase of LVEF >or= 10% at 3-month follow-up. Adverse events were defined as the composite of death, recurrent AMI, and acute heart failure. In the whole population, the mean LVEF was 46 +/- 5% at baseline and 55 +/- 9% at follow-up. Patients without LV recovery had more severely impaired CFR compared with those with LV recovery (2.1 +/- 0.55 vs 1.46 +/- 0.2, P < .001), as did patients with adverse events compared with those without events (P = .01). Furthermore, CFR was significantly correlated with 3-month LVEF and regional wall motion score (both P values < .01). On multivariate analysis, CFR was an independent predictor of global and regional LV function at follow-up (both P values <or= .01) and of in-hospital cardiac events (P = .02). Receiver-operating characteristic curve analysis demonstrated that a cutoff value of 1.7 for CFR yielded sensitivity of 76% and specificity of 96% to predict LV recovery at follow-up (P < .01).",
"In acute onset cardiomyopathy, acute myocarditis is an important cause, as it is associated with a greater likelihood of recovery of cardiac function and its presence may direct specific therapies. Myocarditis can be detected by cardiac magnetic resonance imaging (CMR); however its diagnostic utility and relation to prognosis in acute onset cardiomyopathy are unknown. We performed CMR on 61 patients with acute onset cardiomyopathy and a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) <55%. CMR included assessment of myocardial function, relative myocardial oedema, myocardial inflammation (using global relative enhancement [GRE] of the myocardium 4 minutes post Gad-DTPA contrast) and necrosis or fibrosis (with late gadolinium enhancement [LGE]). Patients were followed up at six months to evaluate LVEF, morbidity and mortality. There was a greater improvement in LVEF at follow up in those with myocardial inflammation identified by elevated GRE compared to those without (mean increase 19.2±2.5% vs. 6.7±1.7%, p<0.001). However, the presence of myocardial oedema or LGE alone was not associated with a greater recovery of LVEF (p=NS for both). Myocardial inflammation in patients with a baseline LVEF<35% was also associated with a greater recovery of LVEF (mean increase 21.5±2.9% vs. 9.1±3.0%, p<0.01).",
"The extent of viable myocardial tissue is recognized as a major determinant of recovery of left ventricular (LV) function after myocardial infarction. In the current study, the role of global LV strain assessed with novel automated function imaging (AFI) to predict functional recovery after acute infarction was evaluated. A total of 147 patients (mean age, 61+/-11 years) admitted for acute myocardial infarction were included. All patients underwent 2D echocardiography within 48 hours of admission. Significant relations were observed between baseline AFI global LV strain and peak level of troponin T (r=0.64), peak level of creatine phosphokinase (r=0.62), wall motion score index (r=0.52), and viability index assessed with single-photon emission computed tomography (r=0.79). At 1-year follow-up, LV ejection fraction was reassessed. Patients with absolute improvement in LV ejection fraction > or =5% at 1-year follow-up (n=70; 48%) had a higher (more negative) baseline AFI global LV strain (P<0.0001). Baseline AFI global LV strain was a predictor for change in LV ejection fraction at 1-year follow-up. A cutoff value for baseline AFI global LV strain of -13.7% yielded a sensitivity of 86% and a specificity of 74% to predict LV functional recovery at 1-year follow-up.",
"We investigated whether the extent of residual myocardial viability demonstrated by myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) predicts the degree of left ventricular (LV) remodelling after acute myocardial infarction as assessed by cardiovascular magnetic resonance. Accordingly, 25 patients underwent MCE 5 to 7 days after acute myocardial infarction followed by cardiovascular magnetic resonance assessment of LV end-diastolic volume, LV end-systolic volume, and LV ejection fraction. A contrast perfusion index was calculated within the infarct-related territory. LV end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes were significantly smaller (138 +/- 38 vs 188 +/- 43 mL, P =.008, and 86 +/- 35 vs 119 +/- 49 mL, P =.01, respectively) and LV ejection fraction was significantly higher (52 +/- 5.4 vs 31.5 +/- 3.2%, P> =.02) in patients showing good myocardial viability (contrast perfusion index </= 1.5) compared with those without viability. MCE was the only multivariate predictor of LV volumes and LV ejection fraction at 2 weeks and 6 months.",
"We sought to determine whether myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) performed before and early after primary coronary stenting (PCS) in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) could predict recovery of resting left ventricular systolic function and contractile reserve. Myocardial contrast echocardiography can be used to assess perfusion within the risk area before PCS and the extent of necrosis soon after PCS. In 30 patients with AMI, MCE and two-dimensional echocardiography were performed before PCS and 3 to 5 days and 4 weeks after PCS. Contractile reserve was assessed by dobutamine echocardiography at four weeks in patients with persistent severe wall-motion abnormalities. Of segments without perfusion at 3 to 5 days, 95% had severe hypokinesis to akinesis at 4 weeks. Of segments with normal perfusion at 3 to 5 days, 90% had normal wall motion or mild hypokinesis at 4 weeks, whereas those with partial perfusion at 3 to 5 days were evenly divided between normal wall motion, hypokinesis, and akinesis. In segments with persistent severe wall-motion abnormalities at four weeks, contractile reserve was found in >80% of segments with perfusion, compared with only 10% of segments without detectable perfusion (p < 0.01). The presence of myocardial perfusion by MCE before PCS was associated with maintained or improved perfusion at 3 to 5 days and eventual recovery of resting wall motion.",
"Recovery of ventricular function during left ventricular assist device (LVAD) support allowing device explantation occurs infrequently. We explored the hypothesis that certain patient profiles are more likely to exhibit LV recovery during LVAD support. A retrospective analysis of data from the HeartMate II bridge to transplant (BTT) and destination therapy (DT) trials was conducted, including 490 BTT, 600 DT, and 18 compassionate-use patients. Of the 1,108 patients, 20 (1.8%; 10 BTT, 10 DT) were explanted owing to LV recovery. The median age was 33 years, and 12 patients (60%) were <40 years of age. History of heart failure was <1 year for 11 patients (61%), and the primary etiology was nonischemic (90%). Of the patients with nonischemic etiologies and <1-year history of heart failure, 13% were explanted. Three patients required LVAD reimplantation; of the remaining 17, 16 remain alive. At follow-up (median 510 days), the mean ejection fraction was 42% (20%-67%) and the mean left ventricular end-diastolic diameter was 55 ± 8 mm. At the 2-year follow-up (n = 13), patients were New York Heart Association functional class I or II and overall survival rate was 85 ± 11%.",
"After acute myocardial infarction (MI) coronary microvascular impairment and reduced exercise capacity are both determinant of prognosis. We tested whether non-invasive coronary flow reserve (CFR) performed after MI predicts post-MI exercise capacity (EC). Fifty consecutive patients (pts) (mean age 56.5±11years, 30% women) with a first reperfused ST-elevation anterior MI, and sustained TIMI 3 flow after mechanical reperfusion, underwent prospectively non-invasive CFR in the distal part of the left anterior descending artery (LAD), using intravenous adenosine infusion (0.14mg/kg per minute, within 2min), within 24h after successful primary coronary angioplasty (CFR 1), and 4±1.6months later after a period of convalescence and a cardiac rehabilitation program (CFR 2). CFR was defined as peak hyperaemic LAD flow velocity divided by baseline flow velocity. All pts also underwent semi-supine exercise stress echocardiography (ESE) the same day of CFR 2. ESE was performed at an initial workload of 25-30watts with a 20watts increase at 2-minute intervals. Beta-blockers were withheld 24h before ESE. The mean CFR 2 increased significantly when compared to CFR 1 (2.9±0.65 versus 1.9±0.4, P<0.01). During ESE, percentage of maximal predict heart rate achieved was 82±12%, maximal workload 95±30watts, exercise duration 486±155s, the ratio of double product 3.1±0.8, and EC 5.8±1.1 metabolic equivalents. No ischemia was induced during ESE in all pts, and the degree of mitral regurgitation did not differ significantly between rest and exercise. CFR 2 was significantly correlated to all indices related to EC (all, P<0.01), whereas CFR 1 was correlated to LV systolic function at follow-up (P<0.05) but not to EC. In multivariate analysis including age, sex, and body mass index, CFR 2 remained an independent predictor of EC (P<0.01).",
"Angiographic flow measurements do not define perfusion accurately at a microvascular level, so other techniques which assess flow at a tissue level are to be preferred. To compare intravenous myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) with other methods of assessing microvascular reperfusion for their ability to predict left ventricular function at one month after acute myocardial infarction. 15 patients underwent primary percutaneous coronary angioplasty for acute myocardial infarction, with restoration of TIMI grade 3 flow. Corrected TIMI frame count (cTFC), myocardial blush grade (MBG), and percentage ST segment resolution at 90 and 180 minutes were recorded. Baseline regional wall motion score index (WMSI) and regional contrast score index (RCSI) were obtained 12-24 hours after the procedure, with a final regional WMSI assessment at one month. Mean (SD) cTFC was 27 (9.4), and ST segment resolution was 69 (22)% at 90 minutes and 77 (20)% at 180 minutes. MBG values were 0 in six patients, 2 in two, and 3 in seven. Baseline regional WMSI, RCSI, and follow up WMSI were 2.7 (0.71), 1.5 (0.71), and 1.6 (0.73), respectively. The correlation coefficient between RCSI and follow up WMSI was 0.82 (p = 0.0012). Peak CK correlated with follow up WMSI (R = 0.80). None of the other reperfusion assessment techniques correlated significantly with follow up WMSI. Multiple regression analysis showed that a perfused hypokinetic or akinetic segment was 50 times more likely to recover function than a non-perfused segment. MCE predicted segmental myocardial recovery with a sensitivity of 88%, a specificity of 74%, and positive and negative predictive values of 83% and 81%, respectively.",
"yes. Baseline PGC-1α expression and an attenuated systemic response after acute myocardial infarction are associated with greater myocardial salvage and predict less ventricular remodeling.",
"Pulsatile-flow LVADs and young age were important factors for myocardial recovery in idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy patients in our analysis. Further studies should investigate whether pulsatility in itself or the different degrees of left ventricular unloading by the two types of systems play a role in myocardial recovery.",
"ST-segment recovery (SigmaSTR) and myocardial blush (MB) evaluate different elements of microcirculatory integrity after reperfusion therapy in acute myocardial infarction (AMI). We sought to determine whether the combination of SigmaSTR and MB after primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in AMI has greater prognostic utility than either measure alone. The 30 days and 1 year clinical outcomes of 456 patients were assessed as a function of SigmaSTR and MB after primary PCI from the CADILLAC trial. SigmaSTR and MB were concordant (> or =70% SigmaSTR and MB grade 2/3 or <70% SigmaSTR and MB grade 0/1) in 60.1% of patients and discordant in 39.9% of patients. The greatest survival was observed among patients with complete SigmaSTR (> or =70%) and MB grade 2/3 in whom the cumulative rates of death at 30 days and 1 year were 0.6 and 1.2%, respectively. Poorest survival was observed among patients with incomplete SigmaSTR (<70%) and reduced MB (grade 0/1), in whom 30 days and 1 year rates of death were 8.3 and 10.1%, respectively. Intermediate outcomes were present in patients with discordant MB and SigmaSTR. By multivariable analysis, however, SigmaSTR was an independent correlate of survival at 30 days and 1 year (P=0.05 and 0.01, respectively), whereas MB was no longer predictive (P=0.38 and 0.72, respectively).",
"This study was undertaken to evaluate the ability of predischarge low-dose dobutamine echocardiography to predict late left ventricular functional recovery after thrombolyzed acute myocardial infarction. Low-dose dobutamine echocardiography was performed in 54 patients 4 +/- 2 days after acute myocardial infarction treated with thrombolysis. Follow-up resting echocardiography was carried out in 49 of these patients at a mean of 18 +/- 6 months later. Viability was defined as recovery of myocardial function at follow-up, expressed as an improvement of wall motion of at least 1 grade or more in at least 2 contiguous infarct zone segments. In 24 of the 49 patients (group I), wall motion at follow-up improved in comparison with the early resting echocardiographic study (1.72 +/- 0.29 vs 1.37 +/- 0.34, P <.001). In the remaining 25 patients (group II), no wall motion enhancement was seen at follow-up (1.57 +/- 0.38 vs 1.58 +/- 0.36, NS). In 22 of the 24 patients in group I, early low-dose dobutamine echocardiography showed improvement in the wall motion score index compared with baseline resting measurements (1.72 +/- 0.29 vs 1.44 +/- 0.24, P <.001). The positive and negative predictive value of early low-dose dobutamine echocardiography to predict functional recovery was 76% and 92%, respectively.",
"yes. AFI global LV strain early after acute myocardial infarction reflects myocardial viability and predicts recovery of LV function at 1-year follow-up.",
"yes. The functional restoration seen in MiPSCs was characterized by increased myocardial viability and sustained engraftment without de novo cardiac differentiation, indicating salvage of the injured myocardium.",
"To analyse the predictive role of myocardial inflammation assessed by cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) on the outcome of recently diagnosed dilated cardiomyopathy in children. Over a period of 4 years, 66 children underwent CMR within 2 weeks after the diagnosis of dilated cardiomyopathy. CMR sequences sensitive for oedema, hyperaemia, and irreversible injury were applied: unenhanced cine steady-state free precession (SSFP), black-blood-prepared T1-weighted images, T2-weighted images, gadolinium-enhanced T1-weighted images (EGE), and late gadolinium-enhanced (LGE) images. Inflammatory cardiomyopathy defined as the presence of at least two CMR criteria was diagnosed in 31/66 children (CMR positive) while no criterion was present in the remaining 33 (CMR-negative). Only two patients had one positive criterion and were excluded from subsequent analysis. After a mean follow-up of 24 months, LV function recovery (LV ejection fraction >55%) was more frequent in the CMR-positive group (24 vs. 11, P < 0.05). The presence of myocardial inflammation and elevated troponin levels at baseline were the two predictors of LV function recovery with an odds ratio of 3.76 (P = 0.02) and 2.76 (P = 0.03), respectively, in a logistic regression model. Persisting LGE was rare in patients of the CMR-positive group at control CMR (6/22) and was never observed in the CMR-negative group (0/16).",
"yes. Dobutamine-stressed tissue-tagged magnetic resonance imaging with strain analysis is feasible to quantitatively predict myocardial recoverability after coronary artery bypass grafting. Further study is required to determine the optimal strain parameter for predicting myocardial recoverability after surgical revascularization.",
"Weaning from left ventricular assist devices (LVADs) after myocardial recovery in patients with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy is a clinical option. With the broad application of continuous-flow pumps, we observed a decrease in the numbers of possible LVAD explanations due to myocardial recovery in these particular patients. We investigated this phenomenon and its causes. Between July 1992 and December 2009, 387 patients (age, 0.1 to 82 years) with idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy underwent LVAD implantation at our institution. Patients were divided into two groups depending on whether they were weaned from the LVAD (group A) or not (group B). Univariate and multivariate analyses were performed on 24 different factors with a possible influence on myocardial recovery. In 34 patients, LVAD removal due to myocardial recovery was performed with long-term stable cardiac function (weaning rate, 8.8%). Patients with a pulsatile-flow LVAD had an almost threefold chance for myocardial recovery (odds ratio, 2.719; 95% confidence interval, 1.182 to 6.254) than patients who received continuous-flow devices. Younger patients had significantly higher recovery rates than older patients (odds ratio, 1.036; 95% confidence interval, 1.016 to 1.057).",
"yes. Myocardial inflammation identified by an elevated GRE predicts recovery of LV function in patients with acute onset cardiomyopathy.",
"yes. The incidence of cellular infiltrate in explanted hearts was significantly lower than that previously reported. Potentially, our aggressive myocarditis diagnostic protocol was useful in therapeutic stratification as a cohort of myocarditis patients avoided transplant and experienced complete recovery of myocardial function despite being difficult to distinguish clinically from our DCM transplant cohort at presentation.",
"yes. The presence of myocardial inflammation on CMR at time of diagnosis of a dilated cardiomyopathy in children is a strong predictor of LV recovery.",
"yes. The extent of residual myocardial viability as demonstrated by MCE predicts the degree of LV remodelling after acute myocardial infarction.",
"yes. Despite segmental wall motion recovery, an area of irreversible myocardial damage can sometimes be identified long after ABS. However, in this limited series of patients, the presence of scar, even when presenting with heart failure and a higher troponin release, was not associated with adverse long-term outcomes as compared to patients with intact myocardium.",
"Long-term left ventricular assist devices (LVAD) have been used both as a bridge to heart transplantation and to recovery of native myocardial function. Despite much evidence for reversal of some of the structural and functional changes present in the failing heart during LVAD support, clinical evidence for sustained myocardial recovery is scant. We describe 2 patients in whom myocardial recovery during LVAD support led to device explanation only to have heart failure recur. This necessitated a second LVAD implantation, a process that we have termed recurrent remodeling. The medical records of 2 patients with cardiomyopathy supported with HeartMate LVADs (Thermo Cardiosystems, Inc, Woburn, MA) were retrospectively reviewed. One patient was supported with an LVAD for 2 months, at which time the LVAD was explanted. Progressive deterioration of cardiac function followed, requiring a second LVAD 19 months after LVAD explanation. After 2 months of further LVAD support, a second episode of apparent myocardial recovery was observed during a period of device malfunction. The other patient was supported with an LVAD for 12 months, at which time the LVAD was explanted. The patient experienced progressive hemodynamic deterioration and required a second LVAD 6 months after LVAD explantation. Heart transplantations of both patients were successful.",
"Patients with recent onset non-ischaemic cardiomyopathy have a variable clinical course with respect to recovery of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF). The aim of this study was to understand whether temporal changes in diastolic function (DF) are associated with clinical outcomes independent of LVEF recovery. The Intervention in Myocarditis and Acute Cardiomyopathy (IMAC)-2 study was a prospective, multicentre trial investigating myocardial recovery in subjects with symptoms onset of <6 months and LVEF ≤40% of non-ischaemic dilated cardiomyopathy related to idiopathic cardiomyopathy or myocarditis. LVEF and DF were measured at presentation and at 6-month follow-up. Of 147 patients (mean age 46 ± 14 years, 40% female), baseline LVEF was 23 ± 8%. At 6 months, LVEF improved to 41 ± 12%, with 71% increasing by at least 10% ejection fraction units. DF improved in 58%, was unchanged in 28%, and worsened in 14%. Over a mean follow-up of 1.8 ± 1.2 years, there were 18 events: 11 heart failure (HF) hospitalizations, 3 deaths, and 4 heart transplants. LVEF (HR = 0.94, 95% CI 0.91-0.98, P = 0.002) and DF improvements at 6 months (HR = 0.32, 95% CI 0.11-0.92, P = 0.03) were independently associated with lower likelihood for the combined end point of death, transplantation, and HF hospitalization. Diastolic functional improvement at 6-month follow-up was as prognostically important as LVEF recovery for these patients, and provided incremental prognostic value to the risk stratification (X(2) increased from 12.6 to 18, P = 0.02).",
"There are few data concerning prognostic markers of acute myocarditis. The purpose of this study was to assess the prognostic value of initial measurements of creatine kinase (CK), cardiac troponin I (cTnI) and myoglobin as regards late recovery of the left ventricular ejection fraction on follow-up. A total of 22 patients (53+/-15 years old, 11 female) with acute myocarditis were followed up in a prospective observational study. Of these, 11 (50%) showed a history of acute infection prior to hospitalisation and seven (32%) had pericardial effusion. The median ejection fraction during the acute phase was 47+/-17%; after a mean follow-up of 119+/-163 days it improved to 60+/-9% (P<0.001). Considering maximal CK-rise values of 641+/-961 U/l (P=0.38), cTnI-rise values of 3.7+/-8.6 microg/l (P=0.16) and myoglobin values of 7.4+/-12 nmol/l (P=0.69), there was no correlation between initial cardiac enzyme levels and the initial and late left ventricular ejection fraction.",
"These findings suggest that supporting an ailing heart via unloading initiates mechanisms and pathways responsible for myocardial recovery and repair. With appropriate pharmacological support, patients with LVAD might recover to the point where they no longer depend on eventual organ transplantation, and (beta)AR number, type, and distribution in pre-LVAD myocardial tissue, could predict outcome with regard to recovery, repair, and improvement in cardiac function.",
"We aimed to ascertain whether triggered intravenous myocardial contrast echocardiography (MCE) can predict functional recovery in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and to determine the optimal triggering interval in this setting. Detection of myocardial viability early after AMI has both therapeutic and prognostic implications. Myocardial contrast echocardiography using intracoronary injections of contrast can detect viable myocardium, but there is little data on the use of recently developed intravenous MCE techniques for this purpose. Ninety-six patients with recent AMI (4.8 +/- 1.7 days) underwent echocardiography at baseline and six months later or three months after revascularization to determine regional function (score 1 = normal to 3 = akinetic). Myocardial contrast echocardiography was performed at baseline using intravenous injections of Optison. Triggering intervals of 1:1 (early) and 1:10 (delayed) cardiac cycles were used. Segments were deemed viable if they demonstrated homogeneous contrast opacification. Of 400 akinetic segments at baseline, 109 (27%) improved during the follow-up period, and 375 (94%) were adequately visualized with MCE, of which 59 (16%) were homogeneously opacified by early and 125 (33%) by delayed MCE (negative predictive value for recovery of contractile function 74% and 84%, positive predictive value 29% and 47%, respectively). Independent predictors of functional recovery were delayed MCE (odds ratio [OR]: 4.0, p < 0.001), revascularization (OR: 6.0, p < 0.001), and log creatine kinase (OR: 0.5, p = 0.03). However, the presence or absence of >90% stenosis of the infarct-related artery did not influence the ability of triggered MCE to predict functional recovery.",
"The clinical outcomes of patients with fulminant acute myocarditis (FAM) range from death to complete recovery. We sought to identify clinical, biological, and echocardiographic characteristics of prognostic value for this population. We prospectively included 185 patients with the diagnosis of acute myocarditis who were admitted to our institution between 2000 and 2007, selecting 15 who displayed FAM, namely, severe congestive heart failure or cardiogenic shock, requiring inotropic and/or mechanical circulatory support. Their mean age was 27.9 +/- 12.4 years (range, 12-52) and mean left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was 22 +/- 8.4% (range, 10-35). Seven subjects had poor outcomes, defined as death (n = 4), urgent transplantation (x = 2), or persistent left ventricular dysfunction (n = 3). The other 6 individuals experienced complete recovery of ventricular function. Troponin-I values below 1 ng/mL on admission were significantly associated with greater in-hospital (P = .05) and mid-term poor outcomes (P = .001). Additionally, patients with poor outcomes showed significantly lower LVEF (17.6 +/- 6.2% vs 28.8 +/- 6.9%; P = .006).",
"yes. After acute myocarditis, there is late recovery of left ventricular ejection fraction, which is independent of the initial myocardial damage measured by cardiac enzyme release.",
"Our understanding of myocardial recovery in the setting of hemodynamic unloading with LVAD support has not yet progressed to the point where we are able to accurately predict successful long-term LVAD explantation. The evolution of reliable predictors of sustainable myocardial recovery will help to avoid further cases of recurrent remodeling requiring repeat LVAD implantation.",
"Long-lasting recovery after mechanical support for acute myocarditis remains unpredictable in our experience. More predictive factors are needed.",
"At present, myocardial recovery with mechanical support for acute myocarditis is a more frequently observed issue. However, predictive parameters of a sustained myocardial recovery are still under investigation. Two recent cases of mechanical support for acute lymphocytic myocarditis with two different outcomes are reported. Literature about this disease and predictability of a sustainable myocardial recovery are reviewed. Acute lymphocytic myocarditis is an individual entity whose outcome is associated with the importance of healed cell damage. Unfortunately, there are no available means of quantifying the fibrotic scar and endomyocardial biopsy has a high percentage of false-negative results. Echocardiographic assessment of systolic and diastolic cardiac function is difficult while under mechanical support and its significance is not obvious. Forthcoming development of Doppler could better correlate myocardial contractility and histology to be predictive of a sustained recovery after acute myocarditis under mechanical support."
] | 492 |
Catastrophic hemorrhage on sternal reentry: still a dreaded complication? | [
"To define the incidence of catastrophic hemorrhage (CH) during reoperations, the experience of the University of New Mexico was reviewed and compared with the practice of surgeons contacted by questionnaire. At the University of New Mexico, 610 reoperations were reviewed and 210 deemed high risk because of multiple reoperation, aneurysm, patent grafts, chamber's enlargement, conduit or previous mediastinitis. In the questionnaire, we asked about reentry technique, occurrence and outcome of CH, and precautions for high-risk patients. At the University of New Mexico there were 4 CH with 1 death, and in the questionnaire there were 2,046 CH with 392 deaths. Our rate per surgeon was lower than that of the questionnaire. Rate of CH according to the saw was 2.09 for reciprocating, 2.0 for sagittal, and 1.74 for stryker in the questionnaire. Our rate was lower (0.65) with a micro sagittal saw. High-risk category predicted CH during sternotomy (p = 0.01) but only conduit (p = 0.005) was significant by univariate analysis.",
"The risk of CH could be as high as 1%. The sagittal micro oscillating saw is the safest reported to date. Presence of a conduit increases the risk by 2.5 fold."
] | [
"yes. Patients requiring re-exploration for bleeding are at higher risk of adverse outcomes and this risk is increased if time to re-exploration is prolonged for 12h or longer.",
"Self-expandable metallic stents (SEMSs) are widely used for palliation of malignant gastric outlet obstruction (GOO). A common complication of their use, however, is stent obstruction caused by tumor ingrowth or hyperplasia. The covered SEMS was designed to prevent these problems. We compared the performance of uncovered and covered SEMSs in patients with GOO. A retrospective study, single center. A tertiary-referral center. Sixty patients with symptomatic malignant GOO. All patients received an uncovered or covered knitted nitinol stent by using the over-the-wire placement procedure. Comparison of the clinical outcome, complications, and the reintervention rate between uncovered and covered stents. Thirty-one patients (mean [+/-SEM] age 72.2 +/- 2.1 years; 16 men) received uncovered SEMSs, and 29 (mean [+/-SEM] age 70.6 +/- 1.7 years; 17 men) received covered SEMSs. The technical success rate was 100% in both groups. No difference in clinical success was seen (90.3% uncovered group vs 86.2% covered group). Regarding early complications (<1 week), one mild case of pancreatitis from the stent covering the papilla occurred in each group. Late complications included reobstruction, migration, bleeding, stent fracture, and perforation. The occurrence of reobstruction did not differ between the 2 groups (3.2% uncovered group vs 10.3% covered group). No difference in migration (0% uncovered group vs 6.9% covered group) was seen. The uncovered group required less frequent reinterventions for stent reobstruction, migration, or stent fracture (3.2% uncovered group vs 20.7% covered group, P = .0490). The uncovered group had 2 major late complications: bleeding and perforation. All 60 patients died, with a median survival time of 51 days and 62 days, respectively.",
"In Japan, the original Sugiura procedure reported favorable results in non-cirrhotic patients but in the West, the modified Sugiura procedure is not widely accepted because of high rebleeding, morbidity, and mortality in cirrhotics. We retrospectively analyzed the efficacy of our modified Sugiura procedure i.e., devascularization with/without esophageal transection combined with salvage endotherapy and pharmacotherapy for control of a variceal bleed. Between January 1999 and December 2004, 912 patients with variceal bleeding were treated. Of these, 66 (7.2%) patients were subjected to surgery after failed endotherapy/propranolol. Among these 66 patients, 52 had transabdominal devascularization (16 emergency, 36 elective); 14 patients underwent devascularization with esophageal stapler transection (group I), and 38 patients had devascularization without esophageal stapler transection (group II). Another 14 patients underwent elective end-to-side proximal splenorenal shunt surgery. Postoperative mortality was 7.1% in group I, 10.5% in group II (P>0.05). Mortality for emergency surgery was 31.2% (5/16) but there were no deaths in the elective surgery group. Overall morbidity was 57.1% in group I and 21.0% in group II (P<0.05). The rates of variceal rebleeding were 7.1% and 7.8%; residual varices were 30.7% and 32.3%; recurrent varices were 7.6% and 5.8% following the group I and group II procedures, respectively, over a mean follow-up period of 39.9 (7-2) months. Esophageal transection-related morbidity (leak, stricture, and bleeding) was 21.4% (3/14) in group I.",
"CIP, despite it's benign nature due to it's spontaneous remission in patients who survive, is a disturbing complication following cardiac surgery which is associated with high mortality, a prolonged stay in the ICU, as well as an extended time on ventilator support. Interventions like chronic hemodiafiltration, the application of corticosteroids and the administration of high doses of catecholamines are more frequent in patients with CIP. Whether this indicates a causal relationship remains to be elucidated.",
"As drug-eluting stent (DES) has almost overcome the disadvantage of frequent restenosis, off-pump coronary artery bypass grafting (OPCAB) has been introduced to avoid complications of cardiopulmonary bypass. However, which approach may promise better outcomes for patients with coronary artery disease remains controversial. Three databases were searched. The outcomes of interest were major adverse cardiac and cerebrovascular events (MACCE), all-cause death, target vessel revascularization (TVR), repeat revascularization (RRV), myocardial infarction (MI), and cerebrovascular events (CVE). The relative risk (RR) was calculated as the summary statistic. 11,452 patients from 22 studies were included, of which 4949 patients underwent OPCAB and 6503 patients received DES. The cumulative rates of MACCE (RR [95% CI]=0.43 [0.34, 0.54], P<0.00001), all-cause death (RR [95% CI]=0.56 [0.33, 0.96], P=0.03), TVR (RR [95% CI]=0.33 [0.21, 0.53], P<0.00001), RRV (RR [95% CI]=0.22 [0.11, 0.42], P<0.00001) and MI (RR [95% CI]=0.13 [0.05, 0.29], P<0.00001) at 3 years were all lower in OPCAB group. The incidences of in-hospital death (RR [95% CI]=1.31 [0.81, 2.13], P=0.27) and MI (RR [95% CI]=1.03 [0.60, 1.78], P=0.92) were not different between groups, but the rate of in-hospital CVE was lower (RR [95% CI]=2.6355 [1.0033, 6.9228], P=0.05) in DES group.",
"yes. Postoperative blood loss was not reduced in the present study. However, the use of the CorX system leads to a significant suppression of activation of coagulation and fibrinolytic cascades compared to conventional CPB, suggesting that miniaturized extracorporeal circuits are a step forward toward reduced imbalance of hemostasis in cardiac surgery.",
"no. The Pioneer sternal cabling system appears to facilitate early extubation after adult cardiac surgery, but it does not reduce the rate of deep sternal infectionAustralian New Zealand Clinical Trials Registry: ANZCTR-ACTRN12615000973516.",
"The use of arteriotomy closure devices (CDs) to achieve hemostasis after femoral artery access in percutaneous coronary intervention is steadily increasing. However, the safety information with these devices in the era of triple antiplatelet therapy is limited. We reviewed prospectively collected data from the Do Tirofiban and ReoPro Give Similar Efficacy Outcomes Trial (TARGET), where all patients received aspirin, clopidogrel, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor therapy. At the treating physician's discretion, manual compression (MC) or a vascular hemostasis device was selected following femoral angiography. Patients receiving MC were to have sheaths removed 2 to 6 hours postprocedure when the activated clotting time was < or = 175 seconds. Of 4809 patients, 4736 had femoral access, and 985 of these had a CD (Perclose 47%, Angio-Seal 43%, VasoSeal 5%, and other 5%). The MC and CD groups were similar regarding most demographic characteristics, including age, systolic blood pressure, and weight, but those with MC were more often female, diabetic, and had history of peripheral vascular disease. Patients with a CD had a lower ischemic event rate suggesting they were a lower risk cohort overall. There were no differences in major bleeding at the access site (0.4% vs 0.5%, P =.588), minor bleeding at the access site (1.9% vs. 3.1%, P =.142) or transfusions (0.8% vs 1.0%, P =.513) between the MC and CD groups, respectively.",
"yes. Pacemaker and ICD implantation or replacement in patients taking antiplatelet agents are associated with an increase of the hemorrhagic risk.",
"We sought to investigate the benefit, predictors of procedural success, and safety of pre-procedural intra-coronary fibrin-specific lytic infusion (ICL) in patients with failed prior percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for chronic total occlusions (CTO). Percutaneous coronary intervention for CTO remains a challenge with a high incidence of procedural failure secondary to inability to cross the occlusion with the guidewire. Eighty-five patients who underwent unsuccessful PCI procedures of CTO (more than three months' duration) had a repeat attempt of recanalization with the use of pre-procedural ICL. Patients received a weight-adjusted dose of either alteplase (tPA) (2 to 5 mg/h) or tenecteplase (TNK) (0.5 mg/h) for a total of 8 h. The total dose of ICL therapy was infused split between the guiding catheter and an intracoronary infusion catheter. A step-down multivariate logistic regression analysis was completed to determine the best predictors of procedural success. In-hospital major adverse cardiac events (MACE) including myocardial infarction, acute reocclusion, stroke, and death, as well as bleeding complications, were also examined. The procedure was successful in 46 of 85 cases (54%). Four of 85 (5%) contained dissections that did not result in perforations, tamponade, or MACE. The incidence of groin complications was 7 of 85 (8%) and of bleeding complications requiring transfusions was 3 of 85 (3.5%). On multivariate analysis, predictors of success were tapering morphology (odds ratio, 15.5; 95% confidence interval, 3.73 to 63; p = 0.0002) and lack of bridging collaterals (odds ratio, 5.08; 95% confidence interval, 1.53 to 17; p = 0.008).",
"This study sought to investigate the ischemic and bleeding outcomes of patients fulfilling high bleeding risk (HBR) criteria who were randomized to zotarolimus-eluting Endeavor Sprint stent (E-ZES) or bare-metal stent (BMS) implantation followed by an abbreviated dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) duration for stable or unstable coronary artery disease. DES instead of BMS use remains controversial in HBR patients, in whom long-term DAPT poses safety concerns. The ZEUS (Zotarolimus-Eluting Endeavor Sprint Stent in Uncertain DES Candidates) is a multinational, randomized single-blinded trial that randomized among others, in a stratified manner, 828 patients fulfilling pre-defined clinical or biochemical HBR criteria-including advanced age, indication to oral anticoagulants or other pro-hemorrhagic medications, history of bleeding and known anemia-to receive E-ZES or BMS followed by a protocol-mandated 30-day DAPT regimen. The primary endpoint of the study was the 12-month major adverse cardiovascular event rate, consisting of death, myocardial infarction, or target vessel revascularization. Compared with patients without, those with 1 or more HBR criteria had worse outcomes, owing to higher ischemic and bleeding risks. Among HBR patients, major adverse cardiovascular events occurred in 22.6% of the E-ZES and 29% of the BMS patients (hazard ratio: 0.75; 95% confidence interval: 0.57 to 0.98; p = 0.033), driven by lower myocardial infarction (3.5% vs. 10.4%; p<0.001) and target vessel revascularization (5.9% vs. 11.4%; p = 0.005) rates in the E-ZES arm. The composite of definite or probable stent thrombosis was significantly reduced in E-ZES recipients, whereas bleeding events did not differ between stent groups.",
"no. Local application of autologous PRP in cardiac surgery patients with full sternotomy at high risk for sternal complications did not reduce the incidence of DSWI.",
"This study was designed to evaluate the outcome of stent placement (SP) for conduit discrete stenosis using predefined criteria. Right ventricle (RV) to pulmonary artery (PA) conduits are often associated with complications, such as stenosis, requiring multiple surgical replacements. Patients who underwent primary or repeat SP were included. Indications for SP were clinical symptoms and/or RV to systolic blood pressure (SBP) ratio (RV:SBP)>0.65 by echocardiography. Our definition of success was a decrease in RV:SBP by>20%, a final RV:SBP ratio of<0.65, or resolution of symptoms. Stents were placed successfully in 28 of 31 patients (90%), including 3 patients who underwent the procedure solely for symptoms. The RV:SBP ratio decreased (0.75 +/- 0.17 vs. 0.52 +/- 0.12, p<0.001), and the conduit diameter increased (postero-anterior 9.1 +/- 2.9 vs. 12.0 +/- 2.8 mm, lateral 8.3 +/- 2.2 vs. 11.6 +/- 2.4 mm, p<0.001). In the 28 patients with successful SP, 8 (29%) remained free from second intervention. In the remaining patients, the median time to re-intervention was 16 months (range 6 to 44 months). Second transcatheter interventions (4 SP, 4 balloon dilation) were successful in 8 of 13 patients. Complications included balloon rupture (n = 4), stent fracture (n = 2), and pseudoaneurysm formation (n = 1).",
"To determine whether the antiplatelet agent aspirin increases hemorrhagic risk in patients undergoing surgical resection of cutaneous head and neck lesions. Retrospective cohort study. Regional referral center. Patients All cases of cutaneous head and neck lesions surgically resected during a 10-year period were included. Outcome measures were incidence of significant postoperative hemorrhage, defined as postoperative hematoma or hemorrhage necessitating surgical reexploration; and total postoperative hemorrhage, defined as any hemorrhage lasting longer than 4 hours despite external pressure, requiring medical review, and resulting in prolongation of the patient's hospital stay or readmission to the hospital. Seven hundred eleven patients (974 cases) were eligible for inclusion, of whom 320 were receiving aspirin therapy at the time of surgery. The incidence of significant postoperative hemorrhage in the aspirin and nonaspirin groups was 5 (1.6%) and 0, respectively (P = .004), and aspirin use was the only risk factor for significant postoperative hemorrhage. The incidence of total postoperative hemorrhage in the aspirin and nonaspirin groups was 7 (2.2%) and 1 (0.1%), respectively (P = .002). At multivariate analysis, aspirin use and local flap reconstruction were independent risk factors for total postoperative hemorrhage. Cases receiving aspirin therapy who also underwent local flap reconstruction were at exponential (124-fold) increased risk of total postoperative hemorrhage compared with cases with neither risk factor.",
"The use of polyester suture for sternal closure in adult patients results in increased wound infection, wound pain, and late wound complications, but lower mediastinal drain output.",
"yes. Although suprachoroidal hemorrhage is one of most feared and devastating complications ofintraocular surgery, it might have relatively good prognosis with proper preoperative, intraoperative and postoperative management",
"Mediastinitis after cardiac surgical procedures remains a devastating complication. Primary closure without irrigation-suction system should only be considered in selected patients.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the impact of transfusion of blood products on intermediate outcome after coronary artery bypass surgery. Complete data on perioperative blood transfusion in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery were available from 2001 patients who were operated at our institution. Transfusion of any blood product (relative risk = 1.678, 95% confidence interval = 1.087-2.590) was an independent predictor of all-cause mortality. The additive effect of each blood product on all-cause mortality (relative risk = 1.401, 95% confidence interval = 1.203-1.630) and cardiac mortality (relative risk = 1.553, 95% confidence interval = 1.273-1.895) was evident when the sum of each blood product was included in the regression models. However, when single blood products were included in the regression model, transfusion of fresh frozen plasma/Octaplas® was the only blood product associated with increased risk of all-cause mortality (relative risk = 1.692, 95% confidence interval = 1.222-2.344) and cardiac mortality (relative risk = 2.125, 95% confidence interval = 1.414-3.194). The effect of blood product transfusion was particularly evident during the first three postoperative months. Since follow-up was truncated at 3 months, transfusion of any blood product was a significant predictor of all-cause mortality (relative risk = 2.998, 95% confidence interval = 1.053-0.537). Analysis of patients who survived or had at least 3 months of potential follow-up showed that transfusion of any blood product was not associated with a significantly increased risk of intermediate all-cause mortality (relative risk = 1.430, 95% confidence interval = 0.880-2.323).",
"Delayed sternal closure is regularly used in the immediate management of hemodynamic instability after neonatal cardiac procedures. The aim of this study was to assess whether the routine, elective use of delayed sternal closure would reduce morbidity in neonates undergoing arterial switch for transposition of the great arteries. A retrospective statistical analysis was performed on 52 neonates operated on from 1991 to 1998. Until 1994, chest closure was routinely attempted in all patients after arterial switch; the policy was then changed to delayed sternal closure in all cases in the latter half of the study period. Delayed sternal closure did not significantly alter the mean duration of ventilation (2.7 +/- 2.37 versus 2.7 +/- 1.3 days) nor intensive care stay (4.1 +/- 2.8 versus 5.7 +/- 10.0 days; p = 0.46). There was no increase in the incidence of wound sepsis (7.7% versus 3.8%; p = 0.55), and mortality was unchanged (7.7% in both groups). There was an increase in the incidence of urgent reexploration (7.7% versus 19.2%; p = 0.22), which did not reach significance.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that use of bone wax may be associated with increased postoperative sternal dehiscence after cardiac surgery. Thus liberal use of bone wax should be restricted.",
"Deep sternal wound infection is a devastating complication of cardiac surgery. In the current era of increasing patient comorbidity, newer techniques must be evaluated in attempts to reduce the rates of deep sternal wound infection. A randomized controlled trial comparing sternal closure with traditional sternal wires in figure-8 formation with the Pioneer cabling system® from Medigroup after adult cardiac surgery was performed. A total of 273 patients were enrolled with 137 and 135 patients randomized to sternal wires and cables group, respectively. Baseline characteristics between the two groups were well balanced. Deep sternal wound infection occurred in 0.7% of patients in the wires group and 3.7% of patients in the cables group (absolute risk difference = -3.0%, 95% confidence interval: -7.7 to 0.9%; P = 0.12). Patients in the cables group were extubated slightly earlier than those in the sternal wires group postoperatively (9.7 vs 12.8 h; P = 0.03). There was, however, no significant difference in hospital and follow-up pain scores or analgesia requirements.",
"Recent European guidelines for the management of atrial fibrillation recommend oral anticoagulation (OAC) in patients with CHA(2)DS(2)-VASc score (congestive heart failure, hypertension, age ≥75 years, diabetes, history of previous stroke, vascular disease, age 65-74 years, and sex category [female]) ≥1. The HAS-BLED score (Hypertension, Abnormal renal/liver function, Stroke, Bleeding history or predisposition, Labile international normalized ratio, Elderly [>65 years], Drugs/alcohol concomitantly) has been suggested to assess bleeding risk in patients with atrial fibrillation (score ≥3 indicates high risk of bleeding). Despite the guidelines, this approach has never been tested in a cohort of patients with atrial fibrillation undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention with stent implantation. We studied 590 consecutive patients with atrial fibrillation undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention/stenting and CHA(2)DS(2)-VASC score>1 (ie, OAC recommended). We compared patients with low-intermediate bleeding risk (HAS-BLED 0-2) and high risk (HAS-BLED ≥3), the relation between CHA(2)DS(2)-VASC and HAS-BLED, and the benefit and risks of the use of OAC in patients with high bleeding risk. The development of any bleeding episode, thromboembolism, mortality, cardiac events, and the composite major adverse cardiac events (ie, death, acute myocardial infarction, and/or target lesion revascularization) end point was recorded as well as the composite major adverse events (ie, major adverse cardiac events, major bleeding, or thromboembolism) end point at 1-year follow-up. Of the study cohort, 420 (71%) had a HAS-BLED score ≥3, and patients who were on OAC at discharge had lower mortality rate (9.3% versus 20.1%; P<0.01) and major adverse cardiac events (13.0% versus 26.4%; P<0.01) but with a similar major adverse event (20.5% versus 27.6%; P=0.11) and higher major bleeding rate (11.8% versus 4.0%; P<0.01). In a Cox multivariable analysis in patients with HAS-BLED ≥3, predictors of increased death were chronic renal failure and heart failure (both P<0.05), whereas OAC at discharge was associated with a reduced death rate (P<0.01). Predictors of major bleeding were chronic renal failure and the use of drug-eluting stents (both P<0.05).",
"Anemia is one of the most common complications of coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and has been shown to be associated with increased morbidity and mortality. The impact of anemia on hospital readmission after CABG, a potential measure of delayed complications, has not been addressed. We conducted a single-center retrospective study of 2102 patients who had CABG in Ontario to determine whether anemia at hospital discharge was associated with increased 30-day hospital readmissions, readmission secondary to cardiac disease, and 30-day mortality using administrative data. Of the 2102 patients, 224 patients (11%) were readmitted within 30 days of hospital discharge. Infection was the leading cause of readmissions (24%), followed by heart failure (13%), pulmonary disease (7%), and hemorrhagic disease (7%). Overall, 2.6% of patients were readmitted because of cardiac disease. Of patients discharged, 48% were discharged with a hemoglobin (Hb) level between 8 and 10 g/dL and 42% between 10 and 12 g/dL. Predischarge Hb concentration was not a significant independent predictor of 30-day readmission to the hospital due to all causes, readmission to the hospital due to cardiac causes, or 30-day mortality. A higher comorbidity score, adjusted odds ratio (OR) of 2.1 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.3-3.6), leg and sternal wound infections OR of 1.9 (95% CI, 1.2-3.0), and postoperative renal failure OR of 1.4 (95% CI, 1.2-2.0) were associated with increased 30-day readmission rates.",
"The CRUSADE bleeding risk score (CBRS) accurately predicts major bleeding in non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction NSTEMI patients. However, little information exists about its application in ST segment elevation myocardial infarction STEMI. We aimed to assess the ability of CBRS to predict in-hospital major bleeding in STEMI patients undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PPCI). We prospectively analyzed consecutive STEMI patients undergoing PPCI. Baseline characteristics, in-hospital complications and mid term mortality were recorded. Major bleeding was defined by the CRUSADE definition. Predictive ability of the CBRS was assessed by logistic regression method and the area under the ROC curve (AUC). We included 1064 patients (mean age 63years). Mean CBRS value was 24. Most of patients (740/1064 (69.6%)) were in the two lowest risk quintiles of CBRS. Incidence of in-hospital major bleeding was 33/1064 (3.1%). The rates of in-hospital bleeding across the quintiles of risk groups were 0.4% (very low risk), 2.6% (low), 4.6% (moderate), 7.2% (high), and 13.4% (very high) (p 0.001). AUC was 0.80 (95% CI 0.73-0.87 p 0.001). In patients with radial access angiography (n=621) AUC was 0.81 (95% CI: 0.65-0.97). Mean follow up was 344days. Patients with bleeding events had higher mortality during follow up (HR 6.91; 95% CI 3.72-12.82; p 0.001).",
"Treatment options for coronary chronic total occlusions (CTO) are limited, with low historical success rates from percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). We report procedural outcomes of CTO PCI from 7 centres with dedicated CTO operators trained in hybrid approaches comprising antegrade/retrograde wire escalation (AWE/RWE) and dissection re-entry (ADR/RDR) techniques. Clinical and procedural data were collected from consecutive unselected patients with CTO between 2012 and 2014. Lesion complexity was graded by the Multicentre CTO Registry of Japan (J-CTO) score, with ≥2 defined as complex. Success was defined as thrombolysis in myocardial infarction 3 flow with <30% residual stenosis, subclassified as at first attempt or overall. Inhospital complications and 30-day major adverse cardiovascular events (MACEs, death/myocardial infarction/unplanned target vessel revascularisation) were recorded. 1156 patients were included. Despite high complexity (mean J-CTO score 2.5±1.3), success rates were 79% (first attempt) and 90% (overall) with 30-day MACE of 1.6%. AWE was highly effective in less complex lesions (J-CTO ≤1 94% success vs 79% in J-CTO score ≥2). ADR/RDR was used more commonly in complex lesions (J-CTO≤1 15% vs J-CTO ≥2 56%). Need for multiple approaches during each attempt increased with lesion complexity (17% J-CTO ≤1 vs 48% J-CTO ≥2). Lesion modification ('investment procedures') at the end of unsuccessful first attempts increased the chance of subsequent success (96% vs 71%).",
"According to the EuroSCORE-II criteria, patients undergoing emergency coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) are operated on before the beginning of the next working day after decision to operate while salvage CABG patients require cardiopulmonary resuscitation en route to the operating theatre. The objective of this multicentre study was to investigate the efficacy of emergency and salvage CABG. A retrospective analysis of all patients that underwent emergency or salvage CAGB at four North-European university hospitals from 2006 to 2014. A total of 614 patients; 580 emergency and 34 salvage CABG patients (mean age 67 ± 10 years, 56% males) were included. All patients had an acute coronary syndrome: 234 (38%) had an ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and 289 (47%) had a non-STEMI. Haemodynamic instability requiring inotropic drugs and/or intra-aortic balloon pump preoperatively occurred in 87 (14%) and 82 (13%) of the patients, respectively. Three hundred and thirty-one patient (54%) were transferred to the operating room immediately after angiography and 205 (33%) had a failure of an attempted percutaneous coronary intervention. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation within 1 h before the operation was performed in 49 patients (8%), and 9 patients (1%) received cardiac massage during sternotomy. Hospital mortality for emergency and salvage operations was 13 and 41%, respectively. Early complications included reoperation for bleeding (15%), postoperative stroke (6%) and de novo dialysis for acute kidney injury (6%). Overall 5-year survival rate was 79% for emergency operations and 46% for salvage operations. Only one out of 9 patients receiving cardiac massage during sternotomy survived.",
"Increasingly the trans-radial route (TRR) is preferred over the trans-femoral route (TFR) for PCI. However, even in high volume default TRR centers a cohort of patients undergo TFR PCI. We examined the demographics, procedural characteristics, and outcomes of patients undergoing PCI via the TF. The patient demographics, procedural data, and outcomes of 5,379 consecutive patients undergoing PCI at a default radial center between 2009 and 2012 were examined. Major bleeding (MB) was classified by ACUITY and BARC definitions. A total of 559 (10.4%) patients underwent PCI via the TFR and 4,820 patients via the TRR (89.6%). Baseline variables associated with TFR were shock, previous CABG, chronic total occlusion intervention, rotablation/laser use, female sex, and renal failure. Sixty-five patients of the TFR cohort (11.6%) experienced MB with 27 (41.5%) being access site related. MB was significantly more frequent than in the radial cohort. The variables independently associated with MB in the TFR cohort were renal failure, acute presentation, shock, and age. In the TFR, patients with MB mortality was high at 30 days (17.2% vs 2.6% for no MB, P < 0.0001) and at 1 year (37.6% vs 5.0%, P < 0.0001). Shock and MB were highly predictive of 30 day and 12 month mortality.",
"Concern for major bleeding complications (MBC) may lead to withholding of anticoagulation and fibrinolytic therapy in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), potentially resulting in unacceptable delays in achieving reperfusion. The primary objective of this study was to evaluate MBC associated with primary and rescue PCI and how timing to revascularization affects this variable. We evaluated 659 consecutive patients presenting within 24 hours of an acute ST elevation myocardial infarctions (MI). One hundred and eighty-three patients presented for rescue PCI and 476 for primary PCI. Eighty-seven rescue PCI patients were treated within 6 hours of their first dose of fibrinolytic. Demographics, procedural variables, outcomes, and major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) were compared between the primary and rescue PCI groups and between early and late presenters in the rescue PCI group. We observed that the incidence of MBC was 8% in patients undergoing rescue PCI and 6% in primary PCI (P=0.35). There were no significant differences in bleeding associated with GP IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist use, procedural success, or MACE. Similarly, in patients presenting for early or late rescue PCI there was no significant difference in MBC, procedural success, or MACE.",
"Superselective mesenteric embolization is effective in arresting colonic diverticular hemorrhage with minimal complications, but long-term results are lacking. We aimed to review the short- and long-term outcome of superselective embolization in arresting colonic diverticular hemorrhage in an Asian population. A retrospective review of all patients who underwent superselective embolization for bleeding colonic diverticula from December 2000 to March 2009 was performed. These cases were drawn from a database of embolization for active gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Short-term outcomes (<or =30 days from procedure) identified included rebleeding, ischemia, or any further intervention for any of these two complications. Readmission for rebleeding and/or definitive surgery after 30 days (long-term outcome) was also documented. Twenty-three patients, median age 65 years (range 41-79 years), formed the study group. Nineteen (82.6%) patients had active hemorrhage from right colonic diverticula while four (17.4%) had left-sided diverticular bleeding. Technical success was achieved in all 23 (100%) patients. SHORT- Five (21.7%) patients rebled within the same admission, and all underwent surgery. One patient perished from ensuing anastomotic dehiscence and septic shock and accounted for the only mortality (4.3%) in our series. There was no patient with ischemic complications. Another two (8.7%) patients underwent elective surgical resection on the advice of their surgeons in the absence of rebleeding. LONG- The median follow-up was 40 months (5-99 months). Of the remaining 16 (69.6%) patients for whom the procedure was definitive initially, four (25.0%) rebled within 2 years from the primary procedure, and elective surgery was performed in one of them. Another had repeat embolization, while the other two were successfully managed conservatively. These three patients refused surgical intervention. One patient was lost to follow-up, and the remaining 11 patients had no further complications.",
"We wished to assess the profile and outcomes of patients with ventricular septal rupture (VSR) in the setting of cardiogenic shock (CS) complicating acute myocardial infarction (MI). Cardiogenic shock is often seen with VSR complicating acute MI. Despite surgical therapy, mortality in such patients is high. We analyzed 939 patients enrolled in the SHOCK Trial Registry of CS in acute infarction, comparing 55 patients whose shock was associated with VSR with 884 patients who had predominant left ventricular failure. Rupture occurred a median 16 h after infarction. Patients with VSR tended to be older (p = 0.053), were more often female (p = 0.002) and less often had previous infarction (p<0.001), diabetes mellitus (p = 0.015) or smoking history (p = 0.033). They also underwent right-heart catheterization, intra-aortic balloon pumping and bypass surgery significantly more often. Although patients with rupture had less severe coronary disease, their in-hospital mortality was higher (87% vs. 61%, p<0.001). Surgical repair was performed in 31 patients with rupture (21 had concomitant bypass surgery); 6 (19%) survived. Of the 24 patients managed medically, only 1 survived.",
"We compared the efficacy of drug-eluting stents (DESs) versus bare-metal stents (BMSs) in de novo and native aorto-ostial lesions (AOLs) guided by intravascular ultrasound (IVUS). Thirty-eight patients underwent DES implantation for 38 AOLs; 35 with sirolimus-eluting stents, and three with paclitaxel-eluting stents (DES group). The control group was composed of 40 AOLs treated by BMS. The incidence of the primary composite end point of all-cause mortality, Q-wave myocardial infarction and target vessel revascularization (TVR) as TVR-major adverse cardiac event (TVR-MACE) was evaluated during a 1-year follow-up. Clinical and IVUS parameters were compared between the DES and BMS groups, and Cox hazards model was used to calculate hazard ratios of several factors for the 1-year TVR-MACE. Although the vessel, plaque, and stent volumes were significantly larger after the procedures in the DES group owing to longer lesions (18.3 ± 5.1 vs. 13.2 ± 5.9 mm, P<.001), the stent volume index (10.8 ± 2.6 vs. 12.4 ± 3.3, P=.024) was much smaller than that in the BMS group. During the 1-year follow-up, there were 13 TVR-MACEs in all patients (13% in DES vs. 20% in BMS, P=.4 by Kaplan-Meier analysis). The Cox hazards model did not indicate any specific unfavorable factor for the 1-year TVR-MACE.",
"The advanced trauma life support guidelines suggest that, in primary care, the chest tube should be placed posteriorly along the inside of the chest wall. A chest tube located in the posterior pleural cavity is of use in monitoring the volume of hemothoraces. However, posterior chest tubes have a tendency to act as nonfunctional drains for the evacuation of pneumothoraces, and additional chest tube may be required. Thus, it is not always necessary to insert chest tubes posteriorly. The purpose of this study was to determine whether posterior chest tubes are unnecessary in trauma care. We reviewed the volume of hemothoraces from 78 chest drains emergently placed posteriorly at a primary trauma care in 75 blunt chest trauma patients who were consecutively admitted over a 6-year period, excluding those with cardiopulmonary arrest and occult pneumothoraces. Massive acute hemothorax (MAH), in which the chest tube should be inserted posteriorly, was defined as the evacuation of more than 500 mL of blood or the need for hemostatic intervention within 24 hours of trauma admission. Demographics, interventions, and outcomes were analyzed. We also reviewed the malpositioning of 74 chest tubes based on anterior and posterior insertion directions in patients who subsequently underwent computed tomography. The overall incidence of MAH was 23% (n = 18). In the univariate analysis, the presence of multiple rib fractures, shock, pulmonary opacities on chest x-ray, and the need for intubation were found to be independent predictors for the development of MAH. If all 4 independent predictors were absent, none of the patients developed MAH. The incidence of nonfunctional chest drains that required reinsertion or the addition of a new drainage was 27% (n = 20). The rates of both radiologic and functional malposition in chest tubes with posterior insertion were significantly higher than in patients with anterior insertion (64% and 43% vs 13% and 6%, respectively; P<.01).",
"During percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) performed in the emergent setting of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), uncertainty about patients' ability to comply with 12 months dual antiplatelet therapy after drug-eluting stenting is common, and thus, selective bare-metal stent (BMS) deployment could be an attractive strategy if this achieved low target vessel revascularization (TVR) rates in large infarct-related arteries (IRAs) (≥3.5 mm). To evaluate this hypothesis, among 1,282 patients with STEMI who underwent PCI during their initial hospitalization, we studied 1,059 patients (83%) who received BMS, of whom 512 (48%) had large IRAs ≥3.5 mm in diameter, 333 (31%) had IRAs 3 to 3.49 mm, and 214 (20%) had IRAs <3 mm. At 1 year, TVR rate in patients with BMS was 5.8% (2.2% with large BMS [≥3.5 mm], 9.2% with BMS 3-3.49 mm [intermediate], and 9.0% with BMS <3.0 mm [small], P < .001). The rates of death/reinfarction among patients with large BMS compared with intermediate BMS or small BMS were lower (6.6% vs 11.7% vs 9.0%, P = .042). Among patients who received BMS, the independent predictors of TVR at 1 year were the following: vessel diameter <3.5 mm (odds ratio [OR] 4.39 [95% CI 2.24-8.60], P < .001), proximal left anterior descending coronary artery lesions (OR 1.89 [95% CI 1.08-3.31], P = .027), hypertension (OR 2.01 [95% CI 1.17-3.438], P = .011), and prior PCI (OR 3.46 [95% CI 1.21-9.85], P = .02). The predictors of death/myocardial infarction at 1 year were pre-PCI cardiogenic shock (OR 8.16 [95% CI 4.16-16.01], P < .001), age ≥65 years (OR 2.63 [95% CI 1.58-4.39], P < .001), left anterior descending coronary artery culprit lesions (OR 1.95 [95% CI 1.19-3.21], P = .008), female gender (OR 1.93 [95% CI 1.12-3.32], P = .019), and American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association lesion classes B2 and C (OR 2.17 [95% CI 1.10-4.27], P = .026).",
"Despite significant advances in stent technology and pharmacotherapy, drug-eluting stent thrombosis (DES-ST) remains a major complication of percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and commonly presents as ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). There are currently little data comparing the in-hospital outcomes of patients presenting with STEMI due to DES-ST with those due to de novo coronary artery disease (CAD). Our study comprised 985 consecutive patients who underwent primary PCI for STEMI, 102 of whom were diagnosed as having a definite DES-ST. The primary end-point was the in-hospital composite of death or recurrent myocardial infarction (MI). The secondary end-point was the in-hospital maximum rise in creatine kinase (myocardial band [MB] fraction) and troponin I. The DES-ST group had a higher proportion of patients with diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, history of ischemic heart disease, coronary revascularization, and chronic renal impairment. The adjusted primary end-point was higher in the DES-ST cohort (12.7% vs. 7.4%; P = 0.05). The 2 cohorts did not differ in the secondary end-point. The independent predictors of the primary end-point were age (hazard ratio [HR]= 1.04; 95% confidence interval [CI]= 1.01 - 1.06; P = 0.005), cardiogenic shock (HR = 11.5; 95% CI = 6.38 - 20.07, P<0.001), and lesions involving the left anterior descending coronary artery (HR = 1.8; 95% CI = 1.03 - 3.13, P = 0.04). DES-ST was not an independent predictor of the primary end-point (HR = 1.18; 95% CI = 0.53-2.63, P = 0.38).",
"We conducted a retrospective study of short-term outcomes in 5955 patients receiving SITA and 637 patients receiving BITA grafts between 1990 and 2004. Only patients undergoing elective primary isolated coronary artery surgery were included. The primary outcome was a composite end-point (early death, perioperative MI, reoperation for sternal wound complications or significantly prolonged hospital stay). Patients receiving BITA grafts were case-matched with patients receiving SITA grafts for confounding factors and comparison was made between perioperative outcomes in the two groups. After case-matching, no statistically significant difference was found in the incidence of our primary endpoint between patients receiving BITA versus SITA grafts [odds ratio 0.84 (95% CI 0.59, 1.21)]. Furthermore, there was no difference in rates of reoperation for sternal wound complications between the two groups [odds ratio 1.00 (95% CI 0.29, 3.44)].",
"To determine the complication rate during the catheterization in adults with congenital heart disease (CHD) in a pediatric catheterization laboratory (PCL). An increasing number of patients with CHD are surviving into adulthood, with diagnostic and interventional cardiac catheterization being essential for the management of their disease. The complication rate during the catheterization of adults with CHD has not been reported. A retrospective chart review was performed on all adult patients (>18 years) with CHD who underwent diagnostic or interventional catheterization in our PCL within the past 8.5 years. A total of 576 procedures were performed on 436 adult patients (median age 26 years). Complex heart disease was present in 387/576 (67%) procedures. An isolated atrial septal defect or patent foramen ovale was present in 115/576 (20%) procedures, and 51/576 (9%) procedures were performed on patients with structurally normal hearts with arrhythmias. Interventional catheterization was performed in 378/576 (66%) procedures. There were complications during 61/576 (10.6%) procedures; 19 were considered major and 42 minor. Major complications were death (1), ventricular fibrillation (1), hypotension requiring inotropes (7), atrial flutter (3), retroperitoneal hematoma, pneumothorax, hemothorax, aortic dissection, renal failure, myocardial ischemia and stent malposition (1 each). The most common minor complications were vascular entry site hematomas and hypotension not requiring inotropes. Procedures performed on patients>or = 45 years of age had a 19% occurrence of complications overall compared with 9% occurrence rate in patients of age<45 years (P<0.01).",
"Freedom from anticoagulation is the principal advantage of bioprosthesis; however, the American Heart Association/American College of Cardiology and the American College of Chest Physicians guidelines recommend early anticoagulation with heparin, followed by warfarin for 3 months after bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement. We examined neurologic events within 90 days of bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement at our institution. Between 1993 and 2000, 1151 patients underwent bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement with (641) or without (510) associated coronary artery bypass. By surgeon preference, 624 had early postoperative anticoagulation (AC+) and 527 did not (AC-). In the AC- group, 410 patients (78%) received antiplatelet therapy. Groups were similar with respect to gender (female, 36% AC+ vs 40% AC-, P = .21), hypertension (64% AC+ vs 61%, P = .27), and prior stroke (7.6% AC+ vs 8.5% AC-, P = .54). The AC+ group was slightly younger than the AC- group (median, 76 years vs 78 years, P = .006). Operative mortality was 4.1% with 43 (3.7%) cerebrovascular events within 90 days. Excluding 18 deficits apparent upon emergence from anesthesia, we found that postoperative cerebrovascular accident occurred in 2.4% of AC+ and 1.9% AC- patients. By multivariable analysis, the only predictor of operative mortality was hypertension ( P<.0001). Postoperative cerebrovascular accident was unrelated to warfarin use ( P = .32). The incidence of mediastinal bleeding requiring reexploration was similar (5.0% vs 7.4%), as were other bleeding complications in the first 90 days (1.1% vs 0.8%). No variables were predictive of bleeding by multivariate analysis.",
"To compare the early outcome in patients who underwent off-pump single-vessel revascularization of the left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) using two different approaches of minimally invasive direct coronary artery bypass grafting (MIDCAB): left anterior small thoracotomy (LAST) and lower ministernotomy. A retrospective analysis of the medical records on length of the skin incision, total operation time, duration of mechanical ventilation, blood transfusion rate, ICU stay, postoperative wound pain, and morbidities. Thirty-two patients who underwent MIDCAB with the left internal thoracic artery to the LAD for single-vessel disease were studied. LAST was performed in 16 patients, and ministernotomy was performed in 16 patients. For the ministernotomy approach, the lower half of the sternum was split without transverse division, which we called the lower-end sternal splitting (LESS) approach. Postoperative pain was evaluated using a face-rating scale (scale, 1 to 6). There were no significant differences between the two groups in length of the skin incision, duration of mechanical ventilation, and ICU stay. Total operation time was shorter in the LESS group than in the LAST group (p<0.05). No patients received a blood transfusion in either group. Atrial fibrillation developed in one patient in the LAST group and two patients in the LESS group. Early graft potency was 94% in the LAST group and 100% in the LESS group (p = 0.48). In the LAST group, subcutaneous emphysema developed in three patients and superficial wound dehiscence developed in two patients, but these complications were not observed in the LESS group (p<0.05). Postoperative pain was significantly higher in the LAST group up to postoperative day 7 (p<0.05).",
"Vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) is a commonly used therapy for the treatment of post-sternotomy mediastinitis. Primary closure of the sternum with high vacuum suction using Redon drains is an alternative that may reduce hospital stay. The aim of this study was to describe for the first time, the results of VAC compared with Redon drainage. We performed a retrospective analysis of 132 patients undergoing VAC (n = 89) or primary closure of the sternum with Redon drains (n = 43) as treatment for post-sternotomy mediastinitis between January 2000 and January 2011. Patient characteristics, risk factors and procedure-related variables were analysed. Duration of therapy, treatment failure, hospital stay and mortality as well as C-reactive protein and blood leucocyte counts on admission and at various time intervals during hospital stay were determined. In-hospital mortality was 12.5% in the VAC group compared with 14% in the Redon group (P = 0.96). Treatment failure in the VAC and Redon groups occurred in 28 and 23% of the patients, respectively (P = 0.68). Intensive-care stay in the VAC group was 6.8 ± 14.4 days, and 4.8 ± 10.1 days in the Redon group (P = 0.99). Hospitalization in the VAC group was 74 ± 61 days and in the Redon group, 45 ± 38 days (P = 0.0001).",
"The purpose of this study was to assess the incidence, predictors, and presentation of target vessel failure (TVF) after primary stenting for ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (MI) as opposed to elective stenting. A total of 8237 consecutive patients undergoing urgent or elective percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) were enrolled in our database and followed for a median of 1234 days (interquartile range 782-1688 days). Any acute ischemic event attributed to the obstruction of the stented vessel was considered as TVF. Stent thrombosis was classified according to the Academic Research Consortium, whereas restenosis and new culprit lesion were defined as obstructions within or outside stent boundaries, respectively. Unstable clinical presentation required urgent hospital admission or caused unexplained sudden death. Multivariable analyses were performed with Cox proportional hazards regression models. TVF occurred in 4.2% of our population. A measurable proportion of patients had to be re-admitted to hospital: 1.6% because of stent thrombosis, 1.5% because of restenosis, and 0.3% because of new culprit lesion. Ten (0.1%) patients were found victims of sudden death. De-novo lesions showed less TVF [hazard ratio (HR) 0.22, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.16-0.30, P < 0.0001]. Primary PCI was associated with increased risk of TVF (HR 1.83, 95% CI 1.43-2.36, P < 0.0001), stent thrombosis (HR 2.59, 95% CI 1.80-3.72, P < 0.0001), and MI (HR 2.16, 95% CI 1.61-2.91, P < 0.0001). The events appeared earlier after primary PCI with more than 50% within the first month; after the first year, further occurrences were similar in both groups. Finally, the use of everolimus-eluting stents suggested the best safety profile.",
"yes. Both the incidence of life-threatening complications and survival after placement of self-expanding metal stents for oesophagogastric carcinoma are not affected by prior RTCT, but retrosternal pain occurs more frequently in patients who had previously undergone RTCT.",
"The role of minimally invasive aortic valve replacement in cardiac reoperations has not yet been defined. The purpose of this study is to report our experience with this technique. Nineteen consecutive patients underwent aortic valve replacement via J-sternotomy as a reoperative cardiac procedure between 1999 and 2005. The mean age was 73.6 +/- 11.4 years. Previous cardiac operations included 12 (63.2 %) coronary artery bypass graftings, 6 (31.5 %) aortic valve replacements and 1 (5.2 %) mitral valve replacement. Mean follow-up was 23.6 +/- 19.7 months. The medical records were retrospectively analyzed. All procedures were successful. Mean aortic cross-clamping time and cardiopulmonary bypass time were 87.4 +/- 32.7 and 133.1 +/- 54.4 minutes, respectively. Cannulation sites were: ascending aorta (52.6 %), femoral artery (47.4 %), femoral vein (94.8 %) and right atrium (5.2 %). Myocardial protection was obtained by selective coronary osteal cold crystalloid cardioplegia and systemic cooling (mean 26.2 +/- 4 degrees C). Average intubation time was 1.5 +/- 1.4 days. Mean intensive care unit stay and postoperative hospital stay was 2.9 +/- 2.6 and 12.9 +/- 5.7 days, respectively. Median chest tube output was 550 ml. There were 4 revisions for bleeding. There were 2 late deaths and one non-incision related hospital death (5 %). This patient, who was already being treated for chronic dialysis, died on day 22 due to a cerebrovascular accident.",
"In aortic surgery requiring hypothermic circulatory arrest (HCA), retrospective studies identify age and duration of the arrest period as predictors of stroke and mortality. Retrograde cerebral perfusion (RCP) has been reported to reduce the risk of stroke when compared with historical controls. The aim of this study was to ascertain if RCP affected mortality, stroke, or the risk factors for these end points in a consecutive series of HCA patients. We investigated the impact of RCP in 130 patients, mean age 62.7 years (range 20-84); 78 were men and 35% were emergencies. Overall mortality was 16.9% (elective 9.5%) and the incidence of stroke was 6.9%. Mean HCA time was 30.1 min (95% confidence interval [CI] 27.9-34). RCP was instituted in 96 cases for a mean of 24.4 min (95% CI 21.9-27.0). Perioperative univariate predictors of mortality were emergency status, acute rupture, long HCA and cardiopulmonary bypass duration, and postoperative complications. For stroke, age (p = 0.007), hypertension (p = 0.05), and long HCA duration (p = 0.01) were predictive. RCP did not decrease mortality (p = 0.18, OR 0.55) or incidence of stroke (p = 0.57, OR 1.26). Mortality after stroke was 44.4% (p = 0.04, OR 4.6). Multiple logistic regression showed severe aortic atherosclerosis and RCP duration (p = 0.038) as risk factors for mortality, and myocardial ischemic time (p = 0.012) and HCA duration (p = 0.05) as risk factors for stroke. HCA and RCP groups differed in HCA duration (HCA mean 25 min [10-80], RCP mean 32 min [10-69]; p<0.019).",
"yes. Postoperative hemorrhage (drainage loss) exceeding 200 mL/h in 1 hour or 2 mL/kg for 2 consecutive hours occurring within 6 hours after cardiac surgery is associated with higher 30-day mortality and other postoperative complications. Further research is needed to validate these results.",
"Many studies failed to show that off-pump myocardial revascularization achieved better results than on-pump revascularization, and also invited a lot of criticism for the criteria used for selection and inclusion of patients. To avoid these limitations, we systematically treated all candidates for coronary surgery with this technique evaluating early and follow-up results. In 257 prospective consecutive patients, off-pump myocardial revascularization was performed by the same surgeon without any exclusion criteria. Hospital mortality and main postoperative complications were analysed. After a mean follow-up of 27.50 months, 245 patients (98.4%) were contacted to evaluate late mortality, recurrence of angina, myocardial infarction and need for new revascularization. Conversion to extracorporeal circulation was necessary in 10 cases. Hospital mortality was eight patients (3.11%). Postoperative complications were reexploration for bleeding (2.72%), myocardial infarction (1.17%), atrial fibrillation (21.01%), stroke (0.39%) and renal failure (3.5%). Follow-up overall mortality was 16 patients (6.53%) with two cardiac-related deaths (0.82%). Total cardiac events at follow-up occurred in 20 patients (8.16%). There were two cardiac deaths, angina in 15 cases, silent myocardial ischaemia in two and myocardial infarction in one. New revascularization procedures were necessary in seven cases (2.86%). Statistical results showed that the European System for Cardiac Operative Risk Evaluation rate was predictor of 30-day and overall mortality. Multivariate analysis showed that age was a predictor of overall mortality whereas female sex was a predictor of cardiac events.",
"The purpose of this study was to investigate if the preoperative use of new platelet inhibitors and low-molecular-weight heparins may contribute to bleeding after cardiac surgery. Retrospective data review. University teaching hospital. One hundred eleven patients divided in 5 groups. Patients were grouped according to preoperative antithrombotic regimen: group 1, control, no agents (n=55); group 2, clopidogrel (n=9); group 3, enoxaparin (n=17); group 4, any GP IIb/IIIa inhibitor (n=14); and group 5, any drug combination (n=15). Data included cumulative mediastinal chest tube drainage, allogeneic blood transfusions, total blood donor exposures, and re-exploration. Use of any drug (groups 2-5) resulted in greater total blood transfusions and donor exposure (p=0.0003) than control, especially red cells (p=0.002) and platelets (p=0.006). A greater percentage of patients on enoxaparin required mediastinal re-exploration for nonsurgical bleeding versus control (3/17 v 0/55, p=0.001). The use of enoxaparin was associated with significantly higher chest tube output after the first 24 hours postoperatively (p=0.048).",
"To assess the impact of HA on robotic PN (RPN) outcomes. We retrospectively analyzed data from patients who underwent RPN in eight centers between 2009 and 2013. Hemorrhagic complications were defined as the occurrence of a pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous fistula or hematoma requiring transfusion. Patients were first divided into two groups: group A (use of at least one HA) and group B (no HA used), and then into five groups to assess the impact of each HA: group 1 (no HA), group 2 (Floseal(®) only), group 3 (Surgicel(®) only), group 4 (Tachosil(®) only) and group 5 (Surgicel(®) + Floseal(®)). The impact of HA was evaluated by univariate and multivariate analysis. Out of 515 RPN, 315 (61 %) were done using at least one HA (group A) and 200 (39 %) were done without any HA (group B). Patients in both groups had similar hemorrhagic complication rates (13 % vs. 15 %, p = 0.42) and postoperative complication rates (19 % vs. 23 %, p = 0.32). In multivariate analysis, the absence of HA was not a risk factor for hemorrhagic complications (OR 0.77, p = 0.54). When each type of HA was considered individually, none was associated with the occurrence of hemorrhagic complication either in univariate or in multivariate analysis.",
"Adhesions encountered in reoperative cardiac surgery can prolong operating time and increase risk. This study was designed to evaluate the ability of a novel bioresorbable barrier film to reduce adhesions in infants. A comparative, evaluator-masked, randomized, multicenter study design was used. Before chest closure, infants undergoing initial sternotomy for eventual staged palliative cardiac operations were randomized to barrier film placement (n = 54) or control (no treatment, n = 49) at 15 centers. At repeat sternotomy 2 to 13 months later, the extent and severity of adhesions at the investigational surgical site (ISS) were assessed. A four-grade adhesion severity scoring system was standardized as follows: none, mild (filmy, noncohesive, requiring blunt dissection), moderate (filmy, noncohesive, requiring sharp and blunt dissection), and severe (dense, cohesive, requiring extensive sharp dissection). There were significantly fewer patients with any severe adhesions (29.6% vs 71.4%, p < 0.0001), and a significantly lower percentage of the ISS had severe adhesion involvement (21.1 +/- 36.9% vs 49.5 +/- 42.7%, p = 0.0005) in the barrier group compared with the control group at the second sternotomy. Delayed chest closure (p = 0.0101), Norwood procedure (p = 0.0449), and cardiopulmonary bypass (p = 0.0001) were univariate risk factors for more severe adhesions. Multivariate analysis revealed only control group to be a significant risk factor for more severe adhesions (p = 0.003). There were no statistically significant differences in adverse events between the groups. No adverse events were definitely attributed to the study device.",
"The number of patients with extreme obesity requiring cardiac surgery is increasing. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the perioperative outcome, complication rate and 30-day mortality of these patients. Data of 13 139 patients (9584 males, 3555 females) undergoing cardiac surgery from 1/94 to 12/04 were analyzed. We compared 2251 obese patients with a BMI of 30 to 50 (mean age 64.3 years; group A) with 10 888 non-obese patients (mean age 66.1 years; group B). The incidence of diabetes mellitus was 34.5 % in group A, and 24.2 % in group B. Isolated CABG was performed in 1771 patients from group A (3.4 grafts/pt.) and in 8066 patients from group B (3.2 grafts/pt.). Concomitant procedures were performed in 460 patients (group A) vs. 2645 (group B). Frequency of bilateral internal thoracic artery grafting was 49.4 % (group A) vs. 44.9 % (group B). There were no significant differences between the two groups with regard to the duration of surgery (180 vs. 171 min), the number of reoperations for bleeding (4.7 % vs. 5.0 %), ventilation times, length of stay in the intensive care unit (2.6 vs. 2.4 days) or 30-day mortality (2.0 % vs. 2.8 %). The incidence of diabetes and occurrence of sternal dehiscence was higher in group A (1.6 % vs. 0.7 %; P<0.01). Sternal complications were strongly associated with diabetes and the combined use of bilateral ITA grafts but not with isolated obesity. The incidence of sternal dehiscence was associated with the male gender (group A 1.9 % vs. 0.7 %; group B 0.9 % vs. 0.3 %).",
"PTC and stenting procedures are associated with significant risks including life-threatening haemorrhage, sepsis, renal failure and high mortality rates. PTC tract closure methods are utilised to reduce haemorrhagic complications despite little evidence to support their use. The current study assesses the incidence of haemorrhagic complications following PTC and stenting procedures, both prior to and following the introduction of a dedicated expanding gelatin foam-targeted embolisation liver tract closure technique. Haemorrhagic complications were retrospectively identified in patients undergoing PTC procedures both prior to (subgroup 1) and following (subgroup 2) the introduction of a dedicated targeted liver tract closure method between 9/11/2010 and 10/08/2012 in a single tertiary referral centre. Mean blood Hb decrease following PTC was established in subgroups 1 and 2. Kaplan-Meier life-table analysis was performed to compare survival outcomes between subgroups using the log-rank test. Haemorrhagic complications were significantly reduced following the introduction of the targeted PTC tract closure method [(12 vs. 3 % of subgroups 1 (n = 101) and 2 (n = 92), respectively (p = 0.027)]. Mean blood Hb decrease following PTC was 1.40 versus 0.68 g/dL in subgroups 1 and 2, respectively (p = 0.069). 30-day mortality was 14 and 12 % in subgroups 1 and 2, respectively. 50 % of the entire cohort had died by 174 days post-PTC.",
"Total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA) results in superior clinical outcomes to hemiarthroplasty (HA); however, TSA is a more technical and invasive procedure. This study retrospectively compares perioperative complications after HA and TSA using the National Surgical Quality Improvement Program (NSQIP) database. The NSQIP user file was queried for HA and TSA cases from the years 2005 through 2010. Major complications were defined as life-threatening or debilitating. All complications occurred within 30 days of the initial procedure. We performed multivariate analysis to compare complication rates between the two procedures, controlling for patient comorbidities. The database returned 1,718 patients (HA in 30.4% [n = 523] and TSA in 69.6% [n = 1,195]). The major complication rates in the HA group (5.2%, n = 29) and TSA group (5.1%, n = 61) were similar (P = .706). Rates of blood transfusions for postoperative bleeding in patients undergoing HA (2.3%, n = 12) and TSA (2.9%, n = 35) were indistinguishable (P = .458). Venous thromboembolism was a rare complication, occurring in 0.4% of patients in each group (2 HA patients and 5 TSA patients, P > .999). On multivariate analysis, the operative procedure was not associated with major complications (P = .349); however, emergency case, pulmonary comorbidity, anemia with a hematocrit level lower than 36%, and wound class of III or IV increased the risk of a major complication (P < .05 for all).",
"yes. Bleeding and hemorrhagic complications and the consequent need for allogeneic transfusion are still major problems after off-pump coronary artery bypass surgery. Tranexamic acid appears to be effective in reducing postoperative bleeding and the need for allogeneic blood products.",
"Among several other factors, in coronary surgery the results depend on the quality and durability of the grafts. Revascularization employing arterial conduits, namely the radial artery, has been playing a growing role, with the aim of replacing the autologous saphenous vein. The benefits and risks of this strategy is still a matter of controversy. The goal of the present study was the evaluation of the incidence of early complications related to the use of radial artery in the revascularization surgery of the myocardium. A series of consecutive patients who underwent coronary revascularization surgery in the CHVNGaia using radial artery, from January 2000 to December 2001, was retrospectively analyzed. Data were obtained through the revision of the clinical charts and hospital database. The major end-point assessed was the 30-day or intra hospital postoperative death; furthermore, acute myocardial infarction, stroke, renal failure, prolonged ventilation and reoperations for acute graft occlusion, bleeding and mediastistinitis were also evaluated. During that period of time, 656 patients underwent coronary revascularization surgery, but the radial artery was used in only 230 (35%). Mean age was 60.2+/- 9.1 years and 42 (18.3%) were female. Two hundred and four patients (88.6%) were operated on under extracorporeal circulation. The average number of grafts was 2.6+/- 0.6 per patient. Mean duration of orotraqueal intubation was 2.4 +/- 6 hours. Thirty patients (14,3 %) developed atrial fibrillation and ten (4.3%) had postoperative bleeding. Perioperative myocardial infarction occurred in five cases (2.2%). Two patients (0.8%) underwent reoperation for mediastinitis and one patient (0.4%) was reoperated on for acute occlusion of the graft. The overall postoperative mortality was 1.3% (3 patients).",
"While bleeding in patients with STEMI undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention (pPCI) is known to be associated with poor outcomes, the differential prognostic impact of access-site related versus non access-site related bleedings is unknown. We aimed to assess the relative impact of access-site related bleeding, as compared to non access-site related, on 12-month clinical outcome in patients undergoing intervention for STEMI. Thirty-day bleeding endpoints, stratified into access-site versus non access-site, were examined according to the TIMI scale in 744 patients with STEMI enrolled in the MULTISTRATEGY trial. TIMI major or minor bleeding complications occurred in 56 (7.5%) patients within 30 days, 46% had an access-site related bleed and 34% required blood transfusion. Bleeding severity and the need for transfusion were equally distributed between site access- versus non-site access-related bleeds. After adjustment, patients with any TIMI rated bleed were more likely to die or develop recurrent MI within 12 months (HR 2.1 [95% CI: 1.13-3.8]; p=0.02). This ratio was entirely driven by non-site access-related bleeds (adjusted HR: 2.66 [95% CI: 1.21-5.8]; p=0.007), whereas site-access bleeds were not associated with worse outcomes (HR: 0.74 [95% CI: 0.16-3.4]; p=0.70).",
"Hypothermic circulatory arrest (HCA) has been used as an adjunct to cardiopulmonary bypass for decades, both electively and emergently, to facilitate a bloodless operative field while maintaining cerebral protection. The aim of this study is to determine the impact of HCA during heart transplantation on posttransplant outcomes. All adult patients undergoing orthotopic heart transplantation at our institution between 2000 and 2012 were retrospectively reviewed. Patients were stratified based on need for HCA during surgery; patients who required HCA (HCA group, n = 25), and patients who did not (no-HCA group, n = 903). The primary outcomes of interest were 30-day and 1-year mortality and postoperative complication rate. Indications for HCA included control of significant hemorrhage (n = 9), need for distal aortic procedures (n = 9), or as an aid in difficult mediastinal dissection (n = 7). Mean duration of HCA was 22 ± 18 minutes at a mean temperature of 24.5° ± 5.5°C. Significantly more patients in the HCA group underwent transplant for congenital heart disease (16.0% HCA versus 2.8% no-HCA, p = 0.006), and patients in the HCA group had undergone more prior sternotomies (HCA 1 [interquartile range: 1 to 2] versus no-HCA 1 [interquartile range: 0 to 1], p < 0.001]. There was no statistical difference in 30-day mortality (8.0% HCA versus 4.2% no-HCA, p = 0.29) or 1-year mortality (8.0% HCA versus 12.3% no-HCA, p = 0.76). The HCA group had higher rates of reoperation for mediastinal bleeding and postoperative respiratory failure.",
"We aimed to identify the impact of re-exploration for bleeding after coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) and the effect of time delay, re-exploration within 12h (<12h) versus 12h or later (>or=12h). Analyses of prospective clinical data on 3220 consecutive patients who underwent CABG between 2003 and 2005 were performed. Pearson chi(2) tests, Fisher's exact tests, Student's t-tests, Mann-Whitney U tests, or univariate logistic regression analysis were used to assess the effects of pre-operative and operative characteristics on re-exploration, and the effects of re-exploration and time delay on adverse outcomes. Predictors of re-exploration and its effect on adverse outcomes were further evaluated using multiple logistic regression analysis. One hundred ninety-one patients (5.9%) underwent re-exploration for bleeding. Re-explored patients as a group in comparison to the non-re-explored group had increased postoperative blood loss, transfusion requirements, duration of mechanical ventilation, ICU stay, intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) and haemofiltration support, and mortality (all p<0.001). One hundred fifty-seven (82%) of the 191 patients were re-explored <12h. The group of patients who were re-explored <12h in comparison to >or=12h group had shorter ICU stay (median 3 vs 8.5 days; p<0.001), less IABP support (22.3 vs 44.1%; p=0.009) and a lower mortality (7 vs 29.4%; p=0.001). There was no significant difference in blood loss or transfusion requirements between the two groups. The predicted EuroSCORE risks of the <12h group was 6.66% and the observed mortality was 7% (p=0.865). The observed mortality of 29.4% in the >or=12h group was significantly higher than the predicted EuroSCORE risks of 7.59% (p<0.001).",
"no. This study does not support the hypothesis that elective delayed sternal closure reduces the morbidity after arterial switch in neonates but does, however, confirm the safety and efficacy of the procedure.",
"In April 2006 we started the single centre prospective non-randomised Ruptured Aneurysm Study (RASA). During a four year enrolment period all consecutive patients presenting with infrarenal ruptured AAA (rAAA, N.=117) were assessed for preferential rEVAR treatment. A rAAA was defined as extravasation of blood or hematoma outside the AAA due to transmural tear in the infrarenal abdominal aorta wall documented by preoperative computed tomography (CT) angiography examination or during open repair. Patients with challenging anatomy (infrarenal neck length below 15 mm and neck angulation above 60 degrees) were included as part of a damage control concept. Complication and mortality rates were studied at 30 days and yearly afterwards. Thirty-five patients (33% of all admitted rAAA) were treated with rEVAR and 42% of them were considered hemodynamically unstable (systolic blood pressure<100 mmHg) and 30% had challenging AAA anatomy. The mortality rate at 30 days in the rEVAR group was 17%, in the open repair group 31%, and in the entire rAAA group (including abstained patients) 36%. During the first 30 days, 18 rEVAR patients experienced complications with nine re-interventions as a result. Long-term mortality of the rEVAR patients was 34% after a median follow-up of 3.4 years. All deaths after one year follow-up were non-AAA related. Multivariate analysis shows that Hardman index, presence of peripheral arterial obstructive disease and lowest systolic blood pressure during surgery are independently associated with long-term survival. Challenging rAAA anatomy was not associated with impaired survival.",
"To investigate the clinical relevance of specific volume criteria for hemorrhage in a patient population undergoing cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB). A retrospective analysis; postoperative hemorrhage was defined by a fixed set of criteria ≥200 mL/h in any 1 hour or part thereof, or (2) ≥2 mL/kg/h for 2 consecutive hours in the first 6 hours after surgery. Classification and regression tree (CART) analysis were used to validate the results of the specific volume criteria. Multivariate regression analysis was applied to investigate the association of specific volume criteria for hemorrhage with clinical outcomes. A university hospital. All adult cardiac surgery patients undergoing surgery with CPB at the authors' center in 2006. None. A total of 1,188 patients underwent cardiac surgery, and 76 patients (6.4%) experienced postoperative hemorrhage according to the fixed criteria for blood loss. Blood loss as measured by these criteria was associated with a higher 30-day mortality (odds ratio [OR] = 2.9, p < 0.001), incidence of stroke (OR = 3.3, p = 0.0033), re-exploration (OR = 103.655, p < 0.0001), intensive care unit stay >72 hours (OR = 1.3, p < 0.0001), and mechanical ventilation >24 hours (OR = 3.4, p = 0.0002). The clinical relevance of these criteria is supported by CART analysis.",
"While bleeds of any TIMI severity within 30 days were independently associated with worse cardiovascular outcomes at 12 months, thus confirming previous analyses, this relationship was entirely driven in our study by non access-site related haemorrhagic events. Investigation on whether the site of bleeding complications may preferentially impact cardiovascular outcomes is warranted.",
"Many of the factors thought to be associated with the need for delaying the sternal closure had no statistical significance as risk factors. On the other hand, the diagnosis of IAA or TAPVD, an age less than 7 days, aortic clamping more than 98 min, CPB time more than 185 min and a post-bypass central venous saturation less than 51% were statistically significant risk factors that could be used in predicting the need for delaying the sternal closure.",
"Intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) is a rare and devastating complication of carotid revascularization. We sought to determine the prevalence of, type of, and risk factors associated with ICH among recipients of carotid endarterectomy (CEA) and carotid angioplasty and stenting (CAS) within the National Inpatient Sample (NIS). Postoperative cases of ICH after CEA (International Classification of Disease 9th edition [ICD-9]: 38.12) or CAS (ICD-9: 00.63) were retrieved from the 2001 to 2008 NIS. Clinical presentation (asymptomatic versus symptomatic), discharge status, in-hospital mortality, demographics, and hospital characteristics were extracted from NIS data. Charlson indices of comorbidity were determined based on ICD-9 and clinical classification software codes. Multivariate regression was used to determine the impact of revascularization procedure type and symptom status on adverse outcomes, including ICH, in-hospital mortality, and unfavorable discharge status. Among 57,663,486 NIS hospital admissions, 215,012 CEA and 13,884 CAS procedures were performed. Symptomatic presentations represented the minority of CEA (N=10,049; 5%) and CAS cases (N=1251; 10%). ICH occurred significantly more frequently after CAS than CEA in both symptomatic (4.4% versus 0.8%; P<0.0001) and asymptomatic presentations (0.5% versus 0.06%; P<0.0001). Multivariate regression suggested that symptomatic presentations (versus asymptomatic) and CAS procedures (versus CEA) were both independently predictive of 6-fold to 7-fold increases in the frequency of postoperative ICH. ICH was independently predictive in a 30-fold increased risk of mortality before discharge.",
"Pericardial closure may reduce the risk of myocardial injury during sternotomy for repeat coronary artery bypass grafting by preventing right ventricular adhesions. However, adverse hemodynamic effects in the early postoperative period may preclude pericardial closure in patients with impaired ventricular function.",
"no. Although excellent coronary perfusion pressure renders a return of spontaneous circulation more likely, complications such as acute respiratory injury in the post-resuscitation phase have to be managed carefully in order to ensure good neurological recovery from cardiac arrest.",
"Expandable stents offer excellent palliation of malignant dysphagia and digestive-respiratory fistula. There are insufficient data regarding factors that may affect the complication rate of expandable stents, but an association between previous treatment with chemotherapy and/or radiation therapy and stent-related life-threatening complications has been suggested. We retrospectively analyzed our data on 60 patients; in all of them, a coated Wallstent had been successfully placed for malignant dysphagia and/or digestive-respiratory fistula. Our objective in this study was to determine the overall complication rate as well as whether previous or ongoing chemoradiation therapy increased the rate of life-threatening complications. Among 21 patients with no previous chemotherapy or radiation therapy, two (9.5%) had life-threatening complications (both had bleeding tumors; blood transfusions were required in two and endoscopic hemostasis in one). Among 39 patients who had had either radiation therapy, chemotherapy, or both, life-threatening complications occurred in three (8%). Two of the three had gastrointestinal bleeding (two received blood transfusions, and one had external radiation therapy), and in the third, an esophageal tear was treated with the stent. There was no procedure- or stent-related mortality in either group.",
"Sternal dehiscence is a rare, but serious complication after cardiac surgery procedures when performed through mid-line sternotomy. Osteoporosis, especially at advanced age, may be a significant factor in the unfavorable results of sternum fixation. The present prospective, randomized study was carried out to evaluate whether the reinforced sternal-closure system is an effective and safe fixation and approximation of the sternum in cardiac procedures, and to compare with the conventional sternal-closure method in elderly patients. Forty elderly patients underwent various cardiac procedures via mid-line sternotomy under cardiopulmonary bypass. Patients were randomized into two groups: group I (n = 20) closed with the reinforced sternal-closure system, and group II (n = 20) with standard stainless steel wires. The mean age of patients in group I was 70.5 years, and group II with 70.4 years. Superficial wound infection appeared in only one case of stapler group and in two cases of control group. Deep wound infections or dehiscence was not detected in the patients of both groups. There were no significant differences in the patient's age, drainage, pain index, time of removal of the drains, and postoperative hospital stay between the groups (p > 0.05).",
"This study sought to investigate the influence of access site utilization on mortality, major adverse cardiac and cardiovascular events (MACCE), bleeding, and vascular complications in a large number of patients treated by primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PPCI) in the United Kingdom over a 5-year period, through analysis of the British Cardiovascular Intervention Society database. Despite advances in antithrombotic and antiplatelet therapy, bleeding complications remain an important cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with acute ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) undergoing PPCI. A significant proportion of such bleeding complications are related to the access site, and adoption of radial access may reduce these complications. These benefits have not previously been studied in a large unselected national population of PPCI patients. Mortality (30-day), MACCE (a composite of 30-day mortality and in-hospital myocardial re-infarction, target vessel revascularization, and cerebrovascular events), and bleeding and access site complications were studied based on transfemoral access (TFA) and transradial access (TRA) site utilization in PPCI STEMI patients. The influence of access site selection was studied in 46,128 PPCI patients; TFA was used in 28,091 patients and TRA in 18,037. Data were adjusted for potential confounders using Cox regression that accounted for the propensity to undergo radial or femoral approach. TRA was independently associated with a lower 30-day mortality (hazard ratio [HR]: 0.71, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.52 to 0.97; p<0.05), in-hospital MACCE (HR: 0.73, 95% CI: 0.57 to 0.93; p<0.05), major bleeding (HR: 0.37, 95% CI: 0.18 to 0.74; p<0.01), and access site complications (HR: 0.38, 95% CI: 0.19 to 0.75; p<0.01).",
"There is no consensus regarding treatment for patients with breast cancer and isolated sternal involvement. Though classified as AJCC stage IV, this group of patients may have prolonged distant disease free survival. Retrospective case series of 8 patients with isolated sternal recurrence. Information regarding age, menopausal status, hormonal receptor status, HER2 status, initial treatment, time to sternal recurrence, treatment of sternal involvement, and outcome was obtained. Median follow-up, 6 years. Seven of 8 diagnosed with metachronous sternal recurrence at a median of 3 years from initial breast cancer diagnosis, 1 with sternal involvement at initial diagnosis. Seven of 8 are alive, with one death from metastatic breast cancer 10 years after sternal recurrence. Six of 8 are without evidence of distant spread, 2 in continuous complete remission (CR) at 7 and 14 years from sternal recurrence.",
"To determine whether access to extra-corporal circulation (ECC) is necessary to treat acute descending thoracic aorta disease. From January 2004 to May 2006, 16 patients underwent endovascular stent-graft repair of the descending thoracic aorta, among them 13 (81%) were treated in an emergency setting (nine men, mean age: 75.4 years, range 30-94 years). The indication was traumatic aortic rupture (n=3, 23%), complicated acute type B dissection (n=4; 31%), symptomatic or ruptured thoracic aortic aneurysm (n=4; 31%), aorto-esophageal fistula (n=1; 7,5%) and aortic intramural haematoma (n=1; 7,5%). Computed tomography showed hemomediastin and/or hemothorax in five patients (38%). Transesophageal echocardiography and angiography were performed in two (15%) and one patients respectively. Cerebrospinal fluid drainage was performed for two patients (15%). Endovascular repair was successfully completed in 92.3% of cases. The 30-day mortality was 7.5% (n=1). There was one case (7.5%) of delayed paraplegia. Follow-up ranged between two and 24 months (mean 10.2), no rupture occurred. Three type I endoleaks were detected and only two were treated. Two none related additional mortalities were observed. None of these patients has needed ECC.",
"The aim of this study was to determine if there is a direct relationship between the duration of cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB time [CPBT]) and postoperative morbidity and mortality in patients undergoing cardiac surgery. Retrospective study. Cardiac surgery unit, university hospital. Five thousand six patients, New York Heart Association classes 1 through 4, who underwent cardiac surgery between January 2002 and March 2008. All patients were subjected to CPB. The mean CPBT was 115 minutes (median 106). One hundred thirty-one patients (2.6%) died during the same hospitalization. The postoperative median blood loss was 600 mL. Reoperations for bleeding occurred in 193 patients (3.9%), and 1,001 patients received 3 or more units of red blood cells. There were 108 patients (2.2%) with neurologic sequelae, 391 patients (7.8%) with renal complications, 37 patients (0.7%) with abdominal complications, and 184 patients (3.7%) with respiratory complications. Seventy-two patients (1.4%) had an infective complication, and 80 patients (1.6%) had a postoperative multiorgan failure. The multivariate analysis confirmed the role of CPBT, considered in 30-minute increments, as an independent risk factor for postoperative death (odds ratio [OR] = 1.57, p < 0.0001), pulmonary (OR = 1.17, p < 0.0001), renal (OR 1.31, p < 0.0001), and neurologic complications (OR = 1.28, p < 0.0001), multiorgan failure (OR = 1.21, p < 0.0001), reoperation for bleeding (OR = 1.1, p = 0.0165), and multiple blood transfusions (OR = 1.58, p < 0.0001).",
"Plate and screw fixation is a recent addition to the sternal wound treatment armamentarium. Patients undergoing cardiac and major vascular surgery have a higher risk of postoperative arrest than other elective patients. Those who undergo sternotomy for either cardiac or major vascular procedures are at a higher risk of postoperative arrest. Sternal plate design allows quick access to the mediastinum facilitating open cardiac massage, but chest compressions are the mainstay of re-establishing cardiac output in the event of arrest. The response of sternal plates and the chest wall to compressions when plated has not been studied. The safety of performing this maneuver is unknown. This study intends to demonstrate compressions are safe after sternal plating. We investigated the effect of chest compressions on the plated sternum using a human cadaveric model. Cadavers were plated, an arrest was simulated, and an experienced physician performed a simulated resuscitation. Intrathoracic pressure was monitored throughout to ensure the plates encountered an appropriate degree of force. The hardware and viscera were evaluated for failure and trauma respectively. No hardware failure or obvious visceral trauma was observed. Rib fractures beyond the boundaries of the plates were noted but the incidence was comparable to control and to the fracture incidence after resuscitation previously cited in the literature.",
"The aim of this study is twofold: to determine the complication rate in computed tomography (CT)-guided biopsies and drainages, and to evaluate the value of postinterventional CT control scans. Retrospective analysis of 1,067 CT-guided diagnostic biopsies (n = 476) and therapeutic drainages (n = 591) in thoracic (n = 37), abdominal (n = 866), and musculoskeletal (ms) (n = 164) locations. Severity of any complication was categorized as minor or major. To assess the need for postinterventional CT control scans, it was determined whether complications were detected clinically, on peri-procedural scans or on postinterventional scans only. The complication rate was 2.5 % in all procedures (n = 27), 4.4 % in diagnostic punctures, and 1.0 % in drainages; 13.5 % in thoracic, 2.0 % in abdominal, and 3.0 % in musculoskeletal procedures. There was only 1 major complication (0.1 %). Pneumothorax (n = 14) was most frequent, followed by bleeding (n = 9), paresthesia (n = 2), material damage (n = 1), and bone fissure (n = 1). Postinterventional control acquisitions were performed in 65.7 % (701 of 1,067). Six complications were solely detectable in postinterventional control acquisitions (3 retroperitoneal bleeds, 3 pneumothoraces); all other complications were clinically detectable (n = 4) and/or visible in peri-interventional controls (n = 21).",
"To compare the number of severe periprocedural bleeding complications from the total number of bleeding complications associated with diagnostic selective coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) when using different classifications (TIMI, GUSTO, PLATO, BARC) and to relate these classifications to real hemodynamic status of evaluated patients. We analyzed data from 106 patients who underwent invasive procedure for ischemic heart disease (selective coronary angiography/PCI) and suffered from any type of bleeding complication. The number of bleeding according to impacts on hemodynamic status and consequent treatment shows that 54.7% of all bleedings did not need any specific therapy. Bleeding leading to death, hemorrhagic shock, hemodynamic instability, administration of blood transfusion, surgical procedure and local treatment occurred in 6.6%, 1.9%, 5.7%, 14.2%, 2.8%, and 14.2%, respectively. The results comparing bleeding classifications demonstrate that the rate of severe bleeding complications may increase up to 4 times when different classifications are used on the same group of patients (TIMI 9.4%, GUSTO 15.1%, PLATO 39.2% and BARC 35.9%). The power of association between severe bleeding determined by these classifications and real hemodynamic compromise using Kendall's tau-c correlation is -0.4106 (95% CI -0.599 to -0.222), -0.5355 (95% CI -0.718 to -0.353), -0.5513 (95% CI -0.729 to -0.374) and -0.7552 (95% CI -0.897 to -0.612) for TIMI, GUSTO, PLATO and BARC, respectively.",
"yes. Delayed admission to specialized care is associated with a higher mortality rate in patients with high-grade aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage. Accompanying non-neurosurgical, mainly cardiac complications might be a significant factor leading to delayed admission. The emergency physician should be aware that cardiovascular abnormalities are a relevant complication and sometimes the first identified clinical feature of high-grade subarachnoid hemorrhage.",
"The purpose of this study is to assess the current management of atrial septal defect closure in an era of increasing feasibility of transcatheter device occlusion. Atrial septal defect (ASD) closure was performed surgically through complete sternotomy in 165 patients (group 1) and through partial inferior sternotomy in 53 patients (group 2). Transcatheter device occlusion was achieved in 82 patients with only ASD type II and patent foramen ovale (group 3). Overall complications were minor and more frequent in group 1: 26.7% versus 13.2% in group 2 and 14.6% in group 3 (p = 0.04). Compared to complete sternotomy, a partial sternotomy led to less chest tube loss (7.1 +/- 2.9 versus 11.6 +/- 14.5 ml/kg) (p<0.05) and less postoperative pericardial effusion (11.3% versus 13.5%)(p = 0.55). ASD closure was effective in 99.4% in group 1, 100% in group 2 but only in 86.6% in group 3 (p<0.05). Two major complications of device implantation required early surgery: 1 femoral arteriovenous fistula and 1 device embolization. Hospital stay was significantly shorter in group 3, as well as in group 2 compared to group 1 (8.3 +/- 4.2 versus 5.9 +/- 1.1 versus 2.1 +/- 7.3 days) (p<0.05). Midterm results were excellent, with only 1 non-cardiac death and 1 re-operation for residual shunt in group 1, and 1 device removal for thrombosis in group 3.",
"To compare standard sternal closure techniques with reinforcement longitudinal wire placement in the corpus sterni in high-risk patients undergoing open-heart surgery via median sternotomy. The subjects of this study were 71 high-risk patients, 32 (45%) of whom underwent sternal closure by conventional methods (group 1) and 39 (55%) of whom underwent sternal closure with corpus sterni reinforcement. The patients were followed up for a mean period of 90 days. In group 2, none of the patients had sternal dehiscence and no revision was required, but in group 1, five (15.5%) patients had sternal dehiscence. This difference was significant between the groups (P = 0.024), but there were no significant differences in mediastinitis and mortality (P > 0.05).",
"yes. Patients who are receiving clopidogrel and who have a coronary artery stent placed can safely undergo general thoracic surgery. The widely held belief that surgery cannot be performed without bleeding is untrue. This new finding not only eliminates much of the preoperative dilemma posed by these patients but also may reduce their risk of a postoperative myocardial infarction. However, patients who require a redo thoracotomy may be at increased risk of bleeding.",
"Etiology for increased morbidity in patients (2% to 8%) undergoing reoperation for bleeding after cardiac surgery is unclear. Recent work suggests that it may be related to red-cell transfusion, but what role does reoperation itself play? We sought to determine prevalence of and risk factors for reoperation for bleeding, separate the effect of reoperation from that of transfusion on hospital mortality and major morbidity, and identify the source of bleeding. From January 1, 2000 to January 1, 2010, 18,891 primary and repeat coronary artery bypass grafting, valve, or combined operations were performed. Risk factors for reoperation were identified by multivariable logistic regression. Hospital mortality and major morbidity were compared in propensity-matched patients requiring reoperation and not. Medical records from 2005 to 2010 were reviewed to determine bleeding source. A total of 566 patients (3.0%) underwent reoperation for bleeding, with considerable variability over time. Risk factors included older age, higher acuity, greater comorbidity, aortic valve surgery, longer myocardial ischemic and cardiopulmonary bypass durations, and surgeon. Mortality was higher for propensity-matched patients requiring reoperation; 8.5% (68% confidence interval [CI] 7.3% to 9.9%) versus 1.8% (CI 1.2% to 2.5%). Both greater transfusion and reoperation were independently associated with increased risk of mortality and major morbidity. At reoperation, technical factors (74%), coagulopathy (13%), both (10%), or other (3.3%) causes were responsible for bleeding.",
"Cardiac surgical reexploration is necessary in approximately 5% of all patients. However, the impact of routine, planned reexploration performed in the intensive care unit (ICU) remains poorly defined. This study evaluated postoperative outcomes after cardiac reexplorations to determine the safety and efficacy of a planned approach in the ICU. All patients undergoing ICU cardiac reexplorations (2000 to2011) at a single institution were stratified according to a routine, planned ICU approach to reexploration (planned) versus unplanned ICU or operating room reexploration. Patient risk and outcomes were compared by univariate and multivariate analyses. 8,151 total patients underwent cardiac operations, including 267 (3.2%) reexplorations (planned ICU=75% and unplanned ICU=18%). Among planned ICU reexplorations, 38% of patients had an identifiable surgical bleeding source, and 60% underwent reexploration less than 12 hours after the index procedure. Unplanned ICU reexplorations had a higher Society of Thoracic Surgeons (STS) predicted mortality (5% vs 3%, p<0.001) and incurred higher observed mortality (37% vs 6%, p<0.001) and morbidity. Sternal wound infections were rare and were similar between groups (p=0.81). Furthermore, upon STS mortality risk adjustment, unplanned ICU reexplorations were associated with significantly increased odds of mortality (OR=26.6 [7.1, 99.7], p<0.001) compared with planned ICU reexplorations.",
"Reoperative mitral valve (MV) surgery through sternotomy can be technically challenging. Limited exposure and injury to the right ventricle or patent grafts (previous coronary artery bypass graft surgery [CABG]) are potential complications upon sternal reentry. The purpose of this study was to examine the results of port access MV surgery through right minithoracotomy in patients with previous cardiac surgery performed through median sternotomy. From 1998 through July 2007, 651 port access MV procedures were performed. In 107 patients (16.4%), previous cardiac surgery had been performed through midline sternotomy. Mean age was 67.5 +/- 11.2 years, and 60.7% (n = 65) were male. Previous surgery included CABG (n = 45, 42.1%), aortic valve replacement (n = 9, 8.4%), aortic valve replacement/MV repair (n = 2, 1.9%), MV repair (n = 21, 19.6%), MV replacement (n = 5, 4.7%), CABG/MV replacement (n = 1, 0.9%), CABG/MV repair (n = 8, 7.5%), CABG/aortic valve replacement (n = 2, 1.9%), and others (n = 14, 13.1%). New York Heart Association functional classes were I (n = 2, 1.9%), II (n = 28, 26.2%), III (n = 50, 46.7%), and IV (n = 27, 25.2%). The endoaortic balloon was used in 75 patients (70.1%) and the Chitwood clamp in 11 patients (10.2%). In the remaining patients (n = 21, 19.6%), fibrillatory arrest was employed. Mitral valve repair and MV replacement were performed in 60 patients (56.1%) and 47 patients (43.9%), respectively. The 30-day mortality was 4.7% (n = 5). The mean cardiopulmonary bypass and aortic cross-clamp times were 140.8 +/- 43.7 minutes and 77.0 +/- 49.7 minutes, respectively. Complications included 6 reoperations for bleeding (5.6%), 1 stroke (0.9%), and 2 wound infections (1.9%). Conversion to sternotomy was required in 1 patient (0.9%) because of an acute type A dissection secondary to aortic occlusion with Chitwood clamp. The mean hospital stay was 9.6 days. During follow-up, reoperation for failure of MV repair was performed in 4 patients (3.7%).",
"Although previous studies have included early reexploration for bleeding as a risk factor in analyzing adverse outcomes after cardiac operations, reexploration for bleeding has not been systematically examined as a multivariate risk factor for increased morbidity and mortality after cardiac surgery. Furthermore, multivariate predictors of the need for reexploration have not been identified. Accordingly, we performed a retrospective analysis of 6100 patients requiring cardiopulmonary bypass from January 1, 1986, to December 31, 1993. Eighty-five patients who had ventricular assist devices were excluded from further analysis because of the prevalence of bleeding and the significant morbidity and mortality associated with placement of a ventricular assist device, unrelated to reexploration. In the remaining 6015 patients, potential adverse outcomes analyzed included operative mortality, mediastinitis, stroke, renal failure, adult respiratory distress syndrome, prolonged mechanical ventilation, sepsis, atrial arrhythmias, and ventricular arrhythmias. To control for the confounding effects of other risk factors, we performed a multivariate logistic regression analysis. Potential covariates considered in the logistic model included age, sex, race, history of reoperation, urgency of the operation, congestive heart failure, prior myocardial infarction, renal failure, diabetes, hypertension, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or stroke, and the bypass and crossclamp time. The overall incidence of reexploration was 4.2% (253/6015). Four independent risk factors--increased patient age (p < 0.001), preoperative renal insufficiency (p = 0.02), operation other than coronary bypass (p < 0.001), and prolonged bypass time (p = 0.0.3)--were identified as predictors of the need for reexploration. The preoperative use of aspirin, heparin, or thrombolytic agents and the bleeding time were not identified as predictors. Reexploration for bleeding was identified as a strong independent risk factor for operative mortality (p = 0.005), renal failure (p < 0.0001), prolonged mechanical ventilation (p < 0.0001), adult respiratory distress syndrome (p = 0.03), sepsis (p < 0.0001), and atrial arrhythmias (p = 0.006).",
"Hemopericardium per se may be overly sensitive for diagnosing cardiac or great vessel injuries after chest trauma. Some stable blunt or penetrating trauma patients without continuing intrapericardial bleeding had nontherapeutic sternotomies, suggesting that this intervention could be avoided in selected cases.",
"yes. The reinforced sternal-closure system provided no additional risk with similar postoperative pain index and postoperative hospital stay compared with conventional method. It is reliable to use in elderly patients undergoing open heart surgery, in the cases presenting a risk factor such as osteoporosis for increased incidence of sternal dehiscence.",
"Right ventricular rupture, resulting in serious bleeding, is a life-threatening complication associated with negative-pressure wound therapy (NPWT) in cardiac surgery. The use of a rigid barrier between the heart and the sharp sternal edges has been successfully tested on pigs. In the present article, we demonstrate increased safety in NPWT through the use of the HeartShield device. Six patients were treated with a specially designed device in combination with NPWT. The device consists of a horizontally placed disk covered in foam. The back of the T-shaped device sticks up between the sternal edges and up above skin level. This part of the device is also covered in foam. Drainage is performed through two holes at the top of the device. The device and foam are changed every second to third day, and -120 mm Hg of continuous therapy is used. Six patients were treated with traditional NPWT, serving as control group. No signs of calluslike formation were seen on the right ventricle in the group treated with the HeartShield device. In the conventional NPWT control group, all six patients had calluslike formation (>1 × 2 cm2) on the anterior part of the right ventricle. All patients in the HeartShield group had grade 1 epicardial petechial bleeding (<0.5 cm2) on the right ventricle. In the control group, one patient had grade 1 (<0.5 cm2), three patients had grade 2 (0.5-2.0 cm2), and two patients had grade 3 (>2.0 cm2) epicardial petechial bleeding on the right ventricle. No major bleeding or mortality was observed in either group during the course of the study.",
"yes. Clopidogrel treatment at the time of heart rhythm device procedures is associated with an increased risk of significant bleeding complications. Subclavian puncture seems to strongly increase hemorrhagic complications in this setting.",
"Recently, three patients with hemopericardium after severe chest trauma were successfully managed nonoperatively at our institution. This prompted the question whether these were rare or common events. Therefore, we reviewed our experience with similar injuries to test the hypothesis that trauma-induced hemopericardium mandates sternotomy. Records were retrospectively reviewed for all patients at a Level I trauma center (December 1996 to November 2011) who sustained chest trauma with pericardial window (PCW, n = 377) and/or median sternotomy (n = 110). Fifty-five (15%) patients with positive PCW proceeded to sternotomy. Penetrating injury was the dominant mechanism (n = 49, 89%). Nineteen (35%) were hypotensive on arrival or during initial resuscitation. Most received surgeon-performed focused cardiac ultrasound examinations (n = 43, 78%) with positive results (n = 25, 58%). Ventricular injuries were most common, with equivalent numbers occurring on the right (n = 16, 29%) and left (n = 15, 27%). Six (11%) with positive PCW had isolated pericardial lacerations, but 21 (38%) had no repairable cardiac or great vessel injury. Those with therapeutic versus nontherapeutic sternotomies were similar with respect to age, mechanisms of injury, injury severity scores, presenting laboratory values, resuscitation fluids, and vital signs. Multiple logistic regression revealed that penetrating trauma (odds ratio: 13.3) and hemodynamic instability (odds ratio: 7.8) were independent predictors of therapeutic sternotomy.",
"Bonewax is routinely used to seal sternal edges after median sternotomy. Adverse effects on sternal healing, however, have been proclaimed although clear evidence does not exist. We performed a study on coronary bypass patients with or without bonewax application to verify negative effects and risk factors for early rethoracotomy, wound healing problems, and mediastinitis. In a prospectively randomized study on 400 patients undergoing isolated coronary bypass surgery, 200 patients with (bonewax) and 200 patients without bonewax (nonwax) application after median sternotomy were compared. Blood product consumption, early rethoracotomy, sternum stabilization, mediastinitis, and early mortality were compared. Risk factors such as age, sex, diabetes mellitus, and bonewax were analyzed by means of logistical regression analysis. Blood product consumption was almost identical in both groups (red blood cells, 3.9 +/- 4.7 units in the bonewax group; 3.8 +/- 3.4 units in the nonwax patients; fresh frozen plasma, 0.5 +/- 1.6 units versus 0.5 +/- 1.3 units; platelet concentrates, 0.07 +/- 0.3 units versus 0.04 +/- 0.2 units). Early rethoracotomy (bonewax 6.5%; nonwax 5%), sternal stabilization (bonewax 3%; nonwax 3%), and mediastinitis (bonewax 1%; nonwax 0.5%) did not differ significantly. Early mortality was 2.5% in the bonewax group and 0.5% in the nonwax cohort. Bonewax did not appear as an independent risk factor for adverse outcome.",
"Patients with congenital heart disease frequently survive into adulthood, and many of them will require repeat surgery. Often, the unique anatomy can make reoperative sternotomy and the conduct of cardiopulmonary bypass challenging. We evaluated the utility of preoperative 3-dimensional imaging and presternotomy femoral cutdown in reoperative adult congenital heart disease surgery. We retrospectively studied 205 adult patients, who had undergone reoperative cardiac surgery for congenital heart disease from 2006 to 2011. Using the operative history and 3-dimensional preoperative imaging findings, an algorithm was created to determine whether femoral cutdown or cannulation should be performed before sternal reentry. Analyses were performed to determine the benefits of this strategy. In addition, analyses were performed to identify adverse outcomes related to this strategy. Presternotomy femoral intervention was performed in 112 of 205 patients (55%)-femoral cutdown alone in 69 (34%) and femoral cutdown, cannulation, and institution of cardiopulmonary bypass in 43 (21%). Of the 19 patients (9%) with a cardiac injury, femoral cutdown had already been performed in 17, of whom 10 had also undergone cannulation. Only 2 patients required urgent femoral cutdown or cannulation. A strong correlation was found between the site of injury predicted by the preoperative algorithm and the actual site of cardiac injury (88%). In both univariate and multivariate models, the risk factors for cardiac injury included a history of cardiac injury during sternal reentry (18% vs 1%, P = .0001), proximity of the right ventricular outflow tract to the posterior chest wall (35% vs 14%, P = .04), and increased reoperative sternotomy incidence (P = .01). In 31 patients, despite safe reentry, the femoral vessels were used as a preferential site of venous (n = 6), arterial (n = 9), or venous and arterial cannulation (n = 16) because of anatomic constraints within the chest cavity. Three patients experienced groin complications (pseudoaneurysm, abscess, ischemia) requiring surgery.",
"yes. Reoperative sternotomy is associated with increased mortality and blood utilization after OHT. Patients with more than 1 prior sternotomy do not experience additional increased mortality. Carefully selected patients with multiple prior sternotomies have decreased but acceptable outcomes.",
"Although several studies have examined factors affecting survival after orthotopic heart transplantation (OHT), few have evaluated the impact of reoperative sternotomy. We undertook this study to examine the incidence and impact of repeat sternotomies on OHT outcomes. We conducted a retrospective review of all adult OHT from 2 institutions. Primary stratification was by the number of prior sternotomies. The primary outcome was survival. Secondary outcomes included blood product utilization and commonly encountered postoperative complications. Multivariable Cox proportional hazards regression models examined mortality while linear regression models examined blood utilization. From January 1995 to October 2011, 631 OHT were performed. Of these, 25 (4.0%) were redo OHT and 182 (28.8%) were bridged to transplant with a ventricular assist device; 356 (56.4%) had undergone at least 1 prior sternotomy. On unadjusted analysis, reoperative sternotomy was associated with decreased 90-day (98.5% vs 90.2%, p<0.001), 1-year (93.1% vs 79.6%, p<0.001), and 5-year (80.4% vs 70.1%, p=0.002) survival. This difference persisted on multivariable analysis at 90 days (hazard ratio [HR] 2.99, p=0.01), 1 year (HR 2.98, p=0.002), and 5 years (HR 1.62, p=0.049). The impact of an increasing number of prior sternotomies was negligible. On multivariable analysis, an increasing number of prior sternotomies was associated with increased intraoperative blood product utilization. Increasing blood utilization was associated with decreased 90-day, 1-year, and 5-year survival.",
"CABG using both ITAs can be performed routinely with good clinical results and low mortality. Compared with single ITA grafting, sternal and bleeding complications were slightly increased. Diabetes mellitus, BITA grafting, duration of surgery but not obesity or COPD could be identified as independent risk factors for sternal complications. Dialysis-dependent renal failure, EF<30%, emergent cases, and the absence of BITA grafting were predictors for increased perioperative mortality.",
"Management of antiplatelet therapy at the time of device implantation remains controversial. This study aimed to assess the risk of bleeding complications in patients receiving clopidogrel at the time of cardiac device surgery. We performed a retrospective case-control study. Between 2004 and 2010, 101 consecutive patients receiving clopidogrel underwent cardiac device surgery (pacemaker or implantable cardioverter-defibrillator implantation, and generator replacement) in our institution. Controls were 1:1 matched on age, sex, device, type of procedure, number of leads implanted, and venous approach (cephalic or subclavian). A significant bleeding complication was defined as pocket hematoma requiring surgical evacuation or prolonged hospitalization, hemothorax, pericardial effusion, or tamponade. Bleeding complications occurred more frequently in patients receiving clopidogrel at the time of device procedure: 11.9% versus 4.0% (P = 0.037; odds radio [OR] 3.27 [1.02-10.5]). Significant bleeding complications were noted in 12 patients (11.9%) receiving clopidogrel, including two patients with pericardial effusion and one patient with hemothorax. Four controls (4.0%) had bleeding complications (three pocket hematomas and one pericardial effusion). The single factor associated with increased bleeding complications in patients receiving clopidogrel was subclavian puncture (P = 0.008). In the entire cohort (n = 202), multivariate analysis identified two independent predictors of significant bleeding complications: clopidogrel treatment at the time of surgery (P = 0.03; OR 3.7 [1.1-12.6]) and subclavian venous puncture (P = 0.03; OR 3.44 [1.1-10.4]).",
"The number of patients undergoing resternotomy continues to rise. Although catastrophic hemorrhage remains a dreaded complication, most published data suggest that sternal reentrance is safe, with negligible postoperative morbidity and mortality. A significant proportion of left ventricular assist device (LVAD) implantations are reoperative cardiac procedures. The aim of our study was to compare outcomes between first time sternotomy and resternotomy patients receiving continuous-flow LVADs, as a bridge to transplantation or destination therapy. From March 2006 through February 2012, 100 patients underwent implantation of a HeartMate II or HeartWare LVAD at our institution. Patients were stratified into two groups, primary sternotomy and resternotomy. Variables were compared using two-sided t-tests, chi-square tests, Cox proportional hazards models, and log-rank tests to determine whether there was a difference between the two groups and if resternotomy was a significant independent predictor of outcome. We identified 29 patients (29%) who had resternotomy and 71 patients (71%) who had first time sternotomy. The resternotomy group was significantly older (56 years vs. 51 years, p = 0.05), was more likely to have ischemic cardiomyopathy (ICM) (69% vs. 30%, p<0.001), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (31% vs. 14%, p = 0.05) and had longer cardiopulmonary bypass times (135 min vs. 100 min, p = 0.011). Survival rates at 30 days (93.1% vs. 95.8%, p = 0.564), 180 days (82.8% vs. 93%, p = 0.131), and 360 days (82.8% vs. 88.7%, p = 0.398) were similar for the resternotomy and primary sternotomy groups, respectively. Postoperative complications were also comparable, except for re-exploration for bleeding which was higher for the resternotomy group (17.2% vs. 4.2%, p = 0.029), although blood transfusion requirements were not significantly different (1.4 units vs. 1.2 units, p = 0.815). Left and right heart catheterization measurements and echocardiographic (ECHO) findings after 1 and 6 months of LVAD therapy were similar between the two groups.",
"yes. The use of the HeartShield device significantly minimizes the contact between the right ventricle and the sternal edges, thereby decreasing the risk for life-threatening complications due to bleeding.",
"yes. Particularly in high-risk patients, careful haemostasis should be done and eight or more wires should be used to avoid sternal complications.",
"Early reoperation for postoperative bleeding decreases the number of subsequent complications, e.g. sternal wound infections, septic complications and prolonged mechanical ventilation.",
"Former studies on sternal wound infections indicate predisposing factors like diabetes, obesity, use of bilateral internal mammary grafts, impaired renal function and reoperation. We wanted to evaluate whether the time of resternotomy for postoperative bleeding has any influence on the development of a sternal wound infection and other complications. In our department, 12,315 patients underwent median sternotomy for cardiac surgery between 1987 and 1998. We analyzed the clinical data of all patients which were reoperated on for postoperative bleeding, especially patients with subsequent operations caused by sternal wound infections. All data were compared by T-test respectively chi2-test, and p<0.05 was regarded as significant. 406 of the 12,315 patients were re-explored because of postoperative bleeding (3.3%). 57 (14%) of these patients died in the postoperative period of non-infectious complications. The remaining patients were divided into two groups: Group A (286 patients) (70.4%) did not suffer from any sternal wound complications, where as group B patients (n = 63) (15.6%) needed subsequent surgery due to sternal infection. There were no significant differences in either concerning age, clinical data and first operation. All patients had an average blood loss of 223 ml/hr. The time before re-operation for bleeding was 5.3+/-1.7 hours in group A compared to 11.1+/-4.2 hours in group B (p<0.05). A significant delay of reoperation for bleeding could also be found for patients with postoperative septic complications (ø: 5.2+/-1.9 hours, +: 12.9+/-5.2 hours), renal failure, mechanical ventilation>48 hours and a stay in hospital>20 days.",
"To define the incidence of catastrophic hemorrhage (CH) during reoperations, the experience of the University of New Mexico was reviewed and compared with the practice of surgeons contacted by questionnaire. At the University of New Mexico, 610 reoperations were reviewed and 210 deemed high risk because of multiple reoperation, aneurysm, patent grafts, chamber's enlargement, conduit or previous mediastinitis. In the questionnaire, we asked about reentry technique, occurrence and outcome of CH, and precautions for high-risk patients. At the University of New Mexico there were 4 CH with 1 death, and in the questionnaire there were 2,046 CH with 392 deaths. Our rate per surgeon was lower than that of the questionnaire. Rate of CH according to the saw was 2.09 for reciprocating, 2.0 for sagittal, and 1.74 for stryker in the questionnaire. Our rate was lower (0.65) with a micro sagittal saw. High-risk category predicted CH during sternotomy (p = 0.01) but only conduit (p = 0.005) was significant by univariate analysis."
] | 662 |
Can technetium 99m pyrophosphate be used to quantify myocardial injury in donor hearts? | [
"There are no prospective methods available to quantify the myocyte injury in hearts prior to transplantation. The potential of the isotope labeled infarct marker 99m Technetium pyrophosphate (TcPPT) being used in this role was investigated. Brain death was induced by creating an extradural space occupying lesion in young adult swine after which hemodynamic changes were monitored and myocyte injury was quantified by histochemistry. TcPPT was administered 5 hours after induction of intracranial hypertension, and after hearts were harvested myocardial uptake was measured. These latter measurements were related to the histochemical assessment of myocyte injury. Sham animals (n = 4) maintained cardiovascular stability and experienced minimal myocyte injury, grades 0 to 3. BD animals (n = 10) exhibited varying patterns of hemodynamic change and myocyte injury, the latter was significant in 6, graded 4 to 11, p less than 0.05. Uptake of TcPPT by BD hearts was greater than twice the 90th centile sham value in 6. The sensitivity and specificity of greater uptake indicating the presence of myocyte injury was 83.3% and 75% respectively.",
"TcPPT has the potential to quantify myocardial injury induced by brain death and its potential utility merits further investigation."
] | [
"yes. MG53 is an effective biomarker of myocardial injury and dysfunction in murine hearts. However, MG53 is not expressed in human heart and therefore does not hold utility as a clinical biomarker of myocardial injury. Although cardioprotective roles for endogenous myocardial MG53 cannot be extrapolated from rodents to humans, potential therapeutic application of recombinant MG53 for myocardial membrane injury prevails.",
"Patients with unrecognized myocardial infarction (UMI) scars detected by delayed-enhanced magnetic resonance imaging (DE-MRI) have a decreased left ventricular ejection fraction and an increased left ventricular mass. N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) is a marker of heart failure, and troponin I (TnI) is a marker of myocardial injury. The primary aim of this study was to investigate whether NT-proBNP plasma levels (in addition to ejection fraction) differed in patients with UMI scars compared with normal participants. The second aim was to compare whether the TnI levels differed in those two groups. Data from the Prospective Investigation of Vasculature in Uppsala Seniors study were used. The participants who had undergone cardiac MRI were included in this study (n=248). Patients were divided into three groups depending on the existence of a myocardial infarction (MI) scar in DE-MRI and their earlier history of MI. In all the patients, a peripheral blood sample was collected and the plasma levels of NT-proBNP and TnI were determined. Patients with UMI had higher plasma levels of NT-proBNP (median 140.2 ng/l; 25th-75th percentiles: 79-225.5) than no-MI participants (median 94.9 ng/l; 25th-75th percentiles: 59.2-144.2; P=0.01) and lower levels than patients with recognized MI (median 310.4 ng/l; 25th-75th percentiles: 122.6-446.5; P=0.02). Plasma TnI values did not differ among the three groups.",
"This study was undertaken to assess myocardial adrenergic activity using iodine-123 metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) imaging in patients with heart failure. In patients with congestive heart failure, adrenergic nerve activity is accelerated. However, whether myocardial adrenergic nerve activity reflects the severity of heart failure and its relation to the underlying cause have not yet been elucidated. Planar MIBG images were obtained from 96 patients with heart failure and compared with images from 9 age-matched healthy subjects. Groups 1 and 2 included 65 patients with heart failure related to impaired myocardial function and whose left ventricular ejection fraction was < 40% (group 1 = 40 patients with dilated cardiomyopathy; group 2 = 25 patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy). Group 3 included 31 patients with heart failure related to a mechanical abnormality and whose left ventricular ejection fraction was > 40% (mitral regurgitation in 16, aortic regurgitation in 9, aortic and mitral regurgitation in 4, ruptured aneurysm of Valsalva in 2). Myocardial uptake of MIBG was calculated as the heart/mediastinal activity ratio. Storage and release of MIBG were calculated as percent myocardial MIBG washout from 15 min to 4 h after isotope injection. The heart/mediastinal activity ratio in the immediate images (15 min) showed a significant decrease only in patients with severe heart failure (groups 1 and 2). The myocardial washout was accelerated in all three heart failure groups. The level of myocardial washout was related to severity of heart failure and correlated well with New York Heart Association functional classification.",
"We investigated the relationship between iodine-123-metaiodobenzylguanidine (123I-MIBG) findings and myocardial contractile reserve in patients with mild to moderate dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). Little is known regarding the relationship between cardiac sympathetic nervous function and myocardial contractile reserve in DCM. Twenty-four DCM patients who showed sinus rhythm underwent echocardiography, biventricular catheterization, and myocardial 123I-MIBG scintigraphy. Left ventricular (LV) pressures were measured using a micromanometer-tipped catheter. The myocardial contractile function (LV dP/dt(max)) was determined at rest and during atrial pacing. The messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) expressions of intracellular Ca2+-regulatory proteins were analyzed by real-time quantitative reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction. Myocardial 123I-MIBG accumulation was quantified as a heart-mediastinum ratio (HMR). A significant correlation was observed between the delayed 123I-MIBG HMR and the percentage change in LV dP/dt(max) from the baseline to the peak or critical heart rate (r = 0.64; p < 0.001). The delayed 123I-MIBG HMR was significantly lower in patients showing a worsening change in LV dP/dt(max) than in those showing a favorable change (p < 0.005). The maximum LV dP/dt(max) during pacing and the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase (SERCA2) mRNA levels were significantly more reduced in patients with a delayed HMR < or =1.8 than in those with a delayed HMR >1.8 (p < 0.05, respectively).",
"A high radiochemical purity (RCP) is recommended for radiopharmaceutical compounds used in the clinical practice of nuclear medicine. However, some preparations of (99m)Tc-sestamibi contain excess impurities (>6%). To understand the origin of these impurities, we investigated the effect of sodium nitrate on the RCP of sestamibi preparations by testing eluates from 3 commercially available (99m)Tc generators. The sestamibi kits (Stamicis) were reconstituted with (99m)Tc eluate from nitrate-containing wet-column (NCWC), nitrate-free wet-column (NFWC), and nitrate-free dry-column (NFDC) generators. Sodium nitrate was 0.05 mg/mL in eluates from the NCWC generators. The RCP was determined using aluminum oxide sheets as the stationary phase and absolute ethanol as the mobile phase. Succimer, tetrofosmin, oxidronate, exametazine, albumin nanocolloid, and soluble albumin were also tested for their RCP values with eluates from the 3 different (99m)Tc generators. The RCP assessment of (99m)Tc-sestamibi was performed on 127 Stamicis preparations. Significantly lower RCP values were found for Stamicis kits prepared with the NCWC generator than for Stamicis prepared with the NFWC (P < 0.0001) and NFDC (P < 0.0001) generators. The number of Stamicis preparations with an RCP under 94% was greater with the NCWC generator (32 of 53 kits) than with the NFDC (2 of 51 kits) or NFWC (0 of 23 kits) generator. Furthermore, the addition of a 0.05 mg/mL concentration of nitrate in NFWC generator eluates significantly decreased the RCP of the Stamicis preparation. In the absence of nitrate in (99m)Tc eluate, no difference was observed between the RCP values of Stamicis kits prepared with the NFWC and NFDC generators. The (99m)Tc impurities generated by nitrates did not modify the quality of myocardial imaging (normal heart-to-lung ratio, 2.2), probably because these impurities are not in the heart field of view. No other tested (99m)Tc-radiopharmaceutical interfered with nitrates.",
"It is well known that nitrates can induce paradoxical myocardial ischemia. Fifty patients (median age 73 years; range 67 to 78 years; 80% male) with healed myocardial infarcts were selected. All patients underwent resting single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and resting baseline gated-SPECT using sestamibi or thallium-201 after the sublingual administration of 5 mg isosorbide dinitrate (ISD). Forty-eight per cent (24 of 50) of the patients demonstrated ISD-induced peri-infarct ischemia as observed by SPECT. Compared with patients without ISD-induced ischemia, patients with ISD-induced ischemia presented larger infarcts as determined by the extent of perfusion defects (mean [± SD] 27±12 pixels versus 11±9 pixels; P<0.0001), lower ejection fractions (39±17% versus 50±15%; P<0.02) and a higher incidence of severe coronary artery disease (P<0.04). At five years, the survival probability on Kaplan-Meier analysis was 42% and 96% for patients with and without ISD-induced ischemia, respectively (HR 5.6 [95% CI 1.6 to 20]; P=0.009).",
"yes. Reperfusion following cardioplegia activates MMPs in the myocardium and plasma of patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. This is the first correlation of MMP myocardial activity with cardiac function in humans. The early increase in MMP activity produces a proteolytic environment that may contribute to myocardial stunning injury in humans.",
"To test the hypothesis that myocardium specific proteins may be useful markers for evaluating the severity of congestive heart failure. Serum concentrations of myosin light chain I (MLC-I), heart fatty acid binding protein (H-FABP), creatine kinase isoenzyme MB (CK-MB), and troponin T (TnT) and plasma concentrations of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) were determined in 48 patients with acute deterioration of congestive heart failure, both before and after effective treatment. Before treatment, MLC-I (mean (SEM) 3.2 (2.2) microg/l), H-FABP (9.0 (3.5) microg/l), TnT (30 (21) ng/l), and BNP (761 (303) ng/l) were higher than the normal reference range, and concentrations of CK-MB (5.4 (2.9) microg/l) were near normal. Treatment of congestive heart failure with conventional medication significantly decreased the concentrations of MLC-I (1.2 (0.3) microg/l, p < 0.0001), H-FABP (6.0 (2.0) microg/l, p < 0.0001), CK-MB (2.9 (1.5) microg/l, p < 0.0001), TnT (9 (1) ng/l, p < 0.001), and BNP (156 (118) ng/l, p < 0.0001). The decreases in H-FABP and CK-MB concentrations after treatment correlated with the decrease in BNP concentrations (p < 0.05). The absolute concentrations of MLC-I, H-FABP, CK-MB, and TnT correlated positively with those of BNP (p < 0.01).",
"Cardiac troponin I (CTnI) has been shown to be a marker of myocardial injury. The aim of this prospective, randomized study was to compare intermittent antegrade warm cardioplegia with tepid blood cardioplegia in patients undergoing first elective coronary artery bypass graft, using CTnI release as the criterion for evaluating the adequacy of myocardial protection. Seventy patients were randomly assigned to one of two cardioplegia groups. CTnI concentrations were measured in serial venous blood samples drawn immediately before cardiopulmonary bypass and after aortic unclamping at 6, 9, 12, and 24 hours. Analysis of covariance with repeated measures was performed to test the effect of the type of cardioplegia and time on CTnI concentration. The total amount of CTnI released (8.23 +/- 20.5 microg in the warm group and 3.19 +/- 2.4 microg in the tepid group) was not statistically different (p = 0.23). The CTnI concentration did not differ for any sample in either of the two groups when adjusted on ejection fraction and the number of preoperative myocardial infarctions (p = 0.06). No patient in the tepid group versus 4 patients in the warm group showed CTnI evidence of perioperative myocardial infarction (p = 0.12).",
"Diagnosis of acute rejection remains a major concern in heart transplant recipients. Currently, endomyocardial biopsy is the gold standard for detecting rejection. Given the risks and cost of endomyocardial biopsy, a noninvasive marker for rejection would be ideal. Cardiac troponin T (cTnT) is an established marker of myocyte damage, and a rat transplantation model of heart transplant rejection has suggested that cTnT may be of value in detecting rejection. The cTnT levels were measured in 90 transplant recipients (67 men and 23 women) at the time of endomyocardial biopsy. There were a total of 256 cTnT levels and 256 biopsy samples. The cTnT levels were compared by use of International Society of Heart and Lung Transplantation rejection grades. Only one of the 12 grade 3 biopsy specimens had a corresponding elevated cTnT level. Of the 29 biopsy specimens with myocyte necrosis (grade 2 or grade 3), three had a corresponding elevated cTnT. The cTnT levels were elevated during the first 1 to 2 months after transplantation. There was no correlation between ischemic time and cTnT levels.",
"Pediatric myocardium is unique from mature myocardium; thus, the use of adult cardioplegia for pediatric cardiac operations may provide suboptimal myocardial protection. We evaluated our standard adult cardioplegia (AC; modified Buckberg) and a pediatric cardioplegia (PC) solution (del Nido solution, Baxter) in vitro in rat cardiomyocytes and compared short-term outcomes in pediatric cardiac surgical patients. Contractions, intracellular calcium, and action potentials were recorded from isolated rat cardiomyocytes exposed to PC or AC, followed by reperfusion. Pediatric patients (n = 118) undergoing cardiac operations using PC (group PC, n = 59) or AC (group AC, n = 59) were matched 1:1 for age, diagnosis, and duration of cardiopulmonary bypass. PC-perfused rat ventricular cardiomyocytes had lower diastolic calcium during cardioplegia and early reperfusion than AC-perfused cardiomyocytes. Cardiomyocytes remained excitable despite introduction of AC but not PC. The mean age in each pediatric group was 3.7 years (range, 3 days to 17 years; p = 0.95). Median serum troponin T levels at intensive care admission were significantly lower in group PC (0.83 +/- 0.25 microg/L) than in group AC (13.8 +/- 12.7 microg/L, p = 0.0001), which persisted at 24 hours postoperatively. There were no significant differences in duration of intubation or length of stay in intensive care or the hospital.",
"Transient episodes of ischemia in a remote organ or tissue (remote ischemic preconditioning, RIPC) can attenuate myocardial injury. Myocardial damage is associated with tissue remodeling and the matrix metalloproteinases 2 and 9 (MMP-2/9) are crucially involved in these events. Here we investigated the effects of RIPC on the activities of heart tissue MMP-2/9 and their correlation with serum concentrations of cardiac troponin T (cTnT), a marker for myocardial damage. In cardiosurgical patients with cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) RIPC was induced by four 5 minute cycles of upper limb ischemia/reperfusion. Cardiac tissue was obtained before as well as after CPB and serum cTnT concentrations were measured. Tissue derived from control patients (N = 17) with high cTnT concentrations (≥0.32 ng/ml) and RIPC patients (N = 18) with low cTnT (≤0.32 ng/ml) was subjected to gelatin zymography to quantify MMP-2/9 activities. In cardiac biopsies obtained before CPB, activities of MMP-2/9 were attenuated in the RIPC group (MMP-2: Control, 1.13 ± 0.13 a.u.; RIPC, 0.71 ± 0.12 a.u.; P < 0.05. MMP-9: Control, 1.50 ± 0.16 a.u.; RIPC, 0.87 ± 0.14 a.u.; P < 0.01), while activities of the pro-MMPs were not altered (P > 0.05). In cardiac biopsies taken after CPB activities of pro- and active MMP-2/9 were not different between the groups (P > 0.05). Spearman's rank tests showed that MMP-2/9 activities in cardiac tissue obtained before CPB were positively correlated with postoperative cTnT serum levels (MMP-2, P = 0.016; MMP-9, P = 0.015).",
"Non-specific elevations of creatine kinase isoenzymes (CK-MB) and cardiac troponin-T may be seen in renal failure, confusing the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Cardiac troponin-I (cTn-I) has been shown to be specific for myocardial damage in several disease states, but has not been prospectively evaluated in the setting of renal failure. This prospective case series evaluated 56 patients with acute or chronic renal failure or end-stage renal disease to assess the sensitivity and specificity of cTn-I for detecting myocardial injury in this patient population. During a 6-month period, patients admitted with suspected myocardial injury by history, physical examination, and electrocardiography were evaluated. Cardiac troponin-I (cTn-I) measurements were assessed between 8 and 48 h after admission. Appropriate medical care and further cardiac testing (echocardiography, stress testing, or arteriography) was performed at the discretion of the primary physician. Myocardial injury was diagnosed in 18/56 (32%) patients by positive cTn-I levels, while only 7/56 (13%) patients had evidence of myocardial damage by CK-MB. Twenty-one of 56 (38%) patients had indeterminate CK-MB levels and 53% of these patients demonstrated myocardial ischaemia on follow-up testing. Sixteen patients had negative cardiac studies; all of these patients had negative cTn-I levels, while seven of these 16 (44%) patients had indeterminate CK-MB measurements. All of the patients with positive cTn-I levels had positive cardiac studies. Positive troponin levels were associated with increased in-hospital mortality. Sensitivity and specificity for CK-MB were 44 and 56% respectively, and 94 and 100% for cTn-I.",
"Current cardiovascular magnetic resonance (CMR) methods, such as late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) and oedema imaging (T2W) used to depict myocardial ischemia, have limitations. Novel quantitative T1-mapping techniques have the potential to further characterize the components of ischemic injury. In patients with myocardial infarction (MI) we sought to investigate whether state-of the art pre-contrast T1-mapping (1) detects acute myocardial injury, (2) allows for quantification of the severity of damage when compared to standard techniques such as LGE and T2W, and (3) has the ability to predict long term functional recovery. 3T CMR including T2W, T1-mapping and LGE was performed in 41 patients [of these, 78% were ST elevation MI (STEMI)] with acute MI at 12-48 hour after chest pain onset and at 6 months (6M). Patients with STEMI underwent primary PCI prior to CMR. Assessment of acute regional wall motion abnormalities, acute segmental damaged fraction by T2W and LGE and mean segmental T1 values was performed on matching short axis slices. LGE and improvement in regional wall motion at 6M were also obtained. We found that the variability of T1 measurements was significantly lower compared to T2W and that, while the diagnostic performance of acute T1-mapping for detecting myocardial injury was at least as good as that of T2W-CMR in STEMI patients, it was superior to T2W imaging in NSTEMI. There was a significant relationship between the segmental damaged fraction assessed by either by LGE or T2W, and mean segmental T1 values (P < 0.01). The index of salvaged myocardium derived by acute T1-mapping and 6M LGE was not different to the one derived from T2W (P = 0.88). Furthermore, the likelihood of improvement of segmental function at 6M decreased progressively as acute T1 values increased (P < 0.0004).",
"The aim of this study was to investigate whether late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) magnetic resonance imaging or N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) could identify patients with a low risk of death or use of implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) in patients receiving a primary prevention ICD. ICDs reduce mortality in patients with heart failure (HF), although two-thirds may never use their device. Current risk stratification, based on New York Heart Association functional class and left ventricular ejection fraction, still leads to implantation of ICDs in patients who may never need their device. We examined 157 patients with HF (61 with ischemic cardiomyopathy and 96 with dilated cardiomyopathy; mean age 50.5 years; 78% male) who underwent primary prevention defibrillator implantation. Presence and volume of LGE was measured before device implantation, and serum NT-proBNP level was measured before ICD implantation. The combined primary endpoint was cardiovascular death or appropriate ICD therapy (either appropriate shock or antitachycardia pacing). The primary outcome occurred in 32 patients (20.4%) over a median follow-up period of 915 days. Percentage of LGE (hazard ratio [HR]: per 1% increase: 1.06; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.04 to 1.09; p < 0.001) and (ln) NT-proBNP (HR: 1.44; 95% CI: 1.04 to 1.98; p = 0.027) were predictors of death or appropriate ICD activation and remained significant when entered into multivariable analysis. When the cohort was stratified into tertiles based on LGE percentage and NT-proBNP, we were able to identify a low-risk group (event rate 3% per year, compared with the intermediate- and high-risk groups [6% and 10% per year, respectively]).",
"To determine impact of intraluminal-left anterior descending shunt to prevent myocardial damage in minimally invasive coronary artery bypass. 38 patients were randomly assigned to external tournique occlusion (n = 19) or intraluminal-left anterior descending shunt group (n= 19). Blood samples for cardiac troponin T were collected at 30 minutes prior to, 6 and 24 hours after surgery. One patient in external tournique occlusion and two patients in intraluminal-left anterior descending shunt group were excluded from futher analysis due to preoperative cardiac troponin T level above the 99th-percentile. Postoperatively, each six patients in external tournique occlusion (33.3%) and intraluminal-left anterior descending shunt (35.3%) group were above the 99th-percentile. Two patients from each group (external tournique occlusion group 11.1% vs. intraluminal-left anterior descending shunt group 11.8%) had peak values above 10-% coeficient of variation cutoff (p = 1). There were no significant differences in between both groups at all studied timepoints.",
"Perinatal asphyxia is associated with cardiac dysfunction secondary to myocardial ischaemia. Cardiac troponin I (cTnI) is a marker of myocardial necrosis. Raised concentrations in the blood are related to perinatal asphyxia and increased morbidity. To assess porcine myocardial damage from enzyme release during hypoxaemia induced global ischaemia, and subsequent resuscitation with ambient air or 100% O(2). To investigate whether CO(2) level during resuscitation influences myocardial damage. Newborn piglets (12-36 hours) were exposed to hypoxaemia by ventilation with 8% O(2) in nitrogen. When mean arterial blood pressure had fallen to 15 mm Hg, or base excess to < -20 mmol/l, the animals were randomly resuscitated by ventilation with either 21% O(2) (group A, n = 29) or 100% O(2) (group B, n = 29) for 30 minutes. Afterwards they were observed in ambient air for another 150 minutes. During resuscitation, the two groups were further divided into three subgroups with different CO(2) levels. Blood samples were analysed for cTnI, myoglobin, and creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) at baseline and at the end of the study. cTnI increased more than 10-fold (p < 0.001) in all the groups. Myoglobin and CK-MB doubled in concentration.",
"Collaterals provide significant blood supply to the myocardium at risk and the presence of a preserved and adequate collateral network may limit microvascular damage during the occlusion of an epicardial coronary artery. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether thrombolytic therapy (TT) may produce beneficial effects at the level of microvascular circulation in addition to epicardial coronary artery recanalization by using quantitative intracoronary pressure measurement techniques in patients with recent acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Thirty-six patients who presented with AMI and had preinfarction angina pectoris, more than 60% stenosis and thrombolysis in myocardial infarction (TIMI) grade II flow in the infarct-related artery and who underwent a stent implantation procedure within 10 days of AMI were included in this study. Seventeen of 36 patients had received TT (group 1) and 19 had not received TT due to presence of contraindications or late admission (group 2). Quantitative coronary angiography, TIMI frame count (TFC) assessment and intracoronary pressure measurements were performed before and after stent implantation for all patients. Myocardial fractional flow reserve (FFRmyo) was calculated as the ratio of mean distal coronary pressure to mean aortic pressure. During total occlusion with balloon inflation, distal pressure was recorded as coronary wedge pressure (CWP). Collateral flow index (CFI) was determined by the ratio of simultaneously measured CWP to mean aortic pressure. There were no differences between the two groups with respect to mean per cent stenosis and mean FFRmyo both before and after stent implantation. The mean CWP (25.1 +/- 8.6 mmHg compared with 17.2 +/- 6.2 mmHg, P<0.01) and CFI (0.24 +/- 0.10 compared with 0.16 +/- 0.11, P<0.01) were significantly higher and mean post-stent corrected TFC (18.8 +/- 3.7 compared with 22.4 +/- 3.1, P<0.01) was significantly faster in the group of patients who had received TT compared to those who had not.",
"yes. (99m)Tc-methylene diphosphonate SPECT is more sensitive than MRI for the detection of femoral head osteonecrosis in renal transplant recipients. Bone scintigraphy with SPECT is needed to diagnose osteonecrosis in patients with hip pain despite normal radiography results after renal transplantation. The significance of a transient SPECT abnormality needs to be clarified by further natural history studies.",
"Despite widespread prophylactic use of implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) therapy, sudden cardiac death and refractory arrhythmia events are still important clinical issues to be overcome. We examined whether the impairment of cardiac sympathetic innervation and myocardial perfusion is responsible for lethal arrhythmic events and has prognostic value by comparing conventional clinical indices. In consecutive ICDs implanted in 60 patients, cardiac uptake of (123)I-metaiodobenzylguanidine and (99m)Tc-tetrofosmin at rest was quantified, and then patients were prospectively followed with endpoints of appropriate ICD shocks or cardiac death. Cardiac metaiodobenzylguanidine activity was quantified as a heart-to-mediastinum ratio (HMR), and impaired tetrofosmin uptake was graded as a summed score (SS) using a computerized technique with a percentage of tracer uptake. During a mean 29-mo interval, ICD shock was documented in 30 patients (50%); 3 cardiac deaths were also observed in this group of patients. Patients with ICD shocks had a significantly smaller HMR and a greater SS than did those without (1.73 +/- 0.34 vs. 2.06 +/- 0.46, P = 0.003, and 18.0 +/- 16.2 vs. 5.7 +/- 4.4, P = 0.001, respectively). Kaplan-Meier analysis showed that patients who had both an HMR of 1.90 or less and an SS of 12 or greater had a significantly greater ICD discharge rate than did those who had both an HMR greater than 1.90 and an SS less than 12 (94% vs. 18%, P < 0.005) (log rank, 15.14; P < 0.0005). Multivariate analysis with a Cox model identified the greatest Wald chi(2) of 6.454 and a hazard ratio of 3.857 (P = 0.011) when an HMR of 1.9 or less and tetrofosmin SS of 12 or greater were combined.",
"Myocardial perfusion scintigraphy (MPS) is a diagnostic tool commonly used to detect significant coronary lesion. However equivocal, false negative or positive results can be yielded. Controversial findings regarding the role of ischemia-modified albumin (IMA) in MPS evaluation persist. The aim of the present study was to examine the role of serum IMA in the assessment of MPS results. MPS using technetium (99mTc) sestamibi and transthoracic echocardiography was performed on 62 consecutive subjects prospectively enrolled. Exercise treadmill test (ETT) with modified Bruce protocol was used to induce coronary ischemia. During MPS performance, blood samples for serum IMA were obtained at 3 times: at pre-exercise, at the peak of ETT, and 6 hours after ETT. Patients were classified into 3 groups according to MPS results (normal, equivocal, and ischemia). Sixty-two patients (23 normal, 20 equivocal, 19 with ischemia) were included. Pre- and peak-exercise IMA values were similar among the groups (p=0.706 and 0.904). Post-exercise IMA values of the normal and equivocal groups were similar (p=0.733), while that of the ischemia group was significantly higher than the values of either the normal (p<0.001) or equivocal groups (p<0.001). ΔIMA (the difference between post-exercise and peak-exercise IMA) of the ischemia group was significantly higher than that of either the normal (p<0.001) or equivocal groups (p<0.001).",
"Serum levels of cardiac troponin I (cTnI) are frequently measured in the evaluation of potential heart donors. However, the utility of cTnI levels for predicting recipient outcomes remains controversial. This study was performed to determine whether donor cardiac cTnI levels exceeding 1.0 microg/liter are associated with adverse recipient outcomes. All donors managed by the California Transplant Donor Network between January 2001 and July 2002 with consent for donor evaluation and at least 1 measured cTnI level were included in the study if 1-year recipient mortality data were available. Each study subject was classified as having elevated cTnI if any level exceeded 1.0 microg/liter. Donor variables, recipient risk of 30-day and 1-year mortality, and recipient need for mechanical circulatory support were compared between the 2 groups. A total of 263 potential donors were evaluated, and 98 had elevated cTnI levels. Of these potential donors, 139 were accepted for transplantation. The cTnI levels were normal in 96 and elevated in 43. Most donors (77%) with elevated cTnI levels had levels of less than 10 microg/liter. Donor cardiopulmonary resuscitation was associated with cTnI elevations. Donors with elevated cTnI levels did not require higher doses of inotropic drugs before transplantation and had similar hemodynamic profiles compared with donors with normal cTnI levels. Although there was a trend towards longer post-transplant hospitalization in recipients of grafts from donors with elevated cTnI levels (17 days vs 15 days, p = 0.044), there was no significant difference in the recipient need for mechanical circulatory support or 30-day and 1-year mortality between the 2 groups.",
"Although primary graft dysfunction (PGD) is a leading cause of mortality and morbidity early post-heart transplant, relatively little is known regarding mechanisms involved in PGD development. We examined the relationship between cardiac troponin I (cTnI) concentrations in the preservation solution from 43 heart transplant procedures and the development of PGD. Donor hearts were flushed with cold preservation solution (University of Wisconsin [UW] or Custodiol) and stored in the same solution. cTnI concentrations were measured utilizing the i-STAT System and normalized to left ventricular mass. Recipient medical records were reviewed to determine PGD according to the 2014 ISHLT consensus conference. Nineteen patients developed PGD following cardiac transplantation. For both UW and Custodiol, normalized cTnI levels were significantly increased (P = .031 and .034, respectively) for those cases that developed PGD versus no PGD. cTnI levels correlated with duration of ischemic time in the UW group, but not for the Custodiol group. Donor age and donor cTnI (obtained prior to organ procurement) did not correlate with preservation cTnI levels in either UW or Custodiol.",
"yes. These data suggest that cardiac sympathetic nervous activation was associated with ongoing cardiomyocyte damage characterized by an elevated serum level of H-FABP in patients with heart failure. 123I-MIBG imaging is an appropriate approach to evaluate non-invasively not only cardiac sympathetic nervous activity, but also latent ongoing myocardial damage in the failing heart.",
"Cardiac troponin-T is a sensitive marker of myocardial damage. In a prospective study, the effect of 2 different pH strategies during cardiopulmonary bypass on ischemic myocardial injury and clinical outcome was measured in a pediatric population. One hundred one patients (31 neonates 13.2+/-8.3 days and 70 children 34.5+/-44.1 months of age) undergoing open-heart surgery were selected to either alpha-stat (n=51) or pH-stat (n=50) acid-based management protocol. Serum troponin-T levels were measured before and 30 minutes after bypass and then 4 and 24 hours postoperatively. Surgical procedure, bypass details, inotropic support requirement, and postoperative recovery were recorded. Baseline troponin-T level was higher in neonates than in children (0.18+/-0.22 versus 0.04+/-0.05 microg/L, P=0.02). Also, a higher baseline level was found in patients with pulmonary hypertension (0.13+/-0.21 versus 0.04+/-0.05 microg/L, P=0.04). Cyanotic children showed a higher peak troponin-T level (3.76+/-3.11 versus 1.67+/-1.33 microg/L, P=0.04). Peak troponin levels showed a correlation with the length of circulatory arrest and aortic cross-clamp time. Postoperative levels remained high at 24 hours in patients requiring inotropic support. Peak troponin-T levels were significantly lower in the pH-stat group in patients with pulmonary hypertension (P=0.03) and in cases where circulatory arrest (P=0.01) or inotropic support (P=0.01) was necessary during operation than in those with alpha-stat technique. Postoperative ventilation time and length of intensive care unit stay were also significantly longer with alpha-stat than with pH-stat technique (P=0.005 and P=0.006, respectively).",
"yes. Increased cTnI values in potential heart donors are statistically associated with myocardial dysfunction and could be helpful for organ selection. In contrast, cTnI values in heart donors were not associated with graft dysfunction or recipient survival after transplantation.",
"We have advocated the use of a 5-category \"normal,\" \"probably normal,\" \"equivocal,\" \"probably abnormal,\" and \"definitely abnormal\" approach to final interpretation of myocardial perfusion single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT). The prognostic value of expressing levels of certainty compared with a dichotomous normal/abnormal classification or categories for summed stress scores is unclear. Myocardial perfusion SPECT (MPS) was visually assessed using a standard semiquantitative approach, yielding summed scores that were used for preliminary interpretation using 5 levels of certainty. The interpreter was permitted to then shift the level of certainty in the final interpretation by 1 degree, based on nonperfusion MPS variables and available clinical information. To examine the prognostic value of expressing levels of clinical certainty, we evaluated 20 740 unique consecutive patients who underwent rest Tl-201/stress Tc-99m sestamibi MPS (34.3% vasodilator stress), of whom 845 (4.4%) were lost to follow-up and 1695 were excluded from prognostic analysis due to an early revascularization (<60 days after MPS). The remaining 18 200 patients (59.1% men; age, 65+/-13 years) were followed up for cardiac death for a mean of 2.7+/-1.7 years. During the follow-up, a total of 591 cardiac death events occurred. By univariable analysis, there were substantial differences in the distribution of follow-up cardiac death by the category of clinical MPS certainty. The clinical certainty was found to be an independent multivariable predictor of cardiac death in the study population and better identified patients at increased risk of cardiac death than the approaches based solely on the standard categories of summed perfusion scores or based solely on categories of segmental perfusion scores.",
"To assess complement-mediated myocardial injury on isolated guinea pig working hearts and cardioprotective effects of CD59. Using a modified Langendorff apparatus, isolated guinea-pig working hearts were perfused with a modified Krebs Henseleit buffer containing 3% heat-inactivated human plasma and zymosan (IPZ) (control) (n = 10), 3% normal human plasma and zymosan (NPZ) (n = 10), or 3% normal human plasma and zymosan and 1.5 microg/ml CD59 (NPZC) (n = 10), respectively. Epicardial electrocardiogram (ECG), cardiac output (CO), coronary arterial flow (CF), maximum left ventricular developed pressure (LVP(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure increase rate (+ dp/dt(max)), maximum left ventricular developed pressure decrease rate (- dp/dt(max)) and heart rate (HR) were recorded at 0, 15, 30, 45 and 60 min of treatment. After the experiment, immunohistochemical examination was performed to detect the presence of C3a or C5b-9 in the myocardium of the isolated hearts. Compared the IPZ group, hearts treated with NPZ showed a slight depression on ST segments of epicardial ECG at 15 min, a significant elevation between 30 min to 60 min, a decrease in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max), and an increase in HR at 15 min. The observed alterations in CF, CO, LVP(max), + dp/dt(max) and - dp/dt(max) remained decreased, while the HR remained increased until the end of the protocol. The all above parameters of hearts treated with NPZC were similar to the control group (IPZ) at any given time. Immunohistochemical examination showed positive signals of C3a and C5b-9 in the myocardium of hearts treated with NPZ. C3a was positive in NPZC, and C3a and C5b-9 were negative in IPZ.",
"This study was designed to evaluate the adenosine-triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel opener pinacidil as a blood cardioplegic agent. Using a blood-perfused, parabiotic, Langendorff rabbit model, hearts underwent 30 minutes of normothermic ischemia protected with blood cardioplegia (St. Thomas' solution [n = 8] or Krebs-Henseleit solution with pinacidil [50 micromol/L, n = 81) and 30 minutes of reperfusion. Percent recovery of developed pressure, mechanical arrest, electrical arrest, reperfusion ventricular fibrillation, percent tissue water, and myocardial oxygen consumption were compared. The percent recovery of developed pressure was not different between the groups (52.3 +/- 5.9 and 52.8 +/- 6.9 for hyperkalemic and pinacidil cardioplegia, respectively). Pinacidil cardioplegia was associated with prolonged electrical and mechanical activity (14.4 +/- 8.7 and 6.1 +/- 3.9 minutes), compared with hyperkalemic cardioplegia (1.1 +/- 0.6 and 1.1 +/- 0.6 minutes, respectively; p < 0.05). Pinacidil cardioplegia was associated with a higher reperfusion myocardial oxygen consumption (0.6 +/- 0.1 versus 0.2 +/- 0.0 mL/100 g myocardium/beat; p < 0.05) and a higher percent of tissue water (79.6% +/- 0.7% versus 78.6% +/- 1.2%; p < 0.05).",
"Myocardial ischemic injury after heart transplantation is associated with subsequent development of graft vasculopathy. Both vitronectin receptor (integrin alpha(v)beta3) and tissue factor play key roles in vascular endothelial cell injury. Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) are activated in ischemic injury models. Thirteen patients developed myocardial ischemic injury within 2 weeks of cardiac transplantation (ischemia group). These were compared with 10 transplantation patients who had no evidence of ischemia (control group). Endomyocardial biopsies were evaluated within 2 weeks of transplantation for alpha(v)beta3, tissue factor, and extracellular MMP inducer (EMMPRIN). At 1 year, MMPs were evaluated, and interstitial myocardial fibrosis was quantified. All patients underwent intravascular ultrasound at 1 month and 1 year after transplantation. Compared with control, the ischemia group demonstrated evidence of significant increased expression of alpha(v)beta3 (3.2-fold, P<0.001), tissue factor (2.5-fold, P<0.001), and EMMPRIN (1.9-fold, P=0.01). At 1 year, the ischemia group had a significant increase in myocardial fibrosis (24+/-1.8% versus 14+/-1.1%, P<0.001) and zymographic activity of MMP-2 (1.4-fold, P<0.001), MMP-3 (1.2-fold, P<0.001), and MMP-9 (1.3-fold, P=0.01). Coronary vasculopathy progression was also more advanced in the ischemia group (change in coronary maximal intimal thickness over 1 year 0.54+/-0.1 versus 0.26+/-0.06 mm; P=0.031).",
"Microthromboemboli (MTE) may contribute to the no-reflow phenomenon in acute myocardial infarction (AMI) either spontaneously or after primary percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). We hypothesized that myocardial MTE in acute coronary syndromes can be identified on imaging by in vivo (99m)Tc labeling of the coronary thrombus with a compound that binds to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa present on activated platelets (DMP-444). Fifteen dogs underwent left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) injury in to produce thrombus, whereas 5 control dogs had LAD ligation. Before recanalization, the risk area (RA) and myocardial blood flow (MBF) were measured, and in vivo thrombus labeling was performed using (99m)Tc-labeled DMP-444. Nine of the 15 LAD injury dogs had occlusive thrombus on angiography and underwent PTCA. MBF measurements were repeated 30 and 60 min after recanalization, and (99m)Tc autoradiography (hot spot imaging) was performed ex vivo to determine the extent and magnitude of MTE. The ratio of hot spot size to RA size was higher in the 9 LAD injury dogs with thrombus compared with the 6 dogs with no thrombus (90% +/- 22% vs. 42% +/- 16%; P = 0.005). In control dogs, this ratio was significantly lower (29% +/- 11%; P = 0.05). (99m)Tc activity within the RA was higher in 8 of the 15 coronary injury dogs with AMI compared with those without AMI (1.8 +/- 0.48 vs. 1.24 +/- 0.22; P = 0.02).",
"Cardiac troponins replaced creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes as criterion standards for the laboratory diagnosis of myocardial damage. However, there are only few publications on correlations of cardiac troponin T (cTnT) with pathologically determined infarct size which are flawed by insufficient sample size. In 38 anesthetized wildtype mice, the chest and pericardium were opened and the left descending artery was ligated. After sham operation, all mice recovered. Twenty-four hours after surgical induction of acute myocardial infarction heparinized blood samples were collected, the animals sacrificed and hearts harvested. Plasma cTnT was measured by a quantitative rapid assay using the Cardiac Reader (Roche Diagnostics). The hearts were cut into four transverse sections which were stained with 1.5% triphenyltetrazolium chloride for evaluation of necrosis by computerized planimetry. Pearson correlation coefficients were calculated between histological infarct size and cardiac markers. Infarct sizes ranged from 14% to 55% of left ventricle and cTnT concentrations from 3.9 to 14.1 microg/l. cTnT correlated closely with histological infarct size (r = 0.84, p < 0.001).",
"Important differences in hemodynamics and tracer kinetics occur with dipyridamole compared to exercise scintigraphy. To better understand the clinical significance of dipyridamole SPECT 201Tl scintigraphy, we examined the relationships between scintigraphy and clinical, and angiographic and hemodynamic variables in patients with CAD. Forty-nine subjects were divided into three study groups. Patients in Groups A (n = 11) and B (n = 20) had a low (<5%) likelihood of CAD. Group A underwent maximal exercise thallium stress testing. Group B underwent thallium dipyridamole scintigraphy. Group C (n = 18) consisted of patients with coronary artery disease who had dipyridamole thallium scintigraphy and cardiac catheterization within 2 wk. Thallium lung-to-myocardial ratio (L/M), left ventricular dilation and perfusion defect site were compared to hemodynamic, clinical and angiographic variables. The Group A L/M ratio of 0.23 +/- 0.05 (mean +/- 1 s.d.) was significantly lower (p < 0.001) compared to the Group B L/M ratio of 0.31 +/- 0.05. In Group C, the UM ratio showed correlation with indices of left ventricular dysfunction including lower resting ejection fraction (p = 0.02, r = 0.83), higher pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (p = 0.01, r = 0.58) and lower cardiac index (p = 0.03, r = 0.54). Left ventricular dilation was associated with hemodynamic changes of ventricular failure including lower resting ejection fraction (p = 0.008, r = 0.88) and higher pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (p = 0.02, r =0.54). Immediate and delayed perfusion defect size showed good correlation with lower resting left ventricular ejection fraction (p = 0.02, r = 0.83, and p = 0.004, r = 0.91, respectively).",
"Inflammation that occurs after acute myocardial infarction plays a pivotal role in healing by facilitating the creation of a supportive scar. (18)F-FDG, which is taken up avidly by macrophages, has been proposed as a marker of cell-based inflammation. However, its reliability as an accurate indicator of inflammation has not been established, particularly in the early postinfarction period when regional myocardial perfusion is often severely compromised. Nine adult dogs underwent left anterior descending coronary occlusion with or without reperfusion. Animals were imaged between 7 and 21 d after infarction with PET/MR imaging after bolus injection of gadolinium-diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA), bolus injection of (18)F-FDG, bolus injection of (99)Tc-DTPA to simulate the distribution of gadolinium-DTPA (which represents its partition coefficient in well-perfused tissue), and injection of (111)In-labeled white blood cells 24 h earlier. After sacrifice, myocardial tissue concentrations of (18)F, (111)In, and (99)Tc were determined in a well counter. Linear regression analysis evaluated the relationships between the concentrations of (111)In and (18)F and the dependence of the ratio of (111)In/(18)F to the apparent distribution volume of (99m)Tc-DTPA. In 7 of 9 animals, (111)In increased as (18)F increased with the other 2 animals, showing weak negative slopes. With respect to the dependence of (111)In/(18)F with partition coefficient, 4 animals showed no dependence and 4 showed a weak positive slope, with 1 animal showing a negative slope. Further, in regions of extensive microvascular obstruction, (18)F significantly underestimated the extent of the presence of (111)In.",
"TcPPT has the potential to quantify myocardial injury induced by brain death and its potential utility merits further investigation.",
"yes. Elevated cTnT and PCT levels in the serum of heart donors were independent prognostic markers of early graft failure. This fact may suggest two different mechanisms of early graft failure: primary myocardial damage and damage related to systemic inflammatory response. The combination of both markers had a higher sensitivity than each parameter on its own. Their use as additional parameters may improve heart donor selection.",
"Myocardial imaging with I-123-beta-methyl-p-iodophenyl-methylpentadecanoic acid (BMIPP) is useful for predicting the outcome of patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). But its usefulness in asymptomatic patients is unclear. Eighteen patients with asymptomatic HCM were examined with BMIPP and exercise stress perfusion imaging and then followed for 4.0 +/- 0.8 years. Extent of the defect (total defect score, TDS) and myocardial uptake of BMIPP (%uptake) were calculated to evaluate the BMIPP images. In the first study abnormal findings in the BMIPP and perfusion images were detected of 67 and 22% of the patients, respectively. In the second BMIPP study, the TDS had increased (2.1 +/- 2.7 to 4.1 +/- 4.9, p<0.005) and the %uptake had decreased (5.67 +/- 0.88% to 4.81 +/- 0.91%, p<0.001), but there were no differences in myocardial perfusion between the first and second study. Exertional dyspnea developed in 17% of the patients, and they were among the one third of the patients with the greatest reduction of %uptake. This group also showed deterioration of left ventricular (LV) %fractional shortening and LV volume in the second study.",
"Guidelines for treatment of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) recommend observing a rise or fall in cardiac troponin (cTn) concentrations for assessing acute injury. It is unknown whether a rising pattern presages a more adverse long-term prognosis than elevations that do not change. The present study assessed whether a rising pattern of cardiac biomarkers was more prognostic than simple elevations. We measured N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) (Roche), cTnT (Roche) and cTnI (Beckman Coulter) in 212 ACS patients. These biomarkers were measured in coincident EDTA and heparin plasma samples available from at least 2 different time points, an early first specimen obtained a median of 2 hours after onset of symptoms, interquartile range (IQR) 2-4 hours, and a later second specimen obtained at 9 hours, IQR 9-9 hours. The cTn concentration in the second specimen was used to classify myocardial necrosis (cTnI>0.04 ug/L; cTnT>0.01 ug/L). Outcomes [death, myocardial infarction (MI), heart failure (HF)] were obtained>8 years after the initial presentation. For patients with myocardial necrosis and a cTn concentration ratio (second/first measured concentrations)>or =1.00, the concentration ratios and the absolute concentrations in the second specimen were used to assess prognosis after 4 years. In myocardial necrosis, the relative change (cTn2/cTn1) was greater for cTnI than for cTnT (P<0.01), whereas the relative change in NT-proBNP was the same regardless of which troponin was used to classify necrosis (P = 0.71). The concentration ratio for cTnI, cTnT, and NT-proBNP was not useful for risk stratification (i.e., death/MI/HF; P>or =0.15).",
"To evaluate the concordance between thallium-201 uptake and echocardiographic wall thickening, which are both indicators of potentially reversible myocardial dysfunction, in patients with chronic ischaemic left ventricular failure and to assess their relative contribution to predicting improvement in regional function after revascularisation in a subgroup. 45 patients with chronic ischaemic left ventricular dysfunction (mean (SD) ejection fraction 25 (8)%) underwent echocardiography before and after dobutamine infusion (10 micrograms/kg/min). Of these, 22 patients underwent rest echocardiography at a mean (SD) of 9 (1) weeks after revascularisation. 201Tl imaging was performed during dobutamine echocardiography and at rest, 1, and 4 h after treatment with sublingual glyceryl trinitrate on two separate days. Potentially reversible dysfunction was thought to be present when a myocardial segment contained a Tl score of > or = 3 (ascending score 1-4), or showed improved wall thickening of a dysynergic segment during dobutamine stimulation. Of the 201Tl protocols, the redistribution scan 1 h after treatment with glyceryl trinitrate best demonstrated myocardial viability. Concordance between 201Tl and dobutamine induced wall thickening was 82% (kappa = 0.59) for detecting potentially reversible myocardial dysfunction before revascularisation (n = 45). Regional function improved in 18 of 22 patients after revascularisation. There were 168 dysynergic segments before intervention. The sensitivity of echocardiography and 201Tl imaging for detecting \"recoverable\" or viable segments after revascularisation was 87% and 92% respectively and specificity was 82% and 78% respectively (P = NS).",
"We examined whether the improvement of left ventricular function after percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) in patients with one diseased vessel can be predicted by the quantitative indices from exercise stress 201Tl single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) and radionuclide angiography (RNA) before PTCA. Exercise stress 201Tl myocardial SPECT and RNA were performed before and after PTCA in 28 patients with old myocardial infarction (OMI). The patients were divided into two groups according to the results of coronary angiogram performed at 3 to 6 months after PTCA; patency was confirmed in 22 patients (Group P) and restenosis was observed in the remaining 6 patients (Group S). In Group P, the count ratios defined as 201Tl uptake in the PTCA region divided by the uptake in the normal region were significantly improved at 1 week and 3 to 6 months after PTCA in the initial image. 201Tl washout rates in the normal regions were significantly increased at 1 week after PTCA in Group S, and these rates in the PTCA regions were significantly increased at 1 week after PTCA in Group P. Left ventricular ejection fractions (LVEF) obtained from RNA were significantly improved 1 week and 3 to 6 months after PTCA in Group P. The changes of LVEF between pre-PTCA and 3 to 6 months after PTCA (delta LVEF) were significantly correlated with the count ratios of both initial and delayed SPECT images in Group P (r = 0.652; p<0.01, r = 0.645; p<0.01 respectively). From the multiple regression analysis using stepwise methods, the count ratio in delayed image and the LVEF before PTCA were selected as independent predictive variables for delta LVEF (multiple correlation coefficient = 0.776).",
"yes. (99m)Tc-sestamibi myocardial activity is significantly reduced in areas of nonviability after 1 h of tracer uptake and 1 h of tracer clearance. There is a linear correlation between myocardial viability, as determined by three independent methods, and tracer activity.",
"Thallium 201 reinjection has been shown to enhance the detection of myocardial ischemia in patients with chronic coronary artery disease. However, limited data are available regarding its value in patients after acute myocardial infarction. We performed adenosine Tl-201 tomography in 126 patients in stable condition at a mean of 5 +/- 3 days after acute myocardial infarction (MI). After acquisition of redistribution images, patients were reinjected with 1 mCi of Tl-201 and reinjection images were then obtained. The stress, redistribution, and reinjection images were quantified to determine the total perfusion defect size and percent ischemia and scar. The mean age of patients was 54 +/- 10 years. Of the patients, 64% were male, 56% had Q-wave MI, 46% had anterior MI, and 34% received thrombolysis. The percent total defect size was the same on the stress-redistribution and stress-reinjection images (28.3% +/- 19.0%). The reinjection images showed an increase in ischemic defect size (14.7% +/- 13.5% vs 12.8% +/- 12.0%, P =.001) and a decrease in scar defect size (13.6% +/- 13.1% vs 15.5% +/- 13.9%, P =.001) compared with the redistribution images. The enhancement in the detection of myocardial ischemia was seen in both the infarct (P =.001) and noninfarct (P =.01) zones.",
"To determine whether there is a correlation between cardiac markers and peri-operative myocardial injury (PMI) and apoptosis in coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and to compare the efficacy of cardiac markers to detect PMI. The study population consisted of 37 patients (24 male, 13 female, mean age 63.4 ± 8.9 years) undergoing elective CABG. Arterial and coronary sinus blood samples were collected just before aortic cross-clamping (pre-ACC) and after aortic declamping (post-ACC). Creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme (CK-MB) activity, and high-sensitivity cardiac troponin T (hs-cTnT), creatine kinase-MB isoenzyme mass (CK-MB mass) and cardiac troponin I (cTnI) concentrations were measured in blood samples. Myocardial injury and apoptosis were examined in atrial biopsies. CABG caused PMI and apoptosis in all cases. Concentrations and net releases of cardiac markers significantly increased after aortic declamping (p < 0.001 for CK-MB and CK-MB mass, p < 0.01 for cTnI, p < 0.05 for hs-cTnT). A positive correlation was found between apoptotic index (r = 0.611, p < 0.001 for cTnI; r = 0.806, p < 0.001 for hs-cTnT), myocardial injury score (r = 0.544, p < 0.001 for cTnI; r = 0.719, p < 0.001 for hs-cTnT) and cTnI and hs-cTnT values in the post-ACC period. A positive correlation was found between apoptotic index (r = 0.507, p < 0.001), myocardial injury score (r = 0.416, p = 0.010) and net release of hs-cTnT. Furthermore, a positive correlation was found between aortic cross-clamp (ACC) time (r = 0.448, p = 0.007), cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) time (r = 0.342, p = 0.047) and net release of hs-cTnT.",
"To determine whether a single blood test for the measurement of C reactive protein, or troponin I or T concentrations could be used to stratify patients with intractable unstable angina awaiting transfer for coronary angiography by correlating these values with coronary anatomy and transient myocardial ischaemia. Prospective study. Tertiary cardiac unit. All patients admitted to their local hospital with ischaemic chest pain, uncontrolled by medical treatment, in whom acute myocardial infarction had been excluded by serial measurement of creatine kinase and lack of Q waves on ECG. Coronary angiography and ST segment monitoring for 24 hours. Concentrations of C reactive protein, troponins T and I, coronary anatomy, presence of transient myocardial ischaemia. Median C reactive protein, troponin I, and troponin T concentrations were 17.1 mg/dl (4.8 to 203.9), 0.05 microgram/l (0 to 7.8), and 0.0 microgram/l (0 to 2.51), respectively. Seven patients (10%) had normal coronaries and 14, 20, and 31 had one, two, or three vessel coronary disease, respectively. Nineteen (26%) had transient myocardial ischaemia, 33 (46%) had complex lesion morphology, and six (8%) had intracoronary thrombus. Of the three markers, troponin T alone was higher in patients with multivessel disease (p<0.05) and in those with transient myocardial ischaemia (p<0.05), but there was no significant relation between C reactive protein, troponin T or I and lesion morphology or thrombus.",
"Risk assessment of patients undergoing transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) remains difficult. Biomarkers have been shown to provide potential prognostic information. Here, we aimed to analyze whether the biomarker high-sensitivity Troponin T (hsTNT) could be used to improve risk stratification. We prospectively enrolled 267 patients undergoing TAVI. Biomarkers (hsTNT and NTproBNP) were measured 1 day before, and 3 and 7 days postprocedure. All possible prognostic factors upon survival time were analyzed by Cox regression analysis. A total of 259 patients (mean age 82±6.1 years) were available for complete follow-up. The median Logistic EuroSCORE (Log ES) and Log ES II were 21.16% (Q1=13.92; Q3=34.27) and 6.42% (Q1=3.89; Q3=11.07), respectively. Median follow-up was 290 (Q1=88; Q3=529) days. A total of 71 deaths occurred during follow-up, and the 30-day mortality was 5.8%. Median baseline hsTNT was 27.4 pg/mL (Q1=16.2; Q3=46 pg/mL). From all potential mortality-associated factors, only preprocedural hsTNT level (P=.001), elevated Log ES (P=.03) as well as acute kidney injury (P<.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (P=.039) emerged as independent prognostic parameters for adverse outcome. We also tested whether the Valve Academic Research Consortium-2 (VARC-II) cutoff for myocardial damage (hsTNT peak value exceeding 15× the upper reference limit + at least 50% increase) was of prognostic relevance. At 72-hours post-TAVI, 36.2% of the patients matched these VARC-II criteria of myocardial damage. However, these patients did not display a difference in survival compared to patients without significant myocardial injury.",
"The purpose of this study was to evaluate whether 123-iodine metaiodobenzylguanidine (123-I MIBG) imaging predicts ventricular arrhythmias causing appropriate implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) therapy (primary end point) and the composite of appropriate ICD therapy or cardiac death (secondary end point). Although cardiac sympathetic denervation is associated with ventricular arrhythmias, limited data are available on the predictive value of sympathetic nerve imaging with 123-I MIBG on the occurrence of arrhythmias. Before ICD implantation, patients underwent 123-I MIBG and myocardial perfusion imaging. Early and late 123-I MIBG (planar and single-photon emission computed tomography [SPECT]) imaging was performed to assess cardiac innervation (heart-to-mediastinum ratio, cardiac washout rate, and 123-I MIBG SPECT defect score). Stress-rest myocardial perfusion imaging was performed to assess myocardial infarction and perfusion abnormalities (perfusion defect scores). During follow-up, appropriate ICD therapy and cardiac death were documented. One-hundred sixteen heart failure patients referred for ICD therapy were enrolled. During a mean follow-up of 23 +/- 15 months, appropriate ICD therapy (primary end point) was documented in 24 (21%) patients and appropriate ICD therapy or cardiac death (secondary end point) in 32 (28%) patients. Late 123-I MIBG SPECT defect score was an independent predictor for both end points. Patients with a large late 123-I MIBG SPECT defect (summed score >26) showed significantly more appropriate ICD therapy (52% vs. 5%, p < 0.01) and appropriate ICD therapy or cardiac death (57% vs. 10%, p < 0.01) than patients with a small defect (summed score </=26) at 3-year follow-up.",
"yes. Myocardial ischemic injury after cardiac transplantation is associated with upregulation of alpha(v)beta3, tissue factor, and activation of the MMP induction system, which may contribute to the subsequent development of allograft remodeling and vasculopathy.",
"Molecular imaging is useful for longitudinal assessment of engraftment. However, it is not known which factors, other than cell number, can influence the molecular imaging signal obtained from reporter genes. The effects of cell dissociation/suspension on cellular bioenergetics and the signal obtained by firefly luciferase and human sodium-iodide symporter labeling of cardiosphere-derived cells were investigated. (18)Fluorodeoxyglucose uptake, ATP levels, (99m)Tc-pertechnetate uptake, and bioluminescence were measured in vitro in adherent and suspended cardiosphere-derived cells. In vivo dual-isotope single-photon emission computed tomography/computed tomography imaging or bioluminescence imaging (BLI) was performed 1 hour and 24 hours after cardiosphere-derived cell transplantation. Single-photon emission computed tomography quantification was performed using a phantom for signal calibration. Cell loss between 1 hour and 24 hours after transplantation was quantified by quantitative polymerase chain reaction and ex vivo luciferase assay. Cell dissociation followed by suspension for 1 hour resulted in decreased glucose uptake, cellular ATP, (99m)Tc uptake, and BLI signal by 82%, 43%, 42%, and 44%, respectively, compared with adherent cells, in vitro. In vivo (99m)Tc uptake was significantly lower at 1 hour compared with 24 hours after cell transplantation in the noninfarct (P<0.001; n=3) and infarct (P<0.001; n=4) models, despite significant cell loss during this period. The in vivo BLI signal was significantly higher at 1 hour than at 24 hours (P<0.01), with the BLI signal being higher when cardiosphere-derived cells were suspended in glucose-containing medium compared with saline (PBS).",
"yes. Abnormal myocardial 123I-MIBG accumulation is related to an impaired myocardial contractile reserve and down-regulation of SERCA2 mRNA in DCM. Myocardial 123I-MIBG scintigraphy can be useful in noninvasively evaluating myocardial contractile reserve in patients with mild to moderate DCM.",
"To investigate early haemodynamic changes after transfemoral transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) and the relationship with myocardial injury and neurohormonal activation. Single-centre prospective observational study. Tertiary cardiac centre. 42 patients undergoing transfemoral TAVI were included in this study. Haemodynamic measurements and echocardiography-derived indices characterising myocardial function were recorded at baseline, 6 and 24 h postprocedure. Postprocedural myocardial injury was quantified using serum troponin I and CK-MB levels. In addition, biomarkers of myocardial dysfunction/heart failure and neurohormonal activation were measured. 6 h Post-TAVI there was a significant deterioration in both systolic and diastolic function as measured by dP/dt(max)/EDV, myocardial performance index and mean E/e' index. Recovery of myocardial function was observed at 24 h. These haemodynamic changes were associated with a significant increase in both troponin I (0.07±0.01 vs 1.59±0.21 μg/l, p<0.005) and CK-MB (1.99±0.19 vs 6.82±0.7 ng/ml, p<0.005). There was a positive correlation among myocardial injury and NT-BNP (r=0.34, p<0.0005), aldosterone (r=0.56, p<0.0001) and ST2 levels (r=0.21, p<0.05).",
"Cardiac troponin T (cTnT) >0.1 microg/l and procalcitonin (PCT) >2 microg/l in the serum of heart donors are predictors of early graft failure after heart transplantation (HTx). The current study investigates the relationship between these two markers and their prognostic value when one or both of them are elevated. Cardiac TnT and PCT were measured in serum from 92 consecutive brain-dead donors accepted for HTx. The donors were retrospectively divided into two groups: group I (n=78) donors of hearts with good function, group II (n=14) donors of hearts with early graft failure after transplantation. There were no correlations between cTnT and PCT values (r=0.12, P=0.27). In eight donors in group I one or both markers were elevated. In one donor both markers were above the cut-off levels. In 12 donors (86%) in group II one or both markers were elevated. In two donors both markers were above the cut-off levels and in a further two below. There was no significant interaction between the two markers in either group using a logistic regression model (P=0.28).",
"yes. Diffuse myocardial injuries are common in HT patients, and increased T1 values are correlated with FT3 and cardiac function impairment. These findings indicate that T1 mapping might be useful in evaluating myocardial injuries in HT patients.",
"Cardiac sympathetic denervation and ventricular arrhythmia are frequently observed in chronic Chagas cardiomyopathy (CCC). This study quantitatively evaluated the association between cardiac sympathetic denervation and sustained ventricular tachycardia (SVT) in patients with CCC. We prospectively investigated patients with CCC and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) greater than 35% with SVT (SVT group: n = 15; mean age ± SD, 61 ± 8 y; LVEF, 51% ± 8%) and patients without SVT (non-SVT group: n = 11; mean age ± SD, 55 ± 10 y; LVEF, 57% ± 10%). Patients underwent myocardial scintigraphy with (123)I-metaiodobenzylguanidine ((123)I-MIBG) for the evaluation of sympathetic innervation and resting perfusion with (99m)Tc-methoxyisobutylisonitrile ((99m)Tc-MIBI) for the evaluation of myocardial viability. A visual semiquantitative score was attributed for regional uptake of each radiotracer using a 17-segment left ventricular segmentation model (0, normal; 4, absence of uptake). A mismatch defect was defined as occurring in segments with a (99m)Tc-MIBI uptake score of 0 or 1 and a (123)I-MIBG score of 2 or more. Compared with the non-SVT group, the SVT group had a similar (99m)Tc-MIBI summed score (6.9 ± 7.5 vs. 4.4 ± 5.2, respectively, P = 0.69) but a higher (123)I-MIBG summed score (10.9 ± 7.8 vs. 22.4 ± 9.5, respectively, P = 0.007) and a higher number of mismatch defects per patient (2.0 ± 2.2 vs. 7.1 ± 2.0, respectively, P < 0.0001). The presence of more than 3 mismatch defects was strongly associated with the presence of SVT (93% sensitivity, 82% specificity; P = 0.0002).",
"Plasma BNP and high-sensitivity cardiac troponin-T (hs-TnT) are elevated by both ischaemia and LV systolic dysfunction (LVSD). As a result, it is unknown whether BNP and/or hs-TnT could be useful biomarkers to identify ischaemia in the presence of LVSD. Three separate patient populations were studied. Study A (n = 500) involved consecutive patients undergoing clinically indicated myocardial perfusion scintigraphy, study B (n = 100) included patients with vascular disease but no known cardiac disease, and study C (n = 300) recruited primary prevention patients with controlled risk factors. Levels of BNP and hs-TnT were measured prior to the stress testing to detect myocardial ischaemia. The prevalence of myocardial ischaemia was 28.2, 28, and 6.3% in study A, B, and C, respectively. For BNP, area under curve (AUC) values to identify ischaemia in the presence and absence of coincidental LVSD were: 0.73 vs. 0.63 (study A), 0.90 vs. 0.81 (study B), and 0.83 vs. 0.80 (study C). Equivalent figures for hs-TnT were: 0.64 vs. 0.60 (study A), 0.75 vs. 0.68 (study B), and 0.53 vs. 0.68 (study C). BNP and hs-cTnT, when combined together, performed better with an AUC of 0.75 vs. 0.65 (study A), 0.91 vs. 0.92 (study B), and 0.84 vs. 0.83 (study C).",
"Retrograde perfusion into coronary sinus during coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery reduces the need for cardioplegic interruptions and ensures the distribution of cardioplegia to stenosed vessel territories, therefore enhancing the delivery of cardioplegia to the subendocardium. Peri-operative myocardial injury (PMI), as measured by the rise of serum level of cardiac biomarkers, has been associated with short and long-term clinical outcomes. We conducted a retrospective analysis to investigate whether the combination of antegrade and retrograde techniques of cardioplegia delivery is associated with a reduced PMI than that observed with the traditional methods of myocardial preservation. Fifty-four consecutive patients underwent CABG surgery using either antegrade cold blood cardioplegia (group 1, n = 28) or cross-clamp fibrillation (group 2, n = 16) or antegrade retrograde warm blood cardioplegia (group 3, n = 10). The study primary end-point was PMI, evaluated with total area under the curve (AUC) of high-sensitivity Troponin-T (hsTnT), measured pre-operatively and at 6, 12, 24, 48 and 72 hours post-surgery. Secondary endpoints were acute kidney injury (AKI) and inotrope scores, length of intensive care unit (ICU) and hospital stay, new onset atrial fibrillation (AF) and clinical outcomes at 6 weeks (death, non-fatal myocardial infarction, coronary artery revascularization, stroke). There was evidence that mean total AUC of hsTnT was different among the three groups (P = 0.050). In particular mean total AUC of hsTnT was significantly lower in group 3 compared to both group 1 (-16.55; 95% CI: -30.08, -3.01; P = 0.018) with slightly weaker evidence of a lower mean hsTnT in group 3 when compared to group 2 (-15.13; 95% CI -29.87, -0.39; P = 0.044). There was no evidence of a difference when comparing group 2 to group 1 (-1.42,; 95% CI: -12.95, 10.12, P = 0.806).",
"Several studies suggest that cardiac troponin-I (cTn-I) is a more sensitive indicator of cardiac injury compared with other biochemical markers of injury, but the strategy with the highest diagnostic yield (true positive and true negative) for perioperative surveillance is unknown. The authors undertook a prospective evaluation of the perioperative incidence of myocardial infarction (MI) and evaluated surveillance strategies for the diagnosis of MI. Prospective, cohort study. Two university hospitals. Four hundred sixty-seven high-risk patients requiring noncardiac surgery. None. The diagnosis of myocardial injury was determined by cardiac protein markers combined with either postoperative changes on 12-lead electrocardiography or 1 of 3 clinical symptoms consistent with MI (chest pain, dyspnea, requirement for hemodynamic support). A receiver operating characteristic curve evaluating troponin in the diagnosis of MI revealed a value of 2.6 ng/mL as having the highest sensitivity and specificity. The sensitivity and specificity of cTn-I value > or =2.6 ng/mL, troponin > or =1.5 ng/mL, total creatine kinase (CK) > or =170 IU/L with MB > or =5%, and CK-MB > or =8 ng/mL were compared. Surveillance strategies were determined on a subset of patients (n = 257). The incidence of MI was 9.0% by cTn-I > or =2.6 ng/mL criteria, 19% by cTn-I > or =1.5 ng/mL, 13% by CK-MB mass, and 2.8% by CK-MB%. The specificity of cTn-I > or =2.6 ng/mL as an indicator of MI was 98%, and its positive predictive value (PPV) was 85%. Cardiac troponin-I > or =2.6 ng/mL had equal specificity but greater PPV than the cTn-I > or =1.5 ng/mL (specificity 98% and PPV 79%). If surveillance of cTn-I > or =2.6 ng/mL was used to detect MI, then the strategy with the highest diagnostic yield was surveillance on postoperative days 1, 2, and 3.",
"Troponin levels have been demonstrated to predict mortality in patients with cardiomyopathy. Implantable cardiac defibrillator (ICD) devices have been demonstrated to improve survival. It is not clear if ICDs would mitigate the negative outcome predicted by elevated troponin levels. We collected baseline blood samples for troponin T (TnT) and creatinine kinase-MB fraction in consecutive patients immediately before successful pectoral transvenous ICD implant. Patients were followed for total mortality. For analysis, patients were grouped by TnT detectability (>or=0.01 ng/mL). Fifty-two men, aged 68 +/- 10 years, were studied. Mean ejection fraction was 29 +/- 12% and 65% had ischemic cardiomyopathy. Follow-up duration was 17 +/- 8 months. None of the patients had abnormal creatinine kinase-MB fraction levels (1.7 +/- 1.1 ng/mL). There were 37 patients with no detectable TnT (Group I) and 15 with detectable TnT (Group II). There was no difference between the two groups in terms of age (68 vs 69, P = NS), ejection fraction (30 vs 29%, P = NS), or proportion of patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy (68 vs 60%, P = NS). During follow-up 16 (31%) patients died. Patients in group I had mortality of 16% (6/37) compared to 67% mortality (10/15, P < 0.001) in group II. On multivariate analysis, detectable TnT remained an independent predictor of mortality (HR 4.5, CI 1.4-14.25, P = 0.01).",
"yes. These findings suggest that MLC-I, H-FABP, CK-MB, and TnT may be used as reliable markers for the evaluation of the severity of congestive heart failure.",
"yes. Although both cTnI and hs-cTnT may be specific and efficacious markers of myocardial apoptosis and injury occurring during CABG with CPB, hs-cTnT may be a more useful marker than cTnI to detect peri-operative myocardial apoptosis and injury.",
"Cadmium zinc telluride (CZT) detectors with linear counting rate response enable count subtraction in sequential scanning. We evaluated whether count subtraction eliminated the need for higher activity doses in the second part of the 1-d stress-rest myocardial perfusion imaging (MPI) protocol. For 50 patients (mean age ± SD, 66 ± 12 y) with visually abnormal (n = 42) or equivocal (n = 8) adenosine-stress MPI (320 MBq of (99m)Tc-tetrofosmin) on a CZT camera, rest MPI was performed with a low dose (320 MBq) and repeated after injection of an additional 640 MBq of (99m)Tc-tetrofosmin to achieve a standard 3-fold increased dose at rest (960 MBq), compared with stress (320 MBq). Low-dose rest myocardial perfusion images were reconstructed after subtracting the background activity of the preceding stress scan. Segmental percentage tracer uptake of the 2 rest myocardial perfusion images (320 vs. 960 MBq) was compared using intraclass correlation and Bland-Altman limits of agreement. Patient- and coronary territory-based clinical agreement was assessed. The standard protocol revealed ischemia in 34 (68%) and a fixed defect in 8 (16%) patients, of whom 33 (97%) and 8 (100%) were correctly identified by low-dose MPI (clinical agreement, 98%). Segmental uptake correlated well between low- and standard-dose rest scans (r = 0.94, P < 0.001; Bland-Altman limits of agreement, -11 to +11%). Defect extent was 14.4% (low-dose) versus 13.1% (standard-dose) at rest (P = not statistically significant) and 26.6% at stress (P < 0.001 vs. rest scans).",
"yes. The myocardial phosphocreatine-to-ATP ratio, measured noninvasively with 31P-MR spectroscopy, is a predictor of both total and cardiovascular mortality in patients with dilated cardiomyopathy.",
"yes. This study gave first evidence that (99m)Tc-DPD HR may be capable to display the extent of cardiac amyloid deposition. Moreover, this study suggested that (99m)Tc-DPD HR, diastolic dysfunction and in trend MAPSE are associated with poor outcome. Nevertheless, these findings need to be established in a larger prospective trial.",
"yes. The cardiac kinetics of Tc-99m N-NOET, but not those of Tl-201, were accelerated after intravenous injection of the tracer in fa/fa Zucker rats with circulating lipid levels similar to those encountered clinically in hyperlipidemic patients. The relationship between lipidemia and the rate of Tc-99m N-NOET myocardial washout warrants further clinical investigation.",
"yes. In patients who underwent surgery using PHCA for aortic arch or descending aorta repair, myocardial damage related to cardiac arrest, vents or fibrillation explains the increased cutoff value (12.2 microg/mL). This value is similar to patients undergoing CABG surgery through a sternotomy approach with cardioplegia administration. In contrast, and probably related to the absence of cardioplegia, patients undergoing surgery through a left thoracotomy approach had a greater cutoff value (20.5 microg/mL). Values of cTnl greater than these respective cutoff values were closely related to cardiac complications during the postoperative period.",
"The measurement of serum concentrations of cardiac troponin T (TnT) is a simple, useful method to detect myocyte injury that may be repeated multiple times to follow patients without interobserver variability. Multiple measurements of TnT with a second-generation assay were performed in 60 patients with dilated cardiomyopathy confirmed by coronary angiography and endomyocardial biopsy between April 1996 and December 1999. Three evolutionary patterns of TnT concentrations were identified. Thirty-three patients had concentrations of TnT <0.02 ng/mL throughout the follow-up period (group 1). The remaining 27 patients had high initial serum concentrations of TnT (>/=0.02 ng/mL). In 10 of these 27 patients, TnT decreased to <0.02 ng/mL during follow-up (group 2), whereas 17 had persistently high serum TnT concentrations despite being conventionally treated for chronic congestive heart failure (group 3). Although the initial echocardiographic left ventricular diastolic dimension (LVDd) and left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) were not significantly different among the 3 groups, follow-up echocardiography showed significantly decreased LVDd and increased LVEF in group 1 (each P:<0.01) and group 2 (each P:<0.05) compared with increased LVDd and decreased LVEF in group 3 (each P:<0.05). The cardiac event-free rate was significantly lower in group 3 than in groups 1 and 2 (each P:<0.001), and the survival rate was lower in group 3 than in group 1 (P:<0.05).",
"99mTc-HL91 is a new hypoxia agent and can identify acutely ischaemic viable myocardium in a canine model using a standard gamma camera. The purpose of the study was to determine whether this tracer could be used to detect regional ischaemia in chronic ischaemic myocardium in a swine model. Using a porcine model of chronic myocardial ischaemia, five mini-pigs with proximal left anterior descending artery (LAD) stenoses were studied. Injection of 462.5 MBq (12.5 mCi) 99mTc-HL91 was followed by imaging over 2 h. Coronary angiography and dipyridamole stress-re-injection 201Tl single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) were performed within 1 day of each other. None of the five pigs demonstrated positive hot 99mTc-HL91 uptake throughout the 2 h imaging, whereas four of the five animals showed significant myocardial ischaemia on 201Tl SPECT. The region of interest analysis of LAD/left circumflex artery count ratios at 1 and 2 h demonstrated similar 99mTc-HL91 uptake and retention in chronic ischaemic as well as non-ischaemic myocardium.",
"Four-hour 201Tl redistribution images underestimate myocardial viability in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). Because 4-hour defects often redistribute late, delayed imaging may enhance assessment of tissue viability. Myocardial metabolic activity was therefore assessed with positron emission tomography (PET) in 26 CAD patients with impaired ventricular function (ejection fraction, 32.1 +/- 13.9%) and 24-hour single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) 201Tl defects. On circumferential profile analysis, PET ischemia was defined by preserved glucose metabolism in hypoperfused myocardium, and PET infarction was defined by concordant reductions in perfusion and metabolism. On 19 stress-redistribution and seven rest-redistribution SPECT studies, four observers visually scored 201Tl activity in eight segments on a scale from 0 (normal) to 3 (complete defect). Using an improvement in visual score > or = 0.75 to define redistribution, there were 100 fixed, 17 partially reversible, and 12 completely reversible defects. PET identified tissue metabolic activity in 51 (51%) segments with fixed defects (21 PET ischemia, 30 PET normal) and nine (53%) segments with partially reversible defects (five PET ischemia, four PET normal). When grouped by 24-hour score, the proportion of fixed defects with metabolic activity varied from 84% (scores < or = 1.4) to 15% (scores > 2.6). For partially reversible defects, only 53% with scores < 2.0 and one of two with scores > or = 2.0 were considered metabolically viable on PET. Of 12 completely reversible defects, six (50%) were normal, five (42%) had PET ischemia, and one (8%) had PET infarction. The proportion of fixed defects with metabolic activity did not depend on whether a rest or stress study was performed or on the change in visual score used to define 201Tl redistribution (0.25, 0.50, 0.75, and 1.00).",
"N-Ethoxy-N-ethyl-dithiocarbamato-nitrido-(99m)Tc ((99m)Tc-N-NOET) is a new neutral lipophilic (99m)Tc-labeled myocardial perfusion agent with a high first-pass extraction fraction and delayed redistribution kinetics after transient ischemia comparable to what is observed with (201)Tl. It is unknown whether the uptake of this tracer reflects myocardial viability or just reperfusion flow in the setting of a reperfused myocardial infarction. In 13 anesthetized open-chest dogs, the left anterior descending coronary artery was occluded for 180 minutes, followed by 180 minutes of reperfusion. (201)Tl and (99m)Tc-N-NOET were injected after either 60 (group 1, n=9) or 175 (group 2, n=4) minutes of reperfusion. Myocardial blood flow was measured by radioactive microspheres, and (201)Tl and (99m)Tc-N-NOET tissue activities were determined by gamma-well counting. Normalized myocardial blood flow in the central infarct zone fell from 0.80+/-0. 03 (SEM) and 0.89+/-0.01 at baseline to 0.18+/-0.04 and 0.13+/-0.02 during the occlusion in groups 1 and 2, respectively. Normalized (201)Tl activity in these segments was 0.39+/-0.04 and 0.43+/-0.04 and reflected myocardial viability rather than reperfusion flow (P<0. 001). Normalized (99m)Tc-N-NOET activity in the same segments was 0. 84+/-0.08 and 0.64+/-0.03, respectively (P<0.01 versus (201)Tl; P=NS versus reperfusion flow) and more accurately reflected reperfusion flow (0.99+/-0.17 and 0.70+/-0.04) than residual viability.",
"yes. TEE is useful to assess left ventricular function in potential brain-dead donors. An FAC less than 50% is present in 36% of potential heart donors. Because left ventricular dysfunction is often reversible shortly after transplantation, an FAC below 50% may not necessarily preclude the use of hearts for transplantation.",
"Twenty patients underwent two SPECT studies, one with 201Tl and the other with 99mTc-sestamibi. Using 201Tl as a reference, 177 segments were considered normal, 31 viable and 32 with myocardial necrosis. The overall concordance with 99mTc-sestamibi was 84.2%. In the subgroup of defects that improved after reinjection of 201Tl, it was much less (45%), even after wall thickness and movement (55%) were analyzed.",
"It has been reported that the loss of cell membrane integrity during severe reversible ischaemia results in elevation of plasma troponin T (TnT) in unstable angina. We investigated whether TnT is released into circulation during severe ischaemia (e.g. on treadmill exercise testing) in patients with chronic coronary artery disease (CAD). The study comprised 54 patients who had angiographically documented CAD (22 of them had a prior history of myocardial infarction) and 18 normal subjects. All cases underwent exercise thallium (Tl)-201 SPECT myocardial perfusion imaging. Blood samples for TnT analysis were obtained for each patient at pre-exercise, immediately after and 12 hours after exercise. SPECT images were divided into 20 segments. Patients with redistribution defects>or = 5 were considered to have severe ischaemia. Sixteen patients had severe ischaemia on SPECT images. The mean TnT levels of the patients with severe ischaemia at pre-exercise, immediately after and 12 hours after exercise were 0.009 +/- 0.008, 0.012 +/- 0.009 and 0.010 +/- 0.010 ng/ml, respectively. In normal subjects the mean TnT levels were 0.012 +/- 0.009, 0.010 +/- 0.009, 0.010 +/- 0.010 ng/ml, respectively. There was no significant difference neither between the two groups nor within each group with respect to pre-exercise and post-exercise TnT results. All TnT levels were within normal limits (<0.1 ng/dl). Additionally, when the patients were grouped according to other SPECT variables (patients with reversible defects vs. fixed defects; patients with increased lung uptake of Tl-201 vs. without lung uptake; patients with transient left ventricle dilatation vs. those without) and angiographic findings (patients with multivessel disease vs. normal subjects), there were no significant differences with respect to pre-exercise and post-exercise TnT results.",
"yes. Twenty-four-hour late 201Tl imaging, with satisfactory image quality, enhances the detection of myocardial viability after myocardial infarction.",
"Nicorandil, an adenosine triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel opener, reduces plasma norepinephrine concentration in patients with ischemic heart disease. However, long-term effects on cardiac sympathetic nerve activity (CSNA) as evaluated by (123)I-metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scintigraphy have not been determined for patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). We studied 40 patients with their first AMI who were treated with intravenous nicorandil before and after primary coronary angioplasty. After suspension of the initial intravenous nicorandil treatment, 20 patients were randomized to receive oral nicorandil (15 mg/d) (group A) and the other 20 patients received a placebo (group B). All patients were also treated with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or beta-blockers. The delayed heart-to-mediastinum count ratio (H/M ratio), delayed total defect score (TDS), and washout rate (WR) were determined from (123)I-MIBG scintigraphy 3 wk and 6 mo after angioplasty. The left ventricular (LV) end-diastolic volume (EDV), LV end-systolic volume (ESV), and LV ejection fraction (EF) were determined by contrast left ventriculography, whereas plasma procollagen type III amino-terminal peptide (PIIINP) concentrations were also measured at the same time points. Three weeks after angioplasty, TDS, H/M ratios, WR, LVEDV, LVESV, and LVEF were similar in both groups. After 6 mo, all of these parameters had improved in both groups. However, the extent of change in TDS was -9 +/- 6 in group A and -5 +/- 6 in group B (P < 0.05), whereas that in the H/M ratio was 0.15 +/- 0.13 and 0.07 +/- 0.11 (P < 0.05) and that in the WR was -12% +/- 8% and -5% +/- 11% (P < 0.05). The extent of change in LVEDV, LVESV, and LVEF in group A tended to exceed that in group B, but these changes were not statistically significant. We found significant correlations between the percent change in PIIINP and that of TDS from baseline to 6 mo in group A (r = 0.456, P < 0.05).",
"Prior studies have demonstrated that acute ischemic injury causes sympathetic neuronal damage exceeding the area of necrosis. The aim of this study was to test the hypothesis that sympathetic neuronal damage measured by (123)I-metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) imaging would be determined by the area of ischemia as reflected by area at risk in patients undergoing reperfusion therapy for acute coronary syndromes. In 12 patients, the myocardium at risk was assessed by (99m)Tc-sestamibi SPECT before reperfusion, and infarct size was measured by follow-up (99m)Tc-sestamibi SPECT 1 week later. All patients also underwent (123)I-MIBG SPECT within a mean of 11 days after onset. The SPECT image analysis was based on a semiquantitative polar map approach. Defect size on the (123)I-MIBG or (99m)Tc-sestamibi SPECT was measured for the left ventricle (LV) with the use of a threshold of -2.5 SD from the mean value of a normal database and was expressed as %LV. The (123)I-MIBG defect size (47+/-18%LV) was larger than the infarct size (27+/-23%LV, P<0. 001) but was similar to the risk area (49+/-18%LV, P=NS). Furthermore, the (123)I-MIBG defect size was closely correlated with the risk area (r=0.905, P<0.001).",
"yes. MR-proADM and CT-proET-1 are associated with myocardial injury. A biomarker panel combining MR-proADM, CT-proET-1, and hsTNT increases the odds ratio for death, and may improve currently available scoring systems in critical care.",
"Recently there has been considerable controversy regarding the use of 99mTc-labeled sestamibi as an agent for the detection of viable myocardium. In this study we have used dobutamine-induced left ventricular wall thickening by echocardiography in regions with evidence of resting dyssynergy of the left ventricle as an indicator of retained contractile reserve and compared this with 99m Tc-labeled sestamibi uptake in the same regions. Twenty-seven patients with documented coronary artery disease and severe regional wall motion abnormalities underwent low-dose (5 to 15 micrograms/kg/min) dobutamine echocardiography and maximal (15 to 40 micrograms/kg/min) stress dobutamine 99mTc-labeled sestamibi single-photon emission computed tomographic imaging. Separate-day rest 99mTc-labeled sestamibi scanning was also performed. 99mTc-labeled sestamibi uptake was assessed semiquantitatively from grades from 1 to 4, from normal to absent perfusion. Regions with grade 3 or less uptake were considered viable by 99mTc-labeled sestamibi. Of the 34 regions with severe wall motion abnormalities by echocardiography, 32 showed improved wall thickening with low-dose dobutamine. Rest 99mTc-labeled sestamibi detected retained myocardial viability in 29 of these regions (91%) that were deemed to have contractile reserve by echocardiography (concordance: 91% [K = 0.53; p < 0.001]). Furthermore, stress-rest 99mTc-labeled sestamibi revealed completely reversible defects in five regions (16%), partially reversible defects in 24 regions (75%), and grade 4 uptake and fixed (nonviable) defects in three (9%) of these 32 regions with retained contractile reserve.",
"yes. Moderate and severe rest technetium-99m sestamibi defects frequently have metabolic evidence of viability. Technetium-99m sestamibi SPECT yields larger perfusion defects than does N-13 ammonia positron emission tomography when the same threshold values are used.",
"Using a new precommercial high-sensitivity cardiac troponin T (hsTnT) assay, we evaluated whether hsTnT increases after reversible myocardial ischemia. In 195 patients undergoing nuclear stress testing (ST) using single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) for suspected ischemic heart disease, we measured hsTnT before and 18 min, 4 h, and 24 h after the stress test. Thirty patients were excluded before ST because of cardiac troponin T (cTnT) >30 ng/L (0.03 mug/L) as measured by the fourth-generation commercial test. Another 65 patients were excluded because of a combination of fixed and reversible perfusion defects (PDs) after SPECT. We studied 18 patients with reversible PDs, 41 patients with fixed PDs, and 41 patients without any PDs. Of these 100 patients, 61 received dynamic ST and 39 pharmacological ST. Median baseline hsTnT concentrations (25th, 75th percentile) were comparable in patients with reversible, fixed, and no PDs [5.57 (2.47, 12.60), 8.01 (4.55, 12.44), and 6.90 (4.63, 10.59) ng/L, respectively]. After ST, median hsTnT concentrations did not change in the reversible, fixed, or no PD groups from baseline to 18 min [-0.41 (-0.81, 0.01), 0.01 (-0.75, 0.79), and 0.36 (-0.42, 1.01) ng/L] or from baseline to 4 h [-0.56 (-1.82, 0.74), 0.24 (-0.60, 1.45), and 0.23 (-0.99, 1.15) ng/L]. Median baseline hsTnT concentrations tended to be higher in patients undergoing pharmacological vs dynamic ST; however, there were no significant increases in hsTnT concentrations after either type of ST.",
"Previous studies demonstrated that the intrinsic myocardial washout of bis(N-ethoxy,N-ethyldithiocarbamato)nitrido technetium(V) (technetium 99m N-NOET) was affected by changes occurring in the intravascular compartment such as variations in circulating lipid levels. We sought to determine whether the myocardial kinetics of Tc-99m N-NOET were affected by hyperlipidemia in a clinically relevant experimental model. Tc-99m N-NOET (50 MBq/kg) and thallium 201 (12 MBq/kg) were injected intravenously into hyperlipidemic fa/fa Zucker rats (n=6) and their lean, normolipidemic littermates (n=8), and dual-isotope in vivo planar imaging was performed for 60 minutes. In vivo image quantification indicated significantly faster cardiac washout of Tc-99m N-NOET in fa/fa animals versus lean animals (time constant, 411+/-64 minutes vs 1094+/-226 minutes, respectively; P<.05), whereas Tl-201 cardiac washout was not affected (356+/-85 minutes vs 337+/-53 minutes, respectively; P=not significant).",
"This study aimed to clarify the correlation between the myocardial washout rate (WR) of technetium-99m hexakis 2-methoxy-isobutyl-isonitrile ((99m)Tc-sestamibi) and cardiac enzyme levels in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) 6 months after the onset. Sixty-one consecutive AMI patients (mean age, 66.2 ± 9.7 years) who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) on admission were enrolled. Creatinine kinase MB isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels were measured every 3 h. (99m)Tc-sestamibi myocardial scintigraphic images were obtained at the early (30 min) and delayed (4 h) phases after tracer injection for calculating heart-to-mediastinum (H/M) ratios and global WRs at 2 weeks (0 M) and 6 months (6 M) after the onset of AMI. Regional WRs in the culprit lesions (culprit WR) and the extent score (ES) and severity score (SS) of myocardial damage were also calculated. PCI was performed 8.3 ± 7.7 h after AMI onset. At 6 M, the early H/M ratio (p = 0.04), delayed H/M ratio (p = 0.02), global WR (p = 0.01), culprit WR (p = 0.002), and delayed ES (p = 0.008) were alleviated. At 0 M, the peak CK-MB level correlated with the delayed H/M ratio (p = 0.003), global WR (p = 0.003), culprit WR (p < 0.001), early ES (p = 0.03), delayed ES (p = 0.01), early SS (p = 0.001), and delayed SS (p < 0.001). At 6 M, the peak CK-MB level correlated with the delayed H/M ratio (p < 0.001), global WR (p = 0.005), culprit WR (p = 0.001), early ES (p = 0.001), delayed ES (p < 0.001), early SS (p < 0.001), and delayed SS (p < 0.001).",
"To compare the cardioprotective efficacy of cold crystalloid cardioplegia and intermittent ischaemic arrest in patients undergoing elective coronary artery surgery. Prospective randomised trial. London teaching hospital. 20 patients with at least moderately good left ventricular function undergoing elective coronary artery surgery by one experienced surgeon and needing at least two bypass grafts. Patients were randomised to cold crystalloid cardioplegia or intermittent ischaemic arrest. The primary determinant of the efficacy of myocardial protection was serial measurement (before and at 1, 6, 24, and 72 hours after the end of cardiopulmonary bypass) of cardiac troponin T (cTnT), a highly sensitive and specific marker of myocardial damage. There was no significant difference in age, ejection fraction, number of grafts, bypass times, or cross clamp times between the two groups. One patient in the cardioplegia group had a perioperative infarct and was excluded from further study. In both groups there was a significant increase in cTnT, with peak concentrations being reached 6 hours after the end of cardiopulmonary bypass and remaining significantly high at 72 hours. At 6 hours the median (75% interquartile range) concentrations of cTnT were similar in both groups (1.8 (1.0-3.6) micrograms/l for cardioplegia v 1.9 (1.0-3.5) micrograms/l for intermittent ischaemic arrest).",
"(99m)Tc-sestamibi has been proposed as a viability imaging agent. The purposes of this study were: (1) to determine the relationship between myocardial viability and (99m)Tc-sestamibi kinetics using perfused rat heart models across a full spectrum of viability, (2) to do so under conditions where myocardial flow was controlled and held constant, and (3) to do so using multiple quantitative methods to assess myocardial viability. Twenty-three isolated rat hearts were perfused retrogradely with a modified Krebs-Henseleit (KH) solution. Four groups were studied: controls (C, n = 6), stunned (S, n = 6), ischemic-reperfused (IR, n = 6), and calcium injured (CAL, n = 5). Following a 20-min baseline and subsequent treatment phase, (99m)Tc-sestamibi was infused over 60 min (uptake) followed by 60 min clearance. Treatment phases consisted of 20 min no flow for S, 60 min no flow followed by 60 min reflow for IR, and 10 min infusion of KH solution without calcium followed by 20 min infusion of KH solution with 2 times normal calcium for CAL hearts. Creatine kinase (CK) assay, triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC) staining, and transmission electron microscopic (TEM) analysis were used to determine tissue viability. Myocardial peak (99m)Tc-sestamibi uptake (%id) was significantly decreased in IR (4.11 +/- 0.22 SEM; p < 0.05) and CAL (1.07 +/- 0.13; p < 0.05), but not in S (4.88 +/- 0.17) as compared with C (5.99 +/- 0.50). One hour fractional retention was 79.3 +/- 1.9% for C, 80.3 +/- 1.3% for S (p = n.s.), 79.1 +/- 1.8% for IR (p = n.s.), and 14.9 +/- 4.3% for CAL (p < 0.05 compared to all other groups). (99m)Tc-sestamibi absolute retention (%id) 1 h after the end of tracer administration was significantly decreased in IR (3.26 +/- 0.23) and CAL (0.15 +/- 0.02) as compared with both S (3.92 +/- 0.16) and C (4.52 +/- 0.32) (p < 0.05). CK increased significantly from baseline in the IR and CAL hearts. TTC determined percent viability was 100 +/- 0% for C, 98.3 +/- 1.1% for S, 82.8 +/- 2.6% for IR, and 0.0 +/- 0% for CAL. TEM analysis supported these findings. End tracer activity was significantly correlated with TTC determined percentage viable myocardium (r = 0.93, p < 0.05) and CK leak (r = -0.90, p < 0.05).",
"99mTc sestamibi is a recently developed radioisotope that has been used to measure myocardium at risk and infarct size. The relation between these measurements and subsequent patient outcome has not yet been demonstrated. Two hundred seventy-four consecutive patients with acute myocardial infarction underwent tomographic 99mTc sestamibi imaging on arrival at the hospital (to measure myocardium at risk before reperfusion therapy) and at hospital discharge (to measure the amount of salvaged myocardium and final infarct size). Defect size on the sestamibi images was quantified using a threshold value of 60% of peak counts from the circumferential count profile curves generated for five representative slices of the left ventricle. Patients were followed after hospital discharge to evaluate the association between final infarct size and subsequent mortality. The median defect size measured was 27% of the left ventricle at presentation to the hospital (range, 0% to 77%) and was 12% of the left ventricle at hospital discharge (range, 0% to 68%). Almost one half of the patients had a final infarct size of < or = 10%. The median amount of myocardium salvaged was 9% (range, -31% to 75%). During a median duration of follow-up of 12 months, there were 10 deaths (7 cardiac and 3 noncardiac) and 1 resuscitated out-of-hospital cardiac arrest. There was a significant association between infarct size and overall mortality (chi 2 = 8.66, P = .003) and cardiac mortality (chi 2 = 11.89, P < .001). Two-year mortality was 7% for patients whose infarct size was > or = 12% versus 0% for patients whose infarct size was < 12%. There also was a significant association between myocardium at risk and cardiac mortality (chi 2 = 6.87, P = .009). There was no association between myocardium at risk and overall mortality or between amount of myocardium salvaged and either overall mortality or cardiac mortality.",
"yes. Trimetazidine-associated increase in 99mTc-sestamibi uptake in infarcted but viable myocardial areas is probably related to an improvement in mitochondrial oxidative metabolism that is essential to 99mTc-sestamibi retention. Additionally, coupling trimetazidine administration to 99mTc-sestamibi perfusional scintigraphy may represent a means of detecting viable myocardium.",
"yes. Scintigraphy with technetium-99m-labeled ceftizoxime is a method that can potentially detect infection post sternotomy and differentiate from aseptic inflammation in animals experimentally inoculated with S. aureus.",
"Although strict selection criteria are being used for the acceptance of human donor hearts for transplantation, problems with respect to functional recovery on reperfusion sometimes still occur. Therefore, evaluation of the viability of a human donor heart before implantation during heart transplantation may be of great value. In the present study, the energy metabolism of 25 excised human donor hearts arrested with St Thomas' Hospital No. 2 cardioplegic solution was evaluated noninvasively by use of 31P magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS) before implantation and was correlated with myocardial function measured with thermodilution in heart transplant patients. No significant correlation was observed between the cardiac index of heart transplant patients during the first hours after transplantation and the phosphocreatine/ATP (r = .13, P = .54), inorganic phosphate/ATP (r = .26, P = .21), phosphomonoesters/ATP (r = .02, P = .92), or phosphocreatine/inorganic phosphate (r = .16, P = .44) ratio or the intracellular pH (r = .06, P = .78) at the time of reperfusion. However, 1 week after transplantation, a significant correlation was observed between the cardiac index and the phosphocreatine/ATP (r = .49, P = .01), phosphomonoesters/ATP (r = .45, P = .02), and phosphocreatine/inorganic phosphate (r = .40, P = .05) ratios at the time of reperfusion. In contrast, the inorganic phosphate/ATP (r = .10, P = .63) ratio and pH (r = .31, P = .13) at the time of reperfusion showed a poor correlation with the cardiac index 1 week after transplantation.",
"Increased plasma cardiac troponin I (cTnI) values in heart donors are associated with donor myocardial dysfunction and increased risk of rejection in the recipients. We investigated the association between cTnI values and myocardial dysfunction in potential heart donors and the relationship between donors' cTnI values and recipients' early myocardial function and 1 year survival and risk of rejection. cTnI was measured in 159 consecutive potential heart donors. Myocardial function was estimated by the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and segmental wall motion abnormalities (SWMA). Results are mean+/-SD (range) or median (interquartile range). cTnI values in potential donors were 2.1+/-5 ng/ml (0-40.4 ng/ml); cTnI values were significantly (P<0.001) higher: 4.2+/-5.9 ng/ml (0-30.6 ng/ml) for potential donors with LVEF <50% versus LVEF >50%: 1.7+/-4.7 ng/ml (0-40.4 ng/ml). cTnI values were significantly lower for donors without SWMA. cTnI values were significantly (P<0.001) lower for the 90 donors whose hearts were harvested: 1.1+/-2.3 ng/ml (0-15.6 ng/ml) versus the not harvested: 3.6+/-6.9 ng/ml (0-40.4 ng/ml). There were 87 recipients followed for 1 year. Donors' cTnI values were not associated with early alteration of LVEF, incidence of rejection or 1 year recipients' survival.",
"To assess the prognostic value of cardiac iodine-123 metaiodobenzylguanidine ((123)I-MIBG) scintigraphy to predict ventricular arrhythmias in patients with heart failure (HF) listed for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) devices as primary prevention. A prospective cohort study in 27 patients with HF referred for ICD implantation (alone or in combination with cardiac resynchronisation therapy) at a tertiary cardiac centre. Cardiac (123)I-MIBG scintigraphy was performed with calculation of early and late heart-to-mediastinum (H:M) ratios, washout rate, and summed defect score from single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) acquisition. Resting myocardial perfusion SPECT using (99m)Tc-tetrofosmin was also performed and a summed score calculated. Innervation-perfusion mismatch was evaluated by comparing SPECT scores. Ventricular arrhythmia requiring ICD therapy. At 16 months median follow-up, 10 (37%) patients experienced a significant arrhythmic event. Compared with patients who suffered no event, these individuals had lower early and late H:M ratio and higher (123)I-MIBG SPECT defect scores: 1.83 ± 0.43 versus 2.34 ± 0.33 (p<0.001); 1.54 ± 0.38 versus 1.96 ± 0.38 (p=0.005); 37.0 ± 9.4 versus 25.5 ± 7.7 (p=0.001). Mismatch scores were also higher: 18.5 ± 8.5 versus 8.4 ± 5.0 (p<0.01). Optimal thresholds for predicting arrhythmia were <1.94 for early H:M ratio (sensitivity 70%, specificity 88%); <1.54 for late H:M ratio (sensitivity 60%, specificity 88%); (123)I-MIBG SPECT defect score ≥31 (sensitivity 78%, specificity 77%).",
"To determine whether bone imaging with 99mTc methylene diphosphonate is a specific method of making the diagnosis of costochondritis in patients with chest pain who rule out for myocardial infarction. Nonblinded prospective controlled study in 20 patients and 10 control subjects. Inpatient medical service of a tertiary teaching hospital. Two hundred consenting patients admitted to the hospital with chest pain and suspected myocardial infarction were examined. Those in whom acute myocardial infarction was ruled out were evaluated for the clinical signs of costochondritis, ie, tenderness over one or more costochondral junctions. Twenty patients who met the clinical criterion gave informed consent and were subjected to bone imaging. Ten control subjects with cancer who did not have clinical signs of costochondritis underwent bone imaging to rule out metastatic disease (normal in all cases). Bone imaging with I.V. 99mTc methylene diphosphonate. Bone scans of the investigative patients and the control subjects were read by two independent nuclear medicine specialists. Sixteen of the 20 patients with clinically diagnosed costochondritis showed increased technetium uptake at all costochondral junctions bilaterally; six of them also had increased uptake elsewhere on the chest wall (sternum, manubrium, or first rib). All 10 of the control patients likewise showed increased technetium uptake at all costochondral junctions bilaterally.",
"yes. Because animal studies have already shown a very close correlation between histologic infarct size and SPECT Tc-sestamibi defect size, our results indicate that cardiac TnT is a useful marker to assess infarct size noninvasively in man.",
"no. Troponin T and I are not useful indicators of cardiac rejection, but do correlate with donor heart ischemic injury.",
"yes. Inotropic stress may be superior to vasodilators for the determination of the extent and severity of myocardial involvement and reversible ischemia by Tc-99m sestamibi SPECT.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine the relative value of single-photon emission computed tomographic (SPECT) imaging at rest using technetium-99m methoxyisobutyl isonitrile (technetium-99m sestamibi) with positron emission tomography for detection of viable myocardium. Recent studies comparing positron emission tomography and thallium-201 reinjection with rest technetium-99m sestamibi imaging have suggested that the latter technique underestimates myocardial viability. Twenty patients with a previous myocardial infarction underwent rest technetium-99m sestamibi imaging and positron emission tomography using fluorine (F)-18 deoxyglucose and nitrogen (N)-13 ammonia. In each patient, circumferential profile analysis was used to determine technetium-99m sestamibi, F-18 deoxyglucose and N-13 ammonia activity (expressed as percent of peak activity) in nine cardiac segments and in the perfusion defect defined by the area having technetium-99m sestamibi activity < 60%. Technetium-99m sestamibi defects were graded as moderate (50% to 59% of peak activity) and severe (< 50% of peak activity). Estimates of perfusion defect size were compared between technetium-99m sestamibi and N-13 ammonia. Sixteen (53%) of 30 segments with moderate defects and 16 (47%) of 34 segments with severe defects had > or = 60% F-18 deoxyglucose activity considered indicative of viability. Fluorine-18 deoxyglucose evidence of viability was still present in 50% of segments with technetium-99m sestamibi activity < 40%. There was no significant difference in the mean (+/- SD) technetium-99m sestamibi activity in segments with viable (40 +/- 7%) and nonviable segments (49 +/- 7%, p = 0.84). Of the 18 patients who had adequate F-18 deoxyglucose studies, the area of the technetium-99m sestamibi defect was viable in 5 (28%). In 16 patients (80%), perfusion defect size determined by technetium-99m sestamibi exceeded that measured by N-13 ammonia. The difference in defect size between technetium-99m sestamibi and N-13 ammonia was significantly greater in patients with viable (21 +/- 9%) versus nonviable segments (7 +/- 9%, p = 0.007).",
"yes. Uptake of 99mTc-labeled sestamibi at rest accurately identifies regions of segmental dyssynergy in which recovery of function may be provoked by inotropic stimulation. Addition of stress dobutamine 99mTc-labeled sestamibi provides further proof of retained myocardial viability in these dysfunctional segments.",
"This study compared clinical-chemical estimates of infarct size with scintigraphic estimates of myocardial scar in patients with first-time acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Levels of the cardiac isoform of the contractile protein troponin T (TnT), of creatine kinase (CK), and of the isoenzyme MB of CK (CK MB) were tested in serially drawn blood samples from 21 patients (two females and 19 males; median age, 55 years). Of these 21 patients, five had anterior- and 16 had inferior-wall AMI; all patients received intravenous thrombolytic therapy. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) with technetium-99m-isonitrile (Tc-sestamibi) was performed at rest after the onset of AMI (median time, 5 weeks). Scintigraphic defects were calculated using \"bull's-eye\" polar coordinate maps. All patients had an uncomplicated course between discharge and myocardial scintigraphy. Scintigraphic defect sizes ranged from 3.2% to 47.8% of the left ventricle (median, 27.3%). Cardiac TnT and CK MB release correlated closely with each other and with scintigraphic estimates of myocardial scar. Significant correlates were found between cardiac TnT and CK MB peak values (r = 0.87, P = 0.0001), CK MB peaks and Tc-sestamibi defect sizes (r = 0.73, P = 0.0014), and TnT peaks and scintigraphic defect sizes (r = 0.73, P = 0.0011).",
"yes. These results demonstrated that (99m)Tc-sestamibi WR in the chronic phase as well as that in the acute phase reflects the extent of initial myocardial damage in AMI patients after PCI. Moreover, it might indicate the myocardial condition in the clinical course.",
"yes. The myocardial uptake of (99m)Tc-N-NOET reflects reperfusion myocardial blood flow and not viability in a canine model of reperfused acute myocardial infarction. The clinical use of early (99m)Tc-N-NOET imaging to assess the success of coronary reperfusion in patients with acute myocardial infarction should be investigated.",
"There are no prospective methods available to quantify the myocyte injury in hearts prior to transplantation. The potential of the isotope labeled infarct marker 99m Technetium pyrophosphate (TcPPT) being used in this role was investigated. Brain death was induced by creating an extradural space occupying lesion in young adult swine after which hemodynamic changes were monitored and myocyte injury was quantified by histochemistry. TcPPT was administered 5 hours after induction of intracranial hypertension, and after hearts were harvested myocardial uptake was measured. These latter measurements were related to the histochemical assessment of myocyte injury. Sham animals (n = 4) maintained cardiovascular stability and experienced minimal myocyte injury, grades 0 to 3. BD animals (n = 10) exhibited varying patterns of hemodynamic change and myocyte injury, the latter was significant in 6, graded 4 to 11, p less than 0.05. Uptake of TcPPT by BD hearts was greater than twice the 90th centile sham value in 6. The sensitivity and specificity of greater uptake indicating the presence of myocyte injury was 83.3% and 75% respectively."
] | 438 |
Does sensitization to contact allergens begin in infancy? | [
"Because previous studies have found allergic contact sensitization common in children by 5 years of age, our aim was to determine the prevalence of positive epicutaneous test results in children<5 years of age and to determine whether sensitization to contact allergens was as common in infancy. We recruited 95 asymptomatic children 6 months to 5 years of age from well-child visits at Denver area pediatric practices for epicutaneous patch testing using the T.R.U.E. Test system. Allergens were placed on the skin for 48 hours, and at a later follow-up visit, positive reactions were evaluated. A total of 85 patients completed the study. Of these, 20 (24.5%) had 1 or more positive reactions to the tested allergens. Positive reactors ranged from 6 to 65.5 months of age, with an average of 30.4 months of age. Of the children, 16 reacted to 1 allergen, and 4 reacted to 2. Eleven positive reactions were observed to nickel, followed by 8 to thimerosal. Other positive reactions were to neomycin, cobalt, and kathon CG.",
"Children as young as 6 months of age may be sensitized to contact allergens. Within this pediatric population, the prevalence of sensitization is 24.5%. Sensitization to contact allergens may occur in infants."
] | [
"Probiotics have shown promising potential in reducing the risk of eczema in infants. Optimal probiotic intervention regimen remains to be determined. We investigated whether maternal probiotic supplementation during pregnancy and breast-feeding reduces the risk of developing eczema in high-risk infants. This was a parallel, double-blind placebo-controlled trial of 241 mother-infant pairs. Mothers with allergic disease and atopic sensitization were randomly assigned to receive (1) Lactobacillus rhamnosus LPR and Bifidobacterium longum BL999 (LPR+BL999), (2) L paracasei ST11 and B longum BL999 (ST11+BL999), or (3) placebo, beginning 2 months before delivery and during the first 2 months of breast-feeding. The infants were followed until the age of 24 months. Skin prick tests were performed at the ages of 6, 12, and 24 months. Altogether 205 infants completed the follow-up and were included in the analyses. The risk of developing eczema during the first 24 months of life was significantly reduced in infants of mothers receiving LPR+BL999 (odds ratio [OR], 0.17; 95% CI, 0.08-0.35; P < .001) and ST11+BL999 (OR, 0.16; 95% CI, 0.08-0.35; P < .001). The respective ORs for chronically persistent eczema were 0.30 (95% CI, 0.12-0.80; P = .016) and 0.17 (95% CI, 0.05-0.56; P = .003). Probiotics had no effect on the risk of atopic sensitization in the infants. No adverse effects were related to the use of probiotics.",
"Until recently, nutritional guidelines did not support early introduction of allergenic foods into the diet of high-risk infants. Following recent studies, this approach is beginning to change, at least for peanuts. This review will examine the change in nutritional guidelines and the scientific data that led to these changes. In a recent prospective controlled study, regular consumption of peanut protein in infants from 4-11 months of age with atopic dermatitis or egg allergy, was associated with lower prevalence of peanut allergy (1.9%) at 60 months of age compared with peanut avoidance (13.7%). Other studies demonstrated that earlier introduction of cow's milk protein and egg powder were also associated with decreased risk for milk and egg allergy, respectively.",
"yes. In this mouse model, interaction between early-life viral infection and allergen sensitisation/challenge is essential for development of the characteristic features of childhood asthma, including allergic inflammation and a Th2-biased immune response.",
"yes. In our model, maternal allergen exposures during pregnancy prevented later allergen-mediated sensitization and airway inflammation by allergen-specific tolerance induction in the offspring.",
"yes. Allergic symptoms and sensitisation were associated with decreased Th1- and increased Th2-associated chemokine levels during childhood, indicating a Th2 shift in the allergic children, possibly influenced by the maternal immunity during pregnancy.",
"In this area monosensitization to ragweed occurs steadily at an adult age. In already allergic subjects it occurs at a younger age. The age at onset of allergy to one specific airborne allergen source seems to depend on several variables, including exposure duration, atopic status, and specific features of the allergen.",
"yes. This is the first study showing across three cohorts that X-chromosomal FOXP3 genotypes may contribute to development of sensitisation against egg and indoor allergens in girls in early childhood. In addition, an association with remission of sensitisation to food allergens existed in boys only.",
"yes. Our data show that prematurity at birth is linked with a decreased long-term risk of atopic sensitization.",
"Intrauterine sensitization has been suggested to play a role in the development of atopic disease in children, and this has led to current guidelines recommending allergen avoidance during pregnancy. To investigate the relevance of allergen-specific IgE in cord blood to sensitization in early infancy and the origin of such IgE. Inhalant and food allergen-specific IgE in cord blood was analyzed and compared with specific IgE in infant blood at 6 months of age and in parental blood. Cord blood IgA was measured to detect maternal blood contamination of cord blood. Allergen-specific IgE, primarily against inhalant allergens, was detected in 14% of cord blood samples. However, corresponding specific IgE was not found in infant blood at 6 months of age. Specific IgE in cord blood completely matched specific IgE in maternal blood with respect to allergen specificity, level of specific IgE, and ratio of total IgE/specific IgE. Finally, there was a correlation between specific IgE and IgA in cord blood.",
"The atopic march is well documented, but the interrelationship of food allergy (FA) and asthma is not well understood. The aim of this study was to examine the strength of the association and temporal relationships between FA and asthma. This analysis included 271 children >or=6 years (older group) and 296 children <6 years (younger group) from a family-based FA cohort in Chicago, IL. Asthma was determined by parental report of physician diagnosis. FA status was determined based on the type and timing of clinical symptoms after ingestion of a specific food, and results of prick skin test (Multi-Test II) and allergen-specific IgE (Phadia ImmunoCAP). Analyses were carried out using logistic regression accounting for important covariates and auto-correlations among siblings. Kaplan-Meier curves were used to compare the time to onset of asthma with the FA status. Symptomatic FA was associated with asthma in both older [odds ratio (OR)=4.9, 95% confidence interval (CI): 2.5-9.5] and younger children (OR=5.3, 95% CI: 1.7-16.2). The association was stronger among children with multiple or severe food allergies, especially in older children. Children with FA developed asthma earlier and at higher prevalence than children without FA (Cox proportional hazard ratio=3.7, 95% CI: 2.2-6.3 for children >or=6 years, and hazard ratio=3.3, 95% CI: 1.1-10 for children <6 years of age). No associations were seen between asymptomatic food sensitization and asthma.",
"yes. Maternal exposure during pregnancy influences atopic sensitization patterns in cord blood. The (microbial) context of allergen contact possibly modifies the risk of atopic sensitization.",
"We hypothesized that anthropometrics in the newborn is associated with development of asthma later in life. The study included a prospective, longitudinal clinical study of a birth cohort of 411 Danish neonates born at term of mothers with a history of asthma. The primary endpoint was physician-diagnosed asthma at age 7 years. Allergic sensitization and atopic dermatitis (AD) were also investigated. Infant size was measured at the research clinic on four occasions during the first year of life. Risk for asthma, AD, and allergic sensitization at age 6-7 were estimated from logistic regression. Time to first asthma and AD were investigated by Cox regression. Multivariate models were adjusted for gender, gestational age, and mothers smoking during pregnancy. Neonatal weight, length, body mass index and head circumference (z-score) were all significantly associated with asthma at age 7. Adjusted odds ratio for asthma by estimated birth weight z-score: 1.87 [1.23-2.84]; P = 0.004. Adjusted HR for onset of asthma by neonatal weight z-score: 1.46 [1.08-1.96]; P = 0.013. Neonatal size did not associate with AD or allergic sensitization.",
"Cat ownership is inversely associated with atopy and asthma in some areas of the world, but the relevance of cat ownership to allergic disease in the inner city is less known. We sought to evaluate the relationship between cat ownership and the development of early sensitization and wheeze. By using a prospective birth cohort study, Dominican and African American mothers living in New York City underwent repeated questionnaires about their child from birth to age 5 years. Sera collected from children at ages 2 (n = 323), 3 (n = 336), and 5 (n = 242) years were assayed for anti-cat IgE and anti-Fel d 1 IgG antibodies. Cat ownership was a significant risk factor for the development of anti-cat IgE by age 2 years (risk ratio [RR], 6.4; 95% CI, 1.9-22) but not for anti-cat IgE development between the ages of 2 and 5 years (RR, 0.88; 95% CI, 0.24-2.3). Current wheeze was significantly more common among those children with anti-cat IgE at ages 3 (RR, 3.5; 95% CI, 2.1-6.0) and 5 (RR, 3.4; 95% CI, 2.3-4.9) years. Cat ownership was inversely associated with current wheeze at age 5 years among children without anti-cat IgE (RR, 0.26; 95% CI, 0.083-0.81). Among children with anti-cat IgE, a similar trend was observed (RR, 0.57; P = .044, Fisher exact test), although one with borderline statistical significance.",
"no. Allergen-specific IgE in cord blood does not reflect intrauterine sensitization but seems to be the result of transfer of maternal IgE to the fetus.",
"A recent cohort study suggested that intake of soy milk or soy formula was associated with peanut allergy. If this finding is confirmed, it suggests an avenue for modification of diet as a peanut allergy prevention strategy. To investigate the relationship between soy consumption and peanut sensitization in a prospective cohort study of children. A total of 620 babies with a family history of allergic disease were recruited. Dietary information was obtained from telephone interviews every 4 weeks from birth until 15 months and then again at 18 months and 2 years. Skin prick tests to peanut, milk, and egg were performed at 6, 12, and 24 months. A wheal size > or = 3 mm was considered positive for sensitization. Children whose parents elected to introduce soy formula or soy milk into their children's diet were more likely to be sensitized to peanuts at 2 years (odds ratio, 2.02; 95% CI, 1.04-3.92; P = .039). However, this relationship was explained by feeding of soy to children who had siblings with milk allergy or were themselves sensitized to milk. After adjusting for these factors, there was no evidence of an association between soy consumption and peanut sensitization (odds ratio, 1.34; 95% CI, 0.64-2.79; P = .434).",
"yes. Prenatal exposure to cockroach allergen was associated with a greater risk of allergic sensitization. This risk was increased by exposure to nonvolatile PAHs, with children null for the GSTM1 mutation particularly vulnerable.",
"Early age at onset of atopy is associated with more severe asthma and increased airway responsiveness (AR); the underlying mechanism is unclear but may involve T cell responses. To test the hypothesis that enhanced T cell responses may be associated with early-onset atopy. In a longitudinal study, atopy was determined in infancy and at 6 and 11 years of age. Individuals were categorized as persistent infant-onset atopy (PIOA), early childhood-onset atopy (ECOA) and later childhood-onset atopy (LCOA). At 11 years of age, peripheral blood T cell cytokine responses, AR, exhaled nitric oxide (FE(NO)) and forced expiratory volume in 1 s were determined. The age at onset of atopy was determined for 60 children, of whom 15 had PIOA, 24 had ECOA and 21 had LCOA. An additional 76 children who were never atopic were also included. T cell responses to house dust mite, including interleukin-5, -9, -10 and tumour necrosis factor alpha, were higher among children with PIA and ECOA, and lower in children with LCOA, P<0.05. In contrast, those children with LCOA or who were not atopic had the highest IL-10 response to PHA (P=0.014). Children with PIOA and ECOA, but not LCOA, had higher AR and FE(NO) compared with non-atopic children (P<0.05). The group with PIOA were more likely among the atopic children to be admitted to hospital for asthma (P<0.05) and also had lower %FEV(1) compared with non-atopic children (P=0.023).",
"yes. IL-5 responses to HDM, the dominant local inhalant allergen, are related to the expression of clinical illness at age 5 years.",
"yes. Persistent pollen exposure in infancy appears to increase the risk of asthma and hayfever in children. These results support the hypothesis that there is a critical window of opportunity in early development which may be important for modification of allergic outcomes.",
"yes. Early introduction of food antigens into the immature gastrointestinal tract of preterm infants might result in tolerance. The presence of less atopy in these children might also be a result of tolerance development.",
"Remittance of aeroallergen sensitization has been shown in population-based studies, but there is a common perception that sensitization to aeroallergens rarely if ever disappears in children with allergic disease. We retrospectively reviewed all specific IgE tests carried out in children aged 0-18 years at our hospital laboratory over a 14-year period. Of 3115 children sensitized to one or more aeroallergens, 244 (7.8%) were retested after a mean (SD) period of 45 (28) months at their physician's discretion. Disappearance of sensitization to individual aeroallergens did occur, with remittance rates ranging from 3.1% for house dust mite to 17.5% for cat. However, complete remittance of aeroallergen sensitization was found in only one subject. In up to 35% of cases, remittance of sensitization was offset by the appearance of one or more new aeroallergen sensitizations. Remittance was only observed in children sensitized to multiple allergens (with a median of 3 aeroallergen sensitizations), and their median degree of sensitization was low (median 2.1 kU/L).",
"The atopic march hypothesis suggests that infants with eczema are at increased risk of asthma. Others argue that eczema is not a risk factor for asthma unless there is also sensitization or early wheezing. To examine the role of infantile eczema as a predictor of risk of childhood asthma, while allowing for the effects of early wheeze, sensitization, and sex, both as independent effects and possible effect modifiers. A total of 620 infants with a family history of allergic disease was recruited. Eczema and wheeze was prospectively documented to 2 years of age. Sensitization was determined by skin prick tests at 6, 12, and 24 months to 6 common food and inhalant allergens. Interviews were conducted at 6 and 7 years to ascertain current asthma. Sufficiently complete data were available for 403 children. Eczema within the first 2 years of life was clearly associated with an increased risk of childhood asthma in boys (adjusted odds ratio, 2.45; 95% CI, 1.31-4.46) but not in girls (odds ratio, 0.88; 95% CI, 0.43-1.77; P for interaction = .031) even with adjustment for the effects of early allergic sensitization and wheeze. If these relationships are causal, an intervention to prevent eczema in boys might reduce the incidence of childhood asthma by as much as 28%.",
"Allergic diseases are more prevalent in affluent countries, which has been attributed to life-style factors. Life-style habits may also differ between socioeconomic (SES) classes. The objective of this paper therefore was to evaluate if SES had an impact on the development of atopic disorders. A total of 1314 German children were followed-up in an observational birth cohort study to 6 years of age. Parents filled in questionnaires, and had multi-allergen screening tests for sensitization. Indoor allergen concentrations were determined by ELISA. Children were examined regularly up to 6 years, specific serum IgE values were determined by CAP-Rast-Feia. The risk of aeroallergen sensitization (odds ratio 1.76; 95% CI 1.30-2.37), and the lifetime prevalence of hay fever (2.36; 1.76-3.17), and asthma (1.74; 1.08-2.80), but not of atopic dermatitis (AD: 0.90; 0. 54-1.51) was elevated in parents of high compared to low SES. With high SES the risk of smoking in pregnancy (0.35; 0.23-0.51), in the home (0.31; 0.21-0.46), pet ownership (0.37; 0.26-0.55), high mite (0.42; 0.25-0.74), and high cat (0.38; 0.18-0.82) allergen concentration in house dust was reduced, but elevated for breastfeeding over more than 6 months (4.67; 2.9-7.48). In children, even after controlling for other risk factors, only the risk of AD from 3 to 6 years (2.42; 1.42-4.14) was elevated in families with high SES, but not of AD in infancy or of any other atopic disorder.",
"yes. This is the largest population-based nested case-control study exploring factors associated with food allergies. Our results reveal that, in addition to previously reported factors, eczema in the first 2 years of life is consistently associated with food allergies.",
"yes. We have shown that patch testing can identify relevant allergens in 44% of children with eczema. The commonest relevant allergens were medicament allergens, plant allergens, house dust mite, nickel, Amerchol® L101, and 2-bromo-2-nitropropane-1,3-diol. Patch testing can be performed in children as young as 2 years with the proper preparation.",
"yes. One in five infants suffer from eczema during the first year of life. Familial eczema increased the risk, while early fish introduction and bird keeping decreased it. Breast feeding and time of milk and egg introduction did not affect the risk.",
"yes. Comprehensive allergen avoidance in the first year of life is effective in preventing asthma onset in individuals considered at high risk due to heredity. The effect occurs in the early years, but persists through to adulthood.",
"yes. LCPUFA supplementation during infancy reduced the risk of skin and respiratory allergic diseases in childhood with effects influenced by maternal allergies.",
"Intestinal bacteria trigger IgA production and delayed maturation of mucosal IgA response is linked to allergy development. Our aim was to investigate if plasma levels of IgA or APRIL (a proliferation inducing ligand), an important factor for IgA class switch recombination, in infancy correlates with intestinal colonization by any specific bacteria or yeast. We also examined if plasma IgA or APRIL levels are related to sensitization and the development of eczema. IgA was quantified in plasma obtained from infants at birth and at 4 and 18 months of age and APRIL was measured at 4 months of age. Colonization by major bacterial groups and yeast was followed in the first 8 weeks of life by quantitative culture of stool samples. A clinical evaluation regarding the presence of allergen-specific IgE or eczema and eosinophil counts in blood was performed at 18 months of age. In multiple linear regression analysis, only colonization by Staphylococcus aureus strains producing toxins with superantigen function (SEA-D or TSST-1) made an independent contribution to plasma IgA levels at 4 months of age. Further, increased levels of APRIL in plasma at 4 months were negatively associated with sensitization while IgA plasma levels were inversely correlated to eczema development and blood eosinophil counts at 18 months of age.",
"It is found that there was an alteration of sensitization in 4/10 children at the end of the average 4-year period. The presence of family atopy, the presence of allergic rhinitis and serum total IgE elevation were risk factors for the development of new sensitization. On the other hand sensitization to multiple allergens was risk factors for the loss of sensitization.",
"yes. This study provides evidence that an allergic phenotype in infancy is associated with effects on neurodevelopment. Further research is required to investigate the nature of this relationship.",
"yes. Allergic eosinophilic rhinitis was identified in 8.8% of children at 4 years of age. Age 3 years was the earliest that aeroallergen SPT wheal areas were predictive of AER. Skin testing at 3 years identifies children at risk for an AR phenotype with nasal eosinophilia.",
"yes. Antibiotics in the first week of life increased the risk of allergic rhinitis at school age, while living on a farm at preschool age reduced the risk. Both findings are compatible with the hygiene hypothesis.",
"no. Pets at birth either decreased or had no effect on allergic disease up to age 12. We found no evidence that exposure to cats or dogs at birth increases the risk of allergic disease in high-risk children.",
"Infant predictors of early childhood allergic rhinitis (AR) are poorly understood. We sought to identify environmental exposures and host factors during infancy that predict AR at age 3 years. High-risk children from greater Cincinnati were followed annually from ages 1 to 3 years. AR was defined as sneezing, runny, or blocked nose in the prior 12 months and a positive skin prick test (SPT) response to 1 or more aeroallergens. Environmental and standardized medical questionnaires determined exposures and clinical outcomes. Primary activity area dust samples were analyzed for house dust endotoxin (HDE) and (1-3)-beta-D-glucan. Fine particulate matter sampled at 27 monitoring stations was used to estimate personal elemental carbon attributable to traffic exposure by using a land-use regression model. Of 361 children in this analysis, 116 had AR, and 245 were nonatopic and nonsymptomatic. Prolonged breast-feeding in African American children (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 0.8; 95% CI, 0.6-0.9) and multiple children in the home during infancy was protective against AR (aOR, 0.4; 95% CI, 0.2-0.8). Food SPT response positivity and tree SPT response positivity in infancy increased the risk of AR at age 3 years (aOR of 4.4 [95% CI, 2.1-9.2] and aOR of 6.8 [95% CI, 2.5-18.7], respectively). HDE exposure was associated with AR; the effect was dependent on exposure level. Elemental carbon attributable to traffic and environmental tobacco smoke exposure showed no effect on AR.",
"In adults, subjects sensitized to Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxins (SE) seem to have an increased risk of asthma, whereas this association is less clear in childhood and adolescence. The primary aim of the present analysis was to examine the association between sensitization to SE and asthma at the age of 20 years. The German Multicentre Allergy Study recruited 1314 healthy newborns in 1990. We analyzed data from 61 asthmatics (based on at least two criteria: physician diagnosed asthma ever, wheezing in the last 12 months, asthma medication in the last 12 months) and 122 healthy study participants at age 20. In serum, specific Immunoglobulin E (IgE) to SE and common aeroallergens were measured. The association between asthma at age 20 and sensitization to SE was estimated by logistic regression models considering allergic, socio-demographic, and lifestyle factors as potential confounders. Fifty-five percent of the included participants were female. At age 20, subjects sensitized to SE were more likely to have asthma than not-sensitized subjects: raw odds ratio (OR) 2.5, 95%-confidence interval (95%CI) [1.3-4.7]; adjusted OR 1.6, 95%CI [0.8-3.4].",
"Immunologic pathways are primed in early life. Preterm birth can influence this process and thereby affect whether a person will have atopy later in life. Previous studies on the effects of preterm birth on atopy in adulthood have been inconclusive and limited to children or subjects born moderately preterm. Our aim was to compare the incidence of atopy among young adults who were born preterm and at very low birth weight (≤ 1500 g) with that of term-born young adults (control subjects). The study comprised 166 adults who were born preterm and at very low birth weight and 172 control subjects, all of whom were from the Helsinki Study of Very Low Birth Weight Adults. We assessed atopic predisposition at ages 18 to 27 years using skin prick tests for 6 common aeroallergens and measurements of serum concentrations of total IgE and 3 types of allergen-specific (cat, birch, and timothy) IgE. We asked the subjects whether they had been given a diagnosis of asthma or allergic rhinitis or had atopic eczema and analyzed data by using logistic or linear regression, adjusting for potential confounding factors. The risk for having at least 1 positive reaction on a skin prick test was reduced (adjusted odds ratio, 0.43; 95% CI, 0.23-0.79, P = .007), and the concentration of cat-specific IgE was less (25% less; 95% CI, 43% to 2.3% less; P = .033) in sera from very-low-birth-weight subjects compared with that seen in sera from control subjects. Within the very-low-birth-weight group, those born at an earlier gestational age were less likely to have positive skin prick test reactions (adjusted odds ratio for 1 week, 0.82; 95% CI, 0.68-0.98, P = .029) and less likely to have high levels of allergen-specific IgE. Cumulative incidences of atopic disease were similar between adults of very low birth weight and control subjects.",
"Infant feeding guidelines have long recommended delaying introduction of solids and allergenic foods to prevent allergy in high-risk infants, despite a paucity of evidence. We aimed to determine whether confirmed egg allergy in 12-month-old infants is associated with (1) duration of breast-feeding and (2) ages of introducing egg and solids. In a population-based cross-sectional study (HealthNuts) parents reported on infant feeding and potential confounding factors before skin prick testing for egg white. Egg-sensitized infants were then offered an egg oral food challenge. Multiple logistic regression was used to investigate associations between diet and egg allergy adjusted for possible confounding factors. A total of 2589 infants (73% response) participated. Compared with introduction at 4 to 6 months, introducing egg into the diet later was associated with higher risks of egg allergy (adjusted odds ratios [ORs], 1.6 [95% CI, 1.0-2.6]and 3.4 [95% CI, 1.8-6.5] for introduction at 10-12 and after 12 months, respectively). These findings persisted even in children without risk factors (OR, 3.3 [95% CI, 1.1-9.9]; 10-12 months). At age 4 to 6 months, first exposure as cooked egg reduced the risk of egg allergy compared with first exposure as egg in baked goods (OR, 0.2 [95% CI, 0.06-0.71]). Duration of breast-feeding and age at introduction of solids were not associated with egg allergy.",
"To investigate the impact of maternal diet during breastfeeding on atopic sensitization of infants at risk. Prospective cohort study. Turku University Central Hospital, Finland. Altogether 114 infants with a family history of atopic disease were followed during their first year of life. The mothers completed a 4 day food record during breastfeeding just before the infants were 3 months old. Atopic sensitization of the infants was determined by a positive skin prick test result at 12 months. Positive skin prick test reactivity to at least one antigen was detected in 27/114 (24%) infants at 12 months. The energy intake of the mothers was low, mean 8.0 MJ/day (95% CI 7.7-8. 3), and the proportion of energy derived from fat was high, mean 36. 6 E% (95% CI 35.6-37.6). Atopic mothers had a higher intake of total fat and saturated fat and a lower intake of carbohydrate as a percentage of total energy intake than non-atopic mothers; P=0.017, P=0.050, P=0.004 respectively. Maternal intake of saturated fat during breastfeeding was associated with atopic sensitization of the infant, OR=1.16 (95% CI 1.001-1.36); P=0.048 irrespective of the maternal atopic status.",
"yes. Daily application of moisturizer during the first 32 weeks of life reduces the risk of AD/eczema in infants. Allergic sensitization during this time period is associated with the presence of eczematous skin but not with moisturizer use.",
"yes. The farming environment may reduce sensitisation to common allergens also after early childhood. However, it may also increase sensitisation to farm allergens.",
"Atopic dermatitis (AD) has been highlighted as a likely first step in the 'atopic march', emphasizing the need to define predisposing factors. We evaluated AD risk factors and phenotypes in an Asian mother-offspring cohort . We defined three phenotypes of doctor-diagnosed AD based on the time of onset of the disease: early AD occurring within the first 6 months of life, AD occurring between 6 and 12 months and late-onset AD starting after the age of 12 months. Maternal allergic history was associated with an increased risk of developing early-onset AD (adjusted odds ratio (aOR) 20.46, 95% confidence interval (CI) 2.73-153.15, p<0.01). Maternal allergic history and attendance at a daycare centre increased the odds of the development of AD between 6 and 12 months (aOR 4.19, 95% CI 1.01-17.45, p = 0.049 and aOR 11.42, 95% CI 1.49-87.50, p = 0.02, respectively). Risk factors associated with increased odds of late-onset AD from 12 months were the consumption of probiotics between the age of 9 and 12 months and antibiotic treatment in the first 6 months of life (aOR 4.32, 95% CI 1.07-17.45, p = 0.04 and aOR 3.11, 95% CI 1.10-8.76, p = 0.03, respectively). Early-onset AD was associated with an increased risk of developing allergic sensitization (aOR 46.51, 95% CI 3.44-628.81, p<0.01).",
"Epidemiologic data describing the association between allergic sensitization and asthma and allergic rhinitis in adults are scarce. To determine the prevalence and impact of specific sensitization to airborne allergens on asthma and allergic rhinitis among adults in relation to age. A random population sample (age 21-86 years) was examined with structured interview and analysis of specific IgE to 9 common airborne allergens. Of those invited, 692 (68%) subjects participated in blood sampling. IgE level of 0.35 U/mL or more to the specific allergen was defined as a positive test result. Allergic sensitization decreased with increasing age, both in the population sample and among subjects with asthma and allergic rhinitis. In a multivariate model, sensitization to animal was significantly positively associated with asthma (odds ratio [OR], 4.80; 95% CI, 2.68-8.60), whereas sensitization to both animal (OR, 3.90; 95% CI, 2.31-6.58) and pollen (OR, 4.25; 95% CI, 2.55-7.06) was significantly associated with allergic rhinitis. The association between allergic sensitization and rhinitis was consistently strongest among the youngest age group, whereas this pattern was not found for asthma. The prevalence of allergic sensitization among patients with asthma decreased by increasing age of asthma onset, 86% with asthma onset at age 6 y or less, 56% at age 7 to 19 years, and 26% with asthma onset at age 20 years or more.",
"Although family history and elevated CB-IgE were significantly associated with primarily atopic disease until 26 yr, none of these were strong predictors for subsequent sensitization and allergic symptoms from childhood until early adulthood. It appears that the predictive capacity of CB-IgE decreases in adolescence and early adulthood.",
"yes. Only 9.5% of the children had reproducible nickel sulphate reactivity, while 62% became negative. The results are noteworthy and can be interpreted in different ways: Repeated nickel patch tests did not cause patch test sensitization. The test reactions in infancy are probably of irritant or non-specific nature. Hence, nickel patch tests should only be performed in small children if there is a clinical suspicion of nickel-induced allergic contact dermatitis.",
"yes. Retinol concentration in young infants is inversely associated with the subsequent development of allergic symptoms. We propose that an inborn regulation of retinol may play a role in atopic sensitization, possibly through regulating the intestinal T cell responses.",
"Increasing prevalence of allergic disorders has focused attention on primary prevention. There is a need to improve the accuracy of early-life predictors of atopy so that the at-risk population can be accurately defined and preventive measures instituted. The predictive capacity of elevated cord IgE, with or without family history of atopy, to allergic symptoms and skin prick test (SPT) sensitization is evaluated in a birth cohort followed up prospectively for 4 years. A birth cohort of 1456 consecutively born children was recruited in 1989. Data were collected on family history of atopy and cord serum total IgE (cord IgE) was measured. Of these, 1218 children were seen in the clinic at 4 years to determine the development of symptoms and signs of allergic disease and 981 were skin tested to a range of common food and aeroallergens. Of 1218 children reviewed at age 4 years, 218 (17.8%) had symptoms of respiratory allergy and, of those skin tested (n = 981), 192 (19.6%) reacted positively. Twice as many children with elevated cord IgE (>/= 0.5 kU/L) at birth became sensitized to aeroallergens by age 4 years (34.8% vs 17.3%, P < 0. 001). Positive predictive value (PPV) of elevated cord IgE for the development of aeroallergen sensitization was better than that of family history of atopy (34.8 vs 22.6%). Combining paternal atopy with elevated cord IgE substantially increased the predictive capacity (PPV 77.8%). Cord IgE levels did not correlate with clinical asthma or rhinitis at age 4 years and PPV for allergic respiratory symptoms remained poor at all cutoffs.",
"Recent trials suggest a link between neuropsychological function, atopy and allergic disease particularly in early childhood; however the nature of this association remains unclear. To investigate the relationship between early allergic disease and sensitisation at 12 months of age and neurodevelopmental outcomes at 18 months. Linear or binary logistic regression analysis was used to determine whether allergic diseases or sensitization at 12 months of age was a significant predictor of neurodevelopmental test scores at the 18 months. Infants with a maternal history of allergic disease (n=324). Allergic outcomes at 12 months of age included allergen sensitisation, eczema, IgE-mediated and food allergy, and neurodevelopmental outcomes at 18 included the Bayley Scales of Infant Toddler Development III Edition, the Achenbach Child Behaviour Checklist and the Macarthur Scales of Infant Toddler Development. Children with any diagnosed allergic disease at 12 months had evidence of reduced motor scores (p=.016), and this was most apparent for a diagnosis of eczema (p=.007). Non-IgE mediated food allergy was significantly positively associated with problem Internalising Behaviours (p=.010), along with a trend for effects on the Social-Emotional composite score for IgE-Mediated food allergies (p=.052). Allergic sensitisation was not independently associated with any effects on neurodevelopmental outcomes.",
"Although breastfed infants have consistently been reported as having fewer infections and respiratory morbidity during infancy, none have reached a definitive conclusion as to whether breastfeeding is an effective strategy to prevent allergic diseases. This study aims to investigate the relationship between exclusive breastfeeding and sequential changes of several biomarkers of allergy, such as absolute eosinophil count, total IgE level, and specific IgE level during the first 3 yrs of life. This is an unselected, population-based study that is part of a prospective birth cohort called the PATCH (Prediction of Allergy in Taiwanese Children). Blood analysis was performed at ages 6, 12, 18, 24, and 36 months. Clinical records of breastfeeding and detailed questionnaires regarding to allergic diseases were also obtained. Analysis comparing exclusive breastfeeding ≥4 months with those <4 months and those partially breastfed showed a decreased risk of sensitization toward cow's milk protein up to the age of 2 yr (adjusted OR for cow's milk sensitization at 12 months was 0.2 [95% CI, 0.07-0.5]), at 18 months of age it was 0.2 [95% CI, 0.07-0.5], and at 24 months of age it was 0.2 [95% CI, 0.04-0.7]). In addition, although not significant, children of the exclusive breastfeeding group showed a trend of lower absolute eosinophil counts than their counterparts at all ages, and a lower total IgE level at the age of 3 yr.",
"yes. Basophils are sensitized early in the context of a low-dose primary infection with N americanus in the absence of measurable total and specific IgE serum level increase.",
"no. Exclusive breast-feeding does not affect sensitization in early childhood or associated diseases at 7 years of age in at-risk children.",
"yes. Infants with atopic eczema and CMA exhibit markedly increased systemic pro-allergenic IL-4 responses on intestinal antigen contact, which may partially be explained by a defective ability to launch anti-allergenic TGF-beta2 responses.",
"Infants from anthroposophic families have low cortisol levels and low risk of IgE-sensitization during first 2 years of life. Our aim was to study the impact of an anthroposophic lifestyle and cortisol levels at 6 months on allergy sensitization up to age 5 years. A total of 507 families participated from maternal healthcare centers. Parental lifestyle was categorized as anthroposophic, partly anthroposophic, or non-anthroposophic. Blood samples for analyzes of sensitization were obtained from parents at inclusion and from children at 6, 12, 24, and 60 months. Salivary samples were collected at home at 6 months. Sensitization increased from 2.9% to 26.0% in the anthroposophic group, from 8.4% to 26.8% in the partly anthroposophic group, and from 19.1% to 44.1% in the non-anthroposophic group. Children from anthroposophic families had lower cortisol levels in the morning, afternoon, and evening. The odds ratio (OR) for anthroposophic lifestyle was always <1 and lowest at 12 months (OR, 0.10; 95% CI, 0.03-0.36). Adjusting for cortisol levels at 6 months increased these ORs at 12 and 24 months. At the same ages, ORs for sensitization were elevated also for cortisol levels at 6 months. Analyzes in children not sensitized at 6 months confirmed the cortisol-related risk of sensitization.",
"yes. Eczema in infancy is associated with development of asthma and rhinitis during the following 5-year period, and eczema is one of the strongest risk factors. Early identification is valuable for prediction of the atopic march.",
"yes. Early innate immunity responses in the gut are associated with the emergence of sensitization and atopic dermatitis later in childhood.",
"Identification of children at risk of developing asthma provides a window of opportunity for risk-reducing interventions. Allergen sensitization might identify high-risk children. We sought to determine whether skin prick tests (SPTs) to individual allergens up to age 2 years predict wheeze at age 12 years. In a birth cohort of 620 children oversampled for familial allergy, sensitization was assessed by using SPTs (monosensitized, polysensitized, or either) to 6 allergens at ages 6, 12, and 24 months. Wheeze and eczema were recorded 18 times during the first 2 years. Current wheeze was recorded at age 12 years. Adjusted associations were evaluated by multiple logistic regression. A positive SPT to house dust mite (HDM) at age 1 or 2 years predicted wheeze at age 12 years (adjusted odds ratio: 1 year, 3.31 [95% CI 1.59-6.91]; 2 years, 6.37 [95% CI, 3.48-11.66]). Among wheezy 1-year-olds, those who were HDM sensitized had a 75% (95% CI, 51% to 91%) probability of wheeze at age 12 years compared with a 36% (95% CI, 23% to 50%) probability among those not sensitized. Among eczematous 1-year-olds, those who were HDM sensitized had a 67% (95% CI, 45% to 84%) probability of wheeze at age 12 years compared with a 35% (95% CI, 25% to 45%) probability among those not sensitized. Among 1-year-old children with both eczema and wheeze, the probability of wheeze at age 12 years was 64% (95% CI, 35% to 87%) if HDM sensitized and 50% (95% CI, 26% to 74%) if not.",
"No large, prospective, epidemiologic study has investigated the association between diesel exhaust particle (DEP) exposure and early aeroallergen sensitization and allergic rhinitis (AR) at 4 years of age. To determine how exposure to traffic exhaust during infancy is associated with aeroallergen sensitization and AR at 4 years of age and the predictive utility of the wheal area at 1 to 3 years of age on AR at 4 years of age. Infants born to aeroallergen sensitized parents were evaluated annually with skin prick tests to 15 aeroallergens with measurement of wheal areas. At 4 years of age, AR was defined as at least one positive aeroallergen skin prick test result and the presence of sneezing and a runny nose without a cold or flu. Infant (DEP) exposure was estimated using data from 27 air sampling monitors and a land use regression model. Complete data were available for 634 children at 4 years of age. Prevalence of AR increased annually from 6.9% to 21.9%. A positive trend was observed for high DEP exposure and aeroallergen sensitization at 2 and 3 years of age (odds ratio, 1.40; 95% confidence interval, 0.97-2.0) and (odds ratio, 1.35; 95% confidence interval, 0.98-1.85) but not with AR. At 2 years of age, every 1-mm(2) increase in the wheal area of timothy and Alternaria significantly increased the odds of AR at 4 years of age. At 3 years of age, every 1-mm(2) increase in the wheal area of fescue, dog, and Penicillium significantly increased the odds of AR at 4 years of age.",
"yes. Dog exposure in early life might prevent the development of asthma-like symptoms, at least in low-risk children with no family history of asthma. Nevertheless, early pet exposure does not seem to significantly influence the development of allergic sensitization.",
"yes. Prevalence of sensitization to airborne allergens, unlike that to dietary allergens, has increased over a long period of time. Our results support the concept of the immune function being programmed by external factors early in life. They also call for caution when interpretations of the pace and possible causes of the allergy epidemic are made on the basis of short-term studies.",
"yes. Early age at sensitization is associated with enhanced T cell cytokine responses and indices of adverse asthma outcome. T cell cytokine responses might be programmed at the time of initial atopic sensitization.",
"yes. These findings suggest that the maturity of neonatal monocytes and their responsiveness to external stimuli are linked to differing patterns of immune reactivity at birth and to the risk of allergic symptoms in early childhood.",
"The first exposure to food antigens provokes an immune reaction in an infant, its type depending on the quantity and frequency of doses and the age at introduction, and also being influenced by genetic factors. Most infants develop tolerance to food antigens, but in a small minority they provoke adverse symptoms. To study the effects of breast and formula feeding and other environmental and genetic factors on the subsequent type of cow's milk allergy classified by the presence or absence of immunoglobulin (Ig) E antibodies to cow's milk. A cohort of 6209 infants was followed prospectively from birth for symptoms of cow's milk allergy. The infant-feeding regimen was recorded at the maternity hospital and at home. At a mean age of 6.7 months, a total of 118 infants (1.9%) reacted adversely to a challenge with cow's milk. Before the challenge, the response to a skin-prick test with cow's milk and serum IgE cow's milk antibodies was measured. At challenge, 75 (64%) infants showed IgE-positive reactions to cow's milk, their most common symptom being acute-onset urticaria. Significant risk factors for the presence of IgE cow's milk antibodies in allergic infants were long breast-feeding (odds ratio [OR] 3.9, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.6-9.8), exposure to cow's milk at the maternity hospital (OR 3.5, 95% CI 1.2-10.1) and breast-feeding during the first 2 months at home either exclusively (OR 5.1, 95% CI 1.6-16.4) or combined with infrequent exposure to small amounts of cow's milk (OR 5.7, 95% CI 1.5-21.6). Fifty infants had their first adverse symptoms during exclusive breast-feeding, and 32 infants were sensitized during exclusive breast-feeding. Most of the infants in both cases were IgE-positive: 37 and 23, respectively.",
"Few studies have focused on pollen exposure and asthma in children. None have examined associations between persistent exposure to pollen in infancy and aeroallergen sensitisation and asthma in childhood. To examine the association between higher ambient levels of pollen in the first 3-6 months of life and risk of eczema, sensitization to food and aeroallergens at 2 years and asthma or hayfever at age 6-7 years combined. Using a birth cohort of 620 infants with a family history of allergic disease born between 1990 and 1994, we examined risk of eczema or allergic sensitization (SPT > 3 mm to at least one of cow's milk, egg white, peanut, house dust-mite, rye grass, and cat dander) by age 2 and asthma or hayfever at age 6-7. Daily ambient levels of pollen were measured during this period. Cumulative exposure to pollen concentrations up to 6 months was associated with aeroallergen sensitization with the highest risk occurring at 3 months (aOR = 1.34, 95% CI 1.06-1.72). Cumulative exposure to pollen up to 3 months was also associated with hayfever (aOR = 1.14, 95% CI 1.009-1.29) and between 4 and 6 months exposure with asthma only (aOR=1.35, 95% CI 1.07-1.72).",
"There is limited knowledge of the development of IgE-antibody levels over time in childhood, with respect to persistency and co-sensitization to specific inhalant allergens. Data from 2033 children participating in the BAMSE birth cohort was used. Background factors and clinical parameters were obtained and IgE antibody (ab) levels to eight common airborne allergens were measured (>or=0.35 kU(A)/L) when the children were 4 and 8 years of age. Between 4 and 8 years the proportion of children sensitized to any of the inhalant allergens tested increased from 15% to 25%. At 4 years IgE-ab to birch and cat dominated, whereas at the age of 8, there was a considerable increase in the proportion of sensitization to timothy and dog. Except for mites and moulds, IgE-ab levels to all aeroallergens increased significantly between 4 and 8 years among those already sensitized at 4. Transient sensitization to inhalant allergen was uncommon. Furthermore, sensitization to birch pollen at 4 years increased the risk for becoming sensitized to timothy, cat and dog later in life. Such an association was not observed among those sensitized primarily to animal dander.",
"Extended breast-feeding is recommended for newborn children at risk of allergy-associated diseases, but the evidence of a protective effect on sensitization and these diseases remains elusive. The aim of this study was to investigate the effects of the duration of exclusive breast-feeding on the development of sensitization in preschool children. Information on breast-feeding was gathered by interviews involving 335 children aged 1, 6, and 12 months from the Copenhagen Prospective Study on Asthma in Childhood2000 birth cohort born to mothers with a history of asthma. Skin prick test responses and specific IgE levels against 12 common inhalant and 10 food allergens were assessed longitudinally at ages ½ year, 1½ years, 4 years, and 6 years. Eczema, wheeze/asthma, and allergic rhinitis were diagnosed at the Copenhagen Prospective Studies on Asthma in Childhood clinic at 7 years of age, strictly adhering to predefined algorithms. Associations between duration of exclusive breast-feeding and outcomes were analyzed by logistic regression. We found no significant association between duration of exclusive breast-feeding and development of sensitization in the first 6 years of life (odds ratio [OR]: ½ year, 1.10 [95% CI, 0.90-1.36]; 1½ years, 1.15 [95% CI, 0.97-1.36]; 4 years, 1.08 [95% CI, 0.93-1.25]; and 6 years, 0.96 [95% CI, 0.84-1.10]) or with current eczema, wheeze/asthma, and allergic rhinitis at age 7 years (OR, 1.07 [95% CI, 0.92-1.24]; OR, 0.97 [95% CI, 0.82-1.14]; and OR, 1.02 [95% CI, 0.84-1.23], respectively). Adjusting for reverse causation by excluding children with eczema, wheeze, or a positive skin prick test response before ending exclusive breast-feeding did not alter the results.",
"yes. Hen's egg-specific IgE at the age of 12 months is a valuable marker for subsequent allergic sensitization to allergens that cause asthma, allergic rhinitis, and atopic dermatitis.",
"yes. In infants who are prone to developing cow's milk allergy, prolonged breast-feeding exclusively or combined with infrequent exposure to small amounts of cow's milk during the first 2 months of life induces development of IgE-mediated response to cow's milk.",
"yes. Infants with very early signs of atopic dermatitis and a positive family history are candidates for early intervention measures against respiratory allergies.",
"yes. HDM sensitization at age 1 or 2 years in wheezing and eczematous children at increased familial allergy risk predicts asthma and may inform management of these high-risk groups.",
"yes. DEP exposure enhances the risk of early aeroallergen sensitization. Aeroallergen wheal area at 2 and 3 years of age is associated with AR at 4 years of age.",
"yes. Sensitization to Ara h 1, 2 and 3 is usually acquired in childhood. IgE to Ara h 2 ≥ 1.0 kUA /l is significantly associated with the development of systemic reactions to peanut.",
"To investigate if the development of allergic diseases during the child's first 18 months of life is influenced by the time at which different food items were introduced into the child's diet. A birth cohort of 184 children was followed to 18 months of age. Diaries were used to document feeding practices, and parental interviews were performed at 6 and 12 months of age, probing for symptoms suggesting allergic disease, general health-related issues and food introduction regimes. Symptoms promoted prompt clinical examination, and all children were examined clinically, and tested for sensitization to common airborne and food allergens at 18 months of age. The earlier the fish was introduced into the child's diet the lower was the frequency of eczema. This association remained after control for confounding factors. The timing of fish introduction and asthma development showed a similar pattern, but did not reach statistical significance. Sensitization was not influenced by the timing of fish introduction. Other food items or feeding practices did not seem to influence allergy development.",
"yes. In European children with a familial risk for allergic sensitization, we found a positive association between macrolide use in the first year of life and wheezing until 36 months old which was independent of the effect of respiratory infection.",
"Screening tests for atopy risk in newborns have a low predictive value. If early atopic symptoms and signs could be used as predictors for the next expected atopic disorder then secondary prevention could be employed. The aim of this study was to evaluate the capacity of early atopic dermatitis to predict aeroallergen sensitization and the manifestation of respiratory atopic disorders at 5 years of age. 1314 children of a German prospective birth cohort study MAS-90 were followed from birth up to 5 years of age. Atopic dermatitis, asthma and rhinoconjunctivitis were diagnosed from symptoms and signs at physical examinations and by interviews of the parents. Blood was drawn at 1, 2, 3, and 5 years of age. Aeroallergen sensitization was diagnosed by a specific IgE value of at least 0.35 kU/L (CAP class > or = 1) against any of five respiratory allergens (mite, cat, dog, birch, grass). Atopic dermatitis in the first 3 months was a risk factor for aeroallergen sensitization at 5 years. The risk increased with a positive family history for atopic diseases. Seventy-seven per cent of children with two atopic parents and early atopic dermatitis were sensitized against aeroallergens at 5 years, i.e. could have been predicted in early infancy without any laboratory tests. Although these risk factors were also significantly associated with the manifestation of allergic airway disease, the positive predictive value for this outcome at age 5 years was not yet as high, i.e. 50%.",
"Allergen exposure is associated with the development of allergic sensitization in childhood as reflected by global variations in sensitization patterns. However, there is little evidence to support a direct association. To investigate the association between perinatal aeroallergen exposure and sensitization and rhinitis to such allergens later in childhood. Allergic sensitization to cat, dog, and house dust mites was diagnosed longitudinally using skin prick tests and specific IgE measurements at ½, 1½, 4, 6, and 13 years in 399 children from the Copenhagen Prospective Study on Asthma in Childhood2000 birth cohort. Rhinitis was diagnosed at 7 and 13 years. Allergen exposure was defined as dog or cat in the home during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy or the first year of life and as allergen levels of dog, cat, and house dust mite in bed dust samples at 1 year. Associations between exposure and outcomes were analyzed by logistic regression and stratified for eczema status and test method (skin prick test and specific IgE). We found no association between dog or cat exposure in perinatal life and sensitization or rhinitis during childhood. Similarly, there was no association between levels of allergens in bed dust samples and sensitization or rhinitis during childhood.",
"Large, prospective population-based studies on clinical course, development of tolerance, and risk for other atopy in children with cow's milk allergy (CMA) are lacking. We investigated the development of tolerance and the risk for asthma, rhinoconjunctivitis, atopic dermatitis, and sensitization in children with CMA followed to school age. We followed 118 children with CMA until recovery and repeatedly measured their sensitization to cow's milk (CM). At age 8.6 years, 94 allergic subjects and 80 control subjects from the same cohort were studied for atopic diseases and sensitization. In addition, the parents of 12 allergic subjects and 26 control children returned a questionnaire on atopy, respectively. IgE-mediated CMA was detected in 86 (73%) children; at age 8.6 years, 13 (15%) had persistent CMA. All children with IgE-negative CMA were tolerant by age 5.0 years (P < .0001). Risk factors for persistent CMA at age 2.0 years were sensitization to CM at age 1.6 years (odds ratio, 6.3; 95% CI, 2.6-15.2), urticaria at diagnostic challenge (odds ratio, 3.3; 95% CI, 1.4-7.8), CM exposure at the maternity hospital (odds ratio, 3.2; 95% CI, 1.4-7.8), and early sensitization to egg (odds ratio, 2.8; 95% CI, 1.2-6.6). By age 8.6 years, children with IgE-positive CMA more frequently had asthma (31% vs 13%, P < or = .01), rhinoconjunctivitis (66% vs 21%, P < or = .001), atopic eczema (81% vs 26%, P < or = .001), and sensitization to any allergen (88% vs 39%, P < or = .001) than control subjects. CMA and family history of atopy were independent risk factors for atopic diseases, and CMA was also a risk factor for sensitization to inhalant allergens.",
"yes. Infantile eczema, but not other skin eruptions, precedes the development of atopic dermatitis and wheezing illness during early infancy, presumably because of the activation of eosinophils before birth.",
"yes. Monocytes from children with allergic mothers are less responsive to bacterial challenge than monocytes from children with non-allergic mothers, and this impairment persists during the first 2 years of infancy.",
"yes. Neonatal skin barrier dysfunction predicts FA at 2 years of age, supporting the concept of transcutaneous allergen sensitization, even in infants who do not have AD. TEWL could be used for stratifying infants in the first few days of life before development of AD or FA for targeted intervention studies to potentially alter the atopic march.",
"yes. The trajectory consisting of impaired lung function from birth throughout childhood in children with asthma, atopic dermatitis, and allergic rhinitis appears less likely to be driven by allergic sensitization, and may imply disease onset in utero, with clinical presentation later in childhood.",
"Transcutaneous exposure to food allergens can lead to food sensitization (FS)/food allergy (FA). We measured skin barrier function in early infancy and related it to the later development of FS/FA at age 2 years. We sought to examine the relationship between early life skin barrier function and FA in infancy. Infants in the Babies After Scope: Evaluating the Longitudinal Impact Using Neurological and Nutritional Endpoints (BASELINE) birth cohort had transepidermal water loss (TEWL) measured in the early newborn period and at 2 and 6 months of age. At age 2 years, infants had FS/FA screening with skin prick tests and oral food challenges. One thousand nine hundred three infants were enrolled. One thousand three hundred fifty-five were retained to age 2 years, and 1260 underwent FS screening. FS was present in 6.27% (79/1260; 95% CI, 4.93% to 7.61%), and FA prevalence was 4.45% (56/1258; 95% CI, 3.38% to 5.74%). Egg was the most prevalent allergen (2.94%), followed by peanut (1.75%) and cow's milk (0.74%). Day 2 upper-quartile TEWL (>9 g water/m(2)/h) was a significant predictor of FA at age 2 years (odds ratio [OR], 4.1; 95% CI, 1.5-4.8). Seventy-five percent of children with FA at 2 years of age had day 2 TEWL in the upper quartile. Even in those without atopic dermatitis (AD), infants with upper-quartile day 2 TEWL were 3.5 times more likely to have FA at 2 years than infants in the lowest quartile (95% CI, 1.3-11.1; P = .04).",
"These results support the hypothesis that AR could begin as early as 18 months of life. Suspicion of AR should be reinforced in infants with parental history of AR or biological evidence of atopy, particularly blood eosinophilia and sensitization to inhalant allergens.",
"Profiles of allergic sensitization are poorly documented in infancy. Relations between early sensitization and allergic morbidity need to be clarified. This study dealt with children involved in the Pollution and Asthma Risk: an Infant Study (PARIS), a population-based prospective birth cohort. Allergic sensitization to twelve food and four inhalant allergens was assessed at 18 months and defined by a specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) level ≥0.35 kU Sensitization to any allergen concerned 13.6% of infants. By cluster analysis, 1525 infants were grouped into three profiles: 89.2% not or rarely sensitized (only 3.7% of sensitized), 9.2% mainly sensitized to one or few allergens (45.2% of monosensitized and 45.9% of paucisensitized) and 1.6% all polysensitized. The prevalence of doctor-diagnosed asthma, rhinitis, eczema, food allergy and multimorbidity at 2 years increased from profile one to profile three (p-trend <0.001). At 6 years, symptoms of current asthma, rhinitis, eczema and multimorbidity were significantly more frequent in the last two profiles.",
"yes. The findings suggest that active immunological recognition of environmental allergens and the ensuing initiation of allergen-specific T-cell responses, is a normal part of the 'education' of the immune system in early childhood and can occur even at very low exposure levels. Priming per se does not imply clinically significant sensitivity, however.",
"Specific predictors for atopic sensitization in early infancy are prerequisites for preventive intervention studies. To identify predictors of allergic sensitization to common aeroallergens in infancy, 1314 children in five German cities were followed up from birth (1990) to the age of 3 years. Blood samples were taken from cord blood and at follow-up visits at the ages of 1, 2, and 3 years. Total serum IgE and specific IgE antibodies to common food and inhalant allergens were determined. Among our study population, risk factors for sensitization to indoor and/or outdoor allergens at the age of 3 years were a positive family history, the presence of hen's egg-specific IgE antibodies (> or = 0.35 kU/L), and increased log- [total IgE] levels at the age of 12 months. Elevated cord blood IgE was not associated with sensitization to inhalant allergens at the age of 3 years. Egg-specific IgE greater than 2 kU/L in combination with a positive family history of atopy was a highly specific (specificity, 99%) and predictive (positive predictive value, 78%) marker for sensitization to inhalant allergens at 3 years of age.",
"no. Perinatal indoor aeroallergen exposure does not seem to affect development of allergic sensitization or rhinitis during childhood questioning the relevance of allergen avoidance as a preventive measure. Other factors such as timing of allergen exposure or other environmental adjuvants may contribute in a more complex pathway to sensitization.",
"Even though atopic sensitization has been shown to be strongly associated with childhood asthma, asthma eventually develops in only one third of atopic children. The aim of this study was to prospectively investigate the pattern of atopic sensitization typically associated with the development of asthma in childhood. The German Multicenter Allergy Study followed 1314 children from birth to the age of 7 years. Parental questionnaires on asthma and asthmatic symptoms were completed 6 times up to the age of 2 years and from then on yearly. Determination of specific IgE to 9 food and inhalant allergens was performed yearly, and at the age of 7 years, a bronchial histamine challenge was conducted. Onset of atopic sensitization in atopic children with current asthma at the age of 7 years was significantly earlier than in atopic children without current asthma (39.4% before age 1 year vs 21.0%, P =.015). Early atopic sensitization without any sensitization to inhalant allergens at the age of 7 years conferred no increased risk for asthma at this age. Only those children sensitized to any allergen early in life and sensitized to inhalant allergens by the age of 7 years were at a significantly increased risk of being asthmatic at this age (odds ratio, 10.12; 95% CI, 3.81-26.88). However, even in this group of persistently sensitized children, the risk of being asthmatic at the age of 7 years was only increased if a positive parental history of asthma or atopy was present (odds ratio, 15.56; 95% CI, 5.78-41.83), with the effect being strongest for maternal asthma.",
"The purpose of the study was to investigate the influence of environmental allergen exposure on allergic sensitization in infancy and early childhood. A cohort of 1314 newborns was recruited and followed up prospectively at the ages 12, 24, and 36 months. The levels of major mite (Der p 1 and Der f 1) and cat (Fel d 1) allergens were determined from domestic carpet dust samples by sandwich ELISA. Specific serum IgE antibodies to mite and cat allergens were determined by CAP fluoroimmunoassay (Pharmacia). Logistic regression was used to assess the effects of allergen exposure, age, family history, and cord blood IgE simultaneously on the risk of sensitization. Children, who had been found to be sensitized at least once during the first 3 years of life, were found to be exposed to significantly higher house dust mite (median, 868 ng/gm vs 210 ng/mg; p = 0.001) and cat (median, 150 ng/gm vs 64 ng/gm; p = 0.011) allergen concentrations in domestic carpet dust compared with the group without sensitization. In homes with low (< or = 25th percentile) dust concentrations, the risk of sensitization to mite (1.6%), and cat (2.0%) is low, compared with 6.5% for mite and 6.3% for cat if the domestic exposure is above the 75th percentile. The dose-response relationships between allergen levels and sensitization indicate that the increase in sensitization risk at low allergen levels is more pronounced in cat allergy (p = 0.002) than in mite allergy (p = 0.026). In the group with a positive family history, lower mite and cat allergen concentrations are needed to achieve specific sensitization compared with the group with a negative family history.",
"yes. Inhalant allergen-specific in vitro cytokine production associated with positive skin-prick test (SPT) reactions, one of the hallmarks of adult atopy, manifests in children at or before 5 years of age; additionally, cytokine responses in SPT negative 5 year-olds are restricted to IFNgamma, as per normal adults. In contrast, T-cell responses to a typical food allergen appear to be deleted during early childhood.",
"Because previous studies have found allergic contact sensitization common in children by 5 years of age, our aim was to determine the prevalence of positive epicutaneous test results in children<5 years of age and to determine whether sensitization to contact allergens was as common in infancy. We recruited 95 asymptomatic children 6 months to 5 years of age from well-child visits at Denver area pediatric practices for epicutaneous patch testing using the T.R.U.E. Test system. Allergens were placed on the skin for 48 hours, and at a later follow-up visit, positive reactions were evaluated. A total of 85 patients completed the study. Of these, 20 (24.5%) had 1 or more positive reactions to the tested allergens. Positive reactors ranged from 6 to 65.5 months of age, with an average of 30.4 months of age. Of the children, 16 reacted to 1 allergen, and 4 reacted to 2. Eleven positive reactions were observed to nickel, followed by 8 to thimerosal. Other positive reactions were to neomycin, cobalt, and kathon CG.",
"yes. Children from families with an anthroposophic lifestyle have lower risk than comparisons of developing sensitization up to 5 years. This risk is partially explained by low cortisol levels during infancy. High cortisol levels at 6 months predict sensitization up to 24 months.",
"yes. This study highlights, as early as 18 months of age, three profiles of increasing severity with regard to allergic sensitization and diseases. These profiles also differ in terms of allergic morbidity at 6 years. Early sensitization can predict allergic multimorbidity in childhood, and in the case of early polysensitization, multimorbidity is more frequent as soon as infancy.",
"yes. Our data suggest that cockroach allergen sensitivity starts early in life and may be the only sensitizing allergen in many young inner-city children.",
"yes. There is a prominent process of sensitization at pre-school age to inhalant allergens, and in Northern Europe sensitization to birch pollen early in life seems to be important for this process. Such a process has a probable impact on the development of allergic disease in the growing child.",
"yes. Sensitization to β-lactoglobulin increased the risk of rRTI in children under 2 years of age nearly four times. The presence of sensitization to food allergens above 3 years of age did not increase the risk of developing clinical presentation of food allergy other than atopic dermatitis.",
"yes. Sensitization to mite allergens antedated the onset of asthma-like symptoms, and no strong effect of allergen exposure on clinical development could be found. Thus the primary focus should be on preventing sensitization to mite allergens by implementing avoidance measures in infancy or at early school age in order to reduce the onset of asthma at a later stage.",
"yes. Our data indicate that avoidance measures in the domestic environment aimed at the primary prevention of allergen-driven sensitization should be introduced at the earliest possible stage, if possible during infancy.",
"Children as young as 6 months of age may be sensitized to contact allergens. Within this pediatric population, the prevalence of sensitization is 24.5%. Sensitization to contact allergens may occur in infants."
] | 576 |
Prostate-specific antigen: A surrogate endpoint for screening new agents against prostate cancer? | [
"An endpoint for clinical trials of prostate cancer which simplifies traditional endpoints (response of measurable lesions, progression rates, and death) is urgently needed. This is especially true for hormone-unresponsive disease, for which many new drugs are presently in a development phase. This paper presents a rationale for the use of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in clinical trials of progressive prostate cancer under endocrine treatment. The study is based on 84 patients who progressed after radical prostatectomy or node dissection, of whom 24 showed increasing PSA levels under subsequent endocrine treatment. An average linear relationship between (log-transformed) PSA and time and a subject-specific deviation from this average relationship were assessed. The predictive value of the subject-specific parameters of the linear fit with respect to time to prostate cancer-specific death was determined. The outcomes of the fitting procedure were used to calculate sample sizes for future studies (duration, 6 months) using PSA increase over time in hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer as a marker for treatment efficacy. The average PSA doubling time in this population was 4 months (corresponding time constant = 0.25). The assessed variance of the time constants equalled 0.04; the overall residual variance equalled 0.265. The subject-specific rate of change of the log-transformed PSA value in hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer was a highly significant predictor of prostate cancer-specific death. This suggests the potential usefulness of PSA as an endpoint in trials of hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer. Depending on conditions chosen (e.g, desired power and changes in log PSA slope), 18-70 participants per arm will be necessary in future phase III studies. A suggestion (algorithm) for the use of PSA in drug development is presented.",
"Relatively small PSA-based trials in patients with hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer are possible if a similar patient population is utilized. As long as surrogacy is not established, such studies cannot be considered conclusive with respect to effectiveness of treatment, but are likely to be useful as a screening tool for new drugs. Experimental confirmation in human prostate cancer model systems of synergism between PSA decrease and tumor control by a given test treatment is likely to enhance the level of certainty of PSA-based drug evaluation."
] | [
"yes. Interactions of prostate carcinoma with endothelium are mediated in part via alpha5beta1, alpha3beta1, and alpha(v)beta3 integrins. Because these interactions are RGD-sensitive, synthetic RGD peptides with optimized flanking amino acids can potentially be used as antimetastatic agents.",
"yes. Using PHI as part of multivariable risk assessment leads to a significant improvement in the detection of aggressive prostate cancer, potentially reducing harms from unnecessary prostate biopsy and overdiagnosis.",
"Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the most useful of all tumor markers. Although the sensitivity is impressive, low specificity results in a lack of cancer detection in a significant proportion of patients undergoing prostate biopsy. Several recent studies have addressed the need for improved specificity. Of all these approaches, the free/total PSA ratio appears to be the most promising. Given that most circulating PSA is complexed to alpha1-antichymotrypsin, and that this moiety represents a greater proportion of the total PSA in those men with carcinoma, we set out to determine whether complexed PSA would improve specificity in the detection of men with prostate cancer. Archival sera were obtained from 300 men, 75 of whom had biopsy-proved prostate cancer. All sera had been previously stored at -70 degrees C for variable periods. An investigative assay for complexed PSA (Bayer) was used. The Tandem-R free and total PSA assays (Hybritech) were used according to the manufacturer's recommendations. Among all patients, specificities for the total PSA, free/total PSA, and complexed PSA alone were 21.8%, 15.6%, and 26.7%, respectively, at cutoffs yielding 95% sensitivity. Similar equivalence or superior performance, in terms of specificity relative to the free/total PSA ratio, was seen at other sensitivity thresholds and other total PSA ranges.",
"These data are intriguing since the risk of finding prostate carcinoma on repeat sextant biopsy in the LGPIN group is 30%. This is higher than commonly reported. The importance of recognising and re-biopsying HGPIN was confirmed. If chemoprevention could be shown to be effective, it might be beneficial not only in HGPIN but also in LGPIN. The possible activity of chemopreventive agents and their combination with iso-flavonoids needs further investigation.",
"yes. This work identifies PrLZ as a marker for prostate cancer progression and metastasis, and its pattern of expression is suggestive of a proto-oncogene.",
"To investigate whether salvage radiation therapy (SRT) may promote prostate cancer (PCa) transformation to more aggressive phenotypes. To accomplish that, we identified men who underwent SRT after radical prostatectomy for PCa and failed SRT. PSA doubling time (PSADT) was used as a surrogate endpoint for cancer aggressiveness. We compared PSADT calculated before start of SRT and after SRT failure. Of 287 men in the SEARCH database since 1988 who underwent SRT, we detected 78 with SRT failure defined as PSA ≥ 0.2 ng/mL above the post-SRT nadir. Of these, 39 had PSADT available before and after SRT, which was compared using Wilcoxon's paired test with men serving as their own controls. We tested predictors of PSADT change using multivariable logistic regression. There were no differences in PSADT before and after SRT (10.2 vs 12.6 months; P = .46). However, in some individual cases, large changes were observed. Only seminal vesicle invasion showed a trend towards an association with a shorter post-SRT PSADT relative to the pre-SRT PSADT (P = .13).",
"yes. Posttreatment prostate specific antigen nadir is significantly associated with the risk of prostate cancer specific and all cause mortality after radiation with or without androgen deprivation therapy. A suboptimal prostate specific antigen nadir may identify candidates for earlier intervention to prolong survival.",
"To assess the number of missed prostate cancers and the frequency of aggressive disease when taking lateralized sextant prostate biopsies, irrespective of the total prostate volume (Pvol), during screening for prostate cancer. Men participating in the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer, Rotterdam section, aged 55-74 years, with a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of ≥3.0 ng/mL, and a negative sextant biopsy result at the initial screening round, were followed for 8 years. Cases of prostate cancer detected during the follow-up by screening, or detected clinically as interval cancers, were assessed. Pvol at the initial screening round was related to the number of cancers found during the follow-up. Furthermore, the frequency of aggressive cancer (N1 or M1, PSA>20 ng/mL, Gleason>7) was evaluated using multivariate logistic regression analysis, including age, PSA level and Pvol. In the total of 1305 men, 152 prostate cancers were detected during 8 years of follow-up (11.6%); 23 were classified as aggressive (15.1%), and 50 (32.9%) were detected as interval cancers. There was a significant relation between a larger Pvol at the initial screening round and fewer cancers (odds ratio 0.1, P<0.001). In multivariate logistic regression, the initial PSA level (odds ratio 3.21, 95% confidence interval, CI 1.2-8.3) and smaller Pvol (0.08, 95% CI 0.03-0.26) were statistically significant predictors for all cancers and aggressive cancers (PSA odds ratio 70.37, 95% CI 13.5-366.2; Pvol odds ratio 0.03, 95% CI 0.01-0.35).",
"Staging in patients with newly diagnosed cancer of the prostate has significant ramifications in the management of the disease. At present, measurement of serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration and radionuclide bone scintigraphy are two important procedures in the metastatic work-up of these patients. We evaluated the efficacy of PSA as a staging marker to discriminate prostate cancer patients with and without bone metastases. In a retrospective study, 359 prostate cancer patients with (n = 40) and without (n = 319) bone metastases were analyzed. In all patients the initial PSA measurement as well as the radionuclide bone scan were evaluated. Patients without bone metastases demonstrated a median serum PSA concentration of 12 ng/ml, whereas those with bone metastases revealed a median serum PSA concentration of 59 ng/ml, with 7 patients demonstrating a serum PSA concentration of<10 ng/ml. This resulted in a negative predictive value of 96%. In addition, only 40% of these patients with bone metastases demonstrated a serum PSA concentration of>100 ng/ml, which resulted in a positive predictive value of 50%.",
"Higher body mass index is linked to lower prostate specific antigen. This has given rise to concerns that prostate specific antigen may be less reliable for predicting prostate cancer among obese men. We tested the accuracy of prebiopsy prostate specific antigen for predicting prostate cancer across body mass index categories. We used the REDUCE study, which tested dutasteride for prostate cancer risk reduction in men with a prostate specific antigen of 2.5 to 10.0 ng/ml and a negative pre-study biopsy. All men were required to have a biopsy at 2 and 4 years independent of prostate specific antigen. We assessed the performance of prebiopsy prostate specific antigen to predict overall and high grade prostate cancer (Gleason sum 7 or greater) in each body mass index group using AUC. Of 6,103 men who had a 2-year biopsy 1,646 (27%) were normal weight, 3,209 (53%) were overweight and 1,248 (20%) were obese. Mean adjusted prostate specific antigen for normal weight, overweight and obese subjects on placebo was 7.73, 7.17 and 6.79 ng/ml (p-trend=0.192), and on dutasteride 3.16, 2.93 and 2.62 ng/ml (p=0.008). AUC analysis using raw prostate specific antigen data for predicting prostate cancer ranged from 0.60 to 0.64 in the placebo arm and 0.58 to 0.66 in the dutasteride arm with no difference across body mass index categories (p-interactions ≥0.212). Similar results were found for high grade prostate cancer with AUC ranging from 0.69 to 0.70 in the placebo arm and 0.65 to 0.75 in the dutasteride arm but no differences across body mass index categories (p-interactions ≥0.157).",
"yes. We introduce the 5 region technique of prostate biopsy as a means of significantly increasing the diagnostic yield of prostate biopsy in finding carcinoma of the prostate. We have found this technique to be safe, efficacious and superior to the sextant method of biopsy in identifying prostate cancer at an early but significant stage. The greatest use of the 5 region biopsy technique is in patients who have prostate specific antigen levels between 4 and 10 ng./ml.",
"yes. Due to their specific binding characteristics, the anti-PSMA mAbs 3/A12, 3/E7, and 3/F11 show great promise for diagnostic and therapeutic applications in prostate cancer.",
"yes. The assessment of tumor angiogenesis with anti-CD105 was not sufficient for its use as a surrogate end point for survival because of the amount of survival variability explained was only 8% in absence of metastatic disease. In contrast, multivariate logistic regression analysis revealed that CD105-vessels count can identify patients at high risk of metastatic disease.",
"yes. This report of the quantitative analysis of hepsin expression, which is the first to our knowledge, shows strong and significant over expression in prostate cancer tissue. Hepsin expression may be a new prognostic marker that could be used for assessing prostate cancer aggressiveness.",
"Men with an undetectable prostate specific antigen for more than 10 years have a low risk of subsequent biochemical recurrence, with correspondingly lower rates of metastasis and death. These patients should be counseled that their risk of subsequent cancer related morbidity and mortality is low. Furthermore, these results suggest that annual prostate specific antigen testing may be safely discontinued after 10 years for men with a prostatectomy Gleason score 6 or less and/or limited life expectancy.",
"To determine whether prostate-specific antigen velocity (PSAV) is useful for prostate cancer detection in men from different age groups, and whether the same PSAV thresholds can reasonably be applied to all men aged>or=40 years. From a large prostate cancer screening study, 13,615 men had data on age and a calculable PSAV. We used statistical analysis to examine the ability of PSAV to predict prostate cancer risk in each age decade. For men of all ages, the median PSAV was 0.6-0.7 ng/mL/year in men with prostate cancer, and 0-0.1 ng/mL/year in men with no prostate cancer (P<0.005 for all). On receiver operating characteristic (ROC) analysis, the area under the curve was 0.800, 0.697, 0.693, and 0.668 for predicting prostate cancer risk using PSAV for men aged 40-49, 50-59, 60-69 and>or=70 years, respectively. In the multivariate model controlling for race, family history, and the total PSA level, both PSA and PSAV were significant independent predictors of prostate cancer risk in men of all ages.",
"yes. The measurement of thrombospondin-1 could be used to assist the decision to obtain a biopsy in men with suspected prostate cancer, which could lead to a reduction in the number of unnecessary prostatic biopsies.",
"To compare the performance of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels with the performance of PSA density (PSAD), the ratio of the serum to the size of the prostate, as predictors of the presence of prostate cancer. We analyzed the results of digital rectal examination (DRE), transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS), serum PSA levels, and PSAD in 244 patients who had a needle biopsy of the prostate. Cancer was detected in 110 patients (45%). Compared with DRE, TRUS and serum PSA levels 4.0 ng/mL or higher, PSAD at a cutoff point of 0.15 ng/mL/cm3 was significantly more specific and had a higher positive predictive value than each of the other tests but was significantly less sensitive than TRUS and PSA (P<0.05 for each). In a receiver operating characteristic analysis, PSAD was significantly more accurate than PSA (P<0.001). In 80 patients with a normal PSA, PSAD added no additional information, and PSAD was not able to identify a subset at low risk. In 82 patients with a high PSA level (10 ng/mL or higher), 15% had a PSAD less than 0.15 and only 8% had a cancer.",
"yes. Since prostate cancer bone metastatic patients have high β2-M in the tumor tissue and in the secreted form, targeting β2-M with anti-β2-M Ab is a promising therapeutic agent. Additionally, inhibition of β2-M sensitizes cancer cells to clinically used therapies such as radiation by inducing iron overload and decreasing DNA repair enzymes.",
"yes. These data provide evidence that Pristimerin has strong potential for development as a novel agent against prostate bone metastasis by suppressing PC-3 stem cell characteristics and VEGF-induced vasculogenesis of BM-EPCs.",
"yes. Perineural invasion may be useful for risk-stratification of prostate cancer. Our data suggest that low-risk patients with PNI on biopsy may benefit from treatment typically reserved for those with intermediate-risk disease. In addition, men with high-risk disease and PNI, who are contemplating surgery, should be informed of the high likelihood of having an indication for postoperative radiation therapy.",
"Despite low specificity, serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is widely used in screening for prostate cancer. Specificity can be improved by measuring free and total PSA and by combining these results with clinical findings. Methods such as neural networks and logistic regression are alternatives to multistep algorithms for clinical use of the combined findings. We compared multilayer perceptron (MLP) and logistic regression (LR) analysis for predicting prostate cancer in a screening population of 974 men, ages 55-66 years. The study sample comprised men with PSA values >3 microg/L. Explanatory variables considered were age, free and total PSA and their ratio, digital rectal examination (DRE), transrectal ultrasonography, and a family history of prostate cancer. When at least 90% sensitivity in the training sets was required, the mean sensitivity and specificity obtained were 87% and 41% with LR and 85% and 26% with MLP, respectively. The cancer specificity of an LR model comprising the proportion of free to total PSA, DRE, and heredity as explanatory variables was significantly better than that of total PSA and the proportion of free to total PSA (P <0.01, McNemar test). The proportion of free to total PSA, DRE, and heredity were used to prepare cancer probability curves.",
"Currently, many clinicians do not recommend prostate biopsy for men with digital rectal examination (DRE) results that are not suspicious for cancer and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) values between 2.51 and 4 ng/mL. We propose a new model for the detection of prostate cancer using the percentage of free PSA (%FPSA) in the limited range of PSA values between 2.51 and 4 ng/mL that maximizes clinical specificity (ie, minimizes false-positive results). This model identifies higher risk patients in this relatively low-risk population. Three hundred sixty-eight archived serum samples from men evaluated and treated at two academic institutions were reviewed. All men had a histologic diagnosis, findings not suspicious for cancer on DRE, and PSA levels between 2.51 and 4 ng/mL. Samples were tested in Hybritech's Tandem-R PSA and Tandem-R free PSA (FPSA) assays in the same laboratory at each institution. Various models for cancer detection using %FPSA when PSA is 2.51 to 4 ng/mL and DRE is not suspicious for cancer are proposed. These models recommend biopsy for only 10% to 36% of the men in this population and would identify as many as 30% to 54% of the detectable cancers. There is evidence that the cancers that would be detected are the most aggressive cancers in this population.",
"We assessed 3 molecular forms of prostate specific antigen (PSA) prospectively to determine the real proportion of the nonfree, nonalpha1-antichymotrypsin complex form of PSA-to-total PSA and evaluated the clinical significance of its various forms. We prospectively assessed 1,878 serum samples from 994 subjects for total PSA, free PSA and PSA-alpha1-antichymotrypsin complex (ACT). Nonfree, nonPSA-ACT PSA (minor form PSA) was calculated as the difference between total PSA and the sum of free PSA plus PSA-ACT complex. The proportion of the minor form PSA was approximately 20% to 25% of total PSA at any range of total PSA, whereas that of free PSA and PSA-ACT decreased and increased, respectively, in correlation with the increment of total PSA. There was no significant difference in the percent of minor form PSA in patients with prostatic carcinoma and those with benign prostatic status. The proportion of minor form PSA was constant, while the percent of free PSA and PSA-ACT increased and decreased, respectively, in accordance with total PSA regression after hormonal therapy for prostatic carcinoma. PSA-ACT was judged to be superior to total PSA for distinguishing prostatic carcinoma in men with PSA 2 to 10 ng./ml. by ROC analysis.",
"Prostate-specific antigen (PSA), a member of the human kallikrein (hK) family, is the most important tumor marker for early detection, staging, and monitoring of men with prostate cancer today. However, the sensitivity of serum PSA is not sufficient to be used alone for prostate cancer screening. Recently, it was reported that the serum-to-urinary total PSA ratio improves the detection of men with prostate cancer, especially in men with a serum total PSA level between 4.0 and 10.0 ng/mL. We tested this hypothesis by evaluating the clinical usefulness of this PSA ratio as well as the use of the different molecular forms of PSA and human kallikrein 2 (hK2) in urine for detection and staging of prostate cancer. One hundred ten fresh, midstream urine specimens (prostate cancer 62, benign prostatic hyperplasia [BPH] 38, healthy male control 5, women 5) were collected. Serum total PSA, urine total PSA, urinary free PSA, urinary alpha 1-antichymotrypsin-bound PSA, and urinary hK2 levels were determined by monoclonal antibody assays (Hybritech Inc.). The serum-to-urinary total PSA ratio was calculated. The serum-to-urinary total PSA ratio did not accurately distinguish between men with BPH and men with prostate cancer. There was no significant difference between the urinary levels of any of the molecular forms of PSA or hK2 between men with prostate cancer and men with BPH. Among men with prostate cancer, neither urinary hK2 nor urinary levels of any of the molecular forms of PSA correlated with age, pathologic stage, or Gleason grade.",
"Bone scans can be confidently eliminated in the followup of patients with early prostate cancer after standard care of those with prostate specific antigen levels less than 5 ng/ml. This level can be increased to 20 ng/ml with caution in those patients treated with watchful waiting.",
"Integrating ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen with surveillance in patients at high risk after radical prostatectomy potentially optimizes treatment by correctly identifying recurrence, promoting an early salvage strategy and minimizing overtreatment. We tested the power of postoperative ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen to identify eventual biochemical failure. We identified 247 patients at high risk with a median followup of 44 months who underwent radical prostatectomy from 1991 to 2013. Each patient had extraprostatic extension and/or a positive margin. Surgical technique, initial prostate specific antigen, pathology findings and postoperative prostate specific antigen were analyzed. The ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen assay threshold was 0.01 ng/ml. Conventional biochemical relapse was defined as prostate specific antigen 0.2 ng/ml or greater. Kaplan-Meier and Cox multivariate analyses were done to compare the rates of ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen recurrence and conventional biochemical relapse. Sensitivity analysis revealed that ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen 0.03 ng/ml or greater was the optimal threshold to identify recurrence. A first postoperative ultrasensitive value of 0.03 ng/ml or greater, Gleason grade, T stage, initial prostate specific antigen and margin status predicted conventional biochemical relapse. On multivariate analysis only a first postoperative ultrasensitive value of 0.03 ng/ml or greater, Gleason grade and T stage independently predicted conventional biochemical relapse. First postoperative ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen 0.03 ng/ml or greater conferred the highest risk (HR 8.5, p < 0.0001) and identified conventional biochemical relapse with greater sensitivity than undetectable first conventional prostate specific antigen (70% vs 46%). Any postoperative prostate specific antigen 0.03 ng/ml or greater captured all failures missed by the first postoperative value (100% sensitivity) with accuracy (96% specificity). Defining failure at an ultrasensitive value of 0.03 ng/ml or greater yielded a median lead time advantage of 18 months (mean 24) over the conventional definition of prostate specific antigen 0.2 ng/ml or greater.",
"yes. Several PSA measures satisfied the surrogacy criteria for survival in a retrospective analysis of data from SWOG 99-16. However, these measures await prospective validation in future clinical trials of chemotherapy in men with androgen-independent prostate cancer.",
"yes. Among men prescreened with PSA for prostate cancer, patients with high hK2 measurements have a five- to eight-fold increase in risk for prostate cancer, adjusting for PSA level and other established risk factors. hK2 measurements may be a useful adjunct to PSA in improving patient selection for prostate biopsy.",
"It has been suggested that prostate specific antigen has no predictive value for prostate cancer after a first negative biopsy has been performed. We compared the performance operating characteristics of prostate specific antigen for prostate cancer between a first and subsequent prostate biopsy in a group of men with complete verification of cancer status. From the 18,882 participants in the Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial we examined men in the placebo group who had only a first biopsy or a first and second prostate biopsy with a prostate specific antigen and digital rectal examination within 1 year before each biopsy. The receiver operating characteristic curve was estimated for prostate specific antigen for detection of prostate cancer on the first biopsy compared to the second, and the C-statistics were compared. Of this group 5,608 men had a first biopsy and 687 of those with a negative first biopsy underwent a second biopsy. The C-statistic was 0.650 (95% CI 0.632, 0.668) for the first biopsy and 0.664 (95% CI 0.607, 0.721) for the second biopsy. The C-statistic for the second biopsy was statistically significantly greater than 0.5 (p <0.001) and overlapped with that from the first biopsy.",
"With the advent of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening and the increase in the number of transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy cores, there has been a dramatic rise in the incidence of low-risk prostate cancer (LRPC). Because > 97% of men with LRPC are likely to die of something other than prostate cancer, it is critical that patients give thought to whether early curative treatment is the only option at diagnosis. To identify a group of men with LRPC who may not require initial treatment and monitor them on our active surveillance (AS) protocol, to determine the percentage treated and the outcome and to analyze the quality-of-life data. We defined patients eligible for AS as Gleason ≤ 6, PSA ≤ 10, and two or fewer biopsy cores with ≤ 20% tumor in each core. Kaplan Meier analysis was used to predict the 5-year treatment free survival. Logistic regression determined the predictors of treatment. Data on sexual function, continence, and outcome were obtained and analyzed.",
"An increased prostate specific antigen density (serum prostate specific antigen divided by prostate volume) is an established parameter to help determine the need to perform prostate biopsies. A man with a high prostate specific antigen and a normal size prostate gland is more likely to have cancer than a man with the same prostate specific antigen and a large gland. Prostate specific antigen in relation to prostate size should also reflect the volume of cancer in the gland. One group defined clinically unimportant prostate cancer as tumor volume less than 0.5 cc, organ confined disease and Gleason less than 7. Another group noted that at the time of biopsy, a prostate specific antigen density less than 0.15 ng/ml/cc combined with low risk clinical tumor features predicted insignificant cancer. There are limited published validating data on the association of prostate specific antigen density with the criteria for prostate cancer aggressiveness. We tested the association of prostate specific antigen density with features of tumor aggressiveness in a screened and in a nonscreened cohort of patients with clinically localized prostate cancer treated with radical prostatectomy. The screened patient cohort included 1,280 patients with screen detected prostate cancer treated from 1990 to 2002 at Washington University, and the nonscreened cohort included 382 patients treated from 2003 to 2004 at Northwestern University. We recorded the clinical and pathological tumor parameters in a prospective database. Parameters evaluated were pathological tumor stage, Gleason sum, tumor volume, biochemical progression and the previously mentioned 2 criteria for clinically unimportant cancers. We grouped patients into 4 prostate specific antigen density categories of less than 0.1, 0.1 to 0.14, 0.15 to 0.19 and greater than 0.19 ng/ml/cc. There was a significant trend for worsening clinicopathological prognostic features as prostate specific antigen density increased. There were 357 (82%), 283 (75%), 171 (75%) and 192 (55%) men with organ confined disease with clear surgical margins if prostate specific antigen density was less than 0.1, 0.1 to 0.14, 0.15 to 0.19 and greater than 0.19 ng/ml/cc, respectively (p <0.001). There were 86 (20%), 102 (27%), 64 (28%) and 157 (45%) men with a Gleason sum greater than 7 when grouped into each increasing PSA density category, respectively (p <0.001). There were 91 (21%), 91 (25%), 74 (33%) and 157 (46%) men with a total cancer volume greater than 0.5 cc when grouped into each increasing PSA density category, respectively (p <0.001). Prostate specific antigen velocity was greater than 2 ng/ml per year in 11%, 30%, 27% and 46% of men if prostate specific antigen density was less than 0.1, 0.1 to 0.14, 0.15 to 0.19 and greater than 0.19 ng/ml/cc, respectively (p <0.001).",
"We evaluated whether biennial screening with prostate specific antigen (PSA) only is sufficient to detect prostate cancer while still curable. In Göteborg, Sweden 9,972 men 50 to 65 years old were randomized to PSA screening. During 1995 and 1996 these men were invited for a first PSA screening and invited during 1997 and 1998 for a second screening. The screening procedure included PSA measurement in all men and in those with a PSA of 3 ng./ml. or greater also it included digital rectal examination, transrectal ultrasound and sextant biopsies. In the first screening 5,854 men participated and 145 cancers were detected. In the second screening 5,267 men participated and 111 cancers were detected. Only 9 interval cancers were diagnosed. In the second screening 102 cancers (92%) were associated with PSA less than 10 ng./ml. Of 465 men with increased PSA and who underwent biopsy with a benign outcome in the first screening 50 had cancer at the second screening. Of 241 men in whom PSA increased between screenings 1 and 2 cancer was detected in 46. None of the 2,950 men with an initial PSA of less than 1 ng./ml. had a PSA of greater than 3 ng./ml. or interval cancer.",
"yes. An increase in prostate specific antigen following androgen stimulation in men with prostate specific antigen between 2.5 and 4.0 ng/ml was highly predictive of the subsequent diagnosis of prostate cancer and it correlated with disease volume. If these findings are corroborated, prostate specific antigen provocation may become an important strategy to identify men at risk for harboring prostate cancer and minimize the number undergoing unnecessary biopsies.",
"yes. These novel findings indicate for the first time that SIM2 expression might be important for clinical progress of human cancer and support the recent proposal of SIM2-s as a candidate for targeted therapy in prostate cancer.",
"yes. Based on their in vitro activity as single or combination agents, ARC, Siomycin A and thiostrepton represent potential candidates for drug development against prostate cancer.",
"yes. One core only positive prostate biopsy, when accompanied by an elevated serum prostate specific antigen value (greater than 10 ng./ml.), strongly suggests the presence of clinically significant cancer.",
"yes. The present study demonstrates that cellular responses to PEITC, including apoptosis induction and inhibition of cell migration, in prostate cancer cells are mediated by downregulation of XIAP and/or Survivin, which may serve as valid biomarkers of PEITC response in future clinical investigations.",
"yes. Our data provide proof-of-principle that the screening platform we developed, using endogenous nuclear p27 as an endpoint, presents an effective means of identifying bioactive molecules with cancer selective antiproliferative activity. This approach, when applied to larger and more diverse sets of compounds with refined drug-like properties, bears the potential of revealing both unknown cellular pathways globally impinging on p27 and novel leads for chemotherapeutics targeting a prominent molecular defect of human cancers.",
"yes. A protein-based assay score derived from diagnostic needle biopsy has strong predictive ability for biochemical relapse after surgery. These results suggest that this assay score can be used at the diagnostic stage to identify patients whose prostate cancer is potentially more biologically aggressive and in whom active treatment should be considered.",
"Prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) is a glutamate carboxypeptidase that cleaves terminal carboxy glutamates from both the neuronal dipeptide N-acetylaspartylglutamate (NAAG) and gamma-linked folate polyglutamate. The prostate enzyme has activity in both the membrane and cytosolic fractions termed PSMA and PSMA', respectively. Using a NAAG hydrolytic radioenzymatic assay, we quantitated the enzymatic activity of PSMA and PSMA' in normal, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostate cancer (PC) tissues from radical prostatectomies. PSMA enzyme activity was evaluated in each tissue type and expressed per milligram protein and epithelial cell content. PSMA and PSMA' enzyme activities were significantly elevated in prostate cancer when compared to normal prostate tissue and BPH. Ratios of PSMA to PSMA' were also decreased in BPH as compared to cancerous and normal tissue.",
"Although this study has not established a prognostic role of Eotaxin-1 in PCa patients, this chemokine may serve as a diagnostic marker to distinguish between disease-free prostate and cancer.",
"To assess the value of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) kinetics in predicting survival and relate this to the baseline variables in men with metastatic hormone-refractory prostate cancer (HRPC). The data from 417 men with HRPC were included in a logistic regression model that included hemoglobin, PSA, alkaline phosphatase, Soloway score, and performance status pain analgesic score at baseline. The posttreatment variables included the PSA level halving time after the start of treatment, PSA level at nadir, interval to nadir, PSA velocity (PSAV), PSA doubling time after reaching a nadir, patient age, and treatment. These variables were added to the baseline model, forming new logistic regression models that were tested for net reclassification improvement. The area under the receiver operating characteristics curve for the baseline model was 0.67. Of all variables related to PSA kinetics, the PSAV was the best predictor. The addition of PSAV to the baseline model increased the area under the receiver operating characteristics curve to 0.81. Only a moderate increase in the area under the receiver operating characteristics curve (0.83) was achieved by combining the baseline model in a multivariate model with PSAV, PSA doubling time, interval to nadir, and patient age at diagnosis of HRPC.",
"yes. Identification of the caspases as a potential target for chemical manipulation may serve as an effective, adjuvant-based approach in the treatment of patients with prostate carcinoma and, in particular, for immunotherapy and radiation-based strategies that rely on the activation of these death-effector proteases.",
"yes. In vitro, MNPs did not affect prostate cancer cell viability, and conjugation to J591 did not compromise antibody specificity and enhanced cellular iron uptake. Magnetic resonance contrast of tumors was increased in vivo using PSMA-targeting MNPs, but not by non-targeting MNPs. This provides proof-of-concept that PSMA-targeting MNPs have potential to enhance magnetic resonance detection/localization of prostate cancer.",
"It is a common misconception that high correlation between biomarkers and true end point justify the use of the former as surrogates. To statistically validate surrogate end points, a high correlation between the treatment effects on the surrogate and true end point needs to be established across groups of patients treated with two alternative interventions. The levels of association observed in this study indicate that the effect of hormonal treatment on OS cannot be predicted with a high degree of precision from observed treatment effects on PSA end points, and thus statistical validity is unproven. In practice, non-null treatment effects on OS can be predicted only from precisely estimated large effects on time to PSA progression (TTPP; hazard ratio,<0.50).",
"Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is an important prostate cancer biomarker. It is also a protease expressed at high concentrations by the normal and malignant prostate. PSA is secreted as a zymogen (proPSA) with an inhibitory prodomain that must be removed for full activity. ProPSA variants, assumed to be inactive, are found in the blood of prostate cancer patients, and are indicative of poor clinical outcome. Despite the abundance of clinical reports, our understanding of PSA's enzymology is limited, in part due to a lack of appropriate experimental systems. We sought to develop a series of PSA-derived mutants that would help to enhance our understanding of the gene. Sixteen rPSA variants were generated and characterized by a variety of biochemical methods. The wildtype cDNA (WT) provided the template for generating a panel of recombinants. These included variants that abolished removal of the prodomain (R24A), disabled its enzymatic activity (S213A), and/or facilitated a cell-based conversion to the active conformation (FR). The purified variants' proteolytic activity was examined using a fluorogenic substrate, known PSA-cleavable proteins, and physiologically relevant inhibitors. Upon demonstrating our successful generation and purification of the PSA variants, we characterized proPSA activity, describing cleavage of synthetic and biologic substrates, but not serum protease inhibitors. This finding was exploited in the development of a self-activating mutant (PSA_QY) that exhibited the greatest enzymatic activity of all the variants.",
"To investigate the frequency of PSA-detected prostate cancer among non-symptomatic Greek males. A prospective study on prostate cancer (PC) screening was performed in a representative sample of asymptomatic Greek males aged 40-75 years in Eleusina, (Greece) between January and November 2001. Indication for prostate biopsy was a PSA value above 3.0 ng/mL on repeat examination. Patients found with PC at biopsy received the appropriate treatment. Ten years later, patients initially diagnosed with PC were surveyed between June and July 2011 by telephone interview, in order to evaluate PC screening effects. Outcomes examined included: overall survival, disease-free survival and cancer mortality. 309 asymptomatic males were screened. The mean age of the study population was 62 years (median 62). The PSA median was 1.1 ng/mL with 90.2% presenting with<3.0 ng/mL. Seven out of 29 patients found with a serum PSA value above 3.0 ng/mL (9.8%) were finally diagnosed with PC at biopsy. During the survey time the two patients with prostate carcinoma of low differentiation died despite aggressive treatment. Of the remaining 5 patients diagnosed with PC, one died of causes other than PC, 2 are disease-free while 2 patients are alive with the disease.",
"yes. Prostate specific antigen density measurements are useful in helping to determine the aggressiveness of clinically localized prostate cancer, and can be used as an adjunct in predicting insignificant cancer and outcomes after local therapy.",
"We tested the hypothesis that serum isoform [-2]proPSA derivatives %p2PSA and Prostate Health Index are accurate predictors of prostate cancer in men scheduled for repeat biopsy. The study was an observational prospective evaluation of a clinical cohort of men with 1 or 2 previous negative prostate biopsies, with persistent suspicion of prostate cancer. They were enrolled in the study to determine the diagnostic accuracy of %p2PSA using the formula, (p2PSA pg/ml)/(free prostate specific antigen ng/ml × 1,000)]× 100, and Beckman-Coulter Prostate Health Index using the formula, (p2PSA/free prostate specific antigen) × √total prostate specific antigen), and to compare it with the accuracy of established prostate cancer serum tests (total prostate specific antigen, free prostate specific antigen and percent free prostate specific antigen). Multivariable logistic regression models were complemented by predictive accuracy analysis and decision curve analysis. Prostate cancer was found in 71 of 222 (31.9%) subjects. %p2PSA and Prostate Health Index were the most accurate predictors of disease. %p2PSA significantly outperformed total prostate specific antigen, free prostate specific antigen, percent free prostate specific antigen and p2PSA in the prediction of prostate cancer (p ≤0.01), but not Prostate Health Index (p = 0.094). Prostate Health Index significantly outperformed total prostate specific antigen and p2PSA (p ≤0.001) but not free prostate specific antigen (p = 0.109) and free/total prostate specific antigen (p = 0.136). In multivariable logistic regression models %p2PSA and Prostate Health Index achieved independent predictor status, and significantly increased the accuracy of multivariable models including prostate specific antigen and prostate volume with or without percent free prostate specific antigen and prostate specific antigen density by 8% to 11% (p ≤0.034). At a %p2PSA cutoff of 1.23, 153 (68.9%) biopsies could have been avoided, missing prostate cancer in 6 patients. At a Prostate Health Index cutoff of 28.8, 116 (52.25%) biopsies could have been avoided, missing prostate cancer in 6 patients.",
"In men with a serum prostate specific antigen less than 0.1 ng/ml after radical prostatectomy a tenfold lower cutoff (0.01 ng/ml) stratified biochemical recurrence-free survival and was a significant independent predictor of biochemical recurrence, as were pathological features. Prostate specific antigen concentrations in men without pathological evidence of prostate cancer suggest that a higher prostate specific antigen concentration (0.03 ng/ml) in the ultrasensitive range may be needed to define the detection threshold.",
"SAP is a useful staging marker in prostate cancer and can contribute for an early detection of osteoblastic bone metastases.",
"• To determine whether the prostate-specific antigen velocity (PSAV) risk count (i.e. the number of times PSAV exceeds a specific threshold) could increase the specificity of screening for prostate cancer and potentially life-threatening tumours. • From 1989 to 2001, we calculated two serial PSAV measurements in 18 214 prostate cancer screening-study participants, of whom 1125 (6.2%) were diagnosed with prostate cancer. • The PSAV risk count was determined as the number of PSAV measurements of >0.4 ng/mL/year (0, 1, or 2). • We used receiver operating characteristic (ROC) and reclassification analyses to examine the ability of PSAV risk count to predict screen-detected and high-grade prostate cancer. • The PSAV was >0.4 ng/mL/year twice (risk count 2) in 40% of prostate cancer cases compared with only 4% of those with no cancer (P < 0.001). • After adjusting for age and PSA level, a PSAV risk count of 2 was associated with an 8.2-fold increased risk of prostate cancer (95% confidence interval 7.0-9.6, P < 0.001) and 5.4-fold increased risk of Gleason score 8-10 prostate cancer on biopsy. • Compared with a model with age and PSA level, the addition of the PSAV risk count significantly improved discrimination (area under the ROC curve 0.625 vs 0.725, P= 0.031) and reclassified individuals for the risk of high-grade prostate cancer (net reclassification, P < 0.001).",
"yes. Our data demonstrated that fucosylated PSA has a better predictive power to differentiate aggressive tumors from non-aggressive tumors, than that of native PSA and two other glycoproteins. The fucosylated PSA has the potential to be used as a surrogate biomarker.",
"The value of prostate-specific antigen velocity (PSAV) in screening for prostate cancer (PCa) and especially for clinically significant PCa is unclear. To assess the value of PSAV in screening for PCa. Specifically, the role of PSAV in lowering the number of unnecessary biopsies and reducing the detection rate of indolent PCa was evaluated. All men included in the study cohort were participants in the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer (ERSPC), Rotterdam section. During the first and second screening round, a PSA test was performed on 2217 men, and all underwent a biopsy during the second screening round 4 yr later. PSAV was calculated and biopsy outcome was classified as benign, possibly indolent PCa, or clinically significant PCa. A total of 441 cases of PCa were detected, 333 were classified as clinically significant and 108 as possibly indolent. The use of PSAV cut-offs reduced the number of biopsies but led to important numbers of missed (indolent and significant) PCa. PSAV was predictive for PCa (OR: 1.28, p<0.001) and specifically for significant PCa (OR: 1.46, p<0.001) in univariate analyses. However, multivariate analyses using age, PSA, prostate volume, digital rectal examination and transrectal ultrasonography outcome, and previous biopsy (yes/no) showed that PSAV was not an independent predictor of PCa (OR: 1.01, p=0.91) or significant PCa (OR: 0.87, p=0.30).",
"The Prostate Health Index (phi) is a new test combining total, free and [-2]proPSA into a single score. It was recently approved by the FDA and is now commercially available in the U.S., Europe and Australia. We investigate whether phi improves specificity for detecting clinically significant prostate cancer and can help reduce prostate cancer over diagnosis. From a multicenter prospective trial we identified 658 men age 50 years or older with prostate specific antigen 4 to 10 ng/ml and normal digital rectal examination who underwent prostate biopsy. In this population we compared the performance of prostate specific antigen, % free prostate specific antigen, [-2]proPSA and phi to predict biopsy results and, specifically, the presence of clinically significant prostate cancer using multiple criteria. The Prostate Health Index was significantly higher in men with Gleason 7 or greater and \"Epstein significant\" cancer. On receiver operating characteristic analysis phi had the highest AUC for overall prostate cancer (AUCs phi 0.708, percent free prostate specific antigen 0.648, [-2]proPSA 0.550 and prostate specific antigen 0.516), Gleason 7 or greater (AUCs phi 0.707, percent free prostate specific antigen 0.661, [-2]proPSA 0.558, prostate specific antigen 0.551) and significant prostate cancer (AUCs phi 0.698, percent free prostate specific antigen 0.654, [-2]proPSA 0.550, prostate specific antigen 0.549). At the 90% sensitivity cut point for phi (a score less than 28.6) 30.1% of patients could have been spared an unnecessary biopsy for benign disease or insignificant prostate cancer compared to 21.7% using percent free prostate specific antigen.",
"yes. The combined assay of serum PSA and CgA is of significant clinical value in raising the rate of diagnosis of prostate cancer, as well as in staging and prognosing the disease.",
"To evaluate the significance of the combined assay of chromogranin A (CgA) and prostate specific antigen (PSA) in the diagnosis of prostate cancer. Serum CgA and PSA were detected by ELISA technique in 55 cases of prostate cancer (PCa), 25 cases of benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH), and 50 cases of normal subjects (control). The serum CgA level in the PCa group was significantly higher than those in the control and BPH groups (P < 0.05), and increased with clinical stages. The parallel and serial tests associated with serum PSA and CgA raised the rate of detection of prostate cancer.",
"yes. P18 is a novel and potent antiangiogenic biotherapeutic agent that has potential to be developed for the treatment of prostate and renal cancer.",
"To examine the use of the Prostate Health Index (PHI) as a continuous variable in multivariable risk assessment for aggressive prostate cancer in a large multicentre US study. The study population included 728 men, with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels of 2-10 ng/mL and a negative digital rectal examination, enrolled in a prospective, multi-site early detection trial. The primary endpoint was aggressive prostate cancer, defined as biopsy Gleason score ≥7. First, we evaluated whether the addition of PHI improves the performance of currently available risk calculators (the Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial [PCPT] and European Randomised Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer [ERSPC] risk calculators). We also designed and internally validated a new PHI-based multivariable predictive model, and created a nomogram. Of 728 men undergoing biopsy, 118 (16.2%) had aggressive prostate cancer. The PHI predicted the risk of aggressive prostate cancer across the spectrum of values. Adding PHI significantly improved the predictive accuracy of the PCPT and ERSPC risk calculators for aggressive disease. A new model was created using age, previous biopsy, prostate volume, PSA and PHI, with an area under the curve of 0.746. The bootstrap-corrected model showed good calibration with observed risk for aggressive prostate cancer and had net benefit on decision-curve analysis.",
"To determine, within the UK, the stage and grade of prostate cancers that would be found through population-based prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing and biopsy. In the 'Prostate Testing for Cancer and Treatment' trial (ProtecT), men aged 50-69 years were recruited from nine cities in the UK and from randomly selected practices of general practitioners. Those with a PSA level of >3 ng/mL were offered a prostate biopsy. Age, PSA, stage and grade at diagnosis of ProtecT participants with cancer were compared with contemporaneous incident cases aged 50-69 years (age-restricted Cancer Registry cases) registered with the Eastern Cancer Registration and Information Centre (ECRIC). Within ProtecT, 94,427 men agreed to be tested (50% of men contacted), 8807 ( approximately 9%) had a raised PSA level and 2022 (23%) had prostate cancer; 229 ( approximately 12%) had locally advanced (T3 or T4) or metastatic cancers, the rest having clinically localized (T1c or T2) disease. Within ECRIC, 12,661 cancers were recorded over the same period; 3714 were men aged 50-69 years at diagnosis. Men in ProtecT had a lower age distribution and PSA level, and the cancers were of lower stage and grade (P < 0.001 for all comparisons). If population-based PSA testing were introduced in the UK, approximately 2660 men per 100,000 aged 50-69 years would be found to have prostate cancer, compared to current rates of approximately 130 per 100,000. If half of men accepted PSA testing, approximately 160,000 cancers would be found, compared to 30,000 diagnosed each year at present.",
"yes. Optimal prostate specific antigen screening frequency for men with a prostate specific antigen level of 0.1 to 1.0 ng/ml may be up to every 10 years. This approach has the potential to dramatically reduce the cost of screening, decreasing over detection of inconsequential tumors, while maintaining detection of tumors for which treatment has been proven to reduce prostate cancer mortality.",
"We tested the hypothesis that a single exogenous androgen injection in men with low prostate specific antigen would provoke a differential prostate specific antigen response that would correlate with the presence and volume of cancer at biopsy. Following institutional review board approval 40 men with prostate specific antigen between 2.5 and 4.0 ng/ml were given 1 intramuscular injection of 400 mg testosterone cypionate at the start of the study. Prostate specific antigen and early morning serum testosterone were measured at baseline, 48 hours, and weeks 1, 2 and 4. All men underwent 12-core transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy at week 4. Of the 40 men 18 (45%) were diagnosed with prostate cancer. The mean change in prostate specific antigen from baseline to 4 weeks was 3.1 to 3.4 ng/ml (9.7%) in men found to have benign findings on biopsy compared to a mean increase of 2.9 to 3.8 ng/ml (29%) in those with prostate cancer (p = 0.006). The change in prostate specific antigen following androgen stimulation was significantly associated with the percent of tissue involved with cancer and it was an independent predictor of cancer diagnosis on univariate and multivariate analysis.",
"yes. These data may reveal novel biomarkers of prostate cancer and new therapeutic targets.",
"Although prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the best biomarker for predicting prostate cancer, its predictive performance needs to be improved. Results from the Prostate Cancer Prevention Trial revealed the overall performance measured by the areas under curve of the receiver operating characteristic at 0.68. The goal of the present study is to assess the ability of genetic variants as a PSA-independent method to predict prostate cancer risk. We systematically evaluated all prostate cancer risk variants that were identified from genome-wide association studies during the past year in a large population-based prostate cancer case-control study population in Sweden, including 2,893 prostate cancer patients and 1,781 men without prostate cancer. Twelve single nucleotide polymorphisms were independently associated with prostate cancer risk in this Swedish study population. Using a cutoff of any 11 risk alleles or family history, the sensitivity and specificity for predicting prostate cancer were 0.25 and 0.86, respectively. The overall predictive performance of prostate cancer using genetic variants, family history, and age, measured by areas under curve was 0.65 (95% confidence interval, 0.63-0.66), significantly improved over that of family history and age (0.61%; 95% confidence interval, 0.59-0.62; P = 2.3 x 10(-10)).",
"The recently published European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer (ERSPC) reported prostate specific antigen (PSA)-based screening to have reduced the prostate cancer death rate by only 20%. However, this is an underestimate caused by (i) including in the 20% the years before the impact of the first screen becomes manifest, and (ii) not having full information for the follow-up years where the effects of the screening are most apparent. This paper provides a re-analysis of the results using time-specific measures, which avoid the first of these sources of error. Mortality rate ratios for follow-up years 1-12 were derived from the yearly numbers of prostate cancer deaths and numbers of men being followed in each arm of the ERSPC. To reduce statistical noise, they were based on moving three-year intervals, and a smooth rate ratio curve was fitted to the yearly data, in order to measure the steady state reduction in mortality and to identify the time at which it reached this level. The re-analysis suggests that the sustained reduction in prostate cancer mortality may be more than 50%.",
"Increasing evidence suggests that prostate cancer is visible to the immune system and is potentially responsive to immunotherapeutic interventions. Previous work has identified prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) as a potential antigen for T-cell recognition, and specific PSMA epitopes presented by HLA-A2 have been described. One vaccination strategy that is being pursued in the clinic utilizes peptide-pulsed peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) + IL-12. HLA-A2(+) patients with castrate-resistant prostate cancer and normal organ function were considered. Vaccines were prepared using autologous PBMC loaded with a PSMA peptide previously reported to be immunogenic (LLHETDSAV) administered subcutaneously every 3 weeks. T-cell responses and tumor activity were assessed. Although the vaccine was well tolerated, no clinical responses were observed in 12 enrolled patients and no immune responses were detected based on an ex vivo IFN-gamma ELISPOT assay. To examine immunogenicity of this PSMA peptide in more detail, an in vitro priming assay was utilized with normal donor PBMC, and no detectable reactivity was observed.",
"Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a well known biomarker for early diagnosis and management of prostate cancer. Furthermore, PSA has been documented to have anti-angiogenic and anti-tumorigenic activities in both in vitro and in vivo studies. However, little is known about the molecular mechanism(s) involved in regulation of these processes, in particular the role of the serine-protease enzymatic activity of PSA. Enzymatic activity of PSA isolated directly from seminal plasma was inhibited specifically (>95%) by incubation with zinc2+ . Human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVEC) were utilized to compare/contrast the physiological effects of enzymatically active versus inactive PSA. Equimolar concentrations of enzymatically active PSA and PSA enzymatically inactivated by incubation with Zn2+ had similar physiological effects on HUVEC, including inhibiting the gene expression of pro-angiogenic growth factors, like VEGF and bFGF, and up-regulation of expression of the anti-angiogenic growth factor IFN-γ; suppression of mRNA expression for markers of blood vessel development, like FAK, FLT, KDR, TWIST-1; P-38; inhibition of endothelial tube formation in the in vitro Matrigel Tube Formation Assay; and inhibition of endothelial cell invasion and migration properties.",
"no. Prostate specific antigen expression does not necessarily correlate with cell growth. Without a substantial effect on cell growth bicalutamide lowers prostate specific antigen synthesis, whereas cyproterone acetate decreases cell growth with no effect on prostate specific antigen secretion. Prostate specific antigen expression may be influenced by growth inhibition but also by altered mRNA and protein levels depending on the agent, its concentration and the cell line evaluated. For interpreting clinical trials prostate specific antigen is not necessarily a surrogate end point marker for a treatment effect on prostate cancer cell growth.",
"Pro or precursor forms of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) have emerged as potentially important diagnostic serum markers for prostate cancer detection. Immunoassays were developed to measure specific proPSA forms containing propeptides of 2, 4, and 7 amino acids [(-2)proPSA, (-4)proPSA, and (-7)proPSA, respectively]. Research-use dual monoclonal antibody immunoassays using europium-labeled detection monoclonal antibodies were developed for each form of proPSA. Sera from patients with prostate cancer or benign prostate disease containing 4-10 microg/L PSA were assayed and analyzed by area under the ROC curve (AUC) for specificity and sensitivity. The proPSA forms had quantification limits of 0.015-0.025 microg/L in serum, with cross-reactivities <1% with PSA. The sum of the proPSA forms divided by free PSA (percentage proPSA) had a higher AUC than did percentage of (-2)proPSA, free PSA, and complexed PSA with AUC (95% confidence intervals) of 0.69 (0.64-0.74), 0.64 (0.58-0.68), 0.63 (0.58-0.68), and 0.57 (0.51-0.62), respectively. The proPSA comprised a median of 33% of the free PSA in cancer and 25% in noncancer sera (P <0.0001). One-third (33%) of cancer samples had >40% proPSA, whereas only 8% of noncancer samples did (P <0.0001). In men with cancer and >25% free PSA, the (-2)proPSA had an AUC of 0.77 (0.66-0.86), with 90% sensitivity and 36% specificity at 0.04 microg/L.",
"yes. Increased p-Par6Ser(345) levels in aggressive prostate cancer tissues and cells suggest that it could be a useful novel biomarker for predicting prostate cancer progression.",
"Men with metastatic hormone-refractory prostate cancer (HRPC) form a heterogeneous population with a wide range of symptoms and variable survival. Patient selection is critical in determining which patients will receive the most benefit from aggressive chemotherapy. The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) doubling time (PSADT) has been shown to be a surrogate for survival in earlier stages of prostate cancer, but its utility as a predictor in HRPC is unknown. A retrospective chart review of 224 patients with HRPC treated from 1998 to 2002 was performed. Eligible patients had HRPC and evidence of metastatic disease. The PSADT at HRPC diagnosis was calculated, and the optimal PSADT stratification was obtained using the log-rank chi-square statistic. Kaplan-Meier curves were used to estimate overall survival between the groups. During the follow-up period, 80% of patients died, 93% of prostate cancer. Overall, the median survival from diagnosis of HRPC was 15.1 months (range 0.5 to 90.5). The optimal PSADT stratification for survival was 70 days. Patients with a PSADT of 70 days or less survived 11 months compared with 19 months for those with a PSADT of more than 70 days [relative risk (RR) 1.79, P <0.0001].",
"PSA-driven screening has been applied to a large part of the male population in many countries. An elevated PSA in secondary screens may indicate benign enlargement of the prostate rather than prostate cancer. In such cases the yearly rate of increase of PSA (PSA velocity [PSAV]) may improve the test characteristics of PSA. Data from the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer Rotterdam are used to study the issue. Relative sensitivity, relative specificity, and positive predictive value (PPV) are calculated. Logistic regression analysis is used to compare odds ratios for positive biopsies. The relationship between PSAV and parameters of tumour aggressiveness is investigated. Five hundred eighty-eight consecutive participants were identified who presented at their first screening with PSA values<4.0 and who progressed to PSA values>4.0 ng/ml four years later. None were biopsied in round one, all were biopsied in round two. Relative sensitivity and specificity depend strongly on PSAV cut-offs of 0.25-1.0 ng/ml/yr. The use of PSAV cut-offs does not improve the PPV of the PSA cut-off of 4.0 ng/ml, nor do any of the PSAV cut-offs improve the odds ratio for identifying prostate cancer with respect to the cut-off value of 4.0 ng/ml. The rate of aggressive cancers seems to increase with increasing PSAV.",
"We hypothesize that serum human glandular kallikrein-2 (hK2) levels predict the presence of prostate cancer among men prescreened by prostate-specific antigen (PSA). We conducted a cross-sectional study of 324 men who had no history of prostate cancer and who were referred for prostate biopsy. PSA and hK2 levels were measured using specific nonisotopic immunometric techniques. Cases were patients who were diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the prostate from biopsy, and controls were patients who had no evidence of cancer from biopsy. The odds ratio for detection of prostate cancer was determined for hK2 measurements, controlling for age, total-PSA level, digital rectal examination, and symptoms of urinary obstruction. Of 324 men, 159 (49.1%) had cancer. Mean hK2 levels and hK2:free-PSA ratios were significantly higher in cases than in controls (1.18 v 0.53 ng/mL, respectively, for hK2, P =.0001; 1.17 v 0.62 for hK2:free-PSA ratio, P =.0001). The crude odds ratio for prostate cancer detection for patients in the highest quartile of hK2 level was 5.83 (95% confidence interval [CI], 2.8 to 12.1; P =.0001) compared with patients in the lowest quartile. The adjusted odds ratio was 6.72 (95% CI, 2.9 to 15.6; P =.0001). Similarly, the crude and adjusted odds ratios for prostate cancer detection using the hK2:free-PSA ratio were 7.36 (95% CI, 3.6 to 15.1; P =.0001) and 8.06 (95% CI, 3. 7 to 17.4; P =.0001), respectively. These odds ratios were higher than that observed for prostate cancer detection by total-PSA level (2.73; P =.03).",
"Screening for prostate cancer (PC) is controversial due to uncertainties about its efficiency. We aimed to develop strategies to reduce the number of unnecessary biopsies while still detecting most clinically important PC cases. In 1850 men initially screened and biopsied (prostate-specific antigen [PSA] value > or =3.0 ng/ml) in the Rotterdam section of the European Randomized Study of Screening for Prostate Cancer, we calculated both the probability of having a positive lateralized sextant biopsy [P(biop+)] and the probability of having an indolent cancer [P(ind)] if PC was detected at biopsy (n=541). Analyses of repeat screening included 225 cancers in 1201 men. The P(biop+) was based on applying a logistic regression model that included ultrasound volume, digital rectal exam, and transrectal ultrasound in addition to the PSA value. The P(ind) was based on a recently validated nomogram. MEASUREMENTS AND LIMITATIONS: At initial screening the fraction of positive biopsies was 29% (541 of 1850). Applying an additional P(biop+) cut-off of 12.5% implied that 613 of the 1850 men (33%) would not have been biopsied. This would result in an increase in the positive predictive value (PPV) to 38% (468 of 1237). At repeat screening a similar P(biop+) cut-off would result in an increase in the PPV from 19% (225 of 1201) to 25% (188 of 760). Thirteen percent of PC cases would not have been diagnosed, of which 70% (initial screening) and 81% (repeat screening) could be considered as potentially indolent. None of the deadly PC cases would have been missed. A PSA cut-off of > or =4.0 ng/ml resulted in similar numbers of biopsied cases saved but considerably higher numbers of missed diagnoses.",
"yes. Although the primary endpoint was not achieved, there is evidence of biologic activity of TG4010 in patients with PSA progression, further investigation in prostate cancer is warranted.",
"The prostate specific antigen level at which to recommend a bone scan after treatment of early prostate cancer is controversial. We identified the incidence of bone metastases at varying prostate specific antigen levels in asymptomatic men following radical prostatectomy, radiation therapy and watchful waiting. Data were obtained from the Early Prostate Cancer trial comparing placebo with bicalutamide in addition to standard care for localized prostate cancer. As part of the trial patients were required to have routine bone scans regardless of prostate specific antigen levels. The prostate specific antigen levels were divided into subgroups and the incidence of positive bone scans was calculated for each group. The incidence of positive bone scans in patients treated with watchful waiting and given bicalutamide or placebo was low (0.7% to 3.2%) at prostate specific antigen levels less than 20 ng/ml. At greater than this level the sample sizes were smaller but there was a significant increase in the incidence of positive bone scans. In the groups treated with radiation therapy or radical prostatectomy, regardless of the addition of bicalutamide, the incidence of positive bone scans was low (0.2% to 1.4%) at prostate specific antigen levels less than 5 ng/ml. The sample sizes were smaller at prostate specific antigen levels greater than 5 ng/ml so the results are harder to interpret.",
"The most relevant endpoint in comparing the efficacy of curative therapies for prostate cancer is cancer-specific death. Prospective trials need to mature for a least a decade to yield meaningful cancer death data due to the long natural history of the disease amd the use of salvage androgen suppression. This delay may be long enough that the tested treatments are outdated by the time of reporting; thus, there is a need for reliable early surrogate endpoints for cancer survival. This report evaluates 202 patients entered into a single institution prospective randomized study for T3-4 prostate cancer. Patients were accrued between 1982 and 1992 and received radical irradiation to either a standard dose of 67.2 Gy or a higher dose of 75.6 Gy. Median follow-up was 5.4 years. A total 76 men have received androgen suppression or orchiectomy for salvage following relapse. Of this group, 35 experienced a second relapse heralded by a rise in the serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The median survival from the time of second biochemical relapse (defined as a progression with a rise in serum PSA more than 10% above the nadir after androgen suppression) was 27 months. Kaplan-Meier analysis projected a 0% survival for this group at 4 years. All those dying after second biochemical failure died of the prostate cancer.",
"yes. This is the first prospective study to our knowledge to demonstrate that p2PSA provides improved discrimination between prostate cancer and benign disease in screened men with a prostate specific antigen of 2.5 to 10 ng/ml and a negative digital rectal examination.",
"The primary prevention of prostate cancer with finasteride looks promising. However, at the present time it should only be considered with caution until we have answered critical questions surrounding the difference in cancer grade observed in the PCPT and the clinical significance of cancers detected on protocol directed end of study biopsies.",
"Due to the limited specificity of prostate specific antigen for prostate cancer screening, there is an ongoing search for adjunctive biomarkers. Retrospective studies have suggested that an isoform of proenzyme prostate specific antigen called [-2]proenzyme prostate specific antigen may enhance the specificity of prostate specific antigen based screening. We examined the usefulness of this isoform in a prospective prostate cancer screening study. From a population of 2,034 men undergoing prostate cancer screening we examined the relationship between the measurement of the [-2]isoform of proenzyme prostate specific antigen (p2PSA) and prostate cancer detection. Specifically we compared the usefulness of total prostate specific antigen, the ratio of free-to-total prostate specific antigen, the ratio of p2PSA-to-free prostate specific antigen, and a formula combining prostate specific antigen, free prostate specific antigen and p2PSA (the Beckman Coulter prostate health index or phi) to predict prostate cancer in men from the study undergoing prostate biopsy with a prostate specific antigen of 2.5 to 10 ng/ml and nonsuspicious digital rectal examination. Despite similar total prostate specific antigen (p = 0.88), percent free prostate specific antigen (p = 0.02) and %p2PSA (p = 0.0006) distinguished between positive and negative biopsy results. On ROC analysis %p2PSA (AUC 0.76) outperformed prostate specific antigen (AUC 0.50) and percent free prostate specific antigen (AUC 0.68) for differentiating between prostate cancer and benign disease. Setting the sensitivity at 88.5%, p2PSA led to a substantial improvement in specificity as well as positive and negative predictive values. The Beckman Coulter prostate health index (AUC 0.77) had the best overall performance characteristics.",
"yes. Our results suggest that the PSMA peptide LLHETDSAV is poorly immunogenic in humans and that alternative prostate cancer antigens should be pursued.",
"A prostate specific antigen velocity threshold of 0.4 ng/ml per year was associated with the likelihood of insignificant prostate cancer. This suggests that prostate specific antigen velocity may be a useful adjunct in prostate cancer screening to increase specificity for identifying patients with clinically significant disease.",
"Proteolytically active prostate-specific antigen (PSA or kallikrein-related peptidase 3, KLK3) has been shown to exert antiangiogenic properties. High levels of PSA in prostatic tumors may thus slow down cancer progression by inhibiting angiogenesis. We hypothesize that factors stimulating the activity of PSA could be used to reduce prostate tumor growth. Using phage display, we have developed peptides C4 and B2 that stimulate the enzymatic activity of PSA. Our aim was to study whether these peptides enhance the antiangiogenic activity of PSA. We used an in vitro angiogenesis assay where human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) form tubular networks when they are grown on Matrigel. Proteolytically active PSA and peptides that stimulate the activity of PSA were added to the cells. Endothelial cell tube formation was quantified and expressed as an angiogenesis index. PSA reduced the angiogenesis index to ∼50% of controls both in serum-containing and serum-free medium. The addition of peptide C4 or B2 together with PSA caused a significant further decrease in angiogenesis index to ∼70% of that caused by PSA alone. A similar decrease in angiogenesis index was observed when PSA concentration was increased 2.4-fold of that used with peptides.",
"Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is produced in high amounts by normal and malignant prostate cancer cells. PSA is a serine protease with substrates that include semenogelin I and II, insulin-like growth factor binding protein 3, fibronectin, and laminin. PSA, via its enzymatic activity, may play a role in growth, invasion, and metastasis of prostate cancer cells. Recent data also suggest that the PSA protein itself, independent of enzymatic activity, may also function as an endothelial cell-specific inhibitor of angiogenesis. Human (PC3, DU145) and rat (AT2, AT6) prostate cancer cell lines were transfected with the full PSA gene encoding preproPSA protein. PSA-producing clones of each cell line were selected and the amount of enzymatically active PSA produced by each cell line determined using a PSA-specific fluorescent peptide substrate. In vitro and in vivo growth characteristics of PSA-producing transfectants were compared to neomycin controls and wild type cells. All selected clones produced and secreted PSA (5-120 ng/ml/10(5) cells). None of the PSA-transfected cell lines produced detectable amounts of enzymatically active PSA. Production of enzymatically inactive PSA by prostate cancer cell lines did not alter growth kinetics in vitro. PSA-producing xenograft doubling times in vivo were similar to neomycin controls and wild type.",
"To project long-term estimates of the number needed to screen (NNS) and the additional number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one prostate cancer death with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening in Europe and in the United States. A mathematical model of disease-specific deaths in screened and unscreened men given information on overdiagnosis, disease-specific survival in the absence of screening, screening efficacy, and other-cause mortality is presented. A simulation framework is used to incorporate competing causes of death. Assuming overdiagnosis and screening efficacy consistent with European Randomized study of Screening for Prostate Cancer (ERSPC) results, we project that, after 25 years, 262 men need to be screened and nine additional men need to be screen detected to prevent one prostate cancer death. Corresponding estimates of the NNS and the additional NNT under a range of overdiagnosis rates that are consistent with U.S. incidence are 186-220 and 2-5.",
"An endpoint for clinical trials of prostate cancer which simplifies traditional endpoints (response of measurable lesions, progression rates, and death) is urgently needed. This is especially true for hormone-unresponsive disease, for which many new drugs are presently in a development phase. This paper presents a rationale for the use of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) in clinical trials of progressive prostate cancer under endocrine treatment. The study is based on 84 patients who progressed after radical prostatectomy or node dissection, of whom 24 showed increasing PSA levels under subsequent endocrine treatment. An average linear relationship between (log-transformed) PSA and time and a subject-specific deviation from this average relationship were assessed. The predictive value of the subject-specific parameters of the linear fit with respect to time to prostate cancer-specific death was determined. The outcomes of the fitting procedure were used to calculate sample sizes for future studies (duration, 6 months) using PSA increase over time in hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer as a marker for treatment efficacy. The average PSA doubling time in this population was 4 months (corresponding time constant = 0.25). The assessed variance of the time constants equalled 0.04; the overall residual variance equalled 0.265. The subject-specific rate of change of the log-transformed PSA value in hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer was a highly significant predictor of prostate cancer-specific death. This suggests the potential usefulness of PSA as an endpoint in trials of hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer. Depending on conditions chosen (e.g, desired power and changes in log PSA slope), 18-70 participants per arm will be necessary in future phase III studies. A suggestion (algorithm) for the use of PSA in drug development is presented.",
"yes. Second PSA failure (or PSA progression on hormonal therapy) has potential as a surrogate for impending cancer death and its use as an endpoint in prospective studies could allow earlier reporting by 2 to 4 years.",
"Given the limited sensitivity and specificity of prostate-specific antigen (PSA), its widespread use as a screening tool has raised concerns for the overdiagnosis of low-risk and the underdiagnosis of high-grade prostate cancer. To improve early-detection biopsy decisions, the National Cancer Institute conducted a prospective validation trial to assess the diagnostic performance of the prostate cancer antigen 3 (PCA3) urinary assay for the detection of prostate cancer among men screened with PSA. In all, 859 men (mean age, 62 years) from 11 centers scheduled for a diagnostic prostate biopsy between December 2009 and June 2011 were enrolled. The primary outcomes were to assess whether PCA3 could improve the positive predictive value (PPV) for an initial biopsy (at a score>60) and the negative predictive value (NPV) for a repeat biopsy (at a score<20). For the detection of any cancer, PPV was 80% (95% CI, 72% to 86%) in the initial biopsy group, and NPV was 88% (95% CI, 81% to 93%) in the repeat biopsy group. The addition of PCA3 to individual risk estimation models (which included age, race/ethnicity, prior biopsy, PSA, and digital rectal examination) improved the stratification of cancer and of high-grade cancer.",
"yes. We report the feasibility of a novel, noninvasive, nonprostate specific antigen based molecular approach to detect prostate cancer in voided urine. To our knowledge this is the first report of AMACR protein detection in the urine of patients with prostate cancer. A screening test based on urinary AMACR may develop into a useful adjunct to serum prostate specific antigen and digital rectal examination for identifying men at increased risk for harboring prostate cancer despite negative biopsy. Such a test has potential application for stratifying patients into low and high risk groups for surveillance vs repeat biopsy.",
"yes. This study suggests that Survivin may be a potentially important prognostic marker and promising therapeutic target in metastatic prostate cancer.",
"yes. The incidence of T1a and T1b prostate cancer remains low and few patients have clinically significant prostate cancer. When prostate specific antigen screening is used, the number of clinically significant tumors missed by ablative procedures is low (average of 0.26% of all procedures) and can be identified by prostate specific antigen screening.",
"Prostate specific antigen screening is controversial, as a large number of men must be screened annually to achieve a benefit. We sought to determine whether baseline prostate specific antigen could reliably predict subsequent risk of prostate cancer and risk of consequential prostate cancer. A multiethnic cohort of 2,923 prostate cancer-free men was recruited between 2000 and 2012, and followed for a median of 7.5 years. Baseline prostate specific antigen was stratified into 6 strata and relative hazards of prostate cancer detection for each prostate specific antigen stratum were estimated, adjusting for ethnicity, family history and age. During followup 289 patients were diagnosed with prostate cancer. Men with baseline prostate specific antigen in the lowest stratum (0.1 to 1.0 ng/ml) were at greatly reduced risk for prostate cancer during followup. This half of the cohort with prostate specific antigen 1.0 ng/ml or less were at 3.4% (95% CI 2.1, 4.5) 10-year risk of prostate cancer and 90% of the cancers were low risk. By comparison the other half were at 15% to 39% risk of cancer detection with a 39% risk in the highest stratum (3 to 10 ng/ml).",
"yes. Ultrasensitive prostate specific antigen 0.03 ng/ml or greater is an independent factor that identifies biochemical relapse more accurately than any traditional risk factors and confers a significant lead time advantage. This factor enables critical decisions on the timing of and indication for postoperative radiotherapy in patients at high risk after radical prostatectomy.",
"Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a kallikrein family member with serine protease activity commonly used as a diagnostic marker for prostate cancer. We recently described anti-angiogenic properties of PSA [Fortier et al.: JNCI 91:1635-1640]. Two forms of PSA were cloned and expressed in Pichia pastoris: one, an intact PSA with an N-terminus of IVGGVS em leader; the second, an N-1 PSA variant. The recombinant proteins were tested for serine protease activity and for anti-angiogenic activity in vitro and in vivo. The rate of substrate hydrolysis by the intact recombinant PSA was similar to that of PSA isolated and purified from human seminal plasma. In contrast, the N-1 PSA variant lacked serine protease activity. In an endothelial cell migration assay, the concentration that resulted in 50% inhibition (IC(50)) was: 0.5 microM for native PSA, 0.5 microM for intact recombinant protein, and 0.1 microM for the N-1 variant PSA. Both the intact recombinant and the N-1 recombinant PSA inhibited angiogenesis in vivo.",
"The identification of surrogate endpoints that can replace true outcome endpoints is crucial to the rapid evaluation of new cancer drugs. Retrospective analyses of phase II and III trials in metastatic androgen-independent prostate cancer have shown associations between declines in serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels and survival. We evaluated PSA changes as potential surrogate markers for survival by using data from a clinical trial. Men with androgen-independent prostate cancer were randomly assigned to either docetaxel/estramustine (D/E) or mitoxantrone/prednisone (M/P) treatment on Southwest Oncology Group Protocol 99-16. Of 674 eligible patients, 551 had a baseline PSA measurement and at least one PSA measurement during the first 3 months on protocol. PSA level declines of 5%-90% and PSA velocity at 1, 2, and 3 months were tested for surrogacy by using three statistical criteria: Prentice's criteria, the proportion of treatment effect explained, and the proportion of variation explained. All statistical tests were two-sided. Three-month PSA level declines of 20%-40%, a 2-month PSA decline of 30%, and PSA velocity at 2 and 3 months met all three surrogacy criteria. For example, a 3-month PSA decline of at least 30% was associated with a more than 50% decrease in the risk of death compared with the lack of such a decline (hazard ratio [HR] = 0.43, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.34 to 0.55; P < .001), and the increased risk of death for men treated with M/P compared with D/E (HR = 1.24, 95% CI = 1.02 to 1.51; P = .032) lost statistical significance after adjustment for this surrogate, whereas the decrease in risk of death associated with a 3-month 30% PSA decline remained statistically significant after adjustment for treatment. PSA level declines of 50%, commonly reported in clinical trials, did not meet the criteria for surrogacy.",
"Relatively small PSA-based trials in patients with hormone-unresponsive prostate cancer are possible if a similar patient population is utilized. As long as surrogacy is not established, such studies cannot be considered conclusive with respect to effectiveness of treatment, but are likely to be useful as a screening tool for new drugs. Experimental confirmation in human prostate cancer model systems of synergism between PSA decrease and tumor control by a given test treatment is likely to enhance the level of certainty of PSA-based drug evaluation.",
"The long duration of phase III clinical trials of overall survival (OS) slows down the treatment-development process. It could be shortened by using surrogate end points. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is the most studied biomarker in prostate cancer (PCa). This study attempts to validate PSA end points as surrogates for OS in advanced PCa. Individual data from 2,161 advanced PCa patients treated in studies comparing bicalutamide to castration were used in a meta-analytic approach to surrogate end-point validation. PSA response, PSA normalization, time to PSA progression, and longitudinal PSA measurements were considered. The known association between PSA and OS at the individual patient level was confirmed. The association between the effect of intervention on any PSA end point and on OS was generally low (determination coefficient,<0.69)."
] | 834 |
Neuroendocrine cells during human prostate development: does neuroendocrine cell density remain constant during fetal as well as postnatal life? | [
"Knowledge concerning differentiation of neuroendocrine (NE) cells during development of the human prostate is rather fragmentary. Using immunohistochemistry combined with a morphometric method, we investigated the distribution and density of NE cells in the developing human prostate, with special emphasis on the topographical relationship of NE cells with the developing gland. Consecutive sections from a total of 42 human prostates taken during autopsy of fetuses (12-38 weeks of gestation), prepubertal males, and young adults were immunostained for chromogranin A and serotonin. Computer-assisted image analysis was used to assess the total number of cells in the different parts of the branching glandular anlage, i.e., budding tips and acini/ducts. Next, the number of NE cells was counted manually. The NE cell density (NE cell index) was then determined. NE cells could first be detected in the prostate from 13 weeks of gestation. By 21 weeks of gestation, all prostates contained NE cells. NE cells were mainly confined to the acinous/ductal regions, while most of the budding tips lacked NE staining. NE cell indexes of individuals were highly variable, mostly in the youngest age group.",
"In the normal prostate, NE cell density probably remains constant in acini/ducts from fetuses to young adulthood. The presence of neuroendocrine cells in well-developed glandular structures at such an early fetal age and their absence in the less differentiated budding tips possibly indicates that differentiation of NE cells is associated with glandular maturation. NE cells occur preferentially in the acinous/ductal region, implying a paracrine function during secretory differentiation of exocrine epithelial cells."
] | [
"yes. In the present study, nestin positive cells gradually diminished in the developing and maturing meninges during the fetal period. This probably depends on initiation of a decrease in nestin expression and replacement with other tissue-specific intermediate filaments while the differentiation process continues. These differences can make significant contributions to the investigation and diagnosis of various pathological disorders (Tab. 1, Fig. 3, Ref. 36).",
"yes. Norepinephrine stimulation directly modulates BPH-derived prostatic stromal cells toward a differentiated smooth-muscle phenotype as evidenced by increased expression of cytoskeletal proteins. The effect of norepinephrine on cultures is cell-density-dependent, suggesting that intercellular communication is an important factor in coordinating the differentiation responses. This study has revealed a specific interaction between physical and humoral stimuli, which influences in part the phenotype of prostatic stromal cells. Such interaction is likely to determine the development of clinical BPH, and also the response of any individuals following therapeutic intervention using selective alpha-adrenergic blockade.",
"Fertility post-orchidopexy is dependent on transformation of neonatal gonocytes (G) into adult dark spermatogonia at about 3 months, the same time as gonadotrophins stimulate androgen secretion. We examined how androgen blockade affects transformation of gonocytes to spermatogonial stem cells (SSC) during this period in patients with undervirilisation syndromes. Patients with undervirilisation syndromes (n=30, 1.5 weeks-16 years) underwent review of medical records, pathology reports, and H&E slides of testes (ethics HREC32164). Fluorescent immunohistochemistry against anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH, Sertoli cells), mouse VASA homologue (MVH, germ cells) and DAPI (nuclei) allowed the number of MVH-positive gonocytes/spermatogonial stem cells per seminiferous tubular cross-section (G/T or SSC/T) to be counted. Gonocytes (MVH-positive cells in the tubular lumen) were present in 15/16 patients under 2 years old. SSC (MVH-positive cells on the tubule basement membrane) were present in 25/30 patients. With increasing age, the mean number of SSC/T decreased from ~4 to 0, and G/T decreased from ~1.5 to 0. SSC were present in CAIS and PAIS patients at 1.5 and 3.5 weeks old, respectively.",
"yes. Tumor cell proliferation after 3 months of neoadjuvant hormonal treatment is a prognostic marker of failure after radical prostatectomy without correlation to Gleason score or the histopathologic regressive changes resulting from hormonal treatment.",
"Immunostaining for androgen receptor in prostate tumor specimens has revealed that the majority of primary and advanced stage cancers are positive for this regulatory transcription factor. Consequently, its use as a marker for tumor behavior and therapeutic response has been discounted. However, past reports have noted significant heterogeneity of androgen receptor immunostaining between prostate tumor cells in contrast to staining homogeneity in normal epithelium, which indicates that variability in androgen receptor content may exist within certain tumor specimens. To analyze this phenomenon more thoroughly and to determine whether this variability possesses clinical correlates, androgen receptor immunostaining profiles within androgen receptor positive prostate tumor specimens were categorized using an image analysis based system. Tumor specimens were obtained before hormone therapy from 44 patients with advanced stage prostate cancer and 4 with early stage disease who later had progression. Response to antiandrogen therapy and survival was monitored. Paraffin embedded tumor sections were processed for immunocytochemistry and stained for androgen receptor. A Quantimet image analysis system was used to analyze nuclear immunostaining for androgen receptor and Receptogram patterns were established for each specimen based on univariate distributions of nuclear receptor content and concentration. Data revealed that 17 of 18 responders to hormone therapy possessed type 1 (15) or type 3 (2) Receptograms, which are characterized by a unimodal peak or multimodal peaks within a narrow concentration range. Of the 17 cases that stabilized following therapy 16 had type 3 Receptograms and 1 was characterized as type 1. In contrast, all 13 patients in whom endocrine treatment failed had either type 2 or 4 Receptograms, which are characterized by a highly skewed or bimodal androgen receptor distribution. Positive and negative predictive values for this assay were 100 and 93%, respectively. In addition, the type 1/3 Receptogram patterns were correlated with longer mean survival.",
"To isolate nestin-positive progenitor cells from human fetal pancreas and to detect their surface markers and their capability of proliferation and differentiation into pancreatic islet endocrine cells in vitro. Islet-like cell clusters (ICCs) were isolated from human fetal pancreas by using collagenase digestion. The free-floating ICCs were handpicked and cultured in a new dish. After the ICCs developed into monolayer epithelium-like cells, they were passaged and induced for differentiation. Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), immunofluorescence stain, fluorescence-activated cell sorting (FACS) and radioimmunoassay (RIA) were used to detect the expression of cell markers. (1) The monolayer epithelium-like cells had highly proliferative potential and could be passaged more than 16 times in vitro; (2) RT-PCR analysis and immunofluorescence stain showed that these cells expressed both nestin and ABCG2, two of stem cell markers; (3) FACS analysis revealed that CD44, CD90 and CD147 were positive, whereas CD34, CD38, CD45, CD71, CD117, CD133 and HLA-DR were negative on the nestin-positive cells; (4) RT-PCR analysis showed that the mRNA expression of insulin, glucagon and pancreatic-duodenal homeobox gene-1 was detected, whereas the expression of nestin and neurogenin 3 disappeared in these cells treated with serum-free media supplemented with the cocktail of growth factors. Furthermore, the intra-cellular insulin content was detected by RIA after the induction culture.",
"Infertility associated with congenital and early childhood hypothyroidism is an important reproductive health problem in men. Nevertheless, the exact mechanism underlying hypothyroidism-induced changes in the prostate gland, an androgen-dependent organ that contributes a significant portion of the seminal plasma remains obscure. The present study tested the hypothesis \"transient gestational- or neonatal-onset hypothyroidism may have duration dependent and lobe specific effect on androgen receptor (AR) status in the prostate glands of adult rats.\" Hypothyroidism was induced in pregnant and lactating rats by feeding 0.05% methimazole (MMI) through drinking water during fetal and neonatal milestones of testicular and prostatic development. Pregnant dams had MMI exposure from 9th day post-coitum (dpc) to 14 dpc (group II) or 21 dpc (group III). Lactating mothers had MMI exposure from day 1 post-partum (dpp) to 14 dpp (group IV) or up to 29 dpp (group V). AR status in the dorsolateral and ventral prostate lobes (DLP and VP) of the pups was assessed by RT-PCR, western blot and radio receptor assay. AR mRNA expression consistently decreased in the DLP of all groups, whereas it increased in VP of group III and V rats. AR protein consistently decreased in both DLP and VP of all experimental rats. AR nuclear ligand-binding activity diminished in groups II and IV, whereas it increased in groups III and V.",
"Frequently associated with hormone refractory prostate cancer are neuroendocrine cells. Because these cells do not express androgen receptors and are castration-resistant, further understanding the mechanism of neuroendocrine differentiation (NED) of prostate cancer cells may yield novel intervention methods in hormone refractory prostate cancer. In this regard, the present study investigated the effect of macrophages on prostate cancer NED. THP-1 and LNCaP or RAW264.7 and TRAMP-C2 cell line co-cultures were used to investigate NED-macrophage interactions. Also interleukin-6 (IL-6) knockout mice and macrophage-depleted mice were used to test NED in vivo. We found that co-culturing with THP-1 human monocytic cell line and RAW 264.7 murine macrophage cell line led to the NED of LNCaP and TRAMP-C2 prostate cancer cells, respectively. Specifically, the conditioned media of activated macrophages stimulated the expression of parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), a marker of NED, in both LNCaP and TRAMP-C2 cells. Mechanistically, bone morphogenetic protein-6 (BMP-6) derived from prostate cancer cells increased the expression of IL-6 in macrophages. Subsequently, IL-6 induced the NED of prostate cancer cells. When this feedback loop was disrupted with neutralizing antibodies to either BMP-6 or IL-6, NED was no longer observed. In human prostate cancer tissues, neuroendocrine cells frequently co-localized with macrophages and BMP-6. In mice, the removal of IL-6 or macrophages blocked the BMP-6-induced NED of prostate cancer cells.",
"Recent European investigations have shown that persistently elevated (>50 pg/mL) plasma neurokinin A levels are associated with poor short-term survival in patients with midgut neuroendocrine neoplasms. We hypothesized that American patients with persistently elevated plasma neurokinin A levels (>50 pg/mL) will also have a poor short-term survival. Serial plasma neurokinin A levels were collected from the charts of 180 patients with metastatic midgut neuroendocrine neoplasms. Patients were grouped according to their plasma neurokinin A values, and survival rates were calculated. Group 1 had plasma neurokinin A levels <50 pg/mL. Group 2 at one point had plasma neurokinin A levels >50 pg/mL, but are currently <50 pg/mL. Group 3 had plasma neurokinin A values consistently >50 pg/mL. Group 1 patients (n = 143) have not reached their median survival and have a 24-month survival of 93%. Thirteen of 14 (93%) group 2 patients are currently alive. Group 3 patients (n = 23) had a median survival of 20 months and a 24-month survival of 48%.",
"To investigate the expression of cystatin C and the relationship with neuroendocrine differentiation and proliferation in benign and malignant prostatic tissues, as cystatin C, the most important inhibitor of human lysosomal cysteine proteases, is considered to be a major regulator of pathological protein degradation in inflammatory and neoplastic diseases. Immunoreactivity for cystatin C, prostate-specific antigen, Ki-67 and the neuroendocrine marker chromogranin A was examined in whole-mount radical prostatectomy specimens and using tissue microarrays. Cystatin C in tissue homogenates was analysed by Western blotting and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The expression and relative levels of cystatin C mRNA were assessed by in situ hybridization and quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (QRT-PCR). The intensity of cystatin C immunostaining in Gleason grade 2 and 3 prostate cancer was significantly higher than in benign prostatic tissues, but decreased significantly with increasing Gleason grades. There was strong expression of cystatin C in neuroendocrine-like cells, which increased significantly with increasing Gleason grades. The Ki-67 immunoreactivity also increased significantly during de-differentiation. In situ hybridization showed staining patterns in concordance with the immunohistochemical results. ELISA showed high concentrations of cystatin C in benign and malignant tissue extracts and QRT-PCR further corroborated that the cystatin C gene is highly expressed in both benign and malignant prostatic tissues.",
"• To compare immunostaining protocols using different antibodies for the type 1 insulin-like growth factor receptor (IGF-1R) in channel transurethal resection of the prostate (chTURP) chips, and to investigate how IGF-1R expression varies with time in serial prostate cancer specimens from individual patients. • We studied IGF-1R expression in 44 prostate cancer specimens from 18 patients who had undergone serial chTURP at least 3 months apart. • Retrospective analysis of the hospital notes was undertaken to obtain clinical information, including age, Gleason score, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level, hormone treatment and metastatic disease status at the time of each operation. • After an optimization process using three commercially-available IGF-1R antibodies, we used two antibodies for semiquantititve immunostaining of serial chTURP chips. • Santa Cruz antibody sc713 gave positive staining in IGF-1R null R- cells, and was not used further. Antibodies from Cell Signaling Technology (Beverly, MA, USA) (CS) and NeoMarkers Inc. (Fremont, CA, USA) (NM) did not stain R- cells and, in prostate tissue, showed staining of the glandular epithelium, with negligible stromal staining. All 44 chTURP samples contained identifiable malignant tissue and, of these, 73% and 64% scored moderately or strongly (score 3 or 4) with the CS and NM antibodies respectively. • There was significant correlation of IGF-1R scores of malignant tissue between the two antibodies (P < 0.001). By contrast, staining of benign glands showed poor correlation between antibodies: CS gave significantly weaker staining than malignant epithelium in the same sections (P < 0.001), whereas NM showed poor discrimination between malignant and benign glands. IGF-1R staining scores generated by the CS antibody were used to analyze the clinical data. • Most patients (six of seven) with falling IGF-1R staining scores were responding to androgen deprivation therapy (confirmed by PSA response) between operations. Conversely, in seven of eight patients who had progression to androgen-independence between procedures, IGF-1R levels increased or remained high. Finally, seven of 11 patients who developed radiologically confirmed metastases between procedures showed stable or increasing IGF-1R staining scores.",
"no. These results show that androgen did not influence gene expression in postnatal mouse testis, which coincides with human 'minipuberty'. The results are consistent with gonocyte transformation being independent of androgens, and that nonandrogenic regulators need to be identified.",
"Elevated levels of endogenous or exogenous estrogens during fetal life can induce permanent disturbances in prostate growth and predispose to precancerous lesions. Recent studies have indicated that also early anti-androgen exposure may affect prostate cancer risk. We examined the influence of perinatal exposure to mixtures of anti-androgenic and estrogenic chemicals on prostate development. Wistar rats were exposed from gestation day 7 to postnatal day 22 to a mixture of 8 anti-androgenic compounds (AAMix), a mixture of four estrogenic compounds (EMix), or paracetamol or a mixture of all 13 compounds (TotalMix) in mixture ratios reflecting human exposure levels. Ventral prostate weights were reduced by the TotalMix and AAMix in pre-pubertal rats. Histological changes in prostate appeared with increasing age and indicated a shift from the normal age-dependent epithelial atrophy towards hyperplasia. These lesions showed similarities to pre-cancerous lesions in humans. Increased proliferation was observed already in pre-puberty and it was hypothesized that this could be associated with reduced ERβ signaling, but no clear conclusions could be made from gene expression studies on ERβ-related pathways. The influences of the estrogenic chemicals and paracetamol on prostate morphology were minor, but in young adulthood the estrogen mixture reduced ventral prostate mRNA levels of Igf1 and paracetamol reduced the mRNA level ofPbpc3.",
"Prostate tumor progression is characterized by development of androgen independence and a heterogeneous distribution of the androgen receptor (AR). Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha) has been demonstrated to contribute to the progression of several cancers and thus may play a role in prostate cancer progression. Accordingly, we examined if prostate cancers express TNFalpha and the effect of TNFalpha on androgen sensitivity and AR expression in LNCaP prostate cancer cells. Immunohistochemical analysis of prostate tissues, ELISA, and northern blotting of LNCaP cell lines were carried out for detection of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNFalpha). To see the effect of TNFalpha on androgen receptor (AR), western blotting and northern blotting were performed after extraction of total protein and total RNA from LNCaP cells. Regulation of androgen-sensitivity by TNFalpha was investigated with cell proliferation assay and luciferase assay using PSA promoter after transfection of LNCaP cells. Immunohistochemical analysis demonstrated that TNFalpha protein was strongly expressed in epithelial cells of prostate cancer tissue but not in normal prostatic tissue. Basal level of TNFalpha in cell culture medium from LNCaP cells was very low. However, 12-O-tetradecanoylphorbol 13-acetate (TPA) induced TNFalpha secretion into medium up to 1600 pg/ml/day. Furthermore, 24 hr. post-TPA treatment TNFalpha mRNA levels were increased 15-fold compared to pre-treatment levels. TNFalpha (0 to 30 ng./ml. for 4 days) repressed AR protein and mRNA levels in a dose-dependent fashion in LNCaP cells. Pre-treatment of cells with actinomycin D treatment revealed that repression of mRNA levels was exerted at the post-transcriptional level. TNFalpha inhibited the ability of 10-9 M dihydrotestosterone (DHT) to induce LNCaP cell proliferation and activation of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) gene promoter. This inhibition was partially reversed by overexpression of transgenic androgen receptor.",
"The aim of this survey was to examine the relationships among baseline prostate gland volume and changes in urinary symptomatology 3 years later. A Scottish community-based cohort of 193 men aged 40-79 years who had prostate volume measured by transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) were followed-up at 3 years. Only baseline nocturia correlated with prostate volume (r = 0.202, P = 0.0057), although some relationships existed for the antero-posterior dimension of the prostate gland. More statistically significant relationships were evident for adenoma volume rather than prostate volume, but they still had relatively low correlations (range, 0.19-0.31).",
"Inexplicably, boys treated with some therapies for cancer at age 2-10 years, a time of supposed 'testicular quiescence', are at risk of low sperm counts/infertility in adulthood. Our aims were to use the marmoset as a surrogate for man to establish testicular cell function/activity during 'quiescence' between the neonatal period and puberty, and to test if any cell activity could be suppressed by prior treatment with a GnRH antagonist. Based on immunoexpression studies, functional development of Sertoli cells (SGP-2, androgen receptor) and Leydig cells (3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase) was detectable at an age (35 weeks) when the testis is considered to be quiescent, and in advance of the pubertal rise in blood testosterone levels (50-60 weeks). Other changes at 35 weeks were the appearance of focal seminiferous tubule lumens and proliferating germ cells [indicated by immunoexpression of proliferating cell nuclear antigen (PCNA)]. Treatment from 25 to 35 weeks with GnRH antagonist largely (>85%) prevented these changes. However, the PCNA-labelling index of spermatogonia in GnRH antagonist-treated animals did not differ from controls (41.3 versus 43.6%) though total spermatogonia volume per testis was reduced by 41%. Some protein markers (inhibin-alpha, estrogen receptor-beta) showed little change with age or treatment. Beyond 35 weeks, GnRH antagonist-treated animals showed a delay in the pubertal rise in plasma testosterone levels.",
"Early and precise delineation of therapeutic responses are key issues in neuroendocrine neoplasm/tumor management. Imaging is currently used but exhibits limitations in sensitivity and specificity. The utility of biomarkers is unclear. objective, setting, and design: This prospective cohort study (11 mo) sought to determine whether measurements of circulating neuroendocrine tumor transcripts (NETest) predict responses to somatostatin analogs (SSAs). The test set consisted of 35 SSA-treated gastroenteropancreatic-NETs (RECISTevaluated). The prospective set consisted of 28 SSA-treated Grade 1-Grade 2 GEP-NETs. Whole blood for transcript analysis (NETest) and plasma for Chromogranin A (CgA) (baseline), were collected every 4 weeks (prior to SSA injection). Morphologic (multidetector computed tomography/MRI) and functional imaging ((99m)Tc-[HYNIC, Tyr(3)]-Octreotide) was undertaken at entry and 6-month intervals until progression (RECIST 1.0). Treatment response. Test set: NETest (≥80%; scale, 0-100%) differentiated stable (SD) and progressive (PD) disease (P < .0001). Prospective set: 28 patients (26/28 SD) undergoing standard SSA. Grading: 12 G1, 16 G2. SSA Response: progression-free survival: 315 days: 14 (50%) SD, 14 (50%) PD. NETest: Twenty had elevated (≥80%) values; 14 developed PD; six, SD. CgA: Twelve of 28 exhibited elevated baseline values and/or subsequent >25% increase; eight developed PD; four, SD. NETest (P = .002) and grade (P = .054) were the only factors associated with treatment response. Multiple regression analysis established that the NETest could predict disease progression (P = .0002). NETest changes occurred significantly earlier (146 d prior to progression vs 56 d CgA; P < .0001; χ(2) = 19) and in more patients (100 vs 57%; P < .02).",
"Shortly after birth, pituitary gonadotropin secretion transiently activates in both sexes, and this surge is more robust in preterm (PT) than in full-term (FT) infants. In boys, the gonadotropin surge is associated with testicular activity and is considered an important part of normal reproductive development. In contrast, gonadal activation and its consequences in infant girls are poorly understood. Our objective was to evaluate the association of postnatal ovarian activity with simultaneous changes in estrogen target tissues in FT and PT girls. We measured urinary estradiol (E₂) levels in 29 FT and 34 PT girls using a mass spectrometric method from 1 week (D7) to 6 months of age (M1-M6). To assess the contribution of ovarian E₂ on urinary E₂ levels, the levels in girls were compared with the levels of boys of similar cohorts (29 FT and 33 PT boys). E₂ levels were compared with simultaneous changes in estrogenic target tissues including mammary glands in both sexes and uterus and vulvar epithelium in girls. Median urinary E₂ levels increased after D7 in girls, but not in boys. Mammary gland diameter was larger in girls than in boys from M4 in FT (P < .001) and M2 in PT infants (P < .0001). In PT girls, E₂ levels increased at term and were then higher than those in FT girls (P < .0001). Urinary E₂ levels in PT girls were positively associated with mammary gland and uterine growth.",
"yes. Neuroendocrine differentiation is often seen in colorectal cancer. It is an independent prognostic factor in stage III-IV colorectal cancer.",
"Regulated secretion of specialized neuropeptides in the vertebrate neuroendocrine system is critical for ensuring physiological homeostasis. Expression of these cell-specific peptide markers in the differentiating hypothalamus commences prior to birth, often predating the physiological demand for secreted neuropeptides. The conserved function and spatial expression of hypothalamic peptides in vertebrates prompted us to search for critical neuroendocrine genes in newly hatched zebrafish larvae. We screened mutant 5 days post-fertilization zebrafish larvae that fail to undergo visually mediated background adaptation for disruption in hypothalamic pomc expression. To our surprise, the ATPase N-ethylmaleimide sensitive factor (nsf) was identified as an essential gene for maintenance of neuroendocrine transcriptional programs during the embryo-to-larva transition. Despite normal hypothalamic development in nsf(st53) mutants, neuropeptidergic cells exhibited a dramatic loss of cell-specific markers by 5 days post-fertilization that is accompanied by elevated intracellular neuropeptide protein. Consistent with the role of NSF in vesicle-membrane fusion events and intracellular trafficking, cytoplasmic endoplasmic reticulum-like membranes accumulate in nsf(-/-) hypothalamic neurons similar to that observed for SEC18 (nsf ortholog) yeast mutants. Our data support a model in which unspent neuropeptide cargo feedbacks to extinguish transcription in neuropeptidergic cells just as they become functionally required. In support of this model we found that gnrh3 transcripts remained unchanged in pre-migratory, non-functional gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) neurons in nsf(-/-) zebrafish. Furthermore, oxytocin-like (oxtl, intp) transcripts, which are found in osmoreceptive neurons and persist in mutant zebrafish, drop precipitously after mutant zebrafish are acutely challenged with high salt.",
"Terminal differentiation of the human thyroid is characterized by the onset of follicle formation and thyroid hormone synthesis at 11 gestational weeks (GW). This study aimed to investigate the ontogeny of thyroglobulin (Tg), thyroid peroxidase (TPO), sodium/iodide symporter (NIS), pendrin (PDS), dual oxidase 2 (DUOX2), thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSHR), and thyroid transcription factor 1 (TITF1), forkhead box E1 (FOXE1), and paired box gene 8 (PAX8) in the developing human thyroid. Thyroid tissues from human embryos and fetuses (7-33 GW; n = 45) were analyzed by quantitative PCR to monitor mRNA expression for each gene and by immunohistochemistry to determine the cellular distribution of TITF1, TSHR, Tg, TPO, NIS, and the onset of T4 production. A broken line regression model was fitted for each gene to compare the loglinear increase in expression before and after the onset of T4 synthesis. TITF1, FOXE1, PAX8, TSHR, and DUOX2 were stably expressed from 7 to 33 GW. Tg, TPO, and PDS expression was detectable as early as 7 GW and was correlated with gestational age (all, P < 0.01), and the slope of the regression line was significantly different before and after the onset of T4 synthesis at 11 GW (all, P < 0.01). NIS expression appeared last and showed the highest fit by the broken line regression model of all genes (correlation age P < 0.0001, broken line regression P < 0.0001). Immunohistochemical studies detected TITF1, TSHR, and Tg in unpolarized thyrocytes before follicle formation. T(4) and NIS labeling were only found in developing follicles from 11 GW on.",
"Paracrine interleukin-6 (IL-6) can mediate neuroendocrine (NE) features, including the acquisition of a neurite-like phenotype and growth arrest in prostate cancer cells. However, little is known about the mechanisms underlying neuroendocrine differentiation induced by IL-6. Immunoblotting was performed to determine the status of RE1-silencing transcription factor (REST) and of neuroendocrine markers such as Neuron-specific Enolase (NSE), chromogranin A and synaptophysin in LNCaP cells treated with IL-6. To further study the impact of REST-mediated repression on neuroendocrine differentiation (NED) in LNCaP cells, either wild-type REST or a dominant-positive form of REST, REST-VP16, in which both repressor domains of REST were replaced with the activation domain of the herpes simplex virus protein VP16, was introduced into LNCaP cells. In this study, we show that REST is suppressed in IL-6-induced neuroendocrine differentiation in LNCaP cells. Overexpression of exogenous REST abrogated IL-6-induced NED in prostate cancer cells. Expression of the recombinant REST-VP16 fusion protein activated REST target genes and other neuronal differentiation genes and produced neuronal physiological properties. In addition, REST protein turnover was accelerated in IL-6 induced NE differentiated LNCaP cells via the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway, accompanied by a decrease in the expression of the deubiquitylase HAUSP, indicating that pathway(s) priming REST degradation may be involved in IL-6 induced NE differentiation.",
"Human prostate cancer cells are routinely maintained in media supplemented with 10% Fetal Calf Serum (FCS) to provide androgen. In the present study, total and free testosterone levels in 10%FCS supplemented tissue culture media were determined and compared to levels in intact and castrated human males. Dextran-coated charcoal stripped FCS (i.e., DC-FCS) is often used instead of FCS to minimize the level of androgen provided in 10% serum supplemented media. Therefore, total and free testosterone levels in 10%DC-FCS containing media were likewise determined. Total testosterone, free testosterone, and total dihydrotestosterone (DHT) were determined on RPMI-1640 media supplemented with either 10%FCS or 10%DC-FCS by ELISA assays before and after exposure to LNCaP human prostate cancer cells in culture. The growth and PSA secretion by these cells was also determined. Ten percentage FCS supplemented media contains a castrate level of testosterone. However, even with this castrate starting level of testosterone, LNCaP cells concentrate and metabolize the testosterone to produce a physiologic (i.e., 10 nM) level of intracellular DHT which optimally stimulates the growth of these cells in vitro.",
"no. There was no difference in the structure of the CC and corpus SP of anencephalic fetuses compared with normal ones. Elastin was documented from 20th WPC, which suggests the maintenance of erectile function. Histochemistry and immunolabeling suggested that penile shaft development is maintained and unaltered in anencephalic fetuses. Further studies should be performed to analyze anencephalic fetuses as a potential tissue-donating group and a model for biological studies.",
"yes. The apparent increase in CS and decrease in DS content in prostates of patients with BPH is in good agreement with the pathological manifestation of increased cell proliferation in hyperplastic prostate tissue, since these glycan molecules have been reported to increase and decrease cell proliferation, respectively. Identification of the responsible enzymes involved in the homeostasis of CS and DS may provide alternative targets for pharmacological intervention.",
"yes. Tissue CgA expression, evaluated in prostate cancer needle biopsies at diagnosis, is an independent prognostic factor of survival in prostate cancer patients. The negative influence of NE differentiation on time to progression confined in ADT-treated patients suggests a role of NE differentiation in predicting endocrine resistance that deserves validation.",
"Gene-regulated mechanisms govern tumor development, but the actual development of tumors can be suppressed or promoted by epigenetic factors. Lobund-Wistar (L-W) rats are genetically predisposed to development of spontaneous and induced metastasizing moderately differentiated adenocarcinomas in the prostate-seminal vesicle (P-SV) complex. In L-W rats with one slow-release subcutaneous implant of dihydrotestosterone (DHT) (5alpha-Androstan-17beta-ol-3-one), the development of induced P-SV tumors 14 months later was significantly suppressed, with involution of testes, aspermia, and absence of detectable serum testosterone. The tumor-suppressive effect of DHT was confirmed. Spontaneous P-SV tumors developed in 57 of 220 control L-W rats (26%) at an average age 20 months. At age 12 months, 70 L-W rats were administered an implant of 40 mg of DHT, and 75 untreated rats served as controls. All rats that developed palpable P-SV tumors were autopsied, and surviving rats were autopsied at age 24 months. At age 24 months, 9 of 70 DHT-treated rats (12.8%) and 20 of 75 DHT-free control rats (26.6%) had developed P-SV tumors spontaneously at average age 20.5 and 20 months, respectively.",
"yes. These results suggest for the first time that prenatal EtOH exposures induce histophysiological changes in the prostate as well as it increases the susceptibility of the prostate to develop neoplasia during adulthood.",
"To evaluate prostate-specific antigen (PSA) spikes after permanent prostate brachytherapy in low-risk patients. The study population consisted of 164 prostate cancer patients who were part of a prospective randomized trial comparing (103)Pd and (125)I for low-risk disease. Of the 164 patients, 61 (37.2%) received short-course androgen deprivation therapy. The median follow-up was 5.4 years. On average, 11.1 post-treatment PSA measurements were obtained per patient. Biochemical disease-free survival was defined as a PSA level of < or =0.40 ng/mL after nadir. A PSA spike was defined as an increase of > or =0.2 ng/mL, followed by a durable decline to prespike levels. Multiple parameters were evaluated as predictors for a PSA spike. Of the 164 patients, 44 (26.9%) developed a PSA spike. Of the 46 hormone-naive (125)I patients and 57 hormone-naive (103)Pd patients, 21 (45.7%) and 8 (14.0%) developed a PSA spike. In the hormone-naive patients, the mean time between implantation and the spike was 22.6 months and 18.7 months for (125)I and (103)Pd, respectively. In patients receiving neoadjuvant androgen deprivation therapy, the incidence of spikes was comparable between isotopes ((125)I 28.1% and (103)Pd 20.7%). The incidence of spikes was substantially different in patients <65 years vs. > or =65 years old (38.5% vs. 16.3%). On multivariate Cox regression analysis, patient age (p < 0.001) and isotope (p = 0.002) were significant predictors for spike.",
"yes. We propose that activated canonical Wnt signals and Nkx3.1 function in a positive feedback loop to regulate prostate bud growth and luminal epithelial differentiation.",
"Cryptorchidism, the most frequent congenital malformation in full-term male newborns, increases the risk of hypofertility and testicular cancer. Most cases remain idiopathic but epidemiological and experimental studies have suggested a role of both genetic and environmental factors. Physiological testicular descent is regulated by two major Leydig hormones: insulin-like peptide 3 (INSL3) and testosterone. To study the endocrine context at birth as a reflection of late pregnancy in isolated idiopathic cryptorchidism and to analyse the possible disruptions of INSL3 and/or testosterone. From a prospective case-control study at Nice University Hospital, we assessed 180 boys born after 34 weeks gestation: 52 cryptorchid (48 unilateral, 4 bilateral; 26 transient, 26 persistent), and 128 controls matched for term, weight and time of birth. INSL3 and testosterone were measured in cord blood and compared in both groups as were other components of the pituitary-gonadic axis: LH, HCG, FSH, AMH and SHBG. INSL3 was decreased in cryptorchid boys (P = 0·031), especially transient cryptorchid (P = 0·029), while testosterone was unchanged as were the other hormones measured. INSL3 was significantly decreased (P = 0·018) in the group of 20 with nonpalpable testes compared with the group of 21 with palpable testes (15 suprascrotal, five inguinal, one high scrotal) according to Scorer classification. In the whole population, INSL3 correlated positively with LH and negatively with AMH, but with no other measured hormones.",
"Upregulation of nuclear factor kappa B (NFκB) activity and neuroendocrine differentiation are two mechanisms known to be involved in prostate cancer (PC) progression to castration resistance. We have observed that major components of these pathways, including NFκB, proteasome, neutral endopeptidase (NEP) and endothelin 1 (ET-1), exhibit an inverse and mirror image pattern in androgen-dependent (AD) and -independent (AI) states in vitro. We have now investigated for evidence of a direct mechanistic connection between these pathways with the use of immunocytochemistry (ICC), western blot analysis, electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) and proteasome activity assessment. Neuropeptide (NP) stimulation induced nuclear translocation of NFκB in a dose-dependent manner in AI cells, also evident as reduced total inhibitor κB (IκB) levels and increased DNA binding in EMSA. These effects were preceded by increased 20 S proteasome activity at lower doses and at earlier times and were at least partially reversed under conditions of NP deprivation induced by specific NP receptor inhibitors, as well as NFκB, IκB kinase (IKK) and proteasome inhibitors. AD cells showed no appreciable nuclear translocation upon NP stimulation, with less intense DNA binding signal on EMSA.",
"yes. The bell-shaped concentration response of Zn(2+) on cultured BPH SMC proliferation suggests that changes in prostate Zn(2+) concentrations, during aging, diet, or inflammatory conditions, may be of importance in the pathogenesis of BPH.",
"We have shown that perinatal malnutrition decreases beta-cell mass at birth and impairs the adaptation of the endocrine pancreas to a subsequent pregnancy. The aim of this study is to investigate the impact of this maternal inadaptation on the development of endocrine pancreas in foetuses. Female rats malnourished during their perinatal life and showing intra-uterine growth retardation at birth were mated at 8 months of age. The development of the endocrine pancreas was studied at embryonic days 14, 17 and 20 in their foetuses by immunohistochemistry and morphometrical measurements on pancreatic sections. At embryonic day 20, both alpha and beta-cell fractions were decreased in foetuses from IUGR dams. Beta-cell mass was reduced (197 +/- 27 microg, vs 281 +/- 40 microg in control, p < 0.01) and so were insulin content and islet number per cm(2), as in the first generation foetuses. At embryonic day 14, the number of cells expressing only insulin was decreased by half in foetuses from intra-uterine growth retardation dams. At embryonic day 17, 50 % of the homeodomain protein Pdx-1 cell population expressed insulin but all the insulin cells expressed Pdx-1 in both groups; in foetuses from intra-uterine growth retardation dams the number of epithelial cells expressing Pdx-1 was decreased (415 +/- 40 cells/ mm(2) vs 481 +/- 28 cells/mm(2) in control foetuses, p < 0.05) and the mesenchymal fraction in the pancreas was increased by 36 % ( p < 0.05).",
"yes. Renin gene expression persists and predominates in the deep renal cortex of the stillborn IUGR fetus, and could contribute to the pathogenesis of neonatal oliguria and/or hypertension during postnatal life.",
"yes. These results point to a conserved role of the neuroendocrine axis in growth control in multicellular organisms.",
"We previously reported the isolation and characterization of PrLZ, a novel prostate-specific and androgen-responsive gene of the tumor protein D52 family at chromosome 8q21.1. PrLZ is the only known gene in this locus with prostate specificity. Expression level of PrLZ was elevated specifically in cancer cells, suggesting its association with malignancy. To define its biological function in the morphogenesis, development, and functional maturation of the prostate gland and to gain further insight into its role in prostate cancer, we examined PrLZ expression in prostate specimens during early embryonic development and in adult tissue. PrLZ first appears in the nuclei of the prostate epithelia at 16 weeks of gestation before its distribution in the cytoplasm at later ages. Its expression peaks at 24 years of age, declines at 31 years of age, and maintains a minimal level in later age. On prostate cancer development, PrLZ expression is reactivated, and its expression increases from primary localized tumor to bone metastasis. Overexpression of PrLZ in prostate cancer cells accelerates their growth in vitro and tumor formation in vivo.",
"To document the expression of oncofetal antigens and steroid receptors in first trimester human fetal ovaries and to determine the effect of advancing gestation on expression patterns. Fetal gonads were collected from surgical terminations of pregnancy, and fetal sex was determined by fluorescence in situ hybridization. Immunocytochemical analysis was performed on paraffin sections of microdissected fetal ovaries using antibodies to carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP), hCG, alpha fetoprotein (AFP), CA 125, estrogen receptor (ER) and progesterone receptor (PR) in 12 first trimester human fetal ovaries. Expression was quantified objectively by measuring percentage area of immunoreactivity (PAI) on whole sections of the ovary using an interactive image analysis system. Two pathologists, blinded to the antibodies used, independently viewed and scored all sections. PLAP, PR, ER and CEA were expressed in all 12 ovaries (31%, 28%, 21%, and 16% mean PAI, respectively). A diffuse staining pattern was observed at 8 weeks' gestation, which was more focal and confined to the cortical regions of the gonad by 12 weeks' gestation. Putative primordial germ cells were positive for PLAP, PR and ER but rarely for CEA. The expression (PAI) of PLAP and PR was unchanged during the first trimester, whereas that of ER decreased from 28% to 12%. The expression of CEA and hCG decreased from 8 to 11 weeks and then increased markedly by 13 weeks. AFP had a medullary distribution and was expressed in nine of 12 ovaries (mean PAI 18%). CA 125 expression was minimal or undetected.",
"The diagnostic gold standard for neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia of infancy (NEHI) is demonstration of increased numbers of neuroendocrine cells (NECs) amid otherwise near-normal lung histology. Typical clinical and radiographic features often are present. However, NECs are also increased after lung injury and in other disorders, which can complicate biopsy specimen interpretation and diagnosis of suspected NEHI. Our objective was to determine whether NEC prominence is specific for the diagnosis of NEHI. Bombesin immunoreactivity was quantified in lung biopsy specimens from 13 children with characteristic clinical presentation and imaging appearance of NEHI. The primary comparison group was 13 age-matched patients selected from children with lung disorders that are known to be associated with NEC prominence. Bombesin-immunopositive epithelial area was significantly increased in NEHI compared with other diseases. Patchy bronchiolar inflammation or fibrosis was frequently observed in NEHI, with no direct association between airway histopathology and bombesin-immunopositive area. NEC prominence correlated with severity of small airway obstruction demonstrated on infant pulmonary function testing. Immunohistochemical colocalization of bombesin with Ki67 did not reveal active NEC proliferation. There was wide intra- and intersubject variability in NEC number, which did not relate to radiographic appearance of the region biopsied.",
"The purpose of this research was to characterize the spatiotemporal expression of P450c17 in the human fetal ovary. P450c17 protein was visualized in sections of control and anencephalic ovaries using immunohistochemistry. Subjects included control (nonanencephalic) and anencephalic human fetal ovaries during the second and third trimesters. In second-trimester control ovaries, P450c17 was highly expressed in primary interstitial cells (PIC) located between the ovigerous cords near the cortical-medullary border where meiosis and primordial follicle formation were occurring. Morphometric analysis revealed a progressive decrease in the number of PIC during the second trimester, suggesting that PIC might have a finite lifetime. Between 25 and 32 wk, relatively few cells stained positive for P450c17; however, after 33 wk, P450c17 was strongly expressed in theca interstitial cells (TIC) bordering developing follicles. Surprisingly, the TIC appeared remarkably early during folliculogenesis, e.g. as early as the primary-to-secondary transition, and exhibited notable hyperplasia throughout preantral and early antral follicle growth. Owing to large numbers of developing preantral follicles, the third trimester was characterized by an increased abundance of P450c17-positive TIC. During this time period, P450c17 was strongly expressed in the hilus interstitial cells juxtaposed to the rete ovarii. Studies of ovaries of anencephalic fetuses revealed a similar spatiotemporal pattern of P450c17 expression in the PIC, TIC, and hilus interstitial cells, consistent with the possibility that pituitary hormones may not be involved in P450c17 expression in fetal ovaries.",
"yes. Axin2 expressing cells that co-express Sca-1 are present in all prostate lobes suggesting that progenitor cells reside within the Wnt active population. An understanding of the basic biology of signaling pathways mediating growth in the prostate may lead to rational therapies to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostate cancer.",
"The HP1 family of evolutionarily conserved proteins regulates heterochromatin packaging, in addition to a less defined role in the regulation of euchromatic genes. To examine the possible role of HP1 proteins in fetal prostate development and prostate cancer the protein expression of HP1alpha, beta and gamma was evaluated in human archival tissue. Tissue sections from human prostate cancer and fetal prostate were examined using antibodies against HP1 isoforms to evaluate HP1 modulation in cancer and development. Western blot analysis of HP1 proteins was also performed in extracts of cultured prostate cancer cells. HP1alpha, beta and gamma are differentially regulated in various cellular compartments in prostate development. HP1alpha is not expressed at 14 or 24 weeks of prostate development but it is expressed in adult prostate tissue. HP1beta is highly expressed at 14 and 24 weeks, and it appears predominantly in epithelial cells compared to HP1gamma, which is expressed at equal levels in epithelial and stromal cells. All 3 HP1 isoforms show altered expression in prostate cancer compared to that in normal adult prostate tissue.",
"Hormonal alterations during development have lifelong effects on the prostate gland. Endogenous estrogens, including 17beta-estradiol (E(2)), and synthetic estrogenic endocrine disruptors, such as bisphenol A (BPA), have similar effects on prostate development. Increasing exposure to estrogens within the low-dose, physiologic range results in permanent increases in the size and androgen responsiveness of the prostate, whereas exposure within the high-dose, pharmacologic range has the opposite effects. We tested the hypothesis that the low-dose effects of estrogens on the developing prostate are associated with increased expression of androgen receptor (Ar) and estrogen receptor 1 (alpha) (Esr1) genes in mesenchyme cells. Ar and Esr1 mRNA levels were quantified in primary cultures of fetal mouse prostate mesenchyme cells treated with E(2) and BPA.",
"Castration-resistant prostate cancer is a recent biological behavior where disease can elude androgen deprivation therapy (ADT). Several pathways have been described, including neuroendocrine dedifferentiation. Patients with neuroendocrine dedifferentiation show an increase in chromogranin A (CgA) along with a PSA increase. Our aim was to evaluate the response of patients with castration-resistant prostate cancer and high CgA serum levels after treatment with inhibitors of neuroendocrine cells (somatostatin analogs) in combination with ADT. From January 2009 to April 2011, 10 patients with castration-resistant prostate cancer and rising PSA levels along with a CgA increase were evaluated. The therapy was based on somatostatin analogs and LHRH anologs. Total PSA and CgA were measured every 2 months. In 9 of the 10 patients, a reduction of the values of pre-treatment CgA was detected, while a reduction of PSA was found in 8 patients. No grade 2 or higher toxicity was recorded. Only 3 patients had grade 1 gastrointestinal toxicity. Time to progression was 13 months.",
"To determine if the histological composition of the prostate-the proportion of glands and stroma-depends on its size. Prostate volume was determined by abdominal US; transurethral biopsy of the prostate was performed in 22 patients (mean age 64.8 years) with BPH or bladder tumor. Morphometric analysis of a fragment of the prostate was performed using light and electron microscopy. The stroma-epithelial ratio (SER) and the density of prostatic vascularization (DPV), and the nuclear and cellular areas of 5 epithelial cells in each case, were determined. The ratio of the sum of granular to cellular areas (secreto-cellular ratio), and the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio (NCR) were determined. The pearson coefficient and linear regression equation that best correlated the prostate volume and the rest of the variables. The mean SER was 4:1 and the DPV was 15.18 vessels/mm2. The cellular and nuclear areas were 79.6 and 21.2 mu2, respectively. The secreto-cellular ratio was 0.083 and the NCR was 0.28. The prostate volume showed no mathematical relationship with SER (r = 0.016, p = 0.9) or DPV (r = 0.026, p = 0.9). Only a random association between the US prostate volume and the cellular and nuclear areas, and the secreto-cellular and NCR could be observed.",
"yes. Our analyses of nsf mutant zebrafish reveal an unexpected role for NSF in hypothalamic development, with mutant 5 days post-fertilization larvae exhibiting a stage-dependent loss of neuroendocrine transcripts and a corresponding accumulation of neuropeptides in the soma. Based on our collective findings, we speculate that neuroendocrine transcriptional programs adapt dynamically to both the supply and demand for neuropeptides to ensure adequate homeostatic responses.",
"To determine the prognostic relevance of neuroendocrine differentiation in colorectal cancer. The survival of 116 patients with colorectal cancer of stages III (n = 59) and IV (n = 57) was correlated with the extent of neuroendocrine differentiation. Chromogranin A and synaptophysin were used as neuroendocrine markers. Based on the degree of immunoreactivity for these markers, tumours were classified as 0 (no expression of neuroendocrine markers), 1 (< 2% cells staining positive for neuroendocrine markers) and 2 (> 2% cells staining positive for neuroendocrine markers). Patients were followed up for more than 5 years or until death. Seven of 59 (11.8%) stage III cancers and 13/57 (22.8%) stage IV cancers belonged to group 2. The 96 patients of groups 0 and 1 lived for 48.9 months, whereas the 20 patients of group 2 survived for only 18.6 months (Kaplan-Meier survival curves, P < 0.001). The difference was most striking in stage III disease with 79.4 months' survival for combined groups 0 and 1, and 38.9 months' survival for group 2 (P < 0.01). Using the multivariate Cox regression model, the presence of more than 2% of cells with neuroendocrine differentiation was found to be an independent prognostic parameter for stage III and IV disease. No correlation was observed between neuroendocrine differentiation and tumour location, grade, depth of invasion or stage.",
"Prostate carcinoma is among the most common causes of cancer-related death in men, representing 15% of all male malignancies in developed countries. Neuroendocrine differentiation (NED) has been associated with tumor progression, poor prognosis, and with the androgen-independent status. Currently, no successful therapy exists for advanced, castration-resistant disease. Because hypoxia has been linked to prostate cancer progression and unfavorable outcome, we sought to determine whether hypoxia would impact the degree of neuroendocrine differentiation of prostate cancer cells in vitro. Exposure of LNCaP cells to low oxygen tension induced a neuroendocrine phenotype, associated with an increased expression of the transcription factor neurogenin3 and neuroendocrine markers, such as neuron-specific enolase, chromogranin A, and β3-tubulin. Moreover, hypoxia triggered a significant decrease of Notch 1 and Notch 2 mRNA and protein expression, with subsequent downregulation of Notch-mediated signaling, as shown by reduced levels of the Notch target genes, Hes1 and Hey1. NED was promoted by attenuation of Hes1 transcription, as cells expressing a dominant-negative form of Hes1 displayed increased levels of neuroendocrine markers under normoxic conditions. Although hypoxia downregulated Notch 1 and Notch 2 mRNA transcription and receptor activation also in the androgen-independent cell lines, PC-3 and Du145, it did not change the extent of NED in these cultures, suggesting that androgen sensitivity may be required for transdifferentiation to occur.",
"Neutral endopeptidase (NEP) is a cell-surface bound enzyme that cleaves and inactivates neuropeptides such as bombesin and substance P and is involved in the transition from hormonally regulated androgen-dependent prostate cancer (PC) to androgen-independent PC. Neuropeptides are implicated in growth regulation of different cell types and function as transmitters between the neuroendocrine and the immune system. NEP-expression, enzymatic activity of the membrane bound protein, cell proliferation, procalcitonin (PCT) production, and secretion as well as changes in cell morphology of prostatic cells were evaluated after treatment with the immunomodulatory cytokine interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta), neuropeptides (bombesin, substance P), and neuropeptide-conditioned media derived from a human neuroendocrine cell line. Incubation of LNCaP tumor cells with IL-1beta resulted in a diminished proliferative activity, induction of neurite-like outgrowth which was accompanied by the formation of tubular-type mitochondria typical for neuronal/neuroendocrine cells, and an increased production and secretion of PCT. Conversely, proliferation of prostatic stromal cells was enhanced by the cytokine coming along with an increased number of Golgi-apparatuses and ER-cisternae. Bombesin had an antimitotic effect on LNCaP, but not on stromal cells. Substance P did not influence the growth of any of the cell types investigated, whereas neuropeptide-conditioned media exerted a slightly mitogenic effect on both cell types. The activity of LNCaP cell-surface bound NEP was enhanced by bombesin, but was diminished by substance P and neuropeptide-conditioned media.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) differentiation in prostate cancer (PCa), promoted by NE cell secreted products, appears to be associated with tumor progression, poor prognosis, and hormone-refractory disease. We recently reported secretagogin, a hexa-EF-hand Ca(2+) binding protein, as a novel NE marker in carcinoid tumors of the lung and the gastrointestinal tract. The present study analyzes the expression of secretagogin in normal and malign prostate tissue. We analyzed immunoreactivity for secretagogin, chromogranin A (CgA), neuron specific enolase (NSE), and synaptophysin (SYN) in consecutive sections from 87 formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) benign hyperplastic (n = 10) and prostate adenocarcinoma (n = 77) specimens. The intracellular distribution of secretagogin, CgA, and NSE was examined by confocal fluorescent microscopy, and we characterized secretagogin in eight samples by Western blotting. Secretagogin is cytoplasmic and nuclear expressed in NE and NE differentiated cells, and to a lesser extent in epithelial cells, in the benign prostate and prostate adenocarcinoma cells. Secretagogin stained 82% (46/56) of benign and 71% (48/68) of prostate adenocarcinomas and co-localized with the NE markers CgA and NSE. The expression of secretagogin is significantly correlated to CgA (P < 0.001) and NSE (P < 0.048) in prostate adenocarcinoma and to CgA in normal epithelium (P < 0.028).",
"yes. These data support the hypothesis that NE-derived factors act upon prostate cancer cells to stimulate pro-survival signaling and describe a novel mechanism of cross-talk between NE-derived factors and IGF-1R, mediated in part by PTPRF.",
"Kisspeptins were recently identified as hypothalamic neuropeptides that control GnRH release at pubertal onset and in adults via the activation of KISS-1 receptor (KISS1R). Here, we have tested whether the fetal activation of the gonadotropic axis is related to the hypothalamic expression of kisspeptins and KISS1R. LH and FSH levels were measured in fetal blood from the 15th week of gestation (WG) to birth. Immunohistochemistry was performed on the hypothalamus and pituitary at different developmental stages. Immunostaining for kisspeptins and KISS1R appeared for both proteins in the hypothalamus as early as 15 WG and subsequently increased until 30-31 WG. In the meantime, serum LH and FSH levels decreased from postmenopausal levels in females or adult levels in males to very low levels. At full term, kisspeptin and KISS1R staining was still observed in the paraventricular, supraoptic, and ventromedial hypothalamic nuclei but not in the arcuate nucleus or median eminence. Hypothalamic GnRH staining was observed at 15 WG and did not vary after the first trimester. In an arhinencephalic fetus of 23 WG, very few GnRH neurons were observed in the hypothalamus, but serum FSH and LH levels were postmenopausal.",
"Newborn infants show a postnatal decline in androgen levels as the fetal adrenal glands involute. Placental factors up-regulate dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S) generation. Hence, regardless of age, parturition will result in fetal adrenal involution and decline in DHEA-S levels. Premature neonates (n = 30) with gestational age 26-35 wk were studied. Adrenal volume by ultrasonography and serum DHEA-S, cortisol, and androstendione levels were followed weekly between d 1 and 28 of life. Serum DHEA-S was high on d 1 of life, declining rapidly regardless of gestational age during the first week of life (P < 0.001), and serum androstenedione and cortisol levels followed a similar pattern. Androstenedione levels showed a rise as of d 21 of life in boys but not in girls. The adrenals decreased in ultrasonographic volume from d 1 to 14 of life (P < 0.001), regardless of gestational age.",
"The majority of the prostatic cancers are adenocarcinomas characterized by glandular formation and the expression of luminal differentiation markers androgen receptor (AR) and prostate-specific antigen (PSA). Most adenocarcinomas are indolent and androgen-dependent. Hormonal therapy that inhibits AR signaling produces symptomatic relief in patients with advanced and metastatic adenocarcinomas. Prostatic small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma (SCNC) is a variant form of prostate cancer (PC). In contrast to adenocarcinoma, the tumor cells of SCNC do not form glands and are negative for AR and PSA. SCNC is extremely aggressive and does not respond to hormonal therapy. The purpose of this study was to compare the important and relevant features of two most commonly used PC cell lines, LNCaP and PC3, with prostatic adenocarcinoma and SCNC. Xenograft tumors of LNCaP and PC3 were prepared and compared with human prostatic adenocarcinoma and SCNC for the expression of key signaling molecules by immunohistochemistry and Western blot analysis. LNCaP cells express AR and PSA and their growth is inhibited by androgen withdrawal, similar to human prostatic adenocarcinoma. PC3 cells do not express AR and PSA and their proliferation is independent of androgen, similar to SCNC. Adenocarcinoma cells and LNCaP cells are negative for neuroendocrine markers and stem cell-associated marker CD44 while SCNC and PC3 cells are positive. LNCaP cells have identical cytokeratin profiles to adenocarcinoma while PC3 cells have cytokeratin profiles similar to SCNC.",
"To investigate the differentiation and migration of endocrine cells to form the pancreatic islets of Langer-hans in early human development. Embryonic pancreas of 6-14 wk gestation was observed using immunocytochemistry methods in early human development. Insulin and glucagon are expressed in the same epithelium cells in the pancreas. In addition, in-sulin-producing cells also secrete somatostatin in early human embryonic development and these insulin-pro-ducing cells also express nestin.",
"Neuroendocrine markers, which could indicate for aggressive variants of prostate cancer and Ki67 (a well-known marker in oncology for defining tumor proliferation), have already been associated with clinical outcome in prostate cancer. The aim of this study was to investigate the prognostic value of those markers in primary prostate cancer patients. NSE (neuron specific enolase), ChrA (chromogranin A), Syp (Synaptophysin) and Ki67 staining were performed by immunohistochemistry. Then, the prognostic impact of their expression on overall survival was investigated in 166 primary prostate cancer patients by univariate and multivariate analyses. NSE, ChrA, Syp and Ki67 were positive in 50, 45, 54 and 146 out of 166 patients, respectively. In Kaplan-Meier analysis only diffuse NSE staining (negative vs diffuse, p = 0.004) and Ki67 (≤ 10% vs > 10%, p < 0.0001) were significantly associated with overall survival. Ki67 expression, but not NSE, resulted as an independent prognostic factor for overall survival in multivariate analysis.",
"yes. These results suggest that Ngn3 and Nkx2.2 expression are markers for site-specific metastasis and/or transcriptionally regulated genes that are required for organ-specific metastasis. This study indicates that a pathway similar to pancreatic beta-cell differentiation is involved in NE differentiation of prostate cancer.",
"Although normal prostatic development is androgen-dependent, the prostate continues to grow in the neonate despite castration. However, the manner in which neonatal growth of the prostate occurs, in the absence of the testis, remains largely unknown. The purpose of this study was to examine the differentiation of prostatic epithelial cells after neonatal castration. Immunohistochemistry was utilized to detect the expression of differentiation products: basal-cell cytokeratin (CK 5), luminal-cell cytokeratin (CK 18), and prostatic steroid-binding protein (PBP), a ventral prostate-specific marker indicative of secretory function in luminal cells. The reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction was used to detect transcription products of the three polypeptide subunits of PBP, designated C1, C2, and C3. Rats were castrated on day 5 after birth, and ventral prostates were collected on day 14. Dihydrotestosterone was injected (100 microg/animal every 2 days) in castrated animals to determine if PBP expression could be initiated by androgen. Although no major effects of castration were detected on the differentiation of stromal or basal cells (which differentiate prior to day 5), castration had a pronounced effect on luminal-cell differentiation. Castration inhibited PBP protein expression, but did not affect the expression of luminal-cell cytokeratin (CK 18) protein. Furthermore, castration reduced C1, C2, and C3 transcription. Androgen replacement to castrated animals allowed for the initiation of PBP expression, although its onset was delayed.",
"yes. pS2 expression in prostate cancer significantly correlates with histological grade and the neuroendocrine differentiation, as demonstrated by Chromogranin A expression but not with the clinical stage of the disease. However, the overall expression was low consequently; no definitive conclusions can be drawn. We feel further work is required in a larger series, both in primary and metastatic cancer.",
"Putative neuroendocrine cells are rarely (less than 1%) found in regional pancreatic lymph nodes. Although these may be embryonic rests and might represent precursors of primary nodal gastrinomas, specific hormones have yet to be identified in these cells. Although these data provide support for the concept of primary nodal gastrinomas, this remains a diagnosis of exclusion.",
"Insulin resistance can be compensated by increased functional pancreatic β-cell mass; otherwise, diabetes ensues. Such compensation depends not only on environmental and genetic factors but also on the baseline β-cell mass from which the expansion originates. Little is known about assembly of a baseline β-cell mass in humans. Here, we examined formation of β-cell populations relative to other pancreatic islet cell types and associated neurons throughout the normal human lifespan. Human pancreatic sections derived from normal cadavers aged 24 wk premature to 72 yr were examined by immunofluorescence. Insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin were used as markers for β-, α-, and δ-cells, respectively. Cytokeratin-19 marked ductal cells, Ki67 cell proliferation, and Tuj1 (neuronal class III β-tubulin) marked neurons. Most β-cell neogenesis was observed preterm with a burst of β-cell proliferation peaking within the first 2 yr of life. Thereafter, little indication of β-cell growth was observed. Postnatal proliferation of α- and δ-cells was rarely seen, but a wave of ductal cell proliferation was found mostly associated with exocrine cell expansion. The β-cell to α-cell ratio doubled neonatally, reflecting increased growth of β-cells, but during childhood, there was a 7-fold change in the β-cell to δ-cell ratio, reflecting an additional loss of δ-cells. A close association of neurons to pancreatic islets was noted developmentally and retained throughout adulthood. Negligible neuronal association to exocrine pancreas was observed.",
"Prostate cancer (PC) contains a minor component of neuroendocrine (NE) cells that may stimulate androgen-independent growth of the tumor. The mechanism of neuroendocrine differentiation remains unknown. The expression of PTP1B, a protein tyrosine phosphatase, was studied in LNCaP cells induced to show neuroendocrine phenotype by androgen withdrawal. Wild-type PTP1B and its dominant-negative mutant were transfected into LNCaP cells to study their effects on neuroendocrine differentiation. In vivo expression of PTP1B in human prostate cancer was studied by immunohistochemistry. Androgen withdrawal of LNCaP cells led to increased expression of PTP1B with a corresponding increase in its tyrosine phosphatase activity. Overexpression of PTP1B in LNCaP cells led to neuroendocrine differentiation while expression of its dominant-negative mutant inhibited neuroendocrine differentiation. Immunohistochemical study showed that PTP1B was exclusively expressed in neuroendocrine cells of human prostate cancer tissue.",
"yes. Postnatal HPG axis activation in infancy is increased in PT boys and associated with faster testicular and penile growth compared with FT boys. Possible long-term consequences of hyperandrogenism in PT infant boys warrant further research.",
"Neuroendocrine differentiation is a common feature of prostate cancer (pCA). NeuroD1 is a neuronal transcription factor able to convert epithelial cells into neurons. The aim of the study is to investigate NeuroD1 expression and compare it with chromogranin-A, synaptophysin, and CD56 staining in human prostate cell lines and surgical specimens. We detected NeuroD1 gene expression, by duplex reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction, in primary human prostate fibroblasts, in EPN, LNCaP, DU145, and PC3 cell lines before and after cAMP exposure, in 6 BPH and 11 pCA samples. Thereafter 166 paraffin sections from normal and neoplastic prostates were stained with NeuroD1, chromogranin-A, synaptophysin, and CD56 antibodies. The relationships between chromogranin-A and NeuroD1 and clinicopathologic parameters were evaluated by multivariate logistic regression analysis. NeuroD1 is inactive in baseline prostate cell lines and BPHs, whereas it is actively expressed in cAMP-treated EPN, PC3, and DU145 cells. In our surgical series, positive chromogranin-A, synaptophysin, CD56, and NeuroD1 staining was detected in 26.5%, 4.3%, 3.1%, and 35.5%, respectively (difference between chromogranin-A and NeuroD1: p<0.05). The multivariate analysis showed a strong association between chromogranin-A and microscopic perineural invasion (OR: 2.49; 95%CI, 0.85-7.32; p=0.097) and a high primary Gleason score (OR: 1.96; 95%CI, 1.14-3.39; p=0.015), whereas NeuroD1 expression strictly correlated to microscopic perineural invasion (OR: 2.97; 95%CI, 1.05-8.41; p=0.04).",
"Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) is a regulatory peptide that has been associated with normal fetal growth and differentiation as well as the regulation of fetal calcium. In a variety of cancers, PTHrP has been implicated in the humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy. Recently, we demonstrated that all prostatic adenocarcinomas express PTHrP. In the present study, the localization of PTHrP and its mRNA in nonmalignant prostate tissue was assessed. Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded prostatic tissues from 23 patients were evaluated. Immunocytochemistry (ICC) was performed by the streptavidin-peroxidase enzyme conjugate method using a monoclonal antibody, 8B12, generated against fragment 1-34 of the amino-terminal end of PTHrP. Nonradioactive in situ hybridization was carried out using a digoxigenin labeled single-stranded cDNA probe complementary to the sequence coding for PTHrP(15-120). PTHrP immunoreactivity was observed in the cytosol of a few epithelial cells. Double labeling and serial section ICC with 8B12 and a monoclonal antibody to chromogranin A (a generic neuroendocrine [NE] marker) revealed that PTHrP was present in a subpopulation of prostatic NE cells. In situ hybridization of mirror image sections demonstrated positive signals in prostatic NE cells in complete accordance with the ICC findings.",
"Transient activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is observed in boys during the first months of life. Previous research suggests increased HPG axis activation in premature infants, but the physiological significance of this has not been studied. The objective of this study was to evaluate the differences in reproductive hormone levels and their biological effects between full-term (FT) and preterm (PT) infant boys. Twenty-five FT and 25 PT (gestational age 24.7-36.6 wk) boys were recruited at birth and followed up monthly from 1 wk to 6 months of age (d 7, months 1-6). Nineteen FT and 20 PT boys were reexamined at 14 months of age. Urinary gonadotropins and testosterone were measured in serial urine samples and compared with testicular and penile growth. Urinary prostate-specific antigen was measured as an androgen biomarker. LH and testosterone levels were higher in PT boys (P < 0.001 for both) than FT boys. Compared with FT boys, FSH levels were lower at d 7 (P = 0.002) but higher from month 1 to month 3 (P = 0.002-0.030) in PT boys. This was associated with significantly faster testicular and penile growth in PT boys compared with FT boys. Transient increase in the prostate-specific antigen levels in both groups indicated androgen action in the prostate.",
"yes. The results obtained support the proposed hypothesis and indicate that an optimum thyroid activity during pre- and neonatal period determines AR status in the prostate glands at adulthood.",
"Although gonadotropins and testosterone are high in the fetal/early postnatal periods, Sertoli cells remain immature and spermatogenesis does not progress. We hypothesized that Sertoli cells do not respond to testosterone because they do not express the androgen receptor. The objective of the study was to describe the precise ontogeny of androgen receptor expression in the human testis from fetal life through adulthood. This was an immunohistochemical study on testicular biopsies from fetal, neonatal, prepubertal, pubertal, and adult human testes. Quantification of androgen receptor expression in Sertoli cells was measured. Evaluation of androgen receptor expression in peritubular and interstitial cells as well as anti-Müllerian hormone and inhibin-alpha was also performed. Androgen receptor expression was first observed in the nuclei of few Sertoli cells at the age of 5 months. Labeling was weak in 2-15% of Sertoli cells until 4 yr of age and progressively increased thereafter. High levels of androgen receptor expression were observed in more than 90% from the age of 8 yr through adulthood. Androgen receptor was positive in peritubular cells and variable in interstitial cells. Anti-Müllerian hormone immunolabeling was strong in all Sertoli cells from fetal life throughout prepuberty and weakened progressively as spermatogenesis developed. Inhibin-alpha expression was detected in all Sertoli cells from fetal life through adulthood.",
"yes. The localization and production of PTHrP in prostatic NE cells suggest that this polypeptide may act in an endocrine-paracrine fashion involved in the prostatic growth and differentiation as well as the regulation of calcium in semen and seminal fluid.",
"yes. A lack of androgen receptor expression could explain a physiological Sertoli cell androgen insensitivity during fetal and early postnatal life, which may serve to protect the testis from precocious Sertoli cell maturation, resulting in proliferation arrest and spermatogenic development.",
"Undescended testis leads to infertility and malignancy resulting from aberrant germ cell development. Androgens are proposed to control early germ cell development during the transient postnatal surge of gonadotropins and androgen, known as mini-puberty. We assessed the effect of androgen receptor on perinatal germ cell development in mice. Testes from androgen receptor knockout mice and wild-type littermates (3 to 4 per group) were collected at embryonic day 17 and postnatal days 0 (birth), 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 for immunohistochemical analysis. Antibodies against mouse VASA homologue (germ cell marker), antimüllerian hormone (Sertoli cell marker), Ki67 (proliferating cell marker) and DAPI (nuclei) were used and visualized by confocal microscopy. Number of germ cells per tubule, germ cells on the tubular basement membrane and Sertoli cells per tubule, and percentage of proliferating germ cells (Ki67(+)) per tubule and germ cells (Ki67(+)) on the basement membrane on confocal images were counted using Image J, version 1.44 (http://imagej.nih.gov/ij/). Data were analyzed using nonparametric one-way ANOVA with GraphPad Prism® 5.02 software. In wild-type and androgen receptor knockout testes germ cells per tubule decreased from embryonic day 17 to postnatal day 2, then increased normally. Number of mouse VASA homologue positive germ cells per tubule and germ cells on the basement membrane were similar in androgen receptor knockout and wild-type testes (p > 0.05) at each age, and percentages of proliferating germ cells (Ki67(+)) per tubule and proliferating germ cells on the basement membrane were similar at each age (p > 0.05).",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) cells promote the progression of prostate cancer to a castration-resistant state through the production of paracrine growth factors. We have demonstrated this principle using in vitro and in vivo proliferative endpoints; however, the contributions of NE-derived pro-survival factors and anti-apoptosis to this phenomenon have not been thoroughly investigated. Here, we utilized conditioned-medium (CM) from LNCaP cells, engineered to undergo NE differentiation, and examined its effects on PC3 and LNCaP cell survival. Statistically significant changes in clonogenic survival, Annexin V staining, PARP cleavage and trypan blue positivity of approximately twofold were observed in the presence of NE-derived CM relative to control-CM for both LNCaP and PC3 cells. These changes were partially abrogated by antagonists of the neuropeptides neurotensin, bombesin, and PTHrP. Selective inhibitors of IGF-1R, EGFR or Src caused significant and nearly complete blockade of prostate cancer cell survival due to NE secretions. Similar increases in cell survival were observed for LNCaP or PC3 cells treated with NE-derived medium in the presence of docetaxel. Increased phosphorylation of IGF-1R, following treatment with NE-derived medium, was accompanied by decreased protein tyrosine phosphatase, receptor type F (PTPRF) mRNA, and protein levels. Overexpression of PTPRF decreased cell survival, the amplitude and duration of IGF-1R phosphorylation, and enhanced PARP cleavage in the presence of NE-derived medium.",
"The biological potential of prostate cancer is extremely variable. Particular interest is focused on markers not expressed in normal prostatic tissues. pS2 protein expression has been demonstrated in a range of malignant tissues in an oestrogen-independent pathway. Recently, it has been demonstrated that pS2, in prostate cancer, is closely associated with neuro-endocrine differentiation. In the present study, we have analyzed, the potential of Neuro-endocrine and pS2 (TFF1) expression in human prostate cancer determined by immunohistochemistry, in primary adenocarcinoma of the prostate and attempted to correlate this with the clinico-pathologic features of the patient and neuroendocrine expression. Ninety-five malignant prostatic specimens from primary adenocarcinoma, obtained from either transurethral resection of prostate or radical retropubic prostatectomy, from 84 patients between January 1991 and December 1998 were evaluated by immuno-histochemical staining using selected neuroendocrine tumor markers i.e. chromogranin A (CgA) and estrogen inducible pS2 protein. The relationship between the expressions of pS2 was studied with CgA expression, clinical stage (TNM) and tumour grade (Gleason system). Fischer exact test was used for statistical analysis. The mean age of the patients was 70 + /- 9.2 years. The pS2 expression was seen in 10% of primary prostate cancers. Worsening histological grade was associated with greater expression of pS2 (p < 0.001). The expression of CgA was noted in 31% of malignant prostatic tissue. In pS2, positive cases 2/3rd of patients were also CgA +ve. However, there was no significant correlation between pS2 expression and the stage of disease.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) differentiation may be related to the growth and progression of prostate cancer, especially androgen-insensitive tumors. Recently the over-expression of a new anti-apoptosis protein, survivin, has attracted attention for its potential implication in many human cancers. The fact that NE cells in prostate are bcl-2 negative prompted us to investigate if the prostatic NE cells over-express survivin. Double immunohistochemical staining and immunofluorescence of chromogranin A (CgA) and survivin were performed in 57 patients with localized prostate cancer who underwent radical prostatectomy. The terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TDT)-mediated dUTP-digoxigenin nick end-labeling (TUNEL) method was used for apoptosis detection in three prostate cancer specimens with NE differentiation. The relationship between NE differentiation and clinicopathological characteristics, disease progression as well as patient survival, were analyzed retrospectively. It was found that NE cells in both benign and malignant prostate tissues over-expressed the anti-apoptosis protein survivin. While apoptosis was detected in non-NE epithelial cells, all NE cells were negative for apoptosis detection. During the period of follow-up, 17 (63%) of 27 patients with NE differentiation had prostate cancer progression, while 12 (40%) of 30 patients without NE differentiation had systemic prostate cancer progression. 10 (37%) of 27 patients with NE differentiation died from prostate cancer during the period of follow up, while 6 (20%) of 30 patients without NE differentiation died from prostate cancer. However, none of these characteristics reached statistical significance, probably because of the small number of cases enrolled.",
"yes. Our unexpected finding that the neuroendocrine cell markers PGP 9.5 and ChA are expressed by PC-3 and DU145 cells, suggests that these cells may have been derived from metastatic adenocarcinomas which had undergone neuroendocrine differentiation or alternatively the expression occurred ectopically as a result of cell culture.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) differentiation in prostate tumors has been correlated with androgen independent disease and increased risk of death. In vitro, IL-6 initiates NE differentiation utilizing the signal transduction initiated by the interaction with IL-6R alpha and gp130. In this study we analysed the NE differentiation process in vitro and in vivo using the LNCaP androgen dependent cell line via ligand independent induction of NE differentiation. LNCaP cells were transfected with a constitutively active gp130 subunit, gp130act. Cell proliferation rate was determined and clones were examined for neuroendocrine differentiation by morphological change, upregulation of CgA and serotonin and formation of dense core vesicles with LNCaP parental cells as the control. Xenograft formation was examined and compared in immunocompromised mice. Gp130act expression promoted significant neuroendocrine differentiation in vitro as determined by a NE like morphology change (increased neurite like extension formation), elevated CgA expression and the formation of dense core vesicles (DCV). These measures concurred with those examined in LNCaP cells following 100 ng/ml IL-6 treatment. Further investigation of the LNCaP gp130act cells in vivo, in immunocompromised androgen intact mice, confirmed that the NE like morphology, as determined by histological and high resolution transmission electron microscopy, was maintained.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) cells were thought to be post-mitotic and non-proliferative. But it was recently reported that NE cells express, and induce surrounding cells to express potent antiapoptotic proteins. We hypothesize that neuroendocrine differentiation (NED), a common phenomenon in prostate cancer, is related to chemoresistance in prostate cancer. Androgen-independent human prostate cancer DU145 and PC-3 cells were exposed to epidermal growth factor (EGF). MTT assays evaluated changes in chemoresistance after EGF treatment, and flow cytometry examined EGF-induced cell cycle changes in DU145 cells. Western blotting, real-time RT-PCR and transmission electron microscopy were utilized to confirm NED. After stimulation with EGF, DU145 and PC-3 cells exhibited stronger resistance to cisplatin. Flow cytometry showed that EGF stimulation substantially decreased the proportion of DU145 cells in G(1) phase. EGF treatment increased the expression of neuron-specific enolase, a marker of NED induction.",
"Prenatal alcohol exposure has been shown to increase offspring susceptibility to some chemical carcinogens. Whether prenatal exposure to alcohol makes the offspring more susceptible to the development of prostate cancer is not known. Therefore, we determined whether any functional abnormalities and increased cancer susceptibility exist in the prostate of fetal alcohol-exposed male rats during the adult period. Pregnant rats were fed with a liquid diet containing alcohol (alcohol-fed [AF]), or pair-fed with isocaloric liquid diet (PF) or ad libitum fed with rat chow (ad lib-fed). Male offspring of these rats were given N-Nitroso-N-methylurea and testosterone to induce prostate neoplasia or left untreated. Around 6 to 8 months of age, the prostates of these animals were processed for determination of biochemical changes and histopathologies. Prostates of noncarcinogen treated animals that were alcohol exposed during the prenatal period demonstrated inflammatory cell infiltration and epithelial atypia and increased number of proliferative cells in the ventral lobe of this gland, but the prostate of control animal showed normal cytoarchitecture. In addition, prenatal alcohol-exposed rats showed decreased levels of cell-cell adhesion marker and increased estrogenic activity in the ventral prostate. Prenatally ethanol (EtOH)-exposed rats, when treated with carcinogen and testosterone, showed histological evidence for high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN) primarily in the ventral prostate, whereas control animals showed only low-grade PIN. Prenatally EtOH-exposed rats treated with carcinogen and testosterone also showed increased number of proliferative cells and androgen receptor with concomitant decreased levels of tumor suppressor proteins in the ventral prostate.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that PTP1B plays an important role in neuroendocrine differentiation, and therefore, may possibly be involved in the progression of prostate cancer.",
"yes. Mixtures of endocrine disrupters relevant for human exposure was found to elicit persistent effects on the rat prostate following perinatal exposure, suggesting that human perinatal exposure to environmental chemicals may increase the risk of prostate cancer later in life.",
"To determine the immunoreactivity of gastrin during the development of the human fetal pancreas and ductal pancreatic adenocarcinoma, given that, gastrin positive cells were demonstrated either into its embryonic anlage or into pancreatic cancer. Tissue sections from 15 pancreatic fetal specimens, and an equal number of ductal adenocarcinoma specimens, were assessed using immunohistochemical methods for gastrin. The density of positive cells in the primitive exocrine ductal walls and outgrowing buds was significantly higher than the relevant density in the neoplastic pancreatic tissue of mixed (ductal endocrine) and pure ductal type (p1=0.017, p2<0.0001, p3<0.0001 and p4=0.019, respectively). The above values were estimated from 20-22 weeks of gestation. There was no significant difference in the density of positive cells in the islet cell epithelium from 25-30 weeks, and the neoplastic tissue of mixed (p5=0.24) and pure ductal type (p6=0.55).",
"The keynote event of prostate ductal development is the formation of epithelial buds that invade the urogenital sinus mesenchyma. Studies in mice have shown that budding requires the signaling peptide, which is expressed in the epithelium of the prostatic anlagen. We report our characterization of (SHH) expression in the human fetal prostate. Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction was performed in fetal prostate RNA isolated at 15.5 and 18 weeks of gestation, respectively. Immunostaining was performed on sections from 7 male fetuses at 9.5 to 34 and in 4 female fetuses at 9 to 18 weeks of gestation. Weak staining for was seen in the prostatic urethra at 9.5 weeks. Intense staining was seen at 11.5 and 13 weeks in the prostatic urothelium and nascent prostatic buds. Staining was slightly diminished at 16.5, further diminished at 18 to 20 and absent at 34 weeks. expression at 15.5 and 18 weeks was confirmed by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction assay of freshly isolated prostate tissue. Comparative immunostaining in the female showed urothelial staining at 9 and 12 weeks with staining greatest above the entrance of the müllerian ducts. Staining diminished earlier in the female (14 weeks) than in the male and was almost absent at 18 weeks.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) cells of the prostate are known to be androgen-independent and NE peptides like gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) or neuron-specific enolase (NSE) can stimulate growth in a paracrine manner, and this is thought to be one of the escape mechanisms in castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPCa). In a longitudinal study, we investigated the development of the NE serum factors GRP, NSE, and chromogranin A and their correlation with prostate-specific androgen (PSA) during hormonal treatment. Thirty two patients, with histology-proven, localized or metastatic prostatic carcinoma (PCa), who were undergoing therapy with LHRH analogue or a combination of LHRH analog and peripheral androgen blockade, took part in the study. In addition, eight healthy volunteers were each tested twice for serum GRP to elicit a \"physiological\" standard value. Blood samples were taken periodically from each patient within an 18-month time frame. We defined the standard value for GRP in the healthy participants as 0.852 ng/ml (mean + 2 SD) and observed that the GRP values for patients with PCa were significantly higher (P = 0.034). There was a positive correlation between PSA and GRP in patients with biochemical failure. CgA correlated with PSA development in the CRPCa patients. NSE values rose steadily over the study period, but with no correlation to PSA.",
"Tissue sections from 15 pancreatic fetal specimens, and equal number of ductal adenocarcinoma specimens, were assessed using immunohistochemical methods for CCK. The density of positive cells in the primitive exocrine ductal walls and outgrowing buds was significantly higher than the relevant density in the neoplastic pancreatic tissue of mixed (ductal-endocrine) and pure ductal type (p1=0.004, p2<0.0005, p3<0.0005 and p4=0.023 respectively). The above values were estimated from 20th to 22nd weeks of gestation. There was no significant difference in the density of positive cells in the islet cell epithelium from 25-30 weeks, and the neoplastic tissue of mixed (p5=0.10) and pure ductal type (p6=0.15).",
"92 men, with histologically confirmed PCa, which was clinically confined to the prostate and was graded with Gleason score>or =7, had their core needle biopsies under transrectal ultrasonography guidance performed. The PCa neuroendocrine activity was immunohistochemically confirmed using antibodies against Chromogranin-A and neuron specific enolase. The neuroendocrine activity was detected in 14 (13%) out of 92 PCa patients participating in the study. The proliferative index was not increased in non-cancerous prostate cells. There was no relationship between PCa neuroendocrine activity, the number and percentage of PCa positive biopsies, prostate volume, serum PSA concentration, and Gleason score found.",
"yes. The increased number of cells that expressed Oct4A in prostate cancer compared to benign prostate, and in cancers of increasing grade, suggests that Oct4A/Chromogranin A co-expressing cells represent neuroendocrine cells in prostate cancer.",
"Neuroendocrine (NE) prostate cancer develops as an aggressive disease that does not respond to androgen ablation therapy. It has been demonstrated that the paracrine action of NE cells facilitates the progression of androgen dependent adenocarcinoma to an androgen independent state, suggesting a significant role for NE cells during failure of androgen ablation therapy. To investigate the pathways that are involved in NE differentiation of prostate cancer, we have looked at the expression of genes known to be involved in endocrine differentiation of beta-cells in the pancreas. This study has been performed using the NE prostate cancer mouse model (12T-10) and the derivative allograft model (NE-10). Immunohistochemical studies have shown that the neuroendocrine prostate tumors express the transcription factors Foxa2, mouse achaete-scute homolog-1 (mash-1), neurogenin3 (Ngn3) and Nkx2.2. These tumors show a loss of hairy/enhancer of split (Hes-1), a gene that inhibits NE differentiation. Human NE prostate cancers also express Foxa2 and human achaete-scute homolog-1 (HASH-1). These genes are expressed in NE prostate tumors in the similar sequential manner as they appear in a pancreatic beta-cell endocrine differentiation. Foxa2 expression is detected in early prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PIN). Mash-1 expression is detected in a few clusters within low grade PIN lesions and Nkx2.2 expression is rarely detected in individual scattered cells within the PIN lesion. Ngn3 and Nkx2.2 frequently appear in the invasive NE cancer. Subsequent NE metastasis to lung and liver show a distinct gene expression pattern. The lung metastasis expresses Ngn3 but does not express Nkx2.2 whereas liver metastases do not express Ngn3 but express Nkx2.2.",
"yes. expression in the human fetal prostate is contemporaneous with the fetal testosterone surge and with ductal budding of the prostatic urothelium. expression is also present in the female urogenital sinus but in the absence of testosterone it is not associated with ductal budding.",
"Prostatic neuroendocrine (NE) cells play an important role in the growth and differentiation of the prostate. We are still unable to characterize the exact mechanisms which lead to interactions between the epithelial cell and the NE cell. We offer several interactions generated by the NE cells, and speculate on some actions of selected NE cells. We used thin sections of prostatic tissue made from 20 radical prostatectomies. Our team used validated rabbit polyclonal antibodies which were raised against human EGFR and C-erb B-2, using the streptavidin-peroxidase conjugate method. A strong immunoreactivity was noted with both antibodies in the cytosol of some NE cells. These cells had a dendritic appearance, and they were located in the acini and ducts of small-to-moderate-sized prostatic glands. Double immunostaining revealed the colocalization of both antigens with chromogranin A (CgA), a polypeptide that is expressed by NE cells. Of interest was the finding that EGFR and C-erb B-2 were colocalized as well as independently expressed by separate populations of NE cells.",
"The biological behavior of prostate cancer is highly variable and cannot sufficiently be predicted by histological criteria alone. New prognostic factors are needed in core needle biopsies before initial treatment decisions. We investigate the prognostic significance of focal neuroendocrine differentiation in core needle biopsies of prostate cancer. Core needle biopsies from 105 untreated patients (mean age 71 years) were immunohistochemically examined for focal neuroendocrine differentiation using an antibody against chromogranin A. Tumor cell proliferation was assessed with Ki-67 labeling index using MIB 1 antibody. The cause of death was determined by examination of records including autopsy reports. Focal neuroendocrine differentiation was found in 25% of the tumors. There was no association between the presence of focal neuroendocrine differentiation and Gleason score or Ki-67 labeling index. Tumor specific survival analysis revealed that high Gleason score and high Ki-67 labeling index were predictors of tumor specific death, whereas focal neuroendocrine differentiation failed to provide prognostic information. There was a significant increase in frequency and density of neuroendocrine differentiation between initial core needle biopsies and later specimens of secondary hormone resistant prostate cancer in 15 patients.",
"The NE cells of the prostate may be distributed and transported from the periurethral region near the verumontanum to the terminal acini during the development of the acinar structures. The distribution pattern is relatively consistent among prostates of all ages. However, NE cells do not appear in acquired tissue within BPH nodules as the nodules develop. Thus, the distribution of NE cells does not seem to be related to the development of BPH.",
"yes. There was a significant decrease in the immunohistochemical expression of cystatin C in non-neuroendocrine prostate cancer cells, concomitant with increasing Gleason grades. That there were more strongly cystatin C-positive neuroendocrine-like cells in prostate cancer than in benign prostatic tissue suggests a connection between cystatin C and neuroendocrine differentiation in prostate cancer progression.",
"Mechanisms triggering prostatic NE differentiation are poorly understood. Since dog and man naturally develop prostatic proliferative diseases with age, our objectives were to confirm the presence of NE cells in the dog prostate and test their hormonal regulation in both species. Serotonin staining was examined by immunohistochemistry in 37 dog prostates: 17 from intact and 20 from castrated animals. In intact dogs, 9 prostates were normal and 8 hyperplastic. In the castrated group, 6 dogs were left untreated while androgens and estrogens were administered to 7 dogs, each. Human prostates were from 48 prostate cancer patients; half of them were submitted to androgen ablation prior to prostatectomy. The density of serotonin-positive NE cells was expressed relatively to the number of acini. Serotonin-positive NE cells were morphologically similar in dog and human prostates and identified in all groups, independent of the hormonal status. NE cell densities were within the same range in normal and hyperplastic dog prostates but significantly higher after castration. Androgens and estrogens after castration restored NE cell density to normal values and induced luminal differentiation and basal metaplasia, respectively. In human, the density of serotonin-positive NE cells was also significantly higher in benign glands after androgen ablation.",
"To assess whether the presence of neuroendocrine (NE) cells is of value as an independent indicator of poor prognosis in patients with prostate carcinoma. A series of 160 consecutive patients with prostate carcinoma was studied retrospectively. In 120 there was sufficient tissue for review and to perform immunoperoxidase stains for neuron specific enolase (NSE) and chromogranin A (CGA). All patients had a potential follow-up of at least 5 years. Five-year survival was poorer for patients with a high tumour grade and stage at presentation compared to those with a lower grade and stage. NE cells were more common in higher grade and stage disease, but 5-year survival did not differ significantly between patients with NE cell positive and negative tumours.",
"yes. In contrast to high Gleason score and high Ki-67 labeling index, focal neuroendocrine differentiation is not a prognostic factor in core needle biopsies of prostate cancer. Focal neuroendocrine differentiation seems to appear more frequently and intensively in hormone resistant prostate cancer, supporting a role of neuroendocrine cells in the development of hormone refractory disease.",
"To examine the possible relationship between the distribution of neuroendocrine (NE) cells and the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) in the human prostate, we performed an NE cells-distribution analysis and made morphological observations of acinous structures in different-aged prostates. Forty-three human prostates obtained from surgical and autopsy cases aged from 2 months to 86 years were examined immunohistochemically using Chromogranin A and analyzed with special reference to the development of BPH. NE cells were distributed predominantly in the verumontanum and main prostatic ducts and were fewer in number in the terminal acini. As BPH development progressed, the NE cells were greatly diminished in number or completely lost from most adenoma nodules.",
"Knowledge concerning differentiation of neuroendocrine (NE) cells during development of the human prostate is rather fragmentary. Using immunohistochemistry combined with a morphometric method, we investigated the distribution and density of NE cells in the developing human prostate, with special emphasis on the topographical relationship of NE cells with the developing gland. Consecutive sections from a total of 42 human prostates taken during autopsy of fetuses (12-38 weeks of gestation), prepubertal males, and young adults were immunostained for chromogranin A and serotonin. Computer-assisted image analysis was used to assess the total number of cells in the different parts of the branching glandular anlage, i.e., budding tips and acini/ducts. Next, the number of NE cells was counted manually. The NE cell density (NE cell index) was then determined. NE cells could first be detected in the prostate from 13 weeks of gestation. By 21 weeks of gestation, all prostates contained NE cells. NE cells were mainly confined to the acinous/ductal regions, while most of the budding tips lacked NE staining. NE cell indexes of individuals were highly variable, mostly in the youngest age group.",
"In the normal prostate, NE cell density probably remains constant in acini/ducts from fetuses to young adulthood. The presence of neuroendocrine cells in well-developed glandular structures at such an early fetal age and their absence in the less differentiated budding tips possibly indicates that differentiation of NE cells is associated with glandular maturation. NE cells occur preferentially in the acinous/ductal region, implying a paracrine function during secretory differentiation of exocrine epithelial cells."
] | 198 |
Dietary influences on bone mass and bone metabolism: further evidence of a positive link between fruit and vegetable consumption and bone health? | [
"The role of nutritional influences on bone health remains largely undefined because most studies have focused attention on calcium intake. We reported previously that intakes of nutrients found in abundance in fruit and vegetables are positively associated with bone health. We examined this finding further by considering axial and peripheral bone mass and markers of bone metabolism. This was a cross-sectional study of 62 healthy women aged 45-55 y. Bone mineral density (BMD) was measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry at the lumbar spine and femoral neck and by peripheral quantitative computed tomography at the ultradistal radial total, trabecular, and cortical sites. Bone resorption was calculated by measuring urinary excretion of pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline and bone formation by measuring serum osteocalcin. Nutrient intakes were assessed by using a validated food-frequency questionnaire; other lifestyle factors were assessed by additional questions. After present energy intake was controlled for, higher intakes of magnesium, potassium, and alcohol were associated with higher total bone mass by Pearson correlation (P<0.05 to P<0.005). Femoral neck BMD was higher in women who had consumed high amounts of fruit in their childhood than in women who had consumed medium or low amounts (P<0.01). In a regression analysis with age, weight, height, menstrual status, and dietary intake entered into the model, magnesium intake accounted for 12.3% of the variation in pyridinoline excretion and 12% of the variation in deoxypyridinoline excretion. Alcohol and potassium intakes accounted for 18.1% of the variation in total forearm bone mass.",
"The BMD results confirm our previous work (but at peripheral bone mass sites), and our findings associating bone resorption with dietary factors provide further evidence of a positive link between fruit and vegetable consumption and bone health."
] | [
"yes. The positive effect of total calcium intake on cortical BMD of postmenopausal women not taking estrogen suggests that supplemental calcium use is critical for maintaining bone mass. Increased retinol intake from nutrient supplements had no adverse effect on BMD.",
"To determine whether magnesium intake from supplemental and dietary sources is associated with bone mineral density (BMD) in older men and women. Cross-sectional. Memphis, Tennessee, and Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania. Two thousand thirty-eight older black and white men and women aged 70 to 79 at baseline enrolled in the Health, Aging and Body Composition Study. Dietary intake of magnesium was assessed using a semiquantitative food frequency questionnaire, and supplement data were collected based on a medication inventory. BMD of the whole body was obtained using a fan-beam densitometer. Additional covariates included age, body mass index (BMI), smoking status, alcohol use, physical activity, estrogen use, and supplemental calcium (Ca) and vitamin D use. In white, but not black, men and women, magnesium intake was positively associated with BMD of the whole body after adjustment for age, self-report of osteoporosis or fracture in adulthood, caloric intake, Ca and vitamin D intake, BMI, smoking status, alcohol intake, physical activity, thiazide diuretic use, and estrogen use in women (P=.05 for men and P=.005 for women). BMD was 0.04 g/cm2 higher in white women and 0.02 g/cm2 higher in white men in the highest than in the lowest quintile of magnesium intake.",
"Associations between diet and physical activity may identify behaviours that could be changed together to prevent childhood obesity. The present study examines associations between physical activity and obesogenic dietary behaviours in a large UK adolescent cohort. Cross-sectional analysis of a UK cohort. Adolescents aged 10-11 years completed three 1 d diet diaries. Average daily energy consumption, percentage energy from fat and carbohydrate, energy density and grams of fruit and vegetables were estimated. To assess physical activity participants wore an accelerometer for three or more days. Regression models were run by sex to examine the extent to which dietary variables predicted physical activity before and after controlling for pubertal status, maternal education and adiposity. The Avon Longitudinal Study of Parents and Children (ALSPAC), south-west England. Adolescents who provided diet data at age 10 years and physical activity data at age 11 years. Among boys, percentage energy from fat was consistently negatively associated with accelerometer-determined indicators of physical activity (standardized beta (beta) = -0.055 to -0.101, P<0.05) while total energy (beta = 0.066 to 0.091, P<0.05) and percentage energy from carbohydrate (beta = 0.054 to 0.106, P<0.05) were positively associated before and after adjustment for confounders. For girls fruit and vegetable intake was consistently positively associated with physical activity (beta = 0.056 to 0.074, P<0.005). However all associations were weak. Associations were broadly comparable when participants with non-plausible dietary reports were included or excluded from the analyses.",
"Dietary Ca is now being recognized to play an important role not only in skeletal integrity, but also in the regulation of energy and metabolism. The aim of the present study was to estimate the relationship of dairy Ca intake with BMI and blood pressure (BP) in a sample derived from the Polish population. Ca intake was calculated from an interviewer-administered semi-quantitative FFQ. BMI was calculated from measured weight and height, and BP was measured by a physician. Cross-sectional epidemiological study on osteoporosis risk factors in Poland. Randomly selected healthy adult persons (n 1259; 750 women and 509 men). Dairy Ca intake was significantly lower in individuals with overweight/obesity (BMI≥25·00 kg/m2) and/or with elevated BP (systolic/diastolic ≥140/≥90 mmHg) than in those with normal body mass and BP, respectively. Ca intake was negatively correlated with BMI (r=-0·12, P<0·001), systolic BP (r=-0·11, P<0·001) and diastolic BP (r=-0·08, P<0·01). Daily dairy Ca intake below 1000 mg was a predictor for BMI≥25·0 kg/m2 (OR=1·44, P<0·005). This relationship was stronger in women, particularly premenopausal women.",
"yes. Our results indicate that the extent of positive association between dietary vitamin D intake and BMD in men is dependent on VDR polymorphism, a novel conceivable important gene-environmental interaction.",
"Vitamin K may have a protective role against bone loss and osteoporotic fractures associated to aging, although data in humans are inconsistent and the mechanisms involved are still unknown. The main objective of the study was to assess the associations between vitamin K intake, bone density, bone structure quality and biochemical bone metabolism markers in elderly subjects. We also analyzed the relationship between changes in vitamin K intake and the evolution of bone quality markers after two years of follow-up. Cross-sectional analysis was carried out on 365 elderly subjects, 200 of whom were also included in a 2-year longitudinal follow-up study. Usual dietary intakes were assessed using a semi-quantitative 137-item food frequency questionnaire (FFQ). Vitamin K intake was estimated using the USDA database. Bone biochemical markers were measured in a subset of 125 subjects. Quantitative ultrasound assessment (QUS) was performed at the calcaneus to estimate bone mineral density (BMD), speed of sound (SOS), broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA) and the quantitative ultrasound index (QUI). Dietary intake of vitamin K was significantly associated with higher BMD and better QUS. No significant associations were found between vitamin K intake and bone biochemical markers. Those subjects who increased their vitamin K intake showed a lower loss of BMD, a lower decrease in SOS and a nonsignificant increase in BUA.",
"yes. Adults consuming a low-energy-dense diet are likely to consume more food (by weight) but to have a lower energy intake than do those consuming a higher-energy-dense diet. The energy density of a variety of dietary patterns, including higher-fat diets, can be lowered by adding fruit and vegetables. Our findings support the hypothesis that a relation exists between the consumption of an energy-dense diet and obesity and provide evidence of the importance of fruit and vegetable consumption for weight management.",
"To investigate the association between a vegetable-rich food pattern and obesity among Chinese adults. A food pattern rich in vegetables is associated with lower risk of obesity and non-communicable chronic disease in Western countries. A similar food pattern is found in the Chinese population but the cooking method is different. A cross-sectional household survey of 2849 men and women aged 20 years and over was undertaken in 2002 in Jiangsu Province (response rate, 89.0%). Food intake was assessed by food frequency questionnaire. Factor analysis was used to identify food patterns. Nutrient intake was measured by food weighing plus consecutive individual 3-day food records. Height, weight and waist circumference were measured. The prevalence of general obesity (BMI > or =28 kg m(-2)) was 8.0% in men and 12.7% in women, central obesity was 19.5% (> or =90 cm) and 38.2% (> or =80 cm), respectively. A four-factor solution explained 28.5% of the total variance in food frequency intake. The vegetable-rich food pattern (whole grains, fruits and vegetables) was positively associated with vegetable oil and energy intake. Prevalence of obesity/central obesity increased across the quartiles of vegetable-rich food pattern. After adjusting for sociodemographic factors and four distinct food patterns, the vegetable-rich pattern was independently associated with obesity. Compared with the lowest quartile of vegetable-rich pattern, the highest quartile had higher risk of general obesity (men, prevalence ratio (PR): 1.82, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.05-3.14; women, PR: 2.25, 95% CI: 1.45-3.49).",
"yes. These observational findings support a beneficial effect of RTE breakfast cereals and fruit-juice drinks on lowering plasma tHcy and improving folate status in children. Also, consumption of folate-fortified foods modulates the association of the MTHFR 677C>T polymorphism with tHcy, suggesting that habitual consumption of folate-fortified foods is a practical approach in providing consistent protection to those children who may benefit the most, i.e., carriers of the TT genotype.",
"yes. The positive association between relative weight and proximal femur strength is accounted for by lean mass, suggesting that, in men, the protective effect of BMI in preventing fracture is mediated not by adipose tissue but by the influence of increased muscle mass accompanying elevated BMI.",
"Little is yet known about the determinants of bone mineral density (BMD) in young adults. Thus, in this study, we aimed to determine the factors that have an impact on BMD in young men. Questionnaires were sent out to 111 male medical students. Information on age, socio-economic status, medical history, lifestyle, physical activity during adolescence, school club participation, current physical activity, and dietary intake were collected by the survey. Height, weight, percent body fat and muscle mass were estimated by bioelectrical impedance, and BMD was obtained using calcaneal quantitative ultrasound. Using the Poisson regression model, prevalence ratios (PRs) were used to estimate the degree of association between risk factors and osteopenia. The height and current physical activity showed a correlation to the Osteoporosis Index. Among the categorized variables, past physical activity during adolescence (p=0.002) showed a positive effect on the bone mineral content. In the multivariate model, past physical activity (≥1 time/wk) had a protective effect on osteopenia (PR, 0.37; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.18 to 0.75) and present physical activity (1000 metabolic equivalent of task-min/wk) decreased the risk of osteopenia (PR, 0.64; 95% CI, 0.44 to 0.91).",
"The effect of fruit and vegetable intake on the risk of nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) remains uncertain due to limited published evidence. We performed a matched case-control study to investigate the relationship between the intake of fruit and vegetables and the risk of NPC. Between July 2009 and March 2011, 600 (448 male, 152 female), NPC incident cases from a single hospital in Guangzhou, Guangdong Province, China, a high-incidence area, were enrolled in the study. 600 controls, matched by gender, age (± 3 years) and household type (urban/rural) were also enrolled. Face-to-face interviews were used to collect habitual dietary intakes and information on various covariates. Multivariate conditional logistic regression analyses showed significant, dose-dependent inverse associations between the intake of vegetables, fruit or a combination of the two and the risk of NPC, even after adjustments for social-economic status, body mass index, dietary factors and other potential covariates. The adjusted odds ratios (95% confidence intervals) for NPC in the top quartile of vegetable intake, fruit intake or a combination of the two, as compared to the lowest quartile, were 0.33 (0.22-0.50), 0.70 (0.47-1.04) and 0.37 (0.25-0.55), respectively. Dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, peppers and tomatoes, citrus fruit and pome fruit showed much more pronounced benefits with regards to NPC than other types of fruit and vegetables. Interaction analyses demonstrated that the effects of total combined vegetable and fruit intake were much more significant in subjects with a higher education level (p interaction: 0.027), and the benefits of fruit were observed in males, but not in females (p interaction: 0.088).",
"The optimal intake of calcium and vitamin D for postmenopausal women not taking estrogen is not known. Further, there are indications that excess vitamin A as retinol might be detrimental to bone. We determined whether dietary intakes of calcium and vitamin D were important for maintaining cortical and trabecular bone mineral density (BMD). We also determined whether nutrient supplements increased retinol intake to a level that would reduce BMD. This was a cross-sectional study of 58 women, age 45-75 years. Dietary intakes and lifestyle factors were assessed by retrospective questionnaires. BMD at the whole body, lumbar spine, and proximal femur (including neck, trochanter, and Wards) was measured using dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) bone densitometry. There were significant (p < 0.05) positive correlations between total calcium intake and BMD at all sites except spine. At the trochanter, the correlation between total vitamin D and BMD was significant while that between total retinol and BMD showed a trend (p < 0.10). In a stepwise multiple regression, a significant proportion of variance of BMD was accounted for by years since menopause (8.0 to 36.2 %) and body weight (14.5 to 27.1%) at most bone sites. Adding total calcium intake (food + supplements) into the model further accounted for a significant proportion of variance of BMD at cortical bone sites such as hip, femoral neck, Wards, and total body ( 5.2 - 8.4 %). There was no dietary calcium effect on BMD at the spine.",
"The observations of this cross-sectional study suggest that high levels of cognitive dietary restraint, or associated factors such as higher cortisol, may attenuate the positive effects of exercise on bone in young women.",
"The effects of milk intake on bone health are not clear in elderly Asian men with low dietary calcium intake. This study showed that greater milk intake is associated with lower bone turnover, higher bone density, and higher bone microarchitecture index in community-dwelling elderly Japanese men. The consumption of milk or dairy products is widely recommended for maintaining bone health regardless of gender or age. However, little evidence exists on the beneficial effects of milk intake on bone health in elderly Japanese men characterized with relatively low dietary calcium intake. Here we examined whether or not greater milk intake was associated with lower bone turnover, higher bone density, and stronger bone microarchitecture in community-dwelling elderly Japanese men. Interviews were conducted to obtain information on medical history and lifestyle, including the amount of habitual milk intake, nutrient intake calculations based on a 1-week food diary, and measurements of areal bone mineral density (aBMD) at the lumbar spine (LS), total hip (TH), and femoral neck (FN) by dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA), trabecular bone score (TBS) using DXA images at LS, and biochemical markers of bone turnover in sera. Participants with a history of diseases or medications that affect bone metabolism, or with missing data, were excluded from the analysis. The median intake of milk in the 1479 participants (mean age, 73.0 ± 5.1 years) was one glass of milk per day. Bone turnover markers showed a decreasing trend (p < 0.05) and aBMD at TH (p = 0.0019) and FN (p = 0.0057) and TBS (p = 0.0017) showed increasing trends with greater milk intake after adjusting for demographic and behavioral confounding factors. This association was attenuated after further adjusting for nutrient intake, in particular, calcium intake.",
"yes. These results emphasize the major importance of dietary protein intake in the bone response to short-term GH administration, and highlight the need for further investigation into the effects of GH treatment in patients with reduced protein intake.",
"Few data exist on the ability of postmenopausal women to absorb calcium from diets habitually low in calcium. The objective of this study was to evaluate fractional calcium absorption from a green leafy vegetable vs. milk in relation to vitamin D status. We measured fractional calcium absorption from both a dairy- and plant-based source in 19 postmenopausal Thai women (aged 52-63 y) with low calcium consumption (350 ± 207 mg/d) in relation to serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) and serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D [25(OH)D]. Fractional calcium absorption was measured using a triple stable calcium isotope method based on isotope recovery in a 28-h urine collection. Two extrinsically labeled test meals were ingested in random order: a green leafy vegetable (cassia) ingested along with ⁴³Ca or a glass of milk containing ⁴⁴Ca. Women received intravenous ⁴²Ca with the first test meal. In 19 postmenopausal women studied (mean age, 56.9 ± 3.4 y), ~95% were 25(OH)D sufficient (≥20 μg/L). Serum 25(OH)D status was positively correlated with fractional absorption from both cassia (P = 0.05, R² = 0.21) and milk (P = 0.03, R² = 0.26). Fractional calcium absorption from cassia was significantly lower than that measured from milk (42.6% ± 12.3% vs. 47.8% ± 12.8%, P = 0.03), but true calcium absorption did not significantly differ (120 ± 35 mg/d vs. 135 ± 36 mg/d). Serum PTH was significantly inversely associated with serum 25(OH)D (P = 0.006, R² = 0.37) even though PTH was not elevated (>65 pg/mL).",
"yes. A compact, integrated two-component intervention can induce positive changes in knowledge and awareness of intake levels of fruit/vegetables among schoolchildren. To induce changes in intake levels, more comprehensive interventions may be needed.",
"Obesity and NIDDM are each associated with increased bone mineral density (BMD). We therefore hypothesize that hyperinsulinemia is an osteogenic factor. Subjects consisted of 411 men and 559 women aged 50-89 years who were participants in the Rancho Bernardo Heart and Chronic Disease Study and were not diabetic by history or oral glucose tolerance test. Fasting and 2-h postchallenge insulin were measured by radioimmunoassay. Bone mineral density was measured at the midshaft radius with single photon absorptiometry and at the lumbar spine and hip with dual energy X-ray absorptiometry. Multiple regression analyses indicated that among men, a significant insulin-BMD association at the hip was no longer apparent after adjusting for covariates. Among women, fasting insulin was significantly and positively associated with bone density of the radius and spine (P<0.05), independent of age, BMI, waist-hip ratio, postmenopausal estrogen use, age at menopause, thiazide use, family history of diabetes, current cigarette smoking, and exercise. Each 10 microU/ml increase in fasting insulin was associated with an increase of 0.33 and 0.57 g/cm2 of the radius and spine, respectively.",
"yes. Steady growth in US middle-aged and elderly populations has led to higher incidences of several chronic diseases including osteoporosis, a bone disease that primarily affects postmenopausal women. Recent research suggests that certain dietary fibers (prebiotics) enhance mineral absorption and may impart bone health benefits. This work examines the impact of prebiotic supplementation on mineral metabolism and bone health using a postmenopausal rat model. Study findings will aid future investigations in ascertaining the factors related to potential bone health benefits of prebiotic which will aid in developing an effective prebiotics food product/supplement that will address the bone health needs of consumers.",
"There is currently no consensus on the effect of dietary protein intake on the skeleton, but there is some indication that low calcium intakes adversely influence the effect of dietary protein on fracture risk. The objective of the present study was to determine whether supplemental calcium citrate malate and vitamin D influence any associations between protein intake and change in bone mineral density (BMD). Associations between protein intake and change in BMD were examined in 342 healthy men and women (aged > or = 65 y) who had completed a 3-y, randomized, placebo-controlled trial of calcium and vitamin D supplementation. Protein intake was assessed at the midpoint of the study with the use of a food-frequency questionnaire and BMD was assessed every 6 mo by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. The mean (+/-SD) protein intake of all subjects was 79.1 +/- 25.6 g/d and the mean total calcium intakes of the supplemented and placebo groups were 1346 +/- 358 and 871 +/- 413 mg/d, respectively. Higher protein intake was significantly associated with a favorable 3-y change in total-body BMD in the supplemented group (in a model containing terms for age, sex, weight, total energy intake, and dietary calcium intake) but not in the placebo group. The pattern of change in femoral neck BMD with increasing protein intake in the supplemented group was similar to that for the total body.",
"yes. Daily intake of vegetables and fruits can modify adiposity-related metabolic disturbances.",
"yes. These data suggest that a dietary pattern characterised by high intakes of B vitamin-rich foods is associated with a lower tHcy concentration and a reduced percentage of high tHcy levels in elderly subjects. They also support the use of dietary pattern approaches to evaluate the relationships between diet and health outcomes that go beyond single nutrient analyses.",
"Rapid bone accrual and calcium demands during puberty may result in compensatory increases in PTH and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D [1,25(OH)2D] levels; however, these relations have not been established in longitudinal studies. To determine whether greater bone accrual velocity is associated with greater PTH and 1,25(OH)2D levels in healthy children and adolescents. Prospective cohort study with baseline PTH, 25-hydroxyvitamin D [25(OH)D], and 1,25(OH)2D levels and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry whole-body bone mineral content (BMC) accrual over 12 months. Secondary analyses examined bone biomarkers and tibia quantitative computed tomography midshaft cortical-BMC. A total of 594 healthy participants, ages 5-21 years, with longitudinal measures in a subset of 145 participants. PTH and 1,25(OH)2D levels. PTH levels were higher during Tanner stages 3 and 4 compared to Tanner 1 (P < .05) in males and females and were inversely and significantly associated with 25(OH)D levels and dietary calcium intake. In multivariable analyses, greater bone accrual [measured directly as change in dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry-BMC (P < .001) or quantitative computed tomography-BMC (P < .05), or indirectly as growth velocity (P < .05) or greater bone-formation biomarker level (P < .01)] was associated with higher PTH levels, independent of 25(OH)D level and dietary calcium intake. Similar associations were observed between these direct and indirect indices of bone accrual and 1,25(OH)2D levels.",
"This study reveals for the first time a strong positive association between plasma FGF21 levels and BMD in healthy women, suggesting the association between bone loss and high FGF21 states in animals may not be directly translated to humans in physiologic states. We hypothesize that FGF21 may increase bone mass particularly in women through paracrine mechanisms in the bone-adipose interface.",
"yes. The present study supports the supposition in that drinking citrus juice positively affects serum antioxidant status and bone strength.",
"yes. The present study suggests decreased bone formation instead of increased bone resorption may explain in part the deficits in bone mineral mass in RTT and that attention to the adequacy of dietary protein, calcium, and phosphorus intakes may offer an opportunity to improve bone health in RTT.",
"Investigate the relationship between body mass and hip bone mineral density (BMD) and the extent to which this association is influenced by potential mediating factors. Cross-sectional. Approximately 20 cities in Utah and Wyoming. Subjects were 262 apparently healthy, nonsmoking females. Hip BMD was assessed using dual energy X-ray absorptiometry. Physical activity (PA) was measured objectively using accelerometers. Calcium and vitamin D were measured using the Block food frequency questionnaire. Menopause status and bone drug use were measured using a questionnaire. General linear models and partial correlations. With body mass divided into three categories, hip BMD differed significantly across the groups in a dose-response manner: low mass (mean ± standard deviation [SD]), .876 ± .085 g/cm(2); moderate, .932 ± .109 g/cm(2); and high mass, .995 ± .112 g/cm(2) (F = 21.5, p<.0001). The relationship between mass and hip BMD was not affected by differences in age, height, menopause status, calcium or vitamin D intake, PA, or use of bone prescription drugs.",
"To test the hypothesis that bone mineral density (BMD), a possible surrogate of lifetime exposure to hormone/growth factor/vitamin D/calcium exposure, is higher in prostate cancer cases than controls. Hip BMD was measured by dual X-ray absorptiometry in 222 Afro-Caribbean screening-detected prostate cancer cases and 1,503 screened non-cases, aged 45-79, in the population-based Tobago Prostate Survey. Because possible skeletal metastases may modulate BMD, men with prostate specific antigen >20 ng/ml or highly undifferentiated tumors (Gleason score > or = 8) were excluded. Mean BMD, adjusted for age and body mass index, was compared in cases and non-cases by analysis of variance. Risk across age group-specific BMD quartiles was compared using logistic regression. Overall, adjusted mean hip BMD was higher in cases (1.157 g/cm2) than non-cases (1.134 g/cm2) (p = 0.02). In men aged 60-79, prostate cancer risk was two-fold higher (OR, 2.12; 95% CI: 1.21-3.71) in the highest BMD quartile compared to the lowest. There was no association in younger men (interaction, p = 0.055).",
"yes. Our findings suggest that increased vegetable and fruits intake may be associated with decreased risk of stroke.",
"Few prospective studies have examined the preventive role of fruit and vegetable intakes against cancer in Asian populations. This prospective study evaluated the associations between total fruit intake, total vegetable intake, and total fruit and vegetable intake and total cancer incidence and mortality. This prospective cohort study included 14,198 men 40-59 y of age enrolled in the Seoul Male Cohort Study from 1991 to 1993. Fruit and vegetable intakes were assessed by a validated food-frequency questionnaire. We used Cox proportional hazard regression models to compute RR ratios and 95% CIs. During the follow-up period from 1993 to 2008, 1343 men were diagnosed with cancer, and 507 died of cancer. Total vegetable intake was linearly associated with cancer incidence but was nonlinearly associated with cancer mortality; by comparing ≥ 500 g/d with <100 g/d of total vegetable intake, the multivariable-adjusted RR for total cancer incidence was 0.72 (95% CI: 0.58, 0.90; P-trend: 0.02; P-nonlinearity: 0.06). For total cancer mortality, the multivariable-adjusted RRs comparing 100 to <200 g/d, 200 to <300 g/d, 300 to <500 g/d, and ≥ 500 g/d with <100 g/d of total vegetable intake were 0.68 (95% CI: 0.53, 0.88), 0.75 (95% CI: 0.57, 0.98), 0.72 (95% CI: 0.54, 0.95), and 0.67 (95% CI: 0.47, 0.95), respectively (P-trend: 0.09; P-nonlinearity: 0.01). No associations were found between total fruit intake and total cancer incidence and mortality; ≥ 300 g/d vs. <50 g/d, RR: 1.04 (95% CI: 0.87, 1.25; P-trend = 0.56) for incidence and RR: 0.89 (95% CI: 0.66, 1.21; P-trend = 0.71) for mortality.",
"yes. In this Mediterranean cohort, dietary intake of vegetable protein and fiber from cereals was associated with a lower risk of HT when other nutrients were also taken into consideration.",
"yes. Dietary guidelines for CVD risk reduction may also benefit bone health in this Hispanic cohort. Synchronizing dietary guidelines for these 2 common diseases may provide a simplified public health message. This trial was registered at clinicaltrials.gov as NCT01231958.",
"yes. The results suggests that dietary calcium may exert a greater suppression of bone resorption in post-menopausal women with metabolic syndrome than healthy women. Despite substantial evidence for close links between energy metabolism and bone metabolism this is the first report suggesting visceral fat or metabolic syndrome may influence the effects of dietary calcium on bone metabolism.",
"yes. The dietary practices in this sample indicate the limited consumption and variety of TF and fruits and vegetables, and a high consumption of 'other' foods, which suggests inadequate intakes of various vitamins and nutrients. The findings from a trans-generational perspective highlight various barriers across the age groups that can substantially impact food choices, and reinforces the need for community and age-specific strategies to address issues of exposure, accessibility and affordability to nutritious foods that improve the diet and preserve cultural identity among residents living in reserve communities.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that total vegetable intake is linearly associated with cancer incidence but nonlinearly associated with total cancer mortality in middle-aged Korean men. However, total fruit intake is not associated with total cancer incidence or mortality.",
"Cardiovascular disease (CVD) and osteoporosis are 2 major public health problems that share common pathophysiological mechanisms. It is possible that strategies to reduce CVD risk may also benefit bone health. We tested the hypothesis that adherence to the 2006 American Heart Association Diet and Lifestyle Recommendations (AHA-DLR) is associated with bone health. We previously developed a unique diet and lifestyle score (American Heart Association Diet and Lifestyle Score; AHA-DLS) to assess adherence to the AHA-DLR. In a cross-sectional study of 933 Puerto Ricans aged 47-79 y, we modified the AHA-DLS to test associations with bone health. Bone mineral density (BMD) at the femoral neck, trochanter, total hip, and lumbar spine (L2-L4) was measured by using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. For every 5-unit increase in the modified AHA-DLS, BMD at the femoral neck, trochanter, total hip, and lumbar spine (L2-L4) was associated with a 0.005-0.008-g/cm(2) (P < 0.05) higher value. No component of the AHA-DLR alone was responsible for the observed positive associations. For every 5-unit increase in the modified AHA-DLS, the odds for osteoporosis or osteopenia at the trochanter, total hip, and lumbar spine (L2-L4) were lower by 14% (OR: 0.86; 95% CI: 0.79, 0.92), 17% (OR: 0.83; 95% CI: 0.76, 0.92), and 9% (OR: 0.91; 95% CI: 0.84, 0.99), respectively.",
"yes. Early decline in BMD at the neck of femur (-3.3%/decade) and the converse gain in BMD at the lumbar spine (+4.3%/decade) and intertrochanter (+1.9%/decade) suggest site-specific changes in BMD in young premenopausal women. No effect of previous calcium supplementation was seen on current BMD or changes in BMD (p > 0.10). Lifestyle predictors of change in BMD were determined using hierarchical regression analysis after forced correction for the covariates baseline BMD and previous calcium supplementation. Physical activity was positively associated with change in BMD at total hip and intertrochanter sites (beta-coefficients, beta = 0.26 and 0.26 respectively; p < 0.05). Calcium intake was negatively associated with change in BMD at the lumbar spine (beta = -0.27, p < 0.05). Parity was negatively associated with change in BMD at all sites (beta = -0.40 to -0.26, p < 0.05). These data show that BMD is already declining at the proximal femur in these healthy young women. Physical activity assists in maintenance of BMD at some sites and thus may contribute to lifelong fracture prevention. There was no positive association between calcium intake and change in BMD.",
"yes. The results of this study suggest that both fruit and vegetable intakes of preschool children are more likely to increase if parents employ feeding practices that encourage child autonomy, competence, and relatedness.",
"The link between acid-base homeostasis and skeletal integrity has gained increasing prominence in the literature. Estimation of the net rate of endogenous non-carbonic acid production (NEAP) from dietary protein and potassium content enables exploration of the effects of dietary acidity or alkalinity on bone. The study aimed to ascertain whether lower dietary acidity (lower dietary protein intake but higher potassium intake-ie, low estimate of NEAP) was associated with greater axial and peripheral bone mass and less bone turnover, independent of key confounding factors. Baseline (cross-sectional) results of a population-based study were examined further. The database includes spine and hip bone mineral density (BMD) in 1056 premenopausal or perimenopausal women aged 45-54 y and forearm bone mass and the urinary markers of bone resorption in 62 women. A validated food-frequency questionnaire was used to measure dietary intakes. Lower estimates of energy-adjusted NEAP were correlated with greater spine and hip BMD and greater forearm bone mass (P < 0.02 to P < 0.05). Hip and forearm bone mass decreased significantly across increasing quartiles of energy-adjusted NEAP (P < 0.02 to P < 0.03), and trends at the spine were similar (P < 0.09). Differences remained significant after adjustment for age, weight, height, and menstrual status. Lower estimates of energy-adjusted NEAP were also correlated with lower excretion of deoxypyridinoline and were significant predictors of spine and forearm bone mass.",
"yes. High dietary restraint scores are associated with urinary cortisol, a biological marker of stress, and high cortisol excretion may affect bone health. Our results suggest that further research is warranted to clarify these associations and to determine whether they persist over time.",
"Moderate alcohol consumption has been shown to be positively associated with increased bone mineral density (BMD). However, other lifestyle choices have also been shown to have an effect on bone health. The objective was to examine the association between alcohol intake and BMD in women around menopause in the United Kingdom and to determine whether any association is independent of other lifestyle choices. A cross-sectional study design was used to examine the relation between alcohol intake and BMD in a cohort of 3218 women aged 50-62 y from the Aberdeen Prospective Osteoporosis Screening Study. Women were grouped into clusters according to their lifestyle choices. ANCOVA was used to examine the effect of categorized alcohol intake on BMD adjusted for cluster of lifestyle and other baseline covariates. The ANCOVA was repeated for different types of alcoholic beverage (eg, beer, liquor, and wine) separately. Three lifestyle clusters were identified and were based on different levels of the following 3 factors: smoking pack-years, fruit and vegetable intakes, and physical activity. In the lifestyle-adjusted models, women who consumed>1 drink/d of alcohol had a significantly greater femoral neck BMD (P = 0.008) and lumbar spine BMD (P = 0.007) than did those who never consumed alcohol. For separate alcoholic drinks, only beer had a positive significant effect on lumbar spine BMD after adjustment for lifestyle (P = 0.005).",
"The intake of olive oil has been related to the prevention of osteoporosis in experimental and in in vitro models. Very few prospective studies have evaluated the effects of olive oil intake on circulating osteocalcin (OC) in humans. The objective of the study was to examine the longitudinal effects of a low-fat control diet (n=34), a Mediterranean diet enriched with nuts (MedDiet+nuts, n=51), or a Mediterranean diet enriched with virgin olive oil (MedDiet+VOO, n=42) on circulating forms of OC and bone formation markers in elderly men at high cardiovascular risk. Longitudinal associations between baseline and follow-up (2 yr) measurements of total OC, undercarboxylated osteocalcin, C-telopeptide of type I collagen, and procollagen I N-terminal propeptide (P1NP) concentrations were examined in 127 elderly men randomized to three healthy dietary interventions. Baseline characteristics (age, body mass index, waist circumference, lipid profile, fasting insulin levels, and bone formation and resorption markers) were similar in all intervention groups. The total osteocalcin concentration increased robustly in the MedDiet+VOO group (P=0.007) in parallel to increased P1NP levels (P=0.01) and homeostasis model assessment-β-cell function (P=0.01) but not in subjects on the MedDiet+nuts (P=0.32) or after the control diet (P=0.74). Interestingly, the consumption of olives was associated positively with both baseline total osteocalcin (r=0.23, P=0.02) and the 2-yr osteocalcin concentrations (r=0.21, P=0.04) in the total cohort.",
"Protein and alkalizing minerals are increasingly described as playing a major role in influencing bone status, not only in the elderly but also in children and adolescents. We examined whether the long-term dietary protein intake and diet net acid load are associated with bone status in children. In a prospective study design in 229 healthy children and adolescents aged 6-18 y, long-term dietary intakes were calculated from 3-d weighed dietary records that were collected yearly over the 4-y period before a one-time bone analysis. Dietary acid load was characterized as potential renal acid load (PRAL) by using an algorithm including dietary protein, phosphorus, magnesium, and potassium. Proximal forearm bone variables were measured by peripheral quantitative computed tomography. After adjustment for age, sex, and energy intake and control for forearm muscularity, BMI, growth velocity, and pubertal development, we observed that long-term dietary protein intake was significantly positively associated with periosteal circumference (P < 0.01), which reflected bone modeling, and with cortical area (P < 0.001), bone mineral content (P < 0.01), and polar strength strain index (P < 0.0001), which reflected a combination of modeling and remodeling. Children with a higher dietary PRAL had significantly less cortical area (P < 0.05) and bone mineral content (P < 0.01). Long-term calcium intake had no significant effect on any bone variable.",
"An average daily calcium intake of 1300 mg is recommended for North American adolescents aged 9-18 y. However, questions remain about these recommendations. We assessed whether there is a stage of puberty when dietary calcium is more strongly related to peak bone mass, as indicated by young adult bone mass (YABM); whether dietary calcium intake > 1000 mg/d in adolescence is associated with higher YABM; and whether race affects any of these associations between dietary calcium and YABM. Secondarily, we evaluated relations between sedentariness and YABM. In a retrospective cohort study, we recruited 693 black and white women aged 21-24 y who had participated in the 10-y National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute Growth and Health Study and measured YABM with the use of dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. Dietary calcium and sedentary activity data, gathered through 3-d food records and self-reports of television-video viewing at 8 annual examinations, were averaged over 3 pubertal stages. Complete data were available from 161 black and 180 white females. Multiple regression, controlling for race, weight, and height, was applied to assess diet and activity relations with YABM. Dietary calcium was most strongly associated with YABM in midpuberty. Calcium intake > 1000 mg/d was associated with higher YABM, but this association was not significant at all skeletal sites. Race did not affect the observed relations between calcium and YABM. Sedentary activity in prepuberty was inversely associated with YABM.",
"Fish is rich in nutrients that are favorable to bone health, but limited data are available regarding the relationship between fish intake and hip fractures. Our study examined the association between habitual fish intake and risk of hip fractures. A case-control study was performed between June 2009 and June 2012 in Guangdong Province, China. Five hundred and eighty-one hip fracture incident cases, aged 55 to 80 years (mean: 71 years), were enrolled from four hospitals. 1∶1 matched controls by gender and age (±3 years) were also recruited from communities and hospitals. Face-to-face interviews were used to obtain habitual dietary intake and information on various covariates. Univariate conditional logistic regression analyses showed significantly dose-dependent inverse correlations between the risk of hip fractures and the intake of fresh-water fish, sea fish, mollusca, shellfish, and total fish in all of the subjects (p-trend: <0.001-0.016). After adjusting for covariates, the associations were slightly attenuated but remained significant for all (p-trend: <0.001-0.017) except for fresh-water fish (p = 0.553). The ORs (95%CI) of hip fractures for the highest (vs. lowest) quartile were 0.80 (0.48-1.31) for fresh-water fish, 0.31 (0.18-0.52) for sea fish, 0.55 (0.34-0.88) for mollusca and shellfish, and 0.47 (0.28-0.79) for total fish, respectively. Stratified and interaction analyses showed that the association was more significant in males than in females (p-interaction = 0.052).",
"yes. High dietary vitamin K intake was associated with superior bone properties. Moreover, an increase in dietary vitamin K was significantly related to lower losses of bone mineral density and smaller increases in the porosity and elasticity attributed to aging, which helps to explain the previously described protective effect of vitamin K intake against osteoporotic fractures.",
"Studies on fruit, vegetable, fiber, and grain consumption and pancreatic cancer risk are inconclusive. We used a clinic-based case-control study specifically designed to address limitations of both cohort and case-control studies to examine the relationship. Participants were excluded who reported changing their diet within 5 years prior to study entry. And 384 rapidly ascertained cases and 983 controls (frequency matched on age (±5 years), race, sex, and residence) completed epidemiologic surveys and 144-item food frequency questionnaires. Odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals were calculated using logistic regression adjusted for age, sex, smoking, body mass index, energy intake, and alcohol consumption. Comparing highest to lowest quintiles, we observed significant inverse associations (OR < 0.8) with significant trends (p (trend) < 0.05) for citrus, melon, and berries, other fruits, dark green vegetables, deep yellow vegetables, tomato, other vegetables, dry bean and pea, insoluble fiber, soluble fiber, whole grains, and orange/grapefruit juice, and an increased association with non-whole grains. Results were similar after adjusting for diabetes or total sugar intake.",
"Dairy foods are a complex source of essential nutrients. In this study, fluid dairy intake, specifically milk, and yogurt intakes were associated with hip but not spine bone mineral density (BMD), while cream may adversely influence BMD, suggesting that not all dairy products are equally beneficial for the skeleton. This study seeks to examine associations of milk, yogurt, cheese, cream, most dairy (total dairy without cream), and fluid dairy (milk + yogurt) with BMD at femoral neck (FN), trochanter (TR), and spine, and with incident hip fracture over 12-year follow-up in the Framingham Offspring Study. Three thousand two hundred twelve participants completed a food frequency questionnaire (1991–1995 or 1995–1998) and were followed for hip fracture until 2007 [corrected]. Two thousand five hundred and six participants had DXA BMD (1996-2001). Linear regression was used to estimate adjusted mean BMD while Cox-proportional hazards regression was used to estimate adjusted hazard ratios (HR) for hip fracture risk. Final models simultaneously included dairy foods adjusting for each other. Mean baseline age was 55 (±1.6) years, range 26-85. Most dairy intake was positively associated with hip and spine BMD. Intake of fluid dairy and milk was related with hip but not spine BMD. Yogurt intake was associated with TR-BMD alone. Cheese and cream intakes were not associated with BMD. In final models, yogurt intake remained positively associated with TR-BMD, while cream tended to be negatively associated with FN-BMD. Yogurt intake showed a weak protective trend for hip fracture [HR(95%CI), ≤4 serv/week, 0.46 (0.21-1.03) vs. >4 serv/week, 0.43 (0.06-3.27)]. No other dairy groups showed a significant association (HRs range, 0.53-1.47) with limited power (n, fractures = 43).",
"We reported that citrus consumption improves bone quality in orchidectomized male rats. In the present study, effects of feeding citrus bioactive compounds and crude extract on bone quality in orchidectomized rats were evaluated. Seventy 90-days-old male rats were randomly assigned to five groups for 60 days of feeding study. The treatment groups were SHAM-control, orchidectomy (ORX), ORX+crude extract, ORX+limonin, and ORX+naringin. At termination, animals were euthanized, blood was collected for the plasma antioxidant status. Bone resorption and bone formation markers in the blood and urine were evaluated. Bone quality in the femur and the 5th lumbar and the total calcium concentration in the bones and excreta were evaluated. Orchidectomy lowered (p<0.05) plasma antioxidant capacity, bone quality, and bone calcium; elevated (p<0.05) TRAP, deoxypyridinoline (DPD), and calcium excretion; and did not change the plasma IGF-I in comparison to the SHAM group. The citrus crude extract or the purified bioactive compounds increased (p<0.05) the plasma antioxidant status, plasma IGF-I, and bone density, preserved (p<0.05) the concentration of calcium in the femur and in the 5th lumbar, and numerically improved bone strength. The crude extract and the bioactive compounds decreased (p<0.05) fecal excretion of calcium, numerically lowered the urinary excretion of calcium, and suppressed (p<0.05) the plasma TRAP activity without affecting (p>0.1) urinary excretion of DPD in comparison to the ORX group.",
"The effect of protein intake on bone density is uncertain, and evidence exists for beneficial effects of both low and high protein intakes. The objective was to study the relation between protein consumption and bone mass in elderly women with allowance for other lifestyle factors affecting bone metabolism. We conducted a cross-sectional and longitudinal study of a population-based sample of 1077 women aged 75 +/- 3 y. At baseline, protein consumption was measured with a food-frequency questionnaire, and bone mass and structure were measured by using quantitative ultrasound of the heel. One year later, hip bone mineral density (BMD) was measured by using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. Subjects consumed a mean (+/-SD) of 80.5 +/- 27.8 g protein/d (1.19 +/- 0.44 g protein/kg body wt). Regression analysis showed a positive correlation between protein intake and qualitative ultrasound of the heel and BMD after adjustment for age, body mass index, and other nutrients. The dose-response effect was best characterized by protein consumption expressed in tertiles, such that subjects in the lowest tertile (<66 g protein/d) had significantly lower qualitative ultrasound of the heel (1.3%) and hip BMD (2.6%) than did the subjects in the higher tertiles (>87 g protein/d).",
"Our study suggests that healthy New Zealand women of premenopausal age have lower 17 beta-oestradiol levels on high fibre diets than on low fibre diets. Because hypoestrogenism is a known risk factor for osteoporosis we propose that high fibre intakes may influence bone mass adversely and be a risk factor for osteoporosis. The effects of high fibre intakes on bone mass warrant further investigation.",
"yes. Our results showed that irregular breakfast, lunch and evening meal consumption among adolescents was associated with a low frequency of fruit and vegetable intake and that sex and age may play a modifying role. The different associations observed in different age and sex groups indicate the importance of analysing fruit and vegetable intake and meal types separately. The results highlight the importance of promoting regular meal consumption when trying to increase the intake of fruit and vegetables among adolescents.",
"In our aging population, maintenance of bone health is critical to reduce the risk of osteoporosis and potentially debilitating consequences of fractures in older individuals. Among modifiable lifestyle and dietary factors, dietary magnesium and potassium intakes are postulated to influence bone quality and osteoporosis, principally via calcium-dependent alteration of bone structure and turnover. We investigated the influence of dietary magnesium and potassium intakes, as well as circulating magnesium, on bone density status and fracture risk in an adult population in the United Kingdom. A random subset of 4000 individuals from the European Prospective Investigation into Cancer and Nutrition-Norfolk cohort of 25,639 men and women with baseline data was used for bone density cross-sectional analyses and combined with fracture cases (n = 1502) for fracture case-cohort longitudinal analyses (mean follow-up 13.4 y). Relevant biological, lifestyle, and dietary covariates were used in multivariate regression analyses to determine associations between dietary magnesium and potassium intakes and calcaneal broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA), as well as in Prentice-weighted Cox regression to determine associated risk of fracture. Separate analyses, excluding dietary covariates, investigated associations of BUA and fractures with serum magnesium concentration. Statistically significant positive trends in calcaneal BUA for women (n = 1360) but not men (n = 968) were apparent across increasing quintiles of magnesium plus potassium (Mg+K) z score intake (P = 0.03) or potassium intake alone (P = 0.04). Reduced hip fracture risk in both men (n = 1958) and women (n = 2755) was evident for individuals in specific Mg+K z score intake quintiles compared with the lowest. Statistically significant trends in fracture risk in men across serum magnesium concentration groups were apparent for spine fractures (P = 0.02) and total hip, spine, and wrist fractures (P = 0.02). None of these individual statistically significant associations remained after adjustment for multiple testing.",
"yes. The present study indicates that urinary excretion of dietary flavonoids may be used to assess changes of mixed fruit and vegetable intake corresponding to an increase from the present national intake in Norway to the recommended amount of 5 servings of fruits and vegetables daily.",
"yes. High consumption of fruit and vegetables offers an advantage in survival among the rising number of men living after a PCa diagnosis, possibly through the epigenetic effect of some nutrients.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine relationships of calcium (Ca), protein (Pr), phosphorus (P) and potassium (K) to measures of bone mineral density in adult men. Cross-sectional analysis of 57 men ages 39 to 42 years who were participants in an ongoing study. Dietary assessment was conducted using the Block food frequency questionnaire (FFQ). BMD of total body (TB), hip and lumbar spine (LS) were measured with dual X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Ca, Pr, P and K, as well as lean body mass (LBM), showed significant correlation with BMD at the total body, hip and lumbar spine. Stepwise forward regression selection method identified LBM, height and fat mass as significant predictors of TB-BMD, LBM and height as significant predictors of hip BMD, and LBM as a significant predictor of LS-BMD. As the nutrients tested correlated significantly with each other, only one nutrient was entered into the regression model at a time to accommodate the potential for multicollinearity. In regression analysis, adjusted for site-specific anthropometric variables and energy intake, K, Pr and P intake accounted for significant (p < 0.05) prediction of TB-BMD and LS-BMD values by 7% to 13%. No bone-related nutrient added significantly to the prediction of hip BMD. Ca intake was not significantly associated with BMD at any site in the adjusted models.",
"Investigate associations of healthier behaviors with 30-yr cancer incidence. In 1982, 632 healthy men and women (ages 40-70) were interviewed for nutritional habits using a Food Frequency Questionnaire and a 24-h physical activity questionnaire. Blood pressure, weight, and height were measured, and blood was drawn for biochemical profiles. Thirteen and four subjects were excluded due to cancer diagnosis ≤1 yr from recruitment and extreme values of reported total daily calorie intake, respectively. During a mean follow-up of 24.2 yr, 146 cancer incident patients (23.7%) were documented. Total cancer risk was 38% lower in the medium vegetable intake tertile [adjusted hazards ratio (HR) = 0.62, 95%confidence interval (CI): 0.40-0.95], and 66% higher in the medium fruit intake tertile (adjusted HR = 1.66, 95%CI: 1.08-2.55) compared to the lowest tertile. The risk of gastrointestinal cancers was 3 times greater for the highest, compared to the lowest, dairy consumption tertile (HR = 3.06, 95%CI: 1.01-9.23). \"Healthy lifestyle\" (normal BMI, never smoked, consuming high levels of dietary fiber and vegetables, and more physically active) reduced overall cancer risk (adjusted HR = 0.63, 95%CI: 0.44-0.91) as compared to the rest of the cohort.",
"Nutrition influences peak bone mass development in early adulthood. The effect of high dietary phosphate intake on the growing skeleton of 1-month-old male rats (n = 30) was assessed in an 8-week intervention. High dietary phosphate intake increased bone remodeling and impaired bone material properties, diminishing bone mechanical strength. High dietary phosphate intake is typical in the Western diet. Abundant phosphate intake enhances parathyroid secretion and bone metabolism. To study the influence of high dietary phosphate intake on growing bone homeostasis and structure, we submitted growing rats to experimental diets that varied in their phosphate content. One-month-old intact male rats (n = 30) were fed a control diet (Ca:P 1:1) or an experimental diet of either Ca:P 1:2 or Ca:P 1:3 for 8 weeks. At the beginning and the end of the study period, the right femurs were measured using DXA. Double labeling with tetracycline injection was performed 12 and 2 days before death. After death, hind legs were cut loose. Left femurs were processed for histomorphometry. Right femurs were measured with pQCT. Mechanical testing was performed on the right femoral neck and tibial shaft. Six right tibias were analyzed with microCT. Serum PTH, calcium, and phosphate contents were analyzed. High-phosphate intake impaired growth of the animal, limited bone longitudinal growth, and restricted femur BMC and BMD build-up. Osteoclast number, osteoblast perimeter, and mineral apposition rate were increased, and trabecular area and width were decreased. Phosphate decreased femur midshaft total bone BMD, cortical bone BMD, and mean cortical thickness. High-phosphate diet reduced femoral neck and tibial shaft ultimate strength and tibia stiffness and toughness. In addition, serum PTH increased.",
"We hypothesized that fruit/vegetable intake and eating behaviors mediate the relationship between experimental condition and weight loss in a randomized trial evaluating a text-message based weight loss program. Overweight/obese individuals from San Diego, CA (N = 52 with complete data) were randomly assigned in 2007 into one of two groups for four months: 1) the intervention group that received 2-5 weight management text-messages p/day; 2) the usual-care comparison group. Three 24-hour recalls assessed fruit/vegetable intake change and the eating behavior inventory (EBI) measured change in eating behaviors. Regression path models tested intervention mediation. Direct effects of the intervention were found for change in body weight (b = -3.84, R(2) = 0.074), fruit/vegetable intake (b = 2.00, R(2) = 0.083), and EBI scores (b = 7.15, R(2) = 0.229) (ps < 0.05). The treatment group to weight change path was not statistically significant (b = -0.673, R(2) = 0.208) when fruit/vegetable intake change and EBI score change were specified as intervention mediators in the model. The total indirect effect was 3.17 lb indicating that the indirect paths explained 82.6% of the total effect on weight change.",
"yes. The present study illustrates that among hypertensive volunteers, increased fruit and vegetable consumption produces significant improvements in an established marker of endothelial function and cardiovascular prognosis.",
"yes. Higher intake of foods rich in potassium, such as fruit and vegetables, may favor the preservation of muscle mass in older men and women.",
"High-fat diets are usually associated with greater weight (W) gain and body fat (BF). However, it is still unclear whether the type and amount of fat consumed influence BF. Additionally, dietary fat intake may also have consequences on skeletal health. To evaluate in healthy growing rats the effects of high-fat diets and type of dietary fat intake (saturated or vegetable oils) on energy and bone metabolism. At weaning, male Wistar rats (n = 50) were fed either a control diet (C; fat = 7% w/w) or a high-fat diet (20% w/w) containing either: soybean oil, corn oil (CO), linseed oil (LO), or beef tallow (BT) for 8 weeks. Zoometric parameters, BF, food intake and digestibility, and total and bone alkaline phosphatase (b-AP) were assessed. Total skeleton bone mineral density (BMD) and content (BMC), BMC/W, spine BMD, and bone volume (static-histomorphometry) were measured. Animals fed BT diet achieved lower W versus C. Rats fed high-fat vegetable oil diets showed similar effects on the zoometric parameters but differed in BF. BT showed the lowest lipid digestibility and BMC. In contrast, high vegetable oil diets produced no significant differences in BMC, BMC/W, BMD, spine BMD, and bone volume. Marked differences were observed for LO and BT groups in b-AP and CO and BT groups in bone volume.",
"yes. This study of ovariectomized rats indicates that the consumption of grape products may improve calcium utilization and suppress bone turnover, resulting in improvements in bone quality.",
"yes. These findings suggested that there was a positive correlation between Chinese traditional dietary pattern and healthy BMI and BMD and that this same association existed between calcium food pattern and BMD in Chinese freshmen. In contrast, the Western-style diet was negatively correlated with healthy BMI in Chinese freshmen.",
"yes. A healthy dietary pattern and higher fruit intake (particularly apples and citrus fruits) were related to better glucose tolerance in healthy subjects, which could be mediated by lower TNF-α methylation.",
"yes. Consumption of a Mediterranean diet enriched with virgin olive oil for 2 years is associated with increased serum osteocalcin and P1NP concentrations, suggesting protective effects on bone.",
"Grapes and their associated phytochemicals have been investigated for beneficial effects on cardiovascular health, cancer prevention, and other chronic diseases, but the effect of grape consumption on bone health has not been fully determined. We previously found short-term benefits of grape products on reducing bone turnover in ovariectomized rats. The objective of this study was to determine the long-term benefits of a grape-enriched diet on bone in ovariectomized rats. Rats were ovariectomized at 3 mo of age and were administered a single dose of (45)Ca to prelabel bones at 4 mo of age. After a 1-mo equilibration period, baseline urinary (45)Ca excretion was determined. Rats (n = 22/group) were then randomly assigned to a modified AIN93M diet containing 25% freeze-dried grape powder or to a control diet for 8 wk. Urinary (45)Ca excretion was monitored throughout the study to determine changes in bone (45)Ca retention. Calcium balance was assessed after 1 and 8 wk of consuming the experimental diets, and a calcium kinetic study was performed at 8 wk. After 8 wk, femurs were collected for micro-computed tomographic imaging, 3-point bending, and reference point indentation. Rats fed the grape-enriched diet had 44% greater net bone calcium retention than did rats fed the control diet. There were no differences in calcium balance due to diet at either week 1 or week 8, but there was a significant increase in net calcium absorption (10.6%) and retention (5.7%) from week 1 to week 8 in the grape-enriched diet group only. Grape-enriched diet-fed rats had 3% greater cortical thickness and 11% greater breaking strength. There were no differences in femur bone mineral density, trabecular microarchitecture, or reference point indentation variables due to diet.",
"Maintaining muscle mass while aging is important to prevent falls and fractures. Metabolic acidosis promotes muscle wasting, and the net acid load from diets that are rich in net acid-producing protein and cereal grains relative to their content of net alkali-producing fruit and vegetables may therefore contribute to a reduction in lean tissue mass in older adults. We aimed to determine whether there was an association of 24-h urinary potassium and an index of fruit and vegetable content of the diet with the percentage lean body mass (%LBM) or change in %LBM in older subjects. Subjects were 384 men and women > or =65 y old who participated in a 3-y trial comparing calcium and vitamin D with placebo. Potassium was measured in 24-h urine collections at baseline. The %LBM, defined as total body nonfat, nonbone tissue weight/weight x 100, was measured by using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry at baseline and at 3 y. Physical activity, height, and weight were assessed at baseline and at 3 y. At baseline, the mean urinary potassium excretion was 67.0 +/- 21.1 mmol/d. Urinary potassium (mmol/d) was significantly positively associated with %LBM at baseline (beta = 0.033, P = 0.006; adjusted for sex, weight, and nitrogen excretion) but not with 3-y change in %LBM. Over the 3-y study, %LBM increased by 2.6 +/- 3.6%.",
"Appropriate nutrition during early development is essential for maximal bone mass accretion; however, linkage between early nutrition, childhood bone mass, peak bone mass in adulthood, and prevention of bone loss later in life has not been studied. In this report, we show that feeding a high quality diet supplemented with blueberries (BB) to pre-pubertal rats throughout development or only between postnatal day 20 (PND20) and PND34 prevented ovariectomy (OVX)-induced bone loss in adult life. This protective effect of BB is due to suppression of osteoblastic cell senescence associated with acute loss of myosin expression after OVX. Early exposure of pre-osteoblasts to serum from BB-fed rats was found to consistently increase myosin expression. This led to maintenance osteoblastic cell development and differentiation and delay of cellular entrance into senescence through regulation of the Runx2 gene. High bone turnover after OVX results in insufficient collagenous matrix support for new osteoblasts and their precursors to express myosin and other cytoskeletal elements required for osteoblast activity and differentiation.",
"yes. We observed a small but significant positive association between a more alkaline diet and muscle mass indexes in healthy women that was independent of age, physical activity and protein intake equating to a scale of effect between a fifth and one half of the observed relationship with 10 years of age. Although protein is important for maintenance of muscle mass, eating fruits and vegetables that supply adequate amounts of potassium and magnesium are also relevant. The results suggest a potential role for diet in the prevention of muscle loss.",
"Our objective was to examine associations between dietary patterns and body mass index (BMI) and bone mineral density (BMD) in Chinese freshmen. A cross-sectional study was done in 1319 college freshmen (aged 18.1 ± 1.2 years old). Diet was assessed by using a validated self-administrated food-frequency questionnaire. Blood pressure, weight, height, waist circumference, and hip circumference were measured and bone measurements were done using Quantitative Ultrasound System. Four dietary patterns were identified by factor analysis: Western food, animal protein, calcium food, and Chinese traditional patterns. The prevalence of overweight/obesity and osteopenia/osteoporosis were 8.2% (108/1319) and 28.1% (371/1319). The highest tertile of Western food pattern scores had greater odds of overweight/obesity (highest vs. lowest tertile, odds ratio [OR] = 2.00, 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.24-3.22), and the highest tertile of Chinese traditional pattern scores had lower risk of overweight/obesity (highest vs. lowest tertile, OR = 0.65, 95% CI, 0.53-0.80) in an adjusted model. The calcium food pattern and Chinese traditional pattern were negatively associated with the risk of osteopenia/osteoporosis (highest vs. lowest tertile, OR = 0.59, 95% CI, 0.41-0.87; OR = 0.78, 95% CI, 0.55-0.89) after adjusting for confounders.",
"A population-based study of 1363 older women showed that the 24% who achieved high physical activity and dietary calcium intakes had a 5.1% higher hip BMD than those who did not, supporting the concept that lifestyle factors play an important role in the maintenance of lower extremity bone mass in older women. Although there is general agreement that increased dietary calcium consumption and exercise can slow bone loss in older women, the amount required to have this effect in an older population remains uncertain. This study was devised to examine the effects of calcium consumption (CC) and physical activity (PA) (lifestyle management) on bone mass in an older female population. Using a cross-sectional study design, a population-based sample of older women (mean age, 75 +/- 3 years) had hip and heel bone mass measured using DXA (Hologic 4500A; n = 1076) and quantitative ultrasound (QUS, Lunar Achilles; n = 1363), respectively. CC and PA were measured by a validated habitual food frequency and activity questionnaire, respectively. Dose-response effects of PA and CC on bone mass were examined using ANOVA.",
"Several types of nutrients and foods affect bone mineral density (BMD). However, these nutrients occur together in food groups and dietary patterns, and the overall effects of dietary patterns are not yet well known. We evaluated the associations between dietary patterns and BMD among adults participating in the Health Workers Cohort Study. In a cross-sectional analysis, we examined 6915 Mexican adults aged 20-80 years. All participants completed a validated self-administered food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) and had total, hip, and spine BMD measurements assessed by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). The FFQ included 116 foods, which were grouped into 22 categories and entered into a factor analysis to derive dietary patterns. Three dietary patterns emerged-a Prudent, a Refined foods, and a Dairy and fish pattern. After adjustment for potential confounders, those in the highest quintile of the Prudent pattern had lower odds (OR) of low spine BMD (OR = 0.80; 95 % CI 0.68, 0.94; P for trend = 0.031) compared to those in the lowest quintile. In contrast, participants in the highest quintile of the Refined foods pattern had greater odds of low total BMD (OR = 1.74; 95 % CI 1.10, 2.76; P for trend = 0.016) than those in the lowest quintile. Finally, participants in the highest quintile of the Dairy and fish dietary pattern had significantly lower likelihood of having low BMD.",
"Dietary patterns that promote mild metabolic acidosis may have a negative effect on bone density. We investigated the relation between a measure of dietary acid-base load, potential renal acid load (PRAL), and calcaneal broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA) after adjustment for confounders and also compared the results with different estimates of acid-base load. A cross-sectional study was conducted in 14 563 men and women aged 42-82 y living in Norfolk, United Kingdom, in which measures of calcaneal BUA and dietary PRAL were estimated by using the European Prospective Investigation into Cancer and Nutrition Norfolk (EPIC-Norfolk) food-frequency questionnaire. A more acidic dietary intake (high PRAL) was significantly associated with lower calcaneal BUA in women but not in men; there was a difference of approximately 2% in BUA between the highest and lowest quintiles of PRAL, independent of age, body mass index, smoking habit, physical activity, diagnosed osteoporosis, and history of fracture, and (in women) hormone replacement therapy. No relation was observed between history of fracture or incident fracture and PRAL. Those with the greatest PRAL had higher intakes of meat, fish, eggs, and cereal and cereal products and lower intakes of fruit and vegetables, tea, and coffee.",
"yes. The changes observed in the calcium economy through consumption of food sources of calcium are similar in kind and extent to those reported previously for calcium supplement tablets. The increase in IGF-1 level and the decrease in IBFBP-4 level are new observations that are beneficial for bone health. Important improvements in skeletal metabolism can feasibly occur in older adults by consumption of food sources of calcium. Dietitians can be confident that food works, and that desired calcium intakes can be achieved using food sources.",
"The range of protein intakes for optimizing bone health among premenopausal women is unclear. Protein is a major constituent of bone, but acidic amino acids may promote bone resorption. The objective was to examine cross-sectional and longitudinal associations between baseline dietary protein and bone mineral density (BMD) among 560 females aged 14-40 y at baseline enrolled in a Pacific Northwest managed-care organization. The role of protein source (animal or vegetable) and participant characteristics were considered. Dietary protein intake was assessed by using a semiquantitative food-frequency questionnaire in participants enrolled in a study investigating associations between hormonal contraceptive use and bone health. Annual changes in hip, spine, and whole-body BMD were measured by using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. Cross-sectional and longitudinal associations between baseline protein intake (% of energy) and BMD were examined by using linear regression analysis and generalized estimating equations adjusted for confounders. The mean (+/-SD) protein intake at baseline was 15.5 +/- 3.2%. After multivariable adjustment, the mean BMD was similar across each tertile of protein intake. In cross-sectional analyses, low vegetable protein intake was associated with a lower BMD (P = 0.03 for hip, P = 0.10 for spine, and P = 0.04 for whole body). For every percentage increase in the percentage of energy from protein, no significant longitudinal changes in BMD were observed at any anatomic site over the follow-up period.",
"yes. This study finds that vegetable dishes, dairy products and fruits are the key items mediating adequate dietary intake. Dietary guidelines promoting the intake of these dishes for SCI individuals are needed.",
"yes. These findings suggest that a higher fruit and vegetable intake, as indicated by higher total serum carotenoid concentrations, may be protective against a decline in walking speed in older women.",
"To examine the effects of consuming a diet based on the Mediterranean patterns on calcium availability and metabolism in male adolescents. A longitudinal study divided into two periods: a 3-day basal period, during which the subjects (n = 20; 12.9 +/- 1.14 years) consumed their usual diet (basal diet, BD), and a 28-day nutritional intervention period, in which an intervention Mediterranean-type diet - was consumed (ID). Dietary calcium utilization was assessed by means of calcium intake in food and calcium output in feces and urine as measured by flame absorption spectrophotometry. In addition, markers of calcium metabolism (serum Ca, parathyroid hormone and total alkaline phosphatase) and bone resorption (urine deoxypiridinoline) were measured. No differences in total calcium intake were found between the two diets, but food sources of dietary calcium varied significantly. Compared with the BD, the consumption of the ID resulted in significant increases in calcium absorption (approximately 40%, p = 0.04) and retention (approximately 80%, p = 0.008), and a considerable decrease in urinary calcium excretion (approximately 40%, p = 0.01).The variations observed in bone markers reflected a higher bone turnover rate after the ID consumption.",
"yes. This study identified specific dietary patterns associated with BMD among a Mexican adult population and highlights the importance of promoting food-based prevention strategies for maintaining bone health.",
"To describe the association between maternal diet during the third trimester of pregnancy and bone mass in 8 y-old male and female children. Longitudinal study. Southern Tasmania between 1988 and 1996. One-hundred and seventy-three 8-y-old male and female children with adequate maternal dietary information taking part in a study of bone mineralization. After adjustment for confounders, femoral neck bone mineral density (BMD) was positively associated with magnesium and phosphorus density of the maternal diet; lumbar spine BMD was positively associated with magnesium, phosphorus and potassium and negatively associated with fat density while total body BMD was positively associated with magnesium, potassium and protein and negatively associated with fat density (all P<0.05). After further adjustment for other significant dietary factors, the only significant remaining associations observed were for phosphorus and fat at the lumbar spine, although the adjusted goodness of fit of the models improved compared to those including one dietary variable. A child in the 'optimal' levels of dietary exposures had significantly higher adjusted BMD at all sites (femoral neck, +5.5%, lumbar spine, +12%, total body, +6.8%). Calcium intake was not associated with BMD at any site, possibly due to a high average intake.",
"yes. A varied diet based on Mediterranean diet patterns during adolescence greatly improves dietary calcium utilization, which may help to maximize the peak bone mass and prevent related diseases, such as osteoporosis.",
"yes. This study reports a substantial association between in utero diet in a well-nourished population and later bone mass in their children. However, it does not allow identification of the dietary components of greatest importance, indicating that these results should be regarded as hypothesis-generating. Further longitudinal studies in other populations are required to confirm that dietary manipulation during pregnancy has a role to play in the early life prevention of osteoporosis.",
"no. Improving consumption of calcium-rich (dairy) foods better supports bone health during sunlight deprivation. Increasing vegetable intake to recommended levels will increase fibre, potassium and magnesium intakes. The challenge is the logistics of providing these foods throughout the year.",
"Dietary factors have been implicated in modifying bone health, although the results remain controversial, particularly in young women. The objective of the study was to determine relations of selected dietary factors and anthropometric measurements to bone mineral density (BMD) of the spine, femoral neck, trochanter, Ward's triangle, radius, and total body and the bone mineral content (BMC) of the spine, radius, and total body. The study was a cross-sectional analysis of 215 women aged 18-31 y. Weight, height, and lean mass were correlated with bone mineral measures at every site (r = 0.17-0.78). Postmenarcheal age (years since onset of menses) was positively correlated with total-body BMD and BMC, radius BMD and BMC, and spine BMC, and negatively correlated with Ward's triangle BMD. Radius BMD was correlated with protein, calcium, and phosphorus intakes, and spine BMD and BMC were correlated with energy, protein, calcium, and phosphorus intakes. These correlations remained significant when postmenarcheal age, lean mass, and fat mass were controlled. A pattern emerged in multiple regression analyses that showed a complex relation among calcium, protein or phosphorus, and the calcium-protein or calcium-phosphorus ratio and spine or total-body BMC and BMD. All 3 variables (calcium, protein or phosphorus, and calcium-protein or calcium-phosphorus ratio) were required in the model for significance.",
"High intake of fruit and vegetables may reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Carotenoids exist in abundance in these foods. This study showed the association of bone mineral density with serum carotenoids. The findings suggest that beta-cryptoxanthin and beta-carotene might provide benefits to bone health in post-menopausal female subjects. Antioxidant carotenoids are abundant in fruit and vegetables. Recent epidemiological studies show that high intakes of fruit and vegetables may reduce the risk of osteoporosis, but little is known about the association of bone mineral density (BMD) with serum carotenoids. A total of 699 subjects (222 males and 477 females) who had received health examinations in the town of Mikkabi, Shizuoka Prefecture, Japan, participated in the study. Radial BMD was measured using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). The associations of serum carotenoid concentrations with the radial BMD were evaluated cross-sectionally. In male and pre-menopausal female subjects, the six serum carotenoids were not associated with the radial BMD. On the other hand, in post-menopausal female subjects, serum beta-cryptoxanthin and beta-carotene were weakly but positively correlated with the radial BMD. After adjustment for confounders, the odds ratio (OR) for the lowest quartile of BMD in the high groups (Q2-Q4) of serum beta-cryptoxanthin against the lowest quartile (Q1) was 0.45 (95% confidence interval: 0.22-0.95) in post-menopausal female subjects. However, this association was not significant after further adjusting for intakes of minerals and vitamins.",
"Osteoporosis is a major health problem that will grow in burden with ageing of the global population. Modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis, including diet, have significant implications for disease prevention. We examined associations between dietary patterns and bone mineral density (BMD) in a Korean adult population. In total, 1828 individuals from the Healthy Twin Cohort were included as subjects. Information on general characteristics, lifestyles and health status was obtained through a health examination, and BMD was assessed using DEXA. Dietary intake was assessed using a 3-day food record, and dietary patterns were examined by factor analysis. Associations between dietary patterns and BMD were examined using mixed linear regression, adjusting for family and twin structure as well as other potential risk factors for bone health. Four dietary patterns were identified (Rice and kimchi; eggs, meat and flour; Fruit, milk and whole grains; and Fast food and soda). The 'Fruit, milk and whole grains' pattern was associated with a reduced risk of having low BMD in men (odds ratio (OR)=0.38; 95% confidence interval (CI)=0.22-0.67) and women (OR=0.45; 95% CI=0.28-0.72) and was positively associated with BMD at multiple sites. The 'rice and kimchi' pattern had a positive association with only whole-arm BMD in men and women.",
"yes. These novel findings provide evidence of a positive link between a ratio of lower protein to higher potassium dietary intake (ie, less dietary acid) and skeletal integrity.",
"Data from this longitudinal study suggest that a higher protein intake does not have an adverse effect on bone in premenopausal women. Cross-sectional analyses suggest that low vegetable protein intake is associated with lower BMD.",
"yes. These results support the hypothesis that alkaline-producing dietary components, specifically, potassium, magnesium, and fruit and vegetables, contribute to maintenance of BMD.",
"yes. Our results suggest that a dietary pattern with high intake of dairy products, fruits and whole grains may contribute positively to bone health in a Korean adult population, and dietary pattern-based strategies could have potential in promoting bone health.",
"Low peak bone mass in young adulthood is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and fracture after menopause, and an understanding of the modifiable factors that contribute to low peak bone mass is important for fracture prevention. Diet is an important modifiable factor linked to bone health and, although studies have examined the role of individual dietary components in bone health, bone growth and maintenance are complex processes, and such studies may not adequately represent the role of diet in these processes. To address this issue, a cross-sectional analysis of 226 healthy, premenopausal women aged 18-30 years was conducted to determine whether existing indices of overall diet quality are associated with bone density in premenopausal women nearing peak bone mass. Bone density was measured using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry and diet quality was measured using two overall diet scores based on current dietary guidelines: the Recommended Food Score and the Alternate Healthy Eating Index (AHEI). In the multiple linear regression, bone density did not increase across quartiles of either diet quality score and was not associated with continuous diet quality variables. Furthermore, none of the individual AHEI components (e.g. fruit intake, vegetable intake) were associated with bone density.",
"Osteoporosis and related fractures will be growing public health problems as the population ages. It is therefore of great importance to identify modifiable risk factors. We investigated associations between dietary components contributing to an alkaline environment (dietary potassium, magnesium, and fruit and vegetables) and bone mineral density (BMD) in elderly subjects. Dietary intake measures were associated with both cross-sectional (baseline) and 4-y longitudinal change in BMD among surviving members of the original cohort of the Framingham Heart Study. Dietary and supplement intakes were assessed by food-frequency questionnaire, and BMD was measured at 3 hip sites and 1 forearm site. Greater potassium intake was significantly associated with greater BMD at all 4 sites for men and at 3 sites for women (P < 0.05). Magnesium intake was associated with greater BMD at one hip site for both men and women and in the forearm for men. Fruit and vegetable intake was associated with BMD at 3 sites for men and 2 for women. Greater intakes of potassium and magnesium were also each associated with less decline in BMD at 2 hip sites, and greater fruit and vegetable intake was associated with less decline at 1 hip site, in men. There were no significant associations between baseline diet and subsequent bone loss in women.",
"The role of nutritional influences on bone health remains largely undefined because most studies have focused attention on calcium intake. We reported previously that intakes of nutrients found in abundance in fruit and vegetables are positively associated with bone health. We examined this finding further by considering axial and peripheral bone mass and markers of bone metabolism. This was a cross-sectional study of 62 healthy women aged 45-55 y. Bone mineral density (BMD) was measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry at the lumbar spine and femoral neck and by peripheral quantitative computed tomography at the ultradistal radial total, trabecular, and cortical sites. Bone resorption was calculated by measuring urinary excretion of pyridinoline and deoxypyridinoline and bone formation by measuring serum osteocalcin. Nutrient intakes were assessed by using a validated food-frequency questionnaire; other lifestyle factors were assessed by additional questions. After present energy intake was controlled for, higher intakes of magnesium, potassium, and alcohol were associated with higher total bone mass by Pearson correlation (P<0.05 to P<0.005). Femoral neck BMD was higher in women who had consumed high amounts of fruit in their childhood than in women who had consumed medium or low amounts (P<0.01). In a regression analysis with age, weight, height, menstrual status, and dietary intake entered into the model, magnesium intake accounted for 12.3% of the variation in pyridinoline excretion and 12% of the variation in deoxypyridinoline excretion. Alcohol and potassium intakes accounted for 18.1% of the variation in total forearm bone mass.",
"Adequate intakes of fruit and vegetables are recommended for optimum health in children. The objective of this study was to determine whether consuming fruit and vegetables >3 times per day is beneficial to bone mass in children. Fifty-six white females (Tanner stage 2) recorded dietary intake on 3 independent days. The numbers of servings of fruit and vegetables were recorded for each day and tallied, and the subjects were divided into 2 consumption groups for analysis (low consumption: <3 servings/d, n = 22; high consumption: > or = 3 servings/d, n = 34). Bone area and the bone mineral content of the whole body and radius were assessed by using dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry. Radioimmunoassays measured serum parathyroid hormone and 25-hydroxyvitamin D. Twenty-four-hour urine samples were assessed for calcium, sodium, and creatinine. After adjustment for age, body mass index, and physical activity, those children who reported consuming > or = 3 servings fruit and vegetables/d had more bone area of the whole body (6.0%; P = 0.03) and radius (8.3%; P = 0.03), lower urinary calcium excretion (2.6 +/- 0.2 compared with 1.8 +/- 0.3 mg/kg; P = 0.04), and lower parathyroid hormone (19.6 +/- 1.9 compared with 25.0 +/- 1.6 pg/mL; P = 0.01) than did those children who reported consuming <3 servings fruit and vegetables/d.",
"yes. High fruit and vegetable intakes have beneficial effects on the bone area of the radius and whole body in early pubertal girls. The lower urinary calcium output associated with higher fruit and vegetable intakes may be a modulating factor.",
"The BMD results confirm our previous work (but at peripheral bone mass sites), and our findings associating bone resorption with dietary factors provide further evidence of a positive link between fruit and vegetable consumption and bone health."
] | 59 |
Is there an association between duration of untreated psychosis and 24-month clinical outcome in a first-admission series? | [
"The authors examined the duration of untreated psychosis, defined as the interval from first psychotic symptom to first psychiatric hospitalization, in a county-wide sample of first-admission inpatients who had received no previous antipsychotic medication. Differences between diagnostic groups in 24-month illness course and clinical outcomes as well as relationships between outcomes and duration of untreated psychosis were evaluated. The data were derived from subjects in the Suffolk County Psychosis Project who were diagnosed at 24-month follow-up according to DSM-IV as having schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder (N=155), bipolar disorder with psychotic features (N=119), or major depressive disorder with psychotic features (N=75). Duration of untreated psychosis was derived from the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R, medical records, and information from significant others. Measures at 24-month follow-up included consensus ratings of illness course, Global Assessment of Functioning Scale scores for the worst week in the month before interview, and current affective and psychotic symptoms. The median duration of untreated psychosis was 98 days for schizophrenia, 9 days for psychotic bipolar disorder, and 22 days for psychotic depression. Duration of untreated psychosis was not significantly associated with 24-month illness course or clinical outcomes in any of the diagnostic subgroups.",
"Although these findings require replication in other epidemiologically based first-admission samples, at face value they do not support the suggestion of a psychotoxic effect of prolonged exposure to untreated psychosis."
] | [
"The primary aim of this study was to compare the impact of risperidone long-acting injectable (R-LAI) to other antipsychotics on rates of hospitalisation in real-life settings. The Cohort for the General study of Schizophrenia (CGS) followed 1859 patients diagnosed with schizophrenia (DSM-IV) from 177 psychiatric wards of public and private hospitals across France over a mean period of 12months. These patients were ambulatory or had been hospitalised for less than 93days at study entry. Recruitment was stratified for long-acting second-generation antipsychotic use. A multivariate Poisson regression adjusted for confounding with propensity scores and allowing for autocorrelation was used for the calculation of relative rates of hospitalisation with 95% confidence intervals. The mean age of participants was 37.65years, 68.3% were male and 36.7% were hospitalised for less than 93days at study entry. Altogether, participants accumulated 796 hospital stays (53.4 per 100 person-years). R-LAI patients were slightly younger and had been hospitalised more often in the past 12months compared to non-R-LAI users. The adjusted Poisson regression analysis showed R-LAI use to be associated with a lower rate of future hospitalisation: 0.66 [0.46-0.96] compared to non-R-LAI use, and 0.53 [0.32-0.88]compared to use of other LAIs.",
"Research suggests that low-grade psychotic experiences in the general population are a common but transitory developmental phenomenon. Using two independent general population samples, the hypothesis was examined that common, non-clinical developmental expression of psychosis may become abnormally persistent when synergistically combined with developmental exposures that may impact on behavioural and neurotransmitter sensitization such as cannabis, trauma and urbanicity. The amount of synergism was estimated from the additive statistical interaction between baseline cannabis use, childhood trauma and urbanicity on the one hand, and baseline psychotic experiences on the other, in predicting 3-year follow-up psychotic experiences, using data from two large, longitudinal, random population samples from the Netherlands [The Netherlands Mental Health Survey and Incidence Study (NEMESIS)] and Germany [The Early Developmental Stages of Psychopathology (EDSP) study]. The 3-year persistence rates of psychotic experiences were low at 26% in NEMESIS and 31% in EDSP. However, persistence rates were progressively higher with greater baseline number of environmental exposures in predicting follow-up psychotic experiences (chi2=6.9, df=1, p=0.009 in NEMESIS and chi2=4.2, df=1, p=0.04 in EDSP). Between 21% and 83% (NEMESIS) and 29% and 51% (EDSP) of the subjects exposed to both environmental exposures and psychotic experiences at baseline had persistence of psychotic experiences at follow-up because of the synergistic action of the two factors.",
"To investigate the cross-sectional relationship between subjective quality of life and sociodemographic clinical and social factors over three points of assessment during a 6-year follow-up, and to investigate longitudinal predictors of subjective quality of life. We investigated a sample of people with severe mental illness (n = 92), mainly with a psychosis diagnosis, at baseline and at an 18-month and 6-year follow-up. Measures included the Lancashire quality of life profile, Manchester short assessment of quality of life, Symptom Check List 90, Camberwell Assessment of Needs and the Interview Schedule for Social Interaction. Cross-sectionally subjective quality of life was associated to self-reported symptoms, social network and unmet needs. However, these determinants varied in importance between points of assessment. Longitudinal predictors of subjective quality of life were changes in self-reported symptoms and social network.",
"The objective of this study was to investigate which antipsychotics (classical versus atypical) are prescribed in a psychiatric hospital and which determinants affect the choice for one of these two classes of antipsychotics in newly admitted patients. In a retrospective cohort design, 522 newly admitted patients were followed from the date of admission until discharge from the hospital. In the cohort of newly admitted patients treated with an oral antipsychotic, a nested case-control study was conducted considering recipients of an atypical agent as cases. Controls were all other cohort members. The association of patient characteristics and the choice between classical versus atypical antipsychotics was studied using logistic regression analysis. The same analysis was performed with adjustment for possible confounding factors (age group, gender, DSM-IV diagnoses, use of short-acting parenteral antipsychotic, global assessment of functioning score, involuntary admissions and involuntary measures). Patients treated with classical oral antipsychotics were more often previously treated with short-acting parenteral antipsychotics than patients treated with atypical antipsychotics (40.8% vs 15.2%; adjusted OR=0.20 95% CI=0.09-0.44). No statistically significant difference was found between patients with different severities of disease.",
"Factors related to a vulnerability to psychosis among patients with major depression are present even years before the onset of overt psychotic symptoms. The data could support the view that impaired premorbid functioning is one manifestation of prepsychotic processes that constitute an underlying diathesis for psychotic episodes during the longitudinal course of unipolar major depression. These findings are consistent with other emerging findings pointing to early developmental deficits in patients who subsequently develop psychotic disorders.",
"Although these findings require replication in other epidemiologically based first-admission samples, at face value they do not support the suggestion of a psychotoxic effect of prolonged exposure to untreated psychosis.",
"Several studies suggest that adolescent marijuana use predicts earlier age at onset of schizophrenia, which is a crucial prognostic indicator. Yet, many investigations have not adequately established a clear temporal relationship between the use and onset. We enrolled 247 first-episode psychosis patients from six psychiatric units and collected data on lifetime marijuana/alcohol/tobacco use, and ages at onset of prodrome and psychosis in 210 of these patients. Cox regression (survival analysis) was employed to quantify hazard ratios (HRs) for effects of diverse premorbid use variables on psychosis onset. Escalation of premorbid use in the 5years prior to onset was highly predictive of an increased risk for onset (e.g., increasing from no use to daily use, HR=3.6, p<0.0005). Through the analysis of time-specific measures, we determined that daily use approximately doubled the rate of onset (HR=2.2, p<0.0005), even after controlling for simultaneous alcohol/tobacco use. Building on previous studies, we were able to determine that cumulative marijuana exposure was associated with an increased rate of onset of psychosis (p=0.007), independent of gender and family history, and this is possibly the reason for age at initiation of marijuana use also being associated with rate of onset in this cohort.",
"Although there is substantial comorbidity between psychotic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), little is known about how these clinical phenotypes, and their subclinical extended phenotypes, covary and impact on each other over time. This study examined cross-sectional and longitudinal associations between both (extended) phenotypes in the general population. Data were obtained from the three waves of the NEMESIS-study. A representative population sample of 7076 participants were assessed using the composite international diagnostic interview (CIDI) at baseline (T(0)), 1 year later at T(1) and again 2 years later at T(2). At T(0), a lifetime diagnosis of psychotic disorder was present in 1.5% of the entire sample, in 11.5% of the people with any OC symptom and in 23.0% of individuals diagnosed with OCD. OC symptoms at T(0) predicted incident psychotic symptoms at T(2). Similarly, T(0) psychotic symptoms predicted T(2) OC symptoms. The likelihood of persistence of psychotic symptoms or transition to psychotic disorder was higher if early psychosis was accompanied by co-occurring OC symptoms, but not the other way around.",
"To determine whether geriatric patients aged 65 and older on general adult psychiatric units improve as much as younger patients, over what duration their improvement occurs, and their risk of readmission. Cohort study. Inpatient psychiatric unit of an urban, university-affiliated, county hospital from January 1993 through August 1999. A total of 5,929 inpatients. Standardized, routine assessments by attending psychiatrists included the Psychiatric Symptom Assessment Scale (PSAS) on admission and discharge. Discharge scores, length of stay (LOS), and risk of readmission within 1 year were modeled for the groups using multiple regression analyses. Geriatric patients constituted 5% (n=299) of the 5,929 admissions. In multivariate analysis, geriatric status was not associated with discharge PSAS scores. Median LOS was longer for geriatric patients (16 days) than younger patients (10 days, P<.001), especially in older women (14 days) and geriatric patients with mild medical illness severity (13 days vs 11 days in those with moderate-to-severe medical illness). Geriatric patients were as likely to be readmitted within 1 year of discharge as younger patients.",
"Many first-episode patients respond between weeks 8 and 16 of treatment with a single antipsychotic medication. Limited early symptom improvement does not identify those first-episode patients who will not improve with a full 16-week trial with enough accuracy to be clinically useful.",
"This study reports the results of a prospective, naturalistic treatment study of adolescents considered to be in the prodromal (i.e., prepsychotic) phase of schizophrenia. Forty-eight adolescents (mean age = 15.8 years) participating in the initial phase of the Recognition and Prevention (RAP) program (1998-2005) were included in the current report. Individuals were selected from the overall sample (N = 152) if they had: (1) displayed attenuated positive symptoms, (2) been treated pharmacologically for at least 8 weeks, and (3) been followed up for at least 6 months (mean follow-up = 30.5 months). Two types of medication were naturalistically prescribed: antidepressants (N = 20) or second-generation antipsychotics (N = 28), with polypharmacy common. The 2 treatment groups did not differ in baseline symptom profiles, with the exception of disorganized thinking, which was more severe in second-generation antipsychotic-treated adolescents. Twelve of the 48 adolescents (25%) developed a psychotic disorder, with all converters having been prescribed second-generation antipsychotics. There were no conversions among antidepressant-treated adolescents (log-rank chi(2) = 7.36, df = 1, p = .007). Treatment outcome, however, was confounded, since 11 of the 12 converters were nonadherent. Adolescents, in general, were more likely to be nonadherent to second-generation antipsychotics (61%, 17/28) than to antidepressants (20%, 4/20; chi(2) = 7.86, p = .005). Improvement in 3 of 5 positive symptoms over time was significant (p<.001) and similar for both medications. Disorganized thought, however, did not improve regardless of treatment.",
"Currently, there is still a severe lack of methodologically sound empirical studies on acute psychiatric day hospital treatment in German-speaking countries that analyse the effectiveness of this increasingly important mode of service provision. Within a randomised controlled study design implemented at the Department of Psychiatry and Psychotherapy, Dresden University of Technology, 99 general psychiatric patients received conventional inpatient treatment and 92 patients received acute day hospital treatment. At up to four time-points during the index-treatment episode patients were assessed at different levels of outcome: Psychopathology was rated by researchers using the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (24-Item-Version), and patients evaluated their satisfaction with treatment (Patientenbogen zur Behandlungszufriedenheit); at admission and discharge patients also assessed their subjective quality of life (Manchester Assessment of Quality of Life). Mean scale scores of these instruments are used for the intention-to-treat-analysis. Discharge status on these scales as well as mean ratings on these scales within the index-treatment episode serve as measures of effectiveness. For statistically identifying differences between the two settings five linear (co-)variance-analytical models were calculated for each target variable. Four models were adjusted to baseline-rating or to the individual period spent in treatment. Initially, both groups did not differ in their relevant socio-demographic and illness-related features. Day hospital treatment (87,7 days) lasted significantly longer than inpatient treatment (67,8 days). Only results from an unadjusted statistical model as well as from a model adjusted to the individual period of index-hospitalisation demonstrated superior effectiveness of day hospital treatment on the discharge status of psychopathological symptomatology. However, in all statistical models there were no systematic differences of treatment-effectiveness related to satisfaction with treatment and subjective quality of life.",
"The treatment program 'Metacognitive training for patients with schizophrenia' (MCT) addresses cognitive biases assumed to play a crucial role in the pathogenesis of delusions (e.g., jumping to conclusions, theory of mind deficits). The aim of our study was to examine the effectiveness and the feasibility of this intervention targeted to early phases of psychosis (MCT young version). An experimental design included two groups of subjects on the basis of their duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) 'short' (less or equal than 12 months) and 'long' DUP (longer than 12 months), assessed at baseline and after the 4-month intervention. Fifty-six young subjects affected by early psychosis were assessed on psychopathology, social functioning, neurocognitive, and metacognitive measures. The primary outcome was the reduction of psychopathology. Secondary outcomes included reduction of cognitive and emotional dysfunction and improvement of social functioning. At the end of the 4-month MCT, both groups showed significant improvements in many variables: positive symptoms, cognitive functions, as verbal memory, attention and mental flexibility, and metacognitive functions, as cognitive insight. Significant and positive changes were found in theory of mind abilities and social perception.",
"yes. Both motivational and neurocognitive deficits independently contribute to longitudinal functional outcomes assessed 1 year later among patients with schizophrenia. Both of these domains of psychopathology impede functional recovery; hence, it follows that treatments ameliorating each of these symptoms should promote community functioning among individuals with schizophrenia.",
"Functional impairment is characteristic of most individuals with schizophrenia; however, the key variables that undermine community functioning are not well understood. This study evaluated the association between selected clinical variables and one-year longitudinal functional outcomes in patients with schizophrenia. The sample included 754 patients with schizophrenia who completed both baseline and one-year follow-up visits in the CATIE study. Patients were evaluated with a comprehensive battery of assessments capturing symptom severity and cognitive performance among other variables. The primary outcome variable was functional status one-year postbaseline measured using the Heinrichs-Carpenter Quality of Life Scale. Factor analysis of negative symptom items revealed two factors reflecting diminished expression and amotivation. Multivariate regression modeling revealed several significant independent predictors of longitudinal functioning scores. The strongest predictors were baseline amotivation and neurocognition. Both amotivation and neurocognition also had independent predictive value for each of the domains of functioning assessed (e.g., vocational).",
"Earlier age at onset of psychosis (AOP) has been associated with poor social adjustment and clinical outcome. Genetic and environmental factors such as obstetric complications, parental history of psychosis, advanced paternal age at time of birth, low birth weight and gestational age, and use of drugs have been described as bringing AOP forward. This study aims to evaluate the relationship between AOP and these factors in a sample of first episode of psychosis (FEP) patients. Clinical and sociodemographic data, age at FEP, age of parents at birth, parental history of psychosis, drug-use habits of the mother during pregnancy and of the patient before psychotic onset, and Lewis and Murray obstetric complication scale were obtained from 90 patients with FEP. Statistical analysis was performed by means of Pearson correlations, Chi-square tests, Student T-test analyses and a linear regression model using SPSS version 22. Pre-eclampsia, need for incubator at birth, use of forceps, parental history of psychosis, and low birth weight were associated with an earlier AOP. Use of forceps and birth weight are the variables which best predict AOP in FEP. Stimulant drugs, which were mostly used together with cannabis and cocaine, were the only substances associated with an earlier AOP.",
"Information on outcomes of acute inpatient care in routine psychiatric practice is scant. In particular, it is uncertain to what extent short hospitalization can produce clinically meaningful changes.AIM: Our aim was to estimate the symptomatic outcome in a representative sample of patients admitted for short treatment to general hospital psychiatric units in Italy. Patients were assessed at admission and discharge using 24-item Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale (BPRS). Reliable change index was calculated to estimate the proportion of change attributable to measurement error and a cut-off score of 38 was adopted to identify the patients who showed clinically significant change. Average length of stay was 5.7 days. Mean BPRS score dropped from 53.2 on admission to 41.5 at discharge, showing statistically significant improvement with an effect size of 0.80. However, reliable change was achieved by 24.7% of patients and clinically meaningful change by 13.6%.",
"This study investigated the relationship between patient-rated unmet needs and subjective quality of life using routine outcome data. 265 mental health service patients from South Verona were assessed using the Camberwell Assessment of Need, the Lancashire Quality of Life Profile, and other standardised assessments of symptoms, disability, function and service satisfaction. At 1-year follow-up, 166 patients were still in contact, of whom 121 patients (73%) were re-assessed. Higher baseline quality of life was associated with being male, a diagnosis of psychosis, higher disability, higher satisfaction with care, fewer staff-rated or patient-rated unmet needs, and fewer patient-rated met needs (accounting for 40% of the variance). Specifically, fewer baseline patient-rated unmet needs were cross-sectionally associated with a higher quality of life (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.12 to -0.04). Apart from its baseline value, the only baseline predictor of follow-up QoL was patient-rated unmet need (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.21 to -0.09), accounting for 58% of the variance in follow-up quality of life. Graphical chain modelling confirmed this association.",
"Participants were recruited from early psychosis intervention programmes and community mental health clinics in British Columbia, Canada, and completed the following measures: client's assessment of strengths, interests, and goals, brief psychiatric rating scale, Beck depression inventory and California verbal learning task. Multiple linear regressions revealed that: more negative symptoms and higher depression predicted a less active social life; more negative symptoms and poorer short-term verbal learning ability predicted lower vocational functioning; and more negative symptoms and male gender predicted lower independent living skills.",
"The pathway from subclinical psychotic experiences to need for care may depend on type of psychotic experience, level of associated distress, and previous experience of psychosis. In a general population sample with no previous Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders , Revised Third Edition , psychotic disorder (n = 4722), 83 subjects displayed at least one psychotic experience. Within the group of 83, subjects with (n = 24) and without need for care (n = 59) were compared. Presence of psychotic experiences at younger ages had been assessed at earlier interviews. Of 7 different psychotic experiences, only hearing voices, nonverbal hallucinations, and passivity phenomena were significantly associated with need for care. These associations were largely explained by the distress associated with the psychotic experience, but whether individuals had had psychotic experiences at earlier ages did not matter.",
"There is increasing pressure on mental health providers to reduce the duration of treatments, while retaining level of quality and effectiveness. The risk is that the population is underserved and therefore needs new treatment episodes. The primary aim of this study was to investigate whether duration of treatment and return into mental health care were related. This study examined Dutch patients with an initial treatment episode in 2009 or 2010 in specialized mental health settings for depressive disorder (N = 85,754). Follow-up data about treatment episodes were available up until 2013. The data set included demographic (age, gender), and clinical factors (comorbidity with other DSM-IV Axis; scores on the 'Global Assessment of Functioning'). Cox regression analyses were used to assess whether duration of treatment and relapse into mental health care were related. The majority of patients did not return into mental health care (86 %). Patients with a shorter duration of treatment (5-250 min; 251-500 min and 751-1000 min) were slightly more likely to return (reference group:>1000 min) (HR 1.19 95 % CI 1.13-1.26; HR 1.11 95 % CI 1.06-1.17; HR 1.18 95 % CI 1.11-1.25), adjusted for demographic and clinical variables.",
"yes. BHI occurs in a minority of patients following their first psychotic episode and is associated with good outcome across clinical, functional and cognitive domains.",
"The overwhelming majority of individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia at ages 25-34 in an epidemiological survey were present in the Psychiatric Hospitalization Registry. However, the assessment of life-time rates of schizophrenia at these ages is problematic because some future cases are asymptomatic, others have premorbid non-psychotic disorders, while in others it is difficult to differentiate between affective disorders and schizophrenia. Availability of psychiatric services and hospitalization policy must be considered when generalizing these findings to other countries.",
"The objective of this study was to evaluate whether quality of life (QoL), as measured by the SF36 and the Quality of Life Interview (QoLI), is predictive of relapse for patients with schizophrenia. Using data from a multicenter cohort study conducted in France, Germany, and the United-Kingdom (EuroSC), we performed Cox proportional-hazards models to estimate the associations between QoL at baseline and the occurrence of relapse over a 24-month period, with adjustment for age; gender; positive, negative and general psychopathology PANSS factors; functioning (GAF); medication; side-effects; and compliance measures. Our sample consisted of 1,024 patients; 540 (53%) had at least one period of relapse, and 484 (47%) had no relapse. QoL levels were the most important features predicting relapse. We found that a higher level of QoL predicts a lower rate of relapse at 24 months: HR = 0.82 (0.74; 0.91), p < 0.001 for the SF36-Physical Composite Score; and HR = 0.88 (0.81; 0.96), p = 0.002 for the SF36-Mental Composite Score. These results were not confirmed using the QoLI: HR = 0.91 (0.81; 1.01), p = 0.083. To a lesser extent, older age, better functioning, and a higher compliance score also predict a lower rate of relapse at 24 months (HRs from 0.97 to 0.98; p < 0.05).",
"To estimate the prevalence and correlates of clinician-diagnosed DSM-IV nonaffective psychosis (NAP) in a national household survey. Data came from the United States National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R). A screen for NAP was followed by blinded sub-sample clinical reappraisal interviews. Logistic regression was used to impute clinical diagnoses to respondents who were not re-interviewed. The method of Multiple Imputation (MI) was used to estimate prevalence and correlates. Clinician-diagnosed NAP was well predicted by the screen (area under the curve [AUC] = .80). The MI prevalence estimate of NAP (standard error in parentheses) is 5.0 (2.6) per 1000 population lifetime and 3.0 (2.2) per 1000 past 12 months. The vast majority (79.4%) of lifetime and 12-month (63.7%) cases met criteria for other DSM-IV hierarchy-free disorders. Fifty-eight percent of 12-month cases were in treatment, most in the mental health specialty sector.",
"Studies in first episode psychosis samples about status of cardiovascular risk factors have shown discordant results. We aimed to determine the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease in a sample of first episode psychosis patients referred to an early intervention clinic and compared the same with age, gender, and race matched controls from the U.S. National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey (NHANES). We conducted a cross-sectional analysis of baseline data of 56 subjects enrolled in first episode psychosis clinic from April 2006 to January 2010. This sample was compared with age, gender, and race matched 145 individuals drawn from NHANES 2005-2006 database. Sociodemographic and clinical variables were collected. Physical examination including laboratory evaluation was used to screen for common medical illnesses. The 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease was calculated by using a tool developed by the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP-ATP III). There were elevated rates of smoking (46%) and hypertension (11%) albeit statistically significant differences from the control could not be demonstrated for these measures or weight, body mass index, or total or HDL cholesterol, fasting plasma glucose, status of diabetes and impaired fasting plasma glucose, HbA1C level. The 10-year median (range) risk of developing coronary heart disease in patients and controls was 1 (0-5)% and 0 (0-9)% respectively. The difference was not statistically significant.",
"Mood-incongruent psychosis that occurs during the first manic episode appears to predict an increased likelihood of persistent psychotic symptoms during the subsequent eight months. This persistence of psychosis is associated with a worse overall course of illness as compared to patients without mood-incongruent psychosis.",
"In the face of increasing volume of emergency department (ED) patients with primary psychiatric illness and increasing length of stay (LOS), a department of psychiatry initiated a program whereby faculty members of the department of psychiatry from a hospital conducted rounds in the ED each weekday on these patients. A retrospective data review was performed to assess the effect of these rounds on the LOS and disposition of these patients. The LOS and dispositions of subjects before and after the initiation of psychiatry rounds were compared, with a 2-month washout period between. Subjects had a primary psychiatric diagnosis with a LOS of 12 hours or greater. The LOS and disposition of each subject was queried from the hospital data system. Quantile regression analysis and Fisher's exact test were used as appropriate. There were 355 subjects in the preimplementation period and 512 in the postimplementation period. The proportion of patients discharged remained unchanged (preimplementation 49.6%, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 44.3 to 54.9; postimplementation 49.0%, 95% CI = 44.6 to 53.4), but more patients were admitted to the hospital (24.2%, 95% CI = 19.9 to 29.0 vs. 32.8, 95% CI = 28.8 to 37.1) and fewer were transferred to other psychiatric facilities (25.6%, 95% CI = 21.2 to 30.5 vs. 18.0% 95% CI = 14.7 to 21.6; p = 0.005 by Fisher's exact test). Quantile regression demonstrated that among subjects with the longest LOS, those in the postimplementation group experienced a reduction in their waiting times.",
"Evidence for an association between duration of untreated illness (DUI) with clinical and functional outcome or brain volume (change) in schizophrenia patients is inconclusive. We aimed to investigate the relationship between DUI, outcome and brain volume at illness onset or brain volume change during the first five years of the illness in first-episode patients. Magnetic resonance images were acquired at baseline (T0) and after 5-year (T5) of 57 schizophrenia patients. Correlations were calculated in patients between brain volume (change), DUI and outcome variables. We found no significant correlation between DUI and brain volume (change) in schizophrenia patients. A longer DUI was significantly correlated with higher PANSS scores at T0 and T5, and with higher scores on the Camberwell Assessment of Need scale at T5. Baseline volume of the cerebrum and lateral ventricles, and cerebellum volume (change) were associated with PANSS scores at T0 and T5.",
"The study had a cross-sectional correlational design. A total of 33 patients with early psychosis (within 3 years of first psychotic episode) and 24 first-degree relative carers (all parents) completed measures of mood, expressed emotion and negative experiences of caregiving. Social cognition measures of theory of mind and emotion recognition were also collected. Patient perceptions of carer criticism were related to increased anxiety and depression. Carer negative experiences of caregiving were related to higher levels of expressed emotion, anxiety and depression. Both patients and carers showed impaired performance on social cognition tasks. However, patient social cognition was not related to perceptions of carer criticism or symptoms. Carer social cognition was not related to expressed emotion or carer burden.",
"This study aimed to replicate findings that length of episode prior to adequate antidepressant treatment (the 'no-treatment interval') and premorbid neuroticism predict time to remission from the institution of adequate treatment for depression. Eighty-three inpatients meeting ICD-10 criteria for a depressive illness were entered into an 18-month prospective follow-up study of illness course. Subjects were assessed using the Schedules for Clinical Assessment in Neuropsychiatry, Maudsley Personality Inventory (MPI) and the Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HRSD). Remission was defined as an HRSD score of<8 for 2 consecutive weeks. Twenty-two patients (27%) remained depressed 12 months after the onset of adequate treatment. Significantly longer times to remission were predicted by a longer no-treatment interval and higher premorbid neuroticism scores. Adequate antidepressant treatment was commenced prior to admission in half the cases, requiring a retrospective assessment of illness course prior to study entry. Twenty-four patients (29%) had not remitted at the time of completion of the MPI.",
"The duration of untreated depression (DUD) might have a substantial impact on the clinical outcomes; however, there are important knowledge gaps including the effects on disability and potential differences between first-episode and recurrent episodes of depression. We recruited 121 outpatients with first episode and recurrent major depression, and conducted prospective clinical assessments over six months. Clinical outcomes included response to antidepressant therapy, remission and changes in disability. Patients with a DUD of six months or shorter were more frequently young, unemployed and had higher levels of physical illnesses than those with a longer DUD (all p<0.05). A shorter DUD was associated with significantly higher odds of response at 12 weeks (adjusted odds ratio 2.8; 95% CI: 1.2-6.8) and remission at 24 weeks (4.1; 95% CI: 1.6-10.5) after adjusting for relevant confounders. Changes in disability ratings were analyzed with growth curve analysis and showed steeper declines among those with a shorter DUD. The associations of DUD on clinical outcomes were evident both in patients with first-episode and recurrent depression.",
"Claims-based indicators of follow-up within seven and 30 days after psychiatric discharge have face validity as quality measures: early follow-up may improve disease management and guide appropriate service use. Yet these indicators are rarely examined empirically. This study assessed their association with subsequent health care utilization for adults with comorbid conditions. Postdischarge follow-up and subsequent utilization were examined among adults enrolled in North Carolina Medicaid who were discharged with claims-based diagnoses of depression or schizophrenia and not readmitted within 30 days. A total of 24,934 discharges (18,341 individuals) in fiscal years 2008-2010 were analyzed. Follow-up was categorized as occurring within 0-7 days, 8-30 days, or none in 30 days. Outcomes in the subsequent six months included psychotropic medication claims, adherence (proportion of days covered), number of hospital admissions, emergency department visits, and outpatient visits. Follow-up within seven days was associated with greater medication adherence and outpatient utilization, compared with no follow-up in 30 days. This was observed for both follow-up with a mental health provider and with any provider. Adults receiving mental health follow-up within seven days had equivalent, or lower, subsequent inpatient and emergency department utilization as those without follow-up within 30 days. However, adults receiving follow-up with any provider within seven days were more likely than those with no follow-up to have an inpatient admission or emergency department visit in the subsequent six months. Few differences in subsequent utilization were observed between mental health follow-up within seven days versus eight to 30 days.",
"Using a retrospective cohort design, we compared the early educational performance of 6957 National Service male conscripts. The presence of mental illness was assessed using the Composite International Diagnostic Interview. Academic performance was assessed using the results of a standardized national examination after 6 years of primary education. Adjusting for ethnicity, the scores from this examination revealed that those with schizophrenia spectrum disorders scored significantly lower than those without any mental illness.",
"The ultra high risk (UHR) for psychosis criteria have been validated in a number of studies. However, it is not known whether particular UHR criteria (Attenuated Psychotic Symptoms (APS), Brief Limited Intermittent Psychotic Symptoms (BLIPS) or Trait vulnerability criteria), or combination of criteria, is associated with a higher risk of transition to psychosis. The current study investigated this issue over a 6-month follow-up period. We hypothesised that the risk of transition would increase in the following order: Trait alone<APS alone<APS+Trait<BLIPS. Data on UHR intake criteria and transition to psychosis status at 6 months were analysed for UHR patients seen at the PACE clinic, Orygen Youth Health between January 2000 and November 2008. A total of 928 new referrals were accepted into the PACE clinic over this period of whom 817 (88%) had baseline information available for analysis. The percentage of subjects who presented with APS, Trait and BLIPS were 83%, 27% and 4%, respectively. When the two intermediate groups (APS alone and APS+Trait) were combined, there was evidence that the risk of transition increased in the order of Trait alone<APS<BLIPS (p=0.024, adjusted analysis).",
"This observational study examined the association between continuing outpatient care for a psychiatric disorder, a substance use disorder, or both and decreased risk of readmission to psychiatric care after an index episode of inpatient psychiatric treatment. Treatment records from all patients with co-occurring substance use and psychiatric disorders discharged from an inpatient psychiatric setting in the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) between July 1, 2004, and June 30, 2005 (N=26,826), were used to determine the impact of psychiatric and substance use disorder continuing care on readmission to inpatient psychiatric treatment in the 90 days after discharge. Over 23% (6,280 of 26,826) of patients with both a psychiatric disorder and a substance use disorder who received inpatient psychiatric treatment in the VA were readmitted for additional psychiatric care within 90 days of discharge. Survival analyses indicated that receiving continuing care for a substance use disorder (hazard ratio [HR]=.84, 95% confidence interval [CI]=.77-.92, p<.001) in the 30 days after discharge from the index episode was associated with a lower likelihood of rehospitalization. Psychiatric continuing care was not associated with risk of rehospitalization. A supplementary analysis indicated that substance use disorder continuing care was still associated with a reduced risk of rehospitalization over the 12 months after discharge, although the overall magnitude of the association was diminished (HR=.92, 95% CI=.86-.99, p=.02).",
"To compare outcome over 5 years for patients who participated in multi family groups (MFGs) to those who refused or were not offered participation. Of 301 first episode psychotic patients aged 15-65 years, 147 participated in MFGs. Outcome was measured by drop-out rates, positive and negative syndrome scale (PANSS) symptom scores, and duration of psychotic episodes during the follow-up period. Multi family group participants had a significantly lower drop-out rates at 5-year follow-up than patients who did not participate. However, the MFG participants had significantly less improvement in PANSS positive and excitative symptoms and had significantly longer duration of psychotic symptoms during the follow-up period.",
"Very few patients were discharged to independent accommodations after 1 year. The main variables associated with a higher HD likelihood were: illness duration of<15 years and effective social support during the previous year. Lower severity of psychopathology and higher working skill levels were also associated with a significantly greater HD likelihood.",
"High prevalence of trauma has been reported in psychosis. While role of trauma as a risk factor for developing psychosis is still debated, its negative impact on outcome has been described. Few studies have explored this issue in first-episode psychosis (FEP) patients. We assessed rate of stressful events, as well as premorbid and outcome correlates of past sexual and/or physical abuse (SPA) in an epidemiological FEP patients cohort. The Early Psychosis Prevention and Intervention Centre admitted 786 FEP patients between 1998 and 2000. Data were collected from patients' files using a standardized questionnaire. A total of 704 files were available, 43 excluded because of a nonpsychotic diagnosis at end point and 3 due to missing data regarding past stressful events; 658 patients were analyzed. A total of 83% patients had been exposed to at least one stressful event and 34% to SPA. SPA patients were more likely to have presented other psychiatric disorders before psychosis onset (posttraumatic stress disorder, substance use disorder), to have made suicide attempts in the past, and to have had poorer premorbid functional levels. Additionally, SPA patients had higher rate of comorbid diagnosis at program entry and were more likely to attempt suicide during treatment.",
"Preschizophrenic children who merit psychiatric referral are claimed to have a particularly malevolent illness when the psychosis develops later. The 21 years outcome of a sample of such children was investigated. Fifty-one children who attended psychiatric services, and were later diagnosed as having schizophrenia, were followed up a mean of 21 years later. Baseline childhood demographic, clinical and putative aetiological characteristics were identified from the case notes. Follow-up assessment evaluated clinical symptoms, social functioning and service utilization. The predictive value of baseline factors on outcome was examined. Outcome was poor, and seven (14%) of the subjects were deceased. Childhood IQ was strongly predictive of social outcome (F=5.1, P=0.01) and service utilization (F=5.2, P=0.01), but not clinical symptoms. No other factors predicted outcome.",
"Cognitive impairment is considered to be a core characteristic of schizophrenia. The relationship between psychosis and cognitive deterioration, however, remains unclear. This longitudinal study investigated the neuropsychological functioning of patients before and after their first psychotic episode. Cognitive functioning of participants who later developed a psychosis was compared to that of people at ultra-high risk (UHR) for psychosis who did not develop psychosis at follow-up and healthy controls.MethodParticipants were 41 persons at UHR for psychosis (the UHR group), of whom 17 developed psychosis between the first and second assessment. Seventeen healthy controls were included in the study. Cognitive performance was assessed at intake (T0) and again after 18 months (T1). The areas of cognitive functioning assessed include verbal memory and learning, visuospatial working memory, executive function, sustained attention and motor speed. The transition group did not perform significantly worse at the second assessment than at the first on any of the outcome measures. The UHR group performed better on a verbal learning and memory test at T1 compared to T0. At T0, the control group scored significantly better than the UHR group and the transition group on the verbal learning and memory test and the verbal fluency test.",
"To determine the effect on health outcomes of enrollment of chronically mentally ill Medicaid recipients in prepaid plans vs traditional fee-for-service Medicaid. A randomized controlled trial. Clients who were randomly assigned to prepaid care were then permitted to choose among four capitated health plans. Clients returned to fee-for-service care at the end of the demonstration. The Medicaid Demonstration Project in Hennepin County, Minnesota, the urban center of which is Minneapolis. Seven hundred thirty-nine Medicaid clients who were classified as having chronic mental illness on the basis of Medicaid claims. Clients were interviewed at baseline (time 1) and at two follow-up points. Data were available for 96% of participants at the end of the intervention (time 2). Average duration of follow-up was 11 months. A subset of 370 clients with schizophrenia was followed up 11 months after the return of the prepaid group to fee-for-service care (time 3). General health status, physical functioning, social functioning, and psychiatric symptoms, assessed using the Schedule of Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia-Change version, the Global Assessment Scale, and indicators of community function. No significant differences between prepaid and fee-for-service groups in general health or psychiatric symptoms from baseline to time 2. After regression adjustment, 12% fewer clients in the prepaid group reported being victimized (P less than .01). At the end of time 3, the regression-adjusted Global Assessment Scale scores had worsened by 7.6 points more in the prepaid group in comparison with the fee-for-service group (P less than .02).",
"It was investigated whether the reported association between representations of parental rearing style and psychosis does not represent a main effect, but instead is a proxy indicator of the true underlying risk factor of early trauma. In a general population sample of 4045 individuals aged 18-64 years, first ever onset of positive psychotic symptoms at 3-year follow-up was assessed using the Composite International Diagnostic Interview and clinical interviews if indicated. Representations of parental rearing style were measured with the Parental Bonding Instrument (PBI). Lower baseline level of PBI parental care predicted onset of psychotic symptoms 2 years later. However, when trauma was included in the equation, a strong main effect of trauma emerged at the expense of the effect size of PBI low care.",
"The presence of a prospective association between cognition and functional outcome in first episode patients with schizophrenia is much debated. Associations between Intelligence Quotient (IQ) measures and functional outcome were assessed at the first hospitalization and after 10 years follow-up. Functional outcome was associated with estimated premorbid IQ and IQ at 10-year follow-up, but not with IQ assessed at first hospitalization.",
"Although much prior research has found a consistently positive volume-outcome relationship, there is scanty documentation on this issue in mental healthcare. This study examines the association between a hospitals' psychiatric inpatient volume and 30-day readmission rates. Using administrative data from Taiwan's National Health Insurance Research Database for 2003, the likelihood of 30-day readmission is examined relative to the hospital's volume of voluntary psychiatric admissions and total bed-days. As hospital volume increases, so too does the 30-day readmission rates for patients with schizophrenia, bipolar disorder and major depressive disorders.",
"The prevailing standard of care in the field involves background assumptions about the importance of prolonged use of antipsychotic medications for all schizophrenia (SZ) patients. However, do all SZ patients need antipsychotics indefinitely? Are there factors that help to identify which SZ patients can enter into prolonged periods of recovery without antipsychotics? This 20-year longitudinal research studied these issues. A total of 139 early young psychotic patients from the Chicago Follow-up Study, including 70 patients with SZ syndromes and 69 with mood disorders, were assessed, prospectively, at the acute phase and then followed up six times over the next 20 years. Patients were assessed with standardized instruments for major symptoms, psychosocial functioning, personality, attitudinal variables, neurocognition and treatment. At each follow-up, 30-40% of SZ patients were no longer on antipsychotics. Starting at the 4.5-year follow-ups and continuing thereafter, SZ patients not on antipsychotics for prolonged periods were significantly less likely to be psychotic and experienced more periods of recovery; they also had more favorable risk and protective factors. SZ patients off antipsychotics for prolonged periods did not relapse more frequently.",
"To evaluate the predictive validity of early response in first-episode schizophrenia within a 1-year follow-up trial and to compare the resulting cutoff to the currently proposed early response definition (20% improvement by week 2). Receiver operator characteristic (ROC) analyses were used to identify the predictive validity of the psychopathological improvement of treatment from week 1 to week 8, regarding the maintenance of response until week 52 as well as to define the most reasonable cutoff in 132 first-episode patients. The Youden Index (maximum of sensitivity and specificity) was used to compare the newly developed and the commonly used early response definition. Starting with week 6, a reasonable validity to predict the maintenance of response was found (area under the curve = 0.721) with the best fitting cutoff being a 51.6% PANSS total score improvement. Using this cutoff 74 patients (56%) were correctly identified to become responder and maintain response during follow-up (sensitivity: 0.747). The Youden Index was higher applying the newly developed early response cutoff featuring higher specificity compared to the commonly used early response definition.",
"A growing number of severely ill patients require long-term care in non-hospital residential facilities (RFs). Despite the magnitude of this development, longitudinal studies surveying fairly large resident samples and yielding important information on this population have been very few. The aims of the study were (1) to describe the socio-demographic, clinical, and treatment-related characteristics of RF patients during an index period in 2010; (2) to identify predictors and characteristics associated with discharge at the 1-year follow-up; (3) to evaluate clinicians' predictions about each patient's likelihood of home discharge (HD). A prospective observational cohort study was conducted involving all patients staying in 23 medium-long-term RFs of the St John of God Order with a primary psychiatric diagnosis. A comprehensive set of socio-demographic, clinical, and treatment-related information was gathered and standardized assessments (BPRS, HONOS, PSP, PHI, SLOF, RBANS) were administered to each participant. Logistic regression analyses were run to identify independent discharge predictors. The study involved 403 patients (66.7% male), with a mean age of 49 years (SD = 10). The participants' average illness duration was 23 years; median value for length of stay in the RF was 2.2 years. The most frequent diagnosis was schizophrenia (67.5%). 104 (25.8%) were discharged: 13.6% to home, 8.2% to other RFs, 2.2% to supported housing, and 1.5% to prison. Clinicians' predictions about HD were generally erroneous.",
"To examine neuropsychological performance as a possible predictor of course and outcome in first-episode psychotic (FEP) patients. A group of consecutive FEP patients (n = 120) tested with Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scales-Revised (WAIS-R) at baseline was compared with a healthy group (n = 30) matched for age, education and gender. Relationship between WAIS-R and both Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale and Global Assessment of Function (GAF) ratings were studied at baseline and at 1- and 3-year follow-ups. The performance of FEP patients was significantly lower (P < 0.001) than that of healthy comparison subjects on all WAIS-R subtests except for Information and Comprehension. The WAIS-R scores of patients with schizophrenia syndromes (DSM-IV) were lower than those of patients with non-schizophrenia syndromes on Block Design. Low WAIS-R Full-Scale IQ scores in FEP patients predicted the presence of negative symptoms at 1-year follow-up and of low GAF ratings at 3-year follow-up.",
"To investigate whether the general practitioners' (GP) diagnosis of medically unexplained symptoms (MUS) and/or the diagnosis functional disorders (FD) can predict the patients' 2-year outcome in relation to physical and mental health and health care utilisation. Furthermore, to identify relevant clinical factors which may help the GP predict the patient's outcome. The study included 38 GPs and 1785 consecutive patients who presented a new health problem. The GPs completed a questionnaire on diagnosis for each patient. Patients completed the Common Mental Disorder Questionnaire (CMDQ) and the SF-36 questionnaire at baseline and after 24 months. A stratified sample of 701 patients was diagnosed with a psychiatric research interview. Data on health cost was obtained from national registers. A FD diagnosis following the research interview was associated with a decline in physical health (OR 3.27(95%CI 1.84-5.81)), but this was not the case with MUS diagnosed by the GP. MUS was associated with a poor outcome on mental health (OR 2.16 (95%CI 1.07-4.31)). More than 4 symptoms were associated with a poor outcome on physical health (OR 5.35 (95%CI 2.28-12.56)) and on mental health (OR 2.17(95%CI 1.02-4.59)). Neither FD nor MUS were associated with higher total health care use. However, FD (OR 2.31(95%CI 1.24-4.31)) and MUS (OR 1.98(95%CI 1.04-3.75)) was associated with increased cost in primary care.",
"Specialized early intervention by a team providing assertive community treatment (ACT) is beneficial to the recovery, housing, and employment of individuals with schizophrenia, but few studies have examined its effect on social support. This study assessed whether the ACT model of care was related to clinical and social outcomes among patients who had experienced a first episode of psychosis. The sample was drawn from the Lambeth Early Onset Trial, a study of 144 patients in the United Kingdom who sought treatment for a first episode of psychosis between January 2000 and October 2001 and who were randomly assigned to a specialized early intervention modeled on ACT or standard care. The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale, the Global Assessment of Functioning, and the Significant Others Scale were administered at six-month and 18-month follow-ups. Data on social support were available at both follow-ups for 57 patients assigned to specialized care and 50 patients assigned to standard care. The two groups were similar in personal characteristics, relationship status, and living arrangements at baseline and at six-month follow-up, but by 18 months, patients in specialized care reported having a higher mean±SD number of significant others in their social networks than did standard care patients (2.40±1.20 and 1.71±1.06, respectively; p=.01). They also achieved superior clinical outcomes at 18 months, and these outcomes were associated with network size.",
"Mood-incongruent psychosis during the course of bipolar disorder has been associated with poor outcome. However, it remains unknown whether this is secondary to persistent affective or psychotic symptoms or both. Fifty patients with bipolar disorder between the ages of 16 and 45 years were recruited during their first psychiatric hospitalization for mania. These patients were evaluated using structured and semi-structured clinical instruments then followed longitudinally. Outcomes during the first eight months of follow-up were compared between patients with mood-incongruent psychosis and those without (i.e., patients with mood-congruent psychosis or no psychosis) during the index manic episode. Specifically, ratings of the percent of weeks during follow-up with psychosis and affective syndromes and symptoms, as well as ratings of global outcome (GAF), were compared. Patients with mood-incongruent psychosis at the index hospitalization exhibited significantly more weeks during follow-up with both mood-incongruent and mood-congruent psychotic symptoms than patients without mood-incongruent psychosis. Mood-incongruent psychosis was also associated with poorer overall functioning during the outcome interval. The groups did not differ in the percent of weeks with affective syndromes or symptoms. Treatment during follow-up did not differ between groups and was not associated with outcome variables in general.",
"Examination using the SCAN questionnaire cannot be used as prognosis of the length of stay either in day hospital or in stationary wards. Duration of hospitalization depends mainly on the diagnostic category (anxiety and affective disorders are associated with shorter hospital stays than psychotic disorders) irrespective of the number of diagnoses a patient received. It also depends on local therapeutic traditions and preferences (dominance of long-term care and the rehabilitation model of treatment instead of active acute intervention aiming at quick discharge from the hospital).",
"If both positive and negative dimensions of schizophrenia independently influence need for care, a higher estimate of the comorbidity between these dimensions is expected in clinical samples than would be the case if non-clinical cases were investigated (i.e. Berkson's bias). The present paper investigates whether positive and negative dimensions independently contribute to mental health care use in a general population sample. A prospective cohort study was conducted, in which 7076 individuals were interviewed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview Schedule at baseline and 1 and 3 years later. Lifetime positive and negative psychotic experiences (PPE, NPE) were assessed at baseline. Mental health care use (MHC) was assessed at baseline, and prospectively 1 and 3 years later. The rating of MHC was strongly associated with NPE and PPE, both retrospectively and prospectively and the effects of both variables remained strong and significant in the analyses with both variables included.",
"The validity of a sub-classification of affective psychosis according to the mood congruence of psychotic features has been questioned in the literature. While some authors have found a correlation between such symptoms and outcome, their predictive value was rather limited in these studies. Prospective study of 108 subjects presenting with a first DSM-III-R manic episode with psychotic features to determine the frequency of different types of psychotic symptoms and to measure the predictive utility of mood incongruent psychotic symptoms (MIPS) and first-rank Schneiderian symptoms (FRSS) during the first episode for a 12-month outcome. Outcome was measured by the level of positive, negative, depressive symptoms, and psychosocial functioning. Duration of affective and psychotic symptoms was also assessed. Patients presented with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms. The presence of MIPS at baseline was significantly correlated with a longer persistence of psychotic symptoms, but not with poorer outcome at 12 months. By contrast, the presence of FRSS at baseline was significantly associated with earlier onset of psychosis as well as increased severity of negative symptoms and poorer psychosocial functioning after 12 months.",
"An association between social disadvantage and established psychosis is well documented in the literature, but there remains a lack of data on the social circumstances of patients before they became ill. We investigated whether social disadvantage at, and prior to, first contact with psychiatric services, is associated with psychosis. We collected information on social disadvantage in childhood and adulthood from 278 cases presenting with their first episode of psychosis to the South London and Maudsley National Health Service Foundation Trust and from 226 controls recruited from the local population. Three markers of childhood social disadvantage and 3 markers of disadvantage in adulthood were analyzed. Long term separation from, and death of, a parent before the age of 17 years were both strongly associated with a 2- to 3-fold-increased odds of psychosis. Cases were also significantly more likely to report 2 or more markers of adult social disadvantage than healthy controls (OR = 9.03) at the time of the first presentation with psychosis, independent of a number of confounders. When we repeated these analyses for long-standing adult social disadvantage, we found that the strength of the association decreased but still remained significant for 1 year (OR = 5.67) and 5 years (OR = 2.57) prior to the first contact.",
"It remains unclear whether very early onset psychosis (VEOP; ≤12years of age) and early onset psychosis (EOP; onset 13-17years of age) are homogeneous in their clinical presentation. We investigated the predictive value of age of psychosis onset for severity, functioning and demographic variation by: 1) comparing groups based on traditional cut-offs for age of psychosis onset, and 2) using receiver operating characteristic (ROC)-curve calculations, without a priori age of onset cut-offs. Participants were 88 (45 female, 43 male) children and adolescents with a recent onset of psychosis (age range=6.7-17.5years; M=13.74, SD=2.37). The VEOP group had significantly shorter duration of untreated illness and untreated psychosis, and lower functioning than the EOP group. The VEOP and EOP groups did not differ significantly on gender proportion, urbanicity, psychotic diagnosis, family history of psychotic disorder, psychotic, depressive and anxiety symptoms or IQ. When applying ROC-curves to the lowest three quartiles of positive psychotic symptoms scores, the optimal age-cut-off was 14.0years (sensitivity=0.62; specificity=0.75). For the highest quartile of functioning scores, the optimal differentiating cut-off for age of psychosis onset was 14.7years (sensitivity=0.71; specificity=0.70).",
"Few studies have addressed the implication of the duration of untreated illness (DUI) on the clinical outcome of mood disorders. Although not focusing on DUI, previous findings suggest that the longer it takes to start appropriate treatment, the worse will be the evolution of depressive disorder. We sought to determine the effect of the duration of untreated episode (DUE) on 1) rates of response to treatment, 2) time to attain a sustained response and 3) rates of remission of MDD, dealing specially with first-depressive episodes. 141 patients with MDD were grouped into long DUE (>8 weeks) and short DUE (< or =8). Statistical analyses were performed to determine differences in outcome variables. The same analyses were repeated by splitting the sample between first-episode and recurrent depression. The percentage of patients who achieved a sustained response was significantly higher in the group with a short DUE [OR=2.6; 95% CI 1.3-5.1]. Survival analyses showed that patients with a long DUE delayed longer time to attain a sustained response [39 vs. 20 days, p=0.012]. Once the sample was split, these results were even more pronounced in the subsample of first-depressive episode patients.",
"Negative symptoms have been previously reported during the psychosis prodrome, however our understanding of their relationship with treatment-phase negative symptoms remains unclear. We report the prevalence of psychosis prodrome onset negative symptoms (PONS) and ascertain whether these predict negative symptoms at first presentation for treatment. Presence of expressivity or experiential negative symptom domains was established at first presentation for treatment using the Scale for Assessment of Negative Symptoms (SANS) in 373 individuals with a first episode psychosis. PONS were established using the Beiser Scale. The relationship between PONS and negative symptoms at first presentation was ascertained and regression analyses determined the relationship independent of confounding. PONS prevalence was 50.3% in the schizophrenia spectrum group (n=155) and 31.2% in the non-schizophrenia spectrum group (n=218). In the schizophrenia spectrum group, PONS had a significant unadjusted (χ(2)=10.41, P<0.001) and adjusted (OR=2.40, 95% CI=1.11-5.22, P=0.027) association with first presentation experiential symptoms, however this relationship was not evident in the non-schizophrenia spectrum group. PONS did not predict expressivity symptoms in either diagnostic group.",
"Time to all-cause treatment discontinuation is considered a composite proxy measure of treatment efficacy, safety, and tolerability. Longer time to discontinuation of antipsychotic medication for any cause has been shown to be associated with greater symptom improvements in the treatment of schizophrenia. This study examines whether longer time to all-cause medication discontinuation is also linked to better functional outcomes. Using pooled data from 4 randomized, double-blind antipsychotic trials of 24- to 28-weeks' duration, this study examined the association between time to all-cause treatment discontinuation and functional outcomes, as assessed by a disease-specific, clinician-rated measure (Quality of Life Scale [QLS]) and a generic, patient-reported measure (Medical Outcomes Study Short Form 36 [SF-36]). Patients in these trials had a DSM-IV diagnosis of schizophrenia, schizophreniform disorder, or schizoaffective disorder. This post hoc analysis used Pearson partial correlations to assess relationships between time to treatment discontinuation and changes in functional scores, adjusting for baseline scores. Repeated measures analyses were also conducted to compare post-baseline functional outcome change over time between completers and noncompleters. Longer time to all-cause treatment discontinuation was found to be significantly associated with greater improvements in all assessed functional domains (p < .05). Patients who completed their respective trials (46.8%, 761/1627) experienced significantly greater improvement in functional outcome measures (in 4 QLS domains and SF-36 mental health component summary score; all, p < .001) compared to patients who discontinued for any cause. In addition, greater symptom improvement was significantly associated with greater functional improvements in assessed domains.",
"To examine the potential differential impact of childhood trauma, according to the age at the time of exposure, on the psychopathological profile of patients with early psychosis treated in a specialized 3-year program during the early phase of the disease. 196 subjects with early psychosis aged 18-35 years were followed up prospectively over 36 months of treatment between 2004 and 2010. Patients who had faced at least 1 experience of abuse (physical, sexual, or emotional) or neglect (physical or emotional) were classified according to age at the time of the first exposure (early trauma: before 12 years of age; late trauma: from age 12 through 16 years) and then compared with unexposed patients (nontrauma). The level of symptoms was assessed using the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale, the Young Mania Rating Scale, and the Montgomery-Asberg Depression Rating Scale. Exposure to 1 or more forms of trauma before 16 years of age was present in 31.63% of patients. Comparisons over the 3 years of treatment with the nontrauma patients revealed that (1) patients with early trauma showed consistently higher levels of positive (P = .006), depressive (P = .001), manic (P = .006), and negative (P = .029) symptoms and (2) patients with late trauma showed only more negative symptoms (P = .029).",
"Criteria for identifying people likely to develop a first psychotic episode are now used in many clinical services worldwide. In recent years within these services, there has been an increase in the practice of prescribing antipsychotic medication with the aim of reducing symptoms and preventing onset of full-blown disorder. This practice is based on clinical impression of an incipient psychosis, that is, a clinical judgment that a particular patient may soon progress to full-threshold disorder and may therefore benefit from antipsychotics. However, it is unclear how accurate this clinical impression is. If not accurate it could mean that individuals are receiving antipsychotics unnecessarily. In this study, we investigated the predictive validity of clinical impression of whether ultra high risk patients would develop frank psychosis. Experienced psychologists rated their clinical impression of incipient psychosis in 168 ultra high risk patients. Ratings were made upon entry to the PACE clinic, a clinical service for ultra high risk patients. Psychosis status over the subsequent 12-month period was established using the Comprehensive Assessment of At Risk Mental States or State medical records. A total of 8.9% of the sample transitioned to psychosis over the 12-month follow-up period. There was a sensitivity of 0.80, specificity of 0.84, positive predictive value (PPV) of 0.32 and negative predictive value (NPV) of 0.98 for the prediction of psychosis using the clinical impression ratings.",
"This study aimed at defining the characteristics of a population of patients diagnosed with first-episode psychosis (FEP), and accessing for the first time a center for early intervention in psychosis in the health district of Milan and its surroundings. Patients were included in the study from January 2007 to December 2008; criteria: first contact with any public mental health service of the catchment area for a first episode of schizophrenia or related syndromes according to the ICD-10 criteria. Cluster analysis was used to divide patients into groups based on the main socio-demographic and clinical characteristics at presentation. Overall, 91 FEP patients were enrolled in the study. Two clusters were identified, which differed principally by symptom profile. Patients in cluster 1 (n=36) had severe agitation, and a history of alcohol and/or substance abuse at presentation more often than those in cluster 2 (n=55), who were more likely to suffer at presentation from severe depression or apathy, anxiety, poor self-care, functional or work impairment and severe social withdrawal. After six months of treatment patients improved on almost all symptomatic dimensions on the Health of the Nation Outcome Scale and the Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale, with greater improvement in cluster 1 than in cluster 2.",
"Response patterns may differ between patients with first-episode and multiepisode schizophrenia. This analysis explored trial duration with first-episode patients and asked whether early limited improvement predicts ultimate lack of treatment response with first-episode patients as it does with multiepisode patients. One hundred twelve subjects (mean age = 23.3 years, SD = 5.1 years) who presented between November 1998 and October 2004 with a first episode of psychosis and had a DSM-IV diagnosis of schizophrenia or schizophreniform or schizoaffective disorder were randomly assigned to treatment with olanzapine or risperidone for 16 weeks. Treatment response, the primary outcome measure, was defined as a rating of mild or better on all of the positive symptom items on the Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia Change Version With Psychosis and Disorganization Items. Response rates were calculated for each study week. A logistic regression analysis examined the association between percentage reduction in symptom severity scores from baseline values at weeks 2, 4, or 8 and response by week 16. The study was conducted at The Zucker Hillside Hospital, Glen Oaks, New York and the Bronx-Lebanon Hospital Center, Bronx, New York. The estimated cumulative response rate was 39.59% (95% CI, 29.77%-49.41%) by week 8 and 65.19% (95% CI, 55.11%-75.27%) by week 16. The confidence intervals for estimated response at weeks 10, 12, 14, and 16 were not distinct. Response rates increased approximately 5 to 6 percentage points each 2-week interval between week 10 and 16. Percentage reduction in symptom severity score at week 4 (but not 2 or 8) was associated (χ²₁ = 3.96; P<.05) with responder status at week 16 (odds ratio = 1.03; 95% CI, 1.00-1.05). However, receiver operating characteristic curves did not suggest any level of percentage symptom reduction that would be clinically useful as a predictor of response by week 16.",
"The aim of this two-year longitudinal study was to identify the best baseline predictors of functional outcome in first-episode psychosis (FEP). We tested whether the same factors predict functional outcomes in two different subsamples of FEP patients: schizophrenia and non-schizophrenia syndrome groups. Ninety-five patients with FEP underwent a full clinical evaluation (i.e., PANSS, Mania, Depression and Insight). Functional outcome measurements included the WHO Disability Assessment Schedule (DAS-WHO), Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) and Clinical Global Impression (CGI). Estimation of cognition was obtained by a neuropsychological battery which included attention, processing speed, language, memory and executive functioning. Greater severity of visuospatial functioning at baseline predicted poorer functional outcome as measured by the three functional scales (GAF, CGI and DAS-WHO) in the pooled FEP sample (explaining ut to the 12%, 9% and 10% of the variance, respectively). Negative symptoms also effectively contributed to predict GAF scores (8%). However, we obtained different predictive values after differentiating sample diagnoses. Processing speed significantly predicted most functional outcome measures in patients with schizophrenia, whereas visuospatial functioning was the only significant predictor of functional outcomes in the non-schizophrenia subgroup.",
"Current psychological theories state that the clinical outcome of hallucinatory experiences is dependent on the degree of associated distress, anxiety, and depression. This study examined the hypothesis that the risk for onset of psychotic disorder in individuals with self-reported hallucinatory experiences would be higher in those who subsequently developed depressed mood than in those who did not. A prospective cohort study of a general population sample. A sample of 4,670 individuals with no lifetime evidence of any psychotic disorder were interviewed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview Schedule (CIDI) at baseline and 1 and 3 years later. At Year 3, individuals with CIDI evidence of psychotic symptoms were interviewed by clinicians to identify potential onset of psychotic disorder. Psychotic disorder was specified at three levels; two involving severity of positive symptoms of psychosis, and one using additional clinical judgment of need for care. Given the presence of hallucinatory experiences at baseline, the increase in risk of having the psychosis outcome at Year 3 was higher in the group with depressed mood at Year 1 than in the group without depressed mood at Year 1 (any level of psychotic symptoms: risk difference 17.0%, 95% CI - 1.7, 35.7; severe level of psychotic symptoms: risk difference 21.7%, 95% CI 3.2, 40.2; needs-based diagnosis of psychotic disorder: risk difference 16.8%, 95% CI 0.4, 33.3).",
"Lack of insight is recognized as a symptom that predisposes the individuals with psychosis to noncompliance with the treatment, leading to poorer course of illness. This study aimed to explore baseline predictors of disturbances on insight at follow-up. Three insight dimensions (insight of: 'mental illness', 'need for treatment' and 'the social consequences of the disorder') were measured with the Scale to Assess Unawareness of Mental Disorder (SUMD) in a cohort of 224 first-episode psychosis (FEP) patients at 3-year follow-up. Subgroups, good vs. poor insight, were compared on baseline clinical, neuropsychological, premorbid and sociodemographic characteristics. Regression models tested baseline predictors for each insight dimension. At 3-year follow-up a high percentage of patients, 45%, 36% and 33% for each dimension, were found to remain lacking insight. Poor insight into having an illness was predicted by a diagnosis of schizophrenia and poor baseline insight of the social consequences; insight into the need for treatment was predicted by adolescent adjustment and depression at baseline; and insight into the social consequences of the disorder was determined by late adolescent adjustment and baseline insight of mental illness.",
"We examined if age of onset of psychiatric symptoms and/or sex predict conversion to non-affective or affective psychosis in individuals considered to be at ultra-high risk for schizophrenia. Participants (n=86) were offered treatment and monthly follow-up until transition to psychosis, or for 12 months if they did not meet exit criteria for psychotic disorder. Individuals without transition to psychosis at 12-month were reassessed approximately 3 years after the end of the treatment phase. Ultra-high risk was defined by the presence of subthreshold and/or self-limiting psychotic symptoms and/or having a family history of psychotic disorder combined with functional decline. Cox regressions after adjustment for treatment interventions were applied to investigate associations between age of onset, sex, and other baseline measures with progression to psychotic outcomes. Early age of onset of psychiatric symptoms, in particular onset before age 18 was the only tested variable that significantly predicted non-affective psychosis. Independent significant predictors of affective psychosis were poor functioning, female sex and the presence of a combination of intake criteria (family history of psychosis plus drop in functioning, and attenuated and/or brief limited psychotic symptoms) at baseline.",
"early Intervention in Psychosis (EI) was introduced into the British NHS as a result of the NHS Plan, about eleven years ago. The intention was to provide thebest possible care or patients with a first episode of psychosis. Recently however, long term studies over five years have suggested that early gains may be lost. we wished to establish whether our own group of patients who had received Early Intervention continued over six years to have better outcomes than patients treated in Community Mental Health Teams. To do this we analysed statistically the data on the readmissions and bed days used by our patients over the first six years of illness. We found that patients, both in the whole two groups and in different sub-groups appeared to demonstrate a number of advantages, not always statistically significant, in favour of the EI treated team. in many cases, the small size of the samples may have impeded us observing statistically significant differences, however, in general, it appeared that there were a number of advantages in favour of the EI treated team.",
"To investigate the effect of integrated treatment on negative, psychotic and disorganised symptoms in patients with first episode psychosis. A RCT comparing integrated treatment (IT) with standard treatment (ST) was conducted, including 547 patients, aged 18-45, diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorders. All patients were assessed with SCAN, SAPS and SANS at entry and after 1 and 2 years. The IT consisted of assertive community treatment, multifamily groups, psycho-education and social skills training, and the caseload was 1:10 compared with 1:25 in ST. Since attrition was considerable, a mixed model analysis with repeated measurements was used to examine the possible effects of IT statistically. IT reduced both negative and positive symptoms significantly better than ST. Most marked were the results from the negative dimension, where all five global scores from SANS had a significantly better reduction in IT. Sub-analyses did not single out any one element in the integrated treatment that could explain this result.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate whether childhood trauma was associated with more severe clinical features in patients with first-episode psychosis, both at the initial assessment and after one year. Ninety-six patients with a first-episode of a DSM-IV diagnosis of psychosis, in addition to 264 healthy controls from the same catchment area, were recruited to the TOP NORMENT study. A history of childhood trauma was obtained using the Childhood Trauma Questionnaire (CTQ). Function and symptom severity were measured using the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) Scale divided into function (GAF-F) and symptoms (GAF-S), the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) and the Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS). All clinical assessments were completed at two time points: At an initial assessment within the first year of initiating treatment for psychosis and after one year. Childhood trauma was associated with significantly reduced global functioning and more severe clinical symptoms at both baseline and follow-up, whereas emotional neglect was associated with a significantly reduced improvement rate for global functioning (GAF-F) over the follow-up period.",
"Our findings support the hypothesis that long-term insight in psychosis seems to be, to some extent, determined from first presentation, showing trait-like properties. A subgroup of 'lacking insight' patients, which is characterized by a diagnosis of schizophrenia, lower levels of premorbid adjustment and less severe depressive symptoms at baseline might benefit from special interventions targeted at enhancing insight from their first contact with psychiatric services.",
"Little is known about the practice of predicting community-based care effectiveness of patients affected by schizophrenic disorders. We assessed predictors of treatment failure in a large sample of young people affected by schizophrenia. A cohort of 556 patients aged 18-35 years who were originally diagnosed with schizophrenia during 2005-2009 in a Mental Health Service (MHS) of the Italian Lombardy Region was identified. Intensity of mental healthcare received during the first year after index visit (exposure) was measured by patients' regularity in MHS attendance and the length of time covered with antipsychotic drug therapy. Patients were followed from index visit until 2012 for identifying hospital admission for mental disorder (outcome). A proportional hazards model was fitted to estimate the HR and 95% CIs for the exposure-outcome association, after adjusting for several covariates. A set of sensitivity analyses were performed in order to account for sources of systematic uncertainty. During follow-up, 144 cohort members experienced the outcome. Compared with patients on low coverage with antipsychotic drugs (≤ 4 months), those on intermediate (5-8 months) and high (≥ 9 months) coverage, had HRs (95% CI) of 0.94 (0.64 to 1.40) and 0.69 (0.48 to 0.98), respectively. There was no evidence that regular attendance at the MHS affected the outcome.",
"Long duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) is associated with poor treatment outcome. Whether or not DUP is related to brain gray matter volume abnormalities in antipsychotic medication treatment naïve schizophrenia remains unclear at this time. Patients with treatment-naïve schizophrenia and healthy controls went through brain scan using high resolution Magnetic Resonance Imaging. DUP was evaluated using the Nottingham Onset Schedule (NOS), and dichotomized as short DUP (≤ 26 weeks) or long DUP (>26 weeks). Voxel-based methods were used for volumetric measure in the brain. Fifty-seven patients (27 short DUP and 30 long DUP) and 30 healthy controls were included in the analysis. There were significant gray matter volumetric differences among the 3 groups in bilateral parahippocampus gyri, right superior temporal gyrus, left fusiform gyrus, left middle temporal gyrus, and right superior frontal gyrus (p's<0.01). Compared with healthy controls, the long DUP group had significantly smaller volume in all these regions (p's <0.05). Compared with the short-DUP group, the long-DUP group had significantly smaller volume in right superior temporal gyrus, left fusiform gyrus, and left middle temporal gyrus (p's<0.01).",
"To assess the effect of withdrawal of antipsychotic treatment on relapse risk in remitted first-episode schizophrenia patients. First-episode 1-year stable and remitted outpatients with a schizophrenic disorder were randomly allocated to continuation of their antipsychotic regimen for at least 6 months (N = 9), or gradual withdrawal (N = 11). Primary outcome was the difference in cumulative relapse-free survival at 9 months. Recruitment was terminated prematurely on 26 October 2005. The cumulative relapse-free survival was 88% (SE = 0.12) in the continuation and 18% (SE = 0.12) in the discontinuation group (P = 0.001) at 9 months follow-up.",
"A long duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) is associated with a poorer prognosis and with worse functional outcome. The aim of the study was to show that early treatment with antipsychotics in the prodromal phase improves the outcome; to compare outcome in patients with DUP longer than 1 year (group 1) with patients who had received treatment with antipsychotic medication in the prodromal phase of the disease (group 0). 87 patients with schizophrenia were included in the retrospective study, 37 patients in group 0 and 50 patients in group 1. Sociodemographic parameters were evaluated, including employment, marital status and educational level. Groups were compared during the acute psychosis of first episode (t1) and at the conclusion of the study (t2). Vocational status was worse in group 1 with a higher degree of unemployment and disability than in group 0 (chi(2)=17.47, df=4, p=0.002) at t2. More than half of the patients in group 1 were on disability benefit as compared to 19% of patients in group 0. At t1 differences were not statistically significant (chi(2)=4.15, df=3, p=0.245). There were more single patients in group 1 during both evaluations. At t1 almost half of the patients in group 0 were married; in group 1 only 18% were married (chi(2)=11.47, df=3, p=0.003). Also at t2 more patients in group 0 were married than in group 1 (chi(2)=8.01, df=3, p=0.046). Significant differences between the groups in achieved educational level were noted only at t1 (chi(2)=9.65, df=3, p=0.022).",
"This research examined whether deficits in premorbid functioning are associated with a vulnerability to psychosis in unipolar major depressive disorder. A group of 92 inpatients with unipolar major depression were assessed for premorbid functioning and psychotic symptoms during an index hospitalization. They were prospectively assessed for psychotic symptoms 2.0 and 4.5 years after hospital discharge. The psychotic depressed patients had significantly poorer premorbid functioning--particularly, adolescent social functioning--than the nonpsychotic depressed patients. Longitudinal analyses indicated that poor premorbid social adaptation was significantly associated with the emergence of psychosis during the follow-up period in depressed patients who had not been psychotic as inpatients.",
"Little is known about how family-level factors are associated with duration of untreated psychosis (DUP), especially in ethnic/racial minority groups, such as African Americans. This study involved African American first-episode patients and their family members who initiated evaluation and treatment for them. It was hypothesized that a longer DUP would be predicted by family members' endorsement of: (1) less knowledge about schizophrenia, (2) greater perceptions of stigma, (3) lower levels of insight, (4) fewer family strengths, (5) more limited family coping capacity, and (6) lower levels of caregiver strain. From a sample of 109 patients, 42 African American patients with family-level data were included. Cox proportional hazard models quantified associations between family-level predictors and DUP, and analyses controlled for effects of three previously determined patient-level predictors of DUP - mode of onset of psychosis, living with family members versus alone or with others, and living above versus below the federal poverty level. The median DUP was 24.5 weeks. Greater family strengths and a better family coping capacity were associated with a shorter DUP, whereas higher insight among informants and greater level of perceived caregiver strain were associated with a longer DUP.",
"The 20-year data indicate that, longitudinally, after the first few years, antipsychotic medications do not eliminate or reduce the frequency of psychosis in schizophrenia, or reduce the severity of post-acute psychosis, although it is difficult to reach unambiguous conclusions about the efficacy of treatment in purely naturalistic or observational research. Longitudinally, on the basis of their psychotic activity and the disruption of functioning, the condition of the majority of SZ prescribed antipsychotics for multiple years would raise questions as to how many of them are truly in remission.",
"This study assesses the long-term cost-effectiveness of a comprehensive model of mental health care for first-episode psychosis. The study is an extension of a previous economic evaluation of the Early Psychosis Prevention and Intervention Centre (EPPIC) that assessed the first-year costs and outcomes of treatment. The current study used a matched, historical control group design with a follow-up of approximately 8 years. Complete follow-up data were available for 65 of the original 102 participants. Direct public mental health service costs incurred subsequent to the first year of treatment and symptomatic and functional outcomes of 32 participants initially treated for up to 2 years at EPPIC were compared with a matched cohort of 33 participants initially treated by generic mental health services. Treatment-related resource use was measured and valued using Australian published prices. Almost 8 years after initial treatment, EPPIC subjects displayed lower levels of positive psychotic symptoms (P = .007), were more likely to be in remission (P = .008), and had a more favorable course of illness (P = .011) than the controls. Fifty-six percent of the EPPIC cohort were in paid employment over the last 2 years compared with 33% of controls (P = .083). Each EPPIC patient costs on average A$3445 per annum to treat compared with controls, who each costs A$9503 per annum.",
"Early-onset psychoses (EOP) vary considerably with regard to diagnostic stability and functional outcome. The aim of this study was the assessment of executive dysfunction as a predictor of outcome in EOP. This was a retrospective cohort study. Twenty-five hospitalized patients with non-affective EOP were assessed with the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) during the index admission. Associations with current diagnosis, further admissions, current treatment status and occupational and relationship outcome were analyzed in 6 years of follow-up. The mean age at the index admission and the follow-up was 16.1 ± 1.35 and 22.0 ± 2.1 years, respectively. After discharge, almost all subjects (96%) at least briefly continued psychiatric treatment, and the majority of them (76%) were readmitted. Worse baseline WCST results were associated with a follow-up schizophrenia diagnosis, being a psychiatric in- or outpatient at the moment of follow-up assessment and receiving psychotropic medication. A low number of completed categories correlated with receiving a disability pension at the follow-up.",
"While rates and correlates of comorbidity have been investigated in the early course of psychosis, little is known about comorbidity in the medium-to-longer term or its relationship with outcome. A total of 182 first-episode psychosis (FEP) patients who met DSM-IV criteria for a current psychotic disorder 8 years after index presentation were grouped according to concurrent comorbidity [no concurrent axis I disorder; concurrent substance use disorder (SUD); other concurrent axis I disorder; concurrent SUD and other axis I disorder]. Outcomes were compared between groups controlling for relevant covariates. As much as 39% met criteria for one or more concurrent axis 1 diagnoses. Comorbidity was associated with greater severity of general psychopathology, but not with measures of functioning, treatment or negative symptoms.",
"yes. Our data indicate that patients with first-episode psychosis who report a history of childhood trauma constitute a subgroup characterized by more severe clinical features over the first year of treatment, as well as slower improvement rates.",
"Violence in first episode psychosis poses significant challenges for mental health staff and patients' families. Violence has been shown to be related to psychopathology. Duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) has been shown to influence psychopathology at presentation in first-episode psychosis, but little is known about the direct relationship between violence at presentation and DUP. We therefore sought to examine the relationship between these two variables. Patients were all individuals aged between 16 and 65 years, with a DSM-III-R diagnosis of psychotic illness, taking part in a First Episode study. We used the Structured Clinical Interview (SCID-I), Positive and Negative Symptom Scale (PANSS), Beiser Scale and the Modified Overt Aggression Scale (MOAS) to evaluate diagnosis, psychopathology, DUP and violent behaviour respectively. Data for each case were retrospectively examined for violence, for the week prior to and week following first contact with psychiatric services, blind to diagnosis, DUP and psychopathology scores. We assessed 157 patients. About 46 patients (29%) were violent. Violence rates did not differ across diagnostic groups, while DUP varied significantly across diagnostic groups (P = 0.001). Violence was not associated with DUP across all psychoses (P = 0.41). In the schizophrenia subgroup (n = 94), thirty individuals (32%) were violent. In a logistic regression, logDUP was not associated with violence (P = 0.11). Violence was predicted by involuntary admission status (P = 0.04) and global positive symptoms (P = 0.03). DUP was associated weakly with negative symptoms (P = 0.01) but not associated with positive or general psychopathology. Neither pre nor post-contact violence was associated (P = 0.79 and P = 0.09 respectively) with DUP. Contrary to a recent study, we did not find an association between violence at presentation and DUP. The relationships between violence, DUP and psychopathology are complex and may be compounded by potential difficulties inherent in the PANSS.",
"It is unclear whether the incidence of first episode psychoses is in decline. We had the opportunity to determine whether incidence had changed over a 20-year period in a single setting, and test whether this could be explained by demographic or clinical changes. The entire population at-risk aged 16-54 in Nottingham over three time periods (1978-80, 1993-95 and 1997-99) were followed up. All participants presenting with an ICD-9/10 first episode psychosis were included. The remainder of the population at-risk formed the denominator. Standardized incidence rates were calculated at each time period with possible change over time assessed via Poisson regression. We studied six outcomes: substance-induced psychoses, schizophrenia, other non-affective psychoses, manic psychoses, depressive psychoses and all psychotic disorders combined. Three hundred and forty-seven participants with a first episode psychosis during 1.2 million person-years of follow-up over three time periods were identified. The incidence of non-affective or affective psychoses had not changed over time following standardization for age, sex and ethnicity. We observed a linear increase in the incidence of substance-induced psychosis, per annum, over time (incidence rate ratios: 1.15; 95% CI 1.05-1.25). This could not be explained by longitudinal changes in the age, sex and ethnic structure of the population at-risk.",
"To investigate the relationship between anomalous self-experiences and duration of untreated psychosis in a sample of patients with first-episode schizophrenia spectrum disorders. Anomalous self-experiences were assessed by means of the Examination of Anomalous Self-Experience manual in 55 patients referred to their first adequate treatment for schizophrenia. Diagnoses, symptom severity, functioning and childhood trauma were assessed using the Structured Clinical Interview for the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale, Premorbid Adjustment Scale, Social Functioning Scale and Childhood Trauma Questionnaire. Substance misuse was measured with the Drug Use Disorder Identification Test, and alcohol use was measured with the Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test. Duration of untreated psychosis was measured in accordance with a standardized procedure. High levels of anomalous self-experiences are significantly associated with longer duration of untreated psychosis, an association which held after correcting for other variables associated with long duration of untreated psychosis.",
"Delay in treatment of psychosis is associated with poor clinical and social outcome and is measured as the duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) prior to treatment of the first episode. It has been suggested that this may be mediated through toxic effects of psychosis on the structure and function of the brain. Equivocal evidence exists regarding association between longer DUP and neuro-anatomical changes such as, reduced grey matter volume in specific regions in the brain and deficits in neurocognitive functions. To examine if duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) preceding treatment of a first episode of psychosis is associated with structural brain abnormalities and deficits in neurocognitive functions. We investigated the relationship between DUP and grey matter volume using voxel-based morphometry techniques and with multiple domains of cognition. Eighty patients with a first episode of psychosis were separated into two equal sized groups based on a median split (18 weeks) of their DUP. Compared to the short-DUP group (mean DUP 7.9 weeks ± 5.6), the long-DUP group (mean 113.7 weeks ± 170 .4) showed significant grey matter volume reductions in orbital-frontal regions (bilateral medial frontal gyrus and bilateral rectal gyrus, BA 11) and parietal regions (postcentral gyrus and superior parietal lobule) as well as a significant reduction in whole brain grey matter volume (p<0.04). For schizophrenia spectrum cases only these findings were confined to left rectal gyrus. There were no differences in white matter or cerebral spinal fluid volumes or on cognitive functions. Results are controlled for antipsychotic medication exposure.",
"It as been suggested that in schizophrenia an association exists between family history of schizophrenia and poor outcome on the one hand, and family history of affective disorders and good outcome on the other. We tested for associations between four-year outcome and familial loading for psychotic disorders in a mixed sample of 150 consecutively admitted patients with functional psychosis (schizophrenia, psychotic affective disorders, other psychotic disorders) of recent onset. For each proband, a familial loading score for (i) broadly defined psychotic disorder, (ii) schizophrenia, and (iii) affective disorder was calculated using information on relatives obtained through the Family History Research Diagnostic Criteria method and direct interviews of relatives with the Schedule for Affective Disorders and Schizophrenia. In our sample of psychotic patients, familial loading for psychotic disorder predicted persistent negative symptoms over the follow-up period (OR 1.5; 95% CI 1-2.2), especially in schizophrenia, and was also associated with more time hospitalised (P<0.05) [corrected], and more social disability at follow-up (P<0.05). Greater familial loading for schizophrenia predicted a greater likelihood of non-recovery (OR 2.2; 95% CI 1.1-4.4) and a greater likelihood to have had persistent negative symptoms over the follow-up period (OR 1.7; 95% CI 0.9-3.1). No association was found between outcome and familial loading for affective disorder.",
"To examine whether first-episode psychosis patients with onset during adolescence (ages 15-18) differ significantly from those with young-adult onset (ages 19-30). Consecutive patients presenting with first-episode psychosis (N = 242) were assessed for demographic and illness characteristics such as duration of untreated psychosis, diagnosis, length of prodromal period, premorbid adjustment, level of psychotic, negative, depressive, anxiety, and extrapyramidal symptoms, and alcohol and drug use. Eighty-two patients (40.8%) had an onset of psychosis during adolescence (ages 15-18) and 119 (59.2%) during young adulthood (ages 19-30). The adolescent-onset group experienced longer delays in treatment of psychosis (duration of untreated psychosis) (p<.02), showed modestly worse premorbid functioning during late adolescence (p<.05), and were more likely to present with bizarre behavior (p<.01) and primary negative symptoms (p<.01).",
"The aim was to investigate the association of pretreatment social functioning (12 months before initial presentation) with symptom dimensions and social functioning at 1-year follow-up. Fifty-six adolescents, age 14-18, first admitted for early onset psychosis, were evaluated at baseline and 1-year follow-up assessing psychopathology (PANSS), social functioning (Strauss and Carpenter Prognostic Scale), and duration of untreated psychosis (DUP). Adolescents with low pretreatment social functioning were at risk of more severe negative symptoms and lower social functioning at follow-up. Negative symptoms at baseline were less predictive and DUP was not predictive in this sample.",
"This research assesses whether multi-year treatment with antipsychotic medications reduces or eliminates psychosis in schizophrenia. It provides 20 years of longitudinal data on the frequency and severity of psychotic activity in samples of schizophrenia patients (SZ) treated versus those not treated with antipsychotic medications. A total of 139 early young schizophrenia and mood-disordered patients were assessed at index hospitalization and then reassessed six times over 20 years for psychosis and other major variables. At each follow-up assessment over the 20 years, a surprisingly high percentage of SZ treated with antipsychotics longitudinally had psychotic activity. More than 70% of SZ continuously prescribed antipsychotics experienced psychotic activity at four or more of six follow-up assessments over 20 years. Longitudinally, SZ not prescribed antipsychotics showed significantly less psychotic activity than those prescribed antipsychotics (p<0.05).",
"To examine the diagnostic stability and the functional outcome of patients with early-onset psychosis (EOP) over a 2-year follow-up period. A total of 24 patients (18 males (75%) and 6 females (25%), mean age +/- SD: 15.7 +/- 1.6 years) with a first episode of EOP formed the sample. Psychotic symptoms were assessed using the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS). Social disability was measured with the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) disability scale. Diagnosis was assessed using the Kiddie-Sads-Present and Lifetime Version (K-SADS-PL), according to DSM-IV criteria. All diagnoses were re-assessed after 1 year and 2 years. Schizophrenia had the highest prospective consistency (100% predictive value), while diagnostic stability was moderate for bipolar disorder (71.4%), and low for schizoaffective disorder (50%), schizophreniform and brief psychosis (50%), and psychosis not otherwise specified (NOS) (16.7%). The agreement between the baseline diagnoses and the 1-year follow-up diagnoses was 54.2%, whereas between the 1-year follow-up and the 2-year follow-up, it rose to 95.7%. Regardless of diagnosis, baseline negative symptoms were the only significant predictor of level of functioning at the 2-year follow-up (p = 0.010).",
"A long duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) is known to be associated with a poorer prognosis and with worse symptomatic and functional outcome. The aim of the study was to test the hypothesis that early detection and treatment with antipsychotics in the prodromal phase of the illness improves the outcome; to compare short and long-term outcome in patients with DUP longer than 1 year (group 1) with patients that were treated already in the prodromal phase of the disease (group 0). Eighty-seven patients with schizophrenia were included to the retrospective study, 37 patients to group 0 and 50 patients to group 1. The course and outcome of the disease was studied in the two groups. The severity of schizophrenia was evaluated by measuring several outcome parameters. The symptom severity was evaluated using a check list developed from CAARMS inventory; the average daily dose of antipsychotics was calculated as well as the number and duration of hospital admissions. Groups were compared during the acute psychosis of first episode (t1) and at the conclusion of the study (t2). More symptoms of greater intensity were present during the first and second evaluations in group 1 as compared to group 0 patients. The patients in group 0 needed lower dosages of antipsychotics even several years after treatment had been initiated. This effect persisted until the final evaluation; 11% were without antipsychotics at the conclusion of the study. Patients in group 1 were hospitalized more frequently; they needed more hospitalizations and these were of longer duration. Only 38% of patients in group 0 were treated in the hospital, 27% were hospitalized only once.",
"Relatively few predictors of outcome in first-episode psychosis are potentially malleable and duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) is one. However, the degree to which DUP is mediated by other predictors of outcome is unclear. This study examines the specific effects of DUP on 12-month outcome after adjusting for effects of potential confounders and moderating variables. The sample comprised 354 first-episode psychosis patients followed up 12-months after remission/stabilization of their psychotic symptoms. Outcome measures included functional outcome, severity of positive symptoms and negative symptoms. Hierarchical multiple regression assessed whether DUP significantly predicted 12-month outcome after adjusting for other predictors. Contrast analysis further clarified the differential effects of DUP on 12-month outcome. DUP remained a significant predictor of outcome after adjusting for the effects of other variables. This finding remained robust for the subset of patients with schizophrenia or schizophreniform disorder. Functional outcome appeared to decline substantially even after very short treatment delays (>7 days), with more gradual deterioration in functioning until very long DUP (>1 year). Good outcome was variably associated with good pre-morbid adjustment, female gender, diagnosis of affective disorder, short duration of prodromal symptoms, and treatment within the Early Psychosis Prevention and Intervention model in contrast to other models of care.",
"While findings are contradictory, many studies report that long Duration of Untreated Psychosis (DUP) correlates with poorer outcome in first episode psychosis. In an outcome study of first-episode psychosis, we compared the patients who refused to participate in a follow-along with those who consented to estimate the importance of this factor in sample recruitment bias. Our questions were: (i) What is the percentage of refusers? (ii) Are there systematic differences between refusers and consenters on DUP and/or other admission variables? (iii) What is the risk of refusal for different values of DUP? In an unselected group of consecutively admitted patients we compared follow-along refusers and consenters on the following admission variables: sex, age, diagnostic group, substance abuse, being in-patient, coming from an early detection site and DUP. We conducted a logistic regression analysis with refusal as the outcome variable. Ninety-three of 397 patients (23%) were refusers. In univariate analyses the only significant difference was found for DUP. The median DUP for consenters was 10 weeks and for refusers 32 weeks. DUP remained significant when all independent variables were controlled for.",
"The first aim of this study was to examine the rate, pattern and correlates of inpatient admission during the first 3 months of treatment for first-episode psychosis (FEP). The second aim was to determine whether the pattern of inpatient admission during this period was associated with remission of psychotic symptoms or inpatient service use at 15-month follow-up. One hundred and four consecutive patients with FEP at a specialist treatment service were approached to participate in a follow-up study. Patients were grouped on the basis of the pattern of inpatient admission (none, one, or multiple) during the first 3 months of treatment. Clinical ratings at baseline and 3-month follow-up, and ratings of remission of psychotic symptoms at 3 and 15-month follow-up, were available for two-thirds of the patients. Inpatient data for the 15-month follow-up period were derived from an electronic database for most patients (n = 98). Eighty (76.9%) of the 104 patients were admitted to an inpatient unit during the first 3 months of treatment. Fifty-nine (56.7%) patients had a single admission and 21 (20.2%) had multiple admissions. At baseline, inpatient admission was associated with a diagnosis of affective psychosis and more severe behavioural and functional disturbance but not positive psychotic symptoms. Multiple admissions were associated with risks to self or others at baseline and 3-month follow-up, and lack of remission of positive symptoms at 3 and 15-month follow-up. There was no association between the pattern of inpatient admission during the initial 3-month period and inpatient service use during the following 12-month period.",
"To assess whether a long duration of untreated psychosis (DUP) before first admission predicts poor clinical and social outcome, and whether this association, if any, is confounded by premorbid and clinical characteristics. A population-based sample of first-admitted subjects with psychosis (n = 65) was assessed at six monthly intervals over a two year follow-up using multiple sources of information. Most subjects (87%) with a life-chart 'continuous' course of psychotic symptoms had a history of a 'long' delay between onset of psychotic symptoms and first admission (>or = 3 months, median split), compared with 55% of subjects with a course of 'neither episodic nor continuous', 42% of subjects with an 'episodic' course, and 33% of subjects with 'no psychotic symptoms' during the follow-up period (RR = 9; 95%CI 1.5-54.8, P = 0.02). The strength of association between DUP and continuous course of psychosis was strongly reduced (63%) after adjustment for premorbid functioning, and to a lesser extent for the severity of illness and for the intensity of negative symptoms at first admission.",
"The authors examined the duration of untreated psychosis, defined as the interval from first psychotic symptom to first psychiatric hospitalization, in a county-wide sample of first-admission inpatients who had received no previous antipsychotic medication. Differences between diagnostic groups in 24-month illness course and clinical outcomes as well as relationships between outcomes and duration of untreated psychosis were evaluated. The data were derived from subjects in the Suffolk County Psychosis Project who were diagnosed at 24-month follow-up according to DSM-IV as having schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder (N=155), bipolar disorder with psychotic features (N=119), or major depressive disorder with psychotic features (N=75). Duration of untreated psychosis was derived from the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R, medical records, and information from significant others. Measures at 24-month follow-up included consensus ratings of illness course, Global Assessment of Functioning Scale scores for the worst week in the month before interview, and current affective and psychotic symptoms. The median duration of untreated psychosis was 98 days for schizophrenia, 9 days for psychotic bipolar disorder, and 22 days for psychotic depression. Duration of untreated psychosis was not significantly associated with 24-month illness course or clinical outcomes in any of the diagnostic subgroups."
] | 900 |
Is preinfarction angina related to the presence or absence of coronary plaque rupture? | [
"To analyse the prodrome of acute myocardial infarction in relation to the plaque morphology underlying the infarct. A retrospective investigation of the relation between rupture and erosion of coronary atheromatous plaques and the clinical characteristics of acute myocardial infarction. The coronary arteries of 100 patients who died from acute myocardial infarction were cut transversely at 3 mm intervals. Segments with a stenosis were examined microscopically at 5 micrometer intervals. The clinical features of the infarction were obtained from the medical records. A deep intimal rupture was encountered in 81 plaques, whereas 19 had superficial erosions only. There were no differences in the location of infarction, the incidence of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or hyperlipidaemia, diameter stenosis of the infarcted related artery, Killip class, Forrester's haemodynamic subset, or peak creatine kinase between plaque rupture and plaque erosion groups. The presence of plaque rupture was associated with significantly greater incidences of leucocytosis, current smoking, and sudden or unstable onset of acute coronary syndrome. In patients with unstable preinfarction angina, new onset rest angina rather than worsening angina tended to develop more often in the plaque rupture group than in the plaque erosion group (p = 0.08).",
"Plaque rupture causes the sudden onset of acute myocardial infarction or unstable preinfarction angina, which may be aggravated by smoking and inflammation."
] | [
"yes. Coronary CTA outperforms calcium imaging in the triage of patients suspected of developing ACS. Absence of plaque on coronary CTA allows safe discharge. Coronary CTA has incremental value to clinical risk scores and has the potential to reduce unnecessary hospital admissions.",
"Patients with diabetes mellitus (DM) have an increased risk for periprocedural complications and adverse cardiac events after percutaneous coronary intervention. We addressed the potential for coronary microvascular obstruction and restenosis in patients with and without DM undergoing stenting for saphenous vein bypass graft (SVG) stenosis under protection with a distal occlusion/aspiration device. SVG plaque volume and composition were analyzed using intravascular ultrasound before stent implantation. Percent diameter stenosis was determined from quantitative coronary angiography before, immediately after and 6 months after stent implantation. Coronary aspirate was retrieved during stent implantation and divided into particulate debris and plasma. Total calcium, several vasoconstrictors, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)α in particulate debris and coronary aspirate plasma were determined. Patients with and without DM had similar plaque volume, but larger necrotic core and greater particulate debris release in patients with than without DM (20.3±2.7 vs. 12.7±2.6% and 143.9±19.3 vs. 75.1±10.4 mg, P<0.05). The TNFα concentration in particulate debris and coronary aspirate plasma was higher in patients with than without DM (15.9±6.6 vs. 5.1±2.4 pmol/mg and 2.2±0.7 vs. 1.1±0.2 pmol/L, P<0.05), whereas total calcium and vasoconstrictors were not different. Patients with DM had a greater percent diameter stenosis 6 months after stent implantation than those without DM (22.17±5.22 vs. 6.34±1.11%, P<0.05). The increase in TNFα immediately after stent implantation correlated with restenosis 6 months later (r=0.69, P<0.05).",
"To evaluate the prevalence of plaque erosion as a substrate for coronary thrombosis. Pathological study in patients with acute myocardial infarction not treated with thrombolysis or coronary interventional procedures. 298 consecutive patients (189 men, mean (SD) age 66 (11) years; 109 women, 74 (8) years) dying in hospital between 1984 and 1996 from acute myocardial infarction, diagnosed by ECG changes and rise in cardiac enzymes. Histopathological determination of plaque erosion as substrate for acute thrombosis; location and histological type of coronary thrombosis; acute and healed myocardial infarcts; ventricular rupture. Acute coronary thrombi were found in 291 hearts (98%); in 74 cases (25%; 40/107 women (37.4%) and 34/184 men (18.5%); p = 0.0004), the plaque substrate for thrombosis was erosion. Healed infarcts were found in 37.5% of men v 22% of women (p = 0.01). Heart rupture was more common in women than in men (22% v 10.5%, p = 0.01). The distribution of infarcts, thrombus location, heart rupture, and healed infarcts was similar in cases of plaque rupture and plaque erosion.",
"These data indicate an increased leukocyte-platelet functional interaction in AMI at the site of plaque rupture relative to the systemic circulation, which may be one of the pathogenetic mechanisms responsible for myocardial \"no-reflow\" phenomenon.",
"yes. Physical activity and not preinfarction angina protects against in-hospital mortality in elderly patients with myocardial infarction. Nevertheless, the protective effect of preinfarction angina is preserved in elderly patients with a high level of physical activity.",
"yes. Compared with patients with no significant stenosis, poor periodontal health including missing teeth, periodontal inflammation, and bone loss is associated with angiographically verified coronary artery narrowing in patients with stable CAD or ACS.",
"yes. Myocardial contrast echocardiography performed early after PCS provides information on the extent of infarction, and hence the likelihood for recovery of resting systolic function or contractile reserve. The presence of perfusion before PCS, from either collateral or antegrade flow, predicts the maintenance of perfusion and recovery of systolic function.",
"Recent evidence has demonstrated that inflammation plays a major role in the initiation and progression of atheroma plaques. C-reactive protein (CRP) is shown to have prognostic significance in acute coronary syndromes. We investigated the influence of CRP levels before thrombolytic therapy on infarct-related artery (IRA) patency and the degree of residual stenosis. 45 consecutive patients with a first attack of acute myocardial infarction (MI) who underwent streptokinase therapy and subsequently coronary angiography were enrolled into the study. Patients were divided into 2 groups according to the level of CRP on admission. Serum CRP levels were>or =0.5 mg/dL in 26 patients (Group-I) and<0.5 mg/dL in 19 patients (Group-II). The patency of IRA (TIMI-2 and 3) evaluated at 90th minute after the initiation of thrombolytic therapy was similar between the two groups (62% vs. 68%, p>0.05). However, the presence of TIMI-3 flow was significantly lower and TIMI-2 flow was higher in Group-I as compared to Group-II (12% vs. 53%, p=0.003 and 50% vs. 16%, p=0.018 respectively). Additionally, among patients with patent IRA, the degree of residual stenosis was significantly higher in Group-I (80 +/- 14% vs. 68 +/- 15%, p=0.032).",
"yes. Our results indicate that monocytes from patients with angina are preactivated and express TF but CRP is unlikely to be a major priming factor in vivo. IFN and CRP further increase TF levels that may contribute to the hypercoagulable state in coronary disease.",
"ST-elevated acute myocardial infarction (STEAMI) happening in the first month post percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is almost related to acute thrombosis or subacute thrombosis in-stents. This study aimed to investigate the possible causes of myocardial infarction one month later. Patients who had a history of successful PCI, and received coronary angiography or re-PCI due to STEAMI were included in this study. The AMI-related lesions and previous angiographic findings such as the number of lesions, the degree of the stenosis, the type of stents and acute results of last PCI were recorded. If the AMI-related lesion was localized in-stents or at the edge of stents (distance apart from the edge<or = 5 mm), it was defined to be late thrombosis; otherwise as a new-lesion induced AMI. One hundred and ninety-two patients aged 40 - 79 years were included in this study. New lesions, as the cause of STEAMI, were found in 144 patients (Group A, 75%), and late thrombosis in 48 patients (Group B, 25%). Almost all newly built thromboses were found at the sites of previous insignificant lesions (diameter stenosis<50%). There was a significant difference in the average time from previous PCI to AMI ((30.1 +/- 12.4) vs (20.3 +/- 11.9) months) between the two groups. Diabetes mellitus (DM) and drug-eluting stent (DES) utilization were associated with markedly higher morbidity of late thrombosis in adjusted Logistic regression (hazard ratio (HR) 3.4, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.1 - 10.9 and 5.3, 95% CI 1.1 - 26.5).",
"As a clinical analogue of ischemic preconditioning (IP), preinfarction angina (PA) shares a well-documented protective effect in the setting of acute myocardial infarction (AMI) by reducing infarct size, preserving left ventricular function and improving prognosis. In the experimental setting, multiple cycles of IP may induce the loss of this protection. To evaluate the effect of repeated cycles of PA on clinical outcomes in patients exhibiting a first AMI. Seventy-four consecutive patients with AMI, in whom PA was the surrogate of experimental IP, were studied prospectively. All patients had poor or no collaterals. The patients were divided into three groups: group 1 (n=32) comprised patients without PA (control subjects); groups 2 (n=24) and 3 (n=18) comprised patients reporting one to four and more than four episodes of new-onset PA, respectively (preconditioned groups). Both of the preconditioned groups were compared with the control subjects with regard to creatine kinase-MB release, corrected Q-T interval (QTc) at discharge and major in-hospital complications. Compared with the control subjects, groups 2 and 3 exhibited reduced creatine kinase-MB release (75+/-26 IU/L and 85+/-22 IU/L versus 172+/-13 IU/L, P=0.004 and P=0.024, respectively), lower discharge QTc values (418+/-15 ms and 422+/-19 ms versus 443+/-38 ms, P=0.004 and P=0.031, respectively), and a reduced incidence of postinfarction angina (25% and 11% versus 44%, P<0.05), arrhythmias (0% and 0% versus 22%, P<0.05) and pulmonary edema (4% and 0% versus 28%, P<0.05).",
"Patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI) whose culprit lesion lies in a branch of the 3 major coronary arteries have well-preserved cardiac function. A first MI with preserved cardiac function is a risk factor for left ventricular free wall rupture (LVFWR), so the aim of this study was to investigate the possible relationship between AMI with branch segment occlusion and LVFWR. The 439 patients with AMI were retrospectively studied. They were divided into 2 groups: group B (n=70; segments 4 atrioventricular node artery, 4 posterior descending coronary artery, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, or 15 according to the AHA classification), and group P (n=369; segments 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 11, or 13). Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) was more often performed in group P (75% vs 57%; P=0.0018). In-hospital mortality tended to be lower in group B (1.4% vs 6.2%; P=0.105). The incidence of LVFWR was significantly higher in group B (10.0% vs 1.6%; P=0.0002).By multivariate logistic regression analysis, 1-vessel disease, absence of primary PCI, branch segment occlusion, and age were identified as independent predictors of LVFWR.",
"yes. Elevated Lp(a) predisposes to the extent of CAD and total occlusions but not to the severity of lesions. Patients with increased Lp(a) levels and unstable angina are at increased danger of suffering myocardial infarction. Thus, Lp(a) may predispose to plaque destabilization and thrombosis of noncritical lesions.",
"Prodromal angina pectoris occurring shortly before the onset of acute myocardial infarction is associated with a favorable outcome by the mechanism of ischemic preconditioning. Recent experiments have reported that the beneficial effect of ischemic preconditioning are reversed in the aged heart. We studied 990 patients who underwent coronary angiography within 12 hours after the onset of acute myocardial infarction. Patients were divided into 2 groups: those aged <70 years (nonelderly patients, n = 722) and those aged >/=70 years (elderly patients, n = 268). Prodromal angina in the 24 hours before infarction was found in 190 of 722 nonelderly patients and in 66 of 268 elderly patients (26% vs 25%, P =.61). In nonelderly patients, prodromal angina was associated with lower peak creatine kinase levels (2438 +/- 1939 IU/L vs 2837 +/- 2341 IU/L, P =.04), lower in-hospital mortality rates (3.7% vs 8.8%, P =.02), and better 5-year survival rates (P =. 007). On the contrary, in elderly patients there was no significant difference in peak creatine kinase levels (2427 +/- 2142 IU/L vs 2256 +/- 1551 IU/L, P =.51), in-hospital mortality rate (21.2% vs 17. 4%, P =.49), and 5-year survival rates (P =.47). A multivariate analysis showed that prodromal angina in the 24 hours before infarction was associated with 5-year survival rate in nonelderly patients (odds ratio 0.49, P =.009) but not in elderly patients (odds ratio l.12, P =.65).",
"In patients with acute coronary syndromes, the presence of prior CVA, TIA, or PAD is associated with more extensive CAD and worse outcome. These patients appear to receive less aggressive treatment, which may explain, at least in part, their worse outcome.",
"C-reactive protein (CRP) plays a pivotal role in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis progression. We hypothesized that CRP might be related to progression of non-target lesion and prognosis in patients with angina pectoris. We enrolled 111 patients with angina pectoris treated with coronary stenting. CRP was measured before coronary stenting. Patients were grouped according to the CRP value, high CRP group (n=56, ≥ 0.12 mg/dl) and low CRP group (n=55, <0.12 mg/dl). Kaplan-Meier analysis showed that non-target lesion revascularization (TLR) free survival was significantly lower in the high CRP group than in the low CRP group (log-rank, p=0.004). Moreover, cardiac event (death, myocardial infarction, TLR, and non-TLR) free survival was also significantly lower in the high CRP group than in the low CRP group (p=0.004). By univariate and multivariate analysis, CRP was the only independent predictor of non-TLR (odds ratio, 1.26; p<0.001 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.98-1.64]). Also, CRP was a predictor of the cardiac events (odds ratio, 1.32; p=0.04 [95% CI 1.02-1.72]).",
"Variants at the 9p21 locus associate with the risk of coronary artery disease (CAD) or myocardial infarction (MI). However, atherosclerotic plaque deposition is distinct from MI (plaque rupture and thrombosis), and recent studies showed no association between these variants and MI in patients with preexisting CAD. We performed haplotype analysis at the 9p21 locus to test whether haplotypes at distinct linkage disequilibrium blocks predict these phenotypes. Using 24 single-nucleotide polymorphisms genotyped in white patients without diabetes mellitus, we reconstructed haplotypes at the 9p21 locus. Patients with angiograhic CAD/MI had ≥1 epicardial stenosis >50% (n=2352), whereas controls were asymptomatic and over the age of 60 years (n=2116). For CAD patients, regression models examined the association of haplotypes with initial age of symptomatic CAD, number of diseased vessels, and history of MI. In the case-control study, only haplotypes at 1 block tagged by rs1333049 associated with CAD more so than MI. These haplotypes also associated with early onset of CAD (β=-0.13; P=1.37×10(-4)) and disease severity (β=0.1823; P=0.006) but not with prevalent MI among patients with CAD. In contrast, haplotypes at another block tagged by rs518394 associated with prevalent MI (β=0.239; P=2.05×10(-4)), but remarkably these are inversely associated with disease severity (β=-0.196; P=0.003). This MI association was replicated in the Cleveland Clinic GeneBank premature CAD cohort (n=1385; β=0.207; P=0.019).",
"We conclude that elective coronary angioplasty in patients with angina pectoris after non-Q wave myocardial infarction does not lead to a better prognosis than after Q wave myocardial infarction. Thus, management strategies after myocardial infarction should not be based on the absence or presence of Q waves on the electrocardiogram.",
"When present, LGE in an infarct pattern suggests CAD as the etiology of new onset CHF. However, the absence of LGE does not exclude CAD as the underlying etiology. A small proportion of patients with a nonischemic cause of new onset CHF have LGE limited to the midwall.",
"yes. CRP was a predictor of non-TLR and cardiac events following stenting in patients with angina pectoris.",
"The likelihood of a positive response with dipyridamole stress echocardiography (DSE) is directly related to the extent and severity of angiographically assessed coronary artery disease. Whether coronary lesion morphology--a known predictor of adverse cardiac events--may also modulate stress echo results remains unknown. The objective of our study was to assess the relation between stenosis lesion morphology and stress echocardiographic results. High-dose (up to 0.84 mg/kg over 10 minutes) DSE and coronary angiographic data of 68 in-hospital patients (39 with stable angina, 29 with angina at rest) with nonoccluding, single-vessel disease at angiography and no previous myocardial infarction were analyzed. DSE was performed in all patients within 3 days of coronary angiography. An angiographic lesion was considered complex when irregular borders and/or intraluminal lucencies suggestive of ulcer and/or thrombus were present. According to angiographic lesion morphology, two groups were identified: group 1, with simple coronary lesions, and group 2, with complex coronary lesions. The two groups were matched for number of patients (n = 34 in each group), age (group 1, 59 +/- 9 versus group 2, 59 +/- 10 years, P = NS), and coronary artery stenosis severity by quantitative coronary angiography (group 1, 60 +/- 7% versus group 2, 58 +/- 6% diameter reduction, P = NS). The sensitivity of DSE was lower in patients of group 1 when compared with group 2 (53% versus 85%, P < .001). Among positive DSE, the low-dose (0.56 mg/kg over 4 minutes) positivity was less frequent in group 1 than in group 2 patients (17% versus 62%, P < .01). Exercise ECG was completed in 66 patients, and it was positive (> .1 mV ST-segment shift from baseline) in 20 out of 33 group 1 and in 22 out of 33 group 2 patients (61% versus 67%, P = NS). The peak rate-pressure product tended to be higher in group 1 than in group 2 patients (257 +/- 52 versus 240 +/- 64 mm Hg x beats per minute x 10(2), P = NS).",
"no. Almost 70% of plaque specimens demonstrated thrombus, intraplaque hemorrhage, or both. Thrombosis was observed in one fourth of specimens, and intraplaque hemorrhage in almost two thirds of specimens. Sixty four percent of plaques demonstrated neovascularization. It was not possible to demonstrate that complicated plaques (plaque rupture, thrombosis, intraplaque hemorrhage) are associated with symptoms, and it appears that such plaques may occur at any time, irrespective of symptoms.",
"yes. Acute coronary syndromes are the common clinical manifestations of restenosis in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention and occur more frequently in patients with in-stent stenosis than in those with restenosis without stenting.",
"Ischaemic preconditioning reduces myocardial infarct size in animal models. Clinical data suggest that episodes of angina immediately before acute myocardial infarction may be associated with smaller infarct size in man. However, it is unclear whether ischaemic episodes preceding acute myocardial infarction also affect contractile recovery in patients. In this study we investigated the recovery of regional myocardial function after thrombolysis in two groups of patients at their first Q-wave acute myocardial infarction; in one group (n = 42) myocardial infarction occurred unheralded, whereas patients of the second group (n = 48) had experienced new-onset angina in the 48 h that preceded infarction. Echocardiographic analysis of myocardial regional function in the infarct area was done at 2, 24 and 72 h after thrombolysis, and at 1 week, and 1 and 3 months follow-up. Peak level of MB-creatine kinase was significantly lower in patients with new-onset angina (96 +/- 47 as compared with 221 +/- 108 IU.l-1, P < 0.01), as was the area under the MB-creatine kinase curve (1321 +/- 876 as compared to 3879 +/- 1555 U.l-1/36 h, P < 0.01). Hypokinetic segments were fewer in patients with pre-infarction angina. Similarly, wall motion score improved significantly earlier in patients who had new-onset angina before acute myocardial infarction. Thus, contractile recovery was more rapid in patients with previous angina than in those in whom infarction occurred unheralded. Complications during the in-hospital outcome and other variables considered during the 4-week follow-up were similar between groups.",
"yes. Increased plasma levels of MMP-9 and TIMP-1 were detected in the coronary circulation in ACS patients, suggesting a process of active plaque rupture in ACS.",
"In our study population, sudden death was precipitated by acute coronary thrombosis in only 27% of patients with obstructive coronary atherosclerotic plaque. Most of the young victims of sudden death with obstructive coronary atherosclerosis showed single-vessel disease that affected the left anterior descending coronary artery and was due to fibrous plaques with neointimal smooth muscle cell hyperplasia and a preserved tunica media in the absence of acute thrombosis.",
"To determine the incidence, characteristics, and outcomes associated with geographical miss (GM) of plaque. GM describes plaques that are incompletely covered following stenting, with GM thought to be associated with worse clinical outcomes. However, the incidence and characteristics of intravascular ultrasound (IVUS)-defined GM plaques have never been studied and the relationship between GM with both short and long-term clinical events is unknown. One hundred and seventy patients with stable angina (n = 100) or myocardial infarction (MI) (n = 70) underwent virtual-histology IVUS (VH-IVUS) prior to, and following, percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). GM was defined as three consecutive uncovered VH frames, either proximal or distal to the stented segment with plaque burden >40%. MACE was defined as a composite of death, myocardial infarction, unplanned revascularization, or hospitalization for angina. In total, 245 plaques underwent PCI with 80 (32.7%) displaying evidence of GM (69 patients). GM was associated with increased plaque volume (p < 0.001), % necrotic core, and dense calcium (both p < 0.001) and VH-defined thin-cap fibroatheroma (VH-TCFA) (p = 0.01). GM was not associated with increased periprocedural MI (p = 0.15) or inflammatory cytokine release. At follow-up, 42 MACE occurred in 28 patients (median 1,115 days). MACE was attributable to 8/80 (10%) plaques with and 7/165 (4.2%) plaques without GM (log-rank p = 0.11). GM was associated with increased MACE in patients presenting with MI (p = 0.015), but not for those with stable angina (p = 0.94).",
"yes. Atherosclerotic plaque rupture is accompanied by a loss of miR-221 and miR-222 and an increase in p27Kip1 mRNA expression in the plaque shoulder, suggesting an association between these miRNAs and atherosclerotic plaque stability.",
"The putative theory is that the clinical syndrome of unstable angina is caused by rupture of the atherosclerotic plaque with superimposed thrombus formation. It is characterized by angiographically complex coronary lesions in the majority of patients. This study aimed at assessing the correlation between C-reactive protein (CRP) and the complexity of culprit coronary lesions in unstable angina. We identified culprit lesion complexity in 96 patients with unstable angina and normal creatine kinase (CK) and CK-MB mass. Serum concentrations of CRP (N < 5.0 mg/l) and cardiac troponin T (cTnT; N < 0.1 ng/ml) were measured on admission. There was a trend toward a higher grade of anatomical complexity of the culprit lesion in patients with elevated CRP (p = 0.007) and cTnT levels (p = 0.027). Patients who had intermediate- or high-grade lesion severity had a higher level of CRP (8.5 +/- 5.7 mg/l) and cTnT (0.118 +/- 0.205 ng/ml) on admission than those who had normal or low-grade lesions (5.7 +/- 4.0 mg/l, 0.017 +/- 0.021 ng/ml, respectively); Mann-Whitney U, p = 0.002 and p < 0.001, respectively. Furthermore, the likelihood of having intermediate- or high-grade complexity of the culprit lesion was higher when CRP levels were elevated in all patients (p = 0.007, odds ratio [OR] = 4.286; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.492-12.310) and in those with normal cTnT levels (p = 0.025, OR = 3.876; 95% CI 1.185-12.678). Also, higher CRP levels strongly correlated with the need for revascularization interventions (p < 0.0005).",
"yes. Atherosclerotic plaque with EA showed a significant association with no reflow after percutaneous coronary intervention, suggesting the existence of fragile components susceptible to distal embolization.",
"no. Coronary stenting is associated with transient increases in both CRP and IL-6 levels. However, pre-procedural CRP and IL-6 levels do not predict late coronary angiographic restenosis.",
"yes. Previous exposure to a brief episode of ischemia (first balloon inflation) or to adenosine produces concordant decreases in ECG, subjective, mechanical, and metabolic manifestations of ischemia during PTCA. These data support the concept that both ischemic PC and pharmacologic PC exist in humans and that PTCA is a useful clinical setting in which to discern their mechanism.",
"The goal of this study was to investigate the association between the atherosclerotic arterial remodeling and the incidence of cardiac events after coronary interventions in patients with stable angina. The local mode of de novo atherosclerotic remodeling is associated with plaque vulnerability and clinical symptoms. It may, therefore, reflect plaque morphology influencing the long-term outcome after coronary interventions. Quantitative angiography and intravascular ultrasound were obtained in 244 patients with stable angina before and after single-vessel revascularization. On the basis of the lesion and the reference segment vessel size, patients were categorized into three groups (adaptive [AR], constrictive [CR] and intermediate [IR] remodeling). The lesion was analyzed for lumen, total vessel and plaque areas. Clinical follow-up was obtained at a mean period of 7.7+/-3.7 months. Patients with CR had a higher rate of in-hospital complications (10.9% vs. 2.9% and 2.7% in group CR vs. AR and IR, p = 0.035). In contrast, patients with AR had the highest rate of major adverse cardiac events (MACE) (44.3% vs. 25.5% in IR and 28.1% in CR, p = 0.024) with a predominance of revascularization at follow-up. Both target lesion restenosis (p = 0.036) and nontarget lesion de novo stenosis (p = 0.007) occurred more frequently in this group. Adaptive remodeling was a significant predictor of MACE in multivariate analysis.",
"The objective of this study was to use electrocardiogram (ECG)-independent parameters to determine whether preconditioning (PC) exists in humans during percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). Several studies suggest that both ischemia and adenosine induce PC in the human heart during PTCA. However, because almost all of these studies relied on ST-segment shifts as indicators of the severity of ischemia, their conclusions continue to be questioned, and the very existence of ischemic or adenosine PC in humans remains controversial. Eighteen patients received either intracoronary adenosine (n = 9) or normal saline (n = 9); 10 min later, they underwent PTCA (three 2-min balloon inflations 5 min apart). Compared with the first inflation, in untreated patients the second and third inflations were associated with less systolic dysfunction (two-dimensional echocardiography), less diastolic dysfunction (color M-mode echocardiography), less lactate production, and less H(+) release into the great cardiac venous blood. In adenosine-treated patients, the extent of all of these abnormalities during the first inflation was less than in untreated patients and did not change with subsequent inflations.",
"yes. C. pneumoniae infection is associated with coronary artery disease, but no difference in serology is present between unstable and stable angina. Therefore, it does not seem implicated in triggering an acute coronary event.",
"This study was undertaken to assess whether prodromal angina could have beneficial effects in diabetic patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Prodromal angina occurring shortly before the onset of AMI is associated with favorable outcomes by the mechanism of ischemic preconditioning. However, little is known about the impact of diabetes on ischemic preconditioning. We studied 611 patients with a first anterior wall AMI who underwent emergency catheterization within 12 h after the onset of chest pain: 490 patients without diabetes and 121 patients with non-insulin treated diabetes. Prodromal angina was defined as angina episode(s) occurring within 24 h before the onset of AMI. Serial contrast left ventriculograms were obtained in 424 patients at the time of acute and predischarge catheterization. In non-diabetic patients, prodromal angina was associated with lower peak creatine kinase (CK) value (3,068 +/- 2,647 IU/l vs. 3,601 +/- 2,462 IU/l, p = 0.037), larger increase in left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) (10.1 +/- 13.0% vs. 5.8 +/- 13.4%, p = 0.004) and lower in-hospital mortality (3.4% vs. 9.3%, p = 0.015). On the contrary, in diabetic patients, there was no significant difference in peak CK value (3,382 +/- 2,520 IU/l vs. 3,233 +/- 2,412 IU/l, p = NS), the change in LVEF (6.7 +/- 13.8% vs. 7.1 +/- 12.4%, p = NS) and in-hospital mortality (8.8% vs. 11.0%, p = NS) between patients with and patients without prodromal angina.",
"The purpose of this study was to assess whether different coronary plaque types as classified by multislice computed tomography (CT) are retrospectively correlated with acute coronary syndromes (ACS) in an unselected study population. Sixty-three consecutive patients were examined with 16-slice CT coronary angiography. Coronary plaque types were classified as calcifying type 1, mixed (calcifying>non-calcifying) type 2, mixed (non-calcifying>calcifying) type 3, and non-calcifying type 4. Patients who had an ACS within 17 days were included. All patients underwent invasive coronary angiography. Fifty-eight patients (92%) had coronary plaques evaluated by CT: 18 type 1 (31%), 10 type 2 (17%), 16 type 3 (28%) and 14 type 4 (24%). The presence of a non-calcifying plaque component (types 2-4; 40 of 63 patients, 63%) was correlated with ACS (n = 15; 24%) (p<0.001). Only type 3 was significantly correlated with ACS (p = 0.01), but plaque types 2 and 4 were not. The diagnostic accuracy of CT for detection of stenosis>50% in proximal segments was: sensitivity 98%, specificity 90%, negative predictive value 97%, positive predictive value 97% per patient.",
"yes. The presence of angina pectoris was related to extensive CAD in patients with DM. The extent of CAD was not correlated with the type of angina (typical or atypical).",
"yes. Asymptomatic subjects with ECAC are not firstly manifested as acute coronary events but presented a high level of chronic CAD-related events during the 6.3 ±3.4 year follow-up. In contrast, first acute CAD-related events occurred mostly in subjects with mild and moderate CAC score.",
"yes. Extent of CAD, as well as its severity, is significantly associated with traditional vascular risk factors. Because most acute coronary events occur at sites of minor plaque, this might explain the mechanism whereby risk factors confer adverse prognostic significance.",
"yes. In patients with stable angina pectoris undergoing elective PCI, increased preprocedural and 6-month follow-up CRP plasma levels are associated with clinical restenosis. Factor VII plasma activity lacks such correlations.",
"Atherosclerotic plaque is widely present in all bifurcation segments, even in the absence of coronary lumen stenosis. A CT-Medina classification combining lumen and plaque parameters is more informative than angiographic classification of bifurcation lesions and could potentially facilitate the decision-making on the treatment of these lesions.",
"yes. In patients with non-obstructive CAD, coronary microvascular dysfunction is associated with higher serum hs-CRP and is an independent predictor of more TCFAs, a marker for increased epicardial plaque vulnerability.",
"yes. We demonstrated that elevated levels of circulating galectin-3 are strongly associated with premature myocardial infarction. Galectin-3 might serve as link between dyslipidaemia as driving force of plaque formation with inflammation as initiator of plaque rupture in patients with premature acute myocardial infarction.",
"yes. Preinfarction angina under 48 hours significantly reduces infarcted mass (measured by ECG and enzymes) in thrombolysed patients, but not in the interventional group. However, PIA reduced arrhythmic end-point in interventional setting.",
"no. In this selected group of patients with unstable angina, type of coronary artery lesion and the presence or absence of thrombus formation does not predict clinical outcome.",
"yes. Widespread inflammation associated with multifocal plaque rupture and subsequent two-vessel acute myocardial infarction is a rare phenomenon, usually associated with sudden cardiac death. Widespread inflammation is one of the reasons why the widely accepted theory of the single vulnerable plaque for such events can be contradicted.",
"yes. High serum PAPP-A and plaque lesions with a large necrotic core are associated with the no-reflow phenomenon after PCI, in patients with unstable angina.",
"Recent studies suggest that fractalkine (FKN or CX3CL1) and its cognate receptor, CX3CR1, play a role in atherogenesis, so the relationship between coronary plaque rupture, as observed by preintervention optical coherence tomography, and plasma levels of FKN and CX3CR1 was investigated in this study. The study population consisted of 46 patients with unstable angina pectoris (UAP), 30 patients with stable angina pectoris, and 25 healthy controls. The UAP patients underwent a preintervention optical coherence tomography study, which revealed that the number of patients with and without plaque rupture at the culprit site was 27 (rupture group) and 19 (non-rupture group), respectively. Plasma levels of soluble FKN (sFKN) and CX3CR1 were measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and flow cytometry, respectively. The plasma levels of sFKN were significantly increased in UAP patients with plaque rupture compared with patients in the other groups. Multiple logistic regression analysis showed that CD14(+)CD16(+)CX3CR1(+) monocytes and CD3(+)CX3CR1(+) lymphocytes were independent predictors of the presence of ruptured plaque.",
"Atherosclerotic plaque that shows echo signal attenuation (EA) without associated bright echoes is sometimes observed by intravascular ultrasound but its clinical significance remains unclear. We investigated the impact of EA on coronary perfusion and evaluated the pathological features of plaque with EA. We studied 687 native coronary lesions in 687 consecutive patients (336 with acute coronary syndrome and 351 with stable angina pectoris) who underwent intravascular ultrasound before percutaneous coronary intervention. By subgroup analysis, 60 lesions (30 lesions with EA) treated with directional coronary atherectomy underwent pathological examination. The Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction (TIMI) flow grade and myocardial blush grade after percutaneous coronary intervention were compared between lesions with and without EA in 627 lesions except directional coronary atherectomy subgroup. EA was observed in 245 lesions (35.7%), and coronary flow after percutaneous coronary intervention was worse for lesions with EA than without (final TIMI grade of 0 to 2: 15.4% versus 2.4%, P<0.001; final myocardial blush grade of 0 to 2: 45.6% versus 21.4%, P<0.001). Multivariate analysis revealed a significant association between no reflow (TIMI grade 0 to 2) and EA (odds ratio, 5.59; 95% CI, 2.64 to 11.85; P<0.001), a baseline TIMI grade of 0 to 2 (odds ratio, 5.91; 95% CI, 2.79 to 12.5; P<0.001), and a large reference area (odds ratio, 3.08; 95% CI, 1.40 to 6.76; P=0.005) after controlling for other associated factors. Pathological examination revealed a significantly higher frequency of lipid-rich plaque with microcalcification in lesions with EA.",
"In this prospective study we determine the diagnostic value of coronary CT angiography (CTA) and calcium imaging in low to intermediate risk acute chest pain patients. One hundred and eleven consecutive patients (57 ± 11 years, 71 males) presenting to the emergency department with chest pain suggestive of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), but without indication for immediate catheter angiography, underwent both coronary CTA and calcium imaging without disclosure of the findings to the treating physicians. ACS was diagnosed in 19 patients (17%). Coronary calcium was present in 71 patients (64%). Coronary CTA identified 74 (67%) patients with coronary plaque and 36 (32%) patients with obstructive (≥ 50%) plaque. The sensitivity and specificity of the calcium scan were: 89% and 41%. The sensitivity and specificity of coronary CTA were: 100% and 40% based on the presence of any plaque and 89% and 79% based on the presence of >50% stenosis. C-statistics of the GRACE risk score (0.77 [95% CI 0.66-0.89]) improved after addition of coronary CTA (0.93 [0.88-0.98], p<0.01), though not after addition of calcium scores (0.81 [0.71-0.91], p=0.52). Follow-up at 3 months revealed four late revascularizations (no deaths or myocardial infarctions), all of whom had obstructive CAD with calcium on CT at presentation.",
"yes. There is an intracardiac inflammatory response in UA that appears to be the result of low-grade myocardial necrosis. The ruptured plaque does not appear to contribute to the acute phase response.",
"yes. The data show PCI-induced impairment of resting microvascular perfusion in the area of myocardium subtended by the treated artery after PCI, a likely consequence of iatrogenic atherosclerotic plaque rupture.",
"Serial volumetric IVUS assessment revealed in UA lesions a marked poststenting reduction in plaque volume, which is significantly greater than in stable angina and is associated with postprocedural CK-MB release. The decrease in PA during the procedure predicts CK-MB release in a multiple regression model. These findings suggest that stent deployment is often associated with plaque embolization in patients with UA.",
"In acute anterior wall myocardial infarction spontaneous coronary artery recanalization is associated with better global and segmental left ventricular systolic function, specially if the occlusion is of pre-septal localization, while collateral circulation is not related to better contractility. In acute inferior wall myocardial infarction one sees the reverse.",
"The goal of this study was to evaluate the effect of preconditioning on out-of-hospital ventricular fibrillation (VF) in patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). More than half of the deaths associated with AMI occur out of the hospital and within 1 h of symptom onset. In humans, preinfarction angina (PA), which can serve as a surrogate marker for preconditioning, reduces infarct size, but the protective effect against out-of-hospital VF has not been investigated. Preinfarction angina status and acute coronary angiographic findings of 72 consecutive patients with AMI complicated by out-of-hospital VF were compared with 144 matched controls without this complication. Preinfarction angina is associated with a lower risk for VF (odds ratio [OR]: 0.40, 95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.18 to 0.88). In patients with acute occlusion of the left coronary artery (LCA) (n = 136), the risk reduction is pronounced (OR: 0.25, 95% CI: 0.10 to 0.66), whereas, in patients with acute occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA) (n = 67), the protective effect of PA on VF was not observed (OR: 2.25, 95% CI: 0.45 to 11.22). Subgroup and multivariate analyses show that the protective effect is independent of cardiovascular risk factors, preinfarction treatment with beta-adrenergic blocking agents or aspirin, the presence of collaterals or residual antegrade flow or the extent of coronary artery disease.",
"Pre-infarction angina (PIA) has been shown to reduce the microvascular obstruction (MVO) rate in patients with ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). We sought to evaluate the potential modulator role of cardiovascular risk factors (CRFs) on this protective effect. Two hundred patients with STEMI were enrolled. PIA was defined as typical chest pain within the 48 h preceding STEMI onset. Angiographic MVO was defined as TIMI flow grade <2 or TIMI flow 3 with myocardial blush grade <2; electrocardiographic (ECG) MVO was defined as ST-segment elevation resolution <70%. Common CRFs were collected. In the absence of hypertension, both angiographic and ECG MVO rates were lower in patients with PIA as compared with those without, whereas, in the presence of hypertension, they were similar in both study groups (P for interaction=0.01 and P=0.014, respectively). Among nonsmokers, angiographic and ECG MVO rates were lower in patients with PIA as compared with those without, whereas within smokers, they were similar in both study groups (P for interaction=0.037 and P=0.037, respectively). In the absence of dyslipidemia, the angiographic and ECG MVO rates were lower in patients with PIA as compared with those without, whereas within dyslipidemic patients, they were similar in both study groups (P for interaction=0.012 and P=0.04, respectively).",
"yes. Epicardial and microvascular coronary spasm in response to ACH correlate significantly with hs-CRP and sCD40 ligand concentrations in patients with angina pectoris and angiographically unobstructed coronary arteries. These results suggest that an association exists between inflammation and coronary artery spasm in patients with angina pectoris despite unobstructed coronary arteries and studies are needed to explore the mechanisms underlying this association.",
"yes. In patients with single-vessel disease without coronary occlusion or previous myocardial infarction, coronary lesion morphology of the complex type is associated with a higher DSE sensitivity and with a greater prevalence of low-dose, positive responses. Presence of irregular plaque contours, not only plaque geometry, is important in modulating stress responses in the presence of angiographically assessed coronary artery disease.",
"We assessed the impact of remodeling patterns on pre- and post-procedural intravascular ultrasound (IVUS) findings and cardiac enzyme elevation after stenting in 310 acute myocardial infarction (AMI) patients. The positive remodeling (PR) (PR group, n=113) was defined as remodeling index (lesion/reference external elastic membrane cross-sectional area) >1.05, intermediate remodeling (IR) as between 0.95 and 1.05, and negative remodeling (NR) as<0.95 (IR/NR group, n=197). IVUS findings included ruptured plaque (a cavity that communicated with the lumen with an overlying residual fibrous cap fragment), multiple ruptured plaques (different plaque ruptures separated by a >5-mm length of artery containing smooth lumen contours), thrombus (discrete intraluminal filling defects), and plaque prolapse (tissue extrusion through the stent strut at post-stenting). We compared pre- and post-procedural IVUS findings and cardiac-specific troponin I (cTnI) elevation after stenting according to the remodeling pattern. The plaque rupture (60% vs. 42%, p=0.004), multiple plaque ruptures (22% vs. 14%, p=0.014), and IVUS-detected thrombus (42% vs. 28%, p=0.012) were more common in the PR group compared with the IR/NR group. Post-stenting plaque prolapse was observed more frequently (36% vs. 22%, p=0.008), and cTnI was elevated more significantly after stenting in the PR group compared with the IR/NR group (DeltacTnI; +7.8+/-51.1 ng/ml vs. +0.9+/-41.1 ng/ml, p=0.008). Multivariate analysis showed that PR [odds ratio (OR)=1.92; 95% CI 1.04-2.98, p=0.028], plaque rupture (OR 1.98; 95% CI 1.16-3.45, p=0.025), IVUS-detected thrombus (OR 2.30; 95% CI 1.22-3.98, p=0.008), and plaque prolapse (OR 8.40; 95% CI 4.19-16.84, p<0.001) were independently associated with post-stenting cTnI elevation.",
"no. Our results do not support the hypothesis that, in patients with unstable angina, replication of CMV in coronary atherosclerotic plaques is a major cause of plaque instability. These findings suggest that the research for the causes of unstable angina should be directed toward processes other than CMV replication.",
"Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) prevails in older patients and is associated with higher morbidity and mortality. Little is known about patient-related variables that may affect course and treatment of ACS in older vs. younger with acute chest pain. Situational, circumstantial, and other patient-related variables were assessed in 1000 unselected consecutive older (> or =70 years) and younger (<70 years) patients admitted with chest pain and possible ACS. In 182 older vs. 818 younger patients, prevalence of females, those not speaking the local language, living alone, lower education level, non-smokers, diabetes, hypertension, preexisting coronary artery disease, and attempting some form of self-treatment before seeking medical help were significantly greater (P<0.001). Interval from chest pain onset to emergency department arrival was longer (P=0.05), and a higher proportion of the older considered hospitalization mandatory, suspecting ACS (P<0.001). ACS eventually developed in 19.1% of younger and 39% of older patients (P<0.001). On multivariate analysis, most predictive of ACS in the younger group were: preexisting coronary artery disease (OR 5.27; 95% CI 3.44-8.07, P<0.001), current smoking (OR 1.78; 95% CI 1.16-2.75, P=0.002), male sex (OR 1.57; 95% CI 1.0-2.59, P=0.07), and older age (OR 1.25; 95% CI 1.11-1.42, P=0.005). In the older group, these were: not speaking the local language (OR 2.39; 95% CI 1.19-4.79, P=0.005), preexisting coronary artery disease (OR 1.95; 95% CI 1.0-3.87, P=0.026), direct emergency department arrival (OR 1.9; 95% CI 1.0-3.77, P=0.066), and diabetes (OR 1.84; 95% CI 1.0-3.56, P=0.079).",
"Intravascular ultrasound (IVUS) studies have shown that a mechanism of plaque compression/embolization contributes toward the poststenting increase in lumen area. The aim of this IVUS study was to compare the mechanisms of lumen enlargement after coronary stenting in 54 consecutive patients with unstable angina (UA) (group 1) and 56 with stable angina (group 2) to verify whether plaque embolization plays a major role in the former. Both groups underwent the IVUS assessment (speed, 0.5 mm/sec) before the intervention and after stent implantation. The lumen area, the external elastic membrane area, and the plaque+media area (PA) were measured at 0.5-mm intervals. PA reduction in the lesion site was significantly greater in group 1 (-2.50+/-1.97 versus -0.53+/-1.43 mm2, P<0.001). After stenting, 47% of the lumen area increase in group 1 was obtained by means of PA reduction, and 53% was attributable to external elastic membrane area increase; the corresponding figures in group 2 were 13% and 87% (P<0.05). Decrease in PA after stenting was the only significant predictor of the MB fraction of creatinine kinase (CK-MB) release in a multiple regression model (P=0.047).",
"Although plaque rupture is responsible for most myocardial infarctions, few high-risk plaques identified by intracoronary imaging actually result in future major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE). Nonimaging markers of individual plaque behavior are therefore required. Rupture occurs when plaque structural stress (PSS) exceeds material strength. We therefore assessed whether PSS could predict future MACE in high-risk nonculprit lesions identified on virtual-histology intravascular ultrasound. Baseline nonculprit lesion features associated with MACE during long-term follow-up (median: 1115 days) were determined in 170 patients undergoing 3-vessel virtual-histology intravascular ultrasound. MACE was associated with plaque burden ≥70% (hazard ratio: 8.6; 95% confidence interval, 2.5-30.6; P<0.001) and minimal luminal area ≤4 mm(2) (hazard ratio: 6.6; 95% confidence interval, 2.1-20.1; P=0.036), although absolute event rates for high-risk lesions remained <10%. PSS derived from virtual-histology intravascular ultrasound was subsequently estimated in nonculprit lesions responsible for MACE (n=22) versus matched control lesions (n=22). PSS showed marked heterogeneity across and between similar lesions but was significantly increased in MACE lesions at high-risk regions, including plaque burden ≥70% (13.9±11.5 versus 10.2±4.7; P<0.001) and thin-cap fibroatheroma (14.0±8.9 versus 11.6±4.5; P=0.02). Furthermore, PSS improved the ability of virtual-histology intravascular ultrasound to predict MACE in plaques with plaque burden ≥70% (adjusted log-rank, P=0.003) and minimal luminal area ≤4 mm(2) (P=0.002). Plaques responsible for MACE had larger superficial calcium inclusions, which acted to increase PSS (P<0.05).",
"no. The inverse relation between the extent of inflammatory activity in plaque tissues of culprit lesions and the clinical stability of the ischaemic syndrome supports the concept that reduction of inflammation favours plaque stabilisation. At the same time, the considerable overlap between groups indicates that patients with clinically stable angina do not all have histologically stable plaques.",
"yes. The presence of a specific smooth muscle cell proliferation (accelerated progression) pattern in patients with unstable angina, particularly in those with Braunwald's IIB unstable angina, suggests that episodic plaque disruption and subsequent healing may be an important mechanism underlying angina symptoms in these patients.",
"no. Preprocedural inflammatory markers in stable angina subjects undergoing coronary artery stent deployment did not correlate with the development of in-stent restenosis. Differences in pathobiology between stable and unstable coronary syndromes, the widespread use of statins with anti-inflammatory activity in our cohort of patients, along with different mechanisms underlying the early angiographic appearances of restenosis as compared to clinical end points, most likely explain our findings.",
"yes. Our study demonstrates that ischemic etiology of cardiomyopathy prior to HTx may be independently associated with plaque progression and higher event rate after HTx.",
"In a clinical setting of acute myocardial infarction (MI), short-lasting and transient anginal pain, preceding the development of acute MI, is regarded as a symptom representing ischaemic preconditioning. Some experimental and clinical data suggested that preinfarction angina may favourably influence the course of acute MI.AIM: We sought to examine the hypothesis that preinfarction angina occurring within 24 hours prior to the onset of acute MI favourably influences the outcome. The study group consisted of 331 patients who were admitted to our hospital due to acute MI with ST segment elevation with a symptom duration<12 hours and received thrombolysis. Preinfarction angina within 24 hours prior to MI was present in 80 patients whereas the remaining 251 patients had no chest pain preceding acute MI. The course of the in-hospital phase of MI (mean 15 days) was analysed. In patients with preinfarction angina the in-hospital complication rate was significantly lower than in patients without angina preceding acute MI (p<0.001). Patients without preinfarction angina more frequently developed heart failure (p<0.001) or died (p<0.01) in hospital. Patients with preinfarction angina had significantly less extensive MI and had reperfusion symptoms more frequently. Multivariate analysis showed that there were three factors which independently favourably influenced survival: preinfarction angina (p=0.01), age<or =65 years (p=0.04) and duration of chest pain during acute MI<or =3h (p=0.03). Of the analysed group, 73 patients died in hospital. The independent variables predicting death included prior MI (p=0.04), history of diabetes (p=0.02), acute left bundle branch block (p=0.01) and age>65 years (p=0.03). Non-fatal re-infarction complicated the in-hospital course of MI in 27 patients. The independent variables which predicted this complication included age>65 years (p=0.03) and hypercholesterolemia (p=0.04).",
"yes. Patients with unstable angina and coronary outward remodeling who displayed a pro-inflammatory response experienced recurrent coronary events and an increased percentage of total plaque area. In contrast, better outcomes were observed in patients with anti-inflammatory responses. This response could be secondary to low-density lipoproteins.",
"Patients with preinfarction angina, occurring within 24 hours of acute MI, have better in-hospital outcome and less extensive myocardial injury than patients without antecedent angina. These results may be attributed to the protective effects of ischaemic preconditioning.",
"Early clinical presentation of ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and non-ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction affects patient management. Although local inflammatory activities are involved in the onset of MI, little is known about their impact on early clinical presentation. This study aimed to investigate whether local inflammatory activities affect early clinical presentation. This study comprised 94 and 17 patients with MI (STEMI, 69; non-STEMI, 25) and stable angina pectoris, respectively. We simultaneously investigated the culprit lesion morphologies using optical coherence tomography and inflammatory activities assessed by shedding matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9) and myeloperoxidase into the coronary circulation before and after stenting. Prevalence of plaque rupture, thin-cap fibroatheroma, and lipid arc or macrophage count was higher in patients with STEMI and non-STEMI than in those with stable angina pectoris. Red thrombus was frequently observed in STEMI compared with others. Local MMP-9 levels were significantly higher than systemic levels (systemic, 42.0 [27.9-73.2] ng/mL versus prestent local, 69.1 [32.2-152.3] ng/mL versus poststent local, 68.0 [35.6-133.3] ng/mL; P<0.01). Poststent local MMP-9 level was significantly elevated in patients with STEMI (STEMI, 109.9 [54.5-197.8] ng/mL versus non-STEMI: 52.9 [33.0-79.5] ng/mL; stable angina pectoris, 28.3 [14.2-40.0] ng/mL; P<0.01), whereas no difference was observed in the myeloperoxidase level. Poststent local MMP-9 and the presence of red thrombus are the independent determinants for STEMI in multivariate analysis.",
"yes. There is a positive association between the extent of initial coronary plaque inflammation and the recurrence of unstable angina during long-term follow-up after DCA. These results underline the role of ongoing smoldering plaque inflammation in the recurrence of unstable angina after coronary interventions.",
"yes. Increases in the FKN level and the number of CX3CR1-expressing mononuclear cells might contribute to coronary plaque rupture.",
"It has been shown that preinfarction angina may have beneficial effects on infarct size and mortality. However, there are no studies that have serially assessed the impact of preinfarction angina on left ventricular (LV) function in a large series of patients. The study was undertaken to determine whether preinfarction angina (within 7 days before infarction) influences LV remodeling. In all, 119 consecutive patients with acute myocardial infarction were serially evaluated by 2-dimensional echocardiography (on Days 1, 2, 3, and 7; at 3 and 6 weeks; and at 3, 6, and 12 months following infarction). Left ventricular volumes were determined using Simpson's biplane formula and normalized for body surface area. Wall motion score index and sphericity index were calculated for each study. Coronary angiography was performed before discharge. Preinfarction angina was detected in 39 of 119 patients. Initial echocardiographic and clinical data as well as the incidence of patent infarct-related artery and collaterals were similar for patients with and without preinfarction angina. In the subset of thrombolysed patients, patients with preinfarction angina showed decrease of LV end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes during the follow-up period (p = 0.033 and p = 0.001, respectively), and improvement of wall motion score index (p < 0.001) and ejection fraction occurred (p = 0.001), without changing of LV shape (p > 0.05); in addition, patients with preinfarction angina had smaller LV volumes and higher ejection fraction than did those without angina, from 3 weeks onward. These favorable effects were not detected in patients not treated with thrombolysis.",
"The presence of angina before acute myocardial infarction seems to confer protection against in-hospital outcomes in adults; this effect seemed to be less obvious in elderly patients. This study suggests that the protection afforded by angina in adult patients may involve the occurrence of ischemic preconditioning, which seems to be lost in senescent patients.",
"yes. In nonelderly patients, prodromal angina in the 24 hours before infarction was associated with a smaller infarct size and better short- and long-term survival, suggesting a relation to ischemic preconditioning. However, such a beneficial effect was not observed in elderly patients.",
"yes. Plaque rupture was significantly associated with the development of vascular events in carotid atherosclerotic disease. MMP-2 and MMP-9 are strongly correlated with plaque instability.",
"yes. The results of this study show that plaques with prior ruptures are associated with higher critical stress conditions, both at ulcer sites and when compared with nonruptured plaques. With further validations, plaque stress analysis may provide additional stress indicators helpful for image-based plaque vulnerability assessment.",
"yes. These data show that NF-kappaB is specifically and significantly activated in unstable angina pectoris and is not affected by severity of CAD or medical therapy. Furthermore, because NF-kappaB is activated before a clinical event, it may be mechanistically involved in the plaque disruption that produces acute coronary artery syndromes.",
"Preinfarction angina improves survival after acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in nonelderly but not elderly patients in the thrombolytic era. However, it remains unclear whether preinfarction angina has a beneficial effect on clinical outcome in elderly patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The study group comprised 484 anterior AMI patients who were admitted within 24 h of onset and underwent emergency PCI. Patients were divided into 2 groups: those aged < 70 years (nonelderly patients, n = 290) and those aged > or = 70 years (elderly patients, n = 194). Angina within 24 h before AMI was present in 42% of nonelderly patients and in 37% of elderly patients. In nonelderly patients, preinfarction angina was associated with a lower in-hospital mortality rate (1% vs 7%, p = 0.02). Similarly, in elderly patients, preinfarction angina was associated with a lower in-hospital mortality rate (6% vs 16%, p = 0.03). Multivariate analysis showed that the absence of preinfarction angina was an independent predictor of in-hospital mortality in both nonelderly (odds ratio 4.20; 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.20-10.6; p = 0.04) and elderly patients (odds ratio 3.04; 95%CI 1.06-18.1; p = 0.04).",
"Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A(2) (Lp-PLA(2)) has recently been shown to be positively related to coronary events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD). However, direct evidence about the relationship between circulation Lp-PLA(2) activity and vulnerable plaque in patients with CAD remains lacking. Plasma Lp-PLA(2) activity was determined in 146 consecutive patients with CAD who underwent clinically-indicated coronary angiography and preinterventional intravascular ultrasound (IVUS). Eighty-three patients were included in the final analysis after the initial screening. Sixty (72.3%) were acute coronary syndrome (ACS) patients and 23 (27.7%) were stable angina pectoris (SAP) patients. Plaque rupture occurred in 39 (47.0%) patients, and 34 (87.2%) were from ACS patients and 5 (12.8%) from SAP patients. There were no significant differences in clinical and angiographic characteristics between patients with plaque rupture and those without plaque rupture, except for smoking, high-sensitive C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) level and Lp-PLA(2) activity (all P < 0.05). IVUS measurement uncovered that patients with plaque rupture had more frequent positive remodeling (74.4% vs. 43.2%, P = 0.004), soft plaques (64.1% vs. 36.4%, P = 0.012) and higher remodeling index (1.13 ± 0.16 vs. 0.99 ± 0.11, P = 0.041) as compared with those without plaque rupture. Multivariate Logistic regression analysis showed that plasma Lp-PLA(2) activity was independently associated with plaque rupture after adjusting for smoking, positive remodeling and soft plaque (Model 1: odds ratio (OR) 1.13, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.06 - 1.20) or adjusting for smoking, hs-CRP level, positive remodeling and soft plaque (Model 2: OR 1.11, 95%CI: 1.04 - 1.19).",
"yes. Preinfarction angina protects against out-of-hospital VF in patients with acute occlusion of the LCA. This protection is independent of risk factors or coronary anatomy. A larger study is needed to examine the apparently different effect in patients with acute occlusion of the RCA.",
"Preinfarction angina may act as a clinical surrogate of ischemic preconditioning that may reduce infarct size and improve mortality in the setting of thrombolytic therapy for ST-elevation myocardial infarction. However, the benefits of preinfarction angina in the setting of primary percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting is inconclusive because of the greater achievement of infarct artery patency and speed of reperfusion. To identify a homogeneous population, we performed a retrospective analysis of 1031 patients admitted with a first ST-elevation myocardial infarction with ischemic times between 1 and 6 hours who received primary percutaneous coronary intervention. We identified 245 patients who had occluded arteries on presentation, of which 79 patients had documented preinfarction angina defined as chest pain within 24 hours of infarction. Infarct size was measured as the peak creatine kinase level, a metric supported in a subgroup by late enhancement on cardiac magnetic resonance imaging. Patients with preinfarction angina (n=79) had a 50% reduction in infarct size compared with those patients without preinfarction angina (n=166) by both peak creatine kinase (1094±75 IU/L versus 2270±102 IU/L; P<0.0001) and creatine kinase area under curve (18 420±18 941 versus 36 810±21 741 IU/h per liter; P<0.0001) despite having identical ischemic times (185±8 minutes versus 181±5 minutes; P=0.67) and angiographic area at risk (24.1±1.2% versus 25.3±0.9%; P=0.43). There was an absolute 4% improvement in left ventricular ejection fraction before discharge in those patients with preinfarction angina (P<0.02).",
"yes. The underlying atherosclerotic plaque morphology in complicated coronary artery lesions causing acute myocardial infarction is heterogeneous with respect to both plaque architecture and cellular composition. However, the immediate site of plaque rupture or erosion is always marked by an inflammatory process. This suggests that inflammation plays a role in destabilizing the fibrous cap tissue and, thus, in enhancing the risk of coronary thrombosis.",
"To investigate whether coronary stenting limits myocardial injury and preserves left ventricular function. Prospective multicentre case-control study of primary percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with and without stenting, performed in seven cardiovascular centres. 45 consecutive patients with acute myocardial infarction who were treated with successful primary stenting (Stent group) and did not have restenosis were paired with 45 matched control subjects with acute myocardial infarction treated by successful primary PTCA without stenting, also with no restenosis (POBA group). In comparison with the POBA group, the Stent group-especially those patients with a left anterior descending coronary artery lesion-had a smaller hypokinesis area (mean (SD): 15. 1 (20.0) v 34.4 (24.3) chords), reduced hypokinesis area/risk area (25.2 (31.9)% v 58.8 (40.1)%), and a larger ejection fraction (63.3 (10.2)% v 51.7 (11.7)%) evaluated by quantitative left ventriculography using the centerline method. In the Stent group, the correlation between risk area and hypokinesis area was significantly shifted downward. Multiple logistic regression analysis on infarct size limitation (hypokinesis area/risk area<50%) identified preinfarction angina in all subjects and preinfarction angina and stenting in patients with left anterior descending coronary artery lesions as explanatory factors.",
"no. In conclusion, plaque rupture does not account for the regional wall motion abnormalities observed in TC. The previously reported observation of plaque rupture in TC seems to constitute an incidental finding. We suggest that the theory of aborted myocardial infarction as the underlying cause of TC should be abandoned once and for all.",
"Coronary artery plaque rupture is a sudden, unpredictable event leading to acute coronary syndrome. Thus far, there is no clinical characteristic to distinguish the patients at risk for acute myocardial infarction from those with more stable coronary artery disease. The purpose of this study was to identify clinical predictors of first ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). We retrospectively compared 116 consecutive patients presenting with their first STEMI for primary angioplasty and 216 ambulatory patients with stable angina requiring their first coronary intervention. Patients with STEMI were younger, more likely to be smokers, but less likely to have hypertension or hypercholesterolemia. Diabetes was present equally between the two groups. Cardioprotective medication usage, such as aspirin and statin, was much lower among patients presenting with their first STEMI.",
"yes. Patients who experienced new-onset angina before acute myocardial infarction showed better recovery of regional function after thrombolysis. Our study supports the hypothesis that brief periods of ischaemia immediately before myocardial infarction may precondition the human heart, thus improving contractile recovery.",
"No-reflow phenomenon after primary coronary angioplasty is associated with poorer left ventricular (LV) function and prognosis after acute myocardial infarction (AMI). The purpose of this study was to determine the clinical significance of preinfarction angina in the no-reflow phenomenon. A total of 40 patients with first anterior AMI were examined. All patients underwent primary balloon angioplasty or stenting within 12 h of the onset of AMI. No-reflow, defined as TIMI grade 2 flow or less without residual stenosis after angioplasty, was observed in 15 patients. Patients with no-reflow were older (67+/-9 vs. 58+/-10 years, P=0.006) and had a lower incidence of preinfarction angina (7% vs. 48%, P=0.01) than those without no-reflow. Patients with no-reflow had poorer LV function at predischarge and a higher incidence of pump failure, LV aneurysm, malignant ventricular arrhythmias or cardiac death during the hospital course in association with higher peak serum C-reactive protein levels (12.7+/-8.0 vs. 7.1+/-5.5 mg/dl, P=0.02). Multivariate analysis showed that the absence of preinfarction angina was a major independent determinant of no-reflow (RR=17.1, P=0.02).",
"yes. These data indicate that preinfarction angina has an inhibiting effect on long-term LV remodeling in patients who underwent thrombolysis for first acute myocardial infarction. It appears that preinfarction angina has no impact on infarct size and early postinfarction LV function.",
"no. Infarct size estimated by cardiac enzymes and by the marker of C-reactive protein, as well as in hospital clinical prognosis are not different in patients with and without preinfarction angina. It seems, therefore, that preinfarction angina confers ischemic conditions inadequate to mimic preconditioning.",
"Thus, patients with STEMI presumably from plaque rupture have fewer traditional risk factors compared with patients with stable angina. Identifying these vulnerable patients at risk for plaque rupture may enable early institution of cardioprotective pharmacotherapy to prevent their first acute coronary syndrome occurrence.",
"Acute myocardial infarction (MI) stems from a disruption of the plaque in the coronary artery. Based on postmortem examinations, such plaque disruption has been classified as either a rupture or an erosion. Unfortunately, it has been difficult to clinically identify plaque ruptures and plaque erosions during the development of acute MI. To elucidate the relationships between clinical features and the morphological characteristics of the infarct-related lesions, we observed the culprit lesions in patients with acute MI by coronary angioscopy and intravascular ultrasound. We examined culprit lesions in 107 patients with acute MI using coronary angioscopy and intravascular ultrasound immediately before performing percutaneous coronary intervention. The lesions were then classified as plaque ruptures or nonruptured erosions, and their clinical features were compared. Among the lesions studied, 44 were classified as plaque ruptures, 28 were classified as plaque erosions, and 35 were unclassified. Patients with nonruptured eroded plaques had more preinfarction angina before the onset of MI than those with ruptured plaques (53.6% vs 22.7%, P = .0074). They also had less ST-segment elevation MI (71.4% vs 93.2%, P = .0185), lower peak creatine kinase levels (2029 +/- 1517 vs 4033 +/- 2699 IU/L, P = .0009), less distal embolization after percutaneous coronary intervention (3.6% vs 36.4%, P = .0014), and less Q-wave MI 1 month after onset (40.7% vs 88.4%, P < .0001).",
"To analyse the prodrome of acute myocardial infarction in relation to the plaque morphology underlying the infarct. A retrospective investigation of the relation between rupture and erosion of coronary atheromatous plaques and the clinical characteristics of acute myocardial infarction. The coronary arteries of 100 patients who died from acute myocardial infarction were cut transversely at 3 mm intervals. Segments with a stenosis were examined microscopically at 5 micrometer intervals. The clinical features of the infarction were obtained from the medical records. A deep intimal rupture was encountered in 81 plaques, whereas 19 had superficial erosions only. There were no differences in the location of infarction, the incidence of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or hyperlipidaemia, diameter stenosis of the infarcted related artery, Killip class, Forrester's haemodynamic subset, or peak creatine kinase between plaque rupture and plaque erosion groups. The presence of plaque rupture was associated with significantly greater incidences of leucocytosis, current smoking, and sudden or unstable onset of acute coronary syndrome. In patients with unstable preinfarction angina, new onset rest angina rather than worsening angina tended to develop more often in the plaque rupture group than in the plaque erosion group (p = 0.08).",
"yes. The occurrence of preinfarction angina is associated with significant myocardial protection in the setting of primary percutaneous coronary intervention with stenting during ST-elevation myocardial infarction. Because preinfarction angina is relatively common, it is important that these patients be identified in clinical trials investigating therapies designed to reduce reperfusion injury and infarct size.",
"yes. The absence of preinfarction angina is more frequently observed in patients with no-reflow. The beneficial effect of preinfarction angina on LV function may be explained, at least in part, by prevention of no-reflow after reperfusion.",
"Plaque rupture causes the sudden onset of acute myocardial infarction or unstable preinfarction angina, which may be aggravated by smoking and inflammation."
] | 735 |
Management of heart failure among very old persons living in long-term care: has the voice of trials spread? | [
"Increasing prevalence, use of health services, and number of deaths have made congestive heart failure (CHF) a new epidemic in the United States. Yet there are no adequate data to guide treatment of the more typical and complex cases of patients who are very old and frail. Using the SAGE database, we studied the cases of 86,094 patients with CHF admitted to any of the 1492 long-term care facilities of 5 states from 1992 through 1996. We described their clinical and functional characteristics and their pharmacologic treatment to verify agreement with widely approved guidelines. We evaluated age- and sex-related differences, and we determined predictors of receiving an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor by developing a multiple logistic regression model. The mean age of the population was 84.9 +/- 8 years. Eighty percent of the patients 85 years of age or older were women. More than two thirds of patients underwent frequent hospitalizations related to CHF in the year preceding admission to a long-term care facility. Coronary heart disease and hypertension were the most common causes. Half of the patients received digoxin and 45% a diuretic, regardless of background cardiovascular comorbidities. Only 25% of patients had a prescription for ACE inhibitors. The presence of cardiovascular comorbidity, already being a recipient of a large number of medications, a previous hospitalization for CHF, and admission to the facility in recent years were associated with an increased likelihood of receiving an ACE inhibitor. The presence of severe physical limitation was inversely related to use of ACE inhibitors, as were a series of organizational factors related to the facilities.",
"Patients in long-term care who have CHF little resemble to those enrolled in randomized trials. This circumstance may explain, at least in part, the divergence from pharmacologic management consensus guidelines. Yet the prescription of ACE inhibitors varies significantly across facilities and depends on organizational characteristics."
] | [
"yes. Early administration of TLV, compared to increased FRM dosage, reduces the incidence of WRF in real-world elderly ADHF patients. In addition, it reduces the occurrence of 'worse' WRF-persistent and late-onset WRF-which are associated with increased rates of cardiac death or readmission for worsening heart failure in the 90 days after discharge.",
"Prior studies have demonstrated low use of implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) as primary prevention, particularly among women and blacks. The degree to which the overall use of ICD therapy and disparities in use have changed is unclear. We examined 11 880 unique patients with a history of heart failure and left ventricular ejection fraction ≤35% who were ≥65 years old and enrolled in the Get With the Guidelines-Heart Failure (GWTG-HF) program from January 2005 through December 2009. We determined the rate of ICD use by year for the overall population and for sex and race groups. From 2005 to 2007, overall ICD use increased from 30.2% to 42.4% and then remained unchanged in 2008 to 2009. After adjustment for potential confounders, ICD use increased significantly in the overall study population during 2005 to 2007 (odds ratio, 1.28; 95% confidence interval, 1.11-1.48 per year; P=0.0008) and in black women (odds ratio, 1.82; 95% confidence interval, 1.28-2.58 per year; P=0.0008), white women (odds ratio, 1.30; 95% confidence interval, 1.06-1.59 per year; P=0.010), black men (odds ratio, 1.54; 95% confidence interval, 1.19-1.99 per year; P=0.0009), and white men (odds ratio, 1.25; 95% confidence interval, 1.06-1.48 per year; P=0.0072). The increase in ICD use was greatest among blacks.",
"In the general setting, eligible patients appear to display a high first dose failure rate, poor tolerance to higher doses and achievement of a 'target dose' of carvedilol. Responses to adrenergic blockade were similar to previously published data, irrespective of the final tolerated dose, suggesting that the concept of achieving a 'target dose' may not be clinically useful. Guidelines and treatment protocols for heart failure should reflect not only what is considered gold standard, but also what is practical in general hospitals.",
"The outcome of cardiopulmonary resuscitation of residents of long-term care facilities is poor. However, only about one half of residents of long term care facilities have a do not resuscitate (DNR) order. The remainder usually have resuscitation by order or by default policy. Understanding predictors of DNR may help clinicians address end-of-life issues with the older long-term care population. To determine (1) the prevalence of DNR orders, and (2) predictors of DNR orders in older institutionalized individuals in a large community teaching nursing home. A cross-sectional chart review study of 177 consecutively located older patients from an 899-bed academic long-term care facility. The prevalence of a DNR order was 40%. The frequency of ordering DNR was greater in subjects who were 85 years or older compared with subjects who were younger than 85 years (57% vs. 30%, P < .05). Ordering DNR was associated significantly with race (49% of whites compared with 13% African Americans, P < .05) but not with sex. Subjects with a DNR order were more likely to have been diagnosed with depression (52% vs. 35%, P < .05) but not dementia, and overall had greater number of medical conditions (5.9 +/- 2 vs. 5.1 +/- 2, P < .05) compared with subjects without DNR orders. The frequency of DNR orders did not significantly differ between subjects who were able to ambulate (with or without assistance) compared with subjects who were wheelchair or bed bound. Using logistic regression analysis, only age (with a B of -1.04 and P of .017) and race (with a B of 1.4 and a P of .01) were independent predictors of DNR status.",
"For chronically ill patients, readmission to the hospital can be frequent and costly. We studied the effect of an intervention designed to increase access to primary care after discharge from the hospital, with the goals of reducing readmissions and emergency department visits and increasing patients' quality of life and satisfaction with care. In a multicenter randomized, controlled trial at nine Veterans Affairs Medical Centers, we randomly assigned 1396 veterans hospitalized with diabetes, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or congestive heart failure to receive either usual care or an intensive primary care intervention. The intervention involved close follow-up by a nurse and a primary care physician, beginning before discharge and continuing for the next six months. The patients were severely ill. Half of those with congestive heart failure (504 patients) had disease in New York Heart Association class III or IV; 30 percent of those with diabetes (751 patients) had end-organ damage; and a quarter of those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (583 patients) required home oxygen treatment or oral corticosteroids. The patients had extremely poor quality-of-life scores. Although they received more intensive primary care than the controls, the patients in the intervention group had significantly higher rates of readmission (0.19 vs 0.14 per month, P = 0.005) and more days of rehospitalization (10.2 vs 8.8, P = 0.041). The patients in the intervention group were more satisfied with their care (P<0.001), but there was no difference between the study groups in quality-of-life scores, which remained very low (P = 0.53).",
"yes. Use of electrocardiographic LVH to select patients may have increased risk compared with unselected hypertensive patients, and use of hospitalization for heart failure as the end point will underestimate the incidence of new heart failure.",
"Heart failure (HF) is a chronic condition with poor prognosis, and has a high prevalence among older adults. Due to older age, fragility is often present among HF patients. However, even young HF patients show a high degree of fragility. The effect of fragility on long-term prognosis in HF patients, irrespective of age, remains unexplored. The aim of this study was to assess the influence of fragility on long-term prognosis in outpatients with HF. At least one abnormal evaluation among four standardized geriatric scales was used to identify fragility. Predefined criteria for such scales were: Barthel Index, <90; OARS scale, <10 in women and <6 in men; Pfeiffer Test, >3 (± 1, depending on educational grade); and ≥ 1 positive response for depression on the abbreviated Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS). We assessed 1314 consecutive HF outpatients (27.8% women, mean age years 66.7 ± 12.4 years with different etiologies. Fragility was detected in 581 (44.2%) patients. 626 deaths occurred during follow-up; the median follow-up was 3.6 years [P25-P75: 1.8-6.7] for the total cohort, and 4.9 years [P25-P75: 2.5-8.4] for living patients. Fragility and its components were significantly associated with decreased survival by univariate analysis. In a comprehensive multivariable Cox regression analysis, fragility remained independently associated with survival in the entire cohort, and in age and left ventricular ejection fraction subgroups.",
"There are increasing numbers of adults with congenital heart disease (CHD) and these patients remain at long-term risk of complications and premature death. This review focuses on the changing picture of adult CHD with more complex patients surviving, the challenges of balancing life-prolonging intervention, the barriers to discussing the end-of-life (EOL) issues and draws on the experience of other specialities in managing young patients. The prevalence of adults with the most severe forms of CHD has increased, especially those with a Fontan circulation. The eventual decline is inevitable with limited treatment options. There should be a parallel palliative care approach in patients who are being considered for high-risk, life-prolonging interventions. Oncologists caring for the young patients with cancer and cystic fibrosis specialists have demonstrated the unique needs of young patients with chronic diseases that may be applicable to adult CHD patients and help with their EOL planning.",
"yes. Regional networks centered around bridge-to-transplant facilities that have an aggressive approach to implantable LVAD placement may substantially improve the survival rate of patients with postcardiotomy heart failure.",
"Previous studies have linked frequent rehospitalizations for heart failure (HF) and increased mortality with older age, higher severity of HF, lack of an evidence-based medication regimen, and inadequate health literacy. However, the pathway between age and health outcomes in patients with HF remains unknown. Therefore, the purpose of this study was to test whether the association between age and health outcomes can be explained by severity of HF, evidence-based medication use, and health literacy in patients with HF. This was a longitudinal study of 575 rural patients with HF recruited from outpatient clinics and hospitals. Demographics, clinical data, and health literacy were collected at baseline. HF readmissions and cardiac mortality were followed for 2 years; 57% of patients were ≥ 65 years of age. Older patients with HF were more likely to have low health literacy and less likely to be prescribed angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or β-blockers. Using Kaplan-Meier survival curves with log-rank tests, health outcomes were significantly worse in patients who were ≥ 65 years and in those with low health literacy. Separate Cox regressions revealed that age and health literacy predicted worse health outcomes (P = 0.006 and < 0.001, respectively). When health literacy was entered into the model, the hazard ratio for age changed from 1.49 to 1.29 (a 41% reduction); age was no longer a significant predictor of health outcomes, but health literacy remained significant (P < 0.001), demonstrating mediation.",
"Low literacy increases the risk for many adverse health outcomes, but the relationship between literacy and adverse outcomes in heart failure (HF) has not been well studied. We studied a cohort of ambulatory patients with symptomatic HF (NYHA Class II-IV within the past 6 months) who were enrolled in a randomized controlled trial of self-care training recruited from internal medicine and cardiology clinics at four academic medical centers in the US. The primary outcome was combined all-cause hospitalization or death, with a secondary outcome of hospitalization for HF. Outcomes were assessed through blinded interviews and subsequent chart reviews, with adjudication of cause by a panel of masked assessors. Literacy was measured using the short Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults. We used negative binomial regression to examine whether the incidence of the primary and secondary outcomes differed according to literacy. Of the 595 study participants, 37 % had low literacy. Mean age was 61, 31 % were NYHA class III/IV at baseline, 16 % were Latino, and 38 % were African-American. Those with low literacy were older, had a higher NYHA class, and were more likely to be Latino (all p < 0.001). Adjusting for site only, participants with low literacy had an incidence rate ratio (IRR) of 1.39 (95 % CI: 0.99, 1.94) for all-cause hospitalization or death and 1.36 (1.11, 1.66) for HF-related hospitalization. After adjusting for demographic, clinical, and self-management factors, the IRRs were 1.31 (1.06, 1.63) for all-cause hospitalization and death and 1.46 (1.20, 1.78) for HF-related hospitalization.",
"Heart failure has a serious prognosis. However, among elderly patients the panorama of concomitant diseases makes it difficult to implement the results from epidemiological studies. The aim of this study was to evaluate the influence of different clinical variables on cardiovascular mortality during a long-term follow-up. In all, 474 elderly patients (age 65-82 years) in primary health care were evaluated and followed during a 10 year period. All patients had symptoms associated with heart failure and were examined by a cardiologist. Blood samples including NT-proBNP were analyzed, and ECG and Doppler echocardiography were assessed. Both the systolic and diastolic function was evaluated. Functional capacity was evaluated according to the NYHA classification. During the 10 years of follow-up those with the highest quartile of plasma concentration of NT-proBNP had almost four times increased risk of cardiovascular mortality. Impaired systolic function, diabetes and reduced functional capacity were all markers of increased risk of cardiovascular mortality. All variables were also evaluated after 5 years, with higher risk ratios for a majority of variables.",
"yes. Over half of the Swedish senior population purchased prescribed antihypertensive or serum lipid-reducing drugs during 6 months in 2005. The magnitude of the prevalence points to the importance of intensified follow-up of both adverse effects and of effectiveness of these drugs.",
"yes. This study demonstrated that exercise is a successful adjunctive therapy to managing the daily weight variability or fluid status instability of patients with NYHA class III/IV heart failure that is often a debilitating aspect of the syndrome.",
"yes. A single medication adherence question at baseline predicts hospitalisation and death over one year in heart failure patients.",
"We conclude that cardiopulmonary resuscitation, even when performed by a trained and experienced physician and team, has limited benefit for elderly long-term-care populations.",
"In elderly patients with chronic heart failure (CHF), a gap exists between widespread use of lower doses of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)/angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) and β-blockers (BBs) and guideline recommendations. Therefore, the aim of the present study was to investigate whether patients receiving ≥ 50% target dose outperform those receiving<50% target dose, despite maximum up-titration, and whether the target dose outperforms all other doses. Patients (n=185) aged ≥ 80 years with CHF and left ventricular ejection fraction ≤ 40% referred (between January 2000 and January 2008) to two CHF outpatient clinics at two university hospitals, were included and retrospectively studied. Of the study population, 53% received the target dose of ACEIs/ARBs, whereas 26% received<50% of the target dose. Half received<50% of the target dose of BBs and 21% received the target dose. After ≥ 5 years of follow-up, all-cause mortality was 76.8%. Patients who received the target dose of ACEIs/ARBs had higher survival rates from all-cause mortality than those receiving<50% of target dose (HR=0.6, 95%CI 0.4-0.9, P=0.033), but those receiving ≥ 50% of target dose did not statistically differ from those who achieved target dose. This dose-survival relationship was not the case for BBs.",
"In North America and other industrialized countries, heart failure (HF) has become a national public health priority. Studies indicate there is significant heterogeneity in approaches to treat and manage HF and suggest targeted changes in health care delivery are needed to reduce unnecessary health care utilization and to optimize patient outcomes. Most recent published studies have reported on the care of HF patients in tertiary care hospitals and the perspective of non-specialist stakeholders on HF management, such as general practitioners and clinics or hospital administrators is rarely considered. This study explores the current state of community-based HF care in Canada as experienced by various healthcare stakeholders providing or coordinating care to HF patients. This study employed a qualitative exploratory research design consisting of semi-structured telephone interviews conducted with health care providers and health care administrators working outside of tertiary care in the four most populous Canadian provinces. A modified thematic analysis process was used and the different data sources were triangulated. Findings were collectively interpreted by the authors. Twenty-eight participants were recruited in the study: eight cardiologists, five general practitioners/family physicians, eight nurse practitioners/registered nurses, four hospital pharmacists and three health care administrators/directors. Participants reported a lack of stakeholder engagement throughout the continuum of care, which hinders the implementation of a coordinated approach to quality HF care. Four substantive themes emerged that indicated challenges and gaps in the optimal treatment and management of HF in community settings: 1) challenges in the risk assessment and early diagnosis of HF, 2) challenges in ensuring efficient and consistent transition from acute care setting to the community, 3) challenges of primary care providers to optimally treat and manage HF patients, and 4) challenges in promoting a holistic approach in HF management.",
"To compare descriptions of fatigue from interviews with elderly people with chronic congestive heart failure (CHF) and data recorded by nurses at an outpatient heart failure clinic. Patients (N = 158) were screened for moderate to severe CHF and interviewed using a revised form of the Fatigue Interview Schedule (FIS). Seventy-nine of these patients were offered visits at a nurse-monitored heart failure clinic. Nursing documentation of fatigue in patient records (n = 56) at the heart failure clinic was compared to the patient interviews. Results indicated poor concordance between patients' descriptions and record content concerning fatigue. Decreased libido was linked to fatigue according to the patients but not to the nurses' notes. Cognitive characteristics of fatigue were rarely recorded, but were more frequent in patient interviews.",
"Home oxygen therapy (HOT) is commonly used for patients with severe chronic heart failure (CHF) who have intractable breathlessness. There is no trial evidence to support its use. To detect whether or not there was a quality-of-life benefit from HOT given as long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for at least 15 hours per day in the home, including overnight hours, compared with best medical therapy (BMT) in patients with severely symptomatic CHF. A pragmatic, two-arm, randomised controlled trial recruiting patients with severe CHF. It included a linked qualitative substudy to assess the views of patients using home oxygen, and a free-standing substudy to assess the haemodynamic effects of acute oxygen administration. Heart failure outpatient clinics in hospital or the community, in a range of urban and rural settings. Patients had to have heart failure from any aetiology, New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III/IV symptoms, at least moderate left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and be receiving maximally tolerated medical management. Patients were excluded if they had had a cardiac resynchronisation therapy device implanted within the past 3 months, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease fulfilling the criteria for LTOT or malignant disease that would impair survival or were using a device or medication that would impede their ability to use LTOT. Patients received BMT and were randomised (unblinded) to open-label LTOT, prescribed for 15 hours per day including overnight hours, or no oxygen therapy. The primary end point was quality of life as measured by the Minnesota Living with Heart Failure (MLwHF) questionnaire score at 6 months. Secondary outcomes included assessing the effect of LTOT on patient symptoms and disease severity, and assessing its acceptability to patients and carers. Between April 2012 and February 2014, 114 patients were randomised to receive either LTOT or BMT. The mean age was 72.3 years [standard deviation (SD) 11.3 years] and 70% were male. Ischaemic heart disease was the cause of heart failure in 84%; 95% were in NYHA class III; the mean left ventricular ejection fraction was 27.8%; and the median N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic hormone was 2203 ng/l. The primary analysis used a covariance pattern mixed model which included patients only if they provided data for all baseline covariates adjusted for in the model and outcome data for at least one post-randomisation time point (n = 102: intervention, n = 51; control, n = 51). There was no difference in the MLwHF questionnaire score at 6 months between the two arms [at baseline the mean score was 54.0 (SD 18.4) for LTOT and 54.0 (SD 17.9) for BMT; at 6 months the mean score was 48.1 (SD 18.5) for LTOT and 49.0 (SD 20.2) for BMT; adjusted mean difference -0.10, 95% confidence interval (CI) -6.88 to 6.69; p = 0.98]. At 3 months, the adjusted mean MLwHF questionnaire score was lower in the LTOT group (-5.47, 95% CI -10.54 to -0.41; p = 0.03) and breathlessness scores improved, although the effect did not persist to 6 months. There was no effect of LTOT on any secondary measure. There was a greater number of deaths in the BMT arm (n = 12 vs. n = 6). Adherence was poor, with only 11% of patients reporting using the oxygen as prescribed.",
"Acutely decompensated heart failure/pulmonary edema is one of the most common medical problems in clinical practice. Approximately 500 patients are admitted to Rambam Health Care Campus yearly with the diagnosis of ADHF/PE. As a result, Rambam established local instructions and guidelines for the treatment of ADHF/PE based on the guidelines published by the American Heart Association, American College of Cardiology and The European Society of Cardiology. To examine whether adherence to guidelines improves the outcome of patients with ADHF/PE in internal medicine wards. Data were collected from the charts of 78 patients admitted to Rambam with ADHF/PE and were compared to a matched historic cohort. Echocardiography was performed more commonly in the study group patients as compared to the control group, 85% vs. 37.7% respectively (P = 0.0001). In patients who were treated according to the guidelines, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and beta-blockers were prescribed more commonly as compared to the control group. The 3 month mortality rate was significantly lower in the study group (P = 0.021).",
"To examine the long-term effects of cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) in patients presenting with heart failure (HF) and QRS</= 120 ms. This was a prospective, longitudinal study of 376 patients [mean age = 65 years, mean left ventricular (LV) ejection fraction (EF) = 29%, mean QRS duration = 165 ms, mean distance covered during a 6-minute hall walk (6-MHW) = 325 m], who underwent successful implantation of CRT systems. The QRS duration at baseline was</= 120 ms in 45 patients (12%) who were not pre-selected by echocardiographic criteria of dyssynchrony, and>120 ms in the remaining 331 patients. The baseline characteristics of the 2 groups were similar. We evaluated indices of cardiac function, percentage of responders, and survival rates over a mean 28-month follow-up. Both groups experienced similar long-term increases in 6-MHW, and decreases in New York Heart Association functional class and LV end-systolic volume (all comparisons P<0.0001 in both groups). Time interaction of changes in LVEF and percentage of responders were significantly different (P = 0.03 and P = 0.004, respectively), in favor of the narrow QRS group, where the changes were sustained and persisted at 2 and 3 years. The long-term death rate from HF was lower in the group with narrow than in the group with wide QRS complex (P = 0.04; log-rank test).",
"Loop diuretics are commonly used in patients with heart failure (HF) to remove retained fluid and improve symptoms. However, they may potentially worsen outcomes in HF. It remains unknown whether the use of loop diuretics is associated with adverse HF outcomes in routine clinical practice. We thus determined the effects of loop diuretic use at discharge on long-term mortality and rehospitalization among patients hospitalized with HF. The Japanese Cardiac Registry of Heart Failure in Cardiology (JCARE-CARD) prospectively studied the characteristics and treatments of a broad sample of patients hospitalized with worsening HF and followed for 2.1 years. Among a total of 2,549 HF patients, loop diuretics were used by 2,015 patients (79%), but not 534 patients (21%). The mean age was 70.7 years and 60% were male. Etiology was ischemic in 32% and mean left ventricular ejection fraction was 42%. After adjustment for covariates, discharge use of loop diuretics was associated with significant adverse risks of cardiac death (adjusted hazard ratio [HR] 2.348, 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.246-4.423, P=0.008) and rehospitalization (adjusted HR 1.427, 95% CI 1.040-1.959, P=0.027).",
"The patients in this study were older than in previous intervention studies and had considerable comorbidity and reduced tolerance for ACE inhibitors. ACE inhibitor treatment was underused but improved with the structured care program, although achieved treatment levels were below those in the large intervention trials in patients with CHF.",
"This study examined the outcomes of new-onset heart failure (HF) outpatients managed by cardiologists and primary care (PC) physicians. Several studies have sought differences in outcomes between patients with HF managed by cardiologists and PC physicians, but most focused on inpatients, who often represent later stages of HF, whereas many treatments have their impact by delaying disease progression. This was a retrospective cohort study of incident HF identified between 1996 and 1997 in a staff model health maintenance organization. Cardiology care was defined as >/=2 visits or >/=25% of total medical outpatient visits to cardiology. Records from a cohort of 403 patients with new-onset outpatient HF were reviewed. The main outcome measure was a combination of death and/or cardiovascular hospitalization at 24 months. Cardiologists' patients (n = 198) were younger (66 vs. 71 years, p = 0.001), were more likely men (54% vs. 46%, p = 0.01), had coronary artery disease (64% vs. 42%, p = 0.001), and had a low (</=45%) ejection fraction (EF) (66% vs. 44%, p < 0.001) compared with PC physicians' patients. More cardiologists' patients received an EF assessment (94% vs. 74%, p < 0.001), angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (83% vs. 68%, p < 0.001), and beta-blockers (38% vs. 22%, p < 0.001). In multivariate proportional hazards modeling that included variables that differed between providers and univariate predictors of outcomes, cardiology care was an independent predictor of a lower risk for the combined outcome (hazard ratio 0.62, confidence interval 0.42 to 0.93, p = 0.02).",
"Heart failure (HF) patients are at high risk of having drug-related problems (DRPs). We aim to describe the frequency, types, and temporal occurrence of DRPs in Taiwanese HF outpatients receiving case management. In this study, we included 141 patients from HF clinics in three hospitals in Taiwan from October 2008 to December 2010. Nurse case managers at each of the participating sites registered case report forms (CRFs) for patients during clinic visits. DRPs were classified using the Pharmaceutical Care Network Europe Foundation (PCNE) classification system and documented by pharmacists after reviewing CRFs and participating in multidisciplinary team discussions. For 141 clinic participants, the average duration of medication use was 17 months, and 796 DRPs were reported. The DRPs most frequently recorded were the need for laboratory tests (32.7% of total DRPs), followed by potential interaction (29.6%), nonallergic side effects (13.3%), and insufficient awareness of health and disease (9.5%). The drugs most frequently causing a DRP were angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin II receptor blockers, diuretics, warfarin, spironolactone, and β-blockers. The incidence rates of total DRPs was maximal during the initial 3 months of medication treatment, whereas the incidence rates of each category of DRPs showed multiform changes over time among various drug classes.",
"Heart failure (HF) is associated with poor health-related quality of life (HRQOL). The purpose of our study is to determine the effect of a self-management intervention on HRQOL domains across time, overall, and in prespecified demographic, clinical, and psychosocial subgroups of HF patients. HART was a single-center, multi-hospital randomized trial. Patients (n = 902) were randomized either to a self-management intervention with provision of HF educational information or an enhanced education control group which received the same HF educational materials. HRQOL was measured by the Quality of Life Index, Cardiac Version, modified, and the Medical Outcomes Study 36-item Short-Form Health Survey physical functioning scale. Analyses included descriptive statistics and mixed-effects regression models. In general, overall, study participants' HRQOL improved over time. However, no significant differences in HRQOL domain were detected between treatment groups at baseline or across time (p > 0.05). Subgroup analyses demonstrated no differences by treatment arm for change in HRQOL from baseline to 3 years later.",
"Randomised controlled trials have shown a reduced risk of heart failure (HF) hospitalisation among users of ACE inhibitors (ACEIs) or angiotensin II type 1 receptor antagonists (angiotensin receptor blockers [ARBs]), but these results have limited generalisability. Some observational studies have also demonstrated reductions in hospitalisation but are potentially affected by non-random treatment selection. To assess the effect of ACEI/ARB therapy on all-cause and HF-related hospitalisations among older adults using a propensity model to adjust for treatment-selection bias and focusing on consistent medication use as the exposure of interest. A retrospective cohort study of continuously enrolled, older (age>or =60 years) Kansas Medicaid beneficiaries with HF, using data from May 1999 to April 2000. A propensity analysis was used to identify a comparison group of untreated persons that were otherwise clinically similar to treated persons. The effect of regular ACEI/ARB use on hospitalisations was estimated using multivariable logistic regression models. The HF sample included 887 subjects, of whom 235 (27%) received regular ACEI/ARB therapy. To be considered a regular user of ACEI/ARB therapy ('treated'), we required evidence that a subject obtained at least 80% of their intended daily supply. The main outcome measure was the effect of regular ACEI/ARB use on all-cause and HF-related hospitalisations. Treated subjects were matched against an equal number of untreated persons, for a final sample of 470 persons. The mean age of both treated and untreated subjects was 81 years. Regular ACEI/ARB use did not alter the adjusted odds ratio (AOR) of all-cause hospitalisation (AOR = 1.04, 95% CI 0.71, 1.52), which occurred in 40% of the sample, or the odds of an HF-related hospitalisation (AOR = 1.01, 95% CI 0.65, 1.57), which occurred in 22.6% of both groups.",
"yes. Our data stress the importance of professional monitoring and titration of pharmacotherapy not only in medically treated CHF patients but also in patients under device therapy by a heart failure unit or a specialized cardiologist.",
"no. A high proportion of older heart failure patients tolerate beta-blockers. Side-effects and failure rates are comparable to younger patients. Left ventricular function and worse New York Heart Association class, rather than age, predict low tolerability of therapy. Further studies are warranted to evaluate whether frail patients with heart failure can improve their quality of life by taking beta-blockers.",
"To determine whether advanced age is an independent prognostic factor that may increase the risk of complications and reduce the immediate and long-term survival after treatment with intra-aortic balloon pumping (IABP) for acute ischemic heart disease. Retrospective analysis of a clinical series and long-term follow-up study. A total of 142 patients (age range 23-86 years) in whom IABP was indicated following a standardized protocol. Univariate analysis of the association between age and anamnestic, clinical, and hemodynamic data significantly affecting prognosis; multivariate logistic regression analysis of variables showing significant associations. IABP-related complications were independent of age. At univariate analysis, pre-existing, noncardiac, associated conditions (chronic renal failure, stroke, bronchopulmonary disease) (P<.001), an indication to IABP for hemodynamic complications of acute myocardial infarction rather than for medically refractory myocardial ischemia (P<.001), a lack in hemodynamic response to IABP (P<.002), a prolonged delay to IABP initiation (P<.003), and advanced age (P<.025) were all predictors of in-hospital mortality. However, older patients were also more frequently affected by chronic comorbid conditions and by acute left ventricular failure as an indication to IABP. When these variables were entered into logistic regression models, the association between age and mortality was no longer statistically significant. Similarly, advancing age was associated (P<.012) with an increased mortality rate during an average follow-up of 94 +/- 9 months, but, again, such a significant association disappeared when simultaneously adjusting for New York Heart Association functional class, which was the single most important predictor of long-term mortality.",
"There is no consensus and great indecision about AED installation among the residents of this CCRC. The subjects were somewhat older and more affluent than the typical retirement home population, pointing to the need for replicating the investigation with a larger and more diverse study population. However, these findings suggest that AED installation in a retirement home would be premature without engaging the entire community in discussions and education in a process considerate of the wishes of all residents, which are likely to be quite diverse.",
"Patients with heart failure often suffer from multiple co-morbid conditions. However, until now only cardiovascular co-morbidity has been well described. To understand heart failure in the context of multi-morbidity, by describing the age and sex specific patterns of non-cardiovascular co-morbidity in elderly patients with heart failure in general practice. All patients aged 65 years and over, diagnosed with heart failure in four practices of the Nijmegen Academic Practice-based Research Network (NPBRN) between January 1999 and December 2003 were selected, and the prevalence of 27 cardio- and non-cardiovascular co-morbidities determined. Of the 269 patients identified (mean age 79 years; 57% women), 80.2% had four or more co-morbidities. With increasing age, a significant increase in the prevalence of non-cardiovascular conditions like visual and hearing impairments, osteoarthritis, dementia and urine incontinence; and a decrease in cardiovascular conditions like myocardial infarction and in women, hypertension, was observed. In patients aged 85 years and over, non-cardiovascular disorders predominated over cardiovascular disorders.",
"In patients with chronic heart failure (CHF), diuretic requirements increase as the disease progresses. Because diuretic resistance can be overcome with escalating doses, the evaluation of CHF severity and prognosis may be incomplete without considering the intensity of therapy. The prognostic importance of diuretic resistance (as evidenced by a high-dose requirement) was retrospectively evaluated in 1153 patients with advanced CHF who were enrolled in the Prospective Randomized Amlodipine Survival Evaluation (PRAISE). The relation of loop diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor doses (defined by their median values) and other baseline characteristics to total and cause-specific mortality was determined by proportion hazards regression. High diuretic doses were independently associated with mortality, sudden death, and pump failure death (adjusted hazard ratios [HRs] 1.37 [P =.004], 1.39 [P =.042], and 1.51 [P =.034], respectively). Use of metolazone was an independent predictor of total mortality (adjusted HR = 1.37, P =.016) but not of cause-specific mortality. Low angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor dose was an independent predictor of pump failure death (adjusted HR = 2.21, P =.0005). Unadjusted mortality risks of congestion and its treatment were additive and comparable to those of established risk factors.",
"yes. In our ambulatory cohort of patients with chronic heart failure, baseline and serial increases in RDW were associated with poor long-term outcomes independently from standard cardiac, hematologic, and renal indices.",
"Residents living in long-term care facilities are a vulnerable population. For many residents, a nursing home is their place of death. Palliative care and end-of-life decisions are important components of their care provision.AIM: To study the views of cognitively able residents and relatives on advance care planning, end-of-life care, and decision-making in nursing homes. A qualitative study with in-depth interviews with nursing home residents and focus group interviews with relatives of nursing home residents. Analysis is based on interpretive description.SETTING/ In total, 43 informants from nine nursing homes participated in the study (25 nursing home residents and 18 relatives). All included residents had capacity to provide informed consent and lived in long-term care. The main findings of this study were the differing views about decision-making and advance care planning of residents and relatives. Residents do trust relatives and staff to make important decisions for them. The relatives are in contrast insecure about the residents' wishes and experience decision-making as a burden. The majority of the residents had not participated in advance care planning. None of the residents stated challenges connected to end-of-life care or mentioned the wish for euthanasia.",
"To determine the adequacy of the discharge summary in reporting important investigative results and future management plans in patients hospitalized and discharged with a diagnosis of heart failure. During a six-month period, all patient charts were identified and reviewed in which heart failure had been the most responsible discharge diagnosis. Trained, independent chart reviewers recorded predefined key aspects of the typed and handwritten discharge summaries including measurement of left ventricular function, utilization of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI), management of risk factors, and instructions for follow-up treatment and appointments. Single centre, tertiary care teaching hospital. One hundred and one patient charts meeting review criteria were identified. Eighty-two contained a typed (dictated) discharge summary and 82 contained a copy of a one-page preformatted but handwritten summary given to the patient at discharge with instructions to give to their primary care physician. Forty-one per cent of typed discharge summaries did not record any known evaluation of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF). Of patients with LVEF<or =40%, 34% were not prescribed an ACEI at time of discharge. Of these patients, a contraindication was documented in 26% but there was no documentation of a contraindication or reason in 24%. In patients with ischemic cardiomyopathy as the principal attributed cause of heart failure, 80% of discharge summaries had no specific instructions addressing modifiable risk factors. Follow-up instructions for family physician visits were not mentioned in 56% of typed discharge summaries.",
"These results indicate that additional symptomatic benefit can be attained by adding flosequinan to a therapeutic regimen already including a converting enzyme inhibitor. Because in the future most patients will fall into this category, flosequinan is a potential adjunctive agent in the management of severe congestive heart failure. However, because recent evidence indicates that the flosequinan dose studied in the present trial has an adverse effect on survival, the benefit-to-risk ratio must be assessed in individual patients.",
"In patients with congestive heart failure (CHF), use of submaximal doses of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (ie, low-dose ACE inhibitors) represents usual care in routine clinical practice, whereas high-dose ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and digoxin have each been shown to improve outcomes. We examined whether treatment with high dose-ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and digoxin would each provide incremental benefits over that achieved with usual care and whether concurrent use of high-dose ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and digoxin would provide maximal benefits. We conducted a secondary analysis of a randomized, controlled, active-comparator trial. Specifically, we studied 1-year outcomes data from the Assessment of Treatment with Lisinopril and Survival trial (ATLAS), which assessed high-dose ACE inhibitors (mean dosage, 33.2 mg daily lisinopril) versus low-dose ACE inhibitors (mean dosage, 4.5 mg daily lisinopril) in patients of any age with advanced CHF in 287 centers in 19 countries in the 1990s. In our analysis, patients were classified by their use of low-dose or high-dose ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and/or digoxin at the time of randomization. The primary outcome of interest was the ATLAS composite end point of all-cause mortality or hospitalization for any reason at 1 year. Multiple logistic regression analyses were used to adjust for baseline differences in patient characteristics. The 3164 patients in the ATLAS study had a mean (SD) age of 64 (10) years; 2516 patients (80%) were men and 648 (20%) were women; mean (SD) left-ventricular ejection fraction was 23% (6%); and 2671 patients (84%) had New York Heart Association class III or IV symptoms. At 1 year, the mortality rate was 13% (408 patients); 43% (1369 patients) had>or =1 hospitalization; and the composite end point of mortality or hospitalization was 47% (1489 patients). Most patients (2873; 91%) remained on their initial treatment regimen. Compared with low-dose ACE inhibitors (n = 471), the composite end point decreased incrementally with the use of high-dose ACE inhibitors (n = 475) (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 0.93; P = NS), high-dose ACE inhibitors plus beta-blockers (n = 72) (aOR, 0.89; P = NS), and high-dose ACE inhibitors plus beta-blockers plus digoxin (n = 77) (aOR, 0.47; P = 0.006). In absolute proportions, patients receiving high-dose ACE inhibitors plus beta-blockers plus digoxin for 1 year had 12% fewer deaths and hospitalizations than patients receiving low-dose ACE inhibitors alone.",
"There is a gap between the knowledge in the broad dementia research literature and transfer of knowledge into practice. Quality of life research and transfer of research into practice is one means by which health professionals can inform health and social care policy and improve care practice. There are a number of unanswered research questions in relation to QOL in people with dementia living in long term care. A selection of questions discussed in this paper relate to the impact of staff knowledge of mental health assessment and the importance of therapeutic communication, cognitive training programs and social biography, individual needs, weight and behavioural and psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD), resident choice and the impact of the environment on QOL.",
"The objective of this retrospective study was to evaluate reasons heart failure patients decline study participation, to inform interventions to improve enrollment. Failure to enrol older heart failure patients (age>65) and women in studies may lead to sampling bias, threatening study validity. This study was a retrospective analysis of refusal data from four heart failure studies that enrolled 788 patients in four states. Chi-Square and a pooled t-test were computed to analyse refusal data (n = 300) obtained from heart failure patients who were invited to participate in one of the four studies but declined. Refusal reasons from 300 patients (66% men, mean age 65·33) included: not interested (n = 163), too busy (n = 64), travel burden (n = 50), too sick (n = 38), family problems (n = 14), too much commitment (n = 13) and privacy concerns (n = 4). Chi-Square analyses showed no differences in frequency of reasons (p>0·05) between men and women. Patients who refused were older, on average, than study participants.",
"In summary, the majority of patients used telemonitoring daily and developed self-care skills in monitoring their heart failure. Such skills were developed over the six-month time-period of the study.",
"Patients dependent on inotropes sometimes receive CRT-D therapy as the last treatment resort in clinical practice, but LVAD implantation should be considered instead of CRT-D in advanced HF patients because of their poor prognosis with CRT-D therapy.",
"To explore the extent to which telemonitoring in patients with heart failure empowers them to self-care. Telemonitoring is increasingly used to provide structured follow-up. In patients with heart failure it has been shown to reduce mortality. However there is limited knowledge of the extent to which it supports the patient to develop self-care skills. A qualitative study including interviews with patients at 2 time-points. Fifteen patients mean age 74, 11 (73%) male, 9 (60%) symptomatic on moderate activity, 6 (40%) symptomatic on mild exertion were interviewed at two time points: firstly following three months of telemonitoring and the second interview following six months of telemonitoring. Thematic analysis of the data was undertaken using constant comparison. Patients undertook a variety of self-care actions. During the three-month interview technological skills featured highly in patients accounts and they used telemonitoring to facilitate professional monitoring. However, during the six-month interview patients described how they used telemonitoring to support their self-care actions. Such actions were based on the understanding of heart failure that patients developed from their personal experience of symptoms, and their interaction with the telemonitoring and the telemonitoring nurse. We found no difference in self-care actions regardless of patients age, severity of their heart failure, time since diagnosis with heart failure or living alone.",
"Undertreatment with recommended pharmacotherapy is a common problem in heart failure and may influence prognosis. We studied initiation and persistence of evidence-based pharmacotherapy in 107,092 patients discharged after first hospitalization for heart failure in Denmark from 1995 to 2004. Prescriptions of dispensed medication and mortality were identified by an individual-level linkage of nationwide registers. Inclusion was irrespective of left ventricular function. Treatment with renin-angiotensin inhibitors (eg, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and angiotensin-2 receptor blockers), beta-blockers, spironolactone, and statins was initiated in 43%, 27%, 19%, and 19% of patients, respectively. Patients who did not initiate treatment within 90 days of discharge had a low probability of later treatment initiation. Treatment dosages were in general only 50% of target dosages and were not increased during long-term treatment. Short breaks in therapy were common, but most patients reinitiated treatment. Five years after initiation of treatment, 79% patients were still on renin-angiotensin inhibitors, 65% on beta-blockers, 56% on spironolactone, and 83% on statins. Notably, multiple drug treatment and increased severity of heart failure was associated with persistence of treatment. Nonpersistence with renin-angiotensin inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins was associated with increased mortality with hazard ratios for death of 1.37 (95% CI, 1.31 to 1.42), 1.25 (95% CI, 1.19 to 1.32), 1.88 (95% CI, 1.67 to 2.12), respectively.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if a progressive, prescribed home-based aerobic exercise program would alter the natural physiological processes that maintain fluid balance stability in patients with New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III/IV heart failure after medical optimization (titration of oral medical therapy with or without the infusion of an intravenous inotrope). A total of 56 men and women from a large tertiary trauma I hospital were enrolled with 56 subjects contributing to baseline analysis and 42 subjects at 24 weeks. Subjects were diagnosed with heart failure via NYHA classification IV or III for at least 6 months and were hospitalized for a current acute decompensation exacerbation in which they were being medically optimized. The exercise intervention was a home-based, prescribed, progressive aerobic exercise program lasting for 24 weeks. The exercise participants had weekly phone calls to gather data and progress the exercise program and one 12-week follow up. The usual care participants received random phone calls to collect data and had one 12-week follow up visit to attain physical assessment values. Subjects were primarily female (59%), nonwhite (54%), and NYHA class IV (52%) versus class III (48%). The mean age was 58 years (±11.8 years). The subjects had a mean ejection fraction of 17.7 % (±7%) and mean maximal oxygen consumption of 12.1 (±3.4). Using a hierarchical multiple regression model, it was demonstrated that an exercise prescription (intensity, frequency, duration) significantly predicted 24 h weight fluctuations within a NYHA class III/IV heart failure population after medical optimization (R(2) linear = 0.713, F = 3.224, p = 0.015).",
"In end-stage heart failure (HF) that is not eligible for mechanical assist device or heart transplant, palliative care serves to maximise symptom control and quality of life. We sought to evaluate the impact of home-based advance care programme (ACP) on healthcare utilisation in end-stage HF patients. Prospectively collected registry data on all end-stage HF recruited into ACP between July 2008 and July 2010 were analysed. Chart reviews were conducted on HF database and hospital electronic records. Phone interview and home visit details by ACP team were extracted to complete data entry. HF and all-cause hospitalisations 1 year before, and any time after ACP inception were defined as events. For the latter analysis, follow-up duration adjustment to event episodes was performed to account for death less than a year. Forty-four patients (mean age 79 years, 39% men) were followed up for 15±8 months. Fifty-seven percent had diabetes, 80% ischaemic heart disease, and 60% chronic kidney disease. All reported functional class III/IV at enrolment. Mean serum sodium was 136±6 mmol/L, and creatinine 186±126 mmol/L. Thirty (68%) died within the programme. Mean time to death was 5.5 months. Mean all-cause and HF hospitalisations were 3.6 and 2.0 per patient before enrolment, but improved to 1.0 and 0.6 respectively after ACP. Thirty-six (71%) patients had fewer HF hospitalisations. When only those who survived more than a year were considered (n = 14), 10 (71%) and 9 (64%) experienced reduced HF (mean: 1.4 episodes per patient) and all-cause hospitalisations (mean: 2.2 episodes per patient) respectively.",
"This work reinforces the importance of routine medication reviews, especially in residents exposed to polypharmacy regimens that include antiarrhythmics or antiparkinson drugs, in order to reduce the risk of fall-related injuries during nursing home stays.",
"Elderly patients with heart failure who were prescribed losartan had worse survival rates compared with those prescribed other commonly used ARBs. The absence of a class effect for ARBs is consistent with data showing pharmacologic differences among the drugs.",
"Those patients with chronic heart failure who express a willingness to take part in a clinical trial, appear to have a better prognosis than those who do not.",
"Results of randomized controlled trials are consistent in showing reduced rates of stroke, heart failure and cardiovascular events in very old patients treated with antihypertensive drugs. However, inconsistencies exist with regard to the effect of these drugs on total mortality. We performed a meta-analysis of available data on hypertensive patients 80 years and older by selecting total mortality as the main outcome. Secondary outcomes were coronary events, stroke, cardiovascular events, heart failure and cause-specific mortality. The common relative risk (RR) of active treatment versus placebo or no treatment was assessed using a random-effect model. Linear meta-regression was performed to explore the relationship between intensity of antihypertensive therapy and blood pressure (BP) reduction and the log-transformed value of total mortality odds ratios (ORs). The overall RR for total mortality was 1.06 (95% confidence interval 0.89-1.25), with significant heterogeneity between hypertension in the very elderly trial (HYVET) and the other trials. This heterogeneity was not explained by differences in the follow-up duration between trials. The meta-regression suggested that a reduction in mortality was achieved in trials with the least BP reductions and the lowest intensity of therapy. Antihypertensive therapy significantly reduced (P<0.001) the risk of stroke (35%), cardiovascular events (27%) and heart failure (50%). Cause-specific mortality was not different between treated and untreated patients.",
"The purpose of this study was to ascertain the presence of gender bias in the medical management of heart failure, and to assess its association with the specialty of the caregiver physician. In 309 patients with documented left ventricular systolic dysfunction (ejection fraction<45%) and at least one hospitalization for heart failure, we assessed the frequency of use of effective medical therapy for heart failure among male (n=187) and female (n=122) patients at the time of hospital discharge. We constructed multivariate models relating patient gender and caregiver specialty to utilization of each class of medications (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, effective vasodilator therapy (i.e., angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or hydralazine-nitrate therapy), diuretics, digoxin), and combination therapy (i.e., vasodilator plus diuretic plus digoxin). In crude analyses, we did not find any difference in utilization of medications between male and female patients. Multivariate analyses involving adjustment for age, race, coronary artery disease, ejection fraction, and other relevant variables, revealed higher utilization of combination therapy by cardiologists in male versus female patients (adjusted odds ratios=2.07; 95%CI=1.09-3.95), and higher utilization of digoxin therapy by non-cardiologists in female versus male patients (adjusted odds ratio=5.5; 95%CI=1.4-22.2). No gender or caregiver specialty differences were seen in models relating to the other classes of medications.",
"Little is known about the prevalence of heart failure among very old people, although hospitalisation rates for chronic heart failure are very high. Recently, brain natriuretic peptides have emerged as important diagnostic and prognostic serum markers for congestive heart failure. The main purpose of our study was to determine whether there is a cut-off for NT-proBNP for detecting the echocardiographic features of left ventricular systolic and/or diastolic dysfunction and clinical heart failure among old people living in nursing homes. Secondarily, we investigated the medium-term prognostic power of the neurohormone levels. We screened 101 old people (80% females, aged 84+/-9 years) from two nursing homes. We prospectively evaluated whether we could effectively stratify patients using a combination of (1) restrictive clinical criteria, (2) NT-proBNP measurements (Elecsys System, Roche Diagnostics) and (3) echocardiography for all patients. Forty-two percent of the subjects had left ventricular dysfunction: 11% systolic, 23% diastolic and 8% both systolic and diastolic. The mean NT-proBNP concentration was 2806+/-7028 pg/ml in the 42 patients with left ventricular systolic and/or diastolic dysfunction, compared with 365+/-456 pg/ml in the 59 patients with normal left ventricular function (p<0.01, Z=-4.8 Mann-Whitney U test). The neurohormone proved to be a good predictor of events within 6 months [area under the receiver-operated curve (ROC)=0.79].",
"Cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT) improves symptoms and reduces mortality in heart failure (HF) patients, but little data exist on the efficacy of CRT in the elderly. The aim of our study is to define CRT-related benefits in terms of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) improvement in two subgroups of patients (<75 and ≥75 years old) and test possible differences between these two groups. Single-centre prospective observational study including 65 patients with optimally treated, advanced HF and indication to CRT. All patients were investigated with clinical evaluation, Minnesota Living with Heart Failure Questionnaire (MLHFQ), 12-lead electrocardiogram, and full echocardiographical study before CRT implant and 3 and 12 months after. Left ventricular ejection fraction showed a time-related improvement in the whole population (+10.6% over 12 months) as well as in each subgroup. The magnitude of LVEF improvement was similar in elderly and non-elderly patients (+13.6 vs. +7.9%; P = ns). Left ventricular diameters, pulmonary artery systolic pressure, New York Heart Association class, MLHFQ score, and QRS width all showed a time-related improvement in the whole population as well as in each subgroup. End-diastolic left ventricular diameter remodelling and QRS width reduction were significantly more pronounced in the elderly, whereas other clinical and instrumental secondary endpoints showed a similar improvement between ≥75 and <75 years old patients. There was no significant difference regarding mortality between elderly and non-elderly patients.",
"Based on our observational data, rhythm-control seems to offer no survival advantage over rate-control in patients with heart failure and preserved EF. Randomized clinical trials are needed to verify these findings and examine the effect of each strategy on stroke risk, heart failure decompensation, and quality of life.",
"Treatment nonadherence is common in heart failure (HF) and is associated with poor health outcomes in this population. Recent cross-sectional work in heart failure and past work in other medical populations suggest that cognitive function is a key determinant of a patient's ability to adhere to treatment recommendations. However, it is also possible that treatment adherence is an important modifier and predictor of cognitive function, though no study has examined this possibility, and we sought to do so in a sample of heart failure patients. A total of 115 patients with heart failure self-reported adherence to treatment recommendations. The Modified Mini Mental State Examination (3MS), Trail Making Test Parts A and B, and the California Verbal Learning Test-II (CVLT-II) assessed cognitive function. These procedures were performed at baseline and a 12-month follow-up. Global cognition and memory abilities improved over the 12-month period. Regression analyses controlling for baseline and medical and demographic factors showed that better baseline treatment adherence predicted improved 12-month performances on the 3MS and CVLT-II. Adherence to medication and diet regimens and smoking abstinence emerged as the most important contributors.",
"a repetitive ADL exercise programme may improve health status in the short term in a group of frail older people living in residential care. Further research is needed to establish sustainability of change.",
"Residents of residential aged care facilities (RACF) are commonly hospitalised towards the end of life. Determining the hospitalisation experiences, including the discussion of goals of treatment, is essential to best plan care including planning for end-of-life care for this population.AIM: To document hospital presentation characteristics, course, outcomes and care planning for high-care residents of RACF. A retrospective review of medical records was conducted for all high-care residents aged>64 years presenting to a metropolitan hospital over a 6-month period. One hundred and eighty-six high-care residents of RACF presented to hospital 228 times. Transfer paperwork documented resuscitation status for 49 (21%) presentations, and a medical enduring power of attorney or advanced care plan for 85 (37%). Patients had high rates of comorbidities (average Charlson comorbidity index score = 3), polypharmacy (93%), impaired mobility (89%), impaired cognition (81%) and incontinence (76%). Resuscitation status was documented in 50 (55%) and family discussion in 38 (42%) of 91 admissions exceeding 48 h. Documented family discussion was significantly associated with complications or new events occurring during admission (odds ratio 1.56, 95% confidence interval 1.07-2.26).",
"This study demonstrates an unexpectedly high percentage of patients with heart failure fulfilling current echocardiographic criteria for LVNC. This might be explained by a hitherto underestimated cause of heart failure, but the comparison with controls suggests that current diagnostic criteria are too sensitive, particularly in black individuals.",
"Self-management interventions are widely implemented in the care for patients with heart failure (HF). However, trials show inconsistent results, and whether specific patient groups respond differently is unknown. This individual patient data meta-analysis assessed the effectiveness of self-management interventions in patients with HF and whether subgroups of patients respond differently. A systematic literature search identified randomized trials of self-management interventions. Data from 20 studies, representing 5624 patients, were included and analyzed with the use of mixed-effects models and Cox proportional-hazard models, including interaction terms. Self-management interventions reduced the risk of time to the combined end point of HF-related hospitalization or all-cause death (hazard ratio, 0.80; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.71-0.89), time to HF-related hospitalization (hazard ratio, 0.80; 95% CI, 0.69-0.92), and improved 12-month HF-related quality of life (standardized mean difference, 0.15; 95% CI, 0.00-0.30). Subgroup analysis revealed a protective effect of self-management on the number of HF-related hospital days in patients<65 years of age (mean, 0.70 versus 5.35 days; interaction P=0.03). Patients without depression did not show an effect of self-management on survival (hazard ratio for all-cause mortality, 0.86; 95% CI, 0.69-1.06), whereas in patients with moderate/severe depression, self-management reduced survival (hazard ratio, 1.39; 95% CI, 1.06-1.83, interaction P=0.01).",
"Surveys on heart failure management suggest under-utilization of life-saving evidence-based treatment. Evidence-based medicine and clinical guidelines are based on the results of randomized controlled trials. Therefore, we investigated how patients who fulfilled the enrolment criteria of randomized trials were treated in real life. We selected three large placebo-controlled trials of patients with chronic heart failure, in which ACE-inhibitors (ACE-Is), beta-blockers, and spironolactone proved to be safe and effective. The major enrolment criteria of trials were identified and applied to patients enrolled in the Euro Heart Survey on Heart Failure to identify the proportion of patients eligible for treatment and also treated appropriately. Of the 10 701 patients who were enrolled in the Euro Heart Survey on Heart Failure, only a small percentage (13%) would have qualified for participation in at least one of the selected trials. Patients who fulfilled enrolment criteria of the identified trials were more likely to be treated with ACE-Is (83% of SOLVD-eligible patients), beta-blockers (54% of MERIT-HF-eligible patients), and aldosterone antagonists (43% of RALES-eligible patients) than trial-ineligible patients. Almost half of SOLVD-eligible patients who were treated with ACE-Is received the target dose as recommended in the guidelines, but only <10% of MERIT-HF eligible patients who were treated with beta-blockers received the target dose.",
"To compare end-of-life preferences in elderly individuals with dementia and congestive heart failure (CHF). Retrospective case-control study. Geriatrician-led interdisciplinary house-call program using an electronic medical record. Homebound individuals who died while under the care of the house-call program from October 1996 to April 2001. Medical records review for demographics, functional status, advance medical planning, hospice use, and place of death. Of 172 patients who died in the program, 29 had CHF, 79 had dementia, 34 had both, and 30 had neither. Patients with CHF were younger (82.6 vs 87.0, P=.011) and less functionally dependent (activities of daily living score 9.1 vs 11.5, P=.001). Time from enrollment to death was not significantly different (mean+/-standard deviation=444+/-375 days for CHF vs 325+/-330 days for dementia, P=.113). A do-not-resuscitate (DNR) directive was given in 62% of patients with CHF and 91% with dementia (P<.001). Advance medical planning discussions were not significantly different (2.10 in CHF vs 1.65 in dementia, P=.100). More patients with CHF participated in their advance medical planning than those with dementia (86% vs 17%, P<.001). Hospice was used in 24% of CHF and 61% of dementia cases (P<.001). Finally, 45% of patients with CHF and 18% of patients with dementia died in the acute hospital (P=.006). Multivariate analysis showed that the fact that more patients with CHF were involved in their medical planning was not significant in predicting end-of-life preferences. Alternatively, Caucasian ethnicity was an independent predictor of having a documented DNR and death outside of the acute hospital.",
"For older individuals living in the community with chronic diseases such as heart failure (HF), caregivers may play an important role in medication adherence. This role may be increasingly important as cognition declines. This study aimed to 1) examine the role of caregivers in medication adherence in a complex population of older home care clients with mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and 2) examine the effect of caregiver stress on medication non-adherence. The interRAI Resident Assessment Instrument - Home Care (RAIHC) instrument collects comprehensive information about all individuals receiving long-term home care services in the Canadian province of Ontario. This analysis of secondary data utilized this database to examine the relationship between caregiver residence and stress on medication adherence among a subset of clients with MCI who were over age 75. The prevalence of HF among the sample was 15.5%, while MCI was present in 42.3% of the sample. Among individuals with MCI, having a caregiver at the same residence reduced medication non-adherence. Additionally, caregiver stress was significantly associated with higher rates of non-adherence.",
"To assess the trend in risk-adjusted hospital mortality from heart failure. Oregon hospital discharge data from 1991 through 1995 were analyzed. A total of 29,530 hospitalizations because of heart failure in elderly patients (age>or = 65 years) were identified from International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, codes 428.0-428.9. The logistic regression and life table analyses were used to assess the risk-adjusted trend in hospital mortality from heart failure. From 1991 through 1995, 1757 (5.9%) patients with heart failure died in the hospital; 920 (52.4%) of them died within 3 days. The percentage of patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities increased from 6.1% in 1991 to 9.8% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001), whereas the percentage of patients discharged directly to home decreased from 69.2% in 1991 to 62.4% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001). The mean length of stay decreased from 5.15 days in 1991 to 3.97 days in 1995. The age- and sex-standardized mortality rate decreased by 33.8% from 7.4 in 1991 to 4.8 in 1995 (P value for trend<.01). Additional adjustment for comorbidity using multiple logistic regression revealed a greater reduction of 41.0% in the mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.59; 95% confidence interval = 0.50, 0.69) and a reduction of 46.0% in the 3-day mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.54; 95% confidence interval = 0.43, 0.67) across the 5-year period. Life table analysis showed consistently lower cumulative mortality rates during the first week after admission in 1995 compared with those in 1991 (P<.001).",
"Previous studies have focused on systolic blood pressure (SBP), diastolic pressure (DBP), and more recently pulse pressure (PP) as risk factors for adverse cardiovascular (CV) endpoints in elderly people. However, the relation between these pressures and CV complications in the frail nursing home population has not been well studied. The aims of this project are to determine the value of PP in predicting CV complications in a nursing home population, and to compare its predictive value with SBP, DBP, and mean arterial pressure (MAP). This study is a retrospective 2-year review of the medical charts of 248 residents of the Hebrew Rehabilitation Center for the Aged, a long-term care facility in Boston, MA, USA. During the review process, data were collected about past medical history and new onset CV events, in addition to blood pressure and medication use. The results showed, with 95% confidence, that within a 2-year period, the odds ratio for the occurrence of the selected CV outcomes (myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, angina, stroke, renal failure, syncope, death) included 1.0 for PP, SBP, DBP, MAP, and changes in these values. After adjusting for medication use, pulse pressure was still not an independent risk factor for CV complications.",
"yes. Our study showed levosimendan significantly and safely improved clinical outcomes of refractory heart failure in elderly patients.",
"There is limited research to support the effect of exercise adherence on clinical outcomes in patients with heart failure (HF). This secondary analysis was conducted on the intervention arm of an exercise training study in patients with HF to assess whether adherence and the dose of treatment exposure were associated with clinical outcomes, functional performance (maximum oxygen consumption [VO2], anaerobic threshold, and workload), and quality of life (QOL). Seventy-one patients (average age, 54 +/- 12.5 years; male, 66%; Caucasian, 66%; married, 61%; New York Heart Association class II-III, 97.2%; and average ejection fraction, 26.4% +/- 6.5%) were included in the current study. Patients with an increase>/= 18% in the amount of exercise from baseline to 6 months, as measured by pedometers, were categorized as adherers (n = 38); patients who had no change or an increase in the amount of exercise of<18% were categorized as nonadherers (n = 33). The 2 groups were significantly different in the composite endpoint of all-cause hospitalization, emergency room admissions, and death/urgent transplantation (hazard ratio, 0.31; 95% confidence interval, 0.159-0.635; P<0.001). Adherers had greater improvements in functional performance and QOL compared with nonadherers (P<0.001).",
"The rate of death or discharge to nursing care facility after cardiac surgery was high among patients who were octogenarians. Current operative outcome end points do not reflect such important differences between patients who are octogenarians and younger patients. Informed discussion of treatment options, potential for discharge to a nursing care facility, and quality of life expectations should precede a decision to undergo cardiac surgery in patients who are octogenarians. Randomized clinical trials of medical versus surgical palliation of cardiovascular symptoms in patients who are octogenarians are needed to justify cost-effectiveness and guide better use of relatively scarce Medicare resources.",
"yes. Echocardiographic and cardiopulmonary data can identify high-risk elderly patients with systolic heart failure, who may need aggressive clinical management.",
"Contribution of LVSI and LVFS is to be confirmed in larger trials. Simplicity of their assessment by conventional echocardiography could be an argument for adding them to the inclusion criteria for CRT in severe heart failure patients.",
"Although the \"off-label usage\" of cardiac resynchronization therapy with defibrillator (CRT-D) has spread recently in advanced heart failure (HF) patients in the real-world practice, its clinical effect remained uncertain. A total of 84 in-hospital<65-year old patients with advanced HF undergoing CRT-D were enrolled. Seventeen patients (20%) had been dependent on inotropes at the time of CRT-D implantation, and 17 suffered cardiac death within a year. Both inotrope dependence and elevated plasma levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) (>690 pg/mL) at the time of CRT-D implantation were independent predictors of cardiac death within a year by Cox regression analyses (P<0.05 for both). These 2 parameters could significantly stratify 1-year ventricular assist device (VAD)-free survival: inotrope-free low (1) or high BNP (2), or inotrope-dependent low (3) or high BNP groups (4) (98, 77, 57, and 17%, respectively, P<0.001). In contrast, there were no significant differences in actual 1-year survival among the four groups.",
"Several studies based on claims data have reported underutilization of evidence-based heart failure (HF) therapies. The degree to which these estimates fail to account for therapeutic contraindications is unclear. We identified patients with HF and left ventricular ejection fraction ≤45% seen between January 1, 2010, and July 1, 2010, at a tertiary care Veterans Affairs Medical Center. Medical records were abstracted to evaluate utilization of and contraindications to β-blocker, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, aldosterone antagonist, anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation, implantable cardioverter-defibrillator, and cardiac resynchronization therapies. Of the 178 patients with HF and an ejection fraction ≤45%, 78 (44%) received every guideline-recommended therapy. After accounting for medical contraindications, 77 (72%) of 107 patients received every guideline-recommended therapy. Adherence to recommendations for β-blocker (98%), angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor/angiotensin blocker (95%), and anticoagulation (97%) were better than adherence to implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (82%), cardiac resynchronization therapy (59%), or aldosterone antagonist (51%) recommendations. In adjusted analysis, lower New York Heart Association functional class and care by a cardiologist were associated with improved guideline adherence (P<.001).",
"These findings indicate that very elderly individuals tended to receive care within LTC settings, with care that might be considered aggressive declining with increasing age. However, health care use among all age groups was substantial. A critical issue that needs to be examined in future research is how to ensure quality end-of-life care in a variety of clinical contexts and care settings for individuals of all ages.",
"These results strongly suggest that heart failure with preserved and reduced ejection fraction could be distinct pathophysiological entities, at least in elderly patients.",
"To examine whether heart failure patients' awareness of the purpose and side effects of their medicines equips them to participate in informed discussions about treatments. Qualitative interviews using a maximum variation sample were collected. Interviews were analysed using constant comparison. Patients were interviewed throughout the UK, in 2003. Participants. Thirty-seven men and women with heart failure aged between 35 and 85 years. All groups understood that medication was important and had developed methods (dosette boxes, alarm clocks) to cope. Three levels of awareness were identified. People at Level 1 did not know the purpose or possible side effects of their medication; those at Level 2 knew the names and main side effects and relied on doctors to provide detailed information. People at Level 3 understood their diagnosis and were committed to finding out about their illness.",
"yes. In elderly patients with heart failure, the prevalence of non-cardiovascular co-morbidity is very high and exceeds the prevalence of cardiovascular conditions. Diseases such as dementia and osteoarthritis must be taken into account in the management of elderly patients with heart failure.",
"We aimed to classify patients with heart failure (HF) by the style of primary care they receive. We used the claim data ( Système National d'Information Inter-Régime de l'Assurance Maladie) of patients living in a French region. We evaluated three concepts. First, baseline clinical status with age and Charlson index. Second, primary care practice style with mean delay between consultations, quantity of nursing care, and variability of diuretic dose. Third, clinical outcomes with death during follow-up, readmission for HF, and rate of unforeseen consultations. The baseline clinical status and the clinical outcomes were included to give an insight in the reasons for, and performance of, primary care practice style. Patients were classified using a hierarchical ascending classification based on principal components. A total of 2,751 patients were included in this study and were followed for a median of 22 months. The mean age was 78 y (SD: 12); 484 (18%) died, and 818 (30%) were readmitted for HF. We found three different significant groups characterized by their need for care and the intensity of practice style: group 1 (N = 734) was \"low need-low intensity\"; group 2 (N = 1,060) was \"high need-low intensity\"; and group 3 (N = 957) was \"high need-high intensity\". Their readmission rates were 17%, 41% and 28%, respectively.",
"Patients in long-term care institutions (LTCI) are especially at risk for osteoporotic fractures owing to their lack of mobility, poor nutrition, and limited sun exposure. Previous reports have shown that osteoporosis is underdiagnosed and undertreated in LTCI despite the high incidence of osteoporotic fractures in these settings. This document has been developed to assist clinicians practicing in LTCI with the diagnosis and treatment of osteoporosis in their institutionalized patients. These proceedings offer an overview of the particular characteristics of patients at LTCI. Management strategies include both nonpharmacological and pharmacological interventions for the prevention and treatment of osteoporotic fractures in very frail older subjects. This guide is an edited review of presentations and discussions held by specialists in osteoporosis in the elderly together with physicians and pharmacists practicing in LTCI in the province of Quebec. This symposium was held in Saint-Hyacinthe, Quebec on November 5, 2004. The value of a given diagnostic test or treatment option was determined based on the clinical experiences and opinions of the participants and a review of the literature from an evidence-based perspective.",
"The benefit of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors on mortality in heart failure has been proved in randomized controlled trials. We prospectively evaluated the prescribing of ACE inhibitors and the prescribing of target ACE inhibitor doses in 43 ambulatory patients with heart failure to identify differences in ACE inhibitor utilization among elderly and nonelderly patients. The prescribed ACE inhibitor dose and other variables were assessed by direct patient interview and information contained in the medical record. Telephone calls were conducted at 3 months to identify the occurrence of clinical events. Fewer elderly patients were prescribed target ACE inhibitor doses compared with nonelderly patients (21.4% vs 68.8%; p = 0.0136). Elderly patients were more likely to experience an event than nonelderly patients (11 vs 4; p = 0.0074). Elderly patients not receiving target ACE inhibitor doses demonstrated a trend toward more events than elderly patients who were at target doses.",
"Regional variation in health care use in the last 6 months of life is well documented. Our objective was to examine whether an association exists between cardiologists' tendencies to discuss palliative care for patients with advanced heart failure and the regional use of health care in the last 6 months of life. We performed a national mail survey of a random sample of 994 eligible Cardiologists from the American Medical Association Masterfile. Hypothetical patient scenarios were used to explore physician management of patient scenarios. We received 614 responses (response rate: 62%). In a 75-year-old with symptomatic chronic heart failure and asymptomatic nonsustained ventricular tachycardia, cardiologists in regions with high use in the last 6 months of life were less likely to have discussions about palliative care (23% versus 32% for comparisons between the highest and lowest quintiles, p = 0.04). Similarly, in an 85 year-old with symptomatic chronic heart failure and an acute exacerbation, cardiologists in high use regions were less likely to have discussions about palliative care (35% versus 47%, p = 0.0008).",
"Advances have been made in the medical management of congestive heart failure. However, there is concern that these changes may not be transmitted to the heart failure population in the community. Other impediments to improved prognosis, such as failure to apply non-pharmacological strategies and poor patient comprehension may also be prevalent in the community. The purpose of this study was to assess physician practice and patient knowledge in a heart failure population admitted to a University Hospital in Ireland. Patients admitted with a primary diagnosis of heart failure were studied. Estimation of ejection fraction was used to subdivide the population into heart failure with impaired and normal systolic function. Patients' course in hospital was noted with reference to management by cardiology or internal medicine, use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibition therapy and digoxin and application of dietary and rehabilitative services. Patient knowledge was assessed by questionnaire. Eighty patients were included in this study. Two-thirds of the population had impaired systolic function. The majority of patients were managed by internal medicine physicians, and this population was older and more likely to have normal systolic function. Prescription of converting enzyme inhibitor therapy was more frequently used in cardiology-managed patients (96 vs. 70%, P<0.05). Neither group applied dietary or rehabilitative advice to a significant level. Patient comprehension was poor, especially with regard to understanding of medicine and the value of weight measurement.",
"To assess the adherence to heart failure (HF) guidelines for angiotensin-converting enzyme-I (ACE-I), angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB), and β-blockers and the possible association of ACE-I or ARB, β-blockers, and statins with survival in the large contemporary Norwegian Heart Failure Registry. The study included 5761 outpatients who were diagnosed with HF of any aetiology (mean left ventricular ejection fraction 32% ± 11%) from January 2000 to January 2010 and followed up until death or February 2010. Adherence to treatment according to the guidelines was high. Cox regression analysis to identify risk factors for all-cause mortality, after adjustment for many factors, showed that ACE-I ≥ 50% of target dose, use of beta-blockers, and statins were significantly related to improved survival (P = 0.003, P < 0.001, and P < 0.001, respectively). Propensity scoring showed the same benefit for these variables.",
"This study evaluated the effectiveness of using trained volunteer staff in reducing 30-day readmissions of congestive heart failure (CHF) patients. From June 2010 to December 2010, 137 patients (mean age 73 years) hospitalized for CHF were randomly assigned to either: an interventional arm (arm A) receiving dietary and pharmacologic education by a trained volunteer, follow-up telephone calls within 48 hours, and a month of weekly calls; or a control arm (arm B) receiving standard care. Primary outcomes were 30-day readmission rates for CHF and worsening New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification; composite and all-cause mortality were secondary outcomes. Arm A patients had decreased 30-day readmissions (7% vs 19%; P < .05) with a relative risk reduction (RRR) of 63% and an absolute risk reduction (ARR) of 12%. The composite outcome of 30-day readmission, worsening NYHA functional class, and death was decreased in the arm A (24% vs 49%; P < .05; RRR 51%, ARR 25%). Standard-care treatment and hypertension, age ≥65 years and hypertension, and cigarette smoking were predictors of increased risk for readmissions, worsening NYHA functional class, and all-cause mortality, respectively, in the multivariable analysis.",
"Despite marked improvements in treatment strategies for heart failure (HF), the mortality rate of elderly patients with HF is still high. Detailed causes of death have not been fully understood. We studied 459 consecutive patients with acute decompensated HF (ADHF) emergently admitted to our hospital from 2007 to 2011. Patients were divided into 2 groups: <75 years old (younger group; n = 225) and ≥75 years old (elderly group; n = 234). All-cause death, cardiovascular death, and noncardiovascular death were assessed as adverse outcomes. Compared with the younger group, the elderly group was characterized by a higher proportion of women and hypertensive patients and higher left ventricular ejection fraction. During a mean follow-up of 20.7 months, a total of 174 patients (37.9%) died. All-cause death was significantly higher in the elderly group than in the younger group (46.6% vs 28.9%; P < .0001), and this difference was caused by an increase in noncardiovascular deaths (20.9% vs 9.3%; P < .001), especially deaths due to infection (10.7% vs 4.0%; P < .01). Cardiovascular deaths did not differ between the 2 groups.",
"The purpose of this study was to examine whether a nurse-monitored structured care program resulted in a more effective use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in elderly patients compared with standard care in patients with chronic heart failure (CHF). Hospitalized patients were screened to identify individuals with CHF, age more than 65 years, New York Heart Association classification III to IV, and no contraindications to ACE inhibitor treatment. One hundred forty-five patients were randomized to a nurse-monitored structured care program that included uptitration of enalapril to a target dose of 10 mg twice a day or to standard care. Six-month follow-up data were collected. The mean age of the randomized patients was 81 years. Although the proportion of patients treated with an ACE inhibitor did not differ between structured care (70%) and standard care (64%), the number of patients with the target ACE inhibitor dose was significantly higher in the structured care group (26% versus 11% in the standard care group; P<.018). Treatment had to be discontinued in 26% of the patients because of adverse effects.",
"The data suggest that this group of elderly patients with heart failure who received lower ACE inhibitor doses appeared to be at higher risk for clinical events.",
"This study describes the long-term outcome of 163 patients with stable mild to moderate heart failure (NYHA II-III), who already were enrolled in a heart failure clinic and now were randomized to continued follow-up in the heart failure (HF) clinic or else to usual care (UC). The primary outcome was unplanned hospitalisations and death, the secondary endpoints were pharmacological therapy, NYHA class, six-minute-walking distances and NT-pro BNP level. At the end of follow-up we found no significant differences in total number of hospitalisation (p = 0.2) or mortality (16% vs. 16%) between the two groups. Patients in the HF clinic cohort achieved a significantly better NYHA score (p<0.01), significantly longer walking-distances (p = 0.04) and received a significantly higher dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (p<0.001) and beta-blockers (p<0.001). No significant difference was found on the level of NT-pro BNP (p = 0.4).",
"To explore changes in healthcare professionals' views about the diagnosis and management of heart failure since a study in 2003. Focus groups and a national online cross-sectional survey. Focus groups (n=8 with a total of 56 participants) were conducted in the North East of England using a phenomenological framework and purposive sampling, informing a UK online survey (n=514). 4 categories were identified as contributing to variations in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. Three previously known categories included: uncertainty about clinical practice, the value of clinical guidelines and tensions between individual and organisational practice. A new category concerned uncertainty about end-of-life care. Survey responses found that confidence varied among professional groups in diagnosing left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD): 95% of cardiologists, 93% of general physicians, 66% of general practitioners (GPs) and 32% of heart failure nurses. For heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF), confidence levels were much lower: 58% of cardiologists, 43% of general physicians, 7% of GPs and 6% of heart failure nurses. Only 5-35% of respondents used natriuretic peptides for LVSD or HFpEF. Confidence in interpreting test findings was fundamental to the use of all diagnostic tests. Clinical guidelines were reported to be helpful when diagnosing LVSD by 33% of nurses and 50-56% of other groups, but fell to 5-28% for HFpEF. Some GPs did not routinely initiate diuretics (23%), ACE-inhibitors (22%) or β-blockers (38%) for LVSD for reasons including historical teaching, perceived side effects and burden of monitoring. For end-of-life care, there was no consensus about responsibility for heart failure management.",
"yes. This large, unselected cohort revealed that among patients with myocardial infarction, heart failure and its worsening are frequent, especially in the elderly, and dramatically worsen the in-hospital mortality.",
"yes. Our data suggest that most clinical trials on congestive heart failure, on which the guidelines for clinical practice are based, have generally included patients who are not representative of the whole spectrum of patients actually managed in clinical practice.",
"Despite professional guidelines suggesting that cardiologists discuss palliative care with patients with late stage heart failure, less than half of cardiologists would discuss palliative care in two elderly patients with late-stage heart failure and this guideline discordance was worse in the regions with more health care use in the last 6 months of life.",
"Concomitant ischemic heart disease (IHD) is common in older individuals with heart failure (HF). We estimated the effect of aspirin use on the rate of mortality, morbidity, and decline in physical functioning in nursing home residents with HF taking angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. We conducted a retrospective cohort study using a nursing home database linking resident information collected via the Minimum Data Set (MDS) with drug utilization data. Nursing homes in four states (1992-1995). Of 49,779 residents with HF admitted to these homes, 12,703 residents were taking an ACE inhibitor; 2,046 of these took aspirin. Medicare enrollment files provided the date of death, and we used the Part A Medicare files to identify hospital admissions. The activity of daily living scale from repeat MDS assessments allowed us to evaluate decline in physical function. Cox proportional hazards models provided adjusted estimates of the aspirin effect, with nonusers as the reference group. The overall mortality rate, hospitalization rate,and rate of decline in physical function of aspirin users were not different from those of nonusers (e.g., hospitalization rate ratio = 0.99, 95% confidence interval = 0.92-1.07). This effect did not vary by presence of concomitant IHD or by dose or type of ACE inhibitor.",
"no. A minority of hospitalized older persons with heart failure fit the profile of populations of clinical trials. There is an urgent need for research in heart failure for typical heart failure patients, including the very old, women, and patients with preserved left ventricular systolic function.",
"With increasing age, men and women with heart failure were less likely to have undergone echocardiography or to have received an ACE inhibitor. When account was taken of age, there were no statistically significant sex differences in management; however, because of the demographic distribution of heart failure, women are disproportionately affected by age differences in management. Clinical trials, physician practice, and service developments in heart failure have neglected older people. This balance should be redressed.",
"To evaluate how recommendations of European guidelines regarding pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments for heart failure (HF) are adopted in clinical practice. The ESC-HF Long-Term Registry is a prospective, observational study conducted in 211 Cardiology Centres of 21 European and Mediterranean countries, members of the European Society of Cardiology (ESC). From May 2011 to April 2013, a total of 12,440 patients were enrolled, 40.5% with acute HF and 59.5% with chronic HF. Intravenous treatments for acute HF were heterogeneously administered, irrespective of guideline recommendations. In chronic HF, with reduced EF, renin-angiotensin system (RAS) blockers, beta-blockers, and mineralocorticoid antagonists (MRAs) were used in 92.2, 92.7, and 67.0% of patients, respectively. When reasons for non-adherence were considered, the real rate of undertreatment accounted for 3.2, 2.3, and 5.4% of the cases, respectively. About 30% of patients received the target dosage of these drugs, but a documented reason for not achieving the target dosage was reported in almost two-thirds of them. The more relevant reasons for non-implantation of a device, when clinically indicated, were related to doctor uncertainties on the indication, patient refusal, or logistical/cost issues.",
"Although it is widely accepted that clinical trials in heart failure may not apply to older populations, the magnitude of the discrepancy between trial populations and patients seen in community-based practice are not known. Our objective was to determine the proportion of older persons meeting enrollment criteria of randomized controlled trials of agents that prolong life in heart failure. We conducted a cross-sectional study of Medicare beneficiaries >64 years old with the principal diagnosis of heart failure who were discharged from acute care hospitals in the United States between April 1998 and March 1999. Enrollment criteria of the Studies of Left Ventricular Dysfunction (SOLVD), Metroprolol CR/LX Randomized Intervention Trial in Congestive Heart Failure (MERIT-HF), and Randomized Aldactone Evaluation Study (RALES) trials were applied to the population, and the proportions meeting the criteria were determined by subgroups of age and sex. Of the 20,388 patients studied, 18%, 13%, and 25% met the enrollment criteria of the SOLVD, MERIT-HF, and RALES trials, respectively. Although trial eligibility was less than a third for any sex or age group, significantly fewer women than men met trial criteria (13% vs 23% for SOLVD, 11% vs 17% for MERIT-HF, and 21% vs 32% for RALES, P <.0001 for all). The oldest patients were also less likely to fulfill enrollment criteria. The proportion of all patients not included because of preserved left ventricular systolic function was twice as large as the proportion meeting the inclusion criteria for any trial.",
"Patients in long-term care who have CHF little resemble to those enrolled in randomized trials. This circumstance may explain, at least in part, the divergence from pharmacologic management consensus guidelines. Yet the prescription of ACE inhibitors varies significantly across facilities and depends on organizational characteristics.",
"Increasing prevalence, use of health services, and number of deaths have made congestive heart failure (CHF) a new epidemic in the United States. Yet there are no adequate data to guide treatment of the more typical and complex cases of patients who are very old and frail. Using the SAGE database, we studied the cases of 86,094 patients with CHF admitted to any of the 1492 long-term care facilities of 5 states from 1992 through 1996. We described their clinical and functional characteristics and their pharmacologic treatment to verify agreement with widely approved guidelines. We evaluated age- and sex-related differences, and we determined predictors of receiving an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor by developing a multiple logistic regression model. The mean age of the population was 84.9 +/- 8 years. Eighty percent of the patients 85 years of age or older were women. More than two thirds of patients underwent frequent hospitalizations related to CHF in the year preceding admission to a long-term care facility. Coronary heart disease and hypertension were the most common causes. Half of the patients received digoxin and 45% a diuretic, regardless of background cardiovascular comorbidities. Only 25% of patients had a prescription for ACE inhibitors. The presence of cardiovascular comorbidity, already being a recipient of a large number of medications, a previous hospitalization for CHF, and admission to the facility in recent years were associated with an increased likelihood of receiving an ACE inhibitor. The presence of severe physical limitation was inversely related to use of ACE inhibitors, as were a series of organizational factors related to the facilities."
] | 414 |
Does hysteroscopy facilitate tumor cell dissemination? | [
"In several case reports, distension and irrigation of the uterine cavity during fluid hysteroscopy was suspected to cause tumor cell dissemination into the abdominal cavity in patients with endometrial carcinoma. It was the aim of this study to compare the incidence of positive peritoneal cytology in patients who underwent dilatation and curettage (D&C) with or without previous hysteroscopy. The authors conducted a multicentric, retrospective cohort analysis. One hundred thirteen consecutive patients with endometrial carcinoma treated between 1996 and 1997 were included. Endometrial carcinoma had to be limited to the inner half or less than the inner half of the myometrium (pathologic Stage IA,B). Positive peritoneal cytology was obtained during staging laparotomy. Patients underwent D&C either with or without prior diagnostic fluid hysteroscopy. No selection or randomization was applied to the two groups. Positive peritoneal cytology, defined as malignant or suspicious, was considered the primary statistical endpoint. Peritoneal cytology was suspicious or positive in 10 of 113 patients (9%). The presence of suspicious or positive peritoneal cytology was associated with a history of hysteroscopy (P = 0.04) but not with myometrial invasion (P = 0.57), histologic subtype (P = 1.00) or grade (r = 0.16, P = 0.10), or the time between D&C and staging laparotomy (r = 0.04, P = 0.66).",
"Based on the limited extent of endometrial carcinoma in the current analysis, our data strongly suggest dissemination of endometrial carcinoma cells after fluid hysteroscopy. Determining whether a positive peritoneal cytology affects the prognoses of patients without further evidence of extrauterine disease will require longer follow-up."
] | [
"We sought to determine the prevalence of adenomyosis and assess its effect on lymph node status in endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the endometrium (EAC). Hysterectomy specimens from a single institution were reviewed for the presence of adenomyosis, lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI), tumor grade, histology, and lymph node status. Standard statistical analysis was used to compare variables. Adenomyosis was present in 42% of total and 66% of malignant hysterectomy specimens (P = .009). Adenomyosis was most commonly associated with EAC histology (P = .023). LVSI was found to be an independent predictor of lymph node metastasis in EAC patients without adenomyosis, but not in those with coexisting adenomyosis (odds ratio, 58.7; P = .03; and odds ratio, 4.98; P = .15; respectively).",
"yes. Disseminated tumor cells can be detected in patients with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma by CK 20 RT-PCR. Detection rates are stage dependent, and survival analysis demonstrated statistically relevant data. From a clinical point of view, this finding is especially noteworthy for the group of well- and moderately-differentiated tumors.",
"yes. Mesothelial cell damage and inflammation are reduced by using humidified-warm CO2 for laparoscopic oncologic surgery and may translate to reduce patients' risk of developing peritoneal metastasis.",
"yes. EMT induced by inflammatory stimuli confers to cancer cells some mesenchymal stromal cell-like immune-modulatory properties, which could be a cue for cancer progression and metastatic dissemination by favouring immune escape.",
"yes. Our findings reveal that well-timed mild hyperthermia treatment can transiently elevate tumor transport and alter vascular adhesion properties and thereby provides a means to enhance tumor localization of non-thermally sensitive particles such as MSVs. Such enhancement in accumulation could be leveraged to increase therapeutic efficacy and reduce drug dosing in cancer therapy.",
"yes. This study indicates that HS cells play an important role in accelerating cholangiocarcinoma progression and may be a therapeutic target in cholangiocarcinoma.",
"The purpose of our study was to find if uterine manipulation at the time of laparoscopic hysterectomy among women with endometrial carcinoma increases the incidence of malignant cells in the peritoneal washings. We conducted a prospective study including women with clinical stage I endometrioid endometrial carcinoma undergoing laparoscopic surgery between 07/01/2000 and 07/01/2004. Surgery on all patients was conducted by the same surgeon using the same technique and instruments. Two sets of peritoneal washings were obtained, one before and one after the insertion of the Pelosi uterine manipulator. The two sets of washings were blindly reviewed by the same cytopathologist for the presence of malignant cells. Correlation was made between the two sets of washings. Forty-two consecutive women (age 46-90, median: 58) were enrolled in the study. The procedure was converted to laparotomy in 3 (7.6%) patients after obtaining the two sets of washings. The preoperative tumor grades were: G1: 22 (52.4%), G2: 12 (28.6%), and G3: 8 (19.0). The incidence of positive peritoneal washings was 14.3%. All patients underwent laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, 30 patients had bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy, and 5 patients had bilateral pelvic and para-aortic lymphadenectomy. There was perfect agreement between the two sets of washings in all patients (100%, P < .001). No patients had positive washings after the insertion of the uterine manipulator if the washings were negative before the insertion. The surgical stages were: IA: 14 (33.3%), IB: 12 (28.6%), IC: 7 (16.7%), IIA: 1 (2.4%), IIB: 1 (2.4%), IIIA: 4 (9.5%), IIIB: 1 (2.4%), IIIC: 1 (2.4%), and IV: 1 (2.4%). Twenty-nine patients received no postoperative treatment, 2 received chemotherapy, 3 received Megace, and 9 received radiation therapy. Patients were followed-up for 7-56 months (median: 28). Two patients had tumor recurrence, and one patient died secondary to her disease. Two other patients died secondary to other causes.",
"yes. This study showed that the conditioned medium of the HS-MSCs exerted a suppressive effect on tumor progression and malignancy, suggesting that hyperthermia enables tumor stromal cells to provide a sensitizing environment for tumor cells to undergo cell death.",
"yes. We have demonstrated that there is a significantly higher rate of tumor cell proliferation with the mouse mammary carcinoma cell tumor line after laparotomy than after pneumoperitoneum or anesthesia alone at two postoperative times. Additionally, insufflation alone increases postoperative tumor cell proliferation but to a lesser extent than laparotomy. The mechanism underlying these findings is unclear.",
"yes. In patients with endometrial carcinoma who did not receive radiotherapy or chemotherapy before surgery, the presence of decreased levels of pRb2/p130 in tumor cells is associated with a significantly increased risk of recurrence and death of disease, independent of tumor stage and ploidy status.",
"Our purpose was to find out whether percutaneous biopsy of hepatocellular carcinoma will cause significant dissemination of tumor into the circulation by quantitative analysis of circulating tumor DNA. In this prospective study of 32 patients with suspected hepatocellular carcinoma who underwent sonographically guided liver biopsy, a peripheral venous blood sample was obtained before and 5 min after the procedure. Biopsy was performed using an 18-gauge biopsy gun. DNA was extracted from the plasma of the blood samples for methylation-specific polymerase chain reaction. Quantitative measures of the plasma tumor DNA were determined with real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction, and the amount was expressed as a methylation index (%) in plasma. Nineteen (59.4%) of 32 patients did not have detectable p16 tumor suppressor gene marker (p16M) in plasma before biopsy, and they showed no detectable plasma p16M after biopsy. Thirteen (65%) of 20 patients had p16M identified in the plasma before liver biopsy. Quantitative analysis of the plasma tumor DNA in these 13 patients showed no statistically significant difference in the methylation index before and after biopsy (p = 0.345, Wilcoxon's signed rank test).",
"yes. Loss of E-cadherin and gain of vimentin may be associated with enhanced migration of tumour cells, leading to higher metastatic risk of HNSCC patients.",
"yes. Our data provide evidence that the higher incidence of thyroid cancer in women is potentially attributed to the presence of a functional ER that participates in cellular processes contributing to enhanced mitogenic, migratory, and invasive properties of thyroid cells. These findings will enable and foster the possible development of antiestrogenic therapy targeting invasion and migration, thus affecting metastatic propensity.",
"yes. To improve the curability of signet ring cell early gastric cancer with endoscopic submucosal dissection, larger tumours (especially tumour with a size ≥20mm) should be resected with a larger margin.",
"yes. These results suggested that tumor-produced COX-2, which was associated with inhibiting apoptosis and promoting angiogenesis, provided additional prognostic information in endometrial cancer patients.",
"yes. Non-diploid curettage is significantly associated with aggressive clinicopathological phenotype, lymph node metastasis, and poor survival in endometrial cancer. The prognostic effect was also observed among subgroups with (presumably) less aggressive traits, such as low FIGO stage and negative lymph node status. Our results indicate curettage DNA ploidy as a possible supplement to existing parameters used to tailor surgical treatment.",
"yes. Surgery mobilizes tumor cells into the pulmonary vein, along with many normal epithelial cells. EpCAM alone cannot differentiate between normal and tumor cells. On the other hand, single-cell genetic approaches with patient-matched normal and tumor tissues can accurately quantify the number of shed tumor cells.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the prognostic significance of the intratumor stromal proportion in gastric signet ring cell (SRC) carcinomas. Cancer stroma, as exemplified by cancer-associated fibroblasts (CAFs), plays critical roles in cancer proliferation, invasion, and metastasis. One hundred seventy-five SRC carcinoma cases were classified according to the intratumor desmoplastic stromal proportion to then analyze the clinicopathologic characteristics of stroma-rich cases. We also investigated the impact of CAFs on the migration as well as on the phenotypic changes of gastric SRC carcinomas in vitro. Furthermore, we performed RNA sequencing of a pair of CAFs and normal-tissue-associated fibroblasts. Stroma-rich SRC carcinomas (64 of 175 cases, 36.5%) were associated with female patients (P = 0.045), large tumor size (P = 0.007), higher T category (P < 0.001), and the presence of perineural invasion (P = 0.018). Patients with stroma-rich SRC carcinomas had a significantly shorter disease-free survival (P < 0.001) and overall survival (P < 0.001). However, in a subgroup analysis, the prognostic significance of the stromal proportion correlated only with patients with T3/4 disease. From multivariate analysis, the high stromal proportion is an independent prognostic factor to predict worse disease-free survival (hazard ratio 2.288; P = 0.001) and overall survival (hazard ratio 2.503; P = 0.001). We found that CAFs enhanced the migratory abilities of cancer cells through the epithelial-mesenchymal transition, and RNA sequencing results confirmed these findings.",
"yes. Both estradiol and tamoxifen enhance stromal cell invasion, but the greater depth of invasion of adenomyotic stromal cells and the enhancing effect of adenomyotic muscle were maintained under all experimental conditions, suggesting an inherent predisposition in affected women.",
"yes. Our findings indicate that maintenance of cell-cell communication is necessary to facilitate a cascade of events that lead to tumor cell migration through the lymphatic endothelium.",
"To analyze the impact of tumor size (TS) on risk of lymph node metastasis (PLN) and prognosis in endometrioid endometrial cancer grossly confined to the uterus (EEC). Patients with EEC grossly confined to the uterus were identified from Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results dataset from 1988 to 2007. Only surgically treated patients were included. TS was analyzed as a continuous and categorical variable (TS ≤ 2 cm, >2-5 cm and >5 cm). Multivariable logistic regression and Cox proportional hazards models were used. 19,692 patients met the inclusion criteria. In patients with TS ≤ 2 cm, only 2.7 % (88/3,244) had PLN; this increased to 5.8 % (372/6,355) with TS > 2-5 cm and 11.1 % (195/1,745) with TS > 5 cm. The odds of PLN increased by 14 % for each 1 cm increase in TS after controlling for age, race, depth of myometrial invasion and grade (HR 1.14, 95 % CI 1.10-1.19, p < 0.001). Further, TS was an independent predictor of disease-specific survival (DSS) even after adjusting for age, race, grade, depth of myometrial invasion, lymph node status and adjuvant radiation therapy (HR 1.13 for each 1 cm increment in TS, 95 % 1.08-1.18, p < 0.001). In multivariable analysis, larger TS (>5 cm) was significantly associated with worse DSS (HR 2.09, 95 % 1.31-3.35, p = 0.002); however, there was no significant difference between TS > 2-5 cm versus ≤2 cm (HR 1.25, 95 % 0.85-1.83, p = 0.25). The impact of TS remained significant on DSS in subset of patients who underwent lymphadenectomy with negative lymph nodes.",
"The addition of 4 % O2 and 10 % N2O to the CO2 pneumoperitoneum (PP), together with slight cooling and humidification (conditioning), contributes to reducing adhesions by preventing mesothelial damage. We investigated the effect of peritoneal damage during laparoscopy on tumor implantation. In Experiment 1, different tumor cell concentrations were injected into control mice without PP and into mice with 60-min dry CO2PP (mesothelial damage). In Experiment 2, tumor cells were injected into control mice (group I) and in mice with mesothelial damage (group II). In groups III to VI, mesothelial damage was decreased by adding humidification, humidification + 10 % N2O, humidification + 10 % N2O + 4 % O2, and conditioning, respectively. In Experiment 1, the tumors increased with the number of cells injected and with mesothelial damage in the abdominal cavity (p = 0.018) and abdominal wall (p < 0.0001). Experiment 2 confirmed that 60 min of dry CO2PP increased the number of tumors in the abdominal cavity and wall (p = 0.026 and p = 0.003, respectively). The number of tumors was decreased in the abdominal cavity by conditioning (p = 0.030) and in the abdominal wall using humidified CO2 (p = 0.032) or conditioning (p = 0.026).",
"Laparoscopy is important in staging pancreatic cancer, but false negatives remain problematic. Making tumors fluorescent has the potential to improve the accuracy of staging laparoscopy. Orthotopic and carcinomatosis models of pancreatic cancer were established with BxPC-3 human pancreatic cancer cells in nude mice. Alexa488-antiCEA conjugates were injected via tail vein 24 hours prior to laparoscopy. Mice were examined under bright field laparoscopic (BL) and fluorescence laparoscopic (FL) modes. Outcomes measured included time to identification of primary tumor for the orthotopic model and number of metastases identified within 2 minutes for the carcinomatosis model. FL enabled more rapid and accurate identification and localization of primary tumors and metastases than BL. Using BL took statistically significantly longer time than FL (p<0.0001, fold change and 95% CI for BL vs. FL: 8.12 (4.54,14.52)). More metastatic lesions were detected and localized under FL compared to BL and with greater accuracy, with sensitivities of 96% vs. 40%, respectively, when compared to control. FL was sensitive enough to detect metastatic lesions <1mm.",
"The aim of this prospective randomized study was to evaluate the role of carbon dioxide (CO2) and normal saline for diagnostic accuracy in out-patient hysteroscopy. Women admitted to our Department in order to undergo total abdominal hysterectomy also underwent diagnostic hysteroscopy, 12-24 h prior to surgery. The selection of distending medium was made after randomization. Two groups of patients were formed, group A (CO2; n=39) and group B (normal saline; n=35). More than half of the women in the study population were post-menopausal. Post-hysteroscopy, all women were asked to rank any symptom that they felt during the procedure on a 4-point scale (0=none; 1=mild; 2=severe; 3=inability to perform hysteroscopy). The hysteroscopic diagnosis was compared with the macroscopic findings and the histological examination of the surgical specimen after hysterectomy. The percentage who completed hysteroscopy was 89.74% within group A and 97.14% within group B. Most patients of both groups felt some pain of mild intensity. The diagnostic accuracy of hysteroscopy was similar for both media when major pathology [large polyps (group A 91.7%; group B 92.7%), myomas (group A 81.25%; group B 92.7%) and/or hyperplasia (group A 87.5%; group B 90.2%)] of the endometrial cavity was detected. In contrast, in cases of minor pathology (small polyps, mucosal elevations, crypts, hypervascularization), hysteroscopy with saline presented with significantly higher diagnostic accuracy (85.4%) compared with hysteroscopy with CO2 (64.6%).",
"yes. our results support the hypothesis that, in this subset of patients, local recurrences favor further dissemination of cancer cells. We are unable to clearly identify a group who would benefit from more aggressive local therapy.",
"Hysteroscopic resection is a safe and efficient operative technique, which is suitable for management of larger trophoblastic tissue left after delivery or abortion.",
"yes. We conclude that hormones promote development of multi-organ macrometastases in luminal disease. The metastases display a disturbing heterogeneity, containing newly emergent ER(-)PR(-) subpopulations that would be resistant to endocrine therapy and chemotherapy. Similar cells are found in luminal metastases of patients. Furthermore, lack of hormones is not protective. While no overt metastases form in ovx'd mice, luminal tumor cells can seed distant organs, where they remain dormant as micrometastases and sheltered from therapies but arousable by hormone repletion. This has implications for breast cancer survivors or women with occult disease who are prescribed hormones for contraception or replacement purposes.",
"yes. Reduction by glycodelin transfection of carcinoma cell proliferation and expression of MUC1 and Bcl-XL is significant because these genes are often overexpressed in human cancers--MUC1 is linked to invasive growth and metastases, and both confer resistance to chemotherapy. These results suggest a novel mechanism whereby malignant growth of endometrial adenocarcinoma cells is regulated.",
"yes. The presence of endometrial micropolyps at fluid hysteroscopy is significantly associated with endometrial inflammation and can be considered a reliable diagnostic sign for this pathology.",
"BACKGROUND AND OBJECTIVES; Intraperitoneal dissemination of pancreatic cancer is associated with a poor prognosis. Surgical resection does not prolong survival. Here we describe a novel approach to this difficult clinical problem consisting of intraperitoneal delivery of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) vector (hrR3) to mice with peritoneal dissemination of the pancreatic cancer cells. The human pancreatic cancer cell line (SW1990) was implanted into the abdominal cavity of nude mice. Fifteen days later, the abdominal neoplasm was treated by intraperitoneal injection of the replication-conditional HSV vector (hrR3). The mutant lacks the ribonucleotide reductase gene, but contains an intact HSV-tk gene. Beginning 5 days after vector injection, mice were treated with a 14-day course of ganciclovir. Long-term survival (150 days) was seen in 70% of mice receiving hrR3 and ganciclovir, 40% of mice receiving hrR3 alone, and 0% of untreated mice. No vector-related mortality was observed. X-Gal tissue staining revealed blue-stained cells only in tumor nodules, not in normal organs.",
"yes. We demonstrate the utility of our mouse model to analyze factors influencing tumor cell dissemination and metastasis. We suggest that the different metastatic capacity of G-2 and H8N8 cells is due to their different degrees of epithelial-mesenchymal plasticity (EMP), and thus the ability of the respective disseminated cells to revert from a \"mesenchymal\" to an \"epithelial\" differentiation state.",
"It has been suggested that WT-1 is helpful in distinguishing a primary ovarian serous carcinoma (OSC) from a primary uterine serous carcinoma (USC). Since both neoplasms are often disseminated at diagnosis and since USC often spreads to the ovary and vice versa, it may be difficult to ascertain the primary site. This is important, since adjuvant therapies for OSC and USC may differ. WT-1 staining patterns also differ between OSC and ovarian endometrioid carcinoma and so it is possible that WT-1 may assist in the distinction of these two neoplasms, which is sometimes problematic, especially with poorly differentiated tumours. This study aims to document the value of WT-1 in these settings. Cases of ovarian borderline serous tumour, primary peritoneal serous carcinoma (PPSC) and uterine endometrioid carcinoma were also studied. Cases of OSC (n = 38), USC (n = 25) (in five of these cases there was also a component of endometrioid adenocarcinoma), ovarian endometrioid carcinoma (n = 13), uterine endometrioid carcinoma (n = 7), ovarian borderline serous tumour (n = 16) and PPSC (n = 6) were stained with WT-1. Cases were scored on a scale of 0-3, depending on the percentage of positive cells. The intensity of staining was scored as weak, moderate or strong. There was positive nuclear staining of 36 of 38 (94.7%) OSC with WT-1. In most OSC (68.4%), >50% of cells stained positively and staining was usually strong. Five of 25 (20%) USC were positive with only two cases exhibiting staining of >50% of cells. All primary ovarian and uterine endometrioid carcinomas were negative. All PPSC were positive, usually with diffuse strong immunoreactivity. Fourteen of 16 borderline serous tumours exhibited positivity with WT-1.",
"Based on conventional tumor staging, primary ovarian cancer is viewed as an intraperitoneal disease that rarely spreads to extraperitoneal organs. However, autopsy studies reveal a much higher rate of occult metastasis, indicating that extraperitoneal spread occurs with much greater frequency than previously appreciated. Consequently, we investigated the incidence of early hematogenous dissemination and its association with distant disease-free and overall survival. Bone marrow aspirates from 108 patients newly diagnosed with International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics stage I to III ovarian cancer were prospectively analyzed with the novel anti-cytokeratin (CK) antibody A45-B/B3. We investigated the frequency of CK-positive tumor cells in bone marrow and their effect on prognosis in relation to established risk factors for tumor progression. Tumor cells in bone marrow were detected in 32 (30%) of 108 patients. A CK-positive finding was unrelated to established risk parameters, except for poor nuclear grading of the primary tumor. At a median follow-up of 45 months (range, 12 to 77 months), the presence of occult metastatic cells in bone marrow was associated with the occurrence of clinically overt, extraperitoneal (predominantly extraskeletal) distant metastasis (relative risk [RR], 16.5; 95% confidence interval [CI], 6.2 to 56.9; P < .0001) and death from cancer-related causes (RR, 2.3; 95% CI, 1.2 to 4.3; P = .01). Multivariate analysis identified a positive bone marrow finding as an independent prognostic factor of reduced distant disease-free survival for all patients (RR, 13.8; 95% CI, 5.4 to 52.9; P < .0001) and for the 64 stage R0-1 patients (RR, 7.3; 95% CI, 1.5 to 56.8; P = .0021).",
"yes. Sentinel lymph node mapping with pathologic ultrastaging in endometrial carcinoma detects additional low-volume metastases (4.5%) that would otherwise go undetected with routine evaluations. Our data support the incorporation of pathologic ultrastaging of SLNs in endometrial carcinoma with any degree of myoinvasion. The oncologic significance of low-volume nodal metastases requires long-term follow-up.",
"Endometrial scratching during diagnostic hysteroscopy seems to enhance implantation and as well pregnancy rates in comparison to diagnostic hysteroscopy alone.",
"More than 60% of patients who are diagnosed with epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) present with extensive peritoneal carcinomatosis. EOC cells typically disseminate by shedding into the peritoneal fluid in which they survive as multicellular aggregates and then implant onto peritoneal surfaces. However, the mechanism that facilitates aggregation and implantation of EOC cells is poorly understood. The cell adhesion molecule P-cadherin has been reported to be induced during early progression of EOC and to promote tumor cell migration. In this study, P-cadherin not only promoted migration of EOC cells, but also facilitated the assembly of floating EOC cells into multicellular aggregates and inhibited anoikis in vitro. Furthermore, inhibiting P-cadherin by short hairpin RNAs (shRNA) or a neutralizing antibody prevented EOC cells from attaching to peritoneal mesothelial cells in vitro. In mouse intraperitoneal xenograft models of EOC, inhibition of P-cadherin decreased the aggregation and survival of floating tumor cells in ascites and reduced the number of tumor implants on peritoneal surfaces. These findings indicate that P-cadherin promotes intraperitoneal dissemination of EOC by facilitating tumor cell aggregation and tumor-peritoneum interactions in addition to promoting tumor cell migration.",
"yes. Sodium hyaluronate enhances tumour metastatic potential in vitro and in vivo, which suggests that use of sodium hyaluronate to prevent adhesions in colorectal cancer surgery may also potentiate intraperitoneal tumour growth. Presented to the Patey Prize Session of the Surgical Research Society and the annual scientific meeting of the Association of Surgeons of Great Britain and Ireland, Brighton, UK, 4-7 May 1999",
"yes. Interactions of tumour cells with peritoneal selectins play an important role in the peritoneal spread of pancreatic adenocarcinoma.",
"To determine the prevalence of focally growing lesions in the uterine cavity in women with postmenopausal bleeding and endometrium > or = 5 mm and the extent to which such lesions can be correctly diagnosed by D&C. In a prospective study, 105 women with postmenopausal bleeding and endometrium > or = 5 mm at transvaginal ultrasound examination underwent diagnostic hysteroscopy, D&C and hysteroscopic resection of any focally growing lesion still left in the uterine cavity after D&C. Twenty-four women also underwent hysterectomy. If the histological diagnosis differed between specimens from the same patient, the most relevant diagnosis was considered the final one. Eighty percent (84/105) of the women had pathology in the uterine cavity, and 98% (82/84) of the pathological lesions manifested a focal growth pattern at hysteroscopy. In 87% of the women with focal lesions in the uterine cavity, the whole or parts of the lesion remained in situ after D&C. D&C missed 58% (25/43) of polyps, 50% (5/10) of hyperplasias, 60% (3/5) of complex atypical hyperplasias, and 11% (2/19) of endometrial cancers. The agreement between the D&C diagnosis and the final diagnosis was excellent (94%) in women without focally growing lesions at hysteroscopy.",
"Although its use has increased progressively in the last decade, the dissemination of laparoscopy for renal cell carcinoma has been generally slow and limited in scope. The next step in this body of work is to identify specific technical, educational and policy interventions that will influence the diffusion of this alternative standard of care.",
"yes. Using a cervical injection for mapping, metastatic cells from endometrial cancer are three times as likely to be detected in SLN than in the non-sentinel nodes. This finding strongly supports the concept of lymphatic mapping in endometrial cancer to fine tune the nodal dissection topography. By adding SLN mapping to our current surgical staging procedures we may increase the likelihood of detecting metastatic cancer cells in regional lymph nodes. An additional benefit of incorporating pathologic ultrastaging of SLN is the detection of micrometastasis, which may be the only evidence of extrauterine spread.",
"After the seeding ovarian cancer cells into the peritoneal cavity, ascitic fluid creates a microenvironment in which these cells can survive and disseminate. The exact nature of the interactions between malignant ascitic fluids and peritoneal mesothelial cells (HPMCs) in ovarian cancer progression has so far remained elusive. Here we assessed whether malignant ascitic fluids may promote the senescence of HPMCs and, by doing so, enhance the acquisition of their pro-cancerogenic phenotype. Primary omentum-derived HPMCs, ovarian cancer-derived cell lines (A2780, OVCAR-3, SKOV-3), malignant ascitic fluids and benign ascitic fluids from non-cancerous patients were used in this study. Ovarian cancer cell proliferation, as well as HPMC proliferation and senescence, were determined using flow cytometry and β-galactosidase assays, respectively. Ovarian cancer cell migration was quantified using a Transwell assay. The concentrations of soluble agents in ascitic fluids, conditioned media and cell lysates were measured using DuoSet® Immunoassay Development kits. We found that HPMCs, when exposed to malignant ascitic fluids, exhibited decreased proliferation and increased senescence rates. The malignant ascitic fluids were found to contain elevated levels of HGF, TGF-β1 and GRO-1, of which HGF and GRO-1 were able to induce senescence in HPMCs. We also found that HPMCs subjected to malignant ascitic fluids or exogenously added HGF and GRO-1 stimulated ovarian cancer cell progression, which was manifested by an increased production of HA (adhesion), uPA (proliferation), IL-8 and MCP-1 (migration).",
"yes. Intraoperative molecular detection of circulating tumor cells in patients with biliary-pancreatic cancer relates to a high risk of hematogenous metastasis and is associated with unfavorable prognosis even after curative resection.",
"yes. FISH technique detects free cancer cells with higher sensitivity compared to Papanicolaou's method. p53 deletion detected in peritoneal drainage fluid is correlated with positive radial resection margin and results in early peritoneal seeding. Patients with p53 deletion in peritoneal drainage fluid need more aggressive adjuvant treatment.",
"yes. These results demonstrated for the first time that the hypoxia-inducible factor 1α/TWIST/E-cadherin pathway may play a critical role in invasion and metastasis of endometrioid endometrial carcinoma. The combined evaluation of these markers may be useful in predicting aggressive phenotypes and thus prognosis in patients with endometrioid endometrial carcinoma.",
"yes. Small subpopulations of PCa cells bearing BRCA1 losses might be one confounding factor initiating tumor dissemination and might provide an early indicator of shortened disease-free survival.",
"yes. Laparoscopy decreased EPC levels in both bone marrow and circulation, resulting in decreased tumor endothelial cell burden. This may represent a novel mechanism by which laparoscopy protects against the oncologic adverse effects of open surgical tumor excision.",
"To investigate the value of neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NACT), followed by interval debulking surgery (IDS), in endometrial cancer with transperitoneal spread (stage IV). Patients with endometrial cancer with transperitoneal spread, as determined by laparoscopy (+/-pleural effusion), were treated with NACT. Efficacy was determined according to the Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors, residual tumour at IDS and histopathological assessment of tumour regression. A total of 30 patients (median age: 65 years; range:44-81 years) received 3-4 cycles of NACT (83% paclitaxel/carboplatin). Histopathological subtypes were as follows: serous (90%), clear cell (3%) and endometrioid (6%) carcinoma. Response according to RECIST was as follows: 2 (7%) complete remission, 20 (67%) partial remission, 6 (20%) stable disease and 2 (7%) progressive disease (PD). Patients with PD were not operated upon. A total of 24 patients (80%) had optimal cytoreduction (R<or=1 cm), of whom 22 (92%) were without residual tumour. Four patients were considered inoperable and were excluded from further analysis. The median progression-free survival and overall survival times were 13 and 23 months, respectively.Histopathological features of chemoresponse in both uterus and omentum were related to a better PFS (P=0.017, hazard ratio (HR) =0.785) and overall survival (P=0.014, HR=0.707). In particular, the absence of tumour infiltration and necrosis were associated with prognosis.",
"yes. These findings indicate that HOXA9 contributes to poor outcomes in EOC in part by promoting intraperitoneal dissemination via its induction of P-cadherin.",
"Animal experiments have shown that carbon dioxide (CO(2)) laparoscopy results in more port-site recurrences than gasless laparoscopy. Possible transport of aerosolized tumor cells by CO(2) was investigated in rats. Abdominal cavities of 15 pairs of Wistar Agouti (WAG) rats were connected and 2 x 10(6) or 16 x 10(6) CC 531 cells were injected in the first (donor) rat of each pair. Then 10 l of CO(2) were allowed to flow from the first (donor) to the second (recipient) rat. No tumor was found in the recipients after injection of 2 x 10(6) cells in the donors. Injection of 16 x 10(6) cells in the donors resulted in very limited tumor growth in the recipients.",
"yes. Changes in practice, such as obtaining dedicated passes for ancillary studies, may not be enough to improve the theranostic utility of endoscopic ultrasound-guided fine-needle aspiration in pancreatic neoplasia. Other methods to improve tumor cell yield, including modified cytologic techniques and new needle designs, need to be further investigated.",
"Narrow-band imaging hysteroscopy can accurately predict a histologic diagnosis of endometrial cancer or hyperplasia.",
"No evidence exists that percutaneous liver biopsy results in hematogenous dissemination of hepatocellular carcinoma as shown by quantitative analysis of circulating tumor DNA (p16M) using methylation-specific real-time polymerase chain reaction.",
"yes. The results of this study suggest a suppressive effect of helium pneumoperitoneum on postoperative tumor growth and metastatic spread. Furthermore, tumor exposure to room air appears to have a stimulative influence on tumor recurrence and metastasis compared to a pneumoperitoneum established with CO2.",
"yes. Our results suggest that RHAMM expression may enhance and improve the invasion and metastasis of endometrial carcinomas.",
"To evaluate the potential benefit of cytology of the peritoneal lavage obtained during diagnostic laparoscopy for staging gastrointestinal (GI) malignancies. Peritoneal lavage is a simple procedure that can be performed during laparotomy for GI tumors. Tumor cells in the lavage fluid are thought to indicate intraperitoneal tumor seeding and to have a negative effect on survival. For this reason, peritoneal lavage is frequently added to diagnostic laparoscopy for staging GI malignancies. Patients who underwent peritoneal lavage during laparoscopic staging for GI malignancies between June 1992 and September 1997 were included. Lavage fluids were stained using Giemsa and Papanicolaou methods. Cytology results were correlated with the presence of metastases and tumor ingrowth found during laparoscopy and with survival. Cytology of peritoneal lavage was performed in 449 patients. Tumor cells were found in 28 patients (6%): 8/87 with an esophageal tumor, 2/32 with liver metastases, 11/72 with a proximal bile duct tumor, 7/236 with a periampullary tumor, and none in 7 and 15 patients with a primary liver tumor or pancreatic body or tail tumor, respectively. In 19 of the 28 patients (68%) in whom tumor cells were found, metastatic disease was detected during laparoscopy, and 3 of the 28 patients had a false-positive (n = 1) or a misleading positive (n = 2) lavage result. Therefore, lavage was beneficial in only 6/449 patients (1.3%); in these patients, the lavage result changed the assessment of tumor stage and adequately predicted irresectable disease. Univariate analysis showed a significant survival difference between patients in whom lavage detected tumor cells and those in whom it did not, but multivariate analysis revealed that these survival differences were caused by metastatic or ingrowing disease.",
"Endothelial progenitor cells (EPCs) derived from bone marrow incorporate into foci of neovascularization to propagate tumor growth. These cells are mobilized in response to surgical injury. Laparoscopic surgery may protect against the oncologic adverse effects of open surgical tumor excision, and this may be related to attenuated mobilization of EPCs. For this study, 132 C57BL/6 mice were randomized to standardized laparotomy, laparoscopy, or control groups. The animals were killed at 6, 24, 48, and 72 h. Femur bone marrow and peripheral blood were harvested. Bone marrow EPCs were detected by flow cytometric dual staining for the stem cell antigen-1/cKit phenotype. Circulating EPCs were characterized in blood by vascular endothelial growth factor receptor 2 positive/macrophage activating complement-1 negative staining. Separately, 12 C57/bl6 mice bearing 3LL Lewis lung tumors 12 days after laparotomy or laparoscopy had their tumors excised and examined for endothelial cell expression (marker P1H12). Laparoscopy decreased circulating EPCs and bone-marrow EPC levels, as compared with laparotomy, at all time points. Bone marrow EPC levels were 2.95% +/- 0.32% after laparotomy, as compared with 0.65 +/- 0.21 in the laparoscopy group (p < 0.05). The circulating EPC level in the laparotomy group was 35.2% +/- 6% of cells, as compared with 3.1% +/- 0.2% in the laparoscopy group (p < 0.05). In homogenized tumors, the percentage of P1H12 expression among laparoscopy-treated animals was 22.1% +/- 4.2%, as compared with 39% +/- 8% in the laparotomy group (p < 0.05).",
"yes. Our data suggest that, for the endometrial cancer cell line RL95-2, GPR30 plays important roles in mediating the proliferative and invasive effects of estrogen and in tumorigenesis.",
"yes. The active homing of MSCs into primary pancreatic tumor stroma and activation of the CCL5 promoter was verified using eGFP- and RFP-reporter genes. In the presence of ganciclovir, HSV-Tk transfected MSCs led to a significant reduction of primary pancreatic tumor growth and incidence of metastases.",
"The aim of this study was to estimate the rate of intrauterine adhesions and subsequent pregnancy outcome in patients with residual trophoblastic tissue treated with hysteroscopic resection versus ultrasound-guided dilation and evacuation (D&E). Cohort study from 2 centers (Canadian Task Force classification II-2). Two surgical teams at the University of Duesseldorf Medical Center and the PAN Clinic in Cologne, Germany. Women with residual trophoblastic tissue after first- or second-trimester miscarriage or term delivery. Two techniques were used for the removal of residual trophoblastic tissue: ultrasound-guided evacuation with a curette (D&E) and hysteroscopic resection of trophoblastic tissue (HR). We evaluated 95 patients who underwent secondary intervention for residual trophoblastic disease. A total of 42 patients underwent dilation of the cervix and ultrasound-guided curettage. In a second series of 53 patients, a resectoscope fitted with a 4-mm cutting loop was used for the removal of residual trophoblastic tissue used without application of current. Three months after the intervention, second-look office hysteroscopy was performed. Differences between both treatment groups were statistically significant. After HR, mild intrauterine adhesions were found in 2 patients (4.2%). After D&E, 12 patients (30.8%) presented with intrauterine adhesions (mild intrauterine adhesions: n = 7 [17.9%]; single dense adhesions: n = 3 [7.7%]; and extensive endometrial fibrosis n = 1 [2.6%]). Eighty-two patients wanted to become pregnant. Conception rate of all patients examined was 68.8% (HR) and 59.9% (D&E) (p < .05). In patients younger than 35 years of age who underwent HR, the pregnancy rate was significantly (p < .05) increased compared with patients who underwent D&E (78.1% vs 66.6%). In addition, patients from the HR group demonstrated a significantly (p < .05) shorter time to conception (11.5 month vs 14.5 month).",
"Uterine manipulators are a useful adjunct for robotic-assisted radical hysterectomy (RARH), but some surgeons avoid their use for fear of altering pathology or interpretation of lymphovascular space involvement (LVSI). We retrospectively compared clinico-pathological data and tumor pathology from patients with cervical cancer operated by laparotomy vs. RARH. Charts from cervical cancer patients who underwent radical hysterectomy from January-1997 to June-2010 were reviewed for tumor histology, grade, FIGO stage, lymph node status, LVSI, depth of invasion, and tumor size. A ConMed V-Care® uterine manipulator was used in all robotic cases. H&E stained slides from 20 robotic and 24 open stage IB1 cases with LVSI reported in the original pathology were re-reviewed by a blinded pathologist for analysis of tissue artifacts and LVSI. Two-hundred-thirty-six cases (185 open, 51 robotic) with stages IA2, IB1 and IB2 cervical cancer were reviewed. No significant differences in histology (squamous cell carcinoma, 65% vs. 51%; p=0.1), IB1 lesion size (≤2 cm, 62% vs. 61%, p>0.1), LVSI (34% vs. 39%, p>0.1), and depth of stromal invasion (p>0.1) was found between open and robotic groups. Histologic examination of all IB1 cervical carcinomas revealed a higher degree of surface disruption [45% (9/20) vs. 12.6% (3/24), p=0.038] and artifactual \"parametrial carryover\" [65% (13/20) vs. 29% (7/24), p=0.037]in robotic vs. open groups, respectively, but no significant differences in the rate of LVSI.",
"yes. A previously placed guidewire facilitates insertion of biopsy forceps and endoscopic biliary drainage. The histological diagnosis of cancer is more likely with bile duct cancer than with pancreatic cancer.",
"yes. The combination of EBUS-TBNA and MAGE-quantitative polymerase chain reaction increases the accuracy of tumor cell detection to the level seen with mediastinoscopy.",
"Parametrial spread of endometrial carcinoma, including the histopathological pattern of the spread and its significance as a prognostic factor, as well as its correlation with other prognostic factors are not well understood. We reviewed histopathologically the resected parametria from 269 patients with endometrial carcinoma who underwent radical or modified radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy. The relationship between parametrial spread and other histopathological features, including histological type, tumor grade, depth of myometrial invasion, lymph vascular space invasion (LVSI) of the myometrium, cervical invasion, adnexal metastasis, lymph node metastasis and peritoneal cytology was studied. Clinical outcomes of the patients with parametrial spread were also evaluated. Parametrial spread was demonstrated in 16 patients (5.9%). Direct invasion of cancer cells to connective tissue, LVSI and lymph-node metastasis in the parametrium were seen in 13, seven and three cases, respectively. Three patients had all three spread patterns. According to the FIGO surgical stage, parametrial spread was found in none of the 164 patients in Stage I, two (6.3%) of 32 in Stage II, 12 (16.9%) of 71 in Stage III, and two (100%) of two in Stage IV. The presence of parametrial involvement was significantly correlated with depth of myometrial invasion, cervical involvement, lymph-node metastasis, adnexal metastasis. LVSI in the myometrium and peritoneal cytology (each, p < 0.01). With a median follow-up of 68.3 months, six (37.5%) of 16 patients with parametrial involvement developed recurrence and died.",
"yes. Our results suggest that enhanced expression of alpha2beta1 integrin may influence spheroid disaggregation and proteolysis responsible for the peritoneal dissemination of ovarian carcinoma. This may indicate a new therapeutic target for the suppression of the peritoneal metastasis associated with advanced ovarian carcinomas.",
"yes. Intraperitoneal TAMs in gastric cancer patients with peritoneal dissemination were polarized to the M2 phenotype, and could contribute to tumor proliferation and progression. Therefore, intraperitoneal TAMs are expected to be a promising target in the treatment of peritoneal dissemination in gastric cancer.",
"yes. Intraperitoneal delivery of hrR3 and ganciclovir improves survival in this murine model of peritoneal dissemination of pancreatic cancer. The ability of hrR3 to replicate only in rapidly dividing cells makes this virus an attractive vector for gene therapy of cancer.",
"Sensitivity improves with the observer's experience, but inter-observer agreement and reproducibility of hysteroscopy for endometrial malignancies are not satisfying no matter the level of expertise. Therefore, an accurate and complete endometrial sampling is still needed.",
"yes. The high rate of infiltration of T-lymphocytes was negatively correlated with histologic grade, myometrial invasion, and lymph node metastasis. Our findings suggest that tumor-infiltrating T-lymphocytes may be used as pathologic prognostic factors in endometrial carcinoma.",
"These findings suggest that leukocyte infiltration may trigger dissemination of tumor cells from their primary site, and that leukocyte aggregates may serve as a reservoir for disseminated tumor cells that may be physically dragged to distant sites by leukocytes during their migration.",
"no. Postoperative peritoneal dissemination of ovarian cancer cells is not promoted by a carbon-dioxide pneumoperitoneum with a low IPP in a mouse model with CRS when assessed on postoperative day 14.",
"yes. These results suggest that a IL-1β/β1-integrin axis plays a role in ovarian tumor cell adhesion to mesothelia, a crucial step in ovarian cancer dissemination.",
"yes. TGF-β1, TGF-β2 and TGF-β3 promote migration of NIH-OVCAR3 ovarian cancer cells independently of cell proliferation and without conversion to a complete EMT phenotype. Epithelial ovarian cancer commonly metastasis to the surrounding tissue or inside the peritoneum rather than invading blood vessels to set distance metastasis. Our result raises the question whether ovarian cancer primarily spread via collective migration than via single cell invasion.",
"In pancreatic cancer patients, markedly elevated CA 19-9 levels may serve as surrogate marker for peritoneal dissemination, irrespective of the local resectability of the tumor. In such patients, laparoscopy should be considered as an additional staging tool to rule out peritoneal carcinomatosis.",
"These data demonstrate that the presence of MM and ITCs in SLNs of endometrial cancer patients is not an artifact of uterine manipulation or instrumentation. Rather, it is a real pathologic finding likely associated with lymphovascular invasion and depth of myoinvasion.",
"To determine the effect of hysteroscopic surgery on the long-term clinical outcome of women diagnosed with endometrial cancer. Prospective cohort study (Canadian Task Force classification II-3). University-affiliated teaching hospital. From January 1990 through December 2005, the principal author (GAV) performed primary hysteroscopic surgery in 3401 women with abnormal uterine bleeding. Among these women, there were 16 occult and 3 known endometrial cancers. All women underwent hysteroscopic evaluation and partial (n = 8) or complete (n = 11) rollerball electrocoagulation and/or endomyometrial resection. After diagnosis of endometrial malignancy, women were counseled regarding their disease and management, in accordance with established clinical practice guidelines. Follow-up ranged from 1 to 14 years and was conducted by office visits and telephone interviews. Among the 3401 women, there were 19 women with endometrial adenocarcinoma, 3 of whom were known to harbor cancer before hysteroscopic surgery. One woman refused hysterectomy and remains alive and well 5 years after total hysteroscopic endomyometrial resection. Two women wished to maintain fertility; 1 consented to hysterectomy after incomplete resection of her lesion. The other was treated with progestins. Her cancer reverted to complex hyperplasia, and she requested hysterectomy 4 years later. No residual cancer was found. After 5 years of follow-up, 1 patient died from carcinoma of the gallbladder (2 years), and 2 died at 4 years; 1 at the age of 87 years of natural causes and the other at the age of 86 years from acute renal failure unrelated to her cancer. Fourteen women remain alive and well at 5 to 14 years of follow-up. Two additional women remain alive and well at 1 and 4 years of follow-up.",
"yes. The stepwise procedure using the expandable needle can reduce tumor cell scattering, which can cause intrahepatic metastasis, compared with other methods.",
"To determine if micrometastasis (MM) and isolated tumor cells (ITCs) in sentinel lymph nodes (SLNs) of endometrial cancer patients are artifactual and related to uterine manipulation at the time of diagnosis and surgery. We reviewed a prospectively maintained database of all patients with endometrial cancer undergoing SLN mapping between 2005 and 2009. MM was defined as a focus of metastatic cancer ranging from 0.2 to 2mm. ITCs were defined as metastasis measuring ≤ 0.2mm, including the presence of single, non-cohesive cytokeratin-positive tumor cells. We reviewed the effect of diagnostic procedure such as dilatation and curettage (D&C) versus biopsy and type of hysterectomy performed on the presence of MM and ITCs in SLNs. In all, 175 patients had successful SLN mapping. Of these, 145 (83%) had negative nodes, 11 (6%) had positive nodes, and 19 (11%) met the criteria for MM and ITC. The uterine procedure used to diagnose endometrial cancer, type of hysterectomy, tumor grade, histology, positive pelvic washings, and type of uterine manipulator utilized, did not appear to be associated with MM/ITC. However, the presence of lymphovascular invasion (P<0.001) and the depth of myometrial invasion (P = 0.01) were significantly higher in the MM/ITC group.",
"To estimate whether the use of narrow-band imaging (NBI) hysteroscopy increases concordance between visual identification and a histologic diagnosis of endometrial cancer and hyperplasia. Prospective study (Canadian Task Force classification: II-2). Department of obstetrics and gynecology, University of Eastern Piedmont, Novara, Italy. 209 consecutive patients with abnormal uterine bleeding. White-light hysteroscopy and NBI hysteroscopy followed by direct biopsy. The sensitivity and specificity of conventional hysteroscopy in predicting a diagnosis of cancer and hyperplasia were, respectively, 84.21% (95% confidence interval [CI], 79.27-89.15) and 99.47% (95% CI, 98.49-100.0), and 64.86% (95% CI, 58.39-71.34) and 98.77% (95% CI, 97.27-100.0), and of NBI hysteroscopy were 94.74% (95% CI, 91.71-97.76) and 97.89% (95% CI, 95.95-99.84), and 78.38% (95% CI, 72.8-83.96) and 97.67% (95% CI, 96.63-99.72). The concordance of conventional and NBI hysteroscopy with the histopathologic findings (measured using the Cohen kappa) was, respectively, 88.80% (95% CI, 86.2%-96.3%) and 91.78% (95% CI, 89.6%-98.2%), a difference of 2.98% (95% CI, 0-9) in favor of NBI.",
"Diagnostic hysteroscopy is a valuable diagnostic tool in diagnosing structural intra-cavital pathology, very suitable for the outpatient clinic. The value in diagnosing hyperplasia or endometrial carcinoma is limited and even after guided biopsy a malignancy cannot be ruled out.",
"yes. If there are focal lesions in the uterine cavity, hysteroscopy with endometrial resection is superior to D&C for obtaining a representative endometrial sample in women with postmenopausal bleeding and endometrium > or = 5 mm.",
"yes. These results indicate the invasive capacity of pancreatic tumor cells is augmented by laparoscopic staging in vitro. This is in part mediated by increased gelatinase activity and may be attenuated by the addition of specific inhibitors.",
"To investigate postoperative peritoneal dissemination of ovarian cancer cells in a syngenic mouse model with and without controlled respiratory support (CRS). Randomized controlled trial (Canadian Task Force classification I). Academic facility. Sixty-four female C57BJ6 mice. Mice were randomly divided into 4 surgical groups: anesthesia alone group; 2 carbon-dioxide pneumoperitoneum groups, 1 with low (2 mm Hg) and 1 with high (8 mm Hg) intraperitoneal pressure (IPP); and finally the laparotomy group. Each of the 4 groups was then subdivided into one group with CRS and the other without. Mouse ovarian cancer cells were injected intraperitoneally just before surgery. A laparotomy was performed to evaluate postoperative peritoneal dissemination of ovarian cancer cells on postoperative day 14. A computerized analysis system was then used to evaluate peritoneal dissemination. In the groups with CRS, the peritoneal dissemination score was significantly higher in the laparotomy and high IPP groups compared with anesthesia alone (p <.0001 vs laparotomy, p <.002 vs high IPP) and low IPP (p <.0002 vs laparotomy, p <.004 vs high IPP) groups. No significant difference was detected between the low IPP and anesthesia alone groups.",
"yes. Hysteroscopy, a safe and rapid direct visualisation of the uterine cavity, is superior to HSG in the identification of intrauterine pathology. In view of the low positive predictive value and the low specificity of the HSG, we believe it should be replaced by the diagnostic hysteroscopy as a first line infertility investigation.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that HGF stimulates the invasion of endometrial carcinoma cells in vitro. Since endometrial adenocarcinoma specimens express Met, these findings suggest that the HGF/Met pathway may play a role in the invasive progression of endometrial carcinoma.",
"yes. Our data signal that hematogenous dissemination of tumor cells occurs early and throughout all stages of ovarian cancer. The clinical significance of our findings is supported by the unfavorable prognosis in association with the presence of occult metastatic cells, especially in those patients who received an effective locoregional therapy.",
"yes. Exposure to the laparoscopic environment enhances the invasive capacity of colonic adenocarcinomas via a well-defined protease-determined pathway. It therefore appears likely that tumour cells released into the operative field can be made increasingly aggressive by a laparoscopic operative environment and can thus contribute to disease dissemination.",
"yes. This is the first study demonstrating that detection of hematogenous tumor cell dissemination during hepatic resection of colorectal cancer metastases predicts tumor relapse. Detection of disseminated tumor cells may help to individualize adjuvant therapy for patients with colorectal liver metastases and to develop surgical strategies to prevent intraoperative hematogenous tumor cell shedding.",
"yes. The p53 immunostaining of biopsy specimens obtained by means of percutaneous transhepatic cholangioscopy is helpful in determining tumor spread in bile duct carcinoma.",
"no. We conclude that uterine manipulation at the time of laparoscopic hysterectomy does not increase the incidence of positive peritoneal cytology among women with endometrial carcinoma.",
"Previous studies have shown that positive peritoneal washings may adversely affect cancer survival rates and that hysteroscopy is associated with a higher risk of positive washings in patients with endometrial carcinoma. Our aim was to assess if diagnostic hysteroscopy increases the risk of positive peritoneal washings in patients with endometrial cancer and affects the prognosis after surgery. Retrospective cohort study. The medical records of 50 consecutive patients with endometrial carcinoma, diagnosed with hysteroscopy and tissue sampling and treated by abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and peritoneal washings were reviewed. Of the 43 patients with endometrial carcinoma FIGO stage I, none had positive peritoneal washings (95%CI: 0-8.2%). The mean interval between hysteroscopy and surgery was 33.5 days. The 5-year disease-specific survival rate was 91.8%, the 5-year recurrence-free survival rate was 85.4%.",
"To determine whether fluid hysteroscopic directed biopsies, in patients with endometrial cancer upstages the tumor and worsens the prognosis. Between January 1996 and September 2001, a total of 62 consecutive patients with endometrial cancer, treated at our institution, were randomized 3:2 to have or not to have a fluid hysteroscopic biopsy just prior to surgery. A total of 38 patients underwent a hysteroscopy after the induction of anesthesia. All patients had pelvic washings performed, followed by a hysterectomy, bilateral salpingooforectomy and pelvic +/- para-aortic lymph node dissections. Only stages I and II endometrioid type tumors or stage IIIa, secondary to positive pelvic washings, were included in the study. Eight patients in the hysteroscopy group and four patients in the control group were excluded for various reasons. Patients received post-operative radiation therapy depending on the surgical-pathological risk factors. The median follow up was 34 months. Fisher's Exact Test was performed to compare differences between the hysteroscopic (n = 30) and the control (n = 20) groups. We found three patients (10%) with positive washings in the hysteroscopic group compared to one (5%) among the controls (P = 0.64), with a statistical power of<20%. If the differences would persist, we would need 588 patients in each arm to obtain a power of 80%, and reach definitive conclusions. The Odds Ratio (OR) of performing a hysteroscopy and upstaging the tumor in this study was: 2.1 95% CI (0.20-21.09). Prognostic variables were compared between both groups and no differences were observed. All patients but one (dead due to intercurrent disease), were alive and with no evidence of disease at the completion of the study.",
"The penetration of distention medium into the peritoneal cavity as well as directly into the bloodstream via injured endometrial vessels occurs in a great proportion of patients at hysteroscopy (HSC). This may cause potential risk of dissemination of the malignant cells of endometrial cancer patients. To evaluate the real risk of a poorer prognosis of these patients a prospective multicentric study was started in 1998. Two groups of patients with endometrial carcinoma have been compared. The diagnosis was made in the study group by HSC and targeted biopsy, while in the control group by classical D&C. At the end of the HSC procedure puncture of the cul de sac was performed and the fluid obtained was cytologically examined. In both groups peritoneal lavage was performed at the beginning of the subsequent operation and the collected fluid was again cytologically examined. In the first phase of the study the cytology findings in both groups were compared. In the second phase which is planned for the next five years. the results of follow-up of both groups of patients will be evaluated. The results were evaluated in 134 patients with HSC and in 61 patients with D&C. In the study group a positive finding of malignant cells from the cul de sac was found in four patients (5.3%), a suspect finding in eight patients (10.7%), and a negative finding in 63 patients (84%). In the remaining 59 patients with HSC no peritoneal fluid was obtained. In the fluid from lavage at the beginning of the operation in the same group of HSC patients, a positive finding of malignant cells was found in 12.1%, a suspect finding in 18.2%, and a negative finding in 69.7%. In the control group (after D&C) the fluid from lavage contained malignant cells in eight patients (13.6%), suspect cells in 12 patients (20.3%), and no malignant cells in 39 patients (66.1%). Both groups were comparable for clinical stages of disease.",
"In several case reports, distension and irrigation of the uterine cavity during fluid hysteroscopy was suspected to cause tumor cell dissemination into the abdominal cavity in patients with endometrial carcinoma. It was the aim of this study to compare the incidence of positive peritoneal cytology in patients who underwent dilatation and curettage (D&C) with or without previous hysteroscopy. The authors conducted a multicentric, retrospective cohort analysis. One hundred thirteen consecutive patients with endometrial carcinoma treated between 1996 and 1997 were included. Endometrial carcinoma had to be limited to the inner half or less than the inner half of the myometrium (pathologic Stage IA,B). Positive peritoneal cytology was obtained during staging laparotomy. Patients underwent D&C either with or without prior diagnostic fluid hysteroscopy. No selection or randomization was applied to the two groups. Positive peritoneal cytology, defined as malignant or suspicious, was considered the primary statistical endpoint. Peritoneal cytology was suspicious or positive in 10 of 113 patients (9%). The presence of suspicious or positive peritoneal cytology was associated with a history of hysteroscopy (P = 0.04) but not with myometrial invasion (P = 0.57), histologic subtype (P = 1.00) or grade (r = 0.16, P = 0.10), or the time between D&C and staging laparotomy (r = 0.04, P = 0.66).",
"Fluid hysteroscopy and directed biopsies may have a small risk of upstaging early endometrial cancers, but does not seem to influence prognosis.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the rate of transtubal dissemination of endometrial carcinoma cells by hysteroscopy and the functional viability of disseminated tumor cells by assessing cell adhesion in an in vitro model. We studied 24 uteri obtained at TAH+BSO in patients with endometrial carcinoma. Further inclusion criteria were negative peritoneal cytology, no involvement of the uterine serosa or extrauterine disease, and endometrial surface involvement>1 cm in diameter. In vitro fluid hysteroscopy was performed with a 5-mm single-flow rigid hysteroscope. A maximum of 150 ml saline was infused at a maximum pressure of 100 mm Hg for a maximum of 3 min. Fluid running off through the tubes was collected. The cell suspension was enriched by a density gradient centrifugation. The isolated cells had a mean viability of 90% as judged by trypan blue exclusion. Viable cells (5 x 10(4) per 2-cm(2) polyvinyl chloride well plate) were cultured with equal parts of Dulbecco's modified Eagle's minimal essential medium and Ham's F-12 for 24 h. The endpoint of the analysis was the adherence of tumor cells to the polyvinyl chloride well plate, which was taken as a proxy for functional cell viability. Cytological evaluation was performed separately by two cytologists blinded to the source and date of the smears. Transtubal fluid dissemination was seen in 20 of 24 (83%) uteri. Tumor cells were found in 17 specimens (71%). In 10 (42%) specimens the disseminated tumor cells were functionally viable.",
"Based on the limited extent of endometrial carcinoma in the current analysis, our data strongly suggest dissemination of endometrial carcinoma cells after fluid hysteroscopy. Determining whether a positive peritoneal cytology affects the prognoses of patients without further evidence of extrauterine disease will require longer follow-up.",
"Our model suggests that hysteroscopy can cause dissemination of malignant cells into the abdominal cavity from uteri containing endometrial carcinoma and that these cells can be functionally viable and adhere to a matrix."
] | 49 |
Sympathetic skin response in diabetic children: do diabetic children have diabetic neuropathy? | [
"Abnormal sympathetic skin response (SSR) has been reported in adult patients with diabetic neuropathy. In addition, other studies have revealed abnormal SSR in diabetic patients not having autonomic symptoms and autonomic dysfunctions. These findings have been only obtained from adult patients. There have been few reports on the autonomic functions in diabetic children. Accordingly, it is not clear whether the autonomic neuropathy occurs in diabetic children. The aim of the present study is to clear autonomic function in children with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus by SSR. The SSR was measured in 28 normal healthy children and in eight patients with IDDM not having symptoms of dysautonomia. The SSR was elicited using 10 stimuli on programmed Nihonkoden Neuropack Sigma model machine. Following a single electrical stimulation, four SSR were recorded in both the palms and the soles simultaneously. The SSR were simultaneously obtained in 100% of the two groups. The amplitudes in the palms and soles were not significantly different between the two groups. The mean and shortest latency in the soles were significantly longer in the IDDM group than in the control group (P<0.01). None of the measurements of SSR revealed correlation with duration of diabetes and onset of illness.",
"Diabetic neuropathy may not have occurred in young patients having shorter duration of illness. Conversely, assuming that prolonged latency is abnormal, it may even have occurred in them. Follow up on these patients with prolonged latencies would be required."
] | [
"Immunoreactive insulin has been shown to predict the development of parasympathetic autonomic neuropathy. It is possible that constituents of immunoreactive insulin could explain this association. In this cross-sectional study, the relationship of specific insulin, C-peptide, and proinsulin with autonomic nervous dysfunction was evaluated in 57 NIDDM patients and 108 control subjects. The frequency-domain analysis of heart rate variability was determined by using spectral analysis from stationary regions of registrations while the subjects breathed spontaneously in a supine position. Total power was divided into three frequency bands: low (0 to 0.07 Hz), medium (MFP, 0.07 to 0.15 Hz), and high (HFP, 0.15 Hz to 0.50 multiplied by the frequency equal to the mean RR interval). In NIDDM patients, total power, the three frequency bands (P<.001 for each), and the MFP/HFP ratio (P=.016), which expresses sympathovagal balance, were reduced compared with control subjects. Fasting proinsulin (r(s)=-.324, P=.014 for diabetics and r(s)=-.286, P=.003 for control subjects), C-peptide (r(s)=-.492, P<.001 for diabetics and r(s)=-.304, P=.001 for control subjects), and total immunoreactive insulin (r(s)=-.291, P=.028 for diabetics and r(s)=-.228, P=.017 for control subjects) were inversely related to MFP/HFP. For proinsulin and C-peptide the results did not change after controlling for the effects of age, body mass index, and fasting glucose.",
"Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) represents one of the earliest stages of glucose dysregulation and is associated with macrovascular disease, retinopathy, and microalbuminuria, but whether IGT causes neuropathy is unclear. Thirty-seven subjects with IGT and 20 age-matched control subjects underwent a comprehensive evaluation of neuropathy by assessing symptoms, neurological deficits, nerve conduction studies, quantitative sensory testing, heart rate variability deep breathing (HRVdb), skin biopsy, and corneal confocal microscopy (CCM). Subjects with IGT had a significantly increased neuropathy symptom profile (P < 0.001), McGill pain index (P < 0.001), neuropathy disability score (P = 0.001), vibration perception threshold (P = 0.002), warm threshold (P = 0.006), and cool threshold (P = 0.03), with a reduction in intraepidermal nerve fiber density (P = 0.03), corneal nerve fiber density (P < 0.001), corneal nerve branch density (P = 0.002), and corneal nerve fiber length (P = 0.05). No significant difference was found in sensory and motor nerve amplitude and conduction velocity or HRVdb.",
"There is evidence of altered central processing to visceral stimulation, and both peripheral and central mechanisms seem involved. Central neuronal reorganisation may contribute to our understanding of the gastrointestinal symptoms in patients with diabetic autonomic neuropathy and this may guide development and evaluation of new treatment modalities.",
"yes. These data indicate that metabolic features, including HDL-C in metabolic syndrome, are associated with small fiber neuropathy and that MDL is an early marker of sensory neuropathy in patients with MS. Reductions in IENF reflect a longer duration of diabetes, with hyperglycemia leading to a sensorimotor neuropathy. These findings support the possibility that there is a sensory neuropathy with reduced intraepidermal nerve fiber length, which cosegregates with features of metabolic syndrome.",
"yes. Our study indicates that sustained hyperglycemia is related to functional changes, at the minimum, in peripheral sensory and motor nerve conduction at a diabetes duration of 4 years. Our findings are consistent with a dying-back neuropathy, and there is some suggestion that chronic hyperglycemia may be more detrimental to nerves in male subjects than in female subjects.",
"yes. Therefore, bilateral 'numbness in toe and sole', 'paresthesia in toe and sole' and 'sweating restricted to face/trunk' are suitable symptoms useful for the diagnosis of DSPN. (J Diabetes Invest, doi: 10.1111/j.2040-1124.2011.00124.x, 2011).",
"Altered endocrinal and autonomic nervous system responses to stress may link impaired intra-uterine growth with later cardiovascular disease. To test the hypothesis that offspring of gestational diabetic mothers (OGDM) have high cortisol and cardiosympathetic responses during the Trier Social Stress Test for Children (TSST-C). Adolescents from a birth cohort in India (n = 213; mean age, 13.5 y), including 26 OGDM, 22 offspring of diabetic fathers (ODF), and 165 offspring of nondiabetic parents (controls) completed 5 minutes each of public speaking and mental arithmetic tasks in front of two unfamiliar \"evaluators\" (TSST-C). Salivary cortisol concentrations were measured at baseline and at regular intervals after the TSST-C. Heart rate, blood pressure (BP), stroke volume, cardiac output, and total peripheral resistance were measured continuously at baseline, during the TSST-C, and for 10 minutes after the test using a finger cuff; the beat-to-beat values were averaged for these periods. Cortisol and cardiosympathetic parameters increased from baseline during stress (P < .001). OGDM had greater systolic BP (mean difference, 5.6 mm Hg), cardiac output (0.5 L/min), and stroke volume (4.0 mL) increases and a lower total peripheral resistance rise (125 dyn · s/cm(5)) than controls during stress. ODF had greater systolic BP responses than controls (difference, 4.1 mm Hg); there was no difference in other cardiosympathetic parameters. Cortisol responses were similar in all three groups.",
"yes. The observed changes may play a critical role in the modulation of nociceptor activity and plasticity of primary sensory trigeminal neurons. The results contribute to the understanding of the basic pathophysiology of trigeminal diabetic neuropathy.",
"The primary aim of this secondary analysis was to determine whether cardiac autonomic neuropathy independently predicted adverse cardiac outcomes in asymptomatic individuals with type 2 diabetes. Additional aims include the determination of the correlation of standard autonomic testing measures and power spectral analysis of heart rate variability, and the association of diabetes-related and cardiac risk factors with cardiac autonomic neuropathy measures. Cardiac autonomic neuropathy was assessed at the study entry into the Detection of Ischemia in Asymptomatic Diabetics study, using autonomic heart rate and blood pressure testing, and power spectral analysis of heart rate variability. All participants were prospectively followed for the composite clinical outcome of cardiac death, acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, or coronary revascularization. Over 5 years of follow-up, 94 of 1119 (8.4%) subjects developed symptomatic cardiac disease. In unadjusted bivariate analyses, abnormalities in several cardiac autonomic neuropathy tests, including lower Valsalva and Standing Heart Rate Ratios, higher resting Heart Rate, greater systolic blood pressure decrease on standing, and lower low-frequency power, were predictive of symptomatic disease. Independent predictors of poor cardiac outcome were a lower Valsalva Heart Rate Ratio, non-Black ethnicity, longer diabetes duration, higher glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c), insulin use, reported numbness in the extremities, higher pulse pressure, family history of coronary artery disease, and higher waist-to-hip ratio. Clinical factors independently associated with a lower Valsalva Heart Rate Ratio were insulin use, clinical proteinuria, higher pulse pressure, use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor and non-Black ethnicity.",
"yes. Sympathovagal balance favoring relative sympathetic activation was associated with low serum concentrations of adiponectin in patients with type 2 diabetes.",
"The etiology of sensory neuropathies is often not found. We tested the hypothesis that the metabolic syndrome (MS) may be associated with painful neuropathy, in the absence of frank diabetes. Clinical and quantitative neuropathy assessments were performed on 10 neuropathy patients with MS, 20 with MS with type 2 diabetes (10 recent onset and 10 of >5 years in duration), and 10 healthy, age-matched subjects. Intraepidermal nerve fiber density (IENF) and mean dendrite length (MDL) were determined by quantitative immunofluorescence on skin biopsies using antibody to PGP 9.5. In metabolic syndrome, MDL was reduced and correlated negatively with sensory symptoms, signs, HDL-C, and sural nerve amplitude. The strongest inverse metabolic correlate of the metabolic syndrome neuropathy was HDL-C, which also correlated negatively with sensory symptoms, signs, and sural nerve amplitudes. The strongest metabolic correlate of diabetic sensorimotor neuropathy was HbA1c, which was associated with reduced IENF in patients with >5 years in duration of disease as well as reduced peroneal nerve amplitudes.",
"To investigate the possible association between vitamin D deficiency and cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy in people with diabetes. A total of 113 people with Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes [mean (interquartile range) diabetes duration 22.0 (12-31) years, mean (sd) age 56.2 (13.0) years, 58% men] underwent vitamin D (D2 and D3) assessment, and were screened for cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy using three cardiovascular reflex tests [heart rate response to deep breathing (E/I ratio), to standing (30/15 ratio) and to the Valsalva manoeuvre] and assessment of 5-min resting heart rate and heart rate variability indices. We found an inverse U-shaped association between serum vitamin D level and E/I ratio, 30/15 ratio and three heart rate variability indices (P < 0.05). Vitamin D level was non-linearly associated with cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy diagnosis (P < 0.05 adjusted for age and sex). Linear regression models showed that an increase in vitamin D level from 25 to 50 nmol/l was associated with an increase of 3.9% (95% CI 0.1;7.9) in E/I ratio and 4.8% (95% CI 4.7;9.3) in 30/15 ratio. Conversely, an increase from 125 to 150 nmol/l in vitamin D level was associated with a decrease of 2.6% (95% CI -5.8;0.1) and 4.1% (95% CI -5.8;-0.5) in the respective outcome measures.",
"To test quantitative sensation testing (QST) patterns of hypoesthesia and hyperalgesia as indicators of diabetic polyneuropathy (DPN) and its severity We used Computer-Assisted Sensory Examination IV; characterized the QST results of the foot of each patient in three diabetic cohorts (approximately 1,500 patients) as hyperesthetic (< or = 2.5th percentile), low-normal (2.5th-50th percentiles), high-normal (50th-97.5th percentiles), or hypoesthetic (> or = 97.5th percentile); and tested associations with symptoms, impairments, and test abnormalities. Overall neuropathic impairment was most severe in the pancreas-renal transplant and nerve growth factor cohorts, but it was much less severe in the population-based Rochester Diabetic Neuropathy Study (RDNS) cohort. The frequency distribution of sensory abnormalities mirrored this difference. When the QST spectra of diabetic cohorts were compared with those of the control subject cohort for vibration and cooling sensations, the only abnormality observed was hypoesthesia, which was expressed as an increased number of subjects with values at or above the 97.5th percentile or by an increased percentage of cases with high-normal values. Symptoms and impairments of DPN were significantly more frequent in the subjects with values at or above the 97.5th percentile than in the subjects whose values were between the 50th and 97.5th percentiles. For heat pain (HP) sensation thresholds (intermediate pain severity [HP:5], pain threshold [HP:0.5], and pain-stimulus response slope [HP:5-0.5]), an increased frequency of both hypoalgesia and hyperalgesia was observed (especially in the RDNS cohort). Steeper pain-stimulus response slopes were significantly associated with sensory symptoms, including severity of pain.",
"Apart from chronic hyperglycemia measured by hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c), other vascular risk factors contribute to the development of diabetic neuropathy. Even though these factors are synergistic, no study has measured the relative effect of aggregate cardiovascular risk load compared with chronic hyperglycemia alone on the risk of clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy. To compare the effects of aggregate cardiovascular risk load and HbA1c on clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy. We studied 277 consecutive and consenting type 2 diabetic outpatients attending the University College Hospital, Ibadan, Nigeria. Neuropathy was defined operationally as at least 7 positive responses on the Michigan Neuropathy Screening Instrument (MNSI) questionnaire or a score greater than 2.0 on the MNSI examination: thresholds defined by prior validation studies. Patients with nondiabetic causes of neuropathy were excluded. We determined the HbA1c using the ionic exchange chromatographic method and later computed the Diabetes Control Complications Trial referenced values. Aggregate cardiovascular risk load was determined using the UK Prospective Diabetes Study risk engines. One hundred ninety-seven (71.1%) patients had clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The mean HbA1c value was 6.9%. HbA1c correlated significantly with the average fasting plasma glucose (r = 0.36) but did not correlate significantly with the development of clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy (p = .465, p = -0.045). Aggregate cardiovascular risk load had the strongest significant correlation with clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy (p = .002, p = 0.186, odds ratio, 2.3 for score > 5). In the regression analysis, aggregate cardiovascular risk load was a stronger predictor of clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy than HbA1c.",
"yes. A diabetic complication, specifically neuropathy, was independently associated with depression in patients with diabetes. The present findings indicate the need to find a biological base common to both depression in diabetes and diabetic neuropathy.",
"yes. Serum NSE levels are closely associated with peripheral neuropathy in patients with diabetes. Future studies are warranted to clarify the relationship.",
"Small-fibre sensory neuropathy of diabetes presenting as impaired thermal sensations is associated with ominous consequences, such as foot ulcer and amputation, but there is a lack of systematic studies on its occurrence in large cohorts. We investigated (1) the impact of glycemic control on thermal thresholds, (2) the frequencies and patterns of sensory deficits, and (3) the contribution of sensory nerve abnormalities to neuropathic symptoms. Quantitative sensory testing and nerve conduction studies were performed to measure warm and cold thresholds of extremities, and amplitudes of nerve action potentials on 498 type 2 diabetic patients and 434 control subjects with similar age and gender distributions, enrolled during the same period. The diabetic patients had higher thermal thresholds than control subjects (p < 0.0001). Thermal thresholds of the lower and upper extremities were linearly correlated with HbA1C on multiple linear regression analysis (p < 0.01). By the multivariate logistic regression analysis, HbA(1C) and age were the most important risk factors independently associated with elevated thermal thresholds (p < 0.01). Elevated warm threshold in the big toe was the most frequent abnormality (60.2%) compared to abnormal cold threshold in the big toe (39.6%) and abnormal sural nerves on nerve conduction studies (12.9%). Elevated thermal thresholds were risk factors for neuropathic symptoms independent of HbA(1C).",
"yes. The predominance of sympathetic activity and increased levels of UAER, although within the normal range, are associated with a blunted fall in nocturnal dBP in normoalbuminuric normotensive type 1 diabetic patients.",
"no. Non-obese normotensive type 2 patients have an increased pressor response to NA, which is not based upon a defect in skeletal muscle resistance arterioles, peripheral veins, or a defect in the baroreceptor system. Therefore, in type 2 diabetes the noradrenergic responsiveness of other vascular beds, such as the splanchnic or renal, must be enhanced.",
"yes. Serum total bilirubin concentrations within the physiologic range are inversely associated with the prevalence of cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy in patients with Type 2 diabetes.",
"Corneal innervation is increasingly used as a surrogate marker of human diabetic peripheral neuropathy (DPN) however its temporal relationship with the other microvascular complications of diabetes is not fully established. In this cross-sectional, observational study we aimed to assess whether neuropathy occurred in patients with type 1 diabetes, without retinopathy or microalbuminuria. All participants underwent detailed assessment of peripheral neuropathy [neuropathy disability score (NDS), vibration perception threshold (VPT), peroneal motor nerve conduction velocity (PMNCV), sural sensory nerve conduction velocity (SSNCV) and in vivo corneal confocal microscopy (IVCCM)], retinopathy (digital fundus photography) and albuminuria status [albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR)]. 53 patients with Type 1 diabetes with (n=37) and without retinopathy (n=16) were compared to control subjects (n=27). SSNCV, corneal nerve fibre (CNFD) and branch (CNBD) density and length (CNFL) were reduced significantly (p<0.001) in diabetic patients without retinopathy compared to control subjects. Furthermore, CNFD, CNBD and CNFL were also significantly (p<0.001) reduced in diabetic patients without microalbuminuria (n=39), compared to control subjects. Greater neuropathic severity was associated with established retinopathy and microalbuminuria.",
"yes. The study confirms that flicker responses are reduced early in patients with type 1 diabetes. This is seen before alterations in pattern ERG indicating abnormal neurovascular coupling.",
"yes. Severe clinical consequences of foot burn injuries of unusual etiology may occur in diabetic patients with neuropathy. To prevent severe foot burn injuries, continuous education should be provided for diabetic patients with sensory loss of the lower extremities due to neuropathic complications.",
"yes. Deterioration of microvascular function and autonomic system dysfunction are present in Charcot neuroarthropathy. Impaired microvascular reactivity is associated with worse long lasting metabolic control of diabetes and low grade inflammatory process.",
"The aim of this study was to assess microvascular function associated with the occurrence of Charcot neuroarthropathy (CN) in patients with diabetes. We evaluated 70 diabetic patients (54 men) with Charcot neuroarthropathy (CN-DM), median age 59 (IQR: 51-62), mean disease duration 16±8years. The control group were 70 subjects with diabetes and without Charcot neuroarthropathy (DM), 54 men, median age 60 (54-62), mean diabetes duration 15±7years. We assessed metabolic control of diabetes, serum C-reactive protein concentration (CRP) and cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN). We used AGE-Reader to measure skin autofluorescence (AF) associated with accumulation of advanced glycation end products that reflects long lasting metabolic control. Microvascular function was examined by laser Doppler flowmetry (PERIFLUX 5000) with thermal hyperemia (TH) and postocclusive reactive hyperemia (PORH). CN-DM patients as compared to DM subjects had lower HbA1c level [7.6 (6.6-8.4) vs 8.4 (7.3-9.7)%, p<0.001], lower eGFR [75.9±24.1 vs 86.6±17.8ml/min/1.73m(2), p=0.003], higher CRP serum concentration [3.8 (2.3-10.1) vs 1.9 (0.8-4.4)mg/l, p<0.001] and higher skin autofluorescence [2.8 (2.5-3.1) vs 2.6 (2.3-2.9)AU, p=0.03]. The cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN) was more frequently diagnosed in CN-DM subjects [59 vs 27%, p<0.001]. The peak flow during thermal hyperemia (THmax) was lower in CN-DM subjects as compared to DM group [156 (93-240) vs 235 (155-300)PU, p=0.001]. We found negative correlation between THmax and CRP concentration (Rs=-0.34, p=0.003), TG concentration (Rs=-0.37, p=0.002) and skin AF (Rs=-0.32, p=0.04) and positive correlation between THmax and HDL cholesterol level (Rs=0.42, p<0.001) in CN-DM patients. There was also a positive correlation between PORHpeak and HDL cholesterol level (Rs=-0.23, p=0.04).",
"yes. This study shows that corneal confocal microscopy may be employed in longitudinal studies to assess progression of human diabetic neuropathy and also supports the hypothesis that improvements in risk factors for diabetic neuropathy, in particular HbA(1c) , may lead to morphological repair of nerve fibres.",
"We assessed the impact of an acute bout of hyperglycaemia on nitric oxide (NO)-mediated microvascular function in the skin of adolescents with type 1 diabetes (T1DM). Twelve subjects (12-18 years) with T1DM were randomised into a control (n = 6) or hyperglycaemia (n = 6) group. Hyperinsulinaemic clamps were used to manipulate blood glucose level (BGL). Following a baseline period, where all subjects were euglycaemic (20 min), the experimental phase began. During the experimental phase, BGL was elevated to 16.7 ± 0.9 mmol L(-1) in the hyperglyceamic group, while it was maintained at euglycaemia (5.5 ± 0.1 mmol L(-1)) in the control group. Simultaneously, cutaneous microvascular function (% max cutaneous vascular conductance, CVC%) was assessed using laser Doppler fluxometry following stimulation of skin blood flow using localised heating (42 °C). To determine the NO contribution to skin blood flow, two microdialysis sites were assessed, one perfused with Ringers and the other with the NO blocker, NG-monomethyl-L-arginine (L-NMMA). In the hyperglycaemic group, acute increase in BGL was not associated with changes in skin blood flow (CVC% 82.4 ± 8.7% at 5.5 ± 0.1 mmol L(-1) vs 79.5 ± 9.1% at 16.7 ± 0.9 mmol L(-1), unpaired t tests, P = 0.588) or the contribution of NO to vasodilation.",
"In patients with diabetes mellitus (DM) without any clinical signs of polyneuropathy neurophysiological examinations intend to find early involvement of peripheral nerves. Conventionally, nerve conduction velocity (NCV) measurements of sensory nerves are performed. The purpose of this study is to investigate wether refractory period measurements may be more sensitive. We compared 30 IDDM/NIDDM diabetics without clinical signs of neuropathy (25 male, 5 female, age 45-73 years, mean 64.3 years) with age-matched controls. Sensible nerve conduction velocity (NCV) of radialis and suralis nerves were performed at 37 degrees C as well as double stimulations. The interstimulus interval were decreased stepwise by 0.2 ms beginning with 4.6 ms to determine the end of the relative refractory period. Statistically significant differences of NCV and refractory period were found. The most profound differences between diabetics and normals were seen in refractory period of n. suralis. Regarding the 95% percentile as cut-off value of the normal range, pathological NCV of N. suralis were found in 4 patients. Pathological refractory period, however, were found in 9 patients.",
"yes. Despite a lack of structural changes, the operating system, signaling ability, and renorenal reflex regulatory function of two renal afferent nerve receptors, CR2 and MRu, are altered in the early diabetic state.",
"yes. Individuals with diabetic neuropathy had increased intrinsic foot muscle deterioration, which was associated with second metatarsophalangeal joint angle and history of ulceration. Additional research is required to understand how foot muscle deterioration interacts with other impairments leading to forefoot deformity and skin breakdown.",
"We conclude that variability of blood glucose may be important in the development of peripheral neuropathy in patients with type 1 diabetes, and that the nervous system may be particularly vulnerable to glycaemic variability.",
"Microcirculation is known to be disturbed in many organs of diabetic patients. Retinopathy, nephropathy and neuropathy might be considered as the cause of the functional and morphological changes at the level of microcirculation. The aim of the study was to assess by means of dynamic capillaroscopy the influence of autonomic diabetic nephropathy (CAN) in adolescents with type 1 diabetes mellitus on capillary blood flow (CBV) in skin microcirculation. The study group consisted of 18 patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus (mean age 15+/-2 years). In 9 of them the diagnosis of CAN was made on the basis of Ewing tests. The control group consisted of 10 healthy persons aged 15+/-1.5 years. CBV was measured in capillars of the nailfold of the fourth finger during rest and after 2 minutes of arterial occlusion (the occlusion pressure - above 20 mmHg systolic blood pressure - was obtained by the occlusion of brachial artery using sphygnomanometer cuff). The resting CBV did not differ between patients with CAN, without CAN and healthy controls (0.39+/-0.06, 0.41+0.05 i 0.42+/-0.07). The values of the peak CBV significantly differ between the examined groups (CAN: 0.75+0.1; without CAN: 0.86+/-0.11; control group: 0.98+/-0.09, p<0.01).",
"Autonomic diabetic neuropathy is one of the most common complications of type 1 diabetes mellitus, and studies using heart rate variability to investigate these individuals have shown inconclusive results regarding autonomic nervous system activation. Aims To investigate the dynamics of heart rate in young subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus through nonlinear and linear methods of heart rate variability. We evaluated 20 subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus and 23 healthy control subjects. We obtained the following nonlinear indices from the recurrence plot: recurrence rate (REC), determinism (DET), and Shanon entropy (ES), and we analysed indices in the frequency (LF and HF in ms2 and normalised units - nu - and LF/HF ratio) and time domains (SDNN and RMSSD), through analysis of 1000 R-R intervals, captured by a heart rate monitor. There were reduced values (p<0.05) for individuals with type 1 diabetes mellitus compared with healthy subjects in the following indices: DET, REC, ES, RMSSD, SDNN, LF (ms2), and HF (ms2). In relation to the recurrence plot, subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus demonstrated lower recurrence and greater variation in their plot, inter-group and intra-group, respectively.",
"yes. Our data indicate that Asp299Gly and Thr399Ile genotypes of the TLR4 gene are associated with reduced prevalence of diabetic neuropathy in type 2, but not in type 1, diabetes. Thus different mechanisms may be involved in the pathophysiology of diabetic neuropathy in type 1 and type 2 diabetes.",
"Endothelial dysfunction has been hypothesized as a possible pathogenic factor in the development of diabetic retinopathy (DR). We examined the relationship of DR to endothelium-dependent and endothelium-independent responses in skin microvascular flow. Participants consisted of 224 individuals with diabetes: 85 with type 1 diabetes and 139 with type 2 diabetes. Sodium nitroprusside (SNP) and acetylcholine (ACh) were delivered across the skin by iontophoresis. Laser Doppler flowmetry was used to assess the skin microcirculation response to SNP (endothelium-independent response) and ACh (endothelium-dependent response). The presence and severity of DR were graded from retinal photographs using a standard protocol. Of 224 participants, 64.3% had DR. After multivariable adjustment, participants with reduced responses to SNP or ACh were more likely to have DR, with an odds ratio (OR) of 2.33 (95% CI 1.09-5.01) for SNP and 2.20 (1.05-4.61) for ACh, comparing participants with responses below and above the median values. Participants with reduced responses (below the median) to both SNP and ACh were nearly four times more likely to have DR (OR 3.86 [1.45-10.3]) than those with SNP and ACh both above the median values.",
"yes. These observations suggest that plasma p75(NTR) immunoreactivity may serve as an early indicator of neuronal dysfunction or damage in diabetes. The time course of its appearance relates well to that of early neuropathy and its response to interventions that are neuroprotective suggests that it might mirror neurological status.",
"yes. Adolescents at potentially higher risk for nephropathy show an adverse cardiac autonomic profile, indicating sympathetic overdrive, compared with the lower-risk group. Longitudinal follow-up of this cohort will further characterize the relationship between autonomic and renal dysfunction and the effect of interventions in this population.",
"The aim of the study was to determine the degree of neuropathy (autonomic and somatic) in patients with diabetes mellitus with or without Charcot osteoarthropathy (CA). Forty-nine patients with diabetes mellitus type 1 or 2 were investigated. The patient population of interest was the patients with acute Charcot foot (n=17) or chronic Charcot foot (n=7). The inclusion criterion for an acute Charcot foot was a temperature difference of more than 2° between the two feet, oedema of the affected foot, typical hotspots in a bone scintigram and a typical clinical course. In addition, patients with first toe amputation (n=5), a high-risk group for development of CA, and two control groups consisting of diabetes patients with (n=9) or without somatic neuropathy (n=11) were investigated. Regional blood flow in the feet was measured by venous occlusion plethysmography. Quantitation of somatic neuropathy was done by the Neuropathy Disability Score and modified Neuropathy Symptom Score. Quantitation of autonomic neuropathy was done by measurements of local venoarteriolar sympathetic axon reflex in the feet and of heart rate variability during deep breathing and orthostatic challenge. The patients with acute Charcot foot and first toe amputation had an increased blood flow in the affected foot and weakened but not absent venoarteriolar sympathetic axon reflex. In the other patient groups, a normal venoarteriolar sympathetic axon reflex in the feet was found.",
"Slow nerve conduction velocity and reduction in response amplitude are objective hallmarks of diabetic sensorimotor polyneuropathy. Because subjective or clinical indicators of neuropathy do not always match well with the presence of abnormal nerve physiology tests, we evaluated associations to nerve conduction in patients with type 1 diabetes. Nerve conduction studies were performed in the distal sural and ulnar sensory nerves and the peroneal motor nerve in 456 individuals with type 1 diabetes who participated in the follow-up visit of the EURODIAB Prospective Complications Study (EPCS). We used multivariate regression models to describe associations to decreased nerve conduction measures. In addition to an effect of duration of diabetes and A1C, which were both associated with low nerve conduction velocity and response amplitude, we found that the presence of nephropathy, retinopathy, or a clinical diagnosis of neuropathy was associated with low nerve conduction velocity and amplitude. In the case of nonproliferative retinopathy, the odds ratio (OR) for being in lowest tertile was 2.30 (95% CI 1.13-4.67) for nerve conduction velocity. A similar OR was found for each 2% difference in A1C (2.39 [1.68-3.41]).",
"Diabetic neuropathy may not have occurred in young patients having shorter duration of illness. Conversely, assuming that prolonged latency is abnormal, it may even have occurred in them. Follow up on these patients with prolonged latencies would be required.",
"yes. Refractory period measurements of N. suralis are more sensitive than conventional NCV assessment in detection of beginning dysfunction in peripheral nerves of patients with diabetes mellitus without clinical signs of polyneuropathy.",
"yes. Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy is common in persons with impaired glucose tolerance. Obesity, especially among men, seems to play an important role in the early pathogenesis of cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy.",
"To explore the relationship between serum neuron-specific enolase (NSE) levels and diabetic neuropathy. Type 1 or 2 diabetic and healthy control subjects (n = 568) were randomly enrolled in a cross-sectional study. Diabetic neuropathy status was documented by the presence of clinical symptoms or signs, electromyography, quantitative sensory tests, and cardiac autonomic neuropathy tests. The severity of the neuropathy was staged by composite scores. Serum NSE was measured using electrochemiluminescence immunoassay. The demographic and clinical variables were obtained through an interviewer questionnaire. Serum NSE levels increased slightly in diabetic subjects compared with normal subjects (9.1 [1.5] vs. 8.7 [1.7], P = 0.037), and the levels increased greatly in diabetic subjects with neuropathy compared with those without (10.8 [2.8] vs. 9.1 [1.5], P = 0.000). The association of NSE with diabetic neuropathy was independent of the hyperglycemic state (fasting blood glucose, HbA1c, duration, and the type of diabetes) and other potential confounders affecting NSE levels (e.g., age, sex, and renal status) (odds ratio 1.48 [1.13-1.74], P = 0.001). In addition, NSE levels increased with and were closely correlated to the stages of neuropathy (r = 0.63 [0.52-0.74], P = 0.000). The optimal cutoff point for serum NSE levels to distinguish patients with diabetic neuropathy from those without was 10.10 μg/L, with a sensitivity of 66.3% and a specificity of 72.5%.",
"no. These results suggest that, in our group of adolescents with type 1 diabetes, acute hyperglycaemia did not affect skin microvascular NO-mediated function.",
"Ninety-six patients with type 1 diabetes were included in the study. All patients were evaluated for DPN with Michigan Neuropathy Screening Instrument. Fasting blood glucose, HbA1c, lipid parameters, 25 (OH) D3, NGF, total oxidant status, total antioxidant status and oxidative stress index were measured. Twenty-six patients (27 %) had DPN (group 1) and 70 patients did not have neuropathy (group 2). When the groups were evaluated with respect to general demographic characteristics, no differences were detected. Mean age, duration of diabetes and retinopathy were found significantly higher in patients who had neuropathy. Glomerular filtration rate levels were significantly lower in the neuropathy group. Between the groups, 25 (OH) vitamin D levels were significantly lower in the neuropathy group, while there were no differences in NGF levels or in oxidative stress markers. Michigan neuropathy examination score was positively correlated with age, and diabetes duration was negatively correlated with 25 (OH) vitamin D levels. In addition, 25 (OH) vitamin D was positively correlated with NGF. In the logistic regression analysis to determine the independent variables that will affect the development of neuropathy, duration of diabetes was detected as the only factor (p = 0.039, OR = 1.071).",
"yes. Baroreflex sensitivity is reduced in Type I diabetic patients with microalbuminuria but without autonomic neuropathy. A prospective study should indicate whether this early abnormality in cardiovascular reflex function is a risk factor of cardiovascular mortality in these patients. [Diabetologia (1999) 42: 1345-1349]",
"yes. In this study, plantar thermography, which predominately considers the small and autonomic fibers that are commonly associated with a sub-clinical condition, proved useful in diagnosing diabetic neuropathy early. The interdigital anisothermal test, when used alone, performed best.",
"yes. High and low vitamin D levels were associated with cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy in people with diabetes. Future studies should explore this association and the efficacy of treating dysvitaminosis D to prevent cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that insulin-induced hypoglycemia increases muscle sympathetic neural outflow in IDDM and control subjects. The lack of correlation between the MSNA and epinephrine responses to hypoglycemia indicates that the adrenomedullary and peripheral sympathetic responses to hypoglycemia are independently mediated.",
"yes. Aggregate cardiovascular risk load was a stronger statistical correlate and predictor of clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy than HbA1c. This may have implications for prevention and monitoring of clinically evident diabetic peripheral neuropathy.",
"yes. Sympathetic nerves may be compromised in diabetes, and these findings suggest that they may regulate some complications of diabetic retinopathy. Gene expression levels of fibronectin and laminin-beta 1 changed between 1 and 3 weeks. These data are supported by electron microscopy, which showed the increase in basement membrane thickness in vivo. Loss of sympathetic innervation to the eye also caused a decrease in the number of pericytes. Steady state mRNA expression of PDGF-BB was reduced, suggesting a mechanism for the loss of pericytes in the sympathectomized retina. Overall, these results suggest that sympathetic nerve alterations may function in some complications observed in diabetic retinopathy, and this may be a suitable model to investigate therapies for this disorder.",
"In type 1 diabetes, cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN) is associated with cardiovascular risk factors related to insulin resistance, which in turn are associated with low-grade systemic inflammation. Reduced heart rate variability (HRV) is considered one of the first indicators of CAN. Since the autonomic nervous system interacts with systemic inflammation, we evaluated CAN to study its possible association with low-grade systemic inflammation. Cross-sectional study of a group of 120 subjects diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus 14 years before. Information recorded: 1) clinical characteristics: sex, age, body mass index, waist-to-hip ratio (WHR), blood pressure (BP), smoking, alcohol intake, insulin dose, HbA1c, and lipid profile; 2) plasma levels of soluble fractions of tumour necrosis factor alpha receptors 1 and 2, IL-6, and C-reactive protein; 3) insulin resistance by estimation of the glucose disposal rate (eGDR); and 4) tests for CAN: HRV in response to deep breathing (E/I ratio), HRV in response to the Valsalva maneuver, and changes in systolic BP responding to standing. A significant negative correlation was found between E/I ratio and plasma concentrations of IL-6 (r=-0.244, P=0.032), which remained significant after adjusting for potential confounding factors (age, sex, HbA1c, WHR, diastolic BP, triglycerides, HDL-cholesterol, retinopathy, nephropathy, peripheral neuropathy, insulin dose, and smoking; r=-0.231, P=0.039). No other significant associations were found between inflammation-related proteins, tests for CAN, and eGDR.",
"To evaluate whether sympathetic skin response (SSR) differs in patients with hereditary sensory autonomic neuropathy (HSAN) types III and IV. HSAN types III and IV are rare autosomal recessive disorders that cause many similar autonomic, sensory, and motor dysfunctions, but different sweating characteristics. HSAN III patients have preserved and at times, excessive sweating, whereas anhidrosis is characteristic of HSAN IV. SSR reflects the integrity of sympathetic sudomotor fibers and the activation of sweat glands through the change in skin resistance in response to an arousal stimulus. Therefore, SSR is a test method that might facilitate differential diagnosis of HSAN III and IV. In 17 HSAN III patients (eight women, nine men; mean age, 20.65+/-5.45 years) and seven HSAN IV patients (five girls, two boys; mean age, 10.0+/-5.45 years) SSR was recorded from the palms and soles after repeated electrical, acoustic, and inspiratory gasp stimulations. In addition, all subjects underwent a neurologic examination; studies of median, peroneal motor, and sural nerve conduction velocities; and determination of vibratory and thermal perception thresholds. Although clinical differences were appreciated between the two types of HSANs, both HSANs had evidence of small-fiber involvement. Both HSANs had abnormal temperature and pain perception. In contrast, SSR was preserved in all HSAN III and absent in all HSAN IV patients.",
"yes. Renal nerves appear to be significantly involved in the mediation of glomerular hyperfiltration in experimental DM. If the kidney is prevented from sympathetic nerve stimulation, structural changes due to early diabetic nephropathy, i.e. glomerular enlargement, are abolished.",
"yes. The morphological changes in peripheral nerves of type 2 diabetic patients were found before the onset of neuropathy, and were closely correlated with the severity of diabetic neuropathy, but not with corneal C fiber pathology.",
"yes. Autonomic neuropathy 5 years after diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes is associated with an unfavourable metabolic risk profile.",
"This abnormality in cholinergic second neuron function of the vagal reflex arch and the fact that three of the healthy subjects had no increase in PP concentrations at all during the meal test indicates that PP response to a mixed meal is unsuitable for the diagnosis of autonomic neuropathy in type 1 diabetes. The nature of the defect in the second neuron of the vagal innervation of the pancreas in type 1 diabetes remains to be elucidated.",
"yes. We show that the presence of other microvascular diabetes complications, together with diabetes duration and A1C, are associated with low nerve conduction velocity and amplitude response and that cardiovascular disease or risk factors do not seem to be associated with these measures.",
"yes. SIF, a marker of dermal advanced glycation end products, appears to be more strongly associated with the presence of both CDSP and autonomic neuropathy than mean HbA(1c).",
"yes. This study suggests an independent association between skin AF levels and diabetic nephropathy and neuropathy, but not retinopathy, in T1D patients. Prospective studies are needed to confirm the ability of skin AF levels to predict microangiopathy.",
"yes. This study provides evidence for interaction between autonomic neuropathy and peripheral nervous degeneration, as well as changes in dipole sources in diabetic patients with gastrointestinal symptoms. The findings may lead to improved treatment modalities targeting pharmacological neuroprotection or neuromodulation.",
"yes. These observations suggest that epalrestat may have therapeutic value at the early stage of diabetic neuropathy and that the pupillary light reflex and minimum latency of F-wave may be useful indicators of diabetic neuropathy.",
"yes. In non-diabetic patients, autonomic neuropathy appears to be less severe and somewhat reversible since only in these individuals hemodialysis improved basal tear fluid secretion. This difference may be a factor contributing to the lower incidence of dry eye disease in non-diabetic patients.",
"The obtained results indicate that the presence of the autonomic diabetic neuropathy significantly influences the regulatory function of microcirculation, which may predispose to occurrence of different late diabetic complications.",
"yes. A significant proportion of adolescents with type 2 diabetes showed evidence of early DN, and insulin sensitivity, rather than HbA1c, blood pressure, or lipid control, was the strongest determinant of renal health.",
"yes. Diabetes patients with peripheral neuropathy are at increased risk of bite injuries in areas with large rodent populations. Preventive efforts should include covering the feet at bedtime, and daily feet examination by patient or relatives.",
"no. Experimentally reducing plantar cutaneous sensation causes no changes in plantar pressure distribution while walking. Our findings suggest that in the diabetic neuropathic foot insensitive plantar skin due to peripheral sensory neuropathy may be not a decisive factor for altering plantar pressures. This is underpinning the importance of concomitant affection of different systems secondary to diabetic peripheral neuropathy.",
"Peripheral neuropathy is the most frequent neurological complication in diabetic patients. The diagnosis is established by both clinical neurological examination and demonstration of reduced epidermal nerve fibers in skin biopsies (1). Whereas the decrease of free nerve endings has been extensively studied in diabetic patients (2,3), no data are available on possible changes of terminal Schwann cells. Besides their role as scaffold for peripheral nerves, they also play an important role in supporting survival and function of peripheral nerves (4). We analyzed the subepidermal nerve plexus in dermal sheet preparations of deceased diabetic and nondiabetic patients by immunostaining for detection of the neural cell adhesion molecule and quantification of the subepidermal nerve plexus.",
"yes. Children with DS and SDB exhibit a compromised acute cardio-respiratory response and dampened sympathetic response to SDB compared with TD children with SDB. These data may reflect autonomic dysfunction in children with DS that may place them at increased risk for cardiovascular complications such as pulmonary hypertension.",
"yes. The subepidermal nerve plexus, comprising nerve fibers and ensheathing Schwann cells, was significantly reduced in diabetic patients. Whether the reduction in terminal Schwann cells is cause or consequence of the loss of peripheral nerve fibers remains to be investigated.",
"yes. EGG abnormalities, presented early in a high proportion of diabetic children, are related to the acute hyperglycaemia. These abnormalities are not consistently present in the follow-up studies and not related to the glycosylated haemoglobin and fructosamine. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is therefore an unlikely pathogenic factor for EGG abnormalities in children with diabetes.",
"yes. CCM and skin biopsy detect a small-fiber neuropathy in subjects with IGT who develop type 2 diabetes and also show a dynamic worsening or improvement in corneal and intraepidermal nerve morphology in relation to change in glucose tolerance status.",
"This study examined whether the presence of peripheral sensory neuropathy or cardiac autonomic deficits is associated with postocclusive reactive hyperemia (reflective of microvascular function) in the diabetic foot. 99 participants with type 2 diabetes were recruited into this cross-sectional study. The presence of peripheral sensory neuropathy was determined with standard clinical tests and cardiac autonomic function was assessed with heart rate variation testing. Postocclusive reactive hyperemia was measured with laser Doppler in the hallux. Multiple hierarchical regression was performed to examine relationships between neuropathy and the peak perfusion following occlusion and the time to reach this peak. Peripheral sensory neuropathy predicted 22% of the variance in time to peak following occlusion (p<0.05), being associated with a slower time to peak but was not associated with the magnitude of the peak. Heart rate variation was not associated with the postocclusive reactive hyperemia response.",
"yes. Increasing subclinical motor nerve impairment can be detected during late puberty and after puberty, and sensory NCV and SNAP amplitude are reduced in adolescents with type 1 diabetes. Poor metabolic control during puberty appears to induce deteriorating peripheral neural function in young patients with type 1 diabetes.",
"yes. The activity of the TNF-alpha system is increased in subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus and diabetic neuropathy, regardless of their glycaemic control and cardiovascular risk factors associated with insulin resistance. These results suggest that TNF-alpha may play a pathogenic role in the development of diabetic neuropathy.",
"To evaluate whether autonomic neuropathy predicts deterioration in glomerular filtration rate in IDDM patients. A prospective study in which 35 IDDM patients have been followed for 10-11 yr. Autonomic nerve function tests included heart-rate reactions to deep breathing (expiration-to-inspiration ratio) and to tilt (acceleration and brake indexes). GFR was evaluated by the 51Cr-EDTA plasma clearance method. At entry to the study, no significant differences were noted in age (39 +/- 2 [mean +/- SE] vs. 42 +/- 4 yr), duration of diabetes (20 +/- 3 vs. 23 +/- 4 yr), supine blood pressures (120/79 +/- 3/2 mmHg vs. 121/78 +/- 6/3 mmHg), and GFR (113 +/- 6 vs. 107 +/- 3 ml.min-1.1.73 m-2) between 20 patients with and 15 without autonomic neuropathy (age-corrected criteria). After 10-11 yr, GFR had decreased significantly (22 +/- 4 ml.min-1.1.73 m-2, P < 0.001) in patients with autonomic neuropathy but not (8 +/- 5 ml.min-1.1.73 m-2, NS) in patients without. In keeping with this, GFR decreased more than expected (difference in GFR/expected decrease in GFR) in patients with autonomic neuropathy, compared with those without (4.46 +/- 0.98 vs. 0.48 +/- 0.73, P < 0.005).",
"To evaluate the impact of puberty on peripheral nerve function in adolescents with type 1 diabetes. Of 138 eligible patients with type 1 diabetes, 100 patients (age >9 years and diabetes duration >2 years) attending an outpatient diabetes clinic and 100 age- and sex-matched healthy control subjects took part in this cross-sectional study. Peripheral motor and sensory nerve conduction tests, cardiovascular reflex tests on the autonomic nervous system, and measurements of vibration-perception threshold (VPT) were performed. Nerve conduction velocity (NCV) in the distal motor and sensory nerves, the motor nerve distal latency, and the sensory nerve action potential (SNAP) amplitude were impaired in the adolescent patients with type 1 diabetes. The deterioration in motor NCV, H-reflex latency, and SNAP amplitude became more conspicuous in late puberty and postpuberty and was related to poor metabolic control. A total of 10 patients had distal diabetic polyneuropathy (DP) neurophysiologically, and these patients had significantly lower heart-rate variation in the deep breathing test than the other patients. Three of the patients with DP had peripheral neurological signs or symptoms. A slight difference in the VPT between the patients and control subjects was observed after puberty.",
"yes. Small-fibre neuropathy with the impairment of thermal sensations is the most frequent sensory deficit in diabetes, and HbA1C is significantly associated with the elevated thermal thresholds.",
"Cardiac autonomic neuropathy (CAN) is the most frequent and clinically important form of diabetic autonomic neuropathy. CAN is associated with increased frequency of other microvascular complications of diabetes mellitus (DM). In this study, we evaluated the prevalence diabetic nephropathy, retinopathy, and peripheral neuropathy, and measured gastric emptying time and bladder emptying time in type 2 diabetic patients with varying degrees of CAN. Fifty-three patients with DM complicated by CAN (30 women and 23 men; mean age, 58.8+/-9.15 years; duration of diabetes, 13.9+/-7.7 years) were included in this study. The patients were grouped according to the degree of CAN as early, definite, and severe CAN. There were significant differences regarding the prevalence of nephropathy, retinopathy, and peripheral neuropathy diagnosed by EMG among those groups (P<.05). However, there was no significant difference regarding the prevalence of peripheral neuropathy diagnosed by neurological examination (P>.05), and scintigraphic measurements of gastric and bladder emptying time were comparable among the groups (P>.05).",
"To identify risk factors for the development of cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy in patients with juvenile-onset type I diabetes mellitus. Cross-sectional examination of an inception cohort 15 to 21 years after the onset of diabetes. Outpatient diabetes clinic. Seventy-nine patients with type I diabetes who experienced onset of disease before 21 years of age and who were followed for 15 to 21 years. Autonomic nerve function was evaluated in all patients using deep breathing and tilt tests. On the basis of these tests, an index of cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy was derived and patients were classified as having intact, mildly impaired, or significantly impaired autonomic function. The group with significantly impaired function had a higher mean hemoglobin A1 at the time of examination than the group without impairment, yet the groups did not differ regarding glycemic control during the first decade of diabetes. The HLA-DR3/4 phenotype was present in more than 50% of the patients with significant autonomic dysfunction and conferred relative odds of 6.2 (95% CI, 1.7 to 23.3) for the development of autonomic neuropathy when compared with other HLA-DR phenotypes. Sex, percent ideal body weight, and smoking did not have a statistically significant effect on the development of autonomic neuropathy.",
"yes. Normal children compensate for the increase in vascular resistance due to increased blood viscosity (increased Hb and Hct) while diabetic children do not, probably due to endothelial dysfunction.",
"yes. Unlike T1DM, peripheral neuropathy can be present soon after diagnosis in those with T2DM. Children with T2DM need surveillance for complications from the time of diagnosis.",
"To clarify whether parasympathetic neuropathy in Type 2 diabetic patients is associated with features of the insulin resistance syndrome. Blood pressures, glycaemic control (HbA1c), plasma lipids, residual beta-cell function (fasting plasma C-peptide), autonomic nerve function, urinary albumin excretion and glomerular filtration rate (Cr-EDTA clearance) were evaluated in 82 Type 2 diabetic patients (age 63+/-years) 5 years after diagnosis of diabetes. Parasympathetic neuropathy (an abnormal age corrected E/I ratio) was found in 24/82 (29%) patients. After adjustment for body mass index (BMI), patients with parasympathetic neuropathy had elevated fasting plasma C-peptide (P < 0.001) and triglyceride (Tg) (P < 0.05) levels compared with patients without parasympathetic neuropathy. In addition, the age corrected E/I ratio correlated inversely with Tg (r=-0.31; P<0.01) and fasting plasma C-peptide (r=-0.32; P < 0.01) in the Type 2 diabetic patients.",
"yes. The development of cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy in type I diabetes mellitus is strongly associated with the HLA-DR3/4 phenotype. Thus, genetic predisposition may play an important role in the development of this complication.",
"To examine the relationship between sudomotor dysfunction and foot ulceration (FU) in patients with diabetes. Ninety patients with either Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes [30 without peripheral sensorimotor neuropathy (PN), 30 with PN but without FU and 30 with FU] were recruited in this cross-sectional study. Assessment of PN was based on neuropathy symptom score (NSS), neuropathy disability score (NDS) and vibration perception threshold (VPT). Sudomotor dysfunction was assessed using the sympathetic skin response (SSR). Cardiac autonomic nervous system activity was assessed by the battery of the classical autonomic function tests. Patients with foot ulcers had longer duration of diabetes, higher values of VPT and NDS and lower values of the autonomic functions tests in comparison with the other study groups. Sudomotor dysfunction and cardiac autonomic neuropathy were significantly more common in the FU group. Multivariate logistic regression analysis after adjustment for gender, body mass index, duration of diabetes and glycated haemoglobin (HbA(1c)) demonstrated that the odds ratio (95% confidence intervals) of FU increased with measures of neuropathy such as NDS >or= 6 (10.2, 6.2-17.3) and VPT >or= 25 volts (19.8, 9.9-47.5), but was also significantly increased with absent SSR (15.3, 5.3-38.4).",
"yes. In diabetic neuropathy a loss in sensory neuron mu-opioid receptor number and coupling contributes to impaired spinal opioid antinociception that can be reversed by NGF. These findings support growing evidence of a distinct regulation of opioid responsiveness during various painful diseases and may give novel therapeutic incentives.",
"yes. The current results indicate that diabetic autonomic neuropathy is associated with more severe intraoperative hypothermia. We postulate that diabetic patients become more hypothermic because their peripheral neuropathy delays the onset of thermoregulatory vasoconstriction and reduces its efficacy once triggered. These patients may therefore fail to develop a normal core temperature plateau.",
"To assess the prevalence of and risk factors for autonomic neuropathy in the EURODIAB IDDM Complications Study. The study involved the examination of randomly selected Type I (insulin-dependent) diabetic patients from 31 centres in 16 European countries. Neuropathic symptoms and two tests of autonomic function (changes in heart rate and blood pressure from lying to standing) were assessed and data from 3007 patients were available for the present analysis. Autonomic neuropathy was defined as an abnormality of at least one of the tests. The prevalence of autonomic neuropathy was 36% with no sex differences. The frequency of one and two abnormal reflex tests was 30% and 6%, respectively. The R-R ratio was abnormal in 24% of patients while 18% had orthostatic hypotension defined as a fall in systolic blood pressure > 20 mmHg on standing. Significant correlations were observed between autonomic neuropathy and age (P < 0.01), duration of diabetes (P < 0.0001), HbA1c (P < 0.0001), diastolic blood pressure (P < 0.05), lower HDL-cholesterol (P < 0.01), the presence of retinopathy (P < 0.0001) and albuminuria (P < 0.0001). New associations have been identified from the study: the strong relationship of autonomic neuropathy to cigarette smoking (P < 0.01), total cholesterol/HDL-cholesterol ratio (P < 0.05) and fasting triglyceride (P < 0.0001). As a key finding, autonomic neuropathy was related to the presence of cardiovascular disease (P < 0.0001). All analyses were adjusted for age, duration of diabetes and HbA1c. However, data have been only partly confirmed by logistic regression analyses. Frequency of dizziness on standing up was 18%, while only 4% of patients had nocturnal diarrhoea and 5% had problems with bladder control.",
"Aims/Introduction: In order to diagnose diabetic symmetric polyneuropathy (DSPN) more simply and accurately, we identified symptoms that correlated with neurological functions and existed more frequently in diabetic than non-diabetic subjects. The relationships between 10 symptoms (numbness or paresthesia in toe and sole, numbness in hand, pain in foot or hand, coldness in legs, painful leg cramp, dizziness on standing, sweating restricted to face/trunk and frequent constipation/diarrhea) and clinical background, defined as DSPN and cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy (CAN) by the criteria proposed in the statement of the American Diabetes Association, and seven quantitative nerve function data were evaluated in 593 diabetic patients in Wakayama Medical University Hospital (WMUH). Furthermore, the prevalence of various symptoms was examined by three questionnaires: a WMUH survey (999 diabetic outpatients), a Nationwide survey (1524 male diabetic outpatients under a primary-care physician) and a Control survey (501 non-diabetic subjects). Bilateral 'numbness in toe and sole', 'paresthesia in toe and sole', 'pain in foot' and 'sweating restricted to face/trunk' were significantly associated with diabetes duration, retinopathy, probable and confirmed DSPN, possible and advanced CAN, and all or six nerve functions. Questionnaire surveys clarified that symptoms that are not rare (>15%) and more frequent in diabetic than non-diabetic subjects were bilateral 'numbness in toe and sole', 'paresthesia in toe and sole', 'coldness in legs', 'dizziness on standing' and 'sweating restricted to face/trunk'.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the frequency of sympathetic versus parasympathetic neuropathy among type 1 and type 2 diabetic patients. There were 43 patients with type 1 and 17 with type 2 diabetes who were investigated. Sympathetic nerve function was assessed by measurement of the vasoconstriction (VAC) index by laser Doppler perfusion imaging of a locally heated finger followed by indirect cooling. Parasympathetic nerve function was assessed by R-R interval variation during deep breathing as measured by the expiration/inspiration (E/I) ratio. Results were expressed as age-corrected z scores in SD; VAC index >1.64 SD and E/I ratio <-1.64 SD were considered abnormal. VAC index was abnormal in 40% with type 1 and 41% with type 2 diabetes, whereas the E/I ratio was abnormal in 42% with type 1 and 65% with type 2 diabetes. There was a clear association between VAC index and E/I ratio among type 1 (rs=0.525; P=0.0002) but not among type 2 (rs=0.10) diabetic patients. Among type 2 diabetic patients, the degree of dysfunction was most severe regarding parasympathetic function (P=0.0167).",
"yes. Cardiac norepinephrine release is suppressed in patients with Type 2 diabetes which could contribute to sympathetic neuropathy. The difference of norepinephrine release in diabetic and non-diabetic patients was independent of cardiac function and arterial blood pressure.",
"yes. Young subjects with type 1 diabetes mellitus have autonomic nervous system behaviour that tends to randomness compared with healthy young subjects. Moreover, this behaviour is related to reduced sympathetic and parasympathetic activity of the autonomic nervous system.",
"yes. Autonomic dysfunction is present in early stages of retinopathy, nephropathy, and peripheral neuropathy in patients with type 1 diabetes.",
"To determine whether skin intrinsic fluorescence (SIF) was associated with autonomic neuropathy and confirmed distal symmetrical polyneuropathy (CDSP) in 111 individuals with type 1 diabetes (mean age 49 years, mean diabetes duration 40 years). SIF was measured using the SCOUT DM device. Autonomic neuropathy was defined as an electrocardiographic abnormal heart rate response to deep breathing (expiration-to-inspiration ratio <1.1). CDSP was defined using the Diabetes Control and Complications Trial clinical exam protocol (the presence of two or more of the following: symptoms, sensory and/or motor signs, and/or reduced/absent tendon reflexes consistent with DSP) confirmed by the presence of an abnormal age-specific vibratory threshold (using a Vibratron II tester). The prevalence of autonomic neuropathy and CDSP were 61 and 66%, respectively. SIF was higher in those with autonomic neuropathy (P < 0.0001). In multivariable analyses controlling for age and updated mean (18-year average) HbA(1c), and allowing for other univariately and clinically significant correlates of autonomic neuropathy, each SD change in SIF was associated with a 2.6-greater likelihood of autonomic neuropathy (P = 0.006). Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) analyses revealed that SIF and updated mean HbA(1c) accounted for 80 and 57%, respectively, of the area under the curve (AUC) for autonomic neuropathy. SIF also was higher in those with CDSP (P < 0.0001) and remained so in multivariable analyses (odds ratio 2.70; P = 0.005). ROC analyses revealed that SIF and updated mean HbA(1c) accounted for 78 and 59%, respectively, of the AUC for CDSP.",
"To screen for microvascular complications in adolescents with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Seven adolescents with T2DM were assessed for early secondary complications. Median duration of diabetes was 1.8 (0.8-3.0) yr. All were assessed as follows: blood pressure, ophthalmologic examination for diabetic retinopathy, renal function, full blood count and vitamin B12 levels (to exclude B12 malabsorption - a side effect of metformin), random urine for microalbuminuria, an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip and podiatry performed by an experienced podiatrist. Testing for peripheral neuropathy included foot pulse palpation, tendo-Achilles reflexes, plantar callus test, large nerve fibre function (vibration and threshold for light touch/pressure) assessed by a 128-Hz tuning fork, and by the standard 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test, and small nerve fibre function (pain) assessed by pinprick neurotip. Four adolescents had evidence of peripheral neuropathy on clinical examination, with abnormal large and small nerve fibre function. Six had plantar callus present, and four had weak but palpable posterior tibial pulses. All had normal tendo-Achilles reflex and normal response to vibration. None had diabetic retinopathy or hypertension. Renal function, full blood count (FBC), B12 levels and ECGs were normal. None of 120 adolescents with type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) assessed by the same podiatrist had any signs of peripheral neuropathy.",
"yes. This study found an association between the presence of peripheral sensory neuropathy in people with diabetes and altered microvascular reactivity in the lower limb.",
"yes. Sympathetic and parasympathetic neuropathy were frequent in both type 1 and type 2 diabetic patients. However, there was a difference between the two types of diabetes. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve functions correlated in type 1 but not in type 2 diabetic patients. The explanation for this discrepancy might be that parasympathetic nerve function was most severely affected among type 2 diabetic patients.",
"Abnormal sympathetic skin response (SSR) has been reported in adult patients with diabetic neuropathy. In addition, other studies have revealed abnormal SSR in diabetic patients not having autonomic symptoms and autonomic dysfunctions. These findings have been only obtained from adult patients. There have been few reports on the autonomic functions in diabetic children. Accordingly, it is not clear whether the autonomic neuropathy occurs in diabetic children. The aim of the present study is to clear autonomic function in children with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus by SSR. The SSR was measured in 28 normal healthy children and in eight patients with IDDM not having symptoms of dysautonomia. The SSR was elicited using 10 stimuli on programmed Nihonkoden Neuropack Sigma model machine. Following a single electrical stimulation, four SSR were recorded in both the palms and the soles simultaneously. The SSR were simultaneously obtained in 100% of the two groups. The amplitudes in the palms and soles were not significantly different between the two groups. The mean and shortest latency in the soles were significantly longer in the IDDM group than in the control group (P<0.01). None of the measurements of SSR revealed correlation with duration of diabetes and onset of illness."
] | 982 |
Are the newer antidepressant drugs as effective as established physical treatments? | [
"The aim of this study was to determine, in a clinical panel sample, the extent to which patients with depression (and melancholic and non-melancholic subtypes) judged the effectiveness of previously received antidepressant treatments, particularly the comparative effectiveness of the older and newer antidepressant drugs. Twenty-seven Australasian psychiatrists assessed 341 non-psychotic depressed patients and rated the extent to which previous antidepressant treatments had been effective. Patients were assigned to 'melancholic' and residual 'non-melancholic' categories by two processes (DSM-IV decision rules, and a cluster analysis-derived allocation) and treatment effectiveness examined within each category. Electroconvulsive therapy (both bilateral and unilateral) was judged as highly effective by both melancholic and non-melancholic patients. Antipsychotic medication similarly rated highly (but was judged as more effective by the non-melancholic than melancholic patients). The tricyclics and irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) were rated as more effective by the whole sample than several newer antidepressant classes (including the selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors [SSRIs], venlafaxine, mianserin and moclobemide), whether effectiveness was examined dimensionally or categorically. Comparison of the overall tricyclic and SSRI classes indicated that any superior tricyclic effectiveness was specific to the melancholic subjects.",
"Despite methodological limitations intrinsic to such clinical panel data, the judged greater effectiveness of the older antidepressants (tricyclics and irreversible MAOIs) for melancholic depression is of importance. If valid, such data are of intrinsic clinical relevance but also have the potential to inform us about the neurobiological determinants of 'melancholia' and pharmacological actions which contribute to its effective treatment."
] | [
"yes. As gait impairments are associated with an increased risk of adverse outcomes including falls, clinicians should be aware of the impact of antidepressants on gait in older adults. Subsequent to this, interventions aimed at improving physical function, which is a known precursor to falls and functional disability, should be recommended.",
"yes. The data indicate the complex interactions following the activation or blockade of the NMDA and AMPA receptors with antidepressant drugs. The general phenomenon is the enhancing effect of the NMDA receptor antagonism on the antidepressant activity. Moreover, is can be concluded that the activity of antidepressants with a serotonergic mechanism of action can be inhibited by NMDA activation, while antidepressants with a noradrenergic mechanism of action are dependent on AMPA receptor transmission.",
"Nonrandom assignment limits comparisons between antidepressants and anti-psychotics in this study. However, with follow-up, a number of adolescents meeting criteria for prodromal schizophrenia were successfully treated with antidepressants. At present, a substantial number of false positives among the antidepressant-treated subgroup cannot be ruled out. However, the findings suggest that, in some cases, it might be preferable to begin treatment with antidepressants and progress to antipsychotics once symptoms intensify, since adherence to the latter is difficult to maintain.",
"Several meta- or mega-analyses suggest antidepressant medications should be given only to severely depressed patients. In our experience, mild depression benefits from medication. We reanalyzed 1 clinic's randomized placebo-controlled antidepressant studies, limiting analyses to patients with major depressive disorder (MDD) without severe illness, to determine whether nonsevere depression responds to antidepressant medication. Archives of the Depression Evaluation Service outpatient clinic of the New York State Psychiatric Institute were searched for randomized, placebo-controlled antidepressant studies that were conducted between 1977 and 2009 and included patients having MDD and pretreatment Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HDRS) scores<23. Six placebo-controlled studies were found, including 8 active treatment arms and 1,440 patients. 825 patients were randomized and had MDD and an HDRS score<23. DSM-III, DSM-III-R, or DSM-IV diagnostic criteria contemporary to each study were employed. Treatments were compared within study and via a patient-level meta-analysis using analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) of HDRS end point scores adjusted for pretreatment score. The number needed to treat (NNT) was calculated from remission rates (HDRS end point score ≤ 7), which were compared by χ². Effect sizes were calculated from change in HDRS scores. Secondary analyses investigated the effect of chronicity and atypical features on treatment response. Three of 6 studies showed significant (P<.001) treatment effects by ANCOVA, and 4 of 6 studies showed significant (P<.04) differences in remission. The NNT ranged from 3 to 8. Effect sizes ranged from -0.04 to 0.8, with 4 of 8 greater than 0.4. The patient-level meta-analysis confirmed these results; neither chronicity nor atypical features significantly affected outcome. Secondary analyses utilizing global ratings and self-report mimicked the main findings.",
"yes. New depression diagnosis and antidepressant use was shown to be less likely in areas of higher own-ethnic density for some, but not all, ethnic groups.",
"yes. These results confirm low serum BDNF levels in un-medicated depressed subjects and confirm antidepressant-induced increases in BDNF levels, but they suggest that antidepressants do not work simply by correcting BDNF insufficiency. Rather, these findings are consistent with a permissive or facilitatory role of BDNF in the mechanism of action of antidepressants.",
"yes. These findings strongly suggest that the adjunction of an SSRI to a 5-HT(4) agonist may help to optimize the fast-acting antidepressant efficacy of the latter.",
"yes. These results suggest that antidepressant treatment increases DLPFC under-activity during cognitive tasks that include emotional interference.",
"Neuromodulation therapies are currently being investigated as potential treatments for depression. One of these treatments involves the stimulation of supraorbital branches of the trigeminal nerve. To show that supraorbital stimulation is effective in preclinical models. Rats were given supraorbital stimulation at different settings in the forced swim test (FST) and open field. Supraorbital stimulation did not induce an antidepressant-like response in rats undergoing the FST. This is in contrast to other neuromodulation treatments, such as deep brain stimulation, vagus nerve stimulation and electroconvulsive therapy, which are all effective in this paradigm.",
"yes. The results of this study yield support for the use of combining medication with psychotherapy instead of using medication only in the treatment of depressed outpatients. Combination treatment does not have an advantage over psychotherapy alone in the present study.",
"A randomized controlled trial of problem-solving treatment, antidepressant medication and the combination of the two treatments found no difference in treatment efficacy for major depressive disorders in primary care. In addition to treatment outcome, the trial sought to determine possible mechanisms of action of the problem-solving intervention. Two potential mechanisms of action of problem-solving treatment were evaluated by comparison with drug treatment. First, did problem-solving treatment work by achieving problem resolution and secondly, did problem-solving treatment work by increasing the patients' sense of mastery and self-control? Problem-solving treatment did not achieve a greater resolution in the patients' perception of their problem severity by comparison with drug treatment, neither did problem-solving treatment result in a greater sense of mastery or self-control.",
"yes. If altered neurogenesis in the dentate gyrus is part of the therapeutic response to antidepressants such as fluoxetine, the results we report suggest that concurrent manipulation of the HPA axis might improve sensitivity to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in some treatment-resistant patients.",
"yes. Our results suggest that patients with dysthymia or minor depression are more likely to respond to antidepressant medication if they do not see their depression as a biological illness and see themselves as generally healthy. It is clearly not necessary for patients to believe that their dysthymia or minor depression is biological to respond to antidepressant medication.",
"yes. Antidepressant treatment was associated with elevated REM sleep without atonia (RSWA) even without REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD), suggesting that antidepressants, not depression, promote RSWA. Differences in RSWA distribution and type were also seen, with higher anterior tibialis RSWA in antidepressant-treated patients and higher tonic RSWA in Parkinson disease-RBD patients, which could aid distinction between RBD subtypes. These findings suggest that antidepressants may mediate different RSWA mechanisms or, alternatively, that RSWA type and distribution evolve during progressive neurodegeneration. Further prospective RSWA analyses are necessary to clarify the relationships between antidepressant treatment, psychiatric disease, and RBD.",
"Reboxetine and fluoxetine appear to have similar effects on depressive symptoms. These data suggest that NE and 5-HT selective antidepressant drugs act through the same final common pathway and challenge the belief that symptom differences are useful for antidepressant selection.",
"no. The current analysis is based on a small number of studies; further trials may yield significant results favoring duloxetine. Based upon the currently available evidence, the marketing of duloxetine as an antidepressant with analgesic properties for people with depression does not appear to be adequately supported.",
"yes. For patients on antidepressants, switching medications may be worthwhile in those with balance problems. The prudent addition of medications may also be an option.",
"A high-standard routine treatment focusing on the improvement of health behavior and including antidepressant and analgesic medication is equally effective as a short-term individual psychodynamic psychotherapy in improving fibromyalgia-related symptoms.",
"yes. Physical therapists should be aware, that several characteristics of major depression (e.g. loss of interest, motivation and energy, generalised fatigue, a low self-worth and self-confidence, fear to move, and psychosomatic complaints) and physical health problems interfere with participation in exercise. Therefore, motivational strategies should be incorporated in exercise interventions to enhance the patients' motivation and adherence in exercise programs. Implications for Rehabilitation For mild to moderate depression, the effect of exercise may be comparable with antidepressant medication and psychotherapy; for severe depression, exercise seems to be a valuable complementary therapy to the traditional treatments. Exercise therapy also improves physical health, body image, patient's coping strategies with stress, quality of life, and independence in activities of daily living in older adults. Motivational strategies should be incorporated in exercise interventions to enhance the patients' motivation.",
"Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more expensive than tricyclics. Reports have suggested that SSRIs are cost-effective because they are better tolerated and safer in overdose. A systematic review of all randomised controlled trials (RCTs), meta-analyses, and cost-effectiveness studies comparing SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). None of the RCTs provided an economic analysis and there were methodological problems in the majority which would preclude this approach. Meta-analyses suggest that clinical efficacy is equivalent but slightly fewer patients prescribed SSRIs drop out of RCTs. Cost-effectiveness studies have been based on crude 'modelling' approaches and over-estimate the difference in attrition rates and the cost of treatment failure. It appears impossible to evaluate the economic aspects of suicide because of its rarity.",
"yes. Low-intensity, high-frequency priming stimulation appears to enhance the response to low-frequency, right-sided rTMS treatment in patients with treatment-resistant depression.",
"The role of antidepressants in treating bipolar disorder is controversial, and the comparative effectiveness of specific drugs is insufficiently studied.We report here a comparison of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) with the serotonin reuptake inhibitor paroxetine (PAROX). We conducted a retrospective analysis of data from a larger study, using the first antidepressant trial administered either after entry (n = 46) or after a recurrent episode during study participation (n = 6).Twenty two patients were treated with PAROX and 30 with an MAOI. Durable recovery was determined from Hamilton depression and Young mania scores, based on published criteria. PAROX treatment led to durable recovery in 27% of patients, a result very similar to the 24% recovery rate found in a recent STEP-BD trial. In contrast, patients treated with an MAOI had a 53% durable recovery rate. Survival analysis showed a significantly faster onset of durable recovery with MAOIs (x2 = 4.77, p = 0.029). Among subjects who were able to complete an adequate treatment trial of at least four weeks duration, durable recovery was attained in a significantly greater proportion of those treated with an MAOI (16 of 23, 70%) as compared to PAROX (6 of 18, 33%)(Fisher's Exact Test, p = 0.023).",
"These findings support the efficacy of rTMS in hastening the response to antidepressant drugs in patients with major depressive disorder. The effect of rTMS seems to be unaffected by the specific concomitantly administered drug.",
"Olanzapine appears to be moderately effective in open add-on treatment in patients with mainly depressive symptoms. Accumulating evidence suggests that olanzapine, and atypical antipsychotics in general, possess mild to moderate adjunctive antidepressant properties.",
"yes. Although the current database is limited insofar as few patients with discrete social anxiety disorder would have been included, it is helpful in addressing the value of medication for patients lying on the spectrum from generalized to non-generalized and discrete social anxiety disorder. Paroxetine was effective in both more generalized and in less generalized social anxiety disorder.",
"yes. This study showed that imipramine possibly qualifies for a new use of an old drug and can be used as an effective orally active drug for the treatment of Kala-azar.",
"yes. In conclusion, MST shows antidepressant efficacy without apparent cognitive side effects. However, substantial research is required to understand the optimal conditions for stimulation and to compare MST to established treatments including ECT.",
"yes. This is the first study to demonstrate that antidepressants augment neural activity in mesolimbic DA incentive processing circuits in healthy volunteers. These effects are likely caused by the increase in monoamine neurotransmission in the ventral striatum. Our findings suggest that antidepressants may alleviate anhedonia by stimulating incentive processing.",
"yes. These early, direct effects of antidepressant administration on emotional processing are consistent with a cognitive neuropsychological model of antidepressant action.",
"It is unknown to which degree the effect of antidepressant drugs are related to baseline degree of depression, dose level, patient's age, or type of questionnaire used. We explored this for paroxetine. We used placebo-controlled published and unpublished randomized, double-blind, clinical trials of paroxetine that included moderate to severely depressed patients in an outpatient setting. We specified random-effect models for the Hamilton 17-item and Hamilton 21-item studies separately and jointly. Among 35 studies retrieved, we considered 26 appropriate for a pooled analysis. Paroxetine (placebo) was given to 2958 (2123) patients. We found that the effects of paroxetine, the differences between score reduction in drug versus placebo group, are smaller in Hamilton 17 (3.8%) than in Hamilton 21 studies (7.0%). The mean difference is 3.2% (95% confidence interval, 0.94%-5.42%), statistically significant by meta-regression analysis. Treatment effects did not change with mean age of patients, early or late studies, baseline score value, or maximal daily dose.",
"Subjects treated in antidepressant trials represent a minority of patients treated for major depression in routine clinical practice. These results show that antidepressant efficacy trials tend to evaluate a subset of depressed individuals with a specific clinical profile.",
"Since depression entails not only dramatic personal disruption but also a huge amount of medical and socioeconomic burden, slowness of antidepressant action and difficulties to attain remission are entangled issues to be solved. Given the controversial previous findings with enhancing strategies such as pindolol, we examined whether the speed of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) action can be truly accelerated with optimized pindolol dosage. Additionally, we aimed at elucidating whether pindolol benefits emerge, particularly in a population with nonresistant depression. Thirty outpatients with major depressive disorder (DSM-IV criteria) recruited between December 2002 and November 2005 were randomly assigned to receive citalopram + pindolol (5 mg tid) or citalopram + placebo for 6 weeks in a double-blind randomized clinical trial. A meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials of pindolol augmentation in patients with nonresistant depression was also performed. Outcome criteria were based on the 17-item Hamilton Depression Rating Scale. For the meta-analysis, efficacy was assessed by the number of treatment responders at 2 weeks and 4-6 weeks. Clinical trial outcomes: Repeated-measures analysis of variance showed a significant group-by-time interaction (P = .01). Cumulative percentage showed a trend for sustained response (odds ratio [OR] = 2.09; 95% CI, 0.914-4.780; P = .08) and a well-defined increased likelihood of sustaining remission (OR = 5.00; 95% CI, 1.191-20.989; P = .03) in pindolol receivers. Median survival time until first response was 65% less in the pindolol group (22 days vs 30days; P = .03). The negative binomial regression model yielded different rates of response per person-day for pindolol and placebo groups (7.6% vs 4.7%, respectively; P = .03). Meta-analysis: Outcome favored pindolol at 2 weeks' time (relative risk [RR] = 1.68; 95% CI, 1.18-2.39; P = .004) and also at 4-6 weeks' time (RR = 1.11; 95% CI, 1.02-1.20; P = .02).",
"Controlled trials do not suggest differences in efficacy between antidepressant compounds. Psychiatrists, however, frequently express the view that real differences do exist and are relevant to clinical practice. Since multiple comparative trials are not feasible, an alternative method for expanding the evidence base is to survey regularly the opinions of practising psychiatrists. Two surveys of psychiatrists' opinions were conducted. Participants in the first survey were drawn from contact with ' A National Depression Project', while those in the second survey responded to a brief questionnaire distributed with Australasian Psychiatry. Reported volumes of scripts written, ratings of efficacy and tolerability, and preferences in specific clinical situations indicate that clinical psychiatrists now strongly prefer the newer antidepressant agents. They rate serotonin and noradrenalin re-uptake inhibitors (SNRIs) and selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) highest for antidepressant efficacy, serotonin receptor subtype 2 (5HT2) antagonists and some SSRIs highest for anti-anxiety efficacy, and some SSRIs and reversible inhibitors of monoamine oxidase inhibitor-A (RIMAs) lowest for side-effect burden. Further, SSRIs were their first preferences for most clinical situations. Serotonin and noradrenalin re-uptake inhibitors were the preferred choice for treatment-resistant depression and patients who had failed to respond to one SSRI. Serotonin receptor subtype 2 antagonists were the second choice to SSRIs for mixed anxiety and depression, and major depression with sleep disturbance. Reversible inhibitors of monoamine oxidase inhibitor-A were the second choice to SSRIs for adolescents with major depression, patients aged over 65 years, patients with serious medical illnesses and patients with chronic fatigue. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were the preferred choice for patients with chronic pain, and second choice to SSRIs for patients with major depression with panic disorder, postnatal disorders and patients with psychotic depression.",
"yes. Compared to placebo, modafinil was efficient in reducing daytime microsleep following partial sleep deprivation but did not enhance the antidepressive effects of PSD and did not stabilize antidepressive effects over two weeks.",
"It has long been thought that there is a delay of several weeks before a true antidepressant effect occurs, although this theory has increasingly come into question. The goals of this meta-analysis were to determine whether significant drug-placebo separation occurs during the first 2 weeks of treatment and to ascertain whether the timing of response to antidepressant medication and placebo is distinct. Seventy-six double-blind, placebo-controlled trials conducted between 1981 and 2000, included in a recently published meta-analysis that evaluated placebo response rates in depressed outpatients, were reviewed. In addition, each issue of 6 psychiatric journals from January 1992 through December 2001 was reviewed. Forty-seven studies that evaluated antidepressant medications with established efficacy, performed weekly or biweekly (every other week) evaluations, and presented the time course of improvement as measured by the Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression were included in our meta-analysis. The time course of improvement on active medication and placebo was nearly identical, as 60.2% and 61.6% of the improvement that occurred on active medication and placebo, respectively, took place during the first 2 weeks of treatment. Drug-placebo differences were not only present but were most pronounced during the first 2 weeks of treatment and diminished in a stepwise fashion thereafter. A series of subanalyses confirmed that this early drug-placebo separation was clinically observable and represented a true drug effect.",
"yes. Treatment with antidepressant citalopram in the acute but not in the late phase after MI significantly increased mortality in mice by disturbing early healing. Pharmacological MMP inhibition partially reversed the deleterious effects of citalopram.",
"yes. These results demonstrate a behaviourally effective oral and chronic regimen for carbamazepine with mood stabilising-like activity in a standard model for mania-like behaviour and two standard models for depression-like behaviour.",
"yes. Poor physical health is associated with increased likelihood of pharmacological but not individual psychotherapeutic treatment. Physical health problems may increase the need for depression care or increase contact with the medical system leading to higher levels of pharmacological treatment. Access to psychotherapy may need to be increased for Veterans with poor physical health.",
"Antidepressants are prescribed in a wide range of doses to treat both depression and chronic pain, with optimal psychopharmacology individualized for each patient. In the past decade more antidepressants from different chemical classes have become available and are being used for the treatment of both chronic pain and depression. To review the utilization pattern changes and compare response rates of different classes and doses of antidepressants for various pain conditions in the context of multimodal therapies. Chart review. We reviewed 5,916 records at an outpatient multidisciplinary pain center. Of these, 379 records were for patients diagnosed with cancer pain. Because the mechanisms and treatment approaches to cancer pain can differ greatly from non-cancer chronic pain, these records were excluded from the analysis. We assessed 1,506 medical records for patients with chronic non-caner pain who had used at least one antidepressant, with the main outcome measure being the Numeric Rating Pain Scale, 0-10. Of the 5,916 charts reviewed, 1,506 (25.4%) chronic non-cancer pain charts recorded the prescription of at least one antidepressant. Most patients received a combination of medications and procedures. Of the 450 patients receiving secondary amines, favorable responses were recorded for 340 (76%) patients, while 103 (23%) did not respond and 7 had unknown responses. Of the 492 patients receiving tertiary amines, favorable responses were recorded for 375 (76%) patients, while 113 (23%) did not respond, and 4 had unknown responses. Of the 533 patients receiving SSRI/SNRIs, favorable responses were recorded for 382 (72%) patients, while 147 (28%) did not respond, and 4 had unknown responses. Of the 369 patients receiving atypical antidepressants, favorable responses were recorded for 272 (74%) patients, while 94 (25%) did not respond, and 3 had unknown responses.",
"These preliminary cases suggest that estrogen can enhance the efficacy of antidepressant medication in menopausal women and this adjunctive treatment strategy may be superior to antidepressant or estrogen alone. Further research is needed in elucidating the mechanisms by which estrogen may enhance antidepressant action in perimenopausal women.",
"No evidence emerged for significant covariation of antidepressant pharmacotherapy with neuroticism or extraversion scores. By contrast, changes in both personality dimensions were associated with changes in depressive symptoms, those in neuroticism also in anxiety symptoms. If antidepressants influence these personality dimensions, the effect size is likely markedly smaller than that of the disorders for which they are prescribed.",
"The results from this study did not support the hypotheses that for patients with major depression, by comparison with antidepressant medication: problem-solving treatment would result in better problem resolution; or that problem-solving treatment would increase the patients' sense of mastery and self-control.",
"yes. Concomitant intrathecal pretreatment and post-injury intra-peritoneal amitriptyline was more effective than post-injury treatment alone on attenuation of behavioral hypersensitivity, decrease of activated microglia and astrocytes and dysregulated Nav1.3 and 1.8.",
"yes. Fluoxetine is effective in improving QOL, particularly so in the mental health subdomain. Our results suggest that fluoxetine may be used to improve the QOL of stroke patients with emotional disturbances.",
"These data suggest that patients with high negative affectivity respond preferentially to antidepressants that selectively enhance serotonin neurotransmission. Although patients with low NA appear to benefit from serotonin enhancement as well, they also improved with bupropion, an antidepressant not thought to directly affect serotonin neurotransmission. These findings come from retrospective analyses using unproven approximation of NA, so no clinical inferences should be made before independent replication utilizing accepted NA measurement.",
"yes. These results suggest that benzodiazepines might interfere with the clinical effects of fluoxetine or that increased neurogenesis is not a valid model for the delayed onset of the clinical antidepressant effects.",
"The results support earlier findings that early improvement in the first two weeks may predict with high sensitivity later response and remission, even in hospitalized patients suffering from a more severe degree of depression. Since we used a naturalistic study design, the data may be considered as a replication of previous results drawn from RCTs in a naturalistic environment. We found a global antidepressant effect which was consistent across treatment subgroups regarding sensitivity values. However, we are aware of the inability of effectiveness studies to draw causal treatment relationships from the uncontrolled approach. Nevertheless, the replication of previous results might indicate that a drug switch during treatment in case of lack of early improvement could be accelerated.",
"The results indicate that, in patients diagnosed with psychogenic pain or somatoform pain disorder, antidepressant treatment resulted in a reduction in pain that was significantly greater than that of placebo. Possible explanations for these results are discussed.",
"Several studies demonstrated significant antidepressant efficacy for patients having nonsevere MDD. Efficacy was not trivial, as NNT ranged from 3 to 8, a range accepted by researchers as sufficiently robust to recommend treatment. These findings suggest mild-moderate MDD can benefit from antidepressants, contrary to findings by several other meta- or mega-analyses.",
"yes. The results suggest that these mood-stabilizing drugs and antipsychotics are endowed with clinically favorable inertness rather than pro-inflammatory properties.",
"A subset of patients undergoing initial antidepressant treatment experience worsening of symptoms, including thoughts of suicide or suicidal behavior. The present study explores whether this subset of patients is also more likely to experience recurrence or worsening of these symptoms during a second treatment trial with a different antidepressant. We examined data collected between July 2001 and September 2006 from the Sequenced Treatment Alternatives to Relieve Depression (STAR*D) study, a multicenter effectiveness study of outpatients with major depressive disorder diagnosed by a DSM-IV checklist. In that study, subjects who did not remit with citalopram treatment were randomized among next-step treatment options. The main outcome measure for this post hoc analysis, presence of suicidal thoughts and behaviors, was assessed using the suicide item on the 16-item Quick Inventory of Depressive Symptomatology--Self-Rated. Logistic regression was used to examine association between emergence or worsening of these symptoms with the first-step (level 1) citalopram treatment and emergence or worsening with next-step (level 2) pharmacologic or psychosocial treatment, including augmentation with bupropion or buspirone; switch to sertraline, venlafaxine, or bupropion; or addition of or switch to cognitive therapy. Of 1,240 subjects entering level 2 with a score less than 3 on the suicide item, 102 (8.2%) experienced emergence or worsening of suicidal thoughts or behaviors. Emergence or worsening at level 1 was strongly associated with reemergence or worsening at level 2 (crude OR = 4.00 [95% CI, 2.45-6.51], adjusted OR = 2.95 [95% CI, 1.76-4.96]). Overall magnitude of risk was similar among next-step pharmacologic augmentation versus switching.",
"yes. These results suggest that rTMS treatment brings about some improvement in refractory depression, especially for symptoms such as agitation, by influencing MHPG and BDNF, which is in accordance with previous reports showing that BDNF was increased by various antidepressants treatments.",
"yes. These results replicate those from the pilot trial reported by Perini et al. and are consistent with literature indicating that Internet-based programmes for depression and other mental disorders combined with clinical guidance can result in clinically significant improvements. These data provide further support for the development of Internet-based treatment for common mental disorders.",
"The effects of ATD on psychiatric symptoms in currently depressed patients are remarkably different from the results in recently remitted SSRI-treated patients. ATD in currently depressed patients treated with serotonergic antidepressants possibly provides important information about the mechanism of action of SSRIs.",
"Evaluating different outcome criteria, our naturalistic data of a large cohort seem to reject the hypothesis that antidepressants may be less effective in the acute treatment of bipolar I compared to unipolar depressed patients.",
"yes. Reboxetine-induced higher postsynaptic norepinephrine level enhances intracortical excitability as measured with ppTMS. This finding provides new perspectives for evaluating neurophysiological properties of antidepressive medication and for investigating the pathophysiology of depression.",
"yes. rTMS given at low frequency over the right frontal cortex appears to be as effective treatment of refractory depression as high frequency treatment over the left frontal cortex.",
"Antidepressants have appeared to be more effective than placebo treatment in treating depressive syndromes in patients with Parkinson's disease (PD). To identify factors that predict improvement in depressive symptoms during antidepressant treatment in depressed PD patients. A secondary analysis was performed on the dataset of the Randomized Placebo-controlled Study of Antidepressants in PD (SAD-PD), in which 76 patients received active treatment with either paroxetine or venlafaxine extended release (XR), and 39 patients received placebo treatment. Backward stepwise regression analyses were conducted with change in 24-item Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAMD-24) score between assessments at baseline and week 12 as the main outcome measure, and sex, age, baseline HAMD-24 score, Unified Parkinson's Disease Rating Scale section III (UPDRS-III) score, Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE), and the Clinical Anxiety Scale (CAS) as independent variables. In both the active treatment and placebo groups, higher baseline HAMD-24 score and lower UPDRS-III score were associated with greater reduction in HAMD-24 score. Higher anxiety scores predicted less response in the active treatment group. Higher MMSE scores predicted greater response only in the placebo-treated group. Sex and age were no predictors of response.",
"Extended clonazepam cotherapy of fluoxetine appeared safe and effective for depressed outpatients: it was superior to fluoxetine alone early in treatment and again following fluoxetine dose increase. Cotherapy might be considered at the start of fluoxetine treatment, especially for those with insomnia, and when a dose increase of fluoxetine is anticipated.",
"yes. DTMS over the PFC proved to be safe and effective in augmenting antidepressant medications. Negative cognitive-emotional reactivation can disrupt the therapeutic effect of DTMS. A large sham controlled study is required to further establish the effectiveness of DTMS as an augmentation treatment and the role of cognitive reactivation during stimulation.",
"yes. HFL-rTMS and LFR-rTMS appear to be equally efficacious in treating major depression. This study adds to the growing literature supporting LFR-rTMS as an additional viable method of rTMS delivery in the treatment of depression.",
"Timing issues of antidepressant drug response are of major clinical relevance, given our current inability to predict when a particular patient will respond to a particular treatment. We detailed the time characteristics of recovery in a study of 2848 patients (diagnosed according to DSM-III-R/DSM-IV criteria as having major depressive disorder or major depressive episode) who were treated with 7 different anti-depressants and placebo. A 2-dimensional cure model was used to disentangle the 2 central aspects of psychotropic drug response: the proportion of patients in whom a therapeutic response is induced ( incidence) and the time to onset of improvement ( latency). Random-effects models were applied to quantify unexplained heterogeneity. Patients were recruited between June 1982 and May 1998. Our analyses yielded no indication for a delayed onset of antidepressant drug response. Rather, we found highly individual time characteristics of recovery along with a continuous distribution of the time spans to onset of improvement under treatment with all active compounds and placebo. The mean +/- SD time to onset of improvement was 13 +/- 1 days and to response was 19 +/- 1 days. Effective antidepressants appeared to trigger and maintain conditions necessary for recovery from the disorder. Odds-ratio analysis based on a random-effects model revealed that early improvers were at least 3 times more likely to become sustained responders with a pooled OR of 9.25, 95% CI = 7.79 to 10.98.",
"yes. Higher pre-treatment depression scores and lower pre-treatment anxiety scores are the two most important predictors for improvement during antidepressant treatment in depressed PD patients, which is in line with those found in treatment studies of depressed non-PD patients. Furthermore, our results indicate the requirement for different or more intensive treatment for depressed PD patients with more severe anxiety symptoms.",
"Both groups differed significantly in several baseline measures and final Global Assessment of Functioning scores but not in any other outcome measure. Challenging current beliefs, our findings show that results from efficacy antidepressant trials might be more generalizable than previously thought.",
"no. Duloxetine was more effective than placebo in achieving response and remission in both anxious and nonanxious patients. Anxious status did not affect the magnitude of the drug effect.",
"yes. These results suggest that BDNF protein is rapidly elevated by antidepressant treatments by posttranscriptional mechanisms, and that induction of BDNF mRNA is a slower process.",
"Even though enhanced acute-phase treatment of depression in primary care resulted in better treatment adherence and better clinical outcomes at 4 and 7 months, these improvements failed to persist over the following year. Continued enhancement of depression treatment may be needed to ensure better long-term results.",
"Bupropion and fluvoxamine appear less effective in long-term treatment of MDD. These results should be confirmed by randomized placebo-controlled prospective studies with larger samples.",
"Both the mono-treatments (CBT and SSRI) and the combined treatment (CBT + SSRI) proved to be effective treatments for PD. At post-test, CBT + SSRI was clearly superior to CBT, but differences between CBT + SSRI and SSRI, and between SSRI and CBT, were small.",
"yes. These findings from newly hospitalized patients with multiple pain measures support the previous studies, which enrolled mainly outpatients and found that a higher level of pain can have a strong negative impact on the antidepressant response. These data require confirmation and extension to outpatients and other antidepressants.",
"yes. So far, the mental health field has tended to focus on either biological or psychological targets. We propose that maximizing treatment success may require an integrated approach that does not dichotomize biological and psychological aspects. Exciting new developments reflecting this perspective include psychopharmacologic augmentation strategies that enhance the mechanisms of psychotherapy.",
"SD is capable of inducing pronounced antidepressant effects. In contrast to a previous study, active rTMS was not superior to sham rTMS in stabilizing the antidepressant effects of SD, which was mainly due to a pronounced effect in the sham group in this study population.",
"yes. Behavioral effects of acute fluoxetine administration resemble those produced by uncontrollable stress. Results are consistent with the idea that exercise can produce resistance against the anxiogenic effects of acute increases in 5-HT and suggest that acute behavioral effects of antidepressants can depend on history of physical activity.",
"yes. In short-term, placebo-controlled, pediatric studies of antidepressants, active drug treatment was associated with a rate of serious suicidal events almost twice that of placebo.",
"yes. Opposite to the effects of antidepressant drug treatment with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, the Living Well With Stroke psychotherapy intervention was most effective in 5-HTTLPR s-allele carriers and STin2VNTR 9- or 12-repeat carriers.",
"to present clinical guidelines for exercise therapy in depressed patients derived from recent meta-analyses. four meta-analyses on effects of physical exercise on mental and physical in depression were analysed. For mild to moderate depression the effect of exercise may be comparable to antidepressant medication and psychotherapy; for severe depression exercise seems to be a valuable complementary therapy to the traditional treatments. Depression is associated with a high incidence of co-morbid somatic illnesses, especially cardiovascular diseases, type 2 diabetes and metabolic syndrome. Exercise is extremely powerful in preventing and treating these diseases. Physical exercise is an outstanding opportunity for the treatment of patients who have a mix of mental and physical health problems. Exercise therapy also improves body image, patient s coping strategies with stress, quality of life and independence in activities of daily living in older adults.",
"yes. These data suggest that LY341495 has the ability to produce rapid and robust antidepressant effects similar to ketamine. Together, the results highlight the potential for similar compounds to produce rapid and lasting efficacy for the treatment of depression.",
"Present findings represent further evidence of the acceleration and enhancement of efficacy with pindolol administered together with SSRIs, displaying a quicker and more pronounced decrease of symptoms in patients with nonresistant major depressive disorder.",
"yes. Antidepressant treatment seems to be less effective among those patients that need it most. Clinical trials including suicidal patients are needed to investigate specific treatment options.",
"yes. Brain stimulation is effective in a drug-resistant, inherited animal model for depression. BDNF alterations in specific regions may mediate different antidepressant effects.",
"Remission and response rates following initial antidepressant treatment failure did not differ by treatment strategy for patients with coexisting atypical symptoms or insomnia. However, some second-step treatments for depression may be more effective than others in the presence of coexisting low energy. Subsequent prospective testing is necessary to confirm these initial findings.",
"yes. Antidepressants acting on both the serotoninergic and noradrenergic systems might represent a valid resource not only for the treatment of depression but also for improving emotional unawareness in stroke patients.",
"yes. This study shows that the new SSRI escitalopram has better efficacy in the treatment of severe depression than citalopram, its racemic parent. Mean differences between treatments groups were in favour of escitalopram for all scales. The benefits of escitalopram compared with citalopram, as demonstrated by both magnitude of effect and time of onset, are superior to the benefits of citalopram, an antidepressant drug with proven efficacy. This evidence clearly supports the use of escitalopram as a legitimate first-line treatment for MDD.",
"Multiple physical symptoms predict response to antidepressants, but not after adjustment for baseline depression severity. Physical symptoms could be a marker of severe depression rather than an independent prognostic factor and depression should be considered in patients with multiple physical symptoms. Treatment with reboxetine conferred no advantage over citalopram in those with physical symptoms, and it is less well tolerated.",
"yes. Evidence-based treatment for anxiety disorders in primary care improves physical functioning when measured using oblique scoring of the SF-12. Due to this scoring issue, effects of mental health treatment on physical functioning may have been understated.",
"yes. The concomitant administration of certain commonly prescribed antidepressant drugs that affect the serotonergic neurotransmission (i.e., typical tricyclic antidepressants and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) with a negative modulator selectively binding to the GluN1/N2B subunits of the NMDA receptor complex (i.e., ifenprodil) may induce a more pronounced antidepressant-like effect than monotherapy. However, these findings still need to be confirmed in further experiments.",
"it does appear that the antidepressants identified by Cipriani are effective compared with other monotherapies. Medication doses need to be optimised in order to achieve optimal treatment in Depression. Our results suggest that co-morbid undiagnosed other mental illness may often be a cause of 'resistant depression'. We recommend that all CMHTs should carry out audits of their prescribing practice in order to optimise treatment outcomes.",
"yes. In this large study of nursing home residents, there was little difference in rates of falls between those treated with tricyclic antidepressants and those treated with selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors. Hence, the preferential use of the newer antidepressants is unlikely to reduce the higher rate of falls among nursing home residents taking antidepressants.",
"The aim of this study was to determine, in a clinical panel sample, the extent to which patients with depression (and melancholic and non-melancholic subtypes) judged the effectiveness of previously received antidepressant treatments, particularly the comparative effectiveness of the older and newer antidepressant drugs. Twenty-seven Australasian psychiatrists assessed 341 non-psychotic depressed patients and rated the extent to which previous antidepressant treatments had been effective. Patients were assigned to 'melancholic' and residual 'non-melancholic' categories by two processes (DSM-IV decision rules, and a cluster analysis-derived allocation) and treatment effectiveness examined within each category. Electroconvulsive therapy (both bilateral and unilateral) was judged as highly effective by both melancholic and non-melancholic patients. Antipsychotic medication similarly rated highly (but was judged as more effective by the non-melancholic than melancholic patients). The tricyclics and irreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) were rated as more effective by the whole sample than several newer antidepressant classes (including the selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors [SSRIs], venlafaxine, mianserin and moclobemide), whether effectiveness was examined dimensionally or categorically. Comparison of the overall tricyclic and SSRI classes indicated that any superior tricyclic effectiveness was specific to the melancholic subjects.",
"The absence of significant differences in efficacy between selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and imipramine in these trials is at least in part due to improper dosing of the latter; imipramine with therapeutic drug monitoring may be more effective than SSRIs.",
"yes. These findings suggest that antidepressants restore normal responding by permitting more effective adaptation to novel stimuli.",
"yes. Reboxetine is an effective antidepressant with an early onset of action. Depressed mood is relieved first, followed by an improvement in interest in daily activities.",
"yes. rTMS has the same antidepressant efficacy as fluoxetine and may have the additional advantage of some motor improvement and earlier cognitive improvement, with fewer adverse effects.",
"To investigate the effects of exclusively physical presentation of depression on 1). depression management and outcomes under usual care conditions, and 2). the impact of an intervention to improve management and outcomes. Secondary analysis of a depression intervention trial in 12 community-based primary care practices. Two hundred adults beginning a new treatment episode for depression. Presenting complaint and physician depression query at index visit; antidepressant use, completion of adequate antidepressant trial, change in depressive symptoms, and physical and emotional role functioning at 6 months. Sixty-six percent of depressed patients presented exclusively with physical symptoms. Under usual care conditions, psychological presenters were more likely than physical presenters to complete an adequate trial of antidepressant treatment but experienced equivalent improvements in depressive severity and role functioning. In patients presenting exclusively with physical symptoms, the intervention significantly improved physician query (40.8% vs 18.0%; P =.06), receipt of any antidepressant (63.0% vs 20.1%; P =.001), and an adequate antidepressant trial (34.9% vs 5.9%; P =.004), but did not significantly improve depression severity or role functioning. In patients presenting with psychological symptoms, the intervention significantly improved receipt of any antidepressant (79.9% vs 38.0%; P =.01) and an adequate antidepressant trial (46.0% vs 23.8%; P =.004), and also improved depression severity and physical and emotional role functioning.",
"Despite methodological limitations intrinsic to such clinical panel data, the judged greater effectiveness of the older antidepressants (tricyclics and irreversible MAOIs) for melancholic depression is of importance. If valid, such data are of intrinsic clinical relevance but also have the potential to inform us about the neurobiological determinants of 'melancholia' and pharmacological actions which contribute to its effective treatment.",
"yes. Our results emphasize that studies into the therapeutical efficacy of new antidepressants, especially those targeting HPA-activity or the glucocorticoid receptor, should explore the possibility to reduce treatment duration.",
"Using data from the GenPod trial this study investigates: (i) if depressed individuals with multiple physical symptoms have a poorer response to antidepressants before and after adjustment for baseline Beck Depression Inventory II (BDI-II); and (ii) if reboxetine is more effective than citalopram in depression with multiple physical symptoms. Linear regression models were used to estimate differences in mean BDI-II score at 6 and 12 weeks. Before adjusting for baseline BDI-II, the difference in mean BDI-II score between no and multiple physical symptoms was 4.5 (95% CI 1.87, 7.14) at 6 weeks, 4.51 (95% CI 1.60, 7.42) at 12 weeks. After adjustment for baseline BDI-II, there was no evidence of a difference in outcome according to physical symptoms with a difference in mean BDI-II of 2.17 (95% CI -0.39, 4.73) at 6 weeks and 2.43 (95% CI -0.46, 5.32) at 12 weeks. There was no evidence that reboxetine was more effective than citalopram in those with multiple physical symptoms at 6 (P=0.18) or 12 weeks (P=0.24). Differential non-adherence between treatment arms has the potential to bias estimates of treatment efficacy.",
"yes. Newer generation antidepressant medications clearly differ in their efficacy as a function of baseline symptom severity. The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor escitalopram had superior efficacy in the treatment of more severe depression, perhaps attributable to differential efficacy related to symptoms of negativistic thinking."
] | 748 |
Does syndrome X exist in hypertensive elderly persons with impaired glycemic control? | [
"This report focuses on the glycemic state in relation to insulin and lipid levels of a cohort of elderly hypertensive persons to estimate the prevalence of syndrome X. A cross-sectional study was performed at the University of Tennessee, Memphis, and the General Clinical Research Center (GCRC) on 95 participants in the Trial of Nonpharmacologic Interventions in the Elderly (TONE) study who agreed to participate in an ancillary study. A standard oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with insulin and C-peptide levels and a fasting lipid profile were obtained. In this sample of healthy elderly participants with hypertension who were taking an antihypertensive medication, 43 (45.3%) had normal glucose tolerance (NGT), 41 (43.2%) had impaired glucose tolerance (IGT), and 11 (11.6%) had undiagnosed non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM). Fasting hyperinsulinemia occurred in only one participant, who was in the IGT group. Hypertriglyceridemia and low high density lipoprotein (HDL) occurred in four persons, none of whom had hyperinsulinemia. Persons in the NIDDM and IGT groups had decreased beta cell function compared to persons in the NGT group, but did not have increased peripheral insulin resistance as estimated from the OGTT data.",
"Our data demonstrated that in this cohort of elderly hypertensive participants with a high prevalence of central obesity, impaired glycemic control was common, but was not associated with fasting hyperinsulinemia or peripheral insulin resistance. Furthermore, we conclude that syndrome X essentially did not occur in these participants and postulate that the primary etiology for their impaired glycemic control is beta cell dysfunction. Further research is needed to elucidate these relationships."
] | [
"To assess the contribution of insulin release and glucose disposal by insulin-dependent and insulin-independent mechanisms to overall glucose tolerance in hypertension. Minimal model analysis of insulin and glucose data from frequently sampled intravenous glucose-tolerance tests from 21 non-diabetic, newly diagnosed hypertensives, and from 21 age- and weight-matched normotensive controls, was performed to obtain indices of glucose tolerance, beta-cell function and insulin sensitivity. Intravenous glucose tolerance (defined as the glucose disappearance rate constant) was significantly correlated with the minimal model parameters for insulin sensitivity, glucose effectiveness or insulin-independent glucose uptake, and first- and second-phase beta-cell responsiveness (phi 1 and phi 2). First-phase insulin release, expressed either as the area under the insulin-time curve between 0 and 10 min or as the ratio of that area to total insulin area was also correlated with glucose tolerance. Despite similar basal insulin and glucose concentrations, glucose tolerance was clearly diminished among the hypertensives. This could not be accounted for by insulin resistance or by changes in insulin-independent glucose uptake. Insulin release was diminished, as evidenced by the lower phi 2 among the hypertensives. phi 2 was inversely correlated with systolic (r = -0.44, P < 0.003) and diastolic (r = -0.42, P < 0.006) blood pressures. These differences were independent of body weight. Hypertensives also exhibited a lower fractional clearance rate for insulin.",
"yes. These data suggest that PROX1 SNP rs340874, discovered in fasting glucose GWAS, may also be a pharmacogenetic risk factor for antihypertensive-induced hyperglycemia. β-blockers and thiazides may interact with genetic risk factors to increase risk for dysglycemia and diabetes.",
"yes. These novel findings indicate that insulin resistance short of diabetes and independent of age and hypertension has a negative impact on retinal vessel health. Moreover, impaired retinal vessel health related to brain atrophy also was independent of hypertension and white matter hyperintensities. Given the connections between retinal and cerebral vasculature, this may offer a partial explanation for the presence of cognitive and brain abnormalities among individuals with insulin resistance.",
"True resistant hypertension (RH) is defined as uncontrolled office and ambulatory blood pressure (BP) in spite of an optimal regimen with at least three antihypertensive drugs. The aim of this study is to identify, in the office, clinical, laboratory, electrocardiographic, and echocardiographic variables associated with the occurrence of true RH. These variables were recorded in a cross-sectional study involving 497 resistant hypertensive patients diagnosed by ambulatory BP monitoring as true RH (63.0%) or white coat RH (37.0%). Statistical analysis included bivariate and multivariate logistic regression. In bivariate analysis, true RH patients were younger, more frequently men, and had significantly higher office BP than white coat RH patients. They also had higher prevalence of physical inactivity, heart failure, and retinopathy, higher fasting glycemia, 24-h proteinuria and albuminuria, and lower serum potassium. In addition, these patients had higher electrocardiographic Sokolow and Cornell voltages and echocardiographic left ventricular mass index and hypertrophy. In multivariate logistic regression the variables best associated with true RH were male sex (P = .026), office systolic BP>or =180 mm Hg (P = .016), fasting glycemia>or =7.0 mmol/L (P = .042), serum potassium<4.5 mmol/L (P = .037), abnormal microalbuminuria (P<.001), adjusted Cornell voltage>or =2.6 mV (P = .002), and echocardiographic left ventricular hypertrophy (P = .009). In an alternative simpler model, proteinuria substituted microalbuminuria and echocardiographic data was excluded. Both predictive models have areas under receiver operating characteristic curve of 0.70.",
"Postprandial hyperglycemia has emerged as a new glycometabolic condition associated with an excessive risk for coronary artery disease. We therefore attempted to evaluate the frequency of postchallenge hyperglycemia in patients with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) who were not previously diagnosed to have diabetes and did not have a fasting glucose concentration of > or =7 mmol/l or an HbA(1c) level >6.0%. We further correlated the presence of postchallenge hyperglycemia with the extent of coronary atherosclerosis. In all, 134 consecutive ACS patients who met the above inclusion criteria were studied. An oral glucose tolerance test was performed before discharge. The mean age, fasting glucose, and HbA(1c) were 60 years, 5.15 mmol/l, and 5.4%, respectively. Among ACS patients, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) and diabetes were found in 50 (37%) and 13 patients (10%), respectively. The homeostasis model assessment for insulin resistance did not differ substantially among the normal glucose tolerance (NGT), IGT, and diabetic groups. Insulinogenic index, however, was lower and the number of stenosed vessels higher in diabetic patients compared with NGT patients.",
"To determine whether there is a longitudinal relationship between hypertension and hyperinsulinemia and to find the most useful parameter(s) for predicting the subsequent development of hypertension. The oral glucose (75 g) tolerance test (OGTT) was performed in 313 patients, who were divided into three groups according to glucose tolerance based on the WHO criteria: normal, borderline and diabetes mellitus. The fasting insulin (IRI) levels, sigmaIRI (the sum of the insulin levels 0, 30, 60 and 120 min after the OGTT), insulinogenic index and Homa's index, a candidate for the simple assessment of insulin sensitivity, of the normotensive and hypertensive subjects in each subgroup were compared. In addition, 145 normotensive subjects were followed up for over 3 years and observed for the development of hypertension. Hypertensive diabetic subjects had not only higher fasting IRI levels and sigmaIRI values, but they also had higher Homa's indices than normotensive diabetics. Normotensive subjects with normal glucose tolerance (n = 20) did not develop hypertension. However, 16 out of 94 patients with borderline glucose tolerance and five out of 31 diabetics became hypertensive. The incidence of hypertension in the group with fasting IRI > or = 15, sigmaIRI > or = 150 or Homa's index > or = 4 was between 5 and 9 times higher than that in the group with fasting IRI < 10, sigmaIRI < 100 or Homa's index < 2. This difference was still significant when multivariate analysis, including various factors such as age, body mass index (BMI) and sex, was performed.",
"Hypertensive patients with metabolic syndrome (MS) are at greater risk for cardiovascular disease. To get a better understanding of the pathophysiology underlying this association, we evaluated the relationship between MS and subclinical organ damage in essential hypertensive patients. A total of 354 untreated, nondiabetic patients with primary hypertension were included in the study. A modified ATP III definition for MS was used, with body mass index replacing waist circumference. Albuminuria was measured as albumin to creatinine ratio, left ventricular mass index (LVMI) was assessed by echocardiography and carotid abnormalities by ultrasonography. The prevalence of MS was 25%. Patients with MS were more likely to be smokers (P = 0.004) and had higher serum uric acid levels (P = 0.004). Moreover, they showed higher urinary albumin excretion (P = 0.0004) and LVMI (P = 0.0006), increased intima-media thickness (P = 0.045), as well as higher prevalence of microalbuminuria (P = 0.03) and left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH; P = 0.003). After adjusting for age, gender and duration of hypertension, we found that the presence of MS entails a twofold greater risk for microalbuminuria (P = 0.04), LVH (P = 0.003) and carotid abnormalities (P < 0.05). When patients were stratified according to the number of components of MS, albuminuria (P = 0.002) and LVMI (P = 0.005) increased progressively across categories.",
"Although many studies have identified patient characteristics or chronic diseases associated with medication adherence, the clinical utility of such predictors has rarely been assessed. We attempted to develop clinical prediction rules for adherence with antihypertensive medications in 2 healthcare delivery systems. We performed retrospective cohort studies of hypertension registries in an inner-city healthcare delivery system (n=17 176) and a health maintenance organization (n=94 297) in Denver, Colo. Adherence was defined by acquisition of 80% or more of antihypertensive medications. A multivariable model in the inner-city system found that adherent patients (36.3% of the total) were more likely than nonadherent patients to be older, white, married, and acculturated in US society, to have diabetes or cerebrovascular disease, not to abuse alcohol or controlled substances, and to be prescribed fewer than 3 antihypertensive medications. Although statistically significant, all multivariate odds ratios were 1.7 or less, and the model did not accurately discriminate adherent from nonadherent patients (C statistic=0.606). In the health maintenance organization, where 72.1% of patients were adherent, significant but weak associations existed between adherence and older age, white race, the lack of alcohol abuse, and fewer antihypertensive medications. The multivariate model again failed to accurately discriminate adherent from nonadherent individuals (C statistic=0.576).",
"To test the hypothesis that insular cortical ischaemia is associated with acute hypertension and hyperglycaemia. From the Canadian Activase for Stroke Effectiveness Study, which included only patients treated with thrombolysis hyperacutely (ie, within 3 h of onset of stroke), 966 patients were identified with ischaemia affecting (n = 685), or sparing (n = 281), the insular cortex. Demographic and clinical data, pretreatment indices of blood pressure, blood glucose, atrial fibrillation, and clinical imaging and outcome measures were compared between the two groups. Multivariable linear regression was used to assess predictors of systolic blood pressure and glucose levels before thrombolysis. Pretreatment hypertension (p = 0.009), but not hyperglycaemia (p = 0.32), was predicted by insular ischaemia in univariable linear regression analyses. After adjusting for other factors, however, insular cortical ischaemia was not found to be an independent predictor for acute hypertension or hyperglycaemia.",
"yes. This is the first evidence of early insulin-secretion abnormalities in young normotensive individuals with a genetic predisposition to essential hypertension, but with a normal glucose tolerance and without a genetic predisposition to NIDDM. Early insulin-secretion abnormalities may be the very first step towards the development of insulin resistance and an important factor initiating the hypertension in hypertension-prone individuals.",
"1. A model to predict macrovascular events in patients with Chronic Metabolic Syndrome included high values of the Waist-Hip index, blood pressure, Fibrinogenaemia and basal Glucaemia, and low values of HDL cholesterol. 2. We believe that this association should be considered an independent health problem on the list of problems, with the name Syndrome X or Chronic Metabolic Syndrome.",
"To evaluate the association between components of metabolic syndrome (MS) and ischemic heart disease (IHD) in Taiwanese patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). A total of 1,296 (604 men and 692 women) subjects with T2DM aged 62.5+/-11.7 (14-87) years were studied. MS was defined using the World Health Organization modified criteria and included more than 2 of hypertension, obesity, dyslipidemia and microalbuminuria. IHD was diagnosed through history or ischemic electrocardiogram according to the Minnesota codes. Results showed that MS was present in 76.2% and IHD in 36.3% of the patients, respectively. MS increased with age for both sexes, but there was no difference between men and women in the age groups of <45, 45-54 and 55-64 years. However, the prevalence of MS was significantly higher in women (87.7% vs 78.0%) in the age group>or=65 years. IHD prevalence was significantly higher in patients with MS, hypertension, dyslipidemia and obesity (p<0.01), and was higher with borderline significance for microalbuminuria (0.05<p<0.1). The respective age-adjusted odds ratios were 3.61 (2.57-5.08), 7.10 (5.38-9.38), 1.70 (1.32-2.18), 1.75 (1.33-2.28), and 1.11 (0.88-1.41).",
"Insulin is secreted in regular pulses at intervals of 12-14 min in normal fasting subjects. An abnormal pattern has been found in subjects with non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) and in young individuals predisposed to NIDDM. It has been suggested that there might be a causal relationship between insulin-secretion abnormalities and insulin resistance. To examine whether insulin-secretion abnormalities are also present in offspring of patients with essential hypertension. Eleven young (aged 18-35 years) normotensive individuals each of whom had two parents with essential hypertension were compared with 10 age- and sex-matched controls each of whom had two normotensive parents. We verified that diabetes and morbid obesity were absent among the subjects and their parents. We studied basal insulin-secretion patterns during a 60 min period, glucose tolerance by administering an oral glucose-tolerance test, insulin resistance by using an isoglycaemic hyperinsulinaemic clamp and basal plasma catecholamine levels. Autocorrelation analysis of insulin concentrations showed that the hypertension-prone subjects had a significantly reduced or irregular oscillatory pattern compared with the regular insulin-level oscillations with a period of 12-14 min in control subjects. The hypertension-prone subjects had significantly higher systolic blood pressures and tended to be insulin-resistant.",
"yes. Among older adults with diabetes, better glycemic control may improve both short-term and long-term maintenance of lower-extremity function.",
"The relationships between decreased insulin sensitivity and compensatory hyperinsulinaemia and blood pressure were rather weak. It is possible that different mechanisms may control blood pressure in lean and obese subjects, with a weaker association between insulin level and blood pressure in obese subjects. Alternatively, in obese subjects long-standing hyperinsulinaemia might increase blood pressure by mechanisms such as sympathetic activation and effects of vasculature, which may mask the underlying contribution of hyperinsulinaemia.",
"yes. In a well-functioning older population, diabetes is associated with early indicators of functional decline, even after accounting for body composition and diabetes-related comorbidities. Poor glycemic control contributes to this relationship. Whether improvement in glycemic control in older people with diabetes would change this association should be tested.",
"Insulin resistance has an important role in the pathogenesis of hypertension. We hypothesized that impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) which represents insulin resistance would predict the development of hypertension. A total of 4,039 subjects without hypertension or diabetes (1,847 men and 2,192 women; age 49.9±8.2 years), from the Ansan-Ansung cohorts within the Korean Genome Epidemiology Study, were enrolled in 2001-2002 and restudied in 2005-2006. The association between the incidence of hypertension and IFG, IGT, or other metabolic factors was studied. During the 4-year follow-up period, 582 of the 4,039 subjects developed hypertension. At baseline, the prevalence of abdominal obesity, dyslipidemia, and IGT was higher in subjects who became hypertensive compared to those that remained normotensive. The prevalence of IFG was not significantly different between the 2 groups. In a multivariate analysis, abdominal obesity and high serum triglyceride were significant risk factors for the development of hypertension. Neither IFG nor IGT were significantly associated with new-onset hypertension. Although the risk of hypertension was higher with the number of metabolic components present at baseline, IFG and IGT were not significant components compared to other metabolic components, especially when abdominal obesity was taken into account.",
"Post-challenge hyperglycemia (PCH) is common in older adults and is associated with increased cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk and total mortality. However, PCH is rarely recognized in clinical settings, and the glycemic exposure and CVD risk profile of elderly individuals with PCH has not been defined. The aim of the study was to characterize metabolic and CVD risk profile of elderly subjects with PCH and to determine the effect of acute postprandial metabolic changes on vascular biomarkers. We conducted a cross-sectional study with a standard meal challenge protocol. Older adults with normal glucose tolerance (n = 30) or PCH (fasting glucose <126 mg/dl and 2-h glucose >or=170 mg/dl; n = 28) participated in the study. We assessed fasting and postprandial levels of glucose, insulin, lipids, high sensitivity C-reactive protein, plasminogen activator inhibitor-1, and adiponectin and endothelial function using reactive hyperemia peripheral arterial tonometry. Normal glucose tolerance and PCH subjects were matched for age, sex, body mass index, and ethnicity. Fasting glucose (102 +/- 3 vs. 93 +/- 2 mg/dl; P < 0.001) and glycosylated hemoglobin (5.7 vs. 5.4%; P = 0.01) were modestly higher in the PCH group, which was also more insulin resistant (homeostasis model assessment for insulin resistance, 7.0 +/- 1.3 vs. 4.1 +/- 0.6; P = 0.03). Fasting high sensitivity C-reactive protein was higher (2.6 +/- 0.5 vs. 1.3 +/- 0.2 mg/dl; P = 0.05), and adiponectin was lower (11.6 +/- 1.6 vs. 14.0 +/- 1.3 microg/ml; P = 0.03) in subjects with PCH. Peak and 6-h postprandial area under the curve glucose, insulin, and lipids were higher in PCH subjects, who also had higher fasting and postprandial levels of plasminogen activator inhibitor-1. Reactive hyperemia peripheral arterial tonometry declined postprandially only in PCH.",
"It is known that essential hypertension may be implicated in the development of cognitive impairment that is associated to microvascular disease of the brain. It has been hypothesized that increased arterial stiffness of the large arteries may lead to microvascular changes due to increased pulsatile flow. Our study tests the hypothesis that large artery stiffness and microvascular damage are related to brain microcirculation changes as reflected by impaired cognitive function. We studied 110 nondiabetic patients aged 40-80 years (mean age 53.8 +/- 11.2 years, 57 men) with recently diagnosed stage I-II essential hypertension. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) was used as a screening test for global cognitive impairment. We performed both 2-D echocardiography and carotid-femoral pulse wave velocity (PWV) in order to evaluate arterial stiffness. Twenty-four hour urine microalbumin excretion was measured as a marker of microvascular damage. In the entire population, MMSE was negatively correlated with age (r = -0.42, P < 0.001), 24-h pulse pressure (PP) (r = -0.18, P < 0.05), and PWV (r = -0.3, P = 0.003). Additionally, MMSE was not independently correlated with microalbuminuria in patients aged over 65 years (r = -0.58, P = 0.003).",
"Denmark has a health care system with free and equal access to care irrespective of age and socio-economic status (SES). We conducted a cross-sectional study to investigate a possible association between SES and blood pressure (BP) control of hypertensive patients treated in general practice. We enrolled 184 general practices and 5260 hypertensive patients. The general practitioners reported information about BP and diagnosis of diabetes. Information about education, income, antihypertensive drug treatment and other co-morbidity was retrieved from relevant registers from Statistics Denmark. The outcome measure was BP control defined as BP <140/90 mmHg in general and <130/80 mmHg in diabetics. Patients <65 years and with an educational level of 10-12 years had increased odds ratio (OR) of BP control compared to patients with an educational level <10 years. Patients ≥65 years had increased OR of BP control if they were married/cohabiting as compared to being single, whereas education and income had no impact in this age group. Diabetics had significantly reduced odds of BP control irrespective of age, educational or income level.",
"Patients with diabetes often exceed desired glycated hemoglobin (A1C) levels for months prior to medication adjustments. To determine if provider and patient characteristics predict glycemic control and treatment intensification. Observational retrospective cohort study using electronic medical record data. We studied 149 Kaiser Permanente Northwest primary care providers of 14,430 patients with diabetes, of whom 5823 (40.4%) were in optimal control (all A1Cs<7%) and 2446 (17%) were in poor control (at least 1 A1C>9%) in 2011. We also identified a subset of 107 primary care providers of 912 patients with diabetes who were initially in optimal control (A1C<7%) but had a subsequent A1C>7.5% from 2010 to 2011. We used hierarchical linear modeling to assess both patient and provider characteristics as predictors of glycemic control and treatment intensification after incident hyperglycemia. Patient characteristics associated with optimal control included older age, lower baseline A1C, shorter diabetes duration, and not using insulin (P<.001 for all). The inverse of these variables predicted poor control. No provider characteristics were associated with glycemic control or intensification. Older patients with a greater change in A1C were more likely to have therapy intensified after loss of glycemic control.",
"Glycometabolic abnormalities are frequently found in hypertension and could affect the mechanical properties of carotid arteries. The aim of the study was to investigate the relationship of glucose tolerance, plasma insulin, and insulin sensitivity with carotid distensibility in middle-aged, non-diabetic hypertensive patients free of cardiac and vascular complications. In 93 patients with grade 1-2, uncomplicated, primary hypertension and 68 matched normotensive controls we measured plasma glucose and insulin at fast and after an oral glucose load (OGTT), calculated the HOMA-index as a marker of insulin sensitivity, and assessed distensibility of common carotid arteries by B-mode ultrasonography. Hypertensive patients were hyperinsulinemic and insulin-resistant as compared to normotensive controls. Hypertensive patients with impaired fasting glucose and/or impaired glucose tolerance had comparable distensibility of carotid arteries. Patients with decreased carotid distensibility were older and had higher body mass, fasting and post-OGTT plasma insulin, HOMA-index, and carotid IMT than the remaining patients, but no differences in glycated hemoglobin, and fasting or post-OGTT plasma glucose. Carotid coefficient of distensibility was inversely related and β-stiffness directly related with fasting and post-OGTT plasma insulin, and HOMA-index. Multivariate logistic regression showed that age and post-OGTT plasma insulin levels predicted carotid artery stiffening independent of body mass index, sex, blood pressure, and plasma glucose levels.",
"Hypertensive patients who were admitted to the Emergency Department of Sahlgrenska Hospital with acute chest pain had a poor prognosis, which was even worse if they also had a history of diabetes mellitus. The relationship between diabetes mellitus and hypertension could not, however, be clearly defined.",
"To test the hypothesis that heightened anxiety, heightened anger intensity, and suppressed expression of anger increase the risk of hypertension, using the Framingham Heart Study. A cohort of men and women without evidence of hypertension at baseline were followed up for 18 to 20 years. Baseline measures of anxiety (tension), anger symptoms, and expression of anger (anger-in and anger-out) were taken, along with biological and behavioral predictors of hypertension (initial systolic blood pressure, heart rate, relative weight, age, hematocrit, alcohol intake, smoking, education, and glucose intolerance). A total of 1123 initially normotensive persons (497 men, 626 women) were included. Analyses were stratified by age (45 to 59 or>or = 60 years) and gender. Hypertension was defined as either taking medication for hypertension or blood pressures higher than 160/95 mm Hg at a biennial examination. In univariate analyses, middle-aged men who went on to develop hypertension had greater baseline anxiety levels than men who remained normotensive (P = .04). Older hypertensive men had fewer anger symptoms at baseline (P = .04) and were less likely to hold their anger in (P = .01) than normotensives. In multivariate Cox regression analysis including biological predictors, anxiety remained an independent predictor of hypertension in middle-aged men (P = .02). Among older men, anger symptoms and anger-in did not remain significant predictors in the multivariate analysis. Further analysis showed that only middle-aged men with very high levels of anxiety were at increased risk (relative risk, 2.19; 95% confidence interval, 1.22 to 3.94). No psychological variable predicted hypertension in middle-aged or older women in either univariate or multivariate analyses.",
"yes. Insulin resistance and islet dysfunction may exist in subjects with high-normal blood pressure.",
"yes. The ability of insulin to stimulate blood flow in patients with mild essential hypertension is impaired.",
"yes. In obese, nondiabetic, hypertensive people, left ventricular mass is associated with circulating glucose and insulin levels.",
"Minor ischemic stroke (MIS) represents a major global public health problem worldwide due to high incidence. The aim of this study was to investigate whether metabolic syndrome (MetS) is a strong risk for MIS and subsequent vascular events (SVE). A retrospective cohort study was performed examining symptomatic MIS in a Chinese neurologic outpatient population aged over 25 years without history of stroke. MetS was defined using the International Diabetes Federation criteria. MIS was diagnosed by magnetic resonance imaging-diffusion weighted images or fluid-attenuated inversion recovery. Of 1361 outpatients, a total of 753 (55.3%) patients were diagnosed with MIS; of them, 80% had a score of 0 using the MIS had a 0 score on the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale. Among these, 303 (40.2%) individuals with MIS were diagnosed with MetS. Diagnosed of MIS with MetS significantly correlated with abdominal obesity (30.7% v.s 18.0%), hypertension (91.1% v.s 81.6%), increased blood glucose (6.9±2.4 v.s 5.0±0.4), dyslipidemia (78.2% v.s 48.2%), and SVE (50.5% v.s 11.3%) when compared with the controls group. On adjusted analysis, the risk of SVE was also significantly associated with three additional MetS criterion (RR,9.0; 95% CI, 5.677-14.46). Using Cox proportional analysis, risk of SVE in patient with MIS was significantly associated with MetS (RR, 3.3; 95% CI, 1.799-6.210), older age (RR, 1.0; 95% CI, 1.001-1.048), and high blood glucose (RR,1.1; 95%CI, 1.007-1.187).",
"The aim of the present study was to assess the applicability of the rule of halves in an urban population in South India. The Chennai Urban Population Study (CUPS) is an ongoing population based study involving two residential colonies representing a middle and lower socio-economic status in Chennai city. The response rate for the study was 90.1%. Based on a glucose tolerance test (GTT), the study subjects were categorized as having normal glucose tolerance test (NGT), impaired glucose tolerance test (IGT) or diabetes. Blood pressure was measured for all the study subjects and the subjects were classified as hypertensive using the criteria, systolic blood pressure (SBP)>or = 140 mm Hg and/or diastolic blood pressure>or = 90 mmHg and/or known hypertensives and/or treatment with antihypertensive drugs. Controlled hypertension was defined as SBP<140 mmHg and DBP<90 mmHg. The overall prevalence of hypertension in this population is 22.1% (279/1262). Of these 279 individuals with hypertension, only 37.3% (104/279) were known hypertensives. Of the 104 known hypertensives, only 52 subjects (50%) were under any kind of antihypertensive therapy. Of these 52 individuals, only 21 (40%) had blood pressure under control. Prevalence of hypertension was higher in subjects with glucose intolerance. Awareness and treatment of hypertension was slightly higher among the diabetic hypertensive subjects. Analysis on the different social classes revealed that the prevalence, awareness and treatment of hypertension to be significantly higher among the middle income group compared to lower income group.",
"To estimate stroke risk for diabetes, isolated or associated to metabolic syndrome (MS) according WHO and National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) criteria. Multicentre and prospective cohort study. Primary health care. Subjects between 55-85 years-old without any evidence of stroke, included from 1998 in a random population sample for MS follow-up during routine practice in Reus (Tarragona, Spain). Stroke risk was achieved using Framingham function by means of a computerized algorithm using a diagnostic factorial design (diabetes and/or MS). Theoretical stroke risk and cumulated incidence of stroke events (1998-2003) were compared. Among 728 subjects (412 women, mean age =66 years old, body mass index =29 kg/m2), 457 (62.8%) did not have diabetes, nor MS, 93 (12.8%) had MS without diabetes, 72 (9.9%) diabetes without MS, and 106 (14.5%) presented both conditions (WHO rules). According NCEP criteria were 60.7%, 14.8%, 7.8%, and 16.7%, respectively. Ten-year estimated stroke risk accounted for (WHO/NCEP) 8.4/9.1%, 10.8/10.5%, 18/17.3%, and 18.8/19.1%. Cumulated incidence for stroke events were: 2.8%, 1.4%, 5.4%, and 3.8% (WHO), and 2.5%, 2.8%, 3.5%, and 5.8%, respectively (NCEP).",
"yes. The results are consistent with previous findings that poor glycemic control in older subjects with NIDDM is associated with decreased cognitive functioning, and suggest that verbal learning and memory may improve with improved glycemic control.",
"yes. Low well-being and symptom burden were predictors of stroke in elderly patients with diabetes mellitus (DM), although the causal relationship remains unknown.",
"Non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) is a major risk factor for stroke in the middle-aged population, but few prospective population-based studies are available in the elderly. Moreover, the importance of metabolic control and the duration of diabetes in diabetic subjects has remained controversial. There are no previous studies on association of insulin with the risk of stroke. The present study examined whether NIDDM, its metabolic control and duration, and insulin level predict stroke. We measured cardiovascular risk factors including glucose tolerance, plasma insulin, and glycosylated hemoglobin A1c in a Finnish cohort of 1298 subjects aged 65 to 74 years and investigated the impact of these risk factors on the incidence of both fatal and nonfatal stroke during 3.5 years of follow-up. Of 1298 subjects participating in the baseline study, 1069 did not have diabetes and 229 had NIDDM. During the 3.5-year follow-up, 3.4% (n = 36) of nondiabetic subjects and 6.1% (n = 14) of NIDDM subjects had a nonfatal or fatal stroke. The incidence of stroke was significantly higher in diabetic women compared with nondiabetic women (odds ratio [OR], 2.25; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.65 to 3.06). In contrast, the risk of stroke was not significantly higher in diabetic men than in nondiabetic men (OR, 1.36; 95% CI, 0.44 to 4.18). In multivariate logistic regression analyses including all study subjects, fasting and 2-hour glucose (P < .01 and P < .05, respectively), glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (P < .01), atrial fibrillation (P < .05), hypertension (P < .05), and previous stroke (P < .01) predicted stroke events. In diabetic subjects, fasting and 2-hour glucose (P < .01 and P < .05, respectively), glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (P < .05), the duration of diabetes (P < .05), and atrial fibrillation (P < .05) were the baseline variables predicting stroke events. Finally, fasting insulin (P < .05), hypertension (P < .05), and previous stroke (P < .01) were associated with stroke incidence in nondiabetic subjects.",
"Cerebral white matter hyperintensities (WMHs) are common in older people. Their presence correlates with cognitive decline and vascular risk factors. Various scales have been developed to quantify the amount and type of WMH, but with few observer reliability studies. We evaluated several scales in different cohorts to determine their observer reliability. Two observers independently rated T2-weighted MR images from five groups (total n = 494: normal older subjects [97]; patients with minor stroke [221]; young insulin dependent diabetics [141]; maturity onset diabetics [10]; and hepatic encephalopathy [25]), using seven rating scales (Breteler, Fazekas, Longstreth, Mirsen, Shimada, Van Swieten and Wahlund). Inter-observer reliability was determined using Kappa statistics. Patients with maturity onset diabetes had the most WMHs and young insulin-dependent diabetics the least. Inter-observer reliability varied with the amount of WMH. In maturity onset diabetics (most WMHs) the weighted Kappas were: Breteler 0.74; Fazekas 0.89 and 0.72; Van Swieten 0.76 and 0.88; and in young insulin-dependent diabetics (least WMH): Breteler 0.3; Fazekas 0.2 and 0.24; Van Swieten 0.39 and 0.30. These findings were consistent across the groups.",
"No consensus standard is established for the workup of diabetic patients with moderate hyperglycemia [fingerstick glucose of 11.00-33.00 mmol/l (200-600 mg/dl)]. We measured the incidence of serious electrolyte abnormalities in patients with moderate hyperglycemia and attempted to identify a subset of these patients who can safely forego routine electrolyte testing. Prospective cohort study in two affiliated emergency departments. Moderate hyperglycemia. new onset diabetes or renal failure. The composite outcome was defined as an abnormal potassium K>5.00 or<3.50 mmol/l or diabetic ketoacidosis. Univariate analyses were performed using t-test and Fisher's exact test (alpha=0.05, two-tails). Logistic regression models were generated to identify variables that could predict the composite outcome. Three hundred and ninety-nine adults were enrolled (294 type II, 38% men). Mean age was 59+/-15 (20-97 years) years. The incidence of the composite outcome was 22% (95% confidence interval, 17.8-26.0%, n=86). The univariate analysis identified potassium-altering medications and insulin use as risk factors for the composite outcome. Logistic regression analysis identified potassium-altering medications as an increased risk (relative risk: 1.64, 95% confidence interval, 1.14-2.37) and use of oral hypoglycemics as a decreased risk (relative risk: 0.62, 95% confidence interval, 0.43-0.90) of the composite outcome. Cross-validation of the model demonstrated poor sensitivity (76%) and even worse accuracy (51%).",
"We undertook a cross-sectional analysis in a random sample of 2270 individuals (18-80 years of age). All participants provided a clinical history and underwent a physical examination. Blood and urine analyses were conducted. HTGW was diagnosed using anthropometric criteria for the European population (waist circumference: for men, ≥ 94 cm; for women, ≥ 80 cm) and fasting plasma triglycerides (TGs) ≥ 1.71 mmol l(-1) (≥ 150 mg per 100 ml). The prevalence of HTGW was 14.5% (men: 18.2%, women: 10.8%) and was significantly greater in men<59 years (P<0.001). HTGW was associated with older individuals, a low educational level and, in men, with a sedentary lifestyle (P<0.001). Subjects with HTGW had higher levels of total cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein-cholesterol (LDL-c) and uric acid, lower levels of high-density lipoprotein-cholesterol, a higher blood pressure, a greater degree of obesity and a higher prevalence of T2DM (20.00 vs 6.4%, P<0.001) (odds ratio (OR) 3.61; 95% confidence interval (95% CI), 2.60-5.01) and CVD (8.5 vs 3.4%, P<0.001) (OR 2.63; 95% CI, 1.66-4.16). The association of HTGW with T2DM and CVD disappeared after adjusting for age. The degree of concordance between HTGW and the metabolic syndrome (MS) was moderate, with both the Adult Treatment Panel III Report (ATP-III) and the International Diabetes Federation criteria (κ=0.51 and κ=0.58, respectively). Subjects with isolated HTGW as compared with those with isolated MS (ATP-III) were younger, had greater levels of total cholesterol, LDL-c and TGs and a lower prevalence of obesity, high blood pressure and dysglycemia.",
"A causal relationship has been established between hyperglycemia and cardiovascular diseases, but no threshold has been retained to determine a 'glycemia-associated' cardiovascular risk. Carotid intima-media thickness (CIMT) is an independent predictor for cardiovascular events. High blood pressure is a major determinant of CIMT. To determine the influence of fasting glycemia on CIMT in hypertensive patients with either normal fasting glucose, impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or type 2 diabetes (DM-2). We included 158 essential hypertensive patients with either normal fasting glucose (n=74), IFG (n=24) or DM-2 (n=60) in a cross-sectional study. Common carotid IMT was measured with a high resolution echotracking system. CIMT of DM-2 patients was significantly higher than that of IFG and normal fasting glucose patients (809 +/- 180, 697 +/- 151 and 689 +/- 134 microm, respectively; analysis of variance (ANOVA) P <0.0001). In multivariate analysis in normal fasting glucose patients, local pulse pressure and age were the major determinants of CIMT, whereas glycemia was not. In IFG and DM-2 patients, fasting glycemia was strongly associated with CIMT, explaining 21 and 18% of its variance, respectively. Particularly, in IFG patients, an increase in 1 mmol/l glycemia was associated with a 165 microm increase in CIMT. In hyperglycemic patients, with either IFG or DM-2, age was an important determinant of CIMT, whereas local pulse pressure was not.",
"yes. In women with Type I diabetes, poor glycaemic control is associated with an increased risk of pre-eclampsia but not with a risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension.",
"Aging is associated with a loss of cognitive performance and an increasing occurrence of cardiovascular events. Moreover, cardiovascular risk factors are linked to cognitive impairment and dementia. Whereas individual components of metabolic syndrome (Met S) have been reported to be linked to cognitive decline and dementia, there are very few studies on Met S as a whole. The present study aims to assess the relationship between Met S and its components and cognitive functioning in a cohort of elderly non-demented community residents. Population-based cohort study (PROOF study). Cross-sectional analysis. Dementia-free community-dwellers aged 65. The PROOF participants underwent an extensive neuropsychological battery at baseline. Summary cognitive measures including memory, attention, and executive performance were created by converting the individual test results to Z scores and computing the average scores within each domain. Each of the three cognitive scores was individually compared between groups as a function of Met S. The cognitive scores and the covariates which were significant in univariate analyses were then included in logistic regression models. A significant association was observed between the presence of metabolic syndrome, poor memory, and executive function even after adjusting for confounding factors (memory: odds ratio: 1.77, p = 0.008; executive functions: odds ratio: 1.91, p = 0.002).",
"The coming obesity epidemic in elderly persons necessitates the establishment of new and easy-to-use cardiometabolic markers to identify individuals most likely to develop atherosclerosis among hypertensives. We measured plasma HMW adiponectin and des-acyl ghrelin levels, and carotid-artery intima-media thickness (cIMT) in 263 elderly hypertensives (mean 72.6 years; 37%men). Other cardiometabolic markers, including metabolites, inflammation, and hemostasis, were also measured.",
"yes. In this cohort of IV-tPA-treated stroke patients, admission hyperglycemia was independently associated with increased risk of death, SICH, and poor functional status at 90 days. Treatment trials continue to be urgently needed to determine whether this is a modifiable risk factor for poor outcome.",
"Here we examined whether intellectual disability is independently associated with hyperglycaemia. We recruited 233 consecutive young and middle-aged adults with intellectual disability. After exclusion of subjects on medication for metabolic diseases or with severe intellectual disability (IQ < 35), 121 subjects were divided by IQ into a group with moderate intellectual disability (35 ≤ IQ ≤ 50), a mild intellectual disability group (51 ≤ IQ ≤ 70) and a borderline group (IQ > 70). HbA1c level was higher in subjects with moderate intellectual disability (42 ± 9 mmol/mol; 6.0 ± 0.8%) than those in the borderline group (36 ± 4 mmol/mol; 5.5 ± 0.3%) and mild intellectual disability group (37 ± 5 mmol/mol; 5.5 ± 0.5%) groups. HbA1c level was correlated with age, BMI, blood pressure, serum triglycerides and IQ in simple linear regression analysis. Multiple regression analysis indicated that IQ, age, BMI and diastolic blood pressure were independent explanatory factors of HbA1c level.",
"Hypertension is associated with diminished performance on tests of cognitive function. The degree to which those diagnosed with hypertension have controlled blood pressure (BP) levels may be a critical determinant of cognitive outcomes. Persons with hypertension and poorly controlled BP are likely to display the worst performance on cognitive tests. The purpose is to examine potential interactive relations of hypertension diagnostic status and current BP levels to cognitive function. Participants were 101 healthy older adults (ages 53-84, 62% male, 90% White, 29% diagnosed with hypertension) who engaged in biomedical and neuropsychological assessment. After statistical adjustment for age and education, persons with high BP performed more poorly than those with normal BP on the Visual Reproductions-Immediate and Delayed Recall and the Grooved Pegboard tests. Diagnosed hypertension was related to poorer performance on the Grooved Pegboard tests. An interaction of diagnosed hypertension and BP level revealed that those diagnosed with hypertension and also having poorly controlled BP levels performed least well on the Grooved Pegboard tests and the Trail Making Test-Part A.",
"Microalbuminuria (MA) clusters with metabolic derangements linked to the insulin resistance syndrome, and is associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease in both diabetes and hypertension. This study questioned if MA, reflecting endothelial damage, is directly linked to impaired insulin action. MA was measured in two 24-hour urine samples in 84 persons with untreated hypertension recruited from a population survey (diastolic blood pressures 90 to 105 mm Hg). Thirty-one percent had MA values>20 microg/min (MA group, N = 26), and these were matched according to age, gender, and body-mass index with hypertensive persons without MA (non-MA group, N = 32) for comparison of the metabolic profile. Insulin sensitivity was measured with clamp techniques. The MA and non-MA groups were similar in their fasting and post-load glucose and insulin levels, in the first (930 +/- 594 vs. 1097 +/- 707 pmol/L) and second (1111 +/- 662 vs. 1163 +/- 702 pmol/L) phases of insulin release during a hyperglycemic clamp, and in their insulin sensitivity indices (0.16 +/- 0.10 vs. 0.17 +/- 0.13, P> 0.3 for all). The MA group had higher systolic blood pressure (157 +/- 13 vs. 150 +/- 12 mm Hg, P = 0.05) and a higher serum level of circulating advanced glycation end products (AGEs; 11.0 +/- 3.0 vs. 7.9 +/- 3.5 U/mL, P = 0.05) than the controls. No associations were found between MA and the insulin sensitivity index, or glucose and insulin levels. Weak associations were found with systolic blood pressure (r = 0.25, P = 0.05), AGEs (r = 0.27, P = 0.05), and smoking habits (r = 0.39, P = 0.01).",
"The aim of this study was to assess the prevalence of metabolic syndrome (MS) and other surrogate markers of insulin resistance, and whether these markers are better for defining the prehypertensive state than is renal dysfunction. Data from 19,041 healthy active workers, mean age 42.2 (10.7) years, from three health insurance companies, were prospectively collected. Presence of MS, assessed according to the modified criteria of the National Cholesterol Education Program Third Adult Treatment Panel, and the ratio of triglycerides to high-density lipoprotein were considered as surrogate markers of insulin resistance. Renal function was assessed by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease Study equation. Blood pressure was classified as normotension (NT), prehypertension (PHT), or hypertension (HT) according to the guidelines of the seventh report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure. The global presence of MS was 11.8% The higher prevalence was found in subjects with hypertension (30%), followed by those with PHT (9.6%). The prevalence in normotensive subjects was very low (0.9%). The presence of MS and hypertension increased in parallel with age. Metabolic syndrome (odds ratio [OR] 4.3), obesity (OR 2.2), overweight (OR 1.7), impaired fasting glucose (OR 1.3), and elevated triglycerides to HDL ratio (OR 1.2), but no degree of renal dysfunction, were independent risk factors for the progression from NT to PHT.",
"yes. An impaired vasodilatory response to acetylcholine predicts development of type 2 diabetes in patients with essential hypertension. Present data also extend recent findings regarding a possible inflammatory pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes and suggest a new approach in treatment of essential hypertension.",
"yes. Elderly patients with hypertension have high BPV, which is an important independent predictor of target-organ damage.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that patients with type 2 diabetes and poor glycaemic control carrying the Hp 1-1 genotype may be at increased risk of cognitive impairment, particularly in the attention/working memory domain. The association of glycaemic control with this domain may indicate cerebrovascular mechanisms.",
"yes. Older diagnostic age and black race are major risk factors for deterioration in glycemic control early in the course of T1DM. These findings can inform efforts to explore the reasons behind these differences and develop preventive interventions for high-risk patients.",
"yes. The vasodilatory response to insulin can unmask orthostatic intolerance in older adults with type 2 diabetes, resulting in presyncopal symptoms. This could contribute to orthostatic hypotension in combination with other factors such as hyperthermia, hypovolemia, and adverse effects from medications.",
"yes. This study showed that essential hypertensive patients with high NaCl sensitivities were relatively insulin resistant compared with those with low NaCl sensitivities, independently of confounding factors such as age, obesity and glucose intolerance. Insulin resistance was not associated with overt hyperinsulinaemia among these patients.",
"Insulin resistance plays a role in the development of dementia and hypertension. We investigated a possible relationship between cognitive impairment and insulin resistance in elderly Chinese patients with primary hypertension. One hundred and thirty-two hypertensive elderly patients (>60 years) were enrolled in this study, and assigned into either the cognitive impairment group (n=61) or the normal cognitive group (n=71). Gender, age, education, body mass index (BMI), waist hip ratio (WHR), total cholesterol (TC), triglyceride (TG), C-reactive protein (CRP), high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), creatinine (Cr), fasting plasma glucose (FPG), fasting insulin (FINS), homeostasis model of assessment for insulin resistance index (HOMA-IR), systolic blood pressure, diastolic blood pressure, smoking history, atherosclerosis and the proportion of uncontrolled hypertension were compared between the two groups. Multi-factorial logistic regression analysis was performed. No significant differences were found in gender, age, TC, CRP, HDL-C, LDL-C, Cr, BP, smoking history, atherosclerosis and the proportion of uncontrolled hypertension between the two groups. The cognitive impairment group had lower education levels, and higher BMI, WHR, TG, FPG, FINS, and HOMA-IR levels than the control group. Logistic regression analysis revealed the levels of education, BMI, WHR, and HOMA-IR as independent factors that predict cognitive impairment in patients.",
"yes. In line with experimental evidence, we could demonstrate in humans that poor glycemic control is related to higher NO activity and hyperperfusion of the kidney. The renal NO system may thus be a novel therapeutic target for improving renal hemodynamics in patients with diabetes.",
"yes. In this cross-sectional study of 2141 KEEP participants with DM and CKD stages 3-5, overall glycemic control but not lipids were associated with abnormal urinary albumin excretion, a marker of increased risk for progressive disease.",
"Approximately 50% of subjects with essential hypertension (EH) are insulin resistant, and this defect in insulin action could contribute to increased cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk in these patients. To test this hypothesis, we attempted to see if there was a link between insulin resistance (IR) and carotid intimal medial thickness (IMT), an early index of CVD, in patients with essential hypertension. Ultrasound quantification of carotid IMT was performed in 79 hypertensive patients, and 63 patients (31 m and 32 f), defined as being free of plaque (IMT < 1.3 mm), were further subdivided into normal (<1.0 mm) and thickened (1-1.3 mm) IMT groups. Subjects in the thickened IMT group were older and had significantly (p < 0.05) higher plasma concentrations of fasting insulin, nitric oxide (NO(x)) and intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1). However, the two groups were not significantly different in terms of blood pressure, overall or regional obesity, fasting lipid levels, uric acid, concentrations of other cellular adhesion molecules or levels of C-reactive protein. There were significant (p < 0.05) correlations in the whole population between IMT and age, fasting insulin and NO(x), and multiple regression analysis identified fasting insulin as an independent predictor of IMT.",
"To investigate the relationship between glycated albumin (GA) to glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ratio and cognitive impairment in old age. Diabetes is associated with cognitive impairment in older people. However, the link between elevated GA/HbA1c levels and the risk of cognitive impairment in nondiabetic individuals is unclear. A cross-sectional study of 474 old, nondiabetic adults (192 women, mean age 73.8 years ± 6.9 SD) who had been admitted to our hospital was conducted. Glycemic measures included fasting plasma glucose (FPG), 2-hour post-prandial plasmic glucose (2hPPG), GA and HbA1c. Cognitive function was assessed using Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) and Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) at the same examination visit in which the glycemic measures were determined. When the individuals were divided into two groups according to the median of GA/HbA1c ratio, old adults with GA/HbA1c ratio ≥ 2.53 showed lower MMSE and MoCA scores compared to those with GA/HbA1c ratio < 2.53. Univariate regression analysis showed that MMSE and MoCA scores were not correlated with HbA1c, but were inversely correlated with GA and GA/HbA1c ratio. Linear regression analysis revealed that there was a significant negative correlation between GA/HbA1c and cognitive function (β = -0.77, P < 0.01 for MoCA and β = -0.69, P < 0.05 for MMSE) even after adjustment for age, body mass index, systolic blood pressure, lipoprotein(a) and sex.",
"yes. In this predominantly African American patient sample with diabetes, poorer glycemic control increased the chances of hospitalization due to diabetes. Continued efforts to aggressively control hyperglycemia could decrease the need for a diabetes hospitalization in this population.",
"yes. Executive function impairment is common in a population of people with difficult-to-manage type 2 diabetes. The presence of executive impairment is significantly associated with poor glycaemic control.",
"yes. In elderly adults with hypertension, impaired physical and mental function is associated with increased fall risk. Further study is required to investigate possible mediators for the association and effective interventions.",
"Insulin has opposing influences on blood pressure by simultaneously increasing adrenergic activity and vasodilatating peripheral blood vessels. In this study, we sought to determine whether hyperinsulinemia affects tilt table responses in older adults with type 2 diabetes not complicated by orthostatic hypotension. Twenty-two older adults (mean age 71.7 +/- 1.1) with diet-controlled or oral hypoglycemic drug-controlled type 2 diabetes were recruited. All subjects with orthostatic hypotension, diabetic nephropathy, and sensory neuropathy were excluded. Subjects underwent euglycemic-hyperinsulinemic clamp and placebo \"sham clamp\" sessions. Sequential euglycemic-hyperinsulinemic clamps were performed for 2 h at 40 mU x m(-2) x min(-1) (low dose) and 2 h at 80 mU x m(-2) x min(-1) (high dose), and each was followed by a head-up tilt table test at 70 degrees C for 10 min. There were no incidents of presyncope during the sham clamp, whereas there were four presyncopal events during both the low-dose and high-dose tilts. Although the low-dose clamp showed no difference in the response between sessions (two-way ANOVA), subjects demonstrated a significantly larger decrease in mean arterial pressure (P = 0.005) and diastolic blood pressure (P = 0.08) during the high-dose tilt. Doppler measures of middle cerebral artery velocity were no different between the two sessions at either dose.",
"yes. Postprandial hyperglycemia frequently occurs in elderly people living in nursing homes. The CGMS is convenient to use to detect hyperglycemia in this age group.",
"yes. Orthostatic hypotension can be detected in approximately 6% of middle-aged individuals and is often associated with such comorbidities as hypertension or diabetes. Presence of OH increases mortality and CE risk, independently of traditional risk factors. Although both impaired systolic and diastolic responses predict adverse events, the diastolic impairment shows stronger association with coronary disease.",
"yes. Postchallenge hyperglycemia, caused primarily by impaired initial insulin secretion, is commonly found in Japanese ACS patients who have not been previously diagnosed with diabetes, and this phenomenon is considered to be associated with advanced coronary atherosclerosis. Therefore, the present study strongly supports the notion that oral glucose tolerance test assessment of postchallenge hyperglycemia is essential to identify any previously undiagnosed diabetes cases among Japanese ACS patients.",
"The link between hyperinsulinaemia and hypertension has been examined in few prospective studies and often diminished after adjustment for obesity, central adiposity and baseline blood pressures. The incidence of hypertension was studied as a function of baseline insulin and glucose in 4149 Caucasian, non-hypertensive, non-diabetic middle-aged men from the Paris Prospective Study. Blood pressures were measured over the 3 years of follow-up; hypertension incidence was defined as systolic blood pressure>or = 160 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure>or = 95 mmHg or drug treatment for hypertension. Fasting and 2-hour glucose and insulin were predictive of hypertension, after controlling for the known risk factors: age, excessive alcohol consumption and family history of hypertension (FHH). However, after further controlling for body mass index and central adiposity (the iliac circumference), insulin was no longer predictive in men without an FHH. When weight variation was also taken into account, and further adjustment made for baseline blood pressure and heart rate, fasting insulin, only, was predictive when the subject had a weight increase, independently of FHH. Fasting glucose was predictive of hypertension except in the case of no change or weight decrease and a negative FHH; 2-hour glucose was predictive in the presence of a positive FHH.",
"Epidemiologic and clinical studies have shown a close association between hypertension, hyperlipidemia and glucose intolerance. A metabolic imbalance has been proposed. As both hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance appear to be of pathogenetic importance in this metabolic syndrome, we studied these features in hypertensive and normotensive subjects. Glucose disposal under a hyperinsulinemic clamp was measured and different indices of hyperinsulinemia were obtained with the intravenous glucose tolerance test. The results were evaluated in relation to different cardiovascular risk factors assessed in 194 adult subjects selected from a health screening. Both hyperinsulinemia and the glucose disposal (clamped) value were significantly correlated with blood pressure (r = 0.36 and -0.42, respectively; both P<0.0001), free fatty acids (r = 0.20 and -0.29, respectively; both P<0.0005), serum triglycerides (r = 0.33 and -0.39, respectively; both P<0.0001), high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol (r = -0.31 and 0.41, respectively; both P<0.001) and fasting glucose (r = 0.45 and -0.44, respectively; both P<0.0001). Multiple regression analysis with age, sex and obesity as confounding variables showed that insulin resistance was superior to hyperinsulinemia in the relationships with blood pressure and indices of hyperlipidemia (elevated free fatty acids, serum triglycerides and low HDL cholesterol), but both insulin sensitivity and hyperinsulinemia were significantly related to fasting glucose.",
"The diagnosis of metabolic syndrome indicates a clustering of metabolic imbalances which in sum have been recognized as a major predictor of cardiovascular and all-cause mortality. The aim of this study was to assess the level of under-pharmacy and poly-pharmacy and its prognostic impact in elderly patients with metabolic syndrome. Retrospective chart-review at a tertiary medical center, of 324 patients greater than 65 years of age who met the International Diabetes Foundation criteria for metabolic syndrome diagnosis [Body Mass Index (BMI) > 30 kg/m(2), diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia]. There were 60 (18.5%) patients in the low (≤ 5) medication burden group, 159 (49.1%) in the medium (> 5 and ≤ 10) medication burden group, and 105 (32.4%) in the high (> 10) medication burden group. At baseline, the groups differed only by systolic blood pressure. At two years follow-up, the medium group had significantly better improvement in high density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C), low density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), HbA1c, and systolic blood pressure compared to the low medication burden group and significantly better improvement in triglycerides, Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) and systolic blood pressure compared to the high medication group. Decrease in HDL-C was the only variable associated with strokes. High medication burden predicted hospitalization burden. The number of anti-hypertensives, history of tobacco use, low and high medication burdens and decrease in HDL-C were all associated with death.",
"yes. Hypertensive patients with normal BMI and a more pronounced glucose uptake showed a larger serum potassium decline and lowered aldosterone concentrations during induced euglycemic hyperinsulinemia. Insulin-resistant patients showed a less pronounced reduction in FFA during hyperinsulinemia. The observations in the present study may indicate that alterations in aldosterone and FFA metabolism might be linked to the insulin resistance metabolic syndrome.",
"A substantial percentage of patients have undiagnosed diabetes. We investigated the demographic characteristics and cardiometabolic profiles of subjects with undiagnosed diabetes. A cross-sectional study with nationally representative samples of 25490 subjects aged ≥ 20 years from the KHNANES 2008 to 2011, which applied a complex, multistage, probability proportional to size sampling design. Subjects were categorized as having normal glucose (n = 16880), impaired fasting glucose (n = 5771), undiagnosed diabetes (n = 713), or diagnosed diabetes (n = 2126). Hyper low-density lipoprotein cholesterolemia was individually evaluated by the 2004 Adult Treatment Panel III guidelines and predicted risk of cardiovascular disease was estimated from the Framingham model. Among overall subjects with diabetes, the prevalence of undiagnosed diabetes was markedly increased in younger adults compared to older adults (49% in diabetic subjects <50 years vs 23% in diabetic subjects ≥50 years, P < .001), suggesting significant discrepancies in age-based screening. Patients with undiagnosed diabetes were also more likely to have undiagnosed or uncontrolled hypertension and hyper-low-density lipoprotein cholesterolemia. Individuals with undiagnosed diabetes had a significantly higher predicted 10-year Framingham cardiovascular disease risk than those with diagnosed diabetes (11% vs 8% in <50 years, 33% vs 30% in ≥50 years; both P < .001). Patients with undiagnosed diabetes were also more likely to have multiple cardiovascular risk factors including obesity, smoking and uncontrolled hypertension.",
"Metabolic syndrome (Met.S) consists of a conglomeration of obesity, hypertension, glucose intolerance, and dislipidemia. Frontal-subcortical geriatric syndrome (FSCS) is caused by ischemic disruption of the frontal-subcortical network. It is unknown if Met.S is associated with FSCS. We evaluated 422 community-dwelling elderly (> or =60) in Brazil. FSCS was defined as the presence of at least one frontal release sign (grasping, palmomental, snout, or glabellar) plus coexistence of > or =3 the following criteria: (1) cognitive impairment, (2) late-onset depression, (3) neuromotor dysfunction, and (4) urgency incontinence. All values were adjusted to age and gender. Met.S was present in 39.3% of all subjects. Cases without any of the FSCS components represented 37.2% ('successful neuroaging' group). People with 1-3 of the FSCS components ('borderline pathological neuroaging' group) were majority (52.6%), whereas those with 4-5 of these components (FSCS group) were minority (10.2%). Met.S was significantly associated with FSCS (OR=5.9; CI: 1.5-23.4) and cognitive impairment (OR=2.2; CI: 1.1-4.6) among stroke-free subjects. Number of Met.S components explained 30.7% of the variance on the number of FSCS criteria (P<0.001). If Met.S were theoretically removed from this population, prevalence of FSCS would decline by 31.6% and that of cognitive impairment by 21.4%.",
"To investigate whether a history of prior cardiovascular disease (CVD) is associated with severe hypoglycemia (SH) in patients with type 2 diabetes. We conducted a prospective cohort study from January 2001 to December 2012 with a median follow-up time of 9.5 years (5,814 person-years). Patients aged 25 to 75 years with type 2 diabetes and without chronic kidney disease were enrolled (n=894), and 624 patients completed follow-up. SH was defined as hypoglycemic episodes requiring hospitalization or medical care in an emergency department. We used the Cox proportional hazards regression analysis to test associations between SH episodes and potential explanatory variables. Among the 624 participants who completed follow-up, 60 patients (9.6%) had previous CVD. Compared to patients without CVD, patients with previous CVD were older, had a longer duration of diabetes and hypertension, received more insulin, and had more diabetic microvascular complications at baseline. During follow-up, 62 patients (9.9%) experienced at least one SH episode (incidence of 1.33 per 100 patient-years). The development of SH was associated with a history of CVD (hazard ratio, 1.99; 95% confidence interval, 1.07 to 3.72; P=0.031) after adjusting for sex, age, diabetic duration, hypertension, hemoglobin A1c levels, diabetic complications, cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy, and insulin use.",
"yes. In a 15-year follow-up of an elderly Mediterranean population free from CV disease, diabetes mellitus and hypertension were related to CV events. The control of risk factors in the elderly needs to be reinforced to achieve better results in terms of CV prevention.",
"We tested the hypothesis that qualitative microalbuminuria (MAU) screening in a practice setting would identify non-diabetic hypertensive patients at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease. We enrolled general practitioners throughout Germany, who obtained histories, physical examinations, and routine laboratory values as clinically indicated on treated or non-treated hypertensive, non-diabetic patients. MAU was measured with a albumin-sensitive, immunoassay test strip. We studied 11 343 non-diabetic hypertensive patients. The patients' mean age was 57 years, 51% were men and mean hypertension duration was 69 months. Twenty-five per cent had coronary artery disease, 17% had left ventricular hypertrophy, 5% had had a stroke, and 6% had peripheral vascular disease. MAU was present in 32% of men and 28% of women (P < 0.05). In patients with MAU, 31% had coronary artery disease, 24% had left ventricular hypertrophy, 6% had had a stroke, and 7% had peripheral vascular disease. In patients without MAU, these rates were 22%, 14%, 4%, and 5% respectively: lower in every category (P < 0.001). Further, in patients with coronary artery disease, left ventricular hypertrophy, stroke, and peripheral vascular disease, MAU was significantly greater than in patients who did not have these complications (P < 0.001). MAU increased with age, severity of hypertension and duration of hypertension, was associated with higher plasma creatinine values, and was more common in patients with hyperlipidemia (P < 0.05).",
"Cognitive impairment in people with type 2 diabetes is a barrier to successful disease management. We sought to determine whether impaired executive function as detected by a battery of simple bedside cognitive tests of executive function was associated with inadequate glycaemic control. People with type 2 diabetes attending a tertiary referral diabetic clinic who consented to participate in the study underwent a brief battery of cognitive testing (the Bedside Executive Screening Test) designed to detect executive function impairment. Glycaemic control was determined using blood glycated haemoglobin levels (HBA(1c)). Inadequate glycaemic control was defined as HBA(1c) > or =7%. Executive function impairment was detected in 51 (52%) of the 98 study participants. The presence of executive function impairment was significantly associated with poor glycaemic control (HBA(1c) > or =7%) (odds ratio 4.9, 95% confidence interval 1.3 - 18.8, p=0.019). There were no significant differences between patients with and without executive function impairment with regard to age, target organ damage, patient reported adherence, and hypoglycaemic therapy. Patients with a lower level of education were more likely to demonstrate executive impairment when glycaemic control was poor (p=0.013).",
"yes. Aging and severity of illness interact to exaggerate the increases in blood glucose that accompany TPN with hypertonic glucose. Serum insulin responses to TPN decline with aging, likely reflecting reduced insulin secretion. Diminished insulin responses may contribute to hyperglycemia and represent a diminished anabolic signal in such patients. The acutely ill elderly patient is predisposed to hyperglycemia and should be monitored carefully even when pre-TPN blood glucose values are normal.",
"yes. The prevalence of SCH was similar between T2DM and healthy group. Poor glycemic control in T2DM was obviously associated with the risk of SCH, especially in elderly women. These results suggest SCH as comorbidity may be considered in elderly women with poor glycemic control.",
"yes. The study demonstrates that decreased insulin sensitivity and the related hyperinsulinemia but not hyperglycemia could contribute to carotid artery stiffening in middle-aged, non-diabetic hypertensive patients free of cardiovascular complications.",
"To evaluate the influence of antihypertensive treatment and metabolic characteristics on the development of diabetes mellitus in middle aged men. Prospective study over an average of nine years. Community based health survey of middle aged men carried out at the University of Uppsala. Seventy three hypertensive men aged 49-54 and 65 normotensive controls matched for body mass index, glucose disappearance rate (k value) at an intravenous glucose tolerance test, and serum triglyceride and cholesterol concentrations. Hypertensive group was treated with beta blockers, thiazides, hydralazine, or combinations of these drugs. Treatment was not randomised. Intravenous glucose tolerance, fasting blood glucose and serum lipid and insulin concentrations, body weight and height, three skinfold measurements, and blood pressure were recorded both during an initial health screening survey in 1970-3 and at a follow up survey in 1980-3. In the period between the two surveys 12 hypertensive men and two controls developed diabetes. Review of values obtained at the initial survey showed that the hypertensive men who developed diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance could be distinguished from those hypertensive men who did not by virtue of a higher fasting serum insulin concentration (26.1 v 15.2 mU/l (confidence interval of difference -15.2 to -6.2)), a lower peak serum insulin concentration (78.9 v 94.3 mU/l (confidence interval of difference -1.1 to 41.1)), and a lower k value (1.29 v 1.68 (confidence interval of difference -0.02 to 0.68)). The insulin index (peak insulin concentration divided by fasting insulin concentration), however, decreased significantly in the hypertensive men over time irrespective of whether they developed diabetes but did not change in the controls. Furthermore, the serum triglyceride concentration increased in the treated group and decreased in the controls.",
"yes. Hyperglycemia is associated with relatively lower lean mass in a nationally representative population of older adults without history of diabetes. Future longitudinal studies are needed to investigate the relationship of hyperglycemia with the accelerated decline of skeletal muscle mass in older persons.",
"To evaluate the association between cognitive dysfunction and other barriers and glycemic control in older adults with diabetes. Patients over the age of 70 years presenting to a geriatric diabetes clinic were evaluated for barriers to successful diabetes management. Patients were screened for cognitive dysfunction with the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) and a clock-drawing test (CDT) scored by 1) a method validated by Mendez et al. and 2) a modified CDT (clock in a box [CIB]). Depression was evaluated with the Geriatric Depression Scale. Interview questionnaires surveyed activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental ADLs (IADLs), as well as other functional disabilities. Sixty patients (age 79 +/- 5 years, diabetes duration 14 +/- 13 years) were evaluated. Thirty-four percent of patients had low CIB (< or =5), and 38% of patients had low CDT (< or =13). Both CIB as well as CDT were inversely correlated with HbA(1c), suggesting that cognitive dysfunction is associated with poor glycemic control (r = -0.37, P < 0.004 and r = -0.38, P < 0.004, respectively). Thirty-three percent of patients had depressive symptoms with greater difficulty completing the tasks of the IADL survey (5.7 +/- 1.7 vs. 4.6 +/- 2.0; P < 0.03). These older adults with diabetes had a high incidence of functional disabilities, including hearing impairment (48%), vision impairment (53%), history of recent falls (33%), fear of falls (44%), and difficulty performing IADLs (39%).",
"We sought to study the association of the silent cerebral infarct (SCI), a predisposing condition of stroke, with hyperinsulinemia and hemostatic abnormalities in older hypertensive subjects. Hypertension is a powerful risk factor for stroke. However, the role of other risk factors for stroke in hypertensive subjects remains incompletely understood. We performed brain magnetic resonance imaging and measured cardiovascular risk factors, by administering the 75-g oral glucose tolerance test and measuring plasma insulin and hemostatic variables, in 123 asymptomatic hypertensive subjects (mean age 69 years). At least one SCI was detected in 80 subjects (65%), and multiple SCIs were found in 48 subjects (39%). The presence of SCIs was associated with older age, higher levels of 24-h systolic blood pressure, 2-h insulin, thrombin-generation markers (prothrombin fragment 1+2 and thrombin-antithrombin complexes), plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1), D-dimer and von Willebrand factor (vWF), but not with plasmin-alpha2-plasmin complex (PIC) levels. The 2-h insulin area under the curve (AUC) was positively correlated with PAI-1 and vWF levels (p < 0.01), and the PAI-1 level was negatively correlated with the PIC level (p < 0.02). Multiple logistic regression analysis revealed that age and the 2-h insulin AUC were significantly associated with SCIs, particularly those located in the subcortical white matter, and hemostatic abnormalities were significantly associated with the presence of multiple SCIs, particularly those located in the basal ganglia.",
"yes. These data suggest that glycemia is a major independent determinant of CIMT in hypertensive hyperglycemic patients, not only in DM-2 patients but also at the earlier stage of IFG, offsetting the mechanical role of local pulse pressure.",
"yes. This study suggests that hyperglycemia and higher NSBP levels should be responsible for an increased prevalence of LVH in hypertensive patients with Type 2 DM.",
"yes. In addition to aging, hypertension and glucose levels, very small LDL cholesterol levels appear to play an important role in the development of arterial stiffness in men with impaired glucose metabolism.",
"yes. Our data suggest that vascular abnormalities, independently of blood pressure levels, may play a role in the setting of subjective memory complaints as well as of WMH in elderly hypertensive patients. Arterial thickness and stiffness as well as endothelial function should be assessed simultaneously and may represent additional targets for the prevention of subjective memory complaints and WMH.",
"The effect of family history of hypertension (FHx(HT)), as a genetic factor predisposing to some ischemic stroke subtypes and independently of hypertension as risk factor, has never been studied. A positive FHx(HT) was searched in 472 patients (312 men, 160 women; mean [S.D.] age, 67.9 [11.4] years) consecutively admitted for a first-ever ischemic stroke (348) or transient ischemic attack (TIA) (124) due to small vessel disease (SVD, 180), large vessel disease (156), or cardioembolism (136). In this population and in three age bands, the genetically transmitted vascular risk factors, age, gender and the ischemic stroke subtypes were compared between those with and without a positive FHx(HT). None of the risk factors was associated with a positive FHx(HT), except for hypertension in the whole population (68.9% vs. 48.7%; p=0.001) and in the <65 year-old patients (72.5% vs. 39.5%; p<0.001). Regarding the stroke subtypes, a positive FHx(HT) was only associated with SVD in the subgroup of <65 year-old patients (odd ratios (OR), 2.07; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.01 to 4.25; p=0.045). However, this finding disappeared in a logistic regression analysis, which only retained hypertension as independently associated with SVD.",
"A possible association of glycemia with arterial hypertension has been suggested by the frequent co-occurrence of impaired glucose tolerance or Type 2 diabetes mellitus with arterial hypertension. The objective was to examine the relationship of glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) concentration with arterial hypertension status in non-diabetic subjects. A cross-sectional analysis of baseline data from the EPIC-Potsdam Cohort Study, Germany, was performed. The study population comprised 1846 non-diabetic subjects, 772 men and 1074 women, age 35-65. Blood pressure was measured three times consecutively. Level of HbA1c was determined by an assay based on monoclonal antibodies. Body height, weight and circumferences were obtained. Arterial hypertension status was either determined through blood pressure measurement (blood pressure>or = 160/95 mmHg) or based on antihypertensive drug use. HbA1c was divided into sex-specific quintiles and logistic regression was used to estimate the odds of being hypertensive and the corresponding confidence intervals. The highest compared to the lowest quintiles of HbA1c were in univariate analysis associated with being hypertensive. Adjustment for age and body mass index completely removed any significant association with arterial hypertension status. The odds ratio in men was 1.1 (95% CI 0.7-1.8), and in women it was 0.9 (95% CI 0.5-1.4). Repeating the analysis with systolic and diastolic blood pressure among untreated hypertensives yielded similar results.",
"yes. These results suggest that tight good glycemic control, even in very elderly subjects, may be able to reduce the systemic inflammation that contributes to leads to atherosclerosis.",
"To assess the cross-sectional relationship of glycemic control to memory impairment and executive dysfunction in older adults with diabetes treated at an urban primary care center. As part of a primary care-based cognitive screening program, we identified adults age 65 or older with a diagnosis of diabetes. Glycosylated hemoglobin level (HbA1c) was used to define diabetes as controlled (HbA1c <7) or inadequately controlled(HbA1c ≥ 7). Episodic memory was measured by quartile of free recall scores on the Free and Cued Selective Reminding Test. Executive function was measured using an ordinal composite score derived from animal fluency and months backward. These were the main predictors of diabetic control. The 169 participants with diabetes had a median age of 74. The sample was 38% African American and 42% Latino. One hundred four (61%) had inadequately controlled diabetes. Memory impairment and executive dysfunction were independent predictors of diabetic control after adjusting for age and education. Binary logistic regression models indicated that the odds of inadequately controlled diabetes was higher for patients in the worst quartile of memory functioning compared to patients in higher quartiles of memory functioning (odds ratio = 6.4; 95% confidence interval: 2.3, 17.6). Any level of executive dysfunction increased the odds of inadequately controlled diabetes compared to patients in the best quintile of executive functioning (odds ratio = 3.6; 95% confidence interval: 1.58, 8.35).",
"To determine whether older adults with type 2 diabetes mellitus and cognitive dysfunction have poorer metabolic control of glycosylated hemoglobin, systolic blood pressure, and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol than those without cognitive dysfunction. Prospective cohort study. A minority cohort in New York City previously recruited for a trial of telemedicine. Persons aged 73.0 ± 3.0 (N = 613; 69.5% female; 82.5% Hispanic, 15.5% non-Hispanic black). Participants were classified with executive or memory dysfunction based on standardized score cutoffs (<16th percentile) for the Color Trails Test and Selective Reminding Test. Linear mixed models were used to compare repeated measures of the metabolic measures and evaluate the rates of change in individuals with and without dysfunction. Of the 613 participants, 331 (54%) had executive dysfunction, 202 (33%) had memory dysfunction, and 96 (16%) had both. Over a median of 2 years, participants with executive or memory dysfunction did not exhibit significantly poorer metabolic control than those without executive function or memory type cognitive dysfunction.",
"yes. Irrespective of prior diagnostic status, individuals with high BP displayed compromised performance on tests of nonverbal memory, motor speed, and manual dexterity. However, as compared to the other groups, those diagnosed with hypertension and also having poorly controlled BP elevation were most vulnerable to difficulties on tests of perceptuo-motor speed, motor speed, and manual dexterity. These findings suggest the need for increased attention to preventative efforts with respect to BP assessment and control in older adults to help preserve cognitive function.",
"yes. In older asymptomatic hypertensive subjects, hyperinsulinemia appears to be associated with lacunar-type SCIs, particularly those located in the subcortical white matter, and hemostatic abnormalities show an association with the presence of multiple SCIs, particularly those located in the basal ganglia.",
"Hyperinsulinaemia may be pathogenetically involved in syndrome X patients, in close relation to the higher sympathetic drive that characterizes this syndrome. However, the wide range of insulin values, frequently overlapping with normal values, limits the usefulness of this abnormality as a marker of the syndrome.",
"yes. Impaired insulin release might contribute to the glucose intolerance associated with hypertension, and this can occur in the absence of insulin resistance, which is not present in all subjects with essential hypertension.",
"yes. About one-third of elderly, autonomous diabetic patients had OH. They had more severe hypertension, with higher SBP, DBP and PP at rest. However, the number of anti-hypertensive drugs did not differ compared to patients without OH. This could reflect the medical teams' fears about intensifying treatment.",
"yes. Our study demonstrates that poor education and increased BMI, WHR, and HOMA-IR are independent risk factors for cognitive impairment in elderly patients with hypertension. Insulin resistance plays an important role in the development of cognitive impairment in primary elderly hypertensive patients.",
"Stimulated hyperinsulinaemia is observed in some patients with syndrome X, defined as angina, positive stress test and normal coronary arteriography, and may be involved in the pathogenesis of the syndrome. An increased sympathetic response to exercise may also be pathogenetically involved. However, the diagnostic value of hyperinsulinaemia as a marker of this syndrome has not been defined. We determined blood glucose and immunoreactive insulin during fasting, at 60 and 120 min after a glucose load of 75g in 21 patients (eight men, 13 women, 53.9 +/- 7.1 years old) with syndrome X and in 21 healthy volunteers matched to the patients for age, sex and body mass index (eight men, 13 women, 51.6 +/- 9.3 years old). Insulin values were related to the rate-pressure product increase at first exercise stage. The glucose values as well as the insulin values during fasting were similar in syndrome X patients and in controls. However, significantly higher insulin values (mU/l) were observed at 60 (P<0.01) and 120 min (P<0.005) in syndrome X patients (median 75.5 and 52, range 43-290 and 6.1-212, respectively) than in controls (median 47.5 and 24.5, range 8-195.6 and 5.2-164, respectively). A considerable overlap of insulin values, however, was observed between the two groups, with abnormal values even during fasting. For a specificity of 95%, an abnormal insulin value had a sensitivity of between 19 and 24% and a diagnostic accuracy of 57-60%. A significant positive correlation was found between insulin levels after the glucose load and the rate-pressure product increment with exercise (60 min, r = 0.60; 120 min, r = 0.65).",
"This report focuses on the glycemic state in relation to insulin and lipid levels of a cohort of elderly hypertensive persons to estimate the prevalence of syndrome X. A cross-sectional study was performed at the University of Tennessee, Memphis, and the General Clinical Research Center (GCRC) on 95 participants in the Trial of Nonpharmacologic Interventions in the Elderly (TONE) study who agreed to participate in an ancillary study. A standard oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with insulin and C-peptide levels and a fasting lipid profile were obtained. In this sample of healthy elderly participants with hypertension who were taking an antihypertensive medication, 43 (45.3%) had normal glucose tolerance (NGT), 41 (43.2%) had impaired glucose tolerance (IGT), and 11 (11.6%) had undiagnosed non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM). Fasting hyperinsulinemia occurred in only one participant, who was in the IGT group. Hypertriglyceridemia and low high density lipoprotein (HDL) occurred in four persons, none of whom had hyperinsulinemia. Persons in the NIDDM and IGT groups had decreased beta cell function compared to persons in the NGT group, but did not have increased peripheral insulin resistance as estimated from the OGTT data.",
"Our data demonstrated that in this cohort of elderly hypertensive participants with a high prevalence of central obesity, impaired glycemic control was common, but was not associated with fasting hyperinsulinemia or peripheral insulin resistance. Furthermore, we conclude that syndrome X essentially did not occur in these participants and postulate that the primary etiology for their impaired glycemic control is beta cell dysfunction. Further research is needed to elucidate these relationships."
] | 940 |
Fish allergy: is cross-reactivity among fish species relevant? | [
"Allergic reactions to fish are a common cause of food allergy in many areas of the world where fish is a major source of protein. Although different species of fish may be consumed, possible cross-reactivity has received limited investigation. The aim of this study was to assess potential cross-reactivity to different species of fish species using double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges (DBPCFC) in fish-allergic adults and to compare skin test and RAST reactivity with the challenge response. Nine skin prick test and/or RAST-positive adult individuals with histories of an immediate-type reaction following fish ingestion were challenged with different fish species using double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge. Of a total of 19 double-blind, placebo-controlled fish challenges performed, 14 challenges (74%) resulted in the induction of objective signs that were consistent with an IgE-mediated response. The most common sign observed was emesis (37%); the most prevalent subjective symptoms reported were compatible with the oral allergy syndrome (84%). Three subjects reacted to at least three fish species and one subject reacted to two fish species tested. In regard to the positive challenges, predictive accuracy of skin prick test and RAST was 84% and 78%, respectively.",
"Our results indicate that clinically relevant cross-reactivity among various species of fish may exist. Advising fish-allergic subjects to avoid all fish species should be emphasized until a species can be proven safe to eat by provocative challenge."
] | [
"Although corn is often cited as an allergenic food, very few studies have been devoted to the identification of corn allergens and corn allergy has been rarely confirmed by double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC). Recently, Pastorello et al. (1) identified some salt-soluble IgE-binding proteins of corn flour as potential allergens. One of these, corresponding to corn Lipid Transfer Protein (LTP), appeared to be the major one. The aim of this study was to verify the clinical significance of the skin prick test (SPT) and CAP-FEIA CAP-System IgE fluozoenzyme immunosorbent assay (Pharmacia Diagnostic, Uppsala, Sweden) positivities to corn and to identify the presence of IgE-binding proteins in the corn flour salt-insoluble protein fractions (comprising up to 96% of the total protein) using sera of patients with DBPCFC-documented food allergy to corn. In addition the effect of cooking and proteolytic digestion on the corn allergens was investigated. Sixteen subjects with SPT and CAP-FEIA positivities to corn flour were examined. Only six of them complained of suffering from urticaria and/or other symptoms after ingestion of corn-based foods. The patients were food challenged with cooked corn flour (polenta). IgE-binding proteins were detected by immunoblotting. The digestibility of the IgE-binding proteins was examined during a pepsin attack followed by a pancreatin digestion performed on a cooked corn flour sample. Oral challenge was positive only for six patients with symptoms after ingestion of corn. A 50 kDa protein, belonging to the corn Reduced Soluble Protein (RSP) fraction was recognized by the serum IgE of all the DBPCFC-positive subjects and resulted to be resistant to both heating and peptic/pancreatic digestion. SPT with the purified RSP fraction gave positive results for all of the DBPCFC-positive patients examined.",
"There is concern that shrimp-allergic individuals may react to glucosamine-containing products as shrimp shells are a major source of glucosamine used for human consumption. The purpose of this study was to determine whether shrimp-allergic individuals can tolerate therapeutic doses of glucosamine. Subjects with a history of shrimp allergy were recruited and tested for both shrimp reactivity via a prick skin test and shrimp-specific IgE by an ImmunoCAP assay. Fifteen subjects with positive skin tests to shrimp and an ImmunoCAP class level of two or greater were selected for a double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC) using glucosamine-chondroitin tablets containing 1,500 mg of synthetically produced (control) or shrimp-derived glucosamine. Immediate reactions, including changes in peak flow and blood pressure, and delayed reactions (up to 24 h post-challenge) via questionnaire were noted and assessed. All subjects tolerated 1,500 mg of both shrimp-derived or synthetic glucosamine without incident of an immediate hypersensitivity response. Peak flows and blood pressures remained constant, and no subject had symptoms of a delayed reaction 24 h later.",
"So far, the frequency of Anisakis simplex-specific IgE antibodies has been determined by skin prick tests (SPTs) and the ImmunoCAP system. These commercial methods have good sensitivity, but their specificity is poor because they use complete parasite extracts. Our aim was to determine the frequency of sensitization to A. simplex using recombinant Ani s 1, Ani s 3, Ani s 5, Ani s 9 and Ani s 10 and to evaluate these allergens for diagnosis, comparing their performance with the commercial methods. We conducted a descriptive, cross-sectional validation study performed in an allergy outpatient hospital clinic. Patients without fish-related allergy (tolerant patients, n = 99), and A. simplex-allergic patients (n = 35) were studied by SPTs, ImmunoCAP assays and detection of specific IgE to A. simplex recombinant allergens by dot blotting. SPTs and ImmunoCAP assays were positive in 18 and 17% of tolerant patients, respectively. All A. simplex-allergic patients had positive SPTs and ImmunoCAP assays. Specific IgE against at least one of the A. simplex recombinant allergens tested was detected in 15% of sera from tolerant patients and in 100% of sera from A. simplex-allergic patients. Detection of at least one A. simplex recombinant allergen by dot blotting and ImmunoCAP assay using complete extract showed a diagnostic sensitivity of 100% with both methods. However, the specificity of dot blotting with A. simplex recombinant allergens was higher compared with ImmunoCAP (84.85 vs. 82.83%).",
"yes. Our findings suggest that: (i) Ni-MAIC is higher at sensitization than at elicitation; (ii) once sensitization is established, Ni allergy can easily be induced by a low concentration of Ni; and (iii) a bacterial milieu or infection may greatly facilitate the establishment and elicitation of Ni allergy.",
"yes. Sensitization to β-lactoglobulin increased the risk of rRTI in children under 2 years of age nearly four times. The presence of sensitization to food allergens above 3 years of age did not increase the risk of developing clinical presentation of food allergy other than atopic dermatitis.",
"To identify whether it is the yellow jacket (Vespula germanica) or European hornet (Vespa crabro) venom that induces sensitization in patients with IgE-mediated allergic reaction to the venom from the sting of a European hornet. Since these patients usually have positive skin tests and specific IgE to all vespid venoms, it would be useful to distinguish cross-reactors from non-cross-reactors to perform immunotherapy with the venom that induced the sensitization. We performed inhibition tests in 24 patients who had experienced anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a European hornet. Of 24 patients with allergic reaction after Vespa crabro sting, 17 were sensitized only to epitopes of Vespula germanica venom. Only 4 out of 24 patients were sensitized to epitopes completely cross-reactive with Dolichovespula arenaria venom.",
"yes. The presence of common allergens and the IgE cross-reactivity to green kiwifruit qualifies gold kiwifruit as a potential new allergen source for patients allergic to green kiwifruits.",
"yes. T cell epitope-based oral immunotherapy is effective in reducing allergic responses towards shrimp tropomyosin. This is a novel strategy for clinical management of shellfish allergy and is a model for mechanistic studies of oral immunotherapy.",
"Component-resolved allergy diagnostics enables the detection of crossreactive or species-specific allergen components. This study analysed Immunoglobulin E (IgE) profiles to single allergen components in relation to bronchial inflammation in severe childhood asthma. Ninety-five schoolchildren were assessed, 39 with controlled mild-to-moderate asthma and 56 uncontrolled severe asthmatics. Allergen components (n = 111) of food allergens, pollen and perennial aeroallergens were analysed using an immunosolid-phase allergen chip. Blood eosinophils (10(9) × l(-1)), bronchial inflammation (FeNO, ppb), lung function (FEV(1)%) and bronchial hyper-responsiveness (BHR) (dose-response slope of methacholine challenge) were measured. A specific IgE response to more than three animal-derived components--lipocalin (nMus m 1, rEqu c 1, Fel d 4, rCan f 1, 2), kallikrein (rCan f 5) and secretoglobin (rFel d 1)--was more common among severe asthmatics compared to children with controlled asthma (n = 14 vs n = 3, P = 0.030). These subjects also displayed higher blood eosinophils (0.65 vs 0.39, P = 0.021), higher Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (38 ppb vs 25 ppb, P = 0.021) and increased BHR (112 vs 28, P = 0.002) compared to other severe asthmatics positive to fewer lipocalin/kallikrein/secretoglobin components. Among all sensitized subjects, there were correlations between specific IgE levels for rFel d 4 and nMus m 1 (r = 0.751, P ≤ 0.001) and for rFel d 4 and rEqu c 1 (r = 0.850, P ≤ 0.001).",
"yes. We herein described two novel allergens from tomato seeds that belong to the nonspecific lipid transfer protein family classes 1 and 2, respectively. This is the first work associating IgE reactivity to these proteins with severe symptoms of certain tomato-allergic patients. Therefore, they are optimal candidates for clarifying the diagnosis of the tomato allergy.",
"yes. We conclude that primary sensitization to latex profilin in the majority of cases takes place via pollen or food profilins. Additionally, pollinosis and food-allergic patients with profilin-specific IgE can be at risk of developing latex allergy.",
"yes. This study shows that T cells and antibodies may show cross-reactivity between different species without being naturally exposed to sPLA2s.",
"To investigate if the development of allergic diseases during the child's first 18 months of life is influenced by the time at which different food items were introduced into the child's diet. A birth cohort of 184 children was followed to 18 months of age. Diaries were used to document feeding practices, and parental interviews were performed at 6 and 12 months of age, probing for symptoms suggesting allergic disease, general health-related issues and food introduction regimes. Symptoms promoted prompt clinical examination, and all children were examined clinically, and tested for sensitization to common airborne and food allergens at 18 months of age. The earlier the fish was introduced into the child's diet the lower was the frequency of eczema. This association remained after control for confounding factors. The timing of fish introduction and asthma development showed a similar pattern, but did not reach statistical significance. Sensitization was not influenced by the timing of fish introduction. Other food items or feeding practices did not seem to influence allergy development.",
"yes. We show that the α-Gal epitope is commonly present in IgE-reactive beef proteins recognized by meat-allergic patients. Seven novel α-Gal-containing IgE-binding proteins were identified, of which four were stable to heat treatment. Thus, the allergenicity of red meat proteins is preserved even upon different thermal cooking.",
"yes. Despite different isoenzymatic patterns, Olea-derived beta-GAL cross-reacted with that from cypress pollen, suggesting that these enzymatic glycoproteins may represent major native allergens among these Mediterranean trees.",
"yes. Der p 1 and Der f 1 behave very differently towards a plant cystatin, thus indicating substantial differences in their proteolytic activity. This fact could be significant with regards to the immunogenic properties of both allergens.",
"yes. These results suggest that sensitization potency and IgE binding capacity can be supported by different structures, modified and/or produced during food processing in interaction with other food constituents.",
"The extensive similarities between helminth proteins and allergens are thought to contribute to helminth-driven allergic sensitization. The objective of this study was to investigate the cross-reactivity between a major glutathione-S transferase allergen of cockroach (Bla g 5) and the glutathione-S transferase of Wuchereria bancrofti (WbGST), a major lymphatic filarial pathogen of humans. We compared the molecular and structural similarities between Bla g 5 and WbGST by in silico analysis and by linear epitope mapping. The levels of IgE, IgG, and IgG(4) antibodies were measured in filarial-infected and filarial-uninfected patients. Mice were infected with Heligmosomoides bakeri, and their skin was tested for cross-reactive allergic responses. These 2 proteins are 30% identical at the amino acid level with remarkable similarity in the N-terminal region and overall structural conservation based on predicted 3-dimensional models. Filarial infection was associated with IgE, IgG, and IgG(4) anti-Bla g 5 antibody production, with a significant correlation between antibodies (irrespective of isotype) to Bla g 5 and WbGST (P< .0003). Preincubation of sera from cockroach-allergic subjects with WbGST partially depleted (by 50%-70%) anti-Bla g 5 IgE, IgG, and IgG(4) antibodies. IgE epitope mapping of Bla g 5 revealed that 2 linear N-terminal epitopes are highly conserved in WbGST corresponding to Bla g 5 peptides partially involved in the inhibition of WbGST binding. Finally, mice infected with H bakeri developed anti-HbGST IgE and showed immediate-type skin test reactivity to Bla g 5.",
"yes. A 67-kD protein (Ic-VIIIe1) was isolated, purified to homogeneity and partially characterized. It showed cross-reactivity with tropical grasses tested and contained at least three allergenic determinants.",
"yes. In this tropical population, IgE sensitization to Ascaris and the cross-reactive tropomyosins was frequent and associated with clinical indicators of asthma severity. The significant relationship between sensitization to the nematode-specific marker Asc s 1 and ER attendance supports these findings. Moreover, ascariasis increases the human IgE responses to HDM specific allergens.",
"yes. The h-Gm seems to lose the allergenic epitopes and has two advantages for anglers: to avoid new possible sensitizations as well as allergic symptoms in sensitized people, without interfering with their skills and satisfaction in their fishing performance.",
"In silico analysis of allergens can identify putative relationships among protein sequence, structure, and allergenic properties. Such systematic analysis reveals that most plant food allergens belong to a restricted number of protein superfamilies, with pollen allergens behaving similarly. We have investigated the structural relationships of animal food allergens and their evolutionary relatedness to human homologs to define how closely a protein must resemble a human counterpart to lose its allergenic potential. Profile-based sequence homology methods were used to classify animal food allergens into Pfam families, and in silico analyses of their evolutionary and structural relationships were performed. Animal food allergens could be classified into 3 main families--tropomyosins, EF-hand proteins, and caseins--along with 14 minor families each composed of 1 to 3 allergens. The evolutionary relationships of each of these allergen superfamilies showed that in general, proteins with a sequence identity to a human homolog above approximately 62% were rarely allergenic. Single substitutions in otherwise highly conserved regions containing IgE epitopes in EF-hand parvalbumins may modulate allergenicity.",
"yes. We demonstrated that L-PGDS and cystatin reacted with serum IgE in patients with egg allergy. Our proteomics-based analysis in egg white gives a comprehensive map of proteins bound with IgE and should assist in enabling more accurate diagnoses and recommendations of desensitizing treatments for individual patients.",
"yes. Our results add to findings regarding the 'latex-fruit syndrome' described in the literature, and further study of the cross-reacting allergens identified in Indian jujube may help to elucidate the mechanisms underlying this syndrome.",
"Component-resolved diagnostics (CRD) has been demonstrated to be an excellent new tool for improving the current diagnosis of allergies, and it allows differentiation between polysensitization and cross-reactivity. To demonstrate the role of cross-reactive pollen allergens in pediatric patients living in areas with large amounts of airborne grass pollen grains who are sensitive to grass pollen and latex. Serum samples were obtained from 106 children between 3 and 14 years of age diagnosed with allergies to pollen based on clinical history, skin prick tests, and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE). None of them had allergy symptoms to latex or fruits. From these 106 children, 56 patients revealed positive results to Phleum-specific major allergens but not to cross-reactive allergens. The other 50 patients who showed positive specific IgE to Phleum-specific major allergens and to cross-reactive pollen allergens also showed positive results to latex allergens. CRD was carried out by specific IgE quantification using a fluoro-enzyme immunoassay (ImmunoCAPT System). Results demonstrated a positive significant relationship between the specific IgE to Hev b 8 and Phl p 12 and also between the specific IgE to Hev b 8 and latex extract in the group of patients sensitized to species-specific and cross-reactive Phleum allergens. Positive significant relationships were also found between profilin and avocado or peach sensitizations. No other latex allergens gave positive results.",
"In birch pollen-allergic patients the occurrence of clinically relevant crossreactivity to plant-derived foods is clearly related with the level of birch-specific IgE. In profilin-hypersensitive patients this has not been investigated so far. To investigate whether the levels of profilin IgE are predictive of the development of food allergy in hypersensitive patients. IgE specific for Phl p 12, the grass pollen profilin, were measured in 37 subjects monosensitized to profilin with (n = 11) or without (n = 26) oral allergy syndrome (OAS) following the ingestion of plant-derived foods. Patients without a history of OAS showed higher levels of IgE specific for Phl p 12 than patients with OAS (median 4.74 [range 0.7-41.6] KU/L vs 2.14 [range 0.32-10.2]KU/L, respectively) although the difference did not reach statistical significance (p = 0.07).",
"There are ambiguous results regarding the role n-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids and fish might play in primary prevention of allergic diseases. The aim was to investigate the association between cod liver oil and fish consumption during pregnancy and in the first year of life and asthma and eczema at 2 years of age. From the Prevention of Allergy among Children in Trondheim study, a prospective birth cohort study in primary healthcare in Trondheim, Norway, 3086 children were followed prospectively from 1 year to approximately 2 years of age. The primary outcome variable was parental reported asthma and eczema at 2 years. The mean age for introducing fish in the diet was 9.1 months. Excluding children with incident eczema before 1 year, a reduced risk of developing eczema was found if the child was eating fish once a week or more, adjusted OR (aOR) for any kind of fish 0.62 (95% CI 0.42 to 0.91 p=0.02), for oily fish aOR 0.21 (95% CI 0.05 to 0.86 p=0.03) and for lean fish aOR 0.67 (95% CI 0.41 to 1.08 p=0.10). The associations between maternal diet and eczema at 2 years and between the dietary factors and doctor-diagnosed asthma were all insignificant.",
"yes. Part of the IgE binding to mould and yeast allergen extracts is due to cross-reacting glycoproteins. False-positive IgE and skin prick test results should be taken into account in the diagnosis of mould allergy.",
"Many allergenic sources are reportedly cross-reactive because of protein structural similarities. Although several aggregations are well characterized, no holistic mapping of IgE reactivity has hitherto been reported. The aim of this study was to disclose relevant associations within a large set of allergen preparations, as revealed by specific IgE antibody levels in blood sera of multireactive human donors. A dataset of recorded IgE antibody serum concentrations of 1011 nonidentifiable multireactive individuals (devoid of clinical records) to 89 allergen extracts was compiled for in silico analysis. Various algorithms were used to identify specific multivariate dependencies between the IgE antibody levels. Exhaustive cluster analysis demonstrates that IgE antibody responses to the 89 extracts can be aggregated into 12 stable formations. These clusters hold both well-known relationships, unexpected patterns, and unknown patterns, the latter categories being exemplified by the coclustering of wasp and certain seafood and a clear differentiation among pollen allergens.",
"yes. Pro j 2, as a new allergen from mesquite pollen, was produced in E. coli with an IgE-reactivity similar to that of its natural counterpart. The amino acid sequences homology analysis of mesquite profilin and several profilin molecules from other plants showed high degree of cross-reactivity among plant-derived profilins from unrelated families.",
"yes. NTF2 represents a novel cross-reactive fungal allergen as demonstrated by sequence homology, three-dimensional modelling, inhibition experiments and skin test reactivity.",
"Profilin is a highly conserved protein regarded as a pan-allergen in pollen and vegetable food. Homologous proteins from different sources are highly cross-reactive. To assess whether detecting immunoglobulin (Ig) E to multiple profilins from different sources is clinically more useful than detecting IgE to a single representative profilin. Sera from 43 subjects sensitized to profilin selected in 2 allergy centers in Northern Italy showing a different pollen exposure profile were studied for their IgE reactivity to 5 profilins (Bet v 2, Ole e 2, Hev b 8, Mer a 1, and Phl p 12) using a commercial allergen microarray immunoassay. All 43 patients (100%) scored positive to at least 1 profilin on ISAC, although reactivity to all 5 profilins was observed in only 37 cases (86%). In approximately half of the reactors, IgE reactivity to Ole e 2 was much weaker than that to other profilins irrespective of the primary sensitizing allergen source, suggesting a low sensitivity of this allergen. Much discrepancy in IgE to Bet v 2 measured by ISAC microarray and ImmunoCAP was observed.",
"yes. Peanut allergy might be mediated in a subgroup of our patients by means of cross-reaction of Bet v 1 with the homologous peanut allergen Ara h 8.",
"Sensitization to rats and mice can develop in laboratory animal workers exposed to only one species. Reasons for this dual sensitization are unclear but may reflect a genetic predisposition to developing allergy (atopy) or alternatively cross-reactivity between rat and mouse urinary allergens. We examined cross-reactivity between rat and mouse urine and the effect atopy has on dual sensitization in laboratory animal workers. In a cross-sectional study the frequency of sensitization to rat and/or mouse was analysed in 498 employees exposed to both rat and mouse at work and 220 to rat only. RAST inhibitions, western blots and blot inhibitions were carried out on a subset of five individuals to assess cross-reactivity. Fourteen per cent of workers were sensitized to rats and 9% to mouse. Over half (62%) of rat sensitized individuals were also mouse sensitized and the majority (91%) of mouse sensitized individuals were also rat sensitized. IgE cross-reactivity was demonstrated between rat and mouse urine using RAST inhibitions. Rates of atopy did not differ between rat only sensitized individuals compared with those sensitized to both species. Sensitization to cats and rabbits was more common amongst those with dual sensitization.",
"Even among faculty physicians at university medical centers, the notion of seafood allergy as a significant risk factor for adverse radiocontrast media reactions remains pervasive. Even if no action is taken on the basis of the answer, it seems probable that the act of inquiring about seafood allergy before radiocontrast media administration could lead patients and trainees to presume an inherent risk in patients who are seafood allergic, thus propagating the notion. Physician education with respect to seafood allergy and radiocontrast media administration is vital to halting the persistence of this misconception.",
"no. These results show that mice of different genetic backgrounds can be sensitized to peanut by ip injection to develop anti-peanut Abs that cross react with lupine. In addition, cross-allergenicity may not directly correlate with the presence of cross-reactive Abs since no clinical symptoms of cross-allergenicity was seen after ip challenge with lupine.",
"The relationship between helminthiases and allergy is a matter of considerable interest and research. In the tropics, house dust mite exposure, a known risk factor for asthma, is frequently concurrent with helminth infections. It remains to be defined whether infection with the common roundworm Ascaris or its bystander immunological effects influence the prevalence and pathogenesis of asthma independently of mite sensitization. To investigate the relationship between the IgE responses to Ascaris and its purified allergens and the risk of asthma in a tropical country. A nested case-control study was performed in 356 subjects who reported current and past asthma symptoms (asthmatics) and 435 controls that had never experienced such symptoms. They were tested for serum levels of total IgE and specific IgE to Ascaris extract, Asc s 1 (ABA-1), Asc l 3 (tropomyosin) and GST (glutathione transferase). In addition, specific IgE to Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus, Blomia tropicalis and their tropomyosins Der p 10 and Blo t 10 was measured. Sensitization was defined as a positive specific IgE result to any extract or recombinant allergen. Sensitization to Ascaris and D. pteronyssinus was independently associated with asthma after adjustment for age, gender, socio-economic stratum, city and other IgE levels (adjusted ORs: 2.17; 95% CI 1.37-3.42 and 2.46; 95% CI 1.54-3.92), respectively. There was also a significant association with sensitization to the highly allergenic and cross-reactive tropomyosins Asc l 3, Blo t 10 and Der p10 (aORs: 1.76; 95% CI 1.21-2.57, 1.64; 95% CI 1.14-2.35 and 1.51; 95% CI 1.02-2.24), respectively.",
"yes. Some human asthmatics have developed IgE that reacts with an M. anisopliae catalase, most likely due to cross-reactivity (minimal IgG development). The cross-reactivity among fungal catalases suggests that IgE-reactive catalase might be useful for exposure assessment. Additionally, the similarity of protein profiles visualized with both human and mouse serum IgE suggests that allergy hazard identification can be facilitated using a mouse model.",
"yes. Use of measurements of IgE to shrimp tropomyosin provided added value to the diagnosis of shrimp allergy.",
"Birch pollen-associated plant food allergy is caused by Bet v 1-specific IgE, but presence of cross-reactive IgE to related allergens does not predict food allergy. The role of other immunoglobulin isotypes in the birch pollen-plant food syndrome has not been investigated in detail. Bet v 1-sensitized birch pollen-allergic patients (n = 35) were diagnosed for food allergy by standardized interviews, skin prick tests, prick-to-prick tests and ImmunoCAP. Concentrations of allergen-specific IgE, IgG1, IgG4 and IgA to seven Bet v 1-related food allergens were determined by ELISA. Bet v 1, Cor a 1, Mal d 1 and Pru p 1 bound IgE from all and IgG4 and IgA from the majority of sera. Immunoglobulins to Gly m 4, Vig r 1 and Api g 1.01 were detected in <65% of the sera. No significant correlation was observed between plant food allergy and increased or reduced levels of IgE, IgG1, IgG4 or IgA specific to most Bet v 1-related allergens. Api g 1-specific IgE was significantly (P = 0.01) elevated in celeriac-allergic compared with celeriac-tolerant patients. Likewise, frequencies of IgE (71% vs 15%; P = 0.01) and IgA (86% vs 38%; P = 0.04) binding to Api g 1.01 were increased.",
"yes. We identified a vacuolar serine protease as a major allergen of C. cladosporioides (Cla c 9) and a major pan-allergen of prevalent airborne fungi. IgE cross-reactivity among these highly conserved serine protease pan-fungal allergens was also detectable.",
"yes. Results obtained from this study indicate that vacuolar serine protease may be a major allergen of F. proliferatum and an important IgE cross-reactive pan-fungal allergen, and provide important bases for clinical diagnosis of fungal allergy.",
"Secreted phospholipases A2 (sPLA2) represent antigens to which humans may be rarely or frequently exposed. Thus, the investigation of humoral and cellular immune responses to sPLA2s from different species can provide a suitable model in the study of antibody and T-cell cross-reactivity. Specific IgE, IgG1, IgG4, and IgA antibodies were analyzed by ELISA against sPLA2s from pancreas of Bos taurus (BT), Apis mellifera (AM) bee venom, Daboia russellii (DR) and Naja mossambica (NM) snake venoms, and human group III (hGIII) sPLA2 using sera of nonallergic beekeepers, AM-allergic patients, and healthy controls. T-cell cross-reactivity was investigated in PBMC, and T-cell clones (TCC) are generated against AM sPLA2. Hyperimmune and allergic individuals showed high levels of sPLA2-specific IgG4 and significant IgG4 cross-reactivity between BT, DR, and NM sPLA2s. Furthermore, IgE, IgA, and IgG1 cross-reactivities against BT, DR, and NM sPLA2s were also detectable in the range of 22.2-44.8%. Allergic patients showed significant T-cell proliferative response to NM sPLA2 together with increased IFN-γ and IL-13 production even though they had never been exposed to cobra venom. Although nonallergic healthy controls show no cross-reactivity at T-cell level, they did have low levels of IgG4 and IgA against BT, DR, and NM sPLA2s. Human TCC spanning three major T-cell epitopes of AM sPLA2 showed minor proliferative response to NM and hGIII sPLA2s.",
"To determine the extent to which perceived adverse food reactions were associated with IgE mediated food allergy, as defined by skin prick testing (SPT). A cohort epidemiological study. Participants underwent SPT to five common food allergens (cow's milk, peanut mix, egg white, shrimp and whole grain wheat mix) and were asked whether they had ever suffered any food 'illness/trouble', and if so to list such food(s). A positive SPT was defined as wheal diameter of > or =3 mm. Cohen's kappa (kappa) was used to assess the agreement between SPT and self-reported reactions to food(s) which contained the allergen of interest. Randomly selected adults who took part in the follow-up of the European Community Respiratory Health Survey (ECRHS) in 1998. The subjects were 457 adults aged 26-50 y. Fifty-eight (13%) adults were sensitised to at least one food allergen whilst 99 adults (22%) reported illness to food(s) nearly always. However, only seven subjects who reported illness to a food also had a positive SPT to the same food. The prevalence of adverse food reactions associated with IgE mediated allergy in the adult general population would be less than 1.5% (7/457). The agreement between SPT and self-reported illness to food(s) was poor for cow's milk (kappa=0) and wheat (kappa=0), slight for shrimp (kappa=0.16) and egg white (kappa=0.09) and fair for peanut mix (kappa=0.37).",
"yes. These results imply that most fungi may possess proteins that have potential to be allergens or to cross react with allergens. This, together with the observation that important allergens such as Asp f 1 are limited to genera or species, has significant implications for understating fungal sensitization, and interpreting diagnosis and management of fungal allergy.",
"Patients sensitized to common pets (cat, dog) frequently display an immunoglobulin (Ig) E-mediated response to allergens from other animals. To evaluate whether individuals sensitized to common pets might be at higher risk of developing allergic sensitization to other mammalian allergens. The study population comprised 900 consecutive patients (300 individuals sensitized to different allergens including those of cat and dog [group AL, 300 sensitized to allergens other than those derived from cat and dog [group B], and 300 nonsensitized individuals [group C, controls]). All patients underwent a physical examination, an interview (clinical history, pet ownership, possible exposure data), and skin prick test (SPT) with a standard panel of allergens including cat, dog, horse, rabbit, rat, mouse, guinea pig, hamster, and cow. A significant difference in allergic sensitization to mammalian allergens was observed in groupA compared with group B (respectively, 244 vs. 17). No sensitization was found in group C.",
"Allergy to celery is often associated with sensitization to birch and/or mugwort pollen. In a multi-centre study, sera from 23 patients suffering from type 1 allergy to celery and 15 patients with positive celery RAST but no clinical sensitization were compared. To examine whether cross-reactivity between celery and mugwort pollen includes cross-sensitization to birch pollen allergens, we determined cross-reacting structures in birch pollen, mugwort pollen and celery by means of immunoblotting. Inhibition studies were performed by preincubation of sera with extracts of birch pollen, mugwort pollen, and celery. We identified three groups of proteins--homologues of Bet v 1 and birch profilin (Bet v 2) as well as a group of proteins with a molecular range of 46 to 60 kD--displaying IgE-cross-reactivity, which were shared by birch pollen and celery. Two of these groups of allergens (profilin and the 46 to 60 kD proteins) were also present in mugwort pollen. In this paper we demonstrate that most cross-reacting allergens present in mugwort pollen and celery can also be detected in birch pollen extract.",
"Trees of the family Oleaceae are important allergen sources, with a strongly varying geographic distribution. For example, olive pollen is an important allergen source in Mediterranean countries, whereas ash pollen dominates in Northern and Central Europe and North America. The aim of this study was to compare the profiles of olive and ash pollen allergens and to study the degree of cross-reactivity using populations of allergic patients selectively exposed to olive or ash pollen. Olive and ash pollen extracts were analyzed by IgE immunoblotting using sera from Spanish patients highly exposed to olive pollen and Austrian patients without olive but ash pollen exposure. IgE cross-reactivity was studied by qualitative immunoblot inhibition assays and semiquantitative ELISA inhibitions using olive, ash, birch, mugwort, timothy grass pollen extracts and the major olive pollen allergen, Ole e 1. Spanish and Austrian patients exhibited an almost identical IgE-binding profile to olive and ash pollen allergens, with major reactivity directed against Ole e 1, and its homologous ash counterpart, Fra e 1. IgE inhibition experiments demonstrated extensive cross-reactivity between olive and ash pollen allergens. However, whereas cross-reactions between profilins and calcium-binding allergens also occurred between unrelated plant species, cross-reactivity to Ole e 1 was confined to plants belonging to the Oleaceae.",
"yes. Our data suggest that nitration affects differently the food allergens BLG and OVM. In the case of BLG, structural changes favored dimerization possibly explaining the increased anaphylactic reactivity in BLG allergic animals.",
"Detecting IgE reactivity to a single marker protein (eg, Bet v 2) is sufficient to diagnose or exclude sensitization to profilin. Detecting IgE to multiple homologous, cross-reacting allergen proteins is not clinically more informative and increases the risk of confusion and misinterpretation.",
"Cross reactions are an often observed phenomenon in patients with allergy. Sensitization against some allergens may cause reactions against other seemingly unrelated allergens. Today, cross reactions are being investigated on a per-case basis, analyzing blood serum specific IgE (sIgE) levels and clinical features of patients suffering from cross reactions. In this study, we evaluated the level of sIgE compared to patients' total IgE assuming epitope specificity is a consequence of sequence similarity. Our objective was to evaluate our recently published model of molecular sequence similarities underlying cross reactivity using serum-derived data from IgE determinations of standard laboratory tests. We calculated the probabilities of protein cross reactivity based on conserved sequence motifs and compared these in silico predictions to a database consisting of 5362 sera with sIgE determinations. Cumulating sIgE values of a patient resulted in a median of 25-30% total IgE. Comparing motif cross reactivity predictions to sIgE levels showed that on average three times fewer motifs than extracts were recognized in a given serum (correlation coefficient: 0.967). Extracts belonging to the same motif group co-reacted in a high percentage of sera (up to 80% for some motifs).",
"Several cross-reacting proteins have been identified as responsible of the co-occurrence of pollinosis and plant-derived food allergy. This association has been mainly described in the birch-apple syndrome but other pollens such as Olea europaea and other fruits may also contain homologous proteins. To evaluate the associations between sensitization to allergens of Olea europaea pollen and confirmed plant-derived food allergy, in addition to investigate if any pattern of clinical hypersensitivity of food allergy reaction (oral allergy syndrome (OAS) or anaphylaxis) and/or any fresh fruit or nut allergy, are associated to one or several Olea pollen allergen(s). One-hundred and thirty-four consecutive patients diagnosed with pollinosis by Olea were studied. Of these patients only 40, reported adverse reaction to plant-derived food. Twenty-one (group A) were classified as OAS and 19 (group B) as anaphylaxis. Skin-tests with six Olea pollen allergens and several groups of fruits, were performed. Double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge (DBPCFC), confirmed the diagnostics of food allergy with the exception of patients who suffered previous anaphylactic reaction. All patients, showed a positive skin prick test (SPT), against one or more of Olea europaea allergens. Sensitization to Ole e 7, was more frequent (P = 0.02) in patients from group B. A total of 84 DBPCFC were performed with 44% positive results. Challenge confirmed at least the 50% of positive SPT in any case (peach: 68.42%; pear: 50%; melon: 71.42% and kiwi: 53.84%). In patients from group B, significant association with O. europaea pollen allergens were found between positive SPT to Rosaceae fruits and Ole e 3 (P = 0.045) and Ole e 7 (P = 0.03); Cucurbitaceae and Ole e 7 (P = 0.03) and Actinidiaceae with Ole e 3 (P = 0.04).",
"IgE- and T-cell cross-reactivity contribute to the birch pollen-food syndrome. We performed a comprehensive analysis of T-cell cross-reactivity in primary cell cultures, facilitating the identification of allergen-specific T-cell subpopulations from individual patients. Patients with birch pollen allergy and associated food allergy to hazelnuts, carrots, or both were analyzed for IgE cross-reactivity, T-cell responses, and T-cell cross-reactivity to recombinant Bet v 1.0101 (Bet v 1; birch), Cor a 1.0401 (Cor a 1; hazelnut), and Dau c 1.0104 (Dau c 1; carrot). A novel flow cytometry-based method using a 2-step staining process with fluorescent dyes was established to identify subpopulations of cross-reactive T cells. IgE-binding inhibition tests of individual sera revealed that the vast majority of Cor a 1-reactive IgE was cross-reactive to Bet v 1, whereas Bet v 1-reactive IgE was only partially inhibited by preincubation with Cor a 1. Primary stimulation of T cells with Bet v 1 or Cor a 1 resulted in a significant increase in specific responses to Cor a 1 or Bet v 1 after secondary stimulation, respectively, indicating T-cell cross-reactivity between birch and hazelnut allergens in all patients of the study cohort. Preactivation with Dau c 1 induced less pronounced effects. A novel flow cytometry-based proliferation assay identified a predominant Cor a 1/Bet v 1-cross-reactive T-cell subpopulation within highly Bet v 1/Cor a 1-responsive T cells.",
"Several case reports show allergy and anaphylactic reactions to the fish parasite Anisakis in the domestic and occupational setting. Further research is needed on the prevalence and mechanisms of disease. To determine the prevalence of Anisakis sensitization and related symptoms among workers in 2 fish-processing factories, and to use gene-deficient mice to determine the working mechanisms of Anisakis allergy. A modified version of the European Community Respiratory Health Survey was used to interview 578 South African fish-processing workers. Sensitization to Anisakis, seafood, and common aeroallergens was determined by skin prick test. Lung function was measured by spirometry and methacholine challenge. Serum eicosapentaenoic acid levels were used as an index of seafood consumption. Sensitized wild-type, IL-4, or IL-4 receptor alpha-deficient mice were challenged orally with Anisakis extract. Allergic reactions, lung pathology, antibodies, cytokines, mast cell proteases, and histamine were evaluated. The prevalence of sensitization to Anisakis was higher than the prevalence of sensitization to fish (8% vs 6%). Anisakis-specific IgE reactivity was associated with bronchial hyperreactivity and dermatitis, and significantly increased with fish consumption. In mice, Anisakis infective larvae (L3) induced a striking T(H)2/type 2 response. Food-allergic-type reactions induced by oral challenge with Anisakis extract were absent in IL-4 receptor alpha knockout mice.",
"The calcium-binding 2EF-hand protein Phl p 7 from timothy grass pollen is a highly cross-reactive pollen pan-allergen that can induce severe clinical symptoms in allergic patients. Recently, a human monoclonal Phl p 7-specific IgG4 antibody (mAb102.1F10) was isolated from a patient who had received grass pollen-specific immunotherapy (SIT). We studied epitope specificity, cross-reactivity, affinity and cross-protection of mAb102.1F10 towards homologous calcium-binding pollen allergens. Sequence comparisons and molecular modelling studies were performed with ClustalW and SPADE, respectively. Surface plasmon resonance measurements were made with purified recombinant allergens. Binding and cross-reactivity of patients' IgE and mAb102.1F10 to calcium-binding allergens and peptides thereof were studied with quantitative RAST-based methods, in ELISA, basophil activation and IgE-facilitated allergen presentation experiments. Allergens from timothy grass (Phl p 7), alder (Aln g 4), birch (Bet v 4), turnip rape (Bra r 1), lamb's quarter (Che a 3) and olive (Ole e 3, Ole e 8) showed high sequence similarity and cross-reacted with allergic patients' IgE. mAb102.1F10 bound the C-terminal portion of Phl p 7 in a calcium-dependent manner. It cross-reacted with high affinity with Ole e 3, whereas binding and affinity to the other allergens were low. mAb102.1F10 showed limited cross-inhibition of patients' IgE binding and basophil activation. Sequence comparison and surface exposure calculations identified three amino acids likely to be responsible for limited cross-reactivity.",
"It is still uncertain whether house dust mite (HDM) tropomyosin present in allergen extracts can cross-sensitize patients receiving subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT) and thus induce food allergy. Our aim was to assess whether new sensitization to tropomyosin occurred during HDM-SCIT, and, if so, whether it was clinically relevant. The study sample comprised 56 HDM-allergic patients treated with SCIT using HDM extract. All patients were screened for specific IgE (sIgE) to mite tropomyosin (rDer p 10) before and after SCIT. In patients with a positive result, we also monitored the dynamics of sIgE to rDer p 10 and shrimp tropomyosin (rPen a 1) at several time points. The levels of sIgE were measured using the CAP System fluorescent-enzyme immunoassay. sIgE to tropomyosin was found in only 5 patients, 3 of whom expressed low and clinically irrelevant levels of sIgE to Der p 10, while sIgE to Pen a 1 was not found. The remaining 2 patients expressed sIgE to both tropomyosins. In the first, the initial increase and subsequent decrease resembled the dynamics of the IgE antibodies usually seen in SCIT patients and were never accompanied by seafood-induced symptoms. In the other, a decrease in levels of sIgE to both tropomyosins resulted in the complete loss of his reactivity toward seafood.",
"Previous approaches for studying common allergenic epitopes have mainly focused on sequence comparisons, which unfortunately yield little or no information on the shape of the epitope which is the most important determinant of cross-reactivity. The aim of this study was to investigate the structural basis for cross-reactivity between a previously identified immunodominant epitope of the house dust mite allergen Der p 1 (Leu147-Gln160) and the corresponding epitopes on other allergens that are either taxonomically closely related (i.e. cysteine proteases of other mite species) or representing evolutionary conserved structures (i.e. plant, human and parasite cysteine proteases). We carried out comparative molecular modelling on a range of cysteine proteases, including those of other mite species (Der f 1 and Eur m 1), human (cathepsins B, K, L, S and O), plants (papain, chymopapain and actinidin) and parasites (cruzain, cathepsin L-like Leishmania protease, Entamoeba ACP1 protease and Schistosoma Q26534, Q11003 and cathepsin L proteases). Our study shows that all the cysteine proteases investigated here display an epitope corresponding to that previously identified on Der p 1, but with varying shapes and degree of accessibility. It appears that the core of the epitope on these homologous cysteine proteases consists of a centrally located conserved Tyr residue flanked on either sides by accessible amino acids.",
"yes. We concluded that fast omega-gliadin is a major allergen among these water/salt-insoluble proteins for wheat-dependent exercise-induced anaphylaxis in Japanese patients, and IgE against fast omega-gliadin cross-reacts to gamma-gliadin and slow omega-gliadin.",
"yes. Our results demonstrate that a small number of amino acid differences among cross-reactive allergens can reduce the affinity of binding by a SIT-induced IgG and thus limit cross-protection.",
"yes. Identified relationships within several well-known groups of cross-reactive allergen extracts confirm the applicability of dedicated multivariate data analysis within the allergology field. Moreover, some of the unexpected IgE reactivity associations in sensitized human subjects might help in identifying new relationships with potential importance to allergy.",
"yes. Our findings affirm our hypothesis, underscore the high cross-reactivity between distinct pollens, and highlight the utility of the PCC to identify novel allergy endotypes that might have contrasting mechanistic underpinnings and potentially therapeutic responses.",
"yes. Dual sensitization to rat and mouse reflects IgE cross-reactivity rather than atopy. Individuals with dual sensitization are more likely to be sensitized to other animal allergens. These findings will have implications for individuals working with only one rodent species who develop sensitization and symptoms to be aware of the potential for allergy to other species.",
"yes. IgE levels to rPen a 1 provided additional value to the diagnosis of shrimp allergy. Some allergens in mite extract are recognized by patients who are allergic to shrimp, though their clinical relevance remains unknown.",
"Shrimp is a frequent cause of food allergy. Tropomyosin is the major allergen in shrimp, and it shares homology to tropomyosins from other crustaceans, dust mites, cockroach, and parasites. The aim of this study was to determine the value of detection of IgE to shrimp tropomyosin in the diagnosis of shrimp allergy. We have studied 35 patients with asthma, rhinitis, or both who were sensitized to Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus. All subjects underwent skin prick testing in addition to double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges (DBPCFC); oral open challenges; or both with shrimp. Measurements of IgE to shrimp and shrimp tropomyosin were carried out by means of CAP and chimeric ELISA, respectively. Oral challenges confirmed the diagnosis of shrimp allergy in 7 patients. IgE measurement to shrimp tropomyosin was positive in 71.4% of the patients with shrimp allergy. Of the 28 patients without shrimp allergy, only 7.1% (2/28) had IgE to shrimp tropomyosin compared with 25% (7/28) who had IgE to shrimp and 35.7% (10/28) who had positive skin prick test responses to shrimp. Sensitivity was similar for all 3 methods (71.4%); in contrast, specificity of IgE to shrimp tropomyosin (92.8%) was greater than that of IgE to shrimp (75%) and skin prick testing (64.2%). With regard to diagnostic efficiency, measurement of IgE to shrimp tropomyosin was superior to measurement of IgE to shrimp and skin prick testing (88.5%, 74.2%, and 65.7%, respectively).",
"The most serious limitation of the serodiagnosis of parasitoses is the occurrence of cross-reactions. The possible use of Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 for diagnosis. Forty-nine non-fish-allergic patients with Anisakis simplex hypersensitivity, 21 patients without allergic episodes suffering intestinal anisakiasis with obstruction of the intestinal lumen, and 10 unrelated sera as a control were included in this study to determine specific immunoglobulin (Ig)E and IgG to Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 by immunoblotting. Eighty-six percent of patients with Anisakis simplex hypersensitivity showed specific IgE directed to Ani s 1. Identical result was obtained for IgG detection in this group. Among patients with intestinal anisakiasis, 86% showed specific IgE, but only 29% had specific IgG (P < 0.001, two-tailed Fisher exact test). One of the 10 control subjects was positive both for IgE and IgG (P < 0.001).",
"IgE-epitope mapping of allergens reveal important information about antigen components involved in allergic reactions. The peptide-based microarray immunoassay has been used to map epitopes of some food allergens. We developed a peptide microarray immunoassay to map allergenic epitopes in parvalbumin from Atlantic cod (Gad m 1), the most consumed cod species in Spain. Sera from 13 fish-allergic patients with specific IgE to cod parvalbumin were used. A library of overlapping peptides was synthesized, representing the primary sequence of Gad m 1. Peptides were used to analyze allergen-specific IgE antibodies in patient sera. 100% of the patients recognized one antigenic region of 15 amino acids in length in Gad m 1. This region only partially correlated with one of the three antigenic determinants of Gad c 1 (Allergen M), parvalbumin from Baltic cod (Gadus callarias). In the 3D model of the protein, this region was located on the surface of the protein.",
"yes. Our results suggest that the 34-kD alkaline serine proteinase is a major allergen of A. flavus. There was IgE cross-reactivity among allergens of A. flavus, A. fumigatus and P. citrinum.",
"yes. These data support the premise that certain protein structures are more allergenic than others. Contrasting with plant food allergens, animal allergens, such as the highly conserved tropomyosins, challenge the capability of the human immune system to discriminate between foreign and self-proteins. Such immune responses run close to becoming autoimmune responses.",
"Chronic urticaria (CU) may affect up to 1% of the general population. Anisakis simplex hypersensitivity is frequent in areas where raw fish is consumed and A. simplex allergy represents a relevant cause of acute urticaria. We assessed the possible association between CU and A. simplex sensitization in an area where marinated fish is very frequently eaten. A thorough history of CU was sought in 919 adults seen at the Allergy Center, Bari. CU patients and 187 controls underwent skin-prick testing with a commercial extract of A. simplex, and reactors were recommended a 6-month raw-fish-free diet regimen. Responders were followed after a further 3 months. Of 919 subjects, 213 (23%) met the criteria for CU and 106/213 (49.7%) were sensitized to A. simplex with a significant difference between patients aged >65 or <65 years (56 vs. 41%, respectively; p < 0.05). All patients hypersensitive to A. simplex were regular consumers of marinated fish. In a control population without CU, the prevalence of A. simplex sensitization was 16% (p < 0.001). The 6-month diet regimen led to the disappearance of urticaria in 82/106 cases (77%) versus 1/42 (2%) subjects who did not change their dietary habits (p < 0.001). All nonresponders were sensitized to house-dust mites. Of 75 responders who were followed-up after 3 months, CU relapsed in 88% of those who had reintroduced raw fish versus 14% of those who were still on the diet (p < 0.001).",
"Immunoglobulin E-mediated allergy to cow's milk protein represents a major problem for infants who are not breast fed. A search for substitute milks revealed a cross-allergenicity to milk derived from goat and sheep but not to milk from a mare. We noted that the cow, goat and sheep species are both artiodactyls and ruminants, defining them as kosher animals, in contrast to the mare. To determine whether patients with IgE-mediated cow's milk allergy are cross-sensitized to milk from other species such as the deer, ibex, buffalo, pig and camel. Patients with a clinical history consistent with IgE-mediated cow's milk protein allergy were tested by skin-prick test to validate the diagnosis. They were then evaluated by skin-prick test for cross-sensitization to milk-derived proteins from other species. All patients allergic to cow's milk tested positive by skin-prick test for cross-reactivity to deer, Ibex and buffalo (n = 24, P = 0). In contrast, only 5 of the 24 patients (20.83%) tested positive to pig milk and only 2 of 8 (25%) to camel's milk. Cross-sensitization to soy milk was noted in 4 of 23 patients (17.39%), although they all tolerated oral ingestion of soy-containing foods.",
"Tropomyosin does not seem to be the main allergen involved in mite-seafood sensitization in mite sensitized individuals. High levels of sIgE to tropomyosin seem to be related to severity of symptoms.",
"yes. In areas where raw or marinated fish is frequently eaten, A. simplex hypersensitivity is a frequent cause of CU.",
"A significant cross-sensitization to milk proteins derived from kosher animals exists in patients allergic to cow's milk protein, but far less so compared to the milk proteins from non-kosher animals tested. Patients with proven IgE-mediated allergy to cow's milk can utilize the above findings to predict suitable alternative sources of milk.",
"yes. Sin a 3 (nsLTP) and Sin a 4 (profilin) were identified as new mustard allergens and showed IgE cross-reactivity with fruits such as peach or melon, respectively. The knowledge of these two allergens will contribute towards better understand with cross-reactivity between mustard and other plant food allergens, and their availability will provide physicians with useful tools for molecular diagnosis.",
"yes. Extensive T and B cell cross-reactivity was observed towards the allergens of the Pooideae grasses, and the degree of B cell cross-reactivity was independent of the number of species included in the extract mixes. This implies that treatment with pollen extract of just one Pooideae species will affect the allergic responses caused by any of the temperate grasses in this subfamily.",
"Immunotherapy using HDM extracts does not induce clinically relevant sensitization to tropomyosin. In certain cases of combined mite and seafood allergy, treatment may even lead to the improvement of food allergy symptoms. The levels of sIgE to Der p 10 and Pen a 1 may be useful monitoring markers.",
"yes. In 2 North American RA cohorts, we observed a high prevalence of anti-CarP antibody positivity. We also describe a surprising and unexpected association of anti-CarP with anti-Sa antibodies that could not be explained by cross-reactivity. Further, considerable heterogeneity exists between anti-CarP reactivity and other citrullinated peptide reactivity, raising the question of how the pathogenesis of antibody responses for carbamylated proteins and citrullinated proteins may be linked in vivo.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that helminth glutathione-S transferase and the aeroallergen Bla g 5 share epitopes that can induce allergic cross-sensitization.",
"Some studies hypothesize the existence of cross-reactivity between allergy to Cupressus sempervirens pollen and plant-derived foods. We aimed to assess whether this holds true. 72 patients monosensitized to cypress pollen were investigated for food allergy to peach, apple, tomato and Juniperius oxycedrus berry. No patient had a history of clinical allergy or showed in-vitro or in-vitro reactivity to peach, apple, and tomato. Two patients scored positive on SPT with Juniperius oxycedrus berry but in-vitro tests ruled out cross-reactivity with the corresponding pollen.",
"The risk of adverse reactions to tuna skin gelatin seems to be significantly lower than the risk of fish allergy. Fish gelatin may represent a valuable alternative to bovine or porcine gelatin.",
"yes. Early introduction of fish into the child's diet was associated with less eczema development, and a tendency to less asthma. Sensitization was not associated with the timing of fish introduction.",
"Shrimp is a common cause of food allergy. Our aims were to determine the value of IgE antibodies in the diagnosis of shrimp allergy and to study red shrimp (Solenocera melantho) tropomyosin both as a new allergen and as a cross-reactive IgE-binding protein. We have studied 45 subjects. Skin prick test (SPT) was carried out in all subjects, and specific IgE (sIgE) to shrimp, recombinant and natural shrimp tropomyosins rPen a 1 and nPen m 1, recombinant Der p 10, and Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus was assessed by fluoroimmunoassay and/or immunoblotting. Double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges were carried out to confirm diagnosis of shrimp allergy. Also, in vitro inhibition tests were performed to evaluate cross-reactivity. Shrimp allergy was confirmed in 18 shrimp-allergic patients. Skin prick test and IgE antibodies to shrimp were positive in all shrimp-allergic patients; sIgE to rPen a 1 was detected in 98% of these patients. Of the 18 shrimp-tolerant patients, 61% had positive SPT to shrimp, 55% were IgE-positive to shrimp, and 33% showed IgE antibodies to rPen a 1. Determination of IgE to rPen a 1 yielded a positive predictive value of 0.72 and a negative predictive value of 0.91.",
"Seafood allergy has been related to mite sensitization, mainly mediated by the muscle protein tropomyosin. To determine the correlation between seafood hypersensitivity and mite sensitization (Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus and Chortoglyphus arcuatus, a highly prevalent storage mite in Spain) and to investigate the implication of tropomyosin in cross-reactivity. Patients from Northwest Spain were divided into 2 groups. The mite-seafood group contained 30 allergic mite individuals with a clinical history of food hypersensitivity. The mite group contained 40 individuals with positive skin prick test results to D pteronyssinus and C arcuatus but negative seafood test results. Specific IgE (sIgE) to whole mite and shrimp extracts, mite tropomyosin (rDer p 10), and shrimp tropomyosin (rPen a 1) were determined in each serum sample. Allergenic profiles were analyzed by immunoblot. Cross-reactivity studies were investigated by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and immunoblot inhibition studies. In the mite-seafood group, 71% of patients had positive sIgE results to shrimp and 55% of them to shrimp tropomyosin. A strong correlation was found between sIgE to shrimp tropomyosin and mite tropomyosin. Positive correlation was observed between sIgE to shrimp tropomyosin and severity of symptoms. In the mite group, none of the 20% of patients with sIgE to shrimp tested positive to shrimp tropomyosin. In the immunoblot inhibition experiment, the shrimp extract was totally inhibited by mite extract. These data suggest that primary sensitization is related to mite sensitization.",
"yes. We have identified a relevant antigenic region in Gad m 1. This epitope could be considered as a severity marker and provides additional information to improve fish allergy diagnosis and the design of safe immunotherapeutic tools.",
"yes. Our data indicate the paramount importance of gastric digestion for fish allergens because the quantitatively significant absorption and elicitation of symptoms seemed to take place in the intestine.",
"yes. Less than 50% of patients sensitized to birch and grass profilin cross-react to Parietaria profilin. In most cases, cross-reactors are hypersensitive to major, specific Parietaria allergens as well. This findings may be of practical relevance when the prescription of specific immunotherapy is considered.",
"yes. Anisakis sensitization in fish-processing workers is associated with allergic symptoms and correlates with high levels of fish consumption. Anisakis proteins induce allergic reactions in sensitized mice by IL-4/IL-13-mediated mechanisms.",
"EF-hand Ca2+-binding sites can not be considered as general allergenic motifs responsible for the cross-reactivity between Ca2+-binding allergens. Different families of Ca2+-binding allergens have specific epitopes that could be involved in the cross-reactivity among members of the same family.",
"Fish represents one of the most important allergenic foods causing severe allergic reactions. Nevertheless, it has been shown that gastric digestion significantly reduces its allergenic capacity. In this study, we assessed the absorption kinetics of fish proteins and investigated the clinical reactivity of patients with fish allergy to codfish digested at physiological or elevated gastric pH. Healthy individuals were openly challenged with codfish and blood samples were evaluated by histamine release for absorbed fish allergens. Patients with allergy were recruited on the basis of previously diagnosed codfish allergy. Fish extracts were digested with gastric enzymes at pH 2.0 and 3.0 and used for histamine release, skin prick tests, and titrated double-blind placebo-controlled food challenges. Ingestion experiments in subjects without allergy revealed absorption of biologically active fish allergens only 10 minutes after ingestion with maximal serum levels after 1 to 2 hours. Incubation of fish proteins with digestive enzymes at pH 2.0 resulted in a fragmentation of the proteins leading to a reduced biological activity evidenced by a significantly smaller wheal reaction and reduced histamine release. Fish digested at pH 3.0 revealed comparable reactivity patterns as undigested extracts. Moreover, these test materials triggered reactions at 10-fold to 30-fold lower cumulated challenge doses in patients with allergy.",
"The major allergens in fish are parvalbumins. Important immunoglobulin (Ig)E cross-recognition of parvalbumins from different fish species has been shown. Recently frog parvalbumin alpha has been found to be responsible for a case of IgE-mediated anaphylaxis triggered by the ingestion of frog meat. The aim of this study was to investigate whether IgE antibodies of fish allergic persons cross-react with frog parvalbumin and to appreciate its clinical relevance. The sera of 15 fish allergic patients and one fish and frog allergic patient were tested by IgE-immunoblotting against frog muscle extract. Sera were tested against recombinant parvalbumin alpha and beta from Rana esculenta. Skin prick tests were performed in selected patients with recombinant frog parvalbumin. Ca(2+) depletion experiments and inhibition studies with purified cod and frog recombinant parvalbumin were done to characterize the cross-reactive pattern. Fourteen of the sera tested had IgE antibodies recognizing low molecular weight components in frog muscle extract. Calcium depletion experiments or inhibition of patient sera with purified cod parvalbumin led to a significant or complete decrease in IgE binding. When tested against recombinant parvalbumins, three of 13 sera reacted with alpha parvalbumin and 11 of 12 reacted with beta parvalbumin from R. esculenta. Skin prick tests performed with recombinant frog parvalbumin were positive in fish allergic patients. Inhibition studies showed that a fish and frog allergic patient was primarily sensitized to fish parvalbumin.",
"Although fish gelatin may represent a useful alternative to bovine or porcine gelatin, the clearly recognized high prevalence of fish allergy could increase the risk of anaphylaxis to gelatin. The rationale for investigating tuna gelatin rather than gelatin from more allergenic fishes is the availability of an industrial gelatin under development. The infrequent occurrence of tuna allergy should influence the safety of a derived product. The present study investigated IgE antibodies to tuna-skin-derived gelatin in adults and children with documented fish allergy or sensitization. Serum samples were taken from 100 consecutive patients with fish allergy or sensitization and tested for IgE antibodies against hydrolyzed or nonhydrolyzed gelatin extracted from tuna skin as compared to extracts from tuna flesh, tuna skin as well as bovine or porcine gelatin. Patients with tuna allergies or sensitization were sensitive to the same tuna species (yellowfin) as that from which the gelatin was obtained. IgE antibodies to these various extracts were analyzed using SDS-PAGE and immunoblotting. Only 3 of the 100 serum samples tested gave evidence of reactivity to gelatin extracted from tuna skin. Cross-reactivity between bovine/porcine and fish gelatin was not observed.",
"Parvalbumins are the most important fish allergens. Polysensitization to various fish species is frequently reported and linked to the cross-reactivity of their parvalbumins. Studies on cross-reactivity and its association to the allergenicity of purified natural parvalbumins from different fish species are still lacking. In addition, some studies indicate that dark muscled fish such as tuna are less allergenic. Total protein extracts and purified parvalbumins from cod, whiff, and swordfish, all eaten frequently in Spain, were tested for their IgE-binding properties with 16 fish allergic patients' sera from Madrid. The extent of cross-reactivity of these parvalbumins was investigated by IgE ELISA inhibition assays. Additionally, the cDNA sequences of whiff and swordfish parvalbumins were determined. Extractable amounts of parvalbumins from cod were 20 times and from whiff 30 times higher than from swordfish. Parvalbumins were recognized by 94% of the patients in extracts of cod and whiff, but only by 60% in swordfish extracts. Nevertheless, a high cross-reactivity was determined for all purified parvalbumins by IgE inhibition. The amino acid sequence identities of the three parvalbumins were in a range of 62-74%.",
"Fish is an important cause of food allergy. Studies on fish allergy are scarce and in most cases limited to serological evaluation. Our objective was to study patterns of self-reported allergy and tolerance to different commonly consumed fish species and its correlation to IgE sensitization to the same species. Thirty-eight adult fish allergic patients completed a questionnaire regarding atopy, age of onset and symptoms to 13 commonly consumed fish species in the Netherlands (pangasius, cod, herring, eel, hake, pollock, mackerel, tilapia, salmon, sardine, tuna, plaice and swordfish). Specific IgE to these fish extracts were analyzed by ImmunoCAP. Median age of onset of fish allergy was 8.5 years. Severe reactions were reported by the majority of patients (n = 20 (53%) respiratory and of these 20 patients, 6 also had cardiovascular symptoms). After diagnosis, 66% of the patients had eliminated all fish from their diet. Allergy to all species ever tried was reported by 59%. In relation to species ever tried, cod (84%) and herring (79%) were the most frequently reported culprit species while hake (57%) and swordfish (55%) were the least frequent. A positive sIgE (value ≥ 0.35 kUA/L) to the culprit species ranged between 50% (swordfish) and 100% (hake). In tolerant patients, a negative sIgE (value < 0.35 kUA/L) ranged from 0% (hake, pollock and swordfish) to 75% (sardine). For cod, the agreement between sIgE test results and reported allergy or tolerance was 82% and 25%, respectively. Sensitization to cod parvalbumin (Gad c 1) was present in 77% of all patients.",
"yes. The parvalbumins of cod, whiff and swordfish are highly cross-reactive. The high amino acid sequence identity among cod, whiff and swordfish parvalbumins results in the observed IgE cross-reactivity. The low allergenicity of swordfish is due to the low expression levels of its parvalbumin.",
"Allergic reactions to fish are a common cause of food allergy in many areas of the world where fish is a major source of protein. Although different species of fish may be consumed, possible cross-reactivity has received limited investigation. The aim of this study was to assess potential cross-reactivity to different species of fish species using double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenges (DBPCFC) in fish-allergic adults and to compare skin test and RAST reactivity with the challenge response. Nine skin prick test and/or RAST-positive adult individuals with histories of an immediate-type reaction following fish ingestion were challenged with different fish species using double-blind, placebo-controlled food challenge. Of a total of 19 double-blind, placebo-controlled fish challenges performed, 14 challenges (74%) resulted in the induction of objective signs that were consistent with an IgE-mediated response. The most common sign observed was emesis (37%); the most prevalent subjective symptoms reported were compatible with the oral allergy syndrome (84%). Three subjects reacted to at least three fish species and one subject reacted to two fish species tested. In regard to the positive challenges, predictive accuracy of skin prick test and RAST was 84% and 78%, respectively.",
"yes. Cod parvalbumin, a major cross-reactive allergen among different fish species, shares IgE binding epitopes with frog parvalbumin. This in vitro cross-reactivity seems to be also clinically relevant. Parvalbumins probably represent a new family of cross-reactive allergens.",
"no. Serological cross-reactivity between fish species is frequent, but in a significant proportion of patients, clinical relevance appears to be limited to only certain species. A well-taken history or food challenge is required for discrimination between allergy to the different fish species.",
"Our results indicate that clinically relevant cross-reactivity among various species of fish may exist. Advising fish-allergic subjects to avoid all fish species should be emphasized until a species can be proven safe to eat by provocative challenge."
] | 365 |
Do eosinophil counts correlate differently with asthma severity by symptoms versus peak flow rate? | [
"Discrepancy in asthmatic assessment by symptoms and peak flow rate (PFR) is a frequent dilemma. Currently, total peripheral eosinophil count (TPEC) is under study for asthma evaluation. To explore the correlation between TPEC and asthma severity assessed by symptoms alone versus symptoms and PFR. Adults asthmatics were selected from the Asthma Clinic. Severity assessment was based on two methods: symptoms alone or symptoms and PFR. Expiratory PFR was recorded by a Wright peak flow meter. Severity levels included mild intermittent, mild persistent, moderate persistent, and severe persistent. Total peripheral eosinophil count was performed on a Celldyn-3500 counter. Data was analyzed for statistical significance. Sixty asthmatics aged 15 to 70 years (mean = 34 years), of which 68.3% were female, were studied. Severity levels differed between the two assessment methods in 45% of the cases and showed a predominance of the moderate persistent type. Total peripheral eosinophil count ranged between 22 and 2470 cells/mm3 (mean = 520 +/- SD = 393) and eosinophilia was found in 50% of the cases. Total peripheral eosinophil count showed a high positive correlation with increased asthma severity level assessed by history alone (r = 0.460, P<.001); more than by history and PFR (r = 0.328, P<.05).",
"The discrepancy between symptoms and PFR is confirmed by these results. A reliable objective parameter in asthma assessment is a continuous challenge. This study advocates the possible supplementation of TPEC as another objective parameter that might help in selecting the appropriate severity level in asthmatics."
] | [
"There is overwhelming evidence that asthma guidelines aimed at reducing airway inflammation are superior to those based on clinical symptoms alone. This involves targeting eosinophilic inflammation with inhaled corticosteroids.AIM: Because induced sputum is not readily available, our study set out to investigate whether the collective or singular use of routine asthma investigations can predict sputum eosinophilia. Eighty patients underwent skin prick testing, blood tests (IgE, full blood count), spirometry, exhaled fraction nitric oxide (FeNO), PD15 to hypertonic saline, and induced sputum testing at first assessment. A predictive model for sputum eosinophilia (defined as ≥3% eosinophils) was sought using routinely available tests. Fifty-four subjects underwent both induced sputum and FeNO testing. Seventeen (30%) revealed eosinophilic inflammation, nine (16%) neutrophilic, four (7%) mixed granulocytic and 26 (46%) paucigranulocytic. Positive predictors for sputum eosinophilia included low forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV(1))% predicted, raised serum eosinophil, positive smoking history, Polynesian ethnicity and negative asthma family history. There was a non-statistically significant trend for FeNO predicting sputum eosinophilia. The best combination of predictors was low FEV(1)% predicted, raised serum eosinophil, positive smoking history and negative family history of asthma.",
"To evaluate the potential determinants of forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) decline in workers with occupational asthma (OA) still exposed to the causative agent. We hypothesised that sputum eosinophilia might be a predictor of poor asthma outcome after diagnosis. In a specialistic clinical centre of the University Hospital of Pisa, we studied 39 participants (28 M, 11 F) diagnosed as having OA, routinely followed up between 1990 and 2009. They were a subgroup of 94 participants diagnosed as affected by OA in that period: 9 had been removed from work at the diagnosis, 21 were excluded for having ceased occupational exposure after few months from diagnosis, and 25 were lost at the follow-up or had no acceptable sputum measurements at the diagnosis. Estimates of the decline in FEV1 were obtained by means of simple regression analysis during the period of occupational exposure after diagnosis. Logistic regression was used to analyse the effects of factors (baseline FEV1 and sputum inflammatory cells, duration and type of exposure) that may potentially influence FEV1 decline. At follow-up (5.7+3.7 years), most participants were still symptomatic despite inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) treatment and had their occupational exposure reduced. Participants with higher sputum eosinophils (>3%) at baseline had a significantly greater decline of FEV1 (-52.5 vs -18.6 mL/year, p=0.012). Logistic regression showed that persistent exposure and sputum eosinophilia were significantly associated with a greater decline in FEV1 (OR 11.5, 95% CI 1.8 to 71.4, p=0.009 and OR 6.7, 95% CI 1.1 to 41.7, p= 0.042, respectively).",
"yes. These findings support the concept of asthma as a disease associated with activation of T(H)2 lymphocytes in the airway and provide evidence that these cytokines play a role in the development of airway inflammation in eosinophilic bronchitis but suggest that the release of T(H)2 cytokines is not sufficient for the elaboration of disordered airway physiology in asthma.",
"The individual perception of bronchial symptoms is highly variable among perennial allergic rhinitis patients. The lack of a maximal airway-narrowing plateau is related to the presence of sputum eosinophilia, which might be useful in the detection of patients susceptible to anti-inflammatory therapy. Prospective studies evaluating whether these patients are more likely to develop symptomatic asthma in the future and if the early anti-inflammatory treatment prevents its development are needed.",
"Predictive factors of childhood asthma for favorable prognosis may differ between populations where a variety of genetic and environmental factors are present. To document the factors predicting disease persistence in early adulthood in Turkey. An outpatient cohort (n = 115) with a mean follow-up duration of 11.4 +/- 0.2 years was evaluated. Complete remission was defined as no asthma symptoms, no use of controller medication, no airflow limitation and no airway hyper-responsiveness, and clinical remission as no symptoms and no use of controller medication, within the past year. The mean ages during referral and at the final visit were 5.8 +/- 0.2 and 17.1 +/- 0.2 years, respectively. Thirty-one (27%) were in complete remission, and a further 30 (26%) in clinical remission. In multivariate logistic models, diminished airflow [forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1)<80% vs>or = 80%] at the initial lung function test predicted current diminished airflow (8.422; 2.202-32.206) (odds ratio; 95% confidence interval), and presence of obstructive pattern (FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC)<80% vs>or = 80%) predicted current obstructive pattern (29.333; 3.022-284.724). Furthermore, female gender appeared to predict persistence of asthma symptoms (3.330; 1.250-8.333) and absence of clinical remission (2.398; 1.038-5.254); eosinophilia predicted persistence of symptoms (4.271; 1.080-16.889) and presence of airway hyper-responsiveness (3.723; 1.129-12.278).",
"Obesity is associated with an increased prevalence of asthma, especially in women, and appears to be more severe in the obese. This study aimed to determine if obese subjects have a specific asthma phenotype. Forty-four consecutive obese subjects (body mass index [BMI]>or = 30 kg/m(2)) and 44 consecutive nonobese subjects (BMI<25 kg/m(2)), all with asthma, completed an asthma control questionnaire, and underwent methacholine challenge with symptom perception scores, and sputum induction for differential cell count. BMI, waist circumference, and waist-to-hip ratio also were measured. Despite similar expiratory flows, bronchodilator response, airway responsiveness to methacholine, and symptom perception scores, asthma control was poorer in obese subjects than in nonobese subjects (p = 0.005). Total lung capacity (p = 0.01), expiratory reserve volume (p<0.0001), functional residual capacity (p<0.0001), and residual volume (p = 0.006) were lower in obese subjects than in nonobese subjects. Induced-sputum eosinophil and neutrophil counts were similar in both groups, although there was an inverse correlation between sputum eosinophils and waist circumference and a trend for a similar relationship for BMI. Blood serum C-reactive protein (p = 0.009) and fibrinogen (p = 0.0004) levels were higher in obese subjects than in nonobese subjects.",
"yes. In adult patients with severe asthma, BHR to ACh is related to the degree of eosinophilic airway inflammation, whereas BHR to Hist indicates airway remodeling, particularly ASM hypertrophy.",
"Aluminum potroom asthma (PA) has been described in several reports. This study aimed to investigate the association between blood eosinophils and PA. In a cross-sectional study, 338 workers were examined as follows: spirometry, blood eosinophils, skin prick test, and work exposure measurements. They also completed a questionnaire on respiratory symptoms, smoking, allergy, and duration of work exposure. The odds ratio for PA was 4.2 (95% confidence interval 1.5-9.7) for workers with eosinophils > or =400 x 10(6) cells/L compared with workers with eosinophils <200 x 10(6) cells/L. In non-smokers, the number of eosinophils was 177 x 10(6) cells/L (P < 0.001) higher among workers with PA than asymptomatic workers, whereas the corresponding difference among current smokers was only 63 x 10(6) cells/L (P = 0.03).",
"Decoy receptor 3 (DcR3), a soluble receptor of the tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, is a pleiotropic immunomodulator. The aim of this study was to investigate serum DcR3 levels in atopic and nonatopic asthma patients. The serum DcR3 levels of 70 adults with asthma and 20 healthy controls were determined by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The asthma patients were divided into atopic and nonatopic subgroups, based on the presence or absence of immunoglobulin E (IgE) specific to allergen. Correlations between serum DcR3 levels and blood total-eosinophil counts, forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC), and Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores were analyzed. The mean serum DcR3 level was significantly higher in asthma patients than in healthy controls (266.1 ± 60.6 pg/mL vs. 63.7 ± 21.9 pg/mL, p = 0.003), but there was no significant difference between the mean serum DcR3 level of asthma patients with atopy (37 patients) and patients without atopy (33 patients; 298.7 ± 111.2 pg/mL vs. 230.6 ± 38.5 pg/mL, p = 0.064). However, the serum DcR3 level was positively correlated with the total eosinophil count (r = 0.448, p = 0.012) and inversely correlated with the percentages of predicted FEV1, FEV1/FVC, and ACT score (r = 0.409, p = 0.018; r = -0.399, p = 0.021; and r = -0.505, p = 0.003, respectively) in nonatopic asthma patients, but not in atopic patients.",
"yes. Peripheral eosinophils were associated with wheeze and airflow obstruction in a diverse WTC-exposed population. These data suggest that eosinophils may participate in lung inflammation in this population with symptoms consistent with WTC-related asthma.",
"yes. This study provides further evidence that eotaxin polymorphisms are associated with the development of asthma by regulating eotaxin levels and reinforces towards the scanning of other chemokine genes present at 17q21 locus for their association with asthma and related phenotypes.",
"The lowest peak expiratory flow (PEF) over a week, expressed as a percentage of the highest PEF (Min%Max PEF) has been reported to be the index that most closely correlates with airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) in asthmatics. However, both fluctuation of the airway caliber and airflow limitation are regarded as physiological properties of asthma closely related to AHR. An accurate index that shows the degree of AHR may be obtained by combining the index of airway lability with the parameters that represent airway caliber. Ninety-two steroid-naive and twenty-eight steroid-treated asthmatic patients were enrolled. Using the physiological parameters obtained from spirometry and PEF monitoring, we investigated the indices which correlate accurately with airway responsiveness measured by the inhalation challenge test. Although the methacholine threshold was related to all parameters that represent airway caliber and lability, Min%Max PEF had the strongest correlation with AHR. When Min%Max PEF was adjusted by the airway geometric factors, the normalization of Min%Max PEF with forced expiratory volume in one second as a percentage of the predicted value (%FEV(1)) improved the relationship between Min%Max PEF and AHR.",
"yes. Sputum eosinophilia at diagnosis, together with the persistence of occupational exposure during follow-up, may contribute to a greater decline in FEV1 in patients with OA still at work. Further long-term studies are required as to whether intensive ICS treatment may be beneficial for patients with OA and increase ad eosinophilic inflammation.",
"One-quarter to one-third of individuals with asthma smoke, which may affect response to therapy and contribute to poor asthma control. To determine if the response to an inhaled corticosteroid or a leukotriene receptor antagonist is attenuated in individuals with asthma who smoke. In a multicenter, placebo-controlled, double-blind, double-dummy, crossover trial, 44 nonsmokers and 39 light smokers with mild asthma were assigned randomly to treatment twice daily with inhaled beclomethasone and once daily with oral montelukast. Primary outcome was change in prebronchodilator FEV(1) in smokers versus nonsmokers. Secondary outcomes included peak flow, PC(20) methacholine, symptoms, quality of life, and markers of airway inflammation. Despite similar FEV(1), bronchodilator response, and sensitivity to methacholine at baseline, subjects with asthma who smoked had significantly more symptoms, worse quality of life, and lower daily peak flow than nonsmokers. Adherence to therapy did not differ significantly between smokers and nonsmokers, or between treatment arms. Beclomethasone significantly reduced sputum eosinophils and eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) in both smokers and nonsmokers, but increased FEV(1) (170 ml, p = 0.0003) only in nonsmokers. Montelukast significantly increased a.m. peak flow in smokers (12.6 L/min, p = 0.002), but not in nonsmokers.",
"yes. These results suggest that different points of eosinophilic inflammatory processes in allergic airway disease may be differentially regulated by the activation of STAT6-dependent and -independent pathways.",
"yes. Eosinophilia at the time of bronchiolitis generally predicts the development of wheezing persisting into later childhood. Therefore, the association of bronchiolitis and childhood asthma seems more likely to be attributable to an immunologic anomaly that precedes the development of, or is induced by, bronchiolitis rather than to structural damage to the airway as a result of bronchiolitis.",
"yes. Asthma phenotyping based on clinical, physiologic and biomarker data identified clusters with significant differences in longitudinal stability over a 1-year period. This finding indicates that the majority of patients within stable clusters can be phenotyped with reasonable accuracy after a single measurement of lung function and sputum eosinophilia, while patients in unstable clusters will require more frequent evaluation of these variables to be properly characterized.",
"yes. Our adjusted analyses confirmed that eosinopenia during infant bronchiolitis predicted low asthma risk and eosinophilia outside infection predicted high asthma risk up to the age of 28-31 years. Parental asthma and eosinophilia during bronchiolitis were recognized as risk factors for irreversible airway obstruction.",
"yes. Patients with asthma controlled on ICS respond heterogeneously to ICS tapering. Serum eotaxin/CCL11 may be useful in predicting the severity of symptoms patients develop during steroid tapering and should be evaluated in guiding asthma treatment.",
"The diagnostic criteria of asthma-COPD overlap syndrome (ACOS) are controversial. Emphysema is characteristic of COPD and usually does not exist in typical asthma patients. Emphysema in patients with asthma suggests the coexistence of COPD. Quantitative computed tomography (CT) allows repeated evaluation of emphysema noninvasively. We investigated the value of quantitative CT measurements of emphysema in the diagnosis of ACOS. This study included 404 participants; 151 asthma patients, 125 COPD patients, and 128 normal control subjects. All the participants underwent pulmonary function tests and a high-resolution CT scan. Emphysema measurements were taken with an Airway Inspector software. The asthma patients were divided into high and low emphysema index (EI) groups based on the percentage of low attenuation areas less than -950 Hounsfield units. The characteristics of asthma patients with high EI were compared with those having low EI or COPD. The normal value of percentage of low attenuation areas less than -950 Hounsfield units in Chinese aged >40 years was 2.79%±2.37%. COPD patients indicated more severe emphysema and more upper-zone-predominant distribution of emphysema than asthma patients or controls. Thirty-two (21.2%) of the 151 asthma patients had high EI. Compared with asthma patients with low EI, those with high EI were significantly older, more likely to be male, had more pack-years of smoking, had more upper-zone-predominant distribution of emphysema, and had greater airflow limitation. There were no significant differences in sex ratios, pack-years of smoking, airflow limitation, or emphysema distribution between asthma patients with high EI and COPD patients. A greater number of acute exacerbations were seen in asthma patients with high EI compared with those with low EI or COPD.",
"Allergic diseases impair health-related quality of life (HR-QoL). However, the relationship between airway inflammation and HR-QoL in patients with asthma and rhinitis has not been fully investigated. We explored whether the inflammation of upper and lower airways is associated with HR-QoL. Twenty-two mild allergic asthmatics with concomitant rhinitis (10 males, 38 ± 17 years) were recruited. The Rhinasthma was used to identify HR-QoL, and the Asthma Control Test (ACT) was used to assess asthma control. Subjects underwent lung function and exhaled nitric oxide (eNO) test, collection of exhaled breath condensate (EBC), and nasal wash. The Rhinasthma Global Summary score (GS) was 25 ± 11. No relationships were found between GS and markers of nasal allergic inflammation (% eosinophils: r = 0.34, P = 0.24; ECP: r = 0.06, P = 0.87) or bronchial inflammation (pH of the EBC: r = 0.12, P = 0.44; bronchial NO: r = 0.27, P = 0.22; alveolar NO: r = 0.38, P = 0.10). The mean ACT score was 18. When subjects were divided into controlled (ACT ≥ 20) and uncontrolled (ACT<20), the alveolar NO significantly correlated with GS in uncontrolled asthmatics (r = 0.60, P = 0.04).",
"Although work-exacerbated asthma (WEA) is a prevalent condition likely to have an important societal burden, there are limited data on this condition. The aims of this study were (1) to compare the clinical, functional, and inflammatory characteristics of workers with WEA and occupational asthma (OA) and (2) compare health care use and related costs between workers with WEA and OA, as well as between workers with work-related asthma (WRA; ie, WEA plus OA) and those with non-work-related asthma (NWRA) in a prospective study. We performed a prospective observational study of workers with and without WRA with a 2-year follow-up. The diagnosis of OA and WEA was based on the positivity and negativity of results on specific inhalation challenges, respectively. One hundred fifty-four subjects were enrolled: 53 with WEA, 68 with OA, and 33 control asthmatic subjects (NWRA). WEA was associated with more frequent prescriptions of inhaled corticosteroids (odds ratio [OR], 4.4; 95% CI, 1.4-13.6; P = .009), a noneosinophilic phenotype (OR, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.9; P = .04), a trend toward a lower FEV1 (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.9-1.0; P = .06), and a higher proportion of smokers (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 0.96-9.7; P = .06) than the diagnosis of OA. The health care use of WRA and related costs were 10-fold higher than those of NWRA.",
"maybe. This study demonstrates that a significant eosinophilic inflammation is present across all categories of asthma, and that paucigranulocytic asthma may be seen as a low grade inflammatory disease.",
"Component-resolved allergy diagnostics enables the detection of crossreactive or species-specific allergen components. This study analysed Immunoglobulin E (IgE) profiles to single allergen components in relation to bronchial inflammation in severe childhood asthma. Ninety-five schoolchildren were assessed, 39 with controlled mild-to-moderate asthma and 56 uncontrolled severe asthmatics. Allergen components (n = 111) of food allergens, pollen and perennial aeroallergens were analysed using an immunosolid-phase allergen chip. Blood eosinophils (10(9) × l(-1)), bronchial inflammation (FeNO, ppb), lung function (FEV(1)%) and bronchial hyper-responsiveness (BHR) (dose-response slope of methacholine challenge) were measured. A specific IgE response to more than three animal-derived components--lipocalin (nMus m 1, rEqu c 1, Fel d 4, rCan f 1, 2), kallikrein (rCan f 5) and secretoglobin (rFel d 1)--was more common among severe asthmatics compared to children with controlled asthma (n = 14 vs n = 3, P = 0.030). These subjects also displayed higher blood eosinophils (0.65 vs 0.39, P = 0.021), higher Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (38 ppb vs 25 ppb, P = 0.021) and increased BHR (112 vs 28, P = 0.002) compared to other severe asthmatics positive to fewer lipocalin/kallikrein/secretoglobin components. Among all sensitized subjects, there were correlations between specific IgE levels for rFel d 4 and nMus m 1 (r = 0.751, P ≤ 0.001) and for rFel d 4 and rEqu c 1 (r = 0.850, P ≤ 0.001).",
"Although allergic rhinitis and asthma frequently coexist, the nature of this association is poorly understood. Therefore, we examined whether upper and lower airway patency are associated. We investigated 221 6-year-old children from the Copenhagen Prospective Study on Asthma in Childhood birth cohort, assessing upper airway patency by acoustic rhinometry before and after alpha-agonist, and lower airway patency by spirometry before and after beta2-agonist. Furthermore, we measured blood eosinophil count, nasal eosinophilia, total IgE, and fraction of exhaled nitric oxide. Associations were investigated by generalized linear models. Decongested nasal airway patency and post-beta2 FEV(1) were significantly associated (P = .007). The association remained significant after adjustments for sex, body size, FVC, and atopic diseases (beta-coefficient 2.85 cm(3); 95% CI, 0.42 to 5.29; P = .02). Baseline values of upper and lower airway patency were also significantly associated (beta-coefficient 0.89 cm(3); 95% CI, 0.26-1.51; P = .01). In addition, blood eosinophil count and nasal eosinophilia were inversely associated with decongested nasal airway patency, beta-coefficient -0.42 cm(3) (95% CI, -0.77 to -0.07; P = .02) and beta-coefficient -0.47 cm(3) (95% CI, -0.89 to -0.05; P = .03), respectively.",
"yes. Reduction in eosinophil activity followed improvement in clinical condition. Measuring intracellular expression of ECP may be of value in addition to eosinophil count and S-ECP in monitoring asthma.",
"Chronic rhinosinusitis and asthma are conditions that frequently coexist, particularly in severe asthma. The precise mechanism of the relationship between upper and lower airway inflammation is still a matter of debate. We hypothesized that the extent of inflammation in the nasal mucosa is related to lung function and inflammation in the bronchial mucosa in patients with severe asthma. We sought to investigate the relationship between sinonasal inflammation as assessed on computed tomography (CT) scanning, lung function, sputum eosinophilia, and nitric oxide (NO) in exhaled air in patients with severe asthma. Eighty-nine nonsmoking outpatients with severe asthma (29 men and 60 women; mean age 45 years; age range, 18-74 years) were included in this study. CT scans were scored (0-30) by a blinded investigator using a validated method. Lung function, NO in exhaled air, and sputum eosinophils were measured by using standard procedures. CT scans showed abnormalities in 84% of patients. Extensive sinus disease (score 12-30) was found in 24% of patients. There was a significant positive correlation between CT scores and eosinophils in peripheral blood (R(s) = 0.46) and induced sputum (R(s) = 0.40) and level of exhaled NO (R(s) = 0.45, P <.01). CT scores were also positively related to functional residual capacity and inversely related to diffusion capacity, particularly in patients with adult-onset asthma (R(s) = 0.47 and R(s) = -0.53, respectively).",
"Airway inflammatory phenotyping is increasingly applied to subjects with asthma. However, its relationship to clinical outcomes in difficult asthma is incompletely elucidated. The goal of our study was to determine the relationship between exacerbation rates and phenotypes of difficult asthma based on the longitudinal measures of sputum eosinophils and neutrophils. Subjects in the longitudinal observational study from two tertiary care centres that completed 1 year of observation and provided at least three sputum samples were classified by inflammatory phenotypes using previously established thresholds. Kaplan-Meier curves and univariable and multivariable Cox proportional hazard models were used to determine the association between inflammatory phenotypes and exacerbation rate. During the study, 115 exacerbations occurred in 73 severe asthmatic subjects. Subjects with the persistently eosinophilic phenotype had a significantly shorter time to first exacerbation and greater risk of exacerbation over a 1-year period than those with the non-eosinophilic phenotype based on the univariable and multivariable Cox proportional hazard model (hazard ratio [HR], 3.24; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.35-7.72; adjusted HR, 3.90; 95% CI, 1.34-11.36). No significant differences in time to first exacerbation or exacerbation risk over a 1-year period were observed among the neutrophilic phenotypes.",
"Airway eosinophilia is typical of asthma, and many controller treatments target eosinophilic disease. Asthma is clinically heterogeneous, however, and a subgroup of people with asthma do not have airway eosinophilia. The size of this subgroup is uncertain because prior studies have not examined repeated measures of sputum cytology to determine when people with asthma have intermittent versus persistent sputum eosinophila and when they are persistently noneosinophilic. To determine the prevalence and clinical characteristics of the noneosinophilic asthma phenotype. We analyzed sputum cytology data from 995 subjects with asthma enrolled in clinical trials in the Asthma Clinical Research Network where they had undergone sputum induction and measures of sputum cytology, often repeatedly, and assessment of responses to standardized asthma treatments. In cross-sectional analyses, sputum eosinophilia (≥2% eosinophils) was found in only 36% of subjects with asthma not taking an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and 17% of ICS-treated subjects with asthma; an absence of eosinophilia was noted frequently, even in subjects with asthma whose disease was suboptimally controlled. In repeated measures analyses of people with asthma not taking an ICS, 22% of subjects had sputum eosinophilia on every occasion (persistent eosinophilia); 31% had eosinophilia on at least one occasion (intermittent eosinophilia); and 47% had no eosinophilia on every occasion (persistently noneosinophilic). Two weeks of combined antiinflammatory therapy caused significant improvements in airflow obstruction in eosinophilic asthma, but not in persistently noneosinophilic asthma. In contrast, bronchodilator responses to albuterol were similar in eosinophilic and noneosinophilic asthma.",
"To assess whether inflammatory markers measured in urine and blood during acute bronchiolitis in infancy were associated with asthma, lung function, bronchial hyper-responsiveness (BHR) and atopy at 11 years of age. We included 105 children hospitalised for bronchiolitis during their first year of life. At hospitalisation, urinary (U-) eosinophil protein X, U-leukotriene E4 , U-prostaglandin 9α, 11β-PGF2 and blood eosinophil counts were measured. Ninety-five children (90%) were available for follow-up at 11 years of age. At follow-up, higher blood eosinophil counts obtained during bronchiolitis were observed in the group with asthma than in the group without asthma (median 0.27 versus 0.09 × 10(9) /L, respectively, p = 0.048). By regression analyses, blood eosinophil counts during the acute bronchiolitis were positively associated with BHR (p = 0.006) and negatively associated with forced expiratory volume in first second (p = 0.025) at 11 years of age. None of the other inflammatory markers were associated with asthma, lung function, BHR or atopy at 11 years of age.",
"Asthma and rhinitis often co-exist and there are data to suggest that they may be two ends of the same disease spectrum. Immunohistochemical studies have shown that eosinophilia in the airways is a feature of rhinitic patients without asthma. The aim of our study was to examine whether cellular infiltration exists in the nasal mucosa of asthmatics even in the absence of symptoms and signs of rhinitis. Nasal mucosa biopsies were taken from 27 non-atopic subjects and comprised nine asthmatic rhinitic patients (AR), eight asthmatic non-rhinitic patients (ANR) and 10 healthy control subjects (N). Bronchial mucosa biopsies were also taken simultaneously from some of the patients (n = 10) to determine whether there was an association between cellular infiltration in the nose and the lungs. The alkaline phosphatase-anti-alkaline phosphatase (APAAP) method was used on 6 microm thick cryostat sections using monoclonal antibodies against T cells (CD4, CD8), eosinophils (EG2) and mast cells (mast cell tryptase). Slides were counted blind and results expressed as cells per field. The results showed that eosinophil counts were higher in both asthma groups compared with control nasal biopsies (median values AR 8.3, ANR 9.2, N 2.1 cells per field, P < 0.01). Furthermore, there was a significant correlation between eosinophil cell counts in the nose and the airways (r = 0.851 P < 0.001). No differences in eosinophil numbers were detected between the two groups of asthmatics. Also, no differences were noted for any other cell type (i.e. CD4, CD8, tryptase) among the three study groups.",
"Exacerbation-associated uncontrolled asthma represents a major public health problem. The relationship of elevated blood eosinophils to this process needs study. To determine whether a high blood eosinophil count is a risk factor for future asthma exacerbations in adult persistent asthma. By using electronic pharmacy and health care data from Kaiser Permanente Southern California, 2392 patients, ages 18 to 64 years, were identified who met the Health Effectiveness Data and Information Set 2-year criteria for persistent asthma, did not manifest chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and other major illnesses, and had a blood eosinophil determination in 2010. Exacerbations (primary outcome) were defined as asthma outpatient visits that required systemic corticosteroid dispensing within ±7 days or asthma emergency department visits or hospitalizations. A period of ≥8 days defined a new exacerbation. Multivariate modelling used negative binomial and Poisson regression to examine the association between a blood eosinophil count determined in 2010 and risk of exacerbations, and ≥7 short-acting β2-agonist (SABA) canisters dispensed (secondary outcome) in 2011 by adjusting for demographics, comorbidities, and asthma burden. The rate of asthma exacerbations in 2011 was 0.41 events per person year (95% CI, 0.37-0.45). Eosinophil count ≥400/mm(3) in 2010 was a risk factor for asthma exacerbations in 2011 (adjusted rate ratio 1.31 [95% CI, 1.07-1.60]; P = .009) and ≥7 SABA dispensed (adjusted risk ratio 1.17 [95% CI, 1.03-1.1.33]; P = .015).",
"Measurement of sputum or blood eosinophils may allow identification of a severe eosinophilic asthma population responsive to mepolizumab. The primary objective was assessment of a single blood eosinophil measurement to predict future eosinophil measurements in the following year versus using multiple blood eosinophil measurements. In addition, we examined whether a single sputum or blood eosinophil measurement was a useful biomarker for predicting treatment response to mepolizumab. Based on data from placebo subjects (n = 155), we determined whether a blood eosinophil count of 150/μl or greater at screening remained on average above this level during the following year. The rate of exacerbation reduction in the sputum substudy population based on the screening blood eosinophil count and sputum eosinophils was evaluated. Of 115 patients with eosinophils 150/μl or greater at screening, 98 (85%) remained above this level in their post-screening average. Using the average of two, three or four measurements 150/μl or greater, 97 (85%), 103 (90%), and 105 (92%) have postscreening averages above 150/μl. Mepolizumab reduced exacerbations by 69% (95% confidence interval [CI] = 41-83%) in subjects with baseline sputum eosinophils of 3% or greater compared with 66% (95% CI = 7-87%) in subjects with baseline sputum eosinophils under 3%. The reduction was 72% (95% CI = 41-83%) in subjects with blood eosinophils of 150/μl or greater compared with 30% (95% CI = -134 to 79%) in subjects with blood eosinophils under 150/μl.",
"Variation of lung function is considered to be a hallmark of asthma. Although guidelines recommend measuring it as a diagnostic tool for asthma, the usefulness of this approach has not been studied in children.AIM: To assess the usefulness of home spirometry in children with nonspecific lower respiratory tract symptoms, to diagnose or exclude asthma. In school-aged children, referred by their general practitioner because of chronic respiratory symptoms of unknown origin, the diagnosis of asthma was made or excluded by a pediatric pulmonologist (gold standard), based on international guidelines and a standardized protocol. Additionally, children measured peak expiratory flow (PEF) and forced expiratory flow in 1 sec (FEV(1)) twice daily for 2 weeks on a home spirometer, from which diurnal variation was calculated. These results (index test) were not revealed to the pediatric pulmonologist. The value of home spirometry to diagnose asthma was calculated. Sixty-one children (27 boys) were included (mean age: 10.4 years; range: 6-16 years). Between asthma and no asthma, the mean difference in PEF variation was 4.4% (95% CI: 0.9-7.9; P = 0.016) and in FEV(1) variation 4.5% (95% CI: 1.6-7.4; P = 0.003). Sensitivity and specificity, based on the 95th-centile of the reference values for PEF and FEV(1) variation (12.3% and 11.8%, respectively) were 50% and 72% for PEF variation and 45% and 92% for FEV(1) variation. The likelihood ratio was 1.8 for PEF and 5.6 for FEV(1).",
"The importance of Aspergillus fumigatus sensitization and colonization of the airways in patients with asthma is unclear. To define the relationship between the clinical and laboratory features of A. fumigatus-associated asthma. We studied 79 patients with asthma (89% classed as GINA 4 or 5) classified into 3 groups according to A. fumigatus sensitization: (1) IgE-sensitized (immediate cutaneous reactivity > 3 mm and/or IgE > 0.35 kU/L); (2) IgG-only-sensitized (IgG > 40 mg/L); and (3) nonsensitized. These were compared with 14 healthy control subjects. Sputum culture was focused toward detection of A. fumigatus and compared with clinical assessment data. A. fumigatus was cultured from 63% of IgE-sensitized patients with asthma (n = 40), 39% of IgG-only-sensitized patients with asthma (n = 13), 31% of nonsensitized patients with asthma (n = 26) and 7% of healthy control subjects (n = 14). Patients sensitized to A. fumigatus compared with nonsensitized patients with asthma had lower lung function (postbronchodilator FEV₁ % predicted, mean [SEM]: 68 [±5]% versus 88 [±5]%; P < 0.05), more bronchiectasis (68% versus 35%; P < 0.05), and more sputum neutrophils (median [interquartile range]: 80.9 [50.1-94.1]% versus 49.5 [21.2-71.4]%; P < 0.01). In a multilinear regression model, A. fumigatus-IgE sensitization and sputum neutrophil differential cell count were important predictors of lung function (P = 0.016), supported by culture of A. fumigatus (P = 0.046) and eosinophil differential cell count (P = 0.024).",
"The addition of a long-acting beta2 agonist (LABA) to inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) may control asthma better than ICS alone. Eosinophil markers may predict symptom severity in asthma. The effect of combination treatment on moderate to severe asthmatics not selected to respond rapidly to steroid deprivation was compared with monotherapy. The ability of serum markers to predict symptom severity was assessed. Asthmatics treated adequately with ICS (750-1000 mcg ICS daily) were randomised to receive ICS (fluticasone propionate) + LABA (salmeterol) (500 mcg/50 mcg bd) or ICS alone (500 mcg bd). If asthma was controlled at clinic visits every 6 weeks, ICS dose was tapered until asthma exacerbated (hospitalisation, ICS above study medication, peak flow variation, decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 s and/or use of rescue medication), or placebo was maintained for 6 weeks. Efficacy of the treatments was compared. Serum cytokines and chemokines were compared among the groups reporting severe, mild or no symptoms. There was no difference between the treatment arms in the clinical analysis. Nine patients could be maintained on placebo for 6 weeks, 36 developed mild symptoms and 16 developed severe symptoms. Patients on placebo for 6 weeks had significantly lower serum eotaxin at baseline than patients with symptoms. Patients with mild symptoms had intermediate serum eotaxin concentrations.",
"The eosinophil plays a central role in the inflammatory process in bronchial asthma. Recent studies have indicated that the assessment of eosinophil-derived proteins in various body fluids could be used for monitoring disease activity of childhood asthma. Till now, no study exists which compared the levels of eosinophil-derived proteins in various body fluids such as serum, nasal lavage fluid (NALF) and urine. To investigate whether eosinophil granule proteins in different compartments were correlated and whether there is a relationship between disease activity, pulmonary function and bronchial hyperreactivity. Twenty-eight children with atopic bronchial asthma were recruited. Serum, NALF and urine samples were obtained and assessed for eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) and eosinophil protein X (EPX). The levels of eosinophil proteins were analysed for a relationship with lung function variables, bronchial hyperreactivity and disease activity. Eleven healthy control subjects were used as controls. Median ECP and EPX concentrations in serum (31.4 and 74.8 microg/L vs 15.8 and 24.3 microg/L, respectively), NALF (9.9 and 44. 9 microg/L vs 0 and 2.5 microg/L, respectively) and urine (49.4 vs 16.5 microg/mmol creatinine) were significantly raised in children with bronchial asthma compared with healthy control subjects. In addition, ECP and EPX levels in serum and urine samples were significantly higher in symptomatic patients compared with asymptomatic subjects with asthma. Although no relationship between eosinophil-derived proteins in serum, NALF or urine and the level of nonspecific bronchial hyperreactivity could be detected, the concentrations of EPX in serum and urine were correlated with variables of pulmonary function.",
"Airway inflammatory patterns in older asthmatics are poorly understood despite high asthma-related morbidity and mortality. In this study, we sought to define the relationship between exposure to traffic pollutants, biomarkers in induced sputum, and asthma control in older adults. Induced sputum was collected from 35 non-smoking adults ≥65 years with a physician's diagnosis of asthma and reversibility with a bronchodilator or a positive methacholine challenge. Patients completed the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ), and Elemental Carbon Attributable to Traffic (ECAT), a surrogate for chronic diesel particulate exposure, was determined. Equal numbers of subjects with high (≥0.39 µg/m(3)) versus low (<0.39 µg/m(3)) ECAT were included. Differential cell counts were performed on induced sputum, and myeloperoxidase (MPO) and eosinophil peroxidase (EPO) were measured in supernatants. Regression analyses were used to evaluate the relationship between sputum findings, ACQ scores, and ECAT. After adjustment for potential confounders, subjects with poorly controlled asthma based on ACQ ≥ 1.5 (n = 7) had significantly higher sputum eosinophils (median = 4.4%) than those with ACQ < 1.5 (n = 28; eosinophils = 2.6%; β = 10.1 [95% CI = 0.1-21.0]; p = 0.05). Subjects with ACQ ≥ 1.5 also had significantly higher sputum neutrophils (84.2% versus 65.2%; β = 7.1 [0.2-14.6]; p = 0.05). Poorly controlled asthma was associated with higher sputum EPO (β = 2.4 [0.2-4.5], p = 0.04), but not MPO (p = 0.9). High ECAT was associated with higher eosinophils (β = 10.1 [1.8-18.4], p = 0.02) but not higher neutrophils (p = 0.6).",
"yes. These findings suggest that the elevated eotaxin level in the sputum does not always accompany the increase in eosinophils, and cooperation with another cytokine such as IL-5 may be required for the recruitment of eosinophils.",
"The inflammatory phenotypes of severe asthma in adults may be reflected in peripheral blood. If this were true in children with severe therapy-resistant asthma (STRA), invasive tests could be avoided. At the moment there is no conclusive evidence in children. All patients underwent blood tests, exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO), sputum induction, bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and endobronchial biopsy (EB). Sixty-three (71.6%) patients had a normal blood profile and only 1/88 had a combined blood eosinophilia and neutrophilia. 76/88 (86%) had normal blood eosinophils, but of these, 84% had airway eosinophilia in either BAL (n = 43;66%) or EB (n = 41;79%). In children with STRA blood eosinophilia was associated with airway eosinophilia. However, normal blood eosinophil levels did not exclude airway eosinophilic inflammation.",
"Asthma is associated with food allergies in a significant number of children, with evidence linking allergies to asthma severity and morbidity. In this study, we tested our hypothesis that the eosinophilic lower airway inflammation is higher in asthmatic children with food allergies. The aims of the study were to compare the eosinophilic inflammatory markers in asthmatic children with and without food allergies. Children with asthma, with (n = 22) and (n = 53) without food allergies were included. All subjects were classified according to the GINA guidelines (2009) and had received at least 3 months of anti-inflammatory therapy prior to testing. Fractional exhaled nitric oxide and sputum differential counts were performed using standard techniques. Children with asthma and food allergies had significantly higher fractional exhaled nitric oxide median (range) [(22.4 (6.1-86.9) vs. 10.3 (2.7-38.7) (p = 0.01)] and sputum eosinophil percentage [15.5 (5.0-53.0) vs. 2.0 (0-20) (p < 0.001)] compared with asthmatic children without allergies.",
"The relationship between airway inflammation and asthma severity in corticosteroid-treated asthma is unclear. Our purpose was to characterize the inflammatory cell profile of the airway lumen and epithelium in corticosteroid-treated asthma and to relate these findings to clinical and physiologic markers of asthma severity. Adults (n = 20) with asthma received standardized high-dose inhaled corticosteroid therapy with beclomethasone 2000 microgram per day for 8 weeks. Airway responsiveness to methacholine and hypertonic (4.5%) saline solution was then assessed, followed by sputum induction and, 1 week later, bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage and bronchial brush biopsy to assess inflammatory cells. Clinical asthma severity was associated with airway hyperresponsiveness. Metachromatic cells were the main granulocyte present in bronchial brush biopsy specimens and correlated with airway responsiveness to saline solution (r = -0.75), methacholine (r = -0.74), peak flow variability (r = 0.59), and clinical asthma severity (r = 0.57). Eosinophils were the main granulocyte present in sputum and correlated with airway responsiveness to saline solution (r = -0.63) but not with other clinical markers of asthma severity. Bronchoalveolar lavage cell counts were not related to clinical asthma severity.",
"Two distinct, stable inflammatory phenotypes have been described in adults with asthma: eosinophilic and non-eosinophilic. Treatment strategies based on these phenotypes have been successful. This study evaluated sputum cytology in children with asthma to classify sputum inflammatory phenotypes and to assess their stability over time. Sputum induction was performed in 51 children with severe asthma and 28 with mild to moderate asthma. Samples were classified as eosinophilic (>2.5% eosinophils), neutrophilic (>54% neutrophils); mixed granulocytic (>2.5% eosinophils, >54% neutrophils); or paucigranulocytic (≤2.5% eosinophils, ≤54% neutrophils). Sputum induction was repeated every 3 months in children with severe asthma (n=42) over a 1-year period and twice in mild to moderate asthma (n=17) over 3-6 months. 62 children (78%) had raised levels of inflammatory cells in at least one sputum sample. In the longitudinal analysis 37 of 59 children (63%) demonstrated two or more phenotypes. Variability in sputum inflammatory phenotype was observed in both the severe and the mild to moderate asthma groups. Change in phenotype was not related to change in inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) dose or asthma control, nor was it reflected in a change in exhaled nitric oxide (FE(NO)). 24 children (41%) fulfilled the criteria for non-eosinophilic asthma on one occasion and eosinophilic on another. There were no differences in severity, asthma control, atopy, ICS dose or forced expiratory volume in 1 s between those who were always non-eosinophilic and those always eosinophilic.",
"International guidelines stress the importance of accurately discriminating between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although characteristic pathological features have been described for both conditions, their discriminatory power has never been systematically assessed. Endobronchial biopsy (EBB) specimens from patients with a clear clinical diagnosis of asthma and COPD (50 per group) were examined by three pathologists in a double blind manner. They were asked to propose a pathological diagnosis of either asthma or COPD and to analyse qualitatively the most frequent abnormalities reported in the literature. The sensitivity and specificity of EBB ranged from 36% to 48% and from 56% to 79%, respectively. Eosinophils strongly biased the pathological diagnoses in favour of asthma, whereas their estimated prevalence was similar (11-37% in asthma and 13-41% in COPD). Metaplasia (11-39% in COPD, 1-18% in asthma) and epithelial inflammation (28-61% in COPD, 11-38% in asthma) tended to be specific to COPD, whereas epithelial desquamation (80-98% in asthma, 61-88% in COPD) and basement membrane thickening (71-94% in asthma, 53-88% in COPD) tended to be associated with asthma. There was acceptable intra- and inter-observer agreement only for metaplasia and epithelial eosinophils.",
"Serial peak expiratory flow (PEF) monitoring is a useful confirmatory test for occupational asthma diagnosis. As weekends off work may not be long enough for PEF records to recover, this study investigated whether including longer periods off work in PEF monitoring improves the sensitivity of occupational asthma diagnosis. Serial PEF measurements from workers with occupational asthma and from workers not at work during their PEF record, containing minimum data amounts and at least one rest period with>or = 7 consecutive days off work, were analysed. Diagnostic sensitivity and specificity of the area between the curves (ABC) score from waking time and Oasys score for occupational asthma were calculated for each record by including only consecutive rest days 1-3 in any rest period, including only consecutive rest days from day 4 onwards in any rest period or including all available data. Analysing all available off work data (including periods away from work of>or = 7 days) increased the mean ABC score by 17% from 35.1 to 41.0 l/min/h (meaning a larger difference between rest and work day PEF values) (p=0.331) and the Oasys score from 3.2 to 3.3 (p=0.588). It improved the sensitivity of the ABC score for an occupational asthma diagnosis from 73% to 80% while maintaining specificity at 96%. The effect on the Oasys score using discriminant analysis was small (sensitivity changed from 85% to 88%).",
"We investigated whether eosinophil degranulation is a distinctive feature of asthma and can distinguish between chronic cough patients with asthma and those without. Thirty-seven patients, with a chronic cough for more than 1 month, and nine normal individuals (controls) were enrolled. Subjects were divided into two groups: one group with asthma and positive bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR) (Asthma group, n = 18) and the other group without asthma and negative BHR (Non-Asthma group, n = 19). From induced sputum, total cell counts and differentials were determined. Myeloperoxidase levels were measured by Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA), and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin (EDN) and major basic protein (MBP) levels were measured by radioimmunoassay. The percentage of sputum eosinophils was increased in the Asthma (p < .001) and Non-Asthma (p < .05) groups compared with the Control group and when comparing the Asthma and Non-Asthma (p < .001) groups. Sputum EDN and MBP levels were increased in the Asthma group compared with the Non-Asthma (p < .05 and p < .05, respectively) and Control groups (p < .05 and p = .055, respectively). However, EDN and MBP levels were not increased in the Non-Asthma group compared with the Control group. The percentage of sputum eosinophils in the Asthma group correlated positively with sputum EDN (Rs = 0.921, p < .001) and MBP (Rs = 0.882, p < .0001) levels and negatively with maxΔFEV(1) (Rs = -0.501, p < .05) (FEV(1), forced expiratory volume in 1 second). Unexpectedly, the percentage of eosinophils in the Non-Asthma group did not correlate significantly with any of these markers. Increased EDN and MBP levels and significant correlations between the percentage of eosinophils and EDN and MBP were only observed in asthma patients.",
"yes. A high blood eosinophil count is a risk factor for increased future asthma exacerbations and excessive short-acting β2-agonist use after adjustment of potential confounders in adults with persistent asthma, which suggests a higher disease burden in patients with asthma and with high blood eosinophil counts.",
"yes. We suggest that, among the indexes examined, low sputum eosinophils are the best predictor for poor corticosteroid effects in asthma.",
"Sputum eosinophil percentages are a strong predictor of airway inflammation and exacerbations and aid asthma management, whereas sputum neutrophil percentages indicate a different severe asthma phenotype that is potentially less responsive to TH2-targeted therapy. Variables, such as blood eosinophil counts, total IgE levels, fraction of exhaled nitric oxide (Feno) levels, or FEV1 percent predicted, might predict airway eosinophil percentages, whereas age, FEV1 percent predicted, or blood neutrophil counts might predict sputum neutrophil percentages. Availability and ease of measurement are useful characteristics, but accuracy in predicting airway eosinophil and neutrophil percentages either individually or combined is not established. We sought to determine whether blood eosinophil counts, Feno levels, and IgE levels accurately predict sputum eosinophil percentages and whether age, FEV1 percent predicted, and blood neutrophil counts accurately predict sputum neutrophil percentages. Subjects in the Wake Forest Severe Asthma Research Program (n = 328) were characterized by blood and sputum cell counts, health care use, lung function, Feno levels, and IgE levels. Multiple analytic techniques were used. Despite significant association with sputum eosinophil percentages, blood eosinophil counts, Feno levels, and total IgE levels did not accurately predict sputum eosinophil percentages, and combinations of these variables did not improve prediction. Age, FEV1 percent predicted, and blood neutrophil counts were similarly unsatisfactory for the prediction of sputum neutrophil percentages. Factor analysis and stepwise selection found Feno levels, IgE levels, and FEV1 percent predicted, but not blood eosinophil counts, correctly predicted 69% of sputum eosinophil percentages of less than 2% or 2% and greater. Likewise, age, asthma duration, and blood neutrophil counts correctly predicted 64% of sputum neutrophil percentages of less than 40% or 40% and greater. A model to predict both sputum eosinophil and neutrophil percentages accurately assigned only 41% of samples.",
"yes. In asthmatic patients treated with cortico-steroids, the dominant inflammatory effector cell in the epithelium is the metachromatic cell, and in sputum it is the eosinophil. These cells correlate with the degree of airway hyperresponsiveness. Clinical asthma severity correlates with airway responsiveness and epithelial metachromatic cells. Induced sputum eosinophils and airway responsiveness to hypertonic saline solution may be useful markers of airway inflammation for clinical practice.",
"Our findings demonstrate increased eosinophil activity in serum, NALF and urine derived from children with bronchial asthma. Due to the relationship between levels of eosinophil proteins in serum/urine samples and lung function, as well as significant concentration differences between symptomatic and asymptomatic asthmatic children, the assessment of eosinophil proteins in serum or urine samples appear to be more appropriate in monitoring disease activity than measurement of ECP or EPX in NALF. Thus, the determination of serum ECP/EPX or urinary EPX may be preferentially used in monitoring eosinophilic inflammation in childhood asthma.",
"Subjects with complete asthma remission, in contrast to subjects with current asthma, do not respond with eosinophilic inflammation in sputum after AMP provocations. These data lend support to the usefulness of the definition of complete asthma remission.",
"yes. Longitudinal eosinophil levels are linearly associated with chronic asthma in childhood, independent of atopy. The strong association between parental asthma and eosinophil status suggests that genetic background may be an important determinant of eosinophilic response.",
"LSA subjects are more atopic and more likely to be given a peak flow meter, while LOA subjects have higher FENO levels and more severe asthma. Defining age of asthma onset may help improve treatment recommendations and outcomes for older adults.",
"Workers with WEA appeared to have features of greater asthma severity than workers with OA. In contrast with OA, WEA was associated with a noneosinophilic phenotype. Both OA and WEA were associated with greater health care use and 10-fold higher direct costs than NWRA.",
"yes. Poorly controlled asthma in older adults is associated with eosinophilic and neutrophilic inflammation. Chronic residential traffic pollution exposure may be associated with eosinophilic, but not neutrophilic inflammation in older asthmatics.",
"Previous studies in adults with asthma incorporating the control of sputum eosinophils into management strategies have shown significant reductions in exacerbations. A study was undertaken to investigate whether this strategy would be successful in children with severe asthma. 55 children (7-17 years) with severe asthma were randomised to either a conventional symptom-based management strategy or to an inflammation-based strategy (principally sputum eosinophils). Children were seen 3-monthly over a 1-year period. The annual rate of total and major exacerbations (courses of oral corticosteroids) was non-significantly lower in the inflammatory management group compared with the symptom management group (3.6 vs. 4.8, incident rate ratio (IRR) 0.75, 95% CI 0.54 to 1.04, p=0.082; and 1.9 vs. 2.7 IRR 0.73, 95% CI 0.42 to 1.28, p=0.274 for total and major exacerbations, respectively). Significantly fewer subjects in the inflammatory management group experienced an exacerbation within 28 days of a study visit. There were small non-significant differences in measures of asthma control (symptom-free days and short-acting β agonist use) favouring the inflammatory management group. There was no significant difference in the inhaled corticosteroid dose prescribed over the course of the study.",
"This study showed significant variability in blood eosinophil counts within a 24-hour period in the same subjects. The highest variability was seen in moderate asthmatics. These findings would appear to place the utility of a single eosinophil count in question.",
"Although peripheral blood eosinophilia is associated with risk of asthma, the relation with atopy has not been established. To assess the relationship between eosinophils and chronic asthma in childhood, and to determine the factors associated with eosinophil levels over time. Percent eosinophils/300 white blood cell (WBC) count ('eos') was measured at 9 months, 6 years and 11 years in subjects participating in the prospective Tucson Children's Respiratory Study. Children were classified based on the number of measurements in which they had low (< or = 2%) or high (>5%) eosinophils, as follows: (1) Persistently low eos (n = 130); (2) Low eos (intermittently low or consistently moderate, but never high, n = 317); (3) Intermittently high eos (n = 192); and (4) Persistently high eos (n = 17). Only children with > or = 2 eos measurements were included in the analysis. Chronic asthma was defined as medical doctor (MD)-diagnosed asthma with reports of wheezing during the previous year, on > or = 3 questionnaires completed between 2 and 13 years of age. Children with at least one positive skin prick test (SPT; > or = 3 mm) at age 6 or 11 were considered 'atopic'. Chronic asthma was linearly related to longitudinally ascertained eosinophils (trend chi2 P<0.001) with prevalence ranging from 5.8% among children with persistently low eos to 37.5% among children with persistently high eos. This relation was independent of atopy. Parental history of asthma was associated with both chronic asthma (P <0.001) and with longitudinal eosinophil status (P < 0.001). After adjusting for atopy and gender, there was a 70% increase in asthma risk with each increase in longitudinal eosinophil level. This stepwise increase was reduced to 48% when parental asthma was added to the model.",
"yes. We have shown that simultaneously increased local (Feno) and systemic (blood eosinophil) markers of type 2 inflammation related to a higher likelihood of BHR and uncontrolled asthma in a large cohort of young asthmatic patients.",
"yes. These data suggest that peripheral blood eosinophils from subjects with untreated asthma have increased inflammatory capacity, as reflected by greater intracellular concentrations of EDN.",
"Clinical cluster analysis from the Severe Asthma Research Program (SARP) identified 5 asthma subphenotypes that represent the severity spectrum of early-onset allergic asthma, late-onset severe asthma, and severe asthma with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease characteristics. Analysis of induced sputum from a subset of SARP subjects showed 4 sputum inflammatory cellular patterns. Subjects with concurrent increases in eosinophil (≥2%) and neutrophil (≥40%) percentages had characteristics of very severe asthma. To better understand interactions between inflammation and clinical subphenotypes, we integrated inflammatory cellular measures and clinical variables in a new cluster analysis. Participants in SARP who underwent sputum induction at 3 clinical sites were included in this analysis (n = 423). Fifteen variables, including clinical characteristics and blood and sputum inflammatory cell assessments, were selected using factor analysis for unsupervised cluster analysis. Four phenotypic clusters were identified. Cluster A (n = 132) and B (n = 127) subjects had mild-to-moderate early-onset allergic asthma with paucigranulocytic or eosinophilic sputum inflammatory cell patterns. In contrast, these inflammatory patterns were present in only 7% of cluster C (n = 117) and D (n = 47) subjects who had moderate-to-severe asthma with frequent health care use despite treatment with high doses of inhaled or oral corticosteroids and, in cluster D, reduced lung function. The majority of these subjects (>83%) had sputum neutrophilia either alone or with concurrent sputum eosinophilia. Baseline lung function and sputum neutrophil percentages were the most important variables determining cluster assignment.",
"yes. CD4 T-lymphocyte activation and increased counts of eosinophils in peripheral blood correlate with CV of PEF in patients with asthma, suggesting that CV of PEF is a good marker for assessing not only the variability of airway obstruction but also the degree of airway inflammation.",
"yes. Quantifying the morphological changes in eosinophils is a feasible, easy, and reliable manner to identify the severity of an asthma exacerbation and therefore might improve the clinical management of asthmatic children.",
"To evaluate the adequacy of control of asthma in patients attending a general practice; and to examine the validity of peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) as an index of asthma severity in the context of general practice. Short-term cohort study using indices derived from two weeks of peak flow monitoring to evaluate asthma control. Known and newly diagnosed asthmatics aged six years or more who presented during the study period for any reason. They were enrolled if baseline forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) increased by 10% or more after the administration of nebulised salbutamol. Children under the age of 12 years with no initial response to bronchodilator were included if an exercise test performed on another day was positive. Peak flow criteria for \"mild asthma\" in the Asthma Management Plan, 1989 (Med J Aust 1989; 151: 650-653) were used as the initial definition of \"adequate control\". The definition of \"adequate control\" was modified to variability less than 20% and a minimum PEFR of 50% or more of mean predicted value. There was no association between variability and maximum PEFR, but variability was strongly correlated with minimum PEFR (R = -0.60; P<0.0005). Asthma was adequately controlled in 68% of the participants.",
"yes. In this population, participants with atopic asthma had worse asthma severity and higher FeNO compared with those with nonatopic asthma, but no difference in control. In all participants, higher tIgE indicated worse severity and higher FeNO. In this population, asthma severity and FeNO might be mediated by IgE in the 2 asthma phenotypes.",
"The technique of induced sputum has allowed to subdivide asthma patients into inflammatory phenotypes according to their level of granulocyte airway infiltration. There are very few studies which looked at detailed sputum and blood cell counts in a large cohort of asthmatics divided into inflammatory phenotypes. The purpose of this study was to analyze sputum cell counts, blood leukocytes and systemic inflammatory markers in these phenotypes, and investigate how those groups compared with healthy subjects. We conducted a retrospective cross-sectional study on 833 asthmatics recruited from the University Asthma Clinic of Liege and compared them with 194 healthy subjects. Asthmatics were classified into inflammatory phenotypes. The total non-squamous cell count per gram of sputum was greater in mixed granulocytic and neutrophilic phenotypes as compared to eosinophilic, paucigranulocytic asthma and healthy subjects (p < 0.005). Sputum eosinophils (in absolute values and percentages) were increased in all asthma phenotypes including paucigranulocytic asthma, compared to healthy subjects (p < 0.005). Eosinophilic asthma showed higher absolute sputum neutrophil and lymphocyte counts than healthy subjects (p < 0.005), while neutrophilic asthmatics had a particularly low number of sputum macrophages and epithelial cells. All asthma phenotypes showed an increased blood leukocyte count compared to healthy subjects (p < 0.005), with paucigranulocytic asthmatics having also increased absolute blood eosinophils compared to healthy subjects (p < 0.005). Neutrophilic asthma had raised CRP and fibrinogen while eosinophilic asthma only showed raised fibrinogen compared to healthy subjects (p < 0.005).",
"Bronchiolitis, the most common indication for hospitalization of young children, is associated with subsequent asthma. Blood eosinophilia is associated with increased severity of asthma, but it is unclear if eosinophilia is associated with severity of illness in bronchiolitis. We hypothesized that blood eosinophilia is associated with unfavorable short-term outcomes of bronchiolitis hospitalizations. Data from initial bronchiolitis admissions to our institution between 2010 and 2013 were extracted using Population Explorer software (Explorys, Cleveland, OH). Children were categorized as \"CBC-none\" (no complete blood count [CBC] data during the first 7 days of hospitalization), EOS-positive (at least one CBC with ≥300 eosinophils per microliter or ≥3% of all leukocytes identified as eosinophils) or EOS-negative (at least one CBC and no eosinophilia). The association between hospitalization duration and maximum absolute eosinophil count (AEC) was analyzed using Spearman correlation. Variables independently associated with prolonged (≥72 hr) hospitalization were identified using stepwise multivariate logistic regression. In 1356 inpatients <24 months with bronchiolitis, median hospitalization duration was 2.46 days and 38.0% had prolonged hospitalization. CBC data were available in 32.4% of subjects: 20.7% were EOS-positive and 79.3% were EOS-negative. Increased maximum AEC was significantly associated with longer duration of hospitalization. Prolonged hospitalization was independently associated with EOS-positive versus EOS-negative children (OR 1.88, 95%CI: 1.12-3.17, P = 0.020). Mechanical ventilation was most common in EOS-positive subjects (24.2% of cases), versus EOS-negative (7.2%) and CBC-none (0.7%) (P < 0.001).",
"yes. Our data suggest that the intensity of airway eosinophilia in response to antigen challenge is correlated with the magnitude of basophil mediator release in allergic subjects.",
"In the population studied, eosinophil values of>1 % during an episode of acute bronchiolitis in infancy was associated with a higher risk of developing persistent wheezing in the first 5 years of life. A familial history of asthma was associated with a higher risk of developing long-term persistent wheezing.",
"yes. The results suggest that nonatopic children present IS with a cell pattern that is predominantly neutrophilic while eosinophilia is the hallmark of airway inflammation in the majority of atopic wheezing children not treated with inhaled steroids.",
"The prognostic role of low sputum eosinophils in steroid-naïve, symptomatic asthmatic patients is controversial. To verify whether low sputum eosinophils predict poor response to treatment with inhaled corticosteroids. Sixty-seven symptomatic asthmatic patients with moderate asthma were examined before and after 2 weeks and 4 weeks of treatment with beclomethasone dipropionate, 500 microg bid. None received corticosteroids in the 3 months preceding the study. At each visit, all patients underwent spirometry, methacholine challenge, and sputum induction. The patients recorded symptom scores and peak expiratory flow (PEF) throughout the study. Seventeen patients had low sputum eosinophils despite being symptomatic. Patients with high (> 3%) sputum eosinophils at baseline showed significant improvement in symptoms, pulmonary function, and bronchial hyperresponsiveness after treatment, whereas patients with low sputum eosinophils showed no significant improvement in most clinical and functional outcomes. Among the baseline indexes examined, sputum eosinophils had the highest negative predictive value but low positive predictive value for the response to treatment. Multiple stepwise regression showed that only baseline FEV(1) and sputum eosinophil percentages significantly correlated with changes in FEV(1) after treatment.",
"Allergic non-asthmatic (ANA) adults experience upper airway symptoms of allergic disease such as rhinorrhea, congestion and sneezing without symptoms of asthma. The aim of this study was to utilize PET-CT functional imaging to determine whether allergen challenge elicits a pulmonary response in ANA subjects or whether their allergic disease is truly isolated to the upper airways. In 6 ANA subjects, bronchoalveolar lavages (BAL) were performed at baseline and 24h after instillation of an allergen and a diluent in separate lung lobes. After instillation (10h), functional imaging was performed to quantify and compare regional perfusion, ventilation, fractional gas content (Fgas), and glucose uptake rate (Ki) between the baseline, diluent and allergen lobes. BAL cell counts were also compared. In ANA subjects, compared to the baseline and diluent lobes, perfusion and ventilation were significantly lower in the allergen lobe (median [inter-quartile range], baseline vs. diluent vs. allergen: Mean-normalized perfusion; 0.87 [0.85-0.97] vs. 0.90 [0.86-0.98] vs. 0.59 [0.55-0.67]; p<0.05. Mean-normalized ventilation 0.89 [0.88-0.98] vs. 0.95 [0.89-1.02] vs. 0.63 [0.52-0.67], p<0.05). In contrast, no significant differences were found in Fgas between baseline, diluent and allergen lobes or in Ki. Total cell counts, eosinophil and neutrophil cell counts (cells/ml BAL) were significantly greater in the allergen lobe compared to the baseline lobe (all P<0.05).",
"yes. FeNO levels were elevated even in well-controlled asthmatics with ECRS, whereas asthmatics without ECRS and ECRS patients without asthma did not have high FeNO levels (>50 ppb). Although FeNO levels were not correlated with asthma severity, they were positively correlated with the sinus CT score. In asthmatics with ECRS, patients with higher FeNO levels had more severe ECRS and asthma. There is a possibility of having comorbid ECRS, particularly in asthmatics with high FeNO levels even after adequate treatment, including ICS, suggesting that asthma and ECRS may be closely associated as one airway disease with eosinophilic inflammation. Continual awareness of the coexistent ECRS is ideally recommended for asthmatics with high FeNO levels.",
"Severe asthma is characterized by elevated levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines and neutrophilic inflammation in the airways. Blood cytokines, markers of 'systemic' inflammation, may be a feature of amplified inflammation in severe asthma. To detect differences in IL-8, TNF-alpha, IL-16 and IL-13 levels in the serum(s) of stable severe and mild-moderate asthmatics related to blood leucocytes proportion, airway calibre and exhaled nitric oxide (NO) levels. We assessed cytokine serum levels by ELISA and blood leucocyte counts by an alkaline peroxidase method in 20 healthy controls, 22 mild-moderate [forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1)(%pred): 89+/-3] and 14 severe asthmatics [FEV1(%pred): 49+/-2]. IL-8 and TNF-alpha levels were higher in severe asthmatics than in mild-moderate asthmatics or in controls (P<0.05). No differences in IL-16 and IL-13 levels were detected. Severe asthmatics showed higher circulating neutrophil and eosinophil number than controls (P<0.05). In severe asthmatics, exhaled NO levels were superior than in controls (P<0.05), but inferior than in mild-moderate asthmatics (P<0.05). We found positive correlation between TNF-alpha levels and exhaled NO (r=0.67; P=0.01) or circulating neutrophil counts (r=0.57; P=0.03) in severe asthmatics.",
"yes. This multivariate approach identified 4 asthma subphenotypes representing the severity spectrum from mild-to-moderate allergic asthma with minimal or eosinophil-predominant sputum inflammation to moderate-to-severe asthma with neutrophil-predominant or mixed granulocytic inflammation.",
"yes. Serum IL-5 and IL-13 are reliable biomarkers for the blood eosinophilia asthma phenotype. High or low expression of MCP-1, eotaxin, and IL-8 discriminates between eosinophilic asthma severity clusters.",
"Airway eosinophilia is one of the hallmarks of asthma. Eotaxin may play an important role in eosinophil recruitment. To examine the relationship between eotaxin levels in the sputum and eosinophilic inflammation. The sputum was obtained from 11 non-smokers, 14 smokers and 13 asthmatic patients using a sputum induction method. Eotaxin and interleukin (IL)-5 levels in the sputum were determined by ELISA and immunocytochemical analysis. Asthmatic patients had eosinophilia and smokers showed neutrophilia in their sputum. The eotaxin level in the sputum was significantly higher in smokers (median 412.5, range 91.1-872.2 pg/ml) and asthmatic patients (351.0, 185.0-928.0 pg/ml) compared with non-smokers (123.2, 0-369.0 pg/ml; both p < 0.05). IL-5 was detected in the sputum of 1 non-smoker, none of the smokers and 4 asthmatic patients. The percentage of eotaxin-positive cells was higher in smokers and asthmatic patients than in non-smokers, but the percentage of IL-5-positive cells was significantly higher only in asthmatic patients (p < 0.05).",
"Early identification of the severity of asthma exacerbation would be helpful for the management of patients. We aimed to evaluate the correlation of morphological change in activated eosinophils and the severity of an asthma exacerbation. Blood was collected from 55 asthmatic children: 40 of whom were having an exacerbation, 15 symptom-free, and 15 healthy controls. The percentage of eosinophils with morphological changes (emission of single or multiple pseudopods, presence of cytoplasmic vacuoles, releasing a small, moderate, or large quantity of granules, spreading, eosinophil death, and presence of cluster of free eosinophil granules) was quantified after the adherence to a slide and compared using the Mann-Whitney test. The correlation between the severity of the asthma exacerbation and the percentage changed eosinophils was tested with Spearman's correlation. The proportion of activated eosinophils was higher in asthmatic symptom-free children than in the control group, and acute asthma exacerbation produced an additional increase in eosinophil activation (P < 0.01). More significantly increased morphological changes were emissions of multiple pseudopods, presence of cytoplasmic vacuoles, spreading, and presence of a cluster of free eosinophil granules (P < 0.001). The following were correlated with the severity of an asthma exacerbation: ≥14% of eosinophils emitting single pseudopod, 8% emitting multiple pseudopods, 17% with vacuoles, 28% eosinophils releasing a large quantity of granules, and 66% of spread eosinophils.",
"yes. The clinical pattern of neutrophilic asthma is different from paucigranulocytic and eosinophilic asthma with evidence of abnormal upper airways responses. Specific and targeted treatment of these airway problems may assist in the control and management of neutrophilic asthma.",
"yes. Our data suggest that circulating eosinophil counts were positively correlated with the severity of the drug eruption. Therefore, corticosteroids may be needed to treat patients with eosinophilia in clinical practice.",
"yes. Good inter-observer agreement exists in classifying patients dying from asthma according to whether the onset of symptoms was slow or rapid in onset. Slow-onset patients had a predominance of eosinophils and basement membrane thickening and higher health care utilization. These differences support the validity of classifying asthma mortalities into these distinct subgroups.",
"The aim of this study was to determine whether variability in peak expiratory flow (PEF) could be used to classify the level of severity of asthma in children. We studied 387 boys and girls diagnosed with asthma and classified severity according to clinical criteria (Spanish Society of Pediatric Pneumology). PEF variability was determined using a portable mini-Wright peak flow meter (Clement Clarke International, London, UK; range, 50 L/min-800 L/min) over a 14-day period, with no changes in normal treatment. The following indices were used to calculate PEF variability: 1) difference between morning PEF and nighttime PEF, expressed as a percentage of the mean value of the PEF measurements taken on that day; 2) minimum PEF rate during a week, expressed as a percentage of the highest value recorded during that week; 3) difference between the highest and the lowest PEF values, expressed as a percentage of the highest value; and 4) the 10th percentile of PEF values recorded during a week, expressed as a percentage of the highest value recorded during that week. We assessed agreement between clinical classification and PEF variability using the weighted kappa coefficient. We also analyzed the sensitivity and specificity of PEF variability indices for episodic and persistent asthma. The analysis of levels of agreement between clinical classification of asthma and formulas 1, 2, 3, and 4 gave quadratic weighted kappa coefficients of 0.494, 0, 0.488, and 0.346, respectively. The results were similar when patients were grouped and analyzed by type of asthma (episodic or persistent asthma).",
"The clinical importance of eosinophils in asthma has been shown by the observation of frequent exacerbation in patients with high sputum eosinophil counts and a corresponding decrease in exacerbations when anti-inflammatory therapy was adjusted to maintain low sputum eosinophil percentages. However, less is known of the relation between blood eosinophilia and asthma exacerbation. To examine whether patients with asthma and a higher blood eosinophil count have more asthma attacks than those with a lower count. The authors analyzed data from the National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey, an annual cross-sectional survey of the US general population. Patients with asthma and asthma attacks were identified based on participants' self-report or parental report. A high blood eosinophil count was defined using 200, 300, or 400 cells/μL as cutoffs. The primary analysis used data from 2001 through 2010 after adjusting for demographic variables, obesity, smoking, neutrophil level, and past treatment for wheezing. A secondary analysis used data from 2007 through 2010 and included recent treatment for asthma and fraction of exhaled nitric oxide level as additional adjustment variables. In survey years 2001 through 2010, 3,162 patients with asthma had blood eosinophil data and approximately half (54% of children and 52% of adults) reported an asthma attack in the previous year. In the primary analysis, higher blood eosinophil counts were associated with more asthma attacks in children but not in adults. The secondary analysis suggested an association in both children and adults.",
"Molecular biomarkers that identify the phenotype of blood eosinophilia were evaluated in adult asthmatics, and their relationship with clinically significant asthma outcomes was assessed. Patients were clustered based on their molecular fingerprint. At inclusion, 64 patients were evaluated for phenotypic traits, sputum and blood eosinophilia, exhaled NO, serum cytokines and chemokines, total serum IgE, lung function (LF), and airway hyper-responsiveness (AHR). Within-patient changes were evaluated in 44 patients 6 weeks later. Lung function, asthma control, and monocyte chemotactic protein-1 (MCP-1) were identified as the most important distinguisher and blood eosinophilia as second most important identifier in principal component analysis. A robust relationship was observed between blood eosinophilia and IL-5, IL-13, and eosinophil-derived neurotoxin (EDN), which stayed consistent after 6 weeks. Serum IL-5 and IL-13 were the two best, followed by EDN as separators of high vs low blood eosinophilia. Periostin did not identify blood or sputum eosinophilia, even after stratification for total IgE, and did not correlate with IL-5, IL-13, eotaxin, or EDN. IL-5 and IL-13 showed strong correlations with AHR and monocyte chemoattractant protein (MCP)-1 with asthma severity and fast LF decline. The presence of high or low expression of MCP-1, eotaxin, and IL-8 identified two separate blood eosinophilia patient clusters linked to asthma severity.",
"International guidelines recommend that, in addition to symptoms and medication requirements, measurements of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and peak expiratory flow (PEF) are necessary for the objective assessment of asthma severity. The guidelines suggest that parity exists between measurements of FEV1 and PEF when expressed as percentage of predicted normal values, and that asthma severity can be classified as mild, moderate or severe on the basis of FEV and PEF measurements of>80%, 60-80% and<60% of predicted values, respectively. To determine the relationship between measurements of FEV1 and PEF when expressed as percentage predicted values. A total of 1198 paired measurements of FEV1 and PEF were obtained from the medical records of a random sample of 25 adult asthmatic patients attending a hospital-based chest clinic. Measurements of lung function were expressed as a percentage of predicted normal values, using the European Respiratory Society prediction equations for PEF and FEV1. For the individual paired measurements, the mean differences between PEF and FEV percentage predicted were calculated. Measurements of lung function were used to determine asthma severity with<60%, 60-80%, and>80% predicted FEV1 and PEF values representing severe, moderate and mild asthma, respectively. The proportion of paired measurements in which differences in classification resulted from the use of FEV1 or PEF percentage predicted values was then calculated. In asthma of differing severity, there was considerable variability between measurements of FEV1 and PEF when expressed as percentage predicted values; calculation of the FEV1% predicted resulted in lower values than those of the PEF percentage predicted, with a mean difference of -17.2% (95% CI -16.3%, -18.1%). There was agreement in classification of asthma severity in only 49.9% (598/1198) of paired measurements. Different prediction equations, while variably altering the degree of misclassification, did not correct the basic differences in the assessment of asthma severity dependent on the use of FEV or PEF.",
"A recent trend in the treatment of asthma has been the widespread, independent use of peak expiratory flow (PEF). We examined whether PEF monitoring creates inaccuracies in assessment of children with moderate to severe asthma. We compared the negative predictive value of PEF in relation to the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV(1)), and to the forced expiratory flow between 25% and 75% of the vital capacity (FEF(25-75%)) at different levels of air trapping as determined by the residual volume over total lung capacity ratio (RV/TLC). The study included 244 patients, ages 4 to 18 years with all classes of asthma severity, with FEV(1) ranging from 28% to 134% of predicted value. We analyzed 367 sets of pulmonary function tests performed throughout a 3-year period. Thirty percent of patients with a normal PEF value had an abnormal FEV(1) or FEF(25-75%). As air trapping increased, the ability of a normal PEF to predict normal FEV(1) and FEF(25-75%) readings fell from 83% to 53%. The negative predictive value was significantly lower for patients with RV/TLC ratio>30 compared with patients with RV/TLC<30.",
"yes. These findings suggest that eosinophil degranulation is more important than eosinophilia in identifying asthma.",
"yes. Incorporating the control of sputum eosinophils into the management algorithm did not significantly reduce overall exacerbations or improve asthma control. Exacerbations were reduced in the short term, suggesting that more frequent measurements would be needed for a clinically useful effect and that controlling inflammation may have a role to play in subgroups of children with severe asthma.",
"yes. These results suggest that the eosinophil counts and serum IgE are differently regulated by IL-10 genotype in asthmatic and in normal subjects. However, IL-10 polymorphism is not related to susceptibility in asthma.",
"\"Eosinophilic asthma\" refers to an asthma phenotype characterized by predominance of eosinophils in the bronchial airways and corticosteroid responsiveness. Recent clinical trials of eosinophil-blocking agents have utilized a blood eosinophil count of 300 or 400 eosinophils/mm(3) or higher to identify subjects with moderate to severe asthma. We observed multiple instances of counts which varied widely in the same patient within the same day. To determine whether there is significant variability in blood eosinophil counts taken throughout the day in the same patients with moderate asthma. Twelve subjects had serial blood eosinophil counts obtained within a 24-hour period. Twelve subjects were enrolled: seven subjects had moderate asthma, three subjects had mild asthma, and two control subjects had no asthma. The variability of blood eosinophil counts ranged from 17% to 396%. No specific diurnal pattern was found among the subjects. The highest variability were seen in three moderate asthmatics (396%, 170%, and 154%) and one mild asthmatic (164%) while the other subjects had variability of 84% or less.",
"yes. The persistent eosinophilic phenotype is associated with increased exacerbation risk compared with the non-eosinophilic phenotype in severe asthma. No differences in time to first exacerbation or exacerbation risk over a 1-year period were detected among neutrophilic phenotypes.",
"Recently it has been suggested that the bronchospasm and hyperresponsiveness phenomena observed in asthma are secondary to the actions of the eosinophils; the purpose of this study was to evaluate the relationship between the peripheral number of eosinophils and various markers of disease activity in a group of asthmatics examined in childhood (mean age 10 years) and early adulthood (mean age 21 years). The relationship between eosinophil count and pulmonary function (FEV1), respiratory symptoms, bronchial responsiveness to histamine and diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow rate (PEF) was studied in 70 subjects with bronchial asthma, of whom 24 had intrinsic and 46 extrinsic asthma. Self-reported symptoms of asthma were graded on a scale from 0 to 5, where 0 = no symptoms within the preceding 12 months and 5 = daily including nocturnal symptoms, and histamine responsiveness was analysed by means of the dose-response slope (DRS). In both childhood and adulthood, a direct correlation was found between blood eosinophil count and symptom score (r = 0.69, P < 0.001 and r = 0.58, P < 0.001, respectively), whereas inverse correlations were observed between number of eosinophils and FEV1 % predicted (r = -0.75, P < 0.001 and r = -0.80, P < 0.001, respectively). Furthermore, in adulthood, eosinophil count was found to be significantly correlated to histamine responsiveness (logDRS) (r = 0.65, P < 0.001) and diurnal PEF variation (r = 0.81, P < 0.001); these correlations were also noted after dividing the subjects into intrinsic and extrinic asthmatics. In both groups of subjects a significant inverse correlation was also found between histamine responsiveness and prechallenge FEV1 % predicted. The eosinophil count in childhood was weakly correlated to the symptom score in adulthood (r = 0.29, P < 0.02).",
"yes. In conclusion, peripheral blood eosinophil density characteristics and in particular numbers of low density eosinophils are closely related with indicators of the asthma severity under stable conditions. Allergen inhalation induces a further shift towards lower density suggesting additional activation of the eosinophils.",
"Asthma is characterized in part by small airways dysfunction. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) measurement has been suggested by all international guidelines as an important tool in asthma management. The correlation between PEF and FEV(1) but not with forced expired flow at 50% of vital capacity (FEF(50)) is well-established. To determine the value of PEF measurement as a predictor of small airways status as expressed by FEF(50). Analysis of the association between PEF and FEF(50) in single and multiple determinations. One hundred eleven asthmatic children (mean age, 11.8 years), grouped in the following way according to FEV(1) values: within normal range (n = 46); mildly reduced FEV(1) (n = 44); and moderately/severely reduced FEV(1) (n = 21). Overall, FEF(50) and PEF were significantly correlated (r = 0.49; p<0.0001). However, in 41.6% of the patients, the actual FEF(50) differed by>20% from the calculated FEF(50). PEF has a high specificity (82.4%) but a poor sensitivity (51.7%) to detect FEF(50) status. PEF was better able to reflect abnormal FEF(50) in the patients with more severe asthma and to reflect normal FEF(50) values in the healthier patients. In patients with multiple measurements (n = 40), the correlation between FEF(50) and PEF was significantly better than that derived from a single determination (multiple measurements r = 0.77; single measurement, r = 0.49).",
"yes. Patients with asthma with higher blood eosinophil counts experienced more asthma attacks than those with lower eosinophil counts.",
"yes. This study showed a relationship between eosinophil count and severity of asthmatic symptoms, level of pulmonary function, histamine responsiveness and diurnal variation in PEF in both intrinsic and extrinsic asthma; suggesting that the peripheral eosinophil count reflects asthmatic activity, and possibly the degree of inflammation in the airways, in both children and adults. Furthermore, a low number of eosinophils in childhood might be related to a relatively favourable prognosis with regard to symptoms of asthma in early adulthood.",
"Discrepancy in asthmatic assessment by symptoms and peak flow rate (PFR) is a frequent dilemma. Currently, total peripheral eosinophil count (TPEC) is under study for asthma evaluation. To explore the correlation between TPEC and asthma severity assessed by symptoms alone versus symptoms and PFR. Adults asthmatics were selected from the Asthma Clinic. Severity assessment was based on two methods: symptoms alone or symptoms and PFR. Expiratory PFR was recorded by a Wright peak flow meter. Severity levels included mild intermittent, mild persistent, moderate persistent, and severe persistent. Total peripheral eosinophil count was performed on a Celldyn-3500 counter. Data was analyzed for statistical significance. Sixty asthmatics aged 15 to 70 years (mean = 34 years), of which 68.3% were female, were studied. Severity levels differed between the two assessment methods in 45% of the cases and showed a predominance of the moderate persistent type. Total peripheral eosinophil count ranged between 22 and 2470 cells/mm3 (mean = 520 +/- SD = 393) and eosinophilia was found in 50% of the cases. Total peripheral eosinophil count showed a high positive correlation with increased asthma severity level assessed by history alone (r = 0.460, P<.001); more than by history and PFR (r = 0.328, P<.05)."
] | 102 |
Do immunoassays differentially detect different acidity glycoforms of FSH? | [
"The possibility of the carbohydrate residues of glycoproteins affecting their recognition in immunoassays is an important and unresolved issue. This study looked for evidence of differential recognition of FSH glycoform preparations, of variable isoelectric point (pI) and known molarity, using three routine assays employing different antibody configurations. Seven glycoform preparations with differing pI bands (between 3.8 and 5.5) were produced by isoelectric focusing of recombinant human FSH and the molecular weights determined by mass spectroscopy. Three concentrations of each glycoform were assayed and the results expressed relative to unfractionated material. From the relative responses, recognition differences between the assay methods and between the glycoform preparations were investigated. Three routine assays were employed: the commercially available Amerlite(R) enzyme immunoassay and Delfia(R) immunofluorometric assay, together with an in-house competitive two-site radioimmunoassay (RIA). Overall, the three assays gave the same relative responses for equivalent glycoforms, with the only exceptions involving small differences between some assay pairs for the fractions at the extremes of the pI range investigated. Within each assay type, differences (P<0.05) of up to 33% existed between glycoforms of different pI, however, these differences showed no patterns or trends across the entire acidity range examined.",
"Between the assay methods investigated in this study, few differences exist in the recognition of individual pI bands of FSH when expressed relative to a common unfractionated standard. Differences were apparent in the recognition of the different acidity glycoforms within each assay method, however, these were small and unlikely to be of clinical significance."
] | [
"To investigate whether genetic polymorphisms in the FSH pathway (FSHB-211 G→T and FSHR 2039 A→G) affect serum levels of FSH, antimüllerian hormone (AMH), and age at pubertal onset. FSH secretion and FSH signal transduction are enhanced in carriers of FSHB GG and FSHR AA, respectively. Furthermore, the combined genotype FSHB GG+FSHR AA is the most favorable for male gonadal function, but the effect of this genotype has never been evaluated in peripubertal females. AMH is a marker of ovarian function and is negatively correlated with FSH in prepubertal girls. Secondary analyses of a prospective cohort study. General community. We examined 78 healthy girls twice yearly for 6 years; the median age at baseline was 9.3 years. None. Hormone levels were measured by immunoassays, and DNA was isolated from blood and genotyped by restriction fragment length polymorphism of polymerase chain reaction-amplified regions. Carriers of FSHB GG+FSHR AA had higher FSH before pubertal onset (median 2.2 vs. 1.5 IU/L) and lower AMH (13.8 vs. 19.4 pmol/L) compared with carriers of other genotypes. In crude analysis, girls with FSHB GG+FSHR AA entered puberty earlier, 9.7 vs. 10.6 years. However, the difference was no longer statistically significant after including interval-, right-, and left-censored data in a probit analysis.",
"Glycodelin is a cell surface glycoprotein offering a unique gender specific carbohydrate configuration. Sialylated carbohydrate structures, which are unusual for mammals, characterize Glycodelin isolated from amniotic fluid (Glycodelin A, GdA). Glycodelin in general exerts multiple, partly opposing functions ranging from immunosuppression to cell differentiation. As these markedly influence tumorigenesis, this study aimed to clarify whether expression of different Glycodelin isoforms is related to clinicopathological characteristics and prognosis of ovarian cancer patients. Further the use of Glycodelin as a serum marker in benign and malignant ovarian diseases was evaluated. Ovarian cancer specimens (n = 152) were stained for Glycodelin with carbohydrate and peptide specific antibodies. Associations between Glycodelin expression and histological grading, FIGO stage as well as patient's prognosis were examined. Glycodelin was correlated to expression of gonadotropin receptors and mucin-1, which are discussed as ovarian cancer tissue markers. In addition, Glycodelin serum concentrations were analyzed in patients suffering from benign (n = 73) or malignant (n = 38) ovarian neoplasias. Glycodelin A was found to be an independent prognostic marker for poor prognosis in advanced ovarian cancer patients. GdA staining correlated with gonadotropin receptor (FSHR and LHCGR) and with hCG expression. Gd expression showed a positive correlation with a tumour-associated epitope of mucin 1 (TA-MUC1). Further, compared to ovarian cancer, serum Gd was increased in patients with benign ovarian tumors.",
"To determine if the low titer antiendometrial antibody detection by indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) in the sera of patients with endometriosis is because of specific antigen-antibody interactions. Sera of selected patients subjected to separation of immunoglobulin fragments by ammonium sulfate precipitation and pepsin digestion and tested by IIF. In a comparative method, a fragment, crystallizable (Fc) flooding technique was used to determine the active component. Sera obtained preoperatively in the outpatient and results matched with surgical findings. Patients 45 years of age or less presenting for gynecological surgery who had signed an informed consent for the drawing of preoperative blood. None. Indirect immunofluorescence was graded according to the intensity of staining and the lowest dilution at which staining occurred. All of the sera of the 11 patients with endometriosis exhibited F(ab')2 specific staining but none exhibited Fc fragment staining. None of the 7 control patients displayed F(ab')2 or Fc fragment staining.",
"Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) shows promise as a biomarker of the ovarian reserve but current assays are insufficiently sensitive to allow assessment of this post-chemotherapy in most women. We have assessed a new highly sensitive AMH assay (Ansh picoAMH) in the evaluation of ovarian activity in women with very low ovarian reserve after chemotherapy. A prospective cohort and an independent validation cohort of premenopausal women with early breast cancer (eBC) were recruited at the time of diagnosis (combined n=98), and ovarian reserve markers 2-5 years later following chemotherapy were assessed in relation to menstrual activity. The picoAMH assay had a limit of detection of 7.5 pg/ml. AMH clearly distinguished women with ongoing menses from those with amenorrhoea at 2 years after diagnosis (mean 522 ± 169 versus 8.9 ± 1.3 pg/ml, P<0.0001) with high predictive value for continuing menses or amenorrhoea for the subsequent 3 years. AMH was detectable in more women than using a previous assay (P=0.004). Other markers of the ovarian reserve (follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), inhibin B) were also of discriminatory value but to lesser extents. This finding was validated in a second, independent cohort of women treated for eBC.",
"yes. Measurements of MIS reflect ovarian findings in PCOS better than levels of inhibin B and are more frequently elevated. However, MIS lacks sensitivity for use as a diagnostic tool in PCOS.",
"To test whether serum inhibin levels are related to differences in gonadotropin concentrations between patients with an elevated LH-to-FSH ratio (ELF patients) and controls. 32 ELF patients were matched with controls by age, body mass index (BMI), and cycle length. No statistically significant difference was found in follicular-phase inhibin B levels or midluteal inhibin A levels between cases and controls. Significant negative correlation was observed between follicular-phase inhibin B concentrations and BMI in ELF patients but not among controls. LH and FSH were positively related to inhibin B levels in ELF patients. Midluteal inhibin A correlated with sex hormone-binding globulin in controls but not in ELF patients.",
"To assess whether the levels of anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH) are related to outcome of intrauterine insemination (IUI) in patients treated with gonadotropins.INTERVENTION(S): A total of 195 patients underwent controlled ovarian stimulation (COS) with recombinant follicle stimulating hormone (rFSH) (50-150 IU/d). All patients were submitted upto three cycles of IUI. Primary outcome was the ability of AMH levels to predict clinical pregnancy at first attempt and the cumulative clinical pregnancy probability of upto three IUI cycles. Secondary outcomes were the relation of AMH, LH, FSH, BMI, age, parity and basic estradiol levels with each other and the outcome of IUI. The area under the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve in predicting clinical pregnancy for AMH at first attempt was 0.53 and for cumulative clinical pregnancy was 0.76. AMH levels were positively correlated with clinical pregnancy rate at first attempt and with cumulative clinical pregnancy rate, but negatively correlated with patient's age and FSH levels. Patient's FSH, LH levels were negatively correlated with cumulative clinical pregnancy rate.",
"yes. We evaluated preoperative follicle-stimulating hormone as a predictor of reproductive outcome in men with suspected subfertility who underwent vasectomy reversal. Increased follicle-stimulating hormone was associated with a higher rate of assisted reproduction even after controlling for confounding covariates. Thus, men with increased follicle-stimulating hormone should be counseled on the increased likelihood of needing assisted reproduction to achieve pregnancy after vasectomy reversal.",
"yes. Anti-D flow cytometry and fluorescence microscopy for detection of fetal cells offer equally reliable and precise methods in contrast to the Kleihauer-Betke test. Fluorescence microscopy may be established as standard to quantify FMH in clinical practice because it is comparable to flow cytometry; in addition, it is time saving and is less expensive.",
"Recent studies have explored the relationship between ABO blood type and serum markers of ovarian reserve, specifically follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and anti-mullerian hormone (AMH). The primary objective of this study is to investigate whether there is an association between ABO blood type and ovarian stimulation response in patients with serum markers of diminished ovarian reserve (DOR). This is a retrospective study of all patients undergoing controlled ovarian stimulation (COS) for in vitro fertilization (IVF) between May 2010 and July 2013. Patients were sub-grouped, a priori, based on serum AMH levels: ≤1 ng/mL, ≤0.5 ng/mL and ≤0.16 ng/mL. Within each sub-group, demographic, baseline IVF characteristics and COS response parameters based on ABO blood types were compared. The number of mature oocytes retrieved was considered the primary outcome. Analysis of variance (ANOVA) and Chi-square tests were used to compare means and percentages between ABO blood types within groups. Complete data was available for 2575 patients. The mean (± SD) age and BMI of the study cohort was 38.9 (±3.97) years, 23.4 (±5.91) kg/m(2), respectively. The distribution of ABO blood types in the cohort was as follows: 36.8 % (A), 6.56 % (AB), 17.3 % (B), and 39.3 % (O). The demographics and baseline IVF characteristics were comparable among patients with blood types A, AB, B, and O within each AMH group. Within each AMH sub-group, no difference was found in the total days of COS, total gonadotropins administered, peak estradiol level, or number of mature oocytes retrieved based on blood type.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that inhibin A and inhibin B concentrations are significantly reduced in the follicular fluid of women with PCOS compared with those in the follicular fluid of size-matched follicles from normal women, consistent with the decreased inhibin subunit mRNA expression in previous studies. These findings point to the potential importance of inhibins in normal follicle development and suggest that inhibin deficiency may play a role in the follicle arrest associated with PCOS.",
"yes. This study indicates a molecular target and titer difference of LKM-3 autoantibodies in German subjects with HDV and AIH. It also suggests a geographic target and titer difference of LKM-3 in HDV. LKM-3 are identified as a rare and previously undescribed independent marker of AIH.",
"To assess the relationship between serum cancer antigen (CA)-125 concentrations and the likelihood of pregnancy after in vitro fertilization/embryo transfer (IVF ET). A prospective longitudinal follow-up study was conducted in 44 IVF patients receiving luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) suppression, followed by human menopausal gonadotrophin (hMG). There were no indications of endometriosis. Progesterone or human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) were given as luteal support. Serum samples were taken just before oocyte pick-up (OPU), 14 days after ET and, after the establishment of a clinical pregnancy, on day ET + 21. Samples were stored at -80 degrees C until analysis. CA-125 was measured using a commercially available enzyme immunoassay (IMx CA-125; Abbott, North Chicago, IL, USA). The signed rank (paired samples) and Wilcoxon tests were used for statistical analysis. There were no differences in CA-125 concentrations at the time of OPU between pregnant (n = 18) and non-pregnant (n = 26) IVF patients. After OPU. the CA-125 concentrations rose both in pregnant (P<0.0001) and in non-pregnant (P <0.001) patients. This rise was greater after successful implantation, and 14 days after ET, higher CA-125 concentrations were found in the pregnant patients (P< 0.01).",
"yes. The false-negative POC uhCG rate is very low, but in the setting of a large volume of tests, the numbers are worth consideration. In positive uhCG POC tests, free and fixed antibodies bind hCG to form a \"sandwich\"; hCG is present in several variant forms that change in their concentrations at different stages of pregnancy. When in excess, intact hCG can saturate the antibodies, preventing sandwich formation (hook effect phenomenon). Some assays may include an antibody that does not recognize certain variants present in later stages of pregnancy. When this variant is in excess, it can bind one antibody avidly and the other not at all, resulting in a false-negative test (hook-like phenomenon). In both situations, dilution is key to an accurate test.",
"yes. The heterozygote FSH-R polymorphism Ala307Thr is significantly more frequent in women with PCOS than in normo-ovulatory subjects and is more frequently associated with a higher ovarian responsiveness to exogenous FSH.",
"yes. The immunophenotype of TCC of the ovary is similar to that of other surface carcinomas of the ovary, but differs from that of TCC of the bladder. Since immunohistochemical procedures are often used in the diagnosis and classification of both primary and metastatic tumours, it is important to be aware of these differences in immunophenotype.",
"Since in rodents anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) has been shown to inhibit antral follicle responsiveness to FSH, we aimed at verifying whether a relationship exists between serum AMH levels and antral follicle responsiveness to exogenous FSH in normo-cycling women. Serum AMH, estradiol (E(2)) and FSH levels were prospectively measured on cycle day 3 in patients undergoing controlled ovarian hyperstimulation (COH) with a time-release GnRH agonist and standardized FSH doses. In 162 patients, follicles were counted after pituitary suppression and before FSH administration (baseline; small antral follicles; 3-8 mm), and on the day of hCG (dhCG; pre-ovulatory follicles; 16-22 mm). Antral follicle responsiveness to FSH was estimated by the Follicular Output RaTe (FORT), determined by the ratio pre-ovulatory follicle count on dhCG × 100/small antral follicle count at baseline. Serum AMH levels were positively correlated with the number of small antral follicles at baseline (r = 0.59; P < 0.0001) and pre-ovulatory follicles on dhCG (r = 0.17; P < 0.04). Overall, FORT was 47.5 ± 1.4% and failed to be influenced by the woman's age, BMI or basal E(2) and FSH level. Conversely, multiple regression analysis showed that FORT was negatively correlated with AMH levels (r = -0.30; P < 0.001), irrespective of duration of COH and total FSH dose.",
"yes. Differences in the levels of AMH and progesterone released into the medium by cultured GC as well as in AMH gene expression were observed between GCs obtained under natural and stimulated IVF protocols. The results suggest that artificial gonadotropin stimulation may have an effect on the intra-follicular metabolism. A significant positive correlation between AMH and progesterone may suggest progesterone as a factor influencing AMH secretion.",
"To compare ovarian reserve with anti-müllerian hormone (AMH) levels, antral follicle counts (AFCs) and ovarian volume in patients with Behçet's disease (BD) and healthy subjects. This study included 35 women with BD (mean age: 34.4 ± 5.3 years) and 35 healthy controls (mean age: 34.1 ± 6.0 years). Venous blood samples collected from groups on menstrual cycle Days 2-4 were analyzed using the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay to measure follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), estradiol (E There was no statistically significant difference in the mean age, median gravida/para/abortus and the number of live births and mean BMI between the patient and control groups (P > 0.05). No statistically significant difference in the median FSH, LH, E2, PRL levels, right and left ovarian volumes, and right and left ovarian AFCs was observed among the patients and the controls (P > 0.05). There was no statistically significant difference in the mean AMH levels (P = 0.468). Bonferroni correction showed no statistically significant correlation between AMH levels and age, BMI, FSH, LH, E2, PRL levels, right and left ovarian AFCs, right and left ovarian volume (P > 0.025) among the controls and the patients.",
"yes. Even if immunohistochemical patterns of residual follicles of group B are very well differentiated that they resemble normal thyroid parenchyma, they may well be metastatic carcinomas. On the contrary, the presence of morphologically and immunohistochemically normal-looking follicles in group A, with no intrathyroid tumor, suggests that the primary PTC might possibly develop in the ectopic thyroid tissue. In cases showing morphologically and immunohistochemically normal-looking follicles in laterocervical masses, these findings might lead to a reduction of the overdiagnosis of metastatic disease of an undetected carcinoma.",
"no. Neither follicular-phase inhibin B levels nor midluteal inhibin A levels are characteristic of patients with an elevated LH-to-FSH ratio. Opposite correlations with LH and BMI suggest dysregulation of inhibin secretion rather than dimeric inhibins having a central role to the endocrinological imbalance observed in polycystic ovary syndrome.",
"no. Galectin-3 immunohistochemistry does not appear to be a useful adjunct to diagnosis in thyroid FNA as it does not reliably distinguish malignant and benign lesions. Many thyroid aspirates are of low cellularity and are not suitable for cell block immunohistochemistry.",
"yes. Inhibin B measurement is a better marker of fertility status than FSH and LH. Concentration of inhibin B in patients with infertility may provide useful information on spermatogenesis and possibly serve as a more direct marker of spermatogenesis than FSH.",
"yes. The new CA125(MGL) assay concept could help reduce the false-positive rates of conventional CA125 immunoassays. The improved analytical specificity of this test approach is dependent on a discriminating lectin immobilized in large numbers on Eu(+3)-NPs, providing both an avidity effect and signal amplification.",
"To evaluate the association between variants in the FSHR receptor (FSHR) gene and current markers of ovarian reserve (antimüllerian hormone, antral follicle count, FSH). Prospective observational study. Tertiary referral center for reproductive medicine. Women (n = 421) undergoing their first cycle of controlled ovarian stimulation for IVF. Baseline pelvic ultrasound and blood tests were taken on day 2-3 of the cycle for assessment of baseline hormones and for DNA extraction. Genotypes for FSHR p.Asn680Ser and p.Thr307Ala variants were determined using TaqMan allelic discrimination assays. Association of FSHR single nucleotide polymorphisms with markers of ovarian reserve. There was no evidence of any difference in basal FSH, antimüllerian hormone, or antral follicle count between the patients with different genotypes, with or without an adjustment for age or body mass index.",
"yes. The LHR expression in small follicles obtained in IVM suggests a role for hCG administration during IVM procedures. Overexpression of LHR in cumulus GCs of MII oocytes may signal malfunction of oocytes and low fertilization capacity.",
"To compare the bioactive and immunoactive PRL in normal and unexplained infertility subjects. Prospective study. Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Wayne State University and The University of Michigan. Twelve normal, fertile women compared with 12 patients with unexplained infertility. Serum samples were obtained across the menstrual cycle and for each subject, 5 pools were prepared by combining serum aliquots from the early follicular, late follicular, midcycle, and midluteal and late luteal phases of the cycle. Niobium lymphoma cell bioassay and an immunoradiometric assay were used to quantitate PRL. A midcycle increase in PRL was seen in controls by both assays and these levels were greater compared with other cycle stages. Comparison of midcycle PRL between groups showed differences only between bioactive PRL (34.2 +/- 8.3 versus 19.2 +/- 3.4 ng/mL [conversion factor to SI unit, 1.00]). The ratios between bioactive and immunoactive PRL were comparable. Significant correlation between bioactive and immunoactive PRL was seen for both control (r = 0.616) and unexplained infertility (r = 0.660) groups.",
"yes. Our results suggest that immunoassays previously used to quantify assumed endogenous ouabain detected compounds which are not structurally identical with ouabain. Cross reactivity of structurally related compounds of endogenous origin may cause these discrepancies between immunological and mass spectrometric analyses. Conclusive characterization of assumed endogenous counterparts of digoxin in a biomarker discovery approach seems to require distinct analytical techniques.",
"yes. The leading ELISA for AMH provides a composite value of two biologically distinct forms of AMH. It is not known whether proAMH and AMHN,C have identical relationships to ovarian reserve, antral follicle counts, or other aspects of ovarian function. Hence, future research into the physiology and clinical utility of AMH should consider the two forms separately.",
"Non-functioning pituitary adenomas (NFPAs) are characterised by the lack of symptoms of hormone hypersecretory syndromes but in vitro studies have demonstrated that tumour cells may stain for gonadotrophins and/or their alpha- or beta-subunits. In this study, we aimed to examine the pattern of secretion of LH and FSH from a series of pituitary adenomas cultured in vitro and where data were available to relate the results to pre-operative serum gonadotrophin levels. The in vitro secretion of LH and FSH was measured from 46 cultured NFPAs and compared with pre-operative serum gonadotrophin levels in 38 patients. Peritumorous 'normal' pituitary cell cultures from 20 additional pituitary tumour patients were used for comparison with the NFPA group. A median pre-operative LH:FSH ratio of 0.33:1 was found in 38 patients with NFPAs. Preferential secretion of FSH was also documented from media of 46 NFPAs cultured in vitro with a median LH:FSH ratio of 0.32:1. A significant correlation (r = 0.43, P < 0.01) was observed between serum and media levels of FSH but not LH. Peritumorous 'normal' pituitary cells released LH and FSH in a reversed ratio (median LH:FSH ratio = 3.6:1, P < 0.01 compared with NFPAs).",
"no. Using this prototype assay to quantify ACT-PSA in serum, we have demonstrated that ACT-PSA and the calculated derivatives are not superior in the differentiation between BPH and PCa compared with tPSA and the ratio of fPSA to tPSA.",
"Measurement of serum cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is the standard approach for epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) diagnostics and follow-up. However, the clinical specificity is not optimal because increased values are also detected in healthy controls and in benign diseases. CA125 is known to be differentially glycosylated in EOC, potentially offering a way to construct CA125 assays with improved cancer specificity. Our goal was to identify carbohydrate-reactive lectins for discriminating between CA125 originating from EOC and noncancerous sources. CA125 from the OVCAR-3 cancer cell line, placental homogenate, and ascites fluid from patients with cirrhosis were captured on anti-CA125 antibody immobilized on microtitration wells. A panel of lectins, each coated onto fluorescent europium-chelate-doped 97-nm nanoparticles (Eu(+3)-NPs), was tested for detection of the immobilized CA125. Serum samples from high-grade serous EOC or patients with endometriosis and healthy controls were analyzed. By using macrophage galactose-type lectin (MGL)-coated Eu(+3)-NPs, an analytically sensitive CA125 assay (CA125(MGL)) was achieved that specifically recognized the CA125 isoform produced by EOC, whereas the recognition of CA125 from nonmalignant conditions was reduced. Serum CA125(MGL) measurement better discriminated patients with EOC from endometriosis compared to conventional immunoassay. The discrimination was particularly improved for marginally increased CA125 values and for earlier detection of EOC progression.",
"yes. Although the differences in fasting TG levels between the LL and LH groups were not significantly different, LH had a more atherogenic lipoprotein phenotype and higher concentrations of adhesion molecules. TGp measurements seem to be suitable for identifying CAD patients with an unfavourable diurnal TG and atherosclerosis-prone lipoprotein metabolism.",
"yes. Detection of IgG, IgA, and IgM antisperm antibodies by flow cytometry is highly sensitive and specific. In addition, flow cytometry is able to assess thousands of sperm rapidly and accurately, reducing sampling error and technical time.",
"In response to a report that the Abbott Architect direct testosterone immunoassay was affected by dehydroepiandrostenedione sulphate (DHEAS) cross-reactivity, this study investigated the effect of DHEAS on other testosterone methods using a UK National External Quality Assessment Scheme (UK NEQAS) for steroid hormones special distribution. Separate male and female matrix pools of normal human serum were prepared and divided into three portions. Two portions from each matrix were spiked with 10.07 and 20.14. micromol/L DHEAS, respectively. Aliquots of these pools were distributed to participants in UK NEQAS for male and female testosterone at distribution 319 (July 2006). Median testosterone results for each method group were examined for an increase in testosterone concentration. In the female matrix, the effect on Abbott Architect was confirmed and shown also for Roche Elecsys, Roche E170 Modular and Beckman Access (includes some Beckman DxI users). In the male matrix, the effect on Abbott Architect, Roche Elecsys and Roche E170 Modular was similar in magnitude to that in the female matrix, but was smaller for Beckman Access/DxI. However, the effect on Immulite 2000 (includes some Immulite 2500 users) was greater in the male matrix. Indications of interference in other methods, used by only a few laboratories (notably Tosoh AIA and Wallac Delfia), were also observed.",
"yes. Different levels of FSHR expression in granulosa cells result in different ovarian response, and lower expression of FSHR may account for poor ovarian response to gonadotropin stimulation, which suggests the critical role of FSHR in the ovarian response to gonadotropin stimulation.",
"Determination of the presence of circulating immunoglobulins that inhibit FSH binding to its receptor could be instrumental in diagnosing the gonadotropin resistance ovary syndrome.",
"yes. The presence of IgG aPL in FFs and increased infertility length were significantly related to lower fertilization rates, independently. Follicular fluid IgG aPL appears as a risk factor in association with successful IVF-ET outcomes.",
"yes. The appearance of D-mannose-ligand binding sites on the surface of heads of human spermatozoa is associated with zona binding ability in IVF and is a putative determinant in human gamete recognition and fertilization.",
"yes. The luteinizing hormone/human chorionic gonadotrophin receptor (LHCGR) variant N312S and the follicle-stimulating hormone receptor (FSHR) variant N680S can be utilized for the prediction of pregnancy chances in women undergoing IVF.",
"yes. Serum anticanalicular autoantibodies can be detected in 20% of patients with DU and are associated with a more severe pattern of body gastritis, higher gastrin levels and decreased peak acid secretion values. Their presence could account for the normal or reduced acid output which can be seen in a subset of DU patients.",
"Because there is discordance between different immunoassay values for serum hGH, and because clinical state may not correlate with immunoreactive hGH, we have developed an assay to accurately measure serum hGH somatogenic bioactivity. The results of this assay were compared with the Elegance two-site ELISA assay across 135 patient samples in a variety of clinical states. The somatogenic assay was based on stable expression of hGH receptor in the murine BaF line, allowing these cells to proliferate in response to hGH. To eliminate interference by other growth factors in serum, we created a specific antagonist of the hGH receptor (similar to Trovert or Pegvisomant) which allowed us to obtain a true measure of hGH somatogenic activity by subtraction of the activity in the presence of the antagonist. The assay was carried out in microtiter plates over 24 h, with oxidation of a chromogenic tetrazolium salt (MTT) as the endpoint. These encompassed a number of different clinical conditions related to short stature, including idiopathic short stature, neurosecretory dysfunction and renal failure, as well as obese patients on dietary restriction and normal volunteers. In addition to the colourimetric (MTT) response to hGH, we measured free hGH by stripping out GHBP-bound hGH using beads coupled to a monoclonal antibody to the GHBP (GH binding protein). All samples were measured in both bioassay and ELISA assay. This bioassay was sensitive (5 mU/l or 2 microg/l) and precise, and not subject to interference by the GHBP. There was a good correlation (r = 0.95) between bioactivity and immunoactivity across clinical states. There was, however, an increased bioactivity during secretory peaks (over 25 mU/l), which has been reported previously for the Nb2 bioassay. Free hGH did not correlate with clinical state.",
"This study showed that the filaria related antigens and antibodies found in serum can be detected with equal sensitivity in hydrocele fluid. Therefore, it can be used as an alternative to serum for immunodiagnosis of filariasis, and help monitoring the filarisis elimination programme.",
"yes. Concentrations of Hcy in follicular fluid on the dOPU may be a useful marker for fertilization rate, and oocyte and embryo quality in PCOS patients undergoing assisted reproduction.",
"To explore whether the predictive value of antral follicle count (AFC) changes when measured at different times during the menstrual cycle. Antimüllerian hormone (AMH) and AFC are considered to be equally predictive of poor ovarian response; however, AMH is considered to have an advantage over AFC, because AMH concentrations can be measured at any time during the menstrual cycle. Retrospective cohort study. Private IVF clinic. A total of 3,117 patients with a transvaginal ultrasound within 3 months before their first IVF cycle. None. Receiver operating curves (ROCs) were constructed for AFC as a screening test for poor ovarian response (fewer than four eggs collected). The areas under the curve (AUCs) were compared for ROCs from patients at different phases of the cycle. When all patients except those with polycystic ovaries were included, the AUC was 0.79. Further subgroup ROC analyses revealed that the AUCs did not differ significantly when AFC was measured at different phases of the menstrual cycle.",
"Thyrotropinomas are rare pituitary tumors. In 25 percent of cases there is autonomous secretion of a second pituitary hormone, adding to the clinical complexity. We report a patient with thyrotropin (TSH)-dependant hyperthyroidism along with growth hormone (GH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) hypersecretion but low alpha-glycoprotein (alpha-subunit) concentrations, a hitherto unique constellation of findings. A 67-year-old Scottish lady presented with longstanding ankle edema, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, uncontrolled hypertension, fine tremors, warm peripheries, and agitation. Initial findings were a small goiter, elevated serum TSH of 7.37 mU/L (normal range, 0.30-6.0 mU/L), a free-thyroxine concentration of 34.9 pmol/L (normal range, 9.0-24.0 pmol/L), a flat TSH response to TSH-releasing hormone, and serum alpha-subunit of 3.1 IU/L (normal,<3.0 IU/L). There was no evidence of an abnormal thyroid hormone beta receptor by genotyping. Serum FSH was 56.8 U/L, but the luteinizing hormone (LH) was 23.6 U/L (postmenopausal FSH and LH reference ranges both>30 U/L) Basal insulin-like growth factor I was elevated to 487 microg/L with the concomitant serum GH being 14.1 mU/L, and subsequent serum GH values 30 minutes after 75 g oral glucose being 19.1 mU/L and 150 minutes later being 13.7 mU/L. An magnetic resonance imaging pituitary revealed a macroadenoma. Pituitary adenomectomy was performed with the histology confirming a pituitary adenoma, and the immunohistochemistry staining showed positive reactivity for FSH with scattered cells staining for GH and TSH. Staining for other anterior pituitary hormones was negative. After pituitary surgery she became clinically and biochemically euthyroid, the serum IFG-1 became normal, but the pattern of serum FSH and LH did not change.",
"Determination FSH and LH at day 3 of the menstrual cycle predicts the response to stimulation. To evaluate the value of FSH and LH measurements compared with women's age in predicting qualitative and quantitative ovarian response to gonadotrophin stimulation. 305 patients underwent at least one intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) cycle. The levels of FSH and LH at day 3 were determined in an earlier cycle. A good quantitative ovarian response was defined as ³3 oocytes retrieved and 3 embryos obtained. A good qualitative ovarian response was defined as a percentage of mature oocytes ³75% and immature ones²15% of the total number of oocytes retrieved with at least one top quality embryo obtained. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves were generated for FSH, LH and female age. FSH is better than female age in predicting the number of oocytes retrieved (respectively ROCAUC=0.77, p=10-3 versus ROCAUC=0.73, p=10-3) and the number of embryos obtained (ROCAUC=0.69, p=10-3 versus ROCAUC=0.66, p=10-3). LH is non predictive. None of the three tested parameters was predictive of the fertilization and pregnancy rates. An FSH cutoff was calculated and a value of 7.8mUI/ml is associated with a sensitivity of 73% and a specificity of 70% for the prediction of ovarian response to controlled stimulation.",
"yes. Concentrations of AMH in the FF, but not in the serum, constitute a useful follicular marker of embryo implantation and are negatively related to FF progesterone and estradiol concentrations.",
"We examined serum in recent postmenopausal women to determine the relationship of menopausal status, as FSH level, to serum acid-base balance. Serum electrolytes of 58 women, aged 53-58, were measured relative to serum FSH. The subjects were over one year since the last menstrual period and were from an academic practice setting. In women with FSH <35 IU/L (n=20, mean 16.6 IU/L, SD 6.8), phosphate and lactate were reduced relative to women with FSH >35 IU/L (n=38, mean 84.8 IU/L, SD 34.5). No other major anions showed significant differences. Both groups were analyzed by mass spectroscopy for fatty acids and anionic metabolic intermediates. Lactate was the predominant anion in the organic group but accounted for only about 10% of the FSH-responsive anion change. This change was mainly due to a 0.1-mM increase in phosphate in the high FSH group.",
"yes. The cumulus cell response to FSH resembles the differentiation of preantral to preovulatory granulosa cells. This differentiation program requires IGF1R activity and subsequent AKT activation.",
"To compare FSH, inhibin B (INHB), and anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) as predictors of the recovery of sperm in testicular fine-needle aspiration biopsy (FNA) performed in men with azoospermia. Cross-sectional, clinical study. Academic Unit of Reproductive Endocrinology. Fifty-one men with azoospermia and 31 controls. Testicular FNA. Serum FSH, INHB, and AMH levels. Clinical diagnoses in men with azoospermia were idiopathic nonobstructive azoospermia (n = 34, 67%), cryptorchidism (n = 4, 8%), varicocele (n = 3, 6%), and other diagnoses (n = 10, 16%). In pairwise comparison of receiver operating characteristic curves, none of FSH (area under curve 0.716), INHB (0.610), AMH (0.565), or volume of the larger testis (0.693) was proved to be superior to the others as predictor of sperm retrieval during an FNA procedure. Similarly, in a logistic regression analysis, none of FSH, AMH, INHB, or volume of the larger testis could predict presence of sperm in FNA.",
"The objective of this study was to evaluate the relationship between anti-mullerian hormone (AMH), inhibin B and antral follicle count (AFC) with ovarian response. Retrospective study. Fertility unit. AFC was recorded, and a serum sample obtained on day 3 from all patients undergoing in vitro fertilisation (IVF). Patients were given 300 IU/L recombinant follicle stimulating hormone (FSH; Gonal F). The following day blood samples were collected. METHODS Serum samples were assayed for FSH, AMH and inhibin B using commercial immunoassay kits and oestradiol using an in house assay. Response to gonadotrophin stimulation and the number of eggs collected. AFC was negatively correlated to age (r=-0.426, P<0.001). Delta inhibin B (levels of inhibin B on day 4 minus day 3) had the best association to the number of eggs collected (r= 0.533, P<0.001) followed by basal AMH (r= 0.51, P<0.001) and AFC (r= 0.505, P<0.001). The number of eggs fertilised was significantly associated with basal AMH (r= 0.592, P<0.001) and inhibin B (r= 0.548, P<0.001). AMH with a cutoff of 0.2 ng/mL had the best sensitivity (87%) and specificity (64%) in predicting poor response. A cumulative score using basal FSH, basal AMH, delta E2 (levels of oestradiol on day 4 minus day 3), delta inhibin B, AFC and age gives the best predictive statistics to identify poor responders with 87% sensitivity and 80% specificity and a positive likelihood ratio of 4.36.",
"GH-secreting pituitary adenomas frequently co-secrete prolactin and glycoprotein hormone alpha-subunit (alphaSU), but expression of additional hormones is considered unusual. The aim of this study was to establish the frequency with which acromegalic tumours secrete intact glycoprotein hormones LH, FSH and TSH, in comparison with other types of pituitary adenoma. Pituitary tumours were studied by cell culture, measuring the basal secretion of anterior pituitary hormones in vitro. Light microscopy was used to exclude tumours where normal pituitary tissue was present, and immunocytochemistry was employed to confirm the clinical diagnosis and for comparison with tissue culture data. TSH secretion was observed in vitro in 15/23 somatotroph adenomas, but from only 1/8 lactotroph, 4/29 null cell, 2/12 gonadotroph and 1/10 corticotroph adenomas; moreover, somatotroph adenomas secreted the largest amounts of TSH (P < 0.(001). Somatotroph adenomas also secreted LH (7/23) and FSH (2/23) but less frequently than gonadotroph adenomas. Immunocytochemistry demonstrated glycoprotein expression in somatotroph adenomas (LHbeta: 13%, FSHbeta: 26%, TSHbeta: 30%, alphaSU: 46%) more frequently than in lactotroph, corticotroph and null cell adenomas. A strong correlation was found between alphaSU secretion and TSH secretion in somatotroph adenomas (rho= 0.683, P < 0.001.",
"Expression of mRNAs encoding activin and its antagonists inhibin and follistatin has been described in human pituitary adenomas, including clinically nonfunctioning adenomas (NFAs) and gonadotroph adenomas (Gn-omas). Since many of the NFAs and Gn-omas secrete FSH in vitro, we hypothesized that locally produced activin may stimulate secretion of FSH in these pituitary adenomas. Pituitary adenoma tissue was obtained from 38 patients diagnosed preoperatively as having NFAs (n = 17), Gn-omas (n = 5), prolactinomas (n = 6) or growth hormone (GH)-producing adenomas (n = 10). Actual protein levels of activin, inhibin, follistatin, FSH and LH were measured in media of these 38 cultured pituitary adenomas. In addition, we investigated correlations between concentrations of these growth factors and hormones in NFAs and Gn-omas. Gn-omas were found to secrete significantly more activin A in their culture medium than PRL- and GH-producing adenomas (P < 0.05). Inhibin A and inhibin B protein levels in culture media were very low. A positive correlation between levels of activin A and FSH (r = 0.56, P < 0.005) was found, while no correlation between activin A and LH could be detected. Furthermore, levels of follistatin were positively correlated with activin A levels (r = 0.73, P < 0.0005). Comparison of the activin A:follistatin ratio with the measured FSH protein levels showed an even stronger relationship (r = 0.79, P < 0.0005).",
"Immunobead testing (IBT), the current standard for antisperm antibody detection, is time consuming and somewhat subjective. To overcome these limitations and maintain accuracy, we studied an immunofluorescent assay using flow cytometry. A validation study comparing flow cytometry to IBT in the detection of serum antisperm antibodies. Flow cytometry laboratory. Sera from 37 men after vasectomy (test) and sera from 35 fertile men (control). Test serum with and without immunoglobulin (Ig)G, IgA, and IgM antisperm antibodies as defined by IBT were analyzed by flow cytometry. Sensitivity and specificity of flow cytometry was calculated by defining the IBT as the true result. Flow cytometry identified 22 of 22 sera that were IgG positive (100% sensitivity), 12 of 14 sera that were IgA positive (86% sensitivity), and 4 of 4 sera that were IgM positive (100% sensitivity). Overall, 22 of 37 men were positive for antisperm antibodies. The flow cytometry correctly identified 71 of 71 negative sera (100% specificity). Fluorescence intensity values from the 37 study patients significantly correlated with immunobead binding to the head region and to the entire (more than one) region.",
"To prospectively study the AMH expression and secretion pattern in mural granulosa cells (GCs) and follicular fluid (FF) from small follicles and medium follicles that were collected from normo-ovulatory (NO) and polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) patients undergoing in vitro maturation (IVM) treatments. FF AMH levels and mRNA expression of mural GCs were measured in small (≤ 10 mm) and medium size follicles (11-15 mm) obtained from IVM treatments and large size follicles (≥ 16 mm) obtained from in vitro fertilization treatments. First, we show that AMH expression and protein level in the FF of NO patients were significantly higher in the small size follicles than in the medium and large size follicles (p < 0.003). We could not demonstrate these differences in PCOS patients. Second, we found significantly higher levels of AMH protein and mRNA in the large and medium (but not small) size follicles of PCOS patients compared to follicles from NO patients (p < 0.02). Finally, we observed a positive correlation between FF AMH of small and medium size follicles from NO patients and serum AMH (p < 0.03 and p < 0.0002, respectively).",
"yes. There was significant batch variation in the I-LH, B-LH and I-hCG (P < 0.001) but not the R-LH (P > 0.15) content of Pergonal. More than 80% of the total B-LH recovery chromatofocussed below pH 5.5 and corresponded to the region of highest I-hCG (> 87%) and lowest I-LH (< 42%) recovery. This was highly suggestive of hCG contributing to the LH-like bioactivity of Pergonal.",
"The objective of this study was to investigate whether follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), anti-Mullerian hormone (AMH) and inhibin B could be useful in predicting the ovarian response to gonadotrophin stimulation in assisted reproduction patients who are considered to be poor responders. Prospective study. Fertility unit. Blood samples were collected on day five or six in the early follicular phase of an untreated menstrual cycle. Samples were collected from 69 patients. Serum samples were assayed for FSH, AMH and inhibin B using commercial immunoassay kits. Response to gonadotrophin stimulation and number of eggs collected. Among the 69 patients, 52 patients completed an IVF cycle and 17 patients had to cancel the cycle because of poor ovarian response to gonadotrophin stimulation. Mean FSH levels were significantly higher (P<0.05) in the cancelled group (10.69 +/- 2.27 mIU/mL) compared with the cycle-completed group (7.89 +/- 0.78 mIU/mL). Mean AMH levels were significantly lower (P<0.01) in the cancelled group (0.175 +/- 0.04 ng/mL) compared with the cycle-completed group (1.13 +/- 0.2 ng/mL). Mean inhibin B levels were significantly lower (P<0.001) in the cancelled group (70 +/- 12.79 pg/mL) compared with the completed group (126.9 +/- 8.8 pg/mL). Predictive statistics show that AMH is the best single marker and that the combination of FSH, AMH and inhibin B is modestly better than the single marker. Linear regression analysis in the cycle completed patients shows that although FSH (r= 0.25, P<0.05) and inhibin B (r= 0.35, P<0.05) have a significant linear association with the number of eggs collected, AMH has the greatest association (r= 0.69, P<0.001) with the number of eggs collected among the parameters measured.",
"yes. CA-125 exists in significant amounts in FF of periovulatory follicles of IVF-ET patients. Intrafollicular CA-125 secretion is neither interrelated to follicular steroidogenesis nor is correlated to the outcome of IVF-ET.",
"yes. On day 3 of the in vitro fertilization stimulation cycle, serum concentrations of AMH can be used as a marker for ovarian response as well as reproductive outcome in assisted reproductive cycles of PCOS patients.",
"Primary ovarian insufficiency (POI) is defined as hypergonadotropic amenorrhea before the age of 40 yr. In 4-5% of patients with POI, an ovarian autoimmune process is present. Serum concentrations of antimüllerian hormone (AMH) have been determined in 26 women with POI due to steroidogenic cell autoimmunity (SCA-POI), 66 with nonautoimmune idiopathic POI (iPOI), 40 postmenopausal women (PMW), and 44 healthy fertile women (HW). SCA-POI was diagnosed according to presence of steroidogenic enzyme autoantibodies (17alpha-hydroxylase, side chain cleavage, and 21-hydroxylase autoantibodies). AMH concentrations were significantly higher in women with SCA-POI than women with iPOI (P = 0.018) or PMW (P = 0.03) but significantly lower than HW (P < 0.0001). AMH was detected in 11 of 26 women with SCA-POI (42%) and seven of 66 with iPOI (11%) (P = 0.002). Serum concentrations above the fifth percentile of the normal range (0.6 ng/ml) were detected in nine of 26 women with SCA-POI (35%) and four of 66 with iPOI (6%) (P = 0.001). Eight of 12 women with SCA-POI with less than 5 yr (67%) and one of 14 with longer disease duration (7%) had AMH concentrations within the normal range (P = 0.003). AMH concentrations correlated inversely with disease duration in women with SCA-POI (rho = -0.563, P = 0.003) but not women with iPOI. AMH correlated inversely with FSH serum concentrations in HW (rho = -0.584, P < 0.001) but not PMW or women with POI.",
"yes. The differences in the biochemical composition of the fluid in follicular cysts and pre-ovulatory follicles point to the variable intensification of the course of metabolic processes in pathological and physiological ovarian structures.",
"yes. As compared with conventional AMH Gen II assay results, [1] serum AMH concentrations were -16% and -20% lower with Access AMH and Elecsys AMH, respectively; and [2] automated assays were more strongly correlated to AFC in the subset of patients with reduced follicle count.",
"To compare the direct flow cytometric (FCM) measurement of sperm-bound antibodies with the indirect FCM measurement of unbound antisperm antibodies in seminal plasma of the same ejaculates. To compare the FCM measurements with the indirect mixed antiglobulin reaction (MAR) and the indirect immunobead test (IBT) performed on the same seminal plasmas. University hospital-based infertility service. Eleven infertile men with a positive immunoglobulin (Ig) G direct MAR test and antibody positivity on the direct FCM measurements. Four control patients with a negative IgG-direct MAR test. The proportion of spermatozoa positive for IgG and IgA antibodies as measured by various tests. The direct and indirect FCM measurements for sperm-bound antibodies from seminal plasma did not correlate with each other. In general, IgG antibodies were not detectable by indirect FCM whereas IgA were detected in lower proportions than by direct FCM measurements. Weak correlation was observed between the indirect FCM, indirect MAR, and indirect IBT measurements.",
"When the gonadotrophin levels increase at midcycle, more basic isoforms of FSH and LH appear in the circulation. However, when these gonadotrophins increase at menopause more acidic forms appear. The present study was done to see whether chronic 17 beta-oestradiol (E2) administration to post-menopausal women could counteract the formation of the more acidic isoforms after the menopause. Serum samples were obtained from 16 post-menopausal women, mean age 70 years (range 63-84 years), 46-169 days after the subcutaneous insertion of a 20-mg E2-implant. FSH, LH and E2 in the sera were measured with fluoroimmunoassays. The median charge and the degree of charge heterogeneity of the FSH and LH isoforms were determined for each serum by electrophoresis in 0.1% agarose suspension. Sera from an age-matched control group were analysed in parallel. The E2 levels in the E2-treated women were 230-570 pmol/l, within the range expected during the mid-luteal phase of the normal menstrual cycle. The mean serum FSH and LH levels were similar to normal follicular phase FSH and LH levels (8.6 and 20.8% respectively of the control group). It was estimated that individual serum specimens from both groups contained 20-30 different isoforms for both FSH and LH. The median charges of the isoforms of FSH and LH were more basic in all the E2-treated subjects than in their corresponding untreated controls. The mean median charge for FSH was close to the values for the follicular and luteal phases and that for LH close to that for the luteal phase. In some E2-treated women the isoforms were even more basic with a charge similar to that at the midcycle peak. The degree of charge heterogeneity for the E2-treated group was significantly (P < 0.001) larger than for the controls and similar to that during the normal menstrual cycle.",
"yes. Changes in glycosylation as detected in whole serum could be used to diagnose HCC with greater sensitivity and specificity than that observed through the analysis of specific protein glycoforms or protein levels. Such an assay could have value in the management of those at risk for the development of HCC.",
"To compare the strength of the relationship between antral follicle count (AFC) and serum antimüllerian hormone (AMH) concentrations obtained with two automated and one manual AMH assays in three different AFC populations. Prospective cohort study. University-affiliated IVF-ET center. Frozen-thawed serum samples of 211 assisted conception candidates, aged 24-43 years. Serum AMH was measured using one manual (AMH Gen II) and two fully automated (Access AMH and Elecsys AMH) assays. Antral follicle count was performed under strictly standardized conditions and sorted into three groups according to tercile values: low AFC (3-12 follicles; n = 73), intermediate AFC (13-20 follicles; n = 65), and high AFC (21-84 follicles; n = 73). Strength of correlation between AMH levels and AFC. Overall, AMH levels were lower with Access AMH (-16%) and Elecsys AMH (-20%) than with AMH Gen II. Remarkably, the strength of correlations between AFC and circulating AMH levels was the same with the three assays (r = 0.83). Yet in the low AFC group, serum AMH levels obtained by Access AMH and Elecsys AMH showed a stronger correlation with AFC (r = 0.63 and r = 0.65, respectively) than the AMH Gen II (r = 0.52), a phenomenon that was not observed in the remaining AFC groups.",
"yes. Serum AMH has the capacity to act as a diagnostic test for PCOS. Moreover, since its value rises with the more marked phenotypes, different cut-off values need to be used to differentiate those patients with polycystic ovarian morphology (PCOM), hyperandrogenism (HA) and oligoanovulation (OA).",
"The luteinizing hormone/follicle stimulating hormone (LH/FSH) ratio is often requested to help diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) despite a recent consensus recommending against its use. This study aimed to compare the variability of the LH/FSH ratio in PCOS with that of normal menstruating women over a full cycle in order to establish the diagnostic utility, or otherwise, of the test. Twelve women with PCOS and 11 matched controls had blood collected at four-day intervals on 10 consecutive occasions over a complete menstrual cycle. The median LH/FSH ratio for individual subjects did not differ significantly between the PCOS and the non-affected group (1.6 versus 1.2, P = 0.14). Only 7.6% of samples from PCOS patients had an LH/FSH ratio above three, compared with 15.6% of samples from normal subjects.",
"yes. Major antigenic differences may exist between capacitated and noncapacitated sperm. In some women sperm antibodies are reactive against capacitated sperm only. This has no certain clinical significance but may explain certain cases of IVF failure, unexplained infertility, and part of the variation in sperm antibodies testing methods.",
"yes. It is concluded that levels of activin A, follistatin and FSH in media of cultured nonfunctioning adenomas and gonadotroph adenomas are positively correlated. This suggests that these adenomas secrete FSH in response to the relatively high locally produced levels of activin A.",
"To evaluate the presence of circulating immunoglobulins that inhibit FSH binding to its receptor (Ig-FSHR) in patients with premature ovarian failure (POF). Non-randomized study. Blood sampling for determination of circulating immunoglobulins. patients Two hundred and forty-seven patients with POF and 60 normally menstruating women (controls). measurements Circulating immunoglobulins that inhibit FSH binding to its receptor were assessed by FSH-binding inhibition assay. Twenty-three out of 247 women with POF presented circulating immunoglobulins that inhibit FSH binding to its receptor. These patients had been previously diagnosed as ROS. Sixty control subjects proved negative.",
"To examine the relationship between anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) and the severity of the phenotype of patients with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and whether AMH can act as a diagnostic marker for PCOS? A prospective diagnostic utility study of AMH as a marker of PCOS. A consecutive series of women presenting to a tertiary infertility clinic (n = 164) plus a second series of women prepared for assisted conception treatments (n = 89) recruited between June 2012 and May 2013. Polycystic ovary syndrome was diagnosed using the Rotterdam criteria. AMH was measured using the Generation II assay (Beckman Coulter). The diagnostic utility of AMH was established using receiver operator characteristic (ROC) curves. Cut-off values for the individual features of PCOS are proposed. There was a significant difference in serum AMH concentration in women with normal ovaries (13·2 pmol/l), polycystic ovary morphology (PCOM) alone (37·8 pmol/l) and PCOS (53·2 pmol/l). Follicle number, increasing cycle length and evidence of hyperandrogenism were all independently associated with serum AMH concentration (P < 0·01). AMH was significantly affected by the different phenotypic presentations of PCOS with those with all components (PCOM, HA and OA) having the highest mean value [72·7 pmol/l (P < 0·01)].",
"Commercially available prolactin immunoassays detect macroprolactin to variable degrees. Best practice requires laboratories to assess the cross-reactivity of their prolactin assay with macroprolactin, and where appropriate, introduce a screen for the presence of macroprolactin. Our policy has been to reanalyse hyperprolactinaemic samples following polyethylene glycol (PEG) precipitation and to report the resultant value as the monomeric prolactin content of the sample. The goal of this study was to determine the need to continue PEG precipitation when prolactin measurements with the Wallac AutoDELFIA were replaced by the Beckman DxI 800. A total of 317 apparently hyperprolactinaemic samples were analysed for prolactin using the Beckman DxI 800 and results compared with those determined with the PEG screening technique on the Wallac AutoDELFIA. Any samples demonstrating a discordance of >25% were re-analysed using gel filtration chromatography (GFC) for a definitive result. The results indicate the Beckman DxI overestimates the prolactin concentration in 1%-2% of hyperprolactinaemic samples. PEG precipitation prior to analysis with the Wallac AutoDELFIA resulted in a 1% false negative diagnosis of hyperprolactinaemia.",
"To determine whether different isoforms of hCG are secreted by trophoblast tissue from ectopic pregnancy (EP). Retrospective study of surgically confirmed EPs compared with normal pregnancies. Teaching hospital in South Africa. One hundred patients with EPs and 120 patients with normal pregnancies. Isoforms of hCG were measured by specific immunoassays, lectin binding, and examination of disappearance rates of hCG after surgical clearance of EP. There were no obvious differences between the two types of pregnancy apart from a lower binding of beta-subunit immunoactivity to ricin 120. No clinically useful diagnostic measures to distinguish hCG from normal and EPs were found.",
"To determine whether women with rigorously defined unexplained infertility demonstrated altered GnRH secretion, as reflected by serum LH secretion patterns. Prospective observational study. National Center for Infertility Research at Michigan. Nine women with rigorously defined unexplained infertility and 11 healthy, parous age-matched control women.Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (25 ng/kg) as a bolus injection. Daytime pulse patterns of LH secretion measured every 10 minutes; mean serum concentrations of LH, FSH, E(2), P, PRL, and cortisol; and response to a physiologic dose of GnRH in the early follicular, late follicular, mid-luteal, and late luteal phases of the same menstrual cycle. Serum LH pulse frequency and pulse amplitude and LH secretion in response to a physiologic bolus of GnRH were not significantly different in unexplained infertility patients at any phase of the cycle. Luteinizing hormone pulse frequency and amplitude, as well as response to GnRH, varied significantly across the cycle. Mean early follicular serum LH and FSH concentrations were significantly higher in unexplained infertility patients than in fertile control subjects (LH: 5.31 +/-.51 vs. 4.03 +/-.33 [mIU/mL +/- SEM]; FSH: 5.81 +/-.63 vs. 3.80 +/-.45) but were not different at any other phase of the cycle.",
"We examined batch variation in the LH-like bioactive content of Pergonal and determined whether hCG contributes to this. Random selection of three batches of Pergonal, consisting of three ampoules in each batch. The LH content in each ampoule was determined by radioimmunoassay (R-LH), immunoradiometric assay (I-LH) and in vitro Leydig cell bioassay (B-LH) using the urinary hMG International Standard 70/45. Human chorionic gonadotrophin was determined by immunoradiometric assay (I-hCG) using the hCG IRP 75/537. The isohormone content of each batch was examined by chromatofocussing over the range pH 4.5-7.0 and the fractions collected were assayed for LH and hCG content. The variability in potency between batches was assessed by single factor analysis of variance. The gonadotrophin content of each batch (IU/ampoule, mean +/- SEM, n = 3 ampoules) was R-LH (40.9 +/- 0.5, 40.8 +/- 0.2, 39.3 +/- 0.7, P > 0.15), I-LH (39.0 +/- 1.5, 28.3 +/- 0.8, 36.9 +/- 3.3, P < 0.001), B-LH (27.3 +/- 0.3, 12.0 +/- 0.9, 19.3 +/- 0.9, P < 0.001) and I-hCG (16.4 +/- 0.7, 11.7 +/- 0.2, 10.5 +/- 0.5, P < 0.001). The chromatofocussing recoveries below pH 5.5 expressed as a percentage of the total amount of analyte eluted from the column and collated for all three batches of Pergonal were (mean % +/- SD, n = 3 batches) R-LH (58.4 +/- 4.0), I-LH (41.3 +/- 7.5), B-LH (81.4 +/- 2.8) and I-hCG (87.8 +/- 3.7).",
"To explore the importance of follicle-stimulating hormone receptor (FSHR) in granulosa cells in the ovarian response to gonadotropin stimulation. Prospective study. A women's hospital in China. One hundred infertile women undergoing ovarian stimulation with recombinant follicle-stimulating hormone (rFSH). These women were divided into three groups: poor, moderate, and high responders, according to the number of follicles with diameter >/=14 mm. The FSHR expression at both mRNA and protein levels was determined by either reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction or Western blot in granulosa cells. E(2) concentrations in serum and FSH levels in serum/follicular fluid (FF) were measured by electrochemiluminescence immunoassay. Relative expression of mRNA and protein of FSHR in granulosa cells, serum E(2), FSH level in serum and FF, and the number of mature follicles. The expression of FSHR, at both the mRNA and protein levels, was significantly different among the three groups, with the lowest expression in the poor responders. The level of FSHR protein was positively correlated with the peak level of serum E(2) and the number of mature oocytes. FSH levels in FF and the dosage of rFSH used were significantly different among the three groups, with the highest values in the poor responders.",
"To assess the value of serum LH measurements in early and late follicular phase as predictors of ovarian response and IVF outcome in patients treated with recombinant FSH with GnRH agonist (GnRH-a) pituitary down-regulation. Retrospective cohort analysis. Institutional. Women undergoing 157 consecutive IVF cycles suppressed with leuprolide acetate (LA) started in the midluteal phase and stimulated with recombinant FSH. Only women <40 years of age and with a basal cycle day 3 serum FSH </=9 IU/L were included. Serum LH levels were measured on cycle days 3 (D3) and 10 (D10). Delivery rates. Other secondary outcome measures included fertilization rate, clinical pregnancy rate, and parameters of ovarian response (peak E(2), number of metaphase II oocytes, and number of ampules of recombinant FSH). No significant differences were found with respect to ovarian response, fertilization rate, and outcome of pregnancy, when three threshold values of D3 and D10 serum LH (1, 1.5, and 2 mIU/mL) were analyzed. In addition, no significant differences were found between conception (n = 87) and no conception (n = 71) groups with respect to D3 or D10 LH. Receiver operator characteristic (ROC) analysis showed that neither the serum LH concentration on D3 nor on D10 was able to discriminate between conception and nonconception cycles (area under the curve [AUC](ROC)= 0.54, AUC(ROC)= 0.56), or between delivered pregnancies and first trimester pregnancy loss (AUC(ROC)= 0.53, AUC(ROC) = 0.61).",
"yes. The distribution of LH in serum of men on haemodialysis is more basic than in normal men. The greater the proportion of more acidic LH species, particularly those with a pI of between 5.50-6.25, the higher the ratio of LH bioactivity to immunoactivity and consequently testosterone levels.",
"The gonadotropins are secreted from the human pituitary as spectra of isoforms with different degrees of sulfonation and sialylation of the oligosaccharides, modifications suspected to determine their half-lives in the circulation. Our objectives were to determine the isoform composition of the serum gonadotropins during GnRH receptor blockade, and to estimate the half-lives in circulation of isoforms with 0-1-2-3 sulfonated N-acetylgalactosamine (SO(3)-GalNAc) residues. Serum samples were collected in seven healthy women before and up to 20 h after administration of the NAL-GLU GnRH antagonist. The number of sialic acid and SO(3)-GalNAc residues per LH and FSH molecule and the distribution of molecules with 0-1-2-3 sulfonated residues were measured. The half-lives were estimated by monoexponential decay. More sialylated and less sulfonated gonadotropin isoforms remain longer in circulation during GnRH receptor blockade. LH isoforms with two and three sulfonated residues per molecule had shorter half-lives compared with those with zero and one (109 and 80 vs. 196 and 188 min; P < 0.01). FSH isoforms with one and two sulfonated residues had shorter half-lives than those with zero (485 and 358 vs. 988 min; P < 0.01).",
"yes. Because the results of the Elegance ELISA and the bioassay correlate well, even though there is greater bioactivity at higher hormone concentrations, it is evident that an appropriate immunoassay is able to act as a reliable indicator for clinical assessment. In those rare cases where bio-inactive GH exists, our bioassay should provide an appropriate means to demonstrate this.",
"yes. Fucosylated glycans are expressed on AR human sperm. Fluorescence-labeled fucolectins markedly improved the signal:noise ratio in the detection of acrosomal loss of human sperm when compared with FITC-PSA or FITC-PNA. Fluorescence-labeled fucolectins can be used as specific markers for flow cytometric quantitation of unfixed AR sperm in suspension.",
"yes. Serum FSH and INHB levels is ineffective to distinguish the spermatogenic classifications from azoospermic men, but they are available to confirm the disease of Sertoli cell only. The other abnormalities of azoospermic men is also dependent on bioptic histopathology to confirm the subtypes.",
"Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency's (MHRA's) Medical Device Alert MDA/2004/048 described bias in some endocrine test results obtained on a few immunoassay platforms, particularly the Bayer Advia Centaur instrument, when using blood specimens collected into Becton Dickinson (BD) Vacutainer SSTII Advance tubes. As users of BD tubes and the Advia Centaur instrument, we addressed our concerns about the quality of the results that we had previously reported by undertaking an independent study. We compared the results of 15 immunoassays performed on Bayer Advia Centaur using blood specimens collected into four different BD Vacutainer tubes (plain, old and newly released BD SSTII Advance, and BD PSTII). Compared with plain tubes, old SSTII Advance tube results showed no bias for testosterone, CA15-3, follicle-stimulating hormone and folate assays, but gave a positive bias for cortisol and a negative bias for vitamin-B12. Compared with plain tubes, BD PSTII tubes gave no significant bias for thyroid function tests, prolactin, parathyroid hormone, and CA125, but gave a negative bias for steroid assays, and a positive bias for gonadotrophins. The results obtained using new BD SSTII Advance tubes were generally comparable with those on plain tubes.",
"yes. Serum AMH levels were more robustly correlated with the number of early antral follicles than inhibin B, E(2), FSH and LH on cycle day 3. This suggests that AMH may reflect ovarian follicular status better than the usual hormone markers.",
"Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a heterodimeric glycoprotein hormone that exists in multiple forms. Immunoassays commonly used in clinical laboratories measure intact hCG, total beta hCG (intact hCG + hCG free beta-subunit), and/or hCG free beta-subunit. Measurement of serum concentrations of hCG is useful for confirmation and monitoring of pregnancy, diagnosis of trophoblastic diseases and monitoring of the efficacy of treatment, and prenatal screening. Correctly reporting results for the various forms of hCG is clinically important. We prepared samples by addition of intact hCG and hCG free beta-subunit to an essentially hCG-free human serum matrix. The samples were analyzed by participant laboratories using various immunoassay methods. We identified errors in participant reporting of intact hCG results as total beta hCG (9.3%; 22 of 235 laboratories) and total beta hCG as intact hCG (13.1%; 8 of 61 laboratories).",
"Significant progress has been made in recent years in the understanding of the mechanisms postulated by the gonadotropin theory of ovarian carcinogenesis. In the present study we compare FSH concentrations between serum and fluid from cysts or the rectouterine pouch of patients with epithelial tumors and non-neoplastic lesions. We enrolled 277 patients. They were divided into five groups: I (n = 44)--ovarian cancer patients, II (n = 16)--borderline tumors, III (n = 40)--benign epithelial cystadenomas, IV (n = 137)--non-neoplastic lesions and V (n = 22)--admitted for \"second-look\" laparoscopy. There were any significant differences between FSH concentrations in serum and tumor fluid in patients with ovarian cancer (36.46 vs 28.11 mIU/ml) and borderline epithelial tumors (31.5 vs 22.7 mIU/ml). For benign cystadenomas the respective concentrations were 28.96 mIU/ml in serum and 6.93 mIU/ml in tumor fluid in these groups p < 0.0000001. The same highly significant differences were found in non-neoplastic lesions (24.97 vs 4.77 mIU/ml), p < 0.0000001. Patients who underwent \"second-look\" laparoscopy demonstrated significant differences (p < 0.05) as FSH concentration in serum and peritoneal fluid when neoplastic cells were not disclosed, but the difference was not significant (p = 0.752) when fluid from the rectouterine pouch was positive for carcinoma cells.",
"yes. Compared with a recently published combination of an anti-F1 CA enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and immunoblot, the new assay showed the same sensitivity as the ELISA and almost the same specificity (99.0 versus 100%) as the immunoblot. Allowing a rapid, reliable, and quantitative analysis, immunomagnetic separation combined with flow cytometry might replace both conventional immunoassays.",
"To detect the anti-follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) antibody in idiopathic infertile patients and fertile subjects in order to determine the role of this antibody in patients with spermatogenic dysfunction. The anti-FSH antibody in serum was detected by an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The functional and structural integrity of the sperm membrane was evaluated with hypo-osmotic swelling (HOS) test and the ultrastructure of the spermatozoa was investigated by transmission electron microscopy (TEM). The extent of positive FSH antibody in the patients with oligozoospermia and/or asthenozoospermia was significantly higher than that in the fertile subjects and infertile patients with normal sperm concentration and motility, but it was significantly lower than that in the patients with azoospermia. The extent of anti-FSH antibody in the patients with azoospermia was significantly greater than that in patients with oligospermia and/or asthenospermia, infertile people with normal sperm density and motility and fertile people. The hypo-osmotic swelling test showed that the percentage of HOS-positive spermatozoa (swollen) was 45.1 mu 3.5% in the FSH antibody-positive group and 59.1% micro 6.2% in the FSH antibody-negative control group. The percentage of functional membrane damage to spermatozoa was significantly higher in the anti-FSH antibody-positive group than in the control group. TEM showed that the outer acrosomal membrane was located far from the nucleus, and detachment of the acrosome was found in the FSH autoantibody-positive group.",
"Clinicians should be aware that the use of monoclonal LH assays will result in significantly lower measured LH levels and LH/FSH ratios in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome than previously used polyclonal assays. Account should be taken of the assay type used, when using endocrinological parameters in the diagnosis of polycystic ovarian syndrome, or the identification of women who have LH hypersecretion.",
"yes. These data suggest that the presence of anti-FSH antibody is strongly correlated with the sperm quantity and quality in idiopathic male infertility. Anti-FSH antibody may be an important factor causing spermatogenic dysfunction and infertility.",
"yes. FNAC was discordant with histopathological examination (HPE) in four out of five patients of negative surgical exploration with raised FSH. Therefore, among men with idiopathic azoospermia, only those with both normal FSH and normal FNAC should be diagnosed as obstructive azoospermia and explored.",
"yes. The decline in LH and FSH during GnRH receptor blockade is associated with a decrease in sulfonated and increase in sialylated residues. The rapid disappearance of LH isoforms with two and three SO(3)-GalNAc residues suggests their removal by hepatic SO(3)-GalNAc-receptors similar to those in rodents. Episodical secretion of spectra of isoforms with different half-lives is expected to lead to continuous changes in gonadotropin isoform compositions in blood.",
"To determine whether using newer monoclonal rather than polyclonal assays for measuring luteinising hormone (LH) alters the predictive value of LH and LH/follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) ratios for polycystic ovarian syndrome. Prospective cohort study. Fertility and Reproductive Endocrinology Clinic within a New Zealand Teaching hospital. Seventy-eight women presenting with oligomenorrhoea or hirsutism and polycystic ovaries on pelvic ultrasound and 59 volunteer controls with ultrasonically normal ovaries and a regular menstrual cycle. Serum LH concentrations were measured using a polyclonal radio-immunoassay (Amerlex-M, Johnson&Johnson) and two monoclonal immunometric assays (Immulite, DPC; Cobas Core, Hoffman La Roche). The proportion of women with an elevated serum LH concentration in each group was calculated using both current local laboratory reference intervals and a new reference range derived from our control group. The LH/FSH ratios for women in both groups were also calculated using the three different LH assays. LH concentrations and LH:FSH ratios measured using polyclonal and monoclonal immunoassays. Using the local laboratory normal range, a significantly higher proportion of women had an elevated LH when measured with a polyclonal assay (23.1%) than when measured with a monoclonal assay (12.8% Core, 6.4% Immulite) (P<0.05). LH/FSH ratios were significantly lower when monoclonal assay was used and receiver-operator characteristic curves suggest that LH/FSH ratios of 1 or lower provide the most reliable separation of women with polycystic ovarian syndrome from controls when these assays are used.",
"To assess the glycoform distribution patterns of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) during the menstrual cycle at different ages and FSH levels, after menopause, and with premature ovarian failure (POF). Controlled clinical study. Healthy volunteers in an academic research environment. Women aged 20 to 25 years with normal early follicular (EF) serum FSH (<10 IU/L), women aged 40 to 45 years with normal or increased EF serum FSH, postmenopausal women, and women with POF. None. FSH and LH glycoform distributions as assessed by chromatofocusing. In both postmenopausal and in women with POF, more acidic FSH glycoforms were found compared with young cyclic premenopausal women. In women aged 40 to 45 years with normal FSH levels, these acidic glycoform profiles already showed a statistically significant difference from the younger women. This difference was to attributable to the early follicular and luteal cycle phases. Overall, during aging and after ovarian failure, FSH becomes more acidic, a difference that is already statistically significantly detectable in premenopausal, older women before FSH rises. This is not seen for LH glycoforms.",
"Between the assay methods investigated in this study, few differences exist in the recognition of individual pI bands of FSH when expressed relative to a common unfractionated standard. Differences were apparent in the recognition of the different acidity glycoforms within each assay method, however, these were small and unlikely to be of clinical significance.",
"The possibility of the carbohydrate residues of glycoproteins affecting their recognition in immunoassays is an important and unresolved issue. This study looked for evidence of differential recognition of FSH glycoform preparations, of variable isoelectric point (pI) and known molarity, using three routine assays employing different antibody configurations. Seven glycoform preparations with differing pI bands (between 3.8 and 5.5) were produced by isoelectric focusing of recombinant human FSH and the molecular weights determined by mass spectroscopy. Three concentrations of each glycoform were assayed and the results expressed relative to unfractionated material. From the relative responses, recognition differences between the assay methods and between the glycoform preparations were investigated. Three routine assays were employed: the commercially available Amerlite(R) enzyme immunoassay and Delfia(R) immunofluorometric assay, together with an in-house competitive two-site radioimmunoassay (RIA). Overall, the three assays gave the same relative responses for equivalent glycoforms, with the only exceptions involving small differences between some assay pairs for the fractions at the extremes of the pI range investigated. Within each assay type, differences (P<0.05) of up to 33% existed between glycoforms of different pI, however, these differences showed no patterns or trends across the entire acidity range examined."
] | 225 |
Is high peritoneal transport rate an independent risk factor for CAPD mortality? | [
"Is high peritoneal transport rate an independent risk factor for CAPD mortality? Patients with high peritoneal transport display the lowest serum albumin (SAlb) and the highest peritoneal protein loss. An association between high peritoneal membrane permeability and diabetes mellitus (DM) has been suggested. As malnutrition, hypoalbuminemia, and DM cause high mortality, it is probable that a high peritoneal transport rate is associated with high mortality on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The aim of the study was to identify whether a high peritoneal transport rate is an independent risk factor for mortality on CAPD. We included 167 patients with a peritoneal equilibration test that was performed between January 1994 and July 1997. The endpoint was the patient's status (alive, dead, or lost) in December 1997. Survival analysis was done by the Kaplan-Meier method and multivariate Cox proportional-hazard model. DM was significantly more frequent in the high (H) peritoneal transport type (20 out of 33) and was less frequent in the low (L) transport group (3 out of 18). SAlb (g/dL) was significantly lower as the peritoneal transport type was higher [H 2.7 +/- 0.5, high average (HA) 2.9 +/- 0.7, low average (LA) 3.2 +/- 0.6, and L 3.6 +/- 0.5]. Serum creatinine (SCr) was significantly higher in the L transport type (12.0 +/- 4.3 mg/dL) than in the other transport groups (H 8.7 +/- 3.1, HA 8.6 +/- 3.7, and LA 9.6 +/- 4.5). No other differences were found between peritoneal transport types. In the univariate analysis, high peritoneal transport rate, DM, low SCr, low SAlb, and older age significantly predicted mortality. However, in the multivariate analysis (chi2 = 40.55, P<0.0001), only DM (b = 1.34, P = 0.0001), low SCr (b = -0.11, P = 0.02), and high peritoneal transport rate (b = 2.6, P = 0.06) were shown as mortality risk factors.",
"DM was the most important risk factor for mortality on CAPD. A high peritoneal transport rate also predicted mortality, yet its role seems to be related to the presence of DM. The role of higher SCr predicting a better survival might have been associated with a better nutritional status. Hypoalbuminemia, previously shown as risk factor for mortality, did not play an important role in this study, probably because of its collinearity with DM."
] | [
"Increasing numbers of elderly patients face decisions about the management of end-stage kidney disease. Improved understanding of contemporary patient and practice factors influencing prognosis may assist decision making for individual patients and their care providers. This is a prospective registry study using multivariable proportional hazards models. A total of 1781 patients aged ≥ 75 years at dialysis initiation recorded in ANZDATA, the Australia and New Zealand renal replacement registry, between January 2002 and December 2005. The patient characteristics were demographic and comorbid conditions. The practice characteristics were late referral, access at dialysis initiation and intended dialysis modality (modality established by 90 days). The study outcome was mortality censored at 31 December 2007 or at recovery of renal function (of at least 30 days), transplantation or loss to follow-up. Median follow-up was 2.3 years (interquartile range 1.1-3.3 years) during which time, 65% of the patients died. Baseline factors independently associated with mortality were older age [hazard ratio (HR) 1.24 for 5-year increase, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.13-1.36], body mass index <18.5 (HR 1.78, 95% CI 1.33-2.38), number of comorbidities (one comorbidity HR 1.38, 95% CI 1.13-1.69; two comorbidities HR 1.55, 95% CI 1.27-1.89; three or more comorbidities HR 1.89, 95% CI 1.55-2.31), late referral (HR 1.19, 95% CI 1.02-1.39), peritoneal dialysis as intended modality (HR 1.26, 95% CI 1.08-1.47) and unprepared access (HR 1.43, 95% CI 1.23-1.67). The limitations of the study were the observational nature of the analysis, potential selection bias introduced through analysis of a group who actually commenced dialysis and the potential confounding from unmeasured factors or dichotomous reporting of comorbidities.",
"yes. Hypomagnesemia was common among peritoneal dialysis patients and was independently associated with all-cause mortality and cardiovascular mortality.",
"yes. These data suggest that transmigration of blood leukocytes into the peritoneal cavity during uncomplicated dialysis and in peritonitis is related to selective upregulation of ICAM-1 (CD54) and Mac-1 (CD18/CD11b) receptors.",
"Encapsulating peritoneal sclerosis (EPS) is a serious complication in patients undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) or automated peritoneal dialysis (APD). The aim of this study was to find a predictor for EPS. Patients with EPS who were detected by a historical cohort study using clinical data of 219 CAPD patients at our hospital. We recruited 25 patients with EPS who were compared with the patients without EPS who were matched for age and dialysis period as controls. Differences between the two groups (non-EPS group and EPS group) with respect to age, gender, primary disease, dialysis period, serum urea nitrogen, serum creatinine, beta2MG, CRP and PET (peritoneal equilibration test) category (determined by the peritoneal function testing) were analyzed. According to multiple regression analysis, a high beta2MG level was an independent risk factor for EPS (odds ratio 1.162, 95% confidence interval 1.026 - 1.317, p = 0.018). Other clinical markers did not show positive significance. A ROC (receiver operating characteristic) curve was prepared to evaluate the suitability of I(2)2MG measurement as a screening test. The sensitivity was 64% and the specificity was 80% when a beta2MG level of 37.0 mg/dl was taken as the cut-off value. The odds ratio for occurrence of EPS was 8.8 when beta2MG level was in the range of 35 - 40 mg/dl, 13.5 when I(2)2MG level was > 40 mg/dl and 1 when beta2MG level was < 30 mg/dl.",
"yes. The indomethacin induced inhibition of the synthesis of 6-keto-PGF1alpha and TxB2 did not lead to alterations in functional parameters of the peritoneal surface area, the intrinsic permeability to macromolecules and fluid kinetics. Therefore, these prostaglandins are not likely to be involved in the regulation of peritoneal transport during stable CAPD.",
"Patients with high peritoneal permeability have the greatest degree of inflammation on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD), which may be associated with their higher mortality. Nocturnal intermittent peritoneal dialysis (NIPD; \"dry day\") may decrease inflammation by reducing the contact between dialysate and peritoneum and/or providing better fluid overload control. Therefore, the aims of this study were to determine and compare serum and dialysate concentrations of C-reactive protein (CRP), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) of patients with high or high-average peritoneal transport on CAPD, changed to NIPD, and ultimately to continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CCPD). Crossover clinical trial in 11 randomly selected patients. All subjects had been on CAPD and were changed to NIPD, and ultimately to CCPD (6.4 +/- 3.1 months after initiation of study). All patients used glucose-based dialysate. Evaluations of clinical and biochemical parameters, dialysis adequacy, and serum and dialysis inflammation markers were performed at baseline on CAPD, 7 - 14 days after changing to NIPD, 7 - 14 days after switching to CCPD, and after 1 year of follow-up. All patients used only 1.5% glucose dialysate during evaluation days. CRP was determined by nephelometry, and IL-6 and TNF-alpha by ELISA. Seven patients were high transporters and 4 high average. Ultrafiltration increased (p<0.05) when patients changed from CAPD [0.38 L (-0.3 - 1.1 L)] to NIPD [2.64 L (0.7 - 4.7 L)]; it then decreased on CCPD [0.88 L (0.4 - 1.3 L) and at the end of study [0.65 L (0.3 - 1.0 L)]. This better fluid overload control was accompanied by decreased weight and systolic and diastolic blood pressure when patients changed from CAPD (89 +/- 13 kg, 160 +/- 23 and 97 +/-9 mmHg, respectively) to NIPD (86 +/- 17 kg, 145 +/- 14 and 86 +/- 9 mmHg, respectively), and increased weight and systolic and diastolic blood pressure on CCPD (85 +/- 15 kg, 143 +/-23 and 88 +/- 14 mmHg, respectively) and at the end of follow-up (87 +/- 16 kg, 155 +/- 24 and 89 +/- 12 mmHg, respectively). Median serum CRP decreased (p = 0.03), from 3.8 (1.6 - 8.5) mg/L on CAPD to 1.0 (0.4 - 4.4) mg/L on NIPD, but increased on CCPD [1.8 (1.3 - 21) mg/L]and at the end of the study [3.2 (0.3 - 8.2) mg/L]. Dialysate CRP decreased nonsignificantly, from 0.10 (0 - 0.5) mg/L on CAPD to 0 (0 - 0.03) mg/L on NIPD, to 0.01 (0 - 0.08) mg/L on CCPD, and to 0 (0 - 0) mg/L at final evaluation. Serum TNF-alpha concentration decreased, from 0.14 (0.04 - 0.6) pg/mL on CAPD to 0.01 (0 - 0.08) pg/mL on NIPD, and then increased to 0.06 (0 - 0.4) pg/mL on CCPD and to 0.11 (0 - 0.2) pg/mL at the end of the study; whereas dialysate TNF-alpha decreased, from 0.08 (0.03 - 0.2) pg/mL on CAPD to 0.04 (0 - 0.2) pg/mL on NIPD, and to 0 (0 - 0) pg/mL and 0 (0 - 0.05) pg/mL on CCPD and final evaluation respectively. Serum IL-6 decreased (p = 0.07), from 2.5 (2.0 - 4.2) pg/mL on CAPD to 1.0 (0.7 - 2.0) pg/mL on NIPD, and to 1.0 (0.8 - 2.9) pg/mL on CCPD and 1.0 (0.5 - 9.8) pg/mL at the end of the study; whereas dialysate levels remained similar on CAPD [8.0 (3.7 - 13) pg/mL]and NIPD [7.8 (5.1 - 23) pg/mL], and increased on CCPD [11.2 (9.5 - 19) pg/mL]and at final evaluation [11.2 (8.3 - 15) pg/mL].",
"yes. Patients with a current or former history of smoking on peritoneal dialysis are at greatly increased risk of death. A strategy of aggressive smoking cessation efforts should be adopted for these patients at the earliest opportunity.",
"yes. On top of the natural course of peritoneal function, peritonitis episodes to some extent influence the time-course of small-solute and fluid transport-especially the transport of solute-free water. Those modifications increase the risk for overhydration.",
"Peritoneal transport of small solutes generally increases during the first month of peritoneal dialysis (PD). The aim of this study was to prospectively evaluate the ability of the peritoneal equilibration test (PET), carried out 1 and 4 weeks after the commencement of PD, to predict subsequent technique survival. Fifty consecutive patients commencing PD at the Princess Alexandra Hospital between 1 February 2001 and 31 May 2003 participated in the study. Paired 1 week and 1 month PET data were collated and correlated with subsequent technique survival. A significant increase was observed in the dialysate : plasma creatinine ratio at 4 h (D/P Cr) between 1 and 4 weeks after the onset of PD (0.55 +/- 0.12 vs 0.66 +/- 0.11, P <0.001). Mean death-censored technique survival was superior in patients who experienced > or =20% rise in D/P Cr during the first month of PD compared with those who did not (2.3 +/- 0.2 vs 1.6 +/- 0.2 years, P <0.05). Using a multivariate Cox proportional hazards model analysis, the significant independent predictors of death-censored technique survival were an increase in D/P Cr of greater than 20% during the first month (adjusted hazard ratio [HR] 0.20, 95% CI 0.05-0.75), the absence of diabetes mellitus, the absence of ischaemic heart disease, body mass index and baseline peritoneal creatinine clearance.",
"yes. Lp(a) is an independent risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular death in Japanese patients receiving chronic dialysis therapy.",
"In this retrospective study, older patients on PD had higher operative mortality than HD patients. These findings suggest extra care should be taken when CABG is considered for PD patients over 70 years old. In this study we could not identify the reason(s) for the high mortality of elderly peritoneal dialysis patients undergoing CABG.",
"The aim of the present investigation was to examine the association between body mass index (BMI) and peritonitis rates among incident peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients in a large cohort with long-term follow-up. Retrospective observational cohort study of the Australian and New Zealand PD patient population. Australia and New Zealand Dialysis and Transplant (ANZDATA) Registry. The study included all incident adult patients (n = 10 709) who received PD in Australia and New Zealand in the 12-year period between 1 April 1991 and 31 March 2003. Patients were classified as obese (BMI > or = 30 kg/m2), overweight (BMI 25.0 - 29.9 kg/m2), normal weight (20 - 24.9 kg/m2), or underweight (< 20 kg/m2). Time to first peritonitis and episodes of peritonitis per patient-year were recorded over the 12-year period. Higher BMI was associated with a shorter time to first peritonitis episode, independent of other risk factors [hazard ratio 1.08 for each 5-kg/m2 increase in BMI, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.04 - 1.12, p < 0.001]. When peritonitis outcomes were analyzed as episodes of peritonitis per patient-year, these rates were significantly higher among patients with higher BMI: underweight 0.69 episodes/year (95% CI 0.66 - 0.73), normal weight 0.79 (95% CI 0.77 - 0.81), overweight 0.88 (95% CI 0.85 - 0.90), obese 1.06 (95% CI 1.02 - 1.09). Coronary artery disease and chronic lung disease were associated with both shorter time to first peritonitis and higher peritonitis rates, independently of these other factors. There was also a \"vintage effect,\" with lower peritonitis rates seen among people who commenced dialysis in more recent years.",
"no. Baseline peritoneal albumin and protein clearances are associated with signs of comorbidity, but this does not have a measurable effect on patient survival.",
"there are gaps in the knowledge of factors which influence peritoneal potassium transport in Peritoneal Dialysis (PD). The aims of this study were to compare peritoneal potassium transport in PD patients undergoing 2.27% and 3.86% peritoneal equilibration tests (PET), and to disclose clinical correlates of this phenomenon. ninety PD patients underwent 2.27% and 3.86% PET, in a random order. We compared peritoneal potassium transport in both tests, and searched for correlations between D/P potassium at 240 minutes (main study variable) and PET-derived markers of peritoneal function and selected demographic, clinical and biochemical variables, using a multivariate approach. D/P potassium showed a good agreement between both PET, and presented a univariate association with creatinine transport, but not with plasma potassium, ultrafiltration or sodium dip. Age, PD modality, peritoneal glucose load, icodextrin, ACEI-ARA and calcium antagonist therapy, urinary potassium and glomerular filtration rate were other univariate correlates of potassium transport. Multivariate analysis confirmed D/P creatinine at 240 minutes (B=0.40 [95% CI 0.26-0.53] 2.27%, B=0.36 [0.21-0.51] 3.86%, p < 0.0005) as the main predictor of D/P potassium at 240 minutes. Urinary potassium, rather than glomerular filtration rate, sustained also an inverse correlation with the dependent variable. Treatment with ACEI-ARA was consistently associated with peritoneal potassium transport (3.86% PET B=0.08 [0.04-0.12], p < 0.0005).",
"no. The survival disadvantage associated with high peritoneal membrane transport status during PD treatment does not persist following transfer to HD. Early transfer to HD may be beneficial in this patient group.",
"Higher than normal body mass index (BMI) is associated with an increased risk of death in the general population. We examined the effect of higher than normal BMI on patient and technique survival in peritoneal dialysis patients (PD), controlling for comorbidity, initial albumin, dialysate-to-plasma ratio of creatinine (D/P(Cr)), and initial urea clearance (Kt/V). Registry database. Four dialysis centers. Incident PD patients. All data were collected prospectively. Demographics, BMI, serum albumin, D/P(Cr), and comorbidity using the Charlson Comorbidity Index (CCI) were determined at the start of PD. 104 patients with a high BMI (> 27) were matched to a control group of 104 patients with normal BMI (20-27) for age, gender, presence of diabetes, and CCI. Patient and technique survival were compared using Cox proportional hazards model. Patient and technique survival. The groups were of similar age (56.1 vs 56.7 years), sex (60% males in both groups), race (Caucasian 80% vs 86%), presence of diabetes (40% vs 37%), CCI score (5.4 in both groups), initial albumin (3.6 vs 3.5 g/dL), and D/P(Cr) (0.65 in both groups). Kaplan-Meier survival analysis showed similar 2-year patient survival between large BMI (> 27) and control (20-27) groups (76.6% vs 76.1%). Two-year technique survival was also similar between the two groups (59.7% vs 66.8%). With Cox proportional hazards analysis, BMI was not a predictor of patient mortality or technique survival when controlling for initial albumin, D/P(Cr), and initial Kt/V.",
"no. These findings suggest that overweight/obesity and a positive body weight variation during the first year of peritoneal dialysis therapy do not increase mortality in incident dialysis patients in Brazil.",
"It is controversial whether comorbid status or systemic inflammation has an influence on the peritoneal solute transport rate (PSTR). Our aim is to elucidate whether baseline PSTR is associated with markers of systemic inflammation or degree of comorbidity in incident peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. One hundred and ninety-five incident PD patients were prospectively included. Results of their baseline peritoneal equilibration test (PET) using 3.86% glucose PD fluid were analysed. Clinical and laboratory parameters of inflammation, comorbidity, nutritional status, dialysis adequacy and residual renal function (RRF) were assessed at the time of PET. Mean dialysate-to-plasma ratio for creatinine at 4 h (D/Pcr(4)) of our patients was 0.72 +/- 0.11. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hsCRP), serum interleukin-6 (IL-6) and serum albumin concentrations were closely interrelated to one another and these markers of systemic inflammation were also related to the Davies comorbidity score. No differences in age, sex ratio, body mass index, body surface area and presence of diabetes were found among four transport groups. RRF, total Kt/V, haemoglobin, nitrogen appearance and the Davies comorbidity score were not different either. High-sensitivity CRP, serum IL-6 and albumin concentrations were not associated with the baseline PSTR. By multiple linear regression analysis, only the serum albumin concentration measured at the time of PET (beta = -0.081 +/- 0.020, P < 0.001) remained significantly associated with D/Pcr(4).",
"An elevated level of serum C-reactive protein (CRP) is widely considered an indicator of an underlying inflammatory disease and a long-term prognostic predictor for dialysis patients. This cross-sectional cohort study was designed to assess the correlation between the level of high-sensitivity CRP (HS-CRP) and the outcome of peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. A total of 402 patients were stratified into 3 tertiles (lower, middle, upper) according to serum HS-CRP level and and followed up from October 2009 to September 2011. During follow-up, cardiovascular events, infection episodes, technique failure, and mortality rate were recorded. During the 24-month follow-up, 119 of 402 patients (29.6%) dropped out from PD, including 28 patients (7.0%) who died, 81 patients (20.1%) who switched to hemodialysis, and 10 patients (2.5%) who underwent kidney transplantation. The results of Kaplan-Meier analysis and log-rank test demonstrated a significant difference in the cumulative patient survival rate across the 3 tertiles (the lowest rate in upper tertile). On multivariate Cox regression analysis, only higher HS-CRP level, older age, the presence of diabetes mellitus (DM), lower serum albumin level, and the occurrence of cardiovascular events during follow-up were identified as independent predictors of mortality. Every 1 mg/L increase in HS-CRP level was independently predictive of a 1.4% increase in mortality. Multivariate Cox regression analysis also showed that higher HS-CRP level, the presence of DM, lower hemoglobin level, lower serum albumin level, higher dialysate/plasma creatinine ratio, and the occurrence of infective episodes and cardiovascular events during follow-up were independent predictors of technique failure.",
"yes. The findings of (i) increased plasma and dialysate levels of IL-6 and VEGF in the H/A group compared to the L/A group, (ii) an association between PSTR and both plasma and dialysate IL-6 and VEGF levels, and (iii) a significant correlation between dialysate IL-6 and VEGF concentrations suggest that inflammation, angiogenesis, and peritoneal transport may be interrelated and involved in the pathophysiology of high PSTR in CAPD patients. However, due to the cross-sectional design of this study, the cause and effect relationships between plasma and dialysate IL-6 and VEGF concentrations and high PSRT remain unclear.",
"High peritoneal transport status in end-stage renal disease patients receiving peritoneal dialysis was shown to be associated with increased morbidity and mortality. Although the pathogenesis of increased peritoneal transport is still not clear, previous studies have demonstrated that phospholipids (PLs) are present on the peritoneal mesothelium and when added to dialysate can decrease the peritoneal fluid absorption rate and increase peritoneal fluid removal. In the present report, we explored the relationship between peritoneal transport and dialysate loss of endogenous PLs. We evaluated 48 prevalent continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis patients with high or low peritoneal transport in a cross-sectional study. The 4-hour dwell dialysate PL profile was analyzed by high-performance liquid chromatography coupled with electrospray ionization ion trap mass spectrometry. The patients' peritoneal small solute transport rate was assessed by D/P(Cr) at 4 h and their fluid transport by kinetic modeling. While there were no significant differences between the 2 groups in age, sex, diabetic status and time on dialysis, high transporters had a significantly higher D/P(Cr) and peritoneal fluid absorption rate (K(e)) than low transporters. The PLs in dialysate effluents mainly consisted of PLs containing unsaturated fatty acid, and the concentrations, as well as the amount, of PLs were significantly elevated in the dialysate of high transporters as compared to low transporters.",
"Visceral fat has a crucial role in the development and progression of cardiovascular disease, the major cause of death in end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Although sagittal abdominal diameter (SAD), as an index of visceral fat, significantly correlated with mortality in the general population, the impact of SAD on clinical outcomes has never been explored in ESRD patients. Therefore, we sought to elucidate the prognostic value of SAD in incident peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. We prospectively determined SAD by lateral abdominal X-ray at PD initiation, and evaluated the association of SAD with all-cause and cardiovascular mortality in 418 incident PD patients. The mean SAD was 24.5 ± 4.3 cm, and during a mean follow-up of 39.4 months, 97 patients (23.2%) died, and 49.4% of them died due to cardiovascular disease. SAD was a significant independent predictor of all-cause [3rd versus 1st tertile, HR (hazard ratio): 3.333, 95% CI (confidence interval): 1.514-7.388, P = 0.01; per 1 cm increase, HR: 1.071, 95% CI: 1.005-1.141, P = 0.03] and cardiovascular mortality (3rd versus 1st tertile, HR: 8.021, 95% CI: 1.994-32.273, P = 0.01; per 1 cm increase, HR: 1.106, 95% CI: 1.007-1.214, P = 0.03). Multivariate fractional polynomial analysis also showed that all-cause and cardiovascular mortality risk increased steadily with higher SAD values. In addition, SAD provided higher predictive value for all-cause (AUC: 0.691 vs. 0.547, P<0.001) and cardiovascular mortality (AUC: 0.644 vs. 0.483, P<0.001) than body mass index (BMI). Subgroup analysis revealed higher SAD (≥ 24.2 cm) was significantly associated with all-cause mortality in men, women, younger patients (<65 years), and patients with lower BMI (<22.3 kg/m(2)).",
"yes. PAD is very common in aged peritoneal dialysis patients and independently associated with both cardiovascular and overall mortality.",
"yes. Our results showed that dialysate from high transporters exhibited elevated levels of PLs, especially PLs containing unsaturated fatty acid, suggesting a possible loss of peritoneal surface-active PLs in peritoneal dialysis, and this loss may contribute to the alteration in peritoneal transport.",
"yes. Chronic peritoneal dialysis patients have impaired endothelium-dependent vasodilatation, which may reflect an increased susceptibility for the development of atherosclerosis and thrombosis.",
"Several recent studies reported that a high baseline serum C-reactive protein (CRP) is a powerful predictor of mortality in dialysis patients. However, the acute-phase response is intermittent and not a continuous feature in an individual patient. The aim of this prospective study was to determine whether serial analysis of serum CRP during follow-up allows better prediction of mortality and echocardiographic cardiac disease than a single baseline measurement in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. 97 PD patients were monitored for 3 years from the beginning of the treatment. We evaluated the effect of demographic features, comorbidity, blood pressure, blood biochemistry, including CRP, residual renal function, and indices of dialysis adequacy, on mortality and left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH). Cox regression analysis using both the baseline and the averaged values of the study parameters was carried out to determine factors predicting mortality. Logistic regression analysis was performed to determine which factors were independently predictive for LVH and the type of time course of serum CRP. Baseline serum CRP was elevated in 29 patients (29.9%). While serum CRP exhibited a stable course (normal or high) in 55 patients (56.7%), it varied considerably over time in 42 patients (43.2%). In the Cox models, both the averaged serum CRP and the type of variability of CRP were predictors of mortality. On the contrary, baseline CRP did not affect adjusted survival. The averaged CRP was also an independent factor affecting LVH, but baseline CRP was not. Age, comorbidityindex, instilled dialysate glucose concentration, and Kt/V urea were independently associated with the type of time course of serum CRP.",
"yes. High peritoneal transport status and peritoneal albumin leakage are significantly associated with the malnutrition inflammation score.",
"Microalbuminuria is a marker of systemic endothelial dysfunction. We hypothesize that peritoneal albumin excretion in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients, which is conceptually analogous to microalbuminuria in non-uremic patients, can predict cardiovascular disease in new PD patients. We studied peritoneal albumin excretion in 43 new PD patients. They were then followed prospectively for the development of cardiovascular events. All-cause mortality and duration of hospitalization for cardiovascular diseases were also recorded. The average duration of follow-up was 26.5 +/- 17.6 months. During the follow-up period, 15 patients developed cardiovascular events. Event-free survival at 36 months was 81.4% and 53.6% for low (< 300 mg/L) and high (> 300 mg/L) peritoneal albumin excretion groups respectively (log rank test, p = 0.042). By Cox regression analysis, the only independent factors for event-free survival were diabetic status and peritoneal albumin excretion rate. For every 100 mg/L increase in peritoneal albumin excretion, the adjusted hazard ratio of developing a cardiovascular event was 1.83 [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.11 - 3.02, p = 0.018]. Actuarial patient survival at 36 months was 85.7% and 59.1% for low and high peritoneal albumin excretion groups respectively (log rank test, p = 0.10). After adjusting for the duration of follow-up for individual patients, the average duration of hospitalization was 9.1 +/- 16.2 and 21.7 +/- 25.7 days per year of follow-up for low and high peritoneal albumin excretion groups respectively (Mann-Whitney U test, p = 0.012).",
"Residual renal function (RRF) at the initiation of peritoneal dialysis (PD) therapy can predict patient outcome. However, RRF declines with time at variable rates in different patients. This study was performed to compare the impact of baseline RRF and the rate of RRF decline on patient survival and on death-censored technique survival after initiation of long-term PD. We enrolled 270 patients with sufficient urine amount (daily urine volume >100 mL) from a medical centre in North Taiwan who began PD between January 1996 and December 2005 and followed them until December 2007. The study population was stratified by the decline rate of RRF into a fast, intermediate and slow decline group. The Kaplan-Meier survival analysis was used to determine patient survival and technique survival. The Cox regression model was used to identify factors associated with patient outcome. The proportional odds polychotomous logistic regression model was used to identify variables associated with rapid decline of RRF. During an average follow-up period of 45 months, 50 (18.5%) deaths, 67 (24.8%) death-censored technique failures (transfer to haemodialysis) and 43 (15.9%) renal transplantations occurred. The median rate of RRF decline was 0.885 mL/min/1.73 m(2) per year. Survival analysis showed that patients with fast RRF decline had worse survival and increased risk of technique failure. The multivariate Cox regression model confirmed that the rate of RRF decline was an independent factor associated with patient and technique survival and was a more powerful prognostic factor than basal RRF. Variables associated with a rapid decline of RRF were larger body mass index, presence of diabetes, prior history of congestive heart failure, use of diuretics, peritonitis episodes and hypotensive events.",
"yes. Indexing comorbidity when patients begin chronic dialysis therapy and recording the evolution of index scores yields a predictor of mortality risk that is independent of other case-mix factors.",
"Maintenance dialysis therapy is the only way to remove excess fluid in patients with anuric end-stage renal disease. The optimal ultrafiltration (UF) volume in patients on peritoneal dialysis (PD) remains controversial. We retrospectively analysed a cohort of 86 prevalent anuric PD patients followed up for a median of 25.3 months (range, 6 to 54 months). Clinical and PD parameters were recorded yearly. Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards models were used to identify risk factors of mortality and technique failure in patients with a UF >/=1 L/24 h or <1 L/24 h. When compared to those with a UF <1 L/24 h, patients with a UF >/=1 L/24 h had significantly higher haemoglobin levels (101.9 +/- 20.5 vs 89.3 +/- 20.2 g/L, P < 0.05) and tended to be younger (55.0 +/- 12.5 vs 60.6 +/- 16.1 years, P = 0.10). Also, while Kt/V and CCr were stable over time, UF decreased significantly over the study period (baseline, 1205.5 +/- 327.3 ml/24 h vs after 3 years, 870.6 +/- 439.8 ml/24 h; P < 0.001). Using Kaplan-Meier analysis, patients with baseline UF <1 L/24 h had significantly worse outcome (survival, 27.2 +/- 3.9 vs 42.4 +/- 1.9 months; P < 0.001). In multivariate Cox regression analysis, age, time-dependent UF volume and serum albumin were independent predictors of mortality, while UF independently predicted technique failure.",
"To evaluate specified biomedical, socio-economic, and psychosocial criteria as predictors of therapeutic success to optimize patient selection for continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) in a developing country. A retrospective cohort study investigating the relationship between episodes of peritonitis and exitsite infection, and predetermined biomedical, socioeconomic, and psychosocial data. A CAPD unit in a large tertiary care teaching hospital. All 132 patients entering the CAPD program between 1987 and 1991. Overall mean survival time on CAPD was 17.3 months. Peritonitis rates were high, especially among blacks. Multivariate analysis demonstrated that increased peritonitis rates were associated with age, black race, diabetes, and strongly so with several psychosocial factors. Because being black was strongly linked to poor socioeconomic conditions, repeat analysis excluding blacks showed the same associations with the above variables, but, additionally, several socioeconomic factors were associated with high peritonitis rates. No significant explanatory variables were shown for exit-site infections.",
"The two main renal replacement therapies (RRT)--hemodialysis (HD) and peritoneal dialysis (PD)--have been considered to be antagonistic in most published studies on the clinical outcomes of dialysis patients. Recently, it has been suggested that the complementary use of both modalities as an integrated care (IC) strategy might improve the survival rate of end-stage renal disease patients. The aim of this study was to estimate the final clinical outcome of PD patients when they transfer to HD because of complications related to PD. We retrospectively analyzed data from the following patients that started RRT during the last 10 years: 33 PD patients (IC group; age 55 +/- 15 years, mean +/- SD) who transferred to HD, 134 PD patients (PD group, age 64 +/- 11 years) who remained in PD, and 132 HD patients (HD group, age 48 +/- 16 years) who started and continued in HD. The main reasons for the transfer to HD were relapsed peritonitis and loss of ultrafiltration, while various comorbid risk factors were adjusted by Cox hazards regression model (age, presence of diabetes or/and cardiovascular disease, serum hemoglobin and albumin levels, as well as the modality per se). 3- and 5-year survival rates for the IC, PD and HD groups were 97% and 81%, 54% and 28%, and 92% and 83%, respectively. The 5-year survival rate was significantly higher in IC patients than in PD patients (p < 0.00001) but, was not different from that in HD patients.",
"yes. Overhydration remains an independent predictor of mortality even after adjustment for heart failure in peritoneal dialysis patients and should therefore be actively sought and managed in order to improve survival in this population.",
"yes. We conclude that PWV, CRP and serum albumin are strong independent predictors of overall and CV mortality in patients undergoing dialysis.",
"yes. These results indicate that increased CA-IMT is an independent predictor of cardiovascular mortality in the hemodialysis population.",
"It has been speculated that increased levels of circulating or intraperitoneal pro-inflammatory cytokines such as interleukin 6, and pro-angiogenic vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may contribute to high peritoneal small-solute transport rate (PSTR) in continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) patients. In this study we evaluated possible relationships between plasma and dialysate IL-6 and VEGF levels and PSTR. Forty CAPD patients (mean age+/-SD of 58+/-14 years) with no apparent inflammation process or disease, who had been on CAPD for 19+/-15 months (range 3-56 months) were included in the study. Peritoneal equilibration test (PET) was used to evaluate PSTR. Patients were divided into two groups: high-average and high transporters (H/A; D/P(creat)>/=0.65) and low-average and low transporters (L/A; D/P(creat)<0.64). Albumin and IgG clearances were used in the evaluation of permeability to larger solutes. Plasma and overnight dialysate levels of IL-6 and VEGF were measured. Plasma IL-6 (7.6 vs 4.3 pg/ml) and VEGF (342 vs 163 pg/ml) as well as dialysate IL-6 (174 vs 80 pg/ml) and VEGF (96 vs 69 pg/ml) levels were significantly higher in the H/A than in the L/A group. The dialysate appearance of IL-6 and VEGF correlated with D/P(creat), as well as with albumin and IgG clearances. Moreover, significant correlations were noted between dialysate IL-6 and dialysate VEGF levels.",
"yes. Insulin resistance measured by HOMA-IR was an independent risk factor for new-onset cardiovascular events in nondiabetic patients undergoing prevalent peritoneal dialysis.",
"♦ This study was carried out to examine whether or not elderly patients on peritoneal dialysis (PD) had an increased risk of peritonitis. ♦ This was a retrospective cohort study based on data from the French Language Peritoneal Dialysis Registry. We analyzed 8,396 incident patients starting PD between January 2003 and December 2010. The end of the observation period was 31 December 2012. Patients were separated into 2 age groups: up to 75 and over of 75 years old. ♦ Among 8,396 patients starting dialysis there were 3,173 patients older than 75. When using a Cox model, no association was found between age greater than 75 years and increased risk of peritonitis (hazard ratio [HR]: 0.97 [0.88 - 1.07]). Diabetes (HR: 1.14 [1.01 - 1.28] and continuous ambulatory PD (HR: 1.13 [1.04 - 1.23]) were significantly associated with a higher risk of peritoneal infection whereas nurse-assisted PD was associated with a lower risk of peritonitis (HR: 0.85 [0.78 - 0.94]. In the analysis restricted to the 3,840 self-care PD patients, there was no association between age older than 75 years and risk of peritonitis. ♦",
"Elevated plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1) levels are associated with increased cardiovascular (CV) risk in the general population. It has been shown that peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients have increased plasma levels of PAI-1. The aim of this study was to investigate whether PAI-1 independently predicted CV outcome in PD patients. Seventy-two PD patients (53% females, mean age 49.9 +/- 16.1 years) were studied. Twelve patients who underwent kidney transplantation and 14 patients who transferred to hemodialysis during follow-up were excluded from the analysis. The remaining 46 patients (54% female, mean age 54 +/- 16 years, dialytic age 42 +/- 30 months) were followed a mean time of 45.4 +/- 19.4 months (range 8-71 months). Baseline PAI-1, clinical, and laboratory parameters were assessed in all patients. Survival analyses were made with Kaplan-Meier and Cox regression analysis, with all-cause mortality and CV mortality and CV events (CVEs) as clinical end points. During the follow-up, 29 patients died (17 from CV causes), and 28 fatal and non-fatal CVEs were recorded. The patients were divided according to plasma PAI-1 levels (i.e., <or= or >41 ng/mL). The significant independent predictors of all-cause of mortality were age (60 years; p = 0.018), CRP (5 mg/L; p = 0.015), and serum albumin (<3.5 g/L; p = 0.011). Multivariable Cox regression analysis showed that plasma PAI-1 41 ng/mL was independently predictive of higher CV mortality (p = 0.021) and CVEs (p = 0.001). The only other independent predictor of CV mortality was only CRP (5 mg/L; p = 0.008).",
"Wide variation in peritoneal residual volume (PRV) is a common clinical observation. High PRV has been used in both continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and automated peritoneal dialysis to minimize the time of a dry peritoneal cavity and to achieve better dialysis. However, the impact of PRV on peritoneal transport is not well established. In this study, we investigated the effect of PRV on peritoneal transport characteristics. Peritoneal effluents were collected in 32 male Sprague-Dawley rats after a five-hour dwell with 1.36% glucose solution. Forty-eight hours later, a four hour dwell using 25 ml of 3.86% glucose solution and frequent dialysate and blood sampling was done in each rat with 125I-albumin as a volume marker. Before the infusion of the 3.86% glucose solution, 0 (control), 3, 6, or 12 ml (8 rats in each group) of autologous effluent (serving as PRV) was infused to the peritoneal cavity. After subtracting the PRV, the net ultrafiltration was significantly lower in the PRV groups as compared with the control group: 13.4 +/- 0.5, 12.0 +/- 1.0, 11.7 +/- 1.7, and 8.9 +/- 0.4 ml for 0, 3, 6, and 12 ml PRV groups, respectively (P < 0.001). The lower net ultrafiltration associated with higher PRV was due to (a) a significantly lower transcapillary ultrafiltration rate (Qu) caused by a lower osmotic gradient, and (b) a significantly higher peritoneal fluid absorption rate (KE) caused by an increased intraperitoneal hydrostatic pressure. No significant differences were found in the diffusive mass transport coefficient for small solutes (glucose, urea, sodium, and potassium) and total protein, although the dialysate over plasma concentration ratios values were higher in the high-PRV groups. The sodium removal was significantly lower in the PRV groups as compared with the control group (P < 0.01).",
"The association of biomedical, socioeconomic, and psychosocial variables with high peritonitis rates has important implications for the selection of patients for CAPD in this setting.",
"Both peritoneal transport characteristics as well as residual renal function are related to outcome in patients treated with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). It has been suggested that part of this relationship might be explained by an effect of both parameters on the fluid state in CAPD patients or by the relationship between inflammation and peritoneal transport. In the present study, the relationship between fluid state [extracellular water (ECW) (sodium bromide); total body water (TBW) (deuterium oxide)] with peritoneal transport characteristics (2.27% glucose dialysate/plasma creatinine [D/P (creat)] ratio), residual renal function (residual glomerular filtration rate [rGFR] by urine collection) and C-reactive protein (CRP) was assessed in 37 CAPD patients in a cross-sectional and longitudinal design, with 25 patients completing the study. In the cross-sectional part ECW, corrected for height (ECW:height), was inversely related to rGFR (r=-0.40, P=0.016), whereas during the longitudinal part, D/P[creat] was related to the change in ECW (r=0.40, P=0.05). Neither D/P[creat] nor rGFR were related to CRP, whereas a significant relationship was observed between ECW:height and CRP (r=0.58, P=0.0001). Patients were dichotomized according to rGFR (<2 or >2 ml/min). Despite a higher daily peritoneal glucose prescription (216.3+/-60.0 vs 156.5+/-53.0 g/24 h; P=0.004) and peritoneal ultrafiltration volume (1856+/-644 vs 658+/-781 ml/24 h, respectively; P=0.0001), the patients with a rGFR <2 ml/min showed a higher ECW:height compared with the group with rGFR >2 ml/min (12.5+/-3.8 vs 9.2+/-2.2 l/m, respectively; P=0.003). Results for TBW were comparable.",
"yes. Although the sample size of our present study is small and does not have adequate statistical power, we conclude that peritoneal albumin excretion may be an important predictor of cardiovascular disease. Further studies are needed to examine the role of dialysate albumin excretion as a means of cardiovascular risk stratification in PD patients.",
"yes. Fluid state was significantly related to peritoneal transport characteristics and rGFR. The larger ECW:height in CAPD patients with a negligible rGFR existed despite a higher peritoneal ultrafiltration volume and higher peritoneal glucose prescription. These findings raise doubts as to whether fluid state in CAPD patients with a diminished rGFR can be adequately controlled on standard glucose solutions without an additional sodium and fluid restriction. The preliminary finding of a relationship between CRP and fluid state might suggest a relationship between overhydration and inflammation.",
"yes. Persistently low iPTH was an independent risk factor for both AAC and mortality in incident hemodialysis patients.",
"yes. Our study showed an early impairment of left ventricular diastolic function in peritoneal dialysis patients. High serum phosphorus level was independently associated with greater risk of LVDD in these patients. Whether serum phosphorus will be a useful target for prevention or improvement of LVDD remains to be proved by further studies.",
"yes. Our data indicate that the rate of decline of RRF is a more powerful prognostic factor than baseline RRF associated with all-cause mortality and technique failure in patients on long-term PD. To prevent accelerated loss of RRF, it is imperative that every effort be made to avoid overdiuresis, peritonitis and hypotensive episodes, especially in those with diabetes, obesity and congestive heart failure.",
"Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and a major cause of hospitalization, catheter loss, transfer to haemodialysis and death. Thus, it is important to identify risk factors for PD-related peritonitis in order to reduce the incidence and improve patient selection. This study is a prospective cohort review (1992-2003) with data consisting of 12,844 patient months, 506 PD patients and 623 episodes of peritonitis. Comorbidities and patient demographics were provided by the Australian and New Zealand Dialysis and Transplant Registry and these were merged with the hospital combined clinical and microbiology laboratory peritonitis database. Variables identified to be associated with an increased likelihood of peritonitis were: age (every 10 years; OR, 1.26; 95% CI, 1.07-1.48), gender (female; OR, 1.91; 95% CI, 1.2-3.01), current smoker at entry to dialysis (OR, 1.71; 95% CI, 1.04-2.82) and the pre twin bag connection system (OR, 2.07; 95% CI, 1.22-3.52).",
"There is a wide disparity in the use of automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) or continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) in the UK. This may be due to a perceived quality of life and technique survival advantage with APD, although evidence is lacking. We conducted a single-centre retrospective study of incident end-stage renal disease initiating APD and CAPD with data collected prospectively over 5 years. PD modality was based on patient preference. Health status was assessed using SF-36 questionnaires at initial and 1-year follow-up appointments. Three hundred and seventy-two patients were included: 194 patients chose APD, and 178 patients chose CAPD. CAPD patients were generally older and more dependent than APD patients. Univariate analysis for technique survival was inferior for CAPD (relative risk for failure 1.46, 95% CI 1.08-1.97). But on multivariate analysis when comorbidity was added into the model, PD modality was no longer a significant predictor of technique survival. There was no difference in decline in residual renal function. Baseline CAPD patients had worse health status (HS); mean (SEM) physical and social composite scores were 32.3 (0.9) vs 36.5 (0.9) and 33.3 (1.2) vs 40.3 (1.2). After 1 year, HS scores for CAPD and APD patients were similar, but the improvement in HS scores correlated with baseline scores (PD modality was not an independent predictor of the change in HS).",
"yes. These data suggest that high-glucose peritoneal dialysate may promote oxidative mitochondrial DNA damage in PMCs in CAPD patients.",
"yes. Our results suggest that the pure bicarbonate-buffered peritoneal dialysis fluid appears to reduce the frequency of peritonitis in CAPD patients possibly in relation to greater biocompatibility and maintenance of peritoneal membrane structural integrity. Similar results can probably relate to all low-GDP solutions.",
"Neutrophil to lymphocyte ratio (NLR) is widely used as a marker of inflammation and an indicator of cardiovascular outcomes in patients with coronary artery disease. However, its prognostic value in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients is still unknown. We studied 138 newly started PD patients and 60 healthy controls at the First Affiliated Hospital of Sun Yat-Sen University, Guangzhou, China. Baseline NLR as well as demographic, clinical, and biochemical parameters were recorded. All patients were followed up until March 2011 to evaluate mortality as the primary outcome. Overall and cardiovascular disease-free survival rates were compared according to NLR level. Multivariate analysis was performed to assess the prognostic value of NLR. Baseline NLR levels (mean 3.5 ± 1.6) were significantly increased in PD patients compared to healthy controls (mean 1.5 ± 0.5; P < 0.001). Patients with higher NLR had a higher mortality rate compared with patients with lower NLR (51.5% vs 22.9%; P = 0.006). The 1-year and 3-year overall survival rates were 86.6% and 65.9% for patients with higher NLR compared with 97% and 85.1% for patients with lower NLR (P = 0.006). Patients with higher NLR also showed a higher cardiovascular mortality rate, compared with patients with lower NLR (38% vs 7.6%; P = 0.003). The 1-year and 3-year cardiovascular event-free survival rates were 90.7% and 81.9% for patients with higher NLR, compared with 98.6% and 95.1% for patients with lower NLR. Multivariate analysis showed high NLR value was an independent risk factor for all-cause and cardiovascular mortality.",
"Peritoneal protein excretion (PPE) is a potential marker of the outcome in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. Observational study of a cohort of 269 patients starting PD in a single unit. total PPE during a baseline peritoneal equilibration test (PET; PET-PPE) and 24-hour PPE. Control variables: essential baseline demographic, laboratory and adequacy markers. mortality, cardiovascular events and risk of peritonitis. We applied univariate and multivariate strategies of survival analysis. PET-PPE sustained a significant, yet limited correlation with 24-hour PPE (r = 0.46, p < 0.0005). At baseline, the main study variables showed an independent correlation with peritoneal transport characteristics (D/P(240') creatinine) and cardiovascular comorbidity. PET-PPE (p < 0.0005, model global χ(2) 59.4) was a more accurate predictor of overall mortality than 24-hour PPE (p = 0.04, χ(2) 50.5). Moreover, PPE during PET, but not 24-hour PPE, was an independent predictor of the risks of cardiovascular and infectious mortality, and of peritonitis.",
"no. We were unable to demonstrate, when compared to secondary peritonitis, that tertiary peritonitis is a significant independent predictor of mortality when other variables are taken into account. This suggests that the high mortality associated with tertiary peritonitis is more a function of the patient population in which it occurs than the severity of the pathologic process itself.",
"It has recently been reported that a high peritoneal transport rate was associated with increased mortality in continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) patients. One possible explanation is that a high peritoneal transport rate might be caused by a state of chronic inflammation, which also per se might result in increased mortality. Therefore, in this study we investigated whether high peritoneal transport rate patients are in a state of chronic inflammation. The study included 39 clinically stable peritoneal dialysis patients (free of peritonitis) who had been on PD for more than 3 months (16.8+/-11.8 months). Seven patients were treated with continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD) and the others were on CAPD. A 4-hour standard peritoneal equilibration test (PET) using 2.27% glucose solution was performed in each patient. Dialysate samples at 4 hours and blood samples at 2 hours were measured for interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta), tumor necrosis factor(alpha)(TNFalpha), C-reactive protein (CRP), and hyaluronan as markers of inflammation. There was no significant correlation between dialysate/plasma (DIP) creatinine (0.82+/-0.15, range 0.51 - 1.15) and blood concentrations of IL-1beta (11.2 ng/L, range<5 - 65.9 ng/L),TNFalpha (12.1 ng/L, range<5 - 85.4 ng/L), CRP (<10 mg/L, range<10 - 76 mg/L), nor with the blood hyaluronan concentration (165 microg/L, range 55 - 955 microg/L). The dialysate concentrations of IL-1beta and TNFalpha were below the detectable level in most of the samples. Although dialysate hyaluronan concentration (334 microg/L, range 89 - 1100 microg/L) was correlated with D/P creatinine (r= 0.36, p<0.05), there was no correlation between the total amount of hyaluronan in the effluent and D/P creatinine. However, a significant correlation was found between serum hyaluronan concentration and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) (r = -0.49, p<0.005); GFR also tended to be correlated with serum TNFalpha (r = -0.31, p = 0.058) but not with serum IL-1beta and serum CRP.",
"♦ Small solute clearance, especially that derived from residual renal function (RRF), is an independent risk factor for death in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. Assessment of solute clearance is time-consuming and prone to multiple errors. Cystatin C is a small protein which has been used as a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) marker. We investigated whether serum cystatin C concentrations are related to mortality in patients receiving PD. ♦ New and prevalent PD patients (n = 235) underwent assessment of Kt/Vurea, RRF, weekly creatinine clearance (CCr), normalized protein catabolic rate (nPCR) and a peritoneal equilibration test (PET) at intervals. Blood was collected simultaneously for cystatin C measurement. Patients were followed for a median of 1,429 days (range 12 to 2,964 days) until death or study closure. Cause of death was recorded where given. Cox regression was performed to determine whether cystatin C had prognostic value either independently or with adjustment for other factors (age, sex, dialysis modality, diabetic status, cardiovascular comorbidity, Kt/V, CCr, RRF, nPCR or 4 h dialysate to plasma creatinine ratio (4 h D/Pcr) during the PET). The primary outcomes were all-cause mortality and treatment failure. ♦ There were 93 deaths. Increasing age and 4 h D/Pcr ratio, decreased RRF and presence of diabetes were significantly [p < 0.05] negatively associated with survival and treatment failure. Serum cystatin C was not related to either outcome. ♦",
"Loss of residual renal function has a profound effect on the survival of peritoneal dialysis patients. Less is known of the impact of peritoneal function. The purpose of this study was to investigate the influence of solute transport on clinical outcome in CAPD patients. Two hundred and ten consecutive patients commencing CAPD since 1990 were enrolled into a single centre prospective longitudinal observational study of urea, protein, and peritoneal kinetics. On entry, and at 6-monthly intervals, estimations were made of weight, body mass index (BMI), plasma albumin, Kt/V, residual renal function (RRF), NPCR, low-molecular-weight solute transport (D/Pcreat), and peritoneal protein losses. All patients were censored in 1996, regardless of treatment modality. During the 6-year follow up period (median 22 months) there were 51 deaths, and the actuarial survival was 58% at 5 years. Urea, protein and peritoneal kinetics varied with time on dialysis: as anticipated there was a reduction in Kt/V, attributable to loss of RRF, whereas plasma albumin was stable for the first 2 years of treatment, but subsequently started to decline, a trend that became significant at 42 months. Peritoneal kinetics stabilized within the first 6 months of treatment and then showed a trend of increased solute transfer with time on treatment, which became significant by the end of the study. Comparing survivors with non-survivors Kt/V and RRF were similar at the start of treatment, but loss of RRF occurred significantly earlier in non-survivors than survivors (0.37 vs 0.68, P=0.02 at 6 months, 0.19 vs 0.54, P=0.01 at 12 months). D/Pcreat was also identical at commencement of treatment, but subsequently whilst survivors had stable solute transfer, non-survivors had consistently higher solute transfer beyond 6 months that reached increasing significance after 18 months, (0.70 vs 0.67, P=0.05 at 18 months, 0.72 vs 0.66, P=0.03 at 24 months). A Cox proportional hazard model constructed for the variables age, sex, BMI, albumin, Kt/V and D/Pcreat at 6 months of treatment indicated that low Kt/V (P=0.004), high D/Pcreat (P=0.013) and age (P=0.028) were independent predictors of death.",
"Peritoneal PrC, although correlated with volume overload and inflammation, is largely an independent predictor of mortality.",
"Long-term peritoneal dialysis (PD) causes peritoneal morphological and functional changes, resulting in high transport status featuring increased peritoneal permeability. High transport status is diagnosed by peritoneal equilibration test (PET), a reliable but time-consuming method. We identifed a reliable biomarker in peritoneal effluent to predict high transport status in PD patients. We collected peritoneal effluent and serum from 33 PD patients and measured common laboratory test parameters. High transport status was determined by PET if the dialysate/plasma ratio of creatinine at 4h dwell (D/P Cr 4h) was ≥0.81. There were significant correlations between D/P Cr 4h and some laboratory parameters in overnight effluent (pancreatic lipase activity, r=0.65, p<0.001; β",
"Peritoneal dialysis may be a suitable renal replacement therapy option for PKD patients. PKD is not an additional risk factor in patients treated by PD. Mortality is similar with non-diabetic PD patients. Peritoneal dialysis in PKD patients is associated with a similar overall rate of technique survival, incidences of hernia, leak and infectious complications as in non-PKD patients.",
"To explore the relationship between the rate of decline of total fluid removal (TFR), the sum of 24-hour urine and ultrafiltration and all-cause mortality in patients undergoing peritoneal dialysis (PD) through a prospective cohort study. The study included 297 incident patients, starting PD between July 2002 and February 2007. All the patients were followed up until death, transfering to hemodialysis, or kidney transplant by February 2008. Demographics, biochemical data and dialysis adequacy were collected at the baseline. The TFR, urine and ultrafiltration before each clinic day were averaged every 3 months throughout the follow-up. The slope of TFR (k-TFR) was calculated for each patient over time by a simple linear regression analysis. The median age was 62 years, and 42.4% of the 297 incident PD patients were male and 71 patients (23.9%) died during the median 30-month follow-up. By multivariate Cox regression analysis, k-TFR rather than the baseline TFR was a significant risk factor of mortality after being adjusted for age, presence of diabetes mellitus, baseline hemoglobin and serum albumin. In another multivariate model including all the above covariates, k-TFR was superior to the baseline TFR for prediction of mortality.",
"Peritoneal dialysis (PD) is often avoided for patients with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) because of increased risk of complications and technique failure due to limited intra-abdominal space. In this study, we have aimed to determine clinical outcomes, patient and technique survivals in patients with PKD performing PD and to define whether PD is appropriate for these patients. Totally 99 patients: 33 with PKD and 66 with diseases other than PKD were included in this retrospective study. All patients started PD between 2001 and 2015 years and have been matched by time of PD therapy initiation. Socio-demographic characteristics, clinical data and complications during the specified period were evaluated. The factors associated with mortality and patient and technique survival were investigated for all patients. The two groups were similar in terms of demographic, baseline and last visit clinical and laboratory parameters, additional systemic diseases, with the exception of higher pretreatment and last visit serum albumin levels in PKD patients (P=0.03 and 0.01 respectively) and younger age of non-PKD patients (P=0.002). Incidence of peritonitis and catheter exit-site/tunnel infections were similar among the two groups (P=0.26 and 0.12 respectively). The two groups were similar in terms of leak and hernia developments (P=0.07 and 0.57, respectively). By the end of the study period; in PKD group, 10 patients had been transferred to HD and had kidney transplantation and only 6 patients had died. In non-PKD group, 19 patients had been transferred to HD, 11 patients had kidney transplantation and 23 patients had died. Mortality was lower in PKD group (log rank=0.034). The two groups were similar regarding death and HD transfer reasons (P=0.35 and 0.36 respectively). The technique survival rates were similar among the two groups (log rank=0.37).",
"It is unknown whether variability of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) is a risk factor for dialysis or death in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). This study aimed to evaluate variability of estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) as a risk factor for dialysis or death to facilitate optimum care among high risk patients. A longitudinal retrospective cohort study of 70,598 Veterans Health Administration veteran patients with diabetes and CKD (stage 3-4) in 2000 with up to 5 years of follow-up. VHA and Medicare files were linked to derive study variables. We used Cox proportional hazards models to evaluate association between time to initial dialysis/death and key independent variables: time-varying eGFR variability (measured by standard deviation (SD)) and eGFR means and slopes while adjusting for prior hospitalizations, and comorbidities. There were 76.7% older than 65 years, 97.5% men, and 81.9% Whites. Patients were largely in early stage 3 (61.2%), followed by late stage 3 (28.9%), and stage 4 (9.9%); 29.1%, 46.8%, and 73.3%, respectively, died or had dialysis during the follow-up. eGFR SDs (median: 5.8, 5.1, and 4.0 ml/min/1.73 m(2)) and means (median: 54.1, 41.0, 27.2 ml/min/1.73 m(2)) from all two-year moving intervals decreased as CKD advanced; eGFR variability (relative to the mean) increased when CKD progressed (median coefficient of variation: 10.9, 12.8, and 15.4). Cox regressions revealed that one unit increase in a patient's standard deviation of eGFRs from prior two years was significantly associated with about 7% increase in risk of dialysis/death in the current year, similarly in all three CKD stages. This was after adjusting for concurrent means and slopes of eGFRs, demographics, prior hospitalization, and comorbidities. For example, the hazard of dialysis/death increased by 7.2% (hazard ratio:1.072; 95% CI = 1.067, 1.080) in early stage 3.",
"Higher total white blood cell counts (WCC) have been shown in the general population to be strongly and independently predictive of coronary heart disease and all-cause mortality. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the prognostic value of WCC in patients commencing peritoneal dialysis (PD). A cohort of 323 patients (mean age 55.1 +/- 17.7 years, 54% male, 81% Caucasian) commencing PD at the Princess Alexandra Hospital between January 1, 1998 and March 31, 2003 were prospectively followed until death, completion of PD therapy, or otherwise to the end of the study (January 2, 2004), at which point data were censored. Individuals with failed renal transplants (N= 17) and those with acute infections at the time of PD onset (N= 12) were not included. A multivariate Cox's proportional hazards model was applied to calculate hazard ratios and adjusted survival curves for time to death or cardiac death, adjusting for baseline demographic, clinical, and laboratory characteristics. Median actuarial patient survival was 3.9 years [95% confidence interval (CI) 3.2-4.7 years]. The highest quartile of WCC (>9.4 x 10(9)/L) was significantly and independently associated with increased risks of both death from all causes [adjusted hazard ratio (HR) 2.27, 95% CI 1.09-4.74, P < 0.05] and cardiac death (HR 3.75, 95% CI 1.2-11.8, P < 0.05). Other adverse risk factors included older age, lower serum albumin, and the presence of coronary artery disease. Similar associations were found between mortality and PMN count, but not lymphocyte count.",
"Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the most common cause of mortality in chronic peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients. Increased arterial stiffness may be related to a high peritoneal permeability resulting in fluid overload in PD patients. We studied the relations between arterial stiffness, peritoneal transport, and radiographic parameters of systemic fluid overload in a cohort of Chinese PD patients. Prospective cohort study. University referral center. We studied 107 PD patients. Vascular pedicle width and cardiothoracic ratio were measured from a plain postero-anterior chest radiograph. Pulse wave velocity (PWV) was determined at carotid-femoral (C-F) and carotid-radial sites. Peritoneal transport was determined by the dialysate-to-plasma ratio (D/P) of creatinine at 4 hours of dwell. Patients were followed for 9.4 +/- 4.6 months. Duration of hospitalization; actuarial and technique survival. There were no relationships between radiographic measures, arterial PWV, and D/P creatinine. However, both C-F PWV and D/P creatinine were independent predictors of the number of hospitalizations for CVD. None of the parameters correlated with mortality in this study.",
"Echocardiography is an established technique to estimate the risk for cardiovascular complications in patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). An enlarged left atrium (LA) has recently emerged as a marker of adverse cardiovascular outcomes in various pathologic conditions. However, there have been few studies to evaluate its prognostic value in patients with ESRD, particularly those receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). We conducted an observational cohort study to investigate whether enlarged LA can predict patient outcome in 216 patients with CAPD. Study outcomes were all-cause and cardiovascular mortality. Increased left atrium volume index (LAVI > 32 mL/m(2)) was observed in 99 (45.8%) of the CAPD patients. During the follow-up (26.3 ± 18.6 months), 20 patients (9.3%) died. Kaplan-Meier analysis revealed that the 5-year survival rate was significantly lower in patients with LAVI > 32 mL/m(2) than those with LAVI ≤ 32 mL/m(2) (69 versus 82%, P = 0.024). In multivariate analyses adjusted for echocardiographic parameters and clinical and laboratory data, increased LAVI was an independent predictor of all-cause mortality [hazard ratio (HR) 1.05, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.01-1.10, P = 0.03] and cardiovascular mortality (HR 1.08, 95% CI 1.02-1.14, P = 0.006). Furthermore, increased LAVI provided the highest predictive value for all-cause mortality [area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC) = 0.766, P < 0.001] and cardiovascular mortality (AUC = 0.836, P < 0.001) among the measured echocardiographic parameters.",
"yes. This study demonstrates large magnitude haemodynamic changes in response to CAPD. In addition to the well-recognized adverse effects on blood glucose and long-term peritoneal membrane viability, CAPD fluids containing high glucose concentrations may also exert undesirable effects on systemic haemodynamics, with potential long-term consequences for patient outcomes.",
"Cardiovascular disorders (CD) are the most frequent cause of death in patients on dialysis. CD have been related to increased extracellular fluid volume, peritoneal transport type (PTT), hypertension, and inflammation. Inflammation is in itself a risk factor for mortality. The aim of this study was to assess the relationship of increased extracellular fluid volume, inflammation, and PTT in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and automated peritoneal dialysis (APD). A cross-sectional study was carried out with 20 healthy controls (C), 21 patients on CAPD, and nine patients on APD. Clinical and demographic variables were measured and registered. Peritoneal equilibrium test (PET) was done. Blood volume (BV), total body water (TBW), inferior vena cava diameter during inspiration (IVCDi) and expiration (IVCDe), serum albumin, and serum C-reactive protein (CRP) were measured. All patients on peritoneal dialysis (PD) had at least one sign or symptom of increased extracellular fluid volume, hypertension being the most common. Patients also had higher TBW (C, 60.7 +/- 7.2; APD, 62.6 +/- 8.7; CAPD, 66.1 +/- 8.3, as percentage of body weight, p <0.02), higher BV (C, 7.9 +/- 1.6; APD, 9.8 +/- 2.3; CAPD, 9.6 +/- 2.3, as percentage of body weight, p <0.02), higher DIVCi (C, 2.9 +/- 1.2; APD, 4.6 +/- 2.5; CAPD, 4.5 +/- 2.4 mm/m2 BSA, p <0.02), and higher DIVCe (C, 6.2 +/- 1.7; APD, 8.3 +/- 3.4; CAPD, 8.0 +/- 2.8 mm/m2 BSA, p <0.05). PD patients also had hypoalbuminemia and higher CRP levels. There was significant positive correlation between CRP and DIVCi (r=0.43, p <0.05) and IVCe (r=0.45, p <0.05) and between serum albumin and creatinine dialysate-to-plasma ratio (D/P Cr, r=0.57, p <0.01). Serum albumin and CRP were negatively correlated (r= -0.54, p <0.02).",
"To compare mortality rates on hemodialysis (HD) to rates on continuous ambulatory/cyclic peritoneal dialysis (CAPD/CCPD), to contrast our results with those of other recent investigations, and to discuss reasons for discrepancies. Patient-specific data obtained from the Canadian Organ Replacement Register on patients initiating renal replacement therapy (RRT) between 1 January 1990 and 31 December 1995 (n = 14 483). Recent mortality comparisons of CAPD and HD. Mortality rate ratio (RR) based on \"as-treated\" (AT) analysis incorporating treatment modality switches and adjusting for age, primary renal diagnosis, and comorbid conditions using Poisson regression. Hazard ratios (HR) were estimated using Cox regression and based on an \"intent-to-treat\" (ITT) analysis wherein patients were classified based on dialytic modality received on follow-up day 90. Adjusted mortality rates were significantly decreased on CAPD/CCPD relative to HD [RR = 0.73, 95% confidence interval (CI) = (0.69, 0.77)] based on the AT analysis. Most of the protective effect of CAPD/CCPD was concentrated in the first 2 years of follow-up post-RRT initiation. Based on the ITT analysis, the estimated CAPD/ CCPD effect was greatly reduced, with HR = 0.93 (0.87, 0.99).",
"no. Initial fast transport was not associated with systemic inflammation and atherosclerosis. In a population with preserved RRF and absence of baseline serious co-morbidity, it was not predictive of worse prognosis. Other determinants of early peritoneal fast transport deserve investigation.",
"yes. Infants who initiate peritoneal dialysis complicated by prolonged respiratory disorders have increased adverse risk factors for mortality; therefore, withholding aggressive treatment should be considered.",
"yes. Uremic patients display differences in peritoneal microvascular endothelial function and microinflammatory states before peritoneal dialysis. Patients of the high transport group have higher MVD, increased expression of endothelial function markers (VEGF and eNOS), and the microinflammatory marker (IL-6). These observations are closely related to high baseline peritoneal transport.",
"yes. Higher BMI at the commencement of renal replacement therapy is a significant risk factor for peritonitis. The mechanisms for this remain undefined.",
"yes. High central pulse pressure level may serve as a risk factor for CVD in patients on maintenance peritoneal dialysis.",
"yes. Peritoneal permeability expressed as PET category at peritoneal dialysis initiation is an independent cardiovascular risk factor in peritoneal dialysis patients using biocompatible peritoneal dialysis solution with neutral pH. Greater peritoneal permeability at peritoneal dialysis initiation might reflect subclinical vascular disorders.",
"yes. There were no relationships between radiological parameters of fluid overload, peritoneal transport characteristics, and arterial PWV. Both C-F PWV and D/P creatinine were independent predictors of the number of hospitalizations for CVD. Our result suggests that arterial stiffness and high peritoneal transport each contribute to the development of CVD in this group of patients.",
"To study the prognostic factors for mortality and hospital admission for patients on peritoneal dialysis (PD). Biannual data on individual characteristics, clinical and analytical progress, treatment, and events were studied for a cohort of incident patients undergoing PD (2003-2006) in a reference area of 8.8 million people. 489 patients (age 53.58 years, 61.6% male) with 3-year follow-up were included. They presented at inclusion with Charlson Comorbidity Index (CCI) of 5.25; previous cardiovascular (CV) event, 23.7%; diabetes mellitus (DM), 19.1%; and hypertension (HT), 89.9%. Annual hospitalization rate per patient-year at risk was 0.6. The variables that predicted admission were CCI [odds ratio (OR) 1.14 per point], DM (OR 1.66), and previous CV event (OR 1.90). Anemia maintained significance when corrected for CCI: hemoglobin, 0.79 per 1 g/dL Hb; CCI, 1.15 per point. Annual mortality rate was 5.4%. Those that died were older (67.47 vs 52.78 years) and had a higher CCI (8.35 vs 5.0), a lower initial Hb (11.5 vs 12.2 g/dL), a higher hospital admission rate, a higher annual rate of peritonitis, more previous CV events (50.0% vs 22.1%), and higher prevalence of DM (38.5% vs 17.9%). Survival analysis identified the following prognostic factors: CCI [hazard ratio (HR) 1.51 per point], CV event (HR 2.85), DM (HR 2.52), age (HR 1.06 per year), and mandatory referral to PD (HR 6.54). The effect of CV events and DM persisted after correction for age, and that of choice of technique after correcting for CCI and/or age.",
"yes. The study demonstrated that peritoneal function, including peritoneal membrane transport and peritoneal permeability to protein was significantly higher in DM patients than in non DM patients. Hypoproteinemia in DM patients might be associated with high permeability of peritoneal membrane in CAPD.",
"Hyperphosphatemia is an independent risk factor for mortality in ESRD, but factors regulating phosphate clearance on peritoneal dialysis (PD) are incompletely understood. The objective of this study was to test the hypothesis that peritoneal phosphate clearance is better with continuous ambulatory PD (CAPD) as compared with continuous cyclic PD (CCPD) after adjusting for membrane transport status. In this cross-sectional and retrospective study, measurements of peritoneal phosphate clearance of 129 prevalent PD patients were reviewed. Patients were divided according to membrane transport status (high, high average, low average-low categories) and PD modality (CAPD or CCPD). Among high transporters, peritoneal phosphate clearances were comparable in both modalities. However, treatment with CAPD was associated with increased peritoneal phosphate clearance compared with CCPD among high-average transporters (42.4 +/- 11.4 versus 36.4 +/- 8.3 L/wk/1.73 m(2), P = 0.01), and low-average-low transporters (35.6 +/- 5.9 versus 28.9 +/- 11 L/wk/1.73 m(2), P = 0.034). On multivariate linear regression, PD modality, membrane transport category, and peritoneal creatinine clearance, but not Kt/V urea, were independently associated with peritoneal phosphate clearance.",
"Patients starting peritoneal dialysis (PD) with active cardiovascular disease (CVD) show higher protein and albumin levels in peritoneal effluent. Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is increasingly recognized as an entity particularly associated with higher mortality. To explore whether higher daily peritoneal protein clearance (PrC) on starting PD is a cardiovascular risk marker, we have formulated the hypothesis that PAD, as an expression of the highest CVD grade, is specifically related to the amount of PrC. The average of 24-h effluent peritoneal protein losses (PPL) was 6.88 +/- 3.31 g. The median of PrC was 94.43 ml/day and quartiles 1 and 4 were delimited by 56.25 and 114.18 ml/day, respectively. A significant positive correlation between PrC and peritoneal small solute transport was detected. Patients in the highest quintile of Cr-MTAC (>14.04 ml/min) demonstrated significantly greater PrC than the remainder. An inverse significant correlation with plasma albumin levels was also demonstrated (r = -0.52, P = 0.0001). Eighteen patients with PAD showed significantly higher PrC than patients with no PAD (130.62 +/- 74.89 versus 88.77 +/- 47.56 ml/day; P = 0.033). Other CVDs were not significantly associated with greater PrC. In the univariable logistic regression analysis, PAD was directly and significantly related to PrC, Charlson's index, gender, diabetes and age. Multivariable analysis confirmed that PAD was significantly related to PrC, independent of age (RR: 1.07, IC: 1.02-1.12, P = 0.006) and diabetes (RR: 11.29, IC: 2.9-42.60, P = 0.000).",
"This study assessed whether assisted peritoneal dialysis (PD) was associated with a lower risk for technique failure using methods developed for survival analysis in the presence of competing risks.DESIGN, SETTING, PARTICIPANTS, & This retrospective cohort study, based on data from the French Language Peritoneal Dialysis Registry, analyzed 9822 incident patients starting PD between January 2002 and December 2010. The observation period ended on June 1, 2011. Time to transfer to hemodialysis was compared between patients with assisted PD and those undergoing self-care PD. There were 5286 patients undergoing assisted PD; 4230 of these were assisted by a community nurse and 1056 by family. Assisted PD patients were older and had a higher Charlson comorbidity index than self-care PD patients. There were 7594 events: 3495 deaths, 2464 transfers to hemodialysis, 1489 renal transplantations, and 146 renal function recoveries. According to a Cox model, assistance and center size were associated with a lower risk for technique failure, whereas hemodialysis before PD, early peritonitis, and transplantation failure were associated with a higher risk for transfer to hemodialysis. A Fine and Gray regression model showed that assisted PD was associated with a lower risk for transfer to hemodialysis.",
"yes. The SD of E/I was a strong independent predictor of all-cause mortality and technique failure in CAPD patients.",
"yes. Poor compliance in performing the CAPD procedure is a modifiable risk factor for peritonitis. Adherence to recommended aseptic technique is the cornerstone of peritonitis prevention.",
"no. We observed that the initial peritoneal transport status is not a determinant factor of long-term mortality. The reason may be due to a consequence of regression toward mean of the transport status. Whether the observed longitudinal regression-to-mean phenomenon change represent any physiologic relevance is hard to define. Further studies on the underlying mechanisms are needed.",
"High transporter status is associated with reduced survival of patients receiving peritoneal dialysis (PD). This may be due primarily to the development of complications related to the PD process, in which case the survival disadvantage may not persist following transfer to haemodialysis (HD). In this study, we aimed to assess the impact of peritoneal membrane transporter status on patient survival and the likelihood of return to PD following transfer from PD to HD. The Australia and New Zealand Dialysis and Transplant (ANZDATA) Registry was searched to identify all patients between 1 April 1999 and 31 March 2004 who had received PD and subsequently transferred to HD, in whom an incident 4 h dialysate: plasma creatinine ratio was recorded. A Cox proportional hazards model was used to identify factors significantly associated with patient and technique survival after commencement of HD. A total of 918 patients were included in the analysis. On multivariate Cox regression analysis there was no difference in survival between transport groups relative to the reference group of low average transporters (adjusted hazard ratio (HR) 0.71, 95% CI 0.42-1.19, P = 0.19, HR 0.94, 95% CI 0.63-1.38, P = 0.73 and HR 0.24, 95% CI 0.06-1.01, P = 0.051 for high, high average and low transporter groups, respectively). Significant predictors of mortality were duration of PD more than 22 months (HR 2.32, 95% CI 1.24-4.33, P = 0.01), increasing age, late referral to a nephrologist and a history of diabetes mellitus. The likelihood of returning to PD was increased if initial PD technique failure was due to mechanical complications compared with all other causes of failure [HR 3.65 (95% CI 2.78-4.79) P < 0.001] and decreased with higher body mass index [HR 0.97 per kg/m(2) (95% CI 0.94-0.99), P = 0.01] and the 4 h dialysate: plasma creatinine ratio considered as a continuous variable [4 h D:P Cr; HR 0.32 per unit (95% CI 0.12-0.89), P = 0.03].",
"Cardiovascular disease is a frequent cause of death in peritoneal dialysis patients. Biocompatible peritoneal dialysis solutions with neutral pH have been anticipated to reduce cardiovascular disease more than conventional peritoneal dialysis solutions with low pH, but it remains unclear which factors at peritoneal dialysis initiation increase cardiovascular risk in patients using biocompatible peritoneal dialysis solutions. This study was undertaken to investigate which clinical factors at peritoneal dialysis initiation, including peritoneal transport status, are associated with cardiovascular event in patients using biocompatible peritoneal dialysis solution. This retrospective cohort study of peritoneal dialysis patients using biocompatible solutions with neutral pH assessed relations of clinical parameters at peritoneal dialysis initiation to cardiovascular event during the subsequent five years. Of 102 patients who started peritoneal dialysis, cardiovascular event occurred in 18. Age, history of cardiovascular disease before peritoneal dialysis initiation, hemoglobin, serum albumin, C-reactive protein, peritoneal permeability defined by the ratio of dialysate to plasma creatinine concentration at 4 hr (D/Pcre) in peritoneal equilibration test (PET), number of patients in each PET category defined by D/Pcre, and peritoneal protein clearance significantly differed between patients with and without cardiovascular event. For patients divided according to PET category using Kaplan-Meier method, the group of high average to high peritoneal transporters exhibited significantly high incidence of cardiovascular event and mortality compared with the groups of low and low-average peritoneal transporters (Log rank; p=0.0003 and 0.005, respectively). A Cox proportional hazards model showed independent association of PET category classification with cardiovascular event.",
"To determine if the association between high peritoneal protein clearance (PrC) and increased all-cause mortality is explained by inflammation and volume overload in continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis patients. A total of 216 incident patients were enrolled. Demographics, biochemistry, inflammatory and volume status, peritoneal transport rate, fluid and solute removal were collected at baseline. The median PrC was 57.2 ml/day. A high PrC was associated with more severe inflammation and volume overload. Using a multivariate regression model, for every 1-ml/day increase in PrC, the adjusted HR was 1.06 (1.00-1.12; p = 0.046) for all-cause death adjusted for age, diabetes, hemoglobin and D/Pcr. The predictability of PrC for all-cause death remained the same or mildly changed after additionally adjusted for inflammatory and volume overload markers with HR of 1.07 (1.00-1.14; p = 0.043) and 1.05 (0.99-1.12; p = 0.08), respectively.",
"Peritoneal clearance of albumin-unlike the transport of small molecules-is defined by both vascular surface area and size-selective permeability. Few studies have supported a positive correlation between peritoneal albumin loss and mortality. The aim of this study was to investigate whether baseline peritoneal loss and clearance of albumin and other proteins is a risk factor of death in peritoneal dialysis patients. All incident peritoneal dialysis patients in our center during the last 15 years were included. Mass-transfer area coefficient of creatinine and peritoneal clearances of albumin, β₂-microglobulin, α₂-macroglobulin, and immunoglobulin G were calculated during a standard peritoneal permeability analysis. The total amount of albumin loss in the dialysate was also calculated. Overall mortality was studied with an intention-to-treat analysis. Two hundred fifty-seven patients were included. High baseline albumin clearance was associated with fast transport status, the presence of peripheral arterial disease, and a high comorbidity index, whereas C-reactive protein levels did not differ from the patients with low albumin clearance. Age, high comorbidity score, C-reactive protein levels >10 mg/L, and a low serum albumin were associated with mortality. Peritoneal albumin clearances and albumin loss were not associated with death in crude and adjusted analysis. Similarly, peritoneal clearances of immunoglobulin G, α₂-macroglobulin, and β₂-microglobulin were not determinants of survival.",
"The mortality rate of peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients is still high, and the predicting factors for PD patient mortality remain to be determined. This study aimed to explore the relationship between the standard deviation (SD) of extracellular water/intracellular water (E/I) and all-cause mortality and technique failure in continuous ambulatory PD (CAPD) patients. All 152 patients came from the PD Center between January 1st 2006 and December 31st 2007. Clinical data and at least five-visit E/I ratio defined by bioelectrical impedance analysis were collected. The patients were followed up till December 31st 2010. The primary outcomes were death from any cause and technique failure. Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards models were used to identify risk factors for mortality and technique failure in CAPD patients. All patients were followed up for 59.6 ± 23.0 months. The patients were divided into two groups according to their SD of E/I values: lower SD of E/I group (≤0.126) and higher SD of E/I group (>0.126). The patients with higher SD of E/I showed a higher all-cause mortality (log-rank χ (2) = 10.719, P = 0.001) and technique failure (log-rank χ (2) = 9.724, P = 0.002) than those with lower SD of E/I. Cox regression analysis found that SD of E/I independently predicted all-cause mortality (HR 3.551, 95 % CI 1.442-8.746, P = 0.006) and technique failure (HR 2.487, 95 % CI 1.093-5.659, P = 0.030) in CAPD patients after adjustment for confounders except when sensitive C-reactive protein was added into the model.",
"Patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who have high small-molecule peritoneal transport have increased mortality. To investigate the impact of baseline peritoneal transport characteristics on patient and technique survival in incident peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients, most of whom are on automated PD (APD), with the use of icodextrin. Retrospective observational cohort study. A single PD unit. 193 new patients that began PD between January 2000 and September 2004, and had an initial peritoneal equilibration test within 6 months of commencement of PD. Patients were divided into low (L), low average (LA), high average (HA), and high (H) peritoneal transport groups. Death-censored technique failure and patient survival were examined. Of the 193 patients, 151 (78.1%) were on APD or on APD with icodextrin or on CAPD with icodextrin. At the end of 1, 3, and 5 years, patient survival was 91%, 82%, and 67% in LA group; 95%, 77%, and 69% in HA group; and 96%, 71%, and 71% in H group. Technique survival was 100%, 90%, and 77% in LA group; 96%, 84%, and 72% in HA group; and 92%, 87%, and 77% in H group. High peritoneal permeability did not predict worse patient survival or technique failure, while age, diabetes, a lower glomerular filtration rate, and high body mass index (> or =30 kg/m(2)) were independent predictors of death.",
"Recent studies suggest that increased peritoneal membrane permeability is associated with higher morbidity and mortality in peritoneal dialysis patients. It is not known, however, whether the difference in clinical outcome among different peritoneal transport groups is due to differences in peritoneal fluid and solute removal. In the present study, we compared the peritoneal fluid and solute transport and clinical outcome in CAPD patients with high (H), high-average (H-A), low-average (L-A) and low (L) peritoneal transport patterns. A 6-h dwell study was performed in 46 patients with frequent dialysate and plasma samples using 2 l of 3.86% glucose dialysate with 131I albumin as an intraperitoneal volume marker. The patients were divided into four transport groups according to their D/P of creatinine at 240 min. The results showed that high transporters had significantly lower peritoneal fluid and small-solute removal but high glucose absorption and high protein loss during a 6-h exchange. The serum albumin was lower and blood pressure and triglycerides were higher in high transporters compared with the other groups. Two-year patient survival from the start of CAPD treatment was significantly lower for high transporters (64, 85, 90 and 100% for H, H-A, L-A and L respectively, P < 0.01). The 1-year patient survival from the dwell study was also significantly lower in high transporters (16, 63, 90 and 100% for each group, P<0.01).",
"Initial high peritoneal permeability in peritoneal dialysis (PD) patients was previously thought to be a poor prognostic factor. We aimed to study the factors that determine the initial transport status and prognosis in PD patients. This was an observation cohort study that enrolled 551 fresh uremic patients who commenced PD in a single PD center from January 1994 to December 2004. Patients with different initial peritoneal transport status were analyzed and determinants of the initial peritoneal transport status were evaluated. All patients were followed up to investigate the risks of mortality. At the start of PD, only age and sex were determinants of the initial peritoneal transport status upon multiple linear regression analysis. The average duration of the study follow-up was 45.4 +/- 29.4 months. In the follow-up, a regression toward mean of transport status was found. About 107 patients died during the observation period. Cox-multivariate analysis revealed only age (RR = 1.06, p < 0.001), comorbidity index (RR = 2.31, p < 0.001), serum albumin (RR = 0.58, p = 0.008), and percentage of lean body mass (RR = 0.97, p = 0.008) to be independent predictors of mortality.",
"yes. There is good reason to believe that high peritoneal solute transport is an independent marker of poor outcome in CAPD patients.",
"DM was the most important risk factor for mortality on CAPD. A high peritoneal transport rate also predicted mortality, yet its role seems to be related to the presence of DM. The role of higher SCr predicting a better survival might have been associated with a better nutritional status. Hypoalbuminemia, previously shown as risk factor for mortality, did not play an important role in this study, probably because of its collinearity with DM.",
"no. This study suggests that higher peritoneal transport is not a significant independent risk factor for either mortality or death-censored technique failure. The favorable outcome for high transporters in this study may be due to improved management of volume status by the increased use of APD and the use of icodextrin-based dialysis fluid.",
"Is high peritoneal transport rate an independent risk factor for CAPD mortality? Patients with high peritoneal transport display the lowest serum albumin (SAlb) and the highest peritoneal protein loss. An association between high peritoneal membrane permeability and diabetes mellitus (DM) has been suggested. As malnutrition, hypoalbuminemia, and DM cause high mortality, it is probable that a high peritoneal transport rate is associated with high mortality on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The aim of the study was to identify whether a high peritoneal transport rate is an independent risk factor for mortality on CAPD. We included 167 patients with a peritoneal equilibration test that was performed between January 1994 and July 1997. The endpoint was the patient's status (alive, dead, or lost) in December 1997. Survival analysis was done by the Kaplan-Meier method and multivariate Cox proportional-hazard model. DM was significantly more frequent in the high (H) peritoneal transport type (20 out of 33) and was less frequent in the low (L) transport group (3 out of 18). SAlb (g/dL) was significantly lower as the peritoneal transport type was higher [H 2.7 +/- 0.5, high average (HA) 2.9 +/- 0.7, low average (LA) 3.2 +/- 0.6, and L 3.6 +/- 0.5]. Serum creatinine (SCr) was significantly higher in the L transport type (12.0 +/- 4.3 mg/dL) than in the other transport groups (H 8.7 +/- 3.1, HA 8.6 +/- 3.7, and LA 9.6 +/- 4.5). No other differences were found between peritoneal transport types. In the univariate analysis, high peritoneal transport rate, DM, low SCr, low SAlb, and older age significantly predicted mortality. However, in the multivariate analysis (chi2 = 40.55, P<0.0001), only DM (b = 1.34, P = 0.0001), low SCr (b = -0.11, P = 0.02), and high peritoneal transport rate (b = 2.6, P = 0.06) were shown as mortality risk factors.",
"Our results suggest that a high peritoneal transport rate is not necessarily related to a state of chronic inflammation in CAPD patients. The high mortality rate observed in high transporters may relate to other issues, such as fluid balance or abnormal nutrition and metabolism, rather than to chronic inflammation."
] | 133 |
Expression of CD44 in uterine cervical squamous neoplasia: a predictor of microinvasion? | [
"CD44, an integral membrane glycoprotein, may have an important role in early tumorigenesis, specifically, facilitating early tumor progression. Reports of the expression of CD44 in early uterine cervical squamous carcinogenesis are conflicting. We examined the expression of CD44 in microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix (MIC), as yet unreported, and compared it to that in cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1 and CIN 3 to further elucidate its role in early squamous carcinogenesis. Seventeen cases of CIN 1, 24 cases of CIN 3, and 20 cases of MIC were stained with antibodies to CD44s, CD44v5, and CD44v6. Only membranous staining was considered positive. Positive membranous staining (>50% cells) was observed in 97% of cases of CIN 1 using all three antibodies. In CIN 3, positive staining was seen more often with CD44v6 (18/24) and CD44v5 (19/24) than with CD44s (6/24). Expression of CD44v6 was retained more often in MIC (16/20) compared with CD44s (3/20) and CD44v5 (9/20). Those cases of CIN 3 and MIC that failed to meet our criteria for positive staining showed either heterogeneous or absent staining.",
"There is a qualitative and quantitative reduction in expression of CD44 in MIC and CIN 3 compared with CIN 1. Down-regulation of CD44 variants may occur later in neoplastic progression than CD44s. This pattern may reflect their important biological function in early progression by cervical cancer cells. Patchy and heterogeneous staining in more advanced lesions limits the usefulness of CD44 and its variants in the assessment of microinvasion."
] | [
"Lymphovascular space invasion plays a critical role in the progression of cervical cancer and is an indicator of an unfavorable prognosis, even in patients with early-stage disease. Identification and functional characterization of molecules that are predominantly expressed in tumors able to penetrate lymphatic vessels may therefore help to improve the clinical assessment of cervical neoplasias with unclear prognosis. We used immunohistochemical staining to assess expression of the tetraspanin adapter protein CD9 in cervical tumors because inverse correlations with tumor invasiveness, ability to form metastases, and poor clinical outcome have been described for several other tumor types.",
"Epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) cells with CD44 and CK19 coexpression may represent a subset of ovarian cancer stem cells (OCSCs). This study was conducted to evaluate the correlation of the frequency of putative OCSCs (CD44 + CK19 + OCSCs) with the clinicopathologic features and the prognostic value in patients with recurrent advanced stage EOC. A retrospective study was carried out on 33 patients with EOC and a uniformly treated tissue microarray was constructed. A multiplexed, immunofluorescence-based method of automated in situ quantitative measurement of protein analysis was used for evaluation of the frequency or density of CD44 + CK19 + OCSCs in EOC. The mean follow-up time was 42.8 ± 27.1 months. High frequency of EOC cells with CD44+ or CD44+/CK19+ was associated with chemoresistance (P = .033 and P = .02, respectively). Using K-M analysis with log-rank test, a high frequency of putative OCSCs was associated with short disease-free interval (7.9 months vs 20.9 months, P = .019). In univariable analysis, the frequency of OCSCs, International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics stage and residual tumor volume were significant predictor variables and were entered into multivariable analysis (P = .019, .037, and .005, respectively). Although no independent significant predictor was found, the frequency of putative OCSCs was the most promising predictor variable compared with the other 2 variables (hazard ratio = 2.344, P = .052).",
"This study aimed to reliably identify serum protein profile alterations that may be useful for elucidation of the disease mechanism and/or finding new targets for treatment and intervention. A total of 1057 women at 4 different squamous cell cervical cancer stages (noninvasive, invasive International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics stages I, II, and III) were included in this cross-sectional study. Forty-seven serum proteins were profiled using multiplex Luminex immunoassays. Serum concentration of serum amyloid A (SAA), C-reactive protein (CRP), soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor I and II (sTNFRI and sTNFRII), soluble interleukin 2 receptor α (sIL2Rα), CXCL1, CXCL9, hepatocyte growth factor, squamous cell carcinoma antigen (SCCA), insulin-like growth factor binding protein 2, CA125, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) were elevated significantly as disease progressed in cervical cancer patients. Serum levels are significantly different at early stage (I) for SAA, CRP, sIL2Rα, sTNFRII, SCCA, and CEA (P values ranged from 0.02 for CEA to 0.0001 for CRP and SCCA) and at late stages (II and III) for all 12 proteins (P values ranged from 8.78E-5 for CA125 to 3.49E-47 for SAA), as compared to the noninvasive stage. The areas under the curves of these proteins for disease state separation also improved with the advancement of the disease. The correlations between serum concentrations of these proteins also show different patterns at different clinical stages. These proteins are involved in multiple mechanisms including inflammation and immunity, angiogenesis, growth promotion, and metastasis.",
"Basal-like breast cancers (BL-BCa) have the worst prognosis of all subgroups of this disease. Hyaluronan (HA) and the HA receptor CD44 have a long-standing association with cell invasion and metastasis of breast cancer. The purpose of this study was to establish the relation of CD44 to BL-BCa and to characterize how HA/CD44 signaling promotes a protease-dependent invasion of breast cancer (BrCa) cells. CD44 expression was determined with immunohistochemistry (IHC) analysis of a breast cancer tissue microarray (TMA). In vitro experiments were performed on a panel of invasive BL-BCa cell lines, by using quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR), immunoblotting, protease activity assays, and invasion assays to characterize the basis of HA-induced, CD44-mediated invasion. Expression of the hyaluronan (HA) receptor CD44 associated with the basal-like subgroup in a cohort of 141 breast tumor specimens (P = 0.018). Highly invasive cells of the representative BL-BCa cell line, MDA-MB-231 (MDA-MB-231Hi) exhibited increased invasion through a basement membrane matrix (Matrigel) and collagen. In further experiments, HA-induced promotion of CD44 signaling potentiated expression of urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) and its receptor uPAR, and underpinned an increased cell-associated activity of this serine protease in MDA-MB-231Hi and a further BL-BCa cell line, Hs578T cells. Knockdown of CD44 attenuated both basal and HA-stimulated uPA and uPAR gene expression and uPA activity. Inhibition of uPA activity by using (a) a gene-targeted RNAi or (b) a small-molecule inhibitor of uPA attenuated HA-induced invasion of MDA-MB-231Hi cells through Matrigel. HA/CD44 signaling also was shown to increase invasion of MDA-MB-231 cells through collagen and to potentiate the collagen-degrading activity of MDA-MB-231Hi cells. CD44 signaling was subsequently shown to upregulate expression of two potent collagen-degrading enzymes, the cysteine protease cathepsin K and the matrix metalloprotease MT1-MMP. RNAi- or shRNA-mediated depletion of CD44 in MDA-MB-231Hi cells decreased basal and HA-induced cathepsin K and MT1-MMP expression, reduced the collagen-degrading activity of the cell, and attenuated cell invasion through collagen. Pharmacologic inhibition of cathepsin K or RNAi-mediated depletion of MT1-MMP also attenuated MDA-MB-231Hi cell invasion through collagen.",
"To find molecular markers from expression profiling data to predict recurrence of laryngeal cancer after radiotherapy. We generated gene expression data on pre-treatment biopsies from 52 larynx cancer patients. Patients developing a local recurrence were matched for T-stage, subsite, treatment, gender and age with non-recurrence patients. Candidate genes were then tested by immunohistochemistry on tumor material from a second series of 76 patients. Both series comprised early stage cancer treated with radiotherapy alone. Finally, gene expression data of eight larynx cancer cell lines with known radiosensitivity were analyzed. Nineteen patients with a local recurrence were matched with 33 controls. Gene sets for hypoxia, proliferation and intrinsic radiosensitivity did not correlate with recurrence, whereas expression of the putative stem cell marker CD44 did. In a supervised analysis, probes for all three splice variants of CD44 on the array appeared in the top 10 most significantly correlated with local recurrence. Immunohistochemical analysis of CD44 expression on the independent validation series confirmed CD44's predictive potential. In 8 larynx cancer cell lines, CD44 gene expression did not correlate with intrinsic radiosensitivity although it did correlate significantly with plating efficiency, consistent with a relationship with stem cell content.",
"Epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) has been known to play a key role in the stromal invasion of carcinoma in situ (CIS) lesion. Loss of E-cadherin and acquisition of vimentin are two critical steps in EMT, that are induced by Snail-1 upregulation associated with overexpression of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR). However, roles of EMT-related proteins in human cervical tissues have not been fully elucidated. In this study, we investigated the immunoexpressions of EMT-related proteins in CIS, microinvasive squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), and invasive SCC to demonstrate their key roles in tumor progression. Eighty one CIS, 17 microinvasive, and 21 invasive SCC cases were immunostained with primary antibodies for Snail-1, EGFR, E-cadherin, and vimentin on paraffin-embedded tissue microarray blocks. EGFR and Snail-1 proteins were highly expressed but the levels were not significantly different between the three groups. However, loss of E-cadherin and acquisition of vimentin were proven to occur significantly higher in microinvasive and invasive SCC cases than in CIS.",
"Dysregulated expression and splicing of cell adhesion marker CD44 is found in many types of cancer. In prostate cancer (PC) specifically, the standard isoform (CD44s) has been found to be downregulated compared with benign tissue whereas predominant variant isoform CD44v7-10 is upregulated. Mitogen-activated protein kinase pathways and paracrine calcitonin are two common factors linked to dysregulated expression and splicing of CD44 in cancer. Calcitonin has been found to increase proliferation and invasion in PC acting through the protein kinase A pathway. In androgen-independent PC with known high CD44v7-10 expression, CD44 total and CD44v7-10 RNA or protein were assessed in response to exogenous and endogenous calcitonin and to inhibitors of protein kinase A, MEK, JNK, or p38 kinase. Benign cells and calcitonin receptor-negative PC cells were also tested. MEK or p38 but not JNK reduced CD44 total RNA by 40%-65% in cancer and benign cells. Inhibition of protein kinase A reduced CD44 total and v7-10 protein expression. In calcitonin receptor-positive cells only, calcitonin increased CD44 variant RNA and protein by 3 h and persisting to 48 h, apparently dependent on an uninhibited p38 pathway. Cells with constitutive CT expression showed an increase in CD44v7-10 mRNA but a decrease in CD44 total RNA.",
"yes. CD44 expression is associated with proliferation in cultured canine cancer cells, but transient and fluctuating expression may limit its utility as a CSC marker.",
"yes. Besides Dukes stage, multivariate analysis of all the studied molecular markers showed that patients expressing CD44 and cytokeratin-19 had a significantly reduced relapse-free and poor overall survival. Moreover, patients expressing both these markers (CD44 and cytokeratin-19) had the lowest significant relative risk for developing recurrence than patients with both markers negative when treated with surgery followed by adjuvant chemotherapy as compared with patients treated with surgery alone. Thus, in patients with colorectal cancer, immunohistochemical localization of CD44 and cytokeratin-19 may be included as a part of routine pathologic evaluation along with conventional prognostic factors.",
"To verify that CD markers are available for detecting cancer stem cell populations and to evaluate their clinical significance in colon cancer. Immunohistochemistry for CD133, CD24 and CD44 was performed on the tissue microarray of 523 colorectal adenocarcinomas. Medical records were reviewed and clinicopathological analysis was performed. In colorectal adenocarcinoma, 128 of 523 cases (24.5%) were positive and 395 cases (75.5%) were negative for CD133 expression. Two hundred and sixty-four of 523 cases (50.5%) were positive and 259 cases (49.5%) were negative for CD24 expression. Five hundred and two of 523 cases (96%) were negative and 21 cases (4%) were positive for CD44 expression. Upon clinicopathological analysis, CD133 expression was present more in male patients (P = 0.002) and in advanced T stage cancer (P = 0.024). Correlation between CD24 expression and clinicopathological factors was seen in the degree of differentiation (P = 0.006). Correlation between CD44 expression and clinicopathological factors was seen in the tumor size (P = 0.001). Survival was not significantly related to CD133, CD24 and CD44 expression.",
"Despite significant advances in the use of diagnosis and therapy to treat head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC), the prognosis has improved only marginally in the last decades. Thus, there is an enormous need for better understanding of tumor biology and reversely novel immunotherapeutic approaches. It is becoming increasingly obvious that stem cells play an important role in tumor development and progression. The identity of these cells and the underlying cellular and molecular mechanisms are mostly unknown in HNSCC to date. Solid HNSCC tumors, as well as permanent HNSCC cell lines, were analyzed by flow cytometry concerning the expression of different putative stem cell marker proteins. Distinct populations of CD44 expressing potential stem cells could be identified in solid tumors of HNSCC patients with strong individual deviations. Surprisingly, the potential stem cell marker CD44 was found to be constitutively expressed on the surface of all the permanent HNSCC cell lines analyzed.",
"The CD44 transmembrane glycoproteins play multifaceted roles in tumor progression and metastasis. CD44 expression has also been associated with stem-like breast cancer cells. Hypoxia commonly occurs in tumors and is a major cause of radiation and chemo-resistance. Hypoxia is known to inhibit differentiation and facilitates invasion and metastasis. Here we have investigated the effect of hypoxia on CD44 and two of its isoforms in MDA-MB-231 and SUM-149 triple negative human breast cancer cells and MDA-MB-231 tumors using imaging and molecular characterization. The roles of hypoxia and hypoxia inducible factor (HIF) in regulating the expression of CD44 and its variant isoforms (CD44v6, CD44v7/8) were investigated in human breast cancer cells, by quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR) to determine mRNA levels, and fluorescence associated cell sorting (FACS) to determine cell surface expression of CD44, under normoxic and hypoxic conditions. In vivo imaging studies with tumor xenografts derived from MDA-MD-231 cells engineered to express tdTomato red fluorescence protein under regulation of hypoxia response elements identified co-localization between hypoxic fluorescent regions and increased concentration of (125)I-radiolabeled CD44 antibody.",
"Since CD44 is involved in activation, proliferation, rolling and extravasation of lymphocytes, we hypothesized that it could be involved in the pathophysiology of acute renal allograft rejection. Plasma and peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) were collected from patients 24 h prior to transplantation and analysed retrospectively. Soluble CD44, interleukin-2 receptor (IL-2R), intracellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) and C-reactive protein (CRP) in plasma were determined by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). Cellular CD44 expression on peripheral lymphocytes was determined by flow cytometric analysis. Patients who later developed renal allograft rejection had statistically significantly increased soluble CD44 levels, but not soluble ICAM-1, IL-2R or CRP in plasma prior to transplantation. In addition, cellular CD44 on T-lymphocytes was decreased 24 h prior to transplantation in patients that would reject their allograft, compared with patients without rejection. Additionally, plasma CD44 and cellular CD44 revealed an inversely proportional correlation. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)-induced immune activation did not influence plasma or cellular CD44 levels in healthy volunteers, suggesting that more specific factors influence the shedding of CD44 on T lymphocytes, leading to increased risk of renal allograft rejection.",
"yes. This study reveals that the CD44 receptor, which is commonly overexpressed in GBM tumors, is critical for cell adhesion, invasion, and mechanosensing of an HA-based matrix.",
"yes. CD44v6 is a more useful marker for predicting a poor prognosis in stage II and stage III sporadic CRC as compared to CD44.",
"Angiogenesis is essential for malignancies growth. CD105 is a proliferation-associated protein abundantly expressed in angiogenic endothelial cells. The aim of this study has been to determine the expression of CD105 in laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) and to investigate the role of CD105-assessed mean vascular density (MVD) in predicting patients' prognosis. The sections of 43 consecutive cases of laryngeal SCC were stained with mouse monoclonal antibody CD105. All the measures were performed by a computer-based image analysis system. The percentage of the fields occupied by CD105-assessed micro-vessels was determined. The mean CD105-assessed MVD were 11% and 6% in laryngeal SCC with and without malignancy recurrence, respectively. Multivariate logistic regression stated that CD105-assessed MVD was significantly related to disease recurrence (p=0.030).",
"yes. CD44v9 mRNA in the CTCs of colorectal cancer is useful as a factor predicting recurrence, prognosis, and treatment efficacy.",
"yes. These results suggest that serum CD44v6 is significantly reduced in pancreatic carcinoma patients and could serve as a good prognostic marker for patients with this disease.",
"yes. CD44 is an early mediator of atherogenesis by virtue of its ability to regulate vascular gene expression in response to a proatherogenic environment.",
"yes. CD105 expression but not VEGFR2 expression correlated with carcinoma recurrence after treatment and shorter disease free interval. The CD105 expression may be useful to detect cervical node-negative patients with a higher risk of early laryngeal carcinoma recurrence.",
"Infection with Helicobacter pylori is the main risk factor for development of gastric cancer. CD44 overexpression, especially that of variant 9 (CD44v9), has also been implicated in the local inflammatory response and metaplasia-carcinoma sequence in human stomach. We recently identified miR-328 as one of the microRNAs targeting CD44 in gastric cancer. The aim of the current study was to determine the relationship between miR-328 and CD44v9 expression in H. pylori-infected gastric mucosa during the development of preneoplastic lesions. Immunohistochemical staining of myeloperoxidase and CD44v9 was performed using paraffin-embedded tissue sections obtained from 54 patients who underwent gastric resection without preoperative treatment. The levels of miR-328 expression in the gastric mucosa were measured in the same patients using quantitative reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction. Both infiltration of myeloperoxidase-positive inflammatory cells and expression of proinflammatory cytokines closely correlated with H. pylori infection in the cancer-afflicted gastric mucosa. High CD44v9 expression levels, identified in the gastric mucosa in 61 % of samples (33/54), correlated significantly with H. pylori infection in the gastric mucosa. Notably, high CD44v9 expression was significantly associated with low miR-328 expression, whereas low CD44v9 expression was significantly associated with high miR-328 expression.",
"Variant CD44 splice products, especially CD44 variant 6 (CD44v6), are expressed on activated lymphocytes and tumor cells. The soluble forms of CD44 standard (CD44s) and CD44v6 are present in the serum of normal individuals. The aim of the current study was to evaluate the concentrations and the prognostic potential of soluble CD44s and CD44v6 in patients with pancreatic carcinoma. The serum CD44s and CD44v6 levels were determined quantitatively by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The molecular mass of CD44v6 isoforms was determined by immunoprecipitation and Western blot analysis. CD44 mRNAs were analyzed by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction followed by exon specific analysis. Both serum CD44s and serum CD44v6 were significantly reduced in patients with pancreatic carcinoma (n = 93, P < 0.001 and P < 0.00005). The median survival in the group with CD44v6 serum concentrations below 100 ng/mL was significantly decreased compared with that in the group with serum concentrations higher than 100 ng/mL (6.7 vs. 15.1 months, P < 0.0005). The isoforms containing soluble CD44v6 (sCD44v6) that were detected in the sera of pancreatic carcinoma patients showed molecular masses comparable to the sCD44v6 isoforms detected in the supernatant of lymphocytes activated by phorbol myestral acetate, whereas the sCD44v6 isoforms detected in the supernatant of pancreatic carcinoma cell lines exhibited higher molecular masses.",
"Expression of CD44 variant (v) isoforms substantiates poor prognosis in patients with hematological malignancies. We have previously shown that CD44v6 expression in diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) correlates with advanced disease stage and is predominantly detected in non-germinal center B-cell-like DLBCL subtypes. With the growing number of associated molecules found to form functional complexes with CD44, we analyzed a larger cohort of cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisone, and equivalently treated DLBCL patients to define the prognostic role of such CD44-associated molecules. Two-hundred and ninety formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded primary DLBCL tissue samples were analyzed in tissue microarrays. To obtain potential biologically meaningful associations, optimal cutoff values were established by receiver operating characteristic curves. The prognostic significance of every possible multimarker phenotype was also addressed. We showed that coexpression of any of the CD44v with the receptor for hyaluronic acid-mediated motility (RHAMM, CD168) identifies a subgroup of DLBCL patients with a very poor prognosis, independent of the International Prognostic Index. These patients did not show C-MYC translocations or amplifications. CD44v-RHAMM coexpression was most prevalent in non-germinal center DLBCL cases and usually coincided with expression of osteopontin.",
"A recent study reported increased epithelial expression of CD44 variants in ulcerative colitis (UC) compared with Crohn's disease (CD). However, the use of CD44 expression for diagnostic purposes in inflammatory bowel disease has been controversial, and the meaning of the appearance of CD44 variants in epithelial colonic cells remains unknown. We investigated the relationship between CD44 isoform expression and crypt cell proliferation in paediatric colitis. The expression of CD44v3, CD44v6, and MIB1 (proliferation marker) was studied by immunohistochemistry on surgical colonic samples of UC (n = 13), CD (n = 10), colostomy resections with non-specific mucosal inflammation (NSMI) (n = 3), and normal controls (N = 5). The proliferation index (% of MIB1 positive cells) was assessed in both v6 positive and v6 negative crypts. Epithelial expression of CD44v3 and v6, negative in normal controls, was variable and focal in colitis. No preferential expression of CD44 variants was found in UC. The proliferation index was dramatically increased in v6 positive crypts compared with v6 negative crypts in UC, CD and NSMI.",
"In order to predict long-term prognosis and define individual treatment modalities for patients with oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC), more reliable tumor biomarkers are needed during the pretreatment workup period. The present study aimed to identify more reliable immunohistochemical tumor prognostic markers in the pretreatment biopsy specimens of patients with OSCC. We selected 57 patients who were diagnosed with primary OSCC through histopathological analysis. Pretreatment biopsy specimens were immunohistochemically analyzed for the transcription factor NANOG, cancer stem cell marker CD44, and mutant tumor protein 53 (mutant p53). The immunostaining patterns were assessed for their association with the clinicopathological features of OSCC and overall survival rates. Late tumor stage, positive neck node metastasis, and high-grade differentiation were associated with significantly poorer survival rates. Enhanced expression of NANOG and mutant p53 positivity were significantly associated with clinically late-stage tumors, positive neck node metastasis, histologically high-grade tumors, and poor overall survival rates. OSCCs with strong co-detection of NANOG and mutant p53 were linked to significantly lower survival rates than those with both weak NANOG expression and p53 negativity. Increased expression of CD44 had a limited correlation with unfavorable clinicopathological features.",
"The expression of the CD44 variant exon 9 (CD44v9) was investigated in order to elucidate its significance for cancer stem cells in circulating human colorectal cancer cells (CTCs). After peripheral blood was drawn from patients with colorectal cancer, CTCs were collected. Using the reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction method, we examined the relationship between expression of CD44v9 mRNA and prognosis. In 60 out of 150 patients with colorectal cancer, expression of CD44v9 mRNA was positive in CTCs. In patients with stage III disease, the 5-year survival rate was 89% for patients with negative CD44v9 expression, whereas it was 52.4% in patients with positive expression (p<0.05). In patients with stage IV unresectable cancer, the 2-year survival rate was 70.1% in cases with CD44v9-negative expression and 33.3% in cases of positive expression (p<0.05).",
"Mucoepidermoid carcinoma (MEC) is the most common salivary gland malignancy and is successfully treated by surgery and radiation. However, some patients have recurrent tumours and in these cases, few treatments options are available. Cancer stem cells (CSC) have been observed and isolated from different solid tumours based on the expression of stem cell markers. These cells are associated with tumour initiation, progression as well as treatment resistance. In this study, the expression of stem cell markers CD44, Bmi1, Oct4 and Nanog was evaluated in non-neoplastic salivary tissue and in MEC. Twenty-eight samples of MEC and their corresponding non-neoplastic salivary tissue were examined by immunohistochemistry and the stem cell markers expression was correlated with histological and clinical parameters. CD44 was expressed in the membrane of serous and mucous acini as well as in the ductal cells in normal gland tissue. Bmi1, Oct4 and Nanog were mainly expressed in ductal structures. In MEC, CD44 and Bmi1 showed strong expression in all types of neoplastic cells and both markers revealed intense expression in tumour invasive front. Oct4 and Nanog protein expression was associated with desmoplasia and perineural invasion. Only Oct4 positive tumours were associated with dissociative growth pattern and committed margins.",
"yes. The expression of CD44 was not found to correlate with survival, local recurrence or metastatic ability. In synovial sarcoma, CD44 and variant isoform expression appears to be associated with the degree of epithelial differentiation. CD44 expression in synovial sarcoma shows interesting similarities to CD44 expression in embryological epitheliogenesis.",
"yes. These data indicate that CD44v6 is involved in the response to NAC, and eventually in disease outcome. This implicates that the assessment of CD44v6 expression might help in selecting patients who are likely to respond to NAC, i. e., women with significantly reduced CD44v6 expression in their tumors before treatment. Noteworthy, the response to NAC did not predict a favorable disease outcome.",
"In a recent pilot report, we showed that Smac/DIABLO mRNA is expressed de novo in a subset of cervical cancer patients. We have now expanded this study and analyzed Smac/DIABLO expression in the primary lesions in 109 cervical cancer patients. We used immunohistochemistry of formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue sections to analyze Smac/DIABLO expression in the 109 primary lesions. Seventy-eight samples corresponded to epidermoid cervical cancer and 31 to cervical adenocarcinoma. The median follow up was 46.86 months (range 10-186). Smac/DIABLO was expressed in more adenocarcinoma samples than squamous tumours (71% vs 50%; p = 0.037). Among the pathological variables, a positive correlation was found between Smac/DIABLO immunoreactivity and microvascular density, a marker for angiogenesis (p = 0.04). Most importantly, Smac/DIABLO immunoreactivity was associated with a higher rate of local recurrence in squamous cell carcinoma (p = 0.002, log rank test). No association was found between Smac/DIABLO and survival rates.",
"This investigation has enhanced our understanding of cell invasion and confirmed CD44 to play a more significant role in this biological process than CD155. Joint CD44/CD155 approaches may, however, merit further study in therapeutic targeting of infiltrating glioma cells.",
"Tissue overexpression of CD44 variants, especially CD44v6, and elevated serum concentrations of soluble CD44 variants (sCD44) have been demonstrated in patients with colorectal cancer and several other tumors. Our aim was to evaluate the clinical value of their measurement in colorectal cancer. To examine the suitability of sCD44 and sCD44v6 as tumor markers in colorectal cancer these parameters were analyzed in serum of patients with colorectal cancer, inflammatory bowel disease, chronic renal failure, and controls. Tissue expression of CD44v6 in colorectal carcinomas was investigated by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR). sCD44 and sCD44v6 levels were significantly elevated in most of the patient groups (medians, sCD44: 330-709 ng/ml; sCD44v6: 125-160 ng/ml) compared to controls (sCD44: 346 ng/ml; sCD44v6: 106.5 ng/ml). No difference was seen between colorectal cancer patients of different UICC (Union Internationale Contre le Cancer) stages and between patients with CD44v6-positive or -negative primary tumors.",
"yes. The results suggest that CD44v8-10 plays a role in metastasis of colorectal cancer, and tha CD44v8-10 expression may be a biologic marker of prognostic significance.",
"yes. These results indicate that CD44 is a robust marker and is of functional importance for colorectal CSC for cancer initiation.",
"The transmembrane glycoprotein CD44 is referred to by many names, which are related to the polymorphism of this molecule. There are at least 10 different versions of the CD44 molecule. This polymorphism results from the insertion of extra domains into the extracellular part of the molecule and from different glycolization. These extra domains are coded by variable exons in the gene of CD44, which can be alternatively spliced. Some authors have postulated a link between expression of whole CD44 or some special molecule versions (often with the product of exon v6) on carcinoma cells and the potential of metastatic spread. The aim of our investigation was to look for this connection in larynx carcinomas. We have tested 28 larynx carcinomas without metastases, 26 with metastases, and 20 lymph node metastases from larynx carcinomas with antibodies against the products of exon v5 and v6 in immunohistochemical studies of paraffin sections. In all cases we observed nearly the same staining intensity of exon v5 and v6 products. There was no significant difference between carcinomas with and without metastases or the lymph node metastases. However, a strong difference of reaction was found between the carcinoma cells of the outer proliferative tumor areas and the inner tumor areas, which were cornified in parts. Whereas the first mentioned cells generally stained very intensively, the latter showed only a slight reaction or none at all.",
"Currently, it is difficult to predict the prognosis of patients exhibiting stage II or stage III colorectal cancer (CRC) and to identify those patients most likely to benefit from aggressive treatment. The current study was performed to examine the clinicopathological significance of CD44 and CD44v6 protein expression in these patients. We retrospectively investigated 187 consecutive patients who underwent surgery with curative intent for stage II to III CRC from 2007 to 2013 in the Beijing Civil Aviation Hospital. CD44 and CD44v6 protein expression levels were determined using immunohistochemistry and compared to the clinicopathological data. Using immunohistochemical detection, CD44 expression was observed in 108 (57.75%) of the CRC patients; and its detection was significantly associated with greater invasion depth, lymph node metastasis, angiolymphatic invasion, and a more advanced pathological tumor-lymph node-metastasis (TNM) stage. CD44v6 expression was observed in 135 (72.19%) of the CRC patients; and its expression was significantly associated with a poorly differentiated histology, greater invasion depth, lymph node metastasis, angiolymphatic invasion, and a more advanced pathological TNM stage. Expression of CD44v6 was higher than that of CD44 in stage II and stage III sporadic CRC.",
"There is a lack of consensus regarding the role of CD44 variants in colorectal cancer, with conflicting reports regarding their expression and correlation with prognosis. We investigated the expression and prognostic significance of CD44v6 protein in our series of colorectal tumour specimens and then analysed the pattern of CD44 variant mRNA transcript expression in a smaller series of colorectal tumour/normal tissue specimens, thus assessing what our data contributes to this debate. Immunohistochemistry was used to detect CD44v6 protein expression, while reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction in combination with Southern blotting was used to analyse CD44 mRNA transcript expression. Similar levels of expression of CD44v6 protein were observed in each of the Dukes' stages, ranging from 50% to 67%, indicating no correlation with progression of disease or survival rates. CD44 variant mRNA expression was found in 85% of the tumours and 75% of the normal specimens. The majority of tumours expressed each of the variants. The pattern of variant expression was maintained in the corresponding normal tissue in nearly one-half (47%) of the tumour specimens. A sequential pattern of variant expression was observed in the majority of specimens. There was no association between CD44 variant mRNA expression and Dukes' stage, tumour differentiation or survival.",
"yes. CD44v6, chromogranin A, and possibly gamma-enolase and cytokeratin (CAM 5.2) help differentiate small cell carcinoma from urothelial carcinoma.",
"yes. Moesin expression and CD44 expression might be useful markers of poor prognosis in gastric adenocarcinoma.",
"yes. We found that CD9, strongly expressed by cells forming the basal layer of normal squamous epithelium of the cervix, is down-regulated in most invasive cervical carcinomas (correlation with stage, P = 0.015) but apparently re-expressed at distinct regions during tumor progression. Tumor sites with pronounced localized expression of CD9 (CD9 hotspots) include cones growing into blood or lymphatic vessels, pointing to a functional role of CD9 in transendothelial migration as a crucial step in the formation of lymph node metastases. Remarkably, CD9 hotspots were found to be a highly significant (P < 10(-5)) indicator of lymphangiosis: they were observed in 15 of 18 cases with histopathologically confirmed lymphangiosis compared with 4 of 26 other cervical carcinomas. We postulate, therefore, that clusters of tumor cells characterized by strong expression of CD9 may be useful as an indicator of high risk of recurrence in early-stage cervical cancer, providing a basis for clinical decisions in favor of additional treatment.",
"Invasion and metastases of cancer cells and the development of resistance to anticancer therapies are the main causes of treatment failure and mortality in cancer patients. We evaluated invasive markers of urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) and CD44 and multiple drug-resistance (MDR) markers of MDR1 and MRP2 in four epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC) cell lines, primary tumours (n=120) and matched metastatic lesions (n=40) by immunofluoresence labelling. We correlated uPA and CD44 with MDR markers in primary and metastatic cells using confocal microscope. We also investigated the relationship of the expression of uPA, CD44 and MDR1 with various progression parameters. The coexpression of uPA and CD44 with MDR markers was found in primary and metastatic cells. The overexpression of uPA, CD44 and MDR1 was found in most primary and matched metastatic lesions of EOC, and was significantly associated with tumour stage, grade, residual disease status, relapse and presence of ascites (P<0.05), but not with histology type (P>0.05).",
"yes. We demonstrated, for the first time, that breast cancer cell CD44v4 is a major E-selectin ligand in facilitating tumor cell migration across endothelial monolayers. This finding offers new insights into the molecular basis of E-selectin-dependent adhesive interactions that mediate breast cancer cell transendothelial metastasis.",
"Lack of the adhesion molecule CD44 reduces collateral artery growth (arteriogenesis) in a murine hindlimb model. CD44 function is influenced by expression of 10 alternatively spliced exons (v1-v10), with unknown effects on arteriogenesis. As the variant exon CD44v3 binds heparan sulphate and facilitates preservation of growth factors, we hypothesized that the variably spliced exon region of CD44, especially exon CD44v3, is involved in arteriogenesis. The right femoral artery of C57BL/6J-mice was ligated and tissue was processed for histological and qPCR analysis of CD44-isoform expression. Microsphere perfusion measurements were performed in mice lacking the variably spliced exon region (CD44s knock-in mice), and in knock-in strains with specific isoform expression (CD44v3-10 and CD44v4-10), as well as in double knock-in mice, expressing CD44v3-10 and CD44s. Expression of total CD44 and CD44v3 mRNA following femoral artery ligation was increased, accompanied by increased mRNA levels of the CD44-relevant splicing factors Tra2-beta1 and SRm160. CD44v3-expression was limited to the vessel wall of growing collateral arteries. Perfusion restoration was significantly reduced in mice lacking the variably spliced exon region (CD44s):20.1 ± 1.3%, compared to the background strain: 57.3 ± 2.2%. Mice expressing exon v3 (CD44v3-10) showed perfusion percentages of 25.9 ± 1.1%, compared to mice lacking this exon (CD44v4-10):19.1 ± 0.7%. Combined expression of CD44v3 and CD44s further improved perfusion restoration: 33.1 ± 2.6%.",
"To evaluate the role of CD44 in early steps in the development of prostate cancer, and to assess the biological significance of preneoplastic lesions in prostate cancer. 38 patients with clinically localised prostate cancer were studied. The standard form of CD44 (CD44H) and v6 isoform expressions were semiquantitatively evaluated on paraffin embedded tumour tissue by immunohistochemistry. Disseminated prostatic cells were detected by prostate specific membrane antigen reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction in the blood of each patient before radical prostatectomy. In normal or benign prostate glands, only basal cells showed CD44H and v6 labelling. Fourteen of the 38 prostate cancers (37%) had CD44H membranous staining of prostatic tumour cells. In 18 patients (47%), circulating prostatic cells were detected in blood before surgery. Although no correlation between the expression of CD44 and the Gleason score or staging was observed, a significant correlation was found between the expression of CD44H by tumour cells and prostatic cell blood dissemination (p = 0.04). In 28 cases, foci of prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia were observed, and nine had CD44H immunostaining.",
"yes. Immunohistochemical expression of CD44s was associated with important clinical variables such as stage and Fuhrman grade. However, it was not an independent predictor of survival. Therefore, we believe it has a limited role as a prognostic marker in patients with CCRCC.",
"Theclinical efficacy of neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NAC) in distinct groups of cervical cancer patients has been well documented, but parameters at the cellular level regulating the different responsiveness to this treatment have not been adequately explored. A series of 21 patients with stage Ib and IIa bulky cervical carcinomas were treated by preoperative NAC with three courses of cisplatin, epirubicin, etoposide, and bleomycin prior to radical hysterectomy, and subsequently followed up for a mean of 52.3 months. Biopsies taken prior to NAC and operative specimens were subjected to immunohistochemical (IHC) staining for alpha-catenin, beta-catenin, E-cadherin, and CD44 isoform 6 (CD44v6), to uncover the role of adhesion molecules as determinants of the response to NAC and disease outcome. Seven of the twenty-one (33.3%) women died of the disease; adenosquamous (n = 4 cases) histology (RR 4.50, 95% CI 1.85-10.68) and lymph node involvement (RR 6.00, 95% CI 0.42-85.26) were significant determinants of nonsurvival. All 21 carcinomas were human papillomavirus DNA positive. The factors predicting the response to NAC in univariate analysis were: CD44v6 expression in the pre-NAC and post-NAC samples (P = 0.00056 and P = 0.00336, respectively). In multiple logistic regression analysis, the factors with independent predictive value for response to NAC were CD44v6 expression prior to (P = 0.0099) and after (P = 0.0470) NAC. In univariate survival analysis, the most significant (P < 0. 001) predictors of recurrence-free survival (RFS) were age and number of lymph nodes removed. In multivariate survival analysis, the independent predictor for RFS was only histological type (P = 0. 0064). Overall survival (OS) was predicted in a Cox model by recurrence (P = 0.0033), CD44v6 expression after NAC (P = 0.013), and patient's age (P = 0.039).",
"The CD44 is a cell adhesion molecule that is present as numerous isoforms created by mRNA alternative splicing. Expression of variant isoforms of CD44 is associated with tumor growth and metastasis. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether CD44 isoform expression is a prognostic factor in gastric and colorectal cancer. We performed a polymerase chain reaction analysis following reverse transcriptase treatment for CD44 expression in fresh surgical specimens obtained from 25 colon carcinomas and 30 gastric carcinomas and matched adjacent normal mucosa. We determined the epithelial variant/hematopoietic variant (E/H) ratio (the amount of the CD44 epithelial variant transcript relative to the CD44 hematopoietic variant transcript) in cancer tissues and examined it for correlations with clinicopathological parameters and survival rate. The E/H ratio in tumor tissue was significantly higher than that in adjacent non-cancerous mucosa. In gastric and colorectal cancer tissues, there was no significant relationship between E/H ratio and clinicopathological parameters. However, patients who died due to tumor recurrence had a higher E/H ratio than surviving patients with colorectal cancer. In gastric cancer, patients with high E/H tumors had a shorter survival time than those with low E/H tumors.",
"Prostate cancer (CaP) is the second leading malignancy in older men in Western countries. The role of CD44 variant 6 (CD44v6) in CaP progression and therapeutic resistance is still uncertain. Here, we investigated the roles of CD44v6 in CaP metastasis and chemo/radioresistance. Expression of CD44v6 in metastatic CaP cell lines, human primary CaP tissues and lymph node metastases was assessed using immunofluorescence and immunohistochemistry, respectively. Knock down (KD) of CD44v6 was performed in PC-3M, DU145, and LNCaP cells using small interfering RNA (siRNA), and confirmed by confocal microscope, Western blot and quantitative real time polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR). Cell growth was evaluated by proliferation and colony formation assays. The adhesive ability and invasive potential were assessed using a hyaluronic acid (HA) adhesion and a matrigel chamber assay, respectively. Tumorigenesis potential and chemo-/radiosensitivity were measured by a sphere formation assay and a colony assay, respectively. Over-expression of CD44v6 was found in primary CaP tissues and lymph node metastases including cancer cells and surrounding stromal cells. KD of CD44v6 suppressed CaP proliferative, invasive and adhesive abilities, reduced sphere formation, enhanced chemo-/radiosensitivity, and down-regulated epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT), PI3K/Akt/mTOR, and Wnt/β-catenin signaling pathway proteins in vitro.",
"These findings strongly suggest that CD44v6 expression is a late phenomenon in the transformation of intestinal metaplasia to dysplasia/cancer. It may therefore be a useful marker of cancer risk in patients with intestinal metaplasia.",
"yes. Absent CD44v6 expression is an independent adverse predictor of urothelial bladder cancer recurrence and overall survival. Routine evaluation of CD44v6 expression may allow the identification of high risk patients who require more intensive surveillance or aggressive therapy. Targeting of CD44v6 with monoclonal antibodies may provide new avenues for urothelial bladder cancer imaging and treatment.",
"To analyze the immunohistochemical expression of the standard isoform of CD44 (CD44s) adhesion molecule in clear cell renal cell carcinoma (CCRCC) and its impact on clinical outcomes. Ninety-nine consecutive patients treated surgically for RCC between 1992 and 2009 were selected. A single pathologist reviewed all cases to effect a uniform reclassification and determine the most representative tumor areas for construction of a tissue microarray. The same pathologist, who was blinded to the outcome of the cases, semi-quantitatively scored the staining intensity of CD44s in all specimens. The counting was done using the H-Score algorithm. Of the 99 immunostained RCC specimens, 57(57.7 %) showed low expression, and 42(42.4 %) showed high expression levels of CD44s. The expression of CD44s was directly associated with tumor size (p = 0.03), clinical stage (p = 0.02) and Fuhrman grade (p = 0.02). Disease specifi c survival (DSS) rates for patients whose specimens expressed low and high levels of CD44s was 88.1 % and 67.5 %, respectively (p = 0.009). Progression free survival (PFS) rates in patients with low and high expression of CD44s were 78.8 % and 61.7 %, respectively (p = 0.05). Classical features such as the presence of metastasis and clinical stage remained isolated predictors of survival.",
"yes. Our findings demonstrate that CD44v6 is an important cancer stem cell-like marker associated with CaP proliferation, invasion, adhesion, metastasis, chemo-/radioresistance, and the induction of EMT as well as the activation PI3K/Akt/mTOR and Wnt signaling pathways, suggesting that CD44v6 is a novel therapeutic target to sensitize CaP cells to chemo/radiotherapy.",
"The clinical and prognostic significance of CD44 variant isoform expression in nasopharyngeal carcinoma is not well known. This study aimed to clarify whether CD44 variant isoform expression serves as a prognostic factor in nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Forty-two nasopharyngeal carcinoma patients, who underwent concurrent chemoradiotherapy as the initial treatment, were the subjects of investigation. Expression of CD44 variant isoforms, CD44v3, CD44v4, CD44v5, CD44v6 and CD44v7, in nasopharyngeal carcinoma was assessed in relation to concurrent chemoradiotherapy resistance and disease-specific survival of the patients.",
"The functional consequences of reintroduction of the CD44H cell adhesion molecule into colon carcinomas were investigated. CD44 is a cell surface adhesion molecule that is normally present in numerous isoforms as a result of messenger RNA alternative splicing. Individual CD44 isoforms differ in their ability to enhance tumorigenic or metastatic potential when overexpressed on tumor cells. Reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction analysis demonstrates that CD44H is down-regulated during transformation of normal colon mucosa to carcinoma. The functional consequences of CD44H down-regulation in colon carcinomas has not been clarified. Tumor cell lines and fresh tissue specimens were examined for CD44 expression by Western blot analysis. CD44H cDNA and site-directed mutants of CD44H cDNA were transfected into colon carcinoma cells. Stable transfectants were examined for adhesion to hyaluronate, in vitro growth, and in vivo growth. CD44H expression was nearly undetectable in primary colon carcinomas and colon carcinoma cell lines. In contrast, normal mucosa expressed high levels of CD44H. When CD44H was reintroduced into colon carcinoma cells, their in vitro and in vivo growth was significantly reduced. This CD44H-mediated growth rate reduction required an intact cytoplasmic domain.",
"yes. We found that CD44v6+, CD44v9+ and CD44s- were associated with pancreatic carcinoma metastasis and progression and that CD44v6+/CD44s- was an independent risk factor affecting survival in pancreatic carcinoma. Therefore, the different expression patterns of CD44v/CD44s may determine pancreatic carcinoma prognosis.",
"Expression of matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)-7 and MMP-9 is low in the normal epidermis and is induced by physiological processes such as wound healing, but also malignant transformation of epidermal cells. The activity of both MMPs has been associated with the hyaluronan (HA) receptor CD44. We previously reported that the levels of CD44 and HA differ between the two types of epidermal tumours, basal (BCC) and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), as well as between different grades of SCC. To investigate if the immunostaining patterns of MMP-7 and MMP-9 correlate to those of CD44 and HA in BCC and SCC. Paraffin sections from 71 BCCs, 21 in situ SCCs and 27 SCCs were immunostained for MMP-7 and -9. Positive immunostaining for MMP-7 and MMP-9 was found in tumour cells of both BCC and SCC, while the staining intensity tended to be stronger in SCC. The staining intensity of MMP-7 was inversely correlated with that of CD44 in both tumour types. In well-differentiated SCC, the intensity of MMP-7 was generally weak, while CD44 staining was strong and homogeneously distributed. In poorly differentiated SCC, an increase in MMP-7 was seen, and the staining intensity of CD44 became weak and was locally absent. No correlation was seen between MMP-9 and CD44 or either of the two MMPs and HA.",
"HA (hyaluronan) is involved in cell migration, differentiation and cell proliferation, which all are essential to tumour growth. In addition, the cell surface receptor of HA, CD44, is important in cancer cell adhesion, cell migration and tumour neovascularisation. We studied the expression of HA and CD44 and their relationship with other prognostic factors and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) recurrence in local prostate cancer (PC). 77 PC patients treated with radical prostatectomy were followed-up for a mean of 4 years. HA was detected by using a HA specific probe and CD44 expression was analysed by conventional immunohistochemistry. All specimens expressed HA in tumour stroma and 78% (60/77) of the tumours showed strong stromal expression of HA. The fraction of positively stained specimens for CD44 was 66% (51/77). The strong stromal HA expression was related to perineural infiltration (p = 0.001) and capsule invasion (p = 0.05). No correlation was demonstrated between the stromal HA expression and CD44 expression, preoperative PSA, clinical or pathological T classification, pN status, Gleason grade, seminal vesicle invasion or surgical margin invasion. Reduced CD44 expression was related only to preoperative PSA level (p = 0.008). The PSA recurrence was predicted by strong stromal HA expression, pT classification, seminal vesicle invasion, capsule invasion and surgical margin invasion (p <or= 0.02 for all). pT classification and seminal vesicle infiltration predicted PSA recurrence free survival (RFS). In the multivariate analysis only the seminal vesicle infiltration was an independent predictor of PSA RFS (p = 0.009).",
"yes. The patients with CD44v6 high expression showed a clinically incomplete response to concurrent chemoradiotherapy at the primary site. The disease-specific survival rate was lower in patients with high expression of CD44v3 than in those with low expression. These results suggest that analysis of CD44v6 and CD44v3 expression is useful in estimating prognosis and determining effective treatment strategies in nasopharyngeal carcinoma.",
"yes. CD44v6 expression, assessed immunohistochemically, is related to tumour progression. However, its prognostic value in renal cell tumours is dependent on tumour stage at diagnosis.",
"yes. CD44v6 is frequently expressed in advanced, high-risk MM. CD44v6 expression correlates with chromosomal band 13q14 deletions, a well-known risk factor in MM. These results suggest that this epitope is a potential new target for monoclonal antibodies such as bivatuzumab mertansine.",
"Intestinal metaplasia is a well-established risk factor in the development of stomach cancer. However, since the specificity is low it would be of great practical value to find a marker to separate cases of intestinal metaplasia into low and high risk for progression to dysplasia/carcinoma. So far this has not been achieved. CD44 is a cell surface molecule involved in cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions, and the spliced variant 6 has been shown to play a role in the progression of gastric carcinoma. The aim of this study was therefore to evaluate CD44v6 as a marker of increased cancer risk in intestinal metaplasia. The current study investigated immunohistochemical CD44v6 expression in biopsies of normal gastric mucosa (n = 154) and gastric mucosa with intestinal metaplasia (n = 127). A third group consisted of cancer gastrectomies (n = 117) in which both tumour and uninvolved mucosa was studied. Proximal (cardia) and distal (corpus/antrum) locations were noted in all cases. There was a significant sequential increase in CD44v6 expression from normal mucosa and mucosa showing intestinal metaplasia to uninvolved mucosa adjacent to cancers without and with intestinal metaplasia to tumour. The most striking increase was from 'normal' to intestinal metaplastic mucosa adjacent to cancers. There were no differences between proximal and distal cases in any group.",
"yes. Our findings warrant larger multi-institutional studies to determine the potential of CD44-9v and CD44-10v as molecular markers of disease recurrence in vulvar carcinoma. We propose to test the use of anti-CD44-9v monoclonal antibody for radioimmunoimaging of occult LN metastases.",
"In the absence of other metastatic disease, the presence of lymph node metastasis remains the most important determinant of survival in colorectal cancer (CRC). Cluster designation 44 variant 6 (CD44v6) over-expression is associated with worse outcome in all stages of CRC. The CD44v6 is believed to confer metastatic potential through its facilitation of migration, extravasation and proliferation, although the specific means by which it conveys an adverse prognosis in CRC is unknown. The aim of the present study was to determine if CD44v6 over-expression in Stage II CRC subjects was associated with the presence of lymph node micrometastases. We assessed tumour CD44v6 expression in 43 randomly sampled subjects who had resections for Stage II CRC between 1984 and 1991 by using immunohistochemistry. Micrometastases were sought in corresponding lymph node (LN) sections using keratin immunohistochemistry. There was a statistical trend between tumour CD44v6 over-expression and mortality (P = 0.09) and a significant relationship between LN cytokeratins and mortality (P = 0.01). There was no association between the detection of LN cytokeratins and tumour CD44v6 over-expression.",
"Expression of CD44 variant isoform including exon 6 has been associated to tumour progression in several carcinomas. However, no studies have been performed to assess the prognostic value of the expression of this marker in renal cell tumours. We studied 58 renal cell tumours. All patients were followed up for at least 3 years after nephrectomy. Tumours were analysed for expression of CD44v6 assessed by two isoform-specific monoclonal antibodies. RT-PCR was performed to detect CD44 variant transcripts in 10 cases in which immunohistochemistry was negative. Twenty-two tumours showed reactivity in at least 1% cells for both antibodies with a strong membrane pattern. RT-PCR did not show CD44v6 transcripts in any of 10 studied tumours. Immunohistochemical staining was more frequent in perivascular areas or in areas of vascular invasion. In fact, CD44v6 expression correlated well with nuclear grade (P = 0.009), stage at diagnosis (P = 0.04) and appearance of metastasis after nephrectomy (P = 0.007). Although univariate survival analysis showed stage (P < 0.001), grade (P = 0.009) and CD44v6 expression (P = 0.04) to be significant predictive factors, only stage remained significant (P = 0.0013) in the multivariate analysis.",
"Certain alternatively spliced exons of CD44 gene have been associated with specific functions. However, these functions may have come from inclusion of a central array of alternatively spliced exons, rather than a single one. The goals of this study were to analyze all of the variant exons included by alternative splicing, the entire population of CD44 mRNA transcripts, and the prognostic implications of CD44 mRNA and protein isoforms expressed by non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC). Using a polymerase chain reaction protocol with short reaction times, we amplified, sequenced and quantified CD44 mRNA transcripts from 52 samples of NSCLC to determine the splicing patterns of alternatively included exons and the proportion of each CD44 mRNA transcript. The expression of CD44 standard form and variant isoforms CD44v3 and CD44v6 were also analyzed by immunohistochemistry (IHC). Normal lung and NSCLC expressed CD44 mRNA transcripts containing variant exons v10, v8-10, v6-10, v3-10 and v2-10. In squamous cell carcinoma, the expression rates of these mRNA transcripts were equal to or higher than those of the normal lung, and the splicing pattern was not associated with disease progression. In adenocarcinoma, the expression rates of CD44v6-10, v3-10 and v2-10 mRNA were lower than in normal lung. The down-regulation of CD44v6-10, CD44v3-10 mRNA and CD44v6 protein paralleled the progression of adenocarcinoma. Recurrence of adenocarcinoma was associated with negative expression of CD44v6-10 or CD44v3-10 mRNA, and with low-level expression of CD44v6 or CD44v3 by IHC. Negative expression of CD44v6-10 mRNA and reduced expression of CD44 v6 protein were associated with a shorter disease-free and overall survival in the univariate but not the multivariate analysis.",
"Despite advances in therapy, lung cancer is still the leading cause of cancer-related mortality in the world. Further prognostic tools are warranted for risk-adapted therapeutic decisions. We analysed a cohort of primary surgically treated non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) to determine the prognostic role of CD44 and associated molecules (receptor for hyaluronic acid-mediated motility (RHAMM), CD95, osteopontin (OPN), P-glycoprotein (P-gp) and caspase 3 (Casp3)). CD44 is a cell adhesion molecule. While the standard form (CD44s) is ubiquitously expressed, its variant isoforms are claimed to play an important role in invasion and metastasis in various cancers. Three-hundred and eighty-three primary surgically resected NSCLC specimens were brought into a standardised tissue microarray platform. Immunohistochemistry for CD44, CD95, RHAMM, OPN, P-gp and Casp3 was performed. The clinical correlation was made with known histopathological, phenotypical and genotypical variables; clinical data were available for a postoperative follow-up period of up to 15 years. RHAMM expression in the subgroup of large cell carcinomas (LCC) was associated with inferior survival (p=0.000223). Median overall survival was 92 versus 18 months for RHAMM-negative and positive patients, respectively. This survival difference remained significant in both nodal negative and positive patients (pN0: p=0.013 and pN≥1: p=0.007, respectively). P-gp expression was associated with inferior survival in adenocarcinomas (ACA; p=0.013) and appeared to be a postsurgical Union International Contre le Cancer (pUICC)- stage and gender-independent prognostic factor, irrespective of adjuvant chemotherapy, in the multivariable analysis; considering nodal status, this survival difference applied to pN0 cancers (p=0.026).",
"yes. Expression of CD44S and CD44-9v is a common feature of epithelial ovarian cancer cells. The lack of a significant association between CD44 variant expression and prognosis suggests that other factors may be more important in determining the clinical behavior of this disease.",
"CD44s, the standard form of CD44, has been shown to be downregulated during malignant transformation of breast cancers. It has also been reported recently to be a useful marker in differentiating between benign and malignant papillary lesions of the breast, with high expression in the former. CD44s expression in benign and malignant papillary lesions was evaluated. CD44s expression was assessed by immunohistochemistry in 101 benign papillomas and 59 papillary carcinomas (seven invasive papillary carcinomas, 41 papillary ductal carcinomas in situ, and 11 ductal carcinomas involving papillomas). Patients' age and tumour size were significantly different between the papilloma and papillary carcinoma groups (p < 0.0001). CD44s showed positive staining in 45 papillomas (45%) and five papillary carcinomas (8%), and the difference was significant (p < 0.0001). The myoepithelial cells, when present, were also positive for CD44s in both groups, with no observable differences. Using CD44s positive staining to differentiate between benign and malignant papillary lesions gives a sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of 45%, 92%, and 62%, respectively.",
"CD44 is a transmembrane glycoprotein involved in cell-cell and cell-matrix interactions. De novo expression of CD44 and its variant isoforms has been associated with aggressive behavior in various tumors. Since few data are available concerning the role of CD44 in the biological behavior of locally confined renal tumors, we analyzed the expression of CD44 in a large set of conventional renal cell carcinomas to determine its prognostic value in association with other clinicopathologic variables. Ninety-one patients with locally confined conventional renal cell carcinomas were studied. CD44 standard form (CD44H) and v6 isoform expressions were semiquantitatively evaluated on paraffin-embedded tumor tissue by immunohistochemistry. The prognostic value of the usual clinicopathological variables and CD44 expression was tested using Kaplan-Meier plots by the log rank test and Cox multiple hazard regression analysis. No immunostaining was observed in normal renal tissue. Thirty-two of the 66 conventional renal cell carcinomas (48%) showed CD44H membranous staining of the tumor cells. Only 2 cancers displayed CD44v6 immunostaining. Among the different clinicopathological variables analyzed, tumor stage (p = 0.001), nuclear grade (p = 0.01), size (p = 0.02), vascular (p = 0.05) and perirenal adipose tissue invasion (p = 0.005), and CD44H expression (p = 0.01) were found to be significant prognostic parameters for survival using univariate analysis. Moreover, multivariate analysis indicated stage, nuclear grade and CD44 expression as independent prognostic factors both for overall and disease-free survival.",
"yes. CD44 expression, as assessed by immunohistochemical staining with anti-CD44s, may be a favorable prognostic factor in patients with node-negative invasive breast carcinoma.",
"CD44 variants have been associated with tumor invasion and metastasis, but CD44 expression patterns have not been systematically investigated in pancreatic carcinoma. This study systematically investigated whether CD44 expression patterns are involved in pancreatic carcinoma metastasis and prognosis. We applied primers specific for all CD44 variants and CD44s to analyze the expression patterns of CD44 (CD44v2-CD44v10 and CD44s) using quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR). We then further evaluated their roles in pancreatic carcinoma metastasis and prognosis using clinical survival analysis. Increased CD44v expression and decreased CD44s expression were found in metastatic pancreatic carcinoma in three different cell lines and in human tumor tissue. Clinical analysis showed that CD44v6+ and CD44v9+ were correlated with lymph node metastasis, liver metastasis and TNM stage. However, CD44s- was associated with liver metastasis, tumor differentiation and TNM stage. Survival analysis showed that patients with CD44v6+/CD44s- or CD44v6+/CD44s- had lower overall survival (OS) rates, although the individual expression of CD44v6, CD44v9 and CD44s was also related to decreased OS rates. Univariate analysis showed that lymph node metastasis; vessel invasion; hepatic metastases; TNM stage; and individual or co-expression of CD44v6, CD44v9 and CD44s were risk factors affecting survival. Multivariate analysis showed that CD44v6+/CD44s- was an independent predictor of survival.",
"Recent studies have focused on the diagnostic and prognostic significance of CD24 and CD44 expression in human cancers. This study aimed to explore changes in CD44 and CD24 expression levels in patients with gastric cancer and to assess their prognostic values. CD44 and CD24 expression levels were investigated immunohistochemically in tumor samples from 290 patients with non-cardia gastric adenocarcinoma, of whom 77 had paired adjacent normal gastric mucosa. CD24 and CD44 mRNA levels were determined by quantitative polymerase chain reaction in 34 patients. Serum anti-Helicobacter pylori IgG was detected by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. Relationships between CD44 and CD24 protein expression levels and tumor parameters were analyzed and their prognostic values were evaluated by Cox proportional hazards models. CD24 and CD44 expression levels were significantly higher in patients with gastric cancer compared with those in paired controls (45.5% vs. 0.0%, and 61.0% vs. 0.0%, P < 0.001). Among 290 patients, the overall survival rate was significantly higher in CD44(-) compared with CD44(+) patients (log-rank test, P = 0.035). However, there was no significant correlation between CD24 expression and overall survival time (log-rank test, P = 0.115). Multivariate regression analysis indicated that positive CD44 expression (P = 0.029), TNM staging (P < 0.001), and lymphovascular invasion (P = 0.016), but not CD24 expression (P = 0.065), were independent prognostic factors in gastric cancer.",
"The CD44 transmembrane glycoprotein family has been implicated in the growth and metastasis of numerous human cancers. CD44 may function in some cells through interactions with type I receptor tyrosine kinases, including erbB2. Here, we tested whether CD44 interacts with erbB2 and another type I receptor, the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), in human cervical carcinoma tissues and cell lines and whether these interactions influence erbB2 signaling. CD44, EGFR, and erbB2 colocalization were examined in 36 pT1b-pT2b cervical cancer cases and in the CaSki and SiHa cervical carcinoma cell lines by immunohistochemistry and laser scanning confocal microscopy. The role of CD44-EGFR-erbB2 interactions in erbB2 signaling was examined by immunoprecipitation and using antisense CD44 oligonucleotides. CD44, erbB2, and EGFR coexpression and colocalization were observed in 42% (15/36) of cervical carcinoma cases and in both cervical carcinoma cell lines. Colocalization occurred to an equivalent extent in all tumor grades examined. CD44 coimmunoprecipitated with erbB2 and EGFR in cervical carcinoma cell lysates, indicating that these proteins interact with each other. Reduction of CD44 expression inhibited constitutive erbB2 activity. High CD44 expression was linked to EGFR activity using dominant negative EGFR, suggesting that type I receptors may autoregulate their activity in these cells.",
"Extravillous trophoblast (EVT) cell invasion plays a crucial role in establishment of successful pregnancy. CD44, a cell-surface receptor for hyaluronic acid (HA), plays a key role in HA-mediated remodeling and degradation that triggers cancer cell invasion. However, few studies have reported on the expression or functions of CD44 in human EVT cells. We hypothesized that CD44-HA interaction was involved in invasion by EVT cells. To test our hypothesis, we conducted in situ examinations of CD44 and HA expression in the human first-trimester placenta. We also assessed the methylation status of CD44 promoter and exon 1 regions in EVT cells. Finally, we conducted transwell cell invasion assays using EVT cell lines and EVT cells isolated from first-trimester human villous explant cultures.",
"CD44 is an adhesion molecule and represents a highly variable family of isoforms. The isoform CD44v6 has been associated with metastasis formation and poor prognosis in animal models and human colon cancer. Results of studies in primary breast cancer are relatively small and contradictory. The immunohistochemical expression of CD44v6 was studied in a series of 338 patients with primary breast tumours, uniformly staged and treated in a single center with a long median follow-up of 128 months. The prognostic significance of CD44v6 as well as the correlation with several clinicopathological features were analysed. Two hundred nineteen of 338 (64.8%) of the breast cancer were CD44v6-positive (> 5% of tumour cells with positive staining). CD44v6 expression had no value for prognosticating disease-free or overall survival at this or any other cut-off point.",
"to investigate the role of CD- 44 immunohistochemical expression within tumoural and non-tumoural tissue, aiming to understand if it can help us to predict the need of performing inguinal lymph nodes dissection to complete surgery of the penis. CD44 immunohistochemical expression was investigated in tissue specimens from 39 patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis who underwent partial or total penectomy between 1987 and 2008. Patient age, tumour size, and grade; CD44 intensity score, cytological expression, topographic and distribution pattern were evaluated by immunohistochemistry on archived material and correlated with disease-specific survival. mean patients age was 67.7 years; mean followup was 130.44 months. Bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy was performed in 14 patients; there were 8 N+ patients (23.5%). pTis-pT1 vs.> pT1 and the EAU classification of risk group resulted to be predictive of lymph nodal metastases at univariate analysis (respectively p = 0.006 and p = 0.045), but not the grading. The intensity score, cytological expression, topographic and distribution pattern of CD44 staining did not correlate with stage, grade and lymph nodes metastases. All disease related deaths occurred only in patients showing an high CD44 intratumoral expression, but this correlation is not statistically significant. Multivariate analysis showed that only lymph node metastasis was an independent prognostic factor predictive of lymph nodes metastases.",
"yes. EVT cells, but not villous trophoblast cells, in the first-trimester placenta expressed CD44. HA was strongly expressed in adventitia surrounding the spiral uterine arterial walls of the decidua. The extent of demethylation of CD44 promoter and exon 1 CpG islands was increased in EVT cells compared to those of first-trimester chorionic villi (including villous trophoblast cells), suggesting that CD44 expression was, at least in part, associated with methylation status. Data from transwell cell invasion assay with siRNA knockdown of CD44 revealed that CD44 expression significantly promoted invasion by EVT cells in an HA-dependent manner.",
"CD44 is a polymorphic family of cell surface glycoproteins with a variety of functions including participation in cell adhesion and migration as well as modulation of cell-matrix interactions. Expression of the standard form of CD44 (CD44s) and its variant isoforms has been shown in both normal and neoplastic tissue and holds promise as a prognostic indicator. The authors investigated the expression of CD44s and its v6 isoform (CD44v6) immunohistochemically in 7 fetal lungs (gestational age between 11-36 weeks) and in 80 lung tumors of various histologic types, degrees of differentiation, and clinical stages. In the fetal lung, CD44v6 was expressed as membranous and luminal staining of epithelial cells throughout gestation and basal staining of bronchial epithelium late in gestation. Nonneoplastic adult lung showed CD44v6 expression that was restricted to epithelial cells with membranous staining of basal bronchial cells and squamous metaplasia as well as basolateral membranous staining of type 2 pneumocytes. CD44s showed similar but less intense staining and was in addition present on lymphocytes and macrophages. Tumorlets and neuroepithelial bodies were CD44v6 negative. Nearly all squamous cell carcinomas (97%) were positive for CD44v6 with patterns similar to squamous metaplasia and with more intense staining at the periphery of tumor nests. Most adenocarcinomas (90%) were CD44v6 negative whereas most bronchioloalveolar cell carcinomas (71%) were CD44v6 positive with patterns similar to that in type 2 pneumocytes. Most large cell carcinomas (71%), carcinoid tumors (67%), and all small cell carcinomas were CD44v6 negative. CD44v6 expression did not correlate with clinical stage. CD44v6 expression in lymph node metastases was identical to that of the primary tumor.",
"Cluster differentiation 44 standard isoform (CD44s) is a transmembrane glycoprotein. CD44s is a known prognostic factor in various cancers, due to its involvement in tumor cell growth, invasion and metastasis. Its prognostic role, however, is debated because it can be a positive or negative prognostic factor depending on tumor type and is still an ambiguous prognostic indicator in other cancers, especially hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). We investigated the relationship between CD44s expression and survival in HCC patients. A total of 260 HCC samples were collected to generate a tissue microarray. Staining of the arrays with a primary mouse CD44s monoclonal antibody was followed by evaluation of the relationship between CD44s expression and tumor differentiation. The effect of CD44s expression on patient survival was analyzed. CD44s protein expression correlated with histological grade (most and worst Edmondson grade) of the HCC (p=0.029 and p=0.039, respectively) and adversely affected the disease free survival period based on univariate and multivariate analyses (p=0.038 and p=0.077, respectively).",
"yes. The relatively frequent ectopic expression of CD44 on ovarian cancer cells is thus related to well-differentiated, early-stage tumor and long survival of the patients. Thus, whereas CD44-expressing cancer cells may adhere and implant to the hyaluronan-positive mesothelium, at least in model systems, high expression of CD44 in the tumor does not bring about an unfavorable prognosis.",
"CD44 has been reported as a negative prognostic marker in gastric cancer. It interacts with moesin in epithelial-mesenchymal transition. To date, to our knowledge, there has been no clinical study dealing with the relationship between moesin and gastric adenocarcinoma. We analysed the expression of moesin and CD44 in gastric adenocarcinoma tissue, and correlations with clinicopathological factors. A retrospective analysis was made of 430 patients who had undergone gastrectomy at the Korea University Guro Hospital between 2002 and 2005 for gastric adenocarcinoma. Using tissue microarray and immunohistochemical staining, moesin expression was observed in 192 (44.7%) cases; it was associated significantly with poorly differentiated histology, invasion depth, lymph node metastasis, lymphatic invasion and advanced pathological TNM stage. CD44 expression was not correlated with clinicopathological features or moesin expression. Moesin expression was a strong predictor of lymph node metastasis in logistic regression analysis. Both moesin expression and CD44 expression were associated significantly with poor overall survival in univariate analysis. Furthermore, in multivariate analysis, moesin and CD44 were independent markers of poor prognosis, along with pathological TNM stage and older patient age.",
"CD44 is a hyaluronic acid receptor that exists as a standard 90-kd form (CD44S) as well as several CD44 variant isoforms produced through alternative splicing. Expression of CD44 variants is associated with clinically aggressive behavior in some human tumors. The purpose of the present study is to define the expression of CD44 variant isoforms in ovarian cancer and to investigate whether the expression of these molecules is associated with adverse prognosis. Six specimens of normal ovarian surface epithelium (NOSE) and 31 separate cases of newly diagnosed ovarian cancer were studied by a combination of reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and immunoperoxidase staining. Clinical correlation was made between CD44 variant expression and stage (I/II v III/IV), residual disease (< or = 2.0- v > 2.0-cm mass), age (< or = 65 v > 65 years), histology (papillary serous v other), grade, and survival. RT-PCR analysis revealed that NOSE predominantly expressed transcripts for CD44S, as well as a restricted pattern of transcripts characteristic of CD44 splice variants. CD44S and CD44 variant exon nine sequences (CD44-9v) were focally expressed in one of two NOSE specimens examined by immunoperoxidase staining. In comparison, the majority (71%) of ovarian cancer specimens expressed a complex pattern of CD44 splice variants by RT-PCR analysis. Immunoperoxidase studies revealed that the majority of ovarian cancer specimens expressed both CD44S and CD44-9v, whereas expression of sequences from variant exons 3, 4, and 6 was uncommon. There was no association between CD44 variant expression (transcript or protein) and stage, residual disease, age, histology, grade, or survival.",
"CD44 is a multifunctional cell surface receptor with many known splice variants, some of which have been reported to play a role in tumor progression. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the prognostic significance of CD44 isoforms in early-stage, lymph node-negative invasive breast carcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining for CD44 isoforms was done on archival paraffin tissue sections of invasive breast carcinoma from a cohort of lymph node-negative patients who received no adjuvant tamoxifen or chemotherapy and who had a mean clinical follow-up period of 15 years. Immunohistochemical staining was done with antibodies to CD44s, the standard isoform of CD44, and to isoforms containing variant exon 6 (CD44v6); levels of staining were correlated with clinical outcome data. There was a trend towards increased disease-free survival for patients whose tumors had high anti-CD44s positivity (P = 0.05), and a significant association was observed between anti-CD44s positivity and disease-related survival (P = 0.04). Expression of CD44v6 isoforms did not correlate with clinical outcome.",
"To determine the expression of the CD44 variant containing a variant exon 8 to 10 product (CD44v8-10) in colorectal cancer and to evaluate its prognostic value. CD44v8-10 was studied in resected tumors and normal mucosae obtained from 215 colorectal cancer patients (118 colon cancer and 97 rectal cancer). The expression of CD44v8-10 was analyzed immunohistochemically using the anti-CD44v8-10 monoclonal antibody (mAb) 44-1V. One hundred of 215 cancer tissues expressed CD44v8-10. Positive staining was intense mainly on the cell membranes. There was no significant correlation between expression of CD44v8-10 and histologic type, primary tumor, lymphatic invasion, venous invasion, or peritoneal invasion. There were significant correlations between CD44v8-10 immunoreactivity and both lymph node and hematogenous metastasis. Patients with CD44v8-10-positive tumors had a greater relative risk of death compared with those whose tumors were CD44v8-10-negative. Among 169 patients who underwent curative resection, CD44v8-10 expression correlated with a high recurrence rate. The 5- and 10-year survival rates were 90.3% of patients with CD44v8-10-negative tumors, and 72.1% and 58.0% of those with CD44v8-10-positive tumors, respectively; these differences between the two groups of patients were significant (P < .01). In multivariate analysis using the Cox regression model, CD44v8-10 expression emerged as an independent prognostic indicator.",
"yes. CD44 variant expression is a molecular prognostic maker for epithelial ovarian carcinomas. CD44-v10 expression is an independent prognostic indicator and the site of expression determines a positive or negative influence in survival. Our results also indicate that CD44 may be involved in important tumor/stroma interactions.",
"In colorectal cancer patients' mortality is largely influenced by spreading of tumour cells from the primary tumour site and subsequent metastasis formation. CD44 is an adhesion molecule and represents a highly variable family of isoforms. The isoform CD44v6 has been associated with metastatic spread and poor prognosis in animal models and several human cancers. Results of immunohistological studies in primary colorectal cancer are mostly retrospective and contradictory. The aim of our prospective study was to assess the controversial role of CD44v6 as a prognostic factor in colorectal cancer. In 93 patients we analysed tumour CD44v6 expression in prospectively sampled stage I-IV colorectal adenocarcinomas using RT-PCR and Southern blotting. The prognostic value of the CD44v6 expression was assessed using univariate and multivariate analysis. CD44v6 expression was found in 47 % of the cases. CD44v6 expression failed to show any association with the clinical or histological variables examined. CD44v6 expression did not correlate with survival in long-term follow-up. The most important prognostic factor in this cohort was tumour stage.",
"CD44 is a cell surface glycoprotein widely distributed in the extracellular matrix. CD44 isoforms arising from alternative mRNA splicing are implicated in tumor metastases. The aim of this study is to investigate the expression of CD44s and two splice variants, CD44-9v and CD44-10v, in squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the vulva as well as its correlation with lymph node (LN) metastases and disease-free survival. Thirty-five SCC vulvar tumors were evaluated for CD44s, CD44-9v, and CD44-10v expression by immunocytochemistry. One nonmetastatic LN was studied also. In cases with LN metastases, the metastatic LN as well as a nonmetastatic LN from the same patient were evaluated. CD44s and CD44-9v were expressed in all epithelia--normal, dysplastic, and SCC. However, intensity and distribution of expression of 9v isoforms changed within the tissue containing invasive cancer. CD44-9v expression was downregulated in the most differentiated cells within the carcinoma, mainly in patients who had disease recurrence or eventually died of disease (P = .031). All metastatic tumor to LNs was immunoreactive also for CD44-9v. CD44-10v expression was present in 78% of tumors and 56% of normal epithelium. Interestingly, CD44-10v membrane expression, but not cytoplasmic expression, correlated with disease recurrence (P = .035).",
"CD44 comprises a family of isoforms involved in tumorigenesis. Here we investigate the role of CD44 isoforms in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) progression. HNSCC specimens underwent reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) followed by Southern blot analysis. After surface biotinylation, FaDu (hypopharyngeal HNSCC) and CD44v3-transfected COS-7 cells were CD44 antibody-precipitated and compared by Western blot analysis. FaDu cells underwent double immunofluorescence staining and growth assays. Southern blot analysis suggested differential CD44v3 isoform expression in tumor and normal tissue. Cloning and sequencing revealed 2 novel CD44v isoforms. Western blot analysis suggested CD44v3 expression in COS-7 transfectants and FaDu. Double immunofluorescence staining revealed co-localization of CD44v3 and actin in FaDu projections. Anti-CD44v3 antibody decreased FaDu growth.",
"CD44 is a multistructural and multifunctional cell surface molecule which is involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, migration and angiogenesis. Here we investigated the potential role of CD44 in patients with metastasized pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, colorectal and stomach cancer, which were treated with different combinations of palliative chemotherapy. CD44 expression was measured by flow cytometry in patients' (n=15) blood samples and the findings were correlated with CA19-9 expression and with computed tomography results. We found a significant correlation (p<0.05) between the CD44 decrease and the tumor response according to the tumor marker elevation/ response evaluation criteria in solid tumors.",
"yes. Our data indicate that CD44 can mediate type I receptor function in cervical carcinoma cells that overexpress both CD44 and either erbB2 or EGFR and suggest a novel mechanism by which these proteins may contribute to cervical carcinoma tumor growth and metastasis.",
"The purpose of this study was to investigate the expression and prognostic significance of CD44 in epithelial ovarian cancer. We analyzed the expression of CD44 by immunohistochemistry in 307 epithelial ovarian cancers and evaluated its relation to hyaluronan, clinicopathological factors, and prognosis. Fifty-one percent of the tumors had a high proportion of CD44-positive cells (i.e., >/==\" BORDER=\"0\">10%), and this high CD44 expression was significantly associated with cancer cell-associated hyaluronan, well-differentiated tumor, mucinous histological type, and early stage of the tumor. High CD44 expression predicted better 5-year overall survival (50% versus 22%) and recurrence-free survival (70% versus 34%) in the univariate analyses (P < 0.00005 for both). In the Cox multivariate analyses, the independent predictors of overall survival at 5 years were primary residual tumor (P < 0.0005), International Federation of Gynecologists and Obstetricians (FIGO) stage (P = 0.001), histological grade (P = 0.014), adjuvant chemotherapy (P = 0.004), and stromal hyaluronan level (P < 0.0005), but not CD44. However, the expression of CD44 (P = 0.04) and stromal hyaluronan (P = 0.005) were both independent predictors of recurrence-free survival at 5 years, together with the size of the primary residual tumor (P < 0.0005) and histological type (P = 0.043).",
"The acquisition of an angiogenic phenotype (angiogenic switch) is essential for cervical carcinogenesis. This study was aimed to examine the spatial and temporal relationship of thrombospondin-1 (TSP-1) expression in patients with precursor lesions and squamous cell carcinoma of uterine cervix and to correlate its expression with tumor angiogenesis. TSP-1 expression and microvessel density were assessed by immunohistochemistry in samples obtained from patients with pathological diagnoses of cervical intraepithelial neoplasm I, carcinoma in situ, invasive squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), and benign disease (N = 12 from each group). Two representative blocks that contained serial changes of cervical lesions from these 48 subjects were examined, and the pathological findings were categorized into the four groups of (1) normal cervical epithelia, (2) low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSILs), (3) high-grade SILs (HSILs), and (4) SCC. A total of 120 foci with various cervical lesions from 98 slides were examined and classified into normal (48), LSIL (36), HSIL (24), and SCC epithelium (12). Immunohistochemical studies showed that TSP-1 was mainly localized at the basal epithelial cells, and we named it as the \"TSP-1 fence.\" The mean microvessel density counts and TSP-1 scores for normal, LSIL, HSIL, and SCC epithelium were 7.3 +/- 2.9, 9.9 +/- 3.4, 17.7 +/- 5.1, and 22.8 +/- 8.6, and 3.8 +/- 0.4, 3.8 +/- 0.4, 1.8 +/- 0.4, and 1.5 +/- 0.5, respectively. The TSP-1 intensities were significantly higher and the MVD counts lower in the groups of normal and LSIL epithelium than in those with HSIL and SCC epithelium. In addition, microvessel density count was negatively associated with the intensity of TSP-1.",
"CD44v6 is a cell surface protein involved in cell migration, cell adhesion, tumor progression and metastatic spread. We evaluated its role as a molecular marker for urothelial bladder cancer. A tissue microarray was constructed containing 410 primary urothelial bladder cancers, each in triplicate. Immunohistochemical staining was done with a commercially available antibody. The percent of tumor cells staining positive for CD44v6 was evaluated and we assessed associations with stage, grade and survival. CD44v6 expression was higher in noninvasive (Ta, Tis) vs invasive (T1-T4) tumors (p <0.001). It decreased with increasing grade (p <0.001). In patients who underwent transurethral bladder resection absent CD44v6 expression was associated with a 2.3-fold increased risk of recurrence (95% CI 1.28 to 4.08). Median time to recurrence for tumors with vs without CD44v6 expression was 23 vs 9 months (p = 0.003). In a multivariate Cox model absent CD44 expression was an independent adverse prognostic factor for tumor recurrence (HR 2.33, p = 0.006). In cystectomy cases median overall survival for CD44v6 nonexpression vs expression was 30 vs 75 months (p = 0.0027) and CD44v6 expression was retained as an independent prognostic factor for overall survival (HR 1.54, p = 0.042).",
"To study the controversial role of transmembrane glycoprotein CD44 as a moderator of tumour spread and as a prognostic factor in gastric cancer. The expression of all CD44 forms and that with exon v3 was assessed in 198 stage I-IV gastric adenocarcinomas using immunohistochemistry. CD44 expression was found in 72% and CD44v3 in 55% of the cases. The intensity of CD44 expression was associated with the level of invasion and with hyaluronan expression, while the frequency of CD44 positive cells was not significantly related to any of the clinical or histological features of the tumours. CD44v3 expression failed to show any association with the clinical or histological variables examined. Neither total CD44 nor CD44v3 expression affected survival. The most important prognostic factors in this cohort were the level of invasion, lymph node status, tumour size and vascular or perineural invasion.",
"In some epithelial tumors, isoforms of CD44 are overexpressed and soluble isoforms detectable in serum samples are elevated. In squamous cell cancer of the head and neck (SCCHN) the alteration of CD44 isoforms could be associated with poor prognosis. A comprehensive study was undertaken to examine the value of CD44v6 as a tumor marker for SCCHN. Serum samples of SCCHN and healthy smokers were analyzed for soluble CD44v6 by ELISA. The expression of CD44 isoforms was determined by immunohistochemical staining of healthy and dysplastic tissue. There was no significant difference between the serum levels of sCD44v6 in SCCHN and healthy smokers. Nor was there a correlation between the serum level of sCD44v6 and UICC stage, TNM stage or histological grading. In tissue of primary SCCHN, expression of CD44v6 was found as a strong, specific staining of the lower epithelial layers. Similar amounts of CD44v6-positive-labelled tumor cells were found in invasive carcinoma.",
"CD44 is a cell surface receptor implicated in cancer progression and metastases. Malignant tumors may show a loss of CD44 splice control mechanisms. We investigated the role of CD44 splice variant expression in ovarian tumors and metastases, and its association with survival. We tested CD44 expression in 142 cases of epithelial carcinoma of the ovary and 265 metastatic sites by immunohistochemistry. Survival analysis showed that the expression of CD44s, CD44-v4, -v5, -v6, -v9, and -v10 are significant predictors for survival in univariate analysis. After stage, the expression of CD44-v10 in metastases was the strongest predictor of decreased survival in multivariate analysis (p = 0.0009). Conversely, CD44-v10 expression in the primary tumor was an independent predictor of improved survival in multivariate analysis (p = 0.0002). The expression of CD44s in the tumor/stroma interface of the primary tumor was associated with improved survival (p < 0.0001).",
"There is a qualitative and quantitative reduction in expression of CD44 in MIC and CIN 3 compared with CIN 1. Down-regulation of CD44 variants may occur later in neoplastic progression than CD44s. This pattern may reflect their important biological function in early progression by cervical cancer cells. Patchy and heterogeneous staining in more advanced lesions limits the usefulness of CD44 and its variants in the assessment of microinvasion.",
"CD44, an integral membrane glycoprotein, may have an important role in early tumorigenesis, specifically, facilitating early tumor progression. Reports of the expression of CD44 in early uterine cervical squamous carcinogenesis are conflicting. We examined the expression of CD44 in microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix (MIC), as yet unreported, and compared it to that in cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1 and CIN 3 to further elucidate its role in early squamous carcinogenesis. Seventeen cases of CIN 1, 24 cases of CIN 3, and 20 cases of MIC were stained with antibodies to CD44s, CD44v5, and CD44v6. Only membranous staining was considered positive. Positive membranous staining (>50% cells) was observed in 97% of cases of CIN 1 using all three antibodies. In CIN 3, positive staining was seen more often with CD44v6 (18/24) and CD44v5 (19/24) than with CD44s (6/24). Expression of CD44v6 was retained more often in MIC (16/20) compared with CD44s (3/20) and CD44v5 (9/20). Those cases of CIN 3 and MIC that failed to meet our criteria for positive staining showed either heterogeneous or absent staining."
] | 909 |
Was the decreasing trend in hospital mortality from heart failure attributable to improved hospital care? | [
"To assess the trend in risk-adjusted hospital mortality from heart failure. Oregon hospital discharge data from 1991 through 1995 were analyzed. A total of 29,530 hospitalizations because of heart failure in elderly patients (age>or = 65 years) were identified from International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, codes 428.0-428.9. The logistic regression and life table analyses were used to assess the risk-adjusted trend in hospital mortality from heart failure. From 1991 through 1995, 1757 (5.9%) patients with heart failure died in the hospital; 920 (52.4%) of them died within 3 days. The percentage of patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities increased from 6.1% in 1991 to 9.8% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001), whereas the percentage of patients discharged directly to home decreased from 69.2% in 1991 to 62.4% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001). The mean length of stay decreased from 5.15 days in 1991 to 3.97 days in 1995. The age- and sex-standardized mortality rate decreased by 33.8% from 7.4 in 1991 to 4.8 in 1995 (P value for trend<.01). Additional adjustment for comorbidity using multiple logistic regression revealed a greater reduction of 41.0% in the mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.59; 95% confidence interval = 0.50, 0.69) and a reduction of 46.0% in the 3-day mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.54; 95% confidence interval = 0.43, 0.67) across the 5-year period. Life table analysis showed consistently lower cumulative mortality rates during the first week after admission in 1995 compared with those in 1991 (P<.001).",
"There was a decreasing trend over time in the risk-adjusted hospital mortality rates from heart failure, which was not an artifact of decreasing length of stay. Our findings raised the possibility of improved hospital care for heart failure in Oregon."
] | [
"yes. We conclude that institution of a clinical pathway for inguinal herniorrhaphy decreased hospital admissions. The reasons for this decrease are probably multifactorial and include improvements in physician and staff awareness. The decrease in unnecessary admissions should result in more efficient use of hospital resources.",
"yes. This study shows that continuous retrograde blood cardioplegia is associated with lower hospital mortality in heart valve operations.",
"There is controversy over the optimal management strategy for patients with acute pancreatitis (AP). Studies have shown a hospital volume benefit for in-hospital mortality after surgery, and we examined whether a similar mortality benefit exists for patients admitted with AP. Using the Nationwide Inpatient Sample, discharge records for all adult admissions with a primary diagnosis of AP (n = 416,489) from 1998 to 2006 were examined. Hospitals were categorized based on number of patients with AP; the highest third were defined as high volume (HV, >or=118 cases/year) and the lower two thirds as low volume (LV, <118 cases/year). A matched cohort based on propensity scores (n = 43,108 in each group) eliminated all demographic differences to create a case-controlled analysis. Adjusted mortality was the primary outcome measure. In-hospital mortality for patients with AP was 1.6%. Hospital admissions for AP increased over the study period (P < .0001). HV hospitals tended to be large (82%), urban (99%), academic centers (59%) that cared for patients with greater comorbidities (P < .001). Adjusted length of stay was lower at HV compared with LV hospitals (odds ratio, 0.86; 95% confidence interval, 0.82-0.90). After adjusting for patient and hospital factors, the mortality rate was significantly lower for patients treated at HV hospitals (hazard ratio, 0.74; 95% confidence interval, 0.67-0.83).",
"yes. The majority of patients hospitalized for AF and heart failure consisted of patients who had developed AF first. Prognosis in these patients was relatively benign as compared with those who had developed heart failure first.",
"After evaluation of our QCP's impact on the quality of care provided to our Medicare beneficiaries, we have concluded that there is potential for health care improvement through pay-for-performance programs. We have observed in our MAPD heart failure population, enrolled in a QCP during the year of 2010, an increase in age and CMS risk scores, a decline in renal function, and noted the group to have a more female presence. Yet, the outcomes of this group (hospitalizations, ER visits, acquisition of lab tests, etc.) were similar when compared with younger, healthier members not enrolled in a QCP. We feel the clinical relevance of the data indicates that, overall, the quality of care is somewhat improved for QCP-enrolled providers when compared with non-QCP providers in regards to achieving certain quality metrics. (i.e., immunizations, HgA1c, LDL-C, etc.) Further research is definitely needed to determine if health care costs and clinical outcomes, in the long term, are improved for members enrolled in these QCP programs, as well as their impact upon a health plan's Medicare Star rating.",
"Heart failure is a common and costly condition, particularly in the elderly. A range of models of interventions have shown the capacity to decrease hospitalizations and improve health-related outcomes. Potentially, cardiac rehabilitation models can also improve outcomes.AIM: To assess the impact of a nurse-coordinated multidisciplinary, cardiac rehabilitation program to decrease hospitalizations, increase functional capacity, and meet the needs of patients with heart failure. In a randomized control trial, a total of 105 patients were recruited to the study. Patients in the intervention group received an individualized, multidisciplinary 12-week cardiac rehabilitation program, including an individualized exercise component tailored to functional ability and social circumstances. The control group received an information session provided by the cardiac rehabilitation coordinator and then follow-up care by either their cardiologist or general practitioner. This trial was stopped prematurely after the release of state-based guidelines and funding for heart failure programs. During the study period, patients in the intervention group were less likely to have been admitted to hospital for any cause (44 vs. 69%, P = 0.01) or after a major acute coronary event (24 vs. 55%, P = 0.001). Participants in the intervention group were more likely to be alive at 12 months, (93 vs. 79%; P = 0.03) (odds ratio = 3.85; 95% confidence interval=1.03-14.42; P = 0.0042). Quality of life scores improved at 3 months compared with baseline (intervention t = o/-4.37, P<0.0001; control t = /-3.52, P<0.01). Improvement was also seen in 6-min walk times at 3 months compared with baseline in the intervention group (t = 3.40; P = 0.01).",
"yes. Regression of time-varying Cornell product was associated with similar reductions in risk of new-onset HF and the combined endpoint of HF or death in ISH and non-ISH patients.",
"Despite marked improvements in treatment strategies for heart failure (HF), the mortality rate of elderly patients with HF is still high. Detailed causes of death have not been fully understood. We studied 459 consecutive patients with acute decompensated HF (ADHF) emergently admitted to our hospital from 2007 to 2011. Patients were divided into 2 groups: <75 years old (younger group; n = 225) and ≥75 years old (elderly group; n = 234). All-cause death, cardiovascular death, and noncardiovascular death were assessed as adverse outcomes. Compared with the younger group, the elderly group was characterized by a higher proportion of women and hypertensive patients and higher left ventricular ejection fraction. During a mean follow-up of 20.7 months, a total of 174 patients (37.9%) died. All-cause death was significantly higher in the elderly group than in the younger group (46.6% vs 28.9%; P < .0001), and this difference was caused by an increase in noncardiovascular deaths (20.9% vs 9.3%; P < .001), especially deaths due to infection (10.7% vs 4.0%; P < .01). Cardiovascular deaths did not differ between the 2 groups.",
"In acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) there are no surrogate endpoints for early phase trials. The aim of the current study was to evaluate whether a reduction in natriuretic peptides (NP) between acute hospital presentation to stable follow-up is associated with improved mortality and morbidity. Patients presenting acutely to the hospital for ADHF with HFpEF enrolled in the Karolinska Rennes (KaRen) study and reporting N-terminal pro-B-type NP or B-type NP assessment at baseline hospital presentation and at 4-8weeks follow-up were prospectively studied. Logistic regression analyses were performed to detect the predictors of baseline and changes in NPs. Cox regression models were performed to assess the impact of NP reductions on mortality and the composite of mortality and HF hospitalization. Of 361 patients (median follow-up 585days), 267 (74%) reported an improvement in NPs, while 94 (26%) reported worsening. At baseline, the independent predictors of lower NPs were higher glomerular filtration rate (Odds Ratio [OR] per unit: 1.013; 95% Confidence Interval [CI]: 1.005-1.021) and younger age (OR per year: 0.972; CI: 0.947-0.998). Improvement in NPs at follow-up was predicted by higher heart rate at baseline (OR per bpm: 1.014; CI: 1.003-1.025). After adjustments, the hazard ratio for all-cause death was 0.730 (CI: 0.456-1.169) and for the composite outcome 0.814 (CI: 0.582-1.139) for patients who improved vs. worsened in NP levels.",
"Quality improvement organizations (QIOs) are charged with improving the quality of medical care for Medicare beneficiaries. To explore whether the quality of hospital care for Medicare beneficiaries improves more in hospitals that voluntarily participate with Medicare's QIOs compared with nonparticipating hospitals. Data from 4 QIOs charged with improving the quality of care in 5 states (Maryland, Nevada, New York, Utah, and Washington) and the District of Columbia were used. Hospitals participate with the QIOs on quality improvement on a voluntary basis. A retrospective study was conducted comparing improvement in the quality of care of patients in hospitals that actively participated with the QIOs vs hospitals that did not. The medical records of approximately 750 Medicare beneficiaries per state in each of 5 clinical areas (atrial fibrillation, acute myocardial infarction, heart failure, pneumonia, and stroke) were abstracted at baseline (1998) and follow-up (2000-2001). Fifteen quality indicators associated with improved outcomes in the prevention or treatment of the 5 clinical areas were used as quality of care measures. These 15 indicators were specifically targeted by the QIOs for quality improvement during the study period. Hospitals that voluntarily participate with the QIOs are more likely to be larger than nonparticipating hospitals (P<.05). At baseline, there were statistically significant (P<.05) differences between participating and nonparticipating hospitals on 5 of 15 quality indicators, with participating hospitals performing better on 3 of 5. There was no statistically significant difference in change from baseline to follow-up between participating and nonparticipating hospitals on 14 of 15 quality indicators. The one exception was that participating hospitals improved more on the pneumonia immunization indicator than nonparticipating hospitals (P = .005).",
"yes. Hospital characteristics are associated with improved survival in patients with OHCA. This finding has implications for the establishment of regionalised systems of care for patients who have been resuscitated from OHCA.",
"yes. For consecutive patients aged <75 years who were hospitalized for AMI in the community of Göteborg, we found that in the thrombolytic era, major changes in medical and nonmedical treatment still took place associated with a continuing decrease in mortality rates during 3 years of follow-up. A similar reduction of CHD mortality rates was seen in the same age group within the community of Göteborg.",
"yes. This large, unselected cohort revealed that among patients with myocardial infarction, heart failure and its worsening are frequent, especially in the elderly, and dramatically worsen the in-hospital mortality.",
"This study describes the long-term outcome of 163 patients with stable mild to moderate heart failure (NYHA II-III), who already were enrolled in a heart failure clinic and now were randomized to continued follow-up in the heart failure (HF) clinic or else to usual care (UC). The primary outcome was unplanned hospitalisations and death, the secondary endpoints were pharmacological therapy, NYHA class, six-minute-walking distances and NT-pro BNP level. At the end of follow-up we found no significant differences in total number of hospitalisation (p = 0.2) or mortality (16% vs. 16%) between the two groups. Patients in the HF clinic cohort achieved a significantly better NYHA score (p<0.01), significantly longer walking-distances (p = 0.04) and received a significantly higher dose of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (p<0.001) and beta-blockers (p<0.001). No significant difference was found on the level of NT-pro BNP (p = 0.4).",
"yes. A short term in-hospital structured cardiovascular training programme reduces the ability of serum-derived factors to induce endothelial cell death in patients with CHF.",
"yes. The standardized implementation of a multicenter PRRS was associated with a decrease in the rate of PICU mortality after readmission but not actual cardiopulmonary arrests.",
"We designed and tested an innovative transitional care program, involving cardiac surgery nurse practitioners, to improve care continuity after patient discharge home from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) operations and decrease the composite end point of 30-day readmission and death. A total of 401 consecutive CABG patients were eligible between May 1, 2010, and August 31, 2011, for analysis. Patient data were entered prospectively into The Society of Thoracic Surgeons database and the New York State Cardiac Surgery Reporting System and retrospectively analyzed with Institutional Review Board approval. The \"Follow Your Heart\" program enrolled 169 patients, and 232 controls received usual care. Univariate and multivariate analyses were used to identify readmission predictors, and propensity score matching was performed with 13 covariates. Binary logistic regression analysis identified \"Follow Your Heart\" as the only independently significant variable in preventing the composite outcome (p=0.015). Odds ratios for readmission were 3.11 for dialysis patients, 2.17 for Medicaid recipients, 1.87 for women, 1.86 for non-Caucasians, 1.78 for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, 1.26 for diabetes, and 1.09 for congestive heart failure. Propensity score matching yielded matches for 156 intervention patients (92%). The intervention showed a significantly lower 30-day readmission/death rate of 3.85% (6 of 156) compared with 11.54% (18 of 156) for the usual care matched group (p=0.023).",
"Hospital performance reports based on administrative data should distinguish differences in quality of care between hospitals from case mix related variation and random error effects. A study was undertaken to determine which of 12 diagnosis-outcome indicators measured across all hospitals in one state had significant risk adjusted systematic (or special cause) variation (SV) suggesting differences in quality of care. For those that did, we determined whether SV persists within hospital peer groups, whether indicator results correlate at the individual hospital level, and how many adverse outcomes would be avoided if all hospitals achieved indicator values equal to the best performing 20% of hospitals. All patients admitted during a 12 month period to 180 acute care hospitals in Queensland, Australia with heart failure (n = 5745), acute myocardial infarction (AMI) (n = 3427), or stroke (n = 2955) were entered into the study. Outcomes comprised in-hospital deaths, long hospital stays, and 30 day readmissions. Regression models produced standardised, risk adjusted diagnosis specific outcome event ratios for each hospital. Systematic and random variation in ratio distributions for each indicator were then apportioned using hierarchical statistical models. Only five of 12 (42%) diagnosis-outcome indicators showed significant SV across all hospitals (long stays and same diagnosis readmissions for heart failure; in-hospital deaths and same diagnosis readmissions for AMI; and in-hospital deaths for stroke). Significant SV was only seen for two indicators within hospital peer groups (same diagnosis readmissions for heart failure in tertiary hospitals and inhospital mortality for AMI in community hospitals). Only two pairs of indicators showed significant correlation. If all hospitals emulated the best performers, at least 20% of AMI and stroke deaths, heart failure long stays, and heart failure and AMI readmissions could be avoided.",
"yes. The implementation of a carefully planned series of low cost interventions focused on high risk medications, driven by information largely from internal event reporting, and designed to improve a hospital's medication safety leads to a significant decrease in patient harm.",
"This study shows that self-management interventions had a beneficial effect on time to HF-related hospitalization or all-cause death and HF-related hospitalization alone and elicited a small increase in HF-related quality of life. The findings do not endorse limiting self-management interventions to subgroups of patients with HF, but increased mortality in depressed patients warrants caution in applying self-management strategies in these patients.",
"yes. BNP increases from less than to more than the cutpoint were associated with increased risk of events, whereas further increases did not add to risk. In contrast, only substantial natriuretic peptide decreases (>80%) reduced risk. These data suggest that only robust decreases in natriuretic peptide concentrations should be targeted to reduce mortality and heart failure-related hospitalizations.",
"no. Reported differences in the way heart failure is diagnosed and managed have changed little in the past decade. Variable access to diagnostic tests, modes of care delivery and non-uniform management approaches persist. The current National Health Service (NHS) context may not be conducive to addressing these issues.",
"yes. Inhospital cardiac catheterization is associated with lower mortality in high-risk patients and no difference in mortality in low-risk and intermediate-risk patients after STEMI and NSTEMI. These data support the hypothesis that high-risk patients with either STEMI or NSTEMI may benefit from an early invasive strategy. New prospective randomized trials are warranted, particularly in the STEMI population.",
"Most of the 10 billion dollars spent annually on heart failure (HF) management in this country is attributed to hospital charges. There are widespread efforts to decrease the costs of treating this disorder, both by preventing hospital admissions and reducing lengths of stay (LOS). The objective of this study was to identify the major determinants of hospital charges for an acute hospitalization for HF among a large, diverse group of patients. Administrative information on all 1995 New York State hospital discharges assigned ICD-9-CM codes indicative of HF in the principal diagnosis position were obtained. Bivariate and multivariate statistical analyses were utilized to determine those patient- and hospital-specific characteristics which had the greatest influence on hospital charges. In all, 43,157 patients were identified. Mean hospital charges were $11,507+/-15,995 and mean hospital LOS was 9.6+/-14.5 days. With multivariate analyses, the most significant independent predictors of higher hospital charges were longer LOS, admission to a teaching hospital, treatment in an intensive care unit, and the utilization of cardiac surgery, permanent pacemakers, and mechanical ventilation. Age, gender, race, comorbidity score, and medical insurance, as well as treatment by a cardiologist and death during the index hospitalization were not among the most significant predictors.",
"Supporters of specialty hospitals claim these facilities provide better patient care; however, empirical data on quality of care in specialty hospitals are limited. We used data reported to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) during 2005 to 2006 to compare the quality of care of specialty cardiac hospitals, competing general hospitals and a group of top-ranked cardiac hospitals as identified by the US News&World Report's list of \"America's best cardiac hospitals\" for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and heart failure (HF). The main outcome was hospital compliance with CMS performance measures, expressed as the percentage of eligible patients with AMI or HF who received guidelines-based treatment. The mean compliance for all 179 hospitals was 95% for AMI measures, 91% for HF measures, and 94% for all cardiac care (AMI plus HF measures). Specialty hospitals' compliance with AMI and HF guidelines (95.2% and 91.3%) was similar to that of competing general hospitals (94.7% and 90.5%), whereas top-ranked cardiac hospitals compliance with both AMI and CHF measures (96.8% and 94.1%) was higher (P<.001). In supplemental analyses, we found that 40% of specialty hospitals were ranked in the top quartile of all 179 hospitals, as compared with 22.9% of top-ranked cardiac hospitals. Conversely, 25% specialty hospitals were in the lowest quartile, as compared to 7% of top-ranked cardiac hospitals.",
"To assess whether trends in mortality from heart failure (HF) in Australia are due to a change in awareness of the condition or real changes in its epidemiology. We carried out a retrospective analysis of official data on national mortality data between 1997 and 2003. A death was attributed to HF if the death certificate mentioned HF as either the underlying cause of death (UCD) or among the contributory factors. From a total of 907 242 deaths, heart failure was coded as the UCD for 29 341 (3.2%) and was mentioned anywhere on the death certificate in 135 268 (14.9%). Between 1997 and 2003, there were decreases in the absolute numbers of deaths and in the age-specific and age-standardized mortality rates for HF either as UCD or mentioned anywhere for both sexes. HF was mentioned for 24.6% and 17.8% of deaths attributed to ischaemic heart disease and circulatory disease, respectively, and these proportions remained unchanged over the period of study. In addition, HF as UCD accounted for 8.3% of deaths attributed to circulatory disease and this did not change materially from 1997 to 2003.",
"yes. In a large nationwide registry, we observed that patients treated at hospitals with higher volumes of SAH patients have lower in-hospital mortality, independent of patient and hospital characteristics. Our data suggest that experienced centers may provide more optimized care for SAH patients.",
"yes. These results may be important in light of recent indications that decreased low-frequency HRV is a predictor of mortality in patients with heart failure.",
"Prior studies have found that academic hospitals provide more consistent use of guideline-recommended therapies in patients with non-ST-segment myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) compared with nonacademic centers, yet it is unclear whether these care differences translate into longer-term outcome differences. Using data from the CRUSADE Registry linked to Center for Medicare&Medicaid Services claims, we compared 30-day and 1-year all-cause mortality among 12,194 older patients with NSTEMI (age ≥65 years) treated at 103 academic centers and 28,335 patients treated at 302 nonacademic centers from February 2003 to December 2006. Outcomes were first adjusted for clinical characteristics, followed by adjustment for hospital performance, on 13 acute and discharge guideline-recommended therapies using a shared frailty model (an extension of the Cox proportional hazard model). Compared with older patients with NSTEMI treated at nonacademic hospitals, those treated at academic hospitals had greater and more consistent use of evidence-based acute and discharge therapies, were more likely to receive in-hospital revascularization (61.1% vs 54.2%; P<.0001), and had modestly lower risk-adjusted 30-day mortality after adjustment for patient-level clinical characteristics (8.9% vs 10.2%, adjusted hazard ratio [HR] 0.89, 95% CI 0.80-0.99). These differences were attenuated (HR 0.94, 95% CI 0.83-1.02) after further adjustment for hospital delivery of evidence-based treatments, yet did not persist out to 1 year (unadjusted HR 0.92, 95% CI 0.84-1.01, P = .089).",
"Between January 2008 and December 2012, a multicenter quality collaborative initiated a focus on blood conservation as a quality metric, with educational presentations and quarterly reporting of institutional-level perioperative transfusion rates and outcomes. This prospective cohort study was undertaken to determine the effect of that initiative on transfusion rates after isolated coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). Between January 1, 2008, and December 31, 2012, 30,271 patients underwent isolated CABG in Michigan. Evaluated were annual crude and adjusted trends in overall transfusion rates for red blood cells (RBCs), fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and platelets, and in operative death. Transfusion rates continuously decreased for all blood products. RBC use decreased from 56.4% in 2008 (baseline) to 38.3% in 2012, FFP use decreased from 14.8% to 9.1%, and platelet use decreased from 20.5% to 13.4% (ptrend<0.001 for all). A significant reduction occurred in deep sternal wound infection, reoperation for bleeding, renal failure, prolonged ventilation, initial ventilator time, and intensive care unit duration. The percentage of patients discharged home significantly increased (ptrend < 0.001). Mortality rates did not differ significantly (ptrend = 0.11).",
"Previous studies have found that teaching hospitals produce better acute myocardial infarction (AMI) outcomes than nonteaching hospitals. However, these analyses generally excluded patients transferred out of nonteaching hospitals and did not study outcomes by patient risk level. The objective of this study was to determine whether admission to a teaching hospital was associated with greater survival after accounting for patient transfers and patient severity. This observational study used logistic models to examine the association between hospital teaching status and 30-day mortality of AMI patients, adjusting for patient comorbidities and common time trends. The sample included 1,309,554 Medicare patients admitted from 1996 to 2004 to 3,761 acute care hospitals for AMI. The primary outcome was 30-day all-cause, all-location mortality. Mortality was slightly lower in minor teaching hospitals compared with nonteaching hospitals (odds ratio [OR] 0.97; 95% confidence interval [CI]0.95-0.99) but not different between major teaching and nonteaching hospitals (OR 1.01; 95% CI 0.96-1.03). The odds of mortality in minor teaching hospitals decreased 4.2% relative to nonteaching hospitals during the seven-year period (OR from 0.98 to 0.94). There was no consistent pattern of association between teaching status and patient severity.",
"yes. Treatment by a cardiologist is associated with approximately a 17% reduction in hospital mortality in acute myocardial infarction patients. In addition, patients of physicians treating a high volume of patients have approximately an 11% reduction in mortality. This has important implications for the optimal treatment of acute myocardial infarction in the current transformation of the health care delivery system.",
"yes. Regional networks centered around bridge-to-transplant facilities that have an aggressive approach to implantable LVAD placement may substantially improve the survival rate of patients with postcardiotomy heart failure.",
"yes. The establishment of the MAU improved efficacy at the hospital owing to reduction in the length of hospital stay and the number of readmissions. As judged from mortality rates and indicated by readmission rates, neither the quality of treatment nor patient safety was compromised in a setup, where patients with suspected cardiac diseases are admitted along with patients suspected to suffer from other internal medical diseases. The dynamics between multidisciplinary physicians and nurses seems to improve when they are working close to each other in a setting where team spirit evolves.",
"Ranking of hospitals by lay media has attracted widespread attention but may not accurately reflect quality. Acute myocardial infarction (AMI) mortality is a straightforward measure of clinical outcome frequently used by ranking algorithms. Our aim was to assess whether ranking among top hospitals correlated with lower in-hospital risk-adjusted mortality following admission for AMI. Using a hierarchical regression model and the comprehensive nationwide database of hospital AMI admissions from 2004 to 2007 in France, we analysed crude and risk-adjusted hospital mortality rates in the ranked ('best') hospitals versus non-ranked hospitals. We subsequently restricted the comparison to non-ranked hospitals with matching on-site facilities. We analysed 192,372 admissions in 439 hospitals, 43 of which were in the ranked group. Patients admitted to the 396 non-ranked hospitals tended to be older with more comorbidities and underwent fewer revascularization procedures than patients admitted to ranked hospitals. Between hospital differences accounted for 10% of differences in mortality. Crude mortality was lower in ranked versus non-ranked hospitals (7.5% vs. 11.9%; P<0.001). The survival advantage associated with admission to ranked hospitals was reduced after adjustment for age and sex (5.7% vs. 6.4%; P=0.087) and comorbidities (4.9% vs. 5.5%; P=0.102).",
"Studies of heart failure (HF) incidence and prevalence frequently rely on hospitalization to identify patients. Our objective was to describe the incidence, prevalence, or outcomes for HF patients diagnosed in the outpatient or emergency department (ED) setting. In a population-based study of 82,323 HF patients in a single-payer health-care system in Alberta, Canada from 1999 to 2007, we examined trends over time and clinical outcomes. Heart failure patients were first diagnosed in a general outpatient clinic (45.7%), a specialty outpatient clinic (4.0%), the ED (13.7%), or in hospital (36.6%). From years 2000 to 2006, the age-standardized incidence (per 100 000 population) decreased from 538 to 403, whereas the overall prevalence increased from 1585 to 2510. One-year mortality was significantly different among patients first diagnosed in a general outpatient clinic (6.6%), a specialty outpatient clinic (7.5%), ED (19.1%), and hospital (29.8%). Patients initially diagnosed at the time of hospitalization had the fewest median days alive and out of hospital [347, inter-quartile range (IQR): 136-363] over the next year compared with patients in the ED (354, IQR 313-365), specialty outpatient clinic (365, IQR 355-365), and general outpatient clinics (365, IQR: 359-365, P<0.0001). Patients in the ED had the highest rate of subsequent ED visits, and all-cause, cardiovascular, or HF hospitalization.",
"To determine the effects of the US economy on heart failure hospitalization rates. The recession was associated with worsening unemployment, loss of private insurance and prescription medication benefits, medication nonadherence, and ultimately increased rates of hospitalization for heart failure. We compared hospitalization rates at a large, single, academic medical center from July 1, 2006 to February 28, 2007, a time of economic stability, and July 1, 2008 to February 28, 2009, a time of economic recession in the United States. Significantly fewer patients had private medical insurance during the economic recession than during the control period (36.5% vs 46%; P = 0.04). Despite this, there were no differences in the heart failure hospitalization or readmission rates, length of hospitalization, need for admission to an intensive care unit, in-hospital mortality, or use of guideline-recommended heart failure medications between the 2 study periods.",
"Evidence-based practice (EBP) is widely promoted, but does EBP produce better patient outcomes? We report a natural experiment when part of the internal medicine service in a hospital was reorganized in 2003 to form an EBP unit, the rest of the service remaining unchanged. The units attended similar patients until 2012 permitting comparisons of outcomes and activity. We used routinely collected statistics (2004-11) to compare the two different methods of practice and test whether patients being seen by the EBP unit differed from standard practice (SP) patients. Data were available by doctor and year. To check for differences between the EBP and SP doctors prior to reorganization, we used statistics from 2000 to 2003. We looked for changes in patient outcomes or activity following reorganization and whether the EBP unit was achieving significantly different results from SP. Data across the periods were combined and tested using Mann-Whitney test. No statistically significant differences in outcomes were detected between the EBP and the SP doctors prior to reorganization. Following the unit's establishment, the mortality of patients being treated by EBP doctors compared with their previous performance dropped from 7.4% to 6.3% (P < 0.02) and length of stay from 9.15 to 6.01 days (P = 0.002). No statistically significant improvements were seen in SP physicians' performance. No differences in the proportion of patients admitted or their complexity between the services were detected. Despite this, EBP patients had a clinically significantly lower risk of death 6.27% versus 7.75% (P < 0.001) and a shorter length of stay 6.01 versus 8.46 days (P < 0.001) than SP patients. Readmission rates were similar: 14.4% (EBP); 14.5% (SP). EBP doctors attended twice as many patients/doctor as SP doctors.",
"People receiving healthcare from multiple payers (eg, Medicare and the Veterans Health Administration [VA]) have fragmented health records. How the use of more complete data affects hospital profiling has not been examined. Retrospective cohort study. We examined 30-day mortality following acute myocardial infarction at 104 VA hospitals for veterans 66 years and older from 2006 through 2010 who were also Medicare beneficiaries. Using VA-only data versus combined VA/Medicare data, we calculated 2 risk-standardized mortality rates (RSMRs): 1 based on observed mortality (O/E) and the other from CMS' Hospital Compare program, based on model-predicted mortality (P/E). We also categorized hospital outlier status based on RSMR relative to overall VA mortality: average, better than average, and worse than average. We tested whether hospitals whose patients received more of their care through Medicare would look relatively better when including those data in risk adjustment, rather than including VA data alone. Thirty-day mortality was 14.8%. Adding Medicare data caused both RSMR measures to significantly increase in about half the hospitals and decrease in the other half. O/E RSMR increased in 53 hospitals, on average, by 2.2%, and decreased in 51 hospitals by -2.6%. P/E RSMR increased, on average, by 1.2% in 56 hospitals, and decreased in the others by -1.3%. Outlier designation changed for 4 hospitals using O/E measure, but for no hospitals using P/E measure.",
"yes. CHD mortality fell by 20% between 1998 and 2009 in the West Bank. More than two-third of this fall was due to decreases in major risk factors, particularly total cholesterol and blood pressure. Our results clearly indicate that risk factor reductions in the general population compared save substantially more lives to specific treatments for individual patients. This emphasizes the importance of population-wide primary prevention strategies.",
"yes. AF/AFL on initial ECG in patients hospitalized with HF with reduced ejection fraction is associated with lower use of evidence-based therapies and increased mortality and rehospitalization compared to patients in SR.",
"Previous reports have demonstrated that participation in GWTG-CAD, a national quality initiative of the American Heart Association, is associated with improved guideline adherence for patients hospitalized with CAD. We sought to establish whether these benefits from participation in GWTG-CAD were sustained over time. We used the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Hospital Compare database to examine 6 performance measures and one composite score for 3 consecutive 12-month periods including aspirin and beta-blocker on arrival/discharge, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE-I) for left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD), and adult smoking cessation counseling. The differences in guideline adherence between the GWTG-CAD hospitals (n = 440, 439, 429) and non-GWTG-CAD hospitals (n = 2,438, 2,268, 2,140) were evaluated for each 12-month period. A multivariate mixed-effects model was used to estimate the independent effect of GWTG-CAD over time adjusting for hospital characteristics. Compared with non-GWTG hospitals, the GWTG-CAD hospitals demonstrated higher guideline adherence for 6 performance measures. The largest differences existed for (1) aspirin at arrival (2.3%, 2.1%, and 1.6% for each 12-month period, respectively), (2) aspirin at discharge (3.4%, 2.2%, and 2.3%), (3) beta-blocker at arrival (3.4%, 2.9%, and 2.6%), and (4) beta-blocker at discharge (2.8%, 1.8%, and 1.5%). In multivariate analysis, the GWTG-CAD hospitals were independently associated with better adherence for 4 of the 6 measures (the exceptions were ACE-I for LVSD and smoking cessation counseling). Superior performance was also found for the composite measures. Although there was some narrowing between groups, GWTG-CAD hospitals maintained superior guideline adherence than non-GWTG-CAD hospitals for the entire 3-year period (adjusted differences 1.8%, 1.6%, and 1.4%).",
"Low-volume EDs were more likely to discharge patients with heart failure home, but low-volume ED cases exhibited worse outcomes (driven largely by readmissions or repeat ED visits). Interventions to improve management of acute heart failure are required at low-volume sites.",
"Our study showed that patients admitted for heart failure may be safely discharged 4 days after admission. An in-hospital guideline-based management of patients allows relevant cost savings, reducing hospital readmission for heart failure.",
"yes. Implementation of health care reform was associated with a decrease in hospital LOS, with an increase in use of home health services and no change in ICU LOS and mortality among trauma ICU patients at our institution.",
"Heart failure is a common indication for admission to the hospital among old adults. The hospital stay for uncomplicated heart failure is often too long. We hypothesized that a rapid optimization of care and a guideline-based approach would allow an early discharge of patients, still maintaining a greater quality and efficiency of care. We conducted a randomized trial of the effect of a guideline-based intervention on rates of readmission within 90 days of hospital discharge and costs of care for patients who were hospitalized for heart failure and discharged after 4 days of stay. The intervention consisted of early echocardiography, aggressive diuretic therapy, comprehensive education of the patient and family, a prescribed diet, and intensive application of the guidelines' recommendations on pharmacological therapy. Fifty early-discharged patients were compared to 50 concurrent normally-discharged patients. Average length of stays during baseline admissions was shorter for early-discharged patients respect to controls (3.9 +/- 0.8 vs 7.0 +/- 1.9 days, p<0.001). At discharge, when compared with control patients, early-discharged patients were similarly prescribed and/or were taking similar dosages of ACE-inhibitors (84 vs 80% and 17 vs 15 mg/die, p = NS), beta-blockers (64 vs 56% and 14 vs 16 mg/die, p = NS), spironolactone (86 vs 70% and 36 vs 32 mg/die, p = NS), digoxin (74 vs 70% and 0.18 vs 0.15 mg/die, p = NS), and losartan (8 vs 6% and 50 mg/die for both groups, p = NS). Hospital readmission rates and days of stay were similar between groups (6 vs 8% and 18 vs 26 days, respectively for study and control patients), whilst the overall costs of care were lower for early-discharged patients (289 vs 449 [symbol: see text] per patient per month), due to the shorter length of stay at baseline. Survival for 90 days was achieved in 47 patients both in the study and control groups (p = NS).",
"yes. Hemodynamic improvement in acutely decompensated heart failure patients is associated with decreasing NT-proBNP levels.",
"There are few data regarding the impact of prior heart failure (P-HF) on the presentation, course and outcomes of acute coronary syndromes (ACS). We prospectively analyzed all ACS patients admitted in all cardiology wards in Israel during February and March, 2004. Of the 2098 patients, 156(7.4%) had P-HF. These patients were older (75 [66.5-81] versus 63 [53-74] years, (P<0.001)) and more often female (38.5% versus 25.0%, P<0.001)), with a higher prevalence of coronary artery disease risk factors, prior cardiac disease and procedures, and other co-morbidities. They more often presented with atypical angina and heart failure and less with ST-elevation (18.6% versus 51.3%, p<0.0001). In-hospital heart failure developed more frequently (15.4% versus 6.1%, p = 0.00001), including cardiogenic shock (7.1% versus 2.9%, p = 0.005), as did persistent atrial fibrillation (6.4% versus 0.7%, p<0.001), but not ischemic complications. After adjustment for differences, P-HF was not independently associated with 30 day or six-month mortality, but at one-year follow-up, it was (OR 1.16, 95% CI 1.0-2.5). P-HF was also independently associated with increased incidence of heart failure upon admission or thereafter in-hospital (OR = 4.3, 95% CI 2.8-6.6).",
"yes. Adherence to guidelines for treatment of ADHF/PE decreased the short-term mortality and increased the use of medications known to reduce mortality and morbidity in patients with systolic heart failure. Echocardiography is an important tool to guide treatment of ADHF/PE.",
"yes. P-HF ACS patients had high-risk features, lower incidence of ST-elevation, and higher one-year adjusted mortality. P-HF was also independently associated with in-hospital heart failure, suggesting they should be monitored vigilantly.",
"yes. Utilizing trained volunteer staff to improve patient education and engagement might be an efficient and low-cost intervention to reduce CHF readmissions.",
"Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).",
"Organizationally based, disease-targeted collaborative quality improvement efforts are widely applied but have not been subject to rigorous evaluation. We evaluated the effects of the Institute of Healthcare Improvement's Breakthrough Series (IHI BTS) on quality of care for chronic heart failure (CHF). We conducted a quasi-experiment in 4 organizations participating in the IHI BTS for CHF in 1999-2000 and 4 comparable control organizations. We reviewed a total of 489 medical records obtained from the sites and used a computerized data collection tool to measure performance on 23 predefined quality indicators. We then compared differences in indicator performance between the baseline and post-intervention periods for participating and non-participating organizations. Participating and control patients did not differ significantly with regard to measured clinical factors at baseline. After adjusting for age, gender, number of chronic conditions, and clustering by site, participating sites showed greater improvement than control sites for 11 of the 21 indicators, including use of lipid-lowering and angiotensin converting enzyme inhibition therapy. When all indicators were combined into a single overall process score, participating sites improved more than controls (17% versus 1%, P<0.0001). The improvement was greatest for measures of education and counseling (24% versus -1%, P<0.0001).",
"Most nationally standardised quality measures use widely accepted evidence-based processes as their foundation, but the discharge instruction component of the United States standards of Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations heart failure core measure appears to be based on expert opinion alone. To determine whether documentation of compliance with any or all of the six required discharge instructions is correlated with readmissions to hospital or mortality. A retrospective study at a single tertiary care hospital was conducted on randomly sampled patients hospitalised for heart failure from July 2002 to September 2003. Applying the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations criteria, 782 of 1121 patients were found eligible to receive discharge instructions. Eligibility was determined by age, principal diagnosis codes and discharge status codes. The primary outcome measures are time to death and time to readmission for heart failure or readmission for any cause and time to death. In all, 68% of patients received all instructions, whereas 6% received no instructions. Patients who received all instructions were significantly less likely to be readmitted for any cause (p = 0.003) and for heart failure (p = 0.035) than those who missed at least one type of instruction. Documentation of discharge instructions is correlated with reduced readmission rates. However, there was no association between documentation of discharge instructions and mortality (p = 0.521).",
"We sought to assess the impact of the American College of Cardiology's Guidelines Applied in Practice (GAP) project for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) care, encompassing 33 acute-care hospitals in southeastern Michigan, on rates of mortality in Medicare patients treated in Michigan. The GAP project increases the use of evidence-based therapies in patients with AMI. It is unknown whether GAP also can reduce the rate of mortality in patients with AMI. Using a before (n = 1,368) and after GAP implementation (n = 1,489) cohort study, 2,857 Medicare patients with AMI were studied to assess the influence of the GAP program on mortality. Multivariate models tested the independent impact of GAP after controlling for other conditions on in-hospital, 30-day, and one-year mortality. Average patient age was 76 years, 48% were women, and 16% represented non-white minorities. The rate of mortality decreased after GAP for each interval studied: hospital, 10.4% versus 13.6%; 30-day, 16.7% versus 21.6%; and one-year, 33.2% versus 38.3%; all p < 0.02. After multivariate adjustment, GAP correlated with a 21% to 26% reduction in mortality, particularly at 30 days (odds ratio of GAP to baseline 0.74; 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.59 to 0.94; p = 0.012) and one year (odds ratio 0.78; 95% CI 0.64 to 0.95; p = 0.013), particularly in the patients for whom a standard discharge tool was used (1-year mortality, odds ratio 0.53; 95% CI 0.36 to 0.76; p = 0.0006).",
"The Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program provides incentives to hospitals to reduce early readmissions for heart failure (HF), acute myocardial infarction (AMI), and pneumonia (PNE). To examine the contribution of each diagnosis to readmissions penalty size, data were obtained from the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services, American Hospital Association, and United States Census Bureau including number of cases; readmissions payment adjustment factor (values <1 indicate a penalty for excess readmissions), excess readmission ratio (ERR, or ratio of adjusted predicted readmission based on comorbidities, frailty, and individual patient demographics to expected probability of readmission at an average hospital) for each diagnosis, hospital teaching status, bed number, and zip code socioeconomic status. Of 2,228 hospitals with ≥25 cases per diagnosis, 1,636 received a penalty. Univariate correlation coefficients between penalty and ERR were -0.66, -0.61, and -0.43 for HF, PNE, and AMI, respectively (all P < .001). Correlation between ERRs was greatest for PNE and HF (0.30; P < .001) and weakest for PNE and AMI (0.12; P < .001). In regression analyses, the HF ERR explained the most variance in the penalty (R(2) range 0.21-0.44).",
"It is unclear if the presence of atrial fibrillation (AF) on admission is associated with worse in-hospital outcomes in patients hospitalized with heart failure (HF). This study evaluated the clinical characteristics, management, length of stay, and mortality of HF patients with and without AF. We studied 99 810 patients from 255 sites admitted with HF enrolled in Get With The Guidelines-Heart Failure between January 1, 2005, and December 31, 2010. Patients with AF on admission were compared with patients in sinus rhythm. A total of 31 355 (31.4%) HF patients presented with AF, of which 6701 (21.3%) were newly diagnosed. Patients in AF were older (77±12 versus 70±15, P<0.001) and were more likely to have history of stroke and valvular heart disease. AF patients had higher B-type natriuretic peptide levels and ejection fraction (42±17% versus 39±17%, P<0.001). AF patients were more likely to be hospitalized >4 days (48.8% versus 41.5%, P<0.001), discharged to a facility other than home (28.5% versus 19.7%, P<0.001), and had higher hospital mortality rate (4.0% versus 2.6%, P<0.001). AF, particularly newly diagnosed, was independently associated with adverse outcomes (adjusted odds ratios and 95% confidence intervals for mortality 1.17, 1.05-1.29, P=0.0029, and 1.29, 1.10-1.52, P=0.0023 for AF and newly diagnosed AF, respectively).",
"To re-examine interhospital variation in 30 day survival after acute myocardial infarction (AMI) 10 years on to see whether the appointment of new cardiologists and their involvement in emergency care has improved outcome after AMI. Retrospective cohort study. Acute hospitals in Scotland. 61,484 patients with a first AMI over two time periods: 1988-1991; and 1998-2001. 30 day survival. Between 1988 and 1991, median 30 day survival was 79.2% (interhospital range 72.1-85.1%). The difference between highest and lowest was 13.0 percentage points (age and sex adjusted, 12.1 percentage points). Between 1998 and 2001, median survival rose to 81.6% (and range decreased to 78.0-85.6%) with a difference of 7.6 (adjusted 8.8) percentage points. Admission hospital was an independent predictor of outcome at 30 days during the two time periods (p<0.001). Over the period 1988-1991, the odds ratio for death ranged, between hospitals, from 0.71 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.58 to 0.88) to 1.50 (95% CI 1.19 to 1.89) and for the period 1998-2001 from 0.82 (95% CI 0.60 to 1.13) to 1.46 (95% CI 1.07 to 1.99). The adjusted risk of death was significantly higher than average in nine of 26 hospitals between 1988 and 1991 but in only two hospitals between 1998 and 2001.",
"Health-related quality of life (HRQOL) is a major clinical outcome for heart failure (HF) patients. We aimed to determine the frequency, durability, and prognostic significance of improved HRQOL after hospitalization for decompensated HF. We analyzed HRQOL, measured serially using the Minnesota Living with Heart Failure Questionnaire (MLHFQ), for 425 patients who survived to discharge in a multicenter randomized clinical trial of pulmonary artery catheter versus clinical assessment to guide therapy for patients with advanced HF. All patients enrolled had 1 or more prior HF hospitalizations or chronic high diuretic doses and 1 or more symptom and 1 sign of fluid overload at admission. Improvement, defined as a decrease of more than 5 points in MLHFQ total score, occurred in 68% of patients by 1 month and stabilized. The degree of 1-month improvement differed (P < .0001 group x time interaction) between 6-month survivors and non-survivors. In a Cox regression model, after adjustment for traditional risk factors for HF morbidity and mortality, improvement in HRQOL by 1 month compared to worsening at 1 month or no change predicted time to subsequent event-free survival (P=.013).",
"Implementation of the complex treatment strategies that have been shown to improve survival of patients with congestive heart failure (CHF) may require certain expertise. We wanted to examine the association between pattern of outpatient care and survival of patients with CHF. In a retrospective cohort study conducted with national Veterans Health Administration (VHA) databases, we examined the association between the pattern of outpatient care and survival in 11,661 patients discharged from VA hospitals between October 1, 1991, and September 30, 1992, with the primary diagnosis of CHF (cohort 1). Patients were divided into 4 groups, on the basis of their pattern of outpatient care over a 12-month period after discharge: 1) general medicine clinic visits only (GM-only); 2) cardiology clinic visits only (CARD-only); 3) general medicine and cardiology (MIXED) clinic visits; and 4) neither general medicine nor cardiology clinic visits (no-GM/CARD). We used the Cox proportional hazards model to evaluate 1-year survival, controlling for clinical and demographic factors. Consistency of our results was examined by performing identical analysis on a cohort of patients discharged from VHA hospitals between October 1, 1994, and September 30, 1995 (cohort 2, n = 10,141). The overall 1-year mortality rate was 23% in the primary cohort. The unadjusted mortality rate was highest for patients in the no-GM/CARD follow up (29%) and lowest for patients in the MIXED group (19%). By use of the MIXED group as reference and adjusting for important clinical and demographic factors, the risk of death (risk ratio [95% CI]) was 1.12 (0.94-1.34) in the CARD-only group, 1.26 (1.15-1.38) in the GM-only group, and 1.48 (1.28-1.72) in the no-GM/CARD group. Cohort-2 results were consistent with cohort 1 for most covariates, and significant survival differences were again found between GM-only and the MIXED group (1.25 [1.14-1.37]).",
"The goals of this analysis were to determine: 1) whether guideline-based care during hospitalization for a myocardial infarction (MI) varied as a function of patients' baseline risk; and 2) whether temporal improvements in guideline adherence occurred in all risk groups. Guideline-based care of patients with MI improves outcomes, especially among those at higher risk. Previous studies suggest that this group is paradoxically less likely to receive guideline-based care (risk-treatment mismatch). A total of 112,848 patients with MI were enrolled at 279 hospitals participating in Get With The Guidelines-Coronary Artery Disease (GWTG-CAD) between August 2000 and December 2008. We developed and validated an in-hospital mortality model (C-statistic: 0.75) to stratify patients into risk tertiles: low (0% to 3%), intermediate (3% to 6.5%), and high (>6.5%). Use of guideline-based care and temporal trends were examined. High-risk patients were significantly less likely to receive aspirin, beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers, statins, diabetic treatment, smoking cessation advice, or cardiac rehabilitation referral at discharge compared with those at lower risk (all p<0.0001). However, use of guideline-recommended therapies increased significantly in all risk groups per year (low-risk odds ratio: 1.33 [95% confidence interval (CI): 1.22 to 1.45]; intermediate-risk odds ratio: 1.30 [95% CI: 1.21 to 1.38]; and high-risk odds ratio: 1.30 [95% confidence interval: 1.23 to 1.37]). Also, there was a narrowing in the guideline adherence gap between low- and high-risk patients over time (p = 0.0002).",
"Process measures have been developed and implemented to evaluate the quality of care patients receive in the hospital. This study examines whether there is an association between the quality of in-hospital cardiac care and a hospital's proportion of low-income patients. A retrospective analysis of 1979 hospitals submitting information on 12 quality of care (QoC) process measures for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and congestive heart failure (CHF) patients to the Hospital Quality Alliance during 2005 and 2006 and meeting all study inclusion criteria. Mean hospital performance ranged from 84.2% (ACE inhibitor for left ventricular systolic dysfunction) to 95.9% (aspirin on arrival) for AMI QoC process measures and from 64.4% (discharge instructions) to 92.4% (left ventricular function assessment) for CHF QoC process measures. Regression analyses indicated a statistically significant negative association between the proportion of low-income patients and hospital performance for 10 of the 12 cardiac QoC process measures, after controlling for selected hospital characteristics.",
"Evidence-based therapies can lower the risk of death or hospital admission in heart failure (HF) patients, but are underprescribed. Critical pathways are one means of supporting systematic use of evidence-based recommendations. Patients admitted for HF in one hospital in 2009 and included in a critical pathway were compared with a control group of patients admitted in 2007. The primary endpoint was the risk of death or readmission within 90 days after discharge. The hazard ratio of death or readmission was evaluated in a multivariate Cox proportional hazard model adjusting for age, sex, co-morbidities, and length of stay. Three hundred and sixty-three patients were evaluated (151 in the critical pathway and 212 in the control group). Adjusted hazard ratio for death or readmission at 90 days was 0.72 (95 CI 0.51-1.00, p=0.049). Adhesion to guidelines was significantly better for patients included in the critical pathway (p=0.004), with more frequent prescription of beta-blockers (70.9% (95% CI 62.9-78.0) vs. 56.6% (95% CI 49.6-63.4), p=0.006), and evaluation of left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF, 73.5% (95% CI 65.7-80.3) vs. 57.5% (95% CI 50.6-64.3), p=0.002). Patients with reduced LVEF seem to have benefited the most from the inclusion in the critical pathway.",
"Length of hospital stay continues to decline, but the effect on postdischarge outcomes is unclear. We determined trends in risk-adjusted mortality rates and readmission rates for 83,445 Medicare patients discharged alive after hospitalization for myocardial infarction, heart failure, gastrointestinal hemorrhage, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pneumonia, or stroke. Patients were stratified into deciles of observed/expected length of stay to determine whether patients whose length of stay was much shorter than expected had higher risk-adjusted mortality and readmission rates. Analyses were stratified by whether a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order was written within 2 days of admission (early) or later. From 1991 through 1997, risk-adjusted postdischarge mortality generally remained stable for patients without a DNR order. Postdischarge mortality increased by 21% to 72% for patients with early DNR orders and increased for 2 of 6 diagnoses for patients with late DNR orders. Markedly shorter than expected length of stay was associated with higher than expected risk-adjusted mortality for patients with early DNR orders but not for others (no DNR and late DNR). Risk-adjusted readmission rates remained stable from 1991 through 1997, except for a 15% (95% confidence interval, 3%-30%) increase for patients with congestive heart failure. Short observed/expected length of stay was not associated with higher readmission rates.",
"This study examined the outcomes of new-onset heart failure (HF) outpatients managed by cardiologists and primary care (PC) physicians. Several studies have sought differences in outcomes between patients with HF managed by cardiologists and PC physicians, but most focused on inpatients, who often represent later stages of HF, whereas many treatments have their impact by delaying disease progression. This was a retrospective cohort study of incident HF identified between 1996 and 1997 in a staff model health maintenance organization. Cardiology care was defined as >/=2 visits or >/=25% of total medical outpatient visits to cardiology. Records from a cohort of 403 patients with new-onset outpatient HF were reviewed. The main outcome measure was a combination of death and/or cardiovascular hospitalization at 24 months. Cardiologists' patients (n = 198) were younger (66 vs. 71 years, p = 0.001), were more likely men (54% vs. 46%, p = 0.01), had coronary artery disease (64% vs. 42%, p = 0.001), and had a low (</=45%) ejection fraction (EF) (66% vs. 44%, p < 0.001) compared with PC physicians' patients. More cardiologists' patients received an EF assessment (94% vs. 74%, p < 0.001), angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (83% vs. 68%, p < 0.001), and beta-blockers (38% vs. 22%, p < 0.001). In multivariate proportional hazards modeling that included variables that differed between providers and univariate predictors of outcomes, cardiology care was an independent predictor of a lower risk for the combined outcome (hazard ratio 0.62, confidence interval 0.42 to 0.93, p = 0.02).",
"The average 30 day case fatality rate after admission with an AMI has fallen substantially over the past 10 years in Scotland. Between-hospital variation is also considerably less notable because of better survival in the previously poorly performing hospitals. This suggests that the greater involvement of cardiologists in the management of AMI has paid dividends.",
"yes. Our novel RRT program was associated with a decreased incidence of non-ICU CPA and improved hospital mortality.",
"yes. Nurses can deliver a brief intervention to hospitalized patients with heart failure that may improve short-term, event-free survival. Future research is needed to verify these results with a larger sample size.",
"Treatment of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) has changed significantly over the past two decades. We investigated the effect of these changes on one-year mortality. All hospital admissions for STEMI in Reykjavik, Iceland, during the calendar years of 1986, 1996 and 2006 were studied. One-year mortality was related to changes in the use of reperfusion strategies and medication at hospital discharge. One-year mortality decreased from 26.3% in 1986 and 19.7% in 1996 to 12.9% in 2006 (P= 0.001). Cox proportional hazard analysis showed that aspirin (HR 0.29), the use of reperfusion therapy (HR 0.51) and beta-blockers at hospital discharge (HR 0.53) were the strongest factors to explain the mortality reduction while the use of diuretics (HR 1.42) and age (HR 1.06) were related to increased one-year mortality.",
"yes. Evidence-based referrals from a small-volume pediatric cardiac center to large-volume institutions resulted in a reduction in mortality after congenital heart surgery.",
"To study the effects of a management programme on hospitalisation and health care costs one year after admission for heart failure. Prospective, randomised trial. University hospital with a primary catchment area of 250,000 inhabitants. 190 patients (aged 65-84 years, 52.3% men) hospitalised because of heart failure. Two types of patient management were compared. The intervention group received education on heart failure and self management, with follow up at an easy access, nurse directed outpatient clinic for one year after discharge. The control group was managed according to routine clinical practice. Time to readmission, days in hospital, and health care costs during one year. The one year survival rate was 71.8% (n = 79) in the control group and 70.0% (n = 56) in the intervention group (NS). The mean time to readmission was longer in the intervention group than in the control group (141 (87) v 106 (101); p < 0.05) and number of days in hospital tended to be fewer (4.2 (7.8) v 8.2 (14.3); p = 0.07). There was a trend towards a mean annual reduction in health care costs per patient of US$1300 (US $1 = SEK 7.76) in the intervention group compared with costs in the controls (US$3594 v 2294; p = 0.07).",
"Concerns have been expressed about quality of for-profit hospitals and their use of expensive technologies. To determine differences in mortality after admission for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and in the use of low- and high-tech services for AMI among for-profit, public, and private nonprofit hospitals. Cooperative Cardiovascular Project data for 129,092 Medicare patients admitted for AMI from 1994 to 1995. Mortality at 30 days and 1 year postadmission; use of aspirin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, beta-blockers at discharge, thrombolytic therapy, catheterization, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), and coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) compared by ownership. Mortality rates at 30 days and at 1 year at for-profit hospitals were no different from those at public and private nonprofit hospitals. Without patient illness variables, nonprofit hospitals had lower mortality rates at 30 days (relative risk [RR], 0.95; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.91-0.99) and at 1 year (RR, 0.96; 95% CI, 0.93-0.99) than did for-profit hospitals, but there was no difference in mortality between public and for-profit hospitals. Beneficiaries at nonprofit hospitals were more likely to receive aspirin (RR, 1.04; 95% CI, 1.03-1.05) and ACE inhibitors (RR, 1.05; 95% CI, 1.02-1.08) than at for-profit hospitals, but had lower rates of PTCA (RR, 0.91; 95% CI, 0.86-0.96) and CABG (RR, 0.93; 95% CI, 0.86-1.00).",
"It is unclear whether teaching status or day of discharge influences outcomes after a heart failure hospitalization. We evaluated adults discharged after a heart failure hospitalization between 1999 and 2009 in Alberta, Canada. The primary outcome was death or nonelective readmission 30 days postdischarge. Of 12 216 patients discharged from teaching hospitals and 12 157 patients from nonteaching hospitals, 20 524 (84%) discharges occurred on weekdays. Although they had greater comorbidity and used more healthcare resources before their heart failure hospitalization, patients discharged from teaching hospitals exhibited shorter lengths of stay (adjusted ratio, 0.83; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.80-0.86) and significantly lower rates of death or readmission in the 30 days after discharge than those discharged from nonteaching hospitals (17.4% versus 22.1%; adjusted hazard ratio [aHR], 0.83; 95% CI, 0.77-0.89). Patients discharged on weekdays were older and had greater comorbidity, yet exhibited significantly lower rates of death or readmission at 30 days than those discharged on weekends (19.5% versus 21.1%; aHR, 0.87; 95% CI, 0.80-0.94). Compared with weekend discharge from a nonteaching hospital, 30-day death/readmission rates were lower for weekday discharge from a nonteaching hospital (aHR, 0.85; 95% CI, 0.77-0.94), weekend discharge from a teaching hospital (aHR, 0.80; 95% CI, 0.69-0.92), and weekday discharge from a teaching hospital (aHR, 0.71, 95% CI, 0.63-0.79).",
"Heart failure is a common Emergency Department (ED) presentation but whether ED volume influences patient outcomes is unknown. Retrospective cohort of all adults presenting to 93 EDs between 1999 and 2009 with a most responsible diagnosis of heart failure (n=44 925 ED visits; mean age, 76.4 years). Cases seen in low-volume EDs had less comorbidities and were less likely to be hospitalized (54.5%) than those seen in medium (61.8%; adjusted odds ratio [aOR] 1.16, [95% confidence interval {CI} 1.10-1.23]) or high-volume EDs (73.6%; aOR, 1.95 [95% CI, 1.83-2.07]). Of patients treated and released, low-volume ED cases exhibited higher risk of death/hospitalization/ED visit in the subsequent 7 (22.0%) and 30 days (44.9%) than medium (16.3%; aOR, 0.81 [95% CI, 0.73-0.90], and 35.3%; aOR, 0.79 [95% CI, 0.73-0.86]) or high-volume ED cases (13.0%; aOR, 0.69 [95% CI, 0.61-0.78], and 30.2%; aOR, 0.67 [95% CI, 0.61-0.74]). Of patients hospitalized at the time of their index ED visit, low-volume ED cases exhibited a higher risk of 30-day death/all-cause readmission (24.3%) than those seen in medium (21.9%; aOR, 0.83 [95% CI, 0.76-0.91]) or high-volume EDs (18.1%; aOR, 0.77 [95% CI, 0.70-0.85]).",
"\"America's Best Hospitals,\" an influential list published annually by U.S. News and World Report, assesses the quality of hospitals. It is not known whether patients admitted to hospitals ranked at the top in cardiology have lower short-term mortality from acute myocardial infarction than those admitted to other hospitals or whether differences in mortality are explained by differential use of recommended therapies. Using data from the Cooperative Cardiovascular Project on 149,177 elderly Medicare beneficiaries with acute myocardial infarction in 1994 or 1995, we examined the care and outcomes of patients admitted to three types of hospitals: those ranked high in cardiology (top-ranked hospitals); hospitals not in the top rank that had on-site facilities for cardiac catheterization, coronary angioplasty, and bypass surgery (similarly equipped hospitals); and the remaining hospitals (non-similarly equipped hospitals). We compared 30-day mortality; the rates of use of aspirin, beta-blockers, and reperfusion; and the relation of differences in rates of therapy to short-term mortality. Admission to a top-ranked hospital was associated with lower adjusted 30-day mortality (odds ratio, 0.87; 95 percent confidence interval, 0.76 to 1.00; P=0.05 for top-ranked hospitals vs. the others). Among patients without contraindications to therapy, top-ranked hospitals had significantly higher rates of use of aspirin (96.2 percent, as compared with 88.6 percent for similarly equipped hospitals and 83.4 percent for non-similarly equipped hospitals; P<0.01) and beta-blockers (75.0 percent vs. 61.8 percent and 58.7 percent, P<0.01), but lower rates of reperfusion therapy (61.0 percent vs. 70.7 percent and 65.6 percent, P=0.03). The survival advantage associated with admission to top-ranked hospitals was less strong after we adjusted for factors including the use of aspirin and beta-blockers (odds ratio, 0.94; 95 percent confidence interval, 0.82 to 1.08; P=0.38).",
"yes. Pulmonary artery pressure-guided HF management in Medicare-eligible patients led to a 49% reduction in total HF hospitalizations and a 58% reduction in all-cause 30-day readmissions.",
"yes. Among older patients hospitalized with heart failure, higher discharge heart rate was associated with increased risks of death and rehospitalization, with higher risk in the first 30 days and for SR compared with AF.",
"yes. Admission to a hospital ranked high on the list of \"America's Best Hospitals\" was associated with lower 30-day mortality among elderly patients with acute myocardial infarction. A substantial portion of the survival advantage may be associated with these hospitals' higher rates of use of aspirin and beta-blocker therapy.",
"yes. In patients hospitalized with acute decompensated heart failure, a dilated IVC by bedside ultrasound at the time of admission is associated with a higher 90-day mortality after hospitalization. Journal of Hospital Medicine 2016;11:778-784. © 2016 Society of Hospital Medicine.",
"Heart failure (HF) clinics are known to improve outcomes of patients with HF. Studies have been limited to single, usually tertiary centres whose experience may not apply to the general HF population. To determine the effectiveness of HF clinics in reducing death or all-cause rehospitalization in a real-world population. A retrospective analysis of the Improving Cardiovascular Outcomes in Nova Scotia (ICONS) disease registry was performed. All 8731 patients with a diagnosis of HF (844 managed in HF clinics) who were discharged from the hospital between October 15, 1997, and July 1, 2000, were identified. Patients enrolled in any one of four HF clinics (two community-based and two academic-based) were compared with those who were not. The primary outcome was the one-year combined hospitalization and mortality. Patients followed in HF clinics were younger (68 versus 75 years), more likely to be men (63% versus 48%), and had a lower ejection fraction (35% versus 44%), lower systolic blood pressure (137 mmHg verus 146 mmHg) and lower serum creatinine (121 micromol/L versus 130 micromol/L). There was no difference in the prevalence of hypertension (56%), diabetes (35%) or stroke/transient ischemic attack (16%). The one-year mortality rate was 23%, while 31% of patients were rehospitalized; the combined end point was 51%. Enrollment in an HF clinic was independently associated with reduced risk of total mortality (hazard ratio [HR] 0.69 [95% CI 0.51 to 0.90], P=0.008; number needed to treat for one year to prevent the occurrence of one event [NNT]=16), all-cause hospital readmission (HR 0.27 [95% CI 0.21 to 0.36], P<0.0001; NNT=4), and combined mortality or hospital readmission (HR 0.73 [95% CI 0.60 to 0.89], P<0.0015; NNT=5).",
"yes. Cardiology care at this early stage of HF is associated with improved guideline adherence and a reduced risk of the composite outcome of death plus cardiovascular hospitalization.",
"yes. The in-hospital mortality rate of patients hospitalized with cardiac arrest in the United States decreased by 11.8% from 2001 to 2009.",
"This study evaluated the effectiveness of using trained volunteer staff in reducing 30-day readmissions of congestive heart failure (CHF) patients. From June 2010 to December 2010, 137 patients (mean age 73 years) hospitalized for CHF were randomly assigned to either: an interventional arm (arm A) receiving dietary and pharmacologic education by a trained volunteer, follow-up telephone calls within 48 hours, and a month of weekly calls; or a control arm (arm B) receiving standard care. Primary outcomes were 30-day readmission rates for CHF and worsening New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification; composite and all-cause mortality were secondary outcomes. Arm A patients had decreased 30-day readmissions (7% vs 19%; P < .05) with a relative risk reduction (RRR) of 63% and an absolute risk reduction (ARR) of 12%. The composite outcome of 30-day readmission, worsening NYHA functional class, and death was decreased in the arm A (24% vs 49%; P < .05; RRR 51%, ARR 25%). Standard-care treatment and hypertension, age ≥65 years and hypertension, and cigarette smoking were predictors of increased risk for readmissions, worsening NYHA functional class, and all-cause mortality, respectively, in the multivariable analysis.",
"yes. Delivery of care to heart failure patients in a comprehensive, specialized program results in similar survival regardless of race despite higher utilization of inpatient and outpatient resources. The finding that, after cardiac transplantation, African Americans do not have higher mortality rates, despite having higher rates of rejection overall and more hospitalizations, further supports the hypothesis that optimal care can improve outcomes despite unfavorable baseline clinical characteristics.",
"yes. The reduction in one-year mortality after myocardial infarction during the last two decades is explained by improved medical management with aspirin, beta-blockers and aggressive reperfusion therapy. Diuretic therapy, reflecting congestive heart failure, and increased age have negative effects on survival.",
"Hospitals face increasing pressure to lower cost of care while improving quality of care. It is unclear if efforts to reduce hospital cost of care will adversely affect quality of care or increase downstream inpatient cost of care. We conducted an observational cross-sectional study of US hospitals discharging Medicare patients for congestive heart failure (CHF) or pneumonia in 2006. For each condition, we examined the association between hospital cost of care and the following variables: process quality of care, 30-day mortality rates, readmission rates, and 6-month inpatient cost of care. Compared with hospitals in the lowest-cost quartile for CHF care, hospitals in the highest-cost quartile had higher quality-of-care scores (89.9% vs 85.5%) and lower mortality for CHF (9.8% vs 10.8%) (P<.001 for both). For pneumonia, the converse was true. Compared with low-cost hospitals, high-cost hospitals had lower quality-of-care scores (85.7% vs 86.6%, P = .002) and higher mortality for pneumonia (11.7% vs 10.9%, P<.001). Low-cost hospitals had similar or slightly higher 30-day readmission rates compared with high-cost hospitals (24.7% vs 22.0%, P<.001 for CHF and 17.9% vs 17.3%, P = .20 for pneumonia). Nevertheless, patients initially seen in low-cost hospitals incurred lower 6-month inpatient cost of care compared with patients initially seen in hospitals with the highest cost of care ($12 715 vs $18 411 for CHF and $10 143 vs $15 138 for pneumonia, P<.001 for both).",
"yes. Improvement of LA function after CRT was associated with a lower incidence of AF and mortality in AF naïve patients with severe heart failure.",
"While drug therapy and medical management improved markedly over the last decade, the basic clinical characteristics of the heart failure patient population treated at the study hospital changed little. This offers an excellent opportunity to study potential heart failure survival improvements for a general patient population. Vital status follow-up through 2001 was obtained from the Social Security Death Index for all 2323 patients aged>or=65 years at the time of an initial, medically managed heart failure hospitalization between October 1989 and March 2000. Kaplan Meier survival probabilities were compared across 4 time periods in the 1990s. A Cox proportional hazards model was used to estimate age, sex, race and comorbidity-adjusted differences in survival among patients admitted in 1989-1991 and 3 subsequent multi-year periods. There was an increase in the proportion of older female patients with more chronic conditions. Compared with patients admitted in 1989-1991, survival probabilities for patients admitted in 1999-2000 had improved about 5% at 30 days (to 95%) and 10% at 1 year in 1999-2001 (to 73.5%). For those admitted between 1989-1998, there was a 9% improvement over 1989-1991 at 5 years (to 36%). Hazards model results indicated that patients admitted in 1999-2000 had a relative risk of death only 66% that of patients admitted in 1989-1991 (P<.0001).",
"yes. A management programme for patients with heart failure discharged after hospitalisation reduces health care costs and the need for readmission.",
"For patients hospitalized with ACS in England and Wales, there have been substantial reductions in in-hospital mortality rates from 2003 to 2010 across all age groups. The temporal improvements in mortality were similar for sex and type of acute myocardial infarction. Age-dependent inequalities in the management of ACS were apparent.",
"yes. An early introduction of CVVHDF significantly diminished the need to use mechanical ventilation and indicated a positive trend in the reduction of in-hospital mortality in patients with HF complicated by AKI.",
"yes. Implementation of a critical pathway for patients hospitalized for HF was associated with a 28% reduction of the relative risk of death or readmission and improved adhesion to guidelines.",
"These findings provide evidence of modest but significant short-term survival improvements, particularly after 1998, when drug therapy had became optimal in the inpatient setting, patient education and discharge planning became better documented, and inpatient mortality rates had declined substantially.",
"To conduct a statewide analysis of the effect of New York's regulations, limiting internal medicine and family practice residents' work hours, on patient mortality. Retrospective study of inpatient discharge files for 1988 (before the regulations) and 1991 (after the regulations). Adult patients discharged from New York teaching hospitals (170214) and nonteaching hospitals (143,455) with a principal diagnosis of congestive heart failure, acute myocardial infarction, or pneumonia, for the years 1988 and 1991 (periods before and after Code 405 regulations went into law). Patients from nonteaching hospitals served as controls. In-hospital mortality. Combined unadjusted mortality for congestive heart failure, acute myocardial infarction, and pneumonia patients declined between 1988 and 1991 in both teaching (14.1% to 13.0%; P =.0001) and nonteaching hospitals (14.0% to 12.5%; P =.0001). Adjusted mortality also declined between 1988 and 1991 in both teaching (odds ratio [OR], death 1991/1988, 0.868; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.843 to 0.894; P =.0001) and nonteaching hospitals (OR, death 1991/1988, 0.853; 95% CI, 0.826 to 0.881; P =.0001). This beneficial trend toward lower mortality over time was nearly identical between teaching and nonteaching hospitals (P =.4348).",
"Hospitalizations for decompensated heart failure (HF) are thought to increase long-term mortality. However, previous reports focus on newly hospitalized HF patients or clinical trial populations and do not always adjust for baseline mortality risk. We hypothesized that the number of HF hospitalizations within the prior 12 months would improve overall mortality risk stratification, particularly in otherwise \"low-risk\" HF inpatients. We studied 2221 HF patients admitted to 14 Michigan community hospitals during 2002-2004. We estimated 1-year mortality using the multivariable (Enhanced Feedback For Effective Cardiac Treatment [EFFECT]) model and classified patients as low (EFFECT <90), moderate (90-120), and high risk (>120). We used logistic regression and stratified Cox proportional hazard modeling to explore the overall EFFECT model performance and the influence of HF hospitalizations within the prior 12 months on mortality risk. The EFFECT model adequately predicted and stratified for 1-year mortality (odds ratio 1.35 [95% confidence interval (CI), 1.30-1.40] per 10 points, P <.001, C-statistic 0.698), with low-, moderate-, and high-risk group mortality 18%, 35%, and 58%, respectively. The number of prior HF hospitalizations only modestly improved overall discrimination (C-statistic 0.704, P=.04). However, in low-risk patients the number of prior HF hospitalizations progressively increased the hazard for 1-year mortality (none: mortality 13%; 1: mortality 20%, hazard ratio [HR] 1.50 (95% CI, 0.86-2.60), P=.15; 2 or 3: mortality 27%, HR 2.24 (95% CI, 1.39-3.60); P=.001; 4 or more: mortality 31%, HR 2.80 (95% CI, 1.70-4.63); P <.001; P <.001 for trend). There was no consistent relationship between prior HF hospitalizations and 1-year mortality in moderate- or high-risk HF patients.",
"yes. A decrease in BP during hospitalisation for acute heart failure was a predictor of all cause mortality. A higher admission BP and the tolerability of added medications probably played a role, and our findings need confirmation in larger studies.",
"To assess the trend in risk-adjusted hospital mortality from heart failure. Oregon hospital discharge data from 1991 through 1995 were analyzed. A total of 29,530 hospitalizations because of heart failure in elderly patients (age>or = 65 years) were identified from International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, codes 428.0-428.9. The logistic regression and life table analyses were used to assess the risk-adjusted trend in hospital mortality from heart failure. From 1991 through 1995, 1757 (5.9%) patients with heart failure died in the hospital; 920 (52.4%) of them died within 3 days. The percentage of patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities increased from 6.1% in 1991 to 9.8% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001), whereas the percentage of patients discharged directly to home decreased from 69.2% in 1991 to 62.4% in 1995 (P value for trend<.001). The mean length of stay decreased from 5.15 days in 1991 to 3.97 days in 1995. The age- and sex-standardized mortality rate decreased by 33.8% from 7.4 in 1991 to 4.8 in 1995 (P value for trend<.01). Additional adjustment for comorbidity using multiple logistic regression revealed a greater reduction of 41.0% in the mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.59; 95% confidence interval = 0.50, 0.69) and a reduction of 46.0% in the 3-day mortality rate (odds ratio = 0.54; 95% confidence interval = 0.43, 0.67) across the 5-year period. Life table analysis showed consistently lower cumulative mortality rates during the first week after admission in 1995 compared with those in 1991 (P<.001).",
"There was a decreasing trend over time in the risk-adjusted hospital mortality rates from heart failure, which was not an artifact of decreasing length of stay. Our findings raised the possibility of improved hospital care for heart failure in Oregon."
] | 414 |
Is a third-trimester antibody screen in Rh+ women necessary? | [
"To determine the need for routine third-trimester antibody screening in Rh+ women. An analytic case-control study. We identified Rh+ pregnant women who had received prenatal care and retrospectively analyzed their laboratory data. Patients were grouped into those with a positive third-trimester antibody screen (cases) and those with a negative third-trimester screen (controls). Because entry into a group was decided by the investigators, it could not be randomized. We reviewed the maternal medical records for antibody identification and final pregnancy outcome. We also reviewed the neonatal medical records for evidence of direct Coombs-positive cord blood, anemia, need for transfusion or phototherapy, other medical complications, and death. Using a computerized laboratory database from 2 teaching hospitals, we identified 10,581 obstetric patients who underwent routine first- and third-trimester antibody screening between 1988 and 1997. Of these, 1233 patients were Rh- and 9348 were Rh+. Among the Rh+ patients, 178 (1.9%) had 1 or more atypical antibodies at the first-trimester screen, and 53 (0.6%) had a positive third-trimester antibody screen despite a negative first-trimester screen. Although 6 of these 53 patients (0.06% of the study population) had clinically relevant antibodies for hemolytic disease of the new-born, no significant neonatal sequelae occurred among these 6 patients.",
"Based on the patient and hospital records studied, a repeat third-trimester antibody screen for Rh+ patients is clinically and economically unjustified. Eliminating this laboratory test from clinical practice will not adversely affect pregnancy outcomes and will decrease the costs of prenatal care."
] | [
"Our findings suggest that 3D placental volume measurement and 3DPD assessment of placental vascular indices in the first trimester has the potential to detect women at risk for subsequent development of PE.",
"yes. Maternal IgG anti-A/-B titres contribute to the prediction of risk of severe hyperbilirubinaemia in ABO-incompatible neonates, in addition to blood-grouping and direct antiglobulin-testing, especially following early discharge after delivery.",
"yes. In healthy pregnancy, third-trimester fetal growth and BW are associated with incremental changes in maternal CO in early pregnancy. It is plausible that this association is causative, as changes predate third-trimester fetal growth and eventual BW.",
"The study aims to determine if a vaginal examination improves diagnostic accuracy when assessing women who present to the ED with vaginal bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy. One hundred and thirty-five women with first trimester bleeding were randomised to have a vaginal examination (n = 61) or not (n = 74). They were given a provisional diagnosis, and then a final diagnosis after ultrasound, beta-human chorionic gonadotropin and gynaecological follow up. The provisional diagnosis was considered accurate if it matched the final diagnosis. The provisional and final diagnoses matched in a little over half of the cases, and there was no statistical difference between the two groups (χ(2) = 0.005, P = 0.94).",
"no. These results from 51 Ugandan women suggest that any changes in the antibody response to HIV infection that occur during pregnancy are not sufficient to alter results obtained with the BED and avidity assays. Confirmation with larger studies and with other HIV subtypes is needed.",
"To assess the impact of early vaginal bleeding on the levels of markers used in first trimester screening for aneuploidy. A retrospective analysis was carried out on the free beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (beta-hCG) and pregnancy associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) levels and nuchal translucency thickness in 49 653 women with a normal singleton fetus who had first trimester combined screening for Down Syndrome in three centres. Median MoMs and the distribution of log MoMs of the two markers were compared in two groups-7470 women who self-reported vaginal bleeding and 42 183 women who reported no vaginal bleeding at any stage prior to the screening test. The overall median MoM free beta-hCG and that in the bleeding and non-bleeding group were 0.9854, 1.0012 and 0.9832, and for PAPP-A were 1.0407, 1.0413 and 1.037. There was no significant difference between the bleeding and non-bleeding group by median test (p = 0.080) or by t-test comparing log MoMs (p = 0.1305) for free beta-hCG and for PAPP-A with median test (p = 0.5071) or by t-test comparing log MoMs (p = 0.1740). For delta nuchal translucency (NT) there was also no significant difference between the bleeding and non-bleeding group (p = 0.055).",
"yes. A prenatal ultrasonographic screening should be conducted in couples who are suspected of being alpha-thalassemia-1 carriers when DNA study of alpha-globin gene cannot be performed. The increase of cardiothoracic ratio will help detect an early stage of Hb Bart's.",
"yes. Prospective studies aimed at evaluating whether women with preHTN detected prior to or early in pregnancy may benefit from more intensive screening and/or interventions to prevent hypertensive disorders in pregnancy and GDM are needed.",
"no. Although women referred for IVF have a high prevalence of aPL, these antibodies do not affect the outcome of treatment. Screening women undergoing IVF for aPL is not justified.",
"The birth of a boy is significantly more common than a girl prior to secondary recurrent miscarriage (SRM) and is associated with a poorer chance of a subsequent live birth. Children born after SRM are more likely to be girls. High-titer antisera specific for male antigens (H-Y) have been shown to arrest development of male bovine embryos efficiently. We consequently questioned the role of H-Y antibodies in women with SRM. Serum samples from patients with unexplained SRM (n = 84), unexplained primary recurrent miscarriage (PRM) (n = 12) and healthy women (n = 37) were obtained. The samples were taken during pregnancy (gestational weeks 4-5) for 77 (80%) of the patients. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay was used to detect immunoglobulin G antibodies that specifically recognized any of the five recombinant H-Y proteins (EIF1AY, RPS4Y1, ZFY, DDX3Y and UTY) and their H-X homologs. H-Y-specific antibodies were more frequent in SRM patients (46%) compared with female controls (19%, P = 0.004) and PRM patients (8%, P = 0.01). The presence of H-Y antibodies in early pregnancy was associated with a low male: female birth ratio among the subsequent live births, as only 12% of children born to H-Y antibody-positive patients were boys compared with 44% boys born to H-Y antibody negative patients (P = 0.03).",
"To determine the utility of fundal height in screening for small-for-gestational-age (SGA) and large-for-gestational-age (LGA) neonates at term. This was a retrospective cohort study of 3627 women at University of California, San Francisco from 2002 to 2006 with term, singleton pregnancies specifically examining the 448 who had third trimester ultrasounds for size unequal to dates by fundal height. χ(2) analyses determined the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV) of fundal height as a screening tool for abnormal intrauterine growth. The sensitivity of fundal height was 16.6% for detecting actual birthweight (BWt)>90th percentile (p<0.001) and 17.3% for<10 th percentile (p<0.001). Specificity ranged from 92.4 to 95.4%. Significant differences existed among subgroups by maternal weight, parity, age, and ethnicity. Sensitivity was lower for SGA among overweight/obese women but higher among multiparous women. Additionally, women ≥ 35 years showed higher sensitivity for extreme LGA, and several notable differences were found by ethnicity such as higher sensitivity for extreme LGA among Caucasian women.",
"The vast majority (98.5%) of women with low-lying or marginal placentas at the mid-pregnancy ultrasound examination had normally located placentas in the third trimester, and less than 1% of these women had a Caesarean section for reasons that could be associated with the placental location.",
"Although any study designed to evaluate the effect of routine third trimester ultrasound on perinatal morbidity and mortality in a low-risk pregnant population would include a large patient sample, our study shows that a randomized trial is feasible because most women with a low-risk pregnancy do not consider this examination stressful and would volunteer to participate.",
"To assess the complications of third-trimester amniocentesis for fetal karyotyping in women unwilling to accept the fetal loss risks of second-trimester amniocentesis. Retrospective study of singleton pregnancies that underwent a third-trimester amniocentesis for karyotyping. 150 complete charts between 1998 and 2005 were reviewed. The indications were: isolated abnormal second-trimester biochemical markers (n = 57), isolated maternal age>38 years (n = 46), integrated risk (maternal age, first-trimester nuchal translucency, second-trimester maternal serum markers)>1/250 (n = 22), history of chromosomal abnormality (n = 17) or maternal choice (n = 8). The median maternal age and gestational age at sampling were: 40 years (23-48), 32.4 weeks (29.7-37.1). Median interval between amniocentesis, definitive result of amniocentesis, and delivery were 14 days (7-42), and 49 days (10-67) respectively. There were no abnormal karyotypes and no termination of pregnancy. Six women out of 150 (4%) had spontaneous labor before 36 weeks (2% after 36 weeks).",
"Therefore, we suggest a new platform of fetal sonographic evaluation and follow-up: The extensive systematic fetal organ screening should be performed by an expert sonographer who has been trained in the detection of fetal malformations, at 14-17 weeks gestation. This examination should also include fetal cardiac echography Three additional ultrasound examinations are suggested during pregnancy: the first, performed by the patient's obstetrician at 6-7 weeks for the exclusion of ectopic pregnancy, confirmation of fetal viability, dating, assessment of chorionicity in multiple gestations, and visualization of maternal adnexae. The other two, at 22-26 and 32-34 weeks, require less training and should be performed by an obstetrician who has been qualified in the sonographic detection of fetal anomalies.",
"Our study shows that the levels of biochemical components of first trimester combined aneuploidy screening test (PAPP-A and fβ-hCG) are altered in pregnant women with PCOS. Future trials of larger scale are needed to asses any need for readjustment of the risk in the patient population with PCOS.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if abnormal multiple marker screens (MMS) are associated with adverse perinatal outcomes in intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) pregnancies. This was a case control study of IUGR pregnancies (birth weight <10th percentile for gestational age [GA]) delivered in our unit over 6 years. Cases were compared with controls for the association between abnormal MMS and adverse perinatal outcomes (APO). Of the 261 IUGR pregnancies, 39 (16%) had at least 1 APO. An elevated HCG was significantly associated with an APO (OR 2.6, 95% CI 1.1-6.4). A low uE3 was also associated with an APO (OR 5.5, 95% CI 2.2-14). The association between an elevated AFP and APO was not statistically significant (OR 1.6, 95% CI, 0.6-4.6).",
"yes. Elevated second-trimester maternal serum inhibin A levels identify Down syndrome pregnancies; replacing estriol with inhibin A in the multiple-marker screening test improves test performance.",
"To evaluate a screening protocol using advanced maternal age, triple-marker screening, and genetic sonography. We compared adverse chromosomal outcomes of pregnancy in 1556 women referred for increased risk of aneuploidy because of either advanced maternal age or triple-marker test results. Patients were counseled about the results of the triple-marker test and subsequent sonography, which led to a patient decision of whether to pursue amniocentesis. Fetal measurements and structural abnormalities were compared with chromosomal findings. When patients elected amniocentesis, karyotypes were obtained. Genetic sonography reduced the rate of amniocentesis by 61% overall and by 40% when compared with an alpha-fetoprotein profile alone. The sensitivity of sonography combined with the triple-marker screen for the detection of trisomy 21 was 87% compared with 91% for the triple-marker screen alone.",
"To evaluate ultrasound scan and other prenatal screening tests for trisomy 18 in a regional obstetric unit and to review the management approach for women with positive trisomy 18 screening results. Prenatal diagnosis databases were accessed to identify fetuses that had confirmed trisomy 18 karyotypes or were at high risk for trisomy 18 on second-trimester biochemical screening or first-trimester combined screening tests over a period of 10 years from 1 September 1997 to 30 September 2007. Sixty-nine women were confirmed to have trisomy 18 fetuses by karyotyping either prenatally (n = 61) or postnatally/post-miscarriage (n = 8) during the study period. The detection rate of ultrasound scan ≤ 14 weeks and 18 to 21 weeks to detect trisomy 18 was 92.7 and 100%, respectively. A total of 80 and 87% of fetuses had two or more ultrasound abnormalities detected in the ≤ 14 weeks and 18 to 21 weeks anomaly scans, respectively. Forty-eight women screened positive for trisomy 18 by second-trimester biochemical screening with human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) and alpha fetoprotein (AFP). Only one was true positive (positive predictive value = 1/48 or 2%). Eleven women screened positive for trisomy 18 by first-trimester combined screening with nuchal translucency scan and maternal serum for pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and hCG between 11 and 13 + 6 weeks. Three were true positive (positive predictive value = 3/11 or 27%). All four cases with positive screening had ultrasound abnormalities.",
"A thickened JZ could be an independent indicator of the risk of miscarriage and may represent an important contributing factor to some causes of RM. These observations may offer new perspectives for the screening and treatment of patients with RM. Although further studies are needed to ascertain if the reduction of the JZ thickness can determine a better pregnancy outcome, 3D TVS evaluation of the JZ could provide the opportunity to identify women in which appropriate therapeutic protocols can improve the possibility of successful pregnancy.",
"Our data show a lack of association between aPS/PT antibodies and LA in APS patients with recurrent pregnancy loss. In the evaluation of these patients, there may be redundancy in testing all three markers as the aPT and aPS assays formed part of the aPS/PT antibody repertoire.",
"To assess whether a complete hydatidiform mole (CHM) carries an increased risk of later requiring chemotherapy in pregnancies continued to term. The Charing Cross gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) database was screened between 1973 and 2002 to identify registered singleton CHMs with a known gestational age at the time of evacuation. Of the 8,313 cases 2,800 were centrally histopathologically reviewed by us and confirmed as CHM. The proportion of patients requiring chemotherapyfor both total registered and centrally reviewed patients was analyzed by trimester of evacuation (<13, 13-24,>24 weeks). Statistical significance was assessed by the chi2 test. For the total population, including non-centrally reviewed patients, evacuation occurring in the first, second or third trimester was associated with a treatment rate of 13.9% (601 of 4,333), 10.8% (412 of 3,803) and 5.1% (9 of 177), respectively. In patientsfor whom a central pathologic review had been performed to confirm the diagnosis, the treatment rates were 27.7% (525 of 1,897), 27% (241 of 893) and 20% (2 of 10). The higher apparent treatment rates reflect an error in the denominator as we do not review all nontreated cases. In the total population, evacuation in the third trimester correlated with a reduction in risk of subsequent treatment (P<.001). Most of these late deliveries were induced (before adequate ultrasound), whereas the earlier pregnancies were mostly terminated via suction dilatation and curettage.",
"yes. Factor V Leiden and prothrombin gene mutations were associated with third trimester nonrecurrent fetal loss. These mutations should be screened in women with third trimester but not second trimester unexplained nonrecurrent late fetal loss.",
"An adequate and contemporary randomized trial is needed to resolve whether routine third trimester ultrasound followed by adapted perinatal management improves perinatal outcomes in a population of women at low risk. We aimed to describe current practices regarding third trimester ultrasound in our centre and to evaluate the feasibility of a randomized trial. All women with a singleton pregnancy managed from the beginning of pregnancy in our maternity unit who delivered after 28 weeks (N = 335) were assessed prospectively over a 50-day period. Details of maternal characteristics, medical and obstetrical history, management of pregnancy and delivery, ultrasound practices, and results were recorded. One hundred women had a brief personal interview to define their expectations and experience of third trimester ultrasound. The women who were assessed had 2.9 +/- 1.2 ultrasound scans during their pregnancy. All had a second trimester ultrasound scan and 53.7% had a third trimester scan. There was no medical indication for the third trimester ultrasound scan in 12.8% of the women. Among women with a low-risk pregnancy, 40% had a third trimester ultrasound, and 21.6% of those were done without medical indication. Among women with a low-risk pregnancy who had a third trimester ultrasound, the interview disclosed that 80% found that the test was not stressful. Of the low-risk population interviewed, 83.6% would agree to participate in a future trial.",
"To survey experience with the first-trimester combined test (FCT) for trisomy 21 (T21) in different risk score groups to determine the most useful clinical application of cell-free fetal DNA (cffDNA) screening. In a retrospective study, the records of FCT results obtained at a center in Turkey between January 2009 and January 2014 were reviewed. The FCT results and rates of uptake of invasive diagnostic testing were compared among different risk score groups. FCT results were available for 4804 pregnancies; 276 (5.7%) had IDT results. Ten (72.7%) of 11 cases of T21 had a risk score of 1:300 or more. The IDT uptake rates were 54.5%, 51.9%, and 47.4% at risk scores of 1:100 or more, 1:200 or more, and 1:300 or more, respectively. In the group at intermediate risk (1:1001-1:3000), no pregnancy had an FCT result of both low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A and high free β-human chorionic gonadotropin, but 30 (3.9%) of 766 pregnancies had both advanced maternal age and high β-human chorionic gonadotropin.",
"Our aim was to determine if uterine artery (UtA) Doppler studies would risk-stratify women with abnormal serum analytes on prenatal genetic screening into those at baseline and increased risk for preeclampsia and small-for-gestational age (SGA). This retrospective cohort study examined outcomes of patients with ⩾one abnormal analyte (PAPP-A<0.3, hCG>3.0, AFP>2.5, inhibin>2.0, or unconjugated estriol<0.3MoM). At approximately 24weeks, we assessed UtA pulsatility index (PI). Preeclampsia, preterm preeclampsia, SGA (birthweight (BW) <10%) and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) (BW<3%). We identified 132 patients with ⩾one abnormal analyte, UtA Doppler screening, and delivery outcomes. Twenty-four (18%) had an elevated UtA PI (PI>1.6); preeclampsia occurred in 16 (12%) and 26 (20%) delivered a SGA neonate. Abnormal UtA Doppler PI increased the likelihood of a composite outcome of preeclampsia or SGA from 27% to 71% (LR 6.48 (2.93, 14.30)); a negative UtA Doppler PI reduced the likelihood to 18% (LR 0.57 (0.42, 0.78)). Abnormal UtA Doppler PI increased the likelihood of a more severe composite outcome of preterm preeclampsia or IUGR from 11% to 39% (LR 5.49 (3.03, 9.97)); a negative UtA Doppler study reduced the likelihood to 4% (LR 0.35 (0.16, 0.80)).",
"yes. This study presents comprehensive, unrestricted profiles of the TRB/IGH-CDR3 repertoire of newborns, pregnant women, and healthy adults at a sequence-level resolution. Our data may contribute to a better understanding of the immune system of newborns and benefit the efficient application of umbilical cord blood transplantation in future.",
"To assess whether the presence of autoantibodies has any effect on recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL) and obstetric complications in women who do not have autoimmune diseases and hereditary thrombophilia. Retrospectively, 515 patients who underwent antibody investigation with anti-nuclear antibody, extractable nuclear antigen, anti-double stranded DNA, anti-parietal cell, anti-smooth muscle, anti-mitochondrial (AMA), anti-thyroid peroxidase, anti-thyroglobulin (anti-TG) and anti-phospholipid (aPL) at Hacettepe University were included. Of those patients, 212 had one or more autoantibodies whereas the remaining 303 were negative for all autoantibodies. RPL was the primary outcome and was defined as ≥2 pregnancy losses (n = 119). The frequency of RPL was significantly higher in the autoantibody positive group than controls (28.3% versus 14.5%, p<0.001). Anti-TG (21.2% versus 7.8%, p<0.001), aPL (18.3% versus 5.6%, p<0.001) and AMA (4.8% versus 0.5%, p = 0.001) antibodies were more common in patients with RPL. For the view of obstetric complications, oligohydramniosis (3.8% versus 0.7%, p = 0.03) and stillbirth (17.0% versus 10.6%, p = 0.002) were significantly higher in the autoantibody-positive group.",
"yes. Third-trimester IUFD is significantly associated with thrombophilias. These findings suggest that thrombophilia work-ups should be part of IUFD investigations and may have therapeutic and prognostic implications in future pregnancies.",
"Compare the results of amniocentesis and those of middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity to detect anemic fetuses in Rh alloimmunized pregnancies. Descriptive observational study involving 99 consecutive Rh-negative pregnancies: 74 alloimmunized patients submitted to amniotic fluid spectrophotometry (group 1) and 25 alloimmunized cases managed with Doppler ultrasonography (group 2). Variables analyzed were the following: need for neonatal transfusion and neonatal hematocrit. Neonatal hematocrit was significantly lower and the need for neonatal transfusion was significantly higher in cases managed with spectrophotometry compared to those managed with Doppler.",
"yes. Only one-third of pre-eclamptic cases showed signs of increased uterine artery vascular impedance in the third trimester. However, signs of increased vascular impedance were much more frequent in the uterine than in the umbilical arteries and were strongly related to adverse outcome of pregnancy.",
"yes. Antiphospholipid antibodies were uncommon in this cohort of SGA pregnancies. Further studies are needed in SGA pregnancies with abnormal umbilical Doppler studies to determine if screening for antiphospholipid antibodies is worthwhile in this severe subgroup.",
"yes. We conclude that the composition of the anti-HPA-1a antibody subtype(s) of the mother may determine whether ICH occurs. Analysis of anti-HPA-1a antibodies of the anti-αvβ3 subtype in maternal serum has potential in the diagnostic prediction of ICH development and may allow for modification of prophylactic treatment in fetal/neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia.",
"Placental growth hormone (PGH) is synthesised by the placenta, and its function is modulated by growth hormone binding protein (GHBP). The potential of PGH and GHBP as maternal serum screening markers for Down syndrome (DS) was examined. Maternal serum concentrations of PGH and GHBP were determined by ELISA in 74 DS and 261 control pregnancies in gestational week 8(+0) to 13(+4). Log(10) MoM distributions of the markers were established. The performance of DS screening was estimated by Monte Carlo simulation. PGH log(10) MoM (SD) was decreased (p < 0.001) to -0.201 (0.373) and GHBP log(10) MoM to -0.116 (0.265) (p = 0.04), in DS pregnancies (n = 34) in week 8(+0) to 10(+0). In week 10(+1) to 13(+4), neither PGH (p = 0.16) nor GHBP (p = 0.13) was reduced in DS pregnancies. The detection rate (DR) for PGH in screening for DS in week 8(+0) to 10(+0) was 39% for a false positive rate (FPR) of 5%; increasing to 72% in combination with PAPP-A + hCGbeta. PGH + GHBP in combination with PAPP-A + hCGbeta + nuchal translucency (NT) (CUB test) had a DR of 91% compared with 80% for the CUB test.",
"An ARP of ≥ 5 mm in the second and/or third trimester of pregnancy enables a better detection of patients with uropathies and indication for surgery as compared with AP ≥ 10 mm, but renders almost similar results compared with the Cortville criteria (AP ≥ 7 mm) in the third trimester.",
"yes. RIV Doppler flow is different between left and right kidney only in the third trimester of pregnancy. This difference is inversely related to PCD, which may be explained by pelvic compression from the gravid uterus.",
"yes. Regular screening of thyroid antibody and function are recommended, especially in patients with T1DM and LADA with high GADA titre.",
"To determine if Chlamydia trachomatis (C. trachomatis) seropositivity, as detected by the C. trachomatis elementary body (EB)-based enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay [EB ELISA] predicts pregnancy and pregnancy outcome among infertile women with documented tubal patency. Cohort study. Outpatient clinics. In all, 1,250 infertile women with documented tubal patency enrolled in 1 of 2 randomized controlled trials: Pregnancy in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome II; and the Assessment of Multiple Intrauterine Gestations From Ovarian Stimulation. Sera were analyzed for anti-C. trachomatis immunoglobulin G (IgG)1 and IgG3 antibodies, using a research C. trachomatis EB ELISA. The optical density (OD)405 readings of ≥ 0.35 and ≥ 0.1 were considered positive for IgG1 and IgG3, respectively. Primary outcomes included pregnancy, live birth, and ectopic pregnancy. Log-linear regression was used to determine the relative risk after adjusting for age, race, treatment medication, smoking status, and current alcohol use. A total of 243 (19%) women were seropositive for anti-C. trachomatis IgG3. They tended to be nonwhite and smokers. Anti-C. trachomatis IgG3 seropositive women were significantly less likely to conceive (risk ratio [RR] 0.65, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.52-0.83) or to have a live birth (RR 0.59, 95% CI 0.43-0.80); these associations were weakened after adjusting for number of hysterosalpingography-documented patent tubes (RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.56-0.97) and (RR 0.73, 95% CI 0.50-1.04), respectively. Anti-C. trachomatis IgG3 seropositive women who conceived had a ×2.7 risk (95% CI 1.40-5.34) of ectopic pregnancy.",
"yes. Over half (55%) of pregnant women with abnormalities suggestive of autoimmune thyroiditis and/or hypothyroidism would be missed if only those with high-risk criteria were examined. A more extensive screening of thyroid autoimmunity and dysfunction seems warranted.",
"These data confirm previous results that the diagnosis of fetal anemia in Rhesus-alloimmunized pregnancies before 27 weeks' gestation cannot be accurately made by a single measurement of amniotic fluid optical density at 450 nanometers.",
"To identify the prevalence of first-trimester cervical group B Streptococcus (GBS) colonization in routine obstetric patients and whether a relationship exists between first-trimester cervical GBS colonization and maternal GBS bacteriuria or GBS colonization at term. An institutional review board-approved prospective, cohort study was performed. The study population included consecutively recruited, unselected obstetric patients who delivered at our medical center, presented for care in thefirst trimester and were followed for the duration of their pregnancies. Each patient consented to have an extra culture swab for GBS status obtained at the time of her first prenatal visit when a routine examination was performed. Urine and third-trimester culture data were also collectedfrom each study subject. Of the 90 women with complete delivery data, 17 (19%) hadfirst-trimester cervical cultures positive for GBS. Women with first-trimester cervical GBS colonization were more likely to have third-trimester colonization on screening cultures than were women whose initial cultures were negative (35% vs. 14%, p = 0.05). The sensitivity of a GBS-positive cervical culture for detecting the coexisting presence of GBS bacteriuria was 38%, with a positive predictive value (PPV) of 31% and negative predictive value of 89%. When the outcome of interest was expanded to include GBS bacteriuria or third trimester colonization, the PPV of a positive cervical culture increased to 73%.",
"yes. Placental Doppler screening at 23-24 weeks can be used in detecting pregnancies at risk of adverse outcome and in selecting cases for more intense surveillance. A surveillance plan is proposed based on Doppler screening at 23-24 weeks of gestation.",
"In 1998 a national program for first-trimester screening for red cell (RBC) antibodies in all pregnant women was implemented. The aim of our study was to assess the impact on perinatal mortality caused by Kell alloimmunization Prospectively collected data on all pregnant women referred to our center from 1988 until 2005 for intrauterine transfusion (IUT) for fetal anemia due to Kell alloantibodies were analyzed. The cohort was divided into two groups, those treated before 1998 and those treated after 1998. The primary outcome was fetal and neonatal survival. Secondary outcome variables were gestational age, fetal hemoglobin (Hb) levels at first IUT, severity of hydrops, and total number of IUTs per pregnancy. Causes for mortality were analyzed in detail. A total of 43 pregnancies were included, 18 before introduction of screening and 25 thereafter. Perinatal survival increased from 61 percent in the first period to 100 percent after introduction of screening. After 1998, fetal hydrops was generally less severe at first IUT, while gestational age and fetal Hb levels at first IUT were similar.",
"Cord presentation and cord prolapse are not synonymous. Documented cord presentation during the third trimester necessitates repeat scans and intrapartum sonographic assessment to determine the mode of delivery.",
"To examine the effect of early vaginal bleeding on first-trimester screening markers for Down syndrome. A retrospective study was conducted on 1755 normal singleton fetuses that underwent first-trimester combined screening for Down syndrome on the basis of ultrasound and maternal serum markers. Fetal delta-nuchal translucency (NT), maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and free beta-hCG were compared between pregnancies with (n = 252) and without (n = 1503) an episode of vaginal bleeding. Subgroup analysis for the intensity of bleeding (spotting n = 191; light n = 32; heavy n = 29) was performed. The median +/- SD (log(10)) for delta-NT, multiple of medians (MoM) PAPP-A and MoM free beta-hCG (corrected for maternal weight, smoking and ethnicity) was - 0.17 +/- 0.62, 1.10 +/- 0.28, 1.1 +/- 0.28 and - 0.15 +/- 0.51, 0.98 +/- 0.26, 0.94 +/- 0.3 in pregnancies with and without a history of early vaginal bleeding, which were not significantly different. Exclusion of patients with spotting from the vaginal bleeding group revealed significantly higher maternal serum free beta-hCG MoM values (median +/- SD (log(10))) compared to patients without bleeding, 1.29 +/- 0.27 vs 0.96 +/- 0.3(p = 0.011). Screen-positive (cut off of 1:350) rate after combined first-trimester screening was 28.1% in patients with light vaginal bleeding and 8.4% in patients without bleeding (p = 0.001).",
"The pathophysiology of recurrent pregnancy loss (RPL) is still unknown in 50% of the cases. Herein we measure the expression of beta3 integrin subunit, a well-known implantation marker, in women with or without RPL and correlate it with the histological dating of the endometrial tissue. LH-timed endometrial biopsies were obtained from cases (RPL; n = 21, age 33.9+/-4.7) and healthy controls (n = 29; age 29.8+/-4.1) during the mid-secretory phase (post ovulatory day: 8 to 10). Endometrial samples were timed histologically according to Noyes' criteria and underwent immunohistochemical staining for beta3 integrin expression. For statistical analysis the semi-quantitative HSCORE was assessed. Type I (beta3 negative in an out-of-phase endometrium) and Type II defect (beta3 negative in an in-phase endometrium) were also analysed. Statistical analysis was done with Student t-test, Mann Whitney U test, ANCOVA and chi square for trend. Significance was set as P < 0.05. The mean (SD) age in controls was lower compared to cases [(29.8 (4.1) vs. 33.9 (4.7) - P = 0.001; Student t-test)]. The median (range) expression of beta3 integrin in controls and cases was 1.94 (0 to 3.5) vs. 0.82 (0 to 3.6), respectively (P = 0.001; Mann Whitney U test). Significance was still significant after adjusting for age (P = 0.03;ANCOVA). The normal positive staining > =0.7 of beta3 integrin subunit and in-phase endometrium was seen in 24 out of 29 (82.8%) controls, but in only 6 out of 21 (28.6%) of cases with RPL; Type I and II defects were seen in 10.3 and 6.9% of controls, while present in 52.4 and 19.1% of cases, respectively (P = 0.0005; chi-square).",
"yes. Determination of IGF1 serum levels in the 3rd week post-partum, independent of gestational age at birth, provides a sufficient and reliable prognostic tool and allows the identification of a group of patients at high risk of developing the disease.",
"To evaluate the performance of first-trimester combined screening in 5-year periods according to maternal age in a low-risk population. A prospective study. Multicenter study in Finland. A total of 76949 voluntary women with singleton pregnancies participated in first-trimester combined screening in public healthcare between 1 May 2002 and 31 December 2008. The serum samples were analyzed using the PerkinElmer AutoDELFIA® time-resolved fluoroimmunoassay kit for the measurement of pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A and free beta-human chorionic gonadotropin. Nuchal translucency was measured by trained personnel (midwives or physicians) in a university or central hospital. Performance, detection rate, false positive rate and the number of invasive procedures needed to detect a single case of Down's syndrome were analyzed. There was a direct connection between maternal age and the prevalence of Down's syndrome with a low prevalence in young women being 1:1 193 in the 25-29 age group and 1:150 in the 35-39 age group. Consequently, for a fixed false positive rate of 5%, the number of invasive procedures needed to detect one case of Down's syndrome is higher in younger women to achieve the same detection rate.",
"The goal of the study was to evaluate the significance of delayed laboratory analysis of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein, beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin, and unconjugated estriol for prenatal screening. Biochemical analysis of 30 consecutive biochemical screening specimens of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein, beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin, and unconjugated estriol was performed immediately upon arrival to the laboratory, 7 days later, and again 14 days after maternal blood was drawn. Differences among the results of the three sets of biochemical studies were evaluated by one-way analysis of variance for repeated measures. No significant differences were found among the results of immediate assays as compared with those at a 7- or a 14-day delay for all three biochemical markers.",
"Low-risk nulliparous women with abnormal UtA Doppler findings in the third trimester are at a higher risk of developing PE and having a baby with IUGR.",
"The performance of pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) as a first trimester trisomy 21 marker is hypothesized to improve below 11 weeks, whereas beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is better after 14 weeks. We audited a model combining early PAPP-A (9-10 weeks) with NT (11-13 weeks and 6 days) and early triple test (>14 weeks). A total of 1507 women with viable ongoing pregnancies were screened during 2007-2008. First-stage 'screen-positive' risk was based on combined PAPP-A and NT cut-off>or=1 : 100. Where first-stage risk was<1 : 100 or invasive testing declined, triple test was performed and a combined second-stage risk given with cut-off>or=1 : 250 being screen positive. Median age of women was 35.4 years. Sixty-four (4.2%) were 'screen positive'. Of these, 11 had a fetus with trisomy 21. Twelve pregnancies were affected with trisomy 21, giving a detection rate of 11/12 (92%) with a false-positive rate (FPR) of 3.2%. The screen-positive rate (SPR) and FPR were 1.93 and 1.44%, respectively, standardized to median maternal age 29.",
"To ascertain whether anti-D immunoglobulin is being administered to Rhesus D negative women in accordance with the 1991 recommendations for its use to cover all events which may result in fetomaternal haemorrhage. The notes of women delivered in 1994 were examined for compliance with the 1991 recommendations. Seven maternity units using a central antenatal screening service. Nine hundred and twenty-two Rhesus D negative women delivered in these seven hospitals. The prescription, dosage and indications for administration of anti-D immunoglobulin to women during pregnancy and in the puerperium. Postnatal anti-D immunoglobulin was given in appropriate doses to more than 95% of women who required it. Omissions mainly arose from confusion among women who recently had received antenatal treatment with anti-D immunoglobulin. The 1991 recommendations for antenatal administration were less closely followed. Abdominal trauma was covered in only 20% of cases. An inadequate dosage of 250 i.u. was given to 25 women for antepartum haemorrhage after 20 weeks of gestation. The purpose of the Kleihauer test was sometimes poorly understood, with a 'negative' result interpreted as a reason not to give anti-D immunoglobulin.",
"Screening of thyroid disorders in pregnancy has been controversial. Recent recommendations favour targeted high-risk case finding, though this approach may miss a significant number of those affected. We aimed to assess the prevalence of accepted high-risk criteria in women with autoimmune thyroiditis and/or hypothyroidism detected from universal screening in an iodine-sufficient population. In 400 non-selected women in the 9-11th gestational week, thyroid-related tests were performed, and those with abnormalities were offered consultation. TSH was determined by IRMA, and the upper cut-off value for screening was set at 3.5 mIU/l. For free thyroxine (FT(4)) and thyroperoxidase antibodies (TPO-Ab), RIAs were used, with cut-offs of <10 pmol/l and >50 IU/ml respectively. Endocrinological consultation included Doppler ultrasonography and was aimed to confirm autoimmune thyroiditis and/or hypothyroidism. The prevalence of consensus high-risk criteria was assessed. Among the 400 women, 65 (16.3%) had ≥1 abnormality: higher TSH was found in 10.3%, lower FT(4) in 2% and positive TPO-Ab in 8.3%. Fifty-one women were examined and followed up. Levo-T(4) treatment was initiated in 49 women for autoimmune thyroiditis (in 42), hypothyroidism (in 34) or both (in 27). Only 22 (45%) of 49 treated women fulfilled ≥1 high-risk criterion: most commonly family history (31%), history of miscarriage or preterm delivery (14%) and personal history (8%).",
"yes. Such autoantibodies as APA, ATA, HCG-Ab and EmAb may cause miscarriage in infertile women undergoing IVF and consequently reduce the rate of ongoing pregnancy, which necessitates the determination of these antibodies in these patients.",
"yes. C. trachomatis antibody testing is simple, inexpensive, and causes minimal inconvenience to the patient. It is more likely than HSG to be abnormal in patients with tubal factor infertility. C. trachomatis antibody testing deserves to become an integral component of the initial fertility work-up.",
"The triple test serum markers for Down's syndrome screening may be altered because of various conditions other than chromosomal trisomies. To assess the profile of mid-trimester triple test serum markers in a cohort of women treated with low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) for thrombophilia since the first trimester. Women with inherited or acquired thrombophilia treated with LMWH prior to 12 weeks gestation were followed between October 2006 and September 2009 at our obstetric outpatient clinic. The second-trimester screening test for Down syndrome was calculated from the combination of triple serum markers and maternal age, and expressed as a multiple of the gestation-specific normal median (MoM). Reference MoM values were calculated from the local population. Data on pregnancy outcome were obtained from patient records. The median human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level of women with inherited thrombophilia was 0.87 MoM, compared to 0.99 MoM in controls (P = 0.038) and compared to 1.355 MoM in women with acquired thrombophilia (P = 0.034). In contrast, alpha-fetoprotein MoMs did not differ significantly between women with inherited and women with acquired thrombophilia (0.88 vs. 0.99 MoM, P = 0.403).",
"yes. Urinary placental growth factor is a simple non-invasive test, which is discriminatory for pre-eclampsia in the third trimester of pregnancy. Results from this study indicate that it may be discriminatory for hypertension related to placental dysfunction (pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension) when compared with hypertension unrelated to placental function. Further work is required to assess the ability to detect hypertensive diseases before they are clinically apparent.",
"yes. It seems advisable to use a population of IVF/ICSI pregnancies to establish median curves for the first-trimester serum screening parameters and perhaps also for nuchal translucency thickness. However, care must be taken, as different ART treatment methods and aspects of medical history seem to alter the screening parameters in different ways.",
"Our findings show that the discussion concerning thyroid screening during pregnancy should be based on data of overt hypothyroidism in healthy pregnant women. Screening of thyroid function is not expensive because all pregnant women have a standardized blood sample test at 8-12 weeks' gestation. Positive patients largely benefit from a cheap, safe, and effective treatment.",
"To sum up, in our collective, serologic testing for rubella, toxoplasmosis and hepatitis B is carried out in almost all pregnant women. The high rate of women not screened for HIV infection clearly contradicts the recommendations of the Federal Office of Public Health and calls for increased education of physicians.",
"yes. We showed that the binding of anti-tTG antibodies to trophoblast might represent a key mechanism by which the embryo implantation and pregnancy outcome are impaired in untreated celiac pregnant women. Because healthy trophoblast development is essential for placental and fetal development, these data provide a novel mechanism for CD-induced infertility, early pregnancy loss, and intrauterine growth retardation.",
"Implementation of routine screening for Kell antibodies in pregnancy was associated with an increased referral rate for suspected fetal anemia, more timely referrals, and a higher perinatal survival rate after intrauterine treatment.",
"yes. Third-trimester high-dose vitD3 supplementation in healthy pregnant women had balanced effects on biomarkers of cord blood Th1 and Th2 responses.",
"From the observations stated above, it is concluded that for women with GST-1 of 99 mg% or less, a GST-2 is not necessary. For those having GST-1 of 140 mg% or more, a GT TEST is absolutely necessary instead of repeating the screening test again in the third trimester. But it is in the intermediate group (i.e. with GST-1 value of 100 mg%-139 mg%) where the glucose screening test should be repeated in the early third trimester and GT TEST as and when necessary.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether false-positive maternal serum screening for fetal Down syndrome is predictive of poor pregnancy outcome. The pregnancy outcomes of 99 women having positive serum screening for fetal Down syndrome (study group)--based upon maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP), unconjugated estriol (uE3), hCG, and maternal age--were compared to the outcomes of matched control patients having negative serum screening results (control group). The outcome indices analyzed were fetal death, intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), preeclampsia, and fetal anomalies. Between the study group and the control group, there were no statistically significant differences in pregnancy outcome with respect to fetal death, IUGR, preeclampsia, or fetal anomalies.",
"yes. Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis of the fetal RhD genotype is feasible. Absence of amplification products in the reaction requires confirmation that fetal material is present. Improvements in fetal cell purity and yield should increase diagnostic accuracy, although the current protocol has a positive predictive value of 100% and a negative predictive value of 67%.",
"Doppler studies of the uterine artery as a test for the subsequent development of pregnancy complications are best performed at 20 weeks with a combination of RI measurements and the assessment of the presence of diastolic notches.",
"yes. In this retrospective analysis of discrepant HBsAg-reactive screening results from pregnant women, the majority were false positives, but true positives occurred. Testing for total hepatitis B core antibody, an indicator of past or current HBV infection, was useful for resolving discrepancies.",
"This study shows the following: (1) The triple screen is a useful adjunct to targeted ultrasonography in selecting patients with fetal choroid plexus cysts for amniocentesis. (2) A normal triple-screen result and the absence of additional fetal anomalies on ultrasonography reliably exclude an underlying chromosomal abnormality, and amniocentesis is not indicated. (3) If the triple-screen result is abnormal, additional anomalies are seen on ultrasonography, or the mother is aged>/=35 years, then fetal karyotyping is recommended. (4) Patients who decline fetal karyotyping should have follow-up ultrasonography in 34 weeks' time.",
"no. Women with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss are no more likely than are fertile control subjects to have circulating thyroid autoantibodies. Testing for antithyroid antibodies is not clinically useful in the evaluation of patients with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss.",
"yes. The data indicate that the \"Asia type\" DEL variant does not appear at risk of alloimmunization to the D antigen. It strongly suggests that the antenatal Rh immune globulin prophylaxis is unnecessary for DEL women. Furthermore, it implicates that the \"Asia type\" DEL may be deemed Rh-positive safely for clinical transfusion therapy.",
"Although anti-D prophylaxis has greatly reduced the rate of Rh-immunization, there remain women who sensitize during or after pregnancy because of inadequate prophylaxis. The purpose of this study was to compare adherence to prophylaxis recommendations for antenatal and postnatal anti-D immunoglobulin administration. We conducted a retrospective cohort study of all pregnancies recorded at the Royal Victoria Hospital between 2001 and 2006 to determine the rates of antenatal and postnatal prophylaxis in Rh(D)-negative women. We compared adherence to anti-D prophylaxis recommendations between our institution's physician-dependent antenatal approach and the protocol-based postpartum approach. Logistic regression analysis was used to estimate the odds ratio and 95% confidence intervals of determinants of non-adherence to current recommendations for anti-D prophylaxis. Antenatal administration was analyzed in 1868 pregnancies in eligible Rh-negative women. Among these women, 85.7% received appropriate antenatal prophylaxis and 98.5% of eligible women received appropriate postnatal prophylaxis. Factors independently associated with non-adherence to antepartum prophylaxis included first visit in the third trimester (P<0.001), transfer from an outside hospital (P = 0.03), and physician licensing before 1980 (P = 0.04).",
"To evaluate a policy of selective rather than routine use of amniocentesis for advanced maternal age. A consecutive series of 359 pregnant women aged 38-47 underwent nuchal translucency measurement (NTM) at 10-14 weeks, maternal serum screening (MSS) by alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) at 15-17 weeks, and second trimester ultrasound at 21-23 weeks. Women with NTM<3 mm, MSS-derived risk<1/250, and a normal second trimester sonography were considered at low risk and were suggested not to have an amniocentesis. Either the NTM or MSS test was positive in 130 women; 105 (81%) of them elected to have an amniocentesis, versus 122 (53%) of 229 in whom both tests were negative (p<0.001). Nineteen (5%) of 359 patients had NTM>or =3 mm; all 7 cases of Down's syndrome were in this group; 122 (34%) of 359 patients had a MSS-derived risk>or =1/250; 6 of the 7 cases of Down's syndrome were in this group: Ten patients had an abnormal second trimester ultrasound, 1 of which had trisomy 18. Of the 219 patients with MSS-derived risk<1/250, a NTM<3 mm, and a normal second trimester ultrasound, none had a baby with a chromosomal abnormality (95% confidence interval: 0-1.4%).",
"Maternal subclinical hypothyroidism during pregnancy is associated with various adverse outcomes. Recent consensus guidelines do not advocate universal thyroid function screening during pregnancy but recommend testing high-risk pregnant women with a personal history of thyroid or other autoimmune disorders or with a family history of thyroid disorders. The objective of the study was to assess efficacy of the targeted high-risk case-finding approach in identifying women with thyroid dysfunction during early pregnancy.DESIGN/ This was a single-center cohort study. PATIENTS/ We prospectively analyzed TSH, free T4 and free T3 in 1560 consecutive pregnant women during their first antenatal visit (median gestation 9 wk). We tested thyroperoxidase antibodies in 1327 (85%). We classified 413 women (26.5%), who had a personal history of thyroid or other autoimmune disorders or a family history of thyroid disorders, as a high-risk group. We examined whether testing only such a high-risk group would pick up most pregnant women with thyroid dysfunction. Forty women (2.6%) had raised TSH (>4.2 mIU/liter). The prevalence of raised TSH was higher in the high-risk group [6.8 vs. 1% in the low-risk group, relative risk (RR) 6.5, 95% confidence interval (CI) 3.3-12.6, P<0.0001]. Presence of personal history of thyroid disease (RR 12.2, 95% CI 6.8-22, P<0.0001) or other autoimmune disorders (RR 4.8, 95% CI 1.3-18.2, P = 0.016), thyroperoxidase antibodies (RR 8.4, 95% CI 4.6-15.3, P<0.0001), and family history of thyroid disorders (RR 3.4, 95% CI 1.8-6.2, P<0.0001) increased the risk of raised TSH. However, 12 of 40 women with raised TSH (30%) were in the low-risk group.",
"Although sufficient, number of cases is limited in this study so results cannot be generalized to all population. It could be advised that in addition to folic acid supplementation, deficiencies of ferritin and B(12) must be corrected in patients considering pregnancy or early 1st trimester pregnant women to obtain more accurate serum screening results.",
"To compare the rates of alloimmunization with the use of cell-free DNA (cfDNA) screening to target antenatal rhesus immune globulin (RhIG) prenatally, versus routine administration of RhIG in rhesus D (RhD)-negative pregnant women in a theoretic cohort using a decision-analytic model. A decision-analytic model compared cfDNA testing to routine antenatal RhIG administration. The primary outcome was maternal sensitization to RhD antigen. Sensitivity and specificity of cfDNA testing were assumed to be 99.8% and 95.3%, respectively. Univariate and bivariate sensitivity analyses, Monte Carlo simulation, and threshold analyses were performed. In a cohort of 10,000 RhD-negative women, 22.6 sensitizations would occur with utilization of cfDNA, while 20 sensitizations would occur with routine RhIG. Only when the sensitivity of the cfDNA test reached 100%, the rate of sensitization was equal for both cfDNA and RhIG. Otherwise, routine RhIG minimized the rate of sensitization, especially given RhIG is readily available in the United States.",
"Estriol (E3) is produced by the placenta and is important for early pregnancy maintenance. In blood, E3 can be detected from the 8th week of pregnancy. Under the influence of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis hormone ACTH, E3 levels increase sharply after the 10th week. Although E3 can be reliably analyzed in saliva, till now information about the concentrations during the first trimester is missing. The aim of this study was to verify whether the sensitivity of a newly developed enzyme immunoassay is sufficient for the determination of salivary E3 (sE3) in very early pregnancy. Saliva samples were collected at home, once weekly in 25 healthy pregnant women from the 6th week of gestation to the end of the first trimester. sE3 was detectable from the beginning of the 6th pregnancy week (M = 3.17 pg/ml, SD = 2.13). A steep significant increase between the 7th and the 8th week (p = 0.029) and again between the 10th and the 11th week (p = 0.001) was apparent.",
"no. For the first time a restriction to the IGHV3s genes in anti-D in a naturally immunized pregnant woman is shown. Moreover, the use of IGHV3s genes appears to be present in anti-C and anti-G as well. Therefore, it is concluded that restricted IGHV3s gene usage in anti-D is not due to hyperimmunization but due to characteristics of the Rh antigens and the intrinsic binding capacities of IGHV3s genes, supporting the common Rh footprint hypothesis.",
"Even in women without autoimmune disease or hereditary thrombophilia, autoantibodies per se might directly increase the risk of RPL and obstetric complications. The screening anti-TG and aPL autoantibodies in the first step might be considered in patients with RPL.",
"yes. Normal third-trimester pregnancy is characterized by remarkable activation of peripheral blood leukocytes, which is further increased in preeclampsia.",
"Current clinical practice in many emergency departments (EDs) includes checking a type and screen blood test (T&S) for Rhesus (Rh) status on all pregnant patients presenting with vaginal bleeding or abdominal pain. The test is expensive, and awaiting results may delay disposition. To determine if there is a subset of pregnant women who reliably know their blood type and for whom a T&S blood test to determine Rh status can be safely omitted or deferred. A prospective study at two associated urban academic centers with an annual ED census of 150,000 patients was performed between January 2007 and June 2008. Pregnant patients who had a T&S obtained as part of their ED evaluation were enrolled. Subjects completed a standardized data form that requested demographic information and were asked to select \"no,\" \"maybe,\" or \"yes, definitely\" if they knew their blood type. Standard descriptive statistics with 95% confidence intervals were performed. There were 319 pregnant women enrolled in the study. Among the 106 subjects that reported \"yes, definitely\" they knew their blood type, 103 (97.2%; 95% confidence interval [CI] 94.0-100%]) identified their correct blood type and 105 (99.1%; 95% CI 97.2-100%) identified their correct Rh status. None of these subjects selected a positive Rh when they were in fact a negative Rh. All 14 (13.2%) subjects with a negative Rh status identified themselves as having a negative Rh.",
"To evaluate whether first-trimester levels of PAPP-A and serum free-beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (free beta-hCG) vary with maternal blood group and rhesus status and to assess whether this has implications for first-trimester screening for chromosomal anomalies. Blood group and rhesus status information was extracted from birth records for women undergoing first-trimester screening. The birth records were combined with prenatal screening records by an in-house developed record linkage software. In 2252 singleton pregnancies of normal obstetric outcome, the median weight-corrected, ethnicity-corrected and smoking-corrected MoM were compared in the various blood groups, using t-tests after log10 transformation of the marker MoM against the whole study group. Only those women with a B rhesus positive blood group had statistically significant higher MoM levels of PAPP-A (0.995 v 0.937).",
"Comparison of contingent, step-wise and integrated screening policies. Mid-trimester Down syndrome risks were retrospectively calculated from FaSTER trial data. For contingent screening, initial risk was calculated from ultrasound measurement of nuchal translucency (NT), maternal serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP)-A and free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) at 11-13 weeks, and classified positive (>1 in 30), borderline (1 in 30-1500) or negative. Borderline risks were recalculated using alpha-fetoprotein, hCG, unconjugated estriol (uE3) and inhibin at 15-18 weeks, and reclassified as positive (>1 in 270) or negative. For step-wise screening, initial negative risks were also recalculated. For integrated screening, a single risk was calculated from NT, PAPP-A and the second trimester markers. There were 86 Down syndrome and 32,269 unaffected pregancies. The detection rate for contingent screening was 91% and false-positive rate was 4.5%; initial detection rate was 60%, initial false-positive rate was 1.2% and borderline risk was 23%. Step-wise screening had 92% detection rate and 5.1% false-positive rate; integrated screening had 88% and 4.9% respectively.",
"The triple test serum markers may be altered in thrombophilia patients treated with LMWH. Clinicians should consider offering these patients the first-trimester nuchal translucency test and other sonographic markers that are probably unaffected by the underlying maternal disease and/or treatment modality.",
"yes. Maternal progesterone and CRH measurements taken early in the third trimester may be of use as biochemical markers of pregnancies at high risk of premature labour.",
"If a pregnancy is complicated by third-trimester bleeding, is there a higher risk of fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage that might necessitate the administration of additional anti-D immune globulin to prevent alloimmunization in the patient who is Rh D-negative? The study objective was to analyze prospectively the incidence of fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage in pregnancies that were complicated by third trimester bleeding compared with three control groups. Pregnancies that were complicated by third-trimester bleeding, preterm premature rupture of the membranes, and preterm labor were identified prospectively on admission. A group of preterm patients with no complications was also collected prospectively. Patients with any history and/or clinical evidence of trauma were excluded. Kleihauer-Betke tests were performed with all patients, and the results were blinded until study completion. Sample size calculations were performed to determine the minimum number of cases needed in each group. A total of 403 patients were collected during the study period: 91 patients had third-trimester bleeding, 101 patients had preterm premature rupture of the membranes, 116 patients had preterm labor, and 95 patients were in the no complication group. There was no statistical difference identified in the Kleihauer-Betke test results between any of the study groups.",
"yes. BANA-positive plaque in the third trimester was associated with preterm births after controlling for other risk factors. The BANA test can be used to screen pregnant women at chairside and/or bedside to apply suitable intervention tactics.",
"yes. This prospective clinical trial revealed that routine determination of the fetal D status from maternal plasma is feasible. Noninvasive fetal RHD genotyping can be considered as sensitive as the traditional postnatal serologic assay.",
"The incidence of fetal-to-maternal hemorrhage does not appear to be increased in pregnancies that are complicated by third-trimester bleeding when compared to noncomplicated control subjects or to other obstetrically complicated pregnancies. This information would suggest that the routine administration of additional anti-D immune globulin (beyond the current recommended protocol) to women who are Rh D-negative whose pregnancies are complicated by third-trimester bleeding is not indicated.",
"Routine antibody screening of Rh (D)-positive women is probably not warranted from a clinical cost-benefit perspective.",
"The ultrasound examination in the 3 rd trimester is of additional benefit and can detect previously unknown structural abnormalities. These findings are relevant for perinatal management and postnatal follow-up.",
"no. The prevention of Rh isoimmunisation with anti-D immunoglobulin (one or two doses) during pregnancy does not jeopardize the newborn. Blood group typing and direct Coombs' test should be performed in every newborn of an Rh negative mother to establish whether there is a necessity to administer anti-D. In the presence of a positive direct Coombs' test, the type of antibodies should be identified.",
"Hemolytic disease of the fetus and of the newborn can be caused by incompatibility of maternal and fetal erythrocytes for Rh (D) or other blood type antigens. Routine antibody screening is advocated in all pregnant women, irrespective of whether they are Rh (D)-positive or Rh (D)-negative, to look for clinically significant alloantibodies other than Rh (D) that might cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. The purpose of this study was to assess the incidence of blood type antibodies other than Rh (D) in pregnant women attending for prenatal care in a typical urban population. A retrospective analysis was undertaken of the charts of all pregnant women followed throughout their entire pregnancy at our Women's Health Center from 1 January 1999 to 30 April 2002. There were 1265 pregnant women included in the study: 465 had blood type A (36.7%), 269 type B (21.3%), 424 type O (33.5%) and 107 type AB (8.5%). A total of 1156 were Rh (D)-positive (91.4%) and 109 were Rh (D)-negative (8.6%). Of the Rh (D)-positive women, 522 (41.3%) underwent routine antibody screening in the first trimester. Only one woman (0.2%) had a positive antibody screen. Of the 109 Rh (D)-negative women, one (0.9%) had a positive third trimester screen with a negative first trimester screen.",
"The purpose of this study was to calculate the incidence of the new development of atypical antibodies (other than anti-rhesus D) in women attending for antenatal care, and to assess the clinical impact and cost-effectiveness of a second test to detect these antibodies. A three-year retrospective analysis was undertaken to calculate the number of rhesus positive women who developed new antibodies in the last trimester of pregnancy. Of 13,143 rhesus positive women, 20 (0.15%) developed new antibodies; fetal outcome was not compromised in any of these cases.",
"Anti-D remains the most important allo-antibody causing HDN, regardless of the availability of anti-D immunoglobulin for prophylaxis. Only Rhesus D negative women and those who have clinically significant antibodies need have repeat antibody screens during the rest of the pregnancy. In line with the current policy of screening all patients at booking, the policy on repeats is not clear and was not evident in this study.",
"To determine the need for routine third-trimester antibody screening in Rh+ women. An analytic case-control study. We identified Rh+ pregnant women who had received prenatal care and retrospectively analyzed their laboratory data. Patients were grouped into those with a positive third-trimester antibody screen (cases) and those with a negative third-trimester screen (controls). Because entry into a group was decided by the investigators, it could not be randomized. We reviewed the maternal medical records for antibody identification and final pregnancy outcome. We also reviewed the neonatal medical records for evidence of direct Coombs-positive cord blood, anemia, need for transfusion or phototherapy, other medical complications, and death. Using a computerized laboratory database from 2 teaching hospitals, we identified 10,581 obstetric patients who underwent routine first- and third-trimester antibody screening between 1988 and 1997. Of these, 1233 patients were Rh- and 9348 were Rh+. Among the Rh+ patients, 178 (1.9%) had 1 or more atypical antibodies at the first-trimester screen, and 53 (0.6%) had a positive third-trimester antibody screen despite a negative first-trimester screen. Although 6 of these 53 patients (0.06% of the study population) had clinically relevant antibodies for hemolytic disease of the new-born, no significant neonatal sequelae occurred among these 6 patients.",
"Based on the patient and hospital records studied, a repeat third-trimester antibody screen for Rh+ patients is clinically and economically unjustified. Eliminating this laboratory test from clinical practice will not adversely affect pregnancy outcomes and will decrease the costs of prenatal care."
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Do nursing home residents make greater demands on GPs? | [
"The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).",
"Our study suggests that nursing home residents do require a greater input from general practice than people of the same age and sex who are residing in the community. While consideration may be given to greater financial reimbursement of GPs who provide medical care to nursing home residents, consideration should also be given to restructuring the medical cover for nursing home residents. This would result in a greater scope for proactive and preventive interventions and for consulting with several patients during one visit."
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"The proportion of RA patients meeting the Dutch PA recommendation was similar to the general Dutch population. However, with respect to the average number of minutes of PA per week, the RA patients were less physically active. Because patients with RA have an increased risk of chronic conditions such as osteoporosis or cardiovascular diseases along with their arthritis, it remains a matter of utmost importance for health care professionals such as rheumatologists, physical therapists, and clinical nurse specialists to promote PA in daily clinical practice and guide patients in achieving and maintaining a healthy lifestyle.",
"To determine how much of the clinical care provided to older persons by geriatricians is primary versus consultative. National Survey. Candidates for the 1988 certifying examination in geriatrics, physicians who expressed interest in the examination but did not register for the examination, and physicians who expressed no interest in the examination (comparison group physicians). Based on a 72% response rate, 78% of the care rendered by certified internal medicine geriatricians and 90% of the care rendered by certified family practice geriatricians to older persons was primary care. Internal medicine geriatricians spent a greater percentage of their care of older persons providing primary care compared with internists with no interest in geriatrics. Although internist geriatricians who were formally trained or had additional subspecialty certification provided less of their care as primary care compared with geriatricians who had no formal training, the majority of care (approximately 70%) provided by each of these two subgroups was primary care.",
"yes. More vulnerable community-dwelling seniors tend to be treated in more specialized EDs, which have worse linkages to community services. Improved linkages between more specialized EDs and the community (physicians, home care, and other services) and increased access to community services may improve outcomes in this population. Seniors treated at more specialized EDs were more likely to experience serious outcomes, but were less likely to make a return outpatient ED visit.",
"yes. DLB patients use more resources, and are more costly than AD patients. Dependency in instrumental activities of daily living is strongly correlated to resource use in DLB patients.",
"yes. Nursing home residents with moderate limitations in activities of daily living are at increased risk of falls upon initiation of sulfonylureas. Initiating sulfonylurea use in NH residents must be done with caution.",
"yes. The treatment of mental disorders in residential and nursing homes lags far behind the \"state of the art\" and demonstrates the need for gerontopsychiatric input into institutional care for the elderly.",
"To report how a group of geriatric advanced practice nurses (APNs) participated in a house calls program that increased access to care for homebound and frail community-dwelling elders. Selected literature and author experiences, illustrated with clinical examples.",
"Remuneration appears to affect GPs' decisions about how they provide consultations, especially among GPs with relatively small patient lists. This role is, however, small compared to other factors such as patient characteristics.",
"Despite common prejudices, emergency cases in elder patients are rated more often as in need of emergency physician attendance compared with those involving younger patients.",
"In their clinical practice, community nurses should give special attention to frail older people who, besides their healthcare needs, are also heavily dependent in the activities of daily living (ADLs). In order to combat elder abuse, conditions in the family should be regularly verified.",
"yes. A preclinic phone call reminder to elderly patients is feasible, increases attendance rates, and identifies vacant appointments. Patients with dementia are more likely to miss clinic appointments; therefore they and their carers need specific reminders about appointment dates.",
"yes. GPs only played a minor or no role at all as coordinators of individual cancer patient trajectories. The findings of the present study question the idea that coordination throughout the entire health-care system may be assigned to a single individual as the involved parties belong to different organizations with different goals, managements and economic resources.",
"yes. This study suggests that different intervention may be necessary in different geriatric settings to identify, for secondary prevention, certain individuals for which the generic programs prove inadequate. Information collection with a specific focus on the issue of repeat falls may be necessary for greater insight.",
"Reducing the widespread use of physical restraints in nursing homes is a primary goal of the federal nursing home reforms enacted as part of the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987. However, some nursing home operators assert that reducing restraint use could be prohibitively expensive, costing payors perhaps as much as $1 billion annually. We investigated whether nursing home residents free from physical restraint require more care and resources than similar residents who are restrained. We examined the major component of nursing home costs--staff time--and its allocation among residents who were physically restrained and those who were not restrained. The multivariate analysis used staff-time-study data on the care of 11,932 nursing home residents in 276 facilities in seven states. The analyses indicate that, when differences in impairment and care needs are controlled for, residents who are physically restrained require more nursing care than other residents. Higher levels of nursing-assistant time were consistently provided to restrained residents.",
"In nursing home residents, obesity is associated with increased survival and stable functionality. These observations may therefore be regarded as an expression of \"risk factor paradox\" in this specific population of older individuals.",
"yes. Violent behavior among older patients is associated with significant increases in both physical and psychological burden in their informal caregivers.",
"yes. This study shows that community pharmacies in Norway play a minor role regarding drug information to elderly polypharmacy patients. The GP is both their main information source and whom they contact for drug-related problems. However, half of the patients would like to know more about their medication. More than half were positive towards taking part in a MUR.",
"The preferences of elderly patients for GP care concern the same items as younger patients. However, their preferences are less strong, which cannot be ascribed to gender, education, perceived health, the number of GP contacts and practice location.",
"Our findings indicate that GPs need more knowledge about low-dose diuretic therapy in hypertension, about different diuretic regimens in heart failure, and about non drug treatment for orthostatic oedema. Clinical pharmacology regarding diuretics should be given priority in the vocational training and continuing education for GPs.",
"Nursing home organization, nursing practices and rules within the institution may all influence residents' daily living and their perception on the quality of care provided. A qualitative approach was conducted, using purposeful and theoretical sampling. Data were collected from nursing home residents, following unstructured and semi-structured interviews, researcher field notes and residents' personal diaries and letters. Giorgi analysis was conducted. Two main themes emerged. (1) 'Following nursing home rules'. Norms may be seen as boundaries, especially for those residents who were independent before admission. (2) 'Prioritizing nursing care in residents'. Prioritizing the nursing care may limit the autonomy of residents because it does not meet their preferences and needs.",
"The results reinforce the need to monitor nursing home quality and resident safety in US nursing homes, especially among facilities with poor overall financial performance.",
"Many interventions accessed by older people in geriatric medicine and aged care sectors have a broader impact upon quality of life beyond health status. The findings from this study indicate that a focus on broader aspects of quality of life may also be consistent with the preferences of older people themselves as to what constitutes quality of life from their perspective.",
"A significant proportion of community-dwelling elderly people reported patterns of alcohol consumption that put them at risk of future damage to physical or mental health. Hazardous drinkers were less likely to visit their GPs and only in a few cases, were GPs aware of such potential problems.",
"Although patients aged 75 and older had more medical conditions and were at higher risk for drug-related problems than younger patients, the duration of physician visits was similar across the age groups. These findings suggest that elderly patients may require a multidisciplinary approach to optimize patient care in the ambulatory setting.",
"yes. Community-living seniors with major depression, co-morbid major depression and depressive symptoms were more likely to use psychiatrist, family physician, other professional and self-help services for mental health problems but less than a third actually did so.",
"Our study presents evidence suggesting that the practice of covert medication may still be a problem in Norwegian nursing homes. The frequency of this practice has been only slightly reduced in the period 2000-7, but the practice is more frequently recorded in the patient's records and the physician is today more often involved in the decision to give medicine covertly compared with 7 years ago.",
"These findings have serious implications for the management of phantom limb pain, disability and psychological distress in amputees in that GPs not only provide first line treatment, but are also the gatekeepers for referral to other services. Given this, the role of other professionals within the primary health care team may prove an additional resource for providing both support and accurate information to amputees in the community.",
"To examine whether hospice enrollment for nursing home (NH) and residential care/assisted living (RC/AL) residents near the end of life is associated with symptoms and symptom management, personal care, spiritual support, and family satisfaction. Structured, retrospective telephone interviews with family and staff who attended to NH and RC/AL residents in the last month of life. A stratified sample of 26 NH and 55 RC/AL facilities in four states. Family members (n=97) and long-term care (LTC) staff (n=104) identified as most involved in care of 124 residents who died over a 15-month period. A variety of reported measures of care and symptoms before death, including the Discomfort Scale for Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type. Of 124 decedents, 27 (22%) received hospice services. Dementia was less common in hospice enrollees than in decedents who did not receive hospice care. Hospice enrollees more often had moderate/severe pain and dyspnea and received pain treatment and were more likely to receive assistance with mouth care and eating and drinking. There were no differences related to unmet need, and observed differences were largely eliminated when comparisons were limited to residents whose deaths were expected.",
"The current study shows that GPs working solo have divergent views of group practice. However, they clearly perceive advantages to this type of association (e.g. better quality of life and continuity of care). This study also confirms the high level of stress and tiredness felt by GPs and especially senior practitioners.",
"Residents living in long-term care facilities are a vulnerable population. For many residents, a nursing home is their place of death. Palliative care and end-of-life decisions are important components of their care provision.AIM: To study the views of cognitively able residents and relatives on advance care planning, end-of-life care, and decision-making in nursing homes. A qualitative study with in-depth interviews with nursing home residents and focus group interviews with relatives of nursing home residents. Analysis is based on interpretive description.SETTING/ In total, 43 informants from nine nursing homes participated in the study (25 nursing home residents and 18 relatives). All included residents had capacity to provide informed consent and lived in long-term care. The main findings of this study were the differing views about decision-making and advance care planning of residents and relatives. Residents do trust relatives and staff to make important decisions for them. The relatives are in contrast insecure about the residents' wishes and experience decision-making as a burden. The majority of the residents had not participated in advance care planning. None of the residents stated challenges connected to end-of-life care or mentioned the wish for euthanasia.",
"yes. Patients diagnosed with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder (ie, SMI) were more likely than other patients to be admitted to nursing homes with higher deficiency citations for both overall quality and clinical care quality. Further research is necessary to understand the reasons behind the disparity in quality of nursing home care associated with SMI.",
"yes. GPs attributed different values to community pharmacists undertaking clinical medication reviews, but this value usually balanced the quality and usefulness of the pharmacist's recommendations with the efficiency of the system in terms of workload and funding.",
"Many elderly people do not feel properly consulted about rest home placement, and some could be supported at home for longer. It is likely that many who can afford rest home fees are entering too early and then asking for a subsidy when their funds are exhausted. By then it is almost impossible to insist on alternatives in the community. A policy of geriatric service assessment for all seeking entry into rest home care should ensure independent consultation and consideration of alternative strategies. More research is required to examine cost implications of unrestricted movement into rest homes.",
"yes. Elderly nursing home residents complaining of fatigue need to be taken seriously, because they show worse muscle endurance, which is related to poorer mobility. Inflammatory processes involving TNF-alpha and the interaction between IL-6 and Hsp70 are related to poorer muscle endurance in these patients.",
"yes. A high number of medical co-morbidities in addition to a reported family history of dementia are particularly detrimental to cognitive performance in elderly non-demented family practice patients.",
"The new '700 series' Medical Benefit Schedule (MBS) items for general practice introduce greatly increased potential for collaboration between general practitioners and other health professionals in patient care.AIM: To investigate the current perceptions of Australian GPs with respect to the desirability and impact of 'sharing care' with nurses and other health professionals. Survey of a sample of GPs in Queensland and NSW participating in the Department of Veterans' Affairs Preventive Care Trial. Fifty-two percent of GPs surveyed worked in a practice where a nurse was employed. The main role of the practice nurse was to do electrocardiograms, apply dressings, and triage duties. Practice nurses played only a minor role in health promotion and education. Seventy percent of GPs identified 'cost' and 58% 'lack of a Medicare item' as the major disincentives to the employment of a practice nurse. Seventy percent of GPs were satisfied with the level of communication with community based health professionals outside the practice, with 'time' nominated as the greatest barrier to optimal contact. Eighty-two percent of GPs considered other health professionals had a role in conducting preventive home visits for the older population, with 70% of GPs identifying that these health professionals had the potential to identify additional health problems, previously unaddressed.",
"yes. Findings suggest that analgesic management of daily pain is better for nursing home residents enrolled in hospice than for those not enrolled in hospice.The prescribing practices portrayed by this study reveal that many dying nursing home residents in daily pain are receiving no analgesic treatment or are receiving analgesic treatment inconsistent with AMDA and other pain management guidelines. Improving the analgesic management of pain in nursing homes is essential if high-quality end-of-life care in nursing homes is to be achieved.",
"A house call by a health visitor to elderly patients after discharge from geriatric wards does not measurably improve the quality of the discharge.",
"The study suggests that working with quality indicators in long-term care organizations for older people may lead to a better performance on several indicators. The influence of the region on the quality is significant, which could be caused by Dutch healthcare insurers.",
"yes. Nursing home patients with dementia have a high prevalence of psychotropic drug use. In particular, the association with neuropsychiatric symptoms raises questions of efficacy of these drugs and the risk of chronic use.",
"yes. Our results suggest that the carerecipients' psychological characteristics may be more strongly related to the decision to continue care for disabled elderly at home than that of the caregivers'.",
"yes. P-ADL functioning in nursing home patients with dementia worsened over time. The worsening was associated with more severe dementia, higher physical comorbidity, agitation, apathy and no use of anxiolytics and antidementia medication. Clinicians should pay attention to these variables (associates) in order to help the nursing home residents with dementia to maintain their level of functioning for as long as possible.",
"yes. These results highlight the poor adherence of GPs to the current recommendations of clinical practice guidelines with a high number of inappropriate urine cultures requested and a low utilization of first-choice antibiotics.",
"yes. Geriatric fall prevention is resource-consuming both in terms of staff needed and with respect to demands made on the patients, and the frailest part of the fall population cannot comply. It is necessary to differentiate fall prevention services for the population of elderly fallers as interventions in primary healthcare have been shown to be more effective among the most frail elderly fallers.",
"yes. More than two-thirds of \"medical\" visits in rural areas were for acts that nurses could easily do. The easy access to a junior doctor did not promote preventive medicine. Replacement of junior doctors with properly trained nurses cooperating with GPs responsible for greater regions would be more cost-effective than junior doctors improving health in rural areas. Legislation should change, mainly with regard to repeat prescriptions, in order to reduce house visits.",
"The pressure ulcer incidence was significantly higher in Dutch nursing homes than in German nursing homes. Factors related to residents, nursing care and structure explain this difference in incidence rates. Continuous attention to pressure ulcer care is important for all health care settings and countries, but Dutch nursing homes especially should pay more attention to repositioning residents, the necessity and correct use of transfer aids, the necessity of analgesics use, the tasks of the tissue viability nurse, and the performance of regular internal quality controls.",
"yes. Although previous work has demonstrated that all older persons with PN are at increased risk for falls, patients with increased BMI and more severe PN are at particularly high risk and should be targeted for intervention.",
"This study documents the frequency and nature of after-hours telephone calls to a university-based family practice, with special attention to those calls from or about nursing home patients. All after-hours telephone calls to a free-standing family practice training program that were made during the 6 months between July 1991 and January 1992 were recorded and classified. Of the 821 calls recorded, 81 included telephone calls from nursing home patients. Nursing home patients, who constitute about 1% of the practice, were responsible for 10% of the calls (P < .001). Nursing home patient calls were more likely to occur on weekends (P = .013) and were more likely to be for physician notification purposes (P < .001).",
"yes. Our results suggest that depression symptoms are a major health problem among nursing home residents without cognitive impairment and that younger residents are more prone to having depressive symptoms.",
"The extra workload induced by patients with mental health problems may sometimes cause GPs to be reluctant to become involved in mental health care. It is known that dealing with patients' mental health problems is more time consuming in specific situations such as in consultations. But it is unclear if GPs who are more often involved in patients' mental health problems, have a higher workload than other GPs. Therefore we investigated the following: Is the attention GPs pay to their patients' mental health problems related to their subjective and objective workload? Secondary analyses were made using data from the Second Dutch National Survey of General Practice, a cross sectional study conducted in the Netherlands in 2000-2002. A nationally representative selection of 195 GPs from 104 general practices participated in this National Survey. Data from: 1) a GP questionnaire; 2) a detailed log of the GP's time use during a week and; 3) an electronic medical registration system, including all patients' contacts during a year, were used. Multiple regression analyses were conducted with the GP's workload as an outcome measure, and the GP's attention for mental health problems as a predictor. GP, patient, and practice characteristics were included in analyses as potential confounders. Results show that GPs with a broader perception of their role towards mental health care do not have more working hours or patient contacts than GPs with a more limited perception of their role. Neither are they more exhausted or dissatisfied with the available time. Also the number of patient contacts in which a psychological or social diagnosis is made is not related to the GP's objective or subjective workload.",
"Symptom resolution for a new LBP complaint was significantly higher in patients who decided on the GP, even when controlling for severity of illness and degree of disturbance to everyday functioning.",
"(1) Characterize physicians' management practices for fecal incontinence (FI) among elderly patients, (2) describe physician perceptions of the quality of care for FI provided in nursing homes (NH), and (3) identify physician views and attributes associated with referral of elderly patients with FI to an NH. Cross-sectional. United States. Physician members of the American Geriatrics Society. Questionnaire pertaining to physician views on (1) their own FI management practices, (2) management of FI in NHs, and (3) referral of an elderly patient with FI to an NH. Of the respondents (n = 606), 54.1% reported screening for FI and 59.3% thought FI could be managed conservatively on an outpatient basis. Only 32.9% believed NHs provide good care for FI, and 27.1% believed NH care conditions exacerbate FI. Responding to a hypothetical vignette, 10.6% would probably or definitely refer an older adult patient with only FI to an NH, and 17.2% were uncertain about whether or not to refer. Logistic regression analysis identified physician characteristics associated with decreased likelihood of NH referral as the belief that FI can be managed conservatively, the belief that NHs provide poor care for FI, longer practice experience, and practicing in an academic medical center.",
"Older adults with poor mental health function may experience more communication challenges in the form of shorter visits and less patient-centered communication when a family companion is present.",
"no. Elderly patients have informational and relational needs similar to those of younger patients. In fact, most of the whole sample flagged up the need for higher levels of satisfaction especially concerning a better dialogue with health staff, along with a new factor: the need to talk to people with the same illness.",
"Methodological implications: The data analysis concerning the drug utilization of residents of nursing homes requires multilevel models and a distinction between regular and PRN medicine. Further research should focus on explaining institutional variance.",
"Our results show that caregivers misunderstand the informational needs of their patients. Therefore, elderly patient information preferences cannot be predicted accurately by talking to relatives. The recommendation to oncologists is to be more responsive to the needs of both elderly cancer patients and their family members.",
"The authority gradient can have a major negative impact on perioperative patient care. Residents and nursing staff are seldom able to challenge the attending physicians when patient safety is at risk. However, even attending physicians who normally accept feedback and criticism from team members can fail to receive support.",
"In response to the recent Olmstead decision, to compare consumer and clinician perspectives on the appropriateness of nursing home settings for older adults with severe mental illness (SMI) in relation to clinical characteristics and care needs. Cross-sectional, descriptive, correlational study. Ten community mental health centers and two state-funded nursing homes specializing in long-term care for older persons with SMI. Consumers of mental health services in the community (n=115) and in nursing homes (n=106), aged 60 and older, with SMI. Sixty-four clinicians (51% registered nurses, 29% masters-level clinicians, and 20% certified social workers) conducted ratings. Consumers and their clinicians were independently asked to determine the most appropriate care setting for each consumer based on care needs from three alternatives: nursing home, congregate (group) living setting, or individual apartment/home. Clinical characteristics of participants with SMI were rated using the Mini-Mental State Examination, Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale, Specific Level of Function Scale, Cumulative Illness Rating Scale for Geriatrics, a modified memory and orientation subscale from the Clinical Dementia Rating Scale, and an item from the Minimum Data Set related to reasoning. Of nursing home residents with SMI who did not have severe cognitive impairment, 40% (n=42) and 51% (n=54) were considered by consumers or by their clinician, respectively, to be more appropriate for a community-based setting, but there was a low level of agreement (only 27.6%; no better than chance) between consumers and clinicians on which nursing home residents were most appropriate for living in the community. Determinations by clinicians were associated with clinical need (diagnosis and less-severe behavioral problems), whereas there was no association between clinical needs and level of care determinations by consumers. Finally, clinicians considered a group home necessary for 93.7% of nursing home residents judged to be more appropriate for a community-based setting, whereas 90.5% of consumers stated that an apartment or individual home was indicated.",
"Although elderly people with disabilities were more likely than their counterparts without disabilities to have a usual source of care, those with disabilities were more likely to forgo physician visits because of cost. Elderly persons with greater perceived health needs were most likely to experience the disparity.",
"yes. Among residents with dementia it is important to identify those who run an increased risk of falling and need more careful supervision, especially in the evening and during the night. In addition, the causes of anxiety and confusion have to be prevented and treated.",
"This is the largest study to demonstrate that admission to the medicine service compared with the orthopaedic service increases a geriatric hip fractures patient's expected LOS. Since LOS is a major driver of cost as well as a measure of quality care, it is important to understand the factors that lead to a longer hospital stay to better allocate hospital resources. Based on the results from our institution, orthopaedic surgeons should be aware that admission to medicine might increase a patient's expected LOS.",
"yes. A very small percentage (0.88 percent) of elderly Medicare patients, mainly those who are very sick and near the end of life, receive house calls from physicians.",
"yes. The increase in the ratio of clinical to hotel expenditures following publication of the report card suggests that nursing homes responded as expected to the changes in the elasticity of demand with respect to clinical quality brought about by the public reporting of clinical quality measures. The response was stronger among nursing homes facing stronger incentives.",
"The GP's attention for a patient's mental health problems is not related to their workload. The GP's extra workload when dealing in a consultation with patients' mental health problems, as is demonstrated in earlier research, is not automatically translated into a higher overall workload. This study does not confirm GPs' complaints that mental health care is one of the components of their job that consumes a lot of their time and energy. Several explanations for these results are discussed.",
"To deduce a model describing physicians' choice of antidepressants for treating elderly nursing home patients. Subjects were geriatric residents of 137 skilled nursing facilities who regularly received an antidepressant medication for at least one month (n = 3,440, 28% of all residents). Reasons for prescribing antidepressants and physicians' diagnoses of depression and dementia were identified by medical record audit. Residents were grouped by dementia and antidepressant target symptoms (depression, or one or more non-psychiatric symptoms, i.e. insomnia, pain, incontinence, itching). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) were prescribed preferentially over tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) for treating depression in both demented and non-demented residents, but TCAs were nine times more likely to be prescribed for treating non-psychiatric target symptoms alone. When non-psychiatric target symptoms were present without depression or dementia, both amitriptyline and nortriptyline prescribing was increased, but amitriptyline appeared to be the antidepressant of choice. In all subgroups examined, its use was two to five times more prevalent when such symptoms were present. In patients with dementia, amitriptyline prescribing declined whether or not non-psychiatric target symptoms were present, but nortriptyline prescribing did not; nortriptyline was three times more likely than amitriptyline to be prescribed in the presence of dementia.",
"yes. The reasons underpinning each individual decision to consult were complex. The control that GPs were perceived to have over the pattern of consulting, for example concerning prescribing, review visits, and in addressing further help-seeking behaviour, may provide more possibilities for developing intervention strategies than targeting frequent attenders themselves. An understanding of the processes behind the consulting behaviour of frequent attenders may lead to more functional consultations and better clinical care as a result.",
"High-care nursing home residents do not appear to have a greater relative risk of unplanned hospitalization when given PIM, but do incur a higher absolute burden than other older adults. Physicians should exert caution with Beers medications in all older patients, restricting the number of different PIM and PIM quantity prescribed whenever possible.",
"yes. Most geriatricians believe FI can be managed conservatively and that NHs provide poor care for FI. These beliefs plus longer years of practice and practice in an academic setting decrease the likelihood of referral to NH for patients with FI.",
"A positive attitude towards implementing additional vaccinations is not apparent. Achieving the most health benefits seems to be the most important consideration of Dutch GPs regarding vaccinating older adults. Questions regarding the usefulness of vaccinating older adults should be taken into consideration. More research is necessary to confirm the results among a wider range of Dutch GPs.",
"no. Visitors were not able to provide information on elderly patients' satisfaction with nursing home. Their assessments were milder than patient assessments. The NHSQ is reliable for use in either population, but patient and visitor assessments should not be merged in satisfaction studies.",
"Direct, person-to-person contact between the geriatric consultant and the family doctor has a beneficial effect on the implementation of geriatric recommendations. This should be considered by healthcare policy makers when planning geriatric services in the community.",
"yes. Protocol-supported consultations may lead to a modest increase in information regarding two risk factors for LTSA in GPs' electronic records and to more referrals to OPs.",
"yes. The findings suggest that differences in care provided in HCBS and AL may influence subsequent NH placement for older adults with dementia.",
"yes. Satisfaction with GP communication is associated with a higher QoL in their older patients. Diagnosis and disclosure of memory problems is associated with better QoL in people with dementia. Clinicians should not be deterred from discussing a memory diagnosis and plans for the future with patients.",
"yes. Our study shows that more effort is needed to ensure that primary health care systems are sensitive to chronic conditions in the young and in the very elderly.",
"To assess the possible benefits and challenges of hospice involvement in nursing home care by comparing the survival and needs for palliative care of hospice patients in long-term care facilities with those living in the community. Retrospective review of computerized clinical care records. A metropolitan nonprofit hospice. The records of 1,692 patients were searched, and 1,142 patients age 65 and older were identified. Of these, 167 lived in nursing homes and 975 lived in the community. Patient characteristics, needs for palliative care, and survival. At the time of enrollment, nursing home residents were more likely to have a Do Not Resuscitate order (90% vs 73%; P<.001) and a durable power of attorney for health care (22% vs 10%; P<.001) than were those living in the community. Nursing home residents also had different admitting diagnoses, most notably a lower prevalence of cancer (44% vs 74%; P<.032). Several needs for palliative care were less common among nursing home residents, including constipation (1% vs 5%; P = .02), pain (25% vs 41%; P<.001), and anticipatory grief (1% vs 9%; P<.001). Overall, nursing home residents had fewer needs for care (median 0, range 0-3 vs median 1, range 0-5; rank sum test P<.001). Nursing home residents had a significantly shorter survival (median 11 vs 19 days; log rank test of survivor functions P<.001) and were less likely to withdraw from hospice voluntarily (8% vs 14%; P = .03). However, there was no difference in the likelihood of becoming ineligible during hospice enrollment (6% for both groups).",
"no. Patients' feelings of distress are more important for GPs' communication and their awareness of patients' psychological problems than a long patient list or busy moment of the day. GPs who encourage the patient to disclose their psychological problems are more aware of psychological problems.",
"It appears that severity of depression and having higher levels of anxiety make it more likely that you will be referred by your general practitioner to the old age psychiatry services.",
"yes. Carers of both CIND and dementia patients when attending a memory clinic for initial diagnostic assessment experience high levels of stress. Impaired function in ADL in patients is the strongest predictor of this stress.",
"yes. GPs who participated in diabetes registers were more likely to provide patient care that more closely adhered to evidence-based guidelines than those who did not. Further research is needed to determine whether this was the result of characteristics of the GPs themselves, or their practices, or a was a consequence of their participation.",
"yes. The provision of more frequent healthcare centre face-to-face consultations, including general practitioner consultations, is associated with an increased burden of acute medical evacuations and remote telephone consultation services in this remote setting.",
"To examine how difficult decisions to hospitalize nursing home patients are considered by the physicians and to what patient characteristics this is related. Prospective and descriptive. Analysis of registration data about 387 decisions to hospitalize nursing home patients collected among nursing home physicians in 30 nursing homes. The degree of difficulty of hospitalisation was associated primarily with poor physical condition and much less with the mental condition. It was not related to patient age (apart from physical condition and the reason for hospitalisation). Referrals were difficult for e.g. infections and respiratory tract disorders, which may be further complicated by the short time available for the decision making because of the life threatening nature of the disorders. With malignancies, feeding, urogenital and skin disorders, decisions to hospitalize also proved difficult to make. These disorders usually allowed more time for consultation.",
"yes. Nursing home residents hospitalized with a prior osteoporotic fracture are at increased risk of a fracture.",
"The present study revealed differences between nursing homes' official guidelines and their attitudes toward the priority of admitting elderly persons with BPSD from their waiting lists. Future studies should explore the factors that influence the placement of individuals with BPSD into nursing homes.",
"yes. There were different home service use in two groups (the sustained/improved group and the deteriorated group). Respite stay in a nursing home service use and more types of service use were related to experiencing a deterioration of care needs level in lower care needs level community-dwelling elderly persons in Japan. Further, medical management by a physician service was related to experiencing a deterioration of care needs level in higher care needs level community-dwelling elderly persons.",
"In clinical practice GPs appear to be less successful in identifying depression in older people than in younger adults, however there have been few head-to-head studies stratified by age from one centre.",
"yes. The researchers controlled for important variables in long-stay nursing home residents at risk for pressure ulcers and found that more RN direct care time per resident per day was strongly associated with better outcomes. There's an urgent need for further research to confirm these findings and, if confirmed, for improving RN staffing in nursing homes to decrease avoidable adverse outcomes and suffering.",
"yes. The large increase in the prevalence of obesity coupled with the rapid expansion of the number of older Americans will likely increase the demand for nursing facility use. More research is needed to understand differences in factors related to nursing home admission among ethnic groups.",
"yes. To the authors' knowledge, this study is one of the first to identify characteristics of the nursing home as a learning environment. The main challenge in the nursing home is dealing with less, which, according to the residents in the present study, often leads to learning more. To ensure that learning really happens, the authors call for high-quality supervision to support learners in the nursing home environment.",
"GPs' prescribing patterns are not in accordance with recommended dosage and duration of treatment; this pattern is most pronounced for elderly patients.",
"These results suggest that hospices identify needs for palliative care in a substantial proportion of nursing home residents who are referred to hospice, although nursing home residents may have fewer identifiable needs for care than do community-dwelling older people. However, the finding that nursing home residents' survival is shorter may be of concern to hospices that are considering partnerships with nursing homes. An increased emphasis on hospice care in nursing homes should be accompanied by targeted educational efforts to encourage early referral.",
"Quantitatively, residents from deprived Amsterdam neighbourhoods contribute relatively little to the higher workload of Amsterdam GPs; this study gave no information on qualitative aspects. However, Amsterdam residents with compulsory health insurance appeared to visit their GPs more frequently than the Dutch average, and those from deprived neighbourhoods even 9% more.",
"yes. Decision-makers and clinical practitioners may primarily focus on the maintenance and enhancement of mobility, because this seems to be the key predictor for many other health conditions in the context of care dependency in the nursing home setting.",
"yes. the observed increase in utilisation of GP care of the oldest old depends more on the proximity to death and less on age alone. Being old only results in a small increase in the GP's workload.",
"Our results--most notably regarding the demand-satisfying attitude of responding GPs--call into question the classical view of the guidance and gatekeeper role of GPs in the Dutch health care system.",
"yes. Nursing home patients generate a disproportionately large number of after-hours calls. These calls are more likely to occur on weekends and less likely to require physician action. This is a considerable hidden practice burden that needs to be taken into account when planning practice coverage.",
"The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).",
"Our study suggests that nursing home residents do require a greater input from general practice than people of the same age and sex who are residing in the community. While consideration may be given to greater financial reimbursement of GPs who provide medical care to nursing home residents, consideration should also be given to restructuring the medical cover for nursing home residents. This would result in a greater scope for proactive and preventive interventions and for consulting with several patients during one visit."
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Does teaching during a general practice consultation affect patient care? | [
"General practice differs from hospital medicine in the personal nature of the doctor-patient relationship and in the need to address social and psychological issues as well as physical problems. Recent changes in undergraduate medical education have resulted in more teaching and learning taking place in general practitioner (GP) surgeries.AIM: To explore patients' experiences of attending a surgery with a medical student present. A questionnaire was designed, based on semi-structured interviews. Questionnaires were posted to patients who had attended teaching surgeries in London and Newcastle-upon-Tyne. Four hundred and eighty questionnaires were sent; of these, 335 suitable for analysis were returned. The response rate in Newcastle was 79%, and in London 60%. Ninety-five per cent of responders agreed that patients have an important role in teaching medical students. Patients reported learning more and having more time to talk, however, up to 10% of responders left the consultation without saying what they wanted to say and 30% found it more difficult to talk about personal matters.",
"The presence of a student has a complex effect on the general practice consultation. Future developments in medical education need to be evaluated in terms of how patient care is affected as well as meeting educational aims."
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"Generally, the consultations concern serious, often very complex conditions, i.e. cases that should be assessed by a specialist. Nevertheless, the expert panel's judgment of the interdisciplinary consultations shows that in more than half of the dermatological cases and in a limited number of consultations by a specialist of internal medicine and geriatrics the problems fit the GP's expertise. Given the morbidity in academic hospitals we suppose that the results of a similar study in a peripheral hospital might even show more perspective for a GP consultant. These results offer sufficient arguments to start a pilotstudy into the role of a GP consultant in hospital.",
"yes. The care of patients with primary-care home nursing is complex. Apart from home nursing, all patients also made outpatient visits to doctors, usually in both primary and specialised medical care. Many different caregivers and professions were involved. Reduced functional capacity decreased and help from family members increased the chance of having received outpatient specialised medical care. This raises questions concerning the medical care for patients with both medical and functional problems.",
"yes. Residents on inpatient rotations who were commonly interrupted in clinic felt pressured to return to ward duties and unable to focus on their clinic patients. Internal medicine faculty should modify curriculum to minimize the interference of other duties in resident clinics.",
"\"Part-time\" general practice is a misnomer that masks the contribution these GPs make as part of the health workforce. Sessional practice more accurately describes the nature of our participants' clinical work. Their choice of sessional work is a professional response to the increasing demands within the consultation. It enables GPs to maintain their commitment to quality patient care and their profession, while attenuating the challenges of demanding consultations. Sessional general practitioners demonstrate strong commitment to their patients and the profession.",
"Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \"patients\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).",
"Evaluate whether an intervention applied to general practitioners to prevent clinical inertia had an impact on pain, functionality, and health-related quality of life (HRQoL) of patients with hip and/or knee osteoarthritis. This was a cluster-based, multicentre, prospective, randomized, parallel-group study. Clusters of physicians working were assigned to one of two study groups. Physicians in Group 1 received a training session while those in Group 2 did not. Primary Care Health centers representative of the entire Spanish territory. 329 general practitioners of primary healthcare centre. The intervention consists of a motivational session to propose a proactive care, based on current recommendations. Visual analogue scale (VAS); functionality (WOMAC scale) and global perception of health by SF-12. Effects were measured in two visits six months apart. A total of 1361 physicians, and 4076 patients participated in the study. No significant differences were observed in the clinical benefit obtained between patients assigned to Group 1 and Group 2. Nevertheless, a significant improvement was observed in the combined population (Groups 1 + 2) in the VAS (p<0.001), WOMAC (p<0.0001) and SF-12v2 (p<0.001) questionnaires in Visit 2 compared to Visit 1.",
"Evaluation of outcome in general practice can be seen from different viewpoints. In this study we focus on the concepts patients use to describe the outcome of a consultation with a GP. Patients were interviewed within a week after a consultation with a GP. The interviews were made with 20 patients in 5 focus groups and 8 individually. They were analysed with a phenomenographic research approach. From the patient's perspective, the outcome of a consultation is about cure or symptom relief, understanding, confirmation, reassurance, change in self-perception and satisfaction.",
"A GP run osteopathy clinic provided additional physical and psychological benefit. GP consultation might be improved by adopting some features from the osteopathic consultation.",
"To explore whether there are associations between continuity of care and the provision of items of preventive care in Australian general practice. Patient completed questionnaires from a 'consecutive' sample of Australian general practitioners enrolled in the Patient Participation Program of the Quality Assurance and Continuing Medical Education Program of the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners. An association was sought between the length of time patients reported attending their practitioner, whether they regularly attended more than one practice, and whether they were provided with preventive care. Data from 12,605 questionnaires, completed by patients from 133 practices throughout Australia found that patients who reported only visiting one practice on a regular basis were significantly more likely to report the provision of: blood pressure screening within the past 12 months; cholesterol screening in the past 5 years; adequate smoking cessation information if required; to have discussed the benefits of diet and exercise; to have received a cervical smear in the past 2 years; and to have received adequate instruction in the technique of breast self examination. Patients attending the same practices for longer periods were significantly more likely to have received the above items with the exception of adequate information to enable them to stop smoking if they desired; and cervical smears in the past 2 years. Such patients were less likely to report the provision of tetanus immunisation in the past 10 years and cervical smears in the past 2 years.",
"The aim of the study was to demonstrate that COM-ON-p, concise and individualized communication skills training (CST), improves oncologists' communication skills in consultations focusing on the transition to palliative care. Forty-one physicians were randomly assigned to a control (CG) or intervention group (IG). At t(0), all physicians held two video-recorded consultations with actor-patient pairs. Afterward, physicians in the IG participated in COM-ON-p. Five weeks after t(0), a second assessment took place (t(1)). COM-ON-p consists of an 11-hour workshop (1.5 days), pre- and postassessment (2 hours), and coaching (0.5 hours). Physicians focused on practicing individual learning goals with actor patients in small groups. To evaluate the training, blinded raters assessed communication behavior of the physicians in video-recorded actor-patient consultations using a specific checklist. Data were analyzed using a mixed model with baseline levels as covariates. Participants in the IG improved significantly more than those in the CG in all three sections of the COM-ON-Checklist: skills specific to the transition to palliative care, global communication skills, and involvement of significant others (all P < .01). Differences between the CG and IG on the global items of communication skills and involvement of significant others were also significant (P < .01). Effect sizes were medium to large, with a 0.5-point improvement on average on a five-point rating scale.",
"Patient bedside is the ideal setting for teaching physical examination, medical interviewing, and interpersonal skills. Herein we describe a novel model for bedside teaching (BST) practiced during tutor training workshop and its resulting effect on practitioners' self assessment of teaching skills and perceptions. One-day tutor training workshop included theoretical knowledge supplementation regarding tutors' roles as well as implementing practical tools for clinical education, mainly BST model. The model, which emphasizes simultaneous clinical and communication teaching in a stepwise approach, was practiced by consecutive simulations with a gradual escalation of difficulty and adjusted instruction approaches. Pre- and post-workshop-adjusted questionnaires using a Likert scale of 1 to 4 were completed by participants and compared. Analysis was based on 25 out of 48 participants who completed both questionnaires. Significantly improved teaching skills were demonstrated upon workshop completion (mean 3.3, SD 0.5) compared with pre-training (mean 2.6, SD 0.6; p<0.001) with significant increase in most examined parameters. Significantly improved tutor's roles internalization was demonstrated after training completion (mean 3.7, SD 0.3) compared with pre-workshop (mean 3.5 SD 0.5; p=0.002).",
"yes. Small group CQI had a positive effect on changing clinical practice when the learning of new skills (e.g. learning a new suturing technique) was not necessary. Additional interventions are needed when implementing guidelines that recommend the learning of new skills.",
"To determine whether well trained lay people could deliver asthma self-management education with comparable outcomes to that achieved by primary care based practice nurses. Randomised equivalence trial. 39 general practices in West London and North West England. 567 patients with asthma who were on regular maintenance therapy. 15 lay educators were recruited and trained to deliver asthma self-management education. An initial consultation of up to 45 min offered either by a lay educator or a practice based primary care nurse, followed by a second shorter face to face consultation and telephone follow-up for 1 year. Unscheduled need for healthcare. Patient satisfaction and need for courses of oral steroids. 567 patients were randomised to care by a nurse (n = 287) or a lay educator (n = 280) and 146 and 171, respectively, attended the first face to face educational session. During the first two consultations, management changes were made in 35/146 patients seen by a practice nurse (24.0%) and in 56/171 patients (32.7%) seen by a lay educator. For 418/567 patients (73.7%), we have 1 year data on use of unscheduled healthcare. Under an intention to treat approach, 61/205 patients (29.8%) in the nurse led group required unscheduled care compared with 65/213 (30.5%) in the lay led group (90% CI for difference -8.1% to 6.6%; 95% CI for difference -9.5% to 8.0%). The 90% CI contained the predetermined equivalence region (-5% to +5%) giving an inconclusive result regarding the equivalence of the two approaches. Despite the fact that all patients had been prescribed regular maintenance therapy, 122/418 patients (29.2%) required courses of steroid tablets during the course of 1 year. Patient satisfaction following the initial face to face consultation was similar in both groups.",
"Overall, the participating GPs perceived the guideline recommendations as useful to increase awareness and to reflect on diagnostic issues. Although behaviour change in consequence of the guideline was not reported on a general level, guidelines on history taking and the clinical examination may serve an important conservative and practical function in a technology driven environment. Further research to increase the implementation success of the guideline should be undertaken.",
"To investigate whether increased contact with the patient's general practitioner (GP) soon after cancer treatment can increase patient quality of life (QoL) and satisfaction with follow-up. A randomised controlled study with 91 patients from one Norwegian municipality. The intervention group got a 30-min invited consultation with the patient's GP and an invitation to further GP follow-up. Quality of life and patient satisfaction with diagnosis, treatment and overall care were measured with validated instruments. Relatives' satisfaction with care increased over 6 months in the intervention group (P = 0.018), but otherwise, there was no difference between the intervention and control groups concerning QoL, satisfaction with care or number of consultations. Patient satisfaction with care showed a tendency to increase when treatment intent was curative. Some functional QoL measures and satisfaction tended to increase during the first 6 months after treatment. Free text comments suggested that some patients appreciated the contact with their GP.",
"Provider advice delivered in routine practice settings has a substantial effect on the success rate of smoking cessation among smoking patients. Providing advice consistently to all smoking patients, compared with routine care, is more effective than doubling the federal excise tax and, in the longer run, likely to outperform some of the other tobacco control policies such as banning smoking in private workplaces.",
"A simple and modest behavioral training for practicing physicians has potential to positively affect physician-patient relationship interaction quality. It will be important to evaluate the effect of more extensive trainings, including those that work with physicians on a broader set of communication techniques.",
"no. General practitioner participants seem to act as a conduit within the consultation and regard clinical evidence as a square peg to fit in the round hole of the patient's life. The process of implementation is complex, fluid, and adaptive.",
"To assess the effects of joint consultation on referral behaviour of general practitioners (GPs) in a prospective cohort study. All patients with rheumatological complaints that 17 participating GPs, from the area of the University Hospital Maastricht, wanted to refer during a two year inclusion period (n=166) were eligible for inclusion. These patients were either referred to the outpatient clinic, or presented at a joint consultation held every six weeks at the practice of the GP, where groups of three GPs presented their patients to a visiting, consulting rheumatologist. The number of patients referred by each GP a year at the end of the trial, comparing participating and non-participating GPs, was the main outcome measure. During two years of inclusion, the 17 participating GPs presented 166 patients. The number of patients referred by each GP a year decreased for the participating GPs by 62% at the end of the whole study. By contrast, non-participating GPs maintained the same rate of referral. The range of diagnoses remained proportionally the same throughout the study, with the exception of fibromyalgia. The referral rate of this diagnosis decreased significantly (p=0.001).",
"This paper reports on consultants' self-assessed changes in their teaching and training practices over an 8-10-month period. It compares the changes between a group undergoing a 3-day teaching course (participants) and a sample group taken from the course waiting list (controls). A questionnaire listing 18 teaching skills was given to the participants immediately prior to the course and 8-10 months later, and to the controls at the same time intervals. Respondents were asked to rate their ability, frequency of use of each skill, as well as their teaching confidence and effectiveness. Additionally, the second questionnaire asked respondents to identify changes they had made to their teaching. A total of 63% (54) of participants and 51% (23) of controls completed both questionnaires. Changes of 2 + on the rating scales were seen as genuine. The number of such changes was calculated for each individual and on each skill for the 2 groups. Data were analysed using a Mann-Whitney U-test. The majority of course participants reported positive changes in teaching ability on a significantly greater number of skills than did the control group. As a group, changes in ability in 16 of the teaching skills were significantly greater for the participants than for the controls. Increased ability resulted in participants' increased frequency of use of only 4 of the teaching skills. The majority in the participant group reported changes to their teaching. Only a minority in the control group reported such changes. These changes were consistent with course topics and the teaching skills needed to meet General Medical Council recommendations for the education of new doctors.",
"yes. Teaching CS may be more effective if medical students are taught these skills when they are exposed to patients on a regular basis, and the training is maintained throughout the clinical years. However, more emphasis should be on reminding faculty members of their role as teachers and good communicating role models to students through workshops and seminars.",
"To determine whether teaching medical students has concurrent economic effects on physicians and their practices. The authors reviewed 869 patient-encounter forms completed in April 1994 and July 1995 by four family medicine physicians who were clinical faculty at the State University of New York Health Science Center at Syracuse. The authors compared those forms that were completed when a third-year medical student was present for the patient encounter with those completed when a student was not present. The authors looked for differences in the distributions of billing codes and in the frequencies of in-office procedures performed and diagnostic tests ordered. The presence or absence of a third-year medical student had no significant effect on the variables studied.",
"yes. Participation in a clinical trial influenced both doctors and patients. Treatment modalities introduced by the trial were used in daily practice by the General Practitioners. Patients who had participated in the trial consulted for less symptoms and used more medication, compared with patients who did not participate.",
"Single-centre observational study of nine consultant physicians at morning post-take medical ward rounds at a district general hospital in the North West of London. Data were gathered from 25 post-take medical ward rounds. Multivariate regression analysis revealed that less time is spent per patient when consultants have been practising for longer (p<0.01), or have spent more time on the specialist register (p<0.01), with no discernible relation to the outcomes for the patients seen. This time is further reduced when a greater number of patients are seen on the ward round.",
"Attending a nurse-led education and counselling group intervention had a positive impact on various aspects of the women's lived experiences. The programme also provided professionals with important insights into the patients' views and feelings regarding cancer treatment, trajectories and rehabilitation. This knowledge has already proven itself useful in clinical practice for improving staff communication skills and psycho-social support related to gynaecological cancer care.",
"Studies on patient comfort with medical student involvement have been conducted within several specialties and have consistently reported positive results. However, it is unknown whether the intrinsic differences between specialties may influence the degree to which patients are comfortable with student involvement in their care.AIM: This is the first study to investigate whether patient comfort varies across specialties. A total of 625 patients were surveyed in teaching clinics in Family Medicine, Obstetrics/Gynaecology, Urology, General Surgery, and Paediatrics. Seven patient attitudes and patients' comfort levels based on student gender, level of training, and type of clinical involvement were assessed. Patients in all specialties shared similar comfort levels and attitudes regarding medical student involvement for the majority of parameters assessed, suggesting that findings in this area may be generalised between specialties. Most of the inter-specialty variation found pertained to patient preference for student gender and the genitourinary specialties.",
"yes. The teaching of a structured method of communication improved the communication during telephone referral in a simulated clinical setting. This research has implications for how healthcare professionals are taught to communicate with each other.",
"yes. Teaching should take a patient-centred focus and an emphasis on fostering a greater tolerance of uncertainty. Role modelling and demonstrated use of relevant clinical guidelines is a strong influence on registrar behaviour. Specific strategies for teaching rational test ordering include random case analysis, investigation audit, topic tutorials and use of targeted resources.",
"GPs and other health professionals might engage more readily with adolescent patients with a deeper understanding of the concerns that adolescents have about their bodies, relationships and overall health. Seemingly 'trivial' issues, such as normal puberty, could be used as discussion triggers in health consultations to help alleviate anxiety and build rapport.",
"At Flinders University, Adelaide, a subset of students on the 4-year, graduate-entry medical course chooses to spend Year 3 based in rural general practice as part of the Parallel Rural Community Curriculum (PRCC). This programme is equivalent to the tertiary teaching hospital option in terms of student educational outcomes. However, there is concern that this success comes at the cost of lost consulting time for the general practitioners (GPs) who supervise these students. This study aimed to quantify the impact of medical students on the consulting time of rural GP supervisors. We carried out a prospective cohort study using analysis of videotape recordings. Study subjects were GPs supervising PRCC medical students and working from their own consulting rooms in the clinic setting. Main outcome measures were mean consultation times in sessions with and without medical students. Using mixed model analysis accounting for clustering of consultations within doctors, and controlling for confounding factors, the estimated marginal mean of regular consultation time was 13 minutes, 27 seconds, which was not significantly shorter than that of precepting consultations (12 minutes, 48 seconds) or parallel consultations (12 minutes, 24 seconds).",
"yes. Interventions before consultations designed to help patients address their information needs within consultations produce limited benefits to patients. Further research could explore whether the quality of questions is increased, whether anxiety before consultations is reduced, the effects on other outcomes and the impact of training and the timing of interventions. More studies need to consider the timing of interventions and possibly the type of training provided to clinicians.",
"To improve breast cancer screening skills, practicing non-academic primary care physicians were offered an opportunity to participate in a one-hour private skills-assessment session with a patient instructor. Research questions included: would physicians in non-academic practice be interested in a skills course; would the course improve their skills in breast examination and/or in counseling for mammography; and if they did improve, would the effect endure? Pilot study with cohort follow-up. Physicians were offered an opportunity to have their counseling and physical examination skills evaluated in a one-on-one interaction with standardized patients. The protocol included patient instructors who were trained to use a uniform breast health history that emphasized their increased risk of breast cancer, scant knowledge of breast-cancer screening, and fear of medical tests and cancer. The standardized patients were trained using a 77-point checklist. They demonstrated a high degree of consistency and reproducibility. A critical part of the learning experience was immediate feedback to the physicians regarding their performances. Physicians who took the course were given an opportunity to repeat it approximately 18 months later. Of the 82 primary care physicians in the community, 49 (60%) were eligible to have their skills evaluated. Of these, 38 (77.6%) participated in the intervention. Baseline skills had mean scores (correct responses) better than 50% in most aspects of the physical examination but less than 35% in several critical counseling areas: reviewing mechanics of getting mammography, actually recommending mammography, and directing the patient regarding scheduling. Of the 38 physicians, 15 repeated the course. There was a significant improvement in their overall performance: 49% vs 67% (p = 0.002).",
"yes. These consultations often change expected management. Where decision making in the consultation is of higher quality, patients were more likely to change to a less invasive option.",
"There is little literature regarding how a gastroenterology trainee affects a patient's interpretation of care during outpatient clinic visits. Improving patient satisfaction is desirable and benefits may include enhanced patient compliance as well as providing trainees with areas for improvement. To evaluate patient satisfaction in an outpatient gastroenterology clinic when seen by a trainee and attending physician versus an attending physician alone. The secondary objective was to evaluate physician characteristics that play a role in creating a positive clinical experience. A randomized prospective survey study was conducted over an 11-month period (July 2012 to June 2013) at St Boniface Hospital (Winnipeg, Manitoba). Two gastroenterology fellows (postgraduate year 4 and 5) and nine internal medicine residents (postgraduate year 1 to 3) comprised the 'trainee' role, while three academic clinicians comprised the 'attending' role. Patients included individuals seen for an initial consultation and were >18 years of age. A total of 211 patients comprised the final study group, with 118 in the attending group and 93 in the trainee group. In univariate analysis, patients more often had a very good experience when seen by an attending physician alone versus a trainee and attending physician (73% versus 56%; P=0.016); however, on multivariate analysis, there was no significant difference in patient satisfaction (OR 0.89; P=0.931). Physician factors found to be associated with high patient satisfaction on multivariate analysis included: addressing all patient concerns (OR 27.56; P=0.021); giving the patient a preliminary diagnosis (OR 78.02; P=0.006); and feeling the physician was thorough (OR 72.53; P=0.029).",
"no. Given the relatively small sample size, we carefully conclude that familiarity between a GP and a patient does not influence the content of the communication (medical issues, psychological themes nor topics relating to the social environment). This is remarkable because we expected that familiarity would 'open up the communication' for more psychological and social themes. GPs seem to have the communication skills to put both familiar and non-familiar patients at ease enabling them to freely raise any issue they think necessary.",
"Our study suggests that nursing home residents do require a greater input from general practice than people of the same age and sex who are residing in the community. While consideration may be given to greater financial reimbursement of GPs who provide medical care to nursing home residents, consideration should also be given to restructuring the medical cover for nursing home residents. This would result in a greater scope for proactive and preventive interventions and for consulting with several patients during one visit.",
"yes. This study shows that strategy of early contact with general practice in medical training should be continued. Information concerning the administrative formalities and aids available must be provided during medical training.",
"yes. Compared with other major disease groups, skin conditions are the most frequent reason for consultation in general practice. This result emphasizes the need for appropriate education and training for all medical students and particularly for continuing education in dermatology for all primary health care professionals.",
"without regular teaching, BLS skills amongst GPs are likely to fall below an acceptable standard. Even short teaching periods can produce significant improvement in skills.",
"Our aim was to evaluate the efficacy of the consulting of internal medicine (CIM) in primary care (PC) on the resolution of medical processes. Prospective case-control study of a population of 87,016 inhabitants during a 1-year period. Patients (2,167) jointly attended by family physicians (FP) and consulting internists (CI) who go weekly to the primary care center (PCC) to attend patients who otherwise would have been referred to specialized consultation (SC). As the control group 1,470 patients were randomly and simultaneously chosen among the total of 14.687 first medical referrals during the period of the study. We observed a significant reduction in: referrals to SC (22%; CI 95%, 18-26%); mean time for SC (23.6 days; CI 95%, 17.3-29.9 days); mean number of tests per patient ordered by FP (0.53; CI 95%, 0.31-0.75) or by CIM (1.22; CI 95%, 1.02-1.40); mean time for patient information on those tests ordered by CIM (21.2 days; CI 95%, 8.5-33.9 days); mean time for the resolution of processes (39.4 days; CI 95%, 35.5-43.3 days); crossed SC rate (23.7%; CI 95%, 20.3-27.1%); and specialized follow-up visits (28.8%; CI 95%, 24.5-33.1%) (p < 0.005 in all cases). The resolution rate of processes (15%; CI 95%, 11-19%) and the discharge rate (41.6%; CI 95%, 35.5-47.7%) were significantly higher for the CIM (p < 0.01 in both cases). The referral rate to SC showed a negative correlation (r = 0.81; p < 0.01) with the management quality, and it related to type of training, age and years of medical practice of the general practitioner (GP). The satisfaction of patients and GPs with the CIM was very high.",
"Remuneration appears to affect GPs' decisions about how they provide consultations, especially among GPs with relatively small patient lists. This role is, however, small compared to other factors such as patient characteristics.",
"In conclusion, the results of this small pilot study indicate that Polish first-contact doctors have an inadequate prescription behaviour in cases with upper respiratory tract infections. Our results underline the need for courses in pharmacotherapy within the postgraduate education course in family medicine recently introduced in Poland.",
"The presence of additional medical personnel in consultations alters the focus of the doctor-patient interaction. Patients feel excluded from the interaction and relegated to the role of a non-person or prop, which leads to a loss of autonomy. Previous research has considered the psychological effects of the presence of additional persons on the interaction, but few studies have considered how these additional persons affect the performances of the consulting doctor and patient in the interaction. A linguistic study drawing on the methods of discourse analysis was conducted to consider how the presence of additional medical personnel in the consultation alters doctors' responses to patients' questions, their management of patient-initiated topics, and their use of invitations to ask questions. When additional professionals were present in the consultation, the consultations were significantly longer than control group consultations (p = 0.04) and significantly more patient-initiated topics remained unresolved at the close of the consultation (p = 0.04). In consultations in which students were present, markedly fewer patient questions were answered than in control group consultations, and there was a notable reduction in the number of overt invitations to ask questions (both differences approached significance). There was, however, a significant reduction (p ≤ 0.01) in the proportion of patient-initiated topics that were deferred when students were present in the consultation.",
"Negative perceptions of general practice by teenagers may have less of an influence on actual consultation behaviour than previously believed. However, there are some aspects of care that merit further attention if teenagers are to feel able to consult their GP more easily.",
"Despite evidence favouring initial medical treatment for benign uterine conditions, hysterectomy rates in Ontario, Canada, in the 1990s were variable, and relatively high. Best methods for translating this or any evidence into practice are, however, elusive.AIM: This study evaluates whether an interactive skill development program had an impact on family practice participants' subsequent ability to manage benign uterine conditions medically. Effectiveness of 50 experiential 3 h skill transfer workshops with peers teaching IUD insertion, endometrial sampling and pessary fitting (offered 2005-2007) was assessed by measuring changes in actual practice. Family physicians billing the Ontario Health Insurance Plan over 5 years (2003-2007 inclusive) formed the control group with whom 138 FP workshop participants (cases) were compared. Rates of all procedures increased amongst 138 family physician attendees following participation, but remained unchanged amongst controls. Number of physicians offering the target interventions also increased among cases, but not controls.",
"Patients may participate in teaching in many ways, in different settings and with different degrees of expert supervision. The majority of patients are generally very willing to participate in teaching. At times, however, patients may decline to see students because they are too sick, wish to maintain their privacy, prefer to have more expert care, or simply wish to have no involvement with students. This raises the question as to whether patients have any obligation to participate in education. A number of arguments are advanced to justify the claim that patients have an obligation to participate in student teaching. These include: that patients should participate in training for the benefit of others if they wish to benefit from the care of those who have learnt from others; that, without patient participation in teaching, the entire health system would collapse; that participation in education provides a benefit over and above the provision of individual care; that, as we all benefit from the presence of a functioning health system, we should all be prepared to contribute to it, and that patients should 'pay' for free public health care by participating in teaching.",
"yes. Renovating the interior of a primary care office was associated with improved patient satisfaction, including satisfaction in domains otherwise unchanged. Physician skills and patient satisfaction sometimes depend on surrounding factors that may bias the ability of patients to assess the quality of medical care. These biases should be taken into account when quality assessment instruments are designed for patients.",
"Except for two aspects, intensive small group education and peer review in asthma and COPD care do not seem to be effective in changing relevant aspects of the provided care by GPs in accordance with guidelines, nor in changing patients' health status.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether patient ratings of general practice Registrars' consulting skills are associated with 'expert' scoring using the MRCGP video assessment protocol. A cross-sectional observational study of general practice Registrars' consultation skills was carried out in 23 practices in South East Scotland using two types of patient assessment compared with expert assessment of video consultation. The main outcome measures were rank correlation of Registrars' overall level of attainment on the Royal College of General Practitioner (RCGP) video assessment with mean score on the Patient Enablement Instrument (PEI) and mean score on the Consultation Satisfaction Questionnaire (CSQ). The rank correlation of Registrars' mean PEI scores with marks on the RCGP video component was 0.01 (P = 0.97, n = 19) and mean CSQ score 0.05 (P = 0.83, n = 19). There were no adverse comments from patients, but Registrars and trainers found the process onerous.",
"Even in healthcare and medical school systems that are specialist-dominated, and in which the circumstances of practice do not always encourage high standards of care, the general practice clerkship can allow students to gain an understanding of the importance of primary care, and of the significance of the general practitioner's role in the healthcare system.",
"Joint consultation seems to be a good strategy in influencing the referral behaviour of GPs in the area of rheumatology. The decrease in referral is substantial and can subsequently lead to a reduction of waiting lists.",
"More involvement in teaching was associated with higher clinical performance ratings from medical colleagues and co-workers. These results may support promoting teaching as a method to enhance and maintain high-quality clinical performance.",
"yes. Patients in regional and rural settings were willing partners in developing skills of junior medical students, who had greater involvement in patient consultations than previously reported for urban students. Our study extends the findings from urban general practice that patients are underutilised partners in community-based medical training. The support of patients from regional and rural settings could facilitate the expansion of primary care-based medical education in these areas of workforce need.",
"A physician-targeted approach of education, peer-comparison feedback, and academic detailing has modest effects on patient satisfaction and possibly on the offering of selected preventive care services. The lack of agreement between patient reports and medical records review raises concerns about current methods of ascertaining compliance with guidelines for preventive care.",
"This study reveals misunderstandings between patients and GPs on the content of the consultation, especially for health-promotion outcomes. Taking patients' social characteristics into account, notably age and educational level, could improve mutual understanding between patients and GPs, and therefore, the quality of care.",
"yes. There is significant disagreement between patients and professionals perceptions and recollection of the content of consultations. Professional's communications skills need to be developed to ensure these discrepancies are minimized. Skills to provide greater autonomy support in the consultation would help to enhance this process and improve outcomes.",
"To explore perceptions of clinical consultations and how they relate to questionnaire-based patient feedback. Telephone interviews with 35 junior doctors and 40 general practice patients who had used the Doctors' Interpersonal Skills Questionnaire (DISQ). Doctors and patients had similar views of 'good consultations' as relying on doctors' listening and explaining skills. Preferences for a consultation style focused on an outcome or on the doctor-patient relationship may be independent of informational and/or affective consultation content. Respondents felt the important consultation elements were similar in different contexts, and so DISQ feedback would be useful in different settings. Benefits of feedback were identified in the form of patient empowerment and doctors' learning. Risks were identified in the inappropriate use of feedback, both inadvertent and deliberate.",
"yes. A multi-modal intervention to educate and subsequently change physician's behavior likely decreased the rate of ACS in the setting of a single teaching hospital.",
"yes. A didactic and simulator-based session is very well received by Family Medicine residents. It significantly improves description and diagnosis of murmurs and reduces unnecessary echocardiogram use without affecting appropriate use.",
"The style and content of consultations may be considered as separate dimensions, an approach that may help doctors adapt their communication appropriately to different consultations. Patient feedback focused on communication skills is appropriate, but there are potential risks.",
"Many studies have suggested that general practitioners fail to detect a substantial minority of their patients who are psychologically distressed, and there is concern about the possible sequelae of this. Individual patients may suffer unresolved problems, and there are potential costs to the health service in consequent recurrent consultations, inappropriate referrals or treatment. Educational interventions based on small groups led by facilitators have been shown to alter the consultation behaviours of general practitioners that are known to be related to accurate detection of psychological distress.AIM: This controlled study aimed to show that, by utilizing a brief self-directed educational intervention focusing on detection of psychological distress, general practitioners can improve their performance significantly. For this purpose, a new educational intervention was designed: the second aim of the study was thus to assess the effectiveness of this specific intervention. An educational intervention was designed which focused on skills relevant to detecting psychological distress, using the principles of reflection on general practitioner performance and consultation skill work. It was designed to be used by individual general practitioners without outside support, using a combination of written background material, feedback on performance and analysis of video material. The effectiveness of the intervention was tested by comparing a trial and control cohort of general practitioners, using detection rates as an outcome measure. The detection rate of the general practitioners who underwent the intervention improved significantly compared with their performance before intervention and with that of the control group.",
"The clinical electives of the Graduate Diploma in Family Medicine had the most significant impact on the clinical practices of full time GPs who were predominantly male graduates. Gender differences were apparent in styles of practice as males tended to conduct more procedural work, while female graduates preferred the gatekeeper role and referred more. The course also impacted on the students' approach to evidence in their clinical decision making. They were more critical of medical information provided by pharmaceutical representatives who are one of the major sources of CME for many GPs. Future evaluations should be based on experimental and quasi-experimental designs in order to measure changes in student perceptions and clinical practice, as well as more objective measures of learning styles.",
"yes. Basic education of nonophthalmologists in ophthalmic diagnostic and treatment concepts, through relatively brief educational interventions, was associated with a decrease in total consultation requests and more appropriate consultations in this pilot study at a single institution.",
"Physicians report changes in teaching behaviors because of concerns about malpractice litigation. Although concerns about malpractice may promote increased supervision and positive role modeling, they may also limit important educational opportunities for learners. These results may serve to heighten awareness to the fact that teaching behaviors and decisions may be influenced by the malpractice climate.",
"no. Physicians in our sample were rarely specific about their level of training and role in patient care when introducing themselves to patients. This lack of communication may contribute to patients' lack of knowledge regarding who is caring for them in a teaching hospital.",
"Interventions such as screening and GP education may be ineffective in improving primary mental health care unless accompanied by educational programmes for the general public to increase mental health literacy, de-stigmatise mental illness and increase awareness of general practice as an appropriate and effective source of health care.",
"In this pilot study, years of experience and direct patient contact hours had a significant and positive impact on the management of patients. This study also showed promising results indicating that management of the common side effects of colorectal cancer treatment can be delegated to general practice. Such an intervention could support the application of shared models of care. However, a larger study, including the management of side effects in real patients, needs to be conducted before this can be safely recommended.",
"The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).",
"The decision-making preferences of general practice patients tend to vary. However, there was a substantial mismatch between the stated preferences of patients for the role they wanted to have in decision-making and what they felt actually took place in their consultation. Therefore, it remains a challenge for doctors to match their consultation style to the decision-making preferences of individual patients.",
"yes. Our results indicate that a short community-based family practice elective early in medical education may positively influence medical students' considerations of a career in family practice. Furthermore, perceptions regarding the specialty with significant impact on its attractiveness may be positively adjusted. Further research is needed to evaluate the influence of different components of a family practice curriculum on the de facto career decisions of young physicians after graduation.",
"The traditional view of general practice holds that only general practitioners (GPs) in full-time clinical practice can provide quality patient care. Nevertheless, increasing numbers of GPs are choosing to work sessionally, that is, ostensibly \"part-time\". There are concerns about the health workforce's ability to meet demand and also fears that patient care may be compromised. We sought answers to a) what activities do GPs undertake when not consulting patients, b) why do they choose to work sessionally, and c) does sessional general practice reflect a lack of commitment to patients and the profession? Semi-structured interviews were conducted with GPs who worked sessionally, (i.e. six or fewer sessions a week in clinical general practice, where a session comprises four consecutive hours of patient care). These data were analysed qualitatively and saturation was reached. The majority of participants were in full-time paid employment, while part-time in clinical general practice. They reported that consultations increasingly required the management of patients with complex, chronic conditions who also required psychological management. Coupled with unrealistic patient expectations, these factors led GPs to be concerned about maintaining the quality patient care they considered professionally desirable. Many diversified their work activities to ensure that they retained their professional standards.",
"The quality of general practice consultations was not adversely affected by medical student presence. However, significant numbers of patients who agreed to be seen with a student present were resistant to the student's presence.",
"The doctor as a person and his working style is most important in achieving good consultations in general practice. Length of consultation is less influential.",
"To assess the variation within individual general practitioners facing the same problem twice in actual practice under unbiased conditions. General practitioners were consulted during normal surgery hours by a standardised patient portraying a patient with angina pectoris. Six weeks later the same general practitioners were consulted again by a similar standardised patient portraying a similar case. The patients reported on the consultations. Trondheim, Norway. Of 87 general practitioners invited by letter, 28 (32%) agreed to participate without hesitation; nine others (10%) wanted more information before consenting. From these 24 were selected and visited. Number of actions undertaken from a guideline in both rounds of consultations. Duration of consultations. The mean (range, interquartile range) guideline score, total score, and duration of consultation were not significantly different between the first and second patient encounters for the group as a whole. For individual doctors the mean (SD) difference was -0.09 (3.36) for the guideline score, 0.30 (8.1) for the total score, and -0.87 (9.01) for consultation time.",
"Community-based medical education is growing to meet the increased demand for quality clinical education in expanded settings, and its sustainability relies on patient participation. This study investigated patients' views on being used as an educational resource for teaching medical students. Questionnaire-based survey. Patients attending six rural and 11 regional general practices in New South Wales over 18 teaching sessions in November 2008, who consented to student involvement in their consultation. Patient perceptions, expectations and acceptance of medical student involvement in consultations, assessed by surveys before and after their consultations. 118 of 122 patients consented to medical student involvement; of these, 117 (99%) completed a survey before the consultation, and 100 (85%) after the consultation. Patients were overwhelmingly positive about their doctor and practice being involved in student teaching and felt they themselves played an important role. Pre-consultation, patients expressed reluctance to allow students to conduct some or all aspects of the consultation independently. However, after the consultation, they reported they would have accepted higher levels of involvement than actually occurred.",
"yes. Ongoing evaluation of classroom lectures by resident psychiatrists may provide valuable feedback to instructors and impact the quality of medical education. The \"classic\" role of the teacher organization and enthusiasm are the most important components of quality education.",
"no. The present study did not reveal a difference in patient satisfaction if a patient sees an attending physician alone or with a trainee. Moreover, to improve patient satisfaction in a gastroenterology clinic, physicians should address all patient concerns, provide a preliminary diagnosis and appear to be thorough in their assessment. Further work to increase patient awareness on the role of residents in teaching hospitals is warranted to further promote careers in gastroenterology.",
"General Practitioners who completed an audit cycle showed changes in the management of acute asthma attacks in line with guidelines which may have been caused by participation in distance learning and clinical audit. However, general practitioners motivated to change clinical management may be similarly motivated to take part in audit. Audit may be the catalyst for change rather than the cause of change.",
"Previous studies have suggested that the patient's experience of a consultation with a doctor is not affected by the presence of medical students. However, no study has looked at the effect of student presence on conventional UK general practice consultations. This study aimed to measure the quality of the consultation as experienced by patients when students are present, to explore patients' attitudes to the presence of medical students, and to look at the relationships between these factors. We conducted a cross-sectional questionnaire study in general practices in north-east England. General practitioners (GPs) from practices teaching fourth and final year students administered questionnaires to patients who were seen in either teaching or non-teaching consultations. The questionnaire comprised previously validated measures of empathy and enablement as measures of quality, attitudinal statements regarding the presence of students, a scale rating pertaining to the patient's degree of acquaintance with the doctor, and items on demographic data. Results showed no significant differences in enablement scores between the 2 groups. Consultations with student presence last longer. Empathy scores were significantly lower in the 'student present' group, but the size of the difference was small. Attitudinal statements regarding the presence of students showed a high proportion of positive responses, and some groupings of negative ones. Further analysis demonstrated some significant links between attitudinal statements and enablement and empathy scores.",
"To examine whether the discussion of illness representations and action plans during medical encounters affects the way patients and general practitioners (GPs) communicate. In a quasi-experimental design, 10 GPs first performed care-as-usual conversations with patients. After a 6 h training they performed consultations either emphasizing patients' illness representations or action plans. Data were collected from 70 videotaped consultations with hypertensive patients, which were analyzed using the Roter Interaction Analysis System. Compared with care-as-usual consultations, communication in the action plan condition resulted in an increased discussion of lifestyle issues whereas communication in the illness representation condition resulted in more discussion of patient concerns. In both experimental conditions the proportion of affective GP utterances was higher while patients contributed more to the conversation. When GPs changed their communication style, patients did accordingly.",
"no. Delivering an effective behaviour change intervention in primary care requires adequate training and support for practice nurses both initially and throughout the trial as well as adequate consultation time. Enhanced skills from participating in such trials can lead to long-term changes, including more patient-centred consulting.",
"Physicians identify teaching as a factor that enhances performance, although existing data to support this relationship is limited. To determine whether there were differences in clinical performance scores as assessed through multisource feedback (MSF) data based on clinical teaching. MSF data for 1831 family physicians, 1510 medical specialists, and 542 surgeons were collected from physicians' medical colleagues, co-workers (e.g., nurses and pharmacists), and patients and examined in relation to information about physician teaching activities including percentage of time spent teaching during patient care and academic appointment. Multivariate analysis of variance, partial eta squared effect sizes, and Tukey's HSD post hoc comparisons were used to determine between group differences in total MSF mean and subscale mean performance scores by teaching and academic appointment data. Higher clinical performance scores were associated with holding any academic appointment and generally with any time teaching versus no teaching during patient care. This was most evident for data from medical colleagues, where these differences existed across all specialty groups.",
"Practicing complete consultations results in the dilemma of prioritizing medical problem solving above attention for patient communication. Integrated consultation training advances this dilemma to the pre-clerkship period. During clerkships this dilemma is heightened because real patients trigger empathy and responsibility, which invites students to define their role as doctor.",
"Previous research has identified a loss of patient focus when a patient sees doctors en masse. The results from the present study suggest that the presence of additional medical personnel can distract the focus of a consultation away from the patient, particularly when the additional participants are professionals rather than students. Further research is required to develop a greater understanding of multiple-doctor-patient interactions. A training programme should be developed to train consulting doctors at teaching hospitals to manage these multiple-doctor-patient consultations more effectively.",
"This study examines the impact on students of a brief general practice clerkship, during a curriculum that is otherwise almost entirely hospital-based and in a practice environment that often does not encourage good primary care. 15 focus group discussions were held with a total of 110 students, as part of an action research project. Student responses were audiotaped, transcribed and then analysed for recurrent themes. General Practice Unit, University of Hong Kong. Medical students There was evidence of pre-existing negative stereotypes of general practice, but in many cases these were dispelled by the relationships students developed during their attachment to general practitioners in the community. In an overcrowded curriculum, students ration their time and energy, focusing their learning pragmatically on subjects that have a high profile during examinations.",
"To evaluate the impact on clinical behavior of a 3-day workshop designed to increase trainees' rates of smoking cessation counseling and reminders about Pap smears in routine consultations. Randomized control trial. Accredited teaching practices of the Royal Australian College of General Practitioners' Training Program. Thirty-four trainees and 1,500 consecutive adult patients ages 16-65 years. Trainees randomly allocated to the experimental group participated in a 3-day interactive workshop on disease prevention during their 13-week family medicine term. Audiotapes of consultations with adults conducted by trainees at the beginning and end of the rotation were analyzed blind to compare assessment of patients' smoking status and, for women, date of last Pap smear. A questionnaire mailed to each patient after the consultation also allowed identification of smokers and women overdue for a smear. Consultations with these patients at risk were analyzed for preventive counseling. Inter- and intrarater reliability was calculated for audiotape analysis. Preworkshop rates of questions about smoking were low, occurring in 22% of consultations. While trainees allocated to the experimental workshop were more likely to ask a routine question about smoking at the end of the term than those in the control group (P = 0.01), two-thirds of smokers remained undetected irrespective of trainee group and fewer than one in five were advised to stop smoking. Reminders about Pap smears did not change as a result of training and remained low in fewer than 20% of consultations. kappa values demonstrated high reliability of audiotape analysis.",
"yes. The provision of more frequent healthcare centre face-to-face consultations, including general practitioner consultations, is associated with an increased burden of acute medical evacuations and remote telephone consultation services in this remote setting.",
"Little is known about the contribution nurses make to medical student learning. This study set out to explore the nature of practice nurse teaching during the general practice clerkship and to investigate ways in which the teacher and learner (the practice nurse and the medical student) can be best supported to maximise learning. Mixed focus groups were conducted with general practitioner educational supervisors and practice nurses. Further focus groups were conducted with students on completion of clerkships. There is wide variation in the delivery, organisation and expectations of practice nurse teaching. Although there is some evidence of a passive learning experience, the learning dynamic and the student-nurse relationship are regarded highly.",
"Our data show some evidence that interactive CME sessions that enhance participant activity and provide the opportunity to practice skills can effect change in professional practice and, on occasion, health care outcomes. Based on a small number of well-conducted trials, didactic sessions do not appear to be effective in changing physician performance.",
"yes. The results suggest that the instrument is useful only when applied to practitioners who have been taught how to consult in a patientcentred manner, and have led to the introduction of training in consultation skills for pharmacists throughout Scotland. Potential reliability in providing peer feedback for GP consultations is important in the context of the provision of consistent, meaningful evidence for GP appraisal and revalidation in the UK.",
"Otolaryngology patients evaluated in the teaching setting report lower patient satisfaction overall, primarily related to access to care and visit-specific processes; however, they are more likely to display loyalty and recommend their practice and care provider. The teaching setting does not influence care provider satisfaction scores. Because practice loyalty is most closely correlated to provider-specific behaviors, otolaryngologists may consider enhancement of provider-patient communication to improve patient satisfaction regardless of the practice setting. Academic otolaryngology practices should consider focusing on access systems and process improvement to enhance the overall patient experience.",
"no. General practice consultations are often more important for patients than generally supposed. Understanding is the most basic concept.",
"yes. The reasons underpinning each individual decision to consult were complex. The control that GPs were perceived to have over the pattern of consulting, for example concerning prescribing, review visits, and in addressing further help-seeking behaviour, may provide more possibilities for developing intervention strategies than targeting frequent attenders themselves. An understanding of the processes behind the consulting behaviour of frequent attenders may lead to more functional consultations and better clinical care as a result.",
"To determine the impact of the presence of a medical student on the satisfaction and process of the general practice consultation from the perspective of the general practitioner (GP), patient and student. An observational study was conducted in regional general practices accepting third-year medical students. General practitioners, patients and medical students were asked to complete a questionnaire after each consultation. The main outcome measures were: patient satisfaction; GPs' perceived ability to deliver care; medical students' satisfaction with their learning experience; length of consultation; and patient waiting times. Of the 26 GP practices approached, 11 participated in the study (42.3%). Patients returned 477 questionnaires: 252 consultations with and 225 without a student present. Thirteen GPs completed 473 questionnaires: 248 consultations with and 225 without a student. Twelve students attended 255 consultations. Most patients (83.5%) were comfortable with the presence of a student. There were no significant differences between consultations with and without a student regarding the time the patients spent in the waiting room (p = 0.6), the patients' perspectives of how the GPs dealt with their presenting problems (100% versus 99.2%; p = 0.6) and overall satisfaction with the consultation (99.2% versus 99.1%; p = 0.5). Despite these reassuring findings, a significantly higher proportion of patients in consultations without students raised sensitive or personal issues (26.3% versus 12.6%; p<0.001). There were no statistically significant differences in the lengths of consultations with and without students (81% versus 77% for 6-20 minutes consultation; p = 0.1) or in the GPs' perceptions of how they effectively managed the presenting problem (95.1% versus 96.0%; p = 0.4). Students found that the majority (83.9%) of the 255 consultations were satisfactory for learning.",
"Doctors report pressure from peers to reduce prescribing of antibiotics for minor respiratory illnesses, and from patients to do the opposite. It has been suggested that doctors adopt a more patient-centred consulting style in order to encourage patient satisfaction and shared decision-making. No evidence exists that such changes are achievable. We developed a new, on-site method for training postgraduates and used this for teaching patient-centred intervention. Here, we examine whether this training method is associated with changes in consulting patterns in consultations for sore throat with children, among doctors from a single group practice. Audiotaped consultations (simulated and real) conducted before and after training were analysed and interviews were carried out with participants about the impact of training. A general practice in South Wales. Four general practitioners who consulted with 25 real and simulated patients participated in the study. Four patient-centred skills used by doctors and 2 patient behaviours measured before and after training were identified. Three out of 4 practitioners produced clear evidence of changes in patient-centred consulting skills. These changes were evident in simulated and real consultations 2 and 4 weeks later, respectively. Prior to training the doctors produced only five examples of patient-centred skills in 10 consultations. After training they produced 39 examples in 15 consultations.",
"The presence of a medical student during the GP consultation was satisfactory for all participant groups. These findings support the ongoing and increased placement of medical students in regional general practice. Medical educators and GPs must recognise that patients may not raise personal issues with a student present.",
"General practice differs from hospital medicine in the personal nature of the doctor-patient relationship and in the need to address social and psychological issues as well as physical problems. Recent changes in undergraduate medical education have resulted in more teaching and learning taking place in general practitioner (GP) surgeries.AIM: To explore patients' experiences of attending a surgery with a medical student present. A questionnaire was designed, based on semi-structured interviews. Questionnaires were posted to patients who had attended teaching surgeries in London and Newcastle-upon-Tyne. Four hundred and eighty questionnaires were sent; of these, 335 suitable for analysis were returned. The response rate in Newcastle was 79%, and in London 60%. Ninety-five per cent of responders agreed that patients have an important role in teaching medical students. Patients reported learning more and having more time to talk, however, up to 10% of responders left the consultation without saying what they wanted to say and 30% found it more difficult to talk about personal matters.",
"The presence of a student has a complex effect on the general practice consultation. Future developments in medical education need to be evaluated in terms of how patient care is affected as well as meeting educational aims."
] | 785 |
Are postal questionnaire surveys of reported activity valid? | [
"Postal questionnaire surveys are commonly used in general practice and often ask about self-reported activity. The validity of this approach is unknown.AIM: To explore the criterion validity of questions asking about self-reported activity in a self-completion questionnaire. A comparison was made between (a) the self-reported actions of all general practitioner (GP) principals in 51 general practices randomly selected within the nine family health services authorities of the former northern regional health authority, and (b) the contents of the medical records (case notes and computerized records) of patients classified as hypertensive from a 1 in 7 random sample of all patients registered in these practices and aged between 65 and 80. Data were gathered from the GPs by self-completion postal questionnaires. Six comparisons were made for two groups of items: first, target and achieved blood pressure; secondly, patient's weight, smoking status, alcohol consumption, exercise and salt intake. The frequency with which the data items were recorded in patient records was compared with the GPs' self-reported frequency of performing the actions. No relationship was found between achieved blood pressure and stated target levels. For each of the other actions, more than half of the responders reported that they usually or always performed the activity. For four of these (smoking, weight, alcohol and exercise), a significant association was noted, but the size of this varied considerably.",
"There is a variable relationship between what responders report that they do in self-completion questionnaires, and what they actually do as judged by the contents of their patients' medical records. In the absence of prior, knowledge of the validity of questions on reported activity, or of concurrent attempts to establish their validity, the questions should not be asked."
] | [
"Trait response propensity seems to be a valid construct. The weight of evidence does not provide an indication of non-response bias (yet neither does it assure freedom from non-response bias). The prior staff survey may have been affected by non-response bias.",
"To assess whether length of questionnaire affects response rates. A quasi-randomised trial of women aged 70 years and over in a general practice in England. Three questionnaires of different lengths: a clinical questionnaire (four pages); the same questionnaire plus the EuroQol (five pages); the same questionnaire plus the SF-12 (seven pages). The impact of length on the proportion of returned questionnaires and item completion rates was assessed. In total, 847 questionnaires were mailed; response rates were 49%, 49% and 40% to the short, medium and long questionnaires, respectively. This difference was statistically significant when the short questionnaire was compared against the longest instrument (9% difference; 95% confidence interval (CI) of difference = 0.3% to 16.6%). Item completion rates for the clinical questionnaire did not differ. Respondents did not differ in age or self-reported health status between the three groups.",
"yes. The questions validated detected eczema effectively, making this tool suitable for use e.g. in multicentre epidemiological studies or clinical trials.",
"The VAS, TTO, and to some extent, the HUI2, when compared with the SF-36 health survey, are valid and reliable measures to assess health related quality of life in a group of patients with SLE and may be useful for future research in this population. On the basis of these results the usefulness of the SG is questionable in these patients.",
"yes. Manual and electronic probes were of similar reliability when used to measure CAL in individuals who had untreated periodontitis and when used by a calibrated examiner, but this finding is not supported by strong evidence.",
"yes. The development and validation process of the majority of the self-efficacy instruments had major limitations. The aim of the instruments was often not specified and for most instruments, not all measurement properties that are important to support the specific aim of the instrument (for example responsiveness for evaluative instruments) were assessed. Researchers who develop and validate self-efficacy instruments should adhere more closely to important methodological concepts for development and validation of patient-reported outcomes and report their methods more transparently. We propose a systematic five step approach for the development and validation of self-efficacy instruments.",
"yes. Self-report was a valid measure of circumcision status in this group of predominantly Anglo gay-community-attached men. We believe our findings can be generalised to similarly aged gay-community-attached men in other developed countries.",
"Primary care has long been of interest to policy research. Recently, there is evidence to suggest that it is becoming more difficult to encourage GPs (general practitioners) to participate in surveys. As low response rates can introduce bias into survey results, it is important to study the effects of non-response.AIM: To assess the validity of a response rate of 44% obtained in a national postal study of GPs surveyed about their work with alcohol-misusing patients by assessing the extent of any non-response bias. A telephone survey of 148 GPs who had not responded to repeated mailings of a postal questionnaire was undertaken. In addition to personal and practice structure characteristics, the GPs were asked three questions taken from the original questionnaire about their work with alcohol-misusing patients. Of the 148 GPs telephoned, 64 responded to the telephone questionnaire in full; all had previously failed to respond to the postal questionnaire. Younger GPs were more likely to respond to both the national postal and telephone surveys, but more so to the latter. Telephone responders were more likely to be GPs in a single-handed practice. The work of GPs with alcohol-misusing patients highlighted differences between the two response groups. Male telephone responders were found to be identifying a significantly higher average of alcohol misusers than male postal responders. Telephone responders were more likely to feel trained in treating alcohol misuse and to feel better supported to deal with this patient group.",
"The observed associations between the IPAQ-sf data and the data obtained from the accelerometer (gold standard) and the diaries were too low to be in support of the use of the IPAQ-sf in patients with CFS. The IPAQ-sf does not seem an appropriate tool to assess physical activity in CFS patients. Further study is required to seek for a valid, practical and affordable tool.",
"To establish the content validity and specific aspects of reliability for an assessment instrument designed to provide formative feedback to general practitioners (GPs) on the quality of their written analysis of a significant event. Content validity was quantified by application of a content validity index. Reliability testing involved a nested design, with 5 cells, each containing 4 assessors, rating 20 unique significant event analysis (SEA) reports (10 each from experienced GPs and GPs in training) using the assessment instrument. The variance attributable to each identified variable in the study was established by analysis of variance. Generalisability theory was then used to investigate the instrument's ability to discriminate among SEA reports. Content validity was demonstrated with at least 8 of 10 experts endorsing all 10 items of the assessment instrument. The overall G coefficient for the instrument was moderate to good (G>0.70), indicating that the instrument can provide consistent information on the standard achieved by the SEA report. There was moderate inter-rater reliability (G>0.60) when four raters were used to judge the quality of the SEA.",
"yes. The study revealed that the P-method WSWQ had better reliability, validity, and ease of answering than the T-method, suggesting that the P-method can improve properties of the WSWQ and consequently advance the quality of epidemiological surveys in this field.",
"These findings suggest that the use of a single suicide item or a dimensional factor derived from a depression scale might be a valid approach to assess the suicidal ideations. Moreover, the results suggest that clinician rated scales as well as self-report questionnaires are equally valid to do so.",
"Unannounced pill counts conducted in patients' homes is a valid objective method for monitoring medication adherence that is unfortunately costly and often impractical. Conducting unannounced pill counts by telephone may be a viable alternative for objectively assessing medication adherence. To test an unannounced pill count assessment of adherence conducted by telephone. HIV-positive men and women (N = 77) in Atlanta GA completed an unannounced telephone-based pill count immediately followed by a pill count conducted in an unannounced home visit. A high degree of concordance was observed between phone and home-based number of pills counted (Intraclass correlation, ICC = .997, 95% CI .995-.998, P < .001) and percent of pills taken (ICC = .990, 95% CI .986-.992, P < .001). Concordance between adherence above/below 90% and phone/home counts was 95%, Kappa coefficient = .995. Concordance between pill counts was not influenced by participant education or health literacy and was maintained when the data were censored to remove higher levels of adherence. Analyses of discordant pill counts found the most common source of error resulted from overcounted doses in pillboxes on the telephone.",
"Simple measures of self-reported vigorous physical activity are associated with the risk of future mortality, at least all-cause mortality in a somewhat selected group. Interpretation of the finding should be treated with caution due to the reliance on self-report and the possibility that residual confounding may underlie the associations. Because moderate-intensity physical activity is also beneficial to health, short physical activity questionnaires should include measures of such physical activity in the future.",
"To determine whether it is possible to contact authors of previously published papers via email. A cross sectional study of the Emergency Medicine Journal for 2001. 118 articles were included in the study. The response rate from those with valid email addresses was 73%. There was no statistical difference between the type of email address used and the address being invalid (p=0.392) or between the type of article and the likelihood of a reply (p=0.197). More responses were obtained from work addresses when compared with Hotmail addresses (86% v 57%, p=0.02).",
"To determine which mode of completing a survey yields the highest response rate among emergency medical services (EMS) providers, examine rural and urban differences, and determine the completeness of questions by mode of response. A random sample of EMS providers was mailed one of the following: 1) a paper survey, with instructions to return it via the enclosed self-addressed, stamped envelope; 2) a letter, with instructions to complete the survey at the provided URL (Web address); or 3) a paper survey with a self-addressed, stamped envelope and a URL, with the option of choosing the mode of response. We compared response rates based on the three different modes. We conducted analysis of the number of skipped multiple-choice and open-ended questions by mode and content analysis of the open-ended questions. The paper-only option resulted in the highest response rate (40.4%, p = 0.003) compared with the response rates from Web-only and choice of mode. Overall, rural EMS providers responded at a higher rate than urban EMS providers (40.3% vs. 31.6%, respectively [p = 0.0002]). Web respondents were more likely to complete all the open-ended questions (p = 0.003). Almost a fourth (22.8%) of the paper respondents skipped multiple-choice questions. There was a pattern of more complete responses for open-ended questions among the Web-based participants, but this was not significant (p = 0.17).",
"yes. Patient-reported performance status as measured by PCM v2.0 is at least as reliable as KPS or ECOG. The enhanced resolution provided by this patient-reported method allows for the detection of clinically meaningful changes in trajectory over time, potentially serving as an early-warning system to trigger clinical interventions. Further study is needed to test these findings on a larger scale.",
"yes. Unannounced telephone pill counts appear to be a reliable and practical method for measuring adherence to smoking cessation pharmacotherapy.",
"To evaluate the criterion validity and internal consistency of the International Physical Activity Questionnaire-short form (IPAQ-sf) in Chronic Fatigue Syndrome (CFS) patients. Fifty-six CFS patients completed the IPAQ-sf after they wore a tri-axial accelerometer and filled out activity diaries during 1 week. Spearman rank correlation coefficients and Cronbach's Alpha were calculated. The IPAQ-sf correlated significantly with the energy expenditure and Metabolic Equivalents (METs) minutes spent moderately to vigorously active following the activity diary and accelerometer. These correlation coefficients were however low (r varying between 0.282 and 0.426) and rather irrelevant, since CFS patients hardly reach moderate or vigorous activity levels. Internal consistency between the three subitems used for the total score of the IPAQ-sf was 0.337.",
"yes. Classification obtained from administrative registers has high specificity and can be used in follow-up studies with HF as an end point. Sensitivity is modest and administrative data should be used with caution for surveillance.",
"yes. The questionnaire developed has demonstrable face and content validity and acceptability. Unmet needs are prevalent among parents and carers of AYA cancer survivors, suggesting the need for further psychometric testing of the measure.",
"Non-response bias in surveys occurs when non-respondents differ from respondents. Methods of dealing with this include measuring 'response propensity'. We propose that response propensity has a trait-like component, measurable within the survey. Covariance of this component with survey items could indicate non-response bias. To measure and validate trait-like response propensity, to test whether it co-varied with survey items during a routine stress audit and to test whether a prior staff attitude survey may have been biased. Stress survey sent to government employees during a routine audit. We designed two new items to measure trait-like response propensity and completion of a prior staff survey. We calculated an odds ratio, correlations and Mann-Whitney U-tests to assess relationships between trait response propensity, completion of the prior staff survey and current stress survey scores. There were 71 respondents; response rate 68%. The trait response propensity item predicted completion of a prior staff survey (odds ratio 8.75, 95% confidence interval 2.32-33.08). Trait response propensity significantly correlated with two of the 40 survey items and did not significantly correlate with any of the eight 'stressor' sub-scales. Non-respondents to the prior staff survey had a significantly lower risk of stress on two of the eight stressor scales.",
"Our test cover letter to surgeons in our survey resulted in a significantly higher primary response rate than a standard cover letter when the survey was sent by mail. Researchers should consider using a more personalized cover letter with a postal survey to increase response rates.",
"yes. This study suggested that the Australian Pelvic Floor Questionnaire may be a valid measurement tool for use in colorectal cancer populations in clinical trials and practice. Future research using larger cohorts is warranted.",
"yes. Whenever possible, investigators using administrative data should perform macro-level descriptive analyses on the parent data set. In particular, researchers should examine the number of medical and pharmacy claims over time, looking for gaps. Validity of markers of hospitalization should be assessed. The accuracy of diagnosis and demographic data should be examined. Such a descriptive macro-level approach should be used to supplement, and perhaps precede validation of study outcomes using clinical records.",
"It is unclear whether questionnaires and diary cards, which are widely used to collect data on bowel habits, provide analogous information. We verified the concordance between the data provided by a daily diary and a retrospective questionnaire. A 4-week diary (DIARY) concerning bowel habits was compiled by 221 subjects. They were also asked to fill out a questionnaire on their bowel habits before (BEF) and after (AFT) the diary period. Concerning bowel movements, no significant difference was detected in the concordance between BEF and DIARY (rho: 0.80), AFT and DIARY (rho: 0.84), or BEF and AFT (rho: 0.84). The mean concordance in the other defecation-related parameters between BEF and DIARY (K: 0.62) and between DIARY and AFT (K: 0.63) were both significantly lower than that seen between BEF and AFT (K: 0.80; p<0.01).",
"Telephone and in-person assessments by means of the PHQ-9 yield similar results. Thus, telephone administration of the PHQ-9 seems to be a reliable procedure for assessing depression in PC.",
"yes. Baseline electronic CVC-day counts had a high error rate. Stepwise interventions reduced errors to consistently low levels. Validation of electronic calculation of CVC-days is essential to ensure accuracy, particularly if these data will be used for interinstitutional comparison.",
"Questionnaires are commonly used as a proxy measure of clinical practice; however their application in a variety of healthcare settings has found significant self-reporting bias. The aim of this study is to estimate the validity of self-reporting as a measure of optometrist case-finding practice for glaucoma and the appropriate referral of suspects. Two complementary approaches were used: (1) a sample of optometrists (N=34) on an ophthalmic list in West London were visited incognito by Standardised Patient (SP) volunteers aged over 54 who were trained to identify the components of a standard Sight Test. Optometrists from the same list were then invited to participate in a structured face-to-face interview regarding their case finding practice for glaucoma. The findings from the two sources were compared. (2) as part of a national glaucoma survey of optometrists, respondents (N=1264) were asked in a free text question for the information that they would include in a referral letter for suspect glaucoma. The responses were compared to the content of a sample of glaucoma referral letters (N=571) obtained from consultant ophthalmologists across the UK. In each case, the degree of correspondence ('match') between reported practice and actual practice was assessed by chi-square analysis. For the SP study there was incomplete correspondence between the questionnaire and SP reports in several areas e.g. questions relating to a complete history and symptoms, measurement of intra-ocular pressure and visual fields. Complete correspondence was found for questions asking about the routine assessment of ocular health and refraction. For the referral study, correspondence between survey findings and referral letters was obtained for IOP only. No correspondence was found for disc assessment, visual fields or family history of glaucoma.",
"Self-reported frequency of doctor's visits using telephone interviews may be a reasonable substitute for administratively recorded data however, medication use by self-report appears to be unreliable. Administrative records are preferable to self-report for health service use in colorectal cancer survivors with high and complex service needs.",
"yes. This study provides the first steps towards validating an instrument that can provide educational feedback to GPs on their analysis of significant events. The key area identified to improve instrument reliability is variation among peer assessors in their assessment of SEA reports. Further validity and reliability testing should be carried out to provide GPs, their appraisers and contractual bodies with a validated feedback instrument on this aspect of the general practice quality agenda.",
"yes. The validity of the PG-SGA SF in chemotherapy outpatients was confirmed. The present study however demonstrated that the functional capacity question (box 4) does not improve the overall discriminatory value of the PG-SGA SF.",
"We investigated the validity of self-reported admission data compared to administrative records in a clinical trial. In the randomized KORINNA study (ISRCTN02893746), hospital admission data were collected in telephone interviews with 273 elderly patients quarterly over a 1-year period and thereafter annually over a 2-year period. Data were compared with administrative records and discharge letters. Mixed models were used to investigate if recall period and individual characteristics influence validity. Specificity (>99%) and sensitivity (94%) of self-reported data did not differ for different recall periods (3 months vs. 12 months). The differences between self-reported and registered inpatient days were not statistically significant. Having regard to all the admissions within the time period of last interview and dropping out, the bias was up to 40% underestimation. The chance of disagreement was significantly smaller [odds ratio (OR) of misremember an admission = 0.596, P = 0.049, confidence interval (CI) = 0.355 to 1.00; OR of misremember length of stay = 0.521, P = 0.002, CI = 0.344 to 0.789] for 3-month periods, but this was primarily driven by number of admissions within the recall period. Individuals with better health and longer stays had a significantly smaller chance of disagreement.",
"The pilot study was successful in taking the first steps to developing a validated survey questionnaire for a key staff group, foundation year doctors, in a priority area. However, the findings raise concerns about trainee experience of and attitudes to reporting, and the frequency with which incidents go unreported.",
"It is unclear whether it is possible to accurately estimate physical activity energy expenditure (PAEE) by self-report in youth. We assessed the validity and reliability of 4 self-reports to assess PAEE and time spent at moderate and vigorous intensity physical activity (MVPA) over the previous week in British young people between 4 and 17 y of age. PAEE and MVPA were derived from the Children's Physical Activity Questionnaire, Youth Physical Activity Questionnaire, and Swedish Adolescent Physical Activity Questionnaire; a lifestyle score indicative of habitual activity was derived from the Child Heart and Health Study in England Questionnaire. These data were compared with criterion methods, PAEE, and MVPA derived from simultaneous measurements by doubly labeled water and accelerometry in 3 age groups: 4-5 y (n = 27), 12-13 y (n = 25), and 16-17 y (n = 24). Validity was assessed by using Spearman correlations and the Bland-Altman method, and reliability was assessed by using intraclass correlation coefficients. The strength of association between questionnaire and criterion methods varied (r = 0.09 to r = 0.46). Some questionnaires were able to accurately assess group-level PAEE and MVPA for some age groups, but the error was large for individual-level estimates throughout. Reliability of the Youth Physical Activity Questionnaire and Child Heart and Health Study in England Questionnaire was good (intraclass correlation coefficient: 0.64-0.92).",
"no. A considerable discrepancy between the two methods of assessment was found. The higher concordance between BEF and AFT than between DIARY and AFT regarding defecation-related parameters suggests that when a subject recalls events, even those from the recent past, he/she tends to generalize, reporting more or less the same data for different periods of time. These two instruments cannot be viewed as interchangeable, and their inherent differences must be taken into account when deciding which one to employ in different settings.",
"Accuracy and reliability of diary data collected in allergic rhinitis trials depends on how and when the information is recorded by the subjects. To compare diary data collected by using paper (optical mark readable) and electronic [telephone, interactive voice response system (IVRS)] tools. There was a randomized, 3-week, 3-way, crossover trial, in 87 adults with allergic rhinitis recording diary data at home. Outcome measures were (1) comparison of symptom data during weeks when both or only 1 instrument was used; (2) missing data: and (3) ease of use and participant preference. More than 40,000 symptom data elements were recorded by 72 protocol-correct subjects. Symptoms recorded during the week that both instruments were used and when the 2 instruments were used alone were indistinguishable. Overall, 0.45% of paper and 4.12% of IVRS symptom data were missing. Of 10,080 paired data collected on paper and IVRS diaries during the week in which subjects used both, 94.44% were identical. Using IVRS, 63.2% of protocol-correct data were entered within the designated time and 87.6% within 1 half-day of the time specified; 85% of subjects preferred the paper instrument, 4% preferred IVRS, and 11% had no preference.",
"To examine the consistency of survey estimates of patient satisfaction with interpersonal aspects of hospital experience. Interview and postal surveys, evidence from three independent population surveys being compared. Scotland and Lothian. Randomly selected members of the general adult population who had received hospital care in the past 12 months. Percentages of respondents dissatisfied with aspects of patient care. For items covering respect for privacy, treatment with dignity, sensitivity to feelings, treatment as an individual, and clear explanation of care there was good agreement among the surveys despite differences in wording. But for items to do with being encouraged and given time to ask questions and being listened to by doctors there was substantial disagreement.",
"Discrepancies between self-reported and objectively measured physical activity are well-known. For the purpose of validation, this study compares a new self-reported physical activity questionnaire with an existing one and with accelerometer data. Data collected at one site of the Canadian Health Measures Survey in 2013 were used for this validation study. The International Physical Activity Questionnaire (IPAQ) was administered to respondents during the household interview, and the new Physical Activity for Adults Questionnaire (PAAQ) was administered during a subsequent visit to a mobile examination centre (MEC). At the MEC, respondents were given an accelerometer to wear for seven days. The analysis pertains to 112 respondents aged 18 to 79 who wore the accelerometer for 10 or more hours on at least four days. Moderate-to-vigorous physical activity (MVPA) measured by accelerometer had higher correlation with data from the PAAQ (r = 0.44) than with data from the IPAQ (r = 0.20). The differences between accelerometer and PAAQ data were greater based on accelerometer-measured physical activity accumulated in 10-minute bouts (30-minute difference in MVPA) than on all minutes (9-minute difference). The percentages of respondents meeting the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines were 90% based on self-reported IPAQ minutes, 70% based on all accelerometer MVPA minutes, 29% based on accelerometer MVPA minutes accumulated in 10-minute bouts, and 61% based on self-reported PAAQ minutes.",
"Does asking for the percentage of time spent sitting during work (P-method) instead of asking for the absolute length of time spent sitting (T-method) improve properties of the workers' sitting- and walking-time questionnaire (WSWQ)? The purpose of this study was to investigate whether questioning technique influences test-retest reliability and criterion validity of the WSWQ. Sixty-five Japanese workers completed each version of the WSWQ in random order. Both questionnaires assessed quantities of time spent sitting or walking (including standing) during work time, non-working time on a workday, and anytime on a non-workday. Participants wore the thigh-worn inclinometer (activPAL) as criterion measure. Intraclass correlation coefficients (ICC) and Spearman's ρ were used for the analyses. For all three domains, values of reliability and validity with the P-method tended to be higher than with the T-method: ICC values ranged from 0.48-0.85 for the T-method and from 0.71-0.85 for the P-method; Spearman's ρ values ranged from 0.25-0.58 for the T-method and from 0.42-0.65 for the P-method. The validities with both methods on a workday (0.51-0.58 for the T-method and 0.56-0.65 for the P-method) were higher than validities on a non-workday (0.25-0.45 for the T-method and 0.42-0.60 for the P-method). In post-survey interviews, 48 participants (77%) chose the P-method as their preferred questioning style.",
"The adherence questionnaire administered by the health care provider to the infants' caregivers is not reliable for detecting virological failure in routine practice: its positive predictive value is low. However, the cumulative missed dose measurement may be a reliable predictor of virological success, particularly after 12 months of cART, given its high negative predictive value.",
"Based on our findings we must caution occupational health and safety professionals about the use of employee self-report data to estimate workplace physical activity. While the survey produced accurate measurements for time spent sitting at work it was more difficult for employees to estimate their workplace physical activity.",
"General Practitioners (GPs) respond poorly to postal surveys. Consequently there is potential for reduced data quality and bias in the findings. In general population surveys, response to postal questionnaires may be improved by reducing their length and offering incentives. The aim of this study was to investigate whether questionnaire length and/or the offer of an incentive improves the response of GPs to a postal questionnaire survey. A postal questionnaire survey was sent to 800 UK GPs randomly selected from Binley's database; a database containing contact details of professionals working in UK general practices. The random sample of GPs was assigned to one of four groups of 200, each receiving a different questionnaire, either a standard (eight sides of A4) or an abbreviated (four sides of A4) questionnaire, with or without the offer of an incentive (a prize draw entry for a £100 voucher) for completion. The effects of questionnaire length and offer of incentive on response were calculated. Of 800 mailed questionnaires, 19 GPs did not meet inclusion criteria and 172 (adjusted response 22.0%) completed questionnaires were received. Among the four groups, response ranged from 20.1% (standard questionnaire with no incentive and abbreviated questionnaire with incentive) through 21.8% (standard questionnaire with incentive), to 26.0% (abbreviated questionnaire with no incentive). There were no significant differences in response between the four groups (p = 0.447), between the groups receiving the standard versus the abbreviated questionnaire (% difference -2.1% (95% confidence interval (CI) -7.9, 3.7)) or the groups offered an incentive versus no incentive (% difference -2.1% (95% CI -7.9, 3.7).",
"yes. Ambiently assessed, passive performance measures embedded within an online questionnaire are able to discriminate between normal cognition and MCI. Remote monitoring of cognitively demanding routine daily activities is a promising approach for ecologically valid real-world cognitive assessment.",
"Questionnaires are commonly sent to accident and emergency (A&E) departments to determine common practice and are often extrapolated to best practice. To determine if questionnaire based studies have a defined population of A&E departments and whether studies are reproducible. All questionnaires in the Journal of Accident and Emergency Medicine were reviewed and assessed for inclusion criteria, departments studied and study design. 30 questionnaires were detected, 22 were postal, six telephone and two did not state method of contact. Sample sizes ranged from 15 to 740 and inclusion of A&E departments was highly variable according to geographical area, size of department or consultant status. Seventeen (54.8%) did not state the source of A&E department listings. Response rates ranged from 55-100%. Only three studies undertook subset analysis according to either size or locality.",
"yes. The wide variations observed in CHE and OOP payment estimates resulted from methodological differences. Survey methods used to assess CHE in India need to be standardized and validated to accurately track CHE and assess the impact of recent policies to reduce it.",
"yes. General practice registers can provide a suitable sampling frame for epidemiological purposes. Inaccuracies in the register can be reduced to some extent by careful inspection, but an irreducible minimum remain. Information held in general practice records can be useful in assessing response bias in health surveys.",
"These results indicate that the outdoor 6MWT using a GPS or measuring wheel is reproducible, responsive and concurrently valid. This suggests that therapists working in the community can use the outdoor 6MWT as a reliable, responsive and valid test.",
"The 'single-item measure' was developed as a short self-report tool for assessing physical activity. The aim of this study was to test the criterion validity of the single-item measure against accelerometry. Participants (n=66, 65% female, age: 39±11 years) wore an accelerometer (ActiGraph GT3X) over a 7-day period and on day 8, completed the single-item measure. The number of days of ≥30 min of accelerometer-determined moderate to vigorous intensity physical activity (MVPA) were calculated using two approaches; first by including all minutes of MVPA and second by including only MVPA accumulated in bouts of ≥10 min (counts/min ≥1952). Associations between the single-item measure and accelerometer were examined using Spearman correlations and 95% limits of agreement. Percent agreement and κ statistic were used to assess agreement between the tools in classifying participants as sufficiently/insufficiently active. Correlations between the number of days of ≥30 min MVPA recorded by the single-item and accelerometer ranged from 0.46 to 0.57. Participants underreported their activity on the single-item measure (-1.59 days) when compared with all objectively measured MVPA, but stronger congruence was observed when compared with MVPA accumulated in bouts of ≥10 min (0.38 days). Overall agreement between the single-item and accelerometry in classifying participants as sufficiently/insufficiently active was 58% (k=0.23, 95% CI 0.05 to 0.41) when including all MVPA and 76% (k=0.39, 95% CI 0.14 to 0.64) when including activity undertaken in bouts of ≥10 min.",
"This study set out to show how well samples from general practice registers compare with census data, to describe those characteristics of the population and of the register that influence the response to postal surveys, and to demonstrate how general practice records can be used to assess non-response bias. The data for this study were obtained from a large postal survey about low back pain among the general adult population aged 20-59 years in eight areas of the United Kingdom, using general practice age-sex registers as the sampling frame. The overall response rate was 59%. In the areas chosen, general practice registers yielded samples of size and age-sex composition close to that predicted from national census data. Responses were more likely to be obtained from women, from older age groups and from practices where the sample lists had been inspected for errors. The use of computerized registers and a letter of recommendation from the general practitioner had no effect on the response rate. Inspection of the general practice records of subsamples of respondents and non-respondents to determine consultation rates suggested that there was little response bias in respect of the subject of the survey.",
"We found moderate agreement between responses from patients and those from their proxies for the more directly observable domains of the EuroQol. Proxy agreement was less good for the more subjective domains. In health surveys, allowing responses by a proxy increases response rate. However, the disadvantages inherent in the use of proxy responses must be considered carefully. In general, some domains of HRQoL information obtained from a proxy may be sufficiently valid and unbiased to be useable in most types of trials and surveys.",
"Home mailed urine specimen collection in conjunction with a self-completed postal questionnaire is feasible. This could provide a viable basis both for determining population Chlamydia prevalence and for a UK Chlamydia population screening strategy. Overall cost effectiveness of such a strategy will depend on the cost of the test used. Comparative performance characteristics of the different currently available tests in this setting have yet to be fully determined.",
"In epidemiological questionnaire studies results can be influenced by non-responder bias. However, in respiratory epidemiology this has been analysed in very few recently published papers. The aim of our paper is to assess if the results found in our previous postal questionnaire study in an adult population in Northern Finland were biased by non-response. A random sample of 385 persons from the 1,284 non-responders in a previous postal questionnaire study was examined. The same questionnaire as in the original study was again mailed to these persons, and those still not answering were contacted by phone. Totally 183 complete answers (48%) were collected. Lack of interest (56%) and forgetting to mail the response letter (22%) were the most common reasons to non-response. Typical non-responders were young men and current smokers who less frequently reported respiratory symptoms in exercise and asthma than the responders in the original study. Answers collected by phone gave for some questions higher prevalence rates than postal answers.",
"To verify the validity of self-reported data on service use from clients with mental or substance abuse disorders in Montreal and Quebec services for homeless individuals. To compare the self-reported data from the Enquête chez les personnes itinérantes (Fournier, 2001) on health service use with official data from Quebec health services (MEDECHO and RAMQ). The analysis shows a moderate-to-high level of concordance between the self-reported and the official data. Almost every item analyzed presents moderate but significant intraclass correlation coefficients for general and psychiatric hospitalization and use of psychiatric medication, but lower and nonsignificant coefficients for medical hospitalization. Participant characteristics such as mental disorders, homeless status, and substance abuse problems do not seem to have an impact on data validity.",
"Coded self-monitoring activity diaries appear feasible as a low-tech alternative to labor-intensive observational diaries for determining sedentary, moderate, and total physical activity and for quantifying energy expenditure in hospitalized stroke patients. Given the poor correlation with objective measurements of physical activity, however, further research is needed to validate its use against a gold-standard measure of physical activity intensity and energy expenditure.",
"yes. This study demonstrates a high level of agreement between self-reporting and investigator assessment of MC status in PNG and suggests self-reporting of MC status to be highly reliable among men in PNG.",
"yes. In this preliminary study, self-reported physical activity is a better proxy measure for aerobic fitness in highly educated individuals than in poorly educated individuals.",
"Patient surveys are important information sources regarding a doctor's professional performance. Previous research across a range of patient outcomes suggests that the method of administration can influence response rates and ratings, although no data that explore how this might influence patients' assessments of a doctor's professional performance are available. A volunteer sample of 13 UK doctors from primary care settings undertook a cross-sectional patient survey. Seven doctors distributed patient surveys using exit and touch-tone telephone administration, and six doctors used exit and postal administration. A consecutive sample of up to 40 patients per doctor completed each method of administration; postal and touch-tone surveys were administered retrospectively, whereas the exit surveys were administered prospectively. The GMC (General Medical Council) PQ included nine performance evaluation questions. We examined the response rates, item completion rates and response profiles of exit survey responses with those obtained from either postal or touch-tone telephone methods. The administration methods influence the quality and comparability of data obtained. The exit survey response rate was higher than touch-tone (82.1% versus 37.5%; P<0.0001) or postal survey (no reminder) (76.7% versus 60.8%; P<0.0001) administration, but comparable to the postal survey after one reminder (78.3% versus 75.0%; P = 0.39). Item completion rates were comparable for exit and touch-tone surveys (highest rates of missing data 4.1% and 4.6%, respectively), but exit surveys resulted in more missing values than postal surveys (10.3 to 11.7% versus 1.1 to 3.9%). Response profiles varied. Both touch-tone and postal surveys yielded significantly more critical ratings than the exit survey (three of nine items).",
"yes. The AUDIT is a questionnaire with good psycho-measurement properties. It is reliable and valid for the detection of risk consumption and DS in women.",
"Economic evaluations alongside clinical trials are becoming increasingly common. Cost data are often collected through the use of postal questionnaires; however, the accuracy of this method is uncertain. We compared postal questionnaires with hospital records for collecting data on physiotherapy service use. As part of a randomised trial of orthopaedic medicine compared with orthopaedic surgery we collected physiotherapy use data on a group of patients from retrospective postal questionnaires and from hospital records. 315 patients were referred for physiotherapy. Hospital data on attendances was available for 30% (n = 96), compared with 48% (n = 150) of patients completing questionnaire data (95% Cl for difference = 10% to 24%); 19% (n = 59) had data available from both sources. The two methods produced an intraclass correlation coefficient of 0.54 (95% Cl 0.31 to 0.70). However, the two methods produced significantly different estimates of resource use with patient self report recalling a mean of 1.3 extra visits (95% Cl 0.4 to 2.2) compared with hospital records.",
"To use intermethod reliability to compare self-reported data about chronic respiratory disease and health service utilisation with data contained in general practice medical records. Self-reported postal questionnaire information from a small cohort of an age-sex stratified sample of 2318 patients was compared with information contained in their medical records. The agreement between the two sources of information was assessed. The case notes of 115/135 individuals from eight general practices were examined. For self-reported chest injury or operation (kappa, kappa=-0.03), or chronic bronchitis (kappa=0.10), agreement was poor. Agreement for self-reported pleurisy (kappa=0.32), hay fever or rhinitis (kappa=0.40), or eczema or dermatitis (kappa=0.30) was fair; for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema (kappa=0.56), or heart trouble (kappa=0.54), agreement was moderate; for asthma (kappa=0.78) or pneumonia (kappa=0.62), agreement was good; and for pulmonary tuberculosis (kappa=0.88), agreement was very good. The strength of agreement for information about health service utilisation for respiratory problems ranged from moderate to very good and was good for smoking status.",
"yes. SE, as measured by our validated scales, correlates with chart-adherence to surveillance colonoscopy. Our adherence model, which includes SE, predicts adherence with 74% certainty. An 8-item validated clinical questionnaire can be administered to assess whether patients in this population may require further intervention for adherence.",
"It is possible to achieve a good response rate for an epidemiological study among ethnic minorities by using both postal questionnaires and interviews. Care should be taken when results from these two methods are combined, since equivalence is uncertain.",
"The IP application was not accurate in counting steps and recorded significantly lower step counts than the SW and TC. Thus, the free pedometer application used is not a valid instrument for monitoring activity during treadmill walking.",
"Self-administered questionnaires provide a better alternative to disclose sensitive information in sexual health research. We describe the factors that determine the positive response (initial recruitment) to an initial invitation and subsequent completion of study to a postal questionnaire on sexual dysfunction. South Asians (SA) and Europids with and without diabetes (DM) were recruited from GP clinics in UK. Men who returned the properly filled consent form ('recruited-group') were sent the questionnaire and those who returned it were considered as the 'completed-group'. Index of Multiple Deprivation Scores (IMDs) were generated using UK postcodes. We calculated the recruitment rate and completion rate of the recruited and the study-completed groups respectively. Total approached sample was 9100 [DM: 2914 (32%), SA: 4563 (50.1%)]. Recruitment rate was 8.8% and was higher in Europids and in patients with DM. Mean IMDs for the recruited group was 20.9 ± 11.9, and it was higher among recruited SA compared to Europids (p < 0.001). Mean IMDs was higher in the recruited group compared to non-recruited (p < 0.01). All four recruited groups (SA/Europid and DM/non-DM) had lower IMDs compared to non-recruited. Completion rate was 71.5% (n 544) (SA: 62.3%, Europids: 77.4%; p < 0.05).",
"yes. In middle-aged women who answered postal questionnaires, self-reporting of primary hip replacement, primary knee replacement, and cholecystectomy was found to agree well with information held in a medical record database.",
"yes. The collection of self-reported health risk information is equally accurate and reliable using computer interface in the general practice setting as traditional paper survey. Computer survey appears highly reliable and accurate for the measurement of smoking status. Further research is needed to confirm the adequacy of the quantity/frequency measure in detecting those who drink alcohol. Interactive computer administered health surveys offer a number of advantages to researchers and clinicians and further research is warranted.",
"For group comparisons using the SF-36, professional proxies might be considered when patients cannot answer reliably for themselves. However, in the present study, lay proxy performance on a postal questionnaire showed a strong tendency to negative bias. Further research is required to define the limitations and potentials of proxy completion of health status questionnaires.",
"The purpose of this study was to validate the Pediatric Physical Therapy Intervention Activities (PPTIA) data form when used by pediatric physical therapists to describe interventions used in the treatment of children with developmental disabilities. The form is based on use of the clinical practice improvement approach. A panel of 9 experts was assembled to establish face validity for the PPTIA by assessing clarity, accuracy, and relevance. Then, a content validity questionnaire was mailed to a sample of 41 pediatric physical therapists from around the United States to complete after using the PPTIA in clinical practice. Seven experts completed and returned the face validity survey and 27 therapists completed the content validity questionnaire. Two revisions to the PPTIA were made based on participant feedback.",
"The Veterans Health Administration evaluates outcomes of end-of-life (EOL) care using the Bereaved Family Survey (BFS). Originally, the BFS was administered as a telephone survey but was transitioned to a mail survey beginning October 2012. The transition necessitated an evaluation of the tool's validity using this new mode of administration. The objective of this study was to validate the mail version and to test for measurement invariance (MI) across the two administration modes. Telephone and mail versions of the BFS were validated separately between October 2009 and September 2013. MI was evaluated using a series of confirmatory factor analyses (CFAs). Construct validity was evaluated by calculating Cronbach alpha coefficients and examining differences between BFS factor scores for groups with and without quality care indicators (e.g., receipt of a palliative care consult). Our sample consisted of 35,682 decedent BFS scores (27,109 telephone surveys; 8573 mail surveys). BFS item scores were slightly skewed, with a predominance of higher scores for both the telephone and mail version. The average missing rate for each BFS item was minimal, just 2% for each version. The CFA models demonstrated dimensional, configural, metric, and factor mean invariance across administration modes. BFS factor scores were consistently higher when a patient received EOL quality care indicators regardless of mode of administration.",
"To examine differences in non-occupational physical activity behaviour in workers who engage in high and low occupational physical activity. Cross-sectional survey of 112 otherwise comparable volunteers in active (56 walking postal delivery workers) or inactive (56 administrative postal workers) occupations in Glasgow (Scotland) in 2007. Twenty four-hour physical activity (steps and time standing, walking and sedentary) patterns were measured using activPAL™ for seven days. Comparisons were made during 8-hour work-shifts, during non-work hours on work-days and during the 2 non-work days. Age and body mass index of delivery and office staff, respectively, were (means (SD)) 38 (9) years versus 40 (7) years and 26.3 (3) kg m(-2) versus 27.4 (4) kg m(-2). Delivery staff spent substantially longer time than office staff upright (6.0 (1.1) h versus 3.9 (1.5) h) and walking (3.1 (0.7) h versus 1.6 (0.7) h) and amassed more steps (16,035 (4264) versus 6709 (2808)) during 8-hour work-shifts and over 24h on work days. During non-work hours of work-days and during non-work days, there were no significant differences in physical activity between the groups. The results were unchanged when the 15 women were excluded.",
"This study has established that, among incentives for postal questionnaires, one big prize improves the yield more than many small prizes despite the lower odds of winning. It has also confirmed that offering a modest incentive to GPs generates good response rates for postal questionnaires.",
"Internet-based surveys provide an attractive alternative to postal and telephone surveys of health professionals, but they raise important technical and methodological issues which should be carefully considered before widespread implementation. The major obstacle is external validity, and specifically how to obtain a representative sample and adequate response rate. Controlled access to a national list of NHSnet e-mail addresses of health professionals could provide a solution.",
"The process of self-monitoring through completion of a logbook does not appear to influence estimates of validity for brief or long questionnaires with global questions. Whereas the magnitude of error in accuracy of recall of particular types of activity may be reduced by completion of a logbook that is similar in structure to the survey being validated, this does not appear to influence overall estimates of validity.",
"Compared with pre-paid business replies, stamped envelopes did not produce a statistically significant increase in response rate to this patient survey. However, the response gain of the stamped strategy (4.9%) is similar to that demonstrated in a Cochrane review (5.3%) of strategies to increase response to general mail surveys. Further studies and meta analyses of patient responses to mail surveys via stamped versus pre-paid envelopes are needed with sufficient power to detect response gains of this magnitude in a patient population.",
"Postal questionnaires are likely to capture morbidity (hospitalization) among women and men aged 65-80 years old and mortality among men, while morbidity after age 80 and mortality in women are likely to be underestimated.",
"To assess the validity, reliability, and acceptability of the short form 36 (SF 36) health survey questionnaire (a shortened version of a battery of 149 health status questions) as a measure of patient outcome in a broad sample of patients suffering from four common clinical conditions. Postal questionnaire, followed up by two reminders at two week intervals. Clinics and four training practices in north east Scotland. Over 1700 patients aged 16-86 with one of four conditions--low back pain, menorrhagia, suspected peptic ulcer, or varicose veins--and a comparison sample of 900 members of the general population. The eight scales within the SF36 health profile. The response rate exceeded 75% in the patient population (1310 respondents). The SF36 satisfied rigorous psychometric criteria for validity and internal consistency. Clinical validity was shown by the distinctive profiles generated for each condition, each of which differed from that in the general population in a predictable manner. Furthermore, SF36 scores were lower in referred patients than in patients not referred and were closely related to general practitioners' perceptions of severity.",
"yes. The PAAQ demonstrated reasonable validity against the accelerometer criterion. Based on correlations and absolute differences between daily minutes of MVPA and the percentages of respondents meeting the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines, PAAQ results were closer to accelerometer data than were the IPAQ results for the study sample and previous Statistics Canada self-reported questionnaire findings.",
"When expecting or facing a low response rate to postal questionnaires, researchers should carefully identify the most efficient way to boost their response rate. In these studies, an abridged questionnaire containing fewer questions following a postcard reminder was the only cost-effective strategy. An increase in response rates may be explained by a combination of the number and type of contacts. Increasing the sampling frame may be more cost-effective than interventions to prompt non-responders. However, this may not strengthen the validity and generalisability of the survey findings and affect the representativeness of the sample.",
"To validate a single-item screening question for systematic use in primary health care to identify physically inactive adults, who may benefit from physical activity intervention. The single-item physical activity screening question was administered to 1171 women aged 51-74 years recruited from 10 general practices, followed by a longer validated physical activity questionnaire (the NZPAQ-LF). Sensitivity, specificity, likelihood ratios, positive and negative predictive values, and a Kappa statistic were calculated to assess validity of the screening question. The sensitivity of the single-item question was 76.7% (95% confidence interval [CI] 73.5-79.7). It had high specificity (81.1%, 95%CI 77.2-84.4), and a high positive predictive value (86.7%, 95%CI 83.8-89.1). The positive likelihood ratio was 4.05 (3.33-4.93), and negative likelihood ratio was 0.29 (0.25-0.33). The Kappa statistic calculated for the single-item screening question when validated against the NZPAQ-LF was 0.56 (p<0.001).",
"Assess the agreement between commonly used self-report methods compared with objectively measured physical activity (PA) in defining the prevalence of individuals compliant with PA recommendations. Time spent in moderate and vigorous PA (MVPA) was measured at two time points in 1713 healthy individuals from nine European countries using individually calibrated combined heart rate and movement sensing. Participants also completed the Recent Physical Activity Questionnaire (RPAQ), short form of the International Physical Activity Questionnaire (IPAQ), and short European Prospective Investigation into Cancer and Nutrition Physical Activity Questionnaire (EPIC-PAQ). Individuals were categorized as active (e.g., reporting ≥150 min of MVPA per week) or inactive, based on the information derived from the different measures. Sensitivity and specificity analyses and Kappa statistics were performed to evaluate the ability of the three PA questionnaires to correctly categorize individuals as active or inactive. Prevalence estimates of being sufficiently active varied significantly (P for all<0.001) between self-report measures (IPAQ 84.2% [95% confidence interval {CI}, 82.5-85.9], RPAQ 87.6% [95% CI, 85.9-89.1], EPIC-PAQ 39.9% [95% CI, 37.5-42.1] and objective measure 48.5% [95% CI, 41.6-50.9]. All self-report methods showed low or moderate sensitivity (IPAQ 20.0%, RPAQ 18.7%, and EPIC-PAQ 69.8%) to correctly classify inactive people and the agreement between objective and self-reported PA was low (ĸ = 0.07 [95% CI, 0.02-0.12], 0.12 [95% CI, 0.06-0.18], and 0.19 [95% CI, 0.13-0.24] for IPAQ, RPAQ, and EPIC-PAQ, respectively).",
"To examine whether physical activity logbooks influence estimates of validity of 7-d recall physical activity questionnaires. A convenience sample of 551 adults aged 18-75 yr wore an MTI accelerometer for seven consecutive days and were then randomly administered two of four 7-d recall physical activity questionnaires that varied in length and format (Active Australia Survey (AAS), long and short International Physical Activity Questionnaires (IPAQ-L and IPAQ-S), and Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS)). A subsample of 75% concurrently completed a physical activity logbook. Correlations (rho) between self-reported and measured duration of moderate- and vigorous-intensity activity and total activity were similar among participants who received a logbook and those who did not for each of the four instruments. There was also no interaction between assessment method (survey, accelerometer) and the assignment of a logbook. For the IPAQ-L, however, variability in the difference between accelerometer data and responses to the vigorous items was smaller among those assigned a logbook (F = 4.128, df = 260, P = 0.043). Overall, there were no differences in percent agreement or kappa for participation in sufficient levels of physical activity according to receipt of a logbook for any of the surveys.",
"yes. Recruitment for postal sexual health surveys is positively influenced by presence of investigated disease, older age, being from lesser deprived areas and Europid ethnicity. Furthermore, Europids were more likely to complete survey than South Asians irrespective of disease status.",
"This study has shown high response rates from older stroke patients to a postal questionnaire incorporating the SF-36. The poor completion rates and consequent inability to compute scores for a large proportion of responders in certain scales raises concerns about the perceived relevance of these sections. Results for the response effects suggest that, on its own, the instrument is not suitable for assessing outcome. When data quality indicators were examined, it appears that postal administration of the SF-36 is not appropriate for assessing quality of life of older stroke patients.",
"Different modes of administration are used to collect stroke outcomes, even within the same study, potentially leading to different results. We investigated the effect of administration mode (postal questionnaire; face-to-face interview) on self-reports of activities of daily living and mood. The study was nested within a poststroke motivational interviewing trial. Activities of daily living (Barthel; Nottingham Extended) and mood (General Health Questionnaire; Yale) were collected at 3 and 12 months via postal questionnaire. Participants were approached to respond again via face-to-face interview. Paired t tests (McNemar test) and intraclass correlation coefficients (Cohen κ) were used, with 95% CI, to compare scores (items). Forty-four participants consented. Only Barthel scores were significantly different; they were 1.0 (95% CI, 0.5-1.6) higher face-to-face. The intraclass correlation coefficient for the Barthel was 0.90; for the other scales it was between 0.83 and 0.87. The Yale κ was 0.72.",
"yes. The single-item screening question has good sensitivity, specificity, and concordance with a validated physical activity questionnaire. The question is easy to administer and elicits a simple yes/no response from patients. This validated tool can now be used in practice to identify women who would benefit from physical activity interventions in primary care.",
"There is a variable relationship between what responders report that they do in self-completion questionnaires, and what they actually do as judged by the contents of their patients' medical records. In the absence of prior, knowledge of the validity of questions on reported activity, or of concurrent attempts to establish their validity, the questions should not be asked.",
"Low response rates to surveys are a problem in general practice. There is evidence that offering GPs incentives improves response rates to postal questionnaires. However, there is less evidence about the most effective form of incentive. Our trial aimed to maximize response to a postal questionnaire and to test the most effective form of incentive. The study involved a randomized controlled trial of a postal survey The incentive of a lottery for six bottles of champagne generated a response rate of 79%. Furthermore, one chance of six bottles generated 9% more responses than six chances of one bottle.",
"The answers on health service use from individuals with mental health problems, homeless status, or substance abuse problems are generally valid in the results presented. Thus the self-reported data from these individiuals seems to be a generally valid source of data and an affordable one for research on service use or other domains.",
"Absolute PAEE and MVPA estimated from these self-reports were not valid on an individual level in young people, although some questionnaires appeared to rank individuals accurately. Age (the outcome of interest) and whether individual or group-level estimates are necessary will influence the best choice of self-report method when assessing physical activity in youth.",
"Strategies known to improve response to postal questionnaire surveys in the general population do not significantly improve the response to postal questionnaire surveys among GPs. Further refinements to these strategies, or more novel strategies, aimed at increasing response specifically among GPs need to be identified in order to maximise data quality and generalisability of research results.",
"With the advent of workplace health and wellbeing programs designed to address prolonged occupational sitting, tools to measure behaviour change within this environment should derive from empirical evidence. In this study we measured aspects of validity and reliability for the Occupational Sitting and Physical Activity Questionnaire that asks employees to recount the percentage of work time they spend in the seated, standing, and walking postures during a typical workday. Three separate cohort samples (N = 236) were drawn from a population of government desk-based employees across several departmental agencies. These volunteers were part of a larger state-wide intervention study. Workplace sitting and physical activity behaviour was measured both subjectively against the International Physical Activity Questionnaire, and objectively against ActivPal accelerometers before the intervention began. Criterion validity and concurrent validity for each of the three posture categories were assessed using Spearman's rank correlation coefficients, and a bias comparison with 95 % limits of agreement. Test-retest reliability of the survey was reported with intraclass correlation coefficients. Criterion validity for this survey was strong for sitting and standing estimates, but weak for walking. Participants significantly overestimated the amount of walking they did at work. Concurrent validity was moderate for sitting and standing, but low for walking. Test-retest reliability of this survey proved to be questionable for our sample.",
"yes. Electronic surveys are a means of acquiring information from a large number of individuals in a rapid, efficient and cost-effective manner. This methodology may be particularly valid and useful in surveys of participants with similar backgrounds and internet access. However the lower response rates achieved as compared with postal surveys indicates a need to use vigilance when generalizing results to a broader population.",
"yes. There is no evidence of an association between QOF score and the response of GPs to postal surveys. This gives reassurance that samples for studies of GP attitudes and practices should not suffer from response bias in relation to this core characteristic that represents the clinical achievement of their practice.",
"yes. Pedometer-derived step counts are a more valid measurement of overall physical activity in this sample than PASE score. Researchers should use objective measures of physical activity whenever possible.",
"The Tromsø physical activity questionnaire has acceptable validity and provides valid estimates of high-intensity leisure activity. However, these results underscore the need for collecting objectively PA measurements in large epidemiological studies.",
"Postal satisfaction questionnaires do not appear to be affected by whether they are returned to the patient's own medical practice or an independent researcher. However, returning postal questionnaires relating to detailed patient behaviours may be subject to response biases and further work is needed to explore this phenomena.",
"Postal questionnaire surveys are commonly used in general practice and often ask about self-reported activity. The validity of this approach is unknown.AIM: To explore the criterion validity of questions asking about self-reported activity in a self-completion questionnaire. A comparison was made between (a) the self-reported actions of all general practitioner (GP) principals in 51 general practices randomly selected within the nine family health services authorities of the former northern regional health authority, and (b) the contents of the medical records (case notes and computerized records) of patients classified as hypertensive from a 1 in 7 random sample of all patients registered in these practices and aged between 65 and 80. Data were gathered from the GPs by self-completion postal questionnaires. Six comparisons were made for two groups of items: first, target and achieved blood pressure; secondly, patient's weight, smoking status, alcohol consumption, exercise and salt intake. The frequency with which the data items were recorded in patient records was compared with the GPs' self-reported frequency of performing the actions. No relationship was found between achieved blood pressure and stated target levels. For each of the other actions, more than half of the responders reported that they usually or always performed the activity. For four of these (smoking, weight, alcohol and exercise), a significant association was noted, but the size of this varied considerably."
] | 348 |
Underestimation of the small residual damage when measuring DNA double-strand breaks (DSB): is the repair of radiation-induced DSB complete? | [
"To overcome the underestimation of the small residual damage when measuring DNA double-strand breaks (DSB) as fraction of activity released (FAR) by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis. The techniques used to assess DNA damage (e.g. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, neutral elution, comet assay) do not directly measure the number of DSB. The Blöcher model can be used to express data as DSB after irradiation at 4 degrees C by calculating the distribution of all radiation-induced DNA fragments as a function of their size. We have used this model to measure the residual DSB (irradiation at 4 degrees C followed by incubation at 37 degrees C) in untransformed human fibroblasts. The DSB induction rate after irradiation at 4 degrees C was 39.1+/-2.0 Gy(-1). The DSB repair rate obtained after doses of 10 to 80 Gy followed by repair times of 0 to 24 h was expressed as unrepaired DSB calculated from the Blöcher formula. All the damage appeared to be repaired at 24h when the data were expressed as FAR, whereas 15% of DSB remained unrepaired. The DSB repair rate and the chromosome break repair rate assessed by premature condensation chromosome (PCC) techniques were similar.",
"The expression of repair data in terms of FAR dramatically underestimates the amount of unrepaired DNA damage. The Blöcher model that takes into account the size distribution of radiation-induced DNA fragments should therefore be used to avoid this bias. Applied to a normal human fibroblast cell line, this model shows that DSB repair is never complete."
] | [
"To determine whether adaptation to ionizing radiation biases repair of radiation-induced chromosomal breaks. Normal human fibroblasts were radiation-adapted by exposure to 10 cGy of gamma-radiation. FISH probes for chromosomes 2, 4, 7, 18 and 19 were used to determine the chromosomal origin of the DNA in micronuclei resulting from a subsequent 4Gy exposure of these cells, and corresponding non-adapted cells. Compared with 4 Gy exposed but non-adapted cells, the radiation-adapted cells subsequently exposed to 4 Gy showed an overall decrease in the frequency of micronuclei. However, the micronuclei that did form in the adapted cells had a decreased frequency of DNA originating from chromosomes 2 and 18, an increased frequency of DNA from chromosome 19 and no change in frequency of DNA from chromosomes 4 and 7.",
"Ultraviolet radiation (UV) damaged-DNA binding (DDB) activity comprises two major components: damaged-DNA binding protein 1 (DDB1) and 2 (DDB2). Although the function of DDB is unclear, mutation on DDB2 is associated with cellular sensitivity to a variety of genotoxic agents including UV. It has been suggested that DDB2 may play a role in UV-induced DNA repair. However, evidence that DDB2 involves in DNA repair and UV sensitivity is lacking. To examine the role of DDB2, we established DDB2-overexpressing hamster V79 cell lines, V79ddb2, by stable transfection with full-length open reading frame of human ddb2 cDNA. Cells were irradiated with UV and determined its DNA repair activity by testing the remaining photoproducts on the chromatin and measuring the plasmid reactivation, respectively. UV induced cytotoxicity was determined by the colorimetric assay (MTT assay), and apoptotic cells exhibiting morphological features of chromatin condensation and nuclear fragmentation were counted after 4-diamidino-2-phenylindole (DAPI) staining. DDB activity was increased in DDB2-overexpressing cell lines. Analysis on DNA repair indicated that UV photoproducts were removed in a time-dependent manner and there was greater than 50% of damage removed within 12 h in DDB2-overexpressing cells. In contrast, nearly all the damage remained unrepaired in V79 cells. However, using bacterial CAT gene as a reporter, both V79 and V79ddb2 cells demonstrated no difference in the reactivation of plasmid DNA carrying UV damage. These results suggest that DDB2 may involve in repair of bulky genomic DNA damage. Although a maximum of only 30% of apoptosis was induced, UV irradiation caused a dose-dependent apoptosis and cytotoxicity in these cell lines. V79ddb2 cells displayed resistance to UV-induced apoptosis and cytotoxicity.",
"When the pyridinium bisretinoid A2E, an age-related fluorophore in the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE), is irradiated with blue light, photochemical events are initiated that can ultimately provoke cell death. This study was designed to determine whether DNA is a target of the cellular damage. ARPE-19 cells accumulated A2E before exposure to blue light. DNA damage was assayed in individual cells by alkaline gel electrophoresis (comet assay), with and without the addition of the repair enzymes formamidopyrimidine N-glycosylase (Fpg), endonuclease III (endo III) and T4-endonuclease V (T4-endo V) to characterize DNA lesions. Damage was quantified as comet tail moment. The base lesion 8-oxo-deoxyguanosine (8-oxo-dG) was detected by immunoperoxidase and histochemical methods. The singlet oxygen quencher, sodium azide, was tested for its ability to reduce DNA damage, and cell viability was quantified. DNA damage was induced in A2E-containing RPE exposed to 430-nm illumination. The extent of damage, measured as tail moment, was proportional to exposure duration and was reduced by preincubation with sodium azide. The detection of FPG- and endo III-sensitive DNA lesions revealed the presence of oxidized purine and pyrimidine bases, whereas labeling with specific antibody and binding of fluorescein-labeled avidin indicated that guanine bases were oxidatively modified to 8-oxo-dG. The ability of the cells to repair the DNA damage declined as the severity was increased, and kinetic studies disclosed rapid and slow stages of repair.",
"Several distinct pathways for the repair of damaged DNA exist in all cells. DNA modifications are repaired by base excision or nucleotide excision repair, while DNA double strand breaks (DSBs) can be repaired through direct joining of broken ends (non homologous end joining, NHEJ) or through recombination with the non broken sister chromosome (homologous recombination, HR). Rad50 protein plays an important role in repair of DNA damage in eukaryotic cells, and forms a complex with the Mre11 nuclease. The prokaryotic ortholog of Rad50, SbcC, also forms a complex with a nuclease, SbcD, in Escherichia coli, and has been implicated in the removal of hairpin structures that can arise during DNA replication. Ku protein is a component of the NHEJ pathway in pro- and eukaryotic cells. A deletion of the sbcC gene rendered Bacillus subtilis cells sensitive to DNA damage caused by Mitomycin C (MMC) or by gamma irradiation. The deletion of the sbcC gene in a recN mutant background increased the sensitivity of the single recN mutant strain. SbcC was also non-epistatic with AddAB (analog of Escherichia coli RecBCD), but epistatic with RecA. A deletion of the ykoV gene encoding the B. subtilis Ku protein in a sbcC mutant strain did not resulted in an increase in sensitivity towards MMC and gamma irradiation, but exacerbated the phenotype of a recN or a recA mutant strain. In exponentially growing cells, SbcC-GFP was present throughout the cells, or as a central focus in rare cases. Upon induction of DNA damage, SbcC formed 1, rarely 2, foci on the nucleoids. Different to RecN protein, which forms repair centers at any location on the nucleoids, SbcC foci mostly co-localized with the DNA polymerase complex. In contrast to this, AddA-GFP or AddB-GFP did not form detectable foci upon addition of MMC.",
"The US government regulates allowable radiation exposures relying, in large part, on the seventh report from the committee to estimate the Biological Effect of Ionizing Radiation (BEIR VII), which estimated that most contemporary exposures- protracted or low-dose, carry 1.5 fold less risk of carcinogenesis and mortality per Gy than acute exposures of atomic bomb survivors. This correction is known as the dose and dose rate effectiveness factor for the life span study of atomic bomb survivors (DDREFLSS). It was calculated by applying a linear-quadratic dose response model to data from Japanese atomic bomb survivors and a limited number of animal studies. We argue that the linear-quadratic model does not provide appropriate support to estimate the risk of contemporary exposures. In this work, we re-estimated DDREFLSS using 15 animal studies that were not included in BEIR VII's original analysis. Acute exposure data led to a DDREFLSS estimate from 0.9 to 3.0. By contrast, data that included both acute and protracted exposures led to a DDREFLSS estimate from 4.8 to infinity. These two estimates are significantly different, violating the assumptions of the linear-quadratic model, which predicts that DDREFLSS values calculated in either way should be the same.",
"Our preliminary results showed that differentially expressed in ovarian cancer-2/disabled homolog 2 (DOC-2/DAB2) interactive protein (DAB2IP), a putative tumor suppressor gene, is down-regulated in bladder cancer (BCa) with aggressive phenotypes. In this study, we investigated how DAB2IP knockdown influenced BCa cell response to ionizing radiation (IR) and discussed possible ways to enhance cell radiosensitivity. The small interfering RNA (siRNA) system was implemented to inhibit endogenous DAB2IP expression in two human BCa cell lines, T24 and 5637. Cell sensitivity to IR alone or combined treatment was measured by a colony formation assay (CFA). Western blot was used to determine the phosphorylation levels of ataxia-telangiectasia mutated (ATM), catalytic subunit of the DNA-dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs) and related DNA damage repair (DDR) proteins. Immunofluorescence as well as a flow cytometry assay were employed to detect DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair and cell cycle distribution, respectively. DAB2IP-knockdown of BCa cells (i.e., siDAB2IP) exhibit increased clonogenic survival in response to IR compared with control cells (i.e., siCON) expressing an endogenous level of DAB2IP. The mechanism in siDAB2IP cells could be explained by elevated ATM expression and activation, increased S phase cell distribution as well as faster DSB repair kinetics. 2-morpholin-4-yl-6-thianthren-1-yl-pyran-4-one (KU55933) significantly sensitized siDAB2IP cells to IR due to inhibition of the phosphorylation of ATM and its downstream targets following IR and slower DSB repair kinetics.",
"yes. A very good agreement is obtained between the different models at high enough impact velocities but discrepancies are observed between them at low impact energies (E(i) ≤ 100 keV). Furthermore, it is shown that the theoretical cross sections underestimate the rare existing experimental data in particular for adenine and thymine whereas a reasonable agreement is found for cytosine.",
"yes. The ERCC1 expression in PBLs may indirectly reflect ERCC1 expression in gastric cancer tissues. Compared with non-cancer populations, patients with gastric cancer may have lower DNA repair capacity. DRR in PBL may predict the short-term efficacy of platinum-based chemotherapy for patients with advanced gastric cancer.",
"yes. Our data demonstrates that both Arabidopsis cohesin (AtRAD21.1 and AtRAD21.3) play a role in somatic DNA dsb repair. Furthermore, the phenotypical data from the atrad21.1 atrad21.3 double mutant indicates that these two cohesins function synergistically in DNA dsb repair. The implications of this data are discussed.",
"yes. Hypersensitivity to non-internalizing (125)I-mAbs is not due to lack of detection of DNA damage after low absorbed dose-rates. However, DNA double strand breaks accumulate in cells exposed both to internalizing and non-internalizing (125)I-mAbs and lead to micronuclei formation. These results suggest impairment in DNA double strand breaks repair after low absorbed doses of (125)I-mAbs.",
"yes. These data implicate a non-linear regulation of ROS production and SOD activity in EA.hy926 EC following irradiation with doses < 1 Gy that may contribute to a discontinuous dose-response relationship of residual γH2AX foci detection.",
"yes. In this work, we provide evidence that TLK1B promotes the repair of DSBs, likely as a consequence of a change in chromatin remodeling capacity that must precede the assembly of repair complexes at the sites of damage.",
"A discontinuous dose response relationship is a major characteristic of the anti-inflammatory effects of low-dose X-irradiation therapy. Although recent data indicate an involvement of a variety of molecular mechanisms in these characteristics, the impact of reactive oxygen species (ROS) production to give rise or contribute to these phenomena in endothelial cells (EC) remains elusive. HUVEC derived immortalized EA.hy926 cells were stimulated by tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α, 20 ng/ml) 4 h before irradiation with doses ranging from 0.3 to 1 Gy. To analyse DNA repair capacity, phospho-histone H2AX foci were assayed at 1 h, 4 h and 24 h after irradiation. ROS production and superoxide dismutase (SOD) activity were analysed by fluorometric 2',7'-dichlorodihydrofluorescein-diacetate (H2DCFDA) and colorimetric assays. A functional impact of ROS on γH2AX production was analysed by treatment with the scavenger N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC). Irrespective of stimulation by TNF-α, EA.hy926 cells revealed a linear dose response characteristic of γH2AX foci detection at 1 h and 4 h after irradiation. By contrast, we observed a discontinuity in residual γH2AX foci detection at 24 h after irradiation with locally elevated values following a 0.5 Gy exposure that was abolished by inhibition of ROS by NAC. Moreover, SOD protein expression was significantly decreased at doses of 0.5 Gy and 0.7 Gy concomitant with a reduced SOD activity.",
"To investigate the variations in induction and repair of DNA damage along the proton path, after a previous report on the increasing biological effectiveness along clinically modulated 60-MeV proton beams. Human skin fibroblast (AG01522) cells were irradiated along a monoenergetic and a modulated spread-out Bragg peak (SOBP) proton beam used for treating ocular melanoma at the Douglas Cyclotron, Clatterbridge Centre for Oncology, Wirral, Liverpool, United Kingdom. The DNA damage response was studied using the 53BP1 foci formation assay. The linear energy transfer (LET) dependence was studied by irradiating the cells at depths corresponding to entrance, proximal, middle, and distal positions of SOBP and the entrance and peak position for the pristine beam. A significant amount of persistent foci was observed at the distal end of the SOBP, suggesting complex residual DNA double-strand break damage induction corresponding to the highest LET values achievable by modulated proton beams. Unlike the directly irradiated, medium-sharing bystander cells did not show any significant increase in residual foci.",
"To analyse spectra of chromosome aberrations induced in vitro by low LET radiation, in order to characterize radiation damage mechanisms quantitatively. Multiplex fluorescence in situ hybridization (mFISH) allows the simultaneous identification of each homologous chromosome pair by its own colour. mFISH data, specifying number distributions for colour junctions in metaphases of human peripheral blood lymphocytes 72 hours after exposure in vitro to a 3 Gy gamma-ray dose, were combined with similar, previously published results. Monte Carlo computer implementations of radiobiological models for chromosome aberration production guided quantitative analyses, which took into account distribution of cells among different metaphases and lethal effects or preferential elimination of some aberrations at cell division.",
"To investigate whether early relative cerebral blood volume (rCBV), relative cerebral blood flow (rCBF) and permeability (Ktrans(2)) measurements may serve as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) biomarkers of radiation response or progression for brain metastases. Seventy brain metastases in 44 patients treated with either stereotactic radiosurgery or whole brain radiotherapy were imaged with dynamic susceptibility and dynamic contrast enhancement MRI at baseline, 1 week and 1 month after treatment. The final response status was determined according to volume criteria derived from a 1 year post-treatment MRI or last available follow-up MRI. Tumours were characterised as responders, non-responders, progressors and non-progressors and compared for Ktrans(2), rCBF and rCBV differences. Uni- and multivariate analysis evaluated factors associated with tumour response and progression at 1 week and 1 month. A generalised estimating equations (GEE) model accounted for multiple tumours per subject. Receiver operator characteristic (ROC) analysis identified optimal cut-off values, sensitivity and specificity for response or progression. Tumour responders showed lower Ktrans(2) and reduced rCBF at 1 week (P < 0.05 each). Progressive disease showed lower rCBF and reduced rCBV at 1 month (P < 0.05 each). GEE and multivariate analysis revealed lower Ktrans(2) at 1 week, an absence of prior radiation predicted response. At 1 month only lower rCBV predicted progressive disease on GEE and multivariate analysis. Optimal cut-off points for Ktrans(2) and rCBV were 1.37 and 2.03 with sensitivity and specificity of 61.5 and 81.1% and 73.9 and 81.8%, respectively.",
"yes. Chironomus ramosus larvae showed control of DNA damage as observed over 48 h in post irradiation recovery which could be attributed to their ability to tolerate gamma radiation stress.",
"In the attempt to characterize the genetic bases of recurrent head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) after radiotherapy (RT), the authors compared the molecular profiles of primary tumors and recurrences. TP53 gene status and instability at 10 microsatellite markers were determined in pre-RT lesions and corresponding local recurrences in a series of 16 HNSCCs. Eight (50%) HNSCCs showed both TP53 and microsatellite instability (MSI) status concordance in pre- and postirradiation biopsies; 3 (18.7%) showed discordance of both TP53 and MSI status; and finally 5 (31.2%) had discordance at only 1 genetic test. Accordingly, the authors interpreted as true recurrence the 8 concordant cases, and as true second primary malignancies the 3 discordant ones. In the remaining 5 cases with partial DNA correspondence, the exact nature of the new lesion only partially related to the original cancer is a matter of discussion. Patients showing the same mutations among pre- and post-RT HNSCCs had a longer disease-free interval (DFI) and better survival than those showing discordant genetic features (log-rank test, P = .0045).",
"yes. Our results suggest that different amounts of DNA damage are needed to activate the G2 checkpoint in individual cells. Such single cell variation in checkpoint activation may potentially contribute to radiation-induced genomic instability.",
"yes. We conclude that only the 53BP1 status in DNA lesions, induced by UVA or γ-rays, is affected by A-type lamin deficiency, which was not observed for heterochromatin-related proteins HP1β and BMI1.",
"To test the appropriateness of the linear-quadratic (LQ) model to describe survival of jejunal crypt clonogens after split doses with variable (small 1-6 Gy, large 8-13 Gy) first dose, as a model of its appropriateness for both small and large fraction sizes. C3Hf/KamLaw mice were exposed to whole body irradiation using 300 kVp X-rays at a dose rate of 1.84 Gy/min, and the number of viable jejunal crypts was determined using the microcolony assay. 14 Gy total dose was split into unequal first and second fractions separated by 4 h. Data were analyzed using the LQ model, the lethal potentially lethal (LPL) model, and a repair-saturation (RS) model. Cell kill was greater in the group receiving the larger fraction first, creating an asymmetry in the plot of survival vs size of first dose, as opposed to the prediction of the LQ model of a symmetric response. There was a significant difference in the estimated βs (higher β after larger first doses), but no significant difference in the αs, when large doses were given first vs small doses first. This difference results in underestimation (based on present data by approximately 8%) of isoeffect doses using LQ model parameters based on small fraction sizes. While the LPL model also predicted a symmetric response inconsistent with the data, the RS model results were consistent with the observed asymmetry.",
"yes. Expression of mutant Nbs1 significantly increases cisplatin-induced DNA DSBs and cytotoxicity. The increase in double-strand DNA damage corresponds to the level of cytotoxicity in the different treatment groups and suggests that tumor chemosensitization occurs through augmentation of DNA DSBs.",
"yes. For the first time a significant negative correlation between γH2AX foci and local tumour control after irradiation has been demonstrated. Our results underline the potential of residual γH2AX foci as a predictive biomarker for local tumour control after radiotherapy.",
"While double-strand break (DSB) repair is vital to the survival of cells during both meiosis and mitosis, the preferred mechanism of repair differs drastically between the two types of cell cycle. Thus, during meiosis, it is the homologous chromosome rather than the sister chromatid that is used as a repair template. Cells attempting to undergo meiosis in the absence of Mnd1 arrest in prophase I due to the activation of the Mec1 DNA-damage checkpoint accumulating hyperresected DSBs and aberrant synapsis. Sporulation of mnd1Delta strains can be restored by deleting RED1 or HOP1, which permits repair of DSBs by using the sister chromatid as a repair template. Mnd1 localizes to chromatin as foci independently of DSB formation, axial element (AE) formation, and synaptonemal complex (SC) formation and does not colocalize with Rad51. Mnd1 does not preferentially associate with hotspots of recombination.",
"4-Hydroxyifosfamide is the primary metabolite in vivo of the bifunctional alkylating cytostatic ifosfamide. DNA interstrand cross-linking induced by bifunctional alkylators may be repaired through an intermediate with unligated repair patches on both strands which should uncover analytically as DNA double-strand breaks and allow to measure the rejoining kinetic of this repair intermediate. Additionally, the combined effects of drug and radiation treatment on rejoining of double-strand breaks was investigated with two different mammalian cell lines. V79 (rodent fibroblasts) and Widr (human colon carcinoma) cells were treated for 2 hours with 4-hydroperoxyifosfamide which rapidly decays to 4-hydoxyifosfamide in aqueous solution or were exposed in combination with ionizing radiation followed by incubation for repair with or without the drug. DNA double-strand breakage was measured by pulsed-field electrophoresis. The 2 hours 4-hydroperoxyifosfamide treatment (30 micrograms/ml) resulted in a pronounced DNA fragmentation that, 2-4 hours after drug removal, declined with an estimated half-live of about 4 hours for both cell lines. When the cells were additionally irradiated with 10 Gy given in the middle of drug exposure, the residual fragmentation after 12 or 24 hours incubation for repair was only marginally increased, roughly corresponding to the respective value after radiation, alone. A continuous drug exposure of 6 hours (at 10 micrograms/ml) resulted in a fragmentation that was independent of a preirradiation with a high dose of 30 Gy, immediately before drug addition.",
"yes. These results suggested that X-ray-induced apoptosis in HL60 cells was initiated by DNA DSB and the treatment of hypoxic cells with etanidazole sensitized them through the enhancement of DSB induction, whereas X-ray-induced apoptosis in MOLT-4 cells occurred through damage other than to DNA.",
"Growing knowledge of genomic heterogeneity in cancer, especially when it results in altered DNA damage responses, requires re-examination of the generic relative biological effectiveness (RBE) of 1.1 of protons. For determination of cellular radiosensitivity, we irradiated 17 lung cancer cell lines at the mid-spread-out Bragg peak of a clinical proton beam (linear energy transfer, 2.5 keV/μm). For comparison, 250-kVp X rays and (137)Cs γ-rays were used. To estimate the RBE of protons relative to (60)Co (Co60eq), we assigned an RBE(Co60Eq) of 1.1 to X rays to correct the physical dose measured. Standard DNA repair foci assays were used to monitor damage responses. FANCD2 was depleted using RNA interference. Five lung cancer cell lines (29.4%) exhibited reduced clonogenic survival after proton irradiation compared with X-irradiation with the same physical doses. This was confirmed in a 3-dimensional sphere assay. Corresponding proton RBE(Co60Eq) estimates were statistically significantly different from 1.1 (P≤.05): 1.31 to 1.77 (for a survival fraction of 0.5). In 3 of these lines, increased RBE was correlated with alterations in the Fanconi anemia (FA)/BRCA pathway of DNA repair. In Calu-6 cells, the data pointed toward an FA pathway defect, leading to a previously unreported persistence of proton-induced RAD51 foci. The FA/BRCA-defective cells displayed a 25% increase in the size of subnuclear 53BP1 foci 18 hours after proton irradiation.",
"Radiotherapy-induced DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) are critical cytotoxic lesions. Inherited defects in DNA DSB repair pathways lead to hypersensitivity to ionising radiation, immunodeficiency and increased cancer incidence. A patient with xeroderma pigmentosum complementation group C, with a scalp angiosarcoma, exhibited dramatic clinical radiosensitivity following radiotherapy, resulting in death. A fibroblast cell line from non-affected skin (XP14BRneo17) was hypersensitive to ionising radiation and defective in DNA DSB repair. To determine the genetic defect causing cellular radiation hypersensitivity in XP14BRneo17 cells. Functional genetic complementation whereby copies of human chromosomes containing genes involved in DNA DSB repair (chromosomes 2, 5, 8 10, 13 and 22) were individually transferred to XP14BRneo17 cells in an attempt to correct the radiation hypersensitivity. Clonogenic survival assays and gamma-H2AX immunofluorescence were conducted to measure radiation sensitivity and repair of DNA DSBs. DNA sequencing of defective DNA repair genes was performed. Transfer of chromosome 8 (location of DNA-PKcs gene) and transfection of a mammalian expression construct containing the DNA-PKcs cDNA restored normal ionising radiation sensitivity and repair of DNA DSBs in XP14BRneo17 cells. DNA sequencing of the DNA-PKcs coding region revealed a 249-bp deletion (between base pairs 3656 and 3904) encompassing exon 31 of the gene.",
"yes. CD133 identifies a population of cells within specific tumor types containing altered expression of DNA repair genes that are inducible upon exposure to chemotherapy. This altered gene expression contributes to enhanced DSB resolution and the radioresistance phenotype of these cells. We also identify DNA repair genes which may serve as promising therapeutic targets to confer radiosensitivity to CSCs.",
"S-phase cells are more resistant to low-linear energy transfer (LET) ionizing radiation (IR) than nonsynchronized and G(1)-phase cells, because both nonhomologous end-joining (NHEJ) and homologous recombination repair can repair DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) in the S phase. Although it was reported 3 decades ago that S-phase cells did not show more resistance to high-LET IR than cells in other phases, the mechanism remains unclear. We therefore attempted to study the phenotypes and elucidate the mechanism involved. Wild-type and NHEJ-deficient cell lines were synchronized using the double-thymidine approach. A clonogenic assay was used to detect the sensitivity of nonsynchronized, synchronized S-phase, and G(2)-phase cells to high- and low-LET IR. The amounts of Ku bound to DSBs in the high- and low-LET-irradiated cells were also examined. S-phase wild-type cells (but not NHEJ-deficient cells) were more sensitive to high-LET IR than nonsynchronized and G(2)-phase cells. In addition, S-phase wild-type cells showed less efficient Ku protein binding to DSBs than nonsynchronized and G(2)-phase cells in response to high-LET IR, although all cells at all phases showed similarly efficient levels of Ku protein binding to DSBs in response to low-LET IR.",
"no. S values seem to vary among laboratories even after exposure of cells to sparsely ionizing radiations. Data from this study show that S values are not a signature for a significant contribution of neutrons to the radiation dose received by A-bomb survivors in Hiroshima.",
"yes. Cytomolecular and cytogenetic damage was observed in cells exposed to very low doses of X-rays and their progeny. A single low dose of ionizing radiation was sufficient to induce such response, indicating that mammalian cells are exquisitely sensitive to it. Comet and micronucleus assays are sensitive enough to assess this damage, although the former seems to be more efficient.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that ATM is essentially required for the completion of HR-mediated repair of TPT-induced DSBs formed indirectly at replication forks.",
"Recent work has identified a category of genes devoted to the control of genomic stability and prevention of cellular evolution. They encode components of cell cycle checkpoint, i.e., regulatory pathways committed to ordered cell cycle transition and fidelity of replicated DNA under adverse environmental conditions, such as those following exposure to genotoxic agents. Gadd45 belongs to the class II family of DNA damage-inducible (DDI) gene, and its role in DNA repair has been proved in many experimental models. The aim of our study was to correlate gadd45 radio-induction with the responsiveness to radiotherapy of cervical carcinomas, a type of cancer most commonly treated with radiotherapy alone. By means of a competitive polymerase chain reaction strategy, we compared in 14 patients the gene expression levels before and during external beam radiotherapy, when a dose ranging from 18 to 25 Gy was delivered to the target. We found a correlation between the lack of gadd45 induction and a good clinical response to radiotherapy, in terms of both local control and disease-free survival.",
"The majority of cancer patients will receive radiotherapy (RT), therefore, investigations into advances of this modality are important. Conventional RT dose intensities are limited by adverse responses in normal tissues and a primary goal is to ameliorate adverse normal tissue effects. The aim of these experiments is to further our understanding regarding the mechanism of radioprotection by the DNA minor groove binder, methylproamine, in a cellular context at the DNA level. We used immunocytochemical methods to measure the accumulation of phosphorylated H2AX (γH2AX) foci following ionizing radiation (IR) in patient-derived lymphoblastoid cells exposed to methylproamine. Furthermore, we performed pulsed field gel electrophoresis DNA damage and repair assays to directly interrogate the action of methylproamine on DNA in irradiated cells. We found that methylproamine-treated cells had fewer γH2AX foci after IR compared to untreated cells. Also, the presence of methylproamine decreased the amount of lower molecular weight DNA entering the gel as shown by the pulsed field gel electrophoresis assay.",
"Chironomus ramosus is one of the recently reported radiotolerant insects. Salivary gland cells of fourth instar larvae respond to ionizing radiations with increases in the levels of antioxidant enzymes and chaperone proteins. Here we made an attempt to study the state of nuclear DNA after exposure of larvae to a lethal dose for 20% of the population (LD(20)) of gamma radiation (2200 Gy, at a dose rate 5.5 Gy/min). Genomic DNA preparations were subjected to competitive ELISA (Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay) for detection of 8-oxo-7,8-dihydro-2'-deoxyguanosine (8-oxodG) and dynamic light scattering (DLS) to monitor any radiation-induced damage. Single salivary gland cells were subjected to alkaline single cell gel electrophoresis (ASCGE), comet assay and pulsed field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) to check for DNA double-strand breaks. Results from all four experimental procedures confirmed damage of nucleobases and fragmentation of nuclear DNA immediately after radiation. Some 48 h after radiation exposure, modified 8-oxodG residues returned to basal level, homodispersity of genomic DNA reappeared, the length of comet tail regressed significantly (ASCGE) and PFGE pattern matched with that of high molecular weight unirradiated DNA.",
"To investigate the effect of fludarabine (F-ara-A) and gemcitabine (dFdC), two radiosensitizing nucleoside analogues, on the induction and repair of DNA dsb after ionizing radiation. Radiosensitization of mouse sarcoma SA-NH and FSA cells was studied using a clonogenic assay. Cell survival curves were fitted with the linear-quadratic model. DNA dsbs were detected by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis under neutral conditions. F-ara-A (100 micromol dm(-3) for 1 h prior to irradiation) induced a substantial radiosensitization in SA-NH cells with a dose modification factor of 2.0 for a surviving fraction of 0.5. In a FSA mouse sarcoma cell line, dFdC (5 micromol dm(-3) for 3 h prior to irradiation) induced a modest radiosensitization with a DMF of 1.2 for a surviving fraction of 0.5. Under similar experimental conditions, neither F-ara-A nor dFdC altered the yield of radiation-induced DNA dsbs in the dose range of 0-40 Gy. After a single dose of 25 Gy (SA-NH cells) or 40 Gy (FSA cells), neither the kinetics of repair nor the amount of residual damage was affected by F-ara-A or dFdC.",
"In mammalian cells, the relevance of homologous recombination in radiation-induced double-strand break (DSB) repair is not yet well understood. In the present work, the role of recombination between homologous chromosomes and homology-directed repair of DSB were studied, using X-ray-induced chromosomal aberrations as an end-point. Human-hamster hybrid cells containing one or two copies of human chromosome 8 were used. If recombination between homologous chromosomes plays a dominant role in DSB repair, it is expected that X-irradiation of cells with two copies of chromosome 8 would result in a lower frequency of aberrations involving this chromosome compared with cells with only one copy of chromosome 8. The aberrations involving human chromosome 8 were detected by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH). Furthermore, a comparison between the hamster cell line XR-C1 (defective in non-homologous repair), CHO-9 (the wild-type cells) and the cell line XR-C1#8 (in which the defect of XR-C1 is complemented by human chromosome 8) was made to determine, indirectly, the involvement of homology-directed recombination in DSB repair. The observed frequencies of aberrations per human chromosome 8 were not significantly different between cells containing one or two copies of this chromosome. The frequency of chromatid-type aberrations was doubled in XR-C1 cells compared with CHO-9 and XR-C1#8 cells.",
"Unlike normal cells, ataxia telangiectasia (A-T) cells do not exhibit enhanced double-strand-break (dsb)-repair fidelity after ionizing radiation (IR) exposure. DNA-repair induction and other responses to IR are mediated by signalling pathways that are defective in A-T cells. Ataxia telangiectasia mutated (ATM) protein, the mutated protein in A-T cells, is homologous to members of the P13-kinase, including the rapamycin target FRAP. Rapamycin kills normal cells more readily in normal than in A-T cells, and inhibits the FRAP target p70 S6 kinase (p70S6K) more readily in normal than in A-T cells. Also, PHAS-1, another FRAP target, may also be a substrate for ATM. Because ATM plays a role in the response of mammalian cells to rapamycin, the effect of rapamycin on IR enhancement of dsb repair was investigated. Double-strand-break repair by normal and A-T lymphoblasts, either untreated or treated with rapamycin and y-irradiated, was analysed using shuttle pZ189 containing a dsb. Double-strand-break-rejoining fidelity in linear plasmids (linDNA) processed in either untreated or rapamycin-treated normal cells increased about twofold if transfection occurred immediately after host irradiation. In contrast, radiation did not increase or decrease the repair fidelity by untreated A-T host cells. But, like normal hosts, dsb-repair fidelity improved twofold in A-T hosts treated with rapamycin. Treatment with the P13-kinase inhibitor LY294002 did not alter dsb-rejoining fidelity in normal or in A-T hosts.",
"To come to a more complete picture of radiation-induced aberrations and to detect and quantify genetically determined intrinsic radiosensitivity, a 24-color FISH approach using all human chromosome painting probes has been successfully applied on cytogenetic preparation lymphocytes. The controls and NBS heterozygotes were clearly distinguished from the NBS homozygote subject.",
"Unrepaired DNA double-stranded breaks (DSBs) can result in the whole or partial loss of chromosomes. Previously, we showed that the ends of broken chromosomes remain associated. Here, we have examined the machinery that holds broken chromosome ends together, and we have explored the behavior of broken chromosomes as they pass through mitosis. Using GFP-localized arrays flanking an HO endonuclease site, we examined the association of broken chromosome ends in yeast cells that are checkpoint-arrested in metaphase. This association is partially dependent upon Rad50 and Rad52. After 6-8 hr, cells adapted to the checkpoint and resumed mitosis, segregating the broken chromosome. When this occurred, we found that the acentric fragments cosegregated into either the mother or daughter cell 95% of the time. Similarly, pedigree analysis showed that postmitotic repair of a broken chromosome (rejoining the centric and acentric fragments) occurred in either the mother or daughter cell, but rarely both, consistent with a model in which both acentric sister chromatid fragments are passaged into the same nucleus.",
"Cigarette smoking is a major risk factor for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease, which is responsible for a significant proportion of smoking-related deaths. However, the precise mechanism whereby smoking induces this pathology has not been fully delineated. Based on observation of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs), the most harmful type of DNA damage, in atherosclerotic lesions, we hypothesized that there is a direct association between smoking and DSBs. The goal of this study was to investigate whether smoking induces DSBs and smoking cessation reverses DSBs in vivo through examination of peripheral mononuclear cells (MNCs). Immunoreactivity of oxidative modification of DNA and DSBs were increased in human atherosclerotic lesions but not in the adjacent normal area. DSBs in human MNCs isolated from the blood of volunteers can be detected as cytologically visible \"foci\" using an antibody against the phosphorylated form of the histone H2AX (γ-H2AX). Young healthy active smokers (n = 15) showed increased γ-H2AX foci number when compared with non-smokers (n = 12) (foci number/cell: median, 0.37/cell; interquartile range [IQR], 0.31-0.58 vs. 4.36/cell; IQR, 3.09-7.39, p<0.0001). Smoking cessation for 1 month reduced the γ-H2AX foci number (median, 4.44/cell; IQR, 4.36-5.24 to 0.28/cell; IQR, 0.12-0.53, p<0.05). A positive correlation was noted between γ-H2AX foci number and exhaled carbon monoxide levels (r = 0.75, p<0.01).",
"From the role of double strand DNA dependent protein kinase (DNA-PKcs) activity of non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) repair for DNA double strand breaks (DSBs), we aim to define possible associations between thermo-sensitisation and the enzyme activities in X-ray irradiated cells. DNA-PKcs deficient mouse, Chinese hamster and human cultured cells were compared to the parental wild-type cells. The radiosensitivities, the number of DSBs and DNA-PKcs activities after heat-treatment were measured. Both DNA-PKcs deficient cells and the wild-type cells showed increased radiosensitivities after heat-treatment. The wild-type cells have two repair processes; fast repair and slow repair. In contrast, DNA-PKcs deficient cells have only the slow repair process. The fast repair component apparently disappeared by heat-treatment in the wild-type cells. In both cell types, additional heat exposure enhanced radiosensitivities. Although DNA-PKcs activity was depressed by heat, the inactivated DNA-PKcs activity recovered during an incubation at 37 °C. DSB repair efficiency was dependent on the reactivation of DNA-PKcs activity.",
"Radioresistance is a significant clinical problem in advanced malignant melanoma and many melanoma cell lines show a radioresistant acute x-ray survival response in vitro. Given that the DNA double strand break is the lesion most closely correlated with x-ray induced cell lethality, differences in the induction and rejoining of these lesions may account for the radioresistance of some human melanoma cell lines. The above hypothesis was tested using pulsed field gel electrophoresis to measure x-ray induced DNA double strand break induction and rejoining in four human melanoma cell lines: MM138, MM170, MM96-L and HT 144. The MM138, MM170 and MM96-L cell lines were characterized in vitro by low alpha/beta ratios and broad x-ray survival curve shoulders. MM138 and MM170 were the most radioresistant and MM96-L had intermediate sensitivity. In contrast, HT144 was markedly x-ray sensitive, despite retaining a shoulder and like the other lines, having a low alpha/beta ratio. There were no significant differences in DNA double strand break induction between the cell lines, and thus no correlation existed between DNA double strand break induction and radiosensitivity. Consistent with the shoulders on the x-ray survival curves, all four cell lines showed efficient DNA double strand break rejoining. Highly efficient DNA double strand break rejoining could account for the radioresistance of one of the melanoma lines (MM138). For example, MM138 had rejoined 50% of the induced DNA double strand breaks by 5.5 min compared to 13-17 min for the other three cell lines. The development of postirradiation apoptosis was effectively excluded as the cause of the marked radiosensitivity of the HT144 cell line.",
"Ionizing radiation (IR) generates reactive oxygen species (ROS), which cause DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) that are responsible for cytogenetic alterations. Because antioxidants are potent ROS scavengers, we determined whether the vitamin E isoform γ-tocotrienol (GT3), a radio-protective multifunctional dietary antioxidant, can suppress IR-induced cytogenetic damage. We measured DSB formation in irradiated primary human umbilical vein endothelial cells (HUVECs) by quantifying the formation of γ-H2AX foci. Chromosomal aberrations (CAs) were analyzed in irradiated HUVECs and in the bone marrow cells of irradiated mice by conventional and fluorescence-based chromosome painting techniques. Gene expression was measured in HUVECs with quantitative reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR). GT3 pretreatment reduced DSB formation in HUVECS, and also decreased CAs in HUVECs and mouse bone marrow cells after irradiation. Moreover, GT3 increased expression of the DNA-repair gene RAD50 and attenuated radiation-induced RAD50 suppression.",
"yes. Our results suggest that irradiation induced DNA-PK activation-essential for DNA repair-may be hampered specifically by use of the anti-EGFR-antibody C225. This process is associated with radiosensitization.",
"Double-strand breaks in chromosomal DNA of eucaryotic cells are assumed to be repaired by mechanisms of illegitimate recombination capable of direct rejoining of the broken ends. Cell-free extracts of Xenopus laevis eggs efficiently perform these end joining reactions with any pair of noncomplementary DNA termini whose single-stranded 5'- or 3'-overhangs do not exceed a length of approximately 10 nt. Using hairpin-shaped oligonucleotides that allow the construction of double-strand break termini with 5'- or 3'-overhangs of defined length and sequence we show that 5'-overhangs of more than 9-10 nt are exonucleolytically resected in the extract to produce shorter 5'-overhangs that can be metabolized in the end joining reaction. 5'-recessed ends in double-stranded DNA with 3'-overhangs of more than 2nt as well as the 5'-ends of single-stranded DNA also serve as substrates for the exonuclease activity. In all cases, oligomers of about 10 nt are released from the 5'-ends.",
"Mutation of the ATM gene may be associated with enhanced radiosensitivity and increased radiation-induced morbidity. Denaturing high performance liquid chromatography (DHPLC) is a powerful new technique proven to be sensitive and accurate in the detection of missense mutations, as well as small deletions and insertions. We screened female breast cancer patients for evidence of ATM gene alterations using DHPLC. This study attempted to determine whether breast cancer patients who develop severe radiotherapy (RT)-induced effects are more likely to possess ATM mutations than patients who display normal radiation responses. Forty-six patients with early-stage breast carcinoma underwent limited surgery and adjuvant RT. DNA was isolated from blood lymphocytes, and each coding exon of the ATM gene was amplified using polymerase chain reaction. Genetic variants were identified using DHPLC by comparing test patterns with a known wild-type pattern. All variants were subjected to DNA sequencing and compared with wild-type sequences for evidence of a mutation. A retrospective review was performed, and the Radiation Therapy Oncology Group/European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer acute and late morbidity scoring schemes for skin and subcutaneous normal tissues were applied to quantify the radiation-induced effects. Nine ATM mutations were identified in 6 patients (8 novel and 1 rare). The median follow-up was 3.2 years (range 1.3-10.3). A significant correlation between ATM mutation status and the development of Grade 3-4 subcutaneous late effects was found. All 3 of the patients (100%) who manifested Grade 3-4 subcutaneous late sequelae possessed ATM mutations, whereas only 3 (7%) of the 43 patients who did not develop this form of severe toxicity harbored an ATM mutation (p = 0.001). One ATM mutation carrier developed Grade 4 soft tissue necrosis after RT and required hyperbaric oxygen. All 3 patients manifesting Grade 3-4 late subcutaneous responses in fact harbored 2 ATM mutations. In contrast, none of the 3 ATM carriers who had a single mutation developed a severe subcutaneous reaction. ATM mutation status did not predict for a significant increase in early effects. Of the 23 patients with Grade 2-3 moist desquamation, 4 (17%) had an ATM mutation compared with 2 (9%) of 23 patients without desquamation (p = 0.7).",
"The current standard of care for patients with locally advanced prostate cancer is a combination of androgen deprivation and radiation therapy. Radiation is typically given with androgen suppression when testosterone levels are at their nadir. Recent reports have shown that androgen stimulation of androgen-deprived prostate cancer cells leads to formation of double-strand breaks (DSB). Here, we exploit this finding and investigate the extent and timing of androgen-induced DSBs and their effect on tumor growth following androgen stimulation in combination with ionizing radiation (IR). Androgen-induced DNA damage was assessed by comet assays and γH2A.X foci formation. Effects of androgen stimulation and radiation were determined in vitro and in vivo with xenograft models. We document that androgen treatment of androgen-deprived prostate cancer cell lines resulted in a dose- and time-dependent induction of widespread DSBs. Generation of these breaks was dependent on androgen receptor and topoisomerase II beta but not on cell-cycle progression. In vitro models demonstrated a synergistic interaction between IR and androgen stimulation when IR is given at a time point corresponding with high levels of androgen-induced DSB formation. Furthermore, in vivo studies showed a significant improvement in tumor growth delay when radiation was given shortly after androgen repletion in castrated mice.",
"yes. These findings demonstrate that rapamycin does not affect IR enhancement of dsb-repair fidelity in normal cells but restores this phenomenon in A-T lymphoblasts, and suggests the involvement of a rapamycin-sensitive pathway in radiation-enhanced dsb repair.",
"Among ICSI children de novo structural chromosome aberrations of male descent are increased. Misrepair of double-strand DNA breaks (DSBs) is a prerequisite for such aberrations to occur. To date, no absolute assessment of the number of DSBs in human sperm nuclei after gamete fusion has been described. Using man-mouse heterologous ICSI and gammaH2AX immunofluorescent staining, capable of detecting a single DSB, the number of lesions in ICSI selected sperm from normozoospermic men (n = 2) and oligozoospermic patients (n = 3) was quantified. A comparison with a subfertile male mouse model (n = 5) has been made. In addition, the fate of morphologically normal ejaculated immotile sperm after ICSI was examined. A significant increase in the fraction of sperm cells bearing DSBs was found in oligozoospermic semen compared with that from normozoospermic men (P < 0.01). The majority of morphologically normal immotile human sperm showed excess gammaH2AX staining and nuclear disintegration. However, some had a non-deviant DSB pattern.",
"The study was performed to investigate cytogenetic effects of ionic and non-ionic radiocontrast media (RCM) meglumine, iohexol alone and in combination with irradiation in mouse bone marrow cells in vivo and in vitro. Micronuclei assay was performed in bone marrow cells (BMC) of Balb/C mice intraperitoneally injected with RCM in the presence or absence of whole-body irradiation of 50 mGy. DNA repair (NHEJ) signalling and efficiency were analyzed by Western blot and gammaH2AX-foci assay in normal fibroblast HSF-7 and HUVEC cells. Both compounds reduced proliferation of BMC significantly. Concentrations of 0.5, 1 and 2 ml/kg meglumine or iohexol significantly enhanced the frequency of micronucleated polychromatic erythrocytes (MnPCEs) at all doses of meglumine (p<0.01) and 2 ml/kg of iohexol (p<0.05). Combined with irradiation meglumine at 0.5 and 1 ml/kg led to a higher frequency of MnPCEs than iohexol/IR (p<0.05). Meglumine induced DNA-double strand breaks (DNA-DSB) in non-irradiated HSF and strongly increased residual DNA-DSB within 10 min to 24h after irradiation with 200 or 400 mGy (p<0.001). Iohexol did not induce DNA-DSB but blocked repair of radiation-induced DNA-DSB significantly (p<0.05). Meglumine blocked IR-induced Akt phosphorylation, phosphorylation of DNA-PKcs (S2056, T2609) and ATM (S1981). Iohexol only blocked phosphorylation of Akt and DNA-PKcs at S2056.",
"yes. The translational upregulation of TLK1B elicited by DNA double strand breaks represents an interesting mechanism of translational regulation of a protein involved in radioprotection and highlights a novel mechanism of the stress response following radiation.",
"yes. The authors show that downstaging after short-term radiation may occur but is seen in tumors with normal p53 gene only. Moreover, p53 genotype but not p53 immunohistochemistry is predictive for response to preoperative short-term radiotherapy and patient survival.",
"Replication protein-A (RPA) is a heterotrimeric single-stranded DNA-binding protein playing essential roles in many aspects of nucleic acid metabolism, including DNA replication, nucleotide excision repair and homologous recombination. Here, the role of RPA in the rejoining of radiation-induced DNA double-strand breaks (DSB) by non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) was investigated. A previously described in vitro assay for DSB rejoining was employed. The assay used 'naked' genomic DNA prepared from agarose-embedded G(1)-phase A549 cells as a substrate and extracts prepared from HeLa cells as a source of enzymes. Rejoining of DSB in this assay is absolutely dependent on cell extract and proceeds, under optimal reaction conditions, to an extent similar to that observed in intact cells. For experiments, extracts were supplemented with excess purified recombinant RPA. Alternatively, RPA was removed from the extracts either by fractionation or immunodepletion. Although the rejoining of DSB in vitro was not absolutely dependent on RPA, it proceeded faster and to higher levels of completion when recombinant protein was added to the extracts. Depletion of RPA from extracts reduced the rejoining half-times and addition of purified recombinant protein restored the kinetics of DSB rejoining. Extract fractionation indicated the operation of at least two pathways in DSB rejoining, only one of which was facilitated by RPA.",
"DNA double strand break (DSB) repair is a central cellular mechanism of the DNA damage response to maintain genomic stability. DSB components are frequently mutated in colorectal cancer with microsatellite instability (MSI). We investigated whether DSB repair is involved in endometrial cancer (EC) with MSI. Mononucleotide microsatellite tracts of 14 genes of the DSB repair system were analysed in a series of 41 EC with MSI. Among these genes, the microcephalin 1 (MCPH1/BRIT1) has never been tested as target of MSI in tumour series. The most frequently mutated gene was DNAPKcs (n=14, 34%) followed by RAD50 (n=7, 17%), MRE11, ATR and BRCA1 (n=6, 15%), and by CtIP and MCPH1 (n=5, 12%). While DSB biallelic mutations were infrequent, a high proportion of tumours (n=30, 73%) presented mutations at some component of the DSB repair pathway, and almost half of them showed alterations at two or more components. Tumours with mutations in two or more genes were significantly associated with advanced grade (p=0.03) and vascular invasion (p=0.02) and marginally associated with advanced stage (p=0.07).",
"no. The results document a rapid and fully reversible adaptation of B-NHEJ to growth activity and point to factors beyond EGFR in its regulation. They show notable differences in the regulation of error-prone DSB repair pathways between proliferating and non proliferating cells that may present new treatment design opportunities in radiation therapy.",
"yes. Collectively, our findings indicate that radiosensitization by DCQ is mediated by DNA damage and decreased repair and that ROS are at least partially responsible.",
"yes. We present data for DSB yields per track per cell, DNA fragment sizes, the radial distribution of DSB with respect to the track center, and the distribution of 0, 1, 2, and more DSB from a single particle. Calculations were carried out for a range of particles including He (40 keV/microm), N (225 keV/microm), and Fe ions (150 keV/mum). Situations relevant to PFGE (pulsed-field gel electrophoresis) and microbeam experiments with direct irradiation of the cell nucleus were simulated to demonstrate the applicability of the model. Data show that chromosomal domains do not have a significant influence on fragment-size distribution, while the presence of DNA loops increases the frequencies of smaller fragments by nearly 30% for fragment sizes in the range from 2 kbp (bp = base pair) to 20 kbp.",
"yes. The DNA damage response along the proton beam path was similar to the response of X rays, confirming the low-LET quality of the proton exposure. However, at the distal end of SOBP our data indicate an increased complexity of DNA lesions and slower repair kinetics. A lack of significant induction of 53BP1 foci in the bystander cells suggests a minor role of cell signaling for DNA damage under these conditions.",
"Reliable determination of intrinsic radiosensitivity in individual patients is a serious need in radiation oncology. Chromosomal aberrations are sensitive indicators of a previous exposure to ionizing irradiation. Former molecular cytogenetic studies showed that such aberrations as an equivalent of intrinsic radiosensitivity can be detected by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) techniques using whole chromosome painting (wcp) probes. However, only one up to three randomly chosen wcp probes have been applied for such approaches until now. As a random distribution of chromosomal rearrangements along the chromosomes is up to now still controversial, the power of the 24-color FISH approach should be elucidated in the present study. Lymphocytes derived from lymphoblastoid cell lines of one patient with Nijmegen breakage syndrome (NBS homozygote) and of two NBS heterozygotes and peripheral blood lymphocytes of two controls were analyzed. Samples of each patient/control were irradiated in vitro with 0.0 Gy, 0.7 Gy or 2.0 Gy prior to cultivation. Chromosomal aberrations were analyzed in detail and quantified by means of 24-color FISH as an expression of the individual intrinsic radiosensitivity. 24-color FISH analyses were done in a total of 1,674 metaphases. After in-vitro irradiation, 21% (0.7 Gy) or 57% (2.0 Gy) of the controls' cells, 15% (0.7 Gy) or 53% (2.0 Gy) of the heterozygotes' cells and 54% (0.7 Gy) or 79% (2.0 Gy) of the homozygote's cells contained aberrations. The highest average rates of breaks per mitosis [B/M] (0.7 Gy: 1.80 B/M, 2.0 Gy: 4.03 B/M) and complex chromosomal rearrangements [CCR](0.7 Gy: 0.20 CCR/M, 2.0 Gy: 0.47 CCR/M) were observed in the NBS patient. Moreover, the proportion of different aberration types after irradiation showed a distinct increase in the rate of CCR combined with a decrease in dicentrics in the NBS homozygote.",
"Exposure to environmental, diagnostic, and occupational sources of radiation frequently involves low doses. Although these doses have no immediately noticeable impact on human health there is great interest in their long-term biological effects. To assess immediate and time-delayed DNA damage in two cell lines exposed to low doses of ionizing radiation by using the comet assay and micronucleus test, and to compare these two techniques in the analysis of low-dose induced genotoxicity. CHO and MRC-5 cells were exposed to 50 milliSievert (mSv) of ionizing radiation and assayed immediately after irradiation and at 16 or 12 passages post-irradiation, respectively. Comet assay and micronucleus test were employed. The comet assay values observed in 50 mSv-treated cells were significantly higher than in the control group for both sample times and cell lines (P < 0.001). Micronuclei frequencies were higher in treated cells than in the control group (P < 0.01, CHO cells passage 16; P < 0.05, MRC-5 cells immediately after exposure; P < 0.01 MRC-5 cells passage 12). Correlation analysis between the two techniques was statistically significant (correlation coefficient 0.82, P < 0.05 and correlation coefficient 0.86, P < 0.05 for CHO and MRC-5 cells, respectively). Cells scored at passages 12 or 16 showed more damage than those scored immediately after exposure in both cell lines (no statistically significant differences).",
"Efficient mechanisms for rejoining of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) are vital because misrepair of such lesions leads to mutation, aneuploidy and loss of cell viability. DSB repair is mediated by proteins acting in two major pathways, called homologous recombination and nonhomologous end-joining. Repair efficiency is also modulated by other processes such as sister chromatid cohesion, nucleosome remodeling and DNA damage checkpoints. The total number of genes influencing DSB repair efficiency is unknown. To identify new yeast genes affecting DSB repair, genes linked to gamma radiation resistance in previous genome-wide surveys were tested for their impact on repair of site-specific DSBs generated by in vivo expression of EcoRI endonuclease. Eight members of the RAD52 group of DNA repair genes (RAD50, RAD51, RAD52, RAD54, RAD55, RAD57, MRE11 and XRS2) and 73 additional genes were found to be required for efficient repair of EcoRI-induced DSBs in screens utilizing both MATa and MATα deletion strain libraries. Most mutants were also sensitive to the clastogenic chemicals MMS and bleomycin. Several of the non-RAD52 group genes have previously been linked to DNA repair and over half of the genes affect nuclear processes. Many proteins encoded by the protective genes have previously been shown to associate physically with each other and with known DNA repair proteins in high-throughput proteomics studies. A majority of the proteins (64%) share sequence similarity with human proteins, suggesting that they serve similar functions.",
"yes. gammaH2AX focus measurement has limited scope as a pre-RT predictive assay in lymphoblast cell lines from RT patients; however, the assay can successfully identify novel DNA DSB repair-defective patient cell lines, thus potentially facilitating the discovery of novel constitutional contributions to clinical RS.",
"yes. Although normal gammaH2AX foci were regarded as a biomarker for DSBs, the whole nucleus stain pattern might represent DNA damage other than DSBs.",
"To apply a polymer model of DNA damage induced by high-LET (linear energy transfer) radiation and determine the influence of chromosomal domains and loops on fragment length distribution. The yields of DSB (double-strand breaks) induced by high-LET radiation were calculated using a track structure model along with a polymer model of DNA packed in the cell nucleus. The cell nucleus was constructed to include the chromosomal domains and chromatin loops. The latter were generated by the random walk method.",
"We investigated the effect of protein- and non protein-thiol oxidation on DNA double-strand-break (DSB) rejoining after irradiation and its relevance in the survival of CHO cells. We used mutant cells null for glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity since reducing equivalents, required for reduction of oxidized thiols, are typically generated through G6PD regulated production of NADPH. Cellular thiols were oxidized by pre-incubating the cells with hydroxyethyldisulphide (HEDS), the oxidized form of mercaptoethanol (ME). The concentrations of the intracellular and extracellular non-protein thiols (NPSH), glutathione, cysteine and mercaptoethanol were quantitated by HPLC. Protein thiols (PSH) were estimated using Ellman's reagent. Cell survival was determined by clonogenic assay. The induction and rejoining of DSB in cells was quantitated by Pulse Field Gel Electrophoresis after exposure to ionizing radiation. Much lower bioreduction of HEDS was found in the G6PD deficient mutants (E89) than in the wild-type cells (K1). A 1 h treatment of E89 cells with HEDS produced almost complete depletion of non-protein thiol (NPSH) and a 26% decrease in protein thiols. Only minor changes were found under similar conditions with K1 cells. When exposed to gamma radiation in the presence of HEDS, the G6PD null mutants exhibited a higher cell killing and decreased rate and extent of rejoining of DSB than were observed in K1 cells. Moreover, when the G6PD deficient cells were transfected with the gene encoding wild-type G6PD (A1A), they recovered close to wild-type cellular thiol status, cell survival and DSB rejoining.",
"no. From the results, it was concluded that the enhanced chromosomal radiosensitivity in B-cells is restricted to low doses (<1 Gy) of low LET radiation and that the chromosomal behaviour of B-cells to low LET radiation cannot be attributed to aberrant forms of the DNA-PK components. A type of chromosomal induced radioresistance (IRR) may be a possible explanation for the observed effect.",
"Following in utero exposure to low dose radiation (10-200 mGy), we recently observed a linear induction of DNA double-strand breaks (DSB) and activation of apoptosis in the embryonic neuronal stem/progenitor cell compartment. No significant induction of DSB or apoptosis was observed following exposure to magnetic fields (MF). In the present study, we exploited this in vivo system to examine whether exposure to MF before and after exposure to 100 mGy X-rays impacts upon DSB repair rates. 53BP1 foci were quantified following combined exposure to radiation and MF in the embryonic neuronal stem/progenitor cell compartment. Embryos were exposed in utero to 50 Hz MF at 300 μT for 3 h before and up to 9 h after exposure to 100 mGy X-rays. Controls included embryos exposed to MF or X-rays alone plus sham exposures. Exposure to MF before and after 100 mGy X-rays did not impact upon the rate of DSB repair in the embryonic neuronal stem cell compartment compared to repair rates following radiation exposure alone.",
"Ataxia Telangiectasia (A-T) heterozygotes constitute 0.36-1% of the general population. They have a higher risk of developing several types of cancer and may be more likely to suffer side-effects following radiotherapy than the general population. Their identification is both labor- and time-consuming and the sensitivity and specificity of the methods employed has not been evaluated. This paper describes a new approach to the identification of A-T heterozygotes based on a two-tier analysis of histone H2AX phosphorylation. We compared the T-cell phenotype after exposure to 2 Gy in nine obligate A-T heterozygotes and 17 normal donors. Examined end points were histone H2AX phosphorylation by flow cytometry 1 h after irradiation (kinase proficiency) and the residual gamma-H2AX foci by confocal microscopy 72 h after irradiation (DSB repair proficiency). The sequential use of these two methods results in 100% positive predictive value (PPV), 67% negative predictive value (NPV), 78% sensitivity, and 100% specificity. The overall hit rate, i.e. the ratio between the true positives plus the true negatives and the total number of observations was 85%.",
"yes. These results suggest that methylproamine acts by preventing the formation of DNA double-strand breaks (dsbs) and support the hypothesis that radioprotection by methylproamine is mediated, at least in part, by decreasing initial DNA damage.",
"yes. We have demonstrated a significant radiation dose enhancement using EpoB in DAB2IP-deficient prostate cancer cells. This radiosensitization can be attributed to delayed DSB repair, prolonged G(2) block, and increased apoptosis in cells entering the cell cycle after G(2)/M arrest.",
"DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs) caused by ionizing radiation or by the stalling of DNA replication forks are among the most deleterious forms of DNA damage. The ability of cells to recognize and repair DSBs requires post-translational modifications to histones and other proteins that facilitate access to lesions in compacted chromatin, however our understanding of these processes remains incomplete. UHRF1 is an E3 ubiquitin ligase that has previously been linked to events that regulate chromatin remodeling and epigenetic maintenance. Previous studies have demonstrated that loss of UHRF1 increases the sensitivity of cells to DNA damage however the role of UHRF1 in this response is unclear. We demonstrate that UHRF1 plays a critical role for facilitating the response to DSB damage caused by gamma-irradiation. UHRF1-depleted cells exhibit increased sensitivity to gamma-irradiation, suggesting a compromised cellular response to DSBs. UHRF1-depleted cells show impaired cell cycle arrest and an impaired accumulation of histone H2AX phosphorylation (gammaH2AX) in response to gamma-irradiation compared to control cells. We also demonstrate that UHRF1 is required for genome integrity, in that UHRF1-depleted cells displayed an increased frequency of chromosomal aberrations compared to control cells.",
"To elaborate the B-cell micronucleus (MN) response in the low-dose region in detail and to investigate the postulated deficiency in DNA-PK in B-cells. Lymphocytes of five healthy volunteers were irradiated with low LET gamma-rays and high LET fast neutrons with doses ranging between 0.01 and 2 Gy. After post-irradiation incubation, B- and T-cells were isolated via CD3 and CD19 immunomagnetic microbeads. MN were analysed in both subpopulations. To study the underlying mechanism of chromosomal radiosensitivity, cell extracts prepared from purified B- and T-cells were subjected to SDS-electrophoresis and electroblotting using antibodies directed against the DNA-PK repair enzymes Ku70/86 and DNA-PKcs. Activity measurements were performed using the SignaTECT DNA-dependent protein kinase assay. DNA double-strand break (DSB) induction and rejoining was determined using constant-field gel electrophoresis. For low LET gamma-rays a higher MN yield was observed in B-cells than in T-cells, but only in those samples exposed to doses < 1 Gy. For 1 Gy, the MN yields were comparable and for 2Gy even lower in B-cells compared with T-cells. After high LET neutron irradiation no significant differences in MN yields were observed between both subsets. The results of the DNA-PK experiments demonstrate that there is no difference between T- and B-cells in the basal expression and activity of DNA-PK repair proteins. No differences in DNA DSB induction and rejoining were found between T- and B-cells using constant-field gel electrophoresis.",
"yes. Together, our results indicate that selective DSB repair accounts for crossover suppression near centromeres and suggest a simple telomere-guided mechanism that ensures sufficient DSB activity on all chromosomes.",
"yes. It was suggested that NHEJ is the major process used to repair X-ray-induced DSBs and utilises DNA-PKcs activity, but homologous recombination repair provides additional secondary levels of DSB repair. The thermo-sensitisation in X-ray-irradiated cells depends on the inhibition of NHEJ repair through the depression of DNA-PKcs activities.",
"gamma-H2AX foci as a biomarker for DNA damage indicate that radiation risk estimates according to the linear-no-threshold hypothesis are possibly underestimates. Great care should be taken to minimize and optimize patient radiation exposure.",
"yes. These data demonstrate that YTR107-mediated targeting of NPM1 impairs DNA DSB repair, an event that increases radiation sensitivity.",
"Low dose-rate radioimmunotherapy (RIT) using (125)I-labelled monoclonal antibodies ((125)I-mAbs) is associated with unexpected high cytotoxicity per Gy. We investigated whether this hypersensitivity was due to lack of detection of DNA damage by the targeted cells. DNA damage was measured with the alkaline comet assay, gamma-H2AX foci and the micronucleus test in p53(-/-) and p53(+/+) HCT116 cells exposed to increasing activities of internalizing anti-HER1 (125)I-mAbs or non-internalizing anti-CEA (125)I-mAbs. The expression of proteins involved in radiation response and progression of cells through the cycle were determined. Cell hypersensitivity to low absorbed doses of anti-CEA (125)I-mAbs was not due to defect in DNA damage detection, since ATM (ataxia telangiectasia mutated gene), gamma-H2AX, p53 and p21 were activated in RIT-treated HCT116 cells and G2/M cell cycle arrest was observed. Moreover, the alkaline comet assay showed that DNA breaks accumulated when cells were placed at 4°C during exposure but were repaired under standard RIT conditions (37°C), suggesting that lesions detected under alkaline conditions (mostly DNA single strand breaks and alkali-labile sites) are efficiently repaired in treated cells. The level of gamma-H2AX protein corroborated by the level of foci measured in nuclei of treated cells was shown to accumulate with time thereby suggesting the continuous presence of DNA double strand breaks. This was accompanied by the formation of micronuclei.",
"DNA replication is a promising target for anti-cancer therapies. Therefore, the understanding of replication-associated DNA repair mechanisms is of great interest. One key factor of DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair is the PIK kinase Ataxia-Telangiectasia Mutated (ATM) but it is still unclear whether ATM is involved in the repair of replication-associated DSBs. Here, we focused on the involvement of ATM in homology-directed repair (HDR) of indirect DSBs associated with replication. Experiments were performed using ATM-deficient and -proficient human cells. Replication-associated DSBs were induced with Topotecan (TPT) and compared with γ-irradiation (IR). Cell survival was measured by clonogenic assay. Overall DSB repair and HDR were evaluated by detecting residual γH2AX/53BP1 and Rad51 foci, respectively. Cell cycle distribution was analysed by flow cytometry and protein expression by Western blot. ATM-deficiency leads to enhanced numbers of residual DSBs, resulting in a pronounced S/G2-block and decreased survival upon TPT-treatment. In common with IR, persisting Rad51 foci were detected following TPT-treatment.",
"It has been proposed previously that the ratio of complete to incomplete translocations as seen by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), the S value, can be a cytogenetic fingerprint of exposure to radiation of different qualities. Results from a previous study suggested that the S value is approximately 10 for sparsely ionizing radiations such as X- and gamma-rays, and 2 for densely ionizing radiations. Based on FISH data of atomic-bomb (A-bomb) survivors, which showed an S value of 3.25, a significant neutron component to A-bomb radiation was suggested. To examine the possibility, the present in vitro study was conducted using X-rays. Human blood lymphocytes were exposed to X-rays and first metaphases were examined with FISH using DNA probes for chromosomes 1, 2 and 4. The S value was 3.16 for X-rays, which differs from approximately 10 as reported previously, and not larger than the 3.25 obtained from the blood lymphocytes of A-bomb survivors.",
"Cellular sensitivity to radiotherapy total dose and fraction size is strongly influenced by DNA double strand break (DSB) repair. Here, we investigate response to radiotherapy fraction size using CHO cell lines deficient in specific DNA repair pathways in response to radiation induced DNA double strand breaks (DSB). We irradiated CHO cell lines, AA8 (WT), irs1SF (XRCC3-), V3-3 (DNA-PKcs-) and EM9 (XRCC1-) with 16 Gy in 1 Gy daily fractions over 3 weeks or 16 Gy in 4 Gy daily fractions over 4 days, and studied clonogenic survival, DNA DSB repair kinetics (RAD51 and 53BP1 foci staining) and cell cycle profiles (flow cytometry). In response to fractionated radiotherapy, wild-type and DNA repair defective cells accumulated in late S/G2 phase. In cells proficient in homologous recombination (HR), accumulation in S/G2 resulted in reduced sensitivity to fraction size and increased cellular resistance (clonogenic survival). Sensitivity to fraction size was also lost in NHEJ-defective V3-3 cells, which likely rely on functional HR. By contrast, HR-defective irs1SF cells, with functional NHEJ, remained equally sensitive to fractionation throughout the 3-week treatment.",
"Sublethal damage repair (SLDR) is a type of repair that occurs in split-dose irradiated cells, which was discovered more than 50 years ago. However, due to conflicting reported data, it remains unclear which DNA double-strand break (DSB) repair pathway, non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ) repair, homologous recombination repair (HRR) or both, contributes to SLDR, particularly in human cells. We were interested in clarifying this question. Mammalian cell lines, including human, mouse and Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cell lines, wild type, deficient in NHEJ or HRR were irradiated with either single dose or two split doses at 2- or 4-h intervals. The clonogenic assay was used to evaluate these cell radiosensitivities. All wild-type or HRR-deficient cells (including human, mouse and CHO cells) showed a higher survival rate after exposure to split-dose versus single-dose radiation; however, all classical NHEJ-deficient cells (including human, mouse and hamster cells) did not show any apparent sensitivity changes between single-dose and split-dose irradiation.",
"yes. The extreme radiosensitivity of the SCC SKX seen both in vivo and in vitro can be ascribed to a reduced DNA double-strand break repair, resulting from a defect in NHEJ. This defect might be due to preferred usage of other pathways, such as SSA, which prevents efficient endjoining.",
"yes. The lack of radiosensitization by E4-34k expression is quite intriguing as it is known that E4-34k interaction with DNA-PK(cs) causes disruption of V(D)J recombination, a process dependent on DSB rejoining. These data suggest that for future studies, preferential targeting of DNA-PK(cs) DSB activity will be required to influence cellular radiosensitivity.",
"Heat radiosensitization is poorly understood but is believed to be caused by an inhibition in the repair of radiation-induced DNA lesions. This inhibition in DNA repair may be caused either by direct heat inactivation of repair enzymes, or by heat-induced protein denaturation that leads to their precipitation onto nuclear chromatin structures, generating a barrier that prevents repair enzymes from reaching the damage sites. A previously described (Ganguly and Iliakis, Int J Radiat Biol 1995, 68, 447-457) cell-free assay was introduced to evaluate rejoining of radiation-induced DNA double-strand breaks (dsb) in heated (45.5 degrees C, 20 min) nuclei prepared from A549 cells, in reactions assembled with extracts of non-heated and non-irradiated HeLa cells. The assay allowed the functional evaluation of the effect of precipitated nuclear protein on dsb rejoining. By combining heated nuclei with extracts of non-heated cells the assay avoided complications that would otherwise arise when intact cells are studied, where both nuclear structures and repair factors are heated and therefore potentially altered. It was observed that exposure of A549 cells to 45.5 degrees C for 20 min caused a 50% increase in the relative protein content of isolated nuclei but had no effect on the in vitro rejoining of dsb. In agreement with earlier reports, a greatly reduced rate of dsb rejoining was observed either in intact A549 or HeLa cells after exposure to heat.",
"no. For experimental conditions under which radiosensitization was observed, neither the induction nor the repair of DNA dsbs after ionizing radiation were affected by F-ara-A or dFdC.",
"To evaluate the ability of magnetic resonance (MR) imaging to induce deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) damage in patients who underwent cardiac MR imaging in daily routine by using γ-H2AX immunofluorescence microscopy. This study complies with the Declaration of Helsinki and was performed according to local ethics committee approval. Informed patient consent was obtained. Blood samples from 45 patients (13 women, 32 men; mean age, 50.3 years [age range, 20-89 years]) were obtained before and after contrast agent-enhanced cardiac MR imaging. MR imaging-induced double-strand breaks (DSBs) were quantified in isolated blood lymphocytes by using immunofluorescence microscopy after staining the phosphorylated histone variant γ-H2AX. Twenty-nine patients were examined with a myocarditis protocol (group A), 10 patients with a stress-testing protocol (group B), and six patients with flow measurements and angiography (group C). Paired t test was performed to compare excess foci before and after MR imaging. The mean baseline DSB level before MR imaging and 5 minutes after MR imaging was, respectively, 0.116 DSB per cell ± 0.019 (standard deviation) and 0.117 DSB per cell ± 0.019 (P = .71). There was also no significant difference in DSBs in these subgroups (group A: DSB per cell before and after MR imaging, respectively, 0.114 and 0.114, P = .91; group B: DSB per cell before and after MR imaging, respectively, 0.123 and 0.124, P = .78; group C: DSB per cell before and after MR imaging, respectively, 0.114 and 0.115, P = .36).",
"yes. We have demonstrated that impaired DSB DNA repair may underlie enhanced treatment sensitivity of HPV-positive HNSCC and repair capacity following platinum-induced DNA damage predicts response in HNSCC. This has potential as a biomarker for patient selection in trials of DNA damage response pathway modulation.",
"yes. Current study suggests that γ-H2AX assay may fulfil the role of a rapid and sensitive biomarker that can be used for epidemiological studies to measure variations in radiosensitivity. DSB repair gene polymorphisms can impact the formation and repair of DSBs.",
"Squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs) are characterized by moderate radiosensitivity. We have established the human head & neck SCC cell line SKX, which shows an exceptionally high radiosensitivity. It was the aim of this study to understand the underlying mechanisms. Experiments were performed with SKX and FaDu, the latter taken as a control of moderate radiosensitivity. Cell lines were grown as xenografts as well as cell cultures. For xenografts, radiosensitivity was determined via local tumour control assay, and for cell cultures using colony assay. For cell cultures, apoptosis was determined by Annexin V staining and G1-arrest by BrdU labelling. Double-strand breaks (DSBs) were detected by both constant-field gel electrophoresis (CFGE) and gammaH2AX-foci technique; DSB rejoining was also assessed by in vitro rejoining assay; chromosomal damage was determined by G01-assay. Compared to FaDu, SKX cells are extremely radiosensitive as found for both xenografts (TCD(50) for 10 fractions 46.0Gy [95% C.I.: 39; 54 Gy] vs. 18.9 Gy [95% C.I.: 13; 25Gy]) and cell cultures (D(0.01); 7.1 vs. 3.5Gy). Both cell lines showed neither radiation-induced apoptosis nor radiation-induced permanent G1-arrest. For DSBs, there was no difference in the induction but for repair with SKX cells showing a higher level of both, slowly repaired DSBs and residual DSBs. The in vitro DSB repair assay revealed that SKX cells are defective in nonhomologous endjoining (NHEJ), and that more than 40% of DSBs are rejoined by single-strand annealing (SSA). SKX cells also depicted a two-fold higher number of lethal chromosomal aberrations when compared to FaDu cells.",
"To study the correlation of residual DNA double-strand breakage after irradiation and cellular radiosensitivity in cells showing marked differences in radiosensitivity. The levels of DNA double-strand breaks remaining at 4 h after irradiation were measured by graded-voltage gel electrophoresis in fibroblast cell strains derived from seven individuals either with normal radiosensitivity (n = 2), or with genetic abnormalities known to show increased (two ataxia telangiectasia, one scid) or possibly decreased (two Li-Fraumeni family members) sensitivity. The slope of the dose-response curve for DNA breaks remaining unrepaired at 4 h showed a highly significant correlation with cellular radiosensitivity characterized by SF2, alpha, or D (r > or = 0.91, P < 0.001). Hence, this measure of genotoxic damage was predictive of radiation sensitivity for cells affected by a variety of mutations in different damage signalling/repair components.",
"no. The present data support the idea that unligated/unrejoined double-stranded DNA ends are generated during the repair of lesions from bifunctional alkylators. The rate of subsequent rejoining is in the order of magnitude of the slow rejoining of radiation-induced double-strand breaks. Processing of double-stranded DNA damage from either 4-hydroperoxyifosfamid or radiation exposure is apparently unaffected in combined treatments.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate if defective repair of DNA double-strand break (DSB) in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) could be used as an early predictor of treatment response. Tumour biopsy 24-36 h following induction chemotherapy (IC) and pre-treatment biopsies were stained for RAD51 and geminin (S-phase marker) for immunofluorescence in patients with HNSCC. The difference between RAD51 score (percentage of geminin-positive cells that were also positive for RAD51) was calculated for the two specimens. Tumours with a percentage difference of⩽10% were deemed to have repaired IC-induced DSBs, and were classified as 'RAD51 negative'. Response at 3 months post treatment and human papilloma virus (HPV) status were assessed. Thirteen pairs of samples were available for analyses. Three samples were classified as RAD51 negative and 10 as RAD51 positive at 24 h post IC. All of the three patients with tumours classified as RAD51 negative had partial response or progressive disease and the 10 patients with tumours deemed RAD51 positive had a complete response. 100% of the HPV-positive tumours were RAD51 positive and had a complete response.",
"About 1-5% of cancer patients suffer from significant normal tissue reactions as a result of radiotherapy (RT). It is not possible at this time to predict how most patients' normal tissues will respond to RT. DNA repair dysfunction is implicated in sensitivity to RT particularly in genes that mediate the repair of DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs). Phosphorylation of histone H2AX (phosphorylated molecules are known as gammaH2AX) occurs rapidly in response to DNA DSBs, and, among its other roles, contributes to repair protein recruitment to these damaged sites. Mammalian cell lines have also been crucial in facilitating the successful cloning of many DNA DSB repair genes; yet, very few mutant cell lines exist for non-syndromic clinical radiosensitivity (RS). Here, we survey DNA DSB induction and repair in whole cells from RS patients, as revealed by gammaH2AX foci assays, as potential predictive markers of clinical radiation response. With one exception, both DNA focus induction and repair in cell lines from RS patients were comparable with controls. Using gammaH2AX foci assays, we identified a RS cancer patient cell line with a novel ionising radiation-induced DNA DSB repair defect; these data were confirmed by an independent DNA DSB repair assay.",
"To propose a novel interpretation of DNA double-strand break (dsb) repair based on the distribution of energy micro-deposition. Double-strand break repair curves were studied either after irradiation at 4 degrees C or at 37 degrees C (low dose rate). Two human fibroblast cell lines were used: a control line, HF19, and an ataxia telangiectasia repair-deficient line, AT5BI. Irradiations were made with gamma-rays or alpha-particles (241Am). Repair data were fitted by the variable repair half-time (VRHT) model. Assuming that each dsb has its own inherent repair half-time (IRHT) and that the VRHT is the average of the IRHT at any time during repair, the distribution of the IRHT was calculated. At the end of the irradiation, the distribution was a continuous asymmetric curve with a maximum of dsb having a short IRHT. After 1 h of repair, the curve became bell-shaped. There is a striking similarity between the distribution of dsb repair half-times and that of energy micro-deposition described by Goodhead et al. (1993).",
"To overcome the underestimation of the small residual damage when measuring DNA double-strand breaks (DSB) as fraction of activity released (FAR) by pulsed-field gel electrophoresis. The techniques used to assess DNA damage (e.g. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, neutral elution, comet assay) do not directly measure the number of DSB. The Blöcher model can be used to express data as DSB after irradiation at 4 degrees C by calculating the distribution of all radiation-induced DNA fragments as a function of their size. We have used this model to measure the residual DSB (irradiation at 4 degrees C followed by incubation at 37 degrees C) in untransformed human fibroblasts. The DSB induction rate after irradiation at 4 degrees C was 39.1+/-2.0 Gy(-1). The DSB repair rate obtained after doses of 10 to 80 Gy followed by repair times of 0 to 24 h was expressed as unrepaired DSB calculated from the Blöcher formula. All the damage appeared to be repaired at 24h when the data were expressed as FAR, whereas 15% of DSB remained unrepaired. The DSB repair rate and the chromosome break repair rate assessed by premature condensation chromosome (PCC) techniques were similar.",
"The expression of repair data in terms of FAR dramatically underestimates the amount of unrepaired DNA damage. The Blöcher model that takes into account the size distribution of radiation-induced DNA fragments should therefore be used to avoid this bias. Applied to a normal human fibroblast cell line, this model shows that DSB repair is never complete."
] | 288 |
Contracting for quality: does length matter? | [
"To examine whether longer-term contracts for health services will shift attention away from concern for finance and activity levels and towards the achievement of better quality services. Analysis of 288 contracts from the British National Health Service (NHS) and 12 semi-structured interviews with staff from provider (NHS hospital trusts) and purchaser (health authorities) organisations. No relationship was found between the duration of a contract and the duration of service specifications or quality frameworks. The annual contracting cycle is concerned largely with ensuring that all parties stay within activity targets and financial constraints, and this is unlikely to be affected by a shift to longer-term contracts. The setting of standards and initiatives to improve quality is largely independent of the contracting process and the duration of contracts, and relies on relationships rather than contracts.",
"It is optimistic to expect longer-term contracts automatically to produce a greater focus on quality and the incentives needed to ensure that improvements in quality are delivered. However, this may not matter as issues of quality are being addressed more appropriately in the British NHS through a variety of other routes."
] | [
"No association was found between the size of the EEA stapler used and stricture formation. EEA size should be determined at surgery by the native esophageal diameter.",
"Under the conditions of the present FEM study, the inlay thickness does not seem to be an important factor influencing the fracture risk of ceramic inlays. However, further studies are necessary to confirm this.",
"yes. It is well recognized that changes in muscle length affect both the muscle's force generating capacity as well as its twitch speed. This relationship is well established in animal preparations. Contrary to animal experiments where length can be directly manipulated in isolated muscles, human experiments require that all muscle length changes be secondary to changes in a joint angle. Such experimental manipulations therefore produce changes in not only muscle length, but also in the muscle's MA. The relative effect of muscle length and MA changes on muscle EMG has not been determined in previous experiments.",
"We hypothesise that due to a lower quality of working life and higher job insecurity, the health and work-related attitudes of temporary workers may be less positive compared to permanent workers. Therefore, we aimed to (1) examine differences between contract groups (i.e. permanent contract, temporary contract with prospect of permanent work, fixed-term contract, temporary agency contract and on-call contract) in the quality of working life, job insecurity, health and work-related attitudes and (2) investigate whether these latter contract group differences in health and work-related attitudes can be explained by differences in the quality of working life and/or job insecurity. Data were collected from the Netherlands Working Conditions Survey 2008 (N = 21,639), and Hypotheses were tested using analysis of variance and cross-table analysis. Temporary work was associated with fewer task demands and lower autonomy and was more often passive or high-strain work, while permanent work was more often active work. Except for on-call work, temporary work was more insecure and associated with worse health and work-related attitude scores than permanent work. Finally, the quality of working life and job insecurity partly accounted for most contract differences in work-related attitudes but not in health.",
"Quantitative coronary analysis (QCA) of the coronary artery and stent size may be influenced by anatomical location in relation to both calibration point and the X-ray tube. The impact of this phenomenon on lesion assessment is undetermined. In total, 427 consecutive patients who underwent PCI with intravascular ultrasound (IVUS)-guidance were enrolled. The minimum stent diameter (MSD) was measured using QCA (MSDQCA) and IVUS (MSDIVUS) analysis. We used reference objects positioned at a different height from the X-ray source to validate our approach. A statistically positive moderate correlation was observed between MSDQCA and MSDIVUS (r=0.649, p=0.001). The mean MSDQCA and MSDIVUS were 3.04±0.49 mm and 2.68±0.47 mm respectively. The difference between MSDQCA and MSDIVUS of >0.75 mm was more frequently observed in the LCx rather than in the LAD (7.4% in the LAD vs. 24.3% in the LCx, p=0.001). The discrepancy between the MSDQCA and MSDIVUS for the LCx was larger than for the LAD, and tended to be larger than for the RCA (13.3% vs. 18.5%, p=0.05 and 18.5% vs. 14.5%, p=0.17). A discrepancy >20% was more frequently observed in the small (≤2.5 mm) than in the large MSDIVUS group (52.7% vs. 25.1%, p=0.001). This discrepancy was more common in the LCx than in the LAD or RCA (48.6% vs. 30.9% vs. 31.2%, p=0.03).",
"The General Medical Services primary care contract for the United Kingdom financially rewards performance in 19 clinical areas, through the Quality and Outcomes Framework. Little is known about how best to determine the size of financial incentives in pay for performance schemes. Our aim was to test the hypothesis that performance indicators with larger population health benefits receive larger financial incentives. We performed cross sectional analyses to quantify associations between the size of financial incentives and expected health gain in the 2004 and 2006 versions of the Quality and Outcomes Framework. We used non-parametric two-sided Spearman rank correlation tests. Health gain was measured in expected lives saved in one year and in quality adjusted life years. For each quality indicator in an average sized general practice we tested for associations first, between the marginal increase in payment and the health gain resulting from a one percent point improvement in performance and second, between total payment and the health gain at the performance threshold for maximum payment. Evidence for lives saved or quality adjusted life years gained was found for 28 indicators accounting for 41% of the total incentive payments. No statistically significant associations were found between the expected health gain and incentive gained from a marginal 1% increase in performance in either the 2004 or 2006 version of the Quality and Outcomes Framework. In addition no associations were found between the size of financial payment for achievement of an indicator and the expected health gain at the performance threshold for maximum payment measured in lives saved or quality adjusted life years.",
"The tendency to choose an HC doctor rather than an alternative was quite low, probably reflecting lack of attractiveness of HC to patients. However, contracting out service production did not additionally decrease patients' willingness to choose an HC doctor. More attention should be paid to improving access, interpersonal quality and continuity of care.",
"Despite a professed preference for high-quality surgeons, the use of publicly available quality reports by MCOs is currently low, and contracting practices for the majority of MCOs do not indicate a systematic selection either for or against surgeons based on their reported mortality scores. This study suggests that policy initiatives to increase the effective use of report cards should be encouraged.",
"yes. Organ quality metrics are less influential predictors of short-term costs than recipient factors. Future studies should focus on recipient characteristics as a way to discern high versus low cost transplantation procedures.",
"yes. The involvement of both clinicians and patient organizations greatly improves the outcome of a tender or procurement process, as does the presence of a legal framework that governs the process.",
"A longer midtrimester cervical length (CL) is associated with an increased chance of cesarean delivery, but CL has not been used to predict the chance of successful trial of labor after cesarean delivery (TOLAC). The objective of this study was to identify whether midtrimester CL improves the prediction of vaginal birth after cesarean delivery (VBAC) among women undergoing a TOLAC. Women with 1 prior cesarean and a singleton gestation in the vertex position who had a routine CL assessment between 18 and 24 weeks and chose to undergo a TOLAC were identified. Midtrimester CL and characteristics identifiable in early prenatal care that have been used in a validated predictive model for VBAC (ie, age, body mass index, race/ethnicity, prior vaginal delivery, prior VBAC, and indication for prior cesarean delivery) were abstracted from the medical record. Multivariable regressions with VBAC as the dependent variable, with and without CL, were created and their predictive capacity compared using receiver-operating characteristic curves and reclassification tables. Of the 678 women who met inclusion criteria, 517 (76.3%) experienced a VBAC. Mean midtrimester CL was lower in women who achieved a VBAC compared with those who required a cesarean delivery in labor (4.3 ± 0.8 cm vs 4.7 ± 0.8 cm, P<.001). In a multivariable logistic regression, midtrimester CL (centimeters) was significantly associated with a reduced chance of VBAC (adjusted odds ratio [aOR], 0.60; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.47-0.76). Although the addition of CL improved the area under the receiver-operating characteristic curve (aOR, 0.695 [95% CI, 0.648-0.743] vs aOR, 0.727 [95% CI, 0.681-0.773]; P = .03), it did not significantly enhance the clinical value of the model, as quantified by net reclassification improvement (P = .11).",
"Recent changes in health care delivery may reduce continuity with the patient's primary care provider (PCP). Little is known about the association between continuity and quality of communication during ongoing efforts to redesign primary care in the Veterans Administration (VA). To evaluate the association between longitudinal continuity of care (COC) with the same PCP and ratings of patient-provider communication during the Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT) initiative. Cross-sectional survey. Four thousand three hundred ninety-three VA outpatients who were assigned to a PCP, had at least three primary care visits to physicians or physician extenders during Fiscal Years 2009 and 2010 (combined), and who completed the Survey of Healthcare Experiences of Patients (SHEP) following a primary care visit in Fiscal Year (FY)2011. Usual Provider of Continuity (UPC), Modified Modified Continuity Index (MMCI), and duration of PCP care were calculated for each primary care patient. UPC and MMCI values were categorized as follows: 1.0 (perfect), 0.75-0.99 (high), 0.50-0.74 (intermediate), and<0.50 (low). Quality of communication was measured using the four-item Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems-Health Plan program (CAHPS-HP) communication subscale and a two-item measure of shared decision-making (SDM). Excellent care was defined using an \"all-or-none\" scoring strategy (i.e., when all items within a scale were rated \"always\"). UPC and MMCI continuity remained high (0.81) during the early phase of PACT implementation. In multivariable models, low MMCI continuity was associated with decreased odds of excellent communication (OR = 0.74, 95 % CI = 0.58-0.95) and SDM (OR = 0.70, 95 % CI = 0.49, 0.99). Abbreviated duration of PCP care (<1 year) was also associated with decreased odds of excellent communication (OR = 0.35, 95 % CI = 0.18, 0.71).",
"To evaluate the relationship between cervical length (CL) and obstetrical outcome in women with placenta previa. Eighty uncomplicated, singleton pregnancies with an antenatally diagnosed previa were categorized based on CL of over 30mm (n=60) or 30mm or less (n=20). A retrospective chart review was then performed for these cases to investigate the relationship between CL and maternal adverse outcomes. The mean CL was 38.5±5.4mm and 26.9±3.2mm and the mean gestational age at measurement was 29.2±2.7 and 28.5±2.7weeks of gestation for the longer and shorter CL groups, respectively. The median estimated blood loss at cesarean section (CS) was significantly higher in the shorter CL group (1302mL vs 2139mL, P=0.023) as was the percentage of patients with massive intraoperative hemorrhage (60.0 vs 18.3%, P=0.001). In the shorter versus longer CL patients, emergent CS before 37weeks (23.3 vs 50.0%, P=0.046) and the percentage of patients with placental adherence (6.7 vs 35.0%, P=0.004) were both significantly more frequent in the shorter CL group. The shorter CL was a risk factor both for massive estimated blood loss (≥2000mL) (odds ratio 6.34, 95% confidence interval 1.91-21.02, P≤0.01) and placental adherence (odds ratio 6.26, 95% confidence interval 1.23-31.87, P≤0.05) in the multivariate analysis.",
"There is a need for more evidence linking particular housing improvements to changes in specific health conditions. Research often looks at generic works over short periods. We use a longitudinal sample (n = 1933) with a survey interval of 2-5 years. Multivariate logistic regression is used to calculate the odds ratios of developing or recovering from six health conditions according to receipt of four types of housing improvements. Receipt of fabric works was associated with higher likelihood of recovery from mental health problems and circulatory conditions. Receipt of central heating was also associated with higher likelihood of recovery form circulatory conditions. No evidence was found for the preventative effects of housing improvements.",
"While there is clearly an important case for local strategic and clinical input into the design of pay-for-performance schemes, this should be kept separate from the technical design process, which involves defining indicators, agreeing thresholds, and setting prices. These tasks require expertise that is unlikely to exist in each locality. The CQUIN framework potentially offered an opportunity to learn how technical design influenced outcome but due to the high degree of local experimentation and little systematic collection of key variables, it is difficult to derive lessons from this unstructured experiment about the impact and importance of different technical design factors on the effectiveness of pay-for-performance. Balancing the policy goal of localism with the objective of improving patient outcomes leads us to conclude that a somewhat firmer national framework would be preferable to a fully locally designed framework.",
"Although additional confirmatory research is needed, this analysis of the quality-cost relationship provides some reassurance for those who question whether selecting lower-cost sources of medical care might have a negative effect on quality of care.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare the added value of motion metrics in determining training completion during a proficiency-based simulator curriculum compared with traditional metrics (time). Novices (n=16) practiced on a basic laparoscopic task of a hybrid simulator until expert-derived proficiency levels for time, path length, and smoothness were achieved on two consecutive attempts. The order by which proficiency in each metric was achieved was recorded and correlated to baseline characteristics. Motion metrics were considered valuable if their incorporation led to extension of training duration. Compared with baseline participant performance improved at training completion according to all metrics (time 67+/-17 to 20+/-6 seconds; P<0.001, pathlength 5326+/-1444 to 2339+/-545 cm; P<0.001, and smoothness from 529+/-185 to 133+/-59; P<0.001). Pathlength was the easiest metric to reach the proficiency level and time the most difficult. Four (33%) participants benefited from the motion metrics as their training was prolonged by an average of 50% compared with using time alone. Baseline characteristics did not correlate to the order of achievement of these metrics.",
"Family-firm connections, in particular, may have a protective effect for youth in construction. Even though the statistical significance of our findings on workgroup size was limited in places, the pattern of differences found suggest that further research in this area is warranted.",
"To evaluate whether core length impacts biopsy accuracy and Gleason score underestimation compared to radical prostatectomy (RP) specimens. From 2010 to 2011, 8,928 cores were trans-rectal obtained from 744 consecutive patients (178 RP, 24%), 557 by an experienced performer (>250/year) and 187 (25%) by in-training urology residents. Prospectively analyzed variables were core length, age, prostate volume, free and total prostate-specific antigen (PSA), PSA density and free/total PSA ratio. Mean core length for Gleason upgrading on RP (42.7%, n = 76) was 11.61 (±2.5, median 11.40) compared to 13.52 (±3.2, median 13.70), p < 0.001 for perfect biopsy-RP Gleason agreement (57.3%, n = 102). In multivariate analysis, for each unit of core length increment in millimeter, the Gleason upgrading risk decreased 89.9%, p = 0.049 [odds ratio (OR) 0.10, 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.01-0.99]. Biopsy positivity between experienced (35.5%) and in-training performer (30.1%) was not significantly different (p = 0.20), with comparable mean patient age (65.1 vs. 64.1), prostate volume (52.3 vs. 50.7) and median PSA (5.2 vs. 5.1), respectively. Denoting wider variability in terms of core length, in-training performers obtained significantly larger cores for positive biopsies (11.33 ± 3.42 vs. 10.83 ± 3.68), p = 0.043, compared to experienced performer (11.39 ± 3.36 vs. 11.37 ± 3.64), p = 0.30. In multivariate analysis, PSA density (OR 1.14, 95% CI 1.02-1.28) and age (OR 1.04, 95% CI 1.01-1.07) were significantly associated with biopsy positivity, p = 0.021 and p = 0.011, respectively.",
"In a pilot study comparing the effectiveness of foam- and gauze-based NPWT systems, no statistically significant differences were found in patient wound healing, pain, length of stay, or cost of wound care. Nursing time and perceptions about the ease of preparing and completing dressing changes did not differ between systems. Additional research is needed to more definitively determine any differences in wound healing or nurse satisfaction using gauze- versus foam-based NPWT systems.",
"To assess the quality of dental casts used in crown and bridge construction. Observational cross-sectional study of dental casts. Commercial dental laboratories and a university dental hospital laboratory in the UK. A sample (n = 150) of working and opposing casts used for crown and bridgework prescribed by general dental practices and a dental hospital were sampled from two commercial dental laboratories and an 'on-site' university dental hospital laboratory respectively. A simple '3 point' assessment scale of quality (good, fair and poor) was used to categorise the casts depending on the clarity of reproduction of soft and hard tissues. The quality of opposing casts used for articulation purposes was significantly better (P<0.001) than that of the working casts. In addition it was found that for working casts the quality in the preparation area(s) was significantly better (p<0.001) than that in areas remote from preparation(s) in the same arch. In general, the quality of casts in the incisal or occlusal surfaces was better than the buccal and lingual surfaces.",
"Fulfillment of patients' expectations may influence health care utilization, affect patient satisfaction, and be used to indicate quality of care. Several different instruments have been used to measure expectations, yet little is known about how different assessment methods affect outcomes. The object of the study was to determine whether different measurement instruments elicit different numbers and types of expectations and different levels of patient satisfaction. Patients waiting to see their physician were randomly assigned to receive 1 of 2 commonly used instruments assessing expectations or were assigned to a third (control) group that was not asked about expectations. After the visit, patients in all 3 groups were asked about their satisfaction and services they received. The study subjects were 290 male, primary care outpatients in a VA general medicine clinic. A \"short\" instrument asked about 3 general expectations for tests, referrals, and new medications, while a \"long\" instrument nested similar questions within a more detailed list. Wording also differed between the 2 instruments. The short instrument asked patients what they wanted; the long instrument asked patients what they thought was necessary for the physician to do. Satisfaction was measured with a visit-specific questionnaire and a more general assessment of physician interpersonal skills. Patients receiving the long instrument were more likely to express expectations for tests (83% vs. 28%, P<0.001), referrals (40% vs. 18%, P<0.001), and new medications (45% vs. 28%, P<0.001). The groups differed in the number of unmet expectations: 40% of the long instrument group reported at least 1 unmet expectation compared with 19% of the short instrument group (P<0.001). Satisfaction was similar among the 3 groups.",
"Contracting out MNCH services at government health facilities can improve facility utilization and bring some improvement in quality of services. However, contracting out of health facilities is insufficient to increase service access across the catchment in remote rural contexts and requires accompanying measures for demand enhancement, transportation access, and targeting of the more disadvantaged clientele.",
"Percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening is frequently done to treat gastrocsoleus equinus contracture. To our knowledge, no study has documented the proximity of tendinous or neurovascular structures to the nearest edges of each hemisection in a percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening, the complication rates related to injury of such structures, or the Achilles tendon rupture rates from inaccurate cuts. Thus, our goal was to document these distances and determine the accuracy of this procedure. We performed triple-hemisection percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening (Hoke technique) in 15 cadaver specimens and documented the distance from each cut edge to various relevant anatomical structures. We also documented the accuracy of each cut (diameter of hemisection divided by total tendon diameter), with a reference goal of 50% transection at each level. We found that percutaneous Achilles tendon lengthening is a relatively accurate procedure with hemisections averaging 50% for the middle cut and 60% at the most proximal cut, and 55% at the distal cut. Some tendinous and neurovascular structures are, on average, less than 1 cm from the nearest margin of a given hemisection and are, therefore, at risk. These included the flexor hallucis longus at the middle and proximal cuts (9.1 mm and 5.7 mm, respectively), the tibial nerve at the proximal cut (8.3 mm), and the sural nerve at the middle-lateral cut (7.9 mm).",
"The guidelines for temporal artery specimens are not being met at our centre. Furthermore, biopsies measuring ≥1 cm are much more common in the small group of positive results. This validates the minimum recommended biopsy length and displays the importance of achieving this standard. We suggest changes to increase the number of biopsies meeting these guidelines, improving the accuracy of this invasive test.",
"Prolonged storage of definitive casts made from Type IV and Type V gypsum products, especially in an environment of increased temperature and low humidity, may result in contraction. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the linear dimensional changes of 5 different high strength stones after exposing them to 2 different storage conditions over a period of 3 weeks. Three Type IV dental stones (Fujirock, Vel-Mix, Suprastone) and 2 Type V dental stones (Hard Rock, Jade Stone) were tested in this study. A circular conical stainless steel die with a diameter of 66 mm and a height of 10 mm was made. Two V-shaped grooves, 38 mm apart, were scribed on the surface of the die for the purposes of measurement. A conical stainless steel ring with a bottom inner diameter of 68 mm and a top inner diameter of 65 mm was also fabricated to fit precisely around the stainless steel die. The dental stone was mixed with water under vacuum and poured under vibration onto the stainless steel die, which was surrounded by the ring. The specimens (n=20) were separated from the stainless steel die 1 hour after pouring. Half of these specimens (control) were stored in a room at 22 ±1°C with relative humidity of 50 ±5%, while the rest of the specimens were placed in a temperature regulating incubator at 40 ±1°C and relative humidity of <20%. The linear dimensional changes were recorded at designated time intervals with a traveling microscope over a 3 week period. Collected data were subjected to a 2-way repeated-measures analysis of variance (ANOVA) (α=.05). The highest expansion values for the specimens in the control group were recorded between 72 and 96 hours. A contraction was noticed thereafter for all specimens, in both groups. No difference in the measurements was registered between the second and third week. ANOVA revealed significant differences (P<.001) among different Type IV and V dental stone products, time, and storage conditions.",
"Three strength tests (compressive, three point flexure and biaxial) were performed on three glass ionomer (GI) restoratives to assess the most appropriate methodology in terms of validity and reliability. The influence of mixing induced variability on the data sets generated were eliminated by using encapsulated GIs. Specimen groups of 40 (eight batches of n=5) cylinders (6.0±0.1mm height, 4.0±0.1mm diameter) for compressive fracture testing, bars (25.0±0.1mm length, 2.0±0.1mm height, 2.0±0.1mm width) for three point flexure testing and discs (13.0±0.1mm diameter, 1.0±0.1mm thickness) for biaxial flexure testing were randomly prepared by an operator. The strength data sets for each GI restorative were pooled and one-way analyses of variance (ANOVAs) were conducted to compare between GI restoratives (p=0.05). The coefficient of variation (CoV) values for each test were pooled and a one-way ANOVA was conducted to test for differences between the reliability of the three tests. For the GI restoratives, the one-way ANOVA showed significant differences when tested in compression (p=0.001) but not when tested in three point (p=0.271) or biaxial (p=0.134) flexure. The pooled CoV values showed no significant difference between the three strength tests (p=0.632).",
"The tendency for high-minority contracts to provide less positive patient experiences for others in the contract, but similar or even more positive patient experiences for concentrated minority group beneficiaries, may reflect cultural competency, particularly language services, that partially or fully counterbalance the poorer overall quality of these contracts. For some beneficiaries, experiences may be just as positive in some high-minority plans with low overall scores as in plans with higher overall scores.",
"no. The outer curvature length more accurately reflects that of the deployed endograft and may prove more accurate than centerlines in planning thoracic endografts.",
"yes. Our results strongly support the maintenance of balloon inflation for at least 30\" during BVS deployment to achieve optimal scaffold expansion and minimize the occurrence of residual stenosis.",
"yes. Standardizing corneal nerve fibre length for tortuosity enhances the ability to differentiate individuals with diabetes, with and without neuropathy.",
"no. Our results suggest that unspecified bilateral biopsies do not automatically lead to reduced core length. We conclude that carefully embedded multiple (three to nine) cores per block may yield cores of equal quality in a more cost-efficient way and that current guidelines favoring individually submitted cores may be too strict.",
"To evaluate reduction of door-to-balloon (DTB) time and its impact on in-hospital mortality of high-risk infarct patients in a collaboration of district general hospitals (DGH) with a physician-to-patient model. Primary percutaneous coronary interventions (PPCI) with short DTB time offer mortality benefit for ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction but literatures are conflicting on this benefit for high- vs. low-risk patients. In a unique model at Sandwell and West Birmingham Hospitals, five interventional cardiologists provide 24-h PPCI at whichever one of its two DGH that patients present to. A retrospective audit was performed on 3 years (July 2005-June 2008) of PPCI data in the British Cardiovascular Intervention Society database. Data were analysed in four periods corresponding to change from daytime-only to 24-h PPCI. DTB time and in-hospital mortality were the main outcome measures. Of the 459 patients, median DTB time improved from 89 min (interquartile range: 49-120) to 68 min (50-91) (p = 0.005) and proportion of patients achieving target 90-min DTB time increased from 53% (21/40) to 75% (93/124) (p = 0.005). In-hospital mortality was less for short DTB time [4.6% (13/284) vs. 11.5% (20/174); odds ratio (OR) 0.37, 95% confidence interval (CI): 0.18-0.75; p = 0.008]. With the proviso that our study was limited in power, long DTB time (> 90 min vs. < or = 90 min) was associated with higher in-hospital mortality in high-risk patients [15.6% (20/128) vs. 7.1% (12/168); OR 2.41, 95% CI: 1.14-5.06; p = 0.024] and not in low-risk patients [0% (0/46) vs. 0.9% (1/117); OR 0, 95% CI: 0-9.88; p = 1.000].",
"It is increasingly recognized that the design characteristics of pay-for-performance schemes are important in determining their impact. One important but under-studied design aspect is the extent to which pay-for-performance schemes reflect local priorities. The English Department of Health White Paper High Quality Care for All introduced a Commissioning for Quality and Innovation (CQUIN) Framework from April 2009, under which local commissioners and providers were required to negotiate and implement an annual pay-for-performance scheme. In 2010/2011, these schemes covered 1.5% (£ 1.0 bn) of NHS expenditure. Local design was intended to offer flexibility to local priorities and generate local enthusiasm, while retaining good design properties of focusing on outcomes and processes with a clear link to quality, using established indicators where possible, and covering three key domains of quality (safety; effectiveness; patient experience) and innovation. We assess the extent to which local design achieved these objectives. Quantitative analysis of 337 locally negotiated CQUIN schemes in 2010/2011, along with qualitative analysis of 373 meetings (comprising 800 hours of observation) and 230 formal interviews (audio-recorded and transcribed verbatim) with NHS staff in 12 case study sites. The local development process was successful in identifying variation in local needs and priorities for quality improvement but the involvement of frontline clinical staff was insufficient to generate local enthusiasm around the schemes. The schemes did not in general live up to the requirements set by the Department of Health to ensure that local schemes addressed the original objectives for the CQUIN framework.",
"Prior work using a large data set has shown that the mechanical properties of wood disproportionately increase with increasing wood density across diverse species, e.g., stems composed of denser wood are stiffer and stronger than stems with equivalent cross-sections composed of less dense wood. However, an alternative approach, introducing the precondition of constant construction cost for the same data set, adduces that for any given construction cost, stems composed of lesser dense woods are stiffer and stronger then stems composed of denser woods. We evaluated these two approaches using generic allometric principles and the same large data set. This evaluation shows that construction costs cannot be constant over an entire ensemble of stems composed of different species of wood. For any specified construction cost (denoted by a k-value), only a particular subgroup of stems is addressed. The conclusions derived for this subgroup cannot be generalized to the entire ensemble of stems composed of different species of wood.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine whether the SPRINT definition of a \"critical-sized defect\" (fracture gap at least 1 cm in length and involving over 50% of the cortical diameter) was accurate, to discern which factors predict reoperation in patients with these defects, and to compare the patient-based outcomes of these patients with patients without a critical defect. Therapeutic Cohort Study. Level 1 and level 2 trauma centers. Thirty-seven patients in the SPRINT trial with a critical-sized defect participated. We evaluated these patients for planned and unplanned secondary intervention to gain union. Additionally, we evaluated which other factors predicted the need for reoperation. Finally, the 37 patients with a critical defect were compared with the larger cohort of patients without a defect with respect to demographics, mechanism of injury, fracture characteristics, and patient-based outcome. Revision surgery for tibial nonunion. Of the 37 patients with a large fracture gap, 7 patients had a planned secondary procedure. Of the remaining 30 patients in whom the attending surgeon adopted a \"watch and wait\" strategy, 14 patients (47%) never required additional surgery to gain union. Additional surgery to gain union was less likely in patients treated with a reamed nail (P = 0.04) and in female patients (P = 0.04). Patients with a critical-sized defect were more likely to have a high-energy mechanism of injury (P = 0.001), AO-OTA fracture type 42 B or C (P<0.001), and location involving the middle third of the tibia (P = 0.02). The 12-month SF-36 physical component summary score in patients with a critical-sized defect was 38.2 ± 10.5 (mean ± SD) compared with 43.3 ± 10.7 in those without a critical defect (P = 0.02, difference = 5.2, 95% confidence interval = 0.8-9.6).",
"Doctors' professional behaviour is influenced by the way they are paid. When GPs are paid per item, i.e., on a fee-for-service basis (FFS), there is a clear relationship between workload and income: more work means more money. In the case of capitation based payment, workload is not directly linked to income since the fees per patient are fixed. In this study list size was considered as an indicator for workload and we investigated how list size and remuneration affect GP decisions about how they provide consultations. The main objectives of this study were to investigate a) how list size is related to consultation length, waiting time to get an appointment, and the likelihood that GPs conduct home visits and b) to what extent the relationships between list size and these three variables are affected by remuneration. List size was used because this is an important determinant of objective workload. List size was corrected for number of older patients and patients who lived in deprived areas. We focussed on three dependent variables that we expected to be related to remuneration and list size: consultation length; waiting time to get an appointment; and home visits. Data were derived from the second Dutch National Survey of General Practice (DNSGP-2), carried out between 2000 and 2002. The data were collected using electronic medical records, videotaped consultations and postal surveys. Multilevel regression analyses were performed to assess the hypothesized relationships. Our results indicate that list size is negatively related to consultation length, especially among GPs with relatively large lists. A correlation between list size and waiting time to get an appointment, and a correlation between list size and the likelihood of a home visit were only found for GPs with small practices. These correlations are modified by the proportion of patients for whom GPs receive capitation fees. Waiting times to get an appointment tend to become shorter with increasing patient lists when there is a larger capitation percentage. The likelihood that GPs will conduct home visit rises with increasing patient lists when the capitation percentage is small.",
"yes. In the present study, the use of a 25-mm, 3.5-mm staple height circular stapler was associated with a decreased rate of anastomotic stenosis.",
"Practical durations of stretching (2, 4, or 8 min) of the plantarflexors did not decrease isometric PT compared with the CON but caused temporary improvements in the ROM, thereby questioning the overall detrimental influence of PS on performance.",
"yes. Our data support an association between the risk of SICH and a longer procedure time, but no association between procedural times and the final infarction volume or long-term functional outcomes was found.",
"Prostate cancer detection in biopsies increases with the number of sites and total tissue sampled. Its dependence on needle core fragment length is uncertain. We surveyed two consecutive series of sextant needle biopsies from two practices in 1998 to 2000: 251 patients from Pennsylvania (group P) and 1596 from Virginia (group V). We tabulated the gross needle core lengths per sextant site and classified the diagnoses as benign or into four nonbenign categories: high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia; atypical small acinar proliferation, suspicious; atypical small acinar proliferation, suspicious plus high-grade prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia; and cancer. Logistic regression analysis was used to correlate cancer or a nonbenign diagnosis with the total length (sum of six sites) and, after excluding the sites with more than one core, with the length per single core, and the anatomic site of origin (apex, mid-gland, base). The mean total tissue length sampled was 108 +/- 27 mm (range 30 to 275) in group P and 81 +/- 22 mm (range 30 to 228) in group V. Sextant sites with a single core contained a mean of 12.8 +/- 3.5 mm tissue, with a 3.6-fold variation among the middle 95%. Group V core lengths at the apex averaged 11.8 mm, shorter (P = 0.0001) than mid (13.3 mm) or base (12.7 mm). A predictive value of longer length for a nonbenign diagnosis was noted in four of six sextants (P <0.04), with trend strongest at the apex, for which detection was influenced by abnormal digital rectal examination (P = 0.02) or ultrasound (P = 0.04) findings.",
"yes. Stent length may be a contributing factor of suboptimal stent expansion in angiography-guided PCI.",
"yes. We found low quality evidence that was insufficient to conclude whether or not there is a difference in bond failure rate between SEPs and conventional etching systems when bonding fixed orthodontic appliances over a five- to 37-month follow-up. Insufficient data were also available to allow any conclusions to be formed regarding the superiority of SEPs or conventional etching for the outcomes: decalcification, participant satisfaction and cost-effectiveness, or regarding the superiority of different etching materials, concentrations or etching times, or of any one SEP over another. Further well-designed RCTs on this topic are needed to provide more evidence in order to answer these clinical questions.",
"As there was no significant difference in the insertion depth between the shorter instrument (Olympus SIF-100) and the longer one (Olympus SIF-Q140), it can be concluded from this preliminary study that there is no advantage in using a longer enteroscope. To document a significant difference, further studies with a larger numbers of patients would be necessary.",
"Our interim analysis showed that elective repair of subclinical stenosis in AVFs with Qa>500 mL/min cost-effectively reduces the risk of thrombosis and access loss in comparison with the approach of the Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) guidelines, raising the question of whether the currently recommended criteria for assessing and treating stenosis should be reconsidered.",
"yes. Increasing the sagittal alignment of the distal femoral cut more than 3.5° from the mechanical axis is an independent risk factor for clinically detectable flexion contracture one year from index procedure.",
"Overall, limited functional differences were found between the two groups in this small pilot study, so a superior surgical technique could not be determined; whereas our limited sample size prevents a firm conclusion of no difference, our data can be considered hypothesis-generating for future, larger studies. Although some evidence indicated that patients with a bone bridge have improved loading at higher speeds, a regression of all patients walking at self-selected speed indicates that as residual limb length increases, loading increases regardless of amputation type. Thus, our data suggest it is important to preserve residual limb length to allow for improved loading in terminal stance.",
"Longitudinal data revealed that after controlling for differences in hospital outcomes that were fixed with time, hospitals performing more surgeries in one period than in another experienced no significant improvement in outcomes. These results do not support the \"practice makes perfect\" hypothesis. The volume-outcome relationship for hip fracture patients thus appears to reflect fixed differences in quality between high-volume and low-volume hospitals.",
"There has been a progressive decline in the length of newly diagnosed BE as a result of an increase in short-segment BE, but, curiously, also because of a decline in long-segment BE (>or =3 cm). These changes cannot be explained fully by changes in demographic features of patients, previous therapy, or the increasing emphasis on IM of the gastric cardia. The role of referral bias and/or temporal changes in the definitions cannot be excluded.",
"yes. The modified disc rupture test is sufficiently sensitive to identify variations in strength of phosphate bonded investment materials caused by differing pore size distributions.",
"Individually submitted prostatic needle biopsies are recommended by most guidelines because of their potential advantage in terms of core quality. However, unspecified bilateral biopsies are commonly submitted in many centers. The length of the core is the key quality indicator of prostate biopsies. Because there are few recent publications comparing the quality of 12 site-designated biopsies versus pooled biopsies, we compared the lengths of the biopsies obtained by both methods. The material was obtained from 471 consecutive subjects who underwent prostatic needle biopsy in the Tampere University Hospital district between January and June 2013. Biopsies from 344 subjects fulfilled the inclusion criteria. The total number of cores obtained was 4047. The core lengths were measured on microscope slides. Extraprostatic tissue was subtracted from the core length. The aggregate lengths observed were 129.5 ± 21.8 mm (mean ± SD) for site-designated cores and 136.9 ± 26.4 mm for pooled cores (p = 0.09). The length of the core was 10.8 ± 1.8 mm for site-designated cores and 11.4 ± 2.2 mm for pooled cores (p = 0.87). The median length for pooled cores was 11 mm (range 5 mm - 18 mm). For individual site-designated cores, the median length was 11 mm (range 7 mm -15 mm). The core length was not correlated with the number of cores embedded into one paraffin block (r = 0.015). There was no significant difference in cancer detection rate (p = 0.62).",
"Withdrawals of health plans from Medicare have affected more than 1.6 million beneficiaries. Some plans claim that providing higher quality care raises costs, lowers profits, and spurs withdrawal because plans cannot sustain high quality care under current payment levels. To assess whether higher performance by Medicare health plans on quality indicators was associated with withdrawal. Retrospective cohort study. Taking each county where a contract was active as a unit of analysis, Medicare managed care plans active in 2310 contract-county combinations in 1997 were studied and followed for 3 years. Independent variables were scores on six indicators from the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) for each contract, collapsed into two summary measures: clinical and ambulatory care access. Separate Cox proportional hazards regressions were used for each indicator, and each summary measure, to assess the association of HEDIS performance with our outcome measure, time-to-withdrawal from Medicare. Multiple potential confounders were adjusted for. Of 2310 managed care contract-county combinations, 877 (38%) withdrew. The proportion of contract-counties with high scores on the summary clinical quality measure that withdrew was one-fifth that for low scorers (4.2% vs. 20.5%). For summary ambulatory care access performance, the corresponding ratio was two-fifths (12.8% vs. 32.0%). Lower payments were associated with higher withdrawal risk, but also higher clinical and ambulatory care access quality performance. In separate multivariable analyses controlling for confounders, both high clinical performance (HR, 0.18; 95% CI, 0.08-0.42) and high ambulatory care access performance (HR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.27-1.07) were independently associated with lower withdrawal risk.",
"In cardiac surgeons' outcomes quality monitoring, individual managed care plans face a \"law of small numbers.\" Insufficient patient volume by contracted surgeons, inadequate variation in outcomes, and low levels of adverse outcomes combine to make true quality almost impossible to infer. Some mitigation may be possible through more effective use of data (more measures and pooling over time) and through more effective interorganizational sharing of data (leveraging specialist society quality data and statewide pooling).",
"To investigate the correlation between length of stay (LOS) and patient satisfaction on the level of hospital wards. The underlying hypothesis is that good quality of care leads both to shorter LOS and to patients that are more satisfied. We used standardized LOS and standardized patient satisfaction data from seven specialisms: internal medicine, cardiology, pulmonology, neurology, general surgery, orthopaedic surgery and obstetrics and gynaecology in the period 2003-2010. All LOS data were derived from the National Medical Registration and patient satisfaction scores were measured by a questionnaire covering six aspects of care. The LOS data were standardized for the year of discharge, age, primary diagnosis and procedure. Patient satisfaction data were standardized for the year, age, education and health status. One hundred and eighty-eight Dutch hospital wards. The patient satisfaction data were gathered by questionnaires returned by 102 815 patients. None. Pearson correlations and two-tailed significance. between standardized mean LOS and standardized mean patient satisfaction score. We found no correlation between LOS and patient satisfaction in six out of seven specialties. We only found significantly higher patient satisfaction scores in pulmonology for some specific items on hospitals wards with a shorter LOS. These items concerned the reception on the ward, the information provided by nurses on admission, the expertise of the nursing staff, the way information was transferred from one person to another and respect for patients' privacy such as in conversations, and during physical examinations.",
"Value-based purchasing does not appear to correlate with improved quality and patient safety as indicated by Hospital Acquired Condition (HAC) scores. This leads us to believe that either the total performance score does not measure what it should, or the quality outcome measurements do not reflect the quality of the total performance scores measure.",
"This study compares the mechanical properties of low-cost stainless steel dynamic compression plates (DCPs) from developing-world manufacturers, adhering to varying manufacturing quality standards, with those of high-cost DCPs manufactured for use in the developed world. Standard-design ten-hole DCPs from six developing-world manufacturers and high-cost DCPs from two manufacturers in the developed world were studied. Nine plates from each manufacturer underwent mechanical testing: six in four-point monotonic bending to assess strength and stiffness and three in four-point bending fatigue. Statistical comparisons of the group means of monotonic bending test data were made, and a qualitative comparison was performed to assess failures in fatigue. Low-cost DCPs from manufacturers with at least one manufacturing quality standard had significantly higher bending strength and fewer failures in fatigue than did those from low-cost manufacturers with no recognised quality standards. High-cost DCPs demonstrated greater bending strength than did those in both low-cost groups. There were no differences in stiffness and fatigue failure between high-cost DCPs and those low-cost DCPs with quality standards. However, high-cost DCPs were significantly less stiff and had fewer fatigue failures than low-cost DCPs manufactured without such standards.",
"yes. Non-glandular sampling was directly associated with shorter core lengths. They were found significantly higher at the base, apex and lateral localizations. We found a 6-mm cutoff value for the prediction of non-glandular samples before the histologic evaluation. Below this value, the risk of non-glandular sampling increased 15-fold. We suggest it for prompt additional sampling during biopsy procedure.",
"Our data suggest that despite frequent complications, bilateral lower limb lengthening increases patients' QOL. We believe lengthening is a reasonable option in selected patients.",
"This study had two aims: (1) to compare the retention of a flexible directly placed fiber-bundle dowel system with that of a rigid prefabricated fiber-reinforced composite (FRC) dowel system, and (2) to determine the effect of decreasing the volume of luting cement around the flexible fiber-bundle dowels on the axial retention of the restorations. Single-canal premolars (n = 36) were decoronated, cleaned, shaped, and prepared for both flexible and rigid dowels to a depth of 10 mm using a size 2 drill. The roots were then randomly allocated into three groups: Ia, Ib, and II (n = 12). Flexible fiber-bundle dowels were placed in groups Ia and Ib. These were available in three fiber-bundle diameters: small (0.9 mm), medium (1.2 mm), and large (1.5 mm). These bundles were luted in the root canals with Variolink II. The differences between Ia and Ib were in the ratio of the volume of fiber-bundles to the volume of luting cement and in the mode of application. Medium fiber-bundles were placed to the end of the preparation in groups Ia and Ib; however, in group Ia, a small diameter auxiliary bundle was placed, whereas in group Ib, a large-diameter auxiliary bundle was cut axially into strips of circa 0.2-mm thickness before being sequentially overlapped in placement. Roots in group II were restored with size 2 rigid prefabricated fiber dowels and luted with the light-cured cement provided by the manufacturer. After 24 hours of storage, axial tensile forces were applied to all luted dowels progressively to failure at 0.5 mm/min. Data were analyzed using a one-way analysis of variance (ANOVA) and the Bonferonni test. The mean axial resistance forces (standard deviation [SD]) for groups Ia, Ib, and II were not statistically different at 166 (49), 157 (36), and 151 (44) N, respectively (p>0.05).",
"yes. The observation that people are willing to travel long distances to get better quality services calls for health policies that prioritize quality of care before quantity. In a situation with limited resources, utilizing available resources to improve quality of care at available facilities could be more appropriate for improving access to health care than increasing the number of facilities. This would also improve equity in health care access since the poor who can not afford travelling costs will then get access to quality services at their nearer PHC facilities.",
"Critics of minimally invasive methods sometimes argue that the summed lengths of all trocar sites have a morbidity similar to that for an open incision of equal length. This argument assumes correctly that pain and scarring are proportional to the total tension normal to a linear incision. But the argument also assumes that total tension sums linearly with incision length. This report demonstrates why that premise is not valid. Wounds of various sizes are compared using a simple mathematical model. The closing tension perpendicular to any linear incision is a function of the incision's length, varying symmetrically together with a maximum at the midpoint of length. If tension rises linearly across an incision, integration of the tension relationship demonstrates that the total wound tension actually is proportional to the square of the length. In this report, incisions of various lengths are modeled, and plausible alternative incision scenarios for various procedures (e.g., Nissen, appendectomy) are compared. Total tension rises nonlinearly with increasing wound length. Thus, total tension across multiple incisions is always less than the total tension for an incision of the same total length. For example, an open appendectomy creates 2.7-fold more wound tension than a laparoscopic appendectomy. Similarly, two 3-mm trocars create less total tension than a single 5-mm trocar.",
"yes. Significant differences were found in the mechanical properties of ten-hole DCP plates from selected manufacturers in the developing and developed worlds. These differences correlated with reported quality certification in the manufacturing process. Mechanical analysis of low-cost implants may provide information useful in determining which manufacturers produce implants with the best potential for benefit relative to cost.",
"yes. Implant systems with long internal tube-in-tube connections and cam-slot fixation showed advantages with regard to longevity and fracture strength compared with systems with shorter internal or external connection designs.",
"The aim of this study was to compare lesion dimensions as determined by a three-dimensional quantitative coronary angiographic (QCA) system to that of a validated two-dimensional QCA system. In an era of drug-eluting stents, device sizing has become an important clinical application of online QCA. The CardiOp-B system integrates two standard angiographic projections to provide a three-dimensional reconstruction of the arterial segment of interest. Phase 1 - 47 stenoses from consecutive coronary angiograms were assessed in two projections with both systems providing two data sets for the CMS-Medis system and a single data set for CardiOp-B. Phase 2--a perspex phantom with a known lesion length, was analyzed at increasing degrees of foreshortening with acceptance criteria set at 5% from the absolute value. Phase 1 demonstrated an adequate correlation between the CardiOp-B and Medis systems when minimal luminal diameter was measured in the optimal view (1.32 +/- 0.47 mm vs 1.42 +/- 0.49 mm respectively; r = 0.82). A stronger correlation was noted when length was measured (25.27 +/- 10.76 mm and 21.32 +/- 8.08 mm, respectively; r = 0.95); however CardiOp-B provided a consistently longer length (P < 0.0001). On phantom length measurements the mean accuracy result for the CardiOp-B system was -1.3%. This compared favorably with the two-dimensional system where all measures performed at greater than 20 degrees of for shortening were beyond the 5% criteria from the known length.",
"This analysis supports the hypothesis of a volume-outcome relationship in primary total knee replacement. However, a minimum provider volume that clearly discriminates between good and bad quality of care could not be calculated on the basis of these German quality assurance data.",
"yes. Evaluation of CAS using the novel 3D system was feasible and showed equivalent results to validated QCA measurements. Length measurements seemed to be more accurate by the 3D system as compared to QCA. Therefore, this 3D-system can be used to guide decisions in interventional cardiology.",
"yes. The level-dependent length change is a necessary condition for directly validating that power is expended by the active process presumed to underlie normal hearing.",
"yes. Results suggest that training duration may be an important factor to consider when designing injury prevention programs that facilitate long-term changes in movement control.",
"Pharmacy request for a contract change was associated with higher reimbursement rates for the brand-name drug atorvastatin calcium in PDP contracts, after controlling for pharmacy quality attributes, local market structures, and area socioeconomic status; this finding likely applies to other brand-name drugs because of the structure of the contracts. Our results suggest that independent pharmacies are more likely to acquire higher reimbursement rates by engaging in active bargaining with third-party payers.",
"Although variables showed weak correlations, there were correlations between list size and deprivation in the results of the patient experience questionnaire. Linking this to payment has implications for primary care contracting.",
"yes. This study shows that knee size is important in the application of absolute metric cut-off values and that the posterior femur also shows a significantly different morphology.",
"yes. An individualized short Roux-loop length in RYHJ is as effective as the conventional Roux-loop length.",
"This study suggests that core length is a biopsy parameter that affects detection of cancer and is an essential parameter for core biopsy quality.",
"Our findings raise policy concerns that MC may reduce the quality of care provided by public SAT facilities by limiting the range of services offered. On the other hand, we find that FP clinics increase their range of services. One explanation is that MC results in standardization of service offerings across facilities of different ownership type. Further research is needed to better understand both the specific mechanisms of MC on SAT and the net impact on society.",
"yes. The theoretical length gain in z-plasty is of little clinical significance. A host of factors such as lateral laxity, number of flaps, angle at the tips, the anatomic region, and the cause of the contracture determine the actual clinical length gain obtained following a seven-flap plasty release procedure.",
"yes. This study has demonstrated that variation exists in the quality of casts used in crown and bridgework, specifically those used in the construction of indirect restorations and also those used for articulation purposes. This study highlights the need for clinicians to exercise continued vigilance with crown and bridge impressions, and casts, particularly in areas away from the prepared teeth.",
"yes. The shortness of the consultation length is due to a supply-side effect, implicating dissatisfaction for patients with mental health problems. This may not be generalizable to other patients. Findings are in favour of a specific intervention aimed at giving poor people equal access to GPs' time.",
"yes. The longest wheal diameter alone seems to be a better surrogate marker of the wheal surface in comparison with the mean diameter. In addition, it is easier and faster to measure. Therefore, we propose this as the optimal methodology to evaluate SPTs.",
"no. Patient satisfaction as well as graft function and patient mortality was not influenced by incision length. With patient and graft safety being paramount, especially in times of organ shortage, incision length should reflect the requirement for a successful transplantation and not be a measure of feasibility.",
"no. These data suggest that stent length by itself does not influence restenosis extent in the porcine model.",
"To assess whether length of questionnaire affects response rates. A quasi-randomised trial of women aged 70 years and over in a general practice in England. Three questionnaires of different lengths: a clinical questionnaire (four pages); the same questionnaire plus the EuroQol (five pages); the same questionnaire plus the SF-12 (seven pages). The impact of length on the proportion of returned questionnaires and item completion rates was assessed. In total, 847 questionnaires were mailed; response rates were 49%, 49% and 40% to the short, medium and long questionnaires, respectively. This difference was statistically significant when the short questionnaire was compared against the longest instrument (9% difference; 95% confidence interval (CI) of difference = 0.3% to 16.6%). Item completion rates for the clinical questionnaire did not differ. Respondents did not differ in age or self-reported health status between the three groups.",
"yes. Three-dimensional QCA provides accurate and precise vessel diameter assessments. Length assessments are consistently longer than two-dimensional measures and are significantly less affected by foreshortened projections.",
"yes. During the same training period, use of the long-length colonoscope in trainee was better in terms of reaching competency and quality indicators, and was less painful for the patients during colonoscopic procedures.",
"The aim of this study was to determine if stent length is by itself a risk factor for intimal proliferation and restenosis. Long lesions represent an independent risk factor for restenosis after coronary stent implantation. A longer stented segment might result in a higher probability of restenosis. Twenty-two 7-month-old male farm pigs underwent implantation of two steel stents, one short (8 mm length) and one long (16 mm length), in the right coronary artery. The pigs were sacrificed 28 days after stent implantation and histomorphometric analysis of the coronary arteries was performed for neointimal area proliferation and area stenosis evaluation. Seventeen short stents and 19 long stents were finally implanted. There were no differences in neointimal proliferation (1.84 +/- 0.64 mm2 vs. 1.81 +/- 0.94 mm2, p = 0.84), area stenosis (40 +/- 9% vs. 41 +/- 19%, p = 0.86) and lumen area (2.96 +/- 1.30 mm2 vs. 2.51 +/- +/- 1.18 mm2, p = 0.21) between the short stent group and the long stent group, respectively.",
"The purpose is to evaluate the relationship between costs and quality and to assess whether the joint evaluation of costs and quality affects the ranking of hospital departments relative to comparison based on costs alone. Using patient level data for 3,754 patients in six vascular departments, we estimate fixed effect models for costs (linear) and quality (logistic). We consider two quality measures; mortality and wound complications. To assess whether the joint evaluation of costs and quality affects the ranking of departments, we construct joint confidence regions for each pair of departmental effects for costs and quality using a bootstrap method and rank departments according to their cost-effectiveness ratio. The findings are used to evaluate a theory of a U-shaped cost/quality relationship. The association between cost and quality differs depending on how quality is measured. Lower costs are associated with higher mortality, implying a cost/quality trade-off. In contrast, there is no clear association between costs and wound complications among vascular departments.",
"yes. The results of this study suggest that width matching using plain radiographs would be more reliable than length matching when it is sought to assure adequate positioning of meniscal transplants, if both dimensions cannot be simultaneously matched.",
"Compared to benchmarking of departments based solely on their costs, we show that the ranking of departments may be altered considerably when quality is taken into account. Consequently, it is important to have a well-rounded view of departmental objectives when undertaking performance evaluation. The results for mortality may lend some support to the theory of a U-shaped cost/quality relationship. However, the results for wound complications do not support the theory of a U-shaped cost/quality relationship.",
"yes. While core length on trans-rectal biopsy independently affects Gleason upgrading on RP specimens, performer experience has minor impact on Gleason discordance or biopsy positivity due to a sharp learning curve.",
"yes. Within the limitations of this study, the results suggest channel length as the primary controlling factor in minimizing deviated angulations.",
"Our results indicate that culture change to a PCC model is associated with higher Minimum Data Set-based quality. Longitudinal data are needed to better assess whether there is a causal relationship between the extent of culture change and quality.",
"To answer two related questions: (1) Do managed care organizations (MCOs) in New York State (NYS) consider quality when they choose cardiac surgeons? (2) Do they use information about risk-adjusted mortality rates (RAMR) provided in the New York State Cardiac Surgery Reports? (1) Telephone interviews with and contracting data from the majority of MCOs licensed in NYS; (2) RAMR, quality outlier designation, and procedure volume for all cardiac surgeons, as reported in the Cardiac Surgery Reports. Interview data were analyzed in conjunction with patterns revealed by contracting data. Null hypotheses that MCOs' contracting choices were random with respect to the information published in the Cardiac Surgery Reports were tested. Sixty percent of MCOs ranked the quality of surgeons as most important in their contracting considerations. Although 64 percent of MCOs indicated some knowledge of the NYS Cardiac Surgery Reports, only 20 percent indicated that the reports were a major factor in their contracting decision. Analyses of actual contracting patterns show that in aggregate, the hypothesis of random choice could be rejected with respect to high-quality outlier status and high procedure volume but not for RAMR or poor-quality outlier status. The panel composition of the majority of MCOs (80.2 percent) was within two standard deviations of the expected mean under the null hypothesis.",
"yes. In this in vitro study, master casts poured in an ultra-low-expansion plaster limited to a maximum inter-abutment dimension of 35 mm were more accurate than casts with 50-mm inter-abutment spans or those poured in a conventional die stone.",
"yes. The length of the needle cores sampled during transperineal prostate biopsy fulfils the parameters of quality required by pathologists for an appropriate evaluation of the biopsy specimen.",
"Small but steady improvements were observed in English primary care. PMS contracts facilitated quality improvements in specific areas over and above these broad improvements (the 'PMS effect') during the study period. New contractual arrangements for health care can be used to improve quality of care. However, the mechanisms that resulted in quality gains, while facilitated by the new contractual arrangements, were not specific or unique to the PMS experiment. Factors such as effective management, clear objectives and flexible professional relationships within practices are likely to be important in determining whether new contractual arrangements result in improved outcomes. The context within which care and services are provided is as important for quality innovations as specific contractual arrangements.",
"yes. The length of single cores sampled by sextant biopsy can vary more than 3.6-fold and represents a quality assurance consideration. The effect of length on cancer or nonbenign detection was maximal at the prostatic apex where the cores were shortest.",
"The fact that there is little unexplained variation in GP consultation lengths that might be attributable to variations in quality (i.e. GP-related) throws doubt on the proposition that length of consultation can be used as a marker for quality of consultation in general practice.",
"It is optimistic to expect longer-term contracts automatically to produce a greater focus on quality and the incentives needed to ensure that improvements in quality are delivered. However, this may not matter as issues of quality are being addressed more appropriately in the British NHS through a variety of other routes.",
"To examine whether longer-term contracts for health services will shift attention away from concern for finance and activity levels and towards the achievement of better quality services. Analysis of 288 contracts from the British National Health Service (NHS) and 12 semi-structured interviews with staff from provider (NHS hospital trusts) and purchaser (health authorities) organisations. No relationship was found between the duration of a contract and the duration of service specifications or quality frameworks. The annual contracting cycle is concerned largely with ensuring that all parties stay within activity targets and financial constraints, and this is unlikely to be affected by a shift to longer-term contracts. The setting of standards and initiatives to improve quality is largely independent of the contracting process and the duration of contracts, and relies on relationships rather than contracts."
] | 971 |
Is radiation therapy a preferred alternative to surgery for squamous cell carcinoma of the base of tongue? | [
"To evaluate irradiation alone for treatment of base-of-tongue cancer. Two hundred seventeen patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the base of tongue were treated with radiation alone and had follow-up for>/= 2 years. Local control rates at 5 years were as follows: T1, 96%; T2, 91%; T3, 81%; and T4, 38%. Multivariate analysis revealed that T stage (P =.0001) and overall treatment time (P =.0006) significantly influenced local control. The 5-year rates of local-regional control were as follows: I, 100%; II, 100%; III, 83%; IVA, 64%; and IVB, 65%. Multivariate analysis revealed that the following parameters significantly affect the probability of this end point: T stage (P =.0001), overall treatment time (P =.0001), overall stage (P =.0131), and addition of a neck dissection (P =.0021). The rates of absolute and cause-specific survival at 5 years were as follows: I, 50% and 100%; II, 81% and 100%; III, 65% and 76%; IVA, 42% and 56%; and IVB, 44% and 52%. Severe radiation complications developed in eight patients (4%).",
"The likelihood of cure after external-beam irradiation was related to stage, overall treatment time, and addition of a planned neck dissection. The local-regional control rates and survival rates after radiation therapy were comparable to those after surgery, and the morbidity associated with irradiation was less."
] | [
"This is a retrospective study aimed to analyse the outcomes of oral tongue cancer with emphasis on young people. Patients treated radically between 1998 and 2006 were included and categorised according to treatment modalities (Group A: Surgery, Group B: Surgery and adjuvant therapy, Group C: Definitive radiotherapy) and age groups (≤ 40 and>40 years). Overall survival (OS), disease-free survival (DFS), locoregional relapse-free survival (LRS) and metastasis-free survival (MFS) were estimated using Kaplan-Meier method. There were 123 patients with 32%, 53% and 15% in Group A, B and C, respectively. Of these, 17 patients (14%) were ≤40 years with 6 (15%), 8 (12%) and 3 (16%) young oral tongues in Group A, B and C, respectively. Five-year OS and DFS were 69%/72%, 41%/47% and 16%/9.5% for Group A, B and C, respectively. Young patients had similar survival as the older population with 5-year OS of 83%, 75% and 33% in Group A, B and C, as compared to the older patients (66%, 36% and 13%, respectively).",
"yes. HPV16 DNA status appears to be a strong prognosticator of loco-regional tumour control after postoperative cisplatin-based radiochemotherapy of locally advanced oropharyngeal carcinoma and is now being explored in a prospective validation trial.",
"Selection of the treatment modality according to patient's preference results in a comparable control of disease for T1 tumors. The initial local control for T2 tumors is significantly better after surgery. In both stages laser surgery warrants a better larynx preservation rate.",
"This study represents Indian experience with standard neoadjuvant chemo radiotherapy followed by surgery in rectal cancer. Large circumferential tumors in our set of patients lead to poor outcome leading to more APR. Also this study supported the need for an abbreviated protocol which can be economically suited and organ preservation protocols have a long way to go.",
"yes. Radiation therapy was associated with improved survival compared with cancer-directed surgery without radiation in patients with adenocarcinoma of the pancreas.",
"There has been no definitive randomized study to identify the optimal therapeutic regimen for treating squamous cell carcinoma of tonsil. The purpose of this study was to retrospectively evaluate the treatment outcome according to various combinations of surgery, radiation therapy and chemotherapy. Fifty-six patients with tonsillar carcinoma, who were treated at Seoul National University Hospital from March 1985 to August 2001, were the subjects of this study. Twenty-one patients received surgery followed by radiation therapy (SRT), 16 patients underwent radiation therapy alone (RT), and 19 patients received neoadjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy (CRT). The median radiation dose was 66.6 Gy for the SRT group and 70.2 Gy for the RT and CRT groups. Surgery comprised extended tonsillectomy and modified radical neck dissection of the involved neck. Cisplatin and 5-fluorouracil were used every three weeks for 3 cycles in the SRT group. The median follow-up was 73.2 months. The distribution of T-stage was 4 cases of T1, 14 cases of T2, 1 case of T3 and 2 cases of T4 staging in the SRT group, 2 cases of T1, 6 cases of T2, 5 cases of T3 and 3 cases of T4 staging in the RT group and 0 cases of T1, 7 cases of T2, 9 cases of T3 and 3 cases of T4 staging in the CRT group. The distribution of N-stage was 5 cases of N0, 2 cases of N1, 13 cases of N2 and 1 case of N3 staging in the SRT group, 6 cases of N0, 5 cases of N1, 5 cases of N2 and 0 cases of N3 staging in the RT group, and 2 cases of N0, and 7 cases of N1, 9 cases of N2 and 1 case of N3 staging in the CRT group. The five-year overall survival rate (OSR) for all patients was 78%. The five-year OSR was 80% for the SRT group, 71% for the RT group, and 80% for the CRT group (p=ns). The five-year disease-free survival rate was 93% for the CRT group and 71% for the RT group (p=0.017). Four patients developed local failure and one patient failed at a regional site in the RT group, and one patient failed at a primary site in the CRT group. The five-year DFS was 84% for patients who had undergone neck dissection and 76% for patients who had not undergone neck dissection (p=ns). Treatment-related complications of grade 3 or 4 occurred in 15 patients, and the incidence of complication was not different between each of the treatment methods.",
"To identify factors influencing the outcome of postoperative radiotherapy in patients with advanced laryngeal cancer. The files of 44 patients with advanced laryngeal cancer who were treated by surgery followed by radiotherapy (24 with pT3 and 20 with pT4) were reviewed. Median delay in starting radiotherapy was 50 days (range, 19-150 days). Treatment variables, in addition to certain patient and tumor characteristics, were analyzed in terms of locoregional control and survival. Major referral tertiary center in central Israel. Locoregional control rates were 86% and 81% at 2 and 5 years, respectively, and corresponding survival rates were 82% for both. Only nodal involvement retained statistical significance for both locoregional control as well as survival on multivariate analysis (P = 0.0009 and P = 0.0004, respectively).",
"To test the hypothesis that radiation dose to key sites in the upper aerodigestive tract is associated with long-term functional outcome after (chemo)radiotherapy for head-and-neck cancers. This study examined the outcome for 27 patients treated with intensity-modulated radiotherapy for definitive management of their head-and-neck cancer who were disease free for at least 1 year after treatment. Head-and-neck cancer-specific quality of life (QoL) was assessed before treatment and at 1 year after treatment. Type of diet tolerated, presence of a feeding tube, and degree of weight loss 1 year after treatment were also used as outcome measures. Radiation doses delivered to various points along the upper aerodigestive tract, including base of tongue, lateral pharyngeal walls, and laryngeal structures, were determined from each treatment plan. Radiation doses for each of these points were tested for correlation with outcome measures. Higher doses delivered to the aryepiglottic folds, false vocal cords, and lateral pharyngeal walls near the false cords correlated with a more restrictive diet, and higher doses to the aryepiglottic folds correlated with greater weight loss (p < 0.05) 1 year after therapy. Better posttreatment speech QoL scores were associated with lower doses delivered to structures within and surrounding the larynx.",
"no. In our experience, definitive radiotherapy to the neck and the potential mucosal sites, whether preceded by neck dissection or not, is effective to achieve a good local control rate in the unknown primary cancer of the head and neck. The indication for neck dissection, in particular for early nodal stage, is controversial.",
"To determine whether baseline hemoglobin level and radiation treatment interruptions predict for loco-regional failure after intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with concurrent chemotherapy for definitive treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN). This retrospective review identified 78 consecutive patients treated with definitive concurrent chemoradiation for SCCHN. Patients were treated with IMRT to 70 Gy in 35 daily fractions to the high-dose target volume and 56 Gy to the elective target volume. Median age of the cohort was 62 (37-81). Median follow-up was 12 months. Tumor sites included: oropharynx (54%), larynx (36%), oral cavity (5%), and hypopharynx (5%). Fifteen of 78 patients (19%) experienced loco-regional failure. These included: 6 primary site failures, 5 regional failures, and 4 failures in both the primary site and regional lymph nodes. All but one failure occurred in the high-dose target volume. Only duration of radiation treatment and baseline hemoglobin levels were significant predictors of local control. Loco-regional failure occurred in 6 of 13 patients (46%) with radiation treatment interruptions (>1 week) versus 9 of 65 patients (14%) completing radiation therapy without interruption (P = 0.0148). Loco-regional failure occurred in 7 of 19 patients (37%) whose pretreatment hemoglobin level was <12 g/dL compared with 8 of 59 patients (14%) with hemoglobin levels > or = 12 (P = 0.042).",
"Radiotherapy, with or without surgical resection, remains an effective tool in treating patients with this disease. LC, cause-specific survival, and complication rates need significant improvement. Treatment details and recommendations are discussed herein.",
"Like low-volume supraglottic and T3 glottic carcinomas, T2 glottic squamous cell carcinoma is likely (82%) to be controlled with definitive radiation therapy. Failure to control the primary tumor is attributable to factors other than volume, which may not be detectable on CT, such as tumor-host biological factors. Pretreatment CT, however, is beneficial for detecting submucosal spread across the ventricle and subglottic extension, which might contraindicate vertical hemilaryngectomy and might not be apparent on endoscopic examination.",
"This study explores variables associated with poor prognosis in postoperative p16 positive oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) patients undergoing adjuvant radiotherapy or chemoradiotherapy. Specifically, analysis was done related to timing of feeding tube insertion relative to radiotherapy. From 1997-2009, of 376 consecutive patients with OPSCC, 220 received adjuvant IMRT, and 97 were p16 positive and eligible. Of these, 23 had feeding tube placement before IMRT (B-FT), 32 during/after IMRT (DA-FT), and 42 had no feeding tube (NO-FT). Feeding tubes were not placed prophylactically. These three groups were analyzed for differential tumor, patient, treatment, and feeding tube characteristics, as well as differences in overall survival (OS), disease free survival (DFS), and distant metastasis free survival (DMFS). Pre-RT FT insertion was associated with higher tumor size and depth, T (but not N) and overall stage, comorbidities, presence of chemotherapy, and less use of transoral laser microsurgery/transoral bovie. Additionally, time from surgery to IMRT completion was also statistically longer in the B-FT group. The feeding tube was permanent in 52% of patients in the B-FT group versus 16% in the DA-FT group (p = 0.0075). The 5-year OS for the NO-FT, DA-FT, and B-FT groups was 90%, 86%, and 50%, respectively. The 5-year DFS for the NO-FT, DA-FT, and B-FT groups was 87.6%, 83.6%, and 42.7%, respectively. Multivariate analysis showed that for OS and DFS, feeding tube placement timing and smoking history were statistically significant.",
"Nonsurgical therapy in patients with pretreatment vocal cord fixation is feasible. However, persistence of vocal cord fixation after definitive chemoradiotherapy is a poor prognostic sign and early surgical intervention should be considered. Laryngoscope, 2009.",
"Squamous cell carcinoma of larynx with subglottic extension (sSCC) is a rare location described to carry a poor prognosis. The aim of this study was to analyze outcomes and feasibility of larynx preservation in sSCC patients. Between 1996 and 2012, 197 patients with sSCC were treated at our institution and included in the analysis. Stage III-IV tumors accounted for 76%. Patients received surgery (62%), radiotherapy (RT) (18%), or induction chemotherapy (CT) (20%) as front-line therapy. The 5-year actuarial overall survival (OS), locoregional control (LRC), and distant control rate were 59% (95% CI 51-68), 83% (95% CI 77-89), and 88% (95% CI 83-93), respectively, with a median follow-up of 54.4 months. There was no difference in OS and LRC according to front-line treatments or between primary subglottic cancer and glottosupraglottic cancers with subglottic extension. In the multivariate analysis, age> 60 years and positive N stage were the only predictors for OS (HR 2, 95% CI 1.2-3.6; HR1.9, 95% CI 1-3.5, respectively). A lower LRC was observed for T3 patients receiving a larynx preservation protocol as compared with those receiving a front-line surgery (HR 14.1, 95% CI 2.5-136.7; p = 0.02); however, no difference of ultimate LRC was observed according to the first therapy when including T3 patients who underwent salvage laryngectomy (p = 0.6). In patients receiving a larynx preservation protocol, the 5-year larynx-preservation rate was 55% (95% CI 43-68), with 36% in T3 patients. The 5-year larynx preservation rate was 81% (95% CI 65-96) and 35% (95% CI 20-51) for patients who received RT or induction CT as a front-line treatment, respectively.",
"Parotid-sparing radiotherapy (PSRT) was introduced for patients with selected head and neck cancer requiring bilateral upper-neck irradiation at our centre in 2000. The aim of this study was to compare the subjective degree of xerostomia in patients treated with PSRT between January 2000 and June 2003 with patients treated using conventional techniques (radiotherapy) over the same period. Eligible patients were required to have completed treatment 6 months previously and be recurrence-free at the time of interview. PSRT was defined as conformal radiotherapy, in which the mean dose to at least one parotid gland was 33 Gy or less, as determined by the dose-volume histogram. Patients receiving radiotherapy were treated with standard parallel-opposed fields, such that both parotids received a minimum of 40 Gy. Xerostomia was assessed using a validated questionnaire containing six questions with a rating between 0 and 10. Lower scores indicated less difficulty with xerostomia. Thirty-eight eligible patients treated with PSRT were identified: 25 with oropharyngeal cancer and 13 with nasopharyngeal cancer (NPC). The mean overall questionnaire score (Q1-5) for this group was 4.20 (standard error = 0.33). Forty-four patients (24 oropharyngeal, 21 NPC) treated with radiotherapy over the same period were eligible. The mean overall questionnaire score (Q1-5) for this group was 5.86 (standard error = 0.35). The difference in mean overall scores between the two groups of patients was statistically significant (P<0.001), as were the scores for four of the six individual questions.",
"In this largest patterns-of-care analysis to date for patients with locally advanced cervical cancer, we found a substantial proportion of patients continue to undergo surgery followed by radiation, despite randomized data supporting the use of definitive radiation therapy, with lower morbidity than surgery and radiation.",
"This attenuated protocol of chemo-radiation using HDR brachytherapy followed by simple hysterectomy is a viable option in the treatment of bulky cervical carcinomas. The rate of residual cervical disease after chemo-radiation is substantial, but simple hysterectomy achieved negative surgical margins in all cases.",
"To evaluate need of elective neck dissection in patients with early oral tongue cancer, and to see the pattern of involvement of different lymph node levels. Ninety four patients with T1-T2, N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the oral tongue were treated with a partial glossectomy and an elective modified radical neck dissection. Thirty two patients had T1 and 62 patients had T2 lesion. In patients with T1 carcinoma, 9 out of 32 had metastases (28%), whereas in patients with T2 carcinoma, 21 out of 62 showed metastases(34%).Thus, the overall rate of occult lymph node metastases was high(32%). In our study skip metastases to level III was seen in only in 2 patients (6%) but there was no skip metastases seen involving level IV or V.",
"This study examines the prognostic significance of human papillomavirus (HPV) in patients with locally advanced oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) treated primarily with surgery or definitive radiotherapy. One hundred and ninety-eight patients with Stage 3/4 SCC were followed up for recurrence in any form or death from any cause for between 1 and 235 months after diagnosis. HPV status was determined using HPV E6-targeted multiplex real-time PCR/p16 immunohistochemistry. Determinants of recurrence and mortality hazards were modelled using Cox's regression with censoring at follow-up dates. Forty-two per cent of cancers were HPV-positive (87% type 16). HPV predicted loco-regional control, event-free survival and overall survival in multivariable analysis. Within the surgery with adjuvant radiotherapy (n=110), definitive radiotherapy-alone (n=24) and definitive radiotherapy with chemotherapy (n=47) groups, patients with HPV-positive cancers were one-third or less as likely to have loco-regional recurrence, an event or to die of any cause as those with HPV-negative cancers after adjusting for age, gender, tumour grade, AJCC stage and primary site. The 14 patients treated with surgery alone were considered too few for multivariable analysis.",
"Many patients with small primary tumors of the oropharynx have AJCC Stage III/IV disease on the basis of lymphadenopathy. In the current retrospective study, the authors hypothesized that these patients have high rates of locoregional control when treated with radiotherapy, either alone or combined with neck surgery, and may not require concurrent chemotherapy. Two hundred ninety-nine patients met staging and inclusion criteria. Stage distribution was as follows: T1, 99 patients (33%); T2, 182 patients (61%); Tx, 18 patients (6%); N1, 74 patients (25%); N2, 170 patients (57%); N3, 39 patients (13%); and Nx, 16 patients (5%). Primary tumor resection or tonsillectomy had been performed in 36 patients (12%) and excisional lymph node biopsy or formal neck dissection in 192 patients (64%). Thirty-three additional patients (10%) received chemotherapy and were analyzed separately. The median follow-up was 82 months (range, 8-299 months). The actuarial 5-year rates of locoregional failure, distant metastases, and overall survival were 15%, 19%, and 64%, respectively. T status was associated with the 5-year rate of locoregional control: 95% for patients with T1-/Tx disease, compared with 79% for patients with T2 disease (P<0.01). The 5-year rate of distant metastases for patients with N1/2a disease was 11%, compared with 28% for patients with N2b/N2c/N3 disease (P<0.001).",
"Although chemotherapy alone remains the optimal treatment of PCNSL, out with clinical trials only a minority of patients complete chemotherapy due to toxicity and disease progression; in such patients, immediate salvage radiotherapy provides an effective and safe alternative with maintenance of good outcomes.",
"We evaluated X-ray repair complementing defective repair in Chinese hamster cells 1 (XRCC1) protein in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) patients in association with outcome. XRCC1 protein expression was assessed by immunohistochemical (IHC) staining of pretreatment tissue samples in 138 consecutive HNSCC patients treated with surgery (n = 31), radiation (15), surgery and radiation (23), surgery and adjuvant chemoradiation (17), primary chemoradiation (51), and palliative measures (1). Patients with high XRCC1 expression by IHC (n = 77) compared with patients with low XRCC1 expression (n = 60) had poorer median overall survival (OS; 41.0 months vs. OS not reached, P = 0.009) and poorer progression-free survival (28.0 months vs. 73.0 months, P = 0.031). This association was primarily due to patients who received chemoradiation (median OS of high- and low-XRCC1 expression patients, 35.5 months and not reached respectively, HR 3.48; 95% CI: 1.44-8.38; P = 0.006). In patients treated with nonchemoradiation modalities, there was no survival difference by XRCC1 expression. In multivariable analysis, high XRCC1 expression and p16(INK4a)-positive status were independently associated with survival in the overall study population (HR = 2.62; 95% CI: 1.52-4.52; P < 0.001 and HR = 0.21; 95% CI: 0.06-0.71; P = 0.012, respectively) and among chemoradiation patients (HR = 6.02; 95% CI: 2.36-15.37; P < 0.001 and HR = 0.26; 95% CI: 0.08-0.92, respectively; P = 0.037).",
"Patients with early-T status oropharyngeal carcinoma, which is considered advanced due to the presence of lymphadenopathy, have high rates of locoregional control when treated with radiotherapy without or with neck surgery. Local treatment intensification by the addition of concurrent chemotherapy to radiotherapy would not significantly benefit most of these patients.",
"Even today, some patients with laryngeal cancer present with airway obstruction necessitating an intervention in the form of either a tracheostomy or transoral laser debulking (TOL). Controversy exists as to whether such an intervention is a risk factor for poor oncological or functional outcome in patients who then undergo primary (chemo)radiotherapy. Retrospective chart review of all patients undergoing primary curative nonsurgical treatment for T3/T4 laryngeal squamous cell cancer at the University Hospital Zurich between 1981 and 2011. A total of 29/114 patients had an airway intervention before initiation of (chemo)radiotherapy (21/29 tracheostomies, 8/29 TOL). Kaplan-Meier analysis showed no statistical difference in oncological outcomes between the groups with and without intervention (5 year overall survival: 52% vs 70%, disease specific survival: 73% vs 79%, recurrence free survival: 53% vs 63%). In functional terms, we report an overall functional larynx rate of 60%.",
"Horizontal glottectomy might be a worthwhile treatment option in selected patients nowadays. In older patients with anterior commissure involvement, this procedure guarantees adequate functional and good oncological results. This study may possibly help surgeons dealing with glottic cancer involving the anterior commissure because we believe that some patients could benefit from HG, even in this radiotherapy and transoral laser surgery \"era.\"",
"Patients with head and neck cancer have a significant risk of developing a second primary cancer of the head and neck. We hypothesized that treatment with external beam radiotherapy (RT) might reduce this risk, because RT can eradicate occult foci of second head and neck cancer (HNCA). The data of patients with Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results Historic Stage A localized squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, larynx, and pharynx were queried using the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database. For patients treated with or without RT, the incidence of second HNCA was determined and compared using the log-rank method. Cox proportional hazards analysis was performed for each site, evaluating the influence of covariates on the risk of second HNCA. Between 1973 and 1997, 27,985 patients were entered with localized HNCA. Of these patients, 44% had received RT and 56% had not. The 15-year incidence of second HNCA was 7.7% with RT vs. 10.5% without RT (hazard ratio 0.71, p <0.0001). The effect of RT was more profound in patients diagnosed between 1988 and 1997 (hazard ratio 0.53, p <0.0001) and those with pharynx primaries (hazard ratio 0.47, p <0.0001). On multivariate analysis, RT was associated with a reduced risk of second HNCA for pharynx (p <0.0001) and larynx (p = 0.04) tumors. For oral cavity primaries, RT was associated with an increased risk of second HNCA in patients treated before 1988 (p <0.001), but had no influence on patients treated between 1988 and 1997 (p = 0.91).",
"yes. The optimal choice of treatment for patients with early stage Hodgkin's disease--combined modality treatment/radiotherapy alone/chemotherapy alone?--and for patients with advanced stages--consolidation radiotherapy?--remains an unresolved issue and needs further testing in large randomized trials considering acute and late complications. Staging laparotomy may be used only for a small group of patients who would receive radiotherapy alone as definitive treatment. Modifications of therapy clearly reduce the impact of negative prognostic factors.",
"yes. The primary tumour stage is an essential determinant for survival in patients with irradiated tonsillar carcinoma. Neck dissection should be confined only as a salvage procedure.",
"To explore whether tumor biomarkers and pre-treatment factors correlate with treatment outcome in patients with oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). Fifty-seven consecutive patients diagnosed with oropharyngeal SCC were treated using intensity modulated radiotherapy (IMRT). Thirty-four (60%) patients were treated with definitive chemoradiotherapy to a median total dose of 70 Gy and 23 (40%) were treated with postoperative RT to a median total dose of 66 Gy. Concurrent platinum- based chemotherapy was used in 51 patients (90%) and cetuximab in 3 (5%) patients. Forty-four (77%) cases were positive and 13 (23%) were negative for p16 expression. Eighty-eight percent of non-smokers, 87% of smokers in their remote past and 56% of active smokers were diagnosed with p16-positive cancer. After 22 months median follow up, 51 (89%) patients were alive. Forty-five (77%) patients were without evidence of disease at their last follow up, 82% of the patients with p16-positive tumors vs 58% of those with p16-negative cancer, respectively (p= 0.04). Locoregional disease-free survival was 82% for the entire cohort, 91% for patients treated postoperatively and 76% for patients treated with definitive chemoradiotherapy. Five (9%) patients developed distant metastases, and 3 (5%) developed new malignancies. One third of the patients with pre-RT hemoglobin level of ≤ 11 g/dL experienced persistent/recurrent disease; 80% of patients with hemoglobin ≤ 11 g/dL were smokers and 42% had p16-negative tumors.",
"yes. The results of the current study confirmed the efficacy and safety of elective regional radiotherapy for patients with cutaneous head and neck melanoma predicted to have a high rate of lymph node involvement. Elective irradiation was a viable alternative to elective lymph node dissection. It may also serve as an alternative to sentinel lymph node biopsy, particularly for patients for whom dissection and systemic therapy are not therapeutic options.",
"To analyze the results in early (stage I and II) glottic carcinoma of a single institution with a patient-oriented concept. After diagnostic workup and multidisciplinary counseling, either radiotherapy or CO(2) laser surgery was chosen with respect to the patient's preference. Sixty-five patients underwent laser surgery and 75 had radiotherapy. For T1 tumors, the 5-year overall survival, disease-specific survival, and initial local control rate after laser surgery and radiotherapy were comparable (OS, 85% vs 88%; DSS, 96% vs 93%; LCR, 86% vs 85%). In contrast, initial local control for T2 tumors was significantly more favorable after surgery (OS, 83% vs 78%; DSS, 83% vs 88%; LCR, 89% vs 67%). Larynx preservation was significantly higher after surgery in T1 tumors (96% vs 82%) and in T2 tumors (89% vs 77%).",
"To analyze a cohort of patients with HPV positive, oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) treated with lower radiation dose to clinically involved lymph nodes. We retrospectively identified patients with HPV positive, OPSCC treated with definitive chemoradiotherapy (70-74.4Gy) to the primary site and, since a post-radiation neck dissection was planned, 54Gy to the involved nodal areas. Neck dissection was ultimately omitted in all cases due to complete response. All patients were treated with a 3 field approach with sequential boost plans. Composite plans were generated retrospectively and primary tumor and lymph node GTVs were contoured and nodes were expanded by 5mm to form a CTV. Mean dose, dose to 95% (D95) and dose to 99% (D99) were determined. Fifty patients treated from 2008 to 2010 with 113 involved nodes were identified. The median age was 57years, and 6%, 46%, and 48% were current, former, and never smokers. Ninety percent of patients received concurrent cisplatin based chemotherapy. Median D95 and D99 to involved nodes were 59.8Gy and 55.9Gy respectively. At a median follow up of 54.1months, two patients developed nodal failure and four developed metastatic disease. Five year loco-regional control, disease free survival and overall survival were 96%, 81% and 86% respectively.",
"The optimal chemotherapy regimen remains undefined in the treatment of locally advanced oropharyngeal cancer by concomitant chemoradiation. This article compares two platinum-based chemotherapy regimens. In this retrospective study, we reviewed all consecutive patients treated for Stage III or IVA-B oropharyngeal cancer using either a combination of carboplatin and 5-fluorouracil (5FU) every 3 weeks or high-dose cisplatin every 3 weeks concomitant with definitive radiation therapy. A total of 200 patients were treated with carboplatin-5FU and 53 patients with cisplatin. Median potential follow-up was 43 months. The 3-year overall survival rates for carboplatin-5FU and cisplatin respectively were 79.1% and 74.9% (p = 0.628), the 3-year disease-free survival rates were 76.0% and 71.3% (p = 0.799), and the 3-year locoregional control rates were 88.4% and 94.2% (p = 0.244).",
"To determine the feasibility of high-dose intra-arterial (IA) cisplatin and concurrent radiation therapy (RT) for head and neck squamous cell carcinoma in the multi-institutional setting (Multi-RADPLAT). Eligibility included T4 squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx. Patients received cisplatin (150 mg/m(2) IA with sodium thiosulfate 9 g/m(2) intravenous [IV], followed by 12 g/m(2) IV over 6 hours, weekly for 4 weeks) and concurrent RT (70 Gy, 2.0 Gy/fraction, daily for 5 days over 7 weeks). Between May 1997 and December 1999, 67 patients from three experienced and eight inexperienced centers were enrolled, of whom 61 were eligible for analysis. Multi-RADPLAT was feasible (ie, three or four infusions of IA cisplatin and full dose of RT) in 53 patients (87%). The complete response (CR) rate was 85% at the primary site and 88% at nodal regions, and the overall CR rate was 80%. At a median follow-up of 3.9 years for alive patients (range, 0.9 to 6.1 years), the estimated 1-year and 2-year locoregional tumor control rates are 66% and 57%, respectively. The estimated 1-year and 2-year survival rates are 72% and 63%, respectively. The estimated 1-year and 2-year disease-free survival rates are 62% and 46%, respectively. The rates of grade 4 and 5 toxicities at the experienced and the inexperienced institutions were 14% and 0% v 47% and 4%, respectively.",
"This study set the baseline for clinical decisions that was not previously established there is no difference in survival for patients with hypopharynx comparing primary surgery to primary radiotherapy. This information is essential for the interpretation of current treatment results, the planning of future clinical studies and the treatment of patients who are not having chemoradiotherapy.",
"yes. We identified that a combination treatment of chemotherapy and radiotherapy is superior compared to other postoperative adjuvant treatment approaches concerning PFS, OS and recurrence rates in stages I-II of type II endometrial cancers and uterine carcinosarcoma.",
"Total SLG resection in early stage and thin squamous cell carcinoma of the floor of mouth and oral tongue provides minimal oncologic benefit and is associated with increased perioperative morbidity due to neck wound complications.",
"TP53 gene-mutation and expression of p53 have been described to influence the radiosensitivity of tumour cells from head and neck carcinomas. The present study was performed to evaluate whether TP53 mutation may influence the clinical outcome of head and neck cancer patients treated with radiotherapy or surgery. DNA was extracted from formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue sections from primary biopsies taken before radiotherapy. Gene mutations (in exons 5-9) were identified using denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (DGGE) as the initial scanning procedure and characterized by sequencing. Patients were treated with primary radiotherapy or surgery alone. Treatment was given according to the DAHANCA schedules with 5 or 6 weekly fractions (2 Gy) of radiotherapy (66-68 Gy). Most patients were also treated with the hypoxic radiosensitizer Nimorazole. The results are reported as 5-year actuarial values, and differences estimated by log-rank analysis. The present analysis is based on 114 patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx, pharynx and oral cavity diagnosed between March 1992 and October 1996. Ninety patients received primary radiotherapy alone and 21 were treated with surgery. TP53 mutations were found in 45 patients (39%) and in patients receiving radiotherapy, TP53 mutation was highly associated with poor prognosis. Loco-regional control rates (5-year actuarial values) for TP53 mutation was 29 vs. 54% for TP53 wildtype (P < 0.01). For disease-free survival the corresponding values were 13 and 38% (P < 0.01), respectively. The correlations were not found to be related to specific subtypes of mutations (e.g. missense mutations affecting DNA-contact or Zn-binding regions) but rather to the presence of any mutation at all. In contrast, TP53 mutation did not influence the response to surgery.",
"All patients with stage T2-T4 squamous cancers of the oral tongue should have an elective dissection of the neck. Patients with T1N0 cancer who have a double DNA-aneuploid tumor, depth of muscle invasion>4 mm, or have a poorly differentiated cancer should definitely undergo elective neck dissection. Ultrasound and computed tomography are of little value in predicting which patients have positive nodes.",
"yes. To our knowledge, this study is the first to investigate the biophysics of low dose gamma irradiation on stem cell culture, focusing on the potential applications in radiation oncology. For advanced oral cavity and oropharyngeal cancers, as radical surgery often implies major bone resection, the use of mesenchymal stem cells as bone reconstruction vectors might shorten the onset of adjuvant hyperfractionated radiotherapy which enhances the mineralization process. As postoperative radiotherapy has recently being revisited for osteosarcoma, this scenario could impact also on bone reconstruction process in this pathology.",
"yes. HPV status predicts better outcome in oropharyngeal cancer treated with surgery plus adjuvant radiotherapy as well as with definitive radiation therapy±chemotherapy.",
"The records of 114 patients with non-metastatic stage III/IV tonsillar SCC treated between July, 1998 and December, 2010 were reviewed retrospectively. Among the 114 patients, 65 received PORT and 49 received CCRT. In the PORT group, treatment included wide surgical resection of the tumor with neck dissection and administration of PORT to the primary tumor bed with a median dose of 60 Gy. In the CCRT group, a median dose of 70 Gy was delivered to the gross tumor, and 46 patients received concurrent chemotherapy with i.v. cisplatin. The median follow-up time was 58 months in the PORT group and 44 months in the CCRT group. There was no significant difference between PORT and CCRT in terms of 5-year locoregional recurrence-free survival (88.4% vs. 91.4%, p=0.68), distant metastasis-free survival (88.9% vs. 92.3%, p=0.60), disease-free survival (79.5% vs. 84.2%, p=0.63) or overall survival (78.9% vs. 88.9%, p=0.45). More CCRT patients than PORT patients experienced grade 3 (or higher) hematological toxicities and grade 2 pharyngitis during treatment. Chronic toxicity, manifested as swallowing difficulty, dry mouth and trismus, was similar between the two treatment groups.",
"no. In patients with cancer in the oral cavity or oropharynx, early supervised exercises combined with self-care treatment focusing on mobility exercises to reduce trismus do not seem to provide additional beneficial effects compared with usual care during curative radiotherapy.",
"We conclude that neither the presence of pathologically positive nodes nor nodal stage is a prognostically significant factor for local control in patients who have undergone radical surgery and postoperative radiotherapy for advanced squamous cell carcinomas of the head and neck. We do not recommend a change in treatment philosophy, such as an increase in dose to the primary site, based on the pathologic status of the neck.",
"The high rate of occult metastasis (23%) following elective neck dissection, which did not confer additional healthcare costs, leads to the recommendation of elective neck dissection in patients with cT1N0 oral tongue squamous cell carcinoma.",
"Advances in the management of patients with oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) have confounded the importance of site in predicting overall prognosis. The purpose of this retrospective study was to review the outcome of patients with OSCC and to determine if site is a significant predictor of survival or disease-free survival. The records of 233 patients that underwent surgery for resectable OSCC treated at a single institution from 1993 to 2003 were identified. Patients with positive surgical margins, high grade histology, aggressive biologic behavior, or advanced stage disease underwent adjuvant radiotherapy or chemoradiotherapy. The demographics, site, stage, pathologic, treatment, and survival data were collected and statistically analyzed in an attempt to identify predictors of loco-regional control and disease-free survival. Descriptive statistics were calculated for each variable and survival was calculated using the Kaplan-Meier method. For purposes of comparison, patients were divided into 2 groups: those with tongue lesions (n = 73) and all other sites (n = 152). The Cox proportional hazards model was used to distinguish different survival rates between the groups. Two hundred fifteen patients consisting of 104 males (48%) and 111 females (52%) met the criteria for inclusion in the study. Overall and disease-free survival rates were 56% and 58%, respectively. Stage and grade were identified as having a statistically significant effect on survival (P = .0014, likelihood ratio chi2 = 0.04, 1 degree of freedom; and P = .026, chi2 = 5, 1 degree of freedom, respectively). There was no significant difference in survival between patients with tongue cancer and other sites in the oral cavity (P = .8, chi2 = .04, 1 degree of freedom).",
"yes. Parotid gland sparing IMRT for head and neck cancer patients improves xerostomia related quality of life compared to conventional radiation both in rest and during meals. Laryngeal cancer patients had fewer complaints but benefited equally compared to oropharyngeal cancer patients from IMRT.",
"yes. Although clinical guidelines endorse radiation therapy as the preferred initial therapy for early-stage nongastric and Helicobacter pylori-negative gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, radiation therapy is underused. Radiation therapy with or without systemic therapy was associated with a significant improvement in OS and should remain standard of care.",
"The purpose of this retrospective study was to review the outcomes and recurrence rates of subjects with oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma treated at a single institution by primary surgical resection, with or without adjuvant radiation or chemotherapy, to identify factors that affect locoregional control and determine whether surgical salvage affects survival. The records of 157 subjects diagnosed with oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma treated at a single institution from 1997 to 2007 were identified. Data on demographics, site, clinical stage, pathologic stage, treatment, recurrence, and survival were collected. Defined outcome measures were overall survival, disease-free survival, and length of survival after recurrence. Analysis of the data was performed by use of the Cox proportional hazards model. Kaplan-Meier survival curves were created for disease-free survival, as well as survival by histologic grade, nodal status, recurrence, and tumor stage. We identified 157 subjects, with 155 meeting the inclusion criteria. The overall 5-year survival rate was 48%, with a disease-free survival rate of 42% (95% confidence interval, 36%-53%). Survival was found to be influenced by stage (P = .0001), nodal status (P = .0025), and histologic grade (P = .04). There were 24 subjects with recurrence (15%). Of these, 11 had local recurrence (46%), 9 had regional recurrence (37%), 2 had distant recurrence (8%), 1 had both local and regional recurrence (4%), and 1 had both local and distant metastasis (4%). Recurrence was not found to be significantly affected by pathologic stage (P = .71), clinical stage (P = .6), histologic grade (P = .178), postoperative radiation therapy (P = .54), postoperative chemotherapy (P = .66), N-positive status (P = .71), or whether the subject underwent a neck dissection (P = .984). Surgery significantly increased both overall survival time (P = .009) and survival time after recurrence (P = .006). Radiation therapy (P = .4) and chemotherapy (P = .82) did not have a survival benefit as therapy for recurrence.",
"Surgery followed by irradiation is considered to be the standard treatment but require frequently a total laryngectomy. Chemotherapy followed by irradiation is available in larynx and hypopharynx squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) treatment. Are results obtained in daily induction chemotherapy usefulness identical to results obtained in larynx preservation studies? We conducted a retrospective study on patients treated at centre Oscar-Lambret, Lille, from 1986 to 1995, by chemotherapy followed by definitive radiotherapy or by surgery and radiotherapy for laryngeal or hypopharyngeal cancer treatment. All patients were naive of previous head and neck SCC and a surgical treatment, requiring total laryngectomy, should be proposed with curative intent. Induction chemotherapy associated cisplatin (100 mg/m2) on day 1 and 5-fluorouracil (5FU)(1,000 mg/m2) on days 1-4 or 1-5. Irradiation was performed for responders (complete or partial>50%). If case of non-responder, patients underwent surgical treatment followed by irradiation. We compared results obtained with patients enrolled in clinical trial and with patients whom benefited from this protocol out of trial. Hundred-eight patients were evaluable for purposes of this study. Fifty-two patients were included in clinical trial (group 1) while 56 patients (group 2) were not. There was no statistical difference as regard neither to sex nor to node (palpable or not palpable) and metastasis status between the groups. We found a higher frequency of laryngeal tumour in group 2 (31 vs 17; p =.03). We observed more stage III and less stage IV in group 1. For chemotherapy-related toxic reactions, the exclusive statistical difference observed was haematological toxicity grade III and IV after the second cycle (0 pt in group 1 vs 8 pts in group 2; p =.02). After initial treatment, complete response was achieved without statistical difference between the groups (88.2% vs 78%; p =.27). A surgical procedure was performed in 46 cases without difference according to the reference group and functional larynx preservation was 55.8% (29/52) in group 1 and 53.6% (30/56) in group 2. Whatever the group, causes of death were similarly distributed. Cancer was the first cause of death in both groups. The overall survival of the population (108 patients) was 81.5% at one year, 49.6% at 3 years and 35.3% at 5 years with a median survival of 3 years. There was no statistical difference between both groups. Some parameters influenced the overall survival like T (p =.04), response to chemotherapy (p=.006), extra capsular spread (p = 0.03) and response after completion treatment.",
"Stereotactic radiosurgery has proven to be a safe and effective treatment option instead of repeated microsurgery. Stereotactic radiosurgery should be considered as the therapy of choice in cases of recurrent acoustic neuromas.",
"Determine the efficacy of a swallow preservation protocol (SPP) on maintaining swallow function in patients undergoing chemoradiation (CRT) or radiation therapy alone (RT) for head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC). Retrospective case series. Veterans Affairs medical center. Patients treated with CRT or RT for HNSCC between February 2006 and November 2013 were studied. Those enrolled in the SPP participated in swallowing, jaw, and tongue exercises during cancer therapy. The comparator group received no swallowing intervention during CRT. A previously described functional outcome swallowing scale (FOSS; 0 = no symptoms and 5 = nonoral feeding for all nutrition) was used to quantify dysphagia prior to and at the completion of cancer therapy, and an analysis was performed to compare swallowing function. Forty-one (all male; mean age, 66 years) and 66 patients (all male; mean age, 61 years) were included in the SPP and comparator groups, respectively. In the SPP group, mean pre- and posttreatment FOSS scores were 2.2 and 2.2, respectively, while the corresponding scores in the comparator group were 1.8 and 2.7, respectively, with posttreatment FOSS scores being significantly worse than pretreatment FOSS scores in the comparator group only.",
"Growing life expectancy is resulting in an increasing number of elderly patients with upper aero digestive tract tumor. The objective of this study was to assess the appropriateness of aggressive curative treatment for these older patients. Patients over the age of 70 years, with head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) of the oral cavity, pharynx or larynx, primarily treated in our department between 2005 and 2007, were assessed retrospectively at 36 months' follow-up. Demographics, comorbidity and treatment strategies and their associated morbidity and mortality were reviewed. Thirty-two males and 12 females with a median age of 77 years (range, 70-88 yrs) were given curative treatment. The majority presented with a least one comorbidity. Seven had a history of myocardial ischemia, 15 of chronic obstructive bronchopathy, and 10 of type-2 diabetes; 17 were under treatment for arterial hypertension, four had chronic renal insufficiency, and two had cirrhosis. Nine patients received radiation therapy alone; 18, concomitant chemoradiotherapy; 14, surgery with adjuvant chemoradiotherapy; three were treated by salvage surgery after failure of radiation therapy. In the 44 patients, there were 12 deaths: seven from recurrence, two from treatment complications, one from MI, one from peritonitis and one from pneumonia. At 36 months' follow-up, 32 of the 44 patients were alive.",
"The management of glottic carcinoma in situ (CIS) is controversial, with vocal cord stripping (S) generally accepted as the standard treatment, and radiotherapy (RT) as an alternative. We present our experience with 34 patients treated by either stripping or RT. ++Between 1974 and 1990, 34 patients with CIS of the glottic larynx larynx were treated at McGill University teaching hospitals. The median age at diagnosis was 67 years, with a male:female ratio of 6:1. All patients had CIS involving the glottis and the pathology was reviewed on all patients. Twenty-one patients were treated by S and 13 patients by RT as the primary treatment. With a median follow-up of 96 months (25-209 months), the 15-year actuarial survival rate is 95% for all patients, with 100% and 87% survival rates for S and RT groups, respectively (p = 0.25). One patient in the RT group developed a subglottic invasive squamous cell carcinoma. On the other hand, 11 patients in the S group developed recurrence and were treated by repeat S (6 patients) or RT (5 patients), with a salvage rate of 100%.",
"Salvage surgery is often the only curative option for recurrent cancer. In patients whose initial tumor is stage T3 or T4, the primary therapy often makes salvage even more difficult. We therefore analyzed the outcome in patients who were originally treated for T3 or T4 squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, larynx, oropharynx, or hypopharynx and who then had a recurrence and chose to undergo further therapy for cure. From 1980 to 2000, a total of 940 patients were treated for stage T3 or T4 cancer. Forty-eight patients underwent salvage therapy for recurrence: 24 for primary site recurrence, 20 for regional recurrence, and 4 for locoregional recurrence. The mean time to recurrence was 14.0 months, and the mean survival time was 26.2 months. Among the 28 patients treated for primary site recurrence, the mean time to rerecurrence was 12.6 months, and the mean survival time was 27.3 months. Only 5 of the 28 patients had prolonged survival. The stage of the recurrent disease did not influence outcome. Among the 20 patients treated for neck recurrence, the mean time to recurrence was 14.0 months, and the mean survival time was 25.0 months. Six of the 20 patients had prolonged survival, but none had a recurrence in a previously dissected and irradiated neck.",
"The number of patients treated at our institute increased, and the overall survival and larynx preservation rates exhibited favorable improvements over the past four decades. In the analysis of nonsurgical options, S1 combined radiotherapy showed superiority over concurrent chemoradiotherapy and radiotherapy in larynx preservation, and S1 combined radiotherapy, concurrent chemoradiotherapy and Tegafur Uracil combined radiotherapy showed superiority over radiotherapy in overall survival. In nonsurgical approaches, proper case selection is the key to success and may be much more important than pursuing radiotherapy dose escalation. In the analysis of surgical options, laser and supracricoid laryngectomy with cricohyoidoepiglottopexy contributed to larynx preservation in early- and intermediate-stage cancers, respectively. Supracricoid laryngectomy with cricohyoidoepiglottopexy demonstrated overall survival not worse than total laryngectomy, which is the prerequisite treatment basis for larynx preservation options. We must make extra efforts in pursuing an ideal balance between nonsurgical and surgical larynx preservation options.",
"There are no definitive randomized studies that compare radiotherapy (RT) with surgery for tonsillar cancer. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the results of RT alone and RT combined with a planned neck dissection for carcinoma of the tonsillar area and to compare these data with the results of treatment with primary surgery. Four hundred patients were treated between October 1964 and December 1997 and observed for at least 2 years. One hundred forty-one patients underwent planned neck dissection, and 18 patients received induction (17 patients) or concomitant (one patient) chemotherapy. Five-year local control rates, by tumor stage, were as follows: T1, 83%; T2, 81%; T3, 74%; and T4, 60%. Multivariate analysis revealed that local control was significantly influenced by tumor stage (P =.0001), fractionation schedule (P =.0038), and external beam dose (P =.0227). Local control after RT for early-stage cancers was higher for tonsillar fossa/posterior pillar cancers than for those arising from the anterior tonsillar pillar. Five-year cause-specific survival rates, by disease stage, were as follows: I, 100%; II, 86%; III, 82%; IVa, 63%; and IVb, 22%. Multivariate analysis revealed that cause-specific survival was significantly influenced by overall stage (P =.0001), planned neck dissection (P =.0074), and histologic differentiation (P =.0307). The incidence of severe late complications after treatment was 5%.",
"yes. Radiotherapy alone can be considered as a more effective treatment for SP over surgery. Whether a combination of radiotherapy and surgery improves outcomes requires further study.",
"The result of curative treatment for very elderly patients with tongue carcinoma has not been reported to date. We retrospectively reviewed the results of brachytherapy in 125 the patients aged over 75 years. The results of brachytherapy in 125 patients, 75 years old or older, with Stage I or II squamous cell carcinoma of the oral tongue were reviewed. The 125 cases consisted of 31 Stage I and 94 Stage II cases; 67 patients were under 80 years old and 58 were over 80 years old. All patients were treated using low-dose-rate brachytherapy ((198)Au/(222)Rn: 59 cases; (192)Ir: 38 cases; (226)Ra/(137)Cs: 28 cases). None of the patients stopped treatment during the course of brachytherapy. The 3 year and 5 year control rates of the primary lesions were both 86%. Post-brachytherapy neck node metastasis was diagnosed in 43 cases and radical neck dissection was performed for 24 cases (21 of the 24 cases were under 80 years old). As a result, the 7 year disease-specific survival (DSS) rate for patients aged under 80 years old was 70% and 41% for those over 80 years old (p = 0.03).",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate treatment results in our hypopharyngeal cancer patients. A total of three hundred and ninety five hypopharyngeal cancer patients received radical treatment at our hospital; 96% were male. The majority were habitual smokers (88%), alcohol drinkers (73%) and/or betel quid chewers (51%). All patients received a CT scan or MRI for tumor staging before treatment. The stage distribution was stage I: 2 (0.5%); stage II: 22 (5.6%); stage III: 57 (14.4%) and stage IV: 314 (79.5%). Radical surgery was used first in 81 patients (20.5%), and the remaining patients (79.5%) received organ preservation-intended treatment (OPIT). In the OPIT group, 46 patients received radiotherapy alone, 156 patients received chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy (CT/RT) and 112 patients received concomitant chemo-radiotherapy (CCRT). The five-year overall survival rates for stages I/II, III and IV were 49.5%, 47.4% and 18.6%, respectively. There was no significant difference in overall and disease-specific survival rates between patients who received radical surgery first and those who received OPIT. In the OPIT group, CCRT tended to preserve the larynx better (p = 0.088), with three-year larynx preservation rates of 44.8% for CCRT and 27.2% for CT/RT. Thirty-seven patients developed a second malignancy, with an annual incidence of 4.6%.",
"yes. Postoperative chemotherapy adding to radiotherapy is superior to radiotherapy alone. Patients with chemoradiotherapy after surgical resection can achieve the higher LRC, longer DFS and OS.",
"The criteria for administration of adjuvant radiation therapy (RT) in oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) remain controversial, and it is unclear whether patients with pT1-3N0 disease benefit from adjuvant radiation in the presence of free margins and perineural invasion. The goal of this report was to determine whether this group would benefit from adjuvant radiation therapy in terms of 5-year local control rate and overall survival rate. We retrospectively reviewed our case records from January 1996 to May 2005. In all, 460 pT1-3N0 OSCC patients had tumor-free margins, of whom 68 had perineural invasion. Postoperative adjuvant RT was performed in patients with pT4 tumors, positive lymph nodes, or close margins (<or =4 mm). In addition, selected OSCC patients with large pT3 tumors or perineural invasion received postoperative adjuvant RT. Local control and overall survival rates were plotted by Kaplan-Meier analysis. There were no significant differences in 5-year local control (p = 0.1936) and overall survival (p = 0.5580) rates between patients with perineural invasion compared with those without. Among patients with perineural invasion, the addition of adjuvant radiotherapy did not significantly alter the 5-year local control rate (p = 0.3170) or the overall survival rate (p = 0.0935).",
"To evaluate the outcome of radical treatment for patients with stage IV squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity. Using head and neck tumor database, 57 patients with stage IV non-metastatic invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity treated with curative intent at King Faisal Specialist Hospital and Research Center, Riyadh, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, between July 1992 and June 1998, were identified and retrospectively reviewed. Our cohort of patients consisted of 33 males and 24 females, with a median age of 65 years. The primary sites were alveolus (26), tongue (22), buccal mucosa (6), floor of mouth (2) and retromolar trigone (one). Definitive radiotherapy was used in 7 patients, surgery in 17 and combined modality in 33. With a median follow-up for surviving patients of 53-months, the actuarial 5-year overall survival and relapse free survival was 20% and 14%. Tumors arising from the alveolus showed a better outcome as compared to the rest of oral cavity sites with an overall survival and relapse free survival of 32% and 26% compared to 8% and 4% (p value=0.0057 and 0.0038).",
"To evaluate the usefulness of routine follow-up in a selected group of patients with head and neck cancer. Retrospective cohort study with follow-up of 5 years for all patients. Three hundred two patients with advanced (stage II or IV) squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, and larynx were treated with curative intent with surgery and postoperative radiation therapy between January 1, 1970, and December 31, 1990. Survival after recurrence of the index tumor or the development of a second head and neck primary tumor. Overall actuarial 5-year survival was 56%. Relapse occurred in 119 patients, and salvage therapy was attempted in 49 patients. Only 2 patients survived to 5 years after relapse.",
"To examine the role of brachytherapy for aged patients 80 or more in the trend of rapidly increasing number. We examined the outcomes for elderly patients with node negative oral tongue cancer (T1-3N0M0) treated with brachytherapy. The 21 patients (2 T1, 14 T2, and 5 T3 cases) ranged in age from 80 to 89 years (median 81), and their cancer was pathologically confirmed. All patients underwent definitive radiation therapy, with low dose rate (LDR) Ra-226 brachytherapy (n = 4; median 70Gy), with Ir-192 (n = 12; 70Gy), with Au-198 (n = 1) or with high dose rate (HDR) Ir-192 brachytherapy (n = 4; 60 Gy). Eight patients also underwent external radiotherapy (median 30 Gy). The period of observation ranged from 13 months to 14 years (median 2.5 years). We selected 226 population matched younger counterpart from our medical chart. Definitive radiation therapy was completed for all 21 patients (100%), and acute grade 2-3 mucositis related to the therapy was tolerable. Local control (initial complete response) was attained in 19 of 21 patients (90%). The 2-year and 5-year local control rates were 91%, (100% for T1, 83% for T2 and 80% for T3 tumors after 2 years). These figures was not inferior to that of younger counterpart (82% at 5-year, n.s.). The cause-specific survival rate was 83% and the regional control rate 84% at the 2-years follow-up. However, 12 patients died because of intercurrent diseases or senility, resulting in overall survival rates of 55% at 2 years and 34% at 5 years.",
"yes. Although complete surgical resection followed by wide-field radiation therapy has been established as a therapeutic standard for AS, delay in diagnosis and older age with comorbidities warrant for a safe and effective adjuvant treatment. Pegylated liposomal doxorubicin combined with radiotherapy seems to be a useful and safe alternative.",
"Elective treatment to the ipsilateral neck is not indicated in all patients with anterior tongue cancer. However, for patients with a tumour thickness>5 mm it is recommended that they undergo treatment to the ipsilateral neck in the form of a supraomohyoid neck dissection.",
"We sought to examine prognostic and therapeutic implications, including cost-effectiveness, of elective neck dissection in the management of patients with clinically-determined T1N0 oral tongue carcinoma. A retrospective review of patients with cT1N0 oral tongue squamous cell carcinoma who underwent surgical extirpation of primary tumor, with or without elective neck dissection, at UCLA Medical Center from 1990 to 2009 was performed. Cox proportional hazards regression was used to assess effects of variables on time to first loco-regional recurrence. A healthcare costs analysis of elective neck dissection was performed by querying the SEER-Medicare linked database. Of the 123 patients identified with cT1N0 squamous cell carcinoma of the oral tongue, 88 underwent elective neck dissection at the time of tumor resection while 35 did not. For all patients, disease-free survival at 3, 5, and 10 years was 93%, 82%, and 79%. Of the 88 patients undergoing elective neck dissection, 20 (23%) demonstrated occult metastatic disease. Male gender, tumor size, perineural invasion, and occult metastatic disease were individually associated with higher rates of loco-regional recurrence. There was no significant difference in loco-regional recurrence between those who underwent elective neck dissection and those who did not (HR=0.76, p=0.52). On cost analysis, neck dissection was not associated with any significant difference in Medicare payments.",
"Accelerated schedules are effective in overcoming repopulation during radiotherapy (RT) for head-and-neck cancers, but their feasibility is compromised by increased toxicity. The therapeutic ratio may be particularly favorable for 5-week regimens. This study reports the 10-year experience of a single institution in the routine use of concomitant boost RT as standard radical treatment in all but the most favorable stage patients. Between February 1991 and June 2001, 296 patients (mean age, 59 years) were treated with concomitant boost RT either alone (67%) or combined with cisplatin-based chemotherapy (33%), with a median tumor dose of 69.9 Gy. Tumors were located in the oropharynx in 52%, hypopharynx in 20%, larynx in 15%, nasopharynx in 7%, and oral cavity in 6%. International Union Against Cancer Stage III-IV disease represented 77% of tumors. The median follow-up for surviving patients was 55 months (range, 10-138 months). The RT schedule was completed to the prescribed dose in all but 1 patient. Twenty patients (7%) had a treatment interruption (median, 5 days; range, 2-35 days). Grade 3-4 Radiation Therapy Oncology Group acute toxicity was observed in 77% of patients, and nutritional support was required in 110 patients (37%). For all patients, the 5-year actuarial locoregional control and disease-free survival rate was 72% and 61%, respectively. In a multivariate analysis, only T and N stage was significantly associated with locoregional control and disease-free survival. Grade 3-4 late toxicity occurred in 14%, mostly bone and cartilage necrosis.",
"Although adjuvant radiotherapy (RT) is often recommended for locally advanced squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (HNSCC), its effect on overall or cancer-specific survival has not been clearly demonstrated. In the current study, the frequency and effect of adjuvant RT on overall survival was investigated in patients with resected lymph node-positive head and neck cancer. Within the Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) database, patients were selected with lymph node-positive HNSCC (American Joint Committee on Cancer and SEER stage 3/4) who were treated either with surgery alone or surgery and RT and were diagnosed between 1988 and 2001. A total of 8795 patients who met the inclusion criteria for analysis comprised the study population, with a median follow-up of 4.3 years for patients still alive at the time of last follow-up. Adjuvant RT was utilized in 84% of patients. Adjuvant RT improved the 5-year overall survival (43.2% [95% confidence interval (95% CI), 41.9-44.4%] for surgery + RT vs 33.4% [95% CI, 30.7-36.0%] for surgery alone; P < .001) and cancer-specific survival (50.9% for surgery + RT vs 42.1% for surgery) on univariate analysis. On multivariate analysis, adjuvant RT (hazards ratio [HR] of 0.78; 95% CI, 0.71-0.86 [P < .001]) remained a significant predictor of improved survival. The significant benefit of radiation on overall survival was noted for lymph node-positive patients with both primary tumors localized to the involved organ (HR of 0.81; 95% CI, 0.71-0.94 [P = .007]) and more locally invasive primary tumors (HR of 0.77; 95% CI, 0.68-0.87 [P < .001]).",
"Results of organ preservation with radical RT or CCRT do not show promising outcomes in the locally advanced T3 carcinoma of postcricoid. Radical surgery with appropriate reconstruction and postoperative radiotherapy is probably better in terms of local control as well as overall survival. Proper preoperative counseling and postoperative rehabilitation of speech and stoma can improve the quality of life of T3 postcricoid carcinoma patients.",
"Cetuximab concurrent with radiotherapy is a reasonable alternative in advanced head-neck cancer patients with acceptable compliance and outcomes, but higher skin toxicity.",
"yes. Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy or chemotherapy followed by surgery (particularly lobectomy) is superior to following these therapies with definitive chemoradiation or radiotherapy, particularly in patients undergoing lobectomy.",
"Most patients with tongue cancer require surgical resection of the tongue to varying degrees. As a result, quality of life, which is strongly related to speech, chewing, and swallowing, can deteriorate severely from extensive surgical treatment of tongue cancer. In addition to surgery, adjuvant therapy may affect the severity of functional impairment. Therefore, the influence of postoperative radiotherapy on functional outcome after partial glossectomy with free flap reconstruction was evaluated in patients with early oral tongue cancer. Functional outcome was measured and charts of 31 patients with oral tongue cancer who were surgically treated at Yonsei Head and Neck Cancer Clinic from 2003 through 2008 were reviewed. Only patients who underwent partial glossectomy and reconstruction with radial forearm free flap and did not develop recurrence were included. Speech integrity was evaluated with diadochokinetic testing by a professional speech therapist. Tongue mobility was checked by measurements of upward distance, protrusion distance, and lateral deviation distance. Swallowing capacity was evaluated with the M.D. Anderson Dysphagia Inventory. Diadochokinetic rates of the surgery-only and postoperative radiotherapy groups were 27.8 and 23.9, respectively, which was statistically different. Swallowing capacity was significantly superior in the surgery-only group. Tongue mobility was not statistically different between the 2 groups.",
"High-risk factors for recurrence of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma after surgical resection include involvement of ≥ 2 regional lymph nodes, extracapsular spread, and microscopic involvement of resected mucosal margins. Adjuvant chemoradiotherapy is thought to improve postoperative locoregional control and survival. In this paper, we evaluate the efficacy of adjuvant therapy for high-risk oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) (i.e., with ≥ 2 lymph nodes, positive extracapsular spread, or positive margins). This is a retrospective analysis of 45 high-risk OPSCC patients who underwent surgery without adjuvant therapy (n = 19), with radiotherapy (n = 17), or with chemoradiotherapy (n = 9). The median follow-up period was 41.0 months. Radiotherapy patients showed a trend toward longer overall survival than patients without adjuvant therapy [hazard ratio (HR) = 0.32, p = 0.176]. However, overall survival for the chemoradiotherapy group seemed to be the same as that for the no adjuvant therapy group (HR = 0.79, p = 0.779). Multivariate analysis found that the relative risk of recurrence for patients without adjuvant therapy compared with any adjuvant therapy was 3.02 (p = 0.101). The relative recurrence risk in radiotherapy patients was 0.95 compared with that in chemoradiotherapy patients (p = 0.971). However, pathological T-stage was significantly associated with disease-free survival for high-risk OPSCC.",
"yes. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the oral cavity or oropharyngeal region will benefit from preservation of the ipsilateral SMG. This is not true for patients with SCC of the surrounding tissue nearest the SMG (i.e., floor of the mouth or the tongue). In such patients, the SMG must be excised.",
"yes. Concurrent radiation and chemotherapy with weekly docetaxel is a feasible postoperative treatment in a multimodality approach to oral and oropharyngeal cancer, resulting in high overall and disease-free survival. This approach warrants further evaluation in prospective randomized trials.",
"The standard treatment for non-metastatic oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma (OCSCC) is surgical resection followed by post-operative radiotherapy (PORT) with/without chemotherapy in high risk patients. Given the substantial toxicity of PORT we assessed lymph node ratio (LNR) as a predictor of PORT benefit. By using the Surveillance, Epidemiology and End Results (SEER) database, we analyzed all node positive OCSCC patients diagnosed between 1988 and 2007 who underwent neck dissection. LNR was categorized into three groups: < 6%, 6-12.5% and > 12.5%. In 3091 subjects identified, median survival was 32, 25 and 16 months for LNR Groups 1, 2 and 3, respectively. On multivariate analysis, survival was associated with age, race, grade, tumor size, nodal stage, extra-capsular extension, use of PORT and LNR. When stratified by LNR group, PORT was associated with a survival benefit only in Group 3 (LNR > 12.5%): 2 year survival 25% vs 37%. No benefit to PORT was seen when the LNR ≤ 12.5%: 2 year survival 51% vs 54%.",
"To study the influence of surgery in patients who achieve a response to induction chemotherapy. Nonrandomized retrospective study. Comprehensive cancer center. The records of all patients with state III and stage IV squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, and hypopharynx were reviewed at the Queensland Radium Institute, South Brisbane, Australia, in the years 1970 through 1990. There were 314 patients where induction chemotherapy was used as part of a curative treatment. Complete response occurred in 20 patients, partial response in 110 patients, nonresponse in 162 patients, and unknown response in 22 patients. To assess the impact of surgery, the responders were divided into two treatment groups: one group (n = 57) received chemotherapy surgery, and radiotherapy (C/S/XRT), and a second group (n = 73) received chemotherapy and radiotherapy (C/XRT). Five-year survival, local failure, nodal failure, and distant failure. The 5-year actuarial survival for the chemotherapy responders and nonresponders was 58% and 43%, respectively (P<.05). When analyzed by treatment group, those receiving C/S/XRT had a 65% 5-year survival (95%) confidence intervals [CIs], 53 to 78) and those receiving C/XRT had a 56% 5-year survival (95% CI, 44 to 70). However, when the complete responders were assessed, those receiving C/S/XRT had a 90% 5-year survival (95% CI, 72 to 99) vs a 51% survival (95% CI, 18 to 89) for those treated with C/XRT. For the partial responders, the survival for the groups C/S/XRT and C/XRT were 59% (95% CI, 45 to 79) and 53% (95% CI, 41 to 67), respectively. Chemotherapy responders were less likely to fail locally if they were treated with C/S/XRT than with C/XRT (21% vs 43%, P<.01).",
"The role of surgery in aggressive chemoradiation protocols for advanced head and neck cancer has been questioned because of the quoted high clinical response rates in many series. The role of surgical resection was examined in an aggressive neoadjuvant protocol of weekly paclitaxel, carboplatin, and radiation for stage III and IV with completion of radiation to 72 Gy if biopsy at the primary site was negative after administration of 45 Gy. Of 43 patients enrolled, 38 completed the protocol. The clinical response was 100% (including 18 complete and 20 partial responses). The complete pathologic response (negative primary site biopsy at 45 Gy) was 25 of 38 (66%). Of patients who presented with N1 to N3 nodes, neck dissection revealed residual nodal metastases in 22%. Surgical resection of the primary site was required in 13 patients, including 5 with larynx cancer and 2 with base of tongue cancers. Four patients had resection with reconstruction for advanced mandible floor of mouth cancer, and one had resection of nasal-maxillary cancer. Functional resection was performed in 9 of 12 patients. The median progression free and overall survival was 64% and 68%, respectively, at median follow-up of 50 months. Nine patients developed recurrence (three local and six distant). There were no failures in the neck. Salvage surgery was performed in one patient with local and one with distant disease.",
"To examine the feasibility and efficacy of weekly docetaxel with concurrent radiation as postoperative treatment in a multimodality approach to oral and oropharyngeal cancer. 94 patients (Table 1) with primary resectable squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity and oropharynx (UICC stage I 14%, II 15%, III 18%, IV 53%; Table 2) were treated with a multimodality therapy program consisting of neoadjuvant intra-arterial high-dose chemotherapy (cisplatin 150 mg/m(2) with parallel systemic sodium thiosulfate 9 g/m(2) for neutralization), followed by surgery of the primary and neck, and postoperative concurrent radiation and chemotherapy with weekly docetaxel (20-30 mg/m(2); Table 3). Chronic toxicities were followed over a period of 5 years. At a median follow-up of 4 years, the 5-year survival rate for all 94 patients was 80%, and disease-free survival was 73% (Figures 1 and 2). Among patients with advanced disease (stage III and IV), survival was 83 and 59%, respectively (Figure 4). Grade 3 and 4 mucositis was the main acute toxicity necessitating supportive care. Long-term toxicity appears to be moderate (Table 4). The maximum tolerated dose of weekly docetaxel was 25 mg/m(2).",
"yes. The brachytherapy for elderly patients with tongue cancer was safe, and the control of the primary lesion was almost the same as in younger patients. However, modalities available to treat neck node metastasis are limited. More conservative surgical approaches combined with post-operative irradiation may be advocated for neck node metastasis for elderly patients with tongue cancer.",
"yes. The addition of postoperative radiotherapy was associated with improved disease-free and adjusted overall cancer-specific survival in patients with advanced hypopharyngeal squamous cancer. The potential survival benefit of postoperative radiotherapy should be addressed in a randomized clinical trial.",
"To report on the tumor control, adverse late normal tissue sequelae, and functional performance in patients with tonsillar fossa and/or soft palate (SP) tumors. The aim of the study is to validate the use of a more selective clinical target volume in conjunction with highly conformal radiotherapy (RT) techniques to better spare the surrounding normal tissues. Between 1986 and 2001, T1-T3 tonsillar fossa/SP tumors were treated in the Erasmus Medical Center using external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) to 46 Gy in 2-Gy fractions to the primary tumor and neck, followed by brachytherapy (BT) to the primary. Neck dissection was performed for node-positive disease (BT group; 104 patients). If BT was not feasible, patients underwent surgery and postoperative RT (PORT) to a dose of 50-70 Gy in 2-Gy fractions (surgery group; 86 patients). Local control, regional control, disease-free survival, and overall survival were determined. Late side effects were scored using the Radiation Therapy Oncology Group criteria. Univariate and multivariate Cox regression analyses were performed for regional failure (RF), with the parameters gender, age, site, TN stage, modality, dose, and overall treatment time. Recurrences in the contralateral neck were also related to significant ipsilateral involvement of the base of tongue and/or involvement of the SP crossing the midline. To determine the performance status scale scores and degree of xerostomia, a survey was conducted among patients living with no evidence of disease and a minimum of 2 years of follow-up. For that purpose, a research nurse interviewed patients regarding eating in public, normalcy of diet, normalcy of speech, and xerostomia. The tumor control rates after BT vs. surgery at 5 years were 88% vs. 88% for local control; 93% vs. 85% for regional control; 57% vs. 52% for disease-free survival; 67% vs. 57% for overall survival; and 5% vs. 6% for RF. No patient had RF in the contralateral untreated N0 neck (0 of 14 vs. 0 of 15). Multivariate Cox regression analysis for RF was statistically significant for Stage T2 vs. T3 (hazard ratio 0.09) and for the dose to the neck>46 Gy (hazard ratio, 8.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.3-57.1). The significant late side effects in the BT group vs. surgery group were ulcer in 39% vs. 7% (p = 0.001) and trismus in 1% vs. 21% (p = 0.005). The performance status scale scores and response to questions regarding xerostomia for BT vs. surgery revealed no statistically significant differences for eating in public, normalcy of diet, normalcy of speech, and xerostomia. The mean visual analog score for xerostomia was 5.5 in the BT group vs. 6 in the surgery group.",
"We compared the outcomes and survival rates of patients with oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma receiving postoperative conventional radiotherapy (RT) or intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT). From January 2005 to September 2008, medical records of 131 consecutive patients with oral cancer receiving postoperative radiotherapy in the Department of Radiation Oncology of National Cheng Kung University Hospital were reviewed. Patients were divided into two groups according to the administration of postoperative conventional RT or IMRT. The loco-regional control, survival, and other prognostic factors were compared. The 3-year Kaplan-Meier estimates of overall survival for patients receiving conventional RT and IMRT groups were 51.2% vs. 69.4% (p=0.079), respectively. The 3-year local-regional control (53.5% vs. 76.3%; p=0.020) and disease-free survival rates (47.8% vs. 70.0%; p=0.027) were significantly increased in the IMRT group. This retrospective study also identified that extracapsular spreading, margin positive/close (≤ 2mm), more advanced T stage (T3-4 vs. T1-2), and conventional RT method were associated with worse prognosis.",
"The authors compared the survival outcomes of radiotherapy+/-salvage surgery to surgery+/-postoperative radiotherapy for patients with squamous cell cancer of the hypopharynx. There was no evidence beyond observational studies and no consensus on the which treatment is most effective for this patient group. The authors conducted a retrospective population-based study of 595 patients from Ontario Canada diagnosed between January 1, 1990 and December 31, 1999. Three different methodological approaches were used for the survival analysis including a restricted cohort study, a matched case-control study, and a natural experiment study across defined geographic regions. The authors found no survival advantage for either radiotherapy+/-salvage surgery or surgery+/-postoperative radiotherapy.",
"To conduct a comprehensive review whether chemotherapy to radiotherapy after surgical resection could improve the loco regional control and survival compared with postoperative radiotherapy alone. A comprehensive search of PubMed for relevant studies comparing patients with advanced squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck undergoing chemoradiotherapy or radiotherapy alone after resection was conducted. The meta-analysis demonstrated significant benefits from adding chemotherapy to radiotherapy in local-regional control, disease-free survival and overall survival (p < 0.00001). The adverse effects include hematological and non-hematological toxicities. Although the acute and late toxicities occurred more frequently and severely in chemoradiation combined treatment, there was no significant difference compared with radiotherapy alone, but the estimated pooled RR of mucositis or dysphagia was 1.69 (p < 0.00001) in favor of radiotherapy regimens.",
"Radical radiotherapy appears to be a viable alternative to conservative surgery, even in elderly patients with poor performance status and comorbidities. Salvage laryngectomy in the RR group was compared favorably with those reported in other conservative surgery series and in the group treated postoperatively of our series.",
"The purpose of this study was to examine the long-term outcome of a cohort of patients with unresected base of tongue carcinoma who received interstitial brachytherapy after comprehensive external beam radiation therapy. Between 1983 and 2000, 122 patients with primary or recurrent squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx or oral cavity received interstitial brachytherapy as part of their overall management. Forty patients had primary, unresected carcinoma of the base of tongue and are the subjects of this analysis. The median age was 54 years. Fifty-four percent had T3 or T4 disease, and 70% had clinical or radiographic lymphadenopathy. Twenty-four (60%) received two to three cycles of neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The oropharynx, bilateral neck, and supraclavicular fossae were comprehensively irradiated, and the tongue base received a median external beam dose of 61.2 Gy (50-72 Gy). The primary site was then boosted with an interstitial 192Iridium implant by use of a gold-button single-strand technique and three-dimensional treatment planning. The dose rate was prescribed at 0.4 to 0.5 Gy/hr. The median implant dose was 17.4 Gy (9.6-24 Gy) and adjusted to reach a total dose to the primary tumor of 80 Gy. N2 to 3 disease was managed by a planned neck dissection performed at the time of the implant. The median follow-up for all patients was 56 months, and the overall survival rates were 62% at 5 years and 27% at 10 years. The actuarial primary site control was 78% at 5 years and 70% at 10 years. The overall survival and primary site control were independent of T classification, N status, or overall stage. Systemic therapy was associated with an improvement in overall survival (p = .04) and a trend toward increased primary site control with greater clinical response. There were seven documented late effects, the most frequent being grade 3 osteonecrosis (n = 2), grade 2 swallowing dysfunction (n = 2), trismus (n = 2), and chronic throat pain (n = 1).",
"Postoperative radiation is considered to be \"standard of care\" therapy for advanced, resectable squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck. This approach has been supported by retrospective data but has not been validated in randomized clinical trials. The present analysis examined the clinical course of 110 patients with squamous cell cancer of the hypopharynx treated with surgery alone (n = 65) and postoperative radiotherapy alone (n = 45) between 1966 and 1990. Staging of patients was performed using the 1988 American Joint Committee on Cancer criteria. Cox regression analyses identified clinical and pathologic factors that were significant for disease-free and overall survival. Crude and adjusted cancer-specific survival rates were calculated. The postoperative radiotherapy group presented with more advanced disease than the surgery alone group (stage III and IV combined, 96% versus 77%, P = 0.015). Crude 5-year cancer-specific survival probabilities were 43% for the postoperative therapy group and 27% for the surgery alone group (P = NS). Adjusted 5-year survival rates, correcting for differences in significant prognostic variables between groups, were 18% and 48%, respectively, for the surgery and postoperative radiotherapy groups (P = 0.029).",
"yes. In an era of greatly improved dose distributions made possible by three-dimensional treatment planning and intensity-modulated radiation therapy, brachytherapy allows a highly conformal dose to be delivered in sites such as the oropharynx. If done properly, the procedure is safe and delivers a dose that is higher than what can be achieved by external beam radiation alone with the expected biologic advantages. The long-term data presented here support an approach of treating advanced tongue base lesions that includes interstitial brachytherapy as part of the overall management plan. This approach has led to a 78% rate of organ preservation at 5 years, with a 5% incidence of significant late morbidity (osteonecrosis) that has required medical management.",
"Between 1999 and 2004, 43 patients with stage II-IV squamous cell carcinoma of the base of the tongue were treated with a combined modality of radiotherapy (prescribed 55 Gy in 20 fractions), synchronous chemotherapy and in some cases surgical neck dissection. End points were acute and late toxicity, 3 year locoregional control, overall survival, cancer-specific survival and compliance. The median follow-up for surviving patients was 3.9 years. All patients completed radiotherapy and 30% received neoadjuvant chemotherapy. The median time for the completion of treatment was 27 days (range 25-36). Overall, only 42% completed the prescribed synchronous chemotherapy. However, compliance increased to 60% in patients who did not receive neoadjuvant chemotherapy. Grade 3 mucositis developed in 90% of patients. Prolonged grade 3 mucositis (>4 weeks) was seen in 24/43 (56%) and none developed grade 4 mucositis. There were no toxic deaths. Feeding tube dependency at 1 year was 14%. The 3 year locoregional control, overall survival and cancer-specific survival were 70, 60 and 60%, respectively. Clinical T staging was most significantly associated with poor overall survival, cancer-specific survival and local control. Distant metastases occurred in 6/43 patients (14%), 5/6 without locoregional recurrence.",
"Advanced SCC of the tongue is a devastating disease causing severe pain and disorders of speech and swallowing. Total glossectomy (with or without total laryngectomy) and postoperative radiotherapy is a reasonable treatment option, particularly in the developing world setting. It has cure rates superior to primary radiotherapy, and provides motivated patients with excellent pain relief and a reasonable quality of life.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare quality of life (QoL) and the survival rate after surgery with and without radiotherapy versus superselective intra-arterial chemoradiotherapy (SSIACRT) for advanced cancer of the tongue and floor of the mouth. Patients with stage III and IV squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue and floor of the mouth treated between 2000 and 2013 were included in this study. The predictor variables were surgery without radiotherapy, surgery followed by radiotherapy, and SSIACRT. The outcome variables were QoL and the survival rate. The University of Washington QoL questionnaire (UW-QOL) was used for evaluation of QoL. The Kaplan-Meier method was used to estimate the overall survival rate. The UW-QOL was analyzed by analysis of covariance, and the survival rate was analyzed statistically by the log-rank test. Sixty-two patients were eligible for this study. Of these, 13 were treated by surgery without radiotherapy, 29 were treated by surgery plus radiotherapy, and 20 were treated by SSIACRT. The SSIACRT group had the best UW-QOL scores among the 3 groups. The 5-year Kaplan-Meier disease-specific survival rates for these groups were 92.9%, 62.9%, and 83.2%, respectively, with no significant difference (P = .20) shown.",
"yes. Although the patients with more advanced T stage were included in the RT and CRT groups, the OSR was not statistically different according to the treatment methods. In the radical radiation therapy group, the addition of neoadjuvant chemotherapy showed an improvement in the disease-free survival. Because of the retrospective nature of our study and the small number of patients, this study cannot draw any definite conclusions, but it suggests that radiation therapy with chemotherapy can be a good alternative option for squamous cell carcinoma of tonsil. Controlled randomized study is necessary to confirm this hypothesis.",
"To evaluate irradiation alone for treatment of base-of-tongue cancer. Two hundred seventeen patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the base of tongue were treated with radiation alone and had follow-up for>/= 2 years. Local control rates at 5 years were as follows: T1, 96%; T2, 91%; T3, 81%; and T4, 38%. Multivariate analysis revealed that T stage (P =.0001) and overall treatment time (P =.0006) significantly influenced local control. The 5-year rates of local-regional control were as follows: I, 100%; II, 100%; III, 83%; IVA, 64%; and IVB, 65%. Multivariate analysis revealed that the following parameters significantly affect the probability of this end point: T stage (P =.0001), overall treatment time (P =.0001), overall stage (P =.0131), and addition of a neck dissection (P =.0021). The rates of absolute and cause-specific survival at 5 years were as follows: I, 50% and 100%; II, 81% and 100%; III, 65% and 76%; IVA, 42% and 56%; and IVB, 44% and 52%. Severe radiation complications developed in eight patients (4%).",
"Total glossectomy (with or without total laryngectomy) followed by postoperative radiotherapy remains the principal treatment method for advanced base of tongue carcinoma. The procedure remains controversial owing to poor cure rates and the inevitable functional deficits associated with it. However, even though total glossectomy is a major surgical procedure that impacts on speech, deglutition and quality of life, it may offer patients the best chance of cure in many centres, especially in the developing world. We did a retrospective chart review of all patients at Groote Schuur Hospital, Cape Town, who had undergone total glossectomy, with or without total laryngectomy, for stage IV squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the tongue between 1998 and 2004. Eight patients had a total glossectomy performed during the study period. At 2, 3 and 5 years 63%, 38% and 25% of patients respectively were alive without disease. No patient required permanent nasogastric or gastrostomy feeding, and all returned to a full oral diet. Three of 5 patients who had laryngeal preservation and could be assessed for speech had intelligible speech. All but 1 patient (88%) reported pain relief following surgical excision. Perineural invasion was present in 75%, and 38% had positive resection margins. Five patients had recurrence, 2 cervical, 1 local, and 2 local and cervical."
] | 978 |
Section of the sublingual frenulum. Are the indications correct? | [
"To see the relationship of the lingual frenum with speech and other oral functions, evaluating the surgical indications and the results of frenectomy. In 1997 we operated 72 children with sublingual frenulum, a telephone questionnaire to the mothers of these patients was done, obtaining data about: age at surgery, professional reasons for referral, preoperative findings, pre-post operative speech therapy, place of surgery and type of anesthesia and mother's impression about the final result. Fifty valid questionnaires were obtained, the mean age at frenectomy was 3.03 years, 38% of children were sent due to speech problems, 60% due to some degree of tongue-tie and 2% due to dentofacial developmental anomalies. In 70% the patients were sent by a pediatrician and in 14% by a speech therapist. In 20% preoperative speech therapy was done and postoperatively in 30%. In 48% of cases, aged less than 2 years, speech was not possible to be evaluated. In the 11 cases with questionable results, a multidisciplinary reevaluation showed 7 cases with lingual dysfunction and poor tongue control, 4 cases with deglutitory anomalies and 3 cases with orofacial occlusal problems secondary to lingual dysfunction or altered oral habits.",
"The presence of a nondisturbing lingual frenulum does not justify its surgical section, the frenectomy is indicated only in presence of altered oro-lingual functions caused by the tongue-tie such as: speech problems, errors of bite and deglutition, lingual dysfunction and anomalous oral habits."
] | [
"The aim of the study was to identify and validate enhancing features for differentiating benign vascular neoplasms of the hemangioma/hamartoma type from malignant splenic lesions on contrast-enhanced ultrasonography (CEUS). 136 splenic lesions (58 benign vascular neoplasms, 78 malignant) in 136 patients underwent baseline US and pulse-inversion CEUS after sulfur hexafluoride-filled microbubble injection. Two on-site readers assessed lesion enhancement features during arterial and parenchymal phase in consensus. Best predicting CEUS features for lesion diagnosis were identified through univariate and multivariate analyses. Two blinded off-site readers independently issued a confidence rating for lesion diagnosis in baseline US and CEUS using extracted diagnostic CEUS features. Diagnostic performance, receiver operating curves (Az-value), and interreader agreement were calculated. The reference standards were histopathology or CT and/or MR imaging with clinical follow-up. Multivariate analysis outlined arterial hyperenhancement or isoenhancement to be an independent CEUS predictor of benign vascular neoplasms (odds ratio, 3.558; p < 0.0017). Within the subgroup of isoechoic or hypoechoic lesions, arterial hyperenhancement was virtually diagnostic for benign vascular neoplasm (odds ratio, 21.333; p < 0.001). The diagnostic accuracy and confidence (Az-value) of the two readers was 63.2 % and 70.6 % (0.785 and 0.818) for baseline US, which improved significantly to 87.5 % and 88.2 % (0.915 and 0.908) for CEUS (p < 0.001). Interreader agreement also increased with CEUS (қ = 0.88) compared to baseline US (қ = 0.52).",
"The results suggest that radiologic demonstration of contact between a vascular loop formed by the AICA and the eighth cranial nerve on MRI scans should be considered a normal anatomic finding and should not, on its own, be used to support the diagnosis of a \"vascular compression syndrome.\"",
"The practice of administering intravenous contrast to children varies by institution depending on their routine. To assess the necessity of routine contrast administration in brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of pediatric outpatients referred for chronic headache workups. We conducted a retrospective review of consecutive pediatric brain MRI examinations performed during January and February 2014 in 30 pediatric outpatients referred for evaluation of chronic headache. Independent review was performed by two board-certified neuroradiologists. The raters reviewed each MRI first as a non-contrast examination (without seeing the post-contrast images) and then with post-contrast images. No abnormalities were found in six patients. One patient had an indeterminate finding of a tubular cerebellar lesion requiring follow-up. In the remaining patients (n = 23), the findings were subclinical and included: mucosal thickening in the paranasal sinuses in 9 patients, cystic changes of the pineal gland in 8 (size 2-9 mm), small developmental venous anomalies in 6, non-specific FLAIR hyperintensities in 4, opacification of the mastoids in 2, and telangiectasia in 1 patient. The subclinical cases that were missed on pre-contrast images were: one small developmental venous anomaly, one telangiectasia and one small pineal cyst, none of which hold clinical significance. All kappa inter-rater and intra-rater agreement scores resulted in values above 0.75, excellent agreement according to Fleiss guidelines.",
"yes. The preoperative computed tomography and magnetic resonance images, notably the presence of a spur on the bicipital groove or a subscapularis tear, were useful for identifying LHB tendon disorders. When these are found in preoperative images, the clinician should evaluate the patient for the presence of an LHB tendon disorder as a pain generator.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of a modified technique for peritoneal dialysis catheter placement in the right lower quadrant with respect to catheter tip migration. This retrospective study included 237 patients with end-stage renal disease who underwent implantation of a two-cuff straight-end swan-neck catheter for peritoneal dialysis. Ninety-eight patients received conventional catheter placement in the left quadrant (beside the umbilicus 12-13 cm above the pubic symphysis) with catheter exit site on the left, and 139 patients received modified catheter placement in the right lower quadrant (beside the umbilicus 6-7 cm above the pubic symphysis) with catheter exit site on the right. Dialysate inflow time, dialysate outflow time, ultrafiltration volume, infection, hemorrhage, intestinal obstruction, and catheter tip migration were recorded. There were no significant differences in dialysate inflow time, dialysate outflow time, ultrafiltration volume, infection, hemorrhage, or intestinal obstruction between the conventional and modified groups. Catheter tip migration occurred in 19 (19.3%) of the 98 patients in the conventional group, and in 5 (3.6%) of the 139 patients in the modified group. The frequency of occurrence of catheter tip migration was significantly less in the modified group compared with the conventional group (p < 0.01). In addition, repositioning of the catheter occurred in all five patients with catheter tip migration in the modified group after conservative treatment, whereas 12 patients required surgical repositioning of the catheter in the conventional group.",
"A crucial methodological aspect of ambulatory 24-h esophageal pH monitoring is electrode placement. Lower esophageal sphincter (LES) location is recommended for standard electrode positioning. The aim of the present study was to evaluate prospectively whether LES manometric location and intragastric pH acid confirmation suffice to guarantee that the pH electrode is properly placed. We evaluated data from 402 consecutive patients undergoing esophageal pH monitoring. LES location was determined by manometry, and the pH electrode was introduced until a pH recording<3 was obtained. Subsequently, it was positioned 5 cm above the proximal LES border. Thereafter, adequate catheter placement and absence of bends or loops were checked by fluoroscopy. Patients with bent or rolled catheters were instructed to have breakfast immediately, and catheter placement was checked again by fluoroscopy. When checked by fluoroscopy, the catheter was properly placed in 383 patients (95.3%). In the other 19 (4.7%), it was not located in the distal part of the esophagus owing to bending or rolling: 14 in the esophagus and five in the pharynx. After breakfast, 14 of the 19 malpositioned catheters were properly positioned whereas five remained bent or rolled. Those bent in the esophagus were more prone to unbending (12 of 14) than those bent or rolled in the pharynx (two of five).",
"Patients with DFNB1 SNHL do not have significant anatomic differences on temporal bone CT scans when compared to non-DFNB1 SNHL and CHL control groups. Based on the above analysis, it is reasonable to avoid routine CT imaging of the temporal bones in children with known DFNB1 SNHL unless otherwise clinically indicated.",
"yes. LUS was accurate, safe, well accepted and tolerated. LUS appears to be a useful diagnostic tool for supplementing FFL in the assessment of benign vocal fold lesions in children and may represent an interesting alternative in everyday clinical practice.",
"yes. Although approximate guidelines, we recommend the longus colli be dissected approximately 5 mm at C3-5, 6 mm at C5-6, 7 mm at C6-7, and 8 mm at C7-T1 to expose the uncinate process to its lateral edge.",
"Before operating on 130 patients with pituitary disorders, we evaluated their bone window CT images sliced parallel to the transnasal surgical route to assess the surgical anatomy of the nasal cavity for transnasal surgery. High resolution bone window CT was performed in 3- to 5-mm slices parallel to the imaginary line connecting the inferior margin of the piriform aperture and the top of the sellar floor, parallel to the transnasal surgical route. This CT angle was useful in evaluating the width and depth of the operative field, the bony components of the nasal conchas, deviation of the nasal septum, the bony structure and mucosa in the sphenoid sinus, and the condition of the sellar floor. In patients requiring repeat surgery, the location of thin or thick nasal mucosa, residual bony septum, and inadequate sellar floor opening were easily detected.",
"No statistically significant differences in early complications or recurrence rates were found between the two different lateralization distances in the modified Limberg flap procedure. Therefore, we conclude that 1-cm lateralization of the lower part of the incision is sufficient.",
"Clinical RDC/TMD examination proved to be accurate in detecting normal disk position and disk displacement with reduction but not reliable in predicting MRI diagnosis of disk displacement without reduction in the temporomandibular joint.",
"The aim this study was to compare the buccal fat pad (BFP) and nasolabial flap for reconstruction of intraoral defects after release of fibrous bands in patients with oral submucous fibrosis (OSF). This is a comparative study. The study sample was derived from the population of patients who presented, with restricted mouth opening of less than 20 mm, to the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Swargiya Dada Saheb Kalmegh Dental College and Hospital Hingna Nagpur. The patients were divided into two groups. In Group I (n = 10) reconstruction was performed with a nasolabial flap and in Group II (n = 10) with BFP. Both groups were analysed separately for mouth opening (interincisal distance in millimetres) preoperatively and 20 months postoperatively, time taken for epithelialization of BFP and nasolabial flaps. Statistical analysis was performed with SPSS statistical software for Windows, version 8.0 (SPSS, Inc, Chicago, IL) using the _2 test and Student's t test. In all 20 patients the interincisal mouth opening was (mean) 11 mm (3-19 mm) preoperatively which improved to a mean of 42 mm (23-52 mm). In Group I there were more complications as compared to Group II such as partial flap necrosis particularly at the tips, temporary widening of oral commissure and subluxation of TMJ. The unsightly extraoral scar and intraoral growth of hairs were not seen in Group II.",
"In accord with recent literature subtotal resection of petroclival meningiomas should be contemplated in a subset of patients (with invasion of brain stem or cavernous sinus) to reduce the incidence of disabling deficits. Surgery should not be delayed in younger patients because surgical morbidity relates positively with tumour size.",
"In order to determine the relative locations of puborectalis/pubovisceralis (PR/PV) and iliococcygeus (IC) muscles, we undertook an analysis of four-dimensional (4D) ultrasound datasets obtained after suburethral sling placement. This was a retrospective analysis of ultrasound volume data obtained in 110 women after undergoing the Monarc suburethral sling procedure. Tomographic ultrasound imaging (TUI) was performed with eight slices in the axial plane, from 5 mm below to 12.5 mm above the plane of minimal hiatal dimensions. Hyperechogenic tape material was rated as absent, present or as producing an anechoic acoustic shadow overlying the muscle in each slice. Slices 7 and 8 virtually always showed evidence of the implant or its acoustic shadow on the pelvic sidewall (98% for slice 8 and 96% for slice 7), suggesting that these slices are located at the level of the obturator foramen. This implies that these slices do not generally contain PR/PV muscle, but rather IC muscle.",
"yes. The submandibular approach, when added to a standard transcranial Doppler examination, may increase the sensitivity of this technique to identify important potential sources of cerebral infarction.",
"On the basis of these findings we conclude that the relationship between the mid-inguinal point, found using bony landmarks, is an appropriate guide to the CFA as it can be expected to lie within 1.5 cm either side of the mid-inguinal point. The natural variability observed could account for the different anatomical descriptions of the surface anatomy of the CFA. No exact definition may be possible.",
"To determine the validity of five profile planes commonly used to describe the horizontal changes of the lower lip during orthodontic treatment. Pretreatment and posttreatment cephalograms of 79 patients (12.4 ± 2.8 years of age) were evaluated. Lower lip (labrale inferiorus) changes over time were measured relative to the Rickett's E-line, Steiner's S1-line, Burstone's B-line, Sushner's S2-line, and Holdaway's H-line. As an independent measure of actual horizontal lip changes, the labrale inferiorus was measured relative to a stable reference plane registered on the sella and oriented on the SN-7°. The lower lip actually moved anteriorly 2.35 ± 3.35 mm during orthodontic treatment; the five profile planes indicated that the lower lip moved to a more retrusive, posterior position. The five profile planes also showed no statistically significant sex differences in terms of the treatment changes that occurred, while the actual lip changes showed that males exhibited significantly greater changes than females. Actual treatment changes showed that the lower lip moved to a more protrusive position with nonextraction than with extraction treatments, changes that were not evident based on the five profile lines. While lip changes based on the five profile planes demonstrated moderately high to high intercorrelations ranging from 0.81 to 0.97, they showed only weak correlations (r<.35) with the actual horizontal changes of the labrale inferiorus.",
"yes. If meticulously planned, our modified procedure provide a direct and precise access to deep seated areas of the posterior fossa and brainstem and is particularly helpful in those patients with short neck and kyphosis in which is crucial obtain an istopathologic diagnosis in lower posterior fossa.",
"The objective of this study was to compare the locations of the centers of resistance (CRes) in the buccolingual (BL) and mesiodistal (MD) directions of the mandibular central incisors of 6 dogs. Based on microcomputed tomography images of the teeth and their supporting tissues, solid models were used to build finite element models. The CRes locations for the 6 specimens were determined for displacements in the BL and MD directions with finite element calculations. Measured from the alveolar crest, the BL and MD locations were 43% to 51% and 31% to 43% of root length, respectively. Their average locations, 46.2% and 38.3%, were statistically different at the 95% CI.",
"yes. The MRI-based diagnostic scheme is highly useful. Tight high-convexity and medial subarachnoid spaces, and enlarged Sylvian fissures with ventriculomegaly, defined as disproportionately enlarged subarachnoid-space hydrocephalus (DESH), are worthwhile for the diagnosis of iNPH. This study is registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, number NCT00221091.",
"yes. Sublobar resection might be an acceptable procedure for the treatment of small air-containing type adenocarcinomas of the lung on preoperative high-resolution computed tomography. However, our findings must be confirmed in larger, multicenter studies.",
"yes. The clinical observation of stridor in children shows poor levels of localization. Even though the two most common diagnoses, laryngomalacia and tracheomalacia are localized more correctly, the general performance is not significantly higher than random. No evidence was found in this study for differences in results by the observer's level of experience. We would recommend that an observational policy is only adequate when clear clinical signs are present that indicate laryngomalacia as first differential diagnosis. In other cases rigid and flexible endoscopy is indicated to locate the site and nature of obstruction.",
"Our findings imply that the ET alone is adequate to ventilate at least the reduced middle ear space following TL surgery in most subjects, and perhaps in 100 % if the ET hadn't been plugged during surgery. Hence, the mastoid air cell system, even when healthy, is not needed to maintain air in the middle year cleft.",
"yes. Laryngeal elevation delay time with low-viscosity contrast medium is a recommended parameter to discriminate the corticobulbar tract and the basal ganglion lesion.",
"Surgery is an integral component and typically the first line of therapy for children with central nervous system tumors. Conventional aims of neurosurgery including tumor removal, management of hydrocephalus, and diagnostic sampling have been radically modified with innovative technologies such as navigational guidance, functional mapping, endoscopic surgery, second-look surgery, and physiologic imaging. The aim of the study was to investigate our operative results using minimally invasive technique in children. Clinical features, surgical technique and results, length of hospital stay, and complications were reviewed retrospectively. Pre- and early postoperative MRI was evaluated for degree of surgical resection. Correlation of tumor localization, lengths of hospital stay as well as surgical techniques and clinical outcome with follow-up was investigated. One hundred ten patients underwent 125 tumor resections using minimally invasive approaches (image- and functional guided tailored keyhole approaches for supratentorial, retrosigmoidal, and suboccipital keyhole approaches for infratentorial lesions). Most tumors were located supratentorial (62.4 %). In 29.6 % of the cases, the surgery was performed endoscope-assisted or endoscope-controlled; neuronavigation was used in 45.6 % and ultrasound in 24 % of the cases. Astrocytomas were diagnosed in 26.4 % of cases, ependymomas in 9.6 %, and medulloblastomas in 14.4 %. Gross total resection was achieved in 60.8 %. The most common complication was CSF fistula (n = 9), and the occurrence was significantly higher in younger children (p = 0.0001) and infratentorial located tumors (p = 0.02). Surgery for posterior fossa lesions was associated with a longer hospital stay (p = 0.02) compared to surgery of supratentorial lesions. Mean follow-up was 29.7 months (range 0.3-79.1 months), and most of the children recovered during the further course of the follow-up (symptoms better or idem in 74.4 %).",
"Routine postoperative imaging (PI) following surgery for intracranial meningiomas is common practice in most neurosurgical departments. The purpose of this study was to determine the role of routine PI and its impact on clinical decision making after resection of meningioma. Patient and tumor characteristics, details of radiographic scans, symptoms and alteration of treatment courses were prospectively collected for patients undergoing removal of a supratentorial meningioma of the convexity, falx, tentorium, or lateral sphenoid wing at the authors' institution between January 1st, 2010 and March 31st, 2012. Patients with infratentorial manifestations or meningiomas of the skull base known to be surgically difficult (e.g. olfactory groove, petroclival, medial sphenoid wing) were not included. Maximum tumor diameter was divided into groups of<3 cm (small), 3 to 6 cm (medium), and>6 cm (large). 206 patients with meningiomas were operated between January 2010 and March 2012. Of these, 113 patients met the inclusion criteria and were analyzed in this study. 83 patients (73.5%) did not present new neurological deficits, whereas 30 patients (26.5%) became clinically symptomatic. Symptomatic patients had a change in treatment after PI in 21 cases (70%), while PI was without consequence in 9 patients (30%). PI did not result in a change of treatment in all asymptomatic patients (p<0.001) irrespective of tumor size (p<0.001) or localization (p<0.001).",
"Sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) is safe and reduces both symptoms and medication requirements in patients with type I respiratory allergies. Nonetheless, immune mechanisms underlying SLIT need to be further documented. A detailed characterization of the lingual immune system was undertaken in mice, to investigate the presence of tolerogenic and pro-inflammatory mechanisms. Immune cells were characterized in lingual tissues from BALB/c mice using immunohistology and flow cytometry. Resident CD4(+) T cells were sorted and toll-like receptor (TLR) expression profiles as well as functional characterization were assessed by RT-PCR, T cell suppressive assays and cytokine gene expression, respectively. Eosinophils and mast cells were only detected in submucosal tissues. No NK, NK-T, gamma/delta, CD8(+) T cells, nor B-lymphocytes were detected. Potential antigen presenting cells include various subsets of dendritic cells (CD207(+) Langerhans cells, CD11b(+)CD11c(+) myeloid cells and 120G8(+) plasmacytoid DCs) together with F4/80(+) macrophages. Noteworthy, both CD103(-) and CD103(+) CD4(+) T cells expressing TLR2 and TLR4 receptors are present along the lamina propria, in vicinity of myeloid CD11b(+)CD11c(+/-) dendritic cells. Such resident lingual CD4(+) T lymphocytes comprise both suppressive T cells as well as cells with memory/effector functions (i.e. expressing IFN gamma, IL4, IL10 and IL17 genes following stimulation), irrespective of the presence of the mucosal addressing marker CD103.",
"yes. The accuracy of EUS for the lesions with the extended indications was lower than that for the lesions with the accepted indications. In particular, lesions with ulceration and minute submucosal invasion should be carefully considered prior to endoscopic treatment by pretreatment EUS staging.",
"yes. Sublobar resection for stage IA is considered to be an appropriate treatment in the elderly patients as this procedure provides an equivalent long-term outcome in comparison with lobectomy. A larger scale study with matching patients is necessary to confirm the noninferiority of sublobar resection in comparison with standard lobectomy in this population.",
"yes. Our study indicates that crista galli pneumatization is virtually exclusively from either the left or right frontal sinuses and not from displaced ethmoid complex cells in the frontal recess. This finding may have surgical implications when disease is present in the crista galli.",
"The study compares the clinical features of patients with congenital cholesteatoma seen in our institution over the most recent 10 years versus those seen in the previous decade. Furthermore, this study includes a systematic review and meta-analysis investigating whether differences in site predilection of congenital cholesteatoma exist between patients from Asian and Western countries. The retrospective review consisted of 31 cases encountered from 2001 to 2011 as compared with 40 cases previously described. For systematic review, data were retrieved from PubMed, EmBase, and the Japan Medical Abstracts Society Database (January 1995 through May 2012). Articles addressing site predilection of congenital cholesteatoma were selected with no language preference. The database was searched using the keywords \"congenital cholesteatoma.\" After critical review of 408 studies, 27 studies were eligible for quantitative synthesis. A retrospective analysis of our departmental cases showed that more than 70% (8/11) of the Potsic's stage I or II cases had a predilection for the anterior-superior quadrant (ASQ). None of the Stage III (17) or IV (3) cases had a similar site predilection. Consistent with our previous chart review, Stage III was the most common, comprising more than 60% of cases. Meta-analysis of the 27 eligible studies provided sufficient information regarding locations of congenital cholesteatoma, and Asian studies showed less frequent ASQ involvement (overall estimate, 0.54; 95% confident interval [CI], 0.49-0.59) when compared with Western studies (overall estimate, 0.76; 95% CI, 0.73-0.80). Moreover, the involvement of posterior-superior quadrant (PSQ) in Asian studies was estimated as 0.69 (95% CI, 0.64-0.73), which was higher than that associated with involvement of ASQ.",
"In mother-infant pairs experiencing breastfeeding difficulties, frenulotomy for tongue-tie may improve breastfeeding. We tested the hypothesis that those experiencing nipple pain are most likely to benefit from the procedure in a prospective cohort study. Mother-infant pairs attending a dedicated clinic for the assessment and treatment of tongue-tie completed a standardised, structured symptom questionnaire. Three months later outcome was assessed by questionnaire. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was used to determine preoperative predictors of successful outcome. Sixty-two infants <90 days old underwent frenulotomy and completed follow-up. At presentation, 52 mothers (84%) reported nipple pain, and 32 mothers (52%) nipple trauma. Three months after frenulotomy, 78% of respondents were still breastfeeding. Feed lengths (mean reduction: 17 mins; p<0.001) and time between feeds (mean increase: 38 mins; p<0.001) had significantly improved, as had difficulty of feeding (mean improvement in self-rated difficulty score: 42%; p<0.001). Those having difficulty breastfeeding due to nipple pain showed a significant long-term benefit from frenulotomy; pre-frenulotomy nipple pain was associated with an increased likelihood of breastfeeding at 3 months in adjusted multivariate analysis (OR 5.8 [95% CI 1.1-31.6]).",
"To examine the precision and completeness of information in medical records for evaluating the appropriateness of operative indications for lumbar disc surgery. Retrospective review of records. University department of neurosurgery, Switzerland. 100 patients. None. Proportion of pre-defined, detailed appropriateness criteria present in the records. Proportion of cases that could unequivocally be classified as to the appropriateness of the indication for operation. The criteria were present and precise for 52 of the items (range 9-90); present but imprecise for 38 of the items, and absent for 10. Because of this imprecision, the appropriateness of only 7 of the operative indications could be unequivocally assessed retrospectively.",
"Thirty-one patients (mean age 64.6 years) underwent multidetector CT and had confirmed colonic volvulus. There were 15 patients with caecal volvulus and 16 with sigmoid volvulus. Axial and coronal images were retrospectively evaluated on the picture archiving and communication system (PACS) by two reviewers in consensus without knowledge of the final diagnosis to determine whether a CT whirl sign was present and, if so, was the location to the right of midline or in the midline/left. The location of the twisting at imaging was correlated with whether the patient had caecal or sigmoid volvulus. Fisher's exact test was used to determine whether there was an association between the location of the twist (right versus mid-left) and the location of the colonic volvulus (caecal versus sigmoid). The non contrast CT (NCCT) examinations of 30 additional patients without colonic volvulus were evaluated for the presence or absence of a CT whirl sign. All 31 patients with colonic volvulus had a CT whirl sign. No patient who underwent NCCT for kidney stones demonstrated a CT whirl sign. According to Fisher's exact test, there was a highly significant association (p<0.0001) between the location of the twist (right versus mid-left) and the location of the colonic volvulus (caecal versus sigmoid). Using the location of the twist as a predictor of whether the volvulus was caecal or sigmoid provided a correct diagnosis for 93.3% (14/15) of the patients with caecal volvulus and 100% (16/16) of those with sigmoid volvulus, yielding an overall diagnostic accuracy of 96.8% (30/31).",
"Closure of the maxillary midline diastema with a prominent frenum is more predictable with frenectomy and concomitant orthodontic treatment than with frenectomy alone. This study demonstrates the importance of an interdisciplinary approach to treat maxillary midline diastemas, ideally including general practitioners, oral surgeons, periodontists, and orthodontists.",
"To determine the value of magnetic resonance (MR) sialography for the diagnosis of sialolithiasis by comparing results prospectively with those of ultrasonography (US) and digital sialography. MR sialography was prospectively performed with T2-weighted three-dimensional (3D) constructive interference in steady-state (CISS) and rapid acquisition with relaxation-enhancement (RARE) sequences in 24 patients suspected of having sialolithiasis. Evoked salivation was used as contrast material. T1-weighted spin-echo and T2-weighted turbo spin-echo MR imaging also were performed. The results were then compared with those of US and digital sialography, with the latter as standard of reference. The 3D CISS images were significantly (P:<.05) superior to RARE images for demonstrating the submandibular ductal system, followed by T2-weighted turbo spin-echo images (P:<.01) and T1-weighted spin-echo images (P:<.001). The sensitivity and specificity were 100% and 80%, respectively, for CISS MR sialography and 80% and 100%, respectively, for RARE MR imaging. The sensitivity and specificity of US were both 80%.",
"The aim of this study was to determine if the number of treatment sessions has an influence on the final intermediate term results of submucosal bipolar radiofrequency volumetric tissue reduction of the inferior turbinate. One hundred two patients were enrolled in this study prospectively. The procedure was done using the Coblation (Arthrocare Corp., Sunnyvale, CA). The assessment was done using the 10-cm visual analog scale and acoustic rhinometry. Surgical procedures and pre- and postoperative assessments were done at the Faculty of Medicine, Cairo University. Eighty eight percent of our study population achieved final relief of their nasal obstruction, and at least three sessions were needed to maintain the favorable outcome at 1-year follow up.",
"yes. The findings from this systematic review are important in that collectively they support consideration of placement of short implants in partially edentulous patients. The estimated data showed a tendency for improved survival rate with increasing implant length, implant placement in the mandible compared with the maxilla, and for implants placed in nonsmokers.",
"Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram in the otic capsule at thin-section CT are prevalent among children younger than 3 years in the absence of clinical evidence of otosclerosis or osteogenesis imperfecta and appear in children up to 9 years old.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate a postural change test during sinus ultrasound, compared with CT scan, in case of partial sinusogram to differentiate air-fluid level from mucosal thickening. Prospective clinical investigation. Medical intensive care unit. 150 intubated patients. Patients were examined by sinus ultrasound in half-sitting position. A partial sinusogram was defined as the sole visualization of the hyperechogenic posterior wall of the sinus. In this situation, a postural change was performed and ultrasound was achieved in supine position. If the partial sinusogram disappeared when the patient was placed in a supine position (positive test), the partial sinusogram was an air-fluid level. If the partial sinusogram did not disappear (negative test), we considered it as a mucosal thickening. The CT and ultrasound were performed on the same day. Radiological maxillary sinusitis (RMS) on CT was defined as the presence of an air-fluid level. Absence of RMS on CT was defined as normal sinus or as the presence of mucosal thickening. 300 sinuses were examined. A partial sinusogram was found in 90 sinuses and CT scan confirmed the presence of RMS in 55 sinuses (61%). Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value of postural change test compared with CT were, respectively, 94.6, 85.6, 91.2 and 90.9%. The positive predictive value increased from 61 to 91.2% after the postural change test.",
"Preoperative endoscopic resection for colorectal submucosal cancer is feasible, provided the resection is complete. The indications for surgical treatment should be determined after pathologic examination.",
"yes. Our results support the use of FS analysis as a means to guide intra-operative decisions regarding lymphadenectomy. Determination of histologic subtype, depth of invasion and grade is reliable at our institution, and demonstrates high concordance rates between FS and PS. These factors should be used to guide intra-operative decision-making regarding the necessity of a lymphadenectomy in patients with endometrial cancer.",
"yes. With this technique, liver tumors considered to be unresectable, due to life-threatening volumetric insufficiency, may be considered resectable lesions, and there is an increase in the safety of some extended hepatectomies. These good results were mainly due to application of the distal and proximal free flow embolization technique, with non-absorbable material, and perhaps to the long interval of one month between PSPVE and hepatectomy. Indications in normal liver parenchyma are for patients with a very small left lobe or those requiring a right hepatectomy with wedge resections of the left liver. Indications for damaged liver parenchyma also include some cases requiring left trisegmentectomy or central hepatectomy.",
"yes. This study suggests that in prepubertal children, as the congenital defect in the tissue of the palate extended, the shortness in the anteroposterior maxillary length, accompanying anterior part of the maxilla in posterior position, was more marked.",
"yes. This study suggests that patients with shorter ramus and low thickness of the buccolingual alveolar region distal to the second molar had a higher risk of bad splits. These anatomic data may help surgeons to choose the safest surgical techniques and best osteotomy sites.",
"Not only redundant, but also facultative and obligatory indications for navigation in endonasal surgery result from careful consideration of the risk-benefit-cost ratio. In standardized endonasal sinus surgery, like infundibulotomy or ethmoidectomy, however, navigation can be a hindrance to process quality and does not result in any advantage for outcome quality.",
"HR-US is suitable for the detection of disc displacements in the TMJ. However, further studies may be warranted to reduce the proportion of false-positive interpretations, thereby avoiding the application of unnecessary treatment.",
"For the diagnosis of scrotal disorders, the basic clinical evaluation usually provides the correct diagnosis. However, US and CFD are useful adjuncts which cause a minimal burden to the patient and that in most cases will lead to the correct diagnosis, especially with important diagnoses like testicular torsion, when US and CFD should be performed immediately. If this does not provide a clear diagnosis, the patient should be explored surgically.",
"Tonsillectomy is one of the most frequently performed operations in the UK. Documentation of the indications for tonsillectomy is vital, and should fulfil evidence-based guidelines where possible. We present a completed audit, evaluating the documentation of our department's practice in meeting the recommendations made by the Scottish Intercollegiate Guideline Network (SIGN) on indications for tonsillectomy. A prospective audit of 100 children undergoing tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis at a university hospital during two time periods: October 2007 to January 2008 and March to September 2008. Interventions including the production of posters and rubber stamps were agreed and implemented between the two audit periods. Following the implementation of simple changes, significant improvements were seen in documentation relating to the SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy. Overall, the number of children meeting all four SIGN criteria for tonsillectomy rose from 12% to 44% (chi(2) = 57.8; P<0.001). Furthermore, a significant reduction was seen in the number of children below the age of 5 years undergoing tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis (chi(2) = 14.66; P<0.001).",
"yes. Following PFD for CMI, position and morphology of the cerebellar tonsil could revert to normal in most of the pediatric patients, and the upward shifting of the tip of cerebellar tonsil is significantly correlated with syrinx improvement. From this study, PFD without shunting may be effective for syrinx secondary to CMI in pediatric population.",
"There was no evidence of endolymphatic hydrops modification 1 hour after intravenously administered frusemide. Therefore, loop diuretics in Ménière's disease, which are today used on an empirical basis, must be reconsidered. Implications of these outcomes are discussed and related to the role of endolymphatic hydrops in the development of Ménière's disease.",
"MR sialography with evoked salivation is noninvasive and allows delineation of the submandibular ductal system and detection of sialoliths with accuracy that is similar to that of digital sialography and superior to that of US.",
"yes. DES provides better delineation of the laryngeal anatomy than conventional FPD radiography predominantly in patients with moderate-severe cervical spondylosis.",
"Doppler ultrasonography enables accurate identification of the terminal branches of the superior rectal artery prior to hemorrhoidal artery ligation (HAL). However, since the positions of these branches have been found to be relatively constant, the question arises as to the necessity of ultrasonography for their identification. The aim of the current study was to examine the positions of all arteries identified and ligated during the HAL procedure. We recorded the position of all arteries located and ligated in 135 consecutive patients who underwent the HAL procedure during the years 2003 to 2006. In all patients, 6-8 terminal arterial branches were located above the dentate line. In 102 (76 %) patients, terminal branches were located in all 6 of the odd-numbered clock positions around the anus (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, and 11 o'clock in the lithotomy position). If we had ligated arteries only at these odd-numbered clock positions, without using Doppler ultrasonography, we would have located all the arteries in 96 (71 %) of our patients.",
"yes. We propose a model to explain how redundant Fgfr1 and Fgfr2 expression in the palatal and mandibular mesenchyme regulates shelf medial wall protrusion and growth of the mandible to coordinate the craniofacial tissue movements that are required for palatal shelf elevation.",
"This analysis indicates a trend of pre-intervention scores on the TOI-14 questionnaire for those patients who have a SIGN guideline compliant clinical indication for a tonsillectomy. We therefore propose that this suggests correlation between 'clinically strong' indication for tonsillitis and patient perceived Quality of Life impact.",
"Submandibular duct relocation plus or minus excision of the sublingual glands are relatively simple procedures with low morbidity. Between 1981 and 2005, 71 submandibular duct relocation and 29 submandibular duct relocation plus excision of the sublingual glands procedures were conducted. To compare both procedures including operative time, length of hospital stay, postoperative complications, drooling scores and parental satisfaction. Prospective study. Paediatric tertiary referral centre. Patients referred with excessive drooling after failure of conservative methods. patients with recurrent aspiration pneumonias or dental caries. Two patients were lost to follow up and excluded from the study. Operative time and length of hospital stay were increased in the submandibular duct relocation plus sublingual gland excision group. Drooling scores and parental satisfaction results were excellent, 93% of parents in the submandibular duct relocation group and 89% of parents in the duct relocation plus sublingual glands excision were satisfied and would recommend the procedure. There was no statistical difference (P = 0.643) in drooling scores between the two procedures. Postoperative morbidity was higher with the addition of sublingual gland excision, with postoperative haemorrhage occurring in 13.7% and 36% of parents expressing concern over postoperative pain, compared with 3% postoperative haemorrhage rate with submandibular duct relocation and only 12% of parents expressing the same concerns.",
"yes. Laryngeal dSIN represents an important but under recognized pathway of invasive SCC development. As moderate dysplasia of uSIN type are not associated with invasive SCC, labeling u-like SIN as dysplasia of grade 2 or 3 likely leads to the controversies in the current grading systems in the upper aerodigestive system and causes confusion for clinicians.",
"yes. Lore's fascia and the platysma-auricular ligament are separate and consistently demonstrable structures. Both are suitable for platysma suspension sutures in terms of facial nerve trunk safety, and Lore's ligament can be used as a guide to facial nerve preservation in parotidectomy.",
"To test whether there are significant differences in pediatric and adult temporal bone anatomy as related to cochlear implant (CI) surgery. Surgeons rely upon anatomic landmarks including the round window (RW) and facial recess (FR) to place CI electrodes within the scala tympani. Anecdotally, clinicians report differences in orientation of such structures in children versus adults. Institutional review board approval was obtained. High-resolution computed tomographic scans of 24 pediatric patients (46 ears) and 20 adult patients (40 ears) were evaluated using software consisting of a model-based segmentation algorithm that automatically localizes and segments temporal bone anatomy (e.g., facial nerve, chorda tympani, external auditory canal [EAC], and cochlea). On these scans, angles pertinent anatomy were manually delineated and measured blinded as to the age of the patient. The EAC and FR were more parallel to the basal turn (BT) of the cochlea in children versus adults ([symbol in text] EAC:BT 20.55 degrees versus 24.28 degrees, p = 0.003; [symbol in text] FR:BT 5.15 degrees versus 6.88 degrees, p = 0.009). The RW was more closely aligned with the FR in children versus adults ([symbol in text] FR:RW 30.43 degrees versus 36.67 degrees, p = 0.009). Comparing the lateral portion of the EAC (using LatEAC as a marker) to the most medial portion (using [symbol in text] TM as a marker), the measured angle was 136.57 degrees in children and 172.20 degrees in adults (p < 0.001).",
"yes. The results suggest that subareolar injection was as accurate, if not more accurate, than peritumoral injection for localizing the SLN. This technique is simpler than peritumoral injection and does not require injection under image guidance for nonpalpable lesions.",
"The use of multiplanar reconstructed computed tomography (CT) images of frontal recess and sinuses was assessed with regard to depiction and understanding of anatomy and effect on surgical approach. Three otorhinolaryngologists and one radiologist read CT scans of 43 patients referred for routine paranasal sinus scans. Spiral (helical) CT scans were obtained and coronal and parasagittal reconstructions were imaged. Three hundred forty-two readings were analyzed. The scans were assessed in the coronal plane and then in the parasagittal plane. The images were assessed for (i) Bent and Kuhn classification of frontal ethmoidal sinus air cells, (ii) size of frontal sinus ostium (assessed as unsure, normal, small, or large), (iii) use of parasagittal scans regarding additional understanding of the anatomy with particular reference as to how the agger nasi cell and frontal ethmoidal cells were arranged in a three-dimensional space, and (iv) if the parasagittal scan and subsequent three-dimensional picture created altered the surgical approach. The first two criteria were assessed in the coronal plane and then in the parasagittal plane. There was no statistically significant difference between the Bent and Kuhn classification of frontoethmoidal cells on coronal and reconstructed parasagittal images (t-test; p > 0.05). The parasagittal scans were significantly better than the coronal scans for identifying and assessing the size of the frontal sinus ostium (p < 0.001; chi-square test). Assuming an intraobserver change rate (repeat error) of 10% on CT scan observations, an exact binomial test was performed on S-PLUS, which showed that there was a significant (p < 0.001) proportion of observers who changed their rating after looking at the parasagittal scan. There also was significant improvement in observers' abilities to identify and classify the size of the frontal ostium as reflected by the number of observers who changed from being unsure on the coronal scans to sure on the parasagittal scans. Observers felt that the parasagittal scans improved their three-dimensional understanding of the anatomy of the frontal recess by 58% on a 10-point Lickert scale. In 55% of these observations, the surgical plan was altered by a mean of 70.2% on a 10-point Lickert scale based on additional information obtained by viewing the parasagittal scans.",
"yes. The results suggest that contralateral PVE is a safe and efficient procedure inducing adequate hypertrophy of the FRL before major liver resection.",
"To evaluate the prevalence of localized hypoattenuating areas in the cochlear otic capsule at temporal-bone thin-section computed tomography (CT) in pediatric patients and correlate the findings with clinical information. Temporal-bone thin-section CT images obtained in 73 patients aged 0-9 years (20 Austrian, 53 Finnish; 36 female and 37 male patients) were evaluated for the presence of localized hypoattenuating foci in the region of the fissula ante fenestram of the otic capsule. Clinical information collected for all patients was also evaluated. The data were analyzed with a logistic regression model. Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram were observed in 23 of 73 patients (32%). Hypoattenuating foci were substantially more prevalent in patients younger than 3 years than in those 3 years or older (odds ratio, 0.14; 95% CI: 0.04, 0.52; P =.001). The prevalence did not differ between sexes or according to clinical diagnosis. Only three of the 23 patients with hypoattenuating foci had clinical findings suggestive of otosclerosis, and none had osteogenesis imperfecta. After adjustment for age and sex, the finding was more prevalent among the Finnish patients (odds ratio, 5.4; 95% CI: 1.19, 24.52; P =.02) than among the Austrian patients.",
"yes. Lesions in the corona radiata above the posterior limb of the internal capsule on a coronal view by term MRI were useful for predicting motor prognosis in preterm infants with periventricular leukomalacia.",
"yes. The anterior part of the left STG and the left insula are normally involved in both the planning and monitoring of discourse. The attenuated engagement of these regions with between-clause pauses and the striking infrequency of filled pauses in the patients are consistent with cognitive models implicating defective speech planning and speech monitoring in schizophrenia, especially in relation to FTD.",
"yes. The liver positions with FRC B-H were markedly more reproducible than those with VE B-H. To improve the registration accuracy of subtraction dynamic liver MRI, the FRC B-H should be used.",
"no. These results suggest that fluency may be less sensitive to stimulation location in the globus pallidus and thus there may be more flexibility in terms of DBS programming with GP DBS patients.",
"yes. We used US and confirmed the usefulness of a preoperative evaluation of the major diameter of the contralateral PPV at the level of the internal inguinal ring in pediatric patients with unilateral inguinal hernias.",
"To clarify the functional differences of the enteric nervous system in the human internal anal sphincter (IAS) between the proximal and distal parts from the dentate line, we investigated the enteric nerve responses of normal proximal and distal IAS in vitro. Normal IAS specimens derived from 20 patients with lower rectal cancer (14 men and 6 women aged from 48 to 77 years, average 66.5 years) were used. These IAS muscles were divided into 2 parts [oral site IAS from dentate line; proximal part (PIAS; n=20), anal site IAS from dentate line; distal part (DIAS; n=20)]. A mechanographic technique was used to evaluate in vitro muscle strip responses to electrical field stimulation (EFS) before and after treatment with various autonomic nerve blockers. 1) Response to EFS before blockade of the adrenergic and cholinergic nerves: In PIAS, the incidence of relaxation reactions was greater than that of contraction reactions (p=0.2059). In DIAS, the incidence of contraction reactions was significantly greater than that of relaxation reactions (p=0.0001). The percentage of relaxation responses in the PIAS was significantly greater than that in the DIAS (p=0.0098). 2) Response to EFS after blockade of the adrenergic and cholinergic nerves: In PIAS, the incidence of relaxation reactions via NANC inhibitory nerve was significantly greater than that of contraction reactions via NANC excitatory nerves (p<0.0001). In DIAS, the incidence of relaxation reactions via NANC inhibitory nerve was greater than that of contraction reactions via NANC excitatory nerves (p=0.2059). The percentage of relaxation responses via NANC inhibitory nerves in the PIAS was significantly greater than that in the DIAS (p=0.00284). 3) EFS responses in the PIAS and DIAS were blocked by tetrodotoxin.",
"yes. The results suggested that intralesional injection of pingyangmycin is an effective and safe treatment for microcystic LMs in the tongue, and can be used as the first-line treatment protocol.",
"Submucosal radiofrequency uvulopalatoplasty, using the described technique, appears to be a safe, effective, and well-tolerated treatment for chronic socially disruptive snoring. These initial results indicate that the concomitant monitoring of tissue impedance and tissue temperature during radiofrequency ablation and volumetric reduction of the soft palate is not necessary and adds significantly to the cost of the procedure.",
"The aim of the present study was to investigate whether a difference exists in the location of the displaced inferior alveolar canal (IAC) and neurovascular bundle (toward the buccal or lingual cortex) among odontogenic tumors and vascular lesions. If some consistency exists in the manner in which the canal and bundle are displaced on radiographic examination, the nature of the mandibular lesion under examination could be anticipated. This information would assist the surgical team in treatment planning, diagnostic biopsy, and resection, especially in cases of intraosseous vascular pathologic findings. A retrospective review of the computed tomography images obtained for odontogenic tumors and vascular anomalies treated at the Department of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, University of Illinois at Chicago, from January 2000 to June 2010 was undertaken. The IAC and neurovascular bundle were traced from the lingula to the mental foramina, and its location within the mandible was recorded at 3 specific points. In the odontogenic tumor group, we found that the canal with the neurovascular bundle was displaced either toward the buccal cortex of the mandible or the inferior border, but it was never identified lingually. In contrast, all the vascular anomalies had displaced the structures toward the lingual aspect of the mandible at all selected points.",
"yes. The findings of this study support the International Neural Monitoring Study Group recommendation that confirmation of endotracheal tube electrode placement be performed either by confirmation of adequate respiratory variation or by repeat direct laryngoscopy.",
"yes. Palpation and methylene blue injection do not provide appropriate information in many patients. Our study revealed that pre-operative ultrasonography can improve the identification of the sinus tract and its branches when compared to palpation and methylene blue injection.",
"To evaluate the ability of surgeons to determine whether the fibula is reduced in the sagittal plane in relation to the tibia based on the fluoroscopic images by comparison with the known normal for both the ipsilateral and contralateral ankles. Perfect lateral radiographs of both ankles were obtained in 7 cadaveric specimens. The fibula was translated 2.5 and 5 mm in the anterior and posterior directions. Four orthopaedic trauma-trained surgeons were presented with a fictitious case consisting of a \"normal\" image, followed by 10 randomly selected images from both ankles, and were asked to determine whether the fibula was reduced, or displaced anteriorly or posteriorly. The ability of the surgeons to identify displacement and interobserver reliability was assessed. The surgeons were better able to identify malreduction than reduction (negative predictive value (NPV) 95% ipsilateral, 85% contralateral). The overall sensitivity for reduction was 94% for the ipsilateral ankle, but only 68% for the contralateral ankle. Anterior displacement and greater magnitudes of displacement were most easily diagnosed. All reviewers had the most difficulty with 2.5 mm of posterior displacement. The intraobserver agreement was excellent for anterior displacement and 5 mm of displacement in either direction (kappa = 0.71/0.75). Surgeons who routinely used the contralateral lateral radiograph were more accurate.",
"yes. At the subcostal transverse views, S/L is much less affected by either GA or BW than DS or DL and correlates strongly with CVP in mechanically ventilated infants.",
"yes. The sublingual route is pertinent to induce antigen-specific tolerance, due to (i) limited numbers of pro-inflammatory cells, rather located in submucosal tissues, (ii) co-localization of APCs and resident CD4(+) T cells with regulatory functions. Since the oral immune system can also elicit pro-inflammatory effector responses, the cytokine milieu in which allergens are presented by sublingual APCs needs to be controlled during immunotherapy (e.g. with adjuvants) in order to favour tolerance over inflammation.",
"To evaluate ranula development according to anatomic variation of the ductal system of sublingual gland (SLG), especially the presence of Bartholin's duct. The anatomic variation of SLG duct was prospectively investigated and compared between 55 consecutive patients with ranulas treated by SLG excision (group 1) and another 15 consecutive patients undergoing similar surgeries for other conditions (group 2). The ductal structures of SLGs and submandibular glands (SMG) were also compared between the pediatric patients and adult patients with ranulas. In 32 of 55 patients with ranulas (58.2%) and 1 of 15 patients without ranulas (6.7%), the SLG showed an anatomic variation of the main duct called Bartholin's duct structure (P<0.01). Seventeen of 22 (77.3%) pediatric patients with ranulas had Bartholin's ducts and 15 of 33 (45.5%) adult patients with ranulas had Bartholin's ducts (0.01<P<0.05), but Bartholin's duct which opens near to the orifice of Wharton's duct was not found in this study population. Plunging ranulas that extravasate deep to the mylohyoid were observed in the 6 patients (4 children and 2 adults). There was no recurrence in all cases with ranulas.",
"yes. Directed submucosal dissection is technically feasible in a porcine model and permits in-line endoscope positioning with predetermined abdominal target locations. The STAT approach provides safe peritoneal access, allows for a simple reliable endoclip closure, and has an excellent short-term survival rate. This method of achieving transgastric access may be an enabling technique for future NOTES procedures.",
"yes. CBCT appears to be a more reliable imaging modality than PAN for preoperative workups of the anterior mandible. Individual variations in the anterior/mesial extensions of the anterior loop of the mental nerve and the mandibular incisive canal mean that is not prudent to rely on a general safe zone for implant placement or bone surgery in the interforaminal region.",
"We conclude that both procedures are effective in drooling control, but the addition of sublingual gland excision increases morbidity and we are no longer excising these glands with submandibular duct relocation.",
"The tubercle of Zuckerkandl (TZ) is a lateral projection from the thyroid lobe in the vicinity of the extralaryngeal termination of the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN), which is a very useful landmark for identification of the RLN during thyroidectomy. The purpose of the present study was to test our hypothesis that the TZ is more consistently found and is larger on the right than on the left side, and to investigate the frequency of anatomic variations of the TZ. Prospective cohort study of 156 consecutive patients undergoing primary total thyroidectomy at an academic teaching hospital. Thyroidectomy was performed using a capsular dissection technique, with identification of the RLN only at its entry point into the larynx, using the TZ as a landmark. In vivo recording of size of right and left TZ was performed. The size of the right and left TZ was compared. Identification of the TZ was 72.6% right side and 53.9% left side (p = 0.003). The mean size of the TZ, when present, was 11.2 mm on the right and 7.5 mm on the left (p = 0.0002). In matched-pair analysis, the right TZ was significantly larger than the left TZ (p < 1 × 10(-7)). The TZ overlay the RLN in nearly all cases; however, there were 2 cases (0.8%) of a TZ extending medial to the RLN. In 12 cases (4.7%), the TZ appeared as a bilobed structure.",
"Frozen section in parotid surgery is accurate, inexpensive and may add important information that alters management and improves the outcome. The use of FS routinely in parotid surgery is recommended.",
"Our analyses suggest that despite its advantages of being non-invasive, the diagnostic effect of TRUS is limited by both accuracy and reliability. In contrast, although an invasive radiographic imaging method, FNV has been proven as being informative when providing preoperative details about obstruction and other symptoms. After 3 years of research we came to the conclusion that opening fine-needle punctuation and vasography have not become outdated, at least recently, and will remain a necessary and effective method to identify diseases and to provide a strictly defined morphology of the seminal vesicle and ductal system for more comprehensive diagnosis of obstructive azoospermia of EDO.",
"yes. In line with previous studies our results corroborate the left temporal lobe as site of representation and the IFG as site of processing of verbs' argument structure.",
"The location of the mesenteric twist (CT whirl sign) is a highly accurate finding in discriminating caecal from sigmoid volvulus.",
"yes. Two surgical observations that are reliable to confirm a complete release of the TCL were described. The first, called the \"fat pad\" sign, is useful to determine whether or not the distal end of the TCL has been adequately released, whereas the \"little finger pulp\" sign indicates whether or not the proximal end of the TCL has been fully divided.",
"Success rates of non-ventilation therapies for sleep disordered breathing (SDB) remain hardly acceptable. Drug-induced sleep endoscopy (DISE) tends to show the level and mechanism of obstruction and helps to specify therapy individually. Therefore, increasing success rates are expected. The objective of this study is to detect whether locations of treatment recommendations given after DISE are different to those made after clinical basic ENT (ear, nose, throat) examination (CBE). This study included patients with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and primary snoring who wish or require an alternative therapy to the gold standard, continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). After CBE, a theoretical treatment recommendation was given comprising surgery (possible surgical target: soft palate, tonsils, tongue base, epiglottis) and mandibular advancement splints (MAS) or both. A second ENT specialist conducted a DISE and independently recommended a second therapy concept without knowing the first one. A third person compared both theoretical locations of treatment recommendations (CBE vs. DISE). A total of 97 patients (eight female and 89 male, age 30-85 years, AHI 1.9-88.6/h, body mass index [BMI] 20.3-36.3 kg/m²) received two therapy recommendations. Regarding surgical options only, 63.9% of the examined patients got a different recommendation in at least one of four levels. If MAS was included, a change was found in 78.4% of the patients. Subdivided into each type of intervention, the following changes were found in the therapy concept: 24.7% (n = 24/97) soft palate, 12.4% (n = 12/97) tonsils, 33.0% (n = 32/97) tongue base, 27.8% (n = 27/97) epiglottis, 38.1% (n = 37/97) MAS.",
"Intra- and inter-rater agreement in determining whether the patient had purposeful vocal fold motion on flexible laryngoscopic examination was excellent in both groups. This study demonstrates that otolaryngologists can consistently and accurately judge the presence and the absence of vocal fold motion.",
"yes. Mother-infant pairs with tongue-tie and breastfeeding difficulties due to nipple pain are most likely to benefit from frenulotomy.",
"yes. An association was found between sublingual varices and hypertension. Examining the lateral borders of the tongue is easily done, causes no harm and could be a valuable method for the dental profession to take active part in preventive healthcare.",
"Excellent locoregional control was obtained in T1-T3 tonsillar fossa and/or SP tumors. The rate at 10 years was 84% (BT group) vs. 78% (surgery group). However, adverse late side effects were not negligible. In addition to modality-specific side effects (ulcer/trismus), both treatment groups were significantly affected by xerostomia. Only 6 recurrences (4%) were observed in the 149 electively treated contralateral necks, and no relapses were seen in the 29 untreated contralateral necks. We, therefore, suggest that it is not necessary to treat the contralateral neck, unless the tumor extends beyond the midline of the soft palate (uvula) or beyond the lateral one-third of the ipsilateral base of the tongue. Moreover, with the currently available CT-based neck level definitions, more conformal contours (i.e., tighter boundaries) around the clinical target volume can be designed. In this way, critical structures such as the temporomandibular joint and part of the pterygoid muscles can be avoided more easily. Also, when using highly conformal treatment techniques (e.g., intensity-modulated RT), one can further reduce the dose to the major salivary glands and oral mucosa. We believe these measures will lead to less trismus and less xerostomia.",
"yes. Based on our observations, we believe complete cartilage loss laterally and correctible deformity with maintenance of the medial joint on varus stress radiographs are reasonable indications for lateral unicompartmental arthroplasty. We recommend a lateral parapatellar approach can be utilized. The early reoperation and revision rates were low.",
"Sublingual immunotherapy (SLIT) represents an alternative to subcutaneous immunotherapy. While antigen-presenting cells such as Langerhans cells (LCs) are thought to contribute to the effectiveness of SLIT, mast cells (MCs) most likely account for adverse reactions such as sublingual edema. As little is known about LCs and MCs within the oral cavity, we investigated their distribution in search for mucosal sites with highest LCs and lowest MCs density. Biopsies were taken simultaneously from human vestibulum, bucca, palatum, lingua, sublingua, gingiva, and skin. Immunohistochemistry and flow cytometry were used to detect MCs, LCs and high affinity receptor for IgE (FcepsilonRI) expression of LCs. Mixed lymphocyte reactions were performed to assess their stimulatory capacity. Highest density of MCs was detected within the gingiva, while the lowest density of MCs was found within the palatum and lingua. However, sublingual MCs were located within glands, which might explain swelling of sublingual caruncle in some SLIT patients. Highest density of LCs was detected within the vestibular region with lowest density in sublingual region. Highest expression of FcepsilonRI was detected on LCs within the vestibulum. Furthermore LCs from different regions displayed similar stimulatory capacity towards allogeneic T cells.",
"To see the relationship of the lingual frenum with speech and other oral functions, evaluating the surgical indications and the results of frenectomy. In 1997 we operated 72 children with sublingual frenulum, a telephone questionnaire to the mothers of these patients was done, obtaining data about: age at surgery, professional reasons for referral, preoperative findings, pre-post operative speech therapy, place of surgery and type of anesthesia and mother's impression about the final result. Fifty valid questionnaires were obtained, the mean age at frenectomy was 3.03 years, 38% of children were sent due to speech problems, 60% due to some degree of tongue-tie and 2% due to dentofacial developmental anomalies. In 70% the patients were sent by a pediatrician and in 14% by a speech therapist. In 20% preoperative speech therapy was done and postoperatively in 30%. In 48% of cases, aged less than 2 years, speech was not possible to be evaluated. In the 11 cases with questionable results, a multidisciplinary reevaluation showed 7 cases with lingual dysfunction and poor tongue control, 4 cases with deglutitory anomalies and 3 cases with orofacial occlusal problems secondary to lingual dysfunction or altered oral habits.",
"The presence of a nondisturbing lingual frenulum does not justify its surgical section, the frenectomy is indicated only in presence of altered oro-lingual functions caused by the tongue-tie such as: speech problems, errors of bite and deglutition, lingual dysfunction and anomalous oral habits."
] | 779 |
Physician education and report cards: do they make the grade? | [
"We sought to determine whether tailored educational interventions call improve the quality of care, as measured by the provision of preventive care services recommended by the US Preventive Services Task Force, as well as lead to better patient satisfaction. We performed a randomized controlled study among 41 primary care physicians who cared for 1,810 randomly selected patients aged 65 to 75 years old at Kaiser Permanente Woodland Hills, a group-model health maintenance organization in southern California. All physicians received ongoing education. Physicians randomly assigned to the comprehensive intervention group also received peer-comparison feedback and academic detailing. Baseline and postintervention (2 to 2.5 years later) surveys examining the provision of preventive care and patient satisfaction were performed and medical records were reviewed. Based on the results of patient surveys, there were significant improvements over time in the provision of preventive care in both the education and the comprehensive intervention groups for influenza immunization (79% versus 89%, P<0.01, and 80% versus 91%, P<0.01), pneumococcal immunization (42% versus 73%, P<0.01 and 34% versus 73%, P<0.01), and tetanus immunization (64% versus 72%, P<0.01, and 59% versus 79%, P<0.01). Mammography (90% versus 80%, P<0.01) and clinical breast examination (85% versus 79%, P<0.05) scores worsened in the education only group but not in the comprehensive intervention group. However, there were few differences in rates of preventive services between the groups at the end of the study, and the improvements in preventive care were not confirmed by medical record review. Patient satisfaction scores improved significantly in the comprehensive intervention group (by 0.06 points on a 1 to 5 scale, P = 0.02) but not in the education only group (by 0.02 points, P = 0.42); however, the improvement was not significantly greater in the comprehensive intervention group (P = 0.20).",
"A physician-targeted approach of education, peer-comparison feedback, and academic detailing has modest effects on patient satisfaction and possibly on the offering of selected preventive care services. The lack of agreement between patient reports and medical records review raises concerns about current methods of ascertaining compliance with guidelines for preventive care."
] | [
"no. IM residents did not accurately predict their own level of medical knowledge. Taking the examination and experience with previous exams does not appear to improve the ability of these IM residents to predict their performance. Residents need to be taught to rely on the results of standardized examinations such as the ITE to best assess their overall medical knowledge. The factors important for accurate self-assessment of medical knowledge in individual clinical situations remain unexplored.",
"To determine if fourth-year medical students are as effective as faculty in teaching the physical examination to first-year medical students. Stratified randomization of the first-year students. A public medical school. All 100 first-year medical students in one medical school class were randomly assigned (controlling for gender) to either a faculty or a fourth-year student preceptor for the Physical Examination Module. The first-year students of faculty preceptors scored no differently on the written examination than the students of the fourth-year medical student preceptors (82.8% vs 80.3%, p = .09) and no differently on a standardized patient practical examination (95.5% vs 95.4%, p = .92). Also, the first-year students rated the two groups of preceptors similarly on an evaluation form, with faculty rated higher on six items and the student preceptors rated higher on six items (all p>.10). The fourth-year student preceptors rated the experience favorably.",
"To reduce inter-rater variability in evaluations and the demand on physician time, standardized patients (SP) are being used as examiners in OSCEs. There is concern that SP have insufficient training to provide valid evaluation of student competence and/or provide feedback on clinical skills. It is also unknown if SP ratings predict student competence in other areas. The objectives of this study were: to examine student attitudes towards SP examiners; to compare SP and physician evaluations of competence; and to compare predictive validity of these scores, using performance on the multiple choice questions examination (MCQE) as the outcome variable. This was a cross-sectional study of third-year medical students undergoing an OSCE during the Internal Medicine clerkship rotation. Fifty-two students rotated through 8 stations (6 physician, 2 SP examiners). Statistical tests used were Pearson's correlation coefficient, two-sample t-test, effect size calculation, and multiple linear regression. Most students reported that SP stations were less stressful, that SP were as good as physicians in giving feedback, and that SP were sufficiently trained to judge clinical skills. SP scored students higher than physicians (mean 90.4% +/- 8.9 vs. 82.2% +/- 3.7, d = 1.5, p<0.001) and there was a weak correlation between the SP and physician scores (coefficient 0.4, p = 0.003). Physician scores were predictive of summative MCQE scores (regression coefficient = 0.88 [0.15, 1.61], P = 0.019) but there was no relationship between SP scores and summative MCQE scores (regression coefficient = -0.23, P = 0.133).",
"yes. These findings underscore the complexity of physician-patient communications and the need to address the subtleties of these interactions as part of the medical school curriculum.",
"Patient experience scores are now recognized as a chief indicator of healthcare quality. This report compares outpatient pediatric otolaryngology patient satisfaction in the teaching and non-teaching settings. Cross-sectional, multi-site, patient-level analysis of satisfaction surveys (Press Ganey™ Medical Practice©) completed by parents of pediatric otolaryngology patients in FY2010. Surveys were stratified by teaching/non-teaching affiliation. The survey has 29 Likert-scaled questions which comprise an overall score and subscores in 6 domains: access, visit, nursing, provider, personal issues, and assessment. The item likelihood-to-recommend was measured to indicate practice loyalty. Mean scores were compared by Kruskal-Wallis rank test. Multivariate logistic regression was performed to evaluate the association of teaching status with receipt of highest scores (HI-SCORES). 4704 pediatric surveys were analyzed, with 1984 (42%) from the teaching setting. For the teaching setting, mean scores were lower overall (88.1 vs. 89.0; p<0.001) and in domains of access (includes scheduling ease, promptness in returning calls; 86.7 vs. 89.4; p<0.001) and personal issues (includes office hour convenience, sensitivity to needs; 87.0 vs. 88.5; p<0.001). Differences in access scores were largest for young children (0-<6 years; 86.0 vs. 89.5; p<0.001). Children in the teaching setting were less likely to have HI-SCORES overall (OR 0.78; 95%CI 0.65-0.95; p=0.011) and for access (OR 0.8; 95%CI 0.67-0.95; p=0.012); probability of HI-SCORES was similar for the two settings for all other domains.",
"To provide an updated report on the status of urology education in the United States. Forty-one randomly selected accredited medical schools in the United States were surveyed concerning their urology curriculum. All schools were included in the randomization, even those that had not produced any successful urology applicants during the past 5 years. In 48% of the schools, there were no urology lectures or coursework required before third-year clinical rotations. Two schools (5%) had a mandatory urology clinical clerkship. All schools offered an elective urology clerkship during either the third or fourth year of medical school. Fifty-five percent of medical schools used a core curriculum, and 31% based their curriculum on the American Urological Association's medical student core curriculum. Twenty-nine percent used Web-based resources during their clerkship, and 21% had a urology interest group.",
"yes. New physicians who have completed internship and medical school faculty do not agree on procedures essential for internship. A core educational list of 19 procedures was identified using the responses from these two groups.",
"Students who appear before SPCs are at higher risk of below-average performance as rated by a PD Evaluation Form at the end of PGY-1. However, only a minority of trainees that appeared before our SPC received below-average ratings during internship. These data provide predictive validity evidence that SPC appearance during medical school does identify below average performance during internship. Our data support that SPC appearance during medical school, regardless of cause, is a risk for below average performance during internship.",
"Specialists and generalists can teach preclinical medical students with equal effectiveness as rated by the students and the students' scores on the OSCE examination, but specialists do not rate themselves as confident as do generalists to teach some skills.",
"The purpose of this study was to evaluate the effectiveness of resident-prepared, independent-learning materials for teaching chest radiology to medical students. Students from three U.S. medical schools enrolled in radiology clerkships between March 1998 and June 1998 were randomly divided into control (n = 27) and experimental (n = 31) groups. The experimental group studied 12 chest radiology independent-learning cases (intervention) used to teach radiology residents in a previous study. Both groups took a 36-item, multiple-choice test (previously used to test radiology residents) on three occasions (before intervention [pretest], 1 day after intervention [posttest], and 2-4 weeks after intervention [final examination]). Student scores were then compared with resident scores. Mean scores were similar across institutions at pretest, but increases at posttest and final examination scores differed across time, school, and group (P<.005). Mean differences in scores between experimental and control groups at pretest, posttest, and 2-4-week final examination were -0.22, 9.79, and 9.14, respectively, demonstrating increased performance at posttesting that remained present (though slightly attenuated) 2-4 weeks later. Comparing performance, residents had mean pretest scores of 19.2 and students of 14.1, a five-point difference attributable to the residents' greater experience. Both residents and students gained approximately nine points at posttest. At final examination, the difference between residents and students was only 1.4 points, suggesting the experimental program (teaching materials) brought students close to the long-term retention shown by residents.",
"yes. This survey further reveals that there is a decline in exposure of medical students in the United States to formal urology teaching. In an attempt to minimize any possible adverse impact and to ensure that students are being exposed to the most important urologic topics and skills needed, some medical schools have instituted the use of a core curriculum in their clerkships. Despite the persistent decline in required medical student exposure to urology, urology residency programs remain extremely competitive.",
"The current resident selection process relies heavily on medical student performance, with the assumption that analysis of this performance will aid in the selection of successful residents. Although there is abundant literature analyzing indicators of medical student performance measures as predictors of success in residency, wide-ranging differences in beliefs persist concerning their validity. We sought to collect and review studies that have correlated medical student performance with residency performance. The English-language literature from 1996 to 2009 was searched with PubMed. Selected studies evaluated medical students on the basis of US Medical Licensing Examination scores, preclinical and clinical performance, research experience, objective structured clinical examination performance, medical school factors, honor society membership, Medical Student Performance Evaluations, letters of recommendation, and faculty interviews. Outcome measures were standardized residency examinations and residency supervisor ratings. The medical student factors that correlated most strongly with performance on examinations in residency were medical student examination scores, clinical performance, and honor society membership. Those that correlated most strongly with supervisor ratings were clinical grades, faculty interview, and medical school attended. Overall, there were inconsistent results for most performance measures. In addition to the lack of a widely used measure of success in residency, most studies were small, single institution, and single specialty, and thus of limited ability to generalize findings.",
"Assessment of faculty teaching and clinical skills is often based on learners' ratings. It is not clear that differences between the constructs are detectable in the results. The purpose is to examine relationships between (a) residents' ratings of faculty clinical excellence and teaching effectiveness and (b) track-related performance differences. There were 3,713 evaluations for 399 faculty provided by 436 different residents. Eight items assess teaching effectiveness (5-point scale); five items assess clinical excellence (dichotomous scale). Each scale included a global item. Teaching effectiveness and clinical excellence ratings were correlated: .59 (p<.0001) for global scores and .55 (p<.0001) for scale scores. Teaching effectiveness ratings were not related to faculty track. Clinical excellence ratings showed differences of medium magnitude.",
"To investigate the relationship between physicians' performance, as evaluated through in-practice peer assessments, and their participation in continuing professional development (CPD). The authors examined the predictive effects of participating in the CPD programs of the Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada and the College of Family Physicians of Canada one year before in-practice peer assessments conducted by the medical regulatory authority in Ontario, Canada, in 2008-2009. Two multivariate logistic regression models were used to determine whether physicians who reported participating in any CPD and group-based, assessment-based, and/or self-directed CPD activities were more or less likely to receive satisfactory assessments than physicians who had not. All models were adjusted for the effects of sex, age, specialty certification, practice location, number of patient visits per week, hours worked per week, and international medical graduate status. A total of 617 physicians were included in the study. Analysis revealed that physicians who reported participating in any CPD activities were significantly more likely (odds ratio [OR] = 2.5; P = .021) to have satisfactory assessments than those who had not. In addition, physicians participating in group-based CPD activities were more likely to have satisfactory assessments than those who did not (OR = 2.4; P = .016).",
"To compare the effectiveness of specialists and generalists as small-group leaders teaching basic physical examination skills to preclinical medical students. Specialists and generalists were randomly assigned to teach physical examination skills to 69 groups of second-year students (n = 288). At the conclusion of the course, the specialist- and generalist-led groups were compared using three measures: students' scores on an objective structured clinical exam (OSCE), students' evaluations of their small-group leaders, and leaders' self-evaluations of confidence in teaching. OSCE scores did not differ between students taught by specialists and generalists (93.5% and 93.8% respectively, p = NS). Students' evaluations of their leaders were similar for nine characteristics rated on a seven-point scale (7 = strongly agree/outstanding; range of results for specialists: 6.20-6.62, for generalists 6.34-6.75, p = NS). Leaders expressed similar levels of confidence (on a seven-point scale; 7 = very confident) in their abilities to teach the neurologic exam (specialists 5.52, generalists 6.19, mean effect size difference 0.44, p = NS) and complete history and physical exam (6.03 and 6.53, mean effect size difference 0.43, p = NS). Specialists were significantly less confident in teaching the cardiovascular exam (5.80 and 6.50, mean effect size difference 0.51, p<.05) and pulmonary exam (5.56 and 6.60, mean effect size difference, 0.80, p<.01).",
"yes. Under the conditions of this study, preclerkship (year 2) CPEs strongly predicted medical students at risk for failing a senior CPE. This finding opens the opportunity for remediation of deficits prior to or during clerkships.",
"The continuity of undergraduate to postgraduate training suggests that performance in medical school should predict performance later in residency. The goal is to determine whether undergraduate performance is predictive of postgraduate performance. Residency program directors assessed the performance of medical school graduates (Classes 2004-2006) at the end of the 1st postgraduate year. Measures of undergraduate performance were retrieved including grade point averages, clerkship in-training evaluation reports, and the total score on the Medical Council of Canada Part 1 exam. Complete data were available for 242 (81.5%) graduates. Postgraduate performance consisted of two reliable factors (clinical acumen and human sensitivity) that explained 78% of the variance. Correlations between undergraduate and the two postgraduate measures were low (.03-.31).",
"Physician surveys can highlight strengths and weaknesses in health plans, and their ratings differ across plans. Physician ratings of health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care may be useful to consumers and purchasers of health care as a tool to evaluate health plans and promote quality improvement.",
"The use of student tutors (peers) is an accepted method in medical education. In 2011, final year students of the otorhinolaryngology (ORL) department of the University Hospital in Dresden were appointed as peers for the clinical ORL examination. They assisted in the instruction of the clinical ORL examination (peer teaching, PT) and served as examiners (peer assessment, PA) in the final objective structured clinical examination (OSCE). The effect on the quality of education and examination was examined. 248 medical students (5(th) year) were divided in 2 groups. They were trained and finally examined in the standardized clinical ORL examination by peers and/or physicians. Group I (n=118) was exclusively trained and examined by physicians and group II (n=130) by peers and physicians. The results of the OSCE were stratified for the 2 groups and in group II for the subgroups according to the instructors' and examiners' qualification (peer or physician). The students evaluated the internship and the instructors' and examiners' quality with a validated questionnaire. In the OSCE, group I scored in the mean 59.9±4.9 points (max. 65). In group II the mean score was 58.3±4.3 points examined by the peers and 59.5±4.8 points for same performance assessed by the physicians. There were no statistical significant differences in the examination results when stratified for the instructors' and examiners' qualification. The evaluation results were consistently positive and identical when compared to the previous year without use of PT and PA and between the 2 groups and subgroups.",
"It was difficult to ascertain whether residents with better ICS scores had higher PR, PC, and MK scores because of the halo effect, improper completion of evaluations, or whether those residents were truly performing better clinically. External measures of resident performance did not correlate with faculty/peer evaluations of ICS and PR. Residency programs should consider adopting a more standardized way to objectively evaluate residents.",
"Our data suggest knowledge-based examination performance cannot be predicted by the volume of patients seen. Therefore, too much emphasis on examination performance in clinical courses should be carefully weighed against clinical performance to determine the successful completion of clerkships.",
"Consumers have a difficult time synthesizing quality data in various formats. Hospital report cards continue to pose challenging choices, especially for those with limited education. Narrative comments in their earliest emerging forms do not seem to be altering hospital choice as much as the literature has suggested for other providers, but they may have consequential impact on the choices of certain subsets of consumers.",
"Second-year teaching format did not directly influence subsequent clerkship performance. Our study adds to the literature by demonstrating that the authenticity of preclinical teaching format does not appear to matter for clerkship performance; however, the number of actual patients seen does appear to influence related clerkship outcomes.",
"To investigate if any correlation exists between students' grades on their final doctor of Medicine (MD) assessment and their overall preclinical grade point average (GPA) and its component parts. Student data available from the Deanship of Admissions and Registration were analyzed. Pearson correlation coefficient was obtained to assess the degree of linear relationship between performance in the preclinical and the MD assessment of 529 students who graduated from the College of Medicine and Health Sciences, Sultan Qaboos University, Al-Khoud, Oman from June 1998 to June 2005. Simple and multiple regression analyses were performed to evaluate individual and combined impact of the preclinical courses' grades on MD grades. Preclinical GPA correlated highly with MD GPA (r=0.641). The science component taught early in the preclinical phase correlated more strongly (r=0.457) than student electives (r=0.246). This correlation was better in the good English group. Students' performance, however, was best in electives, but worst in English. Most students who had low MD GPA (<2.0) had also preclinical and science GPA of<2.5. The students with low GPA were found to spend longer in the medical program.",
"Final year medical trainees from one medical school were able to complete aviation's sensorimotor skills and personality traits selection instruments within the set time frame. They scored differently from aviation trainees on selected skills and personality traits. The applicability and utility of aviation instruments to presurgical training preparation remains to be tested.",
"yes. A high level of medical education, specialization and updating is evident among the Medical Auditors that were interviewed. Data from the present study will contribute for the definition of the Brazilian Medical Auditor's Profile.",
"The shift from a time-based to a competency-based framework in medical education has created a need for frequent formative assessments. Many educational programmes use some form of written progress test to identify areas of strength and weakness and to promote continuous improvement in their learners. However, the role of performance-based assessments, such as objective structured clinical examinations (OSCEs), in progress testing remains unclear. The aims of this paper are to describe the use of an OSCE to assess learners at different stages of training, describe a structure for reporting scores, and provide evidence for the psychometric properties of different rating tools. A 10-station OSCE was administered to internal medicine residents in postgraduate years (PGYs) 1-4. Candidates were assessed using a checklist (CL), a global rating scale (GRS) and a training level rating scale (TLRS). Reliability was calculated for each measure using Cronbach's alpha. Differences in performance by year of training were explored using analysis of variance (anova). Correlations between scores obtained using the different rating instruments were calculated. Sixty-nine residents participated in the OSCE. Inter-station reliability was greater (0.88) using the TLRS compared with the CL (0.84) and GRS (0.79). Using all three rating instruments, scores varied significantly by year of training (p<0.001). Scores from the different rating instruments were highly correlated: CL and GRS, r = 0.93; CL and TLRS, r = 0.90, and GRS and TLRS, r = 0.94 (p<0.001). Candidates received feedback on their performance relative to examiner expectations for their PGY level.",
"yes. This study shows that faculty's subjective evaluations predicted resident success on the ABS certifying examination and also endorses the ABS oral examination as an effective measure of the candidate's ability to communicate surgical knowledge.",
"To assess a scale that measures professional attitudes and behaviors associated with the medical education and the residency training environment. In 1995-96, the authors surveyed medical students and residents from five institutions in the northeast region of the United States. Of 757 distributed questionnaires, 565 were returned (75% response rate). Of those, 529 (94%) were used in the analysis. The mean score for the retained 12 items was 92.9 (SD, 11.9), with higher scores indicating more positive perceptions. The internal reliability of the scale was moderately high (alpha = .71). A factor analysis identified three subscales: excellence, honor/integrity, and altruism/respect, with eigenvalues (alpha coefficients) of 3.18 (.72), 1.70 (.60), and 1.20 (.59), respectively.",
"yes. Students at the end of their medical school education at the University of Wisconsin rate the clinical portions of their training as most important to their medical education and residents as their most important teachers. When asked how best to change medical education, their most common responses were to 1) make years 1 and 2 more clinically oriented, both by including patient care earlier and more often during those years, 2) take the repetitiveness out of the years 1 and 2 curriculum and 3) prepare students for years 3 and 4 with transitional classes.",
"Physicians' ratings of the effectiveness of interventions to reduce medical errors are only weakly associated with published evidence of effectiveness. More evidence, better dissemination strategies for existing evidence such as inclusion in medical school curriculum or recertification examinations, and a focus on removing barriers to interventions may be needed to engage physicians in moving patient safety interventions into medical practice.",
"Most medical school admission committees use cognitive and noncognitive measures to inform their final admission decisions. We evaluated using admission data to predict academic success for podiatric medical students using first-semester grade point average (GPA) and cumulative GPA at graduation as outcome measures. In this study, we used linear multiple regression to examine the predictive power of an admission screen. A cross-validation technique was used to assess how the results of the regression model would generalize to an independent data set. Undergraduate GPA and Medical College Admission Test score accounted for only 22% of the variance in cumulative GPA at graduation. Undergraduate GPA, Medical College Admission Test score, and a time trend variable accounted for only 24% of the variance in first-semester GPA.",
"yes. These findings will help to advance medical curricula so that institutions graduate physicians who are increasingly able to contribute to equitable outcomes for all patients in their care. The study also draws attention to subtle biases based on ethnicity that may be currently at play in physicians' practices.",
"Professional attitudes were evident in all essays. The essays had limited use for formal summative assessment of professionalism competencies. However, given the increasing presence of PC clinical experiences at medical schools nationwide, we believe this assessment strategy for professionalism has merit and deserves further investigation.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that medical staff particularly value task prioritisation skills; however, these are not routinely taught in medical schools. The discrepancy between expectations of students and experience of doctors reinforces the idea that there is a gap in training. Doctors of different grades place different importance on specific non-technical skills with implications for postgraduate training. There is a pressing need for medical schools and deaneries to review non-technical training to include more than communication skills.",
"The health care market is demanding increasing amounts of information regarding quality of care in health plans. Physicians are a potentially important but infrequently used source of such information. To assess physicians' views on health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care in health plans and to compare ratings between plans. Minneapolis-St Paul, Minn. One hundred physicians in each of 3 health plans. Each physician rated 1 health plan. Likert-type items that assessed health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care. A total of 249 physicians (84%) completed the survey. Fewer than 20% of all physicians gave plans the highest rating (excellent or strongly agree) for health plan practices that promote delivery of high-quality care (such as providing continuing medical education for physicians, identifying patients needing preventive care, and providing physicians feedback about practice patterns). Barriers to delivering high-quality care related to sufficiency of time to spend with patients, covered benefits and copayment structure, and utilization management practices. Ratings differed across health plans. For example, the percentage of physicians indicating that they would recommend the plan they rated to their own family was 64% for plan 1, 92% for plan 2, and 24% for plan 3 (P<.001 for all comparisons).",
"Our results support and extend the findings of other readability studies across many medical specialties, all of which find that patient education materials are written at a difficulty level that is too high. The AAFP and individual family physicians should strive to improve communication with their patients by providing educational materials that are written at an appropriate reading level.",
"PGY3 resident clinical productivity, when measured as patients per hour, correlated poorly with academic performance when measured by written and oral ABEM scores. The PGY3 in-training examination was predictive of the ABEM written and oral examination scores.",
"To determine if there is an association between several commonly obtained premedical school and medical school measures and board certification performance. We specifically included measures from our institution for which we have predictive validity evidence into the internship year. We hypothesized that board certification would be most likely to be associated with clinical measures of performance during medical school, and with scores on standardized tests, whether before or during medical school. Achieving board certification in an American Board of Medical Specialties specialty was used as our outcome measure for a 7-year cohort of graduates (1995-2002). Age at matriculation, Medical College Admissions Test (MCAT) score, undergraduate college grade point average (GPA), undergraduate college science GPA, Uniformed Services University (USU) cumulative GPA, USU preclerkship GPA, USU clerkship year GPA, departmental competency committee evaluation, Internal Medicine (IM) clerkship clinical performance rating (points), IM total clerkship points, history of Student Promotion Committee review, and United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1 score and USMLE Step 2 clinical knowledge score were associated with this outcome. Ninety-three of 1,155 graduates were not certified, resulting in an average rate of board certification of 91.9% for the study cohort. Significant small correlations were found between board certification and IM clerkship points (r = 0.117), IM clerkship grade (r = 0.108), clerkship year GPA (r = 0.078), undergraduate college science GPA (r = 0.072), preclerkship GPA and medical school GPA (r = 0.068 for both), USMLE Step 1 (r = 0.066), undergraduate college total GPA (r = 0.062), and age at matriculation (r = -0.061). In comparing the two groups (board certified and not board certified cohorts), significant differences were seen for all included variables with the exception of MCAT and USMLE Step 2 clinical knowledge scores. All the variables put together could explain 4.1% of the variance of board certification by logistic regression.",
"Single-item operative performance measures produced ratings that were virtually identical to gold-standard scale ratings. Misclassifications occurred infrequently and were minor in magnitude. Ratings using the single-item scale: take less time to complete, should increase the sample of procedures rated, and encourage attending surgeons to complete ratings immediately after observing performances. Face-to-face and written comments and suggestions should continue to be used to provide the granular feedback residents need to improve subsequent performances.",
"yes. Recent changes in the format of the ABSITE to a 2-tiered examination in 2006 and subsequent plan to return to a unified test for all PGY levels has made preparation difficult. With a more focused, question-based approach to studying, residents may see a demonstrable improvement in their scores. Our study supports this hypothesis-showing that residents who complete more review questions had higher ABSITE percentile scores. In the past, it has been demonstrated that strong ABSITE scores are associated with higher written board scores. With the widespread adoption of the Surgical Council on Resident Education curriculum, we postulate that residency programs that rely on this review question-based curriculum will report improved ABSITE percentile scores and written board pass rates.",
"This educational course improved neurologists' reported decision making. Specialty society-developed CME that utilizes a similar format may enhance the effectiveness of mailed CME information to improve physicians' approach to clinical decisions.",
"yes. More than two-thirds of physician questions fell into one of five competencies: cause of a clinical finding, test selection, prevention, treatment selection, and prognosis. By using these questions as a form of needs assessment, educators can develop programs that directly address the information needs and questions of learners in ways that are more likely to change performance and to ultimately benefit patients.",
"Global rating forms, the tool that program directors use most frequently to document residents' competence, may not be adequate to assess the six general competencies. The results are consistent with earlier published research indicating that physicians view competence in just two broad dimensions, which questions the premise of the six ACGME competencies. Further research is needed to validate and measure six distinct dimensions of clinical competence.",
"Prior to graduation, US medical students are required to complete clinical clerkship rotations, most commonly in the specialty areas of family medicine, internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology (ob/gyn), pediatrics, psychiatry, and surgery. Within a school, the sequence in which students complete these clerkships varies. In addition, the length of these rotations varies, both within a school for different clerkships and between schools for the same clerkship. The present study investigated the effects of clerkship sequence and length on performance on the National Board of Medical Examiner's subject examination in internal medicine. The study sample included 16,091 students from 67 US Liaison Committee on Medical Education (LCME)-accredited medical schools who graduated in 2012 or 2013. Student-level measures included first-attempt internal medicine subject examination scores, first-attempt USMLE Step 1 scores, and five dichotomous variables capturing whether or not students completed rotations in family medicine, ob/gyn, pediatrics, psychiatry, and surgery prior to taking the internal medicine rotation. School-level measures included clerkship length and average Step 1 score. Multilevel models with students nested in schools were estimated with internal medicine subject examination scores as the dependent measure. Step 1 scores and the five dichotomous variables were treated as student-level predictors. Internal medicine clerkship length and average Step 1 score were used to predict school-to-school variation in average internal medicine subject examination scores. Completion of rotations in surgery, pediatrics and family medicine prior to taking the internal medicine examination significantly improved scores, with the largest benefit observed for surgery (coefficient = 1.58 points; p value<0.01); completion of rotations in ob/gyn and psychiatry were unrelated to internal medicine subject examination performance. At the school level, longer internal medicine clerkships were associated with higher scores on the internal medicine examination (coefficient = 0.23 points/week; p value<0.01).",
"To study relationships between clinical skill measures assessed at the beginning of general internists' careers and their career outcomes and practice characteristics. General Internist Community Tracking Study Physician Survey respondents (2000-2001, 2004-2005) linked with residency program evaluations and American Board of Internal Medicine board certification examination score records; n = 2,331. Cross-sectional regressions of career outcome and practice characteristic measures on board examination scores/success, residency evaluations interacted with residency type, and potential confounding variables. Failure to achieve board certification was associated with $27,206 (18 percent, p<.05) less income and 14.9 percent more minority patients relative to physicians scoring in the bottom quartile on their initial examination who eventually became certified (p<.01). Other skill measures were not associated with income. Scoring in the top rather than bottom quartile on the board certification examination was associated with 9 percent increased likelihood of reporting high career satisfaction (p<.05). Among physicians trained in community hospital residency programs, lower evaluations were associated with 14.5 percent higher share of minority patients (p<.05). Both skill measures were associated with practice type.",
"Physician-rating websites have become a popular tool to create more transparency about the quality of health care providers. So far, it remains unknown whether online-based rating websites have the potential to contribute to a better standard of care. Our goal was to examine which health care providers use online rating websites and for what purposes, and whether health care providers use online patient ratings to improve patient care. We conducted an online-based cross-sectional study by surveying 2360 physicians and other health care providers (September 2015). In addition to descriptive statistics, we performed multilevel logistic regression models to ascertain the effects of providers' demographics as well as report card-related variables on the likelihood that providers implement measures to improve patient care. Overall, more than half of the responding providers surveyed (54.66%, 1290/2360) used online ratings to derive measures to improve patient care (implemented measures: mean 3.06, SD 2.29). Ophthalmologists (68%, 40/59) and gynecologists (65.4%, 123/188) were most likely to implement any measures. The most widely implemented quality measures were related to communication with patients (28.77%, 679/2360), the appointment scheduling process (23.60%, 557/2360), and office workflow (21.23%, 501/2360). Scaled-survey results had a greater impact on deriving measures than narrative comments. Multilevel logistic regression models revealed medical specialty, the frequency of report card use, and the appraisal of the trustworthiness of scaled-survey ratings to be significantly associated predictors for implementing measures to improve patient care because of online ratings.",
"Success on the ABR examination can be predicted by medical school success in preclinical courses, some clinical courses, and USMLE examination scores. Dean's letters, letters of recommendation, AOA selection during the senior year, and medical school prestige do not appear to predict future resident performance as reliably.",
"Assessment of resident performance is a complex task. To correlate performance on a 4th-year objective structured clinical examination (OSCE) with residency program director assessment, class rank, and U.S. Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) scores. We surveyed program directors about the performance of 50 graduates from our medical school chosen to represent the highest (OSCEHI) and lowest (OSCELO) 25 performers on our required 4th-year OSCE. Program directors were unaware of the OSCE scores of the graduates. OSCE scores did not correlate with Likert scores for any survey parameter studied (r < .23, p > .13 for all comparisons). Similarly, program director evaluations did not correlate with class rank or USMLE scores (r < .26, p > .09 for all comparisons).",
"Specific contents of physician report cards can be an important factor in consumers' awareness and use of PQI. Policies to improve awareness and use of PQI may consider how to customize quality report cards and target specific groups of consumers in dissemination.",
"no. Our findings indicate that student doctors do not decrease patient satisfaction and that satisfaction scores may be useful in student evaluations. This finding should encourage outpatient physicians who teach medical students that their patient satisfaction scores on the most widely used patient satisfaction survey will not be impacted by teaching students.",
"Preclinical grade point average (GPA), and United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1 are well-known preclerkship methods of identifying students at risk of poor performance. These measures are not available at all medical schools and may be considered prejudicial. Does an examination on the first day of a clerkship (pretest) correlate with grade point average (GPA) or USMLE Step 1 scores, and does it provide equivalent insight in predicting clerkship outcomes? At this medical school, students take a faculty-developed pretest on the first day of the internal medicine clerkship. At the end of the clerkship, teachers recommend \"clinical points,\" and students take the National Board of Medical Examiners (NBME) subject test. Between 1997 and 2001, data from 585 students (88%) were available. Correlations between the faculty-developed pretest, GPA, and USMLE Step 1 scores were good, r = 0.57 to 0.66; disattenuated, r = 0.70 to 0.85. All variables were similar significant predictors of NBME subject test and clinical point outcomes.",
"Evaluation of residents' competence is of great importance in the training of physicians, yet the evaluation process is largely subjective. Faculty and residents frequently rely on self assessments to make decisions regarding curriculum design and electives. The In-training Examination (ITE), the only widely available objective measure of residents' medical knowledge, provides an opportunity to test the reliability of self-assessments. This study's objective was to determine if family medicine residents are able to self-assess their medical knowledge by predicting their performance on the ITE. A survey asking the residents to estimate their performance on the ITE in each of the nine content areas was administered at 13 examination sites just prior to the ITE. Correlation coefficients were calculated for corresponding predicted and actual scores for each resident in each content area. Predictions were also compared to performance according to quartile. Residents showed little ability to predict their scores in any of the content areas. Residents scoring in either the lowest or highest quartile were least able to predict accurately, with correct predictions ranging from 3% to 23%.",
"yes. There is encouraging evidence supporting a positive predictive association between participating in CPD and performance on in-practice peer assessments. The findings have potential implications for policies which require physicians to participate in programs of lifelong learning.",
"Most medical schools in the United States use the National Board of Medical Examiners Subject Examinations as a method of at least partial assessment of student performance, yet there is still uncertainty of how well these examination scores correlate with clinical proficiency. Thus, we investigated which factors in a surgery clerkship curriculum have a positive effect on academic achievement on the National Board of Medical Examiners Subject Examination in Surgery. A retrospective analysis of 83 third-year medical students at our institution with 4 unique clinical experiences on the general surgery clerkship for the 2007-2008 academic year was conducted. Records of the United States Medical Licensing Examination Step 1 scores, National Board of Medical Examiners Subject Examination in Surgery scores, and essay examination scores for the groups were compared using 1-way analysis of variance testing. Rush University Medical Center, Chicago IL, an academic institution and tertiary care center. Our data demonstrated National Board of Medical Examiners Subject Examination in Surgery scores from the group with the heavier clinical loads and least time for self-study were statistically higher than the group with lighter clinical services and higher rated self-study time (p = 0.036). However, there was no statistical difference of National Board of Medical Examiners Subject Examination in Surgery scores between the groups with equal clinical loads (p = 0.751).",
"Performance on the Orthopaedic In-training Examination (OITE) has been correlated with performance on the written portion of the American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery examination. Herein we sought to discover whether adding a regular pediatric didactic lecture improved residents' performance on the OITE's pediatric domain. In 2012, a didactic lecture series was started in the University of Pittsburgh Medical Center (UPMC) Hamot Orthopaedic Residency Program (Hamot). This includes all topics in pediatric orthopaedic surgery and has teaching faculty present, and occurs weekly with all residents attending. A neighboring program [UMPC Pittsburgh (Pitt)] shares in these conferences, but only during their pediatric rotation. We sought to determine the effectiveness of the conference by comparing the historic scores from each program on the pediatric domain of the OITE examination to scores after the institution of the conference, and by comparing the 2 programs' scores. Both programs demonstrated improvement in OITE scores. In 2008, the mean examination score was 19.6±4.3 (11.0 to 30.0), and the mean percentile was 57.7±12.6 (32.0 to 88.0); in 2014, the mean examination score was 23.5±4.2 (14.0 to 33.0) and the mean percentile was 67.1±12.1 (40.0 to 94.0). OITE scores and percentiles improved with post graduate year (P<0.0001). Compared with the preconference years, Hamot residents answered 3.99 more questions correctly (P<0.0001) and Pitt residents answered 2.93 more questions correctly (P<0.0001). Before the conference, site was not a predictor of OITE score (P=0.06) or percentile (P=0.08); there was no significant difference found between the mean scores per program. However, in the postconference years, site did predict OITE scores. Controlling for year in training, Hamot residents scored higher on the OITE (2.3 points higher, P=0.003) and had higher percentiles (0.07 higher, P=0.004) than Pitt residents during the postconference years.",
"The quality of medical student and resident clinical evaluation reports submitted by rotation supervisors is a concern. The effectiveness of faculty development (FD) interventions in changing report quality is uncertain. This study assessed whether faculty could be trained to complete higher quality reports. A 3-h interactive program designed to improve evaluation report quality, previously developed and tested locally, was offered at three different Canadian medical schools. To assess for a change in report quality, three reports completed by each supervisor prior to the workshop and all reports completed for 6 months following the workshop were evaluated by three blinded, independent raters using the Completed Clinical Evaluation Report Rating (CCERR): a validated scale that assesses report quality. A total of 22 supervisors from multiple specialties participated. The mean CCERR score for reports completed after the workshop was significantly higher (21.74 ± 4.91 versus 18.90 ± 5.00, p = 0.02).",
"Although the Liaison Committee on Medical Education required U.S. medical schools to quantify students' clinical encounters, optimum patient exposure needed to predict performance has been elusive. This study explored the relationship between comprehensive patient encounters logged on personal digital assistants (PDAs) during three medicine clerkships, to performance on a clinical performance examination (CPX). PDA log data for 166 medical students were used to identify educationally \"rich\" patient encounters, where students were assigned full responsibility for patient care. Univariate regression analyses predicting the effect of immersive patient encounters on CPX case scores did not show statistical significance.",
"Although undergraduate science GPA and MCAT biological sciences subscore were significant predictors of overall academic achievement for osteopathic medical students, the number of elective upper-level science courses taken preadmission had no predictive value.",
"Core clerkship grading systems and the percentage to which institutions grade students as having achieved the highest performance level vary greatly among U.S. medical schools. Within institutions, significant variability exists among clerkships in the percentage of the highest grade given, which makes interpersonal comparison based on core clerkship grades difficult and suggests that this method may not be a reliable indicator of performance.",
"To test the hypothesis that medical student radiation oncology elective rotation grades are inflated and cannot be used to distinguish residency applicants. The records of 196 applicants to a single radiation oncology residency program in 2011 and 2012 were retrospectively reviewed. The grades for each rotation in radiation oncology were collected and converted to a standardized 4-point grading scale (honors, high pass, pass, fail). Pass/fail grades were scored as not applicable. The primary study endpoint was to compare the distribution of applicants' grades in radiation oncology with their grades in medicine, surgery, pediatrics, and obstetrics/gynecology core clerkships. The mean United States Medical Licensing Examination Step 1 score of the applicants was 237 (range, 188-269), 43% had additional Masters or PhD degrees, and 74% had at least 1 publication. Twenty-nine applicants were graded for radiation oncology rotations on a pass/fail basis and were excluded from the final analysis. Of the remaining applicants (n=167), 80% received the highest possible grade for their radiation oncology rotations. Grades in radiation oncology were significantly higher than each of the other 4 clerkships studied (P<.001). Of all applicants, 195 of 196 matched into a radiation oncology residency. Higher grades in radiation oncology were associated with significantly higher grades in the pediatrics core clerkship (P=.002). However, other medical school performance metrics were not significantly associated with higher grades in radiation oncology.",
"To add to the small body of validity research addressing whether scores from performance assessments of clinical skills are related to performance in supervised patient settings, the authors examined relationships between United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 2 Clinical Skills (CS) data gathering and data interpretation scores and subsequent performance in history taking and physical examination in internal medicine residency training. The sample included 6,306 examinees from 238 internal medicine residency programs who completed Step 2 CS for the first time in 2005 and whose performance ratings from their first year of residency training were available. Hierarchical linear modeling techniques were used to examine the relationships among Step 2 CS data gathering and data interpretation scores and history-taking and physical examination ratings. Step 2 CS data interpretation scores were positively related to both history-taking and physical examination ratings. Step 2 CS data gathering scores were not related to either history-taking or physical examination ratings after other USMLE scores were taken into account.",
"To determine how students who are referred to a competency committee for concern over performance, and ultimately judged not to require remediation, perform during internship. Uniformed Services University of the Health Sciences' students who graduated between 2007 and 2011 were included in this study. We compared the performance during internship of three groups: students who were referred to the internal medicine competency committee for review who met passing criterion, students who were reviewed by the internal medicine competency committee who were determined not to have passed the clerkship and were prescribed remediation, and students who were never reviewed by this competency committee. Program Director survey results and United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 3 examination results were used as the outcomes of interest. The overall survey response rate for this 5-year cohort was 81% (689/853). 102 students were referred to this competency committee for review. 63/102 students were reviewed by this competency committee, given passing grades in the internal medicine clerkship, and were not required to do additional remediation. 39/102 students were given less than passing grades by this competency committee and required to perform additional clinical work in the department of medicine to remediate their performance. 751 students were never presented to this competency committee. Compared to students who were never presented for review, the group of reviewed students who did not require remediation was 5.6 times more likely to receive low internship survey ratings in the realm of professionalism, 8.6 times more likely to receive low ratings in the domain of medical expertise, and had a higher rate of USMLE Step 3 failure (9.4% vs. 2.8%). When comparing the reviewed group to students who were reviewed and also required remediation, the only significant difference between groups regarding professionalism ratings with 50% of the group requiring remediation garnering low ratings compared to 18% of the reviewed group.",
"Although our study group consists of a selected group of radiation oncology applicants, their grades in radiation oncology clerkships were highly skewed toward the highest grades when compared with grades in other core clerkships. Student grading in radiation oncology clerkships should be re-evaluated to incorporate more objective and detailed performance metrics to allow for meaningful feedback to trainees and to better evaluate residency applicants to radiation oncology.",
"Many programs rely extensively on United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) scores for interviews/selection of surgical residents. However, their predictive ability remains controversial. We examined the association between USMLE scores and success in surgical residency. We compared USMLE scores for 123 general surgical residents who trained in the past 20 years and their performance evaluation. Scores were normalized to the mean for the testing year and expressed as a ratio (1 = mean). Performances were evaluated by (1) rotation evaluations; (2) \"dropouts;\" (3) overall American Board of Surgery pass rate; (4) first-time American Board of Surgery pass rate; and (5) a retrospective comprehensive faculty evaluation. For the latter, 16 surgeons (average faculty tenure 22 years) rated residents on a 1 to 4 score (1 = fair; 4 = excellent). Rotation evaluations by faculty and \"drop out\" rates were not associated with USMLE score differences (dropouts had average above the mean). One hundred percent of general surgery practitioners achieved board certification regardless of USMLE score but trainees with an average above the mean had a higher first-time pass rate (P = .04). Data from the comprehensive faculty evaluations were conflicting: there was a moderate degree of correlation between board scores and faculty evaluations (r = .287, P = .001). However, a score above the mean was associated with a faculty ranking of 3 to 4 in only 51.7% of trainees.",
"Proper diagnosis of cardiac disorders is a core competency of internists. Yet numerous studies have documented that the cardiac examination (CE) skills of physicians have declined compared with those of previous generations of physicians, attributed variously to inadequate exposure to cardiac patients and lack of skilled bedside teaching. With growing concerns about ensuring patient safety and quality of care, public and professional organizations are calling for a renewed emphasis on the teaching and evaluation of clinical skills in residency training. The objective of the study was to determine whether Web training improves CE competency, whether residents retain what they learn, and whether a Web-based curriculum plus clinical training is better than clinical training alone. Journal of Hospital Medicine 2008;3:124-133. (c) 2008 Society of Hospital Medicine. This was a controlled intervention study. The intervention group (34 internal and family medicine interns) participated in self-directed use of a Web-based tutorial and three 1-hour teaching sessions taught by a hospitalist. Twenty-five interns from the prior year served as controls. We assessed overall CE competency and 4 subcategories of CE competency: knowledge, audio skills, visual skills, and audio-visual integration. The over mean score of the intervention group significantly improved, from 54 to 66 (P = .002). This improvement was retained (63.5, P = .05). When compared with end-of-year controls, the intervention group had significantly higher end-of-year CE scores (57 vs. 63.5, P = .05), knowledge (P = .04), and audio skills (P = .01). At the end of the academic year, all improvements were retained (P <or= .04) except visual skills (P = .75).",
"yes. Good doctors need to have not only appropriate standards of medical knowledge but also skills to understand and communicate well with patients, as well as self-management skills, which should not be overlooked in the medical education curriculum. By optimizing the results of this study, a more refined assessment tool of professionalism can be exploited.",
"PDAT significantly improved faculty compliance with medical student evaluations when compared with written cards alone. The addition of e-mail reminders further improved faculty compliance, but this was not statistically significant. The use of a PDAT appears to be an effective way to improve faculty compliance with medical student evaluations.",
"GME training programs must demonstrate residents are prepared as both teachers and clinicians. We examined the relationship between faculty evaluations of residents' clinical performance and student evaluations of residents' teaching performance. Concordance tables for mean ratings and qualitative analysis of comments among 95 residents receiving evaluations by 267 faculty and 106 students. A total of 88% of residents received concordant ratings from faculty and students. When discordant, faculty gave higher ratings (P = .003). Ninety and ninety-one percent of faculty and student comments exhibited a positive tone.",
"To determine how graduating medical students perceive instructional settings, materials, and teachers as to importance or influence upon their education and how they would change curriculum and allocate educational resources based on their experience. One hundred thirty-nine graduating medical students at the University of Wisconsin, Madison were offered five dollars to complete and return the survey. Students were asked to rate the importance or influence (1 = most important or influential, 5 = least important or influential) of more than forty educational settings, materials, teachers, and which aspects of the curriculum should be emphasized or preserved when educational resources become more limited. Open-ended responses were also allowed. Ratings were analyzed determining a mean and standard deviation. One way analysis of variance was used to determine whether there were differences among groups. When statistically significant differences existed, the Tukey HSD test was used to compare subsets of the group. In the only group with a dissimilar number of responders, T tests were used for comparison. Sixty-four of 139 (46%) surveys were correctly completed and returned. Students rated the most important and influential parts of their education as experiences in years 3 and 4 of medical school. The most highly rated group of teachers were resident physicians (mean rating = 1.64, F (df = 343) = 12.55, p < .0001) during years 3 and 4 of medical school, followed by full time clinical faculty in years 3 and 4 (mean = 1.78), full time basic science faculty in years 1 and 2 (mean = 1.98), community physicians in years 3 and 4 (mean = 2.15), and teaching assistants in years 1 and 2 (mean = 2.75). Students rated the preservation of teaching efforts in years 1 and 2 (mean = 3.06), developing objective structured clinical examinations (mean = 3.21), and administering \"board type\" end of course examinations (mean = 3.42), as the lowest priority items for receiving educational resources. Coordination of the basic science and clinical years of medical school (mean = 2.03), problem based learning (mean = 2.08) and preserving teaching effort of years 3 and 4 clinical faculty (mean = 2.09) were the highest priorities for receiving resources. Open-ended comments indicated years 1 and 2 should be condensed and coordinated with years 3 and 4, making learning more clinically oriented.",
"To determine whether attending physicians' post-rotation performance ratings and written comments detect surgery residents' clinical performance deficits. Residents' performance records from 1997-2002 in the Department of Surgery, Southern Illinois University School of Medicine, were reviewed to determine the percentage of times end-of-rotation performance ratings and/or comments detected deficiencies leading to negative end-of-year progress decisions. Thirteen of 1,986 individual post-rotation ratings (0.7%) nominally noted a deficit. Post-rotation ratings of \"good\" or below were predictive of negative end-of-year progress decisions. Eighteen percent of residents determined to have some deficiency requiring remediation received no post-rotation performance ratings indicating that deficiency. Written comments on post-rotation evaluation forms detected deficits more accurately than did numeric ratings. Physicians detected technical skills performance deficits more frequently than applied knowledge and professional behavior deficits. More physicians' post-rotation numeric ratings contradicted performance deficits than supported them. More written comments supported deficits than contradicted them in the technical skills area. In the applied knowledge and professional behavior areas, more written comments contradicted deficits than supported them.",
"Medical school admissions committees attempt to select the most qualified applicants. In addition to traditional performance measures, committees often look favourably upon applicants who report previous clinical experience. This study aimed to determine if self-reported clinical experience is a valid indicator of future performance in medical school and internship. We collected data for seven year groups (1993-1999; n = 1112) and operationalised trainee performance in terms of five outcomes: cumulative medical school grade point average (GPA); US Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1 and 2 scores, and scores on a validated programme director's evaluation measuring intern expertise and professionalism. We then conducted a series of analyses of covariance to compare outcomes in applicants who self-reported previous clinical experience with outcomes in those who did not. In these analyses, the independent variable was self-reported clinical experience (yes/no), the covariate was undergraduate GPA, and the dependent variables were the five performance outcomes. In four of five analyses, we found no differences in the performance of the two groups (clinical experience versus no clinical experience). However, on the cumulative medical school GPA outcome, applicants who reported previous clinical experience had statistically significantly lower cumulative GPAs upon graduation than those who did not report such experience (F(1,940) = 9.35, p = 0.002, partial η(2) = 0.01 [small effect size]).",
"Physicians identify teaching as a factor that enhances performance, although existing data to support this relationship is limited. To determine whether there were differences in clinical performance scores as assessed through multisource feedback (MSF) data based on clinical teaching. MSF data for 1831 family physicians, 1510 medical specialists, and 542 surgeons were collected from physicians' medical colleagues, co-workers (e.g., nurses and pharmacists), and patients and examined in relation to information about physician teaching activities including percentage of time spent teaching during patient care and academic appointment. Multivariate analysis of variance, partial eta squared effect sizes, and Tukey's HSD post hoc comparisons were used to determine between group differences in total MSF mean and subscale mean performance scores by teaching and academic appointment data. Higher clinical performance scores were associated with holding any academic appointment and generally with any time teaching versus no teaching during patient care. This was most evident for data from medical colleagues, where these differences existed across all specialty groups.",
"The authors performed this study to examine the relationship, if any, of a large number of measures of medical school performance with radiology residency performance. Applications of 77 radiology residents enrolled from 1991 to 2000 were reviewed. Medical school grades, dean's letter summary statements, letters of recommendation, selection to Alpha Omega Alpha (AOA), and National Board of Medical Examiners (NBME) and U.S. Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1 scores were recorded. Student t tests, analysis of variance, and correlation coefficients were used to examine the relationship between these measures of medical school performance and subsequent performance during radiology residency as determined by rotation evaluations, retrospective faculty recall scores, and American College of Radiology (ACR) and American Board of Radiology (ABR) examination scores. Resident performance was also correlated with prestige of the medical school attended. Preclinical grades of Honors or A; clinical grades of Honors or A in medicine, surgery, and pediatrics; and high NBME/USMLE scores strongly predicted success on the ABR written clinical examination but did not predict rotation performance. Most other measures of medical school performance, including outstanding Dean's letters and letters of recommendation, AOA selection during the senior year, and high medical school prestige did not predict high examination scores or superior rotation performance during residency.",
"We suggest that radiologists benefit from error review, although there was not a statistically significant improvement for the series of radiographs in total. This is partly explained by the fact that some radiologists gave incorrect responses post-education that had initially been correct, thus masking the effect of the educational intervention.",
"We examined the quality of instruction in a continued medical education course and the correspondence between the residents and lecturers evaluations of the program. Resident psychiatrists and instructors completed structured evaluation forms immediately following each lecture in a psychiatry course for one academic year. Residents' and lecturers' evaluations of goal achievement, but not general ratings of lecture quality correlated positively. Instructors' enthusiasm, clarity and appropriateness of subject matter and encouragement of independent thinking, but not audio-visual aids significantly correlated with resident's positive evaluations.",
"The medical student performance evaluation (MSPE), a letter summarizing academic performance, is included in each medical student's residency application. The extent to which medical schools follow Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC) recommendations for comparative and transparent data is not known. This study's purpose was to describe the content, interpretability, and transparency of MSPEs. This cross-sectional study examined one randomly selected MSPE from every Liaison Committee on Medical Education-accredited U.S. medical school from which at least one student applied to the Stanford University internal medical residency program during the 2013-2014 application cycle. The authors described the number, distribution, and range of key words and clerkship grades used in the MSPEs and the proportions of schools with missing or incomplete data. The sample included MSPEs from 117 (89%) of 131 medical schools. Sixty schools (51%) provided complete information about clerkship grade and key word distributions. Ninety-six (82%) provided comparative data for clerkship grades, and 71 (61%) provided complete key word data. Key words describing overall performance were extremely heterogeneous, with a total of 72 used and great variation in the assignment of the top designation (median: 24% of students; range: 1%-60%). There was also great variation in the proportion of students awarded the top internal medicine clerkship grade (median: 29%; range: 2%-90%).",
"These results suggest that SP examiners are acceptable to medical students, SP rate students higher than physicians and, unlike physician scores, SP scores are not related to other measures of competence.",
"To determine whether information collected during the National Resident Matching Program (NRMP) predicts clinical performance during residency. Ten faculty members rated the overall quality of 69 pediatric house officers as clinicians. After rating by the faculty, folders were reviewed for absolute rank on the NRMP match list; relative ranking (where they ranked in their postgraduate year 1 [PGY-1] group); scores on part I of the National Board of Medical Examiners (NBME) examination; grades during medical school pediatrics and internal medicine rotations; membership in the Alpha Omega Alpha Medical Honor Society; scores of faculty interviews during intern application; scores on the pediatric in-service examination during PGY-1; and scores on the American Board of Pediatrics certification examination. There was substantial agreement among faculty raters as to the overall quality of the residents (agreement rate, 0.60; kappa = 0.50; P = .001). There was little correlation between faculty ratings and absolute (r = 0.19; P = .11) or relative (r = 0.20; P = .09) ranking on the NRMP match list. Individuals ranked in the top 10 of the match list had higher faculty ratings than did their peers (mean +/- SD, 3.66+/-1.22 vs. 3.0+/-1.27; P = .03), as did individuals ranked highest in their PGY-1 group (mean +/- SD, 3.88+/-1.45 vs. 3.04+/-1.24; P = .03). There was no correlation between faculty ratings and scores on part I of the NBME examination (r = 0.10; P = .49) or scores on the American Board of Pediatrics certification examination (r = 0.22; P = . 11). There were weak correlations between faculty ratings and scores of faculty interviews during the intern application process (r = 0.27; P = .02) and scores on the pediatric in-service examination during PGY-1 (r = 0.28; P = .02). There was no difference in faculty ratings of residents who were elected to Alpha Omega Alpha during medical school (mean +/- SD, 3.32+/-1.21) as compared with those who were not (mean +/- SD, 3.08+/-1.34) (P = .25).",
"The link between medical school behavior and future conduct is weak. The use of such factors in promotion decisions is more likely to be arbitrary and unfair rather than genuinely identify problem physicians. There is a core tension between teaching and evaluating professionalism. What counts as professionalism is in need of definition and meaningful validation.",
"The medical education literature contains few publications about the phenomenon of grade inflation. The authors' clinical clerkship grading scale suffered from apparent inflation relative to the recommended university distribution. The investigators hypothesized that a simple change of the shift grading cards, using explicit criteria, would decrease this grade inflation and aid to redistribute the shift evaluations. This was a before-and-after study examining medical student shift evaluation grades. Evaluators and students were blinded to the purpose of the card change and were unaware that a study was being conducted. Beginning June 1, 2005, the authors altered the shift evaluation cards from the previous four choices of honors, high pass, pass, or fail to five choices of upper 5%, upper 25%, expected, below expected, or far below expected, and explicit grading criteria were provided. No other interventions to alter the grade distribution occurred. Data were collected on all evaluations from June 1, 2004, to March 31, 2005 (before change), and compared with data on all evaluations from June 1, 2005, to March 31, 2006 (after change). A total of 3,349 evaluations were analyzed: 1,612 before the card change and 1,737 after the change. The grade distribution before the card change was as follows: honors, 22.6%; high pass, 49.0%; pass, 28.4%; and fail, 0%. This compared with the following ratings after the card change: upper 5%, 9.8%; upper 25%, 41.2%; expected, 46.2%; below expected, 2.8%; and far below expected, 0% (p < 0.001).",
"Medical educators grapple with predicting performance of graduates identified as struggling during medical school. Students appear before student promotions committees (SPCs) for multiple cognitive and noncognitive reasons and performance outcomes for this cohort have not been well defined in the literature. To determine the predictive validity of SPC appearance with respect to performance on a Program Director's (PD's) Evaluation Form completed at the end of internship (PGY-1). Residents were classified as \"below average,\" \"average,\" or \"above average\" based on PD Evaluation Form ratings. This PD instrument has been shown to be feasible, reliable, and valid. Below-average residents were defined as having a below-average rating on any question on the PD Evaluation Form. We compared SPC and non-SPC cohorts with respect to these PD Evaluation Form ratings. The t test was used for statistical analysis. Seven years of graduating classes from our institution were included. Of students who graduated from our institution, 119 of 856 students (14%) were presented at our SPC during medical school during our study period. There were 196 residents (23%) identified as below average. The PD Evaluation Form response rate for this period was 77%. Students who appeared at our SPC were significantly more likely to have below-average scores for almost all PD Evaluation Form questions with small to moderate effect sizes.",
"no. We concluded that program director evaluations of resident performance do not appear to correlate with objective tests of either clinical skills or knowledge taken during medical school. These findings suggest that more structured and objective evaluative tools might improve postgraduate training program assessment of trainees.",
"Higher USMLE scores were associated with higher faculty evaluations and first-time board pass rates. However, their positive predictive value was only 50% for higher faculty evaluations and a high overall board pass rate can be achieved regardless of USMLE scores. USMLE Step 1 score is a valid tool for selecting residents but caution might be indicated in using it as a single selection factor.",
"This study assessed the impact of a pre-medical pipeline program on successful completion of medical school and the capacity of this program to address achievement gaps experienced by disadvantaged students. The University of North Carolina (USA) Medical Education Development (MED) program provides intensive academic and test skills preparation for admission to medical, dental, and other allied health professions schools. This retrospective study evaluated the academic progress of a longitudinal sample of 1738 disadvantaged college students who completed MED between 1974 and 2001. Data sources included MED participant data, medical school admissions data for the host school, aggregate data from the Association of American Medical Colleges (AAMC), and individual MED participant data from AAMC. Methods of analysis utilized Chi-square, independent samples t test, and logistic regression to examine associations between factors. Of the 935 students in MED from 1974 to 2001, who had indicated an interest in medical school, 887 (94.9%) successfully matriculated and 801 (85.7%) successfully earned the MD degree. Using logistic regression, factors that were significantly correlated with earning the medical degree included the student's race, college undergraduate total and science grade point averages, with Hispanic, African American, and Native American participants earning the medical degree at rates comparable to Caucasian participants. MED students successfully earned the MD degree despite having significantly lower Medical College Admissions Test (MCAT) scores and undergraduate grade point averages compared to all United States medical school applicants: MCAT scores had little relationship with student's success.",
"To determine the types of learning goals residents select for their individualized learning plans (ILPs) and the relationship between goal type and progress toward achieving that goal. Pediatric and combined pediatric residents at 46 U.S. training programs completed a Web-based survey on ILPs in 2008-2009, describing their most important learning goal and the goals on which they made the most and least progress. Using iterative inductive review, responses were categorized into seven types (six corresponding with the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education general competencies). Descriptive statistics and regression models were used to assess the relationship between goal type and progress made. Of 1,739 eligible residents, 992 (57%) completed the survey; 668 (38%) had previously completed an ILP and described their learning goals. Residents were more likely to report medical knowledge (MK) (53.7%) and patient care (PC) (25.9%) goals as most important and less likely to report professionalism (1.5%) and systems-based practice (SBP) (1.0%) goals as most important. Compared with progress on MK goals, residents reported significantly greater progress on PC (odds ratio [OR]: 2.20; 95% confidence interval [CI]: 1.57-3.09) and practice-based learning and improvement teaching (OR: 2.99; 95% CI: 1.59-5.63) goals and less progress on SBP goals (OR: 0.16; 95% CI: 0.05-0.56).",
"Seventy-five percent of the individual variation in cumulative GPA at graduation and first-semester GPA remains unaccounted for by admission screens that rely on only cognitive measures, such as undergraduate GPA and Medical College Admission Test score. A reevaluation of admission screens is warranted, and medical educators should consider broadening the criteria used to select the podiatric physicians of the future.",
"yes. Students who are referred to a committee for review following completion of their internal medicine clerkship are more likely to receive poor ratings in internship and fail USMLE Step 3 compared to students whose performance in the medicine clerkship does not trigger a committee review. These findings provide validity evidence for our competency committee review in that the students identified as requiring further clinical work had significantly higher rates of poor ratings in professionalism than students who were reviewed by the competency committee but not required to remediate. Additionally, students reviewed but not required to remediate were nonetheless at risk of low internship ratings, suggesting that these students might need some intervention prior to graduation.",
"An educational program based on real-time feedback to resident physicians regarding documentation improved diagnostic capture and SOI scores, but not case mix index or billing at our public, safety net, teaching hospital. Even with enhanced education of resident physicians regarding documentation, other interventions are needed to further improve diagnostic capture.",
"To collect information regarding preparation, content, and format of Medical Student Performance Evaluations (MSPEs) and evaluate a sample of 2005 MSPEs to assess compliance with the 2002 Association of American Medical Colleges-issued MSPE guidelines. Cross-sectional survey with all 126 U.S. allopathic medical schools. Associate deans of students affairs were sent an eight-item questionnaire in June 2006 and asked to submit a sample of redacted MSPEs for 2005 graduates, choosing one from each tertile of the class. Survey data are summarized. MSPEs were abstracted, and results are presented descriptively. The survey response rate was 84%. Most associate deans (71%) reported having primary responsibility for composing MSPEs; 78% adhered to the format and content guidelines three fourths of the time. The abstraction of 293 MSPEs (78%) showed that more than 80% adhered to format recommendations. However, only 70% to 80% stated grades clearly, avoided the word recommendation, and stated whether the student had completed remediation. Fewer than 70% indicated whether the student had had any adverse actions or provided adequate comparative data. Strikingly, only 17% provide comparative data in the summary paragraph. Overall, 75% of the MSPEs were judged to be \"adequate.\"",
"Faculty development programs and faculty incentive systems have heightened the need to validate a connection between the quality of teaching and students' learning. This study was designed to determine the association between attending physicians' and residents' teacher ratings and their students' examination scores. From a database of 362 students, 138 faculty, and 107 residents in internal medicine, student-faculty (n = 476) and student-resident (n = 474) pairs were identified. All students were in their third year, rotating on inpatient general medicine and cardiology services, July 1994 through June 1996, at a single institution. The outcome measure for students' knowledge was the NBME Subject Examination in internal medicine. To control for students' baseline knowledge, the predictors were scores on the USMLE Step 1 and a sequential examination (a clinically-based pre- and post-clerkship examination). Teaching abilities of faculty and residents were rated by a global item on the post-clerkship evaluation. Faculty's ratings used only scores from prior to the study period; residents' ratings included those scores students gave during the study period. Multivariate analyses showed faculty's teaching ratings were a small but significant predictor of the increase in students' knowledge. Residents' teaching ratings did not predict an increase in students' knowledge.",
"no. There is significant agreement among faculty raters about the clinical competence of pediatric residents. Medical school grades, performance on standardized examinations, interviews during the intern application process, and match-list ranking are not predictors of clinical performance during residency.",
"This study challenges the appropriateness of using core clerkship grades for resident selection. The authors hypothesize that substantial variability occurred in the system of grading. In this retrospective cross-sectional study, variability in the grading systems for third-year core clinical clerkships were examined. From the Medical Student Performance Evaluation of applicants from U.S. medical schools for residency training in the authors' department in 2004 and 2005, the authors gathered the following variables: medical school, third-year core clerkship grading systems, and percentage of students in each grade category. Descriptive analyses were conducted and within institution variability across clerkship scores was analyzed using repeated measure analysis of variance (ANOVA) and t-test. University teaching hospital. The survey covered 121 of 122 U.S. medical schools accredited by the AAMC/LCME. Grading systems used included: variations of Honors/Pass/Fail (H,P,F) system in 76 schools, letter grade systems in 22 schools, and other variants (eg, Outstanding, Advanced, and Proficient in 6 schools and Pass/Fail in 4 schools). Thirteen schools (10%) provided either no grading system or no interpretable system. Grading systems included were further defined into 2 scores in 6 schools, 3 in 34 schools, 4 in 38 schools, 5 in 23 schools, and more than 6 in 6 schools. For schools using a grading system containing 3 or more scores, the percentage of students given the highest grade was significantly less in Surgery (28%) compared with Family Medicine (34%) and Psychiatry (35%) (p = 0.001).",
"We did not find important differences in measures of quality of care or patient outcomes by physician. These results may have implications for the use of physician profiling and other forms of physician report cards.",
"A physician-targeted approach of education, peer-comparison feedback, and academic detailing has modest effects on patient satisfaction and possibly on the offering of selected preventive care services. The lack of agreement between patient reports and medical records review raises concerns about current methods of ascertaining compliance with guidelines for preventive care.",
"During each of the past several years, a nationally circulated periodical (US News&World Report) has provided a ranking of medical schools and their respective specialty departments. In contrast to the method used to rank medical schools, medical specialties, including family medicine, are ranked based solely on ratings by deans and senior faculty at peer schools. This study's purpose was to explore how closely this expert opinion-based process matches actual objective and quantifiable data about departmental performance. Available quantifiable data in the following categories were obtained: administration, academic productivity, and medical student and resident education. Based on their ranking in a category, each department was awarded one to five stars depending on the quintile they achieved (except for the dichotomous variable pertaining to the presence of a postresidency fellowship). Five stars indicate a ranking in the highest quintile. In regards to success in administration, research, and residency education and production of family physicians, the departments, on average, were rated 3.4, 4.2, and 3.6 stars, respectively. Overall, half of the departments consistently ranked in the top quartile, as indicated by an average score of 4.0 to 5.0 stars.",
"yes. Ongoing evaluation of classroom lectures by resident psychiatrists may provide valuable feedback to instructors and impact the quality of medical education. The \"classic\" role of the teacher organization and enthusiasm are the most important components of quality education.",
"To determine whether a gap exists between program directors' expectations for performance and residents' actual performance on learning objectives designed to address the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education's (ACGME's) competencies. In 2007-2008, the authors analyzed data on the performance of 40 pediatric residents across all levels of training who were assessed a total of 8,974 times during 2002-2005 on 35 learning objectives developed to address the ACGME patient care competency. Residents \"passed\" the objectives if assessments met the expected performance standards for each level of training that were set by pediatric program directors in a previous survey. To address concurrent validity, the authors also reviewed faculty evaluations of resident performance using a modified version of the American Board of Internal Medicine competency card. The mean pass rate (percentage of residents meeting or exceeding the predetermined standard) for the 35 learning objectives was 92% for first-year, 84% for second-year, and 72% for third-year residents. Actual performance met expected performance standards for all patient care learning objectives except those for procedural competence and some related to patient management. However, faculty competency card evaluations demonstrated that residents met or exceeded competence in patient care, suggesting that program directors set unrealistic standards for these few items."
] | 323 |
In-house referral: a primary care alternative to immediate secondary care referral? | [
"Methods are needed to ensure that those patients referred from primary to secondary care are those most likely to benefit. In-house referral is the referral of a patient by a general practitioner to another general practitioner within the same practice for a second opinion on the need for secondary care referral. To describe whether in-house referral is practical and acceptable to patients, and the health outcomes for patients. Practices were randomized into an intervention or a control group. In intervention practices, patients with certain conditions who were about to be referred to secondary care were referred in-house. If the second clinician agreed referral was appropriate the patient was referred on to secondary care. In control practices patients were referred in the usual fashion. Patient satisfaction and health status was measured at the time of referral, 6 months and one year. Eight intervention and seven control practices took part. For the 177 patients referred in-house, 109 (61%) were judged to need referral on to secondary care. For patient satisfaction, the only difference between the groups studied was that at 12 months patients who had been referred in-house reported themselves as being more satisfied than those referred directly to hospital. For health status, the only difference found was that at the time of referral, patients who had been referred in-house and judged to need hospital referral reported themselves as being less able on the 'Physical function' subscale of the SF-36 than patients who were referred in-house and judged to not need hospital referral.",
"In-house referral is acceptable to patients and provides a straightforward method of addressing uncertainty over the need for referral from primary to secondary care."
] | [
"Current health care management has resulted in a change in referral patterns. The present study was undertaken to define the efficacy and value of pediatric echocardiography performed and interpreted in adult laboratories. We reviewed the findings in 100 consecutive pediatric patients 1 month to 18 years of age referred for possible heart disease and evaluated previously by echocardiography performed in an adult laboratory. Technical adequacy and interpretation of the echocardiogram at the outside facility was correlated with our final diagnosis. Of the studies, 32 (32%) were performed in hospital laboratories, and 68 (68%) in physician offices. A total of 52 (52%) of the 100 patients arrived with an outside diagnosis in agreement with our final diagnosis. Technical difficulties were reported in 14 (14%) studies by the original laboratory; we felt that 32 (32%) studies were inadequate. Interpretation or communication between the outside echocardiography laboratory, primary care physicians, and patients' family was erroneous in 32 (32%) cases. Repeat echocardiography was necessary in 38 (38%) patients (6 because of planned surgery). If initial referral had been to our own institution, 25 to 30 patients would not have undergone echocardiography.",
"Diversion of patients with minor conditions to alternative services; referral of COPD patients to follow-up respiratory services and patients with neurosis to community mental health services would reduce emergency utilisation. Improving access to and resourcing of alternative non-hospital services should be investigated to reduce emergency overcrowding.",
"To test an intervention designed to improve primary care use and decrease emergency department (ED) utilization for uninsured patients using the ED. Using a randomized design, an intensive case-management intervention was tested with patients identified at a Level 1 urban trauma center from April 2002 through July 2002. Following assessment in the ED, six-month follow-up data were gathered from four primary care sites (two Federally Qualified Health Centers, two hospital outpatient clinics) and two area hospitals. Eligible participants were uninsured, were at least 18 years of age, and did not have a regular primary care provider. Of 281 patients approached, 273 (97.2%) agreed to participate. After 42 patients were eliminated following enrollment due to ineligibility, there were 121 intervention and 109 comparison subjects. Health Promotion Advocates (HPAs) in the ED gathered information from all study participants. On intervention shifts, HPAs assisted patients in choosing a primary care provider and faxed all information to a case worker at the selected site. Case managers attempted to contact patients and schedule appointments. On comparison shifts, patients received care as usual. Primary care contact in 60 days and subsequent ED visits in six months post-ED assessment were the main outcome measures. Intervention subjects were more likely to have a primary care contact (51.2% vs. 13.8%, p < 0.0001). There was no statistically significant difference between groups in either number of inpatient admissions or postintervention ED visits, although postintervention ED visits for the intervention group were less expensive.",
"Adopting ecAVGs as an alternative to TCVCs in patients requiring immediate access for haemodialysis may provide better individual patient care and deliver cost savings to the hospital.",
"Patients are hospitalized for disparate conditions and procedures. Patient experiences with care may depend on hospitalization type (HT). Determine whether the contributions of patient experience composite measures to overall hospital ratings on the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems Survey vary by HT. In cross-sectional observational data, we defined 24 HTs using major diagnostic category and service line (medical, surgical, or obstetrical). To assess the importance of each composite for each HT, we calculated the simultaneous partial correlations of 7 composite scores with an overall hospital rating, controlling for patient demographics. Nineteen thousand seven hundred twenty English- or Spanish-speaking adults with nonpsychiatric primary diagnoses discharged home 12/02-1/03 after an overnight inpatient stay in any of 132 general acute care hospitals in 3 states. Patient-reported doctor communication, nurse communication, staff responsiveness, physical environment, new medicines explained, pain control, and postdischarge information; overall 0 to 10 rating of care. Nurse communication was most important overall, with a 0.34 average partial correlation (range: 0.17-0.49; P < 0.05 and among the 3 most important composites for all HTs). Discharge information was least important (0.05 average partial correlation; P < 0.05 for 10 of 24 HTs). Interactions demonstrated significant (P < 0.05) variation in partial correlations by HT for 5 of 7 composites (all but responsiveness and environment), with nurse communication, doctor communication, and pain control showing the most variation (F > 2, P < 0.05).",
"Practice variation in the primary care treatment of depression may be considerable in the Netherlands, due to relatively small and unregulated practices. We adapted the collaborative care model for the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) to accommodate existing practice variation and tested whether this had added value over Care as Usual (CAU). A cluster randomized controlled trial was conducted to compare an adapted target driven collaborative care model with Care as Usual (CAU). Randomization was at the level of 18 (sub)urban primary care centers. The care manager and GP were supported by a web-based tracking and decision aid system that advised targeted treatment actions to achieve rapid response and if possible remission, and that warned the consultant psychiatrist if such treatment advice was not followed up. Eligible patients had a score of 10 or higher on the PHQ9, and met diagnostic criteria for major depression at the subsequent MINI Neuropsychiatric interview. A total of 93 patients were identified by screening. They received either collaborative care (CC) or CAU. Another 56 patients received collaborative care after identification by the GP. The outcome measures were response to treatment (50% or greater reduction of the PHQ9-total score from baseline) at three, six, nine and twelve months, and remission (a score of 0-4 on the PHQ9 at follow-up). Treatment response and remission in CAU were low. Collaborative care was more effective on achieving treatment response than CAU at three months for the total group of patients who received collaborative care [OR 5.2 ((1.41-16.09), NNT 2] and at nine months [OR 5.6 ((1.40-22.58)), NNT 3]. The effect was not statistically significant at 6 and 12 months.",
"yes. This is the first study to estimate the prevalence of clinically diagnosed AS in primary and secondary care simultaneously, indicating that only one-third of patients are managed in rheumatology. This has important ramifications for health care planning and indicates a large 'silent' proportion of patients who may have serious pathology and would benefit from additional assessment in a specialist clinic.",
"To compare the utilization of health care resources and patterns of chronic disease care by patients of medical residents and patients of their attending physicians. This study involved a longitudinal cohort of 14,554 patients seen over a 1-year period by 149 residents and 36 attendings located in an urban academic medical center. Data were acquired prospectively through a practice management system used to order tests, write prescriptions, and code ambulatory visits. We assessed resource utilization by measuring the total direct costs of care over a 1-year period, including ambulatory and inpatient costs, and the numbers and types of resources used. Residents' patients were similar to attendings' patients in age and gender, but residents' patients were more likely to have Medicaid or Medicare and to have a higher burden of comorbidity. Total annual ambulatory care costs were almost 60% higher for residents' patients than for attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, and 30% higher in analyses adjusted for differences in case mix (adjusted mean 888 dollars vs 750 dollars; P=.0001). The primary cost drivers on the outpatient side were consultations and radiological procedures. Total inpatient costs were almost twice as high for residents' patients compared to attendings' patients in unadjusted analyses, but virtually identical in analyses adjusted for case mix differences (adjusted mean of 849 dollars vs 860 dollars). Admission rates were almost double for residents' patients. Total adjusted costs for residents' patients were slightly, but not significantly, higher than for attendings' patients (adjusted mean 1,651 dollars vs 1,540 dollars; P>.05). Residents' and attendings' patients generally did not differ in the patterns of care for diabetes, asthma/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, ischemic heart disease, and depression, except that residents' patients with asthma/COPD, ischemic heart disease, and diabetes were admitted more frequently than attendings' patients.",
"Improving Access to Psychological Therapies (IAPT) is a new programme designed to reduce disease burden to the individual and economic burden to the society of common mental health problems (CMHP). This is the first study to look at the impact of IAPT on health service utilisation and sickness absence using routine data. The authors used pseudonymised secure and privately linked (SAPREL) routinely collected primary, secondary care and clinic computer data from two pilot localities. The authors explored antidepressant prescribing, accident and emergency and outpatients attendances, inpatient stays, bed days, and sick certification. The authors compared the registered population with those with CMHP. The authors then made a 6 months before and after comparison of people referred to IAPT with age-sex and practice-matched controls. People with CMHP used more health resources than those without CMHP: more prescriptions of antidepressants 5.25 (95% CI 5.38 to 5.13), inpatient episodes 4.89 (95% CI 5.0 to 4.79), occupied bed days 1.25 (95% CI 0.95 to 1.55), outpatient 1.5 (95% CI 1.40 to 1.63) and emergency department attendances 0.34 (95% CI 0.31 to 0.37), and medical certificates 0.29 (95% CI 0.26 to 0.32). Comparison of service utilisation 6 months before and after referral to IAPT was associated with reduced use of emergency department attendances (mean difference: 0.12 (95% CI 0.06 to 0.19, p<0.001)). However, the number of prescriptions of antidepressants increased mean difference -0.15 (95% CI 0.02-0.29, p=0.028).",
"To estimate the relative importance to patients of continuity of care compared with other aspects of a primary care consultation. We carried out a discrete choice experiment in Leicestershire and London on a stratified random sample of 646 community dwelling adults taken from general practitioner (GP) registers, plus 20 interviews with Punjabi, Urdu and Gujarati speakers. The attributes examined were: the type of professional consulted, relational continuity, informational continuity and access. Individuals' values changed according to their reason for making a primary care consultation. If consulting for minor familiar symptoms, individuals would be prepared to trade off one extra day's wait to see a GP rather than a nurse, 0.9 days for relational continuity, and 1.6 days for informational continuity. If consulting for a new condition they were uncertain about, they would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 2.4 days for relational continuity and 3.9 days for informational continuity. For a routine check-up, an individual would be prepared to trade off an additional wait of 3.5 days to see a GP rather than a nurse, 4.2 days for relational continuity and 7.8 days for informational continuity.",
"Based on this natural experiment we were not able to document statistically significant differences in total costs between treatment sites that had guidelines recommending pharmacogenetic testing, relative to sites without such guidelines, over a period of one year. However, guidelines of pharmacogenetic testing and possibly also therapeutic drug monitoring seem to lead to reductions in costs for primary care services. In the case of the former, reductions do, however, seem to be outweighed by increases in costs for psychiatric and non-psychiatric inpatient stays. In conclusion, no statistically significant differences in total direct costs across sites with different treatment strategies were found.",
"Managed care, increased disease severity, and more complex treatment options may be reasons for the recent enthusiasm for \"hospitalists\"--physicians who specialize in the care of inpatients. It is not clear, however, whether hospitalism is a new model for caring for inpatients or merely a new description for previously existing practice patterns. The proportion of physician visits occurring in the hospital before the introduction of the term hospitalists. Five specialties were examined: family/general practice, general internal medicine, cardiology, gastroenterology, and pulmonology. 1994 Medicare Part B claims data for beneficiaries 65 years of age and older who received all of their care in Washington State. For the average family/general practitioner, 10% of all Medicare visits occurred in the hospital. Corresponding figures for the other specialties were 20% for general internists, 36% for cardiologists, 38% for gastroenterologists, and 45% for pulmonologists. A substantial number of physicians devoted most of their Medicare effort to inpatient care (i.e., hospital visits>50% of total visits). If this definition were used as a proxy for hospitalism, 4% of family/general practitioners, 10% of general internists, 20% of gastroenterologists, 29% of cardiologists, and 37% of pulmonologists would have been considered hospitalists in Washington State during 1994. On the other hand, 35% of family/general practitioners, 18% of general internists, 7% of both gastroenterologists and pulmonologists, and 4% of cardiologists did not bill Medicare for any inpatient visits and could reasonably be categorized as \"officists.\"",
"The degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was variable. Agreement was very poor for variables like inflammatory back pain, which are crucial for the diagnosis of Spa. Training programs for primary care physicians are important in order for them to correctly identify early Spa patients.",
"yes. Almost all primary care referrals included the required details as per recent HIQA guidelines. The further inclusion of optional information relating to patient social or functional status, which are of particular relevance to the older population may help patient management.",
"Resident work hour restrictions and changes in reimbursement may lead to an adverse effect on the continuity of care of a patient after discharge. This study analyzes whether adding a nurse practitioner (NP) to a busy inpatient surgery service would improve patient care after discharge. In 2007, a NP joined a team of 3 surgery attendings. She coordinated the discharge plan and communicated with patients after discharge. We reviewed the records of patients 1 year before (N = 415) and 1 year after (N = 411) the NP joined the team. The discharge courses of the patients were reviewed, and an unnecessary emergency room (ER) visit was defined as an ER visit that did not result in an inpatient admission. The 2 groups were statistically similar with regard to age, race, acuity of the operation, duration of hospital stay, and hospital readmissions. Telephone communication between nurses and discharged patients was 846 calls before the NP and 1,319 calls after the NP, representing an increase of 64% (P < .0001). Visiting nurse, physical therapy, or occupational therapy services were rendered to only 25% of patients before the NP compared to 39% after (P < .0001). There were more unnecessary ER visits before the NP (103/415; 25%) compared to after (54/411; 13%) (P = .001).",
"yes. Surgical conditions are the most common reason for admissions at three primary referral hospitals in rural Mozambique. These data suggest that surgical care is a major component of health care delivered at primary referral hospitals in Mozambique and likely other sub-Saharan African countries.",
"Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.",
"This study found that liaison psychiatrists were able to fulfil a useful role in an OH department. Most of the cases seen within the department would not be classed as serious mental illness and therefore it is unlikely that community mental health teams would become involved in their routine care. Specialist mental health support from an 'in house' service is likely to be of considerable benefit from both occupational and medical perspectives.",
"yes. This program resulted in shortened stays and more primary care use. There was no increase in infant urgent primary care utilization. Early discharge programs that incorporate and reimburse for enhanced ambulatory services may be safe for infants; these findings should not be extrapolated to mandatory reduced LOS initiatives without enhancement of care.",
"Timing of referral to subspecialists may be a major determinant for access to adequate treatment. Kidney transplantation is the preferred modality of renal replacement therapy (RRT) in children. In adults, delayed referral from general physicians to nephrologists reduced access to kidney transplantation. This study investigated the association between timing of referral and the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation in children. In this retrospective study, all patients in a tertiary paediatric nephrology centre were grouped according to first paediatric nephrologist visit (< or = 3 months prior to RRT was defined as 'late referral (LR)') and modality of first RRT. Descriptive, correlation and contingency statistics, Pearson's chi(2) test and logistic regression techniques were used for analysis. The median duration of nephrologists pre-RRT care of 111 children (50 girls and 61 boys; aged 8.0 years at first referral) was 1.5 (range 0-17.5) years. Thirty-two of 84 children who had their first visit >3 months prior to RRT were pre-emptively transplanted (38%), but only three of the 27 children with LR (11%; OR 4.9; 95% CI 1.37 to 17.7). Using a threshold of 12 months, the likelihood of pre-emptive kidney transplantation was still significantly influenced by timing of referral (OR 2.5; 95% CI 1.06 to 5.91).",
"yes. Patients, GPs and consultants have positive views on the value of referrals from primary care to medical specialists. Patients were most positive if the physician had initiated the referral, which supports the gate keeper role of the GP.",
"This study shows the importance of evaluating any changes in care delivery. The direct referral policy has reduced the time it takes for women to be seen in the colposcopy department following an abnormal smear.",
"We aimed to classify patients with heart failure (HF) by the style of primary care they receive. We used the claim data ( Système National d'Information Inter-Régime de l'Assurance Maladie) of patients living in a French region. We evaluated three concepts. First, baseline clinical status with age and Charlson index. Second, primary care practice style with mean delay between consultations, quantity of nursing care, and variability of diuretic dose. Third, clinical outcomes with death during follow-up, readmission for HF, and rate of unforeseen consultations. The baseline clinical status and the clinical outcomes were included to give an insight in the reasons for, and performance of, primary care practice style. Patients were classified using a hierarchical ascending classification based on principal components. A total of 2,751 patients were included in this study and were followed for a median of 22 months. The mean age was 78 y (SD: 12); 484 (18%) died, and 818 (30%) were readmitted for HF. We found three different significant groups characterized by their need for care and the intensity of practice style: group 1 (N = 734) was \"low need-low intensity\"; group 2 (N = 1,060) was \"high need-low intensity\"; and group 3 (N = 957) was \"high need-high intensity\". Their readmission rates were 17%, 41% and 28%, respectively.",
"To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.",
"Home hospital is advocated in many western countries in spite of limited evidence of its economic advantage over usual hospital care. Heart failure and community-acquired pneumonia are two medical conditions which are frequently targeted by home hospital programs. While recent trials were devoted to comparisons of safety and costs, the acceptance of home hospital for patients with these conditions remains poorly described. To document the medical eligibility and final transfer decision to home hospital for patients hospitalized with a primary diagnosis of heart failure or community-acquired pneumonia. Longitudinal study of patients admitted to the medical ward of acute care hospitals, up to the final decision concerning their transfer. Medical departments of one university hospital and two regional teaching Swiss hospitals. All patients admitted over a 9 month period to the three settings with a primary diagnosis of heart failure (n= 301) or pneumonia (n=441). Presence of permanent exclusion criteria on admission; final decision of (in)eligibility based on medical criteria; final decision regarding the transfer, taking into account the opinions of the family physician, the patient and informal caregivers. While 27.9% of heart failure and 37.6% of pneumonia patients were considered to be eligible from a medical point of view, the program acceptance by family physicians, patients and informal caregivers was low and a transfer to home hospital was ultimately chosen for just 3.8% of heart failure and 9.6% of pneumonia patients. There were no major differences between the three settings.",
"This secondary quantitative analysis provides evidence for an association between difficulty in accessing in-hours care and use of out-of-hours primary care services. The findings can motivate the development of interventions to improve in-hour access.",
"Care by Design™ (CBD) (Canada), a model of coordinated team-based primary care, was implemented in long-term care facilities (LTCFs) in Halifax, Nova Scotia, Canada, to improve access to and continuity of primary care and to reduce high rates of transfers to emergency departments (EDs). This was an observational time series before and after the implementation of CBD (Canada). Participants are LTCF residents with 911 Emergency Health Services calls from 10 LTCFs, representing 1424 beds. Data were abstracted from LTCF charts and Emergency Health Services databases. The primary outcome was ambulance transports from LTCFs to EDs. Secondary outcomes included access (primary care physician notes in charts) and continuity (physician numbers and contacts). After implementation of CBD (Canada), transports from LTCFs to EDs were reduced by 36%, from 68 to 44 per month (P = .01). Relational and informational continuity of care improved with resident charts with ≥10 physician notes, increasing 38% before CBD to 55% after CBD (P = .003), and the median number of chart notes increased from 7 to 10 (P = .0026). Physicians contacted before 911 calls and onsite assessment increased from 38% to 54% (P = .01) and 3.7% to 9.2% (P = .03), respectively, before CBD to after CBD.",
"To evaluate the degree of agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists when evaluating the referral criteria in patients with suspected early spondyloarthropathy (Spa). Patients with suspected early Spa (according to predefined clinical referral criteria) were sent by primary care physicians to early Spa units (where a rheumatologist evaluated the same criteria and confirmed the diagnosis) through an on-line platform. We assessed the agreement between primary care physicians and rheumatologists regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria among patients with definitive Spa using the kappa index (k). Eight hundred and two patients were analysed, 8.31% of whom were incorrectly referred to the rheumatologist. The degree of agreement regarding the predefined clinical referral criteria was poor for inflammatory back pain (k=0,16; 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0,09-0,23), radiographic sacroiliitis (k=0,31; 95% CI 0,211-0,428), back or joint pain (k=0,21; 95% CI 0,14-0,29); mild for asymmetric arthritis (k=0,51; 95% CI 0,43-0,59), positive HLA B27 (k=0,59; 95% CI 0,52-0,67) and family history (k=0,50; 95% CI 0,415-0,604); and it was good or very good for anterior uveitis (k=0,81; 95% CI 0,68-0,93), inflammatory bowel disease (k=0,87; 95% CI 0,79-0,96) and psoriasis (k=0,73; 95% CI 0,65-0,81),.",
"For the first time in German-speaking countries, this study provides evidence for the effectiveness of acute day hospital treatment as compared to conventional inpatient treatment. If detailed eligibility criteria for patients are used as defined here, approximately 30 % of the general psychiatric patients in need of acute hospital-based treatment may be cared for in this special mode of day hospital service provision.",
"This study examined whether depressed patients treated exclusively in primary care report less need for care and less acceptability of treatment options than those depressed patients treated in the specialty mental health setting after up to 6 months of treatment. Cross-sectional study. Forty-five community primary care practices. A total of 881 persons with major depression who had received mental health services in the previous 6 months and who enrolled in 3 of the 4 Quality Improvement for Depression Collaboration Studies. Patients were categorized into 1 of 2 groups: 1) having received mental health services exclusively from a primary care provider (45%), or 2) having received any services from a mental health specialist (55%) in the previous 6 months. Compared with patients who received care from mental health specialists, patients who received mental health services exclusively from primary care providers had 2.7-fold the odds (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.6 to 4.4) of reporting that no treatment was definitely acceptable and had 2.4-fold the odds (95% CI, 1.5 to 3.9) of reporting that evidence-based treatment options (antidepressant medication) were definitely not acceptable. These results were adjusted for demographic, social/behavioral, depression severity, and economic factors using multiple logistic regression analysis.",
"Previous U.S. studies suggest that the incremental (\"marginal\") use of the aggressive approach to care for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) in patients differing only in their distance to hospitals offering aggressive care may be associated with small mortality benefits. We hypothesized that the marginal benefits should be larger in Canada, as the country is operating on a lower margin because the approach to care is more conservative overall. This retrospective study used administrative data of hospital admissions and health services for all patients admitted for a first AMI in Quebec in 1988 (n = 8,674). We used differential distances to hospitals offering aggressive care as instrumental variables when measuring mortality up to four years after AMI. Of the 4,422 subjects who were>or = 65 years old, 11 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days after admission. In a previous study that applied similar methodology to the 1987 U.S. Medicare population, 23 percent of subjects received catheterization within 90 days. As in the U.S. study, we found that subjects living closer to hospitals offering aggressive care were more likely to receive aggressive care than subjects living further away (26 percent versus 19 percent received cardiac catheterization within 90 days; 95 percent CI: 5 percent to 9 percent). Unlike the U.S. study, we found no differences in mortality across the \"close\" versus \"far\" differential distance groups (unadjusted differences at one year: 1 percent; 95 percent CI: -1 percent to 3 percent). This absence of association held in elderly (>or = 65 years) and younger age groups. Adjusted results also showed no differences between subjects receiving aggressive versus conservative care (at one year: 4 percent; 95 percent CI: -11 percent to 20 percent).",
"A significant number of children require brief hospitalisation for relatively minor illness, but unnecessary delays caused by administrative aspects of hospital admission and relatively infrequent inpatient review by medical staff often lengthen the period of admission. Significant cost savings are possible with the use of a short stay facility, and a large number of patients are suitable for this form of care.",
"yes. People with CMHP use more healthcare resources. Referral to the IAPT programme is associated with a subsequent reduction in emergency department attendances, sickness certification and improved adherence to drug treatment.",
"Optimizing human resources at trauma facilities may increase quality of care. The purpose of this study was to assess whether staffing changes within a Level I trauma center improved mortality and shortened length of stay (LOS) for trauma patients. Mortality, hospital LOS, and intensive care unit LOS were evaluated during three time periods: trauma service coverage by in-house general surgery residents and attendings (\"group 1\"), the creation of a core trauma panel with in-house trauma surgeons (\"group 2\"), and the addition of physician assistants (PAs) to the core trauma panel (\"group 3\"). Logistic regression and chi tests were used to compare mortalities, and multiple linear regression, t-tests, and median tests were used to compare LOS. There were 15,297 adult patients with trauma included in the analysis. After adjustment for transfers-in, mechanism of injury, injury severity score, age, and head injury, the presence of in-house trauma surgeons (group 2) decreased the following compared with group 1: overall mortality (3.12% vs. 3.82%, p = 0.05), mortality in the severely injured (11.41% vs. 14.83%, p = 0.02), and median intensive care unit LOS (3.03 days vs. 3.40 days, p = 0.006). The introduction of PAs to the core trauma panel (group 3 vs. group 2) decreased overall mortality (2.80% vs. 3.76%, p = 0.05), and reduced mean and median hospital LOS (4.32 days vs. 4.69 days, p = 0.05; and 3.74 days vs. 3.88 days, p = 0.02, respectively).",
"A simple message that challenges consumers to think about whether the ED is truly more convenient and that provides a simple mechanism for finding out whether a trip to the ED is necessary (primary care practice contact) holds promise as a mechanism to reduce ED use for those who have ready access to primary care.",
"The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.",
"The IHC experience demonstrates that mental health services can be effectively integrated into everyday practice in a primary care setting. Clinical and financial burden can be decreased for the health care team, patients, and family.",
"Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).",
"Reporting unmet health care needs or no family physician have more of an impact on the use of alternative therapies than wait lists do. The evidence is not clear as to whether alternative care is sometimes used as a substitute to conventional care rather than a complement.",
"The number of people residing in nursing homes has increased. General practitioners (GPs) receive an increased capitation fee for elderly patients in recognition of their higher consultation rate. However, there is no distinction between elderly patients residing in nursing homes and those in the community.AIM: To determine whether nursing home residents receive greater general practice input than people residing in the community. Prospective comparative study of all 345 residents of eight nursing homes in Glasgow and a 2:1 age, sex, and GP matched comparison group residing in the community. A comparison of contacts with primary care over three months in terms of frequency, nature, length, and outcome was carried out. Nursing home residents received more total contacts with primary care staff (P<0.0001) and more face-to-face consultations with GPs (P<0.0001). They were more likely to be seen as an emergency (P<0.01) but were no more likely to be referred to hospital, and were less likely to be followed-up by their GP (P<0.0001). Although individual consultations with nursing home residents were shorter than those with the community group (P<0.0001), the overall time spent consulting with them was longer (P<0.001). This equated to an additional 28 minutes of time per patient per annum. Some of this time would have been offset by less time spent travelling, since 61% of nursing home consultations were done during the same visit as other consultations, compared with only 3% of community consultations (P<0.0001).",
"To investigate the quality of information in referrals for patients aged under 16 years referred for dental extraction under general anaesthesia (GA), to ascertain the knowledge and expectations of the parents of these patients, and to determine whether the number of teeth extracted in secondary care coincides with that of the referring dentist. Retrospective study of referrals of all patients aged under 16 years referred to community dental clinics in Berkshire, Buckinghamshire, Northamptonshire and Oxfordshire over a 26-day period. The majority (62.2%) of the 251 referrals examined were for extractions under GA. Of these, 125 were by letter and 117 using a pro forma. Significantly more pro formas (33) than letters (8) contained a full medical history (P<0.001). A treatment plan was included in significantly more pro formas (76) than letters (49) (P<0.01). Few referrals contained a note about the discussion of alternatives to a GA procedure and only 37% (58/156) of parents reported that the referring general dental practitioner had discussed alternative treatments with them. A total of 551 primary teeth were indicated for removal but 846 teeth were eventually removed.",
"To evaluate agreement between independent clinician raters using a triage protocol to prioritize referrals for occupational therapy and physiotherapy within a community rehabilitation program. The priority category allocated to consecutive referrals by one of six clinicians in the referral office was compared with a second rating made by an independent occupational therapist, blinded to the initial priority rating. A centralized referral office staffed by allied health and nursing professionals designed as a single point of access for sub acute and ambulatory services within a large metropolitan health network. 214 referrals for adults requiring community based occupational therapy or physiotherapy rehabilitation for orthopaedic, neurological or other conditions (such as falls or cardio-respiratory conditions). Agreement (weighted kappa = κ(w)) between the two ratings. Overall agreement was moderate (κ(w) = 0.60), but disagreement occurred in 30% of cases. Professional discipline of the raters did not affect agreement. Agreement varied between diagnostic subgroups, with significantly lower agreement for referrals for rehabilitation following elective orthopaedic surgery (κ(w) = 0.25) than the other categories combined. Differences in agreement were observed between the four triage categories, with the lowest observed agreement in the most urgent category.",
"To identify the impact of in-reach services providing specialist nursing care on outcomes for older people presenting to the emergency department from residential aged care. Retrospective cohort study compared clinical outcomes of 2278 presentations from 2009 with 2051 presentations from 2011 before and after the implementation of in-reach services. Median emergency department length of stay decreased by 24 minutes (7.0 vs 6.6 hours, P < 0.001) and admission rates decreased by 23% (68 vs 45%, P < 0.001). The proportion of people with repeat emergency department visits within six months decreased by 12% (27 vs 15%). The proportion of admitted patients who were discharged with an end of life palliative care plan increased by 13% (8 vs 21%, P = 0.007).",
"Multidisciplinary stroke care was successfully implemented in a resource-constrained secondary-level hospital in South Africa and despite the limitations of the study, the significant reduction in inpatient mortality and increase in referral for inpatient rehabilitation would suggest an improvement in stroke care. Resource utilization in terms of length of hospital stay increased by a mean of 2 days but the number of CT brain scans performed and referral to a tertiary hospital did not increase significantly.",
"Diabetic patients with inadequate glycemic control ought to have their management intensified. Failure to do so can be termed \"clinical inertia.\" Because data suggest that specialist care results in better control than primary care, we evaluated whether specialists demonstrated less clinical inertia than primary care physicians. Using administrative data, we studied all non-insulin-requiring diabetic patients in eastern Ontario aged 65 or older who had A1c results>8% between September 1999 and August 2000. Drug intensification was measured by comparing glucose-lowering drug regimens in 4-month blocks before and after the elevated A1c test and was defined as 1) the addition of a new oral drug, 2) a dose increase of an existing oral drug, or 3) the initiation of insulin. Propensity score-based matching was used to control for confounding between groups. There were 591 patients with specialist care and 1,911 with exclusively primary care. In the matched cohorts, 45.1% of patients with specialist care versus 37.4% with primary care had drug intensification (P = 0.009). Most of this difference was attributed to specialists' more frequent initiation of insulin in response to elevated A1c.",
"To assess how well primary care clinicians select patients needing early referral to a dentist based on an oral cavity examination. Prospective comparison of the screening oral cavity examinations performed by primary care clinicians with that performed by a dentist. General medicine clinic and dental clinic of a Veterans Affairs Medical Center. A sample of 86 consecutive patients attending regularly scheduled appointments in a primary care medical clinic. Each patient was examined independently by two primary care clinicians and then one dentist. History and physical findings, clinical impression, and plan based on the oral cavity examination were recorded. The reference standard was the examination by a dentist blinded to the patient's history. The prevalences of lesions suspicious for premalignancy, periodontal disease, calculus, and caries were 23%, 37%, 54%, and 18%, respectively. When the primary care clinicians noticed a lesion suspicious for premalignancy, the likelihood that such a lesion was present increased significantly (LR+ = 2.7 to 6.6). However, a normal examination by the primary care clinicians did not significantly lower the likelihood of a premalignant lesion (LR- = 0.7 to 0.8). The primary care clinicians were more efficient at evaluating dental and gingival conditions (LR+ = 2.7 to 5.8, LR- = 0.2 to 0.7).",
"Referrals of patients from primary care to medical specialist care are an important activity in any health care system. German data show that the number of referrals by GPs have increased since 2004, but detailed insight into the experiences of patients, GPs and consultants regarding referrals is very limited. This study aimed at describing the experiences of consultants, GPs and patients with referrals from primary care to medical specialist care. An additional objective was to examine the impact of purpose regarding the referral and of the referrer on the experiences of GPs and patients. Referrals of 26 general practitioners (GPs) from 25 practices in Marbach, a rural region in the south of Germany were studied. All adult patients referred after consulting these GPs in a period of five weeks were eligible for the study. GPs, consultants and patients completed short structured forms to document factual characteristics of each referral and their experiences with the referral. GPs and patients completed forms before and after the referral was made, while the consultants completed forms after the patient had consulted them. Overall, consultants were very positive about appropriateness of the referral (91%). They were somewhat more critical regarding the information provided on the patients' medical history (61%) and prescriptions (48%). In 258 referrals (63%) GPs perceived clear diagnostic benefits, while in 202 referrals (49%) they perceived clear treatment benefits. GPs' experiences were more positive if the GP's purpose was to reduce diagnostic uncertainty (beta = 0.318, p < 0.001) or if the purpose was to exclude serious illness (beta = 0.143, p < 0.010). Other purposes of the referral had no impact on their experiences. Patients' expectations regarding the referrals mostly referred to diagnosis, including increased diagnostic certainty (80%), detailed information about the illness (66%) and exclusion of serious illness (62%). They were overall satisfied with the referral (83%). Their experiences with the referral were more positive if the initiative for the referral came from the physician (beta = 0.365, p < 0.000).",
"Using the indicator diseases of pneumonia in children and malaria in adults, this study concluded that this network did not meet design expectations as the central level referral hospital cared for a similar case-mix of patients as the district level, but at six times the cost. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals could be improved by developing or strengthening intermediate level facilities, by changing mechanisms of access to specialist facilities and by training health professionals in community settings.",
"yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.",
"Medical motives dominate the decision to refer patients to general hospitals, but access to a GP hospital, in cases where nursing needs and long distances to the general hospital are supplementary considerations, reduces the proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals.",
"Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.",
"To explore the rate of referrals of long-term care (LTC) residents to emergency departments (EDs) and to determine the appropriateness of the referrals. Retrospective analysis of 2 administrative data sets, paramedic records and hospital records, for the year 2000. Catchment area of Hamilton, Ont. Nineteen LTC facilities and 3 EDs of Hamilton Health Sciences. Number and appropriateness of referrals were the main outcomes measured; we also examined the timing of and reasons for referrals, arrival status of patients, admissions to hospital, referrals to specialists, and treatments. Unit of analysis was the referral. As no evidence-based guidelines exist for appropriateness of referral, we defined appropriateness as a balance of issues with blinded physician judgment calls on anonymous random subsamples of patients admitted to hospital and those not admitted to determine appropriateness of referrals. Descriptive statistics were used, as well as chi and t tests. Out of 2473 licensed LTC beds, 606 residents were referred to 1 of 3 EDs of the Hamilton Health Sciences hospitals, giving a referral rate of 24.5%. The average age of these LTC residents was 81.6 years, and 63.2% were women. Peak referral months were late winter; peak days were Tuesday and Friday. Time of arrival to the EDs was reported in 6-hour segments, with just over half (51.2%) of residents arriving during the day and one-third in the evening. Respiratory and cardiovascular problems comprised 48.6% of referrals. At arrival 67.3% of cases were deemed urgent or emergent. Wait times ranged from 0 to 60 hours, with 25% of residents seen within 1 hour, 44% within 2 hours, and 50% within 4 hours. Two-thirds (66.7%) of residents were admitted to hospital and of these 62% stayed 1 week.",
"To evaluate the effect of a risk factor checklist and training video for general practitioners in reducing inter-practice variation and improving the appropriateness of referrals (assessed by their positive predictive value or PPV) of patients with suspected otitis media with effusion (OME or 'glue ear') to secondary care. Fifty general practices (177 practitioners) from the NHS Trent region and the West of Scotland were cluster-randomised either to a control group (n = 12) or to one of three intervention groups (training video (n = 16), checklist (n = 11), or both (n = 11)). Data on all paediatric ear, nose and throat (ENT) referrals and diagnostic results at ENT clinics were collected for a one-year period pre- and post-intervention. Referral rates for OME and for closely related conditions were calculated for children aged 0-15 years, based on each practice's list size. PPV was defined as the proportion of referrals resulting in bilateral hearing loss>or = 20 dB at the ENT outpatient department. There was a significant improvement in the PPV, adjusted for patients' waiting time between general practitioner (GP) referral and being seen at the ENT department. The improvement in PPV pre- and post-intervention was 15% (95% confidence interval, CI: -12.1% to 41.7%) for the practices receiving both interventions, compared with a degradation of 20% pre- and post-intervention (95% CI: -32.9% to -6.4%) for practices receiving only one intervention and a degradation of 34% for those receiving no intervention.",
"The Affordable Care Act places primary care at the cornerstone of health maintenance. It is believed that increasing access to primary health care providers will limit emergency department (ED) use. This study examines woman's health-related ED visits by patients enrolled in an obstetric/gynecologic (OB/GYN) clinic. A database was created combining patient information from a hospital-affiliated OB/GYN clinic and the electronic medical records from the ED of the affiliated hospital. This database was used to evaluate woman's health-related ED use by patients registered in this OB/GYN clinic compared with patients not affiliated with the clinic. Over an 23-month period, there were 41,791 ED visits made by 21,223 individual women >12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.",
"One major goal of the Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is to improve continuity of care between patients and providers and reduce the utilization of non-primary care services like the emergency department (ED). To characterize continuity under the Veterans Health Administration's PCMH model--the Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT), at one large Veterans Affair's (VA's) primary care clinic, determine the characteristics associated with high levels of continuity, and assess the association between continuity and ED visits. Retrospective, observational cohort study of patients at the West Haven VA (WHVA) Primary Care Clinic from March 2011 to February 2012. The 13,495 patients with established care at the Clinic, having at least one visit, one year before March 2011. Our exposure variable was continuity of care--a patient seeing their assigned primary care provider (PCP) at each clinic visit. The outcome of interest was having an ED visit. The patients encompassed 42,969 total clinic visits, and 3185 (24%) of them had 15,458 ED visits. In a multivariable logistic regression analysis, patients with continuity of care--at least one visit with their assigned PCP--had lower ED utilization compared to individuals without continuity (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] 0.54; 95% CI: 0.41, 0.71), controlling for frequency of primary care visits, comorbidities, insurance, distance from the ED, and having a trainee PCP assigned. Likewise, the adjusted rate of ED visits was 544/1000 person-year (PY) for patients with continuity vs. 784/1000 PY for patients without continuity (p = 0.001). Compared to patients with low continuity (<33% of visits), individuals with medium (33-50%) and high (>50%) continuity were less likely to utilize the ED.",
"The results support the view that patients choose appropriately between attending a Minor Injury Unit or an Accident and Emergency department. However, there was evidence that the availability of an intermediate tier of health care for minor injuries appears likely to result in increased overall workload. This small-scale study leaves unanswered questions in terms of clinical outcomes and the quality of care provided by different facilities.",
"Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.",
"To establish whether a system of differential shared care between general practitioners and specialists is compatible with patients receiving the level of care they require. We sought to trace 200 shared care patients whose care had been kept at the general practitioner level after initial referral and compared them with a group of patients who had been re-referred to the Royal Prince Alfred Hospital Diabetes Centre for specialist review. There were no significant differences in glycaemic, blood pressure and lipid levels of returned and non-returned patients at initial assessment. However, non-returned patients were less likely to have a history of macrovascular disease or risk factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR) 0.4; 95% confidence interval (CI) 0.2-0.6). Their referral letter was also more likely to emphasize their type and/or duration of diabetes (adjusted OR 4.6; 95% CI 2.5-8.4). Nearly half (47.1%) of the non-returned group changed their doctor in the years following their initial specialist review, increasing their likelihood of not being re-referred five-fold (adjusted OR 5.0; 95% CI 2.9-8.8). At initial assessment, non-returned patients were given less treatment recommendations (adjusted OR 0.5; 95% CI 0.3-0.7). Doctors registered with the Diabetes Shared Care Programme referred more patients than their non-shared care counterparts. However, a higher proportion of these doctors (52.5% vs. 21.3%; chi(2) = 16.5, 1 d.f., P = 0.00005) were selective in whom they re-referred.",
"In this preliminary investigation, we found that referral rates for diagnostic tests and specialist clinics increased independently for board-certified specialists (compared with GPs), for those with higher burnout levels and when objective workload increases. These findings support the conceptualization of referrals rates as objectively measured negative outcomes of burnout. Further replications with other objective outcomes, additional HMOs and bigger samples are warranted.",
"yes. Many parents who expect outpatient treatment prefer to take their child to a primary care pediatrician during evening hours, but present to the ED because of lack of primary care access.",
"To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.",
"Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.",
"Teleconferenced consultations for routine outpatient referrals with joint participation of general practitioner were feasible. These may have an important potential benefit for improving communication between primary and secondary care.",
"Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.",
"Many patients initially attend GP services for STIs, and primary care is therefore already an important setting with potential for STI control. However, delay in treatment through attendance at primary care, and barriers in access to primary care, need to be addressed in the planning of future services.",
"Anecdotal evidence has suggested inefficiency in the pyramidal health care referral system established in Zimbabwe in 1980, as part of its primary health care (PHC) model.AIM: To assess the functioning of the pyramidal referral system in two rural districts surrounding Harare, Zimbabwe, with regard to two common indicator conditions: pneumonia in children and malaria in adults. For a three-month period, all complete inpatient records with discharge diagnoses of pneumonia or malaria from three hospitals representing different levels of care were analyzed (n = 227). Data were collected on demographic and patient care variables. The appropriateness of admissions and referrals was determined by an assessment of the severity of illness and 'intensiveness' of care required. Data were analyzed for differences among the three hospitals and between the two indicator conditions. Per night inpatient bed costs for each hospital were also calculated. For pneumonia in children, 56.8% of patients admitted at the secondary level, 53.8% of patients at the tertiary level and 57.8% of patients at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For malaria in adults, 74.0% of patients seen at the secondary level, 81.5% of patients at the tertiary level and 54.3% at the quaternary level were of mild severity. For pneumonia, were no differences in severity between the three hospitals whereas for malaria significant case-mix differences among the hospitals were found. Most patients attending the highest level referral facility were inappropriate admissions who could have been treated at a lower level of care. The majority of patients at all the hospitals studied had used that hospital as their first or second point of contact with the health services. There were large variations in the inpatient per night bed costs between the three hospitals.",
"To assess the impact of an enhanced primary care service for residential aged care facilities (RACF) on the transfer of patients from RACF to a hospital emergency department (ED). A before-after study of an enhanced primary care service provided by experienced ED-based nurses under the governance of general practitioners. The intervention was analysed comparatively using standardised normal deviates and seasonal autoregressive integrated moving average models, complemented by qualitative assessment. There was a statistically significant reduction (17%, P < 0.001) in the number of transfers during the intervention period. This finding held when adjusting for the seasonality of ED referrals over a 4-year period. The intervention was highly valued by clinicians in RACF and ED.",
"Transfer of patients does not overtly reduce health care costs, but overall LOS and time to first outpatient consultation are substantially longer in patients transferred to secondary hospitals than in patients discharged directly. Readmission rate is high during the month after surgery, but with no difference between groups.",
"yes. Increased time from first primary care to first otolaryngology evaluation is associated with increased outpatient health care costs. Earlier otolaryngology examination may reduce health care expenditures in the evaluation and management of patients with laryngeal/voice disorders.",
"Late referral to specialist nephrological care is associated with increased morbidity, mortality, and cost. Consequently, nephrologists' associations recommend early referral. The recommendations' effectiveness remains questionable: 22-51% of referrals need renal replacement therapy (RRT) within 3-4 months. This may be due to these recommendations addressing the specialist, rather than the primary care providers (PCP). The potential of specialist intervention aiming at slowing progression of chronic renal failure was introduced individually to some 250 local PCPs, and referral strategies were discussed. To overcome the PCPs' most often expressed fears, every referred patient was asked to report back to his PCP immediately after the initial specialist examination, and new medications were prescribed directly, and thus allotted to the nephrologist's budget. In retrospective analysis, the stage of renal disease in patients referred within three months before the introductory round (group A, n = 18), was compared to referrals two years later (group B, n = 50). Relative number of patients remained stable (28%) for mild/ moderate chronic kidney disease (MMCKD), while there was a noticeable shift from patients referred severe chronic kidney disease (SCKD) (group A: 44%, group B: 20%) to patients referred in moderate chronic kidney disease (MCKD) (group A: 28%, group B: 52%).",
"Patients with drug use disorders are heavy users of emergency department (ED) and inpatient hospital care. This study examines whether formal mechanisms to link addiction treatment patients to primary medical care, either directly on site or by off-site referral-when compared with an absence of said mechanisms-might reduce these patients' use of ED and hospital services after substance abuse treatment. We used longitudinal data from 6 methadone maintenance programs with 232 patients, 24 outpatient nonmethadone programs with 1202 patients, and 14 long-term residential programs with 679 patients in the National Treatment Improvement Evaluation Study. Multivariate logistic models controlling for health status and medical service utilization before treatment examined whether provision of medical services on- or off-site during treatment linkage led to reduced use of ED and hospital services in the year after treatment compared with no such provision. On-site delivery of primary care reduced subsequent ED and hospital use among patients in methadone maintenance and long-term residential compared with the nonlinkage condition but not in outpatient nonmethadone programs. Off-site referral for medical care reduced subsequent ED visits but not hospitalizations in long-term residential programs.",
"yes. Referral by a primary care provider to a PED was significantly and independently associated with greater severity of illness and resource utilization. Referral status should be considered in algorithms used to triage cases for evaluation in the PED.",
"As the cost of acute care in hospitals increases, there is an increasing need to find alternative means of providing acute care. Hospital in the home (HITH) has developed in response to this challenge. Current evidence is conflicting as to whether HITH provides cost savings compared with in-hospital care (IHC). The heterogeneous nature of HITH and the clinical complexity of patients is the greatest obstacle to making valid comparisons between the two modes of care. To compare costs and outcomes of HITH to IHC in hospitals in Victoria, Australia. Hospital morbidity data and medical records from Victoria, Australia. A costing study of 924 randomly selected episodes of HITH care, individually matched to 924 comparable IHC episodes. Unadjusted total episode costs (TEC) and averaged daily costs for HITH and IHC were calculated. Mortality and length of stay (LOS) were compared for HITH and IHC episodes. Simple linear and multiple regression were used to analyse costing data, while logistic regression was used to compare in-hospital mortality and LOS in HITH versus IHC episodes. The 1848 episodes of care in the sample represented a heterogeneous range of acute conditions in 31 Victoria hospitals. HITH consisted of two distinct subgroups: pure-HITH (total episode substitution) and mixed-HITH (partial episode substitution). The cost of episodes of acute care containing a HITH component were overall 9% less expensive than IHC (P = 0.04), while pure-HITH was 38% cheaper than matched IHC (P < 0.001). The variable HITH, along with LOS and chemotherapy, explained the 60% variation in TEC. The mean cost of pure-HITH episodes was 22% lower compared to mixed-HITH (P = 0.004). The in-hospital mortality rate in HITH (3.8%) and IHC (5.2%) was not significantly different. Pure-HITH was associated with shorter LOS, while mixed HITH was strongly associated with longer LOS.",
"Alternative structures such as primary care units near the ED seem to be an appropriate response to meet the growing demand of no urgent patients. The success of providing this reorientation, however, could be determined by the working hours of the structures and the practice of certain technical skills.",
"Referral of patients with AMI for primary angioplasty is used only in a minority of hospitals. The referred patients represent a selected, more ill subgroup, resulting in a higher hospital morbidity compared to patients treated on-site. Continuous efforts should be undertaken to decrease the time delay from admission at the initial hospital to the beginning of revascularization.",
"Access to primary care could reduce use of more costly health care by uninsured individuals through prevention and early treatment. We analyzed data from a program providing free primary care to test this hypothesis. We compared emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations among uninsured, low-income adults who received immediate versus delayed access to a program providing free primary care, including labs, X-rays, and specialty consultation. We used surveys to identify ER visits and hospitalizations during the 12 months preceding and following program enrollment or wait list entry. Hospitalizations decreased from the year before entry to the year following entry in participants with immediate and delayed (6.0% vs 8.8% decrease) access. ER use also decreased in both groups (11.2% vs 15.4%).",
"Adults with chronic disease are the most frequent users of the primary healthcare system. In Manitoba, patients are allowed to seek ambulatory (outpatient) care from the provider of their choosing (primary care physician or specialist), with referrals to specialists preferred but not always required. Some patients receive their routine care from specialists. We conducted this study to determine the patterns by which adults with chronic disease access ambulatory care as a prelude to exploring the impact these patterns may have on the quality of care received. Physician claims for all visits between 2007/8-2009/10 were extracted from the Data Repository at the Manitoba Centre for Health Policy. Patients included in the analysis made at least four ambulatory visits to a primary care physician or specialist within the study period, and met the definition criteria for at least one of six chronic diseases: diabetes mellitus; congestive heart failure; mood disorders; ischemic heart disease; total respiratory morbidity; and/or hypertension. Patients were \"assigned\" to the physician they visited most regularly. Physician visit patterns were assessed by dividing visits into nine visit types based on the type of physician patients visited (assigned primary care physician, other primary care physician, or specialist) and whether or not they received a referral. 347,606 patients with 7,662,411 physician visits were included in the analysis. Most visits were to the patients' assigned primary care physician. About 50% of the visits to specialists were by referral from the assigned primary care physician. However, 26-29% of all visits to a primary care physician were not to the assigned primary care physician, and non-assigned physicians were more likely to refer patients to specialists than assigned primary care physicians.",
"Ninety-one per cent of primary care trusts were using some form of referral management in 2009, although evidence for its effectiveness is limited.AIM: To assess the impact of three referral-management centres (RMCs) and two internal peer-review approaches to referral management on hospital outpatient attendance rates. A retrospective time-series analysis of 376 000 outpatient attendances over 3 years from 85 practices divided into five groups, with 714 000 registered patients in one English primary care trust. The age-standardised GP-referred first outpatient monthly attendance rate was calculated for each group from April 2009 to March 2012. This was divided by the equivalent monthly England rate, to derive a rate ratio. Linear regression tested for association between the introduction of referral management and change in the outpatient attendance rate and rate ratio. Annual group budgets for referral management were obtained. Referral management was not associated with a reduction in the outpatient attendance rate in any group. There was a statistically significant increase in attendance rate in one group (a RMC), which had an increase of 1.05 attendances per 1000 persons per month (95% confidence interval = 0.46 to 1.64; attendance rate ratio increase of 0.07) after adjustment for autocorrelation. Mean annual budgets ranged from £0.55 to £6.23 per registered patient in 2011/2012. RMCs were more expensive (mean annual budget £5.18 per registered patient) than internal peer-review approaches (mean annual budget £0.97 per registered patient).",
"The aim of the present study was to establish if physiotherapy self-referral (SR) is viable, cost effective and beneficial to musculoskeletal outpatients in a primary care setting. In an urban National Health Service (NHS) primary care physiotherapy service, waiting times, attendance rates and treatment ratios (thus, episode-of-care costs) were deemed unsustainable. The introduction of 'Any Qualified Provider' is imminent and will drive NHS physiotherapy services to compete directly with private counterparts. Current literature, healthcare policy and the Chartered Society of Physiotherapy strongly advocate SR to promote value for money and improve the patient experience. A repeated measure prospective cohort study introduced an SR pathway parallel to existing general practice (GP) referrals and compared costs, attendance and data relating to the patient experience across groups. SR referral groups were found to have a higher proportion of female patients presenting with acute conditions. Cost minimization analysis indicated an average 32.3% reduction in episode-of-care cost with an SR-initiated intervention. An estimated cost minimization of between £84,387.80 and £124,472.06 was calculated if SR were to be expanded service-wide. SR referral reduced waiting times and improved patient satisfaction relating to waiting times and communication compared with traditional pathways.",
"The lack of evidence for a reduction in clinical threshold for referral within the primary care sample suggests that general practitioners' referral rates are similar regardless of whether practice-based clinical psychology services are available. This has implications for primary-care-led commissioning of mental health services.",
"yes. More than two-thirds of \"medical\" visits in rural areas were for acts that nurses could easily do. The easy access to a junior doctor did not promote preventive medicine. Replacement of junior doctors with properly trained nurses cooperating with GPs responsible for greater regions would be more cost-effective than junior doctors improving health in rural areas. Legislation should change, mainly with regard to repeat prescriptions, in order to reduce house visits.",
"We aimed to explore the relative impact of medical and other situational motives on GP's decisions to refer patients to specialist care in a general hospital, and to assess whether having access to a GP hospital influences the decisions. We carried out a prospective study of consecutive doctor-patient contacts during one week. The effects of main motives, medical, social/nursing, general hospital advice, distance from the nearest general hospital and access to GP hospitals on referral decisions were explored by logistic regression. The motives for different referral decisions were also explored through frequency analyses. The study was set in general practices in the county of Finnmark in North Norway, which included 40 GPs from rural practices with access to a GP hospital and eight GPs working closer to a general hospital without access to GP hospital. We studied 2496 doctor-patient contacts, which resulted in 411 patients being considered for any kind of referral, of which 205 were referred to the general hospital. Medical needs were recorded as the only referral motive of major importance in about half of the cases considered for referral, while additional motives were recorded in the other half. The rationale for admissions to general hospitals and GP hospitals (in-patient care) was compatible in terms of the relative importance of the medical arguments. The GP hospital option was mainly chosen because of the long distance from the general hospital, nursing needs and the preferences of the patient and the family, and resulted in a lower proportion of patients being referred to general hospitals from GPs with access to a GP hospital.",
"To examine access to primary care in new and traditional models using 2 dimensions of the concept of patient-centred access. An international survey examining the quality and costs of primary health care (the QUALICOPC study) was conducted in 2013 in Canada. This study adopted a descriptive cross-sectional survey method using data from practices across Canada. Each participating practice filled out the Family Physician Survey and the Practice Survey, and patients in each participating practice were asked to complete the Patient Experiences Survey. All 10 Canadian provinces. A total of 759 practices and 7172 patients. Independent t tests were conducted to examine differences between new and traditional models of care in terms of availability and accommodation, and affordability of care. Of the 759 practices, 407 were identified as having new models of care and 352 were identified as traditional. New models of care were distinct with respect to payment structure, opening hours, and having an interdisciplinary work force. Most participating practices were from large cities or suburban areas. There were few differences between new and traditional models of care regarding accessibility and accommodation in primary care. Patients under new models of care reported easier access to other physicians in the same practice, while patients from traditional models reported seeing their regular family physicians more frequently. There was no difference between the new and traditional models of care with regard to affordability of primary care. Patients attending clinics with new models of care reported that their physicians were more involved with them as a whole person than patients attending clinics based on traditional models did.",
"The rates of annual visits for adult Medicaid enrollees to the emergency department (ED) are increasing. Many programs throughout the country are focused on engaging patients in the use of their primary care providers (PCP) rather than the ED for low acuity conditions. It is unclear, however, the proportion of patients who are willing to use primary care services rather than the ED if they are given the choice. Cross-sectional study of adult Medicaid enrollees (18 y and older) presenting to a large, urban, academic ED from June to August 2012 with a low acuity condition was performed. We excluded patients who did not have a PCP or active Medicaid insurance. Our primary goal was to determine the proportion of patients who prefer to use the ED, rather than their PCP clinic, if an appointment was immediately available. Our second goal was to understand why patients would prefer ED over PCP care. A total of 150 patients agreed to complete the survey, and 95 (63.3%) met our inclusion criteria. Forty-three patients (45.3%) stated preferring to use their PCPs rather than the ED if an appointment was available at that time. Thirteen (48.1%) cited that the ED had more technology or specialty care services available when compared with their PCP's clinic, 8 (15.4%) were in significant pain, and 6 (11.5%) felt the care they received in the ED was better than what they would receive in their PCP clinic.",
"Redirect demand pathology severity level IV-V of the hospital emergency room (ED) to the Primary Health Care (AP) reference, increase in technical consultation and assess the effectiveness of the proposed Accessibility Plan (PA). Improving the quality of care offered, lowering the cost to achieve it. Quality research study conducted in January-2010 data collected throughout 2009, and compare them versus those obtained in 2008. Population allocated to the ABS Sagrada Familia (23,265 users). Beneficiaries in HUS AP and population due to specialized care, population scheduled diagnostic and therapeutic procedures (radiology, laboratory echo-doppler, cryosurgery ...), total annual visits, attendance, repetition,... Increased 86.5% of emergency radiographs in AP (avoiding lead to ED), 7.4% fewer referrals to the emergency; implantation circuit urgent analytical (laboratory of HUS not collapsed) 13.6% fewer referrals to vascular surgery (the Eco-Doppler), 5.92% less analytical (thank Cardio-Check), 297 fewer referrals to dermatology (for cryotherapy), 9.65% less refe- rrals to psychiatry (through group workshops mental health), decreased frequency (1.4%) and recurrence (2.3%) over 2007, 23.9% of referrals to ED pathology avoided level IV-V served in AP; save ∈ 57,335 on 2007.",
"To assess whether adoption of the patient-centered medical home (PCMH) reduces emergency department (ED) utilization among patients with and without chronic illness. Data from approximately 460,000 Independence Blue Cross patients enrolled in 280 primary care practices, all converting to PCMH status between 2008 and 2012. We estimate the effect of a practice becoming PCMH-certified on ED visits and costs using a difference-in-differences approach which exploits variation in the timing of PCMH certification, employing either practice or patient fixed effects. We analyzed patients with and without chronic illness across six chronic illness categories. Among chronically ill patients, transition to PCMH status was associated with 5-8 percent reductions in ED utilization. This finding was robust to a number of specifications, including analyzing avoidable and weekend ED visits alone. The largest reductions in ED visits are concentrated among chronic patients with diabetes and hypertension.",
"The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.",
"To determine the levels of intra- and inter-grade variability of the vetting of general practice (GP) letters as well as the intra-rater reliability of letter prioritization. Prospective assessment of letter vetting and questionnaire survey. Three otolaryngology secondary referral centres in Bristol and Bath, UK. Twelve consultants, nine registrars, four staff and associate specialists (SAS) and 16 senior house officers (SHOs) in otolaryngology. Fifty GP letters (not including 'fast-track' referrals) addressed to one of the ENT departments were chosen sequentially. These were anonymized, photocopied and included in the questionnaire to all participating staff. Participants were asked to vet the letters as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' according to supplied waiting time criteria. The same letters were sent out again six weeks later. There was no significant difference between grades for the mean number of letters vetted into each category. Intra-grade variability was high; the number of letters vetted urgent varied from one out of 50 to 15 out of 50 for the consultants. The intra-rater reliability was high.",
"The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).",
"yes. The findings indicate that regular and proactive 'maintenance' primary care, as distinct from 'reactive' care, is beneficial to older CRD patients by reducing their risks of hospitalisation and death.",
"Our aim was to evaluate the efficacy of the consulting of internal medicine (CIM) in primary care (PC) on the resolution of medical processes. Prospective case-control study of a population of 87,016 inhabitants during a 1-year period. Patients (2,167) jointly attended by family physicians (FP) and consulting internists (CI) who go weekly to the primary care center (PCC) to attend patients who otherwise would have been referred to specialized consultation (SC). As the control group 1,470 patients were randomly and simultaneously chosen among the total of 14.687 first medical referrals during the period of the study. We observed a significant reduction in: referrals to SC (22%; CI 95%, 18-26%); mean time for SC (23.6 days; CI 95%, 17.3-29.9 days); mean number of tests per patient ordered by FP (0.53; CI 95%, 0.31-0.75) or by CIM (1.22; CI 95%, 1.02-1.40); mean time for patient information on those tests ordered by CIM (21.2 days; CI 95%, 8.5-33.9 days); mean time for the resolution of processes (39.4 days; CI 95%, 35.5-43.3 days); crossed SC rate (23.7%; CI 95%, 20.3-27.1%); and specialized follow-up visits (28.8%; CI 95%, 24.5-33.1%) (p < 0.005 in all cases). The resolution rate of processes (15%; CI 95%, 11-19%) and the discharge rate (41.6%; CI 95%, 35.5-47.7%) were significantly higher for the CIM (p < 0.01 in both cases). The referral rate to SC showed a negative correlation (r = 0.81; p < 0.01) with the management quality, and it related to type of training, age and years of medical practice of the general practitioner (GP). The satisfaction of patients and GPs with the CIM was very high.",
"Primary angioplasty for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) can only be performed in a limited number of centers. Therefore, some patients will be referred for this procedure. We analyzed the data of the prospective observational MITRA trial, which took place at 54 hospitals in southwest Germany, to describe current practices and outcomes in referred patients compared to patients treated on-site. Out of 491 patients treated with primary angioplasty, 63 (12.8%) were referred. Out of 46 hospitals without facilities to perform primary angioplasty, 29 (63%) never referred patients. Referred patients were less often male (60.3% versus 75.9%; p = 0.013), suffered more often from anterior wall infarction (62.9% versus 45.8%; p = 0.014), and more often had absolute contraindications against thrombolysis (11.1% versus 2.8%; p = 0.006). In-hospital time to treatment was 80 minutes in patients treated on-site compared to 190 minutes in referred patients (p = 0.001). There was a non-significant difference of in-hospital mortality between the two groups (11.1% for referred versus 7.5% on-site; p = 0.319). Referred patients had a higher hospital morbidity as expressed by a higher proportion of post-infarction angina (28.6% versus 4.2%; p = 0.001), a more frequent need for urgent revascularization (43.8% versus 16.4%; p = 0.001) and a higher proportion of advanced heart failure (11.1% versus 4.4%; p = 0.062).",
"Hospitalized persons with MCC including serious mental illness enrolled in a medical home were more likely to receive timely outpatient follow-up with a primary care provider but not with a mental health specialist. These findings suggest that the medical home model may be more adept at linking patients to providers in primary care rather than to specialty mental health providers.",
"To evaluate the cost effectiveness to primary care trusts (PCT) in commissioning general practitioner (GP) referrals in-hours to emergency care practitioners (ECP). A retrospective case note review for patients referred by GPs in-hours to ECP over a 4-month period to ascertain any added value over a GP visit. In a 4-month period 105 patients were referred. In most cases (90.5%) the ECP was utilised as a substitute for a GP rather than providing any additional skills. Defining an avoided attendance as the ECP undertaking an intervention outside a GP skill set this equated to a 9.5% avoided attendance rate compared with the ECP service standard rate of 60%. This has implications both in terms of financial benefit and ongoing ECP service sustainability.",
"To assess the potential for substituting alternative forms of care for admission to an acute hospital in particular groups of patients. A screening tool, the intensity-severity-discharge review system with adult criteria (ISD-A), developed for hospital utilisation review in the USA, was used in a cohort of hospital admissions to identify a group of patients who could potentially have been treated outside the acute hospital. These patients were further assessed by a panel of general practitioners (GPs) to determine the most appropriate alternative form of care. A cost analysis was performed on the results obtained. General medicine and geriatric specialties in one acute hospital in the south western region. Patients comprised a sample of 701 admitted to general medical and geriatric specialties. The screening tool identified 19.7% of admissions for whom there was potential for treatment outside the acute hospital. Assessment by the GP panel reduced this potential to between 9.8% and 15.0% of emergency admissions. The alternatives most frequently identified as \"most appropriate\" were the community hospital/GP bed and the urgent outpatient assessment (within either 24 or 48 hours). Potential resource savings based on the average cost were relatively small. This potential seemed to be greater for the alternative of the urgent outpatient assessment.",
"Improved processes of referral from Primary Care are an important part of a strategy to reduce the population burden of cardiovascular disease. A unique service of rapid access clinics, where primary care practitioners can refer patients to a daily secondary care cardiology service without appointment has been established at Charing Cross Hospital in West London. Previous data have shown the effectiveness of this service in diagnosing and risk stratifying patients with suspected cardiac disease. We evaluated Primary Care and Patient views on this service. A patient survey of a cohort of 1223 patients recruited to a follow up study of individuals seen over 1 year in the service and qualitative in-depth interviews of a randomised sample of 10 out of 82 referring Primary Care Practitioners was performed. Less than 2% of patients had a negative experience of the service. Most patients did not have to revisit the Primary Care Practitioner for the same symptom. Primary Care Practitioners were overwhelmingly positive about the ease of access. They viewed positively the ability to obtain prompt diagnosis or reassurance. The heart failure service was used least but this was the most challenging condition to diagnose. There were concerns about nurse specialist based services and restriction to 'first presentations'. Communication about the service could be improved.",
"In-house referral is acceptable to patients and provides a straightforward method of addressing uncertainty over the need for referral from primary to secondary care.",
"Methods are needed to ensure that those patients referred from primary to secondary care are those most likely to benefit. In-house referral is the referral of a patient by a general practitioner to another general practitioner within the same practice for a second opinion on the need for secondary care referral. To describe whether in-house referral is practical and acceptable to patients, and the health outcomes for patients. Practices were randomized into an intervention or a control group. In intervention practices, patients with certain conditions who were about to be referred to secondary care were referred in-house. If the second clinician agreed referral was appropriate the patient was referred on to secondary care. In control practices patients were referred in the usual fashion. Patient satisfaction and health status was measured at the time of referral, 6 months and one year. Eight intervention and seven control practices took part. For the 177 patients referred in-house, 109 (61%) were judged to need referral on to secondary care. For patient satisfaction, the only difference between the groups studied was that at 12 months patients who had been referred in-house reported themselves as being more satisfied than those referred directly to hospital. For health status, the only difference found was that at the time of referral, patients who had been referred in-house and judged to need hospital referral reported themselves as being less able on the 'Physical function' subscale of the SF-36 than patients who were referred in-house and judged to not need hospital referral."
] | 590 |
Do better quality consultations result in better health? | [
"In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.",
"For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations."
] | [
"The 22 primary care clinics studied appear to be recommending and providing needed preventive services to visiting patients at the same rate regardless of income or insurance status. The reasons for differences in prevention status by SES are complex but the low proportion of all patients receiving recommendations for needed services suggests the need to take advantage of all visits for updating prevention needs.",
"Implementation of quality improvement interventions that have modest accommodations for minority patients can improve quality of care for whites and underserved minorities alike, while minorities may be especially likely to benefit clinically. Further research needs to clarify whether employment benefits are limited to whites and if so, whether this represents a difference in opportunities. Quality improvement programs appear to improve quality of care without increasing disparities, and may offer an approach to reduce health disparities.",
"Patients seeking care from nonobese physicians indicated greater confidence in general health counseling and treatment of illness than patients seeing obese physicians. It is not known if this can be translated into increased success in obesity prevention and treatment.",
"Direct, person-to-person contact between the geriatric consultant and the family doctor has a beneficial effect on the implementation of geriatric recommendations. This should be considered by healthcare policy makers when planning geriatric services in the community.",
"Quality of physician counseling (as measured using the 5As counseling framework and patient-centeredness scales) was associated with motivation to lose weight and intentions to change behavior. Future studies should determine whether higher quality obesity counseling leads to improved behavioral and weight outcomes.",
"yes. The total number of patient encounters in a clinical session did not dramatically change. Language preference was not a hurdle. Teamwork among patients, providers, staff and community members was a key to success. Group visits improved the amount of prevention counselling and helped patients with limited health literacy achieve their prevention goals.",
"We sought to determine whether tailored educational interventions call improve the quality of care, as measured by the provision of preventive care services recommended by the US Preventive Services Task Force, as well as lead to better patient satisfaction. We performed a randomized controlled study among 41 primary care physicians who cared for 1,810 randomly selected patients aged 65 to 75 years old at Kaiser Permanente Woodland Hills, a group-model health maintenance organization in southern California. All physicians received ongoing education. Physicians randomly assigned to the comprehensive intervention group also received peer-comparison feedback and academic detailing. Baseline and postintervention (2 to 2.5 years later) surveys examining the provision of preventive care and patient satisfaction were performed and medical records were reviewed. Based on the results of patient surveys, there were significant improvements over time in the provision of preventive care in both the education and the comprehensive intervention groups for influenza immunization (79% versus 89%, P<0.01, and 80% versus 91%, P<0.01), pneumococcal immunization (42% versus 73%, P<0.01 and 34% versus 73%, P<0.01), and tetanus immunization (64% versus 72%, P<0.01, and 59% versus 79%, P<0.01). Mammography (90% versus 80%, P<0.01) and clinical breast examination (85% versus 79%, P<0.05) scores worsened in the education only group but not in the comprehensive intervention group. However, there were few differences in rates of preventive services between the groups at the end of the study, and the improvements in preventive care were not confirmed by medical record review. Patient satisfaction scores improved significantly in the comprehensive intervention group (by 0.06 points on a 1 to 5 scale, P = 0.02) but not in the education only group (by 0.02 points, P = 0.42); however, the improvement was not significantly greater in the comprehensive intervention group (P = 0.20).",
"There are marked socioeconomic differences in consultation ratios for these common conditions which may not be matched by operation ratios. For discordant comparisons, people in the most deprived quartiles were generally least likely to receive surgery despite being most likely to consult a general practitioner with symptoms. If validated, these findings have important implications for general practice and service providers.",
"yes. Results support the hypothesis that greater professional empathy will result in greater agreement about decisions made in consultations.",
"yes. We demonstrate that adherence of physicians to treatment guidelines is a strong predictor of fewer CV hospitalizations in actual practice. There is a need to develop further quality improvement programmes in this condition.",
"no. The addition of a multiple modifiable lifestyle Internet intervention in primary or secondary care is not superior to usual care with respect to prevention and treatment of cardiovascular risk factors. However, an Internet delivered program does have the potential of being successful in reducing the number of doctor's visits and may therefore be cost-effective when applied in large scale.",
"no. Healthy lifestyles lead to an increase in the utilization of preventive health services. However, there is not much significantly reducing the number of outpatient visits in people with health behaviors. Specifically, people with regular exercise habits and who take their blood pressure measurement regularly have an increased number of outpatient visits. It is suggested that more available and accessible health consultation services be provided to inculcate in the general public the importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle.",
"yes. A focus on the challenge level of consultations, an individualized, integrated approach and the introduction of a new final consultation skills examination may be the way forward.",
"As judged by the expert panels, the investigated department of internal medicine was effective in improving the QoL of 81% of the admitted patients. Whilst most of the patients achieved small gains, a minority had gains in QoL corresponding to the treatment of life-threatening diseases.",
"The doctor as a person and his working style is most important in achieving good consultations in general practice. Length of consultation is less influential.",
"A GP run osteopathy clinic provided additional physical and psychological benefit. GP consultation might be improved by adopting some features from the osteopathic consultation.",
"yes. Satisfaction with GP communication is associated with a higher QoL in their older patients. Diagnosis and disclosure of memory problems is associated with better QoL in people with dementia. Clinicians should not be deterred from discussing a memory diagnosis and plans for the future with patients.",
"yes. Patients who visit their GP for regular control both have a better overall perception of the healthcare sector and are more likely to think that their treatment is well organised. Patients with COPD have a less positive score than patients with ACS and diabetes.",
"To determine whether clinical decision support (CDS) is associated with improved quality indicators and whether disabling CDS negatively affects these. Using the 2006-2009 National Ambulatory and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys, we performed logistic regression to analyze adult primary care visits for the association between the use of CDS (problem lists, preventive care reminders, lab results, lab range notifications, and drug-drug interaction warnings) and quality measures (blood pressure control, cancer screening, health education, influenza vaccination, and visits related to adverse drug events). There were an estimated 900 million outpatient primary care visits to clinics with EHRs from 2006-2009; 97% involved CDS, 77% were missing at least 1 CDS, and 15% had at least 1 CDS disabled. The presence of CDS was associated with improved blood pressure control (86% vs 82%; OR 1.3; 95% CI, 1.1-1.5) and more visits not related to adverse drug events (99.9% vs 99.8%; OR 3.0; 95% CI, 1.3-7.3); these associations were also present when comparing practices with CDS against practices that had disabled CDS. Electronic problem lists were associated with increased odds of having a visit with controlled blood pressure (86% vs 80%; OR 1.4; 95% CI, 1.3-1.6). Lab result notification was associated with increased odds of ordering cancer screening (15% vs 10%; OR 1.5; 95% CI, 1.03-2.2).",
"yes. A simple protocol of letters and a telephone call to patients who are due for colonoscopy examinations significantly improved adherence to endoscopic follow-up recommendations. This work provides justification for the creation of reminder systems to improve patient adherence to medical recommendations.",
"yes. Counseling and early contact improve EBF practice. We believe these two practices would favor better adherence to EBF in other populations.",
"yes. Early follow-up after an ED visit is associated with better outcomes, particularly if conducted with a familiar physician.",
"To explore the degree of agreement between patient and health care professional's perceptions of consultations. Immediately after 141 dietitian/nurse specialist consultations, patients and professional's completed the Health Care Climate questionnaire (HCC), Medical Interview Satisfaction Scale (MISS) and the Treatment Self-Regulation Questionnaire (TSRQ) In addition, both parties were asked about any key points or issues discussed in the consultation; any decisions that were made about their diabetes treatment today; any goals that were set as a result of today's consultation. Patient and professional's scores on the HCC and MISS were not correlated (r=0.3 and 0.16). Patient and professionals disagreed on the issues discussed 19.6% of the time, on the decisions made 20.7% of the time and goals set 44.3% of the time. More autonomy support in the consultation was associated with greater autonomous motivation for self-care (r=0.31; P<0.001) more controlled motivation was associated with less agreement on issues discussed and goals set (r=-0.20; r= -0.24; P<0.05).",
"To relate specifically defined 'good consultations' (GC) to length of consultation, continuity, patients' age and sex, and different doctors. A questionnaire about consultation length, communication and problem character, given to doctors and patients immediately after consultations. The number of GCs for different doctors in relation to time, continuity, and patients' age and sex were calculated. 581 consultations were registered with six male general practitioners working at three different health centres in Umeå, a university town in northern Sweden. A significant difference in the number of GCs was only found between the doctors (p<0.01). Length of consultation, patients' age and sex, and continuity and no impact on the GC frequency.",
"yes. Well structured vaccination consultations help to raise vaccination rates. Thus, pharmacies should consider offering and implementing this preventive measure so as to lower the rates of preventable disease and to save costs.",
"Health services utilization for back pain in Quebec was equal or lower to what currently is practiced elsewhere, but access to specialists was not meeting the current recommendations. This would represent a 12% net increase in new specialist contacts and a quicker access in 39% who saw a specialist. Before such an effort can be considered, health care planners will need a better definition of the role of the specialist consultation in the guidelines and scientific evidence specifically addressing their benefit in primary care, especially in the absence of a specific diagnosis.",
"Despite evidence that smoking cessation is beneficial even after the diagnosis of BC, physicians are not counseling their patients sufficiently. With the implementation of quality improvement programs, we expect smoking cessation counseling for patients with BC will improve.",
"To explore perceptions of clinical consultations and how they relate to questionnaire-based patient feedback. Telephone interviews with 35 junior doctors and 40 general practice patients who had used the Doctors' Interpersonal Skills Questionnaire (DISQ). Doctors and patients had similar views of 'good consultations' as relying on doctors' listening and explaining skills. Preferences for a consultation style focused on an outcome or on the doctor-patient relationship may be independent of informational and/or affective consultation content. Respondents felt the important consultation elements were similar in different contexts, and so DISQ feedback would be useful in different settings. Benefits of feedback were identified in the form of patient empowerment and doctors' learning. Risks were identified in the inappropriate use of feedback, both inadvertent and deliberate.",
"Evidence of the beneficial effects of longer consultations in general practice is limited. To evaluate the effect of increasing consultation length on patient enablement in general practice in an area of extreme socioeconomic deprivation. Longitudinal study using a 'before and after' design. Keppoch Medical Centre in Glasgow, which serves the most deprived practice area in Scotland. Participants were 300 adult patients at baseline, before the introduction of longer consultations, and 324 at follow-up, more than 1 year after the introduction of longer consultations. The intervention studied was more time in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction, perceptions of the GPs' empathy, GP stress, and patient enablement were collected by face-to-face interview. Additional qualitative data were obtained by individual interviews with the GPs, relating to their perceptions of the impact of the longer consultations. Response rates of 70% were obtained. Overall, 53% of consultations were complex. GP stress was higher in complex consultations. Patient satisfaction and perception of the GPs' empathy were consistently high. Average consultation length in complex consultations was increased by 2.5 minutes by the intervention. GP stress in consultations was decreased after the introduction of longer consultations, and patient enablement was increased. GPs' views endorsed these findings, with more anticipatory and coordinated care being possible in the longer consultations.",
"This paper questions the assumption that GPs are best placed to commission health services in a way that meets quality standards and leads to equitable outcomes. There is little evidence to suggest that GPs will succeed where others have failed and a risk that, without top-down performance management, service improvement will be patchy, leading to greater, not reduced, inequity.",
"yes. Basic education of nonophthalmologists in ophthalmic diagnostic and treatment concepts, through relatively brief educational interventions, was associated with a decrease in total consultation requests and more appropriate consultations in this pilot study at a single institution.",
"no. General practice consultations are often more important for patients than generally supposed. Understanding is the most basic concept.",
"yes. Two thirds of children receive good or excellent basic preventive care, as determined with this composite, and no disparities according to race/ethnicity, income, or health insurance status of families (which are often found to be associated with health care access) were found. This equitable distribution of high-quality care suggests a high level of clinician professionalism. Duration of visits may be a key factor to improve quality of care. Because of its association with other services, processes, and outcomes of care, the BPS scale may serve as a useful construct for monitoring quality and stimulating efforts to improve national pediatric preventive care.",
"Our findings show that the CQI program in maternal and perinatal health services was positively associated with US. These results reinforce the need for cordiality during prenatal care contacts with providers, and the need to provide appropriate information to the user, in order to help increase acceptability of and adhesion to health care recommendations among pregnant women.",
"Relative to usual care, quality improvement interventions improved 57-month outcomes (probable depression, unmet need, or both) for primary care patients with depressive disorder and subthreshold depression and lowered use of mental health visits for those with subthreshold depression. The results highlight the feasibility and utility of including patients with subthreshold depression in such programs.",
"Higher quality of cancer screening experience was significantly associated with likelihood of having routine breast and cervical cancer screening. Further studies should explore factors that affect quality of the screening experience, including facility characteristics and interactions with medical staff.",
"Audiotaping follow-up consultations is an inexpensive procedure that is appreciated by the majority of patients. Randomised controlled trials of their impact are warranted.",
"yes. An improvement in the communication process contributes to a decrease in the levels of anxiety, and consequently to enhancement of the well-being of these patients.",
"Despite little extent or depth to HRQoL discussion, HRQoL issues were raised in the majority of inflammatory skin disease consultations. The consultations usually met the patients' expectations and most patients were satisfied.",
"A community-based, health trainer-led approach may add value by offering an acceptable alternative to health checks delivered in primary care settings. The service appeared to be particularly successful in engaging men and younger age groups. However, there exists the potential for intervention-generated inequalities.",
"yes. Better nutritional status was associated with increased HRQOL scores. Early diagnosis through newborn screening and improved nutrition provides an opportunity to enhance quality of life and body image perception.",
"yes. The finding that limited health literacy correlated with shorter visits may suggest that patients who may stand to benefit the most from detailed health education and counseling received less.",
"yes. Early palliative care specialist consultation is associated with better quality of supportive care in three advanced cancers, predominantly driven by improvements in information and care planning. This study supports the effectiveness of early palliative care consultation in three common advanced cancers within the Veterans Affairs Health System and provides a greater understanding of what care processes palliative care teams influence.",
"The aim of this study is to improve our understanding of the ways in which a medical consultation style relates to satisfaction and adherence. Participants completed questionnaires about preferred and perceived consultation styles; psychological variables such as satisfaction, anxiety and depression; and questions about taking medication. Questionnaires were completed prior to the consultation, immediately after, three months later and one year later. Doctors also completed a scale on completion of the consultation. The decisions in question related to women seeking advice about Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and decisions about pain management. Patients expressed preferences for information about the treatment options and for active involvement in the decision process. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having received information about the treatment options was a particularly consistent predictor of satisfaction. The extent to which patients perceived themselves as having been prepared for the side effects of HRT was a consistent predictor of anxiety.",
"yes. We applied QI methodology to identify potential improvements in the quality of anesthesia care we deliver to our patients. By designing a number of key drivers and interventions specifically focused on laryngospasm, we decreased the incidence of unanticipated calls for help due to laryngospasm by 50% and maintained this improvement to clinical care across a 12-month period.",
"yes. Providing physicians with the results of the Diagnostic Interview Schedule and counseling directives resulted in short-term improvement in their rates of counseling patients with a history of dependent or nondependent but harmful drinking. Further research is necessary to determine long-term gains in rates of physician counseling and improvements in the course of these patients.",
"yes. Consistency with the SCS was found in about half of the patients for each of the three aspects of care. Health care can be further optimized by encouraging GP s to use X-rays more appropriately and to make more use of lifestyle advice, dietary therapy and follow-up appointments.",
"The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.",
"Emergency providers identified many benefits to palliative care consultation. Solving logistical problems and developing clear indications for consultation might help increase the use of such services.",
"yes. A second opinion from an expert pathologist on problem-prone melanocytic lesions improves patient care, in our series in 27% of cases.",
"The purpose of this cluster-randomised controlled trial was to evaluate the efficacy of quality circles (QCs) working either with general data-based feedback or with an open benchmark within the field of asthma care and drug-drug interactions. Twelve QCs, involving 96 general practitioners from 85 practices, were randomised. Six QCs worked with traditional anonymous feedback and six with an open benchmark. Two QC meetings supported with feedback reports were held covering the topics \"drug-drug interactions\" and \"asthma\"; in both cases discussions were guided by a trained moderator. Outcome measures included health-related quality of life and patient satisfaction with treatment, asthma severity and number of potentially inappropriate drug combinations as well as the general practitioners' satisfaction in relation to the performance of the QC. A significant improvement in the treatment of asthma was observed in both trial arms. However, there was only a slight improvement regarding inappropriate drug combinations. There were no relevant differences between the group with open benchmark (B-QC) and traditional quality circles (T-QC). The physicians' satisfaction with the QC performance was significantly higher in the T-QCs.",
"Palliative consultations improve outcomes of care, and earlier consultations may confer additional benefit.",
"yes. The provision of more frequent healthcare centre face-to-face consultations, including general practitioner consultations, is associated with an increased burden of acute medical evacuations and remote telephone consultation services in this remote setting.",
"To find out the proportion of primary healthcare consultations that could be attended by another professional other than the doctor. multicentre cross-sectional study. Primary healthcare, west-gipuzkoa region, with 17 health centres taking part. Reasons for consultation dealt with by 38 doctors over 5 days. Age, sex, frequency, category, initiative, reason for consultation and ideal level of healthcare. A total of 4,377 patients who generated 5,592 consultations were included. The average frequency was 10 visits/year. The large majority (93.1%) of consultations took place in the centre, 5.4% by telephone and 1.5% were home visits. A total of 74.4% of the consultations were requested, 17.2% arranged by the doctor, 6.4% arranged by protocol, 2% at the request of other professionals, and 8% were urgent. The reasons were; 71.5% (95% CI: 69.8-73.2) were medical clinical, 7.2% (6.2-8.2) minor symptoms, 18.4% (17.1-19.5) bureaucratic, and 2.9% (2.3-3.3) for information. The consultations for medical reasons accounted for 80.5% (79.3-81.7) and 19.5% (18.3-20.7) were for non-medical reasons. Non-medical reasons made up 29.3% of the telephone consultations, 20.2% of the consultations in the centre, and 2.4% of the home visits, as well as 16.7% of the urgent consultations. The ideal level of healthcare was considered to be doctor 80.7%, 13.2% nursing and 2.8% administrative. In the consultations for minor symptoms, nursing was considered the ideal level in 65.3% of cases.",
"The style and content of consultations may be considered as separate dimensions, an approach that may help doctors adapt their communication appropriately to different consultations. Patient feedback focused on communication skills is appropriate, but there are potential risks.",
"yes. Timely hospitalist-PCP communication was inconsistent at the beginning of the study. This low-resource quality improvement collaborative was able to achieve rapid improvement and resulted in improved perceptions of quality improvement knowledge among participants.",
"yes. Active expert peer-to-peer consultation with prescribing oncologists can promote adherence to guidelines and potentially lead to significant cost reductions without significant risk of neutropenic fever, with or without hospitalization, for patients with cancer.",
"To examine whether a collaborative to improve pediatric asthma care positively influenced processes and outcomes of that care. Medical record abstractions and patient/parent interviews were used to make pre- and postintervention comparisons of patients at 9 sites that participated in the evaluation of a Breakthrough Series (BTS) collaborative for asthma care with patients at 4 matched control sites. Thirteen primary care clinics. Three hundred eighty-five asthmatic children who received care at an intervention clinic and 126 who received care at a control clinic (response rate = 76%). Three 2-day educational sessions for quality improvement teams from participating sites followed by 3 \"action\" periods over the course of a year. The overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention group but remained unchanged in the control group (change in process score +13% vs 0%; P<.0001). Patients in the intervention group were more likely than patients in the control group to monitor their peak flows (70% vs 43%; P<.0001) and to have a written action plan (41% vs 22%; P = .001). Patients in the intervention group had better general health-related quality of life (scale score 80 vs 77; P = .05) and asthma-specific quality of life related to treatment problems (scale score 89 vs 85; P<.05).",
"yes. The shortness of the consultation length is due to a supply-side effect, implicating dissatisfaction for patients with mental health problems. This may not be generalizable to other patients. Findings are in favour of a specific intervention aimed at giving poor people equal access to GPs' time.",
"To investigate whether increased contact with the patient's general practitioner (GP) soon after cancer treatment can increase patient quality of life (QoL) and satisfaction with follow-up. A randomised controlled study with 91 patients from one Norwegian municipality. The intervention group got a 30-min invited consultation with the patient's GP and an invitation to further GP follow-up. Quality of life and patient satisfaction with diagnosis, treatment and overall care were measured with validated instruments. Relatives' satisfaction with care increased over 6 months in the intervention group (P = 0.018), but otherwise, there was no difference between the intervention and control groups concerning QoL, satisfaction with care or number of consultations. Patient satisfaction with care showed a tendency to increase when treatment intent was curative. Some functional QoL measures and satisfaction tended to increase during the first 6 months after treatment. Free text comments suggested that some patients appreciated the contact with their GP.",
"This study shows that fewer patients are receiving exercise counseling to help lower blood pressure and improve health outcomes. However, patients seem to follow the advice when given. Given the magnitude of poorly controlled hypertension, these findings should alert healthcare providers to find innovative means of physical activity recommendation to improve health outcomes.",
"Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.",
"This consultation program cannot be considered an outright success since only half of all patients with a hip fracture actually received a consultation. However, osteoporosis consultation, when provided, facilitated the recognition of secondary causes and the generic treatment of osteoporosis, and inpatients started on treatment generally continued the medication after discharge. The results of this study strongly support the need for a mechanism of automatic osteoporosis consultation for inpatients with a fragility fracture and suggest that, if consultation is reliably obtained, this approach can be effective in improving patient care.",
"The lack of quality-oriented organizational climates is partly responsible for deficiencies in patient-centered care and poor quality more broadly. To improve their quality-oriented climates, several organizations have joined quality improvement collaboratives. The effectiveness of this approach is unknown. To evaluate the impact of collaborative membership on organizational climate for quality and service quality. Twenty-one clinics, 4 of which participated in a collaborative sponsored by the Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement. Pre-post design. Preassessments occurred 2 months before the collaborative began in January 2009. Postassessments of service quality and climate occurred about 6 months and 1 year, respectively, after the collaborative ended in January 2010. We surveyed clinic employees (eg, physicians, nurses, receptionists, etc.) about the organizational climate and patients about service quality. Prioritization of quality care, high-quality staff relationships, and open communication as indicators of quality-oriented climate and timeliness of care, staff helpfulness, doctor-patient communication, rating of doctor, and willingness to recommend doctor's office as indicators of service quality. There was no significant effect of collaborative membership on quality-oriented climate and mixed effects on service quality. Doctors' ratings improved significantly more in intervention clinics than in control clinics, staff helpfulness improved less, and timeliness of care declined more. Ratings of doctor-patient communication and willingness to recommend doctor were not significantly different between intervention and comparison clinics.",
"Although improvements have occurred in the access to and utilisation of healthcare services, consultation by patients of bone setters seems to be a sociocultural and educational issue rather than a problem of lack of medical insurance.",
"The intervention was associated with improved process-of-care measures that have been linked with better outcomes. Patients benefited through increased satisfaction with communication. Follow-up of patients who participated in the intervention may have been too brief to be able to detect significant improvement in health-related outcomes.",
"yes. Shifting to a consultation-liaison relationship should increase rates of referral of patients with serious mental illness, including those who can most benefit from the skills of CMHTs. Increasing the provision of primary care-based psychology might improve practice use of mental health services, reducing avoidable outpatient psychiatric referrals.",
"yes. Protocol-supported consultations may lead to a modest increase in information regarding two risk factors for LTSA in GPs' electronic records and to more referrals to OPs.",
"yes. This study indicates that intervention by a board-certified allergist significantly improves many areas of health-related quality of life. Further studies comparing health care outcomes and costs of treating chronic rhinitis by primary care physicians to early intervention by allergy specialists are warranted.",
"yes. An EDOU model that used mandatory cardiology consultation resulted in decreased provocative testing, particularly among low-risk chest pain patients. Future research should explore the cost-effectiveness of this model.",
"Patients with headache who initiated the referral to a neurologist themselves were less satisfied with the specialist consultation. Selecting referrals containing proper medical information may improve satisfaction in severe headache patients treated in a neurological practice.",
"Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.",
"This evaluation shows a clear improvement in self-rated mental and general health, mastery and control in the group completing the study agreement. The intervention seems to be effective for young adults with minor mental health problems, but due to the skewed gender-distribution it is unclear if the method is appropriate for men. After the proposed internal quality improvements, this short-term counselling could enhance mental and general health among young people.",
"Patient satisfaction surveys are increasingly used to measure consulting quality and outcome, but little is known of how good doctors are at judging their patients' satisfaction with their consultations. To determine if patient satisfaction and enablement following a consultation are correlated with both inexperienced and experienced doctors' predictions of patient satisfaction and doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation. Cross-sectional questionnaire-based observational study. Scottish general practices. Using a post-consultation questionnaire we compared doctors' estimates of patient satisfaction with the consultation; doctors' own satisfaction with the consultation; scores on the Patient Enablement Instrument (PEI) and the Consultation Satisfaction Questionnaire (CSQ). Twenty-nine doctors and 1848 patients took part. Each doctor recorded an average of 63.7 (SD: 32.1) consultations. Patient measures of satisfaction and enablement were only weakly correlated with doctor predictions of patient satisfaction (rs=0.07 for PEI and 0.13 for CSQ; both P<0.01) or doctor satisfaction (rs=0.10 for PEI and 0.12 for CSQ; both P<0.01) with the consultation. They were, however, moderately well correlated (rs=0.50 P<0.01) with one another.",
"The intervention improved some important aspects of processes of care that have previously been linked to better outcomes. Patients who received care at intervention clinics also reported higher general and asthma-specific quality of life.",
"yes. In long stay patients, having fewer inpatient consultations was the strongest predictor of patient satisfaction with physician communication. This suggests that examination of patient-level data in clinically relevant subgroups may be a useful way to identify targets for quality improvement.",
"yes. There is significant disagreement between patients and professionals perceptions and recollection of the content of consultations. Professional's communications skills need to be developed to ensure these discrepancies are minimized. Skills to provide greater autonomy support in the consultation would help to enhance this process and improve outcomes.",
"Joint consultation seems to be a good strategy in influencing the referral behaviour of GPs in the area of rheumatology. The decrease in referral is substantial and can subsequently lead to a reduction of waiting lists.",
"yes. Renovating the interior of a primary care office was associated with improved patient satisfaction, including satisfaction in domains otherwise unchanged. Physician skills and patient satisfaction sometimes depend on surrounding factors that may bias the ability of patients to assess the quality of medical care. These biases should be taken into account when quality assessment instruments are designed for patients.",
"Negative perceptions of general practice by teenagers may have less of an influence on actual consultation behaviour than previously believed. However, there are some aspects of care that merit further attention if teenagers are to feel able to consult their GP more easily.",
"The explicit address of illness representations or action plans during consultations results in more attention to patient concerns and lifestyle issues and an overall improvement in patient-GP communication in terms of affective atmosphere and patient involvement.",
"yes. In order to allocate consulting resources more effectively, appropriate concepts need to be developed and promoted. If the present results could be verified by a study with a larger sample, the practical use for resource optimisation in breastfeeding consultations would be very beneficial.",
"yes. These findings demonstrate that providing diagnostic information regarding PNES is insufficient by itself to meaningfully affect patient outcome. Structured feedback and psychiatric consultation appeared adequate to significantly reduce PNES frequency and improve aspects of quality of life, while the addition of a weekly phone contact also led to improved mood.",
"The results have significant implications for quality improvement in the NHS. The finding that some NHS providers consistently perform better than others suggests that there are system-wide determinants of patient experience and the potential for learning from innovators. However, there is room for improvement overall. Given the large samples of these surveys, the messages could also have relevance for healthcare systems elsewhere.",
"Doctors can increase satisfaction and moderately improve functional outcomes in the period immediately after the consultation when back pain is worst, by using very simple interventions: either by endorsing a self-management booklet or by giving advice to take exercise. Previous studies suggest that simple advice and the same written information provide reinforcement. This study supports evidence that it may not be helpful to provide a detailed information booklet and advice together, where the amounts or formats of information differ.",
"yes. Accompaniment to medical visits is associated with better HF self-care maintenance and management, and this effect may be mediated through satisfaction with provider communication.",
"This study reveals misunderstandings between patients and GPs on the content of the consultation, especially for health-promotion outcomes. Taking patients' social characteristics into account, notably age and educational level, could improve mutual understanding between patients and GPs, and therefore, the quality of care.",
"The fact that there is little unexplained variation in GP consultation lengths that might be attributable to variations in quality (i.e. GP-related) throws doubt on the proposition that length of consultation can be used as a marker for quality of consultation in general practice.",
"Deciding on 'best quality' is subjective. While literature and guidelines provide clear parameters for many measures, others are difficult to judge. Overall, there was little difference between these two groups. This study has found little evidence to support the claim that computerisation of general practice in Australia has improved the quality of care provided to patients.",
"yes. Interventions before consultations designed to help patients address their information needs within consultations produce limited benefits to patients. Further research could explore whether the quality of questions is increased, whether anxiety before consultations is reduced, the effects on other outcomes and the impact of training and the timing of interventions. More studies need to consider the timing of interventions and possibly the type of training provided to clinicians.",
"yes. Child care health consultation programs can improve the written health and safety policies and may improve practices in child care centers.",
"yes. The reasons underpinning each individual decision to consult were complex. The control that GPs were perceived to have over the pattern of consulting, for example concerning prescribing, review visits, and in addressing further help-seeking behaviour, may provide more possibilities for developing intervention strategies than targeting frequent attenders themselves. An understanding of the processes behind the consulting behaviour of frequent attenders may lead to more functional consultations and better clinical care as a result.",
"The consultant system was more efficient in resolving problems and responding to general practitioners than the traditional system. General practitioners were more confident in self-management of hypothyroidism and diabetes. A very large decrease in the number of patient referrals was observed after implementation of the consultant system.",
"When measured objectively, specialist consultation appears to have a small, but statistically significant, positive impact on the level of patient anxiety. Patient satisfaction correlated well with the patient anxiety levels.",
"yes. Introduction of guidelines for time to consultation, may improve response times, leading to improved quality of service for inpatient consultation services.",
"In theory, a positive relationship is expected between the quality of a consultation and a patient's subsequent health status. However, such a relationship has not yet been firmly established in daily practice. We aimed to study the relationship between the quality of the first consultation in a new episode of non-acute abdominal complaints and subsequent health status of patients in general practice. Quality scores for 743 consultations were calculated on the basis of review criteria developed by expert panels. Functional health status was measured by the SIP (Sickness Impact Profile) at baseline, and at 1 and 6 months after the consultation. Multilevel regression analysis was used to examine the relationship between the quality of consultations and health status, and to identify factors of influence on this relationship. In the majority of these patients (97%) health status improved regardless of consultation quality. In patients with malignant disease, and chronic colitis, however, an association between consultation quality and subsequent health status was found: in those with a high consultation quality score (>66-percentile) the health status deteriorated in the first month but improved over the following 5 months; in those with a low consultation quality score (<33-percentile) it deteriorated continuously.",
"yes. These consultations often change expected management. Where decision making in the consultation is of higher quality, patients were more likely to change to a less invasive option.",
"For the great majority of patients we found no relation between the quality of consultation and health status. However, for a very small subgroup of patients there is proof of benefit from better quality consultations."
] | 829 |
Development of a computer clinical instruction program. Is the game worth the candle? | [
"Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.",
"Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists."
] | [
"yes. This study suggests that a simulation-based mock code program may significantly benefit pediatric patient CPA outcomes-applied clinical outcomes-not simply learner perceived value, increased confidence, or simulation-based outcomes. The use of mock codes as an integral part of residency programs could provide residents with the resuscitation training they require to become proficient in their practice. Future programs that incorporate transport scenarios, ambulatory care, and other outpatient settings could further benefit pediatric patients in prehospital contexts.",
"yes. A computer-based learning module allows patients to assimilate information and actively participate in choosing type of breast reconstruction. Use of this educational modality represents a simple and effective way to improve the shared decision-making process.",
"Compared with controls in this pilot study, an additional simulation exercise improved immediate performance on a short written test of cardiovascular physiology. Enhanced performance was again seen at 1 year, raising the possibility that the extra teaching session produced accelerated and sustained learning compared with the routine teaching method. Given the preliminary nature of this investigation, further study is required to distinguish transient from lasting effects of simulation versus alternative teaching approaches in the basic medical sciences.",
"yes. The teaching of a structured method of communication improved the communication during telephone referral in a simulated clinical setting. This research has implications for how healthcare professionals are taught to communicate with each other.",
"Assessing in undergraduate medical education the educational effectiveness of a short computer-based session, integrating a lecturer's video with a standardized structure, for evidence based medicine (EBM) teaching, compared to a lecture-based teaching session of similar structure and duration. A concealed, randomized controlled trial of computer based session versus lecture of equal duration (40 minutes) and identical content in EBM and systematic reviews. The study was based at the Medical School, University of Birmingham, UK involving one hundred and seventynine year one medical students. The main outcome measures were change from pre to post-intervention score measured using a validated questionnaire assessing knowledge (primary outcome) and attitudes (secondary outcome). Participants' improvement in knowledge in the computer based group was equivalent to the lecture based group (gain in score: 0.8 [S.D = 3.2] versus 1.3 [S.D = 2.4]; p = 0.24). Attitudinal gains were similar in both groups.",
"The results suggest that educating patients can result in a higher knowledge levels by using a computer than by using a doctor. Satisfaction seems equal after both methods of education.",
"yes. The computerized training program Cogmed RM was an effective intervention tool for improving memory and reducing core learning deficits in adolescents born at ELBW.",
"Proper diagnosis of cardiac disorders is a core competency of internists. Yet numerous studies have documented that the cardiac examination (CE) skills of physicians have declined compared with those of previous generations of physicians, attributed variously to inadequate exposure to cardiac patients and lack of skilled bedside teaching. With growing concerns about ensuring patient safety and quality of care, public and professional organizations are calling for a renewed emphasis on the teaching and evaluation of clinical skills in residency training. The objective of the study was to determine whether Web training improves CE competency, whether residents retain what they learn, and whether a Web-based curriculum plus clinical training is better than clinical training alone. Journal of Hospital Medicine 2008;3:124-133. (c) 2008 Society of Hospital Medicine. This was a controlled intervention study. The intervention group (34 internal and family medicine interns) participated in self-directed use of a Web-based tutorial and three 1-hour teaching sessions taught by a hospitalist. Twenty-five interns from the prior year served as controls. We assessed overall CE competency and 4 subcategories of CE competency: knowledge, audio skills, visual skills, and audio-visual integration. The over mean score of the intervention group significantly improved, from 54 to 66 (P = .002). This improvement was retained (63.5, P = .05). When compared with end-of-year controls, the intervention group had significantly higher end-of-year CE scores (57 vs. 63.5, P = .05), knowledge (P = .04), and audio skills (P = .01). At the end of the academic year, all improvements were retained (P <or= .04) except visual skills (P = .75).",
"The EFAST (extended focused assessment with sonography for trauma) is part of the recommended curriculum for Emergency Medicine and Surgery residents. Computer-based lectures may represent a time-efficient alternative to traditional lectures. Our hypothesis was that computer lectures in basic ultrasound and the EFAST are not inferior to classroom lectures in test score improvement for residents with or without prior training. First-year Emergency Medicine and Surgery residents were enrolled and completed a pre-test. Subjects were then randomized into a classroom group, which attended traditional lectures, and a computer group, which listened to narrated lectures on computers. After the didactic training, all subjects completed a post-test. Forty-four subjects completed the study: 64% were General Surgery residents, 66% were male. Overall, mean test score improvements were higher in the classroom than in the computer group (28.0% vs. 18.4%). In 25 residents without prior training, mean improvements in the computer and classroom groups were 25% and 27%, respectively. The 95% confidence limit around the difference was 9%, falling within the a priori non-inferiority range of 10%, and consistent with non-inferiority of computer-based lectures. In 19 residents with prior training, mean test score improvements for the computer and classroom groups were 13% and 29%, respectively. The 95% confidence limit of 24% exceeded the non-inferiority range, consistent with inferiority of computer-based lectures.",
"To compare computer-based learning with traditional learning methods in studying advanced cardiac life support (ACLS). Prospective, randomized study. University hospital. Senior medical students were randomized to perform computer simulation and textbook study. Each group studied ACLS for 150 minutes. Tests were performed 1 week before, immediately after, and 1 week after the study period. Testing consisted of 20 questions. All questions were formulated in such a way that there was a single best answer. Each student also completed a questionnaire designed to assess computer skills, as well as satisfaction with and benefit from the study materials. Test scores improved after both textbook study and computer simulation study in both groups, although the improvement in scores was significantly higher for the textbook group only immediately after the study. There was no significant difference between groups in their computer skill and satisfaction with the study materials. The textbook group reported greater benefit from study materials than did the computer simulation group.",
"yes. A novel combined simulation and Web-based training course increased comfort and willingness to use BB and was associated with increased use of this technique for forearm fracture reduction in the PED.",
"yes. While efforts have been made to incorporate innovative instructional techniques into these courses, most still follow the traditional lecture format and make minimal use of computers. Nevertheless, medical students appeared to have a favorable attitude toward these courses at over half of the schools surveyed.",
"DVD simulations with an interprofessional education focus were developed. Paramedic students reported the simulations as being educationally, professionally and clinically relevant. The students also identified some aspects of current clinical placements that may be replaced by using DVD simulations. The cost benefit of using interprofessional DVD simulations to supplement and replace certain clinical placement rotations should be investigated further.",
"It is difficult to provide real-world learning experiences for students to master clinical and communication skills. The purpose of this paper is to describe a novel instructional method using self- and peer-assessment, reflection, and technology to help students develop effective interpersonal and clinical skills. The teaching method is described by the constructivist learning theory and incorporates the use of educational technology. The learning activities were incorporated into the pre-clinical didactic curriculum. The students participated in two video-recording assignments and performed self-assessments on each and had a peer-assessment on the second video-recording. The learning activity was evaluated through the self- and peer-assessments and an instructor-designed survey. This evaluation identified several themes related to the assignment, student performance, clinical behaviors and establishing rapport. Overall the students perceived that the learning activities assisted in the development of clinical and communication skills prior to direct patient care.",
"yes. The outcomes of this pilot study suggest the effectiveness of TBL as an instructional method that provides student teams with opportunities to apply course content in problem-solving activities followed by immediate feedback. This research also addresses the dearth of empirical information on how graduate programmes in speech-language pathology bridge students' didactic learning and clinical practice. Future studies should examine the utility of this approach in other courses within the field and with more heterogeneous student populations.",
"Undergraduate medical students value the use of e-learning in clinical skills education, however they vary in their utilization of such learning environments. Students rate e-learning just as highly as other traditional methods of clinical skills teaching and acknowledge its integration in a blended approach. Developers of clinical skills curricula need to ensure e-learning environments utilize media that encourage deeper approaches to learning.",
"Preparation for a clinical shift with pre-assigned, web-based learning modules followed by an attempt at chief-complaint-focused learning during a shift did not result in improvements in performance on a multiple-choice assessment of knowledge; however, one third of participants did not adhere strictly to the protocol. Future investigations should ensure performance of pre-assigned learning as well as clinical experiences, and consider alternate measures of knowledge.",
"To compare the effectiveness of a computer-assisted instruction (CAI)-based intervention to a more traditional lecture-based intervention for influencing psychosocial correlates of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) preventive behaviors. Students enrolled in a Human Sexuality course (N = 152) were randomly assigned to one of three groups: CAI, Lecture, or No Intervention group. Participants in the CAI group reviewed a 1-hour long CAI program, participants in the Lecture group were presented with a 1-hour long lecture, and participants in the No Intervention group received no intervention. After completing the respective interventions, all participants completed the HIV questionnaire, which measured selected Social Cognitive Theory constructs associated with HIV preventive behaviors. MANCOVA, ANCOVA and Post Hoc analyses were utilized to test for significant differences among the three groups. The analyses disclosed that, compared to participants in the Lecture group, participants in the CAI group scored significantly higher on the scales measuring autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) knowledge, self-evaluative outcome motivation, and intention to practice HIV preventive behaviors with current partner. In addition, compared to the No Intervention group, the CAI group scored significantly higher on the scales measuring physical outcome motivation and social outcome motivation.",
"Our aim was to evaluate the impact of a computerized echocardiographic simulator on the learning curve for transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) hemodynamic assessment of ventilated patients in the ICU. We performed a prospective study in two university hospital medical ICUs. Using our previously validated skill assessment scoring system (/40 points), we compared learning curves obtained with (interventional group, n = 25 trainees) and without (control group, n = 31 trainees) use of a simulator in the training. Three evaluations were performed after 1 (M1), 3 (M3) and 6 months (M6) while performing two TEE examinations graded by an expert. Competency was defined as a score >35/40. Competency was achieved after an average of 32.5 ± 10 supervised studies in the control group compared with only 13.6 ± 8.5 in the interventional group (p < 0.0001). At M6, a significant between-group difference in number of supervised TEE was observed (17 [14-28] in the control group vs. 30.5 [21.5-39.5] in the interventional group, p = 0.001). The score was significantly higher in the interventional group at M1 (32.5 [29.25-35.5] vs. 24.75 [20-30.25]; p = 0.0001), M3 (37 [33.5-38.5] vs. 32 [30.37-34.5]; p = 0.0004), but not at M6 (37.5 [33-39] vs. 36 [33.5-37.5] p = 0.24).",
"To assess whether a multimedia program can affect counseling behavior related to one of the strongest risk factors for violence later in life, persistent early childhood aggression. The design was a controlled trial with unobtrusive measurement in a clinic setting. A researcher, pretending to be the mother of a 2 ½ year old boy, called 19 pediatric residents during clinic hours and requested advice on how to manage her child's persistently hurtful behavior. The intervention was a 40-min lecture focusing on a multimedia program, Play Nicely, which teaches accepted strategies for managing aggression in young children ages 1-7 years. Residents' responses were blindly assessed to determine the treatment effect of the intervention. Compared with the control group (C), residents in the intervention (I) group were more likely to recommend setting the rule (I: 100% vs. C: 31%, p = .01), redirecting (I: 83% vs. C: 8%, p = .003), promoting empathy (I: 50% vs. C: 0%, p = .02), and more likely to discourage the use of physical punishment (I: 83% vs. C: 31%). These are the primary strategies encouraged by the intervention. The magnitude of the effect size was very large for each of these three strategies, ranging from d = 1.1 to 2.3.",
"A previous study evaluated repeated, serial administrations of computer-based simulations. The data demonstrated an increase in scores across rotations during the academic year, but no difference between scores in successive years. The initial study only indirectly assessed the effect of information sharing on measured performance. To directly assess the effect of information transfer, 8 computer-based case simulations were administered over 2 consecutive years to 220 third-year students at the conclusion of 12 surgical clerkship rotations (6 per year). During the second year of administration information regarding content area, in the form of the case stem or introductory lead-in material, was provided to each rotation of students prior to the examination based on a sequential algorithm. The data demonstrate no increase in overall mean score for the examination over the 2 years. Scores were significantly different for 2 of the 8 cases, increasing in the one and decreasing in the other.",
"The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.",
"Evidence-based information, delivered by peers, and associated with the opportunity to practice new skills appear to be the components of continuing medical education (CME) that translate into improved clinical care.",
"yes. Several theories support these clinical teaching workshops. (1) Outcomes research in continuing medical education suggests the need for ongoing reinforcement, which we do structurally through the three-session model. (2) We use a classical microteaching approach to develop insight and self-awareness. Each videotaped encounter is reviewed, stopped at key points, and discussed by the entire group. These discussions commonly open up after the workshop leaders ask questions such as, \"What were you thinking there?\" or \"What were you trying to do?\" or \"What would you ask next?\" (3) We emphasize the importance of knowing-in-action and the related reflection that guides action in practice. (4) The quality of the workshops is enhanced using standardized students, whom we carefully train and use repeatedly. At least two students have worked with us from their first years through their final clinical years. We are currently examining the program's impact through videotape review.",
"This study explores the relationship between instructional strategies and effective health education curricula. A content analysis of 10 health education curricula was conducted to determine if they include common instructional strategies for actively engaging students in acquisition of health skills. To be included, the curricula had to (1) be research-based and proven via empirical testing to positively influence the health behaviors and (2) address 1 of Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's 6 priority health risk behaviors. Content analysis revealed 5 active learning strategies incorporated to involve students in acquiring health skills. Role play, group cooperation, and small group discussion were found in all 10 curricula. To a lesser extent, interactive technology and team games were also included.",
"yes. We suggest that our virtual reality program enables anticipatory PC and response mechanisms and might serve as a successful therapeutic alternative in situations in which conventional therapy is not readily available.",
"The goal of this study was to determine if clinical simulation improved resident confidence in performing critical care skills, neonatal resuscitation, and colonoscopy. Residents participated in clinical simulations utilizing high-fidelity medical simulators in a realistic environment. We compared resident responses on pre- and post-experience surveys. Residents reported satisfaction with quality of demonstrations and opportunity for hands-on learning and practice. Residents felt more confident in their ability to apply these skills independently and in the applied context.",
"no. The focus and design of clinical education programming on preparation for crisis management during the care of critically ill patients benefit from the incorporation of trainee perceptions of preparedness and the efficacy of educational formats. Trainee feedback in these areas can be harnessed as a continuous quality improvement tool and as a metric of success in meeting professional training goals.",
"Active computerized advice elaborated by the clinical pharmacologist on the basis of TDM results and of patient's pathophysiological data and co-medications may be cost-effective for personalizing linezolid treatment.",
"An instrumental strategy may be a stage in student's consultation learning progression that interferes with communication training. A question is raised: is training of a patient-centred approach throughout the clinical curriculum needed for optimal development of consultation skills? Further research is needed to test this hypothesis.",
"With the development of portable, affordable ultrasound machines with good image quality, many physicians have adopted focused cardiac ultrasound (FoCUS). To facilitate acquisition of these skills, we developed a simulator-based, self-taught curriculum for FoCUS that provides immediate feedback for rapid performance improvement. Twenty-two first-year residents participated in the study. The curriculum consisted of instructive modules teaching image acquisition and interpretation of standard echocardiography views and common cardiac pathology, 7 practice cases in which participants scanned a mannequin using a mock transducer, acquired specified views with feedback provided by visual guidance technology, and interpreted these images. Trainees were tested pretraining and posttraining on different cases, without visual guidance assistance or feedback. Previously validated metrics were used to assess psychomotor skill in terms of the angle error in degrees between the planes of the optimal view, defined anatomically, and of the acquired view, as well as cognitive skill in image interpretation. The average error in image acquisition decreased from a median of 81 degrees at the pretest to 28 degrees after training (P < 0.0001). Cognitive skill improved by 29% (21%, P < 0.0001). There was a significant correlation between cognitive and psychomotor skill (r = 0.64, P < 0.001).",
"Short, brain-training games administered on an iPad can be used as psychometric tests to detect subtle cognitive impairments in patients with cirrhosis without overt encephalopathy that could not be detected by the NCT-A or the ICT.",
"Successful implementation of practice change requires educational tools that engage and motivate clinicians. To examine clinician usage and preference for different educational tools when a multifaceted strategy was used for implementation of new recommendations for managing newborns at risk of sepsis. Seminars, web-based tutorial, handouts, pocket cards and web-based management algorithm were used to educate health professionals. Ninety-two clinicians attended seminars and completed feedback questionnaires that included three questions assessing knowledge of the recommendations. After 3 months, an electronic survey containing the same questions was sent to 41 key stakeholders (staff neonatologists, trainee physicians, nurse practitioners and respiratory therapists) who provided patient care during the implementation period. Compliance with recommendations was assessed by chart audit. Seminar content was helpful to 97% of participants and 88% were comfortable using the recommendations. Response rate for the 3-month survey was 80%. The most frequently used and useful tools were pocket cards (76%) and seminars (76%); 79% continued to use the card. Only one respondent used the web tutorial and four used the algorithm. There was no significant difference in percent correct responses to the questions between the two timepoints (p > 0.05). Compliance with the recommendations was 83%.",
"It is possible to measure feedback skills in a clinical setting. Although traditional outcome measures show a significant effect, demonstrating change in teaching behaviors used in practice will require larger scale studies than typically undertaken currently.",
"The reduction in time to defibrillate ventricular fibrillation and to pace symptomatic bradycardia among the intervention group subjects suggests that the online computer-based ACLS simulator is an effective adjunctive ACLS instructional tool.",
"These results suggest that it may be possible to train people in BLS and AED skills using a micro-simulation web-based interactive program but without any practice on a manikin. This seems to be particularly the case for the use of an AED, where performance achieved a uniformly high standard.",
"Individuals at clinical high risk (CHR) for psychosis demonstrate cognitive impairments that predict later psychotic transition and real-world functioning. Cognitive training has shown benefits in schizophrenia, but has not yet been adequately tested in the CHR population. In this double-blind randomized controlled trial, CHR individuals (N = 83) were given laptop computers and trained at home on 40 hours of auditory processing-based exercises designed to target verbal learning and memory operations, or on computer games (CG). Participants were assessed with neurocognitive tests based on the Measurement and Treatment Research to Improve Cognition in Schizophrenia initiative (MATRICS) battery and rated on symptoms and functioning. Groups were compared before and after training using a mixed-effects model with restricted maximum likelihood estimation, given the high study attrition rate (42%). Participants in the targeted cognitive training group showed a significant improvement in Verbal Memory compared to CG participants (effect size = 0.61). Positive and Total symptoms improved in both groups over time.",
"Computer-based cognitive and language rehabilitation, using proper and dedicated software, may be a valuable tool in improving either communication or cognitive skills in patient affected by aphasia, even in the chronic state.",
"yes. E-learning using the Computer Enhanced Visual Learning platform significantly improved preparedness, confidence, and comfort with percutaneous closed reduction and pinning of a pediatric supracondylar humeral fracture. We believe that adapting such methods into residency training programs will improve efficiency in surgical training.",
"Computer-based lectures are not inferior to classroom lectures and may represent a worthwhile substitution in subjects without prior ultrasound education. Our data suggest that didactic ultrasound training through classroom lectures is more effective than computer-based lectures in individuals with prior training.",
"To create a bingo game that would increase student interaction with course material and provide students with options for demonstrating learning and earning extra credit. A bingo game was created in which each of the 25 squares contained an activity (eg, video, crossword puzzle, poem, quiz) that encouraged interaction with course material and appealed to multiple learning styles. Students who achieved bingo earned a 5-point (5%) grade bonus. All students enrolled in the Introduction to Clinical Pharmacy Skills course participated in the bingo game. The majority of students (74.6% in the fall and 81.9% in the spring) achieved bingo. Students who achieved bingo had an average course grade 7 points (fall semester) and 10 points (spring semester) higher than the average course grade from the prior 6 semesters.",
"yes. A simulation-based mastery learning program increased residents' skills in simulated central venous catheter insertion and decreased complications related to central venous catheter insertions in actual patient care.",
"A well-structured education program has reduced both inter- and intraobserver prostate contouring variations. The impact was greater on MRI than on CT. With the ongoing incorporation of new technologies into routine practice, education programs for target contouring should be incorporated as part of the continuing medical education of radiation oncologists.",
"The evaluation indicates the potential merits of e-practice development, particularly for nurses who feel geographically and professionally isolated or disenchanted with available continuing professional development opportunities. Participation in the virtual college appeared to enrich practice and foster a culture of change.",
"Carotid artery stenting (CAS) is an advanced endovascular intervention with a steep learning curve. Virtual reality (VR) simulation has been proposed as a means to train and objectively assess technical performance. To objectively assess psychomotor skills acquisition of experienced interventionalists attending a two-day CAS course, using a VR simulator. Both cognitive and technical skills of 11 interventionalists were trained in a two-day course using didactic sessions, case reviews, supervised VR simulation and live-cases. Pre- and post-course skills were assessed through performance on the same CAS procedure using metrics derived from the simulator. Significant differences were noted between pre- and post-course performance for procedure (36 vs. 20min., p=0.005), X-ray (20 vs. 11min., p=0.016) and delivery-retrieval time of the embolic protection device (12 vs. 9min., p=0.007). Advancement of the guiding catheter without a leading wire occurred to a greater extent pre- versus post-course (199 vs. 152mm., p=0.050) as did spasm of the internal carotid artery (4 vs. 2, p=0.049).",
"Gaming technology can provide an exercise program that has similar cardiovascular demands to traditional pulmonary rehabilitation programs for patients with COPD. Further research is necessary to address feasibility and long-term adherence.",
"An educational program based on real-time feedback to resident physicians regarding documentation improved diagnostic capture and SOI scores, but not case mix index or billing at our public, safety net, teaching hospital. Even with enhanced education of resident physicians regarding documentation, other interventions are needed to further improve diagnostic capture.",
"The aim of this study was to examine the usefulness of DVD simulations in a clinical teaching context, their impact on student learning, and their potential as a supplemental learning option for clinical placements/fieldwork education rotations that might assist in reducing the burden on the health care system. Eleven clinical DVD simulations were developed by Monash University academic staff from four academic departments: nursing, occupational therapy, paramedics, and physiotherapy. Undergraduate students (n = 394) from these health science groups viewed the DVD simulations. Student perceptions and attitudes about the clinical relevance of the DVD simulations were assessed on a 7-point Likert-type scale standardized questionnaire (7 indicating the highest satisfaction score). Qualitative data were also collected from three focus groups that involved 24 students, assessing if and how the DVD simulations influenced the clinical fieldwork education placement learning experiences of the students. Overall, students' responses to the questionnaire indicated that they were satisfied with the DVD simulations with relation to attention (mean 4.25, SD 0.95), learning potential (mean 5.25, SD 1.16), clinical relevance to practice (mean 4.36, SD 0.60), and information-processing quality (mean 5.45, SD 0.23). Qualitative data supported the notions of interdisciplinary teamwork, clinical placements, clinical placement education, and DVD quality evaluation and feedback.",
"yes. Taken together, these data indicate that clinical skill training with a variety of simulations could substantially promote the clinical performance of medical students and optimize the resources used for medical education, although a precise analysis of each specialization is needed in the future.",
"For an effective acquisition and the practical application of rapidly increasing amounts of information, computer-based learning has already been introduced in medical education. However, there have been few studies that compare this innovative method to traditional learning methods in studying advanced cardiac life support (ACLS). Senior medical students were randomized to computer simulation and a textbook study. Each group studied ACLS for 150 minutes. Tests were done one week before, immediately after, and one week after the study period. Testing consisted of 20 questions. All questions were formulated in such a way that there was a single best answer. Each student also completed a questionnaire designed to assess computer skills as well as satisfaction with and benefit from the study materials. Test scores improved after both textbook study and computer simulation study in both groups but the improvement in scores was significantly higher for the textbook group only immediately after the study. There was no significant difference between groups in their computer skill and satisfaction with the study materials. The textbook group reported greater benefit from study materials than did the computer simulation group.",
"Computer-based patient education is an effective (therapeutic) tool. More and more studies prove that it can be an effective additive for face-to-face education, but it is still unclear if it is possible to educate patients by only using a computer. Our objective was to compare knowledge levels and satisfaction scores after computer-based patient education versus doctor-based patient education. We started a randomised and stratified trial in a large plastic surgery clinic in the Netherlands. One hundred thirteen patients with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), scheduled for operation were included. One group received CTS education by a doctor using a checklist (group A). The other group received the same CTS education by specially designed interactive computer program (group B). After 2 weeks, knowledge levels and satisfaction scores were tested by using a questionnaire. One hundred thirteen patients were included, 96 patients finished the questionnaire. With respect to knowledge levels the doctor group (A) scored 20.2 points (max 40 points), and the computer group (B) scored 23.5 points. After correction the difference was 2.8 points (p=0.001). The total satisfaction score in group A was 7.6 and in group B 7.5; a difference of -0.16 (p=0.585).",
"yes. In a simulated environment, a computerised protocol for TGC resulted in significant insulin dosing error reduction, saved time and improved nurse satisfaction.",
"Simulation-based learning is a common educational tool in health care training and frequently involves instructional designs based on Experiential Learning Theory (ELT). However, little research explores the effectiveness and efficiency of different instructional design methodologies appropriate for simulations. The aim of this study was to compare 2 instructional design models, ELT and Guided Experiential Learning (GEL), to determine which is more effective for training the central venous catheterization procedure. Using a quasi-experimental randomized block design, nurse anesthetists completed training under 1 of the 2 instructional design models. Performance was assessed using a checklist of central venous catheterization performance, pass rates, and critical action errors. Participants in the GEL condition performed significantly better than those in the ELT condition on the overall checklist score after controlling for individual practice time (F[1, 29] = 4.021, P = .027, Cohen's d = .71), had higher pass rates (P = .006, Cohen's d = 1.15), and had lower rates of failure due to critical action errors (P = .038, Cohen's d = .81).",
"Using current criteria, we doubt that the time and effort spent training novice PGY1 Surgical Residents on the basic LapSim training programs is justified, as such training to competence lacks predictive validity in most domains of the GOALS program. We are investigating 2 other approaches: more difficult training exercises using the LapSim system and an entirely different approach using haptic technology (ProMis; Haptica Ltd., Ireland), which uses real instruments, with training on realistic 3-dimensional models with real rather than simulated cutting, sewing, and dissection. Although experienced video gamers achieve competency faster than nongamers on LapSim programs, that skill set does not translate into improved clinical performance.",
"To estimate the role of computer-CPED in the Netherlands to the year 2008. Computer-assisted learning is currently employed in many modern undergraduate dental curricula. It could also play an important role in providing continuing professional education in dentistry (CPED) to general dental practitioners. Computer-CPED offers teacher-independent and individualized interaction by distance learning. A simulation study was conducted. Entry data were either derived from publications or were estimated. The results indicate that the demand for CPED will exceed the supply by 2002.",
"As computerized therapy is developed to address barriers to dissemination, future trials should examine the effectiveness of cCBT for anxiety for patients with more complex clinical presentations.",
"yes. The educational intervention program significantly improved the knowledge and confidence of the participants in managing pediatric critical illnesses. The CISD program provides an inexpensive, practical, and time effective method of facilitating knowledge acquisition and retention. Despite the distinctively different approach, this study has shown the effectiveness of the participant being an observer to enhance pediatric resuscitation skills.",
"The training program was effective in improving team members' communication skills and their self-efficacy to communicate in the context of an encounter with a simulated patient. Future study should assess the effect of this training program on communication with actual patients and their satisfaction. Moreover a cost-benefit analysis is needed, before implementing such an intensive training program on a broader scale.",
"yes. A computer software for myocardial volume and infarct size determination cut the evaluation time by more than 50% compared with manual assessment, with maintained clinical accuracy.",
"computer-aided learning (CAL) is increasingly used to deliver teaching, but few studies have evaluated its impact on learning within geriatric medicine. We developed and implemented CAL packages on falls and continence, and evaluated their effect on student performance in two medical schools. traditional ward based and didactic teaching was replaced by blended learning (CAL package combined with traditional teaching methods). Examination scores were compared for cohorts of medical students receiving traditional learning and those receiving blended learning. Control questions were included to provide data on cohort differences. in both medical schools, there was a trend towards improved scores following blended learning, with a smaller number of students achieving low scores (P < 0.01). Feedback from students about the CAL packages was positive.",
"An interactive, case-based, on-line DV education program that teaches problem-solving skills improves physician confidence and beliefs in managing DV patients as effectively as an intensive classroom-based approach. Such programs may be of benefit to those seeking to improve their personal skills or their health care delivery system's response to DV.",
"Students' motivation to participate is one of the main challenges in formative assessment. The utility framework identifies potential points of intervention for improving the acceptance of formative assessment [Van Der Vleuten C. 1996. The assessment of professional competence: Developments, research and practical implications. Adv Health Sci Educ 1(1):41-67]. At the Medical Faculty of the University of Cologne, the paper-based version of the Berlin Progress Test has been transformed into computer-based version providing immediate feedback.AIM: To investigate whether the introduction of computer-based assessment (CBA) enhances the acceptance of formative assessment relative to paper-based assessment (PBA). In a retrospective cohort study (PBA: N = 2597, CBA: N = 2712), students' overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment was surveyed, their comments were analyzed, and we analyzed their test behavior and categorized students into \"serious\" or \"non-serious\" test takers. In the preclinical phase of medical education, no differences were found in overall acceptance of the two forms of assessment (p > 0.05). In the clinical phase, differences in favor of CBA were found in overall acceptance (p < 0.05), the proportion of positive comments (p < 0.001), and the proportion of serious participants (p < 0.001).",
"yes. We show that CEVL e-learning is an effective tool, which requires a minimal time investment, for teaching GUMS scoring. We believe that e-learning is a good platform to promote uniform clinical practices in outcomes research and for resident training.",
"yes. The health challenges of the 21 century require that we rapidly train the clinical workforce in clinical informatics. In addition to buying hardware and software, our health systems need to sponsor this training. Two percent of every Health IT budget should be targeted for clinician education.",
"A 7x90-minute interactive tutorial in PC for 5Y medical students is feasible and improves both self-efficacy and knowledge of core PC issues. Whether the effects of the course are long-lasting is the objective for further research.",
"yes. These results suggest that clinical background and understanding of the clinical value of a training program lead to faster acquisition and improvement of laparoscopic skills as performed on the laparoscopy simulator. Thus, medical students or other personnel not involved in practical surgery may be unsuitable as candidates for assessing the value of a VR training program.",
"The effects of a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) tutorial program on learning clinical reasoning skills were compared in undergraduate dietetics students. A drill-and-practice program to control for time on task, and tutorial program, and a simulation program, as the test vehicle, were developed. The tutorial and simulation programs presented data on a patient with cardiovascular disease. Subjects were tested in 30 undergraduate dietetics programs. Participants were 413 undergraduate diet therapy students enrolled in a coordinated program in dietetics (CPD) or a didactic program in dietetics (DPD). After completion of lectures on cardiovascular disease, subjects were given the drill-and-practice program plus a simulation test (group 1), the tutorial plus a simulation test (group 2), or the simulation test only (group 3). Scores on the simulation test were compared. Variables included type of CAI, dietetics program, year in school, computer experience, and experience using a medical chart. Mastery of objectives related to lower- and higher-level clinical reasoning skills introduced in the tutorial program was computed. One-way analysis of variance and Student-Newman Keuls tests were conducted to determine any differences among the three groups. Reliability was determined using the Kuder-Richardson Formula 20. The reliability coefficient of the stimulation test was 0.93. Group 2 higher on the simulation test than group 1 or group 3. As a group, the CPD students scored higher than the DPD students. When CPD and DPD students were divided into the three experimental groups, there was no significant difference between the CPD and DPD student simulation scores. Group 2 mastered all objectives for lower-level reasoning skills and the higher-level decision-making objective better than groups 1 and 3.",
"The present study compares the value of additional use of computer simulated heart sounds, to conventional bedside auscultation training, on the cardiac auscultation skills of 3rd year medical students at Oslo University Medical School. In addition to their usual curriculum courses, groups of seven students each were randomized to receive four hours of additional auscultation training either employing a computer simulator system or adding on more conventional bedside training. Cardiac auscultation skills were afterwards tested using live patients. Each student gave a written description of the auscultation findings in four selected patients, and was rewarded from 0-10 points for each patient. Differences between the two study groups were evaluated using student's t-test. At the auscultation test no significant difference in mean score was found between the students who had used additional computer based sound simulation compared to additional bedside training.",
"Nursing students reported that the simulations were educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations as an alternative and potential replacement to elements of nursing clinical placements should be investigated further.",
"yes. A cardiac auscultation curriculum consisting of deliberate practice with a computer-based tutorial and a cardiac patient simulator resulted in improved assessment of simulated heart sounds and more accurate examination of actual patients.",
"Students viewed the simulations as being educationally, professionally, and clinically relevant. The cost benefit of using DVD simulations to replace or supplement components of clinical fieldwork education should be investigated further.",
"For the production of computer-based learning environments, a wide range of software solutions can be used which differ not only in their functionality but also vary in cost and ease to program. The aim of our study was to evaluate the overall efficiency and student's perception of two case-based e-learning programs that were produced with either an easy-to-use or a complex software. Eighty-five dental students were randomly assigned to one of two experimental groups. One group studied with a laborious, high-interactive e-learning program (complex-software group). The second group studied within a low-interactive learning environment (easy-software group) that was easy to be programmed. Both programs identically referred to a case report on localised aggressive periodontitis. Learning outcome was tested by a pre- and post-test. Furthermore, questionnaires on workload, motivation, perceived usefulness and perceived learning outcome were used. Learners in the easy-software group showed better results in the post-test F(1, 82) = 4.173, P<0.044). Even easy-to-use software tools have the potential to be beneficial in dental education. Students were showing a high acceptance and ability in using both e-learning environments.",
"To explore whether a simulated critical care encounter can accelerate basic science learning among preclinical medical students. Using a high-fidelity patient simulator, we \"brought to life\" a paper case of a myocardial infarction among a convenience sample of first-year medical students (n=22 [intervention]). Students discussed the case as part of a routine tutorial session, and then managed the case in the simulator laboratory. Using an identical six-item test of cardiac physiology, students were evaluated immediately after the simulator session and at 1 year (n=15). Performance was compared with controls (case discussion but no simulator session) at both baseline (n=37) and 1 year (n=48). Performance among simulator-exposed students was significantly enhanced on immediate testing (mean score 4.0 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .005). Gains among the simulator cohort were maintained at 1 year (mean score 4.1 [control], 4.7 [intervention], P = .045). Multivariable analysis confirmed that the intervention was a significant determinant of performance across time (P = .001).",
"yes. Computer-based learning has a potentially significant role in the development of a training syllabus for CE and in CE accreditation.",
"yes. Our results suggest that computerised teaching methods have significant potential to assist in learning for both Chinese and foreign medical undergraduates.",
"Computers and other forms of information technology are increasingly used in medical education. We undertook a study to evaluate the place of the computer in the assessment of clinical skills of junior medical students. The history taking and physical examination skills of 136 third-year students were assessed in a series of structured and observed clinical stations and compared to their performance in similar computer-based problems. Students scored equally on the computer-based tasks and in the observed stations, but the weaker students who failed one or another component of the examination were more likely to pass at a clinical station and fail the computer task.",
"yes. On the basis of our findings we feel computer based teaching and learning is as effective as typical lecture based teaching sessions for educating postgraduates in EBM and systematic reviews.",
"The results confirm earlier studies in suggesting that the use of computer aided decision support improves diagnostic and decision making performance when dealing with patients suffering from acute abdominal pain. That use of the computer for teaching gave results at least as good as with its use for direct feedback may be highly relevant for those who are apprehensive about the real time use of diagnostic computers in a clinical setting.",
"E-learning is playing an increasing role in medical education, supporting a problem-based and practical oriented education without putting patients at risk and compensating for the decrease in instructor-centered teaching. Not much research has been done concerning learning effects and reaction on behalf of the students. We created computer-based cases for four important diagnoses in urology using the authoring system CASUS®. Fourth-year medical school students were randomized into two groups: (1) the CASUS® group, using the online cases for preparation, and (2) the book group, using a textbook. A multiple-choice test referring to the prepared topic had to be completed at the beginning of each lecture and the results were analyzed. Evaluation of the students concerning the acceptance of the program was done at the end of the semester. Members of the CASUS® group scored significantly higher with an average of 20% better test results than students using textbooks for preparation. Evaluation regarding the program showed a highly positive rating. Limitations include the small study population and the possibly biased test performance of the students.",
"yes. The GEL model of instructional design is significantly more effective than ELT for simulation-based learning of the central venous catheterization procedure, yielding large differences in effect size.",
"yes. (1) In a beta test of web-based scenarios that teach and assess clinical decision-making, resident scores improved by 25% from PGY 1 to PGY5 in a stepwise and statistically significant manner, suggesting that such exercises could serve as milestones for competency assessment. Additional studies are needed to acquire evidence for other forms of validity. (2) Repetition of cases after feedback led to highly significant increases in performance, suggesting that requiring repeated training to reach defined levels of competence is practical.",
"yes. A Web-based interactive educational program with minimal hospitalist involvement led to significant improvement in CE competence and was better than clinical training alone.",
"yes. In this study, the learner-control instructional multimedia program was found to be as effective as the program-control version when teaching principles of the orthodontic appliances to undergraduate students. Future work should focus on how to improve the value of computer-assisted learning (CAL), and comparative evaluations are still needed of how different CAL approaches compare with or complement one another.",
"yes. A novel, simulator-based curriculum that provides immediate feedback was effective in teaching both psychomotor and cognitive skills in FoCUS without need for direct expert oversight of the learner. The curriculum's components provide a useful tool that can be applied to improve, assess, and monitor physician skill in FoCUS.",
"yes. The cardiac auscultation skills of a group of volunteer family physicians showed low initial scores that improved significantly after self-study with a CD-ROM instructional program. The program was a valuable self-instructional aid, and physicians used it as a resource in clinical practice. However, only 50% of the initial group completed the self-study and returned for final assessment. Providing more support and assistance in the initial phase, especially with computer use, may enable completion of similar computerized self-study programs.",
"A software program was written which would allow students to study the anatomy and physiology of the liver and biliary tree in three different styles. Identical content was produced, matched for each style (problem-based, didactic and free text response) and students randomly allocated to one of four groups (three computer and one control). Students were tested before and after access to the program. Ninety second-year students completed the study. Those students who had access to the material in the problem-based and free text response styles did no better in the post-study test than the controls, whilst the group who had studied the didactically presented computer material performed significantly better than the other three groups. All three computer groups accessed the material on a similar number of occasions, but the group who had access to the free text entry program spent significantly less time on computer study.",
"The integration of information technology into nursing education requires a dramatic change in thinking. The 'learning curve' is steep for both student and educator and there are many issues that need to be considered. This research does not aim to provide solutions to the issues highlighted but rather offers recommendations for enhancing the teaching and learning experience.",
"It is feasible to design a software program to provide a standardized plotting format for ABPM, a basic analysis of data for day-to-day clinical work, or elaborate analyses for research, and an interpretative report to assist diagnosis and to provide an educational process for doctors and nurses not familiar with the technique.",
"yes. A computer tutorial program enhanced clinical reasoning skills in undergraduate dietetics students. This type of program could be used to supplement many topics taught in diet therapy and provide DPD students with experimental learning before their clinical intern practicums.",
"Computerized patient cases facilitate practice-oriented teaching and result in an interesting and engaging learning model with improved learning outcomes.",
"Computerised learning clearly offers exciting potential for improving student learning, either as an aid to or as a replacement for traditional formats, or for the development of innovative approaches. However, rigorous evaluation of the utility of computer-aided learning (CAL) in enhancing student learning can be difficult. Many studies have compared CAL to more traditional learning formats, but there is little evidence to show which style of CAL leads to the best learning outcomes.AIM: This study aimed to test the hypothesis that a CAL tutorial, in which the learner actively interacts with the computer, will result in superior learning (ability to apply and retain knowledge) to that obtained in more passive CAL formats. Third year medical undergraduates at Adelaide University, South Australia were randomly assigned to 4 groups. Following a pretest, only students in the \"didactic\", \"problem-based\" and \"free text\" groups had 2 weeks of free access to a neuroradiology CAL tutorial in their assigned format. Tutorial access was denied to all students 2 weeks before post-testing. Learning was quantified by comparing the post- to pretest scores for each of the 4 groups. After active interaction with the computer material, students in the free text group demonstrated a statistically significant improvement in their ability to apply and retain knowledge compared to the control group, but no advantage compared to the didactic group.",
"Use of computers in medicine, as tools for information and education, is increasing. Many computer-assisted learning tools have been marketed. For clinician-teachers, computer-assisted learning offers interesting possibilities. Is this educational technology within the reach of family physicians? To describe development of a computer-based learning tool and to suggest indications for its use. A team of clinician-teachers and information technologists developed a tool called Didacticiel sur l'Aviseur to train family physicians and family medicine residents on a clinical decision-making tool called l'Aviseur pharmacothérapeutique, which consists of a database and nine search functions. The Didacticiel in turn consists of an interactive guided tour, a series of exercises with formative evaluation and feedback, a real-time test with a final evaluation, and an integrated, multidimensional project evaluation program.",
"yes. The very positive response to the e-program and improved test scores demonstrated the effectiveness of our e-course as a learning aid. Interactive modules in step with clinical practice provided learning that is not achieved by traditional teaching methods alone. To what extent staff savings are possible is part of a further study.",
"yes. Game-based e-learning is more effective than a script-based approach for the training of urinalysis in regard to cognitive learning outcome and has a high positive motivational impact on learning. Game-based e-learning can be used as an effective teaching method for self-instruction.",
"We have developed both a computer-assisted instruction (CAI) multimedia program and a textbook on arterial blood gas interpretation with the same content as formal didactic instruction. A prospective, randomized study was designed to compare the outcomes of self-learning using the software and using the textbook. 80 third-year medical students were randomly allocated to two groups: the CAI (n=40) and text group (n=40). A 30-item, type-K examination was administered as the pre-test. After the pre-test, the volunteers in the CAI group studied the software program, whereas those in the text group spent their time reading the textbook covering the same material. The post-test was held immediately at the end of a full day of study, and 3 weeks later, the final test was performed without prior notice. A P value of<0.05 was considered to be a statistically significant difference. Students in the text group seemed to fulfil their assignments and improved their scores post-test better than those in the CAI group. After 3 weeks, the final test scores of both groups demonstrated a significant decrease, but showed an insignificant difference between the two groups.",
"This study has shown that computer-based clinical simulations can be constructed to supplement conventional assessment processes in clinical medicine and may have a role in increasing their reliability.",
"When compared with more traditional instructional methods, Game-based e-learning (GbEl) promises a higher motivation of learners by presenting contents in an interactive, rule-based and competitive way. Most recent systematic reviews and meta-analysis of studies on Game-based learning and GbEl in the medical professions have shown limited effects of these instructional methods. To compare the effectiveness on the learning outcome of a Game-based e-learning (GbEl) instruction with a conventional script-based instruction in the teaching of phase contrast microscopy urinalysis under routine training conditions of undergraduate medical students. A randomized controlled trial was conducted with 145 medical students in their third year of training in the Department of Urology at the University Medical Center Freiburg, Germany. 82 subjects where allocated for training with an educational adventure-game (GbEl group) and 69 subjects for conventional training with a written script-based approach (script group). Learning outcome was measured with a 34 item single choice test. Students' attitudes were collected by a questionnaire regarding fun with the training, motivation to continue the training and self-assessment of acquired knowledge. The students in the GbEl group achieved significantly better results in the cognitive knowledge test than the students in the script group: the mean score was 28.6 for the GbEl group and 26.0 for the script group of a total of 34.0 points with a Cohen's d effect size of 0.71 (ITT analysis). Attitudes towards the recent learning experience were significantly more positive with GbEl. Students reported to have more fun while learning with the game when compared to the script-based approach.",
"Developing a computerized learning tool is a worthwhile investment if the content has longevity; the learning process is highly interactive; there is a market for the product; and the tool is developed by a team of experienced, committed information technologists."
] | 253 |
Can sonographic signs predict long-term results of laparoscopic cholecystectomy? | [
"To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy.",
"This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance."
] | [
"We investigated the association between the magnetic resonance cholangiography (MRC) results and surgical difficulties and bile duct injuries during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). MRC was performed on 695 consecutive patients before LC. We divided the patients into two groups (visible cystic duct group and \"no signal\" cystic duct on MRC group) and compared them with regard to the length of the operation, conversion rate to open cholecystectomy (OC) and rate of bile duct injury. The \"no signal\" cystic duct on MRC group had a longer operation and higher rate of conversion to OC compared with the visible cystic duct group. However, there was no statistically significant difference in the occurrence rate of bile duct injury between the two groups.",
"We sought to determine whether a reduced gallbladder ejection fraction, (GBEF) ascertained by cholecystokinin-cholescintigraphy (CCK-CS), predicts symptomatic improvement after cholecystectomy. Medical records of patients who had had CCK-CS as well as negative results of gallbladder ultrasonography were reviewed, and patients were contacted by telephone to determine whether they had benefited from cholecystectomy. There were 35 patients (33 female, 2 male) who had a decreased GBEF. Cholecystectomy was done in 30, of whom 20 (67%) had resolution of pain, 8 (27%) had partial improvement, and 2 (7%) had no change. The 5 who declined cholecystectomy included none (0%) who were pain free, 2 (40%) who had partial improvement, and 3 (60%) who had no change. The clinical outcome of the two groups was significantly different. There were 14 patients (10 female, 4 male) with a normal GBEF. The 2 patients who had cholecystectomy were asymptomatic. Of the 12 patients who did not have cholecystectomy, 9 (75%) were asymptomatic, 1 (8%) had some improvement, and 2 (17%) had no change.",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the accepted treatment for symptomatic cholelithiasis. This study examines the effect LC has on quality of life (QOL) and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms and determines whether patients with symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) gain the same benefit as those without. A total of 158 patients who underwent LC for symptomatic gallstones were recruited to this prospective observational study. IBS Manning scores were calculated and QOL was measured using the Gastrointestinal Quality of Life Index (GIQLI) preoperatively, at 6 weeks, 3 months, and 2 years postoperatively. Linear regression analysis was used to identify preoperative symptoms that predict outcome. One hundred twelve patients had sufficient data sets for inclusion. Patient's GIQLI scores were calculated for the four time points in the study. The mean preoperative score was 88.8 ± 1.3 (61.7% of 144, the highest score possible) and improved 6 weeks after surgery to 105.5 ± 1.3 (p < 0.001). This improvement was maintained at 3 months, but at 2 years analysis showed regression toward the baseline of 7.6 ± 2.3 (p = 0.003) points. There was a negative correlation of -5.2 ± 1.29 (p < 0.001) points between each Manning symptom and QOL scores. The largest effect was seen in patients describing loose bowel movement with the onset of pain. Patients with this symptom had a -17.3 ± 4.6 (p < 0.001) lower global QOL score.",
"This study was designed to assess the satisfaction or otherwise of a proportion of the U.K. population who have undergone standard four-port laparoscopic cholecystectomy within the past 18 months. The results should indicate whether there is potential demand for a new, improved approach to surgery. Patients who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy between October 2008 and October 2009 in two geographically separated general hospitals were identified from hospital databases. Notes were reviewed to confirm the technique and lack of conversion to an open procedure. Those who had immediate complications were excluded. A telephone questionnaire was conducted to answer questions related to long-term cosmetic and general satisfaction of the current procedure. Of the patients surveyed, 93% were happy or extremely happy with the current procedure, 48% experienced some wound-related issues (pain, infection), and 65% of those were at the umbilicus (a possible reflection of location and retrieval site for gallbladder). Cosmesis was rated less important than hospital cleanliness and experience of the surgeon.",
"yes. An elevated ALT strongly supports a diagnosis of gallstones in AP. Abdominal ultrasound effectively confirms this diagnosis; however, a negative ultrasound in the presence of a raised ALT does not exclude gallstones. In some patients consideration could be given to proceeding to laparoscopic cholecystectomy based on ALT alone.",
"To determine the accuracy of routine gallbladder ultrasound in the detection of crystals in bile. Preoperative ultrasonography was performed in 40 patients undergoing elective cholecystectomy. Bile was aspirated at operation and examined microscopically for the presence and quantity of crystals. Six patients had echogenic bile, five of whom had large numbers of crystals at microscopy, and one only a few crystals. Thirty-four patients had hypoechoic bile, nine had large numbers of crystals and 25 of these had few or no crystals at microscopy. For those patients with echogenic bile (hyper- or isoechoic) the sensitivity for detection of large numbers of crystals was 5/14 (35.7%) with a specificity of 25/26 (96%). However, if the bile was hypoechoic the sensitivity was 9/14 (65%).",
"The purpose of our study was to determine, first, if gallbladder wall striations in patients with sonographic findings suspicious for acute cholecystitis are associated with gangrenous changes and certain histologic features; and, second, if WBC count or other sonographic findings are associated with gangrenous cholecystitis. Sixty-eight patients who underwent cholecystectomies within 48 hours of sonography comprised the study group. Sonograms and reports were reviewed for wall thickness, striations, Murphy sign, pericholecystic fluid, wall irregularity, intraluminal membranes, and luminal short-axis diameter. Medical records were reviewed for WBC count and pathology reports for the diagnosis. Histologic specimens were reviewed for pathologic changes. Statistical analyses tested for associations between nongangrenous and gangrenous cholecystitis and sonographic findings and for associations between wall striations and histologic features. Ten patients had gangrenous cholecystitis and 57, nongangrenous cholecystitis. One had cholesterolosis. Thirty patients had wall striations: 60% had gangrenous and 42% nongangrenous cholecystitis. There was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.32). There was no association between any histologic feature and wall striations (p ≥ 0.19). A Murphy sign was reported in 70% of patients with gangrenous cholecystitis and in 82% with nongangrenous cholecystitis; there was no association with the pathology diagnosis (p = 0.39). Wall thickness and WBC count were greater in patients with gangrenous cholecystitis than in those with nongangrenous cholecystitis (p ≤ 0.04).",
"There is minimal data on the outcome of early laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) for acute gallbladder disease when performed by trainees. This study assesses the outcomes of a policy of same admission LC incorporated into a surgical training programme in a major teaching hospital. 447 index LCs performed over a 3-year period were reviewed retrospectively. The indications, operating surgeon, operating time, use of IOC, conversion rates, reasons for conversion and post-operative stay were analysed. Multivariate analysis of reasons for conversion was performed. 150 LCs were performed by consultants and 297 by registrars; 67 were performed by year 1-3 specialist registrars (SpR) and 230 by year 4-6 SpRs. The indications were biliary colic (n=7), acute cholecystitis (n=180), chronic cholecystitis (n=260), carcinoma (n=1). No difference was found in demographics, operating time (105 min Vs 115 min), use of IOC (34% Vs 29%; P=0.2) and post-operative stay (2 days Vs 1 day) between consultants and registrars. The conversion rates were higher for consultants compared to registrars (29 (19%) Vs 28 (9%), P=0.004). The overall conversion rate was 11%. There were no bile duct injuries. Predictors for conversion were CRP>50 at admission and acute cholecystitis.",
"Endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) is indicated in patients with confirmed bile duct stones at endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). The role of ES in patients with suspected bile duct stones but a normal cholangiogram, in the prevention of recurrent biliary symptoms, when cholecystectomy is not planned, is unclear.AIM: To determine if prophylactic ES prevents further biliary problems in such patients. Patients were identified with gallbladder stones presenting with jaundice, abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) or dilated bile ducts on ultrasound, in whom cholecystectomy was not planned and who had a normal cholangiogram at ERCP. Patients were followed-up to determine the frequency of recurrent biliary problems or repeat investigations. Forty-one patients were included, of whom 20 had an ES. The frequency of pre-ERCP features did not differ between the two groups. Median follow-up was 32 months (range 15-66). Post-ERCP recurrent abdominal pain (5 vs 3; p=0.39), jaundice (3 vs 1; p=0.28), pancreatitis (0 vs 1; p=0.32), and repeat ultrasound (2 vs 1; p=0.52), ERCP (1 vs 1; p=0.97) or cholecystectomy (2 vs 3, p=0.82) did not differ between the two groups.",
"We investigated routinely the bile ducts by magnetic resonance cholangiopancreaticography (MRCP) prior to cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to analyze the rate of clinically inapparent common bile duct (CBD) stones, the predictive value of elevated liver enzymes for CBD stones, and the influence of the radiological results on the perioperative management. In this prospective study, 465 patients were cholecystectomized within 18 months, mainly laparoscopically. Preoperative MRCP was performed in 454 patients. With MRCP screening, clinically silent CBD stones were found in 4%. Elevated liver enzymes have only a poor predictive value for the presence of CBD stones (positive predictive value, 21%; negative predictive value, 96%). Compared to the recent literature, the postoperative morbidity in this study was low (0 bile duct injury, 0.4% residual gallstones).",
"When performing cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we often encounter problems, such as adhesions, nutritional insufficiency, and bowel reconstruction. The purpose of this study was to identify the factors related to surgical outcome of these associated procedures, with emphasis on the use of a laparoscopic approach. We retrospectively analyzed data from 58 patients who had a history of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy. Differences between subgroups with respect to operation time, length of postoperative hospital stay, and complications were analyzed. To identify the factors related with outcomes of cholecystectomy after gastrectomy, we performed multivariable analysis with the following variables: common bile duct (CBD) exploration, laparoscopic surgery, gender, acute cholecystitis, history of stomach cancer, age, body mass index, period of surgery, and interval between cholecystectomy and gastrectomy. We found one case (2.9%) of open conversion. The CBD exploration was the most significant independent factor (adjusted odds ratio (OR), 45.15; 95% confidence interval (CI), 4.53-450.55) related to longer operation time. Acute cholecystitis also was a significant independent factor (adjusted OR, 14.66; 95% CI, 1.46-147.4). The laparoscopic approach was not related to operation time but was related to a shorter hospital stay (adjusted OR, 0.057; 95% CI, 0.004-0.74). Acute cholecystitis was independently related to the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 27.68; 95% CI, 1.15-666.24); however, CBD exploration and laparoscopic surgery were not. A lower BMI also was an independent predictor of the occurrence of complications (adjusted OR, 0.41; 95% CI, 0.2-0.87).",
"Iatrogenic bile duct injury is a serious complication of cholecystectomy. The aim of this study was to assess predictors of bile duct injury using a national database. The Nationwide Inpatient Sample (2010-2012) was queried for laparoscopic cholecystectomy. We used a) diagnoses for bile duct injury and b) bile duct injury repair procedure codes as a surrogate marker for bile duct injuries. A total of 1,015 patients had bile duct injury. The mean age was 58.2 ± 19.7 years, 53.5 % were males, and median Charlson co-morbidity score was 2 [2, 3]. Multivariate analysis revealed morbid obesity [2.8 (2.1-4.3); p = 0.03] and age >65 [1.5 (1.05-2.1); p = 0.01] as the independent predictors for bile duct injury in patients undergoing cholecystectomy.",
"The purpose of this study was to evaluate the natural history of patients undergoing Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP) with known asymptomatic cholelithiasis in whom prophylactic cholecystectomy was not performed at the time of surgery. The records of 144 consecutive patients from a single year experience in RYGBP surgery at the University of California, Davis Medical Center were reviewed. Patients undergoing RYGBP were routinely screened for cholelithiasis by ultrasound. Patients who did not have cholecystectomy were managed with ursodiol for 6 months postoperatively. 13 males (9.0%) and 131 females (91%) underwent RYGBP. The mean age was 43 years (SD 8.55), and mean BMI was 46 kg/m2 (SD 6.5). The comorbidities of our patient population included diabetes (14%), hypertension (48%), gastroesophageal reflux disease (50%), dyslipidemia (35%), obstructive sleep apnea (31%), and musculoskeletal complaints (69%). 22 patients were diagnosed with cholelithiasis by ultrasonography preoperatively. 9 of these patients (41%) were symptomatic and underwent concurrent cholecystectomy and RYGBP. The remaining 13 patients (59%) had asymptomatic cholelithiasis preoperatively but did not undergo cholecystectomy at the time of surgery. Only one of these asymptomatic patients eventually developed symptoms necessitating cholecystectomy at up to 1 year follow-up.",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a safe modality of treatment for acute cholecystitis. Factors associated with increased conversion rate are thickened gallbladder wall on ultrasonography and delay in surgery for more than 48 hours from the onset of symptoms.",
"In standard laparoscopic cholecystectomy the umbilical incision frequently requires secondary enlargement, especially if a large stone mass is involved. Therefore, the cosmetic result after laparoscopic cholecystectomy depends on more than only the technique used for access and the surgical technique for cholecystectomy should be chosen individually for each patient according to the stone mass.",
"Laparoscopic common bile duct exploration (LCBDE) is more expensive and time consuming than its conventional counterpart. Therefore, it should only be performed when there is near certainty that stones are present. The purpose of this study was to identify patients who should be spared LCBDE despite an abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram. Of 700 consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomies performed between 1989 and 1994 by a single surgeon (R.J.F.), 41 had abnormal intraoperative cholangiograms (6%). All 41 patients were treated by either immediate CBDE (19) (conventional or laparoscopic) or had postoperative follow-up cholangiograms (22). The patients were retrospectively assigned to one of three groups. Group I patients had a single \"soft\" indicator of choledocholithiasis. Group II patients had one or more of the following: (1) a highly suspicious abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram, (2) two or more \"soft\" indicators of choledocholithiasis, or (3) preoperative clinical findings such as elevated liver function studies or positive preoperative radiological studies. Group III patients had proven choledocholithiasis. In group I, there were 11 patients, none of whom underwent immediate CBDE. Eight of the 11 (73%) had normal follow-up cholangiograms due to either spontaneous stone passage or a false-positive intraoperative cholangiogram. There were 27 patients in group II; 19 underwent immediate CBDE with 100% stone recovery. The remaining 8 had delayed treatment and in five stones were recovered, while three had normal postoperative cholangiograms suggesting spontaneous stone passage. In group III, all three had negative follow-up cholangiograms despite proven choledocholithiasis. Spontaneous stone passage in this group seemed highly likely.",
"We aimed to compare laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) and simultaneous laparoscopic transcystic common bile duct exploration (LTCBDE) using an ultrathin choledochoscope with LC followed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERC) and endoscopic sphincterotomy (ES) when indicated. We retrospectively reviewed the records of patients seen between 2004 and 2014 and treated with LC+LTCBDE or LC for gallstones and suspected choledocholithiasis. Postoperative complications and surgical outcomes were compared using t-test, Mann-Whitney U test, or chi-square test. 115 patients underwent successful LC+LTCBDE and 112 LC; follow-up data was available for 103 and 106 patients, respectively. Seventeen patients (16.5%) in the LC+LTCBDE group and 10 (28.6%) in the LC+ERC+ES group developed complications (P = 0.114). The LC+LTCBDE group had a significantly higher rate of satisfactory biliary function outcomes than the LC+ERC+ES group (98.1% vs. 85.7%, respectively) (P = 0.017).",
"Acute cholecystitis is a common diagnosis and surgery is the standard of care for young and fit patients. However, due to high risk of postoperative morbidity and mortality, surgical management of critically ill patients remains a controversy. It is not clear, whether the increased risk of perioperative complications associated with the management of critically ill patients with acute cholecystitis is secondary to reduced physiologic reserve per se or to the severity of gallbladder inflammation. A retrospective analysis of prospectively collected data of patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis in a university hospital over a three-year-period was performed. The ASA scores at the time of presentation were used to categorize patients into two groups. The study group consisted of critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group was made up of fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were compared with regard to perioperative data, postoperative outcome and extent of gallbladder inflammation on histopathology. Two hundred and seventeen cases of acute cholecystitis with complete charts were available for analysis. The study group included 67 critically ill patients with ASA 3 and 4, while the control group included 150 fit patients with ASA 1 and 2. Both groups were comparable with regard to perioperative data. Histopathology confirmed severe cholecystitis in a significant number of cases in the study group compared to the control group (37 % vs. 18 %, p = 0.03). Significantly higher rates of morbidity and mortality were recorded in the study group (p < 0.05). Equally, significantly more patients from the study group were managed in the ICU (40 % vs. 8 %, p = 0.001).",
"To evaluate the effect of cholecystectomy in patients with gallstones on preoperative abdominal symptoms. A systematic search was made of the Medline database in combination with reference checking. Articles were excluded if patients aged<18 years, symptom relief rates could not be calculated, if follow-up after cholecystectomy was less than 1 month, or when the included patients were at extraordinary risk for a complicated outcome. Potential differences in relief rates due to patient selection, retrospective versus prospective design, duration of follow-up, or intervention were analyzed using logistic regression. The pooled relief rate for \"biliary pain\" was high 92% (95% confidence interval 86 to 96%). Symptom relief rates were consistently higher in studies that included acute cholecystectomies. For upper abdominal pain--without restrictions for intensity or duration--pooled relief rates ranged from 72% (66 to 77%) after elective cholecystectomy, to 86% (83 to 91%) after acute cholecystectomy. The relief rate of food intolerance was higher in studies with a follow-up<or =12 months (88%, 76 to 91%) compared to studies with a follow-up of more than 12 months (65%, 55 to 74%).",
"Gallstone disease is a frequent and economically highly relevant disorder, with cholecystectomy representing one of the most frequently performed operations world-wide. Gallstone recurrence after cholecystectomy is associated with complications such as biliary sepsis and pancreatitis. As yet, variant ABCG8-D19H is the most widely recognized genetic risk factor for gallstone disease. The aim of the study is to investigate whether ABCG8-D19H is associated with gallstone recurrence after cholecystectomy. Two thousand three hundred and eight patients from an earlier study of gallstone risk factors were re-contacted by mail, leading to 1,915 patients with available clinical and genetic information. Symptomatic gallstone recurrence was established if it occurred more than six months after surgery. Median follow-up time after cholecystectomy was eight years. Gallstones recurred in 37 patients (1.9%). ABCG-D19H was found to be significantly associated with gallstone recurrence (p = 0.034). The allelic odds ratio was 1.97 (95% CI 1.12-∞). In a multivariate logistic regression analysis adjusted for age, sex, BMI and type of surgery, ABCG8-D19H remained a significant predictor, both in the total cohort (p = 0.024) and in the subgroup for whom information on type and scheduling of surgery was available (N = 1,650, p = 0.020).",
"Biliary endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) and endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERC) are equally accurate for the diagnosis of common bile duct (CBD) stone. The aim of this prospective 1-year follow-up study was to determine whether normal findings at initial EUS obviated the need for ERC. During a 17-month period, all patients referred for biliary EUS because of suspicion of CBD stone, in whom EUS findings were normal were included in the study. Early (1-month) and late (1-year) follow-up details were obtained by mail or telephone. The clinical course and need for ERC were recorded. 238 patients were enrolled. During follow-up, 59 (25 %) patients underwent cholecystectomy, with (n=31) or without (n=28) cholangiography, and 30 patients underwent ERC (13 %). CBD stone was found in 14 (6 %) patients. Of these 30 patients, ERC was done in 15 cases in the first week after EUS, because of persistent suspicion of a CBD stone which was found in 10 patients. The 15 late ERC procedures (carried out more than 1 week after EUS) revealed only one CBD stone. The negative predictive value of EUS for the diagnosis of CBD stones was 95.4 %.",
"Because of its inherent risks, ERCP should only be performed for purposes of treatment. EUS and MRCP have emerged as diagnostic alternatives before therapeutic ERCP. Our purpose was to test the accuracy of EUS in predicting the need for therapeutic ERCP in low-risk patients. Prospective, unblinded, single-center study. Academic center of the University of Witten/Herdecke. Fifty patients with clinical, laboratory, or transabdominal US findings suggestive of biliary obstruction were included. After clinical assessment and US, all patients underwent EUS. If EUS was conclusive, either ERCP with sphincterotomy (EST) was performed or the patients were followed up for 1 year. If EUS was inconclusive, MRCP was performed, followed by ERCP or a 1-year follow-up. After each diagnostic step, the examiner decided whether any biliary conditon was present and whether therapeutic ERCP was necessary. The decicions were compared with the results of ERCP with EST or the outcome after the 1-year follow-up. Accuracy of EUS in predicting the need for therapeutic ERCP. Nine patients had ERCP with EST. The final assessment classified 2 of these interventions as having been unnecessary. EUS was conclusive in 49 cases. After EUS, the accuracy of the decision on the presence of a biliary condition increased from 82% to 96% and on the need for therapeutic ERCP from 86% to 96%.",
"yes. The authors confirmed their hypothesis that deterioration in wall motion detected by intraoperative echocardiography after CABG surgery is associated with increased risk of long-term adverse cardiac morbidity. Worsening wall motion after CABG surgery should be considered a prognostic indicator of adverse cardiovascular outcome.",
"yes. Sonographic gallbladder abnormalities are associated with higher CRP, GPT, neutrophil and IVIG resistance in KD. It can be used as a predictor of IVIG resistance in patients with KD.",
"Several reports claim that there is a risk that laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) might worsen the prognosis of unsuspected gallbladder cancer. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether the surgical approach influence the outcome in patients with incidental gallbladder carcinoma. A retrospective study was done of 28 patients who were diagnosed with unsuspected gallbladder carcinoma who had undergone cholecystectomy for benign gallbladder disease at our institution between 1999 and 2007. 20 patients (4 men and 16 women, aged from 37 to 81 years) undergoing LC (group A) and 8 patients (6 men and 2 women, aged from 43 to 88 years) undergoing open cholecystectomy (OC) (group B) with incidental diagnosed GC. We evaluated the outcome in the two groups correlating the cumulative survival rates with tumor stage and surgical technique (LC or OC), time of diagnosis (after or during cholecystectomy). nine patients (69.2 %) in group A and four patients (30.8%) in group B had recurrence. Survival rate was statistically correlated to tumor stage (P<0.0001) Survival rate was statistically correlated with tumor stage but neither with the surgical approach used to perform cholecystectomy, nor with time of diagnosis (intra- or post-operatively).",
"The quest for less traumatic abdominal approaches is changing paradigms in times of minimally invasive surgery. While natural orifice translumenal endoscopic surgery remains experimental, the single-incision approach could be the future of gallbladder surgery. Prospectively collected data from 875 patients subjected to conventional single-incision laparoscopic cholecystectomy (SILC) or 4-port [laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC)] were retrospectively analyzed and discussed with the current literature. Between 2008 and 2011, 201 (23%) SILCs and 674 (77%) LCs were performed. Mean age was 51.7±17.5 years (SILC: 45.1 vs. LC: 53.7 y). Patients were predominantly female (SILC: 75.1% vs. LC: 56.5%). Preoperative body mass index was 27.4±9.1 (SILC: 26.4 vs. LC: 27.8; P<0.05) and American Society of Anesthesiologists' score counted 1.67±0.57 in SILC and 1.86±0.7 in LC patients. Acute inflammation of the gallbladder (AIG) was not considered as a contraindication for SILC (AIG in SILC: 17.4% vs. LC: 35.5%). The mean operative time was significantly lower in the SILC group (SILC: 71±31 vs. LC: 79±27 min) and duration of postoperative hospital stay was shorter (SILC: 3.2±1.7 vs. LC: 4.5±2.6 d). No significant difference was observed between SILC and LC in any of the registered complications, including postoperative bleeding, trocar hernias, wound infection, abdominal abscess formation, bile duct injury, or cystic duct leakage.",
"The correlation between the pathological diagnosis and intraoperative findings is poor. Preoperative clinical findings of acute cholecystitis are highly reliable for predicting intraoperative gross findings. However, intraoperative findings of acute cholecystitis are commonly found in the absence of preoperative clinical signs. Recommendations for surgical therapy should be based on studies which use either operative findings or the preoperative clinical findings as the basis for patient selection.",
"Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is commonly used for postoperative evaluation of an abnormal intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC). Although a normal IOC is very suggestive of a disease-free common bile duct (CBD), abnormal studies are associated with high false-positive rates. This study aimed to identify a subset of patients with abnormal IOC who would benefit from a postoperative ERCP. This prospective study investigated 51 patients with abnormal IOC at laparoscopic cholecystectomy who underwent postoperative ERCP at two tertiary referral centers over a 3-year period. Univariate and multivariate logistic regression analyses were performed to determine predictors of CBD stones at postoperative ERCP. For all 51 patients, ERCP was successful. The ERCP showed CBD stones in 33 cases (64.7%), and normal results in 18 cases (35.2%). On univariate analysis, abnormal liver function tests (p<0.0001) as well as IOC findings of a large CBD stone (p = 0.03), multiple stones (p = 0.01), and a dilated CBD (p = 0.07) predicted the presence of retained stones at postoperative ERCP. However, on multivariable analysis, only abnormal liver function tests correlated with the presence of CBD stones (p<0.0001).",
"To assess the safety of confining histological examination to gall bladders with radiological and macroscopic features suggestive of cancer. Retrospective study. Setting Department of Histopathology, National Hospital of Sri Lanka. Analysis of all cholecystectomies performed at a tertiary care hospital during a one year period. Computerised histopathological reports and case notes were studied. Four hundred and seventy seven patients had undergone cholecystectomy for symptomatic gall stones. Four of these patients were found to have gall bladder cancer. In two of them the diagnosis had been suspected on pre-operative ultrasound scan. In the other two, gall bladder cancer was suspected at the time of surgery. Gall bladder cancer was found in 0.8% of specimens and it was suspected perioperatively in all these patients.",
"The purpose of this prospective controlled study was to evaluate the diagnostic potential of spiral computed tomographic (CT) cholangiography in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. 60 patients (17 men, 43 women, mean age 54.5 years, range 15-84 years) with symptomatic cholecystolithiasis were included in this study. After infusion of meglumine jodoxamate, all patients underwent upper abdominal spiral CT. The results of the spiral CT scan were then compared with endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERC) or intraoperative cholangiography. In 53 patients (88%) CT cholangiography was considered to be technically adequate for interpretation, but was suboptimal in 4 patients (7%) and nondiagnostic in 3 patients (5%), respectively. CT cholangiography showed a stone free common bile duct in 51 patients which was correct in all cases. CT cholangiography predicted a common bile duct stone in 6 patients which proved to be correct in 4 patients but was found to be incorrect in 2 patients.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that conversion to open cholecystectomy can be predicted based on parameters available preoperatively. Conversion is more likely in patients who have acute cholecystitis; however, the correlation between its clinical and pathologic diagnosis is poor. Improvements in the ability to determine the risk for conversion have important implications for surgical care.",
"Perforation of the gallbladder and spillage of gallstones frequently occur in laparoscopic cholecystectomy. As stones may be lost and as spilled bile is known to be contaminated, influence on morbidity may be expected. To evaluate the immediate and late consequences on morbidity of peroperative gallbladder perforation during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) in an universitary hospital center. One hundred and twenty one LC were prospectively evaluated with a mean follow-up of 30 months. Elective operations on 30 men and 91 women with a mean age of 56.4 years (18-85) were carried out for symptomatic cholecystolithiasis in 97 cases (80%), and in 24 cases for complicated cholecystolithiasis. The \"french technique\" was used for all LC, with systematic intra-operative cholangiography and ultra Sonography. Thirty-seven (30.5%) LC were performed by surgical trainees, 84 LC by confirmed surgeons. The consequences of ultra-operative gallbladder perforation were evaluated in the immediate postoperative period, especially for septic complications, and thereafter, patients were followed up 1, 6, 12 and 24 months postoperatively. Ultra-operative gallbladder perforation occurred in 24 cases (20%), in 83.3% during gallbladder dissection. Gallstone spillage occurred six times, and all spilled stones were removed. Gallbladder perforation was more frequent (but non significant) in acute cholecystitis (25 vs 19%, ns). A clear correlation to the skill and experience of the surgeon is shown (32.4 vs 14.2%, P =0.01). Gallbladder perforation is accompanied by an elevated (nonsignificant) postoperative morbidity (16.6 vs 7.2%, P =0.62) which is, in fact related to older patient and more acute cholecystitis in this group. No reoperations were necessary. One and two years follow-up revealed no long-term complications specially due to lost gallstones.",
"Laparoscopic and endoscopic ultrasound is used to assess resectability of gastrointestinal malignancies. Lymph node size greater than 1 cm is a criterion used to identify suspicious nodes. We define size and echo characteristics of suprapancreatic and periportal nodes to determine if this criterion is reliable for suprapancreatic and periportal lymph nodes. A prospective study of 21 patients with nonacute gallbladder disease was performed. Each underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy with intraoperative ultrasound. The suprapancreatic and periportal nodes were evaluated in a transverse and longitudinal axis. Length and width measurements were taken in both orientations. Length-to-width ratios were calculated. Shape and echo textures were characterized. The mean size of both nodes was greater than 1 cm in the transverse and longitudinal orientation. Two nodes were \"round.\" Remaining nodes were \"oblong.\" All nodes had a hyperechoic center with a hypoechoic rim.",
"Transabdominal ultrasonography (TAUS) is the most commonly used modality to diagnose gallbladder (GB) disease. GB polyps are reported in 1-5.6 % of TAUS studies. Histopathologic studies suggest that there is a relationship between GB polyps and GB cancer. Previous literature suggests GB polyps reported on TAUS do not correlate well with histological findings. There have been recent advances in TAUS technology. We hypothesize the recent advances in TAUS technology have improved the accuracy of TAUS for diagnosing GB polyps. Radiology and pathology databases at our tertiary care center were retrospectively searched between January 1, 2000, and December 31, 2010. Ultrasound reports that suggested a GB polyp was present on TAUS were correlated to histopathology in cases where a cholecystectomy was performed. The pathology reports where a GB polyp was found were correlated with preoperative TAUS reports. There were 102,740 TAUS reports referring to the GB, of which 6,612 (6.4 %) contained search terms suggesting a GB polyp was present. There were 13,278 cholecystectomy pathology reports, of which 159 (1.2 %) included a diagnosis of GB polyp. TAUS detected only 50 % of the polyps identified on histopathology. The sensitivity and specificity of TAUS for diagnosing GB polyps were 50.0 and 98.3 %, respectively. The positive and negative predictive values were 10.5 and 99.8 %.",
"yes. ABCG8-D19H is a predictor of gallstone recurrence, a major long term postoperative biliary complication. Moreover, the observed association also reemphasizes the importance of the sterolin transporter for stone formation.",
"The role of hepatobiliary scintiscan (HIDA) in children suspected to be having functional biliary tract disease has not been studied. We evaluated HIDA scan results as long-term prognostic indicators for biliary dyskinesia with or without intervention. Children who had HIDA scan for chronic abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting were included. These children had inconclusive gastrointestinal diagnostic workup. HIDA scan was performed according to a standardized protocol. Clinical data were collected by retrospective chart review. A telephonic survey was done 5 years after the initial HIDA scan to document long-term outcome. Forty-two of 61 children had abnormal HIDA scan. There was no difference between children with normal and abnormal HIDA results in clinical presentations, short-term (85.7% and 84.2%) and long-term (64.9% and 60%) outcomes. Twenty-seven of the 42 children with abnormal scan results underwent interventions (21 cholecystectomy only, 4 cholecystectomy followed by sphincter of Oddi sphincterotomy, and 2 sphincterotomy only). After intervention, children with abnormal HIDA scan had better short-term prognosis (88.9% and 54.5%), but their long-term prognosis (52.2% and 85.7%) was worse than those without intervention. No clinical prognostic factor could be identified.",
"A knowledge of the predictive factors of the development and persistence of symptoms in gallstone patients (GS) plays a key role in clinical decision making. The aim of this study was to evaluate the presence of predictive factors for biliary pain development in GS, stressing the role of gallbladder motility. A total of 153 (104 women, 49 men) consecutive GS were enrolled. Gallbladder motility (%Emptying [%E], residual volume [RV]) was evaluated by ultrasonography and biliary symptoms were evaluated using a specific questionnaire in all GS at baseline and after 4 yr of follow-up. At enrolment, 61 GS reported recent (GSr) and 31 GS remote (GSo) (>2 yr before) episodes of biliary pain, and 61 were asymptomatic (GSa). At baseline, GSr showed a greater %E and a smaller RV than both GSo and GSa (p<0.001). After follow-up, biliary pain developed more frequently in GSr (33.3%) than in GSo (16%) and GSa (15%) (p= 0.04). The search for predictive factors of biliary pain development (by univariate and multivariate analyses) revealed a high %E, a small RV, and a history of biliary pain as risk factors.",
"yes. Negative preoperative ultrasonography with specific lymph node evaluation predicts a low risk of needing early reoperation. Positive preoperative ultrasonography may be a marker for more aggressive disease and the best predictor of the need for additional surgery in the future.",
"The incidence of recurrence of cancer in the abdominal wall was increased, but the medium-term prognosis was not worsened by laparoscopy. It does not appear necessary to exclude patients with cholecystitis or gallbladder wall hypertrophy from undergoing laparoscopic procedures on the grounds that they might have gallbladder cancer.",
"To evaluate long-term effects of cholecystectomy on typical gallstone symptoms and associated digestive syndrome. Clinical prospective study on selected patients. First Surgical Clinic--Catania University. 143 gallstone patients, divided in highly symptomatic Group 1 (79) and mild symptomatic Group 2 (64), who underwent cholecystectomy during period 1991/92. 125/143 patients compiled a set questionnaire to detect any subjective postoperative disorders and to evaluate whether they were similar to preoperative symptoms or were new ones. 125/143 patients completed the 12-month follow-up programme, which revealed a 30% (38/125) with postcholecystectomy symptoms and 13.4% (17) with a postcholecystectomy syndrome. Moreover, 10% (13) of the patients reported the same digestive symptoms as before treatment. Statistical analysis confirmed that cholecystectomy was efficacious in curing gallstone related symptoms and digestive disorders in both Groups with a general improvement in clinical picture (p>0.01). No significant statistical difference in the incidence of postcholecystectomy dyspeptic symptoms was found between the 2 Groups.",
"yes. Preoperative CGA may predict postoperative complications and prolonged postoperative hospital stay of elderly patients who undergo elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Larger-scale studies independently assessing this association are warranted.",
"The purpose of the present study was to determine the clinical characteristics of subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis compared with those with gallbladder polyps only. Between August 1999 and December 2005, 176 subjects with gallbladder polyps and cholelithiasis (study group) by transabdominal ultrasonography performed during a medical check-up at our institution were recruited and compared with a control group of 185 subjects who had gallbladder polyps only. No significant difference in the mean interval change (delta) of polyp size during the follow-up period between the study and control groups (0.85 +/- 1.39 mm vs 0.84 +/- 1.58 mm, respectively, P = 0.927) was noted. A significantly higher proportion (9/176 [5.1%]) of examinees in the study group had attacks of acute cholecystitis compared with the control group (1/185 [0.5%], P<0.01). By multivariate logistic regression analysis, gallbladder wall thickening on initial ultrasonography (odds ratio, 13.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.1-178.0; P = 0.046) and the interval increase in the size of the gallbladder polyps (odds ratio, 14.7; 95% confidence interval, 1.7-126.9; P = 0.014) were independent risk factors for cholecystectomy. No gallbladder cancer occurred during the follow-up period.",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomies can be performed at night in high-volume acute care hospitals. We hypothesized that nonelective nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomies are associated with increased postoperative complications. We conducted a single-center retrospective review of consecutive laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients between October 2010 and May 2011 at a safety-net hospital in Houston, Texas. Data were collected on demographics, operative time, time of incision, length of stay, 30-day postoperative complications (ie, bile leak/biloma, common bile duct injury, retained stone, superficial surgical site infection, organ space abscess, and bleeding) and death. Statistical analyses were performed using STATA software (version 12; Stata Corp). During 8 months, 356 patients had nonelective laparoscopic cholecystectomies. A majority were female (n = 289 [81.1%]) and Hispanic (n = 299 [84%]). There were 108 (30%) nighttime operations. There were 29 complications in 18 patients; there were fewer daytime than nighttime patients who had at least 1 complication (4.0% vs 7.4%; p = 0.18). On multivariate analysis, age (odds ratio = 1.06 per year; 95% CI, 1.02-1.10; p = 0.002), case duration (odds ratio = 1.02 per minute; 95% CI, 1.01-1.02; p = 0.001), and nighttime surgery (odds ratio = 3.33; 95% CI, 1.14-9.74; p = 0.001) were associated with an increased risk of 30-day surgical complications. Length of stay was significantly longer for daytime than nighttime patients (median 3 vs 2 days; p<0.001).",
"Major bile duct injury (MBDI) remains frequent after laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) reaching 0.3 to 0.6 % and is associated with a significant mortality rate. The aim of this study was to retrospectively analyze the factors likely to influence the long-term results of surgical repair for MBDI occurring after LC. Medical records of patients referred to our referral center from January 1992 to January 2010 for management of bile duct injury following LC were retrospectively analyzed, and patients with MBDI were identified. Clinicopathological factors likely to influence long-term results after surgical repair were assessed by univariate and multivariable analysis. During the study period, 38 patients were treated for MBDI. These 38 patients underwent Roux-en-Y hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) or HJ revision in 25 (66 %) and 13 (34 %) cases, respectively. The median follow-up period was 93 (26-204) months. A Clavien-Dindo post-operative morbidity class >3 occurred in 10 (26 %) cases and was independently associated with a surgical repair performed during a sepsis period (OR = 102.5; IC 95 % [7.12; 11,352], p < 0.007). Long-term results showed that biliary strictures occurred in 5 (13 %) cases and were associated with sepsis (p < 0.006), liver cirrhosis (p < 0.002) and post-operative complications (p < 0.012). Multivariate analysis revealed that only liver cirrhosis remained predictive of stricture (OR = 26.4, 95 % CI [2; 1,018], p < 0.026).",
"Ultrasonography is able to accurately show gallbladder stones; the appearance of multiple small and variably sized gallbladder stones represent a risk factor for synchronous asymptomatic common bile duct stones.",
"In a population-based study, we examined recurrence rates of acute pancreatitis (AP) after cholecystectomy performed to prevent recurrences of AP. We abstracted data from medical records of all Olmsted county residents who underwent cholecystectomy at Mayo Clinic for the management of presumed gallstone or idiopathic AP between 1990 and 2005 (n = 239). Based on (i) significantly elevated liver enzymes (≥threefold increase of alanine aminotransferase or aspartate aminotransferase) on day 1 and (ii) the presence of gallstones/sludge in the gall bladder, we categorized patients into 4 groups: A (i + ii), B (i but not ii), C (ii but not i), and D (neither i nor ii). Recurrence rates of AP after cholecystectomy were determined in all groups. The median follow-up after cholecystectomy was 99 months (range, 8-220). AP recurred in 13 of 142 patients (9%) in group A, 1 of 17 patients (6%) in group B, 13 of 57 patients (23%) in group C, and 14 of 23 patients (61%) in group D (P < .0001 D vs. all other groups and P = .001 C vs. groups A and B). No difference was seen in recurrence rates in groups A vs. B (P = 1.0). Recurrences were more frequent in patients with normal liver enzymes (A + B vs. C + D; P = .000003) and in patients without sonographic evidence of gallstones/sludge (A + C vs. B + D; P = .0008).",
"Patient and hospital demographics do affect the outcomes of patients undergoing inpatient cholecystectomy. Although male gender, African American race, Medicare-insured status, and large, urban hospitals are associated with less favorable cholecystectomy outcomes, only increased age predicts increased morbidity, whereas female gender, laparoscopy, and cholangiogram are protective. Increased age, complications, and emergency surgery predict mortality, with laparoscopy and intraoperative cholangiogram having protective effects.",
"Preoperative ultrasonography (US) prior to laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (LRYGBP) aimed to find possible gallstones. The aim of this study was to evaluate the reliability of the US in evaluating the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. One hundred LRYGBP and LSG were performed in our new bariatric surgery unit by two surgeons. All patients underwent preoperative US to evaluate the size and consistency of the left lobe of the liver. A consultant radiologist reviewed the US findings, which were then compared to the intraoperative findings. The mean preoperative body mass index was 49. All patients had co-morbidities. The intraoperative evaluation showed an enlarged left lobe of the liver in 23 patients, whereas the US found enlargement only in eight patients, but revealed eight false positives. In the intraoperative evaluation, fatty liver was observed in five patients, only four of whom were shown in the US, but US revealed 77 false positives. In evaluating the size of the left lobe, US had 35% sensitivity, 90% specificity, 65% false negative rate (FNR) and 10% false positive rate (FPR). In evaluating the consistency, US had 80% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 20% FNR and 82% FPR.",
"Extraction of a gallbladder through an endoscopic overtube during natural orifice translumenal endoscopic surgery (NOTES) transgastric cholecystectomy avoids potential injury to the esophagus. This study examined the rate of successful gallbladder specimen extraction through an overtube and hypothesized that preoperative ultrasound findings could predict successful specimen passage. Gallbladder specimens from patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy were measured, and an attempt was made to pull the specimens through a commercially available overtube with an inner diameter of 16.7-mm. A radiologist blinded to the outcomes reviewed the available preoperative ultrasound measurements from these patients. Ultrasound dimensions including gallbladder length, width, and depth; wall thickness; common bile duct diameter; and size of the largest gallstone (LGS) were recorded. Multiple logistic regression analysis was performed to determine whether ultrasound findings and patient characteristics (age, body mass index [BMI], and sex) could predict the ability of a specimen to pass through the overtube. Of 57 patients, 44 (77%) who had preoperative ultrasounds available for electronic review were included in the final analysis. Gallstones were present in 35 (79%) of these 44 patients. Intraoperative gallbladder perforation occurred in 18 (41%) of the 44 patients, and 16 (36%) of the 44 gallbladders could be extracted through the overtube. Measurement of LGS was possible for 23 patients, and indeterminate gallstone size (IGS) was determined for 12 patients. The rate for passage of perforated versus intact gallbladders was similar (40% vs. 23%; p = 0.054). The LGS (odds ratio [OR], 1.17; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.02-1.33; p = 0.021) and IGS (OR, 22.97; 95% CI, 1.99-265.63; p = 0.025) predicted failed passage on multivariate logistic regression analysis. The passage rate was 80% for LGS smaller than 10 mm or no stones present, 18% for LGS 10 mm or larger, and 8% for IGS (p < 0.001).",
"Laparoscopy is thought to worsen the prognosis of gallbladder cancer (GBC) discovered unexpectedly at laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). However, laproscopy has never been shown to have an influence on patient survival in clinical series. We Performed a two-center retrospective analysis of 28 patients with GBC (11 previously known, 17 unexpectedly discovered by LC) to determine whether laparoscopy and complications related to LC had any influence on the prognosis of GBC. Resectability for cure after LC, survival, and recurrence related to both the procedure itself and complications associated with LC were analyzed. Of the 17 patients with unexpected GBC, 16 were considered resectable for cure at the time of LC. Advanced disease was detected in eight patients by re staging (n = 5) or exploration (n = 3). Seven patients (43.8%) underwent reoperation for cure. Mean survival of patients with unexpected GBC was 26.5 months. Mean survival was shorter when complications (bile spillage, injury of common bile duct, or tumor violation) occurred during LC (10.2 vs 33 months, p = 0.016). If bile spillage was the only complication at LC, there was also a trend to shorter survival (12 vs 33 months, p = 0.061).",
"We formulated a clinical pathway (CP) for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC), which included the following preoperative evaluation: history and physical (H&P), right upper quadrant ultrasound (US), and liver function tests (LFTs). We hypothesized that routine LFTs did not alter management beyond that dictated by H&P and US, and could be excluded from the CP. The study involved 387 consecutive patients undergoing elective LC. Abnormalities in the preoperative evaluation were compared with the finding of choledocholithiasis or other unexpected outcomes. In 187 (48%) patients, abnormalities were found by H&P (n = 7), US (n = 13), and LFTs (n = 177). Seven patients (2%) had documented choledocholithiasis; two had abnormal H & P; three had abnormal US; and four had abnormal LFTs. No patient with choledocholithiasis had abnormal LFTs but normal H&P and US.",
"This is the evaluation of the feasibility and results of routine laparoscopic intraoperative cholangiography. A multicentric prospective study in 315 consecutive patients undergoing elective or urgent laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The success rate was 94%. Mean duration of intraoperative cholangiography was 12 min. Sixteen of 18 failures were related to a narrow cystic duct. One cystic duct avulsion (ligated under laparoscopy) and 2 false positive cholangiograms (1 transcystic exploration, 1 conversion) were noted. Intraoperative cholangiography revealed aberrant bile ducts possibly at risk to injury from dissection in four patients (1.3 per cent). Intraoperative cholangiography disclosed unsuspected stones in 10 patients (4%). Forty-five patients had a preoperative suspicion of choledocholithiasis: choledocholithiasis were found at intraoperative cholangiography in 3 of 13 patients who had preoperative endoscopic sphincterotomy for stone extraction, in 1 of 11 patients with normal preoperative endoscopic cholangiography, and in 11 of 21 patients undergoing surgery alone (57%).",
"Obesity has historically been a positive predictor of surgical morbidity, especially in the morbidly obese. The purpose of our study was to compare outcomes of obese patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). We reviewed 1382 consecutive patients retrospectively who underwent LC for various pathologies from January 2008 to August 2011. Patients were stratified based on the World Health Organization definitions of obesity: nonobese (body mass index [BMI] < 30 kg/m(2)), obesity class I (BMI 30-34.9 kg/m(2)), obesity class II (BMI 35-39.9 kg/m(2)), and obesity class III (BMI ≥ 40 kg/m(2)). The primary end points were conversion rates and surgical morbidity. The secondary end point was length of stay. There were significantly more females in the obesity II and III groups (P = 0.0002). American Society of Anesthesiologists scores were significantly higher in the obesity I, II, and III groups compared with the nonobese (P < 0.05; P < 0.01; and P < 0.0001, respectively). Independent predictors of conversion on multivariate analysis (MVA) included age (P = 0.01), acute cholecystitis (P = 0.03), operative time (P < 0.0001), blood loss (P < 0.0001), and fellowship-trained surgeons (P < 0.0001). Independent predictors of intraoperative complications on MVA included age (P = 0.009), white patients (P = 0.009), previous surgery (P = 0.001), operative time (P < 0.0001), and blood loss (P = 0.01). Independent predictors of postoperative complications on MVA included American Society of Anesthesiologists score (P < 0.0001), acute cholecystitis (P < 0.0001), and a postoperative complication (P < 0.0001). BMI was not a predictor of conversions or surgical morbidity. Length of stay was not significantly different between the four groups.",
"This study investigated whether failure to identify common bile duct stones at laparoscopic cholecystectomy results in significant postoperative complications related to retained stones. We performed a retrospective analysis of the case notes of 377 consecutive patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy without routine operative cholangiography under a single surgeon in a district general hospital between 1995 and 1999. Highly selective preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) was employed to identify and manage suspected bile duct stones in pancreatitis, jaundice, persistently elevated liver function tests, or a dilated common bile duct. Eighteen (4.8%) of 377 patients presented postoperatively with symptoms/signs suggesting biliary pathology. Two (0.5%) were confirmed to have retained duct stones/debris (ultrasound/ERCP); both recovered with conservative treatment. Only 1 patient of 274 (0.4%) without preoperative ERCP subsequently presented with a symptomatic retained stone, the other having been stented preoperatively.",
"yes. When AP is associated with significantly elevated liver enzymes on day 1, recurrence rates after cholecystectomy are low (9%). However, postcholecystectomy recurrence rates of AP are high in those without such laboratory abnormalities (34%), especially in those without gall bladder stones/sludge (61%) on abdominal ultrasonography. Our results raise doubts about the efficacy of cholecystectomy to prevent recurrent AP in patients with the absence of either a significant elevation of liver tests on day 1 of AP or gallstones and/or sludge in the gall bladder on initial ultrasound examination.",
"Detection of gall-bladder polyp on ultrasound examination is an indication for cholecystectomy, in particular when the polyp diameter exceeds 10 mm. In each case of a polyp, cholecystolithiasis should also be taken into account and the presence (or absence) of indications for cholecystectomy should be discussed with the patient.",
"We tested the hypothesis that the treatment of patients with acute cholecystitis (AC) would be improved under the care of laparoscopic specialists. The records of patients undergoing cholecystectomy for AC from 1 January 1996 to 31 December 1998 were reviewed retrospectively. Of 170 patients, 48 were cared for by three laparoscopic specialists (LS group), whereas 122 were treated by nine general surgeons who perform only laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) (GS group). The rates of successful LC, complications, and length of hospital stay were compared. Multivariate analysis was used to control for baseline differences. The patients in the GS group were older (median age, 63 vs 53 years; p = 0.01). In all, 31 LS patients (65%), as compared with 44 GS patients (36%), had successful laparoscopic treatment (p = 0.001). The operating time was the same (median, 70 min). The proportion of patients with postoperative complications was similar in the two groups (37% in the GS vs 31% in the LS group; p = 0.6). The median postoperative hospital stay (3 vs 5 days; p<0.01) was shorter in the LS group. On logistic regression analysis, significant predictors of a successful laparoscopic operation included LS group (p<0.01) and age (p = 0). Predictors of prolonged length of hospital stay were age (p<0.01) and comorbidity score (p<0.01), with LS group status not a significant factor (p = 0.21).",
"To determine the cause of a marked rise in cholecystectomy at a regional children's hospital. Retrospective review of 185 patients undergoing cholecystectomy since 1984. The years 1984 to 1990 (group I) and 1991 to 1996 (group II) were compared. Cholecystectomy for gallbladder disease increased from 4.4/year (group I) to 16.3/ year (group II). Abdominal ultrasound examinations increased during this time. The ratio of children diagnosed with gallstones and then undergoing cholecystectomy also increased (P = 0.005). In group 11, 43% of children had no apparent etiology for gallstones, and more children developed complications of gallstones and evidence of choledocholithiasis.",
"yes. Additional surgical procedure was identified as a strong risk factor for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Furthermore, operation time >60 min, age >55 years, conversion to open procedure, cystic stump insufficiency, postoperative hematoma, gallbladder perforation, gallbladder empyema, or surgical revision were identified as specific risk factors for SSI after laparoscopic cholecystectomy.",
"This prospective study of the use of EUS to prevent unnecessary endoscopic retrograde cholangiography in patients with suspected choledocholithiasis has two aims: to evaluate the effectiveness, based on patient outcome, and the potential clinical and economic benefits of EUS. A prospective series of 485 patients (202 men, 283 women; mean age 66.2 years, range 20-94 years) suspected to have choledocholithiasis based on clinical, biochemical, and cross-sectional imaging (US or CT) data underwent EUS. Positive EUS findings were confirmed by endoscopic retrograde cholangiography with sphincterotomy and/or by surgery; negative findings were confirmed by clinical follow-up. An EUS result was considered a true negative if the patient was confirmed symptom-free with normal tests on follow-up of at least 6 months. The costs of EUS (procedure, days of hospitalization, any morbidity) were compared with the estimated costs of the endoscopic retrograde cholangiography avoided in patients with true-negative EUS findings. EUS findings were verified in 463 patients: EUS diagnosed choledocholithiasis in 239 (51.6%) and the absence of stones in 220 patients. In 4 patients (0.8%), EUS was incomplete. By sphincterotomy (209 patients), surgical bile duct exploration (39), percutaneous cholangiography (1 case in which EUS demonstrated a bile duct tumor), and follow-up (214), EUS diagnoses were confirmed as follows: 237 true-positive, 216 true-negative, 2 false-positive, 4 false-negative, 4 incomplete (sensitivity 98%, specificity 99%, positive predictive value 99%, negative predictive value 98%, accuracy 97%). In 214 (46%) patients, more invasive investigations of the bile duct were avoided. The mean cost for patients managed by the EUS-based strategy was ' 374.50 (-284.72), which was significantly less than the theoretical mean cost of ' 443.80 (p<0.001) for patients undergoing endoscopic retrograde cholangiography.",
"yes. This study suggests that simple linear measures taken on a CT scan, such as sagittal abdominal diameter, sagittal internal diameter and abdominal perimeter, may predict longer operative time in laparoscopic left colonic resections more accurately than BMI.",
"Symptomatic gallstone disease is considered an indication for cholecystectomy. A considerable proportion of patients may experience persistent symptoms after surgery. The purpose of the present study was to find out the rate of symptom persistence after elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) performed for symptomatic uncomplicated gallstone disease and, in particular, to clarify whether the recurrence rate differs according to the severity of preoperative symptoms. During a 10-year period (1992-2001), 1,101 patients underwent elective LC at Turku City Hospital for Surgery. A questionnaire concerning the intensity of preoperative symptoms, persistence of symptoms postoperatively, and overall satisfaction with the outcome of the procedure was sent to patients. A total of 677 patients [mean age (range) 59 (21-94) years; 554 (83.1%) females] with uncomplicated gallstone disease returned the completed form. Overall, 380 (57%) patients reported attacks of intense upper abdominal pain, and 287 (43%) reported episodic mild abdominal symptoms as the prevailing preoperative symptom. Two hundred and forty-eight (37%) patients continued to have abdominal symptoms after the operation. Among those with predominantly mild abdominal symptoms preoperatively, 119 (41%) reported the persistence of symptoms after the operation, while in the group with mainly severe upper abdominal pain attacks, 129 (33%) patients had recurrences (p = 0.052).",
"Several reports claim that there is a risk that laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) might worsen the prognosis of unsuspected gallbladder cancer. Several factors rather than LC could influence prognosis. A retrospective clinicopathologic study was performed on 20 patients, 9 patients (3 men and 6 women, aged from 36 to 75 years [mean age, 62.3 years]) undergoing LC and 11 patients (2 men and 9 women, aged from 53 to 91 years [mean age, 65.3 years]) undergoing open cholecystectomy (OC), with postoperatively diagnosed gallbladder cancer. The correlation was evaluated between cumulative survival rates and the following 7 prognostic factors: age, sex, histopathological grade, pathologic stage, occurrence of bile spillage, type of cholecystectomy (LC or OC), and additional surgical treatments. Seven patients (87%) after LC and 9 patients (82%) after OC had cancer recurrence: the difference is of no statistical significance (P =.9). There were no recurrences of cancer in the abdominal wall after either LC or OC. Survival rate was statistically correlated to tumor stage (P =.007) and to the occurrence of bile spillage (P =.002). Survival rate did not change according to whether the operation was carried out using LC or OC (P =.60).",
"Surgical site infections (SSI) are associated with increased costs and length of hospital stay, readmission rates, and mortality. The aim of this study was to identify risk factors for SSI in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Analysis of 35,432 laparoscopic cholecystectomies of a prospective multicenter database was performed. Risk factors for SSI were identified among demographic data, preoperative patients' history, and operative data using multivariate analysis. SSIs after laparoscopic cholecystectomy were seen in 0.8 % (n = 291) of the patients. Multivariate analysis identified the following parameters as risk factors for SSI: additional surgical procedure (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95 % confidence interval [CI] 2.2-7.5), age over 55 years (OR 2.4 [1.8-3.2]), conversion to open procedure (OR 2.6 [1.9-3.6]), postoperative hematoma (OR 1.9 [1.2-3.1]), duration of operation >60 min (OR 2.5 [1.7-3.6], cystic stump insufficiency (OR 12.5 [4.2-37.2]), gallbladder perforation (OR 6.2 [2.4-16.1]), gallbladder empyema (OR 1.7 [1.1-2.7]), and surgical revision (OR 15.7 [10.4-23.7]. SSIs were associated with a significantly prolonged hospital stay (p < 0.001), higher postoperative mortality (p < 0.001), and increased rate of surgical revision (p < 0.001).",
"Ultrasonography alone has a high rate of false-negative studies for acute cholecystitis. However, a higher rate of accurate diagnosis can be achieved using a triad of positive Murphy sign, elevated neutrophil count and an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or cholecystitis.",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) in acute cholecystitis is associated with a relatively high rate of conversion to an open procedure as well as a high rate of complications. The aim of this study was to analyze prospectively whether the need to convert and the probability of complications is predictable. A total of 215 patients undergoing LC for acute cholecystitis were studied prospectively by analyzing the data accumulated in the process of investigation and treatment. Factors associated with conversion and complications were assessed to determine their predictive power. Conversion was indicated in 44 patients (20.5%), and complications occurred in 36 patients (17%). Male gender and age>60 years were associated with conversion, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. The same factors, together with a disease duration of>96 h, a nonpalpable gallbladder, a white blood count (WBC) of>18,000/cc(3), and advanced cholecystitis, predicted conversion with a sensitivity of 74%, a specificity of 86%, a positive predictive value of approximately 40%, and a negative predictive value of 96%. However, these data became available only when LC was underway. Male gender and a temperature of>38 degrees C were associated with complications, but these factors had no sensitivity and no positive predictive value. Progression along the stages of admission and therapy did not add predictive factors or improve the predictive characteristics. Male gender, abdominal scar, bilirubin>1 mg%, advanced cholecystitis, and conversion to open cholecystectomy were associated with infectious complications. Their sensitivity and positive predictive value remained 0 despite progression along the stages of admission and therapy.",
"Laparoscopic treatment for gallbladder cancer (GBC) has long been contraindicated, but few studies have demonstrated the oncologic outcomes of this treatment. The purpose of this study was to evaluate long-term survival after intended laparoscopic surgery for early-stage GBC based on our 10 years of experience. Between May 2004 and April 2014, eighty-three patients suspected of having early-stage GBC with no evidence of liver invasion were enrolled in the prospective protocol for laparoscopic surgery. Data for 45 of these patients with pathologically proven GBC were analyzed to determine the safety and oncologic outcomes of a laparoscopic approach to GBC. Twenty-six patients whose postoperative follow-up exceeded 5 years were investigated to determine the 5-year actual survival outcomes. Extended cholecystectomy, including laparoscopic lymphadenectomy, was performed in 32 patients and simple cholecystectomy in 13 patients. The T stages based on final pathologic results were Tis (n = 2), T1a (n = 10), T1b (n = 8), and T2 (n = 25). After a median follow-up of 60 months after surgery, recurrence was detected in 4 patients as distant metastases. There was no local recurrence around the gallbladder bed or lymphadenectomy. Disease-specific 5-year survival rate of the 45 patients was 94.2%. Disease-specific actual survival rate of 26 patients whose postoperative follow-up period exceeded 5 years was 92.3% at 5 years.",
"Acute cholecystitis is one of the most common diseases requiring emergency surgery. Ultrasonography is an accurate test for cholelithiasis but has a high false-negative rate for acute cholecystitis. The Murphy sign and laboratory tests performed independently are also not particularly accurate. This study was designed to review the accuracy of ultrasonography for diagnosing acute cholecystitis in a regional hospital. We studied all emergency cholecystectomies performed over a 1-year period. All imaging studies were reviewed by a single radiologist, and all pathology was reviewed by a single pathologist. The reviewers were blinded to each other's results. A total of 107 patients required an emergency cholecystectomy in the study period; 83 of them underwent ultrasonography. Interradiologist agreement was 92% for ultrasonography. For cholelithiasis, ultrasonography had 100% sensitivity, 18% specificity, 81% positive predictive value (PPV) and 100% negative predictive value (NPV). For acute cholecystitis, it had 54% sensitivity, 81% specificity, 85% PPV and 47% NPV. All patients had chronic cholecystitis and 67% had acute cholecystitis on histology. When combined with positive Murphy sign and elevated neutrophil count, an ultrasound showing cholelithiasis or acute cholecystitis yielded a sensitivity of 74%, specificity of 62%, PPV of 80% and NPV of 53% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis.",
"Our objective was to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of abdominal symptoms in gallstones in studies using ultrasonography or oral cholecystography as the reference standard and to assess the extent to which variability in diagnostic accuracy is explained by patient selection and other characteristics of study design. A Medline search (1966-1998) was conducted in combination with reference checking for further relevant publications. Two independent assessors selected controlled studies that included patients>or =18 years of age. Articles were excluded if sensitivity and specificity could not be extracted or the included patients were at extraordinary risk for gallstones. Seven abdominal symptoms were evaluated. Modification of the diagnostic accuracy by clinical setting, extent of the disease, blinding, age, and sex was analysed by using logistic regression. A total of 24 publications were included. The symptoms 'biliary colic', 'radiating pain', and 'analgesics used' were consistently related to gallstones. The setting of the study had a significant effect on the diagnostic accuracy of these symptoms. The unadjusted, pooled diagnostic odds ratios, however, were low (2.6 (95% confidence interval, 2.4-2.9), 2.8 (2.2-3.7), and 2 (1.6-2.5), respectively). The diagnostic odds ratio of biliary colic increased with the extent of gallstone disease (13.3 (4.2-42).",
"As many patients with gallstone disease do not benefit from cholecystectomy, preoperative recognition of such high-risk patients is important. The aim of the study is to identify predictors of persisting symptoms at 6 months after cholecystectomy for patients with different preoperative symptomatology. Participants in this prospective study were consecutive patients (n = 172), age 18-65 years, with symptomatic cholelithiasis, undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Predictors were identified using uni- and multivariate regression analyses. At 6 months postcholecystectomy, patients with only preoperative biliary symptoms were most often free of symptoms (62.5%). Patients with only dyspeptic symptoms most often reported persistence of preexisting symptoms (63.2%). Preoperative non-specific symptoms predicted the report of postoperative biliary and/or dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5-6.1). Persistence of preexisting pattern of symptoms was predicted by the use of psychotropic medication (OR = 5.3) and dyspeptic symptoms (OR = 4.5). Postoperative biliary symptoms were predicted by High Trait Anxiety (HTA) (OR = 10.6).",
"Age, case duration, and nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy were predictive of increased 30-day surgical complications at a high-volume safety-net hospital. The small but increased risk of complications with nighttime laparoscopic cholecystectomy must be balanced against improved efficiency at a high-volume, resource-poor hospital.",
"Criteria have been suggested to help decide if an intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) should be performed during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). They are a clinical history of passing a common bile duct (CBD) stone, elevated serum amylase, elevated liver function tests, or ultrasound findings suggesting a CBD stone. What is the sensitivity and specificity of the above criteria when the presence or absence of CBD stones is already known by IOC? What is the probability that these criteria will predict a CBD stone or be normal if a stone is absent, ie, the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV)? We reviewed 420 cases of elective LC done between May 1990 and December 1992. In our teaching hospital, IOC is routine and acted as the reference standard for the presence of CBD stones. All 420 films were reviewed as well as the results of any preoperative endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) (30 were done). The following preoperative indicators of CBD stones were recorded: any clinical history of CBD stones; an elevated amylase, SGOT, alkaline phosphatase, or bilirubin level; and ultrasound findings. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV were calculated. CBD stones were found in 12% of these elective LC cases. The sensitivity, specificity, PPV, and NPV, respectively, for each preoperative indicator were: a history suggestive of CBD stones (36%, 94%, 45%, and 91%), serum biochemistries as a group (43%, 86%, 30% and 91%), and ultrasound findings of CBD stones (22%, 92%, 28% and 89%). We compared any elevation versus>2x from the normal range of the serum indicators and did not improve their accuracy. Combination of the indicators increased sensitivity and NPV but lowered specificity and PPV. The best predictor of CBD stones was the history (45%) and this was in a hospital with a CBD stone prevalence rate of 12%.",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is the preferred treatment for gallstone disease, even in many complicated cases. Perhaps the only downside to LC is a two- to threefold increase in common bile duct (CBD) injuries compared with open cholecystectomy (OC). Intraoperative cholangiography may prevent inj uries, but its routine use remains controversial. Our institution adopted a policy of selective intraoperative cholangiography in 1993. When intraoperative laparoscopic ultrasonography (IOUS) emerged as a viable diagnostic adjunct, it was hypothesized that the routine use of IOUS would facilitate dissection, detect occult choledocholithiasis, and prevent bile duct injuries during LC. The experience with LC at our university-affiliated teaching hospital was reviewed. Over a 4 1/2-year period (June 1, 1995, to January 31, 2000), two surgeons used IOUS routinely during LC (ultrasonography [US] group, n = 248); three other surgeons did not (non-US group, n = 594). We compared patient data and outcomes between the two groups. Continuous, data are expressed as mean +/- SEM. During the study period, 842 LCs were attempted. Patient age (37+/-1 years) and gender (85% female) did not differ between the groups. In the US group, more patients had acute cholecystitis (p < 0.05). More LCs were performed per year by non-US surgeons than US surgeons (45 versus 37). Despite this, all bile duct complications occurred in non-US cases (2.5% overall): five CBD injuries (0.8%), six bile leaks (1%), and four retained CBD stones (0.7%). In the subgroup of patients with acute cholecystitis, there were fewer conversions to OC in US compared with non-US cases (24% versus 36%, p = 0.09).",
"yes. Laparoscopic ultrasonography and intraoperative cholangiography are complementary, as the combination of both methods maximizes the intraoperative detection of choledocholithiasis.",
"Previous studies evaluating predictive factors for conversion from laparoscopic to open cholecystectomy have drawn conflicting conclusions. We evaluated objective preoperative variables to create an accurate, accessible risk score to predict conversion. A retrospective review was performed of laparoscopic cholecystectomy patients at an urban tertiary care center. Seventy characteristics were subjected to bivariate and multivariate logistic regression analysis to identify parameters that independently predict conversion to open cholecystectomy. A model was created based on this analysis. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed on 1377 patients for benign gallbladder disease over a 71-month period. There were 112 (8.1%) conversions to open cholecystectomy. The correlation between the preoperative clinical diagnosis and pathologic diagnosis for acute and chronic cholecystitis was 48.6% and 94.6%, respectively. Multivariate analysis identified male gender, elevated white blood cell count, low serum albumin, ultrasound finding of pericholecystic fluid, diabetes mellitus, and elevated total bilirubin as independent predictors of conversion. These 6 factors were also associated with the pathologic diagnosis of acute cholecystitis. A model to calculate the risk for conversion was created with an area under the receiver operator curve of 0.83. The risk for conversion also can be estimated based on the number of factors identified present and ranged from 2% when 1 factor was present to 89% with 6 factors.",
"Percutaneous cholecystostomy (PC) is an effective treatment for cholecystitis in high-risk surgical patients. However, there is no definitive agreement on the need for additional cholecystectomy in these patients. All patients who were admitted to Cheju Halla General Hospital (Jeju, Korea) for acute cholecystitis and who underwent ultrasonography-guided PC between 2007 and 2012 were consecutively enrolled in this study. Among 82 total patients enrolled, 35 underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy after recovery and 47 received the best supportive care (BSC) without additional surgery. The technical and clinical success rates for PC were 100% and 97.5%, respectively. The overall mean survival was 12.8 months. In the BSC group, mean survival was 5.4 months, and in the cholecystectomy group, mean survival was 22.4 months (p<0.01). However, there was no significant difference between these groups in multivariate analysis (relative risk [RR]=1.92; 95% CI, 0.77-4.77; p=0.16). However, advanced age (RR=1.05; 95% CI, 1.02-1.08; p=0.001) and higher class in the American Society of Anesthesiologists' physical status (RR=3.06; 95% CI, 1.37-6.83, p=0.006) were significantly associated with survival in the multivariate analysis. Among the 47 patients in the BSC group, the cholecystostomy tube was removed in 31 patients per protocol. Recurrent cholecystitis was not observed in either group of patients during the follow-up period.",
"The necessity of carrying out pre- or intra-operative imaging of the biliary tree to rule out a possible anatomical abnormality or the presence of common bile duct (CBD) stones in patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is debated. We prospectively assessed the risk of developing symptoms related to bile duct injury or CBD stones after LC in children not receiving peri-operative cholangiography. All patients<or= 14 years undergoing elective LC at our institution from January 2003 to June 2005 were included in this study. Peri-operative cholangiography of the CBD was not performed unless there was a suspicion of CBD stones based on clinical examination, liver biochemistry, serum amylase levels or liver ultrasound scan. Patients were prospectively followed up, looking for possible symptoms or clinical, biochemical and radiological signs related to bile duct injury or CBD stones. Twenty-six patients fulfilled the inclusion criteria. The median age at elective LC was 9.8 (4.1 - 14.3) years. Surgery was uneventful in all patients. All patients were discharged on postoperative day 1. None developed early symptoms of stone migration. USS performed 1 month after surgery did not show dilatation of the biliary system or stones in the CBD in any patient and no patient developed symptoms related to CBD stones after a median postoperative follow-up of 25 (6 - 37) months.",
"Chronic acalculous gallbladder disease (CAGD) falls within the spectrum of diseases associated with gallbladder dysmotility. Cholecystokinin-cholescintigraphy (CCK-CS) has been used to evaluate for CAGD, with a gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF) of <35 % being indicative of gallbladder dysfunction. The reproduction of biliary colic upon administration of CCK has been cited as indicative of CAGD. Our purpose was to determine whether low GBEF or reproduction of pain during CCK-CS was predictor of surgical outcomes related to resolution of symptoms or as a correlate to gallbladder pathology. A retrospective review of patients was performed to evaluate adults with a diagnosis of CAGD who underwent CCK-CS prior to surgical intervention. CPT and ICD-9 coding queries were used to identify the patient population. Patients with cholelithiasis were excluded. Sixty-four patients met inclusion criteria. Two patients were lost to follow-up and were excluded. During CCK-CS, 41 patients (66 %) reported symptoms similar to their presenting complaint. Twenty-one patients reported no symptoms with CCK-CS. There was no significant relationship between gallbladder pathology and either GBEF or reproduction of symptoms with CCK-CS (p = 0.14). About 81 % of patients (n = 50) had relief of symptoms following cholecystectomy. Sixty-six percentage of patients (n = 33) with long-term symptom relief after cholecystectomy had reproduction of symptoms with CCK-CS. Nineteen percentage of all patients (n = 12) had long-term symptom recurrence despite surgery. Eight of these patients (66 %) had symptom reproduction with CCK-CS. There was no significant correlation with either the GBEF or symptoms reproduction with CCK-CS as a predictor of postoperative outcome (p = 0.12).",
"yes. (1) The increased incidence of cholecystectomy is probably multifactorial. (2) Gallstone identification has increased owing to increased patient visits and more liberal use of ultrasonography in patients with abdominal pain. (3) More patients with cholelithiasis now undergo cholecystectomy perhaps because of a change in physician perception of the disease and an apparent increase in complications from gallstones.",
"The favorable long-term oncologic results shown in this study confirm the oncologic safety of laparoscopic cholecystectomy, including laparoscopic lymphadenectomy in selected patients with GBC.",
"yes. We conclude that laparoscopic ultrasonography can reliably visualize most relevant bile-duct injuries. A standard for doing the ultrasound examination is proposed. Direct and indirect ultrasound signs of bile-duct injuries are explained.",
"The aim of the study was to evaluate the outcome in patients with unsuspected gall bladder carcinoma diagnosed after cholecystectomy, comparing the laparoscopic approach with open surgery. A retrospective study was done of 16 patients who were diagnosed with unsuspected gall bladder carcinoma out of the 2850 who had undergone cholecystectomy for symptomatic cholelithiasis at our institution between 1990 and 2004. Eight cases (seven women and one man, mean age 63 (range 49-75 years) ) were diagnosed after laparoscopic cholecystectomy (group A) and eight cases (six women and two men, mean age 63 (range 50-79 years) ) after open cholecystectomy (group B). We evaluated the outcome in the two groups correlating the cumulative survival rates with tumour stage and surgical technique. In group A, three patients had port-site recurrence (1 pT1a and 2 pT1b tumours) after 6, 7 and 9 months, one had intraperitoneal dissemination (pT2) after 3 months, and four had no recurrence (1 pTis, 2 pT1a and 1 pT1b). In group B, five patients had recurrences (4 pT1b and 1 pT2) after an average of 8 months (range 5-11) and three had no recurrence (1 pTis and 2 pT1a). Survival rate was statistically correlated with tumour stage but not with the surgical approach used to perform cholecystectomy.",
"yes. Unrecognized NP at the time of SAC is associated with increased rates of subsequent persistent organ failure, infected necrosis, and length of hospital stay. Persistent leukocytosis and SIRS at the time of proposed cholecystectomy are predictive of unrecognized NP and should prompt contrast enhanced CT prior to proceeding with LC.",
"Routine cholecystectomy is often performed at the time of gastric bypass for morbid obesity. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of gallstone formation requiring cholecystectomy following a laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (LRYGBP). 289 LRYGBP were performed between November 1999 and May 2002. 60 patients (21%) who had prior cholecystectomy were excluded. If gallstones were identified by intra-operative ultrasound (IOUS), simultaneous cholecystectomy was performed. Patients without gallstones were prescribed ursodiol for 6 months and scheduled for follow-up with transabdominal ultrasound. During LRYGBP, gallstones were detected in 40 patients using IOUS (14%) and simultaneous cholecystectomy was performed. Of 189 patients with no stones identified by IOUS, 151 patients (80%) had a postoperative ultrasound after 6 months. 33 patients developed gallstones (22%) and 12 developed sludge (8%) as demonstrated by ultrasound at the time of follow-up. 11 patients had gallstone-related symptoms and subsequently underwent cholecystectomy (7%). 106 patients (70%) were gallstone-free at the time of ultrasound follow-up. Ursodiol compliance was found to be significantly lower for patients who developed stones than for gallstone-free patients (38.9% vs 58.3%, z =-2.00, P = 0.045).",
"In our experience, concomitant cholecystectomy at LRYGB for ultrasonography-confirmed gallbladder pathology is feasible and safe. It reduces the potential for future gallbladder-related morbidity, and the need for further surgery.",
"In patients with recurrent symptoms after cholecystectomy and enzymatic cholestasis SOD was reliably diagnosed by ultrasonography (sensitivity: 85%, specificity: 100%), and this finding may guide endoscopic sphincterotomy.",
"The uncertainty around true clinical manifestations of gallbladder stone disease is in contrast with the unanimous recommendation that only symptomatic gallstones should be treated.AIM: To evaluate the relationship between biliary pain, other gastrointestinal symptoms and gallstones. A pragmatic, prospective cohort questionnaire study. Seventy-five general practices in Rotterdam, The Netherlands. All patients suspected by their general practitioner (GP) to have gallstone disease underwent ultrasound examination of the upper abdomen. Using a self-administered questionnaire, the presence of 11 gastrointestinal symptoms was assessed at inclusion and after 1 year. Likelihood ratios (LRs) for the presence of gallstones and symptom relief rates after 1 year were calculated. The mean difference in health status at inclusion and after follow-up was calculated for patients without gallstones, for patients with gallstones who were operated on and for patients with gallstones who were not operated on. In total, 61% of the patients with gallstones diagnosed by ultrasound scan reported biliary pain, as did 45% of the patients without gallstones (LR = 1.34, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 1.05 to 1.71). Patients operated on for gallstone disease did not show significant relief of biliary pain compared to patients not operated on for gallstones or patients without gallstones (87%, 63% and 83%, respectively). Health status improved in all patients. The mean improvement in health status did not differ between the three patient groups. GPs were able to discriminate between patients with high and low probability of gallbladder stones by ultrasound examination (53% versus 23%). This selection, however, did not predict the outcome of cholecystectomy.",
"The routine use of intraoperative cholangiography (CGP) during laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) is still under debate. Previous reports suggest that intraoperative sonography can replace CGP in the evaluation of common duct lithiasis during open cholecystectomy. The present study was performed to evaluate the possible role of sonography during LC. 45 patients were submitted to laparoscopic sonography of biliary tree during LC. In all cases, CGP was performed. In 37 cases, sonography did not show the presence of stones; in 7 cases, common bile duct stones were identified by sonography; one false negative was observed. A sensitivity of 87.5%, a specificity of 100% and an overall accuracy of 97.8% were obtained. A false positive was obtained with CGP with a sensitivity of 100%, a specificity 97.3%, and an overall accuracy of 97.8%.",
"Intraoperative cholangiography and laparoscopic ultrasonography are both used in the detection of common bile duct stones at laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The aim of this prospective study was to determine whether laparoscopic ultrasonography has an alternative or a complementary role with respect to cholangiography in achieving this end. The biliary trees of 900 patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy were examined routinely by the two methods. The diagnostic power of each investigation and of the two techniques in combination was evaluated. The statistical non-random concordance between the two methods was also determined. Laparoscopic ultrasonography was performed in all 900 patients. Cholangiography was performed in 762 (85 per cent). The mean (range) duration was 9.8 (4-21) min for laparoscopic ultrasonography and 17.6 (7-42) min for cholangiography. For the detection of common bile duct stones, with a kappa coefficient of 0.57 (95 per cent confidence interval (c.i.) 0.43 to 0.71), the non-random concordance between the two methods was considered to be fair to good. The sensitivity of laparoscopic ultrasonography was 0.80 (95 per cent c.i. 0.65 to 0.91) and its specificity was 0.99 (95 per cent c.i. 0.98 to 1.00). The respective values for cholangiography were 0.75 (95 per cent c.i. 0.59 to 0.87) and 0.99 (95 per cent c.i. 0.98 to 1.00). The examinations combined had a sensitivity of 0.95 (95 per cent c.i. 0.86 to 0.99) and a specificity of 0.98 (95 per cent c.i. 0.96 to 1.00).",
"Gallbladder distention as a sonographic sign is associated with a high relative risk for conversion. The predictive value of sonographic signs for conversion requires further assessment in a prospective study.",
"The preoperative investigation for choledocholithiasis in patients undergoing elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is still a matter of debate. In a prospective clinical trial the accuracy of intravenous cholangiography (IVC), ultrasonography and liver function tests in the preoperative diagnosis of choledocholithiasis was assessed in 98 patients undergoing elective cholecystectomy. Only patients with uncomplicated cholecystolithiasis considered to be at low risk for having bile duct stones were investigated. A 2-year follow-up clinical survey (mean) was performed in 92 of the 98 patients to investigate the occurrence of postoperative choledocholithiasis (gold standard: clinically manifest choledocholithiasis). In this patient cohort the incidence of choledocholithiasis was found to be 5.1%. Among the three diagnostic tests IVC proved to be more accurate with higher sensitivity and a better positive predictive value than ultrasonography and liver function tests. The sensitivity for IVC was 100% compared to 20% for ultrasonography and 40% for liver function tests, respectively. The positive predictive value for IVC was 83.3% in comparison to 20% for ultrasonography and 25% for liver function tests. Mild side effects caused by intravenous contrast media were observed in 2.0%. During a mean postoperative follow-up of 2 years no clinically manifest and initially overlooked choledocholithiasis could be detected in the 92 investigated patients.",
"To evaluate whether preoperative ultrasonographic assessment of the number and size of gallbladder stones can identify patients at increased risk of having asymptomatic common bile duct stones. Ultrasonographic data for 300 consecutive patients undergoing laparoscopic cholecystectomy were analyzed. Patients were divided into a group in which multiple small (<or = 5 mm) or multiple variably sized (both<or = 5 and>5 mm) gallbladder stones were present (\"positive\" stones) and a group with multiple large (>5 mm) or single gallbladder stones, considered \"negative.\" The ultrasonographic description was compared with surgical findings; finally, the prevalence of asymptomatic common bile duct stones in the 2 groups was compared. Ultrasonographic classification of gallbladder stones was confirmed at surgery in 285 cases (95%). Asymptomatic common bile duct stones were diagnosed in 9.5% of patients with an ultrasonographic diagnosis of positive gallbladder stones and in only 2.3% of patients with a diagnosis of negative gallbladder stones (P<.05).",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC) has become the choice of treatment for symptomatic gallbladder stones. The goal of this study was to predict the necessity for ERCP before LC using the noninvasive method of liver function testing (LFT) and sonography. Before LC, 115 symptomatic gallbladder stone patients, whose diagnoses were confirmed by sonography, were studied by both LFT and ERCP. Patients who were already found to have either tumors or intrahepatic biliary stones on sonogram were excluded. Patients were classified into normal and dilated biliary tree groups by sonographic findings and normal and abnormal LFT (including bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, gamma glutamyl transferase and amylase) groups. In patients with both normal biliary sonogram and LFT, 97.6% of patients had a negative ERCP study. Biliary tree dilation on sonogram had an 87% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP (40/46). A normal biliary tree on sonogram had a 17.4% incidence of positive ductal pathology on ERCP (12/69). A single abnormal LFT equated to a 68.8% positive predictability for ductal pathology on ERCP.",
"It remains unclear if sonography accurately describes the severity of gallstone disease. Patients were prospectively enrolled if urgent cholecystectomy was indicated. Two radiologists, blinded to operative findings, evaluated the patients' ultrasound imagings. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy was performed within 48 hours. The operative findings regarding gallbladder wall thickness and inflammation were compared to ultrasound results and histology. Fifty-five patients completed the study. Ultrasound studies exhibited a sensitivity of 60% for the diagnosis of acute cholecystitis compared to the findings at operation and 52% relative to the histologic findings. Specificity for acute cholecystitis diagnosed on ultrasound examination was 77% compared to findings at operation and 71% relative to histologic findings. The correlation coefficient of the wall thickness at ultrasound and surgery was 0.18: 0.24 for ultrasound and histology and 0.5 for surgery and histology.",
"Ultrasonography (US) is the mainstay of biliary tract imaging, but few recent studies have tested its ability to diagnose acute cholecystitis (AC). Our objective was to determine how well a US diagnosis of AC correlates with the intraoperative diagnosis. We hypothesize that US underestimates this diagnosis, potentially leading to unexpected findings in the operating room (OR). This retrospective review included all patients admitted to the acute care surgical service of a tertiary hospital in 2011 with suspected biliary pathology who underwent US and subsequent cholecystectomy. We determined the sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of US using the intraoperative diagnosis as the gold standard. Further analysis identified which US findings were most predictive of an intraoperative diagnosis of AC. We used a recursive partitioning method with random forests to identify unique combinations of US findings that, together, are most predictive of AC. In total, 254 patients underwent US for biliary symptoms; 152 had AC diagnosed, and 143 (94%) of them underwent emergency surgery (median time to OR 23.03 hr). Ultrasonography predicted intraoperative findings with a sensitivity of 73.2%, specificity of 85.5% and PPV of 93.7%. The NPV (52.0%) was quite low. The US indicators most predictive of AC were a thick wall, a positive sonographic Murphy sign and cholelithiasis. Recursive partitioning demonstrated that a positive sonographic Murphy sign is highly predictive of intraoperative AC.",
"This retrospective study showed that the sonographic sign of grit in the gallbladder is associated with a high relative risk for persistent abdominal symptoms after cholecystectomy. These findings will be re-evaluated in a prospective study to estimate the definitive clinical importance.",
"The aim of this study was to determine whether sonographic signs can predict the risk for conversion of laparoscopic (LC) to open cholecystectomy (OC). All 346 patients who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993, and March 1, 1996, were studied retrospectively. Patients who had no sonographic examination during 6 months prior to surgery and patients treated by inexperienced surgeons were excluded from the study. Patient characteristics and sonographic parameters were evaluated by univariate and multivariate analysis, using conversion to OC as a dependent variable. In 23 of 134 patients (17.2%), LC was converted to OC. In the univariate analysis, gallbladder distention (>4.5 cm; relative risk [RR] 3.5; 95% confidence intervals [CI]1.7-5.3), stone impaction (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.1-5.1), thickened gallbladder wall (RR 2.4; 95% CI 1.2-5.1), and acute cholecystitis (RR 2.6; 95% CI 1.1-6.7) were able to predict the need for conversion. Logistic regression defined only the sonographic sign of distention of the gallbladder as a predictor of conversion.",
"To determine whether sonographic signs of the gallbladder can predict the long-term outcome of laparoscopic cholecystectomy (LC). All 346 patients, who underwent LC at our institution between January 1, 1993 and March 1, 1996, were interviewed using a structured questionnaire on the persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms. Patients without a sonographic examination 6 months prior to surgery were excluded. Sonographic parameters, scored on the pre-operative examination, were evaluated by univariate analysis using the relief of abdominal symptoms as a dependent variable. The response rate of correctly returned questionnaires was 68%. The follow-up ranged from 14-53 months. Fourteen percent (18/133) of all patients reported persistence of abdominal complaints after cholecystectomy. Grit in the gallbladder on the pre-operative ultrasound examination was significantly associated with a higher relative risk (RR) for persistence of pre-operative abdominal symptoms (RR 4.5, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 2.0-10.1). The presence of echogenic bile (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.8-4.9), gallbladder distention (RR 1.9, 95% CI 0.6-5.7), and gallbladder wall thickening (RR 1.5, 95% CI 0.5-4.1) were associated with the persistence of symptoms. A contracted gallbladder (RR 0.6, 95% CI 0.4-1.1) and stone impaction (RR 0.44, 95% CI 0.1-1.8) were associated with the relief of abdominal symptoms. None of these sonographic signs reached significance. There was no difference in the post-operative symptoms rate between patients with a laparoscopic cholecystectomy and those who were converted to an open cholecystectomy."
] | 417 |
Jugular phlebectasia in children: is it rare or ignored? | [
"Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was.",
"Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results."
] | [
"Lumbar spondylolysis, a unilateral or bilateral fracture at pars interarticularis, is a common cause of low back pain in children. The initial imaging study in the diagnosis of lumbar spondylolysis has historically been lumbar spine radiographs; however, radiographs can be equivocal or false-negative. Definitive diagnosis can be achieved with computed tomography (CT), but its use has been limited due to the dose of ionizing radiation to the patient. By limiting the z-axis coverage to the relevant anatomy and optimizing the CT protocol, we are able to provide a definitive diagnosis of fractures of the pars interarticularis at comparable or lower radiation dose than commonly performed lumbar spine radiographs. As there is no gold standard for the diagnosis of spondylolysis besides surgery, we compared interobserver agreement and degree of confidence to determine which modality is preferable. Sixty-two patients with low back pain ages 5-18 years were assessed for the presence of spondylolyis. Forty-seven patients were evaluated by radiography and 15 patients were evaluated by limited field-of-view CT. Both radiographic and CT examinations were assessed anonymously in random order for the presence or absence of spondylolyisis by six raters. Agreement was assessed among raters using a Fleiss Kappa statistic for multiple raters. CT provided a significantly higher level of agreement among raters than radiographs (P < 0.001). The overall Kappa for rater agreement with radiographs was 0.24, 0.34 and 0.40 for 2, 3 or 4 views, respectively, and 0.88 with CT.",
"To determine the incidence of skull fracture (SF) and intracranial injury (ICA) among children younger than 2 years evaluated in a pediatric emergency department for head trauma; whether historical features and/or physical findings are predictive of injury type; and whether clinical criteria could allow a selective approach to radiographic imaging. Retrospective medical record review. Tertiary pediatric emergency department. Case series of 278 children aged younger than 24 months evaluated for head injury. Presence of SF and/or ICA. Diagnoses at discharge included 227 minor head injuries, 39 isolated SF, 9 ICA with SF, and 3 isolated ICA. Children younger than 12 months had the highest incidence of SF/ICA (29%) vs 4% for children aged 13 to 24 months (P<.001). Seven percent of complications from SF/ICA resulted from falls 3 ft (0.9 m) or less [corrected]. Incidence of behavioral change, loss of consciousness, emesis, and seizures did not differ significantly between those with minor head injuries and those with SF/ICA. Scalp abnormalities were more common in children with SF/ICA (P<.001). Sixty-two percent of children with isolated SF and 58% of children with ICA had no history of loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, or behavioral change. Ninety-two percent of children with isolated SF and 75% of children with ICA had normal levels of consciousness and nonfocal neurologic examinations at diagnosis. Among children who fell 3 ft or less (0.9 m) [corrected] and had no loss of consciousness, emesis, seizure, behavioral change, or scalp abnormality, none of 31 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0-0.10) children younger than 24 months and none of 20 (95% CI, 0-0.15) children younger than 12 months had SF/ICA.",
"The long term outcome of infants and children with right atrial isomerism in association with a normal pulmonary venous drainage remains unfavourable. Sepsis and sudden death that may potentially be related to cardiac arrhythmia are major causes of late mortality.",
"PNET of the kidney appears to be a distinct entity. Although rare, it must be included in the differential diagnosis of renal tumors in children and young adults. Patients usually present with advanced disease and show poor response to combined-modality therapy.",
"To examine the clinical utility of noncontrast-enhanced computed tomography (NCCT) in pediatric patients with urolithiasis who progressed to surgery. Although NCCT is routine for the evaluation of adult patients with suspected urolithiasis, its routine use in the pediatric population is tempered by concern about radiation exposure. We conducted a retrospective chart review of all pediatric patients who had undergone surgery for urinary stones from 2003 to 2008 at our institution. The imaging modalities used, surgery type, stone composition, 24-hour urinalyses, and relevant predisposing conditions were characterized. A total of 42 pediatric patients (24 males and 18 females) were treated during the 6-year period. The average age was 11.3±5.3 years (range 2.7-25.4), and the most common treatment modalities were shock wave lithotripsy (28%) and ureteroscopy (22%). A discernible risk factor or cause of urolithiasis was absent in 21 patients (47%). A review of imaging studies found 38 with stones visible on ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. A total of 21 patients underwent NCCT, in addition to ultrasonography and/or abdominal plain film. Of these, only 5 patients required NCCT for the diagnosis or management of their stone.",
"DEFB in children status post-NF is unusual with an incidence 1.72% of our patients. Our review might be underestimating the incidence as translucent foreign bodies may have been missed. DEFB are surprising due to the fact that most of these children are neurologically impaired and gastrostomy-tube fed. The children's NPO status may also result in these DEFB remaining asymptomatic until being 'incidentally' found on radiographic imaging. Thus, NF may predispose to obstruction when a foreign body (FB) is ingested; but because of the population involved, this remains a fairly unusual entity. However, the presence of a DEFB in this population may necessitate prompt endoscopic retrieval as the likelihood of spontaneous passage is less.",
"A clinical entity consisting of periodic fever associated with aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis and cervical adenitis termed \"PFAPA syndrome\" in young children (<5 years old) may be unfamiliar to otolaryngologists. We present our 5-year experience of PFAPA syndrome. Case series. Tertiary academic. A 5-year retrospective chart review for children (<5 years old) who have undergone tonsillectomies with and without adenoidectomies was conducted. Medical records from subjects who underwent the procedures for recurrent pharyngitis were reviewed with reference to a history of periodic fever and stomatitis associated with pharyngitis. Tonsillectomy with and without adenoidectomy. The objective measure was a comparison of the number of visits to the primary care physician for pharyngitis associated with fever in a 3-month period before and after the surgical intervention. The subjective measure was a telephone interview evaluating preoperative and postoperative symptoms. Of the 117 patients identified, 22 (19%) underwent surgery for recurrent pharyngitis. Five subjects (average age, 2.5 years) were identified as having PFAPA syndrome. The average number of preoperative PFAPA-related complaints was 11.6 compared with 0.2 for the number of postoperative PFAPA-related complaints (P=.03).",
"Previous studies have suggested that the sum of Attention, Aggression, and Anxious/Depressed subscales of Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL-PBD; pediatric bipolar disorder phenotype) may be specific to pediatric bipolar disorder (BP). The purpose of this study was to evaluate the usefulness of the CBCL and CBCL-PBD to identify BP in children <12 years old. A sample of children with BP I, II, and not otherwise specified (NOS) (n = 157) ascertained through the Course and Outcome for Bipolar Disorder in Youth (COBY) study were compared with a group of children with major depressive/anxiety disorders (MDD/ANX; n = 101), disruptive behavior disorder (DBD) (n = 127), and healthy control (HC) (n = 128). The CBCL T-scores and area under the curve (AUC) scores were calculated and compared among the above-noted groups. Forty one percent of BP children did not have significantly elevated CBCL-PBD scores (>or=2 standard deviations [SD]). The sensitivity and specificity of CBCL-PBD >or= 2 SD for diagnosis of BP was 57% and 70-77%, respectively, and the accuracy of CBCL-PBD for identifying a BP diagnosis was moderate (AUC = 0.72-0.78).",
"We describe three neonates who presented around the tenth day of life with multiple bilateral fluctuating cold abscesses situated in the lymph node areas, with secondary fistulation but without associated fever or general symptoms. In all cases, Staphylococcus aureus was found in the abscesses and the umbilicus with similar antibiograms. The evolution was good and the children remained in good health afterwards.",
"In experienced hands, internal jugular venous catheterization is a safe procedure. However, the incidence of axillary vein or right atrial catheter malposition is 14%, and clinical factors alone will not reliably identify malpositioned catheters. Chest radiographs are necessary to ensure correct internal jugular catheter position.",
"This study aimed to determine the spectrum of temporal bone computed tomography (CT) abnormalities in children with conductive hearing loss (CHL) with and without microtia. From 1993 to 2008, a total of 3396 pediatric records including CHL were reviewed at our institution and revealed 180 cases of persistent CHL, 46 of whom had diagnostic temporal bone CT examinations. All of these examinations were systematically reviewed by two pediatric neuroradiologists, working in consensus, who had 5 and 18 years, respectively, of dedicated pediatric neuroradiology experience. Of the 46 children, 16 were boys and 30 were girls (age: 0.2-16 years; mean: 5 years). Also, 21 (46%) children had microtia and 25 (54%) children did not, as determined by clinical evaluation. External auditory canal atresia/stenosis (EAC-A/S) was the most common anomaly in both microtia and non-microtia groups. Two or more anomalies were observed in 18/21 children with microtia. The frequency of EAC-A/S was greater in children with microtia versus those without it (86% versus 32%, respectively; P = 0.0003). Syndromic diagnoses were also significantly more frequently made in children with microtia versus those without microtia (76% versus 20%, respectively; P = 0.0001). Temporal bone CT scans were normal in 10 children (22%) with persistent CHL.",
"The number of complications encountered in children who had central venous access of the subclavian vein or internal jugular central vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy was infrequent, the number of misplaced catheters was minimized with intraoperative fluoroscopy, and all children with pulmonary complications showed clinical signs suggestive of pulmonary complications before postoperative chest x-ray. Therefore, children who have had central venous access of the subclavian and internal jugular vein with intraoperative fluoroscopy do not appear to require a routine chest x-ray after catheter placement unless clinical suspicion of a complication exists.",
"Pediatric neck infections are frequently treated by Otolaryngologists, Head and Neck surgeons. The relative role of medical versus surgical treatment of pediatric neck infections is debated. The aims of this study are to analyze the management of pediatric neck infections with respect to clinical assessment, radiological assessment and treatment. Medical records from January 1999 to June 2005 were reviewed and analyzed. Two hundred and five children with lateral neck infections were included in the study. The clinical diagnosis correlated with the radiology finding in 73.6% with a sensitivity of 28% and a specificity of 92% for lateral neck abscess recognition. The ultrasound finding correlated with the surgical finding in 65.2% with a sensitivity of 70% and a specificity of 33%. When an ultrasound scan was used it changed the intended treatment plan in 10.5% of children.",
"Pyelectasis is a benign condition. Only 2 patients required pharmacological intervention (prophylactic treatment for VUR Grade IV patients). Initially at least, cystography should not be indicated in cases of microalbuminuria and/or normal urine concentrations.",
"Septic thrombosis of the sigmoid and lateral sinus is a rare complication of acute otitis media, mastoiditis and cholesteatoma. Hence, the aim of this chat review was to analyze the demographics, presenting symptoms, diagnosis, and therapeutic management of otogenic sigmoid sinus thrombosis. Especially the role of low molecular weight heparin in the therapy of septic intracranial sinus thrombosis in children should be illuminated. A retrospective chart review was performed. Six patients were included in this trial. One patient was treated completely conservatively. All other patients underwent surgical treatment consisting of mastoidectomy (n=5), additional thrombectomy (n=3) and ligation of the internal jugular vein (n=2). All patients received intravenous antibiotics and anticoagulants. Unfractionated heparin was administered for three days after surgery followed by an anticoagulant therapy with low-molecular weight heparin for three months. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and the anti-factor-Xa-plasma-levels were monitored during anticoagulation in short term intervals. There were no complications related to the anticoagulant therapy. Recanalization was found in all patients who were treated without thrombectomy or ligation of the internal jugular vein and in the case of complete conservative treatment.",
"Ultrasound is increasingly used to facilitate right internal jugular vein (RIJV) cannulation in children. In children without cardiac disease, position changes and enhancement maneuvers increase RIJV cross-sectional area (CSA) and further facilitate cannulation. We investigated the effect of these maneuvers on RIJV CSA in children with a bidirectional Glenn (BDG) shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure. The CSA (cm(2)) of the RIJV in 21 children with a BDG shunt presenting for a Fontan procedure was assessed by ultrasonic planimetry (SonoSite). Two positions, supine (S) and 15 degrees Trendelenburg (T); and two enhancements maneuvers, manual liver compression (L) and a simulated Valsalva maneuver (V) were utilized in combination. Eight separate measurements (S, S + L, S + V, S + L + V, T, T + L, T + V, T + L + V) were made in each patient. Data were analyzed using one-way analysis of variance with repeated measures and with Tukey post hoc pairwise comparison analysis. No significant change in the RIJV CSA or % change in CSA from baseline (S) was observed.",
"Biliary dyskinesia is a common diagnosis that frequently results in cholecystectomy. In adults, most clinicians use a cut off value for the gallbladder ejection fraction (GBEF) of <35% to define the disease. This disorder is not well characterized in children. Our aim was to determine the relation between GBEF and gallbladder pathology using a large statewide medical record repository. We obtained records from all patients of 21 years and younger who underwent hepatic iminodiacetic acid (HIDA) testing within the Indiana Network for Patient Care from 2004 to 2013. GBEF results were obtained from radiology reports using data mining techniques. Age, sex, race, and insurance status were obtained for each patient. Any gallbladder pathology obtained subsequent to an HIDA scan was also obtained and parsed for mention of cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis. We performed mixed effects logistic regression analysis to determine the influence of age, sex, race, insurance status, pathologist, and GBEF on the presence of these histologic findings. Two thousand eight hundred forty-one HIDA scans on 2558 patients were found. Of these, 310 patients had a full-text gallbladder pathology report paired with the HIDA scan. GBEF did not correlate with the presence of gallbladder pathology (cholecystitis, cholelithiasis, or cholesterolosis) when controlling for age, sex, race, insurance status, and pathologist using a mixed effects model.",
"yes. Transcatheter occlusion of L-R shunts can be performed safely and effectively in children with BPD. Further studies may clarify the role of such therapy in improvement in respiratory physiology over time.",
"To study the changing pattern in the use of intravenous urogram (IVU) and non-contrast enhanced CT (CTKUB) for evaluation of flank pain at a single centre. All patients who underwent either an IVU or CTKUB at a single, tertiary care center from January 2002 to December 2007 were retrospectively identified from the radiology database. Study samples were-divided into two groups: Pediatric (14 years or less) and Adult (greater than 14 years). For each group, overall trends as well as trends across referral setting and gender were explored by plotting line graphs using SPSS version 15. During the study period a total of 11245 uro-radiological examinations were performed using either IVU (43.7%, n=4915) or CTKUB (56.3%, n=6330). A remarkable majority of procedures (95.5%, n=10741) was performed in adult patients. Overall, the respective proportions of IVU and CTKUB were 87.9% (n=43) and 12.1% (n=61) in the pediatric group whereas 41.6% (n=4472) and 58.4% (n=6269) in adults. Majority in both groups were ambulatory patients (Pediatrics 83.7%, Adults 76.7%). During 2002-20007, the yearly proportion of CTKUB increased from 27% to 80% in adults and from 3% to 27% in children.",
"Information about portal hypertension (PHT) in children is meagre. We therefore studied the spectrum and outcome of PHT in children (<or=14 years of age) over a period of 9 years. PHT was diagnosed on endoscopy (presence of varices) in 517 cases during the study period. The diagnosis of extrahepatic portal venous obstruction (EHPVO) and Budd-Chiari Syndrome (BCS) were made on the basis of ultrasound examination. Cirrhosis was diagnosed on the basis of clinical, biochemical, ultrasound, and liver biopsy (whenever feasible). Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis (NCPF) and congenital hepatic fibrosis (CHF) were diagnosed on liver biopsy. Endoscopic sclerotherapy (EST) was done in all the patients who presented with variceal bleeding and surgery was performed whenever indicated. Causes of PHT included EHPVO in 54%, cirrhosis in 39%, CHF in 3%, NCPF in 2%, and BCS in 2%. Of these, 279 (54%) patients presented with upper gastrointestinal bleeding and this group comprised of EHPVO in 85%, cirrhosis in 10%, CHF in 2.5%, NCPF in 2%, and BCS in 1%. Bleeding was the presenting feature in 85% of EHPVO cases and in 13% of cirrhosis cases. In EHPVO cases, variceal eradication was achieved in 95% of cases with a mean 5 +/- 2.4 EST sessions. Surgery was required in 24 cases of EHPVO. Mortality due to bleeding was 1.7% in EHPVO and 30% in cirrhosis.",
"Thyroglossal duct cysts (TGDCs) are the most common form of congenital neck cyst, accounting for up to 70% of such lesions. There has been no consensus on which factors predict outcome of thyroglossal duct cyst excision. The objective of the current study is to evaluate the relevance of symptomatology and age at presentation with outcome of TGDCs. Retrospective review of patients with TGDC at a tertiary care children's hospital. Data collected included patient's age, gender, clinical presentation, presence or absence of preoperative infection, imaging modality, type of procedure performed, size and location of the lesion, postoperative infection, complications, and recurrence of disease. Twenty-nine patients were identified (59% female, 41% male). Age of presentation was bimodal and ranged from 18 months to 14 years. The most common presenting symptom was the presence of an asymptomatic midline neck mass (76%). A history of preoperative TGDC infection was present in 22% of patients </=2 years of age and in 43% of patients >/=5 years of age. Recurrence rate after the Sistrunk procedure was 3.4%.",
"yes. Using a simple technique, ultrasound identifies the dominant internal jugular vein, thus indicating the safer side before blind catheterization.",
"Fewer than 40% of primary spontaneous pneumothorax patients are definitively treated with nonoperative management. A prospective study is needed to determine whether primary surgery with blebectomy/mechanical pleurodesis is a more effective treatment strategy.",
"Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that affects mainly young adults, but can occur also in children and adolescents. The pathogenesis of MS is still not fully understood and chronic cerebrospinal venous insufficiency (CCSVI) was suggested to be implicated in MS. Although there is no strong evidence to support this hypothesis, a considerable number of MS patients, including adolescents, have undergone endovascular treatment procedures. The aim of this study was the evaluate the prevalence of extracranial venous system anomalies in children and adolescents with multiple sclerosis in comparison to age-matched controls. Twenty-one children with clinically definite diagnosis of MS (mean age 13.8 years), and 19 age-matched controls (mean age 12.5 years) were investigated using 1.5 T scanner with coronal 3D contrast-enhanced coronal venography. The diameters of internal jugular veins (IJV) at both sides of the neck were estimated separately, from the level C1 to Th1. Anomalies of the extracranial venous system were found in 10 MS patients (47.6%) and 13 controls (68.4%). Normal anatomy of extracranial veins was recognized in 11 MS patients (53%) and 6 controls (31%). Comparison of the measurement results for MS patients and the control group revealed that there are no significant statistical differences in cross-section areas for a given level.",
"There are no widely accepted guidelines for management of pediatric patients who have evidence of solid organ contrast extravasation (\"blush\") on computed tomography (CT) scans following blunt abdominal trauma. We report our experience as a Level 1 pediatric trauma center in managing cases with hepatic and splenic blush. All pediatric blunt abdominal trauma cases resulting in liver or splenic injury were queried from 2008 to 2014. Patients were excluded if a CT was unavailable in the medical record. The presence of contrast blush was based on final reports from attending pediatric radiologists. Correlations between incidence of contrast blush and major outcomes of interest were determined using χ and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests for categorical and continuous variables, respectively, evaluating statistical significance at p<0.05. Of 318 patients with splenic or liver injury after blunt abdominal trauma, we report on 30 patients (9%) with solid organ blush, resulting in 18 cases of hepatic blush and 16 cases of splenic blush (four patients had extravasation from both organs). Blush was not found to correlate significantly with age, gender, or type of injury (liver vs. splenic) but was found to associate with higher grades of solid organ injury (p = 0.002) and higher ISS overall (p<0.001). Patients with contrast blush on imaging were more likely to be admitted to the intensive care unit (90% vs. 41%, p<0.001), receive blood products, (50% vs. 12%, p<0.001), and be considered for an intervention (p<0.001). Eighty percent of patients with an isolated contrast blush of the spleen or liver did not require an operation. Only 17% of patients with blush required definitive treatment, such as embolization (n = 1), packing (n = 1), or splenectomy (n = 3). Blush had no significant correlation with overall survival (p = 0.13).",
"yes. Averaged cerebral and renal rSO(2) less than 65% as measured by NIRS predicts hyperlactatemia (>3 mmol/L) in acyanotic children after congenital heart surgery. Hence, this noninvasive, continuous monitoring tool may facilitate the identification of global hypoperfusion caused by low cardiac output syndrome in this population.",
"no. We found no evidence to suggest that MS children and adolescents have more extracranial veins anomalies than healthy patients. Considering the risk of such treatment, endovascular interventions should be discourage.",
"Mild bleeding disorders (BD) such as von Willebrand disease (VWD) type I are often difficult to diagnose because of inconclusive laboratory results. Our study examines the diagnostic value of repeated testing. Prospective study on 200 children. Extensive laboratory testing was done twice and a standardized history was taken. 165 patients completed the study (median age 5.6 years). Main reason for referral was aPTT prolongation (n = 109). The initial diagnosis was upheld in 74/165 (44.8%) children. Of 18 patients rated normal, 8 had to be reclassified as possible VWD later. Ten patients were diagnosed VWD I. In 36 patients possible VWD was found, 13 of these had normal results at the second visit while in 6 VWD became more likely. The main diagnosis was lupus-anticoagulant (n=79), normalizing in 24. A total of 88 children underwent surgery during the study period.",
"To establish the frequency of large visible bubbles or collections of bubbles in the jugular vein during radical neck dissection in the supine position. Prospective observation by at least two investigators of random consecutive patients scheduled for radical neck surgery. Operating room suite in a university hospital specializing in head and neck cancer surgery. Twelve consecutive ASA physical status II and III patients undergoing modified radical dissection for cancer. General anesthesia with fentanyl, oxygen (O2) 30% to 40%, nitrous oxide (N2O) 60% to 70%, and isoflurane 0.5% to 1.5%, with mechanical ventilation. Table position horizontal. Modified radical neck dissections performed by attending surgeons. Surgical field (jugular vein) carefully observed by the surgeons and an independent anesthesiologist investigator for the presence of bubbles during the dissection. Easily visible bubbles were observed in the jugular veins of 42% (5 of 12) of the consecutive radical neck dissection patients studied. Some of the collections of bubbles were large (greater than 2.5 cm in diameter). In one case, the appearance and subsequent disappearance of bubbles was followed by a transient drop in arterial blood pressure (BP) and in end-tidal carbon dioxide (PETCO2), which was suggestive of a diagnosis of central venous air embolization.",
"The purpose of the present study was to evaluate the incidence of epidural air associated with spontaneous pneumomediastinum in children. The subjects consisted of 25 boys and 17 girls with an age range of 3-14 years (mean age: 8.5 years) who underwent chest computed tomography (CT) for evaluation of spontaneous pneumomediastinum. The CT scans and medical records were reviewed retrospectively. Of the 42 patients, four (9.5%) had intraspinal air on CT. The air was interpreted as epidural in every patient. The small number of patients with epidural air meant that there was no significant difference in age, gender, or clinical manifestations between groups with and without epidural air. Subcutaneous emphysema was identified in all four patients with epidural air versus 18 out of 38 patients (47%) without epidural air. The patients with epidural air did not have any neurologic symptoms. Irrespective of the presence or absence of epidural air, every patient had a favorable outcome without any serious complications.",
"Congenital hydronephrosis and isolated pyelectasis are frequently diagnosed by prenatal ultrasound. About 80% of cases resolve spontaneously in early childhood. Currently there is no agreed on protocol for prenatal followup. Most clinicians use a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm as a threshold for identifying isolated pyelectasis and hydronephrosis at 33 weeks of gestation or anteroposterior diameter greater than 7 mm at 40 weeks of gestation. We sought to determine a fetal renal pelvis diameter cutoff at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation that would be able to predict significant nephron uropathy requiring surgery. Our protocol included 2 prenatal ultrasounds at 20 and 30 weeks of gestation and 3 postnatal ultrasounds at ages 1, 6 and 12 months. Between January 2009 and December 2011 we evaluated 149 prenatal cases (130 males, 19 females) of isolated pyelectasis and 41 cases (28 males, 13 females) of hydronephrosis with a renal pelvis anteroposterior diameter of greater than 4 mm at 20 weeks of gestation. For isolated pyelectasis we identified cutoffs of 6 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 84.3% specificity) and 10 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 91.9% specificity). For hydronephrosis we identified cutoffs of 10 mm at 20 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 86.1% specificity) and 12 mm at 30 weeks of gestation (100% sensitivity, 66.7% specificity).",
"In our review of 503 consecutive children with meningitis, none were noted to have bacterial meningitis manifesting solely as a simple seizure. We suspect that this previously described entity is either extremely rare or nonexistent. Commonly taught decision rules requiring lumbar puncture in children with fever and a seizure appear to be unnecessarily restrictive.",
"The demographic and technical data of all the pediatric caudal blocks (CBs) performed from August 1986 to September 1989 in our teaching hospital were prospectively collected on a computerized protocol. Except for 22 high-risk ex-premature infants, all CBs were performed under halothane or isoflurane anesthesia, after premedication with atropine. Moreover, they were performed using local anesthetic solutions containing 1:200,000 epinephrine. A total of 1100 CBs were performed in children younger than 7 years; 203 patients weighed 5 kg or less; 260, 5.1-10 kg; 300, 10.1-15 kg; and 337, more than 15.1 kg. The CBs were also analyzed according to the anesthesiologist's experience with CB: 184 were performed by anesthesiologists who had performed fewer than 10 CBs (Group A); 210, 10-20 CBs (Group B), and 704, more than 20 CBs (Group C). We found difficult landmarks in 11.2% of our patients. Moreover, it was significantly more frequent (p = 0.0004) if the patients weighed less than 10 kg, because of poor anatomy or obesity. There were 76 bloody taps (BTs, 6.9%); although there was a statistically insignificant trend toward a lower incidence of BTs in the 5.1-10-kg group, experience seemed to influence the incidence of BTs, as it decreased from 11.4% in Group A to 8.9% and 5.4% in Groups B and C, respectively (p less than 0.05). There were eight systemic reactions (i.e., brisk onset of tachycardia during or shortly after the CB), which were all short-lived and responded quickly to hyperventilation with oxygen. Two occurred despite repositioning the needle after a previous BT, but six occurred with no previous evidence of blood and were thus called \"concealed\" BTs. Moreover, all occurred in children weighing 10 kg or less. There was only one dural tap. Only nine CBs (0.81%) failed to provide effective intraoperative anesthesia, and 93% of the patients left the recovery room without having required narcotic or non-narcotic analgesics.",
"Displaced paediatric supracondylar humeral fractures pose a significant risk of neurovascular injury and consequently have traditionally been treated as a surgical emergency. Recently, the need for emergency surgery has been questioned. We wished to analyse our experience at a large UK tertiary paediatric trauma centre. A retrospective case note review was performed on patients with Gartland Grades 2 and 3 supracondylar fractures observed in a 2-year period from July 2008 to July 2010. We divided children into those treated before 12 h (early surgery) and after 12 h (delayed surgery). Analysis was undertaken using Fisher's exact test. Of the 137 patients, 115 were included in the study; median time-to-surgery was 15:30 (range 2:45-62:50); thirty-nine children were treated before 12 h and 76 patients after. In the early surgery group, three children (7.7%) developed a superficial pin-site infection, four children (10.3%) required open reduction, five children (12.8%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (5%) required reoperation. In the delayed surgery group, one child (1.3%) had a superficial pin-site infection, four children (5.3%) required open reduction, seven children (9.2%) sustained an iatrogenic nerve injury, and two children (2.6%) reoperation. Bivariate analysis of our data using Fisher's exact t test revealed no statistically significant difference between early and delayed surgery groups with regard to infection rates (p = 0.1), iatrogenic nerve injury (p = 0.53) or need for open reduction (p = 0.44).",
"yes. Venous thromboembolism is rare in young critical care trauma patients, even older adolescents. The absence of published data on both the baseline risk of venous thromboembolism in pediatric critical care patients and the efficacy and safety of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis preclude the ability to make definitive recommendations for the use of venous thromboembolism prophylaxis in this setting. Our results, however, suggest that venous thromboembolism prophylaxis may need to be considered only in critically injured adolescents and young adults with a continuing need for central venous access.",
"yes. Despite slightly lower adverse outcomes, arterial surgery does not appear to confer a significant advantage over nonoperative treatment in pediatric patients with BBA injury. In patients younger than 6 years, both modalities appear to be equality effective.",
"Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) has long been characterized by the triad of deafness, cataract, and cardiovascular malformations (CVMs). While initial reports identified patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) as the primary CVM in CRS, the exact nature of the CVMs found in CRS has not been well established. We searched the English literature from 1941 through 2008 to identify studies that used cardiac catheterization or echocardiography to evaluate the CVMs in CRS. Of the 121 patients in the 10 studies with catheterization data, 78% had branch pulmonary artery stenosis, and 62% had a PDA. In 49% of cases, both branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA were present, whereas isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis and isolated PDA were found in 29 and 13% of cases, respectively. Of the 12 patients in the 10 studies with echocardiographic data, PDA was more common than branch pulmonary artery stenosis, but this finding is greatly limited by the small numbers of patients and limitations of echocardiography. Although published studies of CVMs in CRS have in general reported PDA as the CVM phenotype most commonly associated with CRS, among CRS cases evaluated by catheterization, branch pulmonary artery stenosis was actually more common than PDA. Moreover, although the combination of branch pulmonary artery stenosis and PDA was more common than either branch pulmonary artery stenosis or PDA alone, isolated branch pulmonary artery stenosis was twice as common as isolated PDA.",
"Shielding of the gonads is a dose-saving strategy in pediatric radiography and its use is the law in New York and the majority of other states. However, routine use of gonadal shields is controversial because of concerns that important diagnostic information can be obscured. The purpose of this study was to assess the frequency and spatial distribution of key findings on portable neonatal abdominal radiographs. We reviewed the 2,544 portable neonatal intensive care unit anteroposterior abdominal radiographs performed in 2010 at a university medical center, of which 962 were inadequately shielded. These 962 radiographs were reviewed by pairs of pediatric radiologists for the presence of findings in different regions, including bowel abnormalities, pneumatosis, free air, inguinal hernias, osseous abnormalities, and catheter/tube tips. The fewest pertinent findings were present below the level of the sacrosciatic notches (n = 181, 18.8%). Of the 853 abnormalities below the level of the iliac crests in our cohort, six were isolated to these regions, whereas others had concomitant abnormalities more superiorly. Of 35 radiographs with pneumatosis or suspected pneumatosis in the pelvis, 33 had pneumatosis in more superior regions. Suspected free air was never isolated to the pelvis. Osseous abnormalities were only present in the pelvis below the sacrosciatic notch, and 37.5% of lower extremity catheters terminated below the level of the sacrosciatic notches.",
"Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) for treatment of spontaneous pneumothorax refractory to nonoperative management was first reported in children by Rodgers in 1986 (Ann Surg. 1986; 204:677-680). Small series have shown success with apical blebectomy, mechanical or chemical (talc) pleurodesis, or combination techniques. We report the largest pediatric series of VATS for primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) to date, to assess outcomes and compare techniques. Retrospective review of all children undergoing VATS for PSP between 1999 and 2007 at 2 university-affiliated hospitals by the same group of surgeons. Mann-Whitney U tests and chi(2) used (P<.05 = significant). Thirty-two patients underwent 41 VATS procedures (32 initial-30 unilateral, 2 bilateral; 9 subsequent-7 contralateral, 2 ipsilateral recurrences). Mean age at presentation was 16.5 years (range, 13-20 years). Blebs were identified at the time of VATS in 95% of patients, but in 12.5%, they were on lower lobes. Mean duration of postoperative air leak was 2.7 days, postoperative hospital length of stay was 5.0 days, and postoperative chest tube duration was 5.1 days; 2 patients required Heimlich valves, which were managed at home. Five different surgical techniques were used as follows: blebectomy plus mechanical pleurodesis had the shortest length of stay (4.3 days) and need for chest tube drainage (4.1 days) but had a higher recurrence risk (6% major, 16% minor) than blebectomy plus chemical pleurodesis. The risk of requiring an additional VATS procedure (ipsilateral or contralateral) was 28%. Mean follow-up was 46 months.",
"In the 0- to 8-year-old age group in whom the incidence of cervical spine injury is rare but frequently involves the upper cervical spine, the transoral odontoid roentgenogram may be of little value in the evaluation of the spine and should not be considered necessary in \"clearing\" the pediatric cervical spine. An alternative evaluation of these patients would include an initial lateral and AP radiograph, followed by computed tomography scan.",
"The aim of this study was to determine in a pediatric population whether a routine chest x-ray after central venous access is necessary when the central venous catheter is placed with intraoperative fluoroscopy. This was a retrospective review of the charts of all patients at Children's Hospital in Denver, Colorado who underwent subclavian or internal jugular central venous catheter placement from January 1, 1998 through December 31, 2001. Age, sex, primary reason for access, access site, number of venipuncture attempts, type of catheter, intraoperative fluoroscopy results, chest x-ray results, location of the tip of the catheter, and complications were analyzed. There were 1,039 central venous catheters placed in 824 patients, 92.6% in the subclavian vein and 7.4% in the internal jugular vein. There were 604 (58.1%) children who had both fluoroscopy and a postprocedure chest x-ray, there were 308 (29.6%) who had only fluoroscopy, there were 117 (11.3%) who had only a postprocedure chest x-ray, and there were 10 (1.0%) who had neither fluoroscopy nor chest x-ray. On completion of the procedure, there were 12 (1.1%) children with misplaced central venous catheters, only 1 (0.1%) when intraoperative fluoroscopy was used. There were 17 (1.6%) complications; 9 (0.9%) were pulmonary (pneumothorax, hemothorax, or an effusion). All children with pulmonary complications experienced clinical signs and symptoms suggestive of the complication after their central venous catheter insertion but before their postprocedure chest x-ray.",
"To demonstrate an asymmetry of the internal jugular veins, a finding which will have consequences for catheterization. Prospective study. The medical ICU of a university-affiliated teaching hospital. Eighty critically ill consecutive patients. Measurement of the cross-sectional area of the internal jugular veins. Search for an asymmetry, defined as an area at least twice that of the contralateral vein. An asymmetry was noted in 62.5% of the patients. The dominant vein was the right in only 68 % of these cases. In addition, 23% of the 160 jugular internal veins had an area of 0.4 cm2 or less.",
"Most of the children with hydronephrosis do not require any surgical intervention. However, in individual cases, irreversible loss of renal function can develop. Predictive criteria have been proven ineffective so far in determining in which children obstruction will lead to renal damage. The aim of our retrospective study was to determine the role of a crossing lower pole vessel (CV) in children undergoing pyeloplasty. Between 1996 and 2003, 137 patients (age between 6 weeks and 16 years) with unilateral ureteropelvic junction obstruction and no associated urological pathologies underwent Anderson-Hynes dismembered pyeloplasty. A total of 112 patients were evaluated with complete data. One of the following criteria was considered to be indication for surgery in children with grade 4 hydronephrosis: differential renal function (DRF)<40%; clinical symptoms such as pyolenephritis and flank pain; during follow-up renographies, a reduction of DRF>10% and washout patterns II or III b according to O'Reilly. We looked at the age during surgery and the kind of presentation. DRF was measured using diuretic renography preoperatively and 1 year postoperatively. A postoperative change in DRF of group A (children without CV, n = 84) was compared to that in group B (children with CV, n = 28). Median age at the time of surgery was 5 months in group A compared to 23 months in group B. Only in 21.4% of the children with CV compared to 60.7% without CV hydronephrosis was diagnosed by ultrasound examination antenatally. We found a preoperative DRF of 42.4% +/- 11.2 SD in group A, and of 38.9% +/- 11.7 SD in group B. The percentage of postoperative improvement was 3.3% in group A and 15.4% in group B.",
"To assess which clinical features predict an increased likelihood of an abnormal computed tomographic (CT) scan and how frequently CT influences management of bacterial meningitis. Retrospective patient series. University-affiliated hospitals in Dallas, Tex. Three hundred thirty-seven children with bacterial meningitis, of whom 107 (32%) had undergone CT scans. One or more abnormalities were found in 52% of the initial scans. The most frequent indication for CT at our institution was persistent or secondary fever, and in 56% of these children, subdural effusion or empyema was noted. However, findings on CT rarely predicted a need for intervention. In contrast, children with focal seizures or focal neurologic signs were more likely to have brain parenchymal changes. Scans in 19 patients (12%) prompted surgical intervention, most commonly drainage of a subdural collection. The conditions of only nine children (8.4% of those who had undergone CT scans) improved following intervention that was initiated because of findings on CT.",
"yes. Our series demonstrates that early recognition of this rare syndrome is necessary to adequately treat and prevent upper tract deterioration in these unique individuals. Although the urofacial is difficult to diagnose in infants, cognizance must be maintained in order to prevent severe subsequent sequalae.",
"Although ultrasound is regarded as the first choice imaging modality for evaluating a pediatric neck mass, neck computed tomography (CT) is necessary for urgent surgical conditions such as deep neck infections. Our aim was to evaluate the diagnostic effectiveness of and proper patient selection for neck CT as a method for the initial evaluation of pediatric neck masses in the emergency department. We analyzed the medical records of 105 pediatric patients who visited the emergency department with neck mass whose initial imaging work-up was a neck CT and who visited the emergency department with a neck mass. The parameters investigated included the patient's age, sex, symptom duration, clinical impression, CT interpretation, final diagnosis, and treatment. The positive predictive value (PPV) for CT was calculated, and the parameters that correlated with an urgent surgical condition post-CT were evaluated. The median age was 6.5 years (1 month to 12 years), and the male-to-female ratio was 2:1. The most common initial impression was acute cervical lymphadenopathy. A comparison of the final diagnosis and CT scan demonstrated that the overall PPV was 96.2%. If the initial impression was a deep neck infection, a salivary gland infection, or tonsillitis, the PPV for CT was 100%. Fever (>38.0°C) and severe tenderness were significant between patients with and without urgent surgical conditions on CT.",
"Early detection of biliary atresia (BA) has a vital role in prevention of liver cirrhosis in these patients. There are some evidences that triangular cord (TC) sign, i.e., triangular structure located cranial to the portal vein bifurcation on ultrasonographic examination, is suggestive of BA in suspected cases. The aim of this study is to evaluate and compare the sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of TC sign with other methods of diagnosis such as hepatobiliary scan. Fifty-eight infants referred to pediatric gastroenterology ward with diagnosis of infantile cholestasis from March 2004 to March 2008 were evaluated to find the cause of cholestasis. Diagnosis was made by means of history, clinical examination, hepatobiliary scan, and liver biopsy. Ultrasonographic examination was focused on presence of TC sign in patients. If the diagnosis was in favor of BA, patient was sent for direct cholangiography as a gold-standard test for confirmation of the diagnosis. The sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of the tests were compared with golden standard. Among 58 infants with infantile cholestasis, BA was diagnosed and confirmed in 10 infants (17.2%). Hepatobiliary scintigraphy had 80% sensitivity, 72.9% specificity, and 74.1% accuracy. TC sign had 70% sensitivity, 95.8% specificity, and 91.3% accuracy.",
"The presence of multiple nonspecific findings on abdominal CT scan does not reliably predict BBMI in children. Children also appear to suffer complications from BBMI less frequently than adults, regardless of the time to surgery. Therefore, nonspecific findings alone do not warrant surgical exploration. The decision to operate should instead be based on clinical data that include serial physical examinations.",
"Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a common disembryogenic defect with well-attested prevalence but dubious etiopathogenetic linkage with cryptogenic stroke and different clinical conditions. Transcranial color-coded Doppler (TCCD) assures high accuracy in diagnosing right-to-left shunt (RLS) and its functional aspects. Aim of the study was to evaluate RLS prevalence and degree in subjects submitted to TCCD for conditions theoretically associated or caused by paradoxical embolism to the brain. PFO assessment, performed in 10 major diagnostic categories and a control group, followed a standardized protocol with a 10 or 20 microbubbles (MB) cutoff to identify any or only large RLS, respectively. Among 2113 patients, a significant larger RLS prevalence was found in stroke (53.3%), TIA (45.7%) and migraine with aura (39.7%) when compared with non-migraineurs controls (25.5%). RLS degree was significantly higher in stroke and TIA patients: The ROC curve from MB load data helped to identify new cutoff values for both normal breathing (42 MB) and Valsalva (139 MB) tests. From logistic regression, a family history for PFO, ASA, and male gender appeared independent predictors of a RLS. By contrast, RLS seemed independent of white matter abnormalities presence on brain neuroimaging or stroke mimics.",
"The goals of this study were to describe the clinical and anatomic features of infants undergoing Kasai portoenterostomy (KPE) for biliary atresia (BA) and to examine associations between these parameters and outcomes. Infants enrolled in the prospective Childhood Liver Disease Research and Education Network, who underwent KPE were studied. Patients enrolled in a blinded, interventional trial were excluded from survival analysis. Primary endpoints were successful surgical drainage (total bilirubin less than 2 mg/dL within the first 3 months), transplant-free survival (Kaplan-Meier), and time to transplant/death (Cox regression). KPE was performed in 244 infants (54% female; mean age: 65 ± 29 days). Transplant-free survival was 53.7% and 46.7% at 1 and 2 years post-KPE. The risk of transplant/death was significantly lower in the 45.6% of patients who achieved successful bile drainage within 3 months post-KPE (HR: 0.08, P < 0.001). The risk of transplant/death was increased in patients with porta hepatis atresia (Ohi type II and III vs type I; HR: 2.03, P = 0.030), nonpatent common bile duct (Ohi subtype: b, c, and d vs a; HR: 4.31, P = 0.022), BA splenic malformation syndrome (HR: 1.92, P = 0.025), ascites > 20 mL (HR: = 1.90, P = 0.0230), nodular liver appearance compared to firm (HR: = 1.61, P = 0.008), and age at KPE ≥ 75 days (HR: 1.73, P < 0.002). Outcome was not associated with gestational age, gender, race, ethnicity, or extent of porta hepatis dissection.",
"It is frequently taught that lumbar puncture is a mandatory procedure in many or all children who have fever and a seizure, because the convulsion may represent the sole manifestation of bacterial meningitis. We attempted to determine the incidence of this occult manifestation of meningitis. Retrospective case series. 503 consecutive cases of meningitis in children aged 2 months to 15 years seen at two referral hospitals during a 20-year period. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in patients having associated seizures. Meningitis was associated with seizures in 115 cases (23%), and 105 of these children were either obtunded or comatose at their first visit with a physician after the seizure. The remaining 10 had relatively normal levels of consciousness and either were believed to have viral meningitis (2) or possessed straightforward indications for lumbar puncture: nuchal rigidity (6), prolonged focal seizure (1), or multiple seizures and a petechial rash (1). No cases of occult bacterial meningitis were found.",
"PHACE syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder involving large facial hemangiomas in association with posterior fossa abnormalities, cerebral arterial anomalies, cardiac defects, and eye abnormalities. A recent consensus statement has delineated criteria necessary for the diagnosis of PHACE syndrome. Extracutaneous manifestations of PHACE syndrome predominately affect the cerebrovascular system. To date, there are no reports of cerebral cavernous malformations (CCMs) in children with PHACE syndrome. We reviewed the charts of children admitted to the Children''s Hospital of Pittsburgh who met criteria for PHACE syndrome, and evaluated neuroimaging for cerebrovascular abnormalities, including the finding of CCMs. Six children met criteria for PHACE syndrome at our institution over a 10-year period. All children were female. All children had cerebrovascular abnormalities sufficient to meet major criteria for diagnosis. Four children (66.7 %) were found incidentally to have CCMs; all lesions measured less than 5 mm at the time of diagnosis and were asymptomatic.",
"yes. The unique point of this case report is the rarity of such a presentation. Careful planning and knowledge of the occurrence of such conditions can make surgery in these children safe, and all the levels can be treated in a single setting.",
"Recent reports describing surgical experiences with childhood IE are sparse. We sought to determine patient-specific characteristics and their impact on outcome for children with infective endocarditis (IE) undergoing surgical intervention. We therefore reviewed all cases of culture-proven IE referred for surgical intervention at our institution over the last three decades. Of 15,124 cardiovascular surgical procedures performed between 1978 and 2007 at our institution on children under the age of 18, only 30 (0.2%) were undertaken for a primary diagnosis of IE. All 30 children underwent chart review and retrospective risk-hazard analysis. Median patient age was 9.8 years (range 10 weeks to 17.5 years). Underlying congenital cardiac lesions were present in 22 (77%) and previous intra-cardiac repair in 9 (30%). Septic emboli occurred in 13 (46%), causing permanent strokes in 4 (14%). Streptococcus viridans and Staphylococcus aureus were the predominant organisms. S. viridans was associated with underlying congenital lesions (p<0.01). S. aureus was associated with abscess formation (p<0.03), clinical sepsis (p<0.04), acute deterioration (p<0.01), prolonged hospitalization (p<0.01) and death (p<0.01). Aortic, mitral and tricuspid valves were involved with equal frequency, more than the right ventricular outflow tract. Two valves were involved in 30%. The native valve was preserved at operation in 22 (73% cases). Univariate predictors for valve replacement included increased leaflet thickening (p<0.01) and occurrence of septic embolization (p=0.02), whereas moderate/severe valvular regurgitation was not significant. Five-year freedom from IE-related death and re-intervention was 84% and 80%, respectively. At latest follow-up 96% of patients are NHYA I.",
"To determine the prevalence of congenital heart defects (CHDs) in patients with mild or severe congenital anorectal malformations (CARMs), and whether all patients with CARM need pediatric cardiology screening. We included 129 patients with CARM born between 2004 and 2013, and referred to University Medical Center Groningen. Recto-perineal and recto-vestibular fistulas were classified as mild CARMs, all others as severe. Significant patent foramen ovale, secundum atrial septal defect, and small ventricular septum defect were classified as minor CHDs, all others as major. Of 129 patients with CARM, 67% had mild CARM, 33% severe CARM, and 17% were additionally diagnosed with CHD. CHDs were distributed equally in patients with mild or severe CARMs. Patients with multiple congenital abnormalities were more frequently diagnosed with CHD (n = 16, 36%) than patients without multiple congenital malformations (n = 5, 9%, P = .001). Patients with CARM diagnosed with CHD using pediatric cardiac echo screening were younger than 3 months of age at diagnosis. Earlier general pediatric examinations missed 7 (50%) children with mild and 4 (50%) with severe CHDs.",
"Although Chiari I malformation is increasingly recognized in children, little is known about its clinical presentation in this age group. To evaluate the relationship between clinical and MRI features of pediatric Chiari I malformations. We performed a chart review and MRI analysis of 49 children with Chiari I malformation. The degree of tonsillar ectopia was compared with age at onset, presence of syringomyelia, and a neurologic severity score as follows: asymptomatic = 0, symptomatic with normal neurologic examination = 1, and symptomatic with abnormal examination = 2. Age at onset of symptoms ranged from 10 months to 14 years. Fifty-seven percent of patients were asymptomatic. Headache and neck pain were the most frequent complaints. Syringomyelia was detected in 14% of patients and skull base abnormalities in 50%. The magnitude of tonsillar ectopia (5 to 23 mm) correlated with severity score (p = 0.04) but not with other clinical measures.",
"Cardiac embolism is estimated to be the aetiology of ischemic cerebral-vascular insults (CVI) in 25% of cases. Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is a reliable and widely used examination in the diagnosticwork-up of stroke. TEE is superior to transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) in the search of minor sources of cardiac embolism but it is time consuming and has its inherent risks.AIM: The aim of this study was to determine whether in patients younger than 65 years of age with CVI our TEE-findings would alter their management. Only patients in whom nor the medical record, nor TTE, nor Carotid Ultrasonography could establish an aetiology, were included. A 3-year retrospective study was done in patients admitted to the stroke unit of a regional medical centre covering 110,000 inhabitants. The TEE-database was reviewed and all TEE's performed in eligible patients were selected. Minor and major sources of cardiac embolism were listed. The impact of TEE-findings on the management of CVI was evaluated. Fifty-four patients fulfilled the criteria for this study. The mean age was 52 years (range 18 - 65). A major source of cardiac embolism was seen in 6 cases (11.1%). Four patients (7.4%) had infective endocarditis (IE) with vegetations. A small apical thrombosis in a patient with isolated left ventricular non-compaction was noted and in 1 patient dysfunction of a mechanical prosthetic valve was documented. The most frequently encountered minor source of cardiac embolism was a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or small atrial septal defect (ASD) with documented right-to-left shunt during Valsalva manoeuvre (15 patients, 27.8%). Of these 15 patients, an atrial septum aneurysm(ASA) was seen in 7 patients (13%). Our TEE-findings altered the management of CVI substantially in 21 cases (38.9%). The 4 patients with IE and the patient with mechanical valve dysfunction had cardiac surgery. Twelve patients (22.2%) were referred for percutaneous closure of the PFO/ASD. Three patients with PFO/ASD and the patient with IVNC were treated with maintenance therapy of oral anticoagulation.",
"The optimal treatment of cervicofacial nontuberculous mycobacterium lymphadenitis (CFNTB) in children is yet to be established. There is a general consensus that surgical excision results in a definitive resolution of the disease. The main aim of surgery is to remove affected nodes so that they do not discharge through the skin. Recently there are some investigators who are reporting successful antibiotic treatment and advocating medical therapy as the first line treatment. 16 children consecutively presenting to otolaryngology in a tertiary referral centre over an 8-year period with CFNTB. Inclusion criteria were chronic cervicofacial lymphadenitis with either: (1) a culture positive for atypical mycobacteria (from either a lymph node or fine needle aspirate (FNA) specimen); or (2) acid-fast bacilli identified (from either a lymph node or FNA specimen); or (3) post excision histological findings consistent with mycobacterial infection (i.e. non-caseating granulomas) in the absence of other clinical features suggestive of other granulomatous conditions. Lesions with superficial skin change were treated preferentially with surgery. Children presenting with lymph nodes contained deep to sternocleidmastoid were assessed with FNA cytological and microbiological analysis and MRI or CT, and treated preferentially with antibiotics or watchful waiting. 4 children (2 culture positive, 2 with acid-fast bacilli on needle aspirate) presented with lymphadenopathy deep to sternocleidmastoid and were managed non-surgically. All 4 resolved without cutaneous involvement. 11 children with a clinical presentation of CFNTB underwent complete excision of all involved nodes for superficial lesions (6 were culture positive, and all had granulomatous histology). None recurred. 1 patient presented late with a mature, discharging parotid sinus, which was managed with watchful waiting as the lesion was clinically close to natural resolution.",
"Pediatric branchial anomalies can present as a cyst, sinus, or fistula. They are developmental failures in the involution of the branchial apparatus during the embryologic period. Management of second branchial anomalies is with surgical excision of the tract and ligation of the terminal attachment to the pharynx. Our results suggest that the recurrence rates are not affected by whether or not an ipsilateral tonsillectomy is performed.",
"Cranio-cervical arterial dissections are a recognized cause of ischemic stroke in childhood, with an approximate incidence of 0.4 to 20%. AIM. To describe a population of children with cranio-cervical arterial dissections, analyzing clinical presentation, risk factors, angiographic findings, evolution and treatment. A descriptive, retrospective, longitudinal collaborative review (Sant Joan de Deu and Pereira Rossell Children's Hospital), of children one month to 17 years old of age was conducted, during the period of time between 2000 to 2009. Ten cases with arterial dissection were identified, 7 of them were boys and 3 girls. Nine had a traumatism preceding neurological symptoms. Clinical presentation included 5 patients with hemiparesis, 3 with hemicerebelus syndrome, 1 with VI cranial nerve palsy and 1 with intracranial soplus as the only symptom at physical examination. Three of them had seizures, while headache preceding the onset of cerebral ischemic symptoms was founded in 6 of them. Dissection involved anterior circulation in 5 patients and posterior circulation in the other 5. In reference to the localization of arterial compromise 4 patients had intracranial dissections and 6 had extracranial dissections. Anticoagulation therapy was done in 5, antiagregation in 3, and treatment abstention in two. None of them suffered neither complications due to anticoagulation therapy nor dead or recurrent dissections in long term follow up (2 months to 8 years).",
"To determine the aetiologies and clinical characteristics of infants with fever and a bulging fontanelle. The medical records of all febrile infants with a bulging fontanelle who underwent a lumbar puncture from January 2000 to February 2008 in Assaf Harofeh Medical Center, a university affiliated hospital in central Israel, were identified. 153 patients met the inclusion criteria. The male to female ratio was 100:53; age range was 3-11 months with a mean age of 5.6 (SD 1.8) months and a median age of 5 months. Cerebrospinal fluid pleocytosis was found in 42 cases (27.3%), including one case of bacterial meningitis (0.6%). Other leading diagnoses were aseptic meningitis (26.7%), upper respiratory tract infection (18.3%), viral disease not otherwise specified (15.6%), roseola infantum (8.5%) and acute otitis media (6.5%). Appearance on admission was described as good to excellent in 113 (73.8%) infants, none of whom had bacterial meningitis. 32 had aseptic meningitis and 17 had other bacterial disease (pneumonia, acute otitis media, pyelonephritis, bacteraemia, shigella or salmonella gastroenteritis). All the latter had, upon admission, symptoms, signs, laboratory tests or imaging studies suggesting a bacterial aetiology.",
"The evaluation of febrile children with petechial rashes evokes controversy. Although many of these children have viral infections, on occasion such patients may be infected with Neisseria meningitidis. To investigate differences in practice trends for the evaluation and management of non-toxic-appearing febrile children with petechial rashes among pediatric specialty groups. We surveyed 833 pediatricians in 4 specialties [community (CGP) and academic (AGP) general pediatrics, emergency medicine (EM) and infectious diseases] regarding 4 hypothetical non-toxic-appearing febrile children ages 1, 2, 5 and 7 years. The patients differed with regard to clinical appearance, distribution of petechiae and complete blood count results. We compared specialty group responses, adjusting for practice setting, population size and years in practice using multiple logistic regression analysis. The survey was completed and returned by 416 (50%) pediatricians. There was substantial variation in the evaluation of the 2 younger febrile children without clear sources for their petechiae. For the 1-year-old the overall blood culture (BCx) rate was 82%, with the EM group (91%) more often requesting BCx than either the CGP (76%) or AGP (73%, P=0.001) groups. The overall hospital admission rate was 31%, with CGP less often requesting admission than infectious disease pediatricians (22% vs. 40%, P=0.007). In the regression analysis the only significant difference between groups was in BCx rate between the EM and AGP groups. For the 2-year-old the overall rate of BCx was 95%, lumbar puncture was 41% and admission was 44%, with no significant differences among groups. For the scenarios involving the 2 older febrile children with sources for their petechiae, the majority of respondents chose neither lumbar puncture nor admission. There was disagreement regarding BCx, both within and between groups, although most of the between group differences did not persist in the regression analysis.",
"To describe the surgical management of second branchial fistulae that extend to the pharynx, specifically to determine whether tonsillectomy, along with surgical excision of the tract affects the rate of recurrence. Retrospective chart review of pediatric patients (age<18) who underwent surgical excision of second branchial anomalies at a tertiary-care children's hospital between January 1, 2006 and September 1, 2011. Sinus tracts that extended to the pharynx were considered to be fistulae. Seventy-four patients were identified who underwent surgical excision of 85 total second branchial anomalies - 20 cysts (23.5%), 29 sinuses (34.1%), and 36 fistulae (42.4%). The 36 fistulae were removed from 32 patients, 23 males and 9 females, with an average age of 43.3 months. There were 16 right, 11 left, and 5 bilateral lesions. In 14 (43.8%) of the fistulae cases, a tonsillectomy was performed. There was only one recurrence (2.8%), which occurred 41 months postoperatively. No statistically significant difference for recurrence (p=1.0) was found between the group of patients that underwent tonsillectomy and those that did not.",
"To evaluate whether isolated Horner's syndrome presenting in the first year of life warrants investigation. Retrospective review of 23 children presenting with Horner's syndrome in the first year of life. In 16 patients (70%) no cause was identified. Birth trauma was the most common identifiable cause (four patients). Twenty one children (91%) had urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) measured and 13 patients (57%) underwent either computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging of the chest and neck. These investigations revealed previously undisclosed pathology in only two--one ganglioneuroma of the left pulmonary apex and one cervical neuroblastoma. A further patient was known to have abdominal neuroblastoma before presenting with Horner's syndrome. There were no cases of Horner's syndrome occurring after cardiothoracic surgery. Long term follow up of the patients (mean 9.3 years) has not revealed further pathology.",
"Despite a high rate of envenomated bites in Southeast Texas, significant morbidity is rare. Children with an envenomation score of 1 or 2 are unlikely to be coagulopathic, suggesting that laboratory investigation should be reserved for patients with higher scores. The indications for the administration of CroFab deserve further prospective study.",
"Historically, HIDA is the initial diagnostic test in the evaluation of biliary atresia (BA). Non-excreting HIDA scans can yield false-positive results leading to negative laparotomy. Cholestatic infants must be evaluated promptly to exclude biliary atresia (BA) and other treatable hepatic conditions. Intraoperative cholangiogram (IOC) is the gold standard for diagnosing BA, but requires surgical intervention. Percutaneous transhepatic cholecysto-cholangiography (PTCC) and liver biopsy are less invasive and have been described in small case series. We hypothesized that PTCC and liver biopsy effectively exclude BA, thus avoiding unnecessary IOC. Retrospective review of cholestatic infants who underwent PTCC, biopsy or cholescintigraphy at a tertiary children's hospital from August 1998 to January 2009. Group differences were evaluated and the receiver operator curve and safety of PTCC determined. One-hundred twenty-eight cholestatic infants were reviewed. Forty-six (36%) underwent PTCC. Forty-one out of 46 (89%) had simultaneous PTCC and liver biopsy. PTCC was completed successfully in 19/23 (83%) children despite a small or absent GB on initial US. Negative laparotomy rate was 1/6 (17%) for simultaneous PTCC/liver biopsy. Complications occurred in 4/46 including bleeding (n=2), fever with elevated transaminases (n=1) and oxygen desaturations (n=1).",
"yes. PLSVC is a rare congenital vascular abnormality. Besides its association with congenital anomalies, its most relevant clinical implication is the association with disturbances of cardiac rhythm, impulse formation and conduction. The ontogenetic development of the sinus node, the atrioventricular node, and the His bundle might be heavily influenced by the lack of regression of the left cardinal vein. When isolated, the PLSVC is usually not recognized until left superior approach to the heart is required, when it becomes a relevant anatomic finding. In fact, it can complicate the positioning of left-sided pacemaker and cardioverter-defibrillator leads. In patients with poor handling through the coronary sinus, a right approach is recommended after visualization of a right superior vena cava entering the right atrium by echocardiography or contrast venography since its absence or hypoplasia (which is reported in 10% of the cases with PLSVC) may represent a major obstacle and would suggest an epicardial implantation.",
"yes. Temporal bone venous abnormalities are a common feature in CHARGE syndrome. The pattern of venous abnormality suggests that there is a failure of the sigmoid sinus/jugular bulb to fully develop, resulting in persistence of emissary veins. Recognition of these abnormal venous structures during otologic surgery is critical to avoiding potentially catastrophic bleeding.",
"Despite lack of consensus criteria, biliary dyskinesia (BD) is an increasingly accepted pediatric diagnosis. We compared patient characteristics, outcomes, and resource utilization (before and after surgery) between children with BD and symptomatic cholecystolithiasis (LITH). Data from the electronic medical record were abstracted for children diagnosed with BD or LITH between December 1, 2002, and November 30, 2012, at Children's Hospital of Pittsburgh. Four hundred and ten patients were identified (BD: 213 patients 197 patients). Patients with BD had significantly lower BMI, longer symptom duration, more dyspeptic symptoms, and were more likely to present with other symptoms. Forty-one patients (13.8%) with BD underwent cholecystectomy despite a normal gallbladder ejection fraction (GB-EF). In 32 of these, sincalide triggered pain compared to 75 of the 155 patients with low GB-EF. After surgery, patients with BD more commonly visited gastroenterology clinics and had more GI-related hospitalizations, while emergency room visits decreased in both groups. Only the nature of biliary disease independently predicted continuing pain after surgery, which in turn was the best predictor for higher resource utilization after cholecystectomy.",
"To determine whether children with prenatally diagnosed mild pyelectasis have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Case-control study in children with pyelectasis (anteroposterior diameter of the fetal renal pelvis of 5-10 mm). A validated questionnaire was sent to the parents of 208 cases and 416 matched controls. The questionnaire was returned by 146 cases and 250 controls. There was a male predominance in the case group (p = < 0.0001). There was no difference in voiding habits or in prevalence of urinary tract infections (UTI). The prevalence of UTI was high: 11.6% in cases and 10.0% in controls. The only difference was a higher prevalence of constipation in the case group (p = 0.003). Postnatally, 41 children had an ultrasound examination and 16 were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had persisting pyelectasis, 3 had a recurrent UTI and 1 required surgery (a pyeloplasty). Four of the controls were referred to a paediatrician or urologist: 3 had recurrent UTI and 1 had urinary incontinence.",
"This study aimed to investigate the clinical predictors of unfavorable prognosis in patients with venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism. An extensive review of English literature was performed to obtain reports on cerebral air embolism published between January 1982 and July 2014 through PubMed, Journal at Ovid, and Web of Science using the Mesh terms and keywords \"cerebral air embolism\" and \"cerebral gas embolism.\" Reports not fulfilling the diagnosis of cerebral air embolism and iterant articles were excluded. Demographics, clinical manifestations, and imaging findings were recorded. The air distribution on initial brain computed tomography (CT) was recorded as gyriform air (GF), cavernous sinus bubble, venous sinus bubble, and parenchymal and subarachnoid bubble. The enrolled subjects were further divided into favorable and unfavorable outcome groups for analyses. Of the 33 cases enrolled, 31 had documented follow-up outcomes, including 14 with favorable and 17 with unfavorable prognoses. Patients with unfavorable outcome had older onset age (67.5 ± 15.8 versus 46.7 ± 17.0 years, P < .001), higher frequency of GF on brain CT (58.8% versus 0%, P < .01), initial consciousness disturbance (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), and hemiparesis (100% versus 42.9%, P < .001), but lower frequency of cardiopulmonary symptoms (5.9% versus 64.3%, P < .01). In patients with central venous catheter-related cerebral air embolism, the retrograde mechanism had a tendency for worse outcomes (43.8% versus 0%, P = .023).",
"The aim of the study was to investigate the etiology, clinical presentation, and risk factors for poor prognosis of acute acalculous cholecystitis (AAC) in children. Children younger than 18 years diagnosed as having AAC were analyzed retrospectively from 2000 to 2009. The demographic and clinical characteristics, etiology, and outcomes were recorded. AAC was defined as a gallbladder wall thickness of >3.5 mm in sonogram with a duration of symptoms <1 month. The severity of sonographic findings was scored, with 1 point each given for wall thickness >3.5 mm, gallbladder distention, sludge, and pericholecystic fluid. A total of 109 children (boys:girls 1:2, median age 4.9 years) were diagnosed. The most common clinical presentation was fever (88%), followed by hepatomegaly (72%). The rates of elevated alanine aminotransferase and thrombocytopenia were 72% and 65%, respectively. The most common causative etiology was infectious diseases (74%). All of the patients were treated nonoperatively. Sixteen (15%) patients died. Children with mortality had a significantly higher rate of septic shock (P < 0.001), anemia (P = 0.01), thrombocytopenia (P = 0.04), hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.002), the presence of pericholecystic fluid (P = 0.04), and higher sonographic scores (P = 0.04) than those with survival. Multiple logistic regression analysis confirmed that the presence of septic shock (P = 0.004) and hypofibrinogenemia (P = 0.014) were independent risk factors that predict mortality.",
"Ultra sound colored duplex sonography is the preferred method in diagnosing chronic venous disease. Data in children on incidence, indications, and results are lacking. From the total of 9180 duplex investigations performed in our hospital from 2009 to 2012, data on indication and results of the investigation as well as patient characteristics were evaluated retrospectively for the proportion of pediatric patients. Duplex investigations were performed 49 times in 38 children (6-18 years), with an average of 1.3 times (1-6 times) per child. Forty percent showed abnormalities: 17 times deep venous thrombosis was suspected; deep venous thrombosis was objectified in 18%. In the 21 investigations performed for varicosis-related complaints, varicose veins or venous malformations were objectified in 57%. Edema was never a symptom of chronic venous disease.",
"yes. Severely affected neonates with CDH have significantly smaller right internal jugular veins than other neonates. If the patient needs ECMO and if the internal jugular vein is too small for cannulation, the right brachiocephalic vein can be successfully cannulated from the neck instead.",
"yes. Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood is now diagnosed less frequently in our institution than in the last two decades. Although the aetiology remains largely unknown, it is possible that changes in causative environmental factors contribute to making TEC a rare disease. Clinicians need to be aware of TEC in order to prevent unnecessary diagnostic and therapeutic measurements.",
"Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram in the otic capsule at thin-section CT are prevalent among children younger than 3 years in the absence of clinical evidence of otosclerosis or osteogenesis imperfecta and appear in children up to 9 years old.",
"We report bronchoscopic changes observed in children with recurrent lower airways infections (RLAI) and findings in control children undergoing bronchoscopy for causes other than RLAI. Retrospective case-control cohorts study. The clinical records of children who had fiberoptic bronchoscopy (FB) for a history of RLAI without any known underlying disorder between 2007 and 2013 and of control children who required FB for other causes were reviewed. Clinical features, bronchospic findings and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) results were assessed. Cases were 62 (32 female) children aged 5 years (1-12) and controls 29 children aged 4.5 years (0.5-14). Airway malacia was observed in 32 (52%) vs. 4 (13%) (p = 0.001), profuse respiratory secretions in 34(55%) vs. 6 (20%) (p = 0.007). Endobronchial obstruction: 4 (6.4%) and tracheobronchomegaly were observed only in cases. In cases with profuse respiratory secretions there was a higher prevalence of airways malacia: 64.7% vs. 35.7% (p = 0.04) and of positive BAL cultures: 45.5% vs. 13.3% (p = 0.04). Isolated organisms in cases were non-typable Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae most frequently. Pneumocystiis jirovecii, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus mitis were isolated in controls.",
"no. In a large teaching hospital system, the overall rate of clinically relevant complications detected on chest radiographs following ultrasound-guided right internal jugular vein catheterization is exceedingly low. Routine chest radiograph after this common procedure is an unnecessary use of resources and may delay resuscitation of critically ill patients.",
"Children with ureteropelvic junction obstruction and CV received a delayed surgical treatment and showed a greater reduction in differential renal function preoperatively, in contrast to patients without CV. Our data show that CV is a risk factor for deterioration of renal function in children with hydronephrosis and we advocate for an early pyeloplasty in these children, especially if they have a high-grade dilatation and equivocal washout patterns in diuretic renographies. Further prospective studies are necessary in order to understand the natural history of CV and to reveal the importance of the crossing lower pole vessel as a structural anomaly lacking maturation.",
"yes. A high frequency of ICH due to late VKDB was reported in Egyptian infants aged two to 24 weeks, with poorer outcomes than international studies. A national survey is required to evaluate the timing and protective value of a second booster vitamin K dose to reduce ICH, especially in high-risk patients in this age group.",
"A pull-back tube esophagogram (PBTE) is widely accepted in the literature as the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. However, PBTE is rarely performed in our institution, as we have been successful in confirming the presence of such fistulae with a contrast material swallow (CS). We hypothesized that PBTE is not the radiological investigation of choice for the diagnosis of the fistula in this condition. We sought to determine what proportion of patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia can be diagnosed promptly by a CS and what the indications are for a PBTE. We retrospectively analyzed the clinical and radiological findings in patients with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia to determine whether the fistula was diagnosed with a CS or PBTE. We identified 20 children (13 female and 7 male) with tracheoesophageal fistula without esophageal atresia. Their age at diagnosis ranged from 3 days to 168 months with a median of 9 days. The diagnosis was documented by CS in 12, PBTE in 7 and CT in 1. In three of the seven who had the fistula documented by PBTE, a previous CS had shown contrast material in the trachea, but no fistulous tract or aspiration was identified.",
"Catheterisation of the internal jugular vein (IJV) can be difficult in infants. We aimed to evaluate whether a simple manoeuvre, a slight caudo-lateral traction of the ipsilateral arm (CLTIA), could decrease the head rotation-induced overlap of the IJV to the carotid artery (CA) in infants. Twenty-five infants were included. The patients were placed in the 10° Trendelenburg position with a shoulder roll. On both sides of the neck, ultrasound images were obtained in a transverse orientation before and after the CLTIA at 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation, respectively. On each image, CA overlap was calculated as follows: CA overlap (%) = (overlap distance/CA diameter) × 100. The CLTIA decreased CA overlap (%) in 0°, 40°, and 80° of head rotation on the right side of the neck [14 (interquartile range, IQR 0-32) to 0 (IQR 0-14), 24 (IQR 0-46) to 0 (IQR 0-33), and 31 (IQR 12-58) to 23 (IQR 0-34); all P < 0.01] and on the left [29 (IQR 7-61) to 19 (IQR 0-44), 40 (IQR 21-65) to 31 (IQR 0-46), and 44 (IQR 29-97) to 33 (IQR 14-69); all P < 0.01], respectively.",
"no. Children with a mild fetal pyelectasis do not have more urinary tract morbidity during childhood than children without this finding. Therefore, there seems to be no need for additional investigation after birth.",
"The Rex shunt should be considered in the treatment of children with idiopathic EHPVT experiencing repeated gastrointestinal bleeding episodes refractory to endoscopic treatment. Nevertheless, the role of this operation for children with post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT is yet to be clearly evaluated.",
"The practice of administering intravenous contrast to children varies by institution depending on their routine. To assess the necessity of routine contrast administration in brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of pediatric outpatients referred for chronic headache workups. We conducted a retrospective review of consecutive pediatric brain MRI examinations performed during January and February 2014 in 30 pediatric outpatients referred for evaluation of chronic headache. Independent review was performed by two board-certified neuroradiologists. The raters reviewed each MRI first as a non-contrast examination (without seeing the post-contrast images) and then with post-contrast images. No abnormalities were found in six patients. One patient had an indeterminate finding of a tubular cerebellar lesion requiring follow-up. In the remaining patients (n = 23), the findings were subclinical and included: mucosal thickening in the paranasal sinuses in 9 patients, cystic changes of the pineal gland in 8 (size 2-9 mm), small developmental venous anomalies in 6, non-specific FLAIR hyperintensities in 4, opacification of the mastoids in 2, and telangiectasia in 1 patient. The subclinical cases that were missed on pre-contrast images were: one small developmental venous anomaly, one telangiectasia and one small pineal cyst, none of which hold clinical significance. All kappa inter-rater and intra-rater agreement scores resulted in values above 0.75, excellent agreement according to Fleiss guidelines.",
"A large percentage of children with BD did not meet the adult diagnostic standards. Compared to those with LITH, children with BD have more widespread symptoms and continue to use more clinical resources after surgery. These findings suggest that despite its benign prognosis, BD is increasingly treated like other potentially acute gallbladder diseases, although it has the typical phenotype of FGIDs and should be treated using approaches used in such disorders.",
"Extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT) is an important cause of portal hypertension in children. Rex shunt has been used successfully to treat these patients. We report our experience in 19 infants and children (5 months to 14 years) with HPVT eligible for a mesenteric-portal surgical shunt with left internal jugular vein autograft. Eight children had idiopathic EHPVT, nine had post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT, one had portal vein agenesis, and one had posttransplant EHPVT. It was possible to perform the Rex shunt in all patients except for 8 of 9 cases in the post-umbilical catheterization EHPVT group. A Warren procedure was performed in 4 of those patients and a proximal splenorenal shunt in 1. Current follow-up ranges from 3 to 26 months. Shunt thrombosis occurred in one patient with portal vein agenesis and associated cardiac anomaly. Portal hypertension has significantly improved after surgery. None of our patients have experienced new bleeding episodes until now.",
"To evaluate the prevalence of localized hypoattenuating areas in the cochlear otic capsule at temporal-bone thin-section computed tomography (CT) in pediatric patients and correlate the findings with clinical information. Temporal-bone thin-section CT images obtained in 73 patients aged 0-9 years (20 Austrian, 53 Finnish; 36 female and 37 male patients) were evaluated for the presence of localized hypoattenuating foci in the region of the fissula ante fenestram of the otic capsule. Clinical information collected for all patients was also evaluated. The data were analyzed with a logistic regression model. Hypoattenuating areas in the region of the fissula ante fenestram were observed in 23 of 73 patients (32%). Hypoattenuating foci were substantially more prevalent in patients younger than 3 years than in those 3 years or older (odds ratio, 0.14; 95% CI: 0.04, 0.52; P =.001). The prevalence did not differ between sexes or according to clinical diagnosis. Only three of the 23 patients with hypoattenuating foci had clinical findings suggestive of otosclerosis, and none had osteogenesis imperfecta. After adjustment for age and sex, the finding was more prevalent among the Finnish patients (odds ratio, 5.4; 95% CI: 1.19, 24.52; P =.02) than among the Austrian patients.",
"The JHTS is a relatively rare phenomenon, seen in approximately 2.5% of all children seen at the emergency department with mild brain injury. This study demonstrates a significant relationship between the JHTS and a positive history of migraine in first-degree relatives.",
"The effect of portal flow deprivation to the liver on bile composition and the biliary system remains undefined in children. This report catalogues the authors' experience with biliary tract problems in children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis (EHPVT). Twenty-nine children with symptomatic idiopathic EHPVT were evaluated for the Rex shunt procedure (mesenterico-left portal bypass) over a 4-year period. The authors retrospectively reviewed all operative reports and pre- and postoperative abdominal ultrasound findings with regard to associated congenital anomalies and abnormal biliary tract findings. Seven of the 29 patients with EHPVT (24%) had associated nonbiliary congenital abnormalities. Twenty-four of 29 (83%) patients had detectable biliary tract pathology by ultrasound examination. Biliary symptoms developed in 3 of the 9 (33%) patients with either stones or sludge (10.3% of all patients). Two patients were treated by cholecystectomy. There was no statistical correlation between biliary tract pathology and the age of presentation, symptoms of portal hypertension, gender, or underlying medical condition.",
"Benign Paroxysmal Vertigo of Childhood (BPVC) is a common cause of vertigo in children and it is characterized by recurrent attacks of vertigo without warning resolving spontaneously after minutes to hours. It has been considered the equivalent of migraine in childhood. Twenty-seven patients diagnosed with BPVC were recruited between 1991 and 1997 with a follow up of at least 15 years. The incidence of migraine, inner ear disorders and family medical history is analyzed. The average age for the onset of the attacks of BPVC was 3 years and 11 months, and for spontaneous resolution, it was around 5 years and 7 months. The average age for follow up was 18 years. Nine patients developed migraine during adulthood. Nineteen of them had a family history of migraine.",
"Congenital cartilaginous rests of the neck (wattles) are very rare, probably branchiogenic malformations. To discuss the clinical and histologic features and the therapy of wattles. We report a 4-year-old patient with symmetric exophytic nodules of the neck that had been present since birth. The two lesions, 0.5 3 0.5 cm, were removed. The histopathologic examination confirmed ectopic cartilaginous tissue.",
"Duplex investigation is not often performed in children. In children with established deep venous thrombosis, a family history with deep venous thrombosis is common. In general, edema was not seen in children with varicose veins and, therefore, does not seem a reliable clinical sign at young age.",
"Radiologists are taught that pyogenic osteomyelitis in children rarely crosses the growth plate because terminal vessels of nutrient arteries loop at the physis, predisposing the metaphysis to hematogenous infection. However, we note that MRI frequently shows osteomyelitis involving both sides of the physis. The purpose of this article is to document our observation that pyogenic osteomyelitis crosses the growth plate more frequently in the pediatric patient population than is classically taught. All pediatric patients (age, 2-16 years) with clinically suspected osteomyelitis from 2004 to 2009 were reviewed for transphyseal disease on a consensus basis. To reveal the statistical significance, we applied a z test to our results. We quantified rare as 20% or less and used a z test to determine whether 27 of 32 (81%) differed from rare. Of 32 subjects, 81% showed transphyseal infection. In our study, the z test revealed that transphyseal infection occurred significantly more often than what would be considered rare (z = 4.75, p < 0.01).",
"yes. The finding of a midline neck mass is the most common presentation of TGDCs in toddlers, whereas infection is the most common presenting symptoms in school-aged children. The incidence of preoperative infection was 41% in our series, much higher than previously reported. Independent of presenting age and symptomatology, recurrence of TGDC remains low when the Sistrunk procedure is employed.",
"Our experience suggests that PFAPA syndrome is an uncommon disease. Most of these children have undergone workup(s) for sepsis performed by their pediatricians because of the associated high fever. The clinical history of this cohort was quite distinctive. This small sample suggests a significant decrease if not cessation of pharyngitis following surgical intervention.",
"Color Doppler sonography alone is sufficient for the diagnosis of jugular phlebectasia. The authors recommend surgical excision in asymptomatic cases for cosmetic and psychological purposes. The rarity of the lesion may be caused by a lack of knowledge among the related physicians and the tendency of reporting only surgical results.",
"Phlebectasia of the jugular veins is a venous anomaly that usually presents in children as a soft cystic swelling in the neck during straining. The purpose of this report is to discuss the differential diagnosis, the methods of imaging, the mode of treatment, and to demonstrate some factors that have made us believe that the condition may not be an actual rarity but rather has been ignored. Eight cases of unilateral internal jugular phlebectasia were treated surgically (ie, excision of the dilated portion of the vein) from 1987 to 1998. The age of the patients ranged from 3 to 14 years. There were 3 girls and 5 boys. The lesions were right sided in 6, and left sided in 2 children. The patients underwent surgery after comparative ultrasonographic confirmation of the diagnosis. Furthermore, the authors prepared a simple questionnaire for evaluating the level of knowledge about this lesion among the related specialists. One hundred ten physicians were asked to describe the jugular phlebectasia and its ideal treatment. All of the patients were discharged from the hospital 24 hours after surgery. Follow-up periods ranged from 6 months to 6 years and no complaints were noted at the time of most recent visits. Our questionnaire results showed that 96% of 73 pediatricians, 37% of 22 otorhinolaryngologists, and 40% of 15 pediatric surgeons did not know what the jugular phlebectasia was."
] | 782 |
Alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol stimuli: automated processing? | [
"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.",
"These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated."
] | [
"These findings have important implications for understanding how drinkers respond to multimodal signals in their everyday environments and highlight the vulnerability of inhibitory control to alcohol's impairing effects.",
"These results not only provide support for the hypothesis that alcoholics who are L-carriers have greater alcohol craving and possibly greater propensity for drinking but also propose that there is an important 5-HTT gene-by-environment interaction that alters cue craving response for alcohol.",
"yes. These data indicate age-related differences between adolescent and adult rats in terms of sensitivity to ethanol's motivational effects. Adolescents exhibited high sensitivity for ethanol's appetitive effects. These animals also showed ethanol-mediated behavioral activation during the SOC phase. The SOC preparation provides a valuable conditioning model for assessing ethanol's motivational effects across ontogeny.",
"Models of drug addiction emphasize the reciprocal influence of incentive-motivational properties of drug-related cues and poor impulse control resulting in drug use. Recent studies have shown that alcohol-related cues can impair response inhibition. What is unknown is whether these cues also disrupt learning of inhibitory associations. Participants performed a conditioned inhibition (CI) task and were required to learn that a neutral image was a conditioned inhibitor when presented in the context of either an alcohol image intended to draw their attention away from the to-be-trained inhibitor, or a control condition in which the alcohol image was absent. After training, subjects in each condition rated the likelihood that the neutral image would signal the outcome. Eye tracking was used to verify that attention to the neutral image was in fact reduced when the alcohol image was present. Compared with controls those trained in the alcohol image condition reported a greater likelihood that the presence of the inhibitor would be followed by the outcome and thus were less able to acquire CI. Measures of eye tracking verified that attention to the alcohol cue was associated with this maladaptive behavior.",
"yes. In all ROIs examined, HD exhibited greater BOLD response than CON to alcohol relative to neutral beverage picture cues at baseline, indicating heightened cue reactivity to alcohol cues in heavy drinking adolescents prior to the onset of any alcohol use diagnosis. Across the majority of these brain regions, differences in BOLD response were no longer apparent following a month of abstinence, suggesting a decrease in alcohol cue reactivity among adolescent non-dependent heavy drinkers as a consequence of abstaining from alcohol. These results highlight the malleability of adolescent brain function despite no formal intervention targeting cue reactivity. Increased understanding of the neural underpinnings of cue reactivity could have implications for prevention and intervention strategies in adolescent heavy alcohol users.",
"yes. The present studies are the first to show a statistically significant effect of ethanol on GABA-activated chloride uptake in both SS and LS mice with a clear difference between the genotypes in threshold. The relative threshold differences between SS and LS microsacs in sensitivity to ethanol indicate that selection for resistance to ethanol-induced LORR in SS mice has shifted the ethanol-GABAA receptor concentration-response curve to the right. The findings add key evidence that supports a cause-effect relationship between sensitivity to ethanol-induced potentiation of GABAA receptor function and genetically determined sensitivity to ethanol's behavioral effects.",
"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.",
"Identification of malleable neurocognitive predictors of relapse among alcohol-dependent individuals is important for the optimization of health care delivery and clinical services. Given that alcohol cue-reactivity can predict relapse, we evaluated cue-elicited high-frequency heart rate variability (HFHRV) and alcohol attentional bias (AB) as potential relapse risk indices. Alcohol-dependent patients in long-term residential treatment who had participated in mindfulness-oriented therapy or an addiction support group completed a spatial cueing task as a measure of alcohol AB and an affect-modulated alcohol cue-reactivity protocol while HFHRV was assessed. Post-treatment HFHRV cue-reactivity and alcohol AB significantly predicted the occurrence and timing of relapse by 6-month follow-up, independent of treatment condition and after controlling for alcohol dependence severity. Alcohol-dependent patients who relapsed exhibited a significantly greater HFHRV reactivity to stress-primed alcohol cues than patients who did not relapse.",
"The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.",
"yes. The implication of the present findings is that the control of selective attention, instrumental drug-seeking behaviour and emotional state by drug-paired stimuli is mediated by cognitive knowledge of the predictive contingency between the stimulus and the drug.",
"Research indicates that alcohol intoxication and increased demands on drivers' attention from distractions (e.g., passengers and cell phones) contribute to poor driving performance and increased rates of traffic accidents and fatalities. The present study examined the separate and combined effects of alcohol and distraction on simulated driving performance at blood alcohol concentrations (BrACs) below the legal driving limit in the USA (i.e., 0.08 %). Fifty healthy adult drivers (36 men and 14 women) were tested in a driving simulator following a 0.65-g/kg dose of alcohol and a placebo. Drivers completed two drive tests: a distracted drive, which included a two-choice detection task, and an undistracted control drive. Multiple indicators of driving performance, such as drive speed, within-lane deviation, steering rate, and lane exceedances were measured. Alcohol and distraction each impaired measures of driving performance. Moreover, the magnitude of alcohol impairment was increased by at least twofold when tested under the distracting versus the undistracted condition.",
"Alcohol dependence may be associated with dysfunction of mesolimbic circuitry, such that anticipation of nonalcoholic reward fails to activate the ventral striatum, while alcohol-associated cues continue to activate this region. This may lead alcoholics to crave the pharmacological effects of alcohol to a greater extent than other conventional rewards. The present study investigated neural mechanisms underlying these phenomena. 16 detoxified male alcoholics and 16 age-matched healthy volunteers participated in two fMRI paradigms. In the first paradigm, alcohol-associated and affectively neutral pictures were presented, whereas in the second paradigm, a monetary incentive delay task (MID) was performed, in which brain activation during anticipation of monetary gain and loss was examined. For both paradigms, we assessed the association of alcohol craving with neural activation to incentive cues. Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy controls, despite similar performance. However, alcoholics showed increased ventral striatal activation in response to alcohol-associated cues. Reduced activation in the ventral striatum during expectation of monetary reward, and increased activation during presentation of alcohol cues were correlated with alcohol craving in alcoholics, but not healthy controls.",
"yes. High-dose diazepam reduces prime-induced activation of ALC concepts in problem drinkers. Low-dose diazepam facilitates this process, and cross-priming of motivation for alcohol appears to explain this effect. Neurochemical modulation of the alcohol memory network may contribute to the motivational effects of benzodiazepines in problem drinkers.",
"The alcohol discriminative stimulus has been extensively studied in animals and demonstrated to be pharmacologically complex. In contrast, however, the alcohol stimulus has been less frequently studied in humans. The aim of the experiments reported here was to characterise pharmacologically an alcohol discriminative stimulus in social drinkers. Volunteers were first trained to discriminate a dose of 0.2 g/kg alcohol from placebo, using an established method. We then investigated the generalisation response and subjective effects following a range of doses of the gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA)(A) benzodiazepine-receptor agonist lorazepam (0, 0.5, 1 and 2 mg, PO). Low doses of lorazepam (0.5 and 1 mg) did not cross-generalise with the alcohol stimulus and produced only minimal subjective effects. However, a dose of 2 mg lorazepam substituted (60.8%) for the stimulus ( P<0.02) and increased subjective ratings of \"lightheaded\" ( P<0.05).",
"yes. These results indicate that alcohol intake slows down rod and cone-pathway-mediated temporal processing. Further research may elucidate whether this effect may play a role in alcohol-related injury and accidents, which often occur under low-light conditions.",
"yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.",
"To apply a new paradigm using transient changes to visual scenes to explore information processing biases relating to \"social\" levels of alcohol and cannabis use. Male and female student volunteers (n = 200) not self-reporting substance-related problems. Quiet testing areas throughout the university campus. A flicker paradigm, for inducing change blindness with lighter and heavier social users of alcohol (experiment 1, n= 100) and social users and non-users of cannabis (experiment 2, n= 100), explored the associations between habitual level of use and the latency to detection of a single substance-related or neutral change made to a scene of grouped substance-related and neutral objects. Alcohol use was measured as the number of units of the heaviest drinking day from the previous week; cannabis use as the number of months of use in previous 12. Change-detection latency comparisons were used to evaluate processing biases. In both experiments, (i) heavier social users detected substance-related changes quicker than lighter and non-users; (ii) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than heavier users; (iii) heavier social users detected substance-related quicker than substance-neutral changes; and (iv) lighter and non-users detected substance-neutral changes quicker than substance-related changes.",
"yes. When alcohol cues are present, there is a reduced ability to learn that such information is irrelevant to an outcome, and this impairs ones' ability to inhibit perseveration of a response. This has implications for persistence of a drinking episode.",
"Words denoting negative affect (NEG) have been found to prime alcohol-related words (ALC) on semantic priming tasks, and this effect is tied to severity of addiction. Previous research suggested that high doses of benzodiazepines may dampen NEG-ALC priming. The present study tested this possibility and the role of motivation for alcohol in this process. A placebo-controlled, double blind, between-within, counterbalanced design was employed. Two groups of male problem drinkers (n = 6/group) received a high (15-mg) or low (5-mg) dose of diazepam versus placebo on two identical test sessions. A lexical decision task assessed priming. Under placebo, significant NEG-->ALC priming emerged in each group. High-dose diazepam selectively reversed this effect, while low-dose selectively enhanced it. Correlations between NEG-->ALC priming and desire for alcohol provided further support that semantic priming of ALC concepts reflects a motivational process. The bi-directional effects found here parallel the effects of high- versus low-dose benzodiazepines on alcohol self-administration in animals.",
"Granule cells occupy a strategic position in the transmission of afferent information to the cerebellar cortex. They are also the most abundant type of neurons in the cerebellum. The functions of the cerebellum are thought to be sensitive to acute alcohol intoxication. The effects of acute alcohol intoxication on the in vivo physiology of cerebellar granule cells are, however, not completely known. We studied chloralose-anesthetized cats at ethanol doses relevant to human drinking (0.3-1.2 g/kg). We recorded the electrophysiological responses of granule cell clusters to auditory and visual stimulation, and simultaneously monitored the concentration of ethanol in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). At an intravenous ethanol dose of 0.3 g/kg, CSF ethanol concentration peaked in 10 minutes at 17 mM, equivalent to a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of about 0.08 g/dL. Ethanol quickly and almost completely abolished both auditory and visual responses from granule cells. Complete or near-complete inhibition lasted 15 to 20 minutes; approximately 50% recovery required an additional 15 minutes, and a full recovery yet another 15 minutes. A higher ethanol dose at 1.2 g/kg resulted in a more severe inhibition and required longer time for recovery. The relationship between ethanol dose, CSF ethanol concentration, and granule cell responses was dynamic and nonlinear, critically depending upon the elapsed time.",
"yes. The results indicate that young adult binge drinkers show a biphasic alcohol response, with heightened sensitivity to stimulant-like alcohol effects and greater tolerance to sedative alcohol effects compared with their light-drinking counterparts.",
"Alcohol-arousal associations and other implicit cognitions (attentional bias, approach associations) are not positively related to individual differences in the sensitivity to alcohol's activating effects, at least not in the present sample consisting primarily of family history-negative heavy drinkers.",
"Research has begun to examine how acute cognitive impairment from alcohol could contribute to alcohol abuse. Specifically, alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control could compromise the drinker's ability to stop the self-administration of alcohol, increasing the risk of binge drinking. The present study was designed to test this hypothesis by examining the relation between acute alcohol impairment of inhibitory control and alcohol consumption during a single drinking episode. Twenty-six healthy adults performed a cued go/no-go task that measured inhibitory control. The study tested the degree to which their inhibitory control was impaired by a moderate dose of alcohol (0.65 g/kg) versus a placebo and the extent to which individual differences in this impairment predicted levels of alcohol consumption as assessed by ad lib drinking in the laboratory. In accord with the hypothesis, greater impairment of inhibitory control from alcohol was associated with increased ad lib consumption.",
"yes. We observed for the first time a generalized emotional decoding impairment in alcoholism, as this impairment is present not only for faces but also for other visual (i.e. body postures) and auditory stimuli. Moreover, we report that this alteration (1) is mainly indexed by an overestimation of anger and (2) cannot be explained by an 'affect labelling' impairment, as the semantic comprehension of written emotional scenarios is preserved. Fundamental and clinical implications are discussed.",
"yes. Alcohol and cannabis processing biases are found at levels of social use, have the potential to influence future consumption and for this reason merit further research.",
"Subjective responses to alcohol represent a biologically based, genetically moderated, and clinically informative marker of alcoholism risk; however, the physiology underlying this phenotype remains unclear. This study tested whether subjective responses during alcohol administration predict neural responses to alcohol cues in the scanner and whether these neural responses differ between OPRM1 genotypes. Twenty alcohol-dependent individuals were recruited (10 G-allele carriers; 6 women; Mage = 29.4) for a within-subjects alcohol administration in the laboratory and a functional magnetic resonance imaging session consisting of an alcohol taste cues task. Laboratory assessments of alcohol high, liking, craving, and positive and negative reinforcement during alcohol administration were entered as predictors of neural response to the presentation of alcohol cues versus water cues in the scanner and further tested for OPRM1 genotype moderation (whole-brain cluster-corrected at Z > 1.96, p < .05). Alcohol craving during alcohol administration predicted less neural activity, whereas alcohol reinforcement predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues versus water cues in regions including the precuneus, posterior cingulate gyrus, and lingual gyrus. Alcohol high predicted greater neural activity to alcohol cues in regions including the precuneus and anterior cingulate cortex. OPRM1 genotype was found to moderate these relationships. No results were observed for alcohol liking.",
"yes. These data suggest that mice selectively bred for low alcohol preference are more sensitive to the development of alcohol CTA than mice selectively bred for high alcohol preference. The present findings indicate that common genes mediate both alcohol preference and the aversive effects of alcohol as measured in the CTA paradigm.",
"A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.",
"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication.",
"Stimuli that are regularly associated with alcohol intake (AI) may acquire incentive salience, while other reinforcers can be devalued. We assessed whether brain activation elicited by (1) alcohol associated, (2) affectively positive, and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli is associated with the subsequent risk of relapse. Twelve detoxified alcoholic subjects (6 women and 6 men) and 12 age-matched and gender-matched healthy control subjects were assessed with functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) and a fast single-event paradigm using standardized affective and alcohol-associated pictures. Patients were followed for 6 months and AI was recorded. In alcoholic subjects, compared with healthy control subjects, (1) alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli elicited increased activation in the prefrontal (PFC; BA 6 and 10) and cingulate cortex (BA 23 and 24), precuneus and adjacent parietal cortex; (2) positive versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC; BA 24), PFC (BA 10), ventral striatum and thalamus; and (3) negative versus neutral stimuli elicited increased activation in the PFC (BA 10). Seven alcoholic subjects relapsed. Within the follow-up period of 6 months, the number of subsequent drinking days (DD) and the amount of AI were inversely correlated with brain activation elicited by positive versus neutral stimuli in the thalamus (DD: r=-0.63, p=0.03; AI: r=-0.63, p=0.03) and in the ventral striatum (DD: r=-0.60, p=0.04; AI: r=-0.48, p=0.11).",
"yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.",
"Chronic alcoholism leads to impaired visual and auditory processing of emotions, but the cross-modal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli has not yet been explored. Our objectives were to describe the electrophysiological correlates of unimodal (visual and auditory) impairments in emotion processing in people suffering from alcoholism, to determine whether this deficit is general or emotion-specific, and to explore potential deterioration in the specific cross-modal integration processes in alcoholism. We used an emotion-detection task, with recording of event-related potentials (ERPs), in which 15 patients suffering from alcoholism and 15 matched healthy control subjects were asked to detect the emotion (angry, happy or neutral) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. Behavioural performance and ERP data recorded between June 2005 and April 2006 were analyzed. ERPs demonstrated that the deficit in alcoholism originates earlier in the cognitive stream than has previously been described (mainly P300), namely, at the level of specific face (N170) and voice (N2) perceptive processing. Moreover, while patients with alcoholism did not show impaired processing of happy and neutral audio-visual stimuli, they did have a specific impairment in the cross-modal processing of anger. A source location analysis was used to confirm and illustrate the results.",
"no. Results support the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. Findings are discussed in broad terms of an individual's cognitive capabilities when intoxicated and in terms of risk for later alcoholism.",
"These results replicated and extended past evidence that cognitive distraction is associated with lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in highly provoked males and provide the first known cognitive data to support the attentional processes posited by the attention-allocation model. Discussion focused on how these data inform intervention programming for alcohol-related aggression.",
"To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).",
"yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.",
"yes. These results indicate that alcohol-seeking behavior driven by a discrete Pavlovian alcohol cue is strongly invigorated by an alcohol context, and suggest that contexts may function as excitatory Pavlovian conditioned stimuli that directly trigger alcohol-seeking behavior.",
"Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.",
"The effects of attentional training show limited generalisation to different alcohol cues and methods of measuring cognitive bias. Experimentally increased attentional bias seems to increase subjective craving, but only among participants who are aware of the experimental contingencies that were in place during attentional training.",
"Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.",
"yes. The results confirm that both conditioned stress and ethanol cues elicit ethanol-seeking behavior and, more importantly, that these stimuli produce interactive effects resulting in an increased ethanol-seeking response. The findings also indicate that susceptibility to ethanol seeking induced by conditioned stress and alcohol cues depends significantly on the history of prior alcohol exposure.",
"yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.",
"To compare alcohol abusers' and non-abusers' distraction for alcohol-related and emotional words, controlling for emotional valence of those words. The experiment compared 20 alcohol abusers and 20 non-abusers in terms of performance on a computerized Stroop colour-naming test using alcohol-related and non-alcohol-related words. Abusers rated the alcohol stimuli greater in emotional valence than the emotional stimuli. Therefore, differences in emotional-valence ratings between the two groups were statistically controlled. Against expectation, both alcohol abusers and non-abusers were more distracted by alcohol stimuli than by positive or negative emotional stimuli.",
"Although striatal dopamine (DA) is important in alcohol abuse, the nature of DA release during actual alcohol drinking is unclear, since drinking includes self-administration of both conditioned flavor stimuli (CS) of the alcoholic beverage and subsequent intoxication, the unconditioned stimulus (US). Here, we used a novel self-administration analog to distinguish nucleus accumbens (NAcc) DA responses specific to the CS and US. Right-handed male heavy drinkers (n = 26) received three positron emission tomography (PET) scans with the D2/D3 radioligand [(11)C]raclopride (RAC) and performed a pseudo self-administration task that separately administered a flavor CS of either a habitually consumed beer or the appetitive control Gatorade®, concomitant with the US of ethanol intoxication (0.06 g/dL intravenous (IV) administration) or IV saline. Scan conditions were Gatorade flavor + saline (Gat&Sal), Gatorade flavor + ethanol (Gat&Eth), and beer flavor + ethanol (Beer&Eth). Ethanol (US) reduced RAC binding (inferring DA release) in the left (L) NAcc [Gat&Sal > Gat&Eth]. Beer flavor (CS) increased DA in the right (R) NAcc [Gat&Eth > Beer&Eth]. The combination of beer flavor and ethanol (CS + US), [Gat&Sal > Beer&Eth], induced DA release in bilateral NAcc. Self-reported intoxication during scanning correlated with L NAcc DA release. Relative to saline, infusion of ethanol increased alcoholic drink wanting.",
"Alcohol craving is associated with greater alcohol-related problems and less favorable treatment prognosis. The Obsessive Compulsive Drinking Scale (OCDS) is the most widely used alcohol craving instrument. The OCDS has been validated in adults with alcohol use disorders (AUDs), which typically emerge in early adulthood. This study examines the validity of the OCDS in a nonclinical sample of young adults. Three hundred and nine college students (mean age of 21.8 years, SD = 4.6 years) completed the OCDS, Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT), and measures of alcohol consumption. Subjects were randomly allocated to 2 samples. Construct validity was examined via exploratory factor analysis (n = 155) and confirmatory factor analysis (n = 154). Concurrent validity was assessed using the AUDIT and measures of alcohol consumption. A second, alcohol-dependent sample (mean age 42 years, SD 12 years) from a previously published study (n = 370) was used to assess discriminant validity. A unique young adult OCDS factor structure was validated, consisting of Interference/Control, Frequency of Obsessions, Alcohol Consumption and Resisting Obsessions/Compulsions. The young adult 4-factor structure was significantly associated with the AUDIT and alcohol consumption. The 4 factor OCDS successfully classified nonclinical subjects in 96.9% of cases and the older alcohol-dependent patients in 83.7% of cases. Although the OCDS was able to classify college nonproblem drinkers (AUDIT <13, n = 224) with 83.2% accuracy, it was no better than chance (49.4%) in classifying potential college problem drinkers (AUDIT score ≥13, n = 85).",
"Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.",
"yes. In line with our hypothesis we found higher cue-induced activation of the ventral striatum in social compared to heavy drinkers, and higher dorsal striatal activation in heavy drinkers. Increased prefrontal activation may indicate that social drinkers activate cortical control when viewing alcohol cues, which may prevent the development of heavy drinking or alcohol dependence. Our results suggest differentiating treatment research depending on whether alcohol use is hedonic or compulsive.",
"Relapse is a serious challenge in problem gambling (PG), as it is in substance addiction. Stress and cues are implicated in relapse in both conditions. However, experimental research on motivational effects of stress in PG subjects is scant. This study examined subjective-motivational, cognitive and physiological effects of stress and alcohol cues in subjects with PG, alcohol use disorder (AD), co-occurring PG and AD (CO), and healthy controls (HC). Fifty-two (12/clinical group; 16 HC) physically healthy men received stress in the form of 10-min uncontrollable noise (U-Noise vs. controllable noise; C-Noise) and cues (355 ml non-alcoholic 'placebo' beer; P-Beer vs. soft drink) under Separate or Combined conditions on two test sessions. Visual analogue scales assessed subjective effects. Emotional Stroop and Go/No-Go 'Shift' tasks assessed inhibitory control. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) indexed physiological reactivity. U-Noise and C-Noise increased desire for alcohol in all groups. U-Noise selectively inhibited desire to gamble in PG subjects. Both U-Noise and C-Noise inhibited desire to gamble in CO subjects. Neither manipulation reliably altered cognitive performance. Compared to Neutral words, Alcohol words impaired Stroop color-naming in all groups except PG, which displayed relatively faster color-naming of Alcohol words (facilitation). U-Noise increased SBP relative to C-Noise in AD and HC groups. U-Noise plus P-Beer and U-Noise per se decreased SBP in PG and CO groups, respectively.",
"Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \"deviant\" tone within a train of \"standard\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).",
"There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.",
"The objective of the two experiments reported was to examine the effects of acute alcohol intoxication and of alcohol expectancies on controlled search across the visual field. After receiving an oral dose of 0.5 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 1), an oral dose of 0.7 g/kg alcohol (Experiment 2), or a placebo, participants searched for a target in large arrays of homogeneous distractors that were either highly similar or less similar to the target. Targets were systematically placed at fixation and at visual angles of 2.5 degrees , 5.0 degrees , 7.5 degrees , and 10.0 degrees . Target detection was less accurate in the placebo condition of both experiments than in the no-beverage control group, suggesting that alcohol expectancies had a negative effect on controlled search. The effects of alcohol at the lower dose and of the placebo on visual search were not different (Experiment 1). At the higher dose, the negative effects of target eccentricity on the accuracy of target detection were larger when targets appeared among highly similar distractors, compared with the placebo condition and with a no-beverage control group. Target eccentricity effects on accuracy or speed were not observed at either dose when targets and distractors were dissimilar.",
"To investigate the effects of stress on alcohol craving and attentional bias for alcohol-related cues in a group of heavy social drinkers. Forty-four heavy social drinkers were exposed to either a laboratory stressor task or a control manipulation before completing a questionnaire measure of alcohol craving and a visual probe task which measured attentional bias for alcohol-related cues. Participants were subdivided into those with high and low levels of coping motives for drinking. Compared to a control manipulation, the laboratory stressor task produced increases in alcohol craving (P < 0.01). The laboratory stressor task also produced a significant attentional bias for alcohol-related cues, but only among participants who had high levels of coping motives (P < 0.05).",
"Research has consistently demonstrated that alcohol impairs the ability to divide attention across 2 or more stimuli. However, under certain circumstances, the presentation of multiple stimuli can actually facilitate performance. The \"redundant signal effect\" (RSE) refers to the phenomenon by which individuals respond more quickly and accurately when information is presented as redundant, bimodal stimuli (e.g., visually and aurally), rather than as a single stimulus presented to either modality alone. Recent work has shown that reaction time (RT) to redundant signals is hastened under alcohol, ameliorating the slowing effects of the drug. However, no research has examined whether RSE can reduce the impairing effects of alcohol on the ability to inhibit behavior. This study examined whether the impairing effects of alcohol on inhibitory control might be altered by the presentation of redundant inhibitory signals. Inhibitory control was assessed by a go/no-go task which included single and redundant inhibitory signals. Performance was tested following placebo (0.0 g/kg) and alcohol (0.65 g/kg). The effect of redundant activation signals on alcohol impairment of response activation was also measured. The results showed evidence for RSE on the activation of behavior, but not for inhibitory control. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed RT and reduced response inhibition. Redundant signals had a robust speeding effect on RT, even following alcohol. By contrast, redundant signals failed to improve inhibitory control following placebo or alcohol.",
"This study provided the first direct test of the cognitive underpinnings of the attention-allocation model and attempted to replicate and extend past behavioral findings for this model as an explanation for alcohol-related aggression. A diverse community sample (55% African American) of men (N = 159) between 21 and 35 years of age (M = 25.80) were randomly assigned to 1 of 2 beverage conditions (i.e., alcohol, no-alcohol control) and 1 of 2 distraction conditions (i.e., distraction, no-distraction). Following beverage consumption, participants were provoked via reception of electric shocks and a verbal insult from a fictitious male opponent. Participants' attention allocation to aggression words (i.e., aggression bias) and physical aggression were measured using a dot probe task and a shock-based aggression task, respectively. Intoxicated men whose attention was distracted displayed significantly lower levels of aggression bias and enacted significantly less physical aggression than intoxicated men whose attention was not distracted. However, aggression bias did not account for the lower levels of alcohol-related aggression in the distraction, relative to the no-distraction, condition.",
"Animal experiments have provided evidence that the striatum and medial prefrontal cortex play a predominant role in the acquisition and maintenance of drug-seeking behavior. Alcohol-associated stimuli that were regularly paired with alcohol intake may become conditioned cues and elicit a motivational response that triggers relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We used functional magnetic resonance imaging and visual alcohol-associated and control cues to assess brain activation in ten abstinent alcoholics and control subjects. Patients were followed for 3 months, and alcohol intake was recorded. Alcohol-related versus neutral visual stimuli activated the putamen, anterior cingulate and adjacent medial prefrontal cortex in alcoholics compared with healthy controls. Cue-induced activation of these brain areas was pronounced in the five alcoholics who subsequently relapsed during the observation period. A multiple regression analysis showed that, in alcoholics, the amount of subsequent alcohol intake was associated with the intensity of cue-induced brain activation but not the severity of alcohol craving, amount of previous alcohol intake or duration of abstinence before scanning.",
"Visuospatial ability is a multifactorial process commonly impaired in chronic alcoholism. Identification of which features of visuospatial processing are affected and which are spared in alcoholism, however, has not been clearly determined. We used a global-local paradigm to assess component processes of visuospatial ability and MR diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) to examine whether alcoholism-related microstructural degradation of the corpus callosum contributes to disruption of selective lateralized visuospatial and attention processes. A hierarchical letter paradigm was devised, where large global letters were composed of small local letters. The task required identification of target letters among distractors presented at global, local, both, or neither level. Attention was either selectively directed to global or local levels or divided between levels. Participants were 18 detoxified chronic alcoholics and 22 age-matched healthy controls. DTI provided quantitative assessment of the integrity of corpus callosal white matter microstructure. Alcoholics generally had longer reaction times than controls but obtained similar accuracy scores. Both groups processed local targets faster than global targets and showed interference from targets at the unattended level. Alcoholics exhibited moderate compromise in selectively attending to the global level when the global stimuli were composed of local targets. Such local interference was less with longer abstinence. Callosal microstructural integrity compromise predicted degree of interference from stimulus incongruency in the alcoholic group. This relationship was not observed for lateral or third ventricular volumes, which are measures of nonspecific cortical volume deficits.",
"yes. These results suggest that attentional alterations in alcohol dependence are centrally due to a specific alteration of executive control. Intervention programs focusing on executive components of attention should be promoted, and these results support the frontal lobe hypothesis.",
"yes. In this study, brain activation elicited by briefly presented alcohol-associated stimuli was not associated with the prospective risk of relapse. Unexpectedly, alcoholic subjects displayed increased limbic brain activation during the presentation of affectively positive but not negative stimuli, which may reflect a protective factor in detoxified alcoholic subjects.",
"Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.",
"yes. This study provides initial evidence that subjective responses to alcohol, namely craving, high, and the reinforcing properties of alcohol, predict neural markers of alcohol cue reactivity. These results support the validity of laboratory and neuroimaging measures of subjective responses to alcohol and offer an integration of these methods in a sample of alcohol-dependent individuals.",
"yes. Crossmodal processing of complex social stimuli (such as faces and voices) is crucial for interpersonal relations. This first evidence for a crossmodal deficit in alcoholism contribute in explaining the contrast observed between experimental results describing, up to now, mild impairments in emotional facial expression (EFE) recognition in alcoholic subjects (e.g. Oscar-Berman et al.,1990), and the many clinical observations suggesting massive problems.",
"yes. In sum, in 2 independent samples, we have demonstrated that HD display a consistent and reliable sensitivity to alcohol's subjective effects and impairment of eye-tracking and psychomotor performance, which is not affected by FH status. This acute alcohol response phenotype in heavy, frequent binge drinkers appears to be robust and reproducible.",
"Heart rate (HR) acceleration during the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve has proven to be a reliable measure of the sensitivity to the activating effects of alcohol. In this study, we investigated the correlation between an ethanol-induced cardiac change and the strength of implicit alcohol-related arousal and approach associations and attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli in heavy drinkers. These 3 types of implicit alcohol-related cognitions have been proposed to reflect the strength of incentive sensitization that is experienced after repeated alcohol use. Forty-eight heavy drinking men performed a modified version of the Implicit Association Test (IAT) to measure their implicit alcohol arousal and approach-avoidance associations. A modified version of the emotional Stroop was used to measure attentional bias for alcohol-related stimuli (blocked and unblocked). Next, a high dose of alcohol (1.0 mL/kg body weight 95% USP alcohol) was administered in a short period of time. Resting baseline HR, blood alcohol concentrations, mood, and craving for alcohol were assessed before alcohol administration and for 2 hours post-alcohol consumption. Contrary to our hypothesis, a negative association was found between implicit arousal associations and alcohol-induced HR change. This indicates that strong arousal associations were correlated with a decrease in alcohol-induced HR. Approach associations and attentional bias were not correlated with alcohol-induced HR change, but both were correlated positively with each other.",
"yes. Adopting personalised stimuli and eye movement monitoring significantly improves the internal reliability of the alcohol-related visual probe task.",
"yes. We hypothesize a novel mechanism by which alcohol-associated cues promote drug-seeking behavior via activation of dopamine-stimulating alpha-CtxMII-sensitive nAChRs in the VTA. Pharmacological manipulations of selective nAChRs may thus be possible treatment strategies to prevent cue-induced relapse.",
"Attentional biases and deficits play a central role in the development and maintenance of alcohol dependence, but the underlying attentional processes accounting for these deficits have been very little explored. Importantly, the differential alterations across the 3 attentional networks (alerting, orienting, and executive control) remain unclear in this pathology. Thirty recently detoxified alcohol-dependent individuals and 30 paired controls completed the Attention Network Test, which allow exploring the attentional alterations specifically related to the 3 attentional networks. Alcohol-dependent individuals presented globally delayed reaction times compared to controls. More centrally, they showed a differential deficit across attention networks, with a preserved performance for alerting and orienting networks but impaired executive control (p < 0.001). This deficit was not related to psychopathological comorbidities but was positively correlated with the duration of alcohol-dependence habits, the number of previous detoxification treatments and the mean alcohol consumption before detoxification.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that alcoholics exhibit a basic prepotent response inhibition deficit, which is enhanced when the response to be suppressed is related to alcohol. We discuss clinical and theoretical implications of these findings.",
"This study was developed to offer direct support for the Josephs and Steele attention-allocation model. The model suggests that alcohol consumption limits attentional resources to the most salient environmental cue. Forty men participated in a study designed to test the model using measures of memory and attention during ethanol intoxication. Twenty completed memory tests in the presence of a background distractor and 20 completed the tests without a distractor, in two sessions: once while intoxicated (80 mg/dl BAC) and once while sober. A significant Distraction x Intoxication interaction indicated that ethanol-related differences in recall occurred only in the absence of distraction. Distraction impaired subjects only when they were sober.",
"In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.",
"A possible explanation for increased levels of attractiveness of faces when under the influence of alcohol is the reduced ability to perceive bilateral asymmetry. This study tested the degree of preference by alcohol-dosed and non-alcohol-dosed participants for symmetrical faces and their ability to detect facial symmetry, while controlling for other explanations. Volunteers were recruited to a random allocation experiment with three conditions: alcoholic drink (alcohol dosed), non-alcoholic drink (placebo) and diluted orange cordial (control). Data on concentration, personality and demographics were collected. Dependent variables were symmetry preference and detection. Laboratory, University of Roehampton. A total of 101 participants, mainly students (41 alcohol-dosed, 40 placebo, 20 control). Participants provided verbal responses to images of faces which were presented on a computer screen for 5 seconds each; the first task required a preference judgement and the second task consisted of a forced-choice response of whether or not a face was symmetrical. Levels of concentration, weight and level of alcohol dose were measured, and demographics plus additional psychological and health information were collected using a computer-based questionnaire. In contrast to a previous investigation, there was no difference in symmetry preference between conditions (P = 0.846). In agreement with previous findings, participants who had not drunk alcohol were better at detecting whether a face was symmetrical or asymmetrical (P = 0.043). Measures of concentration did not differ between conditions (P = 0.214-0.438). Gender did not affect ability to detect symmetry in placebo or alcohol-dosed participants (P = 0.984, 0.499); however, alcohol-dosed females were shown to demonstrate greater symmetry preference than alcohol-dosed males (P = 0.004).",
"yes. Acute alcohol intoxication at either a low or high dose and placebo-associated intoxication expectancies have a detrimental effect on controlled visual search in large arrays. Acute alcohol intoxication at a high dosage exaggerates the detrimental effects of target eccentricity and of task difficulty on controlled visual search.",
"yes. Cue-induced behavioural activation was specific to alcohol cues, reproducible, persistent and could be blocked by naltrexone, and its correlation with human self-report of craving makes it a potentially useful model for studying alcohol craving.",
"Chronic alcoholism is classically associated with major deficits in the visual and auditory processing of emotions. However, the crossmodal (auditory-visual) processing of emotional stimuli, which occurs most frequently in everyday life, has not yet been explored. The aim of this study was to explore crossmodal processing in alcoholism, and specifically the auditory-visual facilitation effect. Twenty patients suffering from alcoholism, and 20 matched healthy controls had to detect the emotion (anger or happiness) displayed by auditory, visual or auditory-visual stimuli. The stimuli were designed to elicit a facilitation effect (namely, faster reaction times (RTs) for crossmodal condition than for unimodal ones). RTs and performance were recorded. While the control subjects elicited a significant facilitation effect, alcoholic individuals did not present this effect, as no significant differences between RTs according to the modality were shown. This lack of facilitation effect is the marker of an impaired auditory-visual processing.",
"yes. Global-local feature perception was generally spared in abstinent chronic alcoholics, but impairments were observed when directing attention to global features and when global and local information interfered at stimulus or response levels. Furthermore, the interference-callosal integrity relationship in alcoholics indicates that compromised visuospatial functions include those requiring bilateral integration of information.",
"yes. These results suggest that, in smokers, ingestion of a moderate dose of alcohol increases the propensity for smoking-related cues to hold attention and makes those cues seem more attractive, which is consistent with alcohol increasing the 'incentive salience' of smoking cues.",
"yes. After initial visual orienting towards alcohol-related stimuli, light social drinkers as well as longer abstinent alcohol-dependent patients disengage their attention. In patients, this disengagement increased during the first 3 weeks after detoxification indicating assimilation to the attentional bias pattern of light social drinkers.",
"yes. The results indicate that alcohol words are distracting for drinkers in general, and this may indicate a high level of salience for these kinds of stimuli.",
"To assess whether alcohol-related biases in selective-attention and action tendency uniquely or concurrently predict the ability to regulate alcohol consumption. Two groups of undergraduate social drinkers (total n = 55) who differed in their ability to regulate their alcohol consumption completed a novel Selective-Attention/Action-Tendency Task (SA/ATT), which assessed separately alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency. University of Western Australia, Australia. Dysregulated drinking was operationalized as a self-reported high level of alcohol consumption on the Alcohol Consumption Questionnaire, and a high desire to reduce consumption on the Brief Readiness to Change Algorithm. Selective attention and action tendency were assessed using the SA/ATT, working memory was assessed using the operation-span task and participant characteristics were assessed using the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT) and Stages of Change Readiness and Treatment Eagerness Scale (SOCRATES). Results indicated that (i) there was no significant association between alcohol-related biases in selective attention and action tendency, r = 0.16, P = 0.274, and (ii) biases towards alcohol, in both selective attention, β = 1.01, odds ratio = 2.74, P = 0.022, and action tendency, β = 1.24, odds ratio = 3.45, P = 0.015, predicted independent variance in dysregulated-drinker status.",
"no. The results support the idea that automatic mental processes may moderate the influence of brief motivational interventions on quantity of alcohol consumed per drinking occasion. The findings suggest that intervention efficacy may be improved by utilizing implicit measures to identify those who may be responsive to brief interventions and by developing intervention elements to address the influence of automatic processes on drinking behavior.",
"yes. These results suggest that the specific deficit that people with alcoholism demonstrate in processing anger stimuli, widely described in clinical situations but not clearly identified in earlier studies (using unimodal stimuli), is particularly obvious during cross-modal processing, which is more common than unimodal processing in everyday life.",
"This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.",
"yes. RESULTS suggest that recruitment of compensatory error detection and inhibitory control resources may be required for successful inhibition in the presence of alcohol cues among more severe drinkers. These preliminary findings support the construct validity of the task and indicate several methodological alterations to the task's design that should be implemented in future studies.",
"Implicit processes such as attentional bias (AB) and automatic approach/avoidance tendencies (AA) play a role in substance use disorders. Whether these processes can predict a relapse in alcohol-dependent patients is still unclear and must be examined in more detail than has been done previously. We aimed to establish whether AB and AA measured during treatment would predict relapse in alcohol-dependent patients. We also investigated whether these implicit processes predicted time to relapse better than a more common binary relapse variable. A total of 50 alcohol-dependent outpatients undergoing treatment completed the study. Patients completed the Addiction Stroop Task, which assesses AB, and the relevant Stimulus-Response Compatibility Task, which measures AA. Time to relapse was assessed 1, 2, and 3 months after the bias assessment. Twenty patients (40%) relapsed during the follow-up period. The average time to relapse was 40 days after the first session. Overall, participants had an AB for alcohol-related stimuli and a tendency to avoid these stimuli. Neither relapse nor time to relapse was predicted by either bias type.",
"yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).",
"yes. Biases in selective attention and action tendency appear to be distinct mechanisms that contribute independently to difficulty regulating alcohol consumption. Treatment components that could be combined to target both mechanisms could enhance treatment outcomes for alcohol-use disorders.",
"In the current study, we investigated whether the internal reliability of the visual probe task measure of attentional bias for substance-related cues could be improved by incorporating eye-tracking methods and personalised stimuli. Sixty social drinkers completed two visual probe tasks: one with a broad range of different alcohol pictures, the other containing only images of the participants' preferred drink. Attentional bias was inferred from manual reaction times to probes replacing the pictures, and from the duration of eye movement fixations towards the pictures (gaze dwell time). Internal reliability was highest for personalised (versus general) alcohol stimuli, and for eye-tracking (versus manual reaction time) measures of attentional bias. The internal reliability of both reaction time (α=.73) and gaze dwell time measures (α=.76) of attentional bias for personalised alcohol stimuli was acceptable. Internal reliability of indices of attentional bias for general alcohol stimuli was inferior, although better for the gaze dwell time (α=.51) compared to the reaction time measure (α=.19). Attentional bias towards personalised stimuli was larger than bias to general stimuli, but only for the reaction time measure. There were no statistically significant associations between measures of attentional bias and alcohol consumption or craving.",
"In heavy drinkers, training attention towards alcohol cues increases alcohol craving, but it is not clear if effects of 'attentional training' generalise to novel stimuli and measurement procedures. We investigated possible generalisation of attentional training to novel alcohol cues and other methods of measuring cognitive bias. A modified visual probe task was used to train participants to direct their attention either towards ('attend alcohol' group) or away from ('avoid alcohol' group) alcohol cues; attentional bias was not manipulated in a control group (total N = 60). After attentional training, we measured cognitive bias (using visual probe, modified Stroop, flicker-induced change blindness and stimulus-response compatibility tasks), alcohol craving and alcohol consumption. Attentional bias for alcohol cues increased in the 'attend alcohol' group, and this effect generalised to novel stimuli, but not to other cognitive bias tasks. In the 'avoid alcohol' group, attentional bias was reduced for the stimuli that were used during attentional training, but these effects did not generalise to different stimuli or cognitive bias tasks. Alcohol craving increased among participants in the 'attend alcohol' group, but only among participants who were aware of the experimental contingencies during attentional training. There were no group differences in alcohol consumption.",
"Alcohol increases the motivation to smoke, possibly because it increases the incentive motivational properties of smoking cues. We examined whether alcohol would increase attentional, approach, and evaluative biases for smoking-related cues in a sample of daily cigarette smokers. The study used a visual probe task with eye movement recording to investigate biases in visual orienting to smoking-related cues. A stimulus-response compatibility task was used to assess approach tendencies for smoking-related cues, and an explicit rating task was used to assess the perceived valence of smoking-related cues. Participants completed the tasks in two sessions, once after consumption of 0.4 g/kg alcohol and once after consumption of a non-alcoholic drink. Alcohol increased the maintenance of attention on smoking cues (evident from gaze duration and a reaction time index of attentional bias), the perceived pleasantness of smoking cues, and cigarette craving, relative to the non-alcoholic drink. However, alcohol had no effect on the initial shifting of gaze to smoking cues or on the tendency to approach smoking cues.",
"Previous studies in alcohol-dependent patients have shown an attentional bias (AB) under related substance cues, which can lead to relapse. This AB can be evaluated by the alcohol Stroop test (AST). The AST is a modified Stroop task in which participants have to name the color of an alcohol-related word or a neutral word. AB is the response-time difference between these two types of words. The goal of the current study was to examine modification of AB during specialized hospitalization for alcohol dependence, with the suppression of a training bias that could be present in within-subject design. Individuals with alcohol-dependence disorders (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition) and admitted for withdrawal in the addiction unit of the University Hospital of Clermont-Ferrand (test group, n = 42) and persons with no alcohol or psychiatric disorder (control group, n = 16), recruited among colleagues and friends of the staff, performed the AST. A subgroup of the test group performed the AST in admission (admission group, n = 19), and another subgroup undertook the test immediately before discharge (discharge group, n = 23). Results showed an AB only for patients seen at admission (F[1,55] = 3.283, P = 0.075). Moreover, we observed that the AB in the admission group (mean = 34 ms, standard deviation [SD] = 70.06) was greater than the AB in the control group (mean = 23 ms, SD = 93.42), itself greater than the AB in the discharge group (mean = -12 ms, SD = 93.55) (t[55] = -1.71; P = 0.09).",
"Attentional bias for alcohol-related cues is associated with the motivation to drink alcohol, possibly because attentional bias increases craving. We examined whether an experimentally induced attentional bias would influence subjective and behavioural indices of the motivation to drink. Heavy social drinkers (N=40) completed an attentional training procedure, in which half of the participants were trained to direct their attention towards alcohol-related cues ('attend alcohol'), and half of the participants were trained to direct their attention away from alcohol-related cues ('avoid alcohol'). After attentional training, participants rated their urge to drink alcohol, and the amount of beer consumed during a taste test was measured. The attentional training procedure produced significant changes in attentional bias in the predicted direction in both experimental groups. Attentional training produced an increase in the urge to drink alcohol in the attend alcohol group, and the attend alcohol group consumed more beer than the avoid alcohol group during the taste test.",
"yes. These results suggest that a potentiated attentional bias for alcohol-related cues can increase the motivation to drink alcohol. Theoretical and clinical implications are discussed.",
"To examine whether alcohol-related attentional bias (AB) can be reduced by training heavy drinkers to attend to soft drinks as an alternative to alcohol. Diminishing AB is important because AB has been suggested to be a significant factor in the development, maintenance and relapse of addictive behaviours. AB was trained in a clinically relevant design, and we studied the generalization of this training. DESIGN, PARTICIPANTS AND INTERVENTION: We assigned randomly 106 heavy drinking male college and university students to the attentional re-training (AR; modified visual-probe task) or control condition (standard visual-probe task). Laboratory at Maastricht University. We measured the effects of AR on the visual-probe task with stimuli that were presented in the AR and with new stimuli, and on an alternative measure of AB, the flicker paradigm. We further measured effects on craving and preference for either an alcohol beverage or a soft drink. After AR, participants had learned to avoid alcohol stimuli and had developed an AB for soft drinks. This effect was restricted to stimuli used in the AR. The flicker task, where AB for alcohol was found in both the AR and control groups, was not affected by the AR. No effect was found on craving and the preference task.",
"yes. This pilot study showed that cue-induced activation of the anterior cingulate, medial prefrontal cortex and striatum may play a role in the attribution of incentive salience to alcohol-associated stimuli, thus increasing the motivational value and attentional processing of alcohol cues. Functional brain imaging may help to identify a group of alcoholics with an otherwise undetected high risk of relapse.",
"Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \"Alcohol-Shifting Task\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \"go\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.",
"The aim of this study was to analyse initial orienting processes as well as maintenance of attention towards alcohol cues in recently detoxified alcoholics and light social drinkers. Furthermore, we investigated the influence of pre-treatment alcohol consumption and abstinence duration onto alcohol-related attentional bias. We used an alcohol-visual-dot-probe-task with two different stimulus onset asynchronies (SOA) to examine processes of initial orienting and maintenance of attention separately (50 and 500 ms SOA). With short SOA, we found a positive attentional bias towards alcohol cues in alcohol-dependent patients and light social drinkers that was positively associated with pre-treatment alcohol consumption in alcoholics. Using a longer SOA, a negative attentional bias was found in light social drinkers and in patients abstinent for more than 2 weeks indicating alcohol stimuli avoidance. In patients, we found a negative correlation between attentional bias and duration of abstinence.",
"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.",
"yes. These results suggest that mesolimbic activation in alcoholics is biased towards processing of alcohol cues. This might explain why alcoholics find it particularly difficult to focus on conventional reward cues and engage in alternative rewarding activities.",
"These findings indicate that it is difficult for alcoholics to regulate their attention to alcohol stimuli, suggesting that alcoholics' processing of alcohol information is automated."
] | 8 |
Alcohol effects on movement-related potentials: a measure of impulsivity? | [
"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.",
"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication."
] | [
"Binge Drinking (BD) typically involves heavy drinking over a short time, followed by a period of abstinence, and is common among young people, especially university students. Animal studies have demonstrated that this type of alcohol consumption causes brain damage, especially in the nonmature brain. The aim of the present study was to determine how BD affects brain functioning in male and female university students, during the performance of a visual working memory task. Event-related potentials (ERPs) were recorded, with an extensive set of 32 scalp electrodes, in 95 first-year university students (age range 18 to 20 years), comprising 42 binge drinkers (BD) and 53 controls, in a visual \"identical pairs\" continuous performance task. Principal components analysis was used to identify and analyze the N2 (negative waveform with a latency around 200 to 300 ms related to attentional processes) and P3 (positive waveform with a latency around 300 to 600 ms related to working memory processes) components of the ERPs. In the matching condition of the task, the N2 component in central and parietal regions was significantly larger in the BD than in the control group. In the control group, the P3 component was larger in the matching than in the nonmatching condition in the frontal, central, and parietal regions, whereas the BD group did not show any significant differences between conditions in any region.",
"Impulsivity is a hallmark of problem gambling. However, impulsivity is not a unitary construct and this study investigated the relationship between problem gambling severity and two facets of impulsivity: impulsive action (impaired ability to withhold a motor response) and impulsive choice (abnormal aversion for the delay of reward). The recruitment includes 65 problem gamblers and 35 normal control participants. On the basis of DSM-IV-TR criteria, two groups of gamblers were distinguished: problem gamblers (n = 38) and pathological gamblers (n = 27) with similar durations of gambling practice. Impulsive action was assessed using a response inhibition task (the stop-signal task). Impulsive choice was estimated with the delay-discounting task. Possible confounds (e.g., IQ, mood, ADHD symptoms) were recorded. Both problem and pathological gamblers discounted reward at a higher rate than their controls, but only pathological gamblers showed abnormally low performance on the most demanding condition of the stop-signal task. None of the potential confounds covaried with these results.",
"yes. The hypothesized model was confirmed on a large sample of young adults and replicated on a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers. Taken together, these findings shed further light on the mechanisms through which an impulsive temperament may convey risk for alcohol misuse.",
"yes. Chronic ethanol consumption alters the frequency of spontaneous MS/DB neural activity following GABA microiontophoresis compared to premicroiontophoresis levels. These data suggest that the kinetics of GABA A receptors in the MS/DB are altered by chronic ethanol consumption independent of changes in the total amount of inhibition or alterations in GABA A receptor alpha1 and alpha4 subunit peptide expression.",
"yes. These data suggest that chronic alcohol-induced decreases in Kv4.2 channel function possibly mediated by a downregulation of KChIP3 drive the elevated bAP-associated Ca(2+) transients in distal apical dendrites. Alcohol-induced enhancement of bAPs may affect metaplasticity and signal integration in apical dendrites of hippocampal neurons leading to alterations in hippocampal function.",
"The study examines the residual impairment of performance due to alcohol on the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The occurrence of residual impairment at low or zero levels of blood alcohol is well established but its cause is uncertain. It is hypothesized that residual impairment may be due in part to the methodological procedure of repeated performance testing in the post-ingestion period. There were 80 volunteers randomly allocated to one of four treatment conditions: a) alcohol and repeated performance (A-R) where psychomotor tasks were performed at 20-min interval for 2 h post ingestion; b) alcohol and double performance (A-D) where tasks were performed only at 1 h and 2 h from ingestion; c) placebo and repeated performance (P-R); and d) placebo and double performance (P-D). Alcohol was administered as vodka to achieve a peak blood-alcohol concentration (BAC) of approximately 80 mg per 100 ml. Performance effects were assessed by a dual task of primary pursuit tracking and secondary visual reaction time, and a visual sustained attention task. Alcohol caused significant impairment of secondary reaction time, the effect being greatest at peak BAC. Sustained attention was also impaired by alcohol but the effect just missed significance. Repeated performance conditions were associated with significantly greater impairment of secondary reaction time and sustained attention when compared with double performance conditions. The factor of performance condition did not, however, interact with that of alcohol.",
"yes. The present results are consistent with previous studies demonstrating that acetaldehyde is an active metabolite of ethanol, which can have locomotor stimulant properties when administered in the ventricular system of the brain or into specific brain nuclei. Some brain nuclei rich in catalase (i.e.; SNR and ARH) could be mediating some of the locomotor stimulant effects of ethanol through its conversion to acetaldehyde.",
"Pronounced disruption of memory traces by subsequent distractors may result in impaired behavioral memory performance in alcoholics. This hypothesis was investigated with an electrophysiological index of auditory sensory-memory traces, mismatch negativity, a preattentive event-related potential component elicited by a \"deviant\" tone within a train of \"standard\" tones. Inserting a masking stimulus after these tones abolished mismatch negativity in alcoholics (DSM-IV) but not in social-drinker controls. This effect predicted working-memory impairment in alcoholics, and correlated significantly with self-reported alcohol consumption of the subjects. Furthermore, the backward-masking mismatch negativity paradigm detected sensory-memory impairment in 9 of 20 alcoholics (sensitivity 45%), whereas all 20 social drinkers were unimpaired (specificity 100%).",
"yes. Our findings demonstrate that acute and chronic effects of alcohol exposure are reflected in changes in 22-28 and 50-55 kHz FM USV counts and acoustic patterns. These data support the notion that initiation and maintenance of alcohol intake in P rats may be due to a unique, alcohol-responsive emotional phenotype and further suggest that spontaneous 22-28 kHz USVs serve as behavioral markers for excessive drinking vulnerability.",
"Perceived unfairness is related to impulsivity in patients with alcohol dependence. These results provide insights concerning the psychopathology of alcohol dependence.",
"In this apparently clinically healthy population of abstinent alcohol-dependent subjects, frontal lobe dysfunction was detectable using the Trail A + B and digit symbol tasks. This was despite above-average WAIS-R IQ scores. Consideration needs to be given to routine incorporation of cognitive testing in alcohol dependence since subtle deficits may not be easily apparent and may impact on treatment outcome.",
"In 3 previously published works (Brumback et al., 2007, Drug Alcohol Depend 91:10-17; King et al., 2011a, Arch Gen Psychiatry 68:389-399; Roche and King, 2010, Psychopharmacology (Berl) 212:33-44), our group characterized acute alcohol responses in a large group of young, heavy binge drinkers (n = 104) across a variety of subjective, eye-tracking, and psychometric performance measures. The primary goal of the current study was to directly replicate prior findings of alcohol response in heavy social drinkers (HD) in a second independent cohort (n = 104) using identical methodology. A secondary goal was to examine the effects of family history (FH) of alcohol use disorders (AUD) on acute alcohol response in both samples. Participants attended 2 randomized laboratory sessions in which they consumed 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a taste-masked placebo. At pre- and post-drink time points, participants completed subjective scales, psychomotor performance and eye-movement tasks, and provided salivary samples for cortisol determination. Results showed that the second cohort of heavy drinkers exhibited a nearly identical pattern of alcohol responses to the original cohort, including sensitivity to alcohol's stimulating and hedonically rewarding effects during the rising breath alcohol content (BrAC) limb, increases in sedation during the declining BrAC limb, a lack of cortisol response, and psychomotor and eye-tracking impairment that was most evident at peak BrAC. The magnitude and temporal pattern of these acute effects of alcohol in the second cohort were similar to the first cohort across all measures, with the exception of 3 eye-movement measures: pro- and antisaccade accuracy and antisaccade velocity. FH of AUD did not affect alcohol response in the first cohort, and this was replicated in the second cohort.",
"Impulsivity is a common feature shared by bipolar disorder (BD) and substance use disorder (SUD). SUD and recurrent mood episodes are considered to be risk factors for poor outcome in BD. However, the association between impulsivity, illness chronicity and SUD in BD remains unexplored. 103 BD patients with and without a lifetime history of SUD (36.82±11.34 years, 40 males) were recruited. Participants completed the SCID interview and were administered measures of impulsivity including the Barratt Impulsivity Scale (BIS) and selected tests of the Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery (CANTAB). Hierarchical regression analyses explored the relationship between illness chronicity, SUD, and impulsivity. Variance in the BIS, number of false alarms on the Rapid Visual Processing task and other impulsivity indicators of the Cambridge Gambling Task (CGT) was not explained by the chosen variables. Only an increased number of commission errors in the negative condition of the Affective Go/No Go task was significantly associated with illness chronicity. Furthermore there was a trend suggesting a relationship between a lifetime history of SUD and increased propensity to risk-taking during the CGT. Potential limitations include medication and patients׳ remission status from SUD.",
"To understand how and why alcohol intoxication affects visually guided stepping, the eye movements and performance of 6 subjects (aged 22-35 years) were monitored as they progressed along a pathway of 18 irregularly placed stepping stones before and after consumption of an acute oral dose of alcohol. Horizontal eye movements were measured with infrared reflectometry; footfall on or off target was monitored via copper fabric soles stuck to subjects' footwear. Breath alcohol concentration was monitored with an Alco-Sensor III breathalyzer. After alcohol loading, both locomotor and oculomotor deficits were evident. All subjects increased their step cycle duration-with prolonged stance, swing, and double support phases-and occasionally missed footfall targets. A large proportion of saccades made to fixate successive stepping stones were inaccurate and were accompanied by one or more corrective saccades. These problems with looking and stepping to footfall targets tended to occur together and were comparable to those seen previously in cerebellar patients undertaking the same task.",
"Previous studies suggest older adults may be differentially susceptible to the acute neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol intake. To our knowledge, no studies have addressed acute moderate alcohol effects on the electrophysiological correlates of working memory in younger and older social drinkers. This study characterized alcohol-related effects on frontal theta (FTP) and posterior alpha power (PAP) associated with maintenance of visual information during a working memory task. Older (55 to 70 years of age; n = 51, 29 women) and younger (25 to 35 years of age; n = 70, 39 women) community-dwelling moderate drinkers were recruited for this study. Participants were given either placebo or an active dose targeting breath alcohol concentrations (BrACs) of 0.04 or 0.065 g/dl. Following absorption, participants completed a visual working memory task assessing cue recognition following a 9-s delay. FTP and PAP were determined via Fourier transformation and subjected to 2 (age group) × 3 (dose) × 2 (repeated: working memory task condition) mixed models analysis. In addition to expected age-related reductions in PAP, a significant age group × dose interaction was detected for PAP such that 0.04 g/dl dose level was associated with greater PAP in younger adults but lower PAP in their older counterparts. PAP was lower in older versus younger adults at both active doses. Further mixed models revealed a significant negative association between PAP and working memory efficiency for older adults. No effects of age, dose, or their interaction were noted for FTP.",
"Individuals with alcoholism are characterized by both attentional bias for alcohol cues and prepotent response inhibition deficit. We tested the hypothesis that alcoholics exhibit greater cognitive disinhibition when the response to be suppressed is associated with alcohol-related information. Forty recently detoxified individuals with alcoholism were compared with 40 healthy non-substance abusers on the \"Alcohol-Shifting Task\", a variant of the go/no-go paradigm requiring a motor response to targets and no response to distracters. The aim was to test the ability of alcoholics to discriminate between alcohol-related and neutral words. Sometimes, the alcohol-related words were the targets for the \"go\" response, with neutral words as distracters, sometimes the reverse. Several shifts in target type occurred during the task. Alcoholics made significantly more commission errors (i.e., press a key when a distracter displayed) and more omission errors (i.e., not press a key when a target displayed) than controls. Moreover, the number of commission errors was greater in alcoholics when alcohol-related stimuli had to be detected.",
"Impulsivity is the neurophysiologically based inability to confirm behaviour to its context or consequences. Overimpulsiveness characterizes many mental disorders and poses an important clinical dilemma. Although the relationship between mood disorders and impulsivity has been well studied the relationship between anxiety and impulsivity is controversial and not well explored. Some studies hypothesise that patients with the diagnosis of panic disorders are characterised by higher levels of impulsivity as a trait as compared to healthy individuals. The aim of this study was to assess cognitive correlates in panic disorder as related to impulsivity measures. Within the preliminary studies four patients diagnosed with panic disorder (DSM-IV-TR) were studied. The severity measure was the Panic and Agoraphobia Scale. The experimental group comprised of psychotropic drug naive patients. Impulsiveness was evaluated with the Barrat Impulsiveness Scale - 11th version (BIS-11). To asses cognitive functions we used CANTAB (Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery). BIS-11 scores observed in the group of psychotropic drug naive patients with panic disorder were higher than the adjusted average for the population and correlated with the number of mistakes in CANTAB (Spatial Working Memory Test); rs=0.949; p=0.0513.",
"yes. Startle response to moderate acoustic stimuli can be a predictive index of vulnerability to developing increased alcohol drinking.",
"yes. Differences in operational characteristics of the saccadic control system are associated with FHA in adult social drinkers, both at baseline and when the brain is exposed to ethanol at 60 mg/100 ml.",
"yes. Overall, these results suggest that impulsivity and PTSD-related alcohol expectancies interact to predict alcohol use severity in a comorbid PTSD and substance dependent sample.",
"Problem gambling has been proposed to represent a 'behavioural addiction' that may provide key insights into vulnerability mechanisms underlying addiction in brains that are not affected by the damaging effects of drugs. Our aim was to investigate the neurocognitive profile of problem gambling in comparison with alcohol dependence. We reasoned that shared deficits across the two conditions may reflect underlying vulnerability mechanisms, whereas impairments specific to alcohol dependence may reflect cumulative effects of alcohol consumption. Cross-sectional study. Out-patient addiction treatment centres and university behavioural testing facilities. A naturalistic sample of 21 male problem and pathological gamblers, 21 male alcohol-dependent out-patients and 21 healthy male control participants. Neurocognitive battery assessing decision-making, impulsivity and working memory. The problem gamblers and alcohol-dependent groups displayed impairments in risky decision-making and cognitive impulsivity relative to controls. Working memory deficits and slowed deliberation times were specific to the alcohol-dependent group.",
"Recent work suggests that 2 biologically based traits convey risk for alcohol misuse: reward sensitivity/drive and (rash) impulsiveness. However, the cognitive mechanisms through which these traits convey risk are unclear. This study tested a model predicting that the risk conveyed by reward sensitivity is mediated by a learning bias for the reinforcing outcomes of alcohol consumption (i.e., positive alcohol expectancy). The model also proposed that the risk conveyed by rash impulsiveness (RI) is mediated by drinkers' perceived ability to resist alcohol (i.e., drinking refusal self-efficacy). Study 1 tested the model in a sample of young adults (n = 342). Study 2 tested the model in a sample of treatment-seeking substance abusers (n = 121). All participants completed a battery of personality, cognitive, and alcohol use questionnaires and models were tested using structural equation modeling. In both studies, the hypothesized model was found to provide a good fit to the data, and a better fit than alternative models. In both young adults and treatment-seeking individuals, positive alcohol expectancy fully mediated the association between reward sensitivity and hazardous alcohol use. For treatment seekers, drinking refusal self-efficacy fully mediated the association between RI and hazardous drinking. However, there was partial mediation in the young adult sample. Furthermore, neither trait was directly associated with the other cognitive mediator.",
"The psychomotor stimulant theory of addiction posits that sensitivity to the positively rewarding properties of alcohol puts certain individuals at higher risk for alcohol abuse. A valid and reliable index of overactivation in the reward system has been a heightened baseline heart rate (HR) increase on the ascending limb of the blood alcohol curve. The main goal of this study was to investigate the relationship between this HR response and a questionnaire measuring sensitivity to reward and sensitivity to punishment. Additional goals included looking at (1). the association between a high HR response and various personality traits (hopelessness/introversion, anxiety sensitivity, impulsivity, and sensation-seeking) and (2). the relationship between these personality traits and stimulant use. A total of 18 low- and 19 high-HR responders completed the Sensitivity to Punishment and Sensitivity to Reward Questionnaire (SPSRQ), the Substance Use Risk Profile Scale (SURPS), and a modified version of the Addiction Severity Index. High-HR responders obtained significantly higher scores than low-HR responders on the sensitivity to reward scale of the SPSRQ, as well as increased sensation-seeking scores on the SURPS. High-HR responders were not at significantly higher risk of having used stimulants, but stimulant use was associated with higher impulsivity scores on the SURPS.",
"Impulsivity, which has been the subject of extensive debate in psychiatric research, is a clinically important concept, especially with respect to Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) and Substance Use Disorders (SUD). The current study aims to examine the presence of two aspects of impulsivity (self-reported impulsivity and delay discounting) in patients with BPD, SUD (alcohol use=AUD or drug use=DUD) and the combination of both disorders (BPD+SUD). Patients were recruited from eight different mental health treatment service facilities. A total of 345 participants were assessed and divided into six groups: (1) healthy controls (non-BPD, non-SUD), (2) patients with BPD (non-SUD), (3) DUD (non-BPD), (4) AUD (non-BPD), (5) BPD+AUD and (6) BPD+DUD. The behavioural measure of impulsivity is more conservative than the results of self-reported impulsivity. Furthermore, ANOVA indicated that BPD and SUD have significant effects on self-reported impulsivity, even when demographic variables, income, other psychiatric symptoms or depression are considered as covariates. On the other hand, the main effects of BPD and SUD are mediated by psychiatric symptoms and depression when delay discounting is considered as a dependent variable.",
"Repeated studies have shown that high impulsivity, when defined as the tendency to choose small immediate rewards over larger delayed rewards, is more prevalent in drug addicts and alcoholics when compared with nonaddicts. Assessing whether impulsivity precedes and potentially causes addiction disorders is difficult in humans because they all share a history of drug use. In this study, we address this question by testing alcohol-naïve mice from lines showing heritable differences in alcohol intake. Replicated selected lines of outbred high-alcohol preferring (HAP) mice were compared to a low-alcohol preferring (LAP) line as well as the low-drinking progenitor line (HS/Ibg) on an adjusting amount delay discounting (DD) task. The DD task employs 2 levers to present subjects with a choice between a small, immediate and a large, delayed saccharin reward. By adjusting the quantity of the immediate reward up and down based on choice behavior, the task allows an estimate of how the subjective value of the delayed reinforcer decreases as delays increase. Latency to respond was also measured for each trial. Both HAP2 and HAP1 lines of mice were more impulsive than the LAP2 and HS/Ibg lines, respectively. Hyperbolic curve-fitting confirmed steeper discounting in the high-alcohol drinking lines. In addition, the high-alcohol drinking lines demonstrated greater within-session increases in reaction times relative to the low-alcohol drinking lines. No other differences (consumption of saccharin, total trials completed) consistently mapped onto genetic differences in alcohol drinking.",
"Prenatal alcohol exposure can lead to widespread cognitive impairment and behavioral dysregulation, including deficits in attention and response inhibition. This study characterized the neural substrates underlying the disinhibited behavioral profile of individuals with fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD). Children and adolescents (ages 8-18) with (n=13) and without (n=9) histories of heavy prenatal alcohol exposure underwent functional magnetic resonance imaging while performing a response inhibition (go/no-go) task. Despite similar task performance (mean response latency, performance accuracy, and signal detection), blood oxygen level-dependent (BOLD) response patterns differed by group. Region-of-interest analyses revealed that during portions of the behavioral task that required response inhibition, alcohol-exposed participants showed greater BOLD response across prefrontal cortical regions (including the left medial and right middle frontal gyri), while they showed less right caudate nucleus activation, compared with control participants.",
"yes. The suppression of this process by alcohol may represent a basic mechanism by which the drug reduces the ability to efficiently allocate attention and leads to impaired performance on various attention-based tasks (e.g., divided attention and vigilance tasks).",
"The objective of this study was to determine the effects of the N-methyl-d-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, memantine (0, 20, 40 mg/d), upon alcohol drinking and craving in heavy drinkers with or without a family history (FH) of alcoholism, and to explore the modulatory influence of the presence of impulsivity on these outcomes. Ninety-two, nontreatment-seeking, heavy drinkers received memantine or placebo for 8 days. On the eighth day, they received a priming dose of alcohol followed by a 3-hour period of alcohol access. Memantine at a dose of 20 mg reduced alcohol craving but did not influence alcohol drinking. No effects of FH were observed. In participants with higher baseline levels of impulsivity, 40 mg of memantine reduced alcohol craving but increased alcohol drinking and alcohol-induced stimulation.",
"yes. Our results suggest that impulsivity is possibly due to a primary increase in Glu transmission mediated via 5-HT(2A) receptor activation. Thus, mGlu2/3 receptor agonists might have some potential for treating motor impulsivity-related impairments while their cognitive enhancing effects were not confirmed in this study.",
"yes. These findings are in line with predictions made on the basis of dual-process models. They provide further evidence that individual differences in neural baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may contribute to executive functioning abilities such as inhibitory control. Moreover, individuals with strongly positive implicit alcohol attitudes coupled with a low baseline activation in the right lateral PFC may be at greater risk of developing unhealthy drinking patterns than others. (PsycINFO Database Record",
"yes. Although several studies showing increased reward-sensitivity in addictive behaviors, the present results indicate that, in frequent alcohol drinkers, electrophysiological responsiveness is particularly activated by unpredicted nonrewards. In general, this may point to the involvement of the reward system in alcohol drinking frequency.",
"It was shown that impulsivity, as a personality characteristic, is strongly associated with aggressive behaviors, whereby the impact of craving on the relationship between impulsivity and trait aggression in alcohol-dependent inpatients was weak.",
"yes. These findings suggest that heavy drinkers experience deficits in strategic monitoring processing associated with time-based PM tasks which do not abate after FES. That the same strategy improves their event-based PM suggests that FES may be helpful for individuals with problematic drinking patterns in improving their prospective memory.",
"yes. The results demonstrate that high impulsivity is associated with a delayed transition to DLS-dopamine-dependent control over cocaine seeking. This suggests that, if impulsivity confers an increased propensity to addiction, it is not simply through a more rapid development of habits but instead through interacting corticostriatal and striato-striatal processes that result ultimately in maladaptive drug-seeking habits.",
"yes. These findings indicate that ethanol exposure decreases the expression and function of CBP in the developing cerebellum. This effect of ethanol may be responsible for the motor coordination deficits that characterize fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.",
"yes. Our results suggest that the rapid tolerance to ethanol-induced motor impairment in mice may be modulated by adenosine A1 receptors and dopamine D1 receptors.",
"Rats, like humans, are influenced by cue salience when intoxicated. Although this alcohol myopia effect could explain alcohol-induced impulsivity, the two processes are probably distinct because they are mediated by dissociable pharmacological mechanisms.",
"yes. Risk of binge drinking in nondependent individuals is not strongly affected by impulsive personality characteristics or alcohol's ability to induce behavioral disinhibition. However, alcohol did lead to a priming effect and bingers were more tolerant to the sedative and lightheaded effects of alcohol relative to placebo. Risk of binge drinking is associated with the subjective effects of a priming dose of alcohol.",
"Decomposition of event-related potential (ERP) waveforms using time-frequency representations (TFR's) is becoming increasingly common in electrophysiology. The P300 potential is an important component of the ERP waveform and has been used to study cognition as well as psychiatric disorders such as alcoholism. In this work, we aim to further understand the nature of the event-related oscillation (ERO) components which form the P300 wave and how these components may be used to differentiate alcoholic individuals from controls. The S-transform decomposition method is used to derive TFR's from single trial and trial-averaged ERP data acquired during a visual oddball task. These TFR's are averaged within time and frequency windows to provide ERO measures for further investigation. ERO measures are compared with conventional ERP amplitude measures using correlation analyses. Statistical analyses was performed with MANOVA and stepwise logistic regressions to contrast an age-matched sample of control (N=100) and alcoholic male subjects (N=100). The results indicate that the P300 waveform, elicited using infrequent salient stimuli, is composed of frontal theta and posterior delta activations. The frontal theta activation does not closely correspond to any of the conventional ERP components and is therefore best analyzed using spectral methods. Between group comparisons and group predictions indicate that the delta and theta band ERO's, which underlie the P300, show deficits in the alcoholic group. Additionally, each band contributes unique information to discriminate between the groups.",
"yes. These data demonstrate a significant influence of FH status on brain activation during the performance of a response inhibition task, perhaps reflecting a neurobiological vulnerability associated with FH status that may include reduced neuronal efficiency and/or recruitment of additional neuronal resources. These findings are important given that the adolescent developmental period is already associated with reduced inhibitory capacity, even prior to the onset of alcohol use.",
"yes. Alcoholic subtypes identified by cluster analysis seem to be differentially responsive to the effects of fluoxetine treatment on drinking-related outcomes. Serotonergic abnormalities previously identified among a subgroup of alcoholics who are also characterized by impulsivity and severity of alcohol dependence may help to explain the differential medication effect. Based on these findings, it is recommended that, in the absence of a comorbid mood or anxiety disorder, fluoxetine not be used to maintain abstinence or reduce drinking in high-risk/severity alcoholics.",
"yes. Adolescents are less sensitive than adults to the motor-impairing effects of ethanol, and a similar effect is seen with in vivo electrophysiological recordings of cerebellar Purkinje neurons. While still under investigation, PKCγ expression mirrors the age effect of ethanol and may contribute to the age-dependent differences in the ataxic effects of ethanol.",
"yes. Higher BIS-11 scores in all domains of impulsivity [i.e., motor, attentional, and lack of planning] corroborated previous findings described in patients with JME. On the other hand, BIS-11 could not demonstrate problem solving and inhibitory control deficits related to impulsive behavior, which were described in patients with TLE. Other behavioral measures may be more sensitive to some aspects of impulsivity in TLE. Our results reinforce the concept that distinct epileptic syndromes require different neuropsychological approaches, especially considering a complex construct such as impulsivity.",
"yes. The kinematic movement performance measures obtained during a drinking task are more strongly associated with activity capacity than with impairment. The movement smoothness and time, possibly together with compensatory movement of the trunk, are valid measures of activity capacity and can be considered as key variables in the evaluation of upper-extremity function after stroke. This increased knowledge is of great value for better interpretation and application of kinematic data in clinical studies.",
"A self-enhancing loop between impaired inhibitory control under alcohol and alcohol consumption has been proposed as a possible mechanism underlying dysfunctional drinking in susceptible people. However, the neural underpinnings of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control are widely unknown. We measured inhibitory control in 50 young adults with a stop-signal task during functional magnetic resonance imaging. In a single-blind placebo-controlled cross-over design, all participants performed the stop-signal task once under alcohol with a breath alcohol concentration of .6 g/kg and once under placebo. In addition, alcohol consumption was assessed with a free-access alcohol self-administration paradigm in the same participants. Inhibitory control was robustly decreased under alcohol compared with placebo, indicated by longer stop-signal reaction times. On the neural level, impaired inhibitory control under alcohol was associated with attenuated brain responses in the right fronto-temporal portion of the inhibition network that supports the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans from response execution to inhibition. Furthermore, the extent of alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control predicted free-access alcohol consumption.",
"yes. Preliminary results showed that in subjects with GAD only the motor component of impulsivity seems directly related to clinical severity, whereas impulsiveness is predicted by higher levels of 2 temperamental dimensions that are influenced by dopamine and norepinephrine systems and by weakness of character.",
"Executive function (EF) impairment in alcohol dependence (AD) has been related to the toxic effects of alcohol on frontal lobes. However, this impairment could be partially present before the onset of the disease and might constitute a vulnerability factor. Although a considerable body of research has investigated executive functioning among AD patients, much less attention has been directed toward high-risk individuals. Most studies were carried out among children or adolescents, and very few were conducted in adults. The aim of this study was to examine EF in a group of adult offspring of AD individuals. One hundred and fifty-five nonalcoholic adults with (family history positive [FHP]) or without (family history negative [FHN]) family history of AD were included in the study. All participants were screened for past and current psychiatric diagnoses, and alcohol, tobacco, and other substance use. They were compared on self-rated impulsiveness using the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-11 (BIS-11) and EF using a neuropsychological test battery. Group comparison revealed that FHP participants had significantly higher BIS-11 scores than the FHN participants, while neuropsychological examination revealed lower EF scores for FHP participants. Hierarchical regression analysis revealed that the number of AD family members was a predictor of EF results, whereas impulsiveness was not.",
"yes. These results are consistent with the idea that young adults who have used stimulants find uncertainty particularly salient, due in part to preexisting differences in impulsivity, and may be subject to more \"action pressure\" when making decisions under uncertainty. This neural and personality profile may constitute a marker for increased risk of stimulant use.",
"yes. The fact that healthy subjects acutely intoxicated by alcohol show symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction suggests that alcohol acutely and adversely affects the cerebellar contribution to performance of visually guided movements.",
"We investigated reciprocal prospective relationships between multiple behavioural impulsivity tasks (assessing delay discounting, risk-taking and disinhibition) and alcohol involvement (consumption, drunkenness and problems) among adolescents. We hypothesized that performance on the tasks would predict subsequent alcohol involvement, and that alcohol involvement would lead to increases in behavioural impulsivity over time. Cross-lagged prospective design in which impulsivity and alcohol involvement were assessed five times over 2 years (once every 6 months, on average). Classrooms in secondary schools in North West England. Two hundred and eighty-seven adolescents (51.2% male) who were aged 12 or 13 years at study enrolment. Participants reported their alcohol involvement and completed computerized tasks of disinhibition, delay discounting and risk-taking at each assessment. Cross-sectional and prospective relationships between the variables of interest were investigated using cross-lagged analyses. All behavioural impulsivity tasks predicted a composite index of alcohol involvement 6 months later (all Ps < 0.01), and these prospective relationships were reliable across the majority of time-points. Importantly, we did not observe the converse relationship across time: alcohol involvement did not predict performance on behavioural impulsivity tasks at any subsequent time point.",
"Impulsivity is a \"tendency to act prematurely without foresight.\" Clinical experience suggests that such impulsive behavior can impact on the fall risk in Parkinson's disease (PD), but this has never been tested. We investigated whether trait impulsivity is related to fall risk in a large cohort of PD patients. We also investigated whether trait impulsivity affects the fall risk differently for patients with more or less postural instability and gait disability (PIGD). 388 patients with PD (H&Y ≤ 3) completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11, higher scores indicating greater impulsivity) to assess trait impulsivity, including three subscales: motor impulsivity (e.g. \"I do things without thinking\"), attentional impulsivity (e.g. \"I concentrate easily\") and non-planning (e.g. \"I plan tasks carefully\"). Falls were registered prospectively for 6 months. Patients classified as non-fallers (0 falls, n = 237) were compared to recurrent PD fallers (>1 fall, n = 78). Total impulsivity scores were higher for recurrent fallers (59.5) compared to non-fallers (56.8; p = .012). This effect was predominantly driven by higher scores on the subscale for attentional impulsivity (p = .003). The difference in attentional impulsivity was independent of gender, disease severity, dopaminergic medication, and cognitive function. Motor and non-planning impulsivity did not differ between recurrent fallers and non-fallers. There was no evidence that impulsivity modulated the association between PIGD and fall risk.",
"Little is known about the association of binge drinking with impulsivity related to trait- or state-like aspects of behavior. The aim of the present study was therefore to investigate whether binge drinkers show an impairment of inhibitory control in comparison to non-binge drinkers when confronted with alcohol-associated or control stimuli, and whether this is reflected in self-reported impulsivity. A go/no-go task with pictures of alcoholic and nonalcoholic beverages as well as control stimuli was administered to binge drinkers and a gender-matched group of non-binge drinkers. All participants also completed the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-11). We found an alcohol-specific impairment of response inhibition for binge drinkers only, while the groups did not differ with regard to overall response inhibition to the experimental stimuli or self-reported impulsiveness (BIS-11). In addition, the number of commission errors in response to alcohol-associated stimuli was the only significant predictor of binge drinking.",
"yes. Results bolster the small but growing body of evidence that older adults exhibit differential sensitivity to the neurobehavioral effects of moderate alcohol use. Given the theoretical role of PAP in attentional and working memory function, these findings shed light on the attentional mechanisms underlying effects of acute moderate alcohol on working memory efficiency in older adults.",
"Although there is considerable support for the relationship between impulsivity and alcohol dependence, little is known about the impact of neurocognitive aspects of impulsivity on treatment outcome. The aim of this study was to prospectively investigate the impact of neurocognitive impulsivity at treatment onset on treatment completion. Forty-three alcohol-dependent patients entering inpatient treatment for alcohol dependence completed neurocognitive measures of impulsivity at the beginning of treatment. Assessments included prototypical measures of impulsive action (Go/No-go task [GNG] and Stop Signal Task [SST]) and impulsive choice (Delay Discounting Test [DDT], and Iowa Gambling Task). According to treatment outcomes, patients were divided into a patient group with regular treatment completion (e.g., with planned discharges, and without relapse during treatment) or irregular treatment course (e.g., premature and unplanned termination of treatment, \"dropout,\" and/or relapse). Results show that, relative to patients completing treatment in a regular fashion (regular treatment completers [RTC]; 67%), those with an irregular course of treatment (relapse and/or dropout) (irregular treatment completers [ITC]; 33%) had significantly poorer GNG response inhibition performance (p = 0.011), and showed a trend toward greater delay discounting (DDT; p = 0.052) at treatment onset. Additional logistic regression analyses identified poor GNG response inhibition performance as a significant predictor for an irregular treatment course (GNG: p = 0.021; DDT: p = 0.067), particularly for relapse (GNG: p = 0.023).",
"The findings of the present study suggest that when young adults have established binge drinking as a common drinking pattern, impairment of inhibition in response to alcoholic stimuli is the only significant predictor of binge drinking, but not general impulsive behavior.",
"yes. Sensation seeking, urgency and lack of premeditation are related to different motives for drinking and also demonstrate dissociable relationships with the consumption of specific types of alcohol (beer, wine and spirits) and the tendency to engage in risky behaviours associated with alcohol consumption. Screening for high levels of urgency and for severe drinking consequences may be useful predictors of alcohol-related problems in UK University students aged 18 to 25 years.",
"To evaluate the influence of family history of alcoholism (FHA) on the response of saccadic eye movements to alcohol. Saccadic performance was evaluated in 54 healthy adult subjects with a FHA (family history-positive) and 49 controls (family history-negative). Alcohol and placebo sessions were presented in counterbalanced order. Alcohol was administered intravenously to achieve and maintain a target breath alcohol concentration of 60 mg/100 ml (60%) for 160 min in each subject. During each session, saccadic eye movement testing was performed at baseline (before infusion of alcohol) and twice during the steady-state target breath alcohol concentration. The saccadic testing elicited visually guided saccades (VGS) and antisaccades (AS). Saccadic latency and velocity and the percentage of AS errors were quantified and analyzed using multivariate analysis of variance. The family history-positive and family history-negative groups showed an overall difference at baseline in AS and VGS latencies and velocities in the alcohol and placebo sessions ( p= 0.006). Alcohol delayed saccades such that AS and VGS latencies increased (p = 0.0001) and slowed the execution of saccades such that peak velocities decreased ( p = 0.0002). The percentage of AS errors decreased after alcohol administration, but no significant effect of alcohol (alcohol versus placebo session) was observed (p = 0.1). Latency of AS saccades demonstrated a significant overall FHA effect (p = 0.02) and a significant interaction between FHA and response to alcohol over time (p = 0.02).",
"Executive function, impulsivity, and intelligence are correlated markers of cognitive resource that predict health-related behaviours. It is unknown whether executive function and impulsivity are unique predictors of these behaviours after accounting for intelligence. Data from 6069 participants from the Avon Longitudinal Study of Parents and Children were analysed to investigate whether components of executive function (selective attention, attentional control, working memory, and response inhibition) and impulsivity (parent-rated) measured between ages 8 and 10, predicted having ever drunk alcohol, having ever smoked, fruit and vegetable consumption, physical activity, and overweight at age 13, after accounting for intelligence at age 8 and childhood socioeconomic characteristics. Higher intelligence predicted having drunk alcohol, not smoking, greater fruit and vegetable consumption, and not being overweight. After accounting for intelligence, impulsivity predicted alcohol use (odds ratio = 1.10; 99% confidence interval = 1.02, 1.19) and smoking (1.22; 1.11, 1.34). Working memory predicted not being overweight (0.90; 0.81, 0.99).",
"Perception of alcohol intoxication presumably plays an important role in guiding behavior during a current drinking episode. Yet, there has been surprisingly little investigation of what aspects associated with intoxication are used by individuals to attribute their level of intoxication. Building on recent laboratory-based findings, this study employed a complex field-based design to explore the relative contributions of motor performance versus cognitive performance-specifically executive control-on self-attributions of intoxication. Individuals recruited outside of bars (N = 280; mean age = 22; range: 18 to 32) completed a structured interview, self-report questionnaire, and neuropsychological testing battery, and provided a breath alcohol concentration (BrAC) sample. Results of a multiple linear regression analysis demonstrated that current level of subjective intoxication was associated with current alcohol-related stimulant effects, current sedative effects, and current BrAC. After controlling for the unique variance accounted for by these factors, subjective intoxication was better predicted by simple motor speed, as indexed by performance on the Finger Tapping Test, than by executive control, as indexed by performance on the Trail Making Test.",
"This research examined the effect of alcohol on negative priming, which is considered to reflect a basic process of selective attention. Male social drinkers (N = 28) performed a color naming reaction time (RT) task that measured negative priming. After a baseline test on the task, they received either 0.56 g/kg of alcohol or a placebo; they then performed the task twice. In accord with the hypotheses, alcohol suppressed negative priming during the ascending limb but not during the descending limb of the blood alcohol curve. No suppression of negative priming was evident under placebo.",
"yes. Alcohol-naïve outbred mice selected for high-alcohol drinking were more impulsive with saccharin reinforcers than low-alcohol drinkers. These data are consistent with results seen using inbred strain descendents of high-alcohol drinking and low-alcohol drinking rat lines, and suggest that impulsivity is a heritable difference that precedes alcoholism.",
"Evidence suggests that alcohol-related problems are associated with impulsivity and disinhibited behavior. Less certain is whether disinhibited behavior is due to an impulsive disposition or alcohol's ability to disinhibit some people more than others. There are a range of disinhibited behaviors associated with alcohol, including excessive alcohol consumption, bingeing. The study tested whether nondependent alcohol bingers showed more disinhibition after placebo and/or alcohol relative to nonbingers and whether this was related to enhanced motivation to drink following a priming dose of alcohol. Twenty participants (10 bingers) attended the laboratory twice. Baseline measures included impulsivity, alcohol-related cognitions, alcohol urge, and mood. Participants were preloaded with alcohol (male: 0.6 g/kg, female: 0.5 g/kg) and placebo (counterbalanced). After a 20-minute rest, participants completed 2 impulsivity tasks (Two Choice & Time Estimation) separated by second urge and mood ratings. Bingers did not show greater impulsivity characteristics but were more concerned about their drinking (p = 0.02) and ability to control drinking (p = 0.04). A priming effect was found: alcohol urge increased after alcohol but not placebo (p = 0.006). Bingers reported greater tolerance to the sedative (p = 0.05) and lightheaded (p = 0.04) effects of alcohol, relative to nonbingers. Binge status was not associated with impulsivity task performance, while preload type (alcohol/placebo) supported only marginal associations.",
"Alcoholism is characterized by impaired decision-making (i.e., choosing intoxication in the face of mounting negative consequences). This impairment may involve a reduced brain response to the negative consequences of behavior, which supports an inclination to engage in risky behaviors. The feedback error-related negativity (F-ERN) is hypothesized to reflect the valence attached to the negative consequences of behavior. Performance on the Balloon Analogue Risk Task (BART) measures risk-taking propensity. We recorded F-ERNs during the BART and during a BART simulation, where individuals observed the rewards and consequences of (someone else's) BART performance. EEGs were recorded on 22 actively drinking, treatment-naïve alcoholics during the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs were measured and their association with psychological and alcohol use measures was examined. F-ERNs over fronto-central electrode sites were observed to balloon pops in the BART and BART simulation. F-ERNs during the BART were more than twice the amplitude of F-ERNs during the BART simulation. Smaller F-ERN amplitudes from the BART (but not the BART simulation) were associated with a greater family history density of alcohol problems.",
"Studies exploring chronic alcoholism with event-related potentials (ERPs) have shown delayed latency and reduced amplitude of the P300, a long-lasting positive potential reflecting decisional processing. This P300 deficit in alcoholism is generally interpreted as a disturbance in central nervous system inhibition or in memory/attention. The present study aimed at identifying if this electrophysiological deficit is already present on earlier components, and advances a new hypothesis concerning the interpretation of the P300 alteration. Patients suffering from alcoholism and matched healthy controls had to detect, in an oddball paradigm, emotional faces among a succession of neutral faces. Behavioral performance and ERP data (recorded from 32 electrodes) were analyzed. In line with previous studies, data showed that alcoholism led to a P300 deficit. Moreover, we observed for the first time that this deficit begins at earlier visual (P100) and face-processing (N170) stages, and we found high positive correlations between P100, N170 and P300 for amplitude and latency values, suggesting cumulative deficits on the cognitive continuum.",
"Research reviews have suggested that cognitive and motor skills are not equally sensitive to a moderate dose of alcohol; they disagree, however, on which type of task is more sensitive to impairment. This issue is addressed in two experiments testing a cognitive and a motor skill task performed by the same person at comparable blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) during a moderate dose of alcohol. A motor skill task (PR) and a rapid information processing (RIP) task requiring no learned motor skill were performed in counterbalanced order, and tests on the pair of tasks occurred at intervals as BAC rose and declined. In the first experiment, two groups of male social drinkers (each n = 10) received either a moderate dose of alcohol (0.62 g/kg) or placebo and performed the tasks with no consequence for performance. The second experiment comprised four groups (each n = 14) to verify and extend the results to a situation in which unimpaired performance under alcohol was rewarded on one or both tasks. In both experiments, impairment on the PR task tended to increase and diminish with rising and declining BACs, whereas impairment on the RIP task showed no such pattern. Reinforcement reduced the degree of impairment displayed on each task, but the different task profiles of impairment were still evident.",
"It has been suggested that alcohol use is related to sensitivity of the reward system. Although there are several studies using self-reported measures supportive of this notion, objective biological data in humans on this issue are lacking. This study is designed to test whether alcohol drinking frequency is associated with electrophysiological indices of reward processing. In a passive gambling task, stimuli predicted the presence (reward) and absence (nonreward) of rewards resulting in P2 and medial frontal negativity (MFN) indices of reward processing. Forty-seven undergraduate students were asked about their habitual drinking frequency and the P2 and MFN to stimuli predicting reward were measured. Most importantly, the MFN to unpredicted nonrewards at the frontal midline (Fz) location correlated significantly with drinking frequency, with frequent drinkers showing larger MFN amplitudes. The results did not show a significant association between frequency and alcohol drinking and P2.",
"This study investigated alcoholics' selective attention to alcohol words in a version of the Stroop color-naming task. Alcoholic subjects (n = 23) and nonalcoholic control subjects (n = 23) identified the color of Stroop versions of alcohol, emotional, neutral and color words. Manual reaction times (RTs), skin conductance responses (SCRs) and heart rate (HR) were recorded. Alcoholics showed overall longer RTs than controls while both groups were slower in responding to the incongruent color words than to the other words. Alcoholics showed longer RTs to both alcohol (1522.7 milliseconds [ms]) and emotional words (1523.7 ms) than to neutral words (1450.8 ms) which suggests that the content of these words interfered with the ability to attend to the color of the words. There was also a negative correlation (r = -.41) between RT and response accuracy to alcohol words for the alcoholics, reflecting that the longer time the alcoholics used to respond to the color of the alcohol words, the more incorrect their responses were. The alcoholics also showed significantly greater SCRs to alcohol words (0.16 microSiemens) than to any of the other words (ranging from 0.04-0.08 microSiemens), probably reflecting the emotional significance of the alcohol words. Finally, the alcoholics evidenced smaller HR acceleration to alcohol (1.9 delta bpm) compared to neutral (2.8 delta bpm), which could be related to difficulties alcoholics experience in terminating their attention to the alcohol words.",
"Alcoholics and heavy drinkers score higher on measures of impulsivity than nonalcoholics and light drinkers. This may be due to factors that predate drug exposure (e.g. genetics) or to neuroadaptations associated with exposure to alcohol. The aim of this study was to examine the role of genetics by comparing impulsivity in short-term selected lines of mice bred to voluntarily drink either high (STDRHI2) or low (STDRLO2) amounts of 10% ethanol. Independent sets of mice completed 2 experiments designed to measure impulsivity. Using the adjusting amount procedure, we examined preference for smaller, sooner rewards over larger but delayed rewards (delay discounting). This task determines the amount of immediate sucrose equivalent to the discounted value of a 20 microl sucrose reward given following a specific delay (0, 2, 4, 8, or 12 seconds). Using a Go/No-go task, we examined the ability of mice to inhibit nose-poking in response to specific cues. These tasks are commonly used to assess different aspects of impulsive behavior, and provide measures that are not highly correlated. No significant differences were found between STDRHI2 and STDRLO2 mice in delay discounting. In the Go/No-go task, STDRHI2 mice made more responses during the pre-cue period without committing more false alarms, compared with STDRLO2 mice.",
"yes. Several measures of impulsivity predict escalation in alcohol involvement in young adolescents, but alcohol use does not appear to alter impulsivity.",
"Impulsivity is a multifaceted construct and constitutes a common risk factor for a range of behaviors associated with poor self-control (e.g., substance use or binge eating). The short form of the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale (BIS-15) measures impulsive behaviors related to attentional (inability to focus attention or concentrate), motor (acting without thinking), and non-planning (lack of future orientation or forethought) impulsivity. Eating-related measures appear to be particularly related to attentional and motor impulsivity and recent findings suggest that interactive effects between these two facets may play a role in eating- and weight-regulation. One-hundred thirty-three obese individuals presenting for bariatric surgery (77.4% female) completed the BIS-15 and the Yale Food Addiction Scale (YFAS) 2.0, which measures addiction-like eating based on the eleven symptoms of substance use disorder outlined in the fifth version of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. Sixty-three participants (47.4%) were classified as being 'food addicted'. Scores on attentional and motor impulsivity interactively predicted 'food addiction' status: higher attentional impulsivity was associated with a higher likelihood of receiving a YFAS 2.0 diagnosis only at high (+1 SD), but not at low (-1 SD) levels of motor impulsivity.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if behavioral impulsivity under multiple conditions (baseline, after alcohol consumption or after serotonin depletion) predicted naturalistic alcohol use or treatment outcomes from a moderation-based contingency management intervention. The current data analysis pulls information from three phases of a large study: 1) Phase 1 examined baseline and the effects of alcohol use and serotonin depletion on three types of behavioral impulsivity: response initiation (IMT task), response inhibition (GoStop task), and delay discounting (SKIP task); 2) Phase 2 involved 28 days of naturalistic drinking; and 3) Phase 3 involved 3 months of contingency management. During phases 2 and 3 alcohol use was measured objectively using transdermal alcohol monitors. The results of each individual phase has been previously published showing that at a group level the effects of alcohol consumption on impulsivity were dependent on the component of impulsivity being measured and the dose of alcohol consumed but serotonin depletion had no effect on impulsivity, and that a moderation-based contingency management intervention reduced heavy drinking. The current analysis combining data from those who completed all three phases (",
"Recent studies demonstrated that alcohol impairs inhibitory control of behavioural responses. We questioned whether alcohol via its disinhibiting effects would also impair the inhibition of an instrumental avoidance response in the presence of a safety signal. Thirty-six moderate social drinkers were randomly allocated to receiving either alcohol (0.8 g/kg) or placebo before performing an instrumental avoidance procedure. White noise of 102 db was used as aversive outcome presented at a variable interval schedule in S+ trials, while no noise was presented in S- trials. An instrumental response (repeated space bar presses to avoid the noise presented at a variable interval) abolished the noise. The Stop Signal task and the affective Go/No-Go task were administered as inhibitory control tasks. Alcohol did not change the avoidance response rate in the presence of S- (safety signal). However, participants under alcohol performed the avoidance response to a lower extent than placebo subjects in S+ trials. Alcohol impaired performance in the Stop Signal task and increased the number of commission errors in the affective Go/No-Go task. Conditioned attentional and emotional responses to the S+ as well as knowledge of stimulus-response outcome contingencies were not affected by alcohol.",
"Impulsivity is a multifaceted personality construct associated with numerous psychiatric disorders. Recent research has characterized four facets of impulsivity: \"urgency\" (the tendency to act rashly especially in the context of distress or cravings); \"lack of premeditation\" (not envisaging the consequences of actions); \"lack of perseverance\" (not staying focused on a task); and \"sensation seeking\" (engaging in exciting activities). Urgency is particularly associated with clinical populations and problematic disinhibited behavior. We used magnetic resonance spectroscopy to measure concentration of the inhibitory neurotransmitter γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (DLPFC) in two cohorts of 12 and 13 participants. We find that variation in trait urgency in healthy men correlates with GABA concentration in the DLPFC. The result was replicated in an independent cohort. More GABA predicted lower urgency scores, consistent with a role in self-control for GABA-mediated inhibitory mechanisms in DLPFC.",
"There is a common assumption that alcohol produces impulsive behaviors, thereby increasing the preference for immediate over delayed rewards. An alternative explanation, provided by alcohol myopia theory, is that alcohol alters attentional processes such that intoxicated individuals respond exclusively to the most salient cues in their environment. We tested these two hypotheses in rats using standard (impulsivity) and modified (cue salience) versions of the delayed reinforcement task. In the impulsivity paradigm, rats were trained to choose between a small immediate reward (2 sucrose pellets) and a large delayed reward (12 sucrose pellets after 10 s) in a T-maze. In the cue salience paradigm, a light in one arm predicted either the small or the large reward, but the arm paired with the light varied across trials. In separate experiments, we examined how changes in delay to the large reward, alcohol administration, or alcohol combined with either a serotonin agonist [para-chloroamphetamine (pCA) at doses of 0.1, 0.4, 0.7, and 1.0 mg/kg, s.c.)] or a dopamine antagonist [cis-(Z)-flupenthixol dihydrochloride (alpha-flupenthixol) at doses of 0.0125, 0.025, 0.05, and 0.1 mg/kg, i.p.]affected performance in each task. Increasing the delay to the large reward increased impulsivity in both paradigms, but it had no effect on responding to a salient cue. Alcohol (0.6, 0.9, 1.2, and 1.8 g/kg, i.p.) increased the choice of the immediate reward and increased the choice of the lit arm, regardless of whether it signaled the small or the large reward. pCA selectively reduced alcohol-induced impulsivity, whereas alpha-flupenthixol selectively reduced responding to a salient cue.",
"Intense alcohol consumption is a risk factor for a number of health problems. Dual-process models assume that self-regulatory behavior such as drinking alcohol is guided by both reflective and impulsive processes. Evidence suggests that (a) impulsive processes such as implicit attitudes are more strongly associated with behavior when executive functioning abilities are low, and (b) higher neural baseline activation in the lateral prefrontal cortex (PFC) is associated with better inhibitory control. The present study integrates these 2 strands of research to investigate how individual differences in neural baseline activation in the lateral PFC moderate the association between implicit alcohol attitudes and drinking behavior. Baseline cortical activation was measured with resting electroencephalography (EEG) in 89 moderate drinkers. In a subsequent behavioral testing session they completed measures of implicit alcohol attitudes and self-reported drinking behavior. Implicit alcohol attitudes were related to self-reported alcohol consumption. Most centrally, implicit alcohol attitudes were more strongly associated with drinking behavior in individuals with low as compared with high baseline activation in the right lateral PFC.",
"yes. The similarity between alcohol effects on premotor reaction time and some parameters of the OSP supports the importance of examining how other environmental and pharmacological factors known to alter premotor reaction time might change components of the OSP and other types of event-related potentials.",
"Studying the effects of alcohol on Continuous Performance Test (CPT) performance was of interest for two reasons, i.e., (1) perhaps because of the ease of the task used in previous experiments, alcohol has not been found to impair performance, and (2) CPT commission errors (described below) have been related to impulsive behavior. In this study, the CPT featured both an Immediate Memory Task (IMT) and a more difficult Delayed Memory Task (DMT). We compared the performance of 18 subjects under both alcohol and placebo conditions, using a within-subject design. Both the IMT (0.5-sec delay) and the DMT (3.5-sec delay, with distracter stimuli at 0.5-sec intervals) required the subject to respond if a briefly displayed number was identical to the one presented before it. Stimuli included target (identical match), catch (4 of 5 digits matched), and novel (random number) stimuli. On 2 separate days, subjects performed between administrations of three hourly placebo drinks or three hourly drinks containing 0.20 g/kg of alcohol (producing peak breath alcohol concentrations of approximately 0.035%). The main finding was that alcohol consumption increased responses to catch stimuli (i.e., commission errors) in the DMT. In contrast, performance in the IMT (the easier task) was unaffected by alcohol. Commission errors measured during peak breath alcohol concentrations were significantly correlated with scores on the Barratt Impulsivity Scale for both the IMT and DMT. Discriminability (A') between target and catch stimuli was reduced by alcohol for the DMT only.",
"Acute alcohol intoxication has been found to increase perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test, a well known neuropsychological index of prefrontal cortical functioning, in both laboratory and naturalistic settings. The present study examined the relationship between levels of alcohol consumption at campus drinking venues and performance of the Iowa Gambling Task (IGT), another neuropsychological test designed to assess prefrontal cortex dysfunction, after controlling for potential confounding variables including habitual alcohol intake (as a proxy for alcohol tolerance), trait impulsivity, and everyday executive functioning. The 49 participants of both genders aged 18 to 30years were recruited at the relevant venues and showed a broad range of blood alcohol concentrations (BACs) from virtually zero (.002%) to .19%. After controlling for demographic variables, habitual use of alcohol and illicit drugs, and frontal lobe related behavioural traits including impulsivity and disinhibition, BAC negatively predicted gambling money won on the last two trial blocks of the IGT.",
"Neurocognitive impulsivity impacts upon treatment completion and appears sensitive for the prediction of relapse and dropout in alcohol-dependent patients. Poorer GNG response inhibition and a tendency toward steeper discounting of delayed rewards should be regarded as neurocognitive risk factors, which can be identified early in the course of alcohol dependence treatment.",
"yes. These results support the hypothesis that less neural activity during response inhibition demands predicts future involvement with problem behaviors such as alcohol and other substance use.",
"Alcohol is a commonly used social drug and driving under influence is a well-established risk factor for traffic accidents1. To improve road safety, legal limits are set for blood alcohol concentration (BAC) and driving, usually at 0.05% (most European countries) or 0.08% (most US states, Canada and UK). In contrast, for walking there are no legal limits, yet there are numerous accounts of people stumbling and falling after drinking. Alcohol, even at these low concentrations, affects brain function and increases fall risk. An increased fall risk has been associated with impaired obstacle avoidance skills. Low level BACs are likely to affect obstacle avoidance reactions during gait, since the brain areas that are presumably involved in these reactions have been shown to be influenced by alcohol. Therefore we investigated the effect of low to moderate alcohol consumption on such reactions.Thirteen healthy senior individuals (mean(SD) age: 61.5(4.4) years, 9 male) were subjected to an obstacle avoidance task on a treadmill after low alcohol consumption. Fast stepping adjustments were required to successfully avoid suddenly appearing obstacles. Response times and amplitudes of the m. biceps femoris, a prime mover, as well as avoidance failure rates were assessed. After the first alcoholic drink, 12 of the 13 participants already had slower responses. Without exception, all participants' biceps femoris response times were delayed after the final alcoholic drink (avg ± sd:180 ± 20 ms; p < 0.001) compared to when participants were sober (156 ± 16 ms). Biceps femoris response times were significantly delayed from BACs of 0.035% onwards and were strongly associated with increasing levels of BAC (r = 0.6; p < 0.001). These delays had important behavioural consequences. Chances of hitting the obstacle were doubled with increased BACs.",
"yes. The findings highlight impulsivity as a robust and independent predictor of mortality and suggest the need to consider interactions between personality traits and socio-contextual processes in the prediction of health-related outcomes for individuals with alcohol use disorders.",
"yes. The results indicate how disagreement over the sensitivity of cognitive and motor skills to a moderate dose of alcohol may occur when impairment is only assessed at some particular BACs. Theoretical and practical implications of the findings are discussed.",
"The degree to which distinct behavioral components of impulsivity predict alcohol consumption is as yet not well-understood. Further, the possibility that this relation might be more pronounced in groups characterized by heightened impulsivity (i.e., individuals with ADHD) has not been tested. The current study examined the degree to which three specific behavioral components of impulsivity (i.e., poor response inhibition, poor attentional inhibition, and increased risk-taking) were associated with quantity and frequency of alcohol consumption in a group of young adult social drinkers with ADHD (n = 33) and in a comparison control group (n = 21). Participants performed the delayed ocular return task (attentional inhibition), the cued go/no-go task (behavioral inhibition), and the balloon analogue risk task (risk-taking). Both poor behavioral inhibition and greater risk-taking were related to greater quantity of consumption in the entire sample, whereas poor attentional inhibition was related to greater quantity specifically among those with ADHD. By contrast, only risk-taking was associated with frequency of consumption, and this was found specifically in the control group.",
"Alcohol dependence is often associated with impulsivity, which may be correlated with dysfunction of the brain reward system. We explored whether functional brain activation during anticipation of incentive stimuli is associated with impulsiveness in detoxified alcoholics and healthy control subjects. Nineteen detoxified male alcoholics and 19 age-matched healthy men participated in a functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) study using a monetary incentive delay (MID) task, in which visual cues predicted that a rapid response to a subsequent target stimulus would either result in monetary gain, avoidance of monetary loss, or no consequence. Impulsivity was assessed with the Barratt Impulsiveness Scale-Version 10 (BIS-10). Detoxified alcoholics showed reduced activation of the ventral striatum during anticipation of monetary gain relative to healthy control subjects. Low activation of the ventral striatum and anterior cingulate during gain anticipation was correlated with high impulsivity only in alcoholics, not in control subjects.",
"yes. These findings provide important information regarding the potential role of distinct behavioral components of impulsivity in drinking behavior, and highlight unique relevance of attentional impairments to drinking behavior in those with ADHD.",
"yes. These results indicate that multiple components of impulsivity and automatic alcohol approach tendencies explain unique variance in hazardous drinking.",
"Previous studies have found individuals with family histories of alcohol use disorders are more impulsive on some but not all laboratory behavioral measures, suggesting deficits on specific forms of impulse control. However, drawing conclusions is tenuous because these different measures have not been administered together in the same group of participants. In the present study, we compared healthy 21-35 year old adults with family histories of alcohol related problems (FHAP+) or without such histories (FHAP-) on behavioral measures of response inhibition, response initiation, and consequence sensitivity impulsivity. FHAP+ (n=36) and FHAP- (n=36) participants were compared on performance on the Immediate Memory Task (IMT, response initiation), GoStop Impulsivity Paradigm (GoStop, response inhibition), Two Choice Impulsivity Paradigm (TCIP, consequence sensitivity) and Single Key Impulsivity Paradigm (SKIP, consequence sensitivity). FHAP+ individuals were more impulsive on the IMT and GoStop but not on the TCIP or SKIP.",
"yes. Trait impulsivity and habitual alcohol use were also significant predictors. Results are discussed in terms of acute effects of alcohol on brain systems and the behavioural consequences of such effects on decision making.",
"This study uses a missing stimulus paradigm to investigate cognitive effects associated with moderate blood alcohol levels. Specifically, the rate of rise of the omitted stimulus potential (OSP), which is observed when an expected stimulus is omitted, as well as the peak latency of this potential correlate with cognitive premotor reaction time, and thus might involve similar cognitive processes. An acute dose of alcohol has been found to slow the premotor reaction time to a missing stimulus, but no research has tested alcohol effects on the OSP. A dose of 0.8 g/kg alcohol or a placebo (0 g/kg) was administered in an across-subjects' design in two groups of 15 young men who were tested on a missing stimulus task before and again after alcohol. During a test, active trials required a response to the missing stimulus, and passive trials required no muscle action. Trials were counterbalanced in each group and obtained measures of premotor reaction time, motor reaction time, OSP onset and delay until muscle action, OSP amplitude, rate of rise, and peak latency. The pretreatment and posttreatment change in a measure assessed the alcohol effect. Compared with placebo, alcohol slowed premotor reaction time, extended the delay of the OSP before muscle action, and slowed the OSP rate of rise and its peak latency.",
"This study used a four-factor model of impulsivity to investigate inter-relationships between alcohol consumption, impulsivity, motives for drinking and the tendency to engage in alcohol-related problem behaviours. 400 University students aged 18-25 completed an online survey consisting of the following measures: Urgency, Premeditation, Perseverance and Sensation Seeking Scale (UPPS) to measure impulsivity; Student Alcohol Questionnaire to assess drinking quantity, frequency and rates of problem behaviours; Drinking Motives Questionnaire to assess motives for drinking. The majority of the sample (94.5%) drank alcohol at least monthly. Path analysis revealed direct effects of urgency, sensation seeking and premeditation, as well as the quantity of alcohol consumed, on the tendency to engage in risky behaviours with negative consequences. The effect of urgency was mediated by drinking for coping motives and by a combined effect of drinking for social motives and consumption of wine or spirits. Conversely the effect of sensation seeking was mediated by the quantity of alcohol consumed, irrespective of drink type, and the effect of premeditation was mediated by the consumption of wine and spirits, in combination with enhancement motives.",
"yes. We suggest that during inhibitory control alcohol affects cognitive processes preceding actual motor inhibition. Under alcohol, decreased brain responses in right fronto-temporal areas might slow down the attentional capture of infrequent stop-signals and subsequent updating of action plans, which leads to impaired inhibitory control. In turn, pronounced alcohol-induced impairment of inhibitory control might enhance alcohol consumption in young adults, which might promote future alcohol problems.",
"Hazardous drinking is associated with both increased impulsivity and automatic approach tendencies elicited by alcohol-related cues. However, impulsivity is a multi-factorial construct, and it is currently unclear if all components of impulsivity are associated with heavy drinking. Furthermore, emerging evidence suggests that the relationships between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol cognitions may be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. The aim of this study was to investigate the independence of measures of impulsivity and their association with hazardous drinking, and to examine if the relationship between hazardous drinking and automatic alcohol approach tendencies would be moderated by individual differences in impulsivity. Ninety-seven social drinkers (65 female) completed questionnaire measures of trait impulsivity, alcohol consumption and hazardous drinking. Participants also completed computerised measures of automatic alcohol approach tendencies (stimulus-response compatibility (SRC) task), and two behavioural measures of impulsivity (Go/No-go and delay discounting tasks). Principal component analysis revealed that the two measures of behavioural impulsivity were distinct from each other and from self-reported trait impulsivity, although self-reported non-planning impulsivity loaded on to two factors (trait impulsivity and delay discounting). Furthermore, all measures of impulsivity predicted unique variance in hazardous drinking as did automatic alcohol approach tendencies, although the latter relationship was not moderated by impulsivity.",
"Impulsive behavior is associated with both alcohol use disorders and a family history of alcoholism (FHA). One operational definition of impulsive behavior is the stop-signal task (SST) which measures the time needed to stop a ballistic hand movement. Employ functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) to study right frontal responses to stop signals in heavy drinking subjects with and without FHA, and as a function of alcohol exposure. Twenty-two family history-positive (FHP; age = 22.7 years, SD = 1.9) and 18 family history-negative (FHN; age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) subjects performed the SST in fMRI in two randomized visits: once during intravenous infusion of alcohol, clamped at a steady-state breath alcohol (BrAC) concentration of 60 mg/dL, and once during infusion of placebo saline. An independent reference group (n = 13, age = 23.7, SD = 1.8) was used to identify a priori right prefrontal regions activated by successful inhibition (Inh) trials, relative to \"Go\" trials that carried no need for inhibition [Inh > Go]. FHA interacted with alcohol exposure in right prefrontal cortex, where alcohol reduced [Inh > Go] activation in FHN subjects but not in FHP subjects. Within this right frontal cortical region, stop-signal reaction time also correlated negatively with [Inh > Go] activation, suggesting that the [Inh > Go] activity was related to inhibitory behavior.",
"yes. These results suggest that response initiation and response inhibition impulsivity are increased in individuals with family histories of alcohol related problems despite not having alcohol or drug use disorders themselves. In contrast, increased consequence sensitivity impulsivity may be associated with additional risk factors such as more severe family histories of alcohol use disorders, or it may be increased as a consequence of heavy drug or alcohol use.",
"yes. This study suggests that reduced ventral striatal recruitment during anticipation of conventional rewards in alcoholics may be related to their increased impulsivity and indicate possibilities for enhanced treatment approaches in alcohol dependence.",
"To assess the effects of acute alcohol intoxication on lateralized readiness potential (LRP), a central measure of movement-related brain activity, and the potential association of such effects with personality measures. Male volunteers (N = 12) alternated responding hands during a \"go/no go\" verbal recognition task across all four sessions of the balanced placebo design in which beverage content (either juice only or a vodka and juice mixture that raised the average blood alcohol concentration to 0.045%) was crossed with instructions as to beverage content. Whereas the instructions had no effect on behavioral (response accuracy and reaction time) and physiological (LRP) measures, alcohol decreased reaction times adjusted for psychometer speed. As expected, large LRPs were recorded on \"go\" trials and were not affected by the beverage. However, the \"no go\" words that did not require and did not evoke motor responses, also evoked significant LRPs under alcohol but not placebo. Since only trials with correct responses and correct abstentions from responses were included in the averages, the motor preparation was not completed and was terminated before the motor response on \"no go\" trials. Similarly, there was a decrease in spectral power of the movement-related mu-rhythm on \"no go\" trials under alcohol.",
"Alcohol may result in disinhibition such that the \"response execution\" process is activated based on very preliminary stimulus evaluation. This alcohol-induced brain activity signaling premature motor preparation exhibited correlation trends with personality traits related to impulsivity, hyperactivity and antisocial tendencies, thus concurring with other evidence that indicates commonalities between alcoholism and impulsivity, disinhibition and antisocial behaviors. The LRP on \"no go\" trials could potentially be used as a psychological index of the impulsiveness induced by alcohol intoxication."
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Lower frequency of focal lip sialadenitis (focus score) in smoking patients. Can tobacco diminish the salivary gland involvement as judged by histological examination and anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies in Sjögren's syndrome? | [
"Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score</= 1) or abnormal (focus score>1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score</= 1) was decreased in all three age groups (10-45: odds ratio 0.27, 95%CI 0.11 to 0.71; 46-60: odds ratio 0.22, 95%CI 0. 08 to 0.59; and>/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.",
"This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea"
] | [
"Salivary ultrasonography (US) was evaluated as an alternative imaging modality to sialography for Sjögren's syndrome (SS). Parotid sialography and parotid and submandibular US were performed in 360 patients (188 with SS and 172 non-SS) who were suspected of SS and had fulfilled the American-European criteria (AEC) for SS or had received>or =3 of the objective examinations that were considered minimal requirements for classifying non-SS and had undergone both the imaging examinations. The glands were considered positive for SS if they exhibited peripheral sialoectatic changes on sialography and/or hypoechoic areas, echogenic streaks and/or irregular gland margins on US. The images obtained were independently rated as SS-positive or SS-negative by three radiologists in a blind fashion and the final decision was made by consensus. Interobserver and intermodality agreement was evaluated using kappa values for sialography and parotid and/or submandibular US. Average kappa values for the interobserver agreement were 0.81, 0.80 and 0.82 in sialography, parotid and submandibular US, respectively, indicating very good or good agreement. The kappa value for intermodality agreement between sialography and parotid US was 0.81 and between sialography and submandibular US was 0.76, indicating very good and good agreement, respectively. The diagnostic ability of parotid US was significantly lower than that of sialography (p<0.001, McNemar test). However, the diagnostic ability of submandibular US was comparable to that of sialography (p=0.153).",
"To investigate whether hepatitis B virus (HBV) and hepatitis C virus (HCV) increase risk of pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC). We recruited 585 patients with cytological and/or pathologically confirmed PDAC in National Taiwan University Hospital from September 2000 to September 2013, and 1716 age-, sex-, and race-matched controls who received a screening program in a community located in Northern Taiwan. Blood samples were tested for the presence of HCV antibodies (anti-HCV), HBV surface antigen (HBsAg), antibodies against HBsAg (anti-HBs), and hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) in all cases and controls. The odds ratio (OR) of PDAC was estimated by logistic regression analysis with adjustment diabetes mellitus (DM) and smoking. HBsAg was positive in 73 cases (12.5%) and 213 controls (12.4%). Anti-HCV was positive in 22 cases (3.8%) and 45 controls (2.6%). Anti-HBs was positive in 338 cases (57.8%) and 1047 controls (61.0%). The estimated ORs of PDAC in multivariate analysis were as follows: DM, 2.08 (95%CI: 1.56-2.76, P < 0.001), smoking, 1.36 (95%CI: 1.02-1.80, P = 0.035), HBsAg(+)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(-), 0.89 (95%CI: 0.89-1.68, P = 0.219), HBsAg(-)/anti-HBc(+)/anti-HBs(+), 1.03 (95%CI: 0.84-1.25, P = 0.802).",
"yes. There is a strong association between smoking and rheumatoid nodules in early seropositive rheumatoid arthritis.",
"Sjögren's syndrome (SjS) is a systemic autoimmune disease characterized by decreased salivary and lacrimal gland secretions, resulting in severe dry mouth and dry eyes. Recent studies have suggested that TH17 cells and its signature cytokine IL-17 are involved in the underlying pathogenic mechanisms leading to destructive inflammation and autoimmunity. In the present study, we examined whether IL-27, a natural inhibitor of TH17 activity, could down-regulate or reverse SjS in C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice, a model of primary-SjS. Recombinant serotype 2 adeno-associated viral (AAV2) vectors expressing either IL-27 (rAAV2-IL27) or LacZ (rAAV2-LacZ) were injected into 6 or 14 week-old C57BL/6.NOD-Aec1Aec2 mice. Changes in IL-27, IL-17, and IL-10 cytokine levels in peripheral blood were determined by ELISAs, while flow cytometry analyses were used to quantify cytokine-positive splenocytes. Histological assessment of salivary glands, anti-nuclear autoantibody (ANA) staining, and stimulated saliva flow rates were used to profile SjS disease severity. Mice systemically treated with intravenous rAAV2-IL27 injections at either 6 or 14 weeks of age exhibited long-term elevated levels of serum IL-27 with concomitantly reduced levels of IL-17 compared with sera from mice injected with rAAV2-LacZ or saline out to 20 weeks post-inoculation. Most importantly, disease profiles revealed that rAAV2-IL27 treatment had little effect on lymphocytic focus (LF) scores, but resulted in structural changes in LF, lower titers of ANAs with changes in staining patterns, and a less severe clinical disease as determined by saliva flow rates.",
"In the era of early and widespread use of immunosuppressants and biologics, tobacco exposure is an independent predictor of need for maintenance treatment, specifically biologic therapy. The wider use of biologics and immunosuppressants could account for the existence of no major differences in disease behavior and complications between nonsmokers and current smokers.",
"yes. Measuring serum levels of anti-SS-B/La and IgA-RF would be useful when monitoring salivary responses in therapeutic trials, especially in patients with minimal salivary function.",
"To study systemic alterations of cytokine secreting peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and their relation to common clinical and immunological manifestations of this disease. PBMC spontaneously secreting tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNFalpha), interleukin 1beta (IL1beta), and interleukin 6 (IL6) were assessed by enzyme linked immunospot (ELISPOT) analysis in a cohort of 31 patients with pSS fulfilling the modified European classification criteria. Nineteen healthy volunteers served as controls. ELISPOT results were correlated with glandular and extraglandular manifestations and autoantibody titres-that is, rheumatoid factor (RF) isotypes, anti-Ro/SS-A, anti-La/SS-B as determined by an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) technique. The number of TNFalpha and IL1beta secreting cells was significantly higher in patients with pSS than in controls. No differences were detected in the number of IL6 secreting PBMC. Patients with recurrent parotid swelling (RPS) had a significantly increased number of IL1beta secreting PBMC. Moreover, the number of IL1beta secreting PBMC correlated with the disease duration (r(s)=0.479; p<0.01) and with the concentration of IgM RF (r(s)=0.63; p<0.01) and IgG RF (r(s)=0.42; p<0.05). Other autoantibodies did not correlate with cytokine secreting PBMC.",
"Ki67 and p53 protein expressions are the most widely used markers to show the pathologic proliferation and early-stage tumoral alterations in vital tissues. The aim of this study was to compare Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in smokers' and nonsmokers' pericoronal follicles of asymptomatic impacted lower third molars (ILTMs). A cross-sectional study was planned. The study sample was derived from a population of patients who presented for evaluation and operative treatment of asymptomatic ILTMs. The predictor variable was smoking status, defined as smoker or nonsmoker. Outcome variables were Ki67 and p53 protein expressions in ILTM follicles. Other study variables were age, gender, tooth position, cigarette pack-year, epithelial layer staining, and inflammation. Independent-samples t test analyses were conducted with SPSS 10.0 (SPSS, Inc, Chicago, IL), with statistical significance set at a P value equal to .05. The study sample was composed of 70 patients (35 in the smoker group) who contributed 60 follicles. There were statistical differences between the 2 groups for variables Ki67 and p53. Mean expression levels of Ki67 were 3.93 ± 2.17 and 2.48 ± 2.09, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .011). Mean expression levels of p53 were 5.32 ± 1.98 and 3.06 ± 2.34, respectively, for smokers and nonsmokers (P = .000).",
"yes. HLA class II markers confer genetic susceptibility to Sjögren's syndrome. The association between HLA and SS is restricted to patients with anti-SSA and/or anti-SSB antibodies; HLA is not associated with SS in patients without these autoantibodies. The absence of a difference in disease severity between groups 2 and 3, as well as the restricted association of HLA-DRB1*03 in group 3, strongly suggest that HLA alleles predispose to autoantibody secretion, without being associated with clinical outcome. HLA class II phenotype might support epitope spreading: HLA-DR15 favors anti-SSA synthesis, whereas HLA-DR3 is associated with both anti-SSA and anti-SSB production.",
"Chronic infiltration of lymphocytes into the salivary and lacrimal glands of patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) leads to destruction of acinar cells and loss of exocrine function. Protein kinase C-delta (PKCδ) is known to play a critical role in B-cell maintenance. Mice in which the PKCδ gene has been disrupted have a loss of B-cell tolerance, multiple organ lymphocytic infiltration, and altered apoptosis. To determine whether PKCδ contributes to the pathogenesis of SS, we quantified changes in indicators of SS in PKCδ-/- mice as a function of age. Salivary gland histology, function, the presence of autoantibodies, and cytokine expression were examined. Submandibular glands were examined for the presence of lymphocytic infiltrates, and the type of infiltrating lymphocyte and cytokine deposition was evaluated by immunohistochemistry. Serum samples were tested by autoantibody screening, which was graded by its staining pattern and intensity. Salivary gland function was determined by saliva collection at various ages. PKCδ-/- mice have reduced salivary gland function, B220+ B-cell infiltration, anti-nuclear antibody production, and elevated IFN-γ in the salivary glands as compared to PKCδ+/+ littermates.",
"To define parameters predictive of lymphoma development in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). A multicenter case-control survey was performed to identify predictors of lymphoma. Cases were patients who developed lymphoma after diagnosis of primary SS and were mainly recruited through the Club Rhumatismes et Inflammation network. For each case, 2 controls (matched for disease duration and age) were randomly selected among patients with primary SS and without lymphoma. Cases and controls were compared using univariate analysis and then using multivariate analysis to identify independent predictors of lymphoma. One hundred one patients with primary SS and lymphoma were included. Eighty-seven patients were women (86.1%), and the mean ± SD age at lymphoma diagnosis was 57.4 ± 12.6 years. The most frequent histologic type was B cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) in 99 of 101 patients, with marginal-zone lymphoma in 76 of the 99 patients (76.8%) including 58 (58.6%) with lymphoma of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type. Lymphomas were most frequently located in the salivary glands (43 patients). A specific treatment was initiated at diagnosis in 87 patients with B cell NHL, and 61 patients (61.6%) achieved complete sustained remission after the first line of treatment. In the multivariate analysis, salivary gland enlargement, the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), low C4, cryoglobulinemia, lymphopenia, and disease activity according to the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index (excluding the lymphoma domain) were found to be predictors of lymphoma. No previous treatment for primary SS was associated with any effect on lymphoma occurrence.",
"yes. The present study indicated that cigarette smoke could potentially modulate the expression of crucial molecules of NOD1 signal pathway and hBDs in human oral mucosal epithelium. NOD1 signal pathway could play an important role in the regulatory effects of CSE on hBDs levels in oral mucosal epithelial cells.",
"This study examines: 1) alveolar bone loss (ABL), a hallmark of periodontitis, in anti-citrullinated protein antibody (ACPA)-positive rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients versus control patients with osteoarthritis (OA); and 2) the association of ABL with RA disease activity and ACPA concentrations, including multiple antigen-specific ACPA. This multicenter case-control study includes 617 patients diagnosed with RA (n = 287) or OA (n = 330). Panoramic radiographs were taken; patients were categorized into low, moderate, or high tertiles based on mean percentage ABL. Serum ACPA was measured using second-generation anticyclic citrullinated peptide enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay and a multiplex platform to assess distinct antigen-specific ACPA. A generalized linear mixed model for binary data was used to compare stratified ABL in RA versus OA patients. Associations of moderate and high ABL (versus low) with RA disease activity and severity measures were examined using multivariate regression. Antigen-specific ACPA responses were compared among ABL tertiles using significance analysis of microarrays. ACPA-positive patients with RA had a significantly higher mean percentage of sites with ABL >20% compared with patients with OA (P = 0.03). After multivariate adjustment, greater ABL was significantly associated with higher serum ACPA concentration (P = 0.004), 28-joint Disease Activity Score (P = 0.023), health assessment questionnaire disability (P = 0.05), tender joint count (P = 0.02) and joint space narrowing scores (P = 0.05) among patients with RA. ACPAs targeting citrullinated vimentin and histone were significantly higher in moderate and high ABL groups versus low, regardless of smoking status (q <0.1%).",
"Congenital heart block occurring in the foetus and neonate may be associated with maternal anti-SS-A/anti-SS-B autoantibodies (anti-SSA/anti-SSB). The adult atrioventricular node is generally thought to be resistant to the damaging effects of anti-SSA/anti-SSB. However, case reports suggest that heart block developing in adult Sjögren's syndrome (SS) patients may be associated with these autoantibodies. Therefore, we investigated the relationship between serum antibodies and heart block in adult SS patients. We abstracted data from clinic patient records. Diagnosis of primary SS was based on American-European classification criteria. Electrocardiograms (EKGs), laboratory immunology parameters, lipid profiles, and focus scores from labial salivary gland biopsies were available for 51 SS patients. Fifteen patients had follow-up EKGs. PR interval200 ms was considered to be first-degree heart block. Five patients showed prolonged PR intervals; the presence of heart block was not related to the presence of anti-SSA antibodies. However, significant differences between patients with prolonged and normal PR intervals were seen for mean focus scores (p<0.0001), anti-cardiolipin immunoglobulin IgG (p = 0.0009), age (p = 0.01), IgG (p = 0.02), anti-SSB antibodies (p = 0.02), and high density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels (p = 0.03). These parameters correlated with prolonged PR intervals.",
"no. No clear association between smoking status and individual autoantibodies was detected in SLE patients, unaffected FDRs, nor healthy controls within this collection. The association of smoking with SLE may therefore manifest its risk through mechanisms outside of autoantibody production, at least for the specificities tested.",
"To determine the association between risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and alcohol consumption in combination with smoking and HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE). Data from two independent case-control studies of RA, the Swedish EIRA (1204 cases and 871 controls) and the Danish CACORA (444 cases and 533 controls), were used to estimate ORs of developing RA for different amounts of alcohol consumed. Alcohol consumption was significantly more common in controls (p<0.05) and dose-dependently associated with reduced risk of RA (p for trend <0.001) in both studies. Among alcohol consumers, the quarter with the highest consumption had a decreased risk of RA of the order of 40-50% compared with the half with the lowest consumption (EIRA, OR = 0.5 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.6); CACORA, OR = 0.6 (95% CI 0.4 to 0.9)). For the subset of RA that is seropositive for antibodies to citrullinated peptide antigens, alcohol consumption reduced the risk most in smokers carrying HLA-DRB1 SE alleles.",
"The lymphotoxin-beta receptor (LTbetaR) pathway is important in the development and maintenance of lymphoid structures. Blocking this pathway has proven beneficial in murine models of autoimmune diseases such as diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis. The aim of this study was to determine the effects of LTbetaR pathway blockade on Sjögren syndrome (SS)-like salivary gland disease in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice. The course of SS-like disease was followed in NOD mice that were given lymphotoxin-beta receptor-immunoglobulin fusion protein (LTbetaR-Ig) starting at 9 weeks of age. Treatment was given as a single weekly dose for 3, 7, or 10 weeks. Age-matched NOD mice treated with mouse monoclonal IgG1, or not treated at all, were used as controls. The severity of inflammation, cellular composition, and lymphoid neogenesis in the submandibular glands were determined by immunohistochemistry. Mandibular lymph nodes were also studied. Saliva flow rates were measured, and saliva was analyzed by a multiplex cytokine assay. The salivary glands were analyzed for CXCL13, CCL19, and CCL21 gene expression by quantitative polymerase chain reaction. Treatment with LTbetaR-Ig prevented the increase in size and number of focal infiltrates normally observed in this SS-like disease. Compared with the controls, the submandibular glands of LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice had fewer and smaller T- and B-cell zones and fewer high endothelial venules per given salivary gland area. Follicular dendritic cell networks were lost in LTbetaR-Ig-treated mice. CCL19 expression was also dramatically inhibited in the salivary gland infiltrates. Draining lymph nodes showed more gradual changes after LTbetaR-Ig treatment. Saliva flow was partially restored in mice treated with 10 LTbetaR-Ig weekly injections, and the saliva cytokine profile of these mice resembled that of mice in the pre-disease state.",
"Earlier studies have given conflicting results regarding the effect of exposure to tobacco smoke on atopic sensibilization. A cross-sectional study of present and former smoking habits in relation to atopic disorders from data on 6909 young and middle-aged adults (16-49 years) and their 4472 children (3-15 years) from the Swedish Survey of Living Conditions in 1996-97. The prevalence of allergic asthma and allergic rhino-conjunctivitis decreased, in a dose-response manner (P = 0.03 and P = 0.004, respectively), with increasing exposure to tobacco smoke in the adult study population. This pattern was little changed when potential confounders (sex, age, education, domicile, country of birth) were entered into a multivariate analysis: the adjusted odds ratio (OR) for allergic rhino-conjunctivitis was 0.5 (0.4-0.7) for those who smoked at least 20 cigarettes a day and OR 0.7 (0.6-0.9) for those smoking 10-19 cigarettes, compared with those who reported that they never had smoked Former smokers had a tendency for a slightly lower risk: OR 0.9 (0.8-1.0). In a multivariate analysis, children of mothers who smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day tended to have lower odds for suffering from allergic rhino-conjunctivitis, allergic asthma, atopic eczema and food allergy, compared to children of mothers who had never smoked (ORs 0.6-0.7). Children of fathers who had smoked at least 15 cigarettes a day had a similar tendency (ORs 0.7-0.9).",
"To study the gene-environment interaction of tobacco exposure and shared epitope on autoantibodies in patients with rheumatoid arthritis and undifferentiated arthritis. From incident cases of arthritis (n = 1305), patients who did not fulfil any classification criteria (undifferentiated arthritis (n = 486)) and those who fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for rheumatoid arthritis (n = 407) were identified. IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-cyclic-citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies, and HLA-DRB1 alleles were determined. In rheumatoid arthritis, an interaction was found between tobacco exposure and shared epitope for the presence of anti-CCP antibodies, as the odds ratio for anti-CCP antibodies in patients having both tobacco exposure (TE) and shared epitope (SE) was higher than the summed odds ratios of patients having only tobacco exposure or shared epitope (odds ratios: TE+/SE-, 1.07; TE-/SE+, 2.49; and TE+/SE+, 5.27-all relative to TE-/SE-). A similar effect was found for RF, but stratification showed that the interaction primarily associated with the anti-CCP antibody response. In patients with undifferentiated arthritis at two weeks, or with persistent undifferentiated arthritis after one year, no interaction between tobacco exposure and shared epitope was observed for the presence of autoantibodies.",
"Smoking influences oral health in several ways (such as the occurrence of periodontitis, teeth discolouration and oral cancer); therefore, smoking behaviour should be addressed in dental care. Dentists can play a role in primary and secondary prevention of tobacco dependence. They see their patients repeatedly over time. This study investigates whether oral health complaints can be seized as an opportunity to start smoking cessation counselling. A structured patient questionnaire in a sample of 1101 smokers (52.1% women, mean age 40.4 years) in a convenience sample of 87 primary care dental practices. The I-change model was used to describe factors influencing behavioural change. Dependent factors such as intention to quit smoking and related factors (attitude, social support and self-efficacy) were analysed in relation to independent factors such as oral health complaints (gingiva problems, gingiva inflammation, oral cancer and discoloured teeth) using a general linear model (univariate analysis), multinomial logistic regression analysis and multiple linear regression analysis. A total of 56.3% had discoloured teeth, 27% of the smokers had a problem with their gums and 15.7% had gingiva inflammation. We found no direct relation between oral health complaints and the intention to quit smoking. However, teeth discolouration was positively related to attitudes towards smoking cessation [β, Confidential interval (95%); 1.92 (1.45-2.40 for advantages and -0.86(-1.18 to -0.53) for disadvantages] and negatively to self-efficacy regarding quitting [-2.69 (-3.49 to 1.88)].",
"The aim of this study was to verify the validity of IL-21 local suppression in submandibular glands of preventing the development of Sjögren's syndrome in non-obese diabetic (NOD) mice and figure out the mechanism. IL-21 levels in submandibular glands were suppressed by ductal cannulation of IL-21 shRNA lentivirus. Then, saliva flow rates (SFR) and histopathologic changes of submandibular glands were measured to assess the severity of disease development. Real-time PCR, flow cytometry, and immunohistochemistry were used to detect the changes of T helper cells and related cytokines. The reduction in SFRs in NOD mice was significantly alleviated from 9 to 17 weeks of age along with the suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands. Lymphocytic infiltration was also milder than control NOD mice. Moreover, the lower level of IL-21 led to the down-regulation of follicular helper T (Tfh) cells.",
"The most important risk factor linked to the development of oral leukoplakia (OL) and oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is tobacco use. Tobacco contains carcinogens that influence the DNA repair, cell cycle control and may produce chromosomal aberrations. The loss or acquisition of one or more chromosomes is defined as aneuploidy. Aneuploidy was determined by means of the DNA-content included in cells obtained by exfoliative cytology and Feulgen's staining. The cells were collected from the clinically healthy lateral margin of the tongue of non-smokers without oral lesions, smokers without oral lesions, smokers with OL, and smokers with OSCC, using the CytoBrush(®). Each group was composed of 20 individuals. A Carl Zeiss image analyzer system and the KS300 software were used. Statistical analysis was performed with BioEstat(®) software. The mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei was statistically higher in the smokers (79.65%), smokers with OL (68.4%), and smokers with OSCC (93.65%), as compared to non-smokers (39.3%) (P<0.05). A trend toward an increase in the aneuploidy of the smokers with OSCC group (P=0.02), as compared to the non-smoker group, could be observed. No significant difference could be observed as regards the mean percentage of aneuploid nuclei in relation to duration of tobacco use or the number of the cigarettes smoked.",
"yes. In vivo transduction of the lacrimal gland with AdTNFRIp55-Ig resulted in transient expression in the gland and the appearance of TNF-inhibitor protein in tears. The presence of soluble TNF-inhibitor protein partially suppressed the appearance of Sjögren's syndrome-like features of reduced tear production and the immunohistopathology associated with induced autoimmune dacryoadenitis but not tear break-up time and ocular surface disease. This may reflect immunoregulation in the lacrimal gland but not in the conjunctiva.",
"Minor salivary gland specimens were analyzed to investigate dysregulation of the proteasome system in patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and patients with sicca syndrome. Labial biopsy specimens from 17 patients with SS and 11 patients with non-autoimmunesicca syndrome were analyzed by immunohistochemistry for expression of the inducible proteasomal subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i. The infiltrating subsets of lymphocytes were characterized using immunofluorescence stainings against the cell-surface markers CD20 and CD27. Two-dimensional electrophoresis and immunoblotting were used for detection of the proteasomal subunits ss1 and ss1i in peripheral blood monocyte cells. Gene expression of the constitutive subunits ss1, ss2, and ss5 and the corresponding inducible subunits ss1i, ss2i, and ss5i was further investigated at the mRNA level in small lip biopsies using real-time polymerase chain reaction. The expression of ss1i in infiltrating and peripheral immune cells was altered in patients with SS compared to patients with non-autoimmune sicca syndrome and healthy controls. No significant differences were found in ss2i and ss5i expression between the same groups in small lip biopsies. Chisholm-Mason grade and ss1i expression were found to be inversely correlated (Spearman r = -0.461, p = 0.014). The phenotype and distribution of the lymphocytic infiltrate showed no differences between patients with primary and secondary SS regardless of ss1i expression.",
"Tobacco recently appeared as a major independent factor adversely influencing the natural course of alcoholic chronic pancreatitis. However, the role of tobacco in patients with autoimmune pancreatitis (AIP) has never been studied. Type 2 AIP is associated with inflammatory bowel disease, especially ulcerative colitis in which smoking is protective. The aim of our study was to evaluate the influence of smoking on course of AIP. All consecutive patients followed in our centre for AIP according to ICDC were studied. Tobacco consumption was recorded. A relation between smoking and all event related to AIP was searched for. 96 patients with type 1 (73%) or type 2 (27%) AIP were included; 76% of patients were low smokers (never, ex- or smokers<10 p.y.) and 24% were high smokers (≥10 p.y.). The mean follow-up was 60 months [5-188]. AIP relapse was observed in 26% of patients. At the end-point, smokers ≥10 p.y. presented more frequently diabetes (50% vs 27%, p = 0.04) and imaging pancreatic damages (59% vs 34%, p = 0.02) than low smokers. There was also a non significant tendency to observe more frequently exocrine insufficiency and relapse in smokers ≥10 pack-year. No protective effect of smoking was observed in the subgroup of patients with type 2 AIP and ulcerative colitis.",
"To compare quality of life (QoL), depression, anxiety, and fatigue in prospectively included patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) or with sicca but no diagnosis of Sjögren's syndrome. Patients undergoing a multidisciplinary evaluation at a single university center in Brest, France, for suspected pSS and having sicca symptoms were included prospectively between November 2006 and December 2013. The same standardized investigations were performed in all patients. pSS and sicca not due to pSS diagnoses were based on evaluating physician opinion. Each patient completed three validated questionnaires on QoL (SF-36), fatigue (MFI), depression and anxiety (HADS). Of the 95 included patients, 55 (57.9%) had pSS and 40 (42.1%) had sicca without pSS. Gender distribution, age, disease duration, and sicca symptoms were similar in the two groups. The pSS group had a significantly higher proportion of patients with abnormal objective tests for dryness (Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate). The SF-36, HADS, and MFI scores were similarly altered in the two groups. Anxiety was more common than depression in both groups. The most affected domains were vitality in the SF-36 and general/physical fatigue in the MFI. Extraglandular systemic involvement was not a major determinant of QoL alteration in patients with pSS.",
"yes. These results may indicate that anti-TNF agents would have therapeutic efficacy for preventing destruction of the acinar structure in the salivary glands of patients with SS.",
"yes. These data suggest that smokers, and especially current smokers, exhibit significantly reduced BAL SP-D and phospholipids compared to nonsmokers. Our findings may help better explain the mechanism that leads to the rapid progression of disease and increased incidence of infection in smokers.",
"yes. The results presented here suggest that expression of human beta-defensins hBD-1 and -2, and, thus, the basal levels of innate immune defense reactions in the oral cavity are reduced by smoking.",
"To investigate the abnormalities of T regulatory cells (Treg) in salivary glands and peripheral blood in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells of the peripheral blood of 52 patients with pSS were measured by flow-cytometric assay. Lower lip salivary gland biopsies were examined by immunohistochemistry, using monoclonal mouse anti-human antibodies [CD25, CD4, CD8, CD68, forkhead transcription factor (Foxp3)] in 30 patients with pSS. Using real-time polymerase chain reaction, Foxp3 messenger RNA expression was assessed in the salivary glands and CD4+ T cells from peripheral blood. Many inflammatory cells, predominantly CD4+ and CD8+ T cells and macrophages, were found in salivary glands of patients with SS, but CD4+CD25+ Treg numbers and Foxp3 expression were markedly reduced in those biopsy samples. Levels of CD4+CD25+ high T cells and Foxp3 expression in peripheral blood of patients with pSS were significantly lower than in healthy controls. However, the inhibitory function of CD4+CD25+ T cells in pSS was unchanged compared to that of controls. Peripheral CD4+CD25+ high T cell numbers in pSS did not correlate with Schirmer's test and salivary flow rate, or with the presence or absence of anti-SSA/SSB antibodies and immunoglobulin level.",
"The diagnosis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) rests on a converging set of clinical and laboratory findings. Salivary-gland ultrasonography (SGUS) was recently shown to assist in the diagnosis and therapeutic monitoring of pSS. Our objective here was to measure salivary-gland elasticity using Acoustic Radiation Force Impulse (ARFI) ultrasonography in patients with pSS and to compare the results to those obtained in healthy controls. SGUS with ARFI elastometry was performed in 10 patients with pSS and 15 healthy controls. Ten impulses per gland were used for both submandibular and both parotid glands of each participant. Mean shear wave velocity (SWV) in m/s was compared between the patients and controls using the Mann-Whitney U test. For the parotid glands, mean SWV was significantly higher in the pSS group than in the control group (2.335±0.315 vs 1.785±0.384, respectively; P=0.001). Mean SWV values for the submandibular glands were not significantly different between the patients and controls (1.812±0.308 vs 1.766±0.187, respectively; P=0.892).",
"Sjögren's syndrome is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by progressive lymphocytic infiltration within the salivary and lacrimal glands. This study was undertaken to investigate the effects of innate immunity activation on sialoadenitis in a mouse strain genetically susceptible for development of SS-like disease. Female New Zealand Black X New Zealand White F1 mice were repeatedly treated with toll-like 3 receptor agonist poly(I:C). Submandibular glands were investigated at different time points for sialoadenitis by immunohistochemistry and for gene expression of different chemokines by quantitative PCR. Submandibular gland-infiltrating cells were characterized by flow cytometry. Poly(I:C) treatment significantly upregulated the expression of multiple chemokines within the submandibular glands. The severity and incidence of sialoadenitis was considerably higher in poly(I:C)-treated mice. There was a preponderance of dendritic cells and NK cells in the initial inflammatory cell infiltrates, and these were followed by CD4+ T cells.",
"To assess the prevalence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in patients with primary Sjögren syndrome (pSS) and to study the association of COPD with cigarette smoking, radiographic features, respiratory symptoms, disease activity, and laboratory inflammatory and serological features in patients with pSS. Fifty-one consecutive patients with pSS (mean age 60 yrs, range 29-82 yrs, 49 women) were assessed by pulmonary function tests (PFT). The PFT results were compared with previously studied population-based controls, standardizing results with regard to sex, age, height, weight, and cigarette smoking. In addition, patients with pSS were assessed by computed tomography of the chest, the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren Syndrome Disease Activity Index and Patient Reported Index, the St. George's Respiratory Questionnaire (which evaluates respiratory symptoms), and by laboratory inflammatory and serological tests. Forty-one percent of all patients with pSS and 30% of the never-smoking patients with pSS fulfilled the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease criteria for COPD. Vital capacity (VC), forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), FEV1/VC ratio, and DLCO were significantly decreased while residual volume (RV) and the RV/total lung capacity ratio were significantly increased in patients with pSS. Moderate correlations between PFT results, symptoms, and disease activity were found. However, laboratory inflammatory and serological features were poorly associated with PFT results in patients with pSS.",
"To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with clinical expression, disease activity and severity in a cohort of Greek patients with early rheumatoid arthritis (RA). From January 1993 until December 2002, 293 patients with early RA were diagnosed and followed up in our rheumatology clinic. All patients fulfilled the American College of Rheumatology criteria for RA, had disease duration of less than one year, without prior treatment of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) or steroids. The patients were treated with at least one DMARD, and 287 of them had a last follow up during the year 2004. The demographic, personal, clinical, laboratory, radiological and therapeutic features were compared at entry and at the last follow-up, according to their smoking habits at entry. Among the 293 patients, 6 were lost to follow-up, thus 287 patients were evaluated. There were 200 females (67.7%) and 87 males (30.3%). Eighty-two (28.6%) were current smokers, 21 (7.3%) ex-smokers and 184 (64.1%) non-smokers at presentation. RA smoker patients displayed the disease at a younger age than the non-smokers. Additionally, the smokers presented at disease onset more prominent features of articular involvement as was evaluated by the higher number of total joint count with tenderness and swelling and by the higher disease activity for 28 joint indices score (DAS-28). Smokers also presented a higher Larsen's score and higher frequency of IgM and IgA rheumatoid factors as compared to non-smokers. At the end of the study, the smoker patients presented more active and severe disease as evaluated by the higher total number of tender and swelling joint count, the higher DAS-28, and higher Larsen's score as compared to non-smokers. Furthermore, the smokers more frequently had rheumatoid nodules than the ex-smokers and non-smokers. The association of smoking with disease activity and severity was independent of sex, age, educational level, alcohol consumption, and follow-up duration. Finally, no significant differences were observed concerning the therapeutic procedure among the three groups.",
"Assess the expression of FasL, Bax, TNFa and IL-6, genes in salivary glands of primary Sjögren patients. Twenty minor salivary glands from patients with primary Sjögren syndrome were studied by in situ hybridization with cDNA fluorescent probes. An equal number of control biopsies were included. Sjögren salivary glands differentially display the inflammatory cytokines and pro-apoptotic mRNAs as follows: mononuclear infiltrating cells exhibited IL-6 and TNFa, whereas the ductal epithelium and acinary cells mainly expressed FasL and Bax. Control biopsies were negative.",
"To determine whether the impact of tobacco exposure on rheumatoid arthritis (RA) risk is influenced by polymorphisms at the HLA-DRB1 and glutathione S-transferase M1 (GSTM1) loci. Subjects were participants from a case-control study nested within the Iowa Women's Health Study, a population based, prospective cohort study of postmenopausal women. Incident RA cases (n = 115) were identified and medical records reviewed to confirm RA diagnosis. Controls without RA (n = 466) were matched with RA cases by age and ethnic background. HLA-DRB1 typing classified subjects according to the presence of alleles encoding the RA \"shared epitope\" (SE) sequence. GSTM1 was genotyped using a multiplex polymerase chain reaction assay. Conditional logistic regression was used to estimate the odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals. Strong positive associations of smoking (OR = 6.0, p = 0.004), SE positivity (OR = 4.6, p = 0.0006), and GSTM1 null genotype (OR = 3.4, p = 0.007) with risk of RA, and significant gene-environment interactions (smoking by SE interaction p = 0.034; smoking by GSTM1 interaction p = 0.047) were observed. Stratified analyses indicated that exposure to tobacco smoke primarily increased the risk of RA among subjects who lacked genetic risk factors for the disease (that is, SE negative or GSTM1 present).",
"To compare the clinical presentation of 231 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with 89 patients with aqueous-deficient dry eye (keratoconjunctivitis sicca; KCS), to determine those procedures that best differentiate these groups in the eye care clinic. The records of all patients seen at the University Health Network Sjögren's Syndrome Clinic from October 1992 to July 2006 were reviewed and documented. The diagnosis of pSS was based on the AECC (American European Consensus Criteria) of 2002. KCS control subjects were non-SS patients with symptoms of dry eye and Schirmer scores of <or=10 mm in 5 minutes in at least one eye. There were 90 variables used in the analysis of the total database. Recursive partitioning was used to generate tree diagrams that demonstrated which characteristics best distinguished pSS from KCS. Recursive partitioning of the full database demonstrated that the serum immunoglobulin Ro and the status of the salivary gland biopsy were most important in distinguishing pSS and KCS. The presence of rose bengal staining of the temporal conjunctiva was the most important noninvasive ocular variable that separated the groups. Total rose bengal staining also improved sensitivity. When only noninvasive techniques were used, staining of the temporal conjunctiva and severity of dry mouth symptoms were the major factors in distinguishing pSS from KCS.",
"yes. Index case smoking increases the risk of LTBI and should be systematically investigated. A reduction in smoking could lower the risk of infection substantially.",
"To compare the proposed criteria for the diagnosis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) in childhood to the validated American-European Consensus Group (AECG) classification criteria for pSS in adults. Charts of 7 children with pSS seen at British Columbia's Children's Hospital (BCCH) and data on 128 children identified through Medline in the English language literature between 1963 and 2003 were reviewed for pediatric and AECG criteria for pSS. The presence of>or = 4 criteria was required to satisfy the respective classification criteria. The expert clinical opinion of pediatric rheumatologists was considered the gold standard for diagnosis. A total of 24/62 (39%) cases satisfied the AECG criteria; 47/62 (76%) satisfied the proposed pediatric criteria. Inclusion of recurrent parotitis increased the sensitivity of the pediatric clinical criteria. From the cases, 78/133 (59%) satisfied the pediatric oral symptom criteria; only 6/78 (8%) had xerostomia in the absence of recurrent parotitis. There was no reported case of recurrent conjunctivitis in the absence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca. We found 101/130 (78%) cases had at least one positive autoantibody test result [antinuclear antibodies (ANA), rheumatoid factor (RF), SSA, SSB]; 78/123 (63%) had autoantibodies to SSA or SSB.",
"To assess if smoking status at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent for rheumatoid arthritis (RA) reduces the likelihood of achieving at least a moderate response on the European League Against Rheumatism (EULAR) response criteria at 3-month assessment. All patients with RA treated with their first anti-TNF-alpha agent at the Department of Rheumatology, Derby Hospital NHS Trust between April 2001 and October 2008 were included in this retrospective case control study. Information about age, gender, disease duration, body mass index, smoking status (current smoker, ex-smoker, and nonsmoker), comorbidities, oral prednisolone use, and 28 joint 4 variables disease activity score (DAS28) at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent was recorded. Details of rheumatoid factor (RF) and past and present disease modifying antirheumatic drugs were recorded. A case control study was carried out to examine possible baseline predictors of treatment effects at the 3-month assessment. Results were available for 395 patients at 3-month assessment. According to the EULAR response criteria 42 patients failed to show at least a moderate response. After adjusting for confounders using multivariate analysis, current smoking at the time of commencing an anti-TNF-alpha agent reduced the chance of achieving at least a moderate response on the EULAR response criteria when compared with nonsmokers (aOR [95% CI] 0.20 [0.05-0.83], P = 0.03).",
"Earlier studies have demonstrated that smoking and genetic risk factors interact in providing an increased risk of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Less is known on how smoking contributes to RA in the context of genetic variability, and what proportion of RA may be caused by smoking. To determine the association between the amount of smoking and risk of RA in the context of different HLA-DRB1 shared epitope (SE) alleles, and to estimate proportions of RA cases attributed to smoking. Setting and Participants Data from the Swedish Epidemiological Investigation of Rheumatoid Arthritis (EIRA) case-control study encompassing 1204 cases and 871 controls were analysed. Main Outcome Measure Estimated OR to develop RA and excess fraction of cases attributable to smoking according to the amount of smoking and genotype. Smoking was estimated to be responsible for 35% of anticitrullinated protein/peptide antibody (ACPA)-positive cases. For each HLA-DRB1 SE genotype, smoking was dose-dependently associated with an increased risk of ACPA-positive RA (p trend <0.001). In individuals carrying two copies of the HLA-DRB1 SE, 55% of ACPA-positive RA was attributable to smoking.",
"To determine the accuracy of salivary gland ultrasonography (SGUS) for diagnosing primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and to suggest modifications of the American-European Consensus Group (AECG) classification criteria. We conducted a cross-sectional study in a prospective cohort of patients with suspected primary SS that was established between 2006 and 2011. The echostructure of the bilateral parotid and submandibular glands was graded from 0 to 4, and the gland size was measured; blood flow to the parotid gland was assessed using Doppler waveform analysis. The reference standard was a clinical diagnosis of primary SS as determined by a group of experts blinded to the results of SGUS. Receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve analysis was performed to compare the diagnostic value of the 0-4-point echostructure grade for each of the 4 major salivary glands, the sum of the grades for the 4 glands, and the highest grade among the 4 glands. Of the 158 patients in the study, 78 had a diagnosis of primary SS according to the experts, including 61 patients (78.2%) who met the AECG criteria. Doppler waveform analysis and gland size measurement showed poor diagnostic performance. The results of ROC curve analysis showed that the highest grade among the 4 glands provided the best diagnostic value. The optimal grade cutoff was 2 (62.8% sensitivity and 95.0% specificity). A weighted score was constructed using scores for the 5 variables selected by logistic regression analysis, as follows: (salivary flow×1.5)+(Schirmer's test×1.5)+(salivary gland biopsy×3)+(SSA/SSB×4.5)+(SGUS×2). According to ROC curve analysis, a score of ≥5 of 12.5 had 85.7% sensitivity and 94.9% specificity, compared with 77.9% sensitivity and 98.7% specificity for the AECG criteria. The addition of SGUS to the AECG criteria increased sensitivity to 87.0% but did not change specificity.",
"Anti-SSA and -SSB antibodies are clinically important antinuclear antibodies in patients with systemic rheumatic diseases. We evaluated fluorescence characteristics and clinical significance of anti-SSA and -SSB and explored whether identification of these antibodies was necessary in clinical application. Of 4,978 consecutive samples, 259 showed anti-SSA or -SSB reactivity, clinical information of which were analyzed. Compared with SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ group, SSA+SSB+ group showed a lower proportion (0.5%) of negative specimens detected with antinuclear antibody assay and a higher proportion (53.5%) of specimens with high titer. Anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive samples presented various patterns. However, 64.6% of SSA+SSB+ samples presented speckled pattern, significantly higher than SSA+SSB- and SSA-SSB+ samples. A total of 475 specimens containing anti-SSA or -SSB were obtained from 302 individuals. Clinical information was obtained for 259 of them, which were further analyzed. The prevalence of Sjögren syndrome (SS) was significantly higher, and that of other diseases was lower in SSA+SSB+ than in SSA+SSB- group. Of the 259 individuals, 71 anti-SSA- and/or -SSB-positive patients had blood drawn on 2 or more occasions over the 2-year study period. The number of tests per patient was 2.7 ± 1.1. In 7 of the 71 patients, anti-SSA was observed in some but not all samples, so was anti-SSB in 6.",
"Antibodies against type 3 muscarinic acetylcholine receptor (M3R) are involved in the pathogenesis of Sjögren's syndrome (SS), but the clinical value of them in SS patients has been controversial. The aims of this study were to: (1) establish an improved enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect IgA antibodies against M3R; (2) evaluate the value of IgA antibodies against the second extracellular loop of M3R205-220 (c2M3RP) in diagnosis of SS. To increase the ELISA sensitivity, c2M3RP was coupled to bovine serum albumin (BSA) by the glutaraldehyde method and a 96-well microplate was treated by ultraviolet rays before coated. Concentrations of anti-c2M3RP, anti-SSA, and anti-SSB were measured in the sera of 240 individuals: 91 patients with primary SS and 149 controls (16 secondary SS, 27 systemic lupus erythematosus, 40 rheumatoid arthritis and 66 healthy controls). Diagnostic properties of anti-c2M3RP were determined by receiver-operating characteristic curve analysis. The prevalence of serum IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies in patients with pSS (46%, 42/91) was significantly higher than that in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (19%, 5/27), in rheumatoid arthritis (15%, 6/40) and in healthy controls (5%, 3/66). However, there was no significant difference between the two SS groups (P = 0.727). The diagnostic performance of IgA anti-M3RP antibodies was similar to anti-SSA assay, but had 22% higher sensitivity than anti-SSB. By analyzing of IgA anti-c2M3RP antibodies, combination of anti-SSA and anti-SSB resulted in increased sensitivity, whereas their specificity was not significantly changed.",
"Smoking contributes to progression of ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Because smoking is also a risk factor for incident rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and psoriatic arthritis, our aim was to test whether smoking habits are associated with incident AS. Using data from the HUNT health study of the entire adult population of Nord-Trøndelag, Norway, participants in HUNT2 (1995-1997) and HUNT3 (2006-2008) were identified who reported a diagnosis of AS in HUNT3 but not in HUNT2 (n = 107). Incident AS cases were compared with AS-unaffected individuals (n = 35,278) in a case-control design. Participants with RA were excluded. Present smoking was significantly associated with incident self-reported AS in logistic regression adjusted for potential confounders (OR 1.99, 95% CI 1.28-3.11, p = 0.002). Previous smoking (OR 1.15, 95% CI 0.66-2.02, p = 0.62) or total pack-years at HUNT2 (OR 1.01, 95% CI 0.99-1.04, p = 0.21) were not significant. The association with present smoking remained significant in various sensitivity analyses: including only cases with high probability of true AS diagnosis (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.03-3.19, p = 0.04); including only cases with AS reported more than 3-5 years after HUNT2 (OR 2.34, 95% CI 1.09-5.03, p = 0.029), or including only participants genotyped for HLA-B27 (94 cases and 859 controls) adjusting for genotype (OR 1.79, 95% CI 1.04-2.85, p = 0.033). Hypertension was also significantly associated with incident AS (OR from 1.65 to 2.81).",
"In this study, we sought to address changes in blood lymphocyte subpopulations and labial salivary gland (LSG) inflammation after belimumab treatment in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) and to identify predictors of response to treatment. Sequential blood lymphocyte subsets and LSG biopsies were analysed between week 0 (W0) and W28 in 15 patients with pSS treated with belimumab. Systemic response to treatment was defined as a decrease in the European League Against Rheumatism Sjögren's Syndrome Disease Activity Index score of ≥3 points at W28. After belimumab, we observed a decrease in blood B lymphocytes primarily involving CD27-negative/immunoglobulin D-positive naïve B cells (p=0.008). Lymphocytic sialadenitis (focus score >1) that was present in 12 patients (80.0 %) before belimumab treatment became negative in 5 of them after treatment (p=0.03). The median (interquartile range) LSG B-cell/T-cell ratio decreased from 0.58 (0.5-0.67) to 0.50 (0.5-0.5) (p=0.06). B-cell activating factor (BAFF) staining was detected in 11 (78.6 %) of 14 patients before belimumab treatment compared with 7 (50.0 %) of 14 after belimumab therapy (p=0.10). The median percentage of BAFF-positive cells in foci significantly decreased from 27.5 % (10-40) to 5 % (0-20) (p=0.03). A systemic response was achieved in six patients (40 %). The only predictor of response was the presence of a low number of natural killer (NK) cells, both in blood (8.5 % [7-10] vs 11 % [9-21]; p=0.04) and in LSG (20.6/mm(3) [20.0-21.4] vs 30.0/mm(3) [25.0-100.0], p=0.003). Serum BAFF levels did not influence response to treatment.",
"The aim of this cross-sectional study was to investigate the relationship between minor salivary gland (MSG) flow rates and oral dryness degrees in patients with xerostomia induced by primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS), IgG4-related sialadenitis (IgG4-RS), radiation therapy-induced dry mouth (RTDM), or Steven-Johnson syndrome (SJS). 160 patients with pSS, IgG4-RS, RTDM, or SJS and their age- and sex-matched healthy control subjects were enrolled. The whole saliva flow rates and MSG flow rates were measured in four locations, including the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal mucosae. The degree of oral dryness was assessed in patient groups using the summated xerostomia inventory (SXI). The flow rates of whole saliva and most MSGs in patient groups were significantly lower than the flow rates in healthy control groups (P<0.05). The mean relative percentage of decrease in saliva flow rates was smaller in MSGs than in whole saliva in patient groups (P<0.05), indicating that these disorders have less impact on MSGs. Among the four MSG locations (the upper labial, lower labial, buccal, and palatal), buccal glands showed the highest flow rates in patient groups (P<0.05). SXI scores were significantly higher in pSS and RTDM patients than in IgG4-RS and SJS patients (P<0.05). The degree of xerostomia varied among different patient groups (P<0.05) and there was no clear correlation between MSG flow rates and SXI scores (P>0.05).",
"yes. Tobacco exposure increases the risk factor for anti-CCP antibodies only in shared epitope positive patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The gene-environment interaction between smoking and shared epitope leading to autoantibodies is specific for rheumatoid arthritis and is not observed in undifferentiated arthritis.",
"To examine whether patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) can be distinguished based on the expression of human T cell lymphotrophic virus type I (HTLV-1) and, if so, whether the subgroups differ in their clinical features and serological measures. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and nested PCR were used to amplify viral DNA from peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) in 53 patients with SS, using primers from the HTLV-1 pX, p19, pol, and tax regions. Minor salivary gland biopsy specimens from 33 patients with SS were examined for the presence of HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins immunohistochemically. The sociodemographic, glandular, and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings including autoantibodies, complement, and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. The HTLV-1 tax gene was detected in PBMC samples from 2 of 53 patients (3.8%), whereas the HTLV-1 pX, p19, and pol genes were not expressed. As well, 100% of PBMC samples from 4 family members of patients in whom the tax gene was detected also expressed the tax gene. Immunohistochemical staining for HTLV-1 p19 and tax was seen in 10 out of 33 (30.3%) patients with SS each. Overall, 14 (42.4%) patients expressed HTLV-1 p19 or tax proteins, and they had lower rheumatoid factor and C3 levels (p = 0.015 and p = 0.005, respectively) and higher lymphocyte counts (p = 0.016). The prevalence of glandular and extraglandular manifestations did not differ between the HTLV-1-positive and negative patients.",
"yes. Smoking significantly decreased both biomarkers studied. Compared to girls, boys seem to have enhanced susceptibility for periodontitis as reflected in salivary MMP-8 values.",
"Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for the development of Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). In a previous study of gene expression in intraorbital fat, adipocyte-related immediate early genes (IEGs) were overexpressed in patients with GO compared to controls. We investigated whether IEGs are upregulated by smoking, and examined other pathways that may be affected by smoking. Gene expression in intraorbital fat was studied in smokers (n=8) and nonsmokers (n=8) with severe active GO, as well as in subcutaneous fat in thyroid-healthy smokers (n=5) and nonsmokers (n=5) using microarray and real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR). With microarray, eight IEGs were upregulated more than 1.5-fold in smokers compared to nonsmokers with GO. Five were chosen for confirmation and were also overexpressed with real-time PCR. Interleukin-1 beta/IL-1B/(2.3-fold) and interleukin-6/IL-6/(2.4-fold) were upregulated both with microarray and with real-time PCR in smokers with GO compared to nonsmokers. Major histocompatibility complex, class II, DR beta 1/HLA-DRB1/was upregulated with microarray (2.1-fold) and with borderline significance with real-time PCR. None of these genes were upregulated in smokers compared to nonsmokers in subcutaneous fat.",
"Previous findings in labial salivary glands (LSGs) from patients with Sjögren's syndrome (SS) suggest that increased activity and expression of matrix metalloproteinase 9 (MMP-9) and MMP-3 trigger the destruction of acinar structures in these glands. Tissue inhibitors of matrix metalloproteinases (TIMPs) tightly control MMP activity, and TIMP expression is an important modulator of effects attributed to MMPs. This study was undertaken to investigate the correlation between the balance of MMPs/TIMPs in the LSGs of SS patients and the degree of inflammatory infiltration and acinar structure integrity. Three groups of SS patients classified according to focus score and residual tissue were studied. The expression of MMP-2, MMP-3, MMP-9, TIMP-1, and TIMP-2 was examined at the messenger RNA and protein levels. The ratio of MMP/TIMP expression (R value) was calculated. Focus score and acinar structure were evaluated by histologic analysis. In SS patients the MMP-3/TIMP-1 ratio was higher than 1 and the MMP-9/TIMP-1 ratio was much higher than 1 whereas the MMP-2/TIMP-2 ratio nearly equaled 1, suggesting elevated proteolytic activity due mainly to MMP-9. R values were independent of the focus score of inflammatory cells, but correlated well with the dramatic changes observed in morphologic integrity of acini, as revealed mainly by the lack of nuclear polarity. Acinar changes were more evident when R values for both MMP-9/TIMP-1 and MMP-3/TIMP-1 were higher.",
"To review the clinical, radiologic, serologic, histopathologic, immunohistochemical, and molecular genetic features of patients having Sjögren's syndrome (SS) with lacrimal gland enlargement. Retrospective case series review. Fourteen patients histopathologically diagnosed with SS with lacrimal enlargement. Twenty-three age- and gender-matched controls were used for comparison on radiologic analysis. Clinical and serologic data were determined directly or by chart review. Computed tomography images from patients were compared with those from the control group. Histopathologic sections were reviewed and graded using the Chisholm-Mason scale, and quantitative immunohistochemical analysis was applied. Clinically, patients were assessed for age, gender, onset, symptoms and signs, systemic features, treatment, and outcome. Existing histologic specimens were reviewed according to the Chisholm-Mason scale, and then the percentages of plasma cells containing immunoglobulin (Ig) A, IgG, and IgM were determined. Imaging was assessed for lacrimal gland thickness, prolapse, density, and margin contour; extraocular muscle size; orbital tissue displacement; and proptosis. Clinical and histopathological data fulfilled the revised American-European criteria for primary SS in 79% of patients. Compared with other large series of primary SS patients, similarities were found with age, xerophthalmia, parotidomegaly, and articular involvement. Differences included a lower incidence of autoantibodies, xerostomia, and extraglandular features and a higher male-to-female ratio. In almost all patients (93%), the percentage of plasma cells positive for IgA was less than 70%, consistent with SS. Compared with controls, the lacrimal glands were enlarged significantly (P<0.0001) and prolapsed (P<0.001). Involved glands had blurred margins (P<0.007), caused displacement of adjacent tissues (P = 0.03), and were associated with hyperdense fat (P = 0.007). Lymphocytic infiltration of orbital fat was present in all patients for whom fat biopsy results were available. Three patients had monoclonal infiltrates, and 1 patient experienced subsequent extranodal marginal zone lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue type, 4 years after presentation.",
"Sjögren's Syndrome (SS) is considered a multisystemic chronic disorder, which is characterized by a lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands and autoantibodies production.AIM: Several studies have demonstrated increased incidence of Lymphoma in SS patients. Our study tries to determine this relation. Transversal cohort. Patients with Sicca's Syndrome from the Stomathology service, Santa Casa de Misericórdia Hospital, in Sao Paulo, ENT Department, from July 1999 to April 2002. Out of 39 patients, 24 were diagnose as SS. Ages ranged from 19 to 83 years old, with predominance of women (69.7%). Time between the first symptoms and SS diagnosis were variable, ranging within 3.77 years. None of the analyzed patients developed lymphoma.",
"Our recent studies suggest, that elevated calcium concentration of saliva is characteristic of periodontitis. In this study we analyzed the effect of smoking on salivary calcium and bone density by comparing the level of salivary calcium and the ultrasound scale of bone density of heavy smokers to those of non-smokers. Salivary samples were collected from 603 women (50-62 years) participating in a pre-screen referral program for osteoporosis. Out of this group a total of 577 were accepted for the present study. General health, medications and tobacco smoking were recorded. The group included 487 non-smokers, 37 moderate smokers (1-10 cigarettes per day) and 53 heavy smokers (>10 cigarettes per day). Bone density was measured at the right heel by the quantitative ultrasound technique. Calcium and phosphate concentrations of saliva were measured and expressed as microg/ml of saliva. The ultrasonographic variables of the heel, broadband ultrasound attenuation (BUA), speed of sound (SOS) and T-score (a standard deviation unit from mean values of healthy young adults) of heavy smokers were significantly lower than those of women who did not smoke (P = 0.007, 0.014 and 0.011, respectively). Salivary calcium concentration of heavy smokers 70.5 (14.6) microg/ml was higher than that of non-smokers 64.0 (14.1) microg/ml (P = 0.001). There were no significant differences in salivary phosphate level or in the salivary flow rate between heavy smokers and non-smokers.",
"yes. Our findings clearly demonstrate changes in the levels of IκBα in SS monocytes, suggesting that the attenuated expression of IκBα could contribute to the deregulation of NF-κB pathways in the SS pathogenesis. Decreased expression of IκBα may specifically amplify cytokines production and inflammatory response linked to Sjögren's syndrome.",
"The aim of the present study was to evaluate serum soluble interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (sIL-1RA) concentration and its relationship with the degree of cigarette smoking in patients with Graves' ophthalmopathy (GO). Twenty-two consecutive GO patients (20 women, two men; age range 25-68 years, mean 48 years; 12 smokers, 10 non-smokers) submitted to IV glucocorticoid pulses over a 3-month period. sIL-1RA levels were measured by an immunoenzymatic assay (sensitivity, 4 ng/l; normal range, 50-290 ng/l) before glucocorticoid treatment, after two months of therapy, and 3 months after drug withdrawal. Thirteen patients responded to treatment (59%; five smokers and eight non-smokers), nine were non-responders (41%; seven smokers and two non-smokers). Baseline median sIL-1RA concentration did not differ in smokers and non-smokers (222 and 173 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.69). Likewise, no significant differences were found between the two groups during treatment (537 and 389 ng/l, respectively; P = 0.28); sIL-1RA concentration after treatment was higher in smokers (258 vs. 94 ng/l; P = 0.02). There was no correlation between basal sIL-1RA levels and the degree of cigarette smoking. Likewise, there was no difference in sIL-1RA levels in responders and non-responders, either at baseline (186 vs. 216 ng/l; P = 0.83), during or after treatment.",
"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an autoimmune chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the salivary and lacrimal glands. The aim of this study was to explore immunophenotypic features of chronic inflammatory reactions in the minor salivary glands in patients with primary SS (pSS). Formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded labial minor salivary gland tissue sections from randomly selected patients with pSS (n = 60) were investigated for the expression of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD by immunohistochemistry. Based on the distribution and staining pattern of CD21, CD23, CD35 and IgD in lymphoid aggregates, several stages of chronic inflammatory reactions were observed. In 12/60 (20%) patients, lymphoid infiltrates with germinal centre (GC)-like features such as extensive networks of CD21-, CD23- and CD35-positive cells were observed in the minor salivary gland tissue. Smaller networks and /or focal infiltrates with scattered CD21(+), CD23(+) and CD35(+) cells were observed in the remaining 48/60 (80 %) cases. When dividing patients according to the presence (GC+) or the absence (GC-) of GC in the minor salivary glands, the mean focus score was significantly higher in the GC+ patients (P < 0.05). Double staining of the minor salivary glands revealed focal infiltrates with follicular dentritic cell networks and B cells resembling normal GCs in tonsillar tissue.",
"To determine whether the Sjögren's syndrome B (SSB)-positive/Sjögren's syndrome A (SSA)-negative antibody profile is associated with key phenotypic features of SS. Among registrants in the Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) with possible or established SS, we compared anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profiles against concurrent phenotypic features. We fitted logistic regression models to explore the association between anti-SSA/anti-SSB reactivity profile and each key SS phenotypic feature, controlling for potential confounders. Among 3297 participants, 2061 (63%) had negative anti-SSA/anti-SSB, 1162 (35%) had anti-SSA with or without anti-SSB, and 74 (2%) anti-SSB alone. Key SS phenotypic features were more prevalent and had measures indicative of greater disease activity in those participants with anti-SSA, either alone or with anti-SSB, than in those with anti-SSB alone or negative SSA/SSB serology. These between-group differences were highly significant and not explained by confounding by age, race/ethnicity or gender. Participants with anti-SSB alone were comparable to those with negative SSA/SSB serology in their association with these key phenotypic features. Among SICCA participants classified with SS on the basis of the American-European Consensus Group or American College of Rheumatology criteria, only 2% required the anti-SSB-alone test result to meet these criteria.",
"Primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) is an autoimmune disease in which the concentration of the acute-phase protein serum C-reactive protein (CRP) is low. We investigated whether levels of another acute-phase protein, serum amyloid A (SAA), are increased in patients with pSS and whether the immunological markers in patients with pSS are associated with variation in SAA levels. Serum SAA concentrations were measured by ELISA in 74 patients with pSS and in 56 control subjects with sicca symptoms. Median SAA levels did not differ significantly between patients with pSS and subjects with sicca symptoms. In patients with pSS SAA concentrations correlated significantly with age, leukocyte count, CRP, interleukin 6, and C4. Unlike CRP, there was a significant inverse correlation between SAA and serum IgG levels and anti-SSA antibody titers, as well as a trend towards an inverse correlation between SAA and antinuclear antibody and rheumatoid factor titers.",
"To examine a large well characterized cohort of patients with mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) and determine longitudinally the prevalence of clinical and serologic features of Sjogren's syndrome in these patients. Patients were followed longitudinally up to 30 years with systematic clinical and serologic analysis. Sera were analyzed for reactivity with SSA/Ro, SSB/La, and snRNP polypeptide U1-70kD and for anticardiolipin antibodies. Among a well characterized patient population with MCTD, 18/55 (32.7%) had antibodies to SSA/Ro, while 2/55 (3.6%) had antibodies to SSB/La, either initially or during the course of followup. All patients had antibodies to U1-70kD small nuclear ribonucleoprotein antigen. Sicca symptoms were common, occurring in 23/55 (41.8%) patients. Patients with MCTD who were anti-SSA/Ro positive had increased incidence of malar rash (p < 0.03) and photosensitivity (p < 0.001) compared to anti-SSA/Ro negative patients.",
"To assess the effect of rituximab (anti-CD20 antibody) therapy on the (immuno)histopathology of parotid tissue in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and the correlation of histologic findings with the flow rate and composition of parotid saliva. In a phase II study, an incisional parotid biopsy specimen was obtained from 5 patients with primary SS before and 12 weeks after rituximab treatment (4 infusions of 375 mg/m(2)). The relative amount of parotid parenchyma, lymphocytic infiltrate, and fat, and the presence/quantity of germinal centers and lymphoepithelial duct lesions were evaluated. Immunohistochemical characterization was performed to analyze the B:T cell ratio of the lymphocytic infiltrate (CD20, CD79a, CD3) and cellular proliferation in the acinar parenchyma (by double immunohistologic labeling for cytokeratin 14 and Ki-67). Histologic data were assessed for correlations with the parotid flow rate and saliva composition. Four patients showed an increased salivary flow rate and normalization of the initially increased salivary sodium concentration. Following rituximab treatment, the lymphocytic infiltrate was reduced, with a decreased B:T cell ratio and (partial) disappearance of germinal centers. The amount and extent of lymphoepithelial lesions decreased in 3 patients and was completely absent in 2 patients. The initially increased proliferation of acinar parenchyma in response to inflammation was reduced in all patients.",
"yes. Local suppression of IL-21 in submandibular glands could retard the development of Sjögren's syndrome in NOD mice. IL-21 might contribute to the development of B-cell disorder in Sjögren's syndrome via Tfh cells pathway.",
"Oral cancer may be preceded by potentially malignant lesions, and smoking is a risk factor. Oral leukoplakia (OL), which is the most common among these lesions, is defined by the World Health Organization as \"a white plaque of questionable risk having excluded known diseases or disorders that carry no increased risk for cancer.\" Thus, OL is a clinical diagnosis used to designate oral white lesions, which are histologically represented by hyperkeratosis associated or not associated with epithelial dysplasia. It is known that c-Jun and pc-Jun have a role in cell proliferation and that p27 is decreased during carcinogenesis; thus, the aim of this study was to investigate whether these proteins are differently expressed in OL in smokers and never-smokers. Seventy-three cases diagnosed as OL were selected and divided into four groups according to the presence or absence of dysplasia and patients' smoking status (smokers: 39 cases, 24 dysplastic; never-smokers: 34 cases, 20 dysplastic). The immunoexpressions of c-Jun, pc-Jun, and p27 were evaluated. A significant correlation between smoking condition and the percentages of c-Jun (P = .0356) and pc-Jun (P = .0216) was found and was more intense in cases that underwent malignant transformation (6/47).",
"To examine whether smoking is a risk factor for rheumatoid nodules in early rheumatoid arthritis, and if so to determine the quantitative effect of smoking. From a cohort (n = 1589) in a structured programme for follow up of newly diagnosed cases of rheumatoid arthritis (symptoms of swollen joints < or =12 months), 112 individuals with rheumatoid nodules at inclusion were identified. Nodular patients were each compared with two age and sex matched controls without nodules from the same cohort. A detailed self administered tobacco use questionnaire was answered by 210 patients (63%). Seventy patients were current smokers, 71 former smokers, and 69 had never smoked. Current smoking and former smoking were more common in patients with rheumatoid nodules compared with controls (86% v 59%) in both sexes. Positive rheumatoid factor (RF) was found more often among cases with nodules than controls (78% v 64%). Using detailed information from the questionnaires with conditional logistic regression analyses, ever having smoked was associated with an increased risk of the presence of rheumatoid nodules (odds ratio (OR) = 7.3 (95% confidence interval, 2.3 to 23.6); p = 0.001). The risk of having nodules was not obviously dose dependent when smoking duration as well as smoking amount were examined. A stratified analysis showed that only RF positive smokers had an increased risk of rheumatoid nodules. Smoking was associated with rheumatoid nodules among both men (p = 0.006) and women (p = 0.001). Tobacco use other than smoking (n = 31) was not associated with an increased risk of nodules (OR = 0.8 (0.2 to 3.4); p = 0.813).",
"Eleven patients with ACA-positive and 71 patients ACA-negative SS were examined. All patients had minor salivary gland biopsy; sociodemographic data, glandular and extraglandular manifestations, and laboratory findings, including autoantibodies, complement and immunoglobulin levels, were analyzed. European League Against Rheumatism SS disease activity index (ESSDAI) and SS disease damage index (SSDDI) were also measured. The prevalence of ACA among SS patients was 13.4%. ACA-positive SS patients had a higher prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon, sclerodactyly and autoimmune thyroiditis and a lower prevalence of anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies compared to ACA-negative patients. Disease activity was higher in ACA-positive patients than in ACA-negative patients, but the damage index did not differ between the two groups. None of the patients who originally had ACA evolved to having full-blown systemic sclerosis.",
"Smoking increases the risk for periodontal disease and reduces the healing response. We examined the antimicrobial and clinical effects of scaling and root planing (SRP) with and without minocycline HCl 1 mg microspheres (MM) relative to smoking status in subjects with periodontitis. A total of 127 subjects (46 never smokers, 44 former smokers, and 37 current smokers) with moderate to advanced periodontitis were randomized to receive MM + SRP (N = 62) or SRP alone (N = 65). Subgingival plaque samples collected at baseline and day 30 were examined for the presence of 40 periodontal bacteria by DNA probe analysis. MM + SRP reduced red-complex bacteria (RCB) numbers and proportions to a greater extent than SRP alone, irrespective of smoking status. RCB numbers were not reduced by SRP in current smokers. The difference in the reduction in numbers of RCB by SRP relative to MM + SRP in current smokers was statistically significant (P <0.05). Numbers and proportions of orange complex bacteria (OCB) were reduced in all groups treated with MM + SRP. Proportions of OCB increased in current smokers treated with SRP alone. In current smokers, MM + SRP significantly reduced probing depth (PD), increased clinical attachment level (CAL), and reduced bleeding on probing (BOP) to a greater extent than SRP alone (P <0.05).",
"yes. Within the limits of this study, it may be suggested that suppression of salivary osteocalcin level by smoking may at least partly explain the deleterious effects of smoking on periodontal status.",
"Increased levels of B lymphocyte stimulator (BLyS) have been detected in serum from patients with systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. To determine the level of BLyS in serum from patients with primary's Sjögren's syndrome (SS), another autoimmune disease in which B cell activation is high. Serum samples from 49 patients with primary SS according to the revised European criteria were assayed for BLyS, quantitative immunoglobulins, and autoantibody levels and compared with samples from 47 healthy control subjects. The median level of BLyS was 5.99 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 3.20-8.93 ng/ml) in SS v 2.49 ng/ml (25th-75th centile range 1.96-2.96 ng/ml) in healthy controls (p<0.001). More importantly, among patients with SS, the presence of anti-SSA antibodies was associated with significantly higher levels of BLyS (medians 7.90 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.008) as was the presence of anti-SSB antibodies (medians 7.14 ng/ml v 3.70 ng/ml; p=0.02) and of rheumatoid factor (medians 7.70 ng/ml v 3.80 ng/ml; p=0.016). The level of BLyS in three patients with a monoclonal gammopathy was higher than in the other patients (medians 26.53 ng/ml v 5.92 ng/ml; p=0.13). Higher levels of BLyS were associated with higher levels of gammaglobulins and IgG. There was a strong correlation between BLyS and rheumatoid factor level (r=0.71, p<0.0001), anti-SSA IgG level (r=0.32, p=0.02) and anti-SSA IgM level (r=0.39, p=0.006).",
"yes. Our study reveals that active tobacco smoking is associated with increases in markers of systemic inflammation in patients with CRS. The proinflammatory effect of smoking seems not only to act locally on sinus mucosa as previously described, but may also influence levels of inflammatory biomarkers systemically, suggesting that smoking-induced changes have profound implications for health. Nevertheless, these changes may be potentially reversible; thus smoking cessation in CRS patients is strongly advised, and may have an impact on response of CRS to therapy.",
"no. Unlike its role in rheumatoid arthritis, smoking does not confer a risk for development of SSc, although it may impact disease severity.",
"We evaluated the clinical relevance and pathogenic significance of anti-salivary duct autoantibodies (ASDA) in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) by examining (1) their frequency in healthy controls, patients with sicca symptoms, and patients with various autoimmune and infective disorders; (2) their localization by confocal microscopy; and (3) their tissue distribution and cross reactivity with blood group antigens. Indirect immunofluorescence (IF) was performed on commercial cryostat sections of monkey parotid salivary gland. Sections were examined by fluorescence and confocal laser scanning microscopy. Sera giving positive staining on the ducts were tested by IF on a range of monkey tissues and salivary glands from several mammalian species. Blocking experiments were performed with human erythrocytes of different ABO blood groups and AB antigens. We identified 2 distinct ductal staining patterns. The first resembled ASDA described in earlier studies and showed patchy bright staining of the apical (luminal) surfaces of the ducts and staining of apical cytoplasmic vesicles. The other was only observed with anti-mitochondrial antibody positive sera and stained the mitochondrial-rich ductal epithelium in a distinctive punctate pattern. Antibodies staining the apical surface of ducts were detected rarely in patients with antiRo/La autoantibody-positive primary SS (1/76) and RA (1/36) and were found in only 1115 with RA and secondary SS. ASDA were detected in sera from 13/51 (25.5%) of patients referred to our clinic with limited sicca symptoms who were anti-Ro/La antibody-negative and had no typical clinical or laboratory features of classical primary SS. The apical ductal staining pattern was not observed with sera from 63 healthy controls without sicca symptoms or in patients with autoimmune and infective disorders. Twelve of the 13 patients whose sera gave ASDA-like staining were blood group O and one group A. Ductal staining was abolished in all sera after absorption with blood group AB erythrocytes or AB antigen. In 5 patients ductal staining was removed by absorption with B erythrocytes but not with A erythrocytes; in the remainder ductal reactivity was abolished by both A and B erythrocytes.",
"To identify a screening strategy for dry eye patients with a high likelihood of having Sjogren syndrome (SS) through the evaluation of the association of ocular surface tests with the extraocular signs used for the diagnosis of SS. Multicenter cross-sectional study. The Sjogren's International Clinical Collaborative Alliance (SICCA) registry enrolled 3514 participants with SS or possible SS from 9 international academic sites. Ocular surface evaluation included Schirmer I testing, tear breakup time (TBUT), and staining of the cornea (0-6 points) and conjunctiva (0-6 points). Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify predictive factors for (1) histopathologic changes on labial salivary gland (LSG) biopsies (positive = focus score of ≥1 focus/4 mm The adjusted odds of having a positive LSG biopsy were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.26, 95% CI 1.05-1.51, P = .014) and positive conjunctival staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.46; 95% CI 1.39-1.53, P < .001) or corneal staining (for each additional unit of staining 1.14; 95% CI 1.08-1.21, P < .001). The odds of having a positive serology were significantly higher among those with an abnormal Schirmer I test (adjusted OR = 1.3; 95% CI 1.09-1.54, P = .004) and conjunctival staining (adjusted OR = 1.51; 95% CI 1.43-1.58, P < .001).",
"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) may occur in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). We sought to determine whether the presence of SS in a large cohort of patients with SLE defines a subset with distinctive sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. The Johns Hopkins Lupus Cohort was divided into 2 groups, based on the presence or absence of SS, defined by the presence of an objective measure of sicca or an abnormal minor salivary gland biopsy in a patient with sicca symptoms. These groups were compared with regard to sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory features. Multivariable logistic regression was then performed to adjust the findings for potential sociodemographic, clinical, and laboratory confounders. The 259 patients with SS (14% of the cohort), when compared with the 1531 patients without SS, were older at the time of SLE diagnosis and were more commonly women and white. Photosensitivity, oral ulcers, Raynaud's phenomenon, anti-Ro antibodies, and anti-La antibodies had a significant positive association while renal disease, anti-ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibodies, and anti-dsDNA antibodies had a negative association with the presence of SS after adjustment for age (at last cohort visit), gender, ethnicity, and anti-Ro antibodies. The older age at diagnosis of SLE among the patients with SS did not remain a significant finding after adjustment for the age of the patient at last cohort visit.",
"To evaluate the effects of cigarette smoke (CS)-exposed saliva on cellular and antibody responses in an animal model. The stimulatory and non-stimulatory saliva samples were collected from 10 healthy subjects and were then exposed to CS for 20 or 80 minutes. The CS-exposed saliva samples were administrated intraperitoneally (i.p) to male Balb/c mice. Then the delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) and antibody responses to sheep red blood cell (SRBC) was assessed. Moreover, the total white blood cells (WBC) counts and the blood lymphocytes counts were determined. The mean of DTH responses of animal groups received 20 minutes or 80 minutes CS-exposed saliva samples was significantly lower than that observed in control group. Moreover, The mean titer of anti-SRBC antibody was significantly lower in animal groups who received 80 minutes CS-exposed stimulatory or non-stimulatory saliva as compared to control group (P < 0.04 and P < 0.002, respectively). The mean counts of blood lymphocytes in 80 minutes CS exposed-stimulatory saliva group was also significantly lower as compared to control group (P < 0.05).",
"There is evidence that interferon is involved in the pathogenesis of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS). The interferon-inducible IFI16 protein, normally expressed in cell nuclei, may be overexpressed, mislocalized in the cytoplasm and secreted in the extracellular milieu in several autoimmune disorders. This leads to tolerance breaking to this self-protein with consequent development of anti-IFI16 antibodies. The aim of this study was to identify the pathogenic and clinical significance of IFI16 and anti-IFI16 in pSS. IFI16 and anti-IFI16 were assessed in the serum of 67 pSS patients and over 100 healthy donors by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. IFI16 was also evaluated by immunohistochemistry in minor salivary glands of 15 pSS patients and 10 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any clinical, serological or histological features of pSS. pSS patients display higher serum levels of both IFI16 and anti-IFI16 compared to healthy donors. IFI16 concentration was directly correlated with disease duration and focus score and inversely correlated with age at diagnosis. Moreover, IFI16 positivity was associated with concurrent positivity for rheumatoid factor. Interestingly, the direct correlation between IFI16 positivity and focus score was independent of disease duration and age at diagnosis. pSS minor salivary glands display marked expression and cytoplasmic mislocalization of IFI16 by acinar and ductal epithelial cells as well as infiltrating lymphocytes and peri/intralesional endothelium compared to minor salivary glands with normal architecture or nonspecific chronic sialadenitis. Within the mononuclear cell infiltrate, IFI16 expression appears to parallel the distribution of T lymphocytes.",
"To investigate the relationship between serologic markers and dry eye severity in subjects with primary Sjögren syndrome (SS). This study evaluated 64 patients diagnosed with primary SS according to the 2012 Sjögren's International Collaborative Clinical Alliance (SICCA) classification criteria. Serum anti-Ro/SSA, anti-La/SSB, rheumatoid factor (RF), and antinuclear antibody (ANA) levels, Ocular Surface Disease Index (OSDI), Schirmer I test values, tear film breakup time, and SICCA ocular staining score (OSS) were determined. The conjunctival staining scores were 3.3 ± 1.9, 3.6 ± 2.0, 3.4 ± 1.9, and 3.5 ± 1.9 in the positive anti-Ro (≥25 EU), positive anti-La (≥25 EU), positive RF (≥20 IU/mL), and positive ANA (≥1:320) group, respectively. Subjects with positive anti-Ro, anti-La, RF, or ANA had significantly higher conjunctival staining scores compared with those with negative levels (P < 0.05). The total OSS in the positive ANA group was 5.5 ± 3.0, which was significantly higher than the total OSS (3.4 ± 2.1) in the negative ANA group (P = 0.005). Serum RF and ANA levels had strong correlations with conjunctival staining scores and the total OSS but not with corneal staining scores (r = 0.53, P < 0.001 and r = 0.382, P = 0.002). Other ocular parameters (OSDI, Schirmer I test values, and tear film breakup time) did not differ by the serologic marker level. Interestingly, the OSDI was positively correlated with the corneal staining score and total OSS (r = 0.646, P < 0.001 and r = 0.476, P < 0.001).",
"To assess the diagnostic value of parotid gland quantitative assessment using ultrasound (US) as well as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in patients with Sjogren's syndrome (SS) and to evaluate the possibility of using such modalities as a predictor of the histopathologic score of salivary gland biopsy in this group of patients. Sonographic and MRI studies were performed on the parotid glands of 47 patients diagnosed to have primary SS, 20 healthy control subjects of matched sex and age, and 20 subjects with sicca symptoms but without any evidence of SS. The patients and the control subjects were scored according to the structural changes seen in both radiologic modalities. In addition, sialography and labial gland biopsy were done for all patients as well as the control subjects and scored according to the degree of affection. Parenchymal inhomogenity (PIH) was seen in 93.6% of the patients studied by US, while nodular pattern was seen in 97.8% in the MRI study. The US and MRI results correlated significantly with the histopathologic score of the minor salivary glands (r = 0.82, 0.84, respectively) as well as sialography score (r = 0.69, 0.60, respectively). There was good agreement between US and MRI findings (r = 0.87) in both SS cases and control subjects.",
"To investigate the association of cigarette smoking with susceptibility to systemic sclerosis (SSc) in a large, well-defined patient population. We conducted a review of 1,379 patients with SSc enrolled in the Scleroderma Family Registry and DNA Repository and/or the Genetics versus Environment in Scleroderma Outcome Study cohort. Smoking history was obtained from chart review or via telephone interview. Patients with SSc were subsequently categorized as never smokers or ever smokers. Patients with SSc for whom smoking data were available were matched 2:1 by age, sex, ethnicity, and state of residence to control subjects, using the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System. The majority of patients were white (74.2%), with Hispanics and blacks representing 11.3% and 9.7%, respectively. Most patients had limited cutaneous involvement (54%). For our comparative analyses, 621 patients were matched with control subjects. There was no significant difference in age, sex, ethnicity, and SSc subtype between matched versus unmatched patients. The majority of patients had never smoked (57%), while 43% of patients were classified as ever smokers. The patients with SSc did not differ from control subjects in terms of their smoking behavior (odds ratio [OR] 1.020, 95% confidence interval [95% CI] 0.839-1.240, P=0.842). Anti-topoisomerase I antibody-positive patients were more likely to be never smokers (OR 0.648, 95% CI 0.421-0.998, P=0.049), whereas no such association was observed with anticentromere and anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies.",
"To study signs of obstructive airway disease (OAD) in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) using the forced oscillation technique (FOT). Thirty-seven female pSS patients (median age 64, range 38-77 years) without previous physician-diagnosed OAD, participating in a longitudinal follow-up study of pulmonary function, and 74 female population-based controls (median age 64, range 47-77 years), also without physician-diagnosed OAD, and matched with regard to age, height, weight, and tobacco consumption, were included in the study. The pSS patients and controls were studied by the FOT, evaluating resistance and reactance of the respiratory system. pSS patients had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz, decreased reactance at 10-35 Hz, and an increased resonant frequency (Fres) in comparison with controls. Resistance was correlated negatively and reactance positively to the vital capacity (VC), the forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1), and the diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Compared with controls, pSS patients with (n = 14) and without OAD (n = 21), as determined by spirometry, had significantly increased resistances at 5-25 Hz and decreased reactances at 10-35 Hz. In never-smoking subjects, identical FOT signs were found.",
"Primary Sjögren's syndrome is an autoimmune disease typified by xerostomia (dry mouth) that, in turn, could lead to increased saliva surface tension (gamma) and increased upper airway collapsibility. Fatigue, of unknown etiology, is also frequently reported by patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Recent preliminary data indicate a high prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea in healthy-weight women with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Concurrent research highlights a significant role of gamma in the maintenance of upper airway patency. The aim of this study was to compare oral mucosal wetness, saliva gamma, and upper airway collapsibility during wake and sleep between women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and matched control subjects. Participants slept in a sound-insulated room with physiologic measurements controlled from an adjacent room. Eleven women with primary Sjögren's syndrome and 8 age- and body mass index-matched control women. Upper airway collapsibility index (minimum choanal-epiglottic pressure expressed as a percentage of delivered choanal pressure) was determined from brief negative-pressure pulses delivered to the upper airway during early inspiration in wakefulness and sleep. Patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome had significantly higher saliva gamma (\"pull-off\" force method) compared with control subjects (67.2 +/- 1.1 mN/m versus 63.2 +/- 1.7 mN/m, P < 0.05). Upper airway collapsibility index significantly increased from wake to sleep (Stage 2 and slow wave sleep) but was not different between groups during wake (primary Sjögren's syndrome versus controls; 36.3% +/- 8.0% vs 46.0 +/- 13.8%), stage 2 sleep (53.1% +/- 11.9% vs 63.4% +/- 7.2%), or slow-wave sleep (60.8% +/- 12.2% vs 60.5% +/- 9.3%).",
"This study was undertaken to determine whether induction of systemic inflammation accelerates the development of Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in genetically susceptible mice. Female (NZB x NZW)F1 mice were treated with either Freund's incomplete adjuvant (IFA) or phosphate buffered saline (PBS) at monthly intervals. Salivary gland function was monitored by measuring pilocarpine-induced saliva volume. Mice were killed at different time points and examined for sialadenitis and salivary gland-infiltrating cells. Sera were analyzed for autoantibodies to salivary gland antigens, nuclear antigens, and Ro60. While IFA-treated mice had significantly decreased salivary secretion 7 weeks after the initial treatment, salivary secretion did not decrease in PBS-treated controls until 17 weeks. At 7 weeks, the severity of sialadenitis and the number of T and B cells infiltrating the salivary glands did not differ between the 2 groups. However, at this time point IFA-treated mice showed significantly higher frequencies of CD11clow, B220+, Ly6C+, mouse PDCA-1+ dendritic cells (DCs) in the salivary glands. While levels of autoantibodies did not differ between the 2 groups at early time points, by late time points IFA-treated mice had higher levels. The gland dysfunction observed in IFA-treated mice at earlier time points did not correlate with the severity of sialadenitis or levels of autoantibodies. Instead, it was associated with increased frequency of plasmacytoid DCs in the gland.",
"To clarify the clinicopathological characteristics of primary Sjögren's syndrome (pSS) with anti-centromere antibody (ACA). Characteristics of 14 patients of pSS with ACA were evaluated. All patients were anti-SS-A/Ro and SS-B/La antibodies negative (ACA+ group) without sclerodactyly. The prevalence of Raynaud's phenomenon (RP), titer of IgG and focus score (FS) in the minor salivary glands (MSGs) were determined. Quantification analysis of Azan Mallory staining was performed to detect collagenous fiber. Forty eight patients in whom ACA was absent were chosen as the conventional (ACA-) pSS group. Prevalence of ACA+ SS patients was 14 out of 129 (10.85%) pSS patients. RP was observed in 61.5% of the patients with ACA. The level of IgG in the ACA+ group was significantly lower than that of the ACA- group (p = 0.018). Statistical difference was also found in the FS of MSGs from the ACA+ group (1.4 +/- 1.0) as compared with the ACA- group (2.3 +/- 1.6) (p = 0.035). In contrast, the amount of fibrous tissue was much higher in the ACA+ group (65052.2 +/- 14520.6 microm(2) versus 26251.3 +/- 14249.8 microm(2)) (p = 1.3 x 10(-12)).",
"It is relatively difficult in a community setting to perform salivary gland biopsy or reliable diagnostic tests for salivary gland involvement in a patient suspected to suffer from Sjögren's syndrome (SS). To investigate whether anti-Ro/La antibodies are a good substitute for salivary gland biopsy in community patients suspected to suffer from SS. Forty-one patients suspected as having SS due to dry eyes and mouth, articular complaints, and/or serological findings were examined for the presence of anti-Ro/La, and underwent minor salivary gland biopsy. Sixteen patients (39%) were classified as primary SS by the American-European Consensus Group criteria. Twelve subjects had anti-Ro/La antibodies and 11 subjects in this group had positive biopsy findings. Of 29 patients without anti-Ro/La antibodies, only four manifested positive biopsy findings. A significant association was found between the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies and positive salivary gland findings characteristic for SS (p<0.0001, Fisher's exact test).",
"yes. In our study, pathologic grading with a higher grade (grade IV) and the presence of SSA or a higher titer of ANA were significantly associated with the overexpression of TRAIL, MMP-3, or ICAM-1 in the salivary gland mononuclear cells in patients with SS.",
"Sjögren's syndrome (SS) is an inflammatory autoimmune disease. We investigated important factors associated with the expression of inflammation-related molecules in minor salivary gland (MSG) mononuclear cells in patients with SS. Thirty-four patients with SS with a MSG biopsy grading of either grade III (10 patients) or grade IV (24 patients) were enrolled. The age, sex, autoantibodies, cell infiltration, and intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), matrix metalloproteinase-3 (MMP-3), tumor necrosis factor-related apoptosis-inducing ligand (TRAIL), or CXCR3 expression were also analyzed. Ten of the 34 patients with SS were diagnosed with secondary SS; in these patients, the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis was confirmed in 8 and systemic lupus erythematosus in 2. TRAIL and ICAM-1 were overexpressed in patients with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) > 1:160, compared to those with titer < 1:160 (45.1 +/- 4.4 vs 41.2 +/- 3.9, p = 0.021, and 15.2 +/- 5.7 vs 10.8 +/- 3.3, p = 0.018, respectively). Higher erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR; >OR= 20) was associated with higher TRAIL expression and CD20 cell infiltration in contrast to lower ESR (< 20; p < 0.05). ICAM-1, TRAIL, and MMP-3 were expressed more predominantly in anti-SSA-positive than in anti-SSA-negative patients with SS. There was a significant difference in CD20 cell infiltration and MMP-3 expression between primary SS and secondary SS. Biopsy of a grade IV showed a significantly increased expression of TRAIL (44.9 +/- 4.5 vs 40.8 +/- 3.6, p = 0.013) and MMP-3 (62.7 +/- 6.3 vs 54.4 +/- 7.3, p = 0.003) in mononuclear cells as compared to those of grade III.",
"The role of HTLV-I infection in Sjögren's syndrome (SS) remains unclear. In this study, we clinically compared radiographic imaging with histological cellular infiltration between HTLV-I-seropositive and HTLV-I-sero-negative SS. Sixty primary SS patients were divided into two age-matched groups based on the seropositivity of the anti-HTLV-I antibody. We evaluated the two groups through labial salivary gland biopsy-proven cellular infiltration and sialography-proven radiographic gland destruction. In these 60 pSS patients, the incidence of abnormalities as determined by salivary gland biopsy and sialography was 51.7% (31/60) and 76.7% (46/60), respectively. Although there was no difference in the prevalence of abnormal findings between salivary gland biopsy and sialography in the whole 60 patients, there were significantly fewer abnormalities determined by sialography in HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients in comparison with HTLV-I-seronegative SS patients. Also, these findings were strengthened by the results that none of HTLV-I-seropositive SS patients with focus score 0 had abnormal sialography findings.",
"yes. Sequential parotid biopsy specimens obtained from patients with primary SS before and after rituximab treatment demonstrated histopathologic evidence of reduced glandular inflammation and redifferentiation of lymphoepithelial duct lesions to regular striated ducts as a putative morphologic correlate of increased parotid flow and normalization of the salivary sodium content. These histopathologic findings in a few patients underline the efficacy of B cell depletion and indicate the potential for glandular restoration in SS.",
"These findings tend to support the suggestion that a patient suspected to suffer from SS in a community setting may be first tested for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies to confirm the diagnosis. Only those with a negative result for the presence of anti-Ro/La antibodies need to be referred for salivary gland biopsy.",
"The international classification criteria for Sjögren's syndrome necessitate the presence of either extractable nuclear antibody or a characteristic focal inflammatory infiltrate in a minor salivary gland. Thus, patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative will need to have a labial salivary gland biopsy, which is an invasive procedure associated with morbidity. The aim of this study was to evaluate the viability of ultrasound imaging of the major salivary glands as a predictor of the histology to explore whether ultrasound can help in stratifying Sjögren's patients and reduce the need for biopsy. The records of 85 patients suspected of having Sjögren's syndrome and who have had biopsy and ultrasound were analysed retrospectively. The histology and the ultrasound were reported by experts independently. The reporting was impartial as the examiners were blinded to the results of the other investigations and to the diagnosis. Out of the 85 patients, 34 had positive ultrasound, 29 of whom also had positive histology. Fifty-one patients had negative ultrasound, of whom 49 were also negative for histological features of Sjögren's syndrome. The results show that the ultrasound had a positive predictive value of 85% and a striking negative predicative value of 96% of the histology results. The overall concordance between the ultrasound and the histology was 91% (Kappa = 0.826).",
"yes. Quantitative immunohistologic criteria were shown to be much more sensitive and disease specific than the widely accepted grade IV lymphocytic adenitis criterion, which corresponds to a lymphocytic focus score greater than 1, and these criteria should be included in the international diagnostic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome.",
"The objective of this paper is to examine whether smoking is associated with autoantibody production in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) patients, unaffected first-degree relatives (FDR) of individuals with SLE--a group at increased risk of developing SLE--or unaffected, unrelated controls. Detailed demographic, environmental, clinical, and therapeutic information was collected by questionnaire on 1242 SLE patients, 981 FDRs, and 946 controls in the Lupus Family Registry and Repository; a blood sample was obtained. All sera were tested for multiple lupus autoantibodies by immunofluorescence and luminex bead-based assays. Generalized estimating equations, adjusting for age, gender, and ethnicity and accounting for correlation within families, were used to assess smoking status with the dichotomous outcome variables of positivity for SLE status, positivity of ANA by immunofluorescence (≥1:120), positivity for ≥1 autoantibody by the luminex assay, and positivity for each of the 11 autoantibodies. Current smoking was associated with being positive for ≥1 autoantibody (excluding ANA) (adjusted OR = 1.53, 95% CI 1.04-2.24) in our subjects with SLE. No association was observed in unaffected FDRs or healthy controls. Former smoking was associated with anti-Ro/SS-A60 in our unaffected FDRs. There was an increased association with anti-nRNP A seropositivity, as well as a decreased association with anti-nRNP 68 positivity, in current smokers in SLE subjects.",
"The aim of the present study was to evaluate the diagnostic value of quantitative immunohistologic criteria for Sjögren's syndrome (SS) in labial salivary gland biopsies. Quantitative immunohistologic examination was performed on labial salivary gland biopsy samples from 80 healthy controls, 32 patients with primary SS, 14 patients with secondary SS, 5 with \"probable\" SS, 36 with keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) with a lymphocytic focus score less than 1 on the lip biopsy, and 18 with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) without clinical evidence of SS. This is the first study to show that immunohistologic criteria for SS, based on the percentages of IgA-containing and IgG-containing plasma cells, are able to 1) confirm the diagnosis of SS in labial salivary glands of KCS patients in the absence of grade IV lymphocytic adenitis; and 2) distinguish between a grade IV focal lymphocytic adenitis in the labial salivary glands of SS patients and of RA patients without SS.",
"Several histological scoring systems, including the focus score, performed in minor salivary glands (MSGs) by hematoxylin-eosin (H&E) staining, have been employed in clinical practice to assess the inflammatory infiltrate and provide the diagnosis of primary Sjo¨gren׳s syndrome (pSS). Aims of this study were to integrate different scoring systems and identify potential differences in the molecular profile of lymphoid cytokines related to germinal center (GC) formation and clinical subsets in pSS. Overall, 104 pSS patients and 40 subjects with sicca non-pSS were retrospectively evaluated. MSG biopsies were evaluated by H&E and immunofluorescence to assess histological pattern, Chisholm and Mason grading system, Tarpley score, a grading for the severity of inflammatory infiltrate, T-/B-cell segregation, and the presence of GC. MSGs from 50 pSS patients and 30 sicca non-pSS patients were processed by real-time PCR to assess LTα, LTβ, BAFF, CXCR4, CXCL12, CXCR5, CXCL13, CCR7, CCL19, and CCL21. GCs presence was associated with anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies, hypergammaglobulinemia, salivary gland swelling, higher Tarpley score and focus score, and extraglandular involvement but, at multivariate analysis, only extraglandular involvement was independently associated to GC. pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those with sicca symptoms. GC(+) pSS patients displayed higher level of all cytokines compared to those GC(-).",
"To evaluate how determination of antibodies against the Ro52 antigen influences the classification and clinical characterisation of patients with suspected primary Sjögren's syndrome (SS). The cohort study included 187 patients who fulfilled at least four of the six 1993 SS classification criteria, including positive autoantibodies (antinuclear antibodies [ANA], rheumatoid factor [RF], anti-Ro/SSA and/or anti-La/SS-B antibodies) as mandatory criterium. Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were tested by qualitative ELISA using a commercial assay. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were detected by a semiquantitative ELISA. Anti-Ro52 antibodies were found in 70/187 (37%) patients. A significant percentage of patients with anti-Ro/SSA antibodies were negative for anti-Ro52 antibodies (22%), while 13 patients (12%) were negative for anti-Ro/SSA antibodies but positive for anti-Ro52 antibodies, meaning that they fulfilled the 2002 SS criteria while avoiding the need for a salivary biopsy. Higher mean titers of anti-Ro52 antibodies were associated with severe scintigraphic involvement, positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement, anaemia, leukopenia and RF. A statistical correlation was found between anti-Ro52 titers and age, gammaglobulin levels, RF titers and serum IgA and IgG. Patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA and anti-Ro52 antibodies had a higher frequency of positive salivary gland biopsy, parotid enlargement and positive RF, and higher levels of serum IgG and IgA levels in comparison with patients with positive anti-Ro/SSA but negative anti-Ro52 antibodies.",
"To identify serologic markers of salivary gland disease activity in 43 patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Comparison of salivary gland biopsies (focus scores) and flow rates with serum concentrations of IgA and IgM rheumatoid factor (RF), total serum IgG, serum anti-SS-B/La antibodies, and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Serum anti-SS-B/La antibody levels correlated with focus scores (rs = 0.477, P < 0.0025). Serum IgA-RF concentrations correlated inversely with stimulated parotid gland salivary flow rates (rs = -0.394, P < 0.01).",
"Prospectively collected computer database information was previously assessed on a cohort of 300 patients who fulfilled the Copenhagen classification criteria for primary Sjögren's syndrome. Analysis of the clinical data showed that patients who smoked had a decreased lower lip salivary gland focus score (p<0.05). The aim of this original report is to describe the tobacco habits in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only and to determine if there is a correlation between smoking habits and focus score in lower lip biopsies as well as ciculating autoantibodies and IgG. All living patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome or stomatitis sicca only, who were still in contact with the Sjögren's Syndrome Research Centre were asked to fill in a detailed questionnaire concerning present and past smoking habits, which was compared with smoking habits in a sex and age matched control group (n=3700) from the general population. In addition, the patients previous lower lip biopsies were blindly re-evaluated and divided by the presence of focus score (focus score = number of lymphocyte foci per 4 mm(2) glandular tissue) into those being normal (focus score</= 1) or abnormal (focus score>1). Furthermore the cohort was divided into three groups; 10-45, 46-60 and>/= 61 years of age. Finally the focus score was related to the smoking habits. Seroimmunological (ANA; anti-SSA/Ro antibodies; anti-SSB/La antibodies; IgM-RF and IgG) samples were analysed routinely. The questionnaire was answered by 98% (n=355) of the cohort and the percentage of current smokers, former smokers and historical non-smokers at the time of lower lip biopsy was not statistically different from that of the control group. Cigarette smoking at the time of lower lip biopsy is associated with lower risk of abnormal focus score (p<0.001; odds ratio 0.29, 95%CI 0.16 to 0.50). The odds ratio for having focal sialadenitis (focus score>1) compared with having a non-focal sialadenitis or normal biopsy (focus score</= 1) was decreased in all three age groups (10-45: odds ratio 0.27, 95%CI 0.11 to 0.71; 46-60: odds ratio 0.22, 95%CI 0. 08 to 0.59; and>/= 61: odds ratio 0.36, 95%CI 0.10 to 1.43) although there was only statistical significance in the two younger age groups. Moreover, among current smokers at the time of the lower lip biopsy there was a decreasing odds ratio for an abnormal lip focus score with increasing number of cigarettes smoked per week (p trend 0.00). In the group of former smokers, which included patients that had stopped smoking up to 30 years ago, the results were in between those of the smokers and the historical non-smokers (odds ratio 0.57, 95%CI 0.34 to 0.97, compared with never smokers). Present or past smoking did not correlate with the function of the salivary glands as judged by unstimulated whole sialometry, stimulated whole sialometry or salivary gland scintigraphy. Among former smokers, the median time lapse between the first symptom of primary Sjögren's syndrome and the performance of the lower lip biopsy was approximately half as long as the median time lapse between smoking cessation and biopsy (8 versus 15 years). Hence, symptoms of Sjögren's syndrome are unlikely to have had a significant influence on smoking habits at the time of the biopsy. Among the seroimmunological results only anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La antibodies reached statistical significance in a manner similar to the way smoking influenced the focus score in lower lip biopsies. On the other hand the level of significance was consistently more pronounced for the influence of smoking on the focus score than for the influence on anti-SSA/Ro and anti-SSB/La autoantibodies.",
"This is believed to be the first report showing that cigarette smoking is negatively associated with focal sialadenitis-focus score>1-in lower lip biopsy in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome. Furthermore, tobacco seems to decrea"
] | 128 |
Is routine procaine spirit application necessary in the care of episiotomy wound? | [
"A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day.",
"It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound."
] | [
"yes. Preincisional administration of epidural lidocaine and fentanyl was associated with a significantly lower rate of morphine use, lower cumulative morphine consumption, and reduced hyperalgesia compared with a sham epidural condition. These results highlight the importance of including a standard treatment control group to avoid the problems of interpretation that arise when two-group studies of preemptive analgesia (preincisional vs. postsurgery) fail to find the anticipated effects.",
"The purpose of this study was to determine if anesthesia with neuromuscular blockade alters the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POP-Q) examination. A prospective, multi-center trial was conducted of women undergoing pelvic surgery. A POP-Q examination performed pre-operatively was compared with an examination performed intra-operatively under neuromuscular blockade. For the latter examination, an Allis clamp was used to apply gentle traction until the point being examined did not undergo further descent. International Continence Society (ICS) stages and individual POP-Q points were compared using a paired sample t test. A sample size of 32 provided 80% power to detect a clinically significant difference between office and operating room measurements (Sample Power, SPSS, 1997). Of 153 women, 76% received general endotracheal anesthesia and 21% laryngeal mask airway. With an increase of 3 cm, the apical compartment was significantly more prolapsed in the operating room (OR; p<0.05); however, a comparison of the mean values demonstrated a larger change in means for all points except total vaginal length. When separated into anterior, apical, and posterior compartments, the ICS stages were systematically different in the OR than in the office for all stages (p<0.0005).",
"To compare the effectiveness of acetaminophen versus acetaminophen-plus-honey following pediatric tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Prospective, randomized, and placebo controlled clinical trial. Tertiary care facility in Ankara, Turkey. Sixty consecutive tonsillectomy patients randomized to two groups. The acetaminophen group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen and placebo, acetaminophen-plus-honey group was treated with antibiotics (amoxicillin-clavulonic acid), acetaminophen, and honey. Visual analogue scale (VAS) was applied for subjective assessment of postoperative pains, while the number of painkillers taken daily and awakening at night due to pain were used for objective assessment. The amount of epithelization was used for assessment of tonsillary fossa recovery. The difference between acetaminophen and acetaminophen-plus-honey groups was statistically significant both in terms of VAS and number of painkillers taken within the first 2 postoperative days (p<0.001). Although there was no statistically significant difference between groups regarding the VAS scores on the 3rd postoperative day and after, the number of painkillers taken differed significantly until the 8th postoperative day (p<0.001 for first 7 postoperative days; p=0.003 for 8th day). No significant difference was found between groups regarding the number of awakening at night (p=0.36). Tonsillary fossa epithelization was more rapid in the acetaminophen-plus-honey group (p<0.001).",
"no. There was no difference in hourly bupivacaine consumption in parturients with prior lumbar discectomy surgery undergoing neuraxial labor analgesia in comparison with controls. Time to placement of the epidural catheter was not different either, but more interspaces were attempted in the discectomy group. Our findings suggest that standard clinical neuraxial analgesic methods are effective in women with discectomy surgery.",
"Uterus-specific synthetic Prostaglandin analogues (gemeprost, sulproston etc.) have been widely employed for termination of pregnancy in the second trimester. Since paracervical anaesthesia may be useful during this procedure, we investigated in this prospective randomised study its impact on the clinical course of abortion and pain especially in the late first and second stage of labour. 20 women scheduled for elective abortion (fetal reasons) between the 16th and 23rd week of gestation were to be given 1 mg gemeprost vaginally every 6 hours. They were allocated at random: 10 women received only Pethidin intravenously and Butylscopolamine rectally, another 10 women were additionally treated by paracervical anaesthesia (2 x 10 ml 0.5% Bupivacain solution) at a cervical dilatation of 2-3 cm. A median of 3 gemeprost applications were administered in both groups. In the group without paracervical anaesthesia the median induction to abortion interval was 20 hours (range: 8-44 hours), 13 hours (range: 8-36 hours, NS) resulting for the paracervical anaesthesia group. The intervals from the last application of prostaglandin until abortion and from 3 cm cervical dilatation to abortion were slightly, but not significantly shorter in the paracervical anaesthesia group. The requirement of Butylscopolamine was higher in the latter group (p<0.05). The requirement of Pethidin and the intensity of pain (measured by pain scale according to Huskisson) especially in the late first stage of labour were not statistically different between both groups. Side effects of paracervical anaesthesia did not occur.",
"Prevention of post-spinal hypotension in obstetric patients can be accomplished using intravenous fluid expansion and prophylactic use of sympathomimetic drugs. The affect of combination of colloids and phenylephrine infusion on maternal hemodynamics has not been widely studied and there is no consensus about the dosage required and time of starting its administration. This prospective, randomized, double-blind study enrolled 90 healthy term parturients undergoing elective Cesarean delivery under lumbar subarachnoid block (0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 10 mg with fentanyl 25 μg). Patients in Group A received prophylactic intravenous phenylephrine infusion (60 μg/minute) along with hydroxyl-ethyl-starch cohydration (6% HES 130/0.42;15 ml/kg) immediately after subarachnoid block. In Group B, patients received 6% HES cohydration and intermittent intravenous 50 μg boluses of phenylephrine. The efficacy of these in maintaining maternal SBP at 90-110% of baseline and neonatal well-being was evaluated. In Group B, 75.5% of patients required rescue phenylephrine boluses to maintain SBP while maternal hemodynamics were well maintained in Group A and rescue drug was not needed. Reactive hypertension occurred in one patient (2.2%) and bradycardia in two patients (4.4%) in Group A. Six patients complained of nausea in Group B (13.3%) compared to one in Group A. All the newborns had normal Apgar scores and Umbilical arterial pH > 7.2.",
"These data suggest that transcervical revision of previous cesarean uterine scar should be performed only in symptomatic patients (persistent suprapubic pain, placental retention, excessive bleeding during labor or delivery) or when risk factors are present (prolonged labor, prolonged expulsive efforts, instrumental extraction).",
"To assess the effectiveness of postoperatively applied pharmacological prophylaxis and the impact of demographic parameters (age, height, weight), gestational age, parturients' morbidity (hypertension, motion sickness), postoperative fluid resuscitation, applied anaesthetic technique (spinal needle type and diameter, patient's positioning, choice of intervertebral space for puncturing dura, a dose of local anaesthetic) on the incidence of PDPH after spinal anaesthesia for Caesarean section. There were analyzed 182 mothers who delivered by Caesarean section under spinal anaesthesia. Postoperative management included fluid administration 2500 ml daily and i.v. antibiotic prophylaxis (control group, n = 560). The consecutive groups of patients were administered antibiotic and fluids in dose as mentioned above, and additionally oral caffeine 3 x 200 mg (n = 40); caffeine plus magnesium 2 x 1 g daily i.v. (n = 42) or caffeine plus magnesium plus aminophylline 250 mg i.v. once daily (n = 40). Incidence of PDPH was analyzed in all the groups of patients. The incidence of PDPH was lower after usage of thin spinal needles (Spinokan 27G), but statistical significance was p = 0.07. The other analyzed factors did not affect the incidence of PDPH. None of the applied pharmacoprophylactic methods appeared to be efficacious. The volume of administered within 18 hours postoperatively crystalloids was larger in the group of patients with multifactorial pharmacoprophylaxis (p = 0.04), probably due vasodilatation caused by synergistic effect of magnesium and aminophylline; explanation of this phenomenon is arguable, however.",
"Antenatal use of the Epi-No(®) device is unlikely to be clinically beneficial in the prevention of intrapartum levator ani damage, or anal sphincter and perineal trauma.",
"Most women will sustain some degree of trauma to the genital tract after vaginal birth. This study aimed to examine the association between maternal position at birth and perineal outcome in women who had a midwife-attended, spontaneous vaginal birth and an uncomplicated pregnancy at term. Data from 3,756 births in a major public tertiary teaching hospital were eligible for analysis. The need for sutures in perineal trauma was evaluated and compared for each major factor studied (maternal age, first vaginal delivery, induction of labor, not occipitoanterior, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head and newborn birthweight>3,500 g). Birth positions were compared against each other. Subgroup analysis determined whether birth positions mattered more or less in each of the major factors studied. The chi-square test was used to compare categorical variables. Most women (65.9%) gave birth in the semi-recumbent position. Of the 1,679 women (44.5%) who required perineal suturing, semi-recumbent position was associated with the need for perineal sutures, whereas all-fours was associated with reduced need for sutures; these associations were more marked in first vaginal births and newborn birth weight over 3,500 g. When regional anesthesia was used, semi-recumbent position was associated with a need for suturing, and lateral position associated with a reduced need for suturing. The four major factors significantly related to perineal trauma included first vaginal birth, use of regional anesthesia, deflexed head, and newborn weight more than 3,500 g.",
"In a previous prospective randomized trial, we showed that local anesthetic infusion using a preperitoneal catheter is an effective postoperative analgesic method following colorectal resections. Over time, we have improved the technique of preperitoneal catheter analgesia. In this prospective cohort study, we report the results of 100 consecutive patients who underwent colorectal resections. Preperitoneal catheter analgesia was performed via a multihole catheter placed in the preperitoneal space using 10 mL 0.5% levobupivacaine every 4 hours following the operation for the first 3 days. Additional analgesics were used whenever necessary. Postoperative pain was assessed with the visual analog scale score. Short-term clinical outcomes, such as need for systemic analgesics, time to first gas and stool discharge, length of hospital stay, and morbidity, particularly surgical site infections, were reported. From May 2009 to May 2010, 100 consecutive patients were recruited in the study. A total of 83 patients were operated on for malignancy, and the tumor was located in the rectum in 52 patients and in the colon in 31 patients. The median pain score was 4 (0-6), 3 (0-9), 2 (0-8), 1 (0-8), 1 (0-6), 0 (0-6), and 0 (0-3) at postoperative hours 0, 1, 4, 12, 24, 48, and 72, respectively. Additional analgesics were required in 34 patients: 21 of them required only nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and 13 patients needed opioids additionally. The median amounts of opioid analgesics and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs were 1.76±0.78 mg and 6.70±1.18 mg, respectively. However, almost all of the additional analgesics were given in the first 24 hours. Surgical site infections were detected in eight patients.",
"Polyhexamethylene biguanide (PHMB)-based antiseptic solutions can reduce bacterial loads in different clinical settings and are believed to lower risk of infections. We sought to assess the efficacy of a PHMB-based solution in lowering bacterial loads of full-thickness skin grafting wounds and the risk of surgical site infections (SSIs). In this double-blinded clinical trial, 40 patients planned for facial full-thickness skin grafting were randomized 1:1 to receive tie-over dressings soaked with either PHMB-based solution or sterile water. Quantitative and qualitative bacterial analysis was performed on all wounds before surgery, at the end of surgery, and 7 days postoperatively. In addition, all patients were screened for nasal colonization of Staphylococcus aureus. Analysis of wounds showed no statistically significant difference in bacterial reductions between the groups. The SSI rates were significantly higher in the intervention group (8/20) than in the control group (2/20) (P = .028). Higher postoperative bacterial loads were a common finding in SSIs (P = .011). This was more frequent when S aureus was present postoperatively (P = .034), intraoperatively (P = .03), and in patients with intranasal S aureus colonization (P = .007). Assessment of SSIs is largely subjective. In addition, this was a single-center study and the total number of participants was 40.",
"Prilocaine infiltration alone can be used for analgesic purposes efficiently and safely during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy with minimal morbidity.",
"Topical amethocaine provides effective pain relief during venepuncture in children, and has been shown to have a local anaesthetic action in the newborn.AIM: To investigate the effect of topical amethocaine on the pain of venepuncture in the newborn. Randomised double blind placebo controlled trial. Forty newborn infants, gestation 27-41 weeks (median 33), age 2-17 days (median 7), undergoing routine venepuncture. A 1.5 g portion of 4% (w/w) amethocaine gel (Ametop; Smith and Nephew, Hull, UK) or placebo was applied to the skin under occlusion for one hour, then wiped away. Venepuncture was performed five minutes later. Facial reaction and cry were recorded on videotape. Pain was assessed using a validated adaptation of the neonatal facial coding system. Five features were scored at one second intervals for five seconds before and after venepuncture. No or minimal pain was defined as a cumulative score of below 10 (out of 25) in the five seconds after needle insertion. Each author scored the tapes independently. There was close agreement on scoring of the tapes. One infant was excluded because of restlessness before the venepuncture. Of 19 amethocaine treated infants, 16 (84%) showed little or no pain compared with six of 20 (30%) in the placebo group (p = 0.001). The median cumulative neonatal facial coding system score over five seconds after needle insertion was 3 compared with 16 in the placebo group (p = 0.001). Of the 19 amethocaine treated infants, 15 (79%) did not cry compared with five of 20 (25%) placebo treated infants (p = 0.001). No local reaction to amethocaine was seen.",
"To see if a eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics (EMLA) could be used effectively for the release of preputial adhesions as a day case procedure. A total of 36 consecutive symptomatic children had their preputial adhesions separated under local anaesthetic with EMLA. The procedure was successful in 27 children. Of these, 16 remained symptom free at 9 to 12 months follow up although five children had slight recurrence of adhesions. The other 11 children were listed for circumcision at 2 weeks following the procedure because of marked recurrence of adhesions.",
"yes. In this randomized phase II study, application of a single defocused shock wave treatment to the superficial second-degree burn wound after debridement/topical antiseptic therapy significantly accelerated epithelialization. This finding warrants confirmation in a larger phase III trial (ClinicalTrials.gov identifier: NCT01242423).",
"yes. Daily application of ciprofloxacin otologic solution at the exit site of PD patients with polyurethane catheters inserted significantly reduces the rate of ESI caused by S. aureus and other organisms, particularly P. aeruginosa.",
"no. The results of this study suggest that the use of a background infusion with PCEA during labor leads to a greater consumption of anesthetic solution without improving comfort and satisfaction of parturients. Moreover, not using a background infusion does not provide an increased incidence of supplemental boluses (which might cause problems in a busy unit) and allows for a substantial reduction in the cost of analgesia.",
"To examine the necessity of routine cervical dilatation during elective cesarean delivery (ECD). A retrospective cohort study including all ECD during 2005 was performed, comparing post operative complications between patients with and without cervical dilatation. Out of 666 ECD, 348 underwent routine cervical dilatation. No significant differences were found between the cervical dilatation and the comparison group regarding postpartum febrile morbidity (5.1 and 3.1%, respectively; p = 0.071), hospitalisation duration (4.1 +/- 1.4 and 4.1 +/- 2.0 days; p = 0.95), wound infection (0.9% and 1.25%, p = 0.451) or anemia rate (9.50 +/- 0.73 and 9.54 +/- 0.65, p = 0.91). Nevertheless, among patients following a previous vaginal delivery, cervical dilatation was significantly associated with post-operative fever (OR = 5.8; 95%CI 1.2-38.0; p = 0.021).",
"To evaluate the medium-term effect of epidural analgesia (EA) on the possible onset of postpartum urinary incontinence (PUI). We performed a single-centre, retrospective case-control study. At 8-week postpartum, we recruited a cohort of women who had term singleton pregnancy and foetus in cephalic presentation, and divided in six groups: (1) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, without EA; (2) vaginal delivery without episiotomy, with EA; (3) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, without EA; (4) vaginal delivery with episiotomy, with EA; (5) emergency caesarean section without previous EA during labour and (6) emergency caesarean section with previous EA during labour. For each woman, we recorded age, Body Mass Index (BMI) and the result of the following questionnaire for urinary incontinence: International Consultation on Incontinence Questionnaire Short Form (ICIQ-SF), Incontinence Impact Questionnaire-7 (IIQ-7) and Urogenital Distress Inventory-6 (UDI-6). Subsequently, we compared group 1 versus group 2, group 3 versus group 4 and group 5 versus group 6. We did not evidence any significant difference for age, BMI and incontinence scores between groups 1 and 2, 3 and 4, and 5 and 6.",
"yes. Local anesthetic wound irrigation is often used to treat postoperative surgical pain. Large concentrations of local anesthetics are usually used, and these concentrations may have possible neurotoxic and myotoxic effects. Our results demonstrate antiinflammatory effects of lidocaine and bupivacaine at concentrations smaller than used clinically.",
"In patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria undergoing hip arthroplasty, the risk of prosthetic joint infection (PJI) and appropriateness of specific antibiotics are unclear.QUESTIONS/ We determined (1) the prevalence of asymptomatic bacteriuria; and (2) the incidence of PJI in patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria managed with or without specific antibiotics. We conducted a prospective, randomized study of all 471 patients without urinary symptoms receiving a total hip arthroplasty (THA; n = 228; average age 68 years; 122 female) or hemiarthroplasty (HA; n = 243; average age 85 years; 170 female) between April 2009 and November 2010. No patients were catheterized in the perioperative period and all received intravenous cefazolin (allergy, vancomycin) for 48 hours postoperatively. Urinalysis was conducted on all patients; if abnormal, a urine culture was performed. Patients with bacteriuria (>100,000 colonies/mL cultured) were randomly assigned to receive specific antibiotics (Group A) or not (Group B). Minimum followup was 1 month including those six who died or were lost to followup (average, 10.4 months; range, 1-12 months). Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurred in eight of 228 patients undergoing THAs (three of eight with specific antibiotics) and 38 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (23 of 38 with specific antibiotics). Arthroplasty infection after 3 months occurred in one of 228 patients undergoing THAs and 12 of 243 patients undergoing HAs (six of 117 in Group A and six of 126 in Group B); bacteria cultured from the wound were dissimilar to those cultured in urine samples in any case. No patient presented signs of PJI by 1 year after the index surgery.",
"To evaluate the effects of peritonsillar injection of levobupivacaine with epinephrine in children undergoing adenotonsillectomy, through an intraindividual study. 20 children (age 6-13 years) undergoing elective tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy were enrolled in this prospective, randomized, intraindividual trial. After entubation and just prior to incision, 3 ml of 0.25% levobupivacaine with epinephrine was injected into one peritonsillar region while 0.9% saline was being used for the contralateral side. Amount of intraoperative blood loss, duration of tonsillectomy, postoperative pain, otalgia and hemorrhage were assessed for each side separately. Visual analog scale was used for postoperative pain assessment. Heart rate and mean arterial pressure during and after operation were also observed. The follow-up period after surgery was 10 days. Median visual analog scale values for the levobupivacaine with epinephrine injected side was significantly lower than the saline injected side, during the first postoperative 16h (p<0.05). There were also significant differences between the intraoperative blood losses of the two sides (p<0.05). However; no significant differences were observed with respect to duration of surgery, postoperative otalgia and hemorrhage (p>0.05).",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the postoperative morphine-sparing effects and reduction in pain and secondary mechanical hyperalgesia after preincisional or postincisional epidural administration of a local anesthetic and an opioid compared with a sham epidural control. Patients undergoing major gynecologic surgery by laparotomy were randomly assigned to three groups and studied in a double-blinded manner. Group 1 received epidural lidocaine and fentanyl before incision and epidural saline 40 min after incision. Group 2 received epidural saline before incision and epidural lidocaine and fentanyl 40 min after incision. Group 3 received a sham epidural control (with saline injected into a catheter taped to the back) before and 40 min after incision. All patients underwent surgery with general anesthesia. One hundred forty-one patients completed the study (group 1, n = 45; group 2, n = 49; group 3, n = 47). Cumulative patient-controlled analgesia morphine consumption at 48 h was significantly lower (P = 0.04) in group 1 (89.8 +/- 43.3 mg) than group 3 (112.5 +/- 71.5 mg) but not group 2 (95.4 +/- 60.2 mg), although the hourly rate of morphine consumption between 24 and 48 h after surgery was significantly lower (P < 0.0009) in group 1 (1.25 +/- 0.02 mg/h) than group 2 (1.41 +/- 0.02 mg/h). Twenty-four hours after surgery, the visual analog scale pain score on movement was significantly less intense (P = 0.005) in group 1 (4.9 +/- 2.2 cm) than group 3 (6.0 +/- 2.6 cm) but not group 2 (5.3 +/- 2.5 cm), and the von Frey pain threshold near the wound was significantly higher (P = 0.03) in group 1 (6.4 +/- 0.6 log mg) than in group 3 (6.1 +/- 0.8 log mg) but not group 2 (6.2 +/- 0.7 log mg).",
"To evaluate the analgesic effect and utility of prilocaine infiltration alone for minimal morbidity during extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy. A total of 114 patients with kidney stones, aged 18 to 69 years, were randomly separated into two groups. The 58 patients in group 1 received intramuscular diclophenac 30 minutes before extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, and the 56 patients in group 2 received prilocaine infiltration into the 30 cm2 area below the 12th rib right before the session. A visual analog scale (0 to 100 mm) was used to evaluate pain. The visual analog scale scores for group 2 were statistically lower at 1, 10, and 20 minutes compared with the scores for group 1 (P = 0.006, P = 0.005, and P = 0.006, respectively). However, no difference was detected at the end of the procedure. The requirement for additional analgesic was less in group 2 (P = 0.007).",
"This study was conducted to estimate the incidence and clinical predictors of post-thoracotomy shoulder pain and to determine the effectiveness of thoracic epidural block in alleviating this pain. A prospective clinical trial. University teaching hospital. Thirty-two adult patients undergoing elective thoracic surgery consented to participate in the study. All operations were open thoracotomies done by the same team of surgeons and anesthesiologists. A thoracic (T6) epidural catheter was placed before induction of general anesthesia. Each patient received 7 mL of lidocaine 2% epidurally and repeated doses of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% every half hour during the operation. Postoperatively, the occurrence of incision or ipsilateral shoulder pain was observed and treated with a maximal dose of 5 mL of lidocaine 2%. If ineffective, indomethacin suppository (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug [NSAID]) was given. Variables such as patient's age, sex, American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status, type, site and duration of surgery, duration of anesthesia, the resection of main bronchus, and the use of thoracostomy tubes were recorded. Postoperatively, 10 patients (31%) had shoulder pain, 4 patients (12.5%) complained of incision pain, and 2 (6.3%) complained of both incision and shoulder pain. A bolus of 5 mL of lidocaine 2% in the epidural catheter relieved incision pain in all the patients, but was ineffective for shoulder pain. Indomethacin suppository was effective in these patients. No correlation was found between any variable and the occurrence of shoulder pain.",
"As a broader definition of preemptive analgesia, preventive analgesia aims to prevent the sensitization of central nervous system, hence the development of pathologic pain after tissular injury. To demonstrate benefits from preventive treatment, objective measurement of postoperative pain such as wound hyperalgesia and persistent pain should be evaluated. The current study assessed the role and timing of epidural analgesia in this context. In a randomized, double-blinded trial, 85 patients scheduled to undergo neoplastic colonic resection were included. All the patients received a thoracic epidural catheter, systemic ketamine at a antihyperalgesic dose, and general anesthesia. Continuous infusion of analgesics belonging to the same class was administered by either intravenous or epidural route before incision until 72 h after surgery. Patients were allocated to four groups to receive intraoperative intravenous lidocaine-sufentanil-clonidine or epidural bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine followed postoperatively by either intravenous (lidocaine-morphine-clonidine) or epidural (bupivacaine-sufentanil-clonidine) patient-controlled analgesia. Postoperative pain scores (visual analog scale), analgesic consumption, wound area of punctuate hyperalgesia, residual pain, and analgesics needed from 2 weeks until 12 months were recorded. Analgesic requirements, visual analog scale scores, and area of hyperalgesia were significantly higher in the intravenous treatment group (intravenous-intravenous), and more patients reported residual pain from 2 weeks until 1 yr (28%). Although postoperative pain measurements did not differ, postoperative epidural treatment (intravenous-epidural) was less effective to prevent residual pain at 1 yr (11%; P = 0.2 with intravenous-intravenous group) than intraoperative one (epidural-epidural and epidural-intravenous groups) (0%; P = 0.01 with intravenous-intravenous group).",
"yes. vaginal bilateral cervical lips suture can prevent intrauterine balloon prolapse, which may be a useful adjunct to intrauterine balloon tamponade in management of postpartum hemorrhage.",
"Women experienced slightly more second-degree tears when residents were involved in their deliveries. The increased number of second-degree tears might be because of residents' limited experience in providing intrapartum care. More important, there was no increase in other serious perineal trauma or episiotomy when residents provided supervised intrapartum care. This should reassure women and family practice obstetricians who choose to receive and provide obstetric care in a family practice teaching unit. The increase in rates of epidural use and cesarean sections and the decrease in rates of vacuum-assisted births reflect obstetric trends in Canada over the past decade.",
"To investigate whether episiotomy is associated with avulsion of the levator ani in its pubic insertion after normal vaginal delivery. This is an observational study at a tertiary obstetric unit recruited 194 primiparous women who had normal vaginal delivery with or without episiotomy. All women underwent translabial 4D ultrasound scanning after delivery. Tomographic ultrasound imaging was used to diagnose levator avulsion. Lesions were recorded as unilateral or bilateral. The investigators were blinded to all clinical data. The influence of other variables associated with delivery such as maternal age, body mass index, gestational age, birth weight, fetal head circumference, and use of epidural anesthesia was recorded and their relation with avulsion was also studied. Avulsion was identified in eleven (10.9%) of the 101 women with episiotomy and in fourteen (15.1%) of the 93 women without. The difference was not statistically significant (P = 0.401). Other variables showed no influence on the prevalence of avulsion.",
"Does local injection with lidocaine plus epinephrine prior to vaginal reconstructive surgery with synthetic mesh affect exposure rates? A retrospective comparison. To determine if local injection, prior to incision with lidocaine plus epinephrine (L + E) influences the rate of mesh exposure in the early postoperative period following synthetic mesh augmented vaginal reconstructive surgery (MAVR). We performed a chart review over an 18-month period of patients who underwent MAVR. The presence of mesh exposure at the 3-month postoperative visit, demographic data and whether or not L + E was used to hydrodissect was recorded. Statistical analysis was performed to determine whether hydrodissection influenced erosion rates. A total of 143 meshes were placed, hydrodissection with L + E was used in 78 cases and was not in the remaining 65 cases. There were 10 (7.0% 10/143) total erosions at the 3-month postoperative visit, 6 (7.7%; 6/78) in the group that got L + E and 4 (6.2%; 4/65) in the group that did not get local injection. This difference was not significant (p = 0.740, OR 1.54 95% CI 0.41-5.76). There was no difference between the two groups in terms of age, presence of diabetes, concurrent incontinence repair or estimated blood loss.",
"To determine the carriage rate of enterococcus in the lower genital tract of women having a cesarean delivery and to determine whether a single 2-g intraoperative dose of ampicillin eradicates enterococcus from the lower genital tract. Lower genital tract cultures were taken in 84 women who were in labor or had ruptured membranes and who were about to have an indicated cesarean delivery. The subjects were randomized to receive either a single 2-g dose of ampicillin or a cephalosporin as prophylaxis. Cultures were repeated 24 hours postpartum. Enterococcus was isolated preoperatively in 33 subjects (39.3%) and postoperatively in 36 (42.9%). The enterococcus was eradicated in five of 17 women (29.5%) who received ampicillin.",
"To evaluate the effects of not forming a bladder flap at lower-segment cesarean delivery. A total of 102 women who underwent cesarean delivery were prospectively randomized to one of two groups. In the study group (n = 53), a cesarean was performed without formation of a bladder flap. In the control group (n = 49), cesarean was performed with formation of a bladder flap before the uterine incision. There were differences of median skin incision-delivery interval (5 versus 7 minutes, P<.001), median total operating time (35 versus 40 minutes, P =.004), and median blood loss (Delta hemoglobin 0.5 versus 1 g/dL, P =.009) in favor of the study group. Postoperative microhematuria was reduced in the study group (21% versus 47%, P<.01). The median need for analgesics was reduced in the study group (75.0 mg diclofenac versus 150.0 mg, P<.001), and there was a lower percentage of patients receiving analgesics 2 or more days after cesarean in the study group (26.4% versus 55.1%, P =.006). There was no difference in bowel function.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of oral sucrose combined with non-nutritive sucking for reducing pain associated with retinopathy of prematurity screening. This was a randomised controlled study of 64 infants undergoing eye examination for retinopathy of prematurity screening. Topical anaesthetic (Proparacaine; Alcaine(®) drop 0.5%: ALCON CANADA Inc., Mississauga, Canada) was applied 30 sec before the eye examination in all infants. The infants in intervention group (Group 1, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of 24% sucrose with a pacifier. The control group (Group 2, n = 32) received 0.5 mL/kg of sterile water with a pacifier. The groups had similar gestational ages (28.5 ± 2.8 weeks), mean birthweight (1304 ± 466 g) or corrected gestational age (35.4 ± 3.7 weeks) at examination. The intervention group had a significantly lower mean Premature Infant Pain Profile score during examination of the first eye, following insertion of the speculum (Group 1:13.7 ± 2.1 vs. Group 2:16.4 ± 1.8, p = 0.001).",
"Mediolateral episiotomy is associated with lower rates of significant perineal tears than midline episiotomy. However, the relationship between precise angle of episiotomy from the perineal midline and risk of third-degree tear has not been established. This study quantifies this relationship. Case-control study. National Maternity Hospital, Dublin, Ireland. One hundred primiparous women who had undergone right mediolateral episiotomy 3 months previously. Two groups of primiparous women were compared. Cases had sustained clinically apparent anal sphincter injury during delivery, while controls had not. The angle of episiotomy measured from the midline was marked on a superimposed sheet of transparent plastic film and measured using a protractor. Data were analysed using Student's t test, chi-square test and logistic regression analysis. Angle of mediolateral episiotomy from the perineal midline. Fifty-four cases and 46 controls were assessed. Cases were more likely to have undergone assisted delivery and consequently to have been delivered by an obstetrician than by a midwife. The mean angle of episiotomy measured significantly smaller in cases (30 degrees, 95% CI 28-32 degrees) than in controls (38 degrees, 95% CI 35-41 degrees; P<0.001). Analysis showed a 50% relative reduction in risk of sustaining third-degree tear for every 6 degrees away from the perineal midline that an episiotomy was cut.",
"Vaginal birth after a prior low transverse caesarean section (VBAC) is advocated as a safe and effective method to reduce the total caesarean section rate. However, the risk of uterine rupture has dampened the enthusiasm of practising clinicians for VBAC. Uterine rupture occurs more frequently in women receiving prostaglandins in preparation for the induction of labour. We hypothesised that similar to the cervix, prostaglandins induces biochemical changes in the uterine scar favouring dissolution, predisposing the uterus to rupture at the scar of the lower segment as opposed to elsewhere. We tested aspects of this hypothesis by investigating the location of uterine rupture associated with prostaglandins and compared it with the sites of rupture in the absence of prostaglandins. Two North American University Hospitals. Twenty-six women with a prior caesarean section, experiencing uterine rupture in active labour. Retrospective review of all pregnancies complicated by uterine rupture at two North American teaching hospitals from 1991 to 2000. Site of the uterine rupture. Thirty-four women experienced rupture after a previous caesarean section with low transverse uterine incision. Ten of the women who ruptured (29%) received prostaglandins for cervical ripening (dinoprostone: n= 8 or misoprostol: n= 2) followed by either spontaneous contractions (n= 3) or oxytocin augmentation during labour (n= 7). In 16 women (47%), oxytocin alone was sufficient for the induction/augmentation of labour. Eight (23%) women ruptured at term before reaching the active phase of labour in the absence of pro-contractile agents or attempted VBAC. There were no differences among the groups in terms of age, body mass index, parity, gestational age, fetal weight or umbilical cord pH measurements. Women treated with prostaglandins experienced rupture at the site of their old scar more frequently than women in the oxytocin-alone group whose rupture tended to occur remote from their old scar (prostaglandins 90%vs oxytocin 44%; OR: 11.6, 95% CI: 1.2-114.3).",
"EMLA cream (AstraZeneca Inc, Canada) (1:1 eutectic mixture of lidocaine 2.5% and prilocaine 2.5%) has traditionally been used for topical anesthesia of the skin. Recent reports of EMLA's use for anesthesia of the oral mucosa suggest an application in topical anesthesia for bronchoscopy. To evaluate the amount of local anesthetic administered during bronchoscopy; to assess the time required to obtain topical anesthesia; to assess the quality of the topical anesthesia as described by bronchoscopists; and to document any complications. Fifty-seven unpremedicated patients had 4 mL of EMLA cream applied to the posterior third of their tongues on arrival in the bronchoscopy suite. Liquid lidocaine was applied through the bronchoscope for laryngeal anesthesia. The mean time from the application of EMLA cream to insertion of the bronchoscope was 5.10+/-0.48 min. Fifty-six patients (98.2%) required no supplemental anesthesia. Bronchoscopy conditions were described as 'excellent' in 55 cases (96.5%) and 'good' in the remaining two cases (3.5%).",
"yes. This simple, low-cost umbilical vacuum dressing decreased the wound infection rate after SIPES appendectomy, possibly by absorbing secretions from the base of the wound. It may be equally effective for other indications.",
"Epidural patient-controlled analgesia (EPCA) with a mixture of low-concentration levobupivacaine (0.0625% or 0.1%) plus fentanyl, with basal infusion, has been extensively used for postoperative analgesia in our allied institutions. To elucidate whether these two EPCA regimens provide satisfactory analgesia, we compared the analgesia efficacy and incidence of drug-related side effects for both EPCA regimens with those of the most widely used postoperative analgesia regimen, intra-venous PCA (IVPCA) with morphine. Data collection was performed through retrospective chart review. A total of 335 patients who underwent colorectal surgery were included. Patients received IVPCA (n = 200), EPCA with 0.0625% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 45), or EPCA with 0.1% levobupivacaine/fentanyl (n = 90). The analgesia efficacy and side effects were compared. Pain scores with 0.0625% and 0.1% EPCA were significantly lower than those with IVPCA. Most patients were satisfied with their postoperative analgesia, and the satisfaction scores of these three groups were comparable. No patients developed respiratory depression or over-sedation. The incidence of nausea and vomiting was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (16.7% and 7.8%, respectively) compared with IVPCA (6.1% and 3.5%, respectively) and 0.0625% EPCA (9.3% and 2.3%, respectively). Moreover, the incidence of sensory and motor blockade was significantly higher with 0.1% EPCA (13.5% and 5.6%, respectively) than with 0.0625% EPCA (4.7% and 0%, respectively).",
"There is conflicting data in the literature regarding the risk of obstetric anal sphincter laceration in patients with a prior laceration. This retrospective chart review seeks to examine the risk of recurrence of obstetric anal sphincter lacerations. Patients who sustained anal sphincter laceration at delivery during a 13-year time period from January 1991 to December 2003 were identified from the medical records database at Temple University Hospital. All subsequent deliveries in this group of patients were extracted from the database. Chart review was performed on all subsequent deliveries with specific attention to demographic factors such as age, race, parity, etc., maternal weight, fetal weight, presence of maternal diabetes, and labor characteristics such as induction or augmentation of labor, instrumentation at delivery (vacuum or forceps), use of episiotomy, and degree of perineal laceration. There were 23 451 vaginal deliveries at Temple University Hospital between January 1, 1991 and December 31, 2003. Anal sphincter laceration was noted in 778 subjects. Subsequent deliveries among the group of patients with prior sphincter tears numbered 271. Six (2.4%) patients had recurrence of anal sphincter lacerations, and five of them were third degree lacerations. The rate of recurrent lacerations was not significantly different from the rate of initial lacerations (2.4% vs. 3.3%; odds ratio 0.72, 95% confidence interval 0.33-1.59; p = 0.4). Women who sustained recurrent lacerations were older, more obese (mean weight 92 kg vs. 82 kg), had larger babies (3506 g vs. 3227 g), and were more likely to have episiotomies (66.7% vs. 7%) or instrumental deliveries (33.3 vs. 6.5%).",
"To estimate whether variations in intrapartum management and complications exist with regard to the time of delivery within the academic year. The delivery records of 7814 patients were separated by both term half year and quarter. Statistical comparisons were made using chi2 tests of association (P<.05) with respect to the academic time of the year and perineal trauma (third- or fourth-degree tear), episiotomy usage, cesarean delivery, postpartum hemorrhage, chorioamnionitis, shoulder dystocia, neonatal intensive care unit admission, 1- or 5-minute Apgar scores less than 7, and low umbilical cord pH. There were 4082 deliveries in the first half and 3732 in the second half of the year from April 1996 through March 1999. The first half-year overall cesarean rate was higher (15.8% versus 14.3%, P<.03). Primary cesarean rates were similar. No other differences were found by term half year. More perineal trauma was noted in the fourth quarter (first 3.3%, second 4.5%, third 3.7%, fourth 5.5%, P<.037). Episiotomy usage was higher in both the first and fourth quarters (13.0%, 11.3%, 10.6%, and 14.8%, P<.002). More cases of chorioamnionitis occurred in the fourth quarter (first 3.4%, second 3.1%, third 2.6%, fourth 4.0%, P<.038, third versus fourth quarter). Chorioamnionitis occurred more frequently in July (July 5.0% versus August-June 3.1%, P<.005). There were no other clinically significant differences. Neonatal outcomes were not affected by academic time of year.",
"To determine whether perineal massage during the second stage of labor using oil enriched with vitamins, increases the chances of delivering with an intact perineum as compared to perineal massage using pure liquid wax. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study was conducted. Women were assigned to liquid wax (jojoba oil) versus purified formula of almond and olive oil, enriched with vitamin B1, B2, B6, E and fatty acids. The caregivers used the oils during the second stage of labor. A total of 164 women undergoing vaginal delivery were recruited. No significant differences regarding perineal lacerations, number of sutures and length of suturing were noted between the two groups. Likewise, while analyzing separately nulliparous and multiparous women, no significant differences were noted. Controlling for birth weight>4000 g, using the Mantel-Haenszel technique, no association was noted between perineal lacerations and the type of oil used (weighted OR = 0.9, 95% CI 0.3-2.4; p = 0.818).",
"Post-tonsillectomy pain is believed to be mediated by noxious stimulation of C-fiber afferents located in the peritonsillary space, and local anesthetic infiltration to this area may decrease pain by blocking the sensory pathways and thus preventing the nociceptive impulses. We aimed to compare the effects of different concentrations of preincisional peritonsillar levobupivacaine (0.25% and 0.5%) infiltration on postoperative pain and bleeding in a placebo-controlled design. After obtaining Institutional Ethics Committee approval, 72 ASA I-II patients between 3 and 12 years of age, scheduled to undergo tonsillectomy were enrolled and randomly assigned to one of the three groups using the sealed envelope technique, as Group I (Control group), Group II, and Group III receiving preincisional bilateral peritonsillar infiltration with saline, 0.25% levobupivacaine and 0.5% levobupivacaine, respectively (3 mL to each tonsil). Pain, fever, dysphagia; nausea-vomiting and hemorrhage were evaluated at postoperative 0, 30, and 60 minutes and 2, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Oral paracetamol was administered at a dose of 15 mg/kg when FLACC score was>4. The number of paracetamol administrations within the first 24 hours were recorded. The patients in Groups I, II and III defined pain (FLACC>4) at a rate of 87%, 60.9%, and 54.2% within the postoperative first 24 hours, respectively. The total number of additional analgesic requirements was significantly low in Group II and III when compared with Group I. There was no difference between groups in terms of fever, dysphagia, nausea-vomiting, hemorrhage.",
"yes. Pain relief was inadequate in patients undergoing postpartum tubal ligation under local anesthesia, even after the administration of IM morphine. Instilling lidocaine into the abdominal cavity, however, effectively decreased intraoperative pain in these patients.",
"We conducted a randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial to evaluate the effectiveness of intraperitoneal lidocaine, IM morphine, or both drugs together for pain relief in postpartum tubal ligation. Eighty postpartum patients scheduled to have tubal sterilization were randomly divided into four groups to receive IM isotonic sodium chloride solution (1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group P); IM morphine (10 mg in 1 mL) and intraperitoneal instillation of 80 mL of isotonic sodium chloride solution (Group M); IM injection of isotonic sodium chloride solution and intraperitoneal instillation of 0.5% lidocaine in 80 mL (Group L); and both IM morphine and intraperitoneal lidocaine instillation (Group ML). The minilaparotomy was performed after local infiltration with 15 mL of 1% lidocaine. A numerical rating score was used to rate pain on a 0-10 scale during the surgical procedures. The mean pain scores were 1.2 in Group L and 0.8 in Group ML. These pain scores were significantly lower than those in Groups P and M, which were 5.5 and 6.0, respectively (P < 0.001).",
"Episiotomy procedures during normal singleton vaginal term deliveries in Catalonia has decreased steadily since 2007. Study results show a stable incidence trend below 1% for severe perineal trauma over the study period.",
"To analyze the effects of epidural analgesia for labor when dystocia occurs. Retrospective cohort study. Academic health center. 641 low risk, nulliparous women in spontaneous labor. 406 (63%) women received epidurals analgesia and 253 (37%) did not. Sixty women (9.4%) required an abdominal delivery for dystocia. Women receiving epidural analgesia were more likely to be white, receive care from an attending physician, need labor augmentation, and deliver a heavier infant. Multivariate analysis identified five variables predictive of dystocia and abdominal delivery: pitocin augmentation odds ratio (O.R.) = 3.9 (2.0 to 7.6), duration of labor more than 20 hours O.R. = 2.4 (1.3 to 4.4), high epidural dose O.R. = 2.2 (1.2 to 4.1), birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.0 (1.0 to 4.2), and early placement of epidural O.R. = 1. 9 (1.0 to 3.5). Repeating the regression after excluding the 20 women who developed abnormal labor prior to epidural placement (18 of 20 women had protracted dilatation) demonstrated that pitocin augmentation O.R. = 4.0 (1.8 to 4.), high epidural dose O.R. = 3.0 (1.9 to 6.2), duration of labor greater than 20 hours O.R. = 2.7 (1.3 to 5.7), and birthweight over 4,000 grams O.R. = 2.1 (0. 9 to 4.8) were associated with dystocia.",
"The objective of this study was to explore the relation between the application of a mixture of lidocaine/prilocaine cream (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics [EMLA]) before intravenous cannula insertion and perceived pain in the pediatric patient. Double-blind placebo-controlled trial. A general inpatient pediatric ward. We examined 26 male and 31 female patients between the ages of 4 and 12 years who required intravenous cannula insertion. Intravenous insertion was performed on 57 patients, with 29 patients in the placebo group (mean age, 8.1 years) and 28 in the EMLA group (mean age, 8.0 years). Application of either EMLA cream or placebo 45 minutes before intravenous cannulation. Pain was scored by the patients using a 0- to 10-cm visual analogue scale combined with a Faces pain scale as well as visual observation by a nurse. Adverse side effects were recorded in a separate table. Data collected and the differences between the placebo and treated groups were tested using a Mann-Whitney U test. Those children in the EMLA group (mean pain score, 1.25) experienced less pain than those in the placebo group (mean, 8.39). There was no statistical significance between age, sex, and race.",
"To compare cesarean section (CS) using open or closed visceral peritoneum of the bladder flap (BF) in relation to fluid collection in vesico-uterine space (VUS) by ultrasound (US) and clinical outcome. A prospective cohort of repeat CS in 474 in advanced first and second stage of labor was studied. All women underwent a Misgav Ladach CS, in local combined anesthesia. These were divided into two groups by surgical management of the BF at the time of CS: Group I (n = 262), with visceral peritoneum left open and Group II (n = 212), with visceral peritoneum closed. An US check for the fluid collections in the VUS was done in the third post-operative day. The two groups were also clinically compared for: intra-operative estimated blood loss, the need for post-CS pain killers, febrile morbidity and duration of hospital stay. Visceral peritoneum (VP) closure resulted in a significant increase blood collections in the VUS (p<0.05). VP closure resulted in a significantly higher morbidity in all the following parameters. Rate of BFHs, post-operative fever, need for post-operative analgesia, require antibiotic administration and prolonged hospitalisation (p<0.05).",
"Preoperative oral acetaminophen (30 mg x kg(-1)) was compared with topical 2% lidocaine ear drops for postoperative analgesia following bilateral myringotomy and tube placement (BMT) in children. In a randomized, prospective, double-blind trial, we studied 124 patients, six months to eight years, ASA physical status I or II, undergoing elective BMT under general anesthesia. The patients in Group I received acetaminophen 30 mg x kg(-1) orally in a grape flavoured syrup 30 to 60 min before surgery and 0.9% saline drops (placebo) in each ear upon insertion of tympanostomy tube. Patients in Group II received a placebo (grape flavoured syrup) before surgery and 2% lidocaine, 0.5 mL in each ear when ear tubes were inserted. Postoperative pain assessments were recorded every five minutes in the postanesthesia care unit, and every 15 min in the day care surgical unit (DCSU) using the modified Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario pain scale (mCHEOPS), a ten-point scale. Pain at home was documented by parents using a 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain imaginable) scale. The median (range) mCHEOPS scores in the DCSU at 15 and 30 min were similar, i.e., 5 (4-9) in the acetaminophen group and 4 (4-8) in the lidocaine group. The proportion of patients receiving supplemental analgesics in the 24 hr following surgery was similar in both groups (45% and 42% respectively).",
"Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at operative vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 2041 consecutive operative vaginal deliveries and compared yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1984 and 1994 the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries fell significantly (93.4% to 35.7%, R2 = 0.85, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a rise in the rate of vaginal lacerations (16.1% to 40.0%, R2 = 0.80, p = 0.0002), a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations (12.2% to 5.4%, R2 = 0.62, p = 0.004), but no significant change in the rate of third-degree lacerations. These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and type of instrument used for delivery. The prevalence of other previously reported risks for perineal morbidity did not change during the study period.",
"To examine trends in obstetric interventions in women at low risk over approximately 3 years. It was postulated that there would be a general reduction in most intervention rates. Retrospective review of hospital records. Three downtown hospitals of the University of Toronto, in which academic and nonacademic family physicians and obstetricians practised. A total of 2365 women in phase 1 (April 1985 to March 1986) and 1277 in phase 2 (May to September 1988) met the inclusion criteria for grade A (pregnancy at no predictable risk) of the Ontario Antenatal Record at the time of admission to hospital. Rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction, augmentation, epidural anesthesia, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), instrumental delivery, episiotomy and cesarean section. The family physicians and the obstetricians had significant decreases (p<0.01) over time in the rates of episiotomy, especially mediolateral, and low forceps delivery. The rate of epidural anesthesia decreased significantly in the obstetrician group. The rates of artificial rupture of the membranes, induction and continuous EFM increased in the two physician groups; the increased rate of EFM was significant in the obstetrician group (p<0.01). There was no significant change in the rates of augmentation, midforceps delivery, vacuum extraction or cesarean section. All of the trends were found to hold when the intervention rates were analysed according to the women's parity.",
"Local anaesthetic infusions into the surgical wound have been shown to reduce postoperative pain and the need for opioids in adults. In children, it was found to be safe and efficacious following sternotomy and orthopaedic surgery. The aim of this study was to evaluate the need for opioids postoperatively in children receiving wound catheters delivering either bupivacaine or saline following one of three defined abdominal or bladder procedures. Prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo controlled study. Thirty-three children, 6 months of age to 13 years of age, undergoing elective surgery for enterostomy closure, open gastrostomy or ureteral reimplantation were randomized to receive bupivacaine or saline wound infusions for 72 h postoperatively. All patients received acetaminophen orally or rectally for every 6 h. Breakthrough pain was treated with morphine bolus doses of 0.05 mg/kg or infusions if more than three morphine doses were required. Pain scores were assessed every 3 h. Outcome measures were morphine dosages, return to full oral intake and length of hospital stay. On the first postoperative day, patients with bupivacaine infusions had significantly less need for morphine (1.3 ± 1.3 SD doses) compared to those receiving saline infusions (3.1+/2.5 SD doses, p < 0.05). No difference was seen during postoperative day two or three. There was no significant difference between the groups regarding time to full oral intake and time to discharge.",
"This prospective study aims to compare maternal and neonatal effects of spinal and general anesthesia for elective cesarean section. Term parturients receiving routine spinal (Group SA, n=95) or general (Group GA, n=93) anesthesia and standard postoperative analgesia for elective cesarean section were included in this study. Operation time, incision-hysterotomy (TS-H) and hysterotomy-umbilical cord clamping (TH-U) intervals, oxytocine requirement, intraoperative fluids, ephedrine requirement, incidence of hypotension, time to first analgesic requirement (Tanalg), pethidine consumption, adverse events, time to first breastfeeding, oral food intake (TOI), flatulence (TF), defecation (TD), mobilization, and postoperative hospital stay were compared between the groups. Newborn Apgar scores, umbilical venous blood gas analysis, incidence of hypoglycemia, nutritional support, phototherapy and ventilatory support were also analyzed. Spinal anesthesia was associated with longer TS-H and TH-U durations, lower oxytocine requirements, higher incidence of hypotension, increased ephedrine and fluid consumption, and delayed Tanalg. Furthermore, TOI, TF, TD and postoperative hospital stay was shorter in patients given spinal anesthesia when compared with patients given general anesthesia (48h vs. 52 h, respectively; p<0.01). No difference in postoperative analgesic consumption and neonatal outcomes, except 1st min Apgar scores and umbilical blood gas analysis, was detected.",
"yes. This prospective, randomized, single-blind study demonstrates that a single dose of intraoperative Sensorcaine provides a safe, inexpensive, and efficacious way to significantly shorten the length of postanesthesia care unit stay and significantly decrease postoperative opioid analgesic use in patients undergoing ambulatory reduction mammaplasty.",
"We questioned whether it is feasible in the current era of cost consciousness to perform standard open pediatric urological procedures on an outpatient basis while maintaining patient safety and satisfaction. We report on 51 consecutive patients 2 months to 13 years old (mean age 4 years 3 months) who underwent a standard open pediatric urological procedure between August 1999 and June 2000. The procedures included ureteral reimplantation in 22 cases (tapered in 2), pyeloplasty in 20, partial nephrectomy in 2, nephrectomy in 2, complete ureterocele reconstruction in 1 and other in 4. The expectation that the procedure would be performed on an outpatient basis was discussed with parents preoperatively. We excluded only cases requiring bowel for reconstruction. A caudal block was administered at the start of the procedure using 0.25% bupivacaine with 1:200,000 epinephrine at a dose of 1 cc/kg. The wound was infiltrated with 1 cc/kg. 0.25% bupivacaine and 0.5 mg./kg. ketorolac was administered at the end of the procedure. As soon as the child awakened, an age appropriate diet was started and 0.5 to 1 mg./kg. codeine with acetaminophen was given every 4 hours. Of the 51 children 44 (86%) were discharged home the day of surgery. Average postoperative hospitalization was 7 hours. One of the 44 children discharged home required a single catheterization elsewhere. There were no other complications or repeat hospitalizations.",
"Patient information leaflets (PILs) are an important source of information for patients postoperatively. There are currently no nationally agreed standards by dermatologists for postoperative advice following skin surgery.AIM: To assess the common themes and areas of variation in advice given in PILs after skin surgery across all National Health Service (NHS) hospitals in England and Wales. All acute trusts in England (n = 159) and local health boards in Wales (n = 7) were requested to provide their postoperative dermatological PILs for general sutured wound care or excision biopsy. Eight preselected parameters were assessed: minimum dressing duration, duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, postoperative analgesia, explanation of infection signs, application of petroleum jelly, scarring, whom to contact if there is a problem, and the recommended postoperative time for abstaining from active exercise. PILs were received from 137 different dermatology departments belonging to 127/166 (76.5%) organisations across England and Wales. Of these, 102 PILs gave a specific duration for dressings: 45/102 (44.1%) advised a minimum of 48 h, but 28/102 (27.5%) recommended leaving dressings in place until suture removal. Regarding duration of pressing on a bleeding wound, 117 PILs gave advice, with the most common recommendation being 15 min (30/117, 25.6%), followed closely by 10 min (26/117, 22.2%). Of the 137 PILs received, 125 gave advice regarding postoperative analgesia, with paracetamol alone being the most common recommendation (24/125, 19.2%). For the remaining parameters, 111/137 (81.0%) PILs described ≥ 2 signs of infection, 42/137 (30.7%) recommended the application of petroleum jelly, 65/137 (47.4%) mentioned scarring, 137/137 (100%) highlighted whom to contact if there were postoperative problems and 87/137 (63.5%) PILs gave advice regarding postoperative abstinence from active exercise.",
"Wound infiltration with local anaesthetic following appendicectomy in children provides no additional benefit over regular simple analgesia. Its routine use represents dogmatic practise which ought to be challenged for this patient group.",
"We suggest that application of topical lidocaine with adrenaline seems to be a safe and easy medication for local anesthetic use. However, in our study, lidocaine with adrenaline offered no advantage over placebo in the control of post-operative pain and other morbidity related factors following pediatric tonsillectomy. We therefore do not recommend topical application of lidocaine with adrenaline for reducing morbidity in pediatric tonsil surgery.",
"yes. 0.025% ropivacaine PCEA combined with fentanyl and epinephrine provided effective pain relief after cesarean section with early ambulation and without sensory loss, urinary retention, or increase of side-effects.",
"Our purpose was to examine the association between maternal vaginal and perineal morbidity and episiotomy performed at spontaneous vaginal delivery. We obtained data from 17,483 consecutive spontaneous vaginal deliveries and compared the yearly rates of episiotomy, lacerations, and potential confounders with linear regression and stratified analyses. Between 1976 and 1994 the use of episiotomy fell significantly (86.8% to 10.4%, R2 = 0.92, p = 0.0001). This change was associated with a fall in the rate of third- and fourth-degree lacerations (9.0% to 4.2%, R2 = 0.59, p = 0.0001) and a rise in the rate of intact perinea (10.3% to 26.5%, R2 = 0.68, p = 0.0001) and vaginal lacerations (5.4% to 19.3%, R2 = 0.77, p = 0.0001). These associations held in separate analyses stratified by parity and birth weight, except for the subgroup of nulliparous women with macrosomic infants.",
"To explore the association between midline episiotomy and the risk of third- and fourth-degree lacerations during operative vaginal delivery with either vacuum extractor or forceps. This retrospective cohort study analyzed all operative vaginal deliveries at a university hospital in 1989 and 1990. Univariate analysis of the relationships between perineal lacerations and obstetric variables was performed. Stratified analysis using the relevant variables was used to calculate relative risk (RR) estimates. Episiotomy, birth weight, and whether the index birth was the first vaginal birth were associated with third- and fourth-degree perineal lacerations. Stratified analysis demonstrated an RR of 2.4 with a 95% confidence interval of 1.7-3.5 for rectal injury with episiotomy, adjusting for parity and birth weight.",
"At our institution a statistically and clinically significant reduction in the use of episiotomy for operative vaginal deliveries was not associated with a change in the rate of third-degree lacerations but was associated with an increase in the rate of vaginal lacerations and a decrease in the rate of fourth-degree lacerations.",
"To analyse the significance of risk factors and the role of episiotomy in preventing obstetric anal sphincter injury at vaginal delivery. This is a retrospective cross-sectional study in the Norfolk and Norwich University Hospital in the UK. All caesarean sections and non-vertex presentations were excluded, which resulted in a study population of 10,314 deliveries. Obstetric anal sphincter injury (OASI) was defined as third or fourth degree tears to the anal sphincter muscles, with or without a tear involving the anal mucosa. First a univariate analysis was done to identify factors that had a significant association with OASI. Factors included parity, age, gestation, labour induction method, duration of second stage, use of epidural analgesia, episiotomy, method of delivery, time and month of delivery, and birth weight. All factors were then combined in a multivariate logistic regression analysis. The multivariate analysis was then repeated including only factors that had a significant association with OASI in the univariate analysis. Adjusted odds ratios with 95% confidence intervals (CI) were calculated. The frequency of anal sphincter lacerations was 3.2%. There were statistically significant associations between an increased incidence of OASI and parity, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia. Women giving birth without a mediolateral episiotomy were 1.4 times more likely to experience OASI (95% CI 1.021-1.983). Interestingly, the incidence of OASI has risen between 2005 and 2007.",
"Obstetric perineal wound infection is a complication of perineal trauma during vaginal delivery; however, it is difficult to establish its true incidence as women present for treatment to their GP or the hospital.AIM: To establish the incidence and risk factors of wound infection in postpartum women with sutured tears. A 3-month prospective audit was carried out on all women who sustained sutured tears. Wound infection was defined as the presence of any two of the following markers: perineal pain, wound dehiscence, or purulent vaginal discharge. A total of 341 women were contacted by telephone 21 days post-delivery and asked about markers for perineal wound infection and antibiotic use. In total, 409 women sustained sutured perineal tears, including episiotomies, and first, second, third and fourth degree tears. Of the 341 (83%) women contacted, 39 (11%) had a perineal wound infection based on the criteria of any two infection markers. Sixteen(5%) women had all three markers of wound infection. Prolonged rupture of membranes and instrumental delivery was a significant risk factor for women with two and three markers of wound infection,respectively.",
"To examine the rate of episiotomy use among nulliparous Yemeni women, and to evaluate its impact on perineal tears. We retrospectively reviewed the delivery record for all nulliparous women with and without episiotomy and singleton spontaneous births at Al-Thawra General Hospital, Sana'a, Yemen between January and December 2008. The womens' charts were retrieved, and the demographic characteristics were obtained. For women with episiotomy, the indication and type of incision were noted. The rate of the procedure and the perineal tears was recorded, and compared between women with and without episiotomy. A total of 2588 nulliparous women had singleton spontaneous births. Out of these, 1944 (75.1%) women had an episiotomy. Most cases (96%) had a mediolateral incision. Seventeen episiotomy cases (0.87%) were complicated by second and third degree perineal tears versus 12 cases (1.7%) with the same type of tear in women without the procedure.",
"Prior anal sphincter laceration does not result in an increased rate of recurrence. Operative vaginal delivery particularly with episiotomy is a risk factor for both initial and recurrent laceration.",
"To determine the risk factors for anal sphincter injuries during operative vaginal delivery. A population-based observational study. All 21 254 women delivered with vacuum extraction and 7478 women delivered with forceps, derived from the previously validated Dutch National Obstetric Database from the years 1994 to 1995. Anal sphincter injury was defined as any injury, partial or complete, of the anal sphincters. Risk factors were determined with multivariate logistic regression analysis. Individual obstetric factors, e.g. fetal birthweights, duration of second stage, etc. Anal sphincter injury occurred in 3.0% of vacuum extractions and in 4.7% of forceps deliveries. Primiparity, occipitoposterior position and fetal birthweight were associated with an increased risk for anal sphincter injury in both types of operative vaginal delivery, whereas duration of second stage was associated with an increased risk only in vacuum extractions. Mediolateral episiotomy protected significantly for anal sphincter damage in both vacuum extraction (OR 0.11, 95% CI 0.09-0.13) and forceps delivery (OR 0.08, 95% CI 0.07-0.11). The number of mediolateral episiotomies needed to prevent one sphincter injury in vacuum extractions was 12, whereas 5 mediolateral episiotomies could prevent one sphincter injury in forceps deliveries.",
"To identify the risk factors for obstetric anal sphincter rupture (OASR). Retrospective population-based register study. A total of 514,741 women with singleton pregnancy and vaginal delivery between 1997 and 2007 in Finland. Primiparous (n = 2,315) and multiparous women (n = 534) with OASR were compared with primiparous and multiparous women without OASR by using stepwise logistic regression analysis. The OASR risk. Episiotomy decreased the likelihood of OASR for the primiparous [odds ratio (OR) 0.83, 95% CI (confidence interval) 0.75-0.92], but not the multiparous women (OR 2.01, 95% CI 1.67-2.44). The strongest risk factors for OASR among the primiparous women were forceps delivery (OR 10.20, 95% CI 3.60-28.90), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 4.66, 95% CI 3.86-5.63), vacuum assisted delivery (OR 3.88, 95% CI 3.25-4.63), occiput posterior presentation (OR 3.17, 95% CI 1.64-6.15), and prolonged active second stage of birth (OR 2.06, 95% CI 1.65-2.58). Episiotomy was associated with decreased risks for OASR in vacuum assisted deliveries (OR 0.70, 95% CI 0.57-0.85). Risk factors for OASR among the multiparous women included forceps delivery (OR 10.13, 95% CI 2.46-41.81), prolonged active second stage of the birth (OR 7.18, 95% CI 4.32-11.91), birth weight over 4,000 g (OR 5.84, 95% CI 3.40-10.02), and vacuum assisted delivery (OR 4.17, 95% CI 3.17-5.48).",
"In Spain, the Strategy for Assistance in Normal Childbirth (SANC) promoted a model of care, which respects the physiological birth process and discards unnecessary routine interventions, such as episiotomies. We evaluated the rate of episiotomy use and perineal trauma as indicators of how selective introduction of the SANC initiative has impacted childbirth outcomes in hospitals of Catalonia. Cross-sectional study of all singleton vaginal term deliveries without instrument registered in the Minimum Basic Data Set (MBDS) of Catalonia in 2007, 2010 and 2012. Hospitals were divided into types according to funding (public or private), and four strata were differentiated according to volume of births attended. Episiotomies and perineal injury were considered dependent variables. The relationship between qualitative variables was analysed using the chi-squared test, and Student's t-test was used for quantitative variables. Comparison of proportions was performed on the two hospital groups between 2007 and 2012 using a Z-test. Logistic regression models were used to analyse the relationship between episiotomy or severe perineal damage and maternal age, volume of births and hospital type, obtaining odds ratios (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI). The majority of normal singleton term deliveries were attended in public hospitals, where maternal age was lower than for women attended in private hospitals. Analysis revealed a statistically significant (P < 0.001) decreasing trend in episiotomy use in Catalonia for both hospital types. Private hospitals appeared to be associated with increased episiotomy rate in 2007 (OR = 1.099, CI: 1,057-1,142), 2010 (OR = 1.528, CI: 1,472-1,587) and 2012 (OR = 1.459, CI: 1,383-1,540), and a lower rate of severe perineal trauma in 2007 (OR = 0.164, CI: 0.095-0.283), 2010 (OR = 0.16, CI: 0.110-0.232) and 2012 (OR = 0.19, CI: 0.107-0.336). Regarding severe perineal injury, when independent variables were adjusted, maternal age ceased to have a significant correlation in 2012 (OR = 0.994, CI: 0.970-1.018).",
"The objective of the study was to determine whether a decrease in the use of episiotomy was associated with a change in the frequency of brachial plexus injury. All births at Brigham and Women's Hospital from Sept. 1, 1998, through Aug. 31, 2009, were reviewed. The total number of births, mode of delivery, shoulder dystocias, episiotomies with and without shoulder dystocias, and brachial plexus injuries were recorded. A nonparametric test of trend was performed. There were a total of 94,842 births, 953 shoulder dystocias, and 102 brachial plexus injuries. The rate of episiotomy with shoulder dystocia dropped from 40% in 1999 to 4% in 2009 (P = .005) with no change in the rate of brachial plexus injuries per 1000 vaginal births.",
"To compare the postpartum pelvic floor function of women with sutured second-degree perineal lacerations, unsutured second-degree perineal lacerations, and intact perineums. A prospective cohort of nurse-midwifery patients consented to mapping of genital trauma at birth and an assessment of postpartum pelvic floor outcomes. Women completed validated questionnaires for perineal pain and urinary and anal incontinence at 12 weeks postpartum and underwent physical examination to assess pelvic floor strength and anatomy at 6 weeks postpartum. One hundred seventy-two of 212 (80%) eligible women provided follow-up assessment data at 6 or 12 weeks postpartum. Women with an intact perineum (n=89) used fewer analgesics (P<.002) and had lower pain scores at the time of hospital discharge than women with second-degree lacerations (sutured, n=46; unsutured, n=37; intact, n=89) (P<or=.02). The sutured group was more likely to use analgesics (52%) than the unsutured (35%) or intact (23%) groups at time of hospital discharge (P<.002), although pain scores were not different between sutured and unsutured groups. Postpartum reports of urinary or anal incontinence, sexual inactivity, or sexual function scores did not vary between groups. Weak pelvic floor exercise strength was more common among the women with second-degree lacerations compared with women with an intact perineum (53% vs. 28%; P=.03) but did not differ between sutured (58%) and unsutured (47%) groups (P=not significant). Likewise, perineal body or genital hiatus measurements did not vary between groups (P=not significant).",
"There are few clinical data examining whether sensitization of peripheral nerves contributes to postoperative pain when the entry of noxious impulses to the central nervous system is blocked. We hypothesized that wound infiltration with lidocaine would provide better postoperative analgesia than with normal saline following haemorrhoidectomy with spinal blockade. In a randomized, placebo-controlled, blinded study, 168 adults undergoing haemorrhoidectomy were allocated to two groups. In Group L (n = 88) local infiltration was provided with lidocaine 1% and in Group S (n = 80) with normal saline. Following spinal anaesthesia with lidocaine 3%, the surgeon infiltrated 15 ml of either infiltration solution to the surgical area. Postoperative analgesia was obtained by continuous epidural administration of 90 mg eptazocine in normal saline for 48 hr. Supplemental analgesics were given on request. Postoperative pain control was assessed at rest and during coughing with a 10 cm VAS on the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd postoperative days (POD). The VAS scores at rest in Group L were lower than those in Group S throughout the postoperative period. During coughing, VAS scores in Group S were increased on the 3rd postoperative day, while those in Group L remained constant (4.42 +/- 0.27 vs 3.14 +/- 0.28, P < 0.05). Fewer patients in Group L than in Group S required supplemental analgesics.",
"To determine: 1) the effectiveness of lidocaine, epinephrine, and tetracaine (LET) solution in eliminating or reducing the pain experienced in suturing superficial lacerations in adult patients; and 2) the effectiveness of LET in reducing the pain of local anesthetic injection. A prospective, randomized, double-blind study in which 60 adult patients with superficial lacerations were entered was conducted in the ED of a community-based teaching hospital affiliated with the University of Toronto. Following application of the LET or placebo (sterile water) solution to the laceration, a visual analog pain scale was recorded by the patient upon needle probing of the wound margin. If probing was painless, the laceration was repaired using LET alone. If injection of local anesthetic was required, an additional pain scale was elicited to quantify the attenuation of the pain of injection by the prior application of LET. Pain scale values on needle probing were significantly reduced in the LET group vs the placebo group (medians of 4.0 vs 5.0 cm, respectively; p<0.05). Only 13 of the 30 patients in the LET group required additional anesthetic, while all 30 patients in the placebo group requested local anesthetic. Pain scale values on injection of local anesthetic were not significantly different between the LET and placebo groups (medians of 3.5 vs 5.0 cm, respectively; p = 0.09), although there was a trend for lower pain scale values for those patients who received LET. No adverse effects were noted after the application of either LET or placebo solution. Follow-up was achieved for 54 of 60 patients with only 1 complication (a wound infection) reported in the LET group.",
"yes. Topical application of olomoucine in 1% DMSO significantly enhances closure of small epithelial debridement wounds without increasing inflammation or impairing reepithelialization.",
"This retrospective study investigates the effects of mediolateral episiotomy on the pelvic floor. Premenopausal women suffering from urinary incontinence/genital prolapse who delivered only by vaginal route were enrolled into the study. History of diabetes, morbid obesity (BMI>40 kg/m(2)), vacuum/forceps extraction, perineal lacerations that warranted repair during labor and any pelvic surgery were the exclusion criteria. Evaluation of the patients included pelvic organ prolapse quantification scores, presence of stress incontinence, urethral hypermobility, and questionnaires were obtained for overactive bladder and anal incontinence symptoms. These data obtained from patients with the history of mediolateral episiotomy were compared with those of patients with no episiotomy or any other pelvic injury that warranted surgical repair. Groups were identical by means of demographic data, POP-Q findings, signs and symptoms of the pelvic floor. However, in the MLE group, central defects on the anterior vaginal wall were less frequent.",
"Mediolateral episiotomy is an independent risk factor for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears, even in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries, occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia, and NRFHR. Prophylactic use of episiotomy in these conditions does not seem beneficial if performed to prevent 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears.",
"These results show that a larger angle of episiotomy is associated with a lower risk of third-degree tear and mediolateral episiotomy incisions should be made at as large an angle as possible to minimise the risk of sphincter disruption.",
"no. With judicious intraoperative fluid restriction and voluntary voiding before discharge, epidural anesthesia does not increase the incidence of postoperative urinary retention or hesitancy in micturition following ambulatory hemorrhoidectomy.",
"Parity, age, birth weight, method of delivery and shoulder dystocia are strongly associated with obstetric anal sphincter injury. Mediolateral episiotomy appears to be protective against OASI but a randomised controlled trial would be needed to confirm this. The rising incidence of OASI after normal vaginal deliveries may be related to adoption of the hands off technique or increased identification of tears.",
"To compare the relative efficacy of oral sucrose versus EMLA cream for pain relief during venepuncture, 51 full-term newborns (38M, 13F; postnatal age <4 d) in a stable condition were randomly allocated to one of four treatment groups: placebo (2 ml spring water); 2 ml sucrose 24% w/v; 1 g lidocaine-prilocaine 5% cream (EMLA); or EMLA plus sucrose. Water or a single dose of sucrose solution was administered orally 2 min before venepuncture. EMLA cream was applied in the antecubital fossa 45-60 min before venepuncture and covered by a Tegaderm dressing. A pacifier was given before skin puncture, but it was not actively held or replaced during the procedure or observation periods. In total, 55 venepunctures were performed blindly, always for clinical reasons. As indicators of pain, the total crying time was recorded and heart rate, respiratory rate and arterial oxygen saturation were measured blindly at baseline, immediately post-venepuncture, and 2 and 4 min afterwards. The main effects observed were: (i) time spent crying decreased significantly in the sucrose alone (p = 0.001) and EMLA plus sucrose (p = 0.008) groups; (ii) the above treatments attenuated significantly (p < 0.05) the immediate heart rate response to pain; and (iii) the concomitant use of EMLA did not increase further the analgesic efficacy of sucrose.",
"There is an ongoing debate regarding the routine versus restrictive use of episiotomy The study aim was to investigate if episiotomy during vaginal deliveries can reduce both, the number and severity of genital lacerations. The study included all women who gave vaginal birth at AOU. \"G. Martino\" Messina (n=382) and the Clinic for Ob/Gyn Clinical Center of Serbia, Belgrade (n=4227) during 2011. Lacerations during birth were recorded and divided according to location and severity Women with lacerations were subdivided into two groups: with or without mediolateral episiotomy We assessed potential risk factors for laceration: maternal age, parity use of labor stimulants and epidural analgesia, participation in antenatal classes, fetal presentation, neonatal birth weight, and duration of the second stage of labor. Older women had higher grade perineum or combined lacerations. Children with higher birth weight in occipito-posterior presentation caused higher grade lacerations. Performance of episiotomy was connected with fewer perineum and labial lacerations. There were no differences in laceration grade between patients with and without episiotomy Assessed parameters proved to be good discriminating factors between lacerations sites. According to logistic regression, laceration site was the most important risk factor for laceration grade. Combined lacerations had the highest grade.",
"Especially in the Nordic countries, increases in obstetric anal sphincter injuries (OASIS) have prompted standard use of the Finnish intervention for their prevention. We performed a quality assessment of the introduction of the intervention in a Danish hospital setting. All vaginal deliveries by primiparous women the year before (N = 343) and after (N = 334) the introduction were compared in a retrospective, observational design. Fisher's exact test, Student's t-test, and multiple logistic regression analysis were performed. No significant difference in OASIS (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-1.1) was found. The post-implementation group saw a significant increase in episiotomy (OR: 1.8; 95% CI: 1.1-2.9) and the length of second stage labor (p < 0.05) while intact perineum (OR: 0.5; 95% CI: 0.3-0.9), use of upright positions for birth (OR: 3.2; 95% CI: 1.8-5.5), and neonatal blood gas levels were significantly reduced (p < 0.05).",
"Our results suggested that there has been a gradual decline in episiotomy rates over the period 2003-2008, and that synthesis of evidence showing harms from routine episiotomy had limited impact on practice patterns in the case of episiotomy. The experience of episiotomy illustrates the challenge of using comparative effectiveness and evidenced-based medicine to reduce use of unnecessary procedures.",
"yes. Primiparity and occipitoposterior presentation are strong risk factors for the occurrence of anal sphincter injury during operative vaginal delivery. The highly significant protective effect of mediolateral episiotomies in both types of operative vaginal delivery warrants the conclusions that this type of episiotomy should be used routinely during these interventions to protect the anal sphincters.",
"Doctors and midwives are unaware of the appropriate angle (60 degrees) at which a mediolateral episiotomy should be incised at to minimise obstetric anal sphincter injury. The correct angle should be emphasised to accoucheurs to minimise the risk of anal sphincter damage. In addition midwives depict episiotomies that are significantly more acute than they describe. Accoucheurs should also perform at least 10 episiotomies under supervision prior to independent practice. Training programmes should be devised and validated to improve visual measurement of the episiotomy incision angle at crowning. Consideration should also be given to the development of novel surgical devices that help the accoucheur to perform a mediolateral episiotomy accurately.",
"To investigate the efficacy of placing bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan (Ferrosan, Soeborg, Copenhagen, Denmark) in episiotomy beds for relief of postpartum pain. Randomized, controlled study (Canadian Task Force classification I). University medical school. Women with mediolateral episiotomy. Patients were recruited and randomized into 2 groups by using a random number table. Group I (control group) received local lignocaine infiltration 1% up to 20 mL. For group II (Spongostan group), in addition to local lignocaine infiltration, bupivacaine-soaked Spongostan was placed in the episiotomy bed. All patients received routine postpartum perineal care in addition to the regular pain drugs (75 mg of diclofenac every 4 hours if needed). The primary outcome for the study was severity of pain, rated on a 10-cm visual analog scale from 0 to 10. Rating was recorded at 0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours after delivery. In all, 48 women were randomized to group I (local lignocaine alone) and 51 women to group II (local lignocaine plus Spongostan). The Spongostan and control groups were similar with respect to maternal age, parity, gestational age, maternal weight, and neonatal birth weight (p >.05; CI for difference: -2.6/10, 0.1/0.3, 0.3/0.7, 6.9/1.7, and -7/1.9, respectively). Episiotomy length (both vaginal and perineal) and episiotomy depth were higher in Spongostan group than control group (p <.05; 95% CI: -0.9/0, -0.8/-0.1, and -0.6/0, respectively). However, episiotomy reconstruction time of both groups was similar (p >.05; CI: 1.7/6.2). The pain score of Spongostan group was lower than control group and it was statistically significant at all time intervals (0, 1, 1.5, 2, 6, and 24 hours) between the Spongostan and control groups (p <.05; CI: 0.6/1.9, 1.1/2.4, 1.0/2.5, 0.9/2.4, 0.3/1.9, and 0.5/1.8, respectively). Postpartum total analgesic requirement (mg/person) again was significantly lower in the Spongostan group than control group (p <.01; CI: 0.1/0.4).",
"Episiotomy is one of the most commonly performed procedures among women of childbearing age in the United States. In 2005, a major systematic review conducted by Hartmann and colleagues recommended against routine use of episiotomy and was widely covered in the media. We assessed the impact of the Hartman et al. study on episiotomy trend. Based on 100% hospital discharge data from eight states in 2003-2008, we used interrupted time series regression models to estimate the impact of the Hartman et al. review on episiotomy rates. We used mixed-effects regression models to assess whether interhospital variation was reduced over time. After controlling for underlying trend, episiotomy rates dropped by 1.4 percentage points after Hartman et al. publication (p<0.01 for spontaneous delivery; p<0.1 for operative delivery). The publication has smaller effect on government hospitals as compared to private hospitals. Mixed effects models estimated negative correlation between cross-time and cross-hospital variations in episiotomy rates, indicating reduced cross-hospital variation over time.",
"yes. Episiotomy can significantly reduce the number of genital lacerations, but it does not influence laceration grade. Advanced maternal age, higher parity occipitoposterior presentation and fetal macrosomia can cause lacerations during vaginal birth. Therefore, we suggest analysis of maternal and fetal factors to prevent widespread genital lacerations.",
"Routine episiotomy has declined since liberal usage has been discouraged. Anal sphincter laceration rates with spontaneous vaginal delivery have decreased, likely reflecting the decreased usage of episiotomy. The decline in operative vaginal delivery corresponds to a sharp increase in cesarean delivery, which may indicate that practitioners are favoring cesarean delivery for difficult births.",
"To investigate whether episiotomy prevents 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in critical conditions such as shoulder dystocia, instrumental deliveries (vacuum or forceps), persistent occiput-posterior position, fetal macrosomia (>4,000 g), and non-reassuring fetal heart rate (NRFHR) patterns. A retrospective study comparing 3rd and 4th degree perineal tears during vaginal deliveries with or without episiotomy, in selected critical conditions was performed. Multiple gestations, preterm deliveries (<37 weeks' gestation) and cesarean deliveries were excluded from the analysis. Stratified analysis (using the Mantel-Haenszel technique) was used to obtain the weighted odds ratio (OR), while controlling for these variables. During the study period, there were 168,077 singleton vaginal deliveries. Of those, 188 (0.1%) had 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears. Vaginal deliveries with episiotomy had statistically significant higher rates of 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears than those without episiotomy (0.2 vs. 0.1%; P<0.001). The association between episiotomy and severe perineal tears remained significant even in the critical conditions. Stratified analysis revealed that the adjusted ORs for 3rd or 4th degree perineal tears in these critical conditions (Macrosomia OR=2.3; instrumental deliveries OR=1.8; NRFHR patterns OR=2.1; occipito-posterior position OR=2.3; and shoulder dystocia OR=2.3) were similar to the crude OR (OR=2.3).",
"To compare the outcomes of the current practice of liberally or routinely employing episiotomy to prevent perineal tears and pelvic floor relaxation (control group) to a policy of restricting episiotomy use to specific fetal and maternal indications (experimental group). A randomized controlled trial (RCT). Three university hospitals in Montreal. Seven hundred three low-risk women enrolled at 30 to 34 weeks of gestation were randomized late in labor to the designated trial arm, by parity, and followed up to 3 months postpartum. Antepartum and postpartum information on perineal trauma and pain, pelvic floor symptoms (urinary incontinence), and sexual activity was collected through the use of standard questionnaires; pelvic floor function was measured by electromyographic (EMG) perineometry. Restricting episiotomy use in primiparous women was associated with similar sutured perineal trauma to the liberal or routine approach. Multiparous women in the restricted episiotomy group more often gave birth with an intact perineum (31% compared with 19%, odds ratio (OR) = 1.85, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.09 to 3.16). All but one 3rd/4th-degree perineal tear was associated with median episiotomy (46 of 47 in primiparous women and 6 of 6 among multiparous women). No difference between trial groups was found in postpartum perineal pain, antepartum and 3-month postpartum EMG perineometry, and urinary and pelvic floor symptoms.",
"We found no evidence that liberal or routine use of episiotomy prevents perineal trauma or pelvic floor relaxation. Virtually all severe perineal trauma was associated with median episiotomy. Restriction of episiotomy use among multiparous women resulted in significantly more intact perineums and less perineal suturing.",
"yes. Episiotomy is still performed routinely in 75.1% of first-time births. This rate is higher than supported by the available evidence.",
"yes. Placement of bupivacaine-soaked spongostan into the episiotomy bed resulted in decreased postpartum pain and drug requirement. It may be attributed to a higher drug concentration at episiotomy bed and prolonged drug effect.",
"yes. The results support the restrictive use of episiotomy, since 909 episiotomies appear to be needed to prevent one OASR among primiparous women. Equivalent estimate in vacuum assisted deliveries among primiparous women was 66, favoring routine use of episiotomy in such cases.",
"It is concluded that in a woman with normal vaginal delivery, local application of procaine spirit is unnecessary in the care of a routine episiotomy wound.",
"A randomised controlled trial to investigate the usefulness of local application of procaine spirit versus cleansing with water for care of episiotomy wound after normal vaginal delivery was conducted in 100 women. Fifty women entered the study arm and 50 entered the control arm of the study. Women in the two arms were similar in their demographic and obstetric characteristics. The pain scores on a verbal analogue scale was highest (score = 2.5) on Day 1 of the delivery. This was the same in women in both arms. The number of paracetamol tablets consumed was also low and was similar in both groups of women. By the fourteenth day of delivery, all the women were pain-free and the wound had healed well. It was noted that all the women maintained a high standard of perineal hygiene with a mean of 5 washes a day."
] | 63 |
Is it necessary to biopsy the obvious? | [
"The radiologist and oncologist are often confident that biopsy will confirm their suspicion of recurrent disease, but a biopsy is performed to confirm the histologic diagnosis before beginning or altering therapy. We have examined data to determine how often the biopsied lesion represents recurrent disease from the primary tumor or is an instance of new cancer, and whether recurrent disease can be predicted. We reviewed the medical and imaging records of 253 patients who underwent CT-guided biopsy of an abdominal or pelvic lesion between 1993 and 1996. Sixty-nine of the 253 patients had a previously diagnosed primary tumor and were being examined for possible tumor recurrence or metastasis. The images of these 69 patients were analyzed to determine if the pattern of disease was typical of recurrence or metastasis. In 55 of the 69 patients, the pattern was judged to be typical of metastatic or recurrent disease. Biopsy confirmed this suspicion in all 55 patients. In 14 of the 69 patients, the pattern of spread was judged not to be typical of recurrence or metastasis. These 14 patients were found to have a new primary tumor (n = 4), benign processes (n = 2), and recurrences (n = 8).",
"Of the patients for whom radiographic findings suggested recurrence, we found no patients in whom a new primary tumor would have been missed if biopsy had been avoided. Data should now be acquired prospectively to determine whether it may be prudent to make treatment decisions on the basis of imaging findings alone, without histologic confirmation."
] | [
"Our study has shown that a 10-core prostate biopsy protocol significantly improves cancer detection in patients with suspected early cancer. It should therefore be the optimum biopsy protocol for patients with gray-zone PSA value, with or without abnormal DRE.",
"yes. Our study demonstrates histological diagnosis of GN and its specific subtype predicts patient survival and dialysis incidence. Therefore, kidney biopsy should be an integral part of routine diagnostic assessment in patients with any forms of suspected GN.",
"no. Pancreatic biopsy does not appear to adversely influence survival time for patients with inoperable pancreatic tumors. Because histologic examination aids clinical management, biopsy should be part of the diagnostic work-up for patients with suspected inoperable pancreatic carcinoma.",
"Our data suggest tissue biopsy alone offers no clear advantage over joint aspiration. However, the combination of both techniques provides improved sensitivity and accuracy. We recommend the use of tissue biopsy as an adjunct to joint aspiration in the diagnosis of total joint infection.",
"yes. A previously placed guidewire facilitates insertion of biopsy forceps and endoscopic biliary drainage. The histological diagnosis of cancer is more likely with bile duct cancer than with pancreatic cancer.",
"yes. Primary biopsy or incomplete cytoreduction reduces survival regardless of the subsequent approach. However, if incomplete cytoreduction has occurred, neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by IDS is preferable to up-front reoperation.",
"yes. Stereotactic core needle biopsy combines a high accuracy with a low complication rate. Its aggressive application for tissue diagnosis in suspicious nonpalpable mammographic lesions has increased the proportion of early (in situ and T1 or T2) tumors discovered, and increased the total number of breast cancers diagnosed.",
"no. Presence of vascular invasion does not distinguish pancreatic tuberculosis and malignancy, and, therefore, cytopathological confirmation is mandatory to differentiate between the two.",
"The guidelines for temporal artery specimens are not being met at our centre. Furthermore, biopsies measuring ≥1 cm are much more common in the small group of positive results. This validates the minimum recommended biopsy length and displays the importance of achieving this standard. We suggest changes to increase the number of biopsies meeting these guidelines, improving the accuracy of this invasive test.",
"yes. One core only positive prostate biopsy, when accompanied by an elevated serum prostate specific antigen value (greater than 10 ng./ml.), strongly suggests the presence of clinically significant cancer.",
"Needle biopsy is the preferred method of diagnosis in most cases, but there are valid reasons why all breast cancers will not be diagnosed in this fashion.",
"Despite the limited number of cases, our study demonstrated the advantage of the new forceps (BIGopsy) in obtaining a valid biopsy of upper urinary tract urothelial tumors. Therefore, we recommend it in evaluating this pathology for optimal treatment.",
"Our findings suggest that Prostate HistoScanning might be helpful for the selection of patients in whom prostate biopsies are necessary. This imaging technique can be used to direct biopsies in specific regions of the prostate with a higher cancer detection rate.",
"yes. Retinal or choroidal biopsy is a valuable investigation that often changes clinical management when carried out for specific indications in patients with uveitis of suspected malignant or infectious origin. Although it is likely to remain an investigation of last resort, it should be considered at an earlier stage when there is diagnostic uncertainty if severe visual loss is to be prevented.",
"no. In paediatric cases when diagnosis is inconclusive, including cases involving possible growth of the swelling, suspicions raised during physical examination, or unusually lengthy recovery after trauma, awareness is important. Imaging diagnostics or even tissue excision with histopathology may be indicated to allow the correct diagnosis to be made.",
"Our results have shown that a simple and quick tourniquet test could be useful in identifying those men who will experience greater pain during transrectal ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy. In the light of these data, additional studies will be planned to evaluate whether experimental pain assessment before the procedure could predict the analgesic potency of pain-relieving treatment during prostate biopsy.",
"no. Upfront staining of gastric biopsy specimens is not cost-effective since a significant proportion of the gastric biopsy specimens were normal or showed minimal inflammation; in none of these biopsy specimens was the organism found. Special stains should be performed only in selected biopsy specimens that reveal any degree of chronic active gastritis or moderate inactive gastritis.",
"Diagnostic aids in the evaluation of oral mucosal lesions can serve an important role by identifying lesions that need to be biopsied in spite of a \"benign\" appearance. Exfoliative cytology, as well as vital staining, may aid in this goal. This has implications regarding undergraduate and postdoctoral education.",
"The sensitivity of colposcopy in the diagnosis of microinvasive carcinoma of the cervix was low. Colposcopy plays an important role in directing the biopsy to the most suspicious area. The definitive diagnosis of microinvasive squamous carcinoma is established only by histologic study.",
"yes. This case series shows the value of non-invasive in vivo RCM imaging in the differentiation of malignant and benign pigmented lesions. Early diagnosis of small, pigmented BCC allows earlier excision with better prognosis. Future biopsies of benign lesions in cosmetic areas could also be avoided.",
"yes. Skin biopsy is helpful for etiologic diagnosis of early erythroderma of infancy, particularly in ID and NS, the most severe diseases. Consequently, these results justify an early systematic skin biopsy for a better and earlier management.",
"Core needle biopsy of breast cancer is equally effective compared with surgical biopsy and can be used in overall treatment planning. However, appropriate site selection for sampling should be guaranteed using ultrasonographic guidance.",
"If, at the time of ultrasound-guided needle core biopsy of BI-RADS assessment category 4 and 5 breast lesions, the radiologist is>90% confident that the lesion has been adequately sampled, a single pass is usually sufficient for diagnosis.",
"Fine-needle aspiration cytology was found to be highly specific for malignancy but its sensitivity for malignancy was poor. The results show that although FNAC is relatively inexpensive and minimally invasive, it cannot be relied upon to provide an accurate tissue diagnosis, may fail to identify malignancy and does not prevent patients undergoing surgery for non-neoplastic conditions.",
"yes. Core needle biopsy is a highly accurate and safe method for the diagnosis of radiologically detected lesions of the breast.",
"Our results indicate that routine histopathological examination of tonsils removed for benign disease in adults and children is clinically unnecessary. We propose that on an individual basis, the surgeon should decide the need for histological examination depending on preoperative risk factors and peroperative gross examination. Such a strategy will only be medicolegally possible where there are national and scientifically (evidence)based ENT consensus reports or guidelines on this issue.",
"yes. Our study shows that potentially the ultrasound has a role in stratifying patients who are extractable nuclear antibody-negative and can help to prioritize the biopsy for those who have sonographic evidence of SS.",
"yes. The findings indicate that a biopsy taken at procurement will provide information for the most appropriate allocation of a kidney.",
"yes. In percutaneous biopsy specimens of the abdomen and pelvis, the combination of cytologic examination and telomerase activity yielded an increased sensitivity in predicting malignancy. In addition, assessing telomerase activity can help identify cancer even when cytologic results are indeterminate.",
"yes. The classical anatomic location is not as important as the scatter of nodal involvement. Every effort should be made to obtain biopsy specimens from as many stations as possible before undertaking extrapleural pneumonectomy for malignant mesothelioma.",
"Liver biopsies rarely contribute new information that affects the management of patients with PSC. Given the risks of the procedure, liver biopsies for patients with a diagnosis of PSC established by cholangiography may not routinely be necessary.",
"yes. Evaluation of the histologic grade by EB and of the depth of myometrial invasion by intraoperative biopsy is a good option for deciding the necessity of lymphadenectomy.",
"yes. • A substantial proportion of men in an active surveillance cohort who undergo prostatectomy ultimately have evidence of an index cancer at the same location as their initial biopsy. • This is more likely to be the case when a repeat biopsy shows evidence of cancer at the same location.",
"We show that fat necrosis often has a confusing clinical presentation. Imaging by either mammography or ultrasound is often inconclusive and ultrasound-guided core biopsy will confirm the diagnosis sparing patients unnecessary radiological follow-up or surgical excision.",
"Percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy is useful in the evaluation of palpable breast masses that are small, deep, mobile, vaguely palpable, or multiple. In this study, percutaneous imaging-guided core biopsy spared additional diagnostic tissue sampling in 74% women with palpable breast masses.",
"yes. In this study, all the local recurrences of anal carcinoma were detected by digital and visual examination. Thus, the addition of endoanal ultrasound was costly and unnecessary.",
"The purpose of this study was to analyze the role of percutaneous core needle biopsy in the diagnosis of musculoskeletal sarcomas. One hundred eighty-five biopsy procedures were performed on 161 musculoskeletal tissue masses suspected of being a sarcoma in 155 patients who underwent subsequent tumor resection. A percutaneous core needle biopsy was performed on all masses either in the clinic or under radiologic guidance. If an adequate diagnosis could not be made on the basis of this biopsy specimen, an open incisional biopsy was performed. One hundred seventy-three core needle biopsy procedures were performed: 90 without radiologic guidance, 55 computed tomography guided, and 28 fluoroscopically guided. Twelve open incisional biopsies were performed. Eighty-three sarcomas, 67 benign mesenchymal tumors, and 11 metastatic epithelial tumors were identified. Analysis of the data reveals that only 7.4% of the masses required open biopsy. In 88.2% of the masses, a single percutaneous biopsy procedure was adequate, and no additional biopsy was necessary. There was a 1.1% rate of complications; none caused a change in the patient's treatment plan. There was a 1.1% rate of major diagnostic errors, none of which ultimately impacted on the patient's outcome. There were no unnecessary amputations. Percutaneous needle biopsy showed a positive predictive value of 100%, a negative predictive value of 82%, a sensitivity of 81.8%, and a specificity of 100%. The accuracy of a single-needle biopsy procedure to identify benign versus malignant lesions, exact grade, and exact pathology was 92.4%, 88.6%, and 72.7%, respectively.",
"yes. Regional biopsy data are feasible to identify individuals with CD and small-intestinal inflammation. The specificity of CD is high in villous atrophy.",
"Temporal artery biopsy should be performed in the majority of patients with suspected GCA, and may be obviated only in patients with a pre-TAB ACR score of ≤ 1. In all other cases, when GCA is suspected, ACR criteria should not be a substitute to TAB, as they are not highly specific.",
"yes. We suggest routine gastric biopsy to detect both the presence of H. pylori and its density inasmuch as quantitative results may predict the usefulness of triple therapy. The higher the H. pylori density, the less effective triple therapy will be at successful eradication of H. pylori.",
"yes. In men with prostate cancer, standard and saturation transrectal prostate biopsies techniques are equally predictive of candidates for active surveillance.",
"yes. Stereotactic core breast biopsy is a safe and cost-effective method for determining the nature of suspicious mammographic findings.",
"To review the diagnostic and prognostic importance of pathologic findings in prostate biopsies. While the primary goal of the biopsy is to diagnose prostatic adenocarcinoma, once carcinoma is detected, information regarding the type, amount, and grade of cancer forms the cornerstone for contemporary management of the patient and for assessment of the potential for local cure and the risk for distant metastasis.",
"Multiple mucosal biopsies of normal-appearing urothelium are not necessary for all patients with superficial bladder cancer. They are, however, necessary for patients with multiple papillary broad-base tumors and positive urinary cytology.",
"no. Even centers with a well-defined biopsy strategy show a substantial proportion of non-BPAR episodes. Therefore, complete reporting of both BPAR and non-BPAR is important for the proper interpretation of study results.",
"A histological inflammatory finding at the initial prostate biopsy was negatively associated with prostate cancer detection in repeat biopsy. This result could be useful to determine the need for repeat prostate biopsy in patients with persistently elevated prostate-specific antigen.",
"yes. FNA biopsy is not useful in the diagnostic workup of patients with incidentally discovered adrenal masses and rarely alters management in patients with resectable adrenal metastases and primary adrenal malignancies. Furthermore, biopsy in this setting can also be potentially hazardous. Language that suggests biopsy of adrenal masses should be avoided in radiology reports.",
"yes. Due to their low sensitivity, AF and MB are not suitable techniques for reducing the high numbers of routine biopsies needed for finding additional foci of HGD or cancer. Careful endoscopic observation and stepwise four quadrant biopsy therefore still represent the gold standard for surveillance of Barrett's oesophagus.",
"Mammography immediately after core biopsy is not necessary for the diagnosis of procedure-related hematoma and is inferior to specimen radiography for verifying that calcifications have been sampled. Postprocedural mammograms also may be suboptimal for the establishment of a new baseline because of the frequent finding of hematoma.",
"no. Surgical excision is unnecessary when radial scar is found at percutaneous needle biopsy without an associated proliferative lesion. Surgical excision is still indicated when radial scar is associated with atypical ductal hyperplasia or lobular neoplasia.",
"yes. The only PV parameter, in our opinion, can be significant in choosing the best biopsy scheme to approach in a first setting of biopsies increasing PCa detection rate.",
"yes. In cases of SJS or LABD that are difficult to distinguish clinically, the authors recommend performing a skin biopsy and direct immunofluorescence early to confirm the diagnosis so that effective treatment can be instituted.",
"yes. Adding 4 lateral peripheral biopsies to the conventional sextant biopsy (10-core biopsy strategy) technique has increased the cancer detection rate by 25.5% without significant morbidity and without increasing the number of insignificant cancers. 10-core biopsy protocol was superior to all probable 8-core biopsy protocols in our study group. Additional biopsies from suspicious areas detected by transrectal ultrasonography revealed no further benefit if 10-core technique was used. We therefore suggest that 10-core biopsy protocol should be the preferred strategy in early detection of prostate cancer.",
"US-guided vacuum-assisted biopsy is a reliable technique. Because it provides more tissue than CNB, it can be an alternative to diagnostic surgery after non-diagnostic CNB. Indeed, it allows confirmation of the diagnosis and provides a more specific diagnosis of benign lesions. With regards to malignant and borderline lesions, it avoids the risk of false-negative CNB and overlooking carcinomas.",
"The common practice of performing percutaneous ultrasound or CT guided biopsy of potentially resectable lesions in the liver is generally neither necessary nor desirable.",
"Routine cytological examination of bronchial washings does not increase the yield of forceps biopsy specimens. Transbronchial needle aspiration may give an additional positive yield to forceps biopsy. We conclude that a combination of forceps biopsy and brushing is the best strategy in the diagnosis of bronchoscopically visible lung cancer.",
"yes. As research biopsies are crucial to many components of the drug development process, our study provides evidence for patients' overall willingness to undergo research biopsies for trial purposes. A consent process tailored to the biopsy site may help patients weigh up the associated risks versus benefits.",
"Biopsy of metastases for reassessment of biological features should be considered in all patients, when safe and easy to carry out, since it is likely to impact treatment choice.",
"yes. In our cohort, patients with bilaterally positive biopsy cores were significantly more likely to harbor a non-organ-confined tumor than patients with unilaterally positive cores. Due to their high specificity, bilaterally positive biopsies may represent a reasonable exclusion criterion for active surveillance if our results are corroborated in further studies.",
"The era of targeted therapy with molecular and genomic discoveries has paved the way to a research protocol that requires a biopsy from the patient. The reported complications have never been described before. The purpose of this paper is not to suggest that no biopsy should be performed when a DIPG is suspected. For now, biopsy remains investigational, because no benefit in survival could be drawn so far for any patient. This subject deserves honest discussion with the children and their parents.",
"yes. Surgical biopsy should remain the gold standard for diagnosis of interstitial lung disease. The mortality is low with proper patient selection. More than two surgical biopsy specimens may not be needed because the concordance rates among pathologic specimens are very high.",
"On the basis of our data, if clinical diagnosis is BCC, excision and reconstruction may be undertaken without an incisional biopsy. Alternatively, if clinical diagnosis is SCC, it is advisable to consider an incisional biopsy, before definitive surgical treatment.",
"no. We do not recommend routine duodenal biopsy to screen for coeliac disease because of the high number needed to biopsy as well as high costs.",
"yes. Our study indicated that precise and detailed intraoperative examination decreases the false-negative rate of SLN biopsy. ITCs in SLNs should not be overlooked, and rapid IHC can be helpful for detecting ITCs intraoperatively.",
"yes. The combination of forceps biopsy and transpapillary brush cytology is safe and offers superior detection rates compared to both methods alone, and therefore represents a promising approach in evaluation of proximal biliary tract processes.",
"yes. Extreme apical sampling increases aggressive cancer detection on initial biopsy, especially in patients with standard risk of PCa.",
"yes. Extraprostatic biopsy identifies extension of carcinoma in a large proportion of patients in whom clinical evaluation by DRE and TRUS indicates organ-confined disease. Extraprostatic biopsy is therefore warranted as routine evaluation before surgery in order to correctly stage prostatic carcinoma and select appropriate therapy.",
"Nondiagnostic core needle biopsy results in musculoskeletal lesions are not entirely useless. At times, they can be supportive of benign processes and can help avert unnecessary surgical procedures.",
"yes. Our data suggest that prostate biopsy recutting may increase cancer detection in patients initially found to have HGPIN. Additionally, a significant cost savings is associated with the recutting protocol.",
"yes. The percutaneous needle biopsy was found to be extremely effective and safe for the diagnosis of musculoskeletal masses. This method allowed 88% of patients with suspected sarcomas to undergo a single-needle biopsy procedure before the initiation of definitive treatment. Patients undergoing percutaneous needle biopsy had lower rates of major diagnostic errors and complications than previously described for open biopsy. Open biopsy offered limited additional information when preceded by a needle biopsy, given that these tumors were difficult to identify even after final resection.",
"Left scalene node biopsy does not appear to be mandatory in routine pretherapeutic lymph node evaluation of patients with advanced cervical carcinoma and no clinical suspicious nodes. It may be useful to prove disseminated disease in patients with suspicious clinical nodes or hot spots on PET-scan, if fine needle biopsy is unconclusive.",
"yes. The use of anesthesia in the performance of transrectal biopsies significantly diminishes the perception of pain by patients. This effect, along with the tendency to increase the number of biopsies, will result in short time in a more generalized use of local anesthesia.",
"Despite extensive morphological evaluation with unenhanced CT and conventional MRI, CT guided biopsy is necessary for most patients referred to surgery for an operable NSCLC and an adrenal mass.",
"no. Pre-bisection of a single skin biopsy does not significantly increase the risk of a technically inadequate specimen for direct immunofluorescence testing.",
"yes. In recent years, renal cell carcinoma biopsy has been increasingly used in patients with traditional and expanded indications. Its use is strongly associated with treatment and treatment-related factors.",
"yes. Nondiagnostic biopsies are common and occur most frequently when there is a moderate or high pretest suspicion for infection. Among all nondiagnostic biopsies, regardless of indication, cancer and infection were diagnosed on follow-up in similar proportions.",
"yes. This study indicated that there should be a greater willingness among colorectal pathologists to accept the biopsy finding of intramucosal carcinoma as the earlier form of invasive malignancy. Clinicians should alter their treatment algorithms accordingly.",
"yes. In this study, 43% of biopsies revealed malignancy and we advise that lymph node biopsy requests should be managed on a fast-track pathway, expedited by direct personal request. Following this study, we have implemented a fast-track pathway for such patients.",
"yes. The multi-quadrant percutaneous biopsy technique increases the ability to identify aggressive pathological features in large renal tumors and decreases nondiagnostic biopsy rates.",
"A biopsy is recommended when MRI positive lesion corresponding the area of new or increasing mammographic microcalcifications is detected. Patients with stable microcalcifications can continue follow-up mammography, regardless of MRI result.",
"yes. In cases where non-palpable breast lesions are considered to be suspicious in mammography scans, the vacuum-assisted core biopsy method provides an accurate histopathologic diagnosis thus preventing a significant number of patients undergoing unnecessary surgical procedures.",
"yes. Liver diseases other than AIH can present with the typical laboratory features of AIH and, without liver biopsy, it is difficult to distinguish AIH than these conditions. Although histological findings have little impact on patients' management and outcomes, for a definitive diagnosis of AIH, liver biopsy is essential and should be performed in all patients in whom it is suitable and not contraindicated.",
"Imaging-guided biopsy of a solid enhancing renal mass was diagnostic in 52 (90%) of 58 consecutive biopsies. The diagnosis of a benign lesion was made in 27% of diagnostic biopsies. Because of the advances in biopsy and histology techniques, the role of imaging-guided biopsy should be reconsidered.",
"no. Routine transition zone and seminal vesicle biopsies in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided systematic sextant biopsies are not warranted.",
"yes. An individualized screening algorithm using other available prebiopsy information in addition to PSA level can result in a considerable reduction of unnecessary biopsies. Very few important PC cases, for which diagnosis at a subsequent screening visit might be too late for treatment with curative intent, would be missed.",
"yes. Compared with the conventional method, the simplified technique is more efficient and equally efficacious for blastomere biopsy in preimplantation genetic diagnosis.",
"In experienced hands, intraoperative confirmation of malignancy is effective and will avoid resection in patients with benign disease. However, for many surgeons the chance of missing a small tumour with a false-negative biopsy will be unacceptable and they would prefer to undertake a \"blind\" resection and accept the mortality risk of pancreaticoduodenectomy for benign disease.",
"yes. Fine needle aspiration biopsy of solid palpable breast lesions should be the diagnostic procedure of choice for those patients classified clinically as probably benign or clinically as highly suspicious for cancer. Cost analysis revealed elimination of an open biopsy in such cases would save $1,100 per patient. For highly suspicious cases, a negative fine needle aspiration should not deter an open surgical biopsy. For patients classified as indeterminate, fine needle aspiration biopsy results are not reliable enough to determine treatment.",
"Our results suggest that CT-guided biopsy is less useful in the characterization of primary tumors than in metastases. The diagnosis of primary bone lymphomas is especially complicated. Repeating the procedure after inconclusive results probably will not provide additional information, and it is recommendable to perform surgical biopsy in these cases.",
"yes. Digital rectal examination and the interpretation of prostate biopsy are not accurate clinical tools for defining the location and extent of prostatic carcinoma. Bilateral positive biopsy may be useful as an adjunct to the current clinical staging system.",
"yes. This study emphasizes the high sensitivity of LSG biopsy in the diagnosis of amyloidosis, even in the absence of oral symptoms.",
"The results of our study have shown that the absence of tumor on e-MRI scans of patients with a clinical suspicion of PCa does not rule out the probability of clinically significant and high-grade PCa, making prostate biopsy mandatory for these patients as well.",
"yes. The nature of small hepatic nodules cannot be determined with sonography. Thus, biopsy remains the only technique for obtaining a definitive diagnosis.",
"These data confirm the need for clinical correlation with the findings obtained at stereotactic biopsy and suggest that stereotactic biopsy may not always be useful or necessary in the management of brain tumor patients. According to our present critical analysis, when a clear presumptive diagnosis of brain tumor can be made, it may be sufficient to base the management of the patient only on clinical and neuroimaging findings.",
"yes. Core biopsy has a high degree of accuracy in the diagnosis of soft-tissue tumours, particularly malignant lesions, and is not misleading. Core biopsy avoids the complications of open biopsy, and enables planning of one-stage surgery when used in combination with appropriate imaging.",
"A repeat biopsy after the diagnosis of HGPIN on 12-core prostate biopsy rarely results in cancer detection. In the absence of other factors increasing the suspicion of cancer, immediate repeat biopsy for HGPIN diagnosed on a 12-core biopsy is unnecessary.",
"Leaving aside differences in diagnostic approach and aggressiveness, two thirds of all lesions were biopsied in order to exclude cancer. The routine use of a more complete diagnostic protocol and/or alternative methods to obtain a histologic diagnosis (e.g. core biopsy) might substantially reduce the need for open surgical biopsy.",
"no. A single positive prostatic biopsy out of six systematic biopsies is a useful predictive factor of local extension, but, in the individual patient, does not guarantee favourable histopathological characteristics of the tumour, nor a favourable course of the disease."
] | 217 |
Improving the recognition and management of depression: is there a role for physician education? | [
"Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \"patients\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).",
"The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients."
] | [
"yes. A diagnosis of major depression in older medical inpatients is independently associated with poor mental health in their informal caregivers 6 months later.",
"the gynaecologist must have a role in helping to achieve an early diagnosis of the depression, because the earlier the problem is recognised the greater are the possibilities of therapy and preventing any consequences for the entire family group.",
"This study examined age group differences in the rates of depression diagnosis and treatment using a national probability sample. Using data from the 2012 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey (n=62,723 visits by patients aged 18+ years), we used bivariate and multivariable binary logistic regression analyses to test age group differences in antidepressant medication (ADM) and psychotherapy prescribed/ordered or provided at visits during which depression was diagnosed. Visits by older adults were less likely to result in a depression diagnosis than visits by younger individuals: 2.46% and 1.80% in the 65-74 and 75+ age groups, compared to 4.06%, 4.24% and 4.12% in the 18-29, 30-49 and 50-64 age groups, respectively. Of all visits involving diagnosed depression, 65.88% included prescribing/ordering or providing ADM and 19.01% included psychotherapy ordering or providing, without significant age group difference. Prescribing/ordering or providing ADM occurs frequently during visits to physicians regardless of specialty, while psychotherapy was ordered or provided mostly during visits to psychiatrists.",
"This study examines how frequently family physicians display printed educational materials about mental health problems in their practices and where these materials should be located for optimal effect. A cross-sectional observational study of pamphlet display practices in 13 family physicians' offices in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada was followed by an intervention which placed selected mental health educational materials in waiting rooms and examining rooms, and monitored the pick up rate from each location by patients. The study found that few mental health pamphlets were displayed by the participating physicians, that when a range of these pamphlets was made available, pamphlets on mood disorders were the most popular, and that significantly more pamphlets were picked up from examining rooms than from waiting rooms.",
"yes. The prevalence of identified depression in the MEPS-NHC is lower than that previously estimated using formal diagnostic assessment techniques for threshold and subthreshold depressive states combined. Therefore, MDS-identified depression may underestimate the burden of depression. Underrecognition may be particularly acute in black or African-American residents, the oldest old, and the cognitively impaired. Further research on the relationship of MDS-identified depression and depression identified through structured diagnostic interviews in broadly representative samples of nursing home residents is needed to expand the availability of descriptive epidemiological data, to help clarify the results of research making use of MDS data, and to suggest methods for optimizing clinical and administrative data systems.",
"yes. Depression disease management programs can have a positive return-on-investment from the employer perspective, but only when they are based on best practices. Given the generally low depression treatment quality documented here, treatment quality guarantees are needed before expanding workplace depression screening, outreach, and treatment programs.",
"The aim of this study was to (1) to explore the validity of the depression diagnosis made by the general practitioner (GP) and factors associated with it, (2) to estimate rates of treatment adequacy for depression and factors associated with it and (3) to study how rates of treatment adequacy vary when using different assessment methods and criteria. Epidemiological survey carried out in 77 primary care centres representative of Catalonia. A total of 3815 patients were assessed. GPs identified 69 out of the 339 individuals who were diagnosed with a major depressive episode according to the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I) (sensitivity 0.22; kappa value: 0.16). The presence of emotional problems as the patients' primary complaint was associated with an increased probability of recognition. Rates of adequacy differed according to criteria: in the cases detected with the SCID-I interview, adequacy was 39.35% when using only patient self-reported data and 54.91% when taking into account data from the clinical chart. Rates of adequacy were higher when assessing adequacy among those considered depressed by the GP.",
"Older adults with depression and medical comorbidity pose a significant clinical and public health challenge. Evidence was found of a statistically significant intervention effect on mortality for diabetes mellitus in persons with major depression.",
"The clinical utility of the findings are discussed in terms of the importance of primary-care physicians encouraging their panic disorder patients to receive CBT as well as medications.",
"Literature has shown that dissemination of guidelines alone is insufficient to ensure that guideline recommendations are incorporated into every day clinical practice. We aimed to investigate the gaps between guideline recommendations and clinical practice in the management of young people with depression by undertaking an audit of medical files in a catchment area public mental health service for 15 to 25 year olds in Melbourne, Australia. The results showed that the assessment and recording of depression severity to ensure appropriate treatment planning was not systematic nor consistent; that the majority of young people (74.5%) were prescribed an antidepressant before an adequate trial of psychotherapy was undertaken and that less than 50% were monitored for depression symptom improvement and antidepressant treatment emergent suicide related behaviours (35% and 30% respectively). Encouragingly 92% of first line prescriptions for those aged 18 years or under who were previously antidepressant-naïve was for fluoxetine as recommended.",
"yes. Screening and treatment of depression and anxiety is important in improving self-care among HF patients. HF management programs need to include strategies for increasing patients' perceived control over their heart disease.",
"Physicians must effectively evaluate and treat obesity. To design a needs-driven curriculum intended to improve patient outcomes, physicians were surveyed about their self-perceived knowledge and skills. The objective of this study was to determine the expressed needs of residents and faculty regarding obesity care training across three specialties. The study used a survey given to faculty and residents in General Internal Medicine, Pediatrics, and Psychiatry. Survey questions were generated from comprehensive nutrition curriculum and clinical recommendations, administered online, and then organized around a validated behavioral health framework-the 5As (assess, advise, agree, assist, arrange). Analyses were conducted to evaluate differences in perceived knowledge and skills between specialties and across training levels. From an overall response rate of 65% (65 residents and 250 faculty members), nearly 20% reported inadequate competency in every item with 48% of respondents reporting an inability to adequately counsel patients about common treatment options. Internists reported the lowest competency in arranging referrals and follow-up. Psychiatrists reported the lowest competency in assessment skills.",
"GP accounts indicated concern about threats to patient care. Contention between using severity questionnaires and delivering individualised patient care is significantly motivated by GP concerns to preserve professional expertise and identity. It is important to learn from GP concerns to help establish how best to optimise the use of severity questionnaires in depression.",
"To (1) examine the influence of patient and provider attributes on physicians' diagnostic certainty and (2) assess the effect of diagnostic certainty on clinical therapeutic actions. Factorial experiment of 128 generalist physicians using identical clinically authentic videotaped vignettes depicting patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) or depression. For CHD, physicians were least certain for Black patients (p=.003) and for younger female patients (p=.013). For depression, average certainty was higher than for the CHD presentation (74.0 vs. 57.9 on of scale of 0-100, p<.001) and there were no main effects of patient or provider characteristics. Increasing diagnostic certainty was a significant predictor of subsequent clinical actions, and these varied according to physician and patient characteristics across both conditions.",
"The authors discuss the value of teaching perspective identification among child and adolescent psychiatry faculty for medical student education.",
"Pediatric health care providers did not recognize most mothers with high levels of self-reported depressive symptoms. Pediatricians may benefit from asking directly about maternal functioning or by using a structured screening tool to identify mothers who are at risk for developing depressive symptoms. In addition, training pediatric providers to identify mothers with depressive symptoms may be beneficial.",
"To determine whether the chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice and internal medicine physicians differed in the proportion reporting that their primary care physician asked them about depression symptoms. A cross-sectional observational study of chronically or recurrently depressed survey respondents who identified a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. A large not-for-profit group-model health maintenance organization in the northwestern United States, with a population representative of its service area. Health maintenance organization members (n= 1161) with ongoing or recurring depression or dysthymia who responded to a 1993 survey and who identified either a family practice or internal medicine physician as their primary care provider. Patients' self-report of their primary care physician asking them: (1) whether they had been feeling sad, blue, or depressed; (2) to fill out a questionnaire about their mood or feelings; and (3) whether they had been thinking about death or suicide. Chronically or recurrently depressed patients of family practice physicians were more likely to report that their physician asked them about depressive symptoms than were patients of internal medicine physicians (34.0% vs 27.3%) (P=.02). This finding persisted in a multivariate analysis.",
"To create a doctor of pharmacy curricular experience that will decrease students' social barriers to interaction with and treatment of mentally-ill patients. We created a survey instrument to measure 4 aspects of students' conceptions of schizophrenia and clinical depression: (1) understanding of the medical nature of each disease, (2) understanding of patient behavior, (3) belief in the efficacy of treatment, and (4) social distance. We delivered this instrument before and after a neuropsychiatry curriculum including \"peer-level patient presenters\" in addition to the traditional first-year pharmacy curriculum. Social-distance scores significantly decreased in first-year pharmacy students who attended peer-level patient presentations, indicating increased willingness to interact with persons with schizophrenia and clinical depression. In addition, students' understanding of the causes of illness, behavior of patients, and most importantly, efficacy of drug counseling for these diseases increased.",
"This study compares the views of psychiatry residency training directors about psychiatry and mental health training in the primary care programs in their institutions with those of the primary care residency training directors. A 16-item questionnaire surveying specific areas of training and perceived adequacy of current teaching was distributed to 1,544 U.S. primary care and psychiatry program directors. The response rate was 53%. Among psychiatry training directors, 85% responded that psychiatry training in their primary care programs was minimal to suboptimal, while 68% of family practice training directors responded that their psychiatry training was optimal to extensive. Among psychiatry training directors, 89% were dissatisfied with the psychiatry training in their primary care programs, and only 8% were satisfied. In contrast, almost half of primary care training directors were satisfied. However, within the primary care programs, there was a marked difference between family practice (majority satisfied) and the rest (internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, pediatrics, mostly unsatisfied). All primary care and psychiatry training directors agreed that most basic psychiatric skills and diagnoses were taught in the primary care programs. For all skills and syndromes examined, psychiatry training directors consistently and significantly rated the training to be less adequate than did primary care training directors. There was general agreement that primary care physicians should be able to treat most uncomplicated cases in patients with psychiatric disorders, and some but not other psychiatric conditions.",
"Type of medical dysfunction, whether illness or impairment, may require different therapeutic and supportive approaches. Enhancement of perceived social support, for those who are impaired, and encouragement of social interactions, for those who are ill, may be important intervention targets for treatment of depressive symptoms in older adult primary care patients.",
"Research is scarce on how depression is identified and treated among Medicare home healthcare (HHC) patients age 65+ with disability. The Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services (CMS) recently incorporated depression screening into the OASIS-C HHC assessment. Our study objectives were to evaluate and characterize depression care management (DCM) in an HHC agency after CMS increased its depression requirements and to determine if there was an association of DCM with disability (activities of daily living [ADLs]) outcomes. The authors conducted a retrospective chart review of 100 new Medicare HHC admissions patients age 65+ (mean age: 81.7) who screened positive for depression and had disability and multimorbidity. Clinical and administrative records were examined and descriptive analyses used. Multivariate regression analyses investigated the association of six DCM components with ADLs improvement. Depression was recognized in care plans of 60% of patients. Documentation of only one nurse care management activity, antidepressant use, indicated the use of evidence-based standards of depression assessment and DCM. Depression measures were not administered at discharge, recertification, or transfer. Forty percent of patients had a formal depression diagnosis by the referring physician in the chart, and 65% were receiving an antidepressant. Having a depression care plan and depression medication were significantly associated with a large ADLs improvement.",
"This article examines the relevance of physician impairment to the discipline of academic psychiatry. The author reviews the scientific literature, the proceedings of previous International Conferences on Physician Health, and held discussions with experts in the physician health movement, department chairs, program directors, and residents. Psychiatric illness and impairment in physicians impact academic psychiatry in several ways. Mental illnesses in physicians are being studied by some researchers, but the subject requires more scholarly attention. Training directors are interested in resident well-being and illness and how to reach out to symptomatic residents in a more timely way. Leaders in psychiatry are eager to learn the first steps in identifying colleagues at risk and the route to assessment and care. They are especially concerned about disruptive behavior in the workplace, including harassment and boundary transgressions in doctor-patient and supervisor-supervisee relationships. Academic psychiatrists wish to be more responsive to nonpsychiatrists appealing to them for guidance with impaired members of their departments.",
"This issue should be taken in to account during physicians' education since doctors should be aware of how their own beliefs and attitudes influence their behaviour and practices, compromising, therefore, the adherence to and the success in obesity treatment. They seem to need more precise guidelines and better tools for screening and management of obesity, more referral options, and improved coordination with other specialities.",
"The findings demonstrate the need for a greater focus on recognizing depression among carers working in aged care facilities. Protocols should be developed to assist carers to detect, refer, and monitor depression in residents.",
"yes. Since increased symptoms of depression mediate the impact of disease severity on three domains of fatigue in PD patients, disease management should focus on the treatment of PD and symptoms of depression.",
"Family doctors need a lot more help, education and support in the management of somatisers, and psychiatrists need to provide it. Any management program for the treatment of somatisers in primary care should include methods to modify general practitioners' attitudes towards these patients.",
"In the present study, considerable deficits in confidence and knowledge regarding palliative care issues were also observed at the end of PY. Integration of palliative care into the medical school curriculums should be given special attention in terms of a longitudinal training of the PY.",
"no. In this real-world sample comparable in size to recent RCT intervention arms, patients with depression disorders presented with complex psychiatric needs including comorbid personality disorders, alcohol/substance use and suicide risk. These findings suggest external validity of depression screening and RCTs could serve as a basis for level A guideline recommendations in cardiovascular diseases.",
"This study shows that among physicians there are deficits in knowledge about childhood OSA and its treatment. More focused educational programs are needed within medical schools and within pediatric residency and post-graduate training programs.",
"yes. This study identified a high frequency of undiagnosed clinically significant depressive symptoms among ED patients and highlights several new demographic and clinical correlates of such symptoms. Screening for and diagnosis of clinical depression in the ED setting introduces important opportunities for acute care providers and for the health care system as a whole.",
"Physicians were least certain of their CHD diagnoses for Black patients and for younger women, but patient characteristics alone did not affect physician certainty of depression diagnoses. Physicians responded differentially to diagnostic certainty in terms of their clinical therapeutic actions such as test ordering and writing prescriptions. Physician responses to certainty may be as important as their responses to patient characteristics for understanding variation in clinical decision-making.",
"yes. Ongoing evaluation of classroom lectures by resident psychiatrists may provide valuable feedback to instructors and impact the quality of medical education. The \"classic\" role of the teacher organization and enthusiasm are the most important components of quality education.",
"yes. Patients with depression treated exclusively by primary care providers have attitudes and beliefs more averse to care than those seen by mental health specialists. These differences in attitudes and beliefs may contribute to lower quality depression care observed in comparisons of primary care and specialty mental health providers.",
"The specificity of diagnosis of depression made by GPs in a continuous morbidity registry and the accordance with DSM-IV criteria are high. Using criteria for diagnosis, which is a trend, could be one of the solutions towards a better diagnosis. As far as the sensitivity is concerned, GPs should not be distracted from using criteria for the diagnosis of depression when a large variety of complaints is presented.",
"Health care professionals should focus on identification, assessment and management of suicidal ideation in the medically ill in patients both with and without MDD.",
"Belgian GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed on which criteria were important in defining cure from depression but differed in their attitudes about depression. The outcome dimensions that were considered important in defining cure were influenced by physicians' attitudes - this was more pronounced in GPs than in psychiatrists.",
"There is long-standing concern regarding poor recognition of depression in primary care, especially in older people. Studies that examined the unassisted (clinical) ability of general practitioners (GPs; primary care physicians) to identify depression were divided into those of older adults, younger adults and mixed populations. Data were extracted by 3 reviewers independently and pooled using a Bayesian meta-analysis. We identified 31 valid studies that examined both sensitivity and specificity (or rule-in and rule-out accuracy), involving 52,513 individuals. Twelve studies recruited older individuals, 12 recruited younger adults and 7 recruited both younger and older adults (mixed populations). In the most robust studies the point prevalence of depression in late life was 13.2% (95% CI = 7.9-19.6). GPs were able to correctly identify 47.3% of the late-life depressions and 78.6% of the non-cases (71.0% overall accuracy). In younger adults GPs were able to identify 39.7% of the mid-life depressions and 85.1% of the non-depressed (77.8% overall accuracy). In mixed aged groups GPs we able to correctly identify 46.6% of the depressed individuals and 86.2% of the non-depressed (79.6% overall accuracy). The overall fraction correctly identified was significantly lower in older compared with younger adults. Correcting for differences in prevalence showed a statistically lower rule-in performance for older compared with younger adults. There was no difference in ability to identify non-depressed (healthy) individuals by age.",
"The results of this study suggest that undergraduate medical students' participation in a modest clinical program can enhance substance abuse education. Through increased training in substance abuse, physicians reported greater confidence in their ability to relate to patients with substance abuse problems.",
"Previous estimates of depression recognition in primary care are low and inconsistent. This may be due to registration artifacts and limited extraction efforts. This study investigated a) whether GPs' medical records demonstrate an accurate recognition of depression and b) which combinations of indications within the record most accurately reflect a diagnosis of depression. GPs' registrations were compared with a reference standard, the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI), according to DSM-IV criteria. Six definitions of GPs' recognition of depression were tested using diagnostic codes, medication data, referral data and free text in the medical records. The Youden-index was used to select the optimal definition of recognition. Data were derived from the Netherlands Study of Depression and Anxiety. 816 primary care patients from 33 general practitioners were included in the vicinities of Amsterdam and Leiden, The Netherlands. Registration of antidepressant prescriptions was the best single indicator of GPs' recognition of CIDI depression with a recognition rate of 0.43. The best combination of indicators increased the recognition rate to 0.69. All indications except the specific diagnostic codes for 'depressive disorder' and 'depressive feelings' were included in this definition. Potential bias due to the selection of participating GPs might have influenced our recognition rates.",
"We conclude that it is possible to train selected specialist oncology nurses to manage major depression in patients with cancer in the context of an appropriately constituted multidisciplinary team.",
"Our aim was to evaluate whether trainees encounter more difficult clinical situations (clinical challenge rate) and more patients with signs of depression in the last year of their training (T(1)) than in the first year (T(0)), and whether depression is recognized by trainees more frequently at T(1) than at T(0). An evaluation was undertaken of videotapes made by a random sample of 48 vocational trainees in general practice. Experienced staff members (GPs) assessed the clinical challenge rate of consultations at the two time points with the reliable and valid Amsterdam Clinical Challenge Scale (ACCS). They also rated the presence of signs of depression in the consultations (yes/no) and whether these were recognized by the trainee (yes/no). Baseline and follow-up measurements (T(0) and (T(1))) were available for 45 trainees, from the original cohort of 48 at T(0), and for 527 consultations. Both at T(0) and at T(1), the mean ACCS score was 2.3 (T(0) SD = 0.95; n = 269) (T(1) SD = 0.92; n = 258). For each trainee, the mean difference in ACCS score between T(0) and T(1) was 0.01 [95% confidence interval (CI) -0.15 to 0.17]. According to staff-assessments, 66 patients had signs of depression (34 at T(0) and 32 at T(1)). Trainees recognized depression in 12 consultations (12/34 = 35%) at T(0) and in 11 consultations (11/32 = 34%) at T(1) (relative risk 1.0; 95% CI 0.4-2.9).",
"In addition to other possible reasons for older adults' low rates of mental health service use, this study suggests that family physicians' beliefs and treatment intentions could be contributing factors. Changes in medical education aimed at replacing inaccurate beliefs with accurate information regarding older patients might be one way to increase rates of use in this underserved age group, because family physicians play a key role in the mental health care of older adults.",
"The DAQ measure of ease of identification is not valid when compared to actual clinical practice. The ability of GPs to identify depression may not be an independent variable, but may rather reflect other beliefs, attitudes and skills. This has considerable implications for educational interventions in primary care.",
"Depression is a common problem in all medically ill populations. Reported prevalence rates of major depression in patients with cancer are up to 50%. Cancer patients attending primary care and medical outpatient clinics with comorbid major depressive disorder frequently do not receive effective treatment. More effective ways of identifying and treating patients with both cancer and depression are therefore urgently required.AIM: The paper reports a study addressing the question of whether oncology nurses can be trained to take on a greater role in the management of major depression in their patients. We developed and piloted an intervention that can be delivered by a specially trained oncology nurse. The intervention is multifaceted and based on a problem-solving model. It requires a widening of the role and expertise of specialist nurses. The challenges this role presents to the nurses are discussed. We suggest that they must have a varied work programme that is not exclusively about managing depression, that they require adequate peer support and are likely to be most effective when working as part of a multidisciplinary psycho-oncology team.",
"These observations confirm prior findings of a strong association at the population level between major depression and health-care use and role impairment among persons with chronic physical disorders. They also point to the significant impact of co-morbid major depression on health-care seeking, disability and work absence in persons with chronic physical illness, underscoring the need for greater efforts to design and test the impact of detection and treatment programs for such individuals.",
"This study aimed to document the outcome dimensions that physicians see as important in defining cure from depression. The study also aimed to analyse physicians' attitudes about depression and to find out whether they affect their prescribing practices and/or the outcome dimensions that they view as important in defining cure. A 51-item questionnaire based on six validated scales was used to rate the importance of several depression outcome dimensions. Physicians' attitudes about depression were also assessed using the Depression Attitude Scale. Overall, 369 Belgian physicians (264 general practitioners [GPs]; 105 psychiatrists) participated in the DEsCRIBE™ survey. GPs and psychiatrists strongly agreed that functioning and depressive symptomatology were most important in defining cure; anxious and somatic symptomatology was least important. GPs and psychiatrists differed in their attitudes about depression (p<0.001). Logistic regression revealed that the attitudes of GPs - but not psychiatrists - were significantly associated with their rates of antidepressant prescription (p<0.001) and that certain attitudes predicted which outcome dimensions were seen as important in defining cure.",
"Neither high scores on the CES-D nor unaided physician detection accurately identified patients with major depression who were seen in primary care settings, while the supplementation of physician detection with CES-D scores had a minimal net effect on the accuracy of detection. The data do not support the routine use of the CES-D as a primary care screening instrument for depression, either as a stand-alone measure or as a supplement to physician detection.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate training in developmental and behavioral pediatrics (DBP) for graduating residents, their competencies in diagnosing and treating child mental health (MH) problems, and whether the amount of DBP training and/or perceived competencies are associated with perceived responsibility for treating 3 MH problems. Data were collected from 636 residents who completed the American Academy of Pediatrics's 2007 Graduating Residents Survey. The survey included questions on training and self-rated competencies in multiple MH skill areas and perceived responsibility for identifying and treating/managing children's MH problems. Weighted multivariable logistic regression analyses examined associations between training, competencies, and perceived responsibility for treating/managing attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), anxiety, and depression. Ninety percent of respondents completed a DBP rotation, with 86% reporting>3 to 4 weeks of training. Duration of DBP rotation was related to training and perceived competencies in MH skill areas, and nearly all residents who reported high competencies were trained in those skill areas. However,<50% reported their competencies as \"very good\" or \"excellent.\" Residents with training and high competency in dosing with medications were most likely to agree that pediatricians should be responsible for treating/managing ADHD, anxiety, and depression.",
"GPs are aware of mental health problems in most depressed patients, but labeling with specific diagnostic codes is weak. Researchers should consider that diagnostic coding alone is not an accurate measure of the diagnostic ability of depression and strongly underestimates the accuracy of the GP.",
"We sought to ascertain whether patients' requests for antidepressants affect visit duration or history taking by primary care physicians (PCPs) for patients with depressive symptoms and a coexisting musculoskeletal disorder and to determine whether more thorough history taking is associated with diagnostic accuracy or with provision of minimally acceptable initial care for major depression. This was a randomized trial using standardized patients (SPs). Six roles involved 2 conditions (major depression and adjustment disorder, both with coexisting musculoskeletal conditions) and 3 patient request types (brand-specific, general, or none). We conducted the study in 152 PCP offices in Northern California and Rochester, New York. Physicians were assigned randomly to see 2 SPs with depression/wrist pain or adjustment disorder/back pain. Physician history-taking for depression and the musculoskeletal condition; depression diagnosis in the medical record; antidepressant prescriptions/samples; referral/follow-up recommendations; visit duration; and provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care. General antidepressant requests were associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.80 more questions of 10 (95% confidence interval = 0.31-1.29, P<0.001); brand-specific requests were marginally associated with more depression history-taking (Adjusted Parameter Estimate = 0.45, 95% confidence interval = -0.04-0.93, P = 0.07). Antidepressant medication requests were not related to musculo-skeletal question asking (P>0.3) or visit length (P>0.8). Depression history taking was directly associated with the likelihood of a chart diagnosis of depression and the provision of minimally acceptable initial depression care.",
"yes. Patients with 1 degrees SS appear to be at increased risk from clinical depression. Early recognition and appropriate intervention is therefore essential to reduce the negative impact of depression on the patient's quality of life and outcome of their disease.",
"Family physicians need education in the value of respite services for their chronically ill older patients and their families. Physicians also need information on the respite services available and strategies for accessing them. Our findings suggest a need for greater attention to regional discrepancies in availability of services.",
"yes. The USPSTF recommendation to screen adults for depression in primary care settings when staff-assisted depression management programs are available is not supported by evidence from any RCTs that are directly relevant to the recommendation. The USPSTF should re-evaluate this recommendation. Please see related article: http://www.biomedcentral.com/1741-7015/12/14 REGISTRATION: PROSPERO (#CRD42013004276).",
"Despite recent curricular reforms, an alarming number of current medicine residents report depressive symptoms, increasing cynicism, and decreasing humanism, which were associated with increasing educational debt and a need to moonlight for financial survival. Ongoing curricular reform, legislative relief from early loan repayment, and salary increases may be necessary to address these problems.",
"Remission rates in primary care studies of depression are at least as high as for those in psychiatric settings. It is a realistic goal for family physicians to target remission of symptoms as an optimal outcome for treatment of depression.",
"It is tentatively argued that the different sources might correspond to qualitatively different 'depression' constructs, and that health professionals who are concerned with depression in the elderly be aware of the disparity between, and subsequently consider, a variety of recognition sources.",
"These results suggest that depression may have a clinically significant influence on patients' willingness to share health care decisions with others. Health care providers should be alert to this possibility, particularly when the decision at hand is significant.",
"no. Close to 50% of the depressed individuals did not seek primary care during a depressive episode, and close to 80% of them would have liked their mental health to be discussed more often by a health professional. Better information on depression and its treatments, and more-systematic screening by primary care personnel would improve the treatment of depressed patients, especially those in the most precarious situations.",
"Evidence of important psychological issues in some patients with hand pain suggests a need for greater awareness among treating physicians.",
"To explore the issue of diagnostic specificity for major depression in the primary care setting by examining the relative accuracy of 3 methods to detect major depression in primary care. Comparison of performance characteristics of 3 case-finding methods for depression (ie, the Center for Epidemiologic Studies-Depression scale [CES-D], unaided physician detection, and \"augmented\" physician detection by use of a case-finding instrument), with the standard criterion being the Structured Clinical Interview for Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Third Edition, Revised (DSM-III-R). The offices of 50 family physicians from private and academic practice in southeastern Michigan. Adult patients (N = 1580) who presented for routine care, from which a weighted random sample of 425 patients completed the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-III-R. Sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and positive likelihood ratio for each case-finding method. Major depression was present in 13.4% of the sample. Both the CES-D and unaided physician detection methods performed poorly in identifying patients who met DSM-III-R criteria for major depressive disorder. The CES-D had high sensitivity but low specificity at standard and high cut points, resulting, respectively, in low positive predictive values (0.307 and 0.385) and low positive likelihood ratios (2.9 and 4.0). Unaided physician detection showed lower sensitivity, higher specificity, and a slightly higher positive predictive value (0.45) and positive likelihood ratio (4.9). Raising of the CES-D threshold for a positive test did not enhance the detection of depression. Augmented physician detection with CES-D scores resulted in minimal improvement. Although the positive predictive value and positive likelihood ratio increased to 0.50 and 6.1, respectively, using the most stringent case-finding definition (ie, physician identification plus the CES-D score [score>or = 22]), the proportion of depressed patients who were correctly identified decreased to 26.9%.",
"General practitioners can improve their ability to detect psychological distress in their patients utilizing this self-directed educational approach.",
"yes. Adherence to depression and anxiety guidelines can be improved, even when the general practitioner makes the diagnosis and records it. Data on actual health care delivery and quality of care provide insight and may be useful in developing quality improvement activities.",
"The majority of patients accepted antidepressant prescribing by their oncologist; only a minority preferred treatment by a mental health professional. These findings suggest that promoting education of oncologists to assess psychological symptoms and manage anxiety and depression as a routine part of an outpatient visit is beneficial",
"no. The finding that depression and social factors are more important for patient satisfaction with provided care than disease-related aspects suggests that these factors need to be considered carefully in treatment. This represents a big challenge within an increasingly specialized health care system. The General Practitioner as the regular and first-choice provider of health care seems to be the most appropriate instance who can accomplish this.",
"yes. Depressed patients with higher ratings of involvement in medical decisions have a higher probability of receiving guideline-concordant care and improving their symptoms over an 18-month period. Interventions to increase patient involvement in decision-making may be an important means of improving care for and outcomes of depression.",
"Cardiovascular nurses and medicine residents and interns underrecognize depression in patients with AMI in the absence of formal screening. Formal screening for symptoms of depression should be considered part of routine AMI care.",
"Multiple, practical questionnaires with reasonable performance characteristics are available to help clinicians identify and diagnose patients with major depression. Diagnostic confirmation by mental health care professionals using a clinical interview or by primary care physicians using a semistructured interview can be made with high reliability.",
"yes. Physicians should pay attention to physical, anxiety, and panic symptoms, because these symptoms are related to remission of depression. Future studies should explore how these symptoms affect the prognosis of depression.",
"The study shows that subthreshold depression is a clinically relevant issue for GPs but raises the possibility that quality improvement might not be as necessary as past studies showed. Further quantitative research using larger random samples is needed to determine the effectiveness of the strategies used by the GPs, patients' satisfaction with these strategies and the course of these patients' symptoms in primary care.",
"The feasibility of a two-item screening tool for maternal depression in a pediatric setting was recently reported. We assessed whether the accuracy of pediatrician recognition of maternal depression during the one-month well-child visit could be improved by an educational intervention using the two-item screening tool. We conducted an educational intervention for pediatric residents in a suburban hospital in Tokyo, Japan, with outcome measurement before and after. Resident education included knowledge about postpartum depression and its impact on children, use of the two-item screening tool and available management strategies. Sixteen pediatric residents examined 267 mother-infant dyads during well-child visits. Residents documented the presence or absence of postpartum depressive symptoms on medical records. Depressive symptoms were also determined using the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) survey; residents were not aware of the results. Using the EPDS as a \"gold standard,\" improvement in sensitivity and specificity of resident recognition of maternal depressive symptoms was determined. The overall prevalence of postpartum depressive symptoms based on the EPDS was 15.4%. The sensitivity of resident recognition was 8% and specificity 98% before intervention, and 12% and 96% afterwards, respectively. The difference was not statistically significant. Residents indicated fear of maternal stigmatization and mothers' receptiveness to discussing depressive symptoms, as well as lack of time and skills, as major barriers to the identification of maternal depression.",
"Strategies to improve mental health care should account for the orientation of primary care physicians to mental health issues.",
"Clinicians have considerable difficulty accurately identifying distress and mild depression in primary care with only one in three people correctly diagnosed. Clinicians are better able to identify distress than mild depression but success remains limited. However not all such individuals want professional help, and some people who are overlooked get help elsewhere, or improve spontaneously, therefore the implications of these detection problems are not yet clear.",
"Interventions such as screening and GP education may be ineffective in improving primary mental health care unless accompanied by educational programmes for the general public to increase mental health literacy, de-stigmatise mental illness and increase awareness of general practice as an appropriate and effective source of health care.",
"This study surveyed Israeli primary care physicians' attitudes and practice regarding postpartum depression (PPD). Participants included 224 pediatricians and family practitioners responding to an online survey (65% response rate). Almost all respondents (98.0%) considered it important that they be able to recognize the signs of PPD. Most (89.8%) noted that if they suspected PPD, they would become somewhat involved: clarifying, keeping attentive, consulting with colleagues, and/or referring the woman to another professional. Six respondents--only family practitioners--stated that they would treat the case themselves (P = .01). Family practitioners were significantly more willing to screen for PPD than were pediatricians (91.2% vs 64.6%; P<.0001). There were no differences between physicians by region or between males and females when comparing all respondents, as well as when comparing within medical specialty (P<.05).",
"To investigate the effects of exclusively physical presentation of depression on 1). depression management and outcomes under usual care conditions, and 2). the impact of an intervention to improve management and outcomes. Secondary analysis of a depression intervention trial in 12 community-based primary care practices. Two hundred adults beginning a new treatment episode for depression. Presenting complaint and physician depression query at index visit; antidepressant use, completion of adequate antidepressant trial, change in depressive symptoms, and physical and emotional role functioning at 6 months. Sixty-six percent of depressed patients presented exclusively with physical symptoms. Under usual care conditions, psychological presenters were more likely than physical presenters to complete an adequate trial of antidepressant treatment but experienced equivalent improvements in depressive severity and role functioning. In patients presenting exclusively with physical symptoms, the intervention significantly improved physician query (40.8% vs 18.0%; P =.06), receipt of any antidepressant (63.0% vs 20.1%; P =.001), and an adequate antidepressant trial (34.9% vs 5.9%; P =.004), but did not significantly improve depression severity or role functioning. In patients presenting with psychological symptoms, the intervention significantly improved receipt of any antidepressant (79.9% vs 38.0%; P =.01) and an adequate antidepressant trial (46.0% vs 23.8%; P =.004), and also improved depression severity and physical and emotional role functioning.",
"Depression treatment by General Practitioners (GPs) and patient outcomes improved significantly after a comprehensive 20-h training program of GPs. This study examines whether the effects on patient outcomes are caused by the improvements in the process of care. Seventeen GPs participated in the training program. A pre-test-post-test design was used. A total of 174 patients (85 pre-test, 89 post-test) aged 18-65 met ICD-10 criteria for recent onset major depression. The main indicator of mediation was a drop in training effect size (eta2) on patient outcome after adjustment for individual and combined process of care variables. We evaluated depression-specific (recognition, accurate diagnosis, prescription of antidepressant, adequate antidepressant treatment) and a non-specific process of care variable (communicative skillfulness of the GP) as well as the combination of adequate antidepressant treatment and communicative skillfulness. Patient outcomes were assessed at 3 months and consisted of change in severity of symptomatology, level of daily functioning and activity limitation days from baseline. Depression-specific interventions mediated up to one third of the observed improvement in patient outcome. 'Adequate dosage and duration of an antidepressant' explained 36% of the training effect on patient outcome (eta2 from 0.044 to 0.028). 'Communicative skillfulness of the GP' only was a weak mediator (18% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.036). However, the combination of both, that is adequate antidepressant treatment by a communicative skillful GP, proved to be the strongest mediator of the observed training effect on patient outcomes (59% explained; eta2 from 0.044 to 0.018). The training effects on patient outcomes in this sample were small. Hence, the scope for mediation was limited.",
"yes. Supported self-management is identified as a promising intervention that could be integrated into primary health care within the context of the Canadian health care system. It constitutes a feasible and practical approach to enhance the role of family physicians in the delivery of services to individuals with milder forms of depression and promotes the active engagement of individuals in their recovery and in prevention of future episodes.",
"Depression is not routinely investigated in clinical settings. Doctors should be alerted and trained on the monitoring of depression in this age group.",
"The low knowledge about mental disorders, particularly depression, confirms the importance and the need to increase mental health literacy. Furthermore, professionals must openly discuss illness models with their patients, especially emphasising the differences between illness and crisis.",
"After education on optimal management of depression, intervention physicians did not differ from their usual care colleagues in depression diagnosis or pharmacotherapy.",
"yes. For purposes of preventing suicidal behaviour, screening for depression, plus further education on recognition, diagnosis and treatment of mood disorders among the elderly in primary health care setting are needed.",
"Despite the association of depression care plans with patient disability improvement, inadequate compliance to evidence-based DCM was found. Medicare and HHC agencies must ensure compliance to DCM, including follow-up depression assessment for patients with positive screens.",
"Whilst we know that patients with medical conditions are often depressed and that such co-morbid depression is often undertreated, we have found that it is undertreated even in patients repeatedly referred to medical specialists. Better assessment and management of depression in such patients could both improve patients' quality of life and reduce the cost of care.",
"The objective of this study was to investigate medical students' knowledge and attitudes towards depression. Students attending their final year at Zagreb School of Medicine completed a set of standardized questionnaires, including attitudes towards psychiatric medication, attitudes towards depression, and personality inventory. In total, 199 students completed the questionnaire (response rate 77 %). Most medical students were only partially able to correctly identify major symptoms of depression, but did suggest referral to mental health specialists as the most appropriate course of action. They recognized social and biological causes of depression. Degree of correct identification of symptoms of depression correlated positively with non-stigmatizing attitudes towards depression and negatively with stigmatizing attitudes towards depression.",
"Depression is commonly presented to GPs who feel that the diagnosis often involves the separation of a normal reaction to environment and true illness. For those patients living in socio-economically deprived environments, the problems, and therefore the depression, are seen to be insoluble. This has an important implication for the construction of educational interventions around improving the recognition and treatment of depression in primary care: some doctors may be reluctant to recognize and respond to such patients in depth because of the much wider structural and social factors that we have suggested in this paper. That it is the doctors working with deprived populations who express these views, means that the 'Inverse care law' [Tudor Hart J. The inverse care Law. Lancet 1971; 1(7696): 405-412] operates in the management of depression.",
"We developed a comprehensive, 20-hour training programme for primary-care physicians, that sought to improve their ability to detect, diagnose and manage depression. We evaluated the effects of physician training on patient outcomes, using a pre-post design. In the pre-training phase of the study, we sampled 1834 consecutive patients of 17 primary-care physicians and evaluated 518 of these patients for the presence of depression. We measured outcomes of all patients with depression at 3 months and 1 year. The outcome measures were: severity of psychopathology; duration of depressive episode; and level of daily functioning. After the 17 physicians completed the training, we drew a new sample from their practices (498 of 1785 consecutive patients were evaluated for depression) and measured outcomes for the depressed patients. We found an effect of the training on short-term outcome, particularly for patients with a recent-onset depression. At 3-month follow-up depressed patients whose physicians had received training had less severe psychopathology and patients with recent-onset depression also showed higher levels of daily functioning than patients of the same physicians prior to the training. The patients with a recent-onset depression that was recognized by trained physicians had shorter depressive episodes, but this was not statistically significant. At 1-year follow-up, all training effects had faded away.",
"These findings further emphasize the importance of treating depression among older adults, and suggest that both dentists and physicians have a role in recognizing and referring patients for such treatment.",
"GP communication skills are important to enhance depression-specific interventions in bringing about improvements in patient outcomes and should be addressed in GP training programs for the treatment of depression.",
"There was no enduring improvement in the treatment of depression for primary care patients. Depression treatment guidelines were achieved contemporaneously, however, for intervention patients enrolled in a multifaceted program of collaborative care during the training period. These results suggest that continuing programs of reorganized service delivery to support the role of a primary care physician (eg, on-site mental health personnel, close monitoring of patient progress and adherence), in addition to physician training, are essential for the success of guideline implementation.",
"Many patients who visit primary care physicians suffer from depression, but physicians may miss the diagnosis or undertreat these patients. Improving physicians' communication skills pertaining to diagnosing and managing depression may lead to better outcomes. We performed a randomized controlled trial involving 49 primary care physicians to determine the effect of the Depression Education Program on their knowledge of depression and their behavior toward depressed patients. After randomization, physicians in the intervention group completed the Depression Education Program, which consists of 2 4-hour interactive workshops that combine lectures, discussion, audiotape review, and role-playing. Between sessions, physicians audiotaped an interview with one of their patients. Two to 6 weeks following the intervention program, physicians completed a knowledge test and received office visits from 2 unannounced people acting as standardized patients with major depression. These \"patients\" completed a checklist and scales. Logistic and linear regression were used to control for sex, specialty, and suspicion that the patient was a standardized patient. For both standardized patients, more intervention physicians than control physicians asked about stresses at home, and they also scored higher on the Participatory Decision-Making scale. During the office visits of one of the standardized patients, more intervention physicians asked about at least 5 criteria for major depression (82% and 38%, P = .006), discussed the possibility of depression (96% and 65%, P = .049), scheduled a return visit within 2 weeks (67% and 33%, P = .004), and scored higher than control physicians on the Patient Satisfaction scale (40.3 and 35.5, P = .014).",
"Students' attitudes toward depression may influence their recognition of symptoms of depression. Incorporation of these findings in development of undergraduate medical curricula may improve students' recognition of depression.",
"The purpose of this investigation was to assess the relationship of primary care specialty training with self-assessed skill, knowledge, attitudes, and behavior toward depression recognition and management. A baseline self-report questionnaire was administered to 184 internists and 138 family physicians participating in a multisite depression intervention study. There were no marked differences in knowledge of internists and family physicians regarding depression, in attitudes about the effectiveness of specific therapies, or in barriers to providing optimum treatment for depression. However, compared to internists, family physicians rated themselves as more skilled in the management of depression. When considering management of patients with moderate to severe depression, family physicians were more likely to report that they prescribed a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor (relative odds (RO) = 3.51, 95 percent Confidence interval (CI) [2.19, 5.60] and to personally counsel patients (RO = 1.97, 95 percent CI [1.16, 3.38]) more than half the patients, but were less likely to refer to a specialist in mental health (RO = 0.52, 95 percent CI [0.33, 0.82]) than were internists. Additional potentially influential characteristics did not wholly account for the reported differences in practice according to specialty. Physicians of both specialties expressed considerable uncertainty in their knowledge of psychotherapy and in their evaluation of the effectiveness of other strategies for the prevention of recurrence of depression.",
"yes. Our study demonstrates that a simple and brief educational program can enhance family physicians' knowledge of depression; however, an increase in knowledge alone may not necessarily translate into practice behavior change.",
"To assess the effect of physician training on management of depression. Primary care physicians were randomly assigned to a depression management intervention that included an educational program. A before-and-after design evaluated physician practices for patients not enrolled in the intervention trial. One hundred nine primary care physicians in 2 health maintenance organizations located in the Midwest and Northwest regions of the United States.PATIENTS/ Computerized pharmacy and visit data from a group of 124,893 patients who received visits or prescriptions from intervention and usual care physicians. Primary care physicians received education on diagnosis and optimal management of depression over a 3-month training period. Methods of education included small group interactive discussions, expert demonstrations, role-play, and academic detailing of pharmacotherapy, criteria for urgent psychiatric referrals, and case reviews with psychiatric consultants. Pharmacy and visit data provided indicators of physician management of depression: rate of newly diagnosed depression, new prescription of antidepressant medication, and duration of pharmacotherapy. One year after the training period, intervention and usual care physicians did not differ significantly in the rate of new depression diagnosis (P =.95) or new prescription of antidepressant medicines (P =.10). Meanwhile, patients of intervention physicians did not differ from patients of usual care physicians in adequacy of pharmacotherapy (P =.53) as measured by 12 weeks of continuous antidepressant treatment.",
"The authors examine whether physician education has enduring effects on treatment of depression. Depressed primary care patients initiating antidepressant treatment from primary care clinics of a staff-model health maintenance organization were studied. Quasi-experimental and before-and-after comparisons of physician practices, supplemented with patient surveys, were used to compare the process of care and depression outcomes. Intervention consisted of extensive physician education that spanned a 12-month period. This included case-by-case consultations, didactics, academic detailing (eg, clearly stating the educational and behavioral objectives to individual physicians), and role-play of optimal treatment. Main outcome measures were divided into two groups. Quasi-experimental samples included: (1) antidepressant medication selection and (2) adequacy (dosage and duration) of pharmacotherapy. Survey samples included: (3) intensity of follow-up; (4) physician delivered educational messages regarding depression treatment; (5) patient satisfaction; and (6) depression outcomes. No lasting educational effect was observed consistently in any of the outcomes measured.",
"Training primary-care physicians to recognize, diagnose and manage depression can improve short-term patient outcomes, especially for patients with a recent onset of depression. Patients suffering from a recurrent or chronic depression may need more specific interventions, both for acute treatment and long-term management.",
"The Depression Education Program changed physicians' behavior and may be an important component in the efforts to improve the care of depressed patients.",
"Depression is frequently unrecognized and undertreated. Therefore, there is a need to increase the knowledge and skills of primary care physicians regarding management of depression. The aim of this study was to determine if a brief educational intervention can affect family physicians' knowledge of the diagnosis and treatment of depression. Sixty-eight community-based, nonacademic family physicians completed the program, which was delivered using a mixed lecture-seminar format. Knowledge about depression was assessed pre- and post-program. Paired-sample t test and chi-square test were used to compare test scores. Although study physicians demonstrated high baseline knowledge of depression, 75% of them had better scores following the program. The increase in knowledge was statistically significant (p < .0001)."
] | 748 |
Is acculturation a risk factor for early smoking initiation among Chinese American minors? | [
"To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.",
"Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account."
] | [
"yes. In an Italian population, we confirmed smoking and alcohol as cofactors in the development of CP. This study shows that alcohol intake and smoking habits are 2 of the most important risk factors for the development of CP.",
"To examine household structure when studying determinants of youth smoking, as the configuration of a family is an important factor in the etiology of adolescent problem behaviors. The study sample (n = 13,001) included respondents aged 12-19 years who were either living in two-parent households, single-parent households, or no-parent households, and with valid response to the smoking status questions from the Canadian Community Health Survey. Multivariate logistic regression was used to test the presence and strength of the association between household structure and the likelihood of smoking while controlling for age, sex, household education, and exposure to secondhand smoking. The odds of youth smoking in the single-parent household was 1.78 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households. Similarly, the odds of youth smoking in no-parent households was 1.47 times greater than the odds of youth smoking in two-parent households.",
"The current study examined the influence of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interaction on smoking cessation among Latinos. Logistic regression analysis was used to examine the main effects of gender, acculturation indicators, and their interactions on self-reported 7-day abstinence at 12-week follow-up among 271 Latino smokers seeking cessation counseling. Analyses revealed significant main effects for several acculturation indicators and significant interactions of gender with number of years lived in the United States, proportion of life lived in the United States, and preferred media language (all P values <0.05). Follow-up analyses indicated no significant relationships between abstinence and acculturation indicators among women. Among men, abstinence rates increased with years in the United States, proportion of life in the United States, and preferred media language of English.",
"yes. Smoking and sexual activity among adolescents are far less common in Hong Kong than in the West and their presence in a Hong Kong adolescent should alert the health practitioner to the possibility of significant psychosocial stress and maladjustment.",
"At one time, it was expected that if an individual reached young adulthood without smoking, his/her risk for initiation was minimal. However, recent data suggest that smoking initiation among young adults may be increasing. One particularly vulnerable population of young adults for smoking initiation is military recruits. This study examined whether a modified version of the Pierce Susceptibility Questionnaire (PSQ) might be useful for identifying military recruits who are vulnerable for the initiation of tobacco use. Active duty recruits entering the U.S. Air Force over a 1-year period (n=31,107) were assessed upon entry into basic military training (BMT), and a subsample was also assessed at 12 months following training. The modified PSQ predicted initiation of cigarette use for all categories of baseline smokers (never, experimenters, former smokers, and regular users). The likelihood of initiating smoking after BMT was substantially higher among those identified as susceptible than among those identified as not susceptible.",
"Social capital may act both as a protective and a risk factor for adolescent smoking. Achieving higher levels of family-related social capital might reduce socioeconomic inequalities in adolescent smoking.",
"Movie smoking exposure is a strong predictor of smoking initiation by adolescents; however, we do not know whether it is a long-term predictor of established smoking. We conducted a prospective study to determine whether movie smoking exposure during early adolescence predicts established smoking in older teens and young adults. We assessed movie smoking exposure and smoking status through a written school-based survey in 1999, when participants were 10 to 14 years of age. We enrolled 73% (n = 2603) of those who had never tried smoking in a follow-up study. In 2006-2007, we conducted telephone interviews with 69% (n = 1791) of the cohort to ascertain current smoking status. The primary outcome was established smoking, defined as having smoked >100 cigarettes. Mean age at follow-up was 18.7 years. Thirteen percent (n = 235) progressed from never smoking to established smoking during the follow-up period. Eighty-nine percent (n = 209) of established smokers smoked during the 30 days before the survey. Even after controlling for a wide range of baseline characteristics, the relative risk for established smoking increased by one third with each successive quartile of movie smoking exposure. Those in the highest quartile for baseline movie smoking exposure were twice as likely to be established smokers at follow-up compared with those in the lowest quartile.",
"To determine whether exposure to smoking imagery in films predicts smoking onset among never-smoking Mexican adolescents. The analytic sample was comprised of 11- to 14-year-old secondary school students who reported never having tried smoking at baseline, 83% (1,741/2,093) of whom were successfully followed-up after 1 year. Exposure to 42 popular films that contained smoking was assessed at baseline, whereas smoking behavior and risk factors were assessed at baseline and at follow-up. Logistic regression was used to estimate bivariate and adjusted relative risks (ARR) of trying smoking and current smoking at follow-up. At follow-up, 36% reported having tried smoking and 8% reported having smoked in the previous month. Students who were successfully followed-up were exposed to an average of 43.8 minutes of smoking in the films they reported viewing at baseline. ARRs indicated that students in the two highest levels of exposure to film smoking were more than twice as likely to have smoked in the previous 30 days at follow-up [ARR(3v1) = 2.44; 95% confidence interval (CI), 1.31-4.55; ARR(4v1) = 2.23; 95% CI, 1.19-4.17]. The ARR of having tried smoking by the time of follow-up reached statistical significance only when comparing the third highest to the lowest exposure group (ARR(3v1) = 1.54; 95% CI, 1.01-2.64). Having a parent or best friend who smoked at baseline were the only other variables that independently predicted both outcomes.",
"The prevalence figures and educational associations suggest that the socioeconomic gradient changes in earlier stages of the epidemic in immigrant populations than in the Western host populations, particularly in men. This provides indications to suggest that smoking prevention measures in male immigrant groups need to be tailored to lower socioeconomic groups in particular throughout the tobacco epidemic, and to higher socioeconomic groups among women.",
"Little is known about influences on e-cigarette use among early adolescents. This study examined influences that have been previously found to be associated with gateway drug use in adolescents: demographic (age, gender, ethnicity, free lunch), social contextual influences of parents and peers, and executive function deficits (EF). A cross-sectional survey was administered to 410 7th grade students from two diverse school districts in Southern California (M age;=12.4years, 48.3% female, 34.9% on free lunch (low socioeconomic status), 45.1% White, 25.4% Hispanic/Latino, 14.9% Mixed/bi-racial.) Logistic regression analyses examined influences of demographic, parent e-cigarette ownership and peer use, and EF on lifetime e-cigarette, and gateway drug use (cigarette and/or alcohol use). Lifetime use prevalence was 11.0% for e-cigarettes, 6.8% for cigarettes, and 38.1% for alcohol. Free lunch and age were marginally related to e-cigarette use (p<.10). Parent e-cigarette ownership was associated with use of all substances, while peer use was associated with gateway drug use (p's<.05-.001). EF deficits were associated with use of all substances five times more likely than others to use e-cigarettes and over twice as likely to use gateway drugs.",
"Ethnic minorities in America will achieve majority by 2042, and due to their younger age distribution, will represent the largest proportion of women at risk for premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). Research has not addressed ethnic minority women's vulnerabilities to PMDD. The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between acculturation and PMDD. An analysis of acculturation and PMDD among 3856 English-speaking, pre-menopausal Asian, Latina, and Black women from the National Latino and Asian American Survey and the National Survey of American Life was performed. The lifetime prevalence of PMDD was 3.3%. Nativity status, duration of residence, and age at immigration were significantly associated with PMDD. Foreign-born women (OR=0.38; 95% confidence interval (CI)=0.21-0.68) and immigrants arriving to the US after age six (OR=0.33, 95% CI=0.18, 0.62) were less likely to have PMDD, compared to US-born women, and US-born women/immigrants who arrived before age six, respectively. The likelihood of PMDD increased as the duration of residence in the US lengthened.",
"The risk of incident smoking in children entering secondary education is independently increased by exposure to other ever smokers in school tutor groups. Incident smoking in adolescents is thus to some extent a communicable disorder, and may be partly preventable by policies that reduce exposure to smoking at school.",
"The objective of this study was to determine contextual antecedents to smoking among Korean American emerging adult (KAEA) smokers using ecological momentary assessment. Based on extant theory and data documenting the importance of negative affect (NA) and social context, we examined the extent to which being with friends and NA independently and concomitantly were associated with the likelihood of subsequent smoking, over and beyond other known situational correlates of smoking. Twenty-two KAEA daily smokers recorded their smoking events in real time and participated in short surveys implemented on mobile phones for 7 days. Individual, interpersonal, and situational contexts immediately preceding and during smoking events were examined in comparison to nonsmoking events using a within-subject modeling approach. Both NA and being with friends independently were correlated with increased likelihood of smoking. We also found an interaction showing that the effects of NA on smoking were significant only in presence of friends.",
"yes. Identifying adolescent smokers who smoke their first cigarette of the day within the first 30min of waking prior to a quit attempt may help to classify those individuals as having a greater risk for cessation failure. Thus, TTFC may be a behavioral indicator of nicotine dependence in adolescents.",
"We examined differences in selected pregnancy-related risk factors, including maternal sociodemographic characteristics, health-related conditions, and periconceptional behavioral factors, among foreign-born versus U.S.-born control mothers across race/ethnic groups. We used data from the National Birth Defects Prevention Study, and calculated odds ratios (ORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) of the risk factors, for foreign-born Hispanic, non-Hispanic white, non-Hispanic black, and Asian/Pacific Islander (API) mothers, compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. Across all race/ethnic groups, foreign-born mothers were older and had lower odds of obesity compared to their U.S.-born counterparts. With the exception of foreign-born black mothers, foreign-born mothers from other race/ethnic groups had significantly lower odds of binge drinking during the periconceptional period. Compared to U.S.-born, foreign-born Hispanic mothers had twice the odds of gestational diabetes (OR = 2.23; 95% CI = 1.36-3.66). Certain health behaviors were less prevalent in foreign-born black mothers (e.g., folic acid use; OR = 0.54; 95% CI = 0.31-0.96) and foreign-born API mothers (e.g., cigarette smoking; OR = 0.10; 95% CI = 0.02-0.48).",
"Current research on the continuum of smoking initiation has largely focused on phases of progressing frequency of smoking. To gain more insight into reasons some adolescents do, and others do not, proceed to advanced levels of smoking behavior, a continuum in which two categories of ex-smoking are proposed is examined. Standardized scores on psychosocial predictors of smoking among adolescent nonsmoking deciders and quitters were compared cross-sectionally with those of the categories of never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers (n = 23,317). Never smokers, triers, experimenters, and regular smokers had significantly different characteristics with regard to psychosocial predictors of smoking (P<0.01), with scores of never smokers indicating that they were least at risk of smoking in the future and those of regular smokers indicating that they were most at risk. Scores of nonsmoking deciders showed that they were less at risk than triers and experimenters and more at risk than never smokers. Quitters seemed to have less risky psychosocial characteristics than experimenters and more risky characteristics than nonsmoking deciders.",
"This study examines the main and interaction effects of known social risk factors for substance use (inadequate parental monitoring and substance using friends) in adolescence and a polygenic score in predicting marijuana and tobacco use in adolescence and young adulthood. Phenotypic and genetic data were derived from a longitudinal study of a cohort of urban, predominately African American youth. Last year substance-use measures were collected annually from 8th grade through age 22. Participant self-reports of substance-using friends and parent monitoring were obtained yearly from Grades 8 to 12. Using longitudinal latent class analysis, the authors identified parallel developmental trajectories of tobacco and marijuana use and parent monitoring and the proportion of substance-using friends. Two trajectories were identified for tobacco and marijuana use, characterized by moderate versus little-to-no use. Additionally, 2 latent profiles were found for the social environment profiles: those characterized by higher parent monitoring and a lower proportion of substance-using friends versus lower parent monitoring and a higher proportion of substance-using friends.",
"To compare certain preconception health (PCH) behaviors and conditions among US-born (USB) and foreign-born (FB) mothers in Los Angeles County (LAC), regardless of race/ethnicity, and to determine if any identified differences vary among Asian/Pacific Islanders (API's) and Hispanics. Data are from the 2012 Los Angeles Mommy and Baby study (n = 6252). PCH behaviors included tobacco use, multivitamin use, unintended pregnancy, and contraception use. PCH conditions comprised being overweight/obese, diabetes, asthma, hypertension, gum disease, and anemia. The relationship between nativity and each PCH behavior/condition was assessed using multivariable logistic regression models. USB women were more likely than FB women to smoke (AOR 2.12, 95 % CI 1.49-3.00), be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.30-1.90), and have asthma (AOR 2.04, 95 % CI 1.35-3.09) prior to pregnancy. They were less likely than FB women to use contraception before pregnancy (AOR 0.59, 95 % CI 0.49-0.72). USB Hispanics and API's were more likely than their FB counterparts to be overweight/obese (AOR 1.57, 95 % CI 1.23-2.01 and AOR 2.37, 95 % CI 1.58-3.56, respectively) and less likely to use contraception (AOR 0.58, 95 % CI 0.45-0.74 and AOR 0.46, 95 % CI 0.30-0.71, respectively). USB Hispanic mothers were more likely than their FB counterparts to smoke (AOR 2.47, 95 % CI 1.46-4.17), not take multivitamins (AOR 1.30, 95 % CI 1.02-1.66), and have asthma (AOR 2.35, 95 % CI 1.32-4.21) before pregnancy.",
"yes. This was the first study to extend analytical methodology for sensitivity to active smoking to sensitivity to SHSe in youth who had never smoked. Results suggest a desensitization process with age and lower sensitivity to some reactions in preteens from more highly educated households. Preteens who have more aversive experiences with SHSe tend to be less susceptible to smoking than those who experience fewer aversive reactions. Assessment of sensitivity to SHSe is a novel approach to the study of cigarette use etiology and may contribute to better prediction of smoking initiation.",
"We examined the relationship of smoking cessation in parents to smoking and uptake and cessation by their adolescent children. We analyzed a cross-sectional sample of 4,502 adolescents, ages 15-17 years, who lived in two-parent households that were interviewed as part of the 1992-1993 Tobacco Supplement of the Current Population Survey, which questioned householders 15 years of age and older about their smoking history. Ever smokers reported smoking at least 100 cigarettes in their lifetime. Former smokers were ever smokers who had quit. Multivariate analyses, adjusted for demographic characteristics of adolescents, as well as father's age, education, and family income, found that adolescents whose parents had quit smoking were almost one-third less likely to be ever smokers than those with a parent who still smoked. Furthermore, adolescent ever smokers whose parents quit smoking were twice as likely to quit as those who had a parent who still smoked. Parental quitting is most effective in reducing initiation if it occurs before the child reaches 9 years of age.",
"yes. In an ethnically diverse sample of US immigrants, acculturation was associated with CMR factors. Culturally tailored public health strategies should be developed in US immigrant populations to reduce CMR.",
"Non-Western migrant populations living in Western countries are more likely to be physically inactive during leisure time than host populations. It is argued that this difference will disappear as they acculturate to the culture of the host country. We explored whether this is also true for migrants who experience contextual barriers such as having children, living in a less attractive neighbourhood, or having occupational physical activity. Cross-sectional data were obtained from the LASER-study (2003-2004) on health related behaviours in first and second generation Turkish young people living in the Netherlands. For this study we included 485 Turkish participants aged 15-30 years, who participated in a structured interview during a home visit. Acculturation was indicated by level of 'cultural orientation towards the Dutch culture' and 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch' with persons being low oriented towards the Dutch culture and having few social contacts with ethnic Dutch as reference group. The measured barriers were 'having children', 'occupational physical activity' and 'living in a less attractive neighbourhood'. Logistic regression analyses were used to assess the associations between acculturation and physical activity during leisure time, stratified by these contextual barriers. Greater cultural and social integration was associated with increased physical activity during leisure time. Odds ratio's were 1.85 (CI: 1.19-2.85) for 'cultural orientation' and 1.77 (CI: 1.15-2.71) for 'social contacts with ethnic Dutch'. However, these associations were not present or less strong among people who had children, or who were living in a less attractive neighbourhood or who engaged in occupational physical activity.",
"To establish levels of use of tobacco, alcohol and illegal drugs among 18-20 year old men and women of Asian (Punjabi) and non-Asian origin compared with levels four years earlier and consider the role of religion and culture in abstinent behaviour. Structured self-complete questionnaire used with 94% of pupils with South Asian names recorded by the Greater Glasgow education department in 1991 and a proportionate random sample of pupils in the same years who did not have South Asian names. Followed up in 1996 in an interviewer-led structured questionnaire in their own homes. Greater Glasgow, largest city in the west of Scotland. Eight hundred and twenty-four overwhelmingly British-born 14-15 year olds in 1992, 492 followed up aged 18-20 years in 1996. Self-report measures of ever having tried alcohol, tobacco and drugs and the quantities consumed at age 14-15 and 18-20. Indication of reasons for abstinence from substance use at age 18-20. Asians were much more abstinent from all these substances at both ages (p<0.001), except for smoking at 18-20. However, religiously specific patterns of abstinence were particularly strong for alcohol (Muslim odds ratio 7- to 9-fold lower at 14-15, 16- to 25-fold lower at 18-20) and smoking (Sikh/Hindu odds ratio 10-fold lower than Muslims, 20-fold than Christians at 18-20), though there is a shared Asian tendency for women to observe these patterns more than men at 18-20.",
"To investigate the association between cigarette use during pregnancy and pregnancy-induced hypertension/preeclampsia/eclampsia (PIH) by maternal race/ethnicity and age. This retrospective cohort study was based on the U.S. 2010 natality data. Our study sample included U.S. women who delivered singleton pregnancies between 20 and 44 weeks of gestation without major fetal anomalies in 2010 (n = 3,113,164). Multivariate logistic regression models were fit to estimate crude and adjusted odds ratios and the corresponding 95% confidence intervals. We observed that the association between maternal smoking and PIH varied by maternal race/ethnicity and age. Compared with non-smokers, reduced odds of PIH among pregnant smokers was only evident for non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic American Indian women aged less than 35 years. Non-Hispanic Asian/Pacific Islander women who smoked during pregnancy had increased odds of PIH regardless of maternal age. Non-Hispanic white and non-Hispanic black women 35 years or older who smoked during pregnancy also had increased odds of PIH.",
"Early substance use (SU) in adolescence is known to be associated with an elevated risk of developing substance use disorders (SUD); it remains unclear though whether early SU is associated with more rapid transitions to SUD. To examine the risk and speed of transition from first SU (alcohol, nicotine, cannabis) to SUD as a function of age of first use. N=3021 community subjects aged 14-24 years at baseline were followed-up prospectively over 10-years. SU and SUD were assessed using the DSM-IV/M-CIDI. (1) The conditional probability of substance-specific SU-SUD transition was the greatest for nicotine (36.0%) and the least for cannabis (18.3% for abuse, 6.2% for dependence) with alcohol in between (25.3% for abuse; 11.2% for dependence). (2) In addition to confirming early SU as a risk factor for SUD we find: (3) higher age of onset of any SU to be associated with faster transitions to SUD, except for cannabis dependence. (4) Transitions from first cannabis use (CU) to cannabis use disorders (CUD) occurred faster than for alcohol and nicotine. (5) Use of other substances co-occurred with risk and speed of transitions to specific SUDs.",
"Efforts to prevent adolescents from smoking have limited efficacy, with little understanding of why they smoke. We examine many of the factors which may influence a teenager's decision to start smoking. A self-completed questionnaire was distributed among pre-draft teenagers (age 16-18 years) with questions regarding current smoking habits as well as smoking habits of family members. Smokers were asked why they started, and attitudes regarding the dangers of smoking and anti-smoking legislation were examined. A total of 1067 questionnaires were completed (707 males, 360 females). In all, 25.7% were current smokers (26.2% of male and 21.1% of females; p=0.069), with smoking rates highest among those born in Middle Eastern countries and lowest among those born in Ethiopia. Those from single-parent families had a higher smoking rate (relative risk: 1.28), as did those with either parents or siblings who smoked. Parents who were smokers were more likely to tell their children not to smoke, while smoking teenagers were more likely to have been told by their parents not to smoke. Most smokers (58.2%) did not give a specific reason for smoking while 30.3% listed \"peer pressure\", 8.4% \"parents smoking\" and 3.1% \"advertisements\" as the major factor. Smokers were less likely to agree that smoking is harmful and more likely to oppose anti-smoking legislative measures.",
"To investigate whether concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence characterizes a subgroup that differs from users of one substance only regarding several risk factors for later substance use problems. Participants were from a prospective longitudinal cohort study of 384 children at risk for later psychopathology, with the majority being born with obstetric complications and psychosocial adversities. Assessments of adolescent drug consumption and related intrapersonal characteristics were obtained at age 15. Compared to consumers of alcohol only, 15-year-olds drinking and smoking during the same time period (past 4 weeks) had significantly higher levels of consumption and more excessive use of alcohol, started drinking at an earlier age, had higher scores on the Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence, and more cannabis use. This group could be distinguished from users of alcohol only by higher novelty seeking and more positive alcohol effect expectancies. Compared to consumers of tobacco only, concurrent users reported higher nicotine dependence and more cannabis use. No significant differences were observed regarding frequency and age at initiation of tobacco use, tobacco-related sensitivity, self-efficacy and instrumentality as well as novelty seeking.",
"Tobacco use is prevalent among adolescents in China in general, however, little is known about tobacco use among students in private schools with an enrollment of 1.5 million. In 2001, cross-sectional survey data from 2725 students in grades seven and eight (1307 sampled from private schools and 1418 sampled from public schools) were included. Smoking measures (risk of susceptibility to smoking, smoking onset, ever smoking, smoking in the past 7 days and past 30 days, established smoking) were compared between private and public school students using chi-square test, logistic regression, and survival analysis. Cigarette smoking was more prevalent among private school students than among public school students (private vs. public: 21.9% vs. 12.3% for susceptibility to smoking, 53.9% vs. 38.2% for ever smoking, 22% vs. 12.0% for 30-day smoking, 15.9% vs. 4.0% for 7-day smoking, 4.5% vs. 1.2% for established smoking). Students in private schools are 3.4 to 3.8 times more likely to smoke than students in public schools after the adjustment of important covariates (gender, grade, peer smoking, parental smoking, and parents' occupation). Risk of smoking onset by age was also greater for private school students than for public school students.",
"yes. Smoking is a risk factor for developing MetS in Chinese men after adjusting for age, education level, alcohol intake, fasting plasma insulin, HOMA-IR, BMI, and weight change. This could be due to an increased incidence of dyslipidemia. Smoking cessation for >13 years decreased the risk for developing MetS defined by the JCDCG definition.",
"To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.",
"Young adults who avoid their emotions may be at risk for starting smoking or not quitting smoking. This study investigated whether a preliminary measure of avoidant coping longitudinally predicts young adults' smoking escalation and cessation. In a sample of the 3,305 participants, originally from Washington State, a preliminary measure of self-reported avoidant coping at age 18 was used to predict both smoking escalation and cessation at ages 20 and 28 with both probability and logistic regression models (10-year retention: 98.5%). Individuals who scored high on avoidant coping at 18 were 2.52 (p = .001) times more likely to acquire smoking by 20. However, there was no evidence that avoidant coping at age 18 predicted smoking escalation at 28 or cessation for 20- and 28-year-olds.",
"yes. Findings indicate that childhood socioeconomic disadvantage influences adolescent smoking, while downward socioeconomic mobility influences adolescent alcohol use.",
"Previous cross-sectional research has shown that adolescents' cigarette use is interactively associated with that of their school peers and their 5HTTLPR genotype, such that the cigarette use of persons with more copies of the 5HTTLPR*S' allele is more dependent on school peers' cigarette use behaviors than their counterparts. This analysis seeks to extend this novel finding by examining whether the same conclusion can be reached when substituting neighborhood peers for school peers and examining the timing of the initiation of any and regular smoking in adolescence. This analysis employs an independent sample with longitudinal measures of cigarette use among 6th through 8th graders clustered in 82 neighborhoods, of whom 1098 contributed genetic data. The proportion of respondents who had ever smoked cigarettes by the first wave was calculated for each census block group in the study. 5HTTLPR genotype was assayed using the method of Whisman et al. (2011). The timing of any or regular smoking initiation and over four years were modeled as dependent variables using Cox proportional hazard models. The interaction of neighborhood peer smoking behavior in the first wave and 5HTTLPR genotype statistically significantly predicted any smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 3.532; p-value=0.002) and regular smoking initiation (hazard ratio: 5.686; p-value=0.000), net of controls for sex, race/ethnicity, grade in the first wave of data, and parental educational attainment. These findings reach the same conclusions as previous cross-sectional research.",
"Although parental smoking is clearly one important influence on children's smoking, it is still unclear what are the many mechanisms by which parents influence their children's smoking. Antismoking actions are one potential mechanism. To determine whether parental antismoking actions including having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence are associated with adolescents' adoption of smoking. A cross-sectional survey. Rural and suburban communities in western Washington State. Population-based cohort of 3555 adolescents and their parents. Daily smoking in 12th grade. Adolescents of parents who report having rules about smoking in one's home, using nonsmoking sections of public establishments, or asking others not to smoke in one's presence were significantly less likely to smoke than adolescents of parents who did not engage in antismoking actions. This association of antismoking action and reduced smoking was found for children of both smoking and nonsmoking parents.",
"These findings add to the evidence base that childhood disadvantage is associated with adult smoking behaviours and highlights the importance of the early childhood social environment for the development of these.",
"yes. The finding of decreased activation to pleasurable food among adolescent light smokers supports the theory that these adolescents are displaying decreased sensitivity to at least one natural reinforcer. This also supports the theory that nicotine may affect the brain early in the trajectory of smoking, thus underscoring the need for early intervention among adolescent smokers.",
"To describe smoking and quitting history among multiethnic adolescent smokers and examine these as correlates of readiness to quit. Data were analyzed from 121 high school smokers. Sociodemographic characteristics, self-reported smoking history, number and duration of recent quit attempts, attitudes toward smoking/quitting, and readiness to quit were included. Smoking and quitting history variables were associated with adolescents' stage of readiness to quit. A reasonably consistent pattern emerged in which those in the preparation stage were significantly different from the precontemplators and contemplators.",
"Among sexual minorities, Black and Asian American individuals consistently were at decreased risk of current smoking compared to their White peers. Future research should seek to understand the mechanisms that contribute to decreased smoking status among racial sexual minorities.",
"The significant declines observed in smoking from adolescence into young adulthood were contrary to expectations, indicating that this behaviour may be less stable than previously thought among adolescent AOD abusers. Smoking involvement over time was greater within the highest alcohol use trajectory, consistent with previous evidence for a positive relationship between these behaviours. However, when compared with the general population smoking rates remained very high regardless of alcohol involvement. Thus, individuals treated for AOD abuse as adolescents remained at elevated risk for tobacco related disease regardless of post-treatment AOD use outcomes.",
"At age 14-15 abstinence was high in the largely British-born generation of Asians mainly for cultural reasons common to religious groups. Four years later culturally determined abstinence has atrophied, and abstinence reflects the specific influence of ascetic religious traditions, though some cultural influence remains in that women are more affected. Intergenerational changes are similar. The erosion of constraints on smoking presents a threat to health.",
"yes. These preliminary results suggest that specific behavioral measures of impulsivity may be associated with the ability to initiate and/or maintain abstinence from smoking among adolescent smokers.",
"E-cigarette and gateway drug use may have common underlying risk factors in early adolescence, including parent and peer modeling of substance use, as well as EF deficits. Future research is needed to examine longitudinal relationships of demographics, parent and peer modeling, and EF deficits to e-cigarette use in larger samples, trajectories of e-cigarette use compared to use of other substances, and the potential of EF skills training programs to prevent e-cigarette use.",
"With the exception of smoking, our data does not support a link between increased acculturation and higher prevalence of CRFs in Latinos with diabetes. Smoking prevention and cessation programs targeting Latinos and particularly among Cubans are needed.",
"To investigate the association between smoking and self-rated health (SRH) among adolescents in Hong Kong. Form 1 (U.S. Grade 7) to 5 students (N = 36,225) from 85 randomly selected secondary schools were surveyed using anonymous, self-administered questionnaires to collect information about smoking, SRH, secondhand smoke exposure, drinking, illicit drug use, physical activities, medical services use, health complaints, and sociodemographic characteristics. Logistic regression yielded adjusted odds ratios (AORs) for poor SRH due to smoking in boys and girls. Compared with never-smoking, smoking experimentation, ex-smoking, and current smoking were associated with AORs (95% CI) for poor SRH of 1.22 (1.07-1.40), 1.43 (1.12-1.83), and 1.31 (1.13-1.53), p for trend <.001, in boys and 1.26 (1.10-1.39), 1.42 (1.08-1.85), and 1.75 (1.53-2.00, p for trend <.001, in girls. The AOR of poor SRH for current smoking was higher in girls than boys, p for interaction <.001. Current and experimental smoking but not ex-smoking were significantly associated with poor SRH among healthy students who had no health complaints or recent medical consultations. Increasing cigarette consumption, years of smoking, and smoking urge were also significantly associated with poor SRH.",
"To investigate the extent to which parental early and late smoking cessation predicts their young adult children's smoking cessation. Parental early smoking cessation status was assessed when children were in 3rd grade, parental late smoking cessation was assessed when children were in 11th grade, and young adult children's smoking cessation was assessed 2 years after high school. Forty Washington State school districts participated in the Hutchinson Smoking Prevention Project. Participants were the 1553 families in which parents were ever regular smokers who had a young adult child smoking at least weekly at 12th grade who also reported their smoking status 2 years later. Questionnaire data were gathered on parents and their young adult children (49% female and 91% Caucasian) in a cohort with a 94% retention rate. Parents who quit early had children with 1.8 (OR = 1.80; 95% CI = 1.22, 2.64) times higher odds of quitting smoking for at least 1 month in young adulthood compared to those whose parents did not quit early. In contrast, there was no association (OR = 0.84; 95% CI = 0.47, 1.51) between parents quitting late and their young adult children's smoking cessation.",
"The present study examined the role of socioeconomic status and cultural identity in the association between ethnicity and nicotine dependence, in a birth cohort of>1000 methods young people studied to age 30. Data were gathered on ethnicity, cultural identification, nicotine dependence, and socioeconomic factors, as part of a longitudinal study of a New Zealand birth cohort (the Christchurch Health and Development Study). Those reporting Māori identity had rates of nicotine dependence that were significantly higher (p<0.05) than rates for non-Māori. Control for socioeconomic factors reduced the associations between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence to statistical non-significance. In addition, there was no evidence of a statistically significant association between Māori cultural identity and nicotine dependence, nor was there evidence of gender differences in the association between ethnic identity and nicotine dependence, after controlling for socioeconomic factors.",
"Exposure to movie smoking is a risk factor for smoking onset among Mexican youth, although this risk appears weaker than in countries with stronger tobacco marketing regulations.",
"The highest prevalence of smoking in the United States is in Kentucky, where smoking typically begins in childhood. The state has many patients who suffer from inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). The primary aim of this study was to assess whether exposure to active and/or passive tobacco smoke in childhood is related to the likelihood of developing IBD. Recruited into this prospective study were a total of 672 participants (253 patients with Crohn's disease [CD], 177 patients with ulcerative colitis [UC], and 242 controls), all of whom were asked to complete the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance Survey modified by the addition of 4 questions on childhood passive smoke exposure. Survey response rate was 84%. CD and UC patients were more likely than controls to begin smoking regularly by ages 10 and 15, respectively, suggesting that becoming a regular smoker at a younger age may be associated with a subsequent diagnosis of IBD. Smoking by age 10 was associated with an earlier age at diagnosis with UC, but not with CD. CD patients were more likely than controls to have prenatal smoke exposure (odds ratio [OR], 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.1-2.71) and were more likely to have passive smoke exposure during childhood, with 1 or both parents or other household members being smokers (OR, 2.04; 95% CI, 1.28-3.31).",
"yes. Class-related, rather than school-related, characteristics were associated with smoking initiation and progression. Changes in microenvironmental factors might be useful in smoking prevention among preadolescents.",
"In trying to prevent early adolescents from alcohol and tobacco use, it might be of key importance to acknowledge the mutual influence between certain personality profiles and substance use. Specifically, sensation seeking and impulsivity are relevant during early adolescence and awareness of early adolescents' vulnerability for these personality predispositions is warranted.",
"yes. Our findings support the association of cigarette use in Taiwanese young adults with several individual, family, and peer factors identified in Western studies. Intervention in cigarette use should be multifaceted, by taking its correlates and the concurrent psychopathology, use of substances, and suicidality into consideration.",
"American Indian (AI) youth have a high risk of smoking initiation. Sensation-seeking, defined as the tendency to seek novel and thrilling experiences, has been associated with smoking initiation in other groups but has never been examined in AI youth. Data were from the Voices of Indian Teens Project (VOICES), a longitudinal study of AI youth from seven high schools in four AI communities in the western United States. Participants completed annual surveys in school over a three-year period. Our sample comprised 764 students who were non-smokers at baseline. Smoking initiation was defined as endorsement of daily smoking after baseline. We used binary logistic regression to evaluate the association of baseline sensation-seeking with odds of daily smoking initiation, stratified by gender. Participants were 353 males and 411 females aged 13 to 21years at baseline. After adjusting for covariates, baseline sensation-seeking correlated with smoking initiation differently in males and females. Sensation-seeking did not predict daily smoking in males. Among females, however, higher sensation-seeking scores at baseline predicted daily smoking in both the unadjusted (odds ratio=1.4; 95% CI=1.1-1.8; p=0.005) and covariate-adjusted (odds ratio=1.3; 95% CI=1.0-1.6; p=0.04) models.",
"According to a recent national survey, tobacco use is a critical public health issue in China, with more than two-thirds of Chinese males smoking. Findings in Western populations suggest that smoking may cluster with other health-risk behaviors. To explore these relationships in Chinese male adults, we utilized baseline data from the China Seven Cities Study (CSCS). Male adults (n = 12,122) were included. Smoking status was defined as never smokers, ex-smokers, current smokers, and current heavy smokers. Logistic regression was employed to investigate the association of cigarette smoking and patterns of food consumption, physical activity, and alcohol drinking. After controlling for age, socioeconomic status, and city residence, heavy smokers consumed significantly less vegetables, fruits, milk and other dairy products, spent significantly more time watching television, slept and exercised less, and got drunk or engaged in binge drinking more frequently compared to never, ex-, or current smokers (p < 0.05).",
"Although childhood socioeconomic disadvantage has been linked with adolescent tobacco and alcohol use in cross-sectional research, less is known about the influence of changes in socioeconomic status during childhood. Upward socioeconomic mobility may attenuate the negative influence of earlier socioeconomic disadvantage on health, while downward mobility may counter the health benefits of earlier socioeconomic advantage. This study evaluated the influence of common trajectories of family income during childhood on smoking and alcohol use during adolescence. Data utilized were part of the 15-year longitudinal Study of Early Child Care and Youth Development. A 5-class trajectory model (two stable, one downward, and two upward income trajectories) was developed previously with this sample (N=1356). Logistic regression analyses were conducted to determine whether children of the more disadvantaged income trajectories were more likely to engage in tobacco and alcohol use at age 15 relative to those of the most advantaged trajectory. Family income trajectory was significantly associated with ever-smoking (p=.02) and past-year alcohol use at age 15years (p=.008). Children from the less advantaged trajectories were more likely to have ever-smoked than children of the most advantaged trajectory (all p's<.05). Children of the downwardly mobile trajectory were more likely to have used alcohol within the past year than children of the most advantaged trajectories as well as the most disadvantaged trajectory (all p's<.05).",
"There are few observational studies of school and class risk factors for smoking behavior in preadolescence. A cohort study of 2,883 children recruited in the fifth grade with follow-up in sixth grade was undertaken. Information on school and class factors was collected from principals and teachers of 91 schools. A decreased risk of smoking uptake was associated with exposure to short antitobacco education prior to the fifth grade (compared to no education). Problematic interpersonal relations in the class were associated with a relative risk of smoking initiation of 1.42 (confidence interval 1.05, 1.93) compared to positive interpersonal relations. This excess risk was not mediated by class smoking prevalence in the fifth grade. School policy and school characteristics were not significantly associated with preadolescents' smoking.",
"Daily cigarette smoking among US adolescents remains a significant public health problem. Understanding risk is important in order to develop strategies to reduce this type of tobacco use. The primary objective of this research was to examine whether rural residency is an independent risk factor for being a daily smoker among adolescents ages 12 to 18 years. This is a cross-sectional study where univariate, bivariate, and multivariate analyses were performed on a merged 1997-2003 Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance System dataset to determine whether rural residence was a significant risk factor for daily cigarette smoking, after adjusting for demographic factors. Using daily smoking as the dependent variable, initial multivariate analyses revealed that adolescents who lived either in suburban (OR=.34, CI=.32, .36) or urban (OR=.33, CI=.31, .35) locales were less likely to become daily smokers than adolescents living in rural locales. Subsequent logistic regression analysis yielded that rural youths who became daily smokers were more likely to: have used smokeless tobacco products in the past 12 months (OR=1.25, CI=1.04,1.51); be female (OR=1.42, CI=1.23, 1.64); be Caucasian (OR=1.53, CI=1.28, 1.84); have first smoked a whole cigarette when they were 12 years of age or younger (OR=2.08, CI=1.82, 2.38); and have smoked at school in the past 30 days (OR=14.52, CI=11.97, 17.60).",
"yes. Concurrent alcohol and tobacco use during early adolescence is associated with characteristics that are well known as risk factors for later alcohol use problems and dependence and that should be targeted by prevention programs.",
"yes. The present findings indicate that parent smoking contributes to the onset of daily smoking in their teenagers even if parents practice good family management, hold norms against teen tobacco use, and do not involve their children in their own tobacco use. Smoking prevention programs should include components focused on parents of adolescents. To reduce risks for daily smoking among adolescents, it is important to encourage parents to stop or reduce their own smoking. In addition, these data indicate that parents can reduce their children's risk of daily smoking initiation by reducing family conflict, by maintaining strong bonds with their children, by setting clear rules, and by closely monitoring their children's behaviors.",
"There is substantial research linking tobacco and alcohol use to subsequent cannabis use, yet the specificity of this relationship is still under debate. The aim of this study was to examine which substance use model--the gateway hypothesis, the common liability (CL) model and/or the route of administration model--best explains the relationship between early onset of tobacco and alcohol use and subsequent cannabis use initiation. We used data from 2,113 (51% female) Dutch adolescents who participated in three consecutive assessment waves (mean age: 11.09, 13.56, and 16.27 years, respectively) of the TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey study. (Pre)adolescent cannabis, tobacco and alcohol use was assessed using the Youth Self-Report and a TRacking Adolescents' Individual Lives Survey developed questionnaire. We found that, during adolescence, early onset of tobacco use does not pose a significantly higher risk of initiating cannabis use than early onset alcohol use. Therefore, we can rule out the route of administration model. Moreover, we found that adolescents who reported early onset comorbid use of both tobacco and alcohol have a higher likelihood to initiate cannabis use than adolescents who have tried either tobacco or alcohol. The gateway hypothesis is not broad enough to explain this finding. Therefore, the CL model best predicts our findings.",
"yes. Outcome expectancies for affect management emerged as an important risk factor for smoking escalation and the development of nicotine dependence during adolescence. The present findings highlight the potential importance of cognitively-driven expectancies as a risk factor for smoking escalation during this critical developmental period.",
"The tobacco industry contends that parenting practices, not marketing practices, are critical to youth smoking. Our objective was to examine whether tobacco-industry marketing practices undermine the protective effect of recommended authoritative parenting against adolescent smoking. Receptivity to tobacco advertising and promotions was assessed in 1996 from a representative sample of California adolescent never-smokers aged 12 to 14 years. A follow-up survey of 1641 of these adolescents was conducted in 1999 that included measures of the key components of authoritative parenting: parental responsiveness, monitoring, and limit setting. Smoking initiation in adolescents. Adolescents in families with more-authoritative parents were half as likely to smoke by follow-up as adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents (20% vs 41%, p<0.0001). In families with more-authoritative parents, adolescents who were highly receptive to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions were significantly more likely to smoke (odds ratio=3.52, 95% confidence interval =1.10-11.23), compared to those who were minimally receptive. This effect was not significant in adolescents in families with less-authoritative parents. The overall attributable risk (adjusted for exposure to peer smokers) of smoking from tobacco-industry advertising and promotions was 25%. However, an estimated 40% of adolescent smoking in families with more-authoritative parents was attributable to tobacco-industry advertising and promotions; this was five times the attributable risk seen in families with less-authoritative parents (8%).",
"E-cigarette use has been linked to onset of cigarette smoking among adolescents, but some commentators have suggested that this simply reflects high-risk adolescents being more likely to use e-cigarettes and to smoke. We tested whether the effect of e-cigarette use for smoking onset differs for youth who are lower versus higher on propensity to smoke. School-based survey with a longitudinal sample of 1136 students (9th-11th graders, mean age 14.7 years) in Hawaii, initially surveyed in 2013 (T1) and followed up 1 year later (T2). We assessed e-cigarette use, propensity to smoke based on 3 psychosocial factors known to predict smoking (rebelliousness, parental support and willingness to smoke), and cigarette smoking status. Analyses based on T1 never-smokers tested the relation of T1 e-cigarette use to T2 smoking status for participants lower versus higher on T1 propensity to smoke. The relation between T1 e-cigarette use and T2 smoking onset was stronger among participants with lower levels of rebelliousness and willingness and higher levels of parental support. A multiple logistic regression analysis with T2 smoking as the criterion tested the cross-product of T1 e-cigarette use and T1 smoking propensity score; the interaction (OR=0.88, p=0.01) indicated a significantly larger effect for smoking onset among lower risk youth.",
"yes. ADHD, particularly the comorbid subtype, is a significant risk factor for early initiation of cigarette smoking in children and adolescents. Considering the prevalence and early childhood onset of ADHD, these findings highlight the importance of smoking prevention and cessation programs for children and adolescents with ADHD.",
"Studies of adolescent smoking suggest that the causes of smoking initiation may differ for Blacks and Whites. Correlates of smoking initiation were examined among 1,277 nonsmokers, ages 12-14, who completed questionnaires in their homes. The analyses examined relationships between smoking initiation and 11 explanatory variables using logistic regression with the combined sample and with Black and White samples. Over two years, 24 percent of Whites and 14 percent of Blacks started to smoke. Whites were more likely to start smoking at age 12 and Blacks at age 14. Having a best friend who smoked increased the odds of initiating smoking over twofold for Whites but had no effect on the odds of smoking for Blacks.",
"yes. Greater acculturation predicted higher abstinence rates, but this relationship was restricted to men. This study is among the first to examine the effects of gender and acculturation on smoking abstinence among Latinos. Findings highlight the need for research focused on mechanisms underlying these relationships.",
"A previous paper used latent class analysis to assign individuals to 1 of 4 adolescent/young adult smoking trajectory classes and then established an association between maternal smoking before, during, and after pregnancy and these classes. In this paper, we examine one possible pathway for this relationship: that maternal smoking during pregnancy may set off a behavioral trajectory which increases the likelihood of problem behaviors generally, of which smoking is one manifestation. We used the Behavior Problems Index measure from age 8 through age 12 as a potential mediator. We used a path analysis modeling approach within a multinomial logistic regression (using Mplus) to estimate direct and indirect effects (via behavioral problems) between maternal smoking pattern and child trajectory class. We found small but statistically significant indirect effects via behavioral problems from maternal smoking to child smoking trajectory for membership in all 3 smoking classes, relative to the nonsmoking trajectory, indicating partial mediation. Mediated effects were associated with maternal smoking after pregnancy, no statistically significant mediated effects were found for smoking before or during pregnancy.",
"Smokers who initiate as adults are more likely to quit than those who initiate as adolescents. Black women are more likely than White women to initiate smoking in adulthood and are less likely to quit. There is a paucity of research examining whether the smoking cessation advantage among adult initiators applies to Black women. The study objective is to examine race differences in the effect of developmental stage of smoking initiation on number of years until cessation among Black and White women. Data were extracted from the National Longitudinal Survey of Young Women, a national cohort of women between the ages of 49 and 61 years in 2003. The analytic sample comprised 1,008 White women and 271 Black women with a history of smoking. Survival analysis procedures were utilized to address the study objective. Racial disparities in smoking cessation were most evident among women who initiated smoking as adults. White young adult initiators had a 31% increased hazard of smoking cessation advantage (adjusted hazards ratio [HR]: 1.31, 95% CI: 1.04-1.65) over adolescent initiators, whereas Black young adult initiators had no smoking cessation advantage (adjusted HR: 0.85, CI: 95% 0.55-1.30) over adolescent initiators.",
"Secondhand smoke (SHS) exposure of children due to parental tobacco use is a particularly prevalent health issue and is associated with adverse health outcomes. Following the US Clinical Practice guidelines, pediatricians in the United States deliver 5A's (ask, advise, assess, assist, and arrange) counseling to smoking parents which has proven to be effective. We examined Chinese pediatricians' adherence to the clinical practice guidelines for smoking cessation (i.e. 5A's counseling practices) with smoking parents, and identified factors associated with these practices. A cross-sectional paper-and-pencil survey of pediatricians was conducted in twelve conveniently selected southern Chinese hospitals. Factors associated with any of the 5A's smoking cessation counseling practices were identified by logistic regression. Of respondents (504/550), only 26 % routinely provided 5A's smoking cessation counseling to smoking parents. More than 80 % of pediatricians didn't receive formal training in smoking cessation and had not read China smoking cessation guidelines; 24 % reported being \"very confident\" in discussing smoking or SHS reduction with parents. Pediatricians who had never smoked (OR: 2.29, CI:1.02-5.12), received training in smoking cessation (OR: 2.50, CI:1.40-4.48), had read China smoking cessation guidelines (OR: 2.17, CI:1.10-4.26), and felt very (OR: 7.12, CI:2.45-20.70) or somewhat (OR: 3.05, CI:1.11-8.37) confident in delivering cessation counseling were more likely to practice 5A's. Pediatricians who reported \"it is hard to find a time to talk with parents\" (OR: 0.32, CI: 0.11-0.92) or \"lack of a standard of care requiring pediatricians to provide smoking cessation or SHS exposure reduction intervention\" (OR: 0.45, CI: 0.21-0.98) as a barrier were less likely to follow the 5A's guidelines.",
"Annual national cross-sectional surveys (2002-2004 combined) with multi-ethnic sample of 91,219 Year 10 students from New Zealand who answered a questionnaire on personal and parental smoking. Maternal smoking and paternal smoking were associated separately with increased risk of daily adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups except paternal smoking in Asian youth. The relative risk of adolescent daily smoking (adjusted for age and sex) was significantly higher for maternal only smoking compared with paternal only smoking in each ethnic group: Asians 5.50 (95% CI: 3.55-8.52), Europeans 1.38 (1.26-1.52), Pacific Islanders 1.38 (1.10-1.73), and Maori 1.10 (1.00-1.21). The excess maternal effect varied inversely with smoking prevalence. The net effects of maternal and parental smoking are additive among European, Maori, and Pacific Island students, but multiplicative in Asian. Overall, about 40% of adolescent daily smokers could be attributed to parental smoking.",
"To assess the relationship between household smoking restrictions and smoking patterns among Chinese American adults. This is a cross-sectional analysis based on a National Institutes of Health-funded population-based household and telephone survey of 2537 Chinese American adults. Two communities in New York City. The analyses focused on male current smokers (N = 600). Demographic characteristics, smoking status, household smoking restrictions, cigarettes smoked per day, and past quit attempts were based on self-reported data. Among current smokers, 37% reported living in a home with a complete smoking ban. Smokers with a full household smoking ban smoked fewer cigarettes on weekdays and weekends than smokers with no household smoking ban (p < or = .05) and were 3.4 times (p < .01) more likely to report having at least one quit attempt in the past 12 months. Smokers with knowledge of the dangers of environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) exposure were 2.8 times (p < or = .01) more likely to have at least one quit attempt in the last 12 months compared with those who were unaware of the danger of ETS and more likely to live in a smoke-free household.",
"yes. Findings suggest significant associations of heavy cigarette smoking with other health-risk behaviors in Chinese male adults, underscoring the need for tobacco control interventions for Chinese males.",
"Multi-ethnic adolescents may be at increased risk for smoking and may have easier access to cigarettes. Culturally targeted smoking prevention interventions for adolescents should address the unique social challenges faced by multi-ethnic adolescents that may increase their risk for smoking.",
"Smoking initiation seldom occurs after emerging adulthood, making prevention critical during this phase of the life course. Among emerging adults, Hispanics have an especially high risk for cigarette use. Emerging adulthood scholars suggest role transitions commonly experienced by this age group may lead to substance use including cigarette experimentation and/or progression, contributing to the high smoking rates exhibited by Hispanics. Hispanic emerging adults (aged 18-24) completed surveys indicating which of a comprehensive list of role transitions they had experienced in the past year. Separate logistic regression models explored the association between each individual role transition and smoking in the past 30 days, controlling for age and gender and using a Bonferonni correction. Among the sample of emerging adults (n = 1,390), 41% were male, the average age was 21, and about 21% reported cigarette use in the past 30 days. Losing a job, becoming a family member's caregiver, starting to date someone new, experiencing a breakup, being arrested, and becoming addicted to illicit drugs and/or alcohol were all associated with smoking.",
"The purpose of the study was to better understand early risk for positive smoking expectancies, which have been shown to be consistent predictors of smoking initiation among youth. Two affect-based risk factors-negative urgency and emotion dysregulation-associated with smoking behaviors among youth, were examined for unique and interactive effects on positive smoking expectancies among substance-naïve youth. Participants were 61 10-14-year-old children with virtually no drug use (less than 5 substance use incidents across the lifetime), who were drawn from the community. Both negative urgency and emotion dysregulation were significantly associated with positive social facilitation smoking expectancies. Further, negative urgency was significantly related to positive social facilitation smoking expectancies at higher levels of emotion dysregulation (b=.09, p=.001).",
"yes. Acculturation was associated with cessation following a group-based intervention. Culturally specific adaptations to established interventions might improve outcomes for traditional smokers.",
"yes. A concerning minority of adolescent survivors have clear intentions to smoke, a behavior that adds to their overall health risk. Smoking intentions and experimentation are important precursors to regular smoking. Prevention efforts are needed to interrupt the progression from intentions and experimentation to established smoking and nicotine dependence in this medically vulnerable population.",
"To report on the prevalence and correlates of smoking and sexual activity in a community sample of Hong Kong Chinese adolescents. Participants (N = 4116) aged 13 to 18 years were surveyed regarding smoking and physical heterosexual activity, relationships with family members, family involvement, social support, school performance and emotional adjustment. Data were analyzed using logistic regression analyses. About 30% of participants reported ever smoking and 3.5% reported sexual intercourse. Current smoking was correlated with age, school performance and quality of relationship with mother. Sexual intercourse was correlated with age, gender, family involvement and social support. Smoking and sexual activity were significantly correlated with each other. Smoking and increasing levels of heterosexual physical contact were negatively correlated with emotional adjustment, even after controlling for common predictors to health-endangering behaviors and emotional adjustment.",
"African-Americans suffer disproportionately from tobacco-associated morbidity and mortality. Considering the relationship between cultural variables and cessation may be important for reducing disparities. This study aimed to examine acculturation as a predictor of smoking cessation following a standard group intervention. Treatment-seeking smokers (N = 140) participated in a group intervention for cessation plus transdermal nicotine patch therapy and completed the African American Acculturation Scale-Revised at baseline. The primary outcome was self-reported 7-day point prevalence abstinence at the end-of-counseling and 3 and 6 months postintervention. Adjusted logistic regression analyses found that acculturation predicted end-of-counseling and 3-month 7-day point prevalence abstinence; traditional African-Americans (i.e., less acculturated) were less likely to quit smoking. Cultural superstitions, religious beliefs and practices, and interracial attitudes were predictive of smoking cessation.",
"To examine the association of acculturation with various cardiovascular risk factors (CRFs) among Latinos with diabetes in South Florida. In a cross-sectional analysis of data collected from 300 Latinos with poorly controlled diabetes we measured acculturation using the Marin Short Acculturation Scale. We examined correlations between acculturation and the following 7 CRFs: hemoglobin A1C, low-density lipoprotein, systolic blood pressure, body mass index, smoking status, physical activity, and fruit and vegetable intake. Cubans made up 38% of our population; no other Latino subgroup represented over 17% of the sample. Of the 8 outcomes examined, only smoking was associated with increased acculturation; 12% of Latinos in the 2 lowest acculturation groups were current smokers versus 25% in the highest acculturation group (P=0.02). Furthermore, Cuban Americans from our sample had over double the prevalence of smoking compared with non-Cubans in both the lowest and highest acculturation groups.",
"US-born Mexican-American women had a slightly increased risk of preterm birth despite having more adequate prenatal care, more education, and higher socioeconomic indicators. This may be due to acculturation factors, such as earlier pregnancy, loss of social support systems, and increased smoking or alcohol use. Reducing this risk depends on recognition among health care workers and policy-makers of the potential influence of acculturation on health in this population.",
"In the U.S., Latino and Asian American immigrants and ethnic minorities may be at increased risk for alcohol and drug use disorders (AUDs/DUDs). The role of psychosocial and contextual characteristics as potential factors underlying this increased risk is unresolved. Participants include 4649 adults from the National Latino and Asian American Study. Logistic regression was used to determine the relationship between acculturation, acculturative stress, neighborhood characteristics, family characteristics, and discrimination and AUDs/DUDs. Models were stratified by age of immigration and ethnicity and controlled for demographic and mental health characteristics. Overall, 9.6% of Latino and 4.1% of Asian participants met criteria for lifetime AUDs/DUDs. Acculturation, family conflict, and discrimination were positively associated with AUDs/DUDs (odds ratios [ORs] and 95% confidence intervals [95%CIs]: 1.80[1.54-2.09], 1.24[1.12-1.36], and 1.54[1.38-1.73]), while neighborhood safety and family cohesion were protective for AUDs/DUDs (ORs[95%CIs]: 0.75[0.66-0.85] and 0.79[0.69-0.90]). Acculturative stress and neighborhood cohesion were not related to AUDs/DUDs. The relationships between family conflict and family cohesion with AUDs/DUDs were attenuated after accounting for other psychosocial and contextual factors. These relationships were generally consistent across ethnic and age of immigration subgroups.",
"While the majority of high school students do not become regular smokers after initiating smoking, earlier initiation of smoking is associated with subsequent regular smoking irrespective of sex or race/ethnicity. These findings have potentially important implications for intervention targeting.",
"Although differing levels of family influences may explain some of the varying racial/ethnic trends in adolescent smoking behavior, clarification of which influences are protective against smoking may aid in the development of future ethnic-specific smoking prevention interventions. We sought to identify and compare the association of family influences on adolescent smoking among Black, Hispanic, and White adolescents in a cross-sectional national sample. Data from 6,426 parent-child dyads from Round 1 of the National Survey of Parents and Youth were analyzed. The association of family influences with ever-smokers and recent smokers was evaluated. Multinomial logistic regression using SUDAAN software was used. While all measures of family influences except for parent-adolescent activities and intention to monitor were significantly protective against recent smoking and ever smoking among Whites, ethnic-specific family influence predictors of smoking were found in Blacks and Hispanics. Higher parental monitoring, higher intention to monitor, and higher connectedness were protective among Hispanics, while higher parental punishment and favorable attitude toward monitoring were protective against smoking among Blacks. For family influences significantly associated with protection against smoking, consistently greater protection was afforded against recent smoking than against ever smoking.",
"yes. These findings add to accumulating evidence that early emerging dependence symptoms reported at low levels of smoking exposure signal a greater propensity for continued smoking behavior. Screening for these early emerging symptoms among novice adolescent smokers represents an important and unused tool in tobacco control efforts aimed at preventing the development of chronic smoking patterns.",
"yes. Higher levels of family influences are protective against smoking among all racial/ethnic groups. There are consistencies in family influences on youth smoking; however, there may be specific family influences that should be differentially emphasized within racial/ethnic groups in order to protect against smoking behavior. Our results offer insight for designing strategies for preventing smoking in youth of different racial/ethnic backgrounds.",
"yes. The stress associated with navigating through changes in critical periods of the life course may lead some emerging adults to smoke. Future research should be directed toward determining what specific mechanisms make these transitional processes risk factors for smoking. These determinations could prove critical if effective prevention programs are to be designed that lead to a decrease in the smoking prevalence among Hispanic emerging adults.",
"We describe the epidemiology of smoking behaviors in a national young adult sample and identify common and unique demographic, social, and psychological correlates of daily smoking and lifetime and current nicotine dependence by race/ethnicity. Data are from the National Longitudinal Survey of Adolescent Health, wave III. Dependence was measured by the Revised Fagerström Test for Nicotine Dependence. Logistic regressions were estimated. Hispanic ethnicity, low education, parental and peer smoking, novelty seeking, early age of smoking onset, and pleasurable initial smoking experiences are significantly correlated with daily smoking and lifetime nicotine dependence. Depressive symptoms are uniquely associated with lifetime and current dependence. Few factors are highly associated with current dependence. Initial sensitivity to smoking has a significantly greater impact on daily smoking than on dependence. Correlates of smoking behaviors are mostly common across racial/ethnic groups, although parental and peer smoking are significant for Whites and Hispanics but not for African Americans.",
"To examine developmental patterns and family influences on the risk of daily smoking initiation from adolescence to young adulthood. A gender-balanced, ethnically diverse urban sample of 808 children aged 10-11 years was surveyed in 1985 and followed prospectively to age 21 in 1996. Discrete-time survival analysis was used to assess the hazard of initiation of daily smoking during this time period, as well as the effects of family factors on the risk of daily smoking initiation. Less parental smoking, more strict family monitoring and rules, and stronger family bonding predicted a significantly lower risk of daily smoking initiation controlling for socio-demographic background. The decline in the impact of family bonding over time was marginally significant; however, none of the interactions between family factors and time were significant, indicating generally consistent family influences on daily smoking from age 10 to 21.",
"To investigate the associations between generational status, acculturation and substance use among immigrant and non-immigrant secondary school students in New Zealand. A nationally representative sample of secondary school students in New Zealand was selected using a two-stage cluster sample design. Of the 8,999 students in the sample, 23.81% were first-generation immigrants and 20.90% were second-generation immigrants; the remaining 55.29% students are collectively referred to as 'non-immigrant' peers. Logistic regression models adjusted the associations of interest for age, gender, ethnicity, socioeconomic status and experience of ethnic discrimination. First and second-generation immigrants showed significantly lower risks of smoking cigarettes compared with their non-immigrant peers. Similar trends were apparent for consuming alcohol and marijuana weekly. The inclusion of some characteristics suggestive of acculturation in multivariable models did not influence the relationship between generational status and smoking cigarettes, but attenuated the apparent protective effect of being a first-generation immigrant with regard to alcohol and marijuana use.",
"Evidence that age of smoking initiation represents a risk factor for regular smoking in adolescence is complicated by inconsistencies in the operational definition of smoking initiation and simultaneous inclusion of age as an explanatory variable. The aim of this study was to examine the relationship between age, age of smoking initiation and subsequent regular smoking. A secondary analysis was conducted of the U.S. Youth Risk Behavior Survey 2011. A sex stratified multivariable logistic regression analysis was used to model the likelihood of regular smoking with age and age of smoking initiation as explanatory variables and race/ethnicity as a covariate. After controlling for race/ethnicity, age and age of smoking initiation were independently associated with regular smoking in males and females. Independent of age, a one year's decrease in the age of smoking initiation was associated with a 1.27 times increase in odds of regular smoking in females (95% CI: 1.192-1.348); and similar associations for males (OR: 1.28; 95% CI: 1.216-1.341).",
"These results show that parental smoking is a consistent risk factor for adolescent smoking in all ethnic groups. Prevention strategies targeted at parents may help limit the uptake of smoking by adolescents.",
"Although ethnic differences in adolescent smoking have been well documented, smoking among multi-ethnic adolescents has received little research attention. This study examined smoking prevalence and tobacco related psychosocial risk factors among multi-ethnic adolescents in California, as compared with white, African American, Asian American, and Hispanic adolescents. This study used a cross sectional design. Data were obtained from the independent evaluation of the California Tobacco Control, Prevention, and Education Program. Students completed a paper-and-pencil survey in their classrooms. Data were collected from a stratified random sample of 5072 eighth grade students (age 13-14 years) in California during the 1996-97 school year. The data were weighted by school enrollment in analyses to make the estimates representative of the population of California students attending public schools. Outcome variables included self reported smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, access to tobacco, and related attitudes, beliefs, and behaviours. Ethnicity was assessed with a self reported, \"check all that apply\" question. Results indicated that multi-ethnic adolescents were at higher risk than single-ethnic adolescents on several variables, including 30 day cigarette smoking prevalence, lifetime smokeless tobacco use, buying cigarettes, receiving cigarette offers, and expected friends' reaction if the respondent smoked. For several other variables (lifetime cigarette smoking prevalence, susceptibility to smoking, and number of friends who smoked), Hispanic adolescents were at higher risk than all other ethnic groups including multi-ethnic adolescents. Although susceptibility to smoking was highest among Hispanics, multi-ethnic adolescents scored significantly higher on susceptibility than the three other single-ethnic groups.",
"Identifying ethnic differences in the age of smoking onset from nationally representative data can lead to improved targeted prevention programs and policies to combat smoking in ethnic communities. Analyzing data from the Tobacco Use Supplements of the U.S. Census Bureau's Current Population Surveys throughout the 1990s, differences in the age of regular smoking onset among Asians/Pacific Islanders (A/PI), African Americans (AA), Hispanics/Latinos (H/L) and non-Hispanic whites (WH) are reported. Data on people aged 26 to 50 years at the time of the survey interview (n =130,356; mean age=38.4 years; 47.9% male; 1.9% A/PI, 7.8% AA, 5.2% H/L, and 85.1% WH) were examined. Results indicate significant ethnic disparities in when people start smoking, among A/PIs in particular, and AAs and H/Ls to a lesser degree, who initiate regular smoking at later ages than do WHs. The majority of A/PIs and AAs initiated smoking as young adults, with almost half (47.8%) of A/PIs who were ever regular smokers starting between ages 18 and 21, compared with 39.8% of AAs, 37.5% of H/Ls, and 36.7% of WHs.",
"yes. Smoking was associated with poor SRH among Chinese adolescents, especially girls. This finding is useful for discouraging smoking initiation and motivating quitting in adolescent smokers.",
"yes. Factors such as acculturation, discrimination, and neighborhood safety, are robustly and largely universally related to AUDs/DUDs among first and later generation Latino and Asian immigrants. Further research is required to understand how and why these factors relate to risk of substance misuse, and to identify ways to apply these factors in prevention and intervention efforts.",
"These findings indicate significant ethnic disparities in relation to when people start smoking, with the majority of A/PIs and AAs initiating as young adults. The findings suggest that prevention strategies should begin at a young age and continue throughout young adulthood, especially among ethnic minority populations. Further consideration of the different influences on later initiation in ethnic minorities may lead to suggestions to improve current smoking-prevention programs aimed at adolescents and young adults.",
"To determine the extent to which Chinese American and white minors differ in age of smoking initiation, and to determine the effect of acculturation on smoking initiation. Cross-sectional telephone surveys. Stratified random samples of the state of California, United States. 347 Chinese American and 10 129 white adolescents aged 12 through 17 years, from the California Tobacco Survey (1990-93) and the California Youth Tobacco Survey (1994-96). Hazards (risk) of smoking initiation by age, smoking initiation rate, cumulative smoking rate, mean age of smoking initiation, and acculturation status. Life table methods, proportional hazards models, and chi(2) tests. The risk of smoking initiation by age among Chinese American minors was about a third of that among white minors. The risk for Chinese Americans continued to rise even in later adolescence, in contrast to that for whites, which slowed after 15 years of age. Acculturation was associated significantly with smoking onset among Chinese Americans. Acculturation, smoking among social network members, attitudes toward smoking, and perceived benefits of smoking were associated with the difference in hazards of smoking onset between Chinese American minors and their white counterparts.",
"Chinese American adolescents had a lower level and a different pattern of smoking onset than white adolescents. Levels of acculturation and other known risk factors were associated with the hazards of smoking initiation among Chinese American minors and with the difference in smoking initiation between the Chinese and white adolescents. Tobacco prevention policies, strategies, and programmes for ethnically diverse populations should take acculturation factors into account."
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Decrease in asthma mortality rate in Israel from 1991-1995: is it related to increased use of inhaled corticosteroids? | [
"Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period.",
"We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging."
] | [
"An increased incidence of pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) under inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy was noticed in previous studies. We performed a prospective study to elucidate the risk factors for the development of pneumonia in this group of patients. A prospective, non-randomized study with patients diagnosed as having COPD from 2007 to 2008 identified in the Far Eastern Memorial Hospital were recruited. We recorded data for all patients, including clinical features and signs, demographic data, lung function status, and medications. Bio-markers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and placenta growth factor (PlGF) were checked at first diagnosis. Every acute exacerbation was also recorded, especially pneumonia events, which were confirmed by chest radiography. Multivariate analysis was performed with stepwise logistic regression for pneumonia risk factors. 274 patients were diagnosed as having COPD during the study period and 29 patients suffered from pneumonia with a prevalence of 10.6%. The rate was significantly higher in patients with ICS therapy (20/125, 16%) compared with those without ICS (9/149, 6%) (p = 0.02). We stratified ICS therapy into medium dose (500-999 ug/day fluticasone equivalent, 71 patients) and high dose (1000 ug/day and higher fluticasone equivalent, 54 patients) group. There was no statistical difference in the incidence of pneumonia between these two group (medium dose: 13/71, 18.3% vs. high dose: 7/54, 12.9%, p = 0.47). Multivariate analysis was performed to identify the risk factors for developing pneumonia and included forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) less than 40% of predicted (odds ratio (OR) 2.2, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.1-6.9), ICS prescription ((OR) 2.4, 95% (CI): 1.3-8.7), the presence of diabetes mellitus (DM) (OR 2.6, 95% CI: 1.2-9.4) and PlGF level over 40 pg/L (OR 4.1, 95% CI: 1.5-9.9).",
"Asthma guidelines should lead to improved, more rational asthma medication prescribing. The aims of this study were to assess trends in paediatric asthma drug prescribing in the UK and to assess the potential impact of the publication of the British Thoracic Society (BTS) asthma guideline. The estimated community paediatric prescribing figures for asthma medications in the UK were studied using data from the NHS Information Centre for Health and Social Care for the years 2000-2006. The numbers of prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups decreased by 60% from 2000 to 2006. However, this still represents 121,000 prescriptions for bronchodilator syrups in 2006 despite minimal recommendations for their use. The percentage of steroid inhalers prescribed as combination inhalers of a steroid and a long-acting beta agonist increased from 2.6% in 2000 to 20.6% in 2006.",
"To determine whether children with asthma and on inhaled corticosteroids have more behavioural problems, such as aggressiveness and hyperactivity, as compared with healthy controls and with children under medical care because of other disorders. Questionnaires were given to three groups of children: a group of asthmatic children with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), a group of children attending the ear, nose and throat (ENT) outpatient clinic and the healthy controls. Included were questions about health, medication use, demographical data and about behaviour, including the child behaviour check list (CBCL) and questions about attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Forty asthmatic children on ICS, 50 children visiting the ENT outpatient clinic and 183 healthy controls were studied. The total CBCL and mean ADHD scores of the children on ICS were 28.1 and 9.1, which were both significantly higher than the scores of the healthy controls (20.4 and 7.1), but not when compared with the ENT outpatient group (26.2 and 8.6). Further analysis revealed statistically significant differences between the ICS group and healthy controls in CBCL-axes. There were, however, no differences between the ENT group and the ICS on one side and the healthy controls on the other.",
"To assess any outcome differences between young men and women who are admitted for asthma. We conducted a retrospective cohort study based on hospitalizations. An inclusion criterion was admission for asthma between January 1, 1998 and July 1, 2001. Exclusion criteria included age>45, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and emphysema. Data were collected on 10 potential confounding variables. Four outcome variables were assessed, including length of stay, intensive care unit (ICU) length of stay, mortality, and respiratory failure. Patients admitted for asthma were significantly more likely to be female (374 females vs. 106 males, p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders comparing month of admission. The women were significantly older, with more Medicaid insured, and more anxiety/depression (p<0.05). There was no difference between the genders for obesity, race, tobacco history, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), hypertension, diabetes, and pneumonia. There was no reported mortality. Using regression analysis, there was no difference between the genders for length of stay (odds ratio [OR] = 1.06, 95% confidence interval [CI]0.97-1.17) and respiratory failure (OR = 1.58, 95% CI 0.53-4.76). Men stayed significantly longer in the ICU (OR = 1.18, 95% CI 1.01-1.38).",
"To examine the effect of the level of patient copayment on the rate of purchase of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) by patients with obstructive lung disease. Cross-sectional study of records of all prescriptions for ICS dispensed to general and concessional beneficiaries aged 15 years or over in the period January 2003 to December 2006. Data were obtained from the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme, which subsidises medication costs for all Australians. The number of prescriptions for ICS dispensed to government concession card holders compared with the number dispensed to general beneficiaries, expressed as a rate ratio. ICS prescriptions were dispensed to over 1.6 million people during the study period. Concession card holders were dispensed ICS prescriptions at a higher rate than general beneficiaries, both overall (43.7 v 9.1 ICS prescriptions per 100 person-years) and in all population subgroups. After adjusting for age, sex, remoteness category and socioeconomic status, people holding a concession card were dispensed over 2.5 times the number of ICS prescriptions (alone or in combination with a long-acting beta(2)-agonist) compared with general beneficiaries. Similar patterns were seen after adjusting for differences between the two groups in the prevalence of obstructive lung disease.",
"To analyse coronary heart disease (CHD) mortality and risk factor trends in the West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory between 1998 and 2009. Modelling study using CHD IMPACT model. The West Bank, occupied Palestinian territory. Data on populations, mortality, patient groups and numbers, treatments and cardiovascular risk factor trends were obtained from national and local surveys, routine national and WHO statistics, and critically appraised. Data were then integrated and analysed using a previously validated CHD model. CHD deaths prevented or postponed are the main outcome. CHD death rates fell by 20% in the West Bank, between 1998 and 2009. Smoking prevalence was initially high in men, 51%, but decreased to 42%. Population blood pressure levels and total cholesterol levels also decreased. Conversely, body mass index rose by 1-2 kg/m(2) and diabetes increased by 2-8%. Population modelling suggested that more than two-thirds of the mortality fall was attributable to decreases in major risk factors, mainly total cholesterol, blood pressure and smoking. Approximately one-third of the CHD mortality decreases were attributable to treatments, particularly for secondary prevention and heart failure. However, the contributions from statins, surgery and angioplasty were consistently small.",
"A core feature of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the accelerated decline in forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1). The recent Groningen and Leiden Universities study of Corticosteroids in Obstructive Lung Disease (GLUCOLD) study suggested that particular phenotypes of COPD benefit from fluticasone±salmeterol by reducing the rate of FEV1 decline, yet the underlying mechanisms are unknown. Whole-genome gene expression profiling using the Affymetrix Gene ST array (V.1.0) was performed on 221 bronchial biopsies available from 89 COPD patients at baseline and after 6 and 30 months of fluticasone±salmeterol and placebo treatment in GLUCOLD. Linear mixed effects modelling revealed that the expression of 138 genes decreased, whereas the expression of 140 genes significantly upregulated after both 6 and 30 months of treatment with fluticasone±salmeterol versus placebo. A more pronounced treatment-induced change in the expression of 50 and 55 of these 278 genes was associated with a lower rate of decline in FEV1 and Saint George Respiratory Questionnaire, respectively. Genes decreasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to cell cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, epithelial cell signalling, p53 signalling and T cell signalling. Genes increasing with treatment were involved in pathways related to focal adhesion, gap junction and extracellular matrix deposition. Finally, the fluticasone-induced gene expression changes were enriched among genes that change in the airway epithelium in smokers with versus without COPD in an independent data set.",
"Concern over the safety of influenza vaccination in individuals with obstructive airways disease has contributed to suboptimal rates of vaccine uptake in this group. We investigated the safety of influenza vaccine in older people with asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in a cohort from the UK General Practice Research Database (GPRD). A population based cohort study of 12,000 individuals with asthma or COPD from 432 general practices was conducted. Incidence rate ratios (IRR) were calculated for asthma or COPD diagnoses, prescriptions for oral corticosteroids, and acute exacerbations on the day of vaccination and on days 1-2 and 3-14 after vaccination compared with other time periods in the influenza season. The IRRs for asthma or COPD diagnoses and oral corticosteroid prescriptions were increased on the day of vaccination (for example, the IRR for oral corticosteroid prescriptions for subjects with asthma during the 1992-3 influenza season was 8.24 (95% confidence interval 5.54 to 12.26)). However, there was no consistent increase in the IRR of any of the outcomes on days 1-2 or 3-14 after vaccination, and most of these IRRs were close to 1. Rates of exacerbation were low and showed no consistent statistically significant increase during any risk periods.",
"To determine whether inhaled corticosteroids can be discontinued in the stable phase of asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or if this therapy should be continued. Nonrandomized open uncontrolled 5-year trial. Prospective study in general practice. Forty-eight patients with steroid-dependent asthma or COPD who had shown a decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of at least 80 mL per year and at least one exacerbation per year during the first 2 years of bronchodilator treatment. Subjects were treated additionally with inhaled steroids for another 2 years and were finally given the option to stop using steroids. Sixteen patients were willing to stop using beclomethasone and were studied for another year. No recruitment bias took place in this consecutive sample in the fifth year of follow-up. Two of 16 patients developed carcinomas and dropped out. Two years of bronchodilator treatment alone (400 micrograms of salbutamol or 40 micrograms of ipratropium bromide four times daily), followed by 2 years of additional inhaled corticosteroid treatment (400 micrograms of beclomethasone two times daily), and finally 1 year of bronchodilator treatment alone. Decline in lung function (FEV1), change in bronchial hyperresponsiveness, indicated by a provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% fall in FEV1 (PC20), morning peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), diurnal PEFR, week-to-week variation of PEFR, bronchial symptoms, and exacerbations. The course of FEV1 during the year in which beclomethasone was discontinued was not significantly different when compared with the 2-year period of beclomethasone treatment. Neither did the course of PC20, morning PEFR, diurnal PEFR, symptom score, and exacerbation rate change. Only the week-to-week variation of the PEFR increased after discontinuing steroids.",
"no. Clinically meaningful improvements in the control of asthma and in airway responsiveness achieved during continuous treatment with inhaled corticosteroids do not persist after continuous treatment is discontinued.",
"Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.",
"yes. Based on the preponderance of evidence, treatment with inhaled corticosteroids in infants and young children with recurrent wheeze and risk factors of developing asthma appears to allow better control of the illness and improve the pulmonary function.",
"The prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis and physician-diagnosed asthma has increased in Helsinki during 10 years in adults, especially in women aged<40 years. Concomitantly, the use of asthma medication increased and subjects with physiciandiagnosed asthma were less symptomatic. The increase in the prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma may partly be due to improved diagnostic recognition of asthma in primary care during the Finnish Asthma Programme, but the concurrent rise in allergic rhinoconjunctivitis may reflect a true rise in prevalence.",
"Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.",
"yes. Corticosteroids decrease rhinovirus-induced ICAM-1 up-regulation in respiratory epithelial cells and modulate pretranscriptional mechanisms. This effect may be important for the therapeutic control of virus-induced asthma exacerbations.",
"The guidelines for asthma recommend that the use of anti-inflammatory therapy should be adapted to the severity of the disease. However, few data are available to assess the adequacy of the use of drugs and its influence on the control of asthma in 'real life'. The adequacy of the current use of anti-asthmatic medication according to the Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines was assessed in a random sample of 400 asthmatics identified in the frame of the Italian Study on Asthma in Young Adults. Asthma severity was assessed using the GINA criteria; accordingly, a patient was classified as receiving inadequate treatment if his/her current use of drugs was lower than that suggested by the guidelines for the corresponding severity level. The absence of asthma attacks in the last 3 months was used as an indicator of the disease control. Fifty-five percent of the patients had persistent asthma. Overall, 48% (95% CI 41.2-54.8) of persistent asthmatics were receiving inadequate treatment, and 66% (95% CI 59.5-72.4) had not used their medication daily over the past 3 months. Persistent asthmatics who were inadequately treated had a significantly greater frequency of asthma attacks (geometric mean ratio 3.7; 95% CI 2.1-6.6) than those using an adequate dose of medication. Mild and moderate persistent asthmatics using an adequate medication regimen reported a low number of asthma attacks (median 0). At the multivariate analysis, a good control of the disease was positively associated with an adequate dose of anti-inflammatory medication (OR = 2.2; 95% CI 1.1-4.5) and was negatively associated with a later onset of asthma (OR = 0.96; 95% CI 0.93-0.99) and severe asthma (OR = 0.37; 95% CI 0.17-0.81).",
"Chronic inflammation of the airways plays a major role in the pathogenesis of asthma. Although C-reactive protein (CRP) is now an established circulating marker for cardiovascular diseases, it remains unclear whether asthma is an independent risk for increased plasma CRP. In Study 1, we evaluated CRP levels in 329 asthmatic patients and 1684 non-asthmatic subjects. Inhaled corticosteroids were regularly used by 308 asthmatics. In Study 2, the effects of inhaled corticosteroids on CRP levels were examined in 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients. In Study 1, plasma CRP levels were associated with body mass index (R=0.349, P<0.0001) and age (R=0.111, P<0.0001) in all study subjects, but were higher in patients with asthma, hypertension, diabetes and/or dyslipidemia than in those without these disorders. Multivariate regression analysis identified body mass index, age and asthma, but not hypertension, diabetes or dyslipidemia, as independently associated with an elevation of CRP levels. In Study 2, treatment of 64 corticosteroid-naive asthmatic patients with inhaled corticosteroids for 3 months significantly reduced plasma CRP levels.",
"Few data exist regarding the natural history of asthma exacerbations over time. To evaluate the frequency and risk factors of asthma exacerbation occurrence over a 5-year period in a large cohort of adult patients with persistent asthma. Health insurance claims from the Truven Health MarketScan database were analyzed for 2543 patients who had full medical and drug claims for years 2006 to 2011, did not have co-occurring chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in the index year (2006), and were treated with high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting β2-agonists for at least 120 days (\"high intensity\" therapy) in the index year. A retrospective analysis was conducted to assess the pattern of severe exacerbations (encounter with health care system and steroid burst) over time and their associations with the other measures of health status. Despite the use of high-intensity asthma therapy, there was only a small decrease in total asthma exacerbations over time, but no significant time trend for asthma hospitalizations. An exacerbation in the prior year increased the risk for exacerbations almost 8-fold, (odds ratio 7.8 [95% CI, 7.1-8.6]). A 50% increase in exacerbation risk (odds ratio 1.5 [95% CI, 1.4-1.6]) was associated with continued high-intensity treatment for the duration of the study. Patients with encounters of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease after the index year were at 60% increased risk of an exacerbation.",
"Adherence to treatment with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) is a critical determinant of asthma control. The objective of this study was to assess factors that determine adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Fifty-eight children with asthma, aged 5 to 16 years, used ICS with or without a spacer for 3 months. Adherence rates as measured from questionnaires and canisters, asthma symptom scores, and inhalation technique scores were assessed every 30 days. The degree of supervision by caregivers was assessed at day 30. Adherence rates measured using canisters were lower at day 60 than at day 30 (P=0.044) and did not change thereafter (74.4%±17.4% at day 30, 66.5%±18.4% at day 60, and 67.4%±22.2% at day 90). Adherence rates at days 60 and 90 and during the total study period were significantly different when measured by using questionnaires versus canisters (P<0.001, P=0.022, and P=0.001, respectively). In the comparison of adherence rates repeatedly measured at days 30, 60, and 90 and adherence rates during the total study period among the 3 groups, adherence rates in the high-degree supervision group were significantly higher than those in the low-degree supervision group (82.0±16.0 vs. 66.1±14.5, 75.4±14.4 vs. 56.2±18.4, 75.0±18.3 vs. 55.0±19.7 [P=0.027]; 77.9±12.2 vs. 59.1±11.4 [P=0.021]) after adjustment for sex and age.",
"An active use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma has been associated with less asthma exacerbations and hospital admissions in children aged more than 2 years. The present study aimed to investigate hospital admission rates in young children from two populations in relation to the age-specific use of maintenance medication for asthma. Annual data on children aged less than 24 months treated for asthma, including data on the use of maintenance medication based on the purchases of prescribed medications, and annual numbers of admissions to hospital and proportions of readmissions, were collected from 1995 to 1999 in two provinces of Finland. The inclusion criteria, three or more doctor-diagnosed wheezing episodes, were individually checked by the authors in each case. The mean number of children aged less than 24 months during the years of the study was 5490 in Kuopio and 9914 in Oulu area. In the Kuopio area, during the years of the study, 16.5/1000 children aged less than 24 months were on maintenance medication for asthma, and 90% of them were receiving inhaled corticosteroids. In the Oulu area, the respective figures were 13.5/1000 (P<0.001) and 99%. The average admission rate was 7.9/1000 in the Kuopio area and 8.7/1000 in the Oulu area (P<0.05). The readmissions indicated the higher admission rates in the Oulu (40% of all admissions) than in the Kuopio (28%) area (P<0.01).",
"Despite the significant progress in the care and outcome of patients with acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the impact of evolving therapies on the incidence and outcome of patients with cardiogenic shock complicating AMI has been questioned. We analyzed trends in the incidence, care and outcome of cardiogenic shock from four national surveys conducted during 1992--1998. Of the 5,351 AMI patients admitted to all coronary care units in Israel, 254 (4.7%) developed cardiogenic shock. The incidence of cardiogenic shock decreased over time (5.8, 5.1, 4.3 and 4.4% for the years 1992, 1994, 1996 and 1998, respectively, p = 0.08). Concomitantly, there was an increase in utilization of coronary angiography, urgent angioplasty and intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation. In addition, there was an increase in hospital use of aspirin, nitrates, ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers. Patients with shock were more likely to die within 7 days compared with AMI patients not having shock (65 vs. 4%; p < 0.001). During the study period, the mortality of patients with shock decreased: at 7 days (72% in 1992 to 60% in 1998; p = 0.09), at 30 days (87 to 70%, respectively; p = 0.01) and at 6 months (89 to 77%, respectively; p = 0.02). Both aspirin and angioplasty were independently associated with improved outcome after adjustment for baseline characteristics and study period.",
"Statins are hypothesized to have beneficial effects in asthma management through their pleiotropic anti-inflammatory effects. Several studies have examined this relationship, but have yielded conflicting results. This study investigates the effect of statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or emergency department (ED) visits, and whether this relationship varies by concomitant inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) in a large cohort of asthma patients. Subjects with asthma, a recent history of asthma exacerbation, and who were 18 years or older were selected from the population-based Medco Health Solutions administrative database over a 1 year period. Prescription claims for statins and asthma medications, and asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were ascertained over a 12 month follow-up period. Subjects were stratified into two groups based on their ICS use. A total of 3747 ICS users and 2905 non-ICS users were included in this study. Statin users represented 21% of ICS users and 11% of non-users. Among ICS users, statin use was significantly associated with decreased odds of asthma-related ED visits (OR = 0.77, 95% CI 0.64-0.94, p = 0.008), but not with asthma-related hospitalizations (OR = 1.09, 95% CI 0.92-1.30, p = 0.31). No significant associations were found among non-ICS users (for asthma-related ED visits: OR = 0.92, 95% CI 0.57-1.49, p = 0.73; asthma-related hospitalizations: OR = 1.10, 95% CI 0.85-1.41, p = 0.48). The statistical interactions between ICS and statin use on asthma-related hospitalizations and/or ED visits were not significant.",
"The aims were to evaluate the profile of newly diagnosed adult asthma cases and the approach adopted to the secondary care management at the launch of the Finnish asthma programme in 1994 and seven years later, in 2001. A retrospective medical record audit was made of non-acutely referred patients with asthma in 1994 (n=165) and in 2001 (n=133). Clinical profile data, numbers of out-patient visits and periods of in-patient care before and after asthma diagnosis were gathered from referral letters and secondary care records. The newly diagnosed asthma patients in 2001 were older, more obese and had more co-morbidities. The main asthma symptoms, such as dyspnoea, wheezing and cough, occurred equally in both years but were more often periodic than daily in 2001. Wheezing during auscultation was significantly less common in 2001. The diagnostic process was associated to a history of asthma in first-degree relatives (OR 5.34, 95% CI 1.12-24.49) in 1994 and a visit to a nurse prior to that to a physician (OR 3.13, 95% CI 1.17-8.37) in 2001. Secondary care visits per new case of asthma (7.3 in 1994 vs. 5.4 in 2001) and days in hospital (3.6 in 1994 vs. 0.95 in 2001) decreased significantly.",
"Changes in lifestyle or environmental factors are responsible for the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease. Establishing the time at which the increase began may provide a clue as to what factors possibly could have contributed to the increase. Many cross-sectional studies have shown that the prevalence of allergic sensitization decreases with increasing age. This could reflect the natural course of allergic sensitization. Alternatively, this could reflect that the increase in sensitization is caused by a cohort effect, i.e. an increase among subjects born during recent decades. The aim was to investigate age-specific changes in the prevalence of allergic sensitization in a cohort of adults. A total of 599 subjects aged 15 to 69 years participated in a cross-sectional general population study in 1990. In 1998 they were invited to a follow-up, and 64.4% (386/599) were reexamined. Serum samples obtained from the participants in 1990 and 1998 were analysed for specific IgE to six common inhalant allergens with the same assay. The prevalence of allergic sensitization (specific IgE to at least one allergen) increased among subjects who were less than c. 30 years at baseline (1990), i.e. subjects born during the 1960s or later, while the prevalence was unchanged among subjects who were more than c. 30 years at baseline.",
"Most adult asthmatics are under the care of FDs; however, these appear to under-treat to a considerable degree, especially respecting the use of inhaled corticosteroids. It must be emphasised strongly that Asthma is an inflammatory disease; and FDs must become better informed of the directives of the international consensus on asthma.",
"The aim of the study was to assess the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on subsequent respiratory symptoms and asthma in infants hospitalized for respiratory syncytial virus infection (RSV). The study included 188 children below 12 mo of age, hospitalized because of RSV infection. During the winter of 1994/95 only selected children (13%) were given inhaled corticosteroids following discharge from the hospital. The following winter (1995/96), almost all children (86%) were given this treatment for 6-8 wk. Outcomes of the two different treatment regimens were compared by questionnaire 19-24 mo after discharge. Children hospitalized and treated during the winter of 1995/96 developed asthma (12% vs. 24%) and other severe symptoms of the respiratory tract less often than infants treated the year before. The frequency of children with less severe symptoms did not differ between the two treatment periods.",
"yes. Our results suggest that inhaled steroids are better than cromones in preventing admissions for asthma when two provinces with different practices for maintenance medication of steady-state asthma were compared.",
"Annual data on children aged under 16 y treated for asthma, including consumption of regular medication for asthma, numbers of hospital periods, lengths of hospitalizations and annual proportions of readmissions, were collected using patient-specific medical records from 1995 to 1999. In the Kuopio province, on average, 35.6-36.7/1000 children were on maintenance for asthma, of which 23% were receiving cromones, 51% were taking inhaled steroids and 26% were treated with cromones plus intermittent steroids. In the Oulu province, the respective prevalence was 32.7-34.9/1000, and the respective proportions were 5%, 93% and 2%. Total and first admissions, as well as hospital days were clearly less in the Oulu province. In the children aged>or = 6y, the average annual total admissions were 0.3/1000 (Oulu) vs 1.2/1000 (Kuopio) (p<0.001). Similarly, the first admissions were 0.2/1000 vs 1.0/1000 (p<0.001), proportions of readmissions 6.3% vs 19.3% (p<0.05), and numbers of hospital days 0.7/1000 vs 3.8/1000 (p<0.001). The differences were in the same direction, though less prominent, also among children 2-5 y of age.",
"Few epidemiological surveys on general population samples estimated changes in prevalence of respiratory symptoms/diseases over a long time interval; our study aims to quantify the temporal changes in the prevalence rates of asthma, allergic rhinitis and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) after 25 years from baseline. A general population sample participated in 3 cross-sectional surveys carried out in Central Italy (Pisa) in 1985-88 (n = 3865), 1991-93 (n = 2841), 2009-11 (n = 1620). 2276 (47%) subjects participated in at least 1 survey, 1723 (35.5%) in at least 2 surveys and 849 (17.5%) in all the 3 surveys. All subjects filled in a standardized questionnaire about health status and risk factors; a sub-sample performed spirometry. Chi-square test was used to compare adjusted prevalence rates of respiratory symptoms/diseases and descriptive characteristics among the surveys. Generalised estimating equations (GEE) were used to analyze the association between respiratory symptoms/diseases and risk factors. There was an increasing trend in prevalence rates of all respiratory symptoms/diseases throughout the surveys: current asthma attacks (1st-3rd survey prevalence: 3.4-7.2%), allergic rhinitis (16.2-37.4%), usual phlegm (8.7-19.5%) and COPD (2.1-6.8%) more than doubled. The GEE model confirmed these increasing trends, indicating higher risk of having respiratory symptoms/diseases in the second and third surveys.",
"Physician training influences patient care. To compare asthma management and change in the percentage predicted FEV1 among pediatric physician specialties. A retrospective cohort of children 6 years of age or older, seen in a multidisciplinary asthma clinic between 2009 and 2010, and followed to 2012, was completed to examine differences in asthma outcomes by specialty (2 pediatricians, 3 pediatric allergists, 5 pediatric respirologists). Univariate analyses compared investigation, including allergy testing (skin prick or RAST), comorbid conditions, and prescription by specialty. Multivariate regression, which controlled for random effect of the individual physician, examined specialty differences for prescribed inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and changes in percentage predicted FEV1. More than 56% of the patients (309/548) were seen by pediatric respirologists, 26% by pediatric allergists, and 18% by pediatricians. Physician specialty influences investigation requested, comorbid diagnoses, treatment, and improvement in FEV1. Pediatric allergists' patients had more allergy tests, were more likely to be diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and, consequently, were more likely to be prescribed nasal steroids than pediatricians and pediatric respirologists. Pediatricians were less likely to prescribe ICS (odds ratio 0.39 [95% CI, 0.15-0.96]; P < .05) than pediatric allergists, with the greatest difference in ICS prescription among children with a percentage predicted FEV1 ≥ 80%. Improvement in FEV1 among children who received care with pediatric allergists was higher than those seen by pediatricians (13%; P < .001) and pediatric respirologists (8%; P = .005).",
"The aim of this study was to characterise the deaths of children from asthma in New South Wales (NSW) over the last 10 years and ascertain whether there were modifiable factors that could have prevented the deaths. The hospital medical records, coronial reports, immunisation records and all relevant correspondence from general practitioners, medical specialists and hospitals were reviewed for children who died with asthma in the 10 years (2004-2013). In 10 years, there were 20 deaths (0-7 per year) with a male predominance (70%) occurring in children aged 4-17 years. Sixteen (80%) had persistent asthma and 4 (20%) had intermittent asthma. The majority (55%) had been hospitalised for asthma in the preceding 12 months, 25% in the preceding 6 weeks. The majority (55%) was aged 10-14 years. Ninety percent were atopic. Psychosocial issues were identified in the majority (55%) of families. Forty percent had a child protection history. Seventy-five percent had consulted a general practitioner in the year before their death, 45% had a current written asthma action plan and 50% had not seen a paediatrician ever in relation to their asthma. Of the 16 children at school, the schools were aware of the asthma in 14 (88%) cases, but only half had copies of written asthma plans.",
"Asthma is the most common chronic disease in children. Previous studies described significant variations in acute asthma management in children. This study was conducted to examine whether asthma management in the pediatric emergency department (ED) was improved through the use of an evidence-based acute asthma care guideline reminder card. The Pediatric Acute Asthma Management Guideline (PAMG) was introduced to the ED of a pediatric tertiary care hospital in Ontario, Canada. Medical charts of 278 retrospective ED visits (January-December 2002) and 154 prospective visits (July 2003-June 2004) were reviewed to assess changes in acute asthma management such as medication treatment, asthma education, and discharge planning. Logistic and linear regressions were used to determine the effect of PAMG on asthma management in the ED. The propensity score method was used to adjust for confounding. During the implementation of PAMG, patients who visited the ED were more likely to receive oral corticosteroids (Adjusted Odds Ratio [AOR] = 2.26, 95% CI: 1.63-3.14, p<0.0001) and oxygen saturation reassessment before ED discharge (AOR = 2.02, 95% CI: 1.45-2.82, p<0.0001). They also received 0.23 (95% CI: 0.03-0.44, p = 0.0283) more doses of bronchodilator in the first hour of ED stay. Improvements in asthma education and discharge planning were noted, but the changes were not statistically significant.",
"yes. Triage nurse initiation of oral corticosteroid before physician assessment was associated with reduced times to clinical improvement and discharge, and reduced admission rates in children presenting with moderate to severe acute asthma exacerbations.",
"To study persistence with inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and its determinants in asthma-patients. From the PHARMO database, asthma-patients (age < 35 years) with a first dispensing for ICS in 1999-2002 and > or = 2 dispensings in the first year were included. Persistence during the first year was defined as the number of days from start to time of first failure to continue renewal of the initial ICS. Potential determinants of persistence were assessed at ICS-start and 1 year before. The study-cohort included 5563 new users of single ICS and 297 of fixed-combined ICS. Less than 10% of patients using single ICS and 15% of patients using fixed-combined ICS were persistent at 1 year. Similar persistence-rates were observed when stratified for age (children/adolescents: 0-18 years and adults: 19-34 years). Increased persistence with single ICS was observed with the type of ICS (budesonide), prescriber (specialist), prior use of long-acting beta-agonists, previous hospitalization for asthma, metered-dose inhaler, low starting-dose and once-daily dosing regimen at start. Persistence with fixed combined ICS-treatment increased with younger age and was decreased in patients having high starting-dose of ICS and prior use of antibiotics.",
"The objective of this study was to determine whether a new diagnosis of asthma is associated with a later diagnosis of herpes zoster (HZ) in a nationwide, retrospective, non-age limited, population-based cohort. We used data from the National Health Insurance Research Database in Taiwan. The asthma group consisted of all 40 069 patients in the database with newly diagnosed asthma and using asthma medications from 2000 through 2005. The nonasthma group comprised 40 069 age- and sex-matched patients without any asthma diagnosis. Cox proportional hazards regression analysis was applied to calculate the hazard ratio of HZ in the patients with asthma relative to those without asthma. During a mean follow-up period of 8.77 years, the risk of HZ was 1.48-fold higher in the asthma group compared with that in the nonasthma group after adjustment for sex, age, comorbidities, inhaled and systemic corticosteroid use, and annual outpatient department visits to dermatologists. Additional stratified analyses revealed that the risk of HZ was significantly higher in patients of both sexes and those aged older than 21 years.",
"The role of asthma controller medication adherence and the level of asthma control in children is poorly defined. To assess the association between asthma controller medication adherence and asthma control in children using routinely acquired prescribing data. A retrospective observational study of children aged 0-18 years prescribed inhaled corticosteroids only (ICS), leukotriene receptors antagonists (LTRA), or long-acting β2 agonists (LABA) and ICS prescribed as separate or combined inhalers, between 01/09/2001 and 31/08/2006, registered with primary care practices contributing to the Practice Team Information database. The medication possession ratio (MPR) was calculated and associations with asthma control explored. Poor asthma control was defined as the issue of prescriptions for ≥ 1 course of oral corticosteroids (OCS) and/or ≥ 6 short-acting β2 agonists (SABA) canisters annually. A total of 3172 children prescribed asthma controller medication were identified. Of these, 15-39% (depending on controller medication) demonstrated adequate MPR. Adequate MPR was associated with male gender, good socio-economic status, and oral LTRA therapy. Adequate MPR was more likely to be associated with increased use of rescue medication. However logistic regression only identified a significant relationship for ICS only (odds ratio [OR], 1.89; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.35-2.48; p<0.001), LTRA (OR, 2.11; 95% CI, 1.27-3.48; p = 0.004) and LABA/ICS (OR, 2.85; 95% CI, 1.62-5.02; p<0.001).",
"Although work-exacerbated asthma (WEA) is a prevalent condition likely to have an important societal burden, there are limited data on this condition. The aims of this study were (1) to compare the clinical, functional, and inflammatory characteristics of workers with WEA and occupational asthma (OA) and (2) compare health care use and related costs between workers with WEA and OA, as well as between workers with work-related asthma (WRA; ie, WEA plus OA) and those with non-work-related asthma (NWRA) in a prospective study. We performed a prospective observational study of workers with and without WRA with a 2-year follow-up. The diagnosis of OA and WEA was based on the positivity and negativity of results on specific inhalation challenges, respectively. One hundred fifty-four subjects were enrolled: 53 with WEA, 68 with OA, and 33 control asthmatic subjects (NWRA). WEA was associated with more frequent prescriptions of inhaled corticosteroids (odds ratio [OR], 4.4; 95% CI, 1.4-13.6; P = .009), a noneosinophilic phenotype (OR, 0.3; 95% CI, 0.1-0.9; P = .04), a trend toward a lower FEV1 (OR, 0.9; 95% CI, 0.9-1.0; P = .06), and a higher proportion of smokers (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 0.96-9.7; P = .06) than the diagnosis of OA. The health care use of WRA and related costs were 10-fold higher than those of NWRA.",
"no. These national data do not support the hypothesis that population-based changes in weight are associated with asthma mortality. Other possible explanations for the large decreases in asthma mortality rates include changes in pollution or better delivery of medical care over the same time period.",
"Racial and ethnic disparities in health and health care have been well documented, but few studies have addressed how disparities may change over time. We sought to determine the change in relative rates over time of corticosteroid metered dose inhaler (MDI) use in minority and nonminority populations with asthma. We used a cross-sectional survey for 5 periods of 2 years' each (1989-1990, 1991-1992, 1993-1994, 1995-1996, 1997-1998) using the National Ambulatory Medical Care Surveys (NAMCS). A total of 3671 visits by adults and children with asthma to U.S. office-based physicians comprised our sample. We sought to measure differences in inhaled corticosteroid use for minority and nonminority adults and children controlling for gender, specialty, U.S. region, and type of insurance. Minority patients with asthma were less than half as likely as nonminority patients to have had a steroid MDI prescribed during 1989-1990. By 1995-1996, minority and nonminority patients with asthma were equally likely to have had a steroid MDI prescribed. Although differences between black and white patients resolved, differences between white and Hispanic patients persisted even after adjusting for insurance. Children initially were less likely than adults with asthma to have steroid MDI prescribed, and this difference persisted. Minority children had the greatest delay in adoption of steroid MDIs.",
"These findings suggest that subjects with severe asthma, especially women, have an increased mortality from ischaemic heart disease. The results may reflect confounding, mainly smoking and physical inactivity. Other explanations may be side effects of the antiasthmatic drugs or an effect of longstanding airway obstruction.",
"The frequency of smokers among asthma patients often mirrors the frequency of smokers among healthy individuals. Smoking has been shown to increase the lung function decline in adult asthma patients and change the composition of the bronchial inflammation. To examine the consequences of smoking in a large cohort of young asthma patients. Seven hundred ninety-three asthma patients, aged 14 to 44, were examined using lung function measurements, bronchial provocations, clinical interviews, and questionnaires. Forty-five percent of participants were smokers; smokers had significantly lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1)), FEV(1) in percent of predicted value (FEV(1)% pred), and FEV(1)/forced vital capacity (FVC) values compared with nonsmokers, and there was a dose-response relationship between tobacco exposure and these lung function measures. Smoking seemingly affected the FEV(1) growth already in adolescence, and before the age of 45, significantly more smokers than nonsmokers had signs of airflow limitation, with FEV(1)/FVC ratios below 0.70. Smokers had more asthma symptoms despite receiving inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) treatment as frequently as did nonsmokers.",
"The prevalence of childhood asthma is increasing but few studies have investigated trends in asthma severity. We investigated trends in asthma diagnosis and symptom morbidity between an eight year time period in a paired prevalence study. All children in one single school year aged 8-9 years in the city of Sheffield were given a parent respondent questionnaire in 1991 and 1999 based on questions from the International Survey of Asthma and Allergy in Children (ISAAC). Data were obtained regarding the prevalence of asthma and wheeze and current (12 month) prevalences of wheeze attacks, speech limiting wheeze, nocturnal cough and wheeze, and exertional symptoms. The response rates in 1991 and 1999 were 4580/5321 (85.3%) and 5011/6021 (83.2%), respectively. There were significant increases between the two surveys in the prevalence of asthma ever (19.9% v 29.7%, mean difference 11.9%, 95% confidence interval (CI) 10.16 to 13.57, p<0.001), current asthma (10.3% v 13.0%, mean difference 2.7%, 95% CI 1.44 to 4.03, p<0.001), wheeze ever (30.3% v 35.8%, mean difference 5.7%, 95% CI 3.76 to 7.56, p<0.001), wheeze in the previous 12 months (17.0% v 19.4%, mean difference 2.5, 95% CI 0.95 to 4.07, p<0.01), and reporting of medication use (16.9% v 20%, mean difference 3.0%, 95% CI 1.46 to 4.62, p<0.001). There were also significant increases in reported hayfever and eczema diagnoses.",
"Recent studies suggest an association between allergic diseases, including asthma, and lower vitamin D level, a well-known risk factor of osteoporosis. However, it is not yet clearly known whether patients with asthma are prone to bone loss. To evaluate whether the occurrence of airway hyperresponsiveness (AHR) or asthma is related to significant changes in bone mineral density (BMD). We retrospectively enrolled 7,034 patients who had undergone a health checkup program, including BMD tests and methacholine bronchial challenge tests, at the Seoul National University Hospital, Healthcare System Gangnam Center, from November 1, 2004 to April 30, 2011. Asthma was ascertained by self-reported medical diagnosis by a physician. Patients with a history of systemic corticosteroid medication use were excluded from the study. Among a total of 7,034 patients, 216 (3.1%) had a positive AHR test result, and 217 (3.1%) had a history of asthma. Lumbar spine and femur BMD of patients with AHR were significantly lower than those without AHR (-0.53 ± 1.50 vs -0.03 ± 1.49, -0.47 ± 0.97 vs -0.22 ± 0.99, respectively; P<.001 for both). After being adjusted for age, sex, body mass index, smoking status, postmenopausal state, and previous history of hormone replacement therapy, the proportion of patients with osteopenia or osteoporosis was much higher in the AHR-positive group than in the AHR-negative group (odds ratio, 1.715; 95% confidence interval, 1.252-2.349) and in the ever-asthma group than in the never-asthma group (odds ratio, 1.526; 95% confidence interval, 1.120-2.079).",
"We investigated the use of asthma medication by children and the association of use as recommended by guidelines with modifiable risk factors: parental attitudes, knowledge of asthma medication and information provided by health care providers. Questionnaire data were obtained from parents of 229 8-year-old children participating in the prevention and incidence of asthma and mite allergy birth cohort who used asthma medication in the past 12 months. They reported on their child's medication use, their own knowledge and attitudes towards the medication and their satisfaction with the information they received from health care providers. Irregular use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) was common: 40% of the parents only gave their child ICS when the child felt breathless and 52% only 'when the child needed it'; 15% of the parents tried to avoid giving medication, and about 25% of the parents sometimes discontinued medication. Parental knowledge of how asthma medication should be given was a major determinant of guideline-recommended use: Of the parents who knew that anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken everyday (53% of all parents), 84% reported that they actually gave their child the medicines everyday as compared with 25% of the parents who did not know this. Guideline-recommended use was also significantly associated with parental satisfaction with the amount of information received from health care providers. These associations were independent of maternal school education.",
"Data have highlighted the potential bias introduced by withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids at randomization in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease trials examining inhaled corticosteroids. Analyses were conducted to determine whether this was true of inhaled anticholinergic withdrawal in tiotropium trials. A pooled analysis of randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, parallel-group tiotropium trials of at least six months' duration was performed. Trials had similar inclusion and exclusion criteria. Exacerbation definition was standardized. Patients were divided into two groups, ie, D (anticholinergics discontinued at randomization, previously prescribed) and ND (anticholinergics not discontinued, not previously prescribed). Demographics were balanced between the D (n = 5846) and ND (n = 6317) groups, except for higher cumulative smoking (56 pack-years versus 48 pack-years), lower forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV(1))/forced vital capacity (43% versus 48%), and lower baseline FEV(1) (35.8% predicted versus 42.4% predicted) in the D group. In both groups, tiotropium reduced the risk for an exacerbation (hazard ratio [HR] = 0.83, P < 0.0001 [D] versus 0.79, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and a hospitalized exacerbation (HR = 0.85, P = 0.0467 versus 0.79, P = 0.0094). Tiotropium reduced the number of exacerbations per patient-year (rate ratio [RR] = 0.82, P < 0.0001 [D] versus RR = 0.80, P < 0.0001 [ND]) and associated hospitalizations per patient-year (RR = 0.88, P = 0.015 [D] versus RR = 0.74, P < 0.0001 [ND]).",
"To determine the change in prevalence of asthma, eczema and allergic rhinitis in Australian schoolchildren between 1993 and 2002. Questionnaire based survey, using the protocol of the International Study of Asthma and Allergy in Childhood. Metropolitan Melbourne primary schools within a 20 km radius of the GPO in 1993 and 2002. All children in school years 1 and 2 (ages 6 and 7) attending a random sample of 84 schools in 1993 and 63 schools in 2002. Parent-reported symptoms of atopic disease; treatment for asthma; country of birth. There was a 26% reduction in the 12-month period prevalence of reported wheeze, from 27.2% in 1993 to 20.0% in 2002. The magnitude of reduction was similar for boys (27%) and girls (25%). The 12-month period prevalence of reported eczema increased from 11.1% in 1993 to 17.2% in 2002, and rhinitis increased from 9.7% to 12.7%. There were reductions in the proportion of children attending an emergency department for asthma in the previous year (3.6% to 2.3%), the proportion admitted to hospital (1.7% to 1.1%) and the proportion taking asthma medication (18.5% to 13.4%). Of those who reported frequent wheeze, there was an increase in the proportion taking regular inhaled steroids (34.5% to 40.9%).",
"Since 2000 a decline in the incidence of occupational asthma (OA) has been reported in the UK and Europe. We aimed to describe and account for trends in the incidence of OA in the West Midlands, UK using annual notification data from the SHIELD voluntary surveillance scheme over the period 1991-2011. All notifications to the SHIELD database between January 1991 and December 2011 were identified, along with patients' demographic data, occupations, causative agents and confirmatory tests. Annual notifications were scaled to give an annual count per million workers, giving a measure of incidence, and also standardised against those of bakers' asthma. Non-parametric analyses were undertaken between annual incidence and time (years) for common causative agents using (1) a negative binomial regression univariate model and (2) a logistic regression model calculating annual reporting ORs. A step-change analysis was used to examine time points at which there were marked reductions in incidence. A decrease in annual incidence of OA was observed over the study period (incident rate ratio=0.945; 95% CI 0.933 to 0.957; p<0.0001), an effect that was lost after standardising for bakers' asthma. Decreases in incidence were seen for most common causative agents, with only cleaning product-related OA increasing over 21 years. Marked fall in incidence was seen in 2004 for isocyanates, and in 1995 for latex. Most notifications came from a regional specialist occupational lung disease unit, with notifications from other sites falling from 16 cases/million workers/annum in 1995 to 0 in 2004.",
"Guidelines for asthma management have been developed both locally and internationally. The aim of this study was to evaluate the adherence of primary care physicians in the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center to these guidelines. The records of 206 asthmatic children who visited the National Guard Iskan Primary Care Center, Jeddah, Kingdom of Saudi Arabia, during the months of February 1998 through June 1998, were reviewed. The following data was extracted from them; presenting symptoms, number of visits, names of asthma medications, whether doses were documented or not and number of times antitussives were prescribed. The most common presenting complaint was cough followed by wheeze and shortness of breath (mean SD, 14 13.8, 8.8 10.3 and 4.4 5.8). Oral salbutamol was the most frequently prescribed medication. The doses of asthma medications were not documented in 37.3% of cases. Preventive therapy was prescribed to 35.4% of children and emergency steroids were prescribed to 30.6% of children. The mean age of asthmatic children receiving inhaled medications was significantly higher than those other forms of therapy (p<0.00001). Antitussives were prescribed 2,536 times (mean 12.3).",
"The combination of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) and long-acting beta2 agonists (LABA) has been used as a single inhaler both for maintenance and reliever therapy in asthma, the SMART approach. The administration of additional CS with each reliever inhalation in response to symptoms is expected to provide better control of airway inflammation. The aim of this meta-analysis was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the SMART approach versus other approaches in the management of asthma in preventing asthma exacerbations. We searched the MEDLINE and EMBASE databases for studies that have reported exacerbations in the SMART group versus the control group. We calculated the odds ratio (OR) and 95% confidence intervals (CI) to assess the exacerbations in the two groups and pooled the results using a random-effects model. Our search yielded eight studies. The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS-LABA combination significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.65; 95% CI, 0.53-0.80) and severe exacerbation requiring hospitalization/ER treatment (OR 0.69; 95% CI, 058-0.83). The use of SMART approach compared to fixed-dose ICS also significantly decreased the odds of a severe exacerbation (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.45-0.61) and severe exacerbation requiring medical intervention (OR 0.52; 95% CI, 0.42-0.65). The occurrence of adverse events was similar in the two groups. There was some evidence of statistical heterogeneity.",
"The British guideline on the management of asthma produced by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) describes five steps for the management of chronic asthma. Combination therapy of a long acting β2-agonist (LABA) and an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended as first-line therapy at step 3, although the dose of ICS at which to add a LABA is subject to debate. To classify the inhaled therapy prescribed to patients with asthma in NHS Forth Valley according to two interpretations of the BTS/SIGN guideline and to evaluate the use of combination therapy in this population. A retrospective analysis including patients from 46 general practitioner surgeries was conducted. Patients with physician diagnosed asthma were classified according to the BTS/SIGN guideline based on treatment prescribed during 2008. Patient characteristics were evaluated for the overall step classification, and specifically for therapy in step 3. 12,319 patients were included. Guideline interpretation resulted in a shift of 9.2% of patients (receiving medium-dose ICS alone) between steps 2 and 3. The largest proportion of patients (32.3%) was classified at step 4. Age, sex, smoking status, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease co-morbidity, and utilisation of short-acting β2-agonists and oral corticosteroids all correlated with step; however, no differences in these characteristics were evident between low-dose combination therapy and medium-dose ICS alone at step 3.",
"To investigate the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator as a measure of the quality of asthma prescribing by general practitioners. Ecological cross sectional study linking general practitioner asthma prescribing with hospital admission data and a measure of deprivation. 11 family health services authorities in the West Midlands region and 99 general practices in North Staffordshire. Hospital admission rates for asthma; the ratio of inhaled corticosteroid to bronchodilator; and Townsend deprivation scores. No overall significant correlation was found between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios for family health services authorities (Spearman's rs = -0.109, P = 0.750) or general practices (rs = -0.084, P = 0.407). In deprived family health services authority areas and general practices an inverse non-significant correlation existed between admission rates for asthma and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = -0.300, P = 0.624; rs = -0.218, P = 0.136). In contrast, in more affluent areas and general practices a positive non-significant correlation existed between admission rates and corticosteroid:bronchodilator ratios (rs = 0.371, P = 0.468; rs = 0.038, P = 0.792).",
"no. Corticosteroid use did not decrease SqCC in patients with asthma or COPD. Recent dose increase in corticosteroids was associated with SqCC.",
"A number of studies have shown that both mortality and hospital admissions due to severe asthma have decreased in recent years in many parts of the world. However, the situation is Spain has not yet been analyzed. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of very severe, near-fatal asthma in recent years in various Spanish hospitals. A retrospective review of hospital records from 6 hospitals in 5 Spanish autonomous communities was conducted for the period 1997 to 2004 to determine the annual number of patients who required orotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation due to an asthma attack. Of the 130 patients included in the study, 81 (62%) were women and 61 (47%) were aged between 51 and 75 years. The number of cases observed for the periods 2001-2002 and 2003-2004 (32 and 18, respectively) was significantly lower than that observed for the 1997-1998 and 1999-2000 periods (40 in both cases; P=.019). A significant increase in the incidence was observed in autumn and winter (n=81 [62%]; P=.018). Seventeen patients (13%) died and 8 (6%) developed serious sequelae.",
"yes. Rapid withdrawal of inhaled corticosteroids results in an exacerbation of asthma that is preceded by an increase in sputum neutrophils and IL-8 concentrations, in contrast to an increase in eosinophils reported in previous studies in which inhaled steroids are slowly tapered.",
"To report on recent studies on the effect of inhaled corticosteroids on pulmonary function in young children with asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are considered the most effective treatment for persistent asthma in children. Appropriate control of childhood asthma may prevent more serious disease or irreversible obstruction in later years. While some authors have described an improvement with the use of inhaled corticosteroids in young children, others found no clinical or functional benefit. Various studies have shown that inhaled corticosteroids ameliorate clinical outcomes, and recently a study demonstrated improvement in pulmonary function in young children with asthma. The use of different study designs may explain the lack of consistent results and disagreement regarding the efficacy of inhaled corticosteroids in these patients.",
"The administration of inhaled corticosteroids and worldwide usage of several asthma guidelines have improved asthma mortality. Elderly patients with asthma show high mortality rates, and may have several comorbidities, including overlap with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Among patients showing asthma overlapped with COPD (asthma-COPD overlap syndrome; ACOS), mortality is worse than for asthma alone. Therefore, we investigated comorbidities, malignancies, and causes of death in patients with asthma and ACOS. This was a retrospective study. From January 2000 to March 2012, 650 patients were followed up at Tottori University Hospital. Medical records were reviewed to collect data regarding patient characteristics and comorbidities, and causes of death were recorded for patients who died during the study period. Eighty-seven patients died during the study period. The most frequent cause of death was malignancy. The proportion of malignant disease was 21.7% in all patients, 19.4% in patients with asthma alone, and 32.4% in patients with ACOS. One patient died from an asthma attack during this period.",
"The prevalence of asthma and allergic rhinitis has increased worldwide during the 1970s and 1980s. This study was aimed at evaluating whether the increasing trend in prevalence persisted during the 1990s in the young adult Italian population. In 1998 to 2000 a screening questionnaire was sent by mail to a general population sample aged 20 to 44 years; nonresponders were contacted again first by mail and then by phone, achieving a final response rate of 78.1% (6876 of 8800). Prevalence estimates, adjusted to correct for nonresponse bias, were compared with those recorded in Italy in 1991 to 1993 during the European Community Respiratory Health Survey, when response rate had been slightly higher (87.6%). Temporal variations in symptom prevalence were analyzed by a logistic regression model, controlling for sex, age, site of residence (urban vs suburban areas), season of response, response rate, and type of contact (mail vs phone). The prevalence of asthma attacks did not vary significantly from 1991 to 1993 (3.6%) to 1998 to 2000 (3.2%) (P =.188). The prevalence of asthma-like symptoms (wheezing, chest tightness, shortness of breath) tended to decrease in the age classes of 32.5 to 45 years, while increasing in the youngest age class (20 to 26 years). A clear-cut increase from 15.4% to 18.3% was observed for the prevalence of allergic rhinitis (P<.001), whereas the proportion of people under antiasthmatic treatment increased in suburban areas but not in urban areas (interaction time-site of residence, P<.001).",
"The institution of inhaled corticosteroids is generally advocated for effective treatment of patients with asthma. It is yet unknown what is the best time to start inhaled corticosteroid therapy and especially whether delayed introduction is harmful. PHASE 1: In a previous study in patients with asthma and COPD, we found that 2.5 years of treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus inhaled corticosteroid (BA + CS) was more effective in improving the FEV1 and the provocative concentration of histamine causing a 20% reduction in FEV1 (PC20) than treatment with a beta 2-agonist plus anticholinergic (BA + AC) or placebo (BA + PL). PHASE 2: We extended this study with 6 months to investigate whether delayed introduction of inhaled CS therapy (800 micrograms beclomethasone dipropionate) in the groups previously not treated with inhaled CS (BA +/- AC) could also improve FEV1 and PC20 to the same degree. A distinction was made between patients with predominantly asthma (high baseline reversibility, delta FEV1>or = 9% of predicted), and predominantly COPD (low baseline reversibility, delta FEV1<9% of predicted). Improvement of FEV1 percent predicted by inhaled CS was comparable both in the asthmatics between phase 1 (13.8% predicted) and phase 2 (8.5% predicted; p = 0.31) as well as in the patients with COPD (2.5% and 1.5% predicted, respectively). PC20, however, increased significantly more in the asthmatics in phase 1 (1.77 doubling concentration [DC]) than in phase 2 (0.79 DC; p = 0.03). Improvement of PC20 in the patients with COPD was not significantly higher in phase 1 (0.74 DC) than in phase 2 (0.00 DC; p = 0.19).",
"To test the hypothesis that sustained differences in readmission rate for acute asthma were associated with variations in clinical practice. Data were collected by retrospective review of case notes, using the criteria recommended by the British Thoracic Society. Two city National Health Service (NHS) hospitals that had recorded a sustained difference in readmission rate for acute asthma. A random sample of 50 from each hospital, selected from all 16-44 year old patients discharged in 1992 with acute asthma (ninth revision of the international classification of diseases (ICD-9) 493). Hospital A had a lower readmission rate than hospital B. The sample groups were similar for age, sex, deprivation of area of residence, and severity of episode. Systemic corticosteroids were given early more often (p = 0.02) and oral corticosteroids were prescribed at discharge more often (p = 0.04) in hospital A. When a short course of oral corticosteroids was prescribed the duration stated was longer (p = 0.02) and inhaled corticosteroids were started or the dose increased more often (p = 0.02) in hospital A.",
"To explore one aspect of the external validity of the randomized controlled trial (RCT), specifically how being selected for inclusion in a trial and having participated has influenced the use and cost of asthma-related health services. Services used by asthmatic users of inhaled corticosteroids (iCSTs) having previously participated in an RCT (TS, n = 46) were compared with individuals who had never participated (NS, n = 51). TS were more likely to use higher (>or = 400 microg) daily doses of iCSTs than NS (OR, 3.3; 95% Cl, 1.1-8.3) but less likely to visit emergency departments (OR, 0.3; 95% Cl, 0.1-0.7). Total asthma-related costs did not differ significantly.",
"To check whether treatment of asthma patients at our centre coincides with international criteria (GINA 2002). Transversal, descriptive study. Urban primary care team. Asthma patients over 14 years old. Review of clinical histories (CH) and analysis of the last prescription between November 2002 and May 2003. We reviewed 436 CH, of which 395 made up the study group. 71.4% (SD, 66.9-75.8) were women. Average age was 51.4 (SD, 49.2-53.6). Classification of asthma as function of gravity was: intermittent (IA): 30% (25.7-34.3); light persistent (LPA): 24.8% (20.7-28.8); moderate persistent (MPA): 30.7% (26.4-35.1); serious persistent (SPA): 5.05% (3.19-7.54). Unclassified: 9.4% (6.83-12.5). Correct treatment: IA, 69.5% (61.6-77.4); LPA, 22.2% (14.4-30.1); MPA, 46.2% (7.8-54.7); SPA, 72.7% (49.8-89.3). The most common cause of incorrect treatment in all kinds of asthma was the use of international criteria (IC) at inadequate doses: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 73.8% (63.1-82.8); MPA, 38.9% (27.6-51.1); SPA, 33.3% (4.3-77.7). The scant use of B2CD.AD was noticeable: IA, 47.5% (31.5-63.9); LPA, 85.7% (76.4-92.4); MPA, 86.7% (74.3-92.1); SPA, 66.7% (22.3-95.7). The most commonly used active principles were salbutamol, salmeterol, budesonide, and montelukast. On overall measurement of good treatment, we found that 48.9% (n = 193) of patients had a correct prescription.",
"yes. Increase in urban population was associated with lower odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma in children and young adults living in a transition society.",
"The continuing rise in asthma prevalence has been questioned, with recent reports suggesting a plateau. To assess a 10-year trend in the age-adjusted prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma, respiratory and allergic symptoms, and use of asthma medication in the adult population of Helsinki during the Finnish Asthma Programme from 1994 to 2004. Two cross-sectional postal surveys were conducted among random Finnish National Population Registry samples 10 years apart using the same protocol. A total of 6,062 subjects (75.9%) and 2,449 subjects (61.9%) participated in 1996 and 2006, respectively. The prevalence of physician-diagnosed asthma increased from 6.5% in 1996 to 10.0% in 2006 (p<0.001). This was evident in both genders aged<60 years, but particularly in women aged<40 years, paralleling an increased use of asthma medication. Concurrently, the prevalence of allergic rhinoconjunctivitis increased from 37.2% to 44.4% (p<0.001). The prevalence of physician-diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease remained unchanged (3.7%), while current smoking abated. Subjects with a smoking history had more respiratory symptoms (p<0.001). Among subjects without physician-diagnosed asthma, those reporting allergic rhinoconjunctivitis had a higher prevalence of lower respiratory tract symptoms.",
"Mortality from asthma increased during the last decades but is now declining in some countries. Little is known about this trend in Brazil. The objective of the study was to determine the trends in asthma mortality in Southern Brazil. We reviewed death certificates of 566 people in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil, between 5 and 39 years of age in whom asthma was reported to be the underlying cause of death during the period of 1981-2003. Population data were available in 5-year age groups. Mortality rates were submitted to linear and quadratic regression procedures. Among children and teenagers (5-19 years), there were 170 asthma deaths, ranging from 4 to 13 deaths each year with rates of 0.154/100,000 to 0.481/100,000. In young adults (20-39 years), 396 asthma deaths occurred, ranging from 9 to 32 each year, with rates from 0.276/100,000 to 1.034/100,000. There was an initial increase in rates, with later stabilization, and then the start of a decline beginning in the late 1990s and the early part of this decade. This trend occurred in both age subgroups examined but was more evident in males.",
"yes. These findings suggest that inhaled corticosteroid treatment of asthma reduced airway wall vascularity during airway remodelling.",
"Guidelines recommend regular use of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)-containing medications for all patients with persistent asthma and those with moderate to severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. It is important to identify indicators of inappropriate prescribing. To test the hypothesis that ICS are prescribed for the management of respiratory infections in some patients lacking evidence of chronic airways disease. Medication dispensing data were obtained from the Australian national Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme (PBS) for concessional patients dispensed any respiratory medications during 2008. We identified people dispensed only one ICS-containing medication and no other respiratory medications in a year, who were therefore unlikely to have chronic airways disease, and calculated the proportion who were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. In 2008, 43.6% of the 115,763 patients who were dispensed one-off ICS were co-dispensed oral antibiotics. Co-dispensing was seasonal, with a large peak in winter months. The most commonly co-dispensed ICS among adults were moderate/high doses of combination therapy, while lower doses of ICS alone were co-dispensed among children. In this cohort, one-off ICS co-dispensed with oral antibiotics cost the government $2.7 million in 2008.",
"Asthmatic patients are at higher risk of fracture and bruising due to the systemic side effects of corticosteroid medication. However, the link between asthma and injury leading to these adverse outcomes remains unclear. This study investigated asthma and cause- and type-specific injury at the population level. Using data from the 2001 and 2004 Australian National Health surveys (n = 52,768), the prevalence and risk of experiencing specific causes and types of injury in the past 4 weeks were assessed by logistic and Poisson regression analyses. A history of asthma was associated with a higher prevalence of injury for both adults and children, as well as increased risk of incurring various causes and types of injury, after accounting for the effects of confounding factors.",
"This study revealed that spirometry was used more often when corticosteroids or sympathomimetics were prescribed. The findings suggest that treatment was based on diagnostic test results rather than on recorded diagnoses. The documented ICD-10 codes may not always reflect the real status of the patients. Thus medical care for asthma and COPD in general practice may be better than initially found on the basis of recorded diagnoses, although further improvement of practice patterns in asthma and COPD is still necessary.",
"To describe patterns of hospital readmission for asthma in South Australia from 1989 to 1996, in relation to implementation of the National Asthma Campaign. A comparison of hospital admissions in South Australia of patients aged between one year and 49 years for three conditions: asthma (or respiratory failure with asthma as an underlying condition) and two control conditions--diabetes and epilepsy. Individuals were identified by Medicare number and date of birth. Hospital readmission within 28 days and within one year. Overall, by 1996, there was a statistically significant decline in the risk of readmission for asthma within 28 days of 18% and within one year of 17% compared with 1989 readmission rates. There were no reductions in the risk of readmission for diabetes or epilepsy, suggesting that the decline in risk of readmission for asthma was greater than the underlying effects of general changes in hospital casemix.",
"yes. These findings support a novel mechanism for the ability of inhaled corticosteroids to decrease T cell numbers, possibly by downregulation of the cytokine IL-15.",
"Inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are underutilized among persistent asthmatics. Because of low outpatient follow-up rates after Emergency Department (ED) visits, children are unlikely to be prescribed ICS by their primary care physician after an acute exacerbation. ED physicians have the opportunity to contribute to the delivery of preventive care in the acute care setting. Our objective was to evaluate if quality improvement (QI) methods could improve the rate of ICS initiation at ED discharge. Within the Pediatric ED (PED) at a tertiary children's hospital, QI methods were used to encourage ICS prescribing at the time of ED discharge. Interventions focused on education at both the attending physician and resident level, process improvements designed to streamline prescribing, and directed provider feedback. This involved multiple plan-do-study-act cycles. Medical records of eligible patients were reviewed monthly to determine ICS prescribing rates. The effect of our interventions on prescribing rate was tracked over time using a run chart. Following our interventions, the ICS initiation rate for children seen in and discharged home from the ED with an acute asthma exacerbation increased from a baseline median rate of 11.25% to a median rate of 79% representing a significant, non-random improvement. The ICS initiation rate has been sustained for 8 months over our goal rate of 75%.",
"The goals of asthma treatment include not only control of symptoms, but also prevention of future adverse outcomes such as exacerbations - which can occur even in mild asthma. This study showed that treatment with low dose inhaled corticosteroids led to significant improvements in lung function, exacerbations, and in pathophysiological predictors of future risk, even though symptoms were minimal at entry. For patients with mild asthma, discussion about treatment needs to consider not only short-term benefit, side effects and cost, but also long-term reduction of risk. This study was completed prior to mandatory registration for clinical trials.",
"In the year 1990 the European Community Respiratory Health Survey I (ECRHS I) demonstrated that the prevalence of these diseases was lowest in Iceland (www.ecrhs.org). In order to compare the prevalence of respiratory symptoms in Reykjavik over time, a new identical cross-sectional study was performed seventeen years later. Both cohorts, were in the age group 20-44 years and randomly selected from the population in Reykjavik and suburbs. Both answered questionnaires about respiratory symptoms, nasal allergy and use of anti-asthmatic drugs. The second cohort was part of the EuroPrevall study (www.europrevall.org) performed in 2007. Response rate was lower in 2007 (999 or 43.2%) than in 1990 (2.903 or 80.6%).The prevalence of attacks of asthma increased over time from 2.2% to 6.7% (p<0.0001), use of anti-asthmatic drugs increased from 2.4% to 7.2% (p<0.0001) and nasal allergy symptoms from 17.8% to 29.3% (p< 0.0001). There was an increase of all respiratory symptoms except wheezing or whistling, where the prevalence dropped from 18.0% to 14.4% (p<0.01). In the year 2007 women had more often been woken by attacks of coughing (p<0.0001), had more often attacks of asthma (p<0.05) and were more likely to use anti-asthmatic drugs (p<0.05) than men. Attacks of asthma and the use of anti-asthmatic drugs were more common among the younger age group in the year 2007. That was not seen in the year 1990.",
"Previous cross-sectional studies could establish an association between prevalence of self-reported wheeze and urban-rural environment, but the impact of urbanization on meaningful outcomes of asthma for public health is not established yet. Evaluate the effect of urbanization on asthma burden. A time series study of 5,505 Brazilian municipalities. The unit of analysis was the municipality. Two time frames were evaluated: from 1999 to 2001 and from 2009 to 2011. Trends from the first to the second time frame were evaluated. Governmental databases were the source of information. Multivariate binary logistic regression models were used. In the age range from 5 to 24 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .88). In the age range from 25 to 39 years old, municipalities with increase in the proportion of individuals living in urban area had lower odds to reduce hospital admission rate from asthma (OR: .93) and lower odds to reduce death rate from asthma (OR: .82). Municipalities that increased access to physicians and that supplied inhaled corticosteroids free of charge for asthma since year 2003 had increased odds to reduce hospital admission and death rates from asthma.",
"Asthma and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) lead to persistent airway inflammation and are associated with lung cancer. The objective of the study was to assess the relationship between inhaled (ICS) and oral corticosteroid (OCS) use, and risk of lung squamous cell carcinoma (SqCC). This study was a nested case-control study. Patients with newly diagnosed asthma or COPD between 2003 and 2010 were identified from the National Health Insurance Database. Cases were defined as patients diagnosed with SqCC after enrollment. For each case, four control individuals who were randomly matched for sex and age and date diagnosis of asthma or COPD were selected. From the 1,672,455 eligible participants, 793 patients with SqCC were matched with 3,172 controls. The odds ratios (ORs) of SqCC in men who received high and low-dose ICS were 2.18 (95 %CI, 1.56-3.04) and 1.77 (1.22-2.57), respectively. Similarly, the ORs were 1.46 (95 %CI, 1.16-1.84) and 1.55 (95 %CI, 1.22-1.98) for men who were placed on low and high dose OCS. However, there was no significant association between cumulative ICS and/or OCS and risk of SqCC in women. Recent dose increase in corticosteroid was significantly associated with risk of SqCC. Specifically, among men, the ORs for SqCC were 8.08 (95 %CI, 3.22-20.30) for high-dose ICS + OCS, 4.49 (95 % CI, 2.05-9.85) for high-dose ICS, and 3.54 (95 % CI, 2.50-5.01) for high-dose OCS treatments, respectively. The OR for SqCC in women who received high-dose OCS was 6.72 (95 %CI, 2.69-16.81).",
"To determine the general utility of clinical (Asthma Control Test) and physiologic (forced expiratory volume in the first second of exhalation [FEV(1)]and fractionated exhaled nitric oxide level [FeNO]) parameters for characterizing asthma patients. Two cross-sectional independent studies simultaneously enrolled 100 patients in the US and 109 patients in Spain>or = 18 years of age with a physician-diagnosis of asthma and confirmed by a>or = 12% improvement in FEV(1) after bronchodilators or the presence of airway hyperresponsiveness, a central feature of asthma, as measured by methacholine challenge (PC(20)<10 mg/mL). There was no restriction on asthma severity or treatment. Patients were excluded if they had a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and/or were current cigarette smokers. Statistical analyses were performed to compare ACT, FeNO, and spirometry within and between sites. Population characteristics revealed significant differences in distributions of age, percent-predicted FEV(1) (%FEV(1)), FeNO, inhaled corticosteroid usage, and atopy between the two populations. The Spain site enrolled younger patients with milder asthma, based on higher %FEV(1) values and less frequent treatment with inhaled corticosteroids. At each site, mean FeNO levels decreased as asthma control categories increased, and means were lower in the US. There was a negative correlation between ACT and FeNO that was statistically significant for Spain patients not treated with inhaled corticosteroids.",
"The results support the notion that the increasing prevalence of allergic respiratory disease is caused by a cohort effect. Thus, changes in lifestyle or environmental factors that occurred around or after 1960 may have contributed to this increase.",
"Based on results of clinical trials, inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) are the most-effective controller medications for preventing asthma-related exacerbations, yet few studies in real-life populations have evaluated the comparative effectiveness of ICS. To determine the likelihood of asthma exacerbations among children with asthma after initiation of controller medications: ICS, leukotriene antagonists (LTRA), and ICS-long-acting β-agonist (LABA) combination therapy. This was a retrospective cohort study of subjects who were part of the Population-Based Effectiveness in Asthma and Lung Diseases Network. We conducted Cox regression analyses by adjusting for baseline covariates, adherence by using proportion of days covered, and high-dimensional propensity scores. The main outcome measurements were emergency department visits, hospitalizations, or oral corticosteroid use. Our population included 15,567 health plan subjects and 10,624 TennCare Medicaid subjects with uncontrolled asthma. Overall adherence to controller medications was low, with no more than 50% of the subjects refilling the medication after the initial fill. For subjects with allergic rhinitis, the subjects in TennCare Medicaid treated with LTRAs were less likely to experience ED visits (hazard ratio 0.44 [95% CI, 0.21-0.93]) compared with the subjects treated with ICS. For all other groups, the subjects treated with LTRA or ICS-LABA were just as likely to experience ED visits or hospitalizations, or need oral corticosteroids as the subjects treated with ICS.",
"During a 15-year period, knowledge transfer by passive diffusion or active guideline dissemination resulted in similar trends of corticosteroid use for the management of pediatric asthma and croup.",
"yes. CHD mortality fell by 20% between 1998 and 2009 in the West Bank. More than two-third of this fall was due to decreases in major risk factors, particularly total cholesterol and blood pressure. Our results clearly indicate that risk factor reductions in the general population compared save substantially more lives to specific treatments for individual patients. This emphasizes the importance of population-wide primary prevention strategies.",
"This study aimed to compare knowledge transfer (KT) in the emergency department (ED) management of pediatric asthma and croup by measuring trends in corticosteroid use for both conditions in EDs. A retrospective, cross-sectional study of the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey data between 1995 and 2009 of corticosteroid use at ED visits for asthma or croup was conducted. Odds ratios (OR) were calculated using logistic regression. Trends over time were compared using an interaction term between disease and year and were adjusted for all other covariates in the model. We included children aged 2 to 18 years with asthma who received albuterol and were triaged emergent/urgent. Children aged between 3 months to 6 years with croup were included. The main outcome measure was the administration of corticosteroids in the ED or as a prescription at the ED visit. The corticosteroid use in asthma visits increased from 44% to 67% and from 32% to 56% for croup. After adjusting for patient and hospital factors, this trend was significant both for asthma (OR, 1.07; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.04-1.10) and croup (OR, 1.07; 95% CI, 1.03-1.12). There was no statistical difference between the 2 trends (P = 0.69). Hospital location in a metropolitan statistical area was associated with increased corticosteroid use in asthma (OR, 1.76; 95% CI, 1.10-2.82). Factors including sex, ethnicity, insurance, or region of the country were not significantly associated with corticosteroid use.",
"This study investigated if long-term therapy with inhaled corticosteroids could be discontinued in mild asthma when patients are in a clinically stable phase of the disease. Data were derived from a 2-year randomized, controlled, bronchodilator intervention study in family practice. The experimental (stop-steroid) group consisted of 19 asthmatic patients who had used inhaled corticosteroids daily during at least the year preceding this study and who stopped using these drugs because of participation in the bronchodilator intervention study. The control (no-steroid) group consisted of 70 patients with asthma who had not used corticosteroids in the year preceding the study. At the start of the study (8 weeks after stopping steroids), the two groups were completely comparable in all other relevant characteristics. During the 2-year study, patients were treated only with a bronchodilator (salbutamol or ipratropium bromide). Outcome measures were: exacerbations, symptoms, annual decline in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), annual change in nonspecific bronchial responsiveness (PC20-histamine), and the need for additional corticosteroid therapy because of symptoms of increased airway obstruction. In the stop-steroid group, 12 of 19 patients (63%) dropped out during the study period because of a deterioration of their clinical condition and need for additional (inhaled) corticosteroid treatment. In the no-steroid group, only eight patients dropped out for this reason (11%). In the stop-steroid group, who did not use steroids for at least 1 year, the annual FEV1 decline was much larger than in the comparison subjects (165 vs 40 ml/yr).",
"The profile of asthma diagnosed in secondary care indicates milder disease with more co-morbidities in 2001 than in 1994.Trends towards assigning a more active role on the part of primary care physicians and more rational use of secondary care resources in the management of asthma were found.",
"To determine whether ipratropium was associated with premature death in patients with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A longitudinal cohort of 827 patients with COPD and 273 with asthma who were evaluated for compensation by two specialists in pulmonary medicine. By June 1999, 538 of the patients with COPD and 77 of those with asthma had died. Atthe consultation, 77% ofthe COPD patients and 8.1% of the asthmatic patients were treated with inhaled ipratropium. Ipratropium was associated with mortality risk ratio (RR) of 2.0 (95% confidence interval: 1.5-2.6) for COPD and 3.6 (1.8-7.1) for asthma patients. After adjustment for confounding factors [forced expiratory volume 1 s (FEV1), smoking habits, asthma medication, and presence of cor pulmonale] the RR for COPD was 1.6 (1.2-2.1) and for asthma 24 (1.2-5.0).",
"yes. Active use of maintenance therapy by inhaled corticosteroids was associated with a decreased need of hospital treatment in young children <24 months old with asthma, mainly because of less readmissions.",
"Hospitalization rates for childhood asthma are three times as high in Boston, Massachusetts, as in Rochester, New York; New Haven, Connecticut, rates are intermediate. We undertook this study to determine how care for children admitted for asthma varies across these communities. We performed a community-wide retrospective chart review. We reviewed a random sample of all asthma hospitalizations, from 1988 to 1990, of children 2 to 12 years old living in these communities (n = 614). Abstracted data included demographics, illness severity, and treatment before admission. Compared with Rochester children, Boston children were less likely to have received maintenance preventive therapy (inhaled corticosteroids or cromolyn [odds ratio (OR), 0.4 (0.2, 0.9)]), acute \"rescue\" therapy (oral corticosteroids [OR, 0.2 (0.1, 0.4)]), or inhaled beta-agonist therapy [OR, 0.5 (0.3, 1.0)]. A larger proportion of admitted asthmatic patients in Boston (34%) were in the least severely ill group-oxygen saturation 95% or above-compared with patients in Rochester (20%).",
"To test whether general practitioners who completed an audit cycle encompassing a data recording exercise, distance learning programme and personalized feedback changed their management of patients with acute asthma attacks. Practice and patient details from two national correspondence surveys of the management of acute asthma attacks in the United Kingdom in 1991-92 and 1992-93 were compared. Main outcome measures were use of nebulised bronchodilators, systemic steroids during an asthma attack, and increased use of prophylactic therapy after attacks. Ninety-one general practitioners completed an audit cycle and reported data on 782 patients with asthma attacks in 1991-92 and 669 in 1992-93. There were no significant changes in practice resources during this time. Management changed in line with recommended guidelines and audit feedback suggestions leading to more use of nebulised bronchodilators [272 (35%) before, 268 (40%) after, Odds Ratio (OR) 0.80, 95% Confidence Intervals (CI) 0.64-0.99], systemic steroids [563 (72%) before, 506 (76%) after, OR 0.83, CI 0.65-1.06], and 'step-up' in preventative therapy [402 (51%) before, 382 (57%) after, OR 0.79, CI 0.64-0.98].",
"Pooled trial data have shown that long-acting beta-agonists increase the risk for asthma hospitalizations and deaths by two to fourfold compared with placebo. Until recently, it was unclear whether concomitant inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) could eliminate this risk. This review summarizes the available data on the safety of long-acting beta-agonist use in asthma, with and without concomitant ICSs. The results from an updated meta-analysis are presented, with data through December 2008. In pooled trial data, catastrophic asthma events (defined as asthma-related intubation or death) were increased fourfold for concomitant treatment with long-acting beta-agonists and ICSs compared with corticosteroids alone (odds ratio 3.7; 95% CI 1.4 - 9.6). It is estimated that the addition of long-acting beta-agonists to ICS therapy is associated with an absolute increase of one catastrophic event per 1500 patient-years.",
"Asthma and COPD are common diseases of the airways which are mainly diagnosed and treated in general practice.AIM: Various studies have reported an increase in the morbidity of asthma and COPD. There are two possible reasons for such an increase. The first is an apparent increase caused by using different criteria in defining asthma/COPD, and by increased awareness of the disease by doctors and patients. The second is a real increase caused by an increase in the prevalence of airway pathology. The aim of this study was to determine the cause of the observed increase in morbidity. In 1977, a sample of 2328 adults from the general population were screened for asthma and COPD. Those screened were then divided into five sub-groups (grades 1-5), according to severity of: (1) respiratory symptoms; and (2) loss in FEV1. The number of patients who were not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening as having asthma or COPD grades 1-5 were also assessed. In 1992, we studied a different sample of 1184 adults of the general population in the same area. We used the same criteria as in 1977 to analyse our results. The number of patients not known to the general practitioner prior to the screening was also studied. The overall prevalence (grades 1-5) of asthma and COPD has increased from +/- 19% in 1977 to +/- 31% in 1992 (range 21-42). The main reason for this is an increase in prevalence of very mild to moderate asthma and COPD (grades 1-3) from 17% in 1977 to 27% in 1992. The prevalence of severe cases (grades 4-5) increased from 2% in 1977 to 4% in 1992. In 1992, around 65% of the patients were not known to the general practitioner as having any grade of asthma or COPD. This was only slightly lower than the 72% in 1977. All patients with a severe disease (grade 5) were known to the general practitioner.",
"yes. This study provides evidence of an increase in respiratory symptoms and use of anti-asthmatic drugs over a period of 17 years from 1990 among young adult Icelanders.",
"Despite the increase in the use of inhaled corticosteroids, half of the persistent asthmatics from the general population are using a medication regimen below their severity level. When the use of drugs follows the GINA guideline recommendations, a good control of asthma is also achievable in the daily management of the disease, particularly in the case of mild and moderate asthmatics.",
"Asthma morbidity and mortality has increased substantially in recent years, but asthma hospitalization rates among many geographic and sociodemographic groups have remained stable. Observations on asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes might provide valuable insight into the functioning of the health care system during this period of health care reform. To analyze changes between 1991 and 1995 in childhood asthma hospitalization rates and severity of acute episodes. All 29 329 hospitalizations, including 2028 for asthma, for the 198 893 children (<19 years of age) in Monroe County (Rochester), New York, were studied during this 5-year period. Severity was determined by hospital record review on a 22% random sample. Using the worst oxygen saturation (SaO(2)) during the first 24 hours of hospitalization as the primary index of severity, episodes were categorized as mild (0 to >/=95), moderate (90 to 94), or severe (<90). Hospitalization rates are expressed as hospitalizations per 1000 child-years. The overall asthma hospitalization rate was 2.04 (95% confidence interval, 1.95-2.13). The overall annual asthma hospitalization rate remained relatively stable from 1991 (1.90) to 1995 (2.31), whereas the hospitalization rates for severe asthma rose 270%-from 0.57 to 1.55-during this period. Simultaneously, the hospitalization rates for mild asthma decreased from 0.26 to 0.12. As a proportion of all asthma hospitalizations between 1991 and 1995, severe episodes increased from 31.5% to 60.4%; conversely, mild episodes decreased from 14.1% to 4.7%.",
"Knowledge of the mortality outcome of asthma is limited to hospital case series follow-up. To provide estimates of the mortality and cause of death in patients with asthma comparison of observed and expected number of deaths in patients with asthma for the observation period 1962-1986 was made. The study group was 262 patients aged 19-81 years with severe asthma. The group was a total sample of patients with a daily treatment of oral steroids more than one year, 1962-1963, from the city of Göteborg. Mortality from all causes was significantly raised among the asthmatics (179 deaths versus 83.5 expected, relative risk (RR) - 2.1, 95% confidence interval (CI) : 1.8-2.5). There was an excess mortality from ischaemic heart disease 58 versus 29.9 deaths (RR = 1.9, 95% CI : 1.4-2.4), especially among women (RR = 2.4, 95% CI : 1.7-2.2). However, there was also an increased mortality from asthma (39 versus 0.4 deaths) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (11 versus 0.5 deaths).",
"Inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended in the management of patients with asthma-chronic obstructive pulmonary disease overlap syndrome (ACOS), but its effectiveness has not been clearly proved. To evaluate whether ICS has effects on outcomes of ACOS. In this observational 12-year retrospective cohort study involving 125 patients with ACOS from Seoul National University Hospital, the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second, the incidence rate of severe exacerbation, and overall mortality in an ICS-treated group were compared with those in a non-ICS-treated group. Of 125 patients with ACOS, 90 and 35 were categorized to the ICS and non-ICS treatment groups, respectively. There were no significant differences between the 2 groups in the annual rate of decrease in forced expiration volume in 1 second (9.61 mL/year in ICS treatment group vs 15.68 mL/year in non-ICS treatment group, P = .598). Compared with the non-ICS treatment group, the ICS treatment group did not show a decrease in the risk of severe exacerbation (adjusted incidence rate ratio 1.24, 95% confidence interval 0.44-3.46). Time to death also did not differ between the 2 groups. Even when analyses with propensity score matching were performed, the results were similar.",
"The increase in prevalence of obesity is a possible risk factor for asthma in developed countries. As the people of Cuba experienced an acute population-based decrease in weight in the 1990s, we tested the hypothesis that national weight loss and subsequent weight gain was associated a reciprocal changes in asthma mortality. Data were obtained on mortality rates from asthma and COPD in Cuba from 1964 to 2014, along with data on prevalence of obesity for this period. Joinpoint analysis was used to identify inflexion points in the data. Although the prevalence of obesity from 1990 to 1995 decreased from 14% to 7%, over the same time period the rate of asthma mortality increased from 4.5 deaths per 100,000 population to 5.4 deaths per 100,000 population. In 2010, the obesity prevalence subsequently increased to 15% in 2010, while the asthma mortality rate dropped to 2.3 deaths per 100,000 population. The optimal model for fit of asthma mortality over time gave an increasing linear association from 1964 to 1995 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1993 to 1997), followed by a decrease in asthma mortality rates from 1995 to 1999 (95% confidence interval for inflexion point: 1997 to 2002).",
"Few studies have investigated the long-term association between inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and lung function decline in asthma. To evaluate whether prolonged treatment with ICSs is associated with FEV(1) decline in adults with asthma. An international cohort of 667 subjects with asthma (20-44 years old) was identified in the European Community Respiratory Health Survey (1991-1993) and followed up from 1999 to 2002. Spirometry was performed on both occasions. FEV(1) decline was analyzed according to age, sex, height, body mass index, total IgE, time of ICS use, and smoking, while adjusting for potential confounders. As ICS use increased, the decline in FEV(1) was lower (P trend = .025): on average, decline passed from 34 mL/y in nonusers (half of the sample) to 20 mL/y in subjects treated for 48 months or more (18%). When adjusting for all covariates, there was an interaction (P = .02) between ICS use and total IgE: in subjects with high (>100 kU/L) IgE, ICS use for 4 years or more was associated with a lower FEV(1) decline (23 mL/y; 95% CI, 8-38 compared with nonusers). This association was not seen in those with lower IgE.",
"We identified a trend of decreased AMRs in Israel during 1991-1995. The decline in AMRs paralleled the increase in ICS sales, whereas the sales of inhaled beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly. One may speculate that the decrease in AMR may be the result of better anti-inflammatory treatment, as reflected by the increased use of ICSs. The feasibility of reducing AMRs in a country such as Israel, with low AMRs to start with, by improving medical treatment is encouraging.",
"Asthma mortality rates (AMRs) during the last several decades increased in many countries with developed medical services, including Israel. The reasons for this trend were never established. Recent data suggested that this trend is changing. We sought to compare the AMR in Israel during 1991-1995 with that of the previous decade and to investigate a possible correlation between mortality rates and use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) and beta(2)-agonists. Statistical data on the AMR in Israel during 1981-1995 were extracted. Data were analyzed for 5- and 10-year periods (1981-1990) and compared with a 5-year period (1991-1995). Data on ICS and beta(2)-agonist sales were extracted from the marketing companies' official reports. The mean AMR per 100,000 population per year during 1981-1990 in the 5- to 34-year-old group was 0.393 +/- 0.055 and decreased to 0.202 +/- 0. 046 during the 1991-1995 period (P =.03). There was no significant difference between changes in mean AMR in the 35- to 64-year-old or in the 5- to 64-year-old group during the same periods (4.568 vs 4. 063 and 2.480 vs 2.133). The mean ICS unit sales rates (per 100,000 population per year) between 1982-1990 and 1991-1995 were 21.70 and 190.45, respectively (P<.05). The correlation between ICS sales and AMR was -0.631 (P =.016). Sales of beta(2)-agonists did not change significantly during the study period."
] | 192 |
A 10-year national trend study of alcohol consumption, 1984-1995: is the period of declining drinking over? | [
"Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns.",
"Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting."
] | [
"Increasing the price of alcohol is consistently shown to reduce the average level of consumption. However, the evidence for the effect of increasing the price on high-intensity drinking is both limited and equivocal. The aim of this analysis is to estimate the effect of changes in price on patterns of consumption. Self-reported patterns of alcohol consumption and demographic data were obtained from the Australian National Drug Strategy Household Surveys, conducted in 2001, 2004 and 2007. A pooled three-stage least-squares estimator was used to simultaneously model the impact of the price on the frequency (measured in days) of consuming no, low, moderate and high quantities of alcohol. A 1% increase in the price of alcohol was associated with a statistically significant increase of 6.41 days per year on which no alcohol is consumed (P ≤ 0.049), and a statistically significant decrease of 7.30 days on which 1-4 standard drinks are consumed (P ≤ 0.021). There was no statistically significant change for high or moderate-intensity drinking.",
"yes. The results show that the previous positive trends in Danish dietary habits, during the period 1995-2001, have come to a standstill. There is therefore a need for a new and more effective effort to encourage positive changes in food consumption patterns.",
"We observed a yearly trend of decrease in efficacy.",
"The purpose of this three-wave longitudinal study was twofold. First, prevalence data on alcohol characteristics (e.g., drinks per day, heavy episodic drinking [HED]) were provided for a community sample of middle-aged adults. Aggregate (or group) and individual levels of stability of these characteristics across a 10-year interval were a major focus. Second, an actor-partner interdependence model (APIM) was used to test husbands' and wives' mutual influences on each other's alcohol use. Prospective data were collected from the middle-aged parents of a cohort study that originally targeted adolescents. Three measurement occasions occurred at baseline, 5 years later, and an additional 5 years later. Data from 597 men and 847 women were used to derive prevalence data on alcohol use, and 489 intact marital dyads were used to test spouses' interdependence on alcohol use and HED in the APIMs. The majority of men and women reported alcohol use at each measurement occasion, and the average number of drinks per day was highly similar across time, as was the percentage reporting HED. There was substantial stability at the individual level in the amount of alcohol consumed and HED between waves of measurement. Marital partners had significant but modest effects on each other's alcohol use. Wives had a somewhat greater influence on their husbands' drinking than vice versa.",
"We investigated if increased drinking frequency among adults in the second half of life co-occurred with increased usual quantity and increased intoxication frequency. Two-wave panel study. Norway. Norwegian adults (1017 women and 959 men) aged 40-79 years. Drinking frequency, usual quantity and intoxication frequency was measured by self-report in 2002/03 and again in 2007/08. Information about gender, age and level of education was obtained from the public register. Health was collected by self-report. Because of a significant gender × change in drinking frequency interaction effect on change in intoxication frequency (b = 0.02, P = 0.013), women and men were analysed separately. After adjusting for covariates, women who increase their drinking frequency showed a non-significant decrease in usual quantity [low initial usual quantity (LIUQ): β = -0.01, P = 0.879; high initial usual quantity (HIUQ): β = -0.06, P = 0.164]and a non-significant increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.04, P = 0.569; HIUQ: β = 0.09, P = 0.251). Men who increased their drinking frequency showed a small decrease in usual quantity (LIUQ: β = -0.06, P = 0.049; HIUQ: β = -0.05, P = 0.002) and a small increase in intoxication frequency (LIUQ: β = 0.05, P = 0.035; HIUQ: β = 0.13, P = 0.004).",
"Trends in tobacco use reflect an underutilization of preventive measures in general, and health education measures in particular. Financial resources appropriated for health education and information were reduced by 90% during the 1980s.",
"To determine whether low to moderate alcohol intake is protective against cognitive decline in older people. Prospective cohort study. Community-based study in Ireland, the Netherlands, and Scotland. Five thousand eight hundred four people (3,000 women) aged 70 to 82 and randomized to pravastatin or placebo in the Prospective Study of Pravastatin in the Elderly at Risk. Alcohol consumption was determined at study baseline. Serial measures of cognitive function over 3.2 years mean follow-up included Mini-Mental-State-Examination (MMSE), speed of information processing (Stroop and Letter-Digit Coding tests), and immediate and delayed memory (Picture-Word Learning test). Forty-two percent of women and 71% of men were alcohol drinkers. Cognitive performance was better for female drinkers than nondrinkers for all cognitive domains over the 3.2-year follow-up; no significant effects were seen for men (linear mixed model, including adjusting for possible confounders). The rate of cognitive decline was similar for drinkers and nondrinkers for all cognitive domains, except for MMSE, which declined significantly less in female drinkers than nondrinkers (linear mixed model attenuated rate of decline=0.05 MMSE units per annum, P=.001).",
"Although it seems intuitive that alcohol use disorders (AUDs) include excessive alcohol consumption (EAC), this notion is not well established. This study investigates to which degree EAC (defined as >14/21 drinks weekly for women/men and at least three 5+ drinking days per week) and AUD overlap and whether problematic alcohol use groups (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) differ from each other and from nonproblematic alcohol users regarding sociodemographics, mental health problems, functioning, and service utilization. Data were derived from the Netherlands Mental Health Survey and Incidence Study-2, a population-based study including 5,443 current drinkers (aged 18 to 64) interviewed with the Composite International Diagnostic Interview 3.0. Both DSM-IV AUDs and a proxy of DSM-5 AUD are considered. Of the current drinkers, 3.8% reported 12-month EAC. Twelve-month prevalence of DSM-IV and DSM-5 AUD were 5.4 and 4.4%, respectively. Regarding DSM-IV, only 17.7% of subjects with AUD reported EAC and 25.3% of those with EAC had an AUD. Compared with nonproblematic alcohol users, the 3 groups of problematic alcohol use (EAC-only, AUD-only, and EAC + AUD) were more often associated with mental health problems, poorer functioning, and service utilization. There were few differences between EAC-only and AUD-only regarding these correlates. However, EAC + AUD had strongest associations with above-mentioned correlates compared with the other 3 groups. Compared with DSM-IV findings, DSM-5 AUDs had slightly larger overlap with EAC, but correlates were similarly associated with problematic alcohol use groups.",
"It has been argued that as smoking prevalence declines in countries, the smokers that remain include higher proportions of those who are unwilling or unable to quit (a process known as 'hardening'). Smokeless tobacco and e-cigarettes have been promoted as a strategy to deal with such smokers. If hardening is occurring, there would be a positive association between smoking prevalence and quitting, with less quitting at lower prevalence. There would also be a neutral or negative association between prevalence and the number of cigarettes smoked. We examined US state-level associations using the Tobacco Use Supplement (1992/1993-2010/2011) and Eurobarometer surveys for 31 European countries (2006-2009-2012) using regressions of quit attempts, quit ratios, and number of cigarettes smoked on smoking prevalence over time. For each 1% drop in smoking prevalence, quit attempts increase by 0.55%±.07 (p<0.001) in the USA and remain stable in Europe (p=0.53), US quit ratios increase by 1.13%±0.06 (p<0.001), and consumption drops by 0.32 cig/day±0.02 (p<0.001) in the USA and 0.22 cig/day±0.05 (p<0.001) in Europe. These associations remain stable over time (p>0.24), with significantly lower consumption at any given prevalence level as time passed in the USA (-0.15 (cig/day)/year±0.06, p<0.05).",
"Alcohol consumption is influenced by genetic factors. Previous studies have examined the heritability of alcohol consumption, or related phenotypes, from adolescence into adulthood, frequently finding that total heritability changes over time. However, it remains unclear whether the same genes underlie liability to alcohol consumption across development versus whether novel risk genes become important over time. Method A population-based study of adult male twins (n=1790) born in Virginia, USA, retrospectively reported on their average monthly alcohol consumption from early adolescence through adulthood. We used twin modeling methods to explore genetic and environmental influences on alcohol consumption over time. One latent genetic factor accounted for the majority of the heritability in alcohol consumption during mid- to late adolescence, but its influence declined thereafter; from young adulthood forward, heritability was largely attributable to a second genetic factor. The total heritability of alcohol consumption increased from 0 at ages 12-14 years to 0.40 by ages 18-21 years. Shared environmental factors declined in influence over time.",
"The 10-year pattern of emergency department presentations for alcohol-related injuries increased significantly in the Mount Isa region compared with the control region. Further research should investigate the impacts of population flow related to Indigenous community alcohol management plans.",
"Socioeconomic differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, as based on register data, are larger than socioeconomic differences in various types of harmful drinking, as based on survey data. The aim was to use a follow-up study to examine whether differential drinking patterns between socioeconomic groups explain the observed differences in alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations, or whether similar drinking patterns predict higher mortality among lower socioeconomic groups. The study population included Finns who participated in cross-sectional surveys on drinking habits in 1969, 1976 or 1984 when aged 25-69 (n = 6406). They were followed up for alcohol-related mortality and hospitalisations (n = 180) for 16 years. Drinking patterns were measured by total consumption, frequency of subjective intoxication and of drinking different amounts of alcohol at a time, and by volume of consumption that was drunk in heavy drinking occasions and non-heavy drinking occasions. Compared with non-manual workers, manual workers had a 2.06-fold hazard of alcohol-related death or hospitalisation. Adjustment for drinking patterns explained only a small fraction of the excess hazard among manual workers. Additionally, in each category of total consumption and in each level of the volume drunk in heavy drinking occasions, the risk of alcohol-related death and hospitalisation was higher for manual than for non-manual workers.",
"To quantify the association between including specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes and the prevalence of use. Quasi-experimental. One thousand one hundred forty-one nursing homes in four U.S. states. Residents living in one of the included nursing homes in operation during 1997 (before Beers; n=130,250) and 2000 (after Beers; n=164,889). Inclusion of specific medications deemed potentially inappropriate in the surveyors' interpretive guidelines for nursing homes. Logistic regression models adjusting for clustering effects of residents residing in homes provided estimates of the relationship between the survey process and use of any medications targeted as potentially inappropriate as part of the survey process, as well as those deemed inappropriate but not included. The use of any potentially inappropriate medication decreased from 42.5% in 1997 to 39.8% in 2000. After adjustment for resident characteristics, residents were less likely to receive any potentially inappropriate medication (odds ratio (OR)=0.85, 95% confidence interval (95% CI)=0.84-0.87), those considered high-severity drugs (those with a high likelihood of a clinically significant adverse event) (OR=0.67, 95% CI=0.65-0.69), or Beers' medications not included in the surveyors' guidelines (OR=0.76, 95% CI=0.74-0.79) in 2000 than in 1997 after the changes to the drug regulations and interpretive guidelines.",
"In all, 5054 suicide cases (76% males, 24% females) were examined with respect to the official autopsy reports of the Estonian Bureau of Forensic Medicine (autopsy rates: 95% of males, 88% of females) before (1981-84), during (1986-88) and after (1989-92) the campaign. Cases were divided by gender and BAC level (0.5-1.49, 1.5-2.49 and>2.5 per thousand). During the campaign, annual per capita alcohol consumption in Estonia fell from 10.9 to 6.6 l. Alcohol in blood was found in 47.9% before, 35.1% during and 40.9% after the campaign. During the intervention, BAC-positive, i.e. alcohol-positive, suicides decreased by 39.2% for males and 41.4% for females, with the largest fall occurring at the BAC 2.5 per thousand + level for both sexes. Changes in BAC-negative suicides were modest. When the campaign ended suicide rates started to rise.",
"A majority of individuals that meet criteria for alcohol abuse based on the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fourth Edition (DSM-IV), do so by endorsing the hazardous use criterion. We used a large, nationally representative data set to investigate whether alcohol abuse due to hazardous use is distinct from abuse attributable to other abuse criteria and whether abuse due to hazardous use is a less severe form of alcohol abuse. Two waves of data, collected 3 years apart, from 34,653 individuals who participated in the National Epidemiological Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions were used. Logistic regression was used to compare those with alcohol abuse due to hazardous use and those with alcohol abuse due to other criteria across several sociodemographic and psychiatric correlates at Wave 1 and across alcohol-related outcomes at the 3-year follow-up. Those with a lifetime history of alcohol dependence at Wave 1 were excluded. Abuse due to hazardous use was more commonly noted in older individuals, those not living below the poverty line, and those without nicotine dependence and was more likely to be noted in White participants. Abuse due to hazardous use was also associated with lower rates of problematic drinking, alcohol dependence, and help seeking at 3-year follow-up.",
"yes. Alcoholic beverage consumption in later life is strongly related to early patterns. Heavy consumption is associated with smoking and lower levels of education.",
"Population-based estimates for the prevalence of smokers receiving advice from a health professional to quit smoking and the prevalence of binge drinkers being talked to about alcohol use are lacking for U.S. adults. This information is useful for clinicians and public health professionals. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of U.S. adults. In 1997, 10 states collected data on these health interventions for tobacco and alcohol use. The prevalence of professional advice to quit smoking and about alcohol use was calculated and examined by demographic characteristics. The number of at-risk adults who had a routine checkup in the last year and had not received these interventions was also estimated. By self-report, 70% of smokers were advised to quit, and 23% of binge drinkers were talked to about their alcohol use. Using multivariate logistic regression analyses, we found among smokers that women and older persons were more likely to receive advice; among binge drinkers, health intervention was more likely to occur for men and non-Hispanic blacks. Across the 10 states, approximately 2 million smokers and 2 million binge drinkers with a routine checkup in the past 12 months were not advised to quit smoking or talked to about their alcohol use.",
"This study examines the sex-specific association between alcohol intake and health-related quality of life in middle class community-dwelling older adults. Information on alcohol intake and measures of quality of life were obtained from 1594 participants (n=633 men, n=961 women) aged 50-97 years during a research clinic visit in 1992-1996, and from their responses to a phone interview and mailed questionnaires. Quality of life measures included the Medical Outcome Study Short Form 36 (SF-36), Quality of Well-Being (QWB) Scale, Life Satisfaction Index-Z (LSI-Z), and Satisfaction with Life Survey (SWLS). Depressed mood was assessed using the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI). Men and women were stratified into four groups of reported alcohol intake: non-drinker, occasional drinker (alcohol <3 times/week), light regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week, but <170g/week), and moderate regular drinker (alcohol intake >/=3 times/week and >/=170g/week). Average age of both sexes was 72+/-10 years. Only 11% of the men and 17% of the women were non-drinkers; 54% of men and 40% of women reported drinking alcohol >/=3 times per week; 18% of men and 7.5% of women were heavier regular drinkers. In multivariable regression analyses, increasing frequency of alcohol use was positively associated with better quality of life in men and in women. Associations were not explained by age, physical activity, smoking, depressed mood, or common chronic diseases including diabetes, hypertension and cardiovascular disease.",
"yes. Public health professionals should note that past-year drinking in a significant proportion of women of childbearing age exceeds guidelines for alcohol use. When targeting such prevention efforts, they should thus include assessment of past-year alcohol use patterns.",
"yes. Over a third of 12 year-olds had ever drunk an alcoholic beverage in their lifetime suggesting that the prevention of alcohol use and disorders must begin in late childhood. Initiatives to foment parental monitoring and to prevent, identify, and treat alcohol use problems in non-school attending youth in particular should be a priority for the wellbeing of Mexico City adolescents.",
"This study examined support for models of peer influence, which postulates that young adolescents whose friends use alcohol will also engage in that behavior, and of peer selection, whereby young adolescents seek out friends whose drinking behavior is similar to their own. Data for this study are from 1804 adolescents participating in Project Northland, a school- and community-based alcohol use prevention trial. Using latent variable structural equation modeling, a series of models examined directions of influence between participant alcohol use and friend drug use over three points in Grades 7, 8, and 9. Findings indicated that higher levels of friends' drug use led to increased participant alcohol use. The reverse-order relationship (i.e., greater participant involvement in alcohol leading to more drug use among friends) was not supported by these data. Finally, best-fitting models supported the notion that both participants' alcohol use and the alcohol and other drug use of friends were highly stable over time.",
"This study provides support for the utility of the public health perspective on alcohol in explaining changes in consumption and alcohol-related harm in a historical context. We discuss our findings from tsarist Russia in the light of experiences from more recent alcohol policy changes in Russia.",
"The present study examined familial risk and protective factors as moderators of parents allowing their adolescent children to drink at home on longitudinal alcohol involvement trajectories. A total of 772 community adolescents and their parents provided data beginning in 1989 and at four subsequent time points over 15 years; Black adolescents were intentionally oversampled (50% at baseline). Outcomes related to allowing adolescents to drink at home depended on family structure: Adolescents from intact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the lowest levels of alcohol use and problems over time, whereas those from nonintact families who were allowed to drink at home showed the highest levels of involvement. These results controlled for family history of alcohol problems, consistent parenting styles, and demographic characteristics.",
"Among job-seekers with high levels of alcohol consumption, an intervention tailored to motivational 'stage of change' was more effective than a non-stage tailored intervention for reducing alcohol use 15 months after baseline assessment in participants with low initial motivation to change.",
"yes. A 5-year prospective evaluation of attributes associated with suicide attempts among alcohol-dependent persons identified factors that contributed to a small but significant proportion of the variance for future suicidal behavior.",
"Data support a critical developmental period for positive alcohol expectancies, with the greatest change observed between third and fourth grade and between fourth and fifth grade, and only in those expectancies clearly describing positive outcomes (e.g., Relaxation/Tension Reduction) via positive or negative reinforcement versus those with either combined or ambiguous outcomes (e.g., Social Behavior Enhancement or Impediment).",
"In this study, we have observed a general acceptance that alcohol could provide positive reinforcement, especially among those who have had a prior experience of intake of alcohol. Thus, this study throws light on whether there is likelihood of youngsters falling into addiction in the later part of their life; hence it can act as a useful predictor for parents, health professionals, social counselors and the society as a whole so that they can take preventive measures against alcohol addiction.",
"yes. Subjective perceptions in young adult social drinkers depend on the slope of the BrAC when examined in association with RDH. These results support the differentiator model hypothesis concerning the ascending slope and suggest that moderate alcohol consumers could be at risk for increased alcohol consumption because they feel more intoxicated and high on the ascending slope. Subjects did not feel less sedated on the descending slope, contrary to the differentiator model but replicating several previous studies.",
"This study provides evidence that screening and very brief (5- to 10-minute) advice and counseling delivered by a physician or nurse practitioner as part of routine primary care significantly reduces alcohol consumption by high-risk drinkers.",
"This study used a person-centered approach to test whether drinking motive typologies could be identified. Longitudinal study of college students within the intensive multivariate prospective alcohol college-transitions (IMPACTS) data set. University campus in the United States. University students (baseline n reporting alcohol motives = 2158; baseline age = 18.60 years old). The drinking motives questionnaire-revised (DMQ-R). Using Steinley&Brusco's cluster analysis approach [based on the theoretical ratio expected between the within sum of squares and the total sum of squares when the data are divided into two clusters when no cluster structure is present; the cut-off for the ratio is 0.25 for uniform (multivariate uniform) distributions and 0.36 for normal (multivariate normal) distributions], we examined whether there was evidence for distinct clusters of individuals that differed on their overall level of motives to drink. We tested the fit of a one-group (cluster) solution compared to multi-cluster solutions. Both cross-sectionally and prospectively, the data could not be partitioned into two or more clusters [regardless of whether the cut-off assuming a multivariate uniform distribution (i.e. 0.25) or the more liberal multivariate normal distribution (i.e., 0.36) was used]. These findings showed that enhancement and coping drinkers do not form two distinct groups but, rather, these motives exist on a continuum such that individuals who are high in one internal motive tend to be high in the other motive.",
"Negative outcomes of alcoholism are progressively more severe as the duration of problem of alcohol use increases. Additionally, alcoholics demonstrate tendencies to neglect negative consequences associated with drinking and/or to choose to drink in the immediate presence of warning factors against drinking. The recently derived crossed high-alcohol-preferring (cHAP) mice, which volitionally drink to heavier intoxication (as assessed by blood ethanol [EtOH] concentration) than other alcohol-preferring populations, as well as spontaneously escalating their intake, may be a candidate to explore mechanisms underlying long-term excessive drinking. Here, we hypothesized that an extended drinking history would reduce the ability of 2 manipulations (forced abstinence [FA] and conditioned taste aversion [CTA]) to attenuate drinking. Experiment 1 examined differences between groups drinking for either 14 or 35 days, half of each subjected to 7 days of FA and half not, to characterize the potential changes in postabstinence drinking resulting from an extended drinking history. Experiment 2 used a CTA procedure to assess stimulus specificity of the ability of an aversive flavorant to decrease alcohol consumption. Experiment 3 used this taste aversion procedure to assess differences among groups drinking for 1, 14, or 35 days in their propensity to overcome this aversion when the flavorant was mixed with either EtOH or water. Experiment 1 demonstrated that although FA decreased alcohol consumption in mice with a 14-day drinking history, it failed to do so in mice drinking alcohol for 35 days. Experiment 2 showed that the addition of a flavorant only suppressed alcohol drinking if an aversion to the flavorant was previously established. Experiment 3 demonstrated that an extended drinking history expedited extinction of suppressed alcohol intake caused by a conditioned aversive flavor.",
"To review the findings of a paper that has often been cited as evidence-with potentially adverse public health consequences-that the demand for alcohol in Indigenous Australian communities is not responsive to price and that, in the face of increasing alcohol prices, expenditure is diverted from basic sustenance to the purchase of alcohol. The raw data on income and various items of expenditure from the original study were entered in a database, a trend variable was created, and trends in measures of interest were tested using appropriate cross-correlations. Re-analysis of the data did not support the findings of the original study.",
"This study assessed which demographic groups were most likely to consume alcohol excessively, and which groups had received inquiries and discussion about alcohol use from their physicians compared with discussions about other health risks. This was a cross-sectional study using data from the Centers for Disease Control Behavioral Risk Factors Surveillance System 1997 data set that represents a stratified random sample in the United States. We selected 23,349 adults who reported a routine physical examination within the last 3 years. The main variables involved responses to questions about alcohol intake and whether the respondent's physician had initiated discussions about drinking. Physicians spoke to patients about alcohol use much less frequently than about other health-related behaviors. Discussions were roughly targeted to groups with the largest intake. However, physicians were least likely to speak with white patients, women, and widows who drank significantly.",
"In a community sample, the rate of past year DSM-IV alcohol dependence was lower among male 2t-AUDPs than females, though both groups showed past year rates substantially lower than lifetime rates. However, less than half of ECA 2t-AUDPs exhibited low-risk or abstinent alcohol use behaviors, indicating that while remission from diagnosis is common, clinical relevance persists.",
"Many studies have found that earlier drinking initiation predicts higher risk of later alcohol and substance use problems, but the causal relationship between age of initiation and later risk of substance use disorder remains unknown. We use a \"natural experiment\" study design to compare the 12-month prevalence of Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, Fourth Edition, alcohol and substance use disorders among adult subjects exposed to different minimum legal drinking age laws minimum legal drinking age in the 1970s and 1980s. The sample pools 33,869 respondents born in the United States 1948 to 1970, drawn from 2 nationally representative cross-sectional surveys: the 1991 National Longitudinal Alcohol Epidemiological Survey (NLAES) and the 2001 National Epidemiological Study of Alcohol and Related Conditions. Analyses control for state and birth year fixed effects, age at assessment, alcohol taxes, and other demographic and social background factors. Adults who had been legally allowed to purchase alcohol before age 21 were more likely to meet criteria for an alcohol use disorder [odds ratio (OR) 1.31, 95% confidence intervals (95% CI) 1.15 to 1.46, p < 0.0001] or another drug use disorder (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.19 to 2.44, p = 0.003) within the past-year, even among subjects in their 40s and 50s. There were no significant differences in effect estimates by respondent gender, black or Hispanic ethnicity, age, birth cohort, or self-reported age of initiation of regular drinking; furthermore, the effect estimates were little changed by inclusion of age of initiation as a potential mediating variable in the multiple regression models.",
"In contrast to proposals that physical activity (PA) can be a substitute for alcohol use, people who engage in greater overall PA generally consume more alcohol on average than less-active peers. Acknowledging that both PA and alcohol use vary considerably from day-to-day, this study evaluated whether established associations reflect daily behavioral coupling within-person, are an artifact of procedures that aggregate behavior over time, or both. A life span sample of 150 adults (aged 19-89 years) completed three 21-day measurement bursts of a daily diary study. At the end of each day, they reported on their PA and alcohol consumption. Data were analyzed in a negative binomial multilevel regression. As expected, both behaviors exhibited limited between-person variation. After controlling for age, gender, and seasonal and social calendar influences, daily deviations in PA were significantly associated with daily total alcohol use. Once the within-person process linking PA and alcohol use was controlled, usual PA and total alcohol use were not associated.",
"Future studies may benefit from investigating the factors suspected to be driving the weak relationships between these measures, including the actual time over which the reported alcohol was consumed and pattern of drinking over the consumption period.",
"Investigation on an individual level showed that alcohol consumption was a common precursor to suicide and that rigorous alcohol restrictions were accompanied particularly by a decrease in BAC-positive suicide mortality among both sexes. However, the 'natural experiment' does not, in terms of study design, demonstrate convincingly that the fall in the suicide rate was due specifically to the decrease in alcohol use as such.",
"Among those who drank alcohol, there was no evidence that any pattern of current alcohol consumption was associated with poor self-rated health, even after adjustment for a wide range of variables. The results associated with the stopped drinking profile indicate improvement in self-rated health can be associated with changes in drinking behaviour. Although several limitations of the study are noted, policy makers may wish to consider how these findings should be translated into drinking guidelines for older adults.",
"Polarized drinking habits are a likely explanation for the recent divergence between per capita alcohol consumption, which has decreased, and alcohol-related hospitalizations, which have increased sharply among Swedish youth in recent years. We suggest that ongoing social changes could be affecting young people in the form of greater disparities, which are associated with a higher incidence of social problems generally, including heavy drinking.",
"To explore the utility of using national data from high school students to explain changes in national declines in pregnancy rates. Although declines in teen pregnancy and birthrates in the 1990s have been welcome news to those interested in adolescent health and welfare, the reasons for these declines are not readily apparent. Previous attempts to explain these declines focused on the period before 1995 and did not directly calculate the impact of improved contraceptive use. The national Youth Risk Behavior Survey provided estimates for sexual activity and contraceptive use among teens aged 15-17 years between 1991 and 2001 (n = 31,058). These data were combined with method-specific contraceptive failure rates (CFRs) derived from the 1988 and 1995 National Survey of Family Growth and pregnancy rates from the National Vital Statistics System. We calculated weighted-average CFRs (WACFR) and used the annual rate of change in the WACFR and sexual activity to estimate their relative contributions to the annual change in risk of pregnancy. Weighted least-squares regression in SUDAAN was used to test change over time. Between 1991 and 2001, annual rates of change in sexual behaviors were -1.7% for sexual experience and -1.6% for the WACFR. Improvements in WACFR resulted primarily from a decline in use of withdrawal (from 20% to 13%) and use of no method (from 17% to 13%) and an increase in condom use (40% to 51%). Recent sexual intercourse (i.e., intercourse during the past 3 months among teens who had ever had intercourse) did not change over time. The change in the estimated risk of pregnancy closely approximated the annual decline in the pregnancy rates for blacks and Hispanics but underestimated the actual decline for whites. Overall, 53% of the decline in pregnancy rates can be attributed to decreased sexual experience (95%CI 26% to 79%) and 47% to improved contraceptive use (95%CI 21% to 74%).",
"To determine the nature of the association between alcohol consumption and symptoms of anxiety and depression in women. Prospective cohort study of women (n = 4527) who received antenatal care at a major public hospital (Mater Misericordiae Hospital) in South Brisbane between 1981 and 1984 and who have follow-up data on alcohol use, depressive and anxiety symptoms over a 14-year period. At the 5-year follow-up there was a 'J-shaped' association between alcohol consumption and both symptoms of depression and of anxiety. However, at the baseline assessment and the 14-year follow-up alcohol consumption was linearly and positively associated with depressive symptoms with increasing prevalence of symptoms with greater consumption. At the 5-year follow-up the prevalence of depressive and anxiety symptoms among those who were abstainers at both baseline and 5-year follow-up was similar to that among those who had been previous drinkers and then become abstainers (P = 0.67). Similarly, the prevalence of these symptoms was the same at the 14-year follow-up comparing those who had been abstainers at baseline, 5-year and 14-year follow-up to those who had previously consumed alcohol but were then abstainers.",
"To examine cross-national changes in frequent adolescent cannabis use (40+ times consumed over life-time at age 15) over time and relate these trends to societal wealth, family affluence and gender. Data from three cycles (2002, 2006, 2010) of the Health Behaviour in School-aged Children (HBSC) Study were used for cross-sectional and trend analyses of adolescent cannabis use. Representative surveys in 30 European and North American countries. A total of 160 606 15-year-old students. Respondents' life-time cannabis use, demographics, family affluence (FAS) and frequency of peer contacts were measured individually. Indicators of wealth (gross domestic product per capita, GDP) and perceived availability of cannabis were obtained from national public data bases. The frequency of life-time cannabis use decreased over time among adolescents in Europe and North America, particularly in western European countries and the United States (relative risk (RR) = 0.86: confidence interval (CI) 0.79-0.93). This trend was not observed consistently in rapidly developing countries in eastern, central and southern Europe. Over time (2002-10), cannabis use became: (i) less characteristic of high GDP countries in contrast to lower GDP countries (RR = 0.74: CI 0.57-0.95); (ii) less characteristic of youth from high FAS families in contrast to youth from low FAS families (RR = 0.83: CI 0.72-0.96); and (iii) characterized by an increasing gender gap, i.e. consumption was higher among males (RR 1.26: CI 1.04-1.53). Perceived availability of cannabis and peer contacts remained strong predictors of frequent cannabis use.",
"To determine if allowing wine sales in corner grocery stores, beginning in 1978 for domestic Quebec wines and then in 1983 for imported wines, in addition to sales in government monopoly stores, led to an increase in alcohol consumption. Aggregate retail sales data for the period 1953 to 1990 were analyzed using econometric regression techniques. Time series (unit root) analysis and structural modeling were used to take into account the effect of price, income and other social, economic and demographic factors in order to determine the effect of factors underlying consumption behavior in both the long and short term. In the post-intervention period, wine consumption continued along the rising trend established in the pre-intervention period, with an apparent shift in favor of domestic wine consumption. The increase in wine consumption was highest in the period immediately following privatization, but the increase eventually dampened down within a few years. There was no fundamental change in the responsiveness of wine consumption to price.",
"To compare recent trends in smoking initiation by adolescents with trends in inflation-adjusted cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures. We examined smoking initiation trends in demographic subgroups of adolescents aged 14-17 years during the decade 1979-1989. Data on cigarette pricing and tobacco marketing expenditures were adjusted for inflation and plotted over this same period. Large population surveys, United States. 140,975 ever-smokers aged 17-38 when surveyed in 1992 or 1993, who reported on age of smoking initiation during the decade 1979-1989. Initiation rate was calculated as the number in an age group who reported starting to smoke regularly in a year, divided by the number of never-smokers at the start of the year. Trends were evaluated by linear and quadratic models. From 1979 to 1984, adolescent initiation rates decreased, but increased thereafter, particularly among males, whites, and those who, as adults, reported never having graduated from high school. Cigarette price increased throughout the decade as did tobacco marketing expenditures, especially for coupons, value-added items, and promotional allowances.",
"Observational retrospective study of the database of the Office for National Statistics, alcohol consumption data reported by the General Household Survey, and other published data. England, 1993-9. Deaths for each million of the population from alcohol related illness increased by 59% in men and 40% in women over the years 1993 to 1999. One subgroup of alcohol related deaths, ICD 571.3 (alcoholic liver damage unspecified), showed a 243% increase in men aged 40 to 49 years over the same period. Figures for younger men, and women in all age groups, showed less pronounced increases. There has been no associated rise in alcohol intake. There has been an increase in the incidence of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection in recent years, and alcohol consumption in HCV positive individuals accelerates the progression to cirrhosis. Circumstantial evidence links the rise in HCV infection to the use of illicit drugs in the 1970s and 1980s, among those currently aged 40 to 59 years.",
"yes. These data suggest that while heavy current alcohol consumption is associated with significant impairment in a number of neurocognitive domains, history of alcohol dependence, even in the absence of heavy current alcohol use, is associated with lasting negative consequences for neurocognitive function.",
"yes. These data suggest that effective environmental prevention efforts at reducing underage drinking may be an important strategy to lower the prevalence of alcohol dependence in this high-risk population.",
"To prove the possibility of shifting distribution of cardiovascular risk factors for a whole population over time and thereby to influence the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, according to the theory stated by Geoffrey Rose in 1985. Examination of standardised data from the German Cardiovascular Prevention Study (GCP), a seven year long, population-based, multicentre intervention trial, concerned with decreasing risk factors for cardiovascular disease. three cross sectional surveys of a population 25 to 69 years old in six study regions, and three nationwide cross sectional surveys in the former West Germany in 1984, 1988 and 1991. The relation between the population mean for systolic and diastolic blood pressure, total serum cholesterol, body mass index, and alcohol intake, and the prevalence of the corresponding disease states, as are systolic (>or =140 and>or =160 mm Hg) and diastolic hypertension (>or =90 and>or =95 mm Hg), hypercholesterolaemia (>or =250 and>or =300 mg/dl), overweight (body mass index>or =30 kg/m2), and heavy drinking (weekly alcohol intake>or =300 g/week). Results are expressed as linear regression equations and Pearson correlation coefficients. The correlation between the mean population values and prevalence of disease was close for blood pressures and body mass index. The Pearson coefficients, corrected for the influence of values increased above borderlines, were 0.86 and 0.81 respectively for systolic blood pressure, 0.88 and 0.91 for diastolic blood pressure, 0.28 and 0.52 for cholesterol, and 0.86 for the body mass index. The coefficient for alcohol intake was 0.55.",
"Adult alcohol consumption is influenced by peer consumption, but whether peer drinking is associated with first-onset alcohol dependence (AD) in adults after age 30 is unknown. 703 adult participants in the St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area Survey (ECA) with no prior history of AD, but with high risk based on previously reported drinking or family history, were re-interviewed 11 years after the last ECA assessment to detect new cases of AD (age at follow-up: M(S.D.)=42.9 (8.2)). Incident AD during the assessment interval was examined in relation to drinking patterns in the social network and history of alcohol problems in parents. Fifteen percent of the sample had a first-onset of AD; another 19.5% never developed AD but were high-risk drinkers at follow-up. Of those who developed AD, 32.1% were remitted and 67.9% were unremitted (current AD) or unstably remitted (asymptomatic high-risk drinkers). Compared to abstinent or low-risk drinkers who did not develop AD, high-risk drinkers with no AD and unremitted/unstably remitted individuals were 4 times as likely to report moderate drinkers in their networks and remitted individuals were nearly 3 times as likely to report network members in recovery from alcohol problems. Associations of social network drinking with remitted and current AD were similar in strength to those of parental alcohol problems.",
"To analyse how adolescent drunkenness and frequency of drinking were associated with adult drinking patterns and alcohol control policies. Cross-sectional survey data on 13- and 15-year-olds in 37 countries who participated in the Health Behaviour in School-Aged Children (HBSC) Study in 2010 (n = 144 788) were linked to national-level indicators on alcohol control policies and adult drinking patterns. Outcome measures were self-reported weekly drinking and life-time drunkenness (drunk once or more). Data were analysed using multi-level logistic regression models. In the mutually adjusted models, adolescent drunkenness was associated significantly with high adult alcohol consumption [odds ratio (OR) = 3.15 among boys, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 2.13-4.64, OR girls = 2.44, CI = 1.57-3.80] and risky drinking patterns in the adult population (OR boys = 2.02, CI = 1.33-3.05, OR girls = 1.61, CI = 1.18-2.18). The level of abstainers in the adult population was also associated significantly with girls' drunkenness; a 10% increase in the number of abstainers in a country reduced the odds of drunkenness with 21% (OR = 0.79, CI = 0.68-0.90). Weekly drinking was associated significantly with weak restrictions on availability (OR boys = 2.82, CI = 1.74-4.54, OR girls = 2.00, CI = 1.15-3.46) and advertising (OR boys = 1.56, CI = 1.02-2.40, OR girls = 1.79, CI = 1.10-2.94).",
"To examine self-reported alcohol consumption and relationships between consumption, awareness of the 2009 NHMRC guidelines of no more than two standard drinks per day, drinking in excess of the guideline threshold and perceptions of alcohol as a risk factor for cancer. Questions were included in annual, cross-sectional surveys of approximately 2,700 South Australians aged 18 years and over from 2004 to 2012. Consumption data for 2011 and 2012 were merged for the majority of analyses. In 2011 and 2012, 21.6% of adults drank in excess of the guideline threshold (33.0% males; 10.7% females). While 53.5% correctly identified the NHMRC consumption threshold for women, only 20.3% did so for men (39.0% nominated a higher amount). A large minority said they did not know the consumption threshold for women (39.2%) or men (40.4%). In 2012, only 36.6% saw alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Important predictors of excess consumption for men were: higher household income; and not perceiving alcohol as an important risk factor for cancer. Predictors for women were similar but the role of household income was even more prominent.",
"To examine the associations between alcohol control policies in four regulatory domains with alcohol consumption in low- and middle-income countries (LAMICs), controlling for country-level living standards and drinking patterns. Cross-sectional analyses of individual-level alcohol consumption survey data and country-level alcohol policies using multi-level modeling. Data from 15 LAMICs collected in the Gender, Alcohol, and Culture: an International Study (GENACIS) data set. Individuals aged 18-65 years. Alcohol policy data compiled by the World Health Organization; individual-level current drinking status, usual quantity and frequency of drinking, binge drinking frequency and total drinking volume; gross domestic product based on purchasing power parity (GDP-PPP) per capita; detrimental drinking pattern scale; and age and gender as individual-level covariates. Alcohol policies regulating the physical availability of alcohol, particularly those concerning business hours or involving a licensing system for off-premises alcohol retail sales, as well as minimum legal drinking age, were the most consistent predictors of alcohol consumption. Aggregate relative alcohol price levels were associated inversely with all drinking variables (P < 0.05) except drinking volume. Greater restrictions on alcohol advertising, particularly beer advertising, were associated inversely with alcohol consumption (P < 0.05). Policies that set legal blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limits for drivers and random breath testing to enforce BAC limits were not associated significantly with alcohol consumption.",
"Data were collected using the 1995 Minnesota Student Survey. Survey items were designed to correspond to DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for substance abuse and dependence. Public schools, alternative schools and area learning centers. Of the 78,800 students between the ages of 14 and 18 years who completed the survey, 18,803 reported substance use and at least one substance use disorder diagnostic criterion during the previous 12 months and were used for the analyses. The sample was divided randomly into two groups in order to conduct data analyses on one group (n = 9490) and confirm the findings in the other group (n = 9313). Confirmatory factor analyses were conducted to test three competing factor structure models consisting of a single factor model, a two-factor model of distinct dimensions and a two-factor model with interrelated dimensions. The single factor and correlated two-factor models had similar parameter estimates and fit the data better than the competing two-factor model with distinct dimensions. Findings were confirmed in a second sample.",
"Studies on the role of labour market position and change in alcohol use during midlife are scarce and their results are inconclusive mainly due to their failure to define comprehensive and distinct labour market groups and the short periods of time studied. In this study we used different activity categories for men and women to examine alcohol use trajectories in midlife covering a period of 17 years. Using data from four sweeps of the National Child Development Study covering ages 33-50 (N=9960), we used multilevel growth models to study the association between labour market categories and longitudinal changes in weekly units of alcohol consumed. In the reference group of full-time employed men alcohol trajectory decreased over the follow-up period (β=-0.14; 95% CI -0.18 to -0.11) while in the reference group of employed women it increased (β=0.06; 95% CI 0.04 to 0.08). Men and women who were 'mainly sick' had significantly steeper declines in their alcohol consumption trajectory. Women who became employed after being homemakers had the steepest increase in alcohol use (β=0.05; 95% CI 0.01 to 0.09).",
"The official decline in the suicide rate between 1987 and 2000 may have been a partial artifact of misclassification of non-elderly suicides within unintentional poisoning mortality. We recommend in-depth national, regional, and local population-based research investigations of the poisoning-suicide nexus, and endorse calls for widening the scope of the definition of suicide and evaluation of its risk factors.",
"Popular culture (movies, television shows, advertising) often portrays drinking to the point of intoxication as either humorous or associated with enjoyable social activities that enhance quality of life. This study examined the association between binge drinking (consuming five or more alcoholic drinks on one occasion) and health-related quality of life (HRQOL) among U.S. adults. Data are from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System, a continuous random-digit-dial telephone survey of adults aged>/=18 years conducted in all states. This survey included questions about alcohol consumption and HRQOL. In 2001, 52% of U.S. adults were current drinkers (one or more drinks in the past 30 days). Of current drinkers, 11% were frequent binge drinkers (three or more episodes in past month) and 14% were infrequent binge drinkers (one to two episodes in past month). After adjusting for confounding factors, frequent binge drinkers were more likely than non-binge drinkers to experience>/=14 unhealthy days (physical or mental) in the past month (adjusted odds ratio [AOR]=1.39, 95% confidence interval [CI]=1.24-1.56), primarily because they had more mentally unhealthy days than non-binge drinkers (AOR=1.52, 95% CI=1.32-1.75).",
"From 1985 to 1995, drivers younger than 21 years experienced a 50% drop in fatal crashes involving alcohol. This study addresses whether the decrease is explained by young drivers' drinking less or by their separating drinking from driving. Nighttime roadside surveys were conducted in 3 communities to test drivers' breath and administer questionnaires on drinking practices. From 1992 to 1996, 34,898 drivers (21% of whom were younger than 21 years) were interviewed. Although drivers younger than 21 years were more likely to have consumed 6 or more drinks on at least 1 occasion during the previous month, a smaller percentage of younger drivers than of older drivers had blood alcohol concentrations of 0.01 or higher.",
"Married individuals have lower rates of problem drinking, but little is known about this relationship in the context of other factors. This longitudinal analysis examines marital status with other individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics to understand its strength in predicting alcohol consumption over 5 years. A probability sample of dependent (n = 600) and problem (n = 992) drinkers was recruited through consecutive adult intakes from a Northern California county's alcohol and drug treatment programs and through a general population survey. Annual volume of drinks consumed over a 5-year period-measured at baseline, and at 1, 3 and 5 years later-was estimated in four nested models using maximum likelihood estimation via PROC MIXED. In simpler models that examined only marital status, married individuals drank significantly less than those never married (p<.01 for problem drinkers and p<.05 for dependent drinkers); however, when our models added individual predisposing, problem severity and social predisposing characteristics, marital status was no longer significant in predicting a trajectory of decreased drinking. For problem drinkers, the following characteristics were more important than marital status in predicting alcohol consumption over the 5 years: individual predisposing characteristics (age, p<.001; income, p<.001; education, p<.001; and age of initiation of regular alcohol use, p<.001), problem severity (number of alcohol dependence symptoms, p<.001; number of alcohol-related social consequences, p<.001; and higher drug severity, p<.05) and social predisposing characteristics (family member with an alcohol problem, p<.05; the size of heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network, p<.05; and chemical dependency treatment in the prior year, p<.001). For those who were alcohol dependent, income (p<.05), number of alcohol dependence symptoms (p<.001), higher drug severity (p<.05) and a heavy alcohol- and drug-using social network (p<.05 ) were more important than marital status in predicting consumption.",
"Substance use of adolescents was investigated in a region around Amsterdam, the Netherlands, in the period 2005-2009. The study was intended to find out to what extent behaviour related to different substances are interrelated and how trends develop in different subgroups. Two cross-sectional surveys were conducted among Dutch students in the second and fourth year of secondary school, aged 13-16 [n = 1,854 in 2005; n = 2,088 in 2009] by making use of an online questionnaire including questions about alcohol consumption, tobacco use (smoking behaviour) and cannabis use. Two educational levels were included. Decreases in alcohol consumption, tobacco and cannabis use were found between 2005 and 2009. The strongest decline was seen in alcohol consumption. Last month drinking decreased from 61.8% in 2005 to 36.5% in 2009. Last month binge drinking decreased from 38.7% in 2005 to 24.0% in 2009. Reduced alcohol consumption was found among boys and girls, for all ages and in both educational levels. Changes were strongest among 13-year-olds. Weekly or daily smoking declined between 2005 and 2009 among 13-year-olds, girls and students in the lower schooling level. Last month cannabis use decreased among girls and students in the higher schooling level. In both 2005 and 2009 clustering with alcohol consumption was found for the use of other substances.",
"We examined risky drinking and alcohol use patterns associated with prenatal effects of alcohol exposure in women of childbearing age, using various definitions of low-risk drinking. Computer-assisted telephone interview (CATI) methodology was used to gather information in a cross-sectional survey on alcohol use and problems, pregnancy and likelihood of future pregnancy. Participants were respondents in the 2000 National Alcohol Survey (NAS, N10, response rate 58%) which includes men and women from all 50 states of the United States and the District of Columbia. A total of 1504 women aged 18-39 years were included; 72 were pregnant, 511 were currently not pregnant but reported being likely to be pregnant in the next 5 years, and 921 women were neither pregnant nor likely to be in the next 5 years. Various alcohol use patterns in the past 12 months including average volume, amount per session, drinking with food and time spent drinking were assessed. Seven per cent of childbearing age women exceeded guidelines used to classify women as risky drinkers in the past month. Thirty per cent were classified as risky drinkers when these guidelines were extended to past-year drinking. Examination of specific alcohol use patterns revealed that while under 10% of risky drinkers reported past-month heavy episodic drinking, 30% or more reported heavy episodic drinking and exceeding daily limits for alcohol consumption in the past year.",
"To analyze selected indicators of alcohol use (lifetime use, initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age, weekly use, beverage preferences, initiation of drunkenness at ≤13 years of age and lifetime drunkenness) in adolescents in Slovakia from 2006 to 2014. The Health Behaviour in School Aged Children (HBSC) study is a cross-sectional questionnaire study. A standardized uniform questionnaire was used in representative samples of 11-, 13- and 15-year-old adolescents. In Slovakia, the HBSC study was undertaken in 2006 (n = 3972), 2010 (n = 5089) and 2014 (n = 4369). Over the study period, decreases were observed in weekly drinking (from 34.3% to 21.0% in 15-year-old boys and from 22.1% to 11.9% in 15-year-old girls), lifetime drinking and initiation of drinking at ≤13 years of age. In terms of beverage preferences, the reduction in beer consumption was most notable. Approximately one-third of respondents got drunk for the first time at ≤13 years of age, and this remained consistent throughout the study period.",
"The study largely confirmed the expectation that the increase in cannabis use from 1988 to 1996 was paralleled by a decrease in the age of first cannabis use. From 1996 to 2003 age of first cannabis use and prevalence stabilized, possibly occasioned by a change in cannabis policy in the mid-1990s.",
"yes. The trajectory of decreasing of pressure over time is most likely the result of decreases in heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm. Pressure was generally targeted toward higher risk drinkers, such as heavy drinkers and those reporting alcohol-related harm. However, demographic findings suggest that the social context of drinking might also be a determinant of receiving pressure. Additional studies should identify when pressure is associated with decreased drinking and increased help seeking.",
"To identify independent relationships between socio-economic status and drinking patterns and related consequences and to identify socio-economic groups at risk for heavier consumption. Three comparable national telephone surveys were utilized: 1995, 2000 and 2004. The respondents were aged 18-65 years. Contextual information includes that a number of liberalized alcohol policy changes occurred over the time of the surveys. Educational qualification, income and occupation were associated independently with alcohol consumption. There were indications that the different dimensions of drinking (quantity and frequency) had different relationships with socio-economic status (SES). For example, lower SES groups drank heavier quantities while higher SES groups drank more frequently. SES, however, did not play a major role predicting drinking consequences once drinking patterns were controlled for, although there were some exceptions. It was the lower-to-average SES groups that were at greater risk for drinking heavier quantities compared to other SES groups in the population (as they had sustained increases in the quantities they consumed over time where other SES groups did not).",
"The declining trend in alcohol use among adolescents in Slovakia may reflect a progressive change in the social environment and is attributable, at least in part, to policy improvements such as pricing and stricter legislation and enforcement.",
"To study total alcohol consumption and its correlates, with an emphasis on the direction of causality. The associations among total alcohol consumption, abstaining, alcohol dependence (AD) and heavy episodic drinking were compared in 29 Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) countries in 2010. Either total alcohol consumption is determined by the number of abstainers and that of alcohol dependents, or the number of alcohol dependents is determined by total alcohol consumption. The number of non-dependent heavy episodic drinkers does not play a role.",
"yes. The current findings suggest that student alcohol consumption declines over their undergraduate studies; however weekly levels of consumption at Year 3 remain high for a substantial number of students. The persistence of high levels of consumption in a large population of students suggests the need for effective preventative and treatment interventions for all year groups.",
"Beyond the initial relapse episode, little is known about short-term patterns of alcohol and other drug use in treated adolescents. This study characterized treated teens' short-term alcohol and other drug use trajectories over 1-year follow-up. Adolescents (N = 110, ages 12-18, 65% male, 94% white) recruited from addictions treatment, with a current DSM-IV alcohol diagnosis, reported on daily alcohol and other drug use in monthly telephone contacts over 1-year follow-up using the Timeline Follow-Back procedure. Latent class mixture modeling identified trajectories based on maximum number of consecutive abstinent days per month, separately for alcohol and other drugs. Four alcohol trajectories were identified: high abstinence (53%), decreasing abstinence (10%), increasing abstinence (16%) and low abstinence (21%). The alcohol trajectories were distinguished by gender, age, readiness to change substance use and alcohol-related coping. To characterize changes in alcohol abstinence in relation to abstinence from other drugs, four other drug trajectories were identified: high (59%), decreasing (12%), increasing (14%) and low (15%) abstinence. Cross-classification of the alcohol and drug trajectories indicated a moderate level of concordance (kappa = 0.49).",
"to assess the relation between alcohol intake and mortality among seven cohorts of middle-aged and elderly Danes. Prospective population study with baseline assessment of alcohol- and tobacco consumption, educational level and body mass index, and a mean of 11.5 years follow-up of mortality. 16304 men and women aged 50 years or more. number and time of deaths from 1974 to 1995 as ascertained by the national central person register. the effect of alcohol intake on mortality did not differ between middle-aged (50-64 years, mean = 56.6 years) and elderly subjects (>64 years old, mean = 69.9 years). There was a U-shaped risk function in both age groups, which persisted also when adjusting for age, sex, smoking habits, level of education and body mass index. Abstaining women had a relative risk of 1.29 (95% confidence limits 1.17-1.42) as compared with light drinkers (1-6 (drinks per week), while the relative risk for abstaining men was 1.22 (95% confidence limits; 1.08 to 1.37) as compared with light drinkers. Heavy drinking women (>28 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 1.23 (95% confidence limits; 0.85 to 1.78) and heavy drinking men (more than 69 drinks per week) had a relative risk of 2.11 (95% confidence limits 1.66-2.69), both compared with light drinkers.",
"To examine the association of alcohol consumption over 10 years with cognitive performance in different socio-economic groups. Prospective cohort study, the French GAZEL study. France. Employees of France's national electricity and gas company. Alcohol intake was assessed annually, beginning in 1992, using questions on frequency and quantity of alcoholic beverages consumed in a week; used to define mean consumption and trajectory of alcohol intake over 10 years. Cognitive performance among participants aged ≥ 55 years (n = 4073) was assessed in 2002-04 using the Digit Symbol Substitution Test (DSST), a measure of psychomotor speed, attention and reasoning. Occupational position at age 35 and education were used as the markers of socio-economic position. All analyses were stratified by socio-economic position. In the low occupational group, participants consuming a mean of more than 21 drinks per week had 2.1 points lower (95% CI: -3.9, -0.3) DSST score compared to those consuming four to 14 drinks per week. In participants with primary school education, the corresponding difference was 3.6 points (95% CI: -7.1, -0.0). No association between alcohol consumption and cognitive performance was observed in the intermediate and high socio-economic groups, defined using either occupation or education. Analysis of trajectories of alcohol consumption showed that in the low socio-economic groups large increase or decrease in alcohol consumption was associated with lower cognitive scores compared to stable consumption.",
"The purpose of the present study was to assess patterns and correlates of alcohol consumption among African-American women. We used postal questionnaires to collect data in 1995 on alcohol consumption and on demographic, medical, and behavioral factors from 64,500 African-American women aged 21-69 years from across the United States enrolled in the Black Women's Health Study. We used logistic regression analysis to assess the association of consumption with potential correlates. The prevalence of current drinking was highest (37.1%) among women 40-49 years of age, and lowest (23.1%) among women aged 21-29. In every region, heavy drinking (at least 14 drinks a week), reported by about 8% of current drinkers, was associated with current smoking, lower educational attainment, commencement of drinking at younger ages and, particularly, consumption of greater amounts of alcohol in the early years of drinking.",
"To investigate the course of alcoholism in males and females in a 14-year follow-up of persons with DSM-III alcoholism compared to very heavy drinkers and unaffected controls in a community sample. Case-control study based on data from the 1997 Health Services Use and Cost study, a 14-year follow-up survey of 442 individuals who participated in two waves of the 1981-1983 St. Louis Epidemiologic Catchment Area study. Cases met criteria for DSM-III alcohol abuse (AA) or dependence (AD) at both waves of the ECA: \"Two-times Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA 2t-AUDPs).\" Two comparison groups were frequency matched to 2t-AUDPs: (1) ECA Very Heavy Drinkers/One-time Alcohol Use Disorder Positives (ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs) and (2) ECA alcohol-unaffecteds. Lifetime and past year alcohol use disorders, patterns of drinking and recovery among males and females are reported. 84.6% of 2t-AUDPs again met lifetime DSM-III criteria at 14-year follow-up. At follow-up, only 9.3% male 2t-AUDPs and 20.7% female 2t-AUDPs met past year DSM-IV AUD criteria. Past year drinking patterns, however, revealed higher rates of DSM-IV AA or AD, problem or risk drinking among 2t-AUDPs (61.7%) compared to both ECA VHD/1t-AUDPs (41.2%) and ECA alcohol-unaffecteds (22.1%).",
"Between 2005 and 2009 alcohol consumption strongly decreased among high school students. This may be due to the national prevention campaign which in the same period highlighted the importance of not drinking before the age of 16. The decrease in smoking and cannabis use between 2005 and 2009 may be due to clustering with alcohol consumption. A reduction in the use of alcohol in adolescence did not lead to replacement by tobacco or cannabis use.",
"(a) there was a positive relationship between violence and binge drinking among Swedish youth at the aggregated level, but mainly with regards to the shorter study period, (b) changes in per capita alcohol consumption were associated with binge drinking among young men and this was more evident for the shorter study period and (c) there was empirical evidence for the idea that these associations became weaker or non-existent after the year 2000.",
"To identify underlying patterns of cigarette smoking, alcohol use, and marijuana use in young adulthood, and ascertain whether adolescent overweight or obesity status predicts problematic substance use patterns. The study included 15,119 participants from the National Longitudinal Study of Adolescent Health (Add Health) at Wave 1 (11-19 years) and Wave 3 (18-26 years). Latent class analysis was conducted. Participants were classified into a Low Substance Use (35%), Regular Smokers (12%), High-risk Alcohol use (33%), or High Substance Use (20%) class. Overweight/obese adolescents had a greater likelihood of belonging to the Regular Smokers class.",
"If public health research does not progress beyond descriptive research to testing the effectiveness of interventions that can provide causal data, its contribution to evidence-based practice will not be realized. This paper examined the number and percentage of public health research publications over three time periods (1987-1988, 1997-1998, 2005-2006) for three preventive health issues: tobacco use, alcohol use, and inadequate physical activity. A computer-based literature search was conducted, using the Medline and PsycINFO databases. A random sample of 1000 abstracts for each preventive health issue was examined per time period. The abstracts were first categorized as public health or not, and then as data-based or non-data-based public health research. Data-based publications were classified according to research type as measurement-, descriptive/epidemiologic-, or intervention-oriented. Data analysis occurred in 2007. The number of data-based public health research publications examined for each topic ranged between 180 and 346 in 1987-1988, 199 and 322 in 1997-1998, and 302 and 364 in 2005-2006. Despite a significant increase over time in the percentage of intervention publications for tobacco (from 10% in 1987-1988 to 18% in 2005-2006, p=0.008), the majority of publications in all three time periods were descriptive/epidemiologic for all topics (62%-87% in 1987-1988, 64%-85% in 1997-1998, 78%-79% in 2005-2006). There were fewer measurement (3%-7% in 1987-1988, 2%-6% in 1997-1998, 4%-10% in 2005-2006) or intervention publications (9%-31% in 1987-1988, 10%-30% in 1997-1998, 12%-18% in 2005-2006).",
"This study aimed at testing whether drinking volume and episodic heavy drinking (EHD) frequency in Germany are polarizing between consumption levels over time. Polarization is defined as a reduction in alcohol use among the majority of the population, while a subpopulation with a high intake level maintains or increases its drinking or its EHD frequency. The polarization hypothesis was tested across and within socio-economic subgroups. Analyses were based on seven cross-sectional waves of the Epidemiological Survey of Substance Abuse (ESA) conducted between 1995 and 2012 (n = 7833-9084). Overall polarization was estimated based on regression models with time by consumption level interactions; the three-way interaction with socio-economic status (SES) was consecutively introduced to test the stability of effects over socio-economic strata. Interactions were interpreted by graphical inspection. For both alcohol use indicators, declines over time were largest in the highest consumption level. This was found within all SES groups, but was most pronounced at low and least pronounced at medium SES.",
"Among drinkers, increases in 30-day abstinence and declines in HED suggest that recent alarms about women's drinking may have been overstated. The contrast of lower rates of HED but increased reports of intoxication may indicate that women are more alert to alcohol's effects now than in earlier decades.",
"The health and social impact of drinking in excess of internationally recognized weekly (>21 units in men;>14 units in women) and daily (>4 units in men;>3 units in women) recommendations for 'sensible' alcohol intake are largely unknown. A prospective cohort study of 1551 men and women aged around 55 years in 1988 when typical alcohol consumption was recalled using a 7-day grid. An average of 3.4 years later (1990/92), study participants were re-surveyed (n = 1259; 84.7% of the target population) when they responded to nurse-administered enquiries regarding minor psychiatric morbidity, self-perceived health, hypertension, accidents, overweight/obesity and financial difficulties. Study members were followed up for mortality experience over 18 years. In fully adjusted analyses, surpassing guidelines for sensible alcohol intake was associated with an increased risk of hypertension [daily guidelines only: P-value(trend): 0.012], financial problems [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.046]and, to a lesser degree, accidents [weekly guidelines: P-value(difference): 0.065]. There was no association between either indicator of alcohol intake and mortality risk.",
"To describe changes in alcohol and drug use between two independent samples of gay-bisexual men aged 25-29. Comparisons between the 1984 San Francisco Men's Health Survey (SFMHS) and the 1992 San Francisco Young Men's Health Survey (SFYMHS). Heaviest levels of alcohol use decreased between the 1984 and 1992 samples as did most types of drug use, with the exception of an increase in the use of MDA.",
"A striking reduction of alcohol-related problems, such as liver cirrhosis death rates, has been observed in many western countries in recent years. It might be expected that these declines are accompanied by a lagged reduction in per capita alcohol consumption, since many years of intake are required for cirrhosis of the liver to develop (lag theory). The main aim of this study is to verify the validity of the lag theory, taking as target populations those resident in European countries. Changes in liver cirrhosis death rates in 22 European countries between 1970 and 1089 were regressed onto changes in per capita alcohol consumption (1961-89) to evaluate the latency period between trends of these variables. Eastern countries had a latency period between trends in alcohol consumption and in mortality rates of many years, whereas in northern, western and southern Europe cirrhosis mortality rates were explained by their relationship with per capita alcohol consumption, which lagged a few years. In some countries, an immediate contemporary appearance of the two phenomena was observed.",
"To determine effects of late-middle-aged adults' baseline drinking behavior on their subsequent 10-year depressive symptom trajectories. Health and Retirement Study participants (N = 7,939) were assessed on baseline demographic, health, and drinking characteristics, and biennially assessed for the next 10 years on their depressive symptoms. Growth mixture modeling generated four classes of depressive symptom trajectories: Consistently low (72%), consistently elevated (6%), increasing (12%), and decreasing (10%). Baseline abstinence from alcohol, possibly enforced by poorer health and a history of drinking problems, and heavier drinking, \"binge\" drinking, and having a history of drinking problems, raised risk of membership in the \"consistently elevated\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems-and light, moderate, and heavier drinking-protected against membership in the \"increasing\" class. Abstinence by participants without history of drinking problems elevated-and moderate drinking reduced-likelihood of membership in the \"decreasing\" class.",
"The 1990 Health Promotion and Disease Prevention supplement to The National Health Interview Survey was used to develop point-prevalence data about drinking for four age groups, 55-64, 65-74, 75-84, and over 84, and to assess the impact of sociodemographics, health status, and health belief variables on light, moderate, and heavy alcohol consumption. The number of observations in the unweighted sample was 12,819, and the weighted sample contained 51,046,521 observations. The chi 2 and Cohran-Mantel-Haenszel tests were used to investigate prevalence patterns, and odds ratios were generated from logistic regressions. Eighty percent of the sample had had at least 12 drinks during their lifetime, and 46% reported drinking during the survey year. The modal category for the number of days a respondent drank during the survey was 1-4 days, and the modal amount consumed on days that a person drank was 1-3 drinks. Age, gender, race, education, city size, labor force participation, geographic region, health status, having diabetes, and health beliefs about the adverse effects of excessive drinking and being overweight were associated with alcohol consumption, although their effects were different by drinking level.",
"The goal of this study was to examine how well per capita alcohol consumption figures derived from beverage sales data relate to changes over time in survey-based measures of drinking patterns. It was expected that strong associations would be found among these various measures of consumption. Data from 12 household surveys conducted in Ontario between 1977 and 1997 provided information on: percentages of drinkers; daily drinkers; those drinking five or more drinks at a sitting weekly; those reporting two or more alcohol-related harms; and average number of drinks per week. These variables were then correlated with per capita consumption. Significant correlations were found only between per capita consumption and percentage of daily drinkers, and between percentage of drinkers and average number of drinks per week.",
"To test whether survey respondents who report alcohol misuse in the past year are more likely to be abstinent or binge-free in the past 30 days if they have used treatment, than if they have not. Analysis of data from the 2002 US National Survey on Drug Use and Health was obtained. A total of 5730 respondents scored positive for alcohol abuse or dependence in the preceding year. Fewer than 10% had used any treatment for alcohol or drugs in this period, but this was associated with a 10% increase in the past-month abstinence and past-month binge-free drinking compared with respondents who did not access treatment. Such an apparent short-term recovery appeared greater in those whose treatment had been received in a formal treatment setting, a doctor's office, or in self-help groups than in the emergency room or in prison.",
"Women's alcohol consumption in the United States has aroused increased public concern, despite a scarcity of evidence of any major increases in women's drinking. To help resolve this apparent inconsistency, we examined patterns of historical and age-related changes in U.S. women's drinking from 1981 to 2001. In national surveys of women in 1981, 1991, and 2001, we measured the prevalence of 12-month and 30-day drinking, heavy episodic drinking (HED; six or more drinks per day), and subjective intoxication. Using these data, we analyzed time and age trends for six 10-year age groups in each survey, taking into account effects of repeated observations and possible covariates (ethnicity, marital status, and education). Women's 12-month drinking did not change significantly between 1981 and 1991, but it became more prevalent in the total samples between 1991 and 2001. Among 12-month drinkers, however, 30-day abstinence increased from 1981 to 2001 (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30). From 1981 to 2001, HED declined (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-30), but intoxication became more prevalent (particularly among women drinkers ages 21-50). Drinking, HED, and intoxication became consistently less prevalent with increasing age.",
"This paper describes changes in alcohol consumption among Swedish youth over the past decade with the aim of exploring the polarization hypothesis, which asserts that while a majority of young drinkers have reduced their alcohol consumption, a subgroup have increased their drinking substantially, resulting in greater harm. We analysed repeated cross-sectional self-report data from 45,841 15-16-year olds and 40,889 18-19-year-old high-school students living in the Stockholm municipality between 2000 and 2010. The questionnaire assessed alcohol and drug use, and risk factors for alcohol misuse. Changes over time at different levels of consumption are presented by age and gender. We find evidence of a polarization effect in youth drinking, with consumption reducing significantly over the past 10 years among all young people, except the heaviest drinkers, where consumption and binge drinking tended to increase. The dispersion in per capita consumption also increased over time, indicating more heavy drinkers. The total number of risk factors for alcohol misuse decreased among most survey participants from 2000 to 2010, but with variability between years.",
"To estimate the national trend in per capita consumption (PCC) of alcohol for Australians aged 15 years and older for the financial years 1990-91 to 2008-09. With the use of data obtained from Australian Bureau of Statistics' catalogues and World Advertising Research Centre reports, three alternative series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol for the past 20 years (1990-91 to 2008-09) were estimated based on different assumptions about the alcohol content of wine. For the \"old\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have been stable over time. For the \"new\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have increased once in 2004-05 and then to have remained stable to 2008-09. For the \"adjusted\" series, the alcohol content of wine was assumed to have gradually increased over time, beginning in 1998-99. Linear trend analysis was applied to identify significant trends. National trend in annual PCC of alcohol 1990-91 to 2008-09. The new and adjusted series of annual totals of PCC of alcohol showed increasing trends; the old series was stable.",
"yes. Important declines in heavy alcohol use and overall drug use occurred among young gay men between 1984 and 1992. However, levels of substance use still remain high and may constitute a continued threat to the health of gay-bisexual men.",
"To estimate the relationship between per capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking in Sweden during the last 40 years and to estimate the relationship between female and male youth drinking during the 40-year study period. Per capita alcohol consumption was proxied by official sales data, supplemented by data on unrecorded consumption. Youth consumption was measured by a question on heavy episodic drinking (HED) included in an annual school survey of alcohol and drug habits among Swedish 9th -grade students (15-16 years of age). The annual samples comprise approximately 5000 individuals (with roughly equal numbers of boys and girls) with response rates in the range 80-93%. The study spans the period 1972-2012. Autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) time-series analysis was used to estimate the relation between per-capita alcohol consumption and youth drinking. Ocular inspection of the time-series data suggested a stronger synchronization between the two series in the early period, before the mid-1990s, than in the later period, indicating a structural shift in the relation at issue. We therefore conducted period specific time-series analyses with 1995 as the year of division. There was a statistically significant relation between per capita alcohol consumption and HED among youth for 1972-94. A 1% increase in per capita alcohol consumption was associated with an increase in HED of 1.52% (P = 0.008). The estimate for 1995-2012 (0.12) was well below statistical significance (P = 0.580). The estimated elasticity of the association between boys' and girls' HED during 1972-94 was close to unity (0.98, P < 0.001), suggesting proportional changes in boys' and girls' drinking. When controlling for per capita consumption, the association was halved (to 0.55) but still significant in table 3 (P = 0.045).",
"The vast majority of individuals with alcohol problems in the United States and elsewhere do not seek help. One policy response has been to encourage institutions such as criminal justice and social welfare systems to mandate treatment for individuals with alcohol problems (Addiction, 1997;92:1133). However, informal pressures to drink less from family and friends are far more common than institutional pressures mandating treatment (Addiction, 1996;91:643). The prevalence and correlates of these informal pressures have been minimally studied. This analysis used data from 5 Alcohol Research Group National Alcohol Surveys (NAS) collected at approximately 5-year intervals over a 21-year period (1984 to 2005, pooled N = 16,241) to describe the patterns of pressure that drinkers received during the past year from spouse, family, friends, physicians, police, and the workplace. The overall trend of pressure combining all 6 sources across all 5 NAS data sets indicated a decline. Frequent heavy drinking and alcohol-related harms also declined, and both were strong predictors of receiving pressure. Trends among different sources varied. In multivariate regression models, pressure from friends showed an increase. Pressure from spouse and family showed a relatively flat trajectory, with the exception of a spike in pressure from family in 1990.",
"To estimate age-period-cohort models predicting alcohol volume, heavy drinking and beverage-specific alcohol volume in order to evaluate whether the 1976-1985 birth cohorts drink relatively heavily. Data from seven cross-sectional surveys of the USA conducted between 1979 and 2010 were utilized in negative binomial generalized linear models of age, period and cohort effects predicting alcohol measures. General population surveys of the USA. Thirty-six thousand four hundred and thirty-two US adults (aged 18 years or older). Monthly number of alcohol drinks, beer, wine and spirits drinks, and days drinking five or more drinks in the past year derived from beverage-specific graduated frequency questions. Relative to the reference 1956-60 birth cohort, men in the 1976-1980 cohort for were found to consume more alcohol [incidence rate ratio (IRR) = 1.222: confidence interval (CI) 1.07-1.39) and to have more 5+ days (the number of days having five or more drinks) (IRR = 1.365: CI 1.09-1.71) as were men in the 1980-85 cohort for volume (IRR = 1.284: CI 1.10-1.50) and 5+ days (IRR = 1.437: CI 1.09-1.89). For women, those in the 1980-85 cohort were found to have higher alcohol volume (IRR = 1.299: CI 1.07-1.58) and more 5+ days (IRR = 1.547: CI 1.01-2.36). Beverage-specific models found different age patterns of volume by beverage with a flat age pattern for both genders' spirits and women's wine, an increasing age pattern for men's wine and a declining age pattern from those in their early 20s for beer.",
"Skog's collectivity theory of alcohol consumption predicted that changes in alcohol consumption would synchronize across all types of drinkers in a population. The aim of this paper is examine this theory in the Australian context. We examined whether there was a collective change in alcohol use in Australia from 2001 to 2013, estimated alcohol consumption in non-high risk and high risk drinkers, and examined the trends in alcohol treatment episodes. Data from the 2001-2013 National Drug Strategy Household Surveys (N = 127,916) was used to estimate the prevalence and alcohol consumption of abstainers, high risk drinkers and frequent heavy episodic drinkers. Closed treatment episodes recorded in the Alcohol and Other Drug Treatment Services National Minimum Dataset (N = 608,367) from 2001 to 2013 were used to examine the trends of closed alcohol treatment episodes. The prevalence of non-drinkers (abstainers) decreased to the lowest level in 2004 (15.3 %) and rebounded steadily thereafter (20.4 % in 2013; p < .001). Correspondingly, the per capita consumption of high risk drinkers (2 standard drinks or more on average per day) increased from 20.7 L in 2001 to peak in 2010 (21.5 L; p = .020). Non-high risk drinkers' consumption peaked in 2004 (2.9 L) and decreased to 2.8 L in 2013 (p < .05). There were decreases in alcohol treatment episodes across nearly all birth cohorts in recent years.",
"To examine trends in adult alcohol consumption by age, gender and education from 1982 to 2008 and evaluate the effects that a significant reduction in alcohol prices in 2004 had on alcohol consumption in different population subgroups. The study population comprised respondents aged 25-64 (n = 79,100) replying to nationally representative annual postal surveys from 1982 to 2008 (average response rate 72%). The main measurements were the prevalence of respondents who had drunk at least eight (men) or five (women) drinks in the previous week ('moderate to heavy drinkers') and prevalence of those who weekly (men) or monthly (women) drank six or more drinks on a single occasion ('heavy episodic drinkers') (one 'drink' containing 11-13 g ethanol). Logistic models were used to test differences across population subgroups in the changes in drinking. Following the reduction of alcohol prices in 2004, drinking increased among men and women aged 45-64. Among men, both moderate to heavy drinking and heavy episodic drinking increased in the lowest educational group. Among women, moderate to heavy drinking increased mostly in the lowest and intermediate educational groups, while the highest increases for heavy episodic drinking were in the intermediate and highest female educational groups.",
"Alcohol consumption levels, declining since the early 1980s, may reach a minimum by the 21st century. Consumption levels should be monitored carefully over the next few years in the event that long-term alcohol consumption trends may be shifting.",
"These findings are partially consistent with and support Skog's collectivity theory. There has been a turnaround in alcohol consumption after a decade-long uptrend, as evident in the collective decreases in alcohol consumption among nearly all types of drinkers. There was also a turnaround in rate of treatment seeking, which peaked at 2007 and then decreased steadily. The timing of this turnaround differs with level of drinking, with non-high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2004 and high risk drinkers reaching its peak consumption in 2010.",
"Data from the 1984, 1990, and 1995 National Alcohol Surveys were used to investigate whether declines shown previously in drinking and heavy drinking across many demographic subgroups have continued. Three alcohol consumption indicators--current drinking (vs abstaining), weekly drinking, and weekly heavy drinking (5 or more drinks in a day)--were assessed for the total US population and for demographic subgroups. Rates of current drinking, weekly drinking, and frequent heavy drinking, previously reported to have decreased between the 1984 and 1990 surveys, remained unchanged between 1990 and 1995. Separate analyses for each beverage type (beer, wine, and spirits) and most demographic subgroups revealed similar temporal patterns."
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Should cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients receive auricular acupuncture? | [
"Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.",
"These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed."
] | [
"Among the illicit stimulants, cocaine and amphetamines are the most widely abused. Although these drugs have similar psychoactive properties and routes of administration, their duration of action and mechanism of action are different, as are the psychiatric problems that accompany their use. The authors explored whether these differences and results of urine drug testing were associated with differences in use of psychiatric inpatient services. The records of 2,357 patients admitted to a large county psychiatric emergency service were examined to determine whether patients admitted for amphetamine-related or cocaine-related disorders differed in rates of transfer to an inpatient psychiatric ward or in length of stay on the ward after transfer. The authors also examined whether positive or negative results of urine drug screens predicted transfer or length of stay. Patients with amphetamine-related disorders were more than a third more likely than patients with cocaine-related disorders to be transferred to the inpatient ward. Patients with negative urine screens were a third more likely than those with positive screens to be transferred and stayed slightly longer on the ward after transfer. Patients with cocaine-related disorders stayed slightly longer on the ward than patients with amphetamine-related disorders.",
"To investigate the effect of ischemic compression (IC) versus placebo and control on reducing postneedling soreness of 1 latent myofascial trigger point and on improving cervical range of motion (CROM) in asymptomatic subjects. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial with 72-hour follow-up. A university community. Asymptomatic volunteers (N = 90: 40 men and 50 women) aged 18 to 39 years (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: 22 ± 3 years). All subjects received a dry needling application over the upper trapezius muscle. Participants were then randomly divided into 3 groups: a treatment group who received IC over the needled trapezius muscle, a placebo group who received sham IC, and a control group who did not receive any treatment after needling. Visual analog scale (VAS; during needling, at posttreatment and 6, 12, 24, 48, and 72 hours) and CROM (at preneedling, postneedling, and 24 and 72 hours). Subjects in the IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness than the placebo and the control group subjects immediately after treatment (mean ± standard deviation [SD]: IC, 20.1 ± 4.8; placebo, 36.7 ± 4.8; control, 34.8 ± 3.6) and at 48 hours (mean ± SD: IC, 0.6 ± 1; placebo, 4.8 ± 1; control, 3.8 ± 0.7). In addition, subjects in the dry needling+IC group showed significantly lower postneedling soreness duration (P = .026). All subjects significantly improved CROM in contralateral lateroflexion and both homolateral and contralateral rotations, but only the improvements found in the IC group reached the minimal detectable change.",
"We investigated the efficacy of electroacupuncture in reducing the duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after laparoscopic surgery for colorectal cancer. We performed a prospective study of 165 patients undergoing elective laparoscopic surgery for colonic and upper rectal cancer, enrolled from October 2008 to October 2010. Patients were assigned randomly to groups that received electroacupuncture (n = 55) or sham acupuncture (n = 55), once daily from postoperative days 1-4, or no acupuncture (n = 55). The acupoints Zusanli, Sanyinjiao, Hegu, and Zhigou were used. The primary outcome was time to defecation. Secondary outcomes included postoperative analgesic requirement, time to ambulation, and length of hospital stay. Patients who received electroacupuncture had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received no acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 122.1 ± 53.5 h; P < .001) and length of hospital stay (6.5 ± 2.2 vs 8.5 ± 4.8 days; P = .007). Patients who received electroacupuncture also had a shorter time to defecation than patients who received sham acupuncture (85.9 ± 36.1 vs 107.5 ± 46.2 h; P = .007). Electroacupuncture was more effective than no or sham acupuncture in reducing postoperative analgesic requirement and time to ambulation. In multiple linear regression analysis, an absence of complications and electroacupuncture were associated with a shorter duration of postoperative ileus and hospital stay after the surgery.",
"Buprenorphine is an effective treatment for opioid dependence that can be provided in a primary care setting. Offering this treatment may also facilitate the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions. We retrospectively reviewed the medical records of 168 patients who presented to a primary care clinic for treatment of opioid dependence and who received a prescription for sublingual buprenorphine within a month of their initial visit. Of the 168 new patients, 122 (73%) did not report having an established primary care provider at the time of the initial visit. One hundred and twenty-five patients (74%) reported at least one established chronic condition at the initial visit. Of the 215 established diagnoses documented on the initial visit, 146 (68%) were not being actively treated; treatment was initiated for 70 (48%) of these within one year. At least one new chronic medical condition was identified in 47 patients (28%) during the first four months of their care. Treatment was initiated for 39 of the 54 new diagnoses (72%) within the first year.",
"Acupuncture is a form of Eastern medicine that has been practiced for centuries. Despite its long history and worldwide application, the biological mechanisms of acupuncture in relieving pain have been poorly defined. Recent studies in mice, however, demonstrate that acupuncture triggers increases in interstitial adenosine, which reduces the severity of chronic pain through adenosine A1 receptors, suggesting that adenosine-mediated antinociception contributes to the clinical benefits of acupuncture. We asked here whether acupuncture in human subjects is also linked to a local increase in interstitial adenosine concentration. We collected microdialysis samples of interstitial fluid before, during, and after delivering 30 minutes of conventional acupuncture in the Zusanli point in human subjects. The interstitial adenosine concentration increased significantly during acupuncture and remained elevated for 30 minutes after the acupuncture. Acupuncture-mediated adenosine release was not observed if acupuncture was not delivered in the Zusanli point or if the acupuncture needle was inserted, but not rotated. This study strengthens the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by directly providing such evidence in humans.",
"Transdermal formulations of buprenorphine offer controlled delivery of buprenorphine for sustained analgesic efficacy with reduced adverse events (AEs) compared with the other modes of administration. A buprenorphine transdermal system (BTDS) delivering 5, 10, or 20 mcg/hour for seven days is now marketed in the U.S. as Butrans(®) (Lohmann Therapie-System AG, Andernach Germany), a Schedule III single-entity opioid analgesic indicated for the management of moderate and chronic pain in patients requiring continuous around-the-clock analgesia for an extended period. This was a randomized open-label study in healthy subjects to characterize the steady-state buprenorphine pharmacokinetics after the delivery of three consecutive seven-day BTDS applications. Thirty-seven subjects were randomized to receive three consecutive BTDS 10 mcg/hour (BTDS 10) patches applied to the deltoid or upper back for seven days each. Blood samples for buprenorphine concentration measurements were taken. Safety was assessed using recorded AEs, clinical laboratory test results, vital signs, pulse oximetry, physical examinations, and electrocardiograms. Patch adhesion assessments were taken. Analysis of Cmin demonstrated that steady state was reached during the first BTDS 10 application. No significant difference in Cmin was observed across the three applications. Total and peak plasma buprenorphine exposures were similar after each of the seven-day administrations of BTDS.",
"yes. Fentanyl injection of small dose at auricular points achieves definite analgesic effect on procedural pain in dressing changes of burn wounds, superior to subcutaneous injection of fentanyl.",
"yes. Our study suggests that a potential mechanism by which acupuncture has an antihypertensive effect and can significantly halt deteriorating renal function due to cBSA GN might be mediated by inhibiting the Erk1/2 MAPK pathway to reduce renal sympathetic nerve activity (RSNA).",
"As buprenorphine treatment and illicit buprenorphine use increase, many patients seeking buprenorphine treatment will have had prior experience with buprenorphine. Little evidence is available to guide optimal treatment strategies for patients with prior buprenorphine experience. We examined whether prior buprenorphine experience was associated with treatment retention and opioid use. We also explored whether type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed or illicit use) was associated with these treatment outcomes. We analyzed interview and medical record data from a longitudinal cohort study of 87 individuals who initiated office-based buprenorphine treatment. We examined associations between prior buprenorphine experience and 6-month treatment retention using logistic regression models, and prior buprenorphine experience and any self-reported opioid use at 1, 3, and 6 months using nonlinear mixed models. Most (57.4%) participants reported prior buprenorphine experience; of these, 40% used prescribed buprenorphine and 60% illicit buprenorphine only. Compared with buprenorphine-naïve participants, those with prior buprenorphine experience had better treatment retention (adjusted odds ratio [AOR] = 2.65, 95% CI = 1.05-6.70). Similar associations that did not reach significance were found when exploring prescribed and illicit buprenorphine use. There was no difference in opioid use when comparing participants with prior buprenorphine experience with those who were buprenorphine-naive (AOR = 1.33, 95% CI = 0.38-4.65). Although not significant, qualitatively different results were found when exploring opioid use by type of prior buprenorphine use (prescribed buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 2.20, 95% CI = 0.58-8.26; illicit buprenorphine vs buprenorphine-naïve, AOR = 0.47, 95% CI = 0.07-3.46).",
"A pilot study to document changes in symptoms after acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care in patients with incurable cancer. Patients receiving palliative care with estimated survival of at least 3 months were screened with the Edmonton Symptom Assessment System (ESAS). Patients (n=20) with significant symptoms were randomised to receive weekly acupuncture or nurse-led supportive care for 4 weeks. ESAS scores were obtained before and after each treatment, and weekly for 6 weeks after treatment by telephone. 42 of 170 patients screened were eligible. 20 gave consent for recruitment. The compliance rate was 90% for acupuncture and 80% for nurse-led supportive care. Total symptom scores were reduced by an average of 22% after each acupuncture visit and by 14% after each supportive care visit. Compared with baseline, ESAS scores at the end of the follow-up period were reduced by 19% for the acupuncture arm and 26% for nurse-led supportive care.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of acupressure wristbands in the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). Two hundred ASA I-II patients undergoing elective endoscopic urological procedures were included in a randomized, prospective, double blind, placebo-controlled study. Spherical beads of acupressure wristbands were placed at the P6 points in the anterior surface of both forearms in Group I patients (acupressure group, n = 100) whereas, in Group 2 (control group, n = 100) they were placed inappropriately on the posterior surface. The acupressure wristbands were applied 30 min before induction of anesthesia and were removed six hours postoperatively. Anesthesia was induced with thiopental and maintained with nitrous oxide and oxygen, fentanyl, isoflurane and vecuronium. The tracheas were extubated on the operation table after patients received neostigmine and atropine. Post operative nausea and vomiting were evaluated separately as none, mild, moderate or severe at the time of patient's arrival in PACU, then at six hours and twenty-four hours after surgery by a blinded observer. In the acupressure group, 25 patients had PONV compared with 29 patients in the control group (P = NS).",
"We tested the hypothesis that electro-acupuncture at the Zusanli, Yanglingquan, and Kunlun acupuncture points on the legs decreases anesthetic requirement. Fourteen young, healthy volunteers were anesthetized with desflurane on two separate days. Needle electrodes were positioned at the three acupuncture points thought to produce a generalized sedative and analgesic effect. Needles were percutaneously placed on treatment days; on control days, they were insulated and taped near the insertion points. The electrodes were stimulated on the treatment day. Stimulation consisted of 2-Hz and 100-Hz currents alternated at 2-s intervals. When the end-tidal desflurane concentration of 5.5% was stable for 15 min, noxious electrical stimuli were administered via 25-gauge needles on both thighs (70 mA at 100 Hz for 10 s). Desflurane concentration was increased 0.5% when movement occurred and decreased 0.5% when it did not. An investigator, blinded to treatment, determined movement. These up-and-down sequences were continued until volunteers crossed from movement to no movement four times. A logistic regression determined the partial pressure of desflurane that produced a 50% likelihood of movement in response to noxious stimulation and consequently identified the minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalent for desflurane. There was no significant difference in minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration equivalents between the electro-acupuncture (4.6% +/- 0.6%, mean +/- SD) and control (4.6% +/- 0.8%) days (P = 0.8). These data provided an 80% power for detecting a difference of 0.35 volume-percent between the groups.",
"In anesthetized patients, electro-acupuncture (EA) has been found to reduce sevoflurane-induced suppression of cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery without influencing the level of anesthesia. The underlying mechanisms are unclear. In the present study, blood samples were analyzed to evaluate if the increased clinical motor responses to surgery in patients subjected to EA under sevoflurane anesthesia are also reflected in higher plasma levels of catecholamines, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), or cortisol. Blood samples were obtained before anesthetic induction, soon after the study or control procedures had been completed under general anesthesia, and after 30 minutes of surgery under steady-state anesthesia with 1.8% of sevoflurane, in 45 healthy female patients, scheduled for sterilization by laparoscopy, randomized for bilateral 2 Hz-burst EA (study group; n = 22) or control (control group; n = 23) procedures. Plasma levels of adrenaline were found to approach the higher preanesthetic level after 30 minutes of surgery in patients given EA stimulation but to remain low in control patients (P < 0.05)-in agreement with the stronger clinical motor responses to skin incision in the EA group. Plasma levels of noradrenaline, ACTH, and cortisol did not change in or differ between the two groups.",
"To compare the analgesic effect of uni- and bi-lateral electroacupuncture (EA) in response to thermal and mechanical nociceptive stimuli and to investigate the cardiorespiratory, endocrine, and behavioral changes in dogs submitted to EA. Prospective, randomized cross-over experimental study. Eight adult, clinically healthy, cross-breed dogs, weighing 13 +/- 4 kg. Dogs underwent electrostimulation at false acupoints (T-false); bilateral EA at acupoints, stomach 36, gall bladder 34 and spleen 6 (T-EA/bil); unilateral EA at the same points (T-EA/uni) or were untreated (T-control). All animals received acepromazine (0.05 mg kg(-1)) IV; and heart rate, pulse oximetry, indirect arterial blood pressure, respiratory rate, Pe'CO(2), rectal temperature, and plasma cortisol concentration were measured before, during, and after EA. Analgesia was tested using thoracic and abdominal cutaneous thermal and mechanical stimuli, and an interdigital thermal stimulus. Behavior was classified as calm or restless. Analysis of variance for repeated measures followed by Tukey's test was used for analysis of the data. There were no cardiorespiratory differences among the treatments. The cutaneous pain threshold was higher after EA, compared with false points. The latency period was shorter and analgesia was more intense in T-EA/bil than T-EA/uni, when both were compared with T-false and T-control. Six out of eight animals treated with EA were calm during treatment, and 5/8 and 4/8 of the T-false and T-control animals, respectively, were restless. Latency to interdigital thermal stimulation increased in T-EA/bil compared with the others. There was no difference in plasma cortisol concentrations among the treatments.",
"Although a number of studies on traditional eastern or Chinese medicine, such as acupuncture, moxibustion, and herbal drugs, have been reported, few reports describe electroacupuncture (EAC) effects on drug- and alcohol-seeking behaviors in animal models. The purpose of the present study was to investigate the effect of EAC on changes in alcohol-drinking behavior in rats challenged with restriction and immobilization stress. Male Sprague Dawley rats (260-280 g) were tightly hung and immobilized in restriction models for 10 min. These immobilization stresses were performed twice a week for 1 week and for 3 consecutive weeks for the short- and long-restricted stress groups, respectively. EAC was applied for 10 min to the hindlimb point, Tsu-San-Li (ST 36), and the lumbar point, Shen-Shu (BL 23). These points are used to treat mental and psychosomatic disorders and are known clinically to produce a sedation effect. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior was determined at 24 hr after the termination of EAC. Finally, brain dopamine (DA) levels were assayed in the two groups. A sham-control group underwent only restricted stress without EAC. Time-access alcohol-drinking behavior increased significantly in the long-restricted group compared with the short-restricted group and controls. EAC applied to the ST 36 (Tsu-San-Li) point suppressed the increased alcohol-drinking behavior in restricted rats. However, EAC applied to the Shen-Shu (BL 23) point was not effective, because alcohol-drinking behavior was significantly increased in long-restricted rats compared with short-restricted rats. Striatal DA levels of restricted rats with EAC stimulated at Tsu-San-Li were increased significantly compared with the rats with EAC applied to the Shen-Shu point.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the effect of acupuncture to the acupuncture point HT7 (Sinmun) on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization and the neuronal changes in nucleus accumbens and striatum in rats. Male Sprague-Dawley rats were given repeated injections of morphine hydrochloride for 5 days followed by 3 day withdrawal and one challenge injection. The acupuncture treatment was performed for 1 minute once a day for 3 days of withdrawal period and its effect on morphine-induced changes of locomotor activity and Fos expression was examined. The acupuncture stimulation to HT7 significantly suppressed the morphine-induced increases in the locomotor activity and Fos expression in the nucleus accumbens and striatum, as compared to the controls of non-acupoint or the acupoint on other meridian.",
"Contingency management (CM) reduces drug use, but questions remain regarding optimal targets and magnitudes of reinforcement. We evaluated the efficacy of CM reinforcing attendance in patients who initiated treatment with cocaine-negative samples, and of higher magnitude abstinence-based CM in patients who began treatment positive. Initially cocaine-negative patients (n = 333) were randomized to standard care (SC), SC + CM reinforcing submission of negative samples with $250 in prizes ($250Abs), or SC + CM reinforcing attendance ($250Att). Initially cocaine-positive patients (n = 109) were randomized to SC, $250Abs, or higher magnitude CM ($560Abs). For initially cocaine-negative patients, $250Abs and $250Att were equally efficacious to SC in enhancing longest duration of abstinence (LDA); $250Att patients submitted lower proportions of negative samples when missing samples were considered missing, but these patients also attended more study sessions, provided more samples, and submitted a higher proportion of negative samples than SC patients when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. In initially cocaine-positive patients, both CM conditions increased proportions of negative samples relative to SC when missing samples were excluded from analyses, but only $560Abs was efficacious in increasing LDA and proportion of negative samples when expected samples were analyzed, ps < .05. Follow-ups revealed no differences among groups, but LDA was consistently associated with abstinence during follow-up, p < .05.",
"To examine indicators of buprenorphine diversion and injection among injecting drug users in Melbourne, Australia and to determine the factors associated with buprenorphine injection. Melbourne arm of the 2002 Illicit Drug Reporting System (IDRS) cross-sectional study. Five Needle and Syringe Programme sites in Melbourne, Australia. A total of 156 current injecting drug users (IDU). Study eligibility criteria were at least monthly injection during the previous 6 months, and Melbourne residence for at least the preceding 12 months. Structured questionnaire covering demographic characteristics, drug use history, the price, purity and availability of drugs, criminal activity, risk-taking behaviours, health-related issues and general drug use trends. Over one-third (37%) of the study sample reported injecting buprenorphine in their life-time and 33% reported injecting the drug in the last 6 months. Recent buprenorphine injection was associated with the injection of other drug types (i.e. polydrug injectors), opioid substitution treatment, injection-related health problems and involvement in crime. Almost half (47%) of those who reported recent buprenorphine injection reported obtaining the drug illicitly at least once during that time.",
"Although acupuncture is effective for treating several conditions, its site specificity is questionable. To investigate whether acupuncture influences the brainstem auditory evoked potentials (BAEP). 10 healthy volunteers were enrolled according to inclusion criteria. One of four acupuncture points-TE3, GB43 (both auditory system-specific, according to traditional Chinese medicine) and non-specific acupuncture points HT7 and ST44-was needled during each session. Each volunteer received four sessions of acupuncture, with a 1-week interval between the sessions. Peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP were registered before and during each session of acupuncture. Pain intensity and the incidence of paraesthesia (Qi sensation) during acupuncture were also registered. The peak latencies and amplitudes of the BAEP registered during acupuncture had not changed from the baseline levels. Needling of acupoint HT7 was most painful and induced the maximal incidence of Qi sensation.",
"Buprenorphine has shown limited success to date as a bridge to HCV treatment within an HIV clinic. Buprenorphine's stabilization of opioid dependence and HIV disease may permit the use of HCV therapy over time.",
"yes. Mood and substance use comorbidity is prevalent among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment. The findings support the need for clinicians to assess and address these conditions.",
"yes. In CUD participants at risk of early relapse, increased pHp basal activity and pHp-PCC circuit strength may reflect the propensity for heightened reactivity to cocaine cues and persistent cocaine-related ruminations. Mechanisms to mute hyperactivated brain regions and delink dysregulated neural circuits may prove useful to prevent relapse in patients with CUD.",
"Buprenorphine is associated with enhanced human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) treatment outcomes including increased antiretroviral therapy initiation rates, adherence, and CD4 cell counts among HIV-infected opioid-dependent individuals. Buprenorphine facilitates hepatitis C virus (HCV) treatment in opioid-dependent patients with HCV monoinfection. Less is known about buprenorphine's role in HIV/HCV coinfection. We conducted a retrospective chart review to evaluate HCV care for HIV-infected buprenorphine patients in the first 4 years of buprenorphine's integration into a Rhode Island HIV clinic. Sixty-one patients initiated buprenorphine. All had HCV antibody testing; 57 (93%) were antibody-positive. All antibody-positive patients underwent HCV RNA testing; 48 (84%) were RNA-positive. Of these, 15 (31%) were not referred to HCV care. Among chronically infected patients, 3 received HCV treatment after buprenorphine; all had cirrhosis and none achieved viral eradication. At buprenorphine induction, most patients had inadequately controlled HIV infection, with detectable HIV RNA (59%) or CD4 cell count less than or equal to 350/μL (38%).",
"yes. These results suggest that TCI in auricle skin using PC plus CT in BALB/c mice is a simple approach for induction of systemic and mucosal immune responses that are shifted in the Th2 direction.",
"yes. High magnitude abstinence-based reinforcement improved all abstinence outcomes in patients who began treatment while using cocaine. For patients initiating treatment abstinent, both attendance- and abstinence-based CM resulted in improvements on some measures.",
"yes. Guanfacine improves selective cognitive processes which may underlie salient treatment-related regulatory behaviors. Alpha2 agonists may therefore represent important agents for cocaine dependence.",
"yes. Because of the increased risk of stent thrombosis, consideration should be given to a more conservative approach in cocaine abusers who present with acute coronary syndromes.",
"yes. This article presents further evidence of the role of adenosine in acupuncture-mediated antinociception by demonstrating that local adenosine concentrations increase in the acupoint in human subjects receiving traditional acupuncture.",
"Severe burn injury has been demonstrated to delay gastric emptying. The aim of this study was to investigate effects and cellular mechanisms of auricular electroacupuncture (AEA) at the acupoints innervated by the auricular branch of vagus nerve on burn-induced gastric dysmotility in rats. Propranolol (β-adrenoceptor antagonist) was injected intraperitoneally after the rats underwent burn injury. All experiments were performed 6 h following burn/sham burn injury. AEA was performed at bilateral auricular acupoints for 45 min. Electrocardiogram was recorded for 30 min. Plasma hormones were measured; cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 expressions in gastric tissue were measured using western blotting and real-time RT-PCR. (i) Burn injury delayed gastric emptying (p = 0.006) and AEA increased gastric emptying by 49% (p = 0.045). (ii) Burn injury evoked a significant elevation in plasma noradrenaline, which was suppressed by AEA. (iii) Burn injury significantly increased protein and mRNA expressions of COX-2 in gastric fundus and antrum. AEA suppressed burn-induced increase in protein expressions, but not mRNA expressions of COX-2.",
"For most graduates of IOPs, the combination of brief weekly telephone therapeutic contacts and a support group in the first month produced outcomes that are as good as those obtained in more intensive face-to-face continuing care interventions. However, patients with current dependence on both alcohol and cocaine who make little progress towards achieving the central goals of IOP may have better outcomes if they receive twice-weekly group counseling following IOP.",
"yes. BLC stimulation is sufficient to reinstate cocaine-seeking behavior in the rat. These results are congruent with the hypothesis that the basolateral complex of the amygdala is part of a neural system mediating drug-seeking behavior.",
"yes. These results demonstrate that viral transfer of CocH may be useful in promoting long-term resistance to relapse to cocaine addiction.",
"The results showed the beneficial effects of buprenorphine maintenance treatment in improving the QOL of opioid-dependent subjects at nine month follow up. These results point towards the need for an expanded nation-wide provision of buprenorphine maintenance treatment as a harm reduction strategy for the opioid dependent population.",
"Spinal manipulation and acupuncture can be helpful in reducing the symptoms of musculoskeletal (MSK) pain. Both approaches are currently recommended by NICE as treatment options for patients with persistent low back pain. However, there has been no previous evaluation of a GP service using them together for MSK pain. The purpose of this study was to evaluate acceptability and outcomes for an osteopathy and acupuncture service (delivered by complementary therapy practitioners) for patients with MSK problems provided within a General Practice. Patients were asked to complete a questionnaire before and after their course of treatment. Outcome measures included the Bournemouth Questionnaire (measuring MSK problems), EuroQoL-5D (measuring quality of life), medication use, physical activity and general well-being. Non-parametric tests were used to compare pre- and post- treatment variables. Qualitative data, regarding participants' views on the service, were collected from patients via a service survey and healthcare professionals via interviews. Qualitative data were analysed using thematic analysis. 123 adults with MSK problems were referred into the service (79 female and 44 male, mean age 49 years). Complete patient questionnaire data sets (pre- and post- treatment) were available for 102 participants; 91 completed a service survey. All healthcare professionals involved in the service participated in interviews including all seven GPs and the administration manager at the practice, as well as the three acupuncture/osteopathy practitioners. Patient outcomes: comparisons between pre and post-treatment revealed a statistically significant improvement in MSK pain (p<0.0001) and quality of life (p<0.0001), and a statistically significant reduction in medication use (p<0.0001). Qualitative analysis found that patients reported improvements in their MSK pain, mobility, other physical health conditions, well-being and self-management of their MSK problem.Acceptability of the service: overall patients and healthcare professionals were satisfied with the service and its provision within the Practice. Patients reported wanting increased appointment availability and flexibility, and more sessions. Complementary therapy practitioners reported finding the high number of referrals of chronic patients challenging, and wanting increased communication with GPs.",
"yes. The bilateral ablation of NAc by stereotactic neurosurgery was a feasible method for alleviating psychological dependence on opiate drugs and preventing a relapse. Long-term follow-up suggested that surgery can improve the personality and psychopathological profile of opiate addicts with a trend towards normal levels, provided persistent abstinence can be maintained; relapse, on the other hand, may ruin this effect.",
"It was shown that one session of acupuncture treatment results in acute improvements in pressure pain sensitivity in the neck and calf of patients with chronic WAD. Acupuncture had no effect on conditioned pain modulation or temporal summation of pressure pain. Both acupuncture and relaxation appear to be well-tolerated treatments for people with chronic WAD. These findings suggest that acupuncture treatment activates endogenous analgesia in patients with chronic WAD.",
"yes. EA on PC6 is effective in the prevention of PONV, and pre-operative acupuncture is more effective than post-operative acupuncture.",
"yes. A reduced error-related negativity measured during the first week of treatment was associated with more days of cocaine use at 3-month follow-up. Moreover, the error-related negativity was a stronger predictor of recent cocaine use than addiction severity and craving. These results suggest that underactive error-related brain activity might help to identify patients who are at risk of relapse as early as in the first week of detoxification treatment.",
"The treatment of cocaine-related acute coronary syndromes presents unique challenges. Although percutaneous coronary intervention in cocaine abusers appears to be safe in the short term, longer-term outcomes have not been reported. We postulated that cocaine use would be associated with increased risk for stent thrombosis. We report 30-day and 9-month clinical outcomes including stent thrombosis, myocardial infarction, repeat revascularization, and death in 71 cocaine abusers who underwent percutaneous coronary intervention at our institution (66 of whom received a stent) compared with 3216 control patients. Propensity score-matched analysis was performed to control for statistical bias present in nonrandomized study populations. Stent thrombosis occurred in 5 (7.6%) of the 66 stented cocaine abusers during the 9-month follow-up period compared to a 0.6% rate of stent thrombosis in the control database, a highly statistically significant difference (P < .001). In the propensity analysis, stent thrombosis occurred in 4 stented cocaine abusers and 0 of 70 matched controls (6.2% vs 0%; P = .04) throughout the 9-month follow-up period. There was no significant difference in overall rates of myocardial infarction, death, or repeat revascularization at 9 months.",
"Acupuncture has been shown to influence skin perfusion and the subjective cold perception threshold. Therefore, we hypothesized that auricular electroacupuncture (EA) might reduce symptoms in primary Raynaud's phenomenon (PRP). Twenty-six patients with PRP received 6 cycles of auricular EA. After 3, 6 and 24 weeks attack frequency and severity were reevaluated using standardized questionnaires and a visual analogue scale (VAS). Skin temperature was assessed by infrared thermography and laser Doppler perfusion imaging was used to determine skin perfusion. Compared to baseline we found a significant reduction of attack frequency after 3 (p = 0.001) and 6 weeks (p < 0.001) of auricular EA. This improvement sustained following cessation of EA, after 24 weeks (p < 0.001). Furthermore, attack associated pain was reduced after 3 (p = 0.003), 6 (p = 0.003) and 24 weeks (p = 0.001) of treatment, while skin temperature and skin perfusion did not change significantly throughout the study period.",
"yes. These results indicate that BV injection at specific acupuncture points effectively alleviates AD-like skin lesions by inhibiting inflammatory and allergic responses in a TMA-induced contact hypersensitivity mouse model.",
"Cocaine abuse continues to be a significant public health problem associated with morbidity and mortality. To date, no pharmacotherapeutic approach has proven effective for treating cocaine use disorders. Preclinical and clinical evidence suggests that noradrenergic activity may play a role in mediating some effects of cocaine and may be a rational target for treatment. This double blind, placebo-controlled randomized, parallel group, 12-week outpatient clinical trial enrolled cocaine dependent individuals seeking treatment to examine the potential efficacy of the selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, atomoxetine (80 mg/day; p.o.; n = 25), compared to placebo (n = 25). Subjects were initially stratified on cocaine use (< 15 days or ≥ 15 days of the last 30), age and race using urn randomization. Attendance, medication adherence and study compliance were reinforced with contingency management, and weekly counseling was offered. An array of measures (vital signs, laboratory chemistries, cognitive and psychomotor tests, cocaine craving and urine samples for drug testing) was collected throughout the study and at follow-up. Survival analysis revealed no differences in study retention between the two groups, with approximately 56% of subjects completing the 12-week study (Cox analysis χ(2) = .72; p = .40; Hazard Ratio 1.48 [95% CI 0.62-3.39]). GEE analysis of the proportion of urine samples positive for benzoylecgonine, a cocaine metabolite, revealed no differences between the atomoxetine and placebo groups (χ(2) = 0.2, p = .66; OR = 0.89 [95% CI 0.41-1.74]). Atomoxetine was generally well tolerated in this population.",
"yes. There are not enough evidences to approve that the effect of acupuncture-moxibustion and Tuina massage on sub-health is better than that of other therapies. Therefore, more high quality randomized controlled trials with strict and scientific designation are necessary for obtaining more and better evidences.",
"yes. Intraoperative P6 acupuncture point stimulation with a conventional nerve stimulator during surgery significantly reduced the incidence of PONV over 24 h. The efficacy of P6 stimulation is similar to that of commonly used antiemetic drugs in the prevention of PONV.",
"yes. Acupuncture appears to be a safe, effective, and durable treatment in improving symptoms in, and the quality of life of, men with chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome refractory to treatment. A larger controlled study is required to confirm these encouraging initial results.",
"Auricular acupuncture is effective in reducing vomiting following transabdominal cholecystectomy in female patients.",
"no. Although chronic cocaine exposure has been shown to increase isoflurane minimum alveolar concentration by 25% in sheep; chronic cocaine exposure does not result in tolerance of the cardiovascular depression produced by isoflurane.",
"Usage of nonpharmacological treatment contributes to an overall patient well-being, assisting in physical and emotional healing. Acupuncture has been reported to be useful in reducing early postoperative vomiting (POV) and attenuating postoperative pain.AIM: The aim of this study was to compare the effect of dexamethasone vs acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 on the incidence and severity of POV in children undergoing tonsillectomy with or without adenoidectomy. One hundred and twenty children, ASA I-III aged 2-8 years undergoing elective tonsillectomy were included in this prospective randomized double-blind study. Children were randomly divided into two equal groups (60 each). At induction of anesthesia, the dexamethasone group received 0.15 mg·kg(-1) dexamethasone IV plus sham acupuncture, and the acupuncture group received acupuncture at P6 bilaterally and CV13 plus 2 ml of normal saline IV. Vomiting was recorded at 0-6, 6-24, and 0-24 h postoperatively. There was no difference in the incidence of vomiting between the acupuncture and dexamethasone groups. The mean difference in time to first oral intake (95% CI) was 4.3 (0.5-8.6) min between dexamethasone group and acupuncture group; P = 0.426. The mean difference in time until first vomit (95% CI) was 12 (9.5-13.8) min between both groups. No significant differences between Kaplan-Meier curves for time until first vomit (log-rank test) were obtained (P = 0.697).",
"yes. EA given at classical acupoint ST-36 alleviates stress-induced visceral pain, which is most likely mediated by opioid pathways in the periphery.",
"yes. We conclude that there is an increased prevalence of vasospasm in aSAH patients with recent cocaine exposure but no difference in clinical outcome. In addition, these patients are younger and more likely to have anterior circulation aneurysms.",
"yes. These findings, provided they can be extrapolated to abstinent human addicts, suggest therapeutic potential for the selective 5-HT2C agonist in preventing cue-controlled cocaine-seeking and relapse.",
"yes. The present results demonstrated that levels of AMPK gene expression in the rat hypothalamus determine the individual differences in the sensitivity to EA analgesia. Thus, our findings provide a clinically useful evidence for the application of acupuncture or EA for analgesia.",
"A control treatment in acupuncture research must be credible, regardless if the needling is performed by one or by several therapists. To investigate if individuals could identify whether needling had been given with an acupuncture needle or a sham needle and if the therapist influenced this ability. Eighty individuals were randomized to one single needling given by one of four physiotherapists using either an invasive needle or a non-penetrating telescopic sham needle. An equal proportion of individuals, 27 (68%), in the acupuncture group and the sham group answered incorrectly or was not sure at all regarding needling type but the proportion varied between the therapists from 55 to 80% (ns). Bang's blinding index was 0.20 (95% CI 0.03-0.36) in the acupuncture group and 0.10 (95% CI 0.09-0.29) in the sham group (interpretation: 20 and 10% identified needling type beyond statistical chance). Acupuncture was on a four-grade scale rated as median \"mildly painful\" and sham as \"not painful\" (ns). Pain ratings varied from median \"not\" to \"mildly painful\" in the therapists (p = 0.01).",
"Opioid agonist therapy (OAT) through addiction specialty clinic settings (clinic-based OAT) using methadone or buprenorphine or office-based settings using buprenorphine (office-based OAT) is an evidence-based treatment for opioid dependence. The low number of clinic-based OATs available to veterans (N = 53) presents a barrier to OAT access; thus, the expansion in office-based OAT has been encouraged. To examine trends in office-based OAT utilization over time and whether availability of office-based OAT improved the proportion of veterans with opioid use disorders treated with OAT. We examined Veterans Health Administration (VHA) administrative data for evidence of buprenorphine prescribing and clinic-based OAT clinic stops from October 2003 through September 2010 [fiscal years (FY) 2004-2010]. The number of patients receiving buprenorphine increased from 300 at 27 facilities in FY2004 to 6147 at 118 facilities in FY2010. During this time, the number of patients diagnosed with an opioid use disorder increased by 45%; however, the proportion of opioid use disorder patients receiving OAT remained relatively stable, ranging from 25% to 27%.",
"Capsicum plaster at classical Chinese acupoints is an alternative to acupuncture, which has been used as an effective method for preventing postoperative nausea and vomiting, sore throat, and pain. In this study, we investigated the postoperative analgesic efficacy of capsicum plaster at Hegu (LI 4) acupoints in patients after bilateral sagittal split ramus osteotomy. A double-blind, sham-controlled study was conducted with 84 patients undergoing orthognathic surgery, and who were randomly assigned to three treatment regimens (n = 28 each): Hegu group = capsicum plaster at Hegu acupoints and placebo tape on the shoulders as a nonacupoint; sham group = capsicum plaster on the shoulders and placebo tape at Hegu acupoints; and control group = placebo tape at Hegu acupoints and on the shoulders. The capsicum plaster was applied before induction of anesthesia and maintained for 8 h per day for 3 postoperative days. The total amount of patient-controlled analgesia, containing 6.5 microg/mL fentanyl and 1.2 mg/mL ketorolac, administered in the first 24 h after the operation was decreased in the Hegu group (26.8 +/- 3.4 mL) compared with the control (44.2 +/- 7.3 mL) and sham (42.1 +/- 6.9 mL) groups (P < 0.01). The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting and the need for rescue medication were reduced, and the overall satisfaction score was greater in the Hegu group compared with other groups (P < 0.01).",
"yes. Stimulation of the P6 acupoint with capsicum plaster is an effective method for prevention of PONV after middle ear surgery and its efficacy is comparable to ondansetron for the first six hours after surgery.",
"yes. P6 stimulation may be beneficial for various conditions involving nausea and vomiting. The added value to modern antiemetics remains unclear. In patients on chemotherapy, future research should focus on patients for whom the problems are refractory. The next steps in research should include investigating whether acupuncture points added to P6 or individualizing treatment based on a Traditional Chinese Medicine diagnosis increases treatment effectiveness. It would also be worthwhile to identify predictors of response across the different conditions so that the individual patients can optimize acupuncture point therapy.",
"yes. Incentives delivered contingent on submitting cocaine-free urine specimens significantly improve treatment outcome in ambulatory cocaine-dependent patients.",
"Our results did not show agreements between patients' reported musculoskeletal pain regions and tender zones in the external ears assessed according to commonly used maps in auricular acupuncture using a pressure stylus. However, very tender points occur on the external ear in a population with chronic musculoskeletal pain.",
"yes. Acupuncture may be a viable adjunct to pharmacological approaches for pain management after THR or TKR.",
"Prescription drug abuse and illicit drug use are common in chronic pain patients. Adherence monitoring with screening tests, and urine drug testing, periodic monitoring with prescription monitoring programs, has become a common practice in recent years. Random drug testing for appropriate use of opioids and use of illicit drugs is often used in pain management practices. Thus, it is expected that random urine drug testing will deter use of illicit drugs, and also improve compliance. To study the prevalence of illicit drug use in patients receiving opioids for chronic pain management and to compare the results of illicit drug use with the results from a previous study. A prospective, consecutive study. Interventional pain management practice setting in the United States. A total of 500 consecutive patients on opioids, considered to be receiving stable doses of opioids supplemental to their interventional techniques, were studied by random drug testing. Testing was performed by rapid drug screen. Results were considered positive if one or more of the monitored illicit drugs including cocaine, marijuana (THC), methamphetamine or amphetamines were present. Illicit drug use was evident in 80 patients, or 16%, with marijuana in 11%, cocaine in 5%, and methamphetamine and/or amphetamines in 2%. When compared with previous data, the overall illicit drug use was significantly less. Illicit drug use in elderly patients was absent.",
"The urine of a patient admitted for chest and epigastric pain tested positive for cocaine using an immunoassay-based drug screening method (positive/negative cutoff concentration 150 ng/mL). Despite the patient's denial of recent cocaine use, this positive cocaine screening result in conjunction with a remote history of drug misuse impacted the patient's recommended pain therapy. Specifically, these factors prompted the clinical team to question the appropriateness of opioids and other potentially addictive therapeutics during the treatment of cancer pain from previously undetected advanced pancreatic carcinoma. After pain management and clinical pathology consultation, it was decided that the positive cocaine screening result should be confirmed by gas chromatography-mass spectrometry (GC-MS) testing. This more sensitive and specific analytical technique revealed that both cocaine and its primary metabolite benzoylecgonine were undetectable (i.e., less than the assay detection limit of 50 ng/mL), thus indicating that the positive urine screening result was falsely positive. With this confirmation, the pain management service team was reassured in offering intrathecal pump (ITP) therapy for pain control. ITP implantation was well tolerated, and the patient eventually achieved excellent pain relief. However, ITP therapy most likely would not have been utilized without the GC-MS confirmation testing unless alternative options failed and extensive vigilant monitoring was initiated.",
"Acupuncture-naïve and exposed participants both reported different perceptions of real and sham acupuncture using a blindfolded toothpick protocol. This suggests that future trials should carefully monitor participant perceptions of treatments received, even for naïve individuals. Differences between groups further suggest that participants with significant and/or recent exposure to real acupuncture may introduce bias to blinded clinical acupuncture trials.",
"yes. This study demonstrates that BV acupuncture produces a significant antinociception without nociceptive behavior in rodents, which is mediated by capsaicin-insensitive afferents and involves activation of central adrenergic circuits. These results further suggest that BV stimulation into this acupuncture point might be a valuable alternative to traditional electrical or mechanical acupoint stimulation.",
"P6 acupuncture in adults is reported to be an effective preventive treatment for postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV). It is not clear, however, whether this technique is effective as a preventive treatment for PONV in children. Children undergoing anesthesia and surgery were randomized to four groups: (a) intravenous saline + bilateral P6 acupoint injections (n = 50); (b) intravenous droperidol + bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 49); (c) intravenous saline + bilateral sham point injections (n = 43); (d) intravenous saline +bilateral P6 sham acupuncture (n = 45). The perioperative anesthetic technique was standardized in all subjects. The incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) was evaluated in postanesthesia care unit (PACU) and 24 h after surgery. Incidence of nausea in the PACU was significantly lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (32% vs. 56%, P = 0.029) and P6 sham group (32% vs. 64%, P = 0.002) but not as compared with the droperidol group (32% vs. 46%, P = ns). Similarly, subjects in the acupoint group had a significantly lower incidence of vomiting in the PACU as compared with the sham point group (12% vs. 33%, P = 0.026) and P6 sham group (12% vs. 31%, P = 0.029) but not as compared with the droperidol group (12% vs. 18%, P = ns). The combined incidence of early PONV was also lower in the acupoint group as compared with the sham point group (P = 0.045) and P6 sham group (P = 0.004) but not as compared with the droperidol group (42% vs. 51%, P = ns). Finally, significantly fewer subjects in the acupoint group required intravenous ondansetron as an initial rescue therapy (P = 0.024). At 24 h after surgery, however, the incidence of late PONV was similar among the four study groups (P = ns).",
"yes. Offering treatment for opioid dependence with buprenorphine in a primary care practice is associated with the identification and treatment of other chronic medical conditions.",
"yes. Acupuncture or pharmacopuncture were equally effective as morphine or carprofen to control postoperative pain in bitches undergoing ovariohysterectomy.",
"We treated the acupuncture pneumothorax by making a choice between the closed thoracostomy and the percutaneous chest drainage based on a smoking history and chest radiographic findings. In the absence of smoking history and pulmonary emphysema or bullae, we got favorable results, not by the closed thoracostomy but only by the percutaneous chest drainage with a narrow-bore central venous catheter.",
"Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) are still common and distressing problems after general anesthesia, especially in patients undergoing abdominal hysterectomy. We studied a nonpharmacological therapy of PONV-capsicum plaster (PAS)-at either the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 or the Chinese acupuncture point Pericardium 6 (P6) of both hands. One-hundred-sixty healthy patients were included in a randomized, double-blinded study: 60 patients were in the control group, 50 patients were in the K-D2 group, and 50 patients were in the P6 group. PAS was applied at the K-D2 point in the K-D2 group and at the P6 point in the P6 group, whereas in the control group, an inactive tape was fixed at the K-D2 point of both hands. The PAS was applied before the induction of anesthesia and removed at 8 h after surgery. The incidence of PONV and the need for rescue medication were evaluated at predetermined time intervals. In the treatment group, the incidence of vomiting was significantly less (22% for the K-D2 group and 26% for the P6 group) than in the control group (56.7%) at 24 h after surgery (P < 0.001). The need for rescue antiemetics was significantly less in the treatment groups compared with the control group (P < 0.001). We conclude that PAS at the Korean hand acupuncture point K-D2 was an effective method for reducing PONV, as was PAS at the P6 acupoint, after abdominal hysterectomy.",
"yes. These results demonstrated that the inhibitory effect of the acupuncture stimulation to HT7 on morphine-induced behavioral sensitization was closely associated with the suppression of dopamine biosynthesis and its activity in the post-synaptic neurons in nucleus accumbens and striatum. It means that the behavioral effect of the acupuncture can originate from the modulation of the same neuronal mechanism in the central dopaminergic system as in the morphine-induced behavioral sensitization. This modulation was also strictly confined to the stimulation of the specific acupoint, because the stimulation to other acupoint (TE5) on another meridian did not show the modulating effect despite being relatively close to each other. It can be therefore suggested that the acupuncture stimulation has an acupoint-specific property, and might be a useful therapeutic alternative with few side effects for treating morphine addiction.",
"Given the risks of opioid medications, nonpharmacological strategies should be considered for total joint replacement patients. We investigated acupuncture as an adjunct therapy for postsurgical pain management in a total joint replacement program by examining which total hip and knee replacement patients elected to receive acupuncture and the effect of acupuncture on short-term pain. A total joint replacement program using fast-track physiotherapy offered elective postsurgical acupuncture to all patients, at no additional cost, as an adjunct therapy to opioids for pain management. The Joint Replacement Center at Abbott Northwestern Hospital, a 630-bed teaching and specialty hospital in Minneapolis, Minnesota from 2010 to 2012. Our sample included 2,500 admissions of total hip (THR) and total knee replacement (TKR) patients. Self-reported pain was assessed before and after acupuncture using a 0-10 scale and categorized as none/mild (0-4) and moderate/severe pain (5-10). Seventy-five percent of admissions included acupuncture. Women (Odds Ratio: 1.48, 95% Confidence Interval (CI): 1.22, 1.81) had higher odds of receiving acupuncture compared to men, and nonwhite patients (Odds Ratio: 0.55, 95% CI: 0.39, 0.78) had lower odds of receiving acupuncture compared to white patients. Average short-term pain reduction was 1.91 points (95% CI: 1.83, 1.99), a 45% reduction from the mean prepain score. Forty-one percent of patients reported moderate/severe pain prior to receiving acupuncture, while only 15% indicated moderate/severe pain after acupuncture.",
"yes. The clinical facilitation of both cranial and spinal motor responses to surgery in patients given acupuncture under sevoflurane anesthesia is associated with increased plasma levels of adrenaline, possibly reflecting sympathetic activation.",
"yes. Bufei Yishen granule and acupoint sticking can improve pulmonary function and lung pathological impairment in COPD rats, the curative effect of the combination is better than acupoint sticking or aminophylline only.",
"no. Application of acupressure wristbands at the P6 of both forearms 30 min before induction of anesthesia did not decrease the incidence of PONV in patients undergoing endoscopic urological procedures.",
"yes. The rate of data completion met our predefined criterion for determining a randomized trial to be feasible (at least 75% of patients tolerated the intervention and provided evaluable data). This novel intervention is acceptable to patients undergoing thoracotomy and does not interfere with standard preoperative care. There was no evidence of important adverse events. We are now testing the hypothesis that acupuncture significantly adds to standard perioperative pain management in a randomized trial.",
"To detect the effect of capsicum plasters on bilateral HT 7 acupoints for decreasing Emergence agitation (EA) in pediatric patients undergoing tonsillectomy and/or adenoidectomy. Emergence agitation with its incidence of 10% to 80% may have deleterious effects in postoperative period. Children may harm themselves and/or care providers who require extra nursing care and additional sedatives and/or analgesics that may cause a delay in discharge from hospital. The studies dealt with the potential benefits of the use of adjuvant drugs have yielded controversial results. Some may have side effects as well as the absence of a positive effect on EA. Fifty patients undergoing elective adenoidectomy and/or tonsillectomy who aged between 2 and 10 were included to the study. Patients were divided into two groups, and capsicum plasters (acupuncture) or inactive plasters (sham) were applied on bilateral HT 7 points preoperatively. Pain, emergence agitation, and side effects were evaluated for 15 min postoperatively. Incidence of EA (PAED scale) (28.0% vs 60.0) and postoperative side effects was lower in acupuncture group than in sham group while there was no significant difference in the severity of EA between groups. Duration of recovery was shorter in acupuncture group. Pain scores (CHEOPS scale) were comparable between groups. EA patients were noted to have greater age and more retching than non-EA patients. Postoperative side effects such as retching, laryngospasm, and vomiting were seen more frequently in the patients with EA.",
"yes. Our data indicates that the inhalation of buprenorphine has occurred in a significant minority of Australian OST clients. The motivations, contexts and potential health consequences of buprenorphine use by these atypical routes of administration, particularly in a correctional setting, warrant further exploration.",
"yes. The study indicates that the prevalence of significant coronary stenoses is high in asymptomatic young and middle-aged African American chronic cocaine users. These findings emphasize the importance of aggressive reduction of risk factors, including vitamin D deficiency in this population.",
"These results demonstrate that the non-toxic cocaine abusing patient can be administered general anaesthesia with no greater risk than comparable age and ASA matched drug-free patients.",
"Evidence suggests that electroacupuncture (EA) protects against arrhythmia and myocardial injury induced by myocardial ischaemia-reperfusion. However, to our knowledge, it remains unknown whether EA could alleviate bupivacaine-induced cardiotoxicity. Therefore, we aimed to explore the effect of EA pretreatment on bupivacaine-induced cardiac arrest and outcomes of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in rats. 24 adult male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly divided into two groups: EA (n=12), and minimal acupuncture (MA) (n=12). Rats in both groups were needled at bilateral PC6, ST36, and ST40. Needles in the EA group were electrically stimulated for 60 min. ECG and invasive arterial blood pressure measurements were recorded. Two hours after EA or MA, 10 mg/kg bupivacaine was infused intravenously at a rate of 5 mg/kg/min in all rats. Rats suffering cardiac arrest were immediately subjected to CPR. At the end of the experiment, arterial blood samples were taken from surviving rats for blood gas analysis. The time from bupivacaine infusion until 20% prolongation of the QRS and QT interval, and the time to cardiac arrest, were notably increased among the rats pretreated with EA. Moreover, EA pretreatment significantly improved mean arterial pressure and heart rate at all monitored points after bupivacaine infusion. The proportion of animals surviving was higher in the EA group (9/12) than the MA group (3/12) at the end of experiment (p=0.039).",
"Psychiatric comorbidity can adversely affect opioid dependence treatment outcomes. While the prevalence of psychiatric comorbidity among patients seeking methadone maintenance treatment has been documented, the extent to which these findings extend to patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment is unclear. To determine the prevalence of mood and substance use disorders among patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment, via cross sectional survey. 237 consecutive patients seeking primary care office-based buprenorphine/naloxone treatment were evaluated using modules from the Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IV Axis I Disorders (SCID-I). Current (past 30 days) and past diagnoses were cataloged separately. Patients ranged in age from 18 to 62 years old (M=33.9, SD=9.9); 173 (73%) were men; 197 (83%) were white. Major depression was the most prevalent mood disorder (19% current, 24% past). A minority of patients met criteria for current dysthymia (6%), past mania (1%), or past hypomania (2%). While 37 patients (16%) met criteria for current abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (7% cocaine, 4% alcohol, 4% cannabis, 2% sedatives, 0.4% stimulants, 0.4% polydrug), 168 patients (70%) percent met criteria for past abuse of or dependence on at least one non-opioid substance (43% alcohol, 38% cannabis, 30% cocaine, 9% sedatives, 8% hallucinogens, 4% stimulants, 1% polydrug, and 0.4% other substances).",
"When auricular acupuncture is applied to reduce discomfort during hysteroscopy, particular attention must be paid when choosing the points/areas to be stimulated, which are not only those indicated in the Chinese or French maps.",
"yes. These findings suggest that bee venom acupuncture has a preventive and therapeutic effect on methamphetamine-induced addiction.",
"yes. The neuroimaging results of our study suggest that in future acupuncture research; the prefrontal cortex as well as the precentral gyrus should be treated for symptoms of Parkinson's disease and that GB 34 seems to be a suitable acupoint. Moreover, acupuncture evoked different brain activations in patients with Parkinson's disease than in healthy participants in our study, stressing the importance of conducting acupuncture studies on both healthy participants as well as patients within the same study, in order to detect acupuncture efficacy.",
"To determine if acupuncture-exposed and naïve participants differ in their perceptions of real and sham acupuncture under blinded conditions. The setting was an outpatient clinic at the Colorado School of Traditional Chinese Medicine. Participants were between the ages of 18 and 90 years. Acupuncture-exposed participants had at least five prior acupuncture treatments, with one treatment in the month prior to the study date. Acupuncture-naïve participants had experienced no prior acupuncture treatments. Participants with dementia, cognitive impairment, or neuropathy were excluded. In total, 61 acupuncture-exposed and 59 acupuncture-naïve participants were blindfolded and received either real acupuncture or toothpick sham acupuncture treatment. Following treatment, participants completed a questionnaire rating the realness of the acupuncture and were asked how they made this determination. We used a previously developed scale rating treatments from 1 (definitely real needle) to 5 (definitely imitation needle) to assess outcome. Perceptions of the real treatment were rated as more real than sham treatments for all participants. Further analysis revealed that prior acupuncture exposure did not influence ratings of real treatments, but exposed participants rated sham treatments as significantly less real than naïve participants.",
"The cholinergic and opioid systems play important roles in modulating inflammation. This study tests whether auricular acupuncture (AA) produces anti-inflammatory effects via opioid and peripheral cholinergic receptors in a rat model. Rats were anesthetized with chloral hydrate and inflammation was induced by intraplantar injection of carrageenan. Electroacupuncture was performed at auricular points bilaterally. The severity of inflammation was assessed using changes in paw volume and thermal and mechanical pain thresholds of the rats during recovery from anesthesia. Electroacupuncture at selected auricular acupoints significantly reduced paw edema and mechanical hyperalgesia, with no significant effect on thermal hyperalgesia. The anti-edematous and analgesic effects of AA were abolished by blockade of peripheral cholinergic muscarinic receptors with methyl atropine. Blockade of local muscarinic receptors at the inflamed site with a small dose of atropine also antagonized the anti-edematous effect of AA. By contrast, systemic opioid receptor blockade with naloxone did not antagonize the anti-inflammatory effects of AA.",
"The objective of this study was to analyse whether auricular acupuncture, acupuncture at the outer ear, could reduce state anxiety before dental treatment. This prospective, randomised patient-blinded study with 182 patients compared anxiety before dental treatment following auricular acupuncture at the relaxation-, tranquillizer- and master cerebral points (auricular acupuncture group) versus acupuncture at sham points (finger-, shoulder- and tonsil points; sham group) and a non-intervention control group. Anxiety was assessed using the Spielberger State Trait Anxiety Inventory (German version) before auricular acupuncture and 20 min thereafter, immediately before dental treatment. Auricular acupuncture reduced state anxiety score more effectively from 54.7 ± 10.8 to 46.9 ± 10.4 (mean ± SD) than sham acupuncture from 51.9 ± 10.2 to 48.4 ± 10.0. In contrast, state anxiety in the control group increased from 51.0 ± 11.7 to 54.0 ± 11.6 (mean increase +3.0; CI +4.7 to +1.2). The decrease in state anxiety in both intervention groups was statistically significant (p < 0.001) when compared to the non-intervention control group. After correcting for group differences in baseline state anxiety, the reduction in anxiety was -7.3 score points (CI -9.0 to -5.6) in the auricular acupuncture group and -3.7 score points (CI -5.4 to -1.9) in the sham group (p = 0.008).",
"Given the significant health harms associated with intravenous buprenorphine use (e.g. vein damage, abscesses and infections, precipitated withdrawal, blood-borne virus transmission, hospitalization and death), routine monitoring of the misuse of buprenorphine in Melbourne is warranted. These results suggest the need for development of effective countermeasures to address diversion and injection of buprenorphine in this setting.",
"Commonly, cocaine abusing patient are scheduled for elective surgery with a positive urine test for cocaine metabolites. As many of these patients were clinically non-toxic [normal arterial pressure and heart rate, normothermic, and a normal (or unchanged from previous) ECG, including a QTc interval<500 ms], we have recently proceeded with elective surgery requiring general anaesthesia in this patient group. Forty urine cocaine positive patients were compared with an equal number of drug-free controls in a prospective, non-randomized, blinded analysis. Intraoperative mean arterial blood pressure, ST segment analysis, heart rate and body temperature were recorded and compared. Cardiovascular stability during and after general anaesthesia in cocaine positive, non-toxic patients was not significantly different when compared with an age and ASA matched drug-free control group.",
"Although acupuncture is most commonly used for its analgesic effect, it has also been used to treat various drug addictions including cocaine and morphine in humans. This study was designed to investigate the effect of bee venom injection on methamphetamine-induced addictive behaviors including conditioned place preference and hyperlocomotion in mice. Methamphetamine (1 mg/kg) was subcutaneously treated on days 1, 3 and 5 and the acquisition of addictive behaviors was assessed on day 7. After confirming extinction of addictive behaviors on day 17, addictive behaviors reinstated by priming dose of methamphetamine (0.1 mg/kg) was evaluated on day 18. Bee venom (20 microl of 1 mg/ml in saline) was injected to the acupuncture point ST36 on days 1, 3 and 5. Repeated bee venom injections completely blocked development of methamphetamine-induced acquisition and subsequent reinstatement. Single bee venom acupuncture 30 minutes before acquisition and reinstatement test completely inhibited methamphetamine-induced acquisition and reinstatement. Repeated bee venom acupunctures from day 8 to day 12 after methamphetamine-induced acquisition partially but significantly suppressed reinstatement.",
"yes. Continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM significantly decreases pain intensity and significantly improves psychological well-being, activity, and sleep in chronic cervical pain patients.",
"Auricular acupuncture (AA) has been shown to alleviate acute and chronic pain. We investigated the effects of auricular electroacupuncture (AE) on pain and analgesic drug consumption in the first 48 h after unilateral mandibular third molar tooth extraction under local anesthesia in a prospective, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study in 149 patients. Patients received either AA with electrical stimulation (AE, n = 76) or without (AA, n = 37) electrical stimulation at an alternating frequency of 2/100 Hz or a sham AE with metal plates instead of needles and no electrical stimulation, no-needle (NN, n = 36) at the AA points 1 (tooth), 55 (Shen men) and 84 (mouth) during the entire study period. Regularly rated pain intensity (five-point verbal rating scale), consumption of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets and additional rescue medication with mefenamic acid 500 mg were assessed. The median fraction of time when pain was rated as moderate or worse (upper and lower quartile): AE: 33% (12%, 64%), AA: 22% (6%, 56%), NN: 30% (7%, 53%) did not differ significantly among the treatment groups. There were no significant differences in mean number of acetaminophen 500 mg tablets (range): AE: 5.2 (0-12), AA: 4.6 (0-11), NN: 5.4 (0-10) or percentage of patients requiring additional mefenamic acid: AE: 19%, AA: 18%, NN: 19%.",
"yes. Auricular acupuncture, a minimally invasive method, effectively reduces state anxiety before dental treatment.",
"To find the efficacy of auricular acupuncture for the prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting after cholecystectomy. One hundred (100) female patients undergoing transabdominal cholecystectomy were randomly allocated to two groups of 50 (auricular acupuncture treatment group and nontreatment group) in order to test the effectiveness of auricular acupuncture. Statistical significance (p<0.05) was determined using an unpaired t-test for age, weight, height, and duration of anesthesia; a chi-square test was used to analyze the incidence of vomiting. There was no significant difference in age, weight, height, or duration of anesthesia among the two groups of patients. There was a significant difference between the control and auricular acupuncture treatment groups in the incidence of vomiting 24 hours after surgery (66% and 0%, respectively, p<0.01). No noteworthy side effects from treatment were observed.",
"In this prospective, randomized, double-blinded, controlled study, we tested the hypothesis that auricular electroacupuncture relieves pain more effectively than conventional manual auricular acupuncture. We studied 21 chronic cervical pain patients without radicular symptoms with insufficient pain relief (visual analogue scale >5) treated with standardized analgesic therapy. All patients received disposable acupuncture needles on the dominant side on the following acupuncture points: cervical spine, shen men, and cushion. In 10 patients, needles were continuously stimulated (2-mA constant current, 1 Hz monophasic) by using the electrical point stimulation device P-STIM. In 11 control patients, no electrical stimulation was administered. All needles were withdrawn 48 h after insertion. Acupuncture was performed once a week for 6 wk. Patients had to complete a questionnaire assessing pain intensity, psychological well-being, activity, sleep, and demand for rescue medication (lornoxicam and tramadol). The reduction in pain scores was significant in the electrical acupuncture group. Similarly, psychological well-being, activity, and sleep were significantly improved in patients receiving electrical acupuncture, and consumption of rescue medication was significantly less. These results demonstrate that continuous electrical stimulation of auricular acupuncture points by using the new point stimulation device P-STIM improves the treatment of chronic cervical pain in an outpatient population.",
"Buprenophrine is a synthetic opioid with micro-agonist properties currently pending Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval as a maintenance agent for treating heroin-addicted individuals. Unlike methadone, a widely used opioid maintenance agent, buprenorphine is a kappa-receptor antagonist. Research linking the effects of acupuncture to the release of dynorphin, the endogenous ligand for the kappa-receptor, raised the possibility that buprenorphine may block acupuncture's effects. In this study, we sought to gather preliminary data on this issue in order to guide the clinical care of cocaine-abusing, buprenorphine-maintained patients. Between-group analysis comparing buprenorphine- and methadone-maintained patients on ratings of acute effects after a single session of auricular acupuncture. Thirty-four (34) cocaine-abusing, opioid-dependent patients, eighteen (18) maintained on buprenorphine, and sixteen (16) maintained on methadone. A single, 40-minute session of auricular acupuncture; four needles were inserted in each auricle. Acute effect ratings in four domains: pain, de qi sensations, relaxation effects, subjective experiences. There were no significant differences in acute-effects ratings between the two groups. Patients in both groups reported positive effects.",
"To compare findings from two consecutive clinical trials of auricular acupuncture for cocaine addiction conducted at the same site in order to explore consistency of treatment effects. One hundred and sixty-five (165) cocaine-dependent, methadone-maintained patients (study 1, n = 82; study 2, n = 83). Subjects in both studies were randomly assigned to auricular acupuncture, a needle insertion control condition, or a no-needle relaxation control. Treatment sessions were offered five times weekly for 8 weeks. The two studies were equivalent in design, except that unlike study 1, study 2 offered subject payments for attendance and did not include weekly group counseling. Cocaine use assessed by three times weekly urine screens constituted the primary outcome. Secondary measures included retention in treatment, treatment attendance, treatment credibility, therapeutic alliance, and acute effects of treatments. Intent-to-treat analysis showed that patients assigned to acupuncture in study 1, but not in study 2, were significantly more likely to provide cocaine-negative urine samples relative to the two control conditions.",
"These preliminary findings are consistent with the interpretation that buprenorphine does not block auricular acupuncture, supporting the provisional recommendation that cocaine-abusing patients maintained on buprenorphine should not be excluded from receiving auricular acupuncture or from participating in clinical studies of this treatment modality. Further, controlled research on this issue, with clinical outcomes, is needed."
] | 177 |
Duodenojejunitis: is it idiopathic or is it Henoch-Schönlein purpura without the purpura? | [
"Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination.",
"Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash."
] | [
"The pathogenesis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is multifactorial, with some patients presenting additional autoimmune symptoms. Inflammatory colitis associated with autoimmune (AI) liver disease appears to have clinical features different from those of \"classical\" ulcerative colitis (CUC). The aim of this study was to describe these features, in order to differentiate a subgroup of colitis associated with autoimmunity (CAI) from CUC. Twenty-eight consecutive children with inflammatory colitis associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), celiac disease, or AI hepatitis were compared with a matched control group of 27 children with isolated UC. Clinical course, histology, as well as inflammatory profile in the colonic mucosa based on real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR) were analyzed. In CAI the main digestive symptoms at disease onset were abdominal pain (12/28) and bloody strings in the stool (12/28), along with a high prevalence of autoimmune diseases in relatives, as compared with bloody diarrhea in the CUC group (26/27). At diagnosis, pancolitis was seen in 18/28 CAI patients compared with 8/27 in UC. In CAI, the pathological findings were different from CUC: 1) major lesions predominantly located in the right colon; 2) pseudo-villous appearance of the mucosa, and strong infiltration with eosinophils; 3) mild glandular lesions; and 4) differing inflammatory infiltrate with reduced FOXP3, interleukin (IL)-2, and thymic stromal lymphopoietin (TSLP) levels. Evolution in CAI was less aggressive, requiring less corticosteroids/immunomodulators.",
"yes. In this model, BPJ exclusion from gut induces M3 and CCK-A receptor expression and increases IL-6 production. In this experimental corollary of gallstone pancreatitis, BPJ exclusion from gut may play a key role in the mechanism of disease pathogenesis.",
"yes. IgA mesangial glomerulonephritis is a disease of unknown aetiology which has been associated with other diseases. Chronic overexposure to cadmium may contribute to the development of this nephrophathy.",
"Cerebellitis associated with mGluR1-Abs should be considered in the differential diagnosis of patients with subacute cerebellar ataxia. This first case without any tumor found suggests a possible idiopathic autoimmune rather than a paraneoplastic mechanism. In consideration of this possible primitive autoimmune ataxia involving the directly pathogenic mGluR1-Abs, immunoactive therapy should be initiated as early as possible.",
"yes. The oral microbiome is unlikely causative of ONJ, rather individuals with BAONJ lacked immune resiliency which impaired their capacity to respond adequately to the immunological stress of N-BP treatment. This may be the common factor linking N-BP and anti-RANK agents to ONJ in at-risk individuals. Preventive and/or therapeutic strategies should target the wound healing deficits present in those with ONJ.",
"no. In adult patients with staple food induced gastrointestinal symptoms, objectively verified by DBPCFC, there were no indications of IgE mediated allergy to the relevant foods suggesting other mechanisms in adults than in children. Future studies may include measures of local events in the shock organs in relation to food intake, for instance utilising inflammatory markers in jejunal fluids.",
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a common cause of paediatric renal disease in children, representing 10-15% of paediatric glomerulonephritis. This study examined the long-term outcome of biopsy-proven HSP nephritis to identify correlations between disease development and treatment. Patients from three French centres were retrospectively analysed. We followed up 142 patients aged from 2 to 10.5 years with HSP nephritis, graded according to the International Study Group of Kidney Disease in Childhood classification. Mean (±SD) age at presentation was 7.6 ± 2.8 years. Nephrotic range proteinuria was present in 28% of patients with Grade II lesions, 60% with Grade III and 90% with Grade IV. Significant proteinuria (>0.5 g/L) was found in nine of 48 patients 3 years after renal biopsy, eight of 25 patients after 5 years and three of 14 patients after 10 years. There was no correlation between the proteinuria risk at 3, 5 or 10 years and the initial histological lesion or treatment modality. Treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors/angiotensin receptor blockers (ACEi/ARB) was linked to lower proteinuria, especially if it was started precociously.",
"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection has no major role in development of gastric metaplasia in duodenal bulb in non-ulcer dyspeptic patients. Furthermore, it does not result in positive CagA-serology, an increased risk for gastric metaplasia compared with CagA-seronegative cases.",
"yes. Our data reinforce the evidence that hBD1 expression is greatly reduced in the duodenum of patients with active CD. It also strengthens the concept that reduced activity of immune peptides may predispose individuals to bacterial proliferation that contributes to the pathogenesis of CD.",
"Based on current knowledge, it is possible to have an initial diagnosis of intrinsic or extrinsic ureteropelvic junction obstruction (UPJO) based solely on clinical and imaging findings. However, it may not be possible to strictly discriminate an intrinsic case with an additional extrinsic component from a primarily intrinsic stenosis because of lower pole aberrant vessels. These two disorders may coexist or trigger each other. Herein, we aimed to compare the histological changes observed in intrinsic and extrinsic types of UPJO. Our hypothesis is that inspecting the UPJ during pyeloplasty may not be a sufficient way to delineate the underlying cause of obstruction in every individual. We retrospectively reviewed the data of 56 patients who had dismembered pyeloplasty. The intrinsic and extrinsic groups consisted of 38 and 18 patients, respectively. Masson's trichrome stain, CD117, and connexin 43 (Cx43) antibody were used in histopathology and immunochemistry. Statistical calculations were done with chi-square and Mann-Whitney U tests.",
"Several immune-mechanisms have been discussed in the background of Whipple's disease, but their primary or secondary role is yet undetermined. First of all, this is a gastrointestinal disease; however, extraintestinal symptoms may be present many years before the final diagnosis. The histological hallmark for the diagnosis is the presence of numerous macrophages in the duodenal mucosa showing periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive inclusions, and the polymerase chain reaction. The choice of antibiotics and the length of the treatment is empiric, but in most cases there is an immediate response to therapy. Relapses are common, especially the involvements of central nervous system.",
"To investigate the relationship between vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) expression and microvessel injury of renal interstitium in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN). Thirty-two children with HSPN and who had not received glucocorticoid or immunodepressants treatment before hospitalization were enrolled. Five children undergoing nephrectomy due to renal trauma were used as the control group. Renal samples were stained by hematoxylin and eosin and renal pathological changes were evaluated semi-quantitatively. CD34 and VEGF expression was detected by immunohistochemistry. CD34 was used as the marker for endothelial cells of renal microvessels. The microvessel density (MVD) was calculated by CD34 immunostaining. Compared with the control and the renal pathological grade II HSPN groups, MVD in the grade III and above HSPN groups decreased significantly, with an obvious reduction in MVD with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). The renal microvessel score in the grades IIIa, IIIb, IV, and V HSPN groups decreased obviously compared with that in the control group. The renal microvessel score decreased with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the grade II HSPN group was higher (p<0.05), while that in the grades IV and V HSPN group was lower than that in the control group (p<0.05). VEGF expression in the HSPN group showed a significant reduction with the increased renal pathological grade (p<0.05). There was a positive correlation between VEGF expression and MVD in renal tissue in the HSPN group (r=0.935, p<0.01).",
"Duodenal gastric metaplasia (DGM) is commonly found in association with Helicobacter pylori (Hp)-associated gastritis in adults. DGM is also considered a risk factor for duodenal ulcer development. The prevalence of DGM in children and its association with gastritis, duodenitis, or the presence of Hp organisms is not clear. We investigated the prevalence of DGM in children and explore its association with several possible risk factors, including age, gender, gastritis, duodenitis, or Hp presence in the gastric antrum. A retrospective analysis of 173 upper endoscopy procedures performed between 1993 and 1995 at Cabell Huntington Hospital, Huntington, WV, was done. Gastric and duodenal biopsies were stained with Giemsa for Hp detection, periodic acid-Schiff for DGM, and hematoxylin and eosin for histologic assessment. Gastric mucosal inflammation was graded according to Sydney criteria. Duodenal gastric metaplasia was identified in 23 of 173 (13%) patients. Duodenitis but not age, gender, gastritis, or the presence of Hp in the gastric antrum was associated with DGM development. In 4 of 23 DGM foci, Hp was identified.",
"yes. Our findings provide new insight into the mechanisms mediating inherited and acquired noncirrhotic portal hypertension, expand the phenotypic spectrum of DGUOK deficiency, and provide a new genetic test for a specific cause of idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension. (Hepatology 2016;63:1977-1986).",
"yes. The prevalence of H. pylori is lower in patients with bleeding DUs when compared to patients with uncomplicated DUs. In addition, the sensitivity and negative predictive value of the RUT is lower in patients presenting with bleeding, and other methods of H. pylori diagnosis should be used in this patient group.",
"Hemoconcentration markers are predictors of severe acute pancreatitis but have not been specifically evaluated in post-endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography pancreatitis (PEP). Case-control study of patients undergoing ERCP for suspected sphincter of Oddi dysfunction. We identified patients with PEP (PEP positive) and controls (PEP negative) in a 1:2 ratio. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and hematocrit (Hct) were measured before procedure, upon admission, and 24 hours later. Preprocedure levels of BUN and Hct were analyzed to control for confounders. Among the PEP-positive patients, BUN level, Hct level, and systemic inflammatory response syndrome are compared between severe and mild/moderate cases. There were 149 PEP-positive patients, including 18 patients (12.1%) with severe PEP and 301 PEP-negative controls. After adjusting, higher preprocedure BUN level (odds ratio [OR], 1.05 [1.01, 1.10]; P < 0.02) and pancreatic sphincterotomy (OR, 1.60 [1.01, 2.55]; P < 0.05) were associated with PEP, whereas older age (OR, 0.98 [0.96, 0.99]; P < 0.02) and a greater body mass index (OR, 0.97 [0.94, 0.99]; P < 0.03) with a lower rate.Difference in BUN level of 0.0 or greater (failure to decline) had a sensitivity of 71% and a specificity of 79% for differentiating severe from mild/moderate PEP. Patients with severe PEP were more likely to have systemic inflammatory response syndrome upon admission (44.4% [21.5, 67.4]) and after 24 hours (61.1% [38.6, 83.6] versus mild/moderate (9.2% [4.2, 14.1], 10.6% [5.4,16.0]; P < 0.0001 for each).",
"yes. The identification of a second mutation in the cationic trypsinogen gene (HP2) suggests a dominant role of trypsin in premature protease activation-mediated forms of acute pancreatitis. The pathogenesis of hereditary pancreatitis also suggests that chronic pancreatitis may result from recurrent acute pancreatitis.",
"1) The discrepancy between autoantibody profile and the clinical phenotype, at least in PF patients, appears to be due to non-pathogenic anti-Dsg3 antibodies; 2) in a proportion of patients the relationship between the Dsg1 and Dsg3 ELISA titers and the disease severity was absent; 3) in some patients, the anti-Dsg1 and -3 autoantibodies were lacking at diagnosis, suggesting a role of other antigens in the pathogenesis of the disease and, lastly, 4) the pure cutaneous and mucosal forms tend to respond more efficiently to the therapy than the mucocutaneous forms and have a persistent response.",
"Non ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is being postulated as one of the gastroduodenal manifestations of H. pylori infection. H. pylori infection may result in clinical symptoms as well as histological changes in NUD. To compare clinical symptom score and histological changes in H. pylori (Hp) positive and negative untreated NUD patients. Forty six patients with dyspeptic symptoms and normal upper GI endoscopic examinations were included in this study. During endoscopy 2 biopsies each were taken from the antrum and body of the stomach. These biopsies were used for rapid urease test (RUT) and histological examination. Patients were diagnosed to have Hp infection if either of two tests were positive. There were two groups of patients: Hp positive and Hp negative NUD patients. Clinical scoring using Glasgow dyspepsia score (Max. 20) and histological analysis, using Sydney system (Max score 11) was done and compared for both the groups of patients. Clinical scoring, RUT and histological scoring were blinded to each other. H. pylori was present in 29(63%) of the 46 patients. Mean clinical score for H. pylori positive patient was 10.9 while for Hp negative patient was 11.4. Total histological score for Hp positive and Hp negative patients was 3.37 Vs 1.76 (antrum) and 3.68 Vs 1.29(body) (p < .001), respectively. The only histological change found to be statistically significant between Hp positive and Hp negative patients was presence of lymphoid follicles (p < .05).",
"In the current era of computed tomography, idiopathic or asymptomatic intussusception is being seen more commonly; however, the majority of adult intussusceptions still have pathologic lead points. From our experience, all patients with palpable mass, obstructive symptoms or obstruction, gastrointestinal bleeding, or a lead point on computed tomography should undergo operative exploration.",
"In unselected patients attending a gastroenterology clinic, small bowel histology and endomysial antibody serology show similar predictive value in the diagnosis of coeliac disease. These results emphasize that a combination of clinical, histological and serological criteria are required for effective diagnosis of this disorder. Exclusive reliance on histology or serology will result in failure to make a diagnosis in a significant proportion of patients.",
"To discover whether scattered white spots (SWS) in the duodenum are related to a specific kind of disease. We also scrutinized other upper endoscopic findings which might be associated with SWS. Among the patients who were admitted for upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy, those having the endoscopic appearance of SWS in duodenum were enrolled in this study. In total 107 patients [70 women, 37 men, mean age: 51.6 +/- 16.88 years (range: 17-82 years)] were included. At least three duodenal biopsies were taken from each patient and histopathological examinations were done by experienced pathologists. The histopathological examination revealed that 39 (36.4%) patients had intestinal lymphangiectasia (IL), 15 (14%) patients had giardiasis (G) and 30 (28.1%) patients had chronic non-specific duodenitis (CD). Two patients with IL were also found to have G. Twenty patients had both IL and CD. One had both G and CD. G was the least common etiology for SWS in the duodenum. The most common reasons for SWS in the duodenum in this study group were IL and CD, in order of decreasing frequency. There was no significant relationship with the other upper endoscopic findings in all these patients.",
"The causes of misdiagnosis were low cellularity, epithelial atypia, and non-representative background. The important diagnostic clues to suspect a diagnosis of IgG4-RD include low cellularity despite adequate effort, inflammatory background rich in lymphocytes and spindle cells admixed with a few plasma cells and eosinophils along with radiological features and raised serum IgG4 Diagn. Cytopathol. 2017;45:14-21. © 2016 Wiley Periodicals, Inc.",
"POEMS (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal plasma cell disorder, and skin changes) syndrome may be mistaken for chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP). Differentiating the 2 entities is crucial, as there are major treatment implications. We compared platelet counts in 136 POEMS patients and 67 CIDP controls. Of the patients with POEMS, 53.7% had thrombocytosis, compared with 1.5% of those with CIDP (P < 0.0001). The median platelet count in patients with POEMS was 467,000/μl compared with 275,000/μl in those with CIDP (P < 0.0001).",
"no. The magnitude of [13C]urea breath test or H. pylori IgG serology cannot be used to predict the presence or absence of gastroduodenal ulcer disease.",
"no. Anti-Cag A antibodies do not seem to discriminate duodenal ulcer patients from non ulcer dyspepsia in the Indian population.",
"The pathogenesis of idiopathic pancreatitis (IP) remains poorly understood. Our hypothesis is that IP is a sequel of micro-crystallization of hepatic bile. A prospective case control study compared 55 patients; symptomatic cholelithiasis - 30 (14 male, median age 36 years; mean BMI - 25.1 kg/m2), gallstone pancreatitis - 9 (3 male, median age 35 years; mean BMI - 24.86 kg/m2 ) and IP - 16 (9 male, median age 34 years; mean BMI -23.34 kg/m2) with 30 controls (15 male, median age 38 years; mean BMI = 24.5 kg/m2) undergoing laparotomy for conditions not related to the gall bladder and bile duct. Ultrafiltered bile from the common hepatic duct in patients and controls was incubated in anaerobic conditions and examined by polarized light microscopy to assess bile nucleation time (NT). In the analysis, the mean NT of patients with gallstones and gallstone pancreatitis was taken as a cumulative mean NT for those with established gallstone disease (EGD). Patients were similar to controls. Mean NT in all groups of patients was significantly shorter than controls (EGD cumulative mean NT, 1.73 +/- 0.2 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001 and IP patients mean NT, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. controls, 12.74 +/- 0.4 days, P = 0.001). However, NT in those with IP was longer compared with those with EGD (mean NT in IP, 3.1 +/- 0.24 days vs. cumulative mean in EGD: 1.73 +/- 0.2 days, P = 0.002).",
"IP with marked IgG4-positive plasma cell infiltration without extrathoracic lesions of IgG4-RD had different pathological features from those of IgG4-RD, and it is appropriate to regard this as a separate entity.",
"Helicobacter Pylori infection has been strongly associated with upper gastrointestinal (GI) disease, especially duodenal ulcer. Endoscopy or contrast radiography is needed to diagnose and appropriately manage peptic ulcer disease. These diagnostic procedures, however, are time consuming and expensive; endoscopy is invasive and contrast radiography cannot help in the diagnosis of H pylori infection. Our aim was to examine in a prospective study the relation between serologic detection of cytotoxic associated gene (CagA) H pylori strains and endoscopic findings among young dyspeptic patients to determine whether this noninvasive test can help differentiate patients with from those without ulcers. One hundred patients younger than 45 years with dyspepsia referred for upper GI endoscopy were included in the study. During endoscopy antral biopsy specimens were obtained for the rapid urease test and histologic examination. At histologic examination gastritis was graded from 0 (normal histologic features) to 3 (severe gastritis). After endoscopy blood was obtained for serologic determination of CagA status. Among the 100 patients 56 were H pylori positive and 44 were H pylori negative. In the group of 56 H pylori-positive patients 36 (64.3%) had peptic ulcers and 20 (35.7%) did not. Among patients with peptic ulcer 34 of 36 (94.4%) were CagA positive and 2 (5.6%) were CagA negative. The respective values for the group of patients without ulcers were 9 of 20 (45%) and 11 of 20 (55%). The difference in the proportion of CagA-positive subjects between the group with and that without peptic ulcer was highly significant (p < 0.0001).",
"yes. The results suggest that a high density of cagA-positive strains in the duodenum with severe duodenitis are important determinants of DU disease.",
"yes. Preexisting ulcerative colitis often has an aggressive course, while de novo ulcerative colitis may develop in patients transplanted for primary sclerosing cholangitis and treated without long term steroids.",
"We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.",
"The aim of this study was to analyze the contribution of the double-balloon enteroscopy (DBE) for diagnosis of the small bowel disorders. Forty-four patients (20 women, 24 men; mean age 53.5 years-old, range 21-89 years) with chronic gastrointestinal bleeding, diarrhea, polyposis, weight-loss, Roux-en-Y surgery, and other indications underwent DBE. Twenty patients had occult or obscure gastrointestinal bleeding. The source of bleeding was identified in 15/20 (75%): multiple angiodysplasias in four, arterial-venous malformation beyond the ligament of Treitz in two that could be treated with injection successfully. Other diagnoses included: duodenal adenocarcinoma, jejunal tuberculosis, erosions and ulcer of the jejunum. Of 24 patients with other indications, the diagnosis could be achieved in 18 of them (75%), including: two lymphomas, plasmocytoma, Gardner's syndrome, Peutz-Jeghers' syndrome, familial adenomatous polyposis, Behçet's disease, jejunal submucosal lesion, lymphangiectasia due to blastomycosis and unspecific chronic jejunitis. Of three cases with Roux-en-Y reconstruction, two underwent DBE in order to perform biopsies of the excluded duodenum. Additionally, two patients underwent DBE to exclude Crohn's disease and lymphoma of the small bowel. The mean length of small bowel examination was 240 +/- 50 cm during a single approach. The diagnostic yield was 75% (33/44 cases) and therapeutic yield was 63.6%. No major complications were observed, only minor complication such as sore throat in 4/44 (9.1%).",
"While acral ischemic lesions could represent initial or isolated (forme fruste) manifestations of a defined vasculitis, acral ischemic lesions may rarely be encountered as the predominant manifestation of an as yet unclassified vasculitis. the histological findings seem to differ. Our report includes a peculiar case of giant cell arteritis of small arteries not classifiable as giant cell arteritis of large arteries or Takayasu disease.",
"yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.",
"Mesenteric panniculitis (MP), sclerotic mesenteritis (SM) and mesenteric lipodystrophy (ML) are the three histopathological forms of a rare inflammatory mesenteric disease. The pathogenesis is unknown until now. Hypothesis of a dysimmune disorder is advocated. Our purpose was to find histological basis to assert this hypothesis. All patients with a diagnosis of inflammatory mesenteric disease made in Beaujon hospital were selected. A histological study and a systematic immunostaining with IgG4, CD3 and CD8 antibodies were performed for each patient with paraffin block available. Dysimmune features were defined by: a plasma cells component>30 %, an eosinophilic polynuclears component>10 %, a rate TCD8/CD3>30 % and IgG4+ plasma cells>30/high power field (x400). Cases were classified in 3 forms on the basis of the predominant component: MP (lymphoid/plasma cell infiltrate), SM (fibrosis), ML (fat necrosis). Thirteen patients (7 men, 6 women) were selected, with a mean age of 57 years (21-80 years); a paraffin block was available for 10 patients. The clinical and histological presentations were heterogeneous: a mesenteric mass was the most frequent mode of revelation (6/13 patients) and all histological forms were present (3 MP, 5 SM and 5 ML). Nine patients had surgical biopsy, 2 had a trephine biopsy and 2 a resection. Standard histological analysis showed numerous eosinophils (>or =10 %) and plasma cells (>30 %) in respectively 3 (23 %) and 6 (46 %) of the 13 cases. The immunohistochemistry (performed in 10 patients) showed numerous TCD8+ in 80 % of the cases and numerous IgG4+ plasma cells in only 31 % of the cases (4 cases) (IgG4+>30/x400).",
"no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.",
"yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.",
"yes. These results suggest that the IgA anti-tTG response in coeliac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis is focused on the region of tTG responsible for its transamidation and deamidation reactions, whereas the IgG response may target other regions of the enzyme.",
"Clinical or biochemical autoimmune stigmata are present in 40% of patients with ICP. Autoimmune mechanisms may be frequent in idiopathic pancreatitis.",
"Valvular regurgitation, pericardial effusion, pulmonary hypertension and increased left ventricular mass index occur with disproportionately high frequency in patients with primary Sjögren's syndrome and no clinically apparent heart disease. Thus echocardiographic studies may need to be performed in these patients especially when palpable purpura, antibody reactivity and low C4 levels are present.",
"In 2012, European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition published novel guidelines on celiac disease (CD) diagnosis. Symptomatic children with serum anti-transglutaminase (anti-tTG) antibody levels ≥10 times upper limit of normal (ULN) could avoid duodenal biopsies after positive HLA test and serum anti-endomysial antibodies (EMAs). So far, both asymptomatic and symptomatic patients with anti-tTG titer<10 times ULN should undergo upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies to confirm diagnosis. The aim of this study was to assess the accuracy of serological tests to diagnose CD in asymptomatic patients. We retrospectively reviewed data of 286 patients (age range: 10 months to 17 years) with CD diagnosis based on elevated titer of anti-tTG, EMA positivity, and histology. All patients were distinguished between symptomatic and asymptomatic; histological lesions were graded according to the Marsh-Oberhuber (MO) criteria. Fisher exact test was applied to analyze both groups in terms of diagnostic reliability of serological markers. A total of 196 patients (68.53%) had anti-tTG titers ≥10 times ULN. Among them, a group of 156 patients (79.59%) also had symptoms suggestive of CD (\"high-titer\" symptomatic); of these, 142 patients (91.02%) showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). Conversely, 40 out of 196 patients (20.40%) were asymptomatic (\"high-titer\" asymptomatic) and 37 patients (92.5%) of them showed severe lesion degree (3a, 3b, 3c MO). No difference in histological damage was found between \"high-titer\" symptomatic and \"high-titer\" asymptomatic children (Fisher exact test, P=1.000).",
"yes. Extraluminal duodenal diverticula are frequently found. They rarely cause symptoms and need no surgical treatment. While ampullary duodenal diverticula can cause chronic pancreatitis, periampullary duodenal diverticula are no etiologic factor.",
"Atopy and systemic onset juvenile idiopathic arthritis (SoJIA) are two potential outcomes of a dysregulated immune system. Although rare, SoJIA causes 60% of the morbidity of JIA patients which exhibit a wide heterogeneity of prognosis and treatment. Co-morbidities can complicate the responses to therapy. To study the influence of co-existing atopy on the prognosis of SoJIA. Patients diagnosed with SoJIA between Jan 2006 and Sep 2010 were screened, enrolled in this prospective cohort study, and followed for 2 years. Management of SoJIA patients was assessed by ACR Pedi30/50/70 criteria, laboratory variables, and systemic feature score. At disease onset, 61 SoJIA patients (34 male and 27 female) were enrolled and were divided into SoJIA patients with atopy (n = 27) or those without atopy (n = 34). Atopic group at disease onset had significantly higher numbers of affected joints, ferritin levels and IgE serum levels than the non-atopic group. At 3 and 6 months, fewer SoJIA patients with atopy reached the ACR Pedi50 criteria (p < 0.02). During the 2 years of follow-up time, the number of infections and the number of flares were significantly higher in the SoJIA with atopy group (p < 0.01).",
"yes. The idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease associated with gastrointestinal symptoms in CVID is a unique combination of diverse histologic findings accompanied by excessive Th1 cytokine production, distinct from that in Crohn's disease. These data show that human gut mucosal inflammatory disease can occur with excess interleukin-12 and interferon-gamma production alone and provide a rationale for developing targeted therapies for this complication of CVID.",
"no. Carefully selected clinically stable patients that have postoperative pneumatosis intestinalis or exhibit rectal bleeding may be successfully managed by reduced enteral feedings with no antibiotics. J Pediatr Surg 36:1820-1823.",
"Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is the commonest childhood cause of acute renal failure. Peritoneal dialysis peritonitis (PDP) is a well-recognised complication, with some children requiring surgical intervention (SI). The aim of this study is to determine whether the presence of enteric organisms in cases of PDP might predict the need for SI. Retrospective, 5-year (2009-2014) case note review of all HUS cases requiring PD presenting to a single centre. Mann-Whitney U test was used for continuous non-parametric data and χ (2) for categorical data. 48 children required PD for HUS, 18/48 (38 %) developed PDP and of these 5/18 (28 %) required SI (subtotal colectomy n = 4, small bowel resection n = 1). Peritoneal fluid was cultured as part of the work-up for PDP. The presence of enteric organisms was associated with a 10.4 fold relative risk of requiring surgery (p = 0.02, 95 % CI 1.5-71.9), with 4/5 of these patients requiring surgery (median 17 days post-culture result). Only 1/13 patients not requiring surgery grew gram-negative bacteria.",
"In small vessel vasculitis and its renal-limited form, idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis, renal damage is characterized by pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (CGN) without histological evidence of immunoglobulin (Ig) deposition. In some patients, however, significant amounts of immune deposits may be detected. Therefore, we evaluated the clinical significance of these immune deposits in anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody (ANCA)-associated pauci-immune CGN. Renal biopsies of 45 consecutive patients with new onset of Wegener's granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis and idiopathic CGN were retrospectively evaluated by light microscopy, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy and the findings compared with renal function and outcome. Typical pauci-immune CGN was found in 37 patients (group I). In eight patients (18%; group II), however, histopathological examination revealed substantial deposition of Ig in the mesangium and/or along the glomerular basement membrane. Five of these eight patients were cANCA positive; two initially had pANCA and developed a cANCA pattern and one was pANCA positive. There were no differences between groups in age, gender, renal function or extra-renal organ involvement at the time of biopsy. However, patients in group II had significantly more proteinuria (5.4+/-3.1 vs 1.3+/-1.0 g/24 h; P=0.016). We also observed a trend for a worse outcome with respect to renal function and mortality in group II patients; however, the differences did not reach significance.",
"To assess the influence of interleukin-8 (IL-8), epithelial cell-derived neutrophil-activating peptide (ENA-78), and regulated upon activation normal T cell expressed and secreted (RANTES) gene polymorphisms in the susceptibility and clinical expression of patients fulfilling classification criteria for Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). Fifty patients (25 men) from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP according to proposed criteria were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-8, ENA-78, and RANTES gene polymorphisms. No allele or genotype differences between patients fulfilling HSP classification criteria and controls were observed for any of the chemokines. However, a significantly increased frequency of allele A of the IL-8 gene polymorphism was found in patients with HSP who developed renal manifestations compared with patients without renal involvement (p = 0.02; pcorr = 0.036). Moreover, the genotype distribution in HSP patients with and without renal involvement showed statistically significant differences (p = 0.02).",
"This series of cases demonstrates the importance of considering G lamblia as a cause for GI symptoms even in the absence of diarrhea. Routine procurement of duodenal biopsy specimens is valuable for recognition of atypical presentations of patients with G lamblia and avoiding delays in diagnosis.",
"Peptic ulcers and erosions (PU&E) are thought to be uncommon in children. Patients with early exposure to Helicobacter pylori may be at a higher risk for early onset PU&E. Children in Israel have a high prevalence and early acquisition of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) and have easy access to pediatric gastroenterologists and endoscopy. Our aim was to describe the prevalence and characteristics of PU&E in this population referred by Pediatric Gastroenterologists for an upper endoscopy. We conducted a retrospective study over the years January 2003-May 2006. Over these years we had information on 751 diagnostic upper endoscopies. PU&E was regarded as erosive gastritis/duodenitis or ulcer in either the stomach or duodenum. H. pylori status was assessed using rapid urease test and gastric biopsies. PU&E was detected in 169 (22.5%) patients (ulcers 51 (6.8%), erosions 118 (15.7%)). One hundred twenty-four had gastric PU&E and 58 had duodenal PU&E. H. pylori was positive in 112 (66.3%). H. pylori-associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years, with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Most of the H. pylori-negative PU&E were idiopathic and improved symptomatically on PPI treatment. Interestingly, 43% of patients with PU&E in our cohort were either immigrants from the former Soviet Union or of Israeli Arab origin.",
"yes. This multicenter study further demonstrated that the multiple domains of ADAMTS13, particularly the Cys-rich and spacer domains, are frequently targeted by anti-ADAMTS13 type G immunoglobulins in patients with acquired (idiopathic) thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. Our data shed more light on the pathogenesis of acquired thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and provide further rationales for adjunctive immunotherapy.",
"In total, 66 children diagnosed with HSP for the first time and a control group of 25 healthy children were included. The cases were divided into mild and severe groups on the basis of GIS findings. FC was measured twice in all patients with HSP: within 3 days of onset of disease (FC1) and on day 15 (FC2). These results were compared with those of the control group. Faecal occult blood, gastric wall thickness and duodenal wall thickness were measured at the same time as FC1 in all patients, and the presence of renal involvement was recorded. Of the 66 patients, 37 (56%) were females (mean age, 7.5±2.9 years; range, 2.5-14.5 years) and were diagnosed with HSP. Renal involvement was detected in 19 (28%) cases and GIS involvement was found in 28 (43%) cases. GIS involvement was mild in 16 (53%) cases and severe in 12 (43%). A significant difference was detected in FC1 levels between the groups with and without GIS involvement (P=0.01). A marked difference was observed in FC1 levels between the groups with and without renal involvement (P=0.017).",
"Only one diagnostic parameter is not available for acute appendicitis. For the establishment of diagnosis, combination of medical history, clinical, laboratory tests, and radiological imaging modalities are used so as to decrease the rates of negative laparotomy and morbidity secondary to delay in diagnosis. Thepresent study aimed to determine haematological and inflammatory markers which will be used in the discrimination of acute appendicitis (AA) and renal colic which are the most frequent and indistinguishable causes of abdominal pain in patients applying to the emergency service. A total of 215 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were histopathologically diagnosed as AA, and 200 patients who presented with abdominal pain and who were diagnosed as renal colic were included into the study. Control group consisted of 61 patients without any complaints who came to the outpatient clinics of internal medicine only for blood counts. Analyzed blood samples were WBC, RDW, Hb, MCV, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. All differences associated with a chance probability of.05 or less were considered statistically significant. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and renal colic groups as for age, WBC, Hb, MCV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between AA and control groups regarding age, WBC, Hb, RDW, MPV, neutrophil, lymphocyte, NLR and PLR. A statistically significant intergroup difference was seen between renal colic and control groups as for age, WBC, RDW, MPV, neutrophil and NLR. In ROC curve analysis, the area under AUCs for WBC, neutrophil, NLR and PLR were 0.896, 0.916, 0.888 and 0.725, respectively (p≤0.05).",
"ADAMTS13 deficiency leading to excess ultralarge von Willebrand factor (VWF) multimers and platelet clumping is typically found in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (a type of thrombotic microangiopathy). Idiopathic noncirrhotic intrahepatic portal hypertension (NCIPH) is a microangiopathy of portal venules associated with significant thrombocytopenia and predisposing gut disorders. To determine whether the portal microangiopathy in NCIPH is associated with ADAMTS13 deficiency. Plasma levels of ADAMTS13, anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, and VWF were compared between cases (NCIPH patients) and controls (with chronic liver diseases of other etiology) matched for severity of liver dysfunction. Eighteen NCIPH patients [median (range) MELD score 12 (7-25)] and 25 controls [MELD score 11 (4-26)] were studied. ADAMTS13 activity was reduced in all 18 NCIPH patients and significantly lower than controls (median, IQR: 12.5%, 5-25% and 59.0%, 44-84%, respectively, P<0.0001) [normal range for plasma ADAMTS13 activity (55-160%)]. ADAMTS13 activity was <5% in 5/18 NCIPH patients (28%) and 0/25 controls (P=0.009). ADAMTS13 antigen levels were also decreased. Sustained low ADAMTS13 levels were seen in four NCIPH patients over 6 weeks to 11 months (highest ADAMTS13 level in each patient: <5%, 6%, 6%, and 25%), despite two patients having MELD score 12. Although nine cases had low titer anti-ADAMTS13 antibodies, there was no significant difference between cases and controls. Abnormally large VWF multimers were observed in 4/11 NCIPH patients (36%) and in 0/22 controls (P=0.008).",
"yes. In this series of patients there was no evidence of an underlying vasculitic cause for the PUK. A localized autoimmune response may, however, be involved in the pathogenesis of these cases, as seen in an animal model of chemical injury or in late mustard gas keratitis. We hope that this case series will bring this newly described condition to the attention of ophthalmologists and that this may assist in their treatment, which, in this series, required systemic immunosuppressive therapy.",
"yes. This study confirms recent reports of duodenal eosinophilia in FD. The high rate of atopic and psychological co-morbidity in FD suggests multi-factorial mechanisms and may explain why current therapeutic options aimed at symptom control are largely unsatisfactory. Duodenal eosinophilia in FD should be considered a therapeutic target.",
"To assess the influence of interleukin 1 receptor antagonist gene polymorphism (IL1RN) in the incidence of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) and cutaneous leukocytoclastic angiitis (CLA) and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP or hypersensitivity vasculitis (HV) according to proposed criteria were studied. Patients with HV were included if they had a biopsy proven small size blood vessel leukocytoclastic vasculitis limited to skin and also fulfilled the Chapel Hill Consensus Conference on the Nomenclature of Systemic Vasculitis definitions for CLA. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls were genotyped for IL-1 receptor antagonist intron 2 VNTR polymorphism. We examined 96 Caucasian patients (58 HSP and 38 CLA) and 109 controls. No allele or genotype differences between the whole group of HSP or CLA patients and controls were observed. We found a significant association between carriage of IL-1 receptor antagonist allele 2 (ILRN*2) and severe renal involvement, manifested as nephrotic syndrome and/or renal insufficiency (p = 0.016), and permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae) (p = 0.012).",
"no. A minority of referred primary care patients with lower GI complaints both fulfilled the Rome III criteria for irritable bowel syndrome and lacked alarm symptoms. Although organic bowel disease could be ruled out safely in this small group, application of the Rome III criteria is not likely to lead to a considerable reduction in unnecessary referrals for colonoscopy in these patients.",
"Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) and the hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) share many clinical features and have been difficult to separate into distinct entities. Histologic examination of organs from autopsied patients suggested that TTP and HUS have dissimilar lesions of different severity and distribution. To perform a retrospective observational review of autopsied patients with TTP or HUS to compare the nature and severity of the lesions found. To examine the pathologic features of these conditions, we reviewed all cases among 51 350 indexed autopsies at The Johns Hopkins Hospital (Baltimore, Md) diagnosed with TTP or HUS, and included those showing multiple arteriolar thrombi or their sequela. The 56 cases that met the inclusion criteria fell into 2 distinct groups, based on distribution and severity of arteriolar lesions. In 25 patients classified as having TTP, platelet-rich thrombi were present-in decreasing severity-in heart, pancreas, kidney, adrenal gland, and brain. In 31 patients with HUS, fibrin/red cell-rich thrombi were present, largely confined to the kidney and often severe, and only 6 cases showed pancreas involvement, 4 adrenal gland involvement, 2 brain involvement, and 1 heart involvement.",
"To assess the contribution of 2 polymorphisms within the inducible nitric oxide (NOS2A) promoter region to the susceptibility to Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), and to determine if implications exist with severe systemic complications of HSP, in particular with severe renal involvement and permanent renal dysfunction (renal sequelae). Fifty-eight patients from Northwest Spain with primary cutaneous vasculitis classified as HSP were studied. All patients were required to have had at least 2 years' followup. Patients and ethnically matched controls (n=251) were genotyped by PCR based techniques for a multiallelic (CCTTT)n and for the biallelic TAAA repeat in the promoter region of the NOS2A gene. HSP patients exhibited a significantly increased frequency of the NOS2A short (8-11) CCTTTn alleles (OR 1.64, 95% CI 1.09-2.47, p=0.017) and genotypes (OR 3.59, 95% CI 1.79-7.20, p=0.0002) compared to controls, particularly when patients with nephritis were compared with controls. However, when the NOS2A TAAA repeat polymorphism was assessed, no differences were found.",
"Immunoglobulin (Ig)A nephropathy (IgAN) is the most common form of primary glomerulonephritis in the world. Some bacteria were reported to be the candidate of the antigen or the pathogenesis of IgAN, but systematic analysis of bacterial flora in tonsil with IgAN has not been reported. Moreover, these bacteria specific to IgAN might be candidate for the indicator which can predict the remission of IgAN treated by the combination of tonsillectomy and steroid pulse. We made a comprehensive analysis of tonsil flora in 68 IgAN patients and 28 control patients using Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis methods. We also analyzed the relationship between several bacteria specific to the IgAN and the prognosis of the IgAN. Treponema sp. were identified in 24% IgAN patients, while in 7% control patients (P = 0.062). Haemophilus segnis were detected in 53% IgAN patients, while in 25% control patients (P = 0.012). Campylobacter rectus were identified in 49% IgAN patients, while in 14% control patients (P = 0.002). Multiple Cox proportional-hazards model revealed that Treponema sp. or Campylobactor rectus are significant for the remission of proteinuria (Hazard ratio 2.35, p = 0.019). There was significant difference in remission rates between IgAN patients with Treponema sp. and those without the bacterium (p = 0.046), and in remission rates between IgAN patients with Campylobacter rectus and those without the bacterium (p = 0.037) by Kaplan-Meier analysis. Those bacteria are well known to be related with the periodontal disease. Periodontal bacteria has known to cause immune reaction and many diseases, and also might cause IgA nephropathy.",
"H. pylori prevalence was similar in celiac disease patients and in controls and higher in patients with milder duodenal lesions. There was no association between H. pylori infection and duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis.",
"-Jejunoileal neuroendocrine tumors (JINETs) are slow-growing, malignant tumors that are often associated with protracted survival, despite their frequent presentation at an advanced stage. A subset of JINETs is complicated by intestinal ischemic necrosis (IIN), which leads to their initial clinical presentation. -To assess the effect of IIN on overall survival in patients with JINETs. -Ten JINETs with IIN during a 14-year period and a control group of 52 JINETs without IIN were identified retrospectively. The hematoxylin-eosin slides and gross descriptions were reviewed, and pathologic features were assessed. Overall survival was compared between the 2 groups using the Kaplan Meier method and Cox proportional hazards model. -At 1 year postresection, only 40% (4 of 10) of the patients with IIN were alive, whereas 94% (49 of 52) of those without IIN were alive (P < .001). Patients with IIN were significantly older than those without IIN (median, 83 years versus 65.5 years, P = .001). By univariate Cox proportional hazards regression, IIN was associated with a 4.30-fold increased risk of death (95% confidence interval 1.75-10.56; P = .001). When controlling for age, advanced stage (stage III or IV), tumor grade, and synchronous carcinoma in a multivariate analysis, IIN showed a trend toward prognostic significance (2.31-fold increased risk of death; 95% confidence interval, 0.85-6.27; P = .10).",
"yes. Helicobacter-negative gastritis and duodenitis occur significantly more often in paediatric IBD patients than in non-IBD controls, as well as in adult IBD patients. Such upper gastrointestinal inflammation appears to be particularly common in patients with Crohn's disease.",
"Based on single case reports, parvovirus B19 (B19) has repeatedly been proposed as an etiologic agent in patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), perhaps causing vasculitis by direct invasion of vascular endothelial cells because of the tissue distribution of the cellular B19 receptor. A cohort of children with HSP and other vasculitic diseases was investigated and compared with healthy control children to assess the role of B19 as well as parvovirus V9 (a putative emerging B19-like virus). Serum samples from 36 children with HSP (n = 29) or other vasculitic diseases (n = 7) were examined, and 38 healthy bone marrow donors were used as controls. The presence of specific B19 and V9 IgM and IgG antibodies was determined with a recently developed enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, and viral DNA was detected by a novel nested PCR. Specific IgM was not present in any of the patient or control serum samples. B19 DNA was detected in one patient, a previously healthy 8-year-old boy diagnosed with HSP, whereas none of the controls was B19-positive. V9 was not detected in any of the clinical or control samples. It seems likely that B19 infection might have triggered the development of HSP in the B19-positive patient, because B19 viremia is otherwise uncommon.",
"This study suggests that the pathogenesis of intestinal metaplasia at the SCJ is not uniform: at an endoscopically unremarkable SCJ it is a sequela of H pylori gastritis, but coexisting with endoscopic features of Barrett's oesophagus it is associated with male sex and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.",
"The epidemiology of reactive gastropathy and its relationship with other conditions of the gastrointestinal tract associated with NSAID use have not been evaluated. To test the hypothesis that if reactive gastropathy shares common aetiological factors with these conditions, the analysis of a large cohort would unveil associations. We queried a national pathology database for subjects with a diagnosis of reactive gastropathy; controls were patients with normal gastric biopsies. We also extracted diagnoses of H. pylori infection, intestinal metaplasia, duodenal lymphocytosis, duodenitis, ileitis, microscopic colitis and focal colitis. Of 504 011 patients with gastric biopsies, 69 101 had oesophageal, 166 134 duodenal, 13 010 ileal and 83 334 colonic biopsies. Reactive gastropathy was diagnosed in 15.6% of patients, H. pylori infection in 10.3% and normal gastric mucosa in 16.3%. Reactive gastropathy was evenly distributed across the US and increased from 2.0% in the first decade of life to >20% in octogenarians. Compared with controls, reactive gastropathy was significantly associated with Barrett's mucosa (OR 1.21 95% CI 1.16-129); duodenitis (OR 1.36; 95% CI 1.28-1.44); duodenal intraepithelial lymphocytosis (OR 1.25; 95% CI 1.13-1.39); active ileitis (OR 1.88; 95% CI 1.47-2.40); focal active colitis (OR 1.57; 95% CI 1.33-1.86); and collagenous colitis (OR 1.50; 95% CI 1.12-2.03).",
"The effect of Helicobacter pylori eradication on the platelet count in patients with thrombocytopenic purpura is controversial. In this multicentre study, we prospectively assessed the effect of H. pylori eradication therapy in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients. Thirty-five consecutive patients with chronic idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (11 males and 24 females, a median age of 57) were assessed for H. pylori infection by use of a urea breath test. All patients received 1-week triple therapy (amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and lansoprazole) to eradicate H. pylori. At 6 months, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients with a platelet count recovery of greater than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) were defined as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders. Helicobacter pylori infection was observed in 25 (71%) of the 35 patients. All infected patients were cured. Eleven patients were identified as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura responders; 24 were considered nonresponders. Platelet counts improved by more than 100 x 10(9) L(-1) in 11 (44%) of the 25 patients cured of H. pylori infection, while none of the 10 patients H. pylori-negative patients experienced the same improvement (P = 0.015). Univariate analysis showed that H. pylori infection and its eradication were significant factors associated with platelet recovery (P = 0.015).",
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a small sized vasculitis affecting mainly children. Intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1) gene polymorphisms have recently been implicated in the susceptibility to some vasculitides. To further investigate the clinical implication of ICAM-1 polymorphisms in HSP, we examined their potential association and influence in the development of severe complications in an unselected series of patients with HSP. Fifty-two patients, of which 41 were children, were diagnosed with HSP using classification criteria of Michel, et al at the Hospital Xeral-Calde (Lugo, Spain); 129 ethnically matched controls were included. Patients had at least one year of followup. Patients and controls were genotyped by allelic oligonucleotide techniques for ICAM-I polymorphism at codon 241 and 469. The frequency distribution of the alleles and genotypes for each ICAM-1 polymorphism did not show significant differences between HSP patients and controls. Also, no differences between patients with or without renal manifestations were found. However, the frequency of the codon 469 K/E genotype was significantly decreased in patients without severe gastrointestinal manifestations compared to those with them (22.29 vs 65%, OR 0.1, p = 0.02, after correction for age, sex, and disease duration). None of the 11 adults exhibited the R/G genotype at codon 241 compared with 7 of 41 children (OR 0.0, 95% CI 0.0-2.9, p = 0.14). Patients with the R/G genotype were associated with low incidence of renal manifestations and none developed permanent renal involvement (renal sequelae); however, this finding did not achieve statistical significance.",
"The proportion of patients with idiopathic chronic pancreatitis (ICP) that have an autoimmune origin is unknown. Three forms of ICP have been described: pseudotumoral, duct-destructive, and usual chronic pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to identify autoimmune stigmata in the 3 forms. All patients who underwent exploration for ICP were included. The following data were recorded: examination by an internal medicine specialist, autoantibodies and immunoglobulin screening, and pancreatic duct imaging. Sixty patients were included (pseudotumoral, n = 11; duct-destructive, n = 27; usual, n = 22). There were no significant differences among the 3 types with regard to sex ratio, age, frequency of acute pancreatitis, or obstructive jaundice. Pancreatic calcifications were seen only in the usual form (81%; P = .0001). Autoimmune disease was present in 10 patients: ulcerative colitis in 5 patients, primary sclerosing cholangitis in 2 patients, and Sjögren's syndrome, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, and Graves' disease in 1 patient each. Autoimmune diseases were not more frequent in patients with pseudotumoral (36%) or duct-destructive (19%) forms than in those with the usual form (5%, P = .06). Immunoglobulin G4 levels were increased in 2 of 6 in the pseudotumoral, 1 of 9 in the duct-destructive, and 0 of 12 patients in the usual group. Combining clinical and biochemical autoimmune parameters, 24 patients (40%) had at least 1 autoimmune marker or disease.",
"Chronic antibiotic-refractory pouchitis (CARP) occurs more frequently in patients with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) with concomitant autoimmune disorders. The aim of this study was to assess the overlap between dysregulated immune features in patients with IPAA and their association with CARP. We identified 150 symptomatic patients with IPAA who met inclusion criteria, including measurement of select autoimmune serology. Demographic and clinical variables were compared between patients with and without CARP. Autoimmune thyroid disease was more frequent among patients with CARP. The frequency of primary sclerosing cholangitis (16.7% versus 5.3%; P = 0.04) and serum positivity for microsomal antibody (25% versus 6.1%, P = 0.003) were significantly greater in patients with CARP compared with non-CARP patients, respectively. Increased tissue infiltration by IgG4-expressing plasma cells was detected in 17 of 31 patients (54.8%) in the CARP group as compared with 10/67 (14.9%) in the non-CARP group (P = 0.0001). Forty-seven percent of patients in the CARP group versus 22.8% in the non-CARP group had at least 2 immune features (P = 0.019). Among patients with IgG4 histology, 87% of patients in the CARP group versus 60% in the non-CARP group had at least 1 immune marker (P = 0.004). On multivariate analysis, microsomal antibody expression (odds ratio, 6.8; 95% confidence interval, 1.3-42.6; P = 0.02) and increased IgG4-expressing plasma cells tissue infiltration (odds ratio, 9.6; 95% confidence interval, 3.2-32.6, P = 0.0001) were risk factors for CARP.",
"Most of the palpable purpuras examined were indeed related to leukocytoclastic vasculitis. In the remaining cases, biopsy did not contribute to the diagnosis since it only showed purpura without vessel wall inflammation. In our opinion, a skin biopsy is thus not essential where the clinical presentation is typical.",
"Our results demonstrate that inflammatory mesenteric diseases are heterogeneous: high components of plasma cells, eosinophils and TCD8+ lymphocytes were found respectively in 46, 23 and 80 % of cases; eosinophils were observed exclusively in sclerotic forms. Only 31 % of cases encompass numerous IgG4+ plasma cells, suggesting a pathogenesis different than hyper-IgG4 diseases.",
"The prevalence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection is high in China. It not only causes the damage of gastric epithelium, but also plays a potential pathogenic role in several extraintestinal diseases. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is one of the most common vasculitis syndromes affecting children. Although its cause is unclear, HSP is often considered to be associated with infectious agents. This metaanalysis of previously published studies was conducted using a predefined protocol to evaluate the underlying association between H. pylori infection and HSP in Chinese children. Predefined search strategy and inclusion criteria were set up to select studies reporting the prevalence of H. pylori infection among HSP children and control groups. Included studies were subjected to quality assessment and data extraction by two independent reviewers. The pooled odds ratio (OR) was calculated as the effect size via both traditional and cumulative meta-analysis. Heterogeneity was investigated by subgroup analysis, and the nonparametric \"trim and fill\" method was performed to adjust the overall estimate for the existence of publication bias. Ten eligible studies covering 749 HSP children and 560 controls were included for metaanalysis. Observational epidemiology studies clearly aimed at detecting the potential association between H. pylori infection and HSP with retrospective data collection from the children enrolled consecutively. Overall, 49.27% (369/749) of HSP children had evidence of H. pylori infection compared with 23.39% (131/560) of children in the control group. The pooled OR of H. pylori infection in HSP children (10 studies with 749 HSP children) was 3.80 [95% confidence interval (CI): 2.54-5.68, P<0.001], and the overall estimate from the cumulative meta-analysis confirmed the association with more narrow confidence interval (OR=3.35, 95% CI: 2.95-3.81). In HSP children mainly with abdominal manifestations (8 studies with 337 HSP children), the pooled OR was 4.62 (95% CI: 2.66-8.01, P<0.001). The adjusted pooled OR was 2.04 (95% CI: 1.48-2.82, P<0.001), determined by the nonparametric \"trim-andfill\" method for eliminating the effect of publication bias. H. pylori eradication therapy (4 studies with 266 HSP children) was capable of reducing the recurrence of HSP (RR=0.38, 95% CI: 0.25-0.58, P<0.001). Although the subgroup analysis for heterogeneity suggested that diagnostic methods and geographical diversity might be account for the heterogeneity, statistical analysis of differences revealed no differences between subgroups, indicating their limited impact on the overall estimates.",
"Duodenal biopsies were performed in less than half of the patients. In those not diagnosed with coeliac disease or upper gastrointestinal carcinoma, only three quarters underwent lower gastrointestinal assessment. Approximately 10% were diagnosed with gastrointestinal malignancy as a cause for their anaemia and in 66% of patients no gastrointestinal cause was found. All physicians need to be made fully aware of the BSG guidelines for investigation of IDA.",
"yes. In this study of patients unselected regarding IgA-tTg/EmA, thus unbiased in this respect, IgA/IgG-DGP identified adult coeliac disease patients negative for antibodies against endomysium and tissue transglutaminase. Serology is often negative in elderly patients with coeliac disease; a small bowel biopsy should therefore be performed generously before coeliac disease is excluded.",
"Patients with C. jejuni-related Guillain-Barré syndrome can show transient slowing of nerve conduction, mimicking demyelination, but C. jejuni infection does not appear to elicit acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.",
"TCRgamma clonality does not represent a marker of early disease. However, it might be useful to help in distinguishing celiac disease from other causes of nonspecific duodenitis.",
"yes. A substantial number of WD patients present without typical intestinal histology findings. Additional PCR analysis of intestinal tissue or synovial fluid increased the sensitivity of the diagnostic evaluation and should be considered particularly in patients presenting with atypical seronegative rheumatic diseases and a high-risk profile for WD.",
"no. DGE after PPPD seems to be of minor clinical importance following uncomplicated surgery. When taking the results into consideration, it can be said that, despite the lack of a control group, antecolic duodenojejunostomy might be the key to a low incidence of DGE after PPPD. In our experience, DGE is linked to the occurrence of other postoperative complications rather than to pylorus preservation.",
"The association of positive HLA-DQ2/DQ8 and serologic testing has a high predictive value for CD. We suggest that symptomatic children with high titers of immunoglobulin (Ig)A tTG could be diagnosed as patients with CD without performing jejunal biopsy. In other children, HLA-DQ2/DQ8 could be useful to exclude the diagnosis of CD if negative. In cases of low IgA tTG titers or in patients with IgA deficiency, intestinal biopsy remains mandatory.",
"yes. PU&E appears to be common in this selected population with a relatively high incidence of gastric PU&E. H. pylori associated PU&E becomes common after age 10 years with gastric PU&E presenting much earlier than duodenal disease. Non H. pylori PU&E in children comprises approximately a third of all PU&E, are mostly idiopathic and appear earlier than H. pylori associated PU&E.",
"Sera from 30 consecutive pediatric patients with IBD were evaluated for ANCA-indirect immunofluorescence and its specific antibodies to investigate whether PR3-ANCA positivity (PR3-ANCA+) identifies a distinct IBD subtype. The 5 PR3-ANCA+ patients (17%) showed significantly more concomitant biliary disease and severe anal blood loss (P<0.05). None had vasculitis features at diagnosis nor during follow-up.",
"yes. Children with a clinical diagnosis of RAP have marked duodenal eosinophilia, independent of H. pylori infection, suggesting the role of unknown infectious or allergic triggers in the pathogenesis of functional gastrointestinal disorders in childhood. Further research is needed on the diagnostic and therapeutic benefits of targeting duodenal eosinophilia.",
"Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (HSPN) is the most serious long-term complication of Henoch-Schönlein purpura and aberrant galactosylation of IgA1 plays a role in its development. However, the precise role of genetic factors contributing to the abnormal IgA1 galactosylation remains unknown. In order to examine the effects of C1GALT1 gene encoding core 1 β1,3-galactosyltransferase, an important role in the β1,3 glycosylation of IgA1, on HSPN susceptibility, we conducted a case-control association genetic study in 269 HSP and 61 HSPN in China. Five tagging SNPs, SNP1(-734 C/T), SNP4(-465A/G), SNP6(-330 G/T), SNP7(-292 C/-), and SNP8(1365 G/A) in C1GALT1 were studied using single-locus and haplotype-based multilocus analysis. Our results demonstrated that 1365 G allele frequency was significantly higher in HSPN patients than in HSP patients without nephritis (0.459 vs 0.331, p = 0.0008, adjusted p' = 0.004) with an odds ratio (OR) = 1.716, 95%CI 1.151-2.560). The GG genotype of 1,365 G/A was significantly different in HSP without nephritis and HSPN (p = 0.008, adjusted p'' = 0.04). We did not observe statistically significant differences in haplotype frequencies between HSPN and HSP patients.",
"The main aim of this study was to evaluate the relationship between obesity and renal involvement in children with Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). A retrospective study of 141 pediatric patients with HSP was conducted in our hospital. The clinical data of all patients were collected from the electronic medical record management system from January 2010 to June 2014. The possible risk factors of renal involvement, especially obesity, were analyzed using univariate and multivariate analyses. Renal involvement occurred in 45/141 of the patients. A univariate analysis showed that an age more than 7 years at onset, persistent purpura, obesity, time from symptoms onset to diagnosis more than 14 days, and decreased C3 all increased the risk of renal involvement in HSP. The forward stepwise logistic regression analysis indicated obesity (odds ratio (OR) 4.43, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.896 to 10.358), age more than 7 years at onset (OR 2.81, 95 % CI 1.142 to 6.907), and persistent purpura (OR 2.57, 95 % CI 1.119 to 5.909) were independent risk factors for renal involvement.",
"Duodenojejunal inflammation may be the primary manifestation of HSP, even in the absence of the characteristic rash.",
"Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a fairly common disease in children and adolescents. There are only limited data available for adults. A retrospective analysis was conducted to study renal manifestations in patients with HSP treated in our institution between 1982 and 2007. We divided our adult cohort according to age - under or over 60 years - to examine differences in elderly patients. HSP was identified in 2.2% of patients referred to us for kidney biopsy. Purpuric lesions and renal involvement were found in all patients. An important triggering factor for the development of HSP in our series was chronic alcohol intake. Forty percent of our patients fulfilled the WHO criteria for alcoholics. Renal involvement was particularly prominent in patients over 60 years of age. At disease onset, estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was 63% lower in the elderly. Within a median follow-up of 8 years, renal function was significantly better in younger adults than in the elderly. 32% of the elderly have shown Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) < 20 ml/min/1.73 m2 in contrast to only 7% in patients < 60 years. Furthermore, significantly more elderly patients reached end-stage renal failure.",
"Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is also known as idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. Increased platelet destruction and insufficient platelet production are both responsible for its etiopathogenesis. ITP can be diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia. One hundred forty-three cases of chronic ITP that were monitored in a hematology clinic were retrospectively evaluated. All cases received first line treatment of 1 mg/kg/day prednisolone. Corticosteroid nonresponsive (CN) cases and corticosteroid-dependent (CD) cases underwent splenectomies. The rate of CN/CD cases was found to be 53% (n=76). Sixty-six percent of these cases (n=50) underwent splenectomies. The ratio of non-responsive cases to relapse cases after splenectomy (SN/SR) was 30% (n=15). The total number of cases was 41, including those without splenectomy (n=26) and with SY/SR (n=15). Helicobacter pylori (Hp) eradication, immunosuppressive agents and danazol treatments were administered to patients (n=10, n=14 and n=4, respectively). Currently, 13 patients are being monitored without treatment. Fifteen patients who were non-responsive to Hp eradication treatment, immunosuppressive treatment or danazol treatment are still being monitored without any treatment.",
"Henoch-Schoenlein purpura has been reported to be associated with parvovirus B19 infection, particularly in children and rarely in adults. We report the case of a 42-year-old patient presenting with this association. A 42-year-old patient was admitted to our medical center because of lower limb purpura. Henoch-Schoenlein purpura diagnosis was confirmed on histological findings (kidney biopsy) and concomitantly parvovirus B19 infection was proved by serological test (IgM+). Association of Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and parvovirus B19 infection has already been described. However, none of the reported studies demonstrated clearly the link between these two diseases. With regard to this observation, we wonder about the systematic use of the parvovirus B19 serological test in patients presenting first Henoch-Schoenlein purpura. Indeed, parvovirus B19-induced vasculitis is habitually controlled with intravenous immunoglobulins.",
"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection played a role in the pathogenesis of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura in approximately 30% of all patients assessed and 45% of the patients with H. pylori infection. Eradication of H. pylori in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura patients led to improved disease activity.",
"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune bleeding disorder, which occurs as a result of autoantibodies attachment to the platelets surface and subsequent destruction. Several organisms can mimic features of human antigens (Ags) and induce autoantibody production. One of these organisms is Helicobacter pylori (HP). We assessed the prevalence and relationship of HP infection with ITP in a population of children. One hundred and six children younger than 18 years old were enrolled in this case-control study in which 42 children with ITP were in the case group and 64 healthy children were in the control group. Stool exam for detection of HP-Ag were performed and the variables were compared between the two groups. Mean ± standard deviation age of case and control group was 6.4 ± 3.4 and 8.6 ± 4.4 years old, respectively. HP stool Ag differ significantly between the case and the control groups (P<0.05).",
"A prospective study should explore the link between Henoch-Schoenlein purpura and primary parvovirus B19 infection. Moreover, we should evaluate intravenous immunoglobulins' efficacy in Henoch-Schoenlein purpura associated with active parvovirus B19 infection in order to improve the prognosis of this disease.",
"To study the influence of deletion/insertion polymorphism in the 16th intron of the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) gene on clinical manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. Cross sectional study. ACE gene polymorphism was determined in patients (4-15 years old at onset) with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis (n = 40) and compared with that in patients with IgA nephropathy (n = 79). ACE genotypes, systemic blood pressures, urine protein excretion rate, haematuria, creatinine clearance, serum ACE activities. The initial clinical manifestations of both Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis and IgA nephropathy were no different among homozygotes for insertion (II) and deletion (DD), and heterozygotes (ID) for the ACE gene. In patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis, the incidence of moderate to heavy proteinuria at four and eight years after onset was more than five times higher in the DD genotype than in the II or ID genotypes. No such trend was seen in patients with IgA nephropathy. The number of patients with Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis in whom proteinuria resolved at four and eight years after onset was significantly lower in the DD genotype compared with the II genotype, whereas no differences were detected among the three different genotypes in patients with IgA nephropathy. Plasma ACE activities in patients with the DD genotype were significantly higher than in those with non-DD genotypes.",
"yes. The ACE DD genotype predicts persistent proteinuria in Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis. The proteinuria might be related to a defective angiotensin system which is genetically determined by the D/I polymorphism.",
"Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a multisystem disease believed to be a consequence of the entrapment of circulating IgA-containing immune complexes in blood vessel walls throughout the skin, kidneys, and gastrointestinal tract. The skin manifestations are characterized by nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura over the lower extremities. We assessed adult patients with HSP who had nonthrombocytopenic palpable purpura on the extensor surfaces of their lower limbs, and had no associated connective tissue disease. Patient medical records, including clinical presentation, laboratory data, and direct immunofluorescence (DIF) reports, were reviewed retrospectively. We reviewed the records of 25 adult patients with HSP who presented at our department, between 2006 and 2008, with an initial cutaneous manifestation of palpable purpura on their lower extremities. Adult HSP was defined in all cases as documented leukocytoclastic vasculitis according to a skin biopsy specimen, with histopathologic evidence of IgA deposition by DIF. Statistical analyses were performed using a χ(2) test to compare prevalence among each clinical manifestation. There was a significant correlation between IgM deposition by DIF and renal involvement (χ(2) = 5.23, P = .022). IgM deposition and complement 3 deposition by DIF showed a close relationship (χ(2) = 5.11, P = .024). There was a significant positive correlation between serum IgA and C-reactive protein levels (Spearman's rank correlation coefficient = 0.35, P = .044).",
"Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a small-vessel vasculitic disease that most often affects the skin. Gastrointestinal manifestations have been well described, including duodenojejunal inflammation (DJI). Four children with DJI and clinical features of HSP are described, in whom the rash was either not present or appeared atypically late in the illness. The characteristic rash did not develop in three children, and it developed much later in one. The patients (three boys and one girl) were aged between 7 and 9 years (mean, 7.5 years). Growth characteristics were normal. In all patients, pain occurred acutely with colicky abdominal pain in the spring or fall of the year, and all stools were positive for occult blood. No infectious cause was identified. Upper gastrointestinal endoscopic examinations demonstrated significant visual and histologic duodenitis in a pattern consistent with previous reports in children with known HSP. Factor XIII activity was absent. Immunoglobulin A levels were increased in three of four children. All children made a prompt recovery with the administration of intravenous glucocorticoids. In one child, the characteristic rash of HSP developed 18 weeks after the initial examination."
] | 595 |
Is health-related quality of life among older, chronically ill patients associated with unplanned readmission to hospital? | [
"Assessment of health-related quality of life (HRQL) is being used increasingly to assess the impact of treatment. To determine if HRQL, assessed shortly after acute hospitalisation, is associated with readmission to hospital. In a prospective, longitudinal study, 163 chronically ill, medical and surgical patients (mean age 67.0+/-16.3 years) discharged to home following acute hospitalisation were studied. HRQL was assessed at one month post-hospital discharge using the MOS 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36). Patients were followed-up for six months thereafter to determine subsequent incidence of unplanned readmission. HRQL as measured by the eight health dimensions of the SF-36, for the entire cohort, was lower relative to age and gender matched norms for the local population (p<0.01). During study follow-up, 47 (35%) patients had an unplanned readmission and one patient died. Patients who had an unplanned readmission demonstrated both significantly lower physical (32.2+/-9.8 vs 38.6+/-10.1: p<0.001) and mental (45.1+/-12.7 vs 49.9+/-12.3: p=0.03) health component scores in comparison to the remainder of the cohort. On multivariate analysis, independent correlates of unplanned readmission were: 1) presence of formal home assistance (OR 6.4: p<0.01), 2)>or =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score of<or =40 (OR 2.2: p=0.05).",
"In this cohort of predominantly older and chronically ill patients recently discharged from acute hospital care, relatively lower SF-36 physical health component scores were independently associated with an increased risk of subsequent unplanned readmission."
] | [
"Although HIV status was associated with increased inflammatory markers, our results highlight reduced morbidity in those receiving ART and underscore the need of pro-actively extending these services to HIV-uninfected older adults, beyond mere provision at fixed clinics. Providing health services through regular community chronic disease screening would ensure health care reaches all older adults in need.",
"Although patients' reports of health status and functioning have been shown to be reliable and valid measures for use in health care research, there is limited information on their practical utility in clinical settings. The purpose of this study was to determine if patients' reports of physical and psychosocial health status have prognostic value by predicting future hospital stays in acute myocardial infarction (AMI) patients. Research design was an observational, longitudinal follow-up study involving a sample of 132 AMI patients recently discharged from nine community hospitals. One hundred twelve patients (85%) completed the study. Patient reports of general health status, diagnosis-specific measures of health status, medical history, and demographic characteristics were collected one to two months post AMI; follow-up data were gathered six months later to identify occurrence of new cardiac-related stays. Poor psychosocial functioning and cardiac symptoms were significantly associated with the likelihood of being rehospitalized (odds ratios of 4.62 and 4.00). Multivariate results, however, show that poor psychosocial function and younger age--but not cardiac symptoms--are significant independent predictors of new hospital stays, after controlling for medical history and demographic variables.",
"This study evaluated the effectiveness of using trained volunteer staff in reducing 30-day readmissions of congestive heart failure (CHF) patients. From June 2010 to December 2010, 137 patients (mean age 73 years) hospitalized for CHF were randomly assigned to either: an interventional arm (arm A) receiving dietary and pharmacologic education by a trained volunteer, follow-up telephone calls within 48 hours, and a month of weekly calls; or a control arm (arm B) receiving standard care. Primary outcomes were 30-day readmission rates for CHF and worsening New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification; composite and all-cause mortality were secondary outcomes. Arm A patients had decreased 30-day readmissions (7% vs 19%; P < .05) with a relative risk reduction (RRR) of 63% and an absolute risk reduction (ARR) of 12%. The composite outcome of 30-day readmission, worsening NYHA functional class, and death was decreased in the arm A (24% vs 49%; P < .05; RRR 51%, ARR 25%). Standard-care treatment and hypertension, age ≥65 years and hypertension, and cigarette smoking were predictors of increased risk for readmissions, worsening NYHA functional class, and all-cause mortality, respectively, in the multivariable analysis.",
"To determine if health-related quality-of-life and self-rated health are associated with mortality in persons with diabetes. Survey and medical record data were obtained from 7892 patients with diabetes in Translating Research Into Action for Diabetes (TRIAD), a multicenter prospective observational study of diabetes care in managed care. Vital status at follow-up was determined from the National Death Index. Multivariable proportional hazard models were used to determine if a generic measure of health-related quality-of-life (EQ-5D) and self-rated health measured at baseline were associated with 4-year all-cause, cardiovascular, and noncardiovascular mortality. At baseline, the mean EQ-5D score for decedents was 0.73 (S.D.=0.20) and for survivors was 0.81 (S.D.=0.18) (p<0.0001). Fifty-five percent of decedents and 36% of survivors (p<0.0001) rated their health as fair or poor. Lower EQ-5D scores and fair or poor self-rated health were associated with higher rates of mortality after adjusting for the demographic, socioeconomic, and clinical risk factors for mortality.",
"This randomized clinical equivalence trial was designed to evaluate health-related quality of life (HRQoL) after fast-track treatment for low-risk coronary artery bypass (CABG) patients. Four hundred and ten CABG patients were randomly assigned to undergo either short-stay intensive care treatment (SSIC, 8 h of intensive care stay) or control treatment (care as usual, overnight intensive care stay). HRQoL was measured at baseline and 1 month, and one year after surgery using the multidimensional index of life quality (MILQ), the EQ-5D, the Beck Depression Inventory and the State-Trait Anxiety Inventory. At one month after surgery, no statistically significant difference in overall HRQoL was found (MILQ-score P-value=.508, overall MILQ-index P-value=.543, EQ-5D VAS P-value=.593). The scores on the MILQ-domains, physical, and social functioning were significantly higher at one month postoperatively in the SSIC group compared to the control group (P-value=.049; 95%CI: 0.01-2.50 and P-value=.014, 95% CI: 0.24-2.06, respectively). However, these differences were no longer observed at long-term follow-up.",
"The aim of this study is to assess the quality of life in chronically-ill elderly patients and its relationship with parameters concerning the patients' nutritional status. A cross-sectional study. Primary health-care centres in Jaen, Spain. A total of 168 chronically-ill elderly outpatients aged from 65 to 89 years. Quality of life was measured using the World Health Organization Quality of Life (WHOQOL-BREF) questionnaire. A nutritional assessment was undertaken including socio-demographic variables, anthropometric measurements (body-mass index and calf circumference), functional evaluation (Barthel index and Folstein mini-mental status test) and a dietetic questionnaire. The mini-nutritional assessment test was used as an assessment tool to detect nutritional risk. Quality of life in chronically-ill elderly subjects, as determined by the WHOQOL-BREF questionnaire, which diminishes with age, is independent of anthropometric parameters and a statistically significant difference was found between gender, socio-demographic characteristics, functional capacity, nutritional status and the kind of chronic disease (p<0.05).",
"Studies have shown that psychological problems in elderly patients are often unrecognised in primary care. The aim of this study was to investigate the quality of life and consultation rates of Chinese elderly patients with unrecognised psychological problems in primary care. The prevalence and risk factors of unrecognised psychological problems were also determined. A cross-sectional study on consecutive patients aged > or =60 with no known psychological diseases were screened by the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) when they consulted at two primary care clinics in Hong Kong. Data on socio-demographic characteristics, chronic morbidity, consultation rates, and health-related quality of life (HROQL) were collected. Multivariable regressions were used to determine the effect of a positive HADS score on HRQOL scores and consultation rates, and the risk factors of unrecognised psychological problems. One thousand eight hundred and fifty-four subjects (mean age 72.6 years and 52% male) were screened and the estimated prevalence of unrecognised psychological diseases was 23% (95% CI = 13.1-33.8%). A positive screening result was associated with poorer SF-36 HROQL scores and higher episodic consultation rates. An increased risk of unrecognised psychological problems was associated with the presence of more than two chronic diseases. Other risk factors included female gender, no formal education and having chronic pulmonary disease or heart disease. Living with a spouse increased the risk in elderly women.",
"Patients presented better score of the BI at discharge and this figure was associated to the implementation of a rehabilitation treatment. Hospitalization of the elderly patient in a suitable environment, such as a geriatric hospital, contrary to some theories highlighting only the negative aspects of removal from the living environment, can be a measure of benefit for the reduction of disability and the recovery of compromised activities along and after the acute event. The collection of data on the level of autonomy of the subjects before and after hospitalization can be a useful element for clinical evaluation in a geriatric hospital.",
"The objective of this study was to examine the relationship between functional disability and improvement in late life depression after acute inpatient treatment. The study was a longitudinal assessment of depression and disability. Patients were assessed during an initial inpatient hospitalization and then 3 months postdischarge. All patients were evaluated initially after admission to one of 71 inpatient psychiatric treatment facilities. The study comprised of 2572 patients older than age 60 who were relatively cognitively intact and experiencing significant depressive symptoms. Depressive symptoms were measured using the Geriatric Depression Scale. Disability was measured using the Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale and the Medical Outcomes SF-36. Depressive symptoms improved in the majority of patients. Moreover, improvement in depressive symptomatology was significantly related to improvement in instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) and to health-related quality of life as measured by the SF-36. This relationship was strongest among those who initially presented with some disability in IADLs.",
"yes. Overall physical health status and asthma-specific quality of life predict subsequent ED utilization. Health-related quality of life may be useful in identifying patients at increased risk for asthma exacerbation requiring emergency care.",
"The purpose of this study is to describe predictors for discharge and one-year outcomes of acute-care hospital patients, 75 years of age or over, based on admission status information. We carried out a prospective study of a randomly selected patient population, from one urban acute-care hospital in each of the Nordic countries. 763 persons aged 75+ were randomly selected from acute admissions to the participating hospitals. 749 observations at discharge and 655 observations at one year were used in analyses. Data were collected with the MDS-AC 1.1 instrument within 24 hours of admission, and at day 7 or discharge, whichever came first. Outcome information was collected either by interviewing the patient or from patient records or registers. Discharge and one-year outcome (home, institution, death) were modeled by multinomial logistic regression, with admission status variables as predictors. At discharge, 84% of subjects returned home, 11% went to an institution and 5.6% had died. At one year, 64% were still living at home, 24% had died, and 12% had moved to an institution. For discharge outcome, those having hospital admission due to a new problem or exacerbation of an old one had a higher risk of dying (OR 3.3) than returning home. Moderate to severe cognitive problems predicted death (OR 2.2) and institutionalization (OR 8.6) compared with discharge home. Problems in instrumental activities of daily living predicted death (OR 3.1) and institutionalization (OR 6.0). At one year, those with exacerbation of an old problem (OR 2.1) or with a new or exacerbated existing problem (OR 2.3) had a higher risk of dying than of institutionalization or discharge home. Having some cognitive problems (OR 2.8) or moderate to severe cognitive problems (OR 6.6) predicted institutionalization, but not dying or discharge home. Those with some problems in activities of daily living had a higher risk of both dying (OR 1.7) and of institutional care (OR 2.7). Those with moderate to severe problems in activities of daily living had also a higher risk of institutional care (OR 4.7) compared with those living at home.",
"yes. Readmissions increase as a function of time; illness severity, chronic disabling disease score and a recent admission are the strongest predictors of readmission.",
"yes. In an elderly population with multiple comorbidities undergoing elective common major orthopedic procedures, approximately 2% of patients required readmission to the PACU. The most common problems requiring this step-up in care were cardiac and pulmonary, which resulted in an increased length of hospital stay. Patients with OSA and multiple comorbidities undergoing total knee arthroplasty carry an increased risk for postoperative complications.",
"The study investigated whether long-stay patients would benefit from discharge into the community in Berlin, Germany. In a prospective controlled study, all long-term hospitalised psychiatric patients from a defined catchment area were assessed using established standardised instruments. Quality of life, treatment satisfaction, needs and psychopathology were re-assessed in 63 non-discharged patients 1.5 years later, and in 65 resettled patients 1 year after discharge. Discharged patients were younger and had spent less time in psychiatric hospitalisation. Whilst patients who remained in hospital care did not show significant changes over time, discharged patients did. Changes in subjective quality of life and total number of needs - but not in psychopathology, unmet needs, and treatment satisfaction - were significantly more favourable in resettled patients as compared to the control group.",
"yes. Functional status most strongly predicted ER use, highlighting the promise of home-based interventions to improve activities of daily living. Number of chronic conditions and caregiver-reported relationship strain are potential targets of intervention during discharge process.",
"Medical care at the end of life is often expensive and ineffective. To explore associations between primary care and hospital utilization at the end of life. Retrospective analysis of Medicare data. We measured hospital utilization during the final 6 months of life and the number of primary care physician visits in the 12 preceding months. Multivariate cluster analysis adjusted for the effects of demographics, comorbidities, and geography in end-of-life healthcare utilization. National random sample of 78,356 Medicare beneficiaries aged 66+ who died in 2001. Non-whites were over-sampled. All subjects with complete Medicare data for 18 months prior to death were retained, except for those in the End Stage Renal Disease program. Hospital days, costs, in-hospital death, and presence of two types of preventable hospital admissions (Ambulatory Care Sensitive Conditions) during the final 6 months of life. Sample characteristics: 38% had 0 primary care visits; 22%, 1-2; 19%, 3-5; 10%, 6-8; and 11%, 9+ visits. More primary care visits in the preceding year were associated with fewer hospital days at end of life (15.3 days for those with no primary care visits vs. 13.4 for those with>or = 9 visits, P<0.001), lower costs ($24,400 vs. $23,400, P<0.05), less in-hospital death (44% vs. 40%, P<0.01), and fewer preventable hospitalizations for those with congestive heart failure (adjusted odds ratio, aOR = 0.82, P<0.001) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (aOR = 0.81, P = 0.02).",
"Previous research suggests an ostomy worsens health-related quality of life (HR-QOL), but comorbidities also can affect HR-QOL. Eligible patients had abdominal operation with ostomy (cases) or similar procedure without ostomy (controls). Patients were recruited for this case-control study from 3 Veterans Affairs hospital medical and pharmacy records. Comorbidities were assessed with Charlson-Deyo Comorbidity Index. Multinomial logistic regression evaluated the impact of comorbidities and having an ostomy on HR-QOL, measured using the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form 36 for Veterans. A total of 237 ostomates (cases) and 268 controls were studied. Average age was 69 years; 64% of cases had colostomy, 36% ileostomy. Twenty-nine percent of patients had a high level of comorbidities. Cases and controls were similar except for reasons for undergoing surgery. High comorbidity was a significant predictor of low HR-QOL in 6 domains of the Short Form 36 for Veterans; having an ostomy was a significant predictor in 4.",
"The identification of patients' health needs is pivotal in optimising the quality of health care, increasing patient satisfaction and directing resource allocation. Health needs are complex and not so easily evaluated as health-related quality of life (HRQL), which is becoming increasingly accepted as a means of providing a more global, patient-orientated assessment of the outcome of health care interventions than the simple medical model. The potential of HRQL as a surrogate measure of healthcare needs has not been evaluated. A generic (Short Form-12; SF-12) and a disease-specific questionnaire (Seattle Angina Questionnaire; SAQ) were tested for their potential to predict health needs in patients with acute coronary disease. A wide range of healthcare needs were determined using a questionnaire specifically developed for this purpose. With the exception of information needs, healthcare needs were highly correlated with health-related quality of life. Patients with limited enjoyment of personal interests, weak financial situation, greater dependency on others to access health services, and dissatisfaction with accommodation reported poorer HRQL (SF-12: p<0.001; SAQ: p<0.01). Difficulties with mobility, aids to daily living and activities requiring assistance from someone else were strongly associated with both generic and disease-specific questionnaires (SF-12: r = 0.46-0.55, p<0.01; SAQ: r = 0.53-0.65, p<0.001). Variables relating to quality of care and health services were more highly correlated with SAQ components (r = 0.33-0.59) than with SF-12 (r = 0.07-0.33). Overall, the disease-specific Seattle Angina Questionnaire was superior to the generic Short Form-12 in detecting healthcare needs in patients with coronary disease. Receiver-operator curves supported the sensitivity of HRQL tools in detecting health needs.",
"The association between high numbers of unmet needs and low subjective quality of life appears increasingly robust across several studies. Future research will need to investigate whether changes in needs precede changes in quality of life. This study provides further evidence that a policy of actively assessing and addressing patient-rated unmet needs may lead to improved quality of life.",
"The causes of unscheduled returns to the emergency department (ED) within 72 hours of discharge are unclear. A study was undertaken to identify factors associated with this quality care indicator. 250 cases and 250 controls from the ED were prospectively studied. Outcomes measured were unscheduled returns, post-ED destination, and patient dissatisfaction. Possible medical errors (in diagnosis, treatment, prognosis or patient information) and errors in follow up care were identified. Other factors examined included chief complaint at presentation, discharge diagnosis, level of triage, category of treating physician, observation or not, application of emergency treatment, ancillary studies, accessibility to ED, ED time band or work shift, day of the week, past medical history, and demographic data (age, sex, educational level and economic status). The main factor associated with unscheduled returns was error in prognosis (odds ratio 18.62, 95% CI 9.60 to 36.09). Advanced age and a chief complaint of dyspnoea were also associated with unscheduled returns and with admission to hospital. Post-ED destination worsened by 0.61 (95% CI 0.33 to 0.90) with diagnostic errors and by 0.60 (95% CI 0.30 to 0.90) with errors in follow up care. Patient dissatisfaction increased by 0.68 (95% CI 0.55 to 0.80) with information errors, by 0.63 (95% CI 0.17 to 1.09) with errors in follow up care, and by 0.52 (95% CI 0.09 to 0.94) with diagnostic errors.",
"yes. After adjusting for age, sex, and coexisting conditions, mean HRQoL scores were almost equal in patients and controls. Up to 22% (n = 51) of the patients had, however, a poor quality of life as compared with the controls (-2 SD). This group, which more often consisted of single men, individuals who were on sick leave before admission to the ICU, had an increased mortality after ICU. This group should be a target for future support.",
"To establish associations with quality of life (QOL) of older people in long-term residential care facilities in two New Zealand cities. The outcome measure of QOL was the Life Satisfaction Index. We used multiple linear regression to explore how broad categories of factors might contribute to QOL. A total of 599 people (median age of 85 years; 74% women) participated. Response rates were 85% for facilities and 83% for residents. A resident's QOL was significantly related to the QOL of co-residents. QOL was higher for people who were more positive about entry to residential care, more physically able, and not depressed, and for those with more family and emotional support.",
"yes. There are substantial differences between the DHS and KP in the rates of preventable hospitalisations and subsequent readmissions associated with chronic conditions, which suggest much opportunity for improvement within the Danish healthcare system. Reductions in hospitalisations also could improve patient welfare and free considerable resources for use towards preventing disease exacerbations. These conclusions may also apply for similar public systems such as the US Medicare system, the NHS and other systems striving to improve the integration of care for persons with chronic conditions.",
"The objective of this study is to evaluate health-related quality of life as a risk factor for subsequent emergency department (ED) utilization in a cohort of patients with asthma. We conducted a 1-year prospective cohort study of 1,406 adult asthma patients. Baseline physical and mental health status were measured using the Physical Component Summary and Mental Component Summary scores from the Short Form-12 health status survey. Asthma-specific health-related quality of life was measured with the mini-Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire. Multivariable regression was used to assess the independent association between baseline Physical Component Summary, Mental Component Summary, and Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire scores and asthma-related ED visits during the subsequent year. During the 1-year follow-up period, 116 patients made at least 1 asthma-related ED visit. After adjustment for multiple sociodemographic and clinical factors, both the Physical Component Summary score (odds ratio [OR] 1.72; 95% confidence interval [CI] 1.46 to 2.02) and the Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire score (OR 1.34; 95% CI 1.18 to 1.52) were associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization. In contrast, overall mental health status was not associated with subsequent asthma-related ED utilization (OR 1.17; 95% CI 0.96 to 1.44).",
"Older patients may visit the emergency department (ED) when their illness affects their function. To quantify the function of older ED patients, to assess whether functional decline (FD) had occurred, and to determine whether function contributes to the ED visit and hospital admission. The authors performed an institutional review board-approved, prospective, cross-sectional study in a community teaching hospital ED. Eligible patients were older than 74 years of age, with an illness at least 48 hours old. Patients from a nursing facility and those without a proxy who were unable or unwilling to complete the questions were excluded. The Older Americans Resources and Services Questionnaire, which tests seven instrumental activities of daily living (IADL) and seven physical ADLs (PADL), was used. Data are presented as means or proportions with 95% confidence intervals (95% CI), and comparisons as 95% CI for the difference between proportions. The authors enrolled 90 patients (mean age, 81.6 yr [SD +/- 4.9], 40% male). Dependence in at least one IADL was reported by 68% (95% CI = 57% to 77%), and in at least one PADL by 61% (95% CI = 50% to 71%). Functional decline was reported by 74% (95% CI = 64% to 83%). Two thirds of those with IADL decline and three quarters of those with PADL decline said that this contributed to their ED visit. Seventy-seven percent with, and 63% without, IADL decline were admitted (14% difference, 95% CI = -6.1% to 33%). Seventy-nine percent with and 61% without PADL decline were admitted (18% difference, 95% CI = -1.4% to 38%).",
"no. Patients experiencing poor outcomes such as long hospital stay or complications have similar perception of quality of care compared with those with regular outcomes. Patient-reported outcome measures are becoming increasingly important in the evaluation of the quality of care and may complement more traditional objective indicators such as morbidity or length of stay.",
"Activity limitation stages based on activities of daily living (ADLs) and instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) are associated with 3-year mortality in elderly Medicare beneficiaries, yet their associations with hospitalization risk in this population have not been studied. To examine the independent association of activity limitation stages with risk of hospitalization within a year among Medicare beneficiaries aged 65 years and older. Cohort study. Community. A total of 9447 community-dwelling elderly Medicare beneficiaries from the Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey for years 2005-2009. Stages were derived for ADLs and IADLs separately. Associations of stages with time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within a year were assessed with Cox proportional hazards models, with which we accounted for baseline sociodemographics, smoking status, comorbidities, and the year of survey entry. Time to first hospitalization and time to recurrent hospitalizations within 1 year. The adjusted risk of first hospitalization increased with greater activity limitation stages (except stage III). The hazard ratios (95% confidence intervals) for ADL stages I-IV compared with stage 0 (no limitations) were 1.49 (1.36-1.63), 1.61 (1.44-1.80), 1.54 (1.35-1.76), and 2.06 (1.61-2.63), respectively. The pattern for IADL stages was similar. For recurrent hospitalizations, activity limitation stages were associated with the risk of the first hospitalization but not with subsequent hospitalizations.",
"Treatment outcomes are an important determinant of patients' treatment preferences. Although studies have examined how well surrogates agree with patients' preferences for specific treatment interventions, agreement regarding the valuation of health states as treatment outcomes is unknown. Cross-sectional cohort study consisting of in-home interviews with 193 persons 60 years or older and seriously ill with cancer, congestive heart failure, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and their caregivers. Patients were asked whether, facing an exacerbation of illness, they would find a series of health states acceptable as a result of treatment (a rating of \"unacceptable\" meant they would prefer to die than to receive treatment). Caregivers were asked whether they would find these states acceptable for the patient. There was 80% or greater agreement for health states that were overall rated either acceptable (current health, mild memory impairment, mild pain, or other symptoms) or unacceptable (coma). There was 58% to 62% agreement (kappa = 0.10-0.25) about states with more severe physical or cognitive impairment. When disagreement occurred, caregivers were more likely to rate the state as acceptable. There was 61% to 65% agreement (kappa = 0.20-0.28) about states with severe pain or other symptoms. When disagreement occurred, caregivers and patients were equally likely to rate the state as acceptable.",
"To evaluate a Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) designed to utilize alternatives to emergency hospitalization. CDUs are one model of care designed to strengthen the gatekeeper role of Emergency Departments (EDs). This retrospective cohort study was carried out in a UK NHS acute hospital. All 854 patients in the CDU cohort were compared with three age-stratified, historical cohorts from the same clinical centre. The median age was 62 years (range 16-94).The main outcome measures were discharge to general practitioner, outpatient services or hospitalization, the 30-day unplanned reattendance rate for those not hospitalized, and monthly medical admission figures. Approximately 511 [59.8%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 56.5-63.1%] to 560 (65.6%, 95% CI: 62.3-68.7%) patients were admitted in the comparison cohorts, compared with only 186 (21.8%, 95% CI: 19.1-24.7%) in the CDU cohort (P≤0.05). Approximately 243 (28.5%, 95% CI: 25.5-31.6%) to 289 (33.8%, 95% CI: 30.7-37.1%) patients were discharged to general practitioner services in the comparison groups, compared with 562 (65.8%, 95% CI: 62.6-68.9%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). Approximately eight (0.9, 95% CI: 0.5-1.8%) to 17 (2%, 95% CI: 1.2-3.2%) patients in the comparison groups were discharged to outpatient clinics, compared with 82 (9.6%, 95% CI: 7.8-11.8%) in the CDU group (P≤0.05). There was no consistent trend towards statistically significant rises in unplanned reattendance (P>0.05). Monthly medical admissions fell substantially during CDU operation.",
"To test whether there is an association between hospital operating conditions such as average length of stays (LOS) and staffing ratio, and elderly patients' risk of readmission. The main data source was a national patient database of admissions to all acute-care Norwegian hospitals during the year of 1996. It is a cross-sectional study, where Cox' regression analysis was used to test the factors acting on the probability of early unplanned readmission (within 30 days), and later occuring ones. The principal hospital variables included average hospital LOS and staffing ratio (discharges per man-years of personnel). Adjusting patient variables in the model included age, gender, and cost-weights of the Diagnosis Related Groups (DRGs). The selected material included discharges from 59 hospitals, and 113,055 elderly patients (>or = 67 years). Multiple admissions to the same hospital were linked together chronologically, and additional hospital data were matched on. To maximize the association between the index stay and the defined outcome (unplanned readmission), no intervening planned admission was accepted. Being admitted to a hospital with relatively short average LOS increased the patient's risk of early readmission significantly. In addition it was found that more intensive care (more staff) could have a compensatory effect. Furthermore, the predictive factors were shown to be time dependent, as hospital variables had much less impact on readmissions occurring late (within 90-180 days).",
"yes. Both the amount and pattern of chronic diseases have been associated with QOL in elderly populations. Elderly women have low levels of QOL due to multimorbidity and a higher prevalence of chronic disease, which is related to impaired QOL.",
"yes. Results indicate that patients discharged from inpatient wards at times of high inpatient bed occupancy experience an increased risk of unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge.",
"Hospitalization for acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with significant morbidity and health care costs, and hospitals in the United States are now penalized by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for excessive readmissions. Identifying patients at risk of readmission is important, but modifiable risk factors have not been clearly established, and the potential contributing role of psychological disease has not been examined adequately. We hypothesized that depression and anxiety would increase the risk of both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD. To characterize the associations between depression and anxiety and COPD readmission risk. We examined the medical records for all patients with a primary diagnosis of acute exacerbation of COPD by International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision codes admitted to the University of Alabama at Birmingham Hospital between November 2010 and October 2012. Those who did not meet the standardized study criteria for acute exacerbation of COPD and those with other respiratory illnesses as the primary diagnosis were excluded. Comorbidities were recorded on the basis of physician documentation of the diagnosis and/or the use of medications in the electronic medical record. Multivariable regression analyses identified factors associated with readmission for acute exacerbation of COPD at 1 year and within 30 and 90 days. Four hundred twenty-two patients were included, with 132 readmitted in 1 year. Mean age was 64.8 ± 11.7 years, and mean percent predicted FEV1 was 48.1 ± 18.7%. On univariate analysis, readmitted patients had lower percent predicted FEV1 (44.9 ± 17.3% vs. 50.2 ± 19.4%; P = 0.05) and a higher frequency of depression (47.7% vs. 23.4%; P < 0.001). On multivariable analysis, 1-year readmission was independently associated with depression (adjusted odds ratio [OR], 2.67; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.59-4.47) and in-hospital tobacco cessation counseling (adjusted OR, 0.34; 95% CI, 0.18-0.66). Depression also predicted readmission at 30 days (adjusted OR, 3.83; 95% CI, 1.84-7.96) and 90 days (adjusted OR, 2.47; 95% CI, 1.34-4.55).",
"To determine whether a simple question about steadiness at admission predicts in-hospital functional decline and whether unsteadiness at admission predicts failure of in-hospital functional recovery of patients who have declined immediately before hospitalization. Prospective cohort study. One university hospital and one community teaching hospital. One thousand five hundred fifty-seven hospitalized medical patients aged 70 and older. On admission, patients reported their steadiness with walking and whether they could perform independently each of five basic activities of daily living (ADLs) at admission and 2 weeks before admission (baseline). For the primary analysis, the outcome was decline in ADL function between admission and discharge. For the secondary analysis, the outcome was in-hospital recovery to baseline ADL function in patients who experienced ADL decline in the 2 weeks before admission. In the primary cohort (n = 1,557), 25% of patients were very unsteady at admission; 22% of very unsteady patients declined during hospitalization, compared with 17%, 18%, and 10% for slightly unsteady, slightly steady, and very steady patients, respectively (P for trend =.001). After adjusting for age; medical comorbidities; Acute Physiology, Age, and Chronic Health Evaluation II score; and admission ADL, unsteadiness remained significantly associated with ADL decline (odds for decline for very unsteady compared with very steady = 2.6, 95% confidence interval = 1.5-4.5). In the secondary analysis, predicting ADL recovery in patients who declined before hospitalization (n = 563), 46% of patients were very unsteady at admission. In this cohort, 44% of very unsteady patients failed to recover, compared with 35%, 36%, and 33% for each successively higher level of steadiness, respectively (P for trend = 0.06). After multivariate adjustment, greater unsteadiness independently predicted failure of recovery (P for trend = 0.02).",
"yes. Medicaid and uninsured payer status confers increased risk adjusted in-hospital mortality for patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting operations. Medicaid was further associated with the greatest adjusted length of stay and total costs despite risk factors. Possible explanations include delays in access to care or disparate differences in health maintenance.",
"Modifiable system, as well as patient, characteristics are associated with follow-up appointment-keeping. The practice of not giving patients written appointments at the time of discharge may constitute an implicit form of \"rationing by inconvenience.\" Further studies should also evaluate potential associations between appointment-keeping and re-hospitalization.",
"Self-reported health perceptions such as physical distress and quality of life are suggested independent predictors of mortality and morbidity in patients with established cardiovascular disease. This study examined the associations between these factors and three years incidence of cardiovascular events in a population of elderly men with long term hyperlipidemia. We studied observational data in a cohort of 433 men aged 64-76 years from a prospective, 2 x 2 factorial designed, three-year interventional trial. Information of classical risk factors was obtained and the following questionnaires were administered at baseline: Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale, Physical Symptom Distress Index and Life Satisfaction Index. The occurrence of cardiovascular death, myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular incidences and peripheral arterial disease were registered throughout the study period. Continuous data with skewed distribution was split into tertiles. Hazard ratios (HR) were calculated from Cox regression analyses to assess the associations between physical distress, quality of life and cardiovascular events. After three years, 49 cardiovascular events were registered, with similar incidence among subjects with and without established cardiovascular disease. In multivariate analyses adjusted for age, smoking, systolic blood pressure, serum glucose, HADS-anxiety and treatment-intervention, physical distress was positively associated (HR 3.1, 95% CI 1.2 - 7.9 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) and quality of life negatively associated (HR 2.6, 95% CI 1.1-5.8 for 3rd versus 1st tertile) with cardiovascular events. The association remained statistically significant only for physical distress (hazard ratio 2.8 95% CI 1.2 - 6.8, p < 0.05) when both variables were evaluated in the same model.",
"Cognitive impairment is common among chronic heart failure (CHF) patients. To determine the prognostic significance of cognitive impairment in patients participating in a randomized study of a CHF management program (CHF-MP). CHF patients were randomized to a CHF-MP (n=100) or usual care (n=100). Baseline cognition was assessed using the Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE). Five-year all-cause mortality, and combined death-or-readmission, were compared on the basis of the presence (MMSE 19-26) or absence (MMSE>26) of cognitive impairment. 27 patients (13.5%) had cognitive impairment and, on an adjusted basis, were more likely to die (96.3% versus 68.2%. RR 2.19, 95% CI 1.41 to 3.39: P<0.001) and/or experience an unplanned hospitalization (100% versus 94%. RR 1.44, 95% CI 1.06 to 1.95: P=0.019). Cognitively impaired patients had a similar (non-significant) adjusted risk of death-or-readmission in both the CHF-MP (RR 1.40, 95% CI 0.63 to 3.11: P=0.403) and in usual care (RR 1.38, 95% CI 0.75 to 2.53: P=0.305). In the usual care cohort, cognitive impairment was associated with a greater (non-significant), adjusted risk of death (RR 1.61, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.122). In the CHF-MP, adjusted risk of death was significantly higher for cognitively impaired patients (RR 2.33, 95% CI 1.10 to 4.92: P=0.027).",
"Thyroid cancer increases in incidence and aggressiveness with age. The elderly are the fastest growing segment of the U.S. population. Reducing rates of rehospitalization would lower cost and improve quality of care. This is the first study to report population-level information characterizing rehospitalization after thyroidectomy among the elderly. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER)-Medicare-linked database was used to identify patients older than aged 65 years with thyroid cancer who underwent thyroidectomy from 1997-2002. Patient and hospital characteristics were studied to predict the risk of rehospitalization. Outcomes were 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate, cost, and length of stay (LOS) of readmission. Of 2,127 patients identified, 69% were women, 84% had differentiated thyroid cancer, and 52% underwent total thyroidectomy. Mean age was 74 years. A total of 171 patients (8%) underwent 30-day unplanned rehospitalization. Rehospitalization was associated with increased comorbidity, advanced stage, number of lymph nodes examined, increased LOS of index admission, and small hospital size (all P < 0.05). Patients with a complication during index hospital stay were more likely to be readmitted (P < 0.001), whereas patients who saw an outpatient medical provider after index discharge returned less frequently (P < 0.001). Forty-seven percent of readmissions were for endocrine-related causes. Mean LOS and cost of rehospitalization were 3.5 days and $5,921, respectively. Unplanned rehospitalization was associated with death at 1 year compared with nonrehospitalized patients (18% vs. 6%; P < 0.001).",
"Most nationally standardised quality measures use widely accepted evidence-based processes as their foundation, but the discharge instruction component of the United States standards of Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations heart failure core measure appears to be based on expert opinion alone. To determine whether documentation of compliance with any or all of the six required discharge instructions is correlated with readmissions to hospital or mortality. A retrospective study at a single tertiary care hospital was conducted on randomly sampled patients hospitalised for heart failure from July 2002 to September 2003. Applying the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations criteria, 782 of 1121 patients were found eligible to receive discharge instructions. Eligibility was determined by age, principal diagnosis codes and discharge status codes. The primary outcome measures are time to death and time to readmission for heart failure or readmission for any cause and time to death. In all, 68% of patients received all instructions, whereas 6% received no instructions. Patients who received all instructions were significantly less likely to be readmitted for any cause (p = 0.003) and for heart failure (p = 0.035) than those who missed at least one type of instruction. Documentation of discharge instructions is correlated with reduced readmission rates. However, there was no association between documentation of discharge instructions and mortality (p = 0.521).",
"Hospital discharge planning is aimed to decrease length of stay in hospitals as well as to ensure continuity of health care after being discharged. Hospitalized patients in Turin, Italy, who are in need of medical, social and rehabilitative care are proposed as candidates to either discharge planning relying on a care-home model (DPCH) for a period of about 30 days, or routine discharge care. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether a hospital DPCH that was compared with routine care, improved patients' outcomes in terms of reduced hospital readmission and mortality rates in patients aged 64 years and older. In a retrospective observational cohort study a sample of 380 subjects aged 64 years and over was examined. Participants were discharged from the hospital S. Giovanni Bosco in Turin, Italy from March 1st, 2005 to February 28th, 2006. Of these subjects, 107 received routine discharge care while 273 patients were referred to care-home (among them, 99 received a long-term care intervention (LTCI) afterwards while 174 did not). Data was gathered from various administrative and electronic databases. Cox regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with mortality and hospital readmission. When socio-demographic factors, underlying disease and disability were taken into account, DPCH decreased mortality rates only if it was followed by a LTCI: compared to routine care, the Hazard Ratio (HR) of death was 0.36 (95% Confidence Interval (CI): 0.20 - 0.66) and 1.15 (95%CI: 0.77 - 1.74) for DPCH followed by LTCI and DPCH not followed by LTCI, respectively. On the other hand, readmission rates did not significantly differ among DPCH and routine care, irrespective of the implementation of a LTCI: HRs of hospital readmission were 1.01 (95%CI: 0.48 - 2.24) and 1.18 (95%CI: 0.71 - 1.96), respectively.",
"yes. The results quantify the strong relationship between NP levels taken following an unplanned admission to a cardiology department and the duration of hospitalization. This information permits improved identification of a patient population likely to require a prolonged hospital stay and consume more healthcare resources. Such patients may require a more aggressive diagnostic, treatment, and management strategy.",
"This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \"not at risk\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.",
"The performance of comorbidity measures derived from the hospital discharge abstract, the outpatient pharmacy record, and from both sources combined, were compared in predicting all-cause and unplanned hospital readmission and length of stay. Automated hospital and pharmacy data came from Kaiser-Permanente and included 6721 acute hospitalizations in Southern California from April 1993 to February 1995. The Deyo adaptation of Charlson's 17 comorbidities was derived from hospital discharge data and the 29 Chronic Disease Score (CDS) comorbidity markers were derived from outpatient pharmacy claims data. Logistic and OLS regression models were used to compare the performance of each measure in baseline models and to evaluate whether the CDS contributed additional explanatory power in a combined model. The CDS was a significant predictor of unplanned readmission (C = 0.68) and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26) in multivariable models adjusted for baseline patient demographic and hospitalization characteristics. The Deyo measure was a significant predictor of all-cause readmission (C = 0.63), unplanned readmission (C = 0.68), and LOS (Adjusted R(2) = 0.26). When pharmacy-based disease markers were added to the Deyo baseline model, modest, statistically significant improvements in predictive power were noted in the unplanned readmission and LOS models.",
"yes. Depression is an independent risk factor for both short- and long-term readmissions for acute exacerbation of COPD and may represent a modifiable risk factor. In-hospital tobacco cessation counseling was also associated with reduced 1-year readmission.",
"This study fails to demonstrate that outpatient visits after hospital discharge are associated with fewer readmissions for nonelderly Medicaid patients. This suggests that it may not be appropriate to use hospital readmission rates as an indicator of the quality of outpatient care.",
"Scrutiny of hospital readmissions has led to the development and implementation of policies targeted at reducing readmission rates. To assess whether historic hospital readmission rates predict risk-adjusted patient readmission and to measure the costs of readmission, thus informing reimbursement policies under consideration by non-Veterans Health Administration payers. Multivariable hospital-fixed effects regression analyses of patients admitted to 129 Veterans Health Administration hospitals between 2005 and 2009 for 3 common conditions, acute myocardial infarction (AMI), community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), and congestive heart failure (CHF). We examined whether previous hospital readmission rates predicted risk-adjusted readmission or 30-day episode cost of care for subsequent patients. We then examined the 30-day inpatient hospitalization episode cost differences between those who had a readmission in the episode and those who did not. Hospital readmission rates in the previous quarter are not predictive of individual patient risk-adjusted readmission or of patients' inpatient hospitalization episode cost in the subsequent quarter. Relative to those who were not readmitted within 30 days of index visit discharge, readmitted patients had 30-day episode costs that were 53.3% (P<0.001), 82.8% (P<0.001), and 79.8% (P<0.001) higher for AMI, CAP, and CHF hospitalization episodes, respectively.",
"yes. Living alone was identified as the single most important risk factor for early readmission after CABGS. Patients who live alone may benefit from additional support during early convalescence. Intervention studies could explore support options for these patients.",
"New tools to accurately identify potentially preventable 30-day readmissions are needed. The HOSPITAL score has been internationally validated for medical inpatients, but its performance in select conditions targeted by the Hospital Readmission Reduction Program (HRRP) is unknown. Retrospective cohort study. Six geographically diverse medical centers. All consecutive adult medical patients discharged alive in 2011 with 1 of the 4 medical conditions targeted by the HRRP (acute myocardial infarction, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pneumonia, and heart failure) were included. Potentially preventable 30-day readmissions were identified using the SQLape algorithm. The HOSPITAL score was calculated for all patients. A multivariable logistic regression model accounting for hospital effects was used to evaluate the accuracy (Brier score), discrimination (c-statistic), and calibration (Pearson goodness-of-fit) of the HOSPITAL score for each 4 medical conditions. Among the 9181 patients included, the overall 30-day potentially preventable readmission rate was 13.6%. Across all 4 diagnoses, the HOSPITAL score had very good accuracy (Brier score of 0.11), good discrimination (c-statistic of 0.68), and excellent calibration (Hosmer-Lemeshow goodness-of-fit test, P=0.77). Within each diagnosis, performance was similar. In sensitivity analyses, performance was similar for all readmissions (not just potentially preventable) and when restricted to patients age 65 and above.",
"yes. Patients after long-term remission of CS report more negative illness perceptions compared with patients with other acute or chronic conditions. Further research is needed to assess whether QoL in CS can be improved by addressing these illness perceptions, for example, by a self-management intervention program.",
"Poor health-related quality of life (QOL) is related to morbidity and mortality in coronary heart disease and ventricular arrhythmias as well as to mortality in patients with heart failure (HF) and atrial fibrillation (AF). This study examined the contributions of QOL to the prediction of 1-year hospitalization and mortality in patients with AF, independent of HF. This study used the public use dataset from the NHLBI/NIH AFFIRM randomized clinical trial. Patients enrolled in the QOL substudy (N = 693) were randomly assigned to rate or rhythm control. QOL was assessed with the Medical Outcomes Study 36-item Short Form Health Survey (SF-36) and the Quality of Life Index-Cardiac Version (QLI-CV). Data were analyzed with logistic regression to predict 1-year hospitalization and Cox proportional hazards analysis to predict mortality. In the first year of participation in the study 37% (n = 256) were hospitalized; mortality was 14.3% (n = 93) with mean follow-up of 3.5 years. Patients' mean age was 69.8 ± 8.2 years, were largely male (62%), and white (93%). Patient histories included 70.8% hypertension, 38.2% coronary artery disease (CAD), and 23.7% HF. History of stroke, HF, rhythm control arm, lower SF-36 mental component scores (MCS), and lower SF-36 physical component scores (PCS) predicted hospitalization (P<0.001). Diabetes, female gender, older age, CAD, hypertension, and lower PCS predicted mortality (P<0.001).",
"To determine whether geriatric patients aged 65 and older on general adult psychiatric units improve as much as younger patients, over what duration their improvement occurs, and their risk of readmission. Cohort study. Inpatient psychiatric unit of an urban, university-affiliated, county hospital from January 1993 through August 1999. A total of 5,929 inpatients. Standardized, routine assessments by attending psychiatrists included the Psychiatric Symptom Assessment Scale (PSAS) on admission and discharge. Discharge scores, length of stay (LOS), and risk of readmission within 1 year were modeled for the groups using multiple regression analyses. Geriatric patients constituted 5% (n=299) of the 5,929 admissions. In multivariate analysis, geriatric status was not associated with discharge PSAS scores. Median LOS was longer for geriatric patients (16 days) than younger patients (10 days, P<.001), especially in older women (14 days) and geriatric patients with mild medical illness severity (13 days vs 11 days in those with moderate-to-severe medical illness). Geriatric patients were as likely to be readmitted within 1 year of discharge as younger patients.",
"Longitudinal study of a population-based retrospective cohort conformed by adult patients with type-2 diabetes assigned to any of the primary care centres in Aragon during 2010 and 2011 (n=65,716). Negative binomial regressions were run to model the effect of the type of comorbidity on the number of visits to each level of care. Comorbidities were classified as concordant, discordant or mental based on expert consensus and depending on whether they shared the same overall pathophysiologic risk profile and disease management plan designed for type-2 diabetes. Mental comorbidity was independently associated with total and unplanned admissions (incidence rate ratio [IRR]:1.25; 95% confidence interval [CI]:1.12-1.39, IRR:1.21; 95% CI:1.06-1.39), average length of stay (IRR:1.47; 95% CI:1.25-1.73), and total and priority emergency room visits (IRR:1.26; 95% CI:1.17-1.35, IRR:1.30; 95% CI:1.18-1.42). Patients with discordant comorbidities showed the strongest associations with the number of visits to specialists (IRR:1.38; 95% CI:1.33-1.43) and to different specialties (IRR:1.36; 95% CI:1.32-1.39). Differences regarding GP visits were lower but still significant for patients with discordant comorbidity (IRR:1.08; 95% CI:1.06-1.11), but especially for those with mental comorbidity (IRR:1.17; 95% CI:1.14-1.21).",
"yes. Readmission models for the inpatient rehabilitation stroke population based on functional status and age showed better predictive ability than models based on medical comorbidities.",
"To determine whether functional status on admission to a Comprehensive Integrated Inpatient Rehabilitation Program (CIIRP) is associated with unplanned readmission to acute care. Retrospective cohort study. Academic hospital-based CIIRP. Consecutive patients (N=1515) admitted to a CIIRP between January 2009 and June 2012. Patients' functional status, the primary exposure variable, was assessed using tertiles of the total FIM score at CIIRP admission, with secondary analyses using the FIM motor and cognitive domains. A propensity score, consisting of 25 relevant clinical and demographic variables, was used to adjust for confounding in the analysis. Readmission to acute care was categorized as (1) readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP, (2) readmission within 30 days of discharge from the CIIRP, and (3) total readmissions from both groups, with total readmissions being the a priori primary outcome. Among the 1515 patients, there were 347 total readmissions. Total readmissions were significantly associated with FIM scores, with adjusted odds ratios (AORs) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) for the lowest and middle FIM tertiles versus the highest tertile (AOR=2.6; 95% CI, 1.9-3.7; P<.001 and AOR=1.7; 95% CI, 1.2-2.4; P=.002, respectively). There were similar findings for secondary analyses of readmission before planned discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=3.5; 95% CI, 2.2-5.8; P<.001 and AOR=2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.5l P=.002, respectively), and a weaker association for readmissions after discharge from the CIIRP (AOR=1.6; 95% CI, 1.0-2.4; P=.047 and AOR=1.3; 95% CI, 0.8-1.9; P=.28, respectively). The FIM motor domain score was more strongly associated with readmissions than the FIM cognitive score.",
"The aim of this study was to examine whether the physical and mental components of health-related quality of life (HRQoL) are independent predictors of survival in patients with chronic heart failure (CHF). A cohort of 231 outpatients with CHF was followed prospectively for 986 days (median; interquartile range=664-1120). Generic HRQoL was measured with the Short Form-36 Health Survey (SF-36), disease-specific HRQoL was measured with the Kansas City Cardiomyopathy Questionnaire, and depression was measured with the self-reported Patient Health Questionnaire. Both generic and disease-specific HRQoL were predictive of survival on univariate analyses. After adjustment for prognostic factors such as age, gender, degree of left ventricular dysfunction, and functional status, only the mental health component of SF-36 and the disease-specific HRQoL remained significant. When depression was included, both measures also lost their predictive power.",
"This study sought to determine whether a model that included self-reported socioeconomic, health status, and psychosocial characteristics obtained from patients recently discharged from hospitalizations for heart failure substantially improved 30-day readmission risk prediction compared with a model that incorporated only clinical and demographic factors. Existing readmission risk models have poor discrimination and it is unknown whether they would be markedly improved by the inclusion of patient-reported information. As part of the Tele-HF (Telemonitoring to Improve Heart Failure Outcomes) trial, we conducted medical record abstraction and telephone interviews in a sample of 1,004 patients recently hospitalized for heart failure to obtain clinical, functional, and psychosocial information within 2 weeks of discharge. Candidate risk factors included 110 variables divided into 2 groups: demographic and clinical variables generally available from the medical record; and socioeconomic, health status, adherence, and psychosocial variables from patient interview. The 30-day readmission rate was 17.1%. Using the 3-level risk score derived from the restricted medical record variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 10.9% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 8.2% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 2 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 32.1% (95% CI: 22.4% to 43.2%), a C-statistic of 0.62. Using the 5-level risk score derived from all variables, patients with a score of 0 (no risk factors) had a readmission rate of 9.6% (95% CI: 6.1% to 14.2%), and patients with a score of 4 (all risk factors) had a readmission rate of 55.0% (95% CI: 31.5% to 76.9%), a C-statistic of 0.65.",
"yes. Coronary heart disease patients' perception of their symptoms and sense of control at time of discharge were significantly associated with their quality of life three years after discharge.",
"yes. Patients admitted for subacute in-hospital rehabilitation were able to anticipate their discharge health-related quality of life on the EQ-5D instrument with a moderate level of accuracy. This finding adds to the foundational empirical work supporting joint treatment decision making and patient-centered models of care during rehabilitation following acute illness or injury. Accurate patient expectations of the impact of treatment (or disease progression) on future health-related related quality of life is likely to allow patients and health professionals to successfully target interventions to priority areas where meaningful gains can be achieved.",
"As the majority of unplanned hospital readmissions were associated with medical diagnoses, it is important to consider patient medical comorbidities before surgical treatment of proximal humerus fractures and during the postoperative care phase.",
"to examine the relationship between depressive symptoms and hospital outcomes in an unselected consecutive sample of older medical inpatients. a prospective cohort study of individuals screened for a trial. medical wards of UK district general hospital in rural East Anglia. six hundred and seventeen medical inpatients aged 65+ were randomly selected from consecutive admissions. Baseline measures: 15-item Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS-15), the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) and the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale-Geriatric (CIRS-G). length of hospital stay; discharge to a community hospital (for rehabilitation), institutional care or usual place of residence; dying in hospital. depressive symptoms are independently associated with an increased likelihood of inpatient death and transfer to a community hospital for rehabilitation, but are not associated with longer length of stay.",
"Multimorbidity poses a significant clinical challenge and has been linked to greater health services use, including hospitalization; however, we have little knowledge about the influence of contextual factors on outcomes in this population. To describe the extent to which the association between multimorbidity and hospitalization is modified by age, gender, primary care practice model, or continuity of care (COC) among adults with at least one chronic condition. A retrospective cohort study with linked population-based administrative data. Ontario, Canada. All individuals 18 and older with at least one of 16 priority chronic conditions as of April 1, 2009 (baseline). Any hospitalization, 3 or more hospitalizations, non-medical discharge delay, and 30-day readmission within the 1 year following baseline. Of 5,958,514 individuals, 484,872 (8.1 %) experienced 646,347 hospitalizations. There was a monotonic increase in the likelihood of hospitalization and related outcomes with increasing multimorbidity which was modified by age, gender, and COC but not primary care practice model. The effect of increasing multimorbidity was greater in younger adults than older adults and in those with lower COC than with higher COC. The effect of increasing multimorbidity on hospitalization was greater in men than women but reversed for the other outcomes.",
"High readmission rates are viewed by the Centers for Medicare&Medicaid Services as a quality of care determinant but it is unclear whether readmission rates per se reflect quality and the drivers of readmissions after hip arthroplasty remain unclear.QUESTION/ We therefore describe the effects of (1) insurance, discharge disposition, and mental health status as they relate to rates; (2) rehospitalization charges; and (3) reasons for readmissions. We studied a cohort of all 27,019 patients who initially underwent hip arthroplasty in Florida (April 2009 to March 2010). Participants were identified using the All Patient-Refined Diagnosis-Related Group 301. Data were provided by the Agency for Health Care Administration and the Florida Hospital Association who with the Florida Orthopedic Society studied readmissions within 15 days. We extracted readmission rates and their reasons; original payers, discharge disposition, mental health status; and readmission charges. The readmission rate in the first 15 days was 5%. Rates varied by type of insurance: self-pay/underinsured, Medicaid, and Medicare patients (6%) had higher rates than individuals with commercial insurance, HMO, or PPO (3%). Patients discharged to skilled nursing facilities (SNFs) had higher rates (7%) than patients discharged home with/without health care (both 3%). Patients with a mental health issue (10%) were readmitted more frequently than patients without it (5%). Medicare readmissions comprised 81% (USD 59,222,829) of the total readmission charges in this cohort. The most common reasons were infections (all 27%), hip arthroplasty (11%), and cardiovascular problems (9%).",
"To determine whether or not having an outpatient visit after hospital discharge is associated with a lower likelihood of readmission for a statewide Medicaid population. A case-control study in the Delaware Medicaid program over a two-year period (7/1/93-6/30/95). 3,846 continuously enrolled patients aged 0-64 years who were hospitalized and were readmitted within 90 days (cases = 641) or not readmitted within 90 days (controls = 3,205). Subgroups included those readmitted for the same diagnosis (N = 720), for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (N = 906), or both (N = 276). Likelihood of readmission within 90 days of discharge. Readmission was significantly more likely when an outpatient visit was made after hospital discharge, both before and after controlling for demographic variables and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.47, 95% confidence interval = 1.20-1.80). When readmission for the same diagnosis was examined, having an outpatient visit was associated with an increased likelihood of readmission before but not after controlling for demographics and case mix (adjusted odds ratio = 1.11, 95% confidence interval = 0.67-1.86). The same was for those admitted for ambulatory care sensitive conditions (adjusted odds ratio = 1.16, 95% confidence interval = 0.74-1.85) and for those readmitted for the same ambulatory care sensitive condition (adjusted odds ratio = 1.53, 95% confidence interval = 0.54-4.29).",
"What are the effects of additional exercise on hospital and patient outcomes for acutely-hospitalised older medical patients? Controlled clinical trial. 236 Patients aged 65 or older admitted to an acute care hospital with a medical illness between October 2002 and July 2003. The experimental group received usual care plus an individually tailored exercise program administered twice daily from hospital admission to discharge. The control group received usual care only. The primary outcome was discharge destination. Secondary outcomes were measures of activity limitation (Barthel Index, Timed Up and Go, Functional Ambulation Classification), length of stay, and adverse events. There was no significant effect of the additional exercise program on any outcome. There were no significant differences between groups for the proportion of the patients discharged to home (RR 0.99, 95% CI 0.86 to 1.14) or inpatient rehabilitation (RR 0.76, 95% CI 0.30 to 1.51) or for measures of activity limitation at hospital discharge. A one day difference in length of stay was identified between groups but this difference was not significant (p = 0.45). There were no significant differences between groups for adverse events: 28-day readmission (RR 1.10, 95% CI 0.65 to 1.86), patient mortality (RR 1.15, 95% CI 0.16 to 8.0), intensive care admission (RR 0.16, 95% CI 0.01 to 3.13) and falls (RR 0.69, 95% CI 0.17 to 2.81).",
"yes. Reported elder self-neglect was associated with increased rates of 30-day hospital readmission in this community population. Greater self-neglect severity was associated with a greater increase in the rate of 30-day hospital readmission.",
"yes. Readmission to inpatient psychiatric treatment was common for patients with co-occurring disorders, and these observational findings indicate that continuing care for a substance use disorder was associated with lower risk of early readmission.",
"yes. In older adults with cancer, certain geriatric parameters are associated with shorter survival after hospitalization. Assessment of functional status, necessity for readmission, and cognitive impairment may provide prognostic information so that oncologists and their patients make more informed, individualized decisions.",
"Preventive home visits were not effective in reducing hospital readmissions, but satisfaction with care was enhanced. Subjective well-being is a key variable that warrants attention in the planning and evaluation of postdischarge home care.",
"yes. This study shows a significant and linear relationship between lower global and physical HRQL scores in patients with IHD and 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmission.",
"This study investigated the relationship between patient-rated unmet needs and subjective quality of life using routine outcome data. 265 mental health service patients from South Verona were assessed using the Camberwell Assessment of Need, the Lancashire Quality of Life Profile, and other standardised assessments of symptoms, disability, function and service satisfaction. At 1-year follow-up, 166 patients were still in contact, of whom 121 patients (73%) were re-assessed. Higher baseline quality of life was associated with being male, a diagnosis of psychosis, higher disability, higher satisfaction with care, fewer staff-rated or patient-rated unmet needs, and fewer patient-rated met needs (accounting for 40% of the variance). Specifically, fewer baseline patient-rated unmet needs were cross-sectionally associated with a higher quality of life (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.12 to -0.04). Apart from its baseline value, the only baseline predictor of follow-up QoL was patient-rated unmet need (B = -0.08, 95% CI -0.21 to -0.09), accounting for 58% of the variance in follow-up quality of life. Graphical chain modelling confirmed this association.",
"Health-related quality of life (HRQOL) is a major clinical outcome for heart failure (HF) patients. We aimed to determine the frequency, durability, and prognostic significance of improved HRQOL after hospitalization for decompensated HF. We analyzed HRQOL, measured serially using the Minnesota Living with Heart Failure Questionnaire (MLHFQ), for 425 patients who survived to discharge in a multicenter randomized clinical trial of pulmonary artery catheter versus clinical assessment to guide therapy for patients with advanced HF. All patients enrolled had 1 or more prior HF hospitalizations or chronic high diuretic doses and 1 or more symptom and 1 sign of fluid overload at admission. Improvement, defined as a decrease of more than 5 points in MLHFQ total score, occurred in 68% of patients by 1 month and stabilized. The degree of 1-month improvement differed (P < .0001 group x time interaction) between 6-month survivors and non-survivors. In a Cox regression model, after adjustment for traditional risk factors for HF morbidity and mortality, improvement in HRQOL by 1 month compared to worsening at 1 month or no change predicted time to subsequent event-free survival (P=.013).",
"Quality of life (QoL) for women with gynecologic malignancies is predictive of chemotherapy related toxicity and overall survival but has not been studied in relation to surgical outcomes and hospital readmissions. Our goal was to evaluate the association between baseline, pre-operative QoL measures and 30-day post-operative morbidity and health resource utilization by gynecologic oncology patients. We analyzed prospectively collected survey data from an institution-wide cohort study. Patients were enrolled from 8/2012 to 6/2013 and medical record data was abstracted (demographics, comorbid conditions, and operative outcomes). Responses from several validated health-related QoL instruments were collected. Bivariate tests and multivariable linear and logistic regression models were used to evaluate factors associated with QoL scores. Of 182 women with suspected gynecologic malignancies, 152 (84%) were surveyed pre-operatively and 148 (81%) underwent surgery. Uterine (94; 63.5%), ovarian (26; 17.5%), cervical (15; 10%), vulvar/vaginal (8; 5.4%), and other (5; 3.4%) cancers were represented. There were 37 (25%) cases of postoperative morbidity (PM), 18 (12%) unplanned ER visits, 9(6%) unplanned clinic visits, and 17 (11.5%) hospital readmissions (HR) within 30days of surgery. On adjusted analysis, lower functional well-being scores resulted in increased odds of PM (OR 1.07, 95%CI 1.01-.1.21) and HR (OR 1.11, 95%CI 1.03-1.19). A subjective global assessment score was also strongly associated with HR (OR 1.89, 95%CI 1.14, 3.16).",
"Ascites, the most frequent complication of cirrhosis, is associated with poor prognosis and reduced quality of life. Recurrent hospital admissions are common and often unplanned, resulting in increased use of hospital services. To examine use of hospital services by patients with cirrhosis and ascites requiring paracentesis, and to investigate factors associated with early unplanned readmission. A retrospective review of the medical chart and clinical databases was performed for patients who underwent paracentesis between October 2011 and October 2012. Clinical parameters at index admission were compared between patients with and without early unplanned hospital readmissions. The 41 patients requiring paracentesis had 127 hospital admissions, 1164 occupied bed days and 733 medical imaging services. Most admissions (80.3%) were for management of ascites, of which 41.2% were unplanned. Of those eligible, 69.7% were readmitted and 42.4% had an early unplanned readmission. Twelve patients died and nine developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Of those eligible for readmission, more patients died (P = 0.008) and/or developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (P = 0.027) if they had an early unplanned readmission during the study period. Markers of liver disease, as well as haemoglobin (P = 0.029), haematocrit (P = 0.024) and previous heavy alcohol use (P = 0.021) at index admission, were associated with early unplanned readmission.",
"Unplanned readmission within 30 days of discharge is an indicator of hospital quality. We wanted to determine whether older rural veterans who were enrolled in the VA had different rates of unplanned readmission to VA or non-VA hospitals than their urban counterparts. We used the combined VA/Medicare dataset to examine 3,513,912 hospital admissions for older veterans that occurred in VA or non-VA hospitals between 1997 and 2004. We calculated 30-day readmission rates and odds ratios for rural and urban veterans, and we performed a logistic regression analysis to determine whether living in a rural setting or initially using the VA for hospitalization were independent risk factors for unplanned 30-day readmission, after adjusting for age, sex, length of stay of the index admission, and morbidity. Overall, rural veterans had slightly higher 30-day readmission rates than their urban counterparts (17.96% vs 17.86%; OR 1.006, 95% CI: 1.0004, 1.013). For both rural- and urban-dwelling veterans, readmission after using a VA hospital was more common than after using a non-VA hospital (20.7% vs 16.8% for rural veterans, 21.2% vs 16.1% for urban veterans). After adjusting for other variables, readmission was more likely for rural veterans and following admission to a VA hospital.",
"To examine the relationship between health-related quality of life (HRQOL) and health service use among older adults with osteoarthritis (OA). Subjects were 9,043 Medicare-enrolled survey respondents with a prior International Classification of Diseases, Ninth Revision code for OA. Analyses examined the relationship of 5 Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HRQOL items (general health, mental health, pain, activity limitation, and sleep) to physician visits, prescription analgesic or antiinflammatory use, and arthroplasty during 1 year of followup. In analyses controlling for demographic and health-related variables, greater pain frequency was associated with increased odds of visiting a physician, using analgesic or antiinflammatory drugs, and having arthroplasty (P < 0.001). Poorer general health was associated with increased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use but decreased odds of arthroplasty (P < 0.01). More days of activity limitation and poor mental health were associated with decreased odds of analgesic or antiinflammatory use (P < 0.01).",
"Emergency room (ER) visits and hospitalizations of elderly subjects with chronic comorbidities, often disabled, are increasing. The aim of the present study was to assess whether among older subjects functional disability is associated with increased ER visits and hospitalization rates. We assessed the association of functional ability with 1-year ER visits and hospitalization rates in all 342 subjects aged 75+ living in Tuscania (Italy) in 2004. Functional ability was estimated using the Katz' activities of daily living (ADLs), and the Lawton and Brody scale for the instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Functional disability was defined as the dependence for two or more ADLs or IADLs. According to Cox regression, disability in ADLs was associated with increased risk of ER visits (RR 2.12; 95 % CI 1.11-4.08; P = .023) but not of hospital admission (RR 1.50; 95 % CI .80-2.80; P = .208). Also, in Poisson regression, ADLs disability predicted the number of ER visits (IRR 2.56; 95 % CI 1.48-4.40; P = .001).",
"This study examined the association of self-care behavior and patients' knowledge about self-care with rehospitalization among older adults with heart failure (HF). Case-control comparison (116 cases and 209 controls) nested in a prospective cohort of patients aged 65 years and older admitted for HF at 4 Spanish hospitals. Cases were patients experiencing a first emergency rehospitalization in the 6 months following the index hospital admission. Controls were patients who did not undergo a rehospitalization during such time-period. The number of self-care behaviors was inversely associated with the frequency of readmission (p for linear trend: 0.006). Compared with patients showing the appropriate self-care behavior, hospital readmission was more frequent among those who did no go for a walk daily or did not engage in any daily physical activity (hazard ratio [HR] 1.55; 95% confidence limits [CL] 1.04-2.29), and among those who did not keep their medical appointments (HR 1.82; 95% CL 1.10-3.02). Hospital readmission was also more frequent among patients who: failed to take their medication at the scheduled time (HR 2.07; 95% CL 1.15-3.72); stopped taking their medication when it disagreed with them (HR 1.76; 95% CL 1.08-2.85); and failed to adhere to their drug treatment (HR 1.96; 95% CL 1.29-2.98). Furthermore, the fewer the number of behaviors which patients knew to be required for self-care, the greater the frequency of rehospitalization (p for linear trend:0.029).",
"In COPD, hospital admissions and readmissions account for the majority of health-care costs. The aim of this prospective randomized controlled study was to determine if early pulmonary rehabilitation, commenced as an inpatient and continued after discharge, reduced acute health-care utilization. Consecutive COPD patients (n = 397), admitted with an exacerbation, were screened: 228 satisfied the eligibility criteria, of whom 97 consented to randomization to rehabilitation or usual care. Both intention-to-treat and per-protocol analyses are reported with adherence being defined a priori as participation in at least 75% of rehabilitation sessions. The participants were elderly with severe impairment of pulmonary function, poor health-related quality of life and high COPD-related morbidity. The rehabilitation group demonstrated a 23% (95% CI: 11-36%) risk of readmission at 3 months, with attendees having a 16% (95% CI: 0-32%) risk compared with 32% (95% CI: 19-45%) for usual care. These differences were not significant. There were a total of 79 COPD-related readmission days (1.7 per patient, 95% CI: 0.6-2.7, P = 0.19) in the rehabilitation group, compared with 25 (1.3 per patient, 95% CI: 0-3.1, P = 0.17) for the attendees and 209 (4.2 per patient, 95% CI: 1.7-6.7) for usual care. The BMI, airflow obstruction, dyspnoea and exercise capacity index showed a non-significant trend to greater improvement among attendees compared with those receiving usual care (5.5 (2.3) and 5.6 (2.7) at baseline, improving to 3.7 (1.9) and 4.5 (2.5), respectively, at 3 months). No adverse effects were identified.",
"To examine the possible use of readmission rates as an outcome indicator of hospital inpatient care by investigating avoidability of unplanned readmissions within 28 days of discharge. Retrospective analysis of a stratified random sample of case notes of patients with an unplanned readmission between July 1987 and June 1988 by nine clinical assessors (263 assessments) and categorisation of the readmission as avoidable, unavoidable, or unclassifiable. District in North East Thames region. 481 General medical, geriatric, and general surgical inpatients with a readmission at 0-6 days or 21-27 days after the first (index) discharge between July 1987 and June 1988 from whom 100 case notes were selected randomly and of which 74 were available for study. Assessment of readmissions as avoidable, unavoidable, unclassifiable, variability of assessment within cases and variability among assessors according to specialty and duration to readmission. General medical and geriatric readmissions and surgical readmissions at 0-6 days after discharge were more likely to be assessed as avoidable than those at 21-27 days (medical readmissions 32 v 6%, surgical admissions 49 v 19%). General surgical readmissions were significantly more frequently assessed as avoidable than general medical and geriatric readmissions. The extent of agreement between doctors varied, with general medical and geriatric readmissions at 21-27 days after first discharge causing the greatest variability of judgment.",
"The Improving Medicare Post-Acute Care Transformation (IMPACT) Act of 2014 stipulates that standardized functional status (self-care and mobility) and cognitive function data will be used for quality reporting in post-acute care settings. Thirty-day post-discharge unplanned rehospitalization is an established quality metric that has recently been extended to post-acute settings. The relationships between the functional domains in the IMPACT Act and 30-day unplanned rehospitalization are poorly understood. To determine the degree to which discharge mobility, self-care, and cognitive function are associated with 30-day unplanned rehospitalization following discharge from post-acute care. This was a retrospective cohort study. Inpatient rehabilitation facilities submitting claims and assessment data to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in 2012-2013. Medicare fee-for-service enrollees discharged from post-acute rehabilitation in 2012-2013. The sample included community-dwelling adults admitted for rehabilitation following an acute care stay who survived for 32 days following discharge (N = 252,406). Not applicable. Thirty-day unplanned rehospitalization following post-acute rehabilitation. The unadjusted 30-day unplanned rehospitalization rate was 12.0 % (n = 30,179). Overall, patients dependent at discharge for mobility had a 50 % increased odds of rehospitalization (OR = 1.50, 95 % CI: 1.42-1.59), patients dependent for self-care a 36 % increased odds (OR = 1.36, 95 % CI: 1.27-1.47), and patients dependent for cognition a 19 % increased odds (OR = 1.19, 95 % CI: 1.09-1.29). Patients dependent for both self-care and mobility at discharge (n = 8312, 3.3 %) had a 16.1 % (95 % CI: 15.3-17.0 %) adjusted rehospitalization rate versus 8.5 % (95 % CI: 8.3-8.8 %) for those independent for both (n = 74,641; 29.6 %).",
"Older patients with comorbid mental illness are shown to receive less appropriate care for their medical conditions. This study analyzed Medicare patients hospitalized for acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and determined whether those with comorbid mental illness were more likely to present to hospitals with lower quality of AMI care. Retrospective analyses of Medicare claims in 2008. Hospital quality was measured using the five \"Hospital Compare\" process indicators (aspirin at admission/discharge, beta-blocker at admission/discharge, and angiotension-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotension receptor blocker for left ventricular dysfunction). Multinomial logit model determined the association of mental illness with admission to low-quality hospitals (rank of the composite process score<10(th) percentile) or high-quality hospitals (rank>90(th) percentile), compared to admissions to other hospitals with medium quality. Multivariate analyses further determined the effects of hospital type and mental diagnosis on outcomes. Among all AMI admissions to 2,845 hospitals, 41,044 out of 287,881 patients were diagnosed with mental illness. Mental illness predicted a higher likelihood of admission to low-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 2.9% vs. 2.0%; adjusted odds ratio [OR]1.25, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.17-1.34, p<0.01), and an equal likelihood to high-quality hospitals (unadjusted rate 9.8% vs. 10.3%; adjusted OR 0.97, 95% CI 0.93-1.01, p = 0.11). Both lower hospital quality and mental diagnosis predicted higher rates of 30-day readmission, 30-day mortality, and 1-year mortality.",
"Chronic heart failure (HF) is associated with a poor Health Related Quality of Life (HRQoL). HRQoL has been shown to be a predictor of HF outcomes however, variability in the study designs make it difficult to apply these findings to a clinical setting. The aim of this study was to establish if HRQoL is a predictor of long-term mortality and morbidity in HF patients followed-up in a disease management program (DMP) and if a HRQoL instrument could be applied to aid in identifying high-risk patients within a clinical context. This is a retrospective analysis of HF patients attending a DMP with 18+/-9 months follow-up. Clinical and biochemical parameters were recorded on discharge from index HF admission and HRQoL measures were recorded at 2 weeks post index admission. 225 patients were enrolled into the study (mean age=69+/-12 years, male=61%, and 78%=systolic HF). In multivariable analysis, all dimensions of HRQoL (measured by the Minnesota Living with HF Questionnaire) were independent predictors of both mortality and readmissions particularly in patients <80 years. A significant interaction between HRQoL and age (Total((HRQoL))age: p<0.001) indicated that the association of HRQoL with outcomes diminished as age increased.",
"A randomized controlled trial was carried out from 2003 to 2005 . The control group (n = 166) received routine care and the study group (n = 166) received home visits from community nurses within 30 days of hospital discharge. Data were collected at baseline before discharge and 30 days after discharge. Patients in the study group were statistically significantly more satisfied with their care. There were no statistically significant differences in other outcomes, including readmission rate, ADL score, self-perceived life satisfaction and self-perceived health. Regression analysis revealed that self-perceived life satisfaction, self-perceived health and disease category other than general symptoms were three statistically significant variables predicting hospital readmissions.",
"Chronically mentally ill patients in community mental health care report a better quality of life (QOL) than those in long-term hospital care, which suggests that the treatment setting per se influences their QOL. In a region where both treatment settings are of a comparable high standard, we assessed the QOL of 96 schizophrenic patients from these two treatment settings, and the factors which most influenced their QOL. Community-care patients reported a better QOL than long-term hospital-care patients. However, when other factors influencing QOL were included in a regression analysis, the place of treatment was no longer significant, but rather the social support, the severity of the illness, educational level and certain illness concepts.",
"yes. Among community-dwelling older adults, early hospital readmission is a marker for notably increased risk of one-year mortality. Providers, patients, and families all might respond profitably to an early readmission by reviewing treatment plans and goals of care.",
"To study whether health-related quality of life (HRQOL), activities of daily living (ADL), and anxiety and depression symptoms affect the risk of hospital admission and potential interactions with having a cancer diagnosis. This study was a prospective observational study with 5-year follow-up and analyzed the follow-up data on hospital admissions until 2010 using baseline data from 227 cognitively intact nursing home (NH) residents (60 of whom had cancer) in 2004-2005. Data on HRQOL were collected by using the Short Form-36 Health Survey, divided into physical component summary (PCS) and mental component summary (MCS), and symptoms of anxiety and depression were collected by using the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS). ADL were obtained from registered observation and sociodemographic variables, diagnoses, and hospital admissions from the NH records. Personal identification numbers were linked to the record systems of the hospitals, thereby registering all hospital admissions. We analyzed the time elapsing between inclusion and the first hospital admission. Residents with higher HRQOL (MCS) had significantly more hospital admissions after adjustment for age, sex, marital status, education, and comorbidity. HRQOL (PCS), ADL, depression, and anxiety symptoms were not associated with hospital admissions. Cancer increased the risk after adjustment for all other risk factors but did not increase the effects of MCS, PCS, ADL, or depression or anxiety symptoms. Having a higher level of education and being less than 75 years of age were associated with hospitalization. The residents diagnosed with cancer had the most days in hospital related to diseases of the respiratory system and cancer, and diseases of the circulatory and respiratory systems were more frequent among the residents without a cancer diagnosis.",
"Elder self-neglect is associated with increased morbidity and mortality. The objective of this study is to examine the prospective relationship between reported elder self-neglect and the rate of 30-day hospital readmission in a community population. We conducted a prospective population-based study of community-dwelling older adults who participated in the Chicago Health and Aging Project. Of the 7,219 participants in the Chicago Health and Aging Project, a subset of 1,228 participants was reported to the social services agency for suspected elder self-neglect. The primary predictor was elder self-neglect reported to the social services agency. The outcome of interest was the annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission calculated from the Center for Medicare and Medicaid System hospitalization data from 1993 to 2009. Poisson regression models were used to assess these relationships. The average annual rate of 30-day hospital readmission for those without elder self-neglect was 0.2 (SD 0.7) and for those with reported elder self-neglect 0.9 (SD 2.8). After adjusting for sociodemographic and socioeconomic characteristics, medical comorbidities, cognitive function, physical function, and psychosocial well-being, elders who self-neglect had a significantly higher rate of 30-day hospital readmission (rate ratio 2.50, 95% confidence interval 2.02-3.10). Greater self-neglect severity [mild: parameter estimate (PE) 1.09, standard error (SE) 0.19, p < 0.001; moderate: PE 0.84, SE 0.13, p < 0.001; severe: PE 1.24, SE 0.40, p = 0.002] was associated with increased annual rates of 30-day hospital readmission after considering the same confounders. Interaction term analyses suggest that the significant relationship between self-neglect and 30-day hospital readmission was not moderated by medical conditions, cognitive impairment, physical disability, or psychosocial well-being.",
"To assess whether health-related quality of life is an independent prognostic factor for mortality or nursing home placement in frail elderly patients. A prospective, multicenter study with a 12-month follow-up. Nine French hospitals. A total of 1306 patients aged 75 and older hospitalized through an emergency department. Data obtained from sociodemographic characteristics, Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment and the Duke Health Profile (DHP) were used into a Cox model to identify prognostic variables for 12-month mortality and institutionalization. Crude mortality and nursing home placement rates were 34.1% (n = 445) and 16.1% (n = 210), respectively. Independent prognostic factors identified for mortality were: Comorbidity level (moderate: hazard ratio [HR] [95% confidence interval (CI)]= 1.40 [1.09-1.78]; severe: 2.70 [1.63-4.46]), dependence for activities of daily living (1.68 [1.06-2.67]), pressure sore risk (1.49 [1.16-1.90]), risk of malnutrition (2.09 [1.46-3.00]), delirium (2.25 [1.75-2.90]), and 10-point increase in the DHP perceived health score (0.96 [0.93-0.99]). Independent prognostic factors identified for nursing home placement were the following: living alone at home (1.82 [1.30-2.55]), having 2 children or more (0.71 [0.51-0.99]), dependence for activities of daily living (2.48 [1.39-4.44]), dementia (1.93 [1.39-2.69]), unplanned hospital readmission during follow-up (2.05 [1.45-2.91]), and 10-point increase in the DHP social health score (0.90 [0.83-0.99]). Balance troubles and risk of malnutrition were no more significant when adjusted for the DHP scores and other clinical variables.",
"Rehospitalization occurs in approximately 20% of medical inpatients within 90 days of discharge. Rehospitalization accounts for considerable morbidity, mortality, and costs. Identification of risk factors could lead to interventions to reduce rehospitalization. The objective of the study was to determine if physical and mental health, substance abuse, and social support are risk factors for rehospitalization. This was a prospective cohort study in an innercity population conducted from September 2002 to September 2004. Participants included 144 adult inpatients with at least 1 hospital admission in the past 6 months. Measurements included age, length of stay, number of admissions in the past year, and medical comorbidity as well as measures of depression, alcohol and drug abuse, social support, and health-related quality of life. The outcome studied was the rehospitalization status of participants within 90 days of the index hospitalization. The mean age of the subjects was 54.8 years; 48% were black and 78% spoke English as a primary language. Subjects were admitted a mean of 2.5 times in the year before the index admission. Sixty-four patients (44%) were subsequently rehospitalized within 90 days after the index admission. In bivariate analysis, rehospitalized patients had more prior admissions (median of 3.0 vs. 2.0 admissions, p = .002), greater medical comorbidity (mean Charlson Comorbidity Index score of 2.6 vs. 2.0, p = .04), and poorer physical functional status (mean SF-12 physical component score of 31.5 vs. 36.2, p = .03). A logistic regression model, including prior admissions in the last year, comorbidity, physical functional status, and depression, showed that depression tripled the odds of rehospitalization (odds ratio = 3.3, 95% CI = 1.2 to 9.3). This model had fair accuracy in identifying patients at greatest risk for rehospitalization (c statistic = 0.72).",
"Patient health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an important health outcome with lower HRQL associated with adverse events in patients with ischaemic heart disease (IHD). Baseline health-related quality of life was investigated as a predictor of 5-year all-cause mortality and cardiac readmissions in Danish patients with IHD. The international HeartQoL Project survey was designed to develop a core HRQL questionnaire for patients with IHD. Baseline scores on each of the 14 items ultimately included in the HeartQoL questionnaire were linked to Danish national health registries and hazard ratios for mortality and readmissions were estimated using Cox regression models. Among 938 eligible Danish patients with IHD, 662 (70.6%) participated in the international HeartQoL Project. During the 5-year follow-up, 83 patients died and 196 patients were readmitted. Adjusted analyses showed a significant linear association between all-cause mortality and both lower global HRQL (HR = 1.67, 95% CI: 1.26-2.23; p<0.001) and physical scores (HR=1.71, 1.33-2.21; p<0.001) and between readmission and both lower global (HR=1.73, 1.41-2.12; p < 0.001) and physical scores (HR = 1.63, 1.35-1.96; p < 0.001). A significant, but non-linear, effect was found for emotional HRQL score on outcomes.",
"For chronically ill patients, readmission to the hospital can be frequent and costly. We studied the effect of an intervention designed to increase access to primary care after discharge from the hospital, with the goals of reducing readmissions and emergency department visits and increasing patients' quality of life and satisfaction with care. In a multicenter randomized, controlled trial at nine Veterans Affairs Medical Centers, we randomly assigned 1396 veterans hospitalized with diabetes, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or congestive heart failure to receive either usual care or an intensive primary care intervention. The intervention involved close follow-up by a nurse and a primary care physician, beginning before discharge and continuing for the next six months. The patients were severely ill. Half of those with congestive heart failure (504 patients) had disease in New York Heart Association class III or IV; 30 percent of those with diabetes (751 patients) had end-organ damage; and a quarter of those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (583 patients) required home oxygen treatment or oral corticosteroids. The patients had extremely poor quality-of-life scores. Although they received more intensive primary care than the controls, the patients in the intervention group had significantly higher rates of readmission (0.19 vs 0.14 per month, P = 0.005) and more days of rehospitalization (10.2 vs 8.8, P = 0.041). The patients in the intervention group were more satisfied with their care (P<0.001), but there was no difference between the study groups in quality-of-life scores, which remained very low (P = 0.53).",
"Health-related quality of life (HRQL) is an increasingly well-recognized measure of health outcome in cardiology. We examined HRQL as a predictor of unplanned rehospitalization for cardiac reasons in patients after coronary revascularization over a period of 3 years. Out of 791 patients enrolled in the study, 743 completed the MacNew HRQL questionnaire after coronary revascularization. MacNew HRQL scores were used as predictors of unplanned rehospitalization. Within the 3-year follow-up period, 125 patients (16.8 %) were rehospitalized. After adjustment for age, gender, and myocardial infarction as the initiating event, there were significant differences in unplanned rehospitalization rates between patients with low or moderate vs. high MacNew HRQL global scores (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) and both physical (HR: 2.2, 95 % CI: 1.4-3.5) and social (HR: 1.8, 95 % CI: 1.2-2.7) subscale scores.",
"Among patients with heart failure, early unplanned readmissions were not associated with suboptimal admission work-up or evaluation and treatment but were weakly associated with readiness for discharge. However, they were strongly associated with the patients' clinical and demographic characteristics.",
"Hospital readmission within thirty days is common among Medicare beneficiaries, but the relationship between rehospitalization and subsequent mortality in older adults is not known. To compare one-year mortality rates among community-dwelling elderly hospitalized Medicare beneficiaries who did and did not experience early hospital readmission (within 30 days), and to estimate the odds of one-year mortality associated with early hospital readmission and with other patient characteristics. A cohort study of 2133 hospitalized community-dwelling Medicare beneficiaries older than 64 years, who participated in the nationally representative Cost and Use Medicare Current Beneficiary Survey between 2001 and 2004, with follow-up through 2006. One-year mortality after index hospitalization discharge. Three hundred and four (13.7 %) hospitalized beneficiaries had an early hospital readmission. Those with early readmission had higher one-year mortality (38.7 %) than patients who were not readmitted (12.1 %; p<0.001). Early readmission remained independently associated with mortality after adjustment for sociodemographic factors, health and functional status, medical comorbidity, and index hospitalization-related characteristics [HR (95 % CI) 2.97 (2.24-3.92)]. Other patient characteristics independently associated with mortality included age [1.03 (1.02-1.05) per year], low income [1.39 (1.04-1.86)], limited self-rated health [1.60 (1.20-2.14)], two or more recent hospitalizations [1.47 (1.01-2.15)], mobility difficulty [1.51 (1.03-2.20)], being underweight [1.62 (1.14-2.31)], and several comorbid conditions, including chronic lung disease, cancer, renal failure, and weight loss. Hospitalization-related factors independently associated with mortality included longer length of stay, discharge to a skilled nursing facility for post-acute care, and primary diagnoses of infections, cancer, acute myocardial infarction, and heart failure.",
"To determine if early unplanned readmissions of patients hospitalized for heart failure are associated with suboptimal in-hospital care or with the clinical and demographic characteristics of the patient. We performed a case-control study among patients discharged with a principal diagnosis of heart failure. Cases included all patients unexpectedly readmitted within 31 days of discharge; controls were randomly selected from among those not readmitted. Quality of care was measured using explicit criteria reflecting the admission work-up, evaluation and treatment, and readiness for discharge. Ninety-one cases and 351 controls were included. There was no significant association between early unplanned readmissions and the scores for quality of the admission work-up or evaluation and treatment during the stay. There was a significant association between readiness for discharge and subsequent early readmission: for each 10% decrease in the proportion of fulfilled criteria, the odds of readmission increased by 14% (95% confidence interval [CI] 1. 01 to 1.28, P = 0.04) for all-cause readmissions and by 19% (95% CI: 1.04 to 1.36, P = 0.01) for heart-failure-related readmissions. In a multiple logistic regression model, previous diagnosis of heart failure (odds ratio [OR]= 2.9, 95% CI: 1.7 to 4.8, P<0.001), age (OR = 3.3, 95% CI: 1.3 to 8.5, P = 0.01 for patients aged 65 to 79 years and OR = 4.1, 95% CI: 1.6 to 11, P = 0.004 for patients aged 80 years and older), and history of cardiac revascularization (OR = 2.1, 95% CI: 1.2 to 3.9, P = 0.01) showed a stronger association with early unplanned all-cause readmissions than the readiness-for-discharge score (OR = 1.16, 95% CI: 1.02 to 1.31, P = 0.02). Similar findings were seen for heart failure-related readmissions.",
"In this cohort of predominantly older and chronically ill patients recently discharged from acute hospital care, relatively lower SF-36 physical health component scores were independently associated with an increased risk of subsequent unplanned readmission.",
"Assessment of health-related quality of life (HRQL) is being used increasingly to assess the impact of treatment. To determine if HRQL, assessed shortly after acute hospitalisation, is associated with readmission to hospital. In a prospective, longitudinal study, 163 chronically ill, medical and surgical patients (mean age 67.0+/-16.3 years) discharged to home following acute hospitalisation were studied. HRQL was assessed at one month post-hospital discharge using the MOS 36-Item Short-Form Health Survey (SF-36). Patients were followed-up for six months thereafter to determine subsequent incidence of unplanned readmission. HRQL as measured by the eight health dimensions of the SF-36, for the entire cohort, was lower relative to age and gender matched norms for the local population (p<0.01). During study follow-up, 47 (35%) patients had an unplanned readmission and one patient died. Patients who had an unplanned readmission demonstrated both significantly lower physical (32.2+/-9.8 vs 38.6+/-10.1: p<0.001) and mental (45.1+/-12.7 vs 49.9+/-12.3: p=0.03) health component scores in comparison to the remainder of the cohort. On multivariate analysis, independent correlates of unplanned readmission were: 1) presence of formal home assistance (OR 6.4: p<0.01), 2)>or =five prescribed medications (OR 2.4: p=0.04), 3)>or =two admissions in the six months before follow-up (OR 4.3: p<0.01) and 4) an SF-36 physical component score of<or =40 (OR 2.2: p=0.05)."
] | 747 |
Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring: can patients handle the technology? | [
"To evaluate the validity of spirometry self-testing during home telemonitoring and to assess the acceptance of an Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring system by asthma patients. We studied an Internet-based telemonitoring system that collected spirometry data and symptom reports from asthma patients' homes for review by physicians in the medical center's clinical information system. After a 40-min training session, patients completed an electronic diary and performed spirometry testing twice daily on their own from their homes for 3 weeks. A medical professional visited each patient by the end of the third week of monitoring, 10 to 40 min after the patient had performed self-testing, and asked the patient to perform the spirometry test again under his supervision. We evaluated the validity of self-testing and surveyed the patients attitude toward the technology using a standardized questionnaire. Telemonitoring was conducted in patients' homes in a low-income inner city area. Thirty-one consecutive asthma patients without regard to computer experience. Thirty-one asthma patients completed 3 weeks of monitoring. A paired t test showed no difference between unsupervised and supervised home spirometry self-testing. The variability of FVC (4.1%), FEV(1) (3. 7%), peak expiratory flow (7.9%), and other spirometric indexes in our study was similar to the within-subject variability reported by other researchers. Despite the fact that the majority of the patients (71%) had no computer experience, they indicated that the self-testing was \"not complicated at all\" or only \"slightly complicated.\" The majority of patients (87.1%) were strongly interested in using home asthma telemonitoring in the future.",
"Spirometry self-testing by asthma patients during telemonitoring is valid and comparable to those tests collected under the supervision of a trained medical professional. Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring can be successfully implemented in a group of patients with no computer background."
] | [
"Understanding triggers is important for managing asthma particularly for patients who seek emergency department (ED) care for exacerbations. The objectives of this analysis were to delineate self-reported triggers in ED patients and to assess associations between triggers and asthma knowledge, severity, and quality of life. At the time of an ED visit, 296 patients were asked what were their usual asthma triggers based on a checklist of 25 potential items, and what they thought specifically precipitated their current ED visit. Using standardized scales, patients also were asked about asthma knowledge, severity, and quality of life. The mean age was 44 years and 72% were women. Patients cited a mean of 12 triggers; most patients had diverse triggers spanning respiratory infections, environmental irritants, emotions, allergens, weather, and exercise. Patients with more triggers were more likely to be women (odds ratio (OR) = 2.0, confidence interval (CI) = 1.3, 3.2, p = .002), obese (OR = 1.7, CI = 1.1, 2.5, p = .01), and to not have a smoking history (OR = 1.9, CI = 1.3, 2.9, p = .001). There were no associations between number of triggers and current age, age at diagnosis, education, socioeconomic status, or race/ethnicity. Patients who cited more triggers had more frequent flares (OR = 1.1, CI = 1.1, 1.2, p < .0001), worse quality of life scores (OR 1.6, CI = 1.1, 2.4, p = .02), and were more likely to have been previously hospitalized for asthma (OR = 1.9, CI = 1.3, 2.9, p = .003) and to have previously required oral corticosteroids (OR = 2.9, CI = 1.6, 5.1, p = .003). There was little clustering of specific triggers according to the variables we considered except for more frequent animal allergy in patients diagnosed at a younger age (OR = 2.8, CI = 1.7, 4.5, p < .0001) and worse quality of life in patients citing emotional stress as a trigger (OR = 2.5, CI = 1.5, 4.0, p = .0002). Patients attributed their current ED visit to multiple precipitants, particularly respiratory infections and weather, and these were concordant with what they reported were known triggers.",
"yes. the threshold for detecting external resistive loads during tidal breathing rises in old age in some, but not all, asthmatic patients as was observed in non-asthmatic subjects. The finding has implications for treatment guidelines because some elderly subjects are likely to have reduced awareness of worsening airflow obstruction, and consequently delay their use of rescue treatments.",
"The results are inconsistent with the results of the first asthma self-management study at this institution and with those of efficacy studies of similar programs. Two factors, selection of the patient population and historical changes in asthma treatment, most likely contributed to the lack of impact of the self-management programs. As a result of the improved standards for usual care due to both factors, the opportunity to effect patient outcomes was substantially reduced.",
"To determine whether locally developed guidelines on asthma and diabetes disseminated through practice based education improve quality of care in non-training, inner city general practices. Randomised controlled trial with each practice receiving one set of guidelines but providing data on the management of both conditions. 24 inner city, non-training general practices. East London. Recording of key variables in patient records (asthma: peak flow rate, review of inhaler technique, review of asthma symptoms, prophylaxis, occupation, and smoking habit; diabetes: blood glucose concentration, glycaemic control, funduscopy, feet examination, weight, and smoking habit); size of practice disease registers; prescribing in asthma; and use of structured consultation \"prompts.\" In practices receiving diabetes guidelines, significant improvements in recording were seen for all seven diabetes variables. Both groups of practices showed improved recording of review of inhaler technique, smoking habit, and review of asthma symptoms. In practices receiving asthma guidelines, further improvement was seen only in recording of review of inhaler technique and quality of prescribing in asthma. Sizes of disease registers were unchanged. The use of structured prompts was associated with improved recording of four of seven variables on diabetes and all six variables on asthma.",
"This study was aimed at exploring to what extent populations enrolled in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) of inhalation combination treatment for mild/moderate asthma in adults are fully representative of 'real-life' populations. The following is a retrospective analysis of the clinical records of outpatient subjects with an ascertained diagnosis of asthma. A retrospective analysis was performed. Stable conditions, such as smoking habit and chronic diseases other than asthma, were identified as exclusion criteria for RCTs. The selected criteria were then applied to asthmatic outpatients, yielding a population that was potentially eligible for RCTs. Out of 1,909 subjects, 824 (43.2%) met at least one of the exclusion criteria for RCTs. Cigarette smoking (occurring in 34.3% of the entire population), lung diseases other than asthma (5.0%), anxiety and depression (3.3%), arrhythmias (2.3%), and coronary artery disease (1.2%) would have been the most frequent causes for exclusion from RCTs. The proportion of patients excluded from RCTs appears to increase with age, reaching 57.1% in patients aged>85 years.",
"We efficiently recruited participants and achieved high overall retention rates. However, participant adherence to the daily outbreak visit schedules was low and only 7 (50%) participants used the cream as directed. These limitations could be addressed in future Internet-based studies by using Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs), using reminder devices, and providing incentives. By enhancing participant adherence, clinical trials requiring frequent participant contact may be feasible over the Internet.",
"To test the hypothesis that children enrolled in Medicaid managed care health plans that provide asthma-specific communication to providers would be more likely to have adequate asthma medication filling. We conducted a historical cohort study of 4498 children (2-17 years old) with moderate-severe asthma in Washington State and Tennessee Medicaid managed care programs from 2000 to 2002. Interviews with health plans were conducted to identify communication strategies health plans used to improve asthma care by providers in the plan. The main outcome measure was guideline-recommended filling of asthma preventer medications. Children in plans that provided specific feedback to providers about asthma quality and notified providers when children had an asthma-related event had the highest mean days plus or minus SE of filling in the 365-day follow-up period (164.6 +/- 13 days) compared with children in plans with neither (135.3 +/- 10.8 days; P < .05). In children with the greatest asthma severity, enrollment in a plan with both features was associated with 27.1 additional days of filling (95% CI, 0.7-53.4 days) during the follow-up period.",
"The goal of asthma treatment is control of asthma and good quality of life for asthmatic patients; however, many asthmatic patients experience symptoms and limitations. To examine treatment outcome in asthmatic patients under specialist care. Multicenter, cross-sectional study. Four large outpatient asthma clinics in teaching hospitals in three Greek cities. Three hundred seventy-eight randomly selected patients with mild or moderate asthma (265 female patients; mean age, 42.3 years). None. Patients completed a questionnaire structured with eight domains covering patient characteristics, drug use at baseline and during exacerbations, regular follow-up, emergency visits, asthma control, symptoms, and limitations. Results show that the majority of patients have symptoms and limitations in their physical and social activities and have frequent exacerbations, while>40% of patients think that their asthma is not well controlled. Most of our patients receive preventive medication (primarily inhaled corticosteroids, but less so long-acting beta2-agonists [LABAs] and leukotriene antagonists), increase their use of medication in case of exacerbations and have regular follow-up. However, the report shows that 48% of patients tried to reduce their medication dose, a fact implying that compliance is not always good.",
"A new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) asthma quality-of-care measure designed to quantify patient adherence to asthma controller medication has been implemented. The relationship between this measure and asthma outcomes is unknown. To examine the relationship between the HEDIS Medication Management for people with Asthma (MMA) measure and asthma outcomes. Administrative data identified 30,040 patients who met HEDIS criteria for persistent asthma during 2012. These patients were classified as compliant or noncompliant with the MMA measure at the 75% and 50% threshold, respectively. The association between MMA compliance in 2012 and asthma outcomes in 2013 was determined. Patients who were 75% or 50% MMA compliant in 2012 showed no clinically meaningful difference in asthma-related hospitalizations, emergency department visits, or rescue inhaler dispensing in 2013 compared with those who were noncompliant. Stepwise comparison of patients who were 75% or more, 50% to 74%, and less than 50% MMA compliant showed no meaningful difference in asthma outcomes between groups.",
"The findings suggest that additional investigations of Internet-based interventions to promote self-management in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are warranted.",
"Supervised exercise leads to significant improvements in asthma control and quality-of-life in adults with partly controlled asthma; however, the role of unsupervised exercise is unknown. The purpose of this study was to determine the impact of self-directed exercise on subjective and objective indices of asthma-related health. Participants (n = 24) were assigned to an exercise group or a control group for a 12-week period. Those in the exercise group were provided with exercise programs by a qualified exercise professional. These programs were updated through electronic mail every 3 weeks to ensure progression. Controls maintained their current lifestyle habits for the intervention period. Assessments of aerobic fitness, lung function, and subjective and objective asthma measures were conducted at baseline and after completion of the 12-week intervention period for both groups. Analysis of covariance was used to detect differences between groups from baseline to week 12. Qualitative analyses were used to assess responses to open-ended questions. Adherence to the program was poor. Perceived asthma control and self-reported frequency and severity of asthma improved significantly in the exercise group at week 12 compared with that in the control group. Objective measures of asthma such as asthma control, quality-of-life, and lung function, as well as peak and submaximal aerobic fitness did not change relative to controls. Responses to open-ended questions revealed improvements in three areas: asthma management, perceived fitness, and well-being.",
"We wanted to examine whether a collaborative to improve asthma care influences process and outcomes of care in asthmatic adults. We undertook a preintervention-postintervention evaluation of 185 patients in 6 intervention clinics and 3 matched control sites that participated in the Institute for Healthcare Improvement Breakthrough Series (BTS) Collaborative for asthma care. The intervention consisted of 3, 2-day educational sessions for teams dispatched by participating sites, which were followed by 3 action periods during the course of a year. Overall process of asthma care improved significantly in the intervention compared with the control group (change of 10% vs 1%, P = .003). Patients in the intervention group were more likely to attend educational sessions (20% vs 5%, P = .03). Having a written action plan, setting goals, monitoring peak flow rates, and using long-term asthma medications increased between 2% and 19% (not significant), but asthma-related knowledge was unchanged for the 2 groups. Patients in the BTS Collaborative were significantly more likely to be satisfied with clinician and lay educator communication (62% vs 39%, P = .02). Health-related quality of life, asthma-specific quality of life, number of bed days caused by asthma-related illness, and acute care service use were not significantly different between the 2 groups.",
"The DIABTel system, a Web-based telemedicine application, integrates a whole communication system (glucometer, insulin pump, wireless hand-held assistant) for medical remote advice. We sought to evaluate, in terms of glycemic control, the DIABTel system in a randomized crossover clinical study. Ten patients with type 1 diabetes [5 women, age 40.6 (21-62) years, diabetes duration 14.7 (3-52) years] were included. During the 4-week active phase, data sent by patients were analyzed by the physician and modifications of the basal rate and bolus were advised in the following 24 hours. During the control phase, patients sent glucose data without any feedback from the medical center. The mean numbers of daily glucose values and bolus sent by patients during the active period were 4.46 +/- 0.91 and 4.58 +/- 0.89, respectively. The personal digital assistant functionalities used more frequently by patients were (times per week) data visualization (8.1 +/- 6.8), data download from the insulin pump (6.8 +/- 3.3), and synchronization with the telemedicine server (8.5 +/- 4.9). After the experimental phase, serum fructosamine decreased significantly (393 +/- 32 vs 366 +/- 25 micromol/liter; p < 0.05) and hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) tended to decrease (8.0 +/- 0.6 vs 7.78 +/- 0.6; p = 0.073), whereas no changes were observed during the control phase. The number of treatment modifications proposed and performed by the patients correlated with the change observed in HbA1c during the active phase (r = -0.729, p = 0.017).",
"yes. Older patients reproducibly are able to telemetrically transmit electrocardiograms after a short training before discharged home. Although there is a low incidence of complications among our study population, telemedical ECG-monitoring rapidly helps to differentiate between the symptoms leading to increased patient safety and prevented further damage. The reduction of ambulatory visits and hospitalisations only for treatment of objectified symptoms may lead to a overall cost reduction in the health care system. The reduction of unnecessary hospitalisations and ambulatory visits might also contribute to an optimised time management.",
"Older adults with asthma can develop symptoms early in life or during adulthood. Differences between these groups may have diagnostic and therapeutic implications. Our goal was to identify differences in demographics, control, quality of life and healthcare utilization between those with long-standing asthma (LSA) and late-onset asthma (LOA). Data from a cross-sectional study of asthma patients over age 65 were analyzed. LSA or LOA was based on age of diagnosis (before or after age 40). Demographic and asthma specific information were analyzed, and allergy prick tests and lung function testing (spirometry and FENO) were performed. After regression analysis, LSA subjects were more likely to demonstrate positive prick tests (92 versus 71%, p = 0.04), with both groups demonstrating higher levels of atopy than previously reported. LSA subjects were also more likely to have received a peak flow meter (p = 0.07). LOA subjects were more likely to have moderate or severe asthma (OR = 3.1, p = 0.05), and had higher FENO readings (p = 0.02). They also had more hospitalizations (p = 0.04), though significance was lost after regression analysis. No differences were noted in demographic information, medical comorbidities, spirometry, compliance, asthma control, or asthma quality of life between LSA and LOA subjects.",
"Web use, as a source of health information, has been shown to be associated with anxiety reduction in patients with or at risk for cardiomyopathy, suggesting that Internet technology can be a useful instrument due to its informational power and its potentially therapeutic value.",
"Poor adherence contributes to uncontrolled asthma. Pragmatic adherence interventions for primary care settings are lacking. To test the effectiveness of 2 brief general practitioner (GP)-delivered interventions for improving adherence and asthma control. In a 6-month cluster randomized 2 × 2 factorial controlled trial, with GP as unit of cluster, we compared inhaler reminders and feedback (IRF) and/or personalized adherence discussions (PADs) with active usual care alone; all GPs received action plan and inhaler technique training. GPs enrolled patients prescribed combination controller inhalers, with suboptimal Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores (ACT score ≤19). Inhaler monitors recorded fluticasone propionate/salmeterol adherence (covertly for non-IRF groups) and, in IRF groups, provided twice-daily reminders for missed doses, and adherence feedback. PAD GPs received communication training regarding adherence. Outcomes collected every 2 months included ACT scores (primary outcome) and severe exacerbations. Intention-to-treat mixed-model analysis incorporated cluster effect and repeated measures. A total of 43 GPs enrolled 143 patients with moderate-severe asthma (mean age, 40.3 ± 15.2 years; ACT score, 14.6 ± 3.8; fluticasone propionate dose, 718 ± 470 μg). Over 6 months, adherence was significantly higher in the IRF group than in non-IRF groups (73% ± 26% vs 46% ± 28% of prescribed daily doses; P < .0001), but not between PAD and non-PAD groups. Asthma control improved overall (mean change in ACT score, 4.5 ± 4.9; P < .0001), with no significant difference among groups (P = .14). Severe exacerbations were experienced by 11% of the patients in IRF groups and 28% of the patients in non-IRF groups (P = .013; after adjustment for exacerbation history; P = .06).",
"yes. The level of caregiver supervision is an important factor affecting adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma. Therefore, a high degree of supervision may be required to increase adherence to ICS therapy in children with asthma.",
"yes. Physician estimates of underlying asthma severity appear to determine asthma care. For patients with inadequate symptom control, lower physician estimates of underlying severity were associated with care that is less consistent with national guidelines. To improve the quality of asthma care, physicians need to update treatment based on their patients' current symptoms and adapt care accordingly.",
"Internet-based disease management programs have the potential to improve patient care. The objective of this study was to determine whether an interactive, internet-based system enabling supervised, patient self-management of oral anticoagulant therapy provided management comparable to an established anticoagulation clinic. Sixty patients receiving chronic oral anticoagulant therapy who had access to the internet and a printer, were enrolled into this prospective, single-group, before-after study from a single clinic and managed between March 2002 and January 2003. Patients learned how to use a home prothrombin time monitor and how to access the system through the internet. Patients used the system for six months, with daily review by the supervising physician. The primary outcome variable was the difference in time in therapeutic range prior to and following introduction of internet-supervised patient self-management. The mean time in therapeutic range increased from 63% in the anticoagulation clinic (control period) to 74.4% during internet-supervised patient self-management (study period). The mean difference score between control and study periods was 11.4% (P = 0.004, 95% confidence interval 5.5-17.3%). There were no hemorrhagic or thromboembolic complications.",
"The correct use of medication and the ability to assess the severity of the disease and to react appropriately in the case of exacerbation are essential objectives in the management of asthma patients. This study, conducted in a school of asthma in Seine-Saint-Denis, aims to measure the influence of socio-demographic and clinical factors, before any educational process, on these four security skills. A prospective observational study concerning 280 consecutive patients managed between 2008 and 2011 (70 % women, mean age: 44 years [14-85 years]; deprivation: 48 %; born abroad: 39 %, low level of education: 23 %). The initial educational diagnosis was compared with the clinical and socio-demographic characteristics. In relation to asthma control, social characteristics (unemployment, deprivation), geographic or ethnic origin and educational level significantly influence the command of all or some of the security skills. In medical terms, a period of evolution of the disease of less than 10 years, outpatient follow-up without specialized monitoring and the absence of recent exacerbations also appear as predictors of inappropriate conduct in the management of the disease.",
"The ratio of controller medication to total asthma medications has been related to asthma utilization outcomes, but its relationship to patient-centered outcomes has not been explored. Surveys that included validated asthma quality-of-life, control, and symptom severity tools were completed by a random sample of 2,250 health maintenance organization members aged 18 to 56 years who had persistent asthma. Linked computerized pharmacy data provided dispensing information on beta-agonist canisters and asthma controller medication. The ratio was calculated as the number of controller medications dispensed during the year of the survey divided by the total number medications (ie, inhaled beta-agonist plus controller medications) dispensed. The relationships of the optimal ratio cutoff to patient-centered outcomes and to subsequent acute asthma exacerbations were determined. Mean asthma quality-of-life, asthma control, and symptom severity scale scores were significantly (p < 0.0001) more favorable in patients with ratios of > or = 0.5. After adjusting for demographic characteristics, patients with ratios of > or = 0.5 were significantly less likely to have adverse results regarding asthma quality of life (odds ratio [OR], 0.65; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.52 to 0.80), asthma control (OR, 0.62; 95% CI, 0.50 to 0.77), and symptom severity (OR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.43 to 0.65), and were also less likely to experience subsequent asthma hospitalizations or emergency department visits (OR, 0.44; 95% CI, 0.26 to 0.74) than patients with lower ratios.",
"This study highlights the important role of health information technology (HIT) on vaso-occlusive pain management for pediatric patients with sickle cell disease and the critical challenges in accommodating human factor considerations in implementing and evaluating HIT effects.",
"Patient assessment of high quality asthma care delivery was associated with patient self-report of having an asthma action plan but was not associated with any of the publicly reported asthma performance measures.",
"yes. The Asthma APGAR tools are feasible to implement in primary care practices and their implementation is associated with increased guideline-compliant asthma management.",
"yes. A computerized reminder letter followed by an autodial recall telephone message is effective in increasing the influenza immunization rate of children with asthma/RAD. Children with significantly higher respiratory morbidity during and in between two influenza epidemics were more likely to be immunized after receiving written and telephone autodial reminders.",
"Influenza virus infection frequently triggers asthma exacerbation and hospitalization. Annual influenza immunization is recommended for children with chronic conditions, including those with asthma or reactive airway disease (RAD); however, <10% receive it each year. In September, 1997, we instituted a computerized staged reminder strategy for annual influenza immunization of children with asthma/RAD at the Scott and White Pediatric Clinic in Temple. A reminder letter, followed six weeks later by an autodial recall telephone message, was sent to the parent/guardian of children with asthma/RAD using the Shared Medical Systems to identify children with asthma/RAD and the Integrated Client Encounter System to record immunizations. The effect of this computerized reminder system on the influenza immunization rate of a cohort of 925 Scott and White Pediatric Clinic children with asthma/RAD was examined for the 1996 to 1997 and 1997 to 1998 influenza seasons, before and after intervention. A significant increase in influenza immunization rate from 5.4% to 32.1% occurred in all age groups, regardless of the insurance status. The medically attended acute respiratory illness rate per 100 subjects was significantly higher in vaccinated than in unvaccinated children for each of the two influenza epidemics and in the period between the two epidemics.",
"Serial assessment of peak expiratory flow (PEF) rates has been advocated as a sensitive and specific means of investigating occupational asthma. The possibility that, for several reasons, subjects do not accurately report their values has been raised. The availability of portable instruments that assess PEF and store timings and values now make it possible to estimate compliance and accuracy of results. Twenty-one subjects consecutively investigated for occupational asthma were asked to assess their PEF every 2 hours during the day, both at work and away from work, with a VMX instrument (Clement Clarke International, Columbus, Ohio) and record the times and values on a sheet of paper. The subjects were not aware that the data were also being stored on a computer chip. The diagnosis was occupational asthma in eight subjects, personal asthma in four subjects, and neither condition in nine subjects. The mean duration of recording was 36 days (range, 14 to 79 days). At least 6048 values should have been recorded, but only 4839 (80%) were either recorded or stored. Reported values corresponded precisely to stored values in 2533 of 4839 recordings (52%). The timing of the recording was also examined in relation to the time at which the recording was solicited; values recorded within 1 hour of the solicited time were judged as acceptable. Of the total of 3342 recordings stored, 2375 (71%) satisfied this criterion. Compliance was significantly less satisfactory in those referred by the Workers' Compensation Board (n = 11).",
"This study investigates whether diabetes patients visiting a primary care setting are interested in using a telemonitoring platform and if so, whether characteristics of interested users could be distinguished. Three questionnaires were administered by 92 diabetes persons recruited between May and September 2011. Descriptive statistics and logistic regression analysis were performed. Special attention was drawn to include patients with low educational levels. Patients with middle or high educational levels show quite some interest in the use of a telemonitoring platform, especially for the transmission of glycaemic data or for asking questions. Patients with low educational levels only show a minor interest in using such a platform.",
"yes. Negotiating patients' treatment decisions significantly improves adherence to asthma pharmacotherapy and clinical outcomes. Clinical trials registered with www.clinicaltrials.gov (NCT00217945 and NCT00149526).",
"Despite improved understanding of the pathophysiology of asthma, morbidity and mortality continue to rise, with disproportionate increases occurring among urban, indigent minorities. New approaches in the management of asthma are therefore necessary to reverse these dramatic and costly trends. To determine if patients who are admitted to the hospital with acute asthma and receive inpatient education will have improved outpatient follow-up and clinical outcome measures compared with those receiving conventional care. Patients enrolled in the study had a primary admission diagnosis of asthma and were between ages 18 and 45 years. Exclusion criteria included comorbid disease, inability to speak English, absence of a telephone in the primary residence, or pregnancy. Seventy-seven patients admitted from the emergency department with asthma were randomized to either the inpatient educational program (IEP) or routine care (control group). Patients in the IEP received asthma education, bedside spirometry, a telephone call 24 hours after discharge, and scheduled follow-up in an outpatient asthma program within 1 week of discharge. Those individuals randomized to the routine management group received conventional inpatient asthma care and routine follow-up. The patients enrolled in the IEP had a markedly higher follow-up rate compared with outpatient appointments (60% vs. 27%; P = .01) and significantly fewer emergency department visits (P = .04) and hospitalizations (P = .04) for asthma in the 6 months following IEP intervention, as compared with control patients. This represented a substantial cost savings to the managed care organization.",
"Exploratory study aimed to examine differences in family interaction patterns during a routine mealtime between overweight, at-risk for overweight, and average weight children with asthma. Eighty families of children with asthma, aged 5-12 years, were videotaped during a mealtime in their homes. The videotapes were rated using the McMaster Mealtime Family Interaction Coding System (MICS). Structural aspects of the meal such as presence of sugary drinks and whether the television was on were also coded. Significant differences were found on the MICS with families of children with asthma who were overweight scoring lower on task accomplishment, affect management, interpersonal involvement, and roles. Families of overweight children with asthma also displayed an increased presence of sugary beverages, shorter meal length, and fewer adults at the table.",
"yes. Patient management domains with the greatest room for discretion (investigations, comorbid diagnoses, and treatment with ICS among children with normal lung function) are most heavily influenced by physician specialty. These results have implications for asthma management at the patient level and in future practice guidelines.",
"Accuracy and reliability of diary data collected in allergic rhinitis trials depends on how and when the information is recorded by the subjects. To compare diary data collected by using paper (optical mark readable) and electronic [telephone, interactive voice response system (IVRS)] tools. There was a randomized, 3-week, 3-way, crossover trial, in 87 adults with allergic rhinitis recording diary data at home. Outcome measures were (1) comparison of symptom data during weeks when both or only 1 instrument was used; (2) missing data: and (3) ease of use and participant preference. More than 40,000 symptom data elements were recorded by 72 protocol-correct subjects. Symptoms recorded during the week that both instruments were used and when the 2 instruments were used alone were indistinguishable. Overall, 0.45% of paper and 4.12% of IVRS symptom data were missing. Of 10,080 paired data collected on paper and IVRS diaries during the week in which subjects used both, 94.44% were identical. Using IVRS, 63.2% of protocol-correct data were entered within the designated time and 87.6% within 1 half-day of the time specified; 85% of subjects preferred the paper instrument, 4% preferred IVRS, and 11% had no preference.",
"General practitioners (GP) in rural areas of Germany are struggling to find successors for their private practices. Telemonitoring at home offers an option to support remaining GPs and specialists in ambulatory care. We assessed the knowledge and attitude towards telemedicine in the population of North Rhine-Westphalia (NRW), Germany, in a population-based telephone survey. Out of 2,006 participants, 734 (36.6%) reported an awareness of telemedical devices. Only 37 participants (1.8%) have experience in using them. The majority of participants were in favour of using them in case of illness (72.2%). However, this approval declined with age. These findings were similar in rural and urban areas. Participants who were in favour of telemedicine (n = 1,480) strongly agreed that they would have to see their doctor less often, and that the doctor would recognize earlier relevant changes in their vital status. Participants who disliked to be monitored by telemedical devices preferred to receive immediate feedback from their physician. Especially, the elderly fear the loss of personal contact with their physician. They need the direct patient-physician communication.",
"Poor asthma outcomes often result from patients not following physician medication recommendations (ie, nonadherence). Estimates suggest that 50% of patients with asthma do not follow physician medication recommendations. To examine the rationale for making available objective medication adherence monitors for physicians to improve the quality of care for patients with severe persistent asthma. Review of the literature was undertaken in the following areas related to asthma: cost, morbidity, adherence, adherence monitoring, outcomes, and guidelines. Patients with severe asthma are at risk for nonadherence because of (1) the use of multiple medications to control symptoms, (2) coexisting disease states, (3) the occurrence of depression and anxiety, and (4) the high cost of care. Research studies have demonstrated the effectiveness of objective monitoring as part of multiple clinical strategies to improve adherence and reduce morbidity and the cost of asthma care. Without objective adherence monitoring, physicians may not accurately assess nonadherence as the cause of treatment failure. This may lead to inappropriate increases in therapy, diagnostic studies, and consultations and may leave the patient at risk for persistent symptoms, morbidity, and death.",
"Adult patients are vulnerable to several triggers regardless from underlying severity of the illness. Insufficient compliance to the major preventive measures indicates that new strategies are needed to prevent asthma attacks caused by modifiable triggers.",
"yes. Telehealth had good uptake and increased clinic attendance in adults with CF living in rural and remote WA, and had high satisfaction amongst participants. The increase in HCU, resulting from increased detection and treatment of exacerbations, may improve long-term outcomes in this population.",
"yes. (1) A relationship can be observed between the functioning of the asthmatic patient's family and the severity of the patient's declared dyspnea. Dyspnea constitutes a specific form of emotional communication in the inter-spouse relationships. (2) An analysis of the severity of dyspnea in asthmatic patients should take into account the context of the functioning of the patient's family.",
"Primary care asthma management is often not compatible with national evidence-based guidelines. The objective of this study was to assess the feasibility and impact of the Asthma APGAR tools to enhance implementation of asthma guideline-compatible management in primary care practices. Twenty-four primary care practices across the US. This is a mixed methods study. Quantitative data were used to assess changes in guideline recommended asthma management including use of daily controller therapy, planned care visits, and education and information documentation before and after implementation of the Asthma APGAR. Qualitative data from focus group sessions were used to assess health care professional and patient perceived usability and value of the Asthma APGAR tools during office visits for asthma. Implementing the Asthma APGAR tools in the 24 practices was associated with enhanced asthma visit-related medical record documentation including significant increases in recording of activity limitations due to asthma and asthma symptom frequency, asthma medication nonadherence, asthma triggers, and the patients' perceived response to therapy (p < 0.01 for each item). Some care processes also increased significantly including assessment of inhaler technique and prescribing of daily controller therapy among patients with persistent asthma. Focus groups of patients and of clinical staff reported that the Asthma APGAR tools were easy to use, \"made sense\" and \"improved care\" was given and received.",
"A substantial number of adult patients with asthma are inadequately controlled despite the availability of effective asthma treatment. Patients and physicians seem to overestimate the level of asthma control. The current study explores whether valid differentiation is possible between asthma patients with controlled and uncontrolled asthma symptoms, on the basis of the Asthma Control Questionnaire (ACQ). In this multi-centre, cross-sectional study, patients were classified according to Global Initiative for Asthma criteria into levels of asthma symptom control based on a diary card registration. We defined Step 1 ('well controlled' asthma symptoms), Step 2 ('moderately controlled'), Step 3 ('poorly controlled') and Step 4 ('very poorly controlled'). These control steps were related with the sum score of the ACQ. From 108 asthma patients complete data were obtained. The Step 1 subgroup comprised 17 patients; Step 2, 12 patients; Step 3, 22 patients; and Step 4, 57 patients. Receiver Operating Characteristic curve analysis showed that the optimal ACQ sum score cut-off value to differentiate between Step 1 and Steps 2, 3 and 4 was three points (sensitivity: 84%, specificity: 76%). For Steps 1 and 2 versus Steps 3 and 4, this was four points (sensitivity: 77%, specificity: 59%). For Steps 1, 2 and 3 versus Step 4, this was six points (sensitivity: 70%, specificity: 74%).",
"The study supports the more individualized goals of the recently revised British Guidelines for Asthma Management but highlights the need to develop this further in future revisions. It also provides an explanation for patients' acceptance of less than 'perfect' asthma control and it suggests that shared goals may be achieved in practice by considering the advantages and disadvantages of medication and allergen avoidance on everyday life rather than on asthma.",
"When the Turkish version of the ACT was administered via either the paper-and-pencil or text messaging test, scores were closely associated with physician assessments of asthma control.",
"Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).",
"In primary care, light forms of asthma are most commonly monitored. We found low concordance with the GINA 2002 directives. IC are widely used, but often at incorrect doses. We insist on the importance of classifying asthma according to its gravity in order to prescribe the right treatment.",
"The National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute asthma guidelines recommend that parents communicate with a clinician during childhood asthma exacerbations when symptoms worsen or do not improve with initial therapy. This study tested the hypothesis that communication by parents with a clinician before an Emergency Department visit was associated with more appropriate medication administration for children with asthma exacerbations. This was a retrospective cohort study using data gathered from parents of children presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department. The communicating cohort included parents who communicated by telephone with a clinician during the exacerbation and the non-communicating cohort included parents who did not. Multivariate logistic regression models were used to test three hypotheses; communication with a clinician is associated with (1) administration of short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs), (2) increased dosing frequency of SABAs, and (3) administration of an oral corticosteroid. A total of 199 subjects were enrolled, with 104 (52.3%) in the communicating and 95 (47.7%) in the non-communicating cohort. There was an association between communication and provider practice type, with children who received routine care from a private practice provider more likely to communicate with the clinician than children in hospital-based clinics or community health centers (Adjusted OR 1.9, 95% CI 1.0-3.7). Impoverished children and children insured by Medicaid were less likely to communicate with a clinician (controlling for provider type). Parents who communicated with a clinician were more likely to administer a SABA (adjusted OR 3.6, 95% CI 1.3-9.4) and an oral corticosteroid (adjusted OR 3.3, 95% CI 1.3-8.4) but were not more likely to administer a SABA with increased dosing frequency (adjusted OR 0.9, 95% CI 0.5-1.6).",
"Many medical records do not include the basic clinical information required to assess asthma severity, adherence to asthma therapy or the response to therapy. This lack of information makes implementation of asthma care guidelines impossible. Therefore, these measures may be useful baseline quality indicators to begin the process of improving asthma care.",
"yes. Patients with poor navigational ability are likely to have poor inhaler technique and limited understanding of ICS function, as well as limited numeracy and print literacy. Clinicians should consider these elements of self-management for their effect on asthma care and as a marker of more general health literacy deficits.",
"To determine whether differences exist in the monitoring, diagnosis and treatment of asthmatic patients between family doctors (FD) and pneumology specialists (PD). A descriptive crossover study, performed through an interview with the patients and a medical exploration. Six health centres. 195 asthmatic patients between 14 and 65, chosen by simple random sampling from among all those registered by computer in the SICAP. Each patient answered a structured interview and had a spirometry test. Which doctor usually monitored their illness, social and demographic data, morbidity parameters, treatment prescribed and their compliance with it, were all determined. 66% of patients were under their FD. No differences were found in the clinical characteristics of patients treated by their FD against those treated by their PD.",
"The specific aim of this investigation was to evaluate the proficiency of health care providers and patients in the proper use of metered-dose inhalers. Health care providers, which include house staff, nurses, and respiratory care practitioners who provide care to patients with asthma in the primary general medicine clinic or the pulmonary medicine clinic of a university-county hospital in which patients were referred, were surveyed and assigned a performance score regarding the knowledge base of the appropriate use of metered-dose inhalers. Patients who attended the primary care general medicine and pulmonary subspecialty clinic were also assessed as to their proficiency in the use of metered-dose inhalers. A significant percentage of patients had a poor understanding of the technique used with the metered-dose inhaler. House staff and nursing staff were also less proficient in the proper use of the metered-dose inhaler. The respiratory care practitioners were the most knowledgeable of the health care providers.",
"To determine the association between patient assessment of healthcare delivery and publicly reported asthma performance measures. We identified individuals 5-50 years old who had asthma quality measures reported to the Minnesota Community Measurement© (MCM©) by their clinic and sent them a postal survey which included within it the Patient Assessment of Chronic Illness care (PACIC), a validated measure of patient perception of the quality of healthcare delivery. We performed a multivariable analysis to examine the association between PACIC scores and achievement of asthma care quality measures. The response rate for the ACS was 102/367 (28%); a non-response bias analysis revealed no differences between responders and non-responders for age, gender and asthma control. Most responders (73%) reported taking asthma medications daily and most (71%) had poorly controlled asthma. The PACIC score was not associated with any of the asthma quality measures based on the data reported to MCM© by the clinic. A higher PACIC score was, however, associated with having an asthma action plan based on patient-reported data in the ACS (p < 0.0001) but not with patient-reported asthma control or emergency department/hospitalizations for asthma.",
"yes. This pragmatic telephone-based peer-training intervention reduced asthma impairment. Asthma risk was reduced in children with Medicaid insurance.",
"Patients found the automated interactive calling, combined with a health risk forecast, both viable and useful, welcoming the information and tools it offered. In many cases, it added to patients' understanding of their illness and promoted better self-management. Future research should focus on the potential impact of the service in terms of health outcomes and cost-effectiveness.",
"Childhood asthma morbidity remains significant, especially in low-income children. Most often, asthma management is provided by the child's primary care provider. We sought to evaluate whether enhancing primary care management for persistent asthma with telephone-based peer coaching for parents reduced asthma impairment and risk in children 3 to 12 years old. Over 12 months, peer trainers provided parents with asthma management training by telephone (median, 18 calls) and encouraged physician partnership. The intervention was evaluated in a cluster-randomized trial of 11 intervention and 11 usual care pediatric practices (462 and 486 families, respectively). Patient outcomes were assessed by means of telephone interviews at 12 and 24 months conducted by observers blinded to intervention assignment and compared by using mixed-effects models, controlling for baseline values and clustering within practices. In a planned subgroup analysis we examined the heterogeneity of the intervention effect by insurance type (Medicaid vs other). After 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 20.9 (95% CI, 9.1-32.7) more symptom-free days per child than in the control group, and there was no difference in emergency department (ED) visits. After 24 months, ED visits were reduced (difference in mean visits/child, -0.28; 95% CI, -0.5 to -0.02), indicating a delayed intervention effect. In the Medicaid subgroup, after 12 months, intervention participation resulted in 42% fewer ED visits (difference in mean visits/child, -0.50; 95% CI, -0.81 to -0.18) and 62% fewer hospitalizations (difference in mean hospitalizations/child, -0.16; 95% CI, -0.30 to -0.014). Reductions in health care use endured through 24 months.",
"To determine if the use of the whistle watch (WW), a simple device to monitor peak flow rate, affects the use of bronchodilators at home. Prospective, randomised, crossover design. The asthma outpatients' clinic at Coronation Hospital, a tertiary care centre in Johannesburg. Children between 6 and 18 years of age with moderate or severe asthma for more than a year were enrolled. They were randomised into two groups, with bronchodilator use determined either by the WW or solely by the patient's perceived symptomatology. The patients acted as their own controls, switching over to the other group after 30 days. Eighty patients were enrolled into the study. Forty-three patients completed the study (54%). There were no significant differences between these patients and those who did not complete the study in terms of sex, age and treatment characteristics. There was a significant reduction in the mean monthly number of bronchodilator doses used by the WW group (5.5 doses v. 16.81 doses, paired t-test, t = 3.64, P < 0.001, 95% confidence interval (CI) 6.1-16.55). The change in individual participants varied between 13 extra bronchodilator doses and 71 fewer doses per month with the use of the WW device.",
"As of 2003, approximately 67% of US adults have Internet access. The purpose of this study was to determine the feasibility and preliminary efficacy of an Internet-based dyspnea self-management program (iDSMP) for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A related aim was to compare the differential effects of the iDSMP on 2 different groups: (1) to test a \"booster\" effect and (2) to evaluate the program as a primary intervention. Two groups (n = 16) were evaluated at baseline and at 3 months after completing the iDSMP, which included education, exercise, self-monitoring, and support. Dyspnea, self-efficacy, perception of available support, and exercise behavior were measured. Paired, independent t tests and Mann-Whitney U tests were used. Most subjects (87%) reported that the program increased their access to information and resources for managing dyspnea. Dyspnea with activities of daily living and self-efficacy for managing the symptom showed significant improvements (both P<.01), whereas more modest changes were noted in perceived support and exercise behavior in the overall sample. There were no differences between the 2 groups on these outcomes.",
"Adherence to medication regimens is poor in the management of chronic diseases, including asthma. To determine whether an audiovisual reminder device improves adherence with inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) therapy in adult asthma. A randomized open-label parallel group study of 110 adult or adolescent subjects with asthma was undertaken. Subjects were randomized to receive 24 weeks of fluticasone propionate 250 microg, 1 actuation twice daily via a metered dose inhaler (MDI) with or without an audiovisual reminder function (AVRF). All MDIs had electronic covert adherence monitors. The primary outcome variable was adherence, defined as the proportion of medication taken as prescribed over the final 12 weeks of the study. Adherence was also assessed as the proportion of subjects who took >50%, >80%, or >90% of prescribed medication. The proportion of medication taken in the last 12 weeks was greater in the AVRF group (93%) compared with the control group (74%), with a difference of 18% (95% confidence interval [CI] 10-26%; P < .0001). The proportion of subjects taking >50%, >80%, or >90% of their medication was greater in the AVRF group, with a ratio of proportions adherent of 1.33 (95% CI, 1.10-1.61; P = .003), 2.27 (95% CI, 1.56-3.3; P < .0001), and 3.25 (95% CI, 1.74-6.1%; P < .0001), respectively.",
"Early treatment of worsening chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) symptoms speeds recovery, improves quality of life, and reduces the need for hospitalization. Patients may fail to recognize worsening symptoms leading to delays in treatment. A telemedicine application could facilitate detection and treatment of worsening symptoms. To work, such an application requires consistent use by patients and quick responses from healthcare providers. We conducted a quality assurance assessment of our system to see if we were meeting these goals. Thirty patients were provided a smartphone application for daily COPD symptom reporting. Reports between November 2012 and September 2013 were reviewed. Symptoms reports and interventions were time-stamped by the application. Adherence reporting was calculated as the number of reports made divided by the number of days enrolled in the program for each patient. Time to intervention was calculated as the time a report was submitted to the time a treatment recommendation was sent to the patient. There were 4,434 symptom reports made over 5,178 patient-days of observation for an average reporting compliance of 85.6%. Median reporting compliance was 90.7% (interquartile range, 83.8-98%). Four hundred seventy-five symptom reports resulted in an alert. The average response time for all alerts was 6.64 h, with a median response time of 5.75 h.",
"Earlier detection of acute exacerbations (AE) of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) could reduce emergency admissions and hospitalisations. Studies investigating COPD management programs supported by telehealthcare (THC) have shown conflicting results. To test the feasibility, safety and acceptance of THC for COPD. Patients daily filled out an online questionnaire focused on the detection of AECOPD. The THC platform is integrated in a comprehensive electronic patient data repository, which has to be available for all patients in Switzerland by law by 2017. The study team called the patient by phone in case of suspected AECOPD. Of 339 screened patients, 14% were included. Main reasons for exclusion were missing technical equipment and unwillingness to participate in a study (50%). Data completeness was 88%; 94% completed the study. The current THC approach triggered 230 telephone calls, which led to the verification of 60 AECOPD in 22 patients. Three AECOPD were not detected. Sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value of the questionnaire-based THC approach in detecting AECOPD was 95, 98, 26 and 99.9%, respectively. Overall patient satisfaction in respect to their health condition improved significantly (VAS 8-8.7; p = 0.002).",
"Asthma is an example of a common, chronic illness in which clinicians are encouraged to promote concordance and adhere to guidelines. Some existing research suggests that these aims may be incompatible. To describe patient goals for life and for asthma management in order to inform concordance with people with asthma. A cross-sectional, qualitative survey. A purposive sample of 47 adults with asthma from Dundee, UK. The subjects were identified from general practice asthma registers and had a range of ages and asthma severity but no significant comorbidity. Tape-recorded semi-structured interviews. The topic guide was based on the literature and had been piloted in a previous study. The participants focussed on improving their lives, only aiming to improve their asthma as a means of improving their lives. Three aspects of asthma were reported to help or hinder improving life: the use of asthma medication, trigger avoidance and exercise. People integrated these three aspects of asthma in order to maximize life.",
"yes. A Web-based telemedicine system can be a useful tool facilitating the management of pregnant diabetes patients, as a complement to conventional outpatient clinic visits.",
"According to guidelines, inhaler technique should be tested in all patients, particularly those with poorly controlled asthma. We aimed to assess uncontrolled asthma patients' ability to use a pressurised metered-dose inhaler (pMDI) using the Aerosol Inhalation Monitor (AIM, © Vitalograph). Practices invited patients for a detailed clinical review by trained asthma nurses according to practice-agreed protocols. Reviews took place from 1st April to 30th June 2008, and included checking of inhaler technique. Reasons for invitations included, time since last review, asthma control, prescriptions, adherence to medical advice. A proxy measure of control--the total number of short-acting β2-agonist (SABA) bronchodilator inhaler canisters prescribed in the previous 12 months--was used. Data on 77 pre-determined clinical parameters (including prescribing and healthcare utilisation data) were collected. Patient-completed postal symptom questionnaires (the RCP 3 questions) were obtained in some patients. All patients using pMDIs had at least two assessments using the AIM, and where appropriate inhaler technique education was provided. 2123 (24% of those invited) symptomatic asthma patients were reviewed; 1291 (61%) were using pMDIs (mean age 52 years; SD 21), of whom over 80% were in BTS/SIGN Steps 2 and 3. 1092 (85.6%) of those patients using pMDIs failed the first AIM assessment. There was a significant increase in the number of patients able to use their pMDIs correctly following instruction after the second (129 to 260 of 1197 patients, p<0.01) and third (61 to 181 of 528 patients, p< 0.01) tests. However, 78.4% and 65.7% of those tested twice and three times, respectively, failed the AIM assessment despite instruction. Logistic regression analysis failed to show any effect of age and BTS step on these outcomes.",
"Guidelines from the National Asthma Education and Prevention Program stipulate that multicomponent self-management interventions for asthma should include a written action plan (WAP). However the specific, independent effect of WAPs in improving outcomes remains unclear. To measure the association between WAP use during the previous year and improved asthma outcomes. We conducted a longitudinal quasi-experimental study using data from the Healthy Homes II (HH-II) randomized controlled trial in Seattle, WA. Action plan use during the previous year was measured at exit of HH-II. A participant was a WAP user if he used his action plan every day, almost every day, or once per week, and non-user if he did not meet these criteria. Sensitivity analyses explored less stringent criteria for WAP user designation. Prespecified outcomes were baseline-to-exit changes in asthma control in the previous 2 weeks, Pediatric Asthma Caregiver Quality of Life Scale score, and urgent health services utilization. We used robust linear and logistic regression to compare outcomes across groups. Two hundred fifty-one patients participated: 112 WAP users; 139 non-users. After adjustment, no significant differences in outcomes were observed between WAP users and non-users. Among a subgroup of participants with recent urgent health services utilization, WAP users had better asthma control than non-users. Changing WAP user criteria to include those who simply owned an action plan, irrespective of use, did not alter our results.",
"Internet-based applications are becoming more common in our modern world. While electronic health records (EHR) are available for patients and health care providers outside of Germany, most of the available data on EHR address only monetary advantages.This study explores whether or not internet-based communication between family physicians (FP) and patients is as safe as traditional oral communication and if it may lead to further benefits. 500 patients from 14 family doctors' offices were included in this 6 months RCT. Both groups were treated in the same manner by their respective physicians, but members of the study group (SG) were able to access an individual developed web-based software where they could view their diagnosis and medication, and send an electronic message to their doctors who would respond. Their satisfication with the FP, certain health data and the FP's workload were recorded. a) Patients' satisfaction: When e.g. asked about the organization of the family practice or trust in the doctor, there were no significant differences between the control (CG) and the SG (p = 0.07; p = 0.53). However, patients of the SG felt better informed (p = 0.01), and generally more satisfied with their FP (p = 0.04). b) FP workload: Members of the CG had 8.44 contacts with their doctors during the study, while the SG only had 7.96 recorded contacts (including web-based contacts, p = 0.32). It took physicians 3:52 minutes less to read and respond to an electronic message than to see a patient during the consultation hours. c) Changes in patients' health: During the study the blood pressure (BP) in the CG rose 4.44/2.80 mmHg, while it dropped 3.13/4.36 mmHg in the SG (p = 0.19/0.01).The HbA(1C) dropped in both groups (p = 0.91). One week after the first visit to the family doctor, patients of the SG rated their pain 0.28 points lower on a VAS than the CG (p = 0.75). 91% from the CG and 96% from the SG requested the re-prescription of long-term medication on time (p = 0.16).",
"To determine whether a previously-validated touch screen computer program of symptoms and management of childhood asthma is acceptable to parents who accompany their children to consult a GP, and to examine whether any parent characteristics are associated with acceptability. Conducted in general practice in Newcastle, NSW, Australia. A cross sectional pen and paper survey was given to parents of children consulting a GP after completing the computer questionnaire on childhood asthma in the waiting room. Measurements were frequencies of Likert scale responses to statements concerning the computer questionnaire, compared with demographic and personal characteristics. High levels of acceptability of the asthma computer questionnaire were reported by the 198 respondents, with most being willing to do the same program once or twice a year (87%), or to do similar programs on other topics (91%). Most respondents (81%) agreed that the computer program was enjoyable, and very few (8%) would have preferred to answer the asthma questions by pen and paper rather than by computer. Two or more children accompanying the parent was the characteristic most associated with less positive responses.",
"Descriptive, cross-sectional study. An urban primary care center. 141 patients with asthma. Performance of a practical test to evaluate each step in IT for different devices according to SEPAR-semFYC guidelines. One point was scored for each step that was performed correctly, and the technique was considered correct if the total score was>9. The main outcome variable was the percentage of patients who performed the IT correctly. About three-fourths of the participants (77.3%) were women; mean age was 56.08 +/- 18.99 years. Inhalation technique was incorrect in 53.9% of the patients (51.06% of those who used a pressurized canister inhaler, 59.1% of those who used a PCI+spacer, 38.5% of those who used a Turbuhaler, and 37.5% of those who used an Accuhaler). The highest error rates were seen in exhaling completely before beginning the inhalation (63.78%), holding the breath after inhalation for as long as possible (65.94%), and breathing out slowly after the inhalation (64.86%). Better IT was seen in younger patients with higher levels of education (P=.007). There were no statistically significant differences in the rest of the variables.",
"In a real-life setting,>40% of subjects with mild/moderate asthma are currently treated by protocols based on the results of RCTs for which they would not have been eligible. This proportion increases in elderly patients with comorbidities. These findings limit the generalizability of RCTs and advocate that complementary pragmatic studies be conducted. © 2015 S. Karger AG, Basel.",
"Self-management of moderate-to-severe asthma depends on the patient's ability to (1) navigate (access health care to obtain diagnoses and treatment), (2) use inhaled corticosteroids (ICSs) properly, and (3) understand ICS function. We sought to test whether navigation skills (medication recall, knowledge of copay requirements, and ability to provide information needed for a medical visit about a persistent cough unresponsive to medication) are related to other self-management skills and health literacy. A 21-item Navigating Ability (NAV2) questionnaire was developed, validated, and then read to adults with moderate-to-severe asthma. ICS technique was evaluated by using scales derived from instructions in national guidelines; knowledge of ICS function was evaluated by using a validated 10-item questionnaire. Spearman correlation was computed between NAV2 score and these questionnaires and with numeracy (Asthma Numeracy Questionnaire) and print literacy (Short Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults). Two hundred fifty adults participated: age, 51 ± 13 years; 72% female; 65% African American; 10% Latino; 50% with household income of less than $30,000/y; 47% with no more than a 12th-grade education; and 29% experienced hospitalizations for asthma in the prior year. A higher NAV2 score was associated with correct ICS technique (ρ = 0.24, P = .0002), knowledge of ICSs (ρ = 0.35, P < .001), better print literacy (ρ = 0.44, P < .001), and numeracy (ρ = 0.41, P < .001).",
"In stable, optimized COPD patients who have already completed PR, telemonitoring in addition to best care, reduces primary care chest contacts but not hospital or specialist team utilization.",
"Patient decision aids (PDAs) are used in shared decision making to improve practitioner-patient communication and help patients decide about treatment options. To develop a PDA for adults with asthma considering inhaled corticosteroids, with or without long-acting beta2-agonists, to optimize asthma control. The PDA was developed based on the International Patient Decision Aid Standards. Step 1: PDA was drafted. Step 2: PDA acceptability was assessed among target users, certified asthma educators (CAEs) and adults with asthma, following an iterative process. a) Participants read the PDA, b) rated its presentation, length, balance, and perceived usefulness, indicated what they liked/disliked about it, and made suggestions for improvement. c) Based on results from (b), PDA was refined. This process was repeated with new participants until no suggestions were made. Step 3: The PDA was field tested with target users. Interviews with CAEs were conducted to identify areas of improvement. Step 4: Final PDA version was written. A color-printed, 4-page, letter-sized PDA was drafted. Acceptability testing involved 11 CAEs (women, n = 10) and 20 adults with asthma (women, n = 13; age 22-61 years). Five successive refined versions were produced. Major changes were made to PDA terminology, instructions, paper size, and visual presentation. Two CAEs (women, n = 2) and 26 adults with asthma (women, n = 19; age 20-65 years) field tested PDA. Minor changes were made to language and instructions to ensure usability. The final version was a color-printed, 12-page, A3-sized booklet.",
"Three in four cancer outpatients under treatment have access to the Internet and half use websites dedicated to health topics, with an impact of the age and the socioeconomic class level. Developing e-communication tools between caregivers and patients might be considered to improve their home monitoring.",
"yes. An audiovisual reminder function can significantly improve adherence with ICS therapy in adult asthma.",
"To explore the extent to which telemonitoring in patients with heart failure empowers them to self-care. Telemonitoring is increasingly used to provide structured follow-up. In patients with heart failure it has been shown to reduce mortality. However there is limited knowledge of the extent to which it supports the patient to develop self-care skills. A qualitative study including interviews with patients at 2 time-points. Fifteen patients mean age 74, 11 (73%) male, 9 (60%) symptomatic on moderate activity, 6 (40%) symptomatic on mild exertion were interviewed at two time points: firstly following three months of telemonitoring and the second interview following six months of telemonitoring. Thematic analysis of the data was undertaken using constant comparison. Patients undertook a variety of self-care actions. During the three-month interview technological skills featured highly in patients accounts and they used telemonitoring to facilitate professional monitoring. However, during the six-month interview patients described how they used telemonitoring to support their self-care actions. Such actions were based on the understanding of heart failure that patients developed from their personal experience of symptoms, and their interaction with the telemonitoring and the telemonitoring nurse. We found no difference in self-care actions regardless of patients age, severity of their heart failure, time since diagnosis with heart failure or living alone.",
"The purpose of this randomized control trial was to evaluate the effects of a computer-assisted instructional (CAI) game on asthma symptoms (eg, coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and nighttime awakenings) in 7- to 12-year-old inner-city children over 12 weeks. A CAI that focused on reducing environmental irritants/allergens and the correct use of prescribed medications to prevent asthma symptoms was used with 101 children (56 in the intervention group and 45 in the control group). The primary outcome evaluated a change in children's asthma symptoms as measured by responses to nine symptom questions in Juniper's Pediatric Asthma Quality of Life Questionnaire (PAQOL) and measurements of lung function. No significant changes in asthma symptoms occurred between the two groups before and after the intervention. No significant changes were noted in PAQOL scores for activities, emotions, and total PAQOL score, lung function measurements, and asthma severity between the two groups. Asthma knowledge of both groups was high before intervention, but there were no significant changes between groups after the intervention.",
"To determine whether well trained lay people could deliver asthma self-management education with comparable outcomes to that achieved by primary care based practice nurses. Randomised equivalence trial. 39 general practices in West London and North West England. 567 patients with asthma who were on regular maintenance therapy. 15 lay educators were recruited and trained to deliver asthma self-management education. An initial consultation of up to 45 min offered either by a lay educator or a practice based primary care nurse, followed by a second shorter face to face consultation and telephone follow-up for 1 year. Unscheduled need for healthcare. Patient satisfaction and need for courses of oral steroids. 567 patients were randomised to care by a nurse (n = 287) or a lay educator (n = 280) and 146 and 171, respectively, attended the first face to face educational session. During the first two consultations, management changes were made in 35/146 patients seen by a practice nurse (24.0%) and in 56/171 patients (32.7%) seen by a lay educator. For 418/567 patients (73.7%), we have 1 year data on use of unscheduled healthcare. Under an intention to treat approach, 61/205 patients (29.8%) in the nurse led group required unscheduled care compared with 65/213 (30.5%) in the lay led group (90% CI for difference -8.1% to 6.6%; 95% CI for difference -9.5% to 8.0%). The 90% CI contained the predetermined equivalence region (-5% to +5%) giving an inconclusive result regarding the equivalence of the two approaches. Despite the fact that all patients had been prescribed regular maintenance therapy, 122/418 patients (29.2%) required courses of steroid tablets during the course of 1 year. Patient satisfaction following the initial face to face consultation was similar in both groups.",
"The opportunity to use the Internet to monitor patients with chronic disease can serve as a challenge to reduce the digital divide gap and, furthermore, to increase their social and technological inclusion.",
"Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).",
"Overall the high acceptability of this questionnaire suggests that this computerised format is an appropriate method of screening children for asthma and determining their current management. As a large component of underdiagnosis of asthma is lack of reporting to the doctor, this valid and acceptable diagnostic aid has the potential to improve detection of unreported asthma, and also to identify high-risk individuals.",
"Test-retest reliability of an asthma paper diary versus an electronic diary (e-diary) with an integrated peak flow meter was investigated. The equivalence of the two modes was also evaluated. Prospective, randomized crossover study design in adolescents (12-17 years) and adults (≥18 years). Key inclusion criteria were persistent asthma, Asthma Control Test (ACT) scores ≥16, use of inhaled corticosteroid with or without long-acting beta-agonist for ≥12 weeks, nocturnal awakenings <2 times in the past week, and activity limitations <1 per week. Participants were randomized to either paper then e-diary or e-diary then paper, to be completed for 14 days each. Forty-seven participants completed all study visits. Weekly percentage of symptom-free days (SFDs) and rescue-free days (RFDs) were calculated. Intraclass correlation coefficients (ICCs) of Week 1 mean SFD and RFD (test) and Week 2 mean SFD and RFD (retest), respectively, were estimated in three groups defined as stable: (i) minimal changes in asthma symptoms, as measured by the global patient reported symptom change question, (ii) less than 15% change (absolute value) in 1 second FEV(1) at adjacent study visits, and (iii) changes in ACT scores less than three points for each mode. SFD demonstrated acceptable ICC (≥0.70) using all three definitions of asthma stability for both modes.",
"A study was undertaken to investigate the compliance with and accuracy of peak flow diaries in childhood asthma. Forty asthmatic children (5-16 years) were asked to perform peak flow measurements twice daily for 4 weeks by means of an electronic peak flow meter and to record values in a written diary. Patients and parents were unaware that the device stored the peak flow values on a microchip. In random order, half of the patients were only told that the device allowed for more accurate assessment of peak flow while the other half were told that accurate recording of peak flow was important because the results would be used in guiding adjustments to treatment. Data in the written diary (reported data) were compared with those from the electronic diary (actual data). In the entire study population the mean (SD) actual compliance (77.1 (20.5)%) was much lower than the mean reported compliance (95.7 (9.1)%) (95% CI for difference 12.7% to 24.4%) The percentage of correct peak flow entries decreased from 56% to <50% from the first to the last study week (p<0.04), mainly as a result of an increase in self-invented peak flow entries. Results were comparable for both groups. For incorrect peak flow entries the mean difference between written and electronically recorded entries ranged from -72 to 34 l/min per patient.",
"This study aimed to establish whether the outpatient management of patients presenting with an asthma exacerbation to the emergency department (ED) was in compliance with the 1992 guidelines of the \"International Consensus Report on the Diagnosis and Management of Asthma.\" Prospective, observational study using a researcher-administered questionnaire. University tertiary referral ED. Convenience sample of asthmatics (aged 18 to 54 years) presenting for asthma treatment between July 1, 1997, and June 30, 1998. Eighty-five asthmatic patients were enrolled. Of these, 34 patients (40%) smoked, 53 patients (62%) were undertreated with medication when compared to the consensus guidelines, and 74 patients (87%) had no written \"plan of action.\" During an asthma attack, 9 patients (11%) did not use a bronchodilator as first-line action and 76 patients (89%) did not commence or increase the use of an inhaled steroid. Forty-nine patients (58%) did not know that bronchospasm occurred in asthma, and 53 patients (62%) did not know that bronchial swelling occurred. Twenty-six patients (31%) thought short-acting bronchodilator drugs were asthma preventers. Sixty-two patients (73%) could not adequately define peak expiratory flow (PF), 41 patients (48%) did not own a PF meter, and only 8 patients (9%) determined their PF daily. Fifty-three patients (62%) were reviewed by a physician once a year or less, and 18 patients (21%) noted family and friends as their only source of asthma education.",
"There is widespread interest in using phone-based and email/Internet-based telehealth among patients with chronic diseases, regardless of their health status, access difficulties, age, or many other sociodemographic factors. This interest could be increased by helping patients gain confidence using technologies and through highlighting benefits and addressing concerns about telehealth. While the same pattern exists for social media telehealth, interest in using these technologies is minimal.",
"Does telehealth reduce the hospital admission rate and cost for people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Randomised controlled trial with concealed allocation. The participants' homes in Aalborg, Denmark. Participants were linked with healthcare professionals at primary and secondary healthcare facilities using telehealth technology. Adults were included if they had severe or very severe COPD, lived in Aalborg, and were free from other diseases that limited function (eg, heart disease). Randomisation allocated 60 to the intervention group and 51 to the control group. Participants in the intervention group had a telehealth monitoring device installed in their home for four months and were taught how to monitor their symptoms, measure clinical data (eg, spirometry), use a step counter, and given instructions about home exercise. Healthcare professionals accessed the data to monitor their disease and provide advice. Once a month, the telehealth team met via video to co-ordinate and discuss each participant's rehabilitation program. Those in the control group were instructed regarding home exercises but had no planned contact with healthcare professionals. Hospital admission rate and cost of hospitalisation over a 10-month period. A total of 105 participants completed the study. Over the follow-up period, the admission rate per patient was lower in the intervention group compared with the control group (0.49 vs 1.17, p = 0.041). The cost of hospitalisations appeared to be lower in the intervention group.",
"In summary, the majority of patients used telemonitoring daily and developed self-care skills in monitoring their heart failure. Such skills were developed over the six-month time-period of the study.",
"yes. PATIENTS will use internet technology to report their perceptions of health-related adverse events. Some of the patient-reported events reported will be serious.",
"yes. This novel approach of internet-supervised patient self-management improved time in therapeutic range compared to an anticoagulation clinic. This is the first demonstration of an internet-based expert system enabling remote and effective management of patients on oral anticoagulants. Expert systems may be applicable for management of other chronic diseases.",
"Electronic implementation of questionnaires has many advantages, but there may be concerns that it alters versions that were validated on paper. To determine whether electronic implementation alters responses to the SF-36 and asthma quality of life questionnaire (AQLQ), compared to paper implementation. Patients with asthma presenting to a pneumologist were asked for consent to participate. Each patient completed both forms of each questionnaire. The order of presentation was alternated sequentially, with the first patient completing the electronic version first. Each patient waited at least 2 hours between completions to minimize recollection of answers. For both the SF-36 and AQLQ, intraclass correlations coefficients were calculated to compare patients' scores, for each scale and overall, on the electronic and paper versions. Sixty-eight patients (mean age: 48 years, 50 females) of 311 contacted were enrolled. Overall intraclass correlation coefficients for the SF-36 and AQLQ were excellent (0.965 and 0.991 respectively). For paper versions, eight questions (AQLQ) and 24 (SF-36) were left blank and nine questions (SF-36) were answered incorrectly by patients selecting more than one answer. Electronic data for one patient could not be retrieved.",
"It is possibly worthwhile to implement a telemonitoring platform in a primary care setting; however this study did not show immediate profit for implementation in a CHC that organises diabetes clinics on regular basis. In primary care settings where it will be implemented, even if there is a social-digital divide today, the use of a telemonitoring platform could possibly reduce inequity in health care as time could become available for those most in need for face-to-face contact with their physician.",
"yes. Telehealth can be used to estimate ED visits for respiratory illness at the health unit level. Non-linear modeling methods produced better estimates than regression in larger health units.",
"Patients using practice-based Internet communication and having significant health risks can be identified through the use of administrative data, presenting an opportunity to test online educational efforts to improve health.",
"Originally, the Asthma Control Test (ACT) was designed for English-speaking patients using a paper-and-pencil format. The Turkish version of the ACT was recently validated. This article compares the paper-and-pencil and web-based texting formats of the Turkish version of the ACT and evaluates the compatibility of these ACT scores with GINA-based physician assessments of asthma control. This multicentre prospective study included 431 asthma patients from outpatient clinics in Turkey. The patients were randomized into a paper-and-pencil group (n = 220) and a text messaging group (n = 211). Patients completed the ACT at Visit 1, after 10 ± 2 days, and at 5 ± 1 week to demonstrate the reliability and responsiveness of the test. At each visit, physicians assessed patients' asthma control levels. The ACT administered via texting showed an internal consistency of 0.82. For the texting group, we found a significant correlation between the ACT and physician assessments at Visit 1 (r = 0.60, p < 0.001). The AUC was 0.87, with a sensitivity of 78.0% and a specificity of 77.5% for a score of ≤19 for screening \"uncontrolled\" asthma in the texting group.",
"Assess acceptance and attitudes regarding telemanagement (HAT) in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Noncompliance is a barrier to successful outcomes in patients with IBD. Novel methods for monitoring and assessing compliance are needed. HAT consists of a laptop connected to a weight scale. HAT prompts patients to respond to questions about symptoms, medication side effects, and compliance. Ten consecutive adult patients with IBD were trained to use HAT. Attitudinal surveys and structured qualitative interviews were performed at the end of the session. Twenty percent of patients had never used a computer at home. All patients reported that use of the computer and self-testing was not complicated. All patients reported that the symptom diary and questions on side effects were easy to answer. All patients reported that self-testing took little time. Eighty percent said that testing would not interfere with usual activities, that they could comply with testing 3 times/wk, and that they would agree to use the system in the future.",
"yes. Children with asthma seen by telemedicine or in-person visits can achieve comparable degrees of asthma control. Telemedicine can be a viable alternative to traditional in-person physician-based care for the treatment and management of asthma.",
"Access to asthma specialists is a problem, particularly in rural areas, thus presenting an opportunity for management using telemedicine. To compare asthma outcomes during 6 months in children managed by telemedicine vs in-person visits. Children with asthma residing in 2 remote locations were offered the choice of an in-person visit or a telemedicine session at a local clinic. The telemedicine process involved real-time use of a Remote Presence Solution (RPS) equipped with a digital stethoscope, otoscope, and high-resolution camera. A telefacilitator operated the RPS and performed diagnostic and educational procedures, such as spirometry and asthma education. Children in both groups were assessed initially, after 30 days, and at 6 months. Asthma outcome measures included asthma control using validated tools (Asthma Control Test, Childhood Asthma Control Test, and Test for Respiratory and Asthma Control in Kids) and patient satisfaction (telemedicine group only). Noninferiority analysis of asthma control was performed using the minimally important difference of an adjusted asthma control test that combined the 3 age groups. Of 169 children, 100 were seen in-person and 69 via telemedicine. A total of 34 in-person and 40 telemedicine patients completed all 3 visits. All had a small, although statistically insignificant, improvement in asthma control over time. Telemedicine was noninferior to in-person visits. Most of the telemedicine group subjects were satisfied with their experience.",
"yes. Virtual group patients achieved excellent asthma therapeutic and disease control outcomes. Compared with those who received standardized office-based care, they were more adherent to diary submission and had better inhaler scores at 52 weeks. Store-and-forward telemedicine technology and case management provide additional tools to assist in the management of children with persistent asthma.",
"The goal was to determine whether home asthma telemonitoring with store-and-forward technology improved outcomes, compared with in-person, office-based visits. A total of 120 patients, 6 to 17 years of age, with persistent asthma were assigned randomly to the office-based or virtual group. The 2 groups followed the same ambulatory clinical pathway for 12 months. Office-based group patients received traditional in-person education and case management. Virtual group patients received computers, Internet connections, and in-home, Internet-based case management and received education through the study Web site. Disease control outcome measures included quality of life, utilization of services, and symptom control. A total of 120 volunteers (45 female) were enrolled. The groups were clinically comparable (office-based: 22 female/38 male; mean age: 9.0 +/- 3.0 years; virtual: 23 female/37 male; mean age: 10.2 +/- 3.1 years). Virtual patients had higher metered-dose inhaler with valved holding chamber technique scores than did the office-based group at 52 weeks (94% vs 89%), had greater adherence to daily asthma symptom diary submission (35.4% vs 20.8%), had less participant time (636 vs 713 patient-months), and were older. Caregivers in both groups perceived an increase in quality of life and an increase in asthma knowledge scores from baseline. There were no other differences in therapeutic or disease control outcome measures.",
"To evaluate the validity of spirometry self-testing during home telemonitoring and to assess the acceptance of an Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring system by asthma patients. We studied an Internet-based telemonitoring system that collected spirometry data and symptom reports from asthma patients' homes for review by physicians in the medical center's clinical information system. After a 40-min training session, patients completed an electronic diary and performed spirometry testing twice daily on their own from their homes for 3 weeks. A medical professional visited each patient by the end of the third week of monitoring, 10 to 40 min after the patient had performed self-testing, and asked the patient to perform the spirometry test again under his supervision. We evaluated the validity of self-testing and surveyed the patients attitude toward the technology using a standardized questionnaire. Telemonitoring was conducted in patients' homes in a low-income inner city area. Thirty-one consecutive asthma patients without regard to computer experience. Thirty-one asthma patients completed 3 weeks of monitoring. A paired t test showed no difference between unsupervised and supervised home spirometry self-testing. The variability of FVC (4.1%), FEV(1) (3. 7%), peak expiratory flow (7.9%), and other spirometric indexes in our study was similar to the within-subject variability reported by other researchers. Despite the fact that the majority of the patients (71%) had no computer experience, they indicated that the self-testing was \"not complicated at all\" or only \"slightly complicated.\" The majority of patients (87.1%) were strongly interested in using home asthma telemonitoring in the future.",
"Spirometry self-testing by asthma patients during telemonitoring is valid and comparable to those tests collected under the supervision of a trained medical professional. Internet-based home asthma telemonitoring can be successfully implemented in a group of patients with no computer background."
] | 926 |
Is rest or exercise hypertension a cause of a false-positive exercise test? | [
"To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.",
"In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression."
] | [
"no. A single bout of resistance exercise decreased BP and cardiac work for 1 h after exercise under clinical conditions, and did not modify ambulatory cardiovascular variables during 24 h in patients with PAD.",
"no. Acute-hyperlipidemia does not significantly change exercise hemodynamics in healthy males. Therefore, the association between raised lipids and increased exercise BP is likely due to the chronic effects of hyperlipidemia.",
"yes. These data suggest that exercise training is an important intervention for salt-sensitive hypertension and that the enhanced survival observed with exercise training appears to be independent of training-induced SBP lowering effects.",
"yes. To our knowledge, these findings provide the first direct evidence that exercise induces rapid interstitial lung fluid accumulation and hypoxemia in patients with CMS that appear to be related to exaggerated pulmonary hypertension. We suggest that this problem contributes to exercise intolerance in patients with CMS.",
"30 minutes of rest between two ISWTs are not enough for all cardiovascular variables and perceived exertion to return to baseline values. However, this period appears to be sufficient for blood pressure and performance to recover in most subjects.",
"Hypertensive response to exercise in patients with untreated stage I essential hypertension is associated with endothelial dysfunction and increased carotid IMT. It seems that this phenomenon is not a benign one but rather a dangerous alarm.",
"yes. Exercise tests may predict the clinical outcome of CHD among elderly patients. A negative finding in an exercise test is very reliable.",
"This study demonstrates a 33.3% false positive SHIM diagnosis of ED in men with PE. This is likely to limit subject recruitment in clinical trials by exclusion of subjects with low-range IELTs but is unlikely to result in significantly different baseline IELTs or IELT distributions.",
"The present study was designed to assess the impact of left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) independent of hypertension on the presence of silent myocardial ischemia and arrhythmia, as well as on systolic and diastolic function in otherwise healthy elderly men. Twenty apparently healthy normotensive subjects with LVH were compared with 18 hypertensive subjects with LVH and with 20 healthy subjects without LVH (controls)--all recruited from a health screening programme of 70-year-old men. All participants were free from known coronary heart disease and were evaluated by means of echocardiography with Doppler, a symptom-limited exercise test and 24 h ambulatory ECG monitoring. The healthy normotensive subjects with LVH showed impaired systolic function (ejection fraction 66 +/- 8 (SD)% versus 72 +/- 8% in controls, P < 0.03) and impaired diastolic function (E/A ratio 0.86 +/- 0.20 versus 1.12 +/- 0.30, P < 0.01) as well as an increased number of premature ventricular complexes in the exercise test and during the 24 h ECG monitoring (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. The hypertensive subjects with LVH showed impaired diastolic function (P < 0.05) and a more pronounced ST depression in the exercise test (P < 0.05), when compared with the healthy group without LVH. In both of the LVH groups, more than 20% of the subjects evidenced ST-segment depression > or = 1 mm in the exercise test, compared with 5% of the healthy group without LVH.",
"yes. These data indicate that hypertension leads to enhanced functional coupling of ryanodine receptors-BKCa to buffer pressure-induced constriction of cerebral arteries, which attributes not only to an upregulation of BKCa β1-subunit function but also to an increase of Ca(2+) release from ryanodine receptors. However, regular aerobic exercise efficiently prevents augmented coupling and so alleviates the pathological compensation and restores cerebral arterial function.",
"Exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response during exercise test reflects future risk of hypertension and has been shown to be related to increased left ventricular mass (LVM) in hypertensive patients. However, it is not known whether there is such a relationship in normotensives. The objective of this study is to investigate whether exercise BP response is related to left ventricular mass in normotensive subjects. Among the normotensive (systolic blood pressure (SBP) < 120 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure (DBP) < 80 mmHg and no history of antihypertensive treatments or clinical cardiovascular diseases) subjects who underwent routine health screening, both exercise test and echocardiography results were available in 7607 men and women. Exercise test was done by Bruce protocol and SBP at stage 1 was used as an indicator of exercise BP response. Left ventricular mass was calculated by American Society of Echocardiography equation, and divided by body surface area to estimate LVM index. Mean age was 50 ± 7 years and proportion of male was 74%. Mean LVM index was 81.3 ± 16.0 gm/m. Exercise SBP at stage 1 was significantly correlated to LVM index (r = 0.11, p < 0.0001) Higher exercise SBP at stage 1 was associated with increased LVM index after adjustment for age, gender, resting SBP and DBP, waist circumference and fasting glucose (p < 0.0001).",
"yes. MH can be identified in untreated individuals from low-intensity exercise SBP. Further research on the diagnostic value of BP during early phases of exercise stress testing is needed.",
"Based on the information added by exercise testing to clinical data, these results confirm the ACC/AHA guideline assignments for test selection. However, despite these guidelines, patients with a low pretest probability can be selected for exercise testing with the knowledge that a positive result is infrequent and a negative result carries a very high negative predictive value. Intermediate-probability patients on average carry a significant false-negative rate, suggesting that exercise ECG alone may not be a sufficient screening test in all intermediate-probability patients. Because of poor negative predictive value and a large percentage of negative tests, high-probability patients should undergo coronary angiography as the initial strategy, unless the goal of exercise testing is to assess prognosis.",
"Whether intensity or other characteristics of physical activity can better promote the release of nitric oxide (NO) and reduction of blood pressure in hypertensive older-adults is still unknown. In this study, the post-exercise blood pressure (BP) response and NO release after different intensities of aerobic exercise in elderly women were analyzed. Blood pressure response and NO were analyzed in 23 elderly mildly hypertensive women. Participants underwent (1) high-intensity incremental exercise (IT); (2) moderate-intensity 20 min exercise at 90% of the anaerobic threshold (AT), and (3) control (CONT) session. BP was measured before and after interventions; volunteers remained seated for 1 h. NO estimates were made through NO2- analyses. After CONT session, both diastolic BP and mean arterial pressure (MAP) were significantly higher than during pre-exercise resting. Post-exercise hypotension (PEH) was observed after exercise at IT and 90% of AT. Although exercise in both sessions lowered SBP and MAP compared with CONT, exercise at the highest intensity (IT) was more effective on lowering systolic BP after exercise. In comparison with pre-exercise resting, NO2- increased significantly only after IT, but both exercise sessions caused NO2- to increase compared with CONT.",
"Ankle-to-brachial index (ABI) can be easily performed by all physicians. The Ruffier-Dickson (RD) test is an easy procedure to attain moderate exercise at the bedside for physicians who do not have an ergometer. Retrospective analysis. Tertiary care, institutional practice. Fifty-three asymptomatic athletes and 22 patients suffering from unilateral pain due to histologically proven exercise-induced arterial endofibrosis (EIAE). Brachial and ankle systolic blood pressures were measured in the supine position on the suspected leg in EIAE or left leg in controls, at rest (rest) and at the first minute of the recovery from incremental maximal cycle ergometer exercise (maxCE) and Ruffier-Dickson (RD) exercise tests. Comparison of ABI(rest), ABI(maxCE), and ABI(RD) in discriminating patients from normal subjects, using receiver operating characteristics (ROC) curves. Area (+/-SE of area) of ROC curve was 0.76 +/- 0.06 for ABI(rest), 0.83 +/- 0.05 for ABI(RD) (nonsignificant from rest), and 0.99 +/- 0.01 for ABI(maxCE) (P<0.01 from ABI(RD) and P<0.001 from ABI(rest)). An ABI(maxCE) below 0.48 was 100% specific and 80% sensitive for EIAE. For the RD test, a 100% negative predictive value was only attained for postexercise ABI values higher than 0.92.",
"Physical exercise is known to alter the physiological response to orthostatic stress. This study compared reported physical activity levels in patients with unexplained syncope who did or did not demonstrate positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. We reviewed the records of 1,336 patients with unexplained syncope who underwent carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Patients with positive responses (cases) were compared with patients with negative responses (controls). Multivariable regression analysis was used to identify independent predictors of positive responses to carotid sinus massage and head-up tilt-table testing. Seventy patients had a positive response to carotid sinus massage and 564 patients had a positive response to head-up tilt-table testing. Physical activity was an independent positive predictor of a positive response to both carotid sinus massage {adjusted odds ratio (AOR) 1.86, 95% CI (1.14-3.05); p = 0.01} and head-up tilt-table testing {AOR 1.31, 95% CI (1.04-1.65); P = 0.02} even after adjustment for multiple other factors including age, gender, and other medical conditions.",
"yes. Prehypertension is associated with metabolic disarrangement and preclinical target organ damage but not with exercise capacity. Exercise capacity is determined by age, resting heart rate, and body composition in relatively healthy individuals who do not have hypertension.",
"The mechanisms responsible for impaired cardiovascular hemodynamics during exercise among persons with milder forms of hypertension are not well documented. We examined the relationship of oxygen pulse during exercise, a correlate of stroke volume, with echocardiographic indices of resting left ventricular function to determine whether abnormal contractility and relaxation are related to abnormal cardiovascular dynamics during exercise among such persons. Subjects were 44 men and 55 women ages 55 to 75 years with mild hypertension but who were otherwise healthy. Resting left ventricular systolic and diastolic functions were assessed with 2-dimensional Doppler echocardiography and tissue Doppler imaging. Oxygen pulse (millimeters per beat) at rest and during multistage treadmill testing was derived from measurements of oxygen consumption and heart rate. The slope of oxygen pulse between successive exercise stages was calculated. After a steep rise in oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 of exercise, a markedly diminished oxygen pulse slope was seen between subsequent exercise stages. In stepwise regression analysis, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse from rest to stage 1 was explained by a greater lean body mass (57%, P < .001) and a larger left atrial size (2%, P < .001). After exercise stage 1, the increase in the slope of oxygen pulse was explained by sex (24%, P < .001), higher mitral E/A ratio (6%, P < .001), and higher mitral annular systolic velocity (6%, P < .001).",
"Stroke mortality rate is higher in South Asians than in Europeans, despite equivalent or lower resting blood pressure (BP). Elevated recovery BP after exercise predicts stroke, independently of resting values. We hypothesized that South Asians would have adverse postexercise hemodynamics and sought explanations for this. A population-based sample of 147 European and 145 South Asian middle-aged men and women performed the Dundee 3-minute step test. Cardiovascular risk factors were measured. BP, heart rate, and rate-pressure product, a measure of myocardial oxygen consumption, were compared. With 90% power and 5% significance, we could detect a difference of 0.38 of a standard deviation in any outcome measure. Resting systolic BP was similar in South Asians (144 mm Hg) and Europeans (142 mm Hg) (P=0.2), as was exercise BP (P=0.4). However, recovery systolic BP at 3 minutes after exercise was higher in South Asians by 4.3 mm Hg (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.2 to 8.3 mm Hg; P=0.04). This effect persisted when adjusted for exercise BP and work effort (5.4 mm Hg [95% CI, 2.2 to 8.7 mm Hg; P=0.001]). Adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and greater aortic stiffness in South Asians contributes greatly to attenuating this ethnic difference (1.9 mm Hg [95% CI, -0.9 to 4.6 mm Hg; P=0.4]). Similarly, rate-pressure product recovery after exercise was impaired in South Asians by 735 mm Hg/min (95% CI, 137 to 1334 mm Hg/min; P=0.02); again, adjustment for baroreflex insensitivity and aortic stiffness attenuated this difference (261 mm Hg/min [95% CI, -39 to 561 mm Hg/min; P=0.3]).",
"Our aim was to investigate the relationship between impaired exercise capacity and albumin excretion level in the setting of never treated essential hypertension. For this purpose, 338 consecutive essential hypertensives (52 ± 8.5 years, 227 males, office BP = 148.6/96.1 mmHg) performed a negative for myocardial ischemia, maximal treadmill exercise testing and were classified based on the gender specific median value of the amount of metabolic equivalents (METs) achieved (10.1 ml/kg/min for women and 11 ml/kg/min for men) as fit (n = 177) and unfit (n = 161). All the participants underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring, complete echocardiographic study including left ventricular diastolic function evaluation and determination of albumin to creatinine ratio (ACR) on two non-consecutive morning spot urine samples. Unfit hypertensives compared to the fit ones were older by 4.5 years (p < 0.001) and had greater waist circumference by 4.5 cm (p < 0.001), body mass index by 1.3 kg/m(2) (p = 0.001), 24-h pulse pressure by 3.0 mmHg (p = 0.005), ACR levels by 12.6% (p = 0.003) and prevalence of microalbuminuria (19.5% vs 10.3%, p = 0.007) while the differences in diastolic function indices lost significance after adjustment for confounders. By applying stepwise multivariate linear regression analysis in order to identify the predictors of METs, it was revealed that age (β = -0.338, p = 0.045), gender (β = 0.274, p = 0.045), body mass index (β = -0.230, p = 0.045) and logACR (β = -0.151, p = 0.004) were the only independent predictors of exercise capacity.",
"yes. A direct effect of cuff inflation leads to the underestimation of ongoing HR during cuff-based ABP measurement. Additional underestimation of HR occurs during periods with physical activity, probably due to behavioural freezing during blood pressure measurements. HR underestimation was not affected by hypertensive state. When its limitations are taken into account, ABP-derived ambulatory HR can be considered a reliable and valid measure.",
"yes. Replacement of the RDT kit's dedicated buffer by saline, distilled water and tap water can cause false-positive test results.",
"Studies on the prognostic importance of the systolic blood pressure (SBP) response during exercise report ambiguous results. Most research focuses on younger and middle-aged selected patient groups and rarely includes women. We investigated the prognostic value of SBP response during exercise testing in 75-year-olds. Prospective observational cohort study. A community-based random sample of 75-year-old men and women (n = 382). The prognostic value of SBP change from rest to peak exercise during a symptom-limited cycle test was evaluated for the endpoints all-cause mortality and cardiovascular mortality during long-term follow-up. After a median follow-up of 10.6 years, 140 (37%) of the participants had died, 64 (17%) from cardiovascular causes. The all-cause mortalities for exercise SBP changes of < or =30 mm Hg, 31-55 mm Hg and >55 mm Hg were 5.1, 4.2 and 2.6 per 100 person-years, respectively (logrank 9.6; p = 0.008). For every 10 mm Hg increase in SBP during exercise the relative hazard for all-cause mortality was reduced by 13% (p = 0.030) and for cardiovascular mortality by 26% (p = 0.004) after adjustment for sex, smoking, waist circumference, total/HDL cholesterol ratio, prevalent ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, cardiovascular medication, pre-exercise SBP, exercise capacity, resting left ventricular ejection fraction and left ventricular mass index.",
"To test the hypothesis that in young, normotensive obese subjects, physical activity at a fixed, moderate workload, causes a more pronounced hypertensive effect than in lean subjects. 24 subjects (12 with BMI >30 kg/m(2), 12 with BMI <25 kg/m(2)), underwent a moderate-intensity physical activity protocol (cycling at 100 W). Blood pressure and oxygen consumption were monitored continuously. In the obese subjects, physical activity caused a more pronounced increase in both systolic blood pressure (increase of 40.4 +/- 15.3 mmHg vs 21.2 +/- 10.2 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.001) and diastolic blood pressure (17.5 +/- 17.9 mmHg vs 3.2 +/- 8.1 mmHg in lean subjects; p=0.02). In regression analyses, these differences were only partly explained by small differences in resting blood pressure.",
"1. The prevalence of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing is very high, occurring in more than two-thirds of patients. 2. This prevalence is significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations. 3. Age, gender, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium channel antagonists, significant valvular disesase/LVH, symptoms and blood pressure during stress were not associated with the presence or absence of IVG. 4. The presence of IVG is associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST changes during dobutamine stress echocardiography.",
"The objective of this study was to investigate the effect of regular physical activity on the haemodynamic response to public speaking and to evaluate the long-term effect of exercise on development of hypertension. We assessed 75 sedentary and 44 active participants screened for stage 1 hypertension with consistent activity habits and 63 normotensive individuals as control. The blood pressure (BP) response to public speaking was assessed with beat-to-beat noninvasive recording. Definition of incident hypertension was based either on clinic or 24-h BP measurement. The BP response to public speaking was greater in the hypertensive than the normotensive participants (P=0.018/0.009). Among the former, sedentary participants showed increased BP reactivity to the speech test (45.2+/-22.6/22.2+/-11.5mmHg, P<0.01/<0.001 versus controls), whereas physically active participants had a response similar to that of controls (35.4+/-18.5/18.5+/-11.5mmHg, P=not significant). During a median follow-up of 71 months, ambulatory BP did not virtually change in the active participants (-0.9+/-7.8/-0.0+/-4.7mmHg) and increased in their sedentary peers (2.8+/-9.8/3.2+/-7.4mmHg, P=0.08/0.003 versus active). Active participants were less likely to develop incident hypertension than sedentary ones. After controlling for several confounders including baseline heart rate, the hazard ratio was 0.53 [95% confidence interval (CI) 0.31-0.94] for clinic hypertension and 0.60 (95% CI 0.37-0.99) for ambulatory hypertension. Inclusion of BP response to public speaking into the Cox model influenced the strength of the association only marginally [hazard ratio=0.55 (95% CI 0.30-0.97) and hazard ratio=0.59 (95% CI 0.36-0.99), respectively].",
"yes. This study shows that the percentage of positive exercise challenge test results in the summer is half that of any other season. It is likely that the lower percentage of positive results for asthma in the summer reflects the lower sensitivity of the test during this season due to decreased asthma activity. We suggest performing exercise challenge testing only when patients are symptomatic. Physicians caring for patients with symptoms suggestive of exercise-induced asthma whose exercise test results are negative while asymptomatic should consider repeat exercise testing when their patients are symptomatic.",
"yes. EFT was found to be related to altered BP responses to exercise stress testing. The echocardiographic measurement of EFT may serve as a useful non-invasive indicator of heightened risk of future hypertension.",
"A previous study observed that the chronic effects of aerobic training on blood pressure (BP) are related to acute BP responses after a single bout of aerobic exercise. However, whether similar responses are observed with resistance exercise (RE) remains obscure. Thus, this study analysed the relationship between the acute BP responses to a single bout of RE and chronic changes in resting BP after a RE training in medicated hypertensive elderly women. Twenty medicated hypertensive women participated in the study. They underwent an acute RE bout where BP and heart rate (HR) were obtained at rest and for 60 min after the RE. Subsequently, the participants underwent a progressive RE training for 12 weeks at 60-80% of maximal strength test. Resting BP and HR were also obtained after the RE training. The chronic decreases in systolic and diastolic BP were significantly greater in the participants who experienced acutely decreased systolic and diastolic BP, respectively (P<0·05). The changes in systolic BP after acute RE were correlated with the chronic changes in resting systolic BP after RE training (r = 0·47; P = 0·03). Similar correlations between acute and chronic responses were also observed for diastolic BP (r = 0·70; P = 0·01), mean BP (r = 0·58; P = 0·01), HR (r = 0·73; P<0·01) and RPP (r = 0·52; P = 0·01).",
"yes. Normal coronary arteries show reduced vasodilation during exercise in hypertensive patients that may be explained by the presence of endothelial dysfunction. Stenotic vessels demonstrate paradoxical vasoconstriction during exercise in both normotensive and hypertensive patients. PTCA reverses vasoconstriction by elimination of the flow-limiting stenosis and prevention of coronary stenosis narrowing during exercise in normotensive and hypertensive patients.",
"The aim of this study was to test the hypothesis that blood pressure (BP) reactivity to the stress of a clinic visit, the so-called white-coat effect, is associated with increased BP reactivity to physical activity. Patients referred to our clinic for assessment of hypertension prospectively underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring and simultaneous actigraphy. The difference between mean clinic BP and mean daytime ambulatory BP was considered to be a measure of the white-coat effect. Presence or absence of a white-coat effect (clinic-daytime difference > 0 mmHg) was added to a mixed model regression of BP on mean activity score for the 10-min interval preceding BP measurement. The group (n = 421) was heterogeneous in age, gender, mean 24-h BP and use of antihypertensive medications. A total of 259 patients had a systolic white-coat effect; for diastolic BP there were 264. Female patients exhibited a significantly larger white-coat effect. Coefficients for the regressions of both systolic and diastolic blood pressure on physical activity levels were significantly higher in those who had a white-coat effect.",
"yes. Raised ARR consequent to β-blocker therapy causes false-positive screening for PA. Where β-blockers can be safely withdrawn, this effect is reversed within 2-3 weeks depending on whether DRC or PRA is used to calculate ARR.",
"Insulin resistance has been implicated in the pathogenesis of essential hypertension. Elevated blood pressure during physical exercise is a more powerful predictor of future hypertension than resting blood pressure. We have therefore studied the relationship between insulin resistance and blood pressure response to exercise in strongly hypertension-prone subjects. Twenty-five normotensive subjects aged 18-35 years with bi-parental hypertension, and 26 matched controls with normotensive parents. (i) Maximal exercise tolerance test with continuous gas-exchange measurement; (ii) blood pressure at rest, during exercise and 24-h ambulatory; (iii) euglycemic hyperinsulinemic clamp. Diastolic blood pressure during exercise was higher in hypertensionprone subjects as compared to controls, but only in subjects with low insulin sensitivity. Resting and 24-h diastolic blood pressure were higher in hypertension-prone subjects, but independent of insulin sensitivity level. Insulin sensitivity and exercise capacity were similar in the groups.",
"no. It is unlikely that the exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes are caused by the exercise-induced immune response. Therefore, exercise-induced increases in NT-proBNP or BNP in healthy athletes have to be differentiated from increases in cardiovascular patients with systemic inflammation.",
"yes. Changes in diastolic blood pressure during gentle exercise are strongly associated with serum concentrations of total cholesterol and insulin resistance. This may contribute to development of hypertensive complications in dyslipidemic and/or insulin-resistant patients.",
"yes. Postexercise recovery of BP and rate-pressure product is impaired in South Asians compared to Europeans even though resting and exercise BP are similar. This is associated with the autonomic dysfunction and aortic stiffness in South Asians.",
"yes. RVA pacing results in myocardial perfusion defects. The false-positive findings are present at rest and more obvious with high-rate pacing than during adenosine infusion. Detection of coronary artery disease should be performed with caution in RVA paced patients because of the high number of perfusion defects observed in the absence of coronary artery disease.",
"no. Achievement of 85% MPHR is not a valid diagnostic or functional exercise endpoint because it significantly underestimates exercise capacity and inducible ischemia.",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the association between an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response to exercise and augmented angiotensin (Ang) II rise during exercise. Although a central pressor effect of Ang II has been implicated in the pathogenesis of hypertension, the relationship between Ang II and exaggerated BP response to exercise is unclear. Thirty-six subjects with an exaggerated BP response to exercise (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group II) were compared with 36 age- and gender-matched control subjects (18 men, age 50 +/- 16 years, Group I) with normal BP reactivity. The subjects who had resting BP >or=140/90 mm Hg or were treated with any antihypertensive drugs were excluded. The blood was sampled at rest and immediately after peak exercise for measurement of renin, Ang II, aldosterone, and catecholamine. At rest, there were no significant differences in BP, renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine levels between the 2 groups. The renin, aldosterone, and catecholamine were increased during exercise, but there were no significant differences between the groups. However, log Ang II at rest (0.78 +/- 0.32 vs. 0.98 +/- 0.38, p = 0.004) and peak exercise (0.84 +/- 0.35 vs. 1.17 +/- 0.51, p < 0.001) and the magnitude of the increment of log Ang II with exercise (0.06 +/- 0.12 vs. 0.19 +/- 0.20, p = 0.003) were significantly higher in the exaggerated BP response group.",
"yes. In patients with Doppler evidence of diastolic dysfunction at rest and a hypertensive response to exercise, Ang II receptor blockade blunts the hypertensive response to exercise, increases exercise tolerance and improves quality of life.",
"Patients with hypertensive heart disease and left ventricular hypertrophy demonstrate impaired left ventricular diastolic filling. Aim of this study was to find out if physiological left ventricular hypertrophy induced by endurance training causes abnormal left ventricular systolic and diastolic filling. We examined 42 athletes with left ventricular hypertrophy due to endurance training (aged 25 +/- 7 years), 31 patients with left ventricular hypertrophy due to hypertensive heart disease (aged 28 +/- 6 years) and 20 untrained, healthy subjects (controls, aged 26 +/- 8 years) by conventional echocardiography and calculated left ventricular muscle mass and fractional shortening. In addition the following Doppler-echocardiographic parameters were measured: maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, ratio of maximal early and late velocity of diastolic filling, acceleration and deceleration time and isovolumetric relaxation time. All three study groups showed normal fractional shortening. Conventional echocardiography revealed a higher left ventricular muscle mass in the two study groups as compared to the controls (controls: 119 +/- 12 g, athletes: 225 +/- 18 g*; hypertensive patients: 216 +/- 16 g*; * p<0.01 versus controls). In the athletes with physiological left ventricular hypertrophy a normal left ventricular diastolic filling pattern was documented (VE: 0.64 +/- 0.1 m/s; VA: 0.51 +/- 0.2 m/s). In hypertensive heart disease a diastolic dysfunction in terms of a delayed relaxation pattern with a decrease of maximal early velocity of diastolic filling (VE: 0.45 +/- 0.09 m/s) and a compensatory increase of the maximal late velocity of diastolic filling (VA: 0.54 +/- 0.1 m/s) was demonstrated.",
"We assessed the association of systolic blood pressure response to exercise with the risk of an acute myocardial infarction. We conducted a population-based follow-up study. This study was based on 1731 middle-aged men without history of coronary heart disease who underwent a cycle ergometer exercise test. Systolic blood pressure was measured every 2 min during a cycle ergometer exercise test in 1731 men followed for 12.7 years on average. A total of 188 acute myocardial infarctions were observed. The total change in systolic blood pressure, the slope of the rise in systolic blood pressure per minute and maximal systolic blood pressure during exercise in quintiles were related to the risk of acute myocardial infarction. Maximal systolic blood pressure of over 230 mmHg was associated with a 2.47 [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.46-4.18] fold risk of acute myocardial infarction, after adjustment for age, other risk factors including the use of antihypertensive medications and systolic blood pressure at rest. Among men with elevated systolic blood pressure at rest, the relative risk for an acute myocardial infarction was 4.31 (95% CI 2.04-9.07) times higher for those who had a steep slope of systolic blood pressure rise (>9.4 mmHg per min of exercise) as compared with those who had a more gradual rise in systolic blood pressure.",
"yes. In a group of consecutive subjects referred for ambulatory BP monitoring, masked hypertension was found to be as common as isolated clinic hypertension. Masking was correlated with male sex, young age, and higher awake heart rate, thus suggesting a causal relationship with greater daytime physical activity. The linear association of the masking and the white-coat effects to clinic BP suggests that regression toward the mean may partially explain these phenomena.",
"Hypertensives may develop bilateral trapping of para-aminohippurate analogues in the tissue of the kidneys during light exercise, as can be demonstrated using radioactively labelled [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine. Tracer accumulation in the kidneys during exercise results in a typical renographic pattern, the bilateral-abnormal exercise renogram. The disturbance is common during exercise, being found in almost 60% of all hypertensives, regardless of aetiology. To determine whether bilateral-abnormal exercise renograms are spurious phenomena, or whether the results of exercise renography are reproducible. We reviewed the renographic examinations of 27 hypertensive patients, each of whom had undergone at least one resting and two [131I]-hippurate or [99mTc]-mercaptoacetyl-triglycine gamma-camera exercise renograms. The status of the renal artery at the time of scintigraphy was documented, using available arteriograms. The causes of vascular lesions were noted, as were revascularization procedures and the antihypertensive medication being taken at the time of scintigraphy. The average time between exercise renograms was 15.5 months, and 24 of the 27 hypertensive patients had comparable results in the first and the follow-up exercise renogram, divergent results being noted for the other three patients. Re-evaluation of the scintigrams of the three hypertensive patients with divergent results suggested that intermittent pelvic retention might have caused errors of interpretation in two. We found it notable that neither revascularization nor a change in antihypertensive drug therapy influenced the results of exercise renography. Exercise renograms were reproducible over long periods, and potential extraneous influences on blood flow, such as antihypertensive drugs or revascularization, failed to alter the results.",
"To evaluate the effects of high-intensity resistance exercise on postexercise hypotension (PEH) and forearm vascular resistance (FVR) in the hypertensive elderly. The study was conducted with ten hypertensive elderly individuals (65 ± 3 years, 28·7 ± 3 kg m(-2)). They were subjected to three experimental sessions: control session (SC), exercise 50% (S50%) and 80% (S80%) of 1RM. For each session, subjects were evaluated pre-and postintervention. In the preintervention, the blood pressure (BP) and FVR were measured after 10 min of rest. Thereafter, they were taken to the gym to perform the exercise sessions or remained at rest in each of the equipment during the same time. Both S50% and S80% were composed of a set of ten repetitions of ten exercises, with an interval of 90 s between exercises. Subsequently, the FVR and BP measurements were again performed at 10, 30, 50, 70 and 90 min of recovery (postintervention). The PEH was greater in S80% compared with S50%, with the lower value of BP being found at 90 min of recovery for the two sessions (systolic BP: 115 ± 3,0 mmHg versus 124 ± 5 mmHg; diastolic BP: 75 ± 5 mmHg versus 86 ± 3 mmHg and mean BP: 87 ± 3 mmHg versus 95 ± 4 mmHg, respectively). Concomitantly, the FVR also decreased significantly in both sessions, this reduction being more evident in S80% (P<0·05).",
"The apparent relation between exercise systolic blood pressure response and left ventricular mass is confounded by age, resting systolic blood pressure, and body mass; the degree of confounding is such that the biologic significance of this relationship should be questioned.",
"Although an exaggerated systolic blood pressure (SBP) response to exercise is a predictor of future hypertension and cardiovascular mortality, the underlying mechanisms are not fully understood. We tested the hypothesis that an exaggerated SBP response is associated with carotid atherosclerosis in a cross-sectional study of 9073 healthy men (aged 47.8 +/- 8.8 years). Exaggerated SBP response was defined as an SBP of 210 mmHg or greater during a maximal treadmill test. Carotid atherosclerosis was defined as stenosis greater than 25% or intima-media thickness greater than 1.2 mm using B-mode ultrasonography. An exaggerated SBP response was present in 375 men (4.1%). The proportion of individuals with carotid atherosclerosis in the group with an exaggerated SBP response to exercise was higher than in the group with a normal SBP response (14.4 versus 5.3%, P < 0.001). In a multivariable logistic regression model, individuals with an exaggerated SBP (>or= 210 mmHg) response to exercise had a 2.02 times [95% confidence interval (CI) 1.33-3.05] increased risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals with an SBP response of less than 210 mmHg. The highest quartile (> 61 mmHg) group of relative exercise-induced increases in SBP showed a 1.57 (95% CI 1.18-2.08) greater risk of carotid atherosclerosis compared with individuals in the lowest quartile (< 38 mmHg) in the adjusted model.",
"We examined by thallium-201 scintigraphy whether exercise-induced abnormal blood pressure response (BPR) is related to myocardial ischemia. Hemodynamic instabilities during exercise in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) are considered to be caused by abnormal reflex control of vascular resistance. In 105 patients with HCM, exercise thallium scintigraphy was performed by means of a multistage, symptom-limited bicycle ergometer exercise test. Eighty-eight patients had normal BPR (> or = 25 mm Hg from baseline to peak exercise), and 17 had abnormal BPR (<25 mm Hg). Clinical characteristics including age, the prevalence of obstruction, New York Heart Association functional class and echocardiographic measurements were similar between the two groups. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure was significantly higher in patients with abnormal BPR than in those with normal BPR (18+/-8 vs. 14+/-5 mm Hg, p < 0.05). Exercise-induced perfusion abnormalities including fixed and reversible perfusion defects, and left ventricular cavity dilatation (LVCD) were identified in 72 (69%) of 105 study patients. Left ventricular cavity dilatation indicates subendocardial hypoperfusion and is a marker of diffuse subendocardial ischemia. The prevalence of fixed or reversible perfusion defects was similar between the two groups. Patients with abnormal BPR had the higher prevalence of LVCD as compared to those with normal BPR (47.1 vs. 10%, p < 0.0002). Multiple logistic regression analysis revealed that LVCD was independently associated with abnormal BPR (odds ratio 3.76, 95% confidence interval 1.61 to 8.76).",
"yes. Among asymptomatic patients undergoing stress testing, delayed HRR was independently associated with early and late stages of PHT. Further studies are needed to determine the usefulness of measuring HRR in the prevention and management of hypertension.",
"This study sought to assess the diagnostic value of myocardial perfusion imaging during exercise and pharmacologic stress in patients with left bundle branch block. Patients with left bundle branch block often have septal perfusion defects during exercise perfusion tomography that mimic defects caused by coronary artery disease. These defects appear to be less frequent during pharmacologic stress using adenosine or dipyridamole. Data are scantly on the value of dobutamine tomography in these patients. We studied 383 consecutive patients with left bundle branch block referred for perfusion scintigraphy over a 5-year span. Perfusion tomography was performed in conjunction with exercise in 206 patients, adenosine in 127 and dobutamine in 50. Coronary angiography was performed within 1 month of the nuclear study in 77, 50 and 27 patients, respectively. Exercise, adenosine and dobutamine tomography had similar sensitivity and specificity for the detection of>50% stenosis in the left circumflex (74% and 96%; 50% and 100%; 63% and 91%, respectively) and right coronary arteries (96% and 86%; 82% and 91%; 79% and 100%, respectively) and similar sensitivity for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis (88%, 79% and 100%, respectively). However, the false-positive rate for septal defects was higher by exercise tomography (26 [46%] of 57) than by pharmacologic methods (5 [10%]of 48, p<0.001), and there was no significant difference between adenosine (4 [11%] of 35) and dobutamine (1 [8%]of 13, p = 0.7). The specificity and predictive value of a positive test response for left anterior descending coronary artery stenosis were 36% and 51% for exercise compared with 81% and 85% for adenosine (p<or = 0.001) and 80% and 90% for dobutamine (p<0.05), respectively.",
"yes. Regular physical activity prevents the development of LVH in young stage 1 hypertensive subjects. This effect is independent from the reduction in blood pressure caused by exercise.",
"This study tests the hypothesis that patients with treated hypertension with well-controlled blood pressure, without ventricular hypertrophy and normal resting echocardiography, may have abnormalities of ventricular function that are apparent only on exercise and contribute to symptoms of exertional dyspnoea. Patients with hypertension with well-controlled blood pressure on medication and normal baseline echocardiography underwent cardiopulmonary exercise testing to determine their peak oxygen consumption (Vo(2)(max)), followed by rest and submaxinal supine exercise echocardiography (standard, tissue Doppler and speckle tracking). 30 patients with treated hypertension with a history of exertional dyspnoea (mean age 71+/-8 years; 18 women) and 22 age-matched healthy controls (70+/-6 years; 16 women) had rest and exercise images of sufficient quality for analysis. Both groups had comparable standard echocardiographic findings at rest. On exercise, the patients had reduced systolic longitudinal function (reserve index 0.97+/-1.34 vs 2.32+/-1.24, p=0.001), delayed early untwisting (20.4+/-7.6 vs 30.6+/-7.8%, p=0.001) and reduced ventricular suction (velocity propagation 10.6+/-10.9 vs 24.5+/-12.2 m/s, p<0.001) compared with healthy controls, which correlated with significantly reduced Vo(2)(max).",
"These results indicate that exercise renography has a similar sensitivity but lower specificity compared with captopril scintigraphy in the diagnosis of renal artery stenosis. Because of the lower specificity, its use in the screening of renovascular hypertension may be limited. Exercise renography may be more useful as an investigative tool for essential hypertension.",
"yes. An exaggerated renin response to captopril challenge is common in patients with high-renin essential hypertension. Therefore, in a population with a low probability of renovascular hypertension, caution is recommended in interpreting a positive test result in patients with a high baseline renin.",
"yes. The basis of false-positive enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay determinations for anti-L-332 IgG among patients with BP is unknown.",
"To test the validity of ambulatory heart rate (HR) assessment with a cuff ambulatory blood pressure (ABP) monitor. Cross-instrument comparison of HR measured intermittently by a cuff ABP monitor (SpaceLabs, Redmond, Washington, USA), with HR derived from continuous electrocardiogram (ECG) recordings (1) in a controlled laboratory experiment and (2) during long-term recording in a true naturalistic setting. Six normotensive subjects participated in the laboratory study. A total of 109 male white-collar workers underwent ambulatory monitoring, of which 30 were mildly hypertensive. Four different laboratory conditions (postures: lying, sitting, standing, walking), repeated twice, were used to assess the short-term effects of cuff inflation on the HR. To test the actual ambulatory validity, participants simultaneously wore a continuous HR recorder and the ABP monitor from early morning to late evening on 2 workdays and one non-workday. Diary and vertical accelerometery information was used to obtain periods of fixed posture and (physical) activity across which HR from both devices was compared. Laboratory results showed that the ABP device reliably detected HR during blood pressure measurement, but that this HR was systematically lower than the HR directly before and after the blood pressure measurement. The ambulatory study confirmed this systematic underestimation of the ongoing HR, but additionally showed that its amount increased when subjects went from sitting to standing to light physical activity (2.9; 4.3 and 9.1 bpm (beats/min), respectively). In spite of this activity-dependent underestimation of HR, the correlation of continuous ECG and intermittent ABP-derived HR was high (median r= 0.81). Also, underestimation was not different for normotensives and mild hypertensives.",
"To assess the association between an exaggerated exercise systolic blood pressure response and the occurrence of left ventricular hypertrophy in healthy, normotensive individuals. Cross-sectional survey using M-mode echocardiography to measure left ventricular mass and to detect left ventricular hypertrophy. The Framingham Heart Study. Eight-hundred sixty men and 1118 women were studied who were free of cardiovascular or pulmonary disease, who were not taking any antihypertensive or cardiovascular medications, and who successfully achieved at least 90% of their age-predicted maximum heart rate during a monitored exercise treadmill test. All subjects had normal baseline and exercise electrocardiograms. Men with a peak exercise systolic blood pressure of 210 or more and women with a peak exercise systolic blood pressure of 190 or more were considered to have an \"exaggerated\" blood pressure response; 122 men and 67 women met these criteria. Subjects with an exaggerated exercise systolic blood pressure response had 10% higher left ventricular mass than those with a normal exercise systolic blood pressure response (in men: 115 +/- 25 compared with 105 +/- 24 g/m, P less than 0.001; in women: 86 +/- 22 compared with 73 +/- 16 g/m, P less than 0.001); they also had a higher prevalence of left ventricular hypertrophy (in men: odds ratio, 1.34, 95% CI, 1.00 to 1.80; in women: odds ratio, 2.12, CI, 1.48 to 3.03). After adjusting for age, resting systolic blood pressure, and body mass index, however, subjects with an exaggerated exercise systolic blood pressure response had only 5% higher left ventricular mass (in men: 111 +/- 2.1 compared with 106 +/- 0.8 g/m, P = 0.02; in women: 80 +/- 1.8 compared with 74 +/- 0.4 g/m, P = 0.002), and they no longer had a statistically increased prevalence of left ventricular hypertrophy (in men: odds ratio, 1.21, CI, 0.87 to 1.67; in women: odds ratio, 1.30, CI, 0.84 to 2.01).",
"High pulsatile load is associated with structural alterations of the heart and arteries, which may cause changes in the coronary circulation and predispose to myocardial ischemia. This study was designed to investigate the relationships of coronary vasodilator capacity and exercise-induced myocardial ischemia to pulsatile and steady components of office blood pressure. Eighty-two untreated, middle-aged hypertensive patients without coronary artery stenosis and 23 normotensive volunteers, underwent exercise electrocardiogram test and standard and transesophageal echocardiography to assess the occurrence of myocardial ischemia, left ventricular (LV) mass and geometry, total arterial compliance and coronary vasodilator capacity. In the hypertensive population, minimum coronary resistance (MCR) was significantly higher (P < 0.01) in the top as compared to all three lower pulse pressure (PP) quartiles (1.10 +/- 0.19, 1.21 +/- 0.23, 1.20 +/- 0.26 and 1.43 +/- 0.26 mmHg s/cm). An additional increase in MCR also occurred in the top quartile of systolic blood pressure (SBP), but not across quartiles of mean blood pressure. In regression analysis, MCR increased with PP, SBP and LV wall thickness and decreased with total arterial compliance. As compared to hypertensive patients with a negative exercise test for myocardial ischemia (n = 30), those with a positive test (n = 20) had higher MCR (1.12 +/- 0.22 versus 1.39 +/- 0.29 mmHg s/cm, P < 0.01) and lower total arterial compliance (96 +/- 22 versus 81 +/- 16%, P < 0.01).",
"The aim of this study was to investigate the blood pressure (BP) response to exercise in normotensive patients with type II diabetes mellitus (DM). A cross-sectional study was carried out on 75 normotensive subjects with type 2 DM (group 1), and 70 age-gender matched normotensive healthy volunteers (group 2). Treadmill exercise test, 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) were performed for each patients and healthy volunteers. There were 67 patients (mean age 52 ± 9 years and 42% male) in group 1 and 68 healthy volunteers (mean age 51 ± 7 years and 43% male) in group 2. Eight patients from group 1 and 2 subjects from group 2 were excluded because of high BP on ABPM. Groups were similar for systolic BP (SBP) and diastolic BP (DBP) on office measurements and on ABPM. Groups were similar for rest SBP, DBP, heart rate, exercise duration on exercise test. Peak SBP was significantly higher in group 1 than in group 2, but peak DBP was not (196.9 ± 18 vs 165.9 ± 18.6 mmHg, p<0.001; 88.1 ± 11.6 vs 86.2 ± 8.7 mmHg, p = 0.283, respectively). Hypertensive response to exercise (HRE) was more frequent in group 1 than in group 2 [39 (58%) vs 6 (9%), p<0.001]. Independent predictors of peak SBP were DM, office SBP and male gender, while independent predictors of HRE were DM, office SBP and age in multivariate analysis.",
"An attenuated systolic blood pressure recovery after exercise has been associated with the severity of atherosclerotic heart disease. For 6 years, we observed 12,379 patients who underwent symptom-limited exercise testing. We excluded patients receiving antihypertensive medication and patients with valvular disease, emphysema, end-stage renal disease, heart failure, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and atrial fibrillation. Blood pressure recovery ratio was defined as the ratio of systolic blood pressure at 3 minutes into recovery to systolic blood pressure at peak exercise; this has been shown to correlate with angiographic severity of coronary disease. The blood pressure recovery ratios ranged from 0.36 to 1.62, with values for increasing quartiles of 0.72 +/- 0.05, 0.82 +/- 0.02, 0.88 +/- 0.02, and 0.99 +/- 0.07. During follow-up, there were 430 deaths (3%). Five-year Kaplan Meier survival rates were 0.975, 0.974, 0.969, and 0.966 in quartiles 1 to 4, respectively. Compared with patients in the lowest quartile of blood pressure recovery ratio, patients in the highest quartile were at somewhat increased risk (hazard ratio, 1.71; 95% CI, 1.31-2.24; P<.001). However, after adjusting for age, sex, body mass index, resting heart rate and blood pressure, peak systolic blood pressure, heart rate recovery, exercise chronotropic response, cardiac history, and standard risk factors, this association was no longer present (adjusted hazard ratio, 1.05; 95% CI, 0.8-1.38; P =.74).",
"yes. The absence of coronary calcification by EBT reliably identified patients with a false-positive TMST result. The combination of EBT with TMST is a potentially useful diagnostic strategy to reduce the number of false-positive test results.",
"yes. These results suggest that an exaggerated SBP response to exercise is strongly associated with carotid atherosclerosis, independent of established risk factors in healthy men. It may be an important factor in evaluating hypertension related to target-organ damage.",
"yes. Placing the patient's arms on the arm-rest of the chair instead of at the reference right atrial level, BP measurement will result in spuriously elevated BP values. This may be of great importance for the diagnosis and the subsequent treatment decisions for patients with hypertension.",
"To determine prospectively the relationship between the renin-sodium profile and the renin response to captopril challenge in patients with essential hypertension. A standard captopril test was performed in 108 uncomplicated, untreated hypertensive subjects with normal renal function and urinary sodium excretion in the range 50-240 mmol/day. The subjects were selected from a working population with a low expected prevalence of renovascular disease. The captopril test was considered positive if the captopril-induced rise in plasma renin activity met all three criteria established by Müller et al. Patients with a positive test and those meeting only one or two of the three criteria were further investigated for renovascular hypertension by measuring renal venous renins and by digital subtraction intravenous angiography. Renin responses were analyzed according to baseline renin-sodium profile. Nine of 108 subjects had a false-positive captopril test result. Among the subjects with a low or normal renin-sodium profile, 1% (one of 82) had a false-positive result. In contrast, false-positive results were seen in 31% (eight of 26) of high-renin subjects. False-positive test results were not related to urinary sodium excretion or to excessive decrease in blood pressure. The magnitude of the renin response to captopril was strongly and directly related to the baseline plasma renin activity.",
"yes. Both rate and levels of rise in systolic blood pressure during a progressive exercise test were risk predictors for acute myocardial infarction. These measurements provide an incremental predictive value for an acute myocardial infarction to elevated resting systolic blood pressure, emphasizing the importance of regular blood pressure measurements during exercise testing.",
"yes. Increased ACR is associated with diminished exercise capacity in the early stages of essential hypertension independently from adverse cardiac adaptations, further elucidating the adverse prognostic role of albuminuria in this setting.",
"yes. These results suggest that a blunted oxygen pulse response to exercise among older persons with milder forms of hypertension may reflect impaired left ventricular stroke volume changes during exercise secondary to subtle abnormalities in both systolic and diastolic left ventricular functions.",
"The importance of exercise-induced exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response in endurance athletes is not known. To assess the hemodynamic parameters and metabolic profile in athletes with an exaggerated BP response to exercise. Forty-four endurance athletes underwent a maximal exercise test, a 24-h ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 24-h Holter assessment, and sampling of blood on two occasions: (a) during intense training and (b) following 3 weeks without training. During the training period, 11 athletes showed an exaggerated BP response to exercise, whereas seven of these 11 athletes also showed an exaggerated BP response during the resting period. Elevation in systolic BP was greater in athletes with an exaggerated BP response than athletes with a normal BP response to exercise (resting: 84 ± 22 vs. 60 ± 18 mmHg, P = 0.02; training: 100 ± 21 vs. 70 ± 18 mmHg, P = 0.004). During the training period, athletes with an exaggerated BP response to exercise showed higher systolic BP values on 24-h ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (136 ± 15 vs. 118 ± 8 mmHg, P = 0.02). During the resting period, athletes with an exaggerated BP response to exercise had lower apolipoprotein-A1 (1.3 ± 0.1 vs. 1.5 ± 0.2 g/l, P = 0.009), and higher SDNN (259 ± 47 vs. 209 ± 52 ms, P = 0.03) and pNN50 (0.4 ± 0.1 vs. 0.3 ± 0.1%, P = 0.05).",
"no. Our data reveal that cardiovascular overload or post-exercise hypotension did not occur in elderly women with controlled hypertension when they undertook an IHG session. Thus this type of resistance exercise, with mild to moderate intensity, with short time of contraction appears to be safe for this population.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the value of Tc-99m ethylenedicysteine exercise renography in patients with hypertension who were suspicious for renal artery stenosis and compare the results with captopril renography. Twenty-nine patients with hypertension who were highly suspect for having renal artery stenosis were included in the study. Basal captopril exercise renograms were performed within 1 week in all patients with Tc-99m EC. Exercise was performed with a bicycle ergometer as described in the literature. Interpretations of renograms were made according to the consensus report on angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor renography as high, low, or intermediate probability. The sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values were also obtained on both the kidneys and a patient basis. The results were compared with renal angiography in 19 patients. Twenty of 29 patients had concordant results with both captopril and exercise studies. All discordant tests were normal with captopril but positive with exercise renograms. Nineteen patients with 38 kidneys were included for statistical data analysis. Nine kidneys, which were either atrophic or abnormal during the basal study, were excluded from the kidney-based analysis. With contrast angiography, 8 patients had renal artery stenosis. When evaluated on a kidney basis, the sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values for captopril scans were 87%, 100%, 100%, and 95%, and for the exercise scans were 100%, 90%, 80%, and 100% respectively. When calculated on a patient basis with regard to the captopril scans, the sensitivity, specificity, and positive and negative predictive values were 87%, 81%, 77%, and 88%, and for exercise scans were 100%, 54%, 61%, and 100% respectively. There were 2 false-positive exercise scans that were found to be the result of dilated minor collecting systems and changes in kidney contours as a result of motion during exercise.",
"False-positive ARRs in normal women during the luteal phase only when DRC is used may explain the higher incidence of false-positive ARRs in hypertensive women than men and suggest the following: 1) plasma renin activity is preferable to DRC in determination of ARR and 2) new reference ranges for ARR that take into account gender and sex hormone levels are required.",
"Exercise tolerance is reduced in hypertension. Hypertension affects left ventricular (LV) diastolic filling by causing abnormal relaxation and decreasing compliance. This study was designed to determine whether worsening of LV diastolic dysfunction during exercise causes decreased exercise tolerance in hypertension. Left ventricular diastolic filling parameters were examined at mitral valve by Doppler echocardiography at rest and at peak exercise in hypertensive patients and were compared with those of age- and gender-matched normotensive individuals. Treadmill exercise stress test was performed according to the Bruce protocol and the exercise time was recorded. Exercise time was significantly shorter in the hypertensive group than that in the normotensive group (320 +/- 29 vs. 446 +/- 38 s, p 0.03). The hypertensive group demonstrated abnormal relaxation pattern of diastolic mitral inflow at rest, which became pseudonormal at peak exercise (E/A velocity ratio, rest 0.86 +/- 0.06 vs. exercise 1.19 +/- 0.09, p < 0.001). The diastolic mitral inflow pattern remained normal at peak exercise in the normotensive group. The deceleration time and the pressure half time of early mitral inflow at peak exercise were significantly shorter in the hypertensive group than those in the normotensive group (deceleration time, 182 +/- 20 vs. 238 +/- 22 ms, p 0.02: pressure half time, 54 +/- 5 vs. 70 +/- 12 ms, p 0.01).",
"yes. Diastolic blood pressure during exercise was higher in hypertension-prone subjects as compared to controls, but only in insulin-resistant subjects. Since elevated blood pressure during physical exertion is a predictor of future hypertension, these findings may suggest that insulin resistance is involved in the pathogenesis of essential hypertension.",
"A hypertensive response to exercise (HRE) is associated with false-positive stress echocardiograms and myocardial perfusion single photon emission computed tomography (myocardial perfusion imaging [MPI]) defects even in the absence of coronary artery disease (CAD). Transient ischemic dilation (TID) of the left ventricle on stress MPI is a marker of severe CAD and future cardiac events. This study evaluated the association between an HRE and TID. Blinded quantitative TID assessment was performed in 125 patients who had an HRE and a summed stress score (SSS) of less than 4, as well as 125 control patients with an SSS of less than 4 and without an HRE matched for age, gender, and resting systolic blood pressure. Cardiac comorbidities, pretest Framingham risk, and exercise results were recorded. TID was defined as a stress-to-rest volume ratio of 1.22 or greater. An HRE was associated with a high prevalence of TID and significantly more TID than no HRE (25.6% vs 11.2%; odds ratio, 3.00 [95% confidence interval, 1.41-6.38]). TID was more prevalent even in subgroups with a low pretest probability CAD, including those without diabetes mellitus or angina. On conditional logistic regression analysis, an HRE was found to be independently associated with TID after consideration of other clinical and exercise MPI variables (odds ratio, 2.72 [95% confidence interval, 1.01-7.31]).",
"The purpose of this study was to determine the antihypertensive agent(s) more likely to mitigate an exaggerated rise in exercise blood pressure (BP) in hypertensive patients. An exaggerated rise in exercise BP is associated with increased cardiovascular risk. There are no recommendations for treating such response. Participants were hypertensive men (n = 2,318; age 60 +/- 10 years), undergoing a routine exercise test at the Veterans Affairs Medical Center, Washington, DC. Antihypertensive therapy included angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (n = 437), calcium-channel blockers (n = 223), diuretics (n = 226), and combinations (n = 1,442), beta-blockers alone (n = 201) or in combination with other antihypertensive agents (n = 467), and none (n = 208). Exercise BP, heart rate (HR) and rate-pressure product (RPP) at maximal and submaximal workloads were assessed. After adjusting for covariates, patients treated with beta-blockers or beta-blocker-based therapy had significantly lower BP, HR, and RPP at 5 and 7 metabolic equivalents (METs) and peak exercise than those treated with any other antihypertensive agent or combination (p < 0.05). The likelihood of achieving an exercise systolic BP of >/=210 mm Hg was 68% lower (odds ratio = 0.32, 96% confidence interval 0.2 to 0.53) in the beta-blocker-based therapy versus other medications. African Americans exhibited higher BP and HR than Caucasians at all exercise workloads regardless of antihypertensive therapy and had over a 90% higher likelihood for an abnormal exercise BP response. This risk was attenuated by 35% with a beta-blocker-based therapy.",
"Exercise electrocardiographic hump sign is associated with uncontrolled arterial hypertension (AH), left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction, and false-positive exercise testing (ET). The aim of this prospective study was to evaluate the antihypertensive treatment effect on hump and on pseudoischemic ST-segment depression and potential correlations to LV diastolic function and mass changes. The study comprised 59 non-coronary artery disease patients (45.9 years; 67.8% men) with never-treated arterial hypertension (143.2/95.1 mm Hg). Treadmill ET and echocardiography were performed at baseline and 6 months after pharmaceutical blood pressure normalization. Prevalence of hump and ST depression, transmitral (E/A) and tissue Doppler imaging (E'/A') early/late velocities ratios, E/E' ratio, and LV mass index (LVMI) were all defined. Prevalence of hump was reduced from 69.5% to 23.7% and false-positive ETs from 35.6% to 18.6% (P < .05). Significant improvement (P < .05) was found in E'/A' ratio (0.68 vs 0.84), E/E' ratio (9.3 vs 7.9), and LVMI (109.2 vs 99.8 g/m(2)). Changes in hump were related to ST-depression changes (r = 0.632, P < .001) and to LV diastolic indices changes; patients with hump only at first ET (54.2%) improved E/A and E'/A' ratios, whereas patients with hump only at second ET (8.5%) worsened diastolic indices with similar changes in blood pressure and LVMI.",
"yes. The results are considered relevant, because a direct relationship appears probable between hypertension and the disturbance investigated. Reproducible results suggest that the exercise-mediated disturbance is fixed to the kidneys, that it can be reactivated repeatedly and that it may play a role in maintaining hypertension.",
"It has been previously postulated that Thallium-201 (Tl201) scintigraphy is characterized by relatively low specificity in hypertensive patients. This study was undertaken to assess any possible influence of false-positive scintigraphic results on the prognosis of hypertensive patients. The study group comprised 179 consecutive hypertensive patients (128 men and 51 women), aged 50+/-7 years, who underwent exercise Tl(201) scintigraphy and coronary angiography (patients with normal scintigraphic results underwent coronary angiography due to persistent angina-like symptoms). All patients with normal coronary arteries underwent a second Tl201 scintigraphy within 36+/-6 months. Patients with reversible ischemia in the second scintigraphy underwent also a second coronary angiography. Coronary artery disease (CAD) was detected in 78 (44%) patients, while the rest 101 (56%) patients had normal coronary arteries. Abnormal scintigraphic results were revealed in 66 (85%) patients with CAD and in 38 (38%) patients without CAD. Twenty-two (58%) of the 38 hypertensive patients with false-positive scintigraphic results presented reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. Coronary artery disease was detected in 7 (32%) of these patients during the follow-up period.",
"no. Patients who have exaggerated blood pressure responses to exercise are not more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings than those with normal blood pressure responses. The majority of patients who have echocardiographic abnormalities and subsequently undergo coronary angiography have substantial (≥50% stenosis) coronary artery disease.",
"In patients with coronary artery disease an abnormal increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise stress testing correlated well with left ventricular systolic function at rest but not with the number of obstructed coronary arteries. The abnormal response of diastolic blood pressure probably reflects deterioration of myocardial function.",
"Some experts have suggested that patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses during exercise echocardiography are more likely to have abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings and less likely to have angiographically significant coronary artery disease than patients with normal blood pressure responses. The aim of this study was to evaluate the impact of exercise blood pressure on exercise echocardiographic findings and subsequent angiographic results in men and women. In this retrospective study, clinical, exercise, and echocardiographic characteristics of patients who underwent treadmill exercise echocardiography over a 2-year period were examined, and the angiographic findings of the subgroup of patients who subsequently underwent coronary angiography within 30 days were analyzed. Among the 7,015 patients (mean age, 61 ± 13 years), 3,992 were men (57%). The likelihood of patients' having abnormal exercise echocardiographic results was similar at all levels of exercise blood pressure, except in men who had low peak systolic blood pressures (<120 mm Hg); they had the highest rate of abnormal exercise echocardiographic findings. Of the 3,225 patients without histories of hypertension or coronary artery disease, 3,098 had peak systolic blood pressures of 120 to 219 mm Hg (a \"normal\" blood pressure response), and 59 had peak systolic blood pressures ≥ 220 mm Hg (an exaggerated blood pressure response). These patients with exaggerated blood pressure responses were just as likely to have normal exercise echocardiographic results as those who had normal blood pressure responses (85% vs 83%, P > .99). A subgroup of 508 patients underwent coronary angiography. The rate of false-positive findings was similar for patients who had exaggerated blood pressure responses and those who had normal blood pressure responses. The false-positive rate tended to be lower in patients who had low blood pressure responses.",
"yes. Normotensive individuals with an exaggerated BP response to exercise exhibit impairment in longitudinal myocardial function. Even without apparent hypertension, an exaggerated BP response could cause repeated increases in afterload and result in subclinical myocardial dysfunction.",
"Masked hypertension (MH) independently predicts mortality but cannot be diagnosed from clinic blood pressure (BP) taken under resting conditions. We sought to determine if MH could be identified from BP taken during a single bout of low-intensity exercise. BP was recorded at rest and during brief low-level cycling exercise (60-70% of age-predicted maximal heart rate) in 75 untreated subjects with a hypertensive response to exercise (aged 54 ± 9 years). All subjects underwent 24-h ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) and MH was defined as clinic BP < 140/90 mmHg and ABPM BP ≥ 130/80 mmHg. There were 42 (56%) patients with MH, and at rest systolic (SBP) was higher in subjects with MH compared with those without MH (127 ± 9 vs 120 ± 9 mmHg; p < 0.05). During exercise, MH subjects had significantly higher SBP (188 ± 22 vs 168 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05), with a greater change from baseline (61 ± 21 vs 48 ± 15 mmHg; p < 0.05). Low-level exercise SBP was independently associated with MH, and if ≥ 175 mmHg, identified MH with 74% sensitivity and 67% specificity (p < 0.001).",
"yes. Patients with treated hypertension with normal resting echocardiography can have exercise limitation associated with widespread systolic and diastolic left ventricular dysfunction on exercise. Normal resting echocardiography does not preclude the presence of significant functional abnormalities on exercise that can contribute to symptoms.",
"yes. Higher SBP during low-intensity exercise was associated with increased LVM index in normotensive subjects. Exaggerated exercise BP response with normal clinic BP may indicate masked hypertension and possibly hidden target organ damage.",
"Treadmill exercise testing has low specificity for the detection of significant epicardial coronary artery disease (CAD). A possible mechanism to explain some of the false positives is transient subendocardial ischemia induced by intraventricular gradients (IVG) during stress. The development of IVG during dobutamine stress echocardiography (DSE) occurs in 8-38% of non-selected populations. To determine: 1. the prevalence of IVG in a selected population of false positives on treadmill stress testing; 2. whether this prevalence is different from that described for non-selected populations; 3. whether patient characteristics are related to the presence of IVG; 4. the relation between the presence of IVG and the occurrence of ECG abnormalities, symptoms and blood pressure. We evaluated 50 consecutive patients with false positive treadmill stress tests (normal CT coronary angiography, nuclear perfusion tests or angiography) with DSE (2D and Doppler evaluation). All DSE exams were negative for ischemia. Stress-induced IVG was seen in 34 of the 50 patients (68%) and 16 patients (32%) did not develop IVG (p<0.05). The prevalence of IVG in our selected population (68%) was significantly higher than that described for non-selected populations (8-38%) (p<0.001). Most patient characteristics (gender, age, risk factors for CAD, treatment with beta-blockers/calcium antagonists, significant valvular disease/left ventricular hypertrophy [LVH], symptoms, and blood pressure during stress) were not statistically associated with the prevalence of IVG (p>0.05). However, the presence of IVG was associated with the occurrence of ischemic ST depression during dobutamine stress echo (p<0.05).",
"To describe two cases of Takotsubo like myocardial contractile pattern during exercise stress test secondary to hypertensive response. Treadmill exercise testing is known to cause sympathetic stimulation, leading to increased levels of catecholamine, resulting in alteration in vascular tone. Hypertensive response during exercise testing can cause abnormal consequences, resulting in false positive results.CASES: We present the cases of two patients experiencing apical and basal akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography, in whom normal wall motion response was observed on subsequent pharmacologic stress testing. The first patient developed transient left ventricular (LV) apical akinesis during exercise stress echocardiography. Due to high suspicion that this abnormality might be secondary to hypertensive response, pharmacologic stress testing was performed after three days, which was completely normal and showed no such wall motion abnormality. Qualitative assessment of myocardial perfusion using contrast was also performed, which showed good myocardial blood flow, indicating low probability for significant obstructive coronary artery disease. The second patient developed LV basal akinesis as a result of hypertensive response during exercise testing. Coronary angiogram was not performed in either patient due to low suspicion for coronary artery disease, and subsequently negative stress studies. Transient stress induced cardiomyopathy can develop secondary to hypertensive response during exercise stress testing.",
"yes. This study demonstrates that reduced exercise tolerance in hypertension is associated with worsening of diastolic dysfunction during exercise consistent with an increase in left atrial pressure.",
"no. A hypertensive BP response to exercise is not associated with increased rates of ischemic ECG changes, higher-risk Duke treadmill scores, greater degrees of abnormal MPI or worse clinical outcome.",
"no. Regression of left ventricular mass caused by 6-month antihypertensive therapy does not improve exercise performance of patients with essential hypertension.",
"Systemic hypertension and an exaggerated blood pressure (BP) response with exercise have been associated with 'false-positive' findings on stress electrocardiography and echocardiography; however, limited data is available for stress myocardial perfusion imaging (MPI). The purpose of this study was to investigate whether an exaggerated elevation in BP with exercise is associated with an increased prevalence of abnormal MPI. BP responses to exercise were assessed in a cohort of 7,205 patients who underwent stress testing with technetium 99m-SPECT MPI (7/1999-6/2005) for the evaluation of chest pain or dyspnea. A hypertensive response, defined as a peak systolic BP > or = 220 mmHg, occurred in 355 (4.9%) and was not associated with higher rates of ischemic ECG changes (16.1 versus 16.6%; P = .7), differences in Duke treadmill scores (4.7 +/- 4 versus 5.1 +/- 5; P = .3) or an increased prevalence of abnormal perfusion images (30.1% versus 32.9%; P = .3) to those without a hypertensive exercise response. Patients with a hypertensive response and either intermediate or high-risk MPI (on the basis of summed-difference-scores) referred for coronary angiography, had a high prevalence of coronary artery disease which was similar to those without a hypertensive response (88% versus 83%; P = .5). In an analysis of a community-based patient subset, a hypertensive response was not associated with a difference in either all-cause mortality or subsequent myocardial infarction, coronary revascularization or cardiac death (8% versus 9%; P = .7).",
"yes. Exercise testing detects hypertension and arch gradients in patients with a good coarctation repair as assessed at rest. The hypertension and arch \"obstruction\" appear to be related to discrepancies in the growth of the transverse aortic arch proximal to the repair site, rather than a \"recoarctation\" of the aorta.",
"yes. These results suggest that impaired endothelial vasodilator function may be a mechanism contributing to exercise hypertension and may also be one link between exaggerated exercise BP and worsening hypertension.",
"To determine if a history of hypertension or an exaggerated rise in exercise systolic BP is associated with a false-positive exercise ECG. Retrospective analysis of the associations between exercise-induced ST-segment depression and a history of hypertension, exercise systolic BP, and several other clinical and exercise test variables. Among 20,097 patients referred for exercise tomographic thallium imaging in a nuclear cardiology laboratory at a tertiary care center, 1,873 patients met inclusion criteria for this study, which included no history of myocardial infarction or coronary artery revascularization, a normal resting ECG, and normal exercise thallium images. False-positive ST-segment depression occurred in 20% of the population. A history of hypertension was actually associated with a lower likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 0.70; 95% confidence interval [CI], 0.55 to 0.89; p = 0. 004). A higher peak exercise systolic BP was associated with a higher likelihood of ST-segment depression (odds ratio, 1.08 for each 10-mm Hg increase in systolic BP; 95% CI, 1.03 to 1.14; p<0. 001). However, the association between peak exercise systolic BP and ST-segment depression was so weak that this measurement could not be predictive in the individual patient (R(2) = 0.2%). For every 20-mm Hg increase in peak exercise systolic BP, the percentage of patients with ST-segment depression increased by only 3%.",
"yes. Hypertensive patients with normal coronary arteries and false-positive scintigraphic results usually present with reversible ischemia of the infero-posterior wall of the left ventricle. This group of patients seems to be at increased risk of developing CAD in a long-term follow-up period.",
"Exercise echocardiography is a reliable routine test in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. However, in ∼15% of all patients, stress echocardiography leads to false-positive stress echocardiography results. We aimed to investigate the impact of hypertension on stress echocardiographic results. We performed a retrospective study of patients with suspected or known stable coronary artery disease who underwent a bicycle exercise stress echocardiography. Patients with false-positive stress results were compared with those with appropriate results. 126 patients with suspected or known coronary artery disease were included in this retrospective study. 23 patients showed false-positive stress echocardiography results. Beside comparable age, gender distribution and coronary artery status, hypertension was more prevalent in patients with false-positive stress results (95.7% vs. 67.0%, p = 0.0410). Exercise peak load revealed a borderline-significance with lower loads in patients with false-positive results (100.0 (IQR 75.0/137.5) vs. 125.0 (100.0/150.0) W, p = 0.0601). Patients with false-positive stress results showed higher systolic (2.05 ± 0.69 vs. 1.67 ± 0.39 mmHg/W, p = 0.0193) and diastolic (1.03 ± 0.38 vs. 0.80 ± 0.28 mmHg/W, p = 0.0165) peak blood pressure (BP) per wattage. In a multivariate logistic regression test, hypertension (OR 17.6 [CI 95% 1.9-162.2], p = 0.0115), and systolic (OR 4.12 [1.56-10.89], p = 0.00430) and diastolic (OR 13.74 [2.46-76.83], p = 0.00285) peak BP per wattage, were associated with false-positive exercise results. ROC analysis for systolic and diastolic peak BP levels per wattage showed optimal cut-off values of 1.935mmHg/W and 0.823mmHg/W, indicating false-positive exercise echocardiographic results with AUCs of 0.660 and 0.664, respectively.",
"In patients with normal resting ECGs, we conclude the following: (1) a history of hypertension is not a cause of a false-positive exercise test, and (2) higher exercise systolic BP is a significant but weak predictor of ST-segment depression.",
"yes. Hypertension is a risk factor for false-positive stress exercise echocardiographic results in patients with known or suspected coronary artery disease. Presence of hypertension was associated with 17.6-fold elevated risk of false-positive results."
] | 296 |
Pancreatitis during therapy of acute myeloid leukemia: cytarabine related? | [
"Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge.",
"Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified."
] | [
"yes. In obese mice, cannabinoid receptor CB-1 blockade with rimonabant attenuates the severity of acute pancreatitis by an adiponectin-mediated mechanism.",
"yes. The soluble inflammatory cell mediator TNFα directly induces premature protease activation and necrosis in pancreatic acinar cells. This activation depends on calcium and cathepsin-B activity. The findings from the present work further suggest that targeting TNFα, for which pharmaceutical agents are readily available, could be an effective treatment strategy that directly addresses the cellular causes of pancreatitis.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the efficacy and safety of irinotecan monotherapy in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer (APC). Patients with APC refractory to gemcitabine and S-1 were included. Irinotecan (100 mg/m(2)) was administered on days 1, 8, and 15 every 4 weeks until disease progression or unacceptable toxicity was observed. The relationship between uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase 1 family polypeptide A1 gene (UGT1A1) polymorphisms and clinical outcomes was evaluated. Between January 2007 and December 2011, 231 cycles were delivered in 56 patients. Irinotecan was administered as second-line chemotherapy in 35.7% of patients and as third-line chemotherapy or later in 64.3%. A partial response was achieved in two (3.6%) and stable disease in 23 patients (41.0%), giving a disease control rate of 44.6%. The median time to progression (TTP) and overall survival (OS) were 2.9 (95% confidence interval [CI] 1.8-3.5) months and 5.3 (95% CI 4.5-6.8) months, respectively. Median survival from the first-line chemotherapy was 19.5 (95% CI 15.3-23.8) months. Major grade 3/4 adverse events included neutropenia (28.6%), anemia (12.5%), and anorexia (10.7%). Patients with *6 and/or *28 allele(s) (n = 15) were associated with grade 3/4 neutropenia and anorexia but showed longer TTP (5.3 vs. 1.8 months; p = 0.05), and OS (8.0 vs. 4.8 months; p = 0.09) than those without *6 and/or *28 (n = 29).",
"yes. In the early phase of acute pancreatitis, drotrecogin alfa treatment did not result in a significant improvement in oxidative and inflammatory parameters or renal functions.",
"Clinical and experimental observations have associated acute and chronic hypercalcemia with pancreatitis. The aim of this study was to determine whether acute hypercalcemia can induce acute pancreatitis and, if so, whether the pathogenesis involves premature protease activation. Rats given bolus infusions of CaCl2 (200 mg/kg; n = 76) were compared with saline-treated controls (n = 40). Serum [Ca2+], serum amylase activity, trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) concentration in serum and pancreatic tissue, pancreatic wet/dry weight ratio, and histology were assessed for 24 hours. For dose-response analysis, CaCl2 was injected at a dose of 50-200 mg/kg, and the aforementioned indices were assayed for 1 hour (n = 5 each). There were no significant changes in the controls. Calcium infusion increased serum [Ca2+] 3-fold after 5 minutes (P < 0.001). Within 1 hour, serum amylase (2.5-fold) and tissue TAP (3-fold) levels increased along with macroscopic and microscopic edema formation and leukocytic infiltration. The extent of the changes at 1 hour correlated with the calcium dose. Amylase and tissue TAP concentrations remained elevated until 24 hours when serum TAP concentration had increased (P < 0.001) and focal acinar necrosis became evident.",
"Acute pancreatitis following endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography presents a unique opportunity for prophylaxis and early modification of the disease process because the initial triggering event is temporally well defined and takes place in the hospital. We report a prospective, single-center, randomized, double-blind controlled trial to determine if rectal diclofenac reduces the incidence of pancreatitis following cholangiopancreatography. Entry to the trial was restricted to patients who underwent endoscopic retrograde pancreatography or had manometrically verified sphincter of Oddi hypertension. Immediately after endoscopy, patients were given a suppository containing either 100 mg diclofenac or placebo. Estimation of serum amylase levels and clinical evaluation were performed in all patients. A total of 220 patients entered the trial, and 110 received rectal diclofenac. Twenty-four patients developed pancreatitis (11%), of whom 7 received rectal diclofenac and 17 received placebo (P < 0.05).",
"Adenosine has been shown to modulate various pathophysiologic conditions through receptor-mediated mechanisms. However, the role of adenosine in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis has not been described. We examined the effect of adenosine-receptor stimulation or inhibition on the pathologic changes of the pancreas. Rats received intraperitoneal injections of selective agonists of A1, A2a, and A3 adenosine receptors: 2-chloro-N(6)-cyclopentyladenosine (CCPA), CGS-21680 (CGS), or 1-deoxy-1-[6-[[(3-iodophenyl)methyl]amino]-9H-purin-9-yl]-N-methyl-be ta-D-ribofuranuronamide (IB-MECA), respectively. Serum amylase activity and pathologic changes of the pancreas were evaluated. The effects of a specific A1-receptor antagonist (FK-838) on the pathologic findings of cerulein- and taurocholate-induced pancreatitis were also examined. Administration of a selective A1 agonist induced hyperamylasemia and morphologic changes in the pancreas characterized by interstitial edema and leukocyte infiltration; neither A2a nor A3 agonist produced such changes. Treatment with an A1-receptor antagonist significantly attenuated the outcome induced by A1 agonist stimulation. In addition, the A1-receptor antagonist significantly ameliorated pancreatic edema in both pancreatitis models, although it did not improve the acinar cell damage of the pancreas or the increase of serum amylase.",
"The SPINK1 variant p.N34S is overrepresented in patients with acute pancreatitis, but more studies distinguishing between first-time and recurrent acute pancreatitis have to be done to determine whether this is only true for patients with recurrent acute pancreatitis.",
"Acute necrotizing pancreatitis (ANP) is characterized by decreased capillary pancreatic blood flow. Thus, antibiotics may not reach pancreatic necrosis in therapeutic concentrations and consequently fail to prevent bacterial infection of the pancreas which today is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in ANP. To evaluate whether improvement of impaired pancreatic microcirculation by isovolemic hemodilution with dextran leads to an increase in the pancreatic tissue concentration of imipenem (IMI), an antibiotic widely used in clinical ANP. After induction of ANP rats were randomized for either standard fluid therapy with Ringer's lactate (RL) or isovolemic hemodilution with dextran 70,000 (IHD/DEX). Thereafter the animals received an intravenous injection of IMI, and 15 min later they were sacrificed for determination of IMI in serum and tissue. Capillary pancreatic blood flow (CPBF) at the time of antibiotic therapy was assessed by intravital microscopy in an additional set of animals. There was no significant difference in the pancreatic tissue concentration of IMI in animals pretreated with either RL (11.7 +/- 0.6 micrograms/g) or IHD/DEX (11.4 +/- 1.4 micrograms/g), although CPBF was significantly increased in the latter group (1.3 +/- 0.05 vs. 0.8 +/- 0.04 nl/min/capillary).",
"Previous studies demonstrated that intravenous contrast medium (CM), as used in contrast enhanced computed tomography, aggravates the impairment of pancreatic microcirculation (PM) characteristic of severe pancreatitis and increases necrosis and mortality in necrotizing pancreatitis (NP) in rats. This study evaluates the use of isovolemic hemodilution, which can enhance the microcirculation in severe pancreatitis, for preventing CM-induced injury. NP was induced in 30 dextran-tolerant Wistar rats by intraductal glycodeoxycholic acid and intravenous cerulein for 6 hours. PM was quantified by intravital microscopy using fluorescein isothiocyanate labeled erythrocytes. Based on previous results, areas with low blood flow (< 1.6 nL/min/cap) were identified and baseline recordings of capillary blood flow taken. A reduction of hematocrit to 75% of baseline was achieved by replacement of 5 mL/kg of blood with 25 mL/kg Ringer's lactate (RL) or by exchange of 8 mL/kg of blood for the same amount of dextran 70.6%. Thereafter, the nonionic CM iopamidol (Solutrast, Byk Gulden, Konstanz, Germany) was injected during 1 minute and PM measurements repeated after 30 and 60 minutes. Despite hemodilution with RL, pancreatic capillary perfusion was significantly decreased to 87% of baseline (0.83 +/- 0.04 mL/min/cap; n = 216) 60 minutes after CM infusion (P < 0.05). In contrast, capillary blood flow was significantly increased to 161% (1.56 +/- 0.05 nL/min/cap; n = 278) in the group treated with dextran. Moreover, the percentage of capillaries developing complete stasis was significantly lower in the dextran group (2.3 +/- 1.2%) compared to animals diluted with RL (22.3 +/- 4.8%) (P < 0.002).",
"Severe acute pancreatitis (AP) is still a significant clinical problem which is associated with a highly mortality. The aim of this study was the evaluation of prognostic value of CT regional perfusion measurement performed on the first day of onset of symptoms of AP, in assessing the risk of developing severe form of acute pancreatitis. 79 patients with clinical symptoms and biochemical criteria indicative of acute pancreatitis (acute upper abdominal pain, elevated levels of serum amylase and lipase) underwent perfusion CT within 24 hours after onset of symptoms. The follow-up examinations were performed after 4-6 days to detect progression of the disease. Perfusion parameters were compared in 41 people who developed severe form of AP (pancreatic and/or peripancreatic tissue necrosis) with parameters in 38 consecutive patients in whom course of AP was mild. Blood flow, blood volume, mean transit time and permeability surface area product were calculated in the three anatomic pancreatic subdivisions (head, body and tail). At the same time the patient's clinical status was assessed by APACHE II score and laboratory parameters such as CRP, serum lipase and amylase, AST, ALT, GGT, ALP and bilirubin were compared. Statistical differences in the perfusion parameters between the group of patients with mild and severe AP were shown. Blood flow, blood volume and mean transit time were significantly lower and permeability surface area product was significantly higher in patients who develop severe acute pancreatitis and presence of pancreatic and/or peripancreatic necrosis due to pancreatic ischemia. There were no statistically significant differences between the two groups in terms of evaluated on admission severity of pancreatitis assessed using APACHE II score and laboratory tests.",
"Adenosine shows protective effects against cellular damage and dysfunction under several adverse conditions such as inflammation and ischemia. In the current study, we examined the effects of 3-[1-(6,7-diethoxy-2-morpholinoquinazolin-4-yl)piperidin-4-yl]-1,6-dimethyl-2,4(1,3 )-quinazolinedione hydrochloride (KF24345), an adenosine uptake inhibitor, on cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice to investigate whether inhibition of adenosine uptake could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in mice with six intraperitoneal injections of cerulein (50 microg/kg each) at hourly intervals. The cerulein injection increased activities of serum amylase and lipase and caused pathologic changes such as interstitial edema, polymorphonuclear cell infiltration, and acinar cell necrosis in the pancreas. KF24345 (10 mg/kg p.o.) ameliorated all these changes observed in mice with acute pancreatitis, and the suppressing effect of KF24345 on the elevation in serum amylase activity was abolished by the treatment with 8-(p-sulfophenyl)theophylline, an adenosine receptor antagonist. In addition, 2-(aminocarbonyl)- -(4-amino-2,6-dichlorophenyl)-4-[5,5-bis-(4-fluorophenyl)pentyl]-1-piperazineacetamide (R75231) and dipyridamole, other adenosine uptake inhibitors, also decreased the elevated serum amylase activity.",
"yes. These are the first demonstrations that the adenosine uptake inhibitors ameliorate cerulein-induced acute pancreatitis in mice, and these data suggest that adenosine uptake inhibition could ameliorate the severity of acute pancreatitis in vivo.",
"An elevated serum creatinine concentration at any time during the first 48 h of admission is not a marker for pancreatic necrosis in a first attack of acute pancreatitis. If serum creatinine is normal, necrotizing pancreatitis is unlikely, and contrast-enhanced CT need not be performed unless complications occur and/or the patient's condition deteriorates.",
"We examined the effects of a weak base, chloroquine, on the trypsinogen processing in cerulein-induced pancreatitis. Immunofluorescence studies were performed using newly generated affinity-purified antibodies to the trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP). The present study showed that chloroquine pretreatment blocked intracellular TAP generation in cerulein-induced pancreatitis.",
"Investigate the therapeutic effect of regional arterial infusion (RAI) with Aspirin-Triggered Lipoxin A4 (ATL) in experimental severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) in rats. SAP was induced by injection of 5% sodium taurocholate into the pancreatic duct. Rats with SAP were treated with ATL (the ATL group) or physiological saline (the SAP group) infused via the left gastric artery 30 min after injection of sodium taurocholate. The sham group was subjected to the same surgical procedure, though without induction of SAP. Serum levels of amylase, phospholipase A2 (PLA2), interleukin-1β (IL-1β), IL-6 and tumor necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) were measured at 12 and 24 h after induction of SAP. Ascitic fluid, the pancreatic index (wet weight ratio) and myeloperoxidase (MPO) levels in the pancreas were determined and histopathological findings were evaluated. The expression of intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (ICAM-1), platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule-1 (PECAM-1), NF-κB p65, and heme oxygenase-1 (HO-1) in the pancreas were estimated by immunofluorescence and western blot, respectively. ATL rats had lower serum levels of TNF-α, IL-1β, and IL-6 (P<0.01), PLA2 (P<0.05), and amylase levels (P<0.05) studied as compared with the SAP group. The pancreatic index in the ATL group decreased only at 24 h as compared with the SAP group (P<0.05). The histopathological findings and MPO levels in the pancreas significantly decreased in the ATL group as compared to the SAP group (P<0.05 and P<0.01, respectively). Immunofluorescence and western blot showed that ATL attenuated the expression of NF-κB p65, ICAM-1 and PECAM-1 in the pancreas, and increased the expression of HO-1 in SAP animals.",
"We have previously shown that distal pancreatic duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice is associated with substantial mortality. We examined the cause of death in duct ligation-induced acute pancreatitis in mice by serial examination of multiple parameters in three experimental groups: distal pancreatic duct ligation (PD), bile duct ligation alone (BD), and sham operation (S). BD and S had no mortality, while PD had 94% mortality with most deaths between days 2 and 4. Characteristics of mice with acute pancreatitis included (ANOVA; p < 0.05): extracellular regulated kinase activation in the pancreas and lung; pancreatic neutrophil infiltration and acinar cell necrosis maximal on day 2; increased plasma cytokine and aspartate aminotransferase levels and bronchoalveolar lavage fluid neutrophil count and cytokine levels, peaked on day 3; hypotension and bradycardia were worst on day 4; pulmonary neutrophil infiltration and plasma creatinine level peaked on day 4. Liver injury evidenced by raised aspartate serum transaminase after hepatic obstruction was exacerbated by PD.",
"To determine the impact of high-dose cytarabine (ARA-C) (HDAC) dose modification, based on renal function, on the incidence of neurotoxicity (NT). We retrospectively analyzed the records of 256 patients treated with HDAC (> or = 2.0 g/m2 per dose) for acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) at the University of California, San Francisco (UCSF). From 1985 to 1994, a total of 358 cycles of HDAC were administered, using either a twice-daily schedule (n = 208) or a once-daily regimen (n = 48). In 1989, a dose-modification algorithm was initiated at our institution, which reduced ARA-C doses in the setting of renal insufficiency (RI). For patients with a serum creatinine (Cr) level of 1.5 to 1.9 mg/dL during treatment, or an increase in Cr during treatment (deltaCr) of 0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL, ARA-C was decreased to 1 g/m2 per dose. For patients with a Cr > or = 2.0 mg/dL or a deltaCr greater 1.2 mg/dL, the dose was reduced to 0.1 g/m2/d. Overall, the incidence of NT was 16% (34 of 208) for patients treated with twice-daily HDAC and 0% (none of 48) for patients treated with daily HDAC (P = .003). NT occurred more often in patients treated on a twice-daily schedule with 3 g/m2 per dose compared with 2 g/m2 per dose (25% v 8%; P = .009). NT occurred in 55% of the twice-daily-treated patients with RI, compared with 7% of those with normal renal function (P = .00001). In patients with RI, NT occurred in none of 11 dose-modified cycles versus five of 11 (45%) total unmodified cycles (P = .01). None of 14 patients treated with once-daily HDAC given during RI developed NT, compared to 55% of patients (23 of 42) receiving twice-daily HDAC during RI (P = .009). By univariate analysis, NT was not associated with patient age or serum alkaline phosphatase, but NT was significantly increased in patients treated with twice-daily HDAC when the serum bilirubin was > or = 2.0 mg/dL compared with twice-daily HDAC given when the total bilirubin was less than 2.0 mg/dL (33% v 14%; P = .017). Multivariate analysis confirmed that RI was the most significant risk factor associated with the development of NT.",
"During the time of lowest white blood cell count (nadir) of allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (allo-HSCT), cancer patients suffer from tremendous symptom burden related to therapy that requires intensive patient care. However, the mechanism underlying the development of multiple symptoms has not been established. To explore the role of inflammatory cytokines in the development of treatment-related symptoms, we studied dynamic changes in symptoms and in serum concentrations of inflammatory cytokines (interleukin [IL]-6, IL-8, soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor 1 [sTNF-R1], IL-1 receptor antagonist, and IL-12p40p70) from pretherapy throughout the first 30 days of allo-HSCT in 30 patients with acute myelogenous leukemia or myelodysplastic syndrome. We measured multiple symptoms repeatedly using the M. D. Anderson Symptom Inventory. Mixed-effects modeling was used to analyze longitudinal data. In response to conditioning and stem-cell infusion, serum levels of IL-6 and the severity of multiple symptoms increased rapidly and peaked at nadir. From baseline to nadir (approximately Day 8 post-transplantation), increase in IL-6 was significantly associated with worsening of the most severe symptoms (fatigue, poor appetite, pain, drowsiness, dry mouth, and disturbed sleep; P< .01). During the first 30 days after transplantation, increases in IL-6 (P< .001) and sTNF-R1 (P< .05) significantly predicted the increasing severity of these symptoms.",
"Five percent of alcoholics develop an acute pancreatitis (AP). The mechanism leading to pancreatic injury is not yet understood. Microcirculatory disorders seem to play a pivotal role. The objective of this study was to compare alcoholic pancreatic injury in response to intravenous and intragastric routes of alcohol administration. Alcohol was applied in rats intravenously (IV) or gastric via a surgical implanted feeding tube (IG). Serum alcohol concentration was maintained between 1.5‰ and 2.5‰. Four subgroups (n = 6/group) were examined in the IV/IG arm and compared with healthy controls. Pancreatic microcirculation, enzyme levels, and morphological damage were assessed after 3, 6, 12, and 24 hours. Microcirculatory analysis showed significantly disturbed pancreatic perfusion and increased adherent leukocytes in IV and IG animals. In IV and IG groups, serum amylase was increased without morphological signs of AP compared with healthy controls.",
"Activated neutrophils are presumed to injure pulmonary endothelium by releasing oxygen radicals, proteases, and proinflammatory cytokines. Standard counting methods do not distinguish between leukocytosis, neutrophil sequestration, and activation. We used leukocyte uptake of the glucose analog [18F]fluorodeoxyglucose (18FDG), which indicates postmigrational neutrophil activity, to identify and quantify the relationship between acute respiratory distress syndrome and neutrophil activation in experimental pancreatitis in rats. Prospective, experimental study. Research laboratory at a university hospital. Mild and severe pancreatitis models in the rat. INTERVENTIONS Pulmonary (with muscle as control) leukocyte accumulation was assessed by uptake of technetium-99m-labeled chemotactic peptide (fMLFK) and confirmed by measurement of myeloperoxidase activity. Neutrophil activity was assessed by 18FDG uptake. Tissue-to-blood ratios for fMLFK, 18FDG, and leukocytes were calculated to control for background. Neutrophils were counted in histologic sections of saline-perfused lungs. Bronchoalveolar lavage fluid was assessed for neutrophil migration and autoradiographed for intracellular 18FDG localization. Lung myeloperoxidase activity, 18FDG, and peripheral white blood cells all significantly increased in both mild and severe pancreatitis, but lung fMLFK only increased in severe pancreatitis. After correction for blood background, only 18FDG in lung (but not muscle) was significantly increased in pancreatitis (severe > mild > normal, p<.001). Histologic analysis showed significant increase in extravascular (migrated) neutrophils only in severe pancreatitis. Autoradiography of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid confirmed the 18FDG within intra-alveolar neutrophils.",
"This RCT did not show a significant protective effect of pancrelipase replacement therapy over conventional pancreatic enzyme supplementation on NAFLD development after pancreatoduodenectomy for pancreatic cancer. Further studies are clearly required to investigate the etiology of and new therapeutic strategies for treatment-resistant NAFLD (UMIN 000019817).",
"yes. Our findings suggest that the pathogenesis of acute alcoholic pancreatitis may require a state of exocrine hyperstimulation, perhaps via cholecystokinin, but do not support a role for constriction or obstruction of Oddi's sphincter.",
"A recent meta-analysis suggests that the addition of oxaliplatin or cisplatin to gemcitabine can lead to improved survival in patients with advanced pancreatic cancer, especially those with a good performance status. In an event of a platinum hypersensitivity reaction, the particular platinum salt is likely discontinued. Desensitization has shown benefit anecdotically but it is an intensive process. We present a case in which platinum-containing therapy was able to continue in a patient with metastatic pancreatic cancer following a hypersensitivity reaction to oxaliplatin, by switching to cisplatin after a negative intradermal skin test. A 58-year-old gentleman with metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma received biweekly cycles of gemcitabine in combination with oxaliplatin. During the fifth cycle, he experienced a grade 2 hypersensitivity reaction including erythema and lip numbness, for which he was medicated with antihistaminics and corticosteroids. Cycles 6 and 7 of oxaliplatin were tolerated over 4 h infusion with pretreatment of H1, H2 blockers and corticosteroids. During the 8th cycle, the patient developed a grade 3 hypersensitivity reaction manifesting as facial flushing, sweating, symptomatic bronchospasm, cyanotic lips and chest tightness. Symptoms resolved with antihistaminics, corticosteroids and epinephrine. Although oxaliplatin treatment was discontinued, the patient's response to the platinum therapy merited a cisplatin rechallenge. An intradermal skin test was administered with negative result, allowing for a regimen change to biweekly gemcitabine and cisplatin. The patient has tolerated multiple additional cycles with further decrease in tumor size and tumor markers.",
"yes. Early pancreatic volume reduction on CT after steroid therapy indicates the therapeutic effects of steroids, and a low decrease in the pancreatic volume may be associated with a limited response that predicts future relapse in patients with type 1 AIP. Reduction of steroids in these cases must be observed carefully with consideration of immunomodulator use.",
"One of the goals of study AMA-BFM-87 was to test prospectively in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) patients if cranial irradiation could be replaced by late intensification therapy with high-dose cytarabine (Ara-C) and etoposide (VP-16). Patients with a low risk of CNS relapses (ie, no initial CNS disease, WBC count at diagnosis<or = 70.000/microL) were randomized for irradiation (group A, 31 patients). In 25 patients (group B), randomization was refused. As interim results showed no increase of CNS relapses in nonirradiated patients, prophylactic irradiation was discontinued after 2 1/2 years to prevent unnecessary CNS toxicity. Forty-four patients (group C) entered the study after randomization had been stopped. In all patients with a low risk of CNS recurrences (n = 100), a significantly higher probability of relapse-free interval (pRFI) of 5 years was found in irradiated patients (pRFI = .78) compared with nonirradiated patients (pRFI = .41) (P = .007). Moreover, a slightly higher incidence of CNS relapses was observed in nonirradiated patients. Due to the small number of patients, this was not observed when randomized patients only were analyzed. In accordance with these findings, the favorable outcome of low-risk patients in the preceding study, AML-BFM-83 (pRFI>.80), could only be reproduced in study AML-BFM-87 in patients who had received cranial irradiation.",
"High-dose cytarabine (HiDAC) is safe and very effective in younger patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), but it generally is not well tolerated in the elderly. The authors explored the safety and tolerability of a modified HiDAC induction regimen consisting of 6 daily doses of cytarabine at 2 g/m(2) in combination with 3 daily doses of daunorubicin at 45 mg/m(2) in 59 consecutive patients aged >60 years who had de novo AML diagnosed between July 1996 and February 2005. The median patient age was 68 years (range, 60-86 years). The regimen was well tolerated. Infections were common and occurred in 39% of patients, but cerebellar toxicities occurred in only 7% of patients and were reversible. The day-30 induction-related mortality rate was 10%. Overall, 69% of patients achieved complete remissions (CR), and 80% received up to 3 consolidations with HiDAC. The median follow-up for surviving patients was 53 months (range, 17-114 months). The median overall survival was 15.3 months (range, 1-114 months), and the relapse-free survival was 13.8 months (range, 1-113 months). Survival for patients who achieved CR was 27 months (range, 2-114 months).",
"yes. PLA2 induces AMs to release NO, which contributes to lung injury in acute pancreatitis. This lung injury was prevented by the administration of the PLA2 inhibitor quinacrine.",
"The aim of our present study was to investigate the efficacy of poly(adenosine diphosphate-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibition in the development of acute kidney injury in an experimental model of severe acute pancreatitis induced by retrograde infusion of sodium taurocholate into the bile-pancreatic duct. Severity of pancreatitis was evaluated by serum amylase, lipase, tumor necrosis factor α, interleukin-1β, interleukin-6, and histological grading. The following markers of renal dysfunction and injury were measured: serum creatinine level, urea nitrogen level, myeloperoxidase activity, and histology. Activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin protein in the kidney was studied using Western blot analysis. 3-Aminobenzamide attenuated the following: (1) serum amylase, lipase, and renal dysfunction; (2) serum concentrations of proinflammatory cytokines; (3) pancreatic and renal pathological injury; (4) renal myeloperoxidase activity; and (5) activation of PARP, intercellular adhesion molecule-1, and P-selectin in the kidney.",
"Pancreatitis is the most common serious complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). We performed a pilot study to determine whether aggressive periprocedural hydration with lactated Ringer's solution reduces the incidence of pancreatitis after ERCP. Patients who underwent first-time ERCP were randomly assigned to groups (2:1) that received aggressive hydration with lactated Ringer's solution (3 mL/kg/h during the procedure, a 20-mL/kg bolus after the procedure, and 3 mL/kg/h for 8 hours after the procedure, n = 39) or standard hydration with the same solution (1.5 mL/kg/h during and for 8 hours after procedure, n = 23). Serum levels of amylase, visual analogue pain scores (scale of 0-10), and volume overload were assessed at baseline and 2, 8, and 24 hours after ERCP. The primary end point, post-ERCP pancreatitis, was defined as hyperamylasemia (level of amylase >3 times the upper limit of normal) and increased epigastric pain (≥3 points on visual analogue scale) persisting for ≥24 hours after the procedure. Secondary end points included hyperamylasemia, increased pain, and volume overload. None of the patients who received aggressive hydration developed post-ERCP pancreatitis, compared with 17% of patients who received standard hydration (P = .016). Hyperamylasemia developed in 23% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 39% of those who received standard hydration (P = .116, nonsignificant); increased epigastric pain developed in 8% of patients who received aggressive hydration vs 22% of those who received standard hydration (P = .146, nonsignificant). No patients had evidence of volume overload.",
"yes. Intravenous CM increases pancreatic injury when administered early in the course of severe experimental AP. Because CM may convert borderline ischemia to irreversible necrosis, CECT performed early in pancreatitis to show poor perfusion and predict areas of necrosis may depict a self-fulfilling prophecy. Early CECT should be reconsidered and perhaps avoided.",
"Pancreatitis is the most severe complication of ERCP. The aim of this study was to assess whether the use of potentially pancreatotoxic drugs is a risk factor for post-ERCP pancreatitis. Risk factors for post-ERCP pancreatitis and all drugs taken during the month before ERCP were recorded retrospectively in a database. Patients with other causes of acute pancreatitis or chronic pancreatitis were excluded from the analysis. Post-ERCP pancreatitis was defined as abdominal pain and/or vomiting associated with amylase/lipase plasma levels equal to or greater than twice the upper normal value. A total of 173 patients (95 men, 78 women; mean age, 68 [16] years) were included. Post-ERCP pancreatitis occurred in 31 patients (18%). Several risk factors were identified in a multivariate analysis: difficulty in cannulation (p<0.001), endoscopic sphincterotomy (p<0.005), and female gender (p=0.02). Having taken potent pancreatotoxic drugs increased the occurrence of post-ERCP pancreatitis: odds ratio 3.7: 95% confidence intervals [1.1,12.4], p=0.04.",
"yes. Prophylactic inosine reduces microcirculatory and pancreatic injury in acute necrotizing pancreatitis. These effects should be assessed in the clinical setting of ERCP and pancreas transplantation.",
"yes. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with hyperhomocysteinemia and derangements in transmethylation and transsulfuration pathways. Low folate levels observed in these patients seem to have a key role in this derangement.",
"yes. While technically feasible to treat locally advanced pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma, prolonged regional pancreatic perfusion with gemcitabine following pancreatic arterial redistribution carries a high risk for gastrointestinal toxicity. Shorter infusion schedules with frequent on treatment evaluations should be considered for future clinical trials.",
"yes. Pancreatitis-associated CTRC mutations can markedly increase the propensity of chymotrypsinogen C to elicit ER stress in pancreatic acinar cells. Thus, carriers of CTRC mutations may be at a higher risk of developing ER stress in the exocrine pancreas, which may contribute to parenchymal damage through acinar cell apoptosis.",
"yes. These data support the notion that patients entering BMT conditioning without prior cytotoxic treatment (e.g., patients with chronic myeloid leukemia) may be at increased risk of posttransplant complications associated with excessive inflammatory cytokine production.",
"Individualized optimization of intravascular fluid status during the early course of severe acute pancreatitis, compared with a treatment strategy of maximizing stroke volume by fluid loading, leads to less vascular endothelial damage, pancreatic edema, and inflammatory response.",
"Much of the late morbidity and mortality of acute pancreatitis (AP) is attributed to complications of pancreatic necrosis (PNEC). Early diagnosis of PNEC in high-risk patients is critical to management. Hemoconcentration is one risk factor for PNEC, but additional risk factors are likely implicated. (1) To evaluate a series of preselected clinical factors in a prospectively collected cohort with AP to identify risk factors for PNEC and (2) to verify the relative risk of any newly identified factor(s) by retrospective analysis of a large patient cohort. Phase I: 102 AP patients were prospectively ascertained, of which 77 (mean age 49 yr; 35 women, 42 men) underwent contrast-enhanced computerized tomography (CECT) and were studied. Eleven subjects developed PNEC (14%). Binary logistic regression was performed to identify any clinical factors associated with PNEC. Phase II: 1,474 anonymized patients admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of AP were electronically reviewed to identify 359 subjects (mean age 54 yr; 157 women, 202 men) with AP and CECT. Seventy-six of these patients (21%) exhibited CECT evidence of PNEC. The associations found in the Phase I group were compared with Phase II by logistic regression analysis. In Phase I, only chronic alcohol consumption was identified as a significant new risk factor for the development of PNEC (6/19 vs 5/58, p= 0.02, OR 4.8, CI 1.27-18.2). In Phase II, it was verified that excessive alcohol consumption was a significant risk factor for PNEC (18/52 vs 58/307, p= 0.012, OR 2.27, CI 1.19-4.30).",
"Recent studies have shown that inosine, a purine nucleoside produced during the breakdown of adenosine, has immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory properties. The aim of this study was to examine the effects of inosine on the course of acute pancreatitis. Edematous pancreatitis was induced by the intraperitoneal injection of caerulein (50 micro g/kg), seven times, at 1-h intervals, in male Wistar rats (caerulein pancreatitis). Inosine (100 mg/kg) was administered 30 min before or 1 h after the first injection of caerulein. The effects of inosine on the severity of pancreatitis were assessed by serum amylase, pancreatic edema (wet/dry ratio), myeloperoxidase activity, cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations, and histological changes. Prophylactic administration of inosine significantly decreased the elevation of serum amylase, myeloperoxidase activity, and cytokine-induced neutrophil chemoattractant-1 concentrations in the pancreas and the lung. Inosine did not significantly affect edema formation. Histologically, vacuole formation in pancreatic acinar cells, infiltration of inflammatory cells in the pancreas and the lung, and alveolar wall thickening in the lung were reduced. Inosine improved the histological findings and reduced myeloperoxidase activity even if it was administered 1 h after the first injection of caerulein.",
"yes. Interleukin-6 appears to be implicated in the development of chronic hyperglycemia and insulin resistance in patients after acute pancreatitis. It may become a potential target in the prevention and early treatment of diabetes after diseases of the exocrine pancreas.",
"yes. The degree of intestinal damage after myeloablative conditioning appeared to be the most important determined the inflammatory response following SCT, and was associated with inflammatory complications. Studies should explore ways to ameliorate cytotoxic therapy-induced intestinal damage in order to reduce complications associated with myeloablative conditioning therapy.",
"We demonstrated that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improved histopathologic score and oxidative stress in experimental pancreatitis. In addition, it was demonstrated microbiologically and histopathologically that 3-aminobenzamide therapy improves bacterial translocation. Further survival studies demonstrating the efficacy of 3-aminobenzamide therapy and explaining the potential mechanisms of bacterial translocation prevention in acute necrotizing pancreatitis will be beneficial.",
"yes. Our novel data suggest that Rho-kinase signalling plays an important role in acute pancreatitis by regulating trypsinogen activation and subsequent CXC chemokine formation, neutrophil infiltration and tissue injury. Thus, these results indicate that Rho-kinase may constitute a novel target in the management of SAP.",
"To evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of topotecan and cytarabine in patients with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDSs) and chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML). Fifty-nine patients with MDSs and 27 with CMML were enrolled. They were either previously untreated (66%) or had received only biologic agents (14%) or chemotherapy with or without biologic agents (20%). Treatment consisted of topotecan 1.25 mg/m(2) by continuous intravenous infusion daily for 5 days and cytarabine 1. 0 g/m(2) by infusion over 2 hours daily for 5 days. Prophylaxis included antibacterial, antifungal, and antiviral agents. At a median follow-up of 7 months, all 86 patients were assessable for response and toxicity. Complete remission (CR) was observed in 48 patients (56%; 61% with MDSs, 44% with CMML; P =.15). Similar CR rates were observed for patients with good-risk and poor-risk MDS (70% and 56%, respectively). The treatment effectively induced CR in patients with a poor-prognosis karyotype involving chromosomes 5 and 7 (CR, 71%) and secondary MDSs (CR, 72%). Fifty-four patients received one induction course, 25 patients received two, and the rest received more than two. The median number of continuation courses was two. The median overall duration of CR was 34 weeks (50 weeks for MDSs and 33 weeks for CMML). The median survival was 60 weeks for MDS and 44 weeks for CMML patients. CR and survival durations were longer in patients with refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB). Grade 3 or 4 mucositis or diarrhea was observed in three patients each. Fever was observed in 63%, and infections in 49% of patients. Six patients (7%) died during induction therapy.",
"To determine whether recommendations for treatment of acute pancreatitis (AP) in adults impact the outcomes of pediatric AP. Adult guidelines regarding early management of AP were implemented through an admission order set at Cincinnati Children's Hospital Medical Center at the beginning of the year 2014. Recommendations included administering high rates of intravenous fluid (IVF) within 24 hours of admission and enteral nutrition within 48 hours of admission. A retrospective chart review of AP admissions before and after the implementation of the recommendations was undertaken. Outcomes studied were: hospital length of stay, intensive care unit transfer rates, development of severe AP, pulmonary complications, and readmission rates post discharge from the hospital. The study included 201 patients. Children who received feeds within the first 48 hours and received greater than maintenance IVF within 24 hours had a shorter length of stay, less intensive care unit admissions and severe AP rates compared with the patients who remained nil per os during the first 48 hours and received lower rates of IVF.",
"yes. Treatment of acute necrotizing pancreatitis with multidrug regimens significantly decreases short-term mortality compared to monotherapies. Moreover, multidrug strategies are still effective after a wide therapeutic window. Key to this effective therapy is the inhibition of microcirculatory disturbances and of the systemic inflammatory response. The experimental superiority of the multidrug approach should be confirmed in a clinical trial.",
"yes. Activation of sPLA(2)-I is associated with the early pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis, but not in the development of distant organ damage. This observation raises questions as to the theory of generalized zymogen activation being a principle mechanism involved in the pathogenesis of distant organ damage in acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. In a large retrospective cohort study of patients undergoing ERCP that included low-risk patients and patients with malignant biliary obstruction, rectal indomethacin was associated with a significant decrease in the absolute rate and severity of pancreatitis.",
"This study was designed to evaluate the protective effect of a peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist, pranlukast hydrate, against pancreatic injuries during acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis was induced in rats by intravenous infusion of a supramaximal dose of cerulein (5 micrograms/kg h for 4 h). In this model marked hyperamylasemia, a significant increase in pancreatic water content, and a significant increase in pancreatic microvascular leakage of Evans blue dye were observed. Pancreatic subcellular redistribution of the lysosomal enzyme cathepsin B from the lysosomal fraction to the zymogen fraction was also observed. Pretreatment with pranlukast hydrate at a dose of 10 micrograms/kg (twice, 8 and 4 h before cerulein infusion) significantly inhibited these pancreatic injuries, including hyperamylasemia, increased pancreatic microvascular permeability, and redistribution of cathepsin B in pancreatic acinar cells.",
"yes. The polymorphism of the GT repeats in the heme oxygenase-1 promoter region may be a risk factor for developing severe and necrotizing acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. Topotecan and cytarabine induced high CR rates in unselected patients with MDSs and CMML, particularly among patients with poor-prognosis cytogenetics and secondary MDSs. Topotecan-cytarabine is an active induction regimen in MDS and CMML patients, is well tolerated, and is associated with a low mortality rate.",
"yes. Chemokine production and leucocyte infiltration are timely regulated in lung and pancreas during pancreatitis. CXC chemokine inhibition with Evasin-3 improved neutrophil inflammation and injury, potentially interfering with damages in acute pancreatitis and related pulmonary complications.",
"Acute pancreatitis has been reported in a few cases treated with macrolides or glucocorticoids. We report the case of a 58 year old patient who, after 2 days of treatment with roxithromycin and betamethasone, manifested acute pancreatitis. Other causes of the disease were ruled out. No re-occurrence of pancreatitis was observed in a 16 month follow-up.",
"Intraduodenal hematoma (IDH) is an uncommon complication of endoscopic duodenal biopsy that can cause severe obstruction of the digestive, biliary, or pancreatic tracts. We aimed to analyze the risk factors and outcomes of biopsy-induced IDH in our series. Between 2010 and 2014, a retrospective chart review was conducted for all children younger than 18 years of age treated for IDH. We collected their data in our tertiary pediatric center and compared them to those of controls matched for age, sex, and pathology. Among 2705 upper nontherapeutic endoscopies and 1163 duodenal biopsies, 7 IDH occurred in 6 children suspected of developing graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) after bone marrow transplantation (BMT) and in 1 patient with Noonan syndrome. The IDH prevalence was significantly higher after BMT compared to children who did not undergo grafting (7% vs 0.1%; P = 7.9 × 10; odds ratio = 82). After a median delay of 48 hours, patients developed intestinal obstruction with abdominal pain and vomiting. The diagnosis was confirmed by using ultrasonography or computed tomography scans. Acute pancreatitis was determined in 3 out of 7 patients. Conservative treatment allowed complete resolution in all patients.",
"Severe acute pancreatitis (SAP) is characterized by trypsinogen activation, infiltration of leucocytes and tissue necrosis but the intracellular signalling mechanisms regulating organ injury in the pancreas remain elusive. Rho-kinase is a potent regulator of specific cellular processes effecting several pro-inflammatory activities. Herein, we examined the role of Rho-kinase signalling in acute pancreatitis. Pancreatitis was induced by infusion of taurocholate into the pancreatic duct in C57BL/6 mice. Animals were treated with a Rho-kinase inhibitor Y-27632 (0.5-5 mg·kg⁻¹) before induction of pancreatitis. Taurocholate infusion caused a clear-cut increase in blood amylase, pancreatic neutrophil infiltration, acinar cell necrosis and oedema formation in the pancreas. Levels of pancreatic myeloperoxidase (MPO), macrophage inflammatory protein-2 (MIP-2), trypsinogen activation peptide (TAP) and lung MPO were significantly increased, indicating local and systemic disease. Inhibition of Rho-kinase activity dose-dependently protected against pancreatitis. For example, 5 mg·kg⁻¹ Y-27632 reduced acinar cell necrosis, leucocyte infiltration and pancreatic oedema by 90%, 89% and 58%, respectively, as well as tissue levels of MPO by 75% and MIP-2 by 84%. Moreover, Rho-kinase inhibition decreased lung MPO by 75% and blood amylase by 83%. Pancreatitis-induced TAP levels were reduced by 61% in Y-27632-treated mice. Inhibition of Rho-kinase abolished secretagogue-induced activation of trypsinogen in pancreatic acinar cells in vitro.",
"Acute pancreatitis (AP) is an inflammatory disease characterized by acinar cell damage and inflammation of the pancreas with infiltration of leukocytes, predominantly neutrophils. We investigated whether neutrophil depletion protects against experimental AP induced by L-arginine. AP was induced in C57BL/6 mice via two intraperitoneal L-arginine (4 g/kg) injections. Mice were pretreated with 250 and 100 µg anti-Gr-1 antibody via intraperitoneal injection at 24 and 4 h, respectively, before L-arginine challenge for neutrophil depletion. At 48 and 72 h after injection, the severity of AP was determined with the aid of biochemical and histological analyses. Amylase and MPO activity was detected using specific assay kits. The plasma cytokines levels were detected using ELISA. Neutrophil depletion resulted in significantly reduced plasma amylase levels in pancreas, myeloperoxidase (MPO) activity in pancreas and lung, reactive oxygen species (ROS) generation and cell apoptosis, and decreased circulating neutrophil, tissue damage as well as expression levels of nuclear factor NF-κB.",
"yes. Chronic osteomyelitis correlates with increased risk of acute pancreatitis. Patients with chronic osteomyelitis should be carefully monitored about the risk of acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. Activation of the adenosine A1-receptor pathway may have an important role in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. Spinal administration of combined doses of NMDA receptor antagonist, D-APV, and MS reversed three behavioral responses to induction of an acute pancreatitis model. These results suggest that in the clinical management of visceral pain, such as pancreatitis, restricted usage of glutamate antagonists might be useful as adjuvant potentiation at the onset of morphine therapy.",
"Fulminant acute pancreatitis is a disease of complex origin that results in activation of several of the proinflammatory cytokines. Because interleukin-1 (IL-1) is an integral early component of the acute inflammatory process, the use of an IL-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) was investigated in experimental acute pancreatitis to determine the therapeutic potential of proximal cytokine blockade and to further establish the role of inflammatory cytokines in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis. IL-1ra was administered in escalating doses either before or after acute edematous, necrotizing pancreatitis was induced in adult male mice by injection of cerulein. The severity of pancreatitis was quantified by serum amylase, lipase, interleukin-6 (IL-6), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) levels, pancreatic wet weight, and blinded histologic grading. Administration of medium (10 mg/kg) and high (100 mg/kg) doses of IL-1ra either before or after the induction of pancreatitis significantly decreased the expected rise in pancreatic wet weight, lipase, IL-6, and TNF-alpha (all, p < 0.01). Serum amylase was significantly reduced when IL-1ra was administered in either dosage before (p < 0.05), but not after, induction of pancreatitis. Pancreatic edema, necrosis, and inflammatory cell infiltrate were significantly diminished (p < 0.05) by histologic grading in all animals receiving medium or high doses of IL-1ra. Low doses of IL-1ra (1.0 mg/kg) had modest effects if given before, but no effect if given after, induction of pancreatitis.",
"yes. Acute pancreatitis associated with IPMNs could predict malignant intestinal-type tumor. and IAP.",
"We evaluated the attitude in using chemotherapy near the end of life in advanced pancreatic adenocarcinoma (PAC). Clinical and laboratory parameters recorded at last chemotherapy administration were analyzed, in order to identify risk factors for imminent death. Retrospective analysis of patients who underwent at least one line of palliative chemotherapy was made. Data concerning chemotherapy (regimens, lines, and date of last administration) were collected. Clinical and laboratory factors recorded at last chemotherapy administration were: performance status, presence of ascites, hemoglobin, white blood cell (WBC), platelets, total bilirubin, albumin, LDH, C-reactive protein (C-rp), and Ca 19.9. We analyzed 231 patients: males/females, 53/47 %; metastatic/locally advanced disease, 80/20 %; and median age, 66 years (range 32-85). All patients died due to disease progression. Median overall survival was 6.1 months (95 % CI 5.1-7.2). At the last chemotherapy delivery, performance status was 0-1 in 37 % and 2 in 63 %. Fifty-nine percent of patients received one chemotherapy line, while 32, 8, and 1 % had second-, third-, and fourth line, respectively. The interval between last chemotherapy administration and death was<4 weeks in 24 %, ≥4-12 in 47 %, and>12 in 29 %. Median survival from last chemotherapy to death was 7.5 weeks (95 % CI 6.7-8.4). In a univariate analysis, ascites, elevated WBC, bilirubin, LDH, C-rp and Ca 19.9, and reduced albumin were found to predict shorter survival; however, none of them remained significant in a multivariate analysis.",
"yes. These results suggest that hematin is one of the cytotoxic factors in PAAF that causes hepatocellular injury and that cellular injuries caused by hematin may be involved in the development of multiple organ failure associated with severe acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. The initial response of the cytokine network to damage of the human pancreas leading to acute pancreatitis includes the release of IL-8 and the IL-1 antagonist IL-1-RA, while IL-1beta is not found in the systemic circulation. The TNF system does not seem to be involved as indicated by the lack of detectable changes in TNF and the soluble TNFR p55 and p75 serum concentrations. Lymphocyte activation as indicated by elevated IL-2R levels occurred days after the initial trauma. Even mild post-ERP pancreatitis leads to significant systemic release of cytokines and their biological counterparts.",
"The aim of this study was to evaluate the hypothesis that mild endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)-induced acute pancreatitis (AP) runs a distinctly shorter clinical course compared with mild attacks caused by other etiological factors. ERCP-induced AP was defined as the persistence of postprocedure abdominal pain requiring analgesia for at least 24 h in association with hyperamylasemia of more than three times the normal value. Among 2552 patients who had undergone ERCP between 1996 and 2002 in two different hospitals, mild AP developed after \"elective\" ERCP in 48 (group I). Among a random sample of 10% of 700 patients admitted with AP to both hospitals during the same study period, 58 had mild non-ERCP-related AP (group II). Results shown are medians. Patients in group I had significantly shorter durations of pain (55 vs. 114 h, P<0.0001), analgesic intake (56 vs.93 h, P = 0.007), and intravenous hydration (48 vs. 80 h, P<0.0001), a lower opiate analgesic requirement (58 mg morphine equivalent vs. 100 mg, P = 0.001), a shorter time to resumption of oral diet (3 vs. 5 days, P<0.0001), and a shorter hospital stay (4 vs. 7 days, P<0.0001) than patients in group II.",
"yes. Our results suggest that apoptosis plays an important role in acute pancreatitis-associated lung injury (APALI), and inhibition of caspase activity may represent a new therapeutic approach for the treatment of APALI.",
"no. Whilst severe attacks of acute pancreatitis are associated with early derangement in gut barrier function and systemic endotoxin translocation, there is no molecular evidence for associated bacterial \"translocation.\"",
"In the 1960s, it was reported that infectious complications were the main cause of fever during neutropenia that followed hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT). More recently, mucositis has become recognized as an important determinant of the inflammatory response and infectious complications. The objective of this prospective study was to determine the impact of intestinal mucositis, as measured by plasma citrulline, and neutropenia on the systemic inflammatory response (C-reactive protein) and the occurrence of bacteremia among 2 cohorts of HSCT recipients: 1 composed of 18 patients who had been treated with a myeloablative (MA) regimen (high-dose melphalan) and the other involving 19 patients who had received the non-myeloablative (NMA) regimen (fludarabine and cyclophosphamide). Blood cultures were obtained for surveillance from admission onwards as well as at the onset of fever. The MA regimen induced severe intestinal mucositis manifest by citrullinemia <10 μmol/L, which was accompanied by an inflammatory response, and bacteremia affected 8 (44%) of 18 patients and coincided with the nadir of citrullinemia. By contrast, those who had been treated with the NMA regimen did not develop severe intestinal mucositis, had a moderate inflammatory response, and only 2 (11%) of the 19 patients developed bacteremia. However, both groups experienced profound neutropenia and its duration was significantly longer for those receiving the NMA regimen.",
"This study investigated the role of hypoxia-inducible factor 1alpha (HIF-1alpha) in acute pancreatitis (AP) and whether HIF-1alpha is involved in the therapeutic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) on AP. Thirty Wistar rats with taurocholate-induced AP were randomly assigned to 3 groups (each group had 10 rats) receiving oxygen, HBO, or no therapeutic treatment 4 hours after induction. Ten healthy sham-operated rats also served as controls. The arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, pH, lactate dehydrogenase in the arterial sera, and amylase and tumor necrosis factor alpha in the venous sera were measured 6 hours after induction. Pancreatic tissues were subjected to histopathologic analysis, immunohistochemical and Western-blotted analyses of HIF-1alpha and vascular endothelial growth factor, and measuring of myeloperoxidase activity. The HBO therapy attenuated the severity of acute pancreatitis; reduced histopathologic scores, dry weight-wet weight ratio of pancreatic tissues, and levels of amylase and lactate dehydrogenase; and elevated blood arterial oxygen saturation, PaO2, and pH values. The HBO therapy inhibited AP-induced up-regulation of HIF-1alpha and its downstream effector vascular endothelial growth factor and the production of tumor necrosis factor alpha and myeloperoxidase activity.",
"yes. Chemokines are induced in acinar cells by treatments that induce pancreatitis and may play an important role in the early stages of the disease.",
"We evaluated whether clofarabine-containing chemotherapy predisposed patients to hepatic toxicity (particularly venoocclusive disease [VOD]) after allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT). In the group who received clofarabine and subsequent transplantation, there were no cases of VOD, and liver toxicity was comparable to a control group who received standard acute myeloid leukemia (AML) chemotherapy. Other transplant-specific outcomes, including overall survival (OS), were also similar when compared with the control group. Clofarabine is actively being investigated as a component of frontline chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Hepatotoxicity is 1 of the primary adverse events associated with clofarabine and can occasionally can include severe venoocclusive disease (VOD). Many patients with AML undergo allogeneic stem cell transplantation (allo-SCT), a procedure that is also associated with hepatotoxicity. We identified AML patients undergoing allo-SCT and stratified them according to whether they received clofarabine-containing (clofarabine, idarubicin, and cytarabine [CIA]) or non-clofarabine-containing cytarabine-based induction/consolidation chemotherapy (idarubicin and cytarabine [ara-C] [IA]). We compared both groups for differences in posttransplantation hepatotoxicity, VOD, and other transplantation outcomes. Forty-two patients were identified (20 receiving CIA and 22 receiving IA). Patient and transplant characteristics were similar. All patients receiving clofarabine-based treatment received CIA within 2.5 months of their allo-SCT. There was no difference in the incidence of VOD in the 30 days after transplantation (0 CIA, 1 IA; P = 1.0). Rates of grade 3/4 hepatotoxicity also did not differ between groups. Acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), early relapse, and survival were also not significantly different.",
"yes. In acute pancreatitis, structural capillary diameter and heterogeneity of diameter increase and capillary density decreases. These parameters are all improved by HBO treatment. Hyperbaric oxygen treatment normalizes the pancreatic microvasculature after acute pancreatitis and may be a potentially effective treatment of this disease.",
"To determine the effect of intestinal ischemia-reperfusion (IIR) on acute pancreatitis (AP) and the role of mesenteric lymph. Intestinal ischemia is an early feature of AP and is related to the severity of disease. It is not known whether this contributes to the severity of AP or is a consequence. Two experiments are reported here using intravital microscopy and a rodent model of mild acute pancreatitis (intraductal 2.5% sodium taurocholate). In the first, rats had an episode of IIR during AP that was produced by temporary occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery (30 min or 3 x 10 min) followed by 2h reperfusion. In a second study rats with AP had an intravenous infusion of mesenteric lymph collected from donor rats that had been subjected to IIR. In both experiments the pancreatic erythrocyte velocity (EV), functional capillary density (FCD), leukocyte adherence (LA), histology and edema index were measured. The addition of IIR to AP caused a decline in the pancreatic microcirculation greater than that of AP alone (EV 42% of baseline vs. 73% of baseline AP alone, FCD 43% vs 72%, LA 7 fold increase vs 4 fold increase). This caused an increased severity of AP as evidenced by 1.4-1.8 fold increase of pancreatic edema index and histologic injury respectively. A very similar exacerbation of microvascular failure and increased pancreatitis severity was then demonstrated by the intravenous infusion of IIR conditioned mesenteric lymph from donor animals.",
"Our 9-year experience suggests that imaging findings such as attenuation pattern on the delayed phase of CT scan and tapering pattern of pancreatic ductal stricture on pancreatogram can help to differentiate mass-forming pancreatitis from early-stage pancreatic adenocarcinoma.",
"Acute pancreatitis is a severe and frequently life-threatening disease, which can lead to pancreatic necrosis, acute lung injury, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and other complications. In this study, we hypothesized that the expression of heme oxygenase-1 determined by the number of guanidinium thiocyanate (GT) repeats can influence the occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Patients with acute pancreatitis (n = 131) and age- and sex-matched healthy controls (n = 108) were studied. The polymerase chain reaction products were analyzed by ABI 3130 genetic analyzer and the exact size of the polymerase chain reaction products was determined by GeneMapper software. A short allele was defined as containing 27 GT repeats or fewer, whereas a long allele was more than 27 repeats. The subjects were categorized into 3 groups on the basis of the genotype results: 1 short and 1 long, 2 short, and 2 long alleles (L/L). Patients with necrotizing disease more frequently were carriers of LL genotype compared with those who had edematous acute pancreatitis. Furthermore, logistic regression analysis revealed that the presence of L/L allele type doubles the risk for developing pancreatic necrosis in patients with acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. This study provides the first evidence that (1) prevention of the activation of protein tyrosine kinases reduces the development of acute pancreatitis, and (2) inhibition of the activity of certain tyrosine kinases may represent a novel approach for the therapy of acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. Pretreatment with AIHA reduces the severity of L-arginine-induced pancreatitis most likely by inhibiting arginase activity.",
"This trial revealed that the 11.3% of all patients developed thrombosis,who had been treated with MA and chemotherapy concomittantly. There was no statistically significant difference regarding to occurrence of thrombotic process, among the patients receiving different chemotherapy regimens with MA concomittantly. Pancreatic cancer seemed to be related to thrombosis rather than MA use.",
"Acute pancreatitis is well defined as pancreatic inflammation due to the activation of pancreatic enzymes secondary to several etiological factors. In the majority of patients, the clinical symptoms are self-limited, but it can also cause tissue necrosis and severe organ failures. In experimental animal models, it has been shown that wide apoptotic cell death is related to a clinically mild presentation of acute pancreatitis. Cytokeratin 18, a cytoskeletal protein, is shown to be related with apoptosis. In this study, we aimed to show the relation between serum cytokeratin 18 and the clinical presentation of acute pancreatitis in humans. A total of 54 acute pancreatitis patients were enrolled into the study. Patients were classified as mild or severe pancreatitis according to Ranson's criteria. There were 36 (66.7%) patients in the mild pancreatitis group (score<6), and 18 (33.3%) patients in the severe pancreatitis group (score ≥ 6). During the first admission, blood samples were obtained for serum cytokeratin 18 levels. Cytokeratin 18 levels in the mild pancreatitis group were significantly higher than in the severe pancreatitis group (271.2 ± 45.5 vs. 152.6 ± 38.2 IU/L; p<0.001). There was a negative correlation between the disease activity score (Ranson score) and the serum cytokeratin 18 levels (p<0.001; r = -0.724).",
"One of the most important complications of acute pancreatitis is the secondary bacterial infections of the pancreas and gut. Translocation of bacteria from the gut is accepted as being responsible for the development of septic complications in acute pancreatitis. In this study, our aim was to investigate the effect of PARP inhibition via 3-aminobenzamide on the bacterial translocation in acute pancreatitis. 45 male Sprague-Dawley rats were randomly allocated into three groups. Group I (Sham+saline) received normal saline infusion into the common biliopancreatic duct. Acute pancreatitis was induced in Group II (acute pancreatitis+saline) and Group III (acute pancreatitis+ 3-aminobenzamide) by the retrograde injection of taurocholate into the common biliopancreatic duct. Six hours after induction of pancreatitis, the rats in Group I and II were treated with saline (1 ml, every 12 hours), while the rats in Group III were treated with 3-aminobenzamide (10 mg/kg/day every 12 hours), intraperitoneally. In the 54th hour of the study, blood and tissue samples were taken for biochemical, microbiological and histopathological analysis. Acute pancreatitis developed in Groups II and III. Pathologic score [median (25-75% percentiles)] of the pancreatitis in Group III [8 (7-9)]was significantly lower than in Group II [19 (18-21)] (p<0.001). Bacterial translocation to mesenteric lymph node (53.3%), peritoneum (60%) and pancreas (46.7%) in Group III was significantly lower than in Group II (100% for all) (p<0.02, p<0.03, p<0.005, respectively). Pancreatic tissue glutathione peroxidase, superoxide dismutase, and malondialdehyde levels were better in Group III compared to Group II (p<0.001 for all). Comparison of Groups II and III demonstrated reduced severity of inflammation of the gut in Group III (p>0.05). Improvement in bacterial translocation was correlated with reducing oxidative stress.",
"Despite the well-established association between PIs and hypertriglyceridemia, there was no significant increase in the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in this HIV-infected population after the introduction of PIs. Medication-associated pancreatitis remains the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the era of potent antiretroviral therapy.",
"This first human study suggests that cytokeratin 18 (marker of apoptosis) might be a serological predictive marker for acute pancreatitis for disease activity.",
"yes. The SPINK1 N34S variant is associated with acute pancreatitis. This supports the importance of premature protease activation in the pathogenesis of AP and suggests that mutated SPINK1 may predispose certain individuals to develop this disease.",
"yes. The excessive leucocyte activation together with the impaired phagocytosis could be related to the onset of complications in severe acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. Acute pancreatitis is an uncommon early complication of placement of duodenal stents in patients with malignant gastroduodenal obstruction. Acute pancreatitis occurred most commonly in descending duodenum, and in patients with stent bridged the duodenal papilla. Stent bridged the duodenal papilla may be the most important predictors for acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis can be managed conservatively or by PTCD when developed to acute jaundice.",
"Treatment with high-dose cytarabine (1-beta-D-arabinofuranosylcytosine) is often associated with an acute febrile reaction sometimes including abdominal pain, myalgia, and rash. The similarity of these symptoms to those caused by hypersecretion of cytokines in the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) prompted us to investigate the plasma levels of proinflammatory cytokines during treatment of children with high-dose cytarabine. Sixteen children treated for hematological malignancies and in clinical remission were studied during treatment with six infusions of cytarabine given every 12 hr at a dose of 2 g/m(2). Blood samples for analysis of tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), interferon-gamma (IFN-gamma), interleukin-1gamma (IL-1gamma), interleukin-6 (IL-6), interleukin-8 (IL-8), interleukin-10 (IL-10) and interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (IL-1ra) were obtained prior to treatment and subsequently at 12, 36 and 60 hr. Additional samples were collected as soon as fever occurred. Thirteen of 16 patients developed fever at a median time of 30 hr following start of treatment. At 12 hr levels of TNF-alpha were elevated followed by a rise in IL-6, IFN-alpha, and IL-1ra, peaking at the onset of fever. Thereafter these levels slowly declined whereas low IL-10 levels became detectable.",
"This study not only demonstrated the differential effects of captopril, losartan and L-158809 in acute pancreatitis but also showed that there is still much to investigate about pancreatic renin-angiotensin system. Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme should be evaluated carefully as a potential new therapeutic target in acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. In patients of severe acute pancreatitis with organ dysfunction and receiving gabexate treatment, neutrophil apoptosis is associated with the severity of organ dysfunction.",
"yes. Treatment with Met-RANTES reduces lung damage associated with caerulein-induced pancreatitis in mice. Chemokine receptor antagonists may be of use for the treatment of the systemic complications of acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. These results suggest that peptide leukotrienes may be involved in the pathogenesis of acute pancreatitis in the early stage of the disease and that peptide leukotriene receptor antagonist might be of therapeutic value for treatment of acute pancreatitis.",
"yes. We conclude that high-dose cytarabine treatment often induces release of TNF-alpha followed by the sequential release of other proinflammatory cytokines. Most likely these cytokines mediate the development of symptoms comprising the cytarabine syndrome.",
"Hypertriglyceridemia is a well-established cause of acute pancreatitis in the general population. Protease inhibitor (PI) therapy, introduced in 1996 for HIV infection, is associated with moderate to severe hypertriglyceridemia. To determine whether the prevalence of hyperlipidemic pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients has increased since the introduction of PIs. This was a retrospective study of patients with acute pancreatitis and HIV infection admitted to three local hospitals between 1990 and 2001. Before PIs became available (1990-1995), 30 index cases of acute pancreatitis in the setting of HIV infection were identified, and one of these cases (3.3%) was attributed to hypertriglyceridemia. After the introduction of PIs (1996-2001), 54 cases of acute pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients were identified, and two of these cases were attributed to hypertriglyceridemia (3.7%; p = 0.6). In both time periods, medication-induced pancreatitis was the most common cause of pancreatitis in HIV-infected patients.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that acute pancreatitis is associated with the upregulation of cytokines in blood as well as upregulation of NF-kappaB levels and downregulation of IkappaBalpha activation in peripheral blood neutrophilic granulocytes. In contrast, HBO plays a role in acute pancreatitis treatment by normalizing these changes.",
"l-Asparaginase is an important drug for treatment of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), but is associated with serious toxicities, including pancreatitis and hypertriglyceridemia (HTG). Asparaginase-associated pancreatitis (AAP) is a common reason for stopping asparaginase treatment. The aim of this study was to explore if HTG or early elevations in pancreatic enzymes were associated with the subsequent development of AAP. Children (1.0-17.9 years) diagnosed with ALL, treated with asparaginase for 30 weeks, according to the NOPHO ALL2008 protocol at the University Hospital Rigshospitalet, Copenhagen, Denmark, were eligible. Pancreatic enzymes, triglycerides, and cholesterol were measured regularly. Thirty-one patients were included. Seven patients were diagnosed with AAP. HTG was most evident when PEG-asparaginase and dexamethasone were administered concomitantly. Overall, there was no significant difference in triglyceride levels in patients who experienced AAP and patients who did not. An increase in triglyceride levels during concomitant dexamethasone therapy in delayed intensification was significantly associated with an increase in pancreas-specific amylase levels two weeks later (P = 0.005).",
"The use of propofol is controversial in patients with a history of acute pancreatitis or those taking drugs, including certain chemotherapeutic drugs, that are associated with pancreatitis. To investigate this issue, we reviewed the medical records of all children who were diagnosed with pancreatitis while receiving chemotherapy for acute leukemia during a 5-year period. A temporal relationship between propofol use and development of acute pancreatitis could not be established.",
"Pancreatitis in the setting of AML therapy may be an infrequent and self-limited toxicity of cytarabine. A schedule dependent toxicity with cytarabine was not identified.",
"Acute pancreatitis in acute myeloid leukemia (AML) has been rarely associated with cytarabine therapy. This report attempts to characterize this toxicity. Criteria for pancreatitis was prospectively defined. Seven patients with pancreatitis were identified from an AML database and a clinical study at two tertiary care centers (n = 134). Their records were retrospectively reviewed. Seven patients with pancreatitis complicating AML therapy were identified. Median age was 36 (range 25-73) years. Median amylase was 184 (range 77-552) U/l and median lipase was 1026 (range 630-6087) U/l. The patients had received high dose bolus cytarabine (2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours; n = 2), and continuous infusion cytarabine followed by high-dose cytarabine (100 mg/m2 i.v. CI days 1-7 then 2 g/m2 i.v. bolus every 12 hours days 8-10; n = 2), or standard dose continuous infusion cytarabine (200 mg/m2/d; n = 3) prior to developing pancreatitis. Pancreatitis occurred at a median of 10 days following day one of cytarabine administration with resolution at a median of 11 days after initial diagnosis. Six patients did not suffer major complications. One patient died of causes unrelated to pancreatitis. Five of six patients was rechallenged and all remained free of pancreatitis. One patient subsequently did develop pancreatitis on a later rechallenge."
] | 721 |
Pediatric residents' telephone triage experience: do parents really follow telephone advice? | [
"A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.",
"If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center."
] | [
"the Internet is the world's fastest growing source of health related information. Parents and guardians are increasingly turning to the Internet for information about their children's medical conditions and treatments. This paper has the following objectives 1) determine the prevalence of web searches for medical information performed by parents/guardians of children undergoing ENT surgery in a private hospital of Sao Paulo, Brazil. 2) assess whether the gathered information influenced the parents/guardians' decision on the treatment/surgery. questionnaire voluntarily responded by 132 parents/guardians of children submitted to ENT surgery in a private hospital in Sao Paulo, Brazil.",
"Previous research indicates physicians frequently choose a patient problem to explore before determining the patient's full spectrum of concerns. To examine the extent to which experienced family physicians in various practice settings elicit the agenda of concerns patients bring to the office. A cross-sectional survey using linguistic analysis of a convenience sample of 264 patient-physician interviews. Primary care offices of 29 board-certified family physicians practicing in rural Washington (n = 1; 3%), semirural Colorado (n = 20; 69%), and urban settings in the United States and Canada (n = 8; 27%). Nine participants had fellowship training in communication skills and family counseling. Patient-physician verbal interactions, including physician solicitations of patient concerns, rate of completion of patient responses, length of time for patient responses, and frequency of late-arising patient concerns. Physicians solicited patient concerns in 199 interviews (75.4%). Patients' initial statements of concerns were completed in 74 interviews (28.0%). Physicians redirected the patient's opening statement after a mean of 23.1 seconds. Patients allowed to complete their statement of concerns used only 6 seconds more on average than those who were redirected before completion of concerns. Late-arising concerns were more common when physicians did not solicit patient concerns during the interview (34.9% vs 14.9%). Fellowship-trained physicians were more likely to solicit patient concerns and allow patients to complete their initial statement of concerns (44% vs 22%).",
"PALS is successful in providing basic resuscitation knowledge to pediatric residents, but knowledge of critical algorithm details is not sustained. The course does not provide for the expected level of competency in relevant technical skills. Residents do not achieve the confidence to feel well prepared to provide comprehensive care to pediatric patients in cardiopulmonary arrest. These findings support the hypothesis that the PALS course alone is insufficient to provide pediatric residents with competency in cardiopulmonary resuscitation.",
"Intervention improved parental knowledge; however, intervention did not translate into anticipated improvement in clinic and emergency room utilization patterns. Emphasis on education and preventative services are important in both civilian and military pediatric practice. Results of this study highlight the need to discuss and reinforce fever education as a topic in pediatric preventive health care visits.",
"Parents of children with asthma exacerbations who communicated with clinicians were more likely to administer SABAs and an oral corticosteroid before bringing their child to an emergency department. Frequency of SABA dosing was not associated with communication. Clinicians providing telephone advice to parents need to provide explicit instructions about medication administration, emphasizing the frequency with which SABAs should be administered.",
"Parents rated residents at both training levels very highly for the quality of care provided. PL-3 residents had higher longitudinal continuity scores and were perceived to have greater knowledge about behavioral counseling and coordination of care with schools. Further research will need to elucidate strategies to improve earlier resident acquisition of coordination and behavior management skills.",
"to assess knowledge of pediatric residents attending adolescents, including ethical issues on contraceptive advice. A prospective study was conducted involving 75 residents in order to assess their knowledge, along with ethical issues involved, in clinical attendance of adolescents. The SPSS 13 software package was used for data analysis. 100% of interviewees stated that adolescents have the right to privacy during medical appointments. Yet, when asked from what age this privacy should be granted, 62% reported at any age. When questioned on whether an adolescent could be examined alone, without another person with them in the room, 50% of physicians answered yes and 50% no. 91.7% of interviewees felt that adolescents had the right to confidentiality and medical secrecy, but only 84.8% knew the contents of the Code of Medical Ethics regarding medical secrecy. A further 79.2% felt prepared to give advice on contraception to adolescents.",
"yes. A policy of reminding outpatients of their appointments via telephone reduces absenteeism at a hospital-based pulmonary function laboratory. We found no difference in absenteeism between communicating the reminder via direct conversation versus via leaving a message on an answering machine.",
"To evaluate the effect of weekly telephone contact with families in enhancing the use of home apnea monitors. This was a prospective, randomized, single-blinded study of 65 infants who were prescribed home apnea monitoring at the time of initial discharge from the hospital. Exclusion criteria included participation in any other study involving home monitoring or nonavailability of home telephone. Infants were randomized either to the \"standard\" or \"telephone\" group by a stratified balanced block technique. All families were instructed to use the monitor during the first 4-week period at all times except during bathing and during the second 4-week period at all unattended times and at night. The families in the telephone group were contacted weekly for 8 weeks. The telephone interview reviewed the events of the previous week but did not include specific encouragement to use the monitor. Both groups received routine pediatric care and follow-up at our high-risk premature clinic. The primary outcome measure was compliance measured as the percentage of time as well as the hours per day that the infant spent on the monitor as recorded by the documented monitor. The telephone (n = 30) and standard (n = 32) groups were similar (p > 0.10) with respect to birth weight (1567 +/- 778 versus 1710 +/- 777 gm), gestational age (30.9 +/- 4.2 versus 31.1 +/- 4.6 weeks), maternal age (24.9 +/- 6.0 versus 25.3 +/- 5.4 years), and commercial insurance (46.7% versus 46.9%), a marker of higher socioeconomic status. Compliance of the telephone versus the standard group was similar during the first 4-week period (74.7 +/- 24.9 versus 75 +/- 27.8%, p = 0.85) (17.9 +/- 5.9 versus 18.2 +/- 6.6 hours/day), the second 4 week period (63.4 +/- 29.1 versus 58.9 +/- 30.9%, p = 0.59) (15.2 +/- 7.0 versus 14.1 +/- 7.4 hours/day) and the entire 8-week period (69.3 +/- 24.7 versus 67.7 +/- 26.2%, p = 0.82, Mann-Whitney U-test) (16.7 +/- 6.0 versus 16.1 +/- 6.5 hours/day), respectively. An abnormal pneumocardiogram at the time of discharge was the only identified factor that improved the compliance for the entire 8-week period (73.1 +/- 22 versus 52.1 +/- 28.5%, p = 0.02) (17.5 +/- 5.2 versus 12.5 +/- 6.8 hours/day) and the first 4-week period of monitoring (81.7 +/- 22.9 versus 59.5 +/- 31.3%, p = 0.01) (19.6 +/- 5.5 versus 14.2 +/- 7.5 hours/day).",
"yes. Many children are referred by CCC staff to physicians contrary to established guidelines. As staff must act on behalf of parents, a low threshold for referral is not unreasonable. However, this survey confirms that CCC staff recommend children to receive antibiotics and exclude children inappropriately. These practices are based on incomplete knowledge. Research on appropriate management of upper respiratory tract infections by CCC staff is needed. Education to correct specific knowledge deficits should be initiated.",
"Our data do suggest that health care professionals, excluding those in emergency medicine, are not better than laymen in evaluating an emergency situation correctly, and when the caller is a doctor or a nurse the dispatcher seems to trust the evaluation of the situation to be correct and rarely asks any clarifying questions about vital signs of the patient.",
"We sought to better understand barriers to adherence to published guidelines for respiratory infections among community providers. A case-based survey was developed and emailed to all members of the state pediatric society. Providers chose their preferred management for acute otitis media, acute bacterial sinusitis, and community-acquired pneumonia. An \"answer key\" and a follow-up questionnaire were distributed to assess reevaluation of current practices. We received 173 completed surveys (15% response rate). While most responders followed guideline recommendations (6 of the 10 questions with ≥ 65% choosing recommended antibiotic), discrepancies existed in several cases. After receiving the answer key, respondents said they reviewed the guidelines (69%), adjusted their practice (26%), used cases for teaching (9%), and discussed guidelines with colleagues (21%).",
"yes. Finnish parents seek information from health care professionals and PILs when looking for information concerning their children's medication. Furthermore, they find health care professionals and PILs to be reliable information sources.",
"We determine whether practice patterns of pediatricians contribute to delays in diagnosing and treating adolescents with varicoceles. A survey consisting of 11 multiple-choice questions was mailed to 5,000 pediatricians selected by zip code in New York State. Zip codes were chosen to reflect urban, suburban and rural counties. A total of 544 of the 5000 (10.9%) surveys were returned, and 92 (16.9%) pediatricians acknowledged that they did not routinely perform physical examinations of the genitalia of adolescent males patients. Of 497 pediatricians who routinely or occasionally examine the genitalia 54 (10.9%) did not examine for the presence of varicoceles. When pediatricians were asked how they assess for the presence of varicoceles, 13 of 521 (2.5%) only used visual inspection, 50 (9.6%) only examined patients in the supine position and 379 (72.7%) of these pediatricians never used Valsalva maneuvers. Of 517 respondents 442 (85.5%) referred patients with varicoceles to a urologist for followup and 72 (13.9%) did no further evaluation. When asked to indicate what they thought was the greatest concern regarding the pediatric varicocele, 327 of 497 (65.0%) pediatricians indicated deterioration of future infertility, 120 (30.0%) indicated testicular growth retardation, 105 (24.2%) indicated pain and 18 (4.3%) indicated cosmesis.",
"In recent years, there has been a growth in the use of triage nurses to decrease general practitioner (GP) workloads and increase the efficiency of telephone triage. The actual safety of decisions made by triage nurses has not yet been assessed. To investigate whether triage nurses accurately estimate the urgency level of health complaints when using the national telephone guidelines, and to examine the relationship between the performance of triage nurses and their education and training. A cross-sectional, multicentre, observational study employing five mystery (simulated) patients who telephoned triage nurses in four GP cooperatives. The mystery patients played standardised roles. Each role had one of four urgency levels as determined by experts. The triage nurses called were asked to estimate the level of urgency after the contact. This level of urgency was compared with a gold standard. Triage nurses estimated the level of urgency of 69% of the 352 contacts correctly and underestimated the level of urgency of 19% of the contacts. The sensitivity and specificity of the urgency estimates provided by the triage nurses were found to be 0.76 and 0.95, respectively. The positive and negative predictive values of the urgency estimates were 0.83 and 0.93, respectively. A significant correlation was found between correct estimation of urgency and specific training on the use of the guidelines. The educational background (primary or secondary care) of the nurses had no significant relationship with the rate of underestimation.",
"This study is a qualitative analysis examining caregivers' expectations for pediatricians with regard to behavioral health care. Fifty-five parents/caregivers of children seen in an urban primary care clinic participated in semistructured interviews. Participants were parents or guardians of children between the ages of 2 and 17 years, referred from the pediatric clinic to the mental health center. Interviews were analyzed using grounded theory methods. Pertinent themes were the following: expected range of care, components of an effective primary care provider (PCP) relationship, action of the PCP, and parent reaction to PCP intervention. Forty-seven percent of caregivers saw the PCP role as strictly for physical health care; 53% expected the PCP to have a role in both physical and behavioral health. Responses were overwhelmingly positive from caregivers when the PCP asked about or conducted a behavioral health intervention.",
"Children with care for acute illness available through the Health-e-Access telemedicine model at childcare and schools were previously found to have 22% less emergency department (ED) use than counterparts without this service, but they also had 24% greater acute care use overall. We assessed the hypothesis that increased utilization reflected improved access among impoverished inner-city children to a level experienced by more affluent suburban children. This observational study compared utilization among children without and with telemedicine access, beginning in 1993, ending in 2007, and based on 84,287 child-months of billing claims-based observation. Health-e-Access Telemedicine was initiated in stepwise manner over 187 study-months among 74 access sites (childcare, schools, community centers), beginning in month 105. Children dwelled in inner city, rest-of-city Rochester, NY, or in surrounding suburbs. Rate of total acute care visits (office, ED, telemedicine) was measured as visits per 100 child-years. Observed utilization rates were adjusted in multivariate analysis for age, sex, insurance type, and season of year. When both suburban and inner-city children lacked telemedicine access, overall acute illness visits were 75% greater among suburban than inner-city children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 1.75, p < 0.0001). After telemedicine became available to inner-city children, their overall acute visits approximated those of suburban children (suburban:inner-city rate ratio 0.80, p = 0.07), whereas acute visits among suburban children remained at least (worst-case comparison) 56% greater than inner-city children without telemedicine (rate ratio 1.56, p < 0.0001).",
"To examine the level of involvement in pre-hospital care for children by faculty and fellows of teaching hospitals with a Pediatric Emergency Medicine (PEM) fellowship. In addition, we hypothesized that a divisional faculty member's involvement as principal investigator (PI) on an EMSC grant would not impact divisional involvement in on or off-line medical direction. Cross-sectional national survey. PEM fellowship directors. Self-administered questionnaire. Descriptive and Chi-square analysis to study null hypothesis. The response rate to the survey was 62% (53/85). Of the programs responding, 53 % provided on-line pediatric medical direction for pre-hospital providers, 77% were involved with paramedic education other than PALS, and 58% of systems had pediatric specific protocols. In 87 % of the programs, a designated faculty member functioned as an EMSC liaison. A division faculty member was or had been the PI on an EMSC grant in 18 programs (34%). There was no significant difference in the provision of on or off-line medical direction comparing programs with or without involvement in an EMSC grant. Only 34% of the responding program directors felt that the current level of exposure to EMS was adequate for PEM fellow training.",
"yes. As indicated by their humoral stress responses, the medical encounter was stressful for the parents. Pediatricians' affective communication modulated this stress response in that more supportive communication was related to smaller cortisol increases.",
"To assess agreement between the advice to symptomatic callers to Healthline, and that advised by primary care doctors given the same clinical information, and thus to assess the safety of Healthline advice. Ninety records of symptomatic calls to Healthline were examined by three primary care specialists, blinded to the actual advice given. They independently recorded what they would have advised, and their advice was compared with that actually given by the Healthline nurse guided by Care Enhance Call Centre software. Variation among the three doctors was greater than that between the median doctor and Healthline. In 82% of cases, the median doctor triaged to an endpoint close to (or lower than) Healthline. In all but one of the remainder, at least one doctor thought there was no risk to the patient (i.e. in 99% of cases). Review of that case indicated nurse error and the guideline itself was judged to be safe.",
"To assess whether use of a parent questionnaire, the Child Development Review (CDR), before health maintenance examinations (HMEs) increases parent identification and increases resident discussion and documentation of behavioral issues for toddler and preschool-aged children. Quasi-experimental design using convenience samples with comparisons before and after questionnaire implementation. Children 15 to 47 months of age and their parents attending a hospital-based, primary care clinic serving a low-income population, and the residents caring for them. Participants were enrolled into early control, concurrent control, and intervention groups. All parents completed an exit interview about 9 behavioral issues and were asked if they had discussed these issues with the doctor. Before the visit, the intervention group parents completed the CDR, which was available for the residents to review. Information from the CDR and exit interview, and resident documentation were compared for control and intervention groups. There were 122 intervention and 135 control group HMEs. Parents using the CDR identified more behavioral issues for their children at the exit interview (median, 2.0 vs 1.0, P =.01). The 6 issues on both the CDR and the exit interview accounted for this increase. Intervention group parents reported discussion of more behavioral issues (median, 2.0 vs 0.0, P <.001). Discussion increased for all issues. Documentation was not increased for the intervention group.",
"To describe the experience of a U.S. emergency medical services (EMS) agency utilizing a dispatch algorithm to identify low-acuity patients and determine whether secondary telephone triage by a nurse was associated with subsequent hospital admission among those patients. This was a retrospective study of all patients meeting the low-acuity Omega classification by the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS) in a large urban EMS system, conducted in two phases. Patients were excluded from the study if a refusal for transport was obtained, the call was received from a third-party caller, the MPDS system was not used, the patient was being referred from a skilled nursing facility, school, or university nursing office or physician's office, or if the call was referred to the Carolina Poison Center. Patients were enrolled over two phases using two different versions of the MPDS protocol, and in phase 2 patients were offered the option of speaking with an advice-line nurse. The outcome of interest was emergency department disposition, classified as hospital admission or discharge home. Admission to an intensive care unit (ICU) bed was also collected as a subcategory of hospital admission. Of the 1,862 patients in phase 1, 69.3% were discharged home from the emergency department, whereas in phase 2, 73.0% of the 1,078 patients were discharged home. Individuals were most frequently admitted to the hospital across both phases if they had a dispatch determinant of pregnancy, psychiatric/behavioral, fall, sick person. Hospital admission was also associated with receiving an EMS or emergency department procedure. There were 530 patients in phase 2 who underwent secondary triage by an advice-line nurse. Among this cohort of patients, 134 (25.3%) required subsequent hospital admission, with a further three (2.2%) requiring an ICU admission.",
"yes. Telephone training provided by a special education professional appears effective in prelingually deafened children with a CI. Home training provided by parents is less effective, but helps maintain the skills acquired in the professional telephone training.",
"Almost 9 in 10 pediatric residents have a mentor who provides career advice. Although multiple factors shape decisions about careers, mentor specialty is one factor that might encourage residents to pursue fellowship training.",
"yes. Most phone calls originated from a minority of patients. Repeated calling by the same patient and new onset of gastrointestinal (GI) and non-GI symptoms were important factors predicting the order of diagnostic modalities or therapeutic changes in care. Triaging calls to IBD healthcare providers for patients more likely to require a change in management may improve healthcare delivery.",
"To evaluate the impact of a dedicated, free-floating, pediatric-targeted care delivery model on emergency department (ED) waiting times, parent satisfaction, and transition of care. A prospective, observational study was conducted between July 16 and August 12, 2007. It incorporated a before-and-after design with a 2-week preintervention and a 2-week intervention group. In the intervention period, the pediatric ED initiative (PEDI) team was introduced, which consisted of a free-floating doctor and nurse equipped to see pediatric patients. Consenting patients/parents were followed up by telephone 7 to 14 days after discharge regarding satisfaction and waiting times. Four hundred fifty-three pediatric presentations (216 in the preintervention group and 237 in the intervention group) were analyzed, of which the PEDI team treated 81 pediatric patients during the intervention period. The intervention group had a significantly shorter length of stay in the ED (158 vs 194 minutes; P = 0.01). However, there was no difference in time to be seen by a doctor (80 vs 78 minutes; P = 0.54). Satisfaction of the total study group was significantly related to staff attitude and understanding of the wait.",
"To examine the relationships among physician-parent communication practices, physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotic treatment, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral upper respiratory tract infections. Cross-sectional study of pediatric encounters motivated by cold symptoms between October 1, 2000, and June 30, 2001. Each encounter was videotaped. Physicians completed a postvisit survey that measured whether they perceived the parent as expecting antibiotics. Coded communication variables were merged with survey variables. Multivariate analyses identified key predictors of parent-physician communication practices, physician perceptions of parents' expectations for antibiotics, and inappropriate antibiotic prescribing for viral conditions. Twenty-seven pediatric practices in Los Angeles, Calif. Thirty-eight pediatricians and 522 consecutively approached parents of children with cold symptoms. Physicians' perceptions of parental expectations for antibiotics, inappropriate antibiotic prescribing, and parental questioning of nonantibiotic treatments. Physicians were 20.2% more likely to perceive parents as expecting antibiotics when they questioned the physician's treatment plan (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 6.3%-34.0%). When physicians perceived parents as expecting antibiotics, they were 31.7% more likely to inappropriately prescribe them (P<.001; 95% confidence interval, 16.0%-47.3%). Parents were 24.0% more likely to question the treatment plan when the physician ruled out the need for antibiotics (P = .004; 95% confidence interval, 7.7%-40.3%).",
"Telephone triage by triage nurses is efficient but possibly not safe, with potentially severe consequences for the patient. An educational programme for triage nurses is recommended. Also, a direct second safety check of all cases by a specially trained GP telephone doctor is advisable.",
"To determine the preference of primary care physicians for computer-generated vs dictated discharge summaries from a neonatal intensive care unit. Survey mailed to primary care physicians. Regional referral area of a level III neonatal intensive care unit. Pediatricians and family medicine physicians caring for infants discharged from the neonatal intensive care unit. Of 58 questionnaires sent, 45 (78%) were returned. Overall, 33 physicians (73%) either strongly or mildly preferred the computer-generated discharge summary; eight (18%) had no preference; and four (9%) preferred the dictated discharge summary (P<.001). The category of strongest preference was relevance of information for continued patient care. Preference for type of discharge summary was not significantly influenced by time in practice, type of practice, preference to read or scan summaries, or frequency of computer use.",
"To assess the accuracy of residents' record review, using trained abstractors as a gold standard comparison. In 2005, the authors asked 74 residents to review their own charts (n = 392) after they received brief instruction on both how to locate data on the medical record and how to use a data abstraction form. Trained abstractors then re-reviewed these charts to assess performance of preventive health care measures in medicine (smoking screening, smoking cessation advice, mammography, colon cancer screening, lipid screening, and pneumonia vaccination) and pediatrics (parent smoking screening, parent smoking cessation advice, car seat safety, car restraint use, eye alignment, and immunizations up to date). The authors then quantified agreement between the two record reviews and assessed the sensitivity and specificity of the residents versus the trained abstractors. Overall resident-measured performance was similar (within 5%) to that of the trained abstractor for five of six measures in medicine and four of six in pediatrics. For the various measures, sensitivity of resident-measured performance ranged from 100% to 15% and specificity from 100% to 33% compared with the trained abstractors. Relative to the trained abstractor record review, residents did not overestimate their performance. Most residents' (81%) relative performance rankings did not change when the basis for the ranking was resident measured versus trained abstractor measured.",
"If an after-hours line is used by caregivers, they are more likely to follow the recommendations given by pediatric residents in a tertiary center.",
"Prospective multicenter study in thirteen paediatric emergency departments. The parents and doctors completed questionnaires based on closed-ended questions with a common core of four items: reasons of hospitalization, diagnosis, treatment and seriousness of child condition. We evaluated concordance between parents and doctor answers for these items by comparing their responses. This study included 380 parents. Percentage of concordance was 55% for the reason of hospitalization, 78% for the diagnosis, 92% for the treatment, 48% for the seriousness of the condition and 19% for all four items. The mean number of concordant items was 2.76 (CI 95%, 2.66-2.86). Parents whose children seemed not in pain and parents who received additional information from the nurse showed significantly slightly higher levels of concordance with doctor's answers (2.98 vs 2.66, p = 0.006 and 2.89 vs 2.60, p = 0.004, respectively).",
"The purpose of this study was to assess whether referral to a pediatric emergency department (PED) by a primary care provider was associated with greater severity of illness, as determined on the basis of clinical measures and increased resource utilization. A retrospective study of data for 121 088 children who presented to a PED with abdominal pain, fever, or respiratory complaints during a 5-year period was performed. Demographic data, referral status, and proxy markers of illness severity were collected from the medical records and analyzed. A total of 26.3% of all patients seen in the PED presented with these 3 complaint categories. With adjustment for age, gender, race, and insurance class, referred patients were significantly more likely to have high triage acuity designations, higher rates of very abnormal vital signs, and higher admission rates, compared with patients who were self-referred. Referred patients were more likely to undergo testing (laboratory or radiologic), to receive intravenous fluid therapy and pain medications, and to be assigned higher-severity discharge diagnoses, such as appendicitis, septic shock, or status asthmaticus.",
"Clinical questions frequently arise during the practice of medicine, and primary care physicians frequently use curbside consultations with specialty physicians to answer these questions. It is hypothesized that well-formulated clinical questions are more likely to be answered and less likely to receive a recommendation for formal consultation. To assess the relationship between the structure of clinical questions asked by family physicians and the response of specialty physicians engaged in curbside consultations. A case series of clinical questions asked during informal consultations between 60 primary care and 33 specialty physicians using an e-mail service. Curbside consultation questions were sent, using e-mail, to academic specialty physicians by primary care physicians (faculty, residents, and community practitioners) in eastern Iowa. Questions were analyzed to determine the clinical task and to identify 3 components: an intervention, a comparison, and an outcome. Consultants' responses were analyzed to identify whether questions were answered and whether consultants recommended formal consultation. There were 708 questions in this analysis: 278 (39.3%) were diagnosis questions, 334 (47.2%) were management questions, 57 (8.0%) were prognosis questions, and 39 (5.5%) were requests for direction. Clinical questions were less likely to go unanswered or receive a recommendation for formal consultation when the question identified the proposed intervention (odds ratio, 0.54; 95% confidence interval, 0.34-0.86; P = .006) and desired outcome (odds ratio, 0.46; 95% confidence interval, 0.29-0.69; P<.001). Only 271 (38.3%) of 708 curbside consult questions identified both of these components.",
"To compare asthma treatment decisions by pediatric residents to current asthma guidelines and to learn whether treatment decisions vary by postgraduate year in training. We conducted a Web-based survey of residents from 10 training programs through the Continuity Research Network of the Academic Pediatric Association (CORNET). Surveys included 6 vignettes of patients receiving low-dose inhaled steroids with guideline- and non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status and 1 stable patient on high-intensity medication. There were 369 resident respondents (65% response rate), 26% postgraduate year (PGY) 1, 38% PGY2, and 36% PGY3+. Seventy-five percent of each resident group reported seeing fewer than 1 asthma patient per continuity clinic session. A majority of residents made appropriate treatment recommendations in 2 of 4 vignettes of guideline-based indicators of asthma status: first, 97% overall stepping up treatment for mild persistent asthma; and second, 52% overall stepping down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma on high-intensity medications. Inconsistent with guideline recommendations, 82% of residents overall did not step down treatment for a patient with well-controlled asthma receiving low-intensity therapy; 75% of residents did not step up treatment for a patient with a recent hospitalization for asthma. Of the 3 vignettes evaluating non-guideline-based indicators of asthma status, a majority of residents (60%) stepped up treatment for parental reports of worse asthma, while a minority did so for a parental report of being bothered by their child's asthma (27%) or when wheezing was reported at physical examination (43%). There were no statistically significant differences for any of the comparisons by year in training.",
"The debate continues as to what constitutes an adequate postnatal follow-up after an early hospital discharge. The main objective of this study was to determine whether the type and timing of postnatal services were associated with mothers' and newborns' health, breastfeeding duration, and maternal assessment of the delay and usefulness of the services they received after discharge. A telephone survey was conducted one month after a vaginal, uncomplicated delivery by 2,583 mothers who had given birth in five health regions of the Province of Québec, between 1999 and 2003. The response rate to the survey was 72.1%. Virtually all the newborns (98.1%) had at least one routine contact with a health professional after discharge. Within 72 hours of discharge, 26.0% of the mothers received only a telephone call, 44.3% were visited by a public health nurse, 11.1% of the babies were examined by a physician and 49.5% were examined by a nurse or a physician. Newborns who had a first contact with a health professional within 72 hours of hospital discharge were less likely to have been readmitted to the hospital (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.45; 95% CI 0.21-0.97), while their mothers were less likely to have signs of moderate to severe depression at one month postpartum (adjusted Odds Ratio 0.60; 95% CI 0.45-0.79). The sooner the telephone call and the home visit were received the more likely the women were to have found that the services were useful.",
"To evaluate the quality of pediatric primary care, including preventive services, before and after the introduction of an electronic medical record (EMR) developed for use in an urban pediatric primary care center. A pre-postintervention analysis was used in the study. The intervention was a pediatric EMR. Routine health care maintenance visits for children <5 years old were reviewed, and documentation during preintervention (paper-based, 1998) and postintervention visits (computer-based, 2000) was compared. A total of 235 paper-based visits and 986 computer-based visits met study criteria. Twelve clinicians (all attendings or nurse practitioners) contributed an average of 19.4 paper-based visits (range: 5-39) and 7 of these clinicians contributed an average of 141 computer-based visits each (range: 61-213). Computer-based clinicians were significantly more likely to address a variety of routine health care maintenance topics including: diet (relative risk [RR]: 1.09), sleep (RR: 1.46), at least 1 psychosocial issue (RR: 1.42), smoking in the home (RR: 15.68), lead risk assessment (RR: 106.54), exposure to domestic or community violence (RR: 35.19), guns in the home (RR: 58.11), behavioral or social developmental milestones (RR: 2.49), infant sleep position (RR: 9.29), breastfeeding (RR: 1.99), poison control (RR: 3.82), and child safety (RR: 1.29). Trends toward improved lead exposure, vision, and hearing screening were seen; however, differences were not significant. Users of the system reported that its use had improved the overall quality of care delivered, was well-accepted by families, and improved guidance quality; however, 5 of 7 users reported that eye-to-eye contact with patients was reduced, and 4 of 7 reported that use of the system increased the duration of visits (mean: 9.3 minutes longer). All users recommended continued use of the system.",
"Overall, parental understanding of ED discharge instructions is good. However, there remains a considerable number (about 20%) who fail to fully comprehend the diagnosis or treatment directives. This subset might benefit from the use of lay terminology by the staff, institution of a special discharge nurse, or use of diagnosis-specific information sheets.",
"We wanted to discover how parents differ from physicians in making decisions about how to treat a child who may have acute otitis media (AOM). We used questionnaires that required participants to judge the probability of AOM or choose treatment for 2 sets of 46 paper scenarios of hypothetical children aged 15 months who might have AOM, and they subsequently rated the importance of individual cues and described their attitudes and opinions related to health care and AOM. Convenience samples of 19 US family physicians, 35 French generalists, 21 French pediatricians, 52 US parents, and 86 French parents were included. The primary outcomes were the judgment policies-the weights placed on each of the scenario cues when making decisions-that were derived for each individual and each group by multiple linear regression. The mean judged probabilities of AOM were nearly the same for all groups: 50% for the US physicians, 51% for the US parents, 52.5% for the French physicians, and 52% for the French parents. The percentages of cases treated with antibiotics did not differ: 53% for US physicians, 45% for US parents, 53% for French physicians, and 51% for French parents. All groups gave greatest weight to the physical examination cues for decisions about both diagnosis and treatment. The parents paid little attention to the cues that reflected parental concerns.",
"To evaluate the quality of objective information obtained during telephone requests for the transport of pediatric patients. To evaluate the ability of subjective judgment, the Pediatric Risk of Mortality (PRISM) score, and the presence of tachycardia for age to predict the need for a physician on as a member of the pediatric transport team. Prospective data collection. The pediatric transport program of a children's hospital. All 129 infants and children transported over a 4-month period. We defined an objective measure of the need for a physician's presence during the transport of a pediatric patient, based on either the necessity for procedural or medical interventions during the time of transport or on direct admission to the pediatric ICU after transport. At the time of initial telephone contact, a physician's subjective opinion of the need for physician presence was recorded, a PRISM score was derived, and the presence of tachycardia (adjusted for age) was determined. Subsequently, the vital signs recorded on the record of this request were compared with those vital signs charted at the referring hospital at the time of the initial telephone request. A total of 96% of vital signs obtained during the initial telephone contact were consistent with those percentages in the referring hospital medical records. Fifty (39%) of 129 transported patients required procedural or medical interventions or pediatric ICU admission. Subjective judgments predicted physician need with a high sensitivity (0.98), but with a low specificity (0.18). PRISM score predicted 62 (48%) of 129 transports to be \"physician-required\" (sensitivity = 0.72; specificity = 0.67). There was no statistical association between tachycardia for age and the objective need for a physician's presence.",
"To evaluate the affect of families' attitudes about the appropriateness of discussing psychosocial concerns on pediatric providers' identification of psychosocial problems. These data were collected as part of the Greater New Haven Child Health Study, New Haven, Conn. The study design was a prospective cohort. Families were recruited from a stratified random sample of all primary care practices in the greater New Haven area. Nineteen of 23 invited practices agreed to participate including 2 prepaid practices, 2 neighborhood health centers, and 7 fee-for-service group and 8 fee-for-service solo practices. All families of children aged 4 to 8 years who attended these practices during 2 separate 3-week periods (1 in fall 1987 and 1 in spring 1988) were invited to participate in the study. Families were invited to participate only once, on the first contact with any eligible child, using approved procedures. Of 2006 eligible families, 1886 (94%) chose to participate. The outcome variable for these analyses is the identification of any behavioral, emotional, or developmental problem by the pediatrician on the 13-category checklist. Overall, pediatric clinicians identified 27.5% of children with 1 or more psychosocial problems. Our data suggest that there is a great deal of discrepancy between what parents report is appropriate to do when their children have psychosocial problems and what they actually do when they recognize such problems in their children. Most (81.1%) believed it was appropriate to discuss 4 or more of the 6 hypothetical situations with their children's physician, while only 40.9% actually did discuss any of these problems with a physician when a problem occurred. Given the correlates of parents who intended to discuss such problems (higher education, older age, Euro-American ethnicity, higher income, married, availability of medical insurance) the possibility that parents are providing socially acceptable responses to such questions seems likely. Further, our data indicate that parents' actual reports of discussions of psychosocial problems is unrelated to whether physicians identified those problems in children.",
"The planned clinical activity of pediatric urologists has been well described. However, little is known about nonscheduled work (eg consultation requests). We describe the unplanned clinical activity of pediatric urologists at a high volume academic medical center. Demographic data regarding inpatient, operating room and emergency department pediatric urology consults were prospectively entered into an internal database. Consults from July 2008 through June 2010 underwent retrospective chart abstraction to identify reasons for consultation. Bivariate and multivariate statistics were used to evaluate 1) temporal trends in unplanned clinical activity, and 2) patient and service specific factors associated with whether a consult was billable (ie seen by attending physician within 24 hours). During the study period 665 pediatric consults were obtained. Mean ± SD patient age was 8.4 ± 7.7 years. Nearly all consults were seen at the emergency department (51%) or the inpatient wards (47%). The most common primary diagnoses were infection, obstruction/hydronephrosis and neurogenic bladder. The number of consults per month decreased during the course of the academic year (r(2) = 0.1422). Nearly three fourths of consults were eligible for billing. The factors associated with consult eligibility for billing included specific attending physician (p = 0.03), location (p <0.0001) and house officer experience (p = 0.007).",
"117 parents/guardians (90%) used the Internet to search for information on the disease and surgical treatment of the children. Only 12 parents/guardians (10%) discussed the information with the physician assigned to perform the surgical procedure. 91 parents/guardians (78%) said that the information had impact upon the decision to have surgery performed on their children.",
"To establish the safety and effectiveness of nurse-led triage of otolaryngology out-patient referrals. One hundred consecutive general practitioner referrals were reviewed by two consultants, two specialist registrars, two foundation year two senior house officers and two otolaryngology nurses. One of the nurses had received triage training. All referrals were triaged as 'urgent', 'soon' or 'routine' by each rater. The triage-trained nurse's results demonstrated good agreement with those of the senior consultant (80 per cent). This agreement was similar to that with the other consultant (77 per cent) and the specialist registrars (79 and 82 per cent). Weighted kappa statistics (correcting for chance agreement) showed that the triage-trained nurse had the second closest agreement to the senior consultant (0.66). After the actual out-patient appointments, retrospective review of the patients' case notes revealed that none had been triaged inappropriately by the trained nurse, and no urgent cases had been missed.",
"To investigate whether the medical interview in the pediatric context generates a stressful response in parents in form of heightened cortisol activity, and whether pediatricians' empathetic communication is able to attenuate this stress response. 68 parents were recruited at pediatric out-patient and in-patient consultations. Salivary samples were collected between 60 and 30min prior to the consultation, shortly before the consultation, 20min as well as 45min after the consultation. 19 pediatricians participated in the study and effectuated the medical visit as usual. We videotaped the consultations and coded pediatricians' affective communication using the RIAS and the Four Habits Coding Scheme. Parents' cortisol increased during the medical visit with a peak at 20min after the medical encounter. Furthermore, multilevel analysis revealed a lesser increase in parents' cortisol response associated with pediatricians' levels in supportive communication behaviors.",
"yes. These results highlight the enhanced clinical effectiveness of not just recommending the quitline to parents but also offering them enrollment in the quitline at the time of their child's visit to the pediatric office.",
"In this single-site study, children referred from outside EDs with lower pediatric volumes and staffed by nonpediatricians were more likely to be discharged from a children's hospital ED after transport. These transports may represent unnecessary resource use. Outreach education, shared staffing models, and telemedicine are potential methods to address unnecessary transfers.",
"A majority of general pediatricians believe that an established diagnosis is important when considering EI referral. This perception is associated with decreased reported referral for children with speech delay and those whose parents express concern for inappropriate development.",
"In addition to the assessment and the management of patients with skin diseases, a considerable portion of dermatology residency involves examining clinical images and generating differential diagnoses from these images. This training, though helpful for recognizing manifestations of rare disorders, goes unused by most practicing dermatologists after certification. In contrast, dermatology residents learn and master verbal descriptions of skin diseases and continue to use this skill throughout their careers. However, problems arise when a dermatologist is not available and a non-dermatologist attempts to verbally describe a skin condition. An accurate description of a cutaneous disorder can facilitate effective triage management of a patient when a dermatologist is not available. Unfortunately, an inaccurate description by the referring provider can lead to diagnostic bias and ineffective, or even harmful, initial treatment. In recent years, digital photography has facilitated the electronic transfer of clinical images over distances. However, despite the promise that this technique shows in providing teledermatologic services to specialty-underserved areas and the availability of low-cost digital cameras, telephone consultation is still the standard of care when a dermatologist is not available. The purpose of this study is to compare the reliability of dermatologic consultations that use the telephone with that of dermatologic consultations that use both the telephone and digital images. After patient approval, an acute care provider randomly assigned patients with skin disorders of unclear etiology to two groups, with and without digital images. The acute care provider then performed an exam and took the patient's history. Telephone data, with or without digital images, were then presented to the consulting dermatologist, who formulated a pre-physical exam differential diagnosis and treatment plan. The consulting dermatologist immediately examined the patient in person and refined the diagnosis and management. The confidence in diagnosis, both before and after the in-person exam, was compared in the patient group with digital images and in the patient group without digital images using a five-point scale (1 = no confidence, 5 = most confident).",
"To determine the willingness of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department to have a physician assistant (PA) assess and treat their child and the waiting time reduction sufficient for them to choose to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. After describing the training and scope of practice of PAs, we asked caregivers of children triaged as urgent to nonurgent if they would be willing to have their child assessed and treated by a PA on that visit: definitely, maybe, or never. We also asked the minimum amount of waiting time reduction they would want to see before choosing to receive treatment by a PA rather than wait for a physician. We approached 320 eligible subjects, and 273 (85.3%) consented to participate. Regarding whether they would be willing to have their child receive treatment by a PA, 140 (51.3%) respondents answered definitely, 107 (39.2%) said maybe, and 26 (9.2%) said never. Most respondents (64.1%) would choose to have their child seen by a PA instead of waiting for a physician if the waiting time reduction were at least 60 minutes (median 60 minutes [interquartile range 60 minutes]). Respondents' perception of the severity of their child's condition was associated with unwillingness to receive treatment by a PA, whereas child's age, presenting complaint, and actual waiting time were not.",
"To evaluate the relative accuracy of physicians, nurses, and parents in estimating the weight of children presenting to the emergency department. One hundred pediatric patients between the ages of 0 and 8 years presenting to an urban teaching emergency department (40,000 patients per year) were enrolled over a 1-month period (September 1996). The parents, triage nurse, and examining physician were asked to estimate the patient's weight, each blinded to the others' estimates and the child's actual weight. Parents, nurses, and physicians all slightly underestimated patient weights (P < 0 .05), but these groups did not differ among themselves (P > 0 .05). The total range of estimates was broad in each group (parents +292% to -41%, nurses +30% to -36%, and physicians +43% to -56%). There was no significant relationship between estimates with regard to age, weight, or sex. Twenty-nine percent of physicians' estimates, 40% of nurses' estimates, and 16% of parents' estimates differed from the actual weight by more than 15%.",
"yes. Only a small minority of parents of children visiting a pediatric emergency department for urgent to nonurgent issues are unwilling to have their child treated by PAs.",
"We concluded that first-year pediatric residents have inadequate skills in the delivery of bad news. In addition, our data suggest that higher EI alone is not sufficient to effectively deliver death news and more robust skill training is necessary for residents to gain competence and acquire mastery in this important communication domain.",
"Before seeing a pediatrician, parents often look online to obtain child health information. We aimed to determine the influence of IUC (internet use regarding the reason for consultation) on their subjective information level, their assessment of acute diseases and the change in this assessment. Secondary objectives were to identify the most commonly used online resources and factors with an influence on IUC. This cross-sectional observational study was conducted at a general pediatric outpatient clinic located in Vienna, Austria. An anonymous, voluntary and 14-items-containing questionnaire served to gather all data. A total number of 500 questionnaires were collected. Of the parents attending the outpatient clinic, 21 % use the internet before the appointment (= IUC). Most common online resources utilized for this purpose are websites run by doctors (61.3 %), the outpatient clinic's homepage (56.3 %), Google (40 %), Wikipedia (32.5 %), health advisory services provided by doctors (28.7 %), health portals (21.3 %) and health forums and communities (18.8 %). The information level in terms of the reason for consultation is rated as good by 50.6 %, as average by 46.7 % and as insufficient by 2.7 % (internet users: 42.7 %, 55.3 %, 1.9 %). Acute diseases of the children are estimated to be mild by 58.4 %, to be moderate by 41.1 % and to be severe by 0.5 % (internet users: 54.9 %, 45.1 %, 0 %). After having used any source of information, this assessment is unchanged in 82.8 %, acute diseases are rated as more severe in 13.8 % and as less severe in 3.4 % (internet users: 79.2 %, 16.7 %, 4.2 %). Internet users and non-users do not differ with respect to their information level (p = 0.178), the assessment of acute diseases (p = 0.691) and the change in this assessment (p = 0.999). A higher education level of parents (mothers: p = 0.025, fathers: p = 0.037), a young age of their children (p = 0.012) and acute diseases of their children (p = 0.046) predispose to IUC.",
"To evaluate the Flexible Option (FO), a residency training schedule offered by the University of California, San Francisco, Pediatric Residency Program. In 2002, structured telephone interviews were conducted with residents who participated in the FO between 1992 and 2002. Twenty-four of the 284 pediatrics residents during this time participated in the FO. Descriptive interview data were analyzed. A Web-based questionnaire was sent to 72 regularly scheduled (RS) residents at the end of 2001-02. FO and RS residents' specialty board performances were compared. Twenty-one FO residents participated in the telephone interviews. The majority reported that the FO was critical to their success as residents. Most requested the FO for personal and family reasons; over 40% would otherwise have requested leaves from the residency. The most common perceived disadvantages were delay in graduation and financial concerns. Forty-two RS residents completed the online questionnaire. Seventeen percent considered the FO an important factor in program selection; 43% had considered participating in the FO. Seventy-nine percent felt that the FO had a positive effect on the general morale of the program. RS residents perceived that the FO increased workload (43%) and created scheduling problems (52%). However, 88% of RS residents encouraged the program to continue offering the FO. Specialty board scores were similar across FO and RS residents.",
"The aim of this study was to document the experience and patient satisfaction with providing pediatric surgery consultations and follow-up appointments to remote locations via audiovisual telecommunications technology. From January 2000 to April 2001, 16 consecutive pediatric general surgery clinics were reviewed for the type of patient (new or review), the diagnosis, the adequacy and accuracy of the evaluation, and the ability to formulate a plan. In the first year, first-time users were requested to complete a satisfaction survey of 15 questions. Responses to 13 questions were recorded on a 4-point Likert scale, and 2 questions required a \"yes\" or \"no\" response. One hundred eighteen appointments were scheduled. Twenty patients did not show up or cancelled. There were 45 new patient consultations. Thirty-three patients were scheduled for surgery, of which, 21 are completed, and 12 are pending. There were no errors in diagnosis or changes in planned procedures. There were 42 patients seen in 53 follow-up sessions. Thirty-six surveys of a possible 53 were available for analysis. The mean rating of overall treatment experience at Telehealth was 3.47 (95% confidence interval 0.17). One hundred percent responded they would use Telehealth again and would recommend it to another person.",
"The Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) has established communication as a core competency for physicians in training. However, data suggest that most pediatric residents perceive inadequate training in the delivery of bad news and the majority of former trainees in pediatric oncology received no formal training in the delivery of bad news during fellowship. The study examines communication training in ACGME accredited US pediatric hematology-oncology (PHO) fellowship programs. An online survey was distributed to 315 PHO fellows in training via the American Society of Pediatric Hematology/Oncology (ASPHO) fellow email registry. Each fellow received an initial request to participate and 2 reminders, while participation was encouraged through a random incentive drawing. One hundred and ten fellows (35%) responded. Eighty percent of respondents perceived communication training to be important to fellow education, however only 32% reported receiving communication training (other than direct observation). The most common reported teaching method of fellowship communication training was formal lecture (42%). Twenty-three percent of respondents reported neither communication training nor frequent feedback on their communication skills from faculty observation. This same group was the least satisfied with their programs' approach to teaching communication (P<0.001).",
"We determined parent recall and perceived usefulness of drowning prevention messages included in routine computer-generated discharge instructions. All pediatric emergency department patients' computerized discharge instructions included 3 prevention messages: wear a life vest, swim in safe areas, and do not drink alcohol while swimming or boating. Parents were telephoned 1 to 2 weeks after the visit and asked to recall the prevention messages and rate the usefulness of the instructions. Responses were linked with patient characteristics and ED visit variables (day and time of visit, duration of ED visit, severity of condition, diagnostic category, number of tests, and treatments). Of 914 parents who were contacted, 795 were eligible. Of those, 619 (78%) completed the interview. Fifty percent of parents recalled receiving drowning prevention information; of these, 41% recalled unaided the life vest messages and 35% of 155 parents who did not own a life vest stated they would subsequently consider buying their child a life vest. Most (88%) rated the prevention information useful or very useful. No patient or visit variables were associated with usefulness ratings.",
"Telemedicine options for symptom assessment include both telephonic means (call centers) and Internet sites. Although symptom assessment call centers have been available for decades, symptom assessment over the Internet is relatively new. It is not well known what types of symptoms Internet users are seeking assessment for and whether extant telephone triage algorithms would be applicable to Internet users. Symptom assessments on a heavily used Internet site (MayoClinic.com) were compared with symptom calls to a U.S. call center (Ask Mayo Clinic). Internet users sought symptom assessments about adult symptoms 13 times more often than children's symptoms. In contrast, over the telephone, adult symptoms were addressed 2.1 times more frequently than children's symptoms. Despite the differences in frequencies of adult and child symptom assessments, users of the Internet and telephone callers asked about specific symptoms with similar relative frequencies. Analysis of 20 adult symptom types shared by the Web and call center revealed that by excluding only 2 assessments (nasal symptoms and leg pain) the remaining 18 showed a significant correlation in counts of use (r(2) = 0.68, p<0.001 for linear trend).",
"Surveys of residency graduates and employers have suggested that residency programs do not prepare residents well for practice. Since 1988, pediatric residents at the University of Massachusetts have been paired one-on-one with an office-based pediatrician for their 3-year continuity experience. This survey was conducted to determine if graduates of such a program are prepared to enter pediatric practice. Graduates of the program from 1991 through 1995 who entered primary care practice were surveyed about their preparedness for practice. The questionnaire was also sent to the residents' first employers. The 32 questions were directed to overall sense of preparedness, ability to manage the pace of practice, common illnesses, common behavior problems, anticipatory guidance, office management, and subspecialty problems. Data from all 25 residents who entered practice and the employers of 20 of the 25 residents were obtained and analyzed. Both groups rated overall resident preparedness to be \"well-prepared\" or \"very well-prepared\" and gave high scores on working at the pace of practice, diagnosing and treating common illnesses, diagnosing and treating common behavior problems, and providing anticipatory guidance. Areas in which residents were considered to be less well-prepared included anticipatory guidance about nutrition, managing problems by telephone, office management, gynecology, and orthopedics.",
"A computerized kiosk based in a pediatric ED can help screen families for their injury risk. However, to elicit significant behavior change, an IPS discussing safety changes may be more effective.",
"The purpose of this study was to measure the effect of distractions, in the form of telephone call interruptions, on radiology resident diagnostic accuracy. Radiology resident discrepancy reports and reading room telephone logs at an academic tertiary care pediatric hospital were collected over a 13-month period. Phone call times and durations were recorded. Major discrepancy shifts (defined as a call shift where at least one major discrepancy was discovered the following morning by the attending radiologist between the resident preliminary and attending final reports), and dictation time stamps for each discrepant preliminary dictation were also recorded. Telephone call volume and preliminary report time stamps were compared between \"discrepancy shifts\" and \"no discrepancy shifts.\" Each call shift spanned 14 hours, during which one radiology resident was responsible for the generation of preliminary interpretations. Review of the discrepancy log data revealed 51 major discrepancies in 41 shifts, of which 39 discrepancies had documented error details and resident preliminary report time stamps. The average number of telephone calls for the \"discrepancy shifts\" was slightly greater than the \"no discrepancy shifts\" (48.59 vs. 44.02) but was not statistically significant (P = .0575). However, there was a statistically significant increase in the average number of phone calls in the 1 hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report versus the \"no discrepancy shifts\" (4.23 vs. 3.24 calls, P = .027). One additional phone call during the hour preceding the generation of a discrepant preliminary report resulted in a 12% increased likelihood of a resident error (P = .017).",
"The aim of this study was to compare parental perception of quality of care provided by first- versus third-year pediatric residents who served as their children's primary care providers. The Parents' Perception of Primary Care (P3C) survey was administered to all parents who identified a pediatric resident as a primary care provider at 19 Continuity Research Network (CORNET) sites. Parent survey scores were compared between those identifying first-year pediatric residents (PL-1) versus third-year pediatric residents (PL-3) as care providers by using t tests and linear regression modeling, as well as item-specific chi-square analysis and logistic regression. Comparing the responses of the 347 parents who identified a PL-3 resident and the 360 parents who identified a PL-1 resident as their child's primary care provider, those who identified a PL-3 resident rated their childrens overall care higher, with a mean score of 79.2 (95% confidence interval [95% CI] 77.5-80.8) as compared to 75.9 (95% CI 74.4-77.3); P<.05. This disparity was primarily due to differences in the longitudinal continuity domain. Comparisons of the other domains of communication, comprehensiveness, access, contextual knowledge, and coordination showed no statistically significant differences between the 2 groups. Parents rated PL-3 residents as having greater knowledge in behavioral counseling and coordination with schools than PL-1 residents.",
"To determine whether family members interfere with patient care when present during invasive procedures performed on their children in the ED. A prospective observational study of consecutive cases of procedural sedation of children aged between 12 months and 16 years was conducted between March 2002 and March 2006 in the ED of a secondary-level regional hospital in south-east Queensland. Procedures performed included laceration repair, fracture reduction, foreign body removal and abscess incision and drainage. Parents/primary caregivers were encouraged to stay with their child. A stepwise explanation of the procedure and sedation to be used was undertaken, informed consent obtained and telephone follow up attempted 5-14 days post procedure. Six hundred and fifty-two patient encounters with parents or primary caregivers present for the procedure were included for a total of 656 procedures: 234 laceration repairs, 250 fracture reductions, 85 foreign body removals, 33 abscess incision and drainages, 14 dislocation reductions and 40 other procedures. Telephone follow up was successful in 65% (424) of cases. The mean age was 6.5 years. Family member interference occurred in one case (0.15%, 95% confidence interval 0-0.73%). In 17 cases (2.68%, 95% confidence interval 2.1-5.9%) family members present expressed concerns about the procedure during the telephone follow up but had not interfered at the time of the procedure. There were no significant differences between the concerned parents at follow up and the study group across key patient variables such as child's age (P = 0.369), weight (P = 0.379), respiratory rate (P = 0.477), sex (P = 0.308), procedure indication (P = 0.308) and airway manoeuvres (P = 0.153).",
"The Institute of Medicine has called for physician education as a key step in medical error prevention. In our 2002 national survey, pediatric resident education about medical error prevention was sporadic. We sought to describe the amount and type of pediatric resident training about medical errors and to assess the change in training since 2002. We surveyed a national sample of 50 pediatric chief residents randomly selected from the 198 Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education-accredited residency programs from August to November 2010. The 31-item telephone survey was developed from the 2002 survey, with the addition of 10 items about electronic learning and resident quality improvement projects. The survey included 4 domains: current patient safety curriculum, chief resident knowledge, learning from medical errors, and demographics. We phoned 55 chief residents and contacted 51. Fifty participated (90% participation rate). Ninety-four percent of chief residents stated that their program had a formalized curriculum to discuss medical errors, compared to only 50% (P<.001) in 2002. Ninety-six percent understood that the response to a medical error should be systemic change. The primary method for educating residents about medical error reported was informal teaching. Ninety-two percent reported never or rarely discussing medical error in an outpatient setting. Seventy-four percent of chief residents reported that they never or rarely learn from an error made by an attending physician, and 50% never or rarely learned from an error made by a fellow resident.",
"yes. Calls received by a daytime nurse telephone triage office in an affluent SP and a UP are similar in regard to medical problems. Training programs can feasibly prepare physicians and nurses for both kinds of practice settings. The urban site received more calls affected by language and social issues. This could have administrative implications for staffing ratios, language skills of staff and knowledge of available support services.",
"Evaluation procedures that rely solely on attending physician ratings may not identify residents who display poor communication skills or unprofessional behavior. Inclusion of non-physician evaluators should capture a more complete account of resident competency. No published reports have examined the relationship between resident evaluations obtained from different sources in pediatric settings. The objective of this study was to determine whether parent and nurse ratings of specific resident behaviors significantly differ from those of attending physicians. Thirty-six pediatric residents were evaluated by parents, nurses, and attending physicians during their first year of training. For analysis, the percentage of responses in the highest response category was calculated for each resident on each item. Differences between attending physician ratings and those of parents and nurses were compared using the signed rank test. Parent and attending physician ratings were similar on most items, but attending physicians indicated that they frequently were unable to observe the behaviors of interest. Nurses rated residents lower than did attending physicians on items that related to respecting staff (69% vs 97%), accepting suggestions (56% vs 82%), teamwork (63% vs 88%), being sensitive and empathetic (62% vs 85%), respecting confidentiality (73% vs 97%), demonstrating integrity (75% vs 92%), and demonstrating accountability (67% vs 83%). Nurse responses were higher than attending physicians on anticipating postdischarge needs (46% vs 25%) and effectively planning care (52% vs 33%).",
"To examine if telephones overcome geographical barriers to accessing primary care out-of-hours by parents of young children. Mixed methods including quantitative analysis of 5697 calls about children aged 0-4 years, 30 hours of observation at primary care centres, eight interviews with parents and a review of 80 telephone call recordings. Call rates for children (0-4 years) decreased with increasing distance: the 20% of people who lived furthest from a primary care centre made fewer calls, 570 per 1000 patients/year (95% CI 558 to 582) than the 20% living closest, 652 (95% CI 644 to 661). Overall, call rates decreased with increasing rurality. Qualitative analysis suggested that this geographical variation was linked to familiarity with the system (notably previous contact with health services) and the availability of services, legitimacy of demand (particularly for children) and negotiation about mode of care.",
"To ascertain why parents use an accident and emergency department for health care for their infants. Prospective one month study. One accident and emergency department of a children's hospital in the east end of London. Parents of 159 infants aged<9 months attending as self referrals (excluding infants attending previously or inpatients within one month, parents advised by the hospital to attend if concerned about their child's health, infants born abroad and arrived in Britain within the previous month). Details of birth, postnatal hospital stay, contact with health professionals, perceptions of roles of community midwife and health visitor, and current attendance obtained from a semistructured questionnaire administered in the department by a research health visitor; diagnosis, discharge, and follow up. 152(96%) parents were interviewed, 43(28%) of whom were single parent and 68(45%) first time mothers. Presenting symptoms included diarrhoea or vomiting, or both (34, 22%), crying (21, 14%), and feeding difficulties (10, 7%). Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection was diagnosed in 70(46%) infants. Only 17(11%) infants were admitted; hospital follow up was arranged for 27(20%) infants not admitted. Most (141, 94%) parents were registered with a general practitioner; 146(27%) had contact with the community midwife and 135(89%) the health visitor.",
"An emergency department (ED) visit may be an effective place to screen and educate families about injury prevention. The purpose of this study was to determine if a computerized kiosk in a pediatric ED can screen families for injury risk and encourage them to make more safety changes at follow-up survey compared with an injury prevention specialist (IPS). A prospective, randomized controlled study was performed with families of children younger than 14 years in an ED lobby. Families were screened for injury risk by computerized kiosk based on child's age category at triage (birth to 1 year, 1-4 years, 5-9 years, or 10-14 years). Families were randomized to receive either injury behavior instructions by kiosk printout or by IPS when answers to specific practices were deemed unsafe. Three weeks after intervention, families were telephoned to determine change in safety practices. Three hundred seventeen families completed ED kiosk screen at enrollment (172 kiosk, 145 IPS). On initial screen, kiosk families practiced 79.6% of behaviors safely versus 75.9% in the IPS group (p = 0.011). A total of 221 families (69.7%) were reached for follow-up (121 kiosk, 100 IPS). On average, IPS families improved their safe behavior responses by 8.3% versus 1.0% in the kiosk group (p<0.0001). Significantly more families in the IPS group than in the kiosk group (36% vs. 23%, p<0.03) used additional safety equipment after the intervention.",
"Health education messages are posted in nearly all the waiting rooms studied; parents remember them in a variable and rather inexplicable order. Posting these messages demonstrates the pediatricians' willingness to be involved - beyond the simple consultation - in the health education of children and families. Identifying the real impact of these messages would require further study.",
"To compare triage categorization as a measure of perceived patient acuity on presentation to the emergency department by pediatric emergency medicine (PEM) attending physicians, nurses, and pediatric residents with their general emergency medicine (GEM) counterparts. A questionnaire that contained 12 pediatric triage scenarios was sent to all PEM attending physicians, triage-trained nurses, and pediatric residents and their GEM counterparts at a large urban hospital with separate pediatric and general emergency departments. Participants were asked to use a 3-tier triage system (emergent, urgent, nonurgent) to assign a triage level for each patient scenario. The response rate was 99%. The kappa level of agreement was highest (.39) among the PEM physicians. Significantly more GEM attending physicians triaged the following scenarios at a higher acuity level as compared with PEM attending physicians with a trend toward emergent triage: simple febrile seizure, 50% (95% confidence interval [CI]: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%); 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips, 21% (95% CI: 9%-43%) versus 0% (95% CI: 0%-23%); and 15-month-old well-appearing child with high fever, 50% (95% CI: 30%-70%) versus 7.7% (95% CI: 1%-34%). Significant differences were found between GEM and PEM triage-trained nurses only in the 15-month-old high fever scenario and between GEM and pediatric residents in the 15-month-old high fever scenario, the 18-month-old with fever and bumps on lips scenario, and a fever/limp scenario.",
"yes. A well-educated and technologically sophisticated parent population does not favour advanced communication technologies over simple, face-to-face interaction in an in-hospital setting. These parents are prepared to receive technology-based information about their child's surgery and to schedule non-emergency hospital appointments online.",
"To determine whether there is a significant difference in initial successful contact when attempting follow-up of patients discharged from a pediatric emergency department (ED) using either pagers or the telephone. In addition, to evaluate whether the combination of both pager and telephone follow-up is more successful than telephone follow-up alone when confined to a 2-hour period. A prospective comparison of intervention and control groups taken from convenience samples of patients seen in an ED of an urban, tertiary care children's hospital. One hundred eighty-five patients whose families had access to both a pager and a telephone (intervention group) and 112 patients whose families had access to only a telephone (control group) were enrolled. Before discharging the patient from the ED, the investigators verified a pager number and/or a best contact telephone number for a follow-up telephone call. Participants were divided into 2 groups. The intervention group consisted of caretakers with both pagers and telephones. The control group consisted of caretakers with only telephones. On even calendar days after ED visits, intervention group caretakers were paged initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. On odd calendar days, intervention group caretakers were telephoned initially from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. Successful contact was defined as communication with a family member or guardian over the age of 18. If the caretaker spoke only Spanish, a translator was used. In a crossover design with the intervention group, if contact was unsuccessful after 1 hour, the alternative mode of communication was used at noon. Control group caretakers were telephoned from 11:00 AM to 11:59 AM. If telephone contact was unsuccessful, they were called again 1 hour later. Two hundred forty-six (36%) of 685 of the convenience sample of caretakers had access to both a pager and a telephone. Fifty-two (55%) of 94 intervention caretakers were contacted initially using pagers versus 47 (52%) of 91 intervention caretakers contacted initially by telephones. Overall successful contact of intervention caretakers (telephones and pagers) was 145 (78%) of 185 when confined to a 2-hour time period. In contrast, overall successful contact of control caretakers was 68 (61%) of 112 when confined to a 2-hour time period. Successful contact was greater with the intervention caretakers than with control caretakers (78% vs 61%).",
"Patients often establish initial contact with healthcare institutions by telephone. During this process they are frequently medically triaged. To investigate the safety of computer-assisted telephone triage for walk-in patients with non-life-threatening medical conditions at an emergency unit of a Swiss university hospital. This prospective surveillance study compared the urgency assessments of three different types of personnel (call centre nurses, hospital physicians, primary care physicians) who were involved in the patients' care process. Based on the urgency recommendations of the hospital and primary care physicians, cases which could potentially have resulted in an avoidable hazardous situation (AHS) were identified. Subsequently, the records of patients with a potential AHS were assessed for risk to health or life by an expert panel. 208 patients were enrolled in the study, of whom 153 were assessed by all three types of personnel. Congruence between the three assessments was low. The weighted κ values were 0.115 (95% CI 0.038 to 0.192) (hospital physicians vs call centre), 0.159 (95% CI 0.073 to 0.242) (primary care physicians vs call centre) and 0.377 (95% CI 0.279 to 0.480) (hospital vs primary care physicians). Seven of 153 cases (4.57%; 95% CI 1.85% to 9.20%) were classified as a potentially AHS. A risk to health or life was adjudged in one case (0.65%; 95% CI 0.02% to 3.58%).",
"Patient experience scores are now recognized as a chief indicator of healthcare quality. This report compares outpatient pediatric otolaryngology patient satisfaction in the teaching and non-teaching settings. Cross-sectional, multi-site, patient-level analysis of satisfaction surveys (Press Ganey™ Medical Practice©) completed by parents of pediatric otolaryngology patients in FY2010. Surveys were stratified by teaching/non-teaching affiliation. The survey has 29 Likert-scaled questions which comprise an overall score and subscores in 6 domains: access, visit, nursing, provider, personal issues, and assessment. The item likelihood-to-recommend was measured to indicate practice loyalty. Mean scores were compared by Kruskal-Wallis rank test. Multivariate logistic regression was performed to evaluate the association of teaching status with receipt of highest scores (HI-SCORES). 4704 pediatric surveys were analyzed, with 1984 (42%) from the teaching setting. For the teaching setting, mean scores were lower overall (88.1 vs. 89.0; p<0.001) and in domains of access (includes scheduling ease, promptness in returning calls; 86.7 vs. 89.4; p<0.001) and personal issues (includes office hour convenience, sensitivity to needs; 87.0 vs. 88.5; p<0.001). Differences in access scores were largest for young children (0-<6 years; 86.0 vs. 89.5; p<0.001). Children in the teaching setting were less likely to have HI-SCORES overall (OR 0.78; 95%CI 0.65-0.95; p=0.011) and for access (OR 0.8; 95%CI 0.67-0.95; p=0.012); probability of HI-SCORES was similar for the two settings for all other domains.",
"To assess the presence and impact of health education messages in pediatricians' waiting rooms. In September 2001, 81 pediatricians completed a questionnaire about the furnishings and equipment in their waiting rooms. They also distributed a questionnaire about waiting room health education messages to parents, to be completed at home. The analysis considered 1830 questionnaires. Health education messages were posted in 91% of the waiting rooms and most frequently concerned children's accidents, vaccines, hygiene and nutrition. The best topics that the parents remembered involved child neglect, antibiotic therapy, AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases, and nutrition. Although memorization of the messages was not influenced by duration of the wait, it was higher among parents who had previously visited the pediatrician. These messages led 14% of the parents to discuss them spontaneously with their pediatrician.",
"(1) To assess pediatric residents' attitudes and practices related to counseling about and prescribing emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) for teens. (2) To determine whether attitudes, counseling, and prescribing practices vary among different levels of residency training. Questionnaire. Two large inner-city academic medical centers in New York City. Pediatric residents (PGY 1-3). Attitudes, counseling and prescribing patterns of ECPs by the pediatric residents 101/120 residents participated in the survey; 35% PGY1, 38% PGY2, 28% PGY3. Less than a third (26%) reported counseling teens about the availability of ECPs during routine non-acute care visits and just over half (56%) provided ECP counseling during visits for contraception. Only 6% of pediatric residents reported that they prescribed ECPs often, while 42% never prescribed ECPs. The majority of the residents did not think that prescribing ECPs would encourage teens to practice unsafe sex or would discourage compliance with other contraceptive methods (70% and 68%, respectively). However, the majority (67%) also reported that they did not think that ECPs should be available over the counter, without prescription. Further analysis by year of training showed that more junior and senior residents than interns counseled adolescents about ECPs at both routine health care maintenance visits and at visits for contraception (32% vs 15%; 62% vs 42%, respectively), would provide adolescent girls with ECPs to have on hand prior to an episode of unprotected sex (52% vs 31%), and thought that ECPs should be available over the counter (39% vs 20%), P<0.05.",
"Excessive, sometimes unnecessary consultation challenges the ophthalmology resident's ability to obtain adequate rest and personal time while taking at-home calls. Basic training of nonophthalmologists in assessing and treating common ophthalmic emergencies offers a potential solution to this problem by providing primary caregivers the knowledge base, tools, and confidence to manage them independently. We measured ophthalmic consultation requests at a large teaching institution and the impact of an educational intervention on the number and type of requests. During a 31-day period in 2009 all requests for urgent ophthalmic consultation were logged and characterized by reason, urgency, and source of the call. A 3-part educational intervention was targeted to residents and attending physicians in the departments of emergency medicine (half-day lecture and practice), anesthesiology (grand rounds lecture), and otolaryngology (guidelines for traumatic orbital fractures). Six months later we conducted a 26-day call log to evaluate the impact. Pre intervention, we received 63 total and 56 after-hours calls for urgent ophthalmic consultation as compared to 39 total and 35 after-hours calls post intervention. Ophthalmology residents reported seeing more urgent and fewer nonessential consultations in the postintervention period, and there was greater agreement between calling physicians' initial diagnosis and consulting physicians' final diagnosis. No adverse patient outcomes occurred as a result of the change in practices.",
"The purpose of this study was to investigate factors related to well-child visit noncompliance in an ethnically diverse family practice clinic population. Participants included 146 parents (131 mothers and 15 fathers) of children aged 0 to 24 months who received care at a St. Paul residency clinic. Participants completed telephone surveys that asked about their demographic characteristics, attitudes toward well-child visits, whether the most recent planned well-child visit had been kept, and their own and their child's health characteristics. All participants thought that well-child visits were important, with immunizations being the highest rated reason for importance. Fourteen percent of parents said they had missed a recent well-child visit, mostly because they forgot. More than three fourths of parents believed visit reminders were helpful, and the preferred type of reminder was a telephone call. Noncompliance with well-child visits was associated with the parent's depressive symptoms, transportation difficulties, working at a job, having private (vs public) health insurance, and being older (vs younger).",
"At our institution, patients undergoing selected operative procedures are referred to a protocol for telephone follow-up by surgical specialty nurses. Our objective was to review our experience with this protocol to determine if telephone follow-up is a safe and preferred alternative to the traditional postoperative clinic visit. Records of patients followed up by telephone over 6 months were evaluated for information regarding each patient's postoperative course. Records included telephone follow-up forms, clinic notes, and emergency department records. A total of 563 patients underwent a total of 601 procedures. Seventy-six percent (n = 427) were successfully contacted postoperatively; 24% (n = 136) did not respond to multiple contact attempts. Forty-five requests for clinic follow-up resulted in 27 actual visits, 10 from families not satisfied with telephone contact alone. Most families contacted (382/427, 90%) were satisfied and did not request an appointment. A total of 43 postoperative clinic or emergency department evaluations resulted in 9 interventions (1.6% complication rate).",
"Studies demonstrate gaps in anticipatory guidance during well-child visits, but none consider academic teaching hospitals where physician trainees also provide counseling. We prospectively assessed parental perception of anticipatory guidance at the outpatient clinic of an academic teaching hospital. Parents of patients newborn to<60 months old completed questionnaires regarding providers seen and anticipatory guidance preferences. Of 204 parents, 40% saw the child's primary attending alone. There was no association between providers seen and the number of topics covered. Seeing the child's primary attending alone increased the odds that parents' priority topics were covered compared with another attending (odds ratio [OR] = 0.31; 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.11-0.90) or the addition of a resident (OR = 0.35; 95% CI = 0.16-0.77) or medical student (OR = 0.33; 95% CI = 0.12-0.90).",
"Our objective was to assess the occurrence of pediatric emergencies in the offices of family physicians and pediatricians, the preparedness to respond, and the perceived importance of being prepared. We performed a cross-sectional random mail survey of physicians. Surveys were sent to 187 family physicians and 129 pediatricians practicing in North Carolina with 75% and 86% response rates, respectively. The 169 total respondents were in community practices regularly treating children and were included for analysis. We measured the incidence of 8 types of pediatric emergencies, the availability of 11 items for resuscitation and stabilization, whether the physician had Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) training in the previous 2 years, whether the office ever conducted a mock emergency, and beliefs about the importance of preparing for and providing emergency care to children. Six types of pediatric emergencies were seen in one third or more of all practices during the year. The average practice saw 4 or more pediatric emergencies in a year (family physicians = 3.8 vs pediatricians = 4.9, P<.001). Family physicians had fewer resuscitation and stabilization items than pediatricians (5.7 vs 8.6 items, P<.001) and were less prepared in terms of PALS training (19% vs 51%, P<.001). Those with PALS training were more likely to have an intraosseous needle and Broselow tape and to have conducted a mock code. Family physicians considered it is less important than pediatricians to provide such care or to be prepared to do so.",
"The proportions of callers who sought unadvised medical care and who received unadvised significant care were not significantly different in the advice nurse and pediatrician groups. This suggests that advice nurses do not delay significant medical treatment when compared with pediatricians.",
"We hypothesized that advanced information and communication technology (ICT) would be acceptable to parents in a pediatric surgical, and diagnostic imaging day care setting. After Ethics Committee approval, we distributed surveys, over a one-month period, to parents of children arriving for day care surgery or diagnostic imaging. Parents indicated their acceptance of various proposed modes of postoperative discussion of healthcare i.e.; face-to-face, videophone, or telephone. Parents were also asked to describe their receptiveness to scheduling non-emergency hospital appointments online and to receiving electronic media describing their child's surgery and postoperative management. Parental education, income, and familiarity with the Internet were also assessed. A total of 451 surveys (84% response rate) were returned. Most parents (95%) had access to the Internet and 70% did their banking online. Forty-two percent of the parents had at least a university education and 63% had an annual family income > $50,000 Canadian. The majority of parents (98%) accepted face-to-face interaction, while only 35% and 37% of parents were receptive to videophone and telephone interviews, respectively. Computer availability (P = 0.001) and online banking (P = 0.011) were the only variables that predicted those parents who were in favour of using videophone technology. Parents were receptive to instruction electronic media (80%) and booking appointments online (61%).",
"The goal was to examine pediatricians' views about whether and how well-child care for children 0 to 5 years of age should be changed. A mail survey of a national random sample of 1000 general pediatricians was performed with a survey instrument that examined pediatricians' attitudes and behaviors toward our current way and an ideal way of providing well-child care. Results were analyzed for the following 3 major domains of change in well-child care: provider type, visit format, and visit location. Sixty percent (n = 502) of eligible subjects responded to the survey. Nearly all respondents (97%) rated the current US system as excellent or good in providing well-child care. Most pediatricians (85%-91%) reported that they are currently the main providers of anticipatory guidance, developmental screening, and psychosocial screening. However, a majority (54%-60%) reported that, in an ideal system that maximized the effectiveness and efficiency of care, nonphysicians would provide these services. Fewer pediatricians (24%) reported that ideally nonphysicians should provide the physical examination. The majority of respondents (79%-93%) reported that at least some anticipatory guidance, minor acute care, and chronic care services could be conducted through telephone or e-mail communication, and 55% stated that at least some well-child care services should be provided in alternative locations, such as day care centers. In multivariate analysis, support for these changes was distributed widely across pediatricians with varying personal and practice characteristics.",
"The Internet has become in recent years an unlimited source of health-related information and revolutionized health information access. Follow-up after an emergency department (ED) visit is important for continuity of care but is difficult to achieve. We conducted this study to determine whether e-mail could become a method for a follow-up contact after leaving the pediatric ED. Over a 2-month period, parents who had a telephone line and e-mail access and whose child was discharged from the ED at the Hospital for Sick Children in Toronto were randomized to receive an e-mail or a telephone follow-up. Main outcome measure was the response rates by parents to the telephone or e-mail. A total of 265 (79%) of the 337 families who were approached had Internet access, and the majority (75%) check e-mails at least once a day. Eighty-seven percent (85 of 98) and 53% (53 of 100) of the families who were contacted by telephone or e-mail, respectively, were reached within an average of 17 and 46 hours, respectively. Fourteen percent of families from the study population were unreachable either by telephone or by e-mail. Most (57%) parents who did not respond to the e-mail did not check or did not remember reading the e-mail or had trouble with access. Ten percent of the e-mails were undeliverable.",
"Acute illness challenges all families with young children. The Health-e-Access Telemedicine Network in Rochester, NY, has enabled >7,000 telemedicine visits since 2001 among children in childcare or elementary schools, predominantly from Rochester's inner city. Large reductions in illness-related absence and emergency department use among Health-e-Access participants have occurred. The study was aimed to assess parent perception of telemedicine as a means to reduce burdens associated with childhood illness. A total of 800 parents were surveyed before (578) or after (318) a child had at least one Health-e-Access visit. Queries addressed access to healthcare, conflicts between work/school and child's care during illness, and concerns and likes about telemedicine. Perceptions were elicited through open-ended and direct queries. Among all respondents, 16% had high-school education and 25% had a college education. Race/ethnicity of the respondents included black (43.6%), Hispanic (22.9%), white (30.0%), and other (3.5%). All identified a primary care practice as a source for well childcare. Most (58%) had given antipyretics to their child to avoid being called by childcare or elementary school staff about illness. Likert scale interview items addressing quality of care elicited low levels of worry or concern. Worry scores trended lower after experience. Among 532 comments about Health-e-Access elicited through open-ended probes, positive ones (likes) predominated (84.6%). Likes most commonly included convenience/time saved (33.6% of all comments), parent stayed at work (13.5%), drug delivered to child site (7.1%) or called ahead to pharmacy (4.9%), and confidence in care (2.3%). Negative responses (concerns) totaled 15.4% of comments and most commonly included reliability of diagnosis (2.6%), technical problems (1.3%), and preference for in-person care (0.8%).",
"Understanding discharge instructions is crucial to optimal healing but may be compromised in the hectic environment of the emergency department. To determine parents' understanding of ED discharge instructions and factors that may affect it. A convenience sample of parents of children discharged home from the ED of an urban tertiary care pediatric facility (n = 287) and a suburban level II general hospital (n = 195) completed a 13 item questionnaire covering demographics, level of anxiety, and quality of physician's explanation. Parents also described their child's diagnosis and treatment instructions and indicated preferred auxiliary methods of delivery of information. Data were analyzed using the BMPD statistical package. Full understanding was found in 72% and 78% of the parents at the respective centers for the diagnosis, and in 82% and 87% for the treatment instructions (P = NS between centers). There was no statistical correlation between level of understanding and parental age, gender, education, level of anxiety before or after the ED visit, or time of day. The most contributory factor to lack of understanding was staff use of medical terminology. Parents suggested further explanations by a special discharge nurse and written information as auxiliary methods.",
"To determine whether implementation of a set of standardized pediatric telephone triage protocols results in consistent triage dispositions when applied by different operators. A descriptive study with interrater comparisons was performed. Telephone interviews simulated the setting of a triage station in a university hospital-based pediatric emergency department. A mock parent presented 15 standardized respiratory cases in random order to 12 pediatric ED nurses. Nurses assigned patients' complaints to severity categories using 9 respiratory complaint protocols extracted from a commercially available pediatric telephone triage tool. Protocol selection and severity endpoints were recorded. Interobserver agreement among nurses was analyzed by the kappa statistic. Comparisons of operator characteristics and triage results were carried out by ANOVA. Interrater agreement in triage disposition among nurses was poor (kappa,.11; 95% confidence interval,.02 to.20). Protocol selection varied; the group used a mean of 3 different disposition-generating protocols per case. Disposition also varied, with up to 4 different severity endpoints per protocol in a given case. A post-hoc comparison of the mean disposition severity between nurses did not reach significance at an adjusted level (P =.04). Fifty-eight percent of the nurses felt confined by the protocols, and 42% admitted to at least 1 intentional deviation from them.",
"There is concern that after-hours nurse telephone triage systems are overwhelming the emergency department (ED) with nonemergent pediatric referrals. This study aimed to critically review a nonpediatric hospital-based call center with the aim of identifying the algorithms responsible for the majority of nonessential referrals. This is a retrospective observational study performed at a tertiary medical care facility over 1 year. Telephone triage forms of children and adolescents younger than 18 years, exclusively referred by triage nurses using the Barton Schmitt protocols, were reviewed, and their ED course was evaluated by consulting the electronic medical record. \"Essential\" referrals to the ED were classified as presentations warranting immediate evaluation or referrals requiring \"essential interventions\" such as serum laboratory tests, imaging, complex procedures, intravenous medications, subspecialty consultation, or admission. A total of 220 patients were included in this study. Of these, 73 (33%) were classified as nonessential, whereas 147 (67%) were classified as essential. Nonessential patients were significantly younger compared with essential referrals (P<0.05). They also had lower triage scores (P = 0.026) and shorter ED stays (P<0.0001). The algorithms for \"fever-3 months or older\" (12.3%), \"vomiting without diarrhea\" (8.2%), \"trauma-head\" (8.2%), \"headache\" (6.8%), and \"sore throat\" (5.5%) were determined most likely to result in a nonessential referral.",
"The telephone is better than e-mail as a follow-up channel with families of children who visit the pediatric ED. The main reason for not responding to e-mails is \"technical problems.\" E-mail could be a mean for follow-up contact for part of our patient population, especially for nonurgent purposes.",
"Our study identifies that a third of unnecessary pediatric visits to the ED occurred as a result of the nurse triage telephone system in question. We recommend review of the algorithms stated to reduce strain on local ED resources.",
"To compare daytime nurse telephone triage calls received by a suburban practice with those received by a hospital-based, inner-city pediatric practice. A research assistant, listening simultaneously with triage personnel, prospectively coded all calls received by the nurse triage telephone offices in 2 pediatric practices. Calls were coded the first full, nonholiday week of 3 consecutive summer and 3 consecutive winter months, alternating morning and afternoon sessions. One practice was suburban and had almost all commercially insured patients; the other was hospital-based, in an inner-city, and consisted mostly of patients with Medicaid coverage or no health insurance. A total of 901 calls were triaged in the suburban practice (SP) and 768 in the urban practice (UP). The chief complaints of calls regarding medical problems were similar at both sites. Difficulties with language were noted less often in SP compared with UP (1% vs 17%). The reason for the calls differed by site: medical problem relating to illness or injury (SP 55% vs UP 40%); social issue (SP 1% vs UP 9%); documentation request (SP 2% vs UP 7%); request for laboratory work (SP.3% vs UP 4%); and well child advice (SP 9% vs UP 5%). The disposition of calls also differed by site: telephone advice was offered significantly more in SP than in UP (32% vs 20%); fewer calls required the need for the medical record in SP than in UP (2% vs 12%).",
"Advice nurse call centers are used to ensure access to medical advice, thereby potentially reducing the costs of health services. To determine if medical advice from advice nurses and on-call physicians delays significant medical treatment in a general pediatrics population. Randomized controlled trial. A university general pediatrics faculty practice. Parents or guardians calling for after-hours advice regarding their children.Intervention After-hours medical advice calls were randomized at the time of the call to an advice nurse or an on-call pediatrician. The proportion of callers who sought medical care not advised by the advice nurse or on-call pediatrician and the proportion who received unadvised significant care. There were 1182 advice calls: 566 in the pediatrician group and 616 in the advice nurse group. There were no significant differences in the types of telephone triage advice in the physician and advice nurse groups. There was no significant difference in the proportion of callers who sought unadvised care (108 [19.9%] in the physician group vs 110 [19.0%]in the advice nurse group) or in the proportion of callers who received unadvised significant care (23 [4.2%] in the physician group vs 25 [4.3%]in the advice nurse group).",
"Telephone calls for advice are common in pediatric emergency departments. This study was conducted to determine the nature of these calls and the answers provided. From 24 April through 24 July 1994, all telephone calls requesting pediatric advice in the emergency department of the Poissy Hospital were independently analysed by two pediatricians from forms prospectively filled in for each call by the resident or the attending people who answered the call. Of the 239 registered calls, 186 could be analysed. They represented, in number, 15.25% of the children seen at the same emergency department during the study period. Weekend and holiday calls accounted for 35.5% of calls. 7.8% of calls were received from 0.01 am to 8.00 am, 28.7% from 8.01 am to 4.00 pm, and 63.5% from 4.01 pm to 12.00 pm. Thirty-seven percent concerned children under one year of age. The caller was one of the parents in 93% of cases. The four most frequent complaints were fever (26.5%), requests for information (17.2%), rash (12.3%), and vomiting (10.2%). The review of calls by two pediatricians determined that 67% of children did not need to be seen by a physician within six hours; 28% needed to be seen within 6 hours, and 5% needed to be seen within one hour. The advice given was followed in 88% of cases; 96% of callers were satisfied with their calls management.",
"A previous study showed that calls received by our continuity clinic residents were similar to those in private practice. However, that study did not address the compliance of the parents to the advice given. To determine parents' compliance to after-hours telephone advice given by pediatric residents in a continuity clinic. Advice given during initial telephone contact of 493 after-hours telephone calls was categorized into 3 groups: only telephone advice, appointment the next day, or immediate visit to the emergency department (ED). Follow-up telephone calls were made to all families 3 to 7 days after initial contact to determine compliance with the advice given. Pediatric resident continuity clinic of a tertiary hospital in Augusta, Georgia. Children registered in the pediatric resident continuity clinic. Overall, 412 (83.6%) of 493 caregivers followed the telephone advice that residents gave them. Of the 270 callers only given telephone advice, 244 (90.4%) followed the advice, 15 (5.6%) went to the ED, and 11 (4.1%) made an appointment for the next day. Of the 112 patients instructed to make an appointment, 82 (73.2%) reported at the scheduled time, 18 (16.1%) improved and did not come to the appointment, and 1 (.9%) reported worsened symptoms and went to the ED. When a visit to the ED was recommended, 86 (93.5%) of 92 complied, 2 (2.2%) improved and did not come, 1 (1.1%) had transportation problems, and 3 (3.3%) did not think an ED visit was warranted.",
"yes. Telephone advice constitutes an important part of the activity in the pediatric emergency department. Instructional programs in telephone management are necessary for physicians. These programs should include communication skills and familiarization with protocols concerning the most frequent complaints, especially those regarding children under one year of age."
] | 523 |
Organizational and financial characteristics of health plans: are they related to primary care performance? | [
"Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05).",
"With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined."
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"This study found lower levels of severe mental health problems, especially depression, than reported elsewhere, but higher prevalence of psychological distress. High levels of physical and mental health co-morbidity were found. These findings suggest that planning for primary care services needs to adopt a flexible assessment model. The development of effective, time-limited protocols and screening tools to assist the PHCT in improving their identification rates is recommended. This needs to be supported by the availability of appropriate treatments for the psychological distress.",
"It is concluded that these hypotheses form a sound basis for further primary care research on how the organizational structure of health care systems influences patient reflections on access to medical care.",
"These findings suggest that for some treatment modalities, stronger primary care linkage mechanisms decrease subsequent utilization of expensive ED and hospital services. Future study should examine the cost implications of these strong linkage mechanisms and ways to strengthen linkages to off-site medical care.",
"The use of physician profiles in \"pay for performance\" initiatives depend on their reliability and accuracy. To evaluate whether health care delivery units (practices) can be reliably differentiated using the Health Employers Data Information System (HEDIS) performance measure. Simulation was used to describe the relationship between practice size (number of children with persistent asthma) and precision of practice measures to estimate performance. Children enrolled in 1 of the 39 practice groups from 1 of 3 managed care organizations participating in the Pediatric Asthma Care Patient Outcomes Research Team (PAC PORT). The main outcome was reproducibility of 4 performance measures, the HEDIS measure and 3 additional measures available from automated claims data: the proportion of children with asthma related-hospitalization, emergency department visits and oral steroid dispensings for asthma. The ability to reproducibly rank a practice is dependent on the performance measure, practice size, and the reproducibility threshold chosen. Of measures evaluated, none achieved a reproducibility>85% for practice size of 50 or less. At a practice size of 100 subjects, the HEDIS measure reproducibly ranked practices 89% of the time, compared with 85% for emergency department visits and 83% for hospitalizations. Only at a practice size of 100 children with persistent asthma, was reproducibility of ranking greater than 85% with all performance measures evaluated.",
"Cross-sectionally, family practices with better quality of diabetes care had fewer emergency admissions for short-term complications of diabetes. Over time, after controlling for national trends in admissions, improvements in quality in a family practice were associated with a reduction in its admissions.",
"yes. Physicians from integrated medical groups and groups with greater numbers of PCPs performed better on several patient experience measures, suggesting that organized care processes adopted by these groups may enhance patients' experiences. Physicians practicing in markets with high concentrations of vulnerable populations may be disadvantaged by constraints that affect performance. Future studies should clarify the extent to which performance deficits associated with area-level deprivation are modifiable.",
"Getting to know the opinion of area managers and Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators about the indicators used to measure the PHC output. Questionnaire via mail. Descriptive statistics. Areas 2-5, and 3, Zaragoza, Spain. Managing teams of these three areas and Primary Health Care facilities coordinators. The questionnaire was sent to 57 Primary Health Care Facilities coordinators and 16 area managers which was answered 53% of them. In the range from 1 to 10 the so-called product achieved in the evaluation the highest marks have been: the Services offered by the PHCF (7.8), Coverage (7.8), Achievement of the Minimal Technical Rules (7.76) and Patient Satisfaction (7.51). The indicator that obtained the highest level of agreement was also the product achieved in the evaluation of the Services offered by PHCF.",
"Nearly all managed care plans rely on a physician \"gatekeeper\" to control use of specialty, hospital, and other expensive services. Gatekeeping is intended to reduce costs while maintaining or improving quality of care by increasing coordination and prevention and reducing duplicative or inappropriate care. Whether gatekeeping achieves these goals remains largely unproven. To assess physicians' attitudes about the effects of gatekeeping compared with traditional care on administrative work, quality of patient care, appropriateness of resource use, and cost. Cross-sectional survey of primary care physicians Outpatient facilities in metropolitan Boston, Mass. All physicians who served as both primary care gatekeepers and traditional Blue Cross/Blue Shield providers for the employees of Massachusetts General Hospital, Boston. Of the 330 physicians surveyed, 202 (61%) responded. Physician ratings of the effects of gatekeeping on 21 aspects of care, including administrative work, physician-patient interactions, decision making, appropriateness of resource use, cost, and quality of care. Physicians reported that gatekeeping (compared with traditional care) had a positive effect on control of costs, frequency, and appropriateness of preventive services and knowledge of a patient's overall care (P<.001). They also felt that gatekeeping increased paperwork and telephone calls and negatively affected the overall quality of care, access to specialists, ability to order expensive tests and procedures, freedom in clinical decisions, time spent with patients, physician-patient relationships, and appropriate use of hospitalizations and laboratory tests (P<.001). Overall, 32% of physicians rated gatekeeping as better than traditional care, 40% the same, 21% gatekeeping as worse, and 7% were of mixed opinion. Positive ratings of gatekeeping were associated with fewer years in clinical practice, generalist training, and experience with gatekeeping and health maintenance organization plans.",
"Socioeconomic disparities in treatment and outcomes of non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) are well established. To explore whether these differences are secondary to individual or institutional characteristics, we examined treatment selection and outcome in a diverse population treated at a single medical center. We performed a retrospective analysis of consecutive patients diagnosed with NSCLC stages I-III from 2000 to 2005 at the University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center. Treatment selection was dichotomized as 'standard' (surgery for stage I-II; surgery and/or radiation therapy for stage III) or 'other.' Associations between patient characteristics (including socioeconomic status) and treatment selection were examined using logistic regression; associations between characteristics and overall survival were examined using Cox regression models and Kaplan-Meier survival analysis. A total of 450 patients were included. Twenty-eight percent of patients had private insurance, 43% had Medicare, and 29% had an indigent care plan. The likelihood of receiving 'standard' therapy was significantly associated with insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance odds ratio [OR] 0.13, 95% confidence interval [CI] 0.04, 0.43 for stage I-II; OR 0.38, 95% CI 0.14, 1.00 for stage III). For patients with stage I-II NSCLC, survival was associated with age, sex, insurance type (indigent plan versus private insurance hazard ratio for death 1.98; 95% CI 1.16, 3.37), stage, and treatment selection. In stage III NSCLC, survival was associated with treatment selection.",
"no. Despite the lack of difference in symptom characteristics between children in primary and tertiary care, a notable differential in cost of evaluation exists in accordance with level of care. Symptom characteristics do not seem to drive diagnostic evaluation in either primary or tertiary care. Given the lack of differences in child-reported symptoms and the maternal perspective that children evaluated by a gastroenterologist had more severe pain, we speculate that parent perception of child symptoms may be a primary factor in seeking tertiary care.",
"This study examines the association between self-reported health risks and short-term use of medical resources. Cross-sectional study comparing responses from a mailed survey with medical encounter and expenditure data. Bivariate analyses and multivariate linear and logistic regressions controlling for age, gender, and health status were conducted to illustrate the relationship between selected risk factors and resource use. A group network model health maintenance organization (HMO) in Minneapolis, Minnesota. The study population was comprised of a randomly selected sample of nonsenior adults (18 to 64 years old, n = 3825) and seniors (65 years and older, n = 1955) who were enrolled in an HMO. The response rate was 72%. Five independent variables: smoking, alcohol use, obesity, lack of physical activity, and unhappiness were derived from a questionnaire designed to assess health status and health risks. Outcome measures were medical care charges and use of hospital services. Obesity, physical inactivity, and unhappiness were related to higher charges among seniors. These relationships dissipated to some degree after controlling for age, gender, and health status. Unexpected differences were found for alcohol use among both age groups, with those considered to be \"not at risk\" accruing higher charges and demonstrating a higher likelihood of using inpatient hospital services than those defined to be at risk.",
"Team-based primary care improves patients' perception of process and outcome indicators in the area of access to after-hours care, quality of care, confidence in the system, overall coordination and patient centeredness. Future research needs to establish the causal link between team-based primary care and health outcomes of patients.",
"A high proportion of the US primary care workforce reports burnout, which is associated with negative consequences for clinicians and patients. Many protective factors from burnout are characteristics of patient-centered medical home (PCMH) models, though even positive organizational transformation is often stressful. The existing literature on the effects of PCMH on burnout is limited, with most findings based on small-scale demonstration projects with data collected only among physicians, and the results are mixed. To determine if components of PCMH related to team-based care were associated with lower burnout among primary care team members participating in a national medical home transformation, the VA Patient Aligned Care Team (PACT). Web-based, cross-sectional survey and administrative data from May 2012. A total of 4,539 VA primary care personnel from 588 VA primary care clinics. The dependent variable was burnout, and the independent variables were measures of team-based care: team functioning, time spent in huddles, team staffing, delegation of clinical responsibilities, working to top of competency, and collective self-efficacy. We also included administrative measures of workload and patient comorbidity. Overall, 39 % of respondents reported burnout. Participatory decision making (OR 0.65, 95 % CI 0.57, 0.74) and having a fully staffed PACT (OR 0.79, 95 % CI 0.68, 0.93) were associated with lower burnout, while being assigned to a PACT (OR 1.46, 95 % CI 1.11, 1.93), spending time on work someone with less training could do (OR 1.29, 95 % CI 1.07, 1.57) and a stressful, fast-moving work environment (OR 4.33, 95 % CI 3.78, 4.96) were associated with higher burnout. Longer tenure and occupation were also correlated with burnout.",
"yes. These findings suggest that in primary care, structured diabetes care allowing for individualization was highly effective among diabetic patients with co-occurring PI.",
"We analyzed data from a cohort of 782 older patients assembled in 1999 to 2000 to determine whether baseline patient assessments of the quality of the primary care services they had received, measured using the Components of Primary Care Index (CPCI), were associated with subsequent changes in health-related quality of life (HRQoL) and/or survival. Longitudinal growth curve models were used to analyze changes in Quality of Well-Being (QWB-SA) scores over an average (S.D.) of 2.07 (1.07) years. Cox proportional hazards models were used to identify variables associated with mortality over an average of 8.26 years (6460 person-years). To reduce confounding by severity of illness, subjects were stratified into disabled, nondisabled high utilizers of primary care, and nondisabled low utilizers. Within subgroups, we controlled for number of chronic illnesses and scores on the General Health subscale of the Medical Outcomes Study Short Form-36 (SF-36). We also controlled for baseline age, sex, marital status, income, body mass index, educational attainment, duration of the relationship with current primary care physician (PCP), and number of visits to the PCP in the year before enrollment. Analyses took into account clustering of patients within PCP. Neither total CPCI nor any CPCI subscale score was associated with QWB-SA change over time. Higher ratings of Coordination of Care were associated with reduced survival in the disabled and nondisabled high utilizer subgroups (P = .007).",
"To examine how resource use varies with care quality for managed care populations with diabetes. Data from 31 commercial health plans (23 health maintenance organizations and 8 preferred provider organizations) were analyzed. Resource use was calculated using medical and pharmacy claims and enrollment data for members with diabetes. A standardized pricing methodology was applied for resource use associated with inpatient, pharmacy, evaluation and management, and procedural services. Quality of care results were calculated for 4 process quality indicators of the Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) comprehensive diabetes care measure set. Resource use varied more between organizations than quality of care results. Pharmacy resource use was significantly associated with higher quality; inpatient, procedure and surgery, and ambulatory care visit resource use were not significantly associated.",
"The health care market is demanding increasing amounts of information regarding quality of care in health plans. Physicians are a potentially important but infrequently used source of such information. To assess physicians' views on health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care in health plans and to compare ratings between plans. Minneapolis-St Paul, Minn. One hundred physicians in each of 3 health plans. Each physician rated 1 health plan. Likert-type items that assessed health plan practices that promote or impede delivery of high-quality care. A total of 249 physicians (84%) completed the survey. Fewer than 20% of all physicians gave plans the highest rating (excellent or strongly agree) for health plan practices that promote delivery of high-quality care (such as providing continuing medical education for physicians, identifying patients needing preventive care, and providing physicians feedback about practice patterns). Barriers to delivering high-quality care related to sufficiency of time to spend with patients, covered benefits and copayment structure, and utilization management practices. Ratings differed across health plans. For example, the percentage of physicians indicating that they would recommend the plan they rated to their own family was 64% for plan 1, 92% for plan 2, and 24% for plan 3 (P<.001 for all comparisons).",
"After controlling for population factors, better scheduled primary care access and glycaemic control were associated with lower hospital admission rates across most complications. There is little rationale to restrict primary care-sensitive condition definitions to acute complications. They should be revised to improve the usefulness of hospital admission data as an outcome measure, and to facilitate international comparisons. The risk of emergency hospital admission should be monitored routinely.",
"These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.",
"To measure the readiness of rural primary care practices to qualify as patient-centered medical homes (PCMHs), one step toward participating in changes underway in health care finance and delivery. We used the 2008 Health Tracking Physician Survey to compare PCMH readiness scores among metropolitan and nonmetropolitan primary care practices. The National Committee on Quality Assurance (NCQA) assessment system served as a framework to assess the PCMH capabilities of primary care practices based on their services, processes, and policies. We found little difference between urban and rural practices. Approximately 41% of all primary care practices offer minimal or no PCMH services. We also found that large practices score higher on standards primarily related to information technology and care management.",
"The objective of this study was to evaluate the association of patient satisfaction with type of practitioner attending visits in the primary care practice of a managed care organization (MCO). We conducted a retrospective observational study of 41,209 patient satisfaction surveys randomly sampled from visits provided by the pediatrics and adult medicine departments from 1997 to 2000. Logistic regression, with practitioner and practice fixed effects, of patient satisfaction versus dissatisfaction was estimated for each of 3 scales: practitioner interaction, care access, and overall experience. Models were estimated separately by department. Independent variables were type of practitioner attending the visit and other patient and visit characteristics. Adjusted for patient and visit characteristics, patients were significantly more likely to be satisfied with practitioner interaction on visits attended by physician assistant/nurse practitioners (PA/NPs) than visits attended by MDs in both the adult medicine and pediatrics practices. Patient satisfaction with care access or overall experience did not significantly differ by practitioner type. In adult medicine, patients were more satisfied on diabetes visits provided by MDs than by PA/NPs. Otherwise, patient satisfaction for the combined effects of practitioner type and specific presenting condition did not differ.",
"American health plans can make a substantial contribution to the control of cardiometabolic risk (CMR), a condition associated with both adverse health outcomes and increased cost of care. Our goal was to determine health plan interest in and ability to provide CMR control services. In January 2008, America's Health Insurance Plans, in collaboration with the HealthPartners Research Foundation, surveyed the chief medical officers of 74 member health insurance plans that offer commercial health maintenance organization, point of service, and preferred provider organization insurance. The response rate was 47%. The 35 responding chief medical officers reported that their plans identify members with CMR through referral from case or care management (89%), health risk assessment data (86%), claims data (82%), and pharmaceutical use data (79%). Nearly all (97%) plans currently offer interventions for tobacco use, obesity/overweight, and nutrition. Ninety-four percent of plans offer interventions to increase physical activity. All plans offer health risk appraisal or assessment with feedback and education, 91% use Web-based tools, and 85% use health coaching to help plan members lower their risk. Perceived barriers to broader implementation of risk control programs included lack of resources (79%), limited available enrollee data (74%), and lack of reporting systems (79%). Few health plan officers viewed lack of purchaser interest to be a barrier to program implementation.",
"Many view advanced primary care models such as the patient-centered medical home as foundational for accountable care organizations (ACOs), but it remains unclear how these two delivery reforms are complementary and how they may produce conflict. The objective of this study was to identify how joining an ACO could help or hinder a primary care practice's efforts to deliver high-quality care. This qualitative study involved interviews with a purposive sample of 32 early adopters of advanced primary care and/or ACO models, drawn from across the U.S. and conducted in mid-2014. Interview notes were coded using qualitative data analysis software, permitting topic-specific queries which were then summarized. Respondents perceived many potential benefits of joining an ACO, including care coordination staff, data analytics, and improved communication with other providers. However, respondents were also concerned about added \"bureaucratic\" requirements, referral restrictions, and a potential inability to recoup investments in practice improvements.",
"To determine if specific components of the medical home are differentially associated with beneficial child outcomes. Logistic regression was used to model each component (family-centeredness, comprehensive care, and care coordination) with health care utilization, child health, and health promoting behaviors in 81 232 subjects from the 2003 National Survey of Children's Health. Family-centeredness was associated with increased odds of children being read to (adjusted odds ratio [aOR] = 2.16). Comprehensive care was associated with decreased outpatient (aOR = 0.70) and emergency department (aOR = 0.79) sick visits and with increased child health per parental assessment (aOR = 1.50). Care coordination was associated with increased preventive care visits (aOR = 1.41) and increased outpatient (aOR = 1.21) and emergency department (aOR = 1.24) sick visits. Stratification by special health care needs demonstrated similar findings.",
"When evaluating the influence of primary health care on the rates of hospitalisations, both socioeconomic factors and health care structure must be taken into consideration. Doing this, the rates of GP visits correlated negatively with the rates of hospitalisations.",
"To examine the association between the degree of healthcare provider continuity and healthcare utilization and costs. A longitudinal, prospective, observational study. Data on patients with arthritis, asthma, epigastric pain/peptic ulcer disease, hypertension, and otitis media were collected at each of 6 health maintenance organizations (HMOs). Outcome variables included the number of prescriptions for the target disease and the cost, total number of prescriptions and the cost, the number of outpatient visits, and the number of hospital admissions. Disease-specific severity of illness, type of visit, and provider information were obtained at each encounter. HMO profit status, visit copay, gatekeeper strictness, formulary limitations, use of multisource (generic) drugs, gender, number of months in the study, age, and severity of illness were controlled in the analyses. There were 12,997 patients followed for more than 99,000 outpatient visits, 1000 hospitalizations, and more than 240,000 prescriptions. Increasing the number of primary or specialty care providers a patient encountered during the study generally was associated with increased utilization and costs when HMO and patient characteristics were controlled. The number of specialty care providers also increased as the number of primary care providers increased. The incremental increase in pharmacy costs per patient per year with each additional provider ranged between $19 in subjects with otitis media to $58 in subjects with hypertension.",
"yes. Although a large proportion of primary care visits are for musculoskeletal symptoms, the majority of primary care providers tested at a large, regional, academic primary care institution failed to demonstrate adequate musculoskeletal knowledge and confidence. Further characterization of the relationship between knowledge and confidence and its association with demographic variables might benefit the education of musculoskeletal providers in the future.",
"To determine whether a major improvement in access (ie, implementing an open access system) in a large multispecialty medical group during 2000 was associated with changes in utilization or costs for patients with diabetes, coronary heart disease (CHD), or depression. Multilevel regression analysis of health plan administrative data. Approximately 7000 patients with diabetes, 3800 with CHD, and 6000 with depression who received all of their care in this care system served as the subjects for this study. Utilization and costs between 1999 and 2001 (before and after implementation of open access) were compared for these patients. The main outcome measures were rates of inpatient admissions and various types of outpatient encounters as well as associated costs for these subjects. Between 1999 and 2001, total office visit changes were small and varied with condition, but the proportion of these visits made to primary care physicians increased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9% and primary care physician continuity increased for each condition. Urgent care visits also decreased significantly by an absolute 5% to 9%, but there was no change in emergency department visits or hospital admissions. Total costs of care for these patients were much larger than those for the overall population of the medical group, but increased at a similar rate.",
"yes. Increasing family physician comprehensiveness of care, especially as measured by claims measures, is associated with decreasing Medicare costs and hospitalizations. Payment and practice policies that enhance primary care comprehensiveness may help \"bend the cost curve.\"",
"Whereas there were some statistically discerned differences between insurance groupings for proportionate receipt of low-acuity care and high-acuity care among both the pediatric and adult populations, the magnitude of most differences noted was not large, and may not reflect important differences in health care need or ED use based on insurance.",
"The expectation that giving primary care organisations responsibility for commissioning care will result in improved patients' experiences of care or better use of resources should be treated with caution. The presence of strong national policy may be equally important. Models of service organisation are not proxies for quality of care. The most powerful force shaping patients' experiences of care may be health care professionals' ability to translate national policy into local services.",
"Despite increasing data demonstrating the positive impact primary care has on quality of care and costs, our specialty faces uncertainty. Its popularity among medical students is declining, and the income gap is growing between primary care and other specialties. Congress has the power to intervene in this impending crisis. If we want to influence lawmakers' actions, we need to know how they are thinking about these issues. Using a set of questions covering several physician payment topics, we interviewed 14 congressional staff aides (5 aides on Medicare-oversight committees, 9 general staff aides) and one representative from each of 3 governmental agencies: the Medicare Payment Advisory Commission, Congressional Budget Office, and Government Accountability Office. Interviewees revealed that issues in primary care are not high on the congressional agenda, and that Medicare's Sustainable Growth Rate (SGR) is the physician-payment issue on the minds of congressional staff members.",
"Higher health care charges, particularly from ambulatory (primary care clinic) settings, predicted smoking cessation among both individuals with and without chronic diseases. These charges may be proxies for other factors, such as smoking-related symptoms or physician advice or messaging regarding smoking cessation.",
"To examine the effect of public reporting (PR) and financial incentives tied to quality performance on the use of care management practices (CMPs) among small- and medium-sized physician groups.DATA: Survey data from The National Study of Small and Medium-sized Physician Practices were used. Primary data collection was also conducted to assess community-level PR activities. The final sample included 643 practices engaged in quality reporting; about half of these practices were subject to PR. We used a treatment effects model. The instrumental variables were the community-level variables that capture the level of PR activity in each community in which the practices operate. (1) PR is associated with increased use of CMPs, but the estimate is not statistically significant; (2) financial incentives are associated with greater use of CMPs; (3) practices' awareness/sensitivity to quality reports is positively related to their use of CMPs; and (4) combined PR and financial incentives jointly affect CMP use to a greater degree than either of these factors alone.",
"Among families with large employers offering a single health plan, those from low-income neighborhoods are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans. In contrast, families with small employers offering a single plan are more likely to be switched to high-deductible health plans if they are healthier and have lower baseline costs. These findings suggest that families with children in high-deductible plans may represent two distinct groups, one with higher-risk characteristics and another with lower-risk characteristics compared with those in traditional plans.",
"yes. The top 1% of frequent users usually had adequate health insurance and primary care access but were burdened by chronic conditions and frequent hospital admissions. Such patients may require more extensive coordinated medical management to decrease ED utilization.",
"Using frameworks, such as the long-term conditions pyramid of healthcare, primary care organizations (PCOs) in England and Wales are exploring ways of developing services for people with long-term respiratory disease. We aimed to explore the current and planned respiratory services and the roles of people responsible for change. A purposive sample of 30 PCOs in England and Wales. Semi-structured telephone interviews with the person responsible for driving the reconfiguration of respiratory services. Recorded interviews were transcribed and coded, and themes identified. The association of the composition of the team driving change with the breadth of services provided was explored using a matrix. All but two of the PCOs described clinical services developed to address the needs of people with respiratory conditions, usually with a focus on preventing admissions for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Although the majority identified the need to develop a strategic approach to service development and to meet educational needs of primary care professionals, relatively few described clearly developed plans for addressing these issues. Involvement of clinicians from both primary and secondary care was associated with a broad multifaceted approach to service development. Teamwork was often challenging, but could prove rewarding for participants and could result in a fruitful alignment of objectives. The imminent merger of PCOs and overriding financial constraints resulted in a 'fluid' context which challenged successful implementation of plans.",
"Current healthcare reform efforts have highlighted the potential impact of insurance status on patient outcomes. The influence of primary payer status (PPS) within the pediatric surgical patient population remains unknown. The purpose of this study was to examine risk-adjusted associations between PPS and postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization in pediatric surgical patients within the United States. A weighted total of 153,333 pediatric surgical patients were evaluated using the national Kids' Inpatient Database (2003 and 2006): appendectomy, intussusception, decortication, pyloromyotomy, congenital diaphragmatic hernia repair, and colonic resection for Hirschsprung's disease. Patients were stratified according to PPS: Medicare (n=180), Medicaid (n=51,862), uninsured (n=12,539), and private insurance (n=88,753). Multivariable hierarchical regression modeling was utilized to evaluate risk-adjusted associations between PPS and outcomes. Overall median patient age was 12 years, operations were primarily non-elective (92.4%), and appendectomies accounted for the highest proportion of cases (81.3%). After adjustment for patient, hospital, and operation-related factors, PPS was independently associated with in-hospital death (p<0.0001) and postoperative complications (p<0.02), with increased risk for Medicaid and uninsured populations. Moreover, Medicaid PPS was also associated with greater adjusted lengths of stay and total hospital charges (p<0.0001). Importantly, these results were dependent on operation type.",
"Health Insurance subscribers in Ghana have high trust in their primary care provider giving them quality care under capitation payment despite their negative attitude towards capitation payment. They are guided by proximity and quality of care considerations in their choice of provider. The NHIA would, however, have to address itself to the negative perceptions about the capitation payment policy.",
"To determine whether there are important differences in performance between group practices and singlehanded general practitioners and the extent to which any differences are explained by practice characteristics such as deprivation. Cross sectional survey. 206 singlehanded practices and 606 partnerships in Trent region, United Kingdom. Comparison of process and outcome measures derived from routinely collected data on hospital admissions and target payments for singlehanded practices and partnerships. Multivariate analysis was used to adjust for the confounding effects of general practice characteristics-deprivation (Townsend score), percentage of Asian residents, percentage of black residents, proportion of men over 75 years, proportion of women over 75 years, rurality, presence of a female general practitioner, and vocational training status. Differences in achievement of immunisation and cytology targets apparent on univariate analysis were not seen after adjustment for other general practice characteristics. Similarly, significant differences (>15%; P<0.01) for three types of hospital admission seen on univariate analysis were not present after adjustment for other practice characteristics.",
"There has never been a conclusive test of whether there is a relation between ultimately choosing to be a primary care physician and one's amount of student loan debt at medical school graduation. To test this question, we examined data from the Women Physicians' Health Study, a large, nationally representative, questionnaire-based study of 4,501 U.S. women physicians. We found that the youngest physicians were more than five times as likely as the oldest to have had some student loan debt and far more likely to have had high debt levels (p <.0001). However, younger women physicians were also more likely to choose a primary care specialty (p <.002). There was no relation between being a primary care physician and amount of indebtedness (p =.77); this was true even when the results were adjusted for the physicians' decade of graduation and ethnicity (p =.79).",
"To find whether in certain primary care teams an association exists between the level of coverage in determined services and expenditure on drugs for pathologies included in these services. Retrospective descriptive study. Primary care, INSALUD, Area 1, Huesca. Using the data on coverage of the service portfolio in 1999 and pharmacy expenditure by therapeutic sub-groups during January-October of the same year, the following was analysed:- The service caring for chronic patients: Hypercholesterolaemia and comparison with expenditure in sub-group B04A (lipid-lowerers/ anti-atheroma drugs).- The service caring for chronic patients: Diabetes and comparison with expenditure in sub-groups A10A (insulin) and A10B (oral antidiabetic drugs). Expenditure was expressed as cost adjusted per 100 insured persons, using the INSALUD coefficients for the adjustment (active person coefficient: 0.732; pensioner coefficient: 0.268). The relationship between the two variables was represented graphically by a cloud of dots. Association between them was measured by Pearson's correlation coefficient. No statistically significant correlation was found between coverage and pharmacy expenditure in these sub-groups. Hypercholesterolaemia/lipid-lowerers: Pearson's coefficient = 0.334, 95% CI (-0.115 to 0.669). Diabetes/oral diabetic drugs and insulin: Pearson's coefficient<0.1.",
"yes. The stronger a physician's relationship with a health plan, the more positive the physician's experience with care management practices and policies was. The concordance between the types of available practices and physicians' ratings suggests that health plans and physicians agree about how to improve the quality of care.",
"Little is known about how concordance between patient self-report and medical record data varies with medical organization type. Given discrepancies in quality of care received across patient cohorts and organizations, it is important to understand the degree to which concordance metrics are robust across organization types. We tested whether concordance between patient selfreport and medical record data would vary with medical organization type, controlling for patient demographic characteristics, health status, and domain of medical care. This observational study included 1270 patients sampled from 39 West Coast medical organizations with at least 1 of the following conditions: diabetes, ischemic heart disease, asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or low back pain. Medical records and patient self-report were used to measure 50 items grouped into 4 conceptual domains: diagnosis, clinical services delivered, counseling and referral, and medication use. We evaluated the concordance between ambulatory medical record and patient survey data. We conducted multivariate logistic regressions to test the impact of medical organization type (medical groups vs independent practice associations), controlling for patient characteristics and domain of care, on 5 concordance measures. Independent practice associations were associated with worse agreement, survey specificity, and medical record sensitivity, and better medical record specificity compared with medical groups.",
"To explore medical home attributes of community health centers (CHCs) that provide care to low-income children nationwide compared to other providers for the poor. Cross-sectional study of children aged 0 to 17 years in the Medical Expenditure Panel Survey (MEPS; 2003 to 2009) who resided in families living at<200% of the federal poverty level (FPL) and had visits to a primary care setting. CHC visits were defined as a visit to a neighborhood/family health center, rural health clinic, or community health center. Independent measures included provider type, age, gender, race/ethnicity, insurance, FPL, number of parents at home, language, maternal education, health status, and special health care need. Dependent measures included 4 medical home attributes: accessibility, and family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. CHCs typically serve low-income children who are publicly insured or uninsured, come from racial/ethnic minority groups, and have poorer health status. Eighty percent to 90% of parents visiting both CHCs and other primary care providers rated high levels of family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care. However, CHCs had a 10% to 18% lower rating of accessibility (after-hours care, telephone access) even after controlling for sociodemographic characteristics. Racial/ethnic disparities existed at both settings, but these patterns did not differ between CHCs and other settings.",
"To determine whether patients' satisfaction with their primary care is related to providers' use of medical resources. Sixty-two practices serving 2805 patients enrolled in BlueCross BlueShield of Minnesota were analyzed using hierarchical regression models. Three measures of satisfaction included patient satisfaction with overall healthcare, patient satisfaction with the time spent with a physician or other provider during a visit, and the likelihood that a patient would recommend the clinic to others. Patient satisfaction was found to be primarily a function of patient characteristics and not of practice characteristics. Providers' use of medical resources was not significantly related to patients' overall ratings of healthcare or to patients' willingness to recommend the practice to others. However, the time spent with a physician or other provider was significantly negatively related to patient satisfaction. Physician workload was significantly related to patient satisfaction.",
"To test the relationship between the presence of recommended chronic care model systems and the degree of integration among large medical groups. Cross-sectional survey in 2007 completed by medical directors of medical groups nationally with at least 100 physicians and a range of medical services and who had also participated in the National Survey of Physician Organizations. We recruited 111 medical directors among 123 who were eligible. The survey asked about the medical group's structural, financial, and functional aspects of integrated care, as well as the presence and use of practice systems for chronic disease care as measured by the Physician Practice Connections-Readiness Survey (PPC-RS). The analysis tested the association between integration measures and the presence of practice systems, controlling for medical group attributes. Ninety-seven completed surveys were returned (89.0% of 109 medical directors eligible). Measures of integration and practice systems varied widely among the medical groups. The total PPC-RS score correlated with each measure of integration but most highly with functional integration (r = 0.53, P<.01). The strongest PPC-RS component score correlations were for delivery systems redesign (r = 0.27-0.52, P<.01) and for decision support (r = 0.21-0.46, P<.05). Adjusting for organizational characteristics had little effect on these relationships.",
"Prior analyses of Medicare health plans have examined either utilization of services or quality of care, but not both jointly. Our objective was to compare utilization and quality for Medicare Advantage (MA) enrollees with diabetes or cardiovascular disease to that for similarly defined traditional Medicare (TM) beneficiaries. Cross-sectional matched observational study using data for 2007. We obtained individual-level Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) relative resource use (RRU) and quality data for patients enrolled in MA, and then developed comparable claims-based measures for matched samples of TM beneficiaries. utilization levels for inpatient care, evaluation and management services, and surgery; number of emergency department (ED) and inpatient visits; and quality of ambulatory care measures. We studied approximately 680,000 MA health maintenance organization (HMO) enrollees with diabetes and 270,000 HMO enrollees with cardiovascular conditions. For both conditions and almost all major strata, the RRU was lower for those enrolled in MA than for those in TM. Spending for those with diabetes was $5223 for MA HMO enrollees compared with $6413 for those in TM (cost ratio, 0.81; P < .001). ED utilization rates were consistently lower in MA than TM (567 vs 719 visits/1000 enrollees; rate ratio, 0.79; P < .001). Health plans that are more established, nonprofit, and/or larger generally had lower resource use and better relative quality than did smaller, newer, for-profit HMOs or preferred provider organizations.",
"Primary care physicians (PCPs) exhibit widely varying referral rates, resulting in dramatic differences in the exposure of their patients to specialists. The relationships between this physician behavior and costs and patient outcomes are unknown. To examine the relationships between PCP referral rates and costs, risk of avoidable hospitalization, health status, and satisfaction. Cross-sectional analyses of claims and patient survey data. Independent practice association (IPA)-style managed care organization in the Rochester, NY, metropolitan area. The 1995 claims data included 457 PCPs in the IPA and 217,606 adult patients assigned to their panels. Approximately 50 consecutive patients of each of a random sample of 100 PCPs completed a patient survey in 1997-1998. From the claims data, total expenditures per panel member, the risk of avoidable hospitalization, and physician referral rate were measured. Measures derived from the survey included SF-12 scores, satisfaction, and physician referral rate. The relationship between physician referral rate and per-panel-member costs was not statistically significant after case-mix adjustment of the referral rate. There was no relationship between the case-mix-adjusted referral rate and risk of avoidable hospitalization. In the survey data, there was no adjusted relationship between the physicians' referral rate and their patients' self-rated physical or mental health. There was a modest direct relationship between patient satisfaction and survey-derived referral rate.",
"yes. Managed-care plans, particularly HMOs, have complex systems for selecting, paying, and monitoring their physicians. Hybrid forms are common, and the differences between group or staff HMOs and network or IPA HMOs are less extensive than is commonly assumed.",
"To investigate the degree to which the absence of prescriber identifying information and the absence of pharmacy claims might affect the validity of physicians' economic profiles. The study database consisted of 4 years of claims from a mixed-model health maintenance organization. Using the grouper of Episode Treatment Groups by Symmetry Health Data Systems, Inc, 2 episode databases were created, with and without pharmacy claims included. For each database, the responsibility for defined episodes was attributed to physicians within specialty (1) on the basis of combined professional and prescribing costs and (2) on the basis of professional costs alone. Using the different databases and attribution rules, physicians were ranked within specialty on the economic profiling metric, and the various rankings were compared for consistency. Analyses were performed for cardiologists, family practitioners, general surgeons, and neurologists. The absence of prescriber identifying information appears to have only a small effect on physicians' economic profiles. The absence of pharmacy claims, on the other hand, may affect economic profile performance, but the effects differ by specialty and depend on pharmacy costs as a percentage of episode total costs for the specialty and the correlation of episode costs with and without pharmacy costs included.",
"The strong association between CoC hospital volume or type and guideline-recommended care diminishes after gastric cancer surgery. Variations in referral, insurance, and documentation patterns are potential explanations for these findings. These results highlight some limitations of using hospital attributes as a sole predictor of optimal cancer care.",
"Patients cared for in IMGs generally received higher-quality primary care than those cared for in IPAs. Having an EMR and implementation of quality improvement strategies did not explain the differences in quality. These findings suggest that physician group type influences health care quality.",
"This study aimed to explore whether specific characteristics of a general practice organization were associated with aspects of patient safety management. Secondary analysis of data from 271 primary care practices, collected in 10 European countries. These data were collected by a practice visitor and physician questionnaires. For this study we constructed 10 measures of patient safety, covering 45 items as outcomes, and 6 measures of practice characteristics as possible predictors for patient safety. Eight of the 10 patient safety measures yielded higher scores in larger practices (practices with more than 2 general practitioners). Medication safety (B 0.64), practice building safety (B 0.49) and incident reporting items (B 0.47) showed the strongest associations with practice size. Also measures on hygiene (B 0.37), medical record keeping (B 0.30), quality improvement (B 0.28), professional competence (B 0.24) and organized patient feedback items (B 0.24) had higher scores in larger practices.",
"To examine whether there are differential impacts of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the use of a recommended cancer screening service (mammography) versus a controversial cancer screening service (prostate cancer screening [PCS]). Observational cohort using the 1996 Medical Expenditure Panel Survey. A nationally representative sample of privately insured individuals was examined. Outcome measures were the receipt of mammography and PCS. Logistic regression was used to assess the impact of patient cost sharing and health plan organizational characteristics on the receipt of mammography and PCS, controlling for other covariates. Patient cost sharing and gatekeeper requirements were strong predictors of PCS but were statistically insignificant predictors of mammography. Men in health plans with a copayment over dollar 10 (odds ratio [OR] = 0.38, 95% confidence interval [CI]= 0.19-0.78) or with deductibles over dollar 250 (OR = 0.38, 95% CI = 0.23-0.62) were significantly less likely to receive PCS than men in plans with no or lower copayments and deductibles. Men in gatekeeper plans were less likely to receive PCS than those without gatekeepers (OR = 0.48, 95% CI = 0.29-0.81).",
"Based on the US Preventive Services Task Force recommendations, we studied how health insurance type, ie, fee-for-service (FFS) or health maintenance organization (HMO), affects the utilization of preventive services of differing effectiveness. Household survey data from the 1993 and 1994 National Health Interview Surveys. We compared the use of mammograms, Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, counseling about hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and general physical examinations in FFS plans and HMOs. We used the bivariate probit model to control for selection bias caused by the unobservable factors in the choice of health insurance type. Enrollees in HMOs obtained more Pap smears, blood pressure measurements, mammograms (women 40 to 49 years old), and general physical examinations than enrollees in FFS plans. No significant difference was found between FFS plans and HMOs for the use of mammograms (women aged 30 to 39 years and 50 to 64 years) or HRT counseling. The correlation ratios from bivariate probit estimations indicated no selection bias favoring HMOs; for some preventive services, selection bias favored FFS plans.",
"yes. FA between medical schools and their primary teaching hospitals more strongly predicts academic health centers' performance than does SI. As demands for greater collaboration increase under health reform, emphasis should be placed on increasing FA rather than SI.",
"To inform the debate about managed care by examining how different types of private insurance-indemnity insurance, PPOs, open model HMOs, and closed model HMOs-affect the use of health services and consumer assessments of care.DATA SOURCES/ The 1996-1997 Community Tracking Study Household Survey, a nationally representative telephone survey of households, and the Community Tracking Study Insurance Followback Survey, a supplement to the Household Survey, which asks insurance organizations to match household respondents to specific insurance products. The analysis sample includes 27,257 nonelderly individuals covered by private insurance. Based on insurer reports, individuals are grouped into one of the four insurance product types. Measures of service use include ambulatory visits, preventive care use, hospital use, surgeries, specialist use, and whether there is a usual source of care. Consumer assessments of care include unmet or delayed care needs, satisfaction with health care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians. Estimates are adjusted to control for differences in individual characteristics and location. As one moves from indemnity insurance to PPOs to open model HMOs to closed model HMOs, use of primary care increases modestly but use of specialists is reduced. Few differences are observed in other areas of service use, such as preventive care, hospital use, and surgeries. The likelihood of having unmet or delayed care does not vary by insurance type, but the reasons that underlie such access problems do vary: enrollees in more managed products are less likely to cite financial barriers to care but are more likely to perceive problems in provider access, convenience, and organizational factors. Consumer assessments of care-including satisfaction with care, ratings of the last physician visit, and trust in physicians-are generally lower under more managed products, particularly closed model HMOs.",
"The amount of public and private funding for health care is associated with US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. Changes in these funding sources may predict future student specialty choice and could be used to plan residency match rates in disciplines such as family medicine.",
"Primary care visits in the preceding year are associated with less, and less costly, end-of-life hospital utilization. Increased primary care access for Medicare beneficiaries may decrease costs and improve quality at the end of life.",
"The effects of Medicaid HMO penetration on physician participation vary by the type of plan. If states are able to attract and retain commercial plans, participation by office-based physicians is likely to increase in a way that opens existing practices to more new Medicaid patients. Other policy variables that affect participation include the presence of a federally qualified health center (FQHC) in the county and cost-adjusted Medicaid fees relative to Medicare.",
"yes. Using sources of information that are routinely employed in primary health care services management, the model enables the measurement of the output of family medicine by considering the dimensions such as inter-personnel relationships, internal coordination of the team and the scientific-technical quality of the service. Despite its simplicity, this measure of the output incorporates the views not only of the users but of the health care professionals, as well.",
"Population health management can be beneficial to the care system making this investment, particularly for patients exhibiting prior continuity in care system choice. The results suggest that co-located primary and specialty services are important in maintaining primary care loyalty.",
"Medicaid and Uninsured populations are a significant focus of current healthcare reform. We hypothesized that outcomes following major surgical operations in the United States is dependent on primary payer status. From 2003 to 2007, 893,658 major surgical operations were evaluated using the Nationwide Inpatient Sample (NIS) database: lung resection, esophagectomy, colectomy, pancreatectomy, gastrectomy, abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, hip replacement, and coronary artery bypass. Patients were stratified by primary payer status: Medicare (n = 491,829), Medicaid (n = 40,259), Private Insurance (n = 337,535), and Uninsured (n = 24,035). Multivariate regression models were applied to assess outcomes. Unadjusted mortality for Medicare (4.4%; odds ratio [OR], 3.51), Medicaid (3.7%; OR, 2.86), and Uninsured (3.2%; OR, 2.51) patient groups were higher compared to Private Insurance groups (1.3%, P < 0.001). Mortality was lowest for Private Insurance patients independent of operation. After controlling for age, gender, income, geographic region, operation, and 30 comorbid conditions, Medicaid payer status was associated with the longest length of stay and highest total costs (P < 0.001). Medicaid (P < 0.001) and Uninsured (P < 0.001) payer status independently conferred the highest adjusted risks of mortality.",
"Separate quality of care assessments for adults and children within the same managed care system identify significant differences in reported quality. Having health plan quality information about adult care does not serve as a proxy for needed information on children, particularly the care related to primary care and specialist providers. Areas of health plan assessment common to both adults and children (eg, claims processing) could be replaced with more targeted assessments of importance to parents and purchasers (eg, children with chronic conditions).",
"no. Performance on HCAHPS is an area that demands hospital attention both to provide patient-centered care and to maximize revenue. Development of an HAC was not associated with decreased satisfaction scores in a population of orthopedic surgery patients at a private, university-affiliated specialty center. The lack of any statistically significant difference in patient satisfaction may be attributable to patient satisfaction with care in response to complications, the decreased sensitivity inherent to using a general satisfaction survey, or a homogeneity among orthopedic surgery patients and their expectations of care.",
"On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.",
"yes. Primary payer status is associated with risk-adjusted postoperative mortality, morbidity, and resource utilization among pediatric surgical patients. Uninsured patients are at increased risk for postoperative mortality while Medicaid patients accrue greater morbidity, hospital lengths of stay, and total charges. These results highlight a complex interaction between socioeconomic and patient-related factors, and primary payer status should be considered in the preoperative risk stratification of pediatric patients.",
"Cross-sectional analyses of baseline performance often inform the development of interventions to improve care. An implicit assumption in these studies is that factors associated with better performance at baseline may also be useful in predicting change in performance over time. We analyzed data collected from 1997-2002 at 77 practices in Northeast Ohio participating in an intervention to increase evidence-based preventive services delivery (PSD). Spearman's correlation coefficients and multivariable models assessed associations between practice-level characteristics (e.g., organizational structure, objectives, climate, and culture) and baseline PSD, and with final PSD controlling for baseline values. Patterns of associations for both outcomes were inspected for overlap. The mean PSD rate was 36.8% (+/-8.8%) at baseline. This measure increased by an average of 4.9% (+/-6.3%) by the end of the intervention. Of eight practice characteristics correlated with either baseline performance or change from baseline in PSD, only two were common to both: characteristics associated with baseline PSD did not predict final PSD in multivariable models.",
"Withdrawals of health plans from Medicare have affected more than 1.6 million beneficiaries. Some plans claim that providing higher quality care raises costs, lowers profits, and spurs withdrawal because plans cannot sustain high quality care under current payment levels. To assess whether higher performance by Medicare health plans on quality indicators was associated with withdrawal. Retrospective cohort study. Taking each county where a contract was active as a unit of analysis, Medicare managed care plans active in 2310 contract-county combinations in 1997 were studied and followed for 3 years. Independent variables were scores on six indicators from the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) for each contract, collapsed into two summary measures: clinical and ambulatory care access. Separate Cox proportional hazards regressions were used for each indicator, and each summary measure, to assess the association of HEDIS performance with our outcome measure, time-to-withdrawal from Medicare. Multiple potential confounders were adjusted for. Of 2310 managed care contract-county combinations, 877 (38%) withdrew. The proportion of contract-counties with high scores on the summary clinical quality measure that withdrew was one-fifth that for low scorers (4.2% vs. 20.5%). For summary ambulatory care access performance, the corresponding ratio was two-fifths (12.8% vs. 32.0%). Lower payments were associated with higher withdrawal risk, but also higher clinical and ambulatory care access quality performance. In separate multivariable analyses controlling for confounders, both high clinical performance (HR, 0.18; 95% CI, 0.08-0.42) and high ambulatory care access performance (HR, 0.53; 95% CI, 0.27-1.07) were independently associated with lower withdrawal risk.",
"Physician reimbursement strategies are associated with diabetes care processes, although their independent contributions are difficult to assess, due to high correlation with physician organizational model. Regardless of causality, a group's use of quality/satisfaction scores to determine physician compensation may indicate delivery of high-quality diabetes care.",
"The patient-centered medical home has gained much traction. Little is known about the relationship between the model and specific health care processes for chronic diseases such as diabetes. This study assesses the impact of features of a medical home on diabetes care. A cross-sectional survey of 540 patients with Medicaid (Medi-Cal) health insurance and type 2 diabetes in Los Angeles County was performed. The Primary Care Assessment Tools was used to measure seven features of medical-home performance. The response rate of the patient survey was 68.9%. Patient-reported medical-home performance averaged a score of 2.85 ± 0.29 (on a 1-4 scale, with 4 equaling the best care). Patients who received more timely and thorough diabetes care reported higher medical-home performance in every feature except for the comprehensiveness-services available. For example, the first-contact access feature score was higher among patients who had an HbA1c test in the past 6 months versus those who did not (2.38 vs. 2.25; P<0.05). Before and after adjusting for sociodemographics and health status, total medical-home performance was positively associated with each diabetes care measure. A 1-point increase in total medical-home score was associated with 4.53 higher odds of an HbA1c test in the past 6 months and 1.88 higher odds of an eye exam in the past year.",
"To investigate the relative impact of physician groups and health plans on quality of care measures. Secondary data analysis of receipt of preventive care services included in the Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) among 10 758 patients representing 21 health maintenance organizations and 22 large provider groups in the San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, areas in 1997. Each patient was eligible for (at least) one of six HEDIS-measured services. Data identify whether or not the service was provided, the patient's health plan, and the provider group responsible for the care. We used logistic regression to examine variations across plans in HEDIS rates, and whether variations persist after controls for provider groups are included. Patients from 21 health maintenance organizations serving San Francisco and Los Angeles, California, in 1997. Breast cancer screening, childhood immunizations, cervical cancer screening, diabetic retinal exam, prenatal care in the first trimester, and check-ups after delivery among patients for whom these services are appropriate. There are statistically significant differences across health plans in utilization rates for the six services examined. These differences are not substantially affected when we control for the provider group that cared for the patient. That is, controlling for provider group does not explain variations across plans, consistent with the view that health plans have an impact on HEDIS quality measures independent of the providers that they contract with.",
"To assess reported results of health care quality for children and adults in managed systems of care and to determine if variations exist between reported quality results for adults and children within the same plan. We utilized Consumer Assessment of Health Plan Survey results reported from 424 managed care plans to the National Committee for Quality Assurance in 1999. Responses from 218 530 adults (515 per plan, 424 plans) and 55 081 parents of children 0-12 years of age (304 per plan, 181 plans) were available. Restricting analyses to the 178 plans reporting both adult and child results, we performed matched-pairs analyses to test the hypothesis that child results would be the same as their adult counterparts within the same plan. Regression methods were employed to test for potential demographic differences explaining observed differences. Within the same plan, reported results for care provided by specialists and primary care physicians to adults and children in the same plan revealed marked variation, including rating of doctor (Spearman correlation coefficient, r(S) =.504) and rating of specialist (r(S) =.326). Conversely, assessments of activities related directly to health plan activities showed little variation, including rating of health plan (r(S) =.850) and claims processing (r(S) =.857). Differences in demographic characteristics between adults and child survey respondents do not appear to explain observed variations.",
"Provider continuity with a family physician is related to lower total health care costs. This finding brings evidence to the debate on the importance of structured primary health care (with high continuity for family practice) for a cost-effective health policy.",
"yes. Health plans appear to be positioned to provide CMR control services that could improve health outcomes, reduce health care costs, and increase workplace productivity in the United States.",
"Health organisations continually seek good output indicators of family medicine health care provision because they are accountable to society, they need to compare services, and need to evaluate the impact of organisational reforms. Using the sources of information routinely available in health-service management, we sought to assess the groups of components of primary health care output that best serve to define the outcome of family medicine services. Cross-sectional descriptive study. SITE: Primary health care in Catalunya. 213 primary health care teams. Information was collected on team structure, user satisfaction, quality-of-professional-life of the health care professionals, and physicians' drug prescription. Confirmatory Factor Analysis was used to assess the number of dimensions that best explained the family medicine outcome. The model that best fits the structure of the data (AGFI=0.778) is that which consists of three dimensions i.e. (1) the individual accessibility to the services and professional-patient relationship; (2) the coordination within the health care team; (3) the scientific-technical quality of the service. The first two of these dimensions were correlated between themselves, but the third was totally independent of the other two.",
"To examine the relationship between racial disparities in common primary care procedures and patient HMO membership and physician level of HMO participation. Cross-sectional analysis. Data were obtained from a nationally representative sample of primary care office visits documented in the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey for 1985, 1989-1992, and 1997-2000. Patient HMO membership was assessed based on reports by primary care physicians (defined as family physicians/general practitioners, internists, or obstetrician-gynecologists). Physician HMO participation was assessed based on the proportion of the physician's patients who were in an HMO. Patient characteristics (age, sex, race, insurance, diagnoses) and office procedures or interventions were determined by examining the physician report. Patients were adults aged 19 years or older. In adjusted analyses, African Americans, compared with whites, had lower odds of receiving a Pap test (adjusted odds ratio [AORI = 0.76; 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.65, .90), a rectal exam (AOR = 0.67; 95% CI = 0.54, 0.84), smoking cessation advice (AOR = 0.72; 95% CI = 0.58, 0.91), and mental health advice (AOR = 0.46; 95% CI = 0.29, 0.72), but had higher odds of receiving advice on diet and weight, and a follow-up appointment. Notably, there were no significant interactions between either patient HMO membership or physician level of HMO participation, patient race, and receipt of primary care services.",
"To study how payment for specialty services affects the rates of performance of invasive procedures by physicians in a number of specialties. Observational study. Administrative data from 1996-1997 and 1997-1998 from 3 large health maintenance organizations (HMOs) in the Midwestern and western United States were used to study variations in procedure rates associated with different methods of paying for cardiology, gastroenterology, ophthalmology, orthopedic, and ear, nose and throat services within each HMO. The age-, sex-, and comorbidity adjusted probabilities of undergoing selected, potentially discretionary procedures, were compared within each plan by payment method. After adjustment, rates under fee-for-service payment tended to be higher than those under capitation or salary payment, whereas there was no clear pattern for salary versus capitation payment. Even within a single specialty in a single plan, however, rates did not always follow the same pattern for different procedures.",
"This study explored whether certain economic markers are associated with changes in the selection of primary care as a career. Using linear regression models, we examined whether economic factors in the United States could be used to predict the variability in US senior match rates in family medicine and three hospital-based specialties between 1978 and 2000. A linear regression model using several economic indicators showed that public and private expenditures were associated with the US senior match rates in family medicine, anesthesia, and radiology. As private expenditures increased, the match rate for family medicine fell while the match rates for anesthesia and radiology increased. Increases in public expenditures were associated with increased family medicine match rates and declining match rates for the other two specialties. Increases in private spending resulted in average increases of 0.92% and 2.38% in the anesthesia and radiology match, respectively, with a drop in family medicine match rates of 1.36%. We found that for every 1% increase in public expenditures for health, family medicine match rates rise on average 1.39%, while anesthesia rates fall by 0.84% and radiology rates drop 2.16%.",
"To identify primary care practice characteristics associated with colorectal cancer (CRC) screening performance, controlling for patient-level factors. Primary care director survey (1999-2000) of 155 VA primary care clinics linked with 38,818 eligible patients' sociodemographics, utilization, and CRC screening experience using centralized administrative and chart-review data (2001). Practices were characterized by degrees of centralization (e.g., authority over operations, staffing, outside-practice influence); resources (e.g., sufficiency of nonphysician staffing, space, clinical support arrangements); and complexity (e.g., facility size, academic status, managed care penetration), adjusting for patient-level covariates and contextual factors. Chart-based evidence of CRC screening through direct colonoscopy, sigmoidoscopy, or consecutive fecal occult blood tests, eliminating cases with documented histories of CRC, polyps, or inflammatory bowel disease. After adjusting for sociodemographic characteristics and health care utilization, patients were significantly more likely to be screened for CRC if their primary care practices had greater autonomy over the internal structure of care delivery (p<.04), more clinical support arrangements (p<.03), and smaller size (p<.001).",
"With US employers and purchasers having largely rejected traditional indemnity insurance as unaffordable, the results suggest that the current momentum toward open-model managed care plans is consistent with goals for high-quality primary care, but that the effects of specific financial and nonfinancial incentives used by plans must continue to be examined.",
"Despite the growth of managed care in the United States, there is little information about the arrangements managed-care plans make with physicians. In 1994 we surveyed by telephone 138 managed-care plans that were selected from 20 metropolitan areas nationwide. Of the 108 plans that responded, 29 were group-model or staff-model health maintenance organizations (HMOs), 50 were network or independent-practice-association (IPA) HMOs, and 29 were preferred-provider organizations (PPOs). Respondents from all three types of plan said they emphasized careful selection of physicians, although the group or staff HMOs tended to have more demanding requirements, such as board certification or eligibility. Sixty-one percent of the plans responded that physicians' previous patterns of costs or utilization of resources had little influence on their selection; 26 percent said these factors had a moderate influence; and 13 percent said they had a large influence. Some risk sharing with physicians was typical in the HMOs but rare in the PPOs. Fifty-six percent of the network or IPA HMOs used capitation as the predominant method of paying primary care physicians, as compared with 34 percent of the group or staff HMOs and 7 percent of the PPOs. More than half the HMOs reported adjusting payments according to utilization or cost patterns, patient complaints, and measures of the quality of care. Ninety-two percent of the network or IPA HMOs and 61 percent of the group or staff HMOs required their patients to select a primary care physician, who was responsible for most referrals to specialists. About three quarters of the HMOs and 31 percent of the PPOs reported using studies of the outcomes of medical care as part of their quality-improvement programs.",
"To examine associations between physician reimbursement incentives and diabetes care processes and explore potential confounding with physician organizational model. Primary data collected during 2000-2001 in 10 managed care plans. Multilevel logistic regressions were used to estimate associations between reimbursement incentives and process measures, including the receipt of dilated eye exams, foot exams, influenza immunizations, advice to take aspirin, and assessments of glycemic control, proteinuria, and lipid profile. Reimbursement measures included the proportions of compensation received from salary, capitation, fee-for-service (FFS), and performance-based payment; the performance-based payment criteria used; and interactions of these criteria with the strength of the performance-based payment incentive. Patient, provider group, and health plan surveys and medical record reviews were conducted for 6,194 patients with diabetes. Without controlling for physician organizational model, care processes were better when physician compensation was based primarily on direct salary rather than FFS reimbursement (four of seven processes were better, with relative risks ranging from 1.13 to 1.23) or capitation (six were better, with relative risks from 1.06 to 1.36); and when quality/satisfaction scores influenced physician compensation (three were better, with relative risks from 1.17 to 1.26). However, these associations were substantially confounded by organizational model.",
"To examine the relationship between primary care medical home clinical practice systems corresponding to the domains of the Chronic Care Model and annual diabetes-related health care costs incurred by members of a health plan with type-2 diabetes and receiving care at one of 27 Minnesota-based medical groups. Cross-sectional analysis of the relation between patient-level costs and Patient-Centered Medical Home (PCMH) practice systems as measured by the Physician Practice Connections Readiness Survey. Multivariate regressions adjusting for patient demographics, health status, and comorbidities estimated the relationship between the use of PCMH clinical practice systems and 3 annual cost outcomes: total costs of diabetes-related care, outpatient medical costs of diabetes-related care, and inpatient costs of diabetes-related care (ie, inpatient and emergency care). Overall PCMH scores were not significantly related to any annual cost outcome; however, 2 of 5 subdomains were related. Health Care Organization scores were related to significantly lower total (P=0.04) and inpatient costs (P=0.03). Clinical Decision Support was marginally related to a lower total cost (P=0.06) and significantly related to lower inpatient costs (P=0.02). A detailed analysis of the Health Care Organization domain showed that compared with medical groups with only quality improvement, those with performance measurement and individual provider feedback averaged $245/patient less. Medical groups with clinical reminders for counseling averaged $338/patient less.",
"Health care reimbursement is increasingly based on quality. Little is known about how clinic-level patient characteristics affect quality, particularly in community health centers (CHCs). Using data from electronic health records for 4019 diabetic patients from 23 primary care CHCs in the OCHIN practice-based research network, we calculated correlations between a clinic's patient panel characteristics and rates of delivery of diabetes preventive services in 2007. Using regression models, we estimated the proportion of variability in clinics' preventive services rates associated with the variability in the clinics' patient panel characteristics. We also explored whether clinics' performance rates were affected by how patient panel denominators were defined. Clinic rates of hemoglobin testing, influenza immunizations, and lipid screening were positively associated with the percentage of patients with continuous health insurance coverage and negatively associated with the percentage of uninsured patients. Microalbumin screening rates were positively associated with the percentage of racial minorities in a clinic's panel. Associations remained consistent with different panel denominators.",
"The association between the organizational structure of physician groups and health care quality has never been evaluated empirically. To examine whether integrated medical groups (IMGs) provide higher-quality primary care than individual practice associations (IPAs). Cross-sectional study. PacifiCare, a large health maintenance organization. Approximately 1.7 million enrollees of PacifiCare cared for by 119 California physician groups between July 1999 and June 2000. The percentage of eligible PacifiCare enrollees who received mammography, Papanicolaou smear screening, chlamydia screening, diabetic eye examination, an asthma controller medication, or a beta-blocker after acute myocardial infarction. Physician groups identified as IMGs, compared with those identified as IPAs, had higher rates of mammography (relative risk, 1.15 [95% CI, 1.01 to 1.33]), Papanicolaou smear screening (relative risk, 2.29 [CI, 1.53 to 3.42]), chlamydia screening (relative risk, 2.17 [CI, 1.04 to 4.55]), and diabetic eye screening (relative risk, 1.55 [CI, 1.28 to 1.88]). Leaders of IMGs were more likely to report using EMRs (37% vs. 2%; P<0.001) and quality improvement strategies, but these characteristics explained little of the quality differences between IMGs and IPAs. Organizational characteristics, including group type, were reported by physician group leaders and not directly assessed. Patient characteristics that could have accounted for some of the observed differences also were not assessed.",
"The financing and organization of primary care in the United States has changed dramatically in recent decades. Primary care physicians have shifted from solo practice to larger group practices. The culture of a medical practice is thought to have an important influence on physician behavior. This study examines the effects of practice culture and organizational structure (while controlling for patient and physician characteristics) on the quality of physician decision-making. Data were obtained from a balanced factorial experiment which employed a clinically authentic video-taped scenario of diabetes with emerging peripheral neuropathy. Our findings show that several key practice culture variables significantly influence clinical decision-making with respect to diabetes. Practice culture may contribute more to whether essential examinations are performed than patient or physician variables or the structural characteristics of clinical organizations.",
"The objective of the study was to measure how access to primary health care in Mississippi varies by type of health insurance. We called primary care physician (general practitioner, family practice, internal medicine, obstetrics/gynecology, and pediatric) offices in Mississippi three times, citing different types of health insurance coverage in each call, and asked for a new patient appointment with a physician. Of all of the offices contacted, 7% of offices were not currently accepting new patients who had private insurance, 15% of offices were not currently accepting new Medicare patients, 38% were not currently accepting new Medicaid patients, and 9% to 21% of office calls were unresolved in one telephone call to the office.",
"To examine the extent to which medical group and market factors are related to individual primary care physician (PCP) performance on patient experience measures. This study employs Clinician and Group CAHPS survey data (n=105,663) from 2,099 adult PCPs belonging to 34 diverse medical groups across California. Medical group directors were interviewed to assess the magnitude and nature of financial incentives directed at individual physicians and the adoption of patient experience improvement strategies. Primary care services area (PCSA) data were used to characterize the market environment of physician practices. We used multilevel models to estimate the relationship between medical group and market factors and physician performance on each Clinician and Group CAHPS measure. Models statistically controlled for respondent characteristics and accounted for the clustering of respondents within physicians, physicians within medical groups, and medical groups within PCSAs using random effects. Compared with physicians belonging to independent practice associations, physicians belonging to integrated medical groups had better performance on the communication ( p=.007) and care coordination ( p=.03) measures. Physicians belonging to medical groups with greater numbers of PCPs had better performance on all measures. The use of patient experience improvement strategies was not associated with performance. Greater emphasis on productivity and efficiency criteria in individual physician financial incentive formulae was associated with worse access to care ( p=.04). Physicians located in PCSAs with higher area-level deprivation had worse performance on the access to care ( p=.04) and care coordination ( p<.001) measures.",
"Physician organizations (POs)--independent practice associations and medical groups--located in lower socioeconomic status (SES) areas may score poorly in pay-for-performance (P4P) programs. To examine the association between PO location and P4P performance. Cross-sectional study; Integrated Healthcare Association's (IHA's) P4P Program, the largest non-governmental, multi-payer program for POs in the U.S. 160 POs participating in 2009. We measured PO SES using established methods that involved geo-coding 11,718 practice sites within 160 POs to their respective census tracts and weighting tract-specific SES according to the number of primary care physicians at each site. P4P performance was defined by IHA's program and was a composite mainly representing clinical quality, but also including measures of patient experience, information technology and registry use. The area-based PO SES measure ranged from -11 to +11 (mean 0, SD 5), and the IHA P4P performance score ranged from 23 to 86 (mean 69, SD 15). In bivariate analysis, there was a significant positive relationship between PO SES and P4P performance (p < 0.001). In multivariate analysis, a one standard deviation increase in PO SES was associated with a 44% increase (relative risk 1.44, 95%CI, 1.22-1.71) in the likelihood of a PO being ranked in the top two quintiles of performance (p < 0.001).",
"To identify the characteristics of the primary health-care (PHC) team's structure and of the assigned population affecting service quality dimensions, and to check whether the PHC team's performance varies when assessing the service quality using crude values or those adjusted by the structural factors that affect it. Cross-sectional descriptive study. 213 Catalan PHC teams. Service quality indicators measured in three dimensions: (1) access and physician-patient relationship; (2) team coordination and (3) evidence-based practice. The PHC team structural factors studied are: experience, setting (urban or rural), geographical dispersion, teaching activities and managerial structure. The catchment population characteristics analysed are: age, socio-economic level, mortality, and the proportion of the population that are immigrants. Access and physician-patient relationship dimension were not affected by the studied structural factors. Team coordination improved in rural teams and in those providing care for older populations. Evidence-based practice was found to be higher in teaching teams, in more experienced teams and in those attending populations with a lower socio-economic level. Adjusted service quality indicator values substantially modify the PHC team quality ranking carried out on the basis of its crude values, especially in the team coordination and evidence-based practice dimensions.",
"Growth of at-risk managed care contracts between health plans and medical groups has been well documented, but less is known about the nature of financial incentives within those medical groups or their effects on health care utilization. To test whether utilization and cost of health services per enrollee were influenced independently by the compensation method of the enrollee's primary care physician. Survey of medical groups contracting with selected managed care health plans, linked to 1994 plan enrollment and utilization data for adult enrollees. Medical groups, major managed care health plans, and their patients/enrollees in the state of Washington. Sixty medical groups in Washington, 865 primary care physicians (internal medicine, pediatrics, family practice, or general practice) from those groups and affiliated with 1 or more of 4 managed care health plans, and 200 931 adult plan enrollees. The effect of method of primary care physician's compensation on the utilization and cost of health services was analyzed by weighted least squares and random effects regression. Total visits, hospital days, and per member per year estimated costs. Compensation method was not significantly (P>.30) related to utilization and cost in any multivariate analyses. Patient age (P<.001), female gender (P<.001), and plan benefit level (P<.001) were significantly positively related to visits, hospital days, and per member per year costs. The primary care physician's age was significantly negatively related (P<.001) to all 3 dependent measures.",
"Recent reports have emphasized the importance of delivery systems in improving health care quality. However, few prior studies have assessed differences in primary care quality between physician groups that differ in size and organizational configuration. We examined whether larger physician group size and affiliation with networks of multiple groups are associated with higher quality of care. We conducted a cross-sectional observational analysis of 132 physician groups (including 4,358 physicians) who delivered primary care services in Massachusetts in 2002. We compared physician groups on performance scores for 12 Health Plan Employer Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures reflecting processes of adult primary care. Network-affiliated physician groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups for 10 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05). There was no consistent relationship between group size and performance scores. Multivariable models including group size, network affiliation, and health plan showed that network-affiliated groups had higher performance scores than non-affiliated groups on 8 of the 12 HEDIS measures (p<0.05), and larger group size was not associated with higher performance scores. Adjusted differences in the performance scores of network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups ranged from 2% to 15%. For 4 HEDIS measures related to diabetes care, performance score differences between network-affiliated and non-affiliated groups were most apparent among the smallest groups.",
"yes. Deficits in primary care clinical support arrangements and local autonomy over operational management and referral procedures are associated with significantly lower CRC screening performance. Competition with hospital resource demands may impinge on the degree of internal organization of their affiliated primary care practices.",
"To determine if patient assessments (reports and ratings) of primary care differ by patient ethnicity.DATA SOURCES/ A self-administered patient survey of 6,092 Massachusetts employees measured seven defining characteristics of primary care: (1) access (financial, organizational); (2) continuity (longitudinal, visit based); (3) comprehensiveness (knowledge of patient, preventive counseling); (4) integration; (5) clinical interaction (communication, thoroughness of physical examinations); (6) interpersonal treatment; and (7) trust. The study employed a cross-sectional observational design. Asians had the lowest primary care performance assessments of any ethnic group after adjustment for socioeconomic and other factors. For example, compared to whites, Asians had lower scores for communication (69 vs. 79, p = .001) and comprehensive knowledge of patient (56 vs. 48, p = .002), African Americans and Latinos had less access to care, and African Americans had less longitudinal continuity than whites.",
"The competitive managed care marketplace is causing increased restrictiveness in the structure of health plans. The effect of plan restrictiveness on the delivery of primary care is unknown. Our purpose was to examine the association of the organizational and financial restrictiveness of managed care plans with important elements of primary care, the patient-clinician relationship, and patient satisfaction. We conducted a cross-sectional study of 15 member practices of the Ambulatory Sentinel Practice Network selected to represent diverse health care markets. Each practice completed a Managed Care Survey to characterize the degree of organizational and financial restrictiveness for each individual health care plan. A total of 199 managed care plans were characterized. Then, 1475 consecutive outpatients completed a patient survey that included: the Components of Primary Care Instrument as a measure of attributes of primary care; a measure of the amount of inconvenience involved with using the health care plan; and the Medical Outcomes Study Visit Rating Form for assessing patient satisfaction. Clinicians' reports of inconvenience were significantly associated (P<.001) with the financial and organizational restrictiveness scores of the plan. There was no association between plan restrictiveness and patient report of multiple aspects of the delivery of primary care or patient satisfaction with the visit.",
"Primary care performance has been shown to differ under different models of health care delivery, even among various models of managed care. Pervasive changes in our nation's health care delivery systems, including the emergence of new forms of managed care, compel more current data. To compare the primary care received by patients in each of 5 models of managed care (managed indemnity, point of service, network-model health maintenance organization [HMO], group-model HMO, and staff-model HMO) and identify specific characteristics of health plans associated with performance differences. Cross-sectional observational study of Massachusetts adults who reported having a regular personal physician and for whom plan-type was known (n = 6018). Participants completed a validated questionnaire measuring 7 defining characteristics of primary care. Senior health plan executives provided information about financial and nonfinancial features of the plan's contractual arrangements with physicians. The managed indemnity system performed most favorably, with the highest adjusted mean scores for 8 of 10 measures (P<.05). Point of service and network-model HMO performance equaled the indemnity system on many measures. Staff-model HMOs performed least favorably, with adjusted mean scores that were lowest or statistically equivalent to the lowest score on all 10 scales. Among network-model HMOs, several features of the plan's contractual arrangement with physicians (ie, capitated physician payment, extensive use of clinical practice guidelines, financial incentives concerning patient satisfaction) were significantly associated with performance (P<.05)."
] | 590 |
Are genetic influences on peptic ulcer dependent or independent of genetic influences for Helicobacter pylori infection? | [
"Genetic factors play a role or roles in the etiology of peptic ulcer disease and the acquisition of Helicobacter pylori infection. To evaluate the relative importance of genetic and environmental influences as well as the importance of H. pylori on peptic ulcer disease. Cross-sectional study on monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins, reared apart or together. Twins of the subregistry of the Swedish Twin Registry included in the Swedish Adoption/Twin Study of Aging. Peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori status were assessed in MZ and DZ twin pairs reared apart or together. A total of 258 twin pairs had information regarding H. pylori status and history of peptic ulcer. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed as the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG. The intraclass correlations for peptic ulcer disease for MZ twins reared apart and together and DZ twins reared apart and together were 0.67, 0.65, 0.22, and 0.35, respectively, which indicates that genetic effects are important for liability to peptic ulcer. The correlation coefficient for MZ twins reared apart (0.67) provides the best single estimate of the relative importance of genetic effects (heritability) for variation in liability to peptic ulcer disease, and structural model fitting analyses confirmed this result (heritability, 62%). The cross-twin cross-trait correlations for MZ and DZ twins were examined to determine whether genetic effects for peptic ulcer were shared with or independent of genetic influences for H. pylori. The cross-correlations for MZ and DZ twins were almost identical (0.25 and 0.29, respectively), suggesting that familial environmental rather than genetic influences mediate the association between peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori infection.",
"Genetic influences are of moderate importance for liability to peptic ulcer disease. Genetic influences for peptic ulcer are independent of genetic influences important for acquiring H. pylori infection."
] | [
"H. pylori infection monitored by LARA- (13)C-urea breath test was rapidly suppressed during intensive care treatment, which can be explained by the routine use of antibiotics for gut decontamination.The low incidence of stress ulcer-related bleeding might be related to the prevention of H. pylori-associated stress lesions by effective suppression of this microorganism, but further studies are warranted to test this hypothesis.",
"yes. The children of H. pylori-infected dyspeptic mothers had an increased risk for such infection. The risk further increased once their siblings were infected. H. pylori infection in pre-adolescent children may determine iron deficiency and growth retardation.",
"The role of Helicobacter pylori in nonulcer dyspepsia is controversial. Speculation has arisen that only strains of H. pylori carrying the CagA virulence factor are important in the development of dyspepsia. The objective of this study was to determine whether nonulcer dyspepsia correlated with CagA-positive H. pylori infection. A total of 435 healthy blood donors and 102 general medicine clinic respondents completed the Bowel Disease Questionnaire and the PRIME-MD survey, a validated screen for common psychiatric disorders. Subjects were classified as cases of nonulcer dyspepsia if they reported pain in the upper abdomen more than six times in the previous year and denied a past or current history of peptic ulcer disease. Study participants were tested for IgG antibodies to H. pylori and the CagA protein. Clinic respondents were more likely than healthy blood donors to meet the case definition for nonulcer dyspepsia (34% vs 13%, p < 0.001), to be seropositive for H. pylori (54% vs 18%, p < 0.001), and to be CagA seropositive (41% vs 10%, p = 0.01). Logistic regression identified CagA seropositivity (p = 0.03), race (p = 0.001), and positive screens for depression (p = 0.007) or somatization (p < 0.001) as variables independently associated with nonulcer dyspepsia.",
"yes. Patients with and without preoperative H. pylori infection had few differences in adverse pathologic features at the time of gastric adenocarcinoma resection. Despite similar disease presentations, preoperative H. pylori infection was independently associated with improved OS. Further studies examining the interaction between H. pylori and tumor immunology and genetics are merited.",
"The impact of H pylori infection as an independent risk factor for CHD seems to be minor. On the other hand the results are consistent with the hypothesis that H pylori infection might modify the serum lipid concentrations in a way that could increase the risk of CHD.",
"The role that H. pylori infection plays in the development of and Barrett's esophagus (BE) is uncertain. We tested the hypothesis that infection with cagA+ Helicobacter pylori strains protects against the development of BE. We studied 104 consecutive patients, residents in an area with a high prevalence of H. pylori infection, with BE and 213 sex- and age-matched controls. H. pylori infection and CagA antibody status were determined by western blot serology. H. pylori prevalence was higher in patients with BE than in controls (87.5% vs. 74.6%; OR. 2.3; 95% CI: 1.23-4.59). Increasing age was associated with a higher prevalence of H. pylori (p < 0.05). The prevalence of CagA+ H. pylori serology was similar in patients with BE and controls (64.4% vs. 54.5%; NS). Type I H. pylori infection (CagA+ and VacA+) was similar in patients with BE and controls (44.2% vs. 41.3%; NS). Logistic regression analysis identified alcohol (O.R. 7.09; 95% CI 2.23-22.51), and H. pylori infection (OR: 2.41; 95%CI: 1.20-4.84) but not CagA+ serology as independent factors.",
"Proinflammatory interleukin (IL)-1 gene polymorphisms associated with high levels of IL-1beta activity increase the risk for hypochlorhydria and distal gastric carcinoma. The aim of this study was to evaluate whether carriers of these polymorphic genes are protected against gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). TNFA-308 polymorphisms were also studied. We prospectively evaluated 385 patients without gastric cancer and peptic ulcer. Of these patients, 383 (98 with GERD and 285 controls) were successfully genotyped for all cytokines studied. The cagA status of Helicobacter pylori isolates was determined by polymerase chain reaction (PCR). IL1B-511/-31, IL1RN, and TNFA-308 polymorphisms were genotyped by PCR, PCR/restriction fragment length polymorphism, or PCR/confronting 2-pair primers. Histologic gastritis was assessed according to the updated Sydney system. The role of the proinflammatory cytokine genotypes in the genesis of GERD was evaluated before and after stratification by H. pylori status in logistic regression models controlling for confounding factors. IL1B-31 (a near-complete linkage disequilibrium between polymorphism at -31 and -511 was found) and IL1RN*2 allele polymorphisms were associated with GERD. After stratification, in the group of H. pylori-positive patients, cagA-positive status, IL1B-31 polymorphic alleles, IL1RN*2 alleles, and the degree of corpus gastritis were negatively associated with GERD. In the H. pylori-negative group, IL1B-31C/C genotype was inversely associated with GERD even after adjustment for age and sex.",
"yes. Carriage of the shorter allele of the PG-II 100 bp ins/del polymorphism and elevated levels of PG-II are associated with GC, particularly with H. pylori infection and IM.",
"yes. Helicobacter pylori, and especially strains carrying the CagA gene, may contribute to the inflammatory mechanisms involved in the pathogenesis of PE.",
"yes. PCR study demonstrated that there was no significant association between the distribution of babA2 genotype or of triple positive strains and disease outcome in this sub population. The adherence assay showed that there was no significant difference in the extent of adherence to AGS cells among babA2 positive and negative strains. But the ex vivo study indicated that the triple positive or even the babA2 only positive strains are involved in increased virulence. The wild type strains also exhibited increased virulence compared to the babA2 mutant strains. This inconsistency demonstrated that bacterial genotype along with host genetic polymorphisms or other factors play important role in determining the clinical manifestation of H. pylori infections.",
"yes. In individuals with the T allele at the -260 site of the promoter region of the CD14 gene, H. pylori infection accentuates gastric mucosal inflammation.",
"Infection with cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) Helicobacter pylori is associated with severe gastric diseases. Previous studies in humans have reported a decreased gastric hydrophobicity with H pylori infection. The aim of the present study was to differentiate between the effect of cagA+ and cagA- strains on gastric mucus hydrophobicity. One hundred patients without peptic ulcers and not on medication were randomly recruited from endoscopy clinics; each patient had six biopsies. Contact angle measurements were performed using a goniometer assisted by computer software. H pylori status was assessed by histology, Campylobacter-like organism test and culture, and cagA+ status was determined by polymerase chain reaction. In age- and sex-matched patients, there was no significant difference (P=0.27) in contact angle between H pylori-positive (61+/-2.8 degrees ) and H pylori-negative patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees ). There was also no significant difference (P=0.36) in contact angle among H pylori-negative, cagA- and cagA+ patients (65.5+/-3.0 degrees , 58.6+/-3.6 degrees and 63.4+/-4.9 degrees , respectively). However, a trend of increased mean contact angles in cagA+ compared with cagA- and H pylori-negative patients was observed in patients 50 years and younger (68.3+/-8.3 degrees , 61.1+/-6.1 degrees and 63.6+/-2.2 degrees , respectively; P=0.70) and in patients without atrophy (71.1+/-8 degrees , 59.6+/-4 degrees and 66+/-2 degrees , respectively; P=0.30). In addition, there was no significant correlation between contact angles and patient age (r=0.104, P=0.306).",
"Cytochrome P450 2C19 (CYP2C19) polymorphism has been associated with the development of lung, liver or oesophageal cancer by detoxification of carcinogen(s) or activation of procarcinogen(s). To clarify the association between CYP2C19 polymorphisms and gastric cancer development in Japanese. Methods : We determined CYP2C19 genotypes (CYP2C19*1, *2 and *3) in 111 Helicobacter pylori-positive patients with gastric cancer and 315 H. pylori-positive controls without gastric cancer consisting of patients with gastritis only or peptic ulcer. Frequencies of CYP2C19 genotypes and serum pepsinogen I and II levels, a biomarker of gastric atrophy, in the gastric cancers and controls were compared. Frequencies of homozygous extensive metabolizers, heterozygous extensive metabolizers and poor metabolizers were 31.5%, 42.3% and 26.2% in the gastric cancers and 38.1%, 47.0% and 14.9% in the controls, respectively (P = 0.046). Poor metabolizers were associated with an increased risk for developing gastric cancer with the age- and sex-adjusted odds ratio (OR) of 1.975 [95% confidence interval (CI): 1.068-3.649], especially for diffuse type (OR: 3.385, CI: 1.187-9.648). There is no significant association between CYP2C19 genotypes and serum pepsinogen I level or pepsinogen I/II ratios, although serum pepsinogen I level in gastric cancers were significantly decreased.",
"yes. In this study, a DNA construct encoding the urease B subunit was assessed for its immune profile and its ability to reduce bacterial colonization in the murine stomach. Our studies suggest that local innate immune responses may play a greater role than previously supposed in limiting H. pylori colonization in the gastric mucosa.",
"Although H. pylori infection has been recognized as a cause of gastric cancer in humans, some large populations with high prevalence of infection have low gastric cancer rates. This so-called \"African enigma\" so far remains unexplained. Our findings suggest that virulence-associated genes of H. pylori may partially explain the African enigma. Other factors, including human genetic polymorphisms and diet, are also suspected to play a major role. Further investigations are needed to test this hypothesis.",
"yes. Our data suggest that early-life stress, on the background of a genetic predisposition to display an anxiety- and depressive-like phenotype, selectively influences GI function rather than stress-related behaviors. Thus, our findings highlight the importance of genetic predisposition on the outcome of early-life adversity on GI function.",
"Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) has been recognized as one of the most common chronic bacterial infections in the world. Most children are colonized in early childhood, and the infection will last a lifetime unless the child is treated with appropriate antibiotics.AIM: To evaluate whether H. pylori infection has an influence on growth and whether the severity of endoscopic findings relates to the growth impairment. We formed four groups based on the presence or absence of H. pylori infection and gastrointestinal complaints as follows: group I: RAP +/H. pylori+; group II: RAP +/H. pylori-; group III: RAP -/H. pylori+; group IV: RAP -/H. pylori-. The relationship between endoscopic appearances, histological severity of gastritis, and antral H. pylori density with growth parameters was evaluated. The BMI standard derivation scores of groups I and II were significantly lower than those of asymptomatic controls independent of their H. pylori status. A significant difference in height for age standard derivation scores was observed only between groups I and IV. When we compared the BMI and height for age standard derivation scores of group III and group IV combined with that of the endoscopically normal children in the recurrent abdominal pain group, there was no significant difference between the two groups.",
"yes. IL-1beta-511 polymorphism is one of the determinants of successful eradication of H. pylori using triple therapy with a PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin, together with CYP2C19 genotype and bacterial resistance to clarithromycin.",
"yes. Although, H. pylori strains with distinct cagA-types are circulating within the primary ethnic groups resident in Malaysia and Singapore, these genotypes appear unassociated with the development of GC in the ethnic Chinese population. The phenomenon of distinct strains circulating within different ethnic groups, in combination with host and certain environmental factors, may help to explain the rates of GC development in Malaysia.",
"yes. Our data suggest that the TLR4+896A>G polymorphism is a risk factor for noncardia gastric carcinoma and its precursors. The findings underscore the role of the host innate immune response in outcome of H pylori infection.",
"yes. This study indicated that the up-regulation of miR-155 and miR-146b decreases H. pylori (cagA+)-introduced IL6 overexpression, which might weaken the cleanup of H. pylori (cagA+) and contributes to ulcer.",
"yes. Genetic variations in the IL-1β and IL-1RN genes influence disease progression in gastric cancer. Screening for these genetic variations might help to stratify therapies for gastric cancer patients in the future.",
"Helicobacter pylori was found to increase the transcription of RANTES as a potent chemoattractant cytokine in mucosal inflammation. The aim of this study was to test if a functional promotor polymorphism in the RANTES gene leading to a higher transcriptional activity influences the severity of the mucosal damage in H. pylori infected individuals. A single nucleotide polymorphism, C-471T, was genotyped by TaqMan technology in a sample of 344 consecutive patients with H. pylori infection undergoing upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and 370 blood donors. Association with the development of erosions and stomach or duodenum ulcers as well as atrophic gastritis were tested. None of the genotypes were associated with the severity of mucosal damage in stomach or duodenum (P > 0.05).",
"yes. Our findings provide evidence that GGT is a pathogenic factor associated with H pylori-induced peptic ulcer disease.",
"yes. The IL-1β -581C/T and IL-1β -1061C/T genotypes may be associated with low-dose aspirin-induced peptic ulcers in a Korean ethnic group.",
"yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.",
"no. Helicobacter pylori infection was not significantly more prevalent in polytraumatized patients with hemorrhage when compared with control group. Our data suggest that the infection with Helicobacter pylori does not play an important role in bleeding, indicating no causative role for it in upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage of polytraumatized patients. The incidence of bleeding is low and bleeding develops usually later, in the meantime is the Helicobacter pylori infection eradicated with the antibiotics used for another purpose.",
"yes. Ethnic Malays is genetically susceptible to H. pylori infection and is possibly mediated through a genetic variation in the DCC gene.",
"To investigate whether the sequential therapy composed of high dose omeprazole and high dose amoxicillin in the first step was effective in eradication of H. pylori and whether there was a relation between effectiveness of the therapy and CYP2C19 gene polymorphism. 134 dyspeptic patients with H. pylori were administered a modified sequential therapy composed of omeprazole 40 mg t.i.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg t.i.d, for the first five days followed by omeprazole 20 mg b.d., metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. and tetracycline 500 mg t.i.d, for the next five days. CYP2C19 genotype status was determined in patients. Hp eradication status was investigated by C14 UNT four weeks after treatment. The eradication rates were 64.9% in ITT and 74.3% in PP analysis. In subgroup analyses, eradication rates were 73.8% and 60.8% (p: 0.145) in ITT for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively and 86.1% and 69.1% (p: 0.052) in PP analysis for peptic ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia patients respectively. The difference was not significant. As for the CYP2C19 gene status, 81.5% of the patients had HoEM and 17.3% of the patients had HeEM, and eradication rates were 72% and 75% in ITT analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.803) and 73.9% and 85.7% in PP analysis for HoEM and HeEM respectively (p: 0.347). There was not a significant difference in H. pylori eradication rates between the two groups.",
"yes. Gastric cancer in patients younger than 40 years is closely associated with H. pylori infection, but not with genetic characteristics. Eradication therapy for H. pylori and endoscopic examination of H. pylori-positive young adults may be anticipated to be adopted as a strategy for the prevention and/or early detection of cancer.",
"yes. In addition to epigenetic changes in the RUNX3 proximal promoter, genetic changes in the distal promoter may be associated with susceptibility to intestinal-type gastric cancer by increasing promoter activity. Functionally, 2 RUNX3 isoforms may contribute differentially to intestinal-type gastric cancer susceptibility, at least in part through regulating NF-κB activity and IL1B expression.",
"Polymorphism in interleukin-1beta (IL-1beta) is associated with intragastric pH levels in Helicobacter pylori-positive subjects. Intragastric pH levels affect the activity of antibiotics against H. pylori in the stomach. The aim of this study was to investigate whether IL-1beta polymorphism is associated with eradication rates of H. pylori by triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. Three hundred thirty-six patients infected with H. pylori completed treatment with omeprazole, 20 mg, or lansoprazole, 30 mg twice daily; clarithromycin, 200 mg 3 times daily; and amoxicillin, 500 mg 3 times daily, for 1 week. IL-1beta-511 and CYP2C19 genotypes of patients and sensitivity of H. pylori to clarithromycin and amoxicillin were determined. Logistic regression analysis showed that the IL-1beta-511 polymorphism, as well as CYP2C19 genotype of patients and clarithromycin-resistance of H. pylori, was associated with successful eradication. Eradication rates for H. pylori were 77.3% (75 of 97; 95% confidence interval, 67.5-84.6), 89.6% (147 of 164; 95% confidence interval, 83.9-93.1), and 94.7% (95% confidence interval, 86.9-98.5) in patients with the C/C, C/T, and T/T genotypes of IL-1beta-511, respectively (P = 0.0014).",
"yes. The sudden rise of peptic ulcer disease during the 19th century and the 10-20-yr time lag between gastric and duodenal ulcer are difficult to explain based on changing infection rates with Helicobacterpylori alone. The similarity between the time trends of duodenal ulcer and ulcerative colitis suggests the influence of one or more shared risk factors.",
"yes. All clinical H. pylori isolates from different gastric diseases in our Taiwanese patients were positive for the PAI, but only 36% of these isolates carried an IS605 insertion. The selected genes in the PAI were not correlated with disease outcome. The determination of cagA prevalence is based on the selection of suitable primers. In contrast, bacterial factors such as the presence of iceAl could be related to severity of gastric inflammation and increase in ulcer size in H. pylori-infected patients.",
"Almost all Helicobacter pylori infected person develop gastritis and severe gastritis is supposed to be the denominator of peptic ulcer diseases, which may lead to gastric cancer. However, it is still an enigma why few strains are associated with ulcer formation, while others are not related with any disease outcome. Although a number of putative virulence factors have been reported for H. pylori, there are contradictory results regarding their connotation with diseases. Recently, there has been a significant attention in strain-specific genes outside the cag pathogenicity island, especially genes within plasticity regions. Studies demonstrated that certain genes in this region may play important roles in the pathogenesis of H. pylori-associated diseases. The aim of this study was to assess the role of selected genes (jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949) in the plasticity region in relation to risk of H. pylori-related diseases in Indian population. A total of 113 H. pylori strains isolated from duodenal ulcer (DU) (n = 61) and non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) subjects (n = 52) were screened by PCR and Dot-Blot to determine the presence of these genes. The comparative study of IL-8 production and apoptosis were also done by co-culturing the AGS cells with H. pylori strains of different genotype. PCR and Dot-Blot results indicated that the prevalence rates of jhp0940, jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 in the H. pylori strains were 9.8, 47.5, 50.8, 40.9 % and 17.3, 28.8, 26.9, 19.2 % isolated from DU and NUD, respectively. IL-8 production and apoptotic cell death were significantly higher in H. pylori strains containing jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 than the strains lacking those genes. Results indicated that the prevalence of jhp0945, jhp0947 and jhp0949 are associated with increased risk of severe diseases in India.",
"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection significantly and independently contributed to promoting insulin resistance in a large asymptomatic population.",
"Pro-inflammatory polymorphisms within the genes interleukin (IL)-1B and IL-1RN are associated with risk for gastric carcinoma (GC) in Helicobacter pylori-infected individuals. We aimed to determine the association between variation of the tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha gene and the risk for chronic atrophic gastritis (CAG) and GC. We also investigated the extent to which the combined effect of proinflammatory genetic polymorphisms (IL-1B, IL-1RN, and TNF-alpha), and the combined effect of TNF-alpha and bacterial genotypes each influence such a risk. In a case-control study including 306 controls, 221 individuals with chronic gastritis, and 287 GC patients, the TNF-alpha-308 and IL-1B-511 bi-allelic polymorphisms, the IL-1RN variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), and the H. pylori genes vacA (s and m regions) and cagA were genotyped. We found that carriers of the TNF-alpha-308*A allele are at increased risk for GC development with an odds ratio (OR) of 1.9 (95% confidence interval [CI], 1.3-2.7). For both CAG and GC, the odds of developing disease increased with the number of high-risk genotypes. Individuals carrying high-risk genotypes at the 3 loci are at increased risk for CAG and GC with an OR of 5.8 (95% CI, 1.1-31.0) and 9.7 (95% CI, 2.6-36.0), respectively. The risk for GC was not affected significantly by the combination of bacterial and TNF-alpha-308 genotypes.",
"yes. Our data suggest that COMT gene 158Met polymorphism is associate with a reduced risk of developing more severe intestinal metaplasia in H. pylori infected older subjects.",
"yes. The present meta-analysis results suggest that the LTA rs909253 GA genotype is a possible risk factor for developing gastric cancer in the Asian population, especially those with H. pylori infection.",
"yes. Our results suggest the importance of the local immune response in the development of H. pylori related diseases. Also some interesting points for further study of the association between immune response against H. pylori and the development of duodenal ulcer disease were indicated.",
"yes. Taiwanese H pylori isolates are 100% babA2 genopositive. Gastric Le(b) as well as Le(x) intensity may be major determinants of H pylori density. While lacking gastric Le(b) expression, Le(x) and Le(a) were closely related to H pylori colonisation.",
"yes. The outcome of H. pylori treatment with omeprazole and amoxicillin may depend on several factors, such as age, ethnic origin, and a pronounced acid suppression. However, the only factor of independent importance in this study was prolonged and profound acid inhibition.",
"yes. A direct gastric mutagenic effect due to H. pylori infection in the Big Blue transgenic mouse model has been shown 6 months after inoculation. This genotoxicity can be attributable to oxidative DNA damage involving the inflammatory host response.",
"yes. 1) Helicobacter pylori infection seems to be a protective factor for the presence of endoscopic esophagitis. 2) When esophagitis is present, the degree of damage appears to be independent of the H. pylori infection.",
"yes. cagA-positive H. pylori is highly prevalent in southern Mexico, and all CagA variants were of the western type. The cagA alleles that code for EPIYA-ABCC motif patterns are associated with peptic ulcers and gastric cancer.",
"Our results disclose a clear inverse association between a pro-inflammatory genetic profile and H. pylori seropositivity among cases with CAG, supporting suggestions of enhanced elimination of H. pylori during the development of the disease.",
"cagA status and the vacA genotyping was successful with tissue samples taken directly from gastric and duodenal biopsies. Discrepancies between isolate and biopsy strain types stress the need for caution when interpreting in vitro strain types and suggest that direct PCR of biopsies is the preferred typing technique. The cagA status and the s1 vacA allele are unreliable as single markers in determining the risk of developing peptic ulcer disease.",
"Helicobacter pylori infection is now accepted as the most common cause of chronic active gastritis and peptic ulcer disease. The etiologies of many infectious diseases have been attributed to specific or clonal strains of bacterial pathogens. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplification of DNA between repetitive DNA sequences, REP elements (REP-PCR), has been utilized to generate DNA fingerprints to examine similarity among strains within a bacterial species. Genomic DNA from H. pylori isolates obtained from 70 individuals (39 duodenal ulcers and 31 simple gastritis) was PCR-amplified using consensus probes to repetitive DNA elements. The H. pylori DNA fingerprints were analyzed for similarity and correlated with disease presentation using the NTSYS-pc computer program. Each H. pylori strain had a distinct DNA fingerprint except for two pairs. Single-colony DNA fingerprints of H. pylori from the same patient were identical, suggesting that each patient harbors a single strain. Computer-assisted cluster analysis of the REP-PCR DNA fingerprints showed two large clusters of isolates, one associated with simple gastritis and the other with duodenal ulcer disease.",
"yes. H. pylori infection induces IL-18 in the gastric mucosa. H. pylori-infected patients with IL18 -607C/C and -137G/G have higher IL-18 levels, which causes severe gastric inflammation. IL18 genotype might be a marker for predicting the effects of eradication therapy.",
"We examined referrals to oesophagogastroduodenoscopy and the impact of demographic and clinical variables to predict major findings (peptic ulcer, cancer) on oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. We collected data on 3669 consecutive patients referred for oesophagogastroduodenoscopy. Dyspeptic and reflux symptoms constituted 80% of oesophagogastroduodenoscopy referrals. A major finding was observed in 419 patients (11.4%). The mean age of cancer patients was 72.7 years (95% confidence interval (CI) 70.0-76.5 years) and that of peptic ulcer patients 62.0 years (95% CI 60.5-63.5 years). Independent risk factors for a major finding were age>50 years (odds ratio (OR) 1.62, 95% CI 1.24-2.10), male sex (OR 1.38, 95% CI 1.11-1.72), ulcer-type pain (OR 2.33, 95% CI 1.80-3.02), weight loss (OR 1.70, 95% CI 1.14-2.53), anaemia (OR 1.82, 95% CI 1.38-2.40), bleeding symptoms (OR 3.27, 95% CI 2.26-4.75) and Helicobacter pylori (OR 2.49, 95% CI 2.00-3.11), whereas reflux symptoms were protective (OR 0.73, 95% CI 0.53-1.00). The area under receiver operating characteristic curve of age over 50 years with alarm symptoms to predict major finding was 0.68 (95% CI 0.65-0.71), which positive H. pylori status increased to 0.71 (95% CI 0.69-0.74). Of the major findings, 87.2% were detected in patients with risk factors. Major findings were detected in 15.1% patients with and 8.1% (p<0.001) without alarm symptoms.",
"no. Even though H. pylori itself induces expression of RANTES, at the transcriptional level, genetic variations leading to higher transcriptional activity do not modify the degree of inflammation.",
"Helicobacter pylori colonisation rates in childhood have declined in Western populations, but it is unknown whether this trend is similar in children of non-Western ethnic backgrounds, born in a Western country. We aimed to identify H. pylori status in children, and determine mother-to-child transmission and risk factors for colonisation. Antibodies against H. pylori and cytotoxin-associated gene A (CagA) were measured in children participating in a population-based prospective cohort study in Rotterdam, the Netherlands. Information on demographics and characteristics was collected using questionnaires. We analysed the serum of 4467 children (mean age 6.2 years±0.4 SD) and compared the results with the H. pylori status of their mothers (available for 3185 children). Overall, 438 (10%) children were H. pylori-positive, of whom 142 (32%) were CagA-positive. Independent risk factors for colonisation were: maternal H. pylori positivity (OR 2.12; 95% CI 1.62 to 2.77), non-Dutch ethnicity (OR 2.05; 95% CI 1.54 to 2.73), female gender (OR 1.47; 95% CI 1.20 to 1.80) and lower maternal education level (OR 1.38; 95% CI 1.06 to 1.79). Comparing mothers and children, we found an intergenerational decrease of 76% and 77% for Hp(+)CagA(-) and Hp(+)CagA(+)-strains, respectively, consistent across all nine ethnic groups studied. Male gender, higher maternal educational level and no older siblings, were independently associated with absence of H. pylori.",
"In greater Rochester, NY, where the majority of our patients with EGD were whites, the prevalence of H. pylori among ulcer patients was lower compared to other regions, particularly among whites. This suggests that an additional causative factor or factors for peptic ulcers may be present. Hence, empirical antibiotic therapy of ulcer patients without confirming the presence of H. pylori may not be justified.",
"yes. H. felis infection leads to increased apoptosis and altered cellular differentiation in the C57BL/6 mouse, a strain that lacks gastric sPLA2 expression. Because sPLA2 has been identified recently as the MOM1 (modifier of MIN) locus that influences polyp formation in the colon, these studies suggest that sPLA2 may also influence the gastric epithelial response to Helicobacter infection.",
"Polymorphisms of genes encoding cytokines could be potential biomarkers to predict risk of gastric cancer (GC). Here, we investigated the association between the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism in its promoter region and GC risk. In this case-control study of 215 GC cases and 518 non-cancer controls, the IL-6 -6331 (T/C, rs10499563) polymorphism was genotyped by polymerase chain reaction-restriction fragment length polymorphism (PCR-RFLP). Individuals with the TC or CC genotype were associated with a significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.710, 95%CI: 0.504-0.999, P=0.049) compared with TT wild-type carriers. Ther C allele was also associated with significantly decreased risk of GC (OR=0.715, 95%CI: 0.536- 0.954, P=0.023) compared with the T allele. In the stratification analysis, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased GC risk in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases. However, no significant interaction was observed for TC or CC genotypes with H. pylori infection. On stratification with the Lauren classification, TC or CC genotypes were associated with significantly decreased risk of diffuse- type GC (OR=0.497, 95%CI: 0.266-0.925, P=0.027), also in subgroups of males, people older than 60, and H. pylori-positive cases.",
"yes. These results indicate that Hp infection of gastric cancer cells alters 11p15 mucin gene transcription and that MUC5AC downregulation is mediated by urease virulence factor.",
"yes. This study indicates that factors related to bleeding peptic ulcers in elderly patients have shifted from Helicobacter pylori infection to comorbidities associated with low-dose aspirin, suggesting a close relationship between low-dose aspirin therapy and comorbidities in elderly patients with peptic ulcers.",
"yes. The high prevalence of the cagA gene in asymptomatic gastritis suggests that it will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish more virulent or disease-specific H. pylori strains. The genetic heterogeneity among H. pylori strains makes PCR an unwise choice as the single method to determine prevalence of a putative virulence factor. In evaluation of the prevalence of a gene or genetic factor in a population of H. pylori, hybridization with extended probes might be important to ensure that the results are representative of the organism's genotype.",
"Polymorphism in the gene of pepsinogen-II (PG-II) and its serum level are effective biomarkers for terminal differentiation of gastric mucosa into gastritis, intestinal metaplasia (IM), and gastric cancer (GC) in relationship to Helicobacter pylori infection. Genotyping of the PG-II 100 bp insertion/deletion (ins/del) polymorphism was performed in patients with GC (n = 192) and age- and gender-matched H. pylori-associated dyspepsia (n = 180) and healthy subjects (HS, n = 240) by PCR. IgG anti-H. pylori (in all subjects) and serum PG-II levels were estimated in 145 patients each with GC and dyspepsia and in 65 healthy controls (HC) using ELISA (Biohit Oyj, Finland). Five alleles were amplified by PCR: allele 5 (510 bp), allele 4 (480 bp), allele 3 (450 bp), allele 2 (400 bp), and allele 1 (shorter allele, 310 bp). Allele 1 carriage was infrequent, and serum PG-II level was higher among patients with GC than in HC [OR 0.43 (95 % CI, 0.29-0.85), p < 0.001 and mean ± SD; 17.53 ± 12.60 vs. 12.77 ± 7.53 µg/l, p = 0.005, respectively], particularly in the presence of H. pylori [OR 0.42 (0.25-0.71), p = 0.001 and 18.78 ± 12.63 vs. 13.97 ± 8.14, p = 0.034]. However, allele 1 carriage and PG-II levels were comparable among patients with GC and dyspepsia. Patients with IM also carried allele 1 infrequently and had higher levels of PG-II than those without [OR 0.5 (0.29-0.85), p = 0.011 and 20.07 ± 14.22 vs. 16.61 ± 12.08, p = 0.048].",
"yes. The present study demonstrates that in Helicobacter pylori-infected human gastric mucosa, cag+ infection is associated with enhanced Interleukin-8 expression, higher levels of active gastritis and bacterial density, and presence of duodenal ulcer.",
"Infection with Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) is a risk factor for peptic ulcer disease (PUD), but there are limited longitudinal data on the associations between infection and incident gastric or duodenal ulcers. Information on potential risk factors, lifetime history of PUD, and serologic measurements of H pylori infection were obtained from a German cohort of 9953 adults, 50 to 74 years old at baseline (2000-2002). The incidence of ulcers was determined by questionnaires sent to study participants and general practitioners 2 and 5 years later, and was validated by medical records. A lifetime history of PUD was reported by 1030 participants, and during the follow-up period 48 had a first gastric and 22 had a first duodenal ulcer. Infection with H pylori strains that express cytotoxin-associated gene A (cagA) was significantly associated with a lifetime history of PUD (odds ratio, 1.75; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.50-2.04). Based on longitudinal analyses with physician-validated end points, the adjusted hazard ratios for incident gastric and duodenal ulcer disease were 2.9 (95% CI, 1.5-5.5) and 18.4 (95% CI, 4.2-79.9), respectively, among patients infected with cagA-positive strains of H pylori.",
"yes. H pylori infection leads to aberrant expression of AID and might be a mechanism of the accumulation of submicroscopic deletions and somatic mutations in gastric epithelial cells. AID-mediated genotoxic effects appear to occur frequently at the CDKN2b-CDKN2a locus and contribute to malignant transformation of the gastric mucosa.",
"yes. A low serum pepsinogen I/II ratio combined with positivity for H. pylori IgG, and a IL-1beta-511 C/C genotype may be independent risk factors for gastric cancer in Thais.",
"yes. Infection with a CagA-positive strain of H. pylori is associated with a clinical diagnosis of nonulcer dyspepsia. However, nonulcer dyspepsia was also strongly and independently associated with positive screens for depression or somatization disorder as well as with ethnicity. These potential sources of variance should be considered in the design of future studies evaluating nonulcer dyspepsia.",
"A high prevalence of Helicobacter pylori infection has been reported in Iran. Although the importance of H. pylori in the induction of peptic ulcer disease is clearly defined, only few studies have addressed its role in bleeding from peptic ulcers. We evaluated the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer bleeding. Patients with acute peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB) and those with peptic ulcer disease without bleeding ('controls') were enrolled. Upper GI endoscopy and rapid urease test were performed in both groups. Histological study for detection of H. pylori was performed in patients with active bleeding, if RUT was negative. Other variables evaluated included sex, age, smoking, previous history of bleeding, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs use, ulcer size, ulcer location, and duration of acid-peptic disease. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was performed to identify independent risk factors. 161 patients with PUB and 287 control patients were enrolled. H. pylori infection was seen more frequently in patients with duodenal ulcer than gastric ulcer (88.9% vs. 60.5%, p<0.001). Univariate analysis showed that patients with PUB were more often male, older in age, used NSAID, had history of PUB in the past, had ulcer located in the stomach and not in the duodenum, and more often had large ulcer (>1 cm). Logistic regression analysis showed that H. pylori infection was protective in PUB after controlling for confounders (OR 0.41, 95% CI 0.21-0.79), when ulcer location was not entered in the model. A second model including ulcer location (to test for a residual effect) showed that H. pylori infection was not a significant risk factor in PUB (OR 0.61, 95% CI 0.30-1.24).",
"yes. Our results indicate that IL10 variants rs1800896, rs3024491, rs1878672, and rs3024496 are more consistently associated with the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG by inducing increased production of IL-10. Further studies are underway to elucidate the role of additional genetic variants and to investigate their impact on the occurrence of gastric cancer.",
"yes. Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with increased serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha. Subjects who harbour CagA positive strains have more severe mucosal damage, higher bacterial colonization, higher probability of developing duodenal ulcer and higher serum levels of tumour necrosis factor-alpha than those infected with CagA- strains.",
"no. The cag PAI is not a uniform, conserved entity. Although the presence of the cag PAI is highly associated with duodenal ulcer, the clinical outcome of infection with H pylori is not reliably predicted by any gene of the cag PAI.",
"no. These results strongly suggest that the cagA gene will not prove to be a useful marker to distinguish disease-specific H. pylori strains in the development of peptic ulcer diseases in Korean patients.",
"To investigate the association of cagA positivity and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity in wild-type Helicobacter pylori strains with peptic ulcer disease or chronic gastritis only. Helicobacter pylori were isolated from antral biopsies of 53 consecutive patients with chronic antral gastritis, of whom 24 had peptic ulcer disease endoscopically. The presence of cagA, a marker for the cag pathogenicity island, was determined by polymerase chain reaction with specific oligonucleotide primers, and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity by luminol enhanced chemiluminescence. The cagA gene was present in 39 of 53 (73.6%) strains, 20 of which (83.3%) were from the 24 patients with peptic ulcer disease and 19 (65.5%) from the 29 patients with chronic gastritis only. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found in 29 (54.7%) strains, 16 of which (66.7%) were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and 13 (44.8%) from those with chronic gastritis. Non-opsonic neutrophil activation was found more frequently in cagA+ than cagA- strains (59% v 42.9%). Whereas four of the 14 cagA- strains and eight of the 24 non-opsonic neutrophil activation negative strains were from patients with peptic ulcer disease, only two of 24 (8.3%) peptic ulcer disease strains expressed neither cagA nor non-opsonic neutrophil activation. The cagA gene and non-opsonic neutrophil activation capacity were co-expressed in 14 of 24 (58.3%) strains from patients with peptic ulcer disease, and in nine of 29 (31%) strains from individuals with chronic gastritis.",
"yes. Our study suggests a significant association between the H. pylori vacA s1,m1 genotype, cytotoxic activity, cagA, and gastric cancer. Detection of H. pylori possessing these virulence determinants may help to identify patients being at an increased risk to develop gastric cancer in our population.",
"Recent studies have reported an association between cytokine gene polymorphisms and GC risk. However, results are inconsistent among studies from different geographic regions and ethnic groups. Our goal was to evaluate the influence of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection and host genetic factors on GC susceptibility in a population of Spanish white GC patients. DNA from 404 unrelated patients with GC and 404 sex- and age-matched healthy controls was typed for several functional polymorphisms in pro- (IL-1B, TNFA, LTA, IL-12p40) and anti-inflammatory (IL-4, IL-1RN, IL-10, TGFB1) genes by PCR, RFLP, and TaqMan assays. H. pylori infection and CagA/VacA antibody status were also determined by western blot serology. Logistic regression analysis identified H. pylori infection with cagA strains (OR 2.54, 95% CI 1.77-3.66), smoking habit (OR 1.91, 95% CI 1.25-2.93), and positive family history of GC (OR 3.67, 95% CI 2.01-6.71) as independent risk factors for GC. None of the cytokine gene polymorphisms analyzed in this study were associated with susceptibility to GC development, whether GC patients were analyzed as a group or categorized according to anatomic location or histological subtype. Some simultaneous combinations of proinflammatory genotypes reportedly associated with greater GC risk yielded no significant differences between patients and controls.",
"H. pylori may not be an independent factor in bleeding from peptic ulcers. The lower frequency of this infection in these patients can be described by the higher frequency of bleeding from gastric ulcers, which are less H. pylori related compared with duodenal ulcer.",
"yes. Although the highest H. pylori and CagA prevalence was found in children of non-Dutch ethnicities, the decreased colonisation rates were uniform across all ethnic groups, implying the importance of environmental factors in H. pylori transmission in modern cities, independent of ethnicity.",
"yes. A lower frequency of cytotoxic H pylori genotypes such as cagA and vacA s1m1 and a higher frequency of non cytotoxic genotypes, was observed in patients with NAG, when compared to patients with GC or PU. These results suggest that even in Colombia, vacA and cagA could be used as markers of increased virulence.",
"yes. Topographic colonization of H pylori and the virulence genes harboured by these isolates have no direct bearing to the clinical state of the patients. In multi-ethnic Singapore, the stomach of each patient is colonized by a predominant strain of H pylori, irrespective of the clinical diagnosis.",
"Several genes of Helicobacter pylori, such as vacA, cagA, iceA and babA, have been reported to significantly increase the risk of gastrointestinal diseases. The aim of this study was to study the relationship between H. pylori virulence factors and clinical outcomes and identify the independent markers of peptic ulcer disease in Iraq. DNA was extracted from specimens taken from 154 unselected H. Pylori positive Iraqi patients. Genotyping was performed by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), using specific primers for cagA, vacA (s, m), iceA and babA2 genes. A total of 56 (82%) peptic ulcer disease (PUD) patients carried cagA+ strains, significantly more than the 56 (65%) non-ulcer disease (NUD) patients (p=0.017). The difference in the prevalence of babA2 positivity was significant between patients with NUD (33.7%) and PUD (58.8%) (p=0.002). In addition, babA2 was associated as an independent factor, with PUD (p=0.005; odds ratio (OR)=0.4; confidence interval (CI)=0.18-0.68) followed by cagA (p=0.05; OR=0.4; CI=0.18-0.85). Forty-five isolates (29%) were typed as 'triple positive' strains, and their presence was significantly associated with PUD (p=0.001).",
"yes. In this preliminary data, the association with MDR1 C3435T polymorphism and risk for developing H. pylori-related gastric cancer and peptic ulcer in Japanese was low. P-glycoprotein might not be involved in the carcinogenesis of H. pylori-related gastric cancer.",
"The infection with cagA-positive Helicobacter pylori strains is reported to be associated with peptic ulcer disease in developed countries, but it is controversial in Asia. To investigate the relationship between the virulence factors of H. pylori and peptic ulcer disease in Japan, we compared these between ulcer and nonulcer patients. Seventy-four strains of clinically isolated H. pylori obtained from 22 gastric ulcer (GU), 23 duodenal ulcer (DU), and 29 chronic gastritis (CG) patients were studied. The presence of vacA and cagA gene was examined by polymerase chain reaction method using two different primer sets. We evaluated the proliferation-inhibiting and lethal cytotoxicity of culture supernatants using the alamarBlue assay. The vacA gene was identified in all strains by the original primers. S1 strains were found in 90.9% (20/22) from GU, 95.7% (22/23) from DU, and 96.6% (28/29) from CG patients. The prevalence of cagA gene determined by the first, and second primers was 90.9% (20/22), 90.9% (20/22) in strains from GU, 87.0% (20/23), 91.3% (21/23) from DU, and 86.2% (25/29), 89.7% (26/29) from CG patients, respectively. The supernatant showed cytolethal effect in 95.5% (21/22) of strains from GU, in 100% (23/23) from DU, and in 93.1% (27/29) from CG patients. There was no significant difference in the prevalence of the virulence factors between H. pylori strains isolated from patients with peptic ulcers and those with chronic gastritis.",
"yes. TNF-alpha-1031 and -863 promoter SNP should be novel host factors to determine the gastric inflammation and risk of peptic ulceration upon H. pylori infection.",
"The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and symptoms remains controversial. We aimed to determine if an association exists between unexplained dyspepsia (pain or discomfort centered in the upper part of the abdomen) and H pylori. A validated questionnaire was completed by 592 healthy blood donors. Helicobacter pylori serologic values (via enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay), blood group status, and Rh status were measured; 4.9% of subjects who had a history of peptic ulcer disease were excluded from the analyses. The prevalence of dyspepsia and no ulcer history was 11% (95% confidence interval [CI], 8.6%-13.8%); 15.4% of subjects with dyspepsia had H pylori while 14.6% of subjects without dyspepsia were infected (P=.90). The mean dyspepsia impact scores (combining frequency and severity) in those with and without H pylori were 4.7 and 5.4, respectively (P=.20). The median H pylori optical density values in dyspepsia vs no dyspepsia were not significantly different (P=.30). Independent risk factors for dyspepsia were the use of aspirin (odds ratio [OR], 2.2; 95% CI, 1.3-3.7) and smoking (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.6) but not age, sex, marital status, educational level, income, or the use of alcohol, coffee, or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Independent risk factors for H pylori were increasing age (OR, 1.8 per decade; 95% CI, 1.5-2.3), male sex (OR, 2.1; 95% CI, 1.3-3.4), and net family income (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-3.3).",
"yes. These results suggest that more than half of the genes induced by cagPAI-positive H pylori depend on NF-kappaB and ERK signaling activation, and these pathways may play a role in the gene expression induced by host-bacterial interaction which may associate with H pylori-related gastro-duodenal diseases.",
"This study tested whether host genotypes of the tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha) promoter single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) could determine clinical and histological outcomes after Helicobacter pylori infection. A total of 524 dyspeptic patients, 424 with and 100 without H. pylori infection, were checked for TNF-alpha promoter SNP over the locus on -1031(T/C), -863(C/A), -857(C/T), -806(C/T), and -308(G/A) by sequence-specific oligonucleotide probe. Each patient received panendoscopy to take gastric biopsy to detect H. pylori infection and its related histology using the updated Sydney's system. Gastric TNF-alpha expressions were stained by immunohistochemistry. In H. pylori-infected patients, -1031C or -863A carriers of TNF-alpha promoter had more severe gastric neutrophil infiltration and TNF-alpha gastric staining than individuals with -1031TT or -863CC genotype, respectively (p<0.05). The multivariate logistic regression verified both -1031C and -863A carriers were independent risk factors to have duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcer without IM in the H. pylori-infected hosts (p<0.05). As compared to -863CC and -1031TT genotype combinations, the ulcer risk after H. pylori infection was 2.46 (95% CI: 1.32-4.59, p<or=0.00001) for the carriers with either -1031C or -863A allele, and even elevated to 6.06 (95% CI: 3.57-10.21, p<or=0.00001) for the individuals harboring both -863A and -1031C alleles. For patients with gastric ulcer, the 863CC genotype had a higher rate to have intestinal metaplasia than -863A carrier (p<or=0.005).",
"yes. This study provides evidence supporting the independent protective role of cagA-positive H. pylori status and IL1B and ILRN allele polymorphisms against GERD.",
"yes. Cluster analysis of REP-PCR DNA fingerprints of H. pylori strains suggests that duodenal ulcer isolates, as a group, are more similar to one another and different from gastritis isolates. These results suggest that disease-specific strains may exist.",
"Poor socio-economic status is an important risk factor for PUD that exerts its effect independently of H. pylori infection. Strenuous work may increase the risk of PUD in people with H. pylori infection. Genetic factors do not influence the risk of PUD in Danish adults.",
"To determine the association, if any, between H pylori genotype and the gastric mucosal variations in the levels of gastrin, somatostatin, tryptase, and histamine. 49 patients affected by duodenal ulcer and 48 by non-ulcer dyspepsia were studied. To identify the H pylori genotype, the presence of the cagA gene and vacA alleles m1, m2, s1, and s2 were analysed by polymerase chain reaction. Gastrin, somatostatin, tryptase, and histamine were measured in antral mucosal biopsies. 57 patients were infected with H pylori (30 with duodenal ulcer and 27 with non-ulcer dyspepsia). Gastrin and tryptase were increased in patients with H pylori infection, although the variations were statistically significant only for gastrin; somatostatin and histamine were not influenced by H pylori infection. In patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia the absence of the cagA gene and the presence of vacA alleles s2 and m2 were associated with higher values of tryptase and to a lesser extent of gastrin. These associations were not found in patients with duodenal ulcer.",
"yes. In cross-sectional analysis, infection with cagA-positive strains of H pylori was associated with a 1.75-fold increased risk of peptic ulcer disease. Longitudinal analyses revealed an 18.4- and 2.9-fold increased risk for duodenal ulcer and gastric ulcer, respectively. The proportion of PUD that is attributable to H pylori infection might be larger than previously believed.",
"Helicobacter pylori infection presents as many different diseases, including asymptomatic gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and gastric cancer. Although the virulence factor(s) responsible for different H. pylori-related diseases have not been identified, several candidate genes are being investigated for such an association. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) frequently is used to assess the presence of genetic factors associated with pathogenesis of disease; the cagA gene and its product have been postulated to have a disease-specific relationship to peptic ulcer and gastric cancer because of differential expression in these diseases compared to histological gastritis alone. Genomic DNA was amplified by PCR, using synthetic oligonucleotide primers to the cagA gene to determine the prevalence of the cagA gene in 60 H. pylori isolates obtained from well-documented duodenal ulcer or asymptomatic gastritis patients (30 each). Results were confirmed by hybridization with a 1.4-Kb cagA probe. The expected PCR product was obtained in 90% of isolates from duodenal ulcer patients, compared to 70% of isolates from individuals with asymptomatic gastritis. The PCR products were polymorphic in size, suggesting cagA gene sequence differences among isolates. Evaluation for the presence of the cagA gene by hybridization with a 1.4-Kb cagA probe showed a homologous product in 29 of 30 strains [96.7%; 95% confidence interval (CI) = 83-100%] from duodenal ulcer patients versus 25 of 30 strains (83.3%; 95% CI = 65-94%) obtained from individuals with asymptomatic gastritis (p = 0.19).",
"Helicobacter pylori strains possessing the cagA gene have been postulated to have a disease-specific relationship to peptic ulcer. The purpose of this study was to investigate the relationship between the infection with Helicobacter pylori expressing the cagA gene and the development of peptic ulcer diseases in Korean patients. Genomic DNA and bacterial mRNA in the gastric mucosa were amplified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and reverse transcription PCR, using synthetic oligonucleotide primers to cagA genes to compare the prevalence of cagA genes in 35 patients with non-ulcer gastritis and 99 patients with gastric or duodenal ulcer disease (53 and 46, respectively). Two different primer sets for the cagA gene were used. The first primer set amplified a 298-bp region (nucleotides 1751-2048), and the second set amplified a 349-bp region (nucleotides 1228-1249). The expected 298 and 349-bp PCR amplicons were identified as follows: 1) 32 (91.4%) and 30 (85.7%) of 35 non-ulcer gastritis patients; 2) 5 1 (96.2%) and 50 (94.3%) of 53 benign gastric ulcer patients; and 3) 46 (100.0%) and 40 (87.0%) of 46 duodenal ulcer patients, respectively.",
"yes. E266K CARD4/NOD1, but not the TLR4 gene polymorphism increases the risk of peptic ulceration in H. pylori-positive patients. The -251 IL-8 polymorphism was significantly associated with either gastritis or DU in H. pylori-infected subjects. Host factors including intracellular pathogen receptors and IL-8 production play an important role in H. pylori-induced gastric mucosal damage.",
"The genetic trait plays a part in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer disease. To identify a DNA marker for peptic ulcer disease, the association between the restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) of the pepsinogen C (PGC) gene and peptic ulcer disease was investigated. One hundred and seventy seven unrelated controls, 75 patients with gastric ulcer, and 70 with duodenal ulcer were studied. PGC-RFLP was analysed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), and the association between PGC-RFLP and peptic ulcer disease was examined. The relation between the genetic association of PGC polymorphism with peptic ulcer and Helicobacter pylori infection was also examined. Four alleles, 480 (allele 1), 450 (allele 2), 400 (allele 3), and 310 bp (allele 4), were detected by PCR. The frequency of allele 4 was significantly higher in patients with gastric body ulcer than in controls (chi (2) = 9.92, p < 0.005). Genotypes containing allele 4 were significantly more frequent in patients with gastric body ulcer than in controls and patients with gastric angular or antral ulcer. The relative risk of gastric body ulcer associated with the presence of allele 4, compared with its absence, was 4.63 and was statistically significant (chi (2) = 14.84, p < 0.005). There were no significant differences in the allelic frequencies between H pylori positive and H pylori negative groups in controls, patients with gastric body ulcer, or patients with gastric angular or antral ulcer. Both in H pylori negative and H pylori positive cases, there was an increased frequency of allele 4 in patients with gastric body ulcer compared with controls.",
"yes. The level of association found in this study is in agreement with the nature of a complex genetic disease. Genetic variations in the MMP-7 and -9 gene may be part of a complex genetic risk profile to develop gastric ulcer in chronic H. pylori infection. Further studies are warranted to elucidate the pathophysiological role of these genes in ulcerogenesis.",
"yes. Positivity for cagA and non-opsonic neutrophil activation occur independently in wild-type H pylori strains. However, co-expression of the two markers enhanced the prediction of peptic ulcer disease.",
"no. These results suggest that there is a significant association between this genetic polymorphism at the PGC gene locus and gastric body ulcer. There are differences in the genetic aetiology between gastric body ulcer and gastric angular or antral ulcer. PGC-RFLP may be used as a genetic marker for a genetic predisposition to gastric body ulcer; this genetic predisposition is not associated with H pylori infection.",
"no. The genetic polymorphisms in IL-6 can be attributable to ethnicity and appear to be independent of the clinical outcome of an H. pylori infection.",
"Genetic factors play a role or roles in the etiology of peptic ulcer disease and the acquisition of Helicobacter pylori infection. To evaluate the relative importance of genetic and environmental influences as well as the importance of H. pylori on peptic ulcer disease. Cross-sectional study on monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins, reared apart or together. Twins of the subregistry of the Swedish Twin Registry included in the Swedish Adoption/Twin Study of Aging. Peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori status were assessed in MZ and DZ twin pairs reared apart or together. A total of 258 twin pairs had information regarding H. pylori status and history of peptic ulcer. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed as the presence of anti-H. pylori IgG. The intraclass correlations for peptic ulcer disease for MZ twins reared apart and together and DZ twins reared apart and together were 0.67, 0.65, 0.22, and 0.35, respectively, which indicates that genetic effects are important for liability to peptic ulcer. The correlation coefficient for MZ twins reared apart (0.67) provides the best single estimate of the relative importance of genetic effects (heritability) for variation in liability to peptic ulcer disease, and structural model fitting analyses confirmed this result (heritability, 62%). The cross-twin cross-trait correlations for MZ and DZ twins were examined to determine whether genetic effects for peptic ulcer were shared with or independent of genetic influences for H. pylori. The cross-correlations for MZ and DZ twins were almost identical (0.25 and 0.29, respectively), suggesting that familial environmental rather than genetic influences mediate the association between peptic ulcer disease and H. pylori infection.",
"Genetic influences are of moderate importance for liability to peptic ulcer disease. Genetic influences for peptic ulcer are independent of genetic influences important for acquiring H. pylori infection."
] | 515 |
Does eradication of Helicobacter pylori alone heal duodenal ulcers? | [
"Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer (DU) relapse, but it remains uncertain whether eradication of H. pylori alone heals duodenal ulceration.AIM: To test the hypothesis that eradication of H. pylori infection is accompanied by healing of duodenal ulcer. A total of 115 consecutive patients with endoscopically confirmed H. pylori-infected duodenal ulcer were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group BTC patients received a 1-week course of colloidal bismuth subcitrate 220 mg b.d., tinidazole 500 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. Group OBTC patients received omeprazole 20 mg daily for 4 weeks with the BTC regimen during the first week. Endoscopy with antral biopsies and 13C-urea breath test (UBT) were performed before and 4 weeks after completion of the 7-day triple or quadruple therapy. Eight patients dropped out (four in BTC and four in OBTC). Duodenal ulcer healing rates on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 86% (95% CI: 77-95%) and 90% (95% CI: 82-98%), respectively. The eradication rates of H. pylori on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 88% (95% CI: 79-96%) and 91% (95% CI: 84-99%), respectively. There were no statistically significant differences in ulcer healing rates and eradication rates between these two groups (P>0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.",
"BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly."
] | [
"Helicobacter pylori eradication decreases ulcer recurrence and should prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. By meta-analysis, to compare treatment of H. pylori infection with other approaches to prevent recurrent ulcer haemorrhage and, by cost minimization analysis, to determine the least costly strategy. We searched for randomized, controlled trials comparing treatment of H. pylori infection with ulcer healing alone or with maintenance therapy in preventing recurrent ulcer haemorrhage. We calculated the relative and absolute risk reductions and numbers needed to treat. Treatment of H. pylori infection decreased recurrent bleeding by 17% (numbers needed to treat=6) compared with ulcer healing treatment alone. Compared with ulcer healing treatment followed by maintenance therapy, recurrent bleeding was decreased by 4% (numbers needed to treat=25). Decision model-based cost minimization analysis demonstrated that treatment of H. pylori infection was the least costly strategy unless the incidence of complicated recurrences after treatment was over 6%, or the cost of confirming eradication was over $741.",
"no. H. pylori eradication does not increase gastric acidity or gastro-oesophageal acid reflux in patients with mild to moderate reflux oesophagitis over the first 15 months.",
"Eradication of H. pylori does not reduce the residual ulcer rate indicating that H. pylori infection might not be a significant risk factor for PUD in cirrhotic patients. Hence, routine H. pylori eradication might not be warranted in patients with cirrhosis and peptic ulcer disease.",
"yes. The data show that the grade of gastritis is an important risk factor for duodenal ulcer recurrence. Cure of H. pylori infection is associated with healing of chronic H. pylori-associated gastritis. These data lend considerable support to the hypothesis that H. pylori gastritis is the most important factor among those leading to duodenal ulcer disease.",
"Rabeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor which is particularly suitable for use in short-term Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment. Levofloxacin-based H. pylori eradication regimens have shown good efficacy and very few side effects. Shorter treatment and absence of significant side effects should improve compliance to therapy and increase the Hp H. pylori eradication rate. To evaluate the effectiveness of 2 rabeprazole-based H. pylori eradication regimens in an open-label, randomized study carried out in a clinical practice setting. One hundred sixty-nine consecutive, treatment-naive patients with H. pylori infection were randomized to receive rabeprazole (20 mg, bid), levofloxacin (500 mg, bid), and tinidazole (500 mg, bid) for either 4 [4-d rabeprazole, levofloxacin, tinidazole (RLT), n=85] or 7 days (7-d RLT, n=84). Before treatment, all patients underwent upper digestive endoscopy. Cure rates were assessed by means of C-urea breath test. and were compared with the eradication rate obtained with standard triple therapy in our Unit (ie, 78%) and average eradication rate reported in the literature (ie, 79%). The intention-to-treat eradication rates were 94% [87% to 98%, 95% confidence interval (CI)] and 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 7-day RLT regimens, respectively, whereas per-protocol eradication rates were 95% (88% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 4-day RLT and 96% (90% to 99%, 95% CI) in the 7-day RLT. Both treatment regimens obtained significantly higher eradication rates as compared with standard triple therapy. The 4-day RLT showed significantly fewer side effects.",
"To determine H. pylori eradication rate with lansoprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin treatment regimen, which is the most frequently used as first-line therapy, in the Kirikkale region. One hundred and five patients (44 male, 61 female) with H. pylori infection were included in the study. Patients were divided into two groups based on the endoscopic findings: non-ulcer dyspepsia (n=84, 31 male, 53 female) and acute gastric or duodenal ulcer (n=21, 13 male, 8 female) groups. The diagnosis of H. pylori infection was confirmed if both the urease test and histological examination, which were performed on endoscopic biopsies, were positive. Lansoprazole 30 mg, amoxicillin 1 g, and clarithromycin 500 mg were given twice daily for 14 days to all patients. Endoscopic biopsies were repeated for the evaluation of eradication three months after the treatment. Ninety-six patients completed the study. Eradication rates were found to be 45.8% (44 of 96) in all patients, 42.1% (32 of 76 patients) in the non-ulcer dyspepsia group and 60% (12 of 20 patients) in the gastric or duodenal ulcer group for per protocol analysis, and the difference between non-ulcer dyspepsia and gastric or duodenal ulcer groups was not statistically significant (p=0.208).",
"yes. The proportion of patients with H pylori negative duodenal ulcers is on the rise because of a continued drop in incidence of H pylori positive duodenal ulcers in recent years. Such patients have distinct clinical characteristics and it is important to ascertain the H pylori status before starting eradication therapy.",
"yes. Strategies that emphasize early H. pylori eradication were cost-effective for patients with peptic ulcer and possibly cost-effective for patients with uninvestigated dyspepsia, relative to other medical interventions. Dyspeptic symptoms cause significant disutility that should be incorporated in future cost-effectiveness analyses of treatment strategies.",
"Helicobacter pylori infection is common world-wide and has been linked to development of gastric and duodenal ulcers, gastric adenocarcinoma, and gastric lymphoma. However, antimicrobial resistance has decreased H. pylori eradication rates worldwide. This study aimed to evaluate the effect of -bacterial load on eradication rate. This prospective study included 237 consecutive patients who presented to our institution with dyspeptic symptoms and underwent both upper endoscopy and urea breath tests (UBT). The patients were divided into three equal sized groups according to their UBT values. All subjects received a standard triple eradication regimen, followed by a bismuth- based quadruple eradication regimen if triple eradication was not successful. The three groups were compared with respect to age, endoscopic findings, sex, and eradication rates. Our results were consistent with those of previous studies : higher UBT values were associated with failure of standard 14-day triple treatment (p < 0.05). However, in patients who received a quadruple eradication regimen, differences between groups were not significant (p = 0.434). There was no relationship between UBT values and gastric pathologies (p = 0.751). Age and sex also did not differ significantly between groups (p = 0.061).",
"To assess whether the eradication of Helicobacter pylori leads to long-term relief of symptoms in functional dyspepsia. Eight hundred patients with functional dyspepsia were randomized to receive double-blind treatment with twice-daily 30 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L30AC), twice-daily 15 mg lansoprazole, 1000 mg amoxicillin and 500 mg clarithromycin for 7 days (L15AC), or once-daily 15 mg lansoprazole for 14 days (LP). Dyspepsia and reflux symptoms were monitored for 12 months. In intention-to-treat analysis, the non-ulcer dyspepsia sum score showed a statistically significant benefit in terms of symptom relief in the L30AC group (P = 0.0068) compared with the LP group, but there was no significant difference between the L15AC and LP groups (P = 0.2). When all patients in the two eradication therapy arms were considered together, successful eradication had a significant benefit with regard to the complete absence of symptoms (P < 0.04). H. pylori eradication did not lead to an increase in reflux symptoms.",
"no. H. pylori eradication therapy in patients on long-term NSAID treatment had no beneficial effect on the occurrence of ulcers, erosions, or dyspepsia. Ulcer rates in both study arms are remarkably low, in both patients with and without gastroprotective therapy.",
"yes. RBC in co-prescription with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. is as effective as RBC plus clarithromycin 500 t.d.s. in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers.",
"1-week eradication therapy with previously described combinations commonly used in clinical practice achieves high ulcer healing rates with no complications in the period without antacid treatment. We consider that it is not necessary, at least in most patients, to prolong antacid therapy.",
"We studied whether different initial bacterial densities of Helicobacter pylori would alter the eradication rate of H. pylori by triple therapy (amoxicillin 500 mg t.i.d. and metronidazole 500 mg t.i.d. for 14 days; bismuth subcitrate 120 mg t.i.d. for 28 days) in patients with duodenal ulcer bleeding. One hundred thirty-six cases with duodenal ulcer bleeding and H. pylori infection (proved by rapid urease test and histology during emergency endoscopy) were studied. One hundred twenty-seven of these patients completed a course of triple therapy. In each case, anti-H. pylori IgG titer, gastric biopsies for H. pylori density (score 1 to 5), and evaluation of severity of gastritis were collected at the first endoscopy and 1 month after completion of the triple therapy. The ulcer healing rate was 84.3% (107 of 127) at the time of the second evaluation. The eradication rate of H. pylori was 76.4% (97 or 127). Eradication for H. pylori failed in 30 cases. In these eradication failure cases, initial serologic titer and density of H. pylori were higher than those of eradication success cases. The eradication rate of H. pylori decreased as the initial density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori: 1, 88.3%; 2, 83.8%; 3, 74.2%; 4, 68%; 5, 50%). At the second evaluation, the serologic titer was lower and continued to decline in eradication success cases whose mean residual titer ratio (100% x follow-up titer/initial titer) was lower than that of eradication failure cases (57.1% +/- 14.6% vs 107.1% +/- 24.1%, p < 0.001). The mean residual titer ratio also disclosed an upward trend as the density of H. pylori increased (density of H. pylori 1 to 5: 57.5%, 66.6%, 73.5%, 75.3%, 81.8%, respectively).",
"There have been few reliable published studies permitting assessment of therapeutic regimens for Helicobacter pylori infection in gastric ulcer (GU) patients. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the efficacy of omeprazole-based dual and triple therapy regimens, both including clarithromycin, for the cure of H. pylori infection in active GU and duodenal ulcer (DU) patients. The study was conducted in Japan, a country in which GU is more prevalent than DU. Two hundred and thirty-four consecutive peptic ulcer patients (GU: n = 124; DU: n = 103; GDU: n = 7) suffering from H. pylori infection were randomly treated with either omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + amoxicillin 500 mg q.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OAC) or with omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. + clarithromycin 400 mg b.i.d. (OC) for 14 days. H. pylori infection was evaluated by histology and culture from antral and corpus biopsies 6 weeks after completing antimicrobial therapy. Follow-up data were available in 202 patients. The cure rates of H. pylori infection in GU patients were 83.9% (47/56) with OAC and 59. 2% (29/49) with OC. Corresponding rates in DU patients were 91.5% (43/47) and 70.5% (31/44), respectively. The cure rates with OAC were significantly higher than those with OC (p < 0.001, chi2 test). The cure rates in GU patients were lower than those in DU patients for both regimens, but these differences were not statistically significant. Side effects were generally mild and did not interfere with compliance. One patient in the OAC group and 2 patients in the OC group complained of severe side effects that led to therapy discontinuation.",
"yes. Triple therapy with omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin is a safe and effective regimen for the cure of H. pylori infection in GU patients as well as in DU patients. We recommend this triple regimen as a first-line treatment in all patients with peptic ulcers associated with H. pylori infection in Japan.",
"yes. Cluster analysis of REP-PCR DNA fingerprints of H. pylori strains suggests that duodenal ulcer isolates, as a group, are more similar to one another and different from gastritis isolates. These results suggest that disease-specific strains may exist.",
"The aim of this study was to determine the efficacy of a 1-week low-dose proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy without further acid suppression for cure of Helicobacter pylori infection and the ulcer healing in peptic ulcer disease. Patients with endoscopically proven peptic ulcers who were H. pylori positive participated in this study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and tinidazole 500 mg b.d., then patients were treated randomly for another 4 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily (OCM-O group; n = 40) or without acid suppressing agents (OCM group; n = 39). Patients were investigated endoscopically for H. pylori and ulcer status before treatment, four weeks (week 5) and 8 weeks later (week 9) after anti-H. pylori treatment. H. pylori infection was assessed by rapid urease test and histology. The eradication rates of H. pylori were 72.5% (95% CI: 59-86%) and 76.3% (95% CI: 63-90%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM-O group and were 87.2% (95% CI: 77-98%) and 97.1% (95% CI: 92-100%) by intention-to-treat analysis and by per protocol analysis respectively in the OCM group (p < 0.05 in per protocol analysis). In respect to ulcer healing status at week 5, 89.5% (34/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 80% (28/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers; at week 9, 86.8% (33/38) of patients in the OCM-O group and 88.6% (31/35) of patients in the OCM group had healed ulcers (p = NS). When the ulcer status was analyzed in relation to the H. pylori status, at week 5 ulcer had healed in 84.4% (54/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and in 88.9% (8/9) of those with persistent infection. At week 9, ulcer healing increased up to 93.8% (60/64) of patients with clearance of H. pylori infection and decreased to 44.4% (4/9) of patients with persistent infection. The adverse events (20%) were mild in these two treatment groups and no patients required discontinuation of the study medications.",
"To compare the efficacy of one-week versus two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin in inducing healing of Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcers as well as to investigate the role of several factors, determinant in the ulcer healing process. Seventy-one active duodenal ulcer patients were randomised to receive one- or two-week treatment with lansoprazole (30 mg bid), clarithromycin (500 mg bid) and amoxycillin (1 g bid), not followed by any additional acid suppressive therapy. Ulcer healing and Helicobacter pylori infection were assessed by endoscopy and urea breath test 4 weeks after the end of treatment. Before entering the trial and four weeks after the end of treatment, dyspeptic symptoms were recorded and scored by a validated questionnaire. The potential effects of a number of clinical variables on the ulcer healing process were evaluated by means of univariate and multivariate analyses. Duodenal ulcer was healed in 80.5% patients treated for one week and in 91.4% patients treated for 2 weeks according to intention-to-treat analysis (p=NS). Ulcer healing was more frequent in the Helicobacter pylori cured patients compared to those with persisting infection (90.9% vs 68.5%; p=0.04). Multivariate analysis did not reveal any significant predictor of duodenal ulcer healing.",
"In patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer, a 7-day triple therapy alone is sufficient to control the disease.",
"Helicobacter pylori and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the major causes of gastroduodenal ulcers. Studies on the benefit of eradication of H. pylori in NSAID users yielded conflicting results. To investigate whether H. pylori eradication in patients on long-term NSAIDs reduces the incidence of gastroduodenal ulcers. Patients on long-term NSAID treatment and who are H. pylori positive on serologic testing, were randomly assigned to either H. pylori eradication (omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin) or placebo. Primary endpoint was the presence of endoscopic gastric or duodenal ulcers 3 months after randomization. One hundred sixty-five (48%) of a total of 347 patients were on gastroprotective medication. At endoscopy, gastroduodenal ulcers were diagnosed in 6 (4%) and 8 (5%) patients in the eradication and placebo group, respectively (p = .65). During follow-up of 12 months, no symptomatic ulcers or ulcer complications developed. No significant differences were found in the development of gastroduodenal erosions, dyspepsia, or in quality of life.",
"No randomized double-blind studies have been performed to compare clarithromycin 1 g/day with higher doses of the macrolide (1.5 g/day) when combined with ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC). To compare H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates of RBC 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks combined for the first 2 weeks either with clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. (Group A) or clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. (Group B). Two hundred and seventy-three patients with H. pylori-positive active duodenal ulcer were included. H. pylori infection was detected by CLO-test and histology on antral and corpus biopsies before and at least 4 weeks after the end of therapy. Eradication was assumed if both CLO-test and histology results were negative for H. pylori. Eradication/healing rates according to intention-to-treat and per protocol analysis were 76/82% and 87/92% for Group A and 78/85% and 88/95% for Group B, respectively (P = N.S.). Adverse events were reported by 7% and 12% of patients in Groups A and B, respectively, and they were generally mild.",
"Ten years of extensive Helicobacter pylori (H pylori) eradication in symptomatic patients led to a significant reduction in peptic ulcer prevalence. This reduction was particularly evident in Padova, where a project for the sensibilization of H pylori eradication among general practioners was carried out between 1990 and 1992. Should our hypothesis be true, H pylori eradication might in the future lead to peptic ulcer as a rare endoscopic finding.",
"To compare the efficacy of the coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus the antibiotic clarithromycin, with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone or clarithromycin alone for the healing of duodenal ulcers, eradication of H. pylori and the reduction of ulcer recurrence. This two-phase, randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, multicentre study consisted of a 4-week treatment phase followed by a 24-week post-treatment observation phase. Patients with an active duodenal ulcer were treated with either ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; ranitidine bismuth citrate 400 mg b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for first 2 weeks; placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus clarithromycin 500 mg t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks; or placebo b.d. for 4 weeks plus placebo t.d.s. for the first 2 weeks. Ulcer healing rates after 4 weeks of treatment were highest with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (82%) followed by ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (74%; P = 0.373), clarithromycin alone (73%; P = 0.33) and placebo (52%; P = 0.007). Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin provided significantly better ulcer symptom relief compared with clarithromycin alone or placebo (P < 0.05). The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin resulted in significantly higher H. pylori eradication rates 4 weeks post-treatment (82%) than did treatment with either ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (0%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (36%; P = 0.008) or placebo (0%; P < 0.001). Ulcer recurrence rates 24 weeks post-treatment were lower following treatment with ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin (21%) compared with ranitidine bismuth citrate alone (86%; P < 0.001), clarithromycin alone (40%; P = 0.062) or placebo (88%; P = 0.006). All treatments were well tolerated.",
"To study the efficacy of a 2-week anti-Helicobacter therapy in the healing of H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Omeprazole 20 mg, clarithromycin 500 mg and amoxycillin 1 g, twice daily, were given for 2 weeks to 180 patients with H. pylori-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Endoscopy was repeated 4 weeks after the eradication therapy to assess healing of the peptic ulcers. Repeat endoscopies were performed in 168 patients (42 gastric ulcer and 126 duodenal ulcer) who followed the protocol. Thirty-eight patients with bleeding gastric ulcers and 124 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcers healed 4 weeks after treatment (per protocol analysis; gastric ulcer: 91% vs. duodenal ulcer: 98%; P=0. 035). No patients who were compliant to the study medications suffered from re-bleeding. Stepwise discriminant analysis demonstrated that small ulcers (< 15 mm) and the presence of duodenal ulcers best predicted healing of the peptic ulcers.",
"yes. Although eradicating H. pylori is not likely to relieve symptoms in the majority of patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia, a small proportion of H. pylori-infected patients may benefit from eradication treatment.",
"Antimicrobial resistance has decreased eradication rates for Helicobacter pylori infection, and recent reports from different countries report eradication rates lower than 80% with triple therapy. The aim of this pilot study was to investigate the efficacy of standard triple eradication regimen in long-term aspirin users. The study population consisted of 77 aspirin using patients with dyspeptic symptoms and 79 age- and sex-matched dyspeptic patients without aspirin use as a control group. Both the study group and control patients were given lansoprazole (30 mg twice a day), clarithromycin (500 mg twice a day) and amoxicillin (1 g twice a day) (LCA) for 14 days as the eradication regimen. Patients on the study group were allowed to take aspirin during the eradication regimen (LCAAsp). Eradication was defined as the absence of H pylori as assessed with the C-urea breath test and H pylori stool antigen test 8 weeks after the end of the antimicrobial therapy. The H pylori eradication rate in the LCAAsp group was 64/77 [83%, 95% confidence interval (CI): 79%-94%] with intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis and 64/75 (85%, 95% CI: 82%-96%) with per protocol (PP) analysis, and the H pylori eradication rate in the LCA group was 42/79 (53%, 95% CI: 43%-65%) with ITT analysis and 42/75 (56%, 95% CI: 46%-68%) with PP analysis. The difference between the groups both with ITT analysis and with PP analysis was statistically significant (P<0.05).",
"yes. This study shows that eradication of H. pylori results in a significant long-term reduction in symptoms of non-ulcer dyspepsia.",
"Mouthrinse treatment alone or combined with periodontal treatment can, to some extent, reduce the prevalence of oral H. pylori and improve the eradication rate of gastric H. pylori.",
"Successful eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection clearly modifies the natural history of peptic ulcer disease and prevents further recurrences of duodenal and gastric ulcers. However, there are few prospective studies about actual rates of rebleeding after H. pylori eradication, a highly relevant aspect of management as re-infection, relapse of ulcer disease for other reasons (i.e. anti-inflammatory agents) or idiopathic ulcers unrelated to H. pylori may develop and cause further bleeding episodes. To determine the incidence of bleeding episodes after eradication of H. pylori infection in patients who had bled from an H. pylori-positive peptic ulcer. H. pylori-positive patients who bled from a gastric or duodenal ulcer were treated with appropriate triple and/or quadruple therapy. H. pylori eradication was confirmed by urea breath test 4 weeks after treatment. Patients received no further treatment but were followed clinically and additional urea breath tests were performed every 6 months. Endoscopy with antral and corpus biopsies and urea breath test were repeated as soon as patients manifested any dyspeptic symptoms that might signal recurrence. A total of 103 patients with bleeding duodenal ulcer were included in the study; H. pylori was successfully eradicated in 93 of these patients, who were followed for a median interval of 27 months. The yearly re-infection rate was calculated to be 0.6%. There were no instances of rebleeding in any patients during the follow-up period.",
"Triple therapies were safe and effective for H. pylori eradication in Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer patients. Dual therapy was significantly less effective in the Japanese patients, half of whom had a history of GU and more abnormal histology than in the Swedish patients, all of whom had DU.",
"yes. Eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of peptic ulcers in the patients with 'ulcer-like' functional dyspepsia. However, this approach does not significantly reduce the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients.",
"Despite the widely accepted view that Helicobacter pylori is the most important cause of peptic ulcer disease, recent studies have suggested that the microbe protects against nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-associated gastroduodenal lesions and promotes ulcer healing. We investigated the effects of H. pylori eradication on the healing of NSAID-associated bleeding peptic ulcers. Chronic NSAID users presenting with peptic ulcer haemorrhage underwent endoscopy to secure haemostasis and to document H. pylori infection by rapid urease test and culture. They were prospectively randomized to receive either omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks or a 1-week course of triple therapy (bismuth subcitrate 120 mg, tetracycline 500 mg, metronidazole 400 mg, all given four times daily) plus omeprazole (20 mg once daily) for 8 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated after 8 weeks. Final H. pylori status was determined by a 13C-urea breath test that was performed at least 4 weeks after discontinuation of omeprazole. 195 H. pylori-infected NSAID users, complicated by bleeding ulcers, were randomized to receive omeprazole alone (102) or triple therapy plus omeprazole (93). 174 patients returned for second endoscopy at 8 weeks (91 in the omeprazole group, 83 in the triple therapy group). Urea breath test was negative in 14% in the omeprazole group vs. 92% in the triple therapy group (P<0.001). Complete ulcer healing was achieved in 88 (97%) patients in the omeprazole group and 77 (93%) in the triple therapy group (P=0. 31). On intention-to-treat analysis, ulcers were healed in 86% of the omeprazole group and 83% of the triple therapy group (P=0.50). There was no significant difference in the healing rates of gastric or duodenal ulcers between the two groups.",
"There has been significant controversy over the relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and reflux esophagitis. We investigated the effects of eradicating H. pylori on the reflux esophagitis found in patients with peptic ulcers. Prospective posteradication evaluations were conducted yearly in 162 H. pylori-positive patients who had reflux esophagitis together with peptic ulcer disease (4 women and 158 men, mean age = 49.1 yr). The Los Angeles classification of the patients' esophagitis was: grade A, 90; grade B, 63; and grade C, 9. The follow-up evaluations began 1 to 2 months after completion of the eradication treatment (mean time of follow-up = 22 mo), and consisted of endoscopy and an interview focusing on heartburn. Six patients were withdrawn from the study because of adverse drug reactions or a failure to regularly keep their appointments. After eradication therapy, we observed endoscopically that reflux esophagitis had improved in 87 (55.8%) of the 156 patients. The improvement rate was significantly higher in patients cured of infection (60.8%) than in those with persistent H. pylori infection (38.9%) (P = 0.04). Body mass index (odds ratio = 0.86, 95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.76-0.97), cure of infection (3.68, 95% CI = 1.56-8.69), the absence of a hiatal hernia (3.90, 95% CI = 1.83-8.28), and an ulcer located in the duodenum (2.75, 95% CI = 1.33-5.70) were identified as significant independent factors for the improvement of reflux esophagitis.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of 3-day intravenous Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy in patients with bleeding peptic ulcer associated with H. pylori infection. We studied 53 patients admitted to hospital with bleeding of the upper gastrointestinal tract due to peptic ulcer and positive urease test over a 12-month period. After endoscopic diagnosis, intravenous pantoprazole (40 mg/12 hours), metronidazole (500 mg/8 hours) and amoxicillin-clavulanic acid (1,000 mg/200 mg/8 hours) was administered for 72 hours. The efficacy of eradication therapy was evaluated by 13C-urea breath test at least 2 months after the end of treatment. Fifty-one patients were included. Of these, 40 had duodenal ulcer and 11 had gastric ulcer. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 87.5% of those with duodenal ulcers and in 63.6% of those with gastric ulcers (p = 0.066). No adverse reactions or episodes of bleeding recurrence were found and none of the patients withdrew from treatment.",
"yes. Our results demonstrate that the association of acid suppression, obtained with 2 week ranitidine administration with OTT improved ulcer healing but did not enhance H. pylori eradication.",
"The relationship between Helicobacter pylori infection and non-ulcer dyspepsia is not established. To determine whether eradication of H. pylori might be of benefit in non-ulcer dyspepsia patients. We randomly assigned 129 H. pylori infected patients with severe epigastric pain, without gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms, to receive twice daily treatment with 300 mg of ranitidine, 1000 mg of amoxicillin, and 500 mg of clarithromycin for 7 days and 124 such patients to receive identical-appearing placebos. Treatment was successful (decrease of symptoms at 12 months) in 62% of patients in the active-treatment group and in 60% of the placebo group (N.S.). At 12 months, the rate of eradication of H. pylori was 69% in the active-treatment group and 18% in the placebo group (P < 0.001). Complete relief of symptoms occurred significantly more frequently in patients on the active treatment (43%) than in placebo-treated patients (31%, P=0.048). Within the active-treatment group, therapeutic success was significantly more frequent in the non-infected patients (84% vs. 64%, P=0.04).",
"As a consequence of gastric histological differences, Japanese and Swedish peptic ulcer (PU) patients may respond differently to Helicobacter pylori eradication therapies. The study was single-blind and compared four eradication therapies in Japanese and Swedish patients with healed gastric (GU) or duodenal (DU) ulcer. Swedish patients received either (a) omeprazole+clarithromycin (OC, where O = 20 mg, C = 500 mg) for 2 weeks, or triple therapy with (b) omeprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin (OAC-L where O = 20mg, A = 1 g, C = 250 mg); (c) OAC-H (where O = 20 mg, A-1 g, C-500 mg); or (d) omeprazole + metronidazole + clarithromycin (OMC, where O = 20 mg, M = 400 mg, C = 250 mg) for 1 week. Antibiotic doses were weight-adjusted downwards in Japanese patients. H. pylori was assessed using the urea breath test (UBT), histology and culture pre-entry, with UBT being repeated 4 and 8 weeks after stopping treatment. Histology and culture were repeated if the UBT was positive post-therapy. Recruitment included 120 patients from Japan (43 GU, 61 DU, 16 GU+DU) and 120 from Sweden (119 DU, 1 GU+DU). There were 26 exclusions from a FAS analysis due to H. pylori negativity (14), no drug administration (7) or no data after visit 1 (5). Eradication rates (FAS) from Japan were (a) 63%, (b) 93%, (c) 96% or (d) 96%, and for Sweden (a) 92%, (b) 86%, (c) 93% or (d) 96%. Dual therapy was less effective in patients with gastric atrophy associated with GU disease. Tolerability was good in all treatment groups, with no serious adverse events.",
"Although the 'test-and-treat' strategy is suggested as first-line therapy for uninvestigated dyspepsia, no large-scale studies in a real-life setting are available. 1552 dyspeptic patients aged between 25 and 60 with no alarm symptoms were recruited to the study. After screening with a 13C-urea breath test, they were randomized into three treatment arms: Helicobacter pylori-positive either to eradication therapy with OAM (omeprazole, amoxycillin and metronidazole) (Hp+/erad) or omeprazole 20 mg daily (Hp+/ome) for 10 days, whereas H. pylori-negative patients (Hp-/ome) were treated with 20 mg omeprazole for 10 days. Gastrointestinal symptoms were registered at baseline at 1 and 2 years on the Gastrointestinal Symptom Rating Scale (GSRS) and quality of life with the Psychological General Well-Being index (PGWB). Additional visits, referrals for and number of endoscopies and their findings were registered during the 2 years' follow-up. Of the 1552 patients, 583 were H. pylori-positive (37.6%), and 288 of these were randomized for omeprazole and 295 to OAM. The Hp-/ome group had fewer general practitioner (GP) contacts (P<0.0001) than the H. pylori-positive groups. Eradication therapy significantly improved general well-being and reduced upper gastrointestinal symptoms: abdominal pain (P=0.0001), heartburn (P=0.0061), acid regurgitation (P=0.003), hunger pain (P=0.009), especially in Hp+/erad. Peptic ulcer was found in 6.2%, 1.0%, 0.2% in Hp+/ome, Hp-+/erad and Hp-/ome, respectively (P=0.0007). Only 3 patients (1.0%) developed peptic ulcers in Hp-+/erad, all eradication failures.",
"Our results indicate that treatment of HP infection by eradication regimen (triple therapy only) is not enough to prevent recurrence of ulcer in the Jordanian population. Thus, we recommend maintenance acid suppression following standard H. pylori eradication regimen to maintain remission.",
"yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection by triple therapy significantly and equally reduces UAS in CU patients with positive and negative ASST.",
"yes. In patients with peptic ulcer bleeding a 3-day anti-Helicobacter pylori therapy is a good alternative for eradicating Helicobacter pylori infection.",
"yes. While Italian primary care physicians appropriately target eradication therapy for H pylori infection in patients with peptic ulcer disease rather than nonulcer disease, the intervention was still underused in these patients. Improvements in this prescribing behavior are needed.",
"To evaluate whether the addition of 2 weeks of ranitidine to a 1-week oral triple therapy (OTT) regimen improved ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. Two hundred and eleven consecutive patients with an endoscopic diagnosis of active duodenal ulcer (DU) and a positive antrum biopsy for H. pylori were enrolled. Those attending the Hospital Vera Cruz (Group A, n=142) received a 14-day course of ranitidine (150 mg after breakfast and dinner) plus a 1-week OTT, consisting of bismuth subcitrate, (240 mg after the 3 meals), tetracycline (500 mg, 10 min before the three meals and at bedtime), and furazolidone (200 mg after breakfast and dinner). Patients from the Hospital das Clinicas (Group B, n=69) received the same OTT as Group A but without ranitidine. Patients underwent endoscopy again on average 40 days (range: 30-60 days) after completing therapy in order to assess ulcer healing and H. pylori status. Both schedules were equally efficient in eradicating H. pylori with 90% (128/142) eradication in group A, and 84% (58/69) in group B (p=0.2). In contrast, the addition of ranitidine to OTT improved ulcer healing when compared with OTT alone (96%, 137/142, vs. 70%, 48/69; p<0.001).",
"In Helicobacter pylori infection, the effect of short-term triple therapy with proton pump inhibitor plus two antibiotics on gastric ulcer healing is not well known.AIM: To compare 1-week triple therapy with 8-week proton pump inhibitor therapy on gastric ulcer healing in infected patients. We randomly assigned 120 patients with H. pylori and gastric ulcers to proton pump inhibitor plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 1 week (n = 61) or proton pump inhibitor alone for 8 weeks (n = 59), with endoscopic assessment of ulcer healing 8 weeks after the start of treatment. Triple therapy eradicated H. pylori in 51 patients [intention-to-treat, 84%; 95% confidence interval (CI), 75-93%]. At 8 weeks, gastric ulcers were healed in 30 patients given triple therapy (49%; 95% CI, 37-62%) and in 49 patients given proton pump inhibitor (83%; 95% CI, 73-93%, P<0.001). Healing rates in the triple therapy and proton pump inhibitor-only groups were 89% and 100%, respectively, for ulcers of<1.0 cm in diameter, 54% and 77% for ulcers of 1.0 to<1.5 cm in diameter, and 5% and 77% (P<0.001) for ulcers of>or = 1.5 cm in diameter.",
"To evaluate whether antral biopsies are enough for confirming Helicobacter pylori eradication with the \"new\" one week triple therapies with omeprazole. 229 duodenal ulcer patients were treated with omeprazole for 7 days plus two antibiotics. Eradication was confirmed with histology (two biopsies from both gastric antrum and body) and 13C-urea breath test one month after the end of therapy. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 76.9% of the patients (95% CI: 71-82%). Histology at antrum was highly reliable to detect eradication failure: in all but in one case in which H. pylori was observed at gastric body, was the microogranism also observed at antrum. Infection prevalences at both locations were not homogeneous (McNemar: 6.4; p < 0.05). Concordance between antral biopsies and breath test for H. pylori diagnosis after therapy was excellent (kappa: 0.91; SE: 0.07), and both prevalences were homogeneous (McNemar: 1.3; p > 0.05).",
"yes. Two-week therapies, independently of antibiotic combination, lead to a significant increase of H. pylori eradication rate compared to 1-week therapies, with same compliance and tolerability, even if, taking account of low-eradication rates, one must question whether the triple therapy should still be used.",
"yes. Ulcer-healing drugs should be continued after a 2-week course of omeprazole-containing anti-Helicobacter therapy for gastric ulcers and large peptic ulcers that have bled, but can be omitted in most patients with a bleeding duodenal ulcer.",
"To evaluate whether omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 12 days is more effective for Helicobacter pylori eradication than the same regimen for only 6 days; and to verify whether these eradication regimens are more effective in peptic ulcer disease than in non-ulcer dyspepsia. We studied 411 patients in whom a gastroscopy was carried out due to symptoms related to the upper gastrointestinal tract and who were diagnosed with duodenal ulcer (175 patients, 43%), gastric ulcer (42 patients, 10%), or non-ulcer dyspepsia (194 patients, 47%), and concomitant infection by H. pylori. At endoscopy, biopsies were obtained for rapid urease test, and a 13C-urea breath test was carried out. Urea breath test was repeated four weeks after completing eradication treatment with 1) omeprazole (20 mg b.i.d.), amoxicillin (1 g b.i.d.) and clarithromycin (500 mg b.i.d.) for six days (239 patients), or 2) the same regimen for 12 days (172 patients). H. pylori eradication was achieved in 73.6% (95% CI, 68-79%) of the patients treated during 6 days, and in 84.3% (79-90%) of those receiving 12 days of therapy (P<0.01). The overall eradication rate with both regimens (6 plus 12 days), respectively in patients with duodenal ulcer, gastric ulcer and non-ulcer dyspepsia, was 84.6% (79-90%), 75.6% (61-86%), and 72.8% (67-79%) (P<0.01 when comparing duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia). Twelve-day regimen was more effective than 6-day regimen only in non-ulcer dyspepsia (62% vs. 83%, P<0.01), but not in duodenal or gastric ulcer. In the multivariate analysis the duration (6 vs. 12 days) of eradication therapy (odds ratio: 2.2; 1.3-3.7) and the type of disease (duodenal ulcer vs. non-ulcer dyspepsia; odds ratio: 2.3; 1.3-3.8) were the only variables which influenced on H. pylori eradication efficacy (chi 2 model, 17; P<0.001).",
"Esomeprazole is the first proton pump inhibitor to be developed as an optical isomer for the treatment of acid-related diseases. Four hundred and forty eight duodenal ulcer patients with Helicobacter pylori infection, confirmed by 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and no current ulcer, were randomised to double-blind treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg twice daily (b.d.) (n=224) or omeprazole 20 mg b.d. (n=224), in combination with amoxicillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). A negative UBT at both 4 and 8 weeks after completing therapy indicated successful H. pylori eradication. Intention-to-treat (ITT) analysis comprised 400 patients (EAC, n=204; OAC, n=196) and per protocol (PP) analysis 377 patients (EAC, n=192; OAC, n=185). Eradication rates (95% confidence intervals) for ITT and PP populations were: EAC, 90% (85-94%) and 91% (86-94%); OAC, 88% (82-92%) and 91% (86-95%). Between-group differences in eradication rates were not statistically significant. Both regimens were well tolerated, with an adverse event profile and frequency typical of proton pump inhibitor plus antibiotic combination therapy.",
"Omeprazole is less effective in healthy subjects than in patients with duodenal ulcers. The aim of this study was to determine whether Helicobacter pylori augments the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole in patients with duodenal ulcers. In 16 patients with duodenal ulcers, baseline intragastric acidity was measured before and 4-6 weeks after the cure of H. pylori infection. In 17 patients with duodenal ulcers, 24-hour pH metry was performed during treatment with 20 mg omeprazole once daily before as well as after eradication of H. pylori. Intragastric acidity was measured using a glass electrode placed 5 cm below the cardia. H. pylori infection was assessed by [13C] urea breath test, culture, histology, and rapid urease test. H. pylori eradication resulted in marked decrease of the pH-increasing effect of omeprazole (24-hour median gastric pH, 5.5 vs. 3.0; P<0.002) that was most pronounced during nighttime (median gastric pH, 6.4 vs. 2.1; P=0.001). On the other hand, baseline intragastric pH remained unchanged after eradication (median gastric pH, 1.0 vs. 1.1; P=0.5).",
"One-hundred and four patients (mean age: 49 +/- 16 years, 67% males) attended at four general hospitals in Spain, who had a duodenal ulcer demonstrated by endoscopy. These patients were infected with H. pylori demonstrated by urease test and histologic methods, and in 32 by a breath test and 18 by culture. Omeprazole 20 mg b.i.d. plus amoxycillin 1 gr b.i.d. was administered for 2 weeks. Endoscopy was repeated 1 month after completing therapy, and the aforementioned diagnostic methods were performed again. Eradication was achieved in 29% of cases (n = 30). In multiple logistic regression analysis, duration of ulcer disease was the only variable which correlated with success in H. pylori eradication (chi(2) = 7.2; p = 0.02). Additional variables (age, sex, smoking, pre-treatment with omeprazole, AINEs or H2 antagonist, ulcer size, and antral histologic gastritis) were not correlated with H. pylori eradication. Ulcer healing was demonstrated in 80% of patients (n = 83), and the healing rate was higher when eradication was achieved (97%) than in H. pylori-positive patients (73%) (p<0.01). Compliance was good in all cases. No adverse effects were observed.",
"yes. In patients with duodenal ulcers treated with omeprazole, intragastric pH depends significantly on the presence or absence of H. pylori, whereas baseline pH remained unchanged after H. pylori eradication.",
"Treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer relapse. It has not been established if treatment of the infection heals duodenal ulcer.AIM: To test the hypothesis that treatment of the infection was associated with healing of duodenal ulcer. A randomised, double blind placebo controlled trial was performed to study the efficacy of an antibiotic only regimen consisting of 300 mg metronidazole, 500 mg amoxycillin, and 250 mg clarithromycin, each given four times daily for two weeks, in the healing of duodenal ulcer as assessed by endoscopy. Symptoms were controlled with acetaminophen and antacids. Of 100 consecutive patients with endoscopically established duodenal ulcer, 97 with positive rapid urease test on antral biopsy specimens were admitted into the study and 81 completed the trial. Of these, 40 were randomised to receive antibiotics and 41 to receive placebo. Treatment with antibiotics resulted in 92.5% (95% confidence interval (95% CI) 84.3-100) healing at four weeks and 100% at eight and 12 weeks; the corresponding healing rates for placebo treatment were respectively, 36.6%, 61%, and 63.4% (95% CIs 21.8-51.3, 46.0-75.9, and 48.7-78.2 respectively). The differences between the two treatment groups were significant at p<0.001 at each time point and by life table analysis. Clearance of H pylori as assessed by urease test on antral biopsy specimens at four weeks and eradication of the organism as determined by 13C-urea breath test at eight weeks were achieved in 85% and 62.5% of patients respectively. Duodenal ulcer healed at four weeks in 87.2% and 86.2% (95% CIs 76.7-97.7 and 73.7-98.8) of patients in whom H pylori clearance or eradication, was achieved, versus 42.9% and 51.9% (95% CIs 27.9-57.8 and 38.3-65.5; p<0.001 and<0.003 respectively) in whom these processes failed. Stepwise discriminant analysis on 32 clinical, personal, and endoscopic characteristics as well as H pylori clearance and eradication identified H pylori clearance as the most discriminative variable for the healing of duodenal ulcer at four weeks, followed by ulcer depth and eradication of the organism.",
"Experience with proton pump inhibitor-based triple therapy is predominantly with omeprazole-containing regimens. To investigate the efficacy of a pantoprazole-based regimen, with either a 1 or 2-week course of antibiotic co-therapy, in eradicating H. pylori, healing duodenal ulcers and to assess the antibiotic sensitivity profiles of isolated H. pylori strains. A single-blind, multicentre, parallel group comparison of patients with endoscopically proven, H. pylori associated, active duodenal ulceration. All patients received pantoprazole, 40 mg b.d. for 2 weeks. Patients were randomized to receive either 1 or 2 weeks of therapy with amoxycillin, 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. Patients were endoscoped at entry, at 14 days and a minimum of 4 weeks after cessation of all therapy. H. pylori status was determined by urease reaction, histological assessment and culture from antral and body biopsies. Antibiotic sensitivity was determined using the agar dilution technique. Sixty-seven patients were randomized. One week co-therapy (n=33): eradication efficacy, ITT= 79% (95% CI: 61-91%); ulcer healing efficacy (at 6-week visit)=88% (95% CI: 72-97%). Two-week co-therapy (n=34): eradication efficacy, ITT=91% (95% CI: 76-98%: ulcer healing efficacy= 88% (95% CI: 73-97%). Both regimens were well tolerated and no primary antibiotic resistance was noted.",
"yes. Overall, H. pylori eradication therapy is more effective in PUD than in NUD patients. This advantage of eradication therapies in PUD patients seems to be observed with 7-day PPI-based triple regimens, and with 5-day RBC-based quadruple therapy, while the 7-day RBC-based triple regimen seems to be equally effective in both diseases.",
"yes. Ranitidine bismuth citrate with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. provides an effective, simple and well tolerated regimen for the eradication of H. pylori and healing of duodenal ulcers.",
"Efficacy with omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin regimen in patients with duodenal ulcer is higher than in those patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia. The increase of H. pylori eradication rate by 21% in our non-ulcer dyspepsia patients justifies the prolongation from 6 to 12 days of omeprazole-amoxicillin-clarithromycin therapy, whilst the increase of cure rates in duodenal or gastric ulcer patients with a 12-day therapy would not be cost-effective.",
"To test the hypothesis that 1-week low-dose triple therapy for H. pylori is sufficient for relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers. Fifty-nine out-patients with duodenal ulcers and positive rapid urease test participated in this randomized, double-blind, two-centre study. All patients were treated for 1 week with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. and metronidazole 400 mg b.d. In a double-blind fashion, patients were then randomly treated for another 3 weeks with either omeprazole 20 mg once daily or an identical-looking placebo. Patients were investigated endoscopically before treatment for H. pylori, after 2 weeks and after 4 weeks. H. pylori infection was assessed by a 13C-urea breath test at the time of enrollment and 4 weeks after cessation of any study medication. Fifty-two patients were included in the 'all patients treated' analysis of efficacy. The overall H. pylori cure rate was 96% (95% CI = 87-100%), with no difference between the treatment groups. After 2 weeks duodenal ulcer healing was confirmed in 91% (95% CI = 80-100%) of patients treated with omeprazole and in 76% (95% CI = 60-91%) in the placebo group (P = 0.14). After 4 weeks all ulcers had healed. Relief from dyspeptic symptoms and adverse events (13.8 and 16.7%) did not differ between the treatment groups.",
"The eradication rate of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection might be affected by the degree of inflammation of gastric mucosa represented by the endoscopic stage of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The aims of this study were to evaluate the eradication rates of H. pylori infection according to the endoscopic stage of PUD and to document whether early eradication in the active stage could yield a higher eradication rate in patients with peptic ulcer bleeding (PUB). A total of 1,177 patients with PUD (380 gastric ulcer, 710 duodenal ulcer, and 87 combined ulcer) who received proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)-based triple therapy were included, and the eradication rates were compared by ulcer stage. Univariate and multivariate analyses were conducted to identify factors influencing eradication rate. In PUB, the eradication rates between the early eradication group (≤7 days) and the late eradication group (>7 days) were compared. The eradication rates according to endoscopic stage were significantly different in gastric ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 84.8% vs 82.7% vs 70.6%, p = .014, respectively), but there were no significant differences in duodenal ulcer (active vs healing vs scarring; 87.6% vs 80.9%% vs 80.9% p = .169, respectively). In multivariate analyses, active ulcer as well as age younger than 50 was a significantly independent predictor of successful eradication (Odds ratio; 2.799, 95% CI; 1.659-4.723, p = .0001). The eradication rate of the early eradication group was significantly higher than the late eradication group in PUB (89.2% vs 71.9%, 95% CI; 1.265-8.269, p = .011).",
"To investigate the efficacy of a short course of pantoprazole-based triple therapy in Helicobacter pylori eradication in a single-centre pilot study. Patients with active or healed duodenal ulcer or with gastric erosions or gastritis, all of whom were H. pylori-positive, received 10 days of twice-daily open treatment with pantoprazole 40 mg, plus clarithromycin 250 mg and tinidazole 500 mg. H. pylori was assessed at entry and 28-35 days after the end of treatment by rapid urease test (at entry only), culture and antimicrobial sensitivity, histology and 13C urea breath test. The criterion for eradication was a negative result in all three tests. Seventy patients were treated, of whom four were excluded from analysis due to major deviations from the study protocol. Eradication of H. pylori was achieved in 57/66 patients (per protocol analysis 86% (95% CI: 78-95%)) and was higher in patients with organisms sensitive to nitroimidazole before treatment (sensitive: 47/53 (89%), insensitive: 10/13 (77%)). There was marked reduction in acute gastritis throughout the stomach while chronic gastritis decreased only in the corpus. Healing was achieved in all 24 patients with active duodenal ulcer. Treatment was complied with; only one patient missed one of the 20 doses. Adverse events were of mild or moderate intensity and did not require withdrawal from treatment.",
"yes. In a managed care environment, therapy with clarithromycin and omeprazole to eradicate H pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer disease would result in significant cost savings secondary to a reduction in the utilization of healthcare resources.",
"Helicobacter pylori eradication reduces the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. It is unclear why duodenal ulcers rarely recur in the absence of reinfection with H. pylori or NSAID treatment. Basal, gastrin-releasing peptide- and pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid outputs in patients with ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication were measured, and compared with patients without ulcer relapse after H. pylori eradication. Pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher in H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers than in H. pylori-negative controls, and fell significantly after H. pylori eradication. In H. pylori-negative patients with recurrent duodenal ulcers, pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output was significantly higher than in controls and similar to H. pylori-positive patients with duodenal ulcers.",
"yes. These findings suggest that duodenal ulcer relapse after eradication of H. pylori may be related to high pentagastrin-stimulated peak acid output. In this subset of patients with duodenal ulcers, maintenance anti-secretory treatment may be necessary to prevent relapse.",
"To test whether one week's triple therapy with omeprazole and two antibiotics is enough to induce healing of a peptic (gastric and/or duodenal) ulcer. 112 Patients (73 males, 39 females; median age 55 [18-88] years) proven by culture or histology to have an Helicobacter (H.) pylori infection and uncomplicated peptic (gastroduodenal) ulcer. For one week they received omeprazole (20 mg once or twice daily) plus two antibiotics (clarithromycin/metronidazole, clarithromycin/tetracycline, clarithromycin/amoxycillin or amoxycillin/metronidazole) to eradicate H. pylori. No further anti-ulcer treatment was given subsequently. Healing of the ulcer and H. pylori status were checked by the urease test, culture and histology (endoscopic biopsy) 4 weeks later. The 5-week ulcer healing rate was 94.6% (95% confidence interval: 89-98%). Persisting ulcers (n = 6) were associated with either treatment with aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (n = 3), persistent H. pylori infection (n = 2) or persistent H. pylori infection plus treatment with aspirin (n = 1). The ulcer healing rate was significantly higher in patients with eradicated infection than in those with posttherapy persistence of H. pylori (97.0 vs. 76.9%; P = 0.02). There were no significant differences after 5 weeks between patients with duodenal and those with gastric ulcer (97.4 vs. 89.3%).",
"yes. A 1-week regimen of esomeprazole-based triple therapy is sufficient for DU healing and H. pylori eradication in patients with DU disease.",
"It has been reported that dual therapy with high doses of omeprazole and amoxycillin proves efficient for Helicobacter pylori eradication. To compare the efficacy, safety and tolerability of eradicating regimens with omeprazole/amoxycillin. In this randomized multicentre study, 267 duodenal ulcer patients were treated for 2 weeks with omeprazole 40 bid (Group A) or 20 mg bid (Group B), respectively, and with amoxycillin 0.5 g. qid followed by 4 weeks of 20 mg omeprazole om. Helicobacter pylori status was assessed by both histology and urease test in the antrum and the corpus. The patients were then followed-up for 9 months. Helicobacter pylori infection was cured in 62.9% of group A (95% CI: 53.8-71.4) and in 44.8% of group B (95% CI: 35.6-54.3; p = 0.007). Healing was achieved in 91.9% of patients in group A (95% CI:85.7-96.1), and in 87.9% of patients in group B (95% CI:80.6-93.2). The estimated probability of being in ulcer remission for cured patients was 0.95 (95% CI: 0.90-0.99) and for the not cured was 0.41 (95% CI: 0.24-0.59; p = 0.0001). However, between the two treatment groups no significant differences in symptom relief or ulcer recurrence were observed. Both regimens were well tolerated with minor side-effects occurring likewise within the two groups. At two months in cured patients antral histology revealed a total (group A + B) prevalence of 13.7% of active chronic gastritis.",
"yes. In patients with reflux esophagitis associated with duodenal ulcer, a significant improvement in pre-existing reflux esophagitis was noted after H. pylori eradication.",
"Evidence remains inconclusive as to whether eradication of Helicobacter pylori prevents ulcer relapse after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer. This study was conducted to determine the effect of H. pylori eradication using a quadruple drug regimen along with a probiotic on ulcer recurrence after perforation closure. A total of 93 patients who had presented with perforated duodenal ulcer and had a simple closure of a duodenal perforation comprised the study group. Three months postoperatively, patients who were found to be positive for H. pylori infection (n = 60) were administered quadruple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin, amoxicillin and colloidal bismuth subcitrate for 10 days along with the probiotic Lactobacillus sporogenes for 14 days. Diagnosis of H. pylori was carried out by urease test and histology. Patients were followed for 18 months. Recurrence of ulcer was analyzed for correlation with H. pylori status. Of 60 patients who received H. pylori eradication therapy, 53 were available for subsequent follow up. H. pylori eradication was achieved in 43/53 (81.1%) patients. The ulcer recurrence in the eradicated group was 18.6% (8/43) compared to 70% (7/10) in the noneradicated group (P = 0.003).",
"no. Our data show that successful eradication of H. pylori infection does not increase the incidence of GERD in duodenal ulcer patients.",
"One-week effective eradication treatment is adequate to induce healing of H. pylori-positive peptic ulcers. Anti-ulcer treatment after eradication of H. pylori should be considered only if the patient is receiving treatment with ulcerogenic drugs or continues to have symptoms.",
"To confirm whether 1-week anti-Helicobacter therapy to achieve ulcer healing is sufficient and safe. We retrospectively analyzed patients with peptic ulcer who were infected with Helicobacter pylori and treated with 3 different 7-day regimens, according to predefined protocols in 3 different centers in the same geographical area (Aragón, Spain). Three combinations commonly described in the literature were used: a) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), tetracycline hydrochloride (2 g/24 h), colloidal bismuth subcitrate (480 mg/24 h) and metronidazole (750 mg/24 h) (OBTM, n = 105); b) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1.5 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (3 g/24 h) (O40C1.5A3, n = 13); and c) omeprazole (40 mg/24 h), clarithromycin (1 g/24 h) and amoxicillin (2 g/24 h) (O40C1A2, n = 4). In all patients the diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease was confirmed endoscopically, and H. pylori infection was verified with urease testing and histological analysis. After treatment ended, no other antacids were allowed until after endoscopic examination to check eradication and ulcer healing. 122 patients were included (107 with duodenal ulcer, 12 with gastric ulcer and 3 with both). Compliance was good and side effects infrequent and mild. Eradication rates were 88.5% (93/105) in the OBTM group, 100% (13/13) with O40C1.5A3, and 75% (3/4) with O40C1A2. Healing was achieved in 98.16% (107/109) of the patients in whom the bacterial infection was eradicated, and in 23.07% (3/13) of those in whom it was not (p<0.0001). No patient had any complications during the period without treatment.",
"yes. H. pylori eradication in duodenal ulcer patients was associated with a significant decrease in basal and stimulated pepsinogen-I levels. Measurement of these levels could determine how successful response to therapy has been in both the eradication and resolution of associated gastritis. Other advantages of this procedure are that it has low cost and results are evident at an early stage.",
"Ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) b.i.d. with clarithromycin q.i.d. eradicates Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) in 82-94% of patients, and heals duodenal ulcers in 88-90% of patients. This double blind, placebo-controlled study examines the efficacy of a simpler b.i.d. treatment regimen, and examines the potential benefit of including a second antibiotic, metronidazole, to the b.i.d. treatment regimen. A total of 648 patients with active duodenal ulcer received RBC 400 mg b.i.d. for 4 wk, coprescribed with clarithromycin 250 mg q.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., or clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d. with metronidazole 400 mg b.i.d. for the first 2 wk of treatment. Endoscopies were performed prestudy, after 4 wk of treatment, and at least 4 wk posttreatment. H. pylori status was assessed by CLOtest, 13C-urea breath test (UBT), and histology prestudy, and by UBT and histology at least 4 wk posttreatment. Adverse events were recorded at each visit. All three regimens were highly effective and well tolerated. H. pylori eradication rates were 84-94% and duodenal ulcer healing rates were 92-96% (observed data). Highest H. pylori eradication and ulcer healing rates were achieved with RBC 400 mg b.i.d. with clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d.",
"yes. Eradication of H. pylori infection reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence and rebleeding in complicated ulcer disease.",
"yes. Eradication of H. pylori may lead to a significant net increase of BMI in patients with duodenal ulcers. Such BMI gain, as well as higher baseline BMI and hiatus hernia, predisposes to new-onset reflux esophagitis after H. pylori eradication.",
"yes. The coadministration of ranitidine bismuth citrate plus clarithromycin is a simple, well-tolerated and effective treatment for active H. pylori-associated duodenal ulcer disease. This treatment regimen effectively heals duodenal ulcers, provides effective symptom relief, eradicates H. pylori infection and reduces the rate of ulcer recurrence. The eradication of H. pylori infection in patients with recently healed duodenal ulcers is associated with a significant reduction in the rate of ulcer recurrence.",
"Although the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection benefits patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers, the value of eradicating the infection in the patients with functional dyspepsia (FD) remains controversial. To determine whether eradicating H. pylori can prevent the subsequent development of ulcers or relieve the symptoms of functional dyspepsia patients. In a double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 161 patients infected with H. pylori who had functional dyspepsia were randomly assigned to 7 days of treatment with a lansoprazole-based triple therapy or placebo and then followed for 1 year. The main outcome measures were the development of peptic ulcers and the resolution of symptoms. H. pylori was eradicated in 63 out of 81 patients (78%) in the treatment group and none of the 80 patients (0%) in the placebo group. During the follow-up period, two patients in the treatment group and six patients in the placebo group developed peptic ulcers at repeat endoscopy (2.5% vs. 7.5%; 95% CI: -12 to 2). The reduction in ulcer rates was statistically significant in the 'ulcer-like' sub-group (0% vs. 16.7%; 95% CI: -32 to -2), but not in the 'dysmotility-like' and 'unclassifiable' sub-groups. Regarding symptom response, the resolution rates of symptoms were similar between the treatment and placebo groups (58.0% vs. 55.0%, 95% CI: -12 to 18). Additionally, no significant differences existed in the symptom responses between the treatment and control arms in each of the dyspepsia sub-groups.",
"yes. Our results demonstrate that the addition of bismuth subnitrate to dual oral therapy enhances H. pylori eradication, and improves healing of peptic ulcers.",
"Triple therapy currently forms the cornerstone of the treatment of patients with Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer.AIM: To establish whether prolonged antisecretory therapy is necessary in patients with active duodenal ulcer. A total of 77 patients with H. pylori-positive duodenal ulcer were included in a prospective, controlled, double-blind study. All patients received a 7-day treatment with omeprazole 20 mg b.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. and amoxicillin 1000 mg b.d. Patients in the omeprazole group underwent an additional 14-day therapy with omeprazole 20 mg; patients in placebo group received placebo. Endoscopy was performed upon inclusion in the study and after 3 and 8 weeks. Seventy-four patients were eligible for a per protocol analysis after 3 weeks, and 65 after 8 weeks. After 3 weeks, the healing rate was 89% in the omeprazole group and 81% in the placebo group (P=0.51). After 8 weeks, the ulcer healed in 97% of the patients in the total group (95% CI: 92.7-100%). H. pylori was eradicated in 88% of patients in the omeprazole group and in 91% in the placebo group (P=1.0). No statistically significant differences between the groups were found in ulcer-related symptoms or in ulcer healing.",
"The eradication of Helicobacter pylori in patients with duodenal ulcer is associated with a significant decrease in the basal concentrations of serum pepsinogen II measured 5 months after completion of treatment. The verification of this decrease constitutes a useful, inexpensive non invasive method to prove the eradication of H. pylori with treatment.",
"The NIH consensus conference in 1994 recommended that all patients with peptic ulcers should be tested and treated for Helicobacter pylori. Recent studies have shown that the eradication of H. pylori is associated with a significant reduction in the relapse rate of peptic ulcers, but there are few reports about long-term outcome. To evaluate the relapse rate of peptic ulcer in the long-term follow-up of patients after H. pylori eradication therapy. Patients infected with H. pylori (445; 88 duodenal ulcer, 357 gastric ulcer) were randomly divided into three groups. In group A, patients received 'conventional treatment' including acid decreasing therapy with a histamine H2-receptor antagonist or proton pump inhibitor (PPI). In group B, patients received 'dual therapy' including one antibiotic plus acid-decreasing therapy. In group C, patients received 'triple therapy' with PPI plus amoxicillin and clarithromycin. Eradication of H. pylori infection was assessed by histology of biopsy specimens from both the antrum and body corpus at 4 weeks, and 6 and 12 months after stopping therapy. Endoscopy was performed at intervals of 6 months for 5 years. Intention-to-treat eradication rates for the duodenal ulcer patients were 0% for group A, 46% for group B and 80% for group C; eradication rates for the gastric ulcer patients were 0%, 33% and 83% respectively. No recurrence was noted in the duodenal ulcer patients and only 4% of gastric ulcers recurred after successful eradication during follow-up for 5 years. In contrast, in patients with persistent H. pylori infection all DU and 92% of gastric ulcers recurred.",
"yes. One-week low-dose triple therapy consisting of omeprazole, clarithromycin and metronidazole is a highly effective and well-tolerated approach to the cure of H. pylori infection in patients with a duodenal ulcer. Our data suggest that continuation of antisecretory drug therapy beyond anti-H. pylori therapy is actually excessive regarding relief from dyspeptic symptoms and healing of duodenal ulcers.",
"Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) monotherapy is commonly continued for 3 weeks after Helicobacter pylori eradication with PPI-based triple therapy regimens to ensure duodenal ulcer (DU) healing. This randomized, double-blind, multicentre study evaluated whether only 1 week of triple therapy with the new PPI esomeprazole was sufficient to ensure high rates of ulcer healing and H. pylori eradication. A total of 446 H. pylori-positive patients with active DU received twice daily treatment with esomeprazole 20 mg (n = 222) or omeprazole 20 mg (n = 224) in combination with amoxicillin 1 g and clarithromycin 500 mg for 1 week (EAC and OAC, respectively). Patients in the OAC group then received 3 weeks' monotherapy with omeprazole 20 mg once daily; those treated with EAC received placebo. Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy on completion of therapy and H. pylori status was assessed by (13)C-urea breath testing and histology 4-6 weeks later. Ulcer healing rates (95% CI) for intention-to-treat and per-protocol populations were: EAC + placebo 91% (87-95%) and 94% (90-97%); OAC + omeprazole 92% (88-95%) and 96% (92-98%). Corresponding H. pylori eradication rates were: EAC + placebo 86% (81-90%) and 89% (84-93%); OAC + omeprazole 88% (83-92%) and 90% (85-93%). Both eradication regimens were well tolerated, and patient compliance was high.",
"To compare the efficacy of two protocols for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection and the healing of active duodenal ulcer: (i) ranitidine bismuth citrate (RBC) plus two antibiotics for 7 days, and (ii) the same triple therapy followed by 3 weeks of anti-secretory drug treatment. The study comprised 102 patients with active duodenal ulcer and H. pylori infection; the patients were randomized to open treatment with either RBC 400 mg b.d. plus amoxycillin 1 g b.d. and clarithromycin 500 mg b.d. for 7 days, or the same treatment followed by 3 weeks of RBC 400 mg b.d. alone. Ulcer healing was confirmed by endoscopy. H. pylori eradication was assessed by endoscopy, rapid urease test and histology. The ulcer healed in 48/50 patients on RBC-based triple therapy alone (96.0%) and in 51/52 patients on triple therapy plus further anti-secretory treatment (98.1%). On an intention-to-treat basis, H. pylori had been successfully eradicated in 42/50 patients on triple therapy (84.0%) and in 44/52 patients on triple therapy plus anti-secretory treatment (84.6%), while by per protocol analysis the H. pylori eradication rates were 91.3% (42/46) and 89.8% (44/49), respectively.",
"yes. Esomeprazole-based triple therapy for 1 week is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori infection in duodenal ulcer disease, offers comparable efficacy to omeprazole-based therapy, and is well tolerated.",
"Two-week treatment with lansoprazole, amoxycillin and clarithromycin, without continuation of antisecretive therapy, is better, although the difference is not statistically significant, than one-week treatment in healing Helicobacter pylori-positive duodenal ulcer disease. The eradication of Helicobacter pylori is the most important factor related to ulcer healing.",
"yes. Pantoprazole-based triple therapy, with either 1 or 2 weeks of co-therapy with amoxycillin and clarithromycin, is effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulceration.",
"yes. Eradication of H. pylori significantly reduces the relapse of duodenal ulcer after simple closure of perforation. Anti H. pylori therapy must be recommended for all H. pylori positive patients after simple closure of a perforated duodenal ulcer.",
"yes. One-week triple therapy with RBC, amoxycillin and clarithromycin is highly effective in eradicating H. pylori and healing duodenal ulcers, even if not followed by anti-secretory drug treatment.",
"Eradication of Helicobacter pylori infection prevents duodenal ulcer (DU) relapse, but it remains uncertain whether eradication of H. pylori alone heals duodenal ulceration.AIM: To test the hypothesis that eradication of H. pylori infection is accompanied by healing of duodenal ulcer. A total of 115 consecutive patients with endoscopically confirmed H. pylori-infected duodenal ulcer were randomly assigned to one of two groups. Group BTC patients received a 1-week course of colloidal bismuth subcitrate 220 mg b.d., tinidazole 500 mg b.d., clarithromycin 250 mg b.d. Group OBTC patients received omeprazole 20 mg daily for 4 weeks with the BTC regimen during the first week. Endoscopy with antral biopsies and 13C-urea breath test (UBT) were performed before and 4 weeks after completion of the 7-day triple or quadruple therapy. Eight patients dropped out (four in BTC and four in OBTC). Duodenal ulcer healing rates on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 86% (95% CI: 77-95%) and 90% (95% CI: 82-98%), respectively. The eradication rates of H. pylori on an intention-to-treat basis in BTC and OBTC were 88% (95% CI: 79-96%) and 91% (95% CI: 84-99%), respectively. There were no statistically significant differences in ulcer healing rates and eradication rates between these two groups (P>0.05). Epigastric pain resolved more rapidly in patients assigned to OBTC compared with those assigned to BTC. Both of the two regimens were well tolerated with only minor side-effects (3% of the 115 patients) and the compliance was good.",
"To compare healing of Helicobacter pylori-related non complicated duodenal ulcer after one-week eradication triple therapy alone and after triple therapy with further 3-weeks antisecretory treatment with ranitidine. Three hundred and forty three patients with symptomatic H. pylori positive duodenal ulcer were included in this randomized double-blind placebo controlled study. H. pylori infection was established by rapid urease test and histopathology of antral biopsies. All patients were treated for one week with ranitidine 300 mg b.i.d., amoxicillin 1 g b.i.d., clarithromycin 500 mg b.i.d., and then randomly treated for the following 3 weeks either with ranitidine 300 mg once daily (triple therapy + ranitidine, n =180) or placebo (triple therapy alone, n =163). Ulcer healing was assessed by endoscopy 4 weeks after inclusion. H. pylori eradication was established by (13) C-urea breath testing 5 weeks after the end of triple therapy. In intention to treat, duodenal ulcer healed at 4 weeks in 86 % of patients treated with triple therapy + ranitidine and in 83 % of patients treated with triple therapy alone (equivalence: 90 % CI [-3. 8 %; 9.2 %]). The H. pylori eradication rates were 67 % and 69 % respectively. Ulcer healed in 88 % of patients in whom H. pylori eradication was achieved and in 77 % of patients in whom eradication failed.",
"A prospective study of 92 duodenal ulcer patients (diagnosed by endoscopy) with H. pylori infection demonstrated by rapid urease test, positive histology and culture. They were treated with a 7-day regimen of lansoprazole, clarithromycin and amoxicillin. Healing was evaluated in a follow-up gastroscopy performed one month after treatment had finished. Eradication was defined as negative urease test, histology and culture at 30 days and negative urea breath test at 60 days. Duodenal ulcer healing was observed in 85 patients (92.4%, CI 85-96.9). Eradication of H. pylori infection was the only variable independently associated with ulcer healing. Healing was observed in 97.2% of patients with H. pylori eradication versus 75% of those with persistent infection (p<0.01; OR = 11.6; CI 95% = 2.06-65.9).",
"yes. Both regimens were highly effective in healing ulcers. The eradication of H. pylori infection was associated with more side-effects and poor compliance but was more effective than the maintenance therapy in reducing the recurrence of duodenal ulcers. For the prevention of ulcer recurrence, testing of H. pylori status after triple therapy is more important than maintenance therapy.",
"no. These results demonstrate that one-week triple therapy alone is highly effective in healing non complicated H. pylori associated duodenal ulcer without additional antisecretory treatment.",
"BTC is a very effective H. pylori eradication regimen. Almost all duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously after cure of H. pylori infection using a 1-week low-dose bismuth-based triple therapy. Treating duodenal ulcer with simultaneous administration of omeprazole achieves ulcer pain relief more rapidly.",
"Treatment with an antibiotic only regimen was effective for the healing of duodenal ulcer, and clearance as well as eradication of H pylori contributed significantly to the healing. The results constituted the strongest evidence to date that H pylori infection was aetiologically related to duodenal ulceration, and support the concept of treating duodenal ulcer associated with H pylori as an infection and relieving its symptoms with acid reducing agents such as antacids.",
"Eliminating H. pylori infection favors duodenal ulcer healing and, from a clinical point of view, confirmation of H. pylori eradication almost always means healing of duodenal ulcer."
] | 329 |
Diversion colitis in children: an iatrogenic appendix vermiformis? | [
"Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed.",
"Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis."
] | [
"yes. Neutrophilic inflammation of the distal ileum, as reflected by fecal calprotectin, is common after restorative proctocolectomy for pediatric-onset UC.",
"yes. Abnormal small intestinal permeability in children with ulcerative colitis could predict a more relapsing disease.",
"This study seeks to compare outcomes (in-hospital mortality, colostomy rates, and 30-day readmission rates) in older adult patients undergoing emergency/urgent versus elective surgery for diverticulitis. Data were derived from the 100% Medicare Provider Analysis and Review (MEDPAR) inpatient file from 2004-2007. All patients 65 years of age and above with a primary diagnosis of diverticulitis that underwent left colon resection, colostomy, or ileostomy were included. The primary outcome variable was in-hospital mortality. Secondary outcome variables included intestinal diversion, 30-day post-discharge readmission rates, discharge destination, length of stay, and total charges. Patients were grouped in two categories for comparison: emergent/urgent (EU) versus elective surgery, as defined by admission type. Multivariate analysis was performed adjusting for age (categorized by five groups), gender, race, and medical comorbidity as measured by Charlson Index. Fifty-three thousand three hundred sixteen individuals were eligible for inclusion, with 23,764 (44.6%) in the elective group. On average, EU patients were older (76.8 vs. 73.9 years of age, p < 0.001) and less likely to be female (65.4% vs. 71.1%, p < 0.001). EU patients had higher in-hospital mortality (8.0% vs. 1.4%, p < 0.001), higher intestinal diversion rates (64.2% vs. 12.7%, p < 0.001), and higher 30-day readmission rates (21.4% vs. 11.9%, p < 0.001) and the worse outcomes persisted even after adjustment for risk factors. Unadjusted and adjusted mortality rates dramatically increased by age, although the affect of age on mortality was more pronounced in the elective group where mortality rates ranged from 0.56% in patients 65-69 years old to 6.5% in patients 85+ years old. The rates of ostomy and 30-day readmission generally increased with age, with worse outcomes noted particularly in the elective group.",
"Intussusception is the second most common cause of acute abdomen in children, following appendicitis. The aim of the present study was to evaluate the experience of the authors, in an effort to promote intussusception management, especially that of small bowel intussusception. Records of intussusception diagnosed between July 2002 and September 2014 were evaluated in terms of patient age, sex, clinical findings, admission time, ultrasonographic findings, treatment methods, and outcomes. Eighty-one patients, 52 males and 29 females, were included (mean age: 10.6 months). Intussusceptions were ileocolic (IC) in 52 cases, ileoileal (IL) in 26, and jejunojejunal (JJ) in 3. Nineteen (23.5%) patients underwent surgery. Hydrostatic reduction was performed in 45 (55.5%) IC cases. Seventeen (21%) patients with small bowel intussusceptions (SBIs), measuring 1.8-2.3 cm in length, spontaneously reduced. All patients who underwent surgery had intussusceptums ≥4 cm. Three of the 4 intestinal resection cases had history of abdominal surgery.",
"Abdominal pain symptoms and incontinence are common in childhood. The aim of this study was to analyse abdominal pain symptoms and their associations with incontinence and symptoms of anxiety and depression in young children. We examined 1130 children during the school entry check-up (mean age 6.2 years) and 951 participated in the study. Parents completed a questionnaire contained 11 items regarding Rome-III functional gastrointestinal disorders (FGIDs) and incontinence and 14 items from the anxious/depressed scale of the Child Behavior Checklist (CBCL). Of the 951 children (55.6% boys) we recruited, 30.1% had experienced abdominal pain symptoms in the past two months and 14% had complained of them at least once a week. In addition, 2.6% had irritable bowel syndrome, 11.3% had childhood functional abdominal pain, 2.4% were affected by faecal incontinence, 2.1% were affected by daytime urinary incontinence, and 5.5% were affected by nocturnal enuresis. One in ten (10.6%) had symptoms of anxiety and depression, and these were significantly higher in the children with FGIDs, particularly if they were also incontinent.",
"yes. Intestinal obstruction after pediatric liver transplantation is commonly related to what would conventionally be considered unusual causes. A high index of suspicion must be maintained and early operative therapy considered as obstruction because causes such as diaphragmatic hernia and PTLD are unlikely to resolve with conservative measures.",
"The appendix is the conduit of choice for a Mitrofanoff procedure. Re-tubularized small bowel conduits have a considerably higher incidence of catheterization problems. Anatomical factors may contribute to the unique incidence of pouch formation.",
"Although luminal obstruction has traditionally been viewed as the underlying cause of appendicitis, recent evidence has suggested that the disease may result directly from invasion by specific pathogens, e.g. Fusobacterium nucleatum. The purpose of this study was to survey microbial communities within pediatric appendectomy specimens using a culture-independent approach. We performed 16S ribosomal gene sequence analysis to profile the microbiota present within luminal fluid obtained from 22 pediatric appendectomy specimens. These included 10 simple appendicitis cases, 5 perforated appendicitis cases, 2 interval appendectomies, and 5 incidental appendectomies. Samples could be divided into 2 distinct clusters based upon the composition of the appendiceal bacterial communities. Appendicitis samples contained an increased abundance of Fusobacterium spp. and a reduced abundance of Bacteroides spp. relative to non-appendicitis cases. Appendicitis samples also contained variable amounts of other oral taxa such as Porphyromonas, Parvimonas, and Gemella, whereas these taxa were generally absent from non-appendicitis samples.",
"Laparoscopic Appendectomy (LA) is a safe procedure in adults resulting in shorter hospitalization and sooner return to activity. The relative merits of LA and open appendectomy (OA) are evaluated in this first prospective and randomized study in children. A total of 129 children with appendicitis were included. Forty-three boys and 45 girls, age 1 to 16 years, were enrolled. Randomization was determined by sealed assignment card. OA utilized a 3- to 4-cm right lower quadrant, muscle-splitting incision. Wounds were closed without drains. Antibiotics, when used, consisted of gentamycin, clindamycin, and ampicillin. LA was performed by experienced surgeons utilizing a 3-trocar technique with reusable instruments. Twenty-one children (24%) were perforated. Patients were discharged as soon as they were taking a diet and afebrile. Statistical comparisons were by Fisher's Exact and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. There were no differences in postoperative analgesia, resumption of oral intake, length of hospitalization, return to normal activities, or morbidity. Laparoscopic appendectomy was associated with longer operating times and increased cost.",
"Intussusception is an entity well codify in pediatric surgery, with guidelines well defined since years in terms of imaging and procedures. From January '99 to Dec. '03, 25 children were admitted to the Department of Pediatric Surgery of the Children's Hospital of Milan. All the aspects related to the pathology have been evaluated in the study. 25 patients have been studied. 23/25 presented severe pain, 19/25 normal bowel movements in the last 3 hours and in 9/25 a mass were detected at clinical examination.19/25 were submitted to laparotomy after failure of reduction through barium enema, and in 17/19 a manual reduction were performed. Only 2 patients required a bowel resection with primary anastomosis. The analysis of the delay of diagnosis, the delta-T between beginning of the symptoms and first medical evaluation was of 16,23 h. (3-72), and the delta-T between the first evaluation and diagnosis was 18,7 h. The interval between diagnosis and surgery was of 4,3.",
"Our data reveal significantly higher appendectomy rates in patients with a diagnosis of diverticulitis, medically or surgically managed, in comparison with patients with incidentally identified diverticulosis. Therefore, we propose that appendicitis and diverticulitis share similar risk factors and potentially a common pathological link.",
"yes. Our findings suggest that allergic predisposition might be another important risk factor for complicated courses of acute sigmoid diverticulitis and linked with histamine receptor expression. Supportive therapies with antihistaminic drugs might become an option. Allergic predisposition might be worth considering when indicating surgery for sigmoid diverticulitis.",
"yes. Unsafe child feces disposal was significantly associated with environmental enteropathy and impaired growth in a pediatric population in rural Bangladesh. Interventions are needed to reduce this high-risk behavior to protect the health of susceptible pediatric populations.",
"no. Neither diverticulosis nor treatment with gastric acid inhibitors seem to be risk factors for developing peritonitis of enteric origin in PD patients. This type of peritonitis has to be promptly identified and treated in order to diminish the high frequency of peritoneal catheter removal and PD dropout due to such episodes.",
"To determine whether the use of ultrasonography (US) improves the outcome of children with appendicitis. All cases of patients (<17 years old) with pathologically confirmed appendicitis treated in the ED between July 1992 and December 1995 were retrospectively reviewed. 231 charts met criteria for analysis. 100 (43%) patients had US prior to surgery. Age, race, and insurance status were similar for children in the US and non-US groups; there were no differences between the groups at presentation in mean temperature, mean WBC count, or percentage of children with vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal tenderness, or guarding. Those in the non-US group were more often male (71%, p=0.002) and more frequently had right lower quadrant pain (65%, p=0.003). Time from ED triage to the OR was 17.1 hours (US group) vs 10.4 hours (non-US group) (p=0.002). The perforation rates and the complication (abscess, wound infection, wound dehiscence) rates were similar for children in the two groups. Hospital charges were higher in the US group than in the non-US group ($14,123 vs $13,021, p=0.007).",
"Studies have suggested that scans with technetium-tagged white blood cells (WBC-Tc99m) may be equal to endoscopy in the assessment of extent and activity of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). We have retrospectively examined the accuracy of WBC-Tc99m scans in differentiating continuous from discontinuous colitis in pediatric IBD. There were 207 children in the study (96 boys, 111 girls, median age 13 years). This included 29 controls - children with no gastrointestinal disease (NL) who underwent WBC-Tc99m scans for other medical problems. Scans were obtained at 30 minutes and 2-4 hours following injection. Scans were interpreted as showing continuous colitis, discontinuous colitis, or no colitis. In the 77 children with active Crohn's disease (CD) of the colon, the scans revealed discontinuous uptake in 63 children and continuous uptake in 14. In the 29 children with ulcerative colitis (UC), 23 scans showed continuous uptake and 6 revealed discontinuous uptake. Two of these 6 showed focal activity near the appendix, and subclinical appendicitis could not be excluded. Another child was bleeding and the scan could have been misinterpreted as showing small- bowel inflammation. In the last three patients, skip areas were clearly identifiable. In none of these last three patients were the biopsies typical of CD (i. e., no granuloma was identified) nor was inflammation patchy. In summary, of the 106 scans showing inflammation, 6 were classified into the wrong group.",
"The minimally invasive laparoscopic technique is feasible, safe, and efficacious for children with complicated appendicitis. Laparoscopic appendectomy should be the initial procedure of choice for most cases of complicated appendicitis in children.",
"Lumenal obstruction has typically been regarded as the cause of acute appendicitis (AA). Recent evidence including data from \"antibiotics first\" trials suggests that this disease may result from invasion of the appendix by specific pathogens. Small studies have identified an abundance of bacteria from the genus Fusobacterium in appendixes from patients with AA. We aimed to validate these findings in a larger cohort of children with appendicitis in addition to profiling the appendiceal microbiota in a population of children without appendicitis. Appendix swabs were collected from children undergoing appendectomy for AA (n = 60), incidental appendectomy for reasons other than appendicitis (n = 18), or ileocecectomy for inflammatory bowel disease (n = 7), in addition to samples from other sites. Bacterial 16S ribosomal RNA gene sequences from each sample were amplified, sequenced, and analyzed with the UPARSE and QIIME programs. We found that the normal human appendix harbors populations of Fusobacteria that are generally absent in fecal samples from healthy adults and children. In patients with AA, Fusobacteria populations proliferate and often persist despite several weeks of broad-spectrum antibiotics prior to surgery. Relative to non-AA samples, AA samples were depleted of sequences from the genus Bacteroides Phylogenetic analysis of sequence data indicates that F. nucleatum, F. necrophorum, and F. varium are the species of Fusobacterium observed in AA samples.",
"Intractable constipation in children is an uncommon but debilitating condition. When medical therapy fails, surgery is warranted; but the optimal surgical approach has not been clearly defined. We reviewed our experience with operative management of intractable constipation to identify predictors of success and to compare outcomes after 3 surgical approaches: antegrade continence enema (ACE), enteral diversion, and primary resection. A retrospective review of pediatric patients undergoing ACE, diversion, or resection for intractable, idiopathic constipation from 1994 to 2007 was performed. Satisfactory outcome was defined as minimal fecal soiling and passage of stool at least every other day (ACE, resection) or functional enterostomy without abdominal distension (diversion). Forty-four patients (range = 1-26 years, mean = 9 years) were included. Sixteen patients underwent ACE, 19 underwent primary diversion (5 ileostomy, 14 colostomy), and 9 had primary colonic resections. Satisfactory outcomes were achieved in 63%, 95%, and 22%, respectively. Of the 19 patients diverted, 14 had intestinal continuity reestablished at a mean of 27 months postdiversion, with all of these having a satisfactory outcome at an average follow-up of 56 months. Five patients underwent closure of the enterostomy without resection, whereas the remainder underwent resection of dysmotile colon based on preoperative colonic manometry studies. Of those undergoing ACE procedures, age younger than 12 years was a predictor of success, whereas preoperative colonic manometry was not predictive of outcome. Second manometry 1 year post-ACE showed improvement in all patients tested. On retrospective review, patient noncompliance contributed to ACE failure.",
"yes. IBD presenting as AP was more frequent among the pediatric population with IBD in comparison to adults. It was more common in patients with colitis than in those with ileal disease, suggesting that patients with idiopathic AP should be observed carefully for a possible diagnosis of IBD.",
"We should consider the diverticular disease of small bowel in patients with unexplained abdominal pain or gastrointestinal bleeding. As most small bowel diverticula, except for duodenal diverticula, are found incidentally and easily removed without postoperative morbidity or mortality, surgical resection appears to be recommended for the purpose of accurate diagnosis and treatment.",
"This study was performed to provide outcome data for the development of evidenced-based management techniques for children with appendicitis in the authors' hospital. This is a retrospective analysis of 1,196 consecutive children with appendicitis over a 5-year period (1996 to 2001) at a metropolitan hospital. The median age was 9 years (7 months to 18 years). The perforation rate was 38.9%, and the nonappendicitis rate was 5.6%. Predictors of perforation included age less than 8 years, Hispanic ethnicity, generalized abdominal tenderness, rebound tenderness, and increased number of bands. In perforated cases, the median length of stay was 5 days, and the complication rate was 13.5%. There was no difference in complication rates related to type or timing of antibiotics or related to the individual surgeon. There was no difference in infection rates related to type of wound management.",
"Acute appendicitis is the most common cause of acute abdomen in pediatric emergency department (ED) visits, and right lower quadrant abdominal ultrasound (RLQUS) is a valuable diagnostic tool in the clinical approach. The utility of ultrasound in predicting perforation has not been well-defined. We sought to determine the sensitivity of RLQUS to identify perforation in pediatric patients with appendicitis. A chart review of all patients 3 to 21 years of age who received a radiographic work-up and who were ultimately diagnosed with perforated appendicitis between 2010 and 2013 at a pediatric ED was conducted. The final read for ultrasonography was compared to either the operative diagnosis, surgical pathology diagnosis, or further imaging results (if the patient was managed nonoperatively). Test characteristics were calculated for the identification of appendicitis and identification of perforation. Of the 539 patients evaluated for appendicitis, 144 (26.7%) patients had appendicitis, and 40 of these (27.8%) were perforated. Thirty-nine had RLQUS performed as part of their evaluation. Of these, 28 had positive findings for appendicitis, and 9 were read as definite or possible perforated appendicitis. The sensitivity of RLQUS for the diagnosis of appendicitis in the group with perforation was 77.1% (95% confidence interval [CI], 59.4-89%) and the sensitivity for diagnosing a perforation was 23.1% (95% CI, 11.1-39.3%).",
"To identify the factors that facilitate the diagnosis of pediatric appendicitis. Institutionally approved retrospective, single center analysis of all patients with acute abdominal pain was done. Medical history, symptoms, laboratory and radiologic findings of all children presenting with abdominal pain were evaluated. To identify the best predictors, uni- and multi-variate analysis were used. In 2 years, 431 patients fulfilled the inclusion criteria. Data was complete in all subjects. Of these, 156 (36.2 %) suffered from appendicitis. The best discriminators for appendicitis were clinical and ultrasound features. The four best factors were identified by CART analysis (continuous abdominal pain, tenderness on the right lower quadrant, rebound tenderness and conspicuous ultrasound) and combined to the Heidelberg Appendicitis score. A positive score (>3 features) is highly predictive for acute appendicitis (PPV 89.3 %, NPV 94.9 %) and includes all cases of perforated appendicitis.",
"The role of the appendix has been highlighted in the pathogenesis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The aims of this study were to elucidate the immuno-imbalances in the appendix of UC patients, and to clarify the role of the appendix in the development of UC. Colonoscopic biopsy specimens of the appendix, transverse colon, and rectum were obtained from 86 patients with UC: active pancolitis (A-Pan; n = 15), active left-sided colitis (A-Lt; n = 25), A-Lt with appendiceal involvement (A-Lt/Ap; n = 10), inactive pancolitis (I-Pan; n = 14), and inactive left-sided colitis (I-Lt; n = 22), and from controls. In the isolated mucosal T cells, the CD4/CD8 ratio and proportion of activated CD4+ T cells were investigated, and compared with controls. In the appendix, the CD4/CD8 ratio significantly increased in A-Lt and A-Lt/Ap. The ratio in the appendix also tended to increase in A-Pan. In the rectum, the ratio significantly increased in all UC groups. In the appendix, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ (early activation antigen) T cells significantly increased in all UC groups. In the rectum, the proportion of CD4+CD69+ T cells significantly increased only in A-Pan. The proportion of CD4+HLA-DR+ (mature activation antigen) T cells significantly increased only in the rectum of A-Pan, but not in the other areas of any groups.",
"no. The use of CT for the diagnosis of appendicitis in children does not change the negative appendectomy rate. Results of studies performed in adults may not be extrapolated to the evaluation of children with suspected acute appendicitis.",
"To compare treatment failure leading to hospital readmission in children with complicated appendicitis who received oral versus intravenous antibiotics after discharge. Antibiotics are often employed after discharge to prevent treatment failure in children with complicated appendicitis, although existing studies comparing intravenous and oral antibiotics for this purpose are limited. We identified all patients aged 3 to 18 years undergoing appendectomy for complicated appendicitis, who received postdischarge antibiotics at 35 childrens hospitals from 2009 to 2012. Discharge codes were used to identify study subjects from the Pediatric Health Information System database, and chart review confirmed eligibility, treatment assignment, and outcomes. Exposure status was based on outpatient antibiotic therapy, and analysis used optimal and full matching methods to adjust for demographic and clinical characteristics. Treatment failure (defined as an organ-space infection) requiring inpatient readmission was the primary outcome. Secondary outcomes included revisits from any cause to either the inpatient or emergency department setting. In all, 4579 patients were included (median: 99/hospital), and utilization of intravenous antibiotics after discharge ranged from 0% to 91.7% across hospitals. In the matched analysis, the rate of treatment failure was significantly higher for the intravenous group than the oral group [odds ratio (OR) 1.74, 95% confidence interval (CI) 1.05-2.88; risk difference: 4.0%, 95% CI 0.4-7.6%], as was the rate of all-cause revisits (OR 2.11, 95% CI 1.44-3.11; risk difference: 9.4%, 95% CI 4.7-14.2%). The rate of peripherally inserted central catheter line complications was 3.2% in the intravenous group, and drug reactions were rare in both groups (intravenous: 0.7%, oral: 0.5%).",
"In pediatric cases of ingested foreign bodies, gastrointestinal foreign bodies (GIFB) have distinct factors contributing to longer and more costly hospitalizations. Patients admitted with ingested foreign bodies were identified in the Kids' Inpatient Database (1997-2009). Overall, 7480 cases were identified. Patients were most commonly <5years of age (44%), male (54%), and Caucasian (57%). A total of 2506 procedures were performed, GI surgical procedures (57%) most frequently, followed by GI endoscopy (24%), esophagoscopy (11%), and bronchoscopy - in cases of inhaled objects (9%). On multivariate analysis, length of stay increased when cases were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=1.7), esophageal perforation (OR=40.0), intestinal perforation (OR=4.4), exploratory laparotomy (OR=1.9), and gastric (OR=2.9), small bowel (OR=1.5), or colon surgery (OR=2.5), all p<0.02. Higher total charges (TC) were associated with intestinal obstruction (OR=2.0), endoscopy of esophagus (OR=1.8), stomach (OR=2.1), or colon (OR=3.3), and exploratory laparotomy (OR=3.6) or surgery of stomach (OR=5.6), small bowel (OR=6.4), or colon (OR=3.4), all p<0.001.",
"yes. Patients with ulcerative colitis and indeterminate colitis with a family history of Crohn's disease or preoperative anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae immunoglobulin-A seropositivity are more likely to be diagnosed with Crohn's disease after ileal pouch-anal anastomosis.",
"no. The present results indicate that asymptomatic bacteriuria in patients with a continent ileal reservoir for urinary diversion is generally of no clinical importance and should not be treated with antibiotics. This conclusion is based on the observations that the bacterial strains growing in the reservoir changed spontaneously indicating colonization rather than infection. Raised titres of antibodies against E. coli correlated weakly with bacterial growth. The observed elevations in antibody titres were usually just above the normal upper limit.",
"no. Ileal inflammation is not a contraindication for restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch construction in patients with UC or idiopathic inflammatory bowel disease of indeterminate type. Ileal inflammation with pancolitis is not a useful criterion for classifying otherwise typical UC as colitis of indeterminate type, because pouch outcomes are not affected.",
"Chronic abdominal pain (CAP) in children, a condition that accounts for approximately 25% of pediatric gastroenterology office visits, may be a precursor to irritable bowel syndrome in adults. Recently, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) has been reported in 78-84% of IBS patients regardless of their abdominal symptoms, compared to 20% in healthy controls. Aims The aim of this study was, therefore, to assess the prevalence of SIBO in children with CAP. Seventy-five children aged 8-18 years diagnosed with CAP based on the Rome II criteria and 40 healthy controls were enrolled. All subjects underwent a lactulose breath hydrogen test (LBT) to assess for SIBO. Children with CAP also filled out symptom questionnaires. There was a 91% prevalence of an abnormal LBT suggestive of SIBO in the children with CAP and 35% in controls (odds ratio = 16.7, 95% confidence interval 6.0-57.5, P < 0.0001). A comparison of CAP children with a positive LBT to CAP children with a negative LBT revealed the former had significantly more \"urgency to have a bowel movement\" (P = 0.049) and experienced less \"soiling\" (P = 0.016) than those with a negative LBT. No significant differences were found between the two groups in terms of the location of their pain or any other associated symptoms.",
"Taking into account the overlap in several symptoms between IBS and Appendicopathy there is a possibility that both syndromes originate (partly) in the appendix and therefore laparoscopy and appendicectomy may play a part in the treatment of IBS as well. Pilot studies in this direction seem to be indicated.",
"These data show that initial antibiotic treatment of perforated appendicitis in children, followed by interval appendectomy, is useful for a select group who present with little or no peritonitis, slightly elevated temperature, and WBC that falls at least 25% within 3 to 4 days.",
"yes. Our study shows that an RCT comparing initial antibiotic treatment strategy with urgent appendectomy is feasible in children; the intervention seems to be safe.",
"Two common factors, cigarette smoking and appendectomy, have been found to play a role in ulcerative colitis (UC). Data on their role in the development of extraintestinal manifestations (EIM) are scarce. The relationship between cigarette smoking, appendectomy, and EIM was examined in a prospective study involving 535 (M/F = 319/216) consecutive UC patients followed up for 18 yr. We considered the major EIM: seronegative spondyloarthropathy, pyoderma gangrenosum/erythema nodosum, acute anterior uveitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. We excluded patients with a history of EIM or those colectomized before study entry, ex-smokers, and those who started to smoke during the course of UC. In UC patients, seronegative spondyloarthropathy and dermatologic complications were found increased in smokers (p < 0.0001; p = 0.001) or in subjects with appendectomy (p = 0.0003; p = 0.02), while acute anterior uveitis and primary sclerosing cholangitis did not differ. The Kaplan-Meier analysis showed 18-yr rates for EIM of 71% in smokers and 45% in nonsmokers (log-rank test, p = 0.0001), and of 85% in patients with appendectomy and 48% in those without (p = 0.0001). Cox proportional-hazard model showed that cigarette smoking and appendectomy are independent factors promoting EIM. In smokers with appendectomy the adjusted hazard ratio (3.197, 95% CI 1.529-6.684) was higher than in patients with appendectomy alone (2.617, 95% CI 1.542-4.442) or smoking alone (1.947, 95% CI 1.317-2.879).",
"The above data support the use of laparoscopy in the management of perforated appendicitis in children. In conclusion, laparoscopy is as safe as open appendectomy. Laparoscopy is an effective alternative with a shorter length of hospital stay compared with that for an open appendectomy for perforated appendicitis in children.",
"yes. TULAA, in which the appendix is exteriorized via a combination of open and laparoscopic techniques, is a safe and effective procedure for treating appendicitis in children. TULAA is a cost-effective treatment that provides excellent cosmetic results.",
"yes. Enthesitis is a prevalent extra-intestinal manifestation of pediatric IBD and is associated with increased musculoskeletal pain. Future studies should evaluate the functional and long-term impact of enthesitis on children with IBD.",
"yes. LA is a favorable alternative in children with complicated appendicitis in view of less postoperative pain, fewer postoperative complications and quicker return to normal activity.",
"To determine whether interval resection in asymptomatic patients after 1 or 2 episodes of acute diverticulitis (prophylactic resection) is justified as a means of preventing late inflammatory complications of diverticular disease. A retrospective analysis. A university-affiliated tertiary care hospital. Those requiring hospitalization from 1987 to 1995 for treatment of acquired diverticular disease of the colon. Twenty-eight patients underwent elective resection and 154 were treated for inflammatory complications (perforation, fistula, complete large-bowel obstruction). Standard surgical management for diverticular disease, but only 3 prophylactic resections were undertaken during this period. Type of operation, stoma creation and closure, hospital death. In those treated for complicated disease, the effects on outcome of all previous outpatient treatment and hospitalizations. Only 10% of those presenting with complications had been treated conservatively for acute diverticulitis and only 5% had been hospitalized for this reason.",
"The use of antibiotics in uncomplicated appendicitis in children, remains the area of controversy. The aim of the study was to assess the necessity of antibiotic administration in nonperforated appendicitis in children. The design of the study was a double blind randomized controlled trial, with a follow-up of 4 to 20 months. Surgical Department in a University Pediatric Hospital. One hundred and eighty seven out of 249 children subjected to emergency appendectomies met the inclusion criteria, with 35 eligible but not included in the study. The remaining 152 patients were randomized; 41 had complicated appendicitis, 3 other diagnosis, 108 were analyzed within 3 study groups: 1 (n = 31) no antibiotic, 2 (n = 41) one dose, 3 (n = 36) 5-day course. Open appendectomy was a surgical procedure and Ceftriaxone 1.0 g i.v. was administered. Investigated parameters were: body temperature, WBC, bowel sounds, wound healing, recovery and morbidity. Valid outcome data were available for 90 of 108 randomized patients. Protocols of 18 children due to fever>39 degrees C, upper airway infection or allergy were disclosed. In the remaining 90 children, there were no differences in WBC and oral feeding between groups 1 (n = 24), 2 (n = 35) and 3 (n = 31). Group 1 and 2 had a higher mean temperature on day 1 post-op, without any clinical significance. A higher mean temperature was noted on day 5 post-op in group 1, due to wound infection in one patient. There were no intraabdominal abscesses. The only other complications were 2 adhesion small bowel obstructions (in groups 1 and 2 each).",
"yes. Tumour necrosis factor-α expression in segmental colitis associated with diverticulosis seems to be related to the severity of the endoscopic damage. This behaviour, similar to that of the inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), confirms that this disease should be considered as a subtype of IBD.",
"To describe the demographic and clinical characteristics of hospitalized children with enema-reduced intussusception and to determine the necessity of hospitalization. Retrospective cross-sectional study of patients (0-17 years of age) with enema-reduced intussusception hospitalized at a 110-bed urban children's hospital. For this study, potential necessity of hospitalization was defined as the presence of associated dehydration, persistent symptoms and signs of intussusception requiring repeated radiographic studies, and/or enema-reduced serious complications (bowel perforation and/or sepsis). For a 12-year period (January 1995 to December 2006), 45 patients who had enema-reduced intussusception were hospitalized. There were 32 males (71%). Three (6.7%) of the 45 patients had recurrent episodes of intussusception occurring at 2, 7, and 45 months after the initial episode. The initial episode for only 1 of these 3 was an enema-reduced hospitalization event. Thus, the following results include 46 episodes among 45 patientsThe mean (SD) age at the time of intussusception was 19.6 (25.4) months, and the median age was 10 months (range, 2-135 months). There were 27 episodes (59%) of patients 12 months or younger. The types of intussusception were ileocolic, 44 and ileoileum, 2. In 13 episodes (28%), patients were described as dehydrated and/or having an abnormal basic metabolic panel test result and meeting one of the study criteria for potential necessity of hospitalization. During the hospitalization, enema was repeated in 1 patient (2%) who had recurrent pain. The repeated enema was normal. No patient had a recurrent intussusception or developed signs of bowel perforation or sepsis while hospitalized. The mean (SD) hospital length of stay was 25.6 (9.9) hours, and the median time was 23 hours (range, 12-60 hours).",
"no. In this uncontrolled study, the accuracy of preoperative diagnosis of appendicitis and the incidence of pathology-proven perforation appendix were similar for children with suspected acute appendicitis whether they had CT, US or neither imaging, in conjunction with surgical consult. The imaging modality of CT was not associated with better outcomes for children presenting to the ED with suspected appendicitis.",
"Large-bowel obstruction and perforation are still frequently occurring entities for the acute care surgeon. In these cases, Hartmann's procedure is the most commonly used surgical technique. However, recent papers demonstrate that colon resection and primary anastomosis (RPA) in the emergency setting is a safe and feasible procedure. We present our series of left colon resection and primary anastomosis procedures from Torrevieja Hospital (Alicante, Spain), performed without bowel irrigation or a diverting ileostomy. Thirty-two RPA procedures were performed in emergency settings for perforation or obstruction, or both, during an 18-month period. The following data were prospectively collected: age, gender, nationality, diagnoses, ASA score, body mass index (BMI), POSSUM score (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enumeration of Mortality and morbidity), and the score according to the Hinchey classification. Furthermore, duration of the operation, length of postoperative hospital stay, and mortality and morbidity data were recorded. Sixteen of these patients were diagnosed with acute diverticulitis, 14 patients with neoplasm (of which 9 cases had obstruction, 2 cases had perforation, and 3 cases had both), and foreign body perforation in the remaining 2 cases. The mean hospital stay was 7.8 (range, 4-10) days. The physiological POSSUM score was 24.4 (range, 15-39), and the surgical POSSUM score was 19.8 (range, 16-24). None of the patients died (0% mortality). Seven patients developed some kind of complication (21.9%), all of which were managed conservatively.",
"Although older children had a higher risk of abscess drainage, younger children were more likely to have perforated appendicitis, be readmitted, and have longer LOH. Management of appendicitis differed according to age. Laparoscopic appendectomy was more frequently performed in older children, whereas the youngest children were more likely to be treated nonoperatively.",
"no. Resection with primary anastomosis following iatrogenic perforation of the splenic flexure is not safe because of a high chance of anastomotic dehiscence. Following a late diagnosis in an unstable patient exteriorization of the perforation as a stoma is a better option prior to a definitive prophylactic colectomy.",
"Those who have had an appendicectomy have a reduced risk of developing ulcerative colitis. However, the effect of appendicectomy on disease activity in patients with ulcerative colitis has not been established. We used the Danish National Patient Registry to identify all incident cases of ulcerative colitis in Denmark during the period 1981 to 1999. Of these, 202 had an appendicectomy after their first admission with ulcerative colitis. In these patients, we compared the incidence rate of hospitalisations with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis during the period between the onset of ulcerative colitis and appendicectomy, with the rate of such hospitalisations after appendicectomy. To adjust for the clinical course of ulcerative colitis unrelated to appendicectomy, we extracted a reference cohort (n = 808), matched to the index subjects with respect to age, sex, and year of first admission, but with an intact appendix. The rate of admission with ulcerative colitis as first diagnosis decreased by 47% after appendicectomy (rate ratio 0.53 (95% confidence interval (CI) 0.36-0.80)). However, the reference cohort showed a similar decline in admission rate (rate ratio 0.51). Thus appendicectomy had no apparent beneficial effect on admission rate after adjustment for the clinical course of disease unrelated to appendicectomy (adjusted rate ratio 1.05 (95% CI 0.67-1.67)).",
"Bowel wall thickening on computed tomography (CT) scans in children may raise concern for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The significance of this radiological finding is unclear. Our purpose was to evaluate the clinical outcomes with regard to IBD in children with no known underlying disease, presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall on CT scan. A retrospective analysis of pediatric patients with abdominal pain and CT findings of thickened bowel wall was performed between 2006 and 2010. Endoscopic findings, clinical variables, and follow-up assessments were evaluated. Fifty-six patients presenting with abdominal pain and thickened bowel wall findings on CT scan were identified. Overall, 30 (54%) had terminal ileum wall thickening, 17 (30%) had isolated colonic wall thickening, and 9 (16%) had other small bowel wall thickening. Of the 56 patients, 21 (38%) underwent endoscopy, of which 14 (67%) had positive findings-11 (79%) had histologic evidence of chronic colitis, and 5 (36%) had duodenitis/ileitis. Ultimately, 11/56 (20%) were diagnosed as having IBD, 8/56 (14%) with functional abdominal pain/constipation, 9/56 (16%) appendicitis, 10/56 (18%) infectious gastroenteritis, and 18/56 (32%) with miscellaneous diagnoses. Median levels of erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, albumin, and platelet count were significantly abnormal in the IBD group compared to the non-IBD group. Additional follow-up of those who did not undergo endoscopic evaluation revealed no new diagnoses of IBD.",
"yes. In infants, inflammatory and ischemic intestinal pathologies treated with prolonged courses of antibiotics durably alter the intestinal mucosal microbiome. Diversion of mechanoluminal stimulation, however, does not.",
"Abdominal colectomy has been used in patients with inflammatory bowel disease unclassified (IBDU), requiring surgery to allow histopathological evaluation of the colectomy specimen to rule out Crohn's disease (CD). We evaluated whether any histopathological feature was associated with an adverse postoperative outcome. Patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) or IBDU undergoing ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) were prospectively examined. A checklist of 17 histopathological features atypical for UC was developed. Outcomes of acute pouchitis (AP), chronic pouchitis (CP), and de novo CD were assessed. The 153 study patients included 119 (78%) UC and 34 (22%) IBDU patients. The following atypical features were identified (n; %): broad-based ulcer (99; 65%), appendiceal involvement (78; 51%), V-shaped ulcer (48; 31%), crypt-associated granuloma (42; 27%), isolated giant cells (39; 25%), discontinuous active inflammation (36; 24%), slit-like fissure (32; 21%), discontinuous chronic inflammation (16; 10%), ileal villous architectural distortion (12; 8%), neural hypertrophy (10; 7%), backwash ileitis (10; 7%), transmural inflammation (8; 5%), discontinuous ileitis (8; 5%), muscle hypertrophy (5; 3%), ileal ulcer (4; 3%), and ileal pyloric metaplasia (1; 1%). A total of 29 patients (19%) developed AP, 17 (11%) developed CP, and 13 patients (8%) developed de novo CD. On univariate analysis, de novo CD developed in 3 of the 10 patients (30%) with neural hypertrophy compared with only 10 of the 143 patients (7%) without neural hypertrophy (P=0.01). Multivariate regression did not show a single atypical histopathological feature, which predicted a worse outcome after IPAA.",
"yes. In children, ileal CD lesions are delayed compared with colonic lesions. This observation is in agreement with the previously proposed hypothesis of a pathophysiological role of Peyer's patches in ileal CD. The rarity of small bowel lesions should be a warning to be cautious when classifying chronic colitis in small children.",
"Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a significant cause of postoperative morbidity, yet studies characterizing outcomes in children are limited. Our aim was to review our experience to describe the role of operative and nonoperative therapy, markers of outcome, and burden of disease in children. Admissions for ASBO at British Columbia Children's Hospital (Vancouver, British Columbia, Canada) identified by International Classification of Disease, Ninth Revision, codes were reviewed over a 10-year period. Demographic, clinical, laboratory, and operative details were collected for all patients. Our study identified 165 admissions of which 32 (19%) were managed with immediate operation, whereas 133 were initially managed nonoperatively. One hundred seven patients went on to laparotomy, whereas 26 (16%) were managed nonoperatively. Absence of leukocytosis and older age appeared to be associated with successful nonoperative therapy. Tachycardia and younger age appeared to be independent risk factors for failure of nonoperative management. Delayed surgery or conservative management did not cause an increase in complications. Appendectomy, stoma formation and closure, Nissen fundoplication, and Ladd's procedures were the most common procedures leading to ASBO.",
"It is not common that, after diversion of the faecal stream by a colostomy, the defunctioned colon develops colitis. The pathogenesis of this colitis is still unclear and it has been proposed that ischaemia may play a major role. Our aim is to look for signs of ischaemia in a group of patients developing colitis after diversion colostomy for various causes. Surgical specimens from 32 patients resected for colitis developed after diverting colostomy were examined with routine (haematoxylin-eosin) and Elastic-Van Gieson and Perls' stains. The histological features related to mucosal crypt architecture, crypt epithelium and inflammation were mild, non specific or related to the underlying disease. Fibrosis was present in 21 (65.6%) patients, superficial coagulative necrosis was found in 18 (56%) patients, splitting and/or thickening of muscularis mucosae was present in 20 (62%) patients. The vessels were substantially normal or ectasic without thrombi or alterations in the wall. Evident ischaemia with coagulative necrosis, submucosal oedema and focal fibrosis was detected in only two (6%) patients and an intermediate picture between acute and chronic ischaemia was present in 16 (50%) patients.",
"In the nonoperative management of children with perforated appendicitis, admission CT findings demonstrating disease beyond the right lower quadrant correlate with treatment failure.",
"Child reconstruction with a modified Braun enteroenterostomy offers an advantage with respect to marginal ulcer after standard pancreaticoduodenectomy, potentially decreasing the incidence of alkaline reflux gastritis as effectively as Roux-en-Y reconstruction.",
"Appendicitis is a common pediatric condition requiring urgent surgical intervention to prevent complications. Pelvic ultrasound (US) as a diagnostic aid has become increasingly common. Despite its advantages, evidence suggests US can lead to delayed definitive management. The objective was to test the hypothesis that US is associated with an increased time to appendectomy in children with acute appendicitis. A chart review was conducted of all children aged 0-17 years who presented to the pediatric emergency department (ED) with a discharge diagnosis of appendicitis. The primary outcome variable was the interval between initial evaluation to appendectomy between patients who received an US and those who did not. Of 662 cases included, 424 patients (64%) underwent a pelvic US and 238 patients underwent an appendectomy without US. Median time interval from initial evaluation in the ED by a physician to appendectomy among patients who received an US was 9.7 h (interquartile range [IQR]: 6.8-15.0 h) compared with 5.5 h (IQR: 3.8-8.6 h) among patients who did not receive an US (Mann-Whitney, p<0.001). The increased time to appendectomy in patients who received an US was dependent on the patient being female and presenting to the ED after hours (univariate analysis of variance test for interaction, p<0.05).",
"Laparoscopic appendectomy is a safe procedure for complicated appendicitis in children, but the greatest short-term benefit is cosmetic. Long-term results have to be evaluated, particularly with regards to the long-term complication rate.",
"yes. For non-perforated diverticulitis of the right colon, appendicectomy and intravenous antibiotics without diverticulectomy is the preferred treatment strategy.",
"In the presence of clinical features atypical of acute appendicitis, right-sided colonic diverticulitis should be taken into account; pre-operative instrumental examinations might increase diagnostic accuracy, thereby leading to a more correct therapeutic approach.",
"Validated risk adjustment programs do not use patient diagnosis as a potential covariate in the evaluation of organ space infections. We hypothesized that patient diagnosis is an important risk factor for organ space infection after colorectal resections. We conducted a retrospective cohort study abstracting data from the American College of Surgeons National Surgical Quality Improvement Program from January 2005 through December 2009. Patients who underwent 1 of 3 types of colorectal resections (ileocolostomy, partial colectomy, and coloproctostomy) were identified by the use of Current Procedural Terminology codes. We excluded patients with concomitant formation of diverting or end stoma. The primary outcome measured was organ space infection. Validated risk adjustment models were used with the addition of diagnostic codes. We identified 52,056 patients who underwent a colorectal resection of whom 1774 patients developed an organ space infection (3.4%) and 894 (50.2%) returned to the operating room for further surgery. For ileocolostomy, operations for endometriosis (OR, 7.8; 95% CI, 1.7-36.6) and intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 3.0; 95% CI, 1.5-6.0) were associated with increased risk of organ space infection. For partial colectomy, operations for intra-abdominal fistula surgery (OR, 2.3; 95% CI, 1.2-4.3), IBD (OR, 2.5; 95% CI, 1.6-3.8), and bowel obstruction (OR, 1.8; 95% CI, 1.2-2.6) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. For coloproctostomy, operations for malignant neoplasm (OR, 2.2; 95% CI, 1.1-4.3) and diverticular bleeding (OR, 3.1; 95% CI, 1.1-9.0) were associated with an increased risk of organ space infection. This study was limited by the retrospective study design.",
"A fecalith is a fecal concretion that can obstruct the appendix leading to acute appendicitis. We hypothesized that the presence of a fecalith would lead to an earlier appendiceal perforation. Between January 2001 and December 2005, the charts of all patients younger than 18 years old who underwent appendectomy at our institution were reviewed. Duration of symptoms and timing between presentation and operation were noted along with radiologic, operative, and pathologic findings. There were 388 patients who met the study criteria. A fecalith was present in 31% of patients (n = 121). The appendix was perforated in 57% of patients who had a fecalith vs 36% in patients without a fecalith (P < .001). The overall rate of interval appendectomies was 12%. A fecalith was present on the initial radiologic studies of 36% of the patients who had interval appendectomies, and the appendix was perforated significantly sooner in these patients when compared to those without a fecalith (91 vs 150 hours; P = .036).",
"yes. ELP occurs most frequently in cases that have been diverted for inflammatory bowel disease. Fewer cases of ELP were noted in cases of inflammatory bowel disease in the absence of diversion colitis. It is postulated that altered bowel flora and immune dysregulation may be pivotal in the causation of this association.",
"Primary carcinoma of the bowel is a rare malignancy in pediatric age group. The aim of the study was to assess the incidence of appendicular malignancies in children and the possibility of reducing the need for routine histopathological examination of appendix. In last 15 years, all the cases of appendectomies in children were analyzed. Retrospective analysis of the data was done to document the clinical presentation, diagnosis, outcome and histopathology reports of the specimen. The case files and operation notes were studied thoroughly in cases where HPR was positive for malignancy. From July 1995 to June 2010, 595 appendectomies were done in children. Three cases of carcinoid tumor were detected. All were less than 1 cm and were on the tip of the appendix. There was no preoperative or intraoperative suspicion.",
"no. In this experience with high definition colonoscopes in chronic colitis, no synchronous adenocarcinomas were found when colectomy was performed for low-grade dysplasia or index adenocarcinoma, and only 1 adenocarcinoma in the appendix was found in the setting of high-grade dysplasia. These findings suggest that active surveillance or subtotal colectomy may be safe options for patients with IBD and some grades of neoplasia.",
"no. Most patients presenting with acute right-sided peritonitic pain are diagnosed and managed as cases of acute appendicitis. Acute pain in the lower right side of the abdomen caused by appendiceal diverticulitis is very rare and clinically indistinguishable from acute appendicitis. Inflammatory complications of appendiceal diverticula mimic acute appendicitis.",
"Adhesive small bowel obstruction (ASBO) is a feared complication after abdominal operations in both children and adults. The optimal management of ASBO in the pediatric population is debated. The aim of the present study was to examine the safety and effectiveness of non-operative management in ASBO. A retrospective review of 33 patients who were admitted for ASBO over a 5-year period was carried out. Follow-up data were available for 29 patients. Demographic, clinical, and operative details and outcomes were collected for these patients. Data analysis was done with SPSS version 15.0. P ≤ 0.05 was regarded as significant. Out of 618 abdominal surgeries within the 5-year period, 34 admissions were recorded from 29 patients at the follow-up period of 1-28 months. There were 19 boys (65.5%). The median age of patients was 4.5 years. Typhoid intestinal perforation (n = 7), intussusception (n = 6), intestinal malrotation (n = 5), and appendicitis (n = 4) were the major indications for a prior abdominal surgery leading to ASBO. Twenty-five patients (73.5%) developed SBO due to adhesions within the first year of the primary procedure. Of the 34 patients admitted with ASBO, 18 (53%) underwent operative intervention and 16 (47%) were successfully managed non-operatively. There were no differences in sex (P = 0.24), initial procedure (P = 0.12), age, duration of symptoms, and time to re-admission between the patients who responded to non-operative management and those who underwent operative intervention. However, the length of hospital stay was significantly shorter in the non-operative group (P<0.0001). Five (14.7%) patients had small bowel resection. A 43-day-old child who initially underwent Ladd's procedure died within 15 h of re-admission while being prepared for surgery, accounting for the only mortality (3.4%).",
"Childhood obesity is an increasing problem in affluent societies throughout the world. We sought to identify the impact of obesity on the outcome of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and determine differences (if any) between ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (CD). The 2009 Kids' Inpatient Database was explored for all children (≤ 20 years) admitted with IBD. ICD-9 codes were used to identify obesity and complications, including hemorrhage, perforation, and complex fistulas. Logistic regression analysis accounting for demographics, underlying disease, surgical procedures, and obesity was performed to identify factors associated with complication development. Data are expressed as odds ratios (OR) and a 95% confidence interval (CI). A P value of 0.05 was regarded as significant. From 12,465 admissions, 164 children were obese (1.3%), with no difference between CD and UC (1.3% vs. 1.4%; P=0.60). Girls had a two-fold increase in obesity (OR: 2.06, CI: 1.48-2.86; P<0.01). Obesity had no effect on elective/emergent admission rate (OR: 0.85, CI: 0.54-1.35; P=0.49), perforation (OR: 0.76, CI: 0.13-4.46; P=0.76), hemorrhage (OR: 0.64,CI: 0.34-1.21; P=0.17), complex fistula (OR: 1.19, CI: 0.45-3.17; P=0.72), or requirement for surgery (OR: 0.80, CI: 0.48-1.31; P=0.37). While the overall clinical morbidity rate was 10.7%, obesity was not associated with the development of overall complications (OR 1.20, CI: 0.75-1.93; P=0.45) or length of stay (6.36 vs. 6.10 days; P=0.61). Obesity increased the rate of central venous catheter (CVC) infections (OR: 10.98, CI: 2.50-48.20; P<0.01).",
"This study was designed to compare the safety and effectiveness of routine drainage and nondrainage after emergency laparotomy for typhoid intestinal perforation (TIP). A retrospective review of children 15 years or younger who underwent surgery for TIP from 2002 to 2009 was performed. All children underwent resuscitation and laparotomy and were given antibiotics but were then divided into 2 groups: group I (n = 81), postoperative peritoneal drainage, and group II, (n = 66) no drainage. There was no demographic difference between the groups (e.g., mean age 9.6 vs 9.0 years; P = .21). There was no significant difference in mean time for return of bowel function (3.8 vs 4.0 days; P = .6), rate of surgical site infection (63% vs 70%; P = .39), wound dehiscence (36% vs 27%; P = .27), anastomotic leak (2.5% vs 1.5%; P = .27), enterocutaneous fistula formation (10% vs 6.1%; P = .40), intraabdominal abscess formation (4% vs 9%; P = .18), or mean length of hospital stay (22 vs 19 days; P = .26).",
"Natural history of paediatric-onset ulcerative proctitis (UP) is poorly described. Our aim was to describe the phenotype and disease course of incident UP in a population-based study of paediatric-onset UC. All patients with UC diagnosed <17 years from 1988 to 2004, and followed during >2 years have been extracted from a population-based registry. UC location was defined according to the Paris classification. Cumulative risks for use of immunosuppressants (IS), anti-tumour necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) therapy, colonic extension and colectomy were described using Kaplan-Meier method. Risk factors for colonic extension were assessed using Cox proportional hazards models. 158 patients with paediatric-onset UC (91 females) with a median age at diagnosis of 14.5 years (Q1: 11.4-Q3: 16.1) have been identified and followed during a median of 11.4 years (8.2-15.8). Among them, 25% had UP (E1) at diagnosis and 49% of them presented a colonic extension at maximal follow-up. In these children, the cumulative risk for colonic extension was 10% at 1 year, 45% at 5 years and 52% at 10 years. No parameter at diagnosis was associated with colonic extension in the UP (E1 group). IS use was significantly lower in patients with UP than in those with E2, E3 or E4 location (p=0.049). For the UP cohort, the cumulative risk for colectomy was 3% at 1 year, 10% at 5 years, 13% at 10 years and 13% at 15 years. Risks for colonic extension, treatment with anti-TNF-α and colectomy did not differ between the E1 group and the E2-E3-E4 group.",
"yes. Appendiceal faecaliths may be a cause of right iliac fossa pain in the absence of obvious appendiceal inflammation. In this study, the policy of routine removal of a normal-looking appendix at laparoscopy in the absence of any other obvious pathology appeared to be an effective treatment for recurrent symptoms in those cases with a faecalith. Further studies are needed to assess this putative association.",
"The findings of this study suggest that the AG is unsuitable for routine biliary repair in children. It should be used only as a salvage technique when conventional HJ repair is contraindicated. Because of the high risk of graft dysfunction, we recommend screening tests to detect biochemical or histologic cholestasis in any patient previously treated with appendix grafting.",
"Patients who are suspected of having acute appendicitis usually undergo surgery in order to avoid life-threatening complications such as perforation and peritonitis. However, acute appendicitis is difficult to distinguish from other sources of right-sided abdominal pain. The clinical picture is almost indistinguishable from appendiceal diverticulitis, which is a rare entity and remains a difficult diagnostic problem. We describe the case of a 39-year-old male with perforated appendiceal diverticulitis. The patient was admitted to our surgical unit with acute appendicitis-like symptoms and underwent surgery with a diagnosis of suspected acute appendicitis. The patient was found to have perforated appendiceal diverticulitis and standard appendectomy with abdominal lavage was carried out.",
"For this retrospective study, case notes of all children (n = 262) who underwent SPA between August 2005 and December 2008 were reviewed. Those children in whom the preoperative ultrasonography revealed suspected perforation were excluded from SPA and subsequently underwent open surgery. SPA was performed using a 12-mm trocar with one 5-mm working channel, introduced through a sub-umbilical incision. After grasping the appendix with atraumatic forceps, the appendix was exteriorized through the umbilicus and dissected outside the abdominal cavity as in open surgery. Preoperatively, each patient received one dose of Metronidazole and Cefuroxime, and the umbilicus was cleaned in particular. Of the 262 children who underwent SPA, 146 were boys (55.7%) and 116 girls (44.3%). Median age at operation was 11.4 years (range, 1.1-15.9). Six obese (with a body mass index greater than the 95th percentile) children (2.3%) developed intra-abdominal abscess after perforated appendicitis that was treated with a course of antibiotics. One child required revisional surgery and drainage. The median length of antibiotic treatment was 3 days (range, 0-15).",
"Enterocolic lymphocytic phlebitis (ELP) is an uncommon cause of bowel pathology and most frequently results in ischaemia. It is characterised by an artery-sparing, venulocentric lymphoid infiltrate that causes a phlebitis and vascular compromise. Rare cases of ELP have been encountered with lymphocytic colitis in the absence of ischaemic bowel change. The present study examined the occurrence of ELP in the setting of diversion colitis and inflammatory bowel disease, as well as in random colectomy specimens. The study cohort comprised the following: 26 completion proctectomy specimens for ulcerative colitis with superimposed diversion colitis in the rectal stump; 3 colectomy specimens for Crohn disease with diversion colitis; 6 colectomy specimens for adenocarcinoma and/or diverticular disease with diversion colitis; 34 resection specimens with ulcerative colitis only; 19 with Crohn disease only; and 100 random colon resection specimens for adenocarcinoma, adenoma, diverticular disease and ischaemia. ELP was present in 18 of the 26 ulcerative colitis cases with diversion colitis, 3/3 Crohn disease cases with diversion colitis, 1/6 cases of diverticular disease with diversion colitis, 6/34 cases of ulcerative colitis without diversion, 2/19 Crohn disease cases without diversion colitis, and only 1 of 100 colectomy cases without inflammatory bowel disease or diversion colitis.",
"The appendix graft (AG) is used widely for urinary tract replacement in children. Biliary tract replacement is less common. The purpose of this retrospective multicentric study was to evaluate the safety of appendix grafting for biliary reconstruction. The files of 33 patients treated at 7 European pediatric centers were reviewed. Indications included choledochal cyst (CC) in 5 cases, biliary trauma (BT) in 1, and biliary atresia (BA) in 27. In CC and BT patients, the graft was inserted isoperistaltically between the proximal biliary duct and second duodenum. In all but one of the BA patients, the graft was placed antiperistaltically by patching its cecal end onto the porta hepatis. Postoperatively, all CC and BT patients initially became asymptomatic but developed laboratory evidence of anicteric cholestasis within 1 year. The most common manifestation was increased gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase level (GGT), whereas histologic findings showed liver damage (mainly fibrosis). Reoperation has been carried out in 4 CC and 1 BT patients within a mean period of 19 months after appendix grafting. The graft procedure was converted to hepaticojejunostomy (HJ) in 4 and to choledocoduodenostomy in 1. Surgical exploration showed kinking in 1 patient and stenosis in 1. In the remaining 3 cases, there was no discernible cause of cholestasis, and appendix histology findings were normal. In all 5 reoperated patients, liver function findings returned to normal within 1 month. Reoperation is scheduled for the remaining CC patient who currently requires ursodesoxycholic medication to maintain normal liver function and presents histologic evidence of \"de novo\" sclerosing cholangitis. Results of appendix grafting also were poor in the 27 BA patients. Procedure-related perioperative complications occurred in 4 (15%) including 1 early death from graft necrosis. Another early death resulted from intestinal hemorrhage. Jaundice cleared in only 8 (28%).",
"This method was used in 14 children, seven boys and seven girls, aged from 2.7 to 14 years, with acute appendicitis and peritonitis. Conversion to median laparotomy was necessary in order to perform adhesiolysis in two cases in which small bowel was observed. Postoperative complications occurred in four patients involving three wound infections and one mechanical intestinal obstruction. There was no intra-abdominal abscess.",
"Cecal diverticulitis is an uncommon cause of acute abdominal pain and presents clinically similar to acute appendicitis. There are many perspectives concerning the management of this condition, ranging from different types of surgical resections to conservative treatment with antibiotics. We present 3 cases of cecal diverticulitis. One of the patients was treated conservatively with intravenous antibiotics and the other 2 were treated with surgical resection.",
"Chronic right-lower-quadrant abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. The purpose of this report is to detail the outcome of management of these patients with appendectomy. Appendiceal colic was judged to be present if the history showed cramping abdominal pain in association with McBurney's point tenderness. This is a retrospective review of 50 consecutive pediatric patients experiencing pain for greater than 1 year. All patients were evaluated at a single institution by one surgeon and underwent elective appendectomies from April 1985 through April 1997. Seventy-five percent of the patients were girls. One hundred forty-nine imaging and endoscopic studies were performed with 135 negative findings. Twenty-three patients had a minimum of one previous emergency room visit or hospitalization for the same abdominal complaints. The pathological findings were distinctly different from those of incidental appendectomies. Three patients had undergone previous diagnostic explorations for abdominal pain, the appendix was not removed, and a subsequent appendectomy relieved the discomfort. Forty-nine of the 50 patients were pain free at 1 year.",
"yes. An unusual cause of mild chronic abdominal pain can be the presence of appendiceal diverticulum with inspissated intraluminal secretions. The evaluation of these patients is usually normal. Exploratory laparoscopy with appendectomy should be the final evaluation for patients with mild chronic abdominal pain.",
"no. Recurrent appendicitis is rare in pediatric patients after successful nonoperative management of perforated appendicitis. Routine IA is not necessarily indicated for these children.",
"Persons who have had an appendectomy are less prone to develop ulcerative colitis than those who have not. The underlying mechanism and the clinical use of this finding are unknown. Two competing hypotheses were examined: (1) the inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is conferred by a mutual determinant such as genes, and (2) the appendix itself has biologic effects that promote the development of ulcerative colitis. We performed a population-based cohort study of all 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy performed in Denmark 1977 through 1999. We used a bidirectional cohort design, calculating the standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis both before and after the appendectomy. If the hypothesis of a constant, confounding factor were true, incidence rates of ulcerative colitis would be equal before and after appendectomy. If the incidence of ulcerative colitis were lower after appendectomy than before, it would support the second hypothesis and a true protective effect of the appendectomy. We controlled confounding by age and sex using direct standardization. Of 234,559 persons who had an appendectomy, 559 developed ulcerative colitis during a mean follow up of 17.5 years. The standardized incidence rate of ulcerative colitis was lower in the postappendectomy period than in the preappendectomy period (incidence rate ratio = 0.74; 95% confidence interval = 0.62-0.88).",
"The inverse association between appendectomy and ulcerative colitis is not explained by time-stable factors such as genes. Appendectomy might have a genuine protective effect toward development of ulcerative colitis.",
"Antegrade continence enemas (ACEs) are successful for constipation and/or fecal incontinence caused by anorectal malformations or spina bifida but have been thought to be less successful in the treatment for patients with colonic dysmotility. We studied the long-term efficacy of ACE in a large group of patients with idiopathic slow-transit constipation (STC). We identified 56 children with an appendicostomy for ACE with radiologically proven STC. An independent investigator (SKK) performed confidential telephone interviews. We assessed 42 of 56 children (31 boys) of mean age 13.1 years (range, 6.9-25). Mean follow-up was at 48 months (range, 3-118). Mean symptom duration before appendicostomy was 7.5 years (range, 1.4-17.4). Indications for appendicostomy were soiling (29/42), inadequate stool evacuation (7/42), and recurrent hospital admissions for nasogastric washouts (6/42). Both quality of life (Templeton quality of life [P < .0001]) and continence (modified Holschneider continence score [P < .0001]) improved with ACE. Soiling frequency decreased in 32 of 42 (11/32 completely continent). Thirty-seven of 42 children had reduced abdominal pain severity (P < .0001) and frequency (P < .0001). Complications included granulation tissue (33/42), stomal infection (18/42), and washout leakage (16/42). Fifteen of 42 children ceased using the appendicostomy (7/15 symptoms resolved). Thirty-five of 42 families felt that their aspirations had been met.",
"The aim of the present study was to review postoperative complications of pediatric patients undergoing colectomy for ulcerative colitis (UC) or inflammatory bowel disease-unspecified (IBD-U) with a focus on preoperative immunosuppression including exposure to infliximab. We performed a retrospective chart review of all of the children with UC or IBD-U undergoing colectomy at our institution from 1996 to 2010. Data collected included indication for colectomy, immunosuppressive medications taken within 30 to 90 days of colectomy, surgical techniques and staging, and early and late postoperative complications. A total of 51 patients underwent colectomy (45 UC, 6 IBD-U) (55% male, 63% pancolitis at diagnosis, mean age at diagnosis 10.8 ± 3.8 years, mean age at colectomy 13.1 ± 3.8 years). Indications for colectomy were fulminant colitis in 26% and medically refractory chronic disease in 74%. Patient exposure to immunosuppression in the 30 days before colectomy included corticosteroids (88%), thiopurines (51%), and calcineurin inhibitors (4%). Within 90 days before colectomy, 65% of patients were exposed to infliximab. Small bowel obstruction was the most common postoperative complication, occurring in 19% (treated surgically in 30%), followed by wound infection in 8% and intraabdominal abscess in 6%. One patient developed postoperative sepsis. There was no increased incidence of early or late infectious or noninfectious complications in those patients taking or not taking thiopurines or calcineurin inhibitors (within 30 days), or infliximab (within 90 days).",
"The findings suggest that laparoscopic appendectomy should be avoided in children who have complicated appendicitis because of the increased risk for postoperative intraabdominal abscesses. The authors propose a prospective, randomized trial to verify this finding.",
"yes. The present data emerging from a large multicentre study, confirm that appendectomy has a protective role for the development of ulcerative colitis.",
"To find out the incidence of acute appendicitis leading to acute abdominal pain and necessitating appendectomy in the follow-up of patients after radical cystectomy and urinary diversions. A prospective 160 consecutive radical cystectomy patients with urinary diversion in whom appendectomy was not done between January 1991 and June 2001 were reviewed for the incidence of acute appendicitis. Ages ranged between 26 and 73 years. There were 143 males and 17 females. 120 patients had ileal conduit, 20 sigmoid neobladder, 5 continent urinary diversion, and 15 ureterosigmoidostomy as urinary diversion. Each patients was followed up regularly till death or last follow-up. The follow-up ranged between 4 months and 10 years (mean 6 years). Intestinal obstruction (11%) and acute pyelonephritis (16%) were the most common causes of acute abdominal pain. The remaining causes include sigmoid neobladder perforation (0.6%), parastomal hernia (0.6%), urinary retention due to mucus (1.8%) and renal colic (1.8%). In all patients, diagnosis was easily made and they were managed accordingly. None of the patients had acute appendicitis requiring appendectomy on follow-up.",
"Laparoscopic appendectomy (LA) is controversial due to the high rate of intraabdominal abscess (IAA). We report a postlaparoscopic appendectomy complication (PLAC) observed in pediatric patients discharged after an uneventful postoperative period. In this case series, a review of the medical records of children who underwent LA or open appendectomy (OA) during a 5-year period was performed. The diagnosis of PLAC was based on three well-defined criteria: time of appearance, clinical and laboratory findings, and ultrasonographic characteristic features. A total of 374 patients underwent appendectomy (LA, 129 patients; OA, 245 patients). One patient with conversion of LA to OA and 35 patients with gangrenous or perforated appendicitis (seven from the LA group and 28 from the OA group) were excluded from the study. After LA, nine children developed intraabdominal complications during their hospitalization (six infiltrate in the right lower quadrant and three IAA); these were also excluded. Discharge from the department was done when three conditions were fulfilled: normal body temperature, normal leukocyte count, and passage of a stool. Among the 112 LA patients, PLAC was observed in 15 (13.4%), aged 12.5 +/- 2.9 years, who were discharged after LA in 2.7 +/- 0.9 days. Number of PLAC and time of its appearance were not significantly different in patients with normal or pathological appendix. Sonographic findings of PLAC at admission were fluid alone (n = 11), edematous mesenteric fat (n = 7), thickening of bowel wall (n = 9), and more than one sign (n = 9). At repeated sonography, these signs were present in all patients, and IAA developed in one of them. All children were successfully treated with antibiotics for 10.1 +/- 3.9 days, one of whom underwent a CT-guided percutaneous drainage for IAA.",
"yes. The presence of fecalith is associated with earlier and higher rates of appendiceal perforation in pediatric patients with acute appendicitis. An expedient appendectomy should therefore be performed in the pediatric patient with a radiologic evidence of fecalith.",
"E nterobius vermicularis is one of the most common parasitic infections of the gastrointestinal tract, and has been shown to infest up to 28% of children worldwide. The role of E . vermicularis in acute appendicitis has previously been questioned, with some studies identifying infection as a precursor for inflammation of the appendix, with others refuting such a link. A retrospective review was conducted of all appendices received for histological analysis at our unit from January 2002 to December 2011 (10-year period), removed in the course of acute appendicectomy in children aged 3 to 15 years. Appendices were categorized by degree of inflammation and infestation with E . vermicularis. Appendicectomy for clinical suspicion of acute appendicitis was performed in 2923 patients, 1694 (58%) male, median age 11.6 years. E . vermicularis was present in 4% of appendices; 25% of which showed concurrent acute inflammation. E . vermicularis infestation was more common in females (F : M 76% versus 24% of inflamed appendices and 66.7% versus 33.3% for non-inflamed appendices). European individuals showed higher representation in the E . vermicularis group than the total study population (79% versus 53% respectively).",
"E . vermicularis was found to be more common in females and those of European descent. Seventy-seven percent of patients with E . vermicularis did not have concurrent acute inflammation of the appendix on histological examination. The question remains as to whether infestation is protective of inflammation or whether infestation causes appendiceal colic and subsequent appendicectomy of a non-inflamed appendix, thereby protective of the morbidity of acute appendicitis.",
"Diverticulum of the vermiform appendix is rarely encountered. Previous reports in the literature indicate that appendiceal diverticulum without inflammations are asymptomatic. During the past 10 years, 217 patients have been evaluated in our office for chronic lower abdominal pain. Six patients in this group were unusual in that no diagnosis could be made after a complete history, physical examination, and multiple imaging and laboratory studies. Each patient had a normal computed tomography scan of the abdomen, upper endoscopy, colonoscopy, barium enema, and small bowel enteroclysis. Each of the 6 patients underwent an exploratory laparoscopy and appendectomy. All 6 patients in this series had acquired diverticulum of the appendix with inspissated intraluminal secretions without histological evidence of inflammation. The age range was 37 to 57 years. Most patients were male, and most had a single diverticulum projecting into the mesoappendix. All 6 patients had complete resolution of their chronic abdominal pain after the laparoscopic appendectomy.",
"Histological features of DC in children are very similar to those described in adults. They should help to distinguish it from ulcerative colitis and Hirschsprung's-associated enterocolitis in order to prevent inappropriate therapy and follow-up. There are many similarities between DC and the normal appendix vermiformis.",
"Appendiceal colic may be a true clinical entity. Children suffering from appendiceal colic may benefit from elective appendectomy.",
"Unexplained recurrent abdominal pain is a frequent problem in the pediatric population. An organic cause is found in 10 percent of children. Recurrent abdominal pain is responsible for multiple hospital admissions and patient evaluations. In some children, partial luminal obstruction of the appendix without inflammation may be the cause of this pain, and is defined as \"appendiceal colic.\" During a period of five years, we performed a prospective study among children admitted for right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Children operated on for suspected acute appendicitis were eliminated from the study. Among the remaining patients, those with recurrent pain were evaluated for appendiceal colic. Medical histories were obtained, and the patients underwent physical examinations, routine laboratory studies, stool cultures, abdominal roentgenograms, and sonography scans (including the pelvic region in girls). Precise radiologic evaluation of the appendix was performed by barium swallow in 22 children or by barium enema in four. The diagnosis of appendiceal colic was made if the following three criteria were met: a history of longer than one month with three or more recurrent attacks of right lower quadrant abdominal pain; localized tenderness in the right lower abdomen without signs of peritoneal irritation or inflammation; or radiologic findings at barium examination consisting of irregular filling of the appendix, nonfilling or partial filling of the appendix after 24 hours, or nonemptying of the appendix after 72 hours. Children thus diagnosed underwent elective appendectomy, which was performed only after an additional episode of abdominal pain. Twenty-six children (average age 11.4 years) were treated by appendectomy and of these, 23 (88.5 percent) experienced pain relief in the immediate postoperative period. The remaining three children had pain relief within four months after appendectomy.",
"Diversion colitis (DC) is a localized, relatively benign, iatrogenic condition which occurs in almost 100% of diverted colonic segments in patients who undergo ileostomy/colostomy for various reasons. The aim of this study was to establish histological features of DC in children. Twenty-three cases of DC following colostomy for Hirschsprung's disease in young children were analysed. The distinguishing features included prominent follicular lymphoid hyperplasia (100%), chronic mucosal inflammation (100%), accompanied by a variable degree of acute inflammation (78%) and Paneth cell metaplasia (26%). Less frequent histological findings were as follows: mild goblet cell depletion (22%), foci of cryptitis (13%), crypt abscesses (13%) and mild architectural distortion (22%). A previously unrecognized feature was the presence of mucosal aggregates of eosinophils, found in 43% of cases. A striking similarity between the normal appearance of the vermiform appendix and pathological features in DC was noted and the possible relationship between the two is discussed."
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Raising research awareness among midwives and nurses: does it work? | [
"The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation.",
"The introduction of clinical governance challenges healthcare providers to improve the care they deliver. There are huge opportunities for Trusts to invest in developing staff knowledge and use of research. However, staff will only seize these opportunities if there is an appropriate, enabling environment--an environment that delivers intensive interventions and is sensitive to the wider structural factors in the NHS affecting staff morale and commitment. In the absence of this environment, what may be seen as opportunities to managers may be regarded as just another burden by staff."
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"Although most workers have OSH questions, only 40% seek information or advice to answer their questions. Moreover, many OSH questions remain unanswered by common information facilities. This study provides input on how to develop campaigns and new facilities that may induce workers to seek information and that offer more applicable information.",
"Here we report the results of a randomized study undertaken to test the efficacy of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention in increasing patients' awareness and understanding of the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate. During a 12-month period, 180 cancer patients who were approached to participate in a phase II or III clinical trial were randomized to undergo either of the following: (1) standard informed consent procedures based on verbal explanations from the treating physician plus written information (controls); or (2) standard informed consent procedures plus a supplementary, telephone-based contact with an oncology nurse (intervention). For purposes of evaluation, face-to-face interviews were conducted with all patients approximately 1 week after the informed consent process had been completed. The two groups were comparable with regard to sociodemographic and clinical variables. Both groups had a high level of awareness of the diagnosis and of the nature and objectives of the proposed treatments. The intervention group was significantly (P < .01) better informed about the following: (1) the risks and side effects of treatment; (2) the clinical trial context of the treatment; (3) the objectives of the clinical trial; (4) where relevant, the use of randomization in allocating treatment; (5) the availability of alternative treatments; (6) the voluntary nature of participation; and (7) the right to withdraw from the clinical trial. The intervention did not have any significant effect on patients' anxiety levels or on rates of clinical trial participation. Patients reported high levels of satisfaction with the intervention.",
"To assess and improve knowledge of correct resuscitation procedures if an unexpected event occurs during an intra-uterine device (IUD) fitting. Previous literature on resuscitation in the family planning clinic was reviewed to provide a basis for a questionnaire for doctors and nurses within the service to assess knowledge of correct procedures. Outcome of first questionnaire: Seventeen questionnaires were returned in the first round, of which 12 were from nurses. The results to the first question gave a 70% correct response rate. The response to the second gave a correct response of 41%. Only six out of 17 would give atropine in a vaso-vagal attack. The results were discussed at an audit meeting and most staff said that they wanted further training. This was linked with the Leeds Community and Mental Health Trust training for resuscitation. By linking to this training programme it saved time and resources for the family planning service. Outcome of second questionnaire: Twenty-one staff returned questionnaires, of which 12 were nurses. The results to the first question gave an 87% correct response rate. The response to the second showed a correct response of 71%. Fourteen out of the 21 replying would give atropine.",
"This study is the first in France that assessed students' knowledge on fertility. We observed: (1) gaps and misconceptions about female fertility despite a medical training in midwifery students; (2) a belief that in vitro fertilization is effective to overcome infertility related to age; (3) that some of these young students would be favorable to oocyte social freezing (technique not allowed in France); (4) that an adequate information on the decrease of fertility with age could lead some students to anticipate their first pregnancy. Specific information regarding the decrease of fertility with age should be offered to all reproductive-aged young women.",
"A previous survey has highlighted the fact that most individuals in chemical pathology identifiable from specialist society membership failed to publish material in Medline cited journals during a five year period. It could be considered that published research that is not cited in other work is not useful unless it has achieved visibility, as demonstrated by citation in another research publication. To determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. A random selection from the previous survey was investigated to determine whether the frequency of research publication is associated with research visibility. There was a logarithmic relation between the frequency of publication and visibility, with an increasing probability of citation as publication frequency increases.",
"yes. Almost all women at RHW access information antenatally about intrapartum pain management, often from informal sources. Demographic factors affected type of information accessed and women's plans. Adequate access to information affected use of, and satisfaction with, pain management.",
"To increase maintenance of breastfeeding through improved primary care support. A cluster randomised controlled trial recruited 15 rural family doctor's offices and 330 women who were currently breastfeeding took part. Eight practices formed the intervention group (154 women) and seven formed the control group (176 women). The practice nurses who provided the intervention used a specially designed motivational flowchart to speak to the mothers when they brought their child for immunisation at 2, 4 and 6 months. The nurses also attended preparatory workshops on breastfeeding management, counselling skills, motivational interviewing and reflective practice and were given resources and support. Breastfeeding rates were measured at 4 and 6 months. Randomisation equally distributed all measured variables except prenatal intentions to rejoin employment within 12 months (70% intervention, 56% control, p < 0.05). After adjustment, the 4-month figures showed significantly higher rates of exclusive breastfeeding (OR 1.88; 95%CI 1.01-3.50; p = 0.047) and full breastfeeding (water/juice allowed) (OR 1.95; 95%CI 1.03-3.69; p = 0.04) in the intervention group. There were no differences at 6 months.",
"Attending a nurse-led education and counselling group intervention had a positive impact on various aspects of the women's lived experiences. The programme also provided professionals with important insights into the patients' views and feelings regarding cancer treatment, trajectories and rehabilitation. This knowledge has already proven itself useful in clinical practice for improving staff communication skills and psycho-social support related to gynaecological cancer care.",
"no. Clarity about what does (and does not) constitute MI promotes quality assurance in scientific research, clinical practice, and training.",
"yes. To improve the uptake rate, we should focus on the personal moral obligation of eligible women, beliefs about the risks of cervical cancer, and available cures. Invitations and reminders within general practices enhance the uptake rate.",
"Despite considerable investment in research priority setting within diverse fields of healthcare, little is known about the extent to which different stakeholder groups share research priorities. Conflicting priorities may jeopardize stakeholder engagement in research. To identify the research priorities of different stakeholder groups within mental health care and examine the extent and nature of agreement between them. Using a Delphi technique, we conducted parallel consultation processes within four different stakeholder groups. Each group process consisted of three rounds. The study was carried out within a mental health and learning disabilities trust in southern England. Participants were recruited from the following groups: mental health service users (34), informal carers (26), mental health practitioners (35) and service managers (23). There were striking differences between the four groups in respect of their ability and willingness to make priority decisions. These differences notwithstanding, there was considerable overlap in respect of their research interests. All groups identified and attached high importance to issues relating to the promotion of independence, self-esteem and recovery. The quality of in-patient care, the place of psychological therapies and the relationship between physical and mental health also emerged across the board.",
"yes. Educational needs of research ethics among nursing professors and students in the postgraduate course was high. We recommend both basic and advanced research ethics educational programs for the nursing researchers. The basic course should be at least 6 hr and include various cases and something to discuss.",
"We conducted a population-based study to assess whether work as a nurse during pregnancy increases the risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and small-for-gestational-age. The study population was selected from The Finnish Prenatal Environment and Health Study of 2568 newborns (response 94%) and included 128 (5.0%) newborns of nurses and 559 newborns of office workers (21.8%) as a reference group. The risk of low birth weight (adjusted odds ratio = 1.02; 95% confidence interval = 0.32-3.22) and preterm delivery (0.81; 0.32-2.05) did not differ between newborns of nurses and office workers, but the risk of small-for-gestational-age was substantially higher among newborns of nurses (1.99; 1.10-3.59). This corresponds to a population attributable fraction of 2.5%.",
"Although well aware of the problem, clinical researchers knowingly contribute to problems of selective reporting and nonpublication of trials. They call for changes in current practices of journal-based communication of trial reporting and for systematic evaluation of measures to decrease publication bias.",
"For postgraduate nurses, daylong cancer pain education workshops were, in the group studied, as effective as hands-on experience in improving cancer pain knowledge and changing attitudes. Both the workshop-only and the enriched-model nurses relative to controls had significantly improved knowledge and changed attitudes towards optimal pain management.",
"yes. We conclude that the nurses working in CHCs need guidance and information about gamete donation in order to be able to support parents in the disclosure of information to their children and also how to inform or withhold information to significant others in their surrounding milieu.",
"yes. the instruction in pelvic floor exercises by health service professionals was provided on an ad hoc basis. In many instances, the programme of instruction did not meet recommendations made in the literature. It is likely that the success of randomised controlled trials reported in the literature would not be repeated in the 'real world' Implications for practice: there is a need for the service to be reorganised so that all women receive high-quality instruction during pregnancy, with a reminder to exercise following birth. This could help to prevent, or relieve, the symptoms of stress incontinence that frequently occur at these times.",
"yes. The women in this study valued continuity of midwifery care and were able to form meaningful relationships with their midwifery student. Programs leading to registration as a midwife should privilege continuity of care experiences. Not only does this benefit women but provides the future midwifery workforce with a clear understanding of models that best meet women's individual and the benefits of working in these models.",
"yes. This study supports efforts aimed at improving teamwork-related factors as they are associated with a decrease in violence against nurses.",
"Despite an increase in the proportion of qualitative research in medical journals over a 10 year period, the proportion remains low. Journals' policies pertaining to qualitative research, as expressed by the appearance of specific guidelines and editorials/methodological papers on the subject, are independently associated with the publication of original qualitative research; irrespective of the journals' impact factor.",
"A lack of awareness of bias and negative attitudes towards research present significant barriers in terms of conducting methodologically rigorous pediatric RCTs. Knowledge translation efforts must focus on these issues to ensure the relevance and validity of trial results.",
"Analysis of international language, communication and nursing literature revealed the essential role language consistency plays in promoting competency and desirable behavioural outcomes. It also revealed the difficulty nursing has had in gaining consistency of language associated with theory, research and reasoning. Six nursing theory, research and terminology texts with international circulation were analysed to identify key words related to theory, research and reasoning and to determine consistency of definitions among texts. Next, 97 nursing educators were surveyed to determine their ability to define the same key words. Educators were recruited during three national nursing education meetings in the United States of America between 2006 and 2007. Analysis revealed significant variability in definitions of key words among texts and in nursing educators' ability to match any defining words used by the texts and by each other.",
"This study examined effectiveness of a theoretically based education programme in reducing inappropriate antipyretic use in fever management. Paediatric nurses' inconsistent, ritualistic antipyretic use in fever management is influenced by many factors including inconsistent beliefs and parental requests. Determinants of antipyretic administration, identified by the theory of planned behaviour, were belief-based attitudes and subjective norms. A quasi-experiment explored group effects of a peer education programme, based on the theory of planned behaviour, on factors influencing paediatric nurses' antipyretic administration. Surveys and chart audits collected data from medical wards at experimental and control hospitals one month pre and one and four months postpeer education programme. All nurses employed in targeted wards were eligible to participate in surveys and all eligible charts were audited. The peer education programme consisted of four one-hour sessions targeting evidence-based knowledge, myths and misconceptions, normative, attitudinal and control influences over and rehearsal of evidence-based fever management. All nurses in experimental hospital targeted wards were eligible to attend. Peer education and support facilitated session information reaching those unable to attend sessions. Two-way univariate anovas explored between subject, experimental and control group and within subject factors, pre, post and latency data. Significant interactions in normative influence (p = 0.01) and intentions (p = 0.01), a significant main group effect in control influence (p = 0.01) and a significant main effect between audit data across time points (p = 0.03) highlight peer education programme effectiveness in behaviour change. Normative, control and intention changes postpeer education programme were maintained in latency data; mean temperature was not.",
"We have developed a validated questionnaire which tests patient's level of knowledge with respect to surgical myocardial revascularisation. Our study identified areas of informed consent where the minimal level of knowledge is below the recommended level. The questionnaire could be used in audits and clinical trials in patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting. It could be used as a tool to measure the effectiveness of patient education programmes. With appropriate changes, this instrument could also be applied in other fields of medical intervention, which require patients to give informed consent.",
"Given the factors that distinguish researching from non-researching Fellows, attention needs to be paid to the ethos of the professional environment, mentoring, and training opportunities in research in order to increase the recruitment of women investigators.",
"Despite poor design and inadequate funding, our findings have shown some promising results after PBF training in the study area. The findings have highlighted the potential of PBF to act as leverage for initiating innovative and proactive actions, which may motivate health personnel performance and quality of care in the study setting with minimal support. However, key policy issues at the national level should be addressed in order to exploit this opportunity.",
"The research enterprise is addressing one in five knowledge gaps identified in clinical practice recommendations in endocrinology. These findings suggest an inefficiency in the allocation of very scarce research economical resources. Linking the research agenda to evidence gaps in clinical practice guidelines may improve both the efficiency of the research enterprise and the translation of evidence into more confident clinical practice.",
"yes. Research and prevention strategies should not focus solely on isolated early risk factors, but also on the entire pre- and perinatal situation.",
"Relevant, high quality research summaries were found for few of the topics identified by managers. Few proposals used national surveys evidence to identify barriers to vaccination. Researchers generating or adapting evidence about health systems need to be more responsive to managers' needs. Use of available evidence from local or national surveys should be strongly encouraged.",
"Breast cancer is the most common female cancer worldwide including India, where advanced stages at diagnosis, and rising incidence and mortality rates, make it essential to understand cancer literacy in women. We conducted a literature review to evaluate the awareness levels of risk factors for breast cancer among Indian women and health professionals. A structured literature search using combined keywords was undertaken on bibliographic databases including MEDLINE, Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews, Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health (CINAHL) and SCOPUS. Searches were restricted to research published in English language peer-reviewed journals through December, 2014 in India. A total of 7066 women aged 15-70 years showed varied levels of awareness on risk factors such as family history (13-58%), reproductive history (1-88%) and obesity (11-51%). Literacy levels on risk factors did not improve over the 8-year period (2005-2013). On average, nurses reported higher, though still varied, awareness levels for risk factors such as family history (40.8-98%), reproductive history (21-90%) and obesity (34-6%). Awareness levels were not consistently higher for the stronger determinants of risk.",
"To use an \"evidence-mapping\" approach to assess the usefulness of Cochrane reviews in identifying research gaps in the maternal health. The article describes the general mapping, prioritizing, reconciling, and updating approach: (1) identifying gaps in the maternal health research using published systematic reviews and formulating research questions, (2) prioritizing questions using Delphi method, (3) reconciling identified research priorities with the existing literature (i.e., searching of ongoing trials in trials registries), (4) updating the process. A comprehensive search of Cochrane systematic reviews published or updated from January 2006 to March 2011 was performed. We evaluated the \"Implications for Research\" section to identify gaps in the research. Our search strategy identified 695 references; 178 systematic reviews identifying at least one research gap were used. We formulated 319 research questions, which were classified into 11 different categories based on the direct and indirect causes of maternal mortality: postpartum hemorrhage, abortion, hypertensive disorders, infection/sepsis, caesarean section, diabetes, pregnancy prevention, preterm labor, other direct causes, indirect causes, and health policies and systems. Most research questions concerned the effectiveness of clinical interventions, including drugs (42.6%), nonpharmacologic interventions (16.3%), and health system (14.7%).",
"yes. Trial introduction meetings involving researcher led presentation of information, followed by group discussion, can help enhance the information provided in the patient information leaflet in a useful and non coercive manner.",
"Funding has been made available for nurses to convert from second level to first level registration. Managers need to know the value of this initiative. Questionnaires sent to a sample of 130 enrolled nurses and semi-structured interviews with eight nurses and one manager. Descriptive statistics were used to analyse the questionnaires and themes identified from the transcripts of the interviews. One year after completion, participants identified changes in grade, job and further study. Interviews revealed a developmental change in their personal and professional life. The depth of perceived prejudice towards them remains very powerful.",
"The increasing amount of the clinical research conducted in the primary health care has enabled extending research beyond traditional settings, but this transfer has implied some trade-offs. Health care professionals who conduct research with trusted patients require assuming the ethical standards of research and communication skills to enable patients' autonomy and freedom of choice. This study aims to measure the opinions of health professionals and patients on issues of communication in clinical research. A cross-sectional study with health care professionals and patients from primary health care centres in Barcelona (Spain). Each group completed a similar self-administered questionnaire. A Rasch model was fitted to data. After examination of goodness-of-fit, differences between groups were compared using analysis of variance, and patients' measures were calibrated to professionals' measures to compare overall mean measures. Professionals and patients found the ethical attitudes most difficult to endorse related to trust in clinical researchers and conflicts of interest. Patients' perceptions of professional ethical behaviour were significantly lower than professionals'. Different item functioning between nurses and family doctors was found in the item on seeking ethical collaboration when collaborating in clinical research. Effective knowledge of ethical norms was associated with greater perceived ethical values in clinical research and confidence in health care professionals among patients.",
"yes. Residents at all levels demonstrated improved research and statistics scores after receiving the curriculum. Because the ABSITE includes a wide spectrum of research topics, sustained improvements suggest a genuine level of understanding that will promote lifelong evaluation and clinical application of the surgical literature.",
"To describe how changes in recommendations regarding aspirating for blood return prior to intramuscular immunization have diffused into perinatal nurses' practice using the diffusions of innovations theory as a framework and to explore what factors influenced decisions to adopt new administration techniques.DESIGN & This descriptive study used a survey design with a convenience sample of hospital-based perinatal nurses. A link to an online survey regarding injection knowledge and practices surrounding administering the hepatitis B vaccine to newborns was distributed to nurse managers in Indiana, and they were asked to forward the link to their staffs. A total of 72 nurses participated in the survey. The majority of respondents (90%) continued to aspirate with the vaccination. Only 13% knew this practice was no longer recommended.",
"yes. Increasingly nursing work is translated into quantitative data or metrics. This is an inescapable development which seeks to enhance understanding of nursing work. However, qualitative research may also offer a useful approach which captures the otherwise hidden, subjective experiences associated with time and work. Such data can exist alongside nursing metrics, and together these can build a better and more nuanced consideration of nursing practice.",
"The findings point to the need for research-based information, exposure to professional journals and, in particular, organizational support for evidence-based nursing practice.",
"yes. A minority of perinatal nurses have expertise in adolescent mother-friendly care. There is a need for perinatal unit-level interventions to support the development of nurses' skills in caring for adolescent mothers and their knowledge of community-based resources. Peer mentoring and self-reflective practice are promising strategies.",
"Differences in the views of the communication process between patients and professionals could alert research boards, health care institutions and researchers to the need for greater transparency, trust and ethical instruction when patients are involved in clinical research.",
"To test the effect of publicity on recruitment to a randomized trial. Recruitment is often poor in trials. Publicity within recruitment packs might be an inexpensive method of increasing recruitment. We tested this in two quasi-randomized trials. In a primary care setting, within the context of a randomized trial of falls prevention, we allocated participants to receive a newspaper article about the study with their information sheet. The first trial compared one newspaper article against no article; the second compared a more favorably written article against the original. In the first study 4,488 participants were allocated into two groups. The response rate was 102 and 97 in the intervention and control groups, respectively (4.55% vs. 4.32%, 95% confidence interval [CI]: -0.98, 1.43); the recruitment rate was 73 and 71, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant. In the second study 2,745 were allocated into two groups with a response rate of 75 and 69 for the control and intervention groups, respectively (5.46% vs. 5.03%, 95% CI: -1.24, 2.09); the recruitment rate was 57 and 54, respectively, the difference not being statistically significant.",
"yes. It is important to ensure that new mothers are adequately informed about topics important to them while in hospital. The findings highlight the need for accessible and appropriate community-based information resources for women in the postpartum period, especially for those of low socioeconomic status.",
"Antenatal care recommended in protocols used in Australia varies, and is not always consistent with national policies or research evidence. Producing and disseminating systematic reviews of research evidence and national guidelines might reduce this variability and improve the quality of Australian antenatal care.",
"Nurse practitioners (NPs) are in a prime position to educate women about initial signs and symptoms of ovarian cancer (OC) and perform appropriate screening tests. However, little is known about NPs knowledge regarding OC. This article's purpose is to present the outcomes of a focused OC awareness program for NP students. NP students (N = 104) participated in this longitudinal one group pre-post study. Knowledge was calculated based on the number of correct answers for a total knowledge score and subscales related to OC incidence, risk, screening, symptoms, and treatment. An item related to the effectiveness of the Pap test to screen for OC was evaluated separately.",
"Additional support provided by nurses, or nurses and home visitors, can successfully address informational needs and increase the likelihood that women will use existing community-based resources. This finding was true even for high-risk women, although this intervention did not reduce the difference in resource use between high- and low-risk women.",
"yes. This work demonstrates that labor abnormalities and diagnosis of fetal distress are less frequent in patients cared for by nurse-midwives, and there is an association with a lower incidence of cesarean section.",
"Informed choice is often lacking in women's decisions about prenatal screening.AIM: The aim of this study is to evaluate how well midwives in Ontario, Canada are facilitating informed choice in this area. An Internet-based survey was used to investigate 171 midwifery clients' knowledge, attitude towards and experience of prenatal genetic screening tests, and to determine the proportion of study participants who made an informed choice about prenatal screening. All participants demonstrated adequate knowledge of prenatal screening. The vast majority (93.0%) of participants made an informed choice. Participants who chose to screen had lower knowledge scores than those who opted out of screening. Client satisfaction rates in regard to care received in this area ranged from 97% to 100%.",
"Despite a modest response rate, this study provides support for formalizing the training of nurses in hormonal contraception by integrating it into nursing education at all levels, and for implementing it in other health organizations such as family medicine groups, which are widespread in Quebec.",
"The decision aid increased attention to and perceived helpfulness of educational information about the study, but most families did not read it completely. The study suggests that even well-designed study materials are not fully reviewed in the context of in-hospital postpartum study recruitment and may need to be accompanied by a research recruiter to obtain informed consent.",
"We describe a simple, innovative method of engagement with patients and the general public to help educate and disseminate important public health messages around antimicrobial resistance and stewardship. We also identified the need for public health campaigns to address the knowledge gaps found around this topic.",
"The model proved useful in eliciting research priorities from both professionals and burn survivors, and in stimulating a meaningful dialogue between these groups. The involvement of burn survivors identified burn research areas that are currently not the focus of research in The Netherlands.",
"Action research has been used successfully to promote change in disciplines other than medicine, but there are few examples of its use in primary care. We aimed to discuss the benefits and difficulties of using action research in primary care using the example of child health surveillance provision in general practice. Twenty-eight general practices were randomly allocated into two groups. Action research was used to promote change in 14 practices by facilitating practice meetings and by providing written feedback. The other 14 practices received written feedback alone. The two groups of practices were compared using the following: (i) semi-structured interviews with one health visitor and GP from each practice; (ii) observation of baby clinics; (iii) questionnaires to parents; and (iv) return rates of child health surveillance reviews from the personal child health record. All 14 practices in the action research arm of the study met as individual practice teams and decided to make changes to their provision of child health surveillance. Ten practices audited their child health surveillance as a result. More health visitors in the action research practices than in the comparison practices reported changes to child health surveillance, audit, communication and use of the personal child health record. The majority of health visitors and GPs thought involvement in the action research process was beneficial. However, we were unable to show a statistically significant difference between the two groups of practices in baby clinic provision, parent satisfaction or the return rate of child health surveillance reviews.",
"Thirty percent of nursing students did not know or had doubts about the concept of brain death. It is therefore important to take this group into account in information campaigns to improve training of these future professionals.",
"Ensuring the use of research evidence in health system management and policy decisions is an important challenge in this century. Knowledge transfer and exchange (KTE) has emerged as a paradigm to address the challenges and start closing the 'know-do' gap. This area of work is gaining momentum in most developed countries, yet, to date, no work has been performed in Israel within this area. The purpose of this study was to identify which KTE activities health systems and policy researchers in Israel have undertaken. A cross-sectional web-based survey of researchers who have conducted health systems and policy research in Israel was developed. The survey consisted of a demographics section, quantitative scales, and open-ended questions. The survey was sent to all health systems and policy researchers in Israel (n = 125). The study response rate (28%) was relatively low as compared to other studies in the same field (range of 42% to 88%). Our survey found that more than a third of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel reported that they were frequently or always involved in the following KTE activities: interactions with target audience through the research process (i.e., during developing a research question or executing the research; 35% to 42%) or through formal or informal meetings during conferences, workshops, or conversations (40%). Less than half of the health systems and policy researchers in Israel are engaged in bridging activities aimed to facilitate target audiences to use research.",
"Nurturing critical thinking skills in the classroom is considered an important educational activity. It is believed that critical thinking skills are transferable and that they can be applied in practice when appraising, evaluating and implementing research. That more nurses than ever before have been judged academically knowledgeable in research has not guaranteed the transfer of such knowledge to practice. This paper discusses some of the reasons for the failure to narrow the gap between research and practice. In particular we argue that, if nurses are encouraged to develop creative and generative thinking alongside their critical thinking skills, then the art of nursing will have fuller representation in education, research and practice. The successful development of critical thinking skills for academic purposes does not necessarily mean that these skills are used in practice in relation either to research or clinical decision-making. This suggests that the transferability of critical thinking skills is less than straightforward. Indeed, there has been little narrowing of the research-practice gap since students started to learn critical thinking for academic purposes. However, we propose that thinking skills can be encouraged in the context of practice and that regular educational events, such as journal clubs, can contribute to developing critical thinking in the practice environment.",
"It is unclear whether algorithms with evidence-based interventions are used in a setting where the work load is high and qualified staff is scarce to identify neonates with life-threatening conditions. The nurse-midwives' knowledge and opinion about the World Health Organization (WHO) guide on postpartum newborn care were assessed in a hospital in Tanzania before and after training. Their adherence to this guide was evaluated by analysing 100 neonatal records. Before training, 44% of the nurse-midwives were familiar with the WHO guide. All nurse-midwives supported the implementation of the guide. In all, 21% of the postpartum record forms were fully completed. Risk factors for illness were missed in 27%.",
"Research provides the important evidence base for public health practice. We sought to compare the current support for public health research within European countries. Within a collaborative study SPHERE (Strengthening Public Health Research in Europe), we developed an e-mail questionnaire and sent it to 93 representatives of national member associations of the European Public Health Association. We compared the answers with reference to tree macro-areas: Northern, Southern and Eastern Europe. We gained responses for 22 of 39 European countries (56% country response rate). Current priorities at national level were: health service and patient safety for Northern Europe; infectious disease, health service and cardiovascular disease for Southern Europe; and food safety and nutrition, environmental and occupational health for Eastern Europe. Respondents gave fewer priorities for international research. In the North Europe the priorities empathized were health promotion, prevention and education (26.3%) together the injuries and alcohol habits (26.3%).",
"The intervention increased knowledge about colposcopy for this population. Because patient education is an essential nursing function, these results are encouraging. This intervention can be replicated by nurses in other settings. Further research is necessary to understand how nurses can best help women alleviate anxiety before colposcopy.",
"There is increased interest in building research capacity in rural health research in Australia and internationally. In Australia, the Primary Health Care Research Evaluation and Development program funded by the Australian Government has supported this move. Overall this program aims to build the quantum of primary healthcare research to underpin clinical practice, health systems improvement, and policy. In order to achieve this objective, one strand of the program aims to build research capacity among practitioners. In implementing this program in rural and remote areas of the west of South Australia, the Spencer Gulf Rural Health School has identified methodological and research design issues faced by practitioners who are researching in their communities. These issues include problems encountered in living and researching in the same location and accessing small-scale statistical information. We were interested to know whether there was interest in a formal course (Rural Research and Evaluation) that would address these issues and provide information about community-based research designs. A cross-sectional anonymous survey was designed and sent to 141 organisations in the health, human service, and local government sectors in regional South Australia. Respondents were asked to evaluate the demand and interest for a new course--Rural Research and Evaluation. The term 'rural' was used to refer to both rural and remote locations. Information was sought on the respondent's role in the organisation, current level of research participation, views about the proposed course content, and factors that the respondent thought would facilitate or inhibit their participation. The majority of questions were close-ended. Sixty surveys were returned giving a 42.5% response rate. Data were analysed using descriptive statistics. A high level of research and evaluation activity was reported with 80% of respondents undertaking research or evaluation as part of their professional role. There was also agreement that all the proposed topics were important to be included in a course. Each of the topics was ranked at four or five on a five-point scale by at least 58% of respondents. The topic 'understanding evaluation methodologies' was ranked at four or five by 85% of respondents, making it the most highly ranked topic. There was also consensus about the features respondents thought would make the course attractive for them to study. Over half (62%) of the respondents ranked having lecturers with a broad rural research background at five, very important, on a five-point scale. Almost half (48%) of the respondents ranked online delivery at five, a very important factor in making the course attractive to study.",
"To assess midwifery students' knowledge in the field of female fertility and to study their decision if they had diagnosis of diminished ovarian reserve (DOR). A prospective observational study by self-administered questionnaire was conducted among female midwifery students of seven French schools from June to December 2013. The questionnaire had three parts: (1) questions designed to gather information on the study population; (2) a questionnaire consisting of 10 items to test knowledge about female fertility and ovarian reserve; (3) a self-administered questionnaire simulating a DOR diagnosis and quantifying the decision that students would make using a Likert scale of 5 points. The participation rate was 72.5% (n=285/393). The average age was 22, 6 years±1.9. Among the 285 participants, the ovarian reserve concept was known by 93% of them (n=265) thanks to the midwifery studies (77%, n=204), the media (9%, n=24) and other sources of information. In total, 83.5% of midwifery students (n=238) were interested in assessing their ovarian reserve, and 48.3% of them were interested in evaluating it immediately (n=115). Among midwifery students, 22.5% of them (n=64) reported that female fertility began to decline from the age of 35 years old; 85.6% (n=244) thought that in vitro fertilization allowed women to conceive if fertility is related to a diminished ovarian reserve; 43.9% (n=125) answered that physical activity and a healthy diet had a beneficial effect on the ovarian reserve. If a DOR was diagnosed to them, 76.8% of students (n=219) would be likely to conceive their first child earlier than expected. Among them, 57.9% (n=165) would agree to have oocyte freezing in this context.",
"yes. The majority of residents surveyed thought that research activity was worthwhile. Residents' participation in research activity was associated with higher levels of satisfaction with residency training. Implementing measures to overcome existing barriers may have educational benefits for residents.",
"Creative promotion of clinical research at all stages of medical education and career development offers great promise to expand current physician-scientist numbers, and thereby stimulate many exciting advances in medicine.",
"The authors argue that although the clinical outcomes it set out to achieve remain elusive, the project produced a cohort of nurse researchers who went on to give important leadership in nursing, including in nursing academia/research. A contemporary version of the Study of Nursing Care has important potential to generate the next generation of nurse researchers, and leaders, into the twenty-first century.",
"The findings of this study, suggest that a theory-based educational intervention focused at RNs can be effective in changing RN's knowledge and attitudes regarding cancer pain management. However, the high number of dropouts between baseline and four weeks needs to be taken into account when evaluating our findings. Finally, this kind of theory-based educational intervention with interactive learning activities has been sparsely researched and needs to be evaluated further in larger projects.",
"A randomised controlled trial of caseload midwifery care for pregnant adolescents would not be feasible in this setting without modifications to the research protocol. The recruitment plan should maximise opportunities for participation by increasing the upper age limit and enabling women to be recruited at a later gestation. Strategies to engage the support of hospital-employed staff are essential and would require substantial, and ongoing, work. A Zelen method of post-randomisation consent, monetary incentives and 'peer recruiters' could also be considered.",
"Further research is recommended to develop a valid and reliable research tool to specifically measure the attitudes of 'nurses' working across different mental healthcare facilities towards this vulnerable patient group.",
"To examine the research translation phase focus (T1-T4) of systematic reviews published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) and Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects (DARE). Briefly, T1 includes reviews of basic science experiments; T2 includes reviews of human trials leading to guideline development; T3 includes reviews examining how to move guidelines into policy and practice; and T4 includes reviews describing the impact of changing health practices on population outcomes. A cross-sectional audit of randomly selected reviews from CDSR (n = 500) and DARE (n = 500) was undertaken. The research translation phase of reviews, overall and by communicable disease, noncommunicable disease, and injury subgroups, were coded by two researchers. A total of 898 reviews examined a communicable, noncommunicable, or injury-related condition. Of those, 98% of reviews within CDSR focused on T2, and the remaining 2% focused on T3. In DARE, 88% focused on T2, 8.7% focused on T1, 2.5% focused on T3, and 1.3% focused on T4. Almost all reviews examining communicable (CDSR 100%, DARE 93%), noncommunicable (CDSR 98%, DARE 87%), and injury (CDSR 95%, DARE 88%) were also T2 focused.",
"In light of declining numbers of physician-scientists, the goal of this project was to identify strategies to invigorate and attract new talent to clinical research in the field of pediatric neurosciences. To develop a broad perspective, a program of direct questions was addressed to both US and non-US physicians at all stages of career development. Respondents identified numerous promising avenues of research but also indicated obstacles to research progress at all stages of career development including medical students, resident physicians, junior medical faculty, mid-career faculty, and senior faculty. At each career stage, ideas were offered to attract resources for, build prestige for, and motivate commitment for participation in clinical research.",
"Research is crucial to the generation of new knowledge and for the development of nursing services. However, poor research conduct has prompted a growing international impetus to govern and monitor research activity. In 2004, a centralized Research Management and Governance Model aimed at fostering a quality research culture through streamlining bureaucratic management processes was implemented across 14 primary care provider organizations in the United Kingdom. A questionnaire survey was undertaken in 2004 to explore researchers' experiences (n = 76) of the model across the 14 organizations, and semi-structured interviews were conducted with five research and development managers. The interview transcripts were independently thematically analysed. Governance processes were seen as useful or very useful by 36.8% (n = 28) of researchers viewed, and 47.3% (n = 36) thought they were a hindrance or not useful. Managers suggested that the model supported the research infrastructure and had reduced paperwork. The benefits of centralization were balanced against managers' perceptions of reduced autonomy and control.",
"yes. The nursing staff's knowledge and use of prevention strategies increased. Fall rates decreased for 5 months after the educational intervention, but the reduction was not sustained.",
"Collaborations between managers and researchers can improve research relevance and quality and research capacity development. Factors critical to success relate to the fit between the project and the management fellow and how clearly the purpose is understood.",
"yes. The results showed the issue of attitudes towards compulsory research as a component of critical scholarship in the curriculum of medical courses. Moreover, employment of the research experts can be helpful for research training in schools of medical sciences.",
"In this definition survey, data were obtained from 113 nursing and midwifery students (n = 113) in third and fourth class and their mothers, sisters and other relatives in Turkey. Data were collected using a personal data form, a knowledge evaluation form for BSE (Maurer 1997) and the Champion's Health Belief Model Scale. Number percentage, Chi-square test were used in the evaluation of the data. Students learned breast cancer and BSE in their lessons one or two years previously. Knowledge level scores of the students were 52.3 ± 9.6 (min:25,max: 75). Rate of having regular BSE was 32.7%. When health belief scale assessed; the average of susceptibility was 7.52 ± 2.62, seriousness was 21.8 ± 5.30, benefit was 16.7±4.45, barrier was 22.3 ± 6.44, confidence was 40.3 ± 6.67 and medical motivation was 26.6 ± 4.22. The rate of having regular BSE and benefit, barrier scores were compared, they were statistically significant difference(p<0.05). The majority (106, 91.3%) gave BSE training to their mother and sisters, and 42.6% (48) to relatives, 6.2% (7) to friends, and 5.4% (6) to patients.",
"yes. Information dissemination interventions can increase awareness and changes in nursing home falls management activities.",
"yes. The use of a supplementary, telephone-based nursing intervention is a feasible and effective means to increase cancer patients' awareness and understanding of the salient issues that surround the clinical trials in which they are asked to participate.",
"yes. The findings point to the importance of strengthening gynaecologists' and midwives' control beliefs by professional education and training on smoking prevention.",
"This study has shown a significant increase in awareness from using different kinds of media and has shown radio to be the most effective in our target community. Although the campaign has raised awareness, this study has not shown a change in health-seeking behaviour.",
"Our study suggests that action research is a successful method of promoting change in primary care. However, measuring the impact of change is difficult.",
"To study the effects of small group continuous quality improvement (CQI) on the clinical practice of midwives in the Netherlands. Randomised pre-/post-test (balanced block). The CQI groups were assigned to either the set of peer review topics including 'perineal repair' and 'artificial rupture of the membranes (ARM)', or to the set of topics including 'airway aspiration' and 'measuring blood pressure'. The two research groups acted as each other's control group. The Netherlands. Two hundred and fifty-five individual midwives practising in primary and secondary care who made up 28 peer groups. MEASUREMENT AND KEY FINDINGS: Questionnaires were used to collect data on clinical practice prior to the start of the intervention and one year later. Pre- and post-test data were received from 156 respondents. The intervention had a positive effect on adherence to the recommendations with respect to airway aspiration of the baby and measuring blood pressure. For ARM, no difference was found between pre- and post-test adherence to recommendations in the intervention group, while in the control group, the percentage of midwives that adhered to the recommendations decreased in the period between pre- and post-test. No significant effect was found for perineal repair.",
"yes. Implementation of a literature-based guideline on MH, powered by educational meetings and individual feedback, improves MH performance by ICU nurses.",
"Response rates to surveys conducted among healthcare professionals have been declining steadily. This paper is based on the development of a response rate strategy to address this challenge. A study in Ireland using a survey instrument that relied on the voluntary participation of managers and healthcare professionals. Database and manual literature searches were undertaken across the literature related to methodology to increase response rates from healthcare professionals. The databases Cinahl, Medline, PsycINFO, Wiley Online Library and Scopus-V.4 were searched using 'response rates' and the terms: 'response rate theory', 'survey response rates', 'increase', 'improve health professionals', 'primary care research', 'health care teams', 'health service research' and 'research participation'. Only English-language publications were reviewed. Researchers must be aware of factors that influence healthcare professionals they seek to engage and so they can create research environments that do not preclude or dissuade practitioners from participating.",
"Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students, to increasae their sensitivity, beliefs and attitudes, and medical motivation for BSE.",
"Our aim was to evaluate whether the involvement of health care managers in research projects improves the quality and relevance of research, and whether collaboration builds capacity in the managerial community. The NIHR Service Delivery and Organization Management Fellowship programme supports the direct involvement of health care managers in research projects. Data were collected from face-to-face interviews with management fellows and chief investigators of research projects at 10 case study sites. Data were analysed thematically using an adapted Kirkpatrick framework for programme evaluation. Management fellows improved the relevance and quality of research through enhancing its validity, efficiency and credibility. This was achieved by: using their contextual understanding to enable and support access and recruitment participants, data collection tools, processes and analysis; supporting dissemination activities; and undertaking additional work which was complementary to the main project. Capacity was developed through formal courses and exposure to new knowledge, ideas and practices. Factors found to enable or impede improvements in research included management fellows' knowledge and experience of the NHS, their background and personal characteristics, mutual respect, timing and flexibility. Consequences were not always predictable. Costs for management fellows included foregone opportunities, specifically for promoted posts. Researchers reported time-costs associated with administering the fellowship.",
"This is the first study in healthcare research to investigate the relationship between mentoring perception, scientific collaboration and research performance in the context of gender. It presents a series of initiatives that proved effective in marginalising the gender gap. These include the Athena Scientific Women's Academic Network charter, new recruitment and advertisement strategies, setting up a 'Research and Family Life' forum, establishing mentoring circles for women and projecting female role models.",
"The initiative taken by NHS Research and Development in examining methods to promote the uptake of research findings is welcome, but will only prove helpful if careful attention is paid to the different stages of the development process, and different research approaches are used appropriately at different stages.",
"Knowledge about breast cancer and BSE repetition training programs should be planned for nursing/midwifery students. Their susceptibility, belief and attitudes, medical motivation with BSE should thereby increase.",
"The research-practice gap will reduce only if research becomes part of practitioners' ideology, which includes the art and science of nursing. Critical and creative thinking are prerequisites to narrowing the disjuncture between research and practice, and we suggest that educators and practitioners explore structured ways of meeting together to appraise literature as a possible means of making use of their thinking and knowledge in clinical practice.",
"Findings suggest the need to increase nursing staffs' awareness of changes to policies and procedures during clinical guideline implementation. Furthermore, results indicate that organizational support may have a positive influence on modifications to policies and procedures that are guided by research-based clinical guideline recommendations.",
"Research utilisation is essential in developing evidence-based practices; although many students may be generally able to adopt such skills, there are reports of barriers related to critical appraisal skills. To explore how students perceive the relevance of research to future clinical practice and patients, and to what extent they read research (including reading pattern). Additionally, the objective was to explore whether a three-week intensive course in critical appraisal of research could affect these variables. A cross-sectional survey design, with a pre- and post-test. One large university college in Southeastern Norway. 196 multidisciplinary healthcare students at baseline and 147 after three weeks. A purposely-designed 21 item questionnaire was used to quantify students' attitudes towards using research and critical thinking. The questionnaire was based on themes emerging from prior focus group interviews with 10 nursing and social educator students as well as from the existing literature. At baseline, 6.1% and 7.1% of respondents perceived the research to be of little or very little importance for their future work and patients, respectively. Furthermore, 83.2% reported that they seldom or very seldom read scientific papers. At baseline, 40 different patterns of reading a scientific paper were identified. Additionally, 7.1% of respondents reported to read the introduction, methods and conclusion in combination. Significantly improved scores were found after completing the three-week course related to a) relevance of research for future work (p<0.01), b) self-perceived skills in critical appraisal (p<0.001), c) ability to find scientific papers (p≤0.01), and d) relevance of research for patients and users (p≤0.001).",
"Results of this study suggest that Ontario midwives are effective in conveying information on prenatal genetic screening, contributing to high levels of client knowledge and satisfaction in comparison to similar studies in other jurisdictions.",
"Although the skills necessary to implement evidence into obstetrical practice are still available, evidence based research results do not seem to be of great importance, when midwives decide which method to use for intrapartum FHR monitoring. Hospital policies and the professional training received were more important factors. Programs designed to implement evidence in care should reflect the identification and use of these factors in order to facilitate the process of realisation.",
"from clinical trials are often slowly implemented. We studied whether participation in multicenter clinical trials improves reported dissemination, convincement, and subsequent implementation of its results. We sent a web-based questionnaire to gynecologists, residents, nurses, and midwives in all obstetrics and gynecology departments in the Netherlands. For nine trials in perinatology, reproductive medicine, and gynecologic oncology, we asked the respondents whether they had knowledge of the results, were convinced by the results, and what percentage of their patients were treated according to the results of these trials. We compared the level of knowledge, convincement, and reported implementation of results in practice for the nine trials for respondents who worked in hospitals that had recruited for a trial with respondents who worked in a hospital that had not recruited for that trial. The reported implementation was restricted to six trials that showed decisive results. Results We analyzed 202 questionnaires from 83 departments in obstetrics and gynecology in the Netherlands (93% of all departments). The percentage of respondents who had worked in a hospital that recruited for a specific study varied between 8% and 71% per study and was 28% on average. The relative risk (RR) for knowledge of the study result for respondents who had worked in a recruiting hospital was for all studies positive and varied between 1.1 and 3.3 (pooled RR: 1.8, 95% confidence interval (CI): 1.7-1.9). In general, health-care workers were convinced of trial results, independent of whether they had worked in a hospital that recruited for a trial or not (pooled RR: 1.02, 95% CI: 0.99-1.05). Reported implementation of trial's results, that is, less than 20% were treated with unfavorable treatment according to study results, was better in hospitals that had recruited for those trials (pooled RR: 1.1, 95% CI: 1.02-1.19).",
"It is important for nurse researchers to develop critical awareness of the research methodologies and methods they employ. We argue that the phenomenological focus group is not an oxymoron. Rather, the use of focus groups can provide a greater understanding of the phenomenon under study.",
"To examine the relationship between sustained work with quality improvement (QI) and factors related to research utilization in a group of nurses. The study was designed as a comparative survey that included 220 nurses from various health care organizations in Sweden. These nurses had participated in uniformly designed 4-day basic training courses to manage a method for QI. A validated questionnaire covering different aspects of research utilization was employed. The response rate was 70% (154 of 220). Nurses in managerial positions at the departmental level were excluded. Therefore, the final sample consisted of 119 respondents. Four years after the training courses, 39% were still involved in audit-related activities, while 61% reported that they had discontinued the QI work (missing = 1). Most nurses (80-90%) had a positive attitude to research. Those who had continued the QI work over a 4-year period reported more activity in searching research literature compared with those who had discontinued the QI work (P = 0.005). The QI-sustainable nurses also reported more frequent participation in research-related activities, particularly in implementing specific research findings in practice (P = 0.001). Some contextual differences were reported: the QI-sustainable nurses were more likely to obtain support from their chief executive (P = 0.001), consultation from a skilled researcher (P = 0.005) and statistical support (P = 0.001). Within the broader health care organization, the existence of a research committee and a research and development strategy, as well as access to research assistant staff, had a tendency to be more common for nurses who had continued the QI work.",
"The aim of this study was to examine whether there was a difference between clinical nurses who were research-active, and clinical nurses who were nonresearch-active in utilization of research. A further aim was to identify the most significant barriers faced by a group of Danish clinical nurses in their use of research. Discrepancy between the improved quality of research results and the lack of implementing them was the starting point for a series of studies which showed the types of barriers clinical nurses found especially cumbersome when applying the research results of other researchers. This study investigates whether the clinical nurses' own engagement in research had any impact on their perception of research utilization. The study had an exploratory and descriptive design. Seventy-nine Danish clinical nurses participated and semi-structured interviewing was used as the research method. There was a statistically significant difference between the research-active and nonresearch-active nurses on various variables. The study showed that, to a larger extent, research-active nurses used evidence-based knowledge and were generally more internationally orientated. Furthermore, two important barriers for research utilization were identified by all 79 clinical nurses included in the study, i.e. 90% of the nurses explained that the quantity of research results was overwhelming, and 75% of them found that they were unable to evaluate the quality of the research.",
"yes. Clinical nurses, who were research-active themselves, experienced more success in overcoming some of the barriers, which existed in applying research to practice. The research potential found amongst clinical nurses in Denmark needed to be further supported through training and guidance in research methodology, establishing introductory stipends and part-time research positions. By doing so, some of the barriers affecting research utilization and the so-called theory-practice gap might be reduced. Further empirical studies, based on Giddens theory of sociological reflectivity, might see clinical nurses in a more serious light and simultaneously perceive them as producers of knowledge.",
"Despite the growing body of literature, the reality of getting evidence into practice remains problematic. The purpose of this study was to establish levels of research awareness amongst registered health care professionals (RHCPs) and the influence of research awareness on evidence-based practice activities. This was a descriptive quantitative study. A convenience sample of 2,126 registered RHCPs working in a large acute hospital in Northeast England, the United Kingdom was used. A self-completion Research Awareness Questionnaire (RAQ) was directed towards measuring RHCP: attitudes towards research, understanding of research and the research process, and associations with practising using an evidence base. Data were entered into a Statistical Package for Social Science (SPSS) database and descriptive and inferential statistics were used. A total of 843 questionnaires were returned. Seven hundred and thirty-three (91%) RHCPs overwhelmingly agreed with the principle that evidence-based practice has a large part to play in improving patient care. This point was reinforced by 86% (n = 701) of respondents strongly agreeing or agreeing with the idea that evidence-based practice is the way forward to change clinical practice. Significant associations were noted between levels of confidence to undertake a piece of research and whether the individual had received adequate information about the research process, had basic knowledge and understanding of the research process, or had research awareness education or training.",
"The primary aim of the study was to evaluate the effectiveness of two approaches to increase research awareness among midwives and nurses. Quasi-experimental with the attitudes of staff in the two groups being measured at two points (January and October 1997). All midwives and nurses working in four clinical areas in an acute NHS Trust. The intervention arm of the study involved all midwives and nurses in the Clinical Directorate of Obstetrics and Gynaecology, while the control arm involved all nurses working in a specialist oncology and haematology unit and in the children's directorate. The Joint Ethics Committee considered approval unnecessary because the study involved staff and not patients. Data were collected by self-complete questionnaires. A programme of education with policy and practice interventions targeted at ward sisters. Staff attitudes to, knowledge of, and level of involvement in, research. The study demonstrated a significant increase in both knowledge and use of research resources. Following the programme of education, staff in the intervention group were significantly more likely to use resources associated with research utilization and to report that they had read a research paper within the last month. The time scale of the intervention was restricted by the funding available; a significant Hawthorne effect was evident with both groups showing an increase in knowledge; the pragmatic nature of the study meant that it was not possible to randomize the study groups; the scale of the study did not permit an economic evaluation."
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Delivery of primary care to women. Do women's health centers do it better? | [
"Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.",
"These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics."
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"Emphasis on ensuring women's access to preventive health services has increased over the past decade. Relatively little attention has been paid to whether the sex of the physician affects the rates of cancer screening among women. We examined differences between male and female physicians in the frequency of screening mammograms and Pap smears among women patients enrolled in a large Midwestern health plan. We identified claims for mammography and Pap tests submitted by primary care physicians for 97,962 women, 18 to 75 years of age, who were enrolled in the health plan in 1990. The sex of the physician was manually coded, and the physician's age was obtained from the state licensing board. After identifying a principal physician for each woman, we calculated the frequency of mammography and Pap smears for each physician, using the number of women in his or her practice during 1990 as the denominator. Using unconditional logistic regression, we also calculated the odds ratio of having a Pap smear or mammogram for women patients with female physicians as compared with those with male physicians, controlling for the physician's and the patient's age. Crude rates for Pap smears and mammography were higher for the patients of female than male physicians in most age groups of physicians. The largest differences between female and male physicians were in the rates of Pap smears among the youngest physicians. For the subgroup of women enrolled in the health plan for a year who saw only one physician, after adjustment for the patient's age and the physician's age and specialty, the odds ratio for having a Pap smear was 1.99 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.72 to 2.30) for the patients of female physicians as compared with those of male physicians. For women 40 years old and older, the odds ratio for having a mammogram was 1.41 (95 percent confidence interval, 1.22 to 1.63). For both Pap smears and mammography, the differences between female and male physicians in screening rates were much more pronounced in internal medicine and family practice than in obstetrics and gynecology.",
"yes. Centralized primary care of advanced ovarian and fallopian tube cancers increases complete cytoreduction, decreases time interval from PDS to chemotherapy and improves relative survival significantly.",
"yes. Relational continuity of care in integrated maternity and child health clinics seems to increase parents' satisfaction with the services and might increase the provision of home visits.",
"Primary care offices located in poor and minority communities in a large, suburban county had high levels of access to and interest in Web-based systems. Physicians' offices may therefore provide a venue for online services aimed at improving health outcomes for poor and minority communities. Research is needed in other geographic regions to determine the generalizability of these findings.",
"Among VHA patients with diabetes, clinically significant gender inequality was not apparent in most of diabetes care measures. However, there was evidence of better care among nonwhite and non-African American women than their male counterparts. Further research on interaction of race and gender on diabetes care is needed. This includes evaluation of integrated VHA women's health programs as well as cultural issues. Lower LDL-C control among women suggests areas of unmet needs for women and opportunities for future targeted quality improvement interventions at system and provider levels.",
"yes. Primary and secondary prevention of ACEs may optimize the health of young girls in Hawaii, and reduce the burden of asthma and COPD among women in the state.",
"Assuming that effective primary care results in better health-related quality of life and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.",
"This is the first study examining rural-urban differences in maternal readmissions. The results indicate the importance of monitoring and potentially improving the quality of maternal care, especially when the delivery involves a C-section. More studies investigating rural health disparities in women's health are clearly necessary.",
"To determine the effects of physician gender on rates of Pap testing, mammography, and cholesterol testing when identifying and adjusting for demographic, psychosocial, and other patient variables known to influence screening rates. A prospective design with baseline and six-month follow-up assessments of patients' screening status. Twelve community-based group family practice medicine offices in North Carolina. 1,850 adult patients, aged 18-75 years (six-month response rate, 83%), each of whom identified one of 37 physicians as being his or her regular care provider. Where screening was indicated at baseline, the patients of the women physicians were 47% more likely to get a Pap test [odds ratio (OR) = 1.47, 95% confidence interval (CI) = 1.05, 2.04] and 56% more likely to get a cholesterol test (OR = 1.56, 95% CI = 1.08, 2.24) during the study period than were the patients of the men physicians. For mammography, the younger patients (aged 35-39 years) of the women physicians were screened at a much higher rate than were the younger patients of the men physicians (OR = 2.69, 95% CI = 0.98, 7.34); however, at older ages, the patients of the women and the men physicians had similar rates of screening.",
"yes. PHC facilities and pharmacies most commonly provided sub-optimal care. These facilities were more commonly utilized as the first option for child care in rural areas and among the poor and non-educated families. These are groups with the highest child mortality, which calls for interventions' targeting improvement of care at these facilities to further reduce child mortality from treatable illnesses in Tanzania.",
"Women had greater familial responsibilities than men, but this was not a barrier to access or utilization of healthcare services. Despite less advanced HIV disease, women received similar care and had similar utilization of health services.",
"Women residing in Indonesia's major cities have a higher risk of developing chronic conditions, starting at younger ages. The findings highlight the challenges inherent in providing long-term healthcare with its associated cost within major Indonesian cities and the importance of chronic disease prevention programmes targeting women at an early age.",
"Higher unadjusted mortality in females after primary PCI was accompanied by significant differences in baseline characteristics, interventional approach and secondary prophylaxis in spite of the same standard of care. Lower guideline adherence seems to be less gender specific but rather a manifestation of the risk-treatment paradox.",
"yes. Both male and female resident physicians acquire more experience with same-gender health care visits during training. Panel demographics and continuity do not explain the differential experience. Patient preferences and/or biased scheduling selection may explain why residents accumulate same-gender health care visits at twice the rate of opposite-gender health care visits.",
"Female physicians with children at home spend more time on child care and household maintenance than their male partners. These responsibilities reduce professional work time (at least until all children are at school full time) and might deter women from active involvement in professional organizations.",
"no. Although there may be other reasons for reducing student loan debt, at least among U.S. women physicians, encouraging primary care as a specialty choice may not be a reason for doing so.",
"The results argue against the most widely accepted explanation for gender differences in consulting, namely, that women are simply more likely to consult a general practitioner than men irrespective of underlying morbidity. Reasons for the higher rates of women consulting observed in general practice-based studies are discussed in relation to these data.",
"yes. Obstetrician-gynecologists at an academic medical center did not provide postpartum diabetes mellitus screening for 66.7% of women with a history of gestational diabetes.",
"Women's health tracks (WHTs) were developed to overcome identified deficiencies in residency training. Their effectiveness in preparing residents to manage both gender-neutral and gender-specific medical conditions is unknown. Using current guidelines for internal medicine training, we designed a 65-item survey to measure residents' knowledge, comfort levels, and referral patterns concerning two gender-neutral topics (diabetes and thyroid disease) and two gender-specific topics (polycystic ovarian syndrome [PCOS] and menopause). We administered it to postgraduate year 2 (PGY2) and PGY3 internal medicine residents at a large academic medical center and compared the results of WHT and non-WHT residents using chi-square and t tests. Of 61 residents, 50 (82%) responded. Fifty percent of respondents were female, 62% were PGY3, and 36% were WHT. WHT residents had higher mean knowledge scores than non-WHT residents concerning PCOS (60% vs. 45%, p<0.05) and menopause (73% vs. 60 %, p<0.01), and they were more likely to report feeling \"very comfortable\" handling PCOS and menopause issues (43% vs. 18%, p<0.02), including diagnosing PCOS, managing hot flashes, and managing vaginal atrophy. WHT residents were less likely than non-WHT to immediately recommend referrals if patients had suspected PCOS (0% vs. 19%, p<0.03) or confirmed PCOS (0% vs. 32%, p<0.02), and they were more likely to report feeling adequately trained to provide comprehensive ambulatory women's healthcare (73% vs. 7%, p<0.001). There were no significant differences between WHT and non-WHT residents on gender-neutral topics.",
"To evaluate the satisfaction of difficult to treat patients (DTP) cared for by a primary care team (PCT), as regards the organisational aspects and the care received, and to compare it with that obtained by a sample of the general patient population (GPP). DESIGN. Cross-sectional descriptive study. Urban health centre. One hundred-one DTP participated, after being selected using Ellis and O'Dowd criteria by 8 doctors. Between March and May 2004 the DTP were given self-administered anonymous questionnaires, prepared and validated by the Catalonian Health Institute, which was divided into 8 sections for their analysis. The results were compared with those obtained in June 2003 from a representative sample from the GPP. A total of 52 questionnaires were returned (51% participation), of which 62% were from women, with a mean age of 61.5+/-12.3. Average scores (0 to 10) were: organisation 7.2+/-1.8; (95% confidence intervale [CI], 6.6-7.7), care by the doctors 8.4+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.7-9), by nurses 7.9+/-2.1 (95% CI, 7.3-8.6), by administrators 6.9+/-1.9 (95% CI, 6.3-7.4), care resolved 7.2+/-2 (95% CI, 6.6-7.9), installations 7.6+/-1.7 (95% CI, 7.1-8.1), overall satisfaction 7.5+/-1.8 (95% CI, 7-8), and total satisfaction total 7.2+/-1.6 (95% CI, 6.8-7.7). The 91.7% (95% CI, 80-97.7) would recommend their friends to be treated in the centre. All the scores are higher than those in the GPP sample, with no statistical differences in the care by doctors and nurses sections.",
"yes. In Maryland Medicaid, the odds of cancer screening and related acute care visits were greater for women with major mental disorders compared with women in the control group. For women with substance use disorders, however, screening was reduced and acute care visits were similar compared with women in the control group. Providers should encourage and support their patients with substance use disorders to increase use of preventive care services by primary care physicians and gynecologists.",
"Assuming that effective primary care results in better HRQoL and longer survival and that the CPCI captures important primary care attributes, older patients' level of satisfaction with the quality of their primary care may not be a good surrogate measure of effectiveness.",
"The majority of women in our study left CBHCs and used other sites for pediatric care. Higher education, having child health insurance, and car ownership were associated with leaving CBHCs. Among women who left, race/ethnicity and perceived pediatric expertise were major factors associated with using HBCs rather than PPs.",
"We do not find support for the hypothesis that children and pregnant women who use private care are less likely to receive public health services. Results are consistent with the notion that Indian households are able to successfully navigate the coexisting public and private systems, and obtain services selectively from each. However, because the study employed an observational, cross-sectional study design, findings should be interpreted cautiously.",
"This study examined whether Medicaid-insured women at low risk receive less adequate obstetrical care than privately insured women. Low-risk women who were cared for by a random sample of obstetrical providers in Washington State were randomly selected. Information on all prenatal and intrapartum services was abstracted from medical records. Service information was aggregated into standardized resource-use units. Results compared Medicaid-insured women with those who were privately insured. Medicaid-insured women were significantly younger (22.5 years vs 26.9 years) and averaged 6% fewer visits than privately insured women. Nonetheless, Medicaid status had no meaningful association with prenatal, intrapartum, or overall resource use. Some variation occurred in individual resources received. Medicaid-insured women had 38.8% more resources expended on testing for sexually transmitted diseases. Privately insured women had more resources expended on alpha-fetoprotein testing and on amniocentesis. There were no meaningful differences in birthweight or gestational age at delivery.",
"To evaluate the impact of general practitioners' commissioning of maternity services on women's experiences of care and on resource use, and to consider the implications for primary care commissioning. Comparison of women's experiences and resource use between 11 commissioning and 10 non-commissioning general practices. Face-to-face interviews with 212 staff in general practices, National Health Service trusts and health authorities between 1996 and 1998 to establish how maternity care was organised. Women's experience of information, choice, control and resource use obtained by questionnaire mailed 4 weeks post-partum. Data were analysed using multi-level modelling to adjust for case-mix differences. After two reminders, 1957 women (62%) responded to the questionnaire (inter-practice range 52-81%). There were no significant differences in women's experience of care or their resource use between commissioning and non-commissioning practices. Commissioning practices were more likely to be associated with more vertically integrated models of service organisation, but responses to only three of 21 questions about experience of information, choice and control over care, or about resource use, differed between the four models of service organisation identified.",
"To compare patient outcomes and complications before and after involvement of family medicine residents in intrapartum care. Secondary data analysis. London, Ont. Obstetric patients of a family physician with a special interest in obstetrics. Total number of births attended and births missed, as well as rates of inductions, augmentations for dystocia, augmentations for prelabour ruptured membranes, types of births (ie, normal vaginal, vacuum-assisted, low and outlet forceps deliveries; cesarean sections; and obstetrician-assisted vaginal births), and perineal outcomes (ie, intact; first-, second-, third-, or fourth-degree tears; episiotomies; and episiotomies with third-or fourth-degree extensions). During the period of time when family medicine residents were involved in intrapartum care, women sustained slightly more second-degree tears, and more cesarean sections were performed. Fewer women had vacuum-assisted births or unmedicated births. There were no significant differences in rates of normal vaginal births, low and outlet forceps deliveries, and perineal trauma (other than second-degree tears) including episiotomies.",
"Insights into where CMWs might provide delivery services were obtained through this study. Birthing stations may be an option as a preferred location for delivery care and should be considered as part of Pakistan's national CMW programme.",
"yes. The frequent absence of means of effective communication between primary and secondary care about diagnosed abnormalities, and health professionals' uncertainties about their role has implications for the quality of care given to women who receive positive results after prenatal screening or diagnosis. There is a need for standards to be established concerning the communication of information to the health professionals responsible for the community-based care of pregnant women after a positive test result.",
"There is clear evidence that women do change their childbirth locations over successive births in low and middle income countries. After two decades of efforts to improve maternal health, it might be expected that a higher proportion of women will be deciding against home births in favour of facility births. The results from this analysis show that is not the case.",
"FMU care appears to offer important benefits for birthing women with no additional risk to the infant. Both for women with and without post-secondary education, intending to give birth in an FMU significantly increased the likelihood of a spontaneous, uncomplicated birth with good outcomes for mother and infant compared to women intending to give birth in an OU. All women should be provided with adequate information about different care models and supported in making an informed decision about the place of birth.",
"This study examines the association between physician gender and diabetes quality of care. We examined the association between the gender of primary care physicians (n = 1,686) and the quality of diabetes care they provided to their patients participating in the Translating Research Into Action for Diabetes (TRIAD) study. Main outcome measures were diabetes processes of care including receipt of dilated retinal exams, urine microalbumin/protein testing, foot exams, lipid and HbA(1c) (A1C) testing, recommendation to take aspirin, and influenza vaccination over 1 year. Intermediate outcomes included blood pressure, A1C, LDL levels, and patient satisfaction. Hierarchical regression models accounted for clustering within provider groups and health plans and adjusted for patient age, gender, race, income, education, diabetes treatment and duration, and health status, along with physician age, years of practice, and specialty. Compared with male physicians (n = 1,213), female physicians (n = 473) were younger, had more recently completed training, and were more often internists. Patients of female physicians (n = 4,585) were more often women and younger than patients of male physicians (n = 1,783). In adjusted analyses, patients of female physicians were slightly more likely to receive lipid measurements (predicted probability 1.09 [95% CI 1.02-1.15]) and A1C measurements (1.02 [1.00-1.05]) and were slightly more likely to have an LDL<130 mg/dl (1.05 [1.00-1.10]).",
"The study compared the content of primary care visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices. We compared the content of primary care adult visits between physicians with larger and smaller African American practices using data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and the National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey 1997 to 2002. Larger African American practice (>14% of primary care visits by African Americans) was empirically defined to conform with previous studies. Larger African American practices comprised 24% of all practices but accounted for 80% of all visits by African American patients. In adjusted analyses, physicians with larger African American practices were less likely to refer patients to specialists (adjusted odds ratio 0.77; 95% confidence internal 0.61-0.98) and marginally less likely to perform rectal examinations (adjusted odds ratio 0.84; 95% confidence interval 0.56-1.00) but were more likely to schedule a return appointment (adjusted odds ratio 1.25; 95% confidence interval, 1.02-1.52). However, there were no other significant differences in the reported content of the office visits. Results were not altered when different cutoffs for larger African American practices were used or when obstetricians-gynecologists were excluded from the analyses.",
"These findings suggest that patients are highly satisfied with the organization of their GP's practice, regardless of patients' and GPs' gender. As patients' and GPs' gender are known to influence patient satisfaction towards primary care delivery and as the current study is the first to explore this aspect in relation to organizational aspects of GP practice, further studies are needed in various primary care settings to confirm our results.",
"To examine the effects of state legislation mandating direct access to obstetricians and gynecologists (OB/GYNs) on maternal health behaviors and infant health outcomes. 1992-2002 Natality Detail File; 1994-2002 Pregnancy Assessment and Monitoring Survey (PRAMS). Using variation in state policy over time, we use individual-level data from two sources to consider the effects of direct access legislation on prenatal care utilization, maternal health behaviors during pregnancy, and infant health outcomes. Our results suggest that there is little evidence that direct access laws are effective at improving prenatal care access or conferring benefits to mothers and infants. These results are consistent across two data sets, a variety of specifications, and specific subgroups of women who are most likely to be affected by direct access legislation.",
"The study suggests that sociodemographic characteristics of women have limited impact on their perception of ANC quality. The identified predictors may serve as the criteria for selecting women that require intensive health centre-specific antenatal interventions aimed at improving perceived quality and thus sustained utilization of antenatal care services in these primary health care facilities.",
"Although the results show that women wanted to be well received at health facilities, respected, treated with kindness, dignity and not shouted at, they were not critical of the care they received. The women did not know the quality of care to expect because they were not well informed. The women were not critical of the care they received because they were not aware of the standard of care. Instead they had low expectations. Health workers have a responsibility to inform women and their families about the care that women should expect. There is also a need for standardization of the antenatal information that is provided.",
"no. Women not seeking prenatal care in a system with few external barriers to care have significantly more family dysfunction (P < .001) than women seeking prenatal care. Infants of women with NPC generated a disproportionate amount of adverse neonatal outcome. The combination of NPC and family dysfunction was more predictive of adverse neonatal outcome than was NPC alone.",
"The finding that women with common symptoms are at risk of future sickness absence is of particular importance in a primary health care setting. The finding that women in active job positions had a higher risk of sickness absence might be an effect of modern working conditions for women.",
"yes. A considerable proportion of patients in primary care were untreated despite current guidelines on lipid-lowering therapy. Treatment outcome in women was less efficient compared with men. Strategies to improve pharmacological treatment in these patients should be developed.",
"In this study, the cesarean delivery rate was lower among women who may have greater access to medical knowledge. However, the lower rates observed among female physicians and physician relatives in Taiwan are still considerably higher than the national averages of many countries. This finding suggests that other than information, practice patterns, and social and cultural milieu may play a role.",
"The study raised awareness of genital chlamydia among women attending family planning clinics and showed that primary care could make a significant contribution to the prevention of chlamydial infection. It is only by initiating intervention strategies in such settings that genital chlamydia will be controlled effectively in the UK.",
"Few studies have addressed whether male family medicine residents have more exposure to men's health issues than their female colleagues. Additionally, the association between panel demographics or continuity of care and the differential experience with gender-specific health care is unclear. Between July 1, 2011, and June 30, 2014, all residents in the family medicine program had their gender, the number of women's and men's health care visits, the total number of male and female visits, and the number of visits with patients assigned to their primary care panel recorded each academic year. To determine which visits pertained to men's or women's health care, Clinical Classification Software developed by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) was used to map ICD9 billing codes into a useful ontology. Female residents had significantly more women's health visits (229 versus 123) while male residents had significantly more men's health visits (89 versus 49) than colleagues of the opposite gender. There were no significant differences in continuity, the gender distribution of panels, nor the mean age of panels. However, female residents saw a greater percentage of female visits overall (60.6% versus 53.3%).",
"A WHT can help improve competencies in selected areas of women's health without compromising residents' knowledge or comfort concerning two core gender-neutral topics in ambulatory medicine.",
"To examine access to and utilization of primary healthcare services with respect to gender. Greater family and child-rearing responsibilities are possible barriers to healthcare access and utilization for women with HIV infection. This study was part of a prospective, randomized, controlled trial evaluating primary care for HIV-infected patients at Duke University Medical Center (DUMC), a tertiary care medical center. Subjects were 214 HIV-infected, uninsured or publicly insured participants. Ambulatory care visits, emergency room utilization, hospitalization rates, length of stay, preventive and screening measures, and antiretroviral use were the outcome measures. Women (n = 83) and men (n = 131) enrolled in the study were similar with respect to race, educational level, marital status, and employment status. Women with HIV were more likely than men to have children (80% vs. 25%, p = 0.001) and spend their time as primary caregivers for their children (22% vs. 0.8%, p = 0.001). Women had higher CD4(+) cell counts (378 +/- 287 vs. 243 +/- 252 cells/microl, p = 0.0002), and a smaller proportion of women than men had AIDS at baseline (41% vs. 62%, p = 0.002). Women and men had similar numbers of primary care visits, emergency room visits, annual admission rates, and lengths of stay for hospitalizations. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia prophylaxis, pneumococcal vaccination, and tuberculosis screening were also similar between women and men. Women were more likely than men to have ever been prescribed an antiretroviral agent (88.0% vs. 71.8%, p = 0.005).",
"In our targeted population we have observed a higher demand for medical clinics in women, though the actual demand will depend on factors such as age, place of residence and the referee.",
"yes. The way in which women answer questions about intrapartal care reflects the way in which the questions are posed. This study therefore has asked not only how care was perceived but also what importance individual women ascribed to different areas of their care. The questionnaire used in this study allows identification of areas where \"what is, could be better\".",
"antenatal care can play an important role in preparing women for birth. This study shows that information about birth provided during pregnancy is insufficient from women's perspective, although some groups of women do report being more satisfied with this information. The way that this segment of antenatal care is provided leaves room for improvement.",
"yes. Shared antenatal care is not more satisfying than public clinic care for women from non-English-speaking backgrounds. Further evaluation of shared care is clearly needed.",
"Overall, this cohort of women did not anticipate differences in reproductive healthcare based on institution. If women who enroll at Catholic hospitals do not receive information related to potential healthcare restrictions, their ability to act as informed healthcare consumers may be constrained.",
"The Women's Support Service is accessed by a higher number of women, many more than access the local liaison service. It is suggested that this is due to their multiple and gender-specific needs being adequately addressed by the former service and the organizations to which they are referred. Mental health needs may also be secondary to other more basic needs, which makes the generic service provided by the Women's Support Service more appropriate than a liaison service that deals with mental health support alone.",
"Primary care physicians practicing in a managed care setting are less likely to refer women for a urologic evaluation of new or first recurrent episodes of hematuria than to refer men in all patient age categories, except for 40-49 years. This apparent gender disparity could result in unequal access of specialty evaluation and could potentially delay the diagnosis of important urologic conditions.",
"To compare routine antenatal care provided by general practitioners and midwives with obstetrician led shared care. Multicentre randomised controlled trial. 51 general practices linked to nine Scottish maternity hospitals. 1765 women at low risk of antenatal complications. Routine antenatal care by general practitioners and midwives according to a care plan and protocols for managing complications. Comparisons of health service use, indicators of quality of care, and women's satisfaction. Continuity of care was improved for the general practitioner and midwife group as the number of carers was less (median 5 carers v 7 for shared care group, P<0.0001) and the number of routine visits reduced (10.9 v 11.7, P<0.0001). Fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had antenatal admissions (27% (222/834) v 32% (266/840), P<0.05), non-attendances (7% (57) v 11% (89), P<0.01) and daycare (12% (102) v 7% (139), P<0.05) but more were referred (49% (406) v 36% (305), P<0.0001). Rates of antenatal diagnoses did not differ except that fewer women in the general practitioner and midwife group had hypertensive disorders (pregnancy induced hypertension, 5% (37) v 8% (70), P<0.01) and fewer had labour induced (18% (149) v 24% (201), P<0.01). Few failures to comply with the care protocol occurred, but more Rhesus negative women in the general practitioner and midwife group did not have an appropriate antibody check (2.5% (20) v 0.4% (3), P<0.0001). Both groups expressed high satisfaction with care (68% (453/663) v 65% (430/656), P=0.5) and acceptability of allocated style of care (93% (618) v 94% (624), P=0.6). Access to hospital support before labour was similar (45% (302) v 48% (312) visited labour rooms before giving birth, P=0.6).",
"yes. Office systems hold promise in enhancing provision of cancer prevention services in primary care. The practice should be approached as a team, and should include practice clinicians as well as nonclinical staff members. Current research should provide answers over the next few years about the cost-effectiveness of various approaches and the most feasible ways to promote dissemination to practices that need it.",
"General practitioners of women with diabetes, who have more health care encounters and poorer health-related quality of life, have adopted ACC with little impact on the decline in quality of life of the women nor on health care costs.",
"On the basis of parental reports, CHCs received similar ratings to other primary care providers for family-centered, comprehensive, and compassionate care, but lower ratings for accessibility. Further studies should examine strategies for practice transformation in CHCs to improve patient satisfaction and accessibility to optimize child health outcomes.",
"Disparities in access to HVS for cancer care exist for minority women. Selective referral to high-volume providers should be considered to improve outcomes among minority women.",
"yes. After model adjustment, we suggest that being female, suffering from more severe asthma, or being attended by a primary care physician, could pose a significantly higher risk of having poorly controlled asthma in adults.",
"To examine physician factors associated with ovarian cancer screening. Postal questionnaires to Maryland primary care physicians. Bivariate tests for statistical significance used X-Square and Student's t tests. Multivariate analysis and logistic regression were used to analyze responses based on specialty type, gender, and work experience. Fifty-six percent of the 375 were male, 44%, females; 33%, OB/GYN; and 67%, family/internal medicine (FM/IM). The mean age was 47 and the mean number of years in practice was 16. OB/GYNs provided more ovarian cancer counseling, OR 2.64 (CI 1.55, 4.48) and were more likely to respond correctly to knowledge questions--i.e., reduction of ovarian cancer risk with oral contraceptive (OCP) use than IM/FM, OR 8.57 (CI 3.54, 20.8). Overall, there were few gender differences in approach to evaluation, but male physicians were less likely to be aware of the relationship of OCP use to ovarian cancer risk than females, OR 0.48 (CI 0.25, 0.91). IF/FM physicians were less likely to order CA-125 for patients (of any age) based upon symptoms of bloating or physical examination alone. OB/GYN physicians, OR 4.77 (2.73, 8.34) and physicians with>15 years in practice, OR 2.79 (1.46, 5.35) attended more meetings on ovarian cancer than non OB/GYNs or those with less experience. Although 74% indicated access to the Internet, just 16% to 26% used the Internet for cancer information; OB/GYNs used the Internet less frequently than FM/IMs, OR 0.53 (0.28, 0.97).",
"Although patients with identical symptoms were presented, primary care doctors' behavior differed by patients' gender in all 3 countries under study. These gender differences suggest that women may be less likely to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment than men.",
"To describe where women receiving prenatal care (PNC) at community-based health centers (CBHCs) go for infant primary care, and to assess reasons for and factors associated with leaving CBHCs and using other practices for infant care. A prospective survey of women receiving PNC at CBHCs from February 2000 to February 2002 was conducted. In-person, prepartum, and postpartum surveys included questions about sociodemographic and health characteristics, and health services use. Among 1,107 primarily low-income, African American mothers, 60% of women left CBHCs and used other practices for their infants due to dissatisfaction, inconvenience, referral to and perceived expertise at other sites, and insurance changes. Leaving CBHCs was associated with being white, Latina, US born, educated beyond high school, single, owning a car, using non-CBHC practices for prepregnancy care, and having child health insurance. Among those who left, 48% used hospital-based clinics (HBCs) and 52% used private practices (PPs). Mothers using HBCs, when compared to those using PPs, were more likely to be African American (AOR = 6.83; 95% CI: 3.82, 12.22) or Latina (AOR = 5.60; 95% CI: 2.79, 11.24), dissatisfied with their PNC (AOR = 2.02; 95% CI: 1.05, 3.89) and to leave CBHCs because of insurance changes (AOR = 2.27; 95% CI: 1.18, 4.39) and perceived pediatric expertise at other sites (AOR = 4.81; 95% CI: 2.53, 9.11).",
"Voucher schemes increased deliveries in health centres and, to a lesser extent, improved antenatal and postnatal care. However, schemes that targeted poorer women did not appear to be efficient since these women were more likely than less poor women to be encouraged to give birth in a public health-care facility, even with universal voucher schemes.",
"To examine whether male and female family physicians practise maternity care differently, particularly regarding the maternal serum screening (MSS) program. Mailed survey fielded between October 1994 and March 1995. Ontario family practices. Random sample of 2000 members of the College of Family Physicians of Canada who care for pregnant women. More than 90% of eligible physicians responded. Attitudes toward, knowledge about, and behaviour toward MSS. Women physicians were more likely than men to practise part time, in groups, and in larger communities. Men physicians were more likely to perform deliveries; women were more likely to do shared care. Despite a shorter work week, on average, female physicians cared for more pregnant women than male physicians did. Among those providing intrapartum care, women performed more deliveries, on average, than men. Women physicians were more likely than men to offer MSS to all pregnant patients. Although average time spent discussing MSS before the test was similar, women physicians had better knowledge of when best to do the test and its true-positive rate. All differences reported were statistically significant (P<or = 0.001).",
"There is no reason to believe Dutch women receive hospital care of lesser quality than Belgian women in case of a referral. Belgian and Dutch attach different meaning to being referred, resulting in a different evaluation of childbirth. In the Dutch maternity care system home births lead to higher satisfaction, but once a referral to the hospital is necessary satisfaction drops and ends up lower than satisfaction with hospital births that were planned in advance. We need to understand more about referral processes and how women experience them.",
"This analysis suggests that women's health should be incorporated more fully into the MCH field, as well as other areas of public health and medicine. Once research deficits have been addressed and the scope of reproductive health delineated more clearly, the alignment of women's health with MCH may be reevaluated.",
"yes. Physician gender influences quality of care in patients with type 2 diabetes. Female physicians provide an overall better quality of care, especially in prognostically important risk management.",
"Women are more likely to undergo screening with Pap smears and mammograms if they see female rather than male physicians, particularly if the physician is an internist or family practitioner.",
"Although policymakers have suggested that improving continuity of midwifery can increase women's satisfaction with care in childbirth, evidence based on randomized controlled trials is lacking. New models of care, such as birth centers and team midwife care, try to increase the continuity of care and caregiver. The objective of this study was to evaluate the effect of a new team midwife care program in the standard clinic and hospital environment on satisfaction with antenatal, intrapartum, and postpartum care in low-risk women in early pregnancy. Women at Royal Women's Hospital in Melbourne, Australia, were randomly allocated to team midwife care (n = 495) or standard care (n = 505) at booking in early pregnancy. Doctors attended most women in standard care, and continuity of the caregiver was lacking. Satisfaction was measured by means of a postal questionnaire 2 months after the birth. Team midwife care was associated with increased satisfaction, and the differences between the groups were most noticeable for antenatal care, less noticeable for intrapartum care, and least noticeable for postpartum care. The study found no differences between team midwife care and standard care in medical interventions or in women's emotional well-being 2 months after the birth.",
"Women and newborns with serious obstetric complications have a greater chance of successful outcomes if they are immediately directed to a functioning referral hospital and if the providers are responsive.",
"no. Enrollment with a primary care provider alone does not eliminate the need for ED use in women with health-related conditions.",
"Better processes of diabetes care were associated with better women's preventive health care. Diabetes management did not compete with sex-specific screening.",
"Midwives providing care as lead maternity caregivers in New Zealand provide continuity of care to women who may give birth in a variety of settings, including home, primary units, and secondary and tertiary level hospitals. The purpose of this study was to compare mode of birth and intrapartum intervention rates for low-risk women planning to give birth in these settings under the care of midwives. Data for a cohort of low-risk women giving birth in 2006 and 2007 were extracted from the Midwifery Maternity Provider Organisation database. Mode of birth, intrapartum interventions, and neonatal outcomes were compared with results adjusted for age, parity, ethnicity, and smoking. Women planning to give birth in secondary and tertiary hospitals had a higher risk of cesarean section, assisted modes of birth, and intrapartum interventions than similar women planning to give birth at home and in primary units. The risk of emergency cesarean section for women planning to give birth in a tertiary unit was 4.62 (95% CI: 3.66-5.84) times that of a woman planning to give birth in a primary unit. Newborns of women planning to give birth in secondary and tertiary hospitals also had a higher risk of admission to a neonatal intensive care unit (RR: 1.40, 95% CI: 1.05-1.87; RR: 1.78, 95% CI: 1.31-2.42) than women planning to give birth in a primary unit.",
"Women family physicians are more inclined than men to counsel patients about condom use. Increasing numbers of women in family practice could have a beneficial effect on prevention of STDs and undesired pregnancies.",
"Based on the women's and partners' experiences an organizational model of the combined MHC&CHC where the same nurse will take care of family during pregnancy and after birth of the child was preferred. This model also provides greater amount of home visits and peer support than the separate MHC.",
"The majority of women expressed no preference to either gender of their obstetrician and gynaecologists, but significant proportion of the remainder would prefer to see a female doctor when given the choice. Although women gave a variety of subjective reasons for this, demographically it appears that women who are less educated with lower income and being non-white are more likely to prefer to see a female doctor.",
"The purpose of this study was to compare patient characteristics and diagnoses in a comprehensive Women's Health Care Clinic between gynecologists and internal medicine physicians. This retrospective cohort study evaluated International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, codes that were recorded between January 1, 2001, and January 4, 2004, at the Women's Health Care Clinic. We compared demographics and prevalence of diagnosis codes for patients who were seen by obstetricians/gynecologists and internal medicine physicians and compared these data with national survey statistics. A sampling of charts was reviewed for coding verification. We analyzed 13,462 visits at the Women's Health Care Clinic. Patients who were seen by internists were older, had greater racial diversity, and had more gender-nonspecific medical disorders (hypertension, depression). Gynecologists saw more specific women's health problems (P<.05). The diagnoses of menstrual disorders, menopause, pelvic pain, and abnormal cytologic findings within the Women's Health Care Clinic follow closely with the national ambulatory survey data.",
"To assess whether female primary care physicians' reported coverage of patients eligible for certain preventive care strategies differs from male physicians' reported coverage. A mailed survey. Primary care practices in southern Ontario. All primary care physicians who graduated between 1972 and 1988 and practised in a defined geographic area of Ontario were selected from the Canadian Medical Association's physician resource database. Response rate was 50%. Answers to questions on sociodemographic and practice characteristics, attitudes toward preventive care, and perceptions about preventive care behaviour and practices. In general, reported coverage for Canadian Task Force on the Periodic Health Examination's (CTFPHE) A and B class recommendations was low. However, more female than male physicians reported high coverage of women patients for female-specific preventive care measures (i.e., Pap smears, breast examinations, and mammography) and for blood pressure measurement. Female physicians appeared to question more patients about a greater number of health risks. Often, sex of physician was the most salient factor affecting whether preventive care services thought effective by the CTFPHE were offered. However, when evidence for effectiveness of preventive services was equivocal or lacking, male and female physicians reported similar levels of coverage.",
"yes. Educational statements designed to encourage women to allow students to participate in their medical care had less effect on the secondary school students than on the women in a clinic setting. Although secondary school students express a preference for female physicians, it appears that with increasing experience with intimate examinations other factors take precedence in determining choice of health care provider.",
"A large number of women attended antenatal care in the study area, but antenatal care had a limited effect on postpartum health behaviour. As antenatal care is considered an essential part of primary health care and takes up considerable resources, we recommend further research to explain the gap between the intentions of antenatal care and the actual outcome of such care.",
"yes. These results indicate a pattern close to the inverse care law, as women, who express a lower level of health and thus would need more health care, are not, however, using health services more frequently than men.",
"Since this brief intervention in primary care was equally efficacious and acceptable to female and male smokers, broader implementation in medical settings of this population-based approach to reducing tobacco use is warranted. Indeed, widespread implementation of smoking-cessation programs in medical settings may particularly benefit women, who are more likely than men to have contacts with the medical care system.",
"no. This ecological analysis suggests that frequent use of private gynaecologists relates somewhat to lower organised screening for cancer participation, and is not better in preventing abortions or in detecting cancer earlier. Our results suggest that a planned system relying mainly on general practitioners and public health nurses as the first line care providers is equally good for women's reproductive health as that in which specialists are used.",
"Since the majority of women preferred the HMO services, the merging of prenatal care with curative care provided by the HMOs has to be considered. Public health nurses should be integrated in the service, and their specific role needs to be defined.",
"In general, the patients of the women physicians were screened at a higher rate than were the patients of the men physicians, even after adjusting for important patient variables. These findings were not limited to gender-specific screening activities (e.g., Pap testing), as in some previous studies. However, the patients of the women physicians were aggressively screened for breast cancer at the youngest ages, where there is little evidence of benefit from mammography. Larger studies are needed to determine whether this pattern of effects reflects a broader phenomenon in primary care.",
"Female primary care physicians are more likely than their male colleagues to report that their patients eligible for preventive health measures as recommended by the CTFPHE take advantage of these measures.",
"Among family physicians caring for pregnant women, women physicians cared for more pregnant women than men did. Both spent similar time discussing MSS with their patients before offering screening, but more women physicians offered MSS to all their patients and were more knowledgeable about MSS than men physicians.",
"To understand if women anticipate a difference in reproductive healthcare when attending a Catholic institution. A convenience sample of reproductive-aged women in the Denver metro area completed an online survey. Women were randomized to hypothetical women's health clinics at either a secular or Catholic hospital and asked about expectations for family planning care. Questions covered contraception and management of abnormal or unintended pregnancy. We subsequently assessed provider/site preferences for care. We analyzed 236 surveys. The majority of participants expected their gynecologist to provide all family planning services presented. The only difference based on institution was that participants randomized to the Catholic hospital were more likely to expect natural family planning advice. At least half of respondents reported they would seek care from their gynecologist for the services surveyed with the exceptions of emergency contraception and elective abortion.",
"In high-income countries, great disparities exist in the organizational characteristics of maternity health services. In Finland, primary maternity care is provided at communal maternity health clinics (MHC). At these MHCs there are public health nurses and general practitioners providing care. The structure of services in MHCs varies largely. MHCs are maintained independently or merged with other primary health care sectors. A widely used organizational model of services is a combined maternity and child health clinic (MHC&CHC) where the same public health nurse takes care of the family from pregnancy until the child is at school age. The aim of this study was to determine how organizational model, MHC independent or combined MHC&CHC, influence on women's and their partners' service experiences. A comparative, cross-sectional service evaluation survey was used. Women (N = 995) and their partners (N = 789) were recruited from the MHCs in the area of Turku University Hospital. Four months postpartum, the participants were asked to evaluate the content and amount of the MHC services via a postal questionnaire. Comparisons were made between the clients of the separate MHCs and the MHCs combined to the child health clinics. Women who had used the combined MHC&CHCs generally evaluated services more positively than women who had used the separate MHCs. MHC's model was related to several aspects of the service which were evaluated \"good\" (the content of the service) or \"much\" (the amount of the service). Significant differences accumulated favoring the combined MHC&CHCs' model. Twelve aspects of the service were ranked more often as \"good\" or \"much\" by the parents who had used the combined MHC&CHC, only group activities regarding delivery were evaluated better by women who had used the separate MHCs.",
"The Affordable Care Act places primary care at the cornerstone of health maintenance. It is believed that increasing access to primary health care providers will limit emergency department (ED) use. This study examines woman's health-related ED visits by patients enrolled in an obstetric/gynecologic (OB/GYN) clinic. A database was created combining patient information from a hospital-affiliated OB/GYN clinic and the electronic medical records from the ED of the affiliated hospital. This database was used to evaluate woman's health-related ED use by patients registered in this OB/GYN clinic compared with patients not affiliated with the clinic. Over an 23-month period, there were 41,791 ED visits made by 21,223 individual women >12 years of age. A total of 7251 (17.4%) of the ED visits were for OB/GYN-related conditions. There were 6430 individual women registered at the OB/GYN clinic, 1411 (22.0%) of whom made 2415 woman's health-related visits to the ED. Of the OB/GYN-related ED visits by clinic patients, 1794 (74.3%) were made during weekdays and 1023 (42.3%) were made during hours when the clinic was open for care. Study patients had diagnostic studies beyond a urine analysis or pregnancy test performed during 61% of ED visits, with an admission rate of 2%.",
"The present study revealed that the current form of PHC centers afforded to diabetic patients provided significantly improved outcomes for males, but only minor improved outcomes for females. This study reinforces calls for a gender-specific approach to diabetes care.",
"yes. This research indicates a gap in health care for young mothers. Only half enter parenthood with a PCP, and once mothers, few plan to see a physician for preventive care. In this study, OBGYNs were identified most often for preventive health care. Therefore OBGYNs should provide comprehensive care to this population, or connect them with other PCPs. Furthermore, young mothers do plan on seeing FPs for acute health care, supporting previous recommendations that physicians use all visits to provide comprehensive care to adolescents.",
"The phenomenon of sex concordance between patient and physician has increased in recent years, particularly in primary care. Nearly four of five patient visits to female primary care physicians are from women, and female physicians report performing more preventive health services for their female patients.",
"Women may prefer female physicians, particularly for preventive health services. We assessed national trends in the proportion of women among patients seeing female physicians, and compared visit characteristics and preventive services among visits to female and male primary care physicians. We assessed the characteristics of 92,389 visits from the 1995-2000 National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey, a nationally representative survey of office-based physicians in the United States, using linear and logistic regression. Female physicians were more likely than male physicians to see female patients in the specialties of primary care (73% vs. 56%), psychiatry (72% vs. 54%), dermatology (67% vs. 56%), and pediatrics (52% vs. 46%; P<0.01 for all). In primary care, the difference increased over time, such that by 2000, 78% of visits to female primary care physicians were from women, compared with 56% for male primary care physicians (P<0.01). Female primary care physicians saw younger patients (mean age, 45 vs. 49 years, P = 0.04), reported longer visits (19 vs. 17 minutes, P<0.01), and reported performing more preventive services than did male primary care physicians when seeing female patients, including Papanicolaou testing (11% vs. 4.7%, P<0.01) and mammograms (9% vs. 4%, P<0.01).",
"The patient-centered medical home model may be a strategic approach to improve delivery of women's health care and consistently provide women with accessible and comprehensive care. We examined whether primary care physicians (family medicine, internal medicine, and hospital general medicine clinics) and obstetrician-gynecologists differ in scope and the number of medical issues addressed during preventive gynecologic visits. We analyzed data from the National Ambulatory Medical Care Survey and National Hospital Ambulatory Medical Care Survey to characterize visits with a primary diagnosis of gynecological examination or routine cervical Papanicolaou test between 1999 and 2008. We compared the number and type of concurrent nongynecologic diagnoses addressed by primary care physicians and obstetrician-gynecologists during visits. A total of 7882 visits were included, representing 271 million primary visits for Papanicolaou tests. Primary care physicians were 2.41 times more likely to include one or more concurrent medical diagnoses during the preventive gynecologic visit compared with obstetrician-gynecologists (odds ratio, 2.41; 95% confidence interval, 1.63-3.57).",
"Primary care physicians are significantly more likely to address concurrent medical problems during preventive gynecologic visits compared with obstetrician-gynecologists. These findings demonstrate the vital role of primary care physicians in providing comprehensive health care to women, consistent with principles of the patient-centered medical home model.",
"Within this multispecialty Women's Health Care Clinic, internal medicine physicians are practicing primary care and obstetricians/gynecologists are providing specialty care.",
"Women's health centers have been increasing in number but remain relatively unstudied. We examined patient expectations and quality of care at a hospital-based women's health center compared with those at a general medicine clinic. Cross-sectional survey. University hospital-affiliated women's health and general internal medicine clinics. An age-stratified random sample of 2,000 women over 18 years of age with at least two visits to either clinic in the prior 24 months. We confined the analysis to 706 women respondents who identified themselves as primary care patients of either clinic. Personal characteristics, health care utilization, preferences and expectations for care, receipt of preventive services, and satisfaction with provider and clinic were assessed for all respondents. Patients obtaining care at the general internal medicine clinic were older and had more chronic diseases and functional limitations than patients receiving care at the women's health center. Women's health center users (n = 357) were more likely than general medicine clinic users ( n = 349) to prefer a female provider ( 57% vs 32%, p =.0001) and to have sought care at the clinic because of its focus on women's health (49% vs 17%, p =. 0001). After adjusting for age and self-assessed health status, women's health center users were significantly more likely to report having had mammography (odds ratio [OR] 4.0, 95% confidence interval [CI]1.1, 15.2) and cholesterol screening (OR 1.6, 95% CI 1.0, 2.6) but significantly less likely to report having undergone flexible sigmoidoscopy (OR 0.5, 95% CI 0.3, 0.9). There were no significant differences between the clinics on receipt of counseling about hormone replacement therapy or receipt of Pap smear, or in satisfaction.",
"These results suggest that, at least in this setting, women's health centers provide care to younger women and those with fewer chronic medical conditions and may meet a market demand. While the quality of gender-specific preventive care may be modestly better in women's health centers, the quality of general preventive care may be better in general medical clinics."
] | 590 |
Analysis of failures after whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphomas. Is prophylactic irradiation of inguinal lymph nodes required? | [
"To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%).",
"General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary."
] | [
"In a retrospective study, the efficacy of radiotherapy alone was compared with combined modality treatment in patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). Between 1980 and 1994, 296 patients with stage I/IE non-Hodgkin's lymphoma of intermediate or high grade malignancy (according to the Working Formulation) were treated in four different institutions. All patients were included except patients that presented with NHLs localized in the central nervous system, testis or skin. Two hundred two patients were treated with radiation therapy alone and 94 patients were treated with combined modality treatment. Increasing age and radiation as a single treatment (versus combined modality treatment) were highly significant adverse prognostic factors by multivariate analysis. The actuarial 10-year rates for progression-free and overall survival were 83 and 70%, respectively, for the patients treated with combined modality treatment and 47 and 43%, respectively, for the patients treated with radiation therapy alone.",
"Peritoneal dissemination of appendiceal malignancy combined with regional lymph node metastasis is an unusual combination of patterns of cancer dissemination. A database of 501 appendiceal malignancy patients, all with documented peritoneal seeding, was used to identify 25 patients with involvement of the regional lymph nodes. All patients were uniformly treated with cytoreductive surgery plus perioperative intraperitoneal chemotherapy with mitomycin C and 5-fluorouracil. The clinical and pathologic features of the lymph node-positive patients were compared with those of the lymph node-negative patients. The effect of regional lymph node involvement on survival was determined. Within the group of lymph node-positive patients, clinical and pathologic features were tested for their effect on survival. When compared with patients with no apparent lymph node positivity, patients with positive lymph nodes were more likely to have an acute abdomen as the initial presentation (P < .001). The intestinal (nonmucinous) histological type was more common (P < .001), and the disseminated peritoneal adenomucinosis histology was less common (P < .001). Survival with the aggressive treatment strategy used in these patients was not different for lymph node-positive as compared with lymph node-negative patients (P = .15 by univariate and P = .38 by multivariate analysis).",
"In conclusion, our study showed that prophylactic therapy with 4,000 IU/day LMWH was not completely effective for the prevention of postoperative DVT in patients with CD, and even less so in those with UC. In these patients, a more tailored prophylactic therapy should be considered, and further randomized controlled trials testing the effectiveness of different prophylactic protocols would be advisable. Furthermore, aCL IgM serum levels might be helpful in identifying IBD patients who are at higher risk of postoperative DVT.",
"In colorectal surgery UICC/AJCC criteria require a yield of 12 or more locoregional lymph nodes for adequate staging. Neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy for rectal carcinoma reduces the number of lymph nodes in the resection specimen; the prognostic impact of this reduced lymph node yield has not been determined. One hundred two patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy were compared with 114 patients with uT3 rectal carcinoma who were receiving primary surgery followed by adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Total lymph node yield and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes were determined and correlated with survival. After neoadjuvant radiochemotherapy both total lymph node yield (12.9 vs. 21.4, p < 0.0001) and number of tumor-positive lymph nodes (1.0 vs. 2.3, p = 0.014) were significantly lower than after primary surgery plus adjuvant radiochemotherapy. Reduced total lymph node yield in neoadjuvantly treated patients had no prognostic impact, with overall survival of patients with 12 or more lymph nodes the same as that of patients with less than 12 lymph nodes. Overall survival of neoadjuvantly treated patients was significantly influenced by the number of tumor-positive lymph nodes with 5-year-survival rates of 88, 63, and 39% for 0, 1-3, and more than 3 positive lymph nodes (p < 0.0001).",
"The low IGN recurrence rate even with ACI and the feasibility of salvage of isolated IGN recurrence indicated that routine elective IGN irradiation is not necessary for rectal cancer with ACI.",
"To determine whether intra-operative radiation therapy (IORT) at the time of pelvic exenteration (PE) or laterally extended endopelvic resection (LEER) improves progression-free survival (PFS) in patients with recurrent, previously irradiated gynecologic cancers. We conducted a single institution retrospective review of patients who had undergone a complete PE for locally recurrent gynecologic cancer. Demographic and clinicopathologic data were collected. 32 patients were identified (2000-2012); 21 (66%) cervical cancer, 8 (25%) vaginal, and 3 (9%) vulvar cancer. All patients were previously irradiated. Twenty-one (66%) received IORT. Mean age was 51. Eight patients had a LEER, all with IORT. Median PFS and OS, respectively, for those with PE alone was 33 and 41 vs. 10 and 10 months for PE+IORT compared to 9 and 17 months for LEER+IORT (P=.04). Increasing tumor size negatively impacted PFS (hazard ratio 1.3; 95%CI 1.12-1.52). Margin status was not associated with survival. No patients undergoing LEER+IORT recurred only locally whereas 62% recurred with a distant component (+/- local). Patients with PE alone had mainly local (36%) and few (9%) distant recurrences compared to 31% local and 38% distant (+/- local) recurrences for those with PE+IORT.",
"Little is known about the effect of lateral pelvic node dissection after preoperative chemoradiotherapy on rectal cancer patients with initially suspected lateral pelvic nodes. The purpose of this study was to identify a subgroup of patients receiving preoperative chemoradiotherapy who can benefit from lateral pelvic node dissection. The study included 580 patients who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and total mesorectal excision. The lateral pelvic node responses to preoperative chemoradiotherapy were divided: group I (no suspected lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node<5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy; group II (responsive lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre-chemoradiotherapy but<5 mm post-chemoradiotherapy; and group III (persistent lateral pelvic node), lateral pelvic node ≥5 mm pre- and post-chemoradiotherapy. Prognostic factors for lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival were analyzed. In a multivariate analysis, lateral pelvic node response was an independent factor associated with lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival (P<.05). Group III had significantly poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than groups II and I (74.1%, 93.4%, and 98.6%; 71.7%, 89.4%, and 97%; 56.9%, 76.6%, and 81.7%; 74.9%, 85.7%, and 89.1%, respectively; P<.05). Group II tended to have poorer lateral pelvic node recurrence-free survival, locoregional recurrence-free survival, relapse-free survival, and overall survival than group I, and the differences in relapse-free survival and overall survival between the 2 groups were not significant (P>.05).",
"Because duodenal adenocarcinoma (DA) is relatively rare, few studies have investigated the impact of resection type on long-term outcomes. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results database was used to identify all patients between 1988 and 2010 with DA. Patients were divided into two groups based on the type of surgery received: simple resection (SR), defined as a simple removal of the primary site, and radical resection (RR), defined as removal of the primary site with a resection in continuity with other organs. Differences in disease-specific survival (DSS) and overall survival (OS) were compared. Of the 1,611 patients included, 746 (46.3 %) underwent SR and 865 (53.7 %) underwent RR. As expected, patients undergoing RR were more likely to present with poorly differentiated and large tumors, as well as advanced stage disease. Despite greater lymph node (LN) retrieval (11.0 vs. 6.8; p < 0.0001), RR was not associated with improved survival (5-year DSS and OS rates of 52.8 and 41.3 % for SR vs. 48.8 and 37.6 % for RR; p > 0.05). On univariate Cox proportional hazards regression analysis, the type of surgery was not associated with OS (odds ratio [OR] 0.98; 95 % confidence interval [CI]0.87-1.11). Increasing TNM stages, tumor grade, fewer LNs removed, LN ratio, and absence of radiation were associated with worse survival. After controlling for confounding factors, type of surgery still did not influence OS (OR 1.11; 95 % CI 0.97-1.27).",
"As a sole modality, preoperative radiation for rectal carcinoma achieves a local control comparable to that of postoperative radiation plus chemotherapy. Although the addition of chemotherapy to preoperative treatment improves the pathologic complete response rate, there is also a substantial increase in acute and perioperative morbidity. Identification of subsets of patients who are at low or high risk for recurrence can help to optimize treatment. During the period 1977-95, 384 patients received preoperative radiation therapy for localized adenocarcinoma of the rectum. Ages ranged from 19 to 97 years (mean 64.4), and there were 171 females. Preoperative treatment consisted of conventionally fractionated radiation to 3600-5040 cGy (median 4500 cGy) 6-8 weeks before surgery in 293 cases or low doses of <3000 cGy (median 2000 cGy) immediately before surgery in 91 cases. Concurrent preoperative chemotherapy was given to only 14 cases in this study period. Postoperative chemotherapy was delivered to 55 cases. Overall 93 patients have experienced recurrence (including 36 local failures). Local failures were scored if they occurred at any time, not just as first site of failure. For the group as a whole, the actuarial (Kaplan-Meier) freedom from relapse (FFR) and local control (LC) were 74% and 90% respectively at 5 years. Univariate analysis of clinical characteristics demonstrated a significant (p < 0.05) adverse effect on both LC and FFR for the following four clinical factors: (1) location <5 cm from the verge, (2) circumferential lesion, (3) near obstruction, (4) tethered or fixed tumor. Size, grade, age, gender, ultrasound stage, CEA, radiation dose, and the use of chemotherapy were not associated with outcome. Background of the surgeon was significantly associated with outcome, colorectal specialists achieving better results than nonspecialist surgeons. We assigned a clinical score of 0 to 2 on the basis of how many of the above four adverse clinical factors were present: 0 for none, 1 for one or two, 2 for three or four. This sorted outcome highly significantly (p < or = 0.002, Tarone Ware), with 5-year LC/FFR of 98%/85% (score 0), 90%/72% (score 1), and 74%/58% (score 2). The scoring system sorts the data for both subgroups of surgeons; however, there are substantial differences in LC on the basis of the surgeon's experience. For colorectal specialists (251 cases), the 5-year LC is 100%, 94%, and 78% for scores of 0, 1, and 2, respectively (p = 0.004). For the more mixed group of nonspecialist surgeons (133 cases), LC is 98%, 80%, and 65% for scores of 0, 1, and 2 (p = 0.008). In multivariate analysis, the clinical score and surgeon's background retained independent predictive value, even when pathologic stage was included.",
"Nuclear accidents and terrorism presents a serious threat for mass casualty. While bone-marrow transplantation might mitigate hematopoietic syndrome, currently there are no approved medical countermeasures to alleviate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome (RIGS), resulting from direct cytocidal effects on intestinal stem cells (ISC) and crypt stromal cells. We examined whether bone marrow-derived adherent stromal cell transplantation (BMSCT) could restitute irradiated intestinal stem cells niche and mitigate radiation-induced gastrointestinal syndrome. Autologous bone marrow was cultured in mesenchymal basal medium and adherent cells were harvested for transplantation to C57Bl6 mice, 24 and 72 hours after lethal whole body irradiation (10.4 Gy) or abdominal irradiation (16-20 Gy) in a single fraction. Mesenchymal, endothelial and myeloid population were characterized by flow cytometry. Intestinal crypt regeneration and absorptive function was assessed by histopathology and xylose absorption assay, respectively. In contrast to 100% mortality in irradiated controls, BMSCT mitigated RIGS and rescued mice from radiation lethality after 18 Gy of abdominal irradiation or 10.4 Gy whole body irradiation with 100% survival (p<0.0007 and p<0.0009 respectively) beyond 25 days. Transplantation of enriched myeloid and non-myeloid fractions failed to improve survival. BMASCT induced ISC regeneration, restitution of the ISC niche and xylose absorption. Serum levels of intestinal radioprotective factors, such as, R-Spondin1, KGF, PDGF and FGF2, and anti-inflammatory cytokines were elevated, while inflammatory cytokines were down regulated.",
"Locoregional recurrence remains low in breast cancer patients (one to three positive axillary lymph nodes +/- ECE) treated with surgery, adequate axillary dissection, and tangential field irradiation only. However, ECE is significantly linked to a considerable risk for subsequent distant failure.",
"yes. From our preliminary results, adjuvant radiation treatment limited to the para-aortic lymph node region, without ipsilateral pelvic irradiation, appears to be adequate treatment for Stage I seminoma. Such an approach in our patients resulted in minimal toxicity and excellent disease-free survival.",
"In the United States, early-stage Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) is defined as asymptomatic stage I/II non-bulky disease. European groups stratify patients to more intense treatment by considering additional unfavorable factors, such as age, number of nodal sites, sedimentation rate, extranodal disease, and elements of the international prognostic score for advanced HL. We sought to determine the prognostic significance of these factors in patients with early-stage disease treated at Stanford University Medical Center. This study was a retrospective analysis of 101 patients treated with abbreviated Stanford V chemotherapy (8 weeks) and 30-Gy (n=84 patients) or 20-Gy (n=17 patients) radiotherapy to involved sites. Outcomes were assessed after applying European risk factors. At a median follow-up of 8.5 years, freedom from progression (FFP) and overall survival (OS) rates were 94% and 97%, respectively. From 33% to 60% of our patients were unfavorable per European criteria (i.e., German Hodgkin Study Group [GHSG], n=55%; European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer, n=33%; and Groupe d'Etudes des Lymphomes de l'Adulte, n=61%). Differences in FFP rates between favorable and unfavorable patients were significant only for GHSG criteria (p=0.02) with there were no differences in OS rates for any criteria. Five of 6 patients who relapsed were successfully salvaged.",
"To evaluate the results of postoperative radiotherapy in patients with extra-hepatic bile duct cancer (EHBDC) and identify the prognostic factors for local control and survival. Between January 2001 and December 2010, we retrospectively reviewed the cases of 70 patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection and received postoperative radiotherapy. The median radiation dose was 50.4 Gy (range, 41.4 to 54 Gy). The resection margin status was R0 in 30 patients (42.9%), R1 in 25 patients (35.7%), and R2 in 15 patients (21.4%). The 5-year rates of overall survival (OS), event-free survival (EFS), and locoregional control (LRC) for all patients were 42.9%, 38.3%, and 61.2%, respectively. The major pattern of failure was distant relapses (33 patients, 47.1%). A multivariate analysis showed that the postradiotherapy CA19-9 level, radiation dose (≥50 Gy), R2 resection margins, perineural invasion, and T stage were the significant prognostic factors for OS, EFS, and LRC. OS was not significantly different between the patients receiving R0 and R1 resections, but was significantly lower among those receiving R2 resection (54.6%, 56.1%, and 7.1% for R0, R1, and R2 resections, respectively).",
"yes. Edge restenosis following gamma irradiation treatment of ISR is related to GM: a mismatch between the segment of artery injured during the primary catheter-based intervention and the length of the radiation source.",
"The prediction of biologic behavior of poorly cohesive early gastric carcinoma (EGC) is an important issue in the selection of the treatment modality. To elucidate the risk factors for lymph node metastasis (LNM) of poorly cohesive EGC, we focused on the histologic purity of the poorly cohesive component and evaluated the impact of this factor on LNM. We divided poorly cohesive EGC into (1) pure signet ring cell (SRC) carcinoma, which was defined as composed only of signet ring cells or poorly cohesive cells and (2) mixed SRC carcinoma, defined as poorly cohesive carcinoma with minor tubular components. We reviewed the clinicopathologic features, including age, sex, location, size, depth, lymphovascular invasion (LVI), LNM, ulceration, and intestinal metaplasia between the two groups in a large series of poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC (n = 317). LNM was found in 58 cases (18.3 %). Mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (p < 0.001), larger tumor size (more than 2 cm) (p = 0.012), and the presence of LVI (p < 0.001) were associated with LNM. Pure SRC carcinomas accounted for 56.2 % (178/317) of the cases. Fourteen pure SRC carcinomas (7.8 %) showed LNM, whereas 44 mixed SRC carcinomas (31.9 %) exhibited LNM (p < 0.001). On multivariate logistic regression, the presence of LVI (odds ratio 6.737; 95 % confidence interval 2.714-16.720; p < 0.001) and mixed SRC carcinoma histologic type (odds ratio 4.674; 95 % confidence interval 2.370-9.216; p < 0.001) were independent predictors of LNM in poorly cohesive, submucosa-invasive EGC.",
"yes. Some patients with isolated inguinal lymph node metastasis show a good prognosis after lymph node excision and, therefore, should be treated surgically. Patients with metachronous metastases have a better prognosis than patients with synchronous ILN metastases. Nevertheless, assessment of additional patients for prognosis and treatment strategy is warranted.",
"yes. A high SUV at baseline (18)F-FDG PET and a lower reduction in the SUV within 3 months after eradication therapy are associated with treatment failure in H. pylori-positive low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma patients undergoing eradication treatment.",
"To examine the pattern of failures in patients with limited-stage small-cell lung cancer (LS-SCLC) treated with involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) and chemotherapy, with the aim of investigating the safety of IFRT. Two consecutive clinical phase II trials in patients with LS-SCLC conducted in our center from 1997 to 2010 were reviewed retrospectively. Both trials had the same inclusion criteria. All patients (n=108) received combined chemotherapy and thoracic radiotherapy. Only the primary tumor and involved lymphatic regions based on computed tomography (CT) scan were irradiated. Isolated nodal failure (INF) was defined as a failure in an initially uninvolved lymph node region in the absence of local recurrence or distant metastasis. With a median follow-up of 21 months, 78 patients experienced treatment failures. Out of 28 patients with local-regional recurrences, 16 in-field, 10 out-of-field, and 2 both in-field and out-of-field recurrences were observed. INF occurred in 5 patients (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area. Four patients developed simultaneously supraclavicular nodal failures and distant metastases. The median overall survival was 27 months (95% confidence interval, 24-30 months) and the median progression-free survival was 16 months (95% confidence interval, 12-21 months). For the 5 patients with INF, the median time to INF from the end of thoracic radiotherapy was 5 months (range, 1-18 months).",
"This study reports 21 patients with Stage I-III low-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who were treated with comprehensive lymphatic irradiation (CLI) at the University of Florida between 1966 and 1992. Sites clinically involved with disease were treated with 30 Gy, whereas clinically uninvolved sites were treated with 25 Gy. Median follow-up for the group was 14 years (24.5 years for Stage III patients). Overall absolute survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 34%. Cause-specific survival rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 84%, 68%, and 56%. Freedom-from-relapse rates at 5, 10, and 15 years were 75%, 58%, and 58%, with no relapses noted after 10 years. Bulky disease (>6 cm) was a significant indicator of poor prognosis for cause-specific survival (p = .01).",
"Immunohistochemical profiles of esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma differ according to the presence or absence of Barrett's epithelium (BIM) and gastric intestinal metaplasia (GIM) in the fundus and antrum. Different lymphatic spreading has been demonstrated in esophageal adenocarcinoma. We investigated the correlation among the presence or absence of intestinal metaplasia in the esophagus and stomach and lymphatic metastases in patients who underwent radical surgery for esophageal and cardia adenocarcinoma. The mucosa surrounding the adenocarcinoma and the gastric mucosa were analyzed. The BIM+ patients underwent subtotal esophagectomy and gastric pull up, and the BIM- patients underwent esophagectomy at the azygos vein, total gastrectomy, and esophagojejunostomy. The radical thoracic (station numbers 2, 3, 4R, 7, 8, and 9) and abdominal (station numbers 15 through 20) lymphadenectomy was identical in both procedures except for the greater curvature. One hundred ninety-four consecutive patients were collected in three major groups: BIM+/GIM-, 52 patients (26.8%); BIM-/GIM-, 90 patients (46.4%); BIM-/GIM+, 50 patients (25.8%). Two patients (1%) were BIM+/GIM+. A total of 6,010 lymph nodes were resected: 1,515 were recovered in BIM+, 1,587 in BIM-/GIM+, and 2,908 in BIM-/GIM- patients. The percentage of patients with pN+ stations 8 and 9 was higher in BIM+ (p=0.001), and the percentage of patients with pN+ perigastric stations was higher in BIM- (p=0.001). The BIM-/GIM- patients had a number of abdominal metastatic lymph nodes higher than did the BIM-/GIM+ patients (p=0.0001).",
"Although use of lymphadenectomy for treatment of extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma is established, routine lymphadenectomy for intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (ICC) remains controversial. We examined the factors predicting survival in patients after ICC resection and compared outcomes of patients with and without systematic hepatic pedicle lymph node dissection (LND). Data were retrospectively collected for 215 patients with ICC who underwent liver resection during the years 1995-2012. Patients were divided into those (n = 102; 47.4%) who received LND (LN [D]) and those (n = 113; 52.6%) who did not (LN [D0]). Demographic data were similar between the 2 groups except for presence of preoperative symptom (P = .019) and liver cirrhosis (P<.001), carbohydrate antigen 19-9 (P = .003), tumor location according to the hepatic lobe (P<.001), type of hepatectomy (P<.001), adjuvant treatment (P<.001), and postoperative complications (P = .028). Tumor recurrence at a distant site was observed in 102 patients (68.5%). LN metastasis was independently associated with risk of distant recurrence (P = .002). The LN (D) and LN (D0) groups did not differ in overall survival (P = .101) or disease-free survival (P = .111). Poorly differentiated histologic grade (P = .016) and LN metastasis (P<.001) was identified as an independent predictor of overall survival.",
"yes. In patients with EHBDC who had undergone curative resection, a postoperative radiotherapy dose less than 50 Gy was suboptimal for OS and LRC. Higher radiation doses may be needed to obtain better LRC. Further investigation of novel therapy or palliative treatment should be considered for patients receiving R2 resection.",
"No statistically significant differences in the relapse rates and survival times were found. Risk factors were equally distributed in both study groups except for clitoris involvement. The 5-year survival rates in both groups were similar to those reported in the literature for radical vulvectomy and inguinal lymph-node dissection (83-96%). Morbidity in our study was low. Although our data showed similar results in both groups, we are not recommending at this time to omit groin radiation in general, but it may be justified in low-risk cases.",
"This study aimed to determine whether postoperative morbidity and mortality rates increased after preoperative chemoradiation in patients who underwent gastrectomy. The medical records of 7404 patients with gastric or gastroesophageal cancer seen from January 1995 to August 2012 were reviewed to identify patients who underwent gastrectomy. χ (2) and logistic regression analysis were used to determine differences in the 90-day postoperative morbidity and mortality rates of patients who underwent upfront surgery (SURG), preoperative chemotherapy (CHEMO), or preoperative chemoradiation (CHEMOXRT). Of the 500 patients included in this study, 200 underwent SURG, 65 had CHEMO, and 235 had CHEMOXRT. Respectively, 33, 43, and 58 % of these patients underwent total gastrectomy (p < 0.01). Resection of other organs was performed respectively in 19, 26, and 23 % of the patients (p = 0.37). Minor complications within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 1 or 2) occurred for 41 % of the SURG patients, 43 % of the CHEMO patients, and 45 % of the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.68). Major complications or death within 90 days (Clavien-Dindo 3, 4, or 5) occurred for 21, 28, and 29 % of the patients, respectively (p = 0.15). The 90-day mortality (Clavien-Dindo 5) rates were 2 % for the SURG patients, 6 % for the CHEMO patients, and 3 % for the CHEMOXRT patients (p = 0.25). The median hospital stays were respectively 12, 12, and 13 days (p = 0.09). In the multivariate analysis, male sex, gastroesophageal junction cancer, total gastrectomy, and resection of other organs were associated with increased major morbidity and mortality rates, whereas preoperative therapy was not.",
"Since D2 total gastrectomy carried an increased overall morbidity risk and did not improve survival in patients with intestinal or diffuse type carcinoma, it seems that with regard to luminal gastric resection, SG is the treatment of choice for carcinomas located in the distal third of the stomach. Whether extensive radical D2 lymphadenectomy should be routinely performed in addition to SG is still controversial.The spleen should be preserved in most cases.",
"The purpose of our study was to determine the management and cancer outcome of incidental cancer-related findings reported on CT radiation treatment planning scans. We conducted a retrospective review of CT planning scans performed from 2004 to 2006 with diagnostic radiology reports. We previously found 45 (8%) cancer-related findings, defined as any previously unknown radiologic finding that could potentially change the staging or treatment of the cancer, in the 580 CT scans reviewed. This study further examines the cancer-related findings to identify their clinical significance, management, and cancer outcomes. Eight (18%) of the 45 cancer-related findings prompted additional imaging, with negative findings and no cancer failure at the site of the cancer-related findings. Three (7%) cancer-related findings resulted in changes in cancer management without further imaging, including initiating induction chemotherapy instead of localized radiation, increasing the radiation dose to identified lymphadenopathy, and changing the sequence of local management to initial surgery followed by radiation. Two of these findings had local recurrence at the site of cancer-related findings. The remaining 34 (76%) cancer-related findings did not result in any additional action. With a median follow-up of 17 months (range, 2-67 months) from CT, there was a similar failure rate at the site of cancer-related findings in the groups without (15%) and with (18%) additional action.",
"Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) of bone is a rare musculoskeletal malignancy accounting for fewer than 7% of bone cancers. Traditionally, we have treated patients who have NHL of bone with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, but the role of radiotherapy in disease management and patient functional outcomes after treatment have not been well studied. We investigated the survival advantage of radiotherapy in a large cohort of patients with NHL of bone and assessed associated patient complications of radiotherapy.QUESTIONS/ The objective of this study was to compare patients treated for NHL of bone with and without radiation in terms of (1) overall survival; (2) pretreatment complications; (3) posttreatment complications; and (4) functional outcomes using the Musculoskeletal Tumor Society (MSTS) score. A retrospective analysis of all patients with biopsy-proven NHL of bone diagnosed at our institution between 1985 and 2013 was undertaken; 70 patients met our criteria for inclusion with minimum followup of 6 months (median, 55 months; range, 10-219 months). Overall survival at 5 and 10 years was estimated and compared between two groups of patients: one group treated with systemic therapy alone (chemotherapy, rituximab; 46 patients [66%]) and the other with combined modality therapy (systemic therapy and radiotherapy; 24 patients [34%]). During the period in question, indications for radiotherapy included bulky disease, an abbreviated course of systemic therapy, and an incomplete response to systemic therapy. Patients not meeting these criteria generally received systemic therapy alone. With the available sample size, it was estimated that a difference in survival of approximately 30% would have to be present for detection with 80% power (α = 0.05, β = 0.2, n = 70, Δ = 30%). Pretreatment and posttreatment complications occurring in both patient groups were retrospectively reviewed with special emphasis on fracture healing after treatment. MSTS scores were obtained for 45 patients with appendicular tumors at a median followup of 42 months (range, 10-215 months). With the data available, no difference in Kaplan-Meier survivorship was observed between patients treated with and without radiation at 5 years (98%; 95% confidence interval [CI], 93%-100% versus 95%; 95% CI, 85%-100%; p = 0.281). Patients who were treated with radiation were more likely to experience problems with fracture healing (relative risk [RR], 12.8; 95% CI, 1.8-89.8; p = 0.01). Similarly, patients treated with radiation were at a higher risk for fracture in the posttreatment period (five of 24 versus no radiation zero of 46; RR, 20.7; 95% CI, 1.2-359.0; p = 0.0375). MSTS scores were poorer in patients treated with radiation (75% versus 91%; p = 0.034) attributable in part to a higher incidence of bony complications in this group after treatment.",
"Use of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (RPLND) in paratesticular rhabdomyosarcoma (PTRMS) is controversial and has changed over the past 2 decades. The Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study Group (IRSG) required ipsilateral RPLND (IRPLND) for all patients with PTRMS treated on IRS-III (1984-91), but changed to clinical evaluation of RPLNs using computerized tomography (CT) in IRS-IV (1991 through 1997). In IRS-IV, only those patients with identified lymph node involvement on CT required surgical evaluation of the RPLNs. Nodal radiation therapy was administered only to patients with RPLNs recognized as positive; such patients received more intensive chemotherapy as well. Thus, they compared the incidence of recognized RPLN involvement using these 2 different approaches. They then analyzed patient outcome to determine whether this change in management affected outcome. Eligible patients with group I or II PTRMS who were treated on IRS III (n = 100) or IRS IV (n = 134) were analyzed. Failure-free survival (FFS) and survival (S) rates were estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method and compared using the log-rank test. There was a significant change in the distribution of patients with group I versus II tumors from IRS-III to IRS-IV (group I, 68% in IRS-III versus 82% in IRS-IV). This was the result of decreased node recognition when CT was used to stage RPLNs in IRS-IV and was most notable for adolescents (>10 years of age). Overall, 3-year FFS was 92% for patients treated on IRS-III and 86% for those treated on IRS-IV (P =.10), whereas survival estimates were 96% and 92%, respectively (P =.30). Adolescents were at higher risk of RPLN relapse than were children (<10 years of age) and their FFS and survival were worse, regardless of IRS protocol. Furthermore, adolescents with recognized group II tumors experienced better 3-year FFS than those with group I tumors on IRS-IV (100% versus 68%, P =.06), most likely as a result of receiving radiotherapy and intensified chemotherapy.",
"Category 1 guidelines emphasize multimodality therapy (MMT) for patients with gastric cardia cancer (GCC). These patients are often referred to thoracic surgeons for \"esophagogastric junction\" cancers rather than to abdominal surgeons for \"proximal gastric\" cancers. This study sought to determine the ideal surgical approach using national datasets evaluating morbidity/mortality (M/M) and overall survival (OS). Patients with resected GCC were identified from the 2005 to 2012 ACS-NSQIP dataset and the 1998 to 2010 SEER dataset. Multivariate 30-day M/M analyses were performed using NSQIP. Survival analyses were derived from SEER and stratified by surgical approach. There were 1,181 NSQIP patients with GCC included; 81.8% had esophagectomies and 18.1% had gastrectomies. Major postoperative M/M occurred in 33.2%/3.7% patients after gastrectomy vs 35.0%/2.4% after esophagectomy (p = 0.260). Although a major postoperative complication (odds ratio 12.8, p<0.001) was an independent predictor of mortality on multivariate analysis, surgical approach was not. Of the 3,815 SEER patients included, 71.1% had esophagectomies and 28.9% had gastrectomies. Radiation use (surrogate for MMT) was administered more often with esophagectomy vs gastrectomy (42.9% vs 29.6%, p<0.001). Unadjusted median overall survival (OS) favored esophagectomy (26.0 vs 21.0 months, p = 0.025). However, multivariate analysis confirmed age (hazard ratio [HR] 1.01), T/N stages (HR 1.12/1.91), and radiation use (HR 0.83, all p ≤ 0.018), but not surgical approach (HR 0.95, p = 0.259), as independent predictors of OS.",
"For distant metastatic (M1) gastric adenocarcinoma, a policy to maximally avoid resection of the primary tumor is safe and efficacious. Cohort study. Academic tertiary care center. Sixty-seven (32%) of 211 consecutive patients with adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction had synchronous M1 disease on computed tomography or laparoscopy. Sixty-three patients with M1 disease were treated nonoperatively, and complete data sets were available for 40 men and 15 women (median age, 73 years). Pretreatment functional performance status was good in 67%. The primary tumor was at the gastroesophageal junction in 20% and was poorly differentiated in 60%. The M1 disease involved the peritoneum in 80% or was exclusively nonperitoneal in 20%. Systemic chemotherapy was administered to 67%. Incidence of subsequent invasive intervention for primary tumor-related complications and survival in 55 nonoperatively managed patients with M1 disease. Fourteen patients (25%) had intervention a median of 5 months after diagnosis. Eight patients had more than 1 intervention. Intervention was for gastric obstruction (20%), bleeding (7%), or perforation (2%). No patient underwent gastrectomy. Laparotomy was performed in 9%; the remainder had endoscopic or radiologic procedures or radiotherapy. There was no intervention-related mortality. Median survival was 7 months (95% confidence interval, 4-10 months). In Cox regression univariate analysis, good functional performance status, exclusively nonperitoneal metastasis, nonpoor differentiation, and chemotherapy predicted significantly longer survival; chemotherapy was the only independently significant predictive factor.",
"To evaluate whether the ratio between the number of metastatic lymph nodes and the number of total removed lymph nodes (MLR) is related survival in patients with locally advanced (stage 3) gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy. We included 179 patients with locally advanced lymph node-positive gastric cancer treated chemo-radiotherapy within this study. The cut-off values, area under curve (AUC), sensitivity, and specificity were calculated using the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve technique for MLR. The sensitivity and specificity of MLR for mortality were 71.54% and 51.79%, respectively, when the cutoff level was accepted as the ratio ≥ 0.3. The AUC for the predictive value of MLR with regard to mortality was 0.609 (95% confidence interval [CI]: 0.533-0.681, p: 0.0135). Overall survival rates were significantly lower in patients with high MLR than in those with low MLR (15 months vs. 35 months, p: 0.002, respectively). In multivariate analysis, overall survival rates were significantly associated with MLR status (low or high).",
"The objective was to analyze locoregional (LR) failure patterns in patients with head-and-neck cancer (HNC) treated using intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT) with whole salivary gland-sparing: parotid (PG), submandibular (SMG), and accessory salivary glands represented by the oral cavity (OC). Seventy consecutive patients with Stage I-II (23%) or III/IV (77%) HNC treated by definitive IMRT were included. For all LR failure patients, the FDG-PET and CT scans documenting recurrence were rigidly registered to the initial treatment planning CT. Failure volumes (Vf) were delineated based on clinical, radiological, and histological data. The percentage of Vf covered by 95% of the prescription isodose (Vf-V95) was analyzed. Failures were classified as \"in-field\" if Vf-V95 ≥ 95%, \"marginal\" if 20% < Vf-V95 < 95%, and \"out-of-field\" if Vf-V95 ≤20%. Correlation between Vf-V95 and mean doses (Dmean) in the PG, SMG, and OC was assessed using Spearman's rank-order correlation test. The salivary gland dose impact on the LR recurrence risk was assessed by Cox analysis. The median follow-up was 20 months (6-35). Contralateral and ipsilateral PGs were spared in 98% and 54% of patients, respectively, and contralateral and ipsilateral SMG in 26% and 7%, respectively. The OC was spared to a dose ≤40 Gy in 26 patients (37%). The 2-year LR control rate was 76.5%. One recurrence was \"marginal\", and 12 were \"in-field\". No recurrence was observed in vicinity of spared structures. Vf-V95 was not significantly correlated with Dmean in PG, SMG, and OC. The LR recurrence risk was not increased by lower Dmean in the salivary glands, but by T (p = 0.04) and N stages (p = 0.03).",
"To date, no study has compared laparoscopy (LB) to percutaneous (PB) biopsy for the diagnosis of abdominal lymphoma. The objective of this study is to compare the success rate and safety profile of laparoscopic lymph node biopsy to the percutaneous approach in patients with intra-abdominal lymphadenopathy concerning for lymphoma. We performed a multi-institution, retrospective review of patients undergoing lymph node biopsy for suspected intra-abdominal lymphoma between 2005 and 2013. Our primary outcome was adequate tissue yield between the two techniques, both for histologic diagnosis and for ancillary studies such as flow cytometry. Secondary outcomes included 30-day morbidity, 30-day readmission rates, the need for additional lymph node biopsy procedures, and length of stay. All 34 of the LB patients had adequate specimen for histologic diagnosis compared to 92.3% of patients with a PB (p = 0.18). Significantly more patients in the LB group had sufficient tissue for ancillary studies when needed than in the PB group, 95.5 and 68.2%, respectively (p = 0.04). A second biopsy was pursued in 23.1% of failed PB patients, 0% with success on second attempt.",
"To analyze the cause of GI symptoms after pelvic radiotherapy (RT) in a consecutive series of patients with symptoms beginning after RT. A striking lack of evidence is available concerning the optimal treatment for the 50% of patients who develop permanent changes in bowel habits affecting their quality of life after pelvic RT. As a result, in the UK, most such patients are never referred to a gastroenterologist. All diagnoses were prospectively recorded from a consecutive series of patients with symptoms that started after RT and who were referred during a 32-month period to a gastroenterology clinic. Patients either underwent direct access flexible sigmoidoscopy or were investigated in a standard manner by one gastroenterologist after first being seen in the clinic. A total of 265 patients referred from 15 institutions were investigated. They included 90 women (median age, 61.5 years; range, 22-84 years) and 175 men (median age, 70 years; range, 31-85 years). RT had been completed a median of 3 years (range, 0.1-34 years) before the study in the women and 2 years (range, 0-21 years) before in the men. Of the 265 patients, 171 had primary urologic, 78 gynecologic, and 16 GI tumors. The GI symptoms included rectal bleeding in 171, urgency in 82, frequency in 80, tenesmus, discomfort, or pain in 79, fecal incontinence in 79, change in bowel habit in 42, weight loss in 19, vomiting without other obstructive symptoms in 18, steatorrhea in 7, nocturnal defecation in 8, obstructive symptoms in 4, and other in 24. After investigation, significant neoplasia was found in 12%. One-third of all diagnoses were unrelated to the previous RT. More than one-half of the patients had at least two diagnoses. Many of the abnormalities diagnosed were readily treatable. The symptoms were generally unhelpful in predicting the diagnosis, with the exception of pain, which was associated with neoplasia (p<0.001).",
"To evaluate whether varying degrees of seminomatous elements in the primary orchiectomy specimen would be predictive of patient morbidity during post-chemotherapy retroperitoneal lymph node dissection (PC-RPLND) since the desmoplastic reaction with seminoma is associated with increased intraoperative complexity. We retrospectively identified 127 patients who underwent PC-RPLND for residual retroperitoneal masses. Clinicodemographic, intraoperative, and 30 day postoperative outcomes were compared for patients with pure seminoma (SEM), mixed germ cell tumors (GCT) containing seminoma elements (NS+SEM), and tumors with no seminoma elements (NS). Multivariate logistic regression was used to determine independent predictors of intraoperative and postoperative 30 day complications. We excluded 19 patients who received chemotherapy prior to orchiectomy, 2 patients with primary extragonadal GCT, and 3 patients who underwent re-do RPLND, leaving 103 patients for analysis. Fourteen patients (13.6%) had SEM, 18 (17.5%) had NS+SEM, and 71 (68.9%) had only NS elements. SEM patients were older (p = 0.03), had more intraoperative blood loss (p = 0.03), and were more likely to have residual seminomatous components in their post-chemotherapy lymph node (LN) histology (p = 0.01). Percent seminoma in the orchiectomy specimen was an independent predictor of estimated blood loss>1.5 liters (odds ratio: 1.04, 95% confidence interval: 1.01-1.07; p = 0.013) after adjusting for age, stage, IGCCC risk category, preop chemotherapy, number and largest LN removed, need for vascular or adjacent organ resection (including nephrectomy), and LN histology.",
"Low total lymphocyte count (TLC) and lymphocyte-to-neutrophil ratio have been found to be poor prognostic indicators in several different tumor types at various stages. Although immune-based therapies are under rapid development, it is not known whether baseline complete blood counts, particularly lymphocytes, are associated with the clinical outcomes of patients receiving immunotherapies. We performed a retrospective analysis of complete blood count for 59 patients enrolled onto a phase II trial evaluating the integration of an adjuvant immunotherapy-irradiated granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) secreting allogeneic pancreatic tumor vaccine (GVAX)-with standard chemoradiation. After adjusting for nodal status, individuals with a TLC of <1,500 cells/mm(3) (10 patients) had significantly higher risk, both in terms of overall survival (OS) [adjusted hazard ratio 2.63, 95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.22-5.67, p = 0.013] and progression-free survival (adjusted hazard ratio 3.07, 95 % CI 1.03-6.93, p = 0.003), compared to those with a TLC of ≤ 1,500 cells/mm(3) (49 patients). Adjuvant chemoradiation significantly reduced lymphocyte counts from baseline values. Patients with suppression of their lymphocytes to <500 cells/mm(3) after chemoradiation also had shorter disease-free and OS.",
"Relative to combined breast and local lymph node irradiation, isolated breast irradiation does not appear to be associated with a higher risk of locoregional relapse or death among cN0 to cN2 breast cancer patients with pN0 status after NAC. These results need to be confirmed in a prospective study.",
"Resection of distal pancreas and/or spleen plus total gastrectomy for advanced gastric cancer is associated to a greater number of isolated lymph nodes, but do not improve the survival of patients.",
"To evaluate the inguinal nodal failure rate in patients with locally advanced rectal cancer with anal canal involvement (ACI) treated with pelvic chemoradiation without elective inguinal irradiation. From 1990 and 1998, 536 patients received preoperative or postoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer with curative intent; 186 patients had ACI (<4 cm from the anal verge on rigid proctoscopy). Two patients had positive inguinal nodes at presentation. Chemoradiation was delivered preoperatively (45 Gy in 25 fraction) or postoperatively (53 Gy in 29 fractions) with concurrent continuous infusion of 5-fluorouracil (300 mg/m2/d). The inguinal region was specifically irradiated in only 2 patients who had documented inguinal nodal disease. The median follow-up was 50 months. Only 6 of 184 ACI patients who had clinically negative inguinal nodes at presentation developed inguinal nodal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate 4%); 4 of the 6 cases were isolated. Two patients underwent successful salvage. Only 1 died of uncontrolled groin disease. Local control was achieved in both patients with inguinal nodal disease at presentation, but both died of metastatic disease. Only 3 patients with tumors >4 cm from the verge developed inguinal recurrence (5-year actuarial rate <1%).",
"Extended chemoradiation therapy with additional chemotherapy cycles and 54 Gy of radiation may result in over 50% of sustained (>12 months) complete clinical response rates that may ultimately avoid radical rectal resection. Local failures occur more frequently during the initial 12 months of follow-up in up to 17% of cases, whereas late recurrences are less common but still possible, leading to 50% of patients who never required surgery. Strict follow-up may allow salvage therapy in the majority of these patients (see Video, Supplemental Digital Content 1, http://links.lww.com/DCR/A113.).",
"We analyzed whether axillary nodal irradiation could control clinically node-negative disease, including those patients with a positive sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), most of whom received regional nodal irradiation. We also evaluated toxicity profiles that resulted from nodal irradiation. From 1988 to 2011, 2107 patients with cT1-T2N0M0 breast cancer underwent breast conservation therapy in the absence of axillary dissection: nx group (n = 1548), without any axillary surgery; the sn(-) group (n = 518), with a negative SLNB; and sn(+) group (n = 104), with a positive SLNB. The median follow-up times were 88, 56, and 55 months for the nx, sn(-), and sn(+) groups, respectively. The nx group had more risk factors than did the other 2 groups in terms of age, grade, or T stage. Ninety-eight percent of the sn(-)group received only tangent irradiation, and 100% and 83% of the sn(+) and nx group, respectively, received additional regional nodal irradiation. The 5-year cumulative incidences of axillary failure and regional nodal failure were 34, 3, and 0 (2.7%, 0.7%, and 0%; P = .02, log-rank test) and 57, 4, and 0 (4.4, 1%, and 0; P = .04), respectively. Overall survival rates in 5 years were 96.4%, 98.9%, and 97.6% (P = .03), respectively. Symptomatic but transient radiation pneumonitis developed in 31, 16, and 6 (2.0%, 3.1%, and 5.7%). Mild arm edema was observed in 1, 4, and 0 (0.06%, 0.8%, and 0%) in the nx, sn(-), sn(+) groups, respectively.",
"Malignant nodes in patients with localized esophageal adenocarcinoma (L-EAC) portend a poor prognosis. We assessed the correlation of the distribution of nodes with the outcome of patients undergoing chemoradiation/surgery (trimodality therapy). We studied 209 L-EAC patients who had confirmed or suspicious nodes at baseline staging. All patients received trimodality therapy and were grouped according to the nodal geography: above the diaphragm (AD), below the diaphragm (BD), or above and below the diaphragm (ABD). Survival estimates were calculated using the Kaplan-Meier method, and the outcomes of the groups were assessed by the log-rank test. Patients were primarily Caucasian (91%) and male (93%), with a baseline stage III L-EAC (89%). The median follow-up was 2.8 years (range, 0.4-11.7). Of the 209 patients, 35% (n = 73) had AD nodes, 20% (n = 41) had BD nodes, and 45% (n = 95) had ABD nodes. ABD patients had a 5-year overall survival rate of 33%, whereas this rate was 55% in AD patients and 60% in BD patients (p = 0.02). Patients with a higher histology grade were also at a higher risk of relapse and had a poor survival (p < 0.01 for both).",
"A North American phase III trial has recently shown that postoperative chemoradiotherapy using the FUFOL Mayo Clinic regimen improves overall survival and relapse-free survival after surgical resection of gastric cancer. However, severe grade 3-4, hematologic and gastrointestinal toxicities were frequent. The aim of this retrospective and multicentric study was to determine the tolerance of a postoperative chemoradiotherapy regimen using LV5FU2 instead of the Mayo Clinic regimen. Twenty-three patients with resected adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction at high risk of recurrence were treated with LV5FU2 chemotherapy and radiotherapy (45 Gy in 25 fractions and 5 weeks) delivered to the tumor bed and regional nodes. Nineteen patients were treated with two to four cycles before radiotherapy, then three cycles during radiotherapy, and finally four cycles after radiotherapy; four patients were only given three cycles during radiotherapy. Of the 23 patients assigned to this protocol, 20 completed treatment (87%). There was only one interruption of treatment because of hematologic or gastrointestinal toxicity. Tolerance of LV5FU2 regimen associated with radiotherapy was excellent: one grade 3 or 4 gastrointestinal toxicity (4.3%), no toxic death, and only one grade 3 neutropenia (4.3%) were reported.",
"yes. Reduced lymph node yield after preoperative chemoradiation for rectal cancer does not indicate inadequate oncologic surgery. It may represent good treatment response and better prognosis, especially in patients with good pathologic tumor regression after chemoradiation.",
"yes. The independent prognostic factors in the current study suggest that either the M. D. Anderson tumor score system or the IPI can be used to select which aggressive lymphoma patients are at high risk for disease recurrence based on their having more than two adverse factors and who consequently are candidates for more intensive frontline therapy. Involved-field radiotherapy should be considered in those patients with bulky lymphomas.",
"Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) accounts for approximately 80-85% of all lung cancers, especially in patients 70 years old or more. In this study, we investigated the efficacy and safety of involved-field radiotherapy (IFRT) for patients 70 years old or more with early stage NSCLC. We conducted a multicenter prospective study in elderly patients with NSCLC treated with intensity-modulated radiotherapy (IMRT). From January 1999 to December 2001, 80 patients with medically inoperable or refused surgery early stage (I/II) NSCLC were eligible for toxicity and treatment response analysis. IMRT plans were designed to deliver 66.6 Gy to involved-field that included only the primary tumor and clinically enlarged lymph nodes using six equidistant coplanar 6-MV beams. Elective nodal failure (ENF) was defined as a recurrence in an initially uninvolved lymph node in the absence of local failure. The objective response rate of all patients was 88.6% with a median overall survival (OS) time of 38 months and the 1-, 2- and 5-year OS rates and local progression-free survival (LPFS) rates were 65.8%, 55.7%, 25.3% and 84.8%, 59.5%, 34.2%, respectively. The medians OS time for patients with gross tumor volume (GTV) >100.8 cm3 and GTV < or =100.8 cm3 were 13 and 50 months, respectively (p=0.0001). Only 29 patients (36.7%) with ENF were identified, with a median time to treatment failure of 55 months (range, 49-61 months) after treatment. There were no treatment-related deaths or grade 4 toxicity. Grade 3 toxicities were esophagitis (1.3%), radiation pneumonitis (3.8%) and hematological effects (2.5%).",
"The objective of our study was to demonstrate differences in relapse rates, total survival times, and complication rates between inguinofemoral radiation and its absence in cases of invasive vulvar carcinoma without lymph node involvement (FIGO Stages T1, N0-1). From 1974 to 1990, 135 patients with invasive vulvar carcinoma in Stage T1 without clinical evidence of inguinal lymph node involvement underwent simple vulvectomy performed by hot-knife resection without lymphadenectomy. Although 65 patients (Group 1) received postoperative inguinofemoral radiation therapy, 70 patients (Group 2) did not, and none received local vulva irradiation. The 5-year survival rates were 93.7% in Group 1 and 91.4% in Group 2 (p = NS). Although clitoris involvement was significantly more prevalent in the irradiation group (p = 0.04), inguinal relapse was found less frequently in Group 1 (4.6% or 3 out of 65 patients) than in group 2 (10% or 7 out of 70 patients) (p = 0.32). The complication rates were, 7.7% in Group 1 and 2.9% in Group 2, 2.7% for vaginal stenosis (two patients in each group), 1.5% for inguinal pain (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for rectovaginal fistula (one patient in Group 1), 1.5% for vulvar infection (one patient in Group 1).",
"A subset of patients with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) with clinical stage I or IE at presentation is left without other NHL localizations following surgery performed for diagnostic histology, and thus without any target lesion to judge the immediate effectiveness of immediately applied additional treatment modalities. Since 1988 we have adopted in this single centre, prospective non-randomized study, a watch-and-wait policy for such patients, who in addition had to have non-bulky disease, normal LDH levels, no 'B' symptoms and no Burkitt, lymphoblastic and cutaneous T-cell histology. Up to 1993 we have observed 50 consecutive cases. Patients were regularly followed with the endpoint to determine the relapse-free interval and overall survival. NHL relapses were treated, either with locoregional radiotherapy, or with chemotherapy, or both. The median observation time is at the moment 53.5+ months (range 6-106+). The initial NHL localizations were: a solitary cervical or auxillary lymph node in 18 patients, inguinal or scarpal lymph node in eight, tonsil in 12 and skin/subcutis in 12 (B-cell NHL only for skin/subcutis). Nine patients had low, 15 intermediate, and 26 high-grade histology. Within the observation period NHL relapses occurred in 10/50 patients (20 per cent). At the moment 46/50 patients (92 per cent) are alive and NHL free. The estimated 9-year freedom from relapse is 79 per cent and overall survival 92 per cent, and for 41 patients with intermediate/high-grade histologies 80 per cent and 95 per cent respectively.",
"Treatment results were reviewed in a retrospective analysis and compared with literature data. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse and overall survival were identified. We analyzed the history of 183 patients treated for Hodgkin's disease between 1977 and 1989 at the Department of Radiation Therapy at the University of Würzburg. There were 100 males and 83 females between 16 and 86 years of age. 70.5% of patients presented with early stage Hodgkin's disease (23.5% stage I and 47.0% stage II) and 29.5% had advanced stages (25.1% stage III and 4.4% stage IV). All patients were treated initially with radiotherapy, 114 had radiotherapy alone and 69 patients received combined modality treatment. Hundred and sixty-one patients (88.0%) reached a complete remission. Freedom from relapse was 73.7% at 5 years and 70.3% at 10 years for these patients, overall survival was 74.3% and 62.8% at 5 and 10 years for all patients. Prognostic factors for freedom from relapse were stage IV, B symptoms, age greater than 35 years and more than 3 involved lymph node regions. These factors also were relevant for overall survival, in addition mixed cellularity or lymphocyte depleted subtype, high erythrocyte sedimentation rate, failure to achieve a complete remission following initial treatment and relapse of Hodgkin's disease were identified as negative prognostic factors. Laparotomy staged patients who received radiotherapy only for stage I and II Hodgkin's disease had better outcome than clinically staged patients. Our data suggest that adequate therapy is able to reduce the impact of unfavourable prognostic factors. The outcome for patients with bulky mediastinal disease was similar to that in patients without a mediastinal mass.",
"To determine whether baseline hemoglobin level and radiation treatment interruptions predict for loco-regional failure after intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with concurrent chemotherapy for definitive treatment of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN). This retrospective review identified 78 consecutive patients treated with definitive concurrent chemoradiation for SCCHN. Patients were treated with IMRT to 70 Gy in 35 daily fractions to the high-dose target volume and 56 Gy to the elective target volume. Median age of the cohort was 62 (37-81). Median follow-up was 12 months. Tumor sites included: oropharynx (54%), larynx (36%), oral cavity (5%), and hypopharynx (5%). Fifteen of 78 patients (19%) experienced loco-regional failure. These included: 6 primary site failures, 5 regional failures, and 4 failures in both the primary site and regional lymph nodes. All but one failure occurred in the high-dose target volume. Only duration of radiation treatment and baseline hemoglobin levels were significant predictors of local control. Loco-regional failure occurred in 6 of 13 patients (46%) with radiation treatment interruptions (>1 week) versus 9 of 65 patients (14%) completing radiation therapy without interruption (P = 0.0148). Loco-regional failure occurred in 7 of 19 patients (37%) whose pretreatment hemoglobin level was <12 g/dL compared with 8 of 59 patients (14%) with hemoglobin levels > or = 12 (P = 0.042).",
"Surgery alone with adequate nodal evaluation may have a role in low-risk gastric cancer. To corroborate these findings, surgery with adequate lymphadenectomy alone (as treatment arm) deserves consideration in the design of gastric cancer trials to provide effective yet resource-conserving, rather than maximally tolerated, treatments.",
"The objective of this study is to ascertain whether omission of lymphadenectomy is possible when endometrial cancer is considered low-risk based on intraoperative pathologic indicators. A total of 128 patients were deemed to be low-risk based on intraoperative evaluation, including frozen-section determination of grade and myometrial invasion. We divided these 128 patients into 2 groups, the total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (TAH-BSO) with lymphadenectomy (LA group, n=68) and the TAH-BSO without lymphadenectomy (non-LA group, n=60) group. The only adjuvant treatment used was chemotherapy, and the decision to use chemotherapy was based on stage, grade, or lymphovascular space involvement. A retrospective review of the medical records was performed, and disease-free survival (DFS), overall survival (OS), operative time, estimated blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement, incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema and post-operative deep vein thrombosis were evaluated. The 5-year DFS and OS rates were 95.6% and 98.5% in the LA group, and 98.3% and 98.3% in the non-LA group, respectively, and were not significantly different. In the LA group, pelvic lymph node metastasis was observed in only 1 case. In the LA group, blood loss during operation, percentage of transfusion requirement and the incidence of post-operative leg lymphedema were significantly higher than those in the non-LA group.",
"To describe the clinical presentation, treatment technique, outcome and complications in a large single institutional experience using radiotherapy for treatment of orbital lymphoma. Twenty-five patients with lymphoma of the orbit or ocular adnexa were treated with radiotherapy at Stanford University Medical Center during the fourteen year period, 1977-1991. Patients were staged using the Ann Arbor criteria with chest x-ray, computerized tomography of abdomen and orbits, lymphangiogram, and bone marrow biopsy. Patients with disease localized to the orbits as well as those with disseminated disease and symptomatic orbital lesions were treated. Thirty-one involved eyes were treated. Mean radiotherapy dose was 35.3 Gy, with a range of 28 Gy to 40.2 Gy. Lens protection was used in all cases. Two patients with diffuse large cell lymphoma also received chemotherapy as part of their initial treatment. Follow-up ranged from 10 months to 13 years, with a mean follow-up time of 4 years. Twenty patients had disease confined to one or both orbits (Stage I). One patient had a monoclonal atypical infiltrate, while the remainder had a histologic diagnosis of malignant lymphoma: diffuse small lymphocytic, 13; follicular mixed, 3; diffuse small cleaved, 3; diffuse large cell, 2; follicular small cleaved, 1; follicular and diffuse small cleaved, 1; undifferentiated, 1. Two local relapses occurred; the actuarial 5-year freedom from local relapse is 89%. Actuarial 5-year freedom from distant relapse, freedom from any relapse and overall survival are 77%, 70%, and 93%, respectively. Acute complications of treatment were mild. Late complications included transient cystoid macular edema (one patient), asymptomatic subcapsular and medial sector cataract formation (two patients), retinopathy (two patients), mild eyelid retraction (one patient), and dry eye with secondary conjunctivitis (one patient).",
"To investigate whether a dose reduction to CT-enlarged but FDG-PET-negative (([(18)F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose positron emission tomography) inguinal lymph nodes in radiochemotherapy of anal cancer is safe. 39 sequential patients with anal cancer (mean age 59 years [range: 37-86 years], median follow-up 26 months [range: 3-51 months]) receiving pretherapeutic FDG-PET were included. All patients were treated with combined radiochemotherapy including elective radiation of the inguinal lymph nodes with 36 Gy. In case of involvement (FDG-PET positivity defined as normalized SUV [standard uptake value] above Delta>2.5 higher than blood pool), radiation dose was increased up to 50-54 Gy. Planning CT and PET results were compared for detectability and localization of lymph nodes. In addition, local control and freedom from metastases were analyzed regarding the lymph node status as determined by FDG-PET. In the planning CTs, a total of 162 inguinal lymph nodes were detected with 16 in nine patients being suspicious. Only three of these lymph nodes in three patients were PET-positive receiving 50.4-54 Gy, whereas all other patients only received elective inguinal nodal irradiation. No recurrence in inguinal lymph nodes occurred, especially not in patients with CT-enlarged inguinal lymph nodes and elective irradiation only. Patients with PET-positive nodal disease had a higher risk of developing distant metastases (p = 0.045).",
"In comparison with historical controls, postoperative tumor bed irradiation improves local control for some subsets of patients. In addition to standard 5-fluorouracil-based chemotherapy, adjuvant tumor bed irradiation should be considered when colon cancers invade adjoining structures, when they are complicated by perforation or fistulas, or when they are incompletely excised at the primary site.",
"The objective of this study was to evaluate how the administration of different adjuvant therapies influences the risk for developing recurrences in the para-aortic area in endometrial cancer (EC) with positive pelvic and unknown para-aortic nodes. We retrospectively evaluated the data of 58 patients with EC affected by stage IIIC1 who had undergone pelvic but not para-aortic lymphadenectomy from January 1, 1990 to December 31, 2011. Survival outcomes within the first 5 years after surgery were assessed using the Kaplan-Meier model. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy, chemotherapy only, and external radiotherapy only were administered in 12 (23%), 18 (34%), and 23 (43%) patients, respectively. Five (9%) patients, who were selected to forego adjuvant therapy due to poor performance status, were excluded from the analysis. Disease-free and overall survivals assessed at 5 years were 54%, and 61%, respectively. All para-aortic recurrences were observed among the patients with endometrioid EC, whereas no cases of para-aortic recurrences were found in patients with nonendometrioid histology (5/36 (14%) vs 0/17 (0%); P = 0.16); the latter were more likely to develop distant (hematogenous, peritoneal, and distant lymphatic) recurrences (P = 0.09). Type of adjuvant therapy was the only factor influencing para-aortic failure: chemotherapy (± radiotherapy) reduced the rate of para-aortic node recurrence in comparison with pelvic radiotherapy as a sole modality (P = 0.01). However, adjuvant therapy did not influence the 5-year survival outcomes (P > 0.05).",
"The gastrointestinal tract is the most common site of primary extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and the prognostic factors of primary gastric diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (PG-DLBCL) differ in various studies. We retrospectively searched for PG-DLBCL in a single institution, performed immunohistochemical analysis, classified tumor phenotype (Hans and Muris algorithms), reviewed medical records, and analyzed the clinical and immunophenotypic variables using Cox proportional hazard regression model. A total of 46 cases were identified including 25 males and 21 females with a median age of 63.5; 18 (39%) were at stage I and 28 (61%) at stage II. Seven (15%) patients underwent surgery as initial treatment including total (n = 3, 7%) and subtotal (n = 4, 9%) gastrectomy. Thirty-three patients (72%) received frontline chemotherapy treatment including ten with additional rituximab (MabThera) injection, and two (6%) of these patients developed perforation after chemotherapy. Four patients passed away shortly after diagnosis and the remaining three were lost to follow-up. The overall 2- and 5- year survival rates were 55% and 50%, respectively. The expression of various differentiation markers was CD10 (25%), bcl-2 (50%), bcl-6 (84%), and MUM1 (64%). Half of the cases studied (22/44) were classified as germinal center B-cell (GCB) phenotype and the remaining half as non-GCB according to Hans algorithm; 66% and 34% cases belonged to groups 1 and 2, respectively, according to Muris algorithm. Univariate analysis showed the expression of bcl-6 by the tumor cells as a favorable factor, while elevated serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level, bcl-2 expression, and Muris group 2 were associated with poorer outcome. Multivariate analysis revealed that the two prognostic factors were bcl-6 expression and elevated LDH level, with hazard ratios of 0.09 (p = 0.002) and 3.72 (p = 0.024), respectively.",
"To evaluate volume effect of small bowel for diarrhea during pelvic irradiation in gynecologic patients with or without prior abdomen operation. From January 1996 through December 2003, 759 patients undergoing 4-field pelvic irradiation for cervical or uterine cancer were analyzed. Whole pelvic (WP), modified whole pelvic (MWP), or lower pelvic (LP) irradiation were delivered initially. According to contrast medium within small bowel in simulation films, we categorized the small-bowel volume of full dose related to WP fields as small-volume and large-volume groups. We recorded the severity of diarrhea until 39.6 Gy/22 fractions of pelvic irradiation. The actuarial rates of overall and moderate to severe diarrhea were compared among different groups. Significantly more large-volume distribution (85%) was noted in patients>60 years without prior operation (P<0.001). Large-volume distribution was 53%, 65%, and 82% in post-operative patients with no diarrhea, mild diarrhea, and moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.002), respectively. The corresponding rate was 79%, 77%, and 80% in patients without prior abdomen operation (P = 0.869). In multivariate analysis, prior operation with LP fields (P = 0.005) and prior operation with small volume (P = 0.031) were significantly protective factors for overall diarrhea. The latter was also a protective factor for moderate to severe diarrhea (P = 0.026). Prior operation could diminish overall diarrhea in patients without simultaneous large-field (WP or MWP) and large-volume. Large volume was a significant factor of overall (P = 0.014) and moderate to severe (P = 0.004) diarrhea in large-field patients with operation. The volume effect did not exist in those patients without operation.",
"Both surgical and conservative treatment strategies offer an excellent outcome to patients with gastric lymphoma. No comparison of surgical resection with primary radiation or chemotherapy on a prospective randomised basis was available up to now. The aim of this study was to compare surgery with radiation and surgery plus chemotherapy with chemotherapy alone in patients with marginal zone B-cell lymphoma (MZBCL) of MALT and diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), respectively, with respect to long-term outcome and quality of life. 49 patients [21 male and 28 female; age 65 (35 - 75) years] with newly diagnosed MZBCL of MALT (n = 19) and DLBCL (n = 30) of stage I and II were recruited. Outcome was evaluated after a follow-up of 74 (7 - 102) months and quality of life was measured using the SF-36 health survey and the gastrointestinal life quality index (GLQI). Complete remission rates in MZBCL of MALT were 88 % and 89 % in patients treated by surgery or radiotherapy, respectively. The corresponding rates for patients with DLBCL were 93 % following surgery plus chemotherapy and 92 % after chemotherapy alone, respectively. The results in the different treatment groups did not differ significantly. Posttherapeutic quality of life was generally high with a significant advantage for patients treated conservatively compared to those who underwent surgery.",
"yes. Adequate lymph node dissection and pathologic staging is critical in directing optimal treatment of patients with early gastric cancer. Understaging as a result of suboptimal lymphadenectomy may explain the perceived benefit of adjuvant chemoradiation after an R0 resection for T2N0 gastric cancer.",
"We implemented a peer review program that required presentation of all nonpalliative cases to a weekly peer review conference. The purpose of this review is to document compliance and determine how this program impacted care. A total of 2988 patients were eligible for peer review. Patient data were presented to a group of physicians, physicists, and dosimetrists, and the radiation therapy plan was reviewed. Details of changes made were documented within a quality assurance note dictated after discussion. Changes recommended by the peer review process were categorized as changes to radiation dose, target, or major changes. Breast cancer accounted for 47.9% of all cases, followed in frequency by head-and-neck (14.8%), gastrointestinal (9.9%), genitourinary (9.3%), and thoracic (6.7%) malignancies. Of the 2988 eligible patients, 158 (5.3%) were not presented for peer review. The number of missed presentations decreased over time; 2007, 8.2%; 2008, 5.7%; 2009, 3.8%; and 2010, 2.7% (P < .001). The reason for a missed presentation was unknown but varied by disease site and physician. Of the 2830 cases presented for peer review, a change was recommended in 346 cases (12.2%) and categorized as a dose change in 28.3%, a target change in 69.1%, and a major treatment change in 2.6%. When examined by year of treatment the number of changes recommended decreased over time: 2007, 16.5%; 2008, 11.5%; 2009, 12.5%; and 2010, 7.8% (P < .001). The number of changes recommended varied by disease site and physician. The head-and-neck, gynecologic, and gastrointestinal malignancies accounted for the majority of changes made.",
"Chemoradiation (CRT) is the standard of care in patients with node-positive (cN+) and node-negative (cN0) anal cancer. Depending on the tumor size (T-stage), total doses of 50-60 Gray (Gy) in daily fractions of 1.8-2.0 Gy are usually applied to the tumor site. Inguinal and iliac lymph nodes usually receive a dose of ≥ 45 Gy. Since 2010, our policy has been to apply a reduced total dose of 39.6 Gy to uninvolved nodal regions. This paper provides preliminary results of the efficacy and safety of this protocol. Overall, 30 patients with histologically confirmed and node-negative anal cancer were treated in our department from 2009-2014 with definitive CRT. Histology all cases showed squamous cell carcinoma. A total dose of 39.6 Gy [single dose (SD) 1.8 Gy] was delivered to the iliac/inguinal lymph nodes. The area of the primary tumor received 50-59.4 Gy, depending on the T-stage. In parallel with the irradiation, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU) at a dose of 1000 mg/m(2) was administered by continuous intravenous infusion over 24 h on days 1-4 and 29-32, and mitomycin C (MMC) at a dose of 10 mg/m(2) (maximum absolute dose 14 mg) was administered on days 1 and 29. The distribution of the tumor stages was as follows: T1, n = 8; T2, n = 17; T3 n = 3. Overall survival (OS), local control (LC) of the lymph nodes, colostomy-free survival (CFS), and acute and chronic toxicities were assessed. The median follow-up was 27.3 months (range 2.7-57.4 months). Three patients (10.0 %) died, 2 of cardiopulmonary diseases and one of liver failure, yielding a 3-year OS of 90.0 %. Two patients (6.7 %) relapsed early and received salvage colostomies, yielding a 3-year CFS of 93.3 %. No lymph node relapses were observed, giving a lymph node LC of 100 %. According to the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events Version 4.0 (CTCAE V. 4.0), there were no grade IV gastrointestinal or genitourinary acute toxicities. Seven patients showed acute grade III perineal skin toxicity. Acute grade III groin skin toxicity was not observed.",
"yes. The data show that there are regional differences in the intestinal response to irradiation, depending on whether it was delivered to the whole body or locally to the abdominopelvic region. In particular, the ileum exhibited an acute increase in myeloperoxidase activity following abdominopelvic but not total-body irradiation.",
"Based on the numbers of patients in our study, we could not demonstrate a survival advantage with radiation use. Rather, radiotherapy may be associated with orthopaedic complications occurring during and after treatment. Larger, prospective studies are necessary to definitively establish whether radiation is necessary for the treatment of patients with lymphoma of bone.",
"yes. The primary site and regional lymph node involvement are independent prognostic factors for early-stage ENKTCL treated with chemotherapy followed by definitive radiotherapy.",
"A proper and timely diagnosis of enteropathy-associated lymphoma requires clinical vigilance and unrelentless perseverance to obtain adequate fresh and frozen tissue for histochemical staining. Further research in a larger number of patients is warranted to investigate the relation between the primary site of the lymphoma, i.e. extranodal intestinal, extranodal extraintestinal, or nodal intestinal, and (its impact on) clinical presentation and prognosis.",
"IFRT based on CT scan in our patients resulted in a low rate of INF (4.6%), all in the ipsilateral supraclavicular area; but another four supraclavicular nodal failures with simultaneously distant metastases were also observed. The modern imaging with higher diagnostic capabilities of lymph node especially for supraclavicular area should be incorporated in the assessment of LS-SCLC when IFRT is being contemplated.",
"The benefit of adjuvant therapy following resection of early stage, node-negative gastric adenocarcinoma following a margin negative (R0) resection is unclear. The National Cancer Data Base was used to identify patients with a T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma (tumor invasion into the muscularis propria) who underwent R0 resection. Patients treated with neoadjuvant therapy and those for whom lymph node count was unavailable were excluded from the analysis. Kaplan-Meier and Cox regression were used to evaluate differences in and predictors of overall survival. A total of 1687 patients underwent R0 resection for T2N0 gastric adenocarcinoma between 2003-2011. Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment was administered to 7.1 and 14.1 % received adjuvant chemoradiation; 65.4 % had <15 lymph nodes examined. Multivariate Cox regression identified higher Charlson score, <15 lymph nodes examined, higher tumor grade, and tumor location in the cardia as factors associated with significantly decreased overall survival. With a median follow-up of 36 months, the 5-year overall survival was 71 % for patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined and 53 % for those with <15 lymph nodes (p < 0.001). In patients who had <15 lymph nodes examined, there was an overall survival benefit for adjuvant chemoradiation (hazard ratio 0.71, p = 0.043). In patients with ≥15 lymph nodes examined, no survival benefit for adjuvant therapy was identified (p > 0.74).",
"yes. The majority of failures after definitive radiotherapy for cervical cancer include distant failures, even in the setting of concurrent chemotherapy. PMR within the cervix or lymph nodes is more commonly associated with isolated local recurrence.",
"Postoperative tumor-residual-mass is the most important prognostic factor in epithelial ovarian cancer (EOC). Aim of our study was to define risk factors for incomplete tumor resection in advanced primary EOC.PATIENTS & A validated intraoperative documentation tool (\"Intraoperative-Mapping of Ovarian-Cancer\" = \"IMO\") was applied to systematically evaluate intraabdominal tumor dissemination pattern, maximal tumor load, tumor residuals and operative morbidity for all EOC-patients who underwent primary surgery in our institution during 09/2000-08/2009. Univariate- and multivariate analysis were performed to identify independent risk factors of incomplete tumor resection and operative complications. We evaluated 360 consecutive EOC-patients of FIGO-stage-III/IV. In 221(61%) patients a complete tumor resection could be obtained. In 50(14%) patients tumor residuals were<0.5 cm. Sixty (17%) patients developed a major (14%) complication. Multivariate analysis identified intestinal resection (OR:2.0; 95%CI:1.14-3.4; p = 0.01) and macroscopical tumor residuals (OR:0.5; 95%CI:0.2-1.2; p = 0.05) as independent predictors of major operative morbidity. Tumor dissemination pattern and maximal tumor load were significantly different between tumor-free and not-tumor-free operated patients, with less extrapelvic tumor involvement in the tumor-free group (p<0.001). More than 4 IMO-fields of tumor involvement (OR:3.3; 95%CI:1.5-7.0; p = 0.002) were identified to be of predictive significance for incomplete tumor resection. FIGO-stage, histology, age, CA125-levels, bowel resection and ascites did not affect optimal tumor resectability.",
"Preoperative chemoradiotherapy can lead to pathologic complete response of rectal cancer. This study was designed to determine the relationship between postchemoradiotherapy pathologic T stage (ypT stage) and nodal metastases and to evaluate whether pathologic complete response of the primary tumor results in sterilization of mesorectal lymph nodes. Clinicopathological data from 1997 to 2007 of a prospectively maintained colorectal cancer database were examined. Inclusion criteria were patients with extraperitoneal rectal cancer who underwent preoperative chemoradiotherapy and subsequent radical resection. Statistical analysis was performed by use of Kruskall-Wallis and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests. Two hundred forty-two patients were identified (73.1% male, median age, 57 y (range, 36-85 y)). Data regarding preoperative chemoradiotherapy were available for 177 patients (73.1%). The median dose of radiotherapy was 5040 cGy (3060-6100 cGy). The mean preoperative radiotherapy dose and interval between chemoradiotherapy and surgery are similar when stratified by ypT stage (P = .55 and P = .72, respectively). Low anterior resection was performed in 174 patients (71.6%), and the remainder underwent abdominoperineal resection. A mural pathologic complete response was achieved in 62 patients (25.6%). In this pathologic complete-response group, positive lymph nodes were found in 2 patients (3.2%). The rate of metastatic lymph nodes increased as ypT stage increased (ypT1 = 11.1%, ypT2 = 29.2%, ypT3 = 37.3%).",
"Reduction of the irradiation dose to CT-enlarged but PET-negative inguinal lymph nodes in anal cancer seems not to result in increased failure rates.",
"yes. Carefully planned radiotherapy with lens shielding is an effective and safe treatment in the management of orbital lymphoma. We recommend megavoltage radiation doses of 30-35 Gy in 180-200 cGy fractions for low grade lesions, and 36-40 Gy for intermediate and high grade lesions.",
"There have been conflicting reports regarding the incidence of duodenal toxicity in patients receiving intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) with an extended field covering the para-aortic (PA) lymph nodes for gynecologic cancers. We reviewed our experiences and rates of duodenal toxicity in patients treated with extended field IMRT. Patients with either cervical or endometrial cancer who were treated with IMRT to the PA nodes for involved lymph nodes or for prophylactic intent between 2005 and 2013 were included. For prophylactic intent, the radiation dose to the PA nodes was 45 Gy in 25 fractions. For involved lymph nodes, a boost was delivered to the gross disease with a 0.7-cm expansion, with editing for critical structures. The entire duodenum was retrospectively contoured on all patients from the gastric outlet to the jejunal transition. We identified 76 eligible patients with endometrial and cervical cancer. The PA region was treated prophylactically in 46.1% (n = 35) and for involved PA lymph nodes in 53.9% (n = 41). The duodenum was contoured on all patients with a median volume of 83.2 cm(3) (range, 21.2-174.9 cm(3)). The mean volume of duodenum receiving 55 Gy (V55) for those treated prophylactically and for involved PA nodes was 0 cm(3) and 0.8 cm(3) (range, 0-10.6 cm(3)), respectively (P = .014). Specifically, no patient had a V55>15 cm(3). The mean V40 was 28.3 cm(3) (range, 0-77.3 cm(3)) and 41.4 (range, 0-90.0 cm(3)), respectively (P = .016). The mean dose delivered to 2 cm(3) of the duodenum was 34.9 Gy (range, 0-52.3 Gy) and 50.1 Gy (range, 31.3 - 58.3 Gy), respectively. Grade 3 acute gastrointestinal toxicity was recorded in 3.9% (n = 3) of patients.",
"To determine the reliability of pretherapeutic laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy in cervical cancer as a function of lymph node recurrences according to initial lymph node status: 1) to establish the false negative rate by analyzing lymph node recurrence in patients N-, 2) to verify treatment adequacy in patients N+ by comparing the rate of node recurrence to initial node positivity. Retrospective analysis of a prospectively registered patient database. One hundred and ninety patients treated by a combination of radiotherapy and surgery for cervical cancer stages 1b to 2b in 95% of cases had undergone, from March 1992 to June 2003, a previous laparoscopic pelvic lymphadenectomy. Median follow-up was 40 months (range: 3-126 months). Initial lymph node positivity (N+) was found in 79 patients (42%). Fourteen patients (7.4%) presented with lymph node recurrence, all of whom have died from disease. Lymph node recurrence was found in 4/111 patients N- (3.6%) and in 10/79 patients N+ (12.7%), of whom 8/10 occurred outside the radiation fields.",
"With 5cm supero-inferior margins added to gross tumour volume, less than 3% of patients had an isolated out-field recurrence. However, half of the patients suffered in-field local recurrence and one third had metastases. These findings advocate for a limited prophylactic nodal irradiation. Trials are ongoing to assess dose escalation or surgery in order to increase local control.",
"To describe the results of a series of 63 Western patients presenting with gastric adenocarcinoma and treated with surgery and intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT) over a 8-year period and to discuss the role of IORT when combined with limited lymph node dissection. From 1986 to 1993, 63 patients with gastric adenocarcinoma have been operated in the department of radiation oncology of the Hospices Civils de Lyon. The stage was: I in 17, II in 11, IIIA in 9, IIIB in 20, and IV in 6. The lymph node dissection was considered to be limited in 56 patients and extended in 7. The IORT dose ranged from 12 to 23 Gy (median: 15). Thirty patients also underwent a postoperative external beam irradiation with a standard dose of 44-46 Gy. The postoperative mortality rate was 4.8%. The 5-year overall survival in the entire series was 47% and was 82, 55, 78, 20, and 0% in Stages I, II, IIIA, IIIB, and IV, respectively. Loco-regional relapse occurred in 15 of 63 patients and metastases in 15 of 63.",
"Primary gastric lymphoma (PGL) is the most common site of extra-nodal non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL). In recent years there has been a move away from a surgical approach to primary chemotherapy with or without radiotherapy. Data support this approach, with overall survival rates equivalent or superior to surgery. Concerns have been raised over the incidence of acute chemotherapy complications, primarily gastrointestinal (GI) haemorrhage and perforation. As a result, several units, including our own, have routinely admitted all patients for observation during the commencement of therapy. We conducted an audit to elucidate the incidence and timing of such complications. We used our prospectively recorded lymphoma database to identify all patients with aggressive PGL treated with primary chemotherapy. We examined individual patient notes for the incidence of gastric perforation and GI haemorrhage, defined as a fall in haemoglobin of least 2 g/dl, or the occurrence of haematemesis or malaena. We identified 29 patients with aggressive PGL who received primary systemic chemotherapy. Of these, only two had acute complications, one with GI bleed and the other with perforation. Both events occurred after discharge following our standard inpatient admission period of 5 days (day 13 and day 17).",
"yes. The optimal choice of treatment for patients with early stage Hodgkin's disease--combined modality treatment/radiotherapy alone/chemotherapy alone?--and for patients with advanced stages--consolidation radiotherapy?--remains an unresolved issue and needs further testing in large randomized trials considering acute and late complications. Staging laparotomy may be used only for a small group of patients who would receive radiotherapy alone as definitive treatment. Modifications of therapy clearly reduce the impact of negative prognostic factors.",
"Results of treatment of patients with Stage I seminoma with orchiectomy and radiotherapy are excellent. Even without adjuvant radiotherapy, the relapse rate is only 15-20%; most of the patients fail in the retroperitoneum, with rare failures observed in the pelvis (0.5-2%). In 1991, we began a prospective study evaluating para-aortic lymph node radiation as the only adjuvant treatment for such patients. This paper reports our preliminary results. Between March 1991 and January 1996, 35 patients with histologically proven Stage I seminoma were entered in the study. Median age was 37.9 years (range: 27-65 years). A radical inguinal orchiectomy was performed in all patients. Staging workup consisted of a chest X-ray; B-HCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis in all patients. Lymphangiogram was done in 23 (66%) of 35 patients for further evaluation of the retroperitoneal lymph nodes. Radiotherapy consisted of treatment to the para-aortic region only. Parallel opposed fields extending from the top of T11 to the bottom of L5 were used. The median field size was 8.7 x 21.8 cm (range: 7-11 x 18-26 cm). The median total dose, prescribed at midpoint, was 25 Gy given in 15 daily fractions of 1.66 Gy. Follow-up was performed every 3 months for the first year, every 4-5 months for the second and third years, and every 6 months thereafter. Chest X-ray, tumor markers, and CT scan of the pelvis were performed routinely as part of the follow-up investigation. At a median follow-up of 39.7 months (range: 16-74 months), 34 (97.1%) of 35 patients are alive with no evidence of disease for an overall actuarial survival rate of 97.1% at 5 years and a cause-specific actuarial survival rate of 100%. Treatment morbidity was limited to Grade I-II acute side effects in 18 (51.4%) of 35 patients. No late side effects were seen.",
"yes. We observed only a 4.3% recurrence of any ENF and a 1.7% recurrence of isolated ENF in patients with NSCLC treated with definitive 3D-CRT without prophylactic irradiation of uninvolved lymph node stations. Thus, distant metastasis and IFF remain the primary causes of treatment failure and cancer death in such patients, suggesting little value of ENI in this cohort.",
"To evaluate the impact of preoperative radiation on pouch outcomes in patients with colitis-associated cancer (CAC). CAC patients who underwent restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (IPAA) from 1984 to 2009 were identified from our registry. The impact of preoperative pelvic radiation for CAC or other pelvic cancer on pouch related outcomes was evaluated. Sixty-three pouch patients with confirmed CAC were included (37 male, 58.7%). The mean age at pouch construction was 46.9±10.6 years. Seven patients were excluded due to the presence of persistent diverting ileostomy (n=2) or no follow-up (n=5). The remaining 56 patients were analyzed, including 9 who received pelvic radiation prior to IPAA creation for CRC or other cancers. Preoperative pelvic radiation was significantly associated with chronic pouchitis (P=0.024). There was, however, no correlation between pelvic radiation and pouch/anal transitional zone neoplasia, pouch stricture, pelvic abscess and pouch fistula/sinus. Pouch failure occurred in 13 patients after a median follow-up of 66.4 (range: 2.7-322.2) months. Although a simple statistical analysis based on the number of patients with pouch failure did not achieve significance (4/9 vs. 9/47, P=0.19), Kaplan-Meier analysis showed a strong association between preoperative pelvic radiation and the risk for pouch failure (P<0.001). A subgroup analysis of rectal cancer patients revealed that 3/7 patients (42.9%) with radiation and 3/17 (17.6%) without had pouch failure (P=0.31). Again, the association between pelvic radiation and pouch failure was confirmed using Kaplan-Meier analysis (P=0.02).",
"no. No associated survival benefit for surgery in the treatment in gastrointestinal lymphoma was observed. Determination of lymphoma should preclude surgical resection. Nonetheless, inadvertent extirpative surgery or in association with perforation does not appear to increase mortality.",
"Local-regional failure was seen most in patients who had gross disease at the time of IMRT, almost always occurred outside of the 70 Gy volume and was frequently in the area of oesophageal sparing. Meticulous surgical dissection, especially in the perioesophageal region, should be prioritised to prevent long-term LRF.",
"To examine sites of initial recurrence in patients after resection of gastric and gastroesophageal junction Siewert II/III adenocarcinoma (GA). There are few recent studies on recurrence for Western patients following potentially curative resection of GA. A review of a prospectively maintained, single institution database was performed. Clinicopathologic factors, site(s) of initial recurrence, disease-free survival, and overall survival were examined. From January 2000 to June 2010, 957 patients underwent potentially curative resection for GA, 435 patients (46%) had recurrent disease, and complete data on recurrence site(s) could be obtained in 386 patients. Tumors were Lauren intestinal type in 206 (53%) and diffuse or mixed-type in 180 (47%). Median time to recurrence was 12 months and 75% of recurrences occurred within 2 years. There was a significant difference in pattern of initial recurrence between the intestinal and diffuse/mixed cohorts (P < 0.001). For intestinal tumors, distant metastasis was the most common site (54%), followed by locoregional (20%), peritoneal (15%), and multifocal (11%). For diffuse/mixed tumors, peritoneal recurrence was the most common (37%), followed by distant (32%), locoregional (22%), and multifocal (9%). On multivariate analysis, Lauren histologic type was the only significant factor that was associated with both peritoneal recurrence (diffuse, hazard ratio 2.22, confidence interval 1.38-3.94) and distant recurrence (intestinal, hazard ratio 1.888, confidence interval 1.202-2.966). After recurrence, median overall survival was only 8.4 months.",
"National guidelines endorse adjuvant chemotherapy ± radiotherapy (C ± RT) for early-stage gastric cancer (ESGC). Compliance with these guidelines and the specific impact of adjuvant C ± RT on overall survival (OS) in ESGC have not been extensively explored. The National Cancer Data Base was queried for stage IB-II gastric adenocarcinoma patients undergoing gastrectomy (1998-2011). Multivariable modeling identified factors associated with adjuvant C ± RT receipt and compared risk-adjusted OS by treatment type (i.e., adjuvant therapy versus surgery alone). Of 23,461 ESGC patients (1998-2011), 79.4 % and 20.6 % received surgery alone and adjuvant C ± RT (chemoradiotherapy 17.7 %; chemotherapy alone 2.9 %), respectively. Predictors of adjuvant C ± RT receipt included age <67 years, pathologic nodal positivity, and adequate lymph node staging (LNS; ≥15 nodes examined; all p < 0.001). Survival analyses included 15,748 patients (1998-2006); median, 1-, and 5-year survival were 63.5 months, 86.0 %, and 27.0 % respectively. Omission of adjuvant C ± RT conferred an increased hazard of risk-adjusted mortality in the overall cohort, and stage IB and II subgroups (all p ≤ 0.001). The benefit of adjuvant C ± RT was most pronounced in stage II and node-positive patients-regardless of LNS adequacy (all p < 0.001)-and inadequately staged IB patients (p = 0.003). While associated with a trend toward improved OS in node-negative patients overall (p = 0.051), adjuvant C ± RT did not improve OS if surgical LNS was adequate in this subgroup (p = 0.960).",
"Multiple population-based studies have suggested increasing omission of radiation therapy in favor of alternative treatment strategies in lymphomas, with an associated negative impact on survival. Radiation therapy has long been considered the standard management for many mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphomas. Thus, we aimed to evaluate patterns of treatment utilization and survival. A retrospective analysis based on the National Cancer Database was performed on 22,378 patients with splenic, nodal, or extranodal stage I-II marginal zone lymphoma diagnosed between 1998 and 2012. A logistic regression model was used to assess the association between sociodemographic, tumor, and treatment characteristics and the utilization of radiation therapy. Multivariate propensity score-adjusted Cox proportional hazards models were performed to identify factors independently associated with overall survival (OS). Of 22,378 patients, 82% had stage I disease, 77% had extranodal mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, 5% had splenic marginal zone lymphoma, and 64% were older than 60 years. Radiation therapy utilization decreased from a peak of 39% in 2007 to 33% in 2011 (P < .001), with a corresponding significant increase in systemic therapy utilization. Radiation therapy was associated with a 5- and 10-year OS of 86.7% and 68.8% compared with 78.3% and 54.3% for no radiation therapy (P < .001). On multivariate propensity score-adjusted survival analysis, radiation therapy remained independently associated with improved OS (hazard of death, 0.75; 95% confidence interval, 0.65-0.85; P < .001).",
"Extranodal marginal zone B-cell lymphoma of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT lymphoma) is a distinct lymphoma with unique clinicopathologic features. We report the clinical outcome of stage I and II MALT lymphoma treated with involved field radiation therapy (RT). From 1989 to 2000, 103 patients with stage IE and IIE disease were referred. Their median age was 60 years, with a 2:1 female predominance. Presenting sites were stomach (17 patients), orbital adnexa (31 patients), salivary glands (24 patients), thyroid gland (13 patients), and other sites (18 patients). Ninety-three patients received RT--85 received RT alone, and eight received chemotherapy and RT--with a median dose of 30 Gy. The median follow-up time was 5.1 years. A complete response (CR) to RT alone was achieved in 84 of 85 patients. Among CR patients, 14 experienced relapse. Relapse sites were mostly contralateral paired-organ or distant MALT locations and, infrequently, lymph nodes. The crude local control rate with RT was 95.3% (81 of 85 patients). No relapses were observed in patients with stomach or thyroid lymphoma, whereas 14 of 63 patients (22%) experienced relapse in the other sites. The overall 5-year survival rate was 98%, and the disease-free survival rate was 77%. Transformed lymphoma was observed in 14% of patients (two of 14) experiencing relapse.",
"Chemoradiation is the standard of care for the treatment of anal canal cancer, with surgery reserved for salvage. For tumours with uninvolved inguinal nodes, it is standard to irradiate the inguinal nodes prophylactically, resulting in large field sizes, which contribute to acute and late toxicity. The aim of this single-centre retrospective study was to determine if, in selected cases, prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation could be avoided. Between August 1998 and August 2004, 30 patients with biopsy-proven squamous cell anal canal cancer were treated with chemoradiation using one phase of treatment throughout. A three-field beam arrangement was used without attempting to treat the draining inguinal lymph nodes prophylactically. The radiotherapy dose prescribed was 50Gy in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks. Concomitant chemotherapy was delivered with the radiation using mitomycin-C 7-12mg/m(2) on day 1 and protracted venous infusional 5-fluorouracil 200mg/m(2)/day throughout radiotherapy. All patients had clinically and radiologically uninvolved inguinal and pelvic nodes and all had primary lesions that were T3 or less. The median age at diagnosis was 65 years (range 41-84). The median follow-up was 41 months (range 24-113). The mean posterior field size was 14x15cm and the mean lateral field size was 12x15cm. All patients achieved a complete response. Ninety-four per cent of patients (28/30) were alive and disease free. The two patients who died did so of unrelated causes and were disease free at death. Four patients relapsed and all were salvaged with surgery; two for local disease requiring abdominoperineal resection, one with an inguinal nodal relapse requiring inguinofemoral block dissection and one for metastatic disease to the liver who underwent liver resection.",
"To show that radiotherapy (RT) dose to the noninvolved extended field (EF) can be reduced without loss of efficacy in patients with early-stage Hodgkin's disease (HD). During 1988 to 1994, pathologically staged patients with stage I or II disease who were without risk factors (large mediastinal mass, extranodal lesions, massive splenic disease, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, or three or more involved areas) were recruited from various centers. All patients received 40 Gy total fractionated dose to the involved field areas but were randomly assigned to receive either 40 Gy (arm A) or 30 Gy (arm B) total fractionated dose for the clinically noninvolved EF. No chemotherapy was given. RT films were prospectively reviewed for protocol violations and recurrences retrospectively related to the applied RT. Of 382 recruited patients, 376 were eligible for randomized comparison, 190 in arm A and 186 in arm B. Complete remission was attained in 98% of patients in each arm. With a median follow-up of 86 months, 7-year relapse-free survival (RFS) rates were 78% (arm A) and 83% (arm B) (P =.093). The upper 95% confidence limit for the possible inferiority of arm B in RFS was 4%. Corresponding overall survival rates were 91% (arm A) and 96% (arm B) (P =.16). The most common causes of death (n = 27) were cardiorespiratory disease/pulmonary embolisms (seven), second malignancy (six), and HD (five). Protocol violation was associated with significantly poorer RFS. Nonirradiated nodes were involved in 42 of 52 reviewed relapses, infield areas in 18, marginal areas in 17, and extranodal sites in 16.",
"To evaluate retrospectively the results of radiotherapy for 177 patients with stage I (n = 73 [41%]) and II (n = 104 [59%]) follicular small cleaved-cell and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) treated in the Department of Radiation Oncology, Stanford University between 1961 and 1994. Histology was follicular small cleaved-cell in 101 (57%) cases and follicular mixed small cleaved-cell and large-cell in 76 (43%). Forty-five patients (25%) had staging laparotomy; 34 (19%) had extranodal involvement. All patients had received radiotherapy, either to one side of the diaphragm (involved or extended field) or to both sides (total lymphoid irradiation [TLI] or subtotal lymphoid irradiation [STLI]. Radiotherapy doses ranged from 35 to 50 Gy. The median follow-up duration was 7.7 years. The longest follow-up duration was 31 years. Actuarial survival rates at 5, 10, 15, and 20 years were 82%, 64%, 44%, and 35%, respectively. The median survival time was 13.8 years. At 5, 10, 15, and 20 years, 55%, 44%, 40%, and 37% of patients, respectively, were relapse-free. Only five of 47 patients who reached 10 years without relapse subsequently developed recurrence. Survival and freedom from relapse (FFR) were significantly worse for older patients. Relapse rates were lower following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or staging laparotomy. Univariate analysis showed that youth and staging laparotomy were associated with significantly better survival and that FFR was better following treatment on both sides of the diaphragm or laparotomy.",
"This single-centre retrospective study supports the treatment for selected cases of anal canal cancer with smaller than standard radiation fields, avoiding prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation. Hopefully this will translate into reduced acute and late toxicity. In future studies we would suggest that consideration is given as to whether omission of prophylactic inguinal nodal irradiation for early stage tumours should be explored.",
"yes. Although clinical guidelines endorse radiation therapy as the preferred initial therapy for early-stage nongastric and Helicobacter pylori-negative gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue lymphoma, radiation therapy is underused. Radiation therapy with or without systemic therapy was associated with a significant improvement in OS and should remain standard of care.",
"no. Inguinal nodal failure in rectal cancer patients with ACI treated with neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemoradiation is not high enough to justify routine elective groin irradiation.",
"To evaluate the impact of surgery on gastrointestinal lymphoma. The Surveillance, Epidemiology, and End Results (SEER) database was queried from 1973 to 2005. A total of 17,222 cases of PGIL were identified. The overall incidence of PGIL was approximately 1.505 cases per 100,000. A significantly increasing incidence for PGIL was observed (APC = +4.67, P < 0.05). In the cases for which treatment data was available, resection occurred in roughly half of the patients. In univariate analysis, surgical extirpation did not improve survival (47 months vs. 76 months, P < 0.001), while radiation treatment improved median survival (77 months vs. 59 months, P < 0.001). Multivariate analysis revealed increasing age and male gender as independent predictors of decreased overall survival. Tumor location also was a significant predictor of outcome. Large B-cell lymphoma type PGIL had a poorer prognosis than marginal zone B-cell lymphoma. By multivariate analysis, surgery was not found to increase the risk of death (HR = 0.99).",
"General prophylactic enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes in the case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma seems to be unnecessary.",
"To evaluate failures and to investigate the need for prophylactic inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in case of whole abdominal irradiation in gastrointestinal lymphoma. In October 1992 a prospective study on primary gastrointestinal lymphoma was initiated to evaluate management strategies. Treatment consisted either of conservative management comprehending radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy or radio-/chemotherapy sequential to primary surgery, depending on the physician's decision. Until November 1996, 382 patients were enrolled. Out of them we analyzed 92 patients who received a whole abdominal irradiation, in 21 cases with prophylactic inclusion, in 71 cases without inclusion of inguinal lymph nodes. After a median follow-up time of 36 months in 92 patients with whole abdominal irradiation 9 patients developed relapse of gastrointestinal lymphoma (8 local failures, 1 distant failure). In these cases the analysis of radiation therapy shows low tumor doses or small field sizes. No significant difference in the relapse rates is shown between the 21 patients with inclusion of the inguinal lymph nodes in the abdominal radiation fields (3 recurrences approximately equal to 14.3%) and the 71 patients without enclosure of the inguinal lymph nodes (6 recurrences approximately equal to 8.5%)."
] | 475 |
Loco-regional block in ophthalmic surgery: single drug or drug combination with hyaluronidase? | [
"The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia.",
"Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects."
] | [
"IVRA with lidocaine and with the inclusion of ketorolac and dexamethasone provides effective perioperative analgesia for patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery, when compared to the use of lidocaine alone or lidocaine with ketorolac IVRA.",
"Arthroscopic shoulder surgery is often associated with severe postoperative pain. The results concerning subacromial bursa blockade (SUB) as a method of pain relief have been contradictory. We hypothesized that a SUB and interscalene brachial plexus block (ISB) would similarly reduce early postoperative pain and the need for oxycodone as compared to placebo (PLA). Forty-five patients scheduled for arthroscopic shoulder surgery were enrolled in this randomised, prospective study. The ISB and SUB blockades were performed with 15 ml of ropivacaine (5 mg/ml). In the PLA group, 15 ml of 0.9% saline was injected into the subacromial bursa. All patients received general anaesthesia. The mean intravenously patient-controlled delivered oxycodone consumption during the first 6 h was significantly lower in the ISB group (6 mg) than in the SUB group (24.1 mg; P=0.001) or in the PLA group (27 mg; P<0.001). No significant differences were detected between the SUB and PLA groups (P=0.791). The postoperative pain scores during the first 4 h at rest and during the first 6 h on movement were significantly lower in the ISB group than in the SUB and PLA groups.",
"We did not find clinical studies of the alkalization of ropivacaine in the literature. The objectives of this study were: (1) to determine the quantity of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO(3)), which alkalinizes 0.75% ropivacaine (with and without adrenaline); (2) to verify the physico-chemical alterations arising from this alkalization; and (3) to determine whether alkalinized ropivacaine produces a higher-quality epidural block measured via sensory-motor onset, block spread and anesthesia duration. It was determined in the laboratory that 0.012 and 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3), respectively, alkalinized 10 mL of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions without and with adrenaline (1:200,000). In the second phase, the study was random and double-blind and involved 60 patients divided into 3 groups of 20 (G1, G2, and G3). Via epidural lumbar blocks, these groups received, respectively, 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.5 mL of 0.9% NaCl (solution A), 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine plus 0.0012 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution B), and 10 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine (with adrenaline) plus 0.015 mEq of NaHCO(3) (solution C). The pH, PCO(2) (partial CO(2) pressure), and the nonionized fractions of the 0.75% ropivacaine solutions were compared before and after the addition of 0.9% NaCl or NaHCO(3) or adrenaline plus NaHCO(3). The motor and sensory onsets, block spread, and the duration of the block were evaluated. The values of the pH, PCO(2), and nonionized fractions increased significantly in solutions B and C in relation to solution A. No differences among the groups were observed in relation to block spread and sensory-motor onset. The duration of the sensory blocks was significantly greater in the patients in groups G2 and G3.",
"To compare the lateral pre-iliac approach to the lumbar plexus combined with lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve block, and the dorsal paravertebral approach to the lumbar plexus combined with sciatic nerve block in dogs. Retrospective examination of case records of dogs that received the blocks and underwent pelvic limb orthopaedic surgery between 2010 and 2012. Success rate (intraoperative fentanyl consumption <2·1 µg/kg/hour), type and dose of local anaesthetic used, multiple of minimum alveolar concentration of volatile anaesthetic agent administered, incidence of intraoperative hypotension, postoperative methadone administration, postoperative contralateral limb paralysis and neurological complication at 6 weeks re-examination were analysed. Ninety-six and 95 records were retrieved in which lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve were used, respectively. Success rates were 82·3% in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve and 74·7% in dorsal paravertebral - sciatic nerve groups. Bupivacaine, levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were used. Total local anaesthetic doses, intraoperative hypotension and postoperative methadone administered were similar between groups; minimum alveolar concentration multiple was significantly (P<0·001) lower in lateral pre-iliac - lumbar paravertebral sciatic nerve group. No neurological complications were noted.",
"yes. We successfully performed repeated psoas compartment blocks with a local anesthetic and subsequently with added opioids, which produced substantial pain relief, especially after the addition of opioids.",
"yes. S I t after topical anesthesia with 0.5% proparacaine hydrochloride eye drops is more objective and reliable than that without anesthesia in reflecting the status of DE, and its diagnostic value in patients with ADDE was even higher, making itself a meaningful evidence for the diagnosis and treatment of DE.",
"For laparoscopic pyloromyotomy in term infants using propofol, sevoflurane and no intraoperative opioid, succinylcholine may be the best neuromuscular blocking drug choice, provided no contraindication is present. However, based on the small difference in time to transport, rocuronium as administered herein may be a reasonable alternative preferred by some clinicians.",
"Primary cleft lip repair is performed in infants under 1 year of age. The efficacy of an infraorbital nerve block vs intravenous fentanyl was compared in our prospective, randomized controlled trial. Forty-six infants scheduled for primary cleft lip repair were prospectively randomized to one of two groups: group F that received 2 mcg x kg(-1) of fentanyl intravenously and an infraorbital nerve block with 0.5 ml on each side of preservative-free normal saline, and, group B that received bilateral infraorbital nerve blocks with 0.5 ml on each side of 0.25% bupivacaine and 2 ml of preservative-free saline solution intravenously after induction of anesthesia but prior to surgical incision. Patients were observed by a blinded observer for (i) pain scores using neonatal infant pain score; (ii) need for rescue medication in the anesthesia care unit (PACU), in the short stay unit (SSU) and at home and (iii) feeding parameters including difficulty in feeding, time to first feeding and volume of feeds in the PACU, SSU and at home. There were no significant differences in pain scores between the two groups over time (P = 0.98); there were no differences between groups in the number of rescue medications in the PACU, in the SSU as well as at home; however, the time to first rescue medication was greater in the block group compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.07). There were no significant differences in feeding volumes between groups in the PACU (P = 0.46), SSU (P = 0.57) and at home (P = 0.15). There were no differences in time to initiate feeding between the two groups (P = 0.81). However, there was difficulty with feeding in the block groups compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.01).",
"To examine if ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block could reduce the need for post-Cesarean delivery morphine analgesia and thus reduce the incidence of opioid related adverse-effects. A multi-level technique for performing the nerve block with bupivacaine was developed and then utilized in this two-part study. Part one was a retrospective assessment of Cesarean delivery patients with and without ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric blocks to determine if the technique reduced patient controlled analgesia morphine use and thus would warrant further study. The second phase was a randomized double-blind placebo-controlled trial to compare post-Cesarean morphine use and the appearance of opioid-related side effects between the anesthetic and placebo-injected groups. Both phases demonstrated that our method of ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block significantly reduced the amount of iv morphine used by patients during the 24 hr following Cesarean delivery. In the retrospective assessment, morphine use was 49 +/- 30 mg in the block group vs 79 +/- 25 mg in the no block group (P = 0.0063). For the prospective trial, patients who received nerve blocks with bupivacaine had a similar result, self-administering 48 +/- 27 mg of morphine over 24 hr compared to 67 +/- 28 mg administered by patients who received infiltrations of saline. However, despite the significant decrease in morphine use, there was no reduction in opioid-related adverse effects: the incidences of nausea were 41% and 46% (P = 0.70) and for itching were 79% and 63% (P = 0.25) in the placebo and nerve block groups, respectively.",
"The authors assess the effect of warming local anesthetic solutions on pain of injection and on bulbar akinesia and analgesia of retrobulbar anesthesia (RBA). Seventy patients undergoing RBA for cataract surgery were enrolled in a prospective, double-blind trial. They were allocated randomly to receive 5 ml either warm (37 degrees C) or cold (20 degrees C) anesthetic solution for RBA. Additionally, O'Brien's method was used to create an akinesia of the orbicularis oculi muscle. The following data were collected before and 20 minutes after retrobulbar injection: pain of injection, eye motility (Kestenbaum test), and corneal sensitivity (0: no sensitivity; 1: sensitivity remaining) at four different sites. The pain of injection was registered using an ordinal analogous scale before and immediately after the injection. Furthermore, data acquisition included any possible side effects and the bulbar length, measured with ultrasound. The score for injection pain (4.5 +/- 2.3 points), horizontal eye motility (0.2 +/- 0.8 mm), vertical eye motility (0.9 +/- 2.1 mm) all were lower for the warm group in comparison to the cold group (average pain score: 5.2 +/- 2.6 points; horizontal eye motility: 0.7 +/- 1.6 mm; vertical eye motility: 1.2 +/- 2.0 mm). Two patients in the warm group and four patients in the cold group had remaining corneal sensitivity. None of the differences were significant.",
"yes. Local analgesia infiltration and abdominal nerve blocks as adjuncts to regional analgesia and general anaesthesia are of benefit in caesarean section by reducing opioid consumption. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs as an adjuvant may confer additional pain relief.",
"Management of postoperative pain following repair of pectus excavatum has traditionally included thoracic epidural analgesia, narcotics, and benzodiazepines. We hypothesized that the use of intercostal or paravertebral regional blocks could result in decreased inpatient length of stay (LOS). We conducted a retrospective cohort study of 137 patients (118 Nuss and 19 Ravitch - Nuss and Ravitch patients were analyzed separately) who underwent surgical repair of pectus excavatum with pain management via epidural, intercostal, or paravertebral analgesia from January 2009-December 2012. Measured outcomes included LOS, pain scores, benzodiazepine/narcotic requirements, emesis, professional fees, hospital cost, and total cost. In the Nuss patients, LOS was significantly reduced in the paravertebral group (p<0.005) and the intercostal group (p<0.005) compared to the epidural group, but was paradoxically countered by a nonsignificant increase in total cost (p=0.09). While benzodiazepine doses/day was not increased in the paravertebral group (p=0.08), an increase was seen in narcotic use (p<0.005). Despite increased narcotic use, no differences were seen in emesis between epidural and paravertebral use. Compared to epidural, pain scores were higher for both intercostal and paravertebral on day one (p<0.005), but equivalent for paravertebral on day three (p=0.62). The Ravitch group was too small for detailed independent statistical analysis but followed the same overall trend seen in the Nuss patients.",
"Adequate neuromuscular block is required throughout laryngeal microsurgery. We hypothesized that the surgical conditions would improve under a deeper level of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular block. Seventy-two patients undergoing laryngeal microsurgery were randomly allocated to either the 'post-tetanic counts 1-2' (PTC1-2) group or the 'train-of-four counts 1-2' (TOFcount1-2) group according to the level of neuromuscular block used. Two different doses of rocuronium (1.2 or 0.5 mg kg(-1)) were used after anaesthetic induction, and two respective targets of neuromuscular block (post-tetanic counts ≤2 or train-of-four count of 1 or 2) were used. Surgical conditions were assessed by the surgeon using a five-point rating scale (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal), and clinically acceptable surgical conditions were defined as those which were rated acceptable, good, or optimal. The occurrence of vocal cord movement and postoperative adverse events was assessed. The surgical conditions were significantly different between the PTC1-2 and TOFcount1-2 groups (extremely poor/poor/acceptable/good/optimal: 0/2/1/7/26 and 3/10/2/14/7, respectively, P<0.001). The incidence of clinically acceptable surgical conditions was significantly higher in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (94 vs 64%, P=0.003). The percentage of patients who exhibited vocal cord movement was significantly lower in the PTC1-2 group than in the TOFcount1-2 group (3 vs 39%, P<0.001). The incidence of postoperative adverse events was not significantly different except for the less frequent occurrence of mouth dryness in the PTC1-2 group (P=0.035).",
"Epidural lidocaine can be used when regional anesthesia needs to be established quickly, but the effect of co-administering epidural fentanyl on the minimum local analgesic concentration (MLAC) of lidocaine is not known. We compared the MLAC of epidural lidocaine in combination with different doses of fentanyl for epidural anesthesia in adults. One hundred and twenty patients requiring epidural analgesia were randomly allocated to receive 20 ml of one of four solutions: lidocaine, or lidocaine plus fentanyl 1 µg/ml, 2 µg/ml, or 3 µg/ml. The first patient in each group was administered 1% lidocaine weight by volume; subsequent patients received a concentration determined by the response of the previous patient to a higher or lower concentration according to up and down sequential allocation in 0.1% increments. Efficacy was assessed using a visual analog pain scale, and accepted if this was = 10 mm on a 100 mm scale within 30 minutes. The extent of motor block and of nausea and vomiting were recorded at 30 minutes after administration of the epidural solution and two hours after surgery, respectively. The MLAC of lidocaine in those receiving lidocaine alone was 0.785% (95%CI 0.738 - 0.864). A significant dose-dependent reduction was observed with the addition of fentanyl: the MLAC of lidocaine with fentanyl at 2 µg/ml was 0.596% (95%CI 0.537 - 0.660) and 0.387% with fentanyl at 3 µg/ml (95%CI 0.329 - 0.446, P < 0.001).",
"yes. Treatment with nepafenac ophthalmic suspension 0.1% significantly reduced postoperative pain compared with placebo after pterygium surgery.",
"Intraarticular (IA) local anesthetics are often used for the management and prevention of pain after arthroscopic knee surgery. Recently, IA tramadol was also used for the management of these patients. However, the IA combination of local anesthetic and tramadol has not been evaluated in arthroscopic outpatients. Our primary aim in this study was to evaluate the analgesic effect of an IA combination of bupivacaine and tramadol when compared with each drug alone using visual analog scale (VAS) pain scores in patients undergoing day-care arthroscopic knee surgery. Additionally, we assessed analgesic demand. Ninety ASA I/II patients undergoing arthroscopic partial meniscectomy, performed by a single surgeon under general anesthesia, were assigned in a randomized, double-blind manner into three groups: group B (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine, group T (n = 30) received 100 mg tramadol, and group BT (n = 30) received 0.25% bupivacaine and 100 mg tramadol to a total volume of 20 mL by the IA route after surgery. Postoperative pain scores were measured on a VAS, at rest and on mobilization at 0.5, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 24 h. Duration of analgesia, the subsequent 24 h consumption of rescue analgesia, time to ambulation, and time to discharge were evaluated. In addition, the systemic side effects of the IA injected drugs were also assessed. The results showed significantly lower VAS pain scores in group BT (P << 0.1) when compared with groups T and B. Group BT had a later onset of postsurgical pain and longer time to first rescue analgesic than groups B and T. The 24 h consumption of analgesic was significantly less in group BT when compared with the other two groups (26.7% of the patients required rescue analgesia in group BT, whereas this number was 90% in group B and 86.7% in group T). In addition, time in hours to discharge and time to unassisted ambulation were significantly shorter in group BT when compared with groups T and B, and this was not associated with any detectable systemic effects.",
"This prospective, double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study was designed to determine the efficacy of dexmedetomidine compared with lidocaine in reducing the pain of propofol and rocuronium injection pain. One hundred and fifty patients, scheduled for elective surgery with general anaesthesia, were divided into five groups: saline (Group 1), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) (Group 2), lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 3), dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.25 mg kg(-1) (Group 4) or dexmedetomidine 0.25 microg kg(-1) plus lidocaine 0.5 mg kg(-1) (Group 5) were administered at a rate of 0.5 mL s(-1) after tourniquet application. The occlusion was released after 1 min and 5 mL of propofol was injected over 20 s. Pain was evaluated by use of a 10-point verbal analogue scale. Then, the rest of the induction dose of propofol, 3 mL of saline bolus and 0.6 mg kg(-1) of rocuronium, was injected. The response to injection of rocuronium was assessed with a four-point scale (0-3). Groups 1 and 2 were found to have higher propofol injection pain scores than Groups 3, 4 and 5 (P<0.05). When the study groups were compared according to the overall incidence of withdrawal movements due to rocuronium (1 response) in Groups 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, they were different (86.7%, 60%, 36.7%, 50% and 40%, respectively) (P<0.05). Except Group 1, there was no significant difference between the groups according to incidence of withdrawal movement after rocuronium injection (P = 0.325).",
"Multimodal analgesia can improve perioperative analgesia but knowledge of combination protocols is still incomplete. This study was designed to evaluate whether the combination of sciatic nerve blockade (SNB) and intravenous alfentanil (IVA) is more effective than either single treatment in relieving postoperative pain in rats. In a plantar incision model, withdrawal thresholds were evaluated by von Frey test before incision as baselines and for 7 days after incision. The animals were randomly allocated into various groups to receive SNB with 1% or 2% lidocaine, IVA of 50 or 150 μg/kg, or combined treatments (SNB 1% + 50 μg/kg IVA or SNB 2% + 150 μg/kg IVA) before incision. The results were compared with those of sham procedures--i.e., injections of peri-sciatic or intravenous saline, or a combination of both. Plantar incision caused postoperative allodynia for 3 days. SNB with 2% lidocaine reduced allodynia at 1 hour, 3 hours, day 1, and day 2, but not at postoperative 5 hours or days 3-7, whereas 150 μg/kg IVA produced short analgesia for only 3 hours after surgery. Neither low-dose SNB nor low-dose IVA had a significant effect. When high-dose SNB and high-dose IVA were combined, a strong antiallodynic effect was shown in an additive manner. No synergism was evidently displayed by the combination.",
"yes. Inguinal paravascular block with parasacral sciatic nerve block led to a much higher incidence of obturator nerve motor block when compared to the inguinal paravascular block with posterior sciatic nerve block during knee arthroscopies.",
"We studied three different injection techniques of sciatic nerve block in terms of block onset time and efficacy with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 75 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly allocated to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic posterior approach (group classic; n = 25), a modified subgluteus posterior approach (group subgluteus; n = 25), or a lateral popliteal approach (group popliteal; n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator (stimulation frequency, 2 Hz; intensity, 2-0.5 mA) and 30 mL of 0.75% ropivacaine. Onset of nerve block was defined as complete loss of pinprick sensation in the sciatic nerve distribution with concomitant inability to perform plantar or dorsal flexion of the foot. In the three groups, an appropriate sciatic stimulation was elicited at <0.5 mA. The failure rate was similar in the three groups (group popliteal: 4% versus group classic: 4% versus group subgluteus: 8%). The onset of nerve block was slower in group popliteal (25 +/- 5 min) compared with group classic (16 +/- 4 min) and group subgluteus (17 +/- 4 min; P < 0.001). There was no significant difference in the onset of nerve block between group classic and group subgluteus. No differences in the degree of pain measured at the first postoperative administration of pain medication were observed among the three groups. We conclude that the three approaches resulted in clinically acceptable anesthesia in the distribution of the sciatic nerve. The subgluteus and classic posterior approaches generated a significantly faster onset of anesthesia than the lateral popliteal approach.",
"To investigate the sensory block onset time, duration time, and side effects of adding dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine for cervical plexus block. Forty American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Class I or II adult patients who were scheduled to undergo thyroid surgery were randomly allocated to the following groups to receive cervical plexus block: 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with 1 μg kg(-1) of dexmedetomidine; 30 mL of 0.375% ropivacaine combined with saline (control). The sensory block onset time, duration of analgesia, mean arterial pressure (MAP), heart rate (HR), and the incidences of side effects, such as hypotension, bradycardia, and hypoxemia were recorded. The addition of dexmedetomidine to ropivacaine (Group D) shortened the sensory block onset time compared with the ropivacaine group (Group C) (95% confidence interval [CI] 4.18-5.26; p < 0.05). The duration of analgesia of cervical plexus block in Group D was significantly longer than that in Group C (95% CI 295.96-311.12; p < 0.05). The Ramsay sedation score at 5, 10, 20, 40, 60, 90, and 120 minutes after local anesthetic administration in Group D was significantly higher than that in Group C (p < 0.05). MAP level and HR level in Group D were significantly lower than that in Group C (p < 0.05).",
"yes. The present study showed that the group of patients who received transtracheal block with lidocaine had a reduction in the requirement of the induction agent, propofol, and were more stable hemodynamically in the intraoperative period compared to those patients who did not receive transtracheal lidocaine. We conclude that transtracheal injection of lidocaine performed just prior to induction of general anesthesia is an effective alternative to intraoperative propofol infusion when long-acting muscle relaxants are to be avoided.",
"Endoscopic sinus surgery (ESS) is a common procedure preferably done with an anesthetic technique ensuring effective postoperative analgesia while speeding discharge home. Although anesthesia administered locally in conjunction with vasoconstricting agents is known to minimize intraoperative bleeding, its usefulness in providing postoperative analgesia has not been well characterized. The results supporting the use of regional anesthesia for sinus surgery have also been limited. Using a randomized, double-blinded and placebo-controlled design, we evaluated recovery times, opioid consumption, and nausea and vomiting after ESS when patients were randomized to either general anesthesia (GA) alone or with regional blockade. Subjects were 70 adults scheduled for sinus surgery. All participants underwent propofol/remifentanil/nitrous oxide anesthesia and similar intraoperative care. Patients received either GA alone or with sphenopalatine ganglion (SPG) blocks in a double-masked study design. Independent observers recorded readiness for discharge, incidence of nausea/vomiting, and pain scores every 15 minutes until discharge. Overall opioid use in the recovery area was also a secondary end point. Twenty-four hours later, patients were called and asked to rate their pain and overall satisfaction with their pain control. Block group participants were considered ready for discharge after 45 minutes and discharged from the hospital ∼40 minutes sooner than GA group participants. The block group required less total fentanyl in the recovery room than did the GA group. The incidences of nausea and vomiting did not differ significantly. Data at 24 hours postoperatively did not differ significantly between groups but trended toward increased satisfaction in the block group. No lasting adverse events were observed.",
"We hypothesized that without the analgesic effects of volatile anesthetics, caudal 0.20% ropivacaine would be less effective during surgical stimulation than 0.20% bupivacaine or 0.20% levobupivacaine. This trial was designed to examine whether the combination of a caudal block with 0.20% ropivacaine and i.v. anesthesia resulted in reduced analgesic efficacy during surgery compared with caudal 0.20% levobupivacaine or 0.20% bupivacaine in children. Ninety ASA I-II children between 1 and 7 years old, scheduled for inguinal hernia repair or orchidopexy under propofol anesthesia were randomized to receive a caudal block with 1 ml x kg(-1) of 0.2% bupivacaine, 0.2% ropivacaine or 0.2% levobupivacaine. The primary outcome measure of the study was the clinical efficacy of the caudal block during surgery. Secondary outcome measures were postoperative pain relief and residual motor blockade. Four children were excluded and 86 were analyzed. The proportion of children with effective caudal block during surgery was significantly higher in children receiving levobupivacaine (26/28) or bupivacaine (27/29) compared with patients receiving ropivacaine (21/29) (P = 0.03). There were no significant differences among groups in the analgesic onset time (P = 0.1), incidence of residual motor blockade (P = 0.4), number of patients requiring analgesia after operation or in the time from caudal injection to the first administration of analgesic medication (P = 0.3).",
"Regional anesthesia and analgesia for shoulder surgery is most commonly performed via interscalene nerve block. We developed an ultrasound-guided technique that specifically targets the C5 nerve root proximal to the traditional interscalene block and assessed its efficacy for shoulder analgesia. Prospective case series. Vanderbilt Bone and Joint Surgery Center. Patients undergoing shoulder arthroscopy at an ambulatory surgery center. Thirty-five outpatient shoulder arthroscopy patients underwent an analgesic nerve block using a new technique where ultrasound visualization of the C5 nerve root served as the primary target at a level proximal to the traditional interscalene approach. The block was performed with 15mL of 0.5% plain ropivicaine. Post anesthesia care unit pain scores, opioid consumption, hand strength, and duration of block were recorded. Cadaver dissection after injection with methylene blue confirmed that the primary target under ultrasound visualization was the C5 nerve root. Pain scores revealed 97% patients had 0/10 pain at arrival to PACU, with 91% having a pain score of 3/10 or less at discharge from PACU. Medical Research Council (MRC) hand strength mean (SD) score was 4.17 (0.92) on a scale of 1-5. The mean (SD) duration of the block was 13.9 (3.5) hours.",
"yes. Using a preincisional retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine with adrenaline, BS-11 pain scores remained low with no or minimal additional analgesia for up to 4 hours post surgery. In combination with oral analgesia, effective pain control was provided in most cases for up to 8 hours post block.",
"yes. Greater palatine nerve block with a combination of dexmedetomidine and bupivacaine increased the duration of analgesia after repair of a cleft palate by 50% with no clinically relevant side effects.",
"yes. Regional anesthesia for pain after ACL repair in pediatric patients facilitated reliable same-day surgery discharge and significantly reduced UHAs. Single-shot blocks and blocks performed outside the OR were the most cost-effective. In addition, nerve block patients required less opioids and were ready for discharge sooner.",
"To evaluate the adequacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only in vitreoretinal surgery. The study involved 90 patients, 25 who underwent 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy and 65 who underwent 20-gauge standard pars plana vitrectomy. Twenty-five of the 90 patients also underwent combined phacoemulsification and posterior intraocular lens implantation. The efficacy of retrobulbar block anesthesia only was assessed by monitoring vital signs during surgery, reviewing patient responses to a questionnaire regarding their experience during surgery, and analyzing surgical outcomes. Four patients complained of moderate pain during surgery, but no patient complained of severe pain. Infiltrative anesthesia was additionally required in 14 patients. No patient experienced intraoperative complications due to head movement. Increased systolic blood pressure greater than 15 mm Hg occurred in 11 patients and increased respiratory rate by 3 breaths per minute or greater occurred in 7 patients. Anatomical and functional success rates were 95% and 80%, respectively. Complications included manageable retrobulbar bleeding (1 patient) and postoperative neovascular glaucoma (2 patients).",
"Intraocular pressure is increased during laparoscopic surgeries performed in a steep Trendelenburg position. This study compared the effects of propofol with those of sevoflurane on intraocular pressure in patients undergoing robot-assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy in a 30° Trendelenburg position. Sixty-six patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil and sevoflurane (Sevoflurane Group) or remifentanil and propofol (Propofol Group). Intraocular pressure (IOP) was measured at nine predefined time points, including baseline (T0), five minutes after establishing pneumoperitoneum (T2), 30 min after establishing the Trendelenburg position with pneumoperitoneum (T3), five minutes after returning to the horizontal position (T4), and immediately after tracheal extubation (T6). The primary outcome was the change in intraocular pressure from T0 to T3. The results of linear mixed model analysis showed that intraocular pressure differed between the two groups (P = 0.0039). At T3, the mean (SD) IOP was greater in the Sevoflurane Group [23.5 (4.3) mmHg] than in the Propofol Group [19.9 (3.8) mmHg] (P = 0.0019). At T2 and T6, IOP was also greater in the Sevoflurane Group than in the Propofol Group (P = 0.038 and P = 0.009, respectively). There was a statistically significant increase in intraocular pressure from baseline to T3 (pneumoperitoneum and steep Trendelenberg) in the Sevoflurane Group [6.0 (5.0) mmHg; P < 0.001] but not in the Propofol Group [2.1 (5.1) mmHg; P = 0.136]. None of the patients experienced ocular complications.",
"To compare preservative-free 1% lignocaine with balanced salt solution (BSS) in alleviating pain during hydrodissection in phacoemulsification cataract surgery. West Norwich Hospital, Norfolk, United Kingdom. This prospective double-masked trial comprised 68 patients having day-case phacoemulsification cataract surgery. Patients were randomly divided into 2 groups, receiving either BSS or lignocaine 1% solution for hydrodissection during routine uneventful phacoemulsification using topical anesthesia. The level of intraoperative pain was scored on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (severe pain), and the scores between the 2 groups were compared. Of the 68 patients, 33 (49%) received BSS and 35 (51%), lignocaine 1% solution. A pain score greater than 2 was considered clinically significant; 28 patients (85%) in the BSS group and 25 (71%) in the lignocaine 1% group scored 2 or less. The chi-square and Mann-Whitney tests found no significant difference between the BSS and lignocaine 1% groups (P = .30 and P = .432, respectively).",
"Several peripheral nerve block techniques (PNB) are performed for hand surgery. Their tolerance by patients or their efficacy are poorly described. We evaluated them for blocks at the wrist and at the brachial canal. Cohort of outpatients undergoing open carpal tunnel release under PNB with arm tourniquet. Various anaesthetic protocols existed in our staff. The primary end points were a moderate to severe pain (greater than 3/10 on a numerical rating scale) felt during needle puncture, nerve stimulation, mepivacaine injection, at the surgical site (intraoperatively) or at the arm tourniquet, an intraoperative lidocaine supplementation, the occurrence of vasovagal events. For each primary end point, a logistic regression analyzed: the effects of gender, age, operated side, Emla(®)application, sedation before PNB (midazolam-sufentanil), wrist or brachial canal approach, musculocutaneous or radial block were using. Between January 2007 and June 2010, 551 consecutive patients were analyzed. Puncture pain, mepivacaine injection pain, pain tourniquet and vasovagal events were associated with wrist block (P=0.003, relative risk=1.86; P<0.001, RR=4.22; P<0.001, RR=4.52; P=0.035, RR=6.40). An intraoperative pain greater than 3/10 at the surgical site, or a supplementation by the surgeon were associated with the absence of musculocutaneous block (P=0.013, RR=2.44; P=0.013, RR=2.51).",
"yes. Results of the study showed that the combination of 75 µg fentanyl and 1.5% lidocaine solution accelerated the onset of sensory and motor blockade during interscalene anesthesia.",
"Caudal analgesia is commonly employed to provide excellent intra- and postoperative analgesia for primary hypospadias repair in children. Several additives to local anesthetics are commonly employed to increase the block duration, although these have uncertain benefits. This study investigated whether, in caudal analgesia with levobupivacaine 0.25%, the addition of S (+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both agents combined, would prolong postoperative analgesia in patients undergoing primary hypospadias repair. We conducted a retrospective chart analysis for all patients who underwent hypospadias repair with caudal analgesia over a consecutive 3-period at this institution. The study examined four patient groups, classified according to the analgesia used: No additive, levobupivacaine aloneLevobupivacaine and S (+)-ketamineLevobupivacaine and clonidineLevobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidinePRIMARY OUTCOME MEASURES WERE AS FOLLOWS: time to the first postoperative request for analgesia, total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia, and time to hospital discharge. The 87 patients included had a mean ± SD age of 21.4 ± 13.5 months and weight of 11.9 ± 2.4 kg. The median doses of levobupivacaine, S (+)-ketamine, and clonidine were 0.7 mg/kg (range, 0.4-1.3), 0.5 mg/kg (0.2-1.1), and 1.8 μg/kg (0.8-2.3), respectively. The addition of S(+)-ketamine, clonidine, or both did not increase the time to first oral analgesia request. Neither did it reduce the total first 24-hour postoperative analgesia requirements or alter hospital discharge time. However, the additive drugs in combination did increase postoperative sedation.",
"yes. Ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block with IV dexketoprofen increases patient satisfaction by decreasing opioid consumption, increasing patient satisfaction, which suggests that dexketoprofen trometamol is an effective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesic in postoperative analgesia.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of preemptive analgesia in surgical repair of retinal detachment (RD) using scleral buckle and cryopexy under general anesthesia. Thirty patients who were scheduled for rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair using scleral buckle and cryopexy and who were American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status I, II, or III were included in this study. The patients were randomly divided into two equal groups. The surgery was done under general anesthesia in both groups, but in Group 2, sub-Tenon anesthesia was given as preemptive analgesia after induction anesthesia and before start of surgery. Both groups were statistically comparable as regards patient age and weight and duration of anesthesia and surgery. The incidences of intraoperative oculocardiac reflex and postoperative vomiting were significantly lower in Group 2 compared with Group 1 (P<0.001 and 0.0113, respectively). The time of first postoperative analgesic dose was significantly shorter in Group 1 (46.67 +/- 18.84 minutes) compared with Group 2 (162.67 +/- 29.391 minutes) (P<0.001). The total analgesic consumption per 24 hours was significantly higher in Group 1 compared with Group 2 (P<0.001). The time of discharge from the hospital was significantly shorter in Group 2 (8.8 +/- 2.704 hours) compared with Group 1 (12.4 +/- 3.481 hours) (P = 0.0018).",
"To compare the quality of pain relief and incidence of side effects between 24-hr postoperative continuous epidural infusion (CEI) and subsequent patient-controlled epidural analgesia (PCEA) with different analgesics after major abdominal surgery. Twenty-eight women undergoing extended gynecological tumour surgery received postoperative CEI with 0.15 mL x kg(-1) x hr(-1) 0.2% ropivacaine (R: n = 14) or 0.125% bupivacaine plus 0.5 micro g x mL(-1) sufentanil (BS: n = 14) during 24 postoperative hours. Twenty-four hours later, postoperative pain management was switched to PCEA without background infusion and 5 mL single bolus application of R or BS every 20 min at most. Visual analogue scales (VAS; 1-100 mm) were assessed by patients at rest and on coughing after 24 hr of CEI and PCEA. Side effects, doses of local anesthetics and opioids were recorded and plasma concentrations of total and unbound ropivacaine and bupivacaine were measured. Patients required lower doses of each respective analgesic medication with PCEA (R: 108 +/- 30 mL; BS: 110 +/- 28 mL) than with CEI (R: 234 +/- 40; BS: 260 +/- 45; P < 0.01). Ropivacaine plasma concentrations were lower 24 hr after PCEA when compared with CEI (P < 0.01). No patient after PCEA but two after CEI (n = 4; NS) presented motor block. PCEA with R provided better postoperative pain relief than CEI (37 +/- 32 vs 59+/-27, P < 0.05). No difference in parenteral opioid rescue medication between CEI and PCEA was seen.",
"This multicentre, double-blind, placebo-controlled study compared the opioid-sparing effectiveness and clinical safety of parecoxib sodium over 48 h, in 195 postoperative patients after routine total knee replacement surgery. Elective total primary knee arthroplasty was performed under spinal anaesthesia, with a single dose of spinal bupivacaine 10-20 mg, and intraoperative sedation with midazolam 0.5-1.0 mg i.v., or propofol <6 mg kg(-1)h(-1). Patients were randomized to receive either parecoxib sodium 20 mg twice daily (bd) i.v. (n=65), parecoxib sodium 40 mg bd i.v. (n=67), or placebo (n=63) at the completion of surgery, and after 12, 24, and 36 h. Morphine (1-2 mg) was taken by patient-controlled analgesia or by bolus doses after 30 min. Patients receiving parecoxib sodium 20 mg bd and 40 mg bd consumed 15.6% and 27.8% less morphine at 24 h than patients taking placebo (both P<0.05). Both doses of parecoxib sodium administered with morphine provided significantly greater pain relief than morphine alone from 6 h (P<0.05). A global evaluation of study medication demonstrated a greater level of satisfaction among patients taking parecoxib sodium than those taking placebo. Parecoxib sodium administered in combination with morphine was well tolerated. However, a reduction in opioid-type side-effects was not demonstrated in the parecoxib sodium groups.",
"yes. Vitreoretinal surgery, particularly 25-gauge transconjunctival sutureless vitrectomy, can be safely and efficiently performed under retrobulbar block anesthesia only. Retrobulbar block anesthesia only could become a more acceptable anesthesia for vitreoretinal surgery for selected patients.",
"Evidence indicating that single- and double-injection techniques for inducing a sciatic nerve block via a posterior subgluteal approach yield a similar success rate prompted us to investigate whether the two anesthetic techniques yield a similar success rate via a lateral approach. We also hypothesized that, owing to the peculiar anatomic features of the sciatic nerve at the popliteal level, a single injection via the lateral approach might induce effective anesthesia by targeting the tibial nerve only. Ninety-six patients undergoing popliteal sciatic nerve block via a lateral popliteal approach for foot surgery were randomized to receive a single 30-ml injection of ropivacaine 7.5 mg/ml to block the tibial nerve (TN group, n= 32) or the common peroneal nerve (CPN group, n= 32), or two separate 15-ml injections (TN + CPN group, n= 32), after stimulation to evoke motor responses from the target nerves. The mean time to obtain a complete sensory blockade (surgical anesthesia) was shorter in the TN group than in the CPN and TN + CPN groups (14 +/- 7 min vs. 23 +/- 17 and 21 +/- 14 min, respectively; P < 0.05). The success rate was similar in the TN and TN + CPN groups (94%) and, 25 min after the initial injection, was already better in these groups than in the CPN group (94% vs. 75%; P < 0.05).",
"no. Use of sub-Tenon block does not decrease the incidence of postoperative pain significantly in children undergoing squint surgery. However, it leads to a statistically significant decrease in the incidence of intraoperative OCR and PONV in the early recovery period in these patients.",
"Effective pain management is an important component of aesthetic procedures. To compare the pain relief and safety of large-gel particle hyaluronic acid (HA) plus 0.3% lidocaine (LGP-HA+L) with that of LGP-HA without lidocaine during correction of nasolabial folds (NLFs) and to assess filler safety in different skin types. Sixty subjects were enrolled in a randomized, double-blind, split-face study of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L for NLF correction. Subjects assessed pain on a 100-mm visual analog scale (VAS). The primary objective was to demonstrate that more than 50% of subjects experienced pain relief with LGP-HA+L, defined as a within-subject VAS difference of at least 10 mm at the end of injection. LGP-HA+L resulted in pain relief in 57 (95.0%, 95% confidence interval=86.1-99.0) subjects at the end of injection. The mean within-subject VAS difference was 34.4 mm. Injection-related adverse events occurred at similar frequencies with both products. Slightly higher adverse event rates were observed with Fitzpatrick skin type IV for both compounds. The safety profiles of LGP-HA and LGP-HA+L were similar to each other in all skin types.",
"yes. Multimodal anesthesia is associated with less postoperative pain and shorter LOS compared to epidural or traditional anesthetic techniques for the Nuss procedure. Multimodal anesthesia with a single intraoperative dose of methadone was associated with lowest total opioid use, time with uncontrolled pain, and shortest LOS.",
"This double-blinded, randomized clinical trial was designed to evaluate intraocular pressure (IOP) change in cataract surgery using the combination of propofol and remifentanil or the combination of isoflurane and remifentanil. One hundred sixty patients were randomly allocated to a maintenance anesthetic consisting of remifentanil + isoflurane (group I), normal saline + isoflurane (group II), propofol + remifentanil (group III) or normal saline + propofol (group IV). IOP was measured at seven predefined time points, baseline (T0), 3 min after the start of continuous remifentanil infusion (T2), after induction of anesthesia (T3), immediately after laryngoscopy and intubation (T4), 5 min after laryngoscopy (T5), immediately after the block of continuous remifentanil infusion (T6) and 3 min after T6 (T7). Outcomes included IOP, systole blood pressure (SBP) and diastole blood pressure (DBP), mean arterial pressure (MAP) and heart rate (HR). The mean of IOP in Group III was lower than other groups and in group IV was higher than other groups. At time point T4 and T5 differences in the mean of IOP between groups III and IV was significantly different (P > 0.05). The trend in changes in the mean of IOP was statistically significant among groups (P value = 0.01). The trends in changes in the mean of SBP, DBP and MAP were not significantly different among groups (P value = 0.41). HR in group III was significantly lower than other groups. The trend in changes in the mean of HR was significantly different among groups (P value = 0.002).",
"The inability to provide effective postoperative analgesia is one of the major disadvantages of intravenous regional anesthesia (IVRA). We designed a prospective, randomized, double blind study to evaluate the analgesic effectiveness of adding both ketorolac and dexamethasone to lidocaine for IVRA. The study involved 45 patients undergoing ambulatory hand surgery. They were randomly allocated into three groups: Group L, Group LK and Group LDK. Group L received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine; Group LK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine + 30 mg ketorolac; and Group LDK received 3 mg x kg-1 lidocaine for IVRA + 8 mg dexamethasone + 30 mg ketorolac for IVRA using a 40 mL solution. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were recorded. Tourniquet pain and pain at the operative site were assessed by a visual analog scale. In the first 24 h after surgery, opioid requirements and total analgesic consumption, including side effects, were noted. Sensory and motor block onset and recovery times were similar in all groups. Patients in Groups LK and LDK required less alfentanyl for control of intraoperative and early postoperative pain. Further, patients in Groups LK and LDK reported significantly lower pain scores compared to those in Group L (P<0.001). Patients in Groups LK and LDK required fewer postoperative ketorolac tablets (2.2+/-1.6 and 1.3+/-0.6 tablets, respectively) in the first 24 h after surgery and had significantly longer periods during which they required no analgesics (524 min and 566 min, respectively) compared to those in Group L (3.8+/-1.3 tablets; 122 min, P<0.001).",
"In this study, our aim was to evaluate the effects of intravenous dexketoprofen trometamol with ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerve block on analgesic quality and morphine consumption after total abdominal hysterectomy operations. We conducted this randomized controlled clinical study on 61 patients. The study was conducted in the operation room, post-anesthesia care unit, and inpatient clinic. We randomly grouped the 61 patients into control group (group C), block group (group B) and dexketoprofen-block group (group DB). Before the skin incision performed after anesthesia induction, we performed ilioinguinal iliohypogastric block (group C given saline and group P and DB given levobupivacaine). In contrast to group C and B, group DB was given dexketoprofen. We administered morphine analgesia to all patients by patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) during the postoperative 24 hours. We recorded Visual Analogue Scale (VAS), satisfaction scores, morphine consumption and side effects during postoperative 24 hours. We found the DB group's VAS scores to be lower than the control group and block group's (p < 0.05) values at postoperative 1(st), 2(nd), 6(th) and 12(th) hours. VAS scores of group C were higher than of group B at postoperative first 2 hours. Time to first PCA demand was longer, morphine consumption values were lower and satisfaction scores were higher in group DB than in the other two groups (p < 0.05).",
"The results of the present study suggest that intravenous sedation preoperatively seems to be an important determinant to relieve the sensation of discomfort/pain during small incision cataract surgery, but intracameral lidocaine was shown not to have a clinically useful role.",
"The aim of this study is to compare the effects of parasacral and posterior Winnie approaches when combined with the inguinal paravascular approach for lumbar plexus block. After the approval of the Ethics Committee, 40 patients scheduled to undergo arthroscopic knee surgery were enrolled. The patients were randomly assigned into two groups in a double-blind manner to perform sciatic nerve block either by the parasacral technique (Group I) or by the posterior approach (Group II). The obturator nerve motor block success rate was found to be 80% (16/20) in Group I, whereas it was 10% (2/20) in Group II (p<0.05).",
"Pediatric strabismus surgery is associated with a very high incidence of postoperative nausea and vomiting [(PONV) 44-88%]. Droperidol (10-75 microg kg(-1)) and ondansetron (50-150 microg kg(-1)) have shown variable success in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV. Combination of these two drugs has shown promising results. This randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the efficacy and safety of the combination of these two drugs in reducing the incidence and severity of PONV in pediatric strabismus surgery. After institutional approval and parental informed consent, 240 children of ASA physical status I and II of either sex, aged 1-15 years were included in this study. None of the children received any premedication and a standardized anesthesia technique was used for all the children. They were prospectively randomized to one of the four treatment groups. Group PP received normal saline placebo intravenously after induction and at the end of the procedure. Group DP received droperidol 25 microg kg(-1) after induction and normal saline at the end. Group OP received ondansetron 150 microg kg(-1) after induction and saline at the end. Group DO received droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) after induction and ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1) at the end. Combination prophylaxis resulted in a lower incidence of PONV (13%) as compared to placebo (62.5%, P<0.001), ondansetron (37%, P<0.001), or droperidol (32%, P<0.01).",
"Injection pain is a well-known adverse effect of propofol which distresses patients. Lidocaine pretreatment is the most popular method for reducing this pain but this drug cannot entirely eliminate the problem. The purpose of this study was to examine the analgesic effect of lidocaine/metoclopramide combination, compared with lidocaine alone, during propofol injection. In a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial, 90 patients, 40 males and 50 females, scheduled for elective plastic surgery received either lidocaine 20 mg plus metoclopramide 10 mg iv, lidocaine 20 mg iv, or placebo (saline); (n = 30 in each), with venous occlusion for one minute, followed by administration of propofol 0.5 mg.kg(-1) into a dorsal hand vein. Pain was assessed on a four-point scale (0 = none, 1 = mild, 2 = moderate, 3 = severe) during propofol injection. 25 patients (83%) complained of pain in the placebo group, compared with 12 (40%) in the lidocaine group (P < 0.05) and three (10%) in the combination group (P < 0.05). Pain score (median) was less in the lidocaine (0) and combination (0) groups than in the placebo group (2); (P < 0.05). The difference in the incidence of pain between the combination and lidocaine groups was significant (P < 0.05).",
"yes. These results indicate that olopatadine ophthalmic solutions appear to exert additional SP release inhibition besides dual-action such as selective histamine H1 receptor antagonistic action and mast cell stabilization action.",
"The aim of the study was to compare visual estimation of onset of neuromuscular blockade at both the adductor pollicis (AP) and the orbicularis oculi (OO) in children and to determine if monitoring the OO could predict good intubating conditions during vecuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade. Thirty ASAI--II children (1.5-9 yr) were studied. Anaesthesia was induced with 6-8 mg.kg-1 thiopentone. The ulnar nerve at the wrist and the temporal branch of the facial nerve were stimulated every 10 sec using train-of-four (TOF) stimuli. Vecuronium, 0.15 mg.kg-1, was administered as a bolus. The responses at both the OO and the AP were evaluated visually. Patients were randomly divided into two groups. In the AP group (n = 15), the trachea was intubated when the AP was completely blocked. In the OO group (n = 15), intubation was performed when the OO was completely blocked. Intubating conditions were scored on a scale of 1 to 4. All the patients had complete blockade at both the orbicularis oculi and the adductor pollicis. In the two group, time from injection of vecuronium to complete neuromuscular blockade was shorter at the orbicularis oculi than at the adductor pollicis, 1.5 +/- 0.5 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.7 min, respectively, (P < 0.05; mean +/- SD) in the AP group, 1.7 +/- 0.3 min vs 2.3 +/- 0.8 min, respectively in the OO group (P < 0.05). Intubating conditions were excellent in all patient except one, where it was rated as good. They did not differ between groups.",
"Intrarectal lidocaine gel instillation before periprostatic neurovascular bundle block produces a significant additional analgesic effect during biopsy. The procedure is simple, safe and rapid, and it should be considered in all patients undergoing transrectal ultrasound guided prostate biopsy.",
"yes. A multi-level ilioinguinal-iliohypogastric nerve block technique can reduce the amount of systemic morphine required to control post-Cesarean delivery pain but this reduction was not associated with a reduction of opioid related adverse effects in our study group.",
"This pilot study, the first of its type, was conducted to determine the clinical outcome of glaucoma drainage implant (GDI) surgery supplemented with injectable crosslinked hyaluronic acid (HA) in patients with severe glaucoma. This was a retrospective chart study involving 10 eyes of 10 patients with severe glaucoma (glaucomatous visual field loss worse than -20 dB) who had previously undergone GDI surgery supplemented with crosslinked HA with a 2-year follow-up. Surgical success was defined as intraocular pressure (IOP) <21 mm Hg with a reduction of ≥40% (definition A) or ≥50% (definition B) from baseline IOP on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, IOP >5 mm Hg on 2 consecutive follow-up visits, and neither reoperation of glaucoma nor loss of light perception vision. The mean ± SD baseline IOP before GDI was 38.5 ± 10.7 mm Hg, and the mean IOP at the last follow-up visit was 13.0 ± 5.0 mm Hg, with a mean pressure drop of 24.4 ± 10.9 mm Hg (62%; p = 0.005). According to definition A, life-table analysis showed an overall success rate of 80%, while according to definition B, the success rate was 50% after 24 months of follow-up. Complications were infrequent and not serious. No complications resulting from the reticulated HA therapy itself were observed.",
"yes. Hyaluronidase increases the duration of mepivacaine in inferior alveolar nerve blocks.",
"yes. A single intravenous dexamethasone dose when combined with caudal block reduces postoperative pain, decreases paracetamol requirement and prolongs analgesic duration in children after open herniotomy.",
"For peripheral nerve blockade, the double-injection technique proved to be superior to a single injection in previous investigations. The current study was designed to compare onset time and efficacy of two different double-injection approaches for sciatic nerve block with 0.75% ropivacaine. A total of 50 patients undergoing foot surgery were randomly assigned to receive sciatic nerve blockade by means of the classic (Labat) posterior approach (n = 25) or a lateral popliteal approach (n = 25). All blocks were performed with the use of a nerve stimulator, and both major components of the sciatic nerve (tibial and common peroneal nerves) received separately 10 ml ropivacaine, 0.75%. Success rate was defined as a complete sensory and motor block associated with pain-free surgery. A greater success rate was observed in the classic group (96%) as compared with the popliteal group (68%; P < 0.05). A general anesthetic became necessary in six patients (24%) with the lateral popliteal approach and none with the classic approach (P < 0.05). The onset of complete sensory and motor blockade was significantly faster in the classic group (12 +/- 6 min) as compared with the popliteal group (26 +/- 10 min; P < 0.05).",
"In patients undergoing lung surgery, single intercostal nerve block plus i.v. patient-controlled analgesia with morphine is not as effective as patient-controlled EDA with respect to pain control and restoration of pulmonary function.",
"Current techniques of peripheral nerve block have major limitations, including lack of differentiation between motor and sensory fibers and potential toxicity of local anesthetics. Recent studies have suggested that a nociceptive-selective nerve block can be achieved via a transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 activator (capsaicin) along with local anesthetics. We hypothesized that the combination of potent transient receptor potential vanilloid type 1 agonist resiniferatoxin (RTX) and selected antidepressants (amitriptyline, doxepin, and fluoxetine, also potent sodium channel blockers) would produce prolonged and predominantly sensory nerve block. Rats were anesthetized with isoflurane, and 0.2 mL of amitriptyline, doxepin, or fluoxetine was deposited next to the surgically exposed sciatic nerves (n = 8 per group). Some animals received a second injection containing RTX (n = 8 per group). The effect of nerve block was assessed by neurobehavioral tests of the motor function (extensor postural thrust) and the nocifensive reaction (mechanical pinch). A single application of RTX produced nociceptive-selective sciatic nerve block, whereas antidepressants produced nociceptive and motor block. The combined administration of RTX and antidepressant resulted in a predominantly nociceptive nerve block. Compared with antidepressants or RTX alone, the combination prolonged the nociceptive nerve block more than the motor block.",
"Patient dissatisfaction has been previously associated with motor block in shoulder surgery patients receiving brachial plexus block. For elective minor wrist and hand surgery, we tested whether a regional block accelerating the early return of upper extremity motor function would improve patient satisfaction compared with a long-acting proximal brachial plexus block. A total of 177 patients having elective 'minor' wrist and hand surgery under awake regional block randomly received adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 2% 10 ml+ropivacaine 0.75% 20 ml ('long acting', n=90), or adrenalized infraclavicular lidocaine 1.5% 30 ml+long-acting distal median, radial, and ulnar nerve blocks selected according to the anticipated area of postoperative pain ('short acting', n=87). A blinded observer questioned patients on day 1 for numerically rated (0-10) subjective outcomes. With 95% power, there was no evidence for a 1-point satisfaction shift in the short acting group: satisfaction was similarly high for both groups [median (inter-quartile range)=10 (8-10) vs 10 (8-10), P=0.71], and also demonstrated strong evidence for equivalence [mean difference (95% confidence interval)=-0.18 (-0.70 to 0.35)]. There was no difference between the groups for weakness- or numbness-related dissatisfaction (low for both groups), or for numerically rated or time to first pain. Surgical anaesthesia success was similar between the groups (short acting, 97% vs 93%, P=0.50), although more patients in the short acting group had surgery initiated in ≤25 min (P=0.03).",
"yes. The use of bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block for postoperative analgesia after hysterectomy decreased morphine consumption by one-half during the first two postoperative days without differences in side effects from morphine between groups.",
"Both multiple injection and single posterior cord injection techniques are associated with extensive anesthesia of the upper limb after an infraclavicular coracoid block (ICB). The main objective of this study was to directly compare the efficacy of both techniques in terms of the rates of completely anesthetizing cutaneous nerves below the elbow. Seventy patients undergoing surgery at or below the elbow were randomly assigned to receive an ICB after the elicitation of either a single radial nerve-type response (Radial group) or of two different main nerve-type responses of the upper limb, except for the radial nerve (Dual group). Forty milliliters of 1.5% mepivacaine was given in a single or a dual dose, according to group assignment. The sensory block was assessed in each of the cutaneous nerves at 10, 20 and 30 min. Block performance times and the rates of complete anesthesia below the elbow were also noted. Higher rates of sensory block of the radial nerve were found in the Radial group at 10, 20 and 30 min (P<0.05). The rates of sensory block of the ulnar nerve at 30 min were 97% and 75% in the Radial and in the Dual groups, respectively (P<0.05). The rate of complete anesthesia below the elbow was also higher in the Radial group at 30 min (P<0.05).",
"There is controversy about the effectiveness of perineural clonidine used as an adjuvant to local anesthetics. This study investigated whether the addition of 150 μg clonidine to 0.5% levobupivacaine used for posterior sciatic nerve block would prolong the duration of analgesia. This double-blind, prospective trial compared the analgesic characteristics of 20 mL plain levobupivacaine versus 20 mL levobupivacaine 0.5% plus 150 μg clonidine in a posterior sciatic nerve block (Labat approach) for foot and ankle surgery. Sixty patients were randomized and allocated to receive either levobupivacaine alone or levobupivacaine plus clonidine, to find a 30% prolongation of analgesia with the adjuvant, using the same SD. The onset and duration of the block (time from completion of block administration to first morphine request), the hemodynamic changes during surgery, the need for rescue analgesia, and technical or neurologic complications were assessed over a 24-hour period. The onset of sensory block (in minutes) was similar in the levobupivacaine and levobupivacaine plus clonidine groups (10 [5-20] vs 10 [5-23] minutes, median [interquartile range], respectively), as was the time to first request of pain medication (1215 [920-1530] vs 1275 [1067-1360] minutes, respectively). However, during surgery, statistically significantly more subjects in the levobupivacaine plus clonidine group than the levobupivacaine group experienced a decrease of more than 20% in systolic arterial pressure (50% vs 28% of patients, respectively; P < 0.028). No complications were noted in either group over 24 hours.",
"The aim of this review is to provide an overview of the drugs and techniques used for multimodal postoperative pain management in the older population undergoing surgery in the ambulatory setting. Interest has grown in the possibility of adding adjuncts to a single shot nerve block in order to prolong the local anesthetic effect. The rapid and short-acting local anesthetics for spinal anesthesia are potentially beneficial for day-case surgery in the older population because of shorter duration of the motor block, faster recovery, and less transient neurologic symptoms. Another recent advance is the introduction of intravenous acetaminophen, which can rapidly achieve rapid peak plasma concentration (<15 min) following infusion and analgesic effect in ∼5 min with a duration of action up to 4 h.",
"yes. Ephedrine combined with either bupivacaine or lidocaine acted synergistically to block motor function and has the potential to reduce the amount of local anesthetic needed for spinal block. The synergistic effect of ephedrine in combination with local anesthetics is an interesting pharmacological phenomenon that warrants further clinical evaluation.",
"In isolated nerves, tetrodotoxin (TTX) blocks nerve conduction longer than bupivacaine. In vivo, however, both substances block nerve conduction to an equal duration, presumably because the hydrophilic TTX binds only weakly to the perineural tissue. High molecular weight hyaluronic acid (HA) prolongs the action of local anaesthetics several-fold. We tested whether admixture of HA enhances the binding of TTX to the perineural tissue and thus induces an ultra-long conduction block after a single application. In 12 anaesthetized rabbits, the minimal blocking concentrations of TTX, TTX and HA (TTX/HA) and bupivacaine with HA (bupivacaine/HA) were determined by blocking the natural spike activity of the aortic nerve. In 18 other animals, equipotent concentrations of either TTX, TTX/HA or TTX/bupivacaine/HA were applied topically to the aortic nerve. After disappearance of the spike activity, the wound was closed to simulate the clinical situation of a single shot nerve block. The time until recovery of spike activity was determined. The nerves were examined for signs of neurotoxicity 24 h after the application of the drugs. Data are presented as means +/- SD and compared by ANOVA and Student's t-test for unpaired data. The conduction block by TTX/bupivacaine/HA (10.1 +/- 1.9 h) or TTX/HA (9.3 +/- 1.0 h) was significantly longer than that of plain TTX (7.9 +/- 1.0 h). Neurotoxicity was not observed.",
"yes. Both tertiary amine local anesthetics and their quaternary ammonium derivatives can elicit a predominantly sensory/nociceptor selective block when followed by injection of capsaicin. The combined application of transient receptor potential vanilloid 1 channel agonists and various local anesthetics or their quaternary ammonium derivatives is an appealing strategy to achieve a long-lasting differential block in regional analgesia.",
"To investigate the therapeutic effects of a local ice compress in alleviating eyelid swelling and errhysis and providing relief from pain after surgery. Eyelid swelling and pain are the most common postoperative symptoms after scleral buckling surgery. A local ice compress can reduce the severity of swelling, errhysis and pain after acute injury as well as after surgery. A retrospective study. A total of 100 patients who had undergone scleral buckling surgery for retinal detachment were classified into an ice compress group or a control group. All patients received standard postoperative medical care: a 1% Tropicamide ophthalmic solution (Minims The severity of swelling, pain and errhysis in the operated eyes was significantly lower in the ice compress group.",
"We performed a prospective audit of the level of postoperative pain experienced by patients following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant after preincisional regional retrobulbar anaesthesia using bupivacaine 0.75% with 1:100,000 adrenaline. An 11-point numerical ranking box scale was used to measure the subjective experience of postoperative pain following enucleation with insertion of a primary orbital implant in 40 patients with uveal melanoma. Surgery was performed under general anaesthesia with a supplementary peroperative retrobulbar injection of bupivacaine 0.75%/adrenaline 1:100,000. Pain scores were measured for the first 8 hours following administration of the block. The sample included 19 female and 21 male patients with a mean age of 66.7 years (31-87). At four hours post block, 80% were still pain free with 17% experiencing only mild to moderate pain (BS-11 = 1-4). Thirty-four (85%), twenty-eight (70%) and twenty-seven (67%) patients remained pain free at 2, 3 and 4 hours, respectively with no additional analgesia. The remainder scored BS-11 of 1-4 in 92% of cases. Twenty percent required supplementary analgesia (paracetemol in 78% cases) by 5 hours and 57% by 8 hours. BS-11 at 8 hours were 0 in 50%, 1-4 in 22% and 5-10 in 10% of patients (17% asleep). No complications using this technique were recorded.",
"Beyond the analgesia provided by the regional anesthesia of the ilioinguinal and field blocks, the preoperative use of ketorolac further reduced postoperative pain scores and the need for additional postoperative analgesic medication. Comparable outcomes for the i.v., i.m. and i.w. groups indicate the lack of any benefit to concentrating the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug at the wound (i.w.) or to achieving high blood levels rapidly (i.v.). In conclusion, ketorolac is a useful supplement to ilioinguinal plus field block regional anesthesia for hernia surgery and is most effective administered parenterally.",
"Inguinal herniorrhaphy (IH) is a common outpatient procedure, yet postoperative pain and anesthetic side effects remain a problem. Paravertebral somatic nerve blocks (PVB) have the potential to offer unilateral abdominal wall anesthesia and long-lasting pain relief with minimal side effects. We compared PVB with peripheral neural blocks for outpatient IH. Forty-six patients scheduled for IH were entered into this prospective, single-blind study. All patients underwent a standardized general anesthetic. Patients were randomly assigned to receive a PVB (levels T10-L2) preoperatively (n = 24) or an intraoperative peripheral block (PB) by the surgeon (n = 22), using 0.5% ropivacaine (40 mL). Opioid use, verbal analog pain scores, and side effects were documented for 72 hours. The use of opioids during surgery was less for the PVB group 162 +/- 70 mg than the PB group, 210 +/- 60 (P =.02). Need for opioids in PACU was less for the PVB group (39%) than the PB group (61%) (P =.002). Time until first pain after discharge was not different between groups, 312 +/- 446 minutes (PB) and 425 +/- 384 minutes (PVB) (P =.12). Of the PVB patients, 29% used no opioids at all compared with 18% of PB patients (P =.12). Mean time until first oxycodone use was similar between groups, 303 +/- 469 minutes (PB) and 295 +/- 225 minutes (PVB) (P =.18). Oxycodone use was also similar; 35 +/- 34 mg (PVB) versus 49 +/- 42 mg (PB) (P =.30). More patients in the PB group (50%) required antiemetic treatment in the postanesthesia care unit than the PVB group (21%) (P <.001). Side effects were similar at all other measurements.",
"Dexmedetomidine can prolong the duration of local anesthetics, but the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on the potency of ropivacaine for retrobulbar block has not been investigated. Our study was designed to determine the effect of retrobulbar dexmedetomidine on ropivacaine for retrobulbar block in children. A group of 90 children aged 10-16 years scheduled for vitreoretinal surgery who received retrobulbar block were randomly assigned to 1 of 3 groups: group L (retrobulbar ropivacaine), group LD1 (ropivacaine plus 0.5 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine), or group LD2 (ropivacaine plus 1 µg.kg-1 dexmedetomidine). The minimum local anesthetic concentration (MLAC) was determined according to a Dixon-Massey protocol. The primary endpoint of the study was MLAC. Secondary outcomes were duration of postoperative analgesia, postoperative pain scores, dexmedetomidine side effects, and time to hospital discharge. The MLAC values of retrobulbar ropivacaine were 0.314%, 0.259%, and 0.246% in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively. The median (interquartile range) durations of analgesia in the postoperative period were 66 (54-117), 89 (40-157), and 168 (120-194) minutes in groups L, LD1, and LD2, respectively (L vs LD1 or LD2, p<0.05). Wake-up time was significantly increased in groups LD1 and LD2.",
"Retrobulbar injection can be associated with significant pain, due to both needle insertion and deposition of the local anaesthetic solution. The local anaesthetic cream EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) which contains a mixture of lignocaine and prilocaine has been shown to reduce the pain associated with skin puncture. The efficacy of EMLA in alleviating the pain of retrobulbar injection for cataract surgery was assessed in this study. In this, randomised double-blind study, EMLA (n = 53) or lignocaine 5% ointment (n = 50) was administered to the inferior orbital margin at least 45 min before retrobulbar block in 103 patients. Pain assessed during retrobulbar block was marked subjectively by the patient on a 10-point numerical rating scale. Median verbal pain scores were 3.0 with an interquartile range of 1.5-6.5 in the control group and 3.50 with an interquartile range of 2.0-6.0 in the EMLA(R) group (P = 0.67). There was no significant difference between the EMLA group and the lignocaine ointment group according to this pain assessment.",
"yes. A single bolus of i.v. ketamine 1 or 2 mg/kg for anesthetic induction results in a lower incidence of OCR than propofol when combined with sevoflurane for maintenance in children undergoing strabismus surgery.",
"Both methods of anaesthesia are appropriate, but phacoemulsification with TA is more painful than with RBA. In hypertonic patients and younger patients who are more susceptible to pain, TA should be avoided or used in combination with individualized sedation.",
"Ropivacaine appears attractive for epidural analgesia because it produces less motor block than racemic bupivacaine. The potential benefits of levobupivacaine with regard to motor blockade require further investigations. In this study, we compared the efficacy, dose requirements, side effects, and motor block observed with epidural levobupivacaine and ropivacaine when given in combination with small-dose morphine for 60 h after major abdominal surgery. Postoperatively, 50 patients were randomly allocated, in a double-blinded manner, to patient-controlled epidural analgesia with the same settings and without basal infusion, using 0.1% levobupivacaine or 0.1% ropivacaine. Both were combined with an epidural infusion of 0.1 mg/h morphine. Pain scores, side effects, motor block, and local anesthetic consumption were measured for 60 h. Pain scores measured on a 100-mm visual analog scale were approximately 20 mm at rest and 40 mm during mobilization in both groups. Bromage scores were 1 for all patients after the fourth postoperative hour. Consumption of levobupivacaine and ropivacaine were similar: 344 +/- 178 mg levobupivacaine versus 347 +/- 199 mg ropivacaine 48 h postoperatively. On postoperative day 2, 19 patients in the ropivacaine group versus 12 in the levobupivacaine group were able to ambulate (P < 0.05). No difference was noted concerning incidence of side effects. We conclude that when used as patient-controlled epidural analgesia and combined with small-dose epidural morphine, 0.1% levobupivacaine and 0.1% ropivacaine produce comparable postoperative analgesia with a similar incidence of side effects.",
"Regional anesthesia represents the most suitable anesthesia technique in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification. Only in 8% of patients MAC was suitable, due to excessive anxiety or cardiovascular imbalance. Compared to other anesthesia techniques, regional anaesthesia is significantly safer. The utility of preoperative tests in reducing the morbidity associated with surgery, is also discussed.",
"yes. This prospective, randomized, double-blinded study demonstrated that, when providing combined sciatic-femoral nerve block for hallux valgus repair, the addition of 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine prolongs the duration of postoperative analgesia by 3 h, with only a slight and short-lived increase in the degree of sedation and no hemodynamic adverse effects.",
"yes. The combination ADG for preoperative preparation of cataract patients achieves at least equivalent dilation and corneal anaesthesia as the current preoperative pharmacologic regimen.",
"To assess the analgesic and side effects of the continuous epidural infusion of 0.2% ropivacaine combined with morphine compared to both drugs alone. In this study, both observers and patients were blinded to patient group assignment. Sixty patients scheduled to undergo lower abdominal surgery were enrolled. Patients were randomized to one of three postoperative treatment groups: 1) combination group (a combination of 0.2% ropivacaine and 0.003% morphine); 2) morphine group (0.003% morphine); or 3) ropivacaine group (0.2% ropivacaine). Postoperatively, all solutions were administered epidurally at a rate of 6 mL.hr(-1) for 24 hr. Patients were given iv flurbiprofen as a supplemental analgesic on demand. The combination group showed lower visual analogue scale scores than those of patients receiving either drug alone, both at rest and on coughing. The combination group showed a slight motor block at two hours after the continuous epidural infusion, while the ropivacaine and morphine groups did not show any motor block. The incidence of itching was significantly increased in the morphine and combination groups, compared to the ropivacaine group. There was no significant difference between the numbers of patients with nausea in the three groups. No hypotension or respiratory complications were observed in the three groups.",
"Unilateral spinal anesthesia is performed to provide restriction of sensory and motor block. The aim of this study was to compare unilateral and bilateral spinal anesthesia, with regard to limiting the nerve block exclusively to the area of surgery. This was a prospective, randomised, double-blind study, conducted in 40 consecutive outpatients scheduled for unilateral inguinal regional surgery. Patients in both groups received 0.5% hyperbaric bupivacaine 15 mg + morphine 0.1 mg. Patients in the unilateral group (Group U) were placed in the lateral decubitus position for 10 minutes (min) on their side to be operated, while patients in the bilateral group (Group B) were placed in the supine position. The pin-prick test was used to assess the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 sensory blocks and the times to reach motor block. In addition, the sensory and motor block recovery times were recorded using a modified Bromage scale. Furthermore, the duration of the operation and the times to first analgesic requirement were noted. There were significant differences between Group U and Group B in the times to reach L1, T12 and T10 dermatome levels of sensory block, and the times to reach motor block using the modified Bromage scale on three levels. However, there was no difference in the time to ambulation, the time to complete sensory regression and the time to first analgesic requirement.",
"To evaluate the efficacy of a combination anaesthetic plus dilating gel (ADG) on pupil dilation (PD) and corneal anaesthesia (KA) compared to traditional preoperative pharmacotherapy for cataract surgery. Prospective, noninferiority study. We studied 20 consenting adults who experienced unilateral cataracts and underwent routine cataract surgery, receiving the traditional preoperative pharmacologic regimen in the operated eye (control eye): diclofenac 0.1%, gentamicin 0.3%, cyclopentolate 1%, phenylephrine 2.5%, and tropicamide 1% 60 and 20 minutes prior to surgery. They then received tetracaine 0.5% and povidone-iodine 5% 10 minutes prior to surgery; and were given tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and lidocaine 2% gel 1 minute prior to surgery. Epinephrine 0.1%, 1 cc per 500 mL bag of balanced saline salt solution was administered during surgery. The nonoperated eye (study eye) received tetracaine 0.5%, povidone-iodine 5%, and 0.35 cc ADG gel (phenylephrine 10%, tropicamide 1%, diclofenac 0.1%, and lidocaine 2%) 60 and 10 minutes prior to surgery. PD and KA were measured at baseline, at 30 minutes, and at 5 minutes prior to surgery, and at 5 minutes after surgery. There was no difference in PD (p = 0.2634) or KA (p = 0.6058) between the study eyes and the control eyes at baseline. Preoperatively, greater mydriasis was achieved in the study eye (7.95 ± 0.91 mm vs 7.17 ± 1.25 mm; p < 0.0001). There was no significant difference in preoperative KA between the study and control eyes (1.5 ± 2.2 mm vs 1.4 ± 2.1 mm; p = 0.77).",
"Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have become a popular component of analgesia regimens, particularly in combination with narcotics. We questioned whether there might also be a place for their use in conjunction with regional anesthesia and whether there was a preferable route for NSAID administration. Ilioinguinal and field blocks were performed preoperatively on seventy patients undergoing outpatient inguinal hernia repair. Patients were divided into a control group who received no ketorolac and four study groups who received a preoperative dose of 30 mg ketorolac by one of the following routes: i.v., i.m., p.o., or intrawound (i.w.). The ketorolac in the i.w group was mixed in the syringe with the local anesthetic used for the field block. i.v. and i.m. groups also received ketorolac at the time of the preoperative regional anesthesia and the PO group received the dose at least one hour preoperatively. All patients received a similar general anesthetic intraoperatively. Postoperative pain scores and analgesic requirements were lowest for the i.m., i.v., and i.w. groups. Pain scores and analgesic requirements for the PO group were less than for the control group but more than for the other three groups. Analgesic efficacy therefore ranked: i.m. = i.v. = i.w.>p.o.>control. Though no differences were found between groups in the time to discharge from the recovery room, the ease of nursing care paralleled the findings for pain scores and analgesia requirements.",
"yes. Hyaluronidase permits a significant 2.4-fold (95% CI, 1.8-3.4) reduction in MLAV for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia.",
"no. We conclude, therefore, that for carpal tunnel operation under iv regional anesthesia, the combination of tramadol and lidocaine is not more effective than lidocaine alone.",
"To evaluate the effects of adding small-dose clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine during peripheral nerve blocks, 30 ASA physical status I and II patients undergoing hallux valgus repair under combined sciatic-femoral nerve block were randomly allocated in a double-blinded fashion to receive block placement with 30 mL of either 0.75% ropivacaine alone (group Ropivacaine, n = 15) or 0.75% ropivacaine plus 1 microg/kg clonidine (group Ropivacaine-Clonidine, n = 15). Hemodynamic variables, oxygen saturation, and levels of sedation, as well as the time required to achieve surgical block and time to first analgesic request, were recorded by a blinded observer. Time to surgical blockade required 10 min in both groups. Patients in the Ropivacaine-Clonidine group were more sedated than patients in the Ropivacaine group only 10 min after block placement. No differences in oxygen saturation and hemodynamic variables, degree of pain measured at first analgesic request, and consumption of postoperative analgesics were observed between the two groups. The mean time from block placement to first request for pain medication was shorter in group Ropivacaine (13.7 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 11. 8-14.5 h) than in group Ropivacaine-Clonidine (16.8 h; 25th-75th percentiles: 13.5-17.8 h) (P = 0.038). We conclude that adding 1 microg/kg clonidine to 0.75% ropivacaine provided a 3-h delay in first request for pain medication after hallux valgus repair, with no clinically relevant side effects.",
"To determine whether irrigation of the sub-Tenon's space with anesthetic agents during pars plana vitrectomy (PPV) involving general anesthesia decreases postoperative pain, analgesic use, or nausea. A prospective, controlled trial of 46 consecutive patients requesting general anesthesia for PPV who were randomized to receive or not receive a sub-Tenon's space injection prior to surgery. A mixture of 3 mL of 2% lidocaine with hyaluronidase and 3 mL of 0.5% bupivacaine was used to induce local blockade. Pain, postoperative nausea, and analgesia use were evaluated. Local blockade did not significantly alter the proportion of reported pain at 30 minutes and 2, 4, and 24 hours after the operation. The local blockade had no effect on reducing postoperative nausea or the number of patients requiring pain medication.",
"yes. Droperidol 15 microg kg(-1) in combination with ondansetron 100 microg kg(-1), administered at the induction and end of the operative procedure respectively, is more effective than either drug given individually in reducing the incidence of PONV after strabismus surgery.",
"We compared the effects of sub-Tenon's local anaesthetic block and placebo on peri-operative opioid requirement and cardiovascular stability and on postoperative pain, nausea and vomiting in patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia. We studied 43 patients undergoing vitreo-retinal surgery under general anaesthesia in a randomized double blind study. Patients received a standard general anaesthetic followed by a sub-Tenon's injection of 4-5 mL of either bupivacaine 0.75% or saline. We recorded intraoperative invasive arterial pressure, then the incidence and severity of pain and of nausea and vomiting, for 24 h postoperatively. In the sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group, there was a significant reduction in the perioperative opioid use and a reduction in the frequency of bradycardia and hypertensive episodes, defined as a rise > 25% of baseline for a duration of > 3 min. The sub-Tenon's bupivacaine group also had significantly lower pain scores and nausea scores at 12 h, concomitant with a lower consumption of analgesia and antiemetics.",
"The use of sub-Tenon block as preemptive analgesia after induction of general anesthesia and before the start of rhegmatogenous RD surgical repair was effective in reducing postoperative pain and analgesic requirements compared with an unblocked group. The use of sub-Tenon block was also effective in reducing intraoperative incidence of oculocardiac reflex and postoperative incidence of vomiting.",
"To evaluate the duration of the effect of mepivacaine when hyaluronidase is injected immediately prior to the end of pulpal anesthesia. Forty bilateral, symmetrical third molar surgeries were performed in 20 healthy patients. Inferior alveolar nerve block was induced using 2.8 mL 2% mepivacaine with epinephrine. Hyaluronidase (75 turbidity-reducing units) or a placebo was injected 40 minutes after the beginning of pulpar anesthesia (randomized and double-blind trial). The duration of effect in the pulpal and gingival tissues was evaluated by response to painful electrical stimuli applied to the adjacent premolar, and by mechanical stimuli (pin prick) to the vestibular gingiva, respectively. In both tissues, the duration of anesthetic effect with hyaluronidase was longer (P < .01) than with the placebo.",
"Bilateral ilioinguinal nerve block may be useful to control postoperative pain in gynecologic surgery, especially hysterectomy. In a prospective, randomized, double-blind study, we compared the combination of ropivacaine and clonidine (block group) versus saline (control group). The main objective of this study was to compare the total dose of morphine required during the first two postoperative days. All patients received antiemetic prophylaxis and multimodal IV analgesia. Seventy patients were randomized. The total morphine consumption during the first two postoperative days was decreased by 51% in the block group compared with the control group (21 +/- 9 mg vs 41 +/- 24 mg, P < 0.0001). This difference was not only due to morphine titration, but remained significant over the following 2 days. The course of the visual analog scale was equivalent between the two groups. No difference was observed in the side effects of morphine.",
"Retrospective study in patients undergoing cataract surgery by facoemulsification in order to evaluate the incidence of regional peribulbar anaesthesia compared with MAC (Monitored Anesthesia Care). Between January 1999 and December 2000, 1902 patients were studied. Peribulbar anaesthesia was performed by using a double or single inferior-lateral injection with a mixture of Lidocaine 2% and Bupivacaine 0.5% or, as a single agent, of Ropivacaine 0.75%. Jaluronydase 10 UI/ml was added to either agents. Only in 8% of patients intravenous drugs were added during surgery to correct bradycardia in 3%, hypertension 3% and for sedation in 2%.",
"To investigate whether hyaluronidase (Hyalase) is a useful and justified addition to haematoma block for pain relief. The study was a randomised double blind trial of 33 consecutive patients attending the accident and emergency department for manipulation of distal radius fracture under haematoma block. Control patients received 1% lignocaine; the treatment group received 1% lignocaine plus 1500 IU hyaluronidase. Manipulation occurred 10 minutes after instituting the block. 16 patients received hyaluronidase, 17 received lignocaine only. One patient with unsuccessful manipulation was excluded. There was no significant difference between the two groups for any of three methods of pain assessment (P>0.05, Mann Whitney).",
"Volumes of local anaesthetics for sub-Tenon's anaesthesia vary. Lower volumes produce less akinesia, whereas higher volumes increase chemosis and intra-ocular pressures. Hyaluronidase is often added to local anaesthetics to improve akinesia without increasing the volume of the injection, but this is controversial. This randomized, sequential allocation study examines the addition of hyaluronidase on the minimum local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) required for a sub-Tenon's block. Sixty-two patients having sub-Tenon's blocks for cataract surgery were randomized into two groups. The control group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine and the study group (n=31) received 2% w/v lidocaine with hyaluronidase 15 IU ml(-1). Using parallel up-down sequential allocation from a 4 ml starting volume, the volumes in both groups were changed using a testing interval of 1 ml according to the quality of globe akinesia. The median effective local anaesthetic volume (MLAV) was calculated for both groups using probit regression. The groups were similar for age, sex, and ocular axial length. The MLAV in the hyaluronidase group was 2.6 ml [95% confidence interval (CI), 2.1-3.l] and 6.4 ml (95% CI, 5.1-8.1) in the control group (P<0.002).",
"Local anaesthetics mixture with hyaluronidase associated with peribulbar blockade presents the advantages of rapidity, duration and better quality without the risks of retrobulbar blockade side effects.",
"The aim of this study is the comparison between the use of bupivacaine alone and a mixture of bupivacaine, mepivacaine and hyaluronidase in both retrobulbar and peribulbar blockades for eye surgery. Three hundred ninety-nine consecutive adult patients scheduled for cataract surgery with regional anaesthesia were included in this prospective, randomized and partially blind study. Peribulbar blockade was performed on 199 patients (group P). Ninety-nine of them received a mixture of local anaesthetics and hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine alone (sub-group B). Retrobulbar blockade was performed on 200 patients (group R): 100 of them received the mixture with hyaluronidase (sub-group M), while 100 received bupivacaine (sub-group B). The interval between anaesthesia and motor blockade (onset time), the presence of residual ocular movements, the need of further anaesthesia, the quality of anaesthesia, the ocular tone, the length of anaesthesia and possible complications were registered. Retrobulbar blockade has the only advantage of a shorter onset time, while peribulbar blockade shows a longer anaesthetic effect. Mixture with hyaluronidase (the sub-group M) has a shorter onset time, a lesser need of further anaesthesia, fewer residual ocular movements and a better quality of anaesthesia."
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